Norwich and Peterborough Building Society v Steed (No 2)
[1993] 1 All ER 330
Categories: LAND; Sale of Land
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): PURCHAS, BUTLER-SLOSS AND SCOTT LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 4, 5, 6 FEBRUARY, 5 MARCH 1992
Document – Non est factum – Power of attorney – Donee unaware of power of attorney – Donee tricked into signing transfer of house – Whether plea of non est factum established – Whether transfer of house ultra vires power of attorney.
Land registration – Rectification of register – Circumstances justifying rectification – Registered owner executing power of attorney – Donee of power of attorney tricked into signing transfer of property – Building society granting mortgage on property – Whether court having power to order rectification of register by removal of building society’s charge – Land Registration Act 1925, s 82(1).
The appellant, the freehold owner of a house which was subject to a local authority mortgage, permitted his mother, his sister and her husband to live in the house while he was living in the United States. His sister and her husband persuaded the appellant to execute a power of attorney in favour of his mother, and then either tricked the mother into executing a transfer of the house in their favour under the power of attorney or forged her signature on the transfer, although she subsequently denied that the signature on the transfer was hers or that she knew anything about the power of attorney. On the same day the sister and her
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husband borrowed £15,000 from the respondent building society on the security of the property, supposedly to enable them to purchase it for £24,500 from the appellant. In fact they paid off the local authority charge, amounting to £1,800, and kept the balance. The building society was registered as the holder of a charge on the property. The sister and her husband defaulted on the mortgage repayments and the building society obtained a possession order, which, on appeal by the appellant, who had applied to be joined as a party in the proceedings and sought a stay of the order, was set aside by the Court of Appeal on the ground that, on the assumption that the transfer to the sister and her husband was a forgery, the court had power under s 82(1)a of the Land Registration Act 1925 to rectify the register not only as against the sister and her husband but also as against the building society. The Court of Appeal ordered a new trial to determine the facts regarding the execution of the transfer. The building society then brought an action for possession of the property and the appellant counterclaimed for rectification of the proprietorship register by substituting himself as owner for his sister and her husband and rectification of the charges register by removal of the building society’s charge. Before the trial a handwriting expert concluded that there was a high probability that the mother had signed the transfer and accordingly the forgery allegation was abandoned. However, the appellant claimed that he was entitled to rely (i) on a plea of non est factum on the ground that the mother did not know that she had been appointed attorney and did not know that she was signing a transfer of the property and (ii) on a plea that the transaction fell outside the authority conferred on the mother under the power of attorney. The judge rejected those pleas but concluded that the transfer was not void but merely voidable, by reason of the fraud perpetrated by the sister and her husband, and ordered that the proprietorship register be rectified by the removal of their names and the substitution of the appellant’s name but he refused to order rectification of the charges register by the removal of the building society’s charge. The appellant appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – (1) The plea of non est factum which would render the transfer void against the innocent building society had not been established notwithstanding the fact that the mother had been tricked into signing the transfer since either the mother, as donee of the power of attorney, had possessed sufficient general understanding and capability and had failed to inform herself of the purport and effect of the transfer before signing it or, if she had lacked ordinary competence and capacity, the appellant as donor of the power of attorney was not entitled to repudiate the transfer on the ground of the mother’s lack of understanding. Furthermore, the appellant’s failure to inform his mother of her appointment showed such a want of care as to preclude him from relying on her ignorance of the power in support of his plea of non est factum (see p 339 d to h and p 348 e f; post).
(2) The execution of a transfer on completion of sale fell within the power conferred by the power of attorney. As between the appellant and his sister and her husband, therefore, the transfer was not a nullity but merely voidable and therefore could not be against the building society (see p 340 e to g and p 348 e f; post).
(3) On the true construction of s 82 of the 1925 Act the court’s power to order rectification of the register was limited to the grounds specified in paras (a) to (h) of sub-s (1) and the court had no gneral discretion to grant rectification merely because it might be thought just to do so. Since the appellant’s case for rectification could not be brought under any of the grounds specified in s 82(1) and since his
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plea of non est factum had failed the court had no power to order rectification against the building society. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 343 c, p 345 c, p 347 j and p 348 b to g, post); Argyle Building Society v Hammond (1984) 49 P & CR 148 considered.
Notes
For the plea of non est factum, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 284 and 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1365–1369, and for cases on the subject, see 17 Digest (Reissue) 284–285, 511–517.
For rectification of the land register, see 26 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1054–1058, and for cases on the subject, see 39(1) Digest (Reissue) 155–157, 1629–1641.
For the Land Registration Act 1925, s 82, see 37 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 588.
Cases referred to in judgments
Argyle Building Society v Hammond (1984) 49 P & CR 148, CA.
Calgary and Edmonton Land Co Ltd v Discount Bank (Overseas) Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 551, [1971] 1 WLR 81.
Chowood Ltd v Lyall (No 2) [1930] 2 Ch 156, [1930] All ER Rep 402, CA.
Foster v Mackinnon (1869) LR 4 CP 704.
Hunter v Walters, Curling v Walters, Darnell v Hunter (1871) LR 7 Ch App 75.
King v Smith [1900] 2 Ch 425.
Leighton’s Conveyance, Re [1936] 1 All ER 667; rvsd [1936] 3 All ER 1033, CA.
National Provincial Bank of England v Jackson (1886) 33 ChD 1, CA.
Saunders v Anglia Building Society [1970] 3 All ER 961, [1971] AC 1004, [1970] 3 WLR 1078, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Burchell v Thompson [1920] 2 KB 80, CA.
Doyle v East [1972] 2 All ER 1013, [1972] 1 WLR 1080.
London and Cheshire Insurance Co Ltd v Laplagrene Property Co Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 766, [1971] Ch 499.
Midland Bank Trust Co Ltd v Green [1981] 1 All ER 153, [1981] AC 513, HL.
Appeal
Michael Derek Steed appealed from the decision of Knox J given on 15 December 1989 whereby, inter alia, he granted a declaration that the interest of the respondent, Norwich and Peterborough Building Society, formerly Argyle Building Society, under its first legal charge dated 4 September 1979 took priority to any interest of the appellant in the property, 2 Arlow Road, Winchmore Hill, London N21. The facts are set out in the judgment of Scott LJ.
Timothy Lloyd QC and Stephen Acton (instructed by Chambers Rutland & Crauford) for the appellant.
J Rayner James QC and C H Jones (instructed by Warrens Boyes & Archer, Huntingdon) for the respondent.
5 March 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SCOTT LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Purchas LJ). This is an appeal from the judgment of Knox J given on 15 December 1989. The appeal concerns a freehold property, 2 Arlow Road, Winchmore Hill, London. Title to the property is and has at all material times been registered at HM Land Registry.
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In October 1964 the appellant, Mr Michael Derek Steed, purchased the property for the sum of £3,300. He did so with the aid of a loan from the local authority. The loan was secured by a mortgage of the property. Mr Steed was duly registered at HM Land Registry as the proprietor of the property. The local authority’s mortgage was duly registered in the charges register.
After the purchase the property became the home of Mr Steed and his family. Various members of his family have resided there from time to time. The important ones, for the purpose of these proceedings, are his mother, his sister, Mrs Claire Hammond, and her husband, David Hammond.
In 1976 MrSteed emigrated to California. While he was in California his mother, Mrs Steed, and his sister and brother-in-law, Mr and Mrs Hammond, continued to live in the property. Under an informal family arrangement they paid the mortgage instalments falling due under the local authority mortgage.
On 14 April 1979 Mr Steed executed in California a power of attorney naming his mother, Mrs Steed, as his attorney. The document had been prepared in England by a solicitor, Mr Lawrence, of Messrs W H Hopkins & Co, acting on the instructions of Mrs Hammond. Mrs Hammond had taken the document out to California for Mr Steed to execute. When he had done so she brought it back to England.
The power of attorney gave Mrs Steed power—
‘(1) To buy, sell or exchange lands of any tenure whether by private contract or by public auction for such consideration and subject to such covenants, conditions and restrictions as the Attorney shall think fit … (3) Generally to execute any deed or sign any document which may be required and to do any other act matter or thing which the Attorney shall consider necessary or expedient for carrying out any of the purposes or acts hereby authorised …’
It is accepted that this power of attorney was valid and effective to vest in Mrs Steed power on Mr Steed’s behalf to sell the property and to execute a transfer for that purpose.
There was no evidence that Mrs Steed was ever informed either by Mr Steed or by Mrs Hammond of this power of attorney or of her power to sell the property. There was some evidence that she was in complete ignorance of the power of attorney and of her power of sale.
In August or September 1979 a transfer of the property bearing, or appearing to bear, Mrs Steed’s signature came into existence. The transfer was in the usual Land Registry form and bears the date 4 September 1979. It provided as follows:
‘In consideration of TWENTY-FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED pounds (£24,500) the receipt whereof is hereby acknowledged I MICHAEL DEREK STEED of 2 Arlow Road Winchmore Hill London N21 by his Attorney MARY STEED of 2 Arlow Road aforesaid as beneficial owner hereby transfer to: DAVID HAMMOND and CLAIRE MADELEINE HAMMOND his wife both of 2 Arlow Road Winchmore Hill London N21, the land comprised in the title above mentioned …’
In the testatum the transfer was expressed to be—
‘Signed, sealed and delivered by the said MARY STEED as the Attorney of MICHAEL DEREK STEED and on behalf of the above named MICHAEL DEREK STEED.’
A signature purporting to be that of Mrs Steed appears opposite.
During the summer of 1979 Mr and Mrs Hammond had made arrangements with Argyle Building Society, now known as Norwich and Peterborough Building Society and the respondent on this appeal, to borrow £15,000 on the security of
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the property in order to enable them to purchase the property for £24,500 from Mr Steed. The usual conveyancing arrangements were made between the building society’s solicitors, Messrs Warrens, and the Hammonds’ solicitors, W H Hopkins & Co. These arrangements led in due course to the building society sending the £15,000, less a sum in respect of its conveyancing costs, to W H Hopkins & Co, pending completion of the purchase and mortgage. The Hammonds executed a legal charge of the property in what was, presumably, the building society’s usual form of charge. This document, too, bears the date 4 September 1979. The executed legal charge was sent to Warrens to be held, in escrow, pending completion.
Following completion W H Hopkins & Co released to the Hammonds the balance of the £15,000, after deduction of £1,800-odd needed to discharge the local authority’s registered charge and of a sum in respect of their own costs, and on 17 September 1979 sent to Warrens the transfer, apparently executed by Mrs Steed as attorney for Mr Steed, together with the discharge of the local authority’s charge and various other conveyancing documents.
On 9 October 1979 the building society submitted the transfer, the legal charge and the discharge to the Land Registry for registration. Registration was completed on 17 December 1979. The Hammonds’ names were entered in the proprietorship register as owners of the property in place of Mr Steed. The legal charge in favour of the building society was entered in the charges register. The entry in the charges register relating to the local authority’s charge was deleted.
It subsequently transpired that the conveyancing arrangements I have described were part of a fraudulent scheme of the Hammonds to obtain money for themselves using the property as security. Mr Steed knew nothing of the sale. He received no part of the purported consideration of £24,500 nor any benefit there from save that £1,800 or thereabouts had been expended in discharging his liability under the local authority mortgage.
Mrs Steed, too, insisted that she knew nothing of the sale. She died before the case came to trial but a written statement signed by her on 16 December 1985 was received into evidence under the Civil Evidence Act 1968. In this statement she denied that the signature on the transfer was hers. She said: ‘… I did not sign the Transfer which has been shown to me. The signature on this document is not my signature.’ She denied that she knew anything about the power of attorney. She said: ‘Claire did not show me the power of attorney … nor did she tell me that I had been made Michael’s Attorney.’ It is implicit from her statement that, according to her, Mr Steed, too, had not told her that he had appointed her to be his attorney.
The building society was, of course, an innocent third party. It had lent money on mortgage for the purpose of an apparently genuine sale. The transfer to its mortgagors, the Hammonds, and its own legal charge had been registered at HM Land Registry. Everything appeared to be in order.
In addition to borrowing money from the building society on the security of the property, the Hammonds raised money from other sources on the same security. We have not seen the details but it appears that Provident Mutual Life Assurance Association, Barclays Bank plc and Lloyds Bank plc obtained registered charges. They were made parties to these proceedings but, since the debt owing to the building society now exceeds the value of the property and since they can be in no better position than the building society, they have taken no part in the proceedings.
For the sake of completeness I would add that the Hammonds have been convicted of offences of dishonesty arising out of their financial arrangements
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with the building society and that a bankruptcy order has been made against Mr Hammond.
Following the completion of the transaction with the building society, Mrs Steed, Mrs Hammond and Mr Hammond continued to live in the property. But the Hammonds fell into arrears in payment of the mortgage instalments due to the building society. So the building society commenced possession proceedings. This was in February 1982, ten years ago. The Hammonds, of course, had no defence and the building society obtained a possession order against them. But at about this time Mr Steed returned from the United States of America and resumed residence in the property. He applied to be joined in the proceedings as a defendant and for a stay of the possession order. He contended, among other things, that his mother’s signature on the transfer of 4 September 1979 was a forgery. He claimed to be entitled to rectification of the register both as against the Hammonds and as against the building society. The county court judge before whom the action came concluded that the building society was entitled to possession as against Mr Steed even if the transfer to the Hammonds were a forgery. So he confirmed the order for possession. Mr Steed appealed. The judgment of the Court of Appeal is reported: see Argyle Building Society v Hammond (1984) 49 P & CR 148. The judgment of the court was given by Slade LJ. He held that, on the assumption that the transfer to the Hammonds was a forgery, the court would have power under s 82(1) of the Land Registration Act 1925 to rectify the register not only as against the Hammonds but also as against the building society. He also expressed the opinion, obiter, that the court would have the like power if the transfer were merely voidable, as opposed to void. So the appeal was allowed, the order for possession was set aside as against Mr Steed and the case was transferred to the Chancery Division for a new trial at which the facts regarding the execution or non-execution of the transfer and Mr Steed’s entitlement to rectification of the register would be determined.
On 12 December 1985 the building society commenced in the High Court the action that in due course came before Knox J. It sued only Mr Steed as defendant and claimed possession of the property. Mr Steed’s defence served on 16 April 1987 pleaded that the transfer was forged. He counterclaimed, joining the other chargees whom I have mentioned as well as Mr Hammond’s trustees in bankruptcy and Mrs Hammond as defendants to the counterclaim, for rectification of the proprietorship register, by the removal of the Hammonds’ names and the insertion of his own name, and of the charges register, by the deletion of the entries relating to the building society’s charge and the charges of the other chargees. The counterclaim, like the defence, was based on the allegation that the transfer was forged. There was no other relevant allegation. Forgery of the transfer had constituted the ‘assumed facts’ on the basis of which the Court of Appeal had found in Mr Steed’s favour.
Mrs Steed died not long after she signed her statement on 16 December 1985. She had, it will be recalled, expressly denied that the signature on the transfer was hers. A handwriting expert was instructed. The expert’s report dated 26 April 1989 concluded that there was a high probability that Mrs Steed did sign the transfer. The trial had been fixed to commence on 5 May 1989. The expert’s report was somewhat of a bombshell and an adjournment was granted to enable Mr Steed to consider his position.
The upshot of this was that the forgery allegation was abandoned and wholly new lines of defence were added by amendment to Mr Steed’s counterclaim for rectification. The new pleading, so far as relevant to the claim against the building society, constituted (i) a plea of non est factum based on the proposition that
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Mrs Steed did not know she had been appointed attorney and did not know she was signing a transfer of the property and (ii) a plea that the transaction effected by the transfer was not a sale and was not within the power conferred by the power of attorney.
These two pleas took the place of the forgery plea as justifying the conclusion that the building society’s charge was ‘void’ and that Mr Steed was ‘entitled to an order for rectification’.
Knox J found against Mr Steed, both on the non est factum issue and also on the ultra vires issue. He concluded that the transfer was not void but was, by reason of the fraud perpetrated by the Hammonds, voidable. He, therefore, ordered that the proprietorship register be rectified by the removal of their names and the substitution of Mr Steed’s name. It would seem from the pleadings to which I have referred that that should have been the end of the case. But the contention was put forward on Mr Steed’s behalf that, even if the transfer were only voidable and notwithstanding that the building society was not implicated in and had had no notice of the Hammonds’ fraud, none the less the court had a discretionary power under s 82 of the Land Registration Act 1925 to order that the building society’s charge be deleted from the register, leaving Mr Steed with an unencumbered title and the building society to claim an indemnity under s 83. It was contended that in the circumstances of the case the discretion should be exercised in Mr Steed’s favour and the charges register rectified accordingly.
I have some doubt whether these contentions were open to Mr Steed on the pleadings. But no pleading point was taken and the learned judge entertained them. He accepted that the court did, under s 82, have the wide discretionary power of rectification contended for. Indeed the contrary does not seem to have been argued. Certain dicta of Slade LJ in Argyle Building Society v Hammond (1984) 49 P & CR 148 were taken as establishing the point. But the learned judge, as a matter of discretion, declined to order the rectification sought.
So the upshot of the trial was that Mr Steed was restored to the position of registered proprietor but had failed to upset the building society’s charge. He has appealed. There are three issues to be decided. The first issue is whether, it being accepted that the signature on the transfer is that of Mrs Steed, the appellant can repudiate the transfer under the doctrine of non est factum. If he can, then the transfer is void, no better than if Mrs Steed’s signature had been forged. The second issue is whether, assuming he fails on non est factum, the appellant can repudiate the transfer as being ultra vires the power of attorney. This is put forward as an alternative basis on which the transfer should be held to be void. If the appellant succeeds on either of these issues, there would, strictly, be an issue as to whether or not an order for rectification of the register, as against the building society, ought to be made. But, for reasons which I will later mention, it seemed to us that there would be no serious answer to the appellant’s rectification claim and Mr Rayner James QC for the building society did not contend otherwise. The third issue, which arises if the appellant fails to establish that the transfer was void, is, first, whether the court has power under s 82 to order rectification as against the building society and, second, if it does, whether the power should be exercised.
Non est factum
Taken literally, the doctrine of non est factum applies when the person sought to be held liable has not, in fact, signed the document (see Lord Reid in Saunders v Anglia Building Society [1970] 3 All ER 961 at 963, [1971] AC 1004 at 1015). But it also covers cases in which a person who has signed a document is none the less
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allowed to repudiate the document. The authorities all concern cases of the latter sort.
We have been referred to Hunter v Walters, Curling v Walters, Darnell v Hunter (1871) LR 7 Ch App 75, National Provincial Bank of England v Jackson (1886) 33 Ch D 1, King v Smith [1900] 2 Ch 425 and Saunders v Anglia Building Society [1970] 3 All ER 961, [1971] AC 1004. In each of these cases the victim of a fraud had signed a document not understanding what he or she was doing. In each case an innocent third party had for value acquired rights under the document. In each of these cases the existence of the doctrine of non est factum was affirmed, in each the acceptable limits of the plea was discussed, in none was the plea allowed to prevail. It is easy to understand why the plea is likely to be unsuccessful. A person who signs a document at the request of another puts into circulation a document on which, depending on its contents, others may rely. Where a fraudster has tricked, first, the signer of the document, in order to induce the signature, and then some third party, who is induced to rely on the signed document, which of the two victims is the law to prefer? The authorities indicate that the answer is, almost invariably, the latter. The signer of the document has, by signing, enabled the fraud to be carried out, enabled the false document to go into circulation.
In Saunders v Anglia Building Society [1970] 3 All ER 961 at 963, [1971] AC 1004 at 1015–1016 Lord Reid said that the doctrine of non est factum—
‘… must be kept within narrow limits if it is not to shake the confidence of those who habitually and rightly rely on signatures when there is no obvious reason to doubt their validity … there must be a heavy burden of proof on the person who seeks to invoke this remedy.’
In the same case Lord Wilberforce said ([1970] 3 All ER 961 at 973, [1971] AC 1004 at 1027):
‘… a person who signs a document, and parts with it so that it may come into other hands, has a responsibility, that of the normal man of prudence, to take care what he signs, which, if neglected, prevents him from denying his liability under the document according to its tenor.’
In each of the authorities to which were referred, and in particular in Saunders v Anglia Building Society, the doctrine of non est factum is explained in different words by different judges, but with a striking uniformity of concept and of emphasis. Knox J in his judgment cited a passage from the speech of Lord Wilberforce (see [1970] 3 All ER 961 at 971, [1971] AC 1004 at 1025). I would add the passage immediately following, where Lord Wilberforce said ([1970] 3 All ER 961 at 972, [1971] AC 1004 at 1026):
‘How, then, ought the principle, on which a plea of non est factum is admissible, to be stated? In my opinion, a document should be held to be void (as opposed to voidable) only when the element of consent to it is totally lacking, ie more concretely, when the transaction which the document purports to effect is essentially different in substance or in kind from the transaction intended. Many other expressions, or adjectives, could be used— “basically” or “radically” or “fundamentally” … To this general test it is necessary to add certain amplifications. First, there is the case of fraud. The law as to this is best stated in the words of the judgment in Foster v Mackinnon (1869) LR 4 CP 704 at 711 where it is said that a signature obtained by fraud: “… is invalid not merely on the ground of fraud, where fraud exists, but on the ground that the mind of the signer did not accompany the signature; in other words, that he never intended to sign, and therefore in contemplation
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of law never did sign, the contract to which his name is appended.” In other words, it is the lack of consent that matters, not the means by which this result was brought about. Fraud by itself may do no more than make the contract voidable. Secondly, a man cannot escape from the consequences, as regards innocent third parties, of signing a document if, being a man of ordinary education and competence, he chooses to sign it without informing himself of its purport and effect. This principle is sometimes found expressed in the language that “he is doing something with his estate” … but it really reflects a rule of common sense on the exigency of busy lives. Thirdly, there is the case where the signer has been careless, in not taking ordinary precautions against being deceived.’
There then followed the passage which I have already cited in which Lord Wilberforce stressed the responsibility lying on persons who sign documents. He went on to add ([1970] 3 All ER 961 at 973, [1971] AC 1004 at 1027):
‘As to persons who are illiterate, or blind, or lacking in understanding, the law is in a dilemma. On the one hand, the law is traditionally, and rightly, ready to relieve them against hardship and imposition. On the other hand, regard has to be paid to the position of innocent third parties who cannot be expected, and often would have no means, to know the condition or status of the signer. I do not think that a defined solution can be provided for all cases. The law ought, in my opinion, to give relief if satisfied that consent was truly lacking but will require of signers even in this class that they act responsibly and carefully according to their circumstances in putting their signature to legal documents.’
In my judgment these passages from Lord Wilberforce’s speech express the approach and the principles that must be applied to a non est factum plea.
In the present case there was a glaring absence of any reliable evidence as to exactly what happened on the occasion on which Mrs Steed had placed her signature on the transfer. Mrs Hammond gave evidence about the occasion but the judge rejected her evidence. Mrs Steed’s statement, too, dealt with her lack of any recollection of the occasion or knowledge that she had been asked to sign a transfer of the property. But the reliability of Mrs Steed’s statement was seriously undermined by the circumstance that she had denied ever having seen the transfer and had denied that the signature was hers. Both these denials had been shown to be false. It is clearly established that the onus lies on the party repudiating the signed document to establish the necessary ingredients of non est factum and it would, in my opinion, have been open to the learned judge simply to have said that there was no evidence before him sufficient to establish Mrs Steed’s lack of understanding of what she had signed.
The judge did not, however, take that easy course but, instead, accepted at its face value Mrs Steed’s statement that she had not known what she was signing. This part of Mrs Steed’s statement had the merit of being believable. Neither Mr Lawrence of W H Hopkins & Co, nor anyone else from that firm had ever communicated with her regarding the sale of the property to the Hammonds. The form of the transfer had been prepared by W H Hopkins & Co, acting for the Hammonds, and submitted to Warrens, the building society’s solicitors, for approval. W H Hopkins & Co sent Warrens an authority to inspect the register. It has not been explained how they were able to do so without taking any instructions from Mrs Steed, but it has not been suggested that Mrs Steed authorised them to do so. The Hammonds, intent on fraud, certainly would not have explained the proposed sale transaction to Mrs Steed. So it is believable that,
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up to the moment when the time came for her to sign the transfer, she knew nothing of it. She was, it may be inferred, tricked into signing without reading the document.
Mrs Steed’s evidence was not, however, that she had thought she was signing a document of some different character from that which in fact she had signed. It was not that she had signed under some induced misapprehension as to the nature or character of what she was signing. Her evidence was that she had not known what she was signing and that, trusting her daughter, Claire, as she did, she would have signed anything her daughter had put before her. Knox J held that: ‘… Mrs Steed was tricked into signing what her daughter put before her because she trusted her…’ That, he held, was not sufficient to enable the plea of non est factum to succeed.
Mr Lloyd QC for the appellant has attacked this part of the judgment by relying heavily on the proposition that Mrs Steed did not know anything about the power of attorney and her status thereunder. In that state of ignorance she could not, when she signed the transfer, have known she was dealing with her son’s property. She must have supposed she was dealing, in some way, with her own affairs. So, it was argued, she was mistaken as to the essential character of the document she signed and of the transaction which it effected.
Submissions on these lines, as Butler-Sloss LJ pointed out during argument placed Mr Steed on a species of Morton’s fork. Let it be supposed that Mrs Steed was a lady of sufficient general understanding and capability to be a suitable donee of the power of appointment. Why then did she not inform herself of the purport and effect of the transfer before signing it ? Her failure to do so brings the case within the second of Lord Wilberforce’s amplifications. On the other hand, let it be supposed that she lacked ordinary competence and capacity. Lord Wilberforce referred to persons ‘illiterate, or blind, or lacking in understanding’. If Mrs Steed falls into this category, what was Mr Steed about when he appointed her his attorney? The donor of a power of attorney who appoints as his attorney a person incapable of understanding the import of a simple transfer can hardly be allowed, if the donee signs a transfer without any understanding of what he or she is doing, to repudiate the transfer on the ground of a lack of understanding on the part of the donee.
As to Mrs Steed’s ignorance of the power of attorney, if she was ignorant of it, the ignorance was attributable to Mr Steed’s incomprehensible failure to tell her either that he was about to or that he had made the appointment. It is known that he and she spoke on the telephone at about the time the power of attorney was executed. If it was really the case that he did not mention the power of attorney when speaking to her on that occasion and left her in ignorance of her responsibilities and status, his failure shows, in my opinion, such a want of care as to preclude him from relying, in support of his non est factum plea, on her ignorance of the power. As between an innocent third party purchaser such as the building society on the one hand and Mr Steed on the other hand, his failure to take the ordinary precautionary and prudent step of informing his mother of her appointment as his attorney requires, in my judgment, that the building society be preferred. In my judgment, and for substantially the same reasons as those given by the learned judge, the non est factum plea fails.
Ultra vires
The submission that the transfer fell outside the authority conferred on Mrs Steed under the power of attorney must be approached on the footing that, the non est factum plea having failed, the transfer was validly executed by Mrs Steed. The transfer purported to transfer the property in consideration of the
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payment of the sum of £24,500. A transfer of property for a price is a sale. Mr Lloyd’s submission was that the reference to the price was a sham. No price was in fact paid or ever intended to be paid. The £1,800-odd paid on discharge of the local authority mortgage may be ignored for the purposes of the argument. The transaction effected by the transfer was, whatever the transfer may have said, a transfer for no, or if the £1,800 is taken into account a derisory, consideration and was not a sale.
The building society in its defence to counterclaim pleaded estoppel by deed. But, submitted Mr Lloyd, the Hammonds, the other parties to the transfer, could not, by reason of their own fraud, raise an estoppel by deed. That being so, the building society, which claimed through the Hammonds could not rely on estoppel by deed. Mr Lloyd may be right in his answer to the estoppel by deed point. If estoppel was to be relied on, it ought, I think, to have been estoppel by representation. The transfer records a transaction of sale. If, in reliance on the transfer, the building society accepted the legal charge executed by the Hammonds and parted with the £15,000, an estoppel by representation would, as it seems to me, bar Mr Steed from denying that the transaction completed by the transfer was a sale. I think Mr Lloyd accepted, in principle, that that would be so. But he pointed out that estoppel by representation was not pleaded, and that no evidence had been led to establish that the building society in advancing the £15,000 had relied in any relevant sense on the contents of the transfer.
I am, for two reasons, unable to accept Mr Lloyd’s submissions on this ultra vires point.
First, the transfer purports to be executed in completion of a sale. The execution of a transfer on completion of sale is unquestionably within the power conferred by the power of attorney. The transfer was executed by the donee of the power of attorney. Prima facie, therefore, the transfer was, in my opinion, valid and effective according to its tenor. No question of ultra vires arises. True the £24,500 was never paid (bar the £1,800-odd) but, despite the receipt clause, Mr Steed would have been entitled to sue for the outstanding sum. The Hammonds would have had no defence to an action for the price. As between Mr Steed and the Hammonds, therefore, the transfer was not a nullity. It was merely voidable. If it was merely voidable vis-à-vis the Hammonds, it cannot have been void as against the building society. As a matter of principle, if a deed has been executed by a donee of a power of attorney apparently acting within the terms of the power, a purchaser does not, in my judgment, have to inquire further into the substance of the transaction.
But, secondly, it seems to me plain as a pikestaff that the building society, in parting with its money, relied on the transfer. The £15,000 was advanced in order to enable the Hammonds to complete a purchase from Mr Steed at a price of £24,500. The form of the proposed transfer had been approved by the building society. The £15,000 was held by W H Hopkins & Co pending completion of the sale. Not until the transfer in the form approved by the building society had been executed by Mrs Steed was W H Hopkins & Co free to release the £15,000. To say that there was no evidence that the building society relied on the transfer being, as it purported to be, a transfer on sale, flies in the face of reality. It is true that estoppel by representation was not pleaded, but estoppel by deed was pleaded and the evidence was sufficient to support the former plea. If it had been necessary I would have unhesitatingly given leave for an amendment to be made.
The learned judge dealt very shortly with the ultra vires point. He said:
‘… the transfer on its face was a perfectly regular sale and as against third parties taking a legal estate for value and in good faith it was within the
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ostensible authority of Mrs Steed and cannot now be repudiated against such third parties. Nothing short of non est factum rendering the transfer void, or forgery which has the same legal effect but is not now alleged, will suffice to defeat the building society’s innocent reliance upon the transfer.’
Save that I would not describe Mrs Steed’s authority to execute the transfer as ‘ostensible’ authority, I am in complete and respectful agreement with the judge.
Rectification of the register
The transfer of 4 September 1979 was induced by the fraud of Mr and Mrs Hammond. It was voidable but not void. The building society advanced £15,000 to the Hammonds on the security of the charge which they executed and which was subsequently registered. The question is whether the court has power under s 82 of the Land Registration Act 1925 to order the register to be rectified by deletion of the entry of the building society’s registered charge in the charges register. The question is primarily one of construction of the statutory language used in s 82.
Section 82, as amended, provides as follows:
‘(1) The register may be rectified pursuant to an order of the court or by the registrar, subject to appeal to the court, in any of the following cases, but subject to the following provisions of this section:—(a) Subject to any express provisions of this Act to the contrary, where a court of competent jurisdiction has decided that any person is entitled to any estate right or interest in or to any registered land or charge, and as a consequence of such decision such court is of opinion that a rectification of the register is required, and makes an order to that effect; (b) Subject to any express provision of this Act to the contrary, where the court, on the application in the prescribed manner of any person who is aggrieved by any entry made in, or by the omission of any entry from, the register, or by any default being made, or unnecessary delay taking place, in the making of any entry in the register, makes an order for the rectification of the register; (c) In any case and at any time with the consent of all persons interested; (d) Where the court or the registrar is satisfied that any entry in the register has been obtained by fraud; (e) Where two or more persons are, by mistake, registered as proprietors of the same registered estate or of the same charge; (f) Where a mortgagee has been registered as proprietor of the land instead of as proprietor of a charge and a right of redemption is subsisting; (g) Where a legal estate has been registered in the name of a person who if the land had not been registered would not have been the estate owner; and (h) In any other case where, by reason of any error or omission in the register, or by reason of any entry made under a mistake, it may be deemed just to rectify the register.
(2) The register may be rectified under this section, notwithstanding that the rectification may affect any estates, rights, charges, or interests acquired or protected by registration, or by any entry on the register, or otherwise.
(3) The register shall not be rectified, except for the purpose of giving effect to an overriding interest or an order of the court, so as to affect the title of the proprietor who is in possession—(a) unless the praprietor has caused or substantially contributed to the error or omission by fraud or lack of proper care; or (c) unless for any other reason, in any particular case, it is considered that it would be unjust not to rectify the register against him …
(5) The registrar shall obey the order of any competent court in relation to any registered land on being served with the order or an official copy thereof …’
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It is convenient to refer at this point to s 83 of the 1925 Act, which makes provision for an indemnity to be given to those suffering loss by reason of the rectification of the register and, in certain circumstances, to those suffering loss where rectification is refused. Section 83, as amended, provides so far as relevant, as follows:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of this Act to the contrary, any person suffering loss by reason of any rectification of the register under this Act shall be entitled to be indemnified.
(2) Where an error or omission has occurred in the register, but the register is not rectified, any person suffering loss by reason of such error or omission, shall, subject to the provisions of this Act, be entitled to be indemnified …
(4) Subject as hereinafter provided, a proprietor of any registered land or charge claiming in good faith under a forged disposition shall, where the register is rectified, be deemed to have suffered loss by reason of such rectification and shall be entitled to be indemnified under this Act.
(5) No indemnity shall be payable under this Act in any of the following cases:—(a) Where the applicant or a person from whom he derives title (otherwise than under a disposition for valuable consideration which is registered or protected on the register) has caused or substantially contributed to the loss by fraud or lack of proper care …
(6) Where an indemnity is paid in respect of the loss of an estate or interest in or charge on land the amount so paid shall not exceed—(a) Where the register is not rectified, the value of the estate, interest or charge at the time when the error or omission which caused the loss was made; (b) Where the register is rectified, the value (if there had been no rectification) of the estate, interest or charge, immediately before the time of rectification …’
If an order of rectification is to be made the case must be brought within at least one of paras (a) to (h) of s 82(1). The dispute in the present case is as to the breadth of the power conferred by paras (a) and (b) and, to a lesser extent, paras (d) and (h). There is no doubt but that, if Mrs Steed’s signature had been forged or if the non est factum plea had been made good, the case would have fallen squarely within para (g). In neither case, if the land had been unregistered, would the Hammonds or the building society have obtained a legal estate. I cannot see any reasonable basis on which an order of rectification could have been withheld. If, however, as is the case, the transfer is only voidable, para (g) does not apply. It is plain that, if title to the property had been unregistered, Mr Steed would have had no remedy against the building society. He would have recovered the property from the Hammonds but the property would have remained subject to the charge. It is submitted, however, that para (a), (b), (d) or (h) can, since title is registered, be prayed in aid. This submission is made on the footing that, under one or more of these paragraphs, the court is given a general discretion to order rectification in any case in which it may be thought just to do so. If the submission is right, then s 82, or its statutory predecessors, achieved a remarkable and unnoticed change in the substantive law. If the discretion can be exercised where there has been a fraudulent misrepresentation, as in the present case, it must be exercisable also where a merely innocent misrepresentation has been made. It would, as Mr Lloyd conceded, be exercisable also in a case where no misrepresentation inducing the transaction could be pointed to but where a registered proprietor had entered into a transaction under a misapprehension for which the other party to the transaction was not responsible, a misapprehension as to the value of the property, for example. Mr Lloyd said that in such a case the
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discretion to order rectification against a bona fide purchaser, such as the building society in the present case, would be very unlikely ever to be exercised. But the proposition that the discretionary power contended for can be spelt out of the statutory language is, to me, so startling as to require the premise of the proposition to be very carefully examined.
There is a sense in which the power to rectify under s 82 is undoubtedly discretionary. The words in sub-s (1) are ‘may be rectified’. Section 83(2) shows that rectification is not automatic. The power to rectify may, in a particular case, be present but, none the less, there is a general discretion to refuse rectification. It does not follow, however, that there is, in every case, a general discretion to grant rectification. The power to grant rectification is limited in sub-s (1) to ‘any of the following cases’. The power to order rectification must, therefore, be found within one or other of the sub-s (1) paragraphs and cannot be spelt out of the words ‘may be rectified’.
Paragraphs (a) and (b) provide a power to rectify that can only be exercised by the court. The power conferred by the other paragraphs can be exercised either by the registrar or by the court. Paragraph (a) enables an order of rectification to be made where the court ‘has decided that any person is entitled to any estate right or interest in or to any registered land or charge …’ This, in my judgment, is a clear reference to an entitlement under the substantive law. An example would be a case, such as Mr Steed’s case against the Hammonds, for the setting aside of a transaction on the ground of misrepresentation or some other sufficient cause. Another example would be the successful assertion of a possessory title. A third example might be the assertion of a right by a beneficiary under a trust who had become absolutely entitled to the land. In each of these cases, once the entitlement had been established, the court would have power under para (a) to order the register to be rectified so as to reflect the entitlement. But para (a) does not, in my judgment, give any substantive cause of action where none before existed. It does not enable a voidable transaction to be set aside as against a bona fide purchaser who has acquired by registration a legal estate. And, if no entitlement as against such a purchaser can be established, para (a) does not, in my judgment, enable the register to be rectified as against such a purchaser. Paragraph (a) does not assist Mr Steed in his rectification claim against the building society. Paragraph (b) is the paragraph on which Mr Lloyd pinned his main hopes. It applies, he submitted, whenever any person is ‘aggrieved’ by an entry on the register. Paragraph (b) is something of a puzzle, not least because the form of the ‘application’ is not ‘prescribed’ by any rules made under the 1925 Act. The same language was used in s 96 of the Land Transfer Act 1875, but there, too, no form of application was ‘prescribed’. The legislative intention underlying para (b) and its statutory predecessor is difficult to identify with clarity. The reference to ‘the application in the prescribed manner’ makes me believe that it was contemplated that some form of summary process would be prescribed in order to enable relief to be given in clear cases. Be that as it may, the real question at issue is whether the provision was intended simply to provide a remedy in respect of proprietary rights that either entitled the proprietor to have some entry made on the register or entitled the proprietor to have some entry removed from the register or whether the provision should be construed as creating a new cause of action entitling the court to make rectification orders as it might in its discretion think fit in favour of persons who would not under substantive law (apart from para (b)) have any proprietary rights which they could assert against the registered proprietor or chargee. In my judgment, the question has only to be put for the answer to be apparent. Parliament could not have intended para (b) to produce new substantive rights in respect of registered land, enabling registered dispositions
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to be set aside and removed from the register in circumstances where, if the land had not been registered, no cause of action would have existed. In my judgment, para (b), like para (a), provides a remedy but does not create any new substantive rights or causes of action. The scope of para (c) is self evident and not relevant in the present case.
Paragraph (d) too was relied on by Mr Lloyd. He contended that, since the transfer had been induced by the Hammonds’ fraud, both the registration of the Hammonds as proprietors and the registration of the building society’s legal charge could be described as having been ‘obtained by fraud’. In my judgment, this is a misreading of the paragraph. The paragraph is directed, in my opinion, to fraud practised upon the Land Registry in order to obtain the entry in question. No fraud was used to obtain the entry on the charges register of the building society’s legal charge.
This construction of para (d) derives support from the language used in s 174(1)(c) of the Law of Property Act 1922, the statutory predecessor of para (d). Section 174(1)(c) enabled the register to be rectified—
‘Where the court or the registrar is satisfied that the registration of … a charge, mortgage, or other entry in the register … has been obtained by fraud, by annulling the registration, notice or other entry …’
This provision was reduced to its present succinct form in the Law of Property (Amendment) Act 1924 (see s 8 and Sch 8, para 16). It is the registration that must be obtained by fraud.
The registration of a forged transfer could, in my opinion, at least if the application for registration had been made by the forger, be annulled under para (d). The entry would have been obtained by fraud in the presenting of a forged transfer for registration. But, if a voidable disposition were registered before being avoided, I would doubt whether the register could be rectified under para (d), even if the disposition were voidable on account of fraud. In such a case the entry on the register would not, it seems to me, have been obtained by fraud. Rectification could, of course, in such a case be obtained under para (a) or para (b). Whether or not that is right, and it need not be decided in this case, a registered disposition made by the fraudster to a bona fide purchaser cannot in my judgment be removed from the register under para (d). The registration would not have been obtained by fraud. So para (d) cannot in my judgment assist Mr Steed as against the building society.
Paragraphs (e) and (f) are self explanatory and are of no relevance to this case.
Paragraph (g) does not, in the event that the transfer is voidable, assist Mr Steed as against the building society. It is, however, an important paragraph so far as an understanding of the scheme of s 82(1) is concerned.
In my opinion the scheme is reasonably clear. Paragraphs (a) and (b) give power h to the court to make orders of rectification in order to give effect to property rights which have been established in an action or which are clear. Paragraph (c) enables orders to be made by consent. The remaining paragraphs, paras (d) to (h), are intended to enable errors to be corrected. Paragraphs (d), (e), (f) and (g) each deal with an error of a particular character. But, since these paragraphs might not cover comprehensively all errors, para (h) was added as a catch-all provision to cover any other errors. The breadth of the catch-all provision was, I imagine, the reason why it was thought appropriate to make the power exercisable ‘where … it may be deemed just to rectify the register’. There are no comparable words in any of the other paragraphs.
Paragraph (h) is relied on by Mr Lloyd. But in order for the paragraph to be
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applicable some ‘error or omission in the register’ or some ‘entry made under a mistake’ must be shown. The entry in the charges register of the building society’s legal charge was not an error and was not made under a mistake. The legal charge was executed by the Hammonds, who were at the time transferees under a transfer executed by Mrs Steed as attorney for the registered proprietor. The voidable transfer had not been set aside. The registration of the Hammonds as proprietors took place at the same time as the registration of the legal charge. Neither registration was an error. Neither entry was made under a mistake. So the case for rectification cannot be brought under para (h).
As a matter of principle, if, as I think, the appellant’s case for rectification as against the building society cannot be brought under any of the paragraphs of s 82(1), I would conclude that that must be an end to the rectification claim. Mr Lloyd, however, has relied strongly on passages in the judgment of Slade LJ in Argyle Building Society v Hammond (1984) 49 P & CR 148 .
Before I come to those passages, it is convenient to refer to such earlier authority as there is.
Chowood Ltd v Lyall (No 2) [1930] 2 Ch 156, [1930] All ER Rep 402 concerned a strip of land which had, on first registration, been included in a registered title notwithstanding that it was in the possession of an adjoining owner. The register was rectified under para (h) on an application made by the adjoining owner, the defendant. In the Court of Appeal Lawrence LJ said ([1930] 2 Ch 156 at 168–169, [1930] All ER Rep 402 at 406):
‘I see no reason to limit the word “mistake” in that section to any particular kind of mistake … I further agree … that … the rectification might also be made under clauses (a) and (g) of sub-s. 1. Moreover I am not satisfied that the defendant’s application for rectification would not come under cl. (b) as being made by a person who is aggrieved by an entry in the register. Mr. Armitage [junior counsel for the plaintiff] suggested that cl. (b) applies only to a mistake made by the officials in the Registry and not to a mistake made or induced by one or other of the parties. I prefer not to express any concluded opinion on this point …’
Underlying this passage, as it seems to me, is Lawrence LJ’s acceptance of the importance of bringing the rectification case within one or other of the paragraphs of s 82(1).
Calgary and Edmonton Land Co Ltd v Discount Bank (Overseas) Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 551, [1971] 1 WLR 81 concerned cautions which had been entered on the register in order to protect interests claimed in a pending action. The action had been struck out at first instance, an appeal to the Court of Appeal had failed but a petition for leave to appeal to the House of Lords was still pending. On an interlocutory notice of motion Brightman J ordered that the register be rectified by vacating the cautions. He held that he had power to make the order either under para (a) or under para (b) and that ‘… it matters not whether the order is expressly made under para (a) or para (b)’ (see [1971] 1 All ER 551 at 553, [1971] 1 WLR 81 at 85). I would respectfully accept that the order was justified under para (a) but would regard the case as a classic example of the sort of case for which para (b) was designed.
In Re Leighton’s conveyance [1936] 1 All ER 667 a non est factum case was raised. The plaintiff sought rectification, first, against her daughter, who had fraudulently induced the plaintiff to sign a transfer leading to the daughter’s registration as proprietor, and, secondly, against chargees who, without any notice of the daughter’s fraud, had advanced money to the daughter on the security of registered charges. The case was, therefore, very similar to the present case.
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Luxmoore J ordered rectification as against the daughter but, having concluded that the non est factum plea failed, he dismissed the rectification claim against the chargees. He said (at 673):
‘I am satisfied that there are no grounds on which I can say that these charges are bad, but with regard to the equity of redemption I am satisfied on the evidence that what Mrs. Wardman did was at the request of and in reliance on her daughter, and under her influence … It follows that the conveyance to Mrs. Bergin can have no effect as against Mrs. Wardman, and she is still entitled to the equity of redemption in the property … With regard to the charges register, there is no ground for interfering with it and directing any rectification. They are good charges and remain enforceable against the property.’
It was not stated in the judgment which paragraph or paragraphs of s 82(1) Luxmoore J regarded as applicable, but the report of the argument of counsel and an editorial note suggest that the judge was invited to act under para (d) (at 667). It appears also from the report of argument that rectification as against the daughter was conceded and that the only issue in the case against the chargees was the non est factum issue. In my opinion, para (a), rather than para (d), provided the power to rectify as against the daughter. If the non est factum case had succeeded, para (g) also would have been in point, both against the daughter and against the chargees. It was not suggested by counsel for the mother that, if the non est factum plea failed, she might none the less be entitled to rectification against the chargees. And there is nothing in the judgment of Luxmoore J to indicate that, having rejected the non est factum plea, he thought that he had any discretionary power to order rectification of the charges register.
I now come to the judgment of Slade LJ in Argyle Building Society v Hammond (1984) 49 P & CR 148. For the purposes of his judgment Slade LJ assumed that the allegation of forgery would succeed. He assumed nothing else. References to the ‘assumed facts’ are references to the facts regarding the forgery. Having set out the text of s 82(1), he said (at 157):
‘First, registers of title made pursuant to the 1925 Act consist of three parts, namely the property register, the proprietorship register and the charges register. The jurisdiction to rectify under the subsection plainly extends to all or any of these parts. Secondly, on the assumed facts in the present case, the court would, in our judgment, have clear jurisdiction to rectify the proprietorship register of the house by substituting the name of the appellant for that of Mr. and Mrs. Hammond, since the case would fall within all or any of sub-paragraphs (a), (b), (d), (g) and (h) of section 82(1). The present argument relates to the possibility or otherwise of rectification of the charges register.’
He made clear the opinion of the court that, on the assumed facts, the court would have power to rectify the charges register against the mortgagees as well as the proprietorship register against the Hammonds (at 158). I would respectfully agree, save that, for the reasons I have given, I do not think the case would come within para (d). It would come, in my opinion, within paras (a), (b), (g) and, perhaps, (h).
Slade LJ then referred to Re Leighton’s Conveyance, cited the passage from the judgment of Luxmoore J that I have cited and continued (at 160):
‘Reverting to the decision at first instance in the Leighton case, the report of the argument shows that the provisions of section 82(1) and (2) of the 1925
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Act were drawn to the attention of Luxmoore J. We feel no doubt that he would have appreciated that, even in the absence of a successful plea of forgery or non est factum, the section would in terms have conferred a discretion on the court to rectify the charges register, even as against the innocent chargees. Nevertheless, it is readily intelligible that Luxmoore J. should have considered that, when the discretion fell to be exercised, the equities were all on one side—that is to say in favour of the chargees, who had acted on the faith of a document of transfer which the mother had herself executed after having failed to make inquiries which would have revealed that the document related to the property. If the title to the land had not been registered, the title of the daughter would, at worst, have been voidable, not void; and under general principles of equity, mortgagees from the daughter in good faith and for value, without notice of the facts giving rise to the voidability, would have acquired a good title to their mortgages. We can see no reason why the court in the Leighton case should have regarded the equities as being any different, as between the mother and the chargees, merely because the land happened to be registered land.’
In my respectful opinion, this analysis of Re Leighton’s Conveyance is not justified by Luxmoore J’s judgment. There is nothing in the judgment or in the report of counsel’s argument to suggest that the possibility of rectification against the chargees, in the absence of a successful plea of forgery or non est factum, was ever considered. Slade LJ commented (at 162):
‘… in a case where one or more of the conditions of section 82(1) are fulfilled, the court has at least theoretical discretion to rectify any part of the register, even as against innocent third parties …’
I would respectfully agree with this comment, based as it is on the premise that the case can be brought within one or other of the paragraphs of s 82(1). But Slade LJ then went on to distinguish the case of a party ‘deprived of his title as a result of a forged document which he did not execute’ from the case where the party ‘has been deprived as a result of a document which he himself executed, albeit under a mistake induced by fraud’ and commented that ‘when the court comes to exercise its discretion, different considerations may well apply’. The paragraph of s 82(1) under which the latter case could be brought was not identified. On the true construction of s 82(1) there is not, in my opinion, any paragraph under which the latter case could be brought.
Mr Lloyd’s argument that the court has a general discretionary power to order rectification of the register was based on the passages from Slade LJ’s judgment to which I have referred. The passages were not part of the ratio of the decision, by which we are bound and with which I respectfully agree. A voidable transfer was not part of the ‘assumed facts’ on which the ratio was based. In my judgment, the obiter passages, regarding voidable transfers and innocent third parties claiming thereunder, were based on an incorrect construction of s 82(1) and should not be followed.
In my opinion, if the appellant’s non est factum case is rejected, the court has no power under s 82(1) to order rectification as against the building society. It is strictly unnecessary for me to deal with the issue of discretion, which only arises if the court has power to rectify. Knox J refused rectification as a matter of discretion. He held that as between the appellant and the building society ‘all the equities are on the building society’s side’. This would certainly be so if the land were unregistered. But under s 83(1) the building society, if rectification were ordered, would have what seems to me to be an unimpeachable statutory right to
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an indemnity against the loss it would thereby suffer. On the other hand, if rectification were refused, the appellant would not be able to claim an indemnity under s 83(2). Mr Lloyd accepted, rightly, that, since the registration of the building society’s charge was not an ‘error or omission’, the case would not come within s 83(2). The financial consequences to the parties of ordering or refusing rectification make it difficult to weigh the ‘equities’. If rectification were ordered, the loss would fall not upon the building society but upon the public purse. If rectification were refused, the public purse would be saved the burden of paying an indemnity. I mention these matters not in order to indicate any disagreement with Knox J’s conclusions on discretion but because the indemnity provisions in s 83 seem to me to underline that the legislature did not contemplate the power of rectification being exercisable under s 82 except in cases either where an error or omission had occurred in the register (ie paras (d) to (h)) or where a substantive cause of action against the registered proprietor required the register to be rectified (ie paras (a) and (b)).
In ‘error or omission’ cases, ie in cases coming.within paras (d) to (h), an indemnity would, if rectification were refused, be available under s 83(2) (subject always to s 83(5)(a)). In cases within paras (a) and (b) but not within any of paras (d) to (h), eg cases in which voidable transactions are set aside and, as a consequence, rectification of the register is required, it is difficult to construct any scenario in which rectification could be withheld. The construction of s 82(1) that I have suggested seems to me to mesh with and to explain the scheme of indemnity contained in s 83. The ‘general discretion’ approach to s 82(1) does not.
For the reasons I have given I would dismiss this appeal.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. I agree.
PURCHAS LJ. I also agree that for the reasons given in the judgment of Scott LJ this appeal should be dismissed. I wish only to add that in my judgment I have, after some hesitation, come to the conclusion that it is impossible to extract a general discretion to rectify the register from s 82(1)(h) of the Land Registration Act 1925 beyond that necessary to cover some unusual error which did not fall under paras (d) to (g). It is under paras (a) and (b) that rectification depending upon the prior determination of disputed rights by the court should be effected. With some diffidence, I find myself in agreement with Scott LJ in coming to the conclusion that the analysis of the judgment of Luxmoore J in Re Leighton’s Conveyance [1936] 1 All ER 667 in the judgment of the court delivered by Slade LJ in the passage from the judgment already cited by Scott LJ is not justified on a general reading of that case. At the time when the present case was first before this court sub nom Argyle Building Society v Hammond (1984) 49 P & CR 148 the plaintiff’s case was based on the alleged forgery of Mrs Steed’s signature upon the transfer. This would have rendered the transfer void. The case would then fall squarely within s 82(1)(g) and therefore the conclusion (at 162) referred to by Scott LJ was perfectly correct in the context. I am, I regret, unable to agree that the judgment of the court beyond this or that, in so far as it was obiter in the context in which it was delivered, can be supported or that it binds this court.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Dixons Stores Group Ltd v Thames Television plc
[1993] 1 All ER 349
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): DRAKE J
Hearing Date(s): 15 JULY 1992
Evidence – Without prejudice correspondence – Correspondence not forming part of negotiations – Privilege from admission in evidence – Letters written after termination of bona fide negotiations – Letters from defendant to plaintiff suggesting parties negotiate compromise – Letters not marked without prejudice – Whether letters admissible in defendant’s cross-examination of plaintiff’s witness.
On 3 July 1991 the plaintiffs’ solicitor wrote a letter before action to the defendants alleging that a television programme broadcast by the defendants was defamatory of the plaintiffs. A writ was issued on 11 July. Between 5 February and 10 June 1992 there was without prejudice correspondence between the parties with a view to settling the action but that was inconclusive. On 1 and 9 July 1992 the defendants’ solicitors wrote to the plaintiffs’ solicitors almost identical letters stating that the defendants wished to negotiate a compromise and suggesting that the defendant make an apology and statement in open court. The first letter was not headed, and made no reference to its being, without prejudice, while the second was headed ‘open letter’, and both were clearly intended to be referred to by the defendants at trial. The offer was not accepted by the plaintiffs and the matter came to trial, in the course of which counsel for the defendants sought to refer to the letters in cross-examination of one of the plaintiffs’ witnesses. The plaintiffs’ counsel objected to the letters being admitted in evidence on the ground that they were clearly written without prejudice as an offer to negotiate a settlement and were therefore subject to privilege and were inadmissible without the consent of both parties.
Notes
For communications written without prejudice, see 17 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 212–213, and for cases on the subject, see 22(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 99–104, 6770–6815.
Cases referred to in judgment
Rush & Tomkins Ltd v Greater London Council [1988] 3 All ER 737, [1989] AC 1280, [1988] 3 WLR 939, HL.
Page 350 of [1993] 1 All ER 349
Application
The defendants, Thames Television plc, applied in the course of the trial of a libel action brought against them by the plaintiffs, Dixons Stores Group Ltd, claiming damages for defamation, to put in evidence two letters written by their solicitors to the plaintiffs’ solicitors offering to settle the plaintiffs’ claim on terms set out in the letters. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Richard Rampton QC and Thomas Shields (instructed by Barlow Lyde & Gilbert) for the plaintiffs.
Michael Corkery QC and Heather Rogers (instructed by D J Freeman) for the defendants.
15 July 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
Held – A party to an action could write a letter containing an offer to settle the action without ipso facto attracting to that letter any privilege which could be claimed by the opposing party, provided the letter was not part of continuing negotiations. However, if the letter was a reply to a letter written without prejudice or was part of a continuing sequence of negotiations, whether by correspondence or orally, then it would be privileged and could not be admitted in evidence without the consent of both parties. It followed that since the letters were written after the negotiations and without prejudice correspondence had finished and come to nothing, they were not subject to privilege and could be used by the defendants in the course of the action without the consent of the plaintiffs (see p 351 g h and p 352 d f g, post).
DRAKE J. I am asked to rule on the admissibility of two letters, both from the defendants’ solicitors to the plaintiffs’ solicitors, one dated 1 July 1992 and the other, in almost, although not quite, identical terms, dated 9 July 1992.
The first of those letters, dated 1 July 1992, had no heading ‘without prejudice’, nor was there any reference in the body of the letter to it being written without prejudice. The second one, in almost identical terms, dated 9 July 1992 was headed ‘open letter’. Both of these letters, it is clear, were written by the defendants’ solicitors with the intention that they should be referred to at the trial of the action.
The relevant history, so far as dates are concerned, is as follows. The broadcast of a programme by the defendants which gives rise to this action for libel was on 27 June 1991. On 3 July 1991 the plaintiffs’ solicitors wrote a letter before action, complaining of the alleged defamation in the course of that programme and calling upon the defendants to make an apology in a stated form, to make a payment to a charity to be nominated and to pay the plaintiffs’ costs. There being no immediate response, the writ was issued on 11 July. On 16 July the defendants’ solicitors responded to the plaintiffs’ solicitors’ letter of 1 July and to the fact that the writ had been issued. In that letter the defendants’ solicitors stated their wish to negotiate a settlement of the action. They wrote:
‘However, our clients have no quarrel with yours and wish, if possible, to resolve this matter amicably. To that end, the programme editor … is prepared to broadcast a further Cityfile item. We enclose for your consideration a draft, which we would be happy to discuss with you.’
The draft proposed broadcast was not acceptable to the plaintiffs and the action proceeded. Then I am told that on 5 February 1992, and continuing until 10 June 1992, there was correspondence between the parties without prejudice, and clearly marked as such, with a view to a settlement of the action. It came to nothing. Then on 1 July 1992 the defendants’ solicitors wrote to the plaintiffs’ solicitors stating, in what was intended to be an open letter, but not marked as such, that they wished to negotiate a compromise of the action and suggested that an apology and a statement in open court should be made. A draft apology was included with the letter.
I understand that some query arose at that stage as to whether or not that letter was covered by ‘without prejudice’ privilege and accordingly on 9 July 1992 the defendants’ solicitors repeated the letter in very nearly identical terms, but headed it ‘open letter’. They now wish to put the terms of that letter to one or more witnesses to be called for the plaintiffs, and Mr Rampton QC for the plaintiff has objected on the grounds that the letter is privileged as being without prejudice.
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It is quite clear and is trite law that, where an offer of compromise is made without prejudice, it is subject to privilege and cannot be referred to in evidence without the consent of both parties. I take it, although I do not think I was told this expressly, that the letter of 16 July 1991, made in response to the letter before action and following the issue of writ, which did expressly offer to negotiate a settlement of the action, was the subject of an agreement for waiver of privilege, since all that Mr Rampton claims as attracting privilege to the present letters of July 1992 would apply with equal force to that letter of 16 July 1991. Be that as it may, the policy of the law is clearly to encourage settlements of actions and I think it is quite clear that the modern tendency has been to enlarge the cloak under which negotiations may be conducted without prejudice. I take that from a consideration of the modern cases in which without prejudice privilege has been considered, and it is in fact stated in those terms in Cross On Evidence (7th edn, 1990) p 452.
The mere fact of heading a letter ‘without prejudice’ is not in the least decisive as to whether or not the letter is in fact privileged. The privilege exists in order to encourage bona fide attempts to negotiate a settlement of an action and if the letter is not written to initiate or continue such a bona fide attempt to effect a settlement it will not be protected by privilege. But, conversely, if it is written in the course of such a bona fide attempt, it will be covered by privilege, and the absence of any heading or reference in the letter to show it is written without prejudice will not be fatal.
I have merely stated some general principles. But in the present case the position is somewhat different. The letter itself contains no reference to a claim that it is written without prejudice; on the contrary, the second of the two letters is headed ‘open letter’, and the defendants, whose letter it is, written by their solicitors, expressly do not claim privilege, they want to refer to the letter in cross-examination of the plaintiffs’ witness. Mr Rampton says they cannot do so. It is the plaintiffs who claim privilege for the defendants’ letter, and Mr Rampton submits that the very fact that it is clearly written with an offer to negotiate a settlement of the action means that the defendants cannot refer to it without the plaintiffs’ consent, which in the instant case is not given.
In my judgment, a party may write a letter containing an offer to settle an action without ipso facto attracting to that letter a privilege which the opposing party may then claim. If the letter is in reply to a letter written without prejudice or is part of a continuing sequence of negotiations, whether by correspondence or orally, then it will be privileged and cannot be given in evidence without the consent of both parties. But in the present case I am dealing with a letter which was not part of continuing without prejudice negotiations. It was written after certain negotiations and correspondence without prejudice had finished and come to nothing. In my judgment, a letter containing an offer to settle an action may be written, and written as an open letter, and used by the party writing it in the course of the action, provided it has relevance to the issues in the action and, as I have already made clear, is not part of continuing negotiations.
In an action for defamation it is clear that such a letter may be highly relevant. The damages are likely to be very much affected by the willingness or refusal of the defendant to make an apology. True there is nothing to stop a defendant making an apology without first obtaining the agreement of the plaintiff, but equally I see nothing to prevent a defendant making an offer openly to publish an apology on terms and then referring to the letter at the trial. If, as in this case, the offer is not accepted, it is then open to the plaintiff to say why it was not accepted; it is open to the plaintiffs to invite the jury to take into account that the offered
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apology was only made upon terms, and therefore was conditional; and it is open to the plaintiffs to point out that, the terms not having been accepted, the defendants did not see fit to go and broadcast or publish the apology without the conditions that they had asked for being met.
But, if the defendants are not permitted to refer to what they wish to treat as an open letter, it seems to me that the jury will have to assess damages, if they find for the plaintiffs on libel, on an entirely false basis. The plaintiffs’ case was opened on the basis that, following the letter before action on 3 July 1991 and the issue of the writ, the defendants replied with their offer to settle the action, including the proposal that they should broadcast or publish an apology of a sort, or a statement, in terms which Mr Rampton described to the jury as ‘very mean’ terms. The terms were read to the jury and they were told that no apology has been made since. I think that, as the defendants have now in July offered an apology, it would be right for the jury to know the nature of the apology offered, together of course with the terms upon which they offered to make it.
It seems to me that this whole subject of without prejudice letters is clearly a form of privilege which may be waived by the party claiming the privilege but, where negotiations take place, it cannot be waived without both parties consenting to the publication of the terms of the negotiations which have gone on. But in this case, where one party writes an open letter, I can see nothing at all to justify privilege being attached.
I have considered particularly the speech of Lord Griffiths in Rush & Tompkins Ltd v Greater London Council [1988] 3 All ER 737 at 740–744, [1989] AC 1280 at 1300–1305, to which my attention was drawn. But I do not find anything in that speech which leads me to take the view that where one party alone makes an open statement it is open to the other party to claim privilege merely on the grounds that the letter contains an offer to negotiate a settlement or, as in this case, to make an apology. It seems to me, although Mr Rampton has indicated he is not going to find fault with the distinction between the two letters, that the first letter is in exactly the same position as the second letter, that is the letter of 1 July. It was not part of the continuing correspondence or of the negotiations and the mere fact that it lacks the words ‘open letter’ does not make it privileged any more than the mere fact that the letter of 9 July is headed ‘open’ makes that unprivileged. It is the substance and context of the letters which, in my judgment, govern their admissibility. Therefore I rule that it is open to the defendants to put to the plaintiffs’ witnesses the terms of either or both of those letters.
Order accordingly.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Wilson v Best Travel Ltd
[1993] 1 All ER 353
Categories: CONTRACT
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): PHILLIPS J
Hearing Date(s): 16, 17, 18, 19 APRIL 1991
Contract – Implied term – Contract of service – Duty to carry out service with reasonable care and skill – Holiday brochure – Plaintiff injured by falling through glass doors of Greek hotel while on holiday – Holiday booked through defendant tour operator – Glass doors complying with Greek but not British safety standards – Plaintiff suing defendants for breach of duty of care to provide services with reasonable care and skill – Nature of duty of care owed by tour operator to customers – Whether defendants discharging duty of care owed to plaintiff – Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982, s 13.
The plaintiff, while staying in a hotel in Greece on a holiday booked through the defendant tour operator, sustained serious injuries after tripping and falling through glass patio doors at the hotel. The hotel was featured in the defendants’ brochure, which stated that the defendants were not always able to exercise day-to-day control over holiday arrangements and that they would not accept liability for loss, damage or inconvenience unless caused by negligence on the part of their own employees but that they did ‘keep an eye on’ accommodation referred to in the brochure. The glass doors were fitted with ordinary 5-mm glass which complied with Greek but not British safety standards, which would have required the use of safety glass in such doors. The plaintiff claimed damages against the defendants, contending that the characteristics of the glass fitted to the patio doors were such that the hotel was not reasonably safe for use by the defendants’ customers and that the defendants were in breach of the duty of care arising out of the term implied by s 13a of the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982 that in a contract for the supply of services the supplier of services would carry out the service with reasonable care and skill.
Held – The duty of care owed by a tour operator to its customers in accordance with s 13 of the 1982 Act was a duty to exercise reasonable care to exclude from the accommodation offered any hotel the characteristics of which were such that guests could not spend a holiday there in reasonable safety. The duty to ensure reasonable safety was discharged if the tour operator checked that local safety regulations had been complied with and the duty did not extend to excluding a hotel whose characteristics, so far as safety was concerned, failed to satisfy the current standards applying in England, provided always that the absence of the relevant safety feature was not such that a reasonable holiday-maker might decline to take a holiday at the hotel in question, eg if a hotel included in a brochure had no fire precautions at all. Accordingly, since the defendants had inspected the accommodation offered in their brochure as part of their services, since the patio doors complied with Greek safety regulations and since the degree of danger posed by the absence of safety glass in the patio doors was not such that the plaintiff would have declined to stay at the hotel, the defendants had discharged the duty of care owed to the plaintiff, whose claim therefore failed (see p 356 a g h and p 358 c to e g, post).
Notes
For implied terms in a contract, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 351–362, and for cases on the subject, see 12(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 403–454, 3282–3546.
Page 354 of [1993] 1 All ER 353
For the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982, s 13, see 39 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 172.
Cases referred to in judgment
Shirlaw v Southern Foundries (1926) Ltd and Federated Foundries Ltd [1939] 2 All ER 113, [1939] 2 KB 206, CA; affd [1940] 2 All ER 445, [1940] AC 701, HL.
Wall v Silver Wings Surface Arrangements Ltd (18 November 1981, unreported), QBD.
Action
The plaintiff, Richard Bernard Wilson, brought an action against the defendant, Best Travel Ltd, claiming damages for injuries suffered by him at the Vanninarchis Beach Hotel on the island of Kos in Greece when he tripped and fell through a glass patio door of the hotel on 14 August 1986. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Paul Norris (instructed by G L Hockfield & Co) for the plaintiff.
Frank Burton (instructed by Hextall Erskine & Co) for the defendants.
19 April 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
PHILLIPS J. In 1986 Mrs Cheryl Bromley made a booking on behalf of a party of five with the defendants for a two-week holiday at the Vanninarchis Beach Hotel on the island of Kos. The defendants’ brochure, from which Mrs Bromley selected the holiday, described the hotel as follows:
‘C Class. This friendly family-run hotel is located right on the sea shore. The informal Vanninarchis Beach is close to several shops and tavernas and a short walk from the Kardomina Harbour. It has a reception/rustic style lounge with adjoining snack bar opening on to a terrace and a souvenir shop. All rooms have private bath/WC or shower/WC and balcony. Bed and breakfast.’
Mrs Bromley’s party, in addition to herself, consisted of a gentleman friend, her 14-year-old daughter Cheryl, her elder daughter Yvonne, and Yvonne’s fiancé, the plaintiff. Four of the party had never been out of England before and looked forward to the holiday with keen excitement.
The party flew to Kos on 13 August 1986 and arrived at the hotel in the evening. Yvonne and the plaintiff were allocated a room on the ground floor of the hotel and the other three members of the party were given the room next door. This room had a sliding glass door that led on to a patio. At about 10.30 am on 14 August, after exploring the beach, breakfast, and a short presentation by the defendants’ local representative, the plaintiff and Yvonne joined the other three members of the party in the latter’s bedroom. There, in circumstances to which I shall return, the plaintiff tripped and fell against the glass patio door. The door shattered and the plaintiff fell through it, sustaining lacerations from the broken glass to the right shoulder, elbow, hand and, in particular, multiple lacerations of the right leg. The plaintiff now claims from the defendants damages in respect of the consequences of this accident. Before dealing with the issue of liability, I propose to describe those consequences.
The Injuries
[His Lordship then considered the nature of the plaintiff’s injuries and his consequential loss and concluded that if liability were to be established the plaintiff would be entitled to general damages of £12,500 for pain, suffering and loss of amenity and £30,000 for future loss of earnings. His Lordship continued:]
Page 355 of [1993] 1 All ER 353
Liability
How did the accident occur? The accident happened quickly with a devastating shock to the plaintiff and the other members of the party in the room at the time and it is not surprising that the picture painted by their evidence is not entirely clear. The essence of the story is not, however, in doubt. The plaintiff had just closed the sliding door on to the patio and was standing with his back to it. A heavy pair of curtains was drawn open, flanking the door, but the curtain behind and to the right of the plaintiff as he faced into the room had become detached in part from the curtain rail and was trailing a little on the ground. In order to allow Cheryl Bromley access to a table close to which he was standing, the plaintiff took one or two steps back. His right foot caught in the sagging curtain and caused him to trip backwards. I think he must have fallen against the glass with his full weight, albeit not from a great distance, in order to cause the glass to break. Mr Burton, counsel for the defendants, urged me to reject this account of the accident, with which all the eye-witnesses concurred. He submitted that it is more probable that the accident resulted from the plaintiff falling against the window with greater momentum as a result of some high-spirited horseplay. The evidence provides no foundation for this submission, and I reject it. I do not find that the plaintiff was in any way responsible for his own misfortune. The immediate cause of his falling was the obstruction which resulted from the sagging curtain. The gravity of the consequences was attributable to the fact that the glass fractured into fragments of razor-edged sharpness.
The plaintiff’s case
Mr Norris, counsel for the plaintiff, advanced his case in two alternative ways. The fundamental premise underlying each was that the characteristics of the glass fitted to the doors of the Vanninarchis Beach Hotel were such that the hotel was not reasonably safe for use by the defendants’ customers. This constituted a breach of contract on the part of the defendants for two reasons. First, it was an implied term of the defendants’ contract with the plaintiff that the structure of the hotel would be reasonably safe. Second, the defendants owed the plaintiff a duty to exercise reasonable skill and care to ensure that the hotel was reasonably safe. This duty required that the hotel should have been regularly and competently inspected. Such inspections should have disclosed the nature of the glass fitted in the sliding doors of the hotel and thus the fact that the hotel was not reasonably safe.
Implied warranty
In support of his first submission Mr Norris was able to point to no particular feature of the plaintiff’s contract that gave rise to the implication of the term. Rather he contended that such a term fell to be implied in every contract for a package holiday of the kind with which this case is concerned. He submitted that if any bystander were to ask the parties whether it was an implied term of their contract that the hotel would be reasonably safe, they would both answer, ‘Of course’ (see Shirlaw v Southern Foundries (1926) Ltd and Federated Foundries Ltd [1939] 2 All ER 113 at 124, [1939] 2 KB 206 at 227). I do not agree. The defendants would not have considered it either obvious or reasonable that they should give a warranty of this kind. Mr Burton referred me to the transcript of a decision of Hodgson J in Wall v Silver Wings Surface Arrangements Ltd (18 November 1981, unreported), in which, in a case of very different facts, the plaintiff sought to establish a similar implied term in a contract for a package holiday. After a careful analysis of the relevant law, the judge rejected the term alleged on the ground that the implication of such a term was neither necessary
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nor obvious nor reasonable. I share both his reasoning and his conclusion. Hodgson J observed:
‘I think quite clearly that situations could arise in which the tour operator would be liable in negligence to his customers. If, for instance, a hotel included in a brochure had no fire precautions at all or was known to fail to reach the standards required by the law of the country, then the tour operator would, I apprehend, be in breach of duty.’
This observation is germane to the alternative way in which Mr Norris advanced his case.
Duty of care
Section 13 of the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982 provides:
‘In a contract for the supply of a service where the supplier is acting in the course of a business, there is an implied term that the supplier will carry out the service with reasonable care and skill.’
The nature of the services provided by a travel agent when arranging a holiday can vary enormously, depending on the nature of the holiday. I am satisfied, having read their brochure, that the service provided by the defendants included the inspection of the properties offered in their brochure. Such service is implicit from a number of passages in their brochure, including, under the heading ‘Important Information’:
‘Brochure descriptions
Every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy of descriptions and information contained in this brochure. However, we are not always able to exercise day-to-day control over all the component parts of the holiday arrangements and it is always possible that an advertised amenity may be withdrawn or changed due to various reasons, for the purpose of energy or water conservation, lack of demand or for maintenance, renovation etc. We will advise you if we become aware of a major change but we cannot accept liability for the loss of an advertised amenity in such circumstances. Similarly we cannot accept liability for loss, damage or inconvenience unless caused by negligence on the part of our own employees. We would add that we do keep an eye on the accommodation.’
In my judgment, one of the characteristics of accommodation that the defendants owed a duty to consider when inspecting properties included in their brochure was safety. The defendants owe their customers, including the plaintiff, a duty to exercise reasonable care to exclude from the accommodation offered any hotel whose characteristics were such that guests could not spend a holiday there in reasonable safety. I believe that this case is about the standard to be applied in assessing reasonable safety. It is necessary at this stage to turn to the evidence in relation to the glass fitted in the doors of the Vanninarchis Beach Hotel.
Glass
Mr Vanninarchis, the manager and, with other members of his family, the owner of the Vanninarchis Beach Hotel, came to England from Kos to give evidence. He told me that the construction of his hotel was completed in 1980. The hotel had to comply with two sets of regulations, those imposed by the building authority and those imposed by the Greek tourist organisation, EOT. These regulations covered the specifications of the building, including the glass to be fitted to doors and windows. The glass for the doors of the hotel was
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required to be 5 mm thick. The glass was also slightly tinted. At the time there was no one on the island of Kos who manufactured or supplied glass of that thickness so the aluminium frames for the doors had to be sent to Athens where a contractor made and fitted 5 mm thick glass. The doors were in due course inspected on behalf of the authorities and approved. Licences were duly issued and renewed by EOT, proving that the regulations were satisfied. Mr Vanninarchis brought three of the licences with him. Mr Norris for the plaintiff suggested to Mr Vanninarchis that the doors of his hotel should have been fitted with safety glass, which would fragment into innocuous small pieces if broken. Mr Vanninarchis’s reaction to this was surprise and bewilderment which impressed me as genuine. He said that he was aware of such glass being fitted to motor cars but in Greece it was not the practice to fit it in hotels. The regulations did not require it and such glass was not used in building hotels. He did not accept that it was dangerous to fit ordinary glass in his hotel, observing that they had not had an accident such as that which befell the plaintiff either before or after his casualty.
Expert evidence
Mr Geoffrey Tibbs, a chemist with long experience of the glass industry, was called to give expert evidence for the plaintiff. He told me of a number of different types of glass. For present purposes, two are relevant. The first is annealed glass. This is the glass that is normally used for glazing. It is generally used in panes of 4 mm thickness, with 5 mm or 6 mm being used for larger panes and where increased strength is required. Annealed glass breaks into sharp and jagged pieces. The second type is toughened glass, sometimes known as tempered glass. Individual pieces of glass, already cut to size, are heated in a furnace and then cooled by jets of air so that the outside surface cools before the inside, resulting in a high compression in the surface of the glass and tension in the centre. A greater force is required to break toughened glass compared with ordinary annealed glass of the same thickness. Once it is broken it will immediately break into a very large number of small pieces which are relatively harmless. Toughened glass is used in many car windscreens. If broken by a flying stone it is usually necessary to push the glass out with a hand to restore visability. The characteristic small broken pieces will have been seen at the site of many road accidents. It cannot be cut to size after toughening, so that each piece has to be ordered specially. It is a true safety glass.
Mr Tibbs told me that there has been a growing awareness over recent years of the dangers of glass, particularly in respect of large panes of glass in doors. The present situation in this country with respect to the type of door through which the plaintiff fell, particularly in a hotel or similar public place, is that safety glass, either toughened or laminated, would always be used. Mr Tibbs referred me to the relevant British Standards. In 1963 a supplement to BS 973 recommended:
‘Glazing generally
All glass so situated that there is a reasonably foreseeable risk of injury due to accidental breakage should be toughened glass unless otherwise required by fire regulations.
Doors
All glazing for doors, other than for small observation panels, should be toughened glass except where the fire regulations apply.’
Subsequent revisions to the relevant standards emphasise the desirability of fitting toughened glass wherever there is a risk of injury due to accidental breakage. In 1982 BS 6262 was introduced requiring the use of safety glass in doors and side
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panels where there is a large single pane. Despite these standards, the fitting of safety glass to doors has not yet been made a mandatory requirement under the building regulations. It is nonetheless the practice in England to comply with the relevant standards.
It is apparent from this evidence that the standards currently applied in England in the interests of safety have yet to be adopted in Greece. It is at least arguable that, if the plaintiff’s accident had occurred in England, the hotelier would be held to be in breach of the common duty of care imposed by s 2(2) of the Occupiers, Liability Act 1957.
What is the duty of a tour operator in a situation such as this? Must he refrain from sending holidaymakers to any hotel whose characteristics, in so far as safety is concerned, fail to satisfy the standards which apply in this country? I do not believe that his obligations in respect of the safety of his clients can extend this far. Save where uniform international regulations apply, there are bound to be differences in the safety standards applied in respect of the many hazards of modern life between one country and another. All civilised countries attempt to cater for these hazards by imposing mandatory regulations. The duty of care of a tour operator is likely to extend to checking that local safety regulations are complied with. Provided that they are, I do not consider that the tour operator owes a duty to boycott a hotel because of the absence of some safety feature which would be found in an English hotel unless the absence of such a feature might lead a reasonable holidaymaker to decline to take a holiday at the hotel in question. On the facts of this case I do not consider that the degree of danger posed by the absence of safety glass in the doors of the Vanninarchis Beach Hotel called for any action on the part of the defendants pursuant to their duty to exercise reasonable care to ensure the safety of their clients.
It is perhaps significant that Mr Norris did not expand on what action the defendants should have taken. It was not suggested that they had a duty to warn clients of this characteristic or that such a warning would have prevented the accident in this case. What was, I think, implicit in the plaintiff’s case was that the defendants should not have permitted the Vanninarchis Beach Hotel to feature in their brochure. If that contention were valid, it would, on the evidence of Mr Vanninarchis, apply to many, if not the majority, of the other hotels, pensions and villas featured in the defendants’ brochure and no doubt the brochures of the other tour operators who send their clients to Greece.
I have the greatest sympathy for the plaintiff for the horrifying accident he has suffered and its unhappy consequences but, for the reasons that I have given, it was an accident which involved no breach of contract or duty on the part of the defendants.
Judgment for the defendants.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Practice Direction
(Summary judgment)
[1993] 1 All ER 359
(Chancery 5/92)
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): 7 December 1992
Hearing Date(s): Practice – Summary judgment – Chancery Division – Application including claim for injunction – Summons – Return date – Adjournment where hearing likely to be more than 30 minutes – RSC Ord 14.
Specific performance – Summary procedure – Summons – Summons normally returnable before master – RSC Ord 86.
1. Applications for summary judgment under RSC Ord 14 are made to the master save in cases where the relief sought includes an injunction which cannot be granted by the master. In those cases the application is made by summons directly to the judge in chambers. At present the return date for such summonses is chosen by the plaintiff’s solicitor. This practice is disrupting the efficient functioning of the court lists. These summonses often take many hours or even days to hear, the return date has no regard to existing listing commitments and estimates of the likely length of the hearing given on behalf of the plaintiff before the defendant’s evidence has been seen frequently prove to be wildly wrong.
2. In future the return date to be inserted in judges’ summonses under Ord 14 will be a Monday. On the return date the judge will normally adjourn the effective hearing of the summons to a date to be fixed if the hearing, whether opposed or unopposed, is likely to take longer than 30 minutes. The date will be fixed in the usual way through the Clerk of the Lists, and a certificate of counsel as to the estimated length of the hearing should be lodged with him.
3. In future the master may himself deal with all applications for summary judgment under Ord 86. Accordingly such summonses should normally be returnable before the master in the usual way.
4. To give effect to these changes, the following amendments are made to the Chancery Division Practice Directions.
(1) Chancery Practice Direction (12)(x)(ii), set out in The Supreme Court Practice vol 2, p 210, para 852, is amended by substituting a new para (ii):
‘Where an application under Order 14 includes an application for an injunction, it usually has to be adjourned to a judge because in most cases the master cannot grant an injunction save in terms agreed by the parties. In such cases the summons should be made returnable before the judge in chambers instead of the master. The return date to be inserted in the summonses will be a Monday which is at least 10 clear days (rule 2(3)) after the summons will be served. The summons should be issued in the Listing Office (room 812), when there must be lodged two copies of the summons, and the affidavits in support with the exhibits. On the return date the summons will normally be adjourned to a date to be fixed if the hearing, whether opposed or unopposed, is likely to take longer than 30 minutes. The adjourned date will be fixed in the usual way through the Clerk of the Lists, and a certificate signed by counsel as to the estimated length of the hearing must be lodged with him.’
Page 360 of [1993] 1 All ER 359
(2) Sub-paragraph (a) of para (A)(i) under the heading ‘B. Jurisdiction’ in Chancery Practice Direction (13) relating to masters (see The Supreme Court Practice vol 2, p 210, para 854) shall be amended to read as follows:
‘(a) making orders for specific performance which involve an injunction (such as specific performance of repairing covenants).’
5. The listing arrangements mentioned above do not affect applications for summary judgment under Ord 14 made to the master.
By direction of the Vice-Chancellor.
J M DYSON
7 December 1992 Chief Chancery Master.
Practice Direction
(Vacation business)
[1993] 1 All ER 360
(Chancery 6/92)
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): 7 December 1992
Hearing Date(s): Practice – Chancery Division – Masters – Business before Chancery masters – Abolition of distinction between term time and vacation business – Hearings in Companies Court and before judges unaffected – RSC Ord 64, r 3.
1. As from 11 January 1993 (the first day of the Hilary Term) there will no longer be any distinction between term time and vacation so far as business before the Chancery masters is concerned. The list in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 1, para 64/3/4, setting out the classes of application treated by the Chancery masters as vacation business, is hereby cancelled.
The masters will deal with all types of business throughout the year, and when a master is on holiday his list will normally be taken by a deputy master.
2. This direction has no application to the Companies Court, or to hearings before the Chancery judges, which continue to be governed by RSC Ord 64, r 3.
By direction of the Vice-Chancellor.
J M DYSON
7 December 1992 Chief Chancery Master.
Re International Bulk Commodities Ltd
[1993] 1 All ER 361
Categories: COMPANY; Insolvency
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MUMMERY J
Hearing Date(s): 23, 24 MARCH, 15 APRIL 1992
Company – Receiver – Administrative receiver – Unregistered company – Receivers appointed by debenture holder – Whether receivers of unregistered company appointed by debenture holder administrative receivers – Whether powers of receivers limited to powers under debenture – Companies Act 1985, s 735(1)(4) – Insolvency Act 1986, ss 29(2), 251.
A company which was incorporated in 1988 outside the United Kingdom for the purpose of worldwide trading in commodities was neither incorporated nor registered under the Companies Acts. Its sales operations in the United Kingdom were conducted by one director, and the other three directors were resident abroad. On 28 April 1989 the company granted a debenture to a bank giving the bank a first fixed charge over the company’s property and book debts and a first floating charge over all its assets past and future. The debenture gave the bank power to appoint a receiver and manager in the event of failure by the company to make payment on demand. The debenture provided that the receiver so appointed was to have various specified powers in addition to those conferred by s 109 of the Law of Property Act 1925 and if he was an administrative receiver within s 29a of the Insolvency Act 1986 his powers under Sch 1 to that Act were not limited by the specified powers. On 15 May 1990 the bank issued a facility letter up to a maximum of £2m. The company ceased trading on 26 October 1991 and on 4 February 1992 the bank terminated the facility and demanded payment of £879,026.73. No payment was made and on 7 February the bank appointed receivers. The company disputed the right of the bank to appoint receivers. The receivers applied for the determination of the court whether, in view of the fact that the company was a foreign company which was not incorporated or registered under the Companies Acts, they could act as administrative receivers under the 1986 Act or whether they were merely contractual receivers whose powers were limited to those specified in the debenture.
Held – Although under s 29(2) of the 1986 Act an administrative receiver was defined as the receiver or manager of a company’s property appointed by the debenture holder, the term ‘company’ was not defined for the purposes of s 29(2) and therefore by s 251b that term was to be construed in accordance with the definition of ‘company’ in s 735(1)c of the Companies Act 1985, viz ‘a company formed and registered under [the 1985] Act’. However, by s 735(4)d that definition was subject to no contrary intention being apparent in the legislation and, having regard to the provisions of the 1986 Act relating to administrative receivers generally, there was a contrary intention that those provisions applied both to companies formed and registered under the Companies Acts and to unregistered companies (including foreign companies conducting business in England) liable to be wound up under Pt V of the 1986 Act, since the general purpose and the nature of the statutory scheme relating to the qualifications, functions, powers
Page 362 of [1993] 1 All ER 361
and duties of administrative receivers were as appropriate to unregistered companies as to registered companies and it made no sense for the purpose and scheme of administrative receivership to be confined to appointments of receivers made over the property of registered companies. It followed that the applicants were administrative receivers within s 29(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 (see p 366 a to e h to p 367 e h to p 368 d, post).
Notes
For administrative receivers, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1386–1428.
For unregistered companies, see ibid paras 2363–2378, and for cases on the subject, see 10(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 475–484, 12892–12951.
For the Law of Property Act 1925, s 109, see 37 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 234.
For the Companies Act 1985, s 735, see 8 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (reissue) 597.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 29, Pt V (ss 220–229), s 251, Sch 1, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 753, 874, 896, 1054.
Cases referred to in judgment
Anchor Line (Henderson Bros) Ltd, Re [1937] 2 All ER 823, [1937] Ch 483.
Atlantic Computer Systems plc, Re [1992] 1 All ER 476, [1992] Ch 505, [1992] 2 WLR 367, CA.
Felixstowe Dock and Rly Co v US Lines Inc [1988] 2 All ER 77, [1989] QB 360, [1989] 2 WLR 109.
Law Society v United Service Bureau Ltd [1934] 1 KB 343, DC.
Cases also cited
Barrow Borough Transport Ltd, Re [1990] Ch 227.
International Westminster Bank plc v Okeanos Maritime Corp [1987] 3 All ER 137, sub nom Re a company (No 00359 of 1987) [1988] Ch 210.
Application
By application dated 26 February 1992 Philip Sykes and John Hill of Messrs Binder Hamlyn, the receivers of International Bulk Commodities Ltd (IBC) appointed by Swiss Bank Corp pursuant to a facility letter dated 15 May 1990 and a debenture dated 28 April 1989, sought the determination of the court on the question whether they were administrative receivers within the meaning of s 29(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 or receivers whose powers were limited to those conferred by the debenture. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Gabriel Moss QC and Susan Prevezer (instructed by Simpson Curtis, Leeds) for the applicants.
Patrick Eccles QC (instructed by Colin Bomer & Co, Newbury) for IBC.
Cur adv vult
15 April 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
MUMMERY J. This application poses a difficult question of general importance on the scope of the provisions in the Insolvency Act 1986 concerned with administrative receivers. Do those provisions apply in the case of a foreign company? More precisely, do they apply to a receiver of the whole, or substantially the whole, of the property of a foreign company appointed by or on behalf of the
Page 363 of [1993] 1 All ER 361
holders of debentures of the company secured by a charge which, as created, was a floating charge?
The question has arisen in the following way. The respondent company, International Bulk Commodities Ltd (IBC), was not formed or registered under the Companies Acts. It was incorporated in 1988 in Liberia. Its registered office is in Monrovia. IBC trades worldwide buying and selling basic commodities such as timber, coal and cement. In the United Kingdom IBC’s sales operations were based in Newbury and were controlled by one of the directors, Mr Stuart Thornhill. The other three directors of IBC are resident abroad.
On 26 October 1991 IBC ceased trading in the United Kingdom. Its business assets and liabilities in the United Kingdom were transferred to the Portland Cement Co Ltd. While it was still trading in the United Kingdom IBC granted a debenture (dated 28 April 1989) to the Swiss Bank Corp (the bank). By way of continuing security for the payment and discharge of all moneys and liabilities owing by IBC to the bank, IBC granted a first fixed charge over its freehold and leasehold property and book debts, and a first floating charge over all its assets, undertaking and property, past and future. The debenture was in a form familiar to English lawyers, bankers and businessmen. It included a common form power in cl 12 to appoint a receiver and manager of the property charged in the event of failure to make payment of sums secured in accordance with the demand of the bank. The clause provided that the receiver so appointed should have various powers—
‘in addition to the powers conferred by section 109 of the Law of Property Act 1925, and in the case of a receiver who is an administrative receiver within the meaning of section 29 of the Insolvency Act 1986, without limiting the powers in Schedule 1 of that Act.’
On 15 May 1990 a facility letter was issued by the bank to IBC up to a maximum sum of £2m. On 4 February 1992 the bank terminated the facility and demanded payment of the sum of £879,026.73. No payment was made. On 7 February 1992 the bank purported to appoint Mr Philip Sykes and Mr John Hill of Messrs Binder Hamlyn as receivers pursuant to the debenture. IBC disputes the bank’s right to appoint receivers, but no step has been taken to challenge the validity of their appointment. Both parties have invited this court to proceed on the basis that the validity of the appointment is not and cannot be disputed or decided on this application.
The dispute on this application is whether the receivers, who are the applicants, are ‘administrative receivers’ within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986, or are simply contractual receivers appointed out of court with powers limited to those contractually conferred by the terms of the debenture. The applicants wish to know the nature and extent of their receivership powers as a matter of practical importance and pressing nature, because they have been unable so far to obtain any assistance from the directors of IBC as to the location of books and records of IBC, or as to the provision of information about its assets. The applicants contemplate use of the procedures in ss 234 to 236 of the 1986 Act for the purpose of obtaining information, but those powers are only available to the applicants if they are ‘office holders’, a term defined as including administrative receivers: see s 234(1) of the 1986 Act.
On 26 February 1992 an application was issued for the determination of that question. Paragraph 1 of the application seeks the following declaration, a declaration—
‘as to whether the applicants appointed pursuant to a facility letter dated 15th May 1990 and a debenture dated 28th April 1989 made between the respondent and the Swiss Bank Corporation are administrative receivers
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within the meaning of section 29(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986, or are receivers whose powers are limited to those conferred by the said debenture.’
I should mention other relevant matters before I refer to the statutory provisions.
(1) It is not argued that under English company law, or under the English law of mortgage, a foreign company, that is a company not formed and registered under the Companies Acts, lacks the requisite legal capacity to enter into a debenture secured by a floating charge on property both in England and abroad and conferring a power to appoint a receiver and manager over the whole, or substantially the whole, of its property. There is no evidence that the law of the place of incorporation of IBC, Liberia, impinges on these points so as to incapacitate IBC in any relevant way.
(2) It is not disputed that the debenture, and the fixed and floating charge created by it, are to be construed according to English law which draws no distinction, in the case of an English company at least, between property located within the property located outside the United Kingdom: see Re Anchor Line (Henderson Bros) Ltd [1937] 2 All ER 823 at 825–826, [1937] Ch 483 at 487–488. It is not argued that any system of law other than English law applies to determine the legal status of the receivers appointed by the bank pursuant to the debenture.
(3) As an ‘unregistered company’, IBC is amenable to the jurisdiction of the English court to wind up unregistered companies under Pt V of the 1986 Act, though it may not be wound up voluntarily under that Act: see s 221(4). In this judgment I shall use the expression ‘unregistered company’ to mean any company which is liable to be wound up under Pt V of the 1986 Act.
(4) The question for decision is one of construction of the 1986 Act and is not covered by any previous authority.
Before I refer to the particular provisions dealing with administrative receivers, I should also say something about the statutory background to the provisions and the evident purpose of the innovation of the concept of an administrative receiver.
In Re Atlantic Computer Systems plc [1992] 1 All ER 476 at 485, [1992] Ch 505 at 524 the Court of Appeal summarised the background to the provisions of the 1986 Act relating to receivers:
‘Typically, when lending money to a company, a bank will take as security a charge over all or most of the assets of the company, present and future, the charge being a fixed charge on land and certain other assets, and a floating charge over the remaining assets. The deed authorises the bank to appoint a receiver and manager of the company’s undertaking, with power to carry on the company’s business. Such a receiver is referred to in the 1986 Act as an “administrative receiver”.’
Subject of course to the wording of the particular statutory provisions, those general observations are as pertinent to the case of a security granted to a bank by an unregistered company as to a security granted by a company formed and registered under the Companies Acts.
It is also noted by the Court of Appeal in Re Atlantic Computer Systems plc [1992] 1 All ER 476 at 486–487, [1992] Ch 505 at 525 that the report of the Review Committee on Insolvency Law and Practice ((1982) Cmnd 8558) made in June under the chairmanship of Sir Kenneth Cork considered that the power, contained in any well-drawn floating charge, to appoint a receiver and manager of the property and undertaking of a company had been of outstanding public benefit. A significant number of companies had been forced into liquidation, and potentially viable businesses capable of being rescued had been closed down, for want of such a floating charge.
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The 1986 Act built on the foundations of the typical debenture by providing in Pt III for administrative receivers and in Pt II machinery for the making of administration orders intended to be used as a statutory alternative to an administrative receiver by filling ‘a lacuna perceived to exist in the case of insolvent companies where either there is no floating charge or the holder of the floating charge does not appoint an administrative receiver’ (see [1992] 1 All ER 476 at 487, [1992] Ch 505 at 525). Once appointed an administrative receiver has ‘all the powers normally conferred upon a receiver and manager appointed under a floating charge’ (see [1992] 1 All ER 476 at 487, [1992] Ch 505 at 525), though, as was recognised in that case, there are features distinguishing administration from administrative receivership.
It appears from these general observations, and from the detailed provisions of the 1986 Act, that Parliament intended to promote two purposes relevant to receivers appointed by debenture holders. First, Parliament gave statutory recognition and reinforcement to the existing regime of contractual receivers appointed by debenture holders which had operated for the public benefit. It conferred the statutory status of administrative receiver in those cases where the receiver had been appointed by or on behalf of the debenture holder over the whole, or substantially the whole, of the company’s property. The 1986 Act contains provisions relating to many different aspects of receivership, all designed to improve the efficacy of the contractual machinery and to protect the interests of those affected by the receivership. There are provisions relating to qualification for office, and to appointment and vacation of office; and to many express powers, duties, rights and liabilities additional to those expressed in the debenture. There are additional administrative functions, such as the submission of a statement of affairs and the making of reports on specified matters.
Reference was made in particular to ss 42 to 49 and 230 to 237, and to the powers of an administrator or administrative receiver as set out in Sch 1 to the 1986 Act.
Secondly, Parliament has provided for the situation where the power to appoint a receiver does not exist, or where the power does exist but has not been exercised, or where the power has been exercised, but the person by whom or on whose behalf the receiver has been appointed consents to an order being made. There is jurisdiction to make an order in the terms of an administration order, available as an alternative to administrative receivership, and also available as an alternative to liquidation; see the provisions of ss 9, 10 and 11 of the 1986 Act.
Administrative receivership has to be viewed in the context of the whole range of remedies now available in situations where a company is, or is likely to become, unable to pay its debts. The changes made by the 1986 Act provide both greater flexibility and increased protection for those affected by actual or potential insolvency situations.
Against that general background I now consider the detailed statutory provisions relating to administrative receivers. Section 251 is a definition section. It provides:
‘In this Group of Parts, except in so far as the context otherwise requires—“administrative receiver” means—(a) an administrative receiver as defined by section 29(2) in Chapter I of Part III … ’
Section 29(2) is another definition in these terms:
‘In this Chapter [which concerns receivers and managers in England and Wales] “administrative receiver” means—(a) a receiver or manager of the whole (or substantially the whole) of a company’s property appointed by or on behalf of the holders of any debentures of the company secured by a
Page 366 of [1993] 1 All ER 361
charge which, as created, was a floating charge, or by such a charge and one or more other securities …’
The crucial question is: what is a ‘company’ for the purposes of s 29(2)? There is no definition of a company for this purpose either in s 29 or in s 251. It is necessary to look at the words which appear at the foot of the defined expressions in s 251. Those words read:
‘… and any expression for whose interpretation provision is made by Part XXVI of the Companies Act, other than an expression defined above in this section, is to be construed in accordance with that provision.’
I turn to Pt XXVI of the Companies Act 1985. In s 735(1) the following definition appears:
‘In this Act—(a) “company” means a company formed and registered under this Act, or an existing company …’
The section defines an ‘existing company’ as meaning a company formed and registered under the former Companies Acts.
If that were the end of the matter, as IBC submits it is, the solution to the problem would be simple. IBC is not a company within that definition. The applicant receivers are not, therefore, administrative receivers within the meaning of s 29(2) of the 1986 Act and they do not have the powers of office holders which they wish to use. The matter does not, however, stop there because s 735 of the 1985 Act provides in sub-s (4): ‘The definitions in this section apply unless the contrary intention appears.’
An intention to displace the prime facie or primary meaning of the defined statutory term may appear in a number of ways. The intention may appear from an express definition in different terms made for the purpose of a particular section or group of sections: see, for example, the definition of a company in s 388(4) of the 1986 Act to which I shall return. There is no different express definition of ‘company’ for the purposes of administrative receivership provisions generally.
A contrary intention may also appear from the subject matter and manifest purpose of the relevant provisions when construed in the context of both the immediately relevant provisions and of the Act as a whole: see, for example, Law Society v United Service Bureau Ltd [1934] 1 KB 343 at 347–348.
The relevant question is therefore: is there any indication in the subject matter and statutory purpose of the provisions concerning administrative receivers generally, or in the 1986 Act considered as a whole, from which it appears that Parliament intended that the word ‘company’ in the context of s 29(2)(a) should not be confined to its prima facie meaning of a company formed and registered under the Companies Acts, but should also embrace unregistered companies liable to be wound up under Pt V of the 1986 Act.
In my judgment, there are indications that the provisions relating to administrative receivers generally apply both to companies formed and registered under the Companies Acts and to unregistered companies liable to be wound up under Pt V. The starting point is that the legislative concept of administrative receiver, and the statutory scheme of the provisions relating to his qualifications, functions, powers and duties, all rest on a contractual base, namely a receiver appointed by or on behalf of debenture holders under a debenture secured by a floating charge. Every administrative receiver is born in this way. As already noted, the underlying contractual regime is applicable both in the case of a
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debenture granted by a company formed and registered under the Companies Acts, and in the case of a debenture granted by an unregistered company. The general purpose and scheme of the statutory superstructure is to strengthen and build on the continuing contractual foundation for the greater benefit of all affected—the company, the contributories, the creditors, both secured and unsecured, and the preferential creditors, as well as the public generally. The attainment of that general purpose and the nature of the scheme are prima facie as appropriate to the case of an unregistered company as they are to the case of a registered company.
Why should the range of companies affected by the statutory scheme of administrative receivers not be coextensive with the range of companies affected by the underlying contractual receivership regime? Why should a receiver appointed over the property of a registered company and a receiver appointed over the property of an unregistered company under the same form of debenture and by the same debenture holder not both fall within the definition of an administrative receiver? It makes no sense to confine the purpose and scheme of administrative receivership to appointments of receivers made over the property of registered companies.
The foreign element is of no particular relevance where the company in question has granted a debenture secured by a floating charge in the English form. Both registered and unregistered companies may engage in activities both in England and abroad. Both may conduct business in England and abroad. Both may have creditors in England and abroad. Both may have assets located in England and abroad. Both may have directors resident in England and abroad. Both are liable to be wound up by the English court.
Why, for example, should the contributories and creditors of an unregistered company be denied the protection, enjoyed in the case of a registered company, of those provisions which require a receiver to be a licensed insolvency practitioner? In fact, Parliament recognised this particular problem and expressly dealt with it in s 388 of the 1986 Act in the definition of the expression ‘acting as an insolvency practitioner’ in relation to the need for qualifications and the consequences of acting without those qualifications.
Section 230(2) of the 1986 Act provides that, where an administrative receiver of a company is appointed, he must be a person who is qualified to act as an insolvency practitioner in relation to that company.
Section 388(1) then provides:
‘A person acts as an insolvency practitioner in relation to a company by acting—(a) as its liquidator, provisional liquidator, administrator or administrative receiver …’
Subsection (4) then provides:
‘In this section … “company” means a company within the meaning given by section 735(1) of the Companies Act or a company which may be wound up under Part V of this Act (unregistered companies) …’
In my view, that provision lends support to the view that a receiver appointed over the property of an unregistered company may be regarded as an administrative receiver within the meaning of the 1986 Act. In that capacity he would be acting as an insolvency practitioner and must be qualified so to act.
In my judgment, the court should construe the relevant provisions, where the wording so permits, to promote and not to frustrate the evident legislative purpose, in this case reinforcing the position of contractual receivers. The express
Page 368 of [1993] 1 All ER 361
statutory definition of ‘company’ is only its prima facie meaning, since it is expressly provided in s 735(4) of the Companies Act 1985 that the defined meaning may be displaced where a contrary intention appears. For the reasons I have stated above, a contrary intention does appear from the subject and the purpose of the provisions. The court should favour a construction which is consistent with and contributes to the smooth and efficient working of the contractual machinery recognised and reinforced by the legislation.
The position would, of course, have been plainer if Parliament had provided an expanded express definition of ‘company’ for the purposes of the group of sections which relate to administrative receivers, such as was done in the case of s 388(4), and was also done, for example, in s 22(2)(b) of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, where company is defined as including ‘any company which may be wound up under Part V of the Insolvency Act’.
The absence of a different express definition of ‘company’ in Pt III of the 1986 Act does not, in my view, prevent the definition in s 735(1) of the Companies Act from yielding to a contrary intention. I rest my decision on this broad approach.
Mr Moss QC, for the applicants, went through all the provisions of the Insolvency Act 1986 relating to administrative receivers. He also referred to provisions in the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 relating to administrative receivers, and to many other provisions in the Insolvency Act 1986 and in the Companies Act 1985 which might conceivably have some bearing on this question. I do not think that it is necessary to refer to all those provisions because they really do not take the matter any further. It all comes back to the question of what meaning is to be given to the definition of ‘company’ in the context in which it is used?
I will refer briefly to two particular aspects of his submissions. Extensive reference was made to the provisions in the Insolvency Act 1986 concerning administration orders and to the question whether they apply to the case of unregistered companies. Under s 8 of the 1986 Act the court has power to make an administration order in relation to a company if the court (a) is satisfied that the company is, or is likely to become, unable to pay its debts (within the meaning given to that expression by s 123 of the 1986 Act), and (b) considers that the making of an order under the section would be likely to achieve one or more of the specified purposes. An administration order is defined in s 8(2) as:
‘… an order directing that, during the period for which the order is in force, the affairs, business and property of the company shall be managed by a person (“the administrator”) appointed for the purpose by the court.’
Is ‘company’ in that context confined to a company formed and registered under the Companies Acts? Or does it extend to an unregistered company? If the court has power to make an administration order in relation to an unregistered company, that might strengthen the case for arguing that the provisions relating to administrative receivers should also apply to unregistered companies. Notice of a petition for an administration order must be served on any person who has appointed, or is or may be entitled to appoint, an administrative receiver of the company: see s 9(2)(a) of the 1986 Act. Where the court is satisfied that there is an administrative receiver of the company, the court shall dismiss the petition unless it is also satisfied as to certain other matters which are referred to in s 9(3) of the 1986 Act.
The position regarding administration orders over unregistered companies has not been finally settled by judicial decision. I was referred to the judgment of Hirst J in Felixstowe Dock and Rly Co v US Lines Inc [1988] 2 All ER 77 at 91, [1989] QB 360 at 376, where the judge stated:
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‘It is not in dispute that … (ii) Pt II of the Insolvency Act 1986 does not give the English court jurisdiction to make an administration order in respect of a foreign company.’
I also note that Picarda Law Relating to Receivers, Managers and Administrators (2nd edn, 1990) p 501 expresses the editor’s opinion as follows:
‘An administrator is a creature of statute and is appointed over the affairs, business and property of a company falling within the definition of company in section 735 of the Companies Act 1985. This means that the company in question must be formed and registered under the Companies Act 1985 or under the former Companies Acts … What this means, in effect, therefore, in the context of private international law is that an administrator cannot be appointed over the affairs, business or property of an overseas company.’
On the facts of this case it is not necessary for me to decide whether that view is right or wrong, and I should not decide it; the point should be left open for full argument in a case where it is necessary to the decision. I am unable to derive any assistance from the provisions relating to administrators on the question of administrative receivership. My only comment is that, if the position is that the court’s power to appoint an administrator is in fact confined to companies formed and registered under the Companies Acts, it does not necessarily follow that an administrative receiver is similarly confined.
It is clear that not all the insolvency procedures are applicable to unregistered companies. As already noted, voluntary liquidation is not: see s 221(4) of the 1986 Act. Further, the two remedies of administrative receiver and administrators are different in nature, though they may be similar in purpose. As already noted, the administrative receiver starts his life as a contractual appointee, though he occupies the position recognised and reinforced by statute and may not be removed save by order of the court, s 45(1) of the 1986 Act.
Administrators, on the other hand, are entirely the creatures of statute and it is quite possible that different considerations apply to administrators than apply to administrative receivers on the question of unregistered companies.
The second point on which there was considerable discussion concerns the provisions of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986. That makes use in a number of sections of the concept of administrative receiver, eg in the definition of when a company becomes insolvent for the purposes of disqualification of unfit directors of insolvent companies: see s 6(2)(b); and the application of the reporting provisions affecting administrative receivers as office holders in s 7(3)(d) and (4).
The definition of ‘company’ in s 22(2)(b) of that Act includes any company which may be wound up under Pt V of the Insolvency Act. Those companies are unregistered companies. That definition differs from that contained in s 735 of the Companies Act 1985, as applied to the provisions of the Insolvency Act 1986.
My only comment on the relevance of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 is that a decision that a receiver appointed over the property of an unregistered company is an administrative receiver for the purposes of the 1986 Act is consistent with, and does not create any particular difficulties in the operation of, the provisions of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986.
Mr Eccles QC, for IBC, in addition to his emphasis on the definition in s 735(1) of the 1985 Act, referred me to other specific provisions in the Insolvency Act 1986 in support of his submission that ‘company’ should be given its prima facie and primary meaning in relation to the provisions governing administrative receivers. I single out three sections for special mention. He referred me to s 70(1)
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which is the interpretation provision for a group of sections concerning receivers in Scotland. The definition of ‘company’ for the purpose of those provisions is ‘an incorporated company (whether or not a company within the meaning of the Companies Act) which the Court of Session has jurisdiction to wind up’.
Mr Eccles sought to contrast the presence of that definition in that group of sections with the absence of any such definition in relation to the administrative receivership group of sections in Pt III of that Act.
He also referred me to s 229(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 in the group of sections concerned with the winding up of unregistered companies. That reads:
‘However, an unregistered company is not, except in the event of its being wound up, deemed to be a company under the Companies Act, and then only to the extent provided by this Part of this Act.’
The third section of the Insolvency Act 1986 to which he referred me was s 441(2), which reads:
‘Subject as above, [and sub-s (1) deals with the fact that certain provisions extend to Northern Ireland] and to any provision expressly relating to companies incorporated elsewhere than in Great Britain, nothing in this Act extends to Northern Ireland or applies to or in relation to companies registered or incorporated in Northern Ireland.’
I am unconvinced that these provisions, taken singly or cumulatively, show that there is a legislative intention to confine the status of an administrative receiver to a receiver appointed by debenture holders over property of a company formed and registered under the Companies Acts.
I conclude that I should grant a declaration as in the terms of para 1 of the application, that is that the applicants appointed pursuant to a facility letter dated 15 May 1990 and a debenture dated 28 April 1989 made between the respondent and the Swiss Bank Corp are administrative receivers within the meaning of s 29(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986.
I have already, before delivering this judgment, heard argument about the precise form of the order. I have dealt with questions of costs and appeal and stay of the effect of the order pending appeal.
Order accordingly. Leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal granted.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Republic of Somalia v Woodhouse Drake & Carey (Suisse) SA and others The Mary
[1993] 1 All ER 371
Categories: CONFLICT OF LAWS: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (COMMERCIAL COURT)
Lord(s): HOBHOUSE J
Hearing Date(s): 26 FEBRUARY, 9, 13 MARCH 1992
Practice – Funds in court – Payment out – Funds belonging to foreign state – Application for payment out by person claiming to represent government of foreign state – Application opposed by former diplomatic representative of legitimate government overthrown in civil war – Whether former diplomatic representative having locus standi to be joined as party to proceedings.
Practice – Funds in court – Payment out – Funds belonging to foreign state – Application by solicitors representing person claiming to represent government of foreign state – Duty of solicitors to obtain properly constituted authority to receive money – Court requiring confirmation that solicitors on record had properly constituted authority to receive money and that government instructing them was in fact government of foreign state.
Conflict of laws – Foreign government – Recognition – Locus standi to sue and be sued in English court – Interim government of Republic of Somalia – Money in court belonging to Republic of Somalia – Interim government appointed after international conference to resolve civil war in Somalia following overthrow of legitimate government – Interim government not having constitutional authority or stable administrative control over territory of Somalia – Interim government not recognised by British government – Whether interim government having locus standi to claim money in court belonging to republic.
In January 1991 the Republic of Somalia bought and paid for a cargo of rice which was shipped on board a vessel chartered by the defendants to be discharged at the capital of the republic, Mogadishu. By the time the vessel arrived at Mogadishu the ruling president of the republic had been overthrown following an uprising and the country was in a state of civil war between various factions of tribal groups with no group gaining overall control of the country or Mogadishu. The ship’s captain refused to enter the port of Mogadishu as he considered it unsafe because of the fighting between rival forces there. Disputes arose as to the disposal of the cargo, as a result of which on an originating summons issued by the shipowners against the charterers the Commercial Court ordered on 12 March 1991 that the cargo be sold and the proceeds deposited in court and that the bills of lading be placed at the disposal of the court. The bills of lading for the cargo were held by B, an ambassador of Somalia accredited to the United Nations Organisations in Geneva, but her status became uncertain after the fall of the former president. Following the sale of the cargo there was some $2.5m in court, of which $500,000 would be sufficient to satisfy the claims of the shipowners, the charterers and other commercial parties. In July 1991, following an international conference held in Djibouti to resolve the civil war, M, the leader of one of the warring factions in Somalia, was nominated as the provisional president and he appointed Q, the leader of another faction, as the prime minister to lead an ‘interim government’. However, the interim government was unable to function in Mogadishu because the faction in control of the capital was not a party to the
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international agreement. In January 1992 Q, describing himself as the ‘prime minister’ of the republic, appointed a firm of London solicitors to act for the ‘interim government’ of Somalia and to apply for the release of the money from the court to the interim government. On 7 February the Commercial Court judge ordered that, unless any party showed cause on or before 19 February why $2m should not be paid out of the fund in court, that sum would be paid to the solicitors for the interim government. B applied to be joined as a party to the proceedings and opposed any payment being made to the solicitors pursuant to the February order on the ground that there was no government in Somalia. There was evidence before the court from the Foreign and Commonwealth Office (i) that the British government’s policy was not to accord recognition to governments but only to states, (ii) that where a regime came to power in a foreign state by unconstitutional means the British government would assess whether that regime could exercise effective control of the state and that it was to be inferred from the nature of the British government’s dealings with the new regime whether it qualified to be treated as a government and whether the British government was dealing with it on a government to government basis and (iii) that in relation to Somalia the British government did not consider that there was any effective government of Somalia because of the continuing civil war. It was argued on behalf of the interim government that the February order for payment of the money was conclusive, that B had no locus standi to intervene and that the interim government was the only legal government, because it had international recognition from those countries and bodies which had attended the Djibouti conference.
Held – (1) Since B had no personal interest in the money in court and had no locus standi to represent the Republic of Somalia before the court, as she had received no accreditation or authority from any current government in that country and in fact claimed that there was currently no government in Somalia, and since she had no diplomatic status in the United Kingdom and no recognition from the British government as representative of the Republic of Somalia, her application to be joined as a party to the proceedings would be refused (see p 377 d to f, post).
(2) Where the issue before the court was whether money in court which was the property of a foreign state should be paid to a firm of solicitors whose authority to act on behalf of that state was in question, the court had to be satisfied that the solicitors on the record had properly constituted authority to receive the money and that the government instructing them was in fact the government of the foreign state and if the court was for any reason satisfied that the solicitors did not have the requisite authority it would, of its own motion if necessary, require the solicitors to obtain that authority and would ensure that in the meantime the money remained under the control of the court (see p 378 b to d, post).
(3) The factors to be taken into account in deciding whether a government existed as the government of a state were (i) whether it was the constitutional government of the state, (ii) the degree, nature and stability of administrative control, if any, which it exercised over the territory of the state, (iii) whether the British government had any dealings with that government and, if so, the nature of those dealings and (iv) in marginal cases the extent of international recognition that it had as the government of that state. On the evidence before it the court was not satisfied that the interim government had any constitutional authority or stable administrative control over the territory of Somalia or that it was recognised by the British government. Furthermore, the argument based on the Djibouti conference or the recognition by foreign states and international bodies did not
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assist the interim government, which was a regime of one faction seeking to achieve a position of de jure government displacing a former government without having effective administrative control over all people of that country. It followed that the application on behalf of the interim government for payment out of the money in court would be refused (see p 381 h and p 384 d to g, post).
Per curiam. Although loss of control by a constitutional government may not immediately deprive it of its status, an insurgent regime will require to establish control before it can exist as a government (see p 383 c, post).
Notes
For the recognition of states and governments generally, see 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1425–1435.
For payment out of funds in court, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 627, and for a case on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 139, 3670.
Cases referred to in judgment
Adams v Adams (A-G intervening) [1970] 3 All ER 572, [1971] P 188, [1970] 3 WLR 934, DC.
Arantzazu Mendi, The [1939] 1 All ER 719, [1939] AC 256, HL.
Carl-Zeiss-Stiftung v Rayner & Keeler Ltd (No 2) [1966] 2 All ER 536, [1967] 1 AC 853, [1966] 3 WLR 125, HL.
Ford-Hunt v Raghbir Singh [1973] 2 All ER 700, [1973] 1 WLR 738.
GUR Corp v Trust Bank of Africa Ltd (Government of the Republic of Ciskei, third party) [1986] 3 All ER 449, [1987] QB 599, [1986] 3 WLR 583, QBD and CA.
Application
By an originating summons issued on 12 March 1991 Woodhouse Drake & Carey (Suisse) SA, the owners of the vessel Mary, sought and on the same day were granted by Hirst J an order for the sale of a cargo of rice on board the Mary and the proceeds thereof to be deposited in court. The vessel’s charterers, Aleko Maritime Co Ltd, were named as the defendants to the summons. Legal representatives for the government of the Republic of Somalia and Madame Bihi, a diplomat of the former legitimate government of Somalia which had been overthrown, also appeared before Hirst J on that day, when Hirst J further ordered that Madame Bihi, the holder of the original bills of lading, place the bills of lading at the disposal of the court to enable his order to be carried out. By a summons issued on 16 January 1992 solicitors claiming to act for the Republic of Somalia applied for the republic and the buyers of the rice, Madigan Associates SA, to be joined as parties to the action and for directions for the future conduct of the action concerning the claim over the money in court. On 7 February 1992 Saville J made an order joining the republic as the plaintiff in substitution for the shipowners and added the shipowners and the buyers as the first and third defendants respectively to the action. Saville J further ordered that unless any party appeared before the court on or before 19 March and showed cause why the sum of $US2m should not be paid out of the fund in court to the solicitors acting for the republic that sum should be paid to the solicitors acting for the republic on 20 February. The order also included liberty to all parties to apply. Madame Bihi then applied to the court for leave to be joined as a party to the action to resist the payment of the money to the interim government and requested the court to invite the Attorney General to appoint an amicus curiae. The application was heard in chambers but judgment was given by Hobhouse J in open court. The facts are set out in the judgment.
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Geraldine Andrews (instructed by Crossman Block) for the Republic of Somalia.
Gavin Kealey (instructed by More Fisher Brown) for Madame Bihi.
Stephen Richards (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amicus curiae.
Cur adv vult
13 March 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
HOBHOUSE J. In January 1991 the Republic of Somalia bought and paid for a cargo of rice, which was shipped on the Mary to be discharged at Mogadishu. When the Mary arrived off Mogadishu the master refused to enter the port because he considered it unsafe on account of the fighting that was going on there. The bills of lading covering the cargo were in the hands of a Madame Bihi, who was the accredited ambassador of the Republic of Somalia to the United Nations Organisations in Geneva. Disputes arose as to what should be done with the cargo and the shipowners issued an originating summons on 12 March 1991 in this court naming as the defendants the charterers of the vessel. On the same day Hirst J ordered that the cargo be sold and that the net proceeds of sale be paid into court. He ordered that the proceeds of sale be treated as if they were the cargo for all purposes. He ordered Madame Bihi, through her solicitors, Messrs More Fisher Brown, to place the original bills of lading at the disposal of the court in order to facilitate the carrying out of the order. The order recited that the court had heard ‘Counsel for the plaintiffs and for the defendants and … Messrs More Fisher Brown and Lloyd & Co for the competing interests in the cargo’.
The background to the situation which I have described is that in December 1990 and January 1991 there had been an uprising in Somalia in the course of which the President, Siad Barre, had been overthrown. Somalia consists of a number of areas each of which is dominated by a different tribal group or clan. Following the uprising and the overthrow of the legitimate government, whatever common interest that had been between these groups ceased and they began to fight each other. The central government ceased to exist. Various groups put themselves forward as entitled to control or govern either parts or the whole of Somalia. In the north west the Somali National Movement (SNM) attempted to set up a separate state. The north east was under the control of the Somali Salvation Democratic Front (SSDF). The area around and to the north of the capital, Mogadishu, was controlled by the United Somali Congress (USC) group; but this soon split into two factions, one led by General Aidid and the other by Mr Ali Mahdi Mohammed. Some of the bitterest fighting during the last nine months has been taking place between these two factions in and around Mogadishu, particularly since November 1991, with neither yet gaining control. Further south, different areas were under the control of the Somali Democratic Movement (SDM) and Somali Patriotic Movement (SPM) and the followers of Siad Barre. No one group has established control over the country. The capital has remained an area of open fighting between armed bands under the control of no one faction. The USC remains split.
Madame Bihi was a long-standing diplomatic representative, who had been appointed by the government of President Barre. Initially she was supportive of the continuing claim to office of President Barre whose overthrow she did not at that stage recognise. More recently, it appears, she has accepted that his government has ceased to exist but she remains deeply hostile to the USC, and in particular Mr Mahdi, who are equally hostile to her, and contends that there is at present no government of the Republic of Somalia.
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Messrs Lloyd & Co had received their instructions from a member of Mr Mahdi’s group who apparently described himself as the ‘foreign minister’ of the Somali Republic. In about February 1991 Mr Mahdi had been proclaimed President of Somalia by the USC. It was not clear upon what basis such an assumption of office could be made and it was not accepted by the other clans. It appears that he appointed as his prime minister, Mr Omer Arteh Qalib. In July 1991 after a continuous period of widespread fighting between the various groups including the two USC factions, a conference was called at Djibouti under the chairmanship of the President of the Republic of Djibouti. It was attended by the Presidents of Kenya and Uganda and representatives of the governments of Germany, the United States of America, France, Italy, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Libya, Yemen, Nigeria, Ethiopia, Sudan, Oman, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, and China and of the Arab League, the Organisation of African Unity and the European Economic Community. From within Somalia six of the groupings were represented. The SNM declined to attend and it seems that General Aidid did not do so either. After a number of days the conference was able to reach an agreement, which was set out in a communiqué dated 21 July 1991. It included:
‘Organisation of the State (A) The Conference had decided to adopt the 1960 constitution for a period of not more than two years from the date of signature of the present Agreement, the formation of the Government shall be agreed between the various movements. (B) The Conference had decided to set up a National Assembly composed of 123 members based on the number of constituencies existing before 1969 with a Speaker and two Deputy Speakers. (C) The Conference had agreed to introduce regional autonomy in the country which entails an amendment to the constitution … (E) The Conference nominates his Excellency, Ali Mahdi Mohammed, as provisional President of the Somali Republic for a period of two years from the day on which he takes the oath. (F) Two Vice Presidents of the Republic shall be nominated, the first put forward by the SDM and the second by the SSDF and SPF. [The SDM, SSDF and SPF were three of the groupings.] (G) The Prime Minister shall be a native of the North West of the Country … (J) The provisional Government is charged with preparing a draft electoral law for the organisation of [a] free and democratic election of the president of the National Assembly, with forwarding a policy of respect for human rights and public liberties on the basis of the universal declaration of human rights and to introduce into the country an organisation based on regional autonomy …’
The agreement was signed by representatives of the six groups attending who also undertook to carry out the resolutions of the conference.
Accordingly, under the Djibouti Agreement Mr Mahdi became the interim president and on 6 August he appointed Mr Qalib as his prime minister (apparently, in the absence of a nomination by the SNM). Mr Qalib then appointed ministers to serve under him. I will refer to these persons as the ‘interim government’. It appears that in practice the interim government has been unable to operate in Mogadishu and Mr Qalib has based himself in a hotel in Riyadh in Saudi Arabia.
Prior to the Djibouti Agreement, on 12 May 1991 Mr Qalib, describing himself as the ‘Prime Minister of the Somali Republic’ and writing from Riyadh, instructed Messrs Crossman Block to act on behalf of ‘the Interim Government of the Somali Republic’. By a further letter, also sent from Riyadh, dated 14 January 1992, Mr Qalib reconfirmed his earlier instructions on behalf of ‘my Government’
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and gave his written consent, pursuant to RSC Ord 15, r 6(4), for ‘the Interim Government of the Republic of Somalia’ to be joined as the plaintiff in these proceedings. Crossman Block have wholly taken over from Lloyd & Co and are now the sole solicitors instructed by the interim government.
Following the sale of the cargo and the payment of the net proceeds, $US2,353,991.95, into court, nothing further was done in the action until 16 January 1992, when Crossman Block issued a summons as ‘solicitors for the Republic of Somalia’ applying that the Republic of Somalia be joined as a party to the action, that the buyers of the cargo be also joined (presumably so that they could be bound by any decision of the court), and that:
‘Directions be given in respect of the future proceedings of this action particularly concerning the trial of the claims of all concerned parties to the monies paid into Court pursuant to the Order herein of Mr Justice Hirst dated 13th March 1991.’
Notice of this summons was given by Crossman Block to More Fisher Brown, who, seeing that they were content that directions should be given and, perhaps surprisingly, did not wish to oppose the joinder of the additional parties, did not consider it necessary to attend the hearing, which took place before Saville J on Friday, 7 February 1992. Mr Clements, a partner in Crossman Block, swore two affidavits, dated respectively 16 January and 6 February, which set out the case of their clients.
The summons was heard as an ordinary Friday summons in the Commercial Court and occupied about 20 minutes. Crossman Block were represented by counsel, Miss Andrews, and solicitors appeared on behalf of the shipowners, the charterers and the buyers of the cargo. Saville J ordered the joinder of the Republic of Somalia as plaintiffs in substitution for the shipowners, who together with the buyers of the cargo were joined as additional defendants. He further ordered:
‘3. Unless any party appears before this Court on or before Wednesday 19th February 1992 and shows cause why the sum of US$2,000,000 should not be paid out of the fund which was paid into Court pursuant to the Order of Mr Justice Hirst herein dated 13th March 1991 (“the fund”) to the solicitors for the Republic of Somalia (Messrs Crossman Block), the said sum shall be paid out of the fund to Messrs Crossman Block on 20th February 1992 or forthwith thereafter.’
The reason for selecting the figure of $US2m was that by the end of January 1992 the sum in court together with accrued interest had grown to $US2.5m and $US0.5m would be fully sufficient to satisfy any claims of the shipowners, charterers and other commercial parties. He gave directions for the resolution of any dispute as to how the balance of the fund should be dealt with. He reserved the costs and gave liberty to apply. He also took an undertaking from ‘the Republic of Somalia by their counsel… to give notice of this order to all the existing and intending parties to this action and to Messrs More Fisher Brown the former representatives of Madame Fatuma Isak Bihi’.
More Fisher Brown, on the instructions of Madame Bihi, took advantage of the liberty to apply. They swore affidavits and put further material before the court. Their application eventually came on before the court on the afternoon of 26 February. The initial application was: (i) that Madame Bihi be joined as a party to these proceedings as a representative of the Democratic Republic of Somalia; (ii) that para 3 of the order of Saville J should not be brought into effect; (iii) that the court should direct letters to be written to the Foreign and Commonwealth Office asking what state in Somalia is recognised by Her Majesty’s government as a
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foreign sovereign state and with what entity, if any, therein Her Majesty’s government has any dealings of a governmental nature; and (iv) that the court should request the Attorney General to appoint an amicus curiae. In a further affidavit they put her case more clearly in the following terms:
‘… Mrs Bihi and the party that she represents do not call for payment out to them of the sum presently in court. They say that the Court should appoint or direct the appointment of an amicus curiae to assist the Court when—as here—there is a serious problem of locus standi in view of the confusions that exist in their native Somalia. They also say that, until the Court is able to determine what, if any, is the government of Somalia with which HM Government has appropriate dealings of a governmental nature, the money in court should remain there.’
I have not acceded to the application of Madame Bihi to be joined as a representative or other party in this action but I have acceded to her application that I should invite the Attorney General to appoint an amicus curiae and Mr Richards has appeared instructed by the Treasury Solicitor. The court is grateful for his assistance.
Madame Bihi claims no personal interest in the money in court and accordingly the only locus standi that she can have is as a person who is entitled to represent the Republic of Somalia in this court. It is not suggested that the money belongs to the former regime of Siad Barre, nor that it is the property of a government or governmental agency rather than state property belonging to the republic. It is clear from the evidence that both More Fisher Brown and Crossman Block have placed before the court that Madame Bihi has no right to represent the republic in this court. Her evidence is that there is currently no government of Somalia. The former government of President Siad Barre has ceased to exist and she has received no accreditation or authority from any other government. It is not clear that she currently has any diplomatic status although there is some evidence that the United Nations may still for some purposes recognise her ambassadorship. But it is clear that she has no diplomatic status in the United Kingdom and has no recognition from Her Majesty’s government as a representative of the Republic of Somalia in this country. Accordingly I refuse her application to be joined as a party to this action.
The essential matter which has been argued before me is whether or not the order for payment out to Crossman Block should now be confirmed. At one stage I felt some doubt whether it was open to the court to make any further order which would postpone the payment out of the $US2m. Indeed, Miss Andrews argued that that matter was concluded by the order of Saville J and there was no party properly before the court on whose application the court could make any different order. Madame Bihi had no locus standi and the Attorney General had not sought to intervene: cf Adams v Adams (A-G intervening) [1970] 3 All ER 572, [1971] P 188.
However, having heard argument, I am satisfied that the order of Saville J was provisional only and was subject to any further order that might be made on further material being placed before the court. The summons upon which he made the order was merely a summons which asked for directions and the form in which his order was couched was that of an order nisi, which, subject to the time limits laid down in the order, gave an unqualified liberty to apply. His order was not seeking to determine the rights of those represented by Crossman Block should there be any challenge to them. Further, it is always open to a court, upon proof of new facts, to make an order supplemental to an original order: see Ford-Hunt v Raghbir Singh [1973] 2 All ER 700 at 702, [1973] 1 WLR 738 at 740 per
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Brightman J. The affidavit evidence before Saville J gave him an incomplete picture of the actual situation in Somalia and the current attitude of Her Majesty’s government; there is now additional relevant evidence before the court. It is said that assumptions upon which he was apparently prepared to proceed have now been shown to be unsound.
In a case involving a sum of money the property of a foreign state and whether it is proper that it should be paid to a firm of solicitors whose authority to act on behalf of that state is in question, the court should, with the assistance of an amicus if necessary, decline to make an order for the payment out of a sum in court to a firm of solicitors without being satisfied of the authority of that firm of solicitors. This is not a case of competing claims to the $US2m; there is no dispute that it is the property of the republic. The question is one of confirming that the legal agent on the record has a properly constituted authority to receive the sum on behalf of the republic. A solicitor is an officer of the court and under the control of the court. If the court comes to the conclusion for any reason that the solicitor does not have the requisite authority it should, of its own motion if necessary, require the solicitor to obtain that authority and ensure that the relevant fund remains under the control of the court meanwhile. That is the position here if I come to the conclusion that those presently instructing Crossman Block are not entitled to act as the government of the republic. Miss Andrews did not invite me to order that the sum should be paid out to Crossman Block on terms that they should not part with it without a further order of the court; in such an event she accepted that it would be better that the sum should remain in court. No criticism whatsoever of Crossman Block is involved. Their authority is contained in the letter of 14 January 1992 which is expressly the consent of the interim government to being joined as plaintiffs. It can be questioned whether this consent is sufficient to comply with RSC Ord 15, r 6(4).
The case of the interim government has been succinctly summarised in one of the affidavits sworn by Mr Clements:
‘The Republic can only pursue legal action through its duly appointed executive, namely the Interim Government which instructs me … The fund in Court represents assets belonging to the Republic of Somalia. Somalia is for the time being represented by its Interim Government. That Government is the only institution now in a position to take possession of the funds and employ the money as it sees fit for the best interest of the State. The money is urgently required to combat the effects of famine in the country.’
The question therefore is whether the interim government is the government of the Republic of Somalia. If it is not then Crossman Block do not have the authority to act on behalf of the republic: see the similar question of the authority of a solicitor in Carl-Zeiss-Stiftung v Rayner & Keeler Ltd (No 2) [1966] 2 All ER 536, [1967] 1 AC 853.
Mr Richards supports the argument of counsel for Madame Bihi on this question. He has submitted that the money in court should not be paid out unless the court is satisfied that the interim government is indeed the government of Somalia and that, as the court should not be satisfied that this is the case, the money should meanwhile be left in court.
The policy of the United Kingdom is now not to confer recognition upon governments as opposed to upon states. The new policy of Her Majesty’s government was stated in two parliamentary answers in April and May 1980:
‘… we have conducted a re-examination of British policy and practice concerning the recognition of Governments. This has included a comparison
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with the practice of our partners and allies. On the basis of this review we have decided that we shall no longer accord recognition to Governments. The British Government recognise States in accordance with common international doctrine. Where an unconstitutional change of regime takes place in a recognised State, Governments of other States must necessarily consider what dealings, if any, they should have with the new regime, and whether and to what extent it qualifies to be treated as the Government of the State concerned. Many of our partners and allies take the position that they do not recognise Governments and that therefore no question of recognition arises in such cases. By contrast, the policy of successive British Governments has been that we should make and announce a decision formally “recognising” the new Government. This practice has sometimes been misunderstood, and, despite explanations to the contrary, our “recognition” interpreted as implying approval. For example, in circumstances where there may be legitimate public concern about the violation of human rights by the new regime, or the manner in which it achieved power, it has not sufficed to say that an announcement of “recognition” is simply a neutral formality. We have therefore concluded that there are practical advantages in following the policy of many other countries in not according recognition to Governments. Like them, we shall continue to decide the nature of our dealings with regimes which come to power unconstitutionally in the light of our assessment of whether they are able of themselves to exercise effective control of the territory of the State concerned, and seem likely to continue to do so.’ (See 983 HC Official Report (5th series) written answers cols 278–279.)
‘In future cases where a new régime comes to power unconstitutionally our attitude on the question whether it qualifies to be treated as a Government will be left to be inferred from the nature of the dealings, if any, which we may have with it, and in particular on whether we are dealing with it on a normal Government to Government basis.’ (See 985 HC Official Report (5th series) written answers col 385.)
The position in English law before 1980 is conveniently set out in 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1431:
‘A foreign government which has not been recognised by the United Kingdom government as either de jure or de facto government has no locus standi in the English courts. Thus it cannot institute an action in the courts … The English courts will not give effect to the acts of an unrecognised government …’
Thus, recognition by Her Majesty’s government was the decisive matter and the courts had no role save to inquire of the executive whether or not it had recognised the government in question.
Some writers appear still to feel that the criterion remains one of recognition by the government of this country, the difference being that, whereas before 1980 the government would say expressly whether it recognised the foreign government, now it is to be left to be ascertained as a matter of inference: see Crawford ‘Decisions of British courts during 1985–86 involving questions of public or private international law’ (1986) 57 BYIL 405 and the continuing references in Brownlie Principles of Public International Law (4th edn, 1990) and in ‘Recognition in theory and practice’ (1982) 53 BYIL 197 at 209 to the recognition of governments. Mr Richards did not seek to support that view and it is clearly
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contrary to or not adopted in other writings: see eg Mann Foreign Affairs in English Courts (1986) and Warbrick ‘The new British policy on recognition of Governments’ (1981) 30 ICLQ 568; and indeed the general tenor of Professor Brownlie’s work itself. The impracticality of the ‘inferred recognition’ theory as a legal concept for forensic use is obvious and it cannot be thought that that was the intention of Her Majesty’s government in giving the Parliamentary answers. The use of the phrase ‘left to be inferred’ is designed to fulfil a need for information in an international or political, not a judicial, context.
If recognition by Her Majesty’s government is no longer the criterion of the locus standi of a foreign ‘government’ in the English courts and the possession of a legal persona in English law, what criteria is the court to apply? The answers do confirm one applicable criterion, namely whether the relevant regime is able of itself to ‘exercise effective control of the territory of the State concerned’ and is ‘likely to continue to do so’; and the statement as to what is to be the evidence of the attitude of Her Majesty’s government provides another—to be inferred from the nature of the dealings, if any, that Her Majesty’s government has with it and whether they are on a normal government to government basis. The nonexistence of such dealings cannot however be conclusive because their absence may be explained by some extraneous consideration—for example lack of occasion, the attitude of the regime to human rights, its relationship to another state. As the answers themselves acknowledge, the conduct of governments in their relations with each other may be affected by considerations of policy as well as by considerations of legal characterisation. The courts of this country are now only concerned with the latter consideration. How much weight in this connection the courts should give to the attitude of Her Majesty’s government was one of the issues before me.
In relation to Somalia and the present litigation, the Foreign and Commonwealth Office has on three occasions responded to inquiries by solicitors and Mr Richards has also conveyed to the court a further communication. In the first letter, dated 4 March 1991, reference was made to the fluid and confused situation that had followed upon the successful coup:
‘Now that opposition forces have overthrown Siad Barre, the single objective which united them has gone. Each movement has its own clan objectives to champion. The United Somali Congress (USC), drawn from the Hawiye Clan and its sub clans, was responsible for the fighting in Mogadishu. It is they who have appointed a new Caretaker President and a Government which they claim are interim measures. A separate USC faction under General Mohammed Farrah Hassan “Aidid”, who have the support of the Somali National Movement (SNM), do not recognise the new President or Government. Neither do the Somali Patriotic Movement (SPM) or SNM. They argue that the appointments run counter to the USC, SNM and SPM Agreement of 2nd October 1990. But the faction now in control in Mogadishu was not a party to that Agreement.’
They also referred to the different factions in control in different parts of the country and said: ‘The general situation in Somalia continues to be insecure and confused’.
On 5 August 1991 the Foreign and Commonwealth Office wrote to Crossman Block confirming that the practice of Her Majesty’s government was to recognise states not governments and accordingly ‘the question of whether to recognise the purported Interim Government in Mogadishu thus does not arise for us’. They also confirmed that the purported secession of the north western part of the
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country had not been recognised. They commented that ‘the Interim Government does not command nationwide acceptance. We support efforts to establish one that does’. They concluded: ‘In these circumstances, it is very difficult to judge, for the purposes of your case, who is the Government of Somalia.' This letter was written after the Djibouti Conference and notwithstanding the communiqué that had been issued at the conclusion of that conference. It is clear that the writer of that letter did not consider that the conference had changed the situation or that any legitimate or other recognisable government had come into existence as a result. This letter was the only letter which was before Saville J.
On 20 February 1992 the Foreign and Commonwealth Office wrote again to More Fisher Brown. It reconfirmed that Her Majesty’s government was not concerned with the recognition of governments and had not recognised the purported secession. It continued:
‘The comment in [the letter of 5 August 1991] has been somewhat overtaken by subsequent events, in particular fighting between rival elements of the United Somali Congress which broke out in November 1991 and in which thousands of people have been killed and injured. On 23 January the United Nations Security Council adopted Resolution 733 requesting the Secretary-General to increase UN humanitarian assistance to Somalia and to co-operate with regional organisations (OAU and Arab League named; OIC later co-opted) in seeking the Mogadishu factions’ agreement to a ceasefire, the distribution of humanitarian aid and the promotion of a political settlement. The UN and regional organisations met representatives of the Somali factions in New York on 14 February. A cessation of hostilities was agreed in principle. A further round of talks is due in Mogadishu later in February to conclude the ceasefire, and to discuss the means to achieve national reconciliation. All factions have been invited. However, fighting in Mogadishu has continued since the New York meeting. The United Kingdom maintains informal contact with all the factions involved, but there have been no dealings on a government to government basis.’
It is clear from this letter that Her Majesty’s government does not consider that there is at present any effective government in Somalia. It refers to ‘factions’ and treats the interim government as merely one among a number of factions.
The further letter, dated 9 March 1992, adds little to that of 20 February. It confirms that the attitude of Her Majesty’s government has not changed and that there is still no single body exercising administrative authority in Somalia.
Accordingly, if the question before the court is to be decided upon the basis of the attitude adopted by Her Majesty’s government, an order cannot be made in favour of the interim government or Crossman Block. The basis for its attitude is clearly not any disapproval of an established regime but rather that there is no regime which has control, let alone any administrative control which has the requisite element of stable continuity.
Mr Richards submitted that particular weight should be given to these communications. I have difficulty in accepting that submission without some qualification. Once the question for the court becomes one of making its own assessment of the evidence, making findings of fact on all the relevant evidence placed before it and drawing the appropriate legal conclusion, and is no longer a question of simply reflecting government policy, letters from the Foreign and Commonwealth Office become merely part of the evidence in the case. In the present case no problem of admissibility of evidence arises. In so far as the letters make statements about what is happening in the territory of some foreign state,
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such letters may not be the best evidence; but as regards the question whether Her Majesty’s government has dealings with the foreign government it will almost certainly be the best and only conclusive evidence of that fact. Where Her Majesty’s government is dealing with the foreign government on a normal government to government basis as the government of the relevant foreign state, it is unlikely in the extreme that the inference that the foreign government is the government of that state will be capable of being rebutted and questions of public policy and considerations of the interrelationship of the judicial and executive arms of Government may be paramount: see The Arantzazu Mendi [1939] 1 All ER 719 at 722, [1939] AC 256 at 264 and GUR Corp v Trust Bank of Africa Ltd (Government of the Republic of Ciskei, third party) [1986]3 All ER 449 at 466, [1987] QB 599 at 625. But now that the question has ceased to be one of recognition, the theoretical possibility of rebuttal must exist.
There is no decided English authority upon the effect of the 1980 answers. GUR Corp v Trust Bank of Africa Ltd was concerned with a question of the recognition of a state and the competence of a subordinate body within the recognised territory of that state under the laws of that state. The 1980 answers were referred to but were not the basis of the decision. Here no question of the recognition of a state is involved. Nor does this case involve any accredited representative of a foreign state in this country. Different considerations would arise if it did, since it would be contrary to public policy for the court not to recognise as a qualified representative of the head of state of the foreign state the diplomatic representative recognised by Her Majesty’s government. There is no recognised diplomatic representative of the Republic of Somalia to the United Kingdom.
The statements of fact in the letters from the Foreign and Commonwealth Office are confirmed by the other evidence that is before the court concerning the actual situation in Somalia. The interim government is not governing that country and does not exercise administrative or any control over its territory and population. In Situation Report No 7 of the Agency for International Development in Washington the position as at 30 January 1992 and previously was said to be:
‘At present, there is no functioning government in Somalia and the political future of the Country remains uncertain. Although various clan-based rebel groups collaborated in the effort to oust Siad Barre, they have since been unable to agree upon a national leadership. There is still tremendous distrust and infighting between and even among clans, with each claiming hold over a particular region of the country … Heavy intra-clan fighting erupted in Mogadishu on Nov. 17 between two rival factions of the USC and control of the city is still being contested.’
This report, like the letter from the Foreign and Commonwealth Office, refers to the various ‘factions’.
The criteria of effective control referred to in the Parliamentary answers are clearly not satisfied. In The Arantzazu Mendi [1939] 1 All ER 719 at 722, [1939] AC 256 at 264–265 Lord Atkin said:
‘By “exercising de facto administrative control” or “exercising effective administrative control,” I understand exercising all the functions of a sovereign government, in maintaining law and order, instituting and maintaining courts of justice and adopting or imposing laws regulating the relations of the inhabitants of the territory with one another and with the government.’
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The interim government clearly does not satisfy these criteria; the republic currently has no government.
However there are two other aspects upon which counsel for the interim government has relied. These are the recognition of the interim government by some other states and international bodies, and the fact that the interim government was set up by the Djibouti Agreement, which resulted from an international conference attended by many international states and bodies.
In evaluating these arguments it is relevant to distinguish between regimes that have been the constitutional and established government of a state and a regime which is seeking to achieve that position either displacing a former government or to fill a vacuum. Since the question is now whether a government exists, there is no room for more than one government at a time nor for separate de jure and de facto governments in respect of the same state. But a loss of control by a constitutional government may not immediately deprive it of its status, whereas an insurgent regime will require to establish control before it can exist as a government.
The argument based on the Djibouti Agreement does not assist the interim government. The Djibouti Agreement was not constitutional. It did not create a de jure status for the interim government in Somalia. The interim government was not and did not become the constitutional successor of the government of President Siad Barre. Accordingly, if the interim government is to be treated as the government of Somalia, it must be able to show that it is exercising administrative control over the territory of the republic. That it is not able to do. Accordingly that argument must fail.
As regards the argument of international recognition and recognition by the United Nations, although this does not as such involve control of territory or a population, it does correspond to one aspect of statehood. A classic definition of a state is that contained in art 1 of the Inter-American Convention on the Rights and Duties of States (Montevideo, 26 December 1933; 137 BFSP 282) as having—‘(a) a permanent population; (b) a defined territory; (c) Government; and (d) capacity to enter into relations with other States.' Whilst illustrating that it is difficult to separate the recognition of a state from the recognition of a government of that state, this definition also shows that part of the function of a government of a state is to have relations with other states. This is also implicit in the reference in the 1980 parliamentary answers to dealings on a government to government basis.
Accordingly I consider that the degree of international recognition of an alleged government is a relevant factor in assessing whether it exists as the government of a state. But where, as here, the regime exercises virtually no administrative control at all in the territory of the state, international recognition of an unconstitutional regime should not suffice and would, indeed, have to be accounted for by policy considerations rather than legal characterisation; and it is, of course, possible for states to have relations with bodies which are not states or governments of states.
There is evidence from which it appears that the United Nations Organisation considers that there are persons whom it may treat as the representatives of the Republic of Somalia. Resolution 733 started with the words: ‘Considering the request by Somalia for the Security Council to consider the situation in Somalia’. It appears that this request was contained in a letter from Mr Qalib dated 15 December 1991 addressed to the Secretary General to the United Nations and the President of the Security Council. Mr Qalib signed himself as the ‘Prime Minister of Somalia’. That letter was forwarded to the President of the Security Council by
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Mr Fattoun Mohammed Hassan ‘Chargé d’affaire ai.' Mr Hassan’s letter included the sentence:
‘As you know Mr Arteh [Qalib] was appointed as the interim Prime Minister for Somalia within the context of arrangements agreed upon by all the Somali political parties that participated in the Somali National Reconciliation Conference held at Djibouti in July 1991.’
The text of Resolution 733 was apparently communicated to Mr Mahdi by the Secretary General of the United Nations describing Mr Mahdi as ‘His Excellency Mr Ali Mahdi Interim President of Somalia’.
This evidence is not wholly satisfactory. The attitude of the United Nations to the interim government could be established in a more direct fashion and more authoritatively. The letter of Mr Hassan suggests something less than a fully recognised status. In any event, membership of an international organisation does not amount to recognition nor does a vote on credentials and representation issues: see Warbrick ‘The new British policy on recognition of governments’ (1981) 30 ICLQ 568 at 583, citing the Secretary General’s memorandum 1950 UN Doc S/1466. But any apparent acceptance of the interim government by the United Nations and other international organisations and states does not suffice in the present case to demonstrate that the interim government is the government of the Republic of Somalia. The evidence the other way is too strong.
Accordingly, the factors to be taken into account in deciding whether a government exists as the government of a state are: (a) whether it is the constitutional government of the state; (b) the degree, nature and stability of administrative control, if any, that it of itself exercises over the territory of the state; (c) whether Her Majesty’s government has any dealings with it and if so what is the nature of those dealings; and (d) in marginal cases, the extent of international recognition that it has as the government of the state.
On the evidence before the court the interim government certainly does not qualify having regard to any of the three important factors. Accordingly the court must conclude that Crossman Block does not at present have the authority of the Republic of Somalia to receive and deal with the property of the republic. The instructions and authority they have received from the interim government are not instructions and authority from the government of the Republic. I direct that no part of the sum in court should be paid out to Crossman Block without a further order of the court.
I will consider in chambers what consequential and other directions and orders I should make.
Order accordingly.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Lord Napier and Ettrick and another v Hunter and others
Lord Napier and Ettrick v R F Kershaw Ltd and others
[1993] 1 All ER 385
Categories: INSURANCE
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 2, 3, 4, 5 NOVEMBER, 10 DECEMBER 1992
Insurance – Subrogation – Stop-loss insurance – Assured insured by stop-loss insurers against underwriting losses – Assured sustaining losses through negligence of underwriter’s agent – Stop-loss insurers paying assured under policies – Assured bringing action against agent in respect of losses and recovering damages in settlement of claim – Whether stop-loss insurers having equitable proprietary right in settlement moneys – Policy providing excess to be borne by assured – Whether assured entitled to deduct from settlement moneys loss occurring below excess before reimbursing insurers by way of subrogation – Whether stop-loss insurers entitled to injunction restraining payment of settlement moneys to assured before stop-loss insurers reimbursed.
The first plaintiff was the representative of the assureds, who were 246 Lloyd’s names who were members of the same syndicate (the O syndicate) and who had insured themselves under personal stop-loss policies with 12 Lloyd’s syndicates (the stop-loss insurers), represented by the fifth to fourteenth defendants, against losses incurred as members of the O syndicate. The stop-loss policies provided indemnity to the names for losses in excess of a stated amount up to a specified limit. As a result of the negligence of the O syndicate’s managing agents, who wrote large numbers of policies on behalf of the names without adequate reinsurance cover, the names incurred losses as members of the O syndicate in 1982 and made claims under their stop-loss policies in respect of those losses. Those claims were met by the stop-loss insurers. Subsequently, members of the O syndicate, including the names, brought proceedings against the managing agents and more than 80 other members’ agents claiming damages for negligence and breach of duty in respect of, inter alia, the 1982 year of account. Those proceedings were settled on payment of £116m (the settlement moneys) to the second plaintiffs, the solicitors acting for the plaintiffs in the action, to be held on behalf of, inter alios, the names. The stop-loss insurers claimed that under the principle of subrogation they had an equitable proprietary interest in the names’ share of the settlement moneys to the extent of the claims they had met. In proceedings brought by the plaintiffs the issues arose (1) whether the stop-loss insurers had an equitable proprietary interest in any of the settlement moneys and/or whether any of the settlement moneys were impressed with a trust in their favour, and (2) whether, in any event, when determining the amount which the stop-loss insurers were entitled to claim in respect of the settlement moneys, the stop-loss insurers were entitled to be reimbursed any indemnity paid by them to a name before that name was fully indemnified by applying his share of the settlement moneys to a loss occurring below the excess in that name’s policy. The judge determined both issues against the stop-loss insurers, who appealed to the Court of Appeal, which dismissed their appeal on the first issue but allowed it on the second issue. The stop-loss insurers appealed to the House of Lords on the first issue and the names cross-appealed on the second issue.
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Held – (1) Where an insured person was paid out by an insurer for an insured loss in respect of which he also recovered damages from a wrongdoer the insured person was guilty of unconscionable conduct if he did not procure and direct that the sum due to the insurers by way of subrogation be paid out of those damages, and in order to protect the rights of the insurer under the doctrine of subrogation the damages recovered by the insured from the wrongdoer in respect of the insured loss were subject to an enforceable equitable proprietary lien or charge in favour of the insurer. Accordingly, since the damages of £116m were in an identifiable separate fund so that an equitable proprietary lien or charge in favour of the stop-loss insurers could be enforced, the stop-loss insurers were entitled to injunctions restraining the second plaintiff from paying and each assured from receiving any part of the settlement moneys without providing or paying out of the damages payable to the names the amounts which had been or should be found due from the names to the stop-loss insurers by way of subrogation. The stop-loss insurers’ appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 391 f to j, p 396 f to h, p 397 a to p 398 a d to h, p 399 a, p 400 c to e, p 401 g, p 402 j to p 403 b f g, p 406 e, p 407 c d, p 409 e to h and p 410 c d, post); White v Dobinson (1845) 5 LTOS 233 and Re Miller Gibb & Co Ltd [1957] 2 All ER 266 applied; Yorkshire Insurance Co Ltd v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 487 and Hobbs v Marlowe [1977] 2 All ER 241 considered.
(2) Since the names had agreed to pay the losses represented by the excesses on their policies they were not entitled to any of the settlement moneys in respect of those losses before the stop-loss insurers had been fully indemnified pursuant to their right of subrogation. On the basis that the names were in effect their own insurers for initial losses up to the stated amount and for losses in excess of the specified limit, the settlement moneys were to be applied in subrogation successively to insurers of the losses commencing with the losses in excess of the specified limit, and therefore, although the names were entitled to be fully reimbursed in respect of the losses in excess of the specified limit before the stop-loss insurers were entitled to be indemnified, the stop-loss insurers were likewise entitled to be fully reimbursed in respect of the amounts paid out under the stop-loss policies before any of the settlement moneys could be paid out in respect of the names’ initial losses up to the stated amount. The names’ cross-appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 390 a to f, p 391 d e, p 403 f g, p 405 h to p 406 e and p 410 c d, post).
Quaere. Whether the equitable proprietary interest of the insurer attaches only to the fund consisting of sums which come into the hands of the assured in reduction of the loss paid by the insurer or whether it also attaches to a right of action vested in the assured against the third party which, if enforced, would yield such a fund (see p 395 e to p 396 a, p 398 h j, p 403 b to g, p 406 e, p 409 j to p 410 d, post); Castellain v Preston [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 considered.
Notes
For the doctrine of subrogation and its application in insurance cases, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 888–889 and 25 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 330–334, 523–533, and for cases on the subject, see 29 Digest (Reissue) 81–83, 500–501, 755–767, 4273–4281.
Cases referred to in opinions
Blaauwpot v Da Costa (1758) 1 Eden 130, 28 ER 633.
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Brooks v MacDonnell (1835) 1 Y & C Ex 500, 160 ER 204.
Burnand v Rodocanachi Sons & Co (1882) 7 App Cas 333, HL.
Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493, CA.
Commercial Union Assurance Co v Lister (1874) LR 9 Ch App 483, LJJ; affg LR 9 Ch App 848 n, MR.
Hobbs v Marlowe [1977] 2 All ER 241, [1978] AC 16, [1977] 2 WLR 777, HL.
King v Victoria Insurance Co Ltd [1896] AC 250, PC.
London Assurance Co v Sainsbury (1783) 3 Doug 245, 99 ER 636.
Mason v Sainsbury (1782) 3 Doug 61, 99 ER 538.
Miller Gibb & Co Ltd, Re [1957] 2 All ER 266, [1957] 1 WLR 703.
Morley v Moore [1936] 2 All ER 79, [1936] 2 KB 359, CA.
Randal v Cockran (1748) 1 Ves Sen 98, 27 ER 916, LC.
Simpson & Co v Thomson (1877) 3 App Cas 279, HL.
Stearns v Village Main Reef Gold Mining Co Ltd (1905) 10 Com Cas 89, CA.
White v Dobinson (1845) 5 LTOS 233, LC; affg (1844) 14 Sim 273, 60 ER 363.
Yates v White (1838) 1 Arn 85, sub nom Yates v Whyte 4 Bing NC 272, 132 ER 793.
Yorkshire Insurance Co Ltd v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 487, [1962] 2 QB 330, [1961] 2 WLR 1043.
Consolidated appeals and cross-appeal
The appellants, the fifth to fourteenth defendants, Charles Hunter, Colin Mackinnon, William Deem, Michael Seaby, Mark Swinbank, Jeremy Guy Nelson, Ron Cleverly, David McElhiney, David Holman and Derek Walker, represented the members of 12 syndicates at Lloyd’s (the stop-loss insurers), each of which wrote a substantial number of personal stop-loss policies issued to Lloyd’s names, including 246 members of the Outhwaite Syndicate 317/661 for the 1982 year of account (the assureds) who were represented by the first respondent plaintiff, the Rt Hon Francis Nigel Baron Napier and Ettrick. Each of the policies provided for an excess to be borne by the assured with a layer of cover above that excess. The assureds made claims under the policies in respect of their underwriting losses, the majority of which arose as a result of losses on the underwriting of the Outhwaite Syndicate and such claims were met. In 1989 proceedings were commenced by 987 members of the Outhwaite Syndicate (the names), including the assureds, against the syndicate’s managing agents and over 80 other members’ agents at Lloyd’s claiming damages for negligence and breach of duty occasioning the losses of the Outhwaite Syndicate. The proceedings were settled in February and March 1992 by payment to the second respondent plaintiff, Richards Butler (a firm), solicitors to the names, on behalf of, inter alios, the assured of almost £116m (the settlement moneys), including moneys attributable to the losses in respect of which the assureds had received payment from the stop-loss insurers. Shortly before the settlement moneys were due to be distributed by the second plaintiff in accordance with the arrangements announced to the names, Lloyd’s asserted that the settlement moneys could not be distributed because they were subject to the premium trust deeds executed by each name. Accordingly, on 10 April 1992 the plaintiffs issued an originating summons (the Lloyd’s proceedings) against the first to fourth defendants, R F Kershaw Ltd, Lloyd’s, Simon Gillilan Weber-Brown and Christopher James Hodgson, seeking, inter alia, determination of the respective rights to and interests in the settlement moneys in the light of Lloyd’s contention. By an order of Saville J dated 12 May 1992 Bruce Cameron Douglas-Hamilton was substituted for Mr Hodgson as fourth defendant. On 14 May 1992 Saville J decided the question raised by Lloyd’s adversely to those four defendants, including Lloyd’s and there was no appeal therefrom. Following
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the commencement of the Lloyd’s proceedings the stop-loss insurers claimed an equitable proprietary interest in that part of the settlement moneys attributable to losses insured and paid by them and raising contentions as to the manner in which the settlement moneys should be applied as between themselves and their assureds. By consent the Lloyd’s proceedings were amended and the stop-loss insurers were added as defendants by an order of Saville J dated 14 May 1992 for the purpose of having determined, inter alia, the following issues; (1) whether the stop-loss insurers had an equitable proprietary interest in any settlement moneys and/or whether any of the settlement moneys were impressed with a trust in their favour; and (2) whether, in any event, in determining the amount which the stop-loss insurers were entitled to claim in respect of the settlement moneys, the stop-loss insurers were entitled to be reimbursed any indemnity paid by them to an assured before that assured was fully indemnified by applying his share of the settlement moneys to a loss occurring below the excess in that assured’s policy. On 12 June 1992 Saville J decided against the stop-loss insurers on both issues and they appealed. On 9 July 1992 the Court of Appeal (Dillon, Staughton and Nolan LJJ) (see (1992) Times, 17 July) allowed the appeal in part by deciding against the stop-loss insurers on the first issue and in their favour on the second issue. The stop-loss insurers appealed on the first issue and the assured’s cross-appealed on the second issue with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given provisionally on 22 July 1992. If the stop-loss insurers were successful in their appeal on the first issue, it was in issue whether an ancillary order should be made ordering the second plaintiff to pay the relevant moneys to the stop-loss insurers and/or restraining the second plaintiff from paying those moneys to the assureds. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Templeman.
David Donaldson QC and Michael Swainston (instructed by Clyde & Co) for the fifth to thirteenth defendants and (instructed by Waltons & Morse) for the fourteenth defendants.
Anthony Boswood QC and Stephen Moriarty (instructed by Richards Butler) for the assureds.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
10 December. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, when an insured person suffers a loss he will be entitled to the insurance money and may also be entitled to sue for damages anyone responsible for the loss. For example, if a house is insured for £100,000 against fire and is damaged by fire to an extent exceeding £100,000, the insurance company will pay £100,000. If the fire has been caused by a negligent builder or some other contractual or tortious wrongdoer, the insured person will sue the wrongdoer for damages. If the house has been damaged to the extent of £160,000, the insured person will receive damages from the wrongdoer of £160,000. At that stage the insured person will have made a profit since he will have only suffered a loss of £160,000 but will have collected a total of £260,000 from the insurance company and the wrongdoer. A policy of insurance is however a contract of indemnity and by the doctrine of subrogation the insured person must pay back to the insurer the sum of £100,000. The insured person will then have made neither a loss nor a profit. This appeal requires consideration of the principles and application of the doctrine of subrogation.
The persons insured are 246 members of the Outhwaite Syndicate 317/661 of
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Lloyd’s (the names). The wrongdoer was the managing agent of the syndicate (Outhwaite), who negligently wrote large numbers of policies on behalf of the names in respect of asbestosis claims without adequate reinsurance cover. The insurers are the appellants (the stop-loss insurers).
As members of the Outhwaite Syndicate the names were entitled to share the net premiums and personally liable to pay claims received under policies issued by Outhwaite on their behalf in the year of account 1982. The names were desirous of insuring themselves against part of any loss they might incur as members of the syndicate. Each name therefore paid a premium to stop-loss insurers for a policy whereby the stop-loss insurers agreed to—
‘indemnify the Assured for the amount by which the Assured’s overall ascertained net underwriting loss as hereinafter defined for the Underwriting Year(s) of Account shown in the schedule exceeds the amount stated as “Excess” in the schedule.’
The policy contained a definition of ‘net underwriting loss’ in the following terms:
‘The Underwriters liability hereunder shall not exceed the amount stated as “Limit” in the Schedule. The “Limit” and “Excess” shall apply separately to each Underwriting Year of Account covered hereunder. The term “overall ascertained net underwriting loss” shall mean:—(a) such sums with which the Assured shall be debited by any of his/her Underwriting Agents in respect of his/her Underwriting results being the disclosed loss as per the Underwriting Accounts as at the end of the 36th month of each separate Underwriting Year of Account: less (b) such sums as the Assured shall be credited from any of his/her Underwriting results as shown in the account as at the end of the 36th month of each separate Underwriting Year of Account …’
One of the underwriting years of account was 1982. The limit and the excess varied from policy to policy.
For purposes of illustration, the arguments in the courts below and in this House assume that for the 1982 year of account a particular hypothetical name suffered a net underwriting loss of £160,000, that the excess was £25,000, and that the limit was £100,000. On these figures the stop-loss insurers paid to the name £100,000 being the fixed amount of the limit (£100,000) which exceeded the excess (£25,000). The names together with other names sued Outhwaite for damages for negligence and breach of duty in respect of, inter alia, the 1982 year of account. Those proceedings were compromised on payment by Outhwaite of £116m to the respondents Messrs Richards Butler as solicitors for the plaintiffs in the action. For the purposes of the illustration it is assumed that included in the sum of £116m Richards Butler hold £130,000 attributable to the overall ascertained net loss of £160,000 suffered by the hypothetical name for the 1982 year of account.
On these assumptions two problems arise. First, how much is payable to the stop-loss insurers by way of subrogation? Secondly, are the stop-loss insurers entitled to be paid the amounts found due to them by way of subrogation out of the damages now held by Richards Butler?
At first instance Saville J decided that the hypothetical name would be entitled to be fully indemnified for his loss of £160,000. He received £100,000 from the stop-loss insurers. He will receive £130,000 from Outhwaite. He will keep £60,000 and pay £70,000 to the stop-loss insurers. In the result the name will
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have fully recouped his loss of £160,000. This analysis however ignores the fact that the name agreed to bear the first £25,000 excess of any loss.
The problem must, in my opinion, be solved by assuming that the name insured the first £25,000 of any loss and also insured the excess over £125,000 as well as insuring the £100,000 payable under his policy with the stop-loss insurers. There would then be three insurance policies as follows: (1) a policy for the payment of the first £25,000 of any loss; (2) a policy for payment of the next £100,000 of any loss; (3) a policy for payment of any loss in excess of £125,000.
When the name suffered a loss of £160,000 the name received £25,000 under the first policy, £100,000 under the second policy and £35,000 under the third policy. The damages payable by Outhwaite were £130,000. The third insurer is entitled to be the first to be subrogated because he only agreed to pay if the first two insurances did not cover the total loss; accordingly the third insurer must be paid £35,000. The second insurer is entitled to be the second to be subrogated because he only agreed to pay if the first insurance cover proved insufficient; accordingly, the second insurer must be paid £95,000. The sum of £35,000 payable by way of subrogation to the third insurer and the sum of £95,000 payable by way of subrogation to the second insurer exhausts the damages of £130,000 received by the name from Outhwaite. There is nothing left to recoup to the second insurer the balance of £5,000 out of the £100,000 he paid under his policy. There is nothing left by way of subrogation for the first insurer in respect of the first £25,000 which he agreed to bear.
Under the stop-loss insurance the name agreed to bear the first £25,000 loss and any loss in excess of £125,000. In my opinion the name is not entitled to be in a better position than he would have been if he had taken out the three insurances I have mentioned. The name in fact acts as his own insurer for the first £25,000 loss and acts as his own insurer for any loss in excess of £125,000. So the name must pay £95,000 to the stop-loss insurers just as he would have been liable to pay £95,000 to the second insurer if he had taken out three policies. In the result, out of the loss of £160,000, the name will have borne the first £25,000 because he agreed with the stop-loss insurers that he would bear that loss. The stop-loss insurers having paid £100,000 under the policy will receive back £95,000 by way of subrogation.
Saville J reached a different conclusion. He found that the name was entitled to retain from the damages he received the whole of the loss he had sustained before recouping the stop-loss insurers. Accordingly, the name who suffered a loss of, £160,000 and received £100,000 under the policy with the stop-loss insurers and a further £130,000 from Outhwaite was entitled to retain £60,000 and to recoup to the stop-loss insurers the sum of £70,000 and no more. Thus the name covered all his loss notwithstanding that he had agreed to bear the first £25,000 of the loss. For his conclusion Saville J relied on the following passage from the judgment of Brett LJ in Castellain & Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380 at 386, [1881–5], All ER Rep 493 at 495:
‘The very foundation, in my opinion, of every rule which has been applied to insurance law is this, namely, that the contract of insurance contained in a marine or fire policy is a contract of indemnity, and of indemnity only, and that this contract means that the assured, in case of a loss against which the policy has been made, shall be fully indemnified, but shall never be more than fully indemnified. That is the fundamental principle of insurance, and if ever a proposition is brought forward which is at variance with it, that is to say, which either will prevent the assured from obtaining a full indemnity,
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or which will give to the assured more than a full indemnity, that proposition must certainly be wrong.’
Saville J therefore concluded that the name would be entitled to indemnify himself against the first £25,000 loss even though he had expressly contracted with the stop-loss insurers that he would bear that loss. I do not consider that Castellain v Preston is helpful in deciding whether a name who promised the stop-loss insurers to bear the first £25,000 loss is entitled to be put in the same position as an insured person who makes no such promise. When Brett LJ delivered his judgment upon which Saville J relied, he was not concerned with competing claims to subrogation or with any problem arising from underinsurance or partial insurance or layers of insurance. In Castellain v Preston a vendor, after insuring his property against fire, contracted to sell the property for £3,100. A fire then occurred and the insurance company paid the vendor £330 in respect of the damage caused by the fire. The purchaser paid the full £3,100 purchase price without deducting anything for the damage caused by the fire. The Court of Appeal held that the insurance company was entitled to be subrogated to the extent of £330 and to receive that sum from the vendor because, as Brett LJ said (11 QBD 380 at 386, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 496): ‘… the assured have recovered, notwithstanding the loss, from the purchasers, the very sum of money which they were to obtain whether this building was burnt or not.' In my opinion an insured is not entitled to be indemnified against a loss which he has agreed to bear. I agree therefore with the Court of Appeal that the name must bear the loss to the extent of the excess, namely £25,000.
The second question is whether the stop-loss insurers have an interest in the moneys held by Richards Butler. For this purpose it may be assumed by way of example that the moneys held by Richards Butler include £130,000 paid by Outhwaite as damages for negligence which inflicted a loss of £160,000 on a name in respect of the 1982 year of account; can the stop-loss insurers assert an interest in that sum of £130,000 to the extent of the £95,000 which, as I have indicated, is due to them by way of subrogation?
When the hypothetical name suffered a loss of £160,000 as a result of the negligence of Outhwaite, the stop-loss insurers were bound to pay and did pay £100,000 under the policy. The stop-loss insurers immediately became entitled to be subrogated to the right of the name to sue and recover damages in an action against Outhwaite, albeit that the amount payable to the stop-loss insurers by way of subrogation could not be quantified until the action had been concluded and the damages paid. Nevertheless in my opinion the stop-loss insurers had an interest in the right of action possessed by the name against Outhwaite. That action, if brought by the name, would be an action for the benefit of the name and for the benefit of the stop-loss insurers. Where an insurer has paid on the policy, the courts have recognised the interests of the insurer in any right of action possessed by the insured person which will enable the insurer to claim back the whole or part of the sum which he has paid under the policy. The courts recognise the interests of the insurer by allowing him to sue in the name of the insured person against the wrongdoer if the insured person refuses to pursue the action.
In Randal v Cockran (1748) 1 Ves Sen 99, 27 ER 916 a vessel was insured against loss and the insurance company paid the amount of the insurance when the vessel was captured by the Spaniards. The owner of the vessel became entitled to share in the prize money from the sale of captured Spanish vessels in accordance with a royal proclamation. The commission for the distribution of the prize money refused to entertain a claim from the insurer. Lord Hardwicke LC—
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‘was of opinion, that the plaintiffs had the plainest equity that could be. The person originally sustaining the loss was the owner; but after satisfaction made to him, the insurer. No doubt, but from that time, as to the goods themselves, if restored in specie, or compensation made for them, the assured stands as a trustee for the insurer, in proportion for what he paid …’
In Blaauwpot v Da Costa (1758) 1 Eden 130, 28 ER 633 a ship insured for, £1,636 was seized by the Spaniards and the insurance company paid the sum insured. Subsequently prize money amounting to £2,050 18s 6d was paid to the executors of one of the former owners of the vessel. The executors were ordered to pay the sum £1,636 7s 3d to the insurers in accordance with the following judgment of Sir Robert Henley LK (1 Eden 130 at 131, 28 ER 633 at 634):
‘I am of opinion that upon the policy, and the peril happening, and the payment of the money by the underwriters, the whole rights of the assured vested in them. The assured had this right of restitution vested in them against the Spanish captors, which was afterwards prosecuted by the crown by reprisals. Satisfaction having been made in consequence of that capture, I think the plaintiffs are entitled to that benefit; and that it was received by the executors … in trust for them.’
In Mason v Sainsbury (1782) 3 Doug 61, 99 ER 538 a house had been insured against damage and the insurance company paid under the policy when damage was caused by the riots of 1780. The insurance company brought an action under the Riot Act (1714) against the local authority. The insurance company sued in the plaintiff’s name and with his consent and for the benefit of the insurance company. Lord Mansfield CJ said that the contract of insurance was an indemnity and that ‘Every day the insurer is put in the place of the insured’ (see 3 Doug 61 at 64, 99 ER 538 at 549).
In Yates v White (1838) 1 Arn 85 the owner of a vessel sued the defendant for damaging his ship by collision. The defendant claimed to deduct from the amount of damages the sum which the plaintiff had received from his insurers in respect of such damage. The claim was rejected.
In White v Dobinson (1844) 14 Sim 273 the ship Diana was insured against damage. After a collision the insurers paid £205 in respect of the damage. The owner of the vessel, Hicks, was awarded damages of £817 against a defendant who was held liable for the collision. Shadwell V-C granted an injunction restraining the insured person Hicks from receiving and the wrongdoer Dobinson from paying the sum of £817 in respect of damages without first paying or providing for the sum £205 in respect of which the insurers were entitled to be subrogated. On appeal Lord Lyndhurst LC said (5 LTOS 233):
‘What is an insurance but a contract of indemnity? Then Hicks having received a full satisfaction under the award, what right has he to retain money received from the insurance office as an indemnity for damage? … If Hicks had received an indemnity before the payment of the money by the company, it would clearly have been contrary to equity that he should retain that money. Parke on Marine Assurances [Park A System of the Law of Marine Insurances (8th edn, 1842)] says, that a contract to insure is one of indemnity only, and that the insured shall not receive double compensations for a loss but in case the loss has been paid, and the insured afterwards recovers the amount of damages from another source, the insurer shall stand in his place to the extent of the sum they have paid.’
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Hicks then argued that the plaintiff had no remedy in equity and that his only course was an action in a court of law for money had and received. This argument was rejected and the Lord Chancellor said:
‘Here the company have paid for a loss, for which the insured afterwards obtains full satisfaction, and it is contrary to equity that he should retain the money. The underwriters have a claim upon the fund awarded, and they are entitled in some shape or other to recover back the money they have paid.’
The injunctions were accordingly upheld.
This is authority for the proposition that, if application is made to the court before the wrongdoer has paid damages in respect of which an insurer is entitled to subrogation, the court will not allow the damages to be paid over without satisfying the claims of the insurer.
In Commercial Union Insurance Co v Lister (1874) LR 9 Ch App 483 the owner of a building insured it for £33,000 against fire but not for the full value. The building was burnt by what was said to be the negligence of the servants of a municipal corporation and suffered damage estimated at £56,000. The owner brought an action for damages against the corporation. It was held by the Court of Appeal, upholding the Master of the Rolls, that the owner undertaking to sue for the whole amount of damage would be allowed to conduct the action without interference from the insurers, but would be liable for anything done by him in violation of any equitable duty towards the insurers. In the course of his judgment Jessel MR had said (at 484n):
‘The total amount of the loss is admitted to exceed very largely the total amount of the insurances. It is alleged that the fire was caused … by the act of the corporation of Halifax … whose carelessness is alleged to have been the cause of the fire, and that the carelessness was of such a kind as to render the corporation liable for the whole of the loss. In that state of things the insurance company or companies is or are willing to pay the amount of the insurance, and they say that, having paid that amount (they pay of course by way of indemnity), if the assured obtains from the corporation of Halifax a sum larger than the difference between the amount of the insurance and the amount of the loss, he is a trustee for that excess for the insurance company or companies—a proposition which I take to be indisputable.’
In Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380 at 388, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 496 Brett LJ said:
‘In order to apply the doctrine of subrogation, it seems to me that the full and absolute meaning of the word must be used, that is to say, the insurer must be placed in the position of the assured. Now it seems to me that in order to carry out the fundamental rule of insurance law, this doctrine of subrogation must be carried to the extent to which I am now about to endeavour to express, namely, that as between the underwriter and the assured the underwriter is entitled to the advantage of every right of the assured, whether such right consists in contract, fulfilled or unfulfilled, or in remedy for tort capable of being insisted on or already insisted on, or in any other right, whether by way of condition or otherwise, legal or equitable, which can be, or has been exercised or had accrued, and whether such right could or could not be enforced by the insurer in the name of the assured by the exercise or acquiring of which right or condition the loss against which the assured is insured, can be, or has been diminished.’
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Clearly Brett LJ considered that an insurer was subrogated to any right of action subsisting when the insurer paid under the policy.
In Re Miller Gibb & Co Ltd [1957] 2 All ER 266, [1957] 1 WLR 703 the Export Credits Guarantee Department of the Board of Trade issued to a company a policy of insurance for 90% of the amount of any loss sustained in respect of goods sold to Brazil in the event of local regulations preventing payment or a transfer of payment from the buyer to the company. The buyer paid in Brazil into a bank for the account of Martins Bank, who were acting for the company. Transfer of this payment was prevented by Brazilian currency exchange regulations and the department accordingly paid 90% under the terms of the indemnity policy. The company was ordered to be wound up. The department gave notice to Martins Bank of their claim to be subrogated to the rights of the company with respect to the payment from Brazil when received. In January 1956 the bank received the full purchase price from Brazil and the Board of Trade claimed 90%. Wynn-Parry J ordered the liquidator of the company to execute all such documents and do all such things necessary to enable the department to obtain from Martins Bank 90% of the sum which had been received by the bank. This case is indistinguishable from the present.
In Yorkshire Insurance Co Ltd v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 487, [1962] 2 QB 330 a vessel was insured for £72,000 and became an actual total loss. The insurers paid £72,000. The assured brought proceedings in Canada for the loss of the vessel and the defendants paid to the assured in Canada $Can336,000-odd, then worth £75,000-odd. The pound was devalued and when the damages were transmitted to London they were worth £127,000. Diplock J held that the doctrine of subrogation only entitled the insurers to recoupment of the £72,000 which they had paid. Diplock J referred to the doctrine of subrogation in these terms ([1961] 2 All ER 487 at 490–491, [1962] 2 QB 330 at 339–341):
‘The doctrine of subrogation is not restricted to the law of insurance. Although often referred to as an “equity” it is not an exclusively equitable doctrine. It was applied by the common law courts in insurance cases long before the fusion of law and equity, although the powers of the common law courts might in some cases require to be supplemented by those of the court of equity in order to give full effect to the doctrine; for example, by compelling an assured to allow his name to be used by the insurer for the purpose of enforcing the assured’s remedies against third parties in respect of the subject-matter of the loss … The expression “subrogation” in relation to a contract of marine insurance is thus no more than a convenient way of referring to those terms which are to be implied in the contract between the assured and the insurer to give business efficacy to an agreement whereby the assured in the case of a loss against which the policy has been made shall be fully indemnified, and never more than fully indemnified … In my view the doctrine of subrogation in insurance law requires one to imply in contracts of marine insurance only such terms as are necessary to ensure that notwithstanding that the insurer has made a payment under the policy the assured shall not be entitled to retain, as against the insurer, a greater sum than what is ultimately shown to be his actual loss … Thus, if after payment by the insurer of a loss that loss, as a result of an act of a third party, is reduced, the insurer can recover from the assured the amount of the reduction because that is the amount which he, the insurer, has overpaid under the contract of insurance. This sum he can recover at common law, without recourse to equity, as money had and received … the duty of the assured to take proceedings to reduce his loss and the correlative right of the insurer to
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require him to do so was a contractual duty. The remedy for its breach, by compelling the assured to allow an action to be brought in his name, was an equitable remedy in aid of rights at common law, and was alternative to the common law remedy of recovering damages for the breach of the duty …’
In Hobbs v Marlowe [1977] 2 All ER 241 at 254–255, [1978] AC 16 at 39 Lord Diplock said:
‘For my own part I prefer to regard the doctrine of subrogation in relation to contracts of insurance as having its origin at common law in the implied terms of the contract and calling for the aid of a court of equity only where its auxiliary jurisdiction was needed to compel the assured to lend his name to his insurer for the enforcement of rights and remedies to which his insurer was subrogated: see Yorkshire Insurance Co Ltd v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 487, [1962] 2 QB 330. But the practical effects of the doctrine of subrogation on the rights and remedies of insurer and assured are similar in many respects to the effect of an equitable assignment of a chose in action …’
Thus Lord Diplock, far from deciding that a court of equity could not lend its aid to compel the assured to direct that the insurer be recouped under the doctrine of subrogation out of the damages recovered from the wrongdoer, equated the right of the insurer to that of the assignee of an equitable interest, a right which equity will of course enforce.
It may be that the common law invented and implied in contracts of insurance a promise by the insured person to take proceedings to reduce his loss, a promise by the insured person to account to the insurer for moneys recovered from a third party in respect of the insured loss and a promise by the insured person to allow the insurer to exercise in the name of the insured person rights of action vested in the insured person against third parties for the recovery of the insured loss if the insured person refuses or neglects to enforce those rights of action. There must also be implied a promise by the insured person that in exercising his rights of action against third parties he will act in good faith for the benefit of the insured person so far as he has borne the loss and for the benefit of the insurer so far as he has indemnified the insured person against the insured loss. My Lords, contractual promises may create equitable interests. An express promise by a vendor to convey land on payment of the purchase price confers on the purchaser an equitable interest in the land. In my opinion promises implied in a contract of insurance with regard to rights of action vested in the insured person for the recovery of an insured loss from a third party responsible for the loss confer on the insurer an equitable interest in those rights of action to the extent necessary to recoup the insurer who has indemnified the insured person against the insured loss.
In the hypothetical case under consideration, the intervention of equity is required to ensure that the insured person exercises his right of action against the wrongdoer in good faith and that the insurer is recouped out of the damages recovered from the wrongdoer. The stop-loss insurer is out of pocket to the amount of £100,000 from the time that he pays, as he must pay, £100,000 to the name immediately the loss has been suffered. The stop-loss insurer is entitled to be recouped £95,000 as soon as the damages of £130,000 are available from the wrongdoer. The name cannot delay or frustrate recoupment without inflicting harm on the insurer who remains out of pocket to the extent of £100,000 until he is recouped. The name cannot make use of the damages payable by the wrongdoer and available for recoupment of the stop-loss insurers without the
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name receiving a benefit or advantage to which he is not entitled. When I asked why the names were defending these present proceedings, your Lordships were blandly informed that the names wished to benefit their ‘cash flow’ by making use of all the damages payable by Outhwaite and deferring recoupment until each stop-loss insurer was able to obtain a judgment against each name for money had and received. The stop-loss insurers were not in a position to sue the name to whom they had paid £100,000 until the action against Outhwaite resulted in judgment or compromise which included £130,000 for the insured loss and the damages of £130,000 had been paid to the name; they were even then not in a position to sue the name until the amount which the stop-loss insurers were entitled to recoup under the doctrine of subrogation had been ascertained and calculated. There are 246 names, some of whom are resident in the United States of America and elsewhere abroad. In order to succeed in an action for money had and received stop-loss insurers might be obliged to pursue litigation at considerable expense and subject to considerable delay in a country which knows nothing of an action for money had and received or does not recognise the doctrine of subrogation or confines its civil litigation to the tender mercies of juries who are unsympathetic towards insurers. By the time that the stop-loss insurers ascertain that they are entitled to be repaid the sum of £95,000 and no more and no less under the doctrine of subrogation and bring and succeed in a claim against the hypothetical name to be paid £95,000, whether judgment for that sum be obtained at home or abroad, the name, having had and received £100,000 from the stop-loss insurers, may not be in a position to pay back £95,000. We were informed and accept that the respondent and representative name Lord Napier and Ettrick is a man of honour and substance and will fulfill his obligations although he is not apparently willing to fulfill them until a writ is issued and judgment is obtained against him for money had and receiveda. But no one can answer for the other 245 names.
If the stop-loss insurers have no equitable remedy in connection with their rights and if a name becomes bankrupt then subrogation is a mockery. Suppose, for example, that a name receives £100,000 from an insurer under a policy, recovers judgment for £130,000 damages from the wrongdoer and the name goes bankrupt before he receives the damages owing £1m and possessing no assets other than assets representing the £100,000 he has received from the insurer and the asset of £130,000 payable by the wrongdoer. In that case, if the argument on behalf of the names is correct, the unsecured creditors of the insured name will benefit by double payment. The stop-loss insurers will be in a worse position than an unsecured creditor because the insurers could resist payment under the policy whereas an unsecured creditor may choose whether to advance moneys or not. In the case of the bankruptcy of the name, the right of the insurer to subrogation will be useless unless equity protects that right.
Saville J and the Court of Appeal held that the stop-loss insurers were confined to their remedy for money had and received. The damages must first be distributed to the names. The stop-loss insurers must then agree or determine by application to the court the amount due to them respectively and must then bring proceedings for money had and received against each of the names. All the authorities which indicated that an insurer who pays on the policy and is entitled to recoupment by way of subrogation has an equitable interest in the right of action of the insured person against a wrongdoer and an equitable interest in the damages payable by the wrongdoer were said not to be binding on the courts. Those authorities which I have cited, and there are others, included Randal v Cockran 1 Ves Sen 98, 27 ER 916 decided in 1748, White v Dobinson 14 Sim 273,
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60 ER 363; affd 5 LTOS 233 decided in 1844, Commercial Union v Lister LR 9 Ch App 483 decided in 1874 and Re Miller Gibb & Co Ltd [1957] 2 All ER 266, [1957] 1 WLR 703 decided in 1957. I am not prepared to treat authorities which span over two centuries in a cavalier fashion. The principles which dictated the decisions of our ancestors and inspired their references to the equitable obligations of an insured person towards an insurer entitled to subrogation are discernible and immutable. They establish that such an insurer has an enforceable equitable interest in the damages payable by the wrongdoer. The insured person is guilty of unconscionable conduct if he does not provide for the insurer to be recouped out of the damages awarded against the wrongdoer. Equity will not allow the insured person to insist on his legal rights to all the damages awarded against the wrongdoer and will restrain the insured person from receiving or dealing with those damages so far as they are required to recoup the insurer under the doctrine of subrogation.
Where the insured person has been paid policy moneys by the insurer for a loss in respect of which the insured person recovers damages from a wrongdoer the insured person is guilty of unconscionable conduct if he does not procure and direct that the sum due to the insurer shall by way of subrogation be paid out of the damages.
It is next necessary to consider how equity copes with such unconscionable conduct. Saville J and the Court of Appeal appear to have thought that equity can only interfere by creating a trust fund held in trust by trustees for different beneficiaries in different shares, the trustees being burdened with administrative and investment duties, the trustees being liable for all the duties imposed on trustees but being free from liability if the trust fund is lost without negligence. I agree that if this were the only method of protecting the rights of an insurer the practical disadvantages would be fearsome. Fortunately, equity is not so inflexible or powerless. In order to protect the rights of the insurer under the doctrine of subrogation equity considers that the damages payable by the wrongdoer to the insured person are subject to an equitable lien or charge in favour of the insurer. The charge is imposed by equity because the insurer, once he has paid under the policy, has an interest in the right of action against the wrongdoer and an interest in the establishment, quantification, recovery and distribution of the damages awarded against the wrongdoer. It would be unconscionable for the insured person, who has received £100,000 from the insurer, to put damages of £130,000 into his own pocket without providing for the recoupment of the insurer who only contracted to indemnify the insured person.
The insurer can give notice to the wrongdoer of his equitable charge. When the wrongdoer is ordered or agrees to pay £130,000 and has notice of the rights of the insurer to subrogation, the wrongdoer can either pay the damages into court or decline to pay without the consent of both the insured person and the insurer. It would be the duty of the insured person to direct the wrongdoer to pay £95,000 of the damages to the insurer in recoupment and to pay the balance of £35,000 to himself. The equitable charge in favour of the insurer is enforceable against the damages ordered to be paid; that charge can be enforced so long as the damages form an identifiable separate fund. If, in the present case, Richards Butler had distributed the damages to the names before the stop-loss insurers issued proceedings or notified Richards Butler of their equitable charge, the stop-loss insurers would have been reduced to exercising their rights to sue the names for money had and received.
In the present case damages of £116m are in a separate fund held by Richards Butler on behalf of the names albeit that the damages in the fund also include moneys held on behalf of other names and other insurers. For the reasons I have indicated it would be unconscionable for the names to take their shares of the
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damages without providing for the sums due to the stop-loss insurers to be paid out of those damages. The equitable charge still affects the damages and affects Richards Butler, who hold the damages with notice of the charge.
It is true that it may not be possible to distribute the damages between the stop-loss insurers and the names at once because the amounts due to the names as opposed to other names may still be uncertain and because the amounts due to the stop-loss insurers in any particular case by way of subrogation may still be uncertain. These uncertainties are due to the fact that losses of Lloyd’s underwriters surface and are quantified in some cases many years after the relevant year of account. The calculations are also complicated by the fact that the damages of £116m are in compensation of claims extending over different years of account with different names and insurers and with insurance policies containing different provisions. Delay in distributing the damages cannot be blamed on the stop-loss insurers. Delay is as much a disadvantage to the stop-loss insurers as it is to the names. It is in the interests of everybody that the damages shall be distributed as soon as possible. Interim distributions can be made in favour of those names and stop-loss insurers whose rights and liabilities have been or are now capable of being calculated with certainty. If necessary the court will decide how much can now be distributed. Any reserves for uncertain events can be invested in joint names for the benefit of the name and the stop-loss insurers concerned.
In the result I would allow the appeal by the stop-loss insurers against the refusal of Saville J and the Court of Appeal to grant any relief in equity against the names and Richards Butler. In my opinion the stop-loss insurers are entitled to injunctions restraining Richards Butler from paying and each name from receiving any part of the damages of £116m now held by Richards Butler without first providing or paying out of the damages payable to the name the amounts which have been or shall be found to be due from that name to the stop-loss insurers by way of subrogation.
I would dismiss the cross-appeal by the names against the declaration made by the Court of Appeal in these terms:
‘That, when determining the amount which stop loss insurers are entitled to claim in respect of the Settlement monies, the stop loss insurers are entitled to be reimbursed any indemnity paid by them to an assured before that assured is fully indemnified by applying his share of the Settlement monies to a loss occurring below the excess in that assured’s policy.’
Since drafting this speech I have read in draft the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. He agrees that the doctrine of subrogation confers on the insurer an equitable proprietary lien or charge on the moneys recovered by the insured person from a third party in respect of the insured loss. I agree that in the circumstances it is not now necessary to decide whether the equitable lien or charge attaches also to the rights of action vested in the insured person to recover from a third party. I have expressed the view that the doctrine of subrogation does apply in those circumstances but in any future case, if the point becomes material, that view may require reconsideration in the light of further research. Subject to this observation I agree with the views expressed by Lord Goff and I also agree with the speeches to be delivered by my noble and learned friends Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle and Lord Browne-Wilkinson.
The names must pay the costs of the stop-loss insurers before this House and in the courts below.
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LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, I, too, have reached the conclusion that the appeal should be allowed. I start with the common law. In Yorkshire Insurance Co Ltd v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 487, [1962] 2 QB 330, a case concerned with marine insurance, Diplock J analysed the principle of subrogation in purely contractual terms. He said ([1961] 2 All ER 487 at 490, [1962] 2 QB 330 at 339–340):
‘The expression “subrogation” in relation to a contract of marine insurance is thus no more than a convenient way of referring to those terms which are to be implied in the contract between the assured and the insurer to give business efficacy to an agreement whereby the assured in the case of a loss against which the policy has been made shall be fully indemnified, and never more than fully indemnified.’
He went on to say that subrogation is concerned solely with the mutual rights and liabilities of the parties to the contract of insurance. The remedies of the insurer were, he said, essentially common law remedies; in particular, if the assured has, after payment of the loss by the insurer, received a sum from a third party in reduction of the loss, the insurer can recover the amount of the reduction as money had and received (for which Diplock J referred to Bullen and Leake’s Precedents of Pleadings (3rd edn, 1868) p 187). The only role which Diplock J assigned to equity was to come to the aid of the common law by compelling the assured to allow his name to be used in proceedings against the third party: see also his judgment, as Lord Diplock, in Hobbs v Marlowe [1977] 2 All ER 241 at 254–255, [1978] AC 16 at 39.
Now there is no reason why, subject to the one matter to which Lord Diplock refers, the principle of subrogation in the field of insurance should not have developed as a purely common law principle. But as a matter of history it did not do so. It is true that our law of marine insurance was very largely established by Lord Mansfield, in a remarkable series of decisions during his tenure of office as Chief Justice at the Court of King’s Bench, so much so that Park J dedicated the first edition of his treatise on the law of marine insurance (Park A System of the Law of Marine Insurances (1786)) to Lord Mansfield, describing the subject in the dedication as one which ‘must be admitted to be the exclusive property of your Lordship’. But in the early editions of the book there is little trace of the principle of subrogation, though there is much learning on the subject of abandonment. Lord Mansfield CJ’s decision in the leading case of Mason v Sainsbury (1782) 3 Doug 61, 99 ER 538 established that payment of a claim by an insurer did not preclude him from thereafter proceeding in the name of the assured against the wrongdoer who had caused the relevant damage, and recovering damages in full from him. The payment of the loss by the insurer to the assured did not affect the liability of the wrongdoer; the action against him was to be considered ‘as if the insurers had not paid a farthing’ (see 3 Doug 61 at 64, 99 ER 538 at 540). However the insured could not proceed against the third party in his own name; he had to proceed in the name of the assured (see London Assurance Co v Sainsbury (1783) 3 Doug 245, 99 ER 636).
It is of some interest that in Mason v Sainsbury the action against the wrongdoer was brought in the name of the assured with his consent, for the benefit of the insurer. Here we can see an early example of the fact that the insurer, upon payment to the assured of his loss, receives from him as a matter of course not merely a receipt for the money, but also what has for many years been called a letter of subrogation signed by the assured which authorises the insurer to proceed in this way, and indeed nowadays may assign the relevant rights of action to the
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insurer. It is very difficult to imagine an insurer paying a claim without taking this elementary precaution, especially as the assured can have little or no incentive to refuse to sign such a document. I strongly suspect that letters of subrogation have been a commonplace of insurance claims for a very long time, and that it is their regular use which explains what appears to be a dearth of authority on such matters as proceedings to compel the assured to allow the insurer to commence proceedings in his name, and actions for money had and received by insurers against assured, because third parties would have settled direct with the insurer as expressly authorised by the assured (hence, pace Lord Diplock, the absence of any reference to such an action in Bullen and Leake’s Precedents of Pleading (3rd edn)). On the other hand, there is a substantial body of case law on the subject of the respective rights of insurer and assured in the institution, control and settlement of proceedings against wrongdoers who have caused the relevant loss (as to which see MacGillivray and Parkington on Insurance Law (8th edn, 1988) paras 1191ff).
At all events, what appears to have happened is not simply that equity came to the aid of the common law by compelling an assured whose loss has been paid to allow the insurer to proceed in his name against a third party wrongdoer responsible for the loss, but that a principle of subrogation was the subject of separate development by courts of equity in a line of authority dating from Randal v Cockran (1748) 1 Ves Sen 99, 27 ER 916, which was decided before Lord Mansfield was appointed Chief Justice of the Court of King’s Bench. This line of authority is traced in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman, and I am therefore spared the burden of setting it out in this opinion. Spasmodic but consistent, the cases assert that recoveries by the assured which reduce the loss paid by the insurer are held in trust for the insurer, so much so that by 1881 Jessel MR regarded this proposition as indisputable (see Commercial Union Insurance Co v Lister (1874) LR 9 Ch App 848n). This principle was moreover recognised not only in courts of equity, but also in courts of common law (see the decision of the Court of Common Pleas in Yates v White (1838) 1 Arn 85, 4 Bing NC 272, 132 ER 793, subsequently approved by this House in Simpson & Co v Thomson (1877) 3 App Cas 279, in which Lord Cairns LC (at 285–286) cited in extenso passages from the judgment in Yates v Whyte 4 Bing NC 272 at 282–283, 132 ER 793 at 797 in which reliance was placed on Randal v Cockran, and Lord Blackburn (at 293) relied on Randal v Cockran itself in a passage to which I shall refer later in this opinion. It is perhaps also relevant that in 1783 Lord Mansfield CJ had justified his conclusion that the insurer could not proceed in his own name but must proceed in the name of the assured on the ground that ‘Trustee and cestui que trust cannot both have a right of action’: see London Assurance Co v Sainsbury (1783) 3 Doug 245 at 253, 99 ER 636 at 640.
I agree with my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson that the decisive case in the line of equity cases is White v Dobinson (1844) 14 Sim 273, 60 ER 363; affd (1845) 5 LTOS 233. The case was concerned with a collision at sea. The owner of one of the ships, after payment by his underwriter of £205, was awarded £600 damages in arbitration proceedings against the other shipowner. Shadwell V-C, relying upon Randal v Cockran and Blaauwpot v da Costa (1758) 1 Eden 130, 28 ER 633, granted an interlocutory injunction which had the effect of retaining the fund, and not letting it pass into the hands of the assured. The injunction appears to have restrained both the assured from receiving, and the other shipowner from paying, the money without first paying or providing for the sum of £205 paid by the insurer (see 5 LTOS 233). Lord Lyndhurst LC discharged the injunction as against the other shipowner, but otherwise maintained it in force. The case is important for a number of reasons. First, the
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insurer’s case was advanced on the basis that he had a lien on the sum awarded, and was resisted on the ground that the insurer’s right, if it existed at all, was a right to proceed at law in an action for money had and received, and was not an equitable right. That argument was rejected. Second, the Lord Chancellor also rejected a claim by a bank as assignee from the assured, on the ground that the bank’s security was taken subject to all the equities which would have affected the money received in the hands of the assured himself. Third, the Lord Chancellor held that the insurers had a claim upon the fund awarded, and were ‘entitled in some shape or other to recover back the money they have paid’.
Now it is true that the case was concerned with an interlocutory injunction, a point which evidently concerned the Lord Chancellor himself. But he nevertheless upheld the injunction on the basis of the authority cited to him, in which, as he said (5 LTOS 233):
‘… we have the clearly expressed opinions of Lord Hardwicke [in Randal v Cockran (1748) 1 Ves Sen 98, 27 ER 916] and Lord Northington [in Blaauwpot v da Costa (1758) 1 Eden 130, 28 ER 633], recognized by Mr. Baron Parke, and more recently by Lord Abinger [in Brooks v MacDonnell (1835) 1 Y & C Ex 500, 160 ER 204], who at that time possessed considerable experience of the practice in equity, from having presided for several years on the equity side of the Court of Exchequer …’
Subsequent authorities to the same effect are King v Victoria Insurance Co [1896] AC 250 at 255–256 per Lord Hobhouse, who (in a passage in which he appears to have placed no reliance upon the existence of an assignment by the assured of its rights and causes of action against the third party) expressed the opinion that the assured would have held any damages recovered from the third party as trustee for the insurer, and Re Miller Gibb & Co Ltd [1957] 2 All ER 266, [1957] 1 WLR 703. The only case in equity which appears at first sight to be inconsistent with this line of authority is Stearns v Village Main Reef Gold Mining Co Ltd (1905) 10 Com Cas 89. However, as my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson has pointed out, that case was concerned with the recovery of an overpayment; indeed, it was upon that basis that it was distinguished by Wynn-Parry J in Re Miller Gibb & Co Ltd [1957] 2 All ER 266 at 272, [1957] 1 WLR 703 at 710–711.
Despite Saville J’s reservations on this point, I can discern no inconsistency between the equitable proprietary right recognised by courts of equity in these cases and the personal rights and obligations embodied in the contract of insurance itself. No doubt our task nowadays is to see the two strands of authority, at law and in equity, moulded into a coherent whole; but for my part I cannot see why this amalgamation should lead to the rejection of the equitable proprietary right recognised in the line of cases to which I have referred. Of course, it is proper to start with the contract of insurance, and to see how the common law courts have worked out the mutual rights and obligations of the parties in contractual terms with recourse to implied terms where appropriate. But, with all respect, I am unable to agree with Diplock J that subrogation is in this context concerned solely with the mutual rights and obligations of the parties under the contract. In this connection, I observe from the report of Yorkshire Insurance Co Ltd v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 487, [1962] 2 QB 330 that the important case of White v Dobinson (1844) 14 Sim 273, 60 ER 363; affd 116 LTOS 233 was not cited in argument, and indeed the existence of an equitable proprietary right was not in issue in that case. In these circumstances I cannot derive from Diplock J’s judgment any justification for sweeping the line of equity cases under the carpet as though it did not exist. In my opinion, this line of authority must be recognised,
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and appropriate weight should be given to the views expressed in the cases by the distinguished judges who decided them. I wish to add that I do not read s 79 of the Marine Insurance Act 1906 (concerned with the right of subrogation) as in any way detracting from this conclusion.
Even so, an important feature of these cases is that the principle of subrogation in the law of insurance arises in a contractual context. It is true that in some cases at common law it has been described as arising as a matter of equity. Thus in Burnand v Rodocanachi Sons & Co (1882) 7 App Cas 333 at 339 Lord Blackburn described it simply as ‘an equity’. Furthermore, it has not been usual to express the principle of subrogation as arising from an implied term in the contract. Even so it has been regarded, both at law and in equity, as giving effect to the underlying nature of a contract of insurance, which is that it is intended to provide an indemnity but no more than an indemnity. Not only does this principle inform the judgments of the Court of Appeal in the leading case of Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493, but it underlies Lord Lyndhurst LC’s judgment in White v Dobinson (1845) 5 LTOS 233. In so far as the principle requires the payment of money, it could no doubt be formulated as an implied term, to which effect could have been given by the old action for money had and received. But I do not see why the mere fact that the purpose of, subrogation in this context is to give effect to the principle of indemnity embodied in the contract should preclude recognition of the equitable proprietary right, if justice so requires. If I search for a parallel, the closest analogy is perhaps to be found in the law of agency, in which, although the relationship between principal and agent is governed by a contract, nevertheless the agent may be held in certain circumstances to hold money, which he has received from a third party in his capacity as agent, as trustee for his principal. It is by no means easy to ascertain the circumstances in which a trusteeship exists; but, in a valuable discussion in Bowstead on Agency (15th edn, 1985) pp 162–163, Professor Francis Reynolds suggests that it is right to inquire—
‘whether the trust relationship is appropriate to the commercial relationship in which the parties find themselves; whether it was appropriate that money or property should be, and whether it was, held separately, or whether it was contemplated that the agent should use the money, property or proceeds of the property as part of his normal cash flow in such a way that the relationship of debtor and creditor is more appropriate.’
He also suggests that—
‘a central question, perhaps too often overlooked (because not directly in issue), is whether the rights of the principal are sufficiently strong, and differentiable from other claims, for him to be entitled to a prior position in respect of them on the agent’s bankruptcy.’
I have little doubt that the distinguished judges who decided the cases in the line of equity authority to which I have referred must have considered that money received by an assured from a third party in reduction of a loss paid by an insurer should not be treated as available for the assured’s normal cash flow, and further that the rights of the insurer to such money were sufficiently strong to entitle the insurer to priority in the event of the assured’s bankruptcy, as was indeed held by Wynn-Parry J in Re Miller Gibb & Co [1957] 2 All ER 266, [1957] 1 WLR 703. I for my part can see no good reason to depart from this line of authority. However, since the constitution of the assured as trustee of such money may impose upon him obligations of too onerous a character (a point which troubled Saville J in the present case), I am very content that the equitable proprietary right of the insurer
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should be classified as a lien, as proposed by my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman, and indeed as claimed by the insurer in White v Dobinson (1844) 14 Sim 237, 60 ER 363 itself. Indeed a lien is the more appropriate form of proprietary right in circumstances where, as here, its function is to protect the interest of the insurer in an asset only to the extent that its retention by the assured will have the effect that he is more than indemnified under the policy of insurance.
There is one particular problem to which I wish to refer, although, as I understand it, it does not fall to be decided in the present case. Does the equitable proprietary interest of the insurer attach only to a fund consisting of sums which come into the hands of the assured in reduction of the loss paid by the insurer? Or does it attach also to a right of action vested in the assured which, if enforced, would yield such a fund? The point is not altogether easy. I can see no reason in principle why such an interest should not be capable of attaching to property in the nature of a chose in action. Moreover that it should do so in the present context appears to have been the opinion of Lord Blackburn in Simpson v Thomson (1877) 3 App Cas 279 at 292–293. On the other hand, cases such as Morley v Moore [1936] 2 All ER 79, [1936] 2 KB 359 appear to point in the opposite direction, as perhaps does the decision of Lord Lyndhurst LC in White v Dobinson (1845) 5 LTOS 233 to discharge the injunction as against the owner of the ship at fault in that case. However, since the point was not directly addressed in the argument before your Lordships, I am reluctant to reach any conclusion upon it without a full examination of the authorities relating to the respective rights and obligations of insurer and assured, especially with regard to the conduct and disposal of litigation relating to causes of action of the relevant kind. I therefore wish to reserve my opinion upon this question, the answer to which I do not regard as necessary for the resolution of the issue which has arisen in the present case.
For these reasons, I would allow the appeal. For the reasons given by my noble and learned friends Lord Templeman and Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle, I would dismiss the cross-appeal.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches of my noble and learned friends Lord Templeman, Lord Goff of Chieveley and Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree that for the reasons which they have given the appeal of the stop-loss insurers should be allowed and I cannot usefully add anything to what they have said. I also agree that the cross-appeal by the names should be refused and wish only to add a few words of my own thereanent.
The cross-appeal raises the question of how moneys recovered (the recoveries) by the names in the Outhwaite actions are to be applied as between the names and the stop-loss insurers. A typical policy granted by the stop-loss insurers undertook to—
‘indemnify the Assured for the amount by which the Assured’s overall ascertained net underwriting loss as hereinafter defined for the Underwriting Year(s) of Account shown in the schedule exceeds the amount stated as “Excess” in the schedule.’
The policy further provided that the insurers liability should not exceed a specified limit. The names contended that the recoveries should be applied first towards their losses above the specified limit, second towards their losses up to the excess and thereafter to the stop-loss insurers. The latter accepted that the recoveries should be applied in the first instance towards the names’ losses above the specified limit but contended that they should then be applied for their benefit. The
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competing arguments may perhaps be best illustrated by a hypothetical example which was relied upon in the Court of Appeal and before this House. A name having a policy with an excess of £25,000 and insurers’ liability limited to £100,000 suffers a total loss of £160,000, but receives £100,000 under his policy and later recovers £130,000 in the action. The names argued that the £130,000 fell to be applied as to £35,000 to meet the uninsured top slice of the loss, as to £25,000 to meet the initial excess and as to the remaining £70,000 for the benefit of the stop-loss insurers. There was no dispute as to the application of £35,000 but the stop-loss insurers maintained that the remaining £95,000 should be applied for their benefit leaving them with a liability to the insured of only £5,000. In short the question was whether the names were entitled to recoup themselves out of the recoveries for their initial uninsured £25,000 loss in priority to the stop-loss insurers. Saville J held that the names were so entitled but the Court of Appeal held that they were not. Your Lordships were informed that a sum of about £6m was affected by this issue.
The basis of the stop-loss insurers’ right to receive any part of the recoveries is the doctrine of subrogation. In Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380 at 386, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 495 Brett LJ said:
‘The very foundation, in my opinion, of every rule which has been applied to insurance law is this, namely, that the contract of insurance contained in a marine or fire policy is a contract of indemnity, and of indemnity only, and that this contract means that the assured, in case of a loss against which the policy has been made, shall be fully indemnified, but shall never be more than fully indemnified.’
He later went on to give an enlarged definition of subrogation pointing out that ‘the insurer must be placed in the position of the assured’ (see 11 QBD 380 at 388, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 496). He pointed out that although an insurer who had not yet fully indemnified an insured could not, in relation to prior recoveries, be subrogated to any right of action nevertheless it would be contrary to the doctrine of subrogation if the insured’s loss were not diminished vis-à-vis the insurer (see 11 QBD 380 at 389–390, cf [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 496). Brett LJ was thus equiparating the effect of recoveries made before indemnification by the insurer with those made afterwards. In the case of recoveries made towards a loss which was indemnifiable but had not yet been indemnified the matter could equally well be approached by saying that the loss which the insurer had undertaken to meet was the initial loss diminished by all relevant recoveries prior to payment by the insurer. This appears to have been the approach of Cotton LJ in Castellain v Preston 11 QBD 380 at 393, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 498, where after referring to the loss insured against he said:
‘In order to ascertain what that loss is, everything must be taken into account which is received by and comes to the hand of the assured, and which diminishes that loss. It is only the amount of the loss, when it is considered as a contract of indemnity, which is to be paid after taking into account and estimating those benefits or sums of money which the assured may have received in diminution of the loss.’
He said (11 QBD 380 at 395, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 498):
‘The principle which I have enunciated goes further, and if there is a money or any other benefit received which ought to be taken into account in diminishing the loss or in ascertaining what the real loss is against which the
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contract of indemnity is given, the indemnifier ought to be allowed to take advantage of it in order to calculate what the real loss is …’
A similar approach was adopted by Lord Blackburn in Burnand v Rodocanachi Sons & Co (1882) 7 App Cas 333 at 339 in these words:
‘The general rule of law (and it is obvious justice) is that where there is a contract of indemnity (it matters not whether it is a marine policy, or a policy against fire on land, or any other contract of indemnity) and a loss happens, anything which reduces or diminishes that loss reduces or diminishes the amount which the indemnifier is bound to pay; and if the indemnifier has already paid it, then, if anything which diminishes the loss comes into the hands of the person to whom he has paid it, it becomes an equity that the person who has already paid the full indemnity is entitled to be recouped by having that amount back.’
What is, in my view, particularly significant about the foregoing dicta is the emphasis which they place upon the fact that in the context of recoveries subrogation is concerned only with the loss against which the assured is insured rather than any general loss. If an assured has suffered an insured loss and an uninsured loss full indemnification of the former subrogates the insurers irrespective of the fact that the assured has not yet recovered the uninsured loss.
Saville J in rejecting the argument of the stop-loss insurers said that it ‘involves the proposition that they can take account of the recovery before the assured has been reimbursed for his loss’. He concluded his judgment by saying:
‘The question to be asked … is whether the recovery together with the indemnity will more than compensate the assured for the loss. If it will, then, if this arises before payment, the amount of the indemnity will be reduced so as to avoid overcompensation, while, if it occurs after payment, the assured will have to repay the amount of overcompensation to his indemnifiers. I can only repeat that any approach which does not achieve this result but instead leaves the assured over- or under-compensated must be wrong, since it offends the very reason why subrogation exists in our law.’
With respect to the learned judge it seems to me that he was there confusing the whole loss suffered by the assured with the loss against which the insurer had agreed to indemnify him. When the indemnity extends to the total loss sustained the two will be coincident but in the present case they were not. In my view Staughton LJ was correct in stating that—
‘It is [the loss against which the policy has been made] which the insured must have been reimbursed for, if the insurer is to claim any benefit by way of subrogation.’
In this case the stop-loss insurers undertook to indemnify the assured for the amount by which their overall ascertained underwriting loss exceeded a specified excess but did not exceed a stated limit. In the given example they undertook to meet losses neither below £25,000 nor above £125,000. When they paid over the £100,000 to the names the latter were fully indemnified against the insured loss although they themselves had further uninsured losses of £60,000 and the stop-loss insurers were subrogated to any recoveries which reduced the insured loss. If in the given example recovery of £130,000 had been achieved before the stop-loss insurers were called upon to pay what would have been the loss which the names had at that stage sustained? The insurers would answer ‘£30,000’ upon
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the view that a recovery of £130,000 had reduced an initial loss of £160,000 to that figure. The names however would answer, ‘We have sustained a loss of £30,000 lying within a band between £25,000 and £55,000 for which loss we are entitled to indemnity from the insurers’. My Lords, not only does the names’ answer defy common sense but it also involves their accepting that they have sustained no loss in respect of the initial excess, a loss whose existence is a prerequisite to any liability on the part of the stop-loss insurers. To put the matter another way, the names’ answer involves treating the ‘loss against which the policy has been made’ not as provided for in that policy but as the first £100,000 without excess, an exercise for which there is, in my view, no warrant whatsoever. Suppose that instead of carrying the first £25,000 themselves the names had insured that sum with another insurer. Could they on receipt of the £130,000 of recoveries have paid £25,000 to that insurer at the expense of the stop-loss insurers? The answer can only be No. The fact that they have chosen to carry their own insurance for that sum cannot in my view place them in a better position vis-à-vis the other insurers than would have been an insurer of that sum. When an insured loss is diminished by a recovery from a third party, whether before or after any indemnification has been made, the ultimate loss is simply the initial loss minus the recovery and it is that sum to which the provisions of the policy of assurance apply including any provision as to an excess.
My Lords, for the foregoing reasons and for those given by my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman I consider that the Court of Appeal reached a correct conclusion on this matter and that the cross-appeal should be dismissed.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I agree with the speeches of my noble and learned friends Lord Templeman and Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle. I add some words of my own on the question whether the stop-loss insurers have a proprietary interest in the damages recovered by the names from Outhwaite because we are differing from the Court of Appeal on that point.
Dillon LJ (with whom Staughton and Nolan LJJ agreed on this point) based his conclusion that the doctrine of subrogation does not give rise to any proprietary interest primarily on the statement of the law by Diplock J in Yorkshire Insurance Co Ltd v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 487 at 490, [1962] 2 QB 330 at 339–340 and, as Lord Diplock, in Hobbs v Marlowe [1977] 2 All ER 241 at 254–255, [1978] AC 16 at 39. Lord Diplock said, in effect, that in relation to insurance the right of subrogation was a common law doctrine based on the implied terms of the contract of insurance, the role of equity being limited to aiding the common law right of recovery by forcing the assured to permit the insurers to sue third parties in the name of the assured. It was the view of the Court of Appeal that, as a common law doctrine, the right of subrogation enjoyed by insurers was unlikely to give rise to a trust or other equitable or proprietary right.
However, the researches of counsel in the present case have failed to disclose any reported decision before the fusion of law and equity in which an insurer successfully sued the assured at law for money had and received, being moneys recovered by the assured from a third party wrongdoer in reduction of the insured loss. Nor has any case been found in which a court of equity was asked to make an order directing the assured to permit the insurers to sue in the name of the assured. Nor can I find in Bullen and Leake’s Precedents of Pleadings (3rd edn, 1868) p 187 (on which Diplock J relied in the Yorkshire Insurance case [1961] 2 All ER 487 at 491, [1962] 2 QB 330 at 341) any precedent for a common law action for money had and received brought by the insurer against the insured.
On the other side, the authorities cited by Lord Templeman show a series of decisions from 1748 onwards in which courts of equity were themselves enforcing
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rights of subrogation against the assured and in which both equity and common law courts referred to the assured as holding benefits received from a third party as ‘trustee’ for the insurers or subject to a lien in favour of the insurers.
In my judgment therefore Lord Diplock’s dicta are not well founded if they suggest that subrogation in insurance cases was purely a common law doctrine and that equity only intervened for the purpose of enabling the insurer to sue in the name of the assured. Equity itself enforced rights of subrogation against the assured. Despite the lack of reported cases, it may well be that before 1875 the common law also recognised the right of insurers to sue the assured for money had and received. The probability is that in the majority of cases there was a letter of subrogation obtained from the assured when the insurance moneys were paid. Such a letter would regulate the rights of the insurers to sue and the destination of the moneys recovered.
What, then, was the basis on which equity enforced rights of subrogation? Was it merely a personal obligation of the assured to account to the insurers for benefits received from third party wrongdoers in diminution of the insured loss, or was it a proprietary right of the insurers in the damages recovered from third parties? In my judgment, the authorities show that it was a proprietary right in the damages recovered.
First, the question arose whether, in an action at law by the assured against the third party wrongdoer, the damages recoverable had to be reduced by the amount of the insurance moneys received by the assured. It was argued that, unless such reduction were made, the assured would be obtaining double compensation. In Yates v White (1838) 1 Arn 85 such an argument was rejected by the Court of Common Pleas on the ground that the assured was not making a double recovery since he would be a trustee for the insurers of the moneys recovered from the third party wrongdoer. Tindal CJ said (at 91):
‘The principle that the insured stands as trustee for the insurer, after the latter has paid, is established by the case of Randal v. Cockran ((1748) 1 Ves Sen 98, 27 ER 916): whatever money therefore the plaintiff may recover in the present action, equity will undoubtedly compel him to pay over to the underwriters.’
Park J followed the decision in Mason v Sainsbury (1782) 3 Doug 64, 99 ER 538, holding that there would be no double recovery by the assured since he would hold the damages recovered as trustee for the insurer. Both Mason v Sainsbury and Yates v White were approved by this House in Simpson & Co v Thomson (1877) 3 App Cas 279.
Next, the question arose whether an insurer entitled by way of subrogation could at law sue a third party wrongdoer in his own name or only in the name of the assured. It was held that he could only sue in the name of the assured: see London Assurance Co v Sainsbury (1783) 3 Doug 245, 99 ER 638. Lord Mansfield CJ said (3 Doug 245 at 253, 99 ER 638 at 640):
‘If the insurer could sue in his own name, no release by the insured would bar, nor would a verdict by him be a bar. It is impossible that the insured should transfer, and yet retain his right of action. Trustee and cestui que trust cannot both have a right of action.’
However, in my judgment the decisive case is White v Dobinson (1844) 14 Sim 273, 60 ER 363; affd (1845) 5 LTOS 233. In that case Hicks had insured the ship Diana with the plaintiff. Diana was in collision with Xenophon owned by Dobinson. The plaintiff paid the full sum due under the insurance to Hicks. Hicks then brought an action against Dobinson as owner of the Xenophon and
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was awarded £600 damages. Hicks had assigned to a bank whatever he recovered from the owner of the Xenophon. The plaintiff sought, and Shadwell V-C granted, an interlocutory injunction restraining Hicks from receiving and Dobinson from paying the £600 damages without first recouping to the plaintiff the amount of the insurance he had paid, on the ground that by way of subrogation the plaintiff had a lien in equity on the fund. Lord Lyndhurst LC upheld the Vice-Chancellor’s decision, but discharged the injunction against Dobinson. First, the Lord Chancellor disregarded the rights of the bank as assignee from Hicks since the bank’s rights were ‘subject to all the equities which would have affected the money recovered’. Second, he held that ‘the underwriters have a claim upon the fund awarded, and are entitled in some shape or other to recover back the money they have paid’.
Although this was only an interlocutory decision, it was argued for two days and decided by a distinguished Lord Chancellor. It is clear that it recognised that the insurer enjoyed a proprietary right in the damages (not merely a personal right of recovery from Hicks) both because the injunction froze the damages in specie and because the assignment of the damages to the bank was disregarded as being subject to the plaintiff’s equities in the fund. This is therefore a clear decision before the fusion of law and equity that equity treated an insurer entitled to be subrogated as having a proprietary interest in damages recovered from a third party wrongdoer.
However, it should be noted that Lord Lyndhurst LC did not continue the injunction against the third party wrongdoer, Dobinson. The case therefore established only that there is a proprietary right in the damages once recovered by the assured.
In Re Miller Gibb & Co Ltd [1957] 2 All ER 266, [1957] 1 WLR 703 the insurer was held to have a proprietary interest in the damages recovered from the third party wrongdoer. In my judgment, that case was rightly decided.
With one possible exception we were not referred to any decided case pointing in the other direction. The Court of Appeal in the present case treated the decision in Stearns v Village Main Reef Gold Mining Co (1905) 10 Com Cas 89 as being to the contrary effect. In that case, gold belonging to the defendants had been insured by the plaintiffs. The Transvaal government, shortly before the outbreak of the Boer War, commandeered the defendants’ gold to the value of £21,880. In 1899 the plaintiffs were paid £7,239-odd by the Transvaal government, which payment the court decided had to be treated as a reduction in the defendants’ loss. On 2 August 1900 the plaintiffs, in ignorance of the payment by the Transvaal government, accepted liability for the full £21,880 and paid the sum into the joint names of the plaintiffs and the defendants to await the outcome of certain other litigation. On 19 November 1902 the £21,880 together with the amount earned on it was paid out to the defendants. When the plaintiffs subsequently learnt of the payment by the Transvaal government, they sued to recover the £7,239 plus interest. The trial judge held that the plaintiffs were entitled to recover the £7,239 plus interest from 2 August 1900 (the date of its investment in the joint names) until 19 November 1902 (the date of its payment out to the defendants). The defendants appealed and the plaintiffs cross-appealed, claiming interest down to the date of trial on the ground that the defendants were trustees. Only Stirling LJ dealt in his judgment with the cross-appeal. He rejected the claim for interest, holding that the relationship was one of debtor and creditor not that of trustee and cestui que trust.
That case is difficult to understand. So far as trusteeship was concerned, there was no fund capable of being the subject matter of a trust since the moneys were recovered by the assured from the third party (the Transvaal government) before
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the plaintiff insurers settled the insurance claim. It was a case of overpayment by the insurers under a mistake, not subsequent recovery by the assured from a third party of a fund for which the assured was accountable to the insurer. The only possible form of equitable relief in that case would be to have imposed on the assured some form of constructive trusteeship not of specified funds but as a general equitable liability.
Although the principles underlying subrogation as stated in Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 apply to sums recovered from a third party whether such recovery takes place before or after the insurers have paid under the policy, the proper legal analysis of the parties’ rights does depend on the order of receipts. If the assured recovers from the third party (thereby reducing the insured loss) before the insurers have paid under the policy, there is an overpayment of the insurance money: there is no fund of money which can be the subject matter of a trust or charge. If, on the other hand, the assured does not recover from the third party until after payment of the insurance moneys the moneys recovered from the third party constitute a defined fund which can be impressed with a lien or trust.
The decision of Stirling LJ in that case goes no further than the facts of that case demanded, namely to hold that an overpaid assured is not accountable as a constructive trustee for the amount of the overpayment, there being no defined trust fund. He was not considering a case where there was a defined fund arising from a subsequent recovery by the insured which the insured was still holding.
In my judgment, therefore, an insurer who has paid over the insurance moneys does have a proprietary interest in moneys subsequently recovered by an assured from a third party wrongdoer. Although many of the authorities refer to that right as arising under a trust, in my judgment the imposition of a trust is neither necessary nor desirable: to impose fiduciary liabilities on the assured is commercially undesirable and unnecessary to protect the insurers’ interests. In my judgment, the correct analysis is as follows. The contract of insurance contains an implied term that the assured will pay to the insurer out of the moneys received in reduction of the loss the amount to which the insurer is entitled by way of subrogation. That contractual obligation is specifically enforceable in equity against the defined fund (ie the damages) in just the same way as are other contracts to assign or charge specific property, eg equitable assignments and equitable charges. Since equity regards as done that which ought to be done under a contract, this specifically enforceable right gives rise to an immediate proprietary interest in the moneys recovered from the third party. In my judgment, this proprietary interest is adequately satisfied in the circumstances of subrogation under an insurance contract by granting the insurers a lien over the moneys recovered by the assured from the third party. This lien will be enforceable against the fund so long as it is traceable and has not been acquired by a bona fide purchaser for value without notice. In addition to the equitable lien, the insurer will have a personal right of action at law to recover the amount received by the assured as moneys had and received to the use of the insurer.
As to the question whether the insurers have a proprietary interest in the assured’s cause of action against the third party (as contrasted with the damages actually recovered) I prefer to express no concluded view. I do not think that the proprietary interest in the damages necessarily postulates a pre-existing proprietary interest in the cause of action. The contrary view could be reached by an argument along the following lines. Any equitable proprietary right must be based on the contract between the insurers and the assured. The implied terms of such contract are established by the decided authorities. Some of those implied terms may be inconsistent with the insurers having any right of property in the cause of action
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as opposed to the damages recovered. Thus, the third party can compromise the claim with the assured alone, without requiring the concurrence of the insurers. Again, the third party will obtain a good discharge for a judgment only if he pays the assured as opposed to the insurers. If the insurers have a proprietary interest in the cause of action it could be argued that the assured alone could neither effect a valid compromise nor give a good discharge: the insurers also would have to be parties. Accordingly, it could be said that the implied terms of the contract between the insurers and the assured are such that equity would not be specifically enforcing the parties’ bargain if it treated the insurers as having proprietary rights in the cause of action inconsistent with the rights of the assured and that accordingly the rights of the insurers are purely personal rights to require the assured either to pursue the cause of action against the third party or to permit the insurers to do so in his name. But there are plainly factors pointing the other way and since the question was not fully argued I prefer to express no view on the point.
For these reasons, in addition to those given by my noble and learned friends Lord Templeman and Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle, I would allow the appeal and dismiss the cross-appeal.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman. I agree that for the reasons he gives, the appeal should be allowed and the cross-appeal dismissed.
17 December. The House of Lords let it be known that the following addendum should be added to the speeches.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. Their Lordships are now given to understand that, although joined to the action as a representative name, Lord Napier and Ettrick was not in fact insured by any of the stop-loss insurers and that there was therefore no question of him personally delaying any payment to the stop-loss insurers.
Appeal allowed against first respondent. Stop-loss insurers granted injunction in terms set out in speech of Lord Templeman. Cross-appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Hendon Justices and others, ex parte Director of Public Prosecutions
[1993] 1 All ER 411
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Courts
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): MANN LJ, FRENCH AND AULD JJ
Hearing Date(s): 8, 9 JUNE, 8 JULY 1992
Magistrates – Proceedings – Control by judicial review – Non-appearance of prosecution – Justices dismissing charge without giving prosecution opportunity to present case – Prosecutor applying for certiorari to quash dismissal – Whether justices acting unreasonably – Whether certiorari can issue to quash acquittal arising from dismissal of information which was a nullity – Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 15.
On 10 April 1991 the two accused were arrested and charged with the attempted burglary of a dwelling house. When they appeared before the justices they elected summary trial and pleaded not guilty. The hearing of the charges was then adjourned to 1 May for summary trial. On 30 April the Crown Prosecution Service received a computer-prepared list of the magistrates’ court’s hearings for 1 May which contained no reference to the accuseds’ case and when the Crown Prosecution Service made inquiries of the court they were mistakenly informed that the court which was in fact due to hear the accuseds’ case was not sitting the next morning. The Crown Prosecution Service accordingly failed to arrange an appearance by a prosecutor and when the next morning it became clear that the Crown Prosecution Service had been misinformed a senior lawyer on the Crown Prosecution Service staff telephoned the court to say that he was on his way and then set out for the court, which was some eight miles away. When he arrived at 11.45 am he found that the justices had exercised their power under s 15a of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 to dismiss the informations for want of prosecution 15 minutes earlier. The Crown Prosecution Service applied for judicial review of the justices’ decision to dismiss the informations against the accused.
Held – It was unreasonable for justices to exercise the power conferred by s 15 of the 1980 Act to dismiss an information as a means of punishing the Crown Prosecution Service for what they perceived to be inefficiency and therefore the justices had acted unreasonably in exercising their power under s 15 to dismiss the informations because the prosecution had failed to appear when they were aware that the prosecutor was on his way to court and the case was otherwise ready to be presented. Furthermore, certiorari could issue to quash an acquittal arising from the dismissal of an information which was a nullity arising out of the justices wrongly declining jurisdiction although mandamus would usually be the more appropriate remedy where the prosecution wished to proceed upon the information. Since the justices’ decision to dismiss the informations was unreasonable, in the sense that no reasonable bench could have come to that decision, the decision was a nullity and mandamus would issue requiring the justices to hear the informations according to law (see p 415 h to p 416 b and p 419 e g to p 420 a, post).
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680 applied.
Dictum of Lord Roskill in Harrington v Roots [1984] 2 All ER 474 at 479 explained.
Page 412 of [1993] 1 All ER 411
R v Simpson [1914] 1 KB 66, R v Middlesex Justices, ex p DPP [1952] 2 All ER 312 and Harrington v Roots [1984] 2 All ER 474 considered.
Dictum of Mann LJ in R v Sutton Justices, ex p DPP [1992] 2 All ER 129 at 133 not followed.
Notes
For control of justices’ proceedings by judicial review, see 29 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 474, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 429, 4719–4724 and 33 Digest (Reissue) 176–179, 1368–1387.
For the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 15, see 27 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 171.
Cases referred to in judgment
Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208, [1969] 2 AC 147, [1969] 2 WLR 163, HL.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Dimes v Grand Junction Canal Proprietors (1852) 3 HL Cas 759, 10 ER 301.
DPP v Nasralla [1967] 2 All ER 161, [1967] 2 AC 238, [1967] 3 WLR 13, PC.
Harrington v Roots [1984] 2 All ER 474, [1984] AC 473, [1984] 3 WLR 142, HL; rvsg sub nom R v Dorking Justices, ex p Harrington [1983] 3 All ER 29, [1983] QB 1076, [1983] 3 WLR 370, DC.
Hoffmann-La Roche (F) & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128, [1975] AC 295, [1974] 3 WLR 104, HL.
London and Clydeside Estates Ltd v Aberdeen DC [1979] 3 All ER 876, [1980] 1 WLR 182, HL.
O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237, [1982] 3 WLR 1096, HL.
R (Giant’s Causeway & Tramway Co) v Antrim Justices [1895] 2 IR 653, Ir QB.
R v Birmingham Justices, ex p Lamb [1983] 3 All ER 23, [1983] 1 WLR 339, DC.
R v Brown (1857) 7 E & B 757, 119 ER 1427.
R v Clerkenwell Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrates, ex p DPP [1984] 2 All ER 193, [1984] QB 821, [1984] 2 WLR 244, DC.
R v Duncan (1881) 7 QBD 198, DC.
R (Hastings) v Galway Justices [1906] 2 IR 499, Ir KB.
R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67, [1984] 3 WLR 643, DC.
R v Middlesex Justices, ex p DPP [1952] 2 All ER 312, [1952] 2 QB 758, DC.
R v Neal [1949] 2 All ER 438, [1949] 2 KB 590, CCA.
R v Simpson [1914] 1 KB 66, DC.
R v Sutton Justices, ex p DPP [1992] 2 All ER 129, DC.
R v Swansea Justices, ex p DPP (1990) 154 JP 709, DC.
R v West [1962] 2 All ER 624, [1964] 1 QB 15, [1962] 3 WLR 218, CCA.
Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66, [1964] AC 40, [1963] 2 WLR 935, HL.
Smith v East Elloe RDC [1956] 1 All ER 855, [1956] AC 736, [1956] 2 WLR 888, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, HL.
Crane v DPP [1921] 2 AC 299, [1921] All ER Rep 19, HL.
Haynes v Davis [1915] 1 KB 332, DC.
R v Bennett (1908) 24 TLR, DC.
Page 413 of [1993] 1 All ER 411
R v Cardiff Magistrates’ Court, ex p Cardiff City Council (1987) Times, 24 February, DC.
R v Crown Court at Wolverhampton, ex p Crofts [1982] 3 All ER 702, [1983] 1 WLR 204, DC.
R v Griffiths (1980) 72 Cr App R 307, CA.
R v Thames Magistrates’ Court, ex p Polemis [1974] 2 All ER 1219, [1974] 1 WLR, DC.
R v Uxbridge Justices, ex p Smith [1977] RTR 93, DC.
R (Drohan) v Waterford Justices [1901] 2 IR 548, Ir QB.
R v Watford Justices, ex p DPP [1990] RTR 374, DC.
Vaux’s Case (1591) 4 Co Rep 44a, 76 ER 992.
Weight v MacKay [1984] 2 All ER 673, [1984] 1 WLR 980, HL.
Williams v DPP [1991] 3 All ER 651, [1991] 1 WLR 1160, DC.
Application for judicial review
The Director of Public Prosecutions applied, with the leave of Otton J given on 26 July 1991, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the first respondents, the justices sitting at the Hendon Magistrates’ Court, on 1 May 1991 dismissing two informations charging the second and third respondents, Thomas Peter Harty and Patrick Cash, with attempted burglary. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Tom Kark (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Wood Green) for the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Clare Montgomery (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amicus curiae. The respondents did not appear.
Cur adv vult
8 July 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
MANN LJ. There is before the court an application for judicial review for which leave to move was given by Otton J on 26 July 1991. The applicant is the Crown Prosecution Service, and the decision impugned is a decision of justices for the petty sessional area of Barnet when sitting at the Hendon Magistrates’ Court on 1 May 1991. By that decision the justices dismissed two informations which had been laid by the applicant against Thomas Peter Harty and Patrick Cash. The respondents to the application are the justices, Mr Harty and Mr Cash. The respondents neither appeared nor were represented but Mr John Clark, who is the clerk to the Barnet justices, filed an affidavit. The relief which is claimed is an order of certiorari to quash the decision.
The matter arises as follows. On 10 April 1991 Mr Harty and Mr Cash were arrested and charged with the attempted burglary of a dwelling house on that day. They appeared before the Hendon Magistrates’ Court on 12 April and were remanded until 18 April. There was then a further remand until 25 April, when the justices determined mode of trial and accepted jurisdiction. The defendants were put to their election, elected summary trial and pleaded not guilty. The case was remanded until 1 May for summary trial at the Hendon Magistrates’ Court. On 30 April the applicant received the computer prepared list of the Hendon Magistrates’ Court for 1 May. It contained no reference to Mr Harty and Mr Cash but this did not of itself surprise the applicant because its officers knew the computer was often not updated with remands of a week or less. However, and
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importantly, the list did not show any cases listed in court 2 for the morning session but showed cases listed in court 1 for that session. The applicant’s officer made inquiries at the list office and was informed that court 2 was not sitting on the next morning. The clerk to the justices has deposed that he is unable to find any member of his staff who passed on such wrong information. It was wrong because, despite its absence from the list, court 2 was to sit at 10 o’clock to hear the case of Mr Harty and Mr Cash. However, in the light of the list and of the wrong information, the applicant cancelled the attendance of the prosecutor who had been booked for the morning session in court 2 and gave the papers in the case of Mr Harty and Mr Cash to the advocate prosecuting in court 1. Next morning it became clear to the applicant that it had been misinformed. The morning list showed the cases of Mr Harty and Mr Cash listed in court 2 at 10 am and the two defendants were produced from custody for that time. Their advocate was present, as were all of the prosecution witnesses, who had been duly warned for 1 May. Mr Richard Blake, a senior lawyer on the applicant’s staff, was informed of the position. Mr Blake, who was eight miles away at the applicant’s office in Wood Green, made inquiries as to the whereabouts of the papers in the case and then set out for Hendon in order to retrieve the papers from court 1 and to prosecute in court 2. Before setting out Mr Blake had telephoned the gaoler’s office at the court and asked that the court be informed he was on his way. The custody officer has deposed that the court ‘was informed that … Mr. Richard Blake was on his way to court to conduct the case’. However, when Mr Blake arrived at 11.45 am he discovered that the two informations had been dismissed for want of prosecution 15 minutes earlier. It is the decision to dismiss which is now impugned.
Mr Tom Kark who appeared for the applicant submitted that the decision was void and that an order of certiorari should issue to quash it, thereby depriving the decision of any effect it may have had. Mr Clark in his affidavit submitted that the justices were entitled to conclude by 11.30 am that the prosecution had had sufficient opportunity to prosecute the charges and accordingly rightly dismissed the informations. He states that the clerk in court had, on a telephone inquiry, been informed by the applicant that a prosecutor would be sent ‘as soon as conveniently possible’.
The powers and duties of justices are derived from statute, and in particular from the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980. Amongst the provisions of that Act which deal with the summary trial of an information are ss 9, 10(1) and 15(1), which (re-enacting earlier provisions) provide as follows:
‘9.—(1) On the summary trial of an information, the court shall, if the accused appears, state to him the substance of the information and ask him whether he pleads guilty or not guilty.
(2) The court, after hearing the evidence and the parties, shall convict the accused or dismiss the information.
(3) If the accused pleads guilty, the court may convict him without hearing evidence.
10.—(1) A magistrates’ court may at any time, whether before or after beginning to try an information, adjourn the trial, and may do so, notwithstanding anything in this Act, when composed of a single justice …
15.—(1) Where at the time and place appointed for the trial or adjourned trial of an information the accused appears or is brought before the court and the prosecutor does not appear, the court may dismiss the information or, if evidence has been received on a previous occasion, proceed in the absence of the prosecutor …’
Page 415 of [1993] 1 All ER 411
It was in the exercise or purported exercise of the power conferred by s 15(1) that the respondent justices acted in dismissing the informations against Messrs Harty and Cash. We observe that, when regard is had to the published list, there may be room for argument as to whether 10 am in court 2 was the time and place appointed for the trial. We do not enter that room. The main thrust of Mr Kark’s submission was, in effect, that the decision was in the circumstances so unreasonable that no reasonable bench could have come to it (cf Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680 at 683, [1948] 1 KB 223 at 230 by Lord Greene MR). He submits that the proper course in the circumstances would have been for the justices to exercise their power under s 10(1) and to adjourn the trial in order that the prosecution could have an opportunity to present the evidence which was available to be called (as to the exercise of the power, see R v Swansea Justices, ex p DPP (1990) 154 JP 709).
This court, in the exercise of its supervisory jurisdiction over magistrates’ courts, will ordinarily treat as a nullity a decision of such a court if it is so unreasonable that no reasonable bench in like circumstances could have come to it. In so doing, the court is not acting in an appellate capacity but is acting so as to ensure that the inferior court is acting within the limits of the powers which have been granted to it by Parliament. It is implicit in the enactment that a conferred power is not to be exercised unreasonably (cf Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66, [1964] AC 40 and Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208 at 245, [1969] 2 AC 147 at 209 by Lord Wilberforce). If it is, then the exercise is outwith the conferred power and can be characterised as ‘illegal’, ‘void’ or a ‘nullity’, although until so characterised it may be capable of having its ostensible effect (cf London and Clydeside Estates Ltd v Aberdeen DC [1979]3 All ER 876 at 883, [1980] 1 WLR 182 at 189 by Lord Hailsham of St Marylebone and also F Hoffmann-La Roche & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128 at 1154, [1975] AC 295 at 366 by Lord Diplock). The capacity of decisions which are to be characterised as nullities to have an ostensible effect until so characterised has on occasions caused them to be described as ‘voidable’. The contrast is presumably with decisions which have no ostensible effect because (to adapt Lord Radcliffe’s phrase) they bear the brand of invalidity upon their foreheads (see Smith v East Elloe RDC [1956] 1 All ER 855 at 871, [1956] AC 736 at 769–770). However, Lord Wilberforce has observed that the distinction between void and voidable is a difficult one and he has not wished to be taken as recognising that it exists (see Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208 at 244, [1969] 2 AC 147 at 208). There is no recent authority which suggests that it does in the area of law with which we are concerned, and we think that nowadays the void and voidable distinction is ordinarily no more than a convenient nomenclature to distinguish decisions all of which are outwith the conferred power, but some of which will and some of which will not have an ostensible effect until their character is judicially decided.
We regret to say that in our judgment the decision of the respondent justices in the present case was so unreasonable that no reasonable bench in like circumstances could have come to it. We express our judgment with regret because we are sure the lapse was uncharacteristic of justices who were doing their best and because we are fully appreciative of the pressures upon a busy court such as is Hendon. However, the duty of the court is to hear informations which are properly before it. The prosecution has a right to be heard and there is a public interest that, save in exceptional circumstances, it should be heard. A court’s irritation at the absence of a prosecutor at the appointed time is understandable. That said, it can seldom be reasonable to exercise the power under s 15 of the 1980 Act (as opposed to that under s 10(1)) where the justices know that a
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prosecutor is on the way to their court and the case is otherwise ready to be presented. In this case, according to the custody officer, the justices knew that Mr Blake was on his way and in any event a further telephone call would have established the position precisely. The exercise was not reasonable in this case as it was not in R v Sutton Justices, ex p DPP [1992] 2 All ER 129. We entertain the strongest suspicion that the justices were here acting so as to punish what they saw as the inefficiency of the Crown Prosecution Service. We think any inefficiency was merely apparent and liable to be dispelled on inquiry. We also think that the power conferred by s 15 is not one conferred for punitive purposes.
The decision being unreasonable in the Wednesbury sense, the question arises as to whether the order of certiorari which is sought is an available remedy. Upon this question we had the assistance of oral and written argument from Miss Clare Montgomery, who was appointed by the Attorney General to act as amicus curiae. We are indebted to her for those arguments.
The question arising may seem a surprising one because certiorari is usually thought to lie in respect of any order of an inferior tribunal, whilst mandamus clearly lies to require the hearing of an information which has been dismissed as a result of a jurisdiction having been wrongly declined (see for example R v Clerkenwell Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrates, ex p DPP [1984] 2 All ER 193, [1984] QB 821). However, in R v Simpson [1914] 1 KB 66 at 75 Scrutton J said ‘there never has been a case in which an acquittal by a Court of summary jurisdiction has been quashed by certiorari’, and we have not been referred to any fully reported case since that time in which an ‘acquittal’ (as opposed to a conviction) has been quashed by certiorari. If there is a principle by reference to which the remedy is not granted in respect of an ‘acquittal’, then the position of the court will be different upon a judicial review from its position upon an appeal by case stated, when, by statute, it has power to direct a conviction after dismissal by justices (see the 1980 Act, ss 111 and 112).
In R v Simpson this court had before it an application for certiorari to quash an order dismissing an information on the ground that the magistrates’ court had had an improper constitution. The application was refused. Ridley J thought that the case was one to which the maxim ‘nemo debet bis vexari’ applied. He said (at 71–72):
‘It is true that the charge in the present case was not one of a very serious character, but the principle involved is one of great importance, and if it were once assailed by the introduction of exceptions, they might in course of time be applied to very different cases. If, therefore, I find that these defendants have once stood in danger and have been acquitted, then in my opinion this Court ought not to grant a certiorari to quash the acquittal. The question, therefore is, have the defendants, in the words of Lord Coleridge C.J. in Reg. v. Duncan ((1881) 7 QBD 198 at 199), stood in danger of imprisonment?’
Ridley J then referred to the Irish cases of R (Giant’s Causeway & Tramway Co) v Antrim Justices [1895] 2 IR 653 and R (Hastings) v Galway Justices [1906] 2 IR 499 and quoted from that part of the judgment of Lord O’Brien LCJ in the latter case where he said (at 502–503):
‘There is no instance in the history of our law of an acquittal under such circumstances being brought up on certiorari. What is the principle? That a man cannot be put in peril twice for the same offence. Was this man put in peril before the tribunal that is alleged to be biassed? I am of opinion that he was, and for this reason, that the order of a biassed tribunal is voidable only,
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and not void. That such an order is voidable only, and not void, clearly follows from the case of Dimes v. The Grand Junction Canal Co. ((1852) 3 HL Cas 759, 10 ER 301)—a familiar case, and one of the highest authority. Now, if the order is voidable only, and not void, the accused was in peril when he stood before the tribunal. Though in this case he was acquitted, he might have been convicted. He was certainly in peril, because he might have been arrested and imprisoned on a voidable order, and a very considerable time might elapse before a voidable order could be avoided by proceedings by way of certiorari. Until avoided, a voidable order justifies both arrest and imprisonment.’
Ridley J held that the distinction pointed out was one on which the court should take its stand and accordingly that the improper constitution of the court rendered its decision ‘voidable’ so that the defendants had once stood in peril. Bailhache J also quoted from Lord O’Brien LCJ and his judgment was to the like effect as that of Ridley J (see [1914] 1 KB 66 at 76). Scrutton J concluded that the application should be refused but his ground was different from that of the other two members of the court. He said (at 75):
‘I am inclined to think, though in my view it is not necessary for us to decide that point, that where a person acts as a member of a Court when he is under a statutory disqualification the Court cannot be said to be a Court of competent jurisdiction. If that be so, a defendant tried by that Court would never have been in peril, for the proceedings would be a mere nullity. But I do not propose to decide that point for the following reason. If we were to quash this acquittal, and fresh proceedings were to be subsequently instituted against the defendants in respect of the same alleged offence, the defendants would not be able to plead autrefois acquit, for the acquittal having been quashed there would be no acquittal in existence. If, however, in any subsequent proceedings the defendants should raise the plea of autrefois acquit it will be open to the Court to decide whether the previous hearing was before a Court of competent jurisdiction. That is the ground, a somewhat narrow one, on which I am prepared to decide this case.’
The ability of a court of trial to determine whether a prior ‘acquittal’ is a ‘nullity’ was later to be established by the Court of Criminal Appeal in R v West [1962] 2 All ER 624, [1964] 1 QB 15.
R v Simpson was amongst the authorities which were before a Divisional Court of five judges presided over by Lord Goddard CJ in R v Middlesex Justices, ex p DPP [1952] 2 All ER 312, [1952] 2 QB 758. The case related to a trial on indictment during which the conduct of the chairman of sessions was such as subsequently to earn the severest disapprobation of this court. The defendant was acquitted by the jury and the Director of Public Prosecutions applied for an order of certiorari. However, despite the disapprobation this court concluded that the relief sought could not be granted for there had not been ‘anything in the nature of a mistrial’. Lord Goddard CJ said ([1952] 2 All ER 312 at 314, [1952] 2 QB 758 at 769):
‘To constitute a mistrial the proceedings must have been abortive from beginning to end so that, had the record been drawn up, the error would have been apparent: R. v. Neal ([1949] 2 All ER 438, [1949] 2 KB 590). Here the defendant was properly arraigned and the jury sworn to try him, so technically he was in peril, and as they returned a verdict of Not Guilty, however improperly that verdict may have been obtained, this court cannot,
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as it seems to us, direct a new trial. In R. v. Simpson, ([1914] 1 KB 66 at 75) Scrutton, J., said: “… there never has been a case in which an acquittal by a court of summary jurisdiction has been quashed by certiorari, and, although in some cases judges have acted proprio vigore in making precedents, I do not myself feel disposed to do so in this case.” Nor do we. An acquittal by a jury seems to be a fortiori.’
In R v Dorking Justices, ex p Harrington [1983] 3 All ER 29, [1983] QB 1076 this court (Robert Goff LJ and Glidewell J) applied the principle it derived from the Middlesex Justices case to the dismissal of an information by justices after proceedings which it had not been argued were a ‘nullity’. The circumstances of the case were these. The defendant pleaded not guilty to two charges and the prosecution applied for an adjournment as one of its witnesses was not available. The justices announced an adjournment to a date which excited protest from the defendant as he was to be on holiday on that date. The justices thereupon dismissed the informations without giving the prosecutor the opportunity to proceed immediately with the witnesses whom he did have available and which opportunity he would have wished to have taken. On those circumstances the House of Lords reversed the decision of this court and it was held that the proceedings were a ‘nullity’ (see Harrington v Roots [1984] 2 All ER 474, [1984] AC 473). Lord Roskill, who delivered the leading speech, said that, having decided to refuse the adjournment, it was, by reason of s 9(2) of the 1980 Act, the duty of the justices to invite the prosecutor to proceed (see [1984] 2 All ER 474 at 478, [1984] AC 743 at 751). The breach of duty caused the dismissal of the information to be a nullity. Lord Roskill said ([1984] 2 All ER 474 at 479, [1984] AC 743 at 753):
‘My Lords, I am clearly of the view that what happened in the instant case was, to adapt Lord Sumner’s phrase, no trial at all. The dismissal of these informations was without jurisdiction and was a nullity. To borrow the phrase of Coleridge J in Brown’s case (1857) 7 E & B 757 at 761, 119 ER 1427 at 1429, the duty of adjudging was declined. Both on principle and authority I see no reason why, had the prosecution sought to take the matter further, mandamus should not have issued to the justices directing them to hear and determine these informations according to law. Since in my view their orders were a nullity I do not think that it would have been right to order certiorari to issue as well.’
Lord Roskill referred to both R v Simpson and the Middlesex Justices case. The latter he regarded as being a case where the chairman had been ‘acting within his jurisdiction’ and inferentially so also did he regard R v Simpson (see [1984] 2 All ER 474 at 480, 479, [1984] AC 743 at 753, 752). He observed ([1984] 2 All ER 474 at 479, [1984] AC 743 at 752):
‘No doubt in some cases the distinction between actions by justices which are without jurisdiction and thus a nullity and actions which are an erroneous exercise of jurisdiction may be fine.’
Nowhere in Lord Roskill’s speech is any countenance given to the distinction between void and voidable decisions. His own distinction between actions without jurisdiction and actions which are an erroneous exercise of jurisdiction must, we respectfully believe, have been intended to be read in the light of the Anisminic decision [1969] 1 All ER 208 esp at 213–214, [1969] 2 AC 147 esp at 171 where Lord Reid said:
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‘It has sometimes been said that it is only where a tribunal acts without jurisdiction that its decision is a nullity. But in such cases the word “jurisdiction” has been used in a very wide sense, and I have come to the conclusion that it is better not to use the term except in the narrow and original sense of the tribunal being entitled to enter on the enquiry in question. But there are many cases where, although the tribunal had jurisdiction to enter on the enquiry, it has done or failed to do something in the course of the enquiry which is of such a nature that its decision is a nullity. It may have given its decision in bad faith. It may have made a decision which it had no power to make. It may have failed in the course of the enquiry to comply with the requirements of natural justice. It may in perfect good faith have misconstrued the provisions giving it power to act so that it failed to deal with the question remitted to it and decided some question which was not remitted to it. It may have refused to take into account something which it was required to take into account. Or it may have based its decision on some matter which, under the provisions setting it up, it had no right to take into account. I do not intend this list to be exhaustive. But if it decides a question remitted to it for decision without committing any of these errors it is as much entitled to decide that question wrongly as it is to decide it rightly.’
Lord Diplock has included inferior courts within the bodies to which this statement of principle applies (O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124 at 1129, [1983] 2 AC 237 at 278) and this court has so applied it (R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240 at 249, [1985] QB 67 at 82 to 83). We have already stated that in our judgment the respondent justices’ decision to dismiss the information was outwith their statutory power. It was thus a nullity and could not have sustained a plea of autrefois because there had not been a lawful acquittal (see [1984] 2 All ER 474 at 479, [1984] AC at 752 by Lord Roskill referring to DPP v Nasralla [1967] 2 All ER 161 at 166, [1967] 2 AC 238 at 249–250 by Lord Devlin). Whether the decision is to be described as void or voidable is, with respect to Ridley and Bailhache JJ and the Irish judges whom they followed, a question of nomenclature which we do not find it helpful to answer. As to the actual decision in R v Simpson, there is plainly now much to be said for the then contemporary view of Scrutton J that the justices’ decision was a nullity.
In our judgment, certiorari can go to quash a decision which is a nullity and which by hypothesis is accordingly not an acquittal. We recognise the defiance of logic in stating that the order can go, but in practice decisions which are nullities are quashed as a convenient way of preventing the continuance of an ostensible effect. However, it will usually be more appropriate to issue mandamus where the prosecution wishes to proceed upon the information (see Lord Roskill above). Mandamus is, like certiorari, a discretionary remedy. In exercising discretion the court will take into account a variety of factors. Amongst them will be the time since the alleged offence was committed, for the court should be slow to issue mandamus where the case is dependent on recollection which may have dimmed. In R v Birmingham Justices, ex p Lamb [1983] 3 All ER 23 at 28, [1983] 1 WLR 339 at 344 McNeill J had regard to the fact that the defendants ‘might properly feel that they have been acquitted and it would be wrong to allow them to feel, however erroneously, that they would be put in jeopardy for a second time’. An important factor the other way is that properly presented prosecutions for a serious offence should be heard. In this case, the offence alleged against Messrs Harty and Cash was a serious one, the date of commission is not remote and the defendants can have no reasonable belief that the dismissal of the charges was
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other than a fortuity. In our judgment, mandamus should issue requiring the justices to hear the informations according to law.
We add this. Our decision as to the availability of a remedy is inconsistent with the decision of this court in R v Sutton Justices, ex p DPP [1992] 2 All ER 129 at 133, where it was said, without discussion, that certiorari would not go to quash an acquittal. The question was not argued on that occasion. In the light of the full argument which we have now had, we are convinced that the decision was wrong on this point (see Ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240 at 248, [1985] QB 67 at 81), although whether mandamus would have been granted on the facts of that case may be doubted.
Application allowed. Order of mandamus granted.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v International Stock Exchange of the United Kingdom and the Republic of Ireland Ltd, ex parte Else (1982) Ltd and another
R v International Stock Exchange of the United Kingdom and the Republic of Ireland Ltd, ex parte Roberts
[1993] 1 All ER 420
Categories: COMPANY; Shares: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, McCOWAN AND LEGGATT LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13, 14, 16 OCTOBER 1992
Company – Shares – Listing of shares by stock exchange – Quotations committee of stock exchange cancelling company’s listing – Company not challenging cancellation – Whether shareholders entitled to be notified of and given opportunity to make representations about committee’s impending decision to cancel listing – Whether shareholders having right to challenge cancellation of listing by judicial review – Council Directive (EEC) 79/279, art 15.
Judicial review – Leave to apply for judicial review – Sufficient interest – Application to challenge decision to cancel listing of shares by stock exchange – Applicant overcoming restrictions on tardy applications – Whether application should fail on ground that applicant lacked sufficient interest in decision challenged – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 31(3)(6).
In June 1989 the Stock Exchange suspended the listing of a company’s shares following the arrest of its chairman on suspicion of insider-dealing offences. Although he was subsequently acquitted of the charges the suspension of the shares was continued and in November 1990 the quotations panel of the Stock Exchange decided that the company’s listing should be cancelled. The company appealed to the quotations committee, which upheld the decision. Thereafter the company itself did not challenge the decisions of the committee or the panel but the applicants, who were shareholders in the company, applied for judicial review of the committee’s decision to cancel the listing. During the hearing of their
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applications the questions arose whether the applicants had locus standi to challenge the committee’s decision to cancel the listing and whether as shareholders they were entitled under art 15a of Council Directive (EEC) 791/279 to be notified of, and given the opportunity to make representations about, the committee’s impending decision whether the company’s listing should be cancelled. Article 15 was promulgated with the purpose of co-ordinating the conditions of the admission of securities to official listing in member states and provided that the refusal of admission of a security to official listing or the discontinuing of such a listing should be subject to the right to apply to the courts against such a decision. It was common ground that the council of the Stock Exchange had been designated as the competent authority for listing in the United Kingdom and that the quotations committee was empowered to act on its behalf. The judge directed that a reference be made to the Court of Justice of the European Communities under art 177 of the EEC Treaty on the interpretation of art 15. The Stock Exchange appealed against the judge’s direction for a reference to the Court of Justice.
Held – Although Council Directive (EEC) 79/279 expressly recognised the responsibility of competent listing authorities to protect the interests of investors, which was always to be the overriding concern of a competent authority when exercising its powers in dealing with conditions imposed and obligations undertaken by companies whose securities were admitted to listing, the primary purpose of the directive was to co-ordinate the listing practice of competent authorities in member states with a view to establishing a common market in securities and not in any direct way to provide additional protection for investors. The directive was concerned with relations between competent authorities and companies and issuers, and the right to apply to the courts under art 15 was conferred on a company or issuer alone. Accordingly, although investors such as the applicants were liable to suffer prejudice if the public listing of a company was cancelled and although they could not effectively resist a potentially damaging cancellation unless they were given notice of an impending decision and the grounds of cancellation and an opportunity to make representations, the directive did not confer any enforceable rights on investors to have recourse to the courts. Furthermore, since the rights claimed by the applicants, particularly those claimed before a cancellation decision was made, subverted the directive’s intention that regulatory authorities should be able to take quick and decisive action when necessary, since there was no provision in the directive for circularising shareholders and giving them information, since the directive did not address problems arising from the principles that a company was a legal entity separate and distinct from its shareholders and that a shareholder could not as such act on behalf of or enforce the rights of the company, and since the directive did not define ‘investors’ so that it could not properly be given direct effect, art 15 plainly did not entitle the applicants to be notified of or given the opportunity to make representations about the committee’s impending decision that the company’s listing should be cancelled or to challenge its decision in the courts. Recourse to the Court of Justice for a ruling on the construction of art 15 was therefore unnecessary. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed and the order for reference quashed (see p 427 c, p 430 a b e to p 431 f, p 432 d to g, p 433 c and p 434 d to g, post).
Per curiam. If a shareholder seeking leave to apply for judicial review of the cancellation of the listing of a company’s shares is, exceptionally, able to overcome
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the restriction on tardy applications in s 31(6)b of the Supreme Court Act 1981, it is questionable whether his claim to relief ought to fail for lack of sufficient interest within s 31(3) and RSC Ord 53, r 3(7)c (see p 432 c d, post).
Notes
For the official listing of securities, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 284 and 45 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 5.
For the requirement of sufficient interest to apply for judicial review and the effect of delay in applying for relief, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 63, 169–170, and for a case on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 138, 3666.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 31, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (reissue) 991.
For the EEC Treaty, art 177, see 50 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 325.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bulmer (H P) Ltd v J Bollinger SA [1974] 2 All ER 1226, [1974] Ch 401, [1973] 3 WLR 202, CA.
R v Pharmaceutical Society of GB, ex p Association of Pharmaceutical Importers [1987] 3 CMLR 951, CA; on reference Joined cases 266 and 267/87 [1989] 2 All ER 758, [1990] 1 QB 534, [1989] ECR 1295, CJEC.
Srl CILFIT v Ministry of Health Case 283/81 [1982] ECR 3415.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Brind v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1991] 1 All ER 720, [1991] 1 AC 696, HL.
Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 574, PC.
Customs and Excise Comrs v ApS Samex (Hanil Synthetic Fiber Industrial Co Ltd, third party) [1983] 1 All ER 1042.
Foss v Harbottle (1843) 2 Hare 461, 67 ER 189.
Freight Transport Association Ltd v London Boroughs Transport Committee [1991] 3 All ER 915, [1991] 1 WLR 308, HL.
Garland v British Rail Engineering Ltd [1982] 2 All ER 402, [1983] 2 AC 751, CJEC and HL.
Hadmor Productions Ltd v Hamilton [1982] 1 All ER 1042, [1983] 1 AC 191, HL.
Hoffmann-La Roche (F) & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128, [1975] AC 295, HL.
Page 423 of [1993] 1 All ER 420
IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93, [1982] AC 617, HL.
Marleasing SA v Comercial Internacional de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I–4135.
Oberkreisdirektor des Kreises Borken v Handelsonderneming Moormann BV Case 190/87 [1988] ECR 4689.
Practice Direction [1982] 3 All ER 800, [1982] 1 WLR 1375.
Practice Note [1990] 1 All ER 128.
Prudential Assurance Co Ltd v Newman Industries Ltd [1982] 1 All ER 354, [1982] Ch 204, CA.
R v IRC, ex p Commerzbank AG [1991] STC 271, DC.
R v Life Assurance and Unit Trust Regulatory Organisation Ltd, ex p Ross [1992] 1 All ER 422, [1993] QB 17, DC; affd [1993] QB 17, CA.
R v Monopolies and Mergers Commission, ex p Argyll Group plc [1986] 2 All ER 257, [1986] 1 WLR 763, CA.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, CA.
R v Secretary of State for Health, ex p US Tobacco International Inc [1992] 1 All ER 212, [1992] QB 353, DC.
R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd Case C-213/89 [1991] 1 All ER 70, [1991] 1 AC 603, CJEC and HL.
R v Thames Magistrates’ Court, ex p Greenbaum (1957) 55 LGR 129, CA.
Roudolff, Criminal proceedings against Case 803/79 [1980] ECR 2015.
Salomon v A Salomon & Co Ltd [1897] AC 22, [1895–9] All ER Rep 33, HL.
Shaw (John) & Sons (Salford) Ltd v Shaw [1935] 2 KB 113, [1935] All ER Rep 456, CA.
Sindesmos Melon tis Eleftheras Evangelikis Ekklisias v Greece Case C-381/89 OJ 1992 C 103, p 5, CJEC.
Topfer (August) & Co GmbH v EC Commission Case 112/77 [1978] ECR 1019.
Appeals, cross-appeal and applications
R v International Stock Exchange of the UK and the Republic of Ireland, ex p Else (1982) Ltd and anor
By notice dated 7 March 1991 the applicants, Else (1982) Ltd and Leonard Brealey as trustee of Vale Private Pension Trust, applied for leave to apply for judicial review of (1) the decision of the Quotations Panel of the International Stock Exchange of the United Kingdom and the Republic of Ireland Ltd (the Stock Exchange) on 29 June 1989 to suspend dealings in the shares of the company known as Titaghur plc, formerly known as the Titaghur Jute Factory plc, in which the applicants held shares, (2) the decision of the panel taken on 23 November 1990 to delist the shares of Titaghur plc and (3) the decision of the Committee on Quotations of the Stock Exchange on 7 December 1990 to uphold the decision of the panel to delist the shares of the company. On 7 June 1991 Auld J, hearing the Crown Office list, granted the applicants leave to move for judicial review in respect of the committee’s decision but refused them leave to challenge the panel’s decisions. On 23 July 1992 Popplewell J hearing the substantive application refused the applicants leave to amend their notice of motion to challenge the panel’s decision but, on 24 July 1992, in order to enable him to give judgment, directed that two questions on the interpretation and effect of art 15 of Council Directive (EEC) 79/279 be referred to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty, namely (1) whether art 15 of the directive was to be interpreted as giving to a registered shareholder in an officially listed company, the listing of
Page 424 of [1993] 1 All ER 420
which the competent authorities had decided to discontinue, the right to apply to the relevant national court in relation to such decision and (2) whether, where the competent authorities of a member state were considering whether to discontinue the official listing of a company, art 15 conferred a right on a registered shareholder in the company to be heard by the competent authorities in relation to such decision. The Stock Exchange appealed from the order for reference. By their amended respondent’s notice the applicants cross-appealed from, inter alia, that part of Popplewell J’s judgment whereby by implication he concluded that the committee’s decision of 7 December 1990 was a lawful decision, his refusal of leave to reamend the notice of motion for judicial review, his decision to refer the second of the two questions referred to the Court of Justice and his failure to refer a further question on the interpretation of the directive as to the obligation of the Stock Exchange to notify shareholders in advance of any decision being taken to cancel the listing of the company and the possible reasons for such decision. The applicants also applied (1) to renew their application made before Auld J on 7 June 1991 for leave to move for judicial review of the panel’s decision made on 23 November 1990, (2) for leave to appeal from the order of Popplewell J refusing them leave to reamend their notice of motion for judicial review of the panel’s decision on 23 November 1990 and (3) for leave to amend their respondent’s cross-notice of appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
R v International Stock Exchange of the UK and the Republic of Ireland Ltd, ex p Thomas
By notice of motion dated 6 June 1991 the applicant, Gerard Patrick Thomas, a shareholder in Titaghur plc, applied for leave to move for judicial review of the decision of the Committee on Quotations of the International Stock Exchange of the United Kingdom and the Republic of Ireland Ltd (the Stock Exchange) on 7 December 1990 to cancel the listing of the company’s shares. On 7 June 1991 Auld J granted leave and directed that his application be heard at the same time as the applications of Else (1982) Ltd and Leonard Brealey. On 24 July 1992 Popplewell J made the same order for reference to the Court of Justice of the European Communities as in R v International Stock Exchange of the UK and the Republic of Ireland, ex p Else (1982) Ltd and anor. The Stock Exchange appealed. By his respondent’s notice the applicant sought an order that Popplewell J’s order for reference be varied so that two further questions on the interpretation of art 15 of Council Directive (EEC) 79/279 be referred at the same time. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
Roger Henderson QC, Adrian Brunner and John Cone (instructed by Peter Gerrard) for the Stock Exchange.
Monique Allan and Marc Rowlands (instructed by Arnold Deacon Greene & Co, Sleaford) for the applicants Else (1982) Ltd and Mr Brealey.
Mr Thomas appeared in person.
Cur adv vult
16 October 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR This appeal concerns a company named Titaghur plc. The company (as I shall call it) was incorporated in Scotland in 1883. It runs a substantial jute business in India, where it has some 18,000 employees. The shares of the company were first listed by the Stock Exchange in London in 1912 and continued to be so listed until 1988.
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In May 1988 the International Stock Exchange of the United Kingdom and the Republic of Ireland (which I shall for brevity call ‘the Stock Exchange’) suspended the listing of the company’s shares because annual listing charges had not been paid. This omission was rectified and the listing was restored after one month’s intermission.
On 28 June 1989 the listing of the company’s shares was again suspended by the Stock Exchange. The immediate cause of this suspension was the arrest of the chairman of the company on suspicion of insider-dealing offences. (He was later prosecuted on a number of counts and, after the events giving rise to this appeal, acquitted.) The suspension of the listing continued, partly because of uncertainty concerning the chairman’s position, partly because the Stock Exchange was concerned about possible failures to notify dealings in the company’s shares and partly because the Stock Exchange was concerned about the adequacy of the financial information provided by the company and about its accounts. There were meetings between representatives of the company and the Stock Exchange concerning these matters, which were also raised in correspondence. It was made clear that the company wished the suspension to be ended, but it appears that in November 1990 the company’s broker was told that the quotations department of the Stock Exchange had decided to take the matter of the listing of the company to the panel of the quotations committee with a recommendation that the listing be cancelled. The broker indicated that he would probably not attend the quotations panel but might appeal against any cancellation decision to the quotations committee. The case was duly referred to the panel, which on 23 November 1990 concluded that the listing should be cancelled.
The company (by its broker) was informed of this decision and exercised its right to appeal to the committee. The committee met on 7 December 1990 to hear the appeal. A director and two representatives of its brokers attended on behalf of the company. The committee decided to uphold the decision of the panel and accordingly directed that the company’s listing should be cancelled in view of the inadequacy of the financial information currently available concerning the company.
The company itself has taken no formal step at any time to challenge the decisions of the panel or the committee. It is not a party to these proceedings and has played no part in them.
The proceedings arise out of applications for judicial review made by three applicants. All of the applicants are shareholders in the company, having bought shares off-market during the period when the listing was suspended and before it was cancelled. Two of the applicants (Else (1982) Ltd and Leonard Brealey as a trustee of a private pension trust) sought leave to challenge the panel’s decisions to suspend the company’s listing in June 1989 and to cancel the listing in November 1990 and the committee’s decision to cancel the listing in December 1990. They were granted leave to challenge the committee’s decision, but refused leave to challenge the panel’s decisions. Following this refusal, no renewed application for leave to challenge the panel’s decisions was made until, during the hearing of this appeal, application was made to this court for leave to move to challenge the panel’s cancellation decision. We refused that application. The third applicant, Gerard Patrick Thomas, is a Scots solicitor. He sought and obtained leave to move to challenge the committee’s cancellation decision. He has not sought to challenge either of the panel’s decisions.
Following an order for expedition, the hearing of these substantive applications took place before Popplewell J in June 1992. At that hearing the applicants attacked the committee’s decision as irrational, disproportionate and tainted by bias or the appearance of bias. The judge rejected these criticisms.
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Before the judge an issue of European Community law arose on which the judge held it necessary to seek a ruling from the Court of Justice of the European Communities under art 177 of the EEC Treaty to enable him to give judgment. Although the applicants in the court below contended that the issue should be decided in their favour, they did not resist the course adopted by the judge if he was left in doubt on the issue, subject to settling appropriate questions. The Stock Exchange, on the other hand, contended below that the issue should be decided in their favour and opposed a reference. The judge having decided to refer, they appeal against his decision to do so. They continue to argue that the Community law issue should be resolved in their favour. As an authority responsible for regulating an important international market, they have further urged the practical importance of knowing where they stand as quickly as possible. The apparent cogency of that consideration has caused the hearing of this appeal, on the Community law issue, to be expedited. It has proved convenient also to consider an issue of domestic law closely related to the Community law issue. For the avoidance of doubt I should make clear that by ‘domestic law’ I mean, for present purposes, the law of England not including that part of it which derives directly from the law of the Community.
The issues
The central issues on this appeal are these. 1. Were the applicants as shareholders entitled to be notified of and given the opportunity to make representations (which should have been duly considered) about the committee’s impending decision whether the company’s listing should be cancelled (a) in Community law? (b) in domestic law? 2. Are the applicants as shareholders entitled to challenge the committee’s decision to cancel the company’s listing (a) in Community law? (b) in domestic law?
In relation to questions such as 1(a) and 2(a), I understand the correct approach in principle of a national court (other than a final court of appeal) to be quite clear: if the facts have been found and the Community law issue is critical to the court’s final decision, the appropriate course is ordinarily to refer the issue to the Court of Justice unless the national court can with complete confidence resolve the issue itself. In considering whether it can with complete confidence resolve the issue itself the national court must be fully mindful of the differences between national and Community legislation, of the pitfalls which face a national court venturing into what may be an unfamiliar field, of the need for uniform interpretation throughout the Community and of the great advantages enjoyed by the Court of Justice in construing Community instruments. If the national court has any real doubt, it should ordinarily refer. I am not here attempting to summarise comprehensively the effect of such leading cases as H P Bulmer Ltd v J Bollinger SA [1974] 2 All ER 1226, [1974] Ch 401, Srl CILFIT v Ministry of Health Case 283/81 [1982] ECR 3415 and R v Pharmaceutical Society of GB, ex p Association of Pharmaceutical Importers [1987] 3 CMLR 951, but I hope I am fairly expressing their essential point.
It is convenient, with that point in mind, to turn to the Community law issue. This arises, and arises only, from Council Directive (EEC) 79/279 of 5 March 1979, the admission directive. I shall refer to it as ‘the directive’. Since its correct construction lies at the heart of this appeal, the directive must be analysed in a little detail.
The directive
The directive was made under the EEC Treaty and in particular arts 54(3)(g)
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and 100 thereof. Article 54(3)(g) required the Council and the Commission to carry out their duties under the Treaty in particular—
‘by co-ordinating to the necessary extent the safeguards which, for the protection of the interests of members and others, are required by Member States of companies or firms within the meaning of the second paragraph of Article 58 with a view to making such safeguards equivalent throughout the Community.’
The second paragraph of art 58 contained a stipulative definition of ‘companies or firms’. Article 100 required the Council to issue directives for the approximation of such provisions laid down by law, regulation or administrative action in member states as directly affect the establishment or functioning of the common market.
The directive was intended, as its long title makes plain, to co-ordinate the conditions for the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing. This was a step towards establishment of a common market in securities. In other member states, as here, conditions (imposed for the protection of investors) had to be met before a security was admitted to listing. There could be no truly common market so long as different conditions were imposed by the various members states. Still less could there be a truly common market if it was open to national authorities, under the guise of protecting investors, to make the admission of local securities to listing easier than that of foreign securities. The policy objectives to be achieved by co-ordinating the listing conditions in the various member states were outlined in the fifth recital to the directive: to provide equivalent protection for investors at Community level, because of the more uniform guarantees offered to investors in the various member states; to facilitate Community-wide listing of member state securities; and to enable member states to penetrate each other’s securities markets so as to contribute to establishment of a European capital market. The directive applied to entities not covered by the second paragraph of art 58 of the Treaty and was acknowledged to go beyond art 54(3)(g), but was seen as directly affecting the establishment and functioning of the Common Market within the meaning of art 100.
The seventh recital to the directive is of such significance to this appeal as to justify verbatim quotation:
‘Whereas there should be the possibility of a right to apply to the courts against decisions by the competent national authorities in respect of the application of this Directive, although such right to apply must not be allowed to restrict the discretion of these authorities.’
Co-ordination was in the first instance to be limited to establishing minimum conditions for the admission of securities to official stock exchange lists in member states, but issuers were to have no right to listing.
Section I of the directive contains general provisions. These prescribe minimum conditions to be satisfied by securities admitted to official listing in member states and minimum obligations to which issuers shall be subject. While member states may impose conditions and obligations more stringent than the minimum, they may not (generally speaking) discriminate in doing so. Member states may in accordance with applicable national rules require issuers of securities admitted to official listing to inform the public on a regular basis of their financial position and the general course of their business.
Section II of the directive concerns the authorities competent to admit securities to official listing and contains the provisions most central to this appeal. Member
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states are required to designate such competent authorities. It is common ground in this case that the Council of the Stock Exchange is so designated and that the committee on quotations is empowered to act on its behalf. Member states are to ensure that the competent authorities have such powers as may be necessary for the exercise of their duties and, by para 3 of art 9:
‘Without prejudice to the other powers conferred upon them, the competent authorities may reject an application for the admission of a security to official listing if, in their opinion, the issuer’s situation is such that admission would be detrimental to investors’ interests.’
This is supplemented by art 10:
‘By way of derogation from Article 5, Member States may, solely in the interests of protecting the investors, give the competent authorities power to make the admission of a security to official listing subject to any special condition which the competent authorities consider appropriate and of which they have explicitly informed the applicant.’
Article 12 authorises competent authorities (in addition to any other sanction) to publicise the fact that an issuer is failing to comply with its obligations. Article 13 requires an issuer whose securities are admitted to official listing to provide the competent authorities with all the information they consider appropriate ‘to protect investors or ensure the smooth operation of the market’ and, by para 2 of this article:
‘Where protection of investors or the smooth operation of the market so requires, an issuer may be required by the competent authorities to publish such information in such a form and within such time limits as they consider appropriate. Should the issuer fail to comply with such requirement, the competent authorities may themselves publish such information after having heard the issuer.’
This section of the directive ends with arts 14, 15 and 16, which I quote in full:
‘Article 14
1. The competent authorities may decide to suspend the listing of a security where the smooth operation of the market is, or may be, temporarily jeopardized or where protection of investors so requires.
2. The competent authorities may decide that the listing of the security be discontinued where they are satisfied that, owing to special circumstances, normal regular dealings in a security are no longer possible.
Article 15
1. Member States shall ensure decisions of the competent authorities refusing the admission of a security to official listing or discontinuing such a listing shall be subject to the right to apply to the courts.
2. An applicant shall be notified of a decision regarding his application for admission to official listing within six months of receipt of the application or, should the competent authority require any further information within that period, within six months of the applicant’s supplying such information.
3. Failure to give a decision within the time limit specified in paragraph 2 shall be deemed a rejection of the application. Such rejection shall give rise to the right to apply to the courts provided for in paragraph 1.
Article 16
Where an application for admission to official listing relates to certificates representing shares, the application shall be considered only if the competent authorities are of the opinion that the issuer of the certificates is offering adequate safeguards for the protection of investors.’
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Section III of the directive covers the publication of information to be made available to the public. Section IV covers co-operation between member states. Our attention was drawn to art 18, which requires member states to co-operate and communicate with each other. Article 19 imposes a duty of professional secrecy but provides that communication between the competent authorities of member states shall not be a breach of it. Section V made provision for a contact committee composed of representatives of member states and the Commission to discuss implementation of the directive and practical problems arising from it and to advise the Commission.
At its request the court was referred to the proposal from the Commission, the opinion of the European Parliament and the opinion of the economic and social committee to which reference is made in the second, third and fourth recitals of the directive. These show, as one would expect, that the original draft of the directive was modified before its final adoption, but they throw no definitive light on the issue between the parties in this court. It is, however, of interest that the proposed directive contained no precursor of the seventh recital in the directive, although it did provide in art 10(2) that each member state should provide for a right of appeal to the courts against a decision to refuse an application for listing. The economic and social committee criticised that proposal, suggesting that a right of appeal should be provided against any decision of the competent authorities and not just against a decision to refuse an application for listing. The Parliament also felt that there should be greater rights of appeal against the decisions of the national authorities responsible for the admission of securities to quotation. It advised that there should be a right of administrative appeal against decisions to refuse listing, against decisions that information should be published, against decisions that listing be discontinued and against decisions by the competent authorities of their own motion to list a security (a power not in the event conferred by the directive itself). There was no suggestion that the right of appeal should be conferred on additional parties.
The parties to this appeal agree that the directive takes direct effect. We were told that the researches of counsel had unearthed no relevant authority on its construction.
The applicants’ argument on the directive
On behalf of the applicants, a long and detailed argument was advanced. I understood the essential steps in the argument to be these. (1) The directive is a measure intended to protect investors, including shareholders such as the applicants. (2) Shareholders such as the applicants are likely to suffer loss or prejudice if the public listing of the company in which they hold shares is cancelled. (3) Shareholders such as the applicants cannot effectively resist a potentially damaging cancellation unless they are notified of an impending decision, unless they are informed of the grounds on which the decision may be taken, unless they have the opportunity to make representations and unless the competent authority is bound to consider these representations before making a decision. (4) The seventh recital of the directive and art 15 impose no restriction upon the parties granted a right to apply to the courts. (5) In the light of (1) to (4) above the intention of art 15 is, or at any rate may be, to confer rights on shareholders such as the applicants to be notified of an impending decision whether a listing should be cancelled, to be informed of the grounds relied on and to be given an opportunity to make representations and, after the decision has been made, to challenge it. (6) The English court should accordingly seek a ruling from the Court of Justice on the correct construction of the directive, and the judge was right to refer.
Each of these steps calls for careful consideration.
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The conditions which national authorities impose on admission to listing are imposed for the protection of investors. The body of investors includes existing shareholders. It also includes, very particularly in this context, potential future investors. In dealing with conditions imposed and obligations undertaken by companies whose securities are admitted to listing, the directive expressly recognises the responsibility of the competent authorities to protect the interests of investors, which must always be their overriding concern when exercising their powers. But the primary purpose of the directive is to co-ordinate the listing practice of competent authorities in the various member states with a view to establishing a common market in securities and not, in any direct way, to provide additional protection for investors.
I accept without question that shareholders such as the applicants are liable to suffer loss or prejudice if the public listing of a company in which they hold shares is cancelled. But so they may if the listing is suspended or, in a less obvious way, if an application for listing is refused. The applicants accept that the directive does not, in either of these situations, confer upon shareholders any right of recourse to the court.
I accept that in the ordinary way step (3) in the applicants’ argument is likely to be factually correct.
I accept that the seventh recital of the directive and art 15 do not in express terms define the parties upon whom a right to apply to the courts is conferred. But several considerations compel me to what I regard as an inevitable conclusion that the right is conferred on a company or an issuer alone. (i) In the proposed directive the right provided for was one of appeal. While the Economic and Social Committee and the Parliament favoured a wider right of appeal, there is no suggestion that they or anyone envisaged any right other than a right of appeal. In any ordinary situation, a right of appeal is accorded to the party who has been the subject of an adverse decision. There is nothing to suggest that any party other than a company or issuer was seen as potentially the subject of any adverse decision or as having any right of appeal. (ii) The directive is concerned with relations between competent authorities (who are responsible for protecting the interests of investors) and companies or issuers. Nothing in the directive suggests that competent authorities may have direct relations with investors. (iii) Once it is accepted, as it must be, that the directive gives investors no right of recourse to the courts in respect of suspension and refusal of listing, it cannot rationally be construed as conferring such a right on investors in respect of cancellation.
I cannot accept the soundness of step (5). In addition to reasons already given, I see powerful further objections, particularly to the rights the applicants claim before a cancellation decision is made. (i) Such rights would in my view gravely restrict the discretion of the competent authorities, which the seventh recital indicates must not be allowed. The applicants do not, I think, deny that the procedure for which they contend could substantially postpone the date at which a cancellation might become effective, but they suggest that only suspension need take place urgently; thereafter the rights of a company and investors are frozen and a delay in cancellation (they say) carries no risk. Often this may be so, but I do not accept it is necessarily so. Article 14 lays down different tests for suspension and cancellation. It is for the competent authority to decide in the exercise of its informed judgment which of these courses, if either, is appropriate on given facts. Recent history in more than one field emphasises the need for regulatory authorities to take quick and decisive action where the situation requires it. The directive, in my view, recognises that need and gives effect to it. The applicants’ argument subverts that intention. (ii) It is obvious that with a company of any
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size the task of circularising all shareholders and giving them the information they need to make a decision is a substantial and expensive task. If the directive envisaged such a procedure it could scarcely avoid all reference to the questions: who is to carry out this task? and who is to pay? Spare though the style of Community draftsmanship may be, it would be surprising to find a lacuna as gross as this. (iii) There are deeply-rooted principles of company law that a company is a legal entity separate and distinct from its shareholders and that a shareholder may not as such act on behalf of or enforce the rights of the company. On the applicants’ argument, difficult questions would be bound to arise where, as here, a cancellation decision is accepted by a company but challenged by some (although only a small minority) of shareholders. It would arise even more acutely in the common case where cancellation is requested by a company, if resisted by a small minority of shareholders. These are, again, obvious problems posed by the applicants’ argument which the directive fails to address. This would be very surprising if that argument were right. If it is wrong, the directive does not give rise to these problems and they are rightly ignored. (iv) The directive does not define ‘investors’. This is understandable if, as I hold, the directive confers no enforceable rights on investors. But on the applicants’ argument, in an instrument having direct effect, it would be very important to know who the class of ‘investors’ included. A number of possible categories have been suggested, in addition to shareholders. But it is hard to suppose that potential buyers of securities, a class of much concern to the competent authorities, could enjoy the rights the applicants claim, and this lack of definition weighs powerfully against the applicants’ argument, because an instrument of such uncertain scope cannot properly be given direct effect. In the result, I feel able with complete confidence to reject the applicants’ argument based on the directive. For reasons which I have tried to give, I do not share the doubts felt by the learned judge about the effect to be given to it. If I did, I would of course respect his exercise of discretion to refer, which would in any event have been the proper course. But taking the view I do, I do not find it necessary to seek a ruling on this question from the Court of Justice to enable me to give judgment. It follows that I would allow the appeal of the Stock Exchange on this point and quash the order made under art 177 of the Treaty.
Domestic law
It was not suggested that the law of England, independently of Community law, permitted an affirmative answer to the question posed at 1(b) above. Nor, I think, was it argued that domestic law, independently of Community law, conferred a right on shareholders as envisaged by question 2(b). But the applicants argued (and the Stock Exchange broadly denied) that as shareholders they had a sufficient interest in the cancellation decision within the meaning of s 31(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 and RSC Ord 53, r 3(7) to enable a grant of leave to move for judicial review to be properly made, subject of course to the applicants meeting the other qualifying conditions.
On the facts here, no application for leave to move was made before the cancellation decision. I decline to speculate what the position would have been had the applicants been in a position to apply, and had they done so, at that stage.
When the applicants applied for leave to move Auld J was tentatively of opinion that they could show a sufficient interest. He was no doubt mindful that they were not busybodies but claimed, as shareholders, to have a direct financial interest in the company which the cancellation decision affected. At the substantive hearing Popplewell J took a different view, ruling that the applicants
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had no sufficient interest. The applicants appeal against that decision. In the event, however, the judge did investigate and rule upon the various grounds relied upon to challenge the committee’s cancellation decision (with the exception of additional grounds which he did not, quite rightly, allow the applicants to pursue). He rejected that challenge. It follows that whether the applicants had a sufficient interest to mount a retrospective challenge to the cancellation decision is strictly academic unless or until this court is persuaded that the judge was wrong to reject that challenge. The applicants do not appeal on that aspect. It is therefore undesirable to express a concluded view. I would simply observe that the problems facing any shareholder seeking to mount such a challenge are formidable in the extreme. In a highly sensitive and potentially fluid financial market, the factors listed in s 31(6) of the 1981 Act have a special significance. And the courts will not second-guess the informed judgment of responsible regulators steeped in knowledge of their particular market. But if, exceptionally, a shareholder were able to overcome these formidable problems, I question whether his claim to relief should fail for lack of sufficient interest.
The order resulting from this hearing is not entirely straightforward. I would be grateful if counsel could prepare draft minutes of order, which should be copied to Mr Thomas and, if agreed by all parties, submitted to the associate.
McCOWAN LJ. I agree with Sir Thomas Bingham MR’s judgment and would add only a few words of my own.
Miss Allan for the applicants in the first appeal conceded before this court that only the company in question, as the applicant for listing, has the right to apply to the courts in respect of a refusal of admission to listing. But, she argued, art 15(1) only provides, as she put it, ‘a broad scenario’, which is cut down in respect of a refusal of admission to listing by paras (2) and (3), but not in respect of discontinuance of listing, as to which the article is silent.
To my mind, however, it would be very odd if art 15 contemplated that a wider class of persons than the company should have the right to apply to the courts in respect of discontinuance of listing than in respect of admission to listing but neglected to say so. Moreover, Miss Allan has been unable to point to anything in art 15 to suggest that an application to the courts in respect of discontinuance can be made by a different body or class of persons than that which the article clearly says can make the application in respect of listing, namely the company.
In my judgment, therefore, the terms of art 15 itself are plainly against her submissions.
LEGGATT LJ. It is the policy of the EEC Treaty to abolish restrictions on freedom of establishment. One way of furthering this policy is to co-ordinate safeguards for the protection of individuals by rendering the safeguards ‘equivalent’ throughout the Community. A series of directives has applied this principle to companies. But that does not detract from the distinction which English law recognises between a company and its members. The court cannot interfere with the internal management of a company acting within its powers. Although the court will interfere to prevent fraud on a minority of shareholders, it will not ordinarily recognise any independent right of action by an individual shareholder based on an allegation of damage to the value of his shareholding, whether caused by the directors or by third parties. Nothing in Community law departs from that principle unless the applicants’ submission in the present case is correct that Council Directive (EEC) 79/279 accords to individual shareholders the right to apply to the court for the purpose of objecting to the discontinuance of the listing of the company of which they are members.
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Community legislation about stock exchanges is mainly concerned with the listing of securities. Directive 79/279 has been followed by directives dealing with requirements for furnishing particulars of securities for which listing has been applied, and with information which must be published regularly by companies with listed shares. These directives are intended to protect investors as well as to facilitate access to the markets of the member states. By force of the Stock Exchange (Listing) Regulations 1984, SI 1984/716, these directives apply to the United Kingdom.
The scheme of the relevant Community legislation, and Directive 79/279 in particular, is to provide for the co-ordination of conditions for admission to listing by designating a competent authority in each member state to police the process. Ancillary provision is made for the suspension of listing and for discontinuance of listing. But although one of the main aims of controlling admission to listing is the protection of investors, the directive is concerned with the means of control by the competent authority rather than with conferring rights on investors so that they may look out for themselves.
The function of Directive 79/279, known as ‘the admission directive’, is ‘coordinating the conditions for the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing’. The recitals show that this process is likely to provide protection for investors by rendering more uniform the practices in the member states. The general approach is prescribed by art 3, which says:
‘Member States shall ensure that:—securities may not be admitted to official listing on any stock exchange situated or operating within their territory unless the conditions laid down by this Directive are satisfied, and that—issuers of securities admitted to such official listing, whether admission takes place before or after the date on which this Directive is implemented, are subject to the obligations provided for by this Directive.’
Article 4 provides that the admission of securities to official listing is subject to the conditions set out in Schs A and B relating to shares and debt securities, and that the issuers of listed securities must fulfil the obligations in the corresponding Schs C and D. Schedule A therefore contains conditions for the admission of shares, and Sch C deals with the obligations of companies whose shares are admitted. Paragraph 2 of Sch C is concerned with treatment of shareholders. By sub-para (b)—
‘The company must ensure, at least in each Member State in which its shares are listed, that all the necessary facilities and information are available to enable shareholders to exercise their rights …’
This includes information about shareholders’ meetings and notices about dividends and new shares.
Section II of the directive is headed: ‘Authorities competent to admit securities to official listing.' In that section art 9 by para 1 requires member states to designate the competent authority ‘to decide on the admission of securities to official listing’. Paragraph 3 provides:
‘Without prejudice to the other powers conferred upon them, the competent authorities may reject an application for the admission of a security to official listing if, in their opinion, the issuer’s situation is such that admission would be detrimental to investors’ interests.’
Article 10 applies to any special condition to which the competent authority may make the admission of a security subject, and of which they have informed the applicant, that is, the person applying for the admission. Article 11 refers to a
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refusal to admit. Articles 12 and 13 apply to failure by the issuer to comply with obligations and to publish information. Article 14 is concerned with suspension and discontinuance of the listing. Finally, art 15 (2) relates to notification to an applicant of a decision regarding his application for admission, and para 3 provides that a deemed rejection of the application ‘shall give rise to the right to apply to the courts provided for in paragraph 1’. The would-be issuer is both the applicant for admission and the person with the right to apply to the courts. Paragraph 1 itself says:
‘Member States shall ensure decisions of the competent authorities refusing the admission of a security to official listing or discontinuing such a listing shall be subject to the right to apply to the courts.’
‘Decisions’ are made under art 9(1); ‘decisions refusing’ may be made under art 9(3) or under art 11; and ‘decisions discontinuing’ may be made under art 14(2).
In my judgment as a matter of construction the fact that the decisions have to be ‘subject to the right to apply to the courts’ means that as with a deemed rejection under art 15(3), it is the giving to the applicant of an adverse decision by the competent authority that also gives to the applicant a right to apply to the courts. There is no other person to whom that right is given: it is given solely to the applicant. Miss Allan argues that because the directive is for the protection of investors it is they who must have a right to apply to the court. That is a non sequitur. Nothing in the language of the directive accords such a right to investors, actual or potential. I am fortified in this conclusion by the fact that, if the law were otherwise, the consequences of extending to persons other than the company the right to apply to the court would be commercially intolerable. If the number of shareholders was large, the process of identifying and communicating with them might be onerous, protracted and expensive. As Mr Henderson QC has pointed out, it might jeopardise confidentiality. It might even allow the will of a majority to be thwarted, if not overborne, by the protestation of an individual shareholder. I therefore conclude that the correct application of Community law in this case is so obvious as to leave no scope for any reasonable doubt, that recourse to the Court of Justice of the European Communities is unnecessary and that the appeal should be allowed and the cross-appeal dismissed.
Appeals allowed; cross-appeal in first appeal dismissed; first two applications of respondents in first appeal dismissed and third application allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Doncaster Magistrates’ Court, ex parte Goulding
[1993] 1 All ER 435
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL LJ AND McCULLOUGH J
Hearing Date(s): 15, 24 OCTOBER 1991
Magistrates – Committal for sentence – Offence triable summarily or on indictment – Discontinuance of summary trial and committal to Crown Court – Circumstances of offence – Character and antecedents of accused – Accused charged with offences triable either way -Justices agreeing to try case summarily – Whether stipendiary magistrate having power to commit accused to Crown Court for sentence – Whether circumstances of offence part of accused’s character and antecedents – Whether decision of one bench to try case summarily precluding subsequent committal to Crown Court for sentence by another bench – Principles to be applied when committing for sentence – Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, ss 19(1), 38.
The applicant was charged with three offences of possession of controlled drugs. When he was brought before the bench of lay justices they decided under s 19a of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 that although the offences were triable either way they were suitable for summary trial. The applicant then pleaded guilty to possession but not guilty to possession with intent to supply. The justices adjourned the case for trial but when the applicant appeared before a stipendiary magistrate for trial and sentence the trial was unable to proceed and the magistrate expressed surprise that the justices had thought the case suitable for summary trial and stated that on the next occasion they ought to reconsider the matter, discontinue the summary trial and proceed as examining magistrates. When the applicant next appeared before the stipendiary magistrate he changed his plea on the outstanding charge to guilty and the magistrate committed him to the Crown Court for sentence because of his previous convictions (none of which had involved drugs or had resulted in a custodial sentence) and because he considered that the justices had been wrong to proceed with summary trial. The applicant applied for judicial review of the magistrate’s decision, contending that there was no jurisdiction to commit him to the Crown Court for sentence having regard to the justices’ earlier decision that the offences were suitable for summary trial.
Held – Once a magistrates’ court had decided under s 19(1) of the 1980 Act to proceed summarily on an offence triable either way because the ‘circumstances of the offence’ indicated that summary trial was more appropriate the court nevertheless had power under s 38b of that Act to commit the defendant to the Crown Court for sentence after conviction if his ‘character and antecedents’, which included anything that reflected on the defendant’s character and anything about the circumstances of the offence which subsequently came to the court’s attention after deciding to try the offence summarily, were such that a greater punishment should be imposed than the magistrates’ court had power to impose. For the purposes of s 38 the defendant’s ‘character and antecedents’ meant anything that reflected on his character, even if it was a circumstance of the offence, and any such matter could be taken into account in deciding whether to commit him for sentence provided it was not known to the justices when they
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took their decision to try the case summarily and the new matter was more than the filling in of detail, which would be a matter of degree, and it did not matter whether the justices’ ignorance of that matter resulted from their failure to make any or any proper inquiry or from the failure of the prosecution to inform them of it or from any other cause. It followed that the stipendiary magistrate had had jurisdiction under s 38 to commit the applicant to the Crown Court for sentence and that the application for judicial review would therefore be dismissed (see p 442 b c g to j, p 445 c d and p 446 b to d, post).
R v Vallett [1951] 1 All ER 231, R v King’s Lynn Justices, ex p Carter [1968] 3 All ER 858 and R v Lymm Justices, ex p Brown [1973] 1 All ER 716 applied.
Notes
For power of justices to commit for sentence for an offence triable either way, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 821.
For the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, ss 19, 38, see 27 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 173, 191.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Broadcasting Complaints Commission, ex p Owen [1985] 2 All ER 522, [1985] QB 1153, [1985] 2 WLR 1025, DC.
R v Cardiff Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Morgan [1989] Crim LR 503, DC.
R v Derby and South Derbyshire Magistrates, ex p McCarthy (1980) 2 Cr App R (S) 140, DC.
R v Guildhall Justices ex p Cooper (1983) Times, 6 May, DC.
R v Harlow Justices, ex p Galway [1975] Crim LR 288, DC.
R v Hartlepool Justices, ex p King [1973] Crim LR 637, DC.
R v King’s Lynn Justices, ex p Carter [1968] 3 All ER 858, [1969] 1 QB 488, [1968] 3 WLR 1210, DC.
R v Lymm Justices, ex p Brown [1973] 1 All ER 716, [1973] 1 WLR 1039, DC.
R v Tower Bridge Magistrate, ex p Osman [1971] 2 All ER 1018, [1971] 1 WLR 1109, DC.
R v Vallett [1951] 1 All ER 231, 34 Cr App R 251, CCA.
R v Warrington Justices, ex p Mooney (1980) 2 Cr App R (S) 40, DC.
Application for judicial review
Mark Anthony Goulding applied, with the leave of Brooke J given on 23 May 1991, for judicial review by way of an order of, inter alia, (i) certiorari to quash the decision of Mr J E Barry, a stipendiary magistrate sitting at the Doncaster Magistrates’ Court on 25 February 1991, committing the applicant to the Crown Court for sentence under s 38 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, (ii) an order of mandamus requiring the Doncaster Magistrates’ Court to hear and determine the charges against the applicant according to law and (iii) an order of prohibition directed to the Crown Court at Doncaster restraining the court from adjudicating on the charges in respect of which the applicant was committed by the magistrate for sentence. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCullough J.
Richard Gordon (instructed by Attey Bower & Jones, Doncaster) for the applicant.
Jeremy R Baker (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Doncaster) for the Director of Public Prosecutions, as an interested party.
The stipendiary magistrate did not appear.
Cur adv vult
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24 October 1991. The following judgments were delivered.
McCULLOUGH J (delivering the first judgment at the invitation of Neill LJ). Mr Mark Anthony Goulding applies by way of judicial review to quash the decision of the Doncaster stipendiary magistrate, Mr J E Barry, on 25 February 1991 to commit him to the Crown Court at Doncaster under s 38 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 to be sentenced for three offences of possession of controlled drugs, contrary to the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, to which he had earlier pleaded guilty. All were triable either summarily or on indictment.
The question for this court is the familiar one of whether there was jurisdiction to commit for sentence having regard to an earlier decision that the offences were suitable for summary trial and to the factual basis on which that earlier decision was taken. It is submitted on behalf of the applicant that the grounds put forward by the stipendiary magistrate to justify his decision were insufficient in law to entitle him to commit the applicant to the Crown Court for sentence.
The legislation
Where a person appears before a magistrates’ court charged with an offence which is triable either summarily or on indictment s 19(1) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 requires the court to—
‘consider whether, having regard to the matters mentioned in subsection (3) below and any representations made by the prosecutor or the accused, the offence appears to the court more suitable for summary trial or for trial on indictment.’
Subsection (3) provides:
‘The matters to which the court is to have regard under subsection (1) above are the nature of the case; whether the circumstances make the offence one of serious character; whether the punishment which a magistrates’ court would have power to inflict for it would be adequate; and any other circumstances which appear to the court to make it more suitable for the offence to be tried in one way rather than the other.’
The law recognises, however, that there may be cases where the initial view that punishment which the magistrates’ court would have power to inflict would be adequate calls for revision in the light of fresh information which becomes available after conviction. Accordingly s 38 provides:
‘Where on the summary trial of an offence triable either way … a person … is convicted of the offence, then, if on obtaining information about his character and antecedents the court is of the opinion that they are such that greater punishment should be inflicted for the offence than the court has power to inflict, the court may … commit him … to the Crown Court for sentence …’
The power to commit for sentence first appeared in s 29(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1948. This was replaced by s 29 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1952 which was in turn replaced by s 38 of the 1980 Act. In each of these sections the operative words have been the same.
The criteria now found in ss 19(3) and 38 of the 1980 Act are different. None is mentioned in both sections. Looking at the sections on their own, one might have concluded that ‘the circumstances of the offence’ and the ‘character and antecedents’ were mutually exclusive concepts. On their face they are different. Either an offence is serious or it is not, the character and antecedents of the defendant cannot affect this. It is, of course, true to say that the circumstances of
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an offence that a man has committed reflect on his character and they are antecedent to the court proceedings, but ss 19(3) and 38 are worded consistently with the assumptions (i) that all the circumstances which make the offence of a serious character are to be mentioned when the mode of trial is being considered and (ii) that those aspects of the defendant’s character and antecedents which make it appear that the court’s powers of punishment are inadequate will appear after conviction. When the mode of trial is under consideration neither previous convictions nor any other discreditable feature in the defendant’s history can properly be mentioned by the prosecution. If the defending advocate volunteers them, it will be to make the point that, while his client’s record is not unblemished, the blemish is slight, so that the powers of the justices to inflict punishment will more likely be adequate. The same will apply to other offences which the defendant intends to ask to be taken into consideration. These cannot properly be mentioned by the prosecution at this first stage unless the defendant agrees. All this is catered for in the words ‘any other circumstances which appear to the court to make it more suitable for the offence to be tried in one way rather than the other’. It is obviously convenient, and it is not unjust, to commit for sentence a defendant who pleads guilty if it should later transpire that the decision to try him summarily was for some reason mistaken, but had this been the intention of Parliament a suitable addition to the words of s 38 could have made express provision for this.
Despite these considerations, the cases which here turned on the interpretation of the power to commit for sentence show that the words ‘character and antecedents’ have in the context of the power to commit for sentence been interpreted as embracing such circumstances of the offence as bear on the defendant’s character.
Some of the cases concerned offences triable either summarily or on indictment. Others concerned the summary trial of indictable offences. The provisions governing the procedure to be adopted by the magistrates in each type of offence differ slightly: see s 24(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 (as amended by the 1948 Act) and s 28 of the 1948 Act, which were replaced, without significant alteration, by ss 18 and 19 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1952. In 1977, when a number of hitherto indictable offences were made triable either summarily or on indictment, the procedure enabling indictable offences alleged against those aged 17 and over to be tried summarily was abolished and the scheme now found in the 1980 Act was introduced: see ss 16 and 20 of the Criminal Law Act 1977.
Of these earlier provisions it is necessary to mention the terms of only s 24(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1925. This read:
‘Where a person … is charged before a court of summary jurisdiction with an indictable offence, being one of the offences specified in the Second Schedule to this Act, the court, if it thinks it expedient so to do, having regard to … [the character and antecedents of the accused,] the nature of the offence, the absence of circumstances which would render the offence one of a grave or serious character and all the other circumstances of the case (including the adequacy of the punishment which a court of summary jurisdiction has power to inflict), and if the accused … consents to be dealt with summarily, may … deal summarily with the offence …’
By s 79 of and Sch 9 to the Criminal Justice Act 1948 the words in square brackets ceased to have effect. Both the presence of the words ‘character and antecedents’ in the original s 24(1) and their removal contemporaneously with the enactment of s 29 of the 1948 Act might have been thought to indicate that ‘character and antecedents’ did not embrace the circumstances of the offence.
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The authorities
In all of the decided cases, after summary trial had been decided upon, the defendant pleaded guilty and was later committed to the Crown Court (or Quarter Sessions) for sentence, and the lawfulness of the committal was later challenged.
The question for decision in those cases, as in this, can be formulated as follows: Did the magistrates’ court, having earlier decided to try the case summarily, have power to commit the convicted person for sentence on obtaining information as to his character and antecedents which made the court consider that his character and antecedents were such that greater punishment should be inflicted in respect of the offence than the court had power to inflict? The crucial words are ‘character and antecedents’.
The earliest case is R v Vallett [1951] 1 All ER 231, 34 Cr App R 251, a decision of the Court of Criminal Appeal. Vallett was charged with four offences of larceny as a servant. She was a supervisor at a laundry and knew the arrangements made by her employers to combat thefts. She made use of this knowledge to carry out thefts over a long period. After summary trial had been decided (presumably under s 24(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 as amended) she pleaded guilty and asked for a further 96 offences to be taken into consideration; she had no previous convictions. She was committed for sentence to Quarter Sessions under s 29(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1948 and sentenced to two years’ imprisonment. On appeal it was submitted that there was no power to commit her for sentence because she had never previously been convicted and she bore a good reputation. Her appeal was dismissed.
In giving the judgment of the court Lord Goddard CJ said (at 231–232):
‘… “character” … certainly relates, in my opinion, to something more than the fact that a person has been previously convicted, and the word “antecedents” is as wide as can be conceived … The character and antecedents of the appellant show that she has been a shameless thief for a long period of time …’
The report does not give the dates of the offences nor does it reveal how many of the facts were known to the justices when they decided to try her summarily and how many emerged later. The report of counsel’s argument (see 34 Cr App R 251) would suggest that he did not submit that this was relevant.
R v King’s Lynn Justices, ex p Carter [1968] 3 All ER 858, [1969] 1 QB 488 concerned three defendants, C, S and W, who were jointly charged that between October 1967 and January 1968, being servants to Jaegar & Co Ltd, they stole 489 ladies’ garments of a total value of just under £3,500. At the outset and without hearing the circumstances of the charge the justices agreed to try the case summarily in accordance with s 29 of the 1952 Act. The three then pleaded guilty. Thereafter the bench was told the following. S and W who were cleaners employed by the company had confessed to a long series of thefts between the dates in the charge. C was superior to S and W and in a position of trust. He had approached the other two and had requested them to take the garments out of the premises in rubbish bags and then transfer them to the boot of C’s car, of which they had been given the key. Although C had only admitted being involved during the last week of the thefts, the court thought it right to take against him what S and W had said; so he too was regarded as having been involved throughout. The applications were all dismissed. The report reveals that the court certified the following point of general public importance but refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords: what matters could be taken into consideration as going to character and antecedents within s 29 of the 1952 Act? (See [1968] 3 All ER 858 at 862, [1969] 1 QB 488 at 497–498.)
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Lord Parker CJ said ([1968] 3 All ER 858 at 862, [1969] 1 QB 488 at 497):
‘As I see it, speaking for myself, the expression “character and antecedents” being as wide as it possibly can be, justices are entitled to take into consideration in deciding whether or not to commit, not merely previous convictions, not merely offences which they are asked to take into consideration, but matters revealed in the course of the case connected with the offence charged which reflects in any way on the accused’s character. Of course, in the ordinary way where justices do their duty under s. 19(2) of the Act of 1952, the circumstances of the offence which reflect on character and antecedents will already have emerged, and if, notwithstanding that, the justices decide to deal with the case summarily, they cannot take those matters into consideration again when they are considering committal under s. 29; there must be something more than has been revealed at the stage when they decided to deal with the case summarily. On the other hand where, as in the present case, they have either been persuaded to deal with the case summarily, or have embarked on the summary trial without making any proper inquiry, or without conducting their inquiry as examining magistrates far enough to understand the nature of the case, then, as it seems to me, they are fully entitled to take into consideration those matters relating to the offence which had been revealed at the trial and which do reflect on the character and antecedents.’
It may be asked how this principle applied to the facts of the case, ie what new circumstances emerged after it was decided to try the case summarily. The charge itself showed that there were three defendants, that all were servants and that the value of the goods stolen between 1 October 1967 and 10 January 1968 was nearly £3,500. The fact that C was superior to S and W and had corrupted them was new. But what emerged which made the parts played by the other two worse than was apparent from the charge itself? In R v Tower Bridge Magistrate, ex p Osman [1971] 2 All ER 1018 at 1020, [1971] 1 WLR 1109 at 1111 Lord Parker CJ described the King’s Lynn Justices case as ‘very special’ and added:
‘… the gravity of the case was not revealed until the prosecution case was opened, when it was found that these thefts had been going on over a very long period.’
It must, I think, be presumed that the court assumed that the lay justices would not have realised from the span of three and a half months in the dates of the charge that there had been a series of thefts, rather than one, at some time during that period when all 489 garments had been taken.
It was the absence of new facts which led to the committal for sentence being quashed in R v Tower Bridge Magistrate, ex p Osman [1971] 2 All ER 1018, [1971] 1 WLR 1109. Osman had been charged with three offences of theft of goods of small value from the Bricklayers’ Arms goods depot of British Railways covering the period 1 January 1970 to 23 November 1970. The only thing that emerged after the stipendiary magistrate had decided on summary trial under s 19 of the 1952 Act and Osman had pleaded guilty was that he was himself employed by British Railways.
Lord Parker CJ said ([1971] 2 All ER 1018 at 1020, [1971] 1 WLR 1109 at 111):
‘… it was perfectly patent to anybody who read the charges, and in particular this magistrate, who had had this trouble with this depot in the past, and particularly when the thefts were alleged to have occurred over
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such a long period, that this was a typical case of pilfering by an employee of the railways … it is not a question of something more being revealed in the prosecution case which enhanced the gravity of the offences. Here the gravity of the offences was undoubtedly to this magistrate patent on the very face of them …’
In R v Lymm Justices, ex p Brown [1973] 1 All ER 716, [1973] 1 WLR 1039 the defendant was charged with two offences of theft; the first alleged theft of a lady’s twin set on 29 June 1971; fewer particulars of the second are given in the report, and all one knows is that it charged him on divers dates over a period of months with the theft of a great list of articles on perhaps 20 or some such number of occasions (see [1973] 1 All ER 716 at 718–720, [1973] 1 WLR 1039 at 1041–1043). After the justices had agreed to try the case summarily under s 19 of the 1952 Act and the defendant had pleaded guilty they were told that he had committed the thefts while on duty as a police officer at the airport where the thefts had taken place. He asked for one further offence, of which no details are given, to be taken into consideration. The application to quash the committal was dismissed because the justices discovered after they had agreed to try the case summarily and after the conviction that the applicant was a police officer and had committed the offence when on duty.
Lord Widgery CJ, having cited the judgment of Lord Parker CJ in the King’s Lynn Justices case, said ([1973] 1 All ER 716 at 719, [1973] 1 WLR 1039 at 1042):
‘Lord Parker CJ was saying in the clearest terms that although it is right and desirable for justices to make as full an enquiry as possible before committing themselves to a decision to try the case summarily, yet if they do not do that, either because they have been over-persuaded by the prosecution, or for any other reason, they can have regard to facts subsequently emerging in deciding whether or not to apply s 29, and that in my judgment is exactly what the justices did in this case. They discovered after they had agreed to try the case summarily and after the conviction that the applicant was a policeman and had committed these offences when on duty. Those were matters of antecedents for the purpose of s 29, as is not disputed …’
Last before the changes made by the Criminal Law Act 1977 come two cases noted briefly in the Criminal Law Review. The Crown Office does not have a transcript of the judgment in either. In R v Hartlepool Justices, ex p King [1973] Crim LR 637 the decision to commit was quashed because after it had been decided to try the case summarily and the defendant, who had no previous conviction, had pleaded guilty the only new factor to emerge was that the facts of the offence (an assault occasioning actual bodily harm) were more serious than the justices had imagined. He had not been previously convicted.
In R v Harlow Justices, ex p Galway [1975] Crim LR 288 the justices had embarked on a summary trial of eight offences concerning forged income tax forms without further inquiry, and after the defendant had pleaded guilty it became apparent that he had systematically defrauded the revenue of £5,000 and was asking for 19 further offences to be considered. It was held that the justices were entitled to commit for sentence even though they had failed to make proper inquiry at the earlier stage.
We know only four cases on this topic which have been decided since the coming into force of the 1977 Act, viz R v Warrington Justices, ex p Mooney (1980) 2 Cr App R (S) 40, R v Derby and South Derbyshire Magistrates, ex p McCarthy (1980) 2 Cr App R (S) 140, R v Guildhall Justices, ex p Cooper (1983) Times, 6 May (the
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court has seen a transcript of the judgments) and R v Cardiff Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Morgan [1989] Crim LR 503. In each the committal for sentence was quashed because after the decision to try the case summarily was taken nothing more than the filling in of detail emerged.
There is no post-1977 equivalent of R v Vallett [1951] 1 All ER 231, R v King’s Lynn Justices, ex p Carter [1968] 3 All ER 858, [1969] 1 QB 488 and R v Lymm Justices, ex p Brown [1973] 1 All ER 716, [1973] 1 WLR 1039—the three decisions which established the proposition that ‘character and antecedents’ mean anything that reflects on the defendant’s character, even if it is the circumstances of the offence.
Even so, these earlier cases must, in my judgment, be taken by this court to have decided the meaning of ‘character and antecedents’ in s 38 of the 1980 Act. I say so for the following reasons.
(a) The operative words of s 38 are identical with those in s 29 of the 1948 Act.
(b) The criteria in s 19(3) of the 1980 Act do not differ significantly from those in the corresponding earlier provisions.
(c) Although there has been no post-1977 case where a committal was upheld on the basis that circumstances relating to the offence, which emerged after the mode of trial had been decided, fell within the words ‘character and antecedents’, it is implicit in the judgments in all of the cases since 1977 that had there been more than the filling in of detail the committals would not have been quashed, even although those details related to the offence.
(d) In his judgment in R v Warrington Justices, ex p Mooney Bridge LJ noted that the 1977 Act had changed the law, reviewed the earlier cases and said that it was not altogether easy to reconcile them. Yet he said nothing to suggest that the words ‘character and antecedents’ should be construed more restrictively than hitherto. Nor is there a hint of this in the other three cases.
(e) Parliament must be taken to have known the construction that had been put on this phrase to 1977, and in re-enacting the earlier provision for committal for sentence in the same words, must be taken to have intended them to be used in the same sense.
The principles derived from the cases
In my judgment, the principles to be applied to the interpretation of s 38 of the 1980 Act are, therefore, as follows: (1) ‘character and antecedents’ mean anything that reflect on the defendant’s character, even if it is a circumstance of the offence; (2) any such thing may be taken into account in deciding whether to commit for sentence, provided (a) that it was not known to the justices when they took their decision to try the case summarily, and (b) that the new matter is more than the filling in of detail; (3) it does not matter whether the justices’ ignorance of that thing resulted from their failure to make any or any proper inquiry or from the failure of the prosecution to inform them of it or from any other cause.
To these principles I would respectfully add two comments. (a) Whether or not new facts are more than the mere filling in of detail must be a matter of degree. (b) It would seem to follow from (1) that many circumstances of an offence will qualify, since many bear on the character of the person who commits it. It is only right to observe that neither counsel made any submission to the effect that these were not the principles to be applied.
The application of the principles for the present case
The offences committed by the applicant were all committed on 20 December 1990 at his home address. One alleged simple possession of a quantity of cannabis
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resin; the second alleged simple possession of LSD tables (lysergide); the third also alleged possession of LSD tablets (lysergide), but with intent to supply them to another. LSD is a class A controlled drug; cannabis resin is in class B. The first two offences were contrary to s 5(2) of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 and the third contrary to s 5(3).
On 4 January 1991 the bench, which then consisted of lay justices, considered whether the offences appeared more suitable for summary trial or for trial on indictment.
The prosecuting solicitor gave the following information to the bench. On 20 December 1990 police officers searched the applicant’s house. They found two plastic bags hidden in the loft opening; one contained cannabis; the other contained 44 individual silver foil wraps of LSD. On a work surface in the kitchen were a pair of scales and a tin containing £70. The applicant admitted that the drugs were his. He said that he believed they were cannabis and LSD. He refused to answer questions about the scales or the £70. It was suspected that he intended to supply the drugs to his girlfriend, with whom he shared the house, but he made no admission that he intended to supply them to anyone. She was in full time employment. There was no evidence that the £70 was his rather than hers. There was no further evidence of intent to supply.
The prosecuting solicitor told the bench that she considered the case a difficult one and that they might think that their powers of sentencing were not adequate. The defending solicitor submitted that the summary trial would be appropriate. He said that the LSD was less than usually strong. The prosecutor told the bench that he had no evidence to confirm its strength.
The bench decided on summary trial. The applicant pleaded guilty to the two charges of possession and not guilty to the charge of possession with intent to supply. The matter was thereafter adjourned for trial.
The applicant next appeared before the court on 17 January 1991. On this occasion Mr Barry, the stipendiary magistrate, was sitting. The trial of the most serious of the offences was then to have taken place, but, as the sole prosecution witness was unable to attend, it had to be adjourned again.
During the hearing on 17 January 1991 Mr Barry expressed surprise that the justices had thought the case more suitable for summary trial and said that they would on the next occasion be able to reconsider the matter, discontinue the summary trial and proceed with inquiries into the case as examining justices. In saying so it was clear that he had expected the applicant to maintain his plea of not guilty and that he had in mind the provisions of s 29 of the 1980 Act.
On 25 January 1991 the applicant appeared again. He then changed his plea on the outstanding charge to guilty, and the case was further adjourned, doubtless for the preparation of a social inquiry report.
Finally one comes to 25 February 1991, when the decision under challenge was taken. Mr Barry was again sitting. He was provided with details of the applicant’s previous convictions and findings of guilt and with a social inquiry report dated 15 February 1991. It hardly needs to be said that none of this was before the bench on 4 January 1991. He also heard mitigation from counsel for the applicant, Mr Hennis.
The applicant was born on 1 November 1967. He had been before the courts on seven previous occasions. His convictions and findings of guilt included: handling a stolen skirt in 1985 for which he was fined £35; burglary of an unoccupied shop and theft of a refrigerator worth £10 in 1987 and, at the same appearance, handling stolen cash from a gas meter, for both of which he was conditionally discharged; theft later in 1987 for which he was fined £60;
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fraudulent use of a vehicle excise licence for which he was fined £30 in 1989; a variety of motoring offences for which he was conditionally discharged on 3 December 1990 and, on the same date, driving whilst disqualified for which he was placed on probation for 12 months and disqualified for 12 months. This last appearance was 17 days before he was found in possession of cannabis and LSD. He had not previously been convicted of any offence involving drugs or served any custodial sentence.
The following passages appeared in the social inquiry report:
‘12. Mr. Goulding tells me he has used cannabis on occasion since leaving home at the age of seventeen years. He states he had not experienced L.S.D. until the summer of last year when the drug became widely available and was associated with “Acid House Parties”. 13. Mr. Goulding tells me he purchased an ounce of cannabis for his own and his girlfriend’s personal use. With regard to the L.S.D. he tells me he was offered the drug in a fairly large quantity i.e. forty-five tablets for a discount price. He states he bought the drug from people whom he did not know from, he thinks, the London area. He states he has not previously purchased that amount but assures me the tablets were for his and his girlfriend’s use. 14. The charge of intent to supply arises from the purchase of the drugs with intent to share them with his girlfriend and was not in any way, he assures me, for profit.’
The report also recorded that the applicant had told the probation officer that he had bought the drugs with money he had saved to repaint his car, that the £70 was the remainder of his savings, that he used the scales to weigh his cannabis and that he had now finished with drugs. The view was expressed that it was unlikely that he had been addicted to them in any way. The applicant had said that he had taken steps to find employment and was hopeful of a place on an employment training scheme in the near future. He had spent five weeks in custody and it was suggested that if a sentence of imprisonment was imposed it should be suspended.
In his address in mitigation Mr Hennis said that there was no evidence that the applicant had supplied anyone with drugs, nor could it be inferred that he had arranged to do so. He repeated his assertion that the LSD was less than usually strong and therefore, he suggested, much less damaging. Mr Barry, who had not heard such an assertion made in any previous case, rejected this submission. Mr Hennis also said that the applicant had intended to supply only his girlfriend. Mr Barry found this incredible in view of the amount of LSD. He committed the applicant to the Crown Court for sentence.
In his affidavit he set out his reasons for doing so. I would summarise them like this:
(1) The justices on 4 January 1991 would have assumed that the applicant had an unblemished record. He had seen his record which included ‘convictions for burglary, handling stolen goods, fraudulent use of a vehicle excise licence and driving whilst disqualified: his past conduct had been serious enough to justify probation orders’. (In fact there had been only one such order, but no point was taken about this.) (2) The social inquiry report, prepared since 4 January 1991, showed ‘a practice of using unlawful drugs since he was 17 years old and Class A drugs since the summer of 1990’. (3) The justices on 4 January 1991 would have been entitled to proceed on the basis that the LSD was, as Mr Hennis represented, under strength, as the prosecution had not made any representation to the contrary. He, on the other hand, had rejected that submission. He therefore supposed that the offence was more serious than the magistrate had been led to believe.
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The fact that the applicant’s assertion that he only intended to supply his girlfriend was false was not a factor in his decision to commit for sentence.
Had he not been given the information set out in (1) and (2) above he would not have committed for sentence.
Mr Barry also says in his affidavit that he thought that the prosecution had been wrong in not asking the justices to commit for trial and had consciously looked for a lawful way in which he could commit the applicant for sentence.
Before us Mr Richard Gordon, counsel for the applicant, submitted that the learned magistrate prejudged the question of whether or not he should commit the applicant for sentence. He allowed himself to be influenced by his view that the prosecution had been wrong not to ask for committal for trial and thereafter looked for a way to commit for sentence. This attitude coloured his approach and flawed his judgment. His decision was therefore unlawful.
I cannot accept this submission. The learned stipendiary cannot be criticised for forming the view he did about the prosecution’s failure to ask for a committal for trial or the justices’ decision to try the case summarily. There can be few in his position who would have thought otherwise. True it is, as he volunteered, that he looked for a way in which he could commit, but he was only looking for a lawful way in which to do so. There is no reason to think that he would have contemplated adopting any other. It is a common experience for a judge who has formed an overall view of what the justice of a case requires to see whether the law permits him or precludes him from reaching that result.
Next Mr Gordon submitted that Mr Barry was wrong to infer from the social inquiry report ‘a practice of using unlawful drugs since he was 17 years old and Class A drugs since the summer of 1990’. Thus he took into account an immaterial consideration.
It is difficult to say more than I do not accept this; such an inference could reasonably be drawn from the material before him.
Mr Gordon also submitted that the learned stipendiary was in error in assuming that the justices had accepted jurisdiction on the basis that the LSD was of low strength and wrong to use his own belief that this could not be so, since he had not previously heard this said of LSD.
Again I cannot accept this. When there is an issue of fact in the criminal case the version more favourable to the defendant must be accepted unless it is so manifestly wrong that it can be dismissed or unless the contrary is proved beyond reasonable doubt. I do not think it unreasonable for Mr Barry to have assumed that lay justices would proceed on this basis, even although he, with his greater professional experience, felt able to reject the applicant’s assertion. Mr Barry has been both the stipendiary magistrate for South Yorkshire and a recorder of the Crown Court since 1985 and had practised at the Bar on the North Eastern Circuit for over 20 years before that.
But, even if my view were wrong and if Mr Barry were in error, either in his own dismissal of the applicant’s assertion or in his assumption that the justices assumed it to be good, this would not enable the applicant to succeed in this application. Here the words of May LJ in R v Broadcasting Complaints Commission, ex p Owen [1985] 2 All ER 522 at 533, [1985] QB 1153 at 1177 are pertinent:
‘Where the reasons given by a statutory body for taking or not taking a particular course of action are not mixed and can clearly be disentangled, but where the court is quite satisfied that even though one reason may be bad in law, nevertheless the statutory body would have reached precisely the same decision on the other valid reasons, then this court will not interfere by way
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of judicial review. In such a case, looked at realistically and with justice, such a decision of such a body ought not to be disturbed.’
I believe that to be the position here. Mr Barry’s affidavit makes clear that, although his rejection of the applicant’s submission about the strength of the LSD and his assumption that the justices had accepted it were things he took into account, the operative factors without which he would not have committed were the applicant’s criminal record and the fact that the social inquiry report demonstrated that the applicant’s involvement with dangerous drugs on 20 December 1990 was not his first. Though implicit, it is clear that he would have committed on the basis of the applicant’s previous criminal record and the contents of the social inquiry report alone—plainly matters of ‘character and antecedents’; a committal on that basis would have been lawful.
I would dismiss this application.
NEILL LJ. I have had the advantage of considering in draft the judgment which has been delivered by McCullough J. I agree with it. For the reasons which are set out in that judgment I too would dismiss this application.
Application dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v Tower Hamlets London Borough Council, ex parte Begum
R v Tower Hamlets London Borough Council, ex parte Rahman
[1993] 1 All ER 447
Categories: HOUSING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD DONALDSON OF LYMINGTON MR, BUTLER-SLOSS AND STAUGHTON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 15, 20, 30 JULY 1992
Housing – Homeless person – Duty of housing authority to provide accommodation – Application for priority need accommodation – Application by person suffering mental incapacity – Application made by another person on behalf of person suffering mental incapacity – Housing authority rejecting application – Whether application for priority need housing may be made on behalf of person unable to complete application form – National Assistance Act 1948, s 21(1) – Housing Act 1985, ss 59(1)(c), 62.
In two separate appeals concerning applications by homeless people for priority need housing under s 62a of the Housing Act 1985 the question arose whether the application could be made by a person acting on behalf of a potential applicant who was unable, through lack of capacity, either to make or to consent to the making of the application. In the first case the applicant, who was 24, had arrived from Bangladesh with his family in 1991. He was moderately to severely mentally handicapped and was believed to have a mental age of between 10 and 13. At first the family lived with relatives, but subsequently the applicant, assisted by an organisation which assisted people with mental handicap living in the community, applied to the local authority for accommodation under s 62 of the 1985 Act on the basis that he fell within s 59(1)(c)b of that Act, which provided that a person who was vulnerable as a result of, inter alia, ‘mental illness or handicap or physical disability’ was to be treated as a having a priority need for housing. However, the local authority concluded that, given his mental condition and assessed mental age, the applicant was not capable of making an application under s 62, nor could he have acquiesced in any application and he was therefore to be treated as not having made the application. The applicant applied for leave to move for judicial review but the judge refused the application. The applicant appealed and was granted leave by the Court of Appeal, which then heard the substantive application. In the second case, the appellant, who was 24, deaf and had limited speech, had arrived from Bangladesh with her family in 1989. In July 1990 the appellant and her father attended the homeless persons unit of the local authority and she signed an application under s 62 for priority housing in accordance with s 59(1)(c). However, the local authority concluded that she lacked the necessary capacity to make the application. The appellant applied for judicial review but the judge dismissed the application on the basis that, for the purposes of an application under s 62, prima facie there had to be knowledge on the part of the applicant that an application was being made. The appellant appealed. In both cases the local authority contended that the structure of the 1985 Act presupposed an applicant of sufficient comprehension to be able to make an application or to consent to an application being made on his behalf and that persons under such disability as not to understand that an application was being made were excluded
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from the mechanism of the 1985 Act and their needs, including the need to be accommodated, had to be met by social services departments under the National Assistance Act 1948, s 21(1)c of which authorised local authorities to provide residential accommodation for persons aged 18 or over who ‘by reason of … infirmity or any other circumstances are in need of care and attention which is not otherwise available to them’.
Held – An application for priority housing under s 62 of the 1985 Act could be made by a person with capacity to make it, by another person with the consent of the applicant or by someone acting on behalf of a person who was entitled to make an application but who was unable through mental incapacity to make or consent to the making of an application, provided the writer or maker of the application on behalf of that person could demonstrate reasonable grounds for making the application and that he was acting bona fide in the best interests of the applicant, since on its true construction s 62 was procedural and provided no barrier of mental capacity to the acceptance of an application. Furthermore, the purpose of the legislation was to include within its framework those with mental illness or handicap without reference to a definable cut-off point of mental capacity and s 59(1)(c) of the 1985 Act clearly contemplated that applications could be made by those under a disability or who were vulnerable. Moreover, although the 1985 and 1948 Acts overlapped, they fulfilled different needs: the 1985 Act presupposed homelessness or the threat of it, whereas the 1948 Act catered for those who were in need of care, albeit that they might be adequately housed. It followed that the applicant and the appellant were clearly within the ambit of the 1985 Act and had made valid applications for priority housing on which the local authority was bound to act. Accordingly the decision of the local authority in each case would be set aside (see p 454 a to g, p 455 e f h and p 456 b c, post).
Notes
For accommodation for homeless persons and priority need for accommodation, see 22 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 509–510, and for cases on the subject, see 26 Digest (Reissue) 797–801, 5325–5338.
For the National Assistance Act 1948, s 21, see 40 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 23.
For the Housing Act 1985, ss 59, 62, see 21 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 98, 101.
Cases referred to in judgments
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765, [1984] 1 AC 74, [1983] 2 WLR 321, HL.
R v Oldham Metropolitan BC, ex p G (1992) Times, 20 April.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Cocks v Thanet DC [1982] 3 All ER 1135, [1983] 2 AC 286, HL.
F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1900] 2 AC 1, HL.
Lewis v North Devon DC [1981] 1 All ER 27, [1981] 1 WLR 328.
R v Bath City Council, ex p Sangermano (1984) 17 HLR 94.
R v Brent London BC, ex p Omar (1991) 23 HLR 446.
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R v Chiltern DC, ex p Roberts (1990) 23 HLR 387.
R v Eastleigh BC, ex p Beattie (1984) 17 HLR 168.
R v Fulham Hammersmith and Kensington Rent Tribunal, ex p Zerek [1951] 1 All ER 482, [1951] 2 KB 1, DC.
R v Lambeth London BC, ex p Ly (1986) 19 HLR 51.
Roberts v Dorset CC (1976) 75 LGR 462.
Zamir v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1980] 2 All ER 768, [1980] AC 930, HL.
Application for judicial review and appeal
R v Tower Hamlets London BC, ex p Begum
Ferdous Begum appealed from the order of Rose J made on 28 November 1991 whereby he dismissed her motion for judicial review, brought with the leave of Popplewell J given on 2 September 1991, of the decision of the respondent, Tower Hamlets London Borough Council, communicated to the appellant’s father by letter dated 11 July 1991 that the appellant had not made an application to the council pursuant to Pt III of the Housing Act 1985 as a homeless person and therefore the council was under no obligation to make inquiries into the appellant’s homelessness pursuant to s 62 of that Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of Butler-Sloss LJ.
R v Tower Hamlets London BC, ex p Rahman
Lutfur Rahman applied by way of renewed application, with the leave of the Court of Appeal (Lord Donaldson MR, Stocker and Butler-Sloss LJJ) given on 23 March 1992, for judicial review of the decision of the respondent, Tower Hamlets London Borough Council, given on 18 February 1992 that the applicant had not on 28 January 1992 made an application to the council pursuant to Pt III of the Housing Act 1985, the original application for such leave having been refused by Macpherson J on 13 March 1992. The court ordered that the substantive application be retained for hearing by the Court of Appeal. The relief sought was an order of certiorari to quash the council’s decision, an order of mandamus requiring the council to consider and determine the application and a declaration that on 28 January 1992 the applicant had made a valid application to the council pursuant to Pt III of the 1985 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of Butler-Sloss LJ.
Robert Carnwath QC and Terence Gallivan (instructed by T V Edwards) for the applicant Rahman
David Watkinson and Leslie Thomas (instructed by Hereward & Foster) for the appellant Begum.
Ashley Underwood and Lisa Giovannetti (instructed by J E Marlowe) for the council.
Cur adv vult
30 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Lord Donaldson MR). The two matters before this court, one an appeal from the dismissal of judicial review and the second the retention by this court of a substantive application for judicial review after the granting of leave, raise the same issue under the Housing Act 1985 as to the right of people suffering from
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mental illness or mental handicap to apply for priority housing. The relevant facts of each appeal are as follows.
Lutfur Rahman
The applicant is 24. He and his family came to England from Bangladesh in 1991. His family consists of his mother and two sisters aged 16 and 11. They lived at first with relatives in Tower Hamlets and then approached the homeless persons unit. They have been housed in temporary accommodation pending inquiries. The housing authority decided that the mother was homeless, in priority need, and was intentionally homeless and that accommodation would not be provided beyond 3 February 1992. There has been no challenge to that decision.
The applicant came to the attention of the Community Team for People with Learning Difficulties (CTLD), which is part of the Royal London Trust and which assists people with mental handicap living in the community. The applicant was assessed by the same psychologist as Ferdous Begum (see post), who concluded that he had both moderate and in some respects severe mental handicap, that he had hearing difficulties and that he is functioning at a mental age of between 10 and 13.
The applicant, assisted by the CTLD, applied to the housing authority for accommodation under the provisions of s 59(1)(c) of the 1985 Act. A representative of the housing authority interviewed the family and the applicant and concluded that the applicant was not capable of making an application under s 62, and on 19 February 1992 another representative of the housing authority wrote to the applicant’s mother setting out the applicant’s mental condition and assessed mental age, and continued:
‘I must therefore conclude that [Lutfur] is dependant on you. In all of these circumstances I conclude that he cannot have acquiesced in any application for housing and is not capable of making an application for rehousing. It follows that I must treat him as not having made an application and I therefore conclude that the purported application was merely a device by which you sought to get round the unchallenged finding of your intentional homelessness.’
On 13 March 1992 Macpherson J refused leave to move for judicial review, but leave was granted by a division of this court on 23 March 1992 and the hearing of the substantive application was retained to be heard by this court.
Ferdous Begum
The appellant is 24. She and her family arrived in England from Bangladesh on 17 December 1989. She has a father, mother, either two or three sisters and a brother. On arrival, after a night with relatives her father approached the homeless persons unit of the respondent housing authority, who housed the family in temporary accommodation pending inquiries. The housing authority found the father to be intentionally homeless and indicated that they would not provide accommodation for the family beyond 18 July 1990. The father took no steps to set aside that decision.
The appellant is profoundly deaf and has very limited speech. She communicates with her family by means of signs and words understood only by them. She has been assessed to a limited extent by a psychologist, who considered that she was functioning far below her potential level but did not come to a conclusion as to her mental age. Additional evidence has been accepted by this court which shows that she has an ability to function quite successfully within the family.
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The appellant and her father attended the homeless persons unit on 17 July 1990 and she signed an application for priority housing in accordance with the provisions of s 59(1)(c) of the 1985 Act. By letter dated 11 July 1991 a representative of the housing authority notified the appellant’s father that they considered that she had not made an application. After setting out her disabilities the letter concluded:
‘Her only means of communication with us has been through you. In all of those circumstances I conclude not only that she could not have acquiesced in any act or omission by you rendering her homeless, I find that she cannot have acquiesced in any application for housing. It follows that I must treat her as not having made an application and I therefore conclude that the purported application was merely a device by which you sought to get around the unchallenged finding of your intentional homelessness.’
The appellant was granted leave to move for judicial review by Popplewell J on 2 September 1991, but the application was dismissed by Rose J on 28 November 1991.
The 1985 Act provides a framework in Pt III within which local housing authorities try to cope with the problems of homelessness within their local areas. It consolidates earlier legislation dealing with the same problem. Section 58 defines homelessness and threatened homelessness. Section 59(1) sets out the categories of priority need for accommodation, and para (c) is relied upon in both cases before this court:
‘The following have a priority need for accommodation—(a) a pregnant woman or a person with whom a pregnant woman resides or might reasonably be expected to reside; (b) a person with whom dependent children reside or might reasonably be expected to reside; (c) a person who is vulnerable as a result of old age, mental illness or handicap or physical disability or other special reason, or with whom such a person resides or might reasonably be expected to reside; (d) a person who is homeless or threatened with homelessness as a result of an emergency such as flood, fire or other disaster.’
Section 60 defines intentional homelessness. Section 62 deals with the inquiry into cases of possible homelessness or threatened homelessness and provides in general terms for the application to be made:
‘(1) If a person (an “applicant”) applies to a local housing authority for accommodation, or for assistance in obtaining accommodation, and the authority have reason to believe that he may be homeless or threatened with homelessness, they shall make such inquiries as are necessary to satisfy themselves as to whether he is homeless or threatened with homelessness.
(2) If they are so satisfied, they shall make any further inquiries necessary to satisfy themselves as to—(a) whether he has a priority need, and (b) whether he became homeless or threatened with homelessness intentionally …’
Pending inquiries the housing authority have an interim duty under s 63 to make accommodation available to the applicant. Notification of the decision and the reasons for it is covered by s 64. Once a housing authority are—
‘satisfied that he has a priority need and are not satisfied that he became homeless intentionally, they shall … secure that accommodation becomes available for his occupation.’ (See s 65(2).)
Sections 65 and 69 also lay other duties upon the housing authority to provide accommodation for a limited period and to offer advice and assistance.
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A local housing authority may refer an applicant to another housing authority and house him in the meantime (ss 67 and 68). False statements, withholding information and failure to disclose change of circumstances are dealt with in s 74.
Section 75 states:
‘For the purposes of this Part accommodation shall be regarded as available for a person’s occupation only if it is available for occupation both by him and by any other person who might reasonably be expected to reside with him …’
In discharge of their duties local housing authorities are assisted by the Code of Guidance for Local Authorities on Homelessness. The Secretary of State is empowered to issue such guidance by virtue of s 71(2) and a local housing authority is required to have regard to it. Paragraph 3.2 in ch 3 deals with ‘What is an application?’ and continues:
‘Under s. 62 of the Act an authority is required to take action whenever someone approaches it for help in obtaining housing and the authority has reason to believe that s/he may be homeless or threatened with homelessness. This duty exists regardless of which department of the local authority the applicant approaches or of the way in which the application is made. Authorities should be aware of the need to recognise people who should be treated as homeless even if there is no formal application and they should monitor all applications.’
In paras 6.10 and 6.11 of ch 6 the code of guidance deals specifically with the groups within the community falling within s 59(1)(c) and in para 6.10 they are advised in cases of vulnerability to have regard to medical advice and where appropriate to seek social services advice. Paragraph 6.11 refers in particular to liaison between the health authority and the housing authority. Section 72 of the Act sets out the duty of co-operation between local housing authorities and also by social service authorities when called on to render assistance to a local housing authority.
The Act however does not state nor does the code of guidance assist as to the application itself—who may make it and in particular whether it can be made by someone acting on behalf of a potential applicant unable himself through lack of comprehension either to make or consent to the making of such an application for priority housing. This point has not previously been the subject of judicial scrutiny and is by no means without difficulty.
The case for both the applicant and the appellant is that the Act provides a comprehensive set of rules for homelessness. Section 62, which alone deals with the threshold of the application, lays down no criteria nor rules for the making of the application. Section 59(1)(c) expressly recognises that the more vulnerable sections of society will be applicants and among them those who are old, with mental illness or mental handicap. There is in the Act no restriction or limitation as to the degree of mental illness or mental handicap of a potential applicant any diminution in which will obviously reduce the cognitive ability of a person and in some cases may extinguish it. Indeed, the code of guidance recognises that an application may be informal, and local housing authorities are advised to have regard to medical advice and advice from social services.
The primary argument of Mr Carnwath QC for the applicant and of Mr Watkinson for the appellant is that there is no line to be drawn between those with sufficient understanding to make their own applications or to consent to their applications being made by others on their behalf, and those with no comprehension whatsoever who none the less are homeless or threatened with
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homelessness and whose plight ought to be considered and redressed within the framework of Pt III of the Act.
The secondary argument of both the applicant and the appellant is they have in fact sufficient understanding of the concept of homelessness and the need to seek help to come within the meaning of an applicant who knew he was making an application or consented to an application being made on his behalf. In considering this argument, the letter of the housing officer in each case clearly demonstrates that he fell into error. For entirely understandable reasons, since in each case the parent had been declared intentionally homeless, the application under s 59(1)(c) was seen as a device to get round the refusal of housing on the previous application of the family. This approach, that it was a device, was subsequently abandoned by the housing authority. But it undoubtedly had an effect on the thought processes of the housing officer and casts doubt on each decision. However, it is unnecessary to pursue this issue any further since Mr Underwood for the housing authority, with the advantage of further evidence as to the abilities of each of these young people, accepted that the housing authority would in any event have to reconsider their cases.
Mr Carnwath argued that the question ‘Who is an applicant?’ is not a matter for the decision of the local housing authority to be challenged on the ground of Wednesbury unreasonableness (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223) but is a jurisdictional fact as to the point at which the duties laid upon the housing authority come into existence. Consequently, if the housing authority can be shown to have come to the wrong decision, this court may, if appropriate, substitute its own decision for that of the housing authority.
Mr Underwood for the respondent local authority argued that the structure of the Act presupposes an applicant of sufficient comprehension to be able to make an application or consent to an application being made on his behalf. In these two cases the housing authority themselves involved a psychologist to assist in the assessment of each of them. A line has to be drawn which excludes those under such a disability as not to understand that an application is being made. There is nothing in the Act to show that a person with no mental ability can none the less be treated as an applicant without his knowledge. He pointed to the sections of the Act which require notification by the applicant of change of circumstances and the provisions in respect of false statements. He invited our attention to s 21(1) of the National Assistance Act 1948 part of which remains in force (with amendments) and authorises a local authority to make arrangements to provide—
‘(a) residential accommodation for persons aged eighteen or over who by reason of age, infirmity or any other circumstances are in need of care and attention which is not otherwise available to them.’
Section 21(1)(a) of the 1948 Act is however administered by the social services department and not the housing authority. The framework of the legislation therefore is that those incapable of understanding what they are doing or of making an application themselves do not come within the 1985 Act but their needs, including the need to be accommodated, are met by social services within the structure of the 1948 Act.
Rose J asked himself the question in regard to Ferdous Begum: does the mind go with the application? and answered it on the basis that—
‘the word “application” prima facie involves knowledge on the part of the applicant that an application is being made.’
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Although I see the force of the argument, in the context of the 1985 Act I do not believe that it is correct. There is nothing in the Act to demonstrate that s 62 is substantive rather than procedural and provides hurdles of mental capacity to surmount before an application can be accepted. On the contrary, s 59(1)(c) contemplates that applications will be made by those under a disability or who are vulnerable. Such legislation is in accord with the expressed policy of government departments to accept within the community those who might in former days have been shut away in long-stay institutions. I cannot construe from the statute any indication that a line has to be drawn among those targeted by s 59(1)(c) according to degrees of mental capacity less than the normal capacity to make an application. The purpose of the framework of the overall legislation is to include those with mental illness or handicap without reference to a definable cut-off point of mental capacity. The argument that applicants are required to inform the housing authority of changes of circumstances would, in the context of someone under a disability, be the obligation of the person who made or assisted in the making of the application. The offence of making a false statement is not restricted to the applicant alone.
In my view an application may be made under s 59(1)(c) by a person with capacity to make it, or by another with the consent of the applicant, or by someone on behalf of a person who is entitled to make an application but is unable through mental incapacity to make or consent to the making of an application. In the latter case the writer or maker of the application on behalf of another must demonstrate reasonable grounds for making the application and for acting on behalf of the actual applicant and that he is acting bona fide in the interests of the person unable to act without such help. An application by a well-meaning busybody would not be an acceptable application under s 62.
The 1985 Act and the 1948 Act undoubtedly overlap, and those administering each Act may from time to time have to consider the needs of the same person. There would be nothing surprising in that position since the wording of s 72(b) of the 1985 Act and of the code of guidance both contemplate the involvement of both services in housing the vulnerable homeless. However, the two Acts fulfil different roles and meet different needs. The 1948 Act caters for those in need of care and attention who may none the less be adequately housed, with no question of homelessness or threat of homelessness. But their inability to manage their own affairs may require them nevertheless to be accommodated in sheltered housing and to leave their own homes. Part III of the 1985 Act presupposes either homelessness or threat of homelessness; otherwise the application would not be made. Further, there is an important practical difference. Social services run residential accommodation for the person in need under the provisions of s 21(1) of the 1948 Act. They do not have a stock of housing as such and, without recourse to the local housing authority, would not be in a position to house the family of the person in need. The 1985 Act on the other hand specifically recognises in s 75 an obligation to house not only the applicant with priority need but some at least of his family, if he lives with one or more of them. Section 75 does not however cast a duty upon the local housing authority to house all members of a large extended family but only those who come within the definition of ‘any other person who might reasonably be expected to reside with him’.
In problems which may arise both within the ambit of the 1985 Act and the 1948 Act the people involved will inevitably be within the most vulnerable group contemplated by the legislation and it is especially important that their needs are recognised and their problems addressed without passing them from one department to another.
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The question whether a person is an applicant within the ambit of s 62 of the 1985 Act is not in my judgment a matter for the discretion of the local housing authority to be reviewed upon Wednesbury principles. It is a question whether the person comes within those contemplated by Pt III of the 1985 Act as applicants for priority housing, the receipt of whose applications will be the threshold for the assumption by the local housing authority of their various duties under the Act. Henry J in R v Oldham Metropolitan BC, ex p G (1992) Times, 20 April decided that dependent children could not be applicants in their own right under the provisions of Pt III of the 1985 Act. I do not wish to comment upon the issue raised in that decision, but the judge made general observations about applicants under s 62 which included the proposition that a person can only be considered as an applicant if he can establish a priority need. I do not agree. In my view the housing authority has to accept genuine applications and consider, on the facts revealed in the application and after any necessary inquiries, whether a duty arises under Pt III of the 1985 Act. The housing authority has to establish the precedent fact, as it was described by Lord Fraser in Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765 at 771, [1984] 1 AC 74 at 97, that an application for housing, in however informal terms, has been made. The question whether an application has been made and whether the housing authority have erred in their approach to this issue is a collateral question preceding the main decision-making process. Consequently I agree with Mr Carnwath that, if he can demonstrate that the housing authority wrongly excluded an application, this court has the jurisdiction to substitute its own decision. For the reasons which I have set out earlier I consider that both the appellant and the applicant made applications which the housing authority was bound to receive and to act upon and consequently they were not justified in rejecting them. It would seem to me unlikely that the housing authority would be able to reject applications made in similar circumstances although, of course, in carrying out their duties they may have a variety of options in responding to the applications.
In each case I would set aside the decision of the local housing authority.
STAUGHTON LJ. I agree with the orders proposed by Butler-Sloss LJ and Lord Donaldson MR for the reasons which they have given. In particular, I agree that a decision whether a person has made an application under s 62(1) of the Housing Act 1985 is not one which Parliament has entrusted to the local housing authority. If the authority has concluded that no application was made, it will be for the courts to decide whether the authority was right. But I prefer to express no opinion on the other requirement in s 62(1), that ‘the authority have reason to believe that he may be homeless or threatened with homelessness …’ That was not in issue in these cases.
LORD DONALDSON OF LYMINGTON MR. I too would set aside the decisions of the local housing authority for the reasons given by Butler-Sloss LJ.
This appeal and application are concerned with a human problem affecting the least advantaged citizens. I appreciate that what may be compendiously described as ‘social services’ and ‘housing’ are often, as a matter of administrative convenience, dealt with by separate departments in a single local authority and may, where there is multi-tiered local government, be dealt with by different authorities. This should be of no concern to the person who is homeless or threatened with homelessness (the ‘homeless person’). Whether he applies to the right or the wrong department or authority should not matter. That department or authority should either itself deal with the application or pass it on to what it considers to be the correct department or authority and should tell the homeless
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person what it has done. It should not tell that person to apply elsewhere. The game of ‘pass the parcel’ has no place in this field. And, if disputes arise between departments or authorities as to whether this is a ‘social services’ or a ‘housing’ problem, that should be sorted out between them and should not directly involve the homeless person.
I agree that reading s 59(1)(c) with s 62 makes it clear that no ‘application’ in the ordinary sense of the word is required of a homeless person as otherwise it would be quite impossible for some people who are ‘vulnerable as a result of old age, mental illness or handicap’ to attract the protection which it is the clearly intended duty of housing authorities to provide under Pt III of the 1985 Act. Accordingly s 62 must be construed as contemplating only that the homeless person and his circumstances will be brought to the attention of the housing authority by an application by him, by someone else on his behalf and with his authority or by someone else on his behalf and in his interests, such person having a bona fide concern with those interests.
In my judgment s 62(1) of the 1985 Act contains a double-barrelled threshold or precedent question of fact which has to be answered in the affirmative if the local housing authority’s duties under Pt III of the Act are to come into force. The first part of this question is whether a person has applied to it for accommodation in the sense which I have indicated. The second part is whether the authority has reason to believe that he may be homeless or threatened with homelessness. This is to be distinguished from the Pt III duty which follows immediately afterwards in the same sentence, namely, to make such inquiries as are necessary to satisfy itself as to whether he is homeless or threatened with homelessness. I cannot believe that Parliament intended that whether or not a local housing authority became subject to the duties set out in Pt III of the Act should depend upon whether it happened to be credulous or incredulous, myopic or far-sighted. The intention must have been that an objective test should be applied. The authority’s decision on both aspects of this threshold question therefore falls to be reviewed not on Wednesbury (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223) but on Khawaja principles—does the evidence justify the conclusion (see Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765 at 777, [1984] AC 74 at 105 per Lord Wilberforce).
We have not had to consider whether an application can be made under s 62 by or on behalf or in the interests of a child. This was considered by Henry J in R v Oldham Metropolitan BC, ex p G (1992) Times, 20 April. I express no view on the basis of that decision, save to say that children who do not come within s 59(1)(c) or (d) are not within the priority need category. Although ‘dependent children’ feature in para (b) they do so as a qualification of a different applicant, namely one with whom they reside or might reasonably be expected to reside. They do not feature in that paragraph in their own right.
Application granted and appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
18 January 1993. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords gave leave to appeal.
Frances Rustin Barrister.
McClory and others v Post Office
[1993] 1 All ER 457
Categories: EMPLOYMENT; Contract of service
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): DAVID NEUBERGER QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12, 13, 14, 20 FEBRUARY 1992
Employment – Suspension – Obligation on employer when suspending or dismissing employee – Contract of service – Implied terms – Employee suspended on full pay – Suspension depriving employee of opportunity to work overtime – Express term of contract requiring employee to work overtime if required – Express term of contract giving employer discretionary power of suspension – Whether rules of natural justice applying to contracts of employment – Whether employer owing implied duty to act reasonably in exercising power of suspension – Whether employer under implied duty to provide overtime.
The three plaintiffs were employed by the Post Office as postmen under contracts of employment which provided by cl 3 that it was a condition of their employment that they were liable to work overtime if required and by cl 7 that they could be suspended either with or without pay if there was a need for inquiries to be made into alleged misconduct by them. On 25 September 1987 the plaintiffs were involved in a fight with other Post Office workers at a public house which resulted in their being arrested and charged with assault. On 7 October the Post Office suspended the plaintiffs on full pay pending its own inquiry into the incident. On 13 November the plaintiffs appeared before justices and pleaded not guilty to all charges and were committed to the Crown Court for trial. The Post Office then commenced its own internal inquiry and after Post Office staff involved in the incident and the plaintiffs themselves had been interviewed the suspension was lifted on 5 April 1988 and the plaintiffs returned to work. The plaintiffs were subsequently acquitted of all charges after their trial in the Crown Court. The plaintiffs brought an action for damages against the Post Office claiming compensation for loss of overtime payments during the period of suspension, contending that the Post Office was in breach of implied terms in the plaintiffs’ contracts of employment to the effect, inter alia, (i) that the plaintiffs had a right to be provided with the opportunity to undertake overtime and (ii) that in exercising its right of suspension under cl 7 the Post Office was under a duty to act reasonably, to observe the rules of natural justice and to act fairly. The Post Office contended that there was no general obligation on an employer to act reasonably, to observe the rules of natural justice or to act fairly when dismissing or suspending an employee for misconduct.
Held – (1) The rules of natural justice could not be imported into the purely contractual relationship of employer and employee and therefore an employer was entitled to make a decision affecting an employee without first informing the employee that the decision was about to be made. Likewise the employer was not required to act fairly in the sense of balancing his own interests against the employee’s interests when deciding to suspend an employee since the fairness or otherwise of the decision was a matter for the employer, not the court. Furthermore, it was not necessary to imply a term into the contract of employment that the employer had to give the employee the reasons for his suspension before suspending him, but in any event the plaintiffs must have been aware of the reason for their suspension (see p 462 h j, p 463 a to g and p 464 a b, post); dictum of Lord Wilberforce in Malloch v Aberdeen Corp [1971] 2 All ER 1278 at 1294 applied.
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(2) However, on the true construction of cl 7 of the plaintiffs’ contracts of employment, there was an implied term that the Post Office would act reasonably in exercising its right to suspend an employee and would only continue that suspension for as long as there were reasonable grounds for doing so, since the fact that cl 7 empowered the Post Office to suspend an employee without pay for an indefinite period implied that the suspension had to be reasonable. Nevertheless, in deciding that an employer’s contractual discretionary right to suspend an employee was subject to an implied term that it would only be exercised reasonably, the court would not step into the arena of the employer/employee relationship and substitute its own judgment for that of the employer. On the facts, the Post Office had not been in breach of the implied term that it act reasonably when suspending an employee because it had had reasonable grounds for effecting the suspension and reasonable grounds for continuing it. Accordingly, the plaintiffs’ claim failed, but, even if they had succeeded on liability, they could not have obtained damages because on the true construction of cl 3 of their contracts of employment there was no implied term giving them a right to overtime since cl 3, while expressly imposing on the employee an obligation to work overtime if the employer so required, contained no concomitant obligation on the employer actually to provide overtime (see p 464 h to p 465 a f to p 466 c, p 467 b h, p 468 d and p 469 a to j, post).
Notes
For implied terms in contracts of employment, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 54.
For implied contractual terms generally, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 351–362, and for cases on the subject, see 12(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 403–454, 3282–3546.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bauman v Hulton Press Ltd [1952] 2 All ER 1121.
British Home Stores Ltd v Burchell [1980] ICR 303, EAT.
Chaplin v Hicks [1911] 2 KB 786, [1911–13] All ER Rep 224, CA.
Dakri (A) & Co Ltd v Tiffen [1981] ICR 256, EAT.
Devonald v Rosser & Sons [1906] 2 KB 728, [1904–7] All ER Rep 988, CA.
Gunton v Richmond upon Thames London Borough [1980] 3 All ER 577, [1981] Ch 448, [1980] 3 WLR 714, CA.
Johnstone v Bloomsbury Health Authority [1991] 2 All ER 293, [1992] QB 333, [1991] 2 WLR 1362, CA.
Langston v Amalgamated Union of Engineering Workers [1974] 1 All ER 980, [1974] 1 WLR 185, CA.
Langston v Amalgamated Union of Engineering Workers (No 2) [1974] ICR 510, NIRC.
Lavarack v Woods of Colchester Ltd [1966] 3 All ER 683, [1967] 1 QB 278, [1966] 3 WLR 706, CA.
Liverpool City Council v Irwin [1976] 2 All ER 39, [1977] AC 239, [1976] 2 WLR 562, HL.
MacRae (Kenneth) & Co Ltd v Dawson [1984] IRLR 5, EAT.
Malloch v Aberdeen Corp [1971] 2 All ER 1278, [1971] 1 WLR 1578, HL.
Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66, [1964] AC 40, [1963] 2 WLR 935, HL.
United Bank Ltd v Akhtar [1989] IRLR 507, EAT.
Western Excavating (ECC) Ltd v Sharp [1978] 1 All ER 713, [1978] QB 761, [1978] 2 WLR 344, CA.
White v Reflecting Roadstuds Ltd [1991] IRLR 331, EAT.
Woods v WM Car Services (Peterborough) Ltd [1981] ICR 666, EAT; affd [1982] ICR 693, CA.
Page 459 of [1993] 1 All ER 457
Cases also cited
Alexander v Standard Telephones and Cables Ltd (No 2) [1991] IRLR 286.
Bird v British Celanese Ltd [1945] 1 All ER 488, [1945] KB 336, CA.
Carr v Alexander Russell Ltd [1979] ICR 469, Ct of Sess.
City and Hackney Health Authority v National Union of Public Employees [1985] IRLR 252, CA.
Collier v Sunday Referee Publishing Co Ltd [1940] 4 All ER 234, [1940] 2 KB 647.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, HL.
Hanley v Pease & Partners Ltd [1915] 1 KB 698, [1914–15] All ER Rep 984, DC.
Harris (Ipswich) Ltd v Harrison [1978] ICR 1256, EAT.
Lister v Romford Ice and Cold Storage Co Ltd [1957] 1 All ER 125, [1957] AC 555, HL.
Post Office v Roberts [1980] IRLR 347, EAT.
R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425, [1985] QB 152, CA.
Shirlaw v Southern Foundries (1926) Ltd and Federated Foundries Ltd [1939] 2 All ER 113, [1939] 2 KB 206, CA.
Spafax Ltd v Harrison [1980] IRLR 442, CA.
Spencer v Marchington [1988] IRLR 392.
Trollope & Colls Ltd v North West Metropolitan Regional Hospital Board [1973] 2 All ER 260, [1973] 1 WLR 601, HL.
Turner v Sawdon & Co [1901] 2 KB 653, CA.
West Midlands Co-op Society Ltd v Tipton [1986] 1 All ER 513, [1986] AC 536, HL.
Action
The plaintiffs, James Gordon McClory, Andrew Perez and Stephen Keith Shipman, brought an action against the defendant, the Post Office, claiming damages and a declaration that the manner of the plaintiffs’ suspensions from their employment by the defendant and/or the length of time of the suspension were in breach of the plaintiffs’ contracts of employment in that they were unfair and/or in breach of the rules of natural justice. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Robert Reid QC and Anne Wakefield (instructed by Simpson Millar, Leeds) for the plaintiffs.
Jeffrey Burke QC and David Griffith-Jones (instructed by Hammond Suddards) for the defendant.
Cur adv vult
20 February 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
DAVID NEUBERGER QC. This is a claim by three former employees of the defendant, the Post Office, for damages to compensate them for the loss of income which they would have received by way of overtime payments during the period that they were suspended on full pay by the defendant.
The three plaintiffs were employed by the defendant as postmen higher grade under effectively identical forms of contract entered into in each case in 1984. Clause 2 of that contract provided for a fixed rate of weekly pay. Clause 3 provided for a 43-hour week and then stated as follows:
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‘The Post Office have the responsibility of providing a public service. This puts a special obligation on all employees to play their part in maintaining the kind of service which the public has a right to expect. For this reason it is a condition of employment that you are liable to work overtime and to attend at such varying times on weekdays and Sundays as the needs of the service demand. You may also be required to work elsewhere than at your initial place of employment. These obligations are implemented in accordance with Post Office rules.’
Clause 6 referred to termination, providing for a period of notice dependent on length of service, except in case of misconduct. Clause 7 provided:
‘In the event of misconduct or where there is a need for enquiries to be made into alleged misconduct you may be suspended from your employment, either with or without pay.’
The plaintiffs all worked at the sorting and post office at Mount Pleasant, Islington, where over 3,000 people were and are employed by the defendant.
On 25 September 1987 the plaintiffs went to the Wilmington Arms public house in Rosebery Avenue. There was another group of employees of the defendant at that public house at the same time, albeit that they were not employed at Mount Pleasant, but at another of the defendant’s offices, Calthorpe House. At some point during the evening there appears to have been something of a fight. A number of people were injured, most significantly two of the Calthorpe House employees, Mr Silk, who was knocked out, and Mr Sheddon, who fractured his ankle.
The police formed the view that there was sufficient evidence to justify bringing prosecutions against all three plaintiffs on the following counts, namely assault occasioning grievous bodily harm, assault occasioning actual bodily harm and violent disorder.
The plaintiffs were arrested and charged on 7 October 1987, when they were released on police bail. The defendant immediately suspended them on full pay. The suspension was effected orally, and was not formally communicated to them in writing until they each received letters from the defendant on 5 November 1987. Those letters referred to the alleged offences, the suspension and the fact that the plaintiffs had appeared in the magistrates’ court on 16 October, when they were remanded on bail to appear again on 13 November. The letters stated that the defendant was carrying out its own inquiries ‘in order to assess what action, if any, it needs to take’. The letters went on to say that it was likely that the defendant would wish to interview the plaintiffs in due course.
The person responsible for carrying out the internal inquiries was Mr Curtis, the personnel and industrial relations manager at Mount Pleasant. He decided to wait until 13 November to see whether the plaintiffs would plead guilty or not. In fact they pleaded not guilty and were sent for trial in the Crown Court. Accordingly, Mr Curtis started his inquiries. He fixed appointments for 16 and 17 November in order to interview the various Calthorpe House employees who had been present at the Wilmington Arms on 25 September. However, on that occasion he was only able to speak to four of those employees, none of whom had been directly involved in the incident. He prepared a brief summary of what they told him, and also provided an aide-mémoire summarising the effect of their evidence, which he considered to be fairly inconclusive so far as the guilt of the three plaintiffs was concerned.
Subsequently, on 4 December, he interviewed two more of the Calthorpe
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House employees, who had been on leave at the time of the earlier interviews. One of these was Mr Silk. Mr Curtis again prepared a summary of their evidence and an aide-mémoire to its effect. He formed the view that the evidence was still inconclusive, and that Mr Sheddon was a centrally important witness whom he had to interview. Immediately after this, Mr Curtis wrote and asked Mr Sheddon to come and see him about the incident. In fact, Mr Sheddon was difficult to contact, as he was on temporary leave attending a course at the North London Polytechnic. Mr Curtis wrote to Mr Sheddon at the polytechnic and at his home address. He also contacted Mr Meadows, who was apparently responsible for personnel at Calthorpe House, and to the principal at the Polytechnic, with a view to seeing Mr Sheddon.
Eventually, when Mr Curtis had more or less given up hope of interviewing him, Mr Sheddon came to see him on 24 February 1988. As Mr Curtis’s note of that meeting shows, Mr Sheddon’s recollection of what happened at the Wilmington Arms was so unclear as to be useless.
Meanwhile, Mr Curtis had reached the position where he considered it appropriate to interview the plaintiffs themselves, and he wrote to each of them on 12 February inviting them to come and see him 12 days later. The solicitors acting for the plaintiffs in the criminal proceedings replied on their behalf, indicating that they considered it inappropriate for their clients to discuss the incident, bearing in mind that they were facing criminal proceedings in connection with it. Accordingly, they asked Mr Curtis to postpone the interview until after the court hearing. Having discussed the matter fully with the Post Office solicitors, Mr Curtis replied to the plaintiffs’ solicitors on 23 March reiterating his intention to have a meeting with each of the plaintiffs, and those meetings took place on 28 March.
The attitude of each of the plaintiffs was that they were not prepared to discuss the incident in view of the advice they had received from their solicitors. Mr Curtis asked two of the plaintiffs for assurances that there would be no violence if they returned to work, and a similar assurance was sought from the remaining plaintiff on the next day. In each case the assurance was given.
In these circumstances the suspension on each of the plaintiffs was lifted, and they returned to work at Mount Pleasant on 5 April. In due course, in July, the criminal proceedings against the plaintiffs came on for trial in the Crown Court at Southwark and, after a six-day hearing, they were all acquitted by the jury of all charges.
Arising from these facts, the plaintiffs have brought proceedings against the defendant, alleging that the imposition of the suspension from 7 October 1987 to 5 April 1988 and/or the length of those suspensions constitute a breach of contract by the defendant, and that as a result of this breach the plaintiffs have suffered loss and damage, namely the loss of the opportunity to earn overtime payments. In this connection, the parties have very sensibly agreed, for the purpose of these proceedings only, the net earnings which the plaintiffs would in practice have received during the period of suspension had they been allowed to work overtime in the same manner that they had actually been working overtime before the suspension.
In order to succeed, the plaintiffs accept that they have to rely upon the breach by the defendant of one or more terms which the plaintiffs claim to have been implied into their respective contracts of employment. These implied terms are set out in the amended statement of claim and are as follows:
‘(a) The employee is entitled to be provided during the period of his employment with work to do and with the opportunities to undertake such
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overtime and rest-day working and to earn such bonuses as is usual or the norm for the particular employee or for an employee in his position;
(b) Any suspension of an employee should be only following full information to the employee by the employer of the reasons for the suspension;
(c) Following a suspension, the employee should within a reasonable time be given an opportunity by the employer to answer any matters put forward by the employer as reasons for the suspension;
(d) Any suspension of the employee by the employer should be for such period only as was reasonable in all the circumstances;
(e) In exercising any contractual right to suspend the Plaintiffs or any of them the Defendants would observe the rules of natural justice and act fairly in the circumstances.’
I shall refer to these alleged implied terms as ‘term (a)’, ‘term (b)’ etc.
So far as liability is concerned, it seems to me that term (a) takes matters no further. If the suspensions were lawful under cl 7 of the contract, and were not in breach of any other implied term, then, so far as term (a) is concerned, it must yield to the express right of the defendant to suspend under cl 7. If authority is required for the proposition that an implied term must yield, at least so far as it is necessary to give proper effect to an express term, to that express term, I would refer to Johnstone v Bloomsbury Health Authority [1991] 2 All ER 293, [1992] QB 333.
Before turning to the other four implied terms, it is right to consider briefly the law relating to implied terms more generally. There are two categories of implied term: one is a term implied into a relationship because it creates a particular status; the other category is where a term is implied into a contract, which apparently forms the complete bargain between the parties. This case has been argued before me on the footing that the terms sought to be implied fall only into the second category. It is clear that terms can be implied into a contract of employment, just as into any other contract. However, in cases falling into the second category, it is equally clear that a term will only be implied if it is necessary to give efficacy to the contract or (which is often a different way of saying the same thing) it is so obvious a term that it goes without saying. Thus, in relation to a contract of employment, an employer cannot exercise a power contained in his favour in the contract in such a way as to put the employee into a position which requires him to do something which is, in practical terms, impossible: see for instance United Bank Ltd v Akhtar [1989] IRLR 507 esp at 511. However, as the decision of the House of Lords in Liverpool City Council v Irwin [1976] 2 All ER 39, [1977] AC 239 emphasises, one does not imply a term into a contract merely because it is reasonable to do so. Indeed, in the field of employment contracts, it seems clear from the decision in Western Excavating (ECC) Ltd v Sharp [1978] 1 All ER 713, [1978] QB 761 that there is, at least in general, no term to be implied into a contract of employment that the employer will behave reasonably.
Furthermore, it seems clear beyond doubt that, as a matter of contract, an employer is not obliged to act reasonably in deciding to dismiss an employee and is not obliged to give reasons or to act in accordance with the rules of natural justice in connection with such dismissal (see Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66 at 71–72, [1964] AC 40 at 64–66 per Lord Reid and Malloch v Aberdeen Corp [1971] 2 All ER 1278 at 1281–1282, 1286, 1292, 1294, 1297–1298, [1971] 1 WLR 1578 at 1581, 1586, 1593, 1595–1596, 1599 per Lord Reid, Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest, Lord Guest, Lord Wilberforce and Lord Simon of Glaisdale).
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I turn now to term (b). I do not consider that it is right to imply such a term. It is neither necessary to imply such a term for the contract of employment to function, nor is it obvious that the parties would have envisaged such a term. Indeed, one can easily conceive of cases where it would be inappropriate to put to the employee the matters the subject of the investigation which gave rise to the suspension. I have in mind cases where the employee may have been alleged to have victimised or threatened other employees, who may have gone in confidence to the employer to complain, or cases where information has been given to the employer by the police on a strictly confidential basis, because the employee should not be told that the police are carrying out investigations.
In any event, it seems to me that term (b) is getting close to alleging that the rules of natural justice should apply between employer and employee to the extent that the employer should not be entitled to make a decision which may substantially affect the employee without first informing the employee that the decision is about to be made. I do not consider it right to import the rules of natural justice, which are connected with judicial decisions and some administrative decisions, into the purely contractual relationship of employer and employee. There is no precedent for it, and indeed the argument that any such rules should be applied appears to me to be inconsistent with the observations in the House of Lords in the two cases to which I have referred. I have in mind particularly the reasoning of Lord Wilberforce in Malloch v Aberdeen Corp in the passage to which I have made reference.
Quite apart from this, it seems to me wholly unrealistic to contend that the plaintiffs were unaware of the reason for their suspension. They were suspended on the very day that they were charged, and they were suspended by the employee of the defendant who, as I understand it, actually collected them from the police station. If they had had any doubts about the reasons for their suspensions, I cannot but believe that they would have taken the matter up with the defendant, either through their solicitors or through their trade union. Furthermore, it seems to me that, on a fair reading, the letters of 5 November 1987, which they each received, informed them of the reason. In any event, I find it very hard to see what damage the plaintiffs can say they suffered from any breach of the implied term, if, contrary to my view, there was such an implied term and there was a breach of it.
I turn then to term (c). I decline to imply this term effectively for the same reason as I decline to imply term (b).
Even if term (c) is to be implied, I am by no means satisfied that the plaintiffs were not given the opportunity to make representations within a reasonable time. For reasons which I shall develop a little more fully later in this judgment, it does not seem to me that the defendant was unreasonable in waiting until all the Calthorpe House employees had been interviewed about the incident before interviewing the plaintiffs.
Quite apart from this, even if there was a breach of term (c), I do not consider that the plaintiffs have established any damage as a result. It will be recalled that, when they were eventually interviewed in March 1988, they refused to say anything about the incident. On the balance of probabilities, it seems to me that, if they had been interviewed immediately after they pleaded not guilty in the magistrates’ court in November 1987, they would have adopted exactly the same position: they had retained the same solicitors who were acting for them in March 1988, and who had advised them then to say nothing. Even if the plaintiffs had adopted a different attitude in November 1987 and given their version of what happened at the Wilmington Arms, I do not think that the defendant would have
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taken a different view from that which it did, namely not to lift the suspension until it had interviewed all the relevant Calthorpe House employees and had considered the effect of their evidence.
I turn then to terms (d) and (e). Bearing in mind the authorities to which I have referred, there is some apparent force in the contention that there should be no implied term that the right of suspension in cl 7 of the contract will be exercised reasonably. However, I do not think that the authorities are by any means conclusive of the issue.
The mere fact that there is no general obligation on an employer to act reasonably seems to me, in the end, not to take matters much further. One is here concerned with the proper construction of cl 7, and whether there is an implied term that the defendant will exercise its power thereunder reasonably, and not with a general principle. Equally, the fact that an employer does not have to act reasonably when exercising his express or implied right to determine a contract of employment does not seem to me to lead to the conclusion that the right to suspend in cl 7 of this contract, on its true construction, can be exercised unreasonably. Quite apart from this general point, it is worth bearing in mind that the employer/employee relationship continues during (and quite probably after) the period of suspension, whereas dismissal determines it forever.
I was referred to White v Reflecting Roadstuds Ltd [1991] IRLR 331. I have to say that I find it a difficult case. As in United Bank Ltd v Akhtar [1989] IRLR 507 the Employment Appeal Tribunal was there concerned with an employer exercising his purported right under a mobility clause in an employment contract. The judgment of the Employment Appeal Tribunal in White v Reflecting Roadstuds Ltd, which was given by Wood J, states, in terms, that the decision in United Bank Ltd v Akhtar did not decide that it was an implied term that the mobility clause would be implemented reasonably by an employer, and indeed it was said (at 335) that any such finding would have been contrary to the approach of the Court of Appeal in Western Excavating (ECC) Ltd v Sharp [1978] 1 All ER 713, [1978] QB 761. That is an observation upon which the defendant justifiably relies in the present case. However, Wood J went on to say that such a clause could not be implemented capriciously or if ‘there were no reasonable or sufficient grounds for the view that [the employee] required to be moved’ (at 335).
I have some difficulty in fully comprehending the distinction between implying a term that the exercise of a discretion should be effected reasonably, on the one hand, and, on the other hand, implying a term that the exercise of a discretion must only be on reasonable grounds. So far as there is a distinction, it seems to me that the judgment in White v Reflecting Roadstuds Ltd assists the plaintiffs’ argument as to the implication of a term that the right to suspend under cl 7 in the instant case must only be exercised on reasonable grounds, just as much as it may be said that it assists the defendant’s contention that there is no general implication of reasonableness into cl 7 (at 335).
I have come to the conclusion that the plaintiffs’ argument on reasonableness is correct, at least to the extent that there is to be implied into cl 7 a term that the defendant’s right to suspend will not be exercised on unreasonable grounds. (That is not precisely how terms (d) or (e) are pleaded, but I do not think anything hangs on that.)
In the first place, it appears to me significant that cl 7 entitles the defendant to suspend not only on full pay (as happened in the instant case), but on no pay. In my judgment, the fact that the defendant could suspend without pay for an indeterminate period does support the plaintiffs’ contention that some sort of
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reasonableness implication is appropriate. Secondly, I think the plaintiffs derive some support for their contention that the power to suspend should be subject to some sort of reasonableness implication from observations of the Employment Appeal Tribunal in A Dakri & Co Ltd v Tiffen [1981] ICR 256 esp at 260. The defendant urges on me that I should prefer the approach of the Scottish Employment Appeal Tribunal in Kenneth MacRae & Co Ltd v Dawson [1984] IRLR 5, where it was held that there was no implied term in the contract there under consideration that any suspension would be for a reasonable period. However, doing the best I can with that report, it appears to me that the suspension clause in that case was quite clear in its terms, to the effect that the suspension could be for whatever period the employer wanted. Thirdly, it seems to me that the conclusion I have reached is consistent with the approach of the Employment Appeal Tribunal in White v Reflecting Roadstuds Ltd [1991] IRLR 331 at 335.
The defendant argues in the instant case that there is no need to imply a reasonableness term, because the employee can always rely upon the term implied into all contracts of employment that the employer will not act so as to render the performance of the contract by the employee intolerable: see eg per Browne-Wilkinson J in Woods v WM Car Services (Peterborough) Ltd [1981] ICR 666 at 670. In my judgment, there is very little difference between a provision such as cl 7 being subject to an ‘intolerability implied term’ and being subject to a ‘reasonableness implied term’. It is also said on behalf of the defendant that by implying any sort of reasonableness term, the court would be stepping into the arena of the employer/employee relationship. However, in my view, in holding that an employer’s contractual discretionary right is subject to an implied term that it will only be exercised on reasonable grounds, the court is not putting itself in a position where it will substitute its own judgment for that of the employer. The court is merely holding that the employer cannot exercise his power under the relevant contractual provision on unreasonable grounds. The band of reasonableness may be wide, and it is only if the employer goes outside that band that the court can interfere.
Accordingly, in so far as terms (d) and (e) are based on reasonableness, the plaintiffs succeed to the extent that I judge it right to imply a term that the defendant will only exercise its right to suspend under cl 7 on reasonable grounds and will only continue that suspension so long as there are reasonable grounds for doing so. However, I do not think that the plaintiffs succeed any further than this on terms (d) and (e). In the first place, to go any wider on reasonableness would, I think, be to fall foul of the approach of the Court of Appeal in Western Excavating (ECC) Ltd v Sharp, as explained by Wood J in White v Reflecting Roadstuds Ltd [1991] IRLR 331 at 335. So far as the obligation to act in accordance with the principles of natural justice is concerned, I do not consider the plaintiffs can succeed. I have already rejected an application of those principles to the contractual right to suspend so far as terms (a) and (b) are concerned, and my observations apply to terms (d) and (e).
So far as fairness is concerned, if that involves balancing the interests of the employer and employee, I can see no warrant for implying such an obligation on the defendant in the exercise of its powers under cl 7. It is getting close to alleging an obligation to act in accordance with natural justice. In any event, it seems to me that any obligation to act fairly runs into two further problems. First, it falls foul of the general principles upon which terms are implied into contracts: I do not see it as necessary or obvious that such a term be implied. Secondly, it involves
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a severe risk of the court having to descend into the decision-making process and involving itself more closely than is appropriate in the administrative and organisational decisions of the defendant as employer.
However, having decided that there is an implied term upon which the plaintiffs can rely in principle, I have reached the conclusion that the defendant was not in breach of it. In other words, I do not consider that it can be fairly said that the suspensions or their continuance were effected by the defendant on other than reasonable grounds. Further, if there is an implied term that the defendant would only exercise its power to suspend reasonably, I consider that such an implied term was satisfied in the instant case. It is true that the suspensions were for a substantial time, namely six months, and anyone must have sympathy with the plaintiffs in this connection. However, I have to ask myself whether the defendant had reasonable grounds for effecting the suspension in the first place, and whether there were reasonable grounds for continuing it for the six-month period. So far as the initial decision to suspend is concerned, it seems to me that it was made on reasonable grounds. The alleged offences against the three plaintiffs were serious; the very fact that the police had charged them with the offences suggested that there was definite evidence that they might have been guilty. It was certainly not unreasonable for the defendant to be concerned about the suitability of the plaintiffs to continue working in close proximity with many other employees at Mount Pleasant, bearing in mind the nature of the allegations made against them. The fact that the victims were other Post Office workers, and that the plaintiffs had been wholly or partially dressed in Post Office uniforms in a public place at the time of the alleged offences were also factors which could perfectly properly have been taken into account by the defendant when deciding to suspend the plaintiffs.
So far as the length of suspension is concerned, counsel for the defendant was clearly right to point out that one should look at events as they occurred, and not with the wisdom of hindsight. The six-month period looks a long time in retrospect, but that is not, in my judgment, how one should judge the length of the suspension. The first five or six weeks’ delay was due to Mr Curtis waiting to see whether the plaintiffs pleaded guilty or not, on the basis that if they pleaded guilty it would be unnecessary to carry out investigations. That seems to me to be wholly justifiable. Thereafter, he very promptly initiated the first interviews. The next three-week delay was caused by assimilating the inconclusive nature of the evidence gathered from the first four Calthorpe House employees and awaiting the return from leave of the two Calthorpe Houses employees interviewed in early December. There then followed a delay of some twelve weeks, owing to the difficulty which Mr Curtis had in finding Mr Sheddon, who he believed to be a very important witness. Bearing in mind Mr Curtis’s understandable, indeed correct, assessment of the evidence he had obtained by early December 1987, it was a perfectly rational opinion for him to form that Mr Sheddon was an essential witness. Whilst the counsel of perfection, particularly with wisdom of hindsight, might suggest that Mr Curtis could have found Mr Sheddon earlier, it does not seem to me that the steps that he took in tracking down Mr Sheddon justify adverse criticism. Certainly, the fact that Mr Sheddon’s evidence provided completely unhelpful is not something which Mr Curtis could reasonably have foreseen.
In my opinion, having gathered the evidence together, Mr Curtis was clearly justified in forming the view that, having done his best to collate all the evidence from sources other than the plaintiffs, there was insufficient evidence to conclude that the plaintiffs were responsible for the violence which occurred at the
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Wilmington Arms. The delay which followed the interview with Mr Sheddon was not long, and was partially caused by the plaintiffs’ solicitors writing to Mr Curtis and explaining that they had advised the plaintiffs not to talk to the defendant about the incident, which led Mr Curtis seeking the advice of the Post Office solicitors. Thereafter, having interviewed the plaintiffs and obtained assurances about their future conduct, he reinstated them.
In my view, that was not an unreasonable course for the defendant to take. To put it more accurately, the defendant, as it seems to me, had reasonable grounds for continuing suspension from 7 October to 5 April. On the face of it, the point made by counsel for the plaintiffs that nothing had really changed between the date upon which the plaintiffs were suspended and the date upon which they were reinstated is a good one: on both dates they stood charged with serious offences, and on both dates the defendant had no clear idea whether they were guilty or not. Accordingly, it is argued on behalf of the plaintiffs, it cannot have been reasonable for the defendant to suspend the plaintiffs initially and continue the suspension for six months. Although initially attracted by that argument, I have come to the clear conclusion that it should be rejected. Mr Curtis was quite rightly embarking on an exercise which it is appropriate for an employer to undertake when considering whether or not to dismiss an employee who is suspected of an offence: see the decision of the Employment Appeal Tribunal in British Home Stores Ltd v Burchell [1980] ICR 303. He was aware that before he could take any disciplinary action with regard to the plaintiffs, he had to be satisfied in his own mind that they were more likely than not guilty of the offences of which they stood charged. He carried out as thorough an investigation as reasonably could have been expected of him, at the end of which he was by no means satisfied on the evidence he had got that the plaintiffs were in fact responsible for the offences of which they stood charged. Accordingly, he decided that the right course to take was to reinstate them and await the outcome of the criminal proceedings.
I am fortified in the conclusion I have reached by another point made by counsel for the defendant. He contended that it would have been perfectly proper for the defendant simply to suspend the plaintiffs on the date they were charged, with a view to awaiting the outcome of the criminal proceedings. While he may have put the point a little high, there is some force in his additional point that that is what the plaintiffs’ solicitors themselves were inviting the defendant to do in their letter of 19 February 1988. However, in this connection it seems to me that the essential point is that it would have been difficult to say that the defendant had exercised its power of suspension under cl 7 on unreasonable grounds or in an unreasonable way if it had suspended the plaintiffs from the moment that they were charged until their acquittal without making inquiries, on the basis that the investigations envisaged by cl 7 were, as it were, being carried out by the Crown in the criminal proceedings.
Accordingly, I am of the view that the plaintiffs’ claim fails on liability.
In case this matter goes further, and because I have heard full argument on the point, I turn to the plaintiffs’ claim for damages, should they have succeeded on liability. It involves consideration of a point of principle, which I do not find entirely easy. It is the defendant’s contention that, even if the plaintiffs succeed on liability, they cannot succeed in damages, because, as they were suspended on full pay, the plaintiffs’ only loss arises from their inability to work overtime, and they had no right to work overtime.
In my judgment, unless the plaintiffs can establish a right to work overtime, and therefore to receive overtime payments, they could not succeed in recovering
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any damages in this action even if they succeeded on liability. On the face of it, the decision of the Court of Appeal in Chaplin v Hicks [1911] 2 KB 786, [1911–13] All ER Rep 224 might suggest that damages based on the loss of a chance can be awarded even if the chance is to recover a sum to which the plaintiff is not strictly entitled. However, I think that, as explained in Lavarack v Woods of Colchester Ltd [1966] 3 All ER 683 at 691, [1967] 1 QB 278 at 295 per Diplock LJ, the decision in Chaplin v Hicks, as properly analysed, does depend upon the fact that the plaintiff had a legal right to the sum which, as a result of the defendant’s breach of contract, she lost the prospect of obtaining. It also seems to me that the decisions of the Court of Appeal in Lavarack v Woods of Colchester Ltd itself and in Gunton v Richmond Upon Thames London Borough [1980] 3 All ER 577, [1981] Ch 448 are consistent with this view.
In those circumstances, can the plaintiffs establish a right, as opposed to an obligation, to work overtime? I have already referred to cl 3 of the plaintiffs’ contract, which refers to an obligation, and does not refer to a right on the employee to work overtime. Accordingly, in order to succeed on damages, the plaintiffs have to rely on an implied term, and it is in this connection that term (a) comes into focus. In the absence of authority, I would find it difficult to imply a term that the plaintiffs had a right to work overtime.
Having said that, the plaintiffs’ contention on this aspect does receive a degree of assistance from authority. Counsel for the plaintiffs cited Devonald v Rosser & Sons [1906] 2 KB 728, [1904–7] All ER Rep 988, but I think that case is fairly easily distinguishable, on the basis that the employee was entitled to be paid only in respect of work actually done; given that he had to make himself available for the employer full time, if the employer required it, it is easy to understand how the court was prepared to imply an obligation on the employer to provide work. A case of more assistance on this point to the plaintiffs is Bauman v Hulton Press Ltd [1952] 2 All ER 1121. There, the plaintiff was to receive a fixed sum and also a payment in respect of specific items of work done for the defendant. Streatfeild J held that there was an implied obligation to provide that plaintiff with work. I think that case is distinguishable from the instant case, principally for three reasons. First, it does appear that the fixed rate of pay received by the plaintiff was a much lower proportion of the total receipts he can reasonably have expected from commissions. In other words, the fixed rate of pay was little more than a retainer. Secondly, the case appears to have turned essentially on the juridical nature of the relationship between the plaintiff and the defendant rather than what the implied rights and obligations of the parties were once the nature of the relationship had been established (at 1122). Thirdly, the terms of the contract between the parties were very different from the terms in the instant case (at 1122). Accordingly, I do not think that that case can be decisive of the issue in the instant case.
The third, and perhaps the most formidable, authority cited on behalf of the plaintiffs on this aspect is the decision in Langston v Amalgamated Union of Engineering Workers [1974] 1 All ER 980, [1974] 1 WLR 185. In the first round of this case it seems to me that the furthest one can go is to say that the Court of Appeal held that, on the facts of the case, it was arguable that it was a breach of contract for the employer to suspend the employee on full pay, because he was obliged to provide the employee with work. However, when the matter was sent back to the National Industrial Relations Court (see Langston v Amalgamated Union of Engineering Workers (No 2) [1974] ICR 510), it seems to me that part of the ratio is, on the face of it, of considerable assistance to the plaintiffs in the instant case; and the observations of the court do support the proposition that, because of the
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fact that he would thereby earn overtime, the plaintiff did have an implied right to be provided with work, and in particular with overtime, by the employer (see esp at 522 per Sir John Donaldson P).
In light of that decision, it is with some diffidence that I have reached the conclusion that, even if they had succeeded on liability, the plaintiffs would nonetheless have failed to establish any claim to damages. In seeking to establish terms (b) to (e), counsel for the plaintiffs quite rightly emphasised that one should be careful of having too much regard to previous instance where the court had implied terms or declined to imply terms, on the basis that each contract must be construed in light of its own particular provisions. It seems to me that that must apply to term (a) as well. None of the reports of the decisions at the various stages in Langston’s case indicate what the terms of the contract in that case were. Nor do any of the reports indicate whether the employee in that case had been employed by the employer and provided with overtime by him prior to entering into the contract of employment which was being considered.
In the instant case, I have to construe the particular contract of employment which the parties have signed. I think there are a number of reasons to support the contention that there is no implied provision to the effect of term (a). First, the contact specifically deals with overtime in cl 3, and imposes an obligation on the employee to work overtime if the employer requires it, but signally omits any concomitant obligation on the employer to provide overtime work on any basis whatever to the employee. Secondly, it does not provide for the employee to work at any particular place, and indeed provides that the employee may be required to work somewhere other than the initial place of employment. The parties must have appreciated that different amounts of overtime might be available at different places, and I think this provision is more consistent with the defendant’s contention that there is no obligation to provide overtime. Thirdly, the nature of the plaintiffs’ case on term (a) effectively involves an implied obligation on the defendant to act fairly or equitably between the various employees in apportioning overtime. I have already indicated that I consider that the court should be slow to imply an obligation on an employer to act fairly or in accordance with the rules of natural justice in carrying out a discretionary power under a contract of employment. Fourthly, there is no suggestion that the plaintiffs had been employed by the defendant prior to 1984, so it cannot be suggested on behalf of the plaintiffs that there was some sort of course of dealing prior to the contract which would have given rise to the argument that both parties were aware that overtime at Mount Pleasant was allocated by the defendant between employees on an equitable basis in practice (as I understand has remained the case at all times since before 1984). Fifthly, cl 2 of the contract provides what the plaintiff is entitled to by way of pay, and it seems to me that to accede to the plaintiffs’ case on this issue would not merely be adding an implied employer’s obligation in respect of overtime to an express employee’s obligation in respect of overtime in cl 3, but it would also be adding an implied obligation on the employer to make payments to the employee to an express obligation in cl 2 of the contract so far as basic pay is concerned. Sixthly, it seems to me that a provision such as term (a) is neither necessary nor obvious.
In these circumstances, I must dismiss the claims of all three plaintiffs.
Action dismissed.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Re Hartlebury Printers Ltd (in liq) and others
[1993] 1 All ER 470
Categories: EMPLOYMENT; Industrial relations
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MORRITT J
Hearing Date(s): 13, 16, 20 MARCH 1992
Redundancy – Employer’s duty to consult appropriate trade union – Employer ‘proposing to dismiss [employees] as redundant’ – Proposing – Consultation with union required to take place ‘at the earliest opportunity’ – Company – Winding-up order – All employees automatically made redundant without union consultation when company wound up by court – Whether administrators under duty to consult union before making application to court which resulted in winding up – Whether administrators ‘proposing to dismiss [employees] as redundant’ – Whether administration order a ‘special circumstance’ relieving corporate employer from duty to consult union on proposed redundancies – Employment Protection Act 1975, ss 99, 100, 101 – Insolvency Act 1986, s 130 – Council Directive (EEC) 75/129.
Between January 1989 and April 1990 the defendant company suffered trading losses in excess of £15m and it became apparent to the directors that without fundamental reorganisation the business would cease to be viable by the end of May 1990. The company accordingly entered into negotiations with a prospective purchaser in an attempt to secure its long-term future but was advised to seek an administration order to protect it from creditors during the period of the negotiations. Accordingly, on 31 May 1990 an administration order was made in respect of the company and administrators were appointed. The viability of the administration depended, inter alia, on the company maintaining its orders from customers. Prior to the commencement of the administration the directors considered mitigating the costs of the administration by reducing manning but that was judged inappropriate given the need to maintain a viable operation. Subsequently it became apparent that the conditions for the viability of the administration were not being met because of lost orders. On 25 June the prospective purchaser of the company indicated that its new business structure would involve the dismissal of some employees. The employee’s union was informed of that fact by the administrators and on 29 June it approved 28 proposed redundancies. However, as a result of the failure to arrange further funding for the administration, the administrators applied to the court for directions recommending that the administration continue for the time being in the hope that the company could be rescued. The application was heard on 3 July, when the judge directed that the company be compulsorily wound up. The effect of the winding-up order was to make all 136 employees redundant. The union applied to an industrial tribunal for a protective award under s 101a of the Employment Protection Act 1975 and applied to the court for leave under s 130(2)b of the Insolvency Act 1986 to commence and/or pursue those proceedings. The union contended that for the purposes of ss 99c and 100d of the 1975 Act the company was ‘an employer proposing to dismiss as redundant’ the company’s employees when the administration order was applied for or that the
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administrators were likewise ‘proposing to dismiss as redundant’ the company’s employees when the winding-up order was made and that in both cases there had been a failure to consult ‘from the earliest opportunity’ as required by s 99(3) of that Act. The union further contended that, construing ss 99 and 100 of the 1975 Act in accordance with Council Directive (EEC) 75/129e, which envisaged that the duty to consult arose when an employer was ‘contemplating’ redundancies, the administrators must have contemplated when they decided to apply to the court for directions that the discharge of the administration order and the winding up of the company would result in the redundancies. The administrators contended, inter alia, that, where a company was in administration, that in itself was a ‘special circumstance’ within s 99(8) of the 1975 Act exempting them from the consultation requirements in s 99(3) and that the proposal for the winding up was made by the administrators not as agents for the company but as officers of the court.
Held – (1) On the true construction of ss 99 and 100 of the 1975 Act an employer ‘proposing to dismiss [employees] as redundant’ did not include an employer who was merely thinking about the possibility of redundancies since ‘contemplating’ in Council Directive (EEC) 75/129 was to be equated with ‘proposing’ and an employer who was merely thinking about the possibility of redundancies could not be said to be ‘proposing to dismiss as redundant’ any employees. Accordingly, the fact that the administrators recognised the possibility of redundancies if the court did not accept their suggestion that the administration should continue but instead wound up the company was not sufficient to give rise to an obligation to consult. It followed that there was no prima facie breach of duty (see p 478 d to f, post).
(2) An administration order was not in itself a ‘special circumstance’ within s 99(8) of the 1975 Act thereby relieving a company employer from the duty to consult the appropriate trade union on proposed redundancies. Whether a company in administration was relieved from that requirement depended on the circumstances of the case when considered in the light of the duties and responsibilities of the administrator, and a combination of those circumstances together with the existence of an administration order might give rise to special circumstances within s 99(8) when neither would when taken in isolation. On the facts, however, since the company when in administration had not proposed to dismiss as redundant all its employees, the questions of whether there were special circumstances and whether there were any reasonably practicable steps open to the administrators did not arise. The union’s application would therefore be dismissed (see p 480 a to g, post); Clarks of Hove Ltd v Bakers’ Union [1979] 1 All ER 152 considered.
Notes
For the effect of a winding-up order, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1489.
For an employer’s duty to consult trade unions about proposed redundancies, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 381, and for cases on the subject, see 20 Digest (reissue) 446–448, 3674–3680.
For the Employment Protection Act 1975, ss 99, 100, 101, see 16 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 180, 182, 183.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 130, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 811.
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Cases referred to in judgment
Atlantic Computer Systems plc, Re [1990] BCLC 729; rvsd in part [1992] 1 All ER 476, [1992] Ch 505, CA.
Capita Finance Group Ltd v Rothwells Ltd (1989) 15 ACLR 348, NSW SC.
Clarks of Hove Ltd v Bakers’ Union [1979] 1 All ER 152, [1978] 1 WLR 1207, CA.
Cases also cited
Association of Patternmakers and Allied Craftsman v Kirvin Ltd [1978] IRLR 318, EAT.
Barrow Borough Transport Ltd, Re [1990] Ch 227.
Bristol Airport plc v Powdrill [1990] 2 All ER 493, [1990] Ch 744, CA.
Charnley Davies Ltd, Re (No 2) [1990] BCLC 760.
Currie v Consolidated Kent Collieries Corp Ltd [1906] 1 KB 134, CA.
Francovich v Italy Joined cases C-6/90 and C-9/90 [1992] IRLR 84, CJEC.
Hamish Armour v Association of Scientific Technical and Managerial Staffs [1979] IRLR 24, EAT.
Marleasing SA v Comercial Internacional de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135.
Sovereign Distribution Services Ltd v Transport and General Worker’ Union [1990] ICR 31, EAT.
Spiller-French (Holdings) Ltd v Union of Shop Distributive and Allied Workers [1980] 1 All ER 231, EAT.
Union of Shop Distributive and Allied Works v Leancut Bacon Ltd (in liq) [1981] IRLR 295, EAT.
Summons
By summonses dated 8 January 1991 addressed to Ian Napier Carruthers and David Robert Wilton of Messrs Cork Gully, the joint liquidators of Hartlebury Printers Ltd, Hartlebury Reprographics Ltd and Optoscan Ltd, the applicant, the Graphical Paper and Media Union, applied pursuant to s 130(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 for an order that the union be at liberty to commence and/or continue proceedings against each of the respondent companies before an industrial tribunal in relation to complaints made to the tribunal by the National Graphical Association (1982) and the West Midlands Graphical Society for a declaration and protective award pursuant to s 10 of the Employment Protective Act 1975 in relation to the companies’ alleged breaches of s 99 of that Act. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Ingrid Simler (instructed by Kershaws) for the applicant.
Mark Phillips (instructed by Wragge & Co, Birmingham) for the liquidators.
Cur adv vult
20 March 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
MORRITT J. By these three summonses the Graphical Paper and Media Union seeks leave pursuant to s 130(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 to commence and/or continue proceedings against Hartlebury Printers Ltd, Hartlebury Reprographics Ltd and Optoscan Ltd, each of which was compulsorily wound up on 3 July 1990. On 14 September 1990 the union applied to an industrial tribunal for a declaration and protective award pursuant to s 101 of the Employment Protection Act 1975
Page 473 of [1993] 1 All ER 470
on the ground that each of the three companies had dismissed all its respective employees as redundant without complying with its duty to consult the union as imposed by s 99 of the 1975 Act. Those are the proceedings which the union wishes to continue or, if necessary, to commence.
The relevant provisions of s 99 are as follows:
‘(1) An employer proposing to dismiss as redundant an employee of a description in respect of which an independent trade union is recognised by him shall consult representatives of that trade union about the dismissal in accordance with the following provisions of this section …
(3) The consultation required by this section shall begin at the earliest opportunity, and shall in any event begin—(a) where the employer is proposing to dismiss as redundant 100 or more employees at one establishment within a period of 90 days or less, at least 90 days before the first of those dismissals takes effect; or (b) where the employer is proposing to dismiss as redundant 10 or more employees at one establishment within a period of 30 days or less, at least 30 days before the first of those dismissals takes effect …
(5) For the purposes of the consultation required by this section the employer shall disclose in writing to trade union representatives—(a) the reasons for his proposals; (b) the numbers and descriptions of employees whom it is proposed to dismiss as redundant; (c) the total number of employees of any such description employed by the employer at the establishment in question; (d) the proposed method of selecting the employees who may be dismissed; and (e) the proposed method of carrying out the dismissals, with due regard to any agreed procedure, including the period over which the dismissals are to take effect …
(7) In the course of the consultation required by this section the employer shall—(a) consider any representations made by the trade union representatives; and (b) reply to those representations and, if he rejects any of those representations, state his reasons.
(8) If in any case there are special circumstances which render it not reasonably practicable for the employer to comply with any of the requirements of subsections (3), (5) or (7) above, the employer shall take all such steps towards compliance with that requirement as are reasonably practicable in those circumstances.
(9) This section shall not be construed as conferring any rights on a trade union or an employee except as provided by sections 101 to 103 below.’
Section 126(1) incorporates the definition of ‘employer’ contained in s 30(1) Trade Union and Labour Relations Act 1974 which, so far as relevant, provides:
‘ “employer” … (a) where the reference is to an employer in relation to an employee means the person by whom the employee is (or in a case where the employment has ceased, was) employed and (b) in any other case means a person regarded in that person’s capacity as one for whom one or more workers work or have worked or normally work or seek to work …’
Section 100 of the 1975 Act provides:
‘(1) An employer proposing to dismiss as redundant—(a) 100 or more employees at one establishment within a period of 90 days or less; or (b) 10 or more employees at one establishment within a period of 30 days or less shall notify the Secretary of State, in writing, of his proposal—(i) in a case falling within paragraph (a) above, at least 90 days before the first of those
Page 474 of [1993] 1 All ER 470
dismissals takes effect; and (ii) in a case falling within paragraph (b) above, at least 30 days before the first of those dismissals takes effect, and where the notice relates to employees of any description in respect of which an independent trade union is recognised by him, he shall give a copy of the notice to representatives of that union …
(6) If in any case there are special circumstances rendering it not reasonably practicable for the employer to comply with any of the requirements of subsections (1) to (5) above, he shall take all such steps towards compliance with that requirement as are reasonably practicable in those circumstances.’
Section 105(1) renders an employer who fails to comply with s 100 liable to a fine.
Section 101, so far as relevant, provides:
‘(1) An appropriate trade union may present a complaint to an industrial tribunal on the ground that an employer has dismissed as redundant or is proposing to dismiss as redundant one or more employees and has not complied with any of the requirements of section 99 above.
(2) If on a complaint under this section a question arises as to the matters referred to in section 99(8) above, it shall be for the employer to show—(a) that there were special circumstances which rendered it not reasonably practicable for him to comply with any requirement of section 99 above; and (b) that he took all such steps towards compliance with that requirement as were reasonably practicable in those circumstances.
(3) Where the tribunal finds a complaint under subsection (1) above well-founded it shall make a declaration to that effect and may also make a protective award in accordance with subsection (4) below.
(4) A protective award is an award that in respect of such descriptions of employees as may be specified in the award, being employees who have been dismissed, or whom it is proposed to dismiss, as redundant, and in respect of whose dismissal or proposed dismissal the employer has failed to comply with any requirement of section 99 above, the employer shall pay remuneration for a protected period …’
The amount of any such award is dealt with in s 101(5) and payment thereof may be enforced by an employee pursuant to s 103 by a complaint to an industrial tribunal. If the employer is insolvent the employee is entitled to recover the amount due to him from the redundancy fund and the Secretary of State is subrogated to the employee’s rights against the employer (see ss 122 and 125 of the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978).
The three companies in question formed part of the Hartlebury Group. There is no relevant factual distinction between them and I shall refer to each of them as ‘the company’. The group carried on business as printers. Between January 1989 and April 1990 it sustained trading losses in excess of £15m and had lost one of its major customers. The position by mid-April 1990 was that it was evident to the directors that without a fundamental reorganisation of the group’s debt structure the business was not viable and the group would founder by the end of May 1990 through distress proceedings threatened by its landlord. At this stage any operational changes in manning levels or methods of working would not have affected the group’s ability to pay its debts and any associated cost savings would not have been sufficient to avoid the substantial loss caused principally through the interest charges on the group’s burgeoning level of debt.
The directors were negotiating with two prospective purchasers, one of which
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was Times Publishing of Singapore. On 11 May 1990 the group approached Messrs Cork Gully for advice. By a report dated 31 May Cork Gully advised the directors to seek an administration order ‘to provide the protection from creditors needed to allow time for an agreement to be concluded with a third party which would ensure the survival of the business’. On the same day Vinelott J made an administration order in respect of the company for the purposes prescribed by s 8(3)(a), (c) and (d) of the Insolvency Act 1986, namely survival of the company, or the whole or part of its undertaking as a going concern, a voluntary arrangement and the more advantageous realisation of its assets. At about the same time Times Publishing provided a letter of intent to acquire the group’s business which envisaged that six to eight weeks would be required to complete the negotiations. Three factors were fundamental to the success of the negotiations, namely acceptance by unsecured creditors of a voluntary arrangement that would substantially reduce the group’s immediate burden of debt, that the leasing company should accept a substantial write-off of the capital element of the lease liability and hence corresponding reduction in lease payments, and that the landlord should accept revisions to the terms of the tenancy agreement for the Hartlebury premises and in doing so forgo any increase at the next rent review in September 1990.
The viability of the administration depended on the company maintaining its orders and being under no liability to make payments to the lessors for the printing equipment as part of the costs of the administration. In addition, the administrators obtained an indemnity for £250,000 from Schroeder Ventures Ltd to cover the costs of the administration and thought that the group had £500,000-worth of assets subject to floating charges which, by virtue of s 19(4) of the 1986 Act, would be available to pay the expenses of the administration.
Immediately prior to the commencement of the administration consideration was given to mitigating the costs of the administration by reducing manning. After a detailed review, this was judged to be inappropriate because it would have had no significant effect on the trading losses and because there was limited scope for reduced manning if a viable operation was to be retained. In addition, it could have restricted the options available to Times Publishing and the costs of the redundancy settlements would have exceeded the anticipated savings under the period of the negotiations.
On 1 June 1990 at meetings of the company’s employees the administrators explained the reasons for and implications of the administration order. On 14 June, at further meetings of the company’s employees the administrators advised them that trading had progressed as expected and that representatives of Times Publishing would be visiting the following week. Each employee was given a letter making it plain that they continued to be employed by the company and that the administrators had not adopted their contracts of employment. On 20 June the administrators explained to a representative of the union the objects of the administration, but by the end of the third week of the administration, namely 20 June, it was apparent that the conditions for the viability of the administration were not being met. First, a number of customers cancelled their orders. Second, it was discovered that the value of the assets of the group, subject to floating charges, was only £100,000. Third, the judgment of Ferris J in Re Atlantic Computer Systems plc [1990] BCLC 729 suggested that leasing charges would be payable as expenses of the administration. By the week commencing 25 June 1990 expenditure was exceeding income at the rate of £200,000 per week. The indemnity cover from Schroeder Ventures Ltd, which had been increased to £350,000, would be exhausted by 1 July.
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On 25 June Times Publishing gave the first indication that the structure of the business it was interested in acquiring would involve dismissing some of the employees. The union was so informed and on 27 June one of the administrators met a representative of the union to advise him of the terms proposed by Times Publishing which would involve 28 redundancies in the group. The proposals and redundancies were approved by the union on 29 June.
On 27 June the administrators wrote to Schroeder Ventures Ltd setting out the financial situation in the administration and stating that unless arrangements for further funding were concluded by 9 am, Friday 29 June, the administrators would have to apply to the court for directions. No such arrangements were made.
On 2 July Mr Carruthers, one of the administrators, swore an affidavit setting out the history of the administration. In paras 24, 25 and 26 he stated:
‘24. Based on progress to date I believe that the opportunity still remains for the purposes laid down in section 8(3)(a), (b) and (d) of the Act to be achieved. The principal difference between the present position in the administration and that envisaged at the time the administration petitions were presented is that the cushion provided by floating charge assets to meet any unexpected deterioration in the group’s position is almost non-existent. Had this position been known at the time the petitions were presented it is unlikely that I would have recommended the appointment of administrators.
25. In summary, achievements to date include (i) progress made in the negotiations with Times Publishing (ii) constructive discussions with creditors and leasing companies, and (iii) the financial support already provided by Schroeders and the indication which they have given that further support will be provided.
26. The administrators are concerned that the insufficiency of floating charge assets leaves little scope for unforeseen circumstances to be dealt with. Nevertheless it is our view that the administration should be allowed to continue at least for the time being in the hope that the purposes for which the orders were made might be achieved.’
The application came before Scott J on 3 July. The order he made directed the administrators to present a petition for the winding up of the company and dispensed with its advertisement. Scott J ordered that upon presentation of the petition the administration order should be discharged, the administrators be released, the company be wound up and the administrators be appointed liquidators of the company. The effect of the winding-up order was to discharge all the company’s employees. In respect of the respective companies there were 48, 47 and 41 employees.
In the complaint to the industrial tribunal Mr Lowe, the union’s representative, states:
‘I contend that there has been a failure to consult in accordance with statutory provisions and claim a protective award. [Subsequently, after setting out some of the facts to which I have referred, he continued:] I contend that (a) previously agreed redundancies could have been implemented to rationalise the Company, (b) there was time to consult and discuss and possibly agree further redundancy measures to maintain a going concern (c) discussions with the third party were still progressing, eventually a third party did purchase part of the assets of Hartlebury Group establishing a new trading company, (d) we had been led to believe that the approval of revised
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terms and conditions along with redundancies would secure the ongoing business.’
It is common ground that, given the numbers of the company’s employees made redundant by the winding-up order the minimum period of consultation required was at least 30 days before the first of the dismissals took effect: see s 99(3)(b) of the 1975 Act. But the union contends that that subsection requires consultation to begin at the earliest opportunity. The case for the union is that prior to the administration order the directors must have contemplated or seriously considered the possibility of redundancies but did not then make any attempt to consult the union. The union does not suggest that there was any failure to consult with regard to the proposals to make 28 employees redundant because those proposals were not implemented, but the union does contend that when the administrators decided to apply to the court they must then have contemplated the redundancies which resulted from the discharge of the administration order and the winding up of the company.
The administrators dispute both these contentions. They contend that at neither stage did the company propose to dismiss any of its employees as redundant. They claim that the powers and duties imposed on them by Pt II of the 1986 Act necessarily excludes s 99 of the 1975 Act. They claim that an administration order in relation to an employer is always a ‘special circumstance’ within s 99(8) of the 1975 Act and that there were no steps towards compliance which in the circumstances were reasonably practicable.
The claims of the union and any derivative rights of the employees are only justifiable before the industrial tribunal. Thus this is not a case where the rights sought to be enforced can be determined in the liquidation. In those circumstances I should grant leave if I am satisfied that the claim the union wishes to advance has some prima facie merit and prospect of success. As Rogers CJ Comm D said in Capita Finance Group Ltd v Rothwells Ltd (1989) 15 ACLR 348 at 349 in relation to a provision of the Companies (New South Wales) Code 1981 in identical terms to s 130(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986:
‘It is necessary to understand the rationale which buttresses the requirement for showing the existence of a prima facie case. The provisional liquidators and liquidator respectively are entitled to be protected from involvement in court proceedings which may be perhaps only of a nuisance nature or which may be thought to be totally devoid of any substance. The resources of the company in liquidation should not be frittered away in defending baseless claims.’
The first point to consider is when, in accordance with s 99 of the 1975 Act, the duty to consult arises. Part IV of the Act was enacted to comply with the Council Directive (EEC) 75/129. Article 2(1) provides:
‘Where an employer is contemplating collective redundancies, he shall begin consultations with the workers’ representatives with a view to reaching an agreement.’
Article 3(1) corresponds with s 100 of the 1975 Act and provides:
‘Employers shall notify the competent public authority in writing of any projected collective redundancies. This notification shall contain all relevant information concerning the projected collective redundancies and the consultations with workers’ representatives provided for in Article 2, and particularly the reasons for the redundancies, the number of workers to be
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made redundant, the number of workers normally employed and the period over which the redundancies are to be effected.’
Thus the directive distinguishes between redundancies which are contemplated and those which are projected. Sections 99 and 100 of the 1975 Act apply to ‘an employer proposing to dismiss as redundant’.
The union contends that both those sections should be construed to give effect to the directive so that the duty under s 99 arises when an employer has redundancies in contemplation. That it is the duty of the court, if possible, to construe United Kingdom legislation so as to comply with the United Kingdom’s obligations under an EEC directive is not in doubt. But that must be achieved, if at all, by proper processes of construction, not so far as the court is concerned by the equivalent of legislation.
Dealing first with the directive, it seems to me that the word ‘projected’ in art 3 is used in the sense of ‘then intended’ after the processes of consultation with the union have been completed. Thus the contemplation referred to in art 2(1) is something less than intention. Nevertheless, the range of mental states included within the word is wide. It would extend from merely ‘thinking about’ to ‘having in view or expecting’. In the latter sense, but not the former, the word would equate with the verb ‘to propose’.
Approaching that problem from the wording of s 99 I think it is clear, not least from sub-s (5), that the phrase ‘an employer proposing to dismiss as redundant’ cannot include one who is merely thinking about the possibility of redundancies. Thus I cannot construe the word ‘proposing’ to embrace the full range of possible meanings of the word ‘contemplating’ but I can construe ‘contemplating’ in a sense equivalent to ‘proposing’. Article 2(1) of the directive has not, so far as I know, been construed by the Court of Justice of the European Communities. Thus, I assume, because it is for the Court of Justice and not for me to decide, that s 99 does comply with the United Kingdom’s obligations.
As the union accepts, the onus is on them to establish a prima facie breach of duty. There is no evidence before me and no allegation of fact in the complaint to suggest that prior to the making of the administration order the company was proposing to dismiss as redundant any employee. In those circumstances I do not give leave in respect of that part of the union’s case.
The administrators, as responsible insolvency practitioners, are greatly concerned at the suggestion that the duty imposed on the employer by ss 99 and 100 of the 1975 Act must be observed by them given their status, functions and responsibilities under Pt II of the 1986 Act. An administrator is an officer of the court. He has the powers conferred by Sch 1, which include the power to dismiss the company’s employees. In exercising his powers he is deemed to act as the company’s agent: see s 14(1) and (5). By s 17 he is required to manage the affairs of the company in accordance with the directions of the court or, where his proposals have been approved by the creditors, in accordance with those proposals. Section 18 requires him to apply to the court for the discharge of the administration order if he considers that the purposes for which it was made cannot be achieved, or if the creditors require him to do so. He may pay the remuneration of the company’s employees out of assets subject to a floating charge but such remuneration is not charged on those assets unless the contract of employment was adopted by him (see s 19(4) and (5)). If the company is subsequently wound up remuneration, within prescribed limits, due at the date of the administration order ranks as a preferential debt but remuneration earned during the period of the administration, though provable, is not preferential: see s 387(3)(a) of the 1986 Act.
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It is accepted that the company is the employer, but it is submitted that the proposal is that of the administrators not as agents for the company but as officers of the court. It is contended that the duty imposed by s 99 of the 1975 Act on the company and the duties imposed on the administrators by the 1986 Act are so mutually repugnant that they cannot exist side by side. If the duty imposed by s 99 was absolute and the administrators were bound to adopt the suggestions of the union then there would be much more force in this submission. But the provisions of s 99(7) and (8) show that the duty is not absolute and that the administrators may, for stated reasons, and after proper consideration, reject the union’s views. If, in exercise of his statutory powers the administrator dismisses an employee he does so as agent for the company. The administrators contend that such agency only arises on the exercise of the power. But the exercise of the power must include the necessary preliminaries to its exercise. If administrators propose to dismiss an employee it seems to me that their proposal must be the proposal of the company and therefore of the employer.
I cannot construe either the 1986 Act or the 1975 Act to reach the conclusion the administrators seek. Nor do I see any justification for a strained construction which I was invited to adopt, given the provisions of s 99(7) and (8). In the last resort I was invited to conclude that the 1986 Act impliedly repealed or amended s 99 of the 1975 Act so as to exclude an employer which is a company in administration. This seems to me to be wholly unjustified. Not only is it not necessary because of s 99(7) and (8) but it would be quite inconsistent with the principle that if possible United Kingdom legislation should be construed so as to conform with the obligations of the United Kingdom. It is true that art 1(2)(d) of Council Directive (EEC) 75/129 excludes workers affected by the termination of an establishment’s activities where that is the result of a judicial decision, but this cannot exclude any company in administration. Thus the implied repeal for which the administrators contend would give rise to a breach of the United Kingdom’s obligations. Accordingly, in my judgment, ‘an employer proposing to dismiss as redundant’ does include cases where the employer is a company in administration and the administrator proposes the dismissals.
The administrators then contended that if a company employer is in administration that per se is a special circumstance within s 99(8). A similar point arose in Clarks of Hove Ltd v Bakers’ Union [1979] 1 All ER 152, [1978] 1 WLR 1207. In that case the company dismissed all its employees and called in a receiver on the same day. The industrial tribunal considered that insolvency did not constitute special circumstances. Appeals to the Employment Appeal Tribunal and the Court of Appeal were in each case allowed. In the Court of Appeal Geoffrey Lane LJ, in reference to the decision of the industrial tribunal, said ([1979] 1 All ER 152 at 159, [1978] 1 WLR 1207 at 1215):
‘What they said, in effect, was this, that insolvency is, on its own, neither here nor there. It may be a special circumstance, it may not be a special circumstance. It will depend entirely on the cause of the insolvency whether the circumstances can be described as special or not. If, for example, sudden disaster strikes a company, making it necessary to close the concern, then plainly that would be a matter which was capable of being a special circumstance; and that is so whether the disaster is physical or financial. If the insolvency, however, was merely due to a gradual run-down of the company, as it was in this case, then those are facts on which the industrial tribunal can come to the conclusion that the circumstances were not special. In other words, to be special the event must be something out of the ordinary, something uncommon; and that is the meaning of the word “special” in the context of this Act.’
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Thus the circumstances must be special in the sense of being out of the ordinary. Moreover, as s 99(8) makes plain, they must be such as to render it not reasonably practicable for the employer to comply with any of the requirements of sub-s (3), (5) or (7)
In my judgment it is plain that an administration order does not per se render it impracticable for the company employer to comply with those requirements. It may or may not, depending on the other circumstances of the case. Those circumstances would have to be considered in the light of the duties and responsibilities of the administrator. A combination of those circumstances and the existence of an administration order may well give rise to special circumstances within s 99(8) when neither would when taken in isolation. Thus I do not accept any of the submissions of the administrators which seek to put a company in administration in a different position to any other employer. But the questions remain whether the company in administration ever did propose to dismiss as redundant all its employees; if it did, whether the circumstances were special; and, if they were, whether there were any steps towards compliance with the requirements of s 99 which were reasonably practicable in the circumstances. I have already quoted the relevant paragraphs from the affidavit of the administrators in support of the application to Scott J on 3 July. In my judgment, para 26 shows quite clearly that the administrators were not proposing the redundancies that resulted from the winding up of the company. Their proposal was indeed the exact opposite. The redundancies occurred because of the decision of the court. They did not stem from any proposal of the administrators. The union does not challenge the honesty of the deponent but they contend that I should give leave so that in the industrial tribunal they may cross-examine the administrator as to his real state of mind. But in my judgment this will not do. The affidavit is accepted as truthful. It did not contain proposals for redundancy. The fact, if it be one, that the administrators recognised the possibility of redundancies if the court did not accept their suggestion that the administration should continue but wound up the company is not, in my judgment, sufficient to give rise to an obligation to consult. Thus, in my judgment, the questions of whether there were special circumstances and whether there were any reasonably practicable steps open to the administrators do not arise.
In all these circumstances I do not think that the proceedings the union wishes to pursue in the industrial tribunal have any legal merit and I dismiss this application.
Application dismissed.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Stoke-on-Trent City Council and another v B & Q plc
[1993] 1 All ER 481
(Case C-169/91)
Categories: EUROPEAN COMMUNITY; Free movement of goods
Court: COURT OF JUSTICE OF THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITIES
Lord(s): JUDGES DUE (PRESIDENT), KAKOURIS, RODRÍGUEZ IGLESIAS, MURRAY (PRESIDENTS OF CHAMBERS), MANCINI, JOLIET, DÍEZ DE VELASCO, KAPTEYN AND EDWARD
Hearing Date(s): ADVOCATE GENERAL VAN GERVEN
2 JUNE, 8 JULY, 16 DECEMBER 1992
European Economic Community – Imports – Reduction in volume of imports – Quantitative restriction on imports from another member state – Measures having equivalent effect – Prohibition on Sunday trading – Opening of do-it-yourself store on Sundays – Substantial proportion of goods sold in store imported from other member states – Prohibition affecting sale of domestic and imported products – Prohibition on Sunday trading having effect of reducing imports from other member states – Whether prohibition proportionate to objective of statute – Whether restriction according with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics – Whether prohibition contravening Community law – Shops Act 1950, s 47 – EEC Treaty, art 30.
The appellant regularly traded at its do-it-yourself stores and garden centres in the United Kingdom on Sundays in the respondent councils’ areas selling items which were not exempted from the prohibition on Sunday trading contained in s 47a of and Sch 5 to the Shops Act 1947. A proportion of the goods sold were imported from member states of the European Economic Community (the EEC). The appellant lost 23% of its turnover when its stores were closed on Sundays and the Sunday trading restrictions also affected trade between the United Kingdom and the rest of the EEC generally. The respondent councils sought injunctions to restrain the appellant from opening its stores on Sundays in contravention of the 1947 Act. The appellant contended that s 47 was unenforceable because by preventing it from selling on Sunday goods imported from other member states s 47 infringed art 30b of the EEC Treaty, which prohibited quantitative restrictions on imports between member states and all measures having equivalent effect, and that the restriction on Sunday trading contained in s 47 was contrary to Community law because it was disproportionate to the object of ensuring that working and non-working hours were so arranged as to accord with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics. The judge held that s 47 did not infringe art 30 of the EEC Treaty and that the councils were entitled to the injunctions sought. The appellant appealed directly to the House of Lords, which referred to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty a number of questions on the interpretation of art 30 and the effect of a recent ruling of the court thereon.
Held – Since national rules restricting the opening of shops on Sundays pursued an aim which was justified under Community law, namely to ensure that working and non-working hours were so arranged as to accord with particular national or regional socio-cultural characteristics, it was for member states to
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make choices relating to the particular national or regional socio-cultural characteristics in compliance with the requirements of Community law, in particular the principle of proportionality. Moreover, since the restrictive effects on trade of national rules prohibiting shops from opening on Sundays affected the sale of both domestic and imported products and therefore did not make the marketing of products from other member states more difficult than the marketing of national products and since the restrictive effects were not excessive when the national interest in attaining the aim of the legislation was weighed against the Community interest in ensuring the free movement of goods, the prohibition on quantitative restrictions on imports and all measures having equivalent effect laid down in art 30 of the EEC Treaty did not apply to such legislation. Accordingly, art 30 of the EEC Treaty was to be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition that it laid down did not apply to s 47 of the 1950 Act (see p 518 f to h and p 519 b to d g, post).
Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case 145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129, Union départementale des syndicats CGT de l’Aisne v SIDEF Conforama Case C-312/89 [1991] ECR I-997 and Criminal proceedings against Marchandise Case C-332/89 [1991] ECR I-1027 applied.
Notes
For general restrictions on Sunday trading, see 47 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 632–644, and for cases on the subject, see 47(1) Digest (Reissue) 564–568, 2994–3017.
For the free movement of goods in the European Economic Community and justifications for restrictions between member states, see 52 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 12.55–12.111.
For the Shops Act 1950, s 47, Sch 5, see 19 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 424, 447.
For the EEC Treaty, arts 30, 177, see 50 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 276, 325.
Cases cited
Aragonesa de Publicidad Exterior SA v Departmento de Sanidad y Seguridad Social de la Generalitat de Cataluña Joined cases C-1/90 and C-176/90 OJ 1991 C220, p 8, CJEC.
Blesgen v Belgium Case 75/81 [1982] ECR 1211.
Bond van Adverteerders v Netherlands Case 352/85 [1988] ECR 2085.
Bonfait BV v Ministère Public Case C-269/89 [1990] ECR I-4169.
Buet v Ministère public Case 382/87 [1989] ECR 1235.
Cinéthèque SA v Fédération nationale des cinémas français Joined cases 60 and 61/84 [1985] ECR 2605.
Debus v Ministère Public Joined cases C-13/91 and C-113/91 OJ 1992 C167, p 5, CJEC.
Delattre, Criminal proceedings against Case C-369/88 [1991] ECR I-1487.
Denkavit Futtermittel GmbH v Land Baden-Württemberg Case C-39/90 [1991] ECR I-3069.
Direction générale des impôts v Forest Case 148/85 [1986] ECR 3449.
Drei Glocken GmbH v USL Centro-Sud Case 407/85 [1988] ECR 4233.
EC Commission v Belgium Case C-249/88 [1991] ECR I-1275.
EC Commission v Belgium Case C-287/89 [1991] ECR I-2233.
EC Commission v Belgium Case C-1/90 [1991] ECR I-2023.
EC Commission v France Case 269/83 [1985] ECR 837.
EC Commission v Italy Case 103/84 [1986] ECR 1759.
EC Commission v Italy Case 63/86 [1988] ECR 29.
Page 483 of [1993] 1 All ER 481
EC Commission v Italy Case 56/87 [1988] ECR 2919.
EC Commission v Netherlands Case C-353/89 OJ 1991 C224, p 3, CJEC.
Elliniki Radiophonia Tiléorassi-Anonimi Etairia v Dimotiki Etairia Pliroforissis Case C-260/89 [1991] ECR I-2925.
Freistaat Bayern v Eurim-Pharm GmbH Case C-347/89 [1991] ECR I-1747.
GB-INNO-BM v Confédération du Commerce Luxembourgeois Case C-362/88 [1990] ECR I-667.
Groener v Minister of Education Case C-379/87 [1989] ECR 3967.
Hauptzollamt Bremen-Freihafen v Drünert Case 167/84 [1985] ECR 2235.
Iannelli & Volpi SpA v Meroni Case 74/76 [1977] ECR 557.
Irish Creamery Milk Suppliers Association v Ireland, Doyle v An Taoiseach Joined cases 36 and 71/80 [1981] ECR 73.
Krantz (H) GmbH & Co v Ontvanger der Directe Belastingen Case C-69/88 [1990] ECR I-583.
Marchandise, Criminal proceedings against Case C-332/89 [1991] ECR I-1027.
Ministre des Finances v Richardt Case C-367/89 [1992] 1 CMLR 61, CJEC.
Miro BV, Criminal proceedings against Case 182/84 [1985] ECR 3731.
Monteil and Samanni, Criminal proceedings against Case C-60/89 [1991] ECR I-1547.
Nino, Criminal proceedings against Joined cases C-54/88, C-91/88 and C-14/89, [1990] ECR I-3537.
Oebel, Summary proceedings against Case 155/80 [1981] ECR 1993.
Oehlschläger v Hauptzollamt Emmerich Case 104/77 [1978] ECR 791.
Oosthoek’s Uitgeversmaatschappij BV, Criminal proceedings against Case 286/81 [1982] ECR 4575.
Pall Corp v PJ Dahlhausen & Co Case C-238/89 [1990] ECR I-4827.
Portugal v Morais Case C-60/91 [1992] 2 CMLR 533, CJEC.
Procureur de la République v Association de défence des brûleurs d’huiles usagées Case 240/83 [1985] ECR 531.
Procureur du Roi v Dassonville Case 8/74 [1974] ECR 837.
Procureur du Roi v Debauve Case 52/79 [1980] ECR 833.
Quietlynn Ltd v Southend-on-Sea BC Case C-23/89 [1990] 3 All ER 207, [1991] 1 QB 454, [1991] 2 WLR 611, [1990] ECR I-3059, CJEC.
Reading BC v Payless DIY Ltd Case C-304/90 OJ 1992 C17, p 6, CJEC.
Rewe-Zentral AG v Bundesmonopolverwaltung für Branntwein Case 120/78 [1979] ECR 649.
Rochdale BC v Anders Case C-306/88 [1988] 3 All ER 490; on reference [1993] 1 All ER 520n, CJEC.
SARPP v Chambre Syndical des Raffineurs et Conditionneurs de Sucre de France Case C-241/89 [1990] ECR I-4695.
Schäfer Shop BV v Ministervan Economische Zaken Case 12/88 [1989] ECR 2937.
SCP Boscher Studer et Fromentin v SA British Motors Wright Case C-239/90 [1991] ECR I-2023.
Sheptonhurst v Newham BC Case C-350/89 [1991] ECR I-2387.
Société Générale Alsacienne de Banque SA v Koestler Case 15/78 [1978] ECR 1971.
Society for the Protection of Unborn Children Ireland Ltd v Grogan Case C-159/90 [1991] 3 CMLR 849, CJEC.
Steen v Deutsche Bundespost Case C-332/90 [1992] 2 CMLR 406, CJEC.
Stichting Collectieve Antennevoorziening Gouda v Commissariaat voor de Media Case C-288/89 OJ 1991 C224, p 3, CJEC.
Stoke-on-Trent City Council v B & Q plc, Norwich City Council v B & Q plc [1991] 4 All ER 221, [1991] Ch 48, [1991] 2 WLR 42.
Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case 145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129, [1990] 2 QB 19, [1990] 2 WLR 1330, [1989] ECR 3851, CJEC.
Page 484 of [1993] 1 All ER 481
Union départementale des syndicats CGT de l’Aisne v SIDEF Conforama Case C-312/89 [1991] ECR I-997.
Union Laitière Normande v French Dairy Farmers Ltd Case 244/78 [1979] ECR 2663.
van der Haar and Kaveka de Meern BV, Criminal proceedings against Joined cases 177 and 178/82 [1984] ECR 1797.
Webb, Criminal proceedings against Case 279/80 [1981] ECR 3305.
Wurmser, Criminal proceedings against Case 25/88 [1989] ECR 1105.
Reference
By order dated 20 May 1991 the House of Lords referred to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty three questions (set out at p 517 j to p 518 c, post) on the interpretation of art 30 of the EEC Treaty which concerned the applicability of art 30 to s 47 of the Shops Act 1950. The questions were raised in the course of two appeals pending before the House of Lords brought by B & Q plc in which Stoke-on-Trent City Council and Norwich City Council were respondents from the decision of Hoffmann J ([1991] 4 All ER 221, [1991] Ch 48) on 18 July 1990 whereby he granted the respondents injunctions restraining B & Q plc from opening or causing to be opened on Sundays its do-it-yourself shops for the serving of customers in contravention of s 47 of the Shops Act 1950. Stoke-on-Trent City Council, Norwich City Council, B & Q plc, the United Kingdom and the Commission of the European Communities submitted written observations to the court. Oral argument was presented to the court by Stuart Isaacs QC and Neil Calver (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard, agents for S W Titchener, Stoke-on-Trent and R M Auton, Norwich) on behalf of the two councils, by David Vaughan QC, Gerald Barling QC, Nicholas Davidson and David Anderson (instructed by Hepherd Winstanley & Pugh, Southampton) for B & Q plc, by the Attorney General (Rt Hon Sir Nicholas Lyell QC) and Nicholas Paines (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the United Kingdom, and by R Wainwright, legal adviser, and A Ridout, a national civil servant seconded to the commission’s legal department, on behalf of the commission. The language of the case was English. The facts are set out in the report for the hearing presented by the Judge Rapporteur.
The Judge Rapporteur (M Díez de Velasco) presented the following report for the hearing.
I—FACTS AND PROCEDURE
1. The House of Lords is seised of two consolidated appeals between Stoke-on Trent City Council and B & Q plc, and between Norwich City Council and B & Q plc, concerning the applicability of art 30 of the EEC Treaty to s 47 of the Shops Act 1950.
2. Section 47 of the 1950 Act provides:
‘Every shop shall, save as otherwise provided by this Part of this Act, be closed for the serving of customers on Sunday: Provided that a shop may be open for the serving of customers on Sunday for the purposes of any transaction mentioned in the Fifth Schedule to this Act.’
Schedule 5 to the Act contains a list of items which may be sold in shops on Sundays, such as intoxicating liquors, certain foodstuffs, tobacco, newspapers and other products of everyday consumption.
3. After the judgment of the court in Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case C-145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156–157, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53, in which the court held that—
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‘art 30 of the Treaty must be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national rules prohibiting retailers from opening their premises on Sunday where the restrictive effects on Community trade which may result therefrom do not exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind’,
the respondent local authorities each issued proceedings against the appellant (B & Q) for a final injunction to enforce compliance with s 47 of the 1950 Act in B & Q’s Stoke-on-Trent and Norwich stores. On 18 July 1990 the High Court held (in the judgment appealed against before the House of Lords) that the local authorities were entitled to final injunctions (see [1991] 4 All ER 221, [1991] Ch 48).
4. B & Q was granted leave to appeal directly to the House of Lords pursuant to Pt II of the Administration of Justice Act 1969, on the ground that a point of law of general public importance was involved.
5. The factual and expert evidence adduced by B & Q included the following matters. (a) B & Q operates the largest chain of do-it-yourself (DIY) stores and garden centres in the United Kingdom, with more than 250 stores in England, Wales and Scotland selling a wide range of DIY and gardening items; the majority of goods sold in B & Q’s stores are not listed in Sch 5 to the 1950 Act. (b) B & Q’s stores are ‘mixed’ shops within the meaning of s 50 of the 1950 Act and are therefore entitled to be open on Sundays for the serving of customers with items included in Sch 5. Many of B & Q’s shops have in the past regularly opened on Sundays for the sale of both Sch 5 goods and non-Sch 5 goods. (c) During B & Q’s financial year 1988–89 total purchases from all sources was £490m at manufacturers’ prices. Of this £59m was spent on purchasing goods from other member states of the EEC. (d) The average loss of sales when B & Q stores were closed for trading on Sundays is about 23%. This loss of turnover is across the whole range of B & Q’s goods to a greater or lesser extent and, save to a very small degree, is not recovered over the remaining six days. (e) Comparisons of the sales turnover of shops that were closed on Sundays with that of shops open on Sundays during the same period showed that the total sales per square foot of shops that opened on Sundays were significantly greater than the total sales per square foot of those shops that were closed on Sundays. (f) Losses caused by Sunday closure do not just affect imports by individual businesses, but have an effect on the United Kingdom’s trade. The reduction of imports into the United Kingdom from other EEC member states resulting from enforcement of the Sunday trading restrictions currently in force in England and Wales would, as at 1990, be likely to be in the order of £670m across all ranges of retail goods. The equivalent figure for the DIY and garden sector alone is about £150m per annum.
6. For their part, the local authorities accepted in the High Court that Sunday trading restrictions do have a restrictive effect upon trade between the United Kingdom and the rest of the EEC sufficient to satisfy the criteria laid down by the Court of Justice in Procureur du Roi v Dassonville Case 8/74 [1974] ECR 837. In that connection the local authorities’ own expert witness confirmed that a once and-for-all increase in retail sales of 1% to 2% would be a possible assumption if the Sunday trading restrictions were lifted. He also noted, however, that even a 2% increase in consumer spending on retail goods would only increase imports from the rest of the Community by 0.5% to 0.8%, namely less than 1%.
7. After delivery of the judgment appealed against in the national proceedings, the court in two judgments of 28 February 1991 held that art 30 of the Treaty must be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national legislation prohibiting the employment of staff on Sundays
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(Union départementale des syndicats CGT de l’Aisne v SIDEF Conforama Case C-312/89 [1991] ECR I-997) or on Sundays after 12 noon (Criminal proceedings against Marchandise Case C-332/89 [1991] ECR I-1027).
8. Before the House of Lords it became apparent that the parties are at issue on two specific points, namely: (a) the interpretation and effect of the judgment of the Court of Justice in the Torfaen case and in particular the nature of the task reserved to the national court in determining whether the effects of national rules remain within the limits of the effects intrinsic to trading rules; and (b) the possible application of the principles laid down in the Conforama and Marchandise judgments, cited above, to the United Kingdom legislative situation.
9. In the light of the foregoing considerations, the House of Lords requested the court to give a preliminary ruling on the following questions:
‘1. Whether the effect of the Court of Justice’s rulings in Case C-312/89 Conforama and C-332/89 Marchandise is to determine that the prohibition contained in Article 30 of the EEC Treaty does not apply to national rules, such as those in issue in Case 145/88, Torfaen Borough Council v. B & Q plc, which prohibit retailers from opening their premises on Sunday for the serving of customers with certain goods;
2. If not whether it is nevertheless immediately apparent, whether or not evidence is adduced, that the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in Question 1 above do not exceed “the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind”, as that phrase is used in the ruling of the Court of Justice in Case 145/88;
3 If not, on what criteria and by reference to what, if any, factual or other evidence the national court must determine the question whether or not the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in Question 1 above exceed “the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind” within the meaning of that phrase as used in the ruling of the Court of Justice in Case 145/88.’
10. The order for reference was registered at the court registry on 1 July 1991.
11. In accordance with art 20 of the Protocol on the Statute of the Court of Justice written observations were submitted by B & Q plc, represented by David Vaughan QC, Gerald Barling QC, Nicholas Davidson, Barrister, David Anderson, Barrister, and Anthony Askham, Solicitor, by Stoke-on-Trent City Council and Norwich City Council, represented by Stuart Isaacs QC and Neil Calver, Barrister, by the United Kingdom, represented by Lucinda Hudson, acting as agent, and Nicholas Paines, Barrister, and by the Commission of the European Communities, represented by its legal adviser, R Wainwright, and by A Ridout, acting as agents.
12. Upon hearing the report of the Judge Rapporteur and the views of the Advocate General, the court decided to open the oral procedure without any preparatory inquiry.
II—WRITTEN OBSERVATIONS SUBMITTED TO THE COURT
1. With regard to the first and second questions, B & Q plc, the appellant in the national proceedings, asserts at the outset that the approach of the Court of Justice in Torfaen’s case, cited above, was correct, since Sunday trading rules such as those contained in the 1950 Act are, in the light of available evidence, measures having equivalent effect to quantitative restrictions on trade within the meaning of art 30 and, pursuant to the division of competence underlying art 177 of the EEC Treaty, the Court of Justice correctly entrusted the national court with the task of determining the proportionality or otherwise of the national provisions at issue,
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the current objective of the national Sunday trading rules and whether that objective falls within the permissible range of objectives including that defined by the court as being ‘to ensure that working and non-working hours are so arranged as to accord with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics’ (see [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53 (para 14)).
According to B & Q plc, since the ascertainment of the objective of the Sunday trading rules in the 1950 Act is a matter of national law which the Court of Justice does not have jurisdiction to determine, particularly where the current objective of the national measure is genuinely in doubt, or is disputed, it should be concluded that the United Kingdom courts are in the best position to decide both what the current objective of the 1950 Act is, and whether or not that objective fits within the range approved by the Court of Justice.
Moreover, to invite the Court of Justice to determine the issue of proportionality would be not only to seek artificially to create some uniformity of law, despite the dramatic variation in laws as between the member states and within the member states, but also to vest the Court of Justice with power to harmonise national laws, which is a function to be performed by the Council of Ministers.
In B & Q’s submission, it is perfectly possible for an identical law to be proportionate in some member states and disproportionate in others. From that standpoint, a decision by the court in the Torfaen case that the 1950 Act satisfied the principle of proportionality (in so far as such a decision would have been possible in art 177 proceedings) might have resolved doubts on this one specific issue, at least in the United Kingdom, and at least until circumstances there had changed sufficiently for another court to make a further preliminary reference. It would however have left the courts in all member states no wiser as to the proportionality of many other national measures, each of which could potentially form the subject of a further preliminary reference under art 177.
Yet a series of isolated decisions on proportionality by the Court of Justice, reached on principles which are less than clear, would tend to produce uncertainty and speculative litigation. It would discourage the active application of Community law principles by the national courts themselves, and would increase the number of references to an already overburdened court.
B & Q further considers that the task allotted to the United Kingdom courts in the Torfaen judgment was not affected by the judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, since there is nothing in those two judgments to suggest that the court wished to depart from the judgment of the Sixth Chamber in the Torfaen case. On the contrary, the judgment in that case appears to be expressly approved on each of the four occasions on which it is mentioned in each judgment (see, for example, the Marchandise judgment [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1040, 1042 (paras 10–12, 19)); the only hint of a difference in approach appears in the judgments in Conforama [1991] ECR I-997 at 1025 (para 12) and Marchandise [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1041 (para 13), where the court states that the restrictive effects on trade ‘which may stem [from the French/Belgian rules] do not seem disproportionate to the aim pursued’ (my emphasis).
Yet that difference is more apparent than real. The use of the word ‘seem’ in the Conforama and Marchandise judgments indicates, consistently with paras 6 and 7 respectively of the judgments (see Conforama [1991] ECR I-997 at 1024; Marchandise [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1039) (where the court emphasises its lack of jurisdiction to rule on the compatibility of national law with the Treaty) and with the very nature of art 177 proceedings, that the Court of Justice is not itself deciléng the proportionality issue and that this remains a question of fact for the national court, as stated in the Torfaen case.
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In fact, the difference in emphasis between the judgment in Torfaen and those in Conforama and Marchandise can be explained by the different national laws, the different types of evidence which were in issue and the differing approach of the parties.
As far as differences in legislation are concerned, B & Q maintains that: (a) the French and Belgian laws at issue in the Conforama and Marchandise cases were entirely general employee protection measures, not restricted to shopworkers, let alone to the performance of particular functions by shopworkers, as is the 1950 Act; (b) whereas the French and Belgian laws only prevent employees from working in shops on Sundays, they have no effect on the smaller owner-run shops which can in both countries remain open all day on Sundays; (c) though exceptions may be made to the general Sunday closing rule in both France and Belgium, those exceptions do not give rise to the bizarre and anomalous results reached by the application of Sch 5 to the 1950 Act. The anomalous nature of the exceptions to s 47 of the 1950 Act, and indeed the existence of the exceptions themselves, are relevant to the proportionality of the Sunday trading rules as a whole; (d) whereas French and Belgian laws apply across the whole territory of those states, albeit with a limited scope (at least in France) for local authorities to permit regional derogations, the strict rule in force in England and Wales has no counterpart in Scotland, where Sunday trading remains wholly deregulated.
As regards the differences in factual evidence B & Q emphasises that both Mr Advocate General Van Gerven and the court in the Conforama and Marchandise cases indicated that on the basis of the evidence in those cases only a potential effect on trade between member states was shown. In the Torfaen case, on the other hand, even before the evidence of the effect on trade had been fully developed (which did not occur until after the court’s judgment) the national court had found as a fact that there was an absolute reduction in imports as a result of the enforcement of the 1950 Act. In this connection and as the Advocate General remarked, the questions themselves asked the Court of Justice to assume that there was an actual effect on the volume of goods imported from other member states. These differences are highly significant. Had the court in the Conforama and Marchandise cases been faced with the type of evidence available to it in the Torfaen case, then, even allowing for the differences in the national laws, it must be considered unlikely that it would have expressed the preliminary views which it did.
As regards the difference in approach of the parties, B & Q points out that in the Torfaen case it was envisaged by both sides that the Court of Justice would decide the main issue of whether art 30 of the EEC Treaty had any application to the 1950 Act and that, if it so held, any remaining issues of fact could be dealt with by the national court by means of further evidence. Indeed, in the Torfaen case the local authority expressly reserved for a later stage the right to adduce in the national court evidence relating to issues such as proportionality. Thus, for example, there was no attempt at the stage of the art 177 reference in the Torfaen case to quantify the overall effect of the 1950 Act on trade between the United Kingdom and the rest of the Community. On the other hand, in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, all parties, including the Commission, expressly requested the court to express its views on the issue of proportionality. In that situation the court would have been entitled to assume that it had been put in possession of all facts and matters relevant to proportionality. In those circumstances it is hardly surprising that the court felt able to express a view (although it manifestly did not determine the issue).
Nevertheless, if, notwithstanding all the foregoing, the Court of Justice wished to depart from the line taken in the Torfaen case and form a view as to the
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objective of the provisions of the 1950 Act, on the basis of the available evidence and as to the application to those provisions of the principle of proportionality, it should express the view that those provisions seem incompatible with art 30 of the EEC Treaty.
According to B & Q, irrespective of the fact that there are strong arguments for saying that no discernible objective can be attributed to the Sunday trading restrictions in question, those rules are disproportionate since the ‘objective’ of s 47 of the 1950 Act cannot possibly have sufficient importance to outweigh a reduction in intra-Community trade of around 1bn ECU per annum.
B & Q considers that the importance of the objective may be regarded as less where the restriction is subject to many exceptions. Thus, the exceptions to s 47 of the 1950 Act have the effect that many shops, such as B & Q, are permitted to open on Sunday for the sale of much of their stock. Similarly, the fact that the whole of Scotland is exempt from the restriction is a further indication of the degree of importance attached to the objective (whatever it may be) of s 47. In the same way, the total absence of any analogous restriction for workers in all industrial and commercial sectors other than retailing has a bearing on the importance of the aim.
In any event, it would be difficult to find a measure whose enforcement is given lower priority than s 47. A significant number of local authorities do not enforce it at all; none enforces it fully; those authorities which do attempt to enforce the restrictions do so only against a few, usually the largest traders in the area. The vast majority of retail establishments are left to decide whether to open on Sunday or not.
In B & Q’s view, it is also relevant to take into account other negative effects of the law in addition to the restrictions on inter-state trade, such as the loss of employment, particularly part-time employment opportunities, which enforcement of s 47 would entail; and indeed the fact that Sunday has become the most important trading day for non-essential, leisure items, such as garden and DIY products. Other days of the week could not compensate for the loss of such revenue.
B & Q concludes its observations on the first and second questions by pointing out that, contrary to the situation in 1950, a very large proportion of shop workers employed on Sundays are now part-time workers. Although part-time workers need to be protected, the measures designed to protect full-time workers (particularly in the context of weekend working) are not appropriate for part-time workers, given that it is at the weekend in particular that part-time jobs are available in the retail sector.
Even if (which is not the case) the objective of the Sunday trading rules were held to extend beyond the protection of shopworkers (for example to the protection of what some regard as the ‘traditional’ English and Welsh Sunday), all the available evidence suggests that none of the alternative measures, or even the introduction of total deregulation as in Scotland, would adversely affect the present level of achievement to any perceptible degree. This is because, on the one hand, the existence of ‘mixed’ shops, such as the stores of B & Q, means that even under the existing law many shops are entitled to open on Sunday for the sale of some of their goods and, on the other hand, the Scottish experience shows that even with total deregulation, in the ordinary event, only 15% to 20% of shops choose to open on Sunday.
Since the third question asked by the House of Lords is, in B & Q’s view, no more than a shortened version of the second question referred to the court in Reading BC v Payless DIY Ltd Case C-304/90 it refers to its written observations in that case.
In the light of the foregoing, B & Q proposes that the court should answer the
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questions put by the House of Lords as follows: First question: No; Second question: No; Third question: B & Q refers to its answers to questions 1, 2 and 4 raised by the court making the reference in the Reading case Case C-304/90.
2. Stoke-on-Trent City Council and Norwich City Council (the councils), the respondents in the national proceedings, after reviewing the relevant provisions of the 1950 Act and their origin, begin by recalling the difficulties caused by the Torfaen judgment to legal writers who, very correctly in their view, pointed out the ambiguities of the court’s approach in that case.
That approach is unsatisfactory because it is difficult to see what was the distinction between the national legislation in issue in the Torfaen case and that in issue in Quietlynn Ltd v Southend-on-Sea BC Case C-23/89 [1990] 3 All ER 207, [1991] 1 QB 454. In the latter case, the court ruled that national provisions prohibiting the sale of lawful pornographic items from unlicensed pornographic establishments could in no way be assimilated to a measure having an effect equivalent to a quantitative restriction on imports, though it was apparent from the first question submitted to the court in that case that, just as in the Torfaen case, the court was asked to proceed on the basis that the effect of the national rules was to have restricted the retailer from selling goods imported from other member states and so to have resulted in less imported goods from member states being sold than would otherwise have been the case.
However, in the councils’ submission, those difficulties and ambiguities have been resolved by the court’s rulings in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, cited above. In connection with the reply to be given to the first question the councils point out that, in both cases, the court: (a) found that national rules prohibiting Sunday employment in the retail sector were not designed to control trade between member states; (b) stated that rules of that type applied to domestic and imported products alike, and that, as it had already said in the Torfaen case, the marketing of products imported from other member states was not therefore made more difficult than the marketing of domestic products; (c) summarised the Torfaen ruling, stating that the national rules in issue there were similar to those in issue in the instant cases; (d) concluded first that, in those circumstances, rules such as those at issue, like those in the Torfaen case, pursued an aim which was justified with regard to Community law; (e) concluded, secondly, that the restrictive effects which such measures might have on trade did not seem disproportionate to the aim pursued.
In the councils’ submission, since national rules such as s 47 of the 1950 Act are materially indistinguishable from the legislation at issue in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, it is clear that the court’s rulings in those cases are determinative in their favour of the first question referred to the court by the House of Lords.
As to the second and third questions raised by the House of Lords, the councils point out that they both involve a consideration of the phrase ‘the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind’, used in the Torfaen judgment [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53 (para 17) and reflected in paras 15 and 16 thereof. That phrase appears to have its origin in art 3 of Commission Directive (EEC) 70/50 of 22 December 1969, which provides that national measures governing the marketing of products come within the prohibition of art 30 where the restrictive effects exceed the effects intrinsic to trade rules, which is the case, in particular, where the restrictive effects on the free movement of goods are out of proportion to their purpose (the so-called ‘balancing test’) or when the same objective can be attained by other means which are less of a hindrance to trade (the so-called ‘necessity test’).
The councils submit that, since the court in the Torfaen case correctly recognised that a trade rule may have some restrictive effect on the free movement of goods
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which is within limits permitted by Community law, sense can be made of the phrase only if the ‘intrinsic’ effects of a trading rule are taken to mean those effects which are regarded by Community law as proportionate.
They submit in that connection that Community law offers no single approach to the question of proportionality. In fact, both the court’s case law, where the necessity test has been used as the sole test in the application of the proportionality principle in many art 30 cases, and the Treaty itself (for example, arts 109, 115 and 226) afford examples where the balancing test is not taken into consideration in the application of the proportionality principle.
As regards specifically the rules at issue, the councils submit that the test laid down in paras 15 and 16 of the Torfaen ruling only requires that national rules such as s 47 satisfy the necessity test. That follows from the fact that the first sentence of para 15 of the Torfaen ruling expressly refers only to the necessity test, and from the fact that paras 15 to 17 of that ruling, read as a whole, must be interpreted as meaning that the question whether the restrictive effect of such measures on the free movement of goods exceed the effects intrinsic to trade rules is to be determined by reference only to the necessity test.
Moreover, the necessity test is the only one applicable to the particular measure in issue in the present case; there is no economic meaning to a general test of proportionality or disproportionality in the context of the aim of s 47 measured against the effects on intra-Community trade. In fact, though some intangible things may be capable of valuation, quantities can only be meaningfully compared if it is possible to measure them in the same units.
On the second question, which seeks to ascertain whether it is immediately apparent, whether or not evidence is adduced, that the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in issue do not exceed ‘the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind’, the councils submit that the proportionality of national rules such as s 47 is immediately apparent and that, for that reason, evidence in relation thereto is unnecessary.
They observe that in the Conforama and Marchandise cases the court, according to them, was conscious of the ambiguities in the language of the Torfaen judgment and significantly omitted from its rulings the words ‘… where the restrictive effects on Community trade which may result therefrom do not exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind’. The reason why the court did so was precisely that it was immediately apparent, and did not require evidence to establish, that the restrictive effects of national rules such as s 47 do not exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind. In other words, it would be odd and illogical for the approach taken by the court towards national rules such as s 47 to be different from that which it took in the Conforama and Marchandise cases towards national rules of the kind in issue in those cases.
As to the argument based on the use by the court in the Conforama and Marchandise cases of the word ‘seem’ in the phrase ‘the restrictive effects on trade which may stem from such rules do not seem disproportionate to the aim pursued’ (the Conforama judgment [1991] ECR I-997 at 1025 (para 12) and the Marchandise judgment [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1041 (para 13)), an argument according to which the court left it to the national court to rule on the question of proportionality, the councils submit that such an argument would not be seriously sustainable. In particular, any such argument (1) seeks to read too much into the single word ‘seem’, (2) would be contrary to the whole tenor of the rulings, (3) would mean that the court had rejected the Commission’s argument, which the Advocate General in para 7 of his opinion supported (see [1991] ECR 997 at 1012), that the assessment of the need for and proportionality of specific legislation cannot be left to the national courts, and (4) completely ignores the
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actual answers given by the court in the Conforama case [1991] ECR I-997 at 1025 (para 13) and in the Marchandise case [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1041 (para 14).
In any event, on the evidence summarised by the first instance court, s 47 must be deemed to be proportionate, since the restrictive effect of that provision on Community trade was minimal.
As regards the third question as to what criteria and by reference to what, if any, factual or other evidence, the national court must determine the question whether or not the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in issue exceed ‘the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind’, the councils submit, first, that it is well established that it is for the national law of a member state to determine the procedural conditions which govern actions in the national courts in order to enforce a right conferred by Community law and, secondly, that under Community law there is no requirement for the determination of the substantive question to be made by reference to evidence of any nature.
In that connection, the councils submit that the reference in para 16 of the Torfaen ruling to a ‘question of fact’ cannot mean that the court was imposing on the national court a requirement to adduce factual evidence in circumstances where the national court, in accordance with its own rules of procedure and evidence, would not require the adduction of such evidence in order to resolve the question of the proportionality of the national rules in question. Moreover, the Conforama and Marchandise rulings make no reference to any question of fact.
In the above circumstances, the councilr invite the court to rule, as follows:
‘The effect of the Court of Justice’s rulings in the Conforama case Case C-312/89 and the Marchandise case Case C-332/89 is to determine that the prohibition contained in art 30 of the EEC Treaty does not apply to national rules, such as those in issue in Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case 145/88, which prohibit retailers from opening their premises on Sunday for the serving of customers with certain goods.’
In the event that, contrary to the councils’ submission, the court answers question 1 in the negative, the councils invite the court to rule on question 2 as follows:
‘The restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in question 1 above do not exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind.’
If, contrary to the councils’ submissions, the court answers question 2 in the negative, the councils invite the court to rule on question 3 as follows:
‘The question whether or not the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in question 1 above exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind must be determined by the national court (1) by reference to the sole criterion whether the objective of the national rules can be attained by other means which are less of a hindrance to trade and (2) in accordance with its own rules of procedure and evidence.’
3. The United Kingdom begins its observations by referring to the unsatisfactory state of affairs existing in the United Kingdom as a result of differing interpretations of the Torfaen decision, with the result that different United Kingdom courts have reached different conclusions about a matter as fundamental as the validity of an Act of Parliament and the effect of a provision of the EEC Treaty. It considers in that regard that although it is true that to some extent that
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situation has arisen as a result of the impression received by national courts that there must be a doubt to be resolved as to the compatibility of the United Kingdom legislation with the EEC Treaty, it is nevertheless the case that that view was not shared by Mr Advocate General Van Gerven in his opinion in the Conforama and Marchandise cases or by the court in its judgments in those cases.
Similarly it stresses that in spite of important differences of detail as between the Belgian and French legislation highlighted by the Conforama and Marchandise cases in their written observations in the cases concerning them, and the many derogations therein from the general principle, the decision adopted by the court in those cases could not have been clearer, inasmuch as art 30 of the Treaty does not apply to national legislation prohibiting the employment of staff on Sundays.
In his opinion concerning those cases, Mr Advocate General Van Gerven referred extensively to the court’s judgment in the Torfaen case and made it clear that he regarded the United Kingdom legislation as being, from the point of view of art 30, indistinguishable from the French and Belgian legislation. Referring to the Torfaen judgment, he stated ([1991] ECR I-997 at 1009 (para 5)):
‘Whereas Case C-145/88 was concerned with a general prohibition on Sunday trading, these cases are concerned with a prohibition on employing workers on Sundays. In my view that distinction is not of great importance: as regards the application of Article 30 of the Treaty the effects on intra-Community trade resulting from the two types of legislation are very similar.’
He also considered that—
‘legislation of the kind at issue in these cases, which is not designed to govern patterns of trade between Member States or to partition the market, can easily be regarded as remaining within the limits of what is necessary.’ (See [1991] ECR I-997 at 1016 (para 13).)
In the United Kingdom’s view, the reasoning underlying the Conforama and Marchandise judgments, in which the court followed the Advocate General’s opinion, is perfectly applicable to national legislation of the kind in issue.
It stresses that in the judgments cited the court held that national rules governing the opening hours of retail premises reflect certain political and economic choices in so far as their purpose is to ensure that working and non-working hours are so arranged as to accord with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics, which in the present state of Community law is a matter for the member states; and the lawfulness of such rules, it says, remains subject to the requirement that the obstacles to intra-Community trade do not exceed what is necessary in order to ensure the attainment of the objective in view.
In its view, the latter criteria would, for example, prohibit rules which placed imported products at a disadvantage compared to domestic goods, or contained some restriction totally foreign to the objective pursued. In the United Kingdom’s submission, that is also what the court had in mind in the Torfaen judgment when it referred to the effects exceeding those intrinsic to rules of this kind. However, the United Kingdom legislation does not place imported products at any disadvantage compared to domestic goods, nor does it contain any provisions foreign to the objective which it is pursuing. There are therefore no grounds upon which it could be said that the law goes beyond what is necessary to ensure the objective in view.
In any event, the court did not take up what had already been held in the Torfaen judgment whereby it is for the national courts to determine whether national legislation such as that at issue remains within the limits laid down, and
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expressly stated that the restrictive effects on trade which may stem from such rules do not seem disproportionate to the aim pursued.
The United Kingdom is of the view that the only arguments raised in support of the proposition that the legislation has effects exceeding those intrinsic to trading rules fall into two categories. First, it is sometimes argued that it is not permissible for member states to make Sunday a non-working or non-trading day. The second type of argument accepts that member states are entitled to make Sunday a non-working or non-trading day, but asserts that member states ought to have created more exceptions to the prohibition. Apart from the fact that such arguments are of little relevance since they are all inconsistent with the discretionary power reserved to member states in the matter, the United Kingdom considers that to accept the second type of argument would involve accepting that the objective of the United Kingdom legislation is at least in part ‘illegitimate’. In such a situation a court would be forming its own view of what ‘accords with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics’ in the United Kingdom, contrary to the reasoning in both the Torfaen case and in the Conforama and Marchandise cases.
As to the factual or other evidence on the basis of which the national court must determine whether the effects of the national rules at issue in the present case exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind, the United Kingdom is of the opinion that the relevant criteria are those which relate to the question whether the legislation places imported products at a disadvantage compared to domestic goods or has restrictive effects upon imports which are totally foreign to the objective pursued. But those criteria are not relevant if they are invoked in support of an argument that a member state has misjudged or wrongly evaluated its objectives or that a lesser degree of restriction upon Sunday trading would be sufficient for social or cultural purposes.
In particular it considers that, since the function of the courts is to review the acts of the legislature but not to substitute their own policies or values, it is not appropriate to speak of what may have been the ‘true’ intention of the United Kingdom Parliament in adopting the legislation at issue, or of the wisdom of the result achieved by it. Since the court has left it to the member states to make the evaluation of national and regional socio-cultural characteristics relevant to the arrangement of working hours, and to set working hours which accord with those characteristics, it maintains that the legislation at issue is merely the expression of a power of evaluation left to member states in the pursuit of an aim held by the court to be justified under Community law. On the other hand, if the legislation had discriminated against imports or contained restrictions foreign to that objective, it would not have passed the judge’s test.
As regards balancing the estimated additional sales of imported goods against the objectives of the legislation, the United Kingdom doubts the utility of estimates of the effect of the legislation upon imports which would take place in the absence of the legislation.
First, it is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to make a reliable estimate: B & Q’s calculations were drawn from a time when their shops were open on Sundays whilst many of their competitors were closed.
Secondly, those estimates appear not to take into account the fact that the extra money which would be spent on the additional Sunday purchases would be unavailable for spending on other imported goods or services, such as foreign holidays. It is not clear how to compensate for that factor.
Thirdly, even if a reliable figure could be produced, it is impossible to make a meaningful comparison between the social interests protected by the legislation
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and a figure for the value of imports. It could not sensibly be said, for example, that the law would be disproportionate if its abolition could increase spending on imported goods by, say, £10 per person or 1%, but acceptable if its abolition would only increase such spending by £5 per person or 0.5%.
4. The Commission, taking together the three questions asked by the national court, begins by emphasising that it is true that national rules pursuing economic and social policies, which have a direct effect on the sale of goods, are likely to affect the sale of imported goods and therefore the import of such goods. Nevertheless, rules of that kind prohibiting retailers from opening their premises on Sundays constitute measures which are equally applicable to imported and domestic products since they have the same effect on all goods whatever their origin and, consequently, the marketing of products imported from other member states is not rendered more difficult than the marketing of domestic products.
It recalls that in the Torfaen judgment, already cited, the court held that in such a case it was necessary to consider first of all whether rules such as those at issue pursue an aim which is justified with regard to Community law and, secondly, whether the restrictive effects of such rules exceed what is necessary to achieve the aim in view (the proportionality rule).
With regard to the first aspect, the Commission points out that the court has already held that national rules governing the hours of work, delivery and sale in the bread and confectionery industry constitute a legitimate choice of social and economic policy, consistent with the objectives of public interest pursued by the Treaty (see Summary proceedings against Oebel Case 155/80 [1981] ECR 1993) and that national rules prohibiting the employment of workers on Sunday also pursued an aim which was justified in Community law (see the Conforama and Marchandise cases, cited above). Furthermore, in the Torfaen judgment [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53 (para 14), the court also held:
‘The same consideration [as in the Oebel case] must apply as regards national rules governing the opening hours of retail premises. Such rules reflect certain political and economic choices in so far as their purpose is to ensure that working and non-working hours are so arranged as to accord with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics, and that, in the present state of Community law, is a matter for the member states.’
It may therefore be concluded that s 47 of the 1950 Act pursues an objective which is justified with reference to Community law.
As regards the question of proportionately, the Commission states that, on the basis of art 3 of Commission Directive (EEC) 70/50 of 22 December 1969, pursuant to which the prohibition laid down in art 30 covers national measures governing the marketing of products where the restrictive effect of such measures on the free movement of goods exceeds the effects intrinsic to trade rules, the court held in its Torfaen judgment [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53 (para 16): ‘The question whether the effects of specific national rules do in fact remain within that limit is a question of fact to be determined by the national court.’
That being so, it considers that in the present case such a question cannot be left to be determined by the national court, since, if the national courts were left to determine such questions, they might reach different conclusions on cases which were similar, not to say identical, in the absence of a unified interpretation by a single court at Community level. On the contrary, the examination of a particular national law must allow it to be concluded whether or not it is contrary to
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Community law and must give to the national judge such elements on the question of interpretation which allow him to decide the case before him. That was what the court did in the Oebel, Conforama and Marchandise cases already cited.
With specific regard to the legislation at issue, the Commission asserts that the restrictive effects on the free movement of goods of a prohibition on Sunday trading, with exceptions for objects of everyday consumption, would not appear to be excessive having regard to the purpose in view. The restrictive effects are in fact quite limited. In the present case the House of Lords has found that there are respectable grounds for thinking that the complete abolition of restrictions on Sunday trading could lead to a once-and-for-all increase of about 1% to 2% in the retail sector. Thus the maximum potential increase in the sales of goods imported from other member states is of the order of 2% and likely to be less.
In its view, the absence of a common approach to Sunday trading in member states does not in itself diminish trade within the Community. Differences between days and hours of the opening of shops may on the contrary increase trade between member states having a common frontier: it is quite conceivable that in frontier areas consumers cross the frontier to buy goods which they cannot buy in their own country on that day.
In its view, the foregoing considerations lead to the conclusion that the prohibition on Sunday trading does not have disproportionate effects on the free movement of goods in relation to its legitimate aim. Moreover, in the light in particular of the exceptions which are provided for the sale of products of everyday consumption, it does not appear that the same objective could be achieved by means which are less of a hindrance to trade. On the other hand the existence of those exceptions cannot, in itself, affect the legality under Community law of the general ban, since, as was observed by Mr Advocate General Van Gerven in his opinion in the Torfaen case [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 153, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 49 (para 32), the effectiveness of a national rule is not relevant for the purposes of art 30 of the EEC Treaty, except in so far as it may be a means of arbitrary discrimination or disguised restriction against goods from other member states, which is not so in the present case.
It points out that those arguments have now effectively been indorsed by the court in its judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, which are fully applicable to the 1950 Act. Although the French and Belgian legislation at issue in those cases concerned national rules prohibiting the employment of workers on a Sunday rather than national rules prohibiting the serving of customers, the principles laid down by the court in those cases are applicable also in the present case. Furthermore, there is nothing to suggest that the proportionality of the rules in question with regard to their objective, which is justified under Community law, should be analysed in any different manner from that applied with regard to rules prohibiting the employment of workers on Sunday.
Having regard to the foregoing, the Commission proposes that the following reply should be given to the questions referred to the court:
‘Article 30 of the EEC Treaty must be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national rules prohibiting the opening of shops on Sunday.’
8 July 1992. The Advocate General (Walter Van Gerven) delivered the following opinionc in Rochdale BC v Anders Case C-306/882d, Reading BC v Payless
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DIY Ltd Case C-304/90e and Stoke-on-Trent City Council v B & Q plc Case C-169/91. Mr President, Members of the Court,
1. These cases once again concern the compatibility with the EEC Treaty provisions on the free movement of goods of the prohibition in England and Wales on the operation of a shop on Sundays (hereinafter referred to as the Sunday trading ban or the United Kingdom Sunday trading provisions). Three sets of proceedings are pending before English courts against persons charged with infringements of the Sunday trading ban.
The court addressed these issues for the first time in the Torfaen judgment (see Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case C-145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129, [1990] 2 QB 19). The judgments of the court in Union départementale des syndicats CGT de l’Aisne v SIDEF Conforama Case C-312/89 [1991] ECR I-997 (the Conforama case) and Criminal proceedings against Marchandise Case C-332/89 [1991] ECR I-1027 (the Marchandise case), concerning French and Belgian labour legislation prohibiting the employment of workers on Sundays or on Sundays after 12 noon respectively, are closely related.
Legal and factual background
2. Section 47 of the Shops Act 1950 lays down the following prohibition:
‘Every shop shall, save as otherwise provided by this Part of this Act, be closed for the serving of customers on Sunday: Provided that a shop may be open for the serving of customers on Sunday for the purposes of any transaction mentioned in the Fifth Schedule to this Act.’
Schedule 5 contains a list of items which may be sold in shops on Sundays, such as intoxicating liquors, tobacco, newspapers, certain foodstuffs and other products of everyday consumption. Offences against this prohibition are punishable under s 59 of the 1950 Act, which provides:
‘In the case of any contravention of any of the foregoing provisions of this Part of this Act, the occupier of the shop shall be liable to a fine not exceeding level 4 on the standard scale.’
It appears that the maximum amount of the fine for a contravention is £1,000f. The Sunday trading ban does not apply in Scotland.
3. The Sunday trading ban as imposed by the 1950 Act is a matter of controversy in Great Britain. As the House of Lords observes in its order for reference in Stoke-on-Trent City Council v B & Q plc, Norwich City Council v B & Q plc Case C-169/91 (the B & Q case), it is an issue on which feelings run very high. British public opinion is very divided on it: one-third of the population appears to be in favour of retention of the law, and two-thirds are in favour of abolition or amendment, though without any agreement as to the form which such amendment should take. Since 1936 the United Kingdom Sunday trading
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provisions have withstood many attempts by private members Bills in Parliament, and in one case even by the government, to secure their abolition or amendment. It should be added that for some time the law has to a considerable extent been disregarded, and that contraventions are not systematically prosecuted.
The judgment in the Torfaen case seems to have given rise to divergent interpretations by national courts. Both in Great Britain (with regard to the Sunday trading ban) and in France (with regard to the legislation at issue in the Conforama judgment) this has led to acquittal in some cases and conviction in others. Even after the judgments in the Marchandise and Conforama cases, great uncertainty continues to prevail at least in Great Britain with regard to the compatibility of the 1950 Act with Community law. This has recently led the High Court of Justice to stay proceedings brought by local authorities for contravention of the Act, since it is of the opinion that in order to resolve those cases the situation under Community law must first be clarified. For the same reasons the United Kingdom has pressed the court to give a ruling in the B & Q case as a matter of priority.
4. The earliest of the three cases, Rochdale BC v Anders C-306/88, concerns proceedings brought by Rochdale Borough Council against Stewart John Anders. Mr Anders is charged with opening his shop at Dale Mill on Sundays for transactions other than those mentioned in Sch 5 to the 1950 Act. Rochdale Borough Council has applied to the High Court of Justice, Queen’s Bench Division, for an injunction restraining Mr Anders himself and his servants or agents from opening the shop on Sundays for the serving of customers, save for the transactions listed in Sch 5 to the 1950 Act (see [1988] 3 All ER 490). Mr Anders admits the contravention of the Sunday trading ban, but contends that the ban conflicts with Community law since it constitutes a measure having equivalent effect prohibited under art 30 of the Treaty and is not justified under any of the exemptions contained in art 36 or on any other basis.
The High Court referred to the court four questions for a preliminary ruling (see [1988] 3 All ER 490 at 494). After being made aware of the judgments in the Torfaen, Conforama and Marchandise cases it decided to maintain only the fourth question. It is worded as follows:
‘If the prohibition referred to in Question 1 [the Sunday trading ban] contravenes Article 30 and is not justified under Article 36, is it totally unenforceable against a trader in the Member State or only unenforceable to the extent that it prohibits transactions involving goods manufactured in or imported from other Member States?’
5. Reading BC v Payless DIY Ltd Case C-304/90 involves 20 informations laid by Reading Borough Council against five defendants in the national proceedings (Payless DIY Ltd, Wickes Building Supplies Ltd, Great Mills (South) Ltd, Homebase Ltd, on the one hand, and B & Q plc on the other); all are alleged to have opened their shop premises on Sundays for transactions other than those listed in Sch 5 to the 1950 Act. (The observations submitted by Payless DIY Ltd are supported by Wickes Building Supplies Ltd, Great Mills (South) Ltd and Homebase Ltd.) Whilst the parties are agreed that the Sunday trading ban constitutes a measure having equivalent effect, opinions differ as to whether it is justified. Reading and Sonning Magistrates’ Court has asked the Court of Justice to give a preliminary ruling on the following questions, which to a large extent concern the scope of the Torfaen judgment:
‘1. Where the legislation of a Member State prohibits retail premises from opening on Sundays for the personal serving of customers with the objective
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of ensuring so far as possible that shopworkers do not have to work on Sundays, with a view to maintaining what many regard as the traditional English Sunday, is such an objective one that is justified with regard to Community law within the meaning of paragraphs 12 to 14 of the judgment in Case 145/88 Torfaen Borough Council v B & Q plc ([1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 52–53)?
2. When applying the test laid down by the Court of Justice in paragraph 15 of the judgment in Torfaen (the proportionality test) to such legislation: (a) Is the national court required to apply the criteria set out in Article 3 of Directive 70/50? (b) If so, does the national measure have to satisfy each of the criteria identified in the indents in the second paragraph of Article 3? (c) Is it the function of the national court to examine the facts (as proved by evidence) and come to its own conclusion regarding the applicability of those criteria, or is the function of the national court limited to deciding whether or not a national legislature acting reasonably could have adopted the legislative measure in question having regard to those criteria? (d) When assessing the restrictive effects of the national legislation on the free movement of goods, and also when comparing the restrictive effect on trade (if any) of the various different means that might be used to achieve the objective of the legislation, must the national court look only at the extent to which the effects on imported goods exceed the effects on domestic goods or can it look at the totality of the restrictive effects on intra-Community imports? (e) Is the relevant restrictive effect on trade to be examined in relation to: the overall effect on intra-Community trade in goods and/or services; or the effect on the sectors in which the undertaking in question operates; or the effect on that undertaking? (f) How is a national court to compare the restrictive effects on the free movement of goods arising from the national legislation with the objective of that legislation?
3. Has Article 36 of the EEC Treaty any and if so what application to a national measure such as that in question?
4. Is the answer to any of the above questions affected by the existence of exceptions to the legislative prohibition on Sunday trading?’
6. In the most recent case, the B & Q case, the House of Lords asks a number of questions intended to clarify the relationship between the judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases and the Torfaen judgment. The defendant in the main proceedings is once again (as in the Torfaen case and now in the Payless case) B & Q plc, one of the largest operators of do-it-yourself shops and garden centres in the United Kingdom. The majority of the garden and do-it-yourself items sold in its shops are not mentioned in Sch 5 to the 1950 Act. Following the court’s judgment in the Torfaen case, Stoke-on-Trent City Council and Norwich City Council brought proceedings against B & Q for a final injunction to enforce compliance with the Sunday trading ban. On 18 July 1990 the High Court held that the local authorities were entitled to that injunction, but did not order it since B & Q gave appropriate undertakings (see [1991] 4 All ER 221, [1991] Ch 48). B & Q nevertheless appealed to the House of Lords on the basis that a point of law of general public importance was involved, namely the function of the national courts in assessing the Sunday trading ban in relation to the principle of proportionality.
Before the House of Lords it became apparent that there are two main points at issue between the parties: the interpretation and effect of the Torfaen judgment—in particular the nature of the task reserved to the national court in determining ‘the effects intrinsic to trading rules’—and the application of the
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Conforama and Marchandise judgments to the United Kingdom legislative situation.
The House of Lords requested the court to give a preliminary ruling on the following three questions:
‘1. Whether the effect of the Court of Justice’s rulings in Case C-312/89 Conforama and C-332/89 Marchandise is to determine that the prohibition contained in Article 30 of the EEC Treaty does not apply to national rules, such as those in issue in Case 145/88 Torfaen Borough Council v. B & Q plc, which prohibit retailers from opening their premises on Sunday for the serving of customers with certain goods;
2. If not, whether it is nevertheless immediately apparent, whether or not evidence is adduced, that the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in Question 1 above do not exceed “the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind”, as that phrase is used in the ruling of the Court of Justice in Case 145/88;
3. If not, on what criteria and by reference to what, if any, factual or other evidence the national court must determine the question whether or not the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in Question 1 above exceed “the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind” within the meaning of that phrase as used in the ruling of the Court of Justice in Case 145/88.’
7. In my remarks I shall rearrange the questions referred to the court in the following manner. First of all I shall deal with the first question submitted by the House of Lords on the significance of the Conforama and Marchandise judgments for the United Kingdom Sunday trading provisions. In doing so I shall begin by examining the points of difference between the Torfaen judgment and the Conforama and Marchandise judgments and then place these three judgments in the context of the court’s recent case law on the applicability in principle of art 30 (paras 8 to 17, post). Before embarking on the questions relating to the assessment of justification and proportionality, I shall first examine who is to carry out that assessment, the Court of Justice or the national court (paras 18 to 20, post). I shall then deal with the first question from the magistrates’ court on the justification under Community law of the Sunday trading ban (paras 21 to 25, post). The question of proportionality then arises, in relation to which I shall deal with the second and third questions raised by the House of Lords, and the numerous sub-questions contained in the second question submitted by the magistrates’ court (paras 26 to 32, post). Finally, I shall deal, in so far as may be necessary, with the magistrates’ court’s remaining questions, together with the sole question still before the court in Rochdale BC v Anders Case C-306/88 (paras 33 and 34, post).
Comparison of the Torfaen judgment and the Conforama and Marchandise judgments
8. Both Payless DIY (Case C-304/90) and B & Q (Case C-169/91) argue that a distinction must be drawn between the French and Belgian labour provisions at issue in the Conforama and Marchandise cases respectively and the United Kingdom Sunday trading provisions at issue in the Torfaen case (and in these cases). The former provisions are said to be of a very general nature, aimed at the protection of employees, so that the general rule is that workers may not be employed on Sundays. In England and Wales, on the other hand, the population is free to choose whether or not to work on Sundays, with the exception of the staff of retailers. The French and Belgian laws prevent workers from being employed in shops on Sundays, and thus have no effect on small owner-run shops, which can
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in both France and Belgium remain open all day on Sundays. Though the French and Belgian provisions contain exceptions, these do not give rise to such inconsistent results as the exceptions to the United Kingdom Sunday trading ban. Finally, the French and Belgian laws apply across the whole territory of those states, albeit with a limited possibility in France for local authorities to permit regional derogations. However, s 47 of the 1950 Act does not apply in Scotland.
9. As I stated in my opinion in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, I do not consider the above-mentioned points of difference between the national provisions in question to be decisive in regard to the application of art 30 of the Treaty. What is important is the effect of the provisions in both cases on intra-Community trade, and that is very similar (see [1991] ECR I-997 at 1009 (para 5)). In both cases specific legislation, relating either to labour law or to trade regulation, results in a large number of trading outlets within the territory in which the legislation concerned is applicable being closed on Sundays. Notwithstanding the differences in scope and conditions between the provisions in question, it follows from their general tenor that they have a definite (and pro rata) impact on sales of both national and imported products.
In view of the importance of this point I should like to add the following observation. A comparative examination of the situation in the other member states leads to the conclusion that the closing of shops on Sundays is general within the Community (for a comparative law review, see amongst others, Askam Burke and Ramsden EC Sunday Trading Rules (1990). See also EC Commission Measures taken in the field of commerce by the Member States of the European Communities (1985)). Such a review reveals numerous differences in geographical and temporal scope (in certain member states shops must already shut on Saturday afternoon, in others only on Sunday afternoon), detailed rules of application (including derogations from the primary rule) and legal basis (statutory provision relating to trade regulation or to labour law, administrative decree, collective labour agreement, decision of a trade association, or even custom). In every member state the sale of national and imported products is therefore impeded to a greater or lesser extent as a result of the closure of shops on Sunday. It seems to me a hopeless task to differentiate between the national or even regional provisions or customs in the matter in the member states in order to determine whether or not one situation or another falls under the prohibition contained in art 30 of the Treaty. A certain degree of generalisation in the assessment of these rules and practices therefore seems to me, in the context of the free movement of goods, to be entirely justified.
10. B & Q also seeks to demonstrate that these judgments must be distinguished on account of differences between the facts underlying them. It argues that if in the Conforama and Marchandise cases the court had had before it the evidence which was available in the Torfaen case, even having regard to the differences between the national provisions concerned, it would most probably have come to a different conclusion.
On this point I can be brief. In my opinion in the Conforama and Marchandise cases I stated that the facts of the Conforama case, as expressly stated by the national court, were analogous to those of the Torfaen case: both cases involved undertakings operating in a sector which deals to a large extent in products imported from other member states and in which a considerable proportion of sales is made on Sundays, so that closure on Sundays has the effect of reducing the volume of sales and thus the volume of imports from other member states (see para 5 of my opinion ([1991] ECR I-997 at 1009–1010)). I therefore see no reason to distinguish the Torfaen case from the Conforama and Marchandise cases on account of factual differences either.
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The applicability in principle of art 30 of the EEC Treaty and the court’s recent case law
11. The first question raised by the House of Lords seeks to obtain a definite answer with regard to the consequences of the court’s judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases for the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules. In those judgments the court concluded that—
‘it must therefore be held that the prohibition contained in Article 30 of the Treaty, properly construed, does not apply to national legislation prohibiting the employment of staff on Sundays [after 12 noon].’ (See the Conforama judgment [1991] ECR I-997 at 1025 (para 13); the Marchandise judgment [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1041 (para 14), with the added phrase in square brackets.)
This judgment caused confusion in Great Britain inasmuch as it departed from the formula used in the Torfaen case. In that judgment the court stated ([1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53 (para 17)):
‘… art 30 of the Treaty must be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national rules prohibiting retailers from opening their premises on Sunday where the restrictive effects on Community trade which may result therefrom do not exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind.’
In addition the court stated ([1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53 (para 16)):
‘The question whether the effects of specific national rules do in fact remain within that limit is a question of fact to be determined by the national court.’
12. According to B & Q, it follows from those judgments, as was rightly emphasised in the Torfaen case, that the prohibition contained in art 30 of the EEC Treaty is in principle applicable: the Sunday trading ban contained in the 1950 Act does amount to a measure having equivalent effect within the meaning of art 30. The court was therefore right to leave it to the national court to assess the proportionality of the rules, the actual objective pursued by them and their justification under Community law.
On the other hand, the city councils of Stoke-on-Trent and Norwich and the United Kingdom submit that it follows from the Conforama and Marchandise cases that the prohibition contained in art 30 is not applicable to national rules which as in the Torfaen case, prohibit retailers from opening their shops on Sundays for the sale of certain goods to customers. The city councils argue that as regards the reply to that question the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules cannot be distinguished from the provisions at issue in the Conforama and Marchandise cases. The ruling in those cases is thus fully applicable to the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules. The United Kingdom goes on to take the view that the proportionality test applied by the court in those cases is equally applicable to the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules at issue in the Torfaen case.
The Commission also considers that the prohibition contained in art 30, in accordance with the judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, is not applicable to the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules.
13. It seems to me that the Conforama and Marchandise judgments and the Torfaen judgment are not in conflict as regards the applicability in principle of art 30 to provisions such as the United Kingdom Sunday trading ban. The
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different formulation of the court’s judgment results merely from the fact that in the first-mentioned cases the court itself assessed the issue of proportionality (see the Conforama judgment [1991] ECR I-997 at 1025 (para 12), the Marchandise judgment [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1041 (para 13)), whilst in the Torfaen case it referred that question to the national court. If the court had been of the view in the Conforama and Marchandise cases that the French and Belgian labour provisions did not fall within the scope of art 30 at all, it could have said so straight away. As I have stated, there is a difference between the various judgments in regard to the application of the proportionality test. In this connection it is necessary to provide the referring courts with terms of reference concerning the criteria to be applied and by whom they are to be applied. Only then can the consistency of the court’s case law on the free movement of goods be safeguarded. It is not acceptable that with regard to the same legislation attracting criminal sanctions for infringements national courts should decide in one case that it is valid under Community law (resulting normally in conviction of the person who has infringed the law) and in another that the law is invalid (normally leading to acquittal).
14. A study of the court’s recent case law on the free movement of goods reveals, in my view, the following guiding principles.
In the first place, it is clearly established that the court’s broad Dassonville (Procureur du Roi v Dassonville Case 8/74 [1974] ECR 837) and Cassis de Dijon (Rewe-Zentral AG v Bundesmonopolverwaltung für Branntwein Case 120/78 [1979] ECR 649) formula continues to apply with undiminished scope. The starting point for the court’s analysis continues to be the finding that ‘all trading rules … which are capable of hindering, directly or indirectly, actually or potentially, intra-Community trade’ are to be regarded as measures having equivalent effect prohibited by art 30 (see the judgment in Procureur du Roi v Dassonville Case 8/74 [1974] ECR 837 at 852 (para 5). For recent applications of this formula see, inter alia, the judgments in SCP Boscher Studer et Fromentin v SA British Motors Wright Case C-239/90 [1991] ECR I-2023 (para 13), EC Commission v Belgium Case C-287/89 [1991] ECR I-2233 (para 16) and Aragonesa de Publicidad Exterior SA v Departmento de Sanidad y Seguridad Social de la Generalitat de Cataluña Joined cases C-1/90 and C-176/90 (OJ 1991 C220, p 8) (para 9) ‘even though the hindrance is slight and even though it is possible for imported products to be marketed in other ways’ (see judgments in Criminal proceedings against van de Haar and Kaveka de Meern BV Joined cases 177 and 178/82 [1984] ECR 1797 at 1812–1813 (para 13), EC Commission v France Case 269/83 [1985] ECR 837 at 846 (para 10) and EC Commission v Italy Case 103/84 [1986] ECR 1759 at 1773 (para 18)). The only qualification of that rule remains, as a matter of principle, the Cassis de Dijon ‘rule of reason’: in the absence of common rules (relating to the manufacture of the products in question, or to their marketing) obstacles to free movement within the Community resulting from disparities between national laws must be accepted in so far as those provisions may be recognised as being necessary in order to satisfy mandatory requirements (see the judgment in Rewe-Zentral AG v Bundesmonopolverwaltung für Branntwein Case 120/78 [1979] ECR 649 at 662 (para 8); see most recently, inter alia, the judgments in GB-INNO-BM v Confédération du Commerce Luxembourgeois Case C-362/88 [1990] ECR I-667 at 686 (para 10), SARPP v Chambre Syndical des Raffineurs et Conditionneurs de Sucre de France Case C-241/89 [1990] ECR I-4695 at 4723–4724 (para 31) and Pall Corp v P J Dahlhausen & Co Case C-238/89 [1990] ECR I-4827 at 4848 (para 12)); moreover, the laws must be necessary and proportionate to the objective pursued, and if a member state has the choice of several different means of attaining the same objective it is under an obligation to use that which is least restrictive of intra-Community
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trade (cf more recently, inter alia, the judgment in Drei Glocken GmbH v USL Centro-Sud Case 407/85 [1988] ECR 4233 at 4278 (para 10); judgments in Buet v Ministère public Case 382/87 [1989] ECR 1235 at 1252 (para 13); Bonfait v Ministère Public Case C-269/89 [1990] ECR I-4169 at 4180 (para 11); SARPP judgment Case C-241/89 [1990] ECR I-4695 at 4723–4724 (para 31); Pall judgment Case C-238/89 [1990] ECR I-4827 at 4848 (para 12)). Furthermore, the court’s judgment in Criminal proceedings against Oosthoek’s Uitgeversmaatschappij BV Case 286/81 [1982] ECR 4575, in which the Cassis de Dijon formula was applied to legislation relating to the manner in which a product is marketed (in addition to rules on the composition, labelling and presentation of the product itself), has recently been repeatedly reaffirmed; thus art 30 applies to legislation which restricts intra-Community trade because, by restricting or prohibiting certain forms of advertising and certain means of sales promotion, it may adversely affect marketing opportunities for imported products (see the judgment in Criminal proceedings against Oosthoek’s Uitgeversmaatschappij BV Case 286/81 [1982] ECR 4575 at 4587–4588 (para 15); that rule was recently reaffirmed in Buet v Ministère Public Case 382/87 [1989] ECR 1235 at 1251 (paras 7 to 8), GB-INNO-BM v Confédération du Commerce Luxembourgeois Case C-362/88 [1990] ECR I-667 at 686 (para 7), the SARPP case Case C-241/89 [1990] ECR I-4695 at 4723 (para 29), SCP Boscher Studer et Fromentin v SA British Motors Wright Case C-239/90 [1991] ECR I-2023 at 2038 (para 14) and the Aragonesa case Joined cases C-1/90 and C-176/90 (OJ 1991 C220, p 8) (para 10); see also the judgments in Criminal proceedings against Delattre Case C-369/88 [1991] ECR I-1487 at 1539 (para 50) and Criminal proceedings against Monteil and Samanni Case C-60/89[1991] ECR I-1547 at 1570 (para 37)).
15. Moreover, the court’s recent case law shows that, in examining whether national legislation pursues an objective justified under Community law, the court is sympathetic to legislation which reflects lawful socio-economic or socio-cultural policy choices which are consistent with the public interest objectives pursued in the Treaty. Illustrations of this may be found in the Oebel and Cinéthèque judgments. Summary proceedings against Oebel concerned national legislation which sought to improve working conditions (protection of workers in small and medium-sized bakeries against permanent night work which might damage their health) and the protection of small family businesses against ruinous competition from larger industrial undertakings (see the judgment in Summary proceedings against Oebel Case 155/80 [1981] ECR 1993 at 2006 (para 4), and the facts of the judgment (at 1998), where the German government explains this second objective). In Cinéthèque SA v Fédération nationale des cinémas français Joined cases 60 and 61/84 [1985] ECR 2605 at 2626 (para 23) the court held that national legislation providing for a temporary ban on the distribution of films in video-cassette form, in order to encourage the production of films—irrespective of their origin—and thus to protect the film industry, was pursuing an objective justified under Community law.
This approach may also be found in the court’s case law with regard to the provision of services: I am thinking here particularly of the judgments in Société Générale Alsacienne de Banque SA v Koestler Case 15/78 [1978] ECR 1971 at 1981 (para 5) (where the court deemed acceptable legislation barring the legal recovery of gaming debts for ‘reasons founded on the social order’, that is to say reasons of an ethical and political nature), Procureur du Roi v Debauve Case 52/79 [1980] ECR 833 at 857 (para 16) (in which a prohibition on cable television advertising was held to be acceptable in order to guarantee pluralism in the media), Bond van Adverteerders v Netherlands Case 352/85 [1988] ECR 2085 at 2136 (para 38) and
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Criminal Proceedings against Webb Case 279/80 [1981] ECR 3305 at 3325 (Paras 18 and 19) (where the court held a licence requirement for the provision of manpower in the territory of a member state to be justified in the interests of ‘good relations on the labour market’ and the protection of the ‘lawful interests of the workforce concerned’).
16. Finally, with regard more specifically to the proportionality test, it seems that the court regards that test as satisfied where national legislation clearly has no connection, or merely a very indirect or uncertain one, with imports from other member states or the national legislation in question does not impede imports and exports. (There are various illustrations of this: see the judgment in Criminal proceedings against Oebel, cited above; the judgments in Blesgen v Belgium Case 75/81 [1982] ECR 1211; Direction générale des impôts v Forest Case 148/85 [1986] ECR 3449; H Krantz GmbH & Co v Ontvanger der Directe Belastingen Case C-69/88 [1990] ECR I-583; Quietlynn v Southend-on-Sea BC Case C-23/89 [1990] 3 All ER 207, [1991] 1 QB 454; and Sheptonhurst v Newham BC Case C-350/89 [1991] ECR I-2387. In connection with the freedom to provide services there was recently a hint of this idea in Society for the Protection of Unborn Children Ireland Ltd v Grogan Case C-159/90 [1991] 3 CMLR 849 at 872 (para 24): the link between the provision of information in one member state on the clinical termination of pregnancies in another member state and the pregnancy termination service itself (carried out by a provider of services completely independent of the providers of the information, themselves established in the first member state) was held by the court to be too tenuous for a constitutional prohibition applicable in the first member state on the provision of information to be regarded as a restriction on the freedom to provide services within the meaning of art 59 of the Treaty.
There is not likely to be any such sufficient link with the restrictions on imports mentioned in art 30, so it may be inferred from Cinéthèque Joined cases 60 and 61/84 [1985] ECR 2605 at 2627 (para 21), Krantz Case C-69/88 [1990] ECR I-583 at 597 (para 10) and Quietlynn Case C-23/89 [1990] 3 All ER 207 at 221, [1991] 1 QB 454 at 470 (para 11), if the legislation in question is clearly not intended to regulate trade between member states. Thus legislation whose application is restricted to the marketing of products in the local retail trade or in shop premises (regulation of delivery times of bread to individual customers and retailers in Summary proceedings against Oebel, prohibition on the sale ‘for consumption on the premises’ of beverages of a high alcohol content in Blesgen v Belgium Case 75/81 [1982] ECR 1211; prohibition on the sale of sex articles without a licence in Quietlynn Ltd v Southend-on-Sea BC) may not be deemed to be a measure having equivalent effect because it clearly cannot obstruct intra-Community trade.
Moreover, it is clear from those and other judgments that the court will apply the proportionality test itself where, having regard to the information provided by the referring court, there is no possible dispute in that respect. (See, inter alia, the recent judgments in Buet, GB-INNO-BM, Boscher and Aragonesa, already referred to; cf also the judgments in SARPP Case C-241/89 [1990] ECR I-4695 at 4721 (para 21); Freistaat Bayern v Eurim-Pharm GmbH Case C-347/89 [1991] ECR I-1747 at 1770–1772 (paras 27 to 35); Denkavit Case C-39/90 [1991] ECR I-3069 at 3108 (para 24); Debus v Ministère Public Joined Cases C-13 and C-113/91 (OJ 1992 C167, p 3) (paras 24 and 25). Illustrations can also be found in other areas of Community law: see, for example, with regard to the provision of services, the recent judgment in Stichting Collectieve Antennevoorziening Gouda v Commissariaat voor de Media Case C-288/89 (OJ 1991 C224, p 3) (paras 23 and 24).)
17. The Torfaen, Conforama and Marchandise judgments must be seen in the context of this recent case law. All three judgments implicitly but clearly assume
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that the rules in question are to be regarded as trading rules under the Dassonville formula. Furthermore, in each of those cases the court states that the rules in question are not intended to govern the flow of trade between member states (see the Torfaen judgment Case C-145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53 (para 14 in fine), the Conforama judgment Case C-312/89 [1991] ECR I-997 at 1024 (para 8) and the Marchandise judgment Case C332/89 [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1040 (para 9)), that they apply to imported and domestic products without distinction and that the marketing of products imported from other member states is not made more difficult than the marketing of domestic products (see the Torfaen judgment (para 11), the Conforama judgment (para 9) and the Marchandise judgment (para 10)). In addition, it is expressly stated in the three judgments that the compatibility of the rules in question with art 30 depends on whether the obstacles to trade caused by the rules exceed what is necessary in order to attain the objective in view (proportionality test) and whether that objective is justified under Community law (justification test) (see the Torfaen judgment (para 12), the Conforama judgment (para 10) and the Marchandise judgment (para 11)).
Finally, the court discusses both these tests. With regard to the justification test, the court accepts in all three cases that the provisions in issue pursue an objective which is justified under Community law; they reflect certain political and economic choices, inasmuch as they seek to ensure that working and nonworking hours are so arranged as to accord with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics, the assessment of which, in the present state of Community law, is a matter for the member states (see the Torfaen judgment (para 14), the Conforama judgment (para 11) and the Marchandise judgment (para 12)). As regards the proportionality test, however, a considerable difference is to be observed between the three judgments, as I have already stated (see para 13 above): unlike its approach in the Torfaen judgment (see the quotation in para 11 above), the court itself applied the proportionality test in Conforama (para 12) and Marchandise (para 13) as follows:
‘It must further be stated that the restrictive effects on trade which may stem from such rules do not seem disproportionate to the aim pursued.’
It appears from the foregoing that the court itself replies to the question whether the objective pursued by national legislation is justified under Community law and that in the Torfaen case it gave an affirmative reply in relation to the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules (see para 22, post). On the other hand, the court has not yet given a clear ruling on the question who is to apply the proportionality test.
Who is to apply the justification and proportionality tests under Community law?
18. This question of principle is not as such submitted by the national courts. Nevertheless it is of decisive importance. As may be seen in particular in the preliminary question formulated in Reading BC v Payless DIY Ltd Case C-304/90, the English courts have inferred from the Torfaen judgment that at least the assessment of the proportionality of the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules is a matter for them. B & Q goes still further in its interpretation of the Torfaen case: besides the proportionality test, the determination of the actual objective of the legislation and the examination of the question whether that objective falls within the objectives held to be justified under Community law by the court are, it says, matters for the national courts. Those, it argues, are questions of national law which fall outside the jurisdiction of the Court of Justice, in particular where the objective of the legislation is open to doubt or is disputed.
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Reading Borough Council, Stoke-on-Trent City Council, Norwich City Council, the United Kingdom and the Commission, on the other hand, consider that the justification and proportionality under Community law of a national measure cannot be left to the national courts. If it were, the uniform application of Community law would be placed at risk.
19. It is clear that, in the context of a reference for a preliminary ruling, it is the joint task of the court and the national courts to determine whether a national measure is compatible with Community law. The court’s view as a matter of principle on this point is abundantly clear, and is reiterated at the beginning of the judgments in Conforama [1991] ECR I-997 at 1024 (para 6) and Marchandise [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1039 (para 7):
‘It must be observed in limine that although the Court has no jurisdiction, in preliminary reference proceedings, to rule on the compatibility of a national provision with the Treaty, it is nevertheless empowered to provide the national court with all the criteria for the interpretation of Community law which will enable the latter to assess that compatibility for the purpose of giving judgment in the case before it.’
In my view, the collaboration between the court and the national courts may be stated as follows. First, the national court must, in the formulation of its question, provide the court with all the necessary factual information and the national legal framework, so that the court is afforded the possibility of making a ruling with full knowledge of the facts. (The court has repeatedly emphasised that the need to arrive at a useful interpretation of Community law makes it essential to define the legal context within which the interpretation requested must be placed: see the judgments in Union Laitière Normande v French Dairy Farmers Ltd Case 244/78 [1979] ECR 2663 at 2681 (para 5) and Irish Creamery Milk Suppliers Association v Ireland Joined cases 36 and 71/80 [1981] ECR 735 at 748 (para 6).) The court cannot, however, rule on the correctness of that information or legal framework. (That is settled case law: see, inter alia, the judgments in Oehlschläger v Hauptzollamt Emmerich Case 104/77 [1978] ECR 791 at 797 (para 4) and Hauptzollamt Bremen-Freihafen v Drünert Case 167/84 [1985] ECR 2235 at 2246 (para 12).) The court must then provide the national court with all relevant information with regard to Community law, including the criteria to be used in assessing the issues of justification and proportionality. Finally, it is for the national court, on the basis of the reply given to it by the court, to assess the compatibility or incompatibility of national legislation with Community law and to determine the necessary consequences under national law.
20. With regard specifically to the assessment of justification and proportionality under Community law, the collaboration outlined above in general terms takes the following form.
As regards the assessment of justification, it is for the national court, with the assistance of the parties, to identify as clearly as possible the policy objectives pursued by national legislation and to bring them to the court’s knowledge. (On the question whether it is desirable for there to be contact between the court and national courts where certain elements are missing from the preliminary reference, I would refer to T Koopmans ‘The technique of the preliminary question—a view from the Court of Justice’ in Schermers et al (eds) Article 177 EEC: Experiences and Problems (1987) p 327 at p 333: ‘It would be a great help if the Court of Justice could make contact with the referring court if it should discover that some elements of information are missing. Rules of procedure applicable to the national courts make it impossible, however, for most of them
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to reopen the case after having suspended it when they put their questions to the Court of Justice. In particular, national rules on litigation before civil and criminal courts—as opposed to administrative courts or tribunals—are normally too strict to permit an exchange of information after the order for a reference has been made. On the other hand, it is for the court to decide finally whether the objectives thus identified are consistent with an objective pursued by Community law or—where they fall within areas which in the current state of Community law are within the competence of the member states—whether Community law is in any way opposed to the objectives pursued by the national measure.
With regard to the assessment of proportionality, it is in my view for the court, and for the court alone, clearly and imperatively to indicate in its case law the criteria to be used in that assessment (see paras 28 to 31, post). It is then the joint task of the court and the national court to apply those criteria drawn from existing case law to the concrete legal and factual context. In that connection the national court, in its order for reference, must give the fullest possible description of the legislation in issue (legal basis, scope, detailed rules and practice governing its application) and its restrictive effect on intra-Community trade. If it appears from the findings of the national court and the arguments submitted to the court that there is no room for any doubt, the court itself—as I have already stated (see para 16 above)—will state the results of the assessment under Community law. That indeed is what was done in the Conforama and Marchandise cases. If the court has not itself made an assessment on the basis of the information provided to it (it may be inferred from judgments such as those recently delivered in Schäfer Shop BV v Minister van Economische Zaken Case 12/88 [1989] ECR 2937 at 2962–2963 (para 23) and Ministre des Finances v Richardt Case C-367/89 [1992] 1 CMLR 61 at 81 (para 25) that the court does refer the assessment of proportionality more frequently to the national court), then the national court, where necessary after further examination of the legislative and factual context, and in the light of the court’s reply to the preliminary question, must arrive at its own decision regarding the application of the proportionality requirement.
The requirement of an objective which is justified under Community law
21. In its first question Reading and Sonning Magistrates’ Court seeks to determine whether the objective underlying the United Kingdom Sunday trading provisions is justified under Community law within the meaning of paras 12 to 14 of the Torfaen judgment Case C-145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 52–53. The magistrates’ court considers that that objective is to ensure ‘so far as possible that shopworkers do not have to work on Sundays, with a view to maintaining what many regard as the traditional English Sunday’.
According to Reading Borough Council and the United Kingdom, that question was answered in para 13 of the Torfaen judgment, and it is sufficient that one of the objectives of the Sunday trading provisions should be justified under Community law for those provisions to be compatible as a whole with Community law. The Commission, too, considers that the court in the Torfaen case, as in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, gave an affirmative reply to the question whether the legislation in question pursued an objective justified under Community law.
B & Q, on the other hand, contends that the question put by the magistrates’ court is based on a false premise. The objective of s 47 of the 1950 Act is limited to protecting full-time shop workers. If the question were whether that objective is justified under Community law, the answer would be in the affirmative, provided that the legislation in practice attains that objective and satisfies the
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proportionality requirement. Payless DIY adds that, in so far as the Sunday trading ban reflects ‘certain political and economic choices’ made by the United Kingdom Parliament, s 47 is certainly no longer in accord with ‘national or regional socio-cultural characteristics’ in England and Wales. As a result of the increase in part-time working in the retail sector there is little need for legislative protection of part-time workers by means of the Sunday trading ban, since in their case there can be no suggestion of overworking or exploitation by the employer.
22. Like Reading Borough Council, the United Kingdom and the Commission, I am of the opinion that the question raised by the magistrates’ court has already been answered in the Torfaen case itself. It is sufficient in that connection to read the relevant grounds of the judgment (paras 13 and 14). In so far as there might still have been some doubt after the Torfaen case with regard to the justification under Community law of that objective, it was entirely removed by the judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases. There the court expressly stated that—
‘legislation such as the legislation at issue pursues an aim which is justified with regard to Community law. The Court has already held, in its judgment of 23 November 1989 in the Torfaen case, that national rules governing the opening hours of retail premises reflect certain political and economic choices in so far as their purpose is to ensure that working and non-working hours are so arranged as to accord with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics, and that, in the present state of Community law, is a matter for the Member States.’ (See the Conforama judgment [1991] ECR I-997 at 1025 (para 11) and the Marchandise judgment [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1040–1041 (para 12).)
It follows unambiguously from those judgments that the United Kingdom Sunday trading provisions pursue an objective justified under Community law, regard being had to the policy choices underlying those provisions. There the matter could rest, were it not for the fact that in judicial pronouncements and academic writing in the various member states doubts have been expressed concerning the import of these judgments in relation to the grounds of justification recognised by the Treaty or by the court. I should therefore like to make a few general observations.
23. The question arises whether, in addition to the grounds of justification exhaustively enumerated in art 36 of the EEC Treaty and the specific ‘mandatory requirements’ under art 30 of the EEC Treaty which have hitherto been recognised in the court’s case law (effectiveness of fiscal controls, fairness of commercial transactions, consumer protection, environmental protection), the court also recognises a general, less specific category of grounds of justification, that is to say, in the terms of the Torfaen, Conforama and Marchandise cases, those ‘which reflect certain political and economic choices … [in accordance] with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics, [the assessment of which,] in the present state of Community law, is a matter for the Member States’. (With regard to the freedom to provide services the court has for some considerable time recognised the protection of workers as an ‘imperative public interest requirement’ justifying a restriction on intra-Community trade: that occurred for the first time in Criminal proceedings against Webb Case 279/80 [1981] ECR 3305 at 3325 (para 19); cf most recently the judgments in Gouda’s case Case C-288/89 (OJ 1991 C224, p 3) (para 14), and in EC Commission v Netherlands Case C-353/89 (OJ 1991 C224, p 3) (para 18).)
Before answering that question I should make the following remark. It seems to me that certain further special mandatory requirements may be added to the
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list of mandatory requirements inherent in art 30 of the EEC Treaty (which may be relied upon solely in order to justify non-discriminatory national provisions). I have in mind requirements which are consistent with specific objectives or interests which may be derived from other provisions of the Community Treaties—particularly after the amendments made by the Single European Act—relating more specifically to economic and social policy (for example, the improvement of working conditions), economic and social cohesion, research and technical development and the protection and enhancement of the environment. (In some cases the court does not await recognition of an objective in a Treaty provision in order to regard it as an imperative requirement. For example, the court regarded environmental protection as an essential Community objective well before the entry into force of the Single European Act: see the judgment in Procureur de la République v Association de défence des brûleurs d’huiles usagées Case 240/83 [1985] ECR 531 at 549 (para 13). In the Webb judgment Case 279/80 [1981] ECR 3305, too, the protection of workers was also recognised, this time in connection with the freedom to provide services, as an ‘imperative public interest requirement’, some considerable time before the entry into force of the Single European Act.)
The question, then, is whether there is also a place for a general ground of justification for national provisions which reflect political and economic choices in keeping with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics. As the court’s case law now stands an affirmative answer cannot as such be inferred from the judgments concerning such provisions. In Summary proceedings against Oebel Case 155/80 [1981] ECR 1993 at 2008 (para 12), in which the court regarded the national provisions in question as ‘a legitimate element of economic and social policy’, the court immediately added: ‘consistent with the objectives of public interest pursued by the Treaty’, and pointed out that the intention of the legislation was ‘to improve working conditions in a manifestly sensitive [production] industry’. In the Torfaen case [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 52–53 (paras 13 and 14) the court expressly recognised, referring to Summary proceedings against Oebel, that national measures relating to the opening hours of shops are also consistent with the objectives of public interest pursued by the Treaty. Subsequently, it was confirmed in the Marchandise case [1991] ECR I-1027 at 1042 (para 19) that in these measures the ‘objective is worker protection’. In other words, in those judgments the court is consciously making a connection with specific mandatory requirements already recognised in the case law.
24. It is not my intention in these remarks to preclude the possibility that there may well be a place for a ground of justification generally concerning ‘national rules which reflect certain political and economic choices in keeping with national or regional socio-cultural characteristics’. I am thinking of provisions adopted in policy areas which in the current state of Community law (still predominantly economically orientated) lie outside the competence of the Community and are thus not consistent with an essential Treaty objective, but are not contrary to one either. Examples are national provisions concerning questions of a purely political, moral or religious nature or the protection of the cultural and linguistic identity of a people, whose assessment is undoubtedly, to take the words of the Sunday trading judgments, ‘in the present state of Community law … a matter for the Member States’. (With regard to the relationship between a policy for promoting a national language as an expression of national identity and culture and freedom of movement for workers, see the judgment in Groener v Minister of Education Case C-379/87 [1989] ECR 3967.) Nevertheless, here too, in
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order to prevent an undesirable proliferation of grounds of justification, I consider that as close a connection as possible must be sought with the grounds provided for in art 36 of the EEC Treaty (indeed, it is far from hypothetical that such provisions may be able to rely on the grounds mentioned in that provision of ‘public morality, public policy or public security [or] the protection of national treasures possessing artistic … value’), the objectives of Community law recognised in the European treaties and the fundamental rights which form part of the Community legal order, in the light of which those grounds and objectives must be construed. (See, in relation to the freedom to provide services (arts 66 and 56 of the EEC Treaty), the judgment in Elliniki Radiophonia Tiléorassi-Anonimi Etairia v Dimotiki Etairia Pliroforissis Case C-260/89 [1991] ECR I-2925 at 2964 (para 45). With regard to the freedom to provide services the court has held, moreover, in the recent judgments on the Netherlands ‘Mediawet’ that a national cultural policy, connected, through the operation of a pluralistic broadcasting system, with the protection of freedom of expression, may constitute an imperative public interest requirement justifying a restriction on the freedom to provide services: see the Gouda judgment Case C-288/89 (OJ 1991 C224, p 3) (para 23); EC Commission v Netherlands C-353/89 (OJ 1991 C224, p 3) (para 30).)
However that may be, it must in any event be correct that (i) it is in the final analysis for the court—desirable though it may be for the national court to make its own view known to the court—to determine whether the objective is justified and (ii) that a national measure whose objective is justified under Community law must still be assessed against the principle of proportionality. This assessment serves to ensure that a measure which is justified in itself does not nevertheless conflict with the principle of the free movement of goods.
25. The foregoing general observations permit me to share the view formed by the court in the Sunday trading cases with regard to the justification under Community law of Sunday trading rules. Whatever may be the reasons for the enactment and retention of the United Kingdom Sunday trading ban, it seems to be clear, as was confirmed by the United Kingdom at the hearing, that those provisions are intended to ensure that shopworkers should not (or as little as possible) have to work on Sundays. That gives them, inter alia, the possibility of devoting that day to family or friends in non-occupational activities. In so far as such an objective is aimed at social protection, as the court has held, it is consistent with one of the objectives of Community law, that is to say the improvement of working conditions and the protection, by means of regular rest periods, of the health of shopworkers. The fact that a specific day, Sunday is chosen for that purpose reflects a choice in keeping with a national or regional socio-cultural preference in a policy area outside the sphere of competence of the Community; subject to application of the proportionality test, I cannot see why it should be contrary to Community law.
The Community proportionality requirement
26. In its second question the House of Lords seeks to determine whether it is immediately apparent, whether or not evidence is adduced, that a measure such as the Sunday trading ban is proportionate to the objective pursued which is justified under Community law. In the event that the reply to that question should be in the negative, the House of Lords seeks in its third question to ascertain on what criteria and by reference to what evidence the national court must determine whether the restrictive effects of the legislation under examination exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind. The first three sub-questions and the sixth sub-question of the second question submitted by the Reading and
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Sonning Magistrates’ Court are along the same lines. The first sub-questions once again concern the criteria to be applied by national courts; more specifically they concern the question whether and to what extent the criteria mentioned in art 3 of Commission Directive (EEC) 70/50 are applicable. The third sub-question seeks to ascertain to what extent the national court, in its assessment of the proportionality requirement, must abide by the conclusion of the national legislature. In the sixth sub-question the national court asks how a national court is to compare the restrictive effects of the legislation with the objective pursued by that legislation.
27. As I have already stated (see para 20 above), it is ultimately for the national court to assess the proportionality of the national measure in question. I do not think there are any measures in respect of which it is prima facie clear, that is to say without any evidence being adduced, that they satisfy the proportionality test. However, as I have observed, the information provided to the court by the national court in its reference for a preliminary ruling may be so clear and uncontested with regard to the absence or near absence of any restrictive effect of the legislation on intra-Community trade that the result of the proportionality test is obvious and can be stated by the court itself.
The reply to the third sub-question raised by the Reading and Sonning Magistrates’ Court follows from that. In my view the national court may not automatically accept the view of the national legislature or limit itself to deciding whether the national legislature, in the light of the proportionality requirement, could reasonably have adopted the legislative provisions in question. (That approach appears to have been taken in the judgment of the High Court of Justice, Chancery Division, in Stoke-on-Trent City Council v B & Q plc [1991] 4 All ER 221, [1991] Ch 48.) I think that is clear from the court’s case law, in particular the judgment in Criminal proceedings against Miro BV Case 182/84 [1985] ECR 3731. In that judgment the court expressly rejected an argument put forward by the German government to the effect that it was for the national legislature to assess the need for a prohibition on the use of the name ‘Jenever’, and that the national courts were bound to follow that assessment (at 3744 (para 14)):
‘As regards the latter argument, it must be stated that neither Article 30 of the Treaty nor indeed Article 36 reserves certain matters to the exclusive jurisdiction of the Member States. When in order to satisfy mandatory requirements recognized by Community law national legislation creates obstacles to the fundamental principle of the free movement of goods, it must observe the limits laid down by Community law. It is for the Court, which interprets Community law in the final instance, and for the national courts, which reach their decisions on the basis of that interpretation, to ensure that those limits are observed. In the final analysis the German Government’s argument amounts to a repudiation of review by the Court and therefore runs counter to the uniformity and effectiveness of Community law. It must therefore be rejected.’
28. That brings me to the questions on the criteria to be applied by the national courts, and where appropriate by the Court of Justice, in assessing proportionality. I shall begin by dealing with the questions on the significance of art 3 of Commission Directive 70/50 in the application of the proportionality test. The starting point is para 15 of the Torfaen judgment, in which express reference was made to that directive. For the sake of clarity I shall reproduce the text of the relevant provision of the directive:
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‘This directive also covers measures governing the marketing of products which deal, in particular, with shape, size, weight, composition, presentation, identification or putting up and which are equally applicable to domestic and imported products, where the restrictive effect of such measures on the free movement of goods exceeds the effects intrinsic to trade rules.
This is the case, in particular, where:—the restrictive effects on the free movement of goods are out of proportion to their purpose;—the same objective can be attained by other means which are less of a hindrance to trade.’
29. The magistrates’ court asks first of all whether the national court is required to apply the criteria set out in art 3 of Commission Directive 70/50. According to Reading Borough Council that is certainly so. By expressly referring in the Torfaen case to the above-mentioned provision and by adopting its wording, the court, it argues, indicated that art 3 of Commission Directive 70/50 accurately reflects the scope of art 30. In my opinion that interpretation goes too far. Since the expiry of the transitional period (that is to say since 1 January 1970) Commission Directive 70/50 has played a modest role: the prohibition imposed by art 30 of the EEC Treaty has since then had direct effect and thus ‘its implementation does not require any subsequent intervention of the Member States or Community institutions’ (see the judgment in Iannelli & Volpi SpA v Meroni Case 74/76 [1977] ECR 557 at 575 (para 13). In any event the directive was regarded by the Commission mainly as a set of guidelines. A Mattera Le Marché Unique Européen. Ses règles, son fonctionnement (2nd edn, 1990) p 42 confirms that ‘the objective of the Commission was to lay down an “authoritative point of reference” based on its experience acquired in investigating numerous cases of “measures having equivalent effect”, in order to enable Member States to be better acquainted with the extent of their obligations in the matter’). In its case law the court thus refers to Commission Directive 70/50—in particular to the list of categories of measures having equivalent effect contained in art 2(3)—only where the wording of the directive tallies with its settled case law. (I think that is clearly to be seen in the judgments in EC Commission v Italy Case 56/87 [1988] ECR 2919 at 2928 (para 7) and EC Commission v Belgium Case C-249/88 [1991] ECR 1-1275 (para 7 in fine), where it is stated: ‘This interpretation of Article 30 [that is to say that provided for in art 2(3)(c) to (e) of Directive 70/50] is confirmed by the Court’s settled case law’.) To a certain extent that may be compared with the court’s reference to the general programmes adopted by the Council on the right of establishment and the freedom to provide services, to which it sometimes has regard, since they ‘provide useful guidance with a view to the implementation of the provisions of the Treaty’ (see, inter alia, the recent judgment in EC Commission v Italy Case 63/86 [1988] ECR 29 at 52 (para 14)).
The criteria for the assessment of proportionality under Community law must therefore be found in the court’s case law. That, I think, also provides the answer to the next question raised by the magistrates’ court, namely whether a national measure must satisfy each of the criteria mentioned in art 3(2) of Directive 70/50; here again it is the court’s case law that is decisive, and not that provision of the directive.
30. What, then, are the criteria for applying the proportionality requirements at Community law, as they may be deduced from the court’s case law? As was emphasised twice in the Torfaen judgment [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 52–53 (paras 12, 15), the starting point is that the restrictive effects of national legislation on intra-Community trade may not exceed what is necessary
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in order to ensure the attainment of the objective justified under Community law. There are two aspects to that, which may be summarised as follows.
First of all, it must be determined whether the national measure in question is objectively necessary in order to further the attainment of the objective pursued by it. That means that the measure must be relevant (effective), that is to say of such a nature as to afford effective protection of the public interest involved (cf the wording adopted by the court in Criminal proceedings against Wurmser Case 25/88 [1989] ECR 1105 at 1128 (para 13)), and must be essential in order to attain the objective, which implies that the competent legislator does not have an equally effective alternative available to it which would have a less restrictive effect on the free movement of goods. (The criterion set out in the last indent of the second sub-paragraph of art 3 of Commission Directive 70/50 is to the same effect as this latter aspect of the necessity test.) Secondly, even if the national measure is effective and essential with regard to the objective pursued, it must be determined whether the restriction caused thereby to intra-Community trade is in relation, that is to say proportionate, to that objective. (In other words this is an application of the test mentioned in the first indent of the second sub-paragraph of art 3 of Commission Directive 70/50.) It may be seen from the foregoing that the proportionality test in the broad understanding of the term essentially contains both a dual necessity criterion (relevance and indispensability of the measure) and a proportionality criterion in the strict sense.
31. That brings me to the last sub-question (f) of the second question submitted by the magistrates’ court. In it the national court seeks additional information on the manner in which the restrictive effects on the free movement of goods arising from national legislation must be compared with the objective pursued by that legislation.
That request for clarification is also implicit in the third-question submitted by the House of Lords. Here we are concerned with the crux of the proportionality test. It may be seen from the analysis of the proportionality requirement set out above that that assessment comprises various comparisons: first, it must be examined whether the means provided for in the legislation are relevant, that is to say have a causal connection with the objective pursued. Then it must be examined whether the measure in question is essential, that is to say the objective could not equally well be attained by means of other measures less restrictive of the free movement of goods. That entails comparing two possible measures in the light of the objective pursued. Finally, it must be determined whether the restriction on trade caused by the measure in question is not disproportionate to its objective, which implies the comparison of a specific restriction on trade with the objective pursued.
Each of these comparisons entails the balancing of points of comparison which are not, or not fully, quantifiable. That is particularly true of the last-mentioned comparison, in which two conflicting values are weighed against each other, namely the greatest possible freedom of intra-Community trade and the objective pursued by the national legislation in question. Such a comparison naturally implies an assessment which cannot be made solely on the basis of quantifiable data, but that does not mean that the assessment is impossible. More specifically, in the present cases I think it is clear that the obstacles to intra-Community trade caused by the United Kingdom Sunday trading provisions go no further than is necessary and are not excessive, regard being had to the objective pursued by the legislation. The fact that the legislation, as is expressly confirmed by the magistrates’ court in its reference for a preliminary ruling, affects domestic and imported products without distinction and pro rata and does not seriously hamper
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sales through the same channels on the week as a whole (which is confirmed by the forecast mentioned by the magistrates’ court to the effect that the removal of the ban would have only a limited effect on total imports from other member states, that is to say about 0.8%) can only support my conclusion, as has already been acknowledged by the court in the Conforama and Marchandise cases: this is legislation which is not discriminatory, is not intended to regulate trade and whose effects on intra-Community trade are not such as to lead to partitioning of the market.
32. Again in relation to the application of the proportionality test, the Reading and Sonning Magistrates’ Court referred to the court two supplementary sub-questions (points (d) and (e) of the second question). In the first place the court is asked whether the national court, in assessing the effects of the legislation in question, may take account of the totality of the restrictive effects on intra-Community imports or only of the restrictive effects on imported goods compared to domestic goods. The answer to that is that in its case law the court does not restrict itself to the discriminatory effect of national legislation on imported goods, but takes account in its assessment of all restrictions on intra-Community trade caused by the legislation. Even in cases where it is clear that a national measure is applicable without distinction to domestic and imported products and the court finds that there is no question of any intention to partition markets or manipulate trade flows, it takes as the criterion for the purposes of the proportionality test the totality of the restrictions caused to intra-Community trade (in particular in the Cinéthèque judgment Joined cases 60 and 61/84 [1985] ECR 2605 at 2626 (para 22) and the Torfaen judgment Case 145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 156, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 52 (para 12).
These authorities also seem to me to provide an answer to the other question submitted by the magistrates’ court, that is to say the market to be taken into consideration in assessing the restrictive impact of the measure in question. Should this be all intra-Community trade in goods or services, the sector in which the undertaking in question operates or even the undertaking itself? The final decision must, I think, be based on as complete as possible a set of uncontested empirical data on the actual effects of a specific measure on the totality of intra-Community trade. It seems to me to be an impossible task to define the ‘relevant market’ in a given sector, (series of) products or undertaking. To decide otherwise would entail the risk that a measure could be considered disproportionate, and therefore contrary to Community law, in respect of one specific industrial sector, product or group of products, or undertaking, but not of others.
Remaining questions
I do not need to go into the third question submitted by the Reading and Sonning Magistrates’ Court, that is to say whether the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules fall within the sphere of application of art 36 of the Treaty: the legislation at issue constitutes a non-discriminatory measure covered by the ‘rule of reason’ inherent in art 30 of the Treaty. Even if it is considered that the United Kingdom Sunday trading provisions in part pursue a public health objective inasmuch as they envisage rest periods for a significant section of the population (see para 25 above) (cf my opinion in the Torfaen case [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 153, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 48 (para 30)), in relation to non-discriminatory national measures that ground of justification performs the same function as the mandatory requirements inherent in art 30 of the EEC Treaty (see the Aragonesa judgment Joined cases C-1/90 and C-176/90 (OJ 1991 C220, p 8) (para 13), and my opinion in that case (para 14). Moreover, the assessment of proportionality in the context
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of art 36 of the EEC Treaty is conducted in the same manner as described above in relation to art 30 of the EEC Treaty.
I have already, on a previous occasion, replied as follows to the fourth and final question submitted by the magistrates’ court, that is to say the importance to be attached to the fact that the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules provide for exceptions (see my opinion in the Torfaen case Case C-145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 153–154, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 49–50 (para 32); it was already clear in the Torfaen case that there were significant doubts as to the effectiveness of the United Kingdom Sunday trading rules: see [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 154, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 49 (para 32)). Although I accept that the question of the justification at Community law of a national measure must be decided in the light of the intrinsic characteristics of the measures and their actual application, objections based on the allegedly uneven or inconsistent application of the legislation within the same member state may well afford a cause of action under national law but, as long as there is no question of deliberate discrimination or disguised restrictions on trade between member states, not under Community law.
34. I thus come to the last question, namely the sole remaining question submitted by the High Court in Rochdale BC v Anders Case C-306/88. It is asked in the event (which has not arisen) that the national measure in question should be found to contravene art 30 of the Treaty. In such a case, does the prohibition imposed by Community law extend to the application of the legislation to domestic products? According to Rochdale Borough Council, the answer to that must be in the negative: were the court to declare the Sunday trading provisions to be incompatible with art 30 of the EEC Treaty and not justified under art 36, the provisions would become inapplicable only to products imported from other member states. This approach seems to me to be quite impractical. In the case of simple products the distinction is already difficult to draw (how does one prove for example that a specific kind of fruit which is also grown in Great Britain is or is not imported?), and in the case of composite products, for example machines, cars etc, this method of proceeding is entirely unrealistic. Nevertheless, it must be accepted that Community law is not applicable to a purely domestic situation. (This has been repeatedly affirmed by the court, in particular with regard to freedom of movement for workers (see, most recently, the judgment in Steen v Deutsche Bundespost Case C-332/90 [1992] 2 CMLR 406), freedom of establishment (see, inter alia, the judgment in Criminal proceedings against Nino Joined cases C-54/88, C-91/88 and C-14/89 [1990] ECR I-3537) and freedom to provide services (see the recent judgment in Portugal v Morais Case C-60/91 [1992] 2 CMLR 533).) The extent to which partial incompatibility of the measure in question with Community law affects the overall validity of the measure within a member state is a question of national law.
Conclusion
35. On the basis of the foregoing considerations I propose that the court should reply to the questions referred to it in the present cases as follows.
In Rochdale BC v Anders Case C-306/88: The prohibition contained in art 30 of the EEC Treaty is not applicable to a purely domestic situation in a member state. It is for national law to determine the effect of a finding that a measure is incompatible with art 30 of the EEC Treaty on the application of that measure to domestic products.
In Reading BC v Payless DIY Ltd Case C-304/90: Legislation of a member state which prohibits shops from opening on Sundays pursues an objective which is justified under Community law.
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In Reading BC v Payless DIY Ltd Case C-304/90 and Stoke-on-Trent City Council v B & Q plc Case C-169/91: (1) As a matter of principle it is for the national court, on the basis of the criteria laid down in the case law of the Court of Justice and the reply given to it by the court following a reference for a preliminary ruling, to determine the proportionality of a national measure under Community law. In that connection it must in particular investigate whether the measure, regard being had to its intrinsic characteristics and actual application, is objectively necessary in order to facilitate the realisation of its objective, that is to say it contributes to the attainment of the objective and the legislature has no equally effective alternative at its disposal which would have less restrictive effects on intra-Community trade. In addition, the national court must, on the basis of as complete as possible a set of undisputed empirical data, investigate whether the restrictions on intra-Community trade as a whole occasioned by the measure are in proportion to the objective pursued which is justified under Community law. (2) In so far as the information on the relevant legislation and the facts provided to the Court of Justice by the national court in the preliminary reference procedure is sufficient—and thus not in the absence of evidence—the court may itself apply the proportionality test, in which case it is for the national court where the measure is held to be disproportionate, to declare it to be incompatible with Community law and determine the consequences under national law of that declaration.
16 December 1992. THE COURT OF JUSTICE delivered the following judgment.
1. By order of 20 May 1991, which was received at the court on 1 July 1991, the House of Lords referred to the court for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty a number of questions on the interpretation of art 30 of the Treaty.
2. The questions were raised in two sets of proceedings brought by Stoke-on-Trent City Council and Norwich City Council against B & Q plc (B & Q).
3. In those proceedings, the two prosecuting authorities accuse B & Q of contravening ss 47 and 59 of the Shops Act 1950 by opening their shops on Sundays for commercial transactions other than those listed in Sch 5 to that Act.
4. Schedule 5 to the 1950 Act contains a list of items which, by way of exception, may be sold in shops on Sundays. They include, in particular, intoxicating liquors, certain foodstuffs, tobacco, newspapers and other products of everyday consumption.
5. In the proceedings before the House of Lords, before which the cases are pending at last instance, it became apparent that the parties differed as to the interpretation to be given to the court’s judgments in, on the one hand, Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case C-145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129, [1990] 2 QB 19 and, on the other, Union départementale des syndicats CGT de l’Aisne v SIDEF Conforama Case C-312/89 [1991] ECR I-997 (Conforama) and Criminal proceedings against Marchandise Case C-332/89 [1991] ECR I-1027 (Marchandise).
6. In view of the dispute as to the proper interpretation of the above-mentioned judgments, the House of Lords stayed the proceedings and referred the following questions to the Court of Justice for a preliminary ruling:
‘1. Whether the effect of the Court of Justice’s rulings in Case-312/89 Conforama and C-332/89 Marchandise is to determine that the prohibition contained in Article 30 of the EEC Treaty does not apply to national rules,
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such as those in issue in Case 145/88 Torfaen Borough Council v. B & Q plc, which prohibit retailers from opening their premises on Sunday for the serving of customers with certain goods;
2. If not, whether it is nevertheless immediately apparent, whether or not evidence is adduced, that the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in Question 1 above do not exceed “the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind”, as that phrase is used in the ruling of the Court of Justice in Case 145/88;
3. If not, on what criteria and by reference to what, if any, factual or other evidence the national court must determine the question whether or not the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade which may result from national rules such as those in Question 1 above exceed “the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind” within the meaning of that phrase as used in the ruling of the Court of Justice in Case 145/88.’
7. Reference is made to the report for the hearing for a fuller account of the facts of the cases pending before the national court, the relevant legislation, the procedure and the written observations submitted to the court, which are mentioned or discussed hereinafter only in so far as is necessary for the reasoning of the court.
The first question
8. The national court’s first question seeks to determine whether it follows from the court’s judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases that the prohibition laid down in art 30 of the Treaty does not apply to national legislation such as that in question. That same legislation was also the subject of the court’s judgment in the Torfaen case, cited above.
9. In those three judgments the court found that the various bodies of national legislation concerning the closing of shops on Sundays were not intended to regulate the flow of goods.
10. It is also apparent from those judgments that such legislation may indeed have adverse repercussions on the volume of sales of certain shops, but that it affects the sale of both domestic and imported products. The marketing of products from other member states is not therefore made more difficult than the marketing of national products.
11. Furthermore, in the above-mentioned judgments the court recognised that the legislation at issue pursued an aim which was justified under Community law. National rules restricting the opening of shops on Sundays reflected certain choices relating to particular national or regional socio-cultural characteristics. It was for the member states to make those choices in compliance with the requirements of Community law, in particular the principle of proportionality.
12. As far as that principle is concerned, the court stated in its judgment in the Torfaen case that such rules were not prohibited by art 30 of the Treaty where the restrictive effects on Community trade which might result from them did not exceed the effects intrinsic to such rules and that the question whether the effects of those rules actually remained within that limit was a question of fact to be determined by the national court.
13. In its judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases, however, the court found it necessary to make clear, with regard to similar rules, that the restrictive effects on trade which might result from them did not appear to be excessive in relation to the aim pursued.
14. The court considered that it had all the information necessary for it to rule
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on the question of the proportionality of such rules and that it had to do so in order to enable national courts to assess their compatibility with Community law in a uniform manner since such an assessment cannot be allowed to vary according to the findings of fact made by individual courts in particular cases.
15. Appraising the proportionality of national rules which pursue a legitimate aim under Community law involves weighing the national interest in attaining that aim against the Community interest in ensuring the free movement of goods. In that regard, in order to verify that the restrictive effects on intra-Community trade of the rules at issue do not exceed what is necessary to achieve the aim in view, it must be considered whether those effects are direct, indirect or purely speculative and whether those effects do not impede the marketing of imported products more than the marketing of national products.
16. It was on the basis of those considerations that in its judgments in the Conforama and Marchandise cases the court ruled that the restrictive effects on trade of national rules prohibiting the employment of workers on Sundays in certain retailing activities were not excessive in relation to the aim pursued. For the same reasons, the court must make the same finding with regard to national rules prohibiting shops from opening on Sundays.
17. It must therefore be stated in reply to the first question that art 30 of the Treaty is to be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national legislation prohibiting retailers from opening their premises on Sundays.
The second and third questions
18. In view of the answer given to the first question, it is unnecessary to give a ruling on the second and third questions.
Costs
19. The costs incurred by the United Kingdom and the Commission of the European Communities, which have submitted observations to the court, are not recoverable. Since these proceedings are, so far as the parties to the main proceedings are concerned, in the nature of a step in the proceedings before the national court, the decision on costs is a matter for that court.
On those grounds, the court, in reply to the questions referred to it by the House of Lords by order of 20 May 1991, hereby rules that art 30 of the Treaty is to be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national legislation prohibiting retailers from opening their premises on Sundays.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Note
Rochdale Borough Council v Anders
[1993] 1 All ER 520
(Case C-306/88)
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF JUSTICE OF THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITIES
Lord(s): JUDGES DUE (PRESIDENT), KAKOURIS, RODRÍGUEZ IGLESIAS, MURRAY (PRESIDENTS OF CHAMBERS), MANCINI, JOLIET, DÍEZ DE VELASCO, KAPTEYN AND EDWARD
Hearing Date(s): ADVOCATE GENERAL VAN GERVEN
2 JUNE, 8 JULY, 16 DECEMBER 1992
After judgment was given by Caulfield J sitting in the Queen’s Bench Division at Manchester on 23 May 1988 in Rochdale BC v Anders [1988] 3 All ER 490 four questions were referred by that court to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling pursuant to art 177 of the EEC Treaty (see [1988] 3 All ER 490 at 494). On 16 December 1992 the Court of Justice, having heard the opinion of the Advocate General at the sitting on 8 July 1992 and after having given its judgment in Stoke-on-Trent City Council v B & Q plc Case C-169/91 [1993] 1 All ER 481, gave its judgment in the Rochdale BC case, in which it stated that it had been informed by the Queen’s Bench Division that in view of the judgment of the Court of Justice in Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case 145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129, [1990] 2 QB 19 the first three questions had become devoid of purpose but that a decision on the fourth question was still required. The Court of Justice pointed to its answer in the Stoke-on-Trent City Council case, which was concerned with rules substantially similar to those in question in the Rochdale BC case, and said that it followed that it was likewise unnecessary to reply to the fourth question. The decision of the Court of Justice in the Rochdale BC case accordingly does not call for a fuller report.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
K and another v P and others (J, third party)
[1993] 1 All ER 521
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): FERRIS J
Hearing Date(s): 1, 5 MAY, 22, 23 JUNE 1992
Practice – Third party proceedings – Defence – Illegality – Action by plaintiff against defendant based on conspiracy and fraud – Defendant issuing third party notice against plaintiff’s accountant alleging negligence and breach of contract and claiming contribution in respect of damages if payable – Third party applying to have notice struck out – Whether illegality a valid defence to claim for contribution – Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978, ss 1(1), 2(1)(2), 6(1).
In the course of an action brought by the plaintiffs against six defendants claiming damages for fraud and conspiracy to defraud arising out of various property transactions, the third defendant, who had been the plaintiffs’ financial adviser, issued a third party notice against the third party, who was the plaintiffs’ accountant, under s 1(1)a of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978, which provided that ‘any person liable in respect of any damage … may recover contribution from any other person liable in respect of the same damage’. The notice claimed an indemnity from the third party against any damages payable by the third defendant to the plaintiffs on the basis that the accountant had acted in breach of contract or negligently in failing to advise the plaintiffs properly or at all in regard to the transactions. The master dismissed the third party’s application to have the notice struck out. The third party appealed, contending that a party who was held merely to have been negligent could not be required to contribute to damages payable by a party who had been guilty of fraud. The question arose whether the common law maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio afforded a defence to a claim under the 1978 Act.
Held – The common law maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio was not available as a defence to a claim for contribution to damages under the 1978 Act since the specific purpose of that Act was to enable claims for contribution to be made as between parties who had no claim to contribution under the general law and the only necessary ingredients of the statutory cause of action under the Act were that a person or persons, viz the plaintiffs, had a cause of action against a third party in respect of the same damage as gave rise to the plaintiffs’ cause of action against the defendant. It was clear that to permit the ex turpi causa defence to be relied on as an answer to such a claim would narrow to a substantial extent the deliberately wide wording of s 6(1)b of the 1978 Act, which made a person liable in respect of any damage if the person who suffered the damage was entitled to recover compensation from him in respect of that damage ‘whatever the legal basis of his liability, whether tort, breach of contract … or otherwise’. Accordingly, it was irrelevant that the plaintiffs’ cause of action against the defendants arose from conspiracy or fraud while their cause of action against the third party arose from breach of a contractual or tortious duty of care. Moreover, under s 2(1) and (2)c of the 1978 Act all the factors which, in relation to common law claims, were relevant to the ex turpi causa defence could be taken into account when assessing the amount of the contribution, even to the extent of assessing a nil contribution.
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Since it was impossible to say, with the degree of certainty necessary to make a striking-out order, that the third party would inevitably be exempted from making contribution under s 2(2) of the 1978 Act, it followed that the third party notice could not be struck out and the appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 528 c d j to p 529 b and p 530 a to e, post).
Notes
For third party proceedings, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 254–260, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 404–413, 2481–2532.
For the maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1136, and for cases on the subject, see 1(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 57–58, 469–475.
For the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978, ss 1, 2, 6, see 13 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 578, 580, 583.
Cases referred to in judgment
Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494, [1962] AC 294, [1962] 2 WLR 548, PC.
Euro-Diam Ltd v Bathurst [1988] 2 All ER 23, [1990] 1 QB 1, [1988] 2 WLR 517, CA.
Saunders v Edwards [1987] 2 All ER 651, [1987] 1 WLR 1116, CA.
Thackwell v Barclays Bank plc [1986] 1 All ER 676.
Tinsley v Milligan [1992] 2 All ER 391, [1992] Ch 310, [1992] 2 WLR 508, CA.
Weld-Blundell v Stephens [1920] AC 956, [1920] All ER Rep 32, HL.
Summons
J, the third party in an action brought by the plaintiffs against the defendants claiming damages for conspiracy to defraud in respect of a number of property transactions carried out by the defendants on the plaintiffs’ behalf, appealed from the order of Master Munrow dated 3 October 1991 dismissing his application by summons dated 6 June 1991 for an order that the third party notice claiming an indemnity or alternatively a contribution from J in respect of J’s alleged failure properly to advise the plaintiffs in relation to the transactions, be struck out. The appeal was heard and judgment was given in chambers. The case is reported, with an edited version of the judgment, by permission of Ferris J. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Peter Roth (instructed by Warner Cranston) for the third party.
Steven Whitaker (instructed by Lester Maddrell & Co, Cheltenham) for the third defendant.
The plaintiff and the other defendants did not appear.
Cur adv vult
23 June 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
FERRIS J. This is an appeal by the third party, an accountant, from an order of Master Munrow made on 3 October 1991 dismissing his application that a third party notice served upon him by the third defendant in the main action should be struck out.
In order to understand the nature of the application it is necessary first to consider the plaintiffs’ claim against the third defendant. This is not as straightforward as it ought to be because the statement of claim is long and complex and in some respects obscure. There are six defendants altogether,
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including the third defendant, and separate claims are made against three groups of defendants.
The first plaintiff is a distinguished musician. The second plaintiff is his brother. In about 1971 the first plaintiff established a music school (the centre). For about the first twelve years of its existence the centre was carried on as an unincorporated organisation. The second plaintiff became its administrator in 1980. It seems that the centre flourished and that by the early 1980s it had over 300 pupils and 31 part-time teachers. It outgrew its premises and in 1982 the plaintiffs decided to acquire and convert other premises (the bakery) to become the new premises of the centre.
The third defendant appears to have come on to the scene in about 1982 as a financial adviser in connection with the proposal to acquire and develop the bakery for the purposes of the centre. It is said that he advised that the centre should be incorporated and a company (CMC) was duly formed on 29 April 1983. Presumably CMC took over the running of the centre soon after that. The third defendant became the managing director of CMC at or soon after its incorporation. It is said that, at the third defendant’s instance, it was proposed to raise finance for CMC from a lender (BMT) and that the third defendant became managing director because BMT would prefer to deal with a man having a proven business record than with a musician.
In para 5 of the statement of claim the plaintiffs allege that various defendants, including the third defendant—
‘conspired amongst themselves and others to defraud the Plaintiffs, and with intent to injure the Plaintiffs, by a scheme for extracting moneys from the Plaintiffs by way of inflated valuations and percentage fees and commission payments based upon such inflated valuations and by otherwise exposing the Plaintiffs to liabilities, and calculated to make a profit for themselves … and/or companies in which the same were interested … by false representations, including forged and/or fraudulently altered and/or concealed loan application documentation by [the third defendant].’
The overt acts of the alleged conspiracy are said to be set out in the statement of claim. So far as the third defendant is concerned they can, I think, be summarised as follows. (1) The third defendant fraudulently altered in a number of material respects an application which had been signed on behalf of CMC by the first plaintiff for a loan on the security of the bakery. (2) The third defendant concealed from the plaintiffs the true impact of arrangements made between CMC and two companies which I will describe simply as Crescent and Highdene in which, unknown to the plaintiffs, the third defendant was personally interested. (3) In May 1983 BMT, to which the application signed by the first plaintiff and altered by the third defendant had been submitted, offered CMC a loan of £185,500 on the security of the bakery. This was £80,000 in excess of the loan asked for in the application in its unaltered form. The plaintiffs say that they accepted this loan on behalf of CMC on the advice of the third defendant. (4) The third defendant concealed from the plaintiffs what is said to have been a false and fraudulent overvaluation of the bakery made in June 1983 by another of the alleged conspirators in order to support an even higher level of loan by BMT. (5) On 24 June 1983 BMT offered to lend CMC £420,000 on the security of the bakery in substitution for its previous offer to lend £185,500. On 27 June 1983 this offer was purportedly accepted by CMC, the acceptance being signed by the third defendant and, on the face of it, by the plaintiffs. It is said that neither of the plaintiffs actually signed this acceptance, their apparent signatures being forgeries made by a person or persons unknown on behalf of the conspirators or their connected companies. (6) In August 1983 the third defendant claimed from CMC a commission of £16,000 for himself and £8,000 for Highdene in respect
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of certain commercial arrangements, not involving the bakery, negotiated between CMC and BMT. It is said that this claim led the other directors of CMC to investigate the third defendant’s activities and to dismiss him as a director of CMC. (7) Between May and July 1983 the third defendant caused the first plaintiff to sign in blank some cheques drawn on CMC’s bank account by fraudulently representing that these cheques would be used to pay small and urgent bills of CMC. It is said that in fact the third defendant used six of these cheques to pay to himself and certain other parties sums amounting to about £30,000, allegedly in connection with the financing of the centre.
Although these allegations, if made good, clearly amount to wrongdoing on the part of the third defendant in relation to a number of individual matters, they do not convey to my mind a particularly comprehensible account of a conspiracy or of systematically fraudulent conduct. The rest of the statement of claim does not make matters much clearer. It contains allegations which do not directly involve the third defendant. These include allegations against various solicitors of negligence in connection with the execution by CMC and the plaintiffs of a legal charge in favour of BMT to secure a loan of £420,000, the giving of personal guarantees by the plaintiffs in respect of this indebtedness and subsequent proceedings brought by BMT in which a possession order was made in respect of the bakery and a money judgment was given against the plaintiffs as guarantors for a sum of nearly £375,000. It seems, although the statement of claim does not set out the matter in any systematic way, that CMC drew down the full loan of £420,000 and subsequently defaulted in its payments to BMT. It does not appear precisely how the £420,000 was expended by CMC. After obtaining the possession order in respect of the bakery, BMT sold it for about £183,000. Bankruptcy proceedings appear to have been taken against the plaintiffs by BMT. Receiving orders were made against them in the county court but, on appeal, these orders were, it is said, rescinded on terms which are not stated but which are said to have been fulfilled.
The plaintiffs’ underlying complaint seems to be that CMC borrowed more than it needed and spent more of the borrowed money than it could afford to spend, with the result that there was a loss for which the plaintiffs have been held personally liable as guarantors. But how this complaint lines up with the alleged conspiracy and fraudulent conduct is not clear to me. I have not, of course, had the advantage of having the plaintiffs’ claim explained to me by their own counsel.
The plaintiffs claim damages from a number of defendants, including the third defendant, under the following heads: (1) general damages for conspiracy; (2) exemplary damages on the basis that the acts complained of were calculated to make a profit for the conspirators or their companies and constituted a cynical disregard for the plaintiffs’ rights; (3) damages for deceit as an alternative to damages for conspiracy.
The general damages for conspiracy and the alternative damages for deceit are claimed to include the following: (a) moneys ‘expended upon the CMC’ by the plaintiffs after the commencement of the company; (b) legal costs in fighting BMT; (c) the stain and stigma of bankruptcy; (d) loss of earnings by the plaintiffs; (e) the effect upon the health of the first plaintiff; (f) loss of reputation of the first plaintiff; (g) distress and suffering; (h) loss of opportunity to develop the centre; (i) other consequential loss. The want of grammatical sense in this summary reflects, I fear, a similar defect in the statement of claim itself.
The prayer for relief so far as the third defendant is concerned seeks damages for conspiracy to defraud, exemplary damages, an indemnity in respect of any liabilities to BMT under what is described as ‘the said deed’, which presumably
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means the legal charge or other instrument containing the personal guarantee given by the plaintiffs, damages for deceit and interest.
From this analysis of the statement of claim it is clear that all the plaintiffs’ claims against the third defendant are based upon allegations of fraud of one kind or another and that no relief is claimed on any basis which does not involve fraud.
The third party notice with which I am concerned is dated 9 November 1990. After referring to the action it continues as follows:
‘The Third Defendant denies the Plaintiffs’ claim against him but if contrary to his contentions he is held liable to the Plaintiffs, he claims against you to be indemnified against the Plaintiffs’ claims and the costs of this action, alternatively contribution to such extent of the Plaintiffs’ claims as the Court may think fit, on the grounds that (1) At all material times, you were the accountants retained by and advising the Plaintiffs and each of them in respect of the proposed transaction (and in particular the financial aspects thereof) in relation to which the said alleged liability of the Plaintiffs and each of them to [BMT] was incurred; (2) In about the period from January to September 1983, you acted in breach of contract and negligently towards the Plaintiffs and each of them in that you failed to advise them properly or at all with regard to the said proposed transaction and the financial aspects thereof and in particular failed to explain the full nature and extent thereof to the Plaintiffs and each of them and/or failed to advise the Plaintiffs as to the commercial prudence of the same and/or the risks inherent in proceeding with the same and/or failed to warn them not to enter into the same. (3) That insofar as any financial information was or may have been communicated by The Third Defendant he did so in reliance upon information supplied by you.’
No third party directions have been sought, so that there is no order that the notice shall stand as a statement of claim in the third party proceedings. Nevertheless the third party and his advisers seem to have acted as if such a direction had been given, for a document expressed to be a defence and counterclaim of the third party has been served. I do not need to refer to this.
On 6 June 1991 there was issued on behalf of the third party a summons seeking an order that the third party notice be struck out pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19 and the inherent jurisdiction of the court. It was this summons which was dismissed by the master, from whose decision this appeal is brought.
I say at once that, as Mr Roth accepted on behalf of the third party, Ord 18, r 19 appears to be inapplicable because a third party notice is not a pleading. But there is no doubt that the court has an inherent jurisdiction to strike out any proceeding which is an abuse of its process; and it is such an abuse to commence and maintain a proceeding which has no prospect whatever of success. The test is, of course, a strict one. If there is any doubt about the ultimate outcome, the proceeding must be left on foot.
Before the master the attack on the third party notice was, I understand, based on somewhat technical issues, such as the want of particularity in the allegations made against the third party, the fact that there is no assertion that he was part of the conspiracy in which the third defendant is said to have joined and an argument that the third defendant and the third party are not on any view liable to the plaintiffs in respect of the same damage, so that the case is not within s 1(1) of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978, which I shall mention in some detail later. It was not, I think, surprising that the master rejected these arguments. Any complaint of want of particularity could and should be dealt with by
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appropriate directions in the third party proceedings. Moreover it is difficult, if not impossible, to determine whether the third defendant and the third party are liable in respect of the same damage until there has been a trial in order to determine what, if any, damage they are each liable for.
On this appeal Mr Roth, on behalf of the third party, advanced arguments of a more fundamental nature than those advanced before the master. He contended that, as the plaintiffs’ claim against the third defendant is based exclusively on conspiracy and fraud, the third defendant will only be held liable to the plaintiffs if he is found guilt of serious dishonesty. In contrast, it is not said by the third defendant or by anyone else that the third party was guilty of any form of dishonesty. If he is liable to the plaintiffs at all it can only be on the basis of professional negligence. Mr Roth contended that it is inconceivable that a party who has been held to be merely negligent should be required to contribute to the damages payable by a party who has been found guilty of fraud. It is rather as if a burglar, when sued for the recovery of the stolen property or its value, sought contribution from a security guard who, by falling asleep while on duty, had made the burglary possible. It was said, with obvious force, that no such claim could ever succeed. The maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio and its related rules would be applicable.
It is evident that the third defendant and the third party are not, on any view of the case, joint contractors or joint tortfeasors or in a relationship where contribution is available under equitable principles. The sole basis of the third defendant’s claim for contribution is the 1978 Act, of which the material provisions for present purposes are s 1(1), which needs to be read in conjunction with s 6(1), and s 1(1) and (2). Section 1(1) provides:
‘Subject to the following provisions of this section, any person liable in respect of any damage suffered by another person may recover contribution from any other person liable in respect of the same damage (whether jointly with him or otherwise).’
Section 6(1) provides:
‘A person is liable in respect of any damage for the purposes of this Act if the person who suffered it (or anyone representing his estate or dependants) is entitled to recover compensation from him in respect of that damage (whatever the legal basis of his liability, whether tort, breach of contract, breach of trust or otherwise).’
Section 2, so far as material, provides:
‘(1) Subject to subsection (3) below, in any proceedings for contribution under section I above the amount of the contribution recoverable from any person shall be such as may be found by the court to be just and equitable having regard to the extent of that person’s responsibility for the damage in question.
(2) Subject to subsection (3) below, the court shall have power in any such proceedings to exempt any person from liability to make contribution, or to direct that the contribution to be recovered from any person shall amount to a complete indemnity …’
Section 2(3) is not material for present purposes.
It appears to me that the arguments which I have heard involve the consideration of three separate questions, namely: (1) does the ex turpi causa maxim and its related rules (which I will refer to as ‘the ex turpi causa defence’) afford a defence to a claim for contribution under the 1978 Act? (2) if the ex turpi causa defence is capable of so applying, can it be said, with the degree of certainty
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necessary for a striking-out order to be made, that the defence will exclude any contribution from the third party in the circumstances of this case? (3) leaving aside the ex turpi causa defence, can it be said with the necessary degree of certainty that the court will, under s 2(1) and (2) of the 1978 Act, exempt the third party from liability to make contribution even if he has been negligent in the performance of some duty of care owed to the plaintiffs?
(1) Is the ex turpi causa defence available as an answer to a claim to contribution under the 1978 Act?
The defence is, of course, one which is part of the common law, not statute, being founded upon public policy. For an application of the defence in a case where a claimant, in order to make good his claim, was obliged to assert his own fraudulent purpose, I was referred to Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494, [1962] AC 294. The defence has been considered in a number of recent cases in which it has been held that it is to be applied in a flexible and pragmatic way. There were cited to me Thackwell v Barclays Bank plc [1986] 1 All ER 676, Saunders v Edwards [1987] 2 All ER 651, [1987] 1 WLR 116, Euro-Diam Ltd v Bathurst [1988] 2 All ER 23, [1990] 1 QB 1 and, by means of a note from counsel after the conclusion of argument, Tinsley v Maligan [1992] 2 All ER 391, [1992] Ch 310. In the Euro-Diam case ([1988] 2 All ER 23 at 28–29, [1990] 1 QB 1 at 35) Kerr LJ summarised the relevant principles. I quote the following from that summary, but for the sake of brevity I omit some of the references to authority and the elaboration of point (3) and the whole of point (4), which seem to me not to assist in the present case:
‘(1) The ex turpi causa defence ultimately rests on a principle of public policy that the courts will not assist a plaintiff who has been guilty of illegal (or immoral) conduct of which the court, should take notice. It applies if, in all the circumstances, it would be an affront to the public conscience to grant the plaintiff the relief which he seeks because the court would thereby appear to assist or encourage the plaintiff in his illegal conduct or to encourage others in similar acts: see para (2)(iii) below. The problem is not only to apply this principle, but also to respect its limits, in relation to the facts of particular cases in the light of the authorities. (2) The authorities show that in a number of situations the ex turpi causa defence will prima facie succeed. The main ones are as follows. (i) Where the plaintiff seeks to, or is forced to, found his claim on an illegal contract or to plead its illegality in order to support his claim … For that purpose it makes no difference whether the illegality is raised in the plaintiff’s claim or by way of reply to a ground of defence … (ii) Where the grant of relief to the plaintiff would enable him to benefit from his criminal conduct … (iii) Where, even though neither (i) nor (ii) is applicable to the plaintiff’s claim, the situation is nevertheless residually covered by the general principle summarised in (i) above. This is most recently illustrated by the judgment of Hutchison J in Thackwell v Barclays Bank plc [1986] 1 All ER 676 at 687, 689, as approved by this court in Saunders v Edwards [1987] 2 All ER 651 at 660, 666, [1987] 1 WLR 1116 at 1127, 1134, and in particular per Nicholls LJ (see [1987] 2 All ER 651 at 664, [1987] 1 WLR 1116 at 1132). (3) However, the ex turpi causa defence must be approached pragmatically and with caution, depending on the circumstances: see eg per Bingham LJ in Saunders v Edwards [1987] 2 All ER 651 at 666, [1987] 1 WLR 1116 at 1134.’
On behalf of the third party, Mr Roth contended that this is a clear case. The fact that the claim is made in third party proceedings in the context of a denial by the third defendant that he has conspired against the plaintiffs or defrauded them
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must not be allowed to conceal the fact that the claim for contribution from the third party necessarily asserts the contrary, albeit on a contingent basis. The position is equivalent to that which would exist if the third defendant were claiming contribution by means of a separate action after being held liable to the plaintiffs. In such an action the third defendant would have to plead that he had inflicted loss on the plaintiffs by conspiracy or fraud and had been required to compensate the plaintiffs for such loss. He would then have to plead that the loss was attributable to the third party’s professional negligence in failing to draw the attention of the plaintiffs to what the third defendant and others were doing. It would not, however, be possible for the third defendant to suggest that the third party was in any way guilty of any illegal conduct. A claim formulated in this way would, it was said, be a clear case for the application of the ex turpi causa defence, falling squarely within point (2)(i) of Kerr LJ’s summary.
In opposition to this, Mr Whitaker, on behalf of the third defendant, pointed out that this is not a case where the third defendant is himself asserting against the third party a cause of action in contract or tort. What the third defendant is asserting is a statutory cause of action under the 1978 Act, the only necessary ingredients of which are that a person or persons, namely the plaintiffs, have against the third party a cause of action in respect of the same damage as gives rise to that person or person’s cause of action against the third defendant. It does not matter that the plaintiffs’ cause of action against the third defendant arises from conspiracy or fraud whereas their cause of action against the third party arises from breach of a contractual or tortious duty of care.
Mr Whitaker relied upon the wording of s 6(1) of the 1978 Act, which says that a party is liable in respect of any damage, and so potentially in the position of being able to claim or having to make contribution, ‘whatever the legal basis of his liability, whether tort, breach of contract, breach of trust or otherwise’. He pointed out that the 1978 Act replaced s 6 of the Law Reform (Married Women and Tortfeasors) Act 1935, which created a right of contribution between joint tortfeasors ‘where damage is suffered by any person as a result of a tort (whether a crime or not)’. The concluding words show that a claim to contribution might arise under the 1935 Act out of tortious conduct committed by two or more persons even though one or both of them may have committed a crime in the course of such conduct. In relation to such a claim the ex turpi causa defence could have had no application. The 1978 Act extends the potential for contribution beyond joint tortfeasors to joint contractors, joint trustees and others who are, liable in respect of the same damage. Although there is no reference to crime in the 1978 Act which corresponds to the reference in s 6 of the 1935 Act, it is hardly to be supposed that Parliament, while creating a considerable extension of the right of contribution in cases other than cases of tort, nevertheless intended to narrow the right to contribution previously given to tortfeasors by the 1935 Act. Apart from other considerations, it is manifest that the words of s 6(1) of the 1978 Act are intended to be interpreted widely, hence the use of the words ‘whatever the basis of his liability’ and the emphasis added by the word ‘otherwise’ at the end of the enumerated causes of action.
Mr Whitaker also referred me to some passages in the speeches of Viscount Finlay and Lord Dunedin in Weld-Blundell v Stephens [1920] AC 956 at 966–968, 976, [1920] All ER Rep 32 at 37–38, 42. These passages contain observations, about the absence of a right of contribution between tortfeasors, but they relate to the law as it stood before 1935. While they provide a context in which to appraise the changes made by the 1935 Act, which was I think the purpose for which Mr Whitaker cited them, I did not find them of direct assistance.
I do, however, accept the other parts of Mr Whitaker’s argument. In my
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judgment the ex turpi causa defence is not available as an answer to a claim for contribution under the 1978 Act. The specific purpose of that Act, as of the 1935 Act before it, was to enable claims for contribution to be made as between parties who had no claim to contribution under the general law. To permit the ex turpi causa defence to be relied upon as an answer to such a claim would, in my view, narrow to a substantial extent the deliberately wide wording of s 6(1) of the 1978 Act and would, in effect, make a claim for contribution subject to a condition precedent which is not to be found in the Act. Moreover, s 2(1) and (2) give the court ample power to fix the amount of the contribution at a level, including a zero level, which takes account of all the factors which, in relation to common law claims, are relevant to the ex turpi causa defence.
(2) If it were available in respect of a claim under the 1978 Act, would the ex turpi causa defence clearly exclude a claim to contribution by the third defendant in this case?
In view of the answer that I have given to the first question this second question does not arise and it would be unwise for me to attempt to answer it on a hypothetical basis. However, I would say that, on a striking-out application, I would find it difficult to hold with certainty that the ex turpi causa defence, assuming it to be available, would exclude a claim to contribution under the 1978 Act unless I were also satisfied, with the same degree of certainty, that there must be exemption from contribution under s 2(2). Whether I am so satisfied is the third question, to which I now turn.
(3) Can it be said with certainty that the court will, under s 2(2), exempt the third party from liability to make a contribution?
The question for the consideration of the court at the stage when the amount of contribution has to be assessed is how much, if anything, ought to be recoverable by the third defendant from the third party ‘having regard to the extent of [the third party’s] responsibility for the damage in question’ (see s 2(1) of the 1978 Act). In considering whether at this stage it is possible to say that the answer to this question must be ‘nothing’ I must assume that the third defendant will be found guilty of conspiracy or fraud as alleged by the plaintiffs and also that the third party will be found to be negligent as regards the plaintiffs in the respects mentioned in the third party notice.
In so far as the plaintiffs are seeking to recover from the third defendant money which he has obtained for his own benefit or for the benefit of companies which are, in effect, his alter ego, I can see that the third party would have an overwhelming argument that it cannot be just and equitable to require him to contribute to whatever the third defendant is ordered to pay to the plaintiffs. Contribution, if ordered, would enable the third defendant or his fellow conspirators to retain part of the proceeds of their conspiracy or fraud. Similar considerations would, it appears to me, be applicable to any claim that the third party should contribute to any exemplary damages which the third defendant may be ordered to pay to the plaintiffs, for exemplary damages would never be recoverable by the plaintiffs direct from the third party. Indeed, it may well be that a claim for contribution in respect of exemplary damages is not within s 1(1) on the facts of this case, so that one never gets to s 2 in relation to such a claim.
However, as I understand it, the plaintiffs’ claim against the third defendant goes well beyond a claim to recover the benefits actually obtained by conspiracy or fraud. It extends, it seems, to a claim for compensation in respect of all the loss which the plaintiffs say that they have suffered as a result of the transaction concerning CMC and the bakery, including the amounts which the plaintiffs
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have had to pay as guarantors and compensation for loss of earnings, loss of reputation and mental anguish. If, as I must assume for present purposes, the plaintiffs have a good cause of action in professional negligence against the third party, then it must be at least possible, if not indeed likely, that the damages recoverable by the plaintiffs from the third party would include damages under at least some of these heads. I can see that the third party would have a cogent argument that even if he were liable to compensate the plaintiffs in respect of these matters it would not be just and equitable to require him to make a contribution to the third defendant’s liability. But what the court has to consider is the third party’s responsibility for the damages in question. Once it is assumed that the third party would be liable to the plaintiffs for damages of a particular kind, it must follow that he has some responsibility for those damages. In order to carry out the exercise required by s 2(1) it would be essential, in my judgment, to evaluate the relative responsibilities of the third defendant and the third party. I do not see how this can be done without a trial of both the action and the claim to contribution. Certainly I feel unable at this stage to say, with the degree of certainty necessary to make a striking-out order, that the third party will inevitably be exempted from making contribution under s 2(2).
(4) Conclusion
In the result, although I have considerable sympathy with the third party in the position in which he finds himself and I think it may well be the case that the third defendant will fail to obtain contribution from him, I do not consider that this will inevitably be so. Accordingly it would not be right to strike out the third party notice on the ground that the claim to contribution is doomed to failure. I therefore dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
R v Birmingham City Council, ex parte Ferrero Ltd
[1993] 1 All ER 530
Categories: CONSUMER; Consumer protection: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): FOX, RUSSELL AND TAYLOR LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 30 APRIL, 1, 23 MAY 1991
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Alternative remedy available – Alternative remedy by way of appeal – Consumer protection – Local authority issuing suspension notice in respect of unsafe product – Manufacturer having statutory right of appeal – Manufacturer applying for judicial review of notice – Whether judicial review appropriate when alternative statutory remedy available – Consumer Protection Act 1987, ss 14, 15.
Consumer protection – Consumer safety – Suspension notice – Suspected contravention of safety provisions – Consultation with trader – Whether enforcement authority under duty to consult trader before serving suspension notice – Consumer Protection Act 1987, s 14.
The respondents manufactured chocolate eggs, each of which contained a plastic capsule which itself contained a kit which could be assembled to make a small toy
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representing well-known cartoon characters, one of which was known as the ‘Pink Panther’. In October 1989 a little girl accidentally swallowed part of a ‘Pink Panther’ toy and died from asphyxiation as a result. The appellant local authority, through its trading standards officer, issued a suspension notice under s 14a of the Consumer Protection Act 1987 prohibiting the supply of eggs containing the ‘Pink Panther’ toy for a period of six months. Despite attempts by the respondents to persuade it to do so, coupled with offers of undertakings, the local authority declined to withdraw the notice. The respondents applied for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari quashing the local authority’s decisions to issue the notice and to refuse to withdraw it, contending, inter alia, that the council had acted unfairly in failing to consult them before issuing the suspension notice. The judge granted the relief sought. The local authority appealed, contending, inter alia, (i) that the judge had erred in entertaining the respondents’ application and granting relief when they had a statutory right of appeal under s 15b of the 1987 Act, which provided that a person having an interest in any goods in respect of which a suspension notice was in force could apply to a magistrates’ court for an order setting aside the notice, and (ii) that the local authority had not acted unfairly in failing to consult the respondents before issuing the notice.
Held – Where there was an alternative remedy and especially where Parliament had provided a statutory appeal procedure it was only exceptionally that judicial review would be granted. In determining whether an exception should be made and judicial review granted it was necessary for the court to look carefully at the suitability of the statutory appeal in the context of the particular case and to ask itself what, in the context of the statutory provisions, was the real issue to be determined and whether the statutory appeal procedure was suitable to determine it. Given that the statutory emphasis under the 1987 Act was on consumer safety, that the Act aimed at withholding goods from the public if there was reasonable suspicion that they were unsafe and that the suspension prohibiting supply was to remain in force until the goods were cleared of danger even if the process by which the enforcement authority reached its decision was flawed, and given that the appeal to the magistrates’ court under s 15 was at least as expeditious, if not more so, than judicial review and was more suited than judicial review to the resolution of issues of fact and that if the goods were shown not to contravene the safety provisions not only would the notice be set aside but the enforcement authority would be required to pay compensation to any person having an interest in the goods even if the enforcement authority had reasonable grounds for its suspicion, an appeal under s 15 was geared exactly to deciding the real issue to be determined, which was whether the goods contravened a safety provision. The fact that the respondents could not have expressed their complaint about the reasonableness of the local authority’s decision on a s 15 appeal was not sufficient reason for granting judicial review. Instead, the respondents should have been left to pursue their appeal under s 15. The local authority’s appeal would therefore be allowed and the judge’s decision to grant judicial review reversed (see p 537 c d g, p 538 a b j to p 539 a c to e g, p 540 d e and p 544 g h, post).
Dicta of Donaldson MR in R v Epping and Harlow General Comrs, ex p Goldstraw [1983] 3 All ER 257 at 262 and of Donaldson MR, May and Glidewell LJJ in R v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, ex p Calveley [1986] 1 All ER 257 at 261–262, 263–264, 267 applied.
Per curiam. A local authority is under no duty to consult a trader either before or after the service of a suspension notice since such a duty cannot be implied at
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common law because to do so would frustrate the statutory purpose of achieving consumer safety and enabling the immediate withdrawal from sale of unsafe or dangerous goods; the statutory scheme with its provisions for appeal and compensation is sufficient to achieve justice (see p 543 d e and p 544 h, post); dictum of Lord Reid in Wiseman v Borneman [1969] 3 All ER 275 at 277 applied.
Notes
For the discretion to refuse judicial review where an alternative remedy is available, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 61.
For suspension orders in respect of goods suspected of contravening safety provisions, see Supplement to 41 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 664A.
For the Consumer Protection Act 1987, ss 14, 15, see 39 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 208, 209.
Cases referred to in judgments
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Birss v Secretary for Justice [1984] 1 NZLR 513, NZ CA.
Cooper v Wandsworth District Board of Works (1863) 14 CBNS 180, 143 ER 414.
Dixon v Commonwealth (1981) 55 FLR 34, Aust Fed Ct.
Hadmor Productions Ltd v Hamilton [1982] 1 All ER 1042, [1983] 1 AC 191, [1982] 2 WLR 322, HL.
John v Rees, Martin v Davis, Rees v John [1969] 2 All ER 274, [1970] Ch 345, [1969] 2 WLR 1294.
Preston v IRC [1985] 2 All ER 327, [1985] AC 835, [1985] 2 WLR 836, HL.
R v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, ex p Calveley [1986] 1 All ER 257, [1986] QB 424, [1986] 2 WLR 144, CA.
R v Epping and Harlow General Comrs, ex p Goldstraw [1983] 3 All ER 257, CA.
R v Hallstrom, ex p W [1985] 3 All ER 775, sub nom Ex p Waldron [1986] QB 824, [1985] 3 WLR 1090, CA.
R v Hillingdon London Borough, ex p Royco Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 643, [1974] QB 720, [1974] 2 WLR 805, DC.
R v Paddington Valuation Officer, ex p Peachey Property Corp Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 836, [1966] 1 QB 380, [1965] 3 WLR 426, CA.
R v Secretary of State for Health, ex p US Tobacco International Inc [1992] 1 All ER 212, [1992] QB 353, [1991] 3 WLR 529, DC.
Wiseman v Borneman [1969] 3 All ER 275, [1971] AC 297, [1969] 3 WLR 706, HL.
Appeal
Birmingham City Council appealed from the order dated 7 March 1990 of Hutchison J hearing the Crown Office list on 22 February 1990 whereby on the application of Ferrero Ltd (Ferrero) he granted judicial review by way of an order of certiorari quashing the council’s decision set out in a notice dated 8 November 1989 prohibiting Ferrero for a period of six months from that date from supplying, offering to supply, agreeing to supply or exposing for supply ‘Kinder Surprise’ products comprising milk chocolate egg shells containing a ‘Pink Panther’ toy, or, in the alternative, the council’s decision to continue the prohibition. The court gave leave for the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry to intervene in the appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Taylor LJ.
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Anthony Scrivener QC and Ian Croxford (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard, agents for S Dobson, Birmingham) for the council.
Michael Beloff QC and Richard Spearman (instructed by Taylor Joynson Garrett) for Ferrero.
John Laws (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Cur adv vult
23 May 1991. The following judgments were delivered.
TAYLOR LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Fox LJ). Ferrero Ltd (Ferrero) make chocolate eggs called ‘Kinder Surprise’. Each egg contains a plastic capsule containing in its turn a kit from which a small toy can be made. The object is to enhance the attractiveness of the eggs to children. Ferrero have used a variety of different toys in their eggs, many of which represent well-known cartoon characters. In October 1989 a new toy, depicting the ‘Pink Panther’, was introduced. Tragically, a month later, on 5 November 1989, a little girl, just over three years old, swallowed one of the ‘Pink Panther’ feet which had come loose from a toy. It lodged in her throat causing her death, from asphyxiation. Three days later the appellants, Birmingham City Council, through their trading standards office, issued a suspension notice under s 14 of the Consumer Protection Act 1987. The notice prohibited Ferrero for a period of six months from that date from supplying ‘Kinder Surprise’ eggs containing the ‘Pink Panther’ toy. Despite attempts by Ferrero to persuade them coupled with offers of undertakings, the council declined to withdraw the notice.
Ferrero decided to apply for judicial review. They were granted leave, and the matter came before Hutchison J. On 7 March 1990 he granted to Ferrero an order of certiorari and quashed both the decision of the council to issue the notice and their refusal to withdraw it. The council now appeal against those decisions.
Statutory provisions
It is convenient, first, to set out the relevant statutory provisions contained in Pt II of the Consumer Protection Act 1987. Section 10(1) makes it an offence, inter alia, to supply any consumer goods which fail to comply with the general safety requirement. Section 10(2) defines the general safety requirement in the following terms so far as is relevant:
‘For the purposes of this section consumer goods fail to comply with the general safety requirement if they are not reasonably safe having regard to all the circumstances, including—(a) the manner in which, and purposes for which, the goods are being … marketed, the get-up of the goods … and any instructions or warnings which are given … with respect to the keeping, use or consumption of the goods; (b) any standards of safety published by any person either for goods of a description which applies to the goods in question or for matters relating to goods of that description …’
Subsection (3) provides:
‘For the purposes of this section consumer goods shall not be regarded as failing to comply with the general safety requirement in respect of—(a) anything which is shown to be attributable to compliance with any requirement imposed by or under any enactment or with any Community obligation; (b) any failure to do more in relation to any matter than is required by—(i) any safety regulations imposing requirements with respect
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to that matter; (ii) any standards of safety approved for the purposes of this subsection by or under any such regulations and imposing requirements with respect to that matter; (iii) any provision of any enactment or subordinate legislation imposing such requirements with respect to that matter as are designated for the purposes of this subsection by any such regulations.’
Section 11 empowers the Secretary of State to make regulations for the purposes of s 10(3) and other specified safety purposes.
Section 13 deals with prohibition notices and notices to warn and provides as follows, so far as is relevant:
‘(1) The Secretary of State may—(a) serve on any person a notice (“a prohibition notice”) prohibiting that person, except with the consent of the Secretary of State, from supplying, or from offering to supply, agreeing to supply, exposing for supply or possessing for supply, any relevant goods which the Secretary of State considers are unsafe and which are described in the notice; (b) serve on any person a notice (“a notice to warn”) requiring that person at his own expense to publish, in a form and manner and on occasions specified in the notice, a warning about any relevant goods which the Secretary of State considers are unsafe, which that person supplies or has supplied and which are described in the notice.
(2) Schedule 2 to this Act shall have effect with respect to prohibition notices and notices to warn; and the Secretary of State may by regulations make provision specifying the manner in which information is to be given to any person under that Schedule …’
It will be necessary later in this judgment to refer to the terms of Sch 2, which, inter alia, prescribe requirements of consultation in regard to prohibition notices and notices to warn.
The crucial sections for the purposes of this case are ss 14 and 15. Section 14 provides as follows, so far as is relevant:
‘(1) Where an enforcement authority has reasonable grounds for suspecting that any safety provision has been contravened in relation to any goods, the authority may serve a notice (“a suspension notice”) prohibiting the person on whom it is served, for such period ending not more than six months after the date of the notice as is specified therein, from doing any of the following things without the consent of the authority, that is to say, supplying the goods, offering to supply them, agreeing to supply them or exposing them for supply.
(2) A suspension notice served by an enforcement authority in respect of any goods shall—(a) describe the goods in a manner sufficient to identify them; (b) set out the grounds on which the authority suspects that a safety provision has been contravened in relation to the goods; and (c) state that, and the manner in which, the person on whom the notice is served may appeal against the notice under section 15 below …
(4) Where a suspension notice has been served on any person in respect of any goods, no further such notice shall be served on that person in respect of the same goods unless—(a) proceedings against that person for an offence in respect of a contravention in relation to the goods of a safety provision (not being an offence under this section); or (b) proceedings for the forfeiture of the goods under section 16 or 17 below, are pending at the end of the period specified in the first-mentioned notice …
(6) Any person who contravenes a suspension notice shall be guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to imprisonment for a term not
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exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale or to both.
(7) Where an enforcement authority serves a suspension notice in respect of any goods, the authority shall be liable to pay compensation to any person having an interest in the goods in respect of any loss or damage caused by reason of the service of the notice if—(a) there has been no contravention in relation to the goods of any safety provision; and (b) the exercise of the power is not attributable to any neglect or default by that person …’
Section 15 deals with appeals to magistrates’ courts and provides as follows, so far as is relevant:
‘(1) Any person having an interest in any goods in respect of which a suspension notice is for the time being in force may apply for an order setting aside the notice.
(2) An application under this section may be made—(a) to any magistrates’ court in which proceedings have been brought in England and Wales or Northern Ireland—(i) for an offence in respect of a contravention in relation to the goods of any safety provision; (ii) for the forfeiture of the goods under section 16 below; (b) where no such proceedings have been so brought, by way of complaint to a magistrates’ court …
(3) On an application under this section to a magistrates’ court in England and Wales or Northern Ireland the court shall make an order setting aside the suspension notice only if the court is satisfied that there has been no contravention in relation to the goods of any safety provision …
(5) Any person aggrieved by an order made under this section by a magistrates’ court in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, or by a decision of such a court not to make such an order, may appeal against that order or decision—(a) in England and Wales, to the Crown Court … and an order so made may contain such provision as appears to the court to be appropriate for delaying the coming into force of the order pending the making and determination of any appeal …’
Section 16 provides for forfeiture and empowers an enforcement authority in England and Wales or Northern Ireland to apply for an order for the forfeiture of any goods on the grounds that there has been a contravention in relation to the goods of a safety provision, such application being required to be made to a magistrates’ court.
Ferrero’s complaints
Ferrero’s case for judicial review was based on several grounds. It was said that the council had failed to consider a British Standard (BS 5665) regarding safety of toys which they had an express duty to consider under s 10(2)(b) of the 1987 Act. Conversely, they had regard to the Toys (Safety) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/1275, made under s 11 of the 1987 Act, which were an irrelevant consideration since they did not come into force until 1 January 1990. Moreover, it was claimed that the council had, in any event, wrongly applied the three provisions in those regulations said to have been breached. It was further contended that the council acted unfairly in failing to consult Ferrero before issuing the notice. Finally, the council were said to have acted irrationally in failing to accede to Ferrero’s request to lift the suspension notice and accept an undertaking instead.
The learned judge found in favour of Ferrero on each of these issues. He dealt finally with the issue which has been in the forefront of the council’s case in this court. That was whether this was an appropriate case for judicial review at all. Again, the learned judge found for Ferrero, and it is to that issue that I now turn.
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Judicial review or appeal?
Should Ferrero have been granted judicial review, or ought they to have pursued their statutory right of appeal under s 15 of the 1987 Act? There is much authority on the approach of this court to judicial review where a statutory appeal procedure has not been exhausted. The learned judge rightly declined Mr Beloff QC’s invitation to adopt the critical view of recent judicial decisions expressed in Wade Administrative Law (6th edn, 1988) pp 712–716, and accepted that he should follow the decisions of this court and the reasoning behind them.
In R v Epping and Harlow General Comrs, ex p Goldstraw [1983] 3 All ER 257 at 262 Donaldson MR said:
‘But it is a cardinal principle that, save in the most exceptional circumstances, that jurisdiction will not be exercised where other remedies were available and have not been used.’
In R v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, ex p Calveley [1986] 1 All ER 257 at 261–262, [1986] QB 424 at 433 Donaldson MR, after citing that passage, said:
‘This, like other judicial pronouncement on the interrelationship between remedies by way of judicial review on the one hand and appeal procedures on the other, is not to be regarded or construed as a statute. It does not support the proposition that judicial review is not available where there is an alternative remedy by way of appeal. It asserts simply that the court, in the exercise of its discretion, will very rarely make this remedy available in these circumstances. In other cases courts have asserted the existence of this discretion, albeit with varying emphasis on the reluctance to grant judicial review, Thus in R v Paddington Valuation Officer, ex p Peachey Property Corp Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 836 at 840, [1966] 1 QB 380 at 400, Lord Denning MR, with the agreement of Danckwerts and Salmon LJJ, held that certiorari and mandamus were available where the alternative statutory remedy was “nowhere near so convenient, beneficial and effectual”. In R v Hillingdon London Borough, ex p Royco Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 643 at 648, [1974] QB 720 at 728 Widgery CJ said: “… it has always been a principle that certiorari will go only where there is no other equally effective and convenient remedy”. In R v Hallstrom, ex p W [1985] 3 All ER 775 at 789–790, [1986] QB 824 at 852 Glidewell LJ, after referring to this passage, said: “Whether the alternative statutory remedy will resolve the question at issue fully and directly, whether the statutory procedure would be quicker, or slower, than procedure by way of judicial review, whether the matter depends on some particular or technical knowledge which is more readily available to the alternative appellate body, these are amongst the matters which a court should take into account when deciding whether to grant relief by way of judicial review when an alternative remedy is available.”’
May LJ said ([1986] 1 All ER 257 at 263–264, [1986] QB 424 at 435):
‘I respectfully agree with the Divisional Court that the normal rule in cases such as this is that an applicant for judicial review should first exhaust whatever other rights he has by way of appeal. In Preston v IRC [1985] 2 All ER 327 at 330, [1985] AC 835 at 852 Lord Scarman said: “My fourth proposition is that a remedy by way of judicial review is not to be made available where an alternative remedy exists. This is a proposition of great importance. Judicial review is a collateral challenge; it is not an appeal. Where Parliament has provided by statute appeal procedures, as in the taxing statutes, It will only be very rarely that the courts will allow the collateral
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process of judicial review to be used to attack an appealable decision.” In the same case Lord Templeman, with whose speech all the other Law Lords agreed, said ([1985] 2 All ER 327 at 337, [1985] AC 835 at 862): “Judicial review should not be granted where an alternative remedy is available.”’
Glidewell LJ said ([1986] 1 All ER 257 at 267, [1986] QB 424 at 440):
‘… I also agree that, where application is made for judicial review but an alternative remedy is available, an applicant should normally be left to pursue that remedy. Judicial review in such a case should only be granted in exceptional circumstances.’
These are very strong dicta, both in this court and in the House of Lords as cited, emphasising that where there is an alternative remedy and especially where Parliament has provided a statutory appeal procedure it is only exceptionally that judicial review should be granted. It is therefore necessary, where the exception is invoked, to look carefully at the suitability of the statutory appeal in the context of the particular case. In the present context the statutory provisions are all contained in Pt II of the 1987 Act, and are thus concerned with consumer safety. Section 14 is clearly aimed at providing enforcement authorities with a means of swift, short-term action to prevent goods which have come to their notice from endangering the public. Section 14 is the only provision which enables action to be taken by a local authority against a trader, other than through the courts. The action does not require proof that the goods contravene a safety provision, but merely that the authority has reasonable grounds for suspecting they do. The notice is effective only for six months. It is intended to be an emergency holding operation. The suspension notice has to inform the recipient of his appeal rights (s 14(2)(c)), and the very next section, s 15, sets them out. They provide for application to a magistrates’ court, which can set aside the notice only if satisfied that there has been no contravention of a safety provision. If the goods are not shown to be safe, the notice will remain in place. Conversely, if the goods are shown not to contravene the safety provision, the notice is set aside. Moreover, in that event, even if the enforcement authority had reasonable grounds for their suspicion, they are required to pay compensation to any person having an interest in the goods (s 14(7)).
As one would expect, therefore, the statutory emphasis is on the safety of the consumer. The provisions aim at withholding goods from the public if there is reasonable suspicion that they are unsafe. Unless they are then cleared of the danger, it is right that the suspension should remain, even if the process by which the enforcement authority reached its decision was flawed. It cannot be right that dangerous goods should continue to be marketed simply because of some procedural impropriety by the enforcement authority in the process of deciding to issue a suspension notice. Common sense dictates that protection of the public must take precedence over fairness to the trader. So, if goods are in fact dangerous, it would be nothing to the point to show that, in deciding to issue a suspension notice, the local authority took into account an irrelevant matter or failed to take account of one which was relevant. Parliament has recognised this by making the sole issue, on a s 15 appeal, whether there has in fact been a contravention of the safety provision. Protection is given to the trader by providing for compensation if there has been no contravention.
An appeal under s 15 does not require leave, as judicial review does. It should therefore be capable of being brought on more quickly, which is an important consideration since the notice is only effective for six months. An appeal comes before justices, who can try, as a contested issue of fact on oral evidence, whether
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the goods are in contravention of a safety provision, whereas judicial review normally proceeds on affidavit evidence. A further appeal on the merits can be made by an aggrieved party to the Crown Court.
Accordingly, in the present case, there was available an appeal specifically provided by Parliament to enable a party aggrieved by a suspension notice to challenge it. The appeal was at least as expeditious, if not more so, than judicial review. It was more suited than judicial review to the resolution of issues of fact. The statutory scheme leant in favour of upholding the notice unless the goods were shown to be safe; but, should they turn out on appeal or otherwise to be safe, any aggrieved party was entitled to compensation.
In these circumstances, what prompted the learned judge to decide that this was an exceptional case in which judicial review should be granted, notwithstanding the alternative remedy? He gave his reasons as follows:
‘Mr Mitting QC [for the council] submits that the present is a case in which the applicants ought to have pursued their s 15 remedy. So far from regarding as a difficulty the fact relied on by Mr Beloff that the magistrates can deal with the simple question whether there were grounds for making the order, Mr Mitting submits that this is the crucial factual question, which can most conveniently and simply be determined by that tribunal of fact. Implicit in this argument, however, is his recognition of the problem that a conclusion adverse to the applicants will leave the order in place. It is simply not within the magistrates’ power to determine the issues of whether the order should have been lifted or fairness, or irrationality. Mr Beloff points out that, since Mr Mitting invites me to regard myself as precluded from entertaining this application merely because there is a limited right of appeal to the magistrates, his approach involves that even if the council had been actuated by malice I could not grant relief. This, Mr Beloff submits, is to elevate the ends above the means. It is plain, on any view, that this is a question of discretion, in which I must reach a judgment as to whether the s 15 remedy is a remedy which in the circumstances the applicants ought to have pursued in preference to their present application. I unhesitatingly conclude that it is not. It is true, and I take into account, that if the magistrates were to determine the issue of safety in favour of the applicants, the suspension notice would fall. If however they were to conclude that it had not been established that there had been no contravention in relation to the goods of any safety provision, then the notice would have to remain in place and none of the substantial matters on which I have reached conclusions favourable to the applicants could have been aired. The applicants’ real complaints here are not so much on the issue of breach of or compliance with the general safety requirement; they have to do with the other public law issues which I have considered in this already over-long judgment. Everything points to the exercise of my discretion in favour of the granting of the relief sought.’
With respect to the learned judge, he did not, in my view, ask himself the right questions. He asked whether, on a s 15 appeal, Ferrero could have aired their various complaints about the Wednesbury reasonableness of the council’s decision lack of consultation and refusal to accept an undertaking in lieu of the notice (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680 [1948] 1 KB 223). Having concluded they could not, he held they were entitled to proceed by judicial review. He should have asked himself what, in the context of the statutory provisions, was the real issue to be determined and whether a s 15 appeal was suitable to determine it. The real issue was whether the goods
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contravened a safety provision and the s 15 appeal was geared exactly to deciding that issue. If the goods did contravene the safety provision and were dangerous to children then, surely, procedural impropriety or unfairness in the decision-making process should not persuade a court to quash the order. The determining factors are the paramount need to safeguard consumers and the emergency nature of the s 14 powers. Suppose that judicial review of a s 14 notice were entertained where the enforcement authority suspected certain goods to be poisonous. Suppose further the affidavit evidence raised a strong presumption that the goods were poisonous, but it was clear the authority had taken into consideration irrelevant factors or had omitted to consider relevant ones. The court would clearly decline to quash the notice. Even supposing the affidavit evidence showed a head-on conflict between experts as to whether the goods were poisonous or not, the court would hardly quash the notice with possibly fatal results, simply because of the defect in the decision-making process. In such a situation it would be desirable to reach a conclusion on the facts, and that could only be done by hearing the experts and having them cross-examined, an exercise to which a s 15 appeal would be well suited.
To test the suitability of a s 15 appeal in all situations, the question was raised in argument and mentioned in the passage cited from the learned judge’s judgment, as to the availability of judicial review were malice to be alleged. Clearly, as the authorities cited make clear, there is no absolute rule excluding judicial review in all cases where an alternative remedy exists. The factors to be taken into account will vary. It may be that, in the context of these statutory provisions, if an arguable case of malice were to be raised it might be appropriate to grant judicial review rather than leave the applicant to his s 15 remedy. I should observe, however, that if the goods truly contravened a safety provision, it would seem unlikely that malice would be established, and even if it were, the notice might nevertheless need to remain in place.
We were referred to R v Secretary of State for Health, ex p US Tobacco International Inc [1992] 1 All ER 212, [1992] QB 353. There it is true that regulations under s 11 of the 1987 Act, prohibiting goods said to be injurious to the public, were quashed because of unfairness in the decision-making process. But there no appeal procedure was provided; the regulations were permanent not temporary; there was a statutory duty to consult and the goods (oral snuff), although said to be injurious over a long period, were not suspected (as here) of being capable of inflicting instant death, so that the same emergency did not apply.
I am of the opinion that so far from being an exception to the general rule, the present case was one in which Ferrero should have been left to pursue their appeal under s 15. The decision was a matter of judicial discretion, and it is well established that this court should be slow to reverse the discretion of a learned trial judge. The principles were set out in Hadmor Productions Ltd v Hamilton [1982] 1 All ER 1042 at 1046, [1983] 1 AC 191 at 220 by Lord Diplock. He was dealing with interlocutory appeals, but his observations have been applied generally to appeals against discretionary decisions. He said:
‘On an appeal from the judge’s grant or refusal of an interlocutory injunction the function of an appellate court, whether it be the Court of Appeal or your Lordships’ House, is not to exercise an independent discretion of its own. It must defer to the judge’s exercise of his discretion and must not interfere with it merely upon the ground that the members of the appellate court would have exercised the discretion differently. The function of the appellate court is initially one of review only. It may set aside the judge’s
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exercise of his discretion on the ground that it was based on a misunderstanding of the law or of the evidence before him or on an inference that particular facts existed or did not exist, which, although it was one that might legitimately have been drawn on the evidence that was before the judge, can be demonstrated to be wrong by further evidence that has become available by the time of the appeal; or on the ground that there has been a change of circumstances after the judge made his order that would have justified his acceding to an application to vary it. Since reasons given by judges for granting or refusing interlocutory injunctions may sometimes be sketchy, there may also be occasional cases where even though no erroneous assumption of law or fact can be identified the judge’s decision to grant or refuse the injunction is so aberrant that it must be set aside on the ground that no reasonable judge regardful of his duty to act judicially could have reached it. It is only if and after the appellate court has reached the conclusion that the judge’s exercise of his discretion must be set aside for one or other of these reasons that it becomes entitled to exercise an original discretion of its own.’
For the reasons already given, I am of opinion that the learned judge’s decision to exercise his discretion in favour of granting judicial review was based upon a misunderstanding or error of law. It is therefore open to this court to reverse the learned judge’s discretionary decision, and in my view we should do so. Ferrero should have been left to pursue their statutory appeal. They had in fact lodged an appeal pursuant to s 15, which they withdrew after their success on judicial review. The matter is now academic since the six-month life of the suspension notice terminated long ago, but I would allow the council’s appeal on this ground alone.
That being so, it is strictly unnecessary to consider other issues raised on the appeal. However, two of those issues raised points of general importance and in addition to the arguments for the council and Ferrero, we gave leave to Mr Laws to intervene and address us on those issues on behalf of the Secretary of State. We are grateful to all three counsel for their cogent submissions, and although our conclusions on these issues must be obiter, I hope they may be helpful for the guidance of enforcement authorities who, we are told, are presently in a state of some uncertainty.
The two issues are (1) whether an enforcement authority has a duty to consult the proposed recipient of a s 14 notice before the decision to issue it and (2) whether the authority is under any duty, or whether it is appropriate, to accept an equivalent undertaking from a person served and lift the notice.
Duty to consult?
The additional facts bearing on this issue were as follows. Although the ‘Pink Panther’ toy was introduced only in October 1989, Ferrero had been marketing ‘Kinder Surprise’ eggs with other toy kits since 1974. They had sold some 216m such eggs in the United Kingdom, and 460m worldwide. Prior to the death of Jennifer Ashton there had been one previous fatal accident in Northern Ireland in May 1985 when a toy broke, the pieces were not cleared away, and a three-year-old child choked on one of them. The Department of Trade and Industry, after correspondence with Ferrero, suggested stronger warning should be printed on the wrappers, but took no further actions. In 1988 Hertfordshire County Council expressed concern as to whether there might be breaches of the Toys (Safety) Regulations 1974, SI 1974/1367, but after counsel had been consulted took the view that no breach could be established. Both Ferrero and Birmingham City
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Council learnt of Jennifer Ashton’s death on 6 November 1989, the day after it had occurred. Ferrero instructed their distributors not to dispatch further ‘Pink Panther’ products to the trade. On 7 November Mr Galland of the council’s trading standards office spoke to Miss Wooll at Ferrero. She informed him of the action which had been taken. A meeting was arranged for 9 November. There was an issue as to whether Mr Galland told Miss Wooll that the council were going to issue a suspension notice, but the case has proceeded below and in this court on the basis that he did. Mr Galland had meanwhile gleaned information from a number of sources, including the local authority in Northern Ireland concerned with the previous fatality there, Hertfordshire County Council, the coroner’s office, to discover the cause of Jennifer Ashton’s death, and the Department of Trade and Industry. Tests were done on a ‘Pink Panther’ toy, and Mr Galland discussed the case with a lawyer in the council’s common law department. However, apart from the telephone call with Miss Wooll, he did not consult Ferrero.
Ferrero submitted, and the learned judge accepted, that the council had a duty to consult them before deciding whether to issue the notice. Mr Beloff submitted fairness required it. Whilst the 1987 Act does not provide for such consultation he relied upon the principle laid down in Cooper v Wandsworth District Board of Works (1863) 14 CBNS 180, 143 ER 414, in particular in the judgments of Willes and Byles JJ. Willes J said (14 CBNS 180 at 190, 143 ER 414 at 418):
‘I apprehend that a tribunal which is by law invested with power to affect the property of one of Her Majesty’s subjects, is bound to give such subject an opportunity of being heard before it proceeds: and that the rule is of universal application, and founded upon the plainest principles of justice.’
Byles J said (14 CBNS 180 at 194,143 ER 414 at 420):
‘… a long course of decisions … establish that, although there are no positive words in a statute requiring that a party shall be heard, yet the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature.’
However, it is important to note the context in which those observations were made. That appears in the judgment of Erle CJ, who said (14 CBNS 180 at 188–89, 143 ER 414 at 417):
‘I think the board ought to have given notice to the plaintiff, and to have allowed him to be heard. The default in sending notice to the board of the intention to build, is a default which may be explained. There may be a great many excuses for the apparent default. The party may have intended to conform to the law. He may have actually conformed … though by accident his notice may have miscarried … I cannot conceive any harm that could happen to the district board from hearing the party before they subjected him to a loss so serious as the demolition of his house- but I can conceive a great many advantages which might arise in the way of public order, in the way of doing substantial justice, and in the way of fulfilling the purposes of the statute, by the restriction which we put upon them, that they should hear the party before they inflict upon him such a heavy loss.’
Thus, emphasis was laid on ‘fulfilling the purposes of the statute’. That factor was also emphasised by Lord Reid in his statement of the principle in Wiseman v Borneman [1969]3 All ER 275 at 277, [1971] AC 297 at 308 where he said:
‘For a long time the courts have, without objection from Parliament, supplemented procedure laid down in legislation where they have found that
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to be necessary for this purpose. But before this unusual kind of power is exercised it must be clear that the statutory procedure is insufficient to achieve justice and that to require additional steps would not frustrate the apparent purpose of the legislation.’
Mr Beloff sought to rely upon certain employment cases involving dismissal or suspension where the employee did not have an opportunity to make representations—John v Rees, Martin v Davis, Rees v John [1969] 2 All ER 274 at 305, [1970] Ch 345 at 397, Birss v Secretary for Justice [1984] 1 NZLR 513 and Dixon v Commonwealth (1981) 55 FLR 34—but these cases did not involve a statutory purpose or statutory procedure as contemplated by Lord Reid. The present case does. It is therefore important to consider the two preconditions mentioned by Lord Reid as being necessary before the common law will imply a duty to consult. I do so in reverse order.
Would a duty to consult frustrate the purpose of the 1987 Act?
As already observed, the purpose of Pt II of the 1987 Act is to achieve consumer safety, and s 14 is an emergency measure to protect consumers against goods the enforcement authority reasonably suspects are in contravention of the safety provision. Likewise, s 13 empowers the Secretary of State to issue a prohibition notice if he considers goods unsafe.
It is submitted on behalf of the council and of the Secretary of State that in this statutory context the common law will not supplement the procedure prescribed in the 1987 Act by requiring consultation with the trader, because to do so would frustrate the statutory purpose. If a local authority which suspected goods were dangerous, or if the Secretary of State who considered them so, had to consult the trader, receive his representations and then consider them before acting under s 14 or s 13, time would pass to the possible danger of the public. Clearly that could defeat the object of the legislation.
Facing this problem realistically, Mr Beloff conceded that in cases of urgency no duty to consult would be implied. He says, however—and this is common ground—that there was not such a degree of urgency in the present case. It was therefore not necessary to serve a s 14 notice on 8 November, rather than wait for the arranged meeting with Ferrero on 9 November and consider the matter thereafter.
But if the supposed duty to consult-were to depend upon the facts and urgency of each case, enforcement authorities would be faced with a serious dilemma. What amounts to urgency is incapable of precise definition, and would be open in many cases to honest and reasonable differences of opinion. There would be a danger that although the authority reasonably suspected goods were dangerous they would feel bound to delay serving a notice until they consulted the trader whereas, without a duty to consult, they would have served forthwith. Valuable time would be lost and danger could result.
Is the statutory procedure insufficient to achieve justice?
It should first be noted that the statutory scheme does lay down very specific requirements for consultation where Parliament thought them appropriate. Thus, the Secretary of State must consult ‘organisations … representative of interests substantially affected by the proposal’ before making regulations under s 11. Schedule 2 to the 1987 Act provides for consultation where the Secretary of State serves a prohibition notice or a notice to warn. Where a prohibition notice has been served, Pt I of Sch 2 provides for a trader to make representations to be
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considered. There is thus express provision for consultation after service of the notice, but not before. Part II of Sch 2 provides that if the Secretary of State proposes to serve a notice to warn on a person in respect of goods, he shall give an opportunity to that person to make representations before the notice is served.
By contrast, there is no provision under s 14 for representations to be made and considered, either before or after service of a suspension notice. However, as already observed, there are provisions for appeal under s 15 and for compensation under s 14(7). Thus, the scheme of the 1987 Act makes no provision for consultation before the service either of a s 13 prohibition notice or a s 14 suspension notice. The rationale of that is to avoid danger to the public by delay. But, in the case of the s 13 notice, representations can be made to revoke the notice and they must be considered. In the case of a s 14 notice, there is an appeal, and, if no contravention has occurred, compensation.
Conclusions on consultation
In these circumstances, although there is no statutory duty to consult, the question is whether, bearing in mind the necessary conditions stated by Lord Reid, the common law should imply a duty to consult. In my opinion the answer is No. To imply such a duty would tend to frustrate the statutory purpose. Moreover, ample safeguards for the trader are built into the statutory scheme. No doubt an enforcement authority, mindful of the entitlement to compensation should no contravention have occurred, will seek in each case to obtain the fullest information it can, commensurate with the perceived risk to the public of delaying service of the notice. They may, if time permits, think it right to consult the trader. It may be that in the present case the council would have been wiser to have waited until after meeting Ferrero on 9 November before deciding to serve their notice. But, for the reasons already given, I do not think they were under a duty to do so. They served the notice at their peril.
Undertaking in lieu of suspension notice
Following the service of the notice on 8 November Ferrero sought, at the meeting of 9 November and on subsequent occasions, to persuade the council to accept an undertaking instead. The undertaking they were prepared to offer would have imposed the same restriction on Ferrero as was imposed by the notice. Mr Beloff stresses moreover that, in terms of duration, it would have offered a more lasting protection to the public. The notice was effective only for six months whereas the undertaking was without limit of time. The advantage to Ferrero of this proposal would have been the removal of the stigma attaching to a suspension notice. Such stigma would not, it is said, have attached to an undertaking, and the existence of the notice was damaging Ferrero’s business in other countries because it was seen as a penal measure applied by the authorities and wrongly thought to affect all Ferrero’s products.
The council declined to accede to Ferrero’s proposal. It was argued, and the learned judge accepted, that the council had acted irrationally in refusing to lift the notice. No one doubted Ferrero’s probity; their undertaking could therefore be relied upon, and since it would have achieved the same result as the notice but for a longer period, it should have been accepted. Here, again, this court has had the advantage, which the learned trial judge did not, of fuller argument on behalf of the council and of Mr Laws’s argument on behalf of the Secretary of State.
Mr Beloff is right in asserting that s 14 gives the enforcement authority a discretionary power to issue a suspension notice. They are not bound to do so. However, should they do so, Mr Beloff’s submission amounts to this: that if the
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trader is reputable and offers an undertaking with similar effect to the notice, it is irrational for the enforcement authority not to accept the undertaking and withdraw the notice. This argument, if correct, would logically apply also to a prohibition notice issued by the Secretary of State.
The counter-arguments are based on four distinct submissions. It is first submitted that it cannot be right to impose the burden on the enforcement authority of deciding whether the trader in question can be relied upon to honour his undertaking. There will be instances, such as the present case, where the authority believes the trader’s assertion that he will not market the goods. But, in many cases, the trader’s reliability may be unknown. He may be dishonest; he may turn out to be weak-willed or change his mind. In doubtful cases an enforcement authority would again be placed in a dilemma.
Secondly, once the authority has withdrawn the notice, it would have no power to issue a fresh notice in relation to the same goods, should the undertaking be breached. Section 14(4) forbids it.
Thirdly, the sanction specifically provided by s 14 itself would no longer bite if an undertaking were accepted instead. Section 14(6) provides that a person contravening the notice commits a criminal offence punishable by imprisonment or a fine, or both. Were an undertaking to be substituted, there would be no immediate penalty or sanction at all. The most that the authority could do, and it may not be free from legal difficulty, would be to apply for an injunction upon a breach of the undertaking. Only if the injunction were obtained and were then further disobeyed would the court be able to punish the wrongdoers. Thus, the purpose and scheme of the 1987 Act providing for a notice and a criminal sanction if it be not obeyed would be frustrated.
Finally, Mr Laws drew attention to the existence of 128 local authority trading standards departments in Great Britain. If a suspension notice were lifted in one local authority area by reason of an undertaking, there might well be problems of enforcement in other areas.
In my judgment these are powerful and convincing arguments. I do not think the appellants’ refusal to accept an undertaking in lieu of the statutory suspension notice can properly be described as irrational. Nor can I accept the proposition that, absent any slur on the trader’s reputation, an offer of an undertaking in lieu of a suspension notice should be accepted by the enforcement authority.
Accordingly, I would find in favour of the council on both of the issues which we were expressly invited to consider. But, as indicated earlier, I would allow the appeal on the first ground raised by the council.
RUSSELL LJ. I agree.
FOX LJ. I also agree.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
25 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Bridge of Harwich, Lord Ackner and Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle) refused leave to appeal.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
R v Life Assurance and Unit Trust Regulatory Organisation Ltd, ex parte Ross
[1993] 1 All ER 545
Categories: BANKING AND FINANCE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): GLIDEWELL, STOCKER AND McCOWAN LJ
Hearing Date(s): 13, 14, 15 APRIL, 11 JUNE 1992
Investment business – Self-regulating organisation – Lautro – Intervention in member’s business – Duty to hear representations before making decision to intervene – Whether regulatory body under duty to invite or hear representations before making decision to intervene in member’s business and if so from whom.
Investment business – Self-regulating organisation – Lautro – Intervention in member’s business – Intervention affecting appointed representative of member – Right of appeal Whether appointed representative having right of appeal to Lautro’s appeal tribunal Financial Services Act 1986, s 8 – Lautro Rules 1988, rr 2.12(1), 7.3(11), 7.23.
The applicant was a director and shareholder of a company, WG, which was an appointed representative of a life insurance society. Following investigations by Lautro, the recognised self-regulating organisation for life assurance and unit trust business under s 8a of the Financial Services Act 1986, into the connection between WG and various persons who had been charged with fraud, Lautro decided on 30 October 1990 to exercise its intervention powers so as to prohibit the life insurance society and three associated companies from accepting any new investment business from WG or from soliciting investment business from the public through WG or any of its representatives. Lautro’s grounds for intervening were that there was evidence that there had been serious breaches of Lautro’s rules in respect of the business conducted on behalf of the life insurance society by WG and that the imposition of the restrictions was necessary in the interests of investors since there was evidence highlighting serious deficiencies in the life insurance society’s internal systems for monitoring the performance of WG and in particular ensuring that WG complied with Lautro’s code of conduct. An intervention notice to that effect was served on the life insurance society and a copy was sent to WG. The life insurance society then terminated its agency agreement with WG, which, since it no longer had any status as an authorised representative of the life insurance society, could not thereafter conduct investment business. The applicant applied on behalf of WG for judicial review of Lautro’s decision on the grounds that WG, as a person or body directly affected by the decision, had not been given an opportunity to make representations before the decision was made and the notice issued, and further, that WG had a right of appeal under Lautro’s rules which it had not been afforded the opportunity of exercising. The Divisional Court dismissed the application. The applicant appealed to the Court of Appeal, contending (i) that the failure by Lautro to give WG an opportunity to make representations before the service of the intervention notice was unfair and rendered the notice invalid, and (ii) that WG was subject to Lautro’s rules by virtue of r 2.12(1)b of those rules and therefore was a member of Lautro under s 8(2) of the 1986 Act, which provided that the members of a self-regulating organisation such as Lautro were ‘the persons who, whether or not members of the organisation, are subject to its rules in carrying on … business’
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and as such, or by virtue of r 7.3(11)c of Lautro’s rules, WG had a right of appeal to the appeal tribunal constituted under Lautro’s rules.
Held – (1) The effect of r 2.12(1) of Lautro’s rules was to provide that the life insurance society had to have rules which would ensure that appointed representatives such as WG complied with Lautro’s rules under a regime in which appointed representatives were subject to the life insurance society and not directly to Lautro. Accordingly, WG was not a member of Lautro either by reason of actual membership or under s 8(2) of the 1986 Act. Moreover, although r 7.23d of Lautro’s rules stated that ‘a person’ had a right of appeal to the appeal tribunal, that did not enlarge the category of appellants against an intervention notice beyond the recipients of the notice. It followed that WG did not have a right of appeal to the appeal tribunal (see p 5 55 g j to p 556 b and p 561 j, post).
(2) A decision-making body such as Lautro was required to exercise its powers fairly and although that duty was not owed to every person who might be affected, however remotely, by its decision it was owed to the members, and also to persons who although not members or under the direct control of the decision-making body were in a relationship with a person or firm who was under such direct control if it was apparent that a decision arising out of the relationship would be likely to affect the second person adversely. That duty might well, in appropriate circumstances, include a duty to allow the affected person to make representations before the decision was reached, particularly when his livelihood or ability to earn was likely to be adversely affected. However, since a self-regulating organisation such as Lautro might have to act with urgency in intervening in the business of a member in order to protect investors and it would be incompatible with that object to require the organisation to hear representations from a member or other person affected by its decision before it acted, fairness did not require that an affected person be given an opportunity to make representations before the intervention notice was served. Nevertheless, if a decision-making body did exercise its intervention powers without giving an affected person the opportunity to make representations beforehand its procedures ought to provide that those who might otherwise have expected to have been allowed to make representations should be allowed to make immediate application to set aside the decision or to appeal against it. Accordingly, Lautro had not acted unfairly in failing to give WG an opportunity to make representations before the intervention notice was served but in so far as Lautro’s rules did not give WG the right to make representations after the notice was served the rules were unfair. However, since WG had limited its challenge to the intervention notice to Lautro’s failure to allow the making of representations before service of the notice, which did not of itself invalidate the notice, the appeal would be dismissed (see p 557 b c, p 559 b c g to j, p 560 f g and p 561 a b e to j, post); dictum of Lord Diplock in Cheall v Association of Professional Executive Clerical and Computer Staff [1983] 1 All ER 1130 at 1136 applied; dictum of Lord Denning MR in Re Liverpool Taxi Owners’ Association [1977] 2 All ER 589 at 594 not followed.
Decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division [1992] 1 All ER 422 affirmed.
Notes
For the rules of natural justice, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 84–100, and for cases on the subject, see 1(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 160–184, 1046–1136.
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For self-regulating organisations under the Financial Services Act 1986, see Supplement to 32 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 330.
For the Financial Services Act 1986, s 8, see 30 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 175.
Cases referred to in judgments
Cheall v Association of Professional Executive Clerical and Computer Staff [1983] 1 All ER 1130, [1983] 2 AC 180, [1983] 2 WLR 679, HL.
Cooper v Wandsworth Board of Works (1863) 14 CBNS 180, 143 ER 414.
Liverpool Taxi Owners’ Association, Re [1972] 2 All ER 589, [1972] 2 QB 299, [1972] 2 WLR 1262, CA.
Lloyd v McMahon [1987] 1 All ER 1118, [1987] AC 625, [1987] 2 WLR 821, HL.
R v Birmingham City Council, ex p Ferrero Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 330, CA.
R v Cambridge University (Dr Bentley’s case) (1723) Fortes Rep 202, 92 ER 818.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66, [1964] AC 40, [1963] 2 WLR 935, HL.
Wiseman v Borneman [1969] 3 All ER 275, [1971] AC 297, [1969] 3 WLR 706, HL.
Wood v Woad (1874) LR 9 Exch 190, [1874–80] All ER Rep 408.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G of Hong Kong v Ng Yuen Shiu [1983] 2 All ER 346, [1983] 2 AC 629, PC.
Albert v Belgium (1983) 5 EHRR 533, E Ct HR.
Benthem v Netherlands (1986) 8 EHRR 1, E Ct HR.
Boden v Sweden (1988) 10 EHRR 367, E Ct HR.
Brind v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1991] 1 All ER 720, [1991] 1 AC 696, HL.
Cinnamond v British Airports Authority [1980] 2 All ER 368, [1980] 1 WLR 582, CA.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, HL.
DPP v Schildkamp [1969] 3 All ER 1640, [1971] AC 1, HL.
Durayappah v Fernando [1967] 2 All ER 152, [1967] 2 AC 337, PC.
Enderby Town Football Club Ltd v Football Association Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 215, [1971] Ch 591, CA.
Furnell v Whangarei High Schools Board [1973] 1 All ER 400, [1973] AC 660, PC.
Kaplan v UK (1980) 4 EHRR 64, E Comm HR.
König v Federal Republic of Germany (1979) 2 EHRR 170, E Ct HR.
Lewis v Heffer [1978] 3 All ER 354, [1978] 1 WLR 1061, CA.
R v British Pharmaceutical Industry Association Code of Practice Committee, ex p Professional Counselling Aids Ltd (1990) Independent, 1 November.
R v Chief Constable of the Thames Valley Police, ex p Cotton [1990] IRLR 344, CA.
R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Pegasus Holidays (London) Ltd [1989] 2 All ER 481, [1988] 1 WLR 990.
R v Wear Valley DC, ex p Binks [1985] 2 All ER 699.
Transocean Marine Paint Association v EC Commission Case 17/74 [1974] ECR 1063. Waddington v Miah [1974] 2 All ER 377, [1974] 1 WLR 683, HL.
Appeal
David Hugh Ross, the finance director and a shareholder of Winchester Group plc, appealed from the decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Mann LJ and Hidden J) ([1992] 1 All ER 422) given on 5 July 1991 dismissing his application made, with the leave of Otton J given on 15 January
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1991, for (1) judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the notice of exercise of intervention powers by the board of the Life Assurance and Unit Trust Regulatory Association Ltd (Lautro) dated 30 October 1990 issued to Norwich Union Life Insurance Society, Norwich Union Asset Management Ltd, Norwich Union Pensions Management Ltd and Norwich Union Trust Managers Ltd, prohibiting the Norwich Union companies from accepting investment business from Winchester Group plc and (2) judicial review by way of an order of mandamus of the refusal of the board of Lautro to permit an appeal to the appeal tribunal constituted under Lautro’s rules against the notice. The facts are set out in the judgment of Glidewell LJ.
Andrew Collins QC and Cherie Booth (instructed by Manches & Co) for Mr Ross.
Michael Beloff QC and Richard Gordon (instructed by Slaughter & May) for Lautro.
Cur adv vult
11 June 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
GLIDEWELLL J. This is an appeal against a decision of the Divisional Court (Mann LJ and Hidden J) which, in a judgment given on 5 July 1991 (see [1992] 1 All ER 422), refused Mr Ross relief on his application for judicial review. The appellant, Mr David Hugh Ross, is the finance director of, and a shareholder in, Winchester Group plc (Winchester). The respondent body is the Life Assurance and Unit Trust Regulatory Organisation Ltd (Lautro).
In these proceedings Mr Ross seeks to challenge a notice of exercise of intervention powers issued by the board of Lautro to Norwich Union Life Insurance Society (Norwich Union), and three associated or subsidiary companies, dated 30 October 1990. I shall call this ‘the intervention notice’. Mr Ross also challenges the refusal by the board of Lautro to permit him, or Winchester, to appeal against the intervention notice to the appeal tribunal constituted under Lautro’s rules.
The relief claimed against Lautro was originally an order of certiorari to quash the intervention notice, and a declaration that the notice was unlawful. By leave of the Divisional Court, Mr Ross was permitted to argue two further issues: firstly, whether Winchester was a member of Lautro and, secondly, whether Winchester, either as a member or as a non-member of Lautro, had any right of appeal against the intervention notice of 30 October 1990.
Self-regulation under the Financial Services Act 1986
The Financial Services Act 1986 introduced a regime for the control of persons and bodies carrying on various kinds of financial business, or offering financial services, by what has come to be known as self-regulation.
It is necessary to start by considering the structure of the 1986 Act, so far as is relevant. Section 3 of that Act provides:
‘No person shall carry on … investment business in the United Kingdom unless he is an authorised person under Chapter III or an exempted person under Chapter IV of this Part of this Act.’
Section 4 makes it an offence to carry on investment business in contravention of s 3.
By section 7(1):
‘… a member of a recognised self-regulating organisation is an authorised person by virtue of his membership of that organisation.’
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Section 8 provides:
‘(1) In this Act a “self-regulating organisation” means a body (whether a body corporate or an unincorporated association) which regulates the carrying on of investment business of any kind by enforcing rules which are binding on persons carrying on business of that kind either because they are members of that body or because they are otherwise subject to its control.
(2) In this Act references to the members of a self-regulating organisation are references to the persons who, whether or not members of the organisation, are subject to its rules in carrying-on the business in question.
(3) In this Act references to the rules of a self-regulating organisation are references to the rules (whether or not laid down by the organisation itself) which the organisation has power to enforce in relation to the carrying on of the business in question or which relate to the admission and explusion of members of the organisation or otherwise to its constitution …’
By s 114 of the 1986 Act the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry is empowered to transfer many of his functions under this Act to a body corporate which is able and willing to discharge those functions. In the exercise of that power, the Secretary of State has transferred many such functions to the Securities and Investments Board Ltd (the SIB). Where I refer to sections of the 1986 Act which confer powers upon the Secretary of State which are now exercised by the SIB, I shall refer to that body.
By ss 9 and 10 of the 1986 Act a self-regulating organisation may apply to the SIB for an order declaring it to be a recognised self-regulating organisation for the purposes of that Act. In order to secure recognition, a self-regulating organisation must have rules which comply with the requirements of Sch 2 to the 1986 Act. For present purposes, the relevant requirements in that schedule are:
‘1.—(1) The rules and practices of the organisation must be such as to secure that its members are fit and proper persons to carry on investment business of the kind with which the organisation is concerned …
2. The rules and practices of the organisation relating to—(a) the admission and explusion of members; and (b) the discipline it exercises over its members, must be fair and reasonable and include adequate provision for appeals …’
There is a special regime for insurance companies which are authorised to conduct business under s 3 or s 4 of the Insurance Companies Act 1982. By s 22 of the 1986 Act an insurance company authorised under those sections of the 1982 Act to carry on insurance business which is investment business within the meaning of the 1986 Act is an authorised person by virtue of the authorisation under the 1982 Act, and not by virtue of membership of a self-regulating organisation. However, s 129 of and Sch 10 to the 1986 Act have the effect of making an insurance company which is a member of a recognised self-regulating organisation subject to the rules of that self-regulating organisation in the conduct of investment business.
By s 44(1) an appointed representative, as defined in s 44(2), is an ‘exempted person’. By s 44(2):
‘For the purposes of this Act an appointed representative is a person—(a) who is employed by an authorised person (his “principal”) under a contract for services which—(i) requires or permits him to carry on investment business to which this section applies; and (ii) complies with subsections (4) and (5) below; and (b) for whose activities in carrying on the whole or part of that investment business his principal has accepted responsibility in writing;
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and the investment business carried on by an appointed representative as such is the investment business for which his principal has accepted responsibility.’
The remainder of s 44 governs the relationship between an appointed representative and his or its principal. The relationship between them is essentially one of contract, and s 44 contains a number of requirements as to the contents of such a contract. The effect of the section is to make the principal responsible to investors for the business carried on by the appointed representative.
Thus, under the self-regulatory structure created by the 1986 Act, the SIB may accord recognition to a self-regulating organisation, and may in appropriate circumstances revoke that recognition. A recognised self-regulating organisation controls those authorised persons who are members of it by requiring them to comply with the rules of the organisation. The authorised person as principal controls its appointed representatives who are exempted persons within s 3 by virtue of them being representatives whose authorisation may be terminated.
In the present case Lautro is a recognised self-regulating organisation. Norwich Union is an authorised person by virtue of s 22 of the 1986 Act, but is a member of and is subject to control under the rules of Lautro. Winchester was, at the material time, an appointed representative of Norwich Union, and therefore an exempted person. It is common ground that the business carried on by Winchester as an appointed representative of Norwich Union was investment business within the meaning of the 1986 Act.
As I have said, it is claimed on Winchester’s behalf that, in addition to being an exempted person, it was also a member of Lautro itself, and thus in addition an appointed person. I shall return later to this argument, which is in issue.
Lautro’s rules at the relevant time
Lautro’s rules were revised in February 1992. One of the revisions relates to a matter which arises in this appeal, and I shall refer to it later. However, on 30 October 1990, when the intervention notice was issued, Lautro’s then current rules (1988) included the following provisions which are relevant to the present appeal:
‘… 2.12(1) A Member shall—(a) establish and maintain rules and procedures … by reference to which each officer, employee, company representative and appointed representative of the Member can ensure that he complies with these Rules and the Principles in his dealings with ‘investors …
3.4(1) The Member shall ensure that a person is not appointed as a company representative of that Member except on terms which impose on him a duty to act in the performance of his functions as a company representative in such a way as to comply with the Code of Conduct …
3.5A(1) A body corporate or an unincorporated association shall not be appointed as, or be permitted to continue as, a Member’s appointed representative unless the Member is satisfied that the controllers, directors and senior management of that body or association are of good character and are competent and otherwise suitable to manage the marketing of investment contracts on the Member’s behalf …’
Rule 7.3 covers the intervention powers of Lautro. Paragraph (2) provides:
‘The Board may prohibit a Member in the course of the Member’s relevant investment business from—(a) entering into transactions of any specified kind either at all or to any specified extent or in specified circumstances;
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(b) soliciting business or business of a specified kind from, or except from, persons of a specified kind or in, or except in, specified circumstances; (c) carrying on business in, or except in, a specified manner.’
It was under this provision that the intervention notice was issued. Paragraphs (9) to (12) provide:
‘(9) The powers conferred on the Board by this Rule shall be exercisable by notice given to the Member concerned; and the notice shall state the date on which it is to take effect.
(10) The Board may, on their own motion or on the application of the Member concerned, by notice rescind or vary the notice given under paragraph (9) above; and if the Board refuse such an application by the Member they shall give the Member notice of the refusal. A notice under this paragraph shall state the date on which it is to take effect.
(11) A Member to whom a notice under this Rule is given may appeal against that notice to the Appeal Tribunal in accordance with Chapter VIII of this Part and the notice shall state that that right exists and the time within which it may be exercised; and (a) a notice under paragraph (9) above shall state the reasons why it appears to the Board to be desirable for the protection of investors for them to exercise their powers in the manner and in relation to the Member in question; and (b) a notice under paragraph (10) above shall state why the notice under paragraph (9) is being rescinded or varied.
(12) Where the reasons stared in a notice under this Rule relate specifically to matters which (a) refer to a person identified in the notice other than the Member in question; and (b) are in the opinion of the Board prejudicial to that person in any office or employment, the Board shall, unless they consider it impracticable to do so, serve a copy of the notice on that person.’
Chapter VIII of the rules provides for the setting up of and the procedure of an appeal tribunal to which a member on whom an intervention notice is served may appeal.
It will be seen that where Lautro is advised to serve or is considering the service of an intervention notice on a member, the rules do not place any obligation on it to give that member any advance warning of the intended action, or to give him any opportunity to make representations before the intervention notice is served. However, under r 7.3(10) the member may, once the notice is served, apply to the board to rescind it, and under r 7.3(11) may appeal against the notice to the appeal tribunal. Thus a member of Lautro upon whom an intervention notice is served is in much the same position as a defendant to an action at law against whom an ex parte injunction is obtained. He may apply immediately it is served to set it aside and, also or instead of making such application, he may appeal against the imposition of the injunction.
It will be seen, however, that although the rules required that if the notice related to and was prejudicial to a person other than a member a copy of the notice must be served upon him, such a person not only did not have any prior opportunity of making representations why the notice should not be issued, but was not given, under the rules, the right to apply to set it aside, or any right to appeal against the notice. It is this lack in the rules of Lautro of any such rights for persons affected which forms the general basis of Mr Ross’s complaint in these proceedings.
The facts
Many affidavits were filed in these proceedings, but for our purposes it has not
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been necessary to refer to them in any detail, because the facts are carefully summarised in the judgment of Mann LJ in the Divisional Court, and indeed the parties themselves have helpfully agreed a statement of facts. The summary which follows is drawn from those two sources.
Winchester Group Ltd was incorporated on 24 August 1989. The directors then were Mr V A Tee, Mr P A Medland and Mr R L Kissane. All were at that time employed in the Winchester office of the Royal Life Insurance Co Ltd. The company did not trade at that time.
On 11 January 1990 all three of the then directors resigned, and Mr Ross was appointed as the sole director, with Miss Susan Bird as secretary. Only two shares were issued to Mr Ross and Miss Bird, which they held as nominees.
In an affidavit sworn on 17 December 1990 Mr Tee deposes: ‘I am 51% shareholder in The Winchester Group Plc …' Presumably one of the two issued shares was held by the shareholder as nominee for Mr Tee. Mr Kissane played no part in the company after his resignation.
By a letter dated 9 March 1990 Mr White, national sales manager of the Norwich Union, wrote to Mr Ross, saying in principle he was—
‘willing to appoint the Winchester Group as Appointed Representatives of the Norwich Union on the basis of the two directors Susan Lesley Bird and David Hugh Ross as shown on the application form dated 9 February 1990 … The appointment of the Winchester Group is on the basis that Mr Victor Tee is no longer a Director, a Shareholder or an employee and we will inform you as soon as we have received a response to our request to the Royal [Life] for a reference. Until the outcome of these enquiries Mr Tee must not be associated in any way with the Winchester Group.’
On 13 March 1990 Winchester was formally appointed as appointed representative of Norwich Union by a letter of that date. The letter did not contain any reference to Mr Tee.
It is right to say that Mr Ross asserts that since that time Mr Tee has not been associated with the running of Winchester’s business, although of course on his own evidence he was the majority shareholder in that company.
It seems that Norwich Union did not obtain a satisfactory reference for Mr Tee from the Royal Life Insurance Ltd. Moreover, as the Divisional Court put it ([1992] 1 All ER 422 at 428):
‘… Mr Tee was not the only person who had, or had had, an apparent connection with Winchester and whose activities excited attention. In September 1990 Mr Kissane was arrested and charged with fraud arising out of activities when he was employed by Royal Life.’
This fact and the alleged connection between Mr Kissane and Mr Tee and Winchester came to the attention of Lautro. Moreover, in October 1990 a Mr Randhir Singh was arrested on fraud charges arising out of his employment by Abbey Life, and the SIB informed Lautro that there was some apparent connection between Randhir Singh and Winchester.
As a result (and I am here quoting from the judgment) ([1992] 1 All ER 422 at 428):
‘On 15 October the chief executive of Lautro notified Norwich of Lautro’s intention to conduct a full investigation into the business carried on by Winchester. The investigation was conducted by Mr Ian Wells, a senior enforcement officer of Lautro. On 22 October documents were removed
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from Winchester’s offices by Mr Wells, in company with the compliance officer of Norwich, and the documents were examined by Mr Wells over the next few days. After a short while Mr Wells felt able to tell the chief executive officer of Lautro that “in his opinion there was evidence to show that there had been serious breaches of the Lautro Rules 1988 in respect of the business conducted on behalf of Norwich Union by Winchester. On 29 October representatives of Norwich were informed at a meeting of Mr Well’s opinion and grounds for it and that the board of Lautro would meet on the following day to consider a written report by Mr Wells upon the business undertaken by Winchester. The board did so meet and resolved to exercise its powers of intervention under r 7.3(2) of the Lautro Rules 1988. The board also approved a press release, which summarised, but in some detail, the terms of the notice. The notice was, as is required by r 7.3(9) of the Lautro Rules 1988, served upon Norwich and the three associated companies.’
And copies of it were also served on Winchester by fax on 31 October 1990.
The press release, which was dated 31 October 1990, summarised the effect of the intervention notice, and contained the following passage:
‘The Board took the view that the reports called into question whether certain of the controllers, directors and senior managers of the Winchester Group were fit and proper, competent and otherwise suitable to manage the marketing of investment contracts on behalf of Norwich Union.’
On 1 November 1990 Norwich Union wrote to Mr Ross telling him the effect of the intervention notice, and saying:
‘We have, therefore, suspended The Winchester Group as an Appointed Representative of the Norwich Union to take effect immediately and to continue until such time as they hear further from us to the contrary.’
Winchester at once sought a meeting with Lautro. This meeting took place on 6 November 1990, and was attended also by representatives of Norwich Union. Winchester complained that they had had no opportunity to make any representations, and that they lacked particulars of the allegations made against them, to which there was no direct response from Lautro. However, Winchester did make attempts to rebut some of the allegations contained in the notice itself.
Winchester’s position is, and always has been, that the allegations in the intervention notice were unfounded and that some at least of the factual material on which the allegations were based was inaccurate. Lautro later accepted that some of the facts alleged were not correct and that some of the allegations must be qualified. As a result of this acceptance that some of the facts were incorrect, the board of Lautro, on 26 March 1991, reconsidered the question whether intervention remained justified, but decided that it remained necessary and desirable in the interests of investors. In the meantime, Norwich had made it clear that they were not exercising their right to appeal under the rules of Lautro. They notified Mr Ross of their decision not to appeal by letter dated 23 November 1990.
On 11 January 1991 Norwich Union gave three months’ notice of the termination of their agency agreement of 13 March 1990 with Winchester. That notice therefore expired on 11 April 1991.
Winchester were only entitled to conduct their investment business lawfully by reason of being an authorised representative of Norwich. Once its position as such authorised representative was first suspended, and then terminated,
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Winchester was unable to conduct any investment business. As the Divisional Court commented ([1992] 1 All ER 422 at 430–431):
‘The inhibition placed upon Norwich has unquestionably had, as Lautro must have known it would have, a seriously damaging effect upon that investment business and hence upon Winchester, their shareholders, staff, employees and investors. Mr Beloff [for Lautro] was not disposed to challenge this proposition although he said there might be room for dispute as to whether some of the damage which has in fact been suffered was caused by Norwich’s termination of the agency agreement. Accepting that qualification, I regard it as plain that the effect of an intervention notice cast in the terms which were here employed and which were reflected in an accompanying press release, must be most damaging to the authorised representative with whom further business is inhibited until (if ever) the notice is withdrawn.’
The issues
In this appeal the following issues arise, or could have arisen. I will set them out in the order in which I propose to deal with them. (i) Does Mr Ross have a sufficient interest within RSC Ord 53, r 3(7) to entitle him to apply for judicial review? (ii) Is the exercise by Lautro of its power to serve an intervention notice subject to judicial review? (iii) Is, or was, Winchester a member of Lautro? (iv) Whether or not Winchester was a member of Lautro, did it have a right to appeal under Lautro’s rules to the appeal tribunal? (v) Did the failure by Lautro to give Winchester an opportunity to make representations before the service of the intervention notice invalidate that notice so that it should be quashed? This is the major issue.
Conclusion on issues (i) and (ii)
At a hearing before Otton J on 15 January 1991, when he gave leave to move, counsel for Lautro raised the question whether Mr Ross had a sufficient interest to entitle him to make the application. The matter was not further pursued, and was not raised before us by Mr Beloff QC. My own view is that the proper applicant was probably Winchester rather than Mr Ross personally, but I regard this as a technicality. The parties quite rightly treated Mr Ross as Winchester’s representative for this purpose. This point therefore disappears.
Mr Beloff concedes that the decision of this court in R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815 establishes that the decisions of a body with the functions and constitution of Lautro render those decisions susceptible to judicial review. Whether he will adhere to this concession if this matter proceeds any further, I do not know.
I turn to consider the respective submissions on the other three issues.
(iii) Is, or was, Winchester a member of Lautro?
Mr Collins QC for Mr Ross bases his submission that Winchester was a member of Lautro firstly upon the wording of s 8(2) of the 1986 Act. To repeat, that subsection provides:
‘In this Act references to the members of a self-regulating organisation are references to the persons who, whether or not members of the organisation, are subject to its rules in carrying on the business in question.’
Mr Collins then points out that by r 2.12(1) Lautro requires its members to establish and maintain procedures by reference to which appointed representatives can ensure that they comply with Lautro’s rules. Thus, he submits, Winchester
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was subject to the rules of Lautro, and therefore it follows a member within the statutory meaning of that word.
Mr Collins accepts that this involves a person or body being simultaneously an authorised person and an exempted person under s 3. However, he points out that another provision of the 1986 Act, namely s 64(4)(b), seems to envisage this. Section 64 of the 1986 Act is the first section of Ch VI, which deals with the powers of intervention exercisable directly by the SIB in cases where there is no recognised self-regulating organisation with powers of intervention. Section 64(4) provides that Ch VI is not to apply where there is a recognised self-regulating organisation, and that the chapter shall not apply to:
‘… (b) an appointed representative whose principal … is a member of [a recognised self-regulating organisation] and is subject to the rules of such an organisation … in carrying on the investment business in respect of which his principal or each of his principals has accepted responsibility for his activities …’
Mr Collins submits that this wording implies that there may be appointed representatives who are subject to the rules of recognised self-regulating organisations.
Mr Beloff in reply submits that the dichotomy between authorised persons and exempted persons is a major feature of the whole structure of the 1986 Act. It is thus most unlikely that the legislature intended that one person or body should be capable of being in both categories. He submits that, though the wording of s 8(2) is at first sight difficult, there can be persons, for example, who have voluntarily agreed to abide by the rules of a recognised self-regulating organisation and who would thus fall within the statutory definition of membership of that organisation. For an example of this, he refers us to a code of practice of the Association of the British Pharmaceutical Industry, with which some firms who are not members of the association nevertheless voluntarily agree to comply.
Mr Collins’s reference to s 64(4)(b), Mr Beloff submits, is based upon a misreading of that provision. The phrase ‘is subject to the rules of such an organisation’ qualify the principal in that case, not the appointed representative. As for r 2.12(1), Mr Beloff submits that this supports his submission, not that of Mr Collins, since what it does is to provide that Norwich Union must have rules which will ensure that appointed representatives such as Winchester comply with the Lautro rules. Just as a sub-lessee may be required by his sublease to comply with some of the covenants in the headlease, and is answerable to his sub-lessor if he should breach those covenants, so r 2.12(1) provides a regime in which appointed representatives will be subject to Norwich Union, not directly to Lautro.
With these arguments advanced by Mr Beloff, I, for my part, agree. I think it is clear that, despite the obscure wording of s 8(2), Winchester and firms in its position are not, and were not, members of Lautro either by reason of actual membership or by reason of the statutory definition.
(iv) Did Winchester have a right of appeal apart from membership?
The argument here is based upon the wording of r 7.23, which starts: ‘(1) A person may appeal to the Appeal Tribunal …’ This contrasts with r 7.3(11), which starts: ‘A Member to whom a notice under this Rule is given may appeal …' In his judgment on this aspect of the matter Mann LJ said ([1992] 2 All ER 422 at 436):
‘Mr Collins said that “a person” includes any person whether a member or not, and in particular is apt to include a person, such as was Winchester, who
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is referred to in a prohibition notice. I cannot accept this suggestion. I regard r 7.23 as restating, by way of convenient compilation, rights of appeal which are given elsewhere in the rules. At least one of those rights is given to a person who is not a member, that is to say to the disappointed applicant for membership (see rr 7.23(2) and 7.23(1)(b)(i)). I regard it as impossible to use the words “any person” to enlarge the category of appellants against a prohibition notice beyond recipients of the notice.’
I agree with this, and therefore reject Mr Collins’s argument under this head.
This brings me to the main issue.
(v) Was the intervention notice invalid because the procedure was unfair to Winchester?
The submissions made by Mr Collins for Winchester on this issue can be summarised as follows: (i) in exercising its functions as a recognised self-regulating organisation, Lautro was under a duty to act in accordance with the rules of natural justice—to act fairly in the circumstances; (ii) that duty was owed not merely to Lautro’s member, Norwich Union, but to persons or bodies who would be prejudicially affected by its decisions, in particular to those whose earnings or profits would be affected; (iii) fairness required that a body in the position of Winchester should be notified that Lautro was considering issuing an intervention notice, and be given the opportunity to make representations before the decision to issue the intervention notice.
Mr Collins refers us to several well-known authorities in support of his propositions. The earliest, the classic origin of the principle for which he contends is Cooper v Wandsworth Board of Works (1863) 14 CBNS 180, 143 ER 414. This decision contained two well-known dicta, the first of which is from Willes J (14 CBNS 180 at 190, 143 ER 414 at 418):
‘I apprehend that a tribunal which is by law invested with power to affect the property of one of Her Majesty’s subjects, is bound to give such subject an opportunity of being heard before it proceeds: and that that rule is of universal application, and founded upon the plainest principles of justice.’
The second passage is in the judgment of Byles J (14 CBNS 180 at 194, 143 ER 414 at 420):
‘… a long course of decisions, beginning with Dr. Bentley’s Case [R v Cambridge University (1723) Fortes Rep 202, 92 ER 818], and ending with some very recent cases, establish, that, although there are no positive words in a statute requiring that the party shall be heard, yet the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature.’
Mr Collins also refers us to Wood v Woad (1874) LR 9 Exch 190, [1874–80] All ER Rep 408 and the decisions of the House of Lords in Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66, [1964] AC 40 and Wiseman v Borneman [1969] 3 All ER 275, [1971] AC 297.
To these I would add a passage from the speech of Lord Bridge of Harwich in Lloyd v McMahon [1987] 1 All ER 1118 at 1161, [1987] AC 625 at 702–703 in which he said:
‘My Lords, the so-called rules of natural justice are not engraved on tablets of stone. To use the phrase which better expresses the underlying concept what the requirements of fairness demand when any body, domestic, administrative or judicial, has to make a decision which will affect the rights of individuals depends on the character of the decision-making body, the kind of decision it has to make and the statutory or other framework in
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which it operates. In particular, it is well established that when a statute has conferred on any body the power to make decisions affecting individuals, the courts will not only require the procedure prescribed by the statute to be followed, but will readily imply so much and no more to be introduced by way of additional procedural safeguards as will ensure the attainment of fairness.’
As to the first of Mr Collins’s propositions, I have no doubt that Lautro was and is obliged to exercise its powers fairly. Indeed, para 2 of Sch 2 to the 1986 Act (which I have already quoted) requires that Lautro’s rules relating to the admission and expulsion of members and the discipline it exercises over its members must be fair and reasonable and include adequate provision for appeals. Thus Lautro is under a duty not merely at common law but by statute to be fair in these respects towards its members.
I find much more difficulty with the second proposition advanced by Mr Collins. In effect this raises the question: to whom is the duty of fairness owed? Is it owed to persons and bodies who are not members of Lautro? None of the authorities to which I have so far referred dealt with a situation in which a decision was made which directly affected one party, A, and at the same time indirectly affected a second party, B, so as to raise the question: is there any duty in the decision-making authority to be fair towards B?
In support of his proposition, Mr Collins quotes a short passage from the judgment of Lord Denning MR in Re Liverpool Taxi Owners’ Association [1972] 2 All ER 589, [1972] 2 QB 299, a decision of this court. In that case Liverpool Corporation was considering increasing the maximum number of licensed taxis in its area. The association objected. During the course of discussion the chairman of the relevant committee publicly undertook that the number of licensed taxis would not be increased until a private Bill which contained relevant provisions had been enacted and come into force. Despite that undertaking, before the legislation was enacted, the committee and the corporation decided to increase the number of licensed taxis.
On a renewed application for leave to move for what would now be called judicial review, this court granted the application. All three members of the court took the view that the corporation was bound by its undertaking and could not resile from it without at least giving the association an opportunity to make representations. This was therefore the reason for the decision.
However, in the course of his judgment Lord Denning MR said ([1972]2 All ER 589 at 594, [1972] 2 QB 299 at 307):
‘… when the corporation considers applications for licences under the Town Police Clauses Act 1847 they are under a duty to act fairly. This means that they should be ready to hear not only the particular applicant, but also any other persons or bodies whose interests are affected.’
Mr Collins argues that this applies in the circumstances of the present case. However, the question whether, apart from the undertaking, the association had a right to make representations was not in issue in that case. Indeed, it was a question about which Roskill LJ expressed doubts (see [1972] 2 All ER 589 at 596, [1972] 2 QB 299 at 311). I cannot therefore regard the two sentences from the judgment of Lord Denning MR which I have quoted as being an authority on the question which we have to consider.
The issue arises because of the self-regulatory structure which has been created under the 1986 Act. As I have said, a recognised self-regulating organisation controls those authorised persons who are members of it. The authorised persons,
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as principals, control their appointed representatives, who are thus exempted persons. Thus the line of control in the present case is for Lautro to control the operations of Norwich Union, and Norwich Union in turn, by virtue of its contractual relationship, to control Winchester. However, there is no doubt that decisions made by Lautro, particularly in relation to the issue of intervention notices, will frequently have a very considerable affect upon the appointed representatives, such as Winchester. I agree with Mr Beloff that there seems to be no direct authority on the question whether, and to what extent, the controlling authority owes a duty of fairness to the appointed representative thus indirectly affected by its decisions.
Mr Beloff submits that the first question we have to answer is: is there any known rule of natural justice that a person who is not the subject of an administrative decision should nevertheless have the right to make representations before the decision is made?
In his judgment in the Divisional Court Mann LJ said ([1992] 1 All ER 422 at 433):
‘In my judgment, Mr Collins’s contention runs counter to an important policy consideration. It is this: if the law is to imply an obligation to hear representations, then it must also specify with precision to whom that obligation is owed. If persons beyond the subject of the decision are included, then specificity becomes impossible. In Cheall v Association of Professional Executive Clerical and Computer Staff [1983] 1 All ER 1130 at 1135, [1983] 2 AC 180 at 190 Lord Diplock said: “Decisions that resolve disputes between the parties to them, whether by litigation or some other adversarial dispute resolving process, often have consequences which affect persons who are not parties to the dispute; but the legal concept of natural justice has never been extended to give such persons as well as the parties themselves rights to be heard by the decision-making tribunal before the decision is reached.” These remarks were made in a different context to this, but I regard them as apposite. I think it important that a regulatory body should know with precision from whom (if anyone) they have to invite or receive representations without first having to form an impugnable judgment as to who those persons are.’
Mr Cheall was the secretary of the local branch of a trade union. Disenchantment with the policy of that union led him to resign from it and to join another union, APEX. The decision by APEX to admit him as a member breached what was known as the Bridlington agreement, which governed the relationships between trades unions. The TUC disputes committee, on a complaint by the other union, found that APEX had acted in breach of the Bridlington agreement. During the course of its consideration the disputes committee did not invite, or receive, any representations from Mr Cheall. On receipt of the disputes committee’s decision, APEX purported to terminate Mr Cheall’s membership. He then sought a declaration that APEX was not entitled to do this.
Bingham J dismissed Mr Cheall’s action; the Court of Appeal (by a majority) allowed his appeal, but the House of Lords, in turn, allowed an appeal against this court’s decision and upheld Bingham J. One of the issues before the House was whether Mr Cheall had been entitled to be heard by the disputes committee of the TUC before it made its decision. Their Lordships held that there was no principle of natural justice requiring the TUC to hear him. It was in that context that Lord Diplock expressed the opinion which I set out above.
However, I note that towards the conclusion of his speech Lord Diplock said ([1983] 1 All ER 1130 at 1136, [1983] 2 AC 180 at 191):
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‘Different considerations might apply if the effect of Cheall’s expulsion from APEX were to have put his job in jeopardy, either because of the existence of a closed shop or for some other reason. But this is not the case.’
I accept that very frequently a decision made which directly affects one person or body will also affect, indirectly, a number of other persons or bodies, and that the law does not require the decision-making body to give an opportunity to every person who may be affected however remotely by its decision to make representations before the decision is reached. Such a principle would be unworkable in practice. On the other hand, it is my opinion that, when a decision-making body is called upon to reach a decision which arises out of the relationship between two persons or firms only one of whom is directly under the control of the decision-making body, and it is apparent that the decision will be likely to affect the second person adversely, then as a general proposition the decision-making body does owe some duty of fairness to that second person, which, in appropriate circumstances, may well include a duty to allow him to make representations before reaching the decision. This will particularly be the case when the adverse effect is upon the livelihood or the ability to earn of the second person or body.
In the present case I do not agree with Mann LJ, with all respect to him, that there is any great difficulty in defining the persons from whom, applying the principle to which I have just referred, the decision-making authority might be required to seek representations. Indeed, r 7.3(12) of Lautro’s rules required Lautro to serve a copy of the intervention notice on Winchester, since that notice referred to Winchester and was, in the opinion of Lautro, prejudicial to Winchester in its position as the appointed representative of Norwich Union.
Mr Beloff submits that the requirement of notice to bodies such as Winchester was necessary to ensure that they did not breach the intervention notice, but in my view the limitation of the category of those entitled to be given notice to persons who will be prejudicially affected can only mean that it is the prejudice which brings with it the necessity to serve. Thus in my view this Lautro rule has already defined, with some clarity, the persons who shall be served, and to whom in my opinion in appropriate circumstances Lautro owes a general duty to act fairly.
This brings me to Mr Collins’s third point: did fairness require that Winchester should be notified before the decision to serve the intervention notice was reached? I notice that Lautro’s rules at the time did not require Lautro to give its members, such as Norwich Union, the opportunity to make representations before serving an intervention notice. The reason for this is, in my view, made clear in r 7.3(1) of Lautro’s rules, which I have not so far quoted. That rule, which is the first of the rules dealing with Lautro’s intervention powers, authorises the board ‘… in any case where it appears to them that it is desirable in the interests of investors …’ to exercise their powers of intervention. Thus an intervention notice is appropriate when the board conclude, on the material before them, that the interests of investors require the practice about which the board are concerned to cease immediately pending further investigation of the allegations.
The decision whether or not to exercise this power, and to serve a notice before hearing the persons to whom it is directed or whom it will affect, must be one which the board must balance against what they regard as the interests of investors. The board in this sense will be moved by similar considerations to those which affect a court in deciding whether to grant an injunction ex parte.
On this issue, Mann LJ said in his judgment ([1992] 1 All ER 422 at 434):
‘The purpose of an exercise of intervention powers under the Lautro Rules 88, or an exercise under Pt I of the 1986 Act, is the protection of investors.
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The achievement of that purpose must on occasion require action which has urgently to be taken, and the entertainment of representations may not be compatible with the urgency. Mr Collins recognised that this could be so, but said that at least there must be a duty to consider whether time admits of the receipt of representations and in this case there was no such consideration by Lautro. In my judgment, once it is recognised, as inevitably it must be, that a self-regulating organisation may have to act with urgency in order to achieve its purpose, then it would be undesirable to encumber it with the necessity to make a judgment as to whether time admits of an opportunity to make representations. That was the approach of the Court of Appeal in R v Birmingham City Council, ex p Ferrero Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 530. That case concerned the exercise of powers under Pt II of the Consumer Protection Act 1987. Under those powers an enforcement authority can by notice prohibit a person from supplying goods which the authority suspects of contravening a safety provision. There is an appeal against a notice to a magistrates’ court, but there is no express provision for representations prior to service of the notice. The court held that such a provision should not be implied. Taylor LJ, with whom Fox and Russell LJJ agreed, said (at 542): “But if the supposed duty to consult were to depend upon the facts and urgency of each case, enforcement authorities would be faced with a serious dilemma. What amounts to urgency is incapable of precise definition, and would be open in many cases to honest and reasonable differences of opinion. There would be a danger that although the authority reasonably suspected goods were dangerous they would feel bound to delay serving a notice until they consulted the trader, whereas, without a duty to consult, they would have served forthwith. Valuable time would be lost and danger could result.” I regard these observations as applicable to the position of a self-regulating organisation. It appears to me that the omission from the Lautro Rules 1988 reflects an omission from the 1986 Act, and in my judgment the omission was made with a deliberation in each case which makes an implication impossible.’
I agree with these observations, but with a qualification. This is that, in my view, if a decision-making body is to exercise powers such as those of serving an intervention notice without giving anybody the opportunity to make representations beforehand, its procedures should provide that those who might otherwise expect to have been allowed to make representations should at least be allowed to make immediate application to set the decision aside and to appeal against it. In this respect the situation is very similar to that which obtains when a court grants an ex parte injunction.
In Wiseman v Borneman [1969] 3 All ER 275 at 286, [1971] AC 297 at 318 Lord Wilberforce said:
‘Thirdly, it is true, as the judgments in the Court of Appeal point out, that ex parte applications are frequently made to the courts and granted without hearing the party affected, but merely to say this, overlooks that procedure invariably exists, and is where necessary invoked, for enabling the party affected rapidly to seek annulment or amendment of the order made against him.’
At the relevant time r 7.3(1) of Lautro’s rules gave a member on whom an intervention notice was served the right to apply (immediately) for the board to rescind the notice, and r 7.3(11) gave a right to the member to appeal against the notice and against any decision not to rescind it. At that time the rules gave no such rights to other persons served with the notice, such as Winchester.
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In February 1992, however, Lautro’s rules were amended so as to give other persons served with an intervention notice the right to appeal against it—see new rr 7.28 and 7.3(12). In my view, when the intervention notice was served on 31 October 1990 Lautro’s rules were defective in not giving such a right of appeal to a person or body in the position of Winchester, and in not giving such a person the right to seek to have the decision to serve the notice rescinded. In other words whilst the power to decide to serve an intervention notice without first hearing representations from persons affected was not in itself so unfair as to invalidate the notice, a lack of any means by which the person could immediately thereafter challenge the notice was in my opinion a breach of the requirements of fairness which the law should imply.
Rule 7.3(12) of Lautro’s rules requires service of a copy of an intervention notice upon a person or firm in the position of Winchester because the notice relates specifically to matters prejudicial to that person or firm. If, in accordance with the view I have just expressed, such a person or firm were given the right to apply immediately the notice was served for it to be rescinded, this remedy might well be of no effect if a press notice was issued at the time of service of the intervention notice, as was done in this case. If it transpired that the intervention notice was not justified, and Lautro rescinded it, a press notice might already have caused substantial damage to the person affected. Although this is not a matter in respect of which we are asked to grant any relief, I believe that Lautro should reconsider its practice in this respect, and consider deferring the issue of a press notice until after the person affected has had the opportunity to apply for the notice to be rescinded and to make representations to that effect, and Lautro’s board have ruled in the application.
For the reasons I have given, I conclude that if (but only if) Lautro did not afford to a person or firm served with an intervention notice in accordance with r 7.3(12) the opportunity to apply to the board to rescind the notice, and/or to appeal against it, then the lack of such remedies would be unfair and the procedure unlawful.
However, Mr Collins (if I have understood him correctly) has expressly limited his challenge to Lautro’s failure to allow the making of representations before the service of the intervention notice. As I have said, I do not consider that this of itself invalidated the notice. If Mr Collins had sought to base an argument on the omission from the rules which I have characterised as unfair, we should have had to consider whether the opportunity given to Winchester on 6 November 1990 to make representations to Lautro’s board rectified this defect. We were not, however, asked to consider this. I am therefore not prepared to quash the intervention notice.
Although I consider that at the relevant time Lautro’s rules, and thus its procedure, were defective in the respects I have outlined, for the reasons I have given I conclude that Lautro was not required by law to afford to Winchester the opportunity to make representations as to why an intervention notice should not be served before deciding whether or not to serve such a notice.
I would therefore dismiss this appeal.
STOCKER LJ. I agree.
McCOWAN LJ. I also agree.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Harris v Director of Public Prosecutions
Fehmi v Director of Public Prosecutions
[1993] 1 All ER 562
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): McCOWAN LJ AND POPPLEWELL J
Hearing Date(s): 21 JULY 1992
Criminal law – Offensive weapons – Article with blade or point – Lock-knife with blade less than three inches in length – Whether knife a ‘folding pocketknife’ – Whether carrying such a lock-knife in a public place an offence – Criminal Justice Act 1988, s 139.
A lock-knife having a pointed blade less than three inches in length and which is capable of being secured in an open position by means of a locking device which requires a trigger mechanism to be activated before the blade can be folded back into the handle is an article the carrying of which in a public place is an offence under s 139a of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. Such a knife is not a ‘folding pocketknife’ the carrying of which in a public place is not an offence by virtue of s 139(3), since a folding pocketknife is a knife which is readily and immediately foldable at all times simply by the folding process and the presence of a locking mechanism which requires a further process, namely activating a trigger mechanism, to fold the blade back into the handle takes the knife outside the definition of ‘folding pocketknife’ (see p 565 b c, post).
Notes
For the offence of having an article with a blade or point in a public place, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 168.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1988, s 139, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1211.
Cases stated
Harris v DPP
John Harris appealed by way of a case stated by Mr Alan C Baldwin, metropolitan stipendiary magistrate for the petty sessional division of North Westminster, sitting at Wells Street Magistrates’ Court on 15 February 1991 in respect of his decision to convict the appellant of the offence of having with him without good reason or lawful authority an article which had a blade or was sharply pointed, namely a lock-knife, contrary to s 139(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. The question for the opinion of the High Court is set out at p 563 e f, post. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCowan LJ.
Fehmi v DPP
Ahmet Fehmi appealed by way of a case stated by the magistrates for the Thames Division in respect of their adjudication on 3 October 1991 whereby they convicted the appellant of the offence of having with him in a public place without good reason or lawful authority an article with a blade or point, namely a blade, contrary to s 139(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. The question for the opinion of the High Court is set out at p 564 a, post. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCowan LJ.
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Bryan McGuire (instructed by Rance & Co) for the appellant Harris.
Laurence Giovene (instructed by R Voss & Son) for the appellant Fehmi.
John McGuinness (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Harrow) for the Director of Public Prosecutions.
21 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
McCOWAN LJ. These are two appeals by way of cases stated which have been heard together because they raise a single point. The first is an appeal by John Harris. In his case an information was preferred by the Director of Public Prosecutions against him that on 3 November 1990 at Prebend Street, Islington, he had with him, without good reason or lawful authority, an article which had a blade or was sharply pointed, namely a lock-knife, contrary to s 139(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. At the conclusion of the respondent’s case, the appellant submitted that there was no case to answer on the basis that the knife was a folding pocketknife and that the cutting edge of its blade was less than three inches in length, so that the knife did not fall within the provisions of s 139 of the 1988 Act.
The case was heard by Mr Alan C Baldwin, a metropolitan stipendiary magistrate sitting at Wells Street on 15 February 1991. In the case stated he says he was—
‘of the opinion that it could not be said that this lockknife was a folding pocket knife. Accordingly I rejected the submission advanced on behalf of the Appellant. The Appellant called no evidence, and I convicted him in relation to the information.’
The question for the opinion of the High Court is:
‘Whether I was right in law to find that a folding knife carried in the pocket having a pointed blade of less than 3² in length and capable of being secured in an open position by a locking device was not a folding pocket knife within the meaning of Section 139 Criminal Justice Act 1988.’
The other appellant is Mr Ahmet Fehmi. In his case an information was laid against him that on 14 September 1990 at Bethnal Green Road, London E2, he had with him in a public place, without good reason or lawful authority, an article with a blade or sharp point, namely a blade, contrary to s 139 of the 1988 Act.
The case is stated by justices for the Thames Division who tried the case on 3 October 1991. They were asked as a preliminary issue to examine the knife the subject of the charge, and to rule whether they considered it an article the carrying of which in a public place was prohibited by s 139. They did examine it and they found these facts:
‘a) that the article was a knife with a blade the cutting edge of which was less than three inches. b) that the blade was capable of being folded. c) that when the blade was fully opened it automatically locked in that position. d) that to fold the blade back into the handle it was necessary to activate a button triggered mechanism …’
It appears that it was contended by the respondent that the mechanism which locked the blade in the open position was such as to render the knife not one which the provisions of the section permitted to be carried lawfully in a public place. The justices found that the knife was one the carrying of which in a public place was an offence under s 139, and they state that the question for the opinion of the High Court—
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‘is whether in finding as we did that the knife was one the carrying of which in a public place is an offence was a correct determination or decision in law.’
We were shown one of the knives in question, there being no difference between the two. What we observed was that when you first open it manually you cannot then fold it back. You have first to press a button on it in order to fold it back, so that when fully opened the result is that it requires to be unlocked.
I look next at s 139 and read it in so far as it is relevant:
‘(1) Subject to subsections (4) and (5) below, any person who has an article to which this section applies with him in a public place shall be guilty of an offence.
(2) Subject to subsection (3) below, this section applies to any article which has a blade or is sharply pointed except a folding pocketknife.
(3) This section applies to a folding pocketknife if the cutting edge of its blade exceeds 3 inches …’
Appearing for Mr Harris, Mr McGuire said that the only question in the case is whether the presence of the locking mechanism is sufficient to prevent it being a folding pocket knife. He points out that this is a penal statute and, accordingly, he submits, clear words are required. They are not, he says. There is nothing in the section which says that the presence or absence of a locking device affects the matter. The court asked him how far he took the argument. What, for example, of a knife which required a screwdriver to undo a screw before it could be unlocked and then folded back into the closed position? His answer was that it would be still a folding knife because it could be, albeit by a somewhat lengthy process, folded away. Again, the court asked him what he submitted was the thinking behind the statute. He accepted in this context that it does make a difference if the knife can be folded readily away. He accepted that it is obviously a more effective stabbing weapon if it is locked, for the very plain reason that without a lock there is a dangerous tendency, dangerous, that is to say, from the point of view of the wielder, to fold onto the wielder’s hand.
Mr Giovene appeared for the other appellant, Mr Fehmi. His arguments were somewhat different. He stressed the other side of the coin. He submits that it is not more dangerous for being locked. He says that from the point of view of the user, it is much safer because it will not come back upon his hand. Mr Giovene went so far as to describe it as a safety device. Again, he would not agree with Mr McGuire about the screw to which I referred a little while ago, because Mr Giovene says that the section covers manual folding and, if it is necessary to use a screwdriver in order to undo the locking device, then, this is mechanical folding and not manual folding. There was some discussion about what is called a switch blade. As I understand it, that means that by pressing a button the blade will automatically fold outwards and, again, by pressing a button, it will automatically fold in again. Since this is a pivotal device and Mr Giovene was stressing the element of pivoting, I asked him why that would not cover the switch blade. His answer is that it does not cover the switch blade because the section is concerned to cover manual folding and not mechanical folding.
For my part, I cannot accept his argument in this respect, because that would certainly involve importing a number of additional words into the section. His basic argument, as I have already indicated, is that to fold the blade it has to have a pivot. If it is pivoted, he asked rhetorically, how can it be said that because it has a locking device it is no longer a folding pocketknife? Two hands, he stresses, are required to open this type of knife. That sharply differentiates it from a flick
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knife. The locking device, he submits, cannot change the nature of the animal. The question is whether it folds open and folds shut.
For the respondent in each case, Mr McGuinness answers the question from the court as to the thinking behind the statute by saying this. When the knife is locked it becomes in effect a fixed-blade knife and the intention of the statute is to prevent the carrying of such a knife. I accept that point.
In my judgment, the right approach to the matter is this. To be a folding pocketknife the knife has to be readily and indeed immediately foldable at all times, simply by the folding process. A knife of the type with which these appeals are concerned is not in this category because, in the first place, there is a stage, namely when it has been opened, when it is not immediately foldable simply by the folding process and, secondly, it requires that further process, namely the pressing of the button.
For these reasons, I would give the answer to the questions in each case, that the tribunals were right to find as they did, and I would dismiss the appeals.
POPPLEWELL J. I agree.
Appeals dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Hopkins v Norcross plc
[1993] 1 All ER 565
Categories: CONTRACT
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): DAVID LATHAM QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 31 MARCH, 1, 9 APRIL 1992
Contract – Damages for breach – Wrongful dismissal – Loss of earnings – Set-off of retirement pension received on dismissal – Employers terminating employment of employee in breach of contract – Employee receiving retirement pension equalling total loss of salary up to normal retirement date – Employee bringing action for wrongful dismissal – Whether retirement benefits received by way of pension deductible from damages for wrongful dismissal.
The plaintiff was employed by the defendant company for 27 years and was the chairman of one of its divisions when he was wrongfully dismissed on 12 September 1989 at the age of 58. The plaintiff was a member of the company’s pension scheme, not having opted out when employees became entitled in 1986 to make provision for their pensions in schemes other than those run by their employers. Under the terms of the scheme the plaintiff was entitled on leaving employment for whatever reason over the age of 50 and before the age of 60 to an immediate pension calculated as a proportion of the pension that he would have been entitled to had he retired on his 60th birthday. There were no provisions in the scheme modifying the plaintiff’s absolute entitlement to the pension and since he was unable to find any alternative employment the benefits he received by way of pension were equivalent to the loss of his salary for the period between the date of his dismissal and the date of his 60th birthday. In an action by the plaintiff for wrongful dismissal the defendants admitted liability and damages were assessed as being the loss of salary for the period between the date of dismissal and the date of normal retirement. The question arose whether
Page 566 of [1993] 1 All ER 565
the pension arising out of the termination of employment should be set off against the damages to which the plaintiff was entitled for wrongful dismissal. The defendants contended that, since it was a basic principle in the assessment of damages for breach of contract that the plaintiff was to be placed in the same position as if the contract had been performed, failure to take into account the pension money would provide the plaintiff with double the amount to which he was entitled under his contract of employment because if he had not been dismissed he would have continued to earn his salary up to 1 October 1991 and since he had received precisely the same sum by way of pension, which would not have been payable but for the termination, he had lost nothing.
Held – In a claim for damages for wrongful dismissal pension benefits received by a plaintiff as a result of that dismissal were not, in the absence of any term in the contract of employment or pension rules expressly prohibiting payment in such circumstances, to be set off against the damages to which the plaintiff was entitled, because there was no relevant distinction between damages for lost earnings arising out of a claim in contract for wrongful dismissal and damages arising out of a claim in tort for lost earning capacity as a result of injury, where it was established law that money payable under a pension, be it a disability or retirement pension, was not deductible, and it would not be satisfactory if the answer to the question whether a pension was to be deducted depended on the way in which the claim was formulated. Furthermore, since the plaintiff could have opted out of the company pension in 1986 but chose not to, and since it was accepted that any pension that he would have received as a result would not have been deductible, it would be unjust for there to be a different result merely because the pension was provided by the employer. It followed that the pension payments received by the plaintiff were not deductible from the figure which had been agreed as the damages for wrongful dismissal (see p 571 e, p 572 b to p 573 b, post).
Parry v Cleaver [1969] 1 All ER 555 and Smoker v London Fire and Civil Defence Authority, Wood v British Coal Corp [1991] 2 All ER 449 applied.
Notes
For deduction for benefits received or receivable from damages, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1152 and 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 83, and for cases on the subject, see 17 Digest (Reissue) 117–118, 195–200 and 36(1) Digest (2nd, reissue) 489–491, 4199–4203.
Cases referred to in judgment
British Transport Commission v Gourley [1955] 3 All ER 796, [1956] AC 185, [1955] 2 WLR 41, HL.
Guy v Northern Ireland Police Authority (14 April 1989, unreported), NI QBD.
Livingstone v Rawyards Coal Co (1880) 5 App Cas 25, HL.
Parry v Cleaver [1969] 1 All ER 555, [1970] AC 1, [1969] 2 WLR 821, HL.
Robinson v Harman (1848) 1 Exch 850, [1843–60] All ER Rep 383, 154 ER 363.
Smoker v London Fire and Civil Defence Authority, Wood v British Coal Corp [1991] 2 All ER 449, [1991] 2 AC 502, [1991] 2 WLR 1052, HL.
Action
By writ and statement of claim the plaintiff, John Edward Hopkins, brought an action against the defendants, Norcross plc, claiming damages for wrongful dismissal. On 14 June 1991 Master Miller granted the plaintiff’s summons under RSC Ord 14 for leave to enter judgment for damages to be assessed. On 10
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December 1991 Master Miller ordered for assessment of damages to be tried before a judge. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Stephen Auld (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the plaintiff.
Philip Naughton QC and Adrian Lynch (instructed by Slaughter & May) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
9 April 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
DAVID LATHAM QC. Mr Hopkins commenced employment with a company within the Norcross Group of companies on 16 July 1962 as a production engineer, and remained in employment with one or other members of the group for the next 27 years. In January 1981 he was appointed managing director of Norcross plc (the defendants) responsible for all of its UK based activities, and in May 1988 he became chairman of the defendants’ ceramics division. On 11 September 1989 the defendants’ chief executive, Michael Doherty, called Mr Hopkins into his office, informed him that he was relieving him of the chairmanship of the ceramics division, instructed him to clear his desk, go home and remain there until 15 September 1989, when he would be seen again. On 15 September 1989 Mr Hopkins met Mr Doherty and the defendants’ secretary and group legal adviser, David Hamilton. Mr Hopkins was dismissed, handed a form P45 dated 12 September 1989, and a cheque in respect of his salary for the first 12 days of September 1989. He has not worked for the defendants since then, nor has he been able to find any alternative employment. He was, at the time, employed under a contract of employment entitling him to remain so employed (subject to immaterial exceptions) until his normal retirement date, as defined in the rules of a pension scheme operated by the defendants (which I shall refer to in more detail later), which was his 60th birthday, that is 1 October 1991.
Mr Hopkins commenced these proceedings claiming damages for wrongful dismissal. A defence was served; but Mr Hopkins issued a summons under RSC Ord 14, which was heard by Master Miller, who ordered on 14 June 1991 that Mr Hopkins be at liberty to enter judgment against the defendants for damages and interest to be assessed, which judgment was entered on 25 June 1991. By further order of 10 December 1991 Master Miller ordered that the assessment of damages be tried before a judge (without a jury), which is how the matter comes before me. The parties have in fact resolved most of the issues; and there is a written agreement which deals with all matters save for one issue of law. It has been agreed that Mr Hopkins’s claim for damages against the defendants for wrongful dismissal is to be assessed as £99,604 (after tax) plus interest pursuant to s 35A of the Supreme Court Act 1981 at such rate and for such period as the court shall determine, and that the amount in fact received by Mr Hopkins from the pension scheme which I have already referred to over the period from his dismissal to 1 October 1991 was £99,604. The issue of law is whether or not this latter sum is to be deducted from the damages for wrongful dismissal either in whole or in part.
Before I consider the issue of law, it is necessary to set out certain terms of the contract on which he was employed at the relevant time, and the provisions of the pension scheme. The contract of employment, referred to before me as the ‘service agreement’, provided as follows: (a) Mr Hopkins’s employment was conditional upon his being a member of the pension scheme operated by the defendants known as ‘the Norcross Security Plan’ (the plan); (b) his contributions
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to the plan in accordance with the rules of the plan in force from time to time would be deducted from his salary on a monthly basis and, if required to do so, Mr Hopkins would sign an appropriate form authorising the making of such deductions; (c) the service agreement superseded any subsisting agreement between the defendants and Mr Hopkins relating to his employment.
By s 15(1) of the Social Security Act 1986, which came into force on 6 April 1988, the term set out in (a) above was rendered void; the policy of the 1986 Act was to entitle employees if they so wished to make provision for their pensions in schemes other than those run by their employers. However, Mr Hopkins did not avail himself of that right, and remained a member of the plan, subject to changes I will refer to later, until the date of his dismissal.
Originally the plan provided Mr Hopkins with his basic pension entitlement, and was at the relevant time administered by a trustee upon trusts and subject to the powers and provisions contained in rules all which have been referred to as ‘the plan rules’. Mr Hopkins became a member of the plan on 1 April 1975, and thereafter contributed 5% of his pensionable salary, which was deducted by the defendants and paid to the trustee on his behalf. The defendants in their turn made such contributions to the plan as the plan’s actuary calculated to be required to provide the appropriate benefits.
In addition, the defendants set up a further scheme which operated originally by way of topping up the benefits available to employees such as the plaintiff, called ‘the Norcross Supplementary Pension Scheme’ (the scheme), which was established on 29 March 1979 and was administered by the defendants. The relevant rules setting out the trusts and powers were referred to before me as ‘the scheme rules’. The scheme was non-contributory. Mr Hopkins became a member on 1 April 1979.
On 1 November 1986 changes were made to the plan and scheme. The name of the scheme was changed to ‘the Norcross Senior Executive Pension Scheme’ and the assets representing all the scheme members’ rights in the plan were transferred to the scheme; thereafter the contributions which had previously been paid to the plan were paid to the scheme. The effect was that his pension entitlement was now entirely governed by the scheme rules. By further change on 14 October 1988 it was proposed that the scheme should be merged with the plan; and Mr Hopkins signed the appropriate form of authority authorising a transfer of all the assets representing the interests of the members of the scheme back to the plan and to deduct from his salary his contributions to the plan. With effect from 1 December 1988, when the assets were transferred, the scheme was terminated; but the trustee of the plan undertook that the plan would provide precisely the same benefits to former members of the scheme as they were entitled to under the scheme, and subject to the scheme rules. The formal documentation completing this change had not been executed by the time that Mr Hopkins was dismissed. But there is no dispute that Mr Hopkins was, after 1 December 1988, entitled to all the benefits that he had previously been entitled to under the scheme, and subject to the scheme rules.
The scheme rules amongst other things entitled him, on leaving employment for whatever reason before the age of 60, but over the age of 50, to an immediate pension calculated in accordance with a formula, expressed as a fraction of the pension that he would have been entitled to had he retired at the age of 60, and determined by reference to his actual and potential pensionable service, not upon the amount of his contributions. This entitlement was one he could exercise, and did exercise, as of right. There was no relevant discretion in either the defendants or the trustee of the scheme to reduce or delay payment of that pension. The only provision in the scheme rules affecting the absolute entitlement of a person in
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Mr Hopkins’s position to the pension is in cl 15.3, which makes payment of the pension a loan in circumstances where the pensioner will be entitled, for whatever reason, to claim an amount equivalent to the pension from third parties. It has no direct relevance to the issue before me, save to indicate that provision can be made either in the rules of a pension scheme or the terms of employment of an employee entitled to a pension to modify the entitlement of the pensioner to his pension.
The question raised by the issue of law is whether or not moneys received by way of pension arising out of a termination of employment are to be set off against the damages to which the former employee is entitled where the termination of the contract of employment was wrongful. The defendants say that as a matter of first principle such sums must be deductible. Had Mr Hopkins not been dismissed, he would have continued to earn his salary up to 1 October 1991. His only contractual entitlement was to that sum of money. Since he received precisely the same sum of money by way of pension which would not have been payable but for the termination, he has lost nothing. The only relevance that his pension entitlement has to the computation of damages is the possible shortfall, if that on the figures were to be the case, between the pension to which he would have been entitled had he continued to work his full contract period and the pension that he is in fact receiving as a result of the reduced service. I have been referred to the judgment of Parke B in Robinson v Harman (1848) 1 Exch 850 at 855, [1843–60] All ER Rep 383 at 385, where he sets out clearly the basic rule for the assessment of damages for breach of contract:
‘The rule of the common law is, that where a party sustains a loss by reason of a breach of contract, he is, so far as money can do it, to be placed in the same situation, with respect to damages, as if the contract had been performed.’
This principle has been reiterated time and time again both in order to establish a claim for damages, and to restrict or constrain an award of damages so as to ensure that a plaintiff only obtains that to which he is strictly entitled. And, at first sight, the application of this principle should produce a simple and straightforward answer to the question, which is that to fail to take into account the pension would provide Mr Hopkins with substantially greater compensation in money terms than that to which he was entitled under the contract.
Surprisingly, there does not appear to have been any reported case in which this issue has been determined by the courts in any claim for damages for wrongful dismissal. There is, however, substantial and clear authority on the question of deductibility of a disability pension from damages for lost earning capacity in personal injury actions. In Parry v Cleaver [1969] 1 All ER 555, [1970] AC 1 the House of Lords held that a disability pension payable to a policeman on being discharged from the police force by reason of disability resulting from the accident for which the tortfeasor was to blame was to be ignored in assessing his financial loss by way of lost earning capacity. It was considered to be analogous to a payment made under an insurance policy. Lord Reid analysed the nature of the pension as follows ([1969] 1 All ER 555 at 559–560, [1970] AC 1 at 16):
‘It is generally recognised that pensionable employment is more valuable to a man than the mere amount of his weekly wage. It is more valuable because by reason of the terms of his employment money is being regularly set aside to swell his ultimate pension rights whether on retirement or on disablement. His earnings are greater than his weekly wage. His employer is willing to pay £24 per week to obtain his services, and it seems to me that he
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ought to be regarded as having earned that sum per week. The products of the sums paid into the pension fund are in fact delayed remuneration for his current work. That is why pensions are regarded as earned income. But the man does not get back in the end the accumulated sums paid into the fund on his behalf. This is a form of insurance. Like every other kind of insurance what he gets back depends on how things turn out. He may never be off duty and may die before retiring age leaving no dependants. Then he gets nothing back. Or he may by getting a retirement or disablement pension get much more back than has been paid in on his behalf. I can see no relevant difference between this and any other form of insurance. So, if insurance benefits are not deductible in assessing damages and remoteness is out of the way, why should his pension be deductible … a pension is the fruit, through insurance, of all the money which was set aside in the past in respect of his past work.’
Lord Pearce stated ([1969] 1 All ER 555 at 577, [1970] AC 1 at 37):
‘These [pensions], whether contributory or non-contributory, flow from the work which a man has done. They are part of what the employer is prepared to pay for his services. The fact that they flow from past work equates them to rights which flow from an insurance privately effected by him. He has simply paid for them by weekly work instead of weekly premiums.’
Lord Wilberforce stated ([1969] 1 All ER 555 at 582, [1970] AC 1 at 42):
‘On the two related grounds, each of which would separately justify the conclusion, namely (a) that the police pension is payable in any event and is not dependent on loss of earning capacity and (b) that the pension is to be regarded as the reward or earning of pre-injury service and therefore not entering into the computation of lost post-injury wages, I would reach the conclusion that it should not be deducted against damages recoverable from a third person for approved loss of earning capacity.’
This case attracted criticism on the basis that it resulted in practice in what appeared to be double recovery. It was considered that the result was particularly unfair when the tortfeasor was the employer himself who had made a substantial proportion of the contributions to the pension which was ultimately received. In Smoker v London Fire and Civil Defence Authority, Wood v British Coal Corp [1991] 2 All ER 449, [1991] 2 AC 502 an attempt was made on behalf of employers who had in each case been the tortfeasor, to argue that Parry v Cleaver was wrongly decided, alternatively that it did not apply to cases where the employer was the tortfeasor.
Both arguments were decisively rejected by the House of Lords. As far as the latter argument was concerned, Lord Templeman said ([1991] 2 All ER 449 at 457, [1991] 2 AC 502 at 543–544):
‘In the present case counsel for the appellants sought to distinguish the decision of this House in Parry v Cleaver [1969] 1 All ER 555, [1970] AC 1 on the ground that the appellants are in the triple position of employers, tortfeasors and insurers. In my opinion this makes no difference to the principle that the plaintiff has bought his pension, which is, in the words of Lord Reid, “the fruit, through insurance, of all the money which was set aside in the past in respect of his past work”. The fruit cannot be appropriated by the tortfeasor.’
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Lord Templeman was therefore saying that it was the nature of the payment which mattered and not its source, which echoed Lord Reid in Parry v Cleaver [1969] 1 All ER 555 at 559, [1970] AC 1 at 15, where he said:
‘Surely the distinction between receipts which must be brought into account and those which must not must depend not on their source but on their intrinsic nature.’
Returning to Smoker’s case, Lord Templeman considered that double recovery was not involved, unlike those cases involving payments corresponding to wages, such as those payments which are state payments intended to replace earnings and sick pay received from employers during the continuation of employment. Lord Lowry ([1991] 2 All ER 449 at 459–460, [1991] 2 AC 502 at 546) cited a judgment of MacDermott LJ in Guy v Northern Ireland Police Authority (14 April 1989, unreported) in the context of this argument:
‘It is easy to stigmatise such a result as unjust, unreasonable or contrary to public policy. But in my judgment it is the legal result that flows from Parry v Cleaver. I also consider it to be a fair result for it arises from the plaintiff’s own providence in participating albeit compulsorily in an “insurance” scheme which aimed to give him protection on all kinds of “rainy days”.’
As a matter of policy, therefore, their Lordships declined to overrule Parry v Cleaver.
As can be seen from the passages which I have cited, no distinction is drawn between a disability pension on the one hand and a retirement pension on the other. Indeed, quite the opposite is the case. It is the nature of the payment which is consistently referred to, and not the event upon which it becomes payable. It follows that, at least in actions for damages for personal injuries, there is no relevant distinction between a disability pension and a retirement pension.
Is there then a relevant distinction between damages for lost earnings arising out of a claim for wrongful dismissal, and damages arising out of a claim for lost earning capacity as a result of injury? It was put to me by the defendants on the basis that there was a relevant distinction to be drawn between damages for breach of contract on the one hand and damages in tort on the other. It is true that the scope of damages in contract and tort can be different. For example, in the present case the only earnings which Mr Hopkins could claim to have lost in contract are those to which he was contractually entitled; in other words he is not entitled to any assessment of the probability, however assessed, of his having, but for the unlawful decision to dismiss him, worked beyond the age of 60. On the other hand, had he been injured, his damages could have included an assessment of the probability of that happening. But once the scope of the damages has been determined, to what extent is there a difference in determining how to provide the appropriate compensation?
I have already cited the principle which is generally applicable in contract cases. In cases in which there is a claim for damages arising from injury, Earl Jowitt stated in British Transport Commission v Gourley [1955] 3 All ER 796 at 799, [1956] AC 185 at 197:
‘The broad general principle which should govern the assessment of damages in cases such as this is that the tribunal should award the injured party such a sum of money as will put him in the same position as he would have been in if he had not sustained the injuries (see per Lord Blackburn in Livingstone v. Rawyards Coal Co. ((1880) 5 App Cas 25 at 39) …’
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This was described by Lord Pearson in Parry v Cleaver [1969] 1 All ER 555 at 585, [1970] AC 1 at 46 as ‘the dominant principle’. It is almost precisely the same formulation as that of Parke B in Robinson v Harman (1848) 1 Exch 850 at 855, [1843–60] All ER Rep 383 at 385 with the substitution of the phrase ‘if he had not sustained the injuries’ for the phrase ‘as if the contract had been performed’. Both formulae are clearly aimed at ensuring that damages provide proper compensation and no more for the injury be it by way of breach of contract or tort. It seems to me that there is no room in those circumstances for a different approach to the question of deductibility of a pension dependent upon whether the claim is in contract or in tort. It has to be remembered that in Smoker’s case, the claim for damages for personal injuries was one which could have been made either in tort or in contract. It would not be particularly satisfactory if the answer to the question of whether or not a pension was to be deducted depended upon the way in which the claim was formulated.
There does, however, appear to me to be one respect in which the fact that the claim can be made in contract is relevant. There is no reason why provision should not be made either in the terms of employment, or in the rules of any pension scheme, to provide that pensions should not be payable in the event of a claim being made against the employer as a result of an event which in itself gives rise to the entitlement to the pension. To that extent, the cases where the defendant is the provider of the pension could be in a different category from those where the defendant is a third party. The defendants in the present case seek to say that on their true construction, the service agreement and the scheme rules produce that result. It is said that, by necessary implication, the retirement pension is to be treated as part payment towards, or in lieu of, any entitlement of Mr Hopkins to his full period of employment or notice. I cannot see how anything can be implied into the scheme rules to produce that result when Mr Hopkins’s entitlement to the retirement pension is expressed to be absolute. Nor do I see any basis upon which a term to such effect could be implied into the service agreement. There is no more justification for implying such a term into Mr Hopkins’s contractual arrangements than there would have been in the case of Mr Smoker and Mr Wood.
Finally the defendants sought to say that by asserting his right to the pension Mr Hopkins was no longer entitled to damages for wrongful dismissal because he was unable to show that he was ready, willing and able to comply with his obligations under the contract of employment. But, once the defendants had made it plain that they no longer had any use for him, what was he to do? The logic of the defendants’ argument would result in his being deprived of any entitlement to damages, however small the pension, once he asserted his right to it. Was he supposed to wait, without money, for the dispute with the defendants to be resolved? The answer must be No. The situation is no different from any other where a party to a contract wrongfully prevents the other party from being able to carry out his obligations and earn his reward. Provided at the time that the breach occurs the innocent party is ready, willing and able, but for the other party’s wrongful action, to perform the contract, as Mr Hopkins undoubtedly was, he must be entitled to his damages, subject to the duty to mitigate his loss.
I am therefore satisfied that as a matter of law the pension payments received by Mr Hopkins are not deductible from the figure which has been agreed as the damages for wrongful dismissal. Despite the fact that this gives the appearance, as I have already indicated, of double recovery, it follows necessarily from the character of pension arrangements. It also has the virtue of ensuring that Mr Hopkins is in the same position as he would have been in had he made his own separate provision for pension. For there is no dispute that if he had made
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independent arrangements, as he was entitled to after the Social Security Act 1986 came into force, any pension that he received as a result of those arrangements would not have been deductible. In the absence of any express terms in an occupational pension provided by employers or in the contract of employment, it would seem to me to be illogical and unjust for there to be a different result merely because the pension is provided by the employer.
Judgment for plaintiff
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Practice Direction
(House of Lords: Petitions for leave to appeal: Supporting documents)
[1993] 1 All ER 573
PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
HOUSE OF LORDS
1 February 1993
House of Lords – Leave to appeal – Petition for leave to appeal – Lodging of petition Supporting documents – Supporting documents to be accepted only in exceptional circumstances – House of Lords Practice Directions and Standing Orders applicable to Civil Appeals (1992), para 3.1.
House of Lords – Leave to appeal – Criminal cause or matter – Petition for leave to appeal – Lodging of petition – Supporting documents – Supporting documents to be accepted only in exceptional circumstances – House of Lords Practice Directions applicable to Criminal Appeals (1992), para 5.1.
The following addition to the Practice Directions and Standing Orders applicable to Civil Appeals (the Blue Book, January 1992) of the House of Lords has been made.
Practice Direction 3
At the end of para 3.1 insert:
‘Supporting documents, including extracts from Hansard, will only be accepted in exceptional circumstances.’
The following addition to the Practice Directions applicable to Criminal Appeals (the Red Book, June 1992) of the House of Lords has been made.
Practice Direction 5
At the end of para 5.1 insert:
‘Supporting documents, including extracts from Hansard, will only be accepted in exceptional circumstances.’
JAMES VALLANCE WHITE
Principal Clerk and
1 February 1993 Fourth Clerk at the Table.
Wynne v Secretary of State for the Home Department
[1993] 1 All ER 574
Categories: PRISONS
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 28, 29 OCTOBER 1992, 21 JANUARY 1993
Prison – Expenses – Removal from prison for judicial purposes – Production of prisoner in court for purposes of civil litigation – Expenses of producing prisoner in court in interests of justice – Expense of conveying prisoner from prison to court – Prisoner granted leave to apply for judicial review of decisions of prison governor and Secretary of State – Prisoner refused legal aid to bring judicial review proceedings and wishing to attend court to argue case in person – Secretary of State requiring prisoner to make formal application to be taken to court and to pay costs of production in court – Whether prisoner required to meet costs of his production in court – Procedure for arranging for prisoner to be produced in court or to give evidence by other means – Criminal Justice Act 1961, s 29(1).
In 1982 the appellant was sentenced to life imprisonment for manslaughter committed a year after his release on licence after serving a sentence of life imprisonment for murder imposed in 1964. He was detained as a category A prisoner in prison in the north of England. In 1990 he was granted leave to apply for judicial review of decisions made by the prison governor that he was guilty of a disciplinary offence and by the Secretary of State to continue to his category A status. Initially the appellant was granted legal aid in respect of both proceedings but the legal aid certificates were later discharged, with the result that his solicitors ceased to act for him. The appellant wished to proceed in person and was informed by the prison authorities that if he wished to be produced in court for that purpose he would have to complete the relevant form of request to the prison governor to be taken to court and undertake to pay the costs of his production. On receipt of the form the appellant tore it up. He then wrote to the Crown Office claiming that he ought to be produced either free of charge to himself or at a charge related to his ability to pay no more than the cost of his own journey by public transport. Had he completed the form it was likely that his request would have been granted but that he would have been required to pay £419 towards the costs of transporting him under escort to the High Court in London. The appellant sought judicial review of the decision that he should pay the expenses of his production in court and the requirement that he should make formal application to be produced in court. The Divisional Court dismissed his application. The appellant appealed, contending that the Secretary of State’s decision to refuse to exercise his powers of removal of a prisoner from one place to another under s 29(1)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1961 in order to produce the applicant in court for the judicial review proceedings except on terms of payment was unlawful and unreasonable since it hindered or impeded the appellant’s constitutional right of access to the court. The Court of Appeal dismissed his appeal on the ground that, since the appellant was rightly required to make
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formal application for his production in court and had not done so, it was inappropriate for the court to grant him any form of relief. However, the court was divided on the substantive issue of whether the Secretary of State’s decision not to exercise his discretion under s 29(1) unless the prisoner paid the cost of transporting him under escort was unlawful and gave leave to the appellant to appeal to the House of Lords.
Held – A prisoner wishing to appear in court to argue his case in person in civil litigation was required to make formal application to the governor of the prison for a direction to be made under s 29 of the 1961 Act for his production in court. Since the appellant had not made such an application, there was no relevant decision of the Secretary of State which could be the subject of judicial review. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 576 d e, p 577 j to p 578 b and p 582 e to g, post).
Per curiam. Where there is a conflict between the interest of a prisoner involved in civil proceedings in appearing in court and the public interest that he should be kept secure during his term of imprisonment, either by remaining in prison or, where appropriate, by travelling to court in secure conditions, that conflict should where possible be resolved by practical means, with a view to ensuring that both interests are protected. In the event of problems arising, eg if the Home Office are unable to assess the merit’s of the prisoner’s case or if his case is against the Home Office and there would be the possible appearance of bias if the Home Office were to assess the merits of the application or if the prisoner is regarded as such a high security risk that the Home Office is reluctant to allow him out of prison at all, the matter should if possible be drawn to the judge’s attention to seek his guidance on the question whether the attendance of the prisoner is required or whether it is possible to devise some practical solution for hearing the prisoner’s evidence or receiving his submissions orally or in writing without his attendance at court (see p 576 d e, p 580 g, p 581 d to h and p 582 e to g, post).
Decision of the Court of Appeal sub nom R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Wynne [1992] 2 All ER 301 affirmed.
Notes
For facilities in connection with litigation and production and presence in court, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1179–1180, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 409–410, 5363–5368.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1961, s 29, see 34 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 677.
Cases referred to in opinions
Becker v Home Office [1972] 2 All ER 676, [1972] 2 QB 407, [1972] 2 WLR 1993, CA.
Golder v UK (1975) 1 EHRR 524, E Ct HR.
R v Norwich Magistrates’ Court, ex p Roberts (14 June 1991, unreported), DC.
Raymond v Honey [1982] 1 All ER 756, [1983] 1 AC 1, [1982] 2 WLR 465, HL.
Walsh v Governor of Brixton Prison [1984] 2 All ER 609, [1985] AC 154, [1984] 3 WLR 205, HL.
Appeal
Edward Thomas Wynne appealed with the leave of the Court of Appeal from the decision of that court (Lord Donaldson MR, Staughton and McCowan LJJ) (sub nom R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Wynne [1992] 2 All ER 301, [1992] 1 QB 406) on 19 December 1991 dismissing his appeal from the order of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Mann, Nolan LJJ and Judge J) dated 23 July 1991 dismissing his application for judicial review by way of (1) a
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declaration that the decision of the Secretary of State for the Home Department referred to in the letter from the Treasury Solicitor to the Crown Office dated 12 June 1991 that the appellant, a prisoner detained at HM Prison Frankland, was required, in accordance with Home Office policy, to meet the costs of his production in court, for the purpose of pursuing his applications for judicial review of a finding of guilt on a disciplinary charge and the allocation to him of category A status, and to make formal application to be produced in court, was unlawful and unreasonable, (2) certiorari quashing the decision and (3) mandamus requiring the Secretary of State to produce the appellant at court as and when required for the hearing of the applications for judicial review. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Goff.
James Munby QC (instructed by the Official Solicitor) for the appellant.
Michael Beloff QC, Nigel Pleming QC and Clive Lewis (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
21 January 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, I have had advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. I agree with it and, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend, I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, the appellant, Edward Thomas Wynne, is a prisoner in Frankland Prison, Durham, where he is a category A inmate. He is currently serving his second life sentence. He was sentenced to life imprisonment for murder in 1964, and was released in 1980. In 1982 he was sentenced to life imprisonment for manslaughter, the offence having been committed a little over a year after his release from prison in 1980.
The appellant has brought two sets of proceedings for judicial review. In the first, dated 25 October 1989, he has complained of a decision by the deputy governor of Gartree Prison (where the appellant was then imprisoned) whereby he found that the appellant was guilty of recklessly endangering another person, and ordered that a caution be entered on his prison record. In the second, dated 19 February 1990, he has complained that the Secretary of State decided on 22 January 1990 to allocate category A status to him, and failed or refused to give reasons for his decision. In March 1990 Kennedy J granted leave to apply for judicial review in respect of both complaints. The appellant was granted legal aid in respect of these proceedings, but in October 1990 the legal aid certificates were discharged, and as a consequence his solicitors ceased to act for him.
In the result the appellant has found himself in the position where he has launched proceedings for judicial review for which he has been granted leave to apply, but he has no lawyers acting for him who can appear on his behalf. Furthermore, he himself, being in prison, cannot appear in person unless he is produced in court for that purpose. The prison authorities at Frankland Prison made it clear to him that, if he wished to be produced in court to represent himself on the date fixed for the hearing of his applications (20 June 1991), he would have to complete the relevant request/complaint form and undertake to pay the costs of his production. On receipt of a letter informing him of the position, the appellant tore it up, and made no request. He then wrote to the Crown Office, informing the office of his attitude, which appears to have been
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that he must be produced either free of charge to himself or at a charge related to an ability to pay only the cost of his own journey by public transport.
It appears that there has been an increase in the number of applications for judicial review by persons serving prison sentences. Where leave is given to apply, or an application for leave is renewed after an initial refusal, there is then a hearing; and a problem arises in those cases where the applicant, like the present appellant, is not represented by counsel. The court has no power to compel his attendance, which under the relevant statutory provision (s 29(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1961) is a matter for the discretion of the Home Secretary. The manner in which this power should be exercised has been the subject of a booklet, issued by the Home Office, called the Productions Manual. Under the guidelines set out in this booklet, which deal with a wide range of circumstances, it is stated that it is generally not the prison service’s function to bear the costs arising from the production of an inmate to a court for the purpose of civil proceedings. It follows that in such cases, if a prisoner is unable or unwilling to pay the costs of his production, he will not be produced to conduct his proceedings in person.
The problem which arises in such circumstances surfaced recently in R v Norwich Magistrates’ Court, ex p Roberts (14 June 1991, unreported). On that occasion the Divisional Court, having heard that the present appellant’s applications for judicial review were due to be heard the following week, proposed that his applications should be treated as a test case; this was agreed to by counsel representing the Home Office. The Official Solicitor was invited to intervene as amicus curiae. He accepted the invitation, but later agreed to act on behalf of the appellant; and an application was made on 12 July 1991 for judicial review of the Home Secretary’s decision that the appellant should be expected in accordance with Home Office policy to meet the costs of his production in court for the purpose of pursuing his two applications for judicial review, and that the appellant was required to make formal application to be produced in court. The relief sought was a declaration that the decision was unlawful, an order of certiorari to quash the decision, and an order of mandamus requiring the Secretary of State to produce the appellant at the hearing of his applications for judicial review.
A Divisional Court (Mann, Nolan LJJ and Judge J) held that the court had no power to order the production of a prisoner so that he might argue his own case, and that a prisoner can appear to argue his own case only if the Secretary of State exercises his power under s 29(1) of the 1961 Act to make a production order. The court further held, having regard in particular to the decision of the Court of Appeal in Becker v Home Office [1972] 2 All ER 676, [1972] 2 QB 407 (by which it was bound), that a requirement to pay travel costs, escort costs, or both, as a condition of a production order may be a lawful requirement, and the Secretary of State was entitled to have a practice whereby he normally requires such payment to be made. Accordingly, the court dismissed the application. The appellant then appealed to the Court of Appeal, which dismissed the appeal. The appellant now appeals to your Lordships’ House by leave of the Court of Appeal.
I turn first to the decision of the Court of Appeal. The ground upon which the appeal was dismissed was very simple. It was expressed by Lord Donaldson MR as follows ([1992] 2 All ER 301 at 312, [1992] 1 QB 406 at 424):
‘I would dismiss this appeal because in my judgment [the appellant] was rightly required to make formal application for his production in court, he did not do so and in those circumstances it is inappropriate to grant any form of relief in respect of a hypothetical decision which would only have been reached, if at all, had [the appellant] made such an application.’
This is plainly right. There was, in the circumstances, no relevant decision of
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the Home Secretary, which was the assumed basis of the appellant’s application for judicial review. That there was no such decision was also recognised by Staughton and McCowan LJJ (see [1992] 2 All ER 301 at 317, 319, [1992] 1 QB 406 at 429, 432). Even so, all members of the Court of Appeal considered in their judgments the substantive argument on the appeal, and on this there was a division of opinion between Staughton and McCowan LJJ on the one hand and Lord Donaldson MR on the other. As a result of this division of opinion, leave was given to the appellant to appeal to your Lordships’ House.
I feel driven to say that, in those circumstances, the Court of Appeal should not have given leave to appeal. It was inevitable from the outset that this House would have to dismiss the appeal, for there was no basis upon which the Court of Appeal’s decision could be disturbed. In truth, the Court of Appeal were giving leave to appeal because of a difference of opinion among the members of the court expressed in what were in law no more than prolonged obiter dicta. At the outset of the argument before the Appellate Committee, it was drawn to the attention of counsel for the appellant, Mr Munby QC, that the substantive argument on the appeal raised what was in truth a hypothetical question; and this was not disputed. Nevertheless, the arguments having been prepared at considerable public expense, in litigation which was intended as a test case,, counsel were allowed to develop their arguments before the Appellate Committee. Now however this House has to decide how to dispose of the matter.
It is well established that this House does not decide hypothetical questions. If the House were to do so, any conclusion, and the accompanying reasons, could in their turn constitute no more than obiter dicta, expressed without the assistance of a concrete factual situation, and would not constitute a binding precedent for the future. Furthermore, if in the present case the appellant had made a formal application for production which .had been pursued to the stage of decision, it is not at all clear that other factors might not then have emerged. In particular, if it had then transpired that (as may be the case) the appellant lacked the means to pay the expenses required of him, and if an indication had then been made by the court that the appellant was required to attend the hearing of his applications to enable them to proceed, it is possible that further steps might have been taken with a view to obtaining legal aid for the appellant, or even that, by analogy to para 57 of the Production Manual, the requirement to recover full production costs might have been waived by the Home Secretary.
In the circumstances, your Lordships’ House is placed in a position of considerable embarrassment. I am very conscious that the present case was selected as a test case to resolve the legal and practical problems which arise when a prisoner wishes to appear in court as a litigant in person. It has unfortunately proved to be unsuitable as a test case to resolve the legal problems; and your Lordships’ House is not equipped to resolve the practical problems. Even so, I am minded to draw attention to certain practical considerations which may be of assistance in future to the authorities concerned. If this approach finds favour with the remainder of your Lordships, and there is agreement about the observations so made, then at least it may be felt that the time and expense devoted to this appeal have not been entirely wasted.
Before I proceed to the practical considerations to which I wish to draw attention, I propose first to set out the approach at present adopted by the Home Office in cases of this kind, as evidenced in an affidavit sworn in the present case by Miss Norma Williams, a senior executive officer and deputy head of that section of the prison service which is responsible for category A prisoners. In her affidavit she described how, if the appellant had completed the request/complaint form, his request for production would have been dealt with. She stated:
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‘Had [the appellant] completed the form however, this would have been referred to me whereupon I would have considered it on its merits, balancing such factors as the security implications of moving a category A prisoner with whether or not the interests of justice did or did not require him to be produced. I should say that even if an inmate does have the funds to meet the costs of his production, the application might nevertheless be refused if, prima facie, the interests of justice would not be served or the security risks involved would be too great.’
I pause to comment that I infer from this paragraph that an assessment may be made of the prospects of success of the applicant in proceedings commenced by him and that, if his application is judged to be without merit, it may be concluded that the interests of justice will not be served by the applicant’s production. In the next paragraph Miss Williams turned to the question of expenses. She stated:
‘It is the usual practice, in cases where the production of an inmate for civil proceedings is authorised, to require the payment of production costs, in order that the burden does not fall solely on the taxpayer. In [the appellant’s] case, the costs of producing him in the High Court for the hearing of his two applications have been calculated at £419. Although he is a Category A prisoner and would therefore travel in a secure prison vehicle, with an escort of one Principal or Senior Officer and two other officers and would be lodged overnight in a London prison, he would be charged the same costs as a Category B prisoner travelling by taxi.’
In the following paragraph, she explained that the expenses so charged would consist, apart from the ‘taxi fare’, of subsistence for the officers (but not their wages) over the relevant period. Paragraphs 7 and 8 read as follows:
‘7. Had [the appellant] applied to be produced and agreed to meet his production costs, it is probable that I would have authorised his production, provided, taking account of his history of violent behaviour, I was satisfied regarding the security arrangements.
8. There is provision for production costs to be waived but it is unlikely that I would have agreed to waive them in [the appellant’s] case, particularly as his legal aid had been withdrawn. This indicates to me that the legal aid authorities did not consider that there was sufficient merit in his case to warrant legal representation for [the appellant] at public expense or alternatively, that [the appellant] had sufficient funds to instruct a Solicitor and/or Counsel.’
Next, I propose briefly to refer to the approach adopted in the courts below. The exercise of the power under s 29 had previously been considered by the Court of Appeal in Becker v Home Office [1972] 2 All ER 676, [1972] 2 QB 407. In that case the only question at issue was whether the Secretary of State had power to require, as a condition of the exercise of his discretion to produce a prisoner, that the costs of production should be borne by the prisoner. It was held by the Court of Appeal that the Secretary of State had such a power. However, in the present case it has been submitted by Mr Munby, on behalf of the appellant, that the Secretary of State must exercise his discretion in such a manner as to ensure (1) that he does not impede the prisoner’s constitutional right of access to the court in person, and further so as to ensure (2) that there is no breach of this country’s treaty obligations under art 6 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969) or (3) that there is no breach of chapter 40 of Magna Carta
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(1215). In support of the first of these submissions, Mr Munby invoked in particular the decision of this House in Raymond v Honey [1981] 1 All ER 756, [1983] 1 AC 1, and in support of the second he relied in particular on the decision of the European Court of Human Rights in Golder v UK (1975) 1 EHRR 524. These submissions were rejected both by the Divisional Court and by the majority of the Court of Appeal. The Divisional Court distinguished Raymond v Honey as being concerned only with a prisoner’s right of access to the courts by a written communication, referring to the statement by Lord Fraser of Tullybelton in Walsh v Governor of Brixton Prison [1984] 2 All ER 609 at 612, [1985] AC 154 at 163 that the argument that a prisoner has a right to be produced in court by the governor raised quite different issues from those raised in Raymond v Honey. They further considered that the Secretary of State was under no obligation to exercise his discretion so as to conform with art 6; and they did not attach any separate importance to Magna Carta. As I have stated earlier, their broad conclusion was that a prisoner can only appear to argue his own case if the Secretary of State exercises his power to make a production order; and that (applying Becker v Home Office) a requirement to pay travel costs, escort costs, or both, as a condition of such an order may be a lawful requirement. The majority of the Court of Appeal reached a similar conclusion. Lord Donaldson MR, however, adopted a rather different position. In particular, he considered that a prisoner has a ‘basic human right’ to attend court on an occasion upon which the court is adjudicating upon his rights; and he further considered that it was wrong in principle that a prisoner’s ability to attend court should depend upon his ability to pay the expenses of his production in court. In addition, he considered that major problems arose if the Home Office (or indeed other government departments or prison staff) were party to the proceedings, in that the decision-taker, in forming an opinion of whether the prisoner’s attendance in court was necessary, might at least appear to be acting as a judge in his own cause in assessing the prisoner’s prospects of success in the relevant litigation—a point upon which Staughton LJ, too, expressed concern, although he hoped that some practical means could be evolved for escaping from that difficulty.
For reasons which I have already expressed, questions such as these must be regarded as hypothetical for the purposes of this appeal, and cannot properly be decided by your Lordships’ House on this occasion. Even so, I must confess that I have been struck by the fact that such problems may be susceptible of practical solution, as to which I wish to make the following observations.
There is a sense in which the problems which have been discussed in the present case reveal a possible conflict between two interests. The first is the interest of prisoners who, if involved in litigation while they are in prison, may require to appear in court. In the present case the relevant litigation is an application by the prisoner for judicial review; and I will take that case as my example. In many such cases, the problem of appearance in court may be solved by a grant of legal aid to finance the prisoner’s legal representation; for, on the hearing of an application for judicial review, the evidence is on affidavit, and the hearing will take the form of rival submissions by counsel. Only if the prisoner has no means and legal aid is refused is a problem likely to arise. The present case is surely exceptional in that, although leave was granted to the appellant to apply for judicial review, nevertheless his legal aid certificates have been discharged. It is not of course known to your Lordships why this should have occurred; it may have been for reasons which have no connection with the merits of the appellant’s case. Nor is it known whether consideration was given to an appeal by the appellant against the discharge of his certificates. It is however this combination of circumstances which has created a problem in the present case.
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As against the interest of the prisoner in appearing in court, there is however a countervailing public interest. This is the public interest that the prisoner should be kept secure during his term of imprisonment, either by his remaining in prison, or (where appropriate) by his travelling to court in secure conditions, for example, in a secure vehicle, accompanied by an adequate escort. The latter is, however, expensive, and if the production of prisoners in court for the conduct of civil litigation should become a frequent occurrence, not only would a considerable expense fall upon the prison service, but it would suffer a loss of manpower at a time when the service is already under severe pressure. Furthermore, if such a facility was readily available to prisoners, free of charge, it could well become the subject of abuse by inmates who might be tempted to exploit the system. In these circumstances, it is scarcely surprising to find that the Home Office has established guidelines under which prisoners will not normally be produced in court for the purpose of civil proceedings unless they pay the expenses of their production, though limited to the ‘taxi’ fare and subsistence of the prison escort. It is not to be forgotten that, in ordinary life, litigants have to convey themselves to court at their own expense; and in certain circumstances (for example, where the litigant is suffering from a severe disability) this could entail substantial expense.
Faced with this conflict of interests, it is I think desirable that where it occurs it should, where possible, be resolved by practical means, with a view to ensuring that both interests are protected. I feel fortified in this view by the fact that in Golder v UK (1975) 1 EHRR 524 the European Court of Human Rights expressed the opinion not only that the right of access to the courts is not absolute but also that it is not the function of the court to elaborate a general theory of limitations to the right admissible in the case of convicted prisoners. This approach appears to provide support for the view that a search for practical solutions may be desirable.
If I take the present case as my example, it seems to me that the Home Office is faced with two particular problems. The first relates to the assessment of the merits of the appellant’s application where, on the one hand, the judge has given him leave to apply for judicial review, but on the other hand his legal aid certificates have subsequently been discharged; the second relates to the embarrassment, and the possible appearance of bias, if the Home Office makes such an assessment in a case where it is itself the other party to the proceedings. Faced with a situation of this kind, the natural reaction must be that the matter should if possible be brought before the court for guidance, if necessary on a mention. Such guidance cannot of course be binding on the Home Secretary, in whom alone the relevant discretion is vested under the statute; but as para 57 of the Productions Manual shows, a practice may be established under which such guidance will be followed. Furthermore, if circumstances arise in which legal aid is not available to the prisoner, and (as may be the position in the present case) he is unable to meet the expenses, so that he can neither appear nor be represented in court, then once again the matter could be drawn to the attention of the judge, to seek his guidance on the question whether the attendance of a prisoner is required. Paragraph 57 of the Productions Manual, to which I have already referred, is concerned with such circumstances and indicates that, in exceptional circumstances, the requirement that the costs of production be met by the prisoner may be waived. The example there given is of a case where strong compassionate grounds exist, and the court has indicated that the prisoner (who has not been granted legal aid and lacks the mean to pay the full production costs) is required to attend the hearing; in such circumstances it is regarded as appropriate to waive, in whole or in part, payment of the production costs. It is possible, moreover, that other problems could arise, for example where the
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prisoner is regarded as such a high security risk that the Home Office is reluctant to allow him out of prison at all. Once again, a mention of the matter in court, could lead to an authoritative and independent assessment of the necessity for his production, and if necessary the devising of some practical solution for hearing his evidence or receiving his submissions, orally or in writing.
I recognise that none of these suggestions can be regarded as having any binding effect; further, their implementation may involve practical problems of which I am unaware. But, feeling as I do that the problems raised on the present appeal may be of relatively rare occurrence and, on the occasions where they do arise, may be capable of a practical solution by seeking the guidance of the court, I was concerned to draw these possibilities to the attention of those charged with responsibility in matters of this kind, especially as among the documents before your Lordships was a letter from the assistant Treasury Solicitor to the chief clerk of the Crown Office, in which he stated that he was instructed that the Home Office was most anxious to co-operate with the court in finding a solution to the problem. If these suggestions bear fruit, it is possible that problems of this kind may be susceptible of solution; but even if they are not, any case of this kind which comes forward for a decision on the merits in the future will more likely be set against a factual situation in which every attempt to deal with the particular, matter on a practical basis will have been explored.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. I agree with it and, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend, I too would dismiss the appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. I agree with it and for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend, I too would dismiss the appeal.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. I agree that, for the reasons he gives, the appeal should be dismissed.
I also support the suggestions he makes for dealing with these cases in the future. Although I do not consider, whether by analogy to the provisions of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969) or otherwise, that there is any absolute right for a litigant to be present at any hearing of his case (as opposed to a right of access to the court to have a claim ventilated), it seems likely that, if a judge to whom the prisoner’s application to be present is mentioned considers that it is desirable for a prisoner to be brought to a hearing at public expense, the Secretary of State would give that expression of opinion full weight. That opinion is, of course, subject always to overriding considerations of security.
Equally if the judge indicates that in his view the point is a substantial one which requires the presence of counsel (particularly if the applicant cannot afford to pay to be present or if a serious question of law is raised) then no doubt the legal aid committee would take his opinion into account in deciding whether to give or to continue legal aid.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Roberts
[1993] 1 All ER 583
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, HUTCHISON AND HOLLAND JJ
Hearing Date(s): 6, 19 OCTOBER 1992
Criminal law – Murder – Concerted action -Joint unlawful enterprise – Remoteness of risk of co-accused killing victim or causing serious bodily injury – Victim dying after attack by two defendants – Each alleging other struck fatal blow – Whether jury should have been directed as to remoteness of risk of co-accused killing or causing serious bodily injury.
The appellant and another man, G, went to the house of a 69-year-old recluse with the intention of robbing him. While they were at the house there was a struggle in the course of which the victim was killed by blows to the face with a blunt instrument, which could have been an axe or a spade, and a major injury to the back of the head, which was more likely to have been caused by an axe than a spade. The appellant and G were arrested and charged with murder and robbery. When interviewed by the police each blamed the other. The appellant’s account was that there had been a struggle between the victim and G during which the appellant had pulled the victim off G and had seen G hit the victim repeatedly with an axe. The appellant denied that he had ever struck the victim but admitted that he had taken the victim’s wallet, which had fallen to the floor in the course of the struggle with G. G’s account was that the appellant went into the victim’s house first, that the victim made a grab for G, who fell to the ground, that, as he was trying to fend the victim off, he saw the appellant hit the victim on the back of the head with a shovel and then on the front of the head knocking him to the ground and that by the time he got up the appellant had gone. The judge directed the jury that, although the prosecution case was that the two accused had been present together in an agreed enterprise to rob the victim, agreeing expressly or tacitly that he should be killed or that really serious bodily injury should be inflicted upon him intentionally if it became necessary to do so, all that the prosecution had to prove against the accused who did not inflict the blows was that the other accused had inflicted blows with the intention of killing or causing the victim really serious bodily injury and that the former had lent himself to the joint criminal enterprise of stealing from the victim and that he foresaw or realised that the latter might kill the victim or intentionally inflict really serious bodily injury on him in the course of the offence. The appellant was convicted of murder and robbery. He appealed against his conviction for murder on the ground that the judge had failed to direct the jury that it was for them to decide whether the risk of G killing the victim or causing him serious bodily injury was so remote as not to make the appellant guilty of murder.
Held – The principle that a person involved in a joint unlawful enterprise could be guilty of murder if he realised (without agreeing to such conduct being used) that the other party involved might kill or intentionally inflict serious injury but nevertheless continued to participate with the other party in the venture and the other party, with the requisite intent, killed in the course of the venture, was of general application. It applied whether weapons were carried or not and whether the object of the enterprise was to cause physical injury or to commit some other unlawful act such as burglary or robbery. Only rarely would it be necessary to direct the jury that they must distinguish between a fleeting but rejected
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consideration of a risk and a continuing realisation of a real risk since to realise something might happen was to contemplate it as a real and not fanciful possibility. A person who fleetingly thought of the risk of his co-accused using violence with murderous intent in the course of a joint enterprise only to dismiss it from his mind had banished the risk from his mind and could not be said to have foreseen or realised that his co-accused might commit murder. Since the trial judge had given the clearest possible directions of law to the jury on the real issue, which was not whether the appellant realised force might be used but whether he realised only that some physical harm might be done or that really serious injury might be inflicted, the appeal would be dismissed (see p 590 c to h and p 591 a, post).
Dictum of Lord Lane CJ in R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892 at 895–896 applied. Chan Wing-siu v R [1984] 3 All ER 877 considered.
Notes
For criminal liability in joint enterprise, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 43–50, 435, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 108–114, 857–898.
Cases referred to in judgment
Chan Wing-siu v R [1984] 3 All ER 877, [1985] AC 168, [1984] 3 WLR 677, PC.
Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] 1 AC 34, [1991] 3 WLR 495, PC.
R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892, [1991] 1 QB 134, [1990] 3 WLR 1115, CA.
R v Slack [1989] 3 All ER 90, [1989] QB 775, [1989] 3 WLR 513, CA.
R v Wakely [1990] Crim LR 119, CA.
Appeal
Kelvin James Roberts appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction on 16 March 1991 in the Crown Court at Cardiff before Waterhouse J and a jury of murder, by a majority of 11 to 1, for which he was sentenced to life imprisonment. He had on 27 February 1991 on the same indictment and before the same court pleaded guilty to robbery, for which on 16 March 1991 he was sentenced to eight years’ imprisonment concurrent with the life sentence. A co-accused, Anthony Gray, was convicted unanimously of the same offences and was sentenced to life imprisonment and 12 years’ imprisonment concurrent. The grounds of appeal were (1) that the judge should have directed the jury that for the appellant to have been guilty of murder he must have (a) at least tacitly agreed that serious harm should be done to the victim, (b) lent himself to the infliction of such harm, (c) recognised that there was a real and substantial risk that the codefendant, Gray, would kill or seriously injure the victim and (d) participated in the joint enterprise with such foresight and (2) when the jury asked for further directions the judge was wrong to direct them only in the terms of R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892, [1991] 1 QB 134 and failed (a) to answer the jury’s question, (b) having regard to the verdicts already returned on the co-defendant, Gray, to direct the jury that they had to be satisfied that the appellant was still participating in the joint enterprise to rob at the time that the fatal blows were struck and (c) to direct the jury in the terms of ground (1) above. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Diana Cotton QC (who did not appear below) (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Page 585 of [1993] 1 All ER 583
Gerard Elias QC and David Aubrey (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Cardiff) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
19 October 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 27 February 1991 in the Crown Court at Cardiff the appellant pleaded guilty to robbery. On 16 March 1991 at the same court he was convicted of murder by a majority of eleven to one. He was sentenced to life imprisonment and eight years’ imprisonment concurrent for the robbery.
He had been jointly charged with a co-accused, Anthony Gray. Gray was convicted unanimously by the jury at the same trial of the same offences and was sentenced to life imprisonment for murder and 12 years’ imprisonment for robbery.
The appellant now appeals against his conviction for murder with leave of the single judge.
On 4 August 1990 John Davies, a 65-year-old recluse, was robbed and beaten to death at his home near Merthyr Tydfil. The case for the Crown was that the appellant and Gray were jointly responsible for his murder. For their part the appellant and Gray blamed one another.
John Davies lived mainly on his pension, but he had some £300 left from a Criminal Injuries Compensation Board award, which he kept in a building society. As a result of the attack upon him which gave rise to that award, he kept an axe by his chair for self-protection.
The appellant was 5 ft 2 ins, weighed only 8 stone 5 lb and was 39 at the time of the killing. The co-accused, Gray, was 49 and a much bigger man. The accused knew one another, but were not friends. Gray knew the victim slightly, but the appellant did not.
Gray spent the day of the murder drinking. The appellant, who lived in Swansea, had left his wife the day before the killing and had hitchhiked to Merthyr Tydfil. He had lost all his money in a betting shop and bumped into Gray by chance in the street on 4 August. They went for a drink at a Rugby club and from there set off for the victim’s home. Each suggested in evidence that it was the other’s idea. The appellant admitted he knew they were going to rob an old man.
Gray’s account was that the appellant went into the victim’s house first to collect some money which the victim gave to him. Gray thought this was consensual but, as the two men were walking out, the victim made a grab for Gray, who fell to the ground. As he was trying to fend the victim off, he claimed to have seen the appellant hit the victim on the back of the head with a shovel. The appellant then, according to Gray, struck the victim again with the shovel on the front of the head knocking him to the ground. By the time Gray got up the appellant had gone.
The police interviewed the appellant three times and he gave evidence at the trial. By contrast to Gray’s account, in his first interview the appellant initially said that he had followed Gray into the house. Gray had demanded money in a menacing way. The victim had picked up an axe, there was a struggle between Gray and the victim and the appellant ran away. Eventually he admitted that he had returned and there had been a struggle between the victim and Gray in the yard during which he, the appellant, had pulled the victim off Gray and had seen
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Gray hit the victim repeatedly with an axe. The appellant denied that he had ever struck the victim.
In his second interview the appellant admitted taking the victim’s wallet, which had fallen to the floor in the course of the struggle with Gray. This formed the basis of the appellant’s plea of guilty to robbery. He also admitted that he was prepared to contemplate the use of violence when he and Gray went to the house, although not to the extent of killing the victim. In both the second and third interviews the appellant reiterated that only Gray had used violence and his own role had been confined to pulling the victim off Gray.
In evidence the appellant gave substantially the same account, repeating that only Gray had struck the victim. He admitted that he had contemplated there might be some violence when they went to the victim’s house. He gave inconsistent answers as to the degree of violence he foresaw, but twice said that he foresaw the risk of really serious injury.
Following the killing Gray went to a public house. He gave himself up to the police on 7 August and blamed the appellant for the killing. Meanwhile the appellant had gone to a different public house on leaving the victim. Witnesses described him as looking shaky and upset. He was arrested in a lodging house on 8 August and blamed Gray for the murder.
The deceased’s body was discovered in the yard of his cottage the day after the murder. The medical evidence was that death had been caused by blows to the face with a blunt instrument. There was also a major injury to the back of the head and a number of defence injuries to the hands and arms. The injuries to the face could have been inflicted by an axe or a spade, but not a fist. The evidence was neutral as to whether the attack involved more than one assailant. The injury to the back of the head was more likely to have been caused by an axe than a spade. There was no trace of blood-staining on the appellant’s clothes.
The learned judge in summing up the case gave the jury a number of directions of law. He then summarised the case for each defendant and went on to review the evidence in detail. Finally, he summarised the arguments for the Crown and for the defence.
The jury returned verdicts of guilty against the co-accused, Gray, before reaching a verdict on the charge of murder in respect of the appellant. They sought the learned judge’s further directions on the distinction between murder and manslaughter before retiring again and thereafter convicted the appellant.
The grounds of appeal are based solely on criticisms of the learned judge’s directions to the jury on joint enterprise. He gave directions on this matter twice—the first time in the course of his general directions on law, the second in response to the question from the jury after they had convicted Gray.
The essential part of the first passage was as follows:
‘[The prosecution case] is that these two men were both present at the time when the fatal blows were inflicted taking part in an agreed robbery, that it was agreed expressly or at least tacitly understood between them that John Davies should be killed, for example to avoid identification of either of them or that at least really serious bodily injury should be inflicted upon the deceased if it became necessary to do so in the course of achieving the purpose of robbing him and avoiding the risk of being caught for that offence. So that is the nature of the case, members of the jury, that these two men were there present together in an agreed enterprise to rob John Davies, involving the use of force to him and it being expressly or tacitly agreed between them that he should be killed or that really serious bodily injury should be inflicted upon him intentionally if it became necessary to do so in the course of
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achieving the purpose of robbing and avoiding the risk of being caught for that offence … But I must further direct you that the prosecution do not in fact have to go as far as that in relation to proof against the man who did not inflict the blows, whom I will call ‘man B’. Assuming that man A inflicted the blows with the intention of killing or causing John Davies really serious bodily injury, if you are sure that that was done by A, all that the prosecution has to prove against the other man so that he will be guilty of murder is that he lent himself to the joint criminal enterprise of stealing from John Davies and that he foresaw or realised that the other man A might kill him or inflict intentional really serious bodily injury on John Davies in the course of carrying out that offence. In other words, that the man who did not, he must have realised that the man who did in fact do the killing might intentionally kill or intentionally inflict really serious bodily injury on John Davies. That means of course that he continued in the joint venture of theft, assisting and encouraging A in the carrying out of the enterprise, whilst realising that it might involve murder. If you are sure, members of the jury, that that was the position with the person who did not inflict the blows, then that other person is guilty of murder as well as the person who actually inflicted the blows.’
The learned judge then went on to direct the jury that, by contrast, if they found that B had—
‘lent himself to the criminal enterprise without agreeing that really serious injury might be intentionally inflicted on John Davies if necessary, and merely realising that some lesser physical injury might be inflicted upon him, falling short of intentional serious bodily injury, then your verdict in respect of B should be not guilty of murder but guilty of manslaughter even though A is guilty of murder. The reason for that is that it would be clear in your view that A had intentionally committed murder in the sense that he would have unlawfully killed John Davies with the intention of causing him really serious bodily injury, but that in doing so he had gone beyond the limits of anything agreed or foreseen by B as part of what might be done, because B would on that finding only have contemplated the possibility that some physical injury falling short of serious bodily injury might be inflicted upon the deceased man.’
The jury’s question prompting the learned judge’s second direction on joint enterprise was: ‘Can you please clarify as unambiguously as possible the differences between manslaughter and murder?’
The learned judge sought the views of both counsel for the Crown and counsel for the appellant (not Miss Cotton QC who has appeared for him on this appeal). With both counsel’s agreement he then read to the jury a passage from the judgment of this court given by Lord Lane CJ in R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892 at 896, [1991] 1 QB 134 at 139 as follows:
‘If B realises (without agreeing to such conduct being used) that A may kill or intentionally inflict serious injury, but nevertheless continues to participate with A in the venture, that will amount to a sufficient mental element for B to be guilty of murder if A, with the requisite intent, kills in the course of the venture. As Professor Smith points out, B has in those circumstances lent himself to the enterprise and by so doing he has given assistance and encouragement to A in carrying out an enterprise which B realises may involve murder.’
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After repeating that passage the learned judge went on as follows:
‘That is the position as far as realisation is concerned. Of course, if there was an agreement, an actual agreement, either express or implied, that A should kill or intentionally inflict serious injury, that would be murder. But, as I understand it, the prosecution do not put the case quite as high as that in this case, they are saying that you must be sure that B realised that A might kill with the requisite intent in the course of the venture. That is the position so far as murder is concerned. If you are not satisfied that he realised that A might kill with the requisite intent in the course of the venture, you should nevertheless be sure that he realised that in the course of the venture A might inflict some harm on B, or indeed whether A or B might inflict some harm on B falling short of really serious bodily harm, then the proper verdict would be guilty of manslaughter but not guilty of murder. So it is the realisation that goes to the core of the matter or the realisation I have explained to you in relation to an intent to kill or cause really serious bodily injury, or whether the prosecution failed to establish that. If they have failed to establish that, are you sure that this defendant must have realised it in the course of the joint venture that some injury might be inflicted on the victim John Davies, some physical injury?’
Miss Cotton submits that, in the circumstances of the present case, the learned judge’s directions were incorrect, or at least insufficient. This was not a case in which the object of the joint venture was to assault the victim; nor was it a case in which lethal weapons or indeed any weapons were being carried. In those circumstances Miss Cotton argues that it was wrong or insufficient for the judge to identify the degree of foresight required to be proved against the appellant as merely that Gray ‘may’ or ‘might’ intentionally kill or inflict really serious injury. She submits he should have emphasised that the requisite foresight to be proved against the appellant must be that such an intentional killing or infliction of really serious injury by Gray was a ‘real’ or ‘substantial’ or ‘serious’ possibility.
This submission is based upon a passage in the advice of the Privy Council delivered by Sir Robin Cooke in Chan Wing-siu v R [1984] 3 All ER 877, [1985] AC 168. In that case the three appellants broke into a flat carrying knives. Two stabbed the occupier while the third held his wife. She too was slashed as the three left the flat. The husband died. It was held that a secondary party was criminally liable for acts of the primary offender if the crime was foreseen by him as a possible incident of the criminal unlawful enterprise and that it was proved beyond reasonable doubt that that was so. Sir Robin Cooke said ([1984] 3 All ER 877 at 880–881, [1985] AC 168 at 175):
‘The case must depend rather on the wider principle whereby a secondary party is criminally liable for acts by the primary offender of a type which the former foresees but does not necessarily intend. That there is such a principle is not in doubt. It turns on contemplation or, putting the same idea in other words, authorisation, which may be express but is more usually implied. It meets the case of a crime foreseen as a possible incident of the common unlawful enterprise. The criminal culpability lies in participating in the venture with that foresight.’
However, reliance is placed upon a passage as follows ([1984] 3 All ER 877 at 883, [1985] AC 168 at 179):
‘Where there is an evidential foundation for a remoteness issue, it may be necessary for the judge to give the jury more help. Although a risk of a
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killing or serious bodily harm has crossed the mind of a party to an unlawful enterprise, it is right to allow for a class of case in which the risk was so remote as not to make that party guilty of a murder or intentional causing of grievous bodily harm committed by a co-adventurer in the circumstances that in the event confronted the latter. But if the party accused knew that lethal weapons, such as a knife or a loaded gun, were to be carried on a criminal expedition, the defence should succeed only very rarely. In cases where an issue of remoteness does arise it is for the jury (or other tribunal of fact) to decide whether the risk as recognised by the accused was sufficient to make him a party to the crime committed by the principal. Various formulae have been suggested, including a substantial risk, a real risk, a risk that something might well happen. No one formula is exclusively preferable; indeed it may be advantageous in a summing up to use more than one. For the question is not one of semantics. What has to be brought home to the jury is that occasionally a risk may have occurred to an accused’s mind, fleetingly or even causing him some deliberation, but may genuinely have been dismissed by him as altogether negligible. If they think there is a reasonable possibility that the case is in that class, taking the risk should not make that accused a party to such a crime of intention as murder or wounding with intent to cause grievous bodily harm.’ (Sir Robin Cooke’s emphasis.)
Miss Cotton submits that in the present case remoteness did arise and, accordingly, the word ‘might’ used by the learned judge was insufficient. He should have gone further along the lines suggested in Chan Wing-siu v R.
Reference was made to that case in R v Slack [1989] 3 All ER 90, [1989] QB 775. There the appellant and B burgled a house. B stabbed the elderly householder with a knife carried and handed to him by the appellant. The trial judge posed the question to the jury concerning the appellant:
‘Did [he] contemplate and foresee that Buick might kill or cause grievous bodily harm to Mrs Crowder as part of their joint enterprise and did she die as a result of such conduct by Buick? If so it is open to you to find that he so intended and that he is guilty of murder.’ (The judge’s emphasis.)
That direction was approved by this court. In R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892, [1991] 1 QB 134 the three appellants were convicted of murder. They had not carried weapons, but they had jointly set out to attack the victim, who died from injuries inflicted by kicking. In dismissing the appeals Lord Lane CJ said ([1990] 3 All ER 892 at 895, [1991] 1 QB 134 at 138):
‘There are, broadly speaking, two main types of joint enterprise cases where death results to the victim. The first is where the primary object of the participants is to do some kind of physical injury to the victim. The second is where the primary object is not to cause physical injury to any victim but, for example, to commit burglary. The victim is assaulted and killed as a (possibly unwelcome) incident of the burglary. The latter type of case may pose more complicated questions than the former, but the principle in each is the same.’
After referring to Chan Wing-siu v R, R v Slack, R v Wakely [1990] Crim LR 119 and observations by Professor Smith on the latter two cases, Lord Lane CJ went on to state the law in the passage read and repeated to the jury by the trial judge in the present case and quoted above.
In Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] 1 AC 34, another case from Hong Kong concerning joint enterprise, Lord Lowry giving the advice of the
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Privy Council, quoted with approval an extensive part of Lord Lane CJ’s judgment in R v Hyde, culminating with the passage cited by the trial judge in the present case. Lord Lowry went on ([1991] 3 All ER 897 at 909, [1992] 1 AC 34 at 51):
‘That passage from the judgment in R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892 at 895–896, [1991] 1 QB 134 at 138–139 correctly states, in their Lordships’ opinion, the law applicable to a joint enterprise of the kind described, which results in the commission of murder by the principal as an incident of the joint enterprise.’
In our judgment the principle stated by Lord Lane CJ in R v Hyde is of general application, whether weapons are carried or not and (as Lord Lane CJ expressly said) whether the object of the enterprise be to cause physical injury or to do some other unlawful act, eg burglary or robbery. True, it will be easier for the Crown to prove that B participated in the venture realising that A might wound with murderous intent if weapons are carried or if the object is to attack the victim or both. But that is purely an evidential difference, not a difference in principle.
With regard to the passage relied upon in Chan Wing-siu v R we are doubtful whether the defendant B, who fleetingly thinks of the risk of A using violence with murderous intent in the course of a joint enterprise only to dismiss it from his mind and go on to lend himself to the venture, can truly be said, at the time when he so lends himself, to ‘foresee’ or ‘realise’ that A might commit murder. In such a case B can hardly have such foresight or realisation at the time he lends himself to the venture because he has banished the risk from his mind. The words ‘realise’ and ‘realisation’ used by Lord Lane CJ and by the trial judge here aptly described the test, because to realise something may happen is surely to contemplate it as a real not fanciful possibility. Accordingly, we are inclined to the view that seeking to distinguish between a fleeting but rejected consideration of a risk and a continuing realisation of a real risk will, in most cases, be unnecessary. It would also over-complicate directions to juries and possibly lead to confusion.
However, even accepting that it may be necessary or desirable in some cases, due to possible remoteness of the risk, for the judge to give the jury more help, we do not think the present case fell into that category. This was not, to take an extreme example, a case of burglars entering in the erroneous belief that the householder was on holiday and one of them encountering and killing the householder. Here, the appellant knew the plan was to rob an old man in his cottage. He consistently conceded in evidence that he knew the victim was unlikely to yield up his money or goods without resistance. The nub of the case was therefore not whether the appellant realised force might be used but whether he realised only that some physical harm might be done or that really serious injury might be inflicted. As to that, the learned judge gave the clearest possible directions of law to the jury both at the beginning of his summing up and after their question.
Miss Cotton further argued that the learned judge ought to have isolated and drawn to the jury’s attention the facts and evidence bearing on this appellant’s state of mind. Specifically, she submits, he ought to have pointed out that no weapons were being carried and that the object of the venture was robbery, not assault.
In our judgment the learned judge’s review of the evidence was full and fair. It could have left the jury in no doubt about the object of the enterprise and the absence of weapons. Moreover, the learned judge towards the end of his summing up reminded the jury clearly of the arguments put forward on behalf of the appellant.
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In our judgment the learned judge fully discharged his duty, both in his directions of law and his summary of the evidence and the issues. Accordingly, this appeal must be dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Canterbury City Council v Colley and another
[1993] 1 All ER 591
Categories: TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD ACKNER, LORD OLIVER OF AYLMERTON, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 30 NOVEMBER 1992, 21 JANUARY 1993
Town and country planning – Permission for development – Revocation – Compensation – Depreciation of value of interest in land – Statutory assumption that planning permission would be granted for development – Permission granted for demolition of house and erection of new dwelling – House demolished but no new dwelling erected – Permission for erection of new dwelling revoked – Compensation sought for revocation of planning permission – Whether planning permission assumed to be still subsisting was same as revoked permission – Whether assumption must be made that planning permission would be granted even though permission incapable of being implemented – Town and Country Planning Act 1971, s 164(4).
In 1961 outline planning permission was granted for the demolition of a house and the erection of a new dwelling on the same site. In 1963 the house was demolished but no new dwelling was ever erected. In 1986 the appellants purchased the site for £14,500 and thereafter a lengthy dispute ensued between the appellants and the respondents, the local planning authority, relating to the continuing validity of the 1961 planning permission. In the meantime the appellants made a new application for the erection of a house within the same curtilage as the original house. That application was refused but in June 1987 the council notified the appellants that the original permission was regarded as valid and it would consider proposals for implementing it. However, in November 1987 the council made an order revoking the 1961 permission and following a public inquiry, that order was confirmed in August 1989. A claim by the appellants under s 164a of the Town and Country Planning Act 1971 was referred to the Lands Tribunal to determine the amount of compensation payable to them following the revocation of planning permission for the erection of the house. Under s 164 the appellants were entitled to compensation for expenditure incurred and any loss sustained which was directly attributable to the revocation of planning permission, but under s 164(4) the amount of any loss or damage consisting of depreciation of the value of an interest in the land was to be calculated on the assumption that ‘planning permission would be granted for development of the land of any class specified in [Sch 8 to the Act, which included rebuilding buildings in existence on 1 January 1948 or coming into existence thereafter]’. The tribunal made an interim award consisting of, inter alia, £106,750 depreciation in the value of the land, being the difference between the
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value of the land with the benefit of the 1961 permission (£115,000) and its value without planning permission (£8,250). In arriving at that figure the tribunal disregarded the statutory assumption in s 164(4) that planning permission would be granted for rebuilding the house, on the grounds that if the assumption in s 164(4) was applied the planning permission which was assumed to be still subsisting was the same permission which had been revoked and was incapable of being implemented. The tribunal further found that, if the post-revocation value of the land was calculated on the statutory assumption that permission would be granted, its value would be £70,000, reflecting the difference in value between the land with the original planning permission and the land with the assumed permission, thus reducing the compensation to £45,000. The council appealed, contending that s 164(4), in its plain and natural meaning, required the calculation of depreciation to be made on the assumption that planning permission would be granted for the rebuilding of the house. The Court of Appeal allowed the appeal. The appellants appealed to the House of Lords, contending that a purposive construction to s 164(4) and Sch 8 should be adopted by which the assumption of planning permission should not be made where the permission revoked was or amounted in substance to the permission assumed under the section.
Notes
For compensation for refusal of planning permission, see 46 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 192–194, 198–200, and for cases on the subject, see 47(1) Digest (Reissue) 151, 546–547.
Section 164(4) of and Sch 8 to the Town and Country Planning Act 1971 were replaced by s 107(4) of and Sch 3 to the Town and Country Planning Act 1990. For s 107 of and Sch 3 to the 1990 Act, see 46 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (reissue) 641, 915.
Cases referred to in opinions
Central Control Board (Liquor Traffic) v Cannon Brewery Co Ltd [1919] AC 744, HL.
Stock v Frank Jones (Tipton) Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 948, [1978] 1 WLR 231, HL.
Appeal
The claimants, Mark John Colley and Janine Elaine Colley, appealed with the leave of the Court of Appeal from the decision of that court (Sir Donald Nicholls V-C, Taylor and Farquharson LJJ) (90 LGR 321) on 20 March 1992 allowing the appeal of the respondents, Canterbury City Council, by way of case stated by the Lands Tribunal (J C Hill Esq) on 7 May 1991 in respect of its interim decision dated 27 March 1991 on a reference by the appellants in respect of the
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compensation payable by the respondents, as the local planning authority, on the revocation of planning permission for the erection of a house on a site formerly known as Marley House, Pean Hill, Whitstable, Kent. The question raised by the case stated related solely to the interpretation and application of s 164(4) of the Town and Country Planning Act 1971 on the calculation of the loss or damage sustained by the appellants attributable to the revocation of planning permission. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Oliver.
David Keene QC and Barry Payton (instructed by Hempsons) for the appellants.
Roger Henderson QC and Edward Cousins (instructed Sharpe Pritchard, agents for P Wilson-Sharp, Canterbury) for the respondents.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
21 January 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Held – Having regard to the legislative history of s 164(4) of the 1971 Act, the clear purpose of the Act was to limit the amount of compensation payable for depreciation due to a revocation of planning permission by fixing a base value for the land in all cases on the footing that planning permission for any class of Sch 8 development would be granted, including development of the class which was the subject matter of the revoked permission. Accordingly, even though the 1961 planning permission was incapable of implementation, the assumption required to be made under s 164(4) for the purposes of assessing any loss or damage consisting of depreciation in the value of the land resulting from the revocation of the 1961 planning permission was that planning permission would be granted for the rebuilding of the house. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 593 d, p 595 e f and p 598 c to h, post).
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons to be given by my noble and learned friend Lord Oliver of Aylmerton I would dismiss this appeal.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Oliver of Aylmerton. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss this appeal.
LORD OLIVER OF AYLMERTON. My Lords, s 45 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1971 (re-enacting provisions which first appeared in s 21 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1947) empowers a local planning authority, subject to certain conditions and subject, in the absence of consent from persons affected, to confirmation by the Secretary of State, to order the revocation or modification of a planning permission which has been granted. Where such an order (other than one made with the consent of the person affected) has been made and confirmed, a person interested in the land who has incurred expenditure rendered abortive by the order or who has otherwise sustained loss directly attributable to the revocation or modification is entitled under s 164 of the 1971 Act, to claim and receive compensation for the expenditure or loss so incurred or sustained. Section 164(4), however, contains a provision limiting the amount of any loss capable of being claimed for depreciation of the value of an interest in the land affected by the revocation or modification. It is in these terms
‘In calculating, for the purposes of this section, the amount of any loss or damage consisting of depreciation of the value of an interest in land, it shall be assumed that planning permission would be granted for development of the land of any class specified in Schedule 8 to this Act.’
Schedule 8 (which is headed ‘Development not Constituting New Development’) is primarily related to the provisions of s 169 of the 1971 Act, which applies not to a revocation of an existing planning permission but to the refusal by the Secretary of State, either on an appeal or on a reference, of an application for planning permission. If the application is for development of a class specified in Pt II of Sch 8, that section confers a right to compensation. Part I of the schedule relates to development not ranking under s 169 for compensation for a refusal for planning permission and it embraces, for relevant purposes, the rebuilding of buildings in existence on 1 January 1948 or coming into existence thereafter so long as the cubic content of the original building is not exceeded by certain defined limits.
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The present appeal, which is brought with the leave of the Court of Appeal, relates to a property at Whitstable known as Marley House for which, subject to conditions and detailed approval, an outline planning permission had been granted on 15 November 1961 by the Kent County Council, then the local planning authority, for ‘the demolition of house and erection of new dwelling’. Following that permission, the house originally standing on the property was demolished in September 1963 but no new dwelling was ever in fact erected. On 31 January 1986 the appellants purchased the site at a price of £14,500 and there thereafter ensued a lengthy dispute between the appellants and the respondents, now the planning authority for the area, relating to the continuing validity of the 1961 planning permission. That dispute was finally resolved in the appellants’ favour. In the interim the appellants had made a new application for the erection of a house within the same curtilage as the original Marley House although not in precisely the same position. That application was refused but in June 1987 the respondents told the appellants that the original permission was regarded as valid and that they would consider proposals for implementing it. The appellants sought to follow this up and expended moneys in abortive design expenditure. That sum is not now in dispute. On 12 November 1987, however, the respondents notified the appellants that they had made an order revoking the 1961 permission and had submitted it to the Secretary of State for confirmation. Following a public inquiry the order was confirmed on 17 August 1989. The appellants then made a claim for compensation under s 164 which was referred to the Lands Tribunal. On 27 March 1991 the tribunal made an interim award of £108,626.84 consisting of £106,750 depreciation in value of the land and £1,876.84 abortive design expenditure. The only question currently in issue is the correctness of the tribunal member’s assessment of the depreciation in value of the land at the sum of £106,750, which was arrived at by, in effect, disregarding the assumption required to be made by s 164(4). The member valued the land with the benefit of the 1961 permission at £115,000. Without that permission, and disregarding the statutory assumption, the valuation was £8,250. On the basis of making the statutory assumption, however, the member found that the post-revocation value of the land was £70.000, thus reducing the compensation on this footing to £45,000.
In reaching the conclusion that he did in apparent defiance of the express requirement of s 164(4) the member was much influenced by the fact that the development to which the revoked permission related was, in substance at least, the very permission which the subsection required to be assumed to be still subsisting. As it happened, the evidence satisfied him that the 1961 permission would have enabled the appellants to build a considerably larger house than the original Marley House, with the result that the actual value of the site with the 1961 permission was greater than that which resulted from the simple application of the statutory assumption. The statutory assumption would, however, result, on any analysis, in the appellants being deprived of a substantial part of their real loss by the attribution of a notional planning permission which was in fact incapable of implementation. Indeed, as Mr Keene QC has forcefully argued, if one supposes a planning permission covering merely the erection of a building of the same size and on the same site as the building demolished, the effect of the statutory assumption is to eliminate any compensation at all for the undoubted depreciation of the land value occasioned by the revocation. The tribunal member’s view was that this could not possibly have been the intention of Parliament in enacting a provision designed to provide compensation. He said:
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‘It seems to me that in revocation order cases section 164 will only operate as Parliament intended it to operate if the development resulting from the Schedule 8 assumption, although a hypothetical one, is not that which also corresponds with the subject of the associated revocation order. This could be achieved by notionally adding to at the end of sub-section (4) of section 164 words such as “unless such planning permission is the subject of revocation order proceedings”.’
From this decision the respondents appealed by way of case stated to the Court of Appeal, which, on 20 March 1992, allowed the appeal but granted leave to the appellants to appeal to your Lordships’ House (see 90 LGR 321).
My Lords, that the results of the application of s 164(4) can, in appropriate circumstances, be anomalous is beyond doubt. The respondents’ argument involves, as Sir Donald Nicholls V-C pointed out in his judgment in the Court of Appeal (90 LGR 321 at 334):
‘… as a necessary corollary, the proposition that in assessing compensation for the revocation of permission to demolish and rebuild a house, the valuer must assume that permission to rebuild the house would be granted. On its face the proposition seems bizarre.’
Indeed the result of the statutory assumption, where the holder of a permission to demolish and rebuild has actually carried out the demolition at the date when the permission is revoked, is to leave him without a house and with a site upon which he can neither rebuild nor, effectively, claim any compensation for its depreciation in value.
Nevertheless, the provisions of s 164(4) are, in terms, mandatory and I cannot, for my part, see any escape from the proposition that they require to be applied even in the case postulated of the notional permission to be assumed being the very permission that has in fact been revoked. It has been suggested that something turns on the use by the legislature of the word ‘assumed’ and it is argued that you cannot ‘assume’ that which, because it cannot in fact be implemented, is incapable of being rationally assumed. That, however, I find myself quite unable to accept. The section is, in terms, postulating an artificial assumption and dealing with a situation where no planning permission is in fact in existence or likely to be in existence.
More convincing, perhaps, is the appeal to the well-known canon enunciated by Lord Atkinson in Central Control Board (Liquor Traffic) v Cannon Brewery Co Ltd [1919] AC 744 at 752 that an intention to take away the property of a subject without giving him a legal right to compensation for the loss of it is not to be imputed to the legislature unless that intention is expressed in unequivocal terms. But the difficulty here is that, even assuming that there is room for the application of this principle in a section whose express purpose is to provide and, at the same time, to limit compensation, the terms of the section are indeed entirely unequivocal.
Then it is said that the provision, if applied strictly in accordance with its terms, leads to an absurdity. It is pointed out that in the case of a refusal of planning permission for development specified in Pt II of the Sch 8 there is, in s 169, specific provision for compensation to be assessed on the full difference in the value of the land with the permission and the value of the land without it. It is, it is argued, absurd that where permission has been granted and is then revoked there should be a harsher rule and one which can, in certain circumstances, result
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in the subject receiving no compensation at all. Reliance is placed on the speech of Lord Simon of Glaisdale in Stock v Frank Jones (Tipton) Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 948, [1978] 1 WLR 231. But that reference is, as it seems to me, fatal to the submission. What Lord Simon said was ([1978] 1 All ER 948 at 954, [1978] 1 WLR 231 at 237):
‘… a court would only be justified in departing from the plain words of the statute were it satisfied that: (1) there is clear and gross balance of anomaly; (2) Parliament, the legislative promoters and the draftsman could not have envisaged such anomaly and could not have been prepared to accept it in the interests of a supervening legislative objective; (3) the anomaly can be obviated without detriment to such legislative objective; (4) the language of the statute is susceptible of the modification required to obviate the anomaly.’
Even assuming that the anomaly, which arises only in very limited circumstances, is such as to satisfy the second of these conditions, it is really impossible, as Mr Keene was, I think, constrained to admit, to suggest any way in which the statutory language could be modified save by the addition, for which there is no context, of some such words as those used by the member of the Lands Tribunal. That involves more than a mere purposive construction. It involves substantially rewriting the section on the supposition that the legislature, had it thought about the particular case, would have expressed itself in substantially different terms from those which it in fact chose to use. Accepting, as I do, that the appellants have suffered hardship in being deprived of a substantial part of the value represented by the revoked permission, I cannot, for my part, regard this as a legitimate approach to construction of the statute.
In a clear and most helpful address, Mr Keene’s final appeal was to a consideration of the legislative history in order to support a submission that a purposive construction of s 164 leads to the conclusion that sub-s (4) cannot be applied in accordance with its literal terms where this would result in compensation being denied. The origins of the section and of Sch 8 and their subsequent amendment and incorporation into a succession of consolidating statutes has been fully and carefully analysed and described in the judgment of Sir Donald Nicholls V-C (see 90 LGR 321 at 335–339), which, in the ordinary way, I would be content simply to adopt in full without repetition. In deference to Mr Keene’s very careful and detailed submission, however, I will endeavour to describe the history in summary form. There was nothing revolutionary or novel about the provisions of ss 45 and 164 or those of Sch 8. Substantially similar provisions were first enacted in the Town and Country Planning Act 1947 in ss 21 and 22 and Sch 3. In particular, the assumption in s 164(4) formed an essential part of the compensation calculation and was provided for in s 22(7) of the 1947 Act. Whilst, however, in that Act it served the purpose of providing a valuation base from which depreciation of land value for compensation purposes was to be calculated, the rationale of that valuation base was quite different. The philosophy behind the 1947 Act was not only that development, whether it consisted of building operations or change of user, should be controlled but that the development value of land, over and above the value attributable to an artificially defined ‘existing use’ of the land, should be taken into public ownership. Thus, when the 1947 Act came into force on the appointed day (1 July 1948) a landowner became entitled to develop his land in a way not classified as an existing use only upon payment to the public purse, in the shape of a Central Land Board, of a development charge under s 69 of that Act which was to be calculated, in effect, by reference to the amount by which the value of the land was enhanced by permission for the
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proposed development. The existing use for the purposes of these provisions was defined by Sch 3 to the 1947 Act, Pts I and II of which were in substantially the same terms as Pts I and II of Sch 8 to the 1971 Act, save that they were headed respectively ‘Development Included in Existing use for purposes other than Compensation under s 20’ and ‘Development Included in Existing use for all Purposes’. The significance of this distinction was that it was provided in s 20 (the forerunner of s 169 of the 1971 Act) that, where, on an application for permission to carry out development of a class specified in Pt II, that application, either on appeal or on a reference, was refused by the Secretary of State or was granted subject only to conditions, compensation could be claimed from the local planning authority for the difference between the value which the land would have had had the permission been granted or granted unconditionally and its value without the permission or with only the conditional permission. No provision, however, was made for compensation for refusal of permission to carry out development of a class specified in Pt I of the schedule and although this may seem arbitrary it could not, as Sir Donald Nicholls V-C remarked in the course of his judgment (at 338), have been accidental. The existing use provisions of Sch 3 had a further relevance. Under Pt VI of the 1947 Act there was established a compensation fund of an arbitrary sum of £300m to meet claims by landowners for loss of development value as a result of the Act, that is to say the difference between the unrestricted value of land immediately prior to 1 July 1948 and its value subject to the restrictions imposed by the 1947 Act. Since development charges were to be levied only on development other than that comprised in the existing use provisions in Sch 3, s 61 provided that the restricted value of the land for the purposes of this compensation was to be calculated on the assumption that planning permission would be granted for development of any class specified in this schedule.
It is against this scheme that ss 21 and 22 of the 1947 Act fall to be considered. S 21 was, for material purposes, in substantially the same terms as s 45 of the 1971 Act, but the compensation provisions in s 22, albeit substantially in the same terms as those of s 164, contained a crucial difference in the form of a proviso that no compensation should be paid for depreciation in value unless (for relevant purposes) a development charge had been paid in respect of the revoked permission. Sub-s (7) provided for the assessment of compensation in accordance with the Acquisition of Land (Assessment of Compensation) Act 1919 and required it to be assumed (using words identical with those of s 164(4) of the 1971 Act) that planning permission would be granted for any class of development specified in Sch 3. In the context of the scheme of the Act this was perfectly logical. Since, by definition, the development charge which formed the essential condition for payment of compensation became payable only on a development which was not within the existing use, it was both rational and necessary to provide in the calculation of the amount of depreciation a base value which assumed the existence of a permission for existing use development.
So far so good. The difficulty arises in the next stage in the legislative history. The planning legislation was substantially amended in 1953 and 1954 when development charges were abolished. The Town and Country Planning Act 1954 contained, in s 38, provision for compensation for revocation of a planning permission similar to that contained in s 21 of the 1947 Act. It did this, however, not by enacting a new compensation permission but by incorporating and applying s 22 of the 1947 Act but deleting the proviso which excluded compensation for depreciation in value when no development charge had been paid. The formula for the calculation of the amount of depreciation which was provided in s 22(7) was thus not only retained but was expressly incorporated by
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reference. This may be said to have been arbitrary and illogical because, with the abolition of the development charge, the reason for the statutory assumption in, fixing a base value for calculation might be thought to have gone, so that it would have been logical simply to repeal that part of s 22(7) which included the statutory assumption. But this was not done and I cannot, for my part, regard the omission as having been accidental. Where a statute contains a provision in words substantially identical with those used in a previous Act it may be possible to argue that the words of the later Act take on, from their context, a meaning different from that which they bore in the previous enactment. But, where the later statute expressly incorporates and applies a section from an existing statute, it is, as it seems to me, quite impossible to attribute to it in its new application a meaning different from that which it bore in the statute from which it is taken. The section had a perfectly clear meaning in the context of the 1947 Act and clearly applied equally to the case where the permission revoked was one for a development specified in Sch 3. When it was incorporated referentially in the 1954 Act and repeated in terms, as it subsequently was in the 1962 and 1971 consolidating Acts, it cannot have changed its meaning. Thus the legislative history, far from providing support for the purposive construction which Mr Keene seeks to urge upon your Lordships, seems to me to underline the, impossibility of escaping the conclusion that the clear purpose of the legislature was to limit the amount of compensation payable for depreciation due to a revocation of planning permission by fixing a base value for the land in all cases on the footing that planning permission for any class of Sch 8 development would be granted. That must include, however arbitrary it may seem, even development of that very class which was the subject matter of the revoked permission.
The conclusion is not one which I embrace with any enthusiasm and it may well be that the particular circumstance of the revoked permission being the very permission comprehended in the statutory assumption was not one which the legislature foresaw as ever likely to occur. But, whilst this provides a sound reason for the hope expressed by Sir Donald Nicholls V-C that Parliament may look again at what he described as ‘an anachronistic relic’ (at 340), it cannot provide an avenue for escape from the clear and express words of the section. I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Oliver of Aylmerton. I agree with him and, for the reasons which he has given, I, too, would dismiss this appeal.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, having had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Oliver of Aylmerton, I would also dismiss this appeal for the reasons he gives.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Deposit Protection Board v Dalia and another
[1993] 1 All ER 599
Categories: BANKING AND FINANCE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C
Hearing Date(s): 12, 15 JUNE, 3 JULY 1992
Bank – Deposit protection scheme – Deposit protection fund – Insolvent bank – Assignment of part of deposit after petition presented to wind up insolvent bank but before winding-up order made – Whether assignee of part of deposit entitled to compensation from deposit protection fund – Banking Act 1987, ss 58(1), 59, 60.
Under ss 58a and 60b of the Banking Act 1987 the Deposit Protection Board was required to pay out of the deposit protection fund to each depositor who had a protected deposit with a recognised bank or licensed institution which became insolvent an amount equal to three-quarters of his protected deposit, but limited to a maximum deposit of £20,000. Under s 59(1)(a)c of the 1987 Act a company wound up by the court became insolvent on the making of a winding-up order. On 5 July 1991 the Bank of England presented a petition to the court for an order that an authorised institution under the 1987 Act (BCCI) be wound up on the ground that it was insolvent. The petition was due to be heard on 30 July. Certain depositors with BCCI took steps to maximise the amount of the payments they could claim from the deposit protection fund by assigning sums of £20,000 to family members or close friends who could then each look to the fund for payment of £15,000 in respect of the £20,000 share of the deposit assigned to him. On 30 July the Banking Act 1987 (Meaning of Deposit) Order 1991 was made providing that in future the definition of ‘deposit’ in the 1987 Act excluded a sum to which a person became entitled, otherwise than by operation of law, after presentation of a winding-up petition. BCCI was wound up on 14 January 1992. The question arose whether the assignees of deposits made before 30 July 1991 were entitled to payment out of the deposit protection fund pursuant to s 58(1) of the 1987 Act.
Held – Since the essential purpose of s 58 was to pay compensation to those entitled to deposits in an insolvent bank it would be inconsistent with that purpose to confine ‘depositor’ in all circumstances to the person who made the deposit. Accordingly, if the original depositor had assigned his interest to an assignee, so that the assignee became entitled to look to the bank for repayment, the assignee was the person entitled to compensation. Accordingly, a declaration would be granted that for the purpose of the deposit protection scheme under the 1987 Act an assignee under an assignment made before 30 July 1991 of part of a deposit was to be treated as entitled to the assigned part of the deposit and as having made a deposit of an amount equal to that part (see p 605 e f, p 606 d e, p 607 d e and p 608 h j, post).
Notes
For compensation payments to depositors, see 3(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 115–117.
For the Banking Act 1987, 55, 58, 59,60, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 589, 591, 592.
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Cases referred to in judgment
Brice v Bannister (1878) 3 QBD 569, CA.
Britt v Buckinghamshire CC [1963] 2 All ER 175, [1964] 1 QB 77, [1963] 2 WLR 722, CA.
Hanlon v Law Society [1980] 2 All ER 199, [1981] AC 124, [1980] 2 WLR 756, HL.
Jones v Farrell (1857) 1 De G & J 208, 44 ER 703, LC and LJJ.
Kirkness (Inspector of Taxes) v John Hudson & Co Ltd [1955] 2 All ER 345, [1955] AC 696, [1955] 2 WLR 1135, HL.
Weddell v J A Pearce & Major (a firm) [1987] 3 All ER 624, [1988] Ch 26, [1987] 3 WLR 592.
Cases also cited
A-G v Prince Ernest Augustus of Hanover [1957] 1 All ER 49, [1957] AC 436, HL.
Black-Clawson International Ltd v Papierwerke Waldhof-Aschaffenberg AG [1975] 1 All ER 810, [1975] AC 591, HL.
Courtauld v Legh (1869) LR 4 Exch 126.
Lennon v Gibson & Howes Ltd [1919] AC 709, PC.
McGreavy, Re, ex p McGreavey v Benfleet UDC [1950] 1 All ER 442, CA.
MacManaway, Re [1951] AC 161, PC.
Steel Wing Co Ltd, Re [1921] 1 Ch 349, [1920] All ER Rep 292.
Stephens v Cuckfield RDC [1960] 2 All ER 716, [1960] 2 QB 373, CA.
Originating summons
The plaintiff, the Deposit Protection Board (a body corporate established pursuant to the Banking Acts 1979 and 1987), issued an originating summons dated 15 April 1992 seeking the court’s determination on the question whether a person entitled by reason of assignment of part of a deposit as defined by s 5(1) of the 1987 Act was a depositor holding a protected deposit entitled to a compensation payment from the plaintiff pursuant to s 58(1) of the 1987 Act. The respondents to the summons were the first defendant, Varsha Dalia, an assignee of a protected deposit joined in the proceedings to represent all such assignees, and the second defendant, Barclays Bank plc, joined in the proceedings to represent contributory institutions within the meaning of s 52(1) of the 1987 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment.
John Jarvis QC and Jonathan Nash (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the board.
Lord Irvine of Lairg QC and Philip Sales (instructed by Ashurst Morris Crisp) for the first defendant.
Michael Brindle QC and Bankim Thanki (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for the second defendant.
Cur adv vult
3 July 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. To alleviate hardship when a bank becomes insolvent the Banking Act 1979 set up the deposit protection fund. Money from the fund was payable to depositors on the insolvency of a recognised bank or licensed institution. A depositor was to be paid three-quarters of the amount of his deposit, but limited to a maximum deposit of £10,000. The fund was continued under the Banking Act 1987. The maximum amount for a protected deposit was increased to £20,000. So a depositor owed £20,000 by an authorised institution which has failed can look to the Deposit Protection Board for £15,000.
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A depositor owed £100,000 or £50,000 or any other amount over £20,000 can likewise look to the board, but his claim also is limited to the same top figure of £15.000.
The Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA, usually known simply as BCCI, was an authorised institution under the 1987 Act. On 5 July 1991 the Bank of England presented a petition to the court for an order that BCCI be wound up. One of the grounds relied on was that the company was insolvent. Provisional liquidators were appointed and BCCI ceased trading in England. Depositors ceased to be able to withdraw their money. Fearing the worst, some depositors took steps to maximise the amount of the payments from the deposit protection fund. An enterprising firm of accountants, having taken expert legal advice, wrote around to BCCI depositors telling them of a scheme the accountants had prepared. The scheme was that a depositor should formally transfer and assign part of his or her deposit to family members or close friends ‘who can be trusted’. For instance, a depositor with a deposit of £100,000 would transfer £20,000 to each of five relations or friends. Instead of the compensation payable to him being limited to £15,000 as the maximum amount of compensation payable to any one depositor, each of his five assignees could look to the fund for payment of £15,000 in respect of the £20,000 share of the deposit assigned to him. By this means the total compensation payable by the fund would be increased to £75,000. Depositors were urged to hurry, ‘for you only have until Monday evening 29th July’. This was because the winding-up petition was due to come before the court again on 30 July.
Some fifty or so depositors, possibly more, signed transfers in July 1991 in respect of sums totalling several million pounds. There were over 200 assignees. One depositor alone, whose deposits exceeded half a million pounds, executed 26 assignments of £20,000 each.
The scheme was quickly stopped in its tracks. Parliament never intended that the limit on the amount of compensation payable to individual depositors could be side-stepped by dispositions made after formal steps had been taken to initiate the winding-up process. On 30 July 1991 the Banking Act 1987 (Meaning of Deposit) Order 1991, SI 1991/1776 was made. It provided that in future the definition of ‘deposit’ in the 1987 Act excluded a sum to which a person became entitled, otherwise than by operation of law, after presentation of a winding-up petition. In the case of BCCI, where a winding-up petition had already been presented, the changed definition took effect from 31 July. So the loophole, if such it was, was closed although subsequently some months elapsed before a winding-up order was eventually made on 14 January 1992.
The question before me is whether these assignments did have their intended effect for compensation purposes. The first defendant is an assignee joined in the proceedings to represent all assignees. At the outset I should emphasise that in the proceedings the only question raised is one of law, to be answered on the assumption that the assignments were genuine and valid transactions and that there was no arrangement or understanding that an assignee would hold for the assignor any compensation received by him from the fund. The board, which administers the fund, has reserved the right to pursue such matters if this should become necessary. I must also emphasise that the answer I give to the question before me will be of general application. Its effect will not be confined to assignments made in circumstances similar to those which existed regarding BCCI in July 1991. The 1991 order has dealt with how similar assignments will operate in future. I have to look at the matter more broadly, and consider also the effect of a valid assignment made before winding up became an imminent prospect.
Page 602 of [1993] 1 All ER 599
The deeds of assignment
The assignments were on a printed form of deed. The document recited the, ‘vendor’s’ deposit in a specified account with BCCI. The operative part provided that in consideration of £1 ‘the vendor by this deed sells, assigns and transfers the sum of [£20.000] of the deposit to the purchaser’. The depositor also signed a letter addressed to BCCI, whereby BCCI was given notice of the ‘absolute’ assignment in question. The bank was instructed that the sum of £20,000 from the deposit account was now held by the assignee, who was described as ‘the purchaser’, and that he should now be identified by the bank ‘as a depositor’. The letter added:
‘If, for administrative reasons, you are unable to arrange for the completion of formalities to designate a separate deposit account in the name of the purchaser, I/we confirm that I/we hold the abovementioned sum on trust for the purchaser.’
Before me it was common ground that the assignments were not statutory assignments in conformity with s 136 of the Law of Property Act 1925, but that they were effective as equitable assignments.
The legislation
The deposit protection scheme is now regulated by Pt II of the 1987 Act. Institutions authorised by the Bank of England to carry on a deposit-taking business in this country are required to make contributions to the deposit protection fund as levied from time to time by the board. The amount of the contribution of each institution varies according to the size of its deposit base. At present there are over 500 contributing institutions, of which the second defendant is one. The overall sum required to meet the payments due under the scheme to BCCI depositors is in the region of £78m. The sum in issue on this summons is about £3.7m.
Sections 58 to 62 are concerned with payments out of the fund. Section 58 is the section which makes provision for the payment of compensation to depositors.
Subsection (1), so far as material, provides:
‘Subject to the provisions of this section, if at any time an institution becomes insolvent and at that time—(a) it is an authorised institution … the Board shall as soon as practicable pay out of the Fund to each depositor who has a protected deposit with that institution an amount equal to three-quarters of his protected deposit.’
Subsection (2) contains a comparable provision applicable when an administration order is made under the Insolvency Act 1986. I pause to make an initial observation. The 1987 Act contains no definition of ‘depositor’. In this context that word would, I believe, naturally be read as meaning the person who made the deposit in question. To qualify for compensation the deposit made by him must be a protected deposit.
Section 59 defines when a company becomes insolvent for the purposes of s 58. It was this provision that gave rise to the loophole sought to be exploited by BCCI depositors. Under s 59(1)(a) the relevant event in the case of a winding up by the court is the making of the winding-up order, not the presentation of the winding-up petition.
Section 60 defines the expression ‘protected deposit’. I must quote the first two subsections:
Page 603 of [1993] 1 All ER 599
‘(1) … in relation to an institution in respect of which a payment falls to be made under section 58(1) above any reference in this Act to a depositor’s protected deposit is a reference to the total liability of the institution to him immediately before the time when it becomes insolvent, limited to a maximum of £20,000, in respect of the principal amounts of and accrued interest on sterling deposits made with United Kingdom offices of the institution.
(2) … in relation to an institution in respect of which a payment falls to be made under section 58(2) above any reference in this Act to depositor’s protected deposit is a reference to the liability of the institution to him in respect of—(a) the principal amount of each sterling deposit which was made by him with a United Kingdom office of the institution before the making of the administration order and which under the terms on which it was made is or becomes due or payable while the order is in force; and (b) accrued interest on any such deposit up to the time when it is or becomes due and payable as aforesaid; but so that the total liability of the institution to him in respect of such deposits does not exceed £20,000.’
Subsection (2), concerned with payments when administration orders are in force, provides clear support for the view that the draftsman had in mind what I have described as the natural meaning of the word depositor in this context. Subsection (2)(a) refers to the principal amount of each sterling deposit ‘made by him’. This assumes that a depositor is the person who will have made the deposit in question. It assumes that the person to whom the institution has a liability (‘the liability of the institution to him’) is one and the same person as the person who made the deposit (‘… in respect of … each sterling deposit which was made by him’). Subsection (1) is consistent with this.
The same assumption appears in sub-s (6). This subsection excluded certain deposits for compensation purposes. It reads:
‘In determining the total liability of an institution to a depositor for the purposes of subsection (1) above, or the liability or total liability of an institution to a depositor for the purposes of subsection (2) above, no account shall be taken of any liability in respect of a deposit if … (c) the institution is a former authorised institution and the deposit was made after it ceased to be an authorised institution or a recognised bank or licensed institution under the Banking Act 1979 unless, at the time the deposit was made, the depositor did not know and could not reasonably be expected to have known that it had ceased to be an authorised institution, recognised bank or licensed institution.’
The words I have emphasised assume that the depositor who made the deposit will be the same person as the depositor to whom a compensation payment is to be made under s 58. When an institution has ceased to be an authorised institution, liability of the institution to him for compensation purposes depends upon his state of mind ‘at the time the deposit was made’.
Trusts
Thus far one might think that, in applying the £20,000 limit on which the three-quarters compensation is to be paid, attention is to be focused simply on all the outstanding United Kingdom sterling deposits made by a particular depositor. They are to be aggregated because the £20,000 limit is on ‘the total liability of the institution to him’ in respect of such deposits. However, to look only at the persons who were the actual depositors would not be satisfactory. Some special provision has to be made for depositors who are nominees or trustees. Section 61
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addresses this problem, by modifying ss 58 and 60 in certain cases. Section 61(2) provides that persons who are entitled to a deposit as trustees shall be treated as ‘a single and continuing body of persons distinct from the persons who may from time to time be the trustees’. Further, if the same persons are entitled as trustees ‘to different deposits’ under different trusts, they are treated as a separate and distinct body with respect to each trust.
Section 61(3) deals with one particular type of trust, bare trusts:
‘Where a deposit is held for any person or for two or more persons jointly by a bare trustee, that person or, as the case may be, those persons jointly shall be treated as entitled to the deposit without the intervention of any trust.’
‘Bare trustee’ means in short a person who holds the deposit on trust for another person who has the exclusive right to direct how it shall be dealt with (s 106).
This subsection covers two situations. It covers the simple case where A holds a deposit as nominee for B. In this type of case the scheme of the legislation is that one ignores the trust and has regard exclusively to the identity of the beneficiary. B is to be ‘treated as entitled to the deposit without the intervention of any trust’. In my view this provision makes sense only if the twofold consequence to which it leads is that, by reason of being so treated, B is to be regarded as the depositor (1) for the purpose of receiving compensation under s 58 and also (2) for the purpose of the definition of protected interest in s 60. That is the consequence which is intended to flow from the provision that, although not the depositor, B is to be treated as entitled to the deposit.
Section 61(3) also covers the case where A holds a deposit on trust for B and C jointly. They are to be treated as jointly entitled to the deposit without the intervention of a trust. Cases of jointly entitled depositors are covered by sub-s (6):
‘… where two or more persons are jointly entitled to a deposit … each of them shall be treated as having a separate deposit of an amount produced by dividing the amount of the deposit to which they are jointly entitled by the number of persons who are so entitled.’
The wording here (‘is treated as having a separate deposit’) is different from sub-s (3) (‘treated as entitled to the deposit’), but in my view the intended effect is clear and is the same in both cases.
Subsection (7) deals with cases where a deposit has been made out of a clients’ account or the like. The subsection echoes the language of sub-s (3) by providing that the clients shall be treated ‘as entitled to’ the appropriate proportion of the deposit. Subsection (8) deals with the special case where an authorised institution is itself a trustee and holds sums which, but for the exclusion in s 5(3)(a), would be a deposit. The subsection negatives the s 5 provision by directing that each of those who made deposits with the institution are to be ‘treated as having made a deposit’.
Two important points are discernible in these compressed provisions. First, one thread running through them is that where A is the person who made the deposit but B is the person beneficially entitled to the deposit, B is the material person for the purposes of the protection scheme. The draftsman employed several different forms of words to achieve this result. One form is that B is to ‘be treated as entitled to the deposit’ made by A, as in sub-s (3). The draftsman used words to the like effect in sub-s (7). Secondly, the section is concerned with the beneficial interests existing when a payment falls to be made. This is as one would
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expect. If A deposits money with a bank, and sometime later makes a declaration of trust in respect of the whole of the sum deposited in favour of his child B absolutely, sub-s (3) will apply if the bank subsequently becomes insolvent. I can see nothing in s 61 to suggest that these trust provisions apply only if the trust existed at the time the deposit was made.
Statutory assignments
Against this background I turn to the question of assignments. I start by noting that the relationship between banker and customer is one of debtor and creditor and is based on contract. The credit balance in a customer’s bank account is a chose in action. It can be the subject of an assignment. Assignment of the right to payment of the sum of money in a bank account is to be distinguished from the more usual means by which a customer transfers money to someone else. Normally he will write a cheque, or withdraw the money and hand it over. Exceptionally he may not do so. Money may be deposited on terms that make early withdrawal disadvantageous. Then it may be in the parties’ interests to leave the money in the account but transfer the benefit of the account to the third party by some other means, for instance by the depositor constituting himself a trustee of the account for the benefit of the third party, or by him assigning the money in his account to the third party.
I shall consider first the simple case where A makes an out-and-out assignment to B of the whole of his interest in a deposit or deposits. He does so in writing, and he gives written notice to the bank as required by s 136 of the Law of Property Act 1925. In my view in the case of such a statutory assignment the person to whom compensation is payable under s 58 of the 1987 Act is B. He is the person who has become entitled to the deposit in place of A. The expression ‘depositor’ in that section is apt to embrace him as the assignee of A, and the ‘protected deposit’ referred to is the liability of the bank to him in respect of the United Kingdom sterling deposit or deposits to which he is entitled.
The factor which has weighed most with me in reaching this conclusion is the scheme of the 1987 Act as shown by its treatment of trusts. To confine ‘depositor’ in all circumstances to the person who made the deposit would be inconsistent with the object s 61 seeks to achieve. Thus the natural meaning of the word ‘depositor’ must give way to the extent necessary to enable the underlying purpose of the 1987 Act to be achieved.
Under the 1987 Act if A holds a deposit on trust for B absolutely, B becomes the material person. He is to be ‘treated as entitled to the deposit without the intervention of any trust’ (see s 61(3)). As already noted, the twofold consequence is that B is regarded as the depositor for the purpose of receiving compensation and also for the purpose of the definition of protected deposit in s 60. In my view it is inconceivable that Parliament intended that an assignee of the whole of a deposit under a statutory assignment should be in a worse position, for the purposes of the deposit protection scheme, than the beneficiary under a declaration of trust. Parliament cannot have intended that the right to compensation should turn on fine legal distinctions between an assignee’s rights to a deposit under an absolute assignment and a beneficiary’s rights under a declaration of trust. In each case the entire beneficial interest in the deposit belongs to B to the exclusion of A who made the deposit.
Indeed, the assignee ought, if anything, to be in a better position. As a statutory assignee the legal right to the money in the account passes to him, he is entitled to all legal remedies to recover the money and he can give a good discharge to the bank without the concurrence of the assignor. The bank must pay him and not
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the assignor. A beneficiary under a declaration of trust is not so well placed: the bank will continue to deal with the trustee, and in the ordinary course the deposit will be repaid by the bank to the trustee, not the beneficiary.
I recognise that the draftsman may not have had assignments in mind at all. That would be understandable. Assignments of money in a bank account, except by way of charge, are not everyday transactions. The absence of express provision in the section means that the court, treading circumspectly, must look at the underlying purpose of the legislation and construe the draftsman’s language with that purpose in mind. Here the essential purpose is to pay compensation to those entitled to deposits in an insolvent bank. If the original depositor has assigned his interest to an assignee, so that the assignee has become entitled to look to the bank for repayment, achievement of the legislative purpose requires the assignee to be the person entitled to compensation. That is necessarily implicit in the legislative scheme, and s 58 must be so read and understood. The correctness of this approach is confirmed by the treatment afforded to trusts.
Equitable assignments
I turn next to consider the position where part only of a deposit has been assigned. It was common ground before me that such an assignment cannot be a statutory assignment but is equitable only, even when written notice has been given to the debtor bank. In my view, for compensation purposes the position of an assignee in such a case is the same as discussed above regarding a statutory assignee. There is no reason in principle why, for the purposes of the deposit protection scheme, an assignee of part of a deposit should be treated any differently from an assignee of the whole of a deposit. Indeed it would be absurd if the following two cases were not treated the same: (1) A has two deposits each of £10,000, and he assigns one deposit to B and the other to C; and (2) A has one deposit of £20,000, and he assigns one-half to B and the other half to C.
I have in mind that in certain respects statutory assignments and equitable assignments have different legal consequences. These differences are not material for present purposes. An equitable assignee is entitled to look to the bank for payment. If the bank pays the assignor after receiving notice of the assignment he must pay again: Jones v Farrell (1857) 1 De G & J 208, 44 ER 703 and Brice v Bannister (1878) 3 QBD 569. The assignee may have to join the assignor in al proceedings he brings against the bank, but this is a pragmatic procedure requirement and does not affect the assignee’s substantive right to the assign, part of the debt. On this the authorities are conveniently summarised by Scott J in Weddell v J A Pearce & Major (a firm) [1987] 3 All ER 624 at 633–637, [1988] Ch 26 at 38–43.
I mention one further point. The trust provisions in s 61 draw no distinction of consequence between a declaration of trust relating to the whole deposit and one relating to a defined part of a deposit. That is not surprising. In the present case the assignors declared themselves to be trustees of the assigned parts of the deposits if BCCI was unable to designate separate deposit accounts in the assignees’ names. I am unable to see why equitable assignments, with this fall-back declaration of trust, ought to be treated in any way differently for compensation purposes than if in place of assignments there had been simple declarations of trust. Had there been, there could have been no room for doubt.
The 1991 order
I am confirmed in my conclusions by the terms of the 1991 order. Paragraph 2(1) of the order reads:
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‘For the purposes of sections 60, 61 and 62 of the Banking Act 1987 the definition of deposit in section 5 of that Act shall be treated as excluding any sum to which a person becomes entitled (otherwise than by operation of law), or comes to be treated as entitled for the purposes of sections 58 and 60 of that Act, after a petition is presented for the winding up of the institution, or, in the case of an institution in respect of which such a petition has been presented before the date on which this Order comes into force, 30th July 1991.
The effect of para 3 is to make comparable provision for voluntary winding up.
This order was the legislative response to the accountants’ scheme for BCCI depositors. If assignees do not qualify to be treated as depositors for compensation purposes, the order was unnecessary. Clearly the order was prepared in some haste, but it cannot be brushed aside as having been made out of an excess of caution. That appraisal of the order might have more force if the order had provided simply that from 31 July any sum to which a person became entitled other than by operation of law would not qualify as a deposit. That course was not adopted. The order excluded an entitlement arising, otherwise by operation of law, after presentation of a winding-up petition. Markedly, and deliberately, the order left untouched a deposit ‘to which a person becomes entitled (otherwise than by operation of law)’ pre-presentation of a winding-up petition. An assignment of a deposit, in whole or in part, made while a bank is trading normally was not struck down. This difference in treatment between pre- and post-petition assignments is so stark that the inevitable conclusion is that pre-petition assignments were not intended to be outlawed. The order proceeded on the basis that ‘depositor’ does embrace a person who did not make the deposit but subsequently became entitled to it, by operation of law or otherwise. The order was content that pre-petition assignees should still qualify for compensation under the scheme.
A further feature is to be noted. As one would expect, and consistently with what I have said regarding the purpose and scheme of the 1987 Act, the order treated assignments and trusts on the same footing. The order applied both to interests arising under assignments (‘any sum to which a person becomes entitled’) and to interests arising under trusts (‘or comes to be treated as entitled’). The latter phrase harks back to the bare trust provision in s 61(3). Interests arising, whether under assignments or trusts, were struck down if the entitlement arose after presentation of a winding-up petition. In both cases they were left untouched for compensation purposes if the entitlement arose pre-petition.
I must mention why this order is a legitimate aid to construction of the statute. It is an unusual order. It was not made in exercise of a power to prescribe rules or procedures to be followed in carrying out the 1987 Act. The order was made in exercise of a power conferred on the Treasury by s 7 of the 1987 Act. The Treasury has power, after consultation with the Bank of England, to amend the meaning of deposit for the purposes of all or any of the provisions of the 1987 Act. Thus the effect of the order was to amend one of the statutory provisions. In such a case the subordinate legislation may be used in order to construe the parent Act: see Hanlon v Law Society [1980] 2 All ER 199 at 218, [1981] AC 124 at 193 per Lord Lowry. In the same case Lord Scarman ([1980] 2 All ER 199 at 213, [1981] AC 124 at 186) referred approvingly to observations of Harman LJ in Britt v Buckinghamshire CC [1963] 2 All ER 175 at 180, [1964] 1 QB 77 at 88:
‘A power is given to the minister by the Act itself to modify another section of the Act so that, when the minister does produce that modification
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… that regulation becomes in fact part of the Act. It is like an amending section of the Act; so that, in my judgment, reference can be made to that regulation because it is embodied in the Act itself and, having a quasi-parliamentary validity, is a good indication of the wishes of the legislature, just as much as if it were enacted in the Act itself.’
Thus, insofar as the provisions of the 1987 Act are ambiguous, guidance can be sought from the 1991 order in the same way as guidance can be sought from a later enactment for the construction of an earlier one: Kirkness (Inspector of Taxes) v John Hudson & Co Ltd [1955] 2 All ER 345, [1955] AC 696.
Other provisions in the 1987 Act
How, then, do provisions such as sub-ss (2) and (6) of s 60 work? I recognise that all the pieces of this statutory jigsaw do not fit neatly together. This, however, does not assist on the point now under consideration. Whatever answer is given on the assignment point, there will be some untidiness within the statute. Section 60(2), for example, has to be made to work in a case where the person entitled to be paid compensation is a beneficiary under a bare trust and not the person who made the deposit. How s 60(2) is to be construed and applied in such a case, or in the equivalent case of an assignment, is a question that need not be decided in the instant case. That question can be left for a future occasion when it gives rise to a live issue.
Not customers
I was pressed with an argument that the assignees were not customers of BCCI. The purpose of the 1987 Act was to provide some protection for persons who had chosen to become customers of the bank and who were accepted by the bank as customers. The 1987 Act was not intended to protect non-customers. I do not think this presentation advances the arguments. To substitute ‘customer’ for ‘depositor’ does not provide an answer on the matters mentioned above.
The legislative history
The parties made submissions based on the legislative antecedents of the Act currently in force. In particular, s 27 of the Protection of Depositors Act 1963 defined ‘depositor’ as ‘a person entitled, or prospectively entitled, to repayment of a deposit, whether made by him or not’. This definition was not carried forward into the later Acts, although both the 1979 Act and the current Act did reproduce some of the provisions regarding depositors which were contained in the 1963 Act.
I shall not pursue these points. They provide little assistance compared with the guidance given by the scheme of the 1987 Act itself.
Conclusion
For these reasons I shall make a declaration to the effect that for the purposes of Pt II of the 1987 Act, an assignee of part of a deposit as defined in s 5 is to be treated as entitled to the assigned part of the deposit and as having made a deposit of an amount equal to that part.
Order accordingly.
Celia Fox Barrister.
AB and others v South West Water Services Ltd
[1993] 1 All ER 609
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: QUANTUM
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, STUART-SMITH AND SIMON BROWN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 2, 3, 16 NOVEMBER 1992
Damages – Exemplary damages – N uisance – Claim in public nuisance against public authority – Statutory water undertaker supplying contaminated drinking water to customers – Water undertaker knowing water to be contaminated – Water undertaker wilfully and deliberately misleading customers by asserting water safe to use and drink – Water undertaker knowing statement to be unfounded – Plaintiffs bringing claim for damages for breach of duty – Whether aggravated or exemplary damages available in claim for nuisance.
The plaintiffs suffered ill effects as the result of drinking contaminated water from the defendant water undertaker’s drinking water system which had been polluted when 20 tonnes of aluminium sulphate were accidently introduced into the system at a water treatment works. The defendants were subsequently prosecuted and convicted for contamination of the water supply for which they, as a statutory water undertaker, were responsible. The plaintiffs brought actions against the defendants claiming damages for, inter alia, breach of statutory duty, for failing to take reasonable care to supply wholesome water, for strict liability for the escape of a dangerous thing, for breach of contract, in nuisance and in negligence. In addition the plaintiffs claimed exemplary and or aggravated damages in respect of the conduct of the defendants, their servants or agents after the date of the pollution, alleging that the defendants, by their servants or agents, who were employees of a statutory body and public servants, had acted in an arrogant and high-handed manner in ignoring the complaints made by their customers, and instead had wilfully and deliberately misled them by sending a circular letter to all customers asserting that the water from the treatment works was of the right alkalinity and was safe to use and drink when that statement was known to be unfounded as no adequate toxicity tests had been carried out. The plaintiffs further alleged that the defendants withheld any accurate or consistent information as to what had happened and as to the state of the water, failed to give any proper information to public health authorities, hospitals, doctors and pharmacists or their own customers as to any precautions that should be taken to minimise the effects of the consumption of contaminated water, failed to close down the water treatment works or provide clean water from an alternative source and instead continued to supply contaminated drinking water with the result that the plaintiffs consumed contaminated water for a longer period and in greater quantities than they would otherwise have done, with a proportionately greater impact on their health. The defendants, who admitted liability for compensatory damages, applied to strike out the claim for exemplary and/or aggravated damages as disclosing no reasonable cause of action, contending that a claim for exemplary damages in the context of an action for damages for personal injuries arising out of breach of common law or statutory duty was not maintainable as a matter of law. The judge refused to strike out the claim for exemplary damages, on the ground that it was arguable that the plaintiffs could recover exemplary and/or aggravated damages for the tort of nuisance. The defendants appealed to the Court of Appeal.
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Held – (1) Since it had been laid down by the House of Lords in 1964 that awards of exemplary damages should be restricted to torts which were recognised at that time as grounding a claim for exemplary damages and, since public nuisance was not such a tort, exemplary damages could not be recovered by a plaintiff for particular damage resulting from public nuisance (see p 620 g, p 621 d to f; p 625 d, p 627 c to f and p 629 d g, post); Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 and Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801 applied.
(2) In any event the plaintiffs could not recover exemplary damages on the facts, since the defendants had not been exercising executive power derived from local or central government when the contaminated water was supplied but had instead been carrying out a commercial operation and there was no evidence that the defendants had knowingly continued the nuisance for the purpose of gaining a pecuniary or other advantage and therefore the case did not fall into either of the two categories for which exemplary damages could be awarded. Moreover, the large number of plaintiffs made the claim unsuitable for the award of exemplary damages. Where a public nuisance affected hundreds or even thousands of plaintiffs the court would be unable to assess the amount of exemplary damages to be awarded to any one of them without knowing at the outset the total award of exemplary damages to punish or deter the defendant, the number of successful plaintiffs and the extent to which they were individually affected by the defendant’s behaviour. Accordingly, the claim for exemplary damages would be struck out (see p 622 h to p 623 b g to p 624 f, p 625 d, p 627 h j, p 628 d e and p 629 d g, post); Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 applied.
(3) Furthermore, the plaintiffs could not claim aggravated damages for their anger and indignation at the defendants’ high-handed conduct because the plaintiffs could only claim compensatory damages, and anger and indignation were not proper subjects for compensatory damages. Accordingly, the claim for aggravated damages would also be struck out (see p 624 h j, p 625 d and p 629 a to d g, post); dictum of Woolf J in Kralj v McGrath [1986] 1 All ER 54 at 61 applied.
Decision of Wright J [1992] 4 All ER 574 reversed.
Notes
For aggravated and exemplary damages, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1189–1190, and for cases on the subject, see 17 Digest (Reissue) 80–82, 11–17.
Cases referred to in judgments
Alexander v Home Office [1988] 2 All ER 118, [1988] 1 WLR 968, CA.
Ashby v White (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938, 92 ER 126; rvsd on other grounds (1704) 1 Bro Parl Cas 62, 1 ER 417, HL.
Bell v Midland Rly Co (1861) 10 CBNS 287, 142 ER 462.
Benson v Frederick (1766) 3 Burr 1845, 97 ER 1130.
Bradford Metropolitan City Council v Arora [1991] 3 All ER 545, [1991] 2 QB 507, [1991] 2 WLR 1377, CA; rvsg [1989] ICR 719, EAT.
Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801, [1972] AC 1027, [1972] 2 WLR 645, HL.
Catnic Components Ltd v Hill & Smith Ltd [1983] FSR 512.
Crouch v Great Northern Rly Co (1856) 11 Exch 742, 156 ER 1031.
Drane v Evangelou [1978] 2 All ER 437, [1978] 1 WLR 455, CA.
Emblen v Myers (1860) 6 H & N 54, 158 ER 23.
Page 611 of [1993] 1 All ER 609
Guppys (Bridport) Ltd v Brookling, Guppys (Bridport) Ltd v James (1983) 14 HLR 1, CA.
Huckle v Money (1763) 2 Wils 205, 95 ER 768.
Kralj v McGrath [1986] 1 All ER 54.
Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303, [1992] 1 AC 448, [1991] 3 WLR 188, HL.
Lonrho plc v Tebbit [1991] 4 All ER 973; affd [1992] 4 All ER 280, CA.
Mafo v Adams [1969] 3 All ER 1404, [1970] 1 QB 548, [1970] 2 WLR 72, CA.
Munro v Ministry of Defence (21 November 1984, unreported), QBD.
Riches v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 845, [1986] QB 256, [1985] 3 WLR 432, CA.
Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129, [1964] 3 WLR 269, HL.
Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330, [1861–73] All ER Rep 1.
Wileman v Minilec Engineering Ltd [1988] ICR 318, EAT.
Wilkes v Wood (1763) Lofft 1, 98 ER 489.
Williams v Currie (1845) 1 CB 841, 135 ER 774.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Alcock v Chief Constable of the South Yorkshire Police [1991] 4 All ER 907, [1992] AC 310, HL.
Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629.
Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v SpA San Giorgio Case 199/82 [1983] ECR 3595.
Archer v Brown [1984] 2 All ER 267, [1985] QB 401.
Barrs v Bethell [1982] 1 All ER 106, [1982] Ch 294.
Bourgoin SA v Ministry of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1985] 3 All ER 585, [1986] QB 716, QBD and CA.
Clark v Urquhart, Stracey v Urquhart [1930] AC 28, HL.
Comet BV v Produktschap voor Siergewassen Case 45/76 [1976] ECR 2043.
Cruise v Terrell [1922] 1 KB 664, [1922] All ER Rep 130, CA.
Davis v Bromley UDC (1903) 67 JP 275, CA.
Devonshire v Jenkins [1978] CA Transcript 283.
Doyle v Olby (Ironmongers) Ltd [1969] 2 All ER 119, [1969] 2 QB 158, CA.
Duke v GEC Reliance Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 626, [1988] AC 618, HL.
EC Commission v Greece Case 68/88 [1989] ECR 2965.
Emmott v Minister for Social Welfare Case C-208/90 [1991] IRLR 387, CJEC.
Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Southport Corp [1954] 2 All ER 561, [1954] 2 QB 182, CA; rvsd in part [1955] 3 All ER 864, [1956] AC 218, HL.
Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport (No 2) Case C-213/89 [1991] 1 All ER 70, [1991] 1 AC 603, CJEC and HL.
Flli Costanzo SpA v Comunedi Milano Case 103/88 [1989] ECR 1839.
Foster v British Gas plc case C-188/89[1990] 3 All ER 897, [1991] 1 QB 405, CJEC; ruling applied [1991] 2 All ER 705, [1991] 2 AC 306, HL.
Garden Cottage Foods Ltd v Milk Marketing Board [1983] 2 All ER 770, [1984] AC 130, HL.
H v Ministry of Defence [1991] 2 All ER 834, [1991] 2 QB 103, CA.
Halsey v Esso Petroleum Co Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 145, [1961] 1 WLR 683.
Hicks v Chief Constable of the South Yorkshire Police [1992] 2 All ER 65, HL.
Holden v Chief Constable of Lancashire [1986] 3 All ER 836, [1987] QB 380, CA.
Joyce v Sengupta (1992) Times, 18 September, CA.
Kenny v Preen [1962] 3 All ER 814, [1963] 1 QB 499, CA.
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Lavender v Betts [1942] 2 All ER 72.
Litster v Forth Dry Dock and Engineering Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 1134, [1990] 1 AC 546, HL.
McCarey v Associated Newspapers Ltd [1964] 3 All ER 947, [1965] 2 QB 86, CA.
McMillan v Singh (1984) 17 HLR 120, CA.
Manson v Associated Newspapers Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 954, [1965] 1 WLR 1038.
Marleasing SA v Comercial Internacional de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135.
Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584, [1986] QB 401, CJEC.
Messenger Newspapers Group Ltd v National Graphical Association (1982) [1984] IRLR 397; affd [1984] 1 All ER 293, CA.
Metall und Rohstoff AG v ACLI Metals (London) Ltd [1984] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 598, CA.
Miles v Cain (25 November 1988, unreported), QBD at Chelmsford; rvsd (1989) Times, 15 December, CA.
Millington v Duffy (1984) 17 HLR 232, CA.
National Enterprises Ltd v Racal Communications Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 1010, [1975] Ch 397, CA.
Perera v Vandiyar [1953] 1 All ER 1109, [1953] 1 WLR 672, CA.
R v Reading Justices, ex p South West Meat Ltd (1991) Times, 18 November, DC.
R v Royal Pharmaceutical Society of GB, ex p Association of Pharmaceutical Importers, R v Secretary of State for Social Services, ex p Association of Pharmaceutical Importers Joined cases 266 and 267/87 [1989] 2 All ER 758, [1990] 1 QB 534, CJEC.
Read v Croydon Corp [1938] 4 All ER 631.
Rewe-Zentralfinanz eG v Landwirtschaftskammer für das Saarland Case 33/76 [1976] ECR 1989.
Robitaille v Vancouver Hockey Club Ltd (1981) 124 DLR (3d) 228, BC CA.
Rook v Fairrie [1941] 1 All ER 297, [1941] 1 KB 507, CA.
Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callaghan [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880, HL.
Sutcliffe v Pressdram Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 269, [1991] 1 QB 153, CA.
Vorvis v Insurance Corp of British Columbia (1989) 58 DLR (4th) 193, Can SC.
W v Meah, D v Meah [1986] 1 All ER 935.
Whitham v Kershaw (1885) 16 QBD 613, [1886–90] All ER Rep 295, CA.
Appeal
By a master statement of claim served on 11 December 1991 following directions made by Wright J on 6 December 1991 that their actions begun by writs should proceed in the form of a group action, some 182 plaintiffs claimed against the defendants, South West Water Services Ltd, a water undertaker within Sch 3 to the Water Act 1945, damages for breach of common law or statutory duty, for strict liability under Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330, [1861–73] All ER Rep 1, for breach of contract, in nuisance and in negligence in respect of personal injury suffered by the plaintiffs as the result of drinking water which had been contaminated at the defendants’ water treatment works at Lowermoor, Camelford in Cornwall when some 20 tonnes of aluminium sulphate were introduced into the drinking water system. By paras 18 to 27 of the statement of claim the plaintiffs claimed aggravated and as exemplary damages, alleging that the defendants, their servants or agents, as servants of the public, had acted arrogantly and in a high-handed manner in ignoring complaints made by their customers, and instead had wilfully and deliberately misled them as to the true state of affairs by sending a circular letter to all customers on or about 14 July 1988 asserting
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that the water from the Lowermoor treatment works was of the right alkalinity and was safe to use and drink when that statement was unfounded and known to be unfounded by the persons making it, as no adequate toxicity tests had in fact been carried out; that until about the middle of August 1988 the defendants withheld any accurate or consistent information as to what had happened and as to the state of the water and failed to give any proper information to public health authorities, hospitals, doctors and pharmacists or their own customers as to any precautions that should be taken to minimise the effects of the consumption of contaminated water; that the defendants failed to close down the water treatment works and provide clean water from an alternative source, and continued to supply drinking water through pipes which had themselves been contaminated by the chemical with the result that the plaintiffs consumed contaminated water for a longer period and in greater quantities than they would have done had they been properly informed what had happened with a proportionately greater impact on their health; and that when the plaintiffs found out the truth in the middle of August 1988 their feelings of indignation were justifiably aroused by the high-handed manner in which the defendants had dealt with the incident. The defendants applied by summons to strike out paras 18 to 27 of the statement of claim containing allegations relating to the claim for aggravated and exemplary damages. The plaintiffs applied by summonses to amend their writs and to add a cause of action for deceit. On 20 March 1992 Wright J ([1992] 4 All ER 574) refused the defendants’ application to strike out paras 18 to 27 of the statement of claim. The defendants appealed with the leave of the judge. The facts are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ.
Christopher Symons QC and Jonathan Nash (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the defendants.
J Melville Williams QC and Charles Pugh (instructed by Pannone Napier, Sheffield, John Whiting & Co, Camelford and Sproulls, Bodmin) for the plaintiffs.
Cur adv vult
16 November 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Thomas Bingham MR). On 6 July 1988 about 20 tonnes of aluminium sulphate was accidentally introduced into the defendants’ drinking water system at their treatment works at Lowermoor, Camelford in Cornwall. The plaintiffs, of whom there are some 180, drank the contaminated water and claim to have suffered a variety of ill effects as a result. Individual writs and the master statement of claim in the group action allege a number of different causes of action based on these facts. It is said that the water supplied was a defective product for which the defendants are liable under s 2(1) of the Consumer Protection Act 1987, that there was a public nuisance for which the defendants were prosecuted and convicted in the Crown Court at Exeter on 8 January 1991 and that the plaintiffs have suffered particular damage. It is alleged that the defendants were in breach of their statutory duty to take all reasonable care to provide a supply of wholesome water, contrary to s 31 of and Sch 3 to the Water Act 1945; they are also said to be liable in negligence, under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330, [1861–73] All ER Rep 1, for breach of contract and finally, for good measure, for breach of Council Directive (EEC) 80/778.
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The defendants have admitted that they are liable for breach of statutory duty in failing to supply wholesome water and admit their liability to pay compensatory damages. But the plaintiffs are not content with that. They allege that they are entitled to exemplary and/or aggravated damages in addition. These claims are made in paras 18 to 27 of the statement of claim and are based on facts alleged to have occurred after the initial contamination on 6 July 1988. The complaints can be summarised as follows: the servants or agents of the defendants as employees of a statutory body acted in an arrogant and high-handed manner in ignoring complaints made by their customers; they wilfully and deliberately misled them as to the true state of affairs by sending a circular letter to all customers on 14 July 1988 asserting that the water from Lowermoor treatment works was of the right alkalinity and was safe to use and drink. The plaintiffs assert that that statement was unfounded and known to be so by the persons making it, as no toxicity tests had in fact been carried out. Thereafter it is alleged that the defendants withheld any accurate or consistent information as to what had happened and as to the state of the water; and they failed to give any proper information to the public health authorities, hospitals, doctors, pharmacists and their own customers as to any precautions that should be taken to minimise the ill effects of drinking the water; they failed to close down the plant and supply fresh water by means of bowsers. In the result the plaintiffs continued to consume the water for longer than they would otherwise have done with proportionately greater damage to their health. Finally, it is said that when they found out the truth of the matter in mid-August their feelings of indignation were justifiably aroused by the high-handed manner in which the defendants dealt with the incident.
The defendants applied pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19 to strike out those allegations contained in paras 18 to 27 of the statement of claim in which those claims for exemplary and aggravated damages are made. Wright J refused to strike them out (see [1992] 4 All ER 574). He did so on the basis that in his opinion it was arguable that the plaintiffs could recover exemplary and/or aggravated damages for the tort of nuisance. He did not accept that any other tort would entitle them to make such a claim. He also gave a very clear warning to the plaintiffs that the mere fact that he did not strike out the claim should not encourage them to think that they were likely to win. He pointed out that they might face very considerable difficulty in establishing the facts said to give rise to such a claim and he drew attention to the fact that the defendants had already been convicted and fined in the lower court, so that on that score the trial court might well think it was not a case for exemplary damages. Mr Symons QC accepted before the judge, as he did before us, that the fact of this conviction and punishment was not of itself an absolute bar to the claim, on the basis that the facts adduced in the Crown Court and upon which sentence was based bore no relation to the plaintiffs’ allegations in paras 18 to 27 of the statement of claim, which of course are strenuously denied by the defendants. I say no more about this concession, without hearing further argument I must not be taken as accepting that it was rightly made. The defendants now appeal that decision.
Before considering the grounds of appeal it is necessary to bear in mind the proper approach of a court in an application to strike out. The pleaded facts must be assumed to be true. It is only in a clear and obvious case, or one that is ‘doomed to fail’, to use the words of Lord Bridge of Harwich in Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303 at 314, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 470, that the court should take this draconian step. Moreover in a developing field of law the court may be reluctant to determine a difficult point of law on the scanty facts pleaded in the statement of claim: see Lonrho plc v Tebbit [1991] 4 All ER 973 per Browne-Wilkinson V-C (whose decision was upheld on appeal: see [1992] 4 All ER 280).
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But in my judgment this is not a developing field of the law. The law has been authoritatively stated in two decisions of the House of Lords, namely Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129 and Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801, [1972] AC 1027. Moreover, even if a point of law is difficult, the court should not shrink from deciding it if it will decide the issues between the parties. I have no doubt that in this case it will be of great benefit to the parties to have the point of law decided one way or the other. If it is decided in favour of the defendants, then the plaintiffs’ cases can be settled on ordinary compensatory principles. If it is decided in favour of the plaintiffs, then the parties will have to proceed to what will be extensive discovery and together with the court decide how the factual issues are to be tried, which will be no easy matter with so many plaintiffs, each seeking exemplary damages.
In relation to the claim for exemplary damages Mr Symons for the defendants advances three main arguments: (1) that nuisance is not a cause of action that can found a claim for exemplary damages; (2) if that submission is wrong, the allegations in this case do not bring the case into either of the categories laid down by Lord Devlin in Rookes v Barnard; (3) that in any event this is not an appropriate case for exemplary damages; it is a claim for damages for personal injuries and bears no resemblance to any case in which exemplary damages have been awarded.
Can a cause of action in nuisance found a claim for exemplary damages? Although this was the only basis on which Wright J held the plaintiffs’ claim was arguable, by a respondent’s notice Mr Melville Williams QC contends that an award can be made on a claim based on negligence or breach of statutory duty. The defendants’ submission was based on the proposition that the combined effect of Rookes v Barnard and Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome is that such a claim must pass two tests. First, it must be in respect of a cause of action for which prior to 1964 such an award had been made and, secondly, that it must fall within one of the two categories identified by Lord Devlin in Rookes v Barnard. If that proposition is correct Mr Symons submits that there is no case prior to 1964 where exemplary damages were awarded for nuisance. The contrary argument is that there is no limitation of exemplary damages to specific torts where they had been awarded prior to 1964 and if there is, then nuisance is such a case.
It is necessary to start with a consideration of Lord Devlin’s speech in Rookes v Barnard, with which all the other members of the House agreed. He explained the nature of exemplary and aggravated damages as follows ([1964] 1 All ER 367 at 407, [1964] AC 1129 at 1221):
‘Exemplary damages are essentially different from ordinary damages. The object of damages in the usual sense of the term is to compensate. The object of exemplary damages is to punish and deter. It may well be thought that this confuses the civil and criminal functions of the law; and indeed, so far as I know, the idea of exemplary damages is peculiar to English law. There is not any decision of this House approving an award of exemplary damages and your Lordships therefore have to consider whether it is open to the House to remove an anomaly from the law of England. It must be remembered that in many cases of tort damages are at large, that is to say, the award is not limited to the pecuniary loss that can be specifically proved. In the present case, for example, and leaving aside any question of exemplary or aggravated damages, the appellant’s damages would not necessarily be confined to those which he would obtain in an action for wrongful dismissal. He can invite the jury to look at all the circumstances, the inconveniences caused to him by the change of job and the unhappiness maybe by a change
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of livelihood. In such a case as this, it is quite proper without any departure from the compensatory principle to award a round sum based on the pecuniary loss proved. Moreover, it is very well established that in cases where the damages are at large the jury (or the judge if the award is left to him) can take into account the motives and conduct of the defendant where they aggravate the injury done to the plaintiff. There may be malevolence or spite or the manner of committing the wrong may be such as to injure the plaintiff’s proper feelings of dignity and pride. These are matters which the jury can take into account in assessing the appropriate compensation. Indeed, when one examines the cases in which large damages have been awarded for conduct of this sort, it is not at all easy to say whether the idea of compensation or the idea of punishment has prevailed.’
He then reviewed Wilkes v Wood (1763) Lofft 1, 98 ER 489, Huckle v Money (1763) 2 Wils 205, 95 ER 768 and Benson v Frederick (1766) 3 Burr 1845, 97 ER 1130. He described them as the type of case where an award of exemplary damages ‘serves a valuable purpose in restraining the arbitrary and outrageous use of executive power’ (see [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 408, [1964] AC 1129 at 1223). They are cases of trespass to property or the person or false imprisonment. He then reviewed a number of other authorities which did not fall into this category. He said ([1964] 1 All ER 367 at 410–411, [1964] AC 1129 at 1225–1227):
‘These authorities convince me of two things. First, that your Lordships could not without a complete disregard of precedent, and indeed of statute, now arrive at a determination that refused altogether to recognise the exemplary principle. Secondly, that there are certain categories of cases in which an award of exemplary damages can serve a useful purpose in vindicating the strength of the law, and thus affording a practical justification for admitting into the civil law, a principle which ought logically to belong to the criminal. I propose to state what these two categories are; and I propose also to state three general considerations which, in my opinion, should always be borne in mind when awards of exemplary damages are being made. I am well aware that what I am about to say will, if accepted, impose limits not hitherto expressed on such awards and that there is powerful, though not compelling, authority for allowing them a wider range. I shall not therefore conclude what I have to say on the general principles of law without returning to the authorities and making it clear to what extent I have rejected the guidance they may be said to afford. The first category is oppressive, arbitrary or unconstitutional action by the servants of the government. I should not extend this category,—I say this with particular reference to the facts of this case,—to oppressive action by private corporations or individuals. Where one man is more powerful than another, it is inevitable that he will try to use his power to gain his ends; and if his power is much greater than the other’s, he might perhaps be said to be using it oppressively. If he uses his power illegally, he must of course pay for his illegality in the ordinary way; but he is not to be punished simply because he is the more powerful. In the case of the government it is different, for the servants of the government are also the servants of the people and the use of their power must always be subordinate to their duty of service. It is true that there is something repugnant about a big man bullying a small man and very likely the bullying will be a source of humiliation that makes the case one for aggravated damages, but it is not in my opinion punishable by damages. Cases in the second category are those in which the defendant’s conduct has been calculated by him to make a profit
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for himself which may well exceed the compensation payable to the plaintiff. I have quoted the dictum of Erle, C.J., in Bell v. Midland Ry. Co. ((1861) 10 CBNS 287 at 304, 142 ER 462 at 469). Maule, J., in Williams v. Currie ((1845) 1 CB 841 at 848, 135 ER 774 at 776–777) suggests the same thing; and so does Martin, B., in an obiter dictum in Crouch v. Great Northern Ry. Co. ((1856) 11 Exch 742 at 759, 156 ER 1031 at 1038). It is a factor also that is taken into account in damages for libel; one man should not be allowed to sell another man’s reputation for profit. Where a defendant with a cynical disregard for a plaintiff’s rights has calculated that the money to be made out of his wrongdoing will probably exceed the damages at risk, it is necessary for the law to show that it cannot be broken with impunity. This category is not confined to moneymaking in the strict sense. It extends to cases in which the defendant is seeking to gain at the expense of the plaintiff some object,—perhaps some property which he covets,—which either he could not obtain at all or not obtain except at a price greater than he wants to put down. Exemplary damages can properly be awarded whenever it is necessary to teach a wrongdoer that tort does not pay. To these two categories, which are established as part of the common law, there must of course be added any category in which exemplary damages are expressly authorised by statute. I wish now to express three considerations which I think should always be borne in mind when awards of exemplary damages are being considered. First, the plaintiff cannot recover exemplary damages unless he is the victim of the punishable behaviour. The anomaly inherent in exemplary damages would become an absurdity if a plaintiff totally unaffected by some oppressive conduct which the jury wished to punish obtained a windfall in consequence.’
It is not in the speech of Lord Devlin that one finds the limitation for which Mr Symons contends, but in the speeches of four of their Lordships in Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801, [1972] AC 1027, namely Lord Hailsham of St Marylebone LC, Lord Diplock, Lord Wilberforce and Lord Kilbrandon, and perhaps also Lord Reid. The Appellate Committee consisted of seven Lords of Appeal, so four constituted a majority. Under the heading ‘Did Rookes v Barnard extend exemplary damages to fresh torts?' Lord Hailsham LC said ([1972] 1 All ER 801 at 828, [1972] AC 1027 at 1076):
‘Having rejected the theory that Lord Devlin’s speech can be pushed aside as having been delivered per incuriam, I hope I may now equally dispose of another misconception. I do not think that he was under the impression either that he had completely rationalised the law of exemplary damages, nor by listing the “categories” was he intending, I would think, to add to the number of torts for which exemplary damages can be awarded. Thus I disagree with the dictum of Widgery LJ in Mafo v Adams [1969] 3 All ER 1404 at 1410, [1970] 1 QB 548 at 558 (which, for this purpose, can be treated as an action for deceit) when he said: “As I understand Lord Devlin’s speech, the circumstances in which exemplary damages may be obtained have been drastically reduced, but the range of offences in respect of which they may be granted has been increased, and I see no reason since Rookes v. Barnard why, when considering a claim for exemplary damages, one should regard the nature of the tort as excluding the claim.” This would be a perfectly logical inference if Lord Devlin imagined that he was substituting a completely rational code by enumerating the categories and stating the considerations. It is true, of course, that actions for deceit could well come within the purview of the second category. But I can see no reason for thinking that
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Lord Devlin intended to extend the category to deceit, and counsel on both sides before us were constrained to say that, though it may be paradoxical, they were unable to find a single case where either exemplary or aggravated damages had been awarded for deceit, despite the fact that contumelious, outrageous, oppressive, or dishonest conduct on the part of the defendant is almost inherently associated with it. The explanation may lie in the close connection that the action has always had with breach of contract (see the discussion in Mayne and MacGregor [Damages (12th edn, 1961) ch 41, esp at para 968]).’
It is plain, in my judgment, that Lord Hailsham LC answers the question posed at the beginning of this section in the negative.
Lord Wilberforce, save on points which he had expressly dealt with, agreed with Lord Hailsham LC (see [1972] 1 All ER 801 at 866, [1972] AC 1027 at 1121). He did not expressly deal with the matter. His reference to ‘the range of torts for which punitive damages may be given (trespass to person or property, false imprisonment and defamation, being the commonest)’ also suggests that he would confine the award to certain specific torts (see [1972] 1 All ER 801 at 860, [1972] AC 1027 at 1114).
Lord Diplock put the matter beyond doubt. He said ([1972] 1 All ER 801 at 874, [1972] AC 1027 at 1130–1131):
‘Finally on this aspect of the case I would express my agreement with the view that Rookes v Barnard was not intended to extend the power to award exemplary or aggravated damages to particular torts for which they had not previously been awarded, such as negligence and deceit. Its express purpose was to restrict, not to expand, the anomaly of exemplary damages.’
Lord Kilbrandon agreed, inter alia, with the speech of Lord Hailsham LC. He delivered an opinion of his own on certain matters but it does not touch upon this point.
Lord Reid, after referring to Rookes v Barnard, said ([1972] 1 All ER 801 at 837, [1972] AC 1027 at 1086):
‘Theoretically we might have held that as purely punitive damages had never been sanctioned by any decision of this House (as to which I shall say more later) there was no right under English law to award them. But that would have been going beyond the proper function of this House. There are many well established doctrines of the law which have not been the subject of any decision by this House. We thought we had to recognise that it had become an established custom in certain classes of case to permit awards of damages which could not be justified as compensatory, and that that must remain the law. But we thought and I still think it well within the province of this House to say that that undesirable anomaly should not be permitted in any class of case where its use was not covered by authority.’
It is not altogether clear from that passage whether Lord Reid is referring to specific causes of action or torts when he refers to classes of cases, or whether possibly he had in mind Lord Devlin’s two categories. I am inclined to think it is the former since he later refers to the categories as such. Moreover he said ([1972] 1 All ER 801 at 837, [1972] AC 1027 at 1087):
‘Critics [of Lord Devlin’s speech] appear to have thought that he was inventing something new. This was not my understanding. We were confronted with an undesirable anomaly. We could not abolish it. We had to choose between confining it strictly to classes of cases where it was firmly
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established, although that produced an illogical result, or permitting it to be extended so as to produce a logical result. In my view it is better in such cases to be content with an illogical result than to allow any extension.’
This seems to me to support the view that Lord Reid would confine it to those torts where authority had previously recognised that exemplary damages could be awarded, since if the claim merely had to fall into one of the two categories this would be a logical extension of the classes of cases in which they could be awarded.
I can find nothing in the speeches of the other members of the House which shows a contrary view. The dicta of the House on this point were obiter; but they are clearly of the highest authority and Mr Melville Williams did not seriously argue that we should not follow them.
In Catnic Components Ltd v Hill & Smith Ltd [1983] FSR 512 at 541 Falconer J held that the plaintiff could not recover exemplary damages for infringement of patent since there was no authority to this effect prior to Rookes v Barnard. It also appears to have been the view of Michael Wright QC (as Wright J then was) sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in Munro v Ministry of Defence (November 1984, unreported).
But in the present case the judge was impressed by a group of cases, two of them decisions of this court, in the field of race and sex discrimination. In Alexander v Home Office [1988] 2 All ER 118 at 123, [1988] 1 WLR 968 at 976 May LJ, in a judgment with which Ewbank J agreed, said:
‘In so far as exemplary damages are concerned, counsel for the plaintiff submitted that in some racial discrimination cases it would be appropriate to award these as well as compensation including aggravated damages. In the instant case, however, exemplary damages were not asked for in the court below and counsel did not ask for an award of such damages from us. Nevertheless, provided that the facts of a given case fall within the principles applicable, in essence those laid down in the two well-known decisions of the House of Lords in Rookes v Barnard and Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome to which I have referred, I see no reason why an award of exemplary damages could not be made in a racial discrimination case.’
This passage is plainly obiter and the point was never argued that such a claim would not lie for a post-1964 tort.
In Wileman v Minilec Engineering Ltd [1988] ICR 318 at 328 Popplewell J said that there might be exceptional cases of sex discrimination where exemplary damages might be awarded; but no award was made in that case. Again this dictum is obiter and the point does not appear to have been argued.
In Bradford Metropolitan City Council v Arora [1991] 3 All ER 545, [1991] 2 QB 507 it was alleged that the council by their officers had discriminated against the claimant both on grounds of sex and race. The industrial tribunal had awarded exemplary damages of £1,000. On appeal to the Employment Appeal Tribunal this award was set aside on the ground that selection of individuals for employment by a local authority did not constitute an exercise of public powers in respect of which exemplary damages could be awarded (see [1989] ICR 719). In other words the case did not come within Lord Devlin’s first category. The Court of Appeal allowed an appeal from this decision and restored the award of exemplary damages. It is important to notice however that the only issue before the court was whether the officers were acting in a private or public capacity: see the argument of Mr Sedley QC [1991] 2 QB 507 at 509) and per Neill LJ ([1991] 3 All ER 545 at 549–550, 552, [1991] 2 QB 507 at 515, 518). The case therefore
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proceeded on the assumption that exemplary damages could be awarded for a statutory tort created after 1964; the point formed no part of the ratio of the case and it is not binding upon us.
Mr Symons also pointed out that relevant sections of the Sex Discrimination Act 1975 (namely ss 63, 65(1)(b), (2) and (3) and s 66(4)) and the Race Relations Act 1976 (ss 54, 56 and 57, which are in similar terms to the 1975 Act) appear to authorise the award only of compensatory damages. This point does not seem to have been argued in any of the three cases to which I have referred.
Wright J was also influenced by the decision of this court in Guppys (Bridport) Ltd v Brookling, Guppys (Bridport) Ltd v James (1983) 14 HLR 1. That was a case where the landlords attempted to reconstruct flats. The course of reconstruction caused serious disruption to two tenants, Mr Brookling and Mr James, who occupied two separate rooms and, in breach of an undertaking to the court, washing and sanitary facilities were disconnected and discontinued and the electricity cut off. The county court judge awarded the defendants damages for trespass including £1,000 exemplary damages. The Court of Appeal upheld the award. Stephenson LJ (with whose judgment Sir David Cairns agreed) held that the evidence of trespass was thin, as there was little evidence of direct interference with the rooms occupied by the defendants; but the tort of nuisance had been committed. He said (at 32):
‘Drane v Evangelou ([1978] 2 All ER 437, [1978] 1 WLR 455) shows that exemplary damages are available to a tenant who is treated monstrously by a landlord where the case can be, and is, put in trespass. I would hold that it can also be available to a tenant where he can only, if that is his case, put his case in nuisance. So I would allow the court to consider nuisance as a ground of the plaintiffs’ liability, and accordingly to go on to consider whether the case is one for exemplary damages, as the learned judge thought.’
Once again the point was not argued that it was not open to the court to award exemplary damages for nuisance because there was no case of such an award before Rookes v Barnard. It seems to have been assumed that such an award could be made because the circumstances were very akin to trespass and the case clearly fell within Lord Devlin’s second category.
Accordingly, in my judgment there is no binding authority of this court which compels us to disregard the dicta of the House of Lords in Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome to which I have referred. And accordingly I would hold that before an award of exemplary damages can be made by any court or tribunal the tort must be one in respect of which such an award was made prior to 1964.
Before I consider specifically whether nuisance was such a tort, I propose to deal shortly with the respondent’s notice in which it is contended that exemplary damages can be awarded for negligence and breach of statutory duty created post-1964. The only case of negligence on which Mr Melville Williams relied was Emblen v Myers (1860) 6 H & N 54, 158 ER 23. It does not assist the plaintiffs; it was regarded as a case of trespass by Lord Devlin for which aggravated and not exemplary damages were awarded: see Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 408, 412, [1964] AC 1129 at 1223, 1229. The statutory duty relied upon in this case is created by the Consumer Protection Act 1987 and the Water Act 1945; in the former case there could not have been, and in the latter case there was not, an award of exemplary damages before 1964.
Nuisance, unlike negligence and deceit, was not a tort specifically referred to by their Lordships in Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome. The question therefore whether or not exemplary damages were awarded for nuisance prior to 1964 depends on a
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proper view of Bell v Midland Rly Co (1861) 10 CBNS 287, 142 ER 462. The plaintiff had a statutory right to connect up railway tracks from his wharf to the defendants’ line and to run waggons from his wharf on those lines. The defendants had built their own wharf and had blocked the plaintiff’s access to the lines so that his tenants could not get their goods out and had in consequence left and gone to the defendants’ wharf. The blockage occurred on the defendants’ land. The plaintiff therefore had a statutory right of access which was akin to an easement or right of way. In breach of their statutory duty to allow access the defendants had blocked it. Wrongful interference with a right of way is a nuisance; and I think Bell’s case may properly be regarded as a case of nuisance; but I do not find it necessary to decide the point, because I am quite satisfied that, if exemplary damages are to be awarded for nuisance, such awards should be confined to those cases of private nuisance where there is deliberate and wilful interference with the plaintiff’s rights of enjoyment of land where the defendant has calculated that the profit or benefit for him will exceed the damages he may have to pay. The Guppys (Bridport) Ltd case is an excellent example of this. Where there has been a public nuisance, a plaintiff who can show particular damage can sue in tort. But it is an entirely different class of case; there is no conduct deliberately and wilfully aimed at the plaintiffs as individuals. There is no case prior to 1964 of exemplary damages being awarded to a plaintiff who proved particular damage resulting from a public nuisance; and I would not extend the remedy to such a case. The essence of public nuisance is that the defendant’s conduct is unlawful and a crime in that his act or omission endangers the life, health, property, morals or comfort of the public or obstructs the public in the exercise or enjoyment of a right common to all Her Majesty’s subjects; the public includes a class of the public. It is only actionable as a civil wrong when a private individual has suffered particular damage other than and beyond the general inconvenience and injury suffered by the public. In private nuisance, on the other hand, the conduct of the defendant which results in the nuisance is of itself not necessarily or usually unlawful. A private nuisance—
‘may be and usually is caused by a person doing on his own land something which he is lawfully entitled to do. His conduct only becomes a nuisance when the consequences of his acts are not confined to his own land but extend to the land of his neighbour by (1) causing an encroachment on his neighbour’s land, when it closely resembles trespass, (2) causing physical damage to his neighbour’s land or building or works or vegetation upon it, or (3) unduly interfering with his neighbour in the comfortable and convenient enjoyment of his land.’ (See Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) p 1356, para 24–03.)
If I am wrong in concluding that exemplary damages cannot be awarded where the claim is based on particular damage flowing from public nuisance, does the case fall within either of Lord Devlin’s two categories? It is not clear from the judge’s judgment into which of the two categories he thought this case fell or whether he thought it fell into both, since he does not expressly deal with the point. By implication he must have held that it was in one or other or both.
The first category is ‘oppressive, arbitrary or unconstitutional action by the servants of the government’. It is common ground that this category of persons is not limited to the servants of central government, but includes servants of local government and the police.
In Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801 at 829–830, [1972] AC 1027 at 1077–1078 Lord Hailsham LC said:
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‘… I would be surprised if it included only servants of the government in the strict sense of the word. It would, in my view, obviously apply to the police … and almost as certainly to local and other officials exercising improperly rights of search or arrest without warrant, and it may be that in the future it will be held to include other abuses of power without warrant by persons purporting to exercise legal authority.’
Lord Reid said ([1972] 1 All ER 801 at 838, [1972] AC 1027 at 1087–1088):
‘With regard to the first I think that the context shows that the category was never intended to be limited to Crown servants. The contrast is between “the government” and private individuals. Local government is as much government as national government, and the police and many other persons are exercising governmental functions. It was unnecessary in Rookes v Barnard to define the exact limits of the category. I should certainly read it as extending to all those who by common law or statute are exercising functions of a governmental character.’
Lord Wilberforce said ([1972]1 All ER 801 at 865, [1972] AC 1027 at 1120):
‘There is not perhaps much difficulty about category 1; it is well based on the cases and on a principle stated in 1703—“if public officers will infringe men’s rights, they ought to pay greater damages than other men to deter and hinder others from the like offences” (Ashby v White (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938 at 956, 92 ER 126 at 137 per Holt CJ). Excessive and insolent use of power is certainly something against which citizens require as much protection today; a wide interpretation of “government” which I understand your Lordships to endorse would correspond with Holt CJ’s “public officers” and would partly correspond with modern needs.’ (Lord Wilberforce’s emphasis.)
Lord Diplock said of the first category ([1972] 1 All ER 801 at 873, [1972] AC 1027 at 1130):
‘It would embrace all persons purporting to exercise powers of government, central or local, conferred on them by statute or at common law by virtue of the official status or employment which they held.’
In the court below Mr Symons had conceded that the defendants’ servants might be within the first category. However before us he sought and was granted leave to withdraw the concession. At the time of these events the defendants were a nationalised body set up under statute for a commercial purpose, namely the supply of water. They have since been privatised, but carry on essentially the same functions. Although it is conceivable that governmental functions could be delegated or entrusted to a nationalised industry with appropriate powers to carry out such functions, perhaps for example with powers of entry and search, I do not think it can possibly be argued that the defendants’ servants or agents were performing such a function in this case. A serious mishap had occurred in the course of the defendants’ commercial operations, their reaction to it was open to serious criticism if the allegations in the statement of claim are true, as they must be assumed to be for the purpose of this case. But their conduct was not an exercise of executive power derived from government, central or local, and no amount of rhetoric describing it as arbitrary, oppressive, unconstitutional, arrogant or high-handed makes it so. It would have been no different if the defendants had already been privatised and their servants were answerable to a board of directors and the shareholders rather than a board set up under statute.
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Mr Melville Williams sought to argue that, since the defendants could properly be regarded as an ‘emanation of the state’ for the purpose of direct enforcement of EEC Directives, it followed that the defendants’ servants were exercising executive power as government servants when performing their function of supplying water, the subject matter of Council Directive (EEC) 80/778.
I hope I do no injustice to the argument, which I found difficult to follow. There seems to me to be no logical nexus between the premise and the conclusion. I cannot see that it is arguable that the case falls within the first category.
Lord Devlin’s second category includes those cases in which the defendant’s conduct has been calculated by him to make a profit for himself which may well exceed the compensation payable to the plaintiff. This category is not confined to money-making in the strict sense. It extends to cases in which the defendant is seeking to gain some object at the expense of the plaintiff which either he could not properly or lawfully gain at all or which he could only get at a price in excess of what he is prepared to pay. The cases of harassment of tenants in order to obtain possession of premises are a good example of this.
The relevant allegation in the statement of claim on which this claim is based is para 26, which is in these terms:
‘The plaintiffs will, in the alternative, seek exemplary damages under the second limb of Rookes v Barnard, namely that the defendants conduct after 6th July 1988 was calculated by them to make a profit for themselves which may well exceed that payable to the plaintiffs. As to the particulars hereunder the plaintiffs aver that such a motive can properly be inferred from the matters hereinbefore set out in paragraphs 19–24 inclusive.’
In my judgment this paragraph is totally lacking in particularity and is little more than an incantation of Lord Devlin’s second category.
In argument Mr Melville Williams submitted that the following propositions could be derived from the matters pleaded in paras 19 to 24 which I have earlier summarised: (1) that there was a deliberate decision to continue the nuisance by supplying impure water; (2) a recognition that that decision might involve the defendants in the payment of damages; (3) an inference that the defendants made a judgment that it would pay in a wide sense to commit the tort and pay damages.
He submitted that it was sufficient that there was some economic advantage and he suggested that what he described as the preservation of economic or managerial reputation in the view of impending privatisation might be enough. I can see that steps (1) and (2) may be arguable. But I have great difficulty with step (3). The essence of the second category is that the tort is knowingly committed for the purpose of gaining some pecuniary or other advantage. The award is to show that tort does not pay. It cannot possibly be said that the defendants continued the nuisance for this purpose. In my judgment what the allegation amounts to is an attempt by the defendants to cover up the fact that they had committed a tort. That may be reprehensible but not uncommon conduct. The object of such conduct may well be to limit the amount of damages payable to the victim, but that is an entirely different concept from that involved in the second category. In my judgment the case does not fall within either of the two categories for which exemplary damages are awarded.
Finally, Mr Symons submitted that, even if the claim survived the first two arguments, which in my view it does not, this is not a case in which exemplary damages can be awarded, it being essentially an action for damages for personal injuries caused by breach of statutory duty and negligence. For my part I doubt
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whether this submission really adds very much. If the case does not get through the first two hoops, it plainly is not a case for exemplary damages.
There is however one aspect of the case which in my view makes it peculiarly unsuitable for an award of exemplary damages, even if the first two hoops are negotiated, and that is the number of plaintiffs. Unless all their claims are quantified by the court at the same time, how is the court to fix and apportion the punitive element of the damages? Should the court fix a global sum of £x and divide it by 180, equally among the plaintiffs? Or should it be divided according to the gravity of the personal injury suffered? Some plaintiffs may have been affected by the alleged oppressive, arbitrary, arrogant and high-handed behaviour, others not. If the assessment is made separately at different times for different plaintiffs, how is the court to know that the overall punishment is appropriate? The point was touched on in Riches v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 845 at 856, [1986] QB 256 at 277 in the judgment of Stephenson LJ. That was a libel case with ten plaintiffs where a very large sum had been awarded as exemplary damages; the judge had not directed the jury how they were to deal with the problem of a number of plaintiffs. Stephenson LJ commented that the problem ‘furnishes yet another complication engendered by the survival of the right to exemplary damages and another argument in favour of abolishing the right’.
In the present case there is the further complication to which I have already referred of the conviction and fine of the defendants. These problems persuade me that there would be a serious risk of injustice to the defendants in this case if an award of exemplary damages were to be made against them. There is no injustice to the plaintiffs in refusing to permit such an award; they are not foregoing compensation to which they are entitled, but an additional windfall based solely on the defendants’ alleged improper conduct.
For all these reasons therefore I would strike out the claim to exemplary damages.
I turn to the claim for aggravated damages. This is made in para 27 of the statement of claim and is as follows:
‘Further, the plaintiffs will seek aggravated damages on the basis that their feelings of indignation were justifiably aroused by the highhanded manner in which the defendants dealt with the incident, as set out in paragraphs 19–24 inclusive and, further, they continued to drink the water for longer than would have been the case had the defendants reacted promptly, frankly and efficiently.’
I have already cited the passage from the speech of Lord Devlin where he explains what aggravated damages are. In my judgment if the plaintiffs experienced greater or more prolonged pain and suffering because the nuisance continued for longer than it should have done or they drank more contaminated water with ill effect that is a matter for which they are entitled to be compensated by way of general damages.
Likewise, if uncertainty as to the true position caused by the defendants’ lack of frankness following the initial incident led to real anxiety and distress, that is an element for which they are entitled to compensation under general damages for suffering. But anger and indignation is not a proper subject for compensation; it is neither pain nor suffering. Kralj v McGrath [1986] 1 All ER 54 was a claim for damages for personal injury resulting from medical negligence. There was a claim for aggravated damages on the basis that the plaintiff had been subject to outrageous treatment at the defendant’s hands in the course of childbirth. Woolf J said (at 61):
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‘It is my view that it would be wholly inappropriate to introduce into claims of this sort, for breach of contract and negligence, the concept of aggravated damages. If it were to apply in this situation of a doctor not treating a patient in accordance with his duty, whether under contract or in tort, then I would consider that it must apply in other situations where a person is under a duty to exercise care. It would be difficult to see why it could not even extend to cases where [actions for] damages are brought for personal injuries in respect of driving. If the principle is right, a higher award of damages would be appropriate in a case of reckless driving which caused injury than would be appropriate in cases where careless driving caused identical injuries. Such a result seems to me to be wholly inconsistent with the general approach to damages in this area, which is to compensate the plaintiff for the loss that she has actually suffered, so far as it is possible to do so, by the award of monetary compensation and not to treat those damages as being a matter which reflects the degree of negligence or breach of duty of the defendant.’
I agree. Accordingly, I would strike out para 27 of the statement of claim.
SIMON BROWN LJ. I agree.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. A defendant accused of crime may ordinarily be ordered (if convicted) to pay a financial penalty. In such a case he will enjoy the constitutional safeguards afforded to defendants in criminal cases, which may include trial by jury, and the sum he is ordered to pay is received by the state, not (even in the case of a private prosecution) by the prosecutor. In a civil case, arising out of a civil wrong (whether or not it is also a crime), the defendant may be ordered to pay damages. In the ordinary way, damages bear no resemblance to a criminal penalty. The damages awarded to a plaintiff will be such as will compensate him for the loss he has suffered as a result of the wrong, so far as money can. The court looks to the extent of the plaintiff’s loss, not to the quality of the defendant’s conduct. Since the damages are awarded to compensate the plaintiff they are of course paid to him.
Exemplary (or, as they were once revealingly called, punitive) damages cut across this simple distinction. They are awarded in civil cases, so that the defendant does not enjoy the safeguards afforded to defendants in criminal cases including, save in a small minority of cases, trial by jury. They are paid to the plaintiff, not the state. But they are not paid to compensate the plaintiff, who will be fully compensated by the ordinary measure of damages. They are paid to punish or deter the defendant, to mark the disapproval which his conduct has provoked. For the plaintiff such damages represent a bonus, an addition to the sum needed to compensate him fully for the loss he has suffered as a result of the wrong done to him.
In his leading speech on this topic in Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129 Lord Devlin recognised the law on exemplary damages as anomalous. But he (and the other members of the House, all of whom agreed with him) did not think it open to them to refuse to recognise the exemplary principle and in any event held that there were certain classes of case in which it served a valuable purpose. So the House ruled that awards of exemplary damages should not be abolished but should be curtailed or restricted. The view which the House of Lords adopted was not an inevitable one. It has been the subject of
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academic criticism and judicial reservation in this country, and courts in the Commonwealth and the United States have taken a more expansive view. But the conclusion of the House did not lack a compelling rationale, and that the House did intend to curtail or restrict awards of exemplary damages is not in my opinion open to doubt. It is the extent of that curtailment or restriction which raises the first, and major, issue in this appeal.
In his speech Lord Devlin was not, as I understand him, concerned to identify certain causes of action which could and others which could not properly ground claims for exemplary damages. His focus was not on causes of action at all. Rather, his concern was to identify those elements which had been present in claims which had led to awards of exemplary damages in the past and which served to justify retention of the principle. Statute apart, he identified two such elements giving rise to two categories or classes of case.
In the first category there had been what he variously described as an ‘arbitrary and outrageous use of executive power’ and ‘oppressive, arbitrary or unconstitutional action by the servants of the government’ (see [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 408, 410, [1964] AC 1129 at 1223, 1226). Minute textual analysis of these expressions is inappropriate. This was a judgment, not a statute. But there can be no doubt what Lord Devlin was speaking about. It was gross misuse of power, involving tortious conduct, by agents of government. According to the traditional classification of the law of tort, such misuse of power could give rise to any one of a number of causes of action, which Lord Devlin was not at pains to identify.
The second category covered cases in which the defendant had acted tortiously on a calculation that the economic benefits to him of his unlawful conduct would outweigh any compensation he might be liable to pay the injured party. The rationale underlying this category was clearly stated ([1964] 1 All ER 367 at 411, [1964] AC 1129 at 1227): ‘Exemplary damages can properly be awarded whenever it is necessary to teach a wrongdoer that tort does not pay.’ This again suggests that it was the quality of the conduct complained of rather than the cause of action pleaded which governed the right to claim exemplary damages.
Lord Devlin’s speech in Rookes v Barnard was the subject of detailed exegesis by an enlarged Appellate Committee of the House of Lords in Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801, [1972] AC 1027.
It appears to me that Lord Hailsham LC in his speech held or at least assumed that it was not enough for a claim in tort to fall within one or other of Lord Devlin’s categories unless it was also founded on a cause of action recognised as grounding a claim for exemplary damages before Rookes v Barnard. This assumption must, I think, underlie his view that Lord Devlin did not intend his second category to extend to claims in deceit, although ‘actions for deceit could well come within the purview of the second category’. I think it must also underlie his views that ‘the second category was ample to cover any form of injury committed within the scope of those torts for which … exemplary damages may be awarded’ and that exemplary damages might have been awarded in Mafo v Adams [1969] 3 All ER 1404, [1970] 1 QB 548 if it had been shown that the defendant was actuated by hope of gain ‘and if the action had been one of trespass’ (see [1972] 1 All ER 801 at 828, 831, [1972] AC 1027 at 1076, 1079–1080).
Lord Reid may have had the same idea in mind when holding it undesirable that the anomaly of exemplary damages should be permitted ‘in any class of case where its use was not covered by authority’ (see [1972] 1 All ER 801 at 837, [1972] AC 1027 at 1086).
The principle that exemplary damages may be awarded for some torts (falling into the two classes) but not others is, I think, explicit in the speech of
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Lord Wilberforce when he referred to ‘the range of torts for which punitive damages may be given (trespass to person or property, false imprisonment and defamation, being the commonest)’ (see [1972] 1 All ER 801 at 860, [1972] AC 1027 at 1114). He also expressed general agreement with Lord Hailsham LC.
Lord Diplock dealt with this aspect as follows ([1972] 1 All ER 801 at 874, [1972] AC 1027 at 1130–1131):
‘Finally, on this aspect of the case I would express my agreement with the view that Rookes v Barnard was not intended to extend the power to award exemplary … damages to particular torts for which they had not previously been awarded, such as negligence and deceit. Its express purpose was to restrict, not to expand, the anomaly of exemplary damages.’
Lord Kilbrandon agreed with the speeches of Lord Hailsham LC and Lord Reid.
I cannot pretend to find the answer at all clear, but I incline to think that a majority of the House regarded an award of exemplary damages as permissible only where (a) a case fell within one or other of Lord Devlin’s categories and (b) was founded on a tort for which exemplary damages had been awarded before Rookes v Barnard. This may involve a misreading of their Lordships’ speeches in Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome, but I think it is the basis upon which the Court of Appeal should, until corrected, proceed.
If it is correct to import a cause of action test, this court is bound to hold that the plaintiffs’ claims in negligence cannot found a claim for exemplary damages even if they fall within one or other of Lord Devlin’s categories. Our attention has been drawn to no negligence claim leading to such an award before 1964 (or, I think, since). By contrast, I understand Bell v Midland Rly Co (1861) 10 CBNS 287, 142 ER 462, in which damages described as exemplary were awarded, to have been founded in private nuisance, possibly in addition to other causes of action. More recently, in Guppys (Bridport) Ltd v Brookling, Guppys (Bridport) Ltd v James (1983) 14 HLR 1 the Court of Appeal upheld an award of damages for private nuisance, although the present issue was not raised or addressed.
It does not, however, appear that there has ever, before Rookes v Barnard or since, been an award of exemplary damages for public nuisance. In one sense, public nuisance is private nuisance writ large. But there are significant differences. First, the causing of a public nuisance in a number of its forms is a crime (and a crime for which, in this case, the defendants were prosecuted) which a private nuisance will rarely, if ever, be. I describe this difference as significant because Lord Devlin in Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 412, [1964] AC 1129 at 1230 regarded conduct falling within his two categories as not ordinarily falling within the criminal law. He would plainly have regarded the award of exemplary damages as even more anomalous in cases where the conduct in question already attracted the sanctions of the criminal law. Secondly, a public nuisance may lead to numerous complainants, which a private nuisance will not. I describe this difference as significant because it highlights an obvious and intractable difficulty: in the case of a public nuisance affecting hundreds or even thousands of plaintiffs, how can the court assess the sum of exemplary damages to be awarded to any one of them to punish or deter the defendant without knowing at the outset the number of successful plaintiffs and the approximate size of the total bill for exemplary damages which the defendant must meet? If, as I think, a claim in public nuisance falls foul of the cause of action test, assuming there is one, these seem to me good reasons for holding that it will not support an award of exemplary damages.
It is, however, necessary to consider whether the plaintiffs’ claims for exemplary
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damages, if otherwise good on the facts as pleaded, fall within one or other or both of Lord Devlin’s two categories.
In contending that the facts pleaded bring the case within the first category (abuse of power), the plaintiffs naturally relied on Lord Hailsham LC’s broad approach in considering what bodies might count as ‘emanations of government’ for purposes of this principle (see Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801 at 829, [1972] AC 1027 at 1077). The defendants were at first prepared to accept, as they did before the judge, that they were a body falling within the category although, at the prompting of the court, they qualified that concession. I do not for my part find it helpful, in considering whether they fall within the rule or not, to inquire whether they are a body whose decisions are judicially reviewable in public law, or whether they are a body through which the United Kingdom performs its obligations in Community law. We are here concerned with a judge-made principle of domestic private law, devised to address a particular problem, and other rules arising in different contexts seem to me to have little bearing. If the defendants’ conduct was as pleaded, as we must for present purposes assume, it was highly reprehensible, but the conduct complained of was quite unlike the abuses of power which Lord Devlin had in mind and I cannot regard the defendants, for any purposes relevant to these claims, as wielding executive or governmental power. They were a publicly owned utility acting as monopoly supplier of a necessary commodity, enjoying certain statutory powers and subject to certain obligations, but they were not acting as an instrument or agent of government. I regard this case as falling well outside the first category.
The plaintiffs have not in my opinion pleaded a claim arguably falling within the second category either. It is true that the defendants’ conduct is said, in para 26 of the master statement of claim, to have been ‘calculated by them to make a profit for themselves which may well exceed that payable to the plaintiffs’. This is plainly directed towards establishing a second category claim. But it is, as it stands, bare assertion, and for particulars of the facts from which the necessary motive can be inferred reference is made to paras 19 to 24. Paragraph 19 pleads that the defendants misunderstood the gravity of the contamination. It is thus inconsistent with the calculation inherent in second category cases. Paragraphs 20, 21 and 23, suggesting that the public and the health authorities were denied information and given misinformation, give no particulars of how, or why, or by whom on their behalf, the defendants judged these tortious acts to be economically advantageous. Paragraphs 22 and 23 allege that the defendants deliberately allowed the public to consume water which the defendants knew to be contaminated, with a proportionately greater and more widespread injury to health, but again give no particulars of how, or why, or by whom on their behalf, the defendants judged these tortious acts to be economically advantageous. The paragraphs referred to do not in my opinion contain facts from which the necessary inference could be drawn. The plaintiffs say that when they obtain discovery they will either obtain material to support the allegation or they will drop it. That is not in my view a correct approach. Unless the plaintiffs already have enough material to plead a plausible (even if incomplete) case, the pleading should not be allowed to stand. It is not permissible to plead a bare assertion in the hope that material to support it will turn up on discovery.
I turn, lastly, to the claim in para 27 of the master statement of claim for aggravated damages. The plaintiffs are of course entitled to be fully compensated for all they suffered as a direct result of the defendants’ admitted breach of duty. The ordinary measure of compensatory damages will cover all they have suffered as a result of that breach, physically, psychologically and mentally. Full account will be taken of the distress and anxiety which such an event necessarily causes.
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To the extent that any of these effects was magnified or exacerbated by the defendants’ conduct, the ordinary measure of damages will compensate. The question is whether, in addition to that full compensatory measure, the plaintiffs have pleaded a sustainable claim for additional compensation by way of aggravated damages. This is claimed in para 27 on the basis that the plaintiffs’ feelings of indignation were aroused by the defendants’ high-handed way of dealing with the incident. I know of no precedent for awarding damages for indignation aroused by a defendant’s conduct. Defamation cases in which a plaintiff’s damages are increased by the defendant’s conduct of the litigation (as by aggressive cross-examination of the plaintiff or persistence in a groundless plea of justification) are not in my view a true exception, since injury to the plaintiff’s feelings and self-esteem is an important part of the damage for which compensation is awarded. In very many other tort actions (and, for that matter, actions in contract, boundary disputes, partnership actions and other disputes) the plaintiff is indignant at the conduct of the defendant (or his insurers). An award of damages does not follow; nor, in my judgment should it, since this is not damage directly caused by the defendant’s tortious conduct and this is not damage which the law has ever recognised.
Despite the learned judge’s thoughtful and thorough judgment, I have in the end reached a different view and concluded that paras 18 to 27 of the master statement of claim should be struck out. But I agree with his conclusion that in the special circumstances of this case it is appropriate to decide the issues of law raised by these paragraphs at this early stage. Ordinarily, I would prefer to wait until the facts had been investigated. The issues of law might not then arise. If they did, they could be decided on the reality of established facts and not the hypothesis of assumed facts. I am persuaded that here the legal decision should not await investigation of the facts, for three reasons. (1) The defendants having admitted liability, the parties wish to settle but cannot do so while they continue to differ on the appropriate measure of damage. It is desirable that they should be guided on the appropriate measure to facilitate the negotiation of early settlements. (2) Discovery relevant to these issues is likely to be a laborious, costly and time-consuming process. If the issues do not arise, it is undesirable that the process be embarked upon. (3) The full trial of even one test case (with the attendant appeals) would be costly and would delay resolution of all the other claims. Both cost and delay are better avoided.
I therefore conclude that this court would be failing in its duty if it did not grasp the nettle and give its answer to these legal problems.
For these reasons, as well as those which Stuart-Smith LJ has given, I would allow the defendants’ appeal.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Frances Rustin Barrister.
Re Jokai Tea Holdings Ltd
[1993] 1 All ER 630
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR NICOLAS BROWNE-WILKINSON V-C, PARKER LJ AND SIR JOHN MEGAW
Hearing Date(s): 30, 31 JANUARY, 1, 15 FEBRUARY 1989
Practice – Order – ‘Unless’ orders and other peremptory orders – Non-compliance with ‘unless’ order – Consequences – Non-compliance with order striking out claim or defence unless act done within specified time – Whether pleading should be struck out if failure to comply with ‘unless’ order not contumacious.
Where the court has to decide what consequences should follow from non-compliance with an order that a pleading be struck out unless further and better particulars are served within a specified time, the relevant question is whether such failure to comply with the ‘unless’ order is intentional and contumacious. The court should not be astute to find excuses for such failure since obedience to peremptory orders of the court is the foundation of its authority, but, if the non-complying party can clearly demonstrate that there was no intention to ignore or flout the order and that the failure to obey was due to extraneous circumstances, the failure ought not to be treated as contumacious and ought not to disentitle him to rights which he would otherwise have enjoyed (see p 636 f, p 637 d, p 639 j and p 641 b c e h, post).
Janov v Morris [1981] 3 All ER 780 considered.
Notes
For ‘unless’ orders, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 32, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 200-202, 1319-1336.
Cases referred to in judgments
Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, [1968] 2 WLR 366, CA.
Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297, [1977] 3 WLR 38, CA and HL.
Janov v Morris [1981] 3 All ER 780, [1981] 1 WLR 1389, CA.
Samuels v Linzi Dresses Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 803, [1981] QB 115, [1980] 2 WLR 836, CA.
Tolley v Morris [1979] 2 All ER 561, [1979] 1 WLR 592, HL.
Cases also cited
Husband’s of Marchwood Ltd v Drummond Walker Developments Ltd [1975] 2 All ER 30, [1975] 1 WLR 603, CA.
Snell v Unity Finance Co Ltd [1963] 3 All ER 50, [1964] 2 QB 203, CA.
Interlocutory appeal
The defendants, Jokai Tea Holdings Ltd (Jokai) and Frendial Ltd, appealed from the decision of Mervyn Davies J given on 4 February 1988 whereby he gave judgment for the plaintiffs, Punjab National Bank (the bank), where principal place of business was in New Delhi, India in its action seeking rectification of the register of members of Jokai by striking out Frendial as the holder of 999 ordinary shares of 1p each and 1,484,251 deferred ordinary shares of 70p each in Jokai and substituting the name of the bank as the holder of the shares, and ordered rectification of the register as sought, on the grounds that the defendants had
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failed to comply with an order made by Mr Registrar Scott on 9 November 1987 ordering the defendants to serve further and better particulars of their defence within 56 days in default of which the points of defence should be struck out and the bank should be at liberty to apply for judgment. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Nicolas Browne-Wilkinson V-C.
Allan Heyman QC and Daniel Serota (instructed by D J Freeman & Co) for the defendants.
J M Chadwick QC and Mark Phillips (instructed by Slaughter & May) for the bank.
Cur adv vult
15 February 1989. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR NICOLAS BROWNE-WILKINSON V-C. In this case Punjab National Bank (the bank) seek an order against Jokai Tea Holdings Ltd (Jokai) and Frendial Ltd (Frendial) for the rectification of the register of members of Jokai by striking out Frendial as the holder of 999 ordinary shares of 1p each and 1,484,251 deferred ordinary shares of 70p each in Jokai and by inserting the name of the bank as the holder of the shares.
Although the questions for our decision are procedural, to understand them it is necessary to refer in outline to the complicated background facts. Esal (Commodities) Ltd (Esal) is a United Kingdom company. The moving spirits behind Esal were two brothers, Rajendra and Ranjit Sethia. Esal went into liquidation on 7 November 1984 with an estimated deficiency of some £200m. The joint liquidators of Esal are Mr Weiss and Mr Jordan, both of whom are partners in Messrs Cork Gully.
Before the liquidation of Esal, the bank acted as one of its bankers. Most of the dealings were between Esal and the London office of the bank. The bank has lodged proofs for debt in the liquidation of Esal at a figure of approximately £92m. There is substantial evidence that Rajendra Sethia was guilty of fraud. One employee of the bank has been convicted of falsification of documents relating to Esal. The former manager of the London office of the bank has been charged in India with offences relating to Esal’s accounts but not, so we understand, offences relating to the particular transactions in question in this case. There is substantial evidence that the bank’s documents at the London office are suspect and that information relating to the affairs of Esal was suppressed by the London office of the bank in its dealings with the head office of the bank in India.
The particular transactions in question in these proceedings are as follows. Esal had a subsidiary, Shadereed Ltd (Shadereed). On 20 May 1981 Shadereed acquired all the shares in Frendial for £3.65m. Frendial had a subsidiary, Jokai. Jokai in turn had a subsidiary, Jokai India Ltd, which owned and conducted a tea plantation in India, the present value of which is estimated at between $US30 and $US35m. The purchase of the shares in Frendial was financed by Esal, who for that purpose borrowed $US6.241m from the bank. The method by which that borrowing took place was complex, possibly deliberately. On 16 September 1981 Frendial (the company whose shares had been bought in May of that year) entered into a guarantee securing to the bank the repayment of $US6.25m loaned to Esal. That guarantee was secured by a charge granted by Frendial on the shares in Jokai (the 1981 charge). By a further charge carrying the date 27 January 1984 Frendial granted a further charge over the same shares in favour of the bank to secure further lending to Esal (the 1984 charge).
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By these proceedings, the bank, as mortgagee, seeks to secure its registration as the holder of the shares. In the past, there has been much confusion as to whether Shadereed held the shares in Frendial beneficially or (as the Sethia brothers alleged) as nominees for them personally. Though little is clear in this confused case, it does now seem that it is accepted that Shadereed holds the shares in Frendial beneficially and that accordingly, indirectly, the Indian tea plantation is one of the few valuable assets available to the liquidators of Esal, subject to the claim of the bank as mortgagee of the shares in Jokai. The issue in this case, therefore, is between the bank, as alleged secured creditor and chargee of the shares in Frendial, and the liquidators of Esal.
Originally the board of Frendial comprised two nominees of Esal and two nominees of Ranjit Sethia (Mr Kini and Mr Sen). The Esal nominees resigned in February 1984, with the result that when the joint liquidators of Esal were appointed in January 1985 the only directors of Frendial were two nominees of Ranjit Sethia. On 22 April 1985 two members of Cork Gully, Mr London and Mr Rishi, were appointed directors of Frendial to represent the interests of the joint liquidators of Esal. But it appears that the conduct of these proceedings was left to Mr Kini and Mr Sen, who were giving instructions to Frendial’s then solicitors, Messrs Zaiwalla & Co. There was a manifest deadlock on the board of Frendial since Mr London and Mr Rishi were looking after the interests of Esal whereas Mr Kini and Mr Sen were looking after the interests of Ranjit Sethia, who claimed to be a beneficial owner of the shares in Frendial. This deadlock and conflict was not resolved until Shadereed was put into liquidation and Mr Hughes and Mr Copp were appointed joint liquidators; on 12 October 1987 they then appointed themselves to the board of Frendial. Therefore from 12 October 1987 onwards there was a majority on the board of Frendial representing the interests of the joint liquidators of Esal.
There is one further background matter which I must mention. In the summer of 1986 the bank entered into direct negotiations with Ranjit Sethia. These negotiations led to an agreement dated 16 June 1986 (the confidential agreement). Under that agreement Ranjit was released from all his personal obligations to the bank under various guarantees and agreements. In return he agreed to use his best endeavours to secure the bank’s registration as holder of the shares in Jokai. It was a term of the agreement that it should remain confidential to the parties: it was unknown to the liquidators of Esal and to the members of the board of Frendial until, I believe, January 1988. The position therefore was that the two nominees of Ranjit Sethia on the board of Frendial were ostensibly resisting the claim of the bank to registration at the same time as Ranjit Sethia himself was under an obligation to use his best endeavours to secure the bank’s registration as holder of the shares.
Against that background I can turn to the procedural history of the case. On 30 April 1985 the bank issued its originating motion for rectification of the register. Substantial evidence was sworn on both sides. The case at that stage being made on behalf of the respondents to the motion, Frendial and Jokai (the defendants), was that the Frendial shares belonged beneficially not to Shadereed but to the Sethia brothers and that accordingly the 1981 and 1984 charges were invalid. On 20 November 1985 Hoffmann J ordered the matter to proceed on pleadings. Points of claim were served on 11 December 1985 and points of defence on 2 January 1986. The defence served put forward two grounds of defence, viz (1) that the Sethia brothers were the beneficial owners and therefore the charges were not entered into bona fide for the benefit of Frendial and (2) that the 1984 charge was granted on 30 January 1984 (not 27 January 1984 as it was dated) after the
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granting of a Mareva injunction restraining the disposal of assets. On 28 January 1986 points of reply were served. Thereafter no further steps were taken in the proceedings by the bank for nearly a year.
On 23 January 1986 the bank served a request for further and better particulars of the defence. Although the requests were copious, none of them related to the defence alleging the invalidity of the 1984 charge by reason of the Mareva injunction. The request for particulars was not answered. On 10 August 1987 the bank issued a summons asking for an order for the particulars. On 14 October the time was extended by consent until 6 November 1987. Particulars not having been given by 6 November, the summons was restored and came before Mr Registrar Scott on 9 November 1987. He ordered the further and better particulars to be served within 56 days and ordered that in default the points of defence should be struck out and the bank should be at liberty to apply for the relief claimed in the originating notice of motion. I will call this order ‘the unless order’.
The defendants’ solicitors, still Zaiwalla & Co, wrote to Mr London to tell him of the making of the unless order; most unfortunately that letter specified that the time limit expired on 15 January 1988, whereas in truth the 56 days expired on 5 January 1988. That error was not corrected until 30 December 1987. In the meantime it had been arranged that there should be a meeting of the board of Frendial on 4 January 1988 to consider the matter.
On 4 January 1988 (ie one day before the expiry of the 56 days) the defendants issued a summons to extend the time for complying with the request for further and better particulars, for a stay of the unless order and for leave to amend their defence ‘due to further documents now being made available to the liquidators’. Although the amended points of defence were said to be annexed to the summons, they were not so annexed. On 5 January 1988 the bank restored its originating notice of motion for judgment. On 12 and 13 January 1988 further and better particulars of the existing points of defence were served. The matters came before Mervyn Davies J effectively on 27 January 1988. On that morning the defendants’ proposed amendments to the points of defence were for the first time produced to the bank.
The proposed amended points of defence abandoned the whole of the existing defence, with the exception of the allegation that the 1984 charge was void as being in breach of the Mareva injunction. In its place there was substituted a new defence. Shortly-stated, the defence was that the 1981 and 1984 charges were unlawful as being in breach of s 54 of the Companies Act 1948 and its statutory successor, ie that by granting the charges Frendial was giving financial assistance for the purchase of its own shares in that it was giving security for the repayment of the loan made by the bank to Esal for the purchase of the Frendial shares by Shadereed. The possibility of such a defence being raised had been ventilated a considerable time before. However it will be appreciated that until 12 October 1987 the liquidators of Esal were not in control of the affairs of the defendants to the bank’s application, ie Frendial and Jokai.
On 4 February 1988 Mervyn Davies J gave judgment for the bank and ordered rectification of the register. The defendants, Frendial and Jokai, appeal against that decision.
The judge was faced with a difficult question. On the one side, the defendants were in plain breach of the unless order. As a result, by operation of the unless order itself, the existing defence of the defendants had been struck out and, in the absence of any defence, the bank was plainly entitled to be registered as the holder of the shares. On the other hand, the defendants had made an application for
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leave to amend their defence by abandoning all those paragraphs of which particulars had been ordered and which they had singularly failed to give, and raising a different defence. Before the judge, they did not ask to be allowed to serve the further particulars out of time since it was pointless for them to do so. In the circumstances the judge formulated the question for his decision in the following way:
‘The question for the court is whether or not the bank is entitled to judgment by reason of the [defendants’] breach of the 56-day order; if not, whether the [defendants] should have leave to amend the defence in the way proposed. So I proceed to consider whether or not the bank is entitled to judgment by reason of the breach.’
The judge then directed himself by reference to the judgment of Roskill LJ in Samuels v Linzi Dresses Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 803 at 812, [1981] QB 115 at 126:
‘In my judgment, therefore, the law today is that a court has power to extend the time where an “unless” order has been made but not been complied with; but that it is a power which should be exercised cautiously and with due regard to the necessity for maintaining the principle that orders are made to be complied with and not to be ignored. Primarily, it is a question for the discretion of the master or the judge in chambers whether the necessary relief should be granted or not.’
The judge then said that it was plain that in this case the bank is entitled to judgment by reason of the breach of the 56-day order if one considers the matter simply on the basis put forward by the bank’. He pointed out that there was a breach, that particulars had been sought since 23 January 1987, that extensions of time had been given and that the unless order had been made on 9 November and had not been complied with.
Having reached the conclusion that the bank was plainly entitled to judgment ‘on the basis put forward by the bank’, he continued:
‘However, that plain position is complicated by the fact that [the defendants] now wish to substitute a new defence. It is difficult to see why [the defendants], having ignored a court order during a time when they could have come to the court and asked for leave to amend, should now have the indulgence of not only being excused their breach of the order but also being allowed to amend so late and in so radical a fashion. Be that as it may, I think the right course for me to take is to consider the proposed defence on the footing that, if it shows, albeit late, that there is perhaps a truly arguable case for [the defendants], it may be right not to give judgment for the bank but instead to allow the new defence out of time on some such term as that [the defendants] pay the costs to date.’
The judge then proceeded to consider whether on the evidence before him a truly arguable case had been shown. He said:
‘All I can do is to consider whether or not [the defendants’] assertions have some reasonable prospect of acceptance at trial, bearing in mind that the assertions must be proved with some particularity in light of the fact that the activity mentioned in s 54 involves the commission of a criminal offence.’
He then considered the material before him and expressed his conclusion as follows:
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‘Weighing the considerations put forward for [the defendants] against those put forward for the bank, I am driven to the conclusion that the chances of [the defendants] placing a s 54 taint on the bank’s charges are slight. That, however, is not to say that [the defendants’] case is unarguable. With oral evidence and accountancy explanations of the records available, it may be possible to show matters in another light. However, again, that possibility does not, I think, in itself justify allowing the new defence in the circumstances of this case, that is to say where there has been a breach of an unless order.’
He then turned ‘in this doubtful frame of mind’ to certain other considerations.
The first of those other considerations was the deadlock on the board of Frendial. He pointed out that, since 12 October 1987, that deadlock had been at an end and that the three professional directors who were in the majority on the board ought to have been well aware of the making of the unless order and ought to have appreciated its importance. He relied on the fact that, within the 56-day period limited by the unless order, the board of Frendial had taken no steps to explain their position to the court. He also noted that the defendants’ counsel had relied for their submission respecting s 54 far more heavily on documents which had been available to them at all times than on documents that only became available to them on 13 January 1988 in the circumstances I will mention later. He said that there was some basis for the bank’s submission that the internal difficulties of Frendial ought not to operate to the prejudice of the bank. He further took into account the fact that Frendial was without assets apart from the Jokai shares, which meant that if the bank were to succeed at trial its costs would have to come out of the Jokai shares. Finally he dealt with the submission that the action should be allowed to proceed on the terms that the defendants should be ordered to pay some of the costs already incurred by the bank and noted that, although a suggestion of some guarantee for immediate payment had been made both by counsel for the defendants and by the judge himself, no concrete proposal had been forthcoming.
The judge concluded by saying that he had taken those considerations into account as well as the many other observations made by counsel. In the result he reached the conclusion that ‘my discretion should be exercised in favour of the bank’.
It is common ground that the judge was right in treating the matter as being within his discretion. As Mr Chadwick QC, for the bank, has rightly stressed, it follows that this court has no right to intervene and substitute its own decision unless in some way the judge misdirected himself with regard to the principles to be applied or, in exercising his discretion, has taken into account matters which he ought not to have done or has failed to take into account matters which he ought to have done, or if the decision of the judge is plainly wrong. Therefore the first, and basic, question is whether the judge erred in one or other of those ways in exercising his discretion.
The judge started by asking himself whether the bank was entitled to judgment ‘by reason of’ the defendants’ default in complying with the unless order; on his formulation of the question, in his view the question whether the defendants should have leave to amend only arose if the bank was not so entitled. The judge never in fact decided whether leave to amend should be given, though he considered the virtues of amendment in the course of deciding the first question. Having reached the prima facie view that the bank was entitled to judgment, the judge then went on to consider whether the application for leave to amend and the other factors mentioned at the end of his judgment rebutted that prima facie
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conclusion. On this approach, the judge only considered the excuses put forward for failure to comply with the unless order as one of the extra factors taken into account by him at the end of his judgment.
In my view, the questions the judge posed for himself were wrong in law. Even if the bank were entitled to judgment, on no footing would that be ‘by reason of’ the failure to comply with the unless order: the bank’s entitlement would be by reason of having proved its claim in the absence of a defence. The judge’s second question (should there be leave to amend the defence?) is prefaced by the words ‘if not’: ie the question of leave to amend only arose if the bank were not entitled to judgment. At first sight these are purely semantic objections, since the judge did go on to consider the factors relevant to leave to amend. But in my judgment, by posing the questions in this way, the judge was led to an erroneous approach in substance. He did in fact reach a prima facie view that the bank was entitled to judgment, the reasons given by him all relating to the defendants’ failure to comply with the unless order and not the strength of the bank’s case. Having reached that prima facie view he proceeded to consider the other factors.
On the evidence before him, the bank was manifestly entitled to judgment on its claim as mortgagee if there were no defence impugning the validity of the charges. Therefore the essential question was whether the defendants should have leave to amend so as to raise such a defence. The failure to comply with the unless order was a relevant factor in considering the question of leave to amend (not the bank’s entitlement to judgment in the absence of a defence) and it was impossible to consider the bank’s right to judgment and form a prima facie view on that issue without deciding whether leave to amend should be given. On that analysis the judge was bound to consider whether leave to amend should be given before, or at least concurrently with, the question whether the bank was entitled to judgment.
Two differing principles of law are applicable in this case, viz: (1) that a litigant is not to be deprived of a trial of his real case by the refusal of leave to amend unless such amendment will give rise to uncompensatable damage to the other party; (2) that a litigant who fails to comply with a peremptory order of the court will not normally be permitted to continue to litigate either that or any other action based on the same claim or defence. The judge did not in terms refer to the first of those principles, nor does his approach suggest that he had it in mind. The question is how those two principles are to be reconciled in the present case.
In Samuels v Linzi Dresses Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 803, [1981] QB 115 the court did not give any direct guidance as to the approach to the exercise of the court’s discretion in cases where a claim or defence has been struck out by reason of a failure to comply with an unless order beyond saying that such a discretion should be exercised ‘cautiously’. However, Roskill LJ referred to the analogous case where the question is whether a plaintiff’s claim should be struck out for want of prosecution, to which the principles laid down in Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297 apply. The first class of case considered in Birkett v James is where the plaintiff has been guilty of ‘intentional and contumelious conduct’. Disobedience to a peremptory order is ‘generally’ to be treated as contumelious conduct: see Tolley v Morris [1979] 2 All ER 561 at 571, [1979] 1 WLR 592 at 603 per Lord Diplock. Where there has been such contumelious disobedience not only the plaintiff’s original action but also any subsequent action brought by him based on the same cause of action will be struck out: see Janov v Morris [1981] 3 All ER 780, [1981] 1 WLR 1389. The basis of the principle is that orders of the court must be obeyed and that a litigant who deliberately and without proper
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excuse disobeys such an order is not allowed to proceed. The rationale of such penalty being that it is contumelious to flout the order of the court, if a party can explain convincingly that outside circumstances account for the failure to obey the peremptory order and that there was no deliberate flouting of the court’s order, his conduct is not contumelious and therefore the consequences of contumely do not flow.
In Janov v Morris a plaintiff whose first action had been struck out for failure to comply with an unless order brought a second action based on the same cause of action. The basis of the decision was that the failure to comply with the peremptory order was contumacious: see per Watkins LJ ([1981] 3 All ER 780 at 785, [1981] 1 WLR 1389 at 1395). It is clear that the court, in reaching the conclusion that the conduct was contumacious, placed much reliance on the fact that no explanation or excuse had been given by the plaintiff for his disobedience to the order.
In my judgment, in cases in which the court has to decide what are the consequences of a failure to comply with an unless order, the relevant question is whether such failure is intentional and contumelious. The court should not be astute to find excuses for such failure since obedience to orders of the court is the foundation on which its authority is founded. But, if a party can clearly demonstrate that there was no intention to ignore or flout the order and that the failure to obey was due to extraneous circumstances, such failure to obey is not to be treated as contumelious and therefore does not disentitle the litigant to rights which he would otherwise have enjoyed.
The questions therefore which arise in the present case are whether, apart from the defendants’ conduct in failing to comply with the unless order, leave to amend the defence should be given and, if so, whether such failure to comply was contumelious. The judge did not approach the case in that way and, in my judgment, erred in principle. We must therefore exercise the discretion ourselves.
As to the first of those questions, the action has proceeded to close of pleadings, but discovery has not taken place. This is not, as the judge suggested, a very late application for leave to amend, fundamental though the proposed amendments are. On normal principles, leave to amend would be given provided that such leave did not cause the bank uncompensatable damage and the proposed amendment raises an arguable defence.
Mr Chadwick for the bank relies on three points showing uncompensatable damage. First, it is said that all the costs of the proceedings to date would be thrown away and, even if an order for payment of such costs is imposed as a condition of leave, it will be enforceable only against Frendial (which has no assets apart from the Jokai shares claimed by the bank) or against Jokai itself. Mr Heyman QC met this objection by agreeing that a condition of leave should be that the costs thrown away should be paid forthwith and the leave should be conditional on £50,000 being paid into court within 28 days as security for the payment of such costs. In my judgment, this offer meets the first point.
Next, Mr Chadwick urges that the need for the bank to continue litigation against these defendants and thereby incur further irrecoverable costs in the future gives rise to uncompensatable damage. But this consequence flows from the bank being forced to bring proceedings against these defendants at all and does not flow from the giving of leave to amend.
Thirdly, Mr Chadwick submits that by reason of the delay caused by the opening up of the new s 54 defence the bank, if ultimately successful, will have been kept out of its money for a further period whilst having to borrow like sums at interest from other parties. The 1981 and 1984 charges secure ‘all moneys’ due
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from Esal to the bank and the amount of the debt far exceeds the value of the Jokai shares. Therefore, it is said, the delay will lead to further loss. This point was not taken below, is not the subject of a respondent’s notice and gives rise to a number of factual issues which have not been dealt with on the evidence. In my judgment, it is not right to allow the bank to raise this issue at this stage.
Is the s 54 defence sought to be raised by the amended defence arguable? The judge held that there was an arguable case that the 1981 charge was given as security for the repayment of moneys borrowed by Esal for the purchase of Frendial. The bank does not dispute this. At the hearing, we investigated at some length the documentary evidence bearing on the issue to see if the judge was right in saying that the chances of the defence succeeding were slight. In my judgment, in the circumstances of this case, it is impossible to form any concluded view on the matter given the limited material before the court and the background of possible fraud and falsification of the records of the London office of the bank. Nor, on the view I take of the case, is it appropriate for the court on an application for leave to amend to do more than satisfy itself that the case sought to be raised is fairly arguable.
The position as to the 1984 charge is different. The judge took the view that if, at the trial, the 1981 charge was found to be unlawful under s 54 the same would probably apply to the 1984 charge. At present I find some difficulty in seeing how this result would follow, since the 1984 charge appears to have nothing to do with the money borrowed to buy the Frendial shares. Mr Chadwick sought to reopen the question whether there was an arguable case as to the invalidity of the 1984 charge. If the 1984 charge is valid, that is sufficient to entitle the bank, as mortgagee, to be registered as holder of Jokai shares, even if the 1981 charge is invalid. Again, the bank has not served a respondent’s notice that the judge’s finding on this point was to be challenged. Mr Chadwick’s submissions gave rise to further arguments by Mr Heyman that the 1984 charge was invalid for quite other reasons, namely misrepresentation. In my judgment, it is not right, in the absence of a respondent’s notice, to permit the bank to challenge this finding of the judge since it opens up new areas of investigation. Moreover, the defence based on the allegation that the 1984 charge was granted in breach of the Mareva injunction has at all times been pleaded in the defence and cannot be decided without a full investigation of surrounding circumstances.
The remaining question is whether the defendants’ failure to comply with the unless order is contumelious and that, in consequence, in the exercise of our discretion we should debar them from putting forward an amended defence. In my judgment, there is no question of the conduct being contumelious down to 12 October 1987. At all relevant times down to that date the board of Frendial was deadlocked and the de facto control of the litigation appears to have been in the hands of Ranjit’s nominee, Mr Rani. The bank had chosen to enter into the confidential agreement with Ranjit which required him to support the bank’s claim and not to resist it. Mr Chadwick did not seek to rely on the defendants’ conduct before 12 October 1987 as a reason for refusing them leave to amend.
What of the position after 12 October 1987? The unless order was made on 9 November 1987 but the directors of Frendial were misled by the letter from their solicitors giving the date of expiry of the 56-day period as being 15 January instead of 5 January. The necessary board meeting to consider the raising of the new defence had been called for 4 January 1988. As soon as the true position was brought to the attention of the board, the defendants’ summons for a stay and for leave to amend was issued. That was on 4 January, that is to say one day before the unless order expired and the original defence was struck out.
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It may be thought that the defendants were in any event rather lax in not taking earlier steps either to comply with the unless order or to apply for leave to amend. But there is another factor which affected the position. The present proceedings are only one of the disputes between the bank and the joint liquidators of Esal. As a result of the examination in the liquidation of Esal of Mr Golani (the present manager of the London office of the bank) the liquidators of Esal had been provided by the bank with over 30,000 documents. The use which could be made of such documents by the liquidators was limited by agreement between the parties and by order of the court. The bank were concerned that the documents so obtained should not be disclosed to third parties or used for improper purposes. The liquidators of Esal desired to disclose certain of those documents to the directors of Frendial, taking the view that the documents would assist Frendial in defending these proceedings by raising the s 54 defence. On 26 November 1987 the joint liquidators sought the bank’s consent to make such disclosure. On 30 November the bank’s solicitors replied asking for particulars of the documents to be disclosed and stating that if this were not done the liquidators would have to apply to the court. Despite reminders on 9 December 1987 and on 5 January 1988 the liquidators of Esal neither gave the particulars of the documents nor applied to the court. On 11 January 1988 the liquidators of Esal did apply to the court and on 13 January 1988 Mervyn Davies J ordered the disclosure of the documents to Frendial.
The relevance of this dispute as to the documents is that before Frendial could prepare the proposed amended defence they wished to see the additional documents which they knew the liquidators of Esal regarded as relevant. This seems to me to be a wholly reasonable attitude for them to adopt. It is nothing to the point that in the event the defendants relied primarily on documents which they already held rather than on the documents disclosed after 13 January 1988. They did in fact rely on certain of the latter documents and, in any event until the documents were seen it was impossible for anyone to know what was in them. I am left with the impression that the bank were being deliberately obstructive in withholding the documents.
In these circumstances, I consider that the defendants have given an explanation of their failure within the 56-days limited by the unless order either to serve the particulars ordered or obtain leave to amend the defence. Although the defendants should have acted with greater diligence, the failure to comply with the unless order is primarily due to the mistake as to the date of the expiry of the order and the obstructive conduct of the bank in relation to the documents. The defendants’ explanation shows that they were not defying or ignoring the court order and in the result it is, in my judgment, impossible to characterise their conduct as contumelious. Accordingly, the failure to comply with the unless order does not in my judgment, provide sufficient reason for refusing to exercise the discretion of the court in giving leave to the defendants to amend their defence and thereby have a trial of the dispute on the merits.
I would therefore allow the appeal. If within 28 days the defendants pay into court £50,000 as security for costs, they should have leave to amend their points of defence. The bank’s application for judgment should be dismissed. The bank’s costs of the originating motion down to 27 January 1988 should be taxed and paid forthwith by the defendants. If the £50,000 is not paid in within the 28 days, the appeal will be dismissed.
PARKER LJ. I agree. As we are differing from the learned judge I shall, however, add a contribution of my own.
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The order of 9 November provided that, if the particulars were not delivered within 56 days, the whole defence, not merely the parts of it to which the particulars related, should be struck out. It did not, however, as some penal orders do, go on to provide, in addition, that the bank should be at liberty to enter final judgment for the relief claimed in the writ. It merely gave the bank liberty to apply for the relief claimed.
The defendants having not complied with the order, the defence was then struck out by force of the order and the bank applied for the relief claimed. Although, however, the defendants had failed to comply with the order, they had on the day before time expired issued a summons seeking an extension of time, a stay of the order of 9 November and leave to make an unspecified amendment. Furthermore, on 12 and 13 January they delivered further and better particulars of the defence, albeit it had by then been struck out by virtue of the order of 9 November. One further event occurred before, on 27 January, the bank’s application and the defendants’ summons came on before the judge, namely that the defendants had drafted the amendment which they desired to make.
With the exception of what I may call the ‘breach of Mareva’ defence, it is accepted that the original defence must go but it is sought to raise the new defence under s 54.
The effective position as it came before the judge was, therefore, that the bank was seeking judgment and the defendants were seeking leave to resist, not on the basis of the original defence of which particulars had been ordered, but on the basis of a separate defence of which particulars had not been ordered and an entirely new defence.
Leaving aside for the moment the effect of the defendants’ failure to comply with the penal order, the first issue, and one of paramount importance, was whether the new defence was arguable. If, as the bank contended, it was not, clearly the defendants could not be allowed to pursue it further. On this issue, however, the bank failed. The judge held that the defence was arguable. He therefore had to consider whether the defendants should be allowed to raise it. There were, as it seems to me, two possible reasons why they should not be so allowed: (a) if they were so allowed it would cause prejudice to the bank which could not be compensated in costs; (b) if the defendants’ conduct had been so heinous that it was a proper exercise of the judge’s discretion to prevent them from (i) pursuing that part of the original defence of which particulars had not been ordered and (ii) from presenting a new and arguable defence to the court. It is to be stressed that the defendants were not seeking to be allowed to pursue those parts of the original defence of which particulars had been ordered. Save as to the ‘breach of Mareva’ defence they were thus accepting the effect of the order.
As to the prejudice point, it could, and in my view should, have been dealt with by the imposition of the condition proposed by Sir Nicolas Browne-Wilkinson V-C, with which I entirely agree. As to the second point, I have used the expression ‘so heinous’ because it appears to me that there must be degrees of appropriate consequences even where the conduct of someone who has failed to comply with a penal order can properly be described as contumacious or contumelious or in deliberate disregard of the order, just as there are degrees of appropriate punishments for a contempt of court by breach of an undertaking or injunction. Albeit deliberate, one deliberate breach may in the circumstances warrant no more than a fine, whilst another may in the circumstances warrant imprisonment. In each case all the circumstances must be taken into account, including the nature of the relief which is sought by the party in default. It is one thing for a plaintiff who has been struck out for want of prosecution to issue a
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writ claiming precisely the same relief the next day. It is quite another for a defendant to raise an arguable defence not previously before the court and thus in no way associated with the penal order.
It is plain on the authorities that, albeit with caution, a defendant whose defence has been struck out for failure to comply with a penal order can, in appropriate circumstances, be permitted to continue the very same defence of which particulars were ordered. It is, in my view, clear that, albeit there must still be caution, the position of a defendant who seeks only to rely on a defence which was not the subject of the penal order for particulars and to raise an arguable defence not previously raised is stronger. To shut out the new arguable defence would require more heinous conduct than would be required to justify a refusal to reinstate the very defence of which particulars had been ordered. In essence, the question in each case must be whether the punishment fits the crime.
In the present case I have no doubt that the defendants’ conduct was not sufficient to warrant the punishment inflicted. Indeed, assuming that the particulars delivered on 12 and 13 January were sufficient or even arguably sufficient, I should have been very doubtful indeed whether it would have been a proper exercise of discretion to refuse them leave to pursue the original defence. They had issued their summons in time, they had delivered the particulars late no doubt, which the penal order was designed to force them to produce and there was an explanation for the failure.
In my judgment, the learned judge erred in the specific matters stated by Sir Nicolas Browne-Wilkinson V-C, but even if it had not been possible to pinpoint errors in approach, I would have allowed the appeal, subject, of course, to the condition, on the simple ground that in all the circumstances the learned judge was plainly wrong.
SIR JOHN MEGAW. I agree.
The noun ‘contumely’, as defined in the Shorter Oxford English Dictionary, reflecting, I believe, the sense in which it would ordinarily be understood, is ‘Insolent reproach or abuse’. The conduct of the defendants, having regard to all the circumstances, could not be described as ‘contumelious’. With all respect, it seems to me that the word ‘contumacious’ would be more apt than ‘contumelious’ in the passages in Lord Diplock’s discussion of the effect of failure to comply with a peremptory order in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 259 and in Lirkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 807, [1978] AC 297 at 321. ‘Contumacy’ means ‘Perverse and obstinate resistance to authority’. Surely it is that characteristic, not ‘insolent reproach or abuse’, which is a frequent hallmark of a litigant’s failure to comply with a peremptory order? But, even if ‘contumacious’ should be substituted for ‘contumelious’ in Lord Diplock’s formula, the result in this case would still be the same. To the question: was the defendants’ failure to comply with the peremptory order properly to be described as showing perverse and obstinate resistance of authority? the answer, as I see it, must again be No.
In my view, in that respect the learned judge did not apply the right criterion.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Grand Metropolitan Nominee (No 2) Co Ltd v Evans
[1993] 1 All ER 642
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): PURCHAS AND MANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12 MARCH, 8 MAY 1992
Practice – Order – ‘Unless’ orders and other peremptory orders – Non-compliance with ‘unless’ order – Consequences – Non-compliance with order striking out claim or defence unless act done within specified time – Whether pleading should be struck out if failure to comply with ‘unless’ order not contumelious.
Where the court makes an order that unless the party to whom the order is directed serves further and better particulars of a pleading within a specified time the pleading will be struck out and judgment entered for the other party, the court will only strike out the pleading for failure to comply with that order if the conduct of the party whose pleading is to be struck out is contumelious (see p 649 d to f and p 650 e, post).
Re Jokai Tea Holdings Ltd (1989) [1993] 1 All ER 630 applied.
Notes
For ‘unless’ orders, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 32, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 200–202, 1319–1336.
Case referred to in judgments
Jokai Tea Holdings Ltd, Re (1989) [1993] 1 All ER 630, [1992] 1 WLR 1196, CA.
Interlocutory appeal
The defendant, John Austin Evans, trading as ‘The Fish Factory’, appealed from the decision of Leonard J given on 19 November 1991 whereby he declared that the defendant had failed to comply with the order of Master Turner dated 8 October 1991 requiring service of further and better particulars of the defence by 4 pm on 30 October on the ground that the particulars which were served were inadequate and gave judgment for the plaintiff, Grand Metropolitan Nominee (No 2) Co Ltd, formerly Compass Contract Services (UK) Ltd, in its action claiming the sum of £47,832.85 plus interest due under an agreement dated 11 April 1984 for the provision of services to the defendant’s restaurant premises at 25–27 High Street, Wrexham. The facts are set out in the judgment of Purchas LJ.
David Kemp QC and Charles Williams (instructed by Gwilym Hughes & Partners, Wrexham) for the defendant.
Simon Browne-Wilkinson (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for the plaintiff.
Cur adv vult
8 May 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
PURCHAS LJ. This is an appeal by John Austin Evans, trading as ‘The Fish Factory’, from an order of Leonard J dated 19 November 1991, which was made on the summons of Grand Metropolitan Nominee (No 2) Co Ltd, formerly Compass Contract Services (UK) Ltd (Compass), and also on Compass’s notice of
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appeal from the order of Master Turner dated 8 October 1991 granting to the appellant leave to serve an amended defence and counterclaim.
By his order Leonard J provided:
‘1. As to the plaintiff’s summons dated 6th November 1991: 1.1 there be a declaration that the defendant has failed to comply with the order of Master Turner dated 8th October 1991 requiring a service of further and better particulars by 4.00 p.m. on 30th October 1991 by reason of the fact that the particulars which were served were inadequate. 1.2 Judgment be entered for the plaintiff with costs to be taxed if not agreed, such costs to include the costs of this summons.
2. As to the plaintiff’s notice of appeal dated 21st October 1991, without prejudice to the order set out at paragraph 1 above, it is ordered that: 2.1 The appeal be allowed with costs …
3. As to the defendant’s summons dated 12th November 1991 (leave to re-amend the replies to the request dated 29th July 1988 for further and better particulars of the defence and counterclaim) there be no order.
4. Leave to appeal.’
The appellant appealed from paras 1 and 2 of this order.
[His Lordship then set out the relevant parts of the statement of claim and the defence and counterclaim and continued:] On receipt of the defence and counterclaim the solicitors then acting for Compass wrote on 19 January 1987 stating that before they could settle a defence to the counterclaim they would require details of loss and damage referred to in paras 34, 35, 36 and 42 before they would be able to instruct counsel, and asked for an open-ended extension of time. This was granted. The remainder of the year 1987 appears mainly to have been spent by the appellant’s solicitors in obtaining the necessary architects’ and other experts’ evidence without any objection by Compass about the delay. During these months there was a regular interchange of correspondence between the respective solicitors, those for Compass seeking specific documents referred to in the pleadings and pressing for the further and better particulars of the damage claimed in the paras 34, 35, 36 and 42. The appellant’s solicitors appear to have been doing their best to provide some of the documents and repeating that they were still investigating the matter and referring to counsel. Finally, after further delay, particulars (the voluntary particulars) were delivered under cover of a letter of 16 March 1988. These particulars were restricted to the four paragraphs listed in the third paragraph of Compass’s solicitors’ letter of 19 January 1987. They contained much narrative and great detail of the manner in which it was alleged that Compass and/or the architects, SBA Associates, and/or the builders involved had failed properly to carry out the works. In summary, the particulars of para 34 ran to 12 pages, of paras 35 and 36 to 7 pages, and of para 42 to 8 pages. There has been a substantial issue as to whether these pleadings were properly delivered as further particulars or whether they raised fresh claims, which should have been separately pleaded by amending the defence and counterclaim. The objection, however, was not taken for nearly four months, when the solicitors now acting for Compass had taken over the conduct of these matters. Compass’s initial reaction was to seek a general extension of time in which to serve this reply and defence to counterclaim. This was granted by the appellant.
The first challenge to the voluntary particulars came in a letter from Compass’s solicitors dated 21 July 1988, asserting that the voluntary particulars did not comply with RSC Ord 18, r 12, and giving formal notice of objection that they—
‘are extremely lengthy and appear on a number of issues to contain the substance of your client’s case. In our view there are two alternatives open to
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you, you may either apply for leave to rely on these particulars in which case we shall resist such an application or you should apply to serve an amended defence and counterclaim so that you may include the particulars. We reserve our position as to whether or not we would object to that application, much does depend upon the way the amended defence and counterclaim is pleaded.’
Under cover of the same letter Compass served the reply and defence to counterclaim. For the purposes of this judgment it is not necessary to analyse in detail the matters alleged in the defence and counterclaim which were admitted and those which were disputed. I would, however, comment that it is skillfully and precisely drawn and would have formed the basis, if necessary, of the identification of questions of law which could be the subject of a trial of preliminary issues. I should mention, however, that in relation to paragraphs which formed the area of dispute in this appeal, the following issues were raised in the reply and defence and counterclaim.
[His Lordship then set out those issues and continued:] On 29 July 1988 solicitors for Compass served a formal request for further and better particulars of the defence and counterclaim. This was also a lengthy document (21 pages). Again, for the purposes of this judgment, it is not necessary to refer to the details of this request. It related to most of the paragraphs between para 4 and para 43 inclusive of the defence and counterclaim. I need only refer to the request under paras 34, 35, 38 and 43. I shall return to consider these when I come to the particulars supplied by the appellant.
The appellant’s solicitors disputed that the voluntary particulars were objectionable except as being in technical breach of Ord 18, r 12, since they were not served with the consent of the plaintiff. Regrettably they also seem to have overlooked the letter from Compass’s solicitors of 12 January 1987. By their letter of 17 August 1988 they made a suggestion that the matter should be raised on the summons for directions. However, the formal request for further particulars of most of the remaining paragraphs of the defence and counterclaim besides the paragraphs covered by the voluntary particulars remained unanswered until 12 April 1988. The issue of the validity of the voluntary particulars seems to have become lost in other matters being canvassed in correspondence between the parties arising out of the impending summons for directions and the obtaining of reports from experts such as surveyors, catering consultants etc—see the letter from Compass’s solicitors dated 31 January 1989.
In their letter of 4 April 1989 Compass’s solicitors reasserted their objection to the voluntary particulars. However, on 12 April 1989 the replies to Compass’s request for further and better particulars were served by the appellant. Therefore at the stage when these further and better particulars were served there was still an issue between the parties as to whether the voluntary particulars were appropriate or not.
[His Lordship then set out details of the request for further and better particulars and the replies served by the appellant and continued:] On 29 January 1989 Compass applied to the master for a declaration that the voluntary particulars—
‘did not form part of the pleading in this action, and that the defendant was not entitled to refer to the contents thereof at the trial; alternatively, that this document should be struck out under R.S.C. Order 18, rule 19(b) or, alternatively, under the inherent jurisdiction of the court.’
An order was further sought that within 14 days the defendant should provide the particulars requested under paras 34, 35, 38 and 43 of the defence and
Page 645 of [1993] 1 All ER 642
counterclaim in a request dated 28 July 1988 and an order, pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19, that the replies already delivered should be struck out. This application was supported by an affidavit from Barbara Anne Morris, a solicitor in Compass’s present solicitors’ firm. Paragraph 6 of this affidavit stated:
‘It is the plaintiff’s case that the way in which the defendant has sought to plead his case is seriously defective in that, contrary to the rules, (a) he has sought to plead substantive parts of his case by way of voluntary particulars thus depriving the plaintiff of pleading to those parts of his case in reply. (b) failed to properly particularise other substantial parts of his case thus depriving the plaintiff of the opportunity of knowing the case it has to meet. In short because of the unorthodox procedure that the defendant has adopted without the leave of the court the pleadings in this action are in a wholly unsatisfactory state, which is causing the plaintiff real prejudice. On a number of occasions my firm has drawn to the attention of the defendant’s solicitor the passage in Volume 1 of the White Book at 18/12/47 which states as to voluntary particulars: “… if no objection is taken by the opposite party to the service of such particulars, they will presumably stand as part of the pleadings in the action: but if objection is taken, the party concerned must apply for leave to serve the particulars under an order of the court. Clearly the device of ‘voluntary particulars’ must not be used unilaterally to amend or add to particulars or vary the case of a party, in a way which the court would not sanction”.’
In swearing this affidavit the deponent appears to have overlooked the fact that the voluntary particulars were delivered at the request of Compass’s then solicitors.
Master Turner, after hearing the summons and reading the affidavit of Barbara Anne Morris, made the order for the declaration in relation to the voluntary particulars as sought. He further ordered that the defendant should serve an amended defence and counterclaim, and should provide the particulars which were requested under paras 35 and 43 in the request of 28 July 1988. It is not clear whether anything further was said about the provenance of the voluntary particulars originating in the specific request made by Compass on receipt of the defence and counterclaim. We were, however, told by counsel that a draft proposed amended defence and counterclaim was not placed before the master and that the leave to serve a proposed pleading was not leave itself to serve the pleading. The master ordered that a draft should first be submitted in order to give Compass an opportunity to consider the proposed amended defence and counterclaim and to decide whether or not to oppose the subsequent application for leave to serve it.
It is not clear whether Master Turner gave any detailed consideration to the contents of the voluntary particulars to determine whether, apart from the apparent breach of RSC Ord 18, r 12, they were objectionable as raising new issues which ought to have been pleaded by way of amendment of the defence and counterclaim. All the indications are that he did not. He did, however, apparently consider the further and better particulars of paras 33, 34, 35 ant 42 on 11 April 1989 because he distinguished the answers given to those of paras 33 and 34, which seem to have been adequate, from those given for paras 35 and 42, which were not. The particulars supplied under paras 34 and 35 were, of course, in relation to the appointment etc of the architects or design consultants on the one hand and of the builders on the other. The particulars provided under each referred partly to the voluntary particulars, partly to a general allegation concerning the failure to exercise skill etc and partly to reports to be prepared in the future which would presumably become subject to an order for an exchange
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of experts’ reports. In these circumstances, it is quite understandable that the master might have considered that, having made the order depriving the appellant of the right to refer to the voluntary particulars, allowed his more general particulars to stand and also retained what was in effect an offer by him to exchange experts’ reports at the appropriate time, justice would be done between the parties. I see nothing of greater significance in the exclusion of these two paragraphs. So far as para 38 was concerned there were extensive particulars already pleaded. For some reason the master seems to be less than satisfied with the particulars supplied under para 38, and I must return to this matter shortly. So far as the particulars provided under para 43 are concerned Mr Kemp QC, who has presented the appeal, concedes that the reply under para 43 was, to adopt his words, ‘stupid and one that could not be sustained’. As I have already commented, all that was required under para 43 was a plea of set off, which finds itself elsewhere in the pleadings in any event. It did not further the appellant’s case in any material respect. As Mr Kemp now concedes that this paragraph should be struck out, I do not find it necessary to comment upon it further. The master was entitled to consider that the particulars provided under this paragraph were inadequate.
In pursuance of Master Turner’s orders the appellant submitted a draft amended defence and counterclaim under cover of a letter dated 8 January 1990. This pleading had four schedules which were to be delivered separately. In order to bring the matter wholly up to date, these schedules, which contained considerable detail of the technical defects and damage resulting, were withheld for the purpose of bringing the position up to date. In this way it was intended that the pleading as finally delivered would not require further amendment. This was acceptable to Compass’s solicitors, who granted the appellant’s solicitors the necessary extension.
[His Lordship then considered paras 34, 35, 38 and 43 of the draft amended defence and counterclaim and continued:] By letter of 24 April 1990 the appellant’s solicitors gave notice that they would seek directions that the claims under paras 39 and 40 of the defence and counterclaim should be tried as preliminary issues. This led to a further exchange of letters. These two paragraphs of the defence and counterclaim in fact open the whole ambit of the breach of warranty and agreement in relation to the consultancy contract and the proposal document. The appellant served amended further and better particulars on 15 May 1990 which, for the purposes of this appeal, do not seem to have made any material alteration or met the complaints being made by Compass. On 22 January 1991 there was an appointment for directions before the master. On this appointment solicitors acting for Compass gave notice that they intended to apply for an order that, unless the appellant provided the further and better particulars of paras 38 and 43 of the defence and counterclaim in compliance with Master Turner’s order of 4 December 1989 within 14 days, they would seek an order that the defence and counterclaim should be struck out and judgment entered for the plaintiff with costs. The debate on the appeal has centred around the understanding of Master Turner’s order of 4 December 1989 which led to the further summons seeking a peremptory ‘unless’ order. The court has had placed before it two affidavits, one from Mr Jones, the solicitor responsible for the conduct of the appellant’s case throughout, and a second affidavit from Barbara Anne Morris.
Mr Jones, in para 2(g) of his affidavit of 3 January 1992, gave his understanding of the order made by Master Turner, namely that the voluntary particulars could not stand and that the defendant should serve a proposed amended defence and counterclaim on Compass within 35 days. He could not recall any substantial
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discussion on the issue of the further particulars allegedly outstanding on paras 34, 35, 38 and 43 under the request dated 29 July 1988. Mr Jones had the firm impression that the reason for the order in respect of paras 38 and 43 was not that the contents of the particulars were inadequate or inadmissible but that they were delivered by reference to the voluntary particulars which by now had been made subject to the order disqualifying them. In her affidavit sworn on 6 March 1992 Miss Morris accepted that Mr Jones believed genuinely in what he had said in his affidavit but expressed her view, namely that she had no doubt that Mr Jones was wrong, firstly, because of her clear recollection in relation to the substance of argument put forward about the request in para 43 and, secondly, because she could not see any reason, if the order was based on formal matters only, that there should have been a difference made between two of the four paragraphs. Looking at this generally, I think that Mr Browne-Wilkinson’s submissions are correct that it is Miss Morris’s version of affairs that should be accepted subject to the fact that Mr Jones genuinely thought that it was merely a matter of form. This is of considerable significance in this appeal.
In the meanwhile the appellant was pressing for a summons for directions. There was an exchange of letters in July and August 1990 in which solicitors for Compass said that they did not wish to add anything to the draft summons for directions. It was not possible to get a hearing for the summons until 22 January 1991, so accordingly the appellant served a summons on Compass on 28 August 1990, with 22 January 1991 as the return date. On this summons the appellant sought leave to serve the proposed amended defence and counterclaim and also an order for the trial of the preliminary issue as discussed in the earlier correspondence. Compass’s solicitors on the hearing of this summons, having given notice that they would seek an ‘unless’ order for the further and better particulars of paras 38 and 43, were unsuccessful in persuading Master Hodgson to accede to this as they had not served a proper summons. At the same time the master refused leave to the appellant to serve his amended defence and counterclaim because it was not in proper form, and declined to make an order for the trial of a preliminary issue. Shortly after this a summons was issued on behalf of Compass returnable on 14 May 1991. This sought the following orders:
‘1. Unless the defendant do serve the further and better particulars of the defence and counterclaim ordered by Master Turner on 14th December 1990 within 14 days from the date hereof the defendant’s defence and counterclaim be struck out and judgment entered for the plaintiff with costs to be taxed if not agreed.’
By letter dated 11 April 1991 a further amended defence and counterclaim was served upon Compass’s solicitors. It is necessary only to refer in summary to paras 34, 35 and 36 by saying that the main alteration between this document and the proposed amended defence and counterclaim, which did not find favour with Master Hodgson, is that the detailed particulars previously annexed to the pleading by way of schedule have now been brought into the body of the pleading itself. Paragraphs 38 and 43 remain unamended from the original pleadings. However, the particulars of damage in relation to paras 34 and 42 still remain appended in two schedules.
The appointment fixed for 14 May 1991 went off owing to a misunderstanding between counsel for the appellant, who thought that he was attending to deal with a summons for directions, and the solicitor and counsel for Compass, who were seeking their ‘unless’ order for the further particulars. By agreement the matter was stood over and a new appointment obtained on 8 October 1991, when
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the various matters came before Master Turner. This is the order which is the basis of this appeal. On this occasion the master made two orders. The first order granted leave to the appellant to serve its amended defence and counterclaim, and ordered that Compass should serve any amended reply or any amended defence to counterclaim within three months. Further directions were given about inspection etc and the balance of directions adjourned until 6 February 1992. The second order read as follows:
‘1. Unless the defendant do serve the further and better particulars of the defence and counterclaim ordered by Master Turner on 4th December 1989 by 4.00 pm on 30th October 1991 the defendant’s defence and counterclaim be struck out and judgment entered for the plaintiffs with costs to be taxed [if] not agreed.’
In compliance with the ‘unless’ order the appellants served further and better particulars on 28 October 1991.
By a summons dated 12 November 1991 the appellant sought leave to serve a reamended pleading of replies to the request for further and better particulars of 29 July 1988. This sought to affect substantial amendments to the particulars provided, including those under paras 38 and 43. What in effect this pleading seeks to do is to relate the answers in relation to paras 38 and 43 back to the matters pleaded in the amended defence and counterclaim, thus obviating the necessity for further and better particulars. On this summons Leonard J made no order after the hearing on 19 November 1991.
I now turn to the judgment of Leonard J. Having heard argument from Mr Browne-Wilkinson, for Compass, and Mr Denzil Davies, for the appellant, the judge accepted the description given by Mr Browne-Wilkinson that during the years since the original claim and defence under the counterclaim was served there has been a ‘substantial escalation of the case’. Mr Denzil Davies had argued that from the earliest point the material was present for the plaintiff to see if one is considering the issues rather than the extent of the evidence to be led to those issues. Leonard J did not accept Mr Denzil Davies’s submissions and referred to them in these terms:
‘That may be so, but all that is background to the question I have to consider of whether there was indeed a failure to comply with the “unless” order. I have come to the conclusion that there was such a failure. It is not, in my judgment, a sufficient answer for the defendant to say that the plaintiffs knew what sort of allegation was being made. There was the clear order, admittedly followed by purported compliance within the period limited in the order. But it was only purported compliance, which, in my judgment, was not real and genuine. In addition to that there is the fact that there is, in my judgment, a history of delay throughout this case on the part of the defendant. I have said enough about the chronology already to indicate the nature of that delay. One would not be afraid of the mere fact of the escalation of the case providing that the proper principles of pleading have been followed and provided in particular that the orders of the master were observed. In this case I think they were not and I think it is a serious matter. Set against that background of general delay, it seems to me to provide proper material for saying that the defence and counterclaim should be struck out. That means that the plaintiffs are entitled to their judgment.’
Mr Kemp referred the court to the authorities and quotations cited in The County Court Practice 1992 p 233 under ‘Dismissal of action for disobedience to order’, in particular to the judgments of the Court of Appeal in Re Jokai Tea
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Holdings Ltd (1989) [1993] 1 All ER 630, [1992] 1 WLR 1196. This authority is not mentioned in The Supreme Court Practice 1991 under the appropriate commentary, and is not fully described even in The County Court Practice 1992. The court obtained the full transcript of the judgment, which made it clear that, with respect to Leonard J, his approach was all too arbitrary. He was not, regrettably, referred to this authority, which for some reason appears not to have received the publicity which it deserves.
‘Mr Browne-Wilkinson in his submissions in support of the judgment properly told the court that Compass’s attitude to the difference in the approach of Mr Jones and Miss Morris in connection with the orders made by Master Turner for the further and better particulars was accepted to be the result of an honest misunderstanding on the part of Mr Jones as to the ratio of the master’s order. I have already indicated in this judgment that I accept Miss Morris’s approach to the order. On this basis Mr Browne-Wilkinson had originally submitted that it was not necessary to show that the conduct of the party whose pleading is to be struck out was contumelious but merely a serious failure to comply with the order. As a result of being shown the transcript of Re Jokai Tea Holdings Ltd during the course of his submissions to the court Mr Browne-Wilkinson properly and frankly accepted that he could no longer support the order to strike out the whole of the defence and counterclaim on the basis of the concession that he had made. After very careful review of the authorities, Sir Nicolas Browne-Wilkinson V-C expressed this view, with which I respectfully and wholeheartedly agree ([1993] 1 All ER [1992] 1 WLR 1196 at 1203):
‘In my judgment, in cases in which the court has to decide what are the consequences of a failure to comply with an unless order, the relevant question is whether such failure is intentional and contumelious. The court should not be astute to find excuses for such failure since obedience to orders of the court is the foundation on which its authority is founded. But if a party can clearly demonstrate that there was no intention to ignore or flout the order and that the failure to obey was due to extraneous circumstances, such failure to obey is not to be treated as contumelious and therefore does not disentitle the litigant to rights which he would otherwise have enjoyed.’
This court, as indeed was Leonard J, is bound by this authority. I am forced, with regret, to hold that Leonard J’s order to strike out the defence and counterclaim cannot be justified on any version of the facts. [His Lordship then considered the appeal against para 2 of Leonard J’s order, which he allowed, and concluded:]
In the event of the course that this appeal has taken, it has not been necessary to consider whether the order made by Master Turner in its ‘unless’ form ought more properly to have been restricted to the paragraphs the particulars of which were still found to be inadequate. In a pleading containing many different issues, it would be a truly draconian step to strike out the whole of an extensive claim with many different facets because of the failure in respect of one or two of the many allegations to comply with an order to give further and better particulars, unless it was to mark the court’s displeasure at the deliberate and contumelious conduct of one of the parties. This is not the position here, as Mr Browne-Wilkinson has readily conceded. It might have been a far more appropriate course to consider whether the order should have been to strike out those particular paragraphs in toto but to leave the rest of the defence and counterclaim standing. This matter has not been properly argued and I express no concluded view about it. Before parting with this matter, however, I wish to return to express a view on the adequacy of the further and better particulars supplied under para 38 of the
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defence and counterclaim. If it were necessary for the resolution of this appeal, I would have been of the view that the particulars delivered thereunder in the amended further and better particulars were an adequate reply and in any event should not have been a ground for a draconian order. I do not consider that they represented a failure to comply with the ‘unless’ order of Master Turner, in turn relating back to his order in 1989.
It is otherwise, however, in relation to the further and better particulars pleaded under para 43 to which I have referred earlier in this judgment and which Mr Kemp has not attempted to support. It may be that there were grounds upon which the judge could have taken some action, not-withstanding the concession now made that the conduct of those representing the appellant was not contumelious. I would exercise the powers granted to this court to make an order that the court below could make and order that the whole of para 43 of the amended defence and counterclaim be struck out. This was a course to which Mr Kemp raised no objection. I would therefore, subject to this one matter, allow this appeal and order that the action should proceed. What further directions should be given should, I consider, be more appropriately dealt with elsewhere than in this court. I would, however, recommend that serious consideration should be given to transferring the action to the official referees’ court. The defendant’s amended notice of appeal does not mention Leonard J’s making of ‘no order’ on their summons of 12 November 1991 (leave to reamend further and better particulars) and the matter has not been argued. This can be appropriately dealt with in due course, hopefully on a reference to the official referee.
MANN LJ. I agree.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Allen v Bloomsbury Health Authority and another
[1993] 1 All ER 651
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: QUANTUM
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): BROOKE J
Hearing Date(s): 16,17 DECEMBER 1991, 13 JANUARY 1992
Damages – Unwanted pregnancy – Negligence – Measure of damages – Woman pregnant at time of operation for sterilisation – Hospital negligently failing to diagnose pregnancy – Health authority admitting liability – Assessment of damages for financial loss incurred in bringing up unplanned child – Cost of education – Principles by which financial cost of bringing up unplanned child to be measured.
The plaintiff married in June 1971 and had her first child in 1973. From 1971 until 1975, when her second child was born, she was in full-time employment. She then stayed at home until 1979, by which time both children were at private schools. Her marriage broke down in 1979 and she took a part-time job while looking after the two children. In 1985 the plaintiff decided to be sterilised because she wished to go back to full-time employment in order, in the absence of any maintenance from her husband, to improve the family’s standard of living and because she wished to be freer to lead her own life. In June 1985 the plaintiff underwent a sterilisation operation at a hospital managed by the defendant health authority. In September 1985, when she had just accepted a full-time job, the plaintiff discovered that at the time of the operation she had been four weeks pregnant by her then partner, whom she did not wish to marry, and that her pregnancy had survived the operation. If the pregnancy had been diagnosed at the time of the operation she would have had it terminated, but by the time it was diagnosed she felt it was too late to terminate it. The plaintiff feared that the sterilisation operation would harm the foetus and suffered anxiety until February 1986, when she gave birth to a healthy daughter. The plaintiff brought an action for damages against the health authority claiming the cost and expense of bringing up her daughter until she was 18. The health authority admitted liability and the only issue was the quantum of damages. It was accepted that, but for the daughter’s birth, the plaintiff would have been able to obtain full-time employment and that the daughter’s birth and upbringing had made a substantial difference to the plaintiff’s life and had caused her emotional difficulties and financial insecurity.
Held – For the purposes of assessing the measure of damages which a plaintiff mother was entitled to recover for negligence on the part of a hospital doctor which resulted in an unplanned birth, the mother was entitled to recover (i) general damages for the discomfort and pain associated with the continuation of her pregnancy and delivery of her child, although the benefit of not having to undergo an abortion had to be offset against that, (ii) damages for the financial loss incurred in the upkeep of the child through to adulthood and for the financial loss suffered because of loss of earnings or the incurring of expense as a result of her obligation to the child which she would otherwise have sought to avoid, and (iii), in an appropriate case, general damages for the foreseeable additional anxiety, stress and burden involved in bringing up a handicapped child. However, a claim for damages for tiredness and wear and tear in bringing up an unplanned healthy child would not be allowed since it was offset by the benefit of bringing a healthy child into the world and seeing it grow to maturity. In measuring the future cost
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of maintaining an unplanned child the defendant was liable to pay for all expenses which might reasonably be incurred in the education and upkeep of the child, having regard to all the circumstances of the case and, in particular, having regard to the child’s condition in life and his reasonable requirements at the time the expenditure was incurred. In all the circumstances the plaintiff was entitled to damages totalling £96,631 (see p 657 d to h, p 658 b to d, p 662 a h j and p 663 d to g, post).
Thake v Maurice [1986] 1 All ER 497 and Emeh v Kensington and Chelsea and Westminster Area Health Authority [1984] 3 All ER 1044 applied.
Udale v Bloomsbury Area Health Authority [1983] 2 All ER 522 and Salih v Enfield Health Authority [1991] 3 All ER 400 considered.
Per curiam. If as a result of a doctor’s negligence an unplanned child is born to parents who have put all their other children through expensive private education, a very substantial claim for the cost of private education of a healthy child of a reasonably wealthy family might have to be met from the funds of the health authority responsible for the doctor’s negligence (see p 662 e, post).
Notes
For the assessment of damages, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1200.
Cases referred to in judgment
Benarr v Kettering Health Authority (1988) 138 NLJ 179.
Emeh v Kensington and Chelsea and Westminster Area Health Authority [1984] 3 All ER 1044, [1985] QB 1012, [1984] 2 WLR 233, CA.
Gardiner v Mounfield (1989) 5 BMLR 1.
Gold v Haringey Health Authority [1987] 2 All ER 888, [1988] QB 481, [1987] 3 WLR 649, CA.
Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465, [1963] 3 WLR 101, HL.
McKay v Essex Area Health Authority [1982] 2 All ER 771, [1982] QB 1166, [1982] 2 WLR 890, CA.
Salih v Enfield Health Authority [1991] 3 All ER 400, CA.
Sherlock v Stillwater Clinic (1977) 260 NW 2d 169, Minn SC.
Thake v Maurice [1986] 1 All ER 497, [1986] QB 644, [1986] 3 WLR 337 CA; rvsg in part [1984] 2 All ER 513, [1986] QB 644, [1985] 2 WLR 215.
Udale v Bloomsbury Area Health Authority [1983] 2 All ER 522, [1983] 1 WLR 1098.
Action
By a writ and statement of claim dated 24 June 1988 the plaintiff, Linda Annette Allen, claimed damages from the first defendant, the Bloomsbury Health Authority, and the second defendant, Dr Esther Anderton, for personal injury and consequential loss and damage occasioned to her by the negligence of the servants or agents of the first defendant as the health authority for the Elizabeth Garrett Anderson Hospital and/or the second defendant in their investigation and treatment of the plaintiff as a patient from 25 June 1985. The proceedings against the second defendant were subsequently discontinued. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Michael Brent QC and Peter Latham (instructed by Sheridan & Co, Kingston upon Thames) for the plaintiff.
Jon Williams (instructed by Beachcroft Stanleys) for the health authority.
Cur adv vult
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13 January 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
BROOKE J. In this action by a writ issued on 24 June 1988 the plaintiff, Linda Annette Allen, claims damages against the Bloomsbury Health Authority for personal injury and consequential loss and damage caused by the negligence of the defendants’ servants or agents during a period in the summer of 1985 when she was in their care at the Elizabeth Garrett Anderson Hospital. The background to the plaintiff’s claim is that in June 1985 she underwent an operation at that hospital under general anaesthetic for dilatation and curettage (D & C) and sterilisation. She makes no complaint about the way in which that operation was conducted. However, when she attended a follow-up out-patients’ clinic there on 12 August 1985 she told a doctor that she had not had a period since before the operation and that her stomach and breasts felt swollen.
I need say no more about the detail of what occurred because the defendant health authority admitted in its defence that its responsible servant was negligent in that it was not ascertained at or shortly after the appointment that the plaintiff was by now about 12 weeks pregnant. Although she and her partner had been taking contraceptive precautions she had apparently conceived about four weeks before she attended hospital to be sterilised and her pregnancy had survived the operations which took place.
The defendants accept that if the pregnancy had been diagnosed then the plaintiff would have had it terminated and they did not try to contend that she had acted unreasonably in deciding not to have a termination when the pregnancy was in fact diagnosed at 17 weeks. The plaintiff gave birth to a baby daughter, Faye, on 10 February 1986, and in this action she claims the cost and expense involved in giving up her job and in bringing up Faye until the age of 18 together with general damages for negligence. The only issue I have to decide is the amount of the damages she should recover.
Mrs Allen was born in July 1949. She married in June 1971 and until February 1975 she had a well-paid job as the United Kingdom representative for the French company Pierre Balmain, in charge of their duty-free shops. Her job involved, among other things, responsibility for that company’s duty-free shops at Heathrow and Gatwick Airports, with a staff of two girls working under her supervision. Although her son Scott was born in October 1973 she enjoyed flexible working hours which enabled her to go out and do her job at the airport on a full-time basis after her husband came home from work, since the airport shops stayed open till midnight.
She gave up this job in February 1975, the month before her daughter Leigh was born. She then stayed at home looking after the children until January 1979 by which time they were both at private schools of one kind or another. She then obtained a full-time job with a company called Alder International at London Airport.
Unhappily her marriage broke down in May 1979, when she separated from her husband. She went to live with the two children in a three-bedroomed house in Chessington, and she had to give up full-time employment the following month when her Danish au pair returned to Denmark. Three months later she obtained a part-time job between 9 am and 1 pm each day with a firm of insurance brokers in Kingston where she remained until February 1986, a week before Faye was born. She has not worked since then.
Her husband, against whom she obtained a decree absolute in October 1983, has steadfastly avoided all her efforts to obtain an effective order against him that he should pay maintenance for his two children. Her mother and her mother-in-law helped her by having the children to stay during the holidays when she was at work.
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Mrs Allen is an attractive and capable woman who was certainly not averse to marrying again if she encountered a suitable man, but although she had two boyfriends with children of a similar age to her own she did not remarry during the years leading up to Faye’s conception and birth. She found her work with the insurance brokers quite arduous. She had started there as a clerical assistant, but later she had been put in charge of a new computer system. This work was mentally taxing, and she was working at a fairly high level of pressure all the four hours she worked there each day.
Early in 1985 she decided she wished to be sterilised. By that time she was associating with a man who had three children. He wished to marry her but she had no wish to marry him: she looked on him as a very good friend, and he often accompanied her on visits to the hospital.
The defendants drew my attention to a letter from her general practitioner in October 1984 to the effect that she felt drained and washed out and to a note taken at the hospital in March 1985 that she often felt exhausted. Mrs Allen did not dispute the accuracy of these notes. She said, however, that at that time she had been anxious because she often felt exhausted and depressed when other mothers of her age with similar commitments seemed to cope much better and there did not seem to be any explanation for it. In the spring of 1985 she was referred to a specialist at University College Hospital who carried out tests and explained to her that this was an understandable consequence of previous trouble she had had with her kidneys. She then felt much better once she knew that there was a physical cause for her occasional tiredness, and I accept her evidence.
In the summer of 1985 she underwent her sterilisation operation. She then decided to apply for a full-time job. The children were now 11 and 10 and in the absence of any support from their father she wanted to improve their standard of living and also to be more free to lead her own life. She was offered a managerial job by Avon Cosmetics which she turned down because it would have taken her to a part of south-west London which she felt was a little unsafe. She then applied for and was offered a job by a company who was selling ‘world time clocks’ which it was hoping to sell to travel agents and to companies which did business with organisations all over the world. She was to be paid £7,500 with commission, which she told me was likely to be £2,500 per year, plus the use of a company car, a remuneration package comparable to what Avon had offered her. Unhappily at the precise time she was offered this job she learnt that she was in fact 17 weeks pregnant and she decided to stay where she was until her baby was born and to benefit from the entitlement to maternity allowance and maternity leave she had earned with her current employers.
The defendants contended that in view of her complaints of exhaustion she would not have been able to hold down a full-time job if Faye had not been born. They also carried out a company search which showed that her new would-be employers were struck off the Register of Companies in 1989 and that their accounts in 1985 and 1986 did not evidence any ability to pay Mrs Allen the level of wages they were offering her. However that may be, I was impressed by the way she gave evidence in the witness box. I am quite satisfied on the balance of probabilities that she would have been able to obtain full-time employment on the open market in some form of supervisory capacity to which she could also bring her clerical and computer skills, at the same level of pay as both Avon and her would-be new employers were willing to offer her. Although she would have been tired from time to time, as many working mothers are, there seemed to me to be no good reason why she could not have kept a full-time job.
Mrs Allen was devastated by the news that she was pregnant. She decided she wanted an abortion, and her general practitioner signed an appropriate certificate.
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However, after discussing the matter with a doctor at the hospital and seeing the results of an ultra-sound scan she changed her mind. Thereafter she had an uneventful pregnancy and there were no complications at Faye’s birth. She was extremely anxious and worried, however, all through the remainder of her pregnancy that the D & C operation might have harmed the baby in some way and that she would give birth to a handicapped child. Although all the available tests were carried out and she was assured by her doctors and by a very close friend of hers who gave evidence at the trial that it was most unlikely that the four-week-old foetus would have suffered any harm, they could not completely exclude the possibility and this understandably preyed on her mind. Fortunately her fears proved unfounded and Faye was born a completely healthy child.
Originally Faye shared her mother’s bedroom, but this was no longer practicable after she was about a year old. Accordingly, Mrs Allen borrowed money from the building society who are the mortgagees of her house which enabled her to convert the garage into a bedroom for her son, with a toilet attached to it, since the only toilet in the house was upstairs and he would not have been able to reach it without walking through the lounge.
Mrs Allen has not gone back to work yet because she would have had to pay somebody to look after Faye while she was working part-time. Because she would also have lost income support she would not have been financially better off, and she thought it better to stay at home and look after her daughter herself. Faye started at school in January 1991. After a good start she was unfortunately very unsettled in the autumn term because a teacher left, which unsettled her whole class.
Faye has always been a stubborn child and just at the moment she is prone to long temper tantrums if she does not get her way. Her mother understandably gets worn down by these incidents and often finds Faye very difficult to handle on her own. She told me that a recent holiday in Florida, where Faye and she had been taken by a man she had agreed to marry, turned out to be a complete disaster because of her daughter’s turbulent behaviour, and her relationship with this man has not really recovered from that experience.
Faye also has a slight speech defect which has led to her having regular speech therapy since she was three years old. I was told she talks like a child much younger than she is. Her diction is not clear and she used to be quite difficult to understand. Now that she is at school it is believed that she has slight dyslexia. Subject to all these things, I was told she is a lovely child. Her mother’s eyes lit up when she said this, and both her son and her friend confirmed how attractive a child Faye now is.
The recent problems at school led to Faye throwing more tantrums at home, and I was told about one vivid recent example of this when she had not wanted to have a bath on a Saturday morning. Her mother could not cope with this at all, and eventually after about ninety minutes her son Scott managed to calm Faye down.
Mrs Allen told me that, once the trial was over and she had some financial security so that she could think of engaging a child-minder for Faye, she would probably go back to part-time employment for four hours a day at Easter next year. She would need to pay for a child-minder for the weeks when her holidays and Faye’s did not coincide. Faye’s school day ends at 3.15 pm and she did not wish to be out at work all day while Faye was at primary school. She would hope to move to full-time employment in 1997 when Faye is 11. Once Fay is 14 she would be too old for a child-minder but she would need to have some base on which she could rely while her mother was out at work. All this appeared to me to be complete reasonable.
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Mrs Allen did not wish to name Faye’s father. Her son Scott told me that his mother had told him who he was, and he had seen this man at the hospital after Faye’s birth. I am quite satisfied on the evidence I heard that, despite some suggestions to that effect in the contemporary hospital notes, Faye’s father is not the man to whom I made reference earlier, although that man gave Mrs Allen and her children a great deal of support and help in the months before and after Faye’s birth.
Mrs Allen told me that Faye’s father was prone to being very violent. He had refused to pay her anything for Faye’s maintenance and if she had ever tried to get an order against him she was certain that he would then move out of the accommodation he rents and be very difficult to trace. She had failed in spite of all her efforts to obtain any maintenance from her former husband for her two older children, and it was not contended by the defendants that she ought reasonably to have mitigated her damages by trying to obtain an order against Faye’s father. In any event, she told me that she does not know where he is now living and she has not seen him for over six months.
Faye’s birth and upbringing have made a substantial difference to Mrs Allen’s life. Faye was born at a time when her two children were both nearly of secondary school age, and at the age of 35 she had good prospects of obtaining an interesting, well-paid full-time job. I consider on the evidence that she would probably have remarried before she was 40 and then continued at work, combining her work, as many women now do, with her role as wife and mother to a probably expanded family, since her second husband may well have had children of the same age as her own. She was, and is, a very competent woman.
In the event she had to do the best she could to make ends meet on the income support and child benefit she received. Her two older children have regularly taken holiday jobs to help with the family finances, and their mother has never been able to afford to pay them pocket money since Faye was born. They each paid for themselves from their earnings when the whole family went to Ibiza for a holiday in 1987 when Faye was 18 months old. Mrs Allen usually dresses Faye in secondhand clothes passed down from older children, and she certainly cannot afford to buy much in the way of clothes for herself. She still wears most of the clothes she wore when Faye was born. She cannot afford to let Faye enjoy the extras her school contemporaries enjoy, such as dancing or drama, as she has no money to spare for clothes or tuition fees.
Both her older children still live at home. Leigh is now 16 and has just started a two-year college course. Scott is 18 and has been earning about £140 a week working for building contractors, although he is temporarily laid off. He pays for all his clothes and his holidays and other expenses out of his earnings and gives his mother £30 per week for his keep.
By carefully husbanding her slender resources Mrs Allen has just managed to keep things going without running into debt. She currently receives £104 per week from income support and child benefit. 90% of this goes on regular household bills and with the balance and what she receives from Scott when he is at work she pays the food bills and for miscellaneous items of family expenditure. The contrast in financial terms between her life before and after Faye’s birth is very striking.
Her social life has also been very seriously affected. I accept the evidence I heard that her potential male acquaintances lost serious interest in her once they found out that she had had a young child. In about April 1991 she became engaged to marry a man with whom she had had a fairly close relationship ten years before, but this engagement ended abruptly as a result of the disastrous holiday to which I have referred. Although she is now seeing this man again, she is having to take
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her relationship with him very much more cautiously now because of the difficulties over Faye’s behaviour and she really does not know how things will turn out.
So much for the facts. I turn now to the law. Although a claim of this type has not yet been considered by the House of Lords, the principles on which damages are to be awarded have been considered a number of times by the Court of Appeal, and I was referred to all the leading cases which have been decided in the last seven years. I derive from these cases the following principles which should guide me when I consider Mrs Allen’s claim.
(1) If a doctor fails to act towards his patient with the standard of care reasonably to be expected of him, and as a foreseeable result of the doctor’s breach of duty a child is born whose potential for life would have been lawfully terminated but for the doctors negligence, the law entitles the mother to recover damages for the foreseeable loss and damage she suffers in consequence of the doctor’s negligence (see Emeh v Kensington and Chelsea and Westminster Area Health Authority [1984] 3 All ER 1044, [1985] QB 1012).
(2) A plaintiff mother is entitled to recover general damages (and any associated financial special damage) for the discomfort and pain associated with the continuation of her pregnancy and the delivery of her child, although she must set off against this claim a sum in respect of the benefit of avoiding the pain and suffering and associated financial loss which would have resulted from the termination of her pregnancy under general anaesthetic, since in the events which have happened she has not had to undergo that operation (see Emeh’s case [1984] 3 All ER 1044 at 1056, [1985] QB 1012 at 1028 per Purchas LJ, Thake v Maurice [1986] 1 All ER 497 at 508, [1986] QB 644 at 682 per Kerr LJ, Gardiner v Mounfield (1989) 5 BMLR 1 at 5–6 per Scott Baker J).
(3) She is also entitled to damages for economic loss quite unassociated with her own physical injury which falls into two main categories: (i) the financial loss she suffers because when the unwanted baby is born she has a growing child to feed, clothe, house, educate and care for until the child becomes an adult; (ii) the financial loss she suffers because she has lost or may lose earnings or incur other expense because of her obligations towards her child which she would have sought to avoid (see Emeh’s case [1984] 3 All ER 1044 at 1053, 1056, [1985] QB 1012 at 1025, 1028 per Slade and Purchas LJJ respectively; adopted and applied by the Court of Appeal in Thake v Maurice [1986] 1 All ER 497, [1986] QB 644).
(4) Although the law recognises that it is foreseeable that if an unwanted child is born following a doctor’s negligence a mother may suffer wear and tear and tiredness in bringing up a healthy child, the claim for general damages she might otherwise have had on this account is generally set off against and extinguished by the benefit of bringing a healthy child into the world and seeing one’s child grow up to maturity (see Thake v Maurice [1986] 1 All ER 497 at 508, [1986] QB 644 at 682 per Kerr LJ).
(5) However, the law is willing to recognise a claim for general damages in respect of the foreseeable additional anxiety, stress and burden involved in bringing up a handicapped child, which is not treated as being extinguished by any countervailing benefit, although this head of damages is different in kind from the typical claim for anxiety and stress associated with and flowing from an injured plaintiff’s own personal injuries (see Emeh’s case [1984] 3 All ER 1044 at 1052, [1985] QB 1012 at 1022 per Waller LJ).
Academic writers (for example, Kennedy and Grubb Medical Law (1989) pp 584–585) have observed that the courts have not yet had to identify analytically the precise nature of the claim they have recognised as viable. In Emeh’s case Slade LJ could see no reason why, under public policy, the plaintiff should not recover
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‘such financial damage as she can prove she has sustained’ by the negligence in question, whether or not the child is healthy (see [1984] 3 All ER 1044 at 1054, [1985] QB 1012 at 1025); and Purchas LJ could see no reason to introduce into the ‘perfectly ordinary, straightforward rules of recovery of damages’, whether or not they are damages from a breach of contract or from tort, some qualification to reflect special social positions (see [1984] 3 All ER 1044 at 1056, [1985] QB at 1028).
For my purpose I am content to assume that the Court of Appeal has recognised that in the unique circumstances surrounding the breach of a doctor’s duty to a pregnant woman (or a woman who may become pregnant against her wishes) she should be entitled to recover damages for the two quite distinct foreseeable heads of loss which I identified when I was analysing the principles which should guide me in this case. The first, a claim for damages for personal injuries during the period leading up to the delivery of the child, is a claim which is comparable to, though different from, a claim for damages for personal injuries resulting from the infliction of a traumatic injury to a plaintiff by a negligent defendant. The second, a claim for the economic loss involved in the expense of losing paid employment and the obligation of having to pay for the upkeep and care of an unwanted child, is a totally different type of claim, although it may in turn be associated with a different type of claim for damages for the loss of amenity associated with bringing up a handicapped child.
I realise that if Parliament does not intervene this is likely to mean that different limitation periods may apply to the two types of claim, since it is hard to see how s 11 of the Limitation Act 1980 would apply to a claim limited to the financial costs associated with the upbringing of the unwanted child since this would be, on the facts of a case like the present, a straightforward Hedley Byrne (see Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465) type of claim for foreseeable economic loss caused by negligent advice or misstatement. However, this is not a matter I have to decide in this case.
One important issue does, however, arise for my decision. This relates to the principles by which the financial cost of bringing up the unwanted child is to be measured. By definition the mother has decided in this class of case that she did not want to have another baby, and in many cases she could not afford to have another baby without considerable hardship to herself and/or the other members of her family. The baby, for its part, did not choose to be born and has no claim itself for the cost of being reared (see McKay v Essex Area Health Authority [1982] 2 All ER 771, [1982] QB 1166).
Should the tortfeasor whose negligence has ‘caused’ the baby’s ‘wrongful birth’ be compelled to pay the ‘reasonable’ costs of its upkeep? If so, how should those costs be measured, given that it is of the essence of the tortfeasor’s negligence that the cost of upkeep is being borne by a mother who looked to him to exercise reasonable care in preventing her from incurring it? Alternatively, should the tortfeasor merely have to pay what is ‘necessary’, whatever that word means in this context? Is it ‘necessary’ for a child to have extra music lessons or to go on school trips or to go away for holidays or to be able to buy books and equipment for his interests and hobbies like his school contemporaries? If the test is necessity, how does a judge measure necessity without descending to the criteria adopted by the old poor law guardians or the modern curators of the social fund?
The Court of Appeal has not, so far as I am aware, answered these questions, although there is a hint of an answer in one of the leading cases. This hint, however, might be interpreted at its face value as running contrary to the views which were recently expressed by at Least one very experienced judge at first instance.
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In Emeh’s case [1984] 3 All ER 1044 at 1056, [1985] QB 1012 at 1028 Purchas LJ expressly adopted the summary of the majority decision of the Supreme Court of Minnesota in Sherlock v Stillwater Clinic (1977) 260 NW 2d 169 at 170–171. That court had held that the parents might—
‘recover the reasonable costs of rearing the unplanned child subject to offsetting the value of the child’s aid, comfort and society during the parent’s life expectancy.’
Slade LJ referred to the mother’s entitlement to recover ‘such financial damage as she … has sustained’ and Waller LJ said that ‘damages can be awarded which may in some cases be an encouragement and help to bring up an unplanned child’ (see [1984] 3 All ER 1044 at 1054, 1051, [1985] QB 1012 at 1025, 1021), but I do not find any statement of principle to which more than one member of the court adhered, presumably because it did not have to decide any issue of principle in this context when it considered the sums which had been suggested by the trial judge as being appropriate if he was wrong, as the court held that he was, in dismissing the plaintiff’s claim on liability.
There were six relevant decisions by judges at first instance which were brought to my attention or were mentioned during the hearing.
In Udale v Bloomsbury Area Health Authority [1983] 2 All ER 522, [1983] 1 WLR 1098 Mr and Mrs Udale lived with their four children in a nice part of Hemel Hempstead. He was a heavy goods vehicle driver and she worked part-time as a telephonist-operator. She claimed damages in respect of her unwanted fifth child. Although at a trial in February 1983 Jupp J decided against her on liability on this point on public policy grounds (on which he was later overruled by the Court of Appeal in Emeh’s case) he assessed damages by reference to supplementary benefit (£1,750 for just over 4 years) up to trial and by reference to a publication called ‘The Money Book’ which provided evidence which underpinned an estimate of £4,500 as the future cost of bringing up the child until he reached the age of 16. Jupp J said ([1983] 2 All ER 522 and 529, [1983] 1 WLR 1098 at 1106):
‘I take the round sum of £5,000 as the proper assessment, bearing in mind Mrs Udale’s belief that the basic figures are rather tight and the possibility that income tax may begin to impinge when the older children go out into the world and David gets nearer to 16.’
In Emeh’s case the judgments in the Court of Appeal show that Park J had assessed the cost of maintaining the child up to the date of trial at the end of 1982 when she was five and a half at £1,736 and the future cost, after taking into account child allowance, at £507 pa to which he applied a multiplier of eight. Nothing is said about the social circumstances of the plaintiff and her Nigerian husband except that she already had three children.
In Thake v Maurice [1984] 2 All ER 513, [1986] QB 644 Mr and Mrs Thake had five children before the unwanted sixth child was born. They lived in a three-bedroomed council house. He was a guard with British Rail, and he had his vasectomy when they were having the greatest difficulty managing on his pay. His wife contributed to the family income by doing domestic work when she did not have a child under school age. They clothed their family by use of jumble sales and a clothing club and they had not had a holiday for years. Their unplanned daughter shared a bedroom with one of her brothers and one of her sisters. In these circumstances Peter Pain J said ([1984] 2 All ER 513 at 527, [1986] QB 644 at 668):
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‘I confine myself to the costs of Samantha’s birth and upkeep. The plaintiffs have claimed for this on a moderate basis. They have made their calculations on the basis of the supplementary benefits scales. This is right. Samantha has been born into a humble household and the defendant should not be expected to do more than provide her with necessaries.’
The parties had agreed, subject to liability, the cost of the child’s layette and upkeep to her first birthday at £717, the cost of her upkeep in the next three years at £960, and the claim from her fourth to her seventh birthday (she was nearly five at the time of trial) at £5,000. These figures made allowance for the state benefits the child’s mother received in respect of her child. The Court of Appeal ([1986] 1 All ER 497, [1986] QB 644) was not concerned with this part of Peter Pain J’s judgment.
In Benarr v Kettering Health Authority (1988) 138 NLJ 179 Hodgson J was concerned with a quite different type of family. He said that he supposed that once upon a time they would have been categorised as upper middle class. They had had three children and their claim was in respect of a fourth unplanned child. Mr Benarr was in settled and lucrative employment and had insured his life for £300,000, and the judge found that he and his wife were deeply interested in obtaining the best possible education for their children. The parties reached agreement on most of the heads of damage claimed (which are not reported, although the total award was just over £60,000) but the judge had to decide whether they were entitled to recover the cost of private education. He observed that the assessment of damages in claims of this nature had never been subjected to detailed jurisprudential analysis and that the best available guidance was the judgment of Peter Pain J in Thake v Maurice. He found that whatever the results of the litigation, whether successful or not, the fourth child would have been privately educated so long as financial disaster did not overtake the family. He quoted the relevant part of Peter Pain J’s judgment and continued (138 NLJ 179 at 180):
‘It is clear there that Peter Pain J was taking into account the financial status of the family and directing his mind, correctly, in my view—and this, I think is not seriously in dispute—to the sort of expenditure which would be incurred for a child in that state of life. In other words, in my judgment he was addressing his mind to what would be necessary to a child so circumstanced. Perhaps an analogy could be made to the test of necessaries as applied to an infant’s contract. If that be the right test, and I think it is, it would follow that if the victim of a negligent vasectomy is a father who would in any event have privately educated his children, he is entitled to be compensated for what in the circumstances of that family could properly be called a necessary. I therefore conclude that the plaintiff is entitled to be compensated for the future expense to which he will be put in respect of Catherine’s education.’
At the date of trial the child was four and a half years old. The term fees for pre-preparatory school (ages 4 to 7) were then £315, for preparatory school (ages 8 to 12) £961 and for the local private secondary school at Wellingborough, where the family lived (ages 13 to 17) £1,066, and Hodgson J eventually made an award, for reasons which need not concern me, of just under £20,000 under this head, based on a multiplier of eight.
In Salih v Enfield Health Authority [1991] 3 All ER 400, when the relevant child was nearly six at the date of trial, Drake J adopted in his calculations an undisputed multiplicand of £1,050 a year, said to represent the additional basic costs of
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providing for a family of two adults and three children compared with a family of two adults and two children, but he did not have to decide anything in relation to the basis on which that sum was assessed or what was meant by basic costs. Mr Salih’s income as the owner of a clothing factory is not reported and Mrs Salih’s earning capacity seems to have been comparable to Mrs Allen’s in the present case.
Finally, my attention was drawn to Gardiner v Mounfield (1989) 5 BMLR 1 Scott Baker J’s judgment reveals nothing at all about the plaintiff mother except that she was young and almost certainly unmarried and that she had lived in Lincolnshire. Her unplanned daughter was nearly five at the date of trial. The cost of maintenance was agreed at £1,200 for the first two years of the child’s life. Of the next two years Scott Baker J said: ‘I think the figure is broadly £750 for two years, say £1,500’. He had presumably adjusted the agreed figures for inflation and, perhaps (something which does not feature in some of the earlier cases) because the child was getting older and more expensive to care for. Of the future he said (at 6):
‘Turning to future loss, the child is nearly five. She is likely to become more expensive as she gets older. In 11 years’ time she will be 16. Part of the cost of maintenance will be met by child benefit, the loss is the additional cost. I assess this at £20 per week, ie £1,040 per annum. I take a multiplier of 8 …’
The award for future loss under this head was, therefore, £8,320. The basis on which the judge arrived at his figures does not appear in the report of his judgment.
It will be evident that there is not yet any clear guidance from the Court of Appeal about the basis on which the future cost of maintaining the unplanned child should be assessed. Both Peter Pain and Hodgson JJ referred to defendants being expected to do no more than provide necessaries. It is likely that both those very experienced judges had in mind the jurisprudence underlying what is now s 3 of the Sale of Goods Act 1979 which defines ‘necessaries’ as ‘goods suitable to the condition in life of the minor and to his actual requirements at the time of sale and delivery’. Indeed, Hodgson J expressly referred to this legislation, and a glance at some of the rather quaint examples of a bygone age which are cited in Chitty on Contracts (26th edn, 1989) vol 1, para 563 gives a flavour of what he probably had in mind:
‘1. Necessaries. Engagement and wedding rings, regimental uniform (for an enlisted soldier), presents for a fiancée, a racing bicycle for a youth earning (in 1898) 21s a week, the hire of horses and for work done for them, and the hire of a car to fetch luggage from a station six miles away.
2. Not Necessaries. Fancy waistcoats for a Cambridge undergraduate already sufficiently supplied with clothing … jewelled solitaire sleeve-links for the son of a deceased baronet, a large quantity of tobacco for an army officer, lessons in flying for a law student … a hunter for an impecunious cavalry officer and a collection of snuff boxes and curios.’
Provided that the word ‘necessary’ is understood in this light (although the latest of these examples in a current textbook was decided in 1930 and one of them goes back to 1739) there is no inconsistency, in my judgment, between this test and the test adopted by the Supreme Court of Minnesota which was adopted and approved by Purchas LJ in Emeh’s case.
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In my judgment in this type of case defendants are liable to pay for all such expenses as may be reasonably incurred for the education and upkeep for the unplanned child, having regard to all the circumstances of the case and, in particular, to his condition in life and his reasonable requirements at the time the expenditure is incurred.
Before I leave this consideration of the legal principles which I should apply when quantifying Mrs Allen’s claim, I remind myself that the Court of Appeal has made it clear that I should exclude all the considerations which moral philosophers or theologians might regard as relevant when I compute the figure which I consider appropriate for the cost of Faye’s care.
In Gold v Haringey Health Authority [1987] 2 All ER 888 at 890, [1988] QB 481 at 484 Lloyd LJ said that many would agree with the surprise expressed by a judge in an earlier unreported case that the law acknowledged an entitlement in a mother to claim damages for the blessing of a healthy child. He pointed out that the conflict of decisions at first instance about the relevant considerations of public policy had been resolved, so far as the Court of Appeal was concerned, by the unanimous decision of that court in Emeh’s case.
As I have said, these issues have not yet been considered by the House of Lords and in the six years since Emeh’s case was decided Parliament has done nothing to negate or mitigate the effect of that decision even though contemporary commentators pointed out that it cleared the way for potentially heavy future awards of damages for the cost of maintaining children in this class of case.
If an unplanned child is born after a failure by a hospital doctor to exercise the standard of care reasonably to be expected of him and the child’s parents have sent all their other children to expensive private boarding schools for the whole of their education then it appears to me that as the law now stands a very substantial claim for the cost of private education of a healthy child of a reasonably wealthy family might have to be met from the funds of the health authority responsible for the doctor’s negligence. However, if this is regarded as inappropriate on policy grounds it is, as Waller LJ pointed out in Emeh’s case, for Parliament, not the courts to determine policy questions: judges at first instance, at any rate, can do no more than try to identify and apply principles approved by the higher courts unless and until Parliament intervenes.
Having stated the legal principles which I should apply I turn finally to the itemised heads of damage which Mrs Allen claims.
[His Lordship then considered the claims for damages under the various heads and continued:]
Mrs Allen’s claim for pain and suffering and loss of amenity
For the period up to the birth, with the associated fear that Faye might be handicapped (there is an offset for not having an abortion and any loss of earnings associated with that) I award £1,250.
Left to myself, I would decline, however, to make any further award under this head. In a case where the future child is foreseeably born handicapped, for example, because the effects of rubella have not been explained to its pregnant mother by a negligent defendant, I can see reasons why a court is willing to award the mother an extraordinary item of general damages for the burden of bringing up a handicapped child. In this case, however, no evidence was adduced on Mrs Allen’s behalf of anything she told the defendants’ staff at the hospital as to what might happen to her social life if in August 1985 she was allowed, through negligence, to carry to birth an unwanted child, and what I have seen recorded in the hospital notes bears no hint that her social life might be affected in the way it has been. Similarly, although the care of Faye has obviously had its anxieties,
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which may have been exacerbated by Mrs Allen’s financial plight because this case has taken so long to come to court, I do not see how, if I apply the ‘perfectly ordinary straightforward rules of recovery of damages’ to which Purchas LJ referred in Emeh’s case, I should award additional damages against the defendants because the child when born had temper tantrums or defective speech or slight dyslexia.
In my judgment, in the absence of any further illumination from the Court of Appeal about the principles underlying this head of damage and in the absence of any evidence tending to show that in or before August 1985 the defendants ought reasonably to have foreseen that an unborn child might present Mrs Allen with any particular problems when born, the proper course for me to adopt is to apply the guidance given by Kerr LJ in Thake v Maurice [1986] 1 All ER 497 at 509, [1986] QB 644 at 683:
‘The joy of parents at the birth of a healthy child, though with the consequent time and trouble which needs to be devoted to its upbringing, are both virtually impossible to assess in terms of money. It is therefore right that in law they should be treated as cancelling each other out.’
I remind myself of the evidence that despite all her current problems Faye is a lovely child.
The defendants have, however, conceded that a total figure of £2,500 is proper, and I certainly do not wish to expose them to the risk of an appeal over so small an amount. I therefore award £2,500.
Award of general damages
In these circumstances, I make the following award of general damages:
Mrs Allen’s future loss of earnings till Faye is 11 £29,715.84
Child-minding costs when Faye is 11 to 14 2,850.00
Cost of maintaining Faye till she is 18 27,152.00
Mrs Allen’s claim for pain and suffering and loss of amenity 2,500.00
Interest on £2,500 at agreed rate of 5% 125.00
£62,342.84
The award
Subject to any further adjustment for interest, to take into account the short period between trial and judgment, the total award, therefore, is:
Special damages £25,232.77
Interest on special damages 9,055.68
General damages (including interest) 62,342.84
£96,631.29
Judgment for the plaintiff for damages of £96,631.29.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Channel Tunnel Group Ltd and another v Balfour Beatty Construction Ltd and others
[1993] 1 All ER 664
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Arbitration
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13, 14, 15 OCTOBER 1992, 21 JANUARY 1993
Arbitration – Stay of court proceedings – Power of court to order stay – Contract providing for disputes to be settled by arbitration after initial reference to panel of experts – Court proceedings commenced without any reference being made to panel – Application for stay of court proceedings – Whether fact that reference had not been made to panel preventing court from ordering stay – Arbitration Act 1975, s 1.
Arbitration – Injunction – Interlocutory injunction – Power of court – Arbitration agreement – Seat of arbitration abroad – Building contract – Defendants threatening to suspend performance of building contract – Whether court having power to grant injunction restraining defendants from suspending performance of contract where seat of arbitration abroad – Arbitration Act 1950, s 12(6)(h) – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 37.
The appellants were the concessionaires under a concession granted by the English and French governments for the construction and operation of the Channel tunnel between England and France. They entered into a contract dated 13 August 1986 with the respondents, a joint venture of French and English companies, for the design and construction of the tunnel. The contract, which was governed by the principles common to both English and French law and in the absence of such common principles by general principnes of international trade law, provided that any dispute between the parties should first be referred to a panel of experts for settlement and then be finally settled by arbitration in Brussels under the rules of the International Chamber of Commerce. The appellants were entitled under the contract to issue a variation order for, and the respondents were obliged to carry out if so ordered, ‘additional work of any kind necessary for the completion of the Works’. The price of any such additional work was, in the absence of provision in the contract, to be agreed between the parties, and in the event of disagreement the appellants were to fix a price which they considered to be reasonable and proper and if that was not accepted by the respondents the dispute was to be referred to the panel of experts, the respondents being obliged to proceed in the meantime with the works so ordered. When the contract was signed it was envisaged that although a cooling system would eventually be required it was not necessary for the opening of the tunnel and therefore provision was made in the lump sum works merely for the design and not the supply of such a system. It later transpired that a cooling system would be needed for the opening of the tunnel and in 1988 the appellants issued a variation order for the provision of such a system. The parties were unable to reach agreement as to the price for the construction of the cooling system and on 3 October 1991 the respondents wrote to the appellants threatening to suspend work on the cooling system unless the appellants agreed and paid the respondents’ proposed price for the construction of the cooling system by 7 October. The appellants did not agree to the respondents’ demand and instead commenced an action in the High Court for an interim injunction restraining the respondents from suspending work on the cooling system. The respondents applied for a stay
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of the proceedings under s 1a of the Arbitration Act 1975 on the basis that the proceedings were in respect of a dispute which the parties had agreed, under the contract, to refer to arbitration. The judge refused a stay on the ground that neither party was in a position to embark on arbitration since no reference had been made to the panel of experts and such a reference was a necessary preliminary to an arbitration. The judge further held that he had jurisdiction under s 12(6)(h)b of the Arbitration Act 1950 to grant an interim mandatory injunction against the respondents pending the arbitration and was prepared to do so, but in the event he made no order because the respondents gave an undertaking that they would not suspend work on the cooling system without giving the appellants 14 days’ notice. The respondents appealed to the Court of Appeal, which allowed their appeal and stayed appellants’ action under s 1(1) of the 1975 Act on the grounds that it was not necessary that all preliminary steps had to have been taken to enable an arbitration to proceed before the court’s jurisdiction to stay under s 1 could be invoked. The court further held that there was no power to grant an injunction under s 12(6)(h) of the 1950 Act where the arbitration was to take place abroad. The appellants appealed to the House of Lords against the stay granted under s 1(1) of the 1975 Act.
Held – (1) The court had power pursuant to its inherent jurisdiction to grant a stay of an action brought before it in breach of an agreed method of resolving disputes by some other method. Furthermore, a stay of the appellants’ action ought to be granted because the parties were large commercial enterprises negotiating at arm’s length in the light of long experience of construction contracts who had clearly decided that the two-stage procedure, despite its potential weaknesses, had a balance of practical advantage over the alternative of bringing proceedings in the national courts and because, having agreed to take their complaints to experts and if necessary arbitrators, they should be required in the interests of the orderly regulation of international commerce to have resort to their chosen tribunal to settle their commercial differences. Moreover, since it could not be said on the evidence before the court that the appellants’ claim was so unanswerable that there was nothing to arbitrate, there was ‘a dispute’ between the parties with regard to the subject matter of the action and therefore no reason to withhold a stay (see p 667 h j, p 668 b, p 670 d e, p 677 e f h, p 678 c to f and p 681 e to g, post).
(2) Where the court made an order staying an action pending a foreign arbitration it had no power under s 12(6) of the 1950 Act to grant an interim injunction since none of the powers conferred on the court by that Act applied to arbitrations conducted abroad under a law other than English law. Accordingly, the chosen curial law of the arbitration being Belgian law the court had no power under s 12(6) to grant an interim injunction requiring the respondents to continue work on the cooling system pending the decision of the panel or the arbitrators (see p 667 h j, p 668 b, p 670 g, p 683 a b f to h and p 684 d e, post).
(3) The court had power to grant an interlocutory injunction under s 37c of the Supreme Court Act 1981 in support of a cause of action which the parties had agreed should be the subject of a foreign arbitration, notwithstanding that proceedings in England had been stayed under s 1 of the 1975 Act so that the agreed method of adjudication should take place, since the cause of action remained potentially justiciable before the English court despite the stay. Accordingly, although the commencement of the action was a breach of the arbitration agreement, so that the respondents were not properly before the court,
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the court had power under s 37 of the 1981 Act to grant an interlocutory injunction to prevent the respondents stopping work on the cooling system. However, as a matter of discretion the injunction sought by the appellants would not be granted because the injunction sought was the same relief which would be claimed from the panel and the arbitrators and therefore if the court were to grant the injunction it would largely pre-empt the decision of the panel and arbitrators. The appeal would therefore be dismissed and the appellants’ action stayed (see p 667 h j, p 668 b, p 669 d to j, p 670 h, p 687 c d, p 689 f and p 690 e g to p 691 a g, post); Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803 distinguished; Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 289 considered.
Per curiam. The court has power to stay an action under s 1(1) of the 1975 Act where the reference to arbitrators is to take place, if at all, only after the matter has been referred to someone else, because a stay under s 1(1) does not automatically give rise to a reference to arbitration but merely requires and empowers the court to do no more than stay the action, thereby cutting off the plaintiff’s preferred method of enforcing his claim. It is then up to the plaintiff to choose to set an arbitration in motion on pain of losing his claim if he chooses not to do so (see p 667 h j, p 668 b and p 679 f j to p 680 a).
Per Lord Browne-Wilkinson (Lord Keith and Lord Goff concurring). It is doubtful whether the general power to grant injunctions conferred on the court by s 37 of the 1981 Act is restricted to certain exclusive categories (see p 667 j to p 668 a and p 670 a to c, post); dictum of Lord Diplock in Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803 at 825 doubted.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1992] 2 All ER 609 affirmed.
Notes
For stay of court proceedings pending arbitration, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 616–620, and for cases on the subject, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 70–76, 360–390.
For the interlocutory powers of the court to grant an interim injunction in arbitration proceedings, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 677.
For the Arbitration Act 1950, s 12, see 2 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 585.
For the Arbitration Act 1975, s 1, see ibid 644.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 37, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 1001.
Cases referred to in opinions
Athenee (cargo owners) v Athenee (1922) 11 Ll L Rep 6, CA
Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909, [1981] 2 WLR 141, HL.
British Airways Board v Laker Airways Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 39, [1985] AC 58, [1984] 3 WLR 413, HL.
Castanho v Brown & Root (UK) Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 143, [1981] AC 557, [1980] 3 WLR 991, HL.
Doleman & Sons v Ossett Corp [1912] 3 KB 257, CA.
Etri Fans Ltd v NMB (UK) Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 763, [1987] 1 WLR 1110, CA.
Fehmarn, The [1957] 2 All ER 707, [1957] 1 WLR 815; affd [1958] 1 All ER 333, [1958] 1 WLR 159, CA.
Foster & Dicksee v Hastings Corp (1903) 87 LT 736.
Hamlyn & Co v Talisker Distillery [1894] AC 202, [1891–4] All ER Rep 849, HL.
Hayter v Nelson and Home Insurance Co [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 265.
Home and Overseas Insurance Co Ltd v Mentor Insurance Co (UK) Ltd (in liq) [1989] 3 All ER 74, [1990] 1 WLR 153, CA.
Page 667 of [1993] 1 All ER 664
McCreary Tire and Rubber Co v CEAT SpA (1974) 501 F 2d 1032, US Ct of Apps (3rd Cir).
Nissan (UK) Ltd v Nissan Motor Co Ltd [1991] CA Transcript 848.
Racecourse Betting Control Board v Secretary of State for Air [1944] 1 All ER 60, [1944] Ch 114, CA.
Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803, [1979] AC 210, [1977] 3 WLR 818, HL.
South Carolina Insurance Co v Assurantie Maatschappij ‘de Zeven Provincien’ NV [1986] 3 All ER 487, [1987] AC 24, [1986] 3 WLR 398, HL.
Spiliada Maritime Corp v Cansulex Ltd, The Spiliada [1986] 3 All ER 843, [1987] AC 460, [1986] 3 WLR 972, HL.
Appeal
Channel Tunnel Group Ltd and France Manche SA, a company incorporated in France with limited liability, appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 11 June 1992 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Neill, Woolf and Staughton LJJ) ([1992] 2 All ER 609, [1992] QB 656) on 22 January 1992 allowing the appeal of the respondents, Balfour Beatty Construction Ltd, Costain Civil Engineering Ltd, Tarmac Construction Ltd, Taylor Woodrow Construction Holdings Ltd, Wimpey Major Projects Ltd, all of whom had registered offices in England, and GIE Transmanche Construction Bouygues SA, Lyonnaise des Eaux-Dumez (formerly known as Dumez SA), Société Auxiliaire d’Entreprises SA, Société Générale d’Entreprises SA and Spie Batignolles SA, all of whom had registered offices in France, from the judgment of Evans J given on 27 November 1991 and order dated 4 December 1991 whereby he ordered (1) that the respondents’ application under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 and/or the inherent jurisdiction of the court for a stay of the proceedings brought by the appellants for an interlocutory injunction restraining the respondents from suspending work in respect of the cooling system for the Channel tunnel be dismissed and (2) that, on the respondents by their counsel undertaking that they would not suspend work in respect of the cooling system without giving the appellants 14 days’ notice, there be no order on the appellants’ application for an interlocutory injunction. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Mustill.
Anthony Grabiner QC and Mark Barnes QC (instructed by Freshfields) for the appellants.
Gordon Pollock QC and Andrew White (instructed by Masons) for the respondents.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
21 January 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill, which I have had the opportunity of considering in draft and with which I agree, I would dismiss this appeal. I would add that I also agree with the observations contained in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill, I too would dismiss the appeal. I also wish to express my agreement with the point raised by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. Like him, I am concerned that the jurisdiction to grant an
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injunction, which is unfettered in the statute, should be rigidly confined to exclusive categories by judicial decision.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, I have the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill. I agree with him, and for the reasons which he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have read and agree with the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill. For the reasons which he gives I too would dismiss the appeal.
I add a few words of my own on the submission that the decision of this House in Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803, [1979] AC 210 would preclude the grant of any injunction under s 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, even if such injunction were otherwise appropriate. If correct that submission would have the effect of severely curtailing the powers of the English courts to act in aid, not only of foreign arbitrations, but also of foreign courts. Given the international character of much contemporary litigation and the need to promote mutual assistance between the courts of the various jurisdictions which such litigation straddles, it would be a serious matter if the English courts were unable to grant interlocutory relief in cases where the substantive trial and the ultimate decision of the case might ultimately take place in a court outside England.
Section 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 provides:
‘The High Court may by order (whether interlocutory or final) grant an injunction or appoint a receiver in all cases where it appears to the court to be just and convenient to do so.’
Despite the breadth of these words, in The Siskina this House laid down certain limits on the powers which it confers. In that case, the plaintiffs were seeking leave to serve the defendants out of the jurisdiction. The only ground on which the plaintiffs could rely under RSC Ord 11 was the then r 1(1)(i), viz that the writ claimed an injunction against the defendants dealing with their assets within the jurisdiction. Since the contract in question contained a foreign exclusive jurisdiction clause, the only injunction capable of being granted by the English courts in the ordinary course of events would have been an interlocutory injunction. In that context, Lord Diplock said ([1977] 3 All ER 803 at 824, [1979] AC 210 at 256):
‘The words used in sub-para (i) are terms of legal art. The sub-paragraph speaks of “the action” in which a particular kind of relief, “an injunction”, is sought. This presupposes the existence of a cause of action on which to found “the action”. A right to obtain an interlocutory injunction is not a cause of action. It cannot stand on its own. It is dependent on there being a pre-existing cause of action against the defendant arising out of an invasion, actual or threatened, by him of a legal or equitable right of the plaintiff for the enforcement of which the defendant is amenable to the jurisdiction of the court. The right to obtain an interlocutory injunction is merely ancillary and incidental to the pre-existing cause of action.’
This passage, read in isolation, suggests that there are only two limits on the general power conferred by s 37, viz (1) that the court must have personal jurisdiction over the defendants in the sense that they can be duly served either personally or under RSC Ord 11 (other than r 1(1)(i)) and (2) that the plaintiffs have a cause of action under English law.
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However, it was submitted for the respondents that two other passages in Lord Diplock’s speech impose a third requirement, viz (3) that the interlocutory injunction must be ancillary to a claim for substantive relief to be granted in this country by an order of the English court.
It was said that this third limit is to be found in two other passages in Lord Diplock’s speech ([1977] 3 All ER 803 at 823, 825, [1979] AC 210 at 254, 256):
‘[Section 37], speaking as it does of interlocutory orders, presupposes the existence of an action, actual or potential, claiming substantive relief which the High Court has jurisdiction to grant and to which the interlocutory orders referred to are but ancillary … To come within [sub-para (i)] the injunction sought in the action must be part of the substantive relief to which the plaintiff’s cause of action entitles him; and the thing that it is sought to restrain the foreign defendant from doing in England must amount to an invasion of some legal or equitable right belonging to the plaintiff in this country and enforceable here by a final judgment for an injunction.’
On the basis of that alleged third requirement, the respondents contended that since the contract in the present case contains a foreign arbitration clause which the Arbitration Act 1975 requires the action to be stayed, the court has no power to grant an interlocutory injunction. Although the respondents have been validly served (ie there is jurisdiction in the court) and there is an alleged invasion of the appellants’ contractual rights (ie there is a cause of action in English law), since the final relief (if any) will be granted by the arbitrators and not by the English court, the English court, it is said, has no power to grant the interlocutory injunction.
In my judgment that submission is not well founded. I can see nothing in the language employed by Lord Diplock (or in later cases in this House commenting on The Siskina) which suggest that a court has to be satisfied, at the time it grants interlocutory relief, that the final order, if any, will be made by an English court. The two passages I have quoted refer to the substantive relief being relief which the English court has ‘jurisdiction to grant’ and the rights ‘enforceable here’; see also [1977] 3 All ER 803 at 824, [1979] AC 210 at 256: ‘… some legal or equitable right which it has jurisdiction to enforce by final judgment’. These are words which indicate that the relevant question is whether the English court has power to grant the substantive relief, not whether it will in fact do so. Indeed, in many cases it will be impossible, at the time interlocutory relief is sought, to say whether or not the substantive proceedings and the grant of the final relief will or will not take place before the English court. My noble and learned friend Lord Mustill has demonstrated in his speech that in the context of arbitration proceedings whether it is the court or the arbitrators which make such final determination will depend upon whether the defendant applies for a stay. The same is true of ordinary litigation based on a contract having an exclusive jurisdiction clause: the defendant may not choose to assert his contractual right to have the matter tried elsewhere. Even more uncertain are cases where there is a real doubt whether the English court or some foreign court is the forum conveniens for the litigation: is the English court not to grant interlocutory relief against a defendant duly served and based on a good cause of action just because the English proceedings may subsequently be stayed on the grounds of forum non coveniens?
I therefore reach the conclusion that The Siskina does not impose the third limit on the power to grant interlocutory injunctions which the respondents contend for. Even applying the test laid down by The Siskina the court has power to grant interlocutory relief based on a cause of action recognised by English law against a defendant duly served where such relief is ancillary to a final order whether to be granted by the English court or by some other court or arbitral body.
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Finally I should make it clear that I have merely been considering the effect of the decision in The Siskina on the assumption that it correctly states the law. The tests it laid down in absolute terms have already received one substantial modification: see Castanho v Brown & Root (UK) Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 143, [1981] AC 557; British Airways Board v Laker Airways Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 39, [1985] AC 58. Moreover, in South Carolina Insurance Co v Assurantie Maatschappij ‘de Zeven Provincien’ NV [1986] 3 All ER 487, [1987] AC 24 Lord Goff of Chieveley (with whom Lord Mackay of Clashfern agreed) reserved the question whether the law as laid down by The Siskina (as subsequently modified) was correct in restricting the power to grant injunctions to certain exclusive categories. With respect, I share the same doubts as are there expressed and reserve the question for consideration when it arises.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, since this is a long judgment I will state at the outset my answers to the questions posed in argument, before developing the reasons.
1. Should the action brought by the appellant against the respondents be stayed?
I consider that the action can and should be stayed pursuant to the inherent jurisdiction of the court to inhibit proceedings brought in breach of an agreed method of resolving disputes. I thus arrive at the same conclusion as the Court of Appeal, but by a different route. It is therefore unnecessary to decide whether, as held by the Court of Appeal, the court would also have power to stay the action under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975. I nevertheless briefly state reasons for concluding, with some hesitation, that such a power does exist in the circumstances of the present case.
2. Is there in fact any dispute between the parties with regard to the subject matter of the action?
In common with the Court of Appeal I conclude that this question should be answered in the affirmative.
3. Does the court have power to grant an injunction to prevent the respondents from ceasing work under an agreement dated 13 August 1986 (the construction contract)?
The Court of Appeal held that no such power is conferred by s 12(6)(h) of the Arbitration Act 1950, and I agree.
The Court of Appeal also held that the court had no power to grant the injunction under s 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. As I understand it the Court of Appeal would in any event have declined to uphold the grant of an injunction. For my part I consider that such a power does exist, but that it should not be exercised in the circumstances of the present case. Again, therefore, I reach the same conclusion as the Court of Appeal but by a different route.
In the result I would dismiss the appeal.
I. INTRODUCTION
1. The contract
The appellants are the concessionaires under a concession granted by Her Majesty’s government and the government of the French Republic for the construction and operation of the Channel tunnel. The respondents are a joint venture of (a) ‘Translink’, the members of which are five British construction
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companies, the first to fifth respondents, who are themselves carrying on business in joint venture, and (b) the sixth respondents, GIE Transmanche Construction the members of which are five French construction companies, the seventh to eleventh respondents.
Under an agreement dated 13 August 1986 (the construction contract) the appellants employed the respondents to design and commission the tunnel. The works to be carried out under the construction contract are divided into (a) target works, (b) lump sum works and (c) procurement items. The target works broadly comprise the boring and lining of the three tunnels. That work is more or less complete. The lump sum works essentially comprise (a) the design and construction of the terminals at each end of the tunnels and (b) the design, supply installation and commissioning of mechanical and electrical fixed equipment in the tunnels and terminals (fixed equipment).
There is provision in the contract for variation of the works. Clause 51 of the conditions of contract allows the appellants to ‘make any variation of the form, quality or quantity of the works or any part thereof that may, in [its] opinion, be desirable’ and provides that no such variation will in any way vitiate or invalidate the contract. The clause provides that the appellants and the respondents should seek to agree the terms of the variation; if no agreement is reached, the appellants may confirm the order, and, subject to certain exception, the respondents must then comply.
When the contract was signed, it was envisaged that the tunnel would eventually require a cooling system, but that it would not be required at the opening. Accordingly, the lump sum works originally included provision for the design of such a system, but not the supply of the mechanical works forming the system itself. Later it became apparent that a cooling system would be needed, even at the opening. Accordingly, the appellants issued a variation order no 3 for the provision of such a system. The order was confirmed in April 1988. Thereupon the cooling system itself became part of the fixed equipment and the lump sum works.
The present dispute arose, inter alia, because the parties failed to agree the price for the variation and because of the discontinuance of an interim agreement to pay the respondents on a cost plus basis (see below). The contract contains a number of provisions for the assessment and payment of sums due under it. In particular, cl 60(2) of the conditions of contract provides for the contractor to submit monthly statements including (in respect of the lump sum works) an estimate of the likely value of lump sum works to be executed in that and the following month. Clause 60(3) provides for the employer to review the contractor’s statement and to issue a ‘certificate of advance payment’ stating in relation to each of the items set out in the contractor’s statement, what in the employer’s opinion is the proper figure. Clause 60(3) then provides that the amount stated as payable in the certificate of advance payment shall be payable on the first banking day of the next month.
Clause 52 of the conditions of contract provides for the valuation of variations to the works, by reference to the rates or prices set out in the contract or in the breakdown of the lump sum price approved under the contract; if none are applicable, the rates or prices are to be agreed between the parties or, failing agreement, fixed by the employer at such rates or prices as in its opinion shall be reasonable and proper.
Clause 52(5) provides that if the contractor does not accept any rate or price fixed by the employer under cl 52 as reasonable and proper, the dispute shall be referred to a panel of experts for determination under cl 67.
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Clause 67 provides as follows:
‘Settlements of Disputes
67(1) If any dispute or difference shall arise between the Employer and the Contractor during the progress of the Works (but not after the issue of the Maintenance Certificate for the whole of the Works or the last of such certificates under Clause 62(1) or after abandonment of the Works or termination or alleged termination of the Contract), then, subject to Article 6(4) Clauses 73(5) and 74(4) and the rules of the procedure for the calling in of the Performance Bond in Schedule 25, such dispute or difference shall at the instance of either the Employer or the Contractor in the first place be referred in writing to and be settled by a Panel of three persons (acting as independent experts but not as arbitrators) who shall unless otherwise agreed by both the Employer and the Contractor within a period of 90 days after being requested in writing by either party to do so, and after such investigation as the Panel think fit, state their decision in writing and give notice of the same to the Employer and the Contractor. The Panel shall be constituted in the manner set out in Clause 67(6).
(2) The Contractor shall in every case continue to proceed with the Works with all due diligence and the Contractor and the Employer shall both give effect forthwith to every such decision of the Panel (provided that such decision shall have been made unanimously) unless and until the same shall be revised by arbitration as hereinafter provided. Such unanimous decision shall be final and binding upon the Contractor and the Employer unless the dispute or difference has been referred to arbitration as hereinafter provided.
(3) Subject to Article 6(4) of the Contract Agreement, if:—(i) either the Employer or the Contractor be dissatisfied with any unanimous decision of the Panel given under Clause 67(1), or (ii) the Panel shall fail to give a unanimous decision for a period of 90 days, or such other period as may be agreed by both the Employer and the Contractor, after being requested by either party to do so, or (iii) any unanimous decision of the Panel is not given effect in accordance with Clause 67(2) then either the Employer or the Contractor may within 90 days after receiving notice of such decision or within 90 days after the expiration of the said period of 90 days or such other period as may be agreed by the Employer and the Contractor (as the case may be) notify the other party in writing that the dispute or difference is to be referred to arbitration. If no such notice has been given by either party to the other within such periods, the Panel’s decision shall remain final and binding upon the parties …
(4) All disputes or differences in respect of which a notice has been given under Clause 67(3) by either party that such dispute or difference is to be referred to arbitration and any other dispute or difference of any kind whatsoever which shall arise between the Employer or the Maitre d’Oeuvre and the Contractor in connection with or arising out of the Contract, or the execution of the Works or after their completion and whether before or after the termination, abandonment or breach of the Contract shall be finally settled under the Rules of Conciliation and Arbitration of the International Chamber of Commerce by three arbitrators appointed under such Rules. The Employer and the Contractor shall each nominate and appoint one arbitrator and the third arbitrator shall be appointed by the International Chamber of Commerce. The seat of such arbitration shall be Brussels. Save as provided in clause 67(3), the said arbitrator/s shall have full power to open up, revise and review any decision, opinion, direction, certificate or valuation
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of the Employer and/or the Maitre d’Oeuvre. Neither party shall be limited in the proceedings before such arbitrator/s to the evidence or arguments put before the Panel for the purpose of obtaining his said decision. No decision given by the Panel in accordance with the foregoing provisions shall disqualify a member of the Panel from being called as a witness and giving evidence before the arbitrator/s on any matter whatsoever relevant to the dispute or difference referred to the arbitrator/s as aforesaid.
(5) The reference to arbitration may proceed notwithstanding that the Works shall not then be or be alleged to be complete, provided always that the obligations of the Employer and the Contractor shall not be altered by reason of the arbitration being conducted during the progress of the Works …’
The provision just quoted refers to the Rules of Conciliation and Arbitration of the International Chamber of Commerce (the ICC). The English text of these rules (the corresponding French version is not before your Lordship’s House) provides as follows.
Article 8(5):
‘Before the file is transmitted to the arbitrator … the parties shall be at liberty to apply to any competent judicial authority for interim or conservatory measures, and they shall not by so doing be held to infringe the agreement to arbitrate or to affect the relevant powers reserved to the arbitrator …’
Article 24:
‘1. The arbital award shall be final.
2. By submitting the dispute to the International Chamber of Commerce, the parties shall be deemed to have undertaken to carry out the resulting award without delay and to have waived the right to any form of appeal insofar as such waiver can be validly made.’
Clause 68 of the contract is to the following effect:
‘The construction, validity and performance of the Contract shall in all respects be governed by and interpreted in accordance with the principles common to both English law and French law, and in the absence of such common principles by such general principles of international trade law as have been applied by national and international tribunals. Subject in all cases, with respect to the works to be respectively performed in the French and in the English part of the site, to the respective French or English public policy (ordre public) provisions.’
It is common ground that the first stage of the procedure—reference to the panel of experts under cl 67(1)—is not itself an arbitration within the Arbitration Act 1975, but that the second stage is an arbitration.
2. The dispute
Variation order no 3 was issued on 16 November 1987 and confirmed as an order under cl 51 on 29 April 1988, and the parties entered into discussions as to the price payable in respect of that variation. The extent of the work was not fully defined. In December 1989 the respondents indicated that the programme required them to order pipeline materials in the very near future, and the respondents asked that the appellants fund the committed cost of procurement on an interim basis pending final agreement of the total sales value. The appellants agreed to this expressly on the basis that it was an interim measure until a final
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price was settled. Prior to March 1991, the respondents therefore billed, and the appellants paid, on a cost plus basis.
The parties were unable to reach agreement regarding the price of variation order no 3. By the end of 1990 the parties’ estimates (in 1985 values) were respectively £112m (the respondents) excluding the cost of additional delay and disruption, and £78m (the appellants), inclusive of delay and disruption, in each case excluding building and civil works.
Therefore, by letter dated 19 March 1991, the appellants informed the respondents that they would no longer continue with the interim arrangement and indicated that they would thenceforth issue certificates of advance payment based on its estimates of value. The appellants stated that they were willing to discuss the matter further but that in the event that agreement was not possible the appellants would have no option but to fix a rate pursuant to the contract.
From then on, the appellants issued their monthly certificates and made their monthly payments on the basis of their own estimates of value. Between the beginning of March and the end of September 1991, seven such monthly payments were made. The respondents sought payment on the basis of their own estimates of value, thereby making clear that they did not accept the appellants’ valuation. Neither side referred the difference on valuation to the panel for determination by it under cl 67.
By the end of July 1991 the respondents had made a submission to the appellants claiming a right to a ‘reasonable sum’ in respect of the whole of the fixed equipment works.
By September 1991 the cumulative difference between the sums applied for by the respondents (excluding sums relating to delays and disruption) and those paid by the appellants amounted to about £17m (in 1985 values). The respondents claimed to have been approaching a point at which the amount certified would not even cover the costs which they were incurring, and that this point was ultimately reached in November 1991. The appellants claim that this is not correct.
By letter dated 3 October 1991, the respondents required (a) that the appellants agree to the respondents’ proposed figure for the construction of the Sangatte buildings (part of the cooling system works excluded from the estimates) and (b) that the appellants pay the respondents in full in accordance with the amounts applied for in respect of all cooling works, pending the final valuation of variation order no 3.
Unless the appellants agreed to these requirements in writing at close of business on Monday, 7 October 1991 the respondents would ‘be obliged to suspend all work relating to the cooling system’. The letter went on to draw the appellants’ attention to ‘the very serious consequences’ which would ensue, and it itemised some of them. The matter was widely publicised in the French press and media on 7 and 8 October 1991.
After correspondence between the parties in the week commencing 7 October 1991, the respondents wrote on 14 October 1991 effectively confirming their position. On the same day the appellants issued the present proceedings for an injunction to restrain the respondents from carrying out that threat. The respondents did not then, and did not thereafter suspend the cooling system works.
Meanwhile the respondents had submitted a claim to the appellants to the effect that there had been such a fundamental change to the character of the works that the originally agreed lump sum price was no longer applicable, and that they were accordingly entitled to be paid a reasonable price for the fixed equipment works on a cost plus basis. This claim led to a panel reference resulting,
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nearly four months after the decision of the Court of Appeal in the present action, in a ruling that unless the parties could reach an agreement on interim funding the appellants should make large extra monthly payments for the fixed equipment. Having received this favourable award the respondents intimated to the appellants that they did not intend to suspend works on the cooling system. However, on 23 April 1992 the appellants lodged a request for arbitration with the ICC seeking to set aside the decision of the panel. This led to an award made by the arbitrators on 30 September 1992 which set aside the decision of the panel and substituted a provision for the retention by the respondents, for the account of the appellants, of the amounts thus far paid by the appellants pursuant to the decision of the panel.
The litigation
The writ in the present action was issued by the appellants on 14 October 1991. The relief claimed was as follows:
‘(a) an injunction restraining the Defendants and each of them, by themselves, their servants or agents in breach of their obligations under an agreement in writing dated 13th August 1986 made between the Plaintiffs and the Defendants (“the Contract”) from suspending work relating to the Cooling System; (b) Costs; (c) Such further or other relief as to the Court seems just.’
Three days later the appellants issued an application in the Commercial Court for:
‘(1) an injunction restraining the Defendants and each of them, by themselves, their servants or agents in breach of their obligations under an agreement in writing dated 13th August 1986 made between the Plaintiffs and the Defendants (“the Contract”) from suspending work relating to the Cooling System …’
On the same day the respondents issued a cross-application to stay all further proceedings in the action pursuant to s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975. There followed in short order an exchange of 11 affidavits, supported by hundreds of pages of exhibits. These prepared the ground for a hearing before Evans J at the conclusion of which on 27 November 1991 the learned judge read a prepared judgment, leading to an order that: (1) upon the present respondents undertaking not to suspend work on the cooling system without giving the appellants 14 days’ notice, no order should be made on the appellants’ application for an injunction. Without this undertaking Evans J would have granted an injunction; (2) the application by the respondents for a stay of the action was refused.
There followed an appeal by the respondents, which was heard by the Court of Appeal (Neill, Woolf and Staughton LJJ) during three days commencing on 18 December 1991 On 22 January 1992 the Court of Appeal handed down written judgments, of which the leading judgment was that of Staughton LJ. Reversing the judgment of Evans J the court stayed the action. It also refused an injunction (see [1992] 2 All ER 609, [1992] QB 656).
I pause to draw attention to these dates. At the conclusion of his judgment Staughton LJ paid tribute to the quality of the arguments, and the way in which the papers had been prepared. I would like to echo this and to add my own appreciation of the full and careful judgments delivered. As will appear, I find that after an exchange of printed cases, full oral argument and ample time for reflection I am led to differ from these judgments in certain respects. Nevertheless,
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I respectfully suggest to your Lordships that to carry this complex and difficult matter through from the commencement of the proceedings to the conclusion of judgment in the Court of Appeal within the period of three months reflects the greatest credit on all concerned.
3. The legislative background
The centre of the dispute is s 1 of the 1975 Act:
‘(1) If any party to an arbitration agreement to which this section applies, or any person claiming through or under him, commences any legal proceedings in any court against any other party to the agreement, or any person claiming through or under him, in respect of any matter agreed to be referred, any party to the proceedings may at any time after appearance, and before delivering any pleadings or taking any other steps in the proceedings, apply to the court to stay the proceedings; and the court, unless satisfied that the arbitration agreement is null and void, inoperative or incapable of being performed or that there is not in fact any dispute between the parties with regard to the matter agreed to be referred, shall make an order staying the proceedings.
(2) This section applies to any arbitration agreement which is not a domestic arbitration agreement; and neither section 4(1) of the Arbitration Act 1950 nor section 4 of the Arbitration Act (Northern Ireland) 1937 shall apply to an arbitration agreement to which this section applies …
(4) In this section “domestic arbitration agreement” means an arbitration agreement which does not provide, expressly or by implication, for arbitration in a State other than the United Kingdom and to which neither—(a) an individual who is a national of, or habitually resident in, any State other than the United Kingdom; nor (b) a body corporate which is incorporated in, or whose central management and control is exercised in, any State other than the United Kingdom; is a party at the time the proceedings are commenced.’
Next, there is s 12(6)(h) of the 1950 Act:
‘The High Court shall have, for the purpose of and in relation to a reference, the same power of making orders in respect of … (h) interim injunctions or the appointment of a receiver; as it has for the purpose of and in relation to an action or matter in the High Court …’
Reference was also made in argument to s 25 of the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982:
‘(1) The High Court in England and Wales or Northern Ireland shall have power to grant interim relief where—(a) proceedings have been or are to be commenced in a Contracting State other than the United Kingdom or in a part of the United Kingdom other than that in which the High Court in question exercises jurisdiction; and (b) they are or will be proceedings whose subject-matter is within the scope of the 1968 Convention as determined by Article 1 (whether or not the Convention has effect in relation to the proceedings) …
(3) Her Majesty may by Order in Council extend the power to grant interim relief conferred by subsection (1) so as to make it exercisable in relation to proceedings of any of the following descriptions, namely—(a) proceedings commenced or to be commenced otherwise than in a Contracting State; (b) proceedings whose subject-matter is not within the scope of the 1968 Convention as determined by Article 1; (c) arbitration proceedings …
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(5) An Order in Council under subsection (3) which confers power to grant interim relief in relation to arbitration proceedings may provide for the repeal of any provision of section 12(6) of the Arbitration Act 1950 or section 21(1) of the Arbitration Act (Northern Ireland) 1937 to the extent that it is superseded by the provisions of the Order …
(7) In this section “interim relief”, in relation to the High Court in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, means interim relief of any kind which that court has power to grant in proceedings relating to matters within its jurisdiction, other than—(a) a warrant for the arrest of property; or (b) provision for obtaining evidence.’
No Order in Council has yet been made under s 25(3)(c).
Finally I must refer to s 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981:
‘The High Court may by order (whether interlocutory or final) grant an injunction or appoint a receiver in all cases where it appears to the court to be just and convenient to do so.’
II. THE APPLICATION FOR A STAY
There are two ways in which the respondents seek to uphold the grant of a stay. First, on the ground that the dispute is between parties ‘to an arbitration agreement to which this section applies’, and that the dispute between them is ‘in respect of any matter agreed to be referred’, within the meaning of s 1 of the 1975 Act, so that the court is obliged to stay the action. Secondly, because this is an appropriate case in which to exercise the inherent power of the court to stay proceedings brought before it in breach of an agreement to decide disputes in some other way. Whilst proposing both solutions Mr Pollock QC for the respondents showed little warmth for the second; no doubt because it offered his clients a remedy which was discretionary, in contrast to the mandatory stay under s 1. Nevertheless, I am satisfied that this is the correct route, and that the court not only possesses a discretion to grant a stay in such cases such as the present, but also that this is a remedy which ought to be exercised in the present case.
First, as to the existence of the power to stay proceedings in a case which comes close to s 1 of the 1975 Act, and yet falls short either because of some special feature of the dispute-resolution clause, or because for some reason an agreement to arbitrate cannot immediately, or effectively, be applied to the dispute in question. It is true that no reported case to this effect was cited in argument, and in the only one which has subsequently come to light, namely Etri Fans Ltd v NMB (UK) Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 763, [1987] 1 WLR 1110, the court whilst assuming the existence of the power did not in fact make an order. I am satisfied however that the undoubted power of the court to stay proceedings under the general jurisdiction, where an action is brought in breach of agreement to submit disputes to the adjudication of a foreign court, provides a decisive analogy. Indeed until 1944 it was believed that the power to stay in such a case derived from the arbitration statutes. This notion was repudiated in Racecourse Betting Control Board v Secretary of State for Air [1944] 1 All ER 60, [1944] Ch 114, but the analogy was nevertheless maintained. Thus, per MacKinnon LJ ([1944] 1 All ER 60 at 65, [1944] Ch 114 at 126):
‘It is, I think, rather unfortunate that the power and duty of the court to stay the action [on the grounds of a foreign jurisdiction clause] was said to be under the Arbitration Act, 1889, s. 4. In truth, that power and duty arose under a wider general principle, namely, that the court makes people abide by their contracts, and, therefore, will restrain a plaintiff from bringing an
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action which he is doing in breach of his agreement with the defendant that any dispute between them shall be otherwise determined.’
So also, in cases before and after 1944: see Athenee (cargo owners) v Athenee (1922) 11 Ll L Rep 6 per Atkin LJ and The Fehmarn [1957] 2 All ER 707 at 709–710, [1957] 1 WLR 815 at 819 per Willmer J, approved on appeal ([1958] 1 All ER 333 at 336, [1958] 1 WLR 159 at 163). I see no reason why the analogy should not be reversed. If it is appropriate to enforce a foreign jurisdiction clause under the general powers of the court by analogy with the discretionary power under what is now s 4(1) of the 1950 Act to enforce an arbitration clause by means of a stay, it must surely be legitimate to use the same powers to enforce a dispute-resolution agreement which is nearly an immediately effective agreement to arbitrate, albeit not quite. I would therefore hold that irrespective of whether cl 67 falls within s 1 of the 1975 Act, the court has jurisdiction to stay the present action.
My Lords, I also have no doubt that this power should be exercised here. This is not the case of a jurisdiction clause, purporting to exclude an ordinary citizen from his access to a court and featuring inconspicuously in a standard printed form of contract. The parties here were large commercial enterprises, negotiating at arm’s length in the light of a long experience of construction contracts, of the types of disputes which typically arise under them, and of the various means which can be adopted to resolve such disputes. It is plain that cl 67 was carefully drafted, and equally plain that all concerned must have recognised the potential weaknesses of the two-stage procedure and concluded that despite them there was a balance of practical advantage over the alternative of proceedings before the national courts of England and France. Having made this choice I believe that it is in accordance, not only with the presumption exemplified in the English cases cited above that those who make agreements for the resolution of disputes must show good reasons for departing from them, but also with the interests of the orderly regulation of international commerce, that having promised to take their complaints to the experts and if necessary to the arbitrators, that is where the appellants should go. The fact that the appellants now find their chosen method too slow to suit their purpose, is to my way of thinking quite beside the point.
Since this conclusion is sufficient to uphold the decision of the Court of Appeal to stay the action it would be possible now to pass to the next issue. Since, however, provisions in the same general shape as cl 67 are common in the construction industry, and since the meaning of s 1(1) of the 1975 Act has been the subject of elaborate argument, it is right to make some observations on the question whether (as the Court of Appeal has held) the court has, independently of any inherent power, both the right and the duty to stay the action under s 1. The subject is not easy, but limitations of space forbid a full discussion.
I first recall the words of s 1(1):
‘If any party to an arbitration agreement … commences any legal proceedings … in respect of any matter agreed to be referred … the court … shall make an order staying the proceedings.’
Most of the argument on this subsection was confined to the words ‘an arbitration agreement’. These words are not clear, and there is substantial force in the submission that cl 67 is not (in the words of s 7(1) of the 1975 Act) ‘an agreement … to submit to arbitration present or future differences’, but an agreement to submit such differences to resolution by a panel of experts, the arbitrators providing no more than a contingent form of appeal—such as the
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Commercial Court would provide in a reference falling within the Arbitration Act 1979. Whilst acknowledging the force of this argument, if the words of the section were the only source of uncertainty I would have been prepared without undue difficulty to hold that cl 67 is ‘an arbitration agreement’. What has given me much more reason to hesitate is the nature of the relief which the court is empowered and bound to accord, when an action is brought which falls within s 1(1), namely ‘an order staying the proceedings’. The problem can best be illustrated by reference to the words of the Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement of Foreign Arbitral Awards (New York, 10 July 1958; TS 20 (1976); Cmnd 6419), which was the impetus for the enactment of the English legislation. Article II(3) provides as follows;
‘The court of a Contracting State, when seized of an action in a matter in respect of which the parties have made an agreement within the meaning of this article shall, at the request of one of the parties, refer the parties to arbitration, unlesss it finds that the said agreement is null and void, inoperative, or incapable of being performed.’
What springs to mind at once is that the application of this formula to cl 67 requires the court to do the impossible, namely to refer the dispute to the arbitrators, whereas it is to the panel of experts that the matter must first be sent if it is to be sent anywhere at all. If the English legislation had followed the convention, as strictly speaking it should have done, it would have been hard to resist the conclusion that the duty to stay does not apply to a situation where the reference to the arbitrators is to take place, if at all, only after the matter has been referred to someone else.
In the end I have come to the conclusion that the different wording of the Act does not compel this conclusion. The convention envisages a procedure, somewhat similar to the former English practice, now largely in disuse where the order of the court called into being a reference to arbitration to which both parties were at once compulsorily remitted. Instead, the Act requires and empowers the court to do no more than stay the action, thereby cutting off the plaintiff’s preferred method of enforcing his claim. It is then up to the plaintiff whether he sets an arbitration in motion, but if he chooses not to do so he loses his claim.
My Lords, this a real, not simply a verbal, distinction and have come to believe that it results from a deliberate choice by the legislature between the two different ways of giving effect to an arbitration agreement. The idea of a compulsory reference was mooted before the great reforms of the 1850s, but was rejected in favour of the discretionary stay embodied in s 11 of the Common Law Procedure Act 1854. This choice was perpetuated, not only in the Arbitration Act 1889 but also in the Arbitration Clauses (Protocol) Act 1924, the purpose of which was to give effect to the League of Nations Protocol of 24 September 1923, notwithstanding that the latter (like its successor of 1958) required the courts of the member state, not simply to stay the action, but to refer the matter to arbitration. Later, we see the same contrast between the New York Convention and the 1975 Act. In the light of the history which I have sketched I believe that this was not an accident of drafting, which might require the 1975 Act to be interpreted in the same sense as the underlying convention, but the outcome of a deliberate choice. If so, there is no reason to read s 1(1) as meaning anything other than what it says, and since it is perfectly possible to stay the action without referring the matter to arbitration, my principal difficulty in applying s 1(1) to cl 67 is resolved.
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Thus, I would be willing to hold, in company with the Court of Appeal, that the respondents are entitled to a stay under the 1975 Act, but prefer to reach the same practical result by what seems to me the simpler and more natural route by way of the inherent jurisdiction.
I must add by way of footnote that the House was much pressed during argument by examples of various forms of claims, against which one or other conclusion was to be tested. Valuable though these were as a means of focusing attention, I shall not explore them here, partly because it could be impossible to do justice to them within a reasonable compass, but more importantly because it is inappropriate to rule on issues which are not now for decision. I will however state that I have found nothing in them which raises doubts as to the conclusion just expressed, and that all of them seem capable of a practical solution by the deployment of either the power under s 1(1), as thus understood; or the inherent power to stay; or both powers successively; or the admittedly rather delphic words ‘… null and void, inoperative or incapable of being performed …’ in s 1(1).
III. THE EXISTENCE OF A DISPUTE
The appellants submit that even if s 1 of the 1975 Act applies to cl 67, a stay should nevertheless be refused because ‘there is not in fact any dispute between the parties with regard to the matter agreed to be referred’. In summary, they say that there is only one ground upon which the respondents could even attempt to justify their stance in threatening to stop work whilst at the same time purporting to keep the contract in existence, namely that the matter falls within the civilian doctrine of ‘l’exception d’inexécution’, that it is common ground that this doctrine is capable of exclusion by express provision in the contract and that such an express exclusion is to be found in the words of cl 67(2), which provide that ‘the Contractor shall in every case continue to proceed with the Works with all due diligence …' Thus, according to the appellants, the respondents really have no case at all, and since they have no case there cannot be any ‘dispute between the parties with regard to the matter agreed to be referred’.
It will be recalled that this qualification on the right of the defendant to a mandatory stay had its origin in the MacKinnon committee report (Report of Committee on the Law of Arbitration (Cmd 2817 (1927)), under the chairmanship of MacKinnon J, para 43 of which read:
‘Our attention has been called to a point that arises under the Arbitration Clauses (Protocol) Act, 1924. Section 1 of that Act in relation to a submission to which the protocol applies deprives the English Court of any discretion as regards granting the stay of an action. It is said that cases have already not infrequently arisen, where (e.g.) a writ has been issued claiming the price of goods sold and delivered. The defendant has applied to stay the action on the ground that the contract of sale contains an arbitration clause, but without being able, or condescending, to indicate any reason why he should not pay for the goods, or the existence of any dispute to be decided by arbitration. It seems absurd that in such a case the English Court must stay the action, and we suggest that the Act might at any rate provide that the Court shall stay the action if satisfied that there is a real dispute to be determined by arbitration …’
In recent times, this exception to the mandatory stay has been regarded as the opposite side of the coin to the jurisdiction of the court under RSC Ord 14 to give summary judgment in favour of the plaintiff where the defendant has no arguable defence. If the plaintiff to an action which the defendant has applied to stay can
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show that there is no defence to the claim, the court is enabled at one and the same time to refuse the defendant a stay and to give final judgment for the plaintiff. This jurisdiction, unique so far as I am aware to the law of England, has proved to be very useful in practice, especially in times when interest rates are high, for protecting creditors with valid claims from being forced into an unfavourable settlement by the prospect that they will have to wait until the end of an arbitration in order to collect their money. I believe however that care should be taken not to confuse a situation in which the defendant disputes the claim on grounds which the plaintiff is very likely indeed to overcome, with the situation in which the defendant is not really raising a dispute at all. It is unnecessary for present purposes to explore the question in depth, since in my opinion the position on the facts of the present case is quite clear, but I would indorse the powerful warnings against encroachment on the parties’ agreement to have their commercial differences decided by their chosen tribunals, and on the international policy exemplified in the English legislation that this consent should be honoured by the courts, given by Parker LJ in Home and Overseas Insurance Co Ltd v Mentor Insurance Co (UK) Ltd (in liq) [1989] 3 All ER 74 at 78, [1990] 1 WLR 153 at 158–159 and Saville J in Hayter v Nelson and Home Insurance Co [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 265.
Approaching the matter in this spirit I must ask whether the only matter embraced in the writ, namely the question whether the respondents should return to work, is the subject of a dispute. The fact that there are numerous areas of dispute on the events leading up to the respondents’ threat to leave the site does not of course mean in itself that there is a dispute about the central issue, namely whether the doctrine of ‘l’exception d’inexécution’ has been ousted and if so whether the facts justified its application. That the doctrine is a part of the international trade law which is made applicable to the contract by cl 68 is common ground, and it is also common ground (at least for the purposes of these proceedings) that the docrine is capable of being excluded by consent. Beyond this, however, the parties are sharply at odds, and so also are their experts on foreign law. It is suggested that the court has sufficient material, in the shape of the experts’ affidavits, to decide the matter here and now for itself I am quite unable to agree. Whether the panel and the arbitrators will need help from expert witnesses, or whether they will feel able to use their own knowledge and experience to decide the point on their own, I do not know. What does seem to me absolutely clear on this is that an English court could not properly conclude in the light of affidavit evidence alone that the appellants’ claim is so unanswerable that there is nothing to arbitrate. There would have to be cross-examination of the experts, and once one reaches this point it is perfectly obvious that the qualifying words in s 1 do not apply, and that there is no reason to withhold a stay.
IV. INTERIM RELIEF UNDER s 12(6) OF THE 1950 ACT
Thus far, the question has been whether the appellants’ claim for a final injunction should be allowed to proceed to trial in the High Court. If it should, the exercise of the discretion to grant an interlocutory injunction pending trial will be governed by well-established rules, and no questions of principle will arise. If, however, as I believe to be the case the action should not in the absence of some unforeseen future difficulty in the operation of cl 67 be permitted to go forward, a difficult and important question will arise concerning the power of the court to order the respondents back to work pending the decision of the panel or, as the case may be, the arbitrators. The appellants base their claim for an injunction,
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first, on the special powers conferred by s 12(6)(h) of the 1950 Act and, secondly, on the general power of the court to grant an injunction under s 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. These different foundations for the claim raise entirely different issues, which call for separate considerations.
The main problem with the claim based on s 12(6)(h) is to decide whether this provision has any application at all to an arbitration agreement of the type contained in cl 67 of the construction contract. The respondents say that it has none, because the clause contemplates a foreign arbitration which is outside the scope of this particular part of the 1950 Act. The Court of Appeal accepted this contention. If the respondents are wrong on this point it will be necessary to consider whether the discretion created by s 12(6)(h) should be exercised in a special way in relation to arbitrations conducted abroad.
It is by now firmly established that more than one national system of law may bear upon an international arbitration. Thus, there is the proper law which regulates the substantive rights and duties of the parties to the contract from which the dispute has arisen. Exceptionally, this may differ from the national law governing the interpretation of the agreement to submit the dispute to arbitration. Less exceptionally it may also differ from the national law which the parties have expressly or by implication selected to govern the relationship between themselves and the arbitrator in the conduct of the arbitration: the ‘curial law’ of the arbitration, as it is often called. The construction contract provides an example. The proper substantive law of this contract is the law, if such it can be called, chosen in cl 68. But the curial law must I believe be the law of Belgium. Certainly there may sometimes be an express choice of a curial law which is not the law of the place where the arbitration is to be held: but in the absence of an explicit choice of this kind, or at least some very strong pointer in the agreement to show that such a choice was intended, the inference that the parties when contracting to arbitrate in a particular place consented to having the arbitral process governed by the law of that place is irresistible.
In all these instances one or more national laws may be relevant because they are expressly or impliedly chosen by the parties to govern the various aspects of their relationships. As such, they govern the arbitral process from within. But national laws may also apply ab extra, when the jurisdiction of the national court is invoked independently of any prior consent by the parties. An obvious case exists where the claimant, in face of an arbitration agreement; brings an action before a national court which must apply its own local law to decide whether the action should be stayed, or otherwise interfered with. Equally obvious is the case of the national court which becomes involved when the successful party applies to it for enforcement of the arbitrator’s award. But a national court may also be invited, as in the present case, to play a secondary role, not in the direct enforcement of the contract to arbitrate, but in the taking of measures to make the work of the chosen tribunal more effective. Here, the matter is before the court solely because the court happens to have under its own procedural rules the power to assert a personal jurisdiction over the parties, and to enforce protective measures against them. Any court satisfying this requirement will serve the purpose, whether or not it has any prior connection with the arbitral agreement or the arbitration process. In the present case, the English court has been drawn into this dispute only because it happens to have territorial jurisdiction over the respondents, and the means to enforce its orders against them. The French court would have served just as well, and if the present application had been made in Paris we should have found the French court considering the same questions as have been canvassed on this appeal, but from a different perspective.
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The distinction between the internal and external application of national arbitration laws is important. In my opinion, when deciding whether a statutory or other power is capable of being exercised by the English court in relation to cl 67, and if it is so capable whether it should in fact be exercised, the court should bear constantly in mind that English law, like French law, is a stranger to this Belgian arbitration, and that the respondents are not before the English court by choice. In such a situation the court should be very cautious in its approach both to the existence and to the exercise of supervisory and supportive measures, lest it cut across the grain of the chosen curial law.
Thus, in the present instance I believe that we should approach s 12 of the 1950 Act by asking: can Parliament have intended that the power to grant an interim injunction should be exercised in respect of an arbitration conducted abroad under a law which is not the law of England? For an answer to this question one must look to the origins of s 12, which lie in s 2 of the Arbitration Act 1889. This provided:
‘A submission, unless a contrary intention is expressed therein, shall be deemed to include the provisions set forth in the First Schedule to this Act …’
Schedule 1 comprised a list of nine statutory implied terms. Two of these (paras (a) and (b)) related to the constitution of the arbitral tribunal. Those imposed by paras (c), (d) and (e) were concerned with the time for making the award. Paragraph (f) dealt compendiously with the examination of the parties on oath, with production of documents, and with the general duty to ‘do all other things which during the proceedings on the reference the arbitrator or umpire may require’. Paragraph (g) empowered the arbitrators to examine on oath witnesses other than the parties. Paragraph (h) stipulated that the award was to be final and binding, and para (i) empowered the arbitrators to make orders for costs, and to tax or settle the amount of costs.
It seems to me absolutely plain for two reasons that Parliament cannot have intended these provisions to apply to a foreign arbitration. The first reason is that the chosen mechanism was to make these provisions into implied terms of the arbitration agreement, and such terms could not sensibly be incorporated into an agreement governed by a foreign domestic arbitration law to whose provisions they might well be antithetical: see, for example, the provisions concerning the administration of oaths, discovery and orders for costs.
Secondly, s 2 of the 1889 Act, unlike s 12 of the 1950 Act, was concerned exclusively with the internal conduct of the arbitration, and not at all with any external powers of the court. I can see no reason why Parliament should have had the least concern to regulate the conduct of an arbitration carried on abroad pursuant to a foreign arbitral law. Furthermore, it was expressly stipulated in s 28 that the 1889 Act should not extend to Scotland or Ireland. It is absurd to suppose that Parliament should have intended that the same French arbitration should at the same time be subject to implied terms under English law but not under the law of Scotland. I do not believe that in such a situation either law was intended to apply.
When we turn to the Arbitration Act 1934, which introduced a miscellaneous series of amendments, we find that the list of statutory implied terms relating to the powers of the arbitrators, contained in Sch 1 to the 1889 Act, was enlarged by the addition of powers to order specific performance and make an interim award. In addition, s 8(1) provided that in relation to the matters set out in Sch 1 to the 1934 Act:
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‘The Court shall have, for the purpose of and in relation to a reference, the same power of making orders … as it has for the purpose of and in relation to an action or matter in the Court.’
The powers listed in Sch 1 were the same as those now set out in s 12(6) of the 1950 Act. Quite plainly the reference to ‘the Court’ was to the English court, and when one looks at the items in the list (such as the ordering of discovery and interrogatories) it is easy to see that they were concerned with powers which the English court would never at that time even have thought of exercising in relation to actions in a foreign court. This being so, I can see no reason why the legislature should have wished to make the powers available to the court in respect of foreign arbitrations. Indeed it appears from paras 30 and 31 of the MacKinnon committee’s report that notwithstanding the width of its terms of reference the committee chose not to deal with foreign arbitrations.
In these circumstances, if the present case had arisen in 1949 the court would I believe have held without difficulty that the relevant parts of the 1889 and 1934 Acts did not apply to foreign arbitration. The 1950 Act was a consolidating statute which merely rearranged and in some instances re-worded the existing legislation, and it cannot have had the effect of enlarging the categories of arbitration to which the former legislation applied. In these circumstances I consider that none of the terms of the 1950 Act, of which the provisions cited from the 1889 and 1934 Acts were the precursors, apply to foreign arbitrations and that since these include s 12(6) the power conferred by s 12(6)(h) to grant an interim injunction is not available to the court in respect of foreign arbitrations such as the present.
V. AN INJUNCTION UNDER s 37 OF THE SUPREME COURT ACT 1981
I turn to the claim for an interlocutory injunction under s 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The focus of the inquiry now shifts from the numerous types of remedy under s 12 of the 1950 Act which are specially designed for the narrow purpose of promoting the efficacy of the arbitral process, to a single remedy which is not so designed and which is capable of employment in a wide variety of situations, many far removed from the present. By definition, the making of an order under s 12 cannot be inconsistent with the spirit of the arbitration agreement or with the policy of the court to enforce such agreements, although in making use of its powers under the section the court must be careful not to meddle unduly in matters which properly belong to the arbitrator. Under s 37(1) by contrast the arbitration clause is not the source of the power to grant an injunction but is merely a part of the facts in the light of which the court decides whether or not to exercise a power which exists independently of it. Accordingly it does not follow that even in a situation where, if s 12(6) applied to the arbitration in question, the court would be justified in making an interim order under s 12(6)(h), the court would be equally justified, or would even have the power, to do so under s 37(1). In the present case the respondents contend that in a situation where the interlocutory injunction claimed is ancillary to an action which the court has stayed it has no power to grant an injunction even if it considers that to do so would be in the interests of justice. Alternatively, the respondents contend that even if such a power does exist it should be exercised with great caution, and that the conditions for its exercise do not exist in the present case. The Court of Appeal sustained the first of these grounds of objection, to which I now turn.
1. The power to grant an injunction
(1) The respondents begin with an argument of general principle. Although
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the words of s 37(1) and its forebears are very wide it is firmly established by a long history of judicial self-denial that they are not to be taken at their face value and that their application is subject to severe constraints. This process has culminated in a chain of decisions in your Lordships’ House: see Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803, [1979] AC 210 Castanho v Brown & Root (UK) Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 143, [1981] AC 557, British Airways Board v Laker Airways Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 89, [1985] AC 58 and South Carolina Insurance Co v Assurantie Maatschappij ‘de Zeven Provincien’ NV [1986] 3 All ER 487, [1987] AC 24. These are too well known to need rehearsal, and it is sufficient for present purposes to quote from the speech of Lord Brandon of Oakbrook in the South Carolina case [1986] 3 All ER 487 at 495–496, [1987] AC 24 at 39–40:
‘The first basic principle is that the power of the High Court to grant injunctions is a statutory power conferred on it by s 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which provides: “The High Court may by order (whether interlocutory or final) grant an injunction … in all cases in which it appears to the court to be just and convenient to do so.” That provision is similar to earlier provisions of which it is the successor, namely s 45(1) of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925 and s 25(8) of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873. The second basic principle is that, although the terms of s 37(1) of the 1981 Act and its predecessors are very wide, the power conferred by them has been circumscribed by judicial authority dating back many years. The nature of the limitations to which the power is subject has been considered in a number of recent cases in your Lordships’ House: Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803, [1979] AC 210, Castanho v Brown & Root (UK) Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 143, [1981] AC 557 and British Airways Board v Laker Airways Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 39, [1985] AC 58. The effect of these authorities, so far as material to the present case, can be summarised by saying that the power of the High Court to grant injunctions is, subject to two exceptions to which I shall refer shortly, limited to two situations. Situation (1) is when one party to an action can show that the other party has either invaded, or threatens to invade, a legal or equitable right of the former for the enforcement of which the latter is amenable to the jurisdiction of the court. Situation (2) is where one party to an action has behaved, or threatens to behave, in a manner which is unconscionable. The third basic principle is that among the forms of injunction which the High Court has power to grant is an injunction granted to one party to an action to restrain the other party to it from beginning, or if he has begun from continuing, proceedings against the former in a foreign court. Such jurisdiction is, however, to be exercised with caution because it involves indirect interference with the process of the foreign court concerned.’
In reliance on this line of authority the respondents maintain that the English court can never grant an injunction in support of a cause of action which the parties have agreed shall be the subject of an arbitration abroad, and a fortiori where the court has itself halted the proceedings in England, in furtherance of its duty under s 1 of the 1975 Act, so that the agreed method of adjudication shall take place. In support, the respondents call up the tentative expression of opinion by Bingham LJ in Nissan (UK) Ltd v Nissan Motor Co Ltd [1991] CA Transcript 848, to the effect that interim relief in the shape of an interlocutory injunction cannot be granted in a case such as the present since the defendant is not properly before the court.
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My Lords, I cannot accept this argument. I prefer not to engage the question whether the law is now firmly established in terms of Lord Brandon’s statement, or whether it will call for further elaboration to deal with new practical situations at present unforeseen. For present purposes it is sufficient to say that the doctrine of The Siskina, put at its highest, is that the right to an interlocutory injunction cannot exist in isolation, but is always incidental to and dependant on the enforcement of a substantive right, which usually although not invariably takes the shape of a cause of action. If the underlying right itself is not subject to the jurisdiction of the English court, then that court should never exercise its power under s 37(1) by way of interim relief. If this is a correct appreciation of the doctrine, it does not apply to the present case. Let us take the matter by stages.
First, there is the situation where a contract entirely English in all its aspects is subject to an agreement for arbitration in London. This agreement, being a ‘domestic’ arbitration agreement, may be enforced by a discretionary stay under s 4(1) of the 1950 Act. Here, it is quite clear that the presence of the clause does not deprive the court of jurisdiction over a dispute arising under the contract. If an action is brought to enforce the contract, and either the defendant does not apply for a stay, or the court decides in its discretion not to grant one, the action proceeds in exactly the same way as if the arbitration clause did not exist. Moreover even if the court does choose to grant a stay the court retains its jurisdiction over the dispute. If all goes well this jurisdiction will never be exercised, but if the arbitration breaks down the court is entitled to resume seisin of the dispute and carry it forward to judgment. (Authority for these propositions is scarcely necessary, but mention may be made of Doleman & Sons v Ossett Corp [1912] 3 KB 257 and Hamlyn & Co v Talisker Distillery [1894] AC 202, [1891–4] All ER Rep 849.) It follows that the conditions for the grant of an interlocutory injunction are satisfied, since the purpose of the injunction is to support a cause of action which is justiciable before the English court.
The example may now be changed a little, so as to postulate that one of the parties is a national of a state other than the United Kingdom. The arbitration agreement now ceases to be ‘domestic’, and the stay is no longer discretionary under the 1950 Act but mandatory under the 1975 Act. Does this make any difference? None, in my opinion, for the cause of action is still potentially justiciable by the English court, and will in fact be adjudicated upon if the defendant does not apply for a stay, or if the circumstances are such as to bring into play the exceptions in s 1 of the 1975 Act, or if something happens at a later stage which demands the lifting of any stay which has been granted and the resumption of the action before the court. Here again the restrictions on the grant of an interlocutory injunction do not apply.
Let us now make a further change, and postulate an arbitration agreement which calls for arbitration abroad. This may indeed have an indirect effect on the availability of injunctive relief. Very often it happens that where there is an arbitration agreement between foreign parties the English court has jurisdiction only because the agreement stipulates that the arbitration shall be held in London, thereby justifying the inference of English law as the substantive proper law of the contract, and hence giving the court jurisdiction over the cause of action under Ord 11, r 1(1)(d)(iii). If the seat of the arbitration is abroad this source of jurisdiction is cut off, and the inhibitions created by the Siskina authorities will preclude the grant of an injunction. Nevertheless, if the facts are such that the court has jurisdiction in some way other than the one just described I can see no reason why the additional foreign element should make any difference to the residual jurisdiction of the court over the dispute, and hence to the existence of
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the power to grant an injunction in support. So also in the present case. If the respondents had really wanted to find out as a matter of urgency whether they were entitled to carry out their threat to stop work they might perhaps have decided that it was better to press for a speedy trial in the Commercial Court, rather than wind up the cumbersome method of cl 67, and hence abstained from asking for a stay. In such a case there could be no doubt about the power of the court to grant an injunction. Similarly, if cl 67 had for some reason broken down and the parties had been forced to resume the action. I am unable to see why the fact that the action is temporarily, and it may very well be permanently, in abeyance should adversely affect the powers of the court, although of course it may make all the difference to the way in which those powers should be exercised.
For these reasons I consider that although the commencement of the action was a breach of the arbitration agreement, and that in this sense the respondents were not ‘properly’ before the court, this does not bring into play the limitations on the powers of the court established by the Siskina line of cases. I should add that the same result must have followed if the appellants had done what they promised to do, and submitted their disputes to the panel and the arbitrators, rather than to the court. The power exists either in both cases or in neither and the appellants’ breach of the arbitration agreement in bringing an action destined to be stayed cannot have conferred on the court a power to grant an injunction which it would not otherwise possess. The existence of a pending suit is thus an irrelevance.
(2) This brings me to the respondents’ next argument, that since in s 25(3) of the 1982 Act Parliament has created the opportunity to confer powers on the court to grant interim relief including interlocutory injunctions in support of arbitrations, and has not yet brought such powers into effect, the court should never in the absence of such legislation presume to exercise whatever powers in this respect may already be conferred by the general law. I cannot agree. We are concerned here with powers which the court already possesses under s 37 of the 1981 Act. The only question is whether the court ought permanently and unconditionally to renounce the possibility of exercising such powers in a case like the present. I am unable to see why the fact that Parliament is contemplating the specific grant of interim powers, not limited to interlocutory injunctions in support of arbitrations but has not yet chosen to do so should shed any light on the powers of the court under existing law. It may be that if and when s 25 is made applicable to arbitrations, the court will have to be very cautious in the exercise of its general powers under s 37 so as not to conflict with any restraint which the legislature may have imposed on the exercise of the new and specialised powers. Meanwhile, however, although the existence of these new powers in reserve may well be one of the factors which lead the court to be cautious about granting relief in the cases of the present kind, it is another matter to hold that the court should cut itself altogether off from the possibility of a remedy, and I would not be prepared to go so far.
(3) I would return a similar answer to the argument which assumes that (as I have already suggested) s 12(6)(h) of the 1950 Act does not apply to foreign arbitrations, and reasons from this to the conclusion that the general powers of the court to grant an injunction are equally inapplicable in such a case. At the time many years ago when the forebears of s 12(6) were conceived the world of international arbitration was very different from what it is today, and the possibility that national courts of one country might have a useful albeit subordinate role to play in an arbitration conducted in another country might well have appeared too implausible to call for a specific provision. The fact that
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the specialist powers conferred by the Arbitration Acts are not available in a case such as the present does not entail that the general powers of the court can never be deployed: although, again, this is undoubtedly a powerful reason why the courts should approach their use with great caution.
(4) Next, the respondents call in aid the long-established principle indorsed by Lord Diplock in Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 289 at 296, [1981] AC 909 at 979 that the English court has no general supervisory power over the conduct of arbitrations more extensive than the powers conferred by the powers of the Arbitration Acts. My Lords, this principle is an essential element in the balance of the partnership which exists under English law between the arbitral process and the courts, and I say nothing to shed any doubt whatever upon it. In my judgment however it does not bear upon the present appeal.
In the first place, the attempt in the Bremer Vulkan case to enjoin the further conduct of the arbitration, on the ground of excessive delay, foundered on the absence of any legal or equitable right of the plaintiffs to be enforced or protected, and was thus another case in the Siskina line of authority; whereas in the present case, for the reasons already stated, the appellants do assert a cause of action under the construction contract justiciable under English courts.
Secondly, the injunction claimed in the Bremer Vulkan case would have involved a direct interference by the court in the arbitral process, and thus an infringement of the parties’ agreement that the conduct of the dispute should be entrusted to the arbitrators alone, subject only to the limited degree of judicial control implicit in the choice of English law, and hence of English statute law, as part of the curial law of the contract. The purpose of interim measures of protection, by contrast, is not to encroach on the procedural powers of the arbitrators but to reinforce them, and to render more effective the decision at which the arbitrators will ultimately arrive on the substance of the dispute. Provided that this and no more is what such measures aim to do, there is nothing in them contrary to the spirit of international arbitration.
For similar reasons I am unable to agree with those decisions in the United States (there has been no citation of authority on this point from any other foreign source) which form one side of a division of authority as yet unresolved by the Supreme Court. These decisions are to the effect that interim measures must necessarily be in conflict with the obligations created assumed by the subscribing nations to the New York Convention, because they ‘bypass the agreed upon method of settling disputes’: see McCreary Tire and Rubber Co v CEAT SpA (1974) 501 F 2d 1032 at 1038. I prefer the view that when properly used such measures serve to reinforce the agreed method, not to bypass it.
2. A procedural difficulty
Finally, I must refer to a problem of procedural mechanics, quite unconnected with the ideals of international arbitration. It is this. If the court stays an action brought in breach of an arbitration clause, how can it grant an injunction in an action which is no longer before it? No difficulty arises where the stay is discretionary, under s 4(1) of the 1950 Act or under the inherent powers of the court, since the court can grant the injunction first before electing to impose a stay. This is what happened in Foster & Dicksee v Hastings Corp (1903) 87 LT 736, a case very similar to the present on the facts. This expedient seems however less defensible where the court is obliged by statute to render up its control of the dispute as soon as the defendant so requires.
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Puzzling as this question undoubtedly seems at first acquaintance, I believe on reflection that the answer is straightforward. Once again, it is helpful to approach the matter by stages. Let us take first the case where the English court, before which no proceedings have been brought except for interim relief, makes an order under s 25 of the 1982 Act in support of an action brought in the courts of a foreign state. Here, it is obvious that the court is not making an order in an English action. By granting the order, the court does not engage itself at all in the resolution of the dispute, but merely seeks to make the resolution of the dispute by the foreign court more effective. It is a free-standing item of ancillary relief. Next, let it be assumed that the foreign proceedings take the shape of an arbitration, rather than litigation. Once again, if the-English court grants an interlocutory injunction by way of interim protection under s 37 of the 1981 Act it is not playing any part in the decision of the dispute, but is simply doing its best to ensure that the resolution by the arbitrators is fruitful. Common sense and logic suggest that the analysis must be the same where the application for the interlocutory injunction is associated with the commencement of an action which the court is obliged to stay. Common sense, because it cannot be right that by starting the action the plaintiff automatically forfeits any right to ancillary relief to which he would otherwise be entitled. Logic, because the purpose of the stay is to remove from the court the task of deciding the substantive dispute, so that it can be entrusted to the chosen tribunal. This is what the court is bound to do, by virtue of the New York Convention. But neither the arbitration agreement nor the convention contemplate that by transferring to the arbitrators the substance of the dispute, the court also divests itself of the right to use the sanctions of municipal law, which are not available to the arbitrators, in order to ensure that the arbitration is carried forward to the best advantage.
I thus see no difficulty in principle in an order which combines a mandatory stay with an interlocutory injunction by way of interim relief.
For these various reasons I consider, here differing from the Court of Appeal, that the court does have power in the present case to grant the injunction for which the appellants contend, notwithstanding that their action has been stayed. Whether this is a power which the court ought to exercise in the circumstances of the present case is an entirely different matter.
3. The exercise of the discretion
On the assumption that the court does have power to grant the appellants an injunction, a decision on whether the power should be exercised requires the making of certain assumptions.
The first assumption must hold good whatever course your Lordships’ House decides to follow. Since the action is now stayed, the appellants’ only justification for claiming interim relief is that it is needed to render more efficacious the cl 67 procedures, and any decision favourable to the appellants which may emerge from them. We must therefore assume that the appellants’ next step will be to set about at once pursuing the same remedy, or type of remedy, through the medium of cl 67 as they sought in the action. Only one item of substantive relief was claimed by the writ, and although this was cast in negative form it was in substance a claim for a final mandatory injunction: or, what seems to me the same thing, an order for specific performance of the respondents’ obligation to work continuously on the contract. Absent any evidence of Belgian law, we must also assume that this is an order which the panel and arbitrators would have power to make, if minded to do so. How long the proceedings will take is impossible to predict, apart from saying that if the appellants had gone straight to
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the panel in October 1991 rather than starting an action, the cl 67 proceedings would no doubt have been comfortably finished by now. At all events, we should in my opinion assume that if the panel rules in favour of the appellants the respondents will appeal to the arbitrators and that a final ruling on the claim is not likely to emerge for some considerable time.
We must also make assumptions about what will happen on the alternative hypotheses that the injunction is and is not granted. As to the latter, since the respondents have never qualified their threat to withdraw from work unless their financial demands are met, we must assume that 15 months after the threat was first made, at a time when the entire tunnel project is 15 months nearer completion, the respondents will at once stop work and thereby imperil even further the financial viability of a troubled enterprise, risking an immense liability in damages if they are subsequently found to have asserted a right which they did not possess. Some scepticism on this score is inevitable, but since the parties are still at odds about the availability of interim relief to prevent the respondents from carrying out their threat, I can see no choice but to assume that the threat is not just empty bluster, but is one which the respondents will carry out if free to do so.
If, on the other hand, an injunction is granted pending a final resolution of the dispute the completion of the cl 67 procedures is bound to take a considerable time; during which, we must assume, the work under the construction contract will be approaching a conclusion.
Amidst all these assumptions, there is one hard fact which I believe to be conclusive, namely that the injunction claimed from the English court is the same as the injunction claimed from the panel and the arbitrators, except that the former is described as interlocutory or interim. In reality its interim character is largely illusory, for as it seems to me an injunction granted in November 1991, and a fortiori an injunction granted today, would largely pre-empt the very decision of the panel and arbitrators whose support forms the raison d’être of the injunction. By the time that the award of the panel or arbitrators is ultimately made, with the respondents having continued to work meanwhile it will be of very modest practical value, except as the basis for a claim in damages by the respondents: although exactly how modest, it is impossible on the present evidence to say.
In these circumstances, I do not consider that the English court would be justified in granting the very far-reaching relief which the appellants claim. It is true that mandatory interlocutory relief may be granted even where it substantially overlaps the final relief claimed in the action; and I also accept that it is possible for the court at the pre-trial stage of a dispute arising under a construction contract to order the defendant to continue with a performance of the works. But the court should approach the making of such an order with the utmost caution, and should be prepared to act only when the balance of advantage plainly favours the grant of relief. In the combination of circumstances which we find in the present case I would have hesitated long before proposing that such an order should be made, even if the action had been destined to remain in the High Court. These hesitations are multiplied by the presence of cl 67. There is always a tension when the court is asked to order, by way of interim relief in support of an arbitration, a remedy of the same kind as will ultimately be sought from the arbitrators: between, on the one hand, the need for the court to make a tentative assessment of the merits in order to decide whether the plaintiff’s claim is strong enough to merit protection, and on the other the duty of the court to respect the choice of tribunal which both parties have made, and not to take out of the hands of the
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arbitrators (or other decision-makers) a power of decision which the parties have entrusted to them alone. In the present instance I consider that the latter consideration must prevail. The court has stayed the action so that the panel and the arbitrators can decide whether to order a final mandatory injunction, there will be very little left for the arbitrators to decide.
Any doubts on this score are to my mind resolved by the choice of the English rather than the Belgian courts as the source of interim relief. Whatever exactly is meant by the words ‘competent judicial authority’ in art 8(5) of the ICC Rules, the Belgian court must surely be the natural court for the source of interim relief. If the appellants wish the English court to prefer itself to this natural forum it is for them to show the reason why, in the same way as a plaintiff who wishes to pursue a substantive claim otherwise than in a more convenient foreign court: see Spiliada Maritime Corp v Cansulex Ltd, The Spiliada [1986] 3 All ER 843 at 855, [1987] AC 460 at 476. They have not done so. Apparently no application for interim relief has been made to the court in Brussels. It is perhaps just permissible to take notice that the contemporary Belgian law of arbitration differs from the law of other European countries, but beyond this I would certainly not be willing to go since, most remarkably, no evidence of Belgian law is before the court. If the appellants had wished to say that the Belgian court would have been unable or unwilling to grant relief, and that the English court is the only avenue of recourse, it was for them to prove it, and they have not done so. Moreover, even if evidence to this effect had been adduced I doubt whether it would have altered my opinion. This is not a case where a party to a standard form of contract finds himself burdened with an inappropriate arbitration clause to which he had not previously given his attention. I have no doubt that the dispute-resolution mechanisms of cl 67 were the subject of careful thought and negotiation. The parties chose an indeterminate ‘law’ to govern their substantive rights; an elaborate process for ascertaining those rights; and a location for that process outside the territories of the participants. This conspicuously neutral ‘anational’ and extra-judicial structure may well have been the right choice for the special needs of the Channel tunnel venture. But whether it was right or wrong, it is the choice which the parties have made. The appellants now regret that choice. To push their claim for mandatory relief through the mechanisms of cl 67 is too slow and cumbersome to suit their purpose, and they now wish to obtain far reaching relief through the judicial means which they have been so scrupulous to exclude. Notwithstanding that the court can and should in the right case provide reinforcement for the arbitral process by granting interim relief, I am quite satisfied that this is not such a case, and that to order an injunction here would be to act contrary both to the general tenor of the construction contract and to the spirit of international arbitration.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Welsh v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police and another
[1993] 1 All ER 692
Categories: TORTS; Negligence
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION AT LIVERPOOL
Lord(s): TUDOR EVANS J
Hearing Date(s): 28 FEBRUARY, 1, 27 MARCH 1991
Negligence – Duty to take care – Existence of duty – Crown Prosecution Service – Duty owed to accused in criminal case – Administrative responsibility as prosecutor to keep court informed as to state of adjourned criminal case – Crown Prosecution Service undertaking to inform magistrates’ court that plaintiff’s offences had been taken into consideration by Crown Court – Crown Prosecution Service failing to inform magistrates’ court – Plaintiff not appearing before magistrates to answer charges – Plaintiff arrested and kept in custody under warrant of arrest issued by magistrates – Whether Crown Prosecution Service under duty to inform magistrates’ court that plaintiff’s offences had been taken into consideration by Crown Court – Whether Crown Prosecution Service owing duty of care to plaintiff – Whether Crown Prosecution Service immune from proceedings – Crown Proceedings Act 1947, s 2(5).
On 24 July 1987 the plaintiff appeared before a magistrates’ court charged with two offences of theft. He was remanded on bail to appear before the court on 19 August. On 7 August the plaintiff was due to appear in the Crown Court to be dealt with for numerous criminal matters. Before the case was called on in the Crown Court the plaintiff’s counsel informed the police officer in charge of the case, counsel for the prosecution and a representative of the Crown Prosecution Service that the plaintiff wanted the offences of theft with which he had been charged in the magistrates’ court, and to which he intended to plead guilty, to be taken into consideration when he was sentenced by the Crown Court. The police officer contacted the magistrates’ court to obtain the necessary details and was assured by a police officer at the court that the offences were suitable to be taken into consideration by the Crown Court. He then spoke on the telephone to a solicitor employed by the Crown Prosecution Service responsible for prosecutions in the magistrates’ court, who agreed to and approved the proposal that the offences should be taken into consideration by the Crown Court. The officer asked the solicitor to indorse the file that the offences were being taken into consideration that morning so that the magistrates’ court could be informed of that fact. It was agreed between the plaintiff’s legal advisers and the Crown Prosecution Service representative that the offences should be taken into consideration and that was in fact done when the plaintiff appeared before the judge in the Crown Court. On 19 August the plaintiff failed to answer to his bail at the magistrates’ court, believing that the magistrates had been informed that the offences had been taken into consideration. In fact the magistrates’ court was not aware of that fact and issued a warrant for his arrest not backed for bail. On 19 December the plaintiff was arrested, taken to a police station and held in custody under the warrant until he was released by the magistrates’ court on 21 December 1987. The plaintiff brought an action against the police and the Crown Prosecution Service alleging that he had suffered loss, damage and distress as the result of the defendants’ negligent failure to ensure that the magistrates’ court was informed that the offences for which he had been bailed had subsequently been taken into consideration by the Crown Court. On the application of the Crown Prosecution Service the registrar struck out the plaintiff’s claim against it
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pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19(1)(a)a on the ground that the Crown Prosecution Service did not owe the plaintiff any duty of care. The plaintiff appealed. The Crown Prosecution Service claimed immunity from proceedings under s 2(5)b of the Crown Proceedings Act 1947, which provided that no proceedings lay against the Crown ‘in respect of anything done or omitted to be done by any person while discharging or purporting to discharge any responsibilities of a judicial nature vested in him, or any responsibilities which he has in connection with the execution of judicial process’. The Crown Prosecution Service contended (i) that in assuming responsibility for informing the magistrates’ court that the plaintiff’s offences had been taken into consideration by the Crown Court it was discharging a responsibility which it had in connection with the execution of a judicial process, (ii) that its advocate at the resumed hearing before the magistrates was immune from suit and that accordingly in that respect it was protected against the action and (iii) that the action was akin to an abuse of process in which proof of malice was an integral part of the action and that negligent abuse of process was not a cause of action.
Held – (1) Section 2(5) of the 1947 Act was directed to the immunity of judicial, not administrative, functions and since the recording of the fact that an offence had been taken into consideration or communicating that fact to a particular court did not fall within the ambit of judicial functions but was instead an administrative act the Crown Prosecution Service could not claim immunity from the plaintiff’s proceedings under that Act (see p 699 j, post).
(2) Although the Crown Prosecution Service was immune from any action based on the failure of its advocate at the resumed hearing before the magistrates to inform the bench that the plaintiff’s offences had been taken into consideration by the Crown Court, that immunity did not extend to any failure by the Crown Prosecution Service to carry out its general administrative responsibility or practice as prosecutor to keep the court informed as to the state of an adjourned criminal case or its particular responsibility to do so in the plaintiff’s case by virtue of having undertaken to do so (see p 699 j to p 700 d, post); Saif Ali v Sydney Mitchell & Co (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 1033 and Kirkham v Chief Constable of the Greater Manchester Police [1990] 3 All ER 246 applied.
(3) An action in respect of acts or omissions which preceded a court process could be framed in negligence without proof of malice being required. Accordingly, since on the assumed facts the Crown Prosecution Service had a general administrative responsibility as prosecutor to keep a court informed as to the state of an adjourned criminal case or had in practice assumed such a responsibility and had done so in the plaintiff’s case, the relationship between the plaintiff and the Crown Prosecution Service was sufficiently proximate for the Crown Prosecution Service to owe a duty of care to the plaintiff to see that the magistrates’ court was informed that the offences committed by the plaintiff had already been taken into consideration by the Crown Court. Furthermore, it was fair, just and reasonable for such a duty to exist and there were no public policy grounds to exclude the existence of such a duty. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the plaintiff’s claim reinstated in so far as it alleged negligence on the part of the Crown Prosecution Service prior to the resumed hearing before the magistrates (see p 699 c d, p 703 b e f and p 704 h, post); Business Computers
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International Ltd v Registrar of Companies [1987] 3 All ER 465 and Al-Kandari v J R Brown & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 833 distinguished; dictum of Lord Denning MR in Roy v Prior [1969] 3 All ER 1153 at 1155, CA and Kirkham v Chief Constable of the Greater Manchester Police [1990] 3 All ER 246 considered.
Notes
For the duty of care generally, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 5, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 21–54, 132–235.
For claims against the Crown for liability in tort, see Supplement to 11 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 13.
For the liability of the Crown in tort, see 45 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1210, and for cases on the subject, see 11 Digest (Reissue) 692–694, 299–312.
For the Crown Prosecution Service, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 645–651.
For the Crown Proceedings Act 1947, s 2, see 13 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 11.
Cases referred to in judgment
Al-Kandari v J R Brown & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 833, [1988] QB 665, [1988] 2 WLR 671, CA.
Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Business Computers International Ltd v Registrar of Companies [1987] 3 All ER 465, [1988] Ch 229, [1987] 3 WLR 1134.
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
Clarke v Bruce Lance & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 364, [1988] 1 WLR 881, CA.
Davis v Radcliffe [1990] 2 All ER 536, [1990] 1 WLR 821, PC.
Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1987] 1 All ER 1173, [1988] QB 60, [1987] 2 WLR 1126, CA; affd [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53, [1988] 2 WLR 1049, HL.
Kirkham v Chief Constable of the Greater Manchester Police [1990] 3 All ER 246, [1990] 2 QB 283, [1990] 2 WLR 987, CA.
McNaughton (James) Papers Group Ltd v Hicks Anderson & Co (a firm) [1991] 1 All ER 134, [1991] 2 QB 113, [1991] 2 WLR 641, CA.
Morgan Crucible Co plc v Hill Samuel Bank Ltd [1991] 1 All ER 148, [1991] Ch 295, [1991] 2 WLR 655, CA.
Myers v Elman [1939] 4 All ER 484, [1940] AC 282, HL.
Peabody Donation Fund (Governors) v Sir Lindsay Parkinson & Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 529, [1985] AC 210, [1984] 3 WLR 953, HL.
R v Batchelor (1952) 36 Cr App R 64, CCA.
R v Hicks (1924) 18 Cr App R 11, CCA.
R v McMinn (1945) 30 Cr App R 138, Assizes.
R v Nicholson (1948) 32 Cr App R 98, CCA.
Roy v Prior [1970] 2 All ER 729, [1971] AC 470, [1970] 3 WLR 272, HL; rvsg on other grounds [1969] 3 All ER 1153, [1970] 1 QB 283, [1969] 3 WLR 635, CA.
Saif Ali v Sydney Mitchell & Co (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 1033, [1980] AC 198, [1978] 3 WLR 849, HL.
Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175, [1987] 3 WLR 776, PC.
Appeal
The plaintiff, Anthony Welsh, appealed from the order of District Judge Bowyer,
Page 695 of [1993] 1 All ER 692
sitting as a registrar of the High Court on 7 February 1991 whereby he struck out pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19(1)(a) the plaintiff’s claim against the second defendant, the Crown Prosecution Service, for damages alleging that it negligently failed to ensure that the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court, from which the plaintiff was on bail for two offences of theft, had been informed that the offences had subsequently been taken into consideration in the Crown Court and that, as a result of that failure, the magistrates’ court had issued a warrant for the plaintiff’s arrest resulting in his detention and that he thereby suffered loss, damage and distress. The first defendant, the Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, against whom a similar claim had been made, was not involved in the striking-out application. The facts are set out in the judgment.
A T Goff (instructed by Canter Levin & Berg, Liverpool) for the plaintiff.
Martyn Bennett (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Crown Prosecution Service.
Cur adv vult
27 March 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
TUDOR EVANS J. The plaintiff appeals against the order of District Judge Bowyer, sitting as a registrar of the High Court. On 7 February 1991 he struck out the plaintiff’s claim against the second defendant, the Crown Prosecution Service, pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19(1)(a) on the ground that the second defendant did not owe the plaintiff any duty in law.
The plaintiff claims damages against the first defendant (the Chief Constable of Merseyside Police) and the second defendant alleging that they negligently failed to ensure that a magistrates’ court, from which the plaintiff was on bail for two offences of theft, was informed that the offences had subsequently been taken into consideration at the Crown Court. It is alleged that, as a result of the failure, the magistrates’ court issued a warrant for the plaintiff’s arrest, that he was detained and that he thereby suffered loss, damage and distress.
There is no doubt that the warrant was lawfully issued and that the plaintiff’s arrest was lawful. It is not the plaintiff’s case that the second defendant maliciously and without reasonable cause brought about the plaintiff’s arrest. His case is that there was a want of care by the second defendant in failing to record the relevant information and/or to pass it on to the magistrates’ court or in failing to ensure that the advocate who appeared at the resumed hearing when the magistrates issued the warrant was properly instructed so that he could have told the court that the offences had been taken into consideration. The issue which I have to decide is whether the second defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care.
It is the second defendant’s case that on any view of the law it is immune from these proceedings because of the provisions of s 2(5) of the Crown Proceedings Act 1947. If not generally immune, it is submitted that the advocate at the resumed hearing is immune from suit and that accordingly in that respect the second defendant is protected against this action. But it is also contended that the action is akin to an abuse of process and that malice is an integral part of such an action. According to counsel, any act or omission which results in a legal process causing a plaintiff loss and damage must be proved to be malicious. It is submitted that negligent abuse of process is a cause of action not known to the law.
Since the appeal comes before me under Ord 18, r 19, I have to decide the issue on the assumption that the facts pleaded in the reamended particulars of claim are true: see, for example, Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1987] 1 All ER
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1173 at 1176, [1988] QB 60 at 66 per Fox LJ. But Mr Bennett, counsel for the second defendant, conceded in the course of the hearing that the facts pleaded in para 4 of the defence of the first defendant are true. It was as the result of allegations pleaded in that paragraph that the plaintiff joined the second defendant in the action but the specific allegations have not been adopted in the reamended particulars of claim. Nevertheless, Mr Goff, counsel for the plaintiff, advanced part of his argument on the assumption that the matters pleaded in para 4 are true and I shall therefore assume them as fact.
The assumed facts upon which I shall decide the issue are these. (i) The second defendant is responsible, inter alia, for the preparation and the presentation of cases in magistrates’ courts and in the Crown Court. (ii) On 24 July 1987 the plaintiff appeared before the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court charged with two offences of theft. He was remanded on bail to appear at the court on 19 August 1987. (iii) The plaintiff was due to appear on 7 August 1987 in the Crown Court at Liverpool to be dealt with for numerous criminal matters the details of which I need not repeat. They are contained in further and better particulars of the reamended particulars of claim. (iv) On 7 August 1987 in the Crown Court but before the case was called on, counsel then representing the plaintiff informed Det Con Kanczes, the officer in charge of the case, as well as counsel for the prosecution and a representative of the second defendant, that the plaintiff had been charged with the offences of theft at the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court, that he intended to plead guilty to them and that he wanted to have the offences taken into consideration when he was sentenced in the Crown Court. (v) Det Con Kanczes was asked to contact the magistrates’ court to obtain the necessary details and for permission to have the offences taken into consideration. (vi) Upon telephoning the magistrates’ court, the detective constable was told by a police officer that the offences were suitable to be taken into consideration. (vii) He then spoke on the telephone to a solicitor employed by the Crown Prosecution Service (and I quote now from para 4(f) of the amended defence)—
‘responsible for Ormskirk who agreed to and approved the proposal that the said offences should be taken into consideration. The solicitor told Detective Constable Kanczes the particulars of the offence. Detective Constable Kanczes told the solicitor that the matter was being taken into consideration that morning (that is the 7th August 1987) and he asked the solicitor to indorse the file accordingly.’
It is agreed that the reference to ‘the offence’ in this passage is an error. It is common ground that two offences were to be and were in fact taken into consideration. (viii) The detective constable typed out ‘another offence’ form stating that on 20 November 1986 the plaintiff stole two purses. It is unnecessary to refer to the details. (ix) The detective constable took several copies of the form to the court where the plaintiff’s case was to be heard. He gave copies of the form to counsel for the prosecution, to counsel then appearing for the plaintiff and to the representative of the Crown Prosecution Service. Further, he told counsel for the prosecution that the Crown Prosecution Service ‘at Ormskirk’ had agreed to the offences being taken into consideration on that day. (x) It was agreed between the plaintiff’s legal advisers and counsel for the second defendant that the offence should be taken into consideration. (xi) On 7 August 1987 the plaintiff appeared before a judge in the Crown Court at Liverpool, who took the offences into consideration. (xii) On 19 August 1987 the plaintiff failed to answer to his bail at the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court, believing that the magistrates had been informed that the offences had been taken into consideration. But the court was not aware of the fact and issued a warrant for his arrest not backed for bail.
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(xiii) At about 11.30 pm on Saturday, 19 December 1987 the plaintiff was arrested for the theft of a cassette. He was taken to a police station, where, at about 1.05 am the next day, police officers became aware of the warrant for the plaintiff’s arrest. They arrested the plaintiff. At about 4.00 am the plaintiff was bailed to appear at a police station for the theft of the cassette but he remained in custody because of the warrant. He was transferred to another police station, where he remained until he was released by the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court on 21 December 1987. (xiv) Throughout the arrest, the plaintiff (and his father) protested that the warrant should not have been issued because all matters had been dealt with in the Crown Court at Liverpool.
Fact (iv) is derived from the particulars of claim and the further and better particulars thereunder and from para 4. They are not in conflict. Facts (v) to (ix) , come from para 4.
There is a note in the file from the learned registrar in the course of which it is stated that the ‘plaintiff’s claim is for false imprisonment’. That is not so. On the facts as I have summarised them, it is alleged that the defendants owed the plaintiff a duty of care of which they were in breach. False imprisonment as a consequence of the negligence is an essential element of the claim for damages for loss, damage and distress: see para 5 of the reamended particulars of claim.
In so far as it relates to the second defendants, the duty of care is pleaded in para 3 of the reamended particulars of claim in these terms:
‘It was a duty of the representative of the second defendant present at the Liverpool Crown Court on the 7th August 1987 to record and/or to cause to be recorded and/or to pass on and/or to cause to be passed on the information that the plaintiff had had those offences taken into consideration when he was sentenced by His Honour Judge Pickering on the 7th August 1987. Further the representatives of the second defendant knew or should have known that if the aforesaid information was not recorded and/or passed on to the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court, the said Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court would issue a warrant for the plaintiff’s arrest when he failed to attend at the Magistrates’ Court on the 19th August 1987. Further the representatives of the second defendant knew or should have known that following the aforesaid matters being taken into consideration the plaintiff would have been told that these matters had now been dealt with and that he need not appear at the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court for sentence thereon. In the premise the representatives of the second defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care.’
In answer to a request for further and better particulars of the particulars of claim, it is stated that the duty is not statutory: it is owed at common law and arose from the fact that the second defendant was responsible for the preparation and presentation of cases as stated in fact (i) above.
The duty as pleaded is confined to the representative at Liverpool Crown Court. But the facts in para 4 involve the passing on to the solicitor employed by the second defendant ‘for Ormskirk’ of information that the plaintiff was asking for the two offences to be taken into consideration, the solicitor’s agreement to that course and a request made to him ‘to mark the file accordingly’, which I shall interpret as meaning that he was asked to note on the file that the offences were to be taken into consideration in order that the information would be passed on or made available to the magistrates’ court so that the magistrates would be aware of what had happened. The question of duty therefore arises at three stages: first, at the Crown Court on 7 August 1987, secondly, when the information was conveyed on that date to the solicitor for Ormskirk and, thirdly, when the
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advocate appearing for the prosecution failed (as it is reasonable to infer that he did) to inform the magistrates that the offences had been taken into consideration.
Mr Goff submitted that the second defendant had an administrative responsibility to record or pass on the information, alternatively, if it did not have such a responsibility, it in practice passed on such information, alternatively that it is reasonable to infer that in this particular case it undertook to do so because of the facts in (vii) above. Counsel formulated the following proposition as containing the criteria by which it is necessary to decide whether a duty of care is owed to a particular plaintiff: first, it is necessary to consider the principle of reasonable foreseeability of loss and damage and, in so far as different factors may be involved, the question of proximity. It is then necessary to consider whether it would be fair, just and reasonable to hold such a duty to exist and finally the question has to be answered whether there is any ground of public policy for excluding a duty.
I have been referred to a large number of authorities in support of this proposition, but I need only list them since Mr Bennett accepted the proposition as I have stated it. The authorities to which I was referred are Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, Governors of the Peabody Donation Fund v Sir Lindsay Parkinson & Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 529, [1985] AC 210, Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175, Davis v Radcliffe [1990] 2 All ER 536, [1990] 1 WLR 821, Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, James McNaughton Papers Group Ltd v Hicks Anderson & Co (a firm) [1991] 1 All ER 134, [1991] 2 QB 113 and Morgan Crucible Co plc v Hill Samuel Bank Ltd [1991] 1 All ER 148, [1991] Ch 295.
Mr Bennett submitted that the second defendant did not have any administrative responsibility to pass on information. There is an affidavit sworn by C Mr Nasser, a barrister employed by the Treasury Solicitor, in which he states:
‘I … contend that it is not part of the responsibility of the Crown Prosecution Service to record (save for its own purposes) such matters. The record of the proceedings is drawn up by an officer of the Court. Further, it is not part of the responsibility of the Crown Prosecution Service to pass on to an inferior Court such matters. The Crown Prosecution Service does not as a matter of practice receive papers regarding offences shown on T.I.C. [taken into consideration] Forms and therefore cannot know whether such offences are the subject of proceedings or not in other courts.’
There is evidential material in the contention contained in this paragraph which would obviously be important when considering findings of fact at trial but the accuracy of which I cannot assume or assess at this stage.
But Mr Bennett submitted that, on authority, it is the duty of the police to make a record of offences taken into consideration. He relied upon R v Hicks (1924) 18 Cr App R 11, where Lord Hewart CJ said:
‘In this case … it is not easy to see what other charges were taken into account by the court below when it passed sentence. There is no note here on the indictment. The most convenient procedure is for the officer in charge of the case to make a list of the places, dates and offences alleged with which the court of trial is asked to deal, and to state also on what charges warrants have been issued. That list should be filed in the court below and in this Court.’
On the basis of this passage, which I agree is in the nature of a practice note, Mr Bennett submitted that it is the police who have the duty to make a note of offences which have been taken into consideration and that, so noted, the
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information will be passed on to any other court, superior or inferior, which has an interest in the case.
There is no direct evidence upon which I can decide whether the second defendant also had the responsibility to note or to send on the information or that they assumed it in practice. The Crown Prosecution Service was established by the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985. Neither in that Act nor in the Code for Crown Prosecutors, issued pursuant to s 10 of the Act, is there any indication of such a responsibility. The claim is put by the plaintiff as arising at common law and not from any statute. But Mr Goff relied on the fact that the second defendant is responsible for the preparation and prosecution of cases at the Crown Court and magistrates’ courts and was so in respect of the cases against the plaintiff in the Crown Court at Liverpool and the Ormskirk Magistrates’ Court. This suggests to me that the second defendant had some responsibility to keep the magistrates’ court informed, especially as it was in charge of a case which was still pending final disposal before the magistrates. If it is wrong to assume that the prosecution has a duty to keep the court informed as to the state of an adjourned criminal case, the matters contained in fact (vii) seem to be explicable at this stage only on the assumption that, at least in practice, the second defendant assumed a responsibility. Why else should the solicitor for Ormskirk be informed and then be asked to indorse the file? I think that it is reasonable to assume that the solicitor would not have been asked if it were not the practice for him to indorse the file. If the facts do not justify the inference of a practice it seems to me to follow from fact (vii) that on this occasion he was asked and he agreed to indorse the file. It is not suggested that he refused to do so. On this last assumption of fact, Mr Goff submitted that the second defendant on this occasion assumed a responsibility to pass on the information and that, in failing to do so, it was in breach of the duty. Counsel relied upon the decision of the Court of Appeal in Kirkham v Chief Constable of the Greater Manchester Police [1990] 3 All ER 246, [1990] 2 QB 283. In that case the police had assumed a responsibility to inform the prison authorities that a man in their custody and who subsequently committed suicide was suicidal but due to an oversight they failed to do so. They were held liable to the man’s widow.
Before I consider Mr Bennett’s submissions that there was no duty of care in law, I shall refer to his argument based on the Crown Proceedings Act 1947. Section 2(5) of Act provides:
‘No proceedings shall lie against the Crown by virtue of this section in respect of anything done or omitted to be done by any person while discharging or purporting to discharge any responsibilities of a judicial nature vested in him, or any responsibilities which he has in connection with the execution of judicial process.’
Mr Bennett relied on the disjunctive part of the subsection and he contended that, if the second defendant had an administrative responsibility or assumed it in practice or in this particular case, it was discharging a responsibility which it had in connection with the execution of a judicial process.
I do not accept that submission. In my opinion, the language of the subsection shows that it is directed to the immunity of judicial and not of administrative functions. It is a subsection which is dealing with judicial functions. In my view, recording that an offence has been taken into consideration or communicating the fact does not fall within the language of the subsection.
However, Mr Bennett’s submission that the second defendant is immune from any action based upon the failure of the advocate at the resumed hearing to
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inform the magistrates that the offences had been taken into consideration is well founded. It is not necessary to go further than the decision of the House of Lords in Saif Ali v Sydney Mitchell & Co (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 1033, [1980] AC 198. That was a case in which a solicitor, sued in negligence by his client, sought indemnity or contribution from a barrister who was alleged to have been negligent in advising and in settling pleadings in accordance with the negligent advice. The House of Lords reaffirmed the immunity which a barrister has from an action for negligence in respect of his management of a case in court. This immunity has been recognised in the relationship between the professional and lay client on the one hand and the barrister instructed on their behalf on the other. Here, the relationship is between the prosecutor and the accused, parties not on the same side, but in my view this makes no difference bearing in mind that the immunity is based on a ground of public policy: see, for example, the speech of Lord Wilberforce in Saif Ali’s case [1978] 3 All ER 1033 at 1037, [1980] AC 198 at 212. Moreover, the immunity in respect of court proceedings extends to a solicitor acting as an advocate: see the same speech of Lord Wilberforce ([1978] 3 All ER 1033 at 1039, [1980] AC 198 at 215). If, therefore, a solicitor acting on behalf of the second defendant failed as an advocate in court to inform the court that the offences had been taken into consideration, the second defendant and the solicitor would be immune from any action based on that failure.
I am therefore solely concerned with the question whether the second defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care apart from what happened at the resumed hearing.
In support of his contention that this is an action for abuse of process and that an allegation of malice is an essential part of such action, Mr Bennett relied upon Roy v Prior [1970] 2 All ER 729, [1971] AC 470. It is necessary to consider the history of that case. The defendant was a solicitor. He acted for a man charged with larceny. The plaintiff was a doctor of whom the accused was a patient. It was thought that the plaintiff could give evidence helpful to the accused at his trial. A witness summons was issued by the defendant but not served on the plaintiff. The plaintiff claimed that the defendant did not take the necessary steps to inform him about the summons or to serve it. According to the plaintiff’s case, the defendant at the trial, acting maliciously and without reasonable or probable cause, instructed counsel to apply to the judge for a warrant of arrest. The defendant gave evidence in support of the application. The judge issued the warrant. The plaintiff was detained. He alleged that the defendant falsely stated on oath that the plaintiff was evading service. The defendant applied to strike out the statement of claim as disclosing no reasonable cause of action.
The matter came before the Court of Appeal (see [1969] 3 All ER 1153, [1970] 1 QB 283) on the defendant’s appeal from the refusal of a judge in chambers to strike out the action. It is necessary to consider how the action was framed. The plaintiff had drafted the pleading himself. Its terms are set out in the speech of Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest ([1970] 2 All ER 729 at 732, [1971] AC 470 at 472–473). It was alleged in para 5 of the statement of claim that:
‘The Defendant omitted to take necessary and sufficient steps to intimate [sic] the plaintiff about the issue of the said witness summons; omitted to take necessary and sufficient steps to serve the witness summons …’
It was pleaded in para 9:
‘The Defendant conducted himself negligently in respect of the Plaintiff in that, having omitted to take necessary and sufficient steps to intimate [sic] the Plaintiff about issue of the witness summons and to take necessary and
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sufficient steps to serve the witness summons on the Plaintiff, he the Defendant, being a solicitor failed to ascertain the reasons for the nonattendance of the Plaintiff as a witness; made unfounded allegations of wilful evasion against the Plaintiff; and thus improperly caused the arrest and detention of the Plaintiff.’
Other allegations in the statement of claim were interpreted by the Court of Appeal as amounting to an action for procuring the plaintiff’s arrest and imprisonment by instituting judicial process maliciously and without reasonable cause.
The claim was unanimously struck out by the Court of Appeal on the ground that it was based on the evidence which had been given by the defendant at the criminal trial, and that, since there was an absolute immunity from suit in respect of the evidence of a witness on the ground of public policy, the action must fail. In so far as the action was based upon the instructions given by the defendant to counsel to apply for a bench warrant, it was struck out because the decisive factor was not the instructions to counsel but the defendant’s evidence and that the immunity of a witness was not capable of being outflanked by such a means. But the plaintiff also argued the case in negligence. This was rejected by Lord Denning MR in these terms ([1969] 3 All ER 1153 at 1155, [1970] 1 QB 283 at 288):
‘Next counsel for the plaintiff sought to say that an action would lie in negligence on the ground that there was a duty owed by the defendant to the plaintiff to take proper care before he made an application for a warrant. I do not go into the bounds of the duty of care, because the claim in negligence too must fail for the same reasons. No matter how an action is framed, it cannot be used as a way of getting round the high principle that a witness is not liable to a civil suit for words which he says in the witness box.’
Winn LJ described the claim in negligence as ‘impossible to sustain’, but he did not otherwise comment upon it (see [1969] 3 All ER 1153 at 1155, [1970] 1 QB 283 at 288).
Mr Bennett relied upon the passage from the judgment of Lord Denning MR for the proposition that there is no action for a negligent breach of process. It is to be noted that the Court of Appeal refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but the Appeal Committee gave leave on terms that the pleading should be amended in order to disclose an action for malicious arrest. The House of Lords allowed the plaintiff’s appeal on the amended claim on the grounds that the plaintiff was not suing on the basis of the defendant’s evidence at the trial. The defendant’s evidence was but one step in the procuring of the plaintiff’s arrest by an abuse of the process of the court. The issue of negligence was not argued before the House of Lords and it is therefore submitted by Mr Bennett that the judgment on that issue in the Court of Appeal stands and that I am bound by it.
But the Court of Appeal rejected the claim in negligence on the ground that, however the cause of action may be framed, it could not be allowed to infringe the rule of public policy which protects evidence given by a witness. It seems to me that the Court of Appeal was considering a cause of action in negligence in relation to that principle alone. It was not considering whether an action in respect of acts or omissions which precede a court process can be framed in negligence, which is the issue I have to decide. Nevertheless, in deciding that issue, I must take into account the history of the causes of action which relate to court proceedings and related matters. They are malicious prosecution, abuse of process and misfeasance in a public office. Malice is an essential element in these torts. There is no reported case in which a negligent abuse of process has been recognised.
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I think it appropriate here to consider the proposition agreed between the parties as containing the test by which to decide whether a duty of care exists. First, Mr Bennett accepted that it was reasonably foreseeable by the second defendant that the plaintiff would suffer loss if the magistrates’ court were not informed that the offences had been taken into consideration but he qualified this concession by submitting that the plaintiff was represented by solicitors and that the second defendant would therefore contemplate that the plaintiff’s solicitors would inform the court. In my view that is an argument based on causation, that is that the effective cause of the damage was the failure of the plaintiff’s solicitors to inform the court. Causation is not an argument available at this stage. Then Mr Bennett submitted that the parties were not proximate. He contended that they could not be neighbours bearing in mind that they were antagonists in adversarial litigation. Counsel relied on the decision of Scott J in Business Computers International Ltd v Registrar of Companies [1987] 3 All ER 465, [1988] Ch 229 and Al-Kandari v J R Brown & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 833, [1988] QB 665. In the latter case Lord Donaldson MR said ([1988] 1 All ER 833 at 835–836, [1988] QB 665 at 672):
‘A solicitor acting for a party who is engaged in “hostile” litigation owes a duty to his client and to the court, but he does not normally owe any duty to his client’s opponent (see Business Computers International Ltd v Registrar of Companies [1987] 3 All ER 465, [1988] Ch 229). This is not to say that, if the solicitor is guilty of professional misconduct and someone other than his client is damnified thereby, that person is without a remedy, for the court exercises a supervisory jurisdiction over solicitors as officers of the court and, in an appropriate case, will order the solicitor to pay compensation (see Myers v Elman [1939] 4 All ER 484, [1940] AC 282). That said, it should be emphasised that in the present case there is no allegation and no suspicion of any misconduct on the part of the defendant solicitors.’
Both of these cases were concerned with civil litigation. I think that it is highly arguable that the Crown Prosecution Service, responsible for the preparation and presentation of criminal charges of many types and of varying gravity is not in the same position as a solicitor acting at arm’s length in adversarial civil litigation. The traditions which govern the attitude of a prosecutor in criminal cases in this country suggest otherwise. The Code for Prosecutors issued under the powers conferred by s 10 of the 1985 Act stating, for example in para 8, the factors to be taken into consideration when deciding whether to prosecute in cases where a conviction might otherwise be secured is another example which emphasises the difference. There are many other instances: for example, the duty to make available to the defence witnesses who can give material evidence and whom the prosecution do not intend to call and also the obligation to inform the defence of any previous convictions of a prosecution witness. All these practices are alien to civil litigation.
Apart from Mr Goff’s other submissions on proximity, the question of proximity is raised by the plaintiff as arising from fact (vii), that is that the ‘solicitor for Ormskirk’ approved of the offences being taken into consideration and, by reasonable inference, he agreed to note the file. The plaintiff relies in this context on Kirkham v Chief Constable of the Greater Manchester Police [1990] 3 All ER 246 at 250, [1990] 2 QB 283 at 289, where Lloyd LJ said:
‘The question depends in each case on whether, having regard to the particular relationship between the parties, the defendant has assumed a
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responsibility towards the plaintiff, and whether the plaintiff has relied on that assumption of responsibility.’
In my view the solicitor for Ormskirk assumed responsibility towards the plaintiff on the basis of fact (vii) or at least it is highly arguable that he did. Moreover, the assumed facts show that the plaintiff was relying on that responsibility. He did not expect to have to answer to his bail. Mr Bennett contended that the plaintiff had not pleaded the case on this basis, but that is a difficult argument for the second defendant bearing in mind that the plaintiff’s case on this aspect of the facts arises out of matters in para 4 of the amended defence of the first defendant conceded by Mr Bennett to be true.
Next, in my view it is fair, just and reasonable to hold that a duty of care exists on the assumed facts of this case. Mr Bennett submitted that it would be wrong to look at this aspect of the question of duty within the narrow confines of this case. There may be cases, he contended, in which there are a very large number of offences taken into consideration and the burden on the second defendant would be such that it would not be fair or just or reasonable to cast a duty. I do not agree.
Finally, is there any ground of public policy for excluding a duty? To hold that a duty exists does not impugn the decision of the magistrates’ court. It does not infringe any of the immunities which arise from the conduct of cases or from the evidence of witnesses. In Business Computers International Ltd v Registrar of Companies [1987] 3 All ER 465, [1988] Ch 229 Scott J, in rejecting the existence of a duty of care in the circumstances of that case, was influenced by the existence of safeguards against impropriety which are to be found in the rules and procedure that controlled the litigation. There are none such on the facts of the present case. I can find no reason for excluding a duty on the grounds of public policy.
It follows that in my view, by every one of the agreed tokens by which to test the existence of a duty, a duty is found to exist. Mr Bennett has not produced an authority which unambiguously states that proof of malice is an integral part in an action which touches on a judicial process. No authority has been produced to show that a duty of care cannot exist at stages anterior to litigation or resumed litigation. In these circumstances, subject to one or two other arguments raised by Mr Bennett, I would decline to strike out this action.
In the first of these arguments, Mr Bennett submitted that the plaintiff’s claim is flawed since it is based upon the misconception that, because the judge took the two offences into account, it must follow that they ceased to exist. It is said that the offences did not cease to exist and that the plaintiff is still accountable for them. Counsel referred to R v Batchelor (1952) 36 Cr App R 64 at 67–68, in which Lord Goddard CJ, delivering the judgment of the court, considered the effect of taking offences into consideration. He said:
‘Everyone knows now—at least, I hope they do—what is the effect of taking offences into account. It is a convention; it is not statutory. I have often thought it would have been a good thing if the matter had been dealt with by statute in the Criminal Justice Act, 1948, but it was not. It is simply a convention under which, if a court is informed that there are outstanding charges against a prisoner who is before it for a particular offence, the court can, if the prisoner admits the offences and asks that they should be taken into account, take them into account, which means that the court can give a longer sentence than it would if it were dealing with him only on the charge mentioned in the indictment. But, technically, taking offences into account does not amount to a conviction. That was decided in this court not very
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long ago where a man had been charged with an offence and found Guilty by a jury and then had asked for another offence to be taken into consideration, which was done. Then he appealed against the conviction for what I may call the main offence and this court set aside the conviction. Then the man was rearrested and charged with the offence which had been taken into consideration. In one case (McMinn ((1945)30 Cr App R 138)) a judge on circuit had held that the taking into consideration of an offence amounted to a conviction on which a plea of autrefois convict could be based. But an appeal to this court in another case (Nicholson ((1948) 32 Cr App R 98 at 127)) showed that that decision was wrong, and that the prisoner had never been convicted of the offence taken into consideration, and it was right that he should be tried for it, because, although the sentence for the original offence for which he had been tried was probably longer than it would have been had the offence not been taken into consideration, as that conviction was quashed, he had never been punished or tried for the offence which had been taken into consideration. Therefore, we said that it was quite proper to try him for the second offence which had been taken into consideration but had not been the subject of a charge.’
In this case, it is difficult to envisage circumstances in which the offences which were taken into consideration could be revived, bearing in mind that the plaintiff pleaded guilty to the matters for which he appeared before the Crown Court at Liverpool on 7 August (the main offence) and that since these matters could not be revived neither could the offences which were taken into consideration. But I must accept what the court said in R v Batchelor (1982) 36 Cr App R 64, whatever may be the reality in this particular case. Mr Bennett argued, on the basis of R v Batchelor, that, since the plaintiff could still be convicted of the offences taken into consideration, the negligent failure to transmit the information to the Ormskirk court is irrelevant. In my view, that is not an argument which goes to the question whether a duty was owed; it might go to the question whether the alleged negligence caused the plaintiff damage. But causation is not a matter for decision at this stage.
A further argument raised by Mr Bennett was that the Crown Prosecution Service is a single persona and that, on any view of the facts, it was seised of the two matters which were taken into consideration. It was therefore argued, as I understood it, that the Crown Prosecution Service was seised of the two matters and that the question of transmitting information from one branch of the service to another cannot arise. This argument overlooks the fact that the second defendant is responsible for the negligent acts and omissions of its servants.
I can only strike out an action under RSC Ord 18, r 19 in a plain and obvious case. The power conferred by the rule can only be exercised where the case is clear beyond doubt: see the authorities cited in The Supreme Court Practice 1991 Vol 1, para 18/19/3 and see also the judgment of Balcombe LJ in Clarke v Bruce Lance & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 364 at 366, [1988] 1 WLR 881 at 884, to which I was specifically referred. This is far from being a plain and obvious case. In my judgment the appeal must be allowed.
Appeal allowed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Chief Adjudication Officer and another v Foster
[1993] 1 All ER 705
Categories: SOCIAL SECURITY
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS,
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD ACKNER, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 6, 7, 8 OCTOBER 1992, 28 JANUARY 1993
Social security – Income support – Disability premium – Calculation of amount – Entitlement to severe disability premium – Circumstances in which persons to be treated as being severely disabled – Secretary of State having power to make regulations specifying circumstances in which persons to be treated as being severely disabled – Disabled person entitled to disability premium if no non-dependants living with him – Claimant disabled and living with parents – Secretary of State making regulations providing that parents classed as non-dependants – Claimant no longer entitled to severe disability premium – Whether regulations ultra vires – Social Security Act 1986, s 22(4) – Income Support (General) Regulations 1987, reg 17(1), Sch 2, para 13(2)(a)(ii)(iii).
Social security commissioner – Appeal to social security commissioner – Jurisdiction of commissioner – Whether commissioner having jurisdiction to determine whether social security regulations ultra vires – Social Security Act 1975, s 101(1).
The appellant was a severely disabled single woman who lived at home with her parents. She received a severe disablement allowance under the Social Security Act 1975 and also income support under the Social Security Act 1986 calculated in accordance with reg 17(1)a of the Income Support (General) Regulations 1987. The amount payable by way of income support included a severe disability premium because she was in receipt of attendance allowance under para 13(2)(a)(i)b of Sch 2 to the 1987 regulations and had no non-dependants aged 18 or over residing with her within sub-para (2)(a)(ii) thereof. However, on 8 October 1989 following an amendment of the definition of ‘non-dependant’ in the regulations her parents were no longer classed as non-dependants and an adjudication officer ruled that she no longer qualified for the premium. His decision was affirmed by a social security appeal tribunal. On appeal by the appellant under s 101(1)c of the 1975 Act, the social security commissioner allowed her appeal, holding that para 13(2)(a)(ii) and (iii) was ultra vires the Secretary of State’s power to make regulations under s 22(4)d of the 1986 Act, which provided that regulations could be made specifying ‘circumstances in which persons [were] to be treated as being or as not being severely disabled’. The commissioner held that regulations made under s 22(4) were limited to specifying circumstances directly related to the degree of physical or mental disability and could not prescribe other circumstances which might affect the extent of the disabled person’s needs. The chief adjudication officer and the Secretary of State appealed. The Court of Appeal
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allowed the appeal, holding that the commissioner had no jurisdiction to question the vires of a regulation made by the Secretary of State and that para 13(2)(a)(ii) and (iii) was intra vires. The appellant appealed to the House of Lords.
Held - (1) The commissioners, in exercising their appellate functions under s 101 of the 1975 Act, had jurisdiction to determine any challenge to the vires of a provision in regulations made by the Secretary of State on the ground that it was beyond the scope of the enabling power whenever it was necessary to do so in order to determine whether a decision under appeal was erroneous in point of law (see p 707 d, p 710 g, p 712 h j and p 718 f g, post).
(2) The regulation-making power conferred on the Secretary of State by s 22(4) of the 1986 Act, read in the context of the social security legislation as a whole, was not intended to be confined to defining the degree of disability which was to qualify as severe but permitted the Secretary of State in delimiting the category of persons who were to be treated as severely disabled to take account of any circumstances relevant to the disabled person’s needs. Accordingly, para 13(2)(a)(ii) and (iii) of Sch 2 to the 1987 regulations was intra vires. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 707 d, p 714 h to p 715 a f p 717 e and p 718 e to g, post).
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1991] 3 All ER 846 affirmed.
Notes
For income support, see Supplement to 33 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 856A.
As from 1 July 1992, s 101(1) of the Social Security Act 1975 was replaced by s 23(1) of the Social Security Administration Act 1992. For s 23 of the 1992 Act, see 40 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 820.
As from 1 July 1992, s 22(4) of the Social Security Act 1986 was replaced by s 135(6) of the Social Security Contributions and Benefits Act 1992. For s 135 of the 1992 Act, see ibid 673.
Cases referred to in opinions
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Bugg v DPP, DPP v Percy (1992) Independent, 8 September, DC.
Dunkley v Evans [1981] 3 All ER 285, [1981] 1 WLR 1522, DC.
Edinburgh City DC v Secretary of State for Scotland 1985 SC 261, 1985 SLT 551, Ct of Sess (OH and IH).
Nottinghamshire CC v Secretary of State for the Environment [1986] 1 All ER 199, [1986] AC 240, [1986] 2 WLR 1, HL.
O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237, [1982] 3 WLR 1096, HL.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
Social Security Decision R(SB) 15/89, Tribunal of Comrs.
Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] 2 WLR 120, CA.
Warwickshire CC v Johnson [1993] 1 All ER 299, [1993] 2 WLR 1, HL.
Appeal
Rosaleen Foster appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 3 June 1991 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Beldam and Nolan LJJ (Lord Donaldson MR dissenting)) ([1991] 3 All ER 846, [1992] QB 31) on 21 February 1991 allowing the appeal of the Chief Adjudication Officer and the Secretary of State for Social Security from the decision of the social security commissioner (Mr R A Sanders) given on 5 December 1990 whereby he allowed
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the appellant’s appeal from the decision of Birkenhead South Social Security Appeal Tribunal (chairman Mrs Susan Wright) given on 7 February 1990 that para 13(2)(a)(ii) and (iii) of the Income Support (General) Regulations 1987, SI 1987/1967, were not ultra vires the Secretary of State under s 22(4) of the Social Security Act 1986 and accordingly that the appellant was not entitled to a severe disability premium. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bridge.
Richard Drabble and Mark Rowland (instructed by Hodge Jones & Allen) for the appellant.
Michael Beloff QC and Christopher Katkowski (instructed by Solicitor to the Departments of Health and Social Security) for the respondents.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
28 January 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH. My Lords, the appellant is a young single woman who is severely disabled and who lives at home with her parents. The extent of her disability is such that she is entitled to and does receive under the Social Security Act 1975, as amended by subsequent legislation, attendance allowance, severe disablement allowance and mobility allowance. These are noncontributory benefits which are not means-tested. Under the Social Security Act 1986 and regulations made thereunder she is also entitled to the income-related benefit known as income support. This is a form of social security payment designed to provide or supplement the income of those in need so as to ensure that it does not fall below a certain minimum level. The minimum level is known as ‘the applicable amount’. The applicable amount in relation to any individual varies according to the circumstances of that individual as provided by Pt IV of the Income Support (General) Regulations 1987, SI 1987/1967. In particular the applicable amount otherwise determined is to be enhanced by the amount of any ‘premium’ to which the individual is entitled under Pt III of Sch 2 to the 1987 regulations. One of these is the severe disability premium, entitlement to which is prescribed by para 13 of Sch 2. The issue in this appeal is whether, in the relevant circumstances and in accordance with the regulations in force since 9 October 1989, the appellant is entitled to the severe disability premium as part of her income support. The adjudication officer held that she was not and the Birkenhead South Social Security Appeal Tribunal affirmed his decision. On appeal to a social security commissioner, it was held by Mr Commissioner Sanders that so much of para 13(2)(a) as operated to defeat the appellant’s claim to the severe disability premium was in excess of the Secretary of State’s regulation making power and that this was severable from the remainder of the sub-paragraph which established her entitlement. He accordingly allowed her appeal. From this decision the chief adjudication officer and the Secretary of State appealed to the Court of Appeal. The court (Lord Donaldson MR, Beldam and Nolan LJJ) ([1991] 3 All ER 846, [1992] QB 31) held first, unanimously, that the commissioner had no jurisdiction to question the vires of a regulation made by the Secretary of State, so that the appeal fell strictly to be allowed on this ground alone. They went on to hold, however, that in the circumstances it was both possible and appropriate for the court to consider the substantive issue of the vires of the provision which
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the appellant sought to impugn by the device of allowing her to invoke the original jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal to entertain an application for judicial review. On the issue of vires the majority (Beldam and Nolan LJJ) held the relevant provision to be intra vires; Lord Donaldson MR held it to be ultra vires, but further held that it was not severable from the remainder of the regulation. In the result the appellant failed. The appellant now appeals from it by leave of your Lordships’ House.
The jurisdiction of the commissioners
The issue as to the commissioners’ jurisdiction is in one sense academic, since, if your Lordships were to affirm the Court of Appeal on this issue, it would still be necessary to go on, as the Court of Appeal did, to determine the issue of the vires of the provision under challenge and it is only if the appellant succeeds on this second issue that she can effectively succeed in the appeal. The jurisdiction issue, however, has far-reaching procedural implications for the future, it has been very fully argued and it is important that your Lordships should resolve it, the more so, perhaps, since the Court of Appeal’s decision in the instant case runs counter to the practice of the social security commissioners established by a long series of decisions, both by single commissioners and by tribunals of commissioners, holding that they had jurisdiction to decide and in fact deciding issues as to the vires of secondary legislation. Some of those decisions have been reviewed by the courts without any previous suggestion that issues of vires were beyond the jurisdiction of the commissioners.
Part III of the Social Security Act 1975 is headed ‘Determination of Claims and Questions’. It has been extensively amended by subsequent legislation and any reference in this opinion to the provisions of the Act will be to their form as in force at the material time. The fasciculus of ss 97 to 104 is headed ‘Adjudication officers, social security appeal tribunals and Commissioners’. Section 97 provides that in the first instance an adjudication officer is to determine any claim for benefit and any question arising in connection with a claim for benefit except questions required by some other provision in Pt III to be determined otherwise than by an adjudication officer. From the adjudication officer’s decision the claimant has an appeal as of right to a social security appeal tribunal: see s 100. From the decision of a social security appeal tribunal an appeal lies to a social security commissioner on the ground that the decision of the tribunal was ‘erroneous in point of law’: see s 101. The commissioners, who are of comparable standing to circuit judges, normally sit singly but the chief commissioner may direct that an appeal involving a question of law of special difficulty be dealt with by a tribunal of three commissioners. Provision for an appeal from a commissioner’s decision to the Court of Appeal is made by s 14 of the Social Security Act 1980. An appeal lies on a point of law, but only with the leave of the commissioner or the Court of Appeal and the parties entitled to appeal include the Secretary of State.
This is only the barest outline of the statutory scheme for the adjudication of benefit claims. But it focuses immediately on the central question, which is whether a claimant otherwise entitled to some social security benefit which has been denied to him by the adjudication officer and the appeal tribunal in reliance on some provision in a regulation which the Secretary of State had no power to make is entitled to succeed on appeal to the commissioner on the ground that the decision against him was ‘erroneous in point of law’ or whether, as must follow if the Court of Appeal were right, before he invokes the statutory machinery by which alone his claim can be enforced, he must first proceed by way of an
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application for judicial review to have the offending provision quashed or declared invalid. It is common ground that the principle of O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237 has no application, since there can be no abuse of process by a party who seeks a remedy by the very process which statute requires him to pursue. It was further rightly accepted by Mr Beloff QC before your Lordships that a decision giving effect to secondary legislation which is ultra vires is, indeed, in the ordinary meaning of the words ‘erroneous in point of law’. The question then is whether, when that phrase is used in s 101 of the 1975 Act, there is something in the context in which it appears which requires by necessary implication that it be given a restricted meaning so as to exclude from its ambit any errors of law referable to a misuse by the Secretary of State of his regulation making power.
I shall seek to summarise, hoping that I do them justice, the several considerations relied on in the judgments of the Court of Appeal and in the arguments advanced for the respondents before your Lordships as giving rise to such an implied restriction and consider them in turn.
It is pointed out, rightly, that, if the commissioner can base his decision in any case on the invalidity of some provision in regulations made under the 1975 Act, it must follow that appeal tribunals and adjudication officers can do likewise. Adjudication officers may be, and no doubt normally are, civil servants without legal qualifications and it cannot have been intended by Parliament, it is said, that such relatively lowly officials should have power to question the validity of regulations made by the Secretary of State. Closely allied to this point is the point made that the Secretary of State is not a party to an appeal from the adjudication officer to the appeal tribunal and cannot, therefore, appear before it to defend the vires of any provision in regulations which is challenged or himself appeal to the commissioner from an adverse decision of an appeal tribunal. I think both these objections are theoretical rather than real. Under s 99(2) the adjudication officer to whom a claim or question is submitted may either decide it himself or refer it to an appeal tribunal and I should expect that, whenever a claimant before an adjudication officer sought to mount a challenge to the vires of some provision in regulations, the adjudication officer, if he thought there might be any substance in the point, would refer it to an appeal tribunal. Moreover, there is a chief adjudication officer whose duty it is under s 97(1C) to advise adjudication officers on the performance of their functions and I should expect him to give or to have, given advice to this effect. Again, once such a challenge is before an appeal tribunal, the adjudication officer becomes a party to the proceedings and, on this or any other issue of law of whatever nature, there seems no reason why the arguments on which the department wishes to rely in opposition to the claimant should not be addressed to the appeal tribunal and, if appropriate, to the commissioner on appeal in the name of the adjudication officer; I presume this is what happens in practice.
Thus the reality, I believe, is that, whenever there is a serious challenge to the validity of a provision in regulations which stands in the claimant’s way, the issue, unless the department accepts that the challenge is well made, will effectively be decided at the level of the commissioner and from there either the claimant or the Secretary of State may seek leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal. Certainly we have not been told of any case where difficulty has arisen from a decision taken at a level below that of the commissioner relating to a question of vires, although the commissioners have consistently held ever since 1976 that they have jurisdiction to entertain such questions.
Next, reliance is placed on s 96(1), which provides, so far as material:
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‘… the Secretary of State may review any decision given by him on any question within section 93(1) above if—(a) new facts have been brought to his notice; or (b) he is satisfied that the decision—(i) was given in ignorance of some material fact; (ii) was based on a mistake as to some material fact; or (iii) was erroneous in point of law.’
Questions which are to be determined by the Secretary of State under s 93(1) include questions governed by regulations. It is said that the use of the phrase ‘erroneous in point of law’ in s 96 cannot possibly have been intended to give to the Secretary of State jurisdiction to decide whether he has himself exceeded the powers conferred upon him to make regulations. Hence it is argued that the same phrase when used in s 101 of the same Act must be given the same restricted meaning. With respect, I believe this point to be misconceived. Section 96 must be construed in the context of the fasciculus of ss 93 to 96 relating to the adjudication by the Secretary of State of the questions which he is required to determine under s 93. Section 94, so far as material, provides:
‘(1) A question of law arising in connection with the determination by the Secretary of State of any question within section 93(1) above may, if the Secretary of State thinks fit, be referred for decision to the High Court …
(3) Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Secretary of State on any question of law within subsection (1) above which is not referred in accordance with that subsection may appeal from that decision to the court …’
The questions of law which, under this section, the Secretary of State may either refer to the High Court or determine himself, subject to an appeal to the High Court, must include any question which depends on the vires of a provision in regulations. It would be absurd that the Secretary of State, confronted with such a question, should, instead of referring it to the High Court, require the party before him to institute separate proceedings by way of judicial review. Moreover, the power to review a previous decision under s 96(1)(b)(iii) as having been erroneous in point of law would clearly apply to a case where the Secretary of State had made one or more decisions on the basis that a certain regulation governed the question to be determined and in a later case the High Court, on a reference or appeal under s 94, had held that same regulation to be ultra vires. Accordingly, if the phrase ‘erroneous in point of law’ is used in the same sense in s 101 as in s 96 it bears its ordinary unrestricted meaning.
It is said that, if the commissioner were intended to have power to hold a provision in a regulation to be ultra vires and to determine whether or not it was severable, one would expect to find that he was also empowered to make a declaration to that effect, which he is not. This, again, I find quite unconvincing. The commissioner has no power and no authority to decide anything but the issue which arises in the case before him, typically, as in this case, whether in particular circumstances a claimant is or is not entitled to the benefit claimed. If the success of the claim depends, as here, on whether a particular provision in a regulation is both ultra vires and severable, the commissioner’s decision of that question is merely incidental to his decision as to whether the claim should be upheld or rejected. If not appealed, his opinion on the question may be followed by other commissioners, but it has, per se, no binding force in law. To my mind it would be very surprising if the commissioners were empowered to make declarations of any kind and the absence of such a power does not, in my opinion, throw any light on the question presently in issue.
Page 711 of [1993] 1 All ER 705
Lord Donaldson MR quoted in his judgment from the headnote to a decision of a tribunal of commissioners (Social Security Decision R(SB) 15/89), where it is said:
‘... the determination of whether a right to benefit exists and the quantification of benefit necessarily [import] a duty for the statutory authorities (including the adjudication officer) to consider whether the regulation in question has a legal existence when that existence is challenged [but] it was not a proper function of the statutory adjudication authorities to entertain arguments as to the “reasonableness” of provisions in delegated legislation …’
Lord Donaldson MR commented ([1991] 3 All ER 846 at 855, [1992] 1 QB 31 at 48):
‘I fully accept that, under the further framework, if the commissioners have this power, so has each of the many hundreds of relatively junior adjudication officers. I do not, however, understand the logic of the distinction between questions of “existence” and questions of “reasonableness”. One reason at least for setting aside subordinate legislation upon grounds of Wednesbury unreasonableness (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223) would be that Parliament never intended the regulation-making power to be exercised in that way. That is really indistinguishable from a question of “existence” or “vires”.’
It is, of course, correct that, if the commissioners have jurisdiction to question the vires of secondary legislation, the scope of that jurisdiction must, at least theoretically, embrace a challenge on the ground of irrationality as well as illegality. But, in the case referred to, the full judgment of the tribunal of commissioners shows that, in distinguishing between ‘legal existence’ and ‘reasonableness’, they were not making a point peculiar to their own jurisdiction, but were relying on authority which they interpreted as precluding any court or tribunal from condemning as irrational delegated legislation enacted under a statutory power which may only be exercised subject to parliamentary control by affirmative or negative resolution. The judgment cites a well-known passage from the speech of Lord Scarman in Nottinghamshire CC v Secretary of State for the Environment [1986] 1 All ER 199 at 204, [1986] AC 240 at 250, and a passage from the judgment of Lord Jauncey, as Lord Ordinary, in the Scottish case of Edinburgh City DC v Secretary of State for Scotland 1985 SC 261 at 274–275 (see Social Security Decision R(SB) 15/89 at pp 11–13). The latter case goes rather further than the former. It was concerned with an order made under the Rating and Valuation (Amendment) Scotland Act 1984. Although the order was debated in the House of Commons, a prayer to annul it was not moved. In an action for reduction of the order the district council attacked it on grounds of (1) illegality, (2) irrationality and (3) impropriety of procedure. The Secretary of State disputed that the last two grounds could be applied to statutory instruments considered by Parliament. The relevant part of Lord Jauncey’s judgment is sufficiently summarised in the following passage from the headnote (see 1985 SLT 551 at 552):
‘The Lord Ordinary distinguished between such orders and orders exercisable entirely at the hand of a Minister or authority, and held that a statutory instrument considered by Parliament could only be held to be ultra vires upon the ground of illegality, in the narrower sense, where is was
Page 712 of [1993] 1 All ER 705
patently defective in that it purported to do what it was not authorised to do by the enabling statute, or where the procedure followed departed from the requirements of the enabling statute.’
On appeal to the Inner House this judgment was affirmed.
This is not the occasion when it would be appropriate for your Lordships to consider whether to go beyond the speech of Lord Scarman, unanimously agreed to by the Appellate Committee, in the Nottinghamshire case, which leaves room for possible exceptions in extreme cases from any absolute rule that the courts may not condemn as irrational secondary legislation which has been subject to parliamentary scrutiny. But I have no doubt that the social security commissioners have good pragmatic reasons not to take it upon themselves to identify any such exceptional case, but to leave that to the higher courts, who, as Lord Jauncey pointed out, have never yet done so in any reported case.
Your Lordships were referred in argument to the hitherto unreported judgment of the Divisional Court (Woolf LJ and Pill J) delivered by Woolf LJ in Bugg v DPP, DPP v Percy (1992) Independent, 8 September. This examines comprehensively the authorities bearing on the question how far a magistrates’ court, hearing a prosecution for an offence under byelaws, may properly entertain a challenge to the vires of the byelaws. In brief summary, the judgment draws a distinction between what Woolf LJ calls ‘substantive invalidity’ and ‘procedural invalidity’ and concludes that it is within the jurisdiction of a magistrates’ court to determine the issue of substantive invalidity, where the byelaw is alleged to be bad on its face, either as beyond the power of the enabling legislation under which it purports to have been made or as patently unreasonable, but that where procedural irregularity is alleged the issue can only be determined on examination of the relevant evidence in proceedings to which the byelaw-making authority is a party and is therefore beyond the competence of a criminal court, which should presume that byelaws were made in accordance with the prescribed procedure unless and until they have been set aside by the appropriate court with jurisdiction to do so.
It seems to me neither necessary nor appropriate for your Lordships in the instant case to consider the issue with which this judgment was concerned, or to determine whether a comparable distinction between substantive and procedural invalidity should be made in relation to the jurisdiction of the commissioners. Here no question of procedural validity arises. The provision in the regulations which is challenged is either within or without the scope of the enabling power. Hence the issue is one of pure statutory construction unaffected by evidence. So far as I am aware all previous issues of vires determined by the commissioners have been of the same character. How an issue of procedural invalidity should be determined in this field can be safely left for decision if and when it arises.
My conclusion is that the commissioners have undoubted jurisdiction to determine any challenge to the vires of a provision in regulations made by the Secretary of State as being beyond the scope of the enabling power whenever it is necessary to do so in determining whether a decision under appeal was erroneous in point of law. I am pleased to reach that conclusion for two reasons. First, it avoids a cumbrous duplicity of proceedings which could only add to the already overburdened list of applications for judicial review awaiting determination by the Divisional Court. Secondly, it is, in my view, highly desirable that when the Court of Appeal, or indeed your Lordships’ House, is called upon to determine an issue of the kind in question it should have the benefit of the views upon it of one or more of the commissioners, who have great expertise in this somewhat esoteric area of the law.
Page 713 of [1993] 1 All ER 705
The issue of vires
Income support is one of the income-related benefits for which provision is made by Pt II of the Social Security Act 1986. The provisions of the 1986 Act which are relevant for present purposes are the following:
‘20 … (3) A person in Great Britain is entitled to income support if—(a) he is of or over the age of 18 …
21.—(1) … where a person is entitled to income support—(a) if he has no income, the amount shall be the applicable amount; and (b) if he has income, the amount shall be the difference between his income and the applicable amount …
22.—(1) The applicable amount shall be such amount or the aggregate of such amounts as may be prescribed.
(2) The power to prescribe applicable amounts conferred by subsection (1) above includes power to prescribe nil as an applicable amount …
(3) In relation to income support … the applicable amount for a severely disabled person shall include an amount in respect of his being a severely disabled person.
(4) Regulations may specify circumstances in which persons are to be treated as being or as not being severely disabled …’
Applicable amounts are governed by the 1987 regulations and the conditions of entitlement to the various ‘premiums’ are those specified in paras 8 to 14 of Sch 2. Paragraph 13, headed ‘Severe Disability Premium’, provides so far as relevant:
‘(1) The condition is that the claimant is a severely disabled person.
(2) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), a claimant shall be treated as being a severely disabled person if, and only if—(a) in the case of a single claimant or a lone parent—(i) he is in receipt of attendance allowance, and (ii) subject to sub-paragraph (3), he has no non-dependents aged 18 or over residing with him, and (iii) no-one is in receipt of an invalid care allowance under section 37 of the Social Security Act in respect of caring for him …’
Sub-paragraph (2)(b) establishes a more elaborate set of conditions which a claimant who has a ‘partner’ must satisfy in addition to being in receipt of attendance allowance. I need not set these out but may mention that, like the conditions in sub-para (2)(a)(ii) and (iii), they all relate to matters other than the degree of disablement of the claimant. Sub-paragraph (3), which provides that certain categories of persons are to be disregarded for the purpose of sub-para (2)(a)(ii), is not presently relevant.
The appellant’s contention is that the only conditions of eligibility for the severe disability premium which the Secretary of State is empowered to impose by s 22(4) must relate directly to the claimant’s disablement. If this is right, it must follow that the only valid condition imposed, in the case of single claimants, lone parents and claimants with partners alike, is that the claimant must be in receipt of attendance allowance, which, as we shall see, is payable only to those with a very severe degree of disability. If the other conditions are both ultra vires and severable, it must further follow that ever since the 1987 regulations came into force any person in receipt of attendance allowance has also been entitled to the severe disability premium as part of the applicable amount of his income support irrespective of his domestic circumstances and whether or not any invalid care allowance was in payment in respect of him.
The argument for the appellant points out correctly that, in contrast with the power conferred by s 22(2) to prescribe nil as an applicable amount, the Secretary
Page 714 of [1993] 1 All ER 705
of State is obliged by s 22(3) to include in the applicable amount for a severely disabled person some amount in respect of his being such a person. Hence, it is, submitted, if the purpose of s 22(3) is not to be frustrated, s 22(4) must be construed as solely referrable to the nature and degree of a person’s physical or mental disability. Thus the Secretary of State may specify circumstances directly related to the degree of physical or mental disability but can take no account of other circumstances which may affect the extent of the disabled person’s needs.
The contrary argument for the respondents is that sub-ss (3) and (4) of s 22 must be read together. Any person qualifying as a member of the category of severely disabled persons within sub-s (3) is certainly entitled to an addition, on that account, to any other applicable amount for which he qualifies. But sub-s (4) is, in effect, a deeming provision whereby the Secretary of State, in defining the category of persons who are to be treated as being severely disabled for the purposes of sub-s (3), may do so by reference to circumstances which either relate to their degree of physical or mental disability or affect the extent of their need for income support arising from that disability. Reliance is placed on the striking similarity between the language of s 22(4) and the language used to confer other regulation-making powers for the purposes of Pt II of the 1986 Act by s 20(12), which provides, inter alia:
‘Regulations may make provision for the purposes of this Part of this Act—(a) as to circumstances in which a person is to be treated as being or not being in Great Britain … (d) as to circumstances in which a person is or is not to be treated as—(i) engaged or normally engaged in remunerative work; (ii) available for employment; or (iii) actively seeking employment … (f) as to circumstances in which a person is or is not to be treated as receiving relevant education; (g) as to circumstances in which a person is or is not to be treated as occupying a dwelling as his home … (k) as to circumstances in which persons are to be treated as being or not being members of the same household; (l) as to circumstances in which one person is to be treated as responsible or not responsible for another.’
In all these cases, it is said, the simple questions whether a person is in Great Britain, is engaged in remunerative work etc are questions of fact. But in giving the Secretary of State power by regulation to make provision as to circumstances in which a person is to be treated as being or not being in Great Britain, engaged in remunerative work etc the Secretary of State is clearly empowered to look beyond the question of fact to the surrounding circumstances and, for example, to provide that in certain circumstances a person who, as a matter of fact, is not physically in Great Britain shall be treated as being in Great Britain or, conversely, that in other circumstances a person who is physically in Great Britain shall be treated as not being in Great Britain.
This is a very formidable argument and it seems to me that, if the only power intended to be conferred on the Secretary of State by s 22(4) were a power to define the degree of disability which was to qualify as severe for the purposes of sub-s (3), the language used was totally inappropriate to effect that purpose. Thus, even without looking beyond the 1986 Act, it would be my opinion that the regulation-making power under sub-s (4) cannot be confined as the appellant suggests, but allows the Secretary of State in delimiting the category of persons who are to be treated as severely disabled for the purposes of sub-s (3) to take account of any circumstances relevant to the disabled person’s needs.
This opinion is powerfully reinforced if one reads the 1986 Act, as one should, in the context of the social security legislation as a whole and compares the
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subsection which your Lordships have to construe with the elaborate provisions in the 1975 Act which confer on disabled persons benefits which are not income-related and are wholly dependent on their degree of disability. The most severe degree of disability attracts an attendance allowance under s 35 of the 1975 Act. To qualify for this a person must be so severely disabled mentally or physically that he requires from another person either frequent attention in connection with his bodily functions or supervison to avoid substantial danger to himself or others. Distinct from this, and normally payable to any person who qualifies for attendance allowance in addition thereto, is the severe disablement allowance provided for by s 36. The normal qualification for this, in addition to incapacity for work, is a loss of physical or mental faculty assessed ‘such that the assessed extent of the resulting disablement amounts to not less than 80 per cent.’: see, s 36(5). The assessment is to be made in accordance with the provisions of Sch 8. Paragraph 1 of the schedule sets out the general principles to be applied, including the requirement in para 1(C) that the assessment should be made ‘without reference to the particular circumstances of the claimant other than age, sex, and physical and mental condition’. Paragraph 2 enables provision to be made by regulations for ‘further defining the principles on which the extent of disablement is to be assessed’ and in particular regulations may direct ‘that a prescribed loss of faculty shall be treated as resulting in a prescribed degree of disablement’.
Given that the social security legislation in force when the 1986 Act was passed already contained this very precise code for determining what degree of physical or mental disability was to qualify a person for severe disability allowance, if it was intended in 1986 that the qualification for a severe disability premium as part of the applicable amount of a person’s income support should be governed by a similar code and subject to a similar restriction to that imposed by para 1(C) of Sch 8, it is to my mind almost inconceivable that this should not have been achieved by reference to this ready-made code, or at least by the use of similar language. It is to my mind quite inconceivable that it was intended to be achieved by the brief and expansive language of s 22(4) of the 1986 Act.
These considerations were the basis of the opinion I had formed at the conclusion of the oral arguments, which I understand all your Lordships shared, that the appellant must fail on the vires issue. But since the oral argument on the appeal your Lordships’ House has ruled in Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1992] 3 WLR 1032 that in certain circumstances the parliamentary history of a provision in a Bill and references to it in Hansard may be considered when that provision reaches the statute book and falls to be construed. Since the delivery of that judgment the respondents have invited your Lordships to consider the circumstances in which s 22(3) and (4) came to be enacted and certain passages from the debates in both Houses as satisfying the conditions of admissibility as aids to construction laid down in Pepper v Hart and your Lordships have had the benefit of submissions in writing by both parties directed to this issue.
The Bill which became the Social Security Act 1986 did not, when first introduced, contain any specific provision relating to income support for the severely disabled. In your Lordships’ House an amendment was moved to the clause which became s 20 of the 1986 Act, requiring that any scheme for income support should provide for a ‘community care addition’ payable to certain persons. I need not set out the text of the somewhat elaborate subsection which it was proposed to introduce, but it was said by the mover of the amendment to be intended to apply ‘to a very small number of very severely disabled people’ and to be payable ‘only according to the needs of the claimant’s special circumstances and the extent to which other payments or benefits under this part of the Bill fail
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to meet those needs’ (see 477 HL Official Report (5th series) col 13). This amendment was opposed by the government but was agreed to on a division. When the Lords’ amendments were considered by the House of Commons, the Minister of Social Security moved that the House disagree with this amendment but at the same time he moved as an alternative amendment the two subsections which are now sub-ss (3) and (4) of s 22. The minister said (102 HC Official Report (6th series) cols 399–400):
‘We are seeking to accept the spirit of the way in which the amendment was spoken to and passed in the other place … As an additional sign of our good intentions, I point out that there is no need to amend the Bill to provide for a severe disablement premium. There are ample powers within the Bill as it stands for us to have as many premiums as we wish. We have thought it right to make clear our intentions and to respond to the feelings both in this place and the other place. Nevertheless, we wished to table an amendment that specifically provides for a severe disablement premium. We are proposing a higher and additional premium for a particular group of disabled people. It will be paid on top of the other structural improvements for disabled people in the Bill, and in particular the disablement premium. As I have said, in effect it provides the two-tier disablement premium that many commentators, including the Select Committee, have urged upon us. It will be paid as an extra amount to severely disabled people who are living on their own, and who are most likely to need extra support and care. It will be paid to them direct and as of right within the income support scheme. It will also form part of the assessment of need in the housing benefit rules. In considering the issue, we have sought criteria that are consistent with other social security arrangements. Our intention is that receipt of the higher rate of attendance allowance should be the first qualifying condition. The present domestic assistance addition already has a condition that there must be no one in the household capable of carrying out normal domestic duties. The purpose behind that rule, on the need for extra support to maintain independence that cannot otherwise be provided, is a sensible one. We have recently announced a major extension of the invalid care allowance as the benefit that is paid to those caring for disabled people. Consistent with that, we intend that the extra disablement premium will be paid direct to a severely disabled person where there is no one receiving or eligible for the invalid care allowance in respect of that person’s care needs. We envisage setting the rate at the same level as for invalid care allowance, currently, although shortly to rise, £23 a week. This will be paid on top of the disablement premium in relevant cases. It is nearly double the rate of the basic disablement premium for a single person that is illustrated in the technical annex.’
On a division the government amendment was carried in lieu of the Lords’ amendment.
When the Bill was again before the House, the Lord President of the Council, moving that the government amendment be agreed to, said (479 HL Official Report (5th series) cols 386–387):
‘The additional premium will be paid directly as of right to severely disabled people who meet certain criteria. The first is that they should be in receipt of the higher rate of attendance allowance: so it will apply to those in households where there is no one capable of carrying out normal domestic duties. We think the purpose behind that rule—the need for extra support
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to maintain independence that cannot otherwise be provided—is a sound one. We have recently announced the extension of invalid care allowance—the benefit that is paid to those caring for disabled people. Consistent with that, we intend that the extra disablement premium will be paid directly to a severely disabled person where there is no one receiving or eligible for the invalid care allowance in respect of that person’s care needs. We envisage setting the rate at the same level as for invalid care allowance—currently £23 a week. It is nearly double the rate of the disablement premium in relevant cases.’
This time on a division the government amendment was agreed to by this House.
This account of the circumstances in which s 22(3) and (4) came to be enacted and the statements made by the government spokesman moving the relevant amendment in both Houses seem to me to provide precisely the kind of material which was considered in Pepper v Hart to be available as an aid to statutory construction. Section 22(4) is undoubtedly ambiguous, as the difference of opinion in the courts below clearly shows. But it was made perfectly clear to both Houses that it was intended to use the regulation-making power conferred by sub-s (4) so as to provide that a person was only to be treated as severely disabled for the purposes of sub-s (3) if he was in receipt of attendance allowance and living in a household with no other adult able to care for him and where no invalid care allowance was in payment to any other person to provide for his care. This is, of course, precisely what, in principle, para 13 of Sch 2 to the 1987 regulations sets out to achieve. Parliament, having enacted the two subsections with full knowledge of how the regulation-making power was proposed to be used, must clearly have intended that it should be effective to authorise such use. Thus the parliamentary material unequivocally indorses the conclusion I had reached as a matter of construction independently of that material.
The significance of this, following as it does two other cases decided by your Lordships House since Pepper v Hart (Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] 2 WLR 120 and Warwickshire CC v Johnson [1993] 1 All ER 299, [1993] 2 WLR 1) where the parliamentary material has been found decisive of a statutory ambiguity, is to illustrate how useful the relaxation of the former exclusionary rule may be in avoiding unnecessary litigation. Certainly in this case, if it had been possible to take account of the parliamentary material at the outset, it would have been clear that it refuted the appellant’s contention and there would probably never have been any appeal to the commissioner, let alone beyond him. I doubt if any of us who were party to the decision in Pepper v Hart anticipated that within so short a time after it Hansard would be found to provide the answer in three other cases before the House. But this encourages the hope that as time passes the effect of the new rule will be to prevent or to curtail much litigation relating to ambiguous statutory provisions which would otherwise be fought through the courts.
The subsidiary point
Counsel for the appellant argued before your Lordships another point to which the judgments in the Court of Appeal make no reference, although we were told that the point was raised before it. The point arises in the following way. Regulation 3(1) of the 1987 regulations defines ‘non-dependent’ as meaning ‘any person … who normally resides with the claimant’ subject to the list of exceptions in reg 3(2). As the regulation was originally drafted one of these exceptions was ‘a person who jointly occupies the claimant’s dwelling’. If construed widely this exception seems almost coextensive with the definition. Be that as it may, the
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respondents do not dispute that this exception applied to the appellant’s parents so that they were not ‘non-dependents’ under Sch 2, para 13(2)(a)(ii). But by para 3 of the Income Support (General) Amendment No 3 Regulations 1989, SI 1989/1678, which came into force on 9 October 1989, the relevant exception in reg 3(2) of the 1987 regulations was amended by the addition of the following words:
‘… and either is a co-owner of that dwelling with the claimant or his partner (whether or not there are other co-owners) or is liable with the claimant or his partner to make payments in respect of his occupation of the dwelling.’
It is common ground that the amended exception does not apply to the appellant’s parents, who are accordingly ‘non-dependents’ as defined. But the appellant boldly submits that the 1989 amendment should be struck down on the ground of irrationality. The object of the amendment was clearly to narrow the scope of the original exception, which was probably wider than had been intended. It may perhaps not be immediately apparent what policy consideration requires that an exception from the category of ‘non-dependents’ be made in favour of adults normally residing with claimants either on the ground that they are joint occupiers with the claimants, whatever that was intended to mean, or that they are co-owners as provided by the amended regulation. But that is a matter for the Secretary of State and Parliament, not for the courts. It seems to me unarguable that the amended exception in reg 3(2) should be invalidated as irrational. Even if it were, it would not assist the appellant. There is no power to reinstate the unamended exception.
I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich. I agree with it and for the reasons which he gives would also dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have read the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich. I agree with it and for the reasons which he gives would also dismiss the appeal.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich I too would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Kent County Council v C and another
[1993] 1 All ER 719
Categories: FAMILY; Children
Court: FAMILY DIVISION
Lord(s): EWBANK J
Hearing Date(s): 29, 30 JULY 1992
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Care order – Order for contact between child and any named person – Whether court can order that no contact take place between parent and child – Children Act 1989, ss 31, 34(2).
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Care order – Court granting care order in favour of local authority but adding direction for continued involvement of guardian ad litem – Whether court having power to make directions in relation to care orders – Whether direction a fetter on powers of local authority.
The local authority applied, with the consent of the mother and guardian ad litem, to the family proceedings court under s 31a of the Children Act 1989 for a care order in respect of a girl aged four. At the hearing the local authority proposed that a rehabilitation programme be entered into to assess the relationship between the mother and child. However, the guardian ad litem took the view that, given the history of the case, rehabilitation would be unsuccessful and would merely prolong the child’s sense of impermanence, and advised instead that the child be placed with long-term foster parents. The justices were concerned about the guardian ad litem’s views and concluded that although they had power under s 34(2)b of the 1989 Act to order that there be no contact between mother and child, which would effectively prevent the local authority from carrying out the rehabilitation plan, they ought not to exercise that power in the circumstances. Instead, when making the care order they added a direction that the local authority should allow the guardian ad litem to have continued involvement with the child for three months to enable him to investigate the rehabilitation process so that if appropriate he could apply on behalf of the child to have contact with the mother terminated under s 34(2). The local authority appealed. The questions arose (i) whether in an appropriate case the family proceedings court had power to order that no contact take place between a parent and child and (ii) whether the court had power to add a direction when making a care order under the 1989 Act.
Held - (1) When making a care order under the 1989 Act it was open to the family proceedings court to make an order under s 34(2) that no contact take place between a parent and child, but since in most cases that would be ill-advised the preferable course would be to make no order under s 34(2) for contact (see p 722 g h, post).
(2) The family proceedings court had no power under the 1989 Act to make directions in relation to care orders since, once a care order had been made, then,
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subject to any subsequent orders as to contact under s 34, the responsibility and duties of the court ceased and responsibility for the care of the child fell on the local authority, and the addition of a direction of any sort to a care order would be a fetter on the local authority’s plans, authority and responsibility. Accordingly, since the pace and success of any rehabilitation programme entered into after the care order was made was a matter which could only be decided by the local authority, the appeal would be allowed and the direction deleted from the order (see p 722 j to p 723 b j, post); A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385 applied.
Notes
For the making of care orders on the application of the local authority, see Supplement to 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 732A.
For the Children Act 1989, ss 31, 34, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 431, 437.
Case referred to in judgment
A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385, [1982] AC 363, [1981] 2 WLR 948, HL.
Appeal
Kent County Council appealed from an order made by the Margate and Ramsgate Family Proceedings Court on 3 June 1992 whereby on the application of the council it granted a care order in respect of L, a four-year-old girl, but added a direction that the guardian ad litem be allowed to have continued involvement with the child in order that he could investigate the rehabilitation process between the mother and L so that L could apply to have contact terminated if appropriate. The grounds of the appeal were, inter alia, (i) that the justices had no jurisdiction to attach a condition to the care order which had been agreed by the parties and approved by the justices and (ii) that the justices had no jurisdiction to make the direction, because, inter alia, it was a fetter on the discretion of the local authority in the exercise of its functions under the Children Act 1989. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Roger McCarthy (instructed by D P Clephan, Maidstone) for the local authority.
Martin O’Dwyer (instructed by Daniel & Edwards, Ramsgate) for the guardian ad litem.
Pierre Janusz (instructed by Girlings, Margate) for the mother.
30 July 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
EWBANK J. This is an appeal against an order made by the Margate and Ramsgate Family Proceedings Court on 3 June 1992. The family proceedings court had before it an application by the local authority for a care order with respect to a child, L, who is now nearly four years old. The child was represented by a guardian ad litem and her mother was also a party.
The local authority asserted that the threshold conditions under which a care order could be made had been met. The threshold conditions are set out in s 31 of the Children Act 1989. The mother and the guardian ad litem agreed that the conditions were met and accordingly there was no contest on the question of whether a care order should be made. However, it was the local authority’s plan that there should be a period of assessment of the relationship between L and her mother and of the mother’s parenting skills and her willingness to respond to counselling, and that a programme of rehabilitation should be entered into.
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The guardian ad litem took a different view. In his report, having considered all the circumstances of this sad case, he said:
‘I would have immense concerns if consideration were given to further assessing the relationship between [L] and her mother and thus protract [L’s] sense of impermanence. It is my view that there is enough evidence available to suggest rehabilitation would not be possible.’
The guardian ad litem recommended a care order and recommended that L should be placed permanently with another family.
The guardian ad litem had been to a well-known and eminent consultant psychiatrist, who described L as suffering from an ‘emotional disorder characterised by anxious, withdrawn and fearful behaviour accompanied by temper tantrums’. He described how L was physically abused by her mother and stepfather and he also described his concerns regarding L’s parenting by her mother. In conclusion, the consultant child psychiatrist said:
‘The longstanding nature of the difficulties and the poor response to treatment of those difficulties reduces the likelihood that any treatment programme would be successful. On balance, therefore despite the mother’s co-operation and her wish for improvement, it is likely that any rehabilitation plan would be likely to fail.’
The justices were concerned about the views of the guardian ad litem and considered whether they should, if they had the power, agree with a proposal that there should be a rehabilitation. They took the view that under s 34(2) of the 1989 Act they had the power to order that there should be no contact between the mother and the child, thus preventing the local authority from carrying out the rehabilitation plan. Having decided they had that power they decided not to exercise it and made no order under that section. But because of their concern they made a direction at the same time as they made the care order. The direction reads as follows:
‘… we direct to the Local Authority that the Guardian ad Litem be allowed to have continued involvement with [L] so that he can investigate the rehabilitation process so that the child could apply to have contact terminated if appropriate—The guardian’s involvement to last up to three months after … the placement at [the mother and child unit to which it was proposed that the child should go].’
The local authority appeals against the order made by the family proceedings court. The local authority says that the justices had no power to add a direction of any sort to the care order and, in particular, they had no power to order that the guardian ad litem be allowed to have continued involvement with L, so that effectively he could apply if he felt that the rehabilitation process was not succeeding.
The first question which has been considered on this appeal is whether the justices were right in thinking that they had power in an appropriate case to order that there should be no contact between the mother and child under s 34(2). The general provision as to contact between a parent and a child in the event of a care order is set out in s 34(1), which provides that the local authority shall allow reasonable contact between the parent and the child. Section 34(2), however, which overrides s 34(1), provides:
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‘On an application made by the authority or the child, the court may make such order as it considers appropriate with respect to the contact which is to be allowed between the child and any named person.’
Subsection (3) provides for applications made by various other people including other people with parental responsibility. Section 34(5) enables the court to make such an order without any specific application.
The question which arises is whether the court can make an order for no contact, ie whether it could properly be said to be an order which was appropriate with respect to the contact between the child and the parent.
The argument against that interpretation, which appears to be the obvious interpretation, is that under s 34(8)—
‘The Secretary of State may by regulations make provision as to … (b) the circumstances in which, and conditions subject to which, the terms of any order under this section may be departed from by agreement between the local authority and the person in relation to whom the order is made …’
Such regulations have been made. They are the Contact with Children Regulations 1991, SI 1991/891, and reg 3 is the relevant regulation. It is headed: ‘Departure from terms of court order on contact under section 34’ and provides:
‘The local authority may depart from the terms of any order under section 34 … by agreement between the local authority and the person in relation to whom the order is made …’
It then provides certain conditions.
It is said that it would be pointless for the court to make an order that there should be no contact when that order can be overridden and departed from by the local authority with the agreement of the parent. It is said that the most the court should do if it thinks that contact should not take place is to say that there should be no order as to contact, leaving it to the local authority and the parent by agreement to make any other provisions they wish to do so. It is said that it would be wrong that the court should be put in a position of making an order on the merits of the case that there should be no contact when the next day the local authority and the parent could depart from that order.
That seems to me to be a good argument for saying that the court in the ordinary way ought not to make an order for no contact between the parent and the child, but I do not think it is a satisfactory argument in the interpretation of s 34(2) and (3). I think it is open to the court to make such an order if they think it is appropriate although it would be ill-advised in most cases. It would be better in the ordinary case, where the court thinks there should be no contact, to say there is no order for contact, which, in fact, is what the family proceedings court had done in this case.
The fundamental point in the appeal, however, does not depend on that issue. The court has made a direction to the local authority that the guardian ad litem be allowed to have continuing involvement with a view to making an application in due course if thought appropriate. There is nothing in the 1989 Act which provides for the court to tack on any direction to a care order and I have to say, in my judgment, that the addition of a direction of any sort to a care order is a fetter on the local authority’s plans, authority and responsibility.
Under s 22(3) of the Children Act 1989 the local authority has the duty ‘to safeguard and promote [the] welfare’ of children in care and, in my judgment, responsibility for the care of the child is firmly with the local authority once a care order is made. The responsibility and duties of the court cease on the making
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of the care order, subject to the provisions of s 34 which makes provision for contact orders being made by the court.
The pace and success of any rehabilitation programme, after a care order is made, are to be decided upon by the local authority and only the local authority. Neither the court nor the guardian ad litem has any function in the assessment of the rehabilitation programme: It is open to various people, as set out in s 34, to make applications for contact and the local authority, under s 34(4), can apply for authority to refuse contact, but unless such an application is made the court is not involved. In A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385 at 388–389, [1982] AC 363 at 373 Lord Wilberforce said in relation to the High Court:
‘The court’s general inherent power is always available to fill gaps or to supplement the powers of the local authority; what it will not do (except by way of judicial review where appropriate) is to supervise the exercise of discretion within the field committed by statute to the local authority.’
That is still the position and the direction given by the family proceedings court runs contrary to that principle.
The guardian ad litem takes the view that this decision is against the interests of the child and in some way the inconvenience of the decision ought to be got round. He suggests, for example, that instead of making a care order an interim care order should have been made with a view to reviewing the progress of rehabilitation in six or nine months time. This, in my view, would be contrary to the principle of the 1989 Act. First of all, under s 1(2) it is provided:
‘… the court shall have regard to the general principle that any delay in determining the question is likely to prejudice the welfare of the child.’
Secondly, under s 32(1), there is specific provision for the timetabling of care proceedings. It would be a deliberate flouting of the principles of the 1989 Act, with a view to achieving a result which ought not to be sought, to embark on that course.
A second suggestion made by the guardian ad litem is that he should be reappointed on the question of contact between the child and the mother, and that the court should adjourn that question so that there would be a continuing issue relating to contact and the guardian ad litem could make an application for contact to be brought to an end if he felt that the rehabilitation process was failing. This, too, seemed to be a manoeuvre to keep open an issue which ought to be closed. Moreover, having regard to reg 3 of the Contact with Children Regulations 1991, which I have referred to, it could be overridden by the local authority.
There has been a brief discussion as to whether in fact the guardian ad litem has the power under s 34(2) to make an application in any event. Section 34(2) provides for the application to be made by the authority or the child and the question has been raised whether the child, in that context, means the child himself if he is of sufficient age and understanding to make the application. This is not an issue which I have thought necessary to decide.
This case, in effect, turns on whether the family proceedings court can keep the power of review over a care order by making directions in relation to the care order. The simple answer is that it cannot do so, and the appeal is accordingly allowed and the direction in the order is deleted.
Appealed allowed. No order for costs.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
Lillicrap and another v Nalder & Son (a firm)
[1993] 1 All ER 724
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, RUSSELL AND FARQUHARSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 29 JUNE 1992
Discovery – Legal professional privilege – Waiver – Implied waiver – Extent – Client instituting legal proceedings against solicitor – Solicitor acting for client in series of transactions – Client bringing action against solicitor for breach of contract and negligence in respect of one transaction – Solicitor wishing to rely on previous transactions in which he acted for client to show client would have proceeded with transaction even if properly advised as to risk – Client seeking delivery up of documents in previous transactions – Whether documents relating to previous transactions covered by waiver of privilege – Whether documents relating to previous transactions relevant to issue in proceedings.
The plaintiffs, who were property developers, retained the defendant firm of solicitors to act for them in a series of transactions. In respect of one such transaction, the purchase of a property, the plaintiffs complained that the solicitors had been negligent in failing to advise them of the existence of a right of way over part of the land purchased. A writ was issued, pleadings exchanged and the action set down for trial. Shortly before the trial the solicitors sought leave to reamend their defence to admit negligence, but they continued to assert that the plaintiffs would have continued with the purchase of the land even if they had known of the existence of the right of way. In support of that assertion the solicitors referred to six other transactions in which they had acted for the plaintiffs where the plaintiffs had proceeded despite advice from the solicitors that various risks were involved. On the basis that the solicitors should not be allowed to make use of documents relating to the other transactions in which they had acted for the plaintiffs because they were covered by solicitor/client privilege, the plaintiffs issued a summons for the delivery up of all documents relating to those other transactions. The judge gave the solictors leave to reamend their defence but refused leave to add the further particulars of the other transactions and made the order for delivery up sought by the plaintiffs, on the ground that the plaintiffs’ waiver of legal professional privilege covering the documents did not extend to those documents connected with the other transactions. The solicitors appealed from the order for delivery up. The plaintiffs contended that the other transactions were the subject of separate retainers and not one general retainer and that therefore by instituting proceedings the plaintiffs had waived privilege only in respect of the transaction the subject of the proceedings.
Held - The institution of civil proceedings against a solicitor by his client constituted an implied waiver of professional privilege in relation to all relevant documents concerned with the suit to the extent necessary to enable the court to adjudicate the dispute fully and fairly. However, such waiver extended only to matters relevant to an issue in the proceedings and could not be used as a roving search into anything else in which the solicitor may have happened to have acted for the client. The issue between the parties was one of causation of loss, which the plaintiffs had to establish in order to be entitled to substantial damages, and it was a defence to that issue for the solicitors to establish, by reference to the earlier transactions, that the plaintiffs would have gone ahead with the transaction the subject of the proceedings irrespective of the advice they had received, and the
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documents in the other transactions, although otherwise privileged, were relevant to the determination of that issue. Accordingly, the plaintiffs’ implied waiver of privilege extended to the documents in the other transactions. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the order for delivery up of those documents set aside (see p 729 d to j, p 730 b c e to g and p 731 d g to p 732 a d j to p 733 b, post).
Sykes v Midland Bank Executor and Trustee Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 471 followed.
Dictum of Nourse LJ in Goddard v Nationwide Building Society [1986] 3 All ER 264 at 27l considered.
Notes
For legal and professional privilege, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 71–74, and for cases on the subject, see 18 Digest (2nd reissue) 154–169, 1379–1482.
For waiver of privilege, see 13 Halsbury’s Law (4th edn) para 84, and for cases on the subject, see 18 Digest (2nd reissue) 253–254, 2256–2267.
Cases referred to in judgments
Ashburton (Lord) v Pape [1913] 2 Ch 469, [1911–13] All ER Rep 708, CA.
Berger v Raymond Sun Ltd [1984] 1 WLR 625.
Carradine Properties Ltd v DJ Freeman & Co (a firm) (1982) Times, 19 February, CA.
Goddard v Nationwide Building Society [1986] 3 All ER 264, [1987] QB 670, [1986] 3 WLR 734, CA.
R v P [1991] 3 All ER 337, [1991] 2 AC 447, [1991] 3 WLR 161, HL.
Sykes v Midland Bank Executor and Trustee Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 471, [197l] 1 QB 113, [1970] 3 WLR 273, CA.
Cases also cited
British Coal Corp v Dennis Rye Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 816, [1988] 1 WLR 1113, CA.
Euroshipping Corp of Monravia v Minister of Agricultural Economics and Marketing 1979 (1) SA 673, CPD.
General Accident Fire and Life Assurance Corp Ltd v Tainter, The Zephyr [1984] 1 All ER 35, [1984] 1 WLR l00.
Application for leave to appeal and interlocutory appeal
By writ dated 5 March 1991 the plaintiffs, Bertram Alan Lillicrap and Mary Lillian Lillicrap, brought an action against the defendants, Nalder & Son, a firm of solicitors, claiming, inter alia, damages for breach of contract and negligence in relation to their intended purchase of the property known as the Stable Block, Heligan Manor, St Ewe, Cornwall, in that the defendants, who had been retained to act as the plaintiffs’ solicitors in the purchase, had failed to advise the plaintiffs (a) that there was a right of way over part of the land and (b) that there was no right of way in favour of the purchasers of the property over another part of the land. The defendants by their defence denied negligence but, after the exchange of pleadings and discovery, sought by a summons in the action to reamend their defence by withdrawing the denial of negligence and admitting negligence and by adding an averment that the plaintiffs would have proceeded with the transaction even if they had been advised as it was alleged that they should have been. By a further summons in the action the plaintiffs sought an order requiring the defendants to deliver up all files, papers and documents relating to all transactions carried out on behalf of the plaintiffs by the defendants in their
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capacity as solicitors to the plaintiffs except those relating to the purchase and sale of the Stable Block. By orders dated 17 June 1992 May J gave the defendants leave to reamend the defence to admit liability and to plead the particulars, but refused leave to plead further particulars referring to six other transactions in which the defendants had acted for the plaintiffs on the plaintiffs’ purchase of other properties, and made the order for delivery up of documents sought by the plaintiffs. The judge refused leave to appeal. The defendants applied to the Court of Appeal for leave to appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Rupert Jackson QC and Andrew Stafford (instructed by Hancock & Lawrence, Truro) for the defendants.
Hugh Bennett QC and Lindsay Boswell (instructed by Preston Goldburn, Falmouth) for the plaintiffs.
29 June 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ. This case comes before us on an application by the defendants, a firm of solicitors called Nalder & Son, for leave to appeal against an order made by May J on 17 June 1992. Leave to appeal against that order was refused on that occasion by May J. The application for leave comes before us rather than before the single judge because of the urgency of the matter. It comes before us with a direction that the hearing of the application should be followed by the hearing of the appeal if leave is granted. In fact we have heard on the application the full argument of both sides on the appeal. Accordingly, we grant leave to appeal and I now proceed to deliver judgment on the appeal.
The plaintiffs, husband and wife, are property developers and the defendants, as I have said, are a firm of solicitors who practice at Truro in Cornwall. The complaint by the plaintiffs arises from their having retained the defendants in November 1988 in relation to the plaintiffs’ then proposed purchase, subject to contract, of a property known as the Stable Block, Heligan Manor Buildings, near Mevagissey in Cornwall, with the intention of developing the property as a private mews-style development of four units. On 6 February 1989 contracts were exchanged for part of the property known as the green land and an option was granted to the plaintiffs to purchase another part of the property called the red land. The reasons why it was dealt with that way does not matter for present purposes. It was a requirement of the vendors. On 27 February 1989 the plaintiffs completed the purchase of the green land and on 2 June 1989 they exercised their option to purchase the red land. On 5 June 1989 contracts for the purchase of the red land were exchanged and on 7 July 1989 the purchase of the red land was completed. The complaint of the plaintiffs is that, in acting as solicitors on that transaction, or those purchases, the defendants acted negligently in that they failed to advise the plaintiffs of the existence of a right of way over, I think, part of the green land, and they also failed to advise the plaintiffs that the title did not show that the vendors were entitled to any right of way along a particular track shown on the plan which provided the only convenient way of obtaining access to, and egress from, part of the property.
The writ in the action was issued on 5 March 1991. A statement of claim was served a few days later. A defence was served on 19 April 1991. In June 1991 the statement of claim was amended and an amended defence was served on 26 July 1991. Discovery proceeded and the action was set down on 18 November 1991. On 29 January 1992 it was listed for trial on 8 April 1992. On 24 March 1992 the defendants’ solicitors put forward a draft of a reamended defence. This altered the previous defence in two major respects. Firstly, the denial of negligence, which there had been in the former defences, was withdrawn and instead
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negligence was admitted. In addition, in pursuing their denial of the allegation in the amended statement of claim—that ‘if the Plaintiffs had been advised of the existence of the [one] right of way and the absence of a right of way along the [track I have mentioned] they would not have proceeded with the purchase of the Property or any part thereof’—particulars of that denial were added in para 3; firstly, in 3(A):
‘The Defendant avers that the Plaintiffs would have proceeded with the transaction, even if they had been advised as it is alleged [that] they should have been.’
and certain matters were set out and, in addition and as further particulars under para 3, reference was made to six other transactions in which the defendants had acted for the plaintiffs on the plaintiffs’ purchase, or negotiations for purchase, of other properties in Cornwall, in each of which in substance—and it is not necessary to go into details—at some stage the plaintiffs had elected to proceed despite advice by the defendants of risks or of the defendants having pointed out that the time-scale the plaintiffs were wanting to go ahead on prevented them from making prudent inquiries. That is the general nature of it. It was sought, therefore, to add these further particulars in para 3(B).
The case was therefore adjourned and applications were made in respect of these amendments. There was a summons by the defendants to reamend and a summons by the plaintiffs who took the view that the defendants should not be allowed to make use of documents relating to other transactions in which the defendants had acted as solicitors for the plaintiffs. Following the general practice in cases where privileged documents are in the hands of persons not entitled to hold them, a summons was issued for the plaintiffs, calling for an order that the defendants deliver up all files, papers and documents relating to all transactions carried out on behalf of the plaintiffs except those relating to the purchase and sale of the particular Heligan Manor Stable Block. May J’s order gave the defendants leave to reamend the defence to admit liability and to plead the particulars under 3(A) but not 3(B). He refused them leave to introduce 3(B). He gave directions, with which we are not concerned, as to further and better particulars of the amendments, and he further ordered that the defendants—
‘(1) do forthwith deliver up to the Plaintiffs all original and copy documents belonging to the Plaintiffs and presently in the Defendant’s possession or control (2) do forthwith deliver up to the Plaintiffs any documents and copy documents prepared by any person on the basis of any confidential information belonging to the Plaintiffs and not arising under the retainer specifically pleaded in paragraph 2 of the Amended Statement of Claim (3) be restrained until after judgment in this action or until further Order in the meantime from publishing or making use of any confidential information belonging to the Plaintiffs and not arising under the retainer specifically pleaded in paragraph 2 of the Amended Statement of Claim.’
The position of the plaintiffs is this, as clearly explained by Mr Bennett QC on their behalf in this court. Each retainer of a solicitor is a separate retainer for a particular transaction. If a property developer buys seven properties from different vendors on different occasions and the same solicitor acts for the developer on each purchase, there will have been seven retainers. There is not one continuing retainer which continues whether or not there is anything to be done for the client at a particular time. It is not right to say, and this is no doubt common ground, of any person at any particular time in any general sense that ‘X’ is his
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solicitor. Therefore it is said that the institution of proceedings by the plaintiffs against the defendants in respect of this one transaction in respect of the Stable Block merely waives the professional privilege of the plaintiffs in relation to documents concerned with that transaction only. Reference is made to the judgment of Nourse LJ in Goddard v Nationwide Building Society [1986] 3 All ER 264 at 271–272, [1987] QB 670 at 685, where he said:
‘Thirdly, the right of the party who desires the protection to invoke the equitable jurisdiction does not in any way depend on the conduct of the third party into whose possession the record of the confidential communication has come. Thus, several eminent judges have been of the opinion that an injunction can be granted against a stranger who has come innocently into the possession of confidential information to which he is not entitled … This view seems to give effect to the general rule that equity gives relief against all the world, including the innocent, save only a bona fide purchaser for value without notice. It is directly in point in the present case and our decision necessarily affirms it. Fourthly, once it is established that a case is governed by Lord Ashburton v Pape [1913] 2 Ch 469, [1911–13] All ER Rep 708, there is no discretion in the court to refuse to exercise the equitable jurisdiction according to its view of the materiality of the communication the justice of admitting or excluding it or the like. The injunction is granted in aid of the privilege which, unless and until it is waived, is absolute. In saying this, I do not intend to suggest that there may not be cases where an injunction can properly be refused on general principles affecting the grant of a discretionary remedy, for example on the ground of inordinate delay.’
Thus the client has the right to insist on his professional legal privilege and it is for him to choose whether or not to waive it. But it is accepted that the waiver may be implied and that there is an implied waiver where the client brings proceedings for professional negligence against the solicitor. Mr Bennett suggests that the waiver is only in respect of documents and information concerned with that particular retainer. This may in general prima facie be so, but it is not difficult to envisage scenarios where it is apparent that the waiver must have a wider scope.
One scenario, which emerged from the mention by Mr Jackson QC of a case in which he had appeared before this court a few months ago, is on these lines. A firm of solicitors has been retained by a property development company to act on the purchase of a particular property for development. The same firm of solicitors has acted for the property company on numerous other purchases of land for development over the last five years or so. In the particular purchase, with which the litigation is concerned, it is found that on the plan on the contract submitted by the vendor’s solicitors, which is a copy of the plan on the land certificate of the vendor’s title, the property shown is of a smaller area than the property being sold appears to be on inspection on the site. That is in fact because one of the boundary fences on the site is not on the true boundary line but certain land belonging to an adjoining owner appears to be within the curtilage of the property on the site. Against that background, it was said that the solicitors were negligent in failing to advise the clients to check carefully the contract plan against what was apparent on the site.
It is clear, for instance, from the judgment of Donaldson LJ in Carradine Properties Ltd v DJ Freeman & Co (a firm) (1982) Times, 19 February that the precise scope of the solicitor’s duty will depend, inter alia, upon the extent to which the client appears to need advice. Thus an inexperienced client will need and will be entitled to expect the solicitor to take a much broader view of the
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scope of his retainer and of his duties than will be the case with an experienced client. In the hypothetical case which I have assumed, the solicitor had indeed on the first occasion when he acted advised his client to check the contract plan against the boundaries on site and, by the time of the transaction which gave rise to the claim against the solicitor, the solicitor knew from his experience with the client that it was the normal practice of this experienced client to check the plan on the contract against the boundaries on the site. In those circumstances I have no doubt that the client would not be entitled to say that any waiver of privilege only applied to privilege in respect of the final transaction, which was the transaction in suit, and did not extend to waiver of what had emerged during earlier transactions.
Mr Bennett seemed to be prepared to accept that there would be a wider waiver in those circumstances but he said that was because the later transaction was linked to the advice given on the first transaction and to what the solicitor had learnt of his client over the earlier transactions, and that that linkage justified holding that there was a wider waiver of privilege.
For my part, I accept May J’s formulation of the scope of the waiver. He said:
‘I return to what I regard as the heart of the matter—waiver. A client who sues his solicitor invites the court to adjudicate the dispute and thereby, in my judgment, waives privilege and confidence to the extent that is necessary to enable the court to do so fully and fairly in accordance with the law, including the law of evidence. I suspect that at the fringes each case will depend on its own facts. Normally, the waiver will extend to facts and documents material to the cause of action upon which the plaintiff sues and to the defendant’s proper defence to that cause of action. The bringing of a claim for negligence in relation to a particular retainer will normally be a waiver of privilege and confidence for facts and documents relating to that retainer, but not without more for those relating to other discrete retainers.’
I agree with that. The waiver can only extend to matters which are relevant to an issue in the proceedings and, privilege apart, admissible in evidence. There is no waiver for a roving search into anything else in which the solicitor or any other solicitor may have happened to have acted for the clients. But the waiver must go far enough not merely to entitle the plaintiff to establish his cause of action but to enable the defendant to establish a defence to the cause of action if he has one. Thus it would extend to matters under earlier retainers, as in the hypothetical example I have given, which established that the experience of the client was to the knowledge of the solicitor such that the solicitor was not in breach of duty as alleged.
The relevance in the present case is not to the establishing of negligence on the part of the solicitors, for that is now admitted. But it goes to the question of causation of loss. The decision of this court in Sykes v Midland Bank Executor and Trustee Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 471, [1971] 1 QB 113, shows that, while any negligence on the part of the solicitor is a breach of his contract of retainer sounding in nominal damages, then 40 shillings, it is for the plaintiff to establish causation in order to claim substantial damages. The plaintiff has to show that, if properly advised, he would on the balance of probabilities have acted otherwise. In Sykes’s case the partner in the firm, who were the plaintiffs, candidly admitted that he did not know whether, if he had been given the full information that he should have been given, he would have taken a different course from that which he did take. The case was about an onerous clause in a lease which was a trap because it was only to be appreciated on a close reading that the clause was not simple and straightforward. Because the onus was on the plaintiffs and the
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plaintiffs’ witness candidly said that he did not know whether he would have acted otherwise, Salmon LJ said ([1970] 2 All ER 471 at 479, [1971] 1 QB 113):
‘I can see no evidence on which a court could properly hold that on a balance of probabilities the plaintiffs would not have taken the risk of entering into the underleases at the rents reserved, had they been advised of the true effect of the clauses in question.’
Thus it is a defence to the claim for substantial damages in the present case if the plaintiffs fail to satisfy the court that had they been properly advised they would not have gone ahead with their purchases of the Stable Block.
The matters sought to be raised therefore by para 3(B) of the particulars in the reamended defence are matters clearly relevant to an issue in the proceedings, namely, the issue of causation. They do not merely go to questions of credibility. Privilege apart, therefore, it seems to me that the plea should have been allowed and the documents should, subject to the discretion of the judge at the trial, have been referred to.
May J was led to take a different view because the solicitors, through having acted for the plaintiffs on these previous transactions, would be in a better position in resisting the claim for damages as a result of their admitted negligence in relation to the transaction in suit than if other solictors had acted on the six other transactions. He said that he could see no reason which enabled the defendant solicitors to improve their evidential position relating to damages because they rather than other firms of solicitors happened to have acted on the other transactions.
But, in my judgment, these documents are within the waiver on the judge’s own definition in his judgment, which I have read out. They are material to the defendants’ proper defence to the cause of action upon which the plaintiffs sue. It matters not that, because they happen to know of these transactions, the defendants are in a better position than if they did not know of them because other solicitors had been concerned. There is always a risk that a defendant who has had dealings with a plaintiff in respect of other matters is in a better position than someone who has never had any previous dealings, because the first defendant will know more about the plaintiff’s affairs. But, privilege apart, that is no ground for refusing to allow material to be used. It is not a valid plea that otherwise admissible material should not be admitted because, if the defendants had not known of it, they would not have been trying to bring it in. So far as the privilege is concerned, the judge’s own definition deals with the point.
The judge further intimated that, even if he had determined the privilege and confidence issues in favour of the defendants, he would still have refused them leave to include the draft para 3(B) in their reamendment of their defence. He treated this paragraph as one which would only be admissible in a case of similar fact evidence and he referred to the recent criminal case of R v P [1991] 3 All ER 337, [1991] 2 AC 447.
I do not regard this as a strict case of similar fact evidence. It is merely a question of trying the issue in civil proceedings of whether, on the balance of probabilities, the plaintiffs would or would not have resiled from the transaction, or taken some course other than they did, if they had been properly advised about the rights of way, the presence of one and the absence of the other. But I note that in the judge’s judgment he refers to a decision of Warner J in Berger v Raymond Sun Ltd [1984] 1 WLR 625. In that case Warner J was the trial judge at the trial of an action, one of the issues in which was whether the plaintiff’s signature on certain share transfers had been forged by one of the defendants who was her son. Warner J allowed evidence that certain other transfers of shares, apparently signed
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by other members of the family, had been forged by that defendant. He concluded, carrying out the balancing exercise of the prejudice each way in accordance with the approach of a criminal court in a similar fact case, that the prejudice to the plaintiff would be much the greater if he refused to allow certain of these forged transfers to be proved. It is to be noted however that he was reaching that decision as the judge at the trial, and that particular balancing exercise is one to be exercised by the judge at the trial.
Accordingly, nothing that I say in this judgment is to affect the discretion of the judge at the trial. That is not a discretion we can seek to exercise merely by reading a page or two in the reamended defence, and identifying the other transactions which the defendants seek to rely on. This second point does not, in my judgment, provide any answer at the present stage to the defendants’ claim to amend their pleadings by introducing 3(B) and to retain the documents or copies of the documents until the trial. If the scope of waiver of privilege is as broad as on the definition by May J I believe it to be, then that in itself is the answer to the point founded on the citation from Nourse LJ in Goddard v Nationwide Building Society [1986] 3 All ER 264 at 271, [1987] QB 670 at 685.
Accordingly, I would allow this appeal and I would set aside the order of May J in so far as it granted the three injunctions against the defendants, which I have read, and I would grant the defendants leave to include para 3(B) in the reamendment of their defence.
RUSSELL LJ. Liability is admitted in this case. Damages and their causation are denied. There is therefore on the pleadings a live issue to be tried, namely whether the damage allegedly suffered by the plaintiffs was caused by the admitted negligence of the defendants. In an attempt to defeat the plaintiffs’ claim on causation, the defendants seek to demonstrate that the plaintiffs were prepared to engage in a measure of commercial speculation irrespective of the advice they received from their solicitors. It is in support of that case that the defendants seeks to adduce in evidence the earlier transactions where both the defendants and the plaintiffs were involved as solicitors and clients respectively.
The objection to this course is based upon the sacrosanct nature of the relationship between client and solicitor. I recognise of course that concept of legal professional privilege which is plainly in the public interest. However, in my judgment, once it is conceded that there is implied waiver of privilege when proceedings are instituted against a solicitor, I can see no warrant for the submission that the waiver is confined to the documents and communications between solicitor and client within the specific retainer forming the subject matter of the proceedings. The parameters of the retainer, to my mind, erect an artificial barrier. In my judgment, by bringing civil proceedings against his solicitor, a client impliedly waives privilege in respect of all matters which are relevant to the suit he pursues and, most particularly, where the disclosure of privileged matters is required to enable justice to be done. This is another way of expressing the view that May J expressed in the passage to which Dillon LJ referred.
This brings me to the content of the proposed amendment at para 3(B) of the reamended defence. It is trite law that a pleading is concerned with facts and not with evidence. Whether the earlier transactions will in the end affect the result of this case will depend upon the evidential findings of the judge. The case however cannot be tried on the pleadings and I, for my part, do not think that it was ever within the discretion of May J at the interlocutory stage to shut out these defendants from raising issues simply because May J had reservations about their probative value. Potentially the earlier transactions, or some of them, may assist
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the defendants. If the evidence is admitted the defendants will be able properly to defend themselves. In my judgment if the evidence is shut out, there is at least a risk that the defendants will have been deprived of the opportunity of running a defence that would be legitimately open to them.
Towards the end of his judgment May J went on to express the view that, even if he had found in favour of the defendants on the privilege point, he would, nevertheless, in the exercise of his discretion, have declined to permit the defendants to amend in the way that they desired. He based the exercise of this discretion upon his assessment of the case as one involving similar facts. For my part, with respect to the learned judge, I do not think that this is a case of similar facts properly so-called.
The admission of the evidence relating to the earlier transactions will not depend, and does not depend, upon the nature and circumstances of those earlier transactions, but rather upon the plaintiff’s reaction to legal advice during the course of his relationship with his solicitors in those earlier retainers. That reaction might have been demonstrated in a case wholly dissimilar to the instant case but in my view would nevertheless be admissible.
For all these reasons, as well as those appearing in the judgment of Dillon LJ, and in agreement with him, I too would allow this appeal and I would grant the defendants the relief which they claim.
FARQUHARSON LJ. The facts and chronology of this case have already been set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ and I do not repeat them save to observe that the application now before us on the part of the defendant to amend the defence by the introduction of paras 3(A) and (B) was made at a very late hour.
There is no dispute that the documents relating to the six additional transactions are the subject of professional privilege nor that the information contained in those documents is confidential. The question before us is whether that privilege has been impliedly waived by the launching of these proceedings. As Mr Bennett QC points out, the only act which is said to constitute such a waiver is the issue of the writ on 5 March 1991. The endorsement of the writ is restricted to a claim for damages for negligence in relation to the defendants’ failure to give the necessary advice to the plaintiffs on matters arising from the Heligan Manor Stable Block transaction. There is no reference in the writ to the six other transactions in which the defendants acted as solicitors for the plaintiffs and upon which the former seek to rely. Nor is it suggested that any later act on the part of the plaintiffs amounted to a waiver of the privilege attaching to the documents which relate to those transactions. It is conceded by the plaintiffs that the issuing of the writ did amount to a waiver by the plaintiffs of all documents arising from the transactions sued upon. What is in dispute is the breadth of that waiver. Does it relate only to the Heligan Manor transaction, which is the subject of the claim, or does it extend to documents otherwise privileged which are relevant to the determination of the issue between the parties namely whether, even if the defendants had correctly advised the plaintiffs about the existence or otherwise of the rights of way, the latter would have taken their advice.
The defendants seek to show in the particulars of the six other transactions that, even if proper advice had been tendered, the plaintiffs would have ignored it as they had done in the past; in other words, the issue was one of causation. For my part I would have difficulty in holding that the defendants should, as a matter of principle, be prevented from adducing evidence which is relevant to that issue. A proper interpretation of the waiver in this case is, in my judgment, one that embraces not only the documents and advice arising from the Heligan Manor transaction, but also documents or information otherwise subject to privilege
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which were relevant to the issues between the parties and which it would have been unfair to exclude. Whether the evidence sought to be adduced by the defendants is relevant to the main issue is, in the last analysis, a matter for the trial judge. We are here concerned with whether the documents should be excluded as a matter of principle. I accordingly say nothing about the weight of that evidence but, looking at it as a matter of principle in the circumstances of this case, I would hold that the bringing of the present proceedings by the plaintiffs involved the waiver of the privilege attaching to the documents created in the six transactions.
For those reasons I respectfully agree with the judgments that have been delivered and with the orders proposed.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
Re Manda
[1993] 1 All ER 733
Categories: FAMILY; Children
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BALCOMBE, LEGGATT LJJ AND SIR JOHN MEGAW
Hearing Date(s): 20, 31 JULY 1992
Ward of court – Protection of ward – Confidential papers in wardship proceedings – Disclosure of documents – Application for leave to disclose documents used in wardship proceedings – Disclosure to ward for purposes of litigation – Matters to be considered – Ward attaining majority before hearing of appeal – Interests of minor – Public interest in due administration of justice – Prospects of success in litigation for which disclosure sought – Inhibition of frankness on part of witnesses in wardship proceedings – Whether court should order disclosure of documents.
In 1986 F, a 12-year-old boy who was suspected of being sexually abused, was made a ward of court and committed to the care of the local authority. In 1990 the wardship was discharged and F was returned to his parents. The parents, who at all times vehemently denied that F had been sexually abused, wished to investigate the possibility of bringing a claim in negligence and trespass to the person on behalf of their son against the health authority whose consultant paediatrician had examined F and who had raised the possibility of non-accidental injury. The parents accordingly applied in the wardship proceedings for leave to disclose to experts retained by them all relevant documents in order that counsel’s opinion could be obtained with a view to obtaining legal aid. Since the parents had themselves been defendants in the wardship proceedings all of the material which they sought leave to disclose was already known to them and was in the hands of their solicitors but leave was nevertheless required under s 12(1)(a)a of the Administration of Justice Act 1960 if the disclosure was not to be a contempt of court. The district judge granted the application and on appeal by the local authority his decision was upheld by the judge. The local authority appealed.
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Before the hearing of the appeal F attained the age of 18 and expressed his wish to pursue the proposed action. The appeal proceeded on the basis that he would be the plaintiff in any proceedings against the local authority and that, as he had himself been a defendant in the wardship proceedings, albeit represented by the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem, he was properly aware of all the documents for which leave to disclose was sought.
Held - The court would permit evidence given and documents lodged in wardship proceedings to be disclosed for use in other proceedings by the ward if his interests, which were always the most important factor, and the public interest in the administration of justice that all relevant information should be available for use in those proceedings outweighed any public interest in the confidentiality of the evidence and the documents. In the case of a minor the court would also take into account the prospects of success in the litigation for which disclosure was sought, but in the case of a ward who had attained his majority he was to be taken as being able to make up his own mind as to what was in his best interests and the court merely had to satisfy itself that his proposed action was not bound to fail. On balance, the facts that F had become an adult and was thus able to make up his own mind as to what was in his best interests and that the proposed litigation could not be said to be bound to fail and the public interest that all relevant information should be available in the litigation outweighed any detriment to children’s proceedings generally caused by the possibility that in future such cases witnesses, in particular professional witnesses, would feel inhibited from being totally frank. Accordingly, in the exercise of the court’s discretion disclosure of the wardship material by F to his advisers ought to be permitted and the appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 743 b to f; p 744 c to g, p 745 g h and p 746 a to c g, post).
Dicta of Rees J in Re R (MJ) (an infant) (proceedings transcripts: publication) [1975] 2 All ER 749 at 756 and of Waite J in Re X and ors (minors) (wardship: disclosure of documents) [1992] 2 All ER 595 at 606–607 applied.
Per Leggatt LJ and Sir John Megaw. It is at least doubtful whether there would be the same frank and ready co-operation essential for the proper functioning of the wardship system, which depends on court welfare officers being able to obtain frank and ready co-operation from people as diverse as doctors, school teachers, neighbours, the child in question, the parents themselves and other close relations, including other children in the same family, if it were to become known or suspected that a statement made in response to a request for help in wardship proceedings was liable, without some very strong reason, to be made available for use in legal proceedings which reopened in public litigation disputes to which the voluntary statement was relevant, but which the giver of the statement would sensibly have assumed would have been decided once and for all in the privacy of the wardship proceedings (see p 746 b c e f; post).
Notes
For the publication of information relating to wardship proceedings, see 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 591, and for cases on the subject, see 28(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 309–311, 2899–2908.
For the Administration of Justice Act 1960, s 12, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th, edn) (1991 reissue) 179.
Cases referred to in judgments
Brown v Matthews [1990] 2 All ER 155, [1990] Ch 662, [1990] 2 WLR 879, CA.
F (a minor) (publication of information), Re [1977] 1 All ER 114, [1977] Fam 58, [1976] 3 WLR 813, CA.
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F (minors) (wardship: police investigation), Re [1989] Fam 18, [1988] 3 WLR 818, CA.
F v Wirral Metropolitan BC [1991] 2 All ER 648, [1991] Fam 69, [1991] 2 WLR 1132, CA.
R (M J) (an infant) (proceedings transcripts: publication), Re [1975] 2 All ER 749, [1975] Fam 89, [1975] 2 WLR 978.
Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1, HL.
X and ors (minors) (wardship: disclosure of documents), Re [1992] 2 All ER 595, [1992] Fam 124, [1992] 2 WLR 784.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Bellenden (formerly Satterthwaite) v Satterthwaite [1948] 1 All ER 343, CA.
Gaskin v Liverpool City Council [1980] 1 WLR 1549, CA.
Osenton (Charles) & Co v Johnston [1941] 2 All ER 245, [1942] AC 130, HL.
Appeal
Leeds City Council appealed with the leave of the judge from the order of Hollis J made on 31 January 1992 dismissing the council’s appeal from the order of District Judge Hebbert made in wardship proceedings on 16 August 1991 granting the first and second defendants, Patrick Manda and Elizabeth Manda (the parents), leave to disclose documents in their possession relating to the wardship of the third defendant, their son Francis Manda, for the purpose only of applying for legal aid and obtaining counsel’s opinion in relation to proposed proceedings against the Leeds Western Area Health Authority and Dr Christopher Hobbs for negligence. The facts are set out in the judgment of Balcombe LJ.
Shaun Spencer QC and James Goss (instructed by P Rogerson, Leeds) for the council.
James Wadsworth QC and Julian Picton (instructed by McAra & Co, Leeds) for the parents.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
BALCOMBE LJ. Francis Manda was born on 12 June 1974. He is the youngest of six children of Patrick and Elizabeth Manda. Patrick Manda (the father) is a native of Zambia, Elizabeth Manda (the mother) is a native of Eire. Francis was born in Zambia, but the family came to Birmingham when he was six weeks old, and in 1975 moved to Dublin to allow the father to study. In 1979 the family moved back to Zambia. Francis found this transition difficult because they did not speak English in his school. In October 1982 the family moved again, this time to Leeds, and Francis attended Crossgates Primary School, where he was observed to be totally passive: he would neither speak nor eat. He was seen by an educational psychologist and a child psychiatrist and was diagnosed as being an elective mute. In July 1983 he started to attend the day unit of the department of child and family psychiatry at St James’s Hospital, Leeds.
On a number of occasions during the remainder of 1983, during the year 1984 and in the first half of 1985 Francis was observed to be bruised. He was examined in October 1983, June 1984 and again in June 1985 by a consultant paediatrician, Dr Hobbs, who raised the possibility of non-accidental injury. In June 1985, after further inquiries, a case conference was held by the social services department of the Leeds City Council and Francis was placed on the register of child abuse. He continued to attend the day unit and St Kevin’s Middle School, both part-time.
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However, his conduct at school continued to cause anxiety: in September 1985 whilst at school he did not speak, participate in class or even move unless individually coaxed; he was frequently in tears. Meanwhile throughout the latter part of 1985 and in the early weeks of 1986 bruises continued to be observed.
On 20 January 1986 Francis was again examined by Dr Hobbs. He reported that he found Francis unhappy and withdrawn and noted a pattern of bruising strongly suggestive of non-accidental injury. Dr Hobbs also observed anal abnormalities which were compatible with, but not diagnostic of, sexual abuse of Francis. As a result of that report the council obtained a place of safety order in relation to Francis and he went to live in a small family group home at Easedale Close, Leeds.
I should make it clear that the father, and the mother have at all times vehemently denied that Francis was sexually abused, and have maintained that his admitted bruising was attributable to the ordinary rough and tumble of childhood.
On 25 February 1986 the council issued an originating summons in wardship seeking care and control of Francis. Evidence was filed on behalf of the council by Jill Low, a social worker employed by the council, Dr Hobbs, by two teachers and the special needs co-ordinator at St Kevin’s Middle School, and by Dr Margaret Hallas, a consultant psychiatrist at St James’s Hospital. The father and the mother, who were defendants to the wardship proceedings, each filed affidavits, as did a brother and two sisters of Francis, and a police surgeon who examined Francis on 1 February 1986 and found no abnormalities on a rectal examination and no injuries other than a small bruise on the right thigh. The senior housemother in charge of the Easedale Close Community Home also swore an affidavit on behalf of the father and the mother deposing, inter alia, to the fact that Francis bruised easily and recording a list of the bruises noticed whilst he had been living in the home. Francis was himself joined as a defendant to the wardship proceedings: the Official Solicitor acted as his guardian ad litem and filed a full report dated 27 November 1986.
The full hearing of the wardship proceedings took place before Swinton Thomas J from 3 to 8 December 1986. The following is an extract from a note of the judgment of Swinton Thomas J given on 10 December 1986 which was put in evidence before us:
‘In the light of the evidence I have heard it would be impossible to make a definitive finding that Francis Manda had been physically or sexually abused by the father but there is evidence that physical and sexual abuse while in the care of the parents has taken place. This caused great concern for the welfare of the child and militate[s] against his return. I am aware [that] the diagnosis [of] physical and sexual abuse could be mistaken and aware that the best interests of the child is that he should be with his brothers and sisters and family. However, regard must be had to the paramount welfare of this particular child who is an elective mute and emotionally disturbed. It is accepted that he is now progressing and that a return to the home at this time would cause him to become again emotionally disturbed. The child is emotionally vulnerable. He is a damaged boy and development could be retarded by a return home.’
An order was then made continuing the wardship, committing the care of Francis to the council under s 7(2) of the Family Law Reform Act 1969, and directing that access to Francis by his parents should be at the discretion of the council. There after Francis continued to live at the Easedale Close Community Home and enjoyed regular and successful access with his mother and father.
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On 28 February 1989 the mother and the father applied for care and control of Francis and on 24 November 1989 he returned home on trial. On 8 June 1990 the wardship was discharged and Francis has since lived with his parents and other members of his family at the family home in Leeds. There were further hearings in the wardship proceedings leading up to the events just mentioned, and for that purpose further evidence was filed on behalf of the council by a social worker, Michael Munnelly, by the father on behalf of himself and the mother, and there was a further report by the Official Solicitor and two reports by a child psychiatrist, Dr Mary Ward.
On 15 November 1990 the father and the mother issued an application in the wardship proceedings in the following terms:
‘… for leave to disclose all relevant documents to the first and second defendants [the parents] experts in respect of a potential claim by the first and second defendants against Leeds City Council and/or Leeds Area Health Authority and/or Dr Christopher Hobbs for damages for negligence in connection with this wardship.’
There are a number of points to be made about this application. Firstly, there is no suggestion that the potential claim is to be made by the parents on behalf of Francis: it seems clear that they were contemplating action on their own behalf. This is confirmed by the affidavit sworn in support of the application by the parents’ solicitor on 14 March 1991, para 5 of which reads:
‘Almost all the documents which make up the file in the wardship proceedings are likely to be relevant to the issues to be addressed in the proposed proceedings. Without them the assessment of whether the first and second defendants can sustain a course [sic] of action against the proposed defendants will be seriously hampered.’
Secondly, it is now no longer proposed to bring a claim against the council and Dr Hobbs: the Leeds Western Area Health Authority is now the only proposed defendant and they have voluntarily disclosed all their records to the parents’ solicitors. Thirdly, since the parents were themselves defendants in the wardship proceedings, all of the material which they seek leave to disclose is already known to them and is in the hands of their solicitors; this was in no sense a ‘fishing’ expedition. They required leave to disclose these documents because without leave such disclosure would be a contempt of court: see s 12(1)(a) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960. Fourthly, the purpose for which they sought leave was restricted to that of submitting it to their experts, so that counsel’s opinion might be taken and that (subject to that opinion) they might be granted legal aid to prosecute the claim against the health authority.
District Judge Hebbert granted the parents’ application on 16 August 1991 by an order which, so far as relevant, was in the following terms:
‘The first and second defendants be at liberty for the purpose only of applying for legal aid of obtaining such professional advice as is necessary to take counsel’s opinion and of obtaining in relation to proposed proceedings against Leeds Western Area Health Authority to disclose all documents referred to in paragraphs 3, 4 and 5 of the affidavit of Judith McAra sworn herein on the 14 day of August 1991.’
From this order the council appealed to the judge. Their appeal came before Hollis J on 31 January 1992, who dismissed it. Although the form of the application had not changed, the judge appears to have accepted that any proposed action would be brought by or on behalf of Francis since he said:
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‘In this case I have come to the conclusion that if Francis could successfully sue the area health authority it might be to his advantage. I specifically offer no view as to whether he has any chance of success.’
From this order the council appeal to this court. Since the hearing before Hollis J Francis has attained his majority, on 12 June 1992. We have seen an affidavit sworn by Francis on 13 April 1992 in which he expressed the wish to pursue the proposed action when he is 18, and we were told by counsel that Francis has, since his birthday, confirmed that wish to the solicitor previously instructed by his parents. Accordingly the hearing before us proceeded on the basis that Francis would be the plaintiff in any proceedings that may be brought against the health authority and further that, as he was himself a defendant in the wardship proceedings (albeit represented by the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem), he was properly aware of all the documents for the disclosure of which leave is now sought.
I now turn to consider the principles upon which the court should act on an application for leave to disclose material relating to wardship proceedings. These principles have never been given statutory form and are to be found by a consideration of the relevant case law.
The starting point is the speeches in the House of Lords in Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1. Although technically obiter, since the case itself was concerned with the hearing of a nullity suit in camera, these have long been regarded as the classic exposition of the reasons for the privacy which attaches to proceedings in wardship. Viscount Haldane LC said ([1913] AC 417 at 437, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 9):
‘… the chief object of Courts of justice must be to secure that justice is done. In the two cases of wards of Court and of lunatics the Court is really sitting primarily to guard the interests of the ward or the lunatic. Its jurisdiction is in this respect parental and administrative, and the disposal of controverted questions is an incident only in the jurisdiction. It may often be necessary, in order to attain its primary object, that the Court should exclude the public. The broad principle which ordinarily governs it therefore yields to the paramount duty, which is the care of the ward or the lunatic.’
Lord Shaw of Dunfermline said ([1913] AC 417 at 482–483, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 33–34):
‘The three exceptions which are acknowledged to the application of the rule prescribing the publicity of Courts of justice are, first, in suits affecting wards; secondly, in lunacy proceedings; and, thirdly, in those cases where secrecy, as, for instance, the secrecy of a process of manufacture or discovery or invention—trade secrets—is of the essence of the cause. The first two of these cases, my Lords, depend upon the familiar principle that the jurisdiction over wards and lunatics is exercised by the judges as representing His Majesty as parens patriae. The affairs are truly private affairs; the transactions are transactions truly intra familiam; and it has long been recognized that an appeal for the protection of the Court in the case of such persons does not involve the consequence of placing in the light of publicity their truly domestic affairs … But I desire to add this further observation with regard to all of these cases, my Lords, that, when respect has thus been paid to the object of the suit, the rule of publicity may be resumed. I know of no principle which would entitle a Court to compel a ward to remain silent for life in regard to judicial proceedings which occurred during his tutelage, nor
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a person who was temporarily insane—after he had fully recovered his sanity and his liberty—to remain perpetually silent with regard to judicial proceedings which occurred during the period of his incapacity.’
If, as is now submitted, one of the matters which is relevant to the exercise of the discretion to allow wardship material to be disclosed is the fact that witnesses have given their evidence in the belief that it would remain confidential, then that is not consistent with the final passage cited above from the speech of Lord Shaw of Dunfermline. If a ward who has attained his majority is to be totally free to refer to the wardship proceedings, the confidentiality which the witnesses may have believed they enjoyed cannot be relevant. However, the nature of wardship has changed considerably since 1913. At that time wardship was largely confined to protecting wealthy young women from the depredations of fortune-hunters and to disputes between the parents of minors over their care and control and (in the absence of legal aid) even then only when there was money available. The extensive use of the wardship procedure by local authorities in aid of their statutory responsibilities was then unknown; it was in fact a phenomenon of the two decades between 1971 and 1991.
The next case is Re R (M J) (an infant) (proceedings transcripts: publication) [1975] 2 All ER 749, [1975] Fam 89, a decision of Rees J at first instance. This was the case of an eight-year-old ward, and the application was to release a transcript of evidence given in the wardship and adoption proceedings relating to the child, for use in the bankruptcy of the adoptive father of the ward, who had in the earlier proceedings given evidence as to his financial position. Rees J granted the application, saying in the course of his judgment ([1975] 2 All ER 749 at 755–756, [1975] Fam 89 at 96–98):
‘The central questions in this application are whether there are any criteria which apply to the exercise of the court’s discretion to permit publication and, if so, what they are. It is plain in my judgment that the first and most important consideration is the interest of the ward ... it was common ground among all concerned in the application, and I so hold, that no legitimate interest of the minor would be prejudiced if the application were granted … It was submitted on behalf of the Official Solicitor that leave should only be given in cases in which disclosure could be shown to be for the benefit of the minor involved in the particular case or for the benefit of minors generally in future cases. I do not accept that submission. Where it is plain—as here—that disclosure would not harm any legitimate interest of the minor, that is an important factor to be taken into account in favour of giving leave. Equally, in support of the contrary view, it is proper to take into account that it has not been shown that it would be for the positive benefit of this minor nor that of minors in future cases that disclosure should be granted … The case against granting the application may, I hope, not unfairly be stated thus. It is conceded that disclosure in the instant case will not harm any legitimate interest of the minor. But harm will be done in future cases if the application is granted because witnesses will, or may, be deterred from giving evidence with that degree of frankness which is the essential need in cases involving the welfare of minors. The proper approach to the application is to ask whether the disclosure can be justified as being conducive to the good exercise of the wardship jurisdiction. To that question the answer is No … My conclusions are these. A judge dealing with such an application has an unfettered discretion to grant or to refuse it. He will place the interest of the minor in the forefront of his consideration. He will also
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give considerable weight to the public interest in ensuring that frankness shall prevail in such proceedings by preserving confidentiality. The public interest in upholding the law of the land by providing relevant evidence for use in other legitimate proceedings must be considered together with all the other circumstances of the case. I do not believe that it would be either possible or profitable to attempt to lay down any general principles governing the exercise of this discretion beyond what I have attempted to state above.’ (Rees J’s emphasis.)
The next relevant case is Re F (a minor) (publication of information) [1977] 1 All ER 114, [1977] Fam 58, a decision of this court. The issue there was whether it was a contempt of court to publish information about wardship proceedings relating to a 16-year-old girl, when the publishers did not know that the girl was a ward of court at the time of publication, or that what they published related to wardship proceedings in private. Although the headnotes state that Re R (M J) (an infant) (proceedings transcripts: publication) [1975] 2 All ER 749, [1975] Fam 89 was approved, that was not in relation to the point which arises in this case. However, in the course of their judgments both Scarman and Geoffrey Lane LJJ quoted with approval the statement of Lord Shaw of Dunfermline in Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417 at 483, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 33–34 that the cloak of secrecy which the court wraps around wardship proceedings lasts no longer than is necessary in the interests of the ward (see [1977] 1 All ER 114 at 126, 137, [1977] Fam 58 at 93, 107).
Re F (minors) (wardship: police investigation) [1989] Fam 18 was another decision of this court. That was a case where the local authority had instituted wardship proceedings in respect of 17 minors, and in the course of the hearing it was alleged that 15 adult defendants to those proceedings, parents and relatives of the children, had committed acts of gross indecency on them. The police then applied for disclosure of the judgment and evidence in the wardship proceedings, in order that they might be used in the investigation of criminal offences. Four of the defendants objected on the ground that disclosure was against the public interest as the knowledge that evidence given in private could be released for publication would inhibit frankness. Although their objections failed, this court accepted that this was a material consideration to be taken into account in the exercise of its discretion to authorise publication, and expressly approved the statement by Rees J of the relevant principles in Re R (M J) (an infant) (proceedings transcripts: publication) [1975] 2 All ER 749, [1975] Fam 89 (see [1989] Fam 18 at 26 per Sir Stephen Brown P). Accordingly, at least in this court, it must be accepted that the possible inhibition of frankness on the part of witnesses in wardship proceedings is a relevant factor to be taken into account on an application for leave to disclose material used in the wardship.
Brown v Matthews [1990] 2 All ER 155, [1990] Ch 662, another decision of this court, concerned the use, in other proceedings, of a confidential report given by a court welfare officer in custody proceedings consequent upon the divorce of the child’s parents. The inhibition of frankness argument was again raised, but Ralph Gibson LJ said ([1990] 2 All ER 155 at 162, [1990] Ch 662 at 672):
‘It seems clear to me that any person asked by a [court] welfare officer to provide information for such a report, whether a party to the proceedings, or a friend or relation of a party, or a doctor or teacher who has treated or taught the child, would know that the information which he or she gives to the welfare officer, and his or her identity as the giver of it, would be made known for the purposes of the court’s inquiry, and therefore disclosed to the parties. Most such people, I think, would, if they thought about it, suppose
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that the information would not be used for any other purpose, but they would be neither surprised nor indignant if told that it would be used for another purpose if the court considered that it was proper, in the interests of justice, for it to be disclosed at the court’s direction. For my part, therefore, I do not think that there is any reason to believe that there would be any significant effect on the willingness of the people of this country to provide information to welfare officers in preparing reports for the court if people were told that normally no use would be made of the information given save in and for the proceedings in which the report has been ordered, but that it might also be used at the order of the court if justice required that it be not limited solely to that primary use.’
Nicholls LJ took a somewhat different view ([1990] 2 All ER 155 at 169, [1990 Ch 662 at 681):
‘Thus the court charged with the task of exercising its discretion will, on the confidentiality aspect, need to have regard, amongst other matters, to the contents and source of the information sought to be used, and the extent to which release of the confidentiality would be likely to be detrimental to the welfare of the child in question, or to the proper functioning of a system which depends on court welfare officers being able to obtain frank and ready co-operation from people as diverse as doctors, school teachers, neighbours, the child in question, the parents themselves and other close relations, including other children in the same family. There may be cases, at one extreme, where release would not be harmful under either of these heads, even though the particular proceedings for which the report was prepared have still not been heard. At the other extreme, there may perhaps be cases where the source and nature of the information are such that release would be detrimental even after all proceedings relating to the child are over and, indeed, even after the child has become of full age, or has died. There might, for instance, be an extreme case in which release would be inimical to the proper functioning of the court welfare officer system in that it might deter others similarly placed in future from coming forward and speaking freely to welfare officers.’
Fox LJ agreed with both judgments.
Last in this line of cases is Re X and ors (minors) (wardship: disclosure of documents) [1992] 2 All ER 595, [1992] Fam 124. That case, before Waite J at first instance, was an application by a newspaper for leave (1) to have access to wardship files relating to certain wards or ex-wards (although the ex-wards were still minors) and (2) to disclose documents drawn from those files for the purposes of a libel suit in which the newspaper was the defendant and two paediatricians, who had examined the children concerned, were the plaintiffs. In the course of his judgment Waite J quoted a passage from an affidavit by the senior assistant director of social services of a local authority which had been the plaintiff in some of the wardship proceedings ([1992] 2 All ER 595 at 604–605, [1992] Fam 124 at 135):
‘Wardship, in my respectful view, is essentially a private matter and is entered into by Local Authorities to seek the powers of the High Court to consider the extent to which children may need the protection of the Court. Information is given and received on that basis and the proceedings can only be conducted with complete candour if that is seen as the exclusive question before the court. I am seriously concerned that once this principle is breached it will become increasingly difficult for Local Authorities to obtain, collate
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and present the evidence which may be necessary to secure the well-being of children within its area.’
The judge summarised his duty ([1992] 2 All ER 595 at 606, [1992] Fam 124 at 136):
‘On the basis of the authorities mentioned at the beginning of this judgment, I interpret my duty as being to inquire how the newspaper’s application, judged as a whole, will affect: (1) the children; (2) the public interest in the due administration, in accordance with its parental functions, of the wardship jurisdiction; (3) the public interest in the fair and informed administration of justice in the libel action.’
In relation to the second factor he said ([1992] 2 All ER 595 at 606–607, [1992] Fam 124 at 137–138):
‘The impact of the application on the wardship jurisdiction (turning now to the second inquiry) needs to be assessed with that jurisdiction’s precise nature in mind. It is in part adversarial, in which respect it shares the characteristics of all other litigation. It is, in part, administrative and paternal, in which respect its proceedings are (in Lord Shaw’s phrase in Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417 at 483, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 33) “truly intra familiam”. In that latter role it calls for help from many quarters; from parents, friends or relatives who may be required in the interests of their children to lay bare painful or embarrassing secrets; from welfare officers, who may be called upon to disclose matters relevant to a child’s welfare which it would be hurtful or unprofessional to announce in public; from doctors and others who are bound by constraints of professional confidence; and from social workers needing encouragement to speak openly about their views and discoveries despite the vulnerability to criticism from all quarters to which their profession makes them uniquely subject. In this context it is right to examine the prospective impact of the application upon the custodial jurisdiction in wardship, not only in relation to the particular cases of the X, Y and Z children, but also for its probable effect on the future working of the jurisdiction as a whole, for under our system of law permission granted in one case is liable to be relied on as a ground of permission in others. Nor is it any answer to that broader approach to say that the days of wardship’s role in the field of social work intervention in child care are very nearly over because of the imminent coming into effect of the Children Act 1989. It would be rash to start writing obituaries today for a jurisdiction which has survived with protean tenacity down the centuries, and which will, in any event, survive for other purposes. When assessed from this perspective, the effect of the application upon the jurisdiction itself and its future functioning would, in my view, be substantial. The relatives, reporting officers, social workers and other professional people who provided reports and evidence for these three wardship proceedings, were taking part in an exercise that must have been tense for all of them and painful for many. Their contribution was underpinned by an assurance of confidentiality. Any breach of that assurance is likely to leave them feeling let down and discouraged from exercising the same openness in future and the greater the breach, the greater the discouragement. Others in analogous positions of trust and responsibility towards children are likely, on learning of it, to feel a similar inhibition. The familial character of the jurisdiction can only suffer as a result.’
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Although, as the judge mentioned, since the coming into force of the Children Act 1989 wardships by local authorities are no longer possible—see s 100(1)—it seems to me that the same isues can and will arise when local authorities seek the intervention of the court by the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction relating to children: see s 100(3) of the 1989 Act. So the principles relevant to the disclosure of material used in proceedings relating to children are still relevant and important.
In the present state of the authorities, and subject to anything that may be said by the House of Lords should the question come before them, I can summarise the principles applicable to the disclosure of material used in proceedings relating to children as follows. (1) The interest of the particular child concerned will always be the most important factor, since it is to protect those interests that the court imposes the curtain of privacy. (2) Where the child is still a minor, the court will have to decide where its interests lie, although the older the child the more relevant are its own views and wishes. (3) Where the child concerned has attained majority, he or she alone (unless mentally incompetent) is entitled to decide what are his or her interests. This is the inevitable consequence under our law of the attainment of adult status. (4) If, as is usually the case, the material is to be disclosed for use in other proceedings, the public interest in the administration of justice requires that all relevant information should be available for use in those proceedings. (5) If it be the case that, in particular proceedings relating to children, information has been obtained on an express assurance of confidentiality, that must also be a very relevant factor. It would, however, be most undesirable for such an express assurance to be given unless the information could not otherwise be obtained. (6) Where no such express assurance has been given, persons who give evidence in child proceedings may normally assume that their evidence will remain confidential. They are not entitled, however, to assume that it will remain confidential in all circumstances and I have to say that I share the view of Ralph Gibson LJ in Brown v Matthews [1990] 2 All ER 155 at 162, [1990] Ch 662 at 672 as to the attitude of persons involved in a professional capacity with children. Certainly, if social workers and others in a like position believe that the evidence they give in child proceedings will in all circumstances remain confidential, then the sooner they are disabused of that belief the better.
I now turn to consider the application of these principles to the facts of the present case. At the time the case was heard before the district judge and Hollis J, Francis was still under the age of 18. It is difficult to see how his interests would have been advanced by the proposed proceedings against the health authority, whether those proceedings were brought by his parents in their own right or on his behalf. The matter of which he and they primarily complain is the years he spent away from the family home, but this was in consequence of orders of the court, first the place of safety order and then the orders made in the wardship proceedings. So that is not something of which any tortious act on the part of the health authority was causative within the view of the law—cf F v Wirral Metropolitan BC [1991] 2 All ER 648, [1991] Fam 69. I consider later other possible heads of damage which Francis may be able to claim, but these are trivial when brought into the balance against the expense and trauma of litigation and the possible harm caused to Francis by the revival of painful memories. Hollis J said in the course of his judgment:
‘In this case I have come to the conclusion that if Francis could successfully sue the area health authority it might be to his advantage. I specifically offer no view as to whether he has any chance of success.’
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In my judgment this was a wrong approach. I do not see how it is possible for a court to consider whether the disclosure of material is for the benefit of a minor without a consideration of the prospects of success in the litigation for which disclosure is sought. If the proposed litigation is bound to fail it is difficult to see how it could ever be for the benefit of the minor to permit disclosure for the purpose of that litigation. So for this reason alone I am satisfied that the judge applied the wrong test in the exercise of his discretion. He also allowed the exercise of his discretion to be influenced by other irrelevant factors, viz: (1) that the health authority had voluntarily disclosed all their records to the parents’ solicitors; and (2) that the Official Solicitor (who no longer had any locus standi) was not opposing the parents’ application.
In my judgment the exercise by the judge of his discretion was vitiated by reason of the matters which I have set out above. It is therefore open to this court to exercise the discretion anew. In doing so there is one overriding factor: Francis is now an adult. He is therefore able to make up his own mind as to what is in his best interests and however mistaken we may consider him to be, provided that the litigation which he wishes to pursue cannot be categorised as bound to fail, this court must accept his decision. Mr Wadsworth QC, who represented the parents on this appeal and whom we treated as if he also represented Francis, accepted (without actually conceding) that Francis had little or no prospect of succeeding in a claim for damages for that of which he principally complained, his separation from his family. However, he submitted that if there had been no valid consent to Dr Hobbs’s examinations of Francis, and in particular to the examination of his anal region, he might have a cause of action in trespass to the person, as well as a cause of action in negligence, for which it could not be said that no damage had been suffered. While I entertain very serious doubts as to the possibility of any such claim against the health authority being successfully established, I am unable to say that it must be bound to fail. If Francis wishes to advance such a claim then that is his prerogative as an adult. If one adds to that the public interest that all relevant information should be available in these proceedings, in my judgment these two factors outweigh any detriment to children’s proceedings generally by the possibility that in future such cases witnesses—and in particular professional witnesses—will feel inhibited from being totally frank. This last is the main ground upon which the council is pursuing this appeal. As the council’s solicitor said in her affidavit of 28 October 1991 in opposition to the parents’ application for disclosure:
‘The impact of acceding to such an application on the wardship jurisdiction and its future functioning would be substantial. The medical experts, social workers and teaching staff who provided evidence in this case, like all witnesses in any wardship proceedings, did so under the umbrella of an assurance of confidentiality. Breaches of that assurance must, objectively, be disquieting and discouraging of the exercise of openness in future.’
Whether any of the witnesses referred to in this passage were given an express assurance of confidentially is not stated—it is more likely to have been implied. But, whether express or implied, the primary consideration here is the interests of Francis, who has become an adult, as perceived by him. It is for this reason that this case differs on its facts from all the other cases to which I have referred, since in none of those cases was it suggested that the disclosure of the information could be for the positive benefit of the ward. Either it was accepted that the ward’s interests would not be prejudiced—as in Re R (M J) (an infant) (proceedings transcripts: publication) [1975] 2 All ER 749, [1975] Fam 89 and Re X and ors
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(minors)(wardship: disclosure of documents) [1992] 2 All ER 595, [1992] Fam 124—or it was accepted that they might be prejudiced but that this was outweighed by other relevant considerations—as in Re F (minors) (wardship: police investigation) [1989] Fam 18.
There is one further point. The order of the district judge was in the terms set out above. It will in any event require to be varied to substitute Francis (the third defendant) for his parents (the first and second defendants) as the person to whom liberty is given. This, of course, will have the consequence that the parents will remain bound for all purposes by the provisions of s 12(1)(a) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960. However, the order also restricts disclosure for the purposes of obtaining professional advice in order to see whether Francis has a cause of action against the health authority for which he may be granted legal aid. By his order Hollis J dismissed the appeal against the order of the district judge, so that that order remains unvaried. However, it seems to me to follow from the reasons I have given above that if Francis’s advisers do take the view that he has a cause of action against the health authority, for which he is granted legal aid, then the disclosed documents must also be available for use in that action, and it would be an unnecessary waste of costs to require him to make a further application to the court for a second stage disclosure. Waite J considered a similar point in Re X and ors (minors) (wardship: disclosure of documents) [1992] 2 All ER 595 at 602–603, [1992] Fam 124 at 132–133, and he ruled that it was artificial to look separately at the question of inspection in isolation from the disclosure (by way of evidence in the libel action) to which it was an essential preliminary. I agree. Hollis J deliberately did not follow the procedure adopted by Waite J in Re X and ors (minors). He said:
‘As to the public interest, I can see no harm in inspection as asked for and I specifically do not deal with the subsequent disclosure as evidence in subsequent proceedings because that may never arise. I appreciate that, according to Waite J’s decision in Re X and ors (minors), the two have got to be considered on this application but, in fact, I go no further than deal with the question of inspection.’
I do not see how, in the light of what I have said above, if Francis’s advisers take the view that he has a cause of action, and he is then granted legal aid, it could be right for a judge to refuse disclosure of the material for the purposes of the action. If that were a serious possibility it were better to refuse leave now. Mr Spencer QC, for the council, did not seek to oppose this view.
Accordingly, while I would dismiss the substance of the appeal, I would vary the order below so as to grant leave to Francis to disclose the wardship material for the purpose in the first place of showing it to his advisers and, if as a result he is advised he has a cause of action for which legal aid is granted, for the purposes of that action. Of course, if the action is never commenced, all further disclosure remains prohibited.
LEGGATT LJ. The salient points in this appeal are that, Francis having attained his majority, the action is now his action, that all the documents in question have been disclosed to the parties and that initially the only further disclosure sought is to experts. It is common ground that Francis has no cause of action for having been parted from his parents, since that was by court order; but he may have a cause of action in negligence or trespass to the person arising out of his medical treatment. His present predicament is that according to the council’s contention he cannot obtain disclosure of his medical records unless he can show that he has
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a cause of action, but he cannot know whether he has a cause of action without disclosure of the document at least to his own experts.
The fact that the judge paid regard to irrelevant matters does not in this case invalidate his conclusion: it merely permits us to exercise our own discretion. In my judgment the principle that the confidentiality of information about an infant should be preserved ought not to be allowed to produce the result in this case that the ward for whose benefit medical records were prepared is precluded from using them himself for the purpose of instructing experts with a view to taking proceedings in tort to which the records are relevant. That is not to detract from the caveat entered by Sir John Megaw in his judgment, which I have had the benefit of reading in draft. Subject to that, I agree that for the reasons canvassed by Balcombe LJ this appeal should be dismissed, and that the order should issue which he proposes.
SIR JOHN MEGAW. I agree with the order proposed by Balcombe LJ. I agree in substance with the reasons given by him, though in one respect, not affecting the decision of the appeal, I respectfully venture to express a view which is, I think, somewhat different from his view as to the weight which should be given to the factor of public interest in the preservation of confidentiality for the sake of what is described by Nicholls LJ in Brown v Matthews [1990] 2 All ER 155 at 69, [1990] Ch 662 at 681 as ‘the proper functioning of [the] system’.
I believe that it would be, at least, doubtful whether there would be the same ‘frank and ready co-operation’, essential for that proper functioning, if it were to become known, or suspected, that a statement made in response to a request for help in wardship proceedings—sometimes bitterly contested proceedings—was liable, without some very strong reason, to be made available, perhaps years later, for use in a second round, or a replay, of legal proceedings, reopening, in public litigation, disputes to which the voluntary statement was relevant, but which the giver of the statement would sensibly have assumed would have been decided once and for all in the privacy of the wardship proceedings.
If there is such a risk to the proper functioning of the system, it does not automatically cease to have relevance as a factor in the exercise of the court’s discretion because the former ward has become 18. As Geoffrey Lane LJ put it in Re F (a minor) (publication of information) [1977] 1 All ER 114 at 137, [1977] Fam 58 at 107: ‘The embargo on publication of matters disclosed in a private hearing is not necessarily perpetual.’
However, giving the weight which I think should be given to this factor, I agree that the balance, in the exercise of our discretion in this case, still favours granting leave to disclose the wardship material.
Appeal dismissed. Order below varied. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Practice Note
(Discretionary life sentences)
[1993] 1 All ER 747
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, JUDGE AND HIDDEN JJ
Hearing Date(s): 8 FEBRUARY 1993
Sentence – Life imprisonment – Discretionary life sentence – Part of sentence to be served before case referred to Parole Board – Relevant part – Practice – Judge not obliged to specify relevant part of sentence but should do so save in exceptional cases – Duty of judge when specifying relevant part – Order to be made in open court – Counsel for defendant to be permitted to address court – Judge to give reasons – Judge no longer to make written report to Secretary of State – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 34.
8 February 1993. The following judgment was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ gave the following direction at the sitting of the court.
1. Section 34 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 empowers a judge when passing a sentence of life imprisonment—where such a sentence is not fixed by law—to specify by order such part of the sentence (‘the relevant part’) as shall be served before the prisoner may require the Secretary of State to refer his case to the Parole Board.
2. Thus the discretionary life sentence falls into two parts: (a) the relevant part, which consists of the period of detention imposed for punishment and deterrence, taking into account the seriousness of the offence, and (b) the remaining part of the sentence, during which the prisoner’s detention will be governed by considerations of risk to the public.
3. The judge is not obliged by statute to make use of the provisions of s 34 when passing a discretionary life sentence. However the judge should do so, save in the very exceptional case where the judge considers that the offence is so serious that detention for life is justified by the seriousness of the offence alone, irrespective of the risk to the public. In such a case, the judge should state this in open court when passing sentence.
4. In cases where the judge is to specify the relevant part of the sentence under s 34, the judge should permit counsel for the defendant to address the court as to the appropriate length of the relevant part. Where no relevant part is to be specified, counsel for the defendant should be permitted to address the court as to the appropriateness of this course of action.
5. In specifying the relevant part of the sentence, the judge should have regard to the specific terms of s 34 and should indicate the reasons for reaching his decision as to the length of the relevant part.
6. Whether or not the court orders that s 34 should apply, the judge shall not, following the imposition of a discretioary life sentence, make a written report to the Secretary of State through the Lord Chief Justice as has been the practice in recent years.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Bank of Crete SA v Koskotas and others (No 2)
[1993] 1 All ER 748
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MILLETT J
Hearing Date(s): 18 JUNE 1992
Discovery – Production of documents – Confidence – Order that material disclosed to be used solely for action in which production ordered – Application to vary order to permit disclosure pursuant to legal obligation in foreign jurisdiction – Whether proper to vary order to permit use of information for purpose other than that for which it was obtained – Whether court should prevent disclosure for other purposes in a foreign jurisdiction under compulsion of law.
The plaintiff, a Greek bank, brought proceedings in England against the defendants, its former chief executive and others, to recover some $US200m of its funds allegedly misappropriated by them. In the course of the proceedings certain banks with branches in London were ordered to disclose to the plaintiff bank information and documents relating to the accounts of certain customers, such information and documents to be used only for the purposes of the plaintiff bank’s action against the defendants. At the same time the governor of the Bank of Greece appointed a team of special investigators to investigate the whereabouts of the misappropriated funds. The head of the Bank of Greece investigation team was obliged under Greek law to prepare reports of the results of his investigations and to submit them to the plaintiff bank, which was in turn obliged to submit them to the governor of the Bank of Greece and the Greek examining magistrate appointed to investigate the criminal aspects of the alleged fraud. The head of the investigation team wished to use the information and documents disclosed under the order made in the plaintiff bank’s action in the preparation of his reports, and the plaintiff bank accordingly applied for leave to make the material available to him. The question arose whether the court should order disclosure of the material when it was for a purpose other than that for which it had been obtained.
Held - Where the court ordered disclosure of information to a plaintiff for a particular purpose it would only be in exceptional circumstances that the court would authorise that plaintiff voluntarily to make use of it for any other purpose. However, the court would not be astute to prevent disclosure for other purposes in a foreign jurisdiction under compulsion of law. Accordingly, the court would not place the plaintiff bank in the position of either having to infringe its undertakings to the court or be in breach of its duties under Greek law. The plaintiff bank would therefore be given leave to use the material for the preparation of reports on the misappropriation and to supply such reports or any material disclosed under the order to any person to whom it was obliged to supply the reports or material under the law of any other jurisdiction (see p 753 h j, p 754 f to j and p 755 a c to e, post).
Notes
For confidential use of documents disclosed, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 66, and for cases on the subject, see 18 Digest (2nd reissue) 102–107, 883–895.
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Cases referred to in judgment
A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, [1988] 3 WLR 776, HL.
Crest Homes plc v Marks [1987] 2 All ER 1074, [1987] AC 829, [1987] 3 WLR 293, HL.
Marcel v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 1 All ER 72, [1992] Ch 225, [1992] 2 WLR 50, CA.
Norwich Pharmacal Co v Customs and Excise Comrs [1973] 2 All ER 943, [1974] AC 133, [1973] 3 WLR 164, HL.
Sony Corp v Anand, Seiko Time (UK) Ltd v Domicrest (Fancy Goods) Ltd [1981] FSR 398.
Application
The plaintiff, Bank of Crete SA (the bank), applied in an action brought by it against the defendants, George Koskotas and others, relating to the alleged misappropriation of some $US200m by Mr Koskotas, for leave to use, for the purpose of preparing audit reports for the bank, all or any of the material disclosed under an order made on 5 October 1989 by Morritt J requiring an English bank and several foreign banks with branches in London (the respondent banks) to disclose to the bank information and documents relating to certain of the respondent banks’ account-holders. Paragraph 5 of Morritt J’s order permitted the bank to use any such information and documents disclosed only for the purpose of its action against the defendants. The facts are set out in the judgment. The application was heard in camera but judgment was given by Millett J in open court.
Ian Geering QC and Caroline Lewis (instructed by Denton Hall Burgin & Warrens) for the bank.
The defendants did not appear and the respondent banks were not represented.
18 June 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
MILLETT J. I heard this application in camera but, as the case is of some importance, I am giving judgment in open court. The application is in an action which relates to the alleged misappropriation of approximately $US200m from the Bank of Crete (the bank) by its former chief executive, George Koskotas, and others. It is alleged that they took steps to conceal the misappropriation from the bank, for example by causing computer files to be rewritten to create false records, by creating false documents and false entries, and by removing documents or having them removed.
The Bank of Greece has caused investigations into the affairs of the bank to be made by special investigators, whose task has been made particularly difficult by reason of the fact that the bank’s documents cannot be taken at face value. The special investigators have, therefore, had to rely to a large extent upon evidence obtained from other banks in order to discover what has happened.
In order to assist the investigations into the alleged fraud, the tracing of the bank’s money and the recovery of its money from those who misappropriated it, the bank has made application to this court to obtain documents and information. Such applications have been made against an English bank and several overseas banks with branches in London. On 5 October 1989 Morritt J made an order requiring each of the respondent banks to disclose to the bank information and documents relating to the accounts of certain of their account-holders. Paragraph 5 of the order made by Morritt J permitted the bank to make use of all or any of the information or documents disclosed pursuant to the order only for the purpose of the action which the bank had commenced in this country against Mr Koskotas and others. That paragraph was subsequently varied by an order of
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mine, made on 24 July 1990, which permitted the bank to use all or any of the information or documents disclosed pursuant to the order of 5 October 1989 in the conduct of or to commence any civil proceedings within or outside the jurisdiction of this court against any person relating to any matter disclosed pursuant to the order.
The head of the team of special investigators responsible for investigating the foreign exchange transactions of the bank is a Mr Stefanides. His investigations into the whereabouts of the misappropriated funds and as to the actions taken by Mr Koskotas to dispose of them are now drawing to a close. He is under an obligation to produce final audit reports of the results of his investigations and to provide them to the provisional commissioner of the bank. In order to compile full and proper audit reports, he needs to use, inter alia, the information and documents which were disclosed under the order of 5 October 1989. He wishes to report upon (a) how the moneys were misappropriated from the bank, (b) how they were transferred to the United Kingdom, (c) the information obtained from each of the respondent banks in order to identify the bank accounts into which the bank’s money was paid, how and when it was paid out of those accounts, and the account or accounts held at any other bank to which the money paid out of those accounts was credited, and (d) his conclusion that the money so transferred to the United Kingdom belonged to the bank.
The matters referred to in para (a) and possibly para (d) above would not require the use of documents or information disclosed under the order of 5 October 1989. It appears, however, that Mr Stefanides could not cover the other matters without referring to such documents and information, and he is of the opinion that unless those matters are dealt with the audit reports which he is under a duty to compile will be worthless and even misleading. He has not yet prepared any reports, even in draft, nor has he made any use of the documents or information in question pending the leave of this court. He would, however, wish to exhibit the documents in question including bank statements and not merely refer to them or extracts from them; but he would propose expunging from any exhibited document all entries which relate exclusively to persons unconnected with the investigation.
The main purpose of the audit reports will be for use in the bank’s civil proceedings in Greece against Mr Koskotas and others; and, to that extent, the use of the information and documents obtained under the order of 5 October 1989 is already permitted. The reports, including the information disclosed pursuant to the order of 5 October 1989, are necessary to support the bank’s case that Mr Koskotas embezzled money from the bank and then laundered the money by transferring sums to banks in England and elsewhere and then transferring them back to Greece. It is considered to be essential for the bank to be able to use material obtained under the order of 5 October 1989, in order to show that when Mr Koskotas credited bank accounts belonging to himself or his wife, he was crediting them with money representing or derived from money which he had embezzled from the bank, and not with his own money.
The bank now applies to me for an order that it be at liberty to use all or any of the material disclosed pursuant to the order made on 5 October 1989, or other similar orders, for the purpose of preparing audit reports for the provisional commissioner of the bank. Under Greek law, the provisional commissioner is under a duty to provide copies of such reports both to the governor of the Bank of Greece by whom he was appointed, and to the examining magistrate, an official of the Greek judicial system appointed to investigate criminal aspects of the fraud alleged to have been perpetrated on the bank. The examining magistrate has already brought criminal charges against Mr Koskotas and others in relation to
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the funds which he is alleged to have misappropriated from the bank. Mr Koskotas has now been extradited from the United States of America and is awaiting trial in Greece.
So far as concerns the governor of the Bank of Greece, it is unlikely that the copy of the report furnished to him would go beyond his office, but the examining magistrate may invite any individual who is criminally implicated by the report to make comments on the report, and for that purpose a copy of the report would be provided to the individual or individuals concerned. There is an obvious danger that such a course could lead to leakage of the contents of the report, and indeed on earlier occasions copies of similar reports or extracts therefrom have been published in the Greek press.
The order which Morritt J made and which I extended was further extended by Ferris J more recently, in order to permit the use of the material obtained under the orders of this court to be made available to the Greek criminal courts in order to prevent an innocent party being wrongly convicted on false evidence given by Mr Koskotas. I am now asked to extend the order still further in order to enable the special investigators to complete the audit reports which they are under a legal duty to complete and provide to the provisional commissioner in the knowledge that, if so provided, it will be the duty of the provisional commissioner to make them available both to the governor of the Bank of Greece and to the examining magistrate for the purpose of criminal proceedings in Greece.
There is no doubt that I have jurisdiction to vary the terms of my previous order and to release the bank from the undertakings which it gave previously. The matter lies in my discretion. The question is whether my discretion should be exercised in favour of disclosure. Each of the respondent banks has been made a party to the application. It is the duty of each of the banks to obtain the instructions of its customer. None of the banks considers that it is in a position to consent to the order sought. None of the banks objects to the making of the order. Each of the account-holders has been notified of the application. None of them has responded and none of them appears to oppose it.
There is a dearth of authority on the question I have to decide. I have been referred to a number of cases. The first is Sony Corp v Anand, Seiko Time, (UK) Ltd v Domicrest (Fancy Goods) Ltd [1981] FSR 398. That case concerned a proposed action to prevent infringement of copyright. The plaintiffs discovered that their name was being dishonestly applied to low quality cassette tapes, and obtained Anton Piller orders against the importers. The action in which the Anton Piller orders were obtained was an action for discovery only and was brought in accordance with the doctrine established by Norwich Pharmacal Co v Customs and Excise Comrs [1973] 2 All ER 943, [1974] AC 133. The plaintiffs sought the order for the purpose of identifying the suppliers. The plaintiffs gave an undertaking not to use any documents or information obtained as a result of the execution of the order save for the purpose of bringing civil proceedings in connection with the subject matter of the dispute. They obtained information revealing the identity of suppliers of infringing goods in Hong Kong and Taiwan. The plaintiffs then applied to the court for leave to bring civil proceedings anywhere in the world against the suppliers and to initiate criminal proceedings in any part of the world against anyone other than the defendants.
In the course of his judgment in Sony Corp v Anand Browne-Wilkinson J held that the general principle that materials obtained by exercise of the court’s coercive powers are not, without the leave of the court, to be used otherwise than for the purpose for which those powers were exercised, did not apply in the circumstances of the case before him, so that the question of leave did not arise.
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The reason he gave was that the action in which the information was obtained was an action for information only. As he put it (at 401–402):
‘The rule that I have just been mentioning refers to the position where there is an action between A and B to assert some general legal right against B, B gives discovery of confidential information as incidental to the pursuit of that main action by A against B. In those circumstances, the rule is that the information has only been disclosed for the purposes of the action A against B and cannot, without the leave of the court, be used for any other purpose. There is however quite a different species of action in which the subject-matter of the legal claim established is a right to discovery of information. It was recently revived by the decision of the House of Lords in Norwich Pharmacal Company v. Commissioners of Customs and Excise ([1973] 2 All ER 943, [1974] AC 133). In such an action the only claim of A against B is an order that B do disclose to A certain information. It is the old Chancery bill for discovery. The purpose of the action is to enable A, having got that information from B, to pursue his claim against third parties. The Anton Piller jurisdiction is based on that principle. The defendants in the action have been shown to be in possession of infringing material …’
and are bound to give information to the person whose rights have been infringed. Browne-Wilkinson J continued:
‘It is therefore, in my judgment, established that one of the main purposes of the Anton Piller order is to enable the plaintiff to get information from the defendants for the very purpose of using such information not against those defendants but against third parties. It therefore seems to me that information obtained under an Anton Piller order … can be used for the purposes of pursuing claims against third parties implicated in the same wrongful handling of the same infringing goods.’
Accordingly the use of information and documents obtained under an Anton Piller order for the purpose of pursuing claims against third parties does not infringe the general rule that documents and information obtained by the exercise of the court’s coercive powers are not to be used otherwise than for the purpose for which those powers were exercised. Browne-Wilkinson J then gave an alternative reason for authorising the use of the information for the purpose of criminal proceedings. His reason was that there was evidence before him that in Hong Kong the criminal remedies against infringements of copyright and trade mark were thought to be superior to the civil remedies.
In that case the plaintiffs were seeking to make use of the material for the purpose of bringing criminal proceedings themselves. The justification for giving leave was that civil proceedings are not an end in themselves but are designed either to secure monetary compensation or injunctive relief to prevent continuance of the acts complained of. In some jurisdictions, criminal proceedings are more appropriate or are superior to civil proceedings; and where the plaintiffs are seeking to achieve their end by criminal proceedings rather than civil proceedings, it is not necessarily an abuse of the general principle to make use of the material for this purpose.
In Crest Homes plc v Marks [1987] 2 All ER 1074 at 1078, [1987] AC 829 at 853 Lord Oliver repeated the rule:
‘The purpose of an Anton Piller order is, primarily, the preservation of evidence which might otherwise be removed, destroyed or concealed but it operates, of course, also as an order for discovery in advance of pleadings …’
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and said that there is an implied undertaking to the court by the plaintiff not to use the material or allow it to be used for any purpose other than the proper conduct of the action on behalf of the client. He made it clear that the court has jurisdiction to release or modify the implied undertaking, that the general principle must be that the court will do so in the exercise of its discretion but only in special circumstances and where the release or modification would not occasion injustice to the person giving discovery, but that each case must turn on its own individual facts. In that case the determinative point to Lord Oliver’s mind was that it was adventitious that there happened to be two actions and that the purpose for which the material was sought to be used was a different action from that in which it had been obtained. The existence of two actions had been occasioned by purely technical considerations. The cause of action was the same in each case and the parties were identical, or at least similar. It was therefore a pure technicality that the order under which the material had been obtained was made in proceedings other than those for which it was sought to be used.
That was the basis upon which I extended Morritt J’s original order to permit the material to be used in civil proceedings brought anywhere in the world for the recovery of the bank’s misappropriated funds. Civil proceedings are not an end in themselves. In the present case the purpose of the English proceedings was to obtain the restoration of funds alleged to have been misappropriated from the bank. For that purpose it may be necessary to bring proceedings in many different jurisdictions. The use of material obtained in the course of English proceedings for the purpose of similar proceedings in other jurisdictions would not infringe the general principle, and accordingly I gave leave.
However, the English proceedings were brought by the bank for the purpose of recovering the moneys of which it had been defrauded, not for the purpose of enabling the bank or its provisional commissioner to compile an audit report for use by the governor of the Bank of Greece, nor for the purpose of enabling criminal proceedings to be brought in Greece. Those criminal proceedings are not being brought by the bank, nor is the recovery of the bank’s money their object. If the use of the material for such a purpose is to be justified, its justification must lie elsewhere.
On behalf of the bank, Mr Geering QC referred me to A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545 at 659, [1990] 1 AC 109 at 281, where Lord Goff set out the scope of the equitable doctrine of confidence and in particular the three limiting principles which apply to that doctrine. The third limiting principle is that, although the basis of the law’s protection of confidence is that there is a public interest that confidences should be preserved and protected by the law, nevertheless that public interest may be outweighed by some other countervailing public interest which favours disclosure. In my judgment such considerations are not directly in point, since the objection, if any, to the use of the material in the present case for the purpose of criminal proceedings in Greece is not based on the doctrine of confidentiality but rather on the right of privacy. The material obtained from the banks was ordered to be disclosed because it was within the account-holders’ power and was compellable from them. Material obtained by the use of the court’s coercive powers, whether from a defendant in respect of material in his possession, or from his bank in respect of material which is confidential to him but which is within his power, may in general be used only for the purpose for which it has been obtained. To use it for any other purpose would be to invade the defendant’s privacy. But I agree with Mr Geering’s submission that the right of privacy is no more unlimited than the right of confidentiality. The doctrine of confidentiality exists to support the individual’s right of privacy.
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There are, of course, wide policy considerations in the present case. There is a need for international co-operation between the courts of different jurisdictions in order to deal with multinational frauds. Ferris J recognised the pressing need to prevent a foreign court from wrongly convicting an accused on the basis of allegations which the English court had material to disprove. The court granted leave for the use of the material to prevent an injustice. I have little doubt that it would have done so even if there were a clear risk that this would result not merely in the acquittal of the accused but also in the prosecution of his accuser. In the present case, each of the account-holders is implicated in an alleged fraud, either as a principal or as an accessory or, at the very least, as a recipient of misappropriated funds.
I have considered what would be the position if this were an entirely domestic matter. It could not, I think, arise in quite the same form in such a case for the account-holders might have been entitled to refuse discovery by asserting the privilege against self-incrimination. On the other hand, that privilege would not have availed the account-holders if the banks were served with subpoenas duces tecum. Such considerations do not arise in the present case since by virtue of s 14(1) of the Civil Evidence Act 1968 the privilege does not extend to protection against the possibility of prosecution in a foreign jurisdiction.
There is, however, some assistance to be gained from the decision of the Court of Appeal in Marcel v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 1 All ER 72, [1992] Ch 225. In that case the Serious Fraud Office obtained, by the use of statutory powers, documents which it required for use in criminal proceedings against a person who was also a defendant in a civil action. The Serious Fraud Office then voluntarily produced that material to the plaintiff to assist him in the prosecution of the civil proceedings. The Court of Appeal held that that was wrong in principle, but it refused to order the return of the material because it was plain that the court would have ordered discovery of the documents if they had been in the defendant’s own possession, and there would have been no answer to a subpoena duces tecum against the Serious Fraud Office.
In my judgment, the correct approach to the present case is as follows. The purpose for which the material has been obtained is the recovery by the bank of misappropriated funds. Save in exceptional circumstances, it would not be right to authorise the bank voluntarily to make use of the material for any other purpose. There were special circumstances which led Ferris J to extend the order in order to prevent a miscarriage of justice. However, voluntary disclosure is one thing; disclosure under compulsion of law is another. By enabling the bank to obtain information which it needs for the successful prosecution of its civil remedies, the court should not place the bank in an impossible position in which it must either infringe its undertaking to this court or find itself in breach of its duties under Greek law. The fact that a party which seeks the assistance of the English court to obtain material for the purpose of an English action may find itself under a legally enforceable obligation in another jurisdiction to disclose the material for some other purpose is no doubt a factor to be taken into account by the court when considering whether to give such assistance, but unless the material is of only marginal relevance to the English action it ought not normally to preclude the court from assisting the applicant to obtain the material it needs for the successful prosecution of the action.
Now that the bank is in possession of the material, it is the obligation of the bank to prepare audit reports. Such reports ought to be full and proper reports and not misleading or worthless reports. Precisely how its obligation is to be performed is a matter for the bank, but this court ought not to place any obstacle in the way of the proper performance by the bank of its obligations under Greek
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law. Once the report is completed, the provisional commissioner of the bank will be bound to notify the governor of the Bank of Greece that the audit report is complete. It would be wrong for this court to prevent the provisional commissioner from complying with his legal obligation under Greek law to convey that information to the Bank of Greece. Thereafter it will be a matter for the Bank of Greece to exercise whatever powers it has under Greek law to compel production of the audit reports. If the governor obtains them, it will be a matter for Greek law to determine whether or not he should provide them to the examining magistrate and what use if any the examining magistrate should make of them. Such questions involve considerations of public policy, but in my judgment they are questions of Greek public policy, and should be determined accordingly without the restraining hand of this court. If, under Greek law, either the governor of the Bank of Greece or the examining magistrate can compel the production of the audit reports, so be it. It is frequently the case that material obtained by a party to English civil proceedings may be required to be produced in criminal proceedings in England. By a parity of reasoning, I see no reason why the English court should be astute to prevent a party who has obtained material in this country by the use of the coercive powers of the English court from producing such material in a foreign jurisdiction if compellable to do so.
Accordingly the order which I propose to make is to add a proviso to the existing order to the effect that nothing in the order shall prevent the plaintiff, its servants or agents from using any information or documents disclosed pursuant to the order for the purpose of producing, in such form as it may think appropriate, audit reports or from supplying such audit reports or any information or documents disclosed pursuant to the order to any person to whom the plaintiff is under a duty under the law of any other jurisdiction to supply such audit reports, information or documents, or from informing any such person that such audit reports have been prepared.
Order accordingly.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
R v Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary and another, ex parte L (a minor)
R v Director of Public Prosecutions, ex parte B (a minor)
[1993] 1 All ER 756
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WATKINS LJ AND FRENCH J
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12, 13 FEBRUARY, 26 MARCH 1991
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Decision to prosecute – Juvenile – Offence committed by juvenile – Discretion to continue or to discontinue criminal proceedings – Policy of cautioning juveniles – Police recommending prosecution rather than caution – Crown Prosecution Service deciding not to discontinue prosecution – Whether Crown Prosecution Service’s decision amenable to judicial review – Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s 10(1).
Criminal law – Proceedings – Prosecution of adult – Decision not to discontinue prosecution – Whether decision of Crown Prosecution Service not to discontinue prosecution of adult amenable to judicial review.
The applicant L was aged 16 when he was charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm contrary to s 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861. The decision to prosecute him was taken despite the fact that the criteria for administering a caution, set out in the code issued pursuant to s 10(1)a of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 and in guidelines issued by the Home Secretary, were made out in his case, since it was felt that the circumstances of L’s offence went considerably beyond the great majority of incidents alleging violence or the threat of violence in juvenile cases and was too serious for a caution to be appropriate. The applicant B, then aged 12, was charged with theft. In her case the decision to prosecute was taken because the offence was considered serious and there was no question of administering a caution because she refused to admit the offence, although had she done so a caution would have been considered appropriate. L applied for judicial review by way of orders of certiorari to quash the decision of the police to prosecute him and that of the Crown Prosecution Service not to discontinue proceedings against him pursuant to its powers under s 23b of the 1985 Act, and mandamus to compel the Crown Prosecution Service to discontinue the proceedings. B sought judicial review by way of orders of certiorari to quash the decisions of the police to recommend that she be charged with theft and to so charge her and of the Crown Prosecution Service not to discontinue proceedings against her, and an order of prohibition to prevent the Crown Prosecution Service from taking any further steps to prosecute her.
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Held - The discretion of the Crown Prosecution Service to continue or to discontinue criminal proceedings against a juvenile was subject to judicial review by the High Court but only where it could be demonstrated that the decision had been made regardless of or clearly contrary to a settled policy of the Director of Public Prosecutions which had been formulated in the public interest, such as a policy of cautioning juveniles. It was, however, likely that it would be only rarely that a defendant could succeed in showing that a decision was fatally flawed in such a manner. Although in L’s case the policy of cautioning juveniles applied, it could not be said, in view of the seriousness of the offence, that the decision to continue the prosecution was in any way flawed. In B’s case the more general policy that a prosecution should not occur unless required in the public interest applied, but again it was very difficult to envisage a circumstance, fraud or dishonesty apart, which would permit a challenge to a decision to prosecute or to continue proceedings unless it could be demonstrated, in the case of a juvenile, that there had been either a total disregard of the policy or, contrary to it, a lack of inquiry into the circumstances and background of the juvenile, previous offences, general character etc by the prosecutor and later by the Crown Prosecution Service and it was unlikely that the possibility that such disregard had happened could be shown. In B’s case the evidence did not demonstrate that the Crown Prosecution Service had fallen below the standard of care and inquiry to be expected in the circumstances, nor could it be supposed that the CPS had not considered the public interest and all other matters which had to be borne in mind in deciding whether a 12-year-old girl should appear before a juvenile court. It followed, therefore, that although decisions of the Crown Prosecution Service might in principle be reviewed, in practice it was rarely likely to be successfully reviewed. In neither L’s case nor that of B could there be said to have been a flaw in the decision to continue criminal proceedings, and accordingly their applications would be dismissed (see p 770 d to j and p 771 d to g, post).
Per curiam. If judicial review lies in relation to current criminal proceedings, in contrast to a failure to take any action against a person suspected of a criminal offence, it will lie against the Crown Prosecution Service, as the body which has the last and decisive word (see p 767 h j and p 771 g, post).
Semble. (1) Judicial review of a decision not to discontinue the prosecution of an adult is unlikely to be available (see p 771 a g, post).
(2) A decision to discontinue criminal proceedings by the Crown Prosecution Service can be equated with a decision by the police not to prosecute and is, therefore, open to judicial review only on the restricted basis available to a person, assuming he has locus standi, seeking to challenge a decision by the police (see p 768 g and p 771 g, post); R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] All ER 763 applied.
Notes
For the institution of criminal proceedings generally, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 646.
For the Offences against the Person Act 1861, s 47, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 105.
For the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, ss 10, 23, see ibid 941, 959.
Cases referred to in judgment
Gouriet v Union of Post Office Workers [1977] 3 All ER 70, [1978] AC 435, [1977] 3 WLR 300, HL.
Hallett v A-G [1989] 2 NZLR 87, NZ HC.
Page 758 of [1993] 1 All ER 756
Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] 1 AC 53, [1988] 2 WLR 1049, HL.
Holgate-Mohammed v Duke [1984] 1 All ER 1054, [1984] AC 437, [1984] 2 WLR 660, HL.
R v Derby Crown Court, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164, DC.
R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212, [1990] 3 WLR 323, DC.
R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118, [1968] 2 WLR 893, CA.
R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn (No 3) [1973] 1 All ER 324, [1973] QB 241, [1973] 2 WLR 43, CA.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, [1991] 2 WLR 866, DC.
Raymond v A-G [1982] 2 All ER 487, [1982] QB 839, [1982] 2 WLR 849, CA.
Riches v DPP [1973] 2 All ER 935, [1973] 1 WLR 1019, CA.
Turner v DPP (1978) 68 Cr App R 70.
Cases also cited
Leech v Parkhurst Prison Deputy Governor, Prevot v Long Larton Prison Deputy Governor [1988] 1 All ER 485, [1988] AC 533, HL.
Newby v Moodie (1987) 78 ALR 603, Aust Fed Ct; affd 83 ALR 523, Aust Fed Ct (Full Ct).
R v Bolton Justices, ex p Scally [1991] 2 All ER 619, [1991] 1 QB 537, DC.
R v London Residuary Body, ex p Inner London Education Authority (1987) Times, 24 July, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Ruddock [1987] 2 All ER 518, [1987] 1 WLR 1482.
Applications for judicial review
R v Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary and anor, ex p L (a minor)
L, a minor, applied by his next friend and father, with the leave of Hutchison J granted on 30 July 1990, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash a decision of the Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary to commence a prosecution against him for an offence of assault occasioning actual bodily harm, an order of certiorari to quash a decision or decisions of the Crown Prosecution Service not to discontinue proceedings against him for that offence pursuant to its powers under s 23 of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 and an order of mandamus to compel the Crown Prosecution Service to exercise its powers under that section and discontinue the proceedings against him. The facts are set out in the judgment of Watkins LJ.
R v DPP, ex p B (a minor)
B, a minor, applied, with the leave of Otton J granted on 24 July 1990, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash a decision of the Youth and Community Service to recommend charging her with theft, an order of certiorari to quash a decision by officers of the Metropolitan Police to charge her with theft, an order of certiorari to quash a decision of the Crown Prosecution Service not to discontinue proceedings against her for theft, and an order of prohibition to
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prevent the Crown Prosecution Service taking any further steps in the prosecution against her. The facts are set out in the judgment of Watkins LJ.
The two applications were heard together.
Robert Rhodes QC and Lewis Marks (instructed by Berry & Berry, Tunbridge Wells) for L.
Roger McCarthy (instructed by D P Clephan, Maidstone) for the Chief Constable.
David Cocks QC and Henry Cleaver (instructed by Stephen Fidler & Co) for B.
Andrew Collins QC and Mark Dennis (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Victor Temple (instructed by C S Porteous) for the Metropolitan Police.
Cur adv vult
26 March 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
WATKINS LJ. There are before this court two applications which, because the main issues arising from them are identical, were, with the consent of all concerned, heard together. Those issues are as follows. (1) Is the decision by either the Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis or a chief constable to prosecute a juvenile for an offence subject to judicial review and does it make any difference that a caution is an available option? (2) If there is such an option is the decision by the Crown Prosecution Service (the CPS) not to discontinue the prosecution similarly reviewable?
Both applicants, who are juveniles, have leave to move for relief from Hutchison J and Otton J respectively. The juveniles concerned are L, born on 27 December 1973, who, when 16, was charged with an assault occasioning actual bodily harm, contrary to s 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861, and B, born on 7 March 1978, who, when 12 years of age, was charged with theft, contrary to the Theft Act 1968.
L seeks an order of certiorari to quash a decision of the Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary to prosecute him, a similar order to quash the decision of the CPS not to discontinue proceedings against him, pursuant to its powers under s 23 of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, and an order of mandamus directed to the CPS to compel them to exercise those powers and to discontinue proceedings against him. Interim relief has already been granted to L to prohibit the CPS from taking any further steps in the prosecution of him pending the determination of this application. The grounds relied upon by L are that: (1) the decision to prosecute him was one which no chief constable properly directing himself could reasonably have made; (2) the CPS unreasonably exercised their statutory discretion or unreasonably failed to exercise that discretion in deciding not to discontinue proceedings; (3) in particular both the chief constable and the CPS failed to take account of all relevant circumstances which are: the nature of the offence, the age of the applicant, the fact that he has no previous convictions, he has never previously been cautioned and he is content for the matter to be dealt with by way of caution, he admits the offence, he has apologised to the complainant, he comes from a good home and has been disciplined by his parents, no serious injury was occasioned to the complainant, the recommendation to caution of the juvenile offender liaison team (JOLT), the Guidelines on Cautioning given in Home Office circular 14/1985 (the cautioning guidelines), the effect that a criminal conviction might have upon him, the absence of special reasons for not administering a caution, the absence of any public interest in the prosecution of
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him, his welfare and the desirability of diverting juvenile from the courts; (4) the chief constable and the CPS must have taken into account some matter which should not have been considered.
B seeks an order of certiorari to quash a decision taken by the Youth and Community Service (YACS) to recommend charging her with theft, an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the commissioner to charge her with theft, an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the CPS not to discontinue proceedings against her and an order of prohibition directed to the CPS to stop them taking any further steps in the prosecution of her. The grounds upon which she relies are: (1) an indication having been given by the police that her case was to be referred to the YACS, no inquiries were ever made by that or any other agency in relation to the applicant’s home or social circumstances; (2) no attempt was made to contact the applicant or her father to discuss the case in accordance with the spirit of the cautioning guidelines; (3) the decision to prosecute was made without sufficient regard to the circular and without diverting the matter to the YACS for proper inquiries, the matter not being sufficiently grave for a prosecution to take place; (4) the CPS had not referred the matter back to the YACS for inquiries despite representations in that behalf; (5) an indication was given to the applicant that if she admitted the offence she would be cautioned. The inference to be drawn from that is that if she did not admit the offence prosecution would ensue. This indicates that other methods of disposal were not considered.
The facts, largely uncontested, leading to the charge against L are that in the early evening of 14 November 1989 there was a brief argument and confrontation between the victim, then 16, and a smaller, younger boy. L approached them both and said, ‘You shouldn’t pick on little kids.' Then, without warning, L punched the victim on the nose twice, knocking him to the ground, causing his nose to bleed and fracturing the maxillary spine of his nose. As he lay on the ground in some pain he felt a kick to his head. L admitted to the police punching the victim twice, breaking his nose, so he thought, and kicking him, not on the head but in the back, ‘Just enough to say, “Come on, get back up” because he just really wound me up.’
L’s file was sent to the JOLT, a group comprising a probation officer, a social worker and a police officer. On 13 February 1990 the victim’s father wrote to the JOLT expressing approval to L being dealt with by way of caution. A week later L wrote to the victim a letter of apology, following which the JOLT recommended that L be cautioned. Despite this acting Chief Inspector Gamble, on 25 February 1990, decided to prosecute and so informed the JOLT. On 1 April 1990 L was charged with causing grievous bodily harm to the victim with intent.
The JOLT wrote direct to the CPS, who by then had the file from the police, recommending that L be cautioned. In his affidavit Inspector Gamble states:
‘9.… in every juvenile case ... the first and foremost aim should be to caution juveniles rather than prosecute them for the reasons dealt with in [the cautioning guidelines]. I would estimate that I have recommended a caution or [no further action] in 98 per cent of the juvenile cases I have considered since 1985. Despite the above considerations I must bear in mind the seriousness of any alleged offence and the public interest in ensuring that appropriate cases are recommended for prosecution.
10. The circumstances of the incident involving [L] and his alleged actions go considerably beyond the great majority of juvenile incidents alleging violence or the threat of violence which come before me for my recommendation. In making the statement in the preceding sentence I draw
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on very detailed experience of the range of incidents excusable or otherwise which bring juveniles to the attention of the Police.’
Mr Jones, Senior Crown Prosecutor in the North Kent branch office of the CPS, states in his affidavit that he received L’s case file and reviewed the case applying the relevant principles set out in the Guide for Crown Prosecutors (which I shall call ‘the code’) and notified the police that the charge should be reduced from an offence under s 18 of the 1861 Act to an offence under s 47. He telephoned Chief Inspector Powell, in charge of the administrative support unit for Tunbridge Wells, to discuss the case.
His affidavit continues:
‘6.… I was then informed that JOLT had recommended a caution, but that the Acting Chief Inspector had disagreed and decided to prosecute: the Chief Inspector said that he had agreed with that view. He read to me the JOLT recommendation in full. I ascertained that [L] had no previous convictions or cautions.
7. I reconsidered whether the prosecution should continue in the light of all the information I now had: see in particular paragraph 10 of [the code]. Although the criteria for a caution were made out, I was of the opinion that a caution was inappropriate and that the prosecution should continue.
8. I reached my decision because I considered the offence to be a serious one, involving two blows to the face without any provocation or mitigating circumstances, the second of which was sufficient to knock the victim to the ground. While the victim was on the ground, [L] had kicked him in the head. Although the injuries were not as serious as had been feared initially, they were by no means trivial. This was in my view an incident which went far beyond an ordinary case of schoolboy bullying and a prosecution was merited, notwithstanding [L’s] apparent remorse …
9. I referred the file to a colleague, a Senior Crown Prosecutor who specialises in cases involving juveniles. He agreed that a prosecution should continue.’
We were informed that L was cautioned in March 1990 for possessing a small amount of cannabis. That cannot of course, affect L’s present application.
The allegation against B is that during the morning of 21 February 1990 she knocked on the door of a house and asked the householder to sponsor her for a run shortly to take place. Having no money in his pocket, the householder went into his kitchen to obtain money, leaving the front door open. He returned and gave B £1 and signed her form, whereupon she left. The householder saw her through the window near the dustbins of the next-door house. She was holding a grey shopping bag and was emptying the contents of that onto the ground. He went outside and asked her what she was doing. Receiving no reply he returned to his house, whereupon his cleaning lady said that ‘her bag had gone missing’.
The householder then asked B to come back to his house and when she did so he went to the next-door neighbour’s house and picked up the empty grey bag from the dustbins. When he returned again to his own house the cleaning lady identified the grey bag as hers in the presence of B. B asked the householder not to call the police and produced a red wallet from inside her anorak, which the cleaning lady also identified as hers. While the householder was telephoning the police B ran away.
When seen later on by police officers B admitted that she had been collecting for her school that morning and had gone to the house, she said, but had not stolen anything. That is a denial she has maintained ever since.
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Her case was referred to the YACS, which is a team of police officers whose task includes liaison with schools in the area and dealing with cases referred to them in accordance with para 9 of the cautioning guidelines.
The history of the work of those police officers on the case is, it was alleged by Mr Cocks QC for B, rather confusing and suggests an inadequacy of liaison and investigation into, inter alia, B’s home circumstances as well as an indecisiveness at times as to what their recommendation should be.
An appropriate form was sent to the director of social services, the education officer and the probation service for such comments as they wished to make, but no comments were received. Following a recommendation by the YACS that B should be charged with theft, she was so charged on 5 April 1990.
That recommendation is explained in his affidavit by Pc Allen as follows:
‘5. On 15th March 1990 I visited [the school] which was attended by [B]. I discussed both [B] and the case in general with the Headmaster and other members of the staff. I was subsequently informed by the school that [B] was continuing to deny the offence.
6. I considered making a visit to [B’s] home even though such a visit is not the usual practice upon the first referral of a juvenile to the Youth and Community Service. I decided against such a visit in the light of the apparent language difficulties with [B] and her family and [B’s] continued denial of the offence.
7. As part of my review of the case I considered the guidelines on cautioning juveniles contained in the Home Office Circular 14/1985… A caution could not be administered as [B] was not prepared to admit the offence as required in the criteria set out in the said guidelines. I reached the conclusion that it was not a suitable case in which to recommend any alternative action other than proceeding to charge.’
There seems to be no doubt that had B admitted the offence she would have been cautioned. However, on 24 May 1990 the CPS, having received her file on 5 May, advised that prosecution of her should proceed despite strong representations from B’s solicitors that they should order discontinuance of the prosecution.
Mr Blake, Principal Crown Prosecutor, in his affidavit explains the decision to proceed as follows:
‘4. On 14th May 1990 I reviewed the case file applying the relevant principles set out in the “Code for Crown Prosecutors” …
5. I was satisfied that the evidential sufficiency criteria for the offence of theft as charged was made out.
6. In considering the public interest criteria I had regard in particular to paragraph 8(iii) [of the code] … I reached the conclusion that the case could be properly disposed of by the administering of a caution if [B] was prepared to admit the offence in accordance with the criteria set out in the guidelines on cautioning contained in Home Office Circular 14/1985 …
7. On 16th May 1990 I informed Mr. Fidler, [B’s] solicitor, that the case could not be disposed of by way of a caution unless [B] admitted the offence.
8. On 24th May 1990, being aware that [B] was still not prepared to admit the offence, I reviewed the case again. In accordance with my duties under the Code for Crown Prosecutors (see particularly paragraphs 15–18…) I considered whether the public interest required a prosecution rather than a disposal of the case other than by way of a caution. I reached the conclusion that the case was a relatively serious one having particular regard to the
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allegation that [B] had gained entry into another’s house by a trick in order to steal. I therefore advised that the prosecution should continue notwithstanding the age and character of [B].’
One of the documents which had a prominent place in submissions made to us was Home Office circular 14/1985, including the cautioning guidelines (this has since been replaced by Home Office circular 59/1990). Others were a general order, an instruction manual and the code. Considerable reliance was placed upon their contents by Mr Rhodes QC for L and Mr Cocks QC for B.
The use of a caution as a means of dealing with mainly juvenile offenders is of some antiquity. It seems to have been mooted, if not in a small way introduced, in 1929. In 1932 Lord Trenchard favoured an extension of the practice, such as it then was. It has never had a statutory basis and only acquired a measure of formal recognition in about 1968. It is not affected by, for example, s 5 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1969. The first Home Office circular relating to cautions was published in 1978. The circular current at all material times was circular 14/1985. In 1985 the number of offenders cautioned was 238,000, an increase of just over 100,000 in ten years.
That circular and the guidelines were disseminated to chief officers of police under cover of a letter of commendation by the Home Secretary. The letter includes the following:
‘This work has taken as its starting point that there is no rule in law that suspected offenders must be prosecuted. It has long been recognised in the case of juveniles that there may be positive advantages for society as well as for the individual in using prosecution as a last resort. Cautioning provides an important alternative to prosecution in the case of juvenile offending … The Home Secretary sees the issue of the present guidelines as a means to encourage the consistent application of policy in cautioning decisions, which will be a complementary process to the existence and growth of such special schemes. However, he wishes chief officers to be aware of his view that the issue of these guidelines should also provide the opportunity for a review of local arrangements, where this has not already been done, to ensure that liaison arrangements with social services departments, the probation service and where appropriate the Education Welfare Service, are such as to encourage the participation of those agencies in decision making. This may be particularly appropriate where there is doubt in the mind of the police as to whether a caution is the right course in an individual case.’
The guidelines start with the general statement:
‘It is recognised both in theory and in practice that delay in the entry of a young person into the formal criminal justice system may help to prevent his entry into that system altogether. The Secretary of State commends to chief officers the policy that the prosecution of a juvenile is not a step to be taken without the fullest consideration of whether the public interest (and the interests of the juvenile concerned) may be better served by a course of action which falls short of prosecution. Thus chief officers will wish to ensure that their arrangements for dealing with juveniles are such that prosecution does not occur unless it is absolutely necessary. As a general principle in the case of first time juvenile offenders where the offence is not serious, it is unlikely that prosecution will be a justifiable course …
2. A formal caution may represent one form of entry into the criminal justice system. It will for example be cited should the offender subsequently
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appear before a juvenile court. It is therefore important that the issue of a caution should be a formal procedure which takes full account of its consequences for the individual concerned and that it should take place only where strict criteria are fully met …
Criteria for a caution
4. Before a caution is issued to a juvenile, the following criteria must be met in full.
(a) The evidence available must comply with the Attorney General’s guidelines on criteria for prosecution ie a conviction should be more likely than an acquittal before a court. Cautioning must not be used as a substitute for a weak prosecution case. If there is insufficient evidence to support a prosecution, it will not be right to use cautioning as an alternative.
(b) The juvenile must admit the offence. It is not sufficient that the juvenile should merely admit all or some of the facts which constitute the offence; he must recognise his guilt. If there is no admission in circumstances where otherwise a caution would have been issued, the proper course may be to take no further action.’
The guidelines recommend obtaining consent of the parents or guardian of the juvenile to a caution being issued, consideration of the seriousness of the offence, the offender’s record, consultation with other agencies and the interests of an aggrieved party.
The Chief Constable of Kent issued a general order following receipt of the guidelines. This, so far as material, states:
‘1. In line with Home Circular 14/1985, force policy has been revised. The main features of the new policy are: (a) The introduction of “immediate cautions” for juvenile first offenders. (b) Wider scope for cautioning recidivist juveniles. Future policy will address the following issues and information concerning this will be published in due course: (c) The extension of cautioning to young adults and the “at risk” and elderly. (d) Cautioning of adults for drunkenness and for possession of small amounts of cannabis for personal use in certain circumstances. (e) The system to be adopted in the recording and citation of adult cautions. Meanwhile the tenets of Home Office Circular 14/1985 will be borne in mind when prosecution decisions are reached concerning adults. The changes at “a” and “b” above will necessitate some delegation of authority to issue cautions and endorse decisions on crime reports as explained hereunder. It should be noted that current force policy concerning documentation of detainees, crime reporting and recording practices and any requirement to submit statistical forms, report certain crimes, etc., in particular cases is unchanged.’
An instruction manual issued by the Metropolitan Police Commissioner, so far as material, states as follows:
‘21.1 Except where it has been immediately decided that no further action is to be taken, an immediate caution has been administered, or a juvenile offender has been charged, all cases in which it has been established that an offence has been committed by a juvenile and that there is sufficient evidence to ensure the likelihood of a conviction, are to be referred to the YACS for a decision as to further action …
21.11 It is a rebuttable presumption in law that a child between the ages of 10 and 14 is incapable of knowing right from wrong. All officers should therefore bear in mind that, in addition to producing evidence that the accused committed the offence, evidence is also necessary to show that, at the
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time of the offence, that the child is aware that his/her act was seriously wrong i.e. went beyond childish mischievousness …
22.21 As a general rule the YACS will caution all first offenders.’
The Code for Crown Prosecutors is a statutory code issued by the Director of Public Prosecutions pursuant to s 10 of the 1985 Act. The code contains the following:
‘8. The factors which can properly lead to a decision not to prosecute will vary from case to case, but broadly speaking, the graver the offence, the less likelihood there will be that the public interest will allow of a disposal less than prosecution, for example, a caution. Where, however, an offence is not so serious as plainly to require prosecution, the Crown Prosecutor should always apply his mind to the public interest and should strive to ensure that the spirit of the Home Office Cautioning Guidelines is observed… (iii) Youth The stigma of a conviction can cause irreparable harm to the future prospects of a young adult, and careful consideration should be given to the possibility of dealing with him or her by means of a caution …
15. It is a long standing statutory requirement that the courts shall have regard to the welfare of the juvenile appearing before them, in criminal as in civil proceedings. It is accordingly necessary that in deciding whether or not the public interest requires a prosecution the welfare of the juvenile should be fully considered.
16. There may be positive advantages for the individual and for society, in using prosecution as a last resort and in general there is in the case of juvenile offenders a much stronger presumption in favour of methods of disposal which fall short of prosecution unless the seriousness of the offence or other exceptional circumstances dictate otherwise. The objective should be to divert juveniles from court wherever possible. Prosecution should always be regarded as a severe step.
17. The Home Office has issued guidelines to the police on cautioning juvenile offenders and on related decision making. Where the police are unable to make an immediate decision to caution, the guidelines suggest that there may be advantages in their seeking the advice and views of other interested agencies, such as the Social Services Department, the Probation Service and the Education Welfare Service, on whether to caution or institute proceedings. Where the Crown Prosecutor decides that the public interest does not require the institution or continuation of proceedings against a juvenile and it appears that there has been no prior consultation, the Crown Prosecutor should consider whether to ask the police to bring the circumstances of the individual’s involvement to the attention of the appropriate agency. Crown Prosecutors should be aware of the general arrangements and procedures for inter-agency consultation in their areas and are encouraged to contribute their experience to the development and improvement of such arrangements. Crown Prosecutors must satisfy themselves that the spirit of the Cautioning Guidelines has been applied before continuing a prosecution instituted by the police against a juvenile. The Crown Prosecutor should, taking account of the views of all the agencies concerned of which he is aware and having regard to the Cautioning Guidelines, refer back to the police any case where he considers that a lesser disposal, eg a caution, would be an adequate response and, in the final analysis, will not hesitate to exercise his power to discontinue proceedings where he is satisfied that a prosecution is not required in the public interest. When considering whether or not to continue proceedings, the Crown
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Prosecutor should have regard to the circumstances of any previous cautions the juvenile may have been given by the police. Where these are such as to indicate that a less formal disposal in respect of the present offence would prove inadequate, a prosecution will be appropriate.’
In the case of L it can fairly and properly be said that, the question of seriousness apart, all the criteria for cautioning had been fulfilled. He had admitted his guilt, he had written a letter of apology to the victim, his parents had consented to the caution, the victim’s parents were agreeable to that course and L had, to some extent at least, been disciplined by his parents in the home. The choice in his case lay between the administration of the caution, on the one hand, and prosecution, on the other. B’s case is different. The administration of the caution was not an option for her because she had not admitted her guilt. The stark question was, therefore, whether to prosecute her or not. I think, as said previously, it is clear from the evidence we have that had B admitted the offence she would undoubtedly have been dealt with by way of caution.
Most of the submissions to us were forceful and detailed, not unexpectedly, for these applications raise unique considerations. They were concerned with the question, common to both, of whether the decision of the police to prosecute, as opposed to administering a caution, and that of the CPS to refuse to discontinue the prosecution are subject to judicial review.
Mr Collins QC for the CPS submitted that, since the CPS ultimately decides whether a prosecution should continue, then if any decision to prosecute, or not, is judicially reviewable it is the decision of the CPS and not any prior decision of the police.
He pointed to s 3 of the 1985 Act, which, so far as relevant, states:
‘(1) The Director shall discharge his functions under this or any other enactment under the superintendence of the Attorney General.
(2) It shall be the duty of the Director … (a) to take over the conduct of all criminal proceedings, other than specified proceedings, instituted on behalf of a police force (whether by a member of that force or by any other person) …’
He also pointed to para 10 of the code, which states:
‘The use by the Crown Prosecutor of his power to terminate proceedings whether by using the procedure under Section 23 of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 or the continuing power to withdraw or offer no evidence, is in many ways the most visible demonstration of the Service’s fundamental commitment towards ensuring that only fit and proper cases are taken to trial. Unless, of course, advice has been given at a preliminary stage, the police decision to institute proceedings should never be met with passive acquiescence but must always be the subject of review. Furthermore, the discretion to discontinue is a continuing one, and even when proceedings are under way Crown Prosecutors should continue to exercise their reviewing function. There may be occasions when time and other practical constraints limit the depth of the initial review of the case. It is important that cases should be kept under continuous review, not least because the emergence of new evidence or information hitherto unknown to the Crown Prosecutor may sometimes cast doubt on the propriety of the initial decision to proceed. Crown Prosecutors must be resolute when made aware of evidence or information of this nature and should not hesitate to bring proceedings to an end in appropriate cases. Public confidence in the Service can only be
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maintained if there is no doubting its commitment to taking effective action at whatever stage whenever it is right to do so. Prosecutions instituted in circumstances apparently falling outside the spirit of the Home Office Cautioning Guidelines should be queried with the police and may be discontinued where the Crown Prosecutor is satisfied that proceedings would not be in the public interest. It will be the normal practice to consult the police whenever it is proposed to discontinue proceedings instituted by them. The level of consultation will depend on the particular circumstances of the case of the accused, but the final decision will rest with the Crown Prosecutor.’
Section 23 of the 1985 Act also requires, I think, to be noted. So far as relevant, it states:
‘(1) Where the Director of Public Prosecutions has the conduct of proceedings for an offence, this section applies in relation to the preliminary stages of those proceedings …
(3) Where, at any time during the preliminary stages of the proceedings, the Director gives notice under this section to the clerk of the court that he does not want the proceedings to continue, they shall be discontinued with effect from the giving of that notice but may be reviewed by notice given by the accused under subsection (7) below …’
Mr McCarthy for the chief constable supported Mr Collins’s contention, saying, inter alia, that the CPS have the power and duty to correct police errors. Any challenge, he said, after the prosecution has been taken over by the CPS should be directed to them because the police will then have no control whatsoever over the prosecution.
Mr Temple for the Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis gave like support. He contended that the police in the form of the YACS are, in a sense, a form of filter, a preliminary decision-maker, whose decision is reassessed and not necessarily adopted by the CPS.
The stance adopted by both Mr Rhodes and Mr Cocks on this point appeared to be that the CPS and the police were, in principle, equally vulnerable to judicial review and the decisions of both of them were, on review, subject to identical tests.
The point has not previously arisen for determination. That probably is because the CPS are comparatively new to the prosecution process. They have unquestionably the sole power to decide whether a prosecution should proceed. They are entirely dominant in that very important respect and all the erstwhile corresponding power of the police has been stripped away. The CPS are the prosecutor and the police are the initiators of criminal proceedings which may, or may not, dependent upon the decision of the CPS, be disposed of by the courts. The power of the CPS includes that of referring a case back to the police for a caution to be substituted for the continuance of proceedings.
I have come to the conclusion that if judicial review lies in relation to current criminal proceedings, in contrast to a failure to take any action against a person suspected of a criminal offence, it lies against the body which has the last and decisive word, the CPS.
A refusal to prosecute or even possibly to caution by the police is another matter. In that event the police may be vulnerable to judicial review, but only upon a basis which, as the cases show, is rather severely circumscribed.
The extent of that basis appears in the well-known judgments of Lord Denning MR, Salmon and Edmund Davies LJJ in R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn
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[1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118. In a later case, R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn (No 3) [1973] 1 All ER 324 at 331, [1973] QB 241 at 254, Lord Denning MR, referring to a failure to enforce the law, stated: ‘… the police have a discretion with which the courts will not interfere. There might, however, be extreme cases in which he [the commissioner] was not carrying out his duty. And then we would.’
In R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137 at 152, [1991] 1 QB 212 at 234, in giving the judgment of the court, I stated, having quoted from, inter alia, Ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118:
‘Reference was also made by counsel … to a passage in de Smith’s Judicial Review of Administrative Action (4th edn, 1980) pp 549–550, to the effect that the discretion of a prosecuting authority though broad is not unreviewable. In our view such discretion is plainly reviewable but the question is whether the limits of review should be as strict as those contended for by the Bar Council. Much will depend, we think, on the powers of the body subject to review, the procedures which it is required to follow and on the way in which a particular proceeding has been conducted; there is potentially an almost infinite variety of circumstances. We do not think it right that strictly defined limits should be set to the judicial review of a body which can broadly be described as a prosecuting authority. Each case must be considered with due regard to the powers, functions and procedures of the body concerned and the manner in which it has dealt (or not dealt) with the particular complaint or application.’
That was obviously not intended to indicate a lesser limitation for judicial review of the police than appears in Ex p Blackburn. The statement relates to other bodies with very different responsibilities and discretions to which perhaps a less rigorous approach to judicial review might apply.
In the present cases it is not inaction by the police which is complained of but the positive action of charging the two applicants and thus commencing criminal proceedings instead of in L’s case cautioning him and in the case of B taking no action against her whatsoever, as well, of course, as the failure of the CPS to discontinue proceedings in both cases.
It seems to me that a decision to discontinue proceedings by the CPS can be equated with a decision by the police not to prosecute and is, therefore, open to judicial review only upon the restricted basis available to someone, assuming he has locus standi, seeking to challenge a decision by the police. Accordingly, that situation does not require further to be addressed in this judgment.
That which calls essentially for decision here is whether, in respect of juveniles, the CPS are open to challenge when deciding (1) to refrain from discontinuing proceedings in a situation where the criteria for cautioning can be said, with one possible exception, namely the seriousness of the offence, to have been met and (2) although cautioning is not an option, there has been in respect of a very young child an insufficiency of consideration of relevant circumstances before commencement of the proceedings by the police which is perpetuated in the decision by the CPS to continue those proceedings.
Mr Collins submitted that there is no circumstance in which the CPS decision to continue proceedings can be impugned in this court. If a decision to prosecute is wrongfully made the criminal court has, he said, ample powers, if abuse of its process is thereby occasioned, to refuse to deal with the proceedings. Otherwise, he said, an acquittal or the imposition of a nominal fine may be its response to an unmeritorious prosecution.
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Mr McCarthy (though Mr Rhodes contended he appeared to be arguing somewhat to the contrary in his skeleton argument) submitted to us that there is no judicial review of a decision to prosecute in an individual case. He quoted the words of Viscount Dilhorne in Gouriet v Union of Post Office Workers [1977] 3 All ER 70 at 88, [1978] AC 435 at 487:
‘The Attorney-General has many powers and duties. He may stop any prosecution on indictment by entering a nolle prosequi. He merely has to sign a piece of paper saying that he does not wish the prosecution to continue. He need not give any reasons. He can direct the institution of a prosecution and direct the Director of Public Prosecutions to take over the conduct of any criminal proceedings and he may tell him to offer no evidence. In the exercise of these powers he is not subject to direction by his ministerial colleagues or to the control and supervision of the courts.’
If a challenge of any kind can be made, Mr McCarthy further submitted, it is severely limited and for that he relied upon, inter alia, Ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118, Ex p Blackburn (No 3) [1973] 1 All ER 324, [1973] QB 241, Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 240–241, [1989] 1 AC 53 at 59, Raymond v A-G [1982] 2 All ER 487 at 491, [1982] QB 839 at 847 and R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137 at 147, 152, [1991] 1 QB 212 at 228, 234.
Mr Temple suggested that a challenge to a decision to prosecute could be mounted but possibly only where it could be demonstrated that, for example, Home Office guidelines had been ignored or an unreasonable policy had been adopted to the effect that all alleged burglars would be prosecuted or the prosecutor had behaved fraudulently.
The arguments presented by Mr Rhodes and Mr Cocks are founded on the following propositions.
(1) The exercise by the chief constable and the commissioner of his administrative discretion is reviewable: see Holgate-Mohammed v Duke [1984] 1 All ER 1054 at 1057, [1984] AC 437 at 443, which is to be preferred to Lord Denning MR’s obiter comments in Ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763 at 769, [1968] 2 QB 118 at 126 and Hallett v A-G [1989] 2 NZLR 87.
(2) Support is to be found in Ex p Percival and Ex p Blackburn for the contention that judicial review lies against a prosecuting authority of a decision to prosecute.
(3) Although to enable every person prosecuted to delay his trial by seeking judicial review of the decision to prosecute could pose serious administrative problems, such applications could be contained by the filtering process of obtaining leave and the penalty of costs for the unsuccessful: R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 578, [1987] QB 815 at 840.
(4) A lower court’s power to stop the proceedings because of an abuse of process is an inadequate remedy because it is not available in a case where a defendant intends to plead guilty: R v Derby Crown Court, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164.
(5) A Crown Prosecutor has to exercise executive discretion under statute in deciding whether a prosecution which has been taken over should be discontinued. The code which he has to follow fairly closely resembles the Attorney General’s guidelines, Criteria for Prosecutionc, which were promulgated in February 1983.
(6) The executive discretion exercised by a Crown Prosecutor in continuing or
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discontinuing a prosecution is one which is reviewable by the court if exercised in bad faith or based on the wrong principle: Raymond v A-G [1982] 2 All ER 487, [1982] QB 839, Turner v DPP (1978) 68 Cr App R 70 at 77, Riches v DPP [1973] 2 All ER 935 at 941, [1973] 1 WLR 1019 at 1026 and R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854 at 863, [1991] 2 QB 78 at 90, where the statement that the decision to commence criminal proceedings is not reviewable is not a considered statement of the law and is obiter (I was a party to that judgment and I am obliged, I think, to agree with that contention).
(7) It has for many years been the policy of the Director of Public Prosecutions that he should not prosecute in every case where there was sufficient evidence but ‘wherever it appears that the offence or the circumstances of its commission is or are of such a character that a prosecution in respect thereof is required in the public interest’ (see 483 HC Official Report (5th series) col 681, where Lord Shawcross when Attorney General quoted from the first regulations under which the Director of Public Prosecutions worked, which quotation is set out in the guidelines issued by the Attorney General, Criteria for Prosecution. That statement is specially apt in the case of a juvenile.
I have come to the conclusion that, in respect of juveniles, the discretion of the CPS to continue or to discontinue criminal proceedings is reviewable by this court but only where it can be demonstrated that the decision was made regardless of or clearly contrary to a settled policy of the Director of Public Prosecutions evolved in the public interest, for example the policy of cautioning juveniles, a policy which the CPS are bound to apply, where appropriate, to the exercise of their discretion to continue or discontinue criminal proceedings. But I envisage that it will be only rarely that a defendant could succeed in showing that a decision was fatally flawed in such a manner as that.
The policy of cautioning, instead of prosecuting, has for some time now been well settled and plays a prominent part in the process of decision-making both by the police and by the CPS when consideration has properly to be given to whether, in any individual case, there should be (a) no action taken or (b) a caution delivered or (c) a prosecution and thereafter (d) a continuance or discontinuance of criminal proceedings.
That policy applied, obviously, to the case of L. It did not apply to the case of B because cautioning was not for her an option. The policy, which can, I think, rightly be so called, which is applicable to her is another. It is that which is far more generally expressed, that is to say that a prosecution should not occur unless it is required in the public interest, regard being given to the stigma of a conviction which can cause irreparable harm to the future prospects of a young person and to his previous character, parental attitude and the likelihood of the offence being repeated: see the Attorney General’s 1983 guidelines.
I find it very difficult to envisage, with regard to that policy, a circumstance, fraud or dishonesty apart possibly, which would allow of a challenge to a decision to prosecute or to continue proceedings unless it could be demonstrated, in the case of a juvenile, that there had been either a total disregard of the policy or, contrary to it, a lack of inquiry into the circumstances and background of that person, previous offences and general character and so on, by the prosecutor and later by the CPS. But here too I envisage the possibility of showing that such disregard had happened as unlikely. Therefore, although the CPS decision may in principle be reviewed, in practice it is rarely likely to be successfully reviewed.
I have confined my views as to the availability of judicial review of a CPS decision not to discontinue a prosecution to the position of juveniles because, of course, the present cases involve only juveniles. My view as to the position of
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adults, on the other hand, in this respect is that judicial review of a decision not to discontinue a prosecution is unlikely to be available. The danger of opening too wide the door of review of the discretion to continue a prosecution is manifest and such review, if it exists, must, therefore, be confined to very narrow limits. Juveniles and the policy with regard to them are, in my view, in a special position.
The arguments of both Mr Rhodes and Mr Cocks as to the merits, on the facts, of their applicants’ cases were extensively deployed. Without, I hope, seeming to denigrate the force of them I believe the response to them can be brief.
I preface what follows with the observation that it is not suggested that the procedures for inquiring into the circumstances of juveniles are inadequate in any way.
I grant that L could be said to be the victim of what might be thought to be a stern decision. All the criteria, save for the seriousness of the offence, are on his side. However, the senior police officer who dealt with him felt that the circumstances of the offence warranted prosecution, the satisfactory criteria notwithstanding. That was a view which the CPS, as the affidavits show, felt able to share after a conversation with an even more senior police officer involved.
It may be that some other police officer would have taken the opposite view, but he who took the decision was very experienced in juvenile cases and advised cautions in about 98% of them. I feel unable to say that, although there may be room for two views about the seriousness of the offence with which L is charged, the decision to continue the proceedings was in any way flawed. It was a proper exercise of discretion.
For those reasons I would dismiss L’s application.
B’s application is basically founded on, I suspect, sympathy as much as the alleged failure by the YACS to investigate circumstances adequately and likewise the CPS to ensure that that had been done. I do not think upon the affidavit evidence that it has come anywhere near being demonstrated that the CPS fell below the standard of care and inquiry to be expected in the circumstances, nor before the matter was referred to the CPS did the police. The prosecution evidence continues to be challenged and it reveals, if it were true, quite a determined and blatantly executed offence. I detect nothing to alert me to suppose that the CPS did not consider the public interest and all other matters which had to be borne in mind in deciding whether a 12-year-old girl should appear before the juvenile court. I would dismiss her application too.
French J, who is not able to be here, agrees with my judgment.
Finally I make a restriction order under s 39 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933. That affects of course the publication of the names of the juveniles.
Applications dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Inland Revenue Commissioners, ex parte Mead and another
[1993] 1 All ER 772
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): STUART-SMITH LJ AND POPPLEWELL J
Hearing Date(s): 9, 10, 11, 20 MARCH 1992
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Decision to prosecute – Offence in connection with tax evasion – Commissioners’ policy of selective prosecution – Commissioners deciding to prosecute applicants but not other taxpayers alleged to be guilty of similar offences – Whether decision amenable to judicial review – Whether availability of alternative remedies precluding application for judicial review – Whether decision unlawful and ultra vires.
In November 1990, following an investigation of the tax affairs of S, who had acted as the accountant to the applicants and other taxpayers, the Commissioners of Inland Revenue, who operated a policy of selective prosecution, ordered the prosecution of the applicants for criminal offences in connection with tax evasion, and in March 1991 summonses were served on them. Criminal charges were brought against S relating to the affairs of several taxpayers, including the applicants, but it was decided not to prosecute any of the other taxpayers although it was clear that they were alleged to have been knowingly involved in, and to have benefited from, significant and protracted dishonesty towards the Revenue. The applicants sought judicial review of the Revenue’s decision to prosecute them. Although they did not challenge the lawfulness of the Revenue’s selective prosecution policy, they contended (i) that a comparison of their cases should have been made with those of the other taxpayers and only if there were distinguishing features which made the applicants’ cases more serious was the decision to prosecute them justified and (ii) that, in the absence of such a comparative exercise, the decision to prosecute them was unfair and involved an inconsistent treatment of taxpayers, and was accordingly unlawful and ultra vires. The Revenue contended (i) that a decision to prosecute an adult in the courts taken by the relevant prosecuting authority was not amenable to judicial review since there was adequate protection in the inherent powers of the criminal court to dismiss a prosecution for abuse of process or alternatively (ii) that if there was such a jurisdiction the decision to prosecute the applicants was not reviewable.
Held - (1) (Per Stuart-Smith LJ, Popplewell J contra) As a matter of principle, a decision to prosecute an adult in the courts by a prosecuting authority was in theory susceptible to judicial review, although the circumstances in which such jurisdiction could be successfully invoked would be rare in the extreme. Furthermore, the fact that there were alternative remedies in the magistrates’ courts or the Crown Court in respect of some matters, ie abuse of process or inadequate evidence to justify trial or conviction, did not prevent direct access to the High Court if those remedies did not cover the whole ambit of the jurisdiction in judicial review. Accordingly, the decision by the Revenue to prosecute the applicants was amenable to judicial review (see p 782 d e j to p 783 b, post); R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, Selvarajan v Race Relations Board [1976] 1 All ER 12, R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137 and R v Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary, ex p L (a minor) [1993] 1 All ER 756 considered.
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(2) (Per Stuart-Smith LJ, Popplewell J contra) Although it was a principle of public law that an authority charged with the duty of exercising its discretion had to do so fairly and consistently, each case had to be considered in the light of its own facts to see whether the conduct of which complaint was made was unfair or inconsistent. Although it might be inherent in the Revenue’s selective prosecution policy that there might be inconsistency and unfairness between one dishonest taxpayer and another who was guilty of a very similar offence, any requirement that all dishonest taxpayers guilty of similar offences should be treated in like manner would be both inconsistent with the policy of selectivity and impracticable. The requirement of fairness and consistency in the light of the Revenue’s policy of selective prosecution was that each case had to be considered on its merits fairly and dispassionately to see whether the criterion for prosecution was satisfied. The decision to prosecute had then to be taken in good faith for the purpose of fulfilling the Revenue’s objective of collecting taxes and not some ulterior, extraneous or improper purpose. Since the applicants did not dispute that their cases had been so considered and since they did not challenge the lawfulness of the Revenue’s selective prosecution policy, the application would (Popplewell J concurring on the ground that the court had no jurisdiction to hear the application) be dismissed (see p 777 e, p 783 c to g, p 784 b to e and p 785 f, post); HTV Ltd v Price Commission [1976] ICR 170, IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93 and Preston v IRC [1985] 2 All ER 327 considered.
Notes
For the institution of criminal proceedings generally, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 646.
For proceedings for criminal offences relating to tax, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1735–1737.
Cases referred to in judgments
DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, [1976] 2 WLR 857, HL.
Hallett v A-G [1989] 2 NZLR 87, NZ HC.
Holgate-Mohammed v Duke [1984] 1 All ER 1054, [1984] AC 437, [1984] 2 WLR 660, HL.
HTV Ltd v Price Commission [1976] ICR 170, CA.
IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93, [1982] AC 617, [1981] 2 WLR 722, HL.
Preston v IRC [1985] 2 All ER 327, [1985] AC 835, [1985] 2 WLR 836, HL.
R v Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary, ex p L (a minor) [1993] 1 All ER 756, DC.
R v Crown Court at Derby, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164, DC.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212, [1990] 3 WLR 323, DC.
R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118, [1968] 2 WLR 893, CA.
R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Smith (1982) 75 Cr App R 200, DC.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, [1991] 2 WLR 866, DC.
Raymond v A-G [1982] 2 All ER 487, [1982] QB 839, [1982] 2 WLR 849, CA.
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Riches v DPP [1973] 2 All ER 935, [1973] 1 WLR 1019, CA.
Selvarajan v Race Relations Board [1976] 1 All ER 12, [1975] 1 WLR 1686, CA.
Turner v DPP (1978) 68 Cr App R 70.
Cases also Cited
A-G of Hong Kong v Ng Yuen Shiu [1983] 2 All ER 346, [1983] 2 AC 629, PC.
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, HL.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, HL.
Padfield v Minister of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997, HL.
R v Board of Inland Revenue, ex p MFK Underwriting Agencies Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 91, [1990] 1 WLR 1545, DC.
R v Caird (1970) 54 Cr App R 499, CA.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087, DC.
R v Civil Service Appeal Board, ex p Cunningham [1991]4 All ER 310, CA.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Cunningham (1991) Times, 31 October, DC.
R v Gilmore [1992] Crim LR 67, CA.
R v Lancashire CC, ex p Huddleston [1986] 2 All ER 941, CA.
R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn (No 3) [1973] 1 All ER 324, [1973] QB 241, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Khan [1985] 1 All ER 40, [1984] 1 WLR 1337, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Mowla [1992] 1 WLR 70, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Ruddock [1987] 2 All ER 518, [1987] 1 WLR 1482.
Application for judicial review
Arthur Mead and Brian Cook applied, with the leave of Macpherson J given on 19 June 1991, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quosh the decisions of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue in or about November 1990 to prosecute them for alleged criminal offences and in or about March 1991 to serve summonses against them in respect of those alleged criminal offences. The applicants also sought a declaration that the decisions were ultra vires and unlawful. The facts are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ.
Michael Beloff QC, Robert Rhodes QC and David Pannick (instructed by Berwin Leighton) for the applicants.
Alan Moses QC, Jonathan Fisher and Rabinder Singh (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
20 March 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ.
Introduction
This is an application for judicial review of a decision made by the Commissioners of Inland Revenue in November 1990 to prosecute Arthur Mead and Brian Cook (the applicants) for criminal offences in connection with tax
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evasion and a consequent decision in March 1991 to serve summonses on them. The applicants seek an order of certiorari to quash the decisions and a declaration that they are ultra vires and unlawful. The application is brought pursuant to leave granted by Macpherson J on 19 June 1991.
The facts
The charges relate to offences alleged to have been committed between 1981 and 1985 inclusive at a time when the applicants owned and controlled a company called Protech Instruments and Systems Ltd (Protech). During this period Geoffrey Charles Scannell, who is now retired, was the professional accountant advising the applicants and Protech. There are five charges against Mr Mead. Two of them are joint with Dr Cook and Mr Scannell, two are joint with Mr Scannell alone. One is against Mr Mead alone. There are also five charges against Dr Cook; in addition to the joint charges with Mr Mead, he faces two charges jointly with Mr Scannell and one in which he alone is charged. The joint charges are much the most serious. They fall into two groups: those that allege fraudulent extraction of funds from Protech: the Revenue case is that by means of forged invoices and false accounting the costs of Protech were exaggerated and the sales were deflated thereby diminishing the apparent profits. The money was eventually paid into an offshore account. The other group relates to the alleged fraudulent provision of private building work charged to Protech. These charges are said to be specimen charges. It is possible that the applicants may face a further charge of conspiracy.
According to the Revenue the tax avoided was £272,308 of which some £158,000 is attributable to Dr Cook and the balance to Mr Mead. The individual charges involve in each case sums of about £750. It is very unlikely that if these stood alone the applicants would face prosecution. Both applicants deny the charges.
Mr Scannell was a partner in the firm of Messrs Thompson Scannell, chartered accountants. He is charged with 17 offences, including those involving the applicants. They relate to the affairs of six other taxpayers who were his clients; the offences are alleged to have been committed between 1981 and 1988 inclusive and again they are specimen charges. The matters arise out of a long-running investigation of Mr Scannell’s activities and involve a total of some 50 taxpayers in all and it is still continuing.
None of the other taxpayers, or at least none of the six whose affairs are the subject of charges against Mr Scannell is to be prosecuted, although it is clear that some are alleged to have been knowingly involved in and to have benefited from significant and protracted dishonesty towards the Revenue, although it is said that the amounts of tax avoided is significantly less, the highest amounting to £65,101; but it is right to say that these figures are disputed by the applicants. Some, perhaps most, of these other taxpayers are to be called as witnesses against Mr Scannell. In most of the other six cases the Revenue have been content to exact penalties instead of proceeding by way of prosecution. The amount of penalty can be up to 100% of the tax avoided.
The Revenue’s policy in relation to prosecution can conveniently be found set out in the Report of the Committee on Enforcement Powers of the Revenue Departments (Cmnd 8822) under the chairmanship of Lord Keith of Kinkel, dated March 1983 (the Keith Report):
‘Departmental views
22.1.4. The Inland Revenue explained and justified their prosecution policy to us in the same terms as they had used to the Royal Commission on
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Criminal Proceedings. They noted first, that the tax legislation contains (civil) money penalties for many offences, up to and including fraud. As they said: “It clearly envisages that severe money penalties will be the common punishment of the tax evader”. They also fully acknowledge “the practical consideration that the burden of preparing a large number of prosecutions to the required standard and of seeing them through the courts would require many more trained and qualified staff”. They stressed the importance of prosecution as a deterrent, and that there should be no categories of offence where the weapon was never deployed “because it is the possibility of prosecution which prevents the spread of tax fraud to unacceptable limits”. They pointed out that “simple objective criteria such as the amount of tax evaded” might be used to set de minimis limits to exclude the smaller cases, but were unsuited to be the sole basis for decisions to prosecute. While recognising, therefore, the possible pitfalls in selectivity, the Department sought to avoid them by reserving the decision to prosecute to officials at Under Secretary or Deputy Secretary level.
Discussion and conclusions
22.1.5. We had no hesitation in rejecting the extreme alternatives of “prosecute all or none”. We found no reason to disturb the settled practice of over fifty years of inland Revenue taking civil money penalties for the overwhelming majority of detected offences of tax evasion. We regard as justified the department’s view that an ultimate sanction of prosecution is essential to protect the integrity of a tax system which is primarily dependant upon the accuracy of information passed to it by its taxpayers and others. When asked to sign a declaration on a tax return, the taxpayer is faced with the admonitory statement “false statements can result in prosecution”. It follows that, if the deterrent is to retain its credibility, prosecution ought to follow in, as the Department put it, “some examples of all classes of tax fraud”.’
At paras 22.1.7 and 22.1.8 the committee deal with the ‘badges of heinousness’ as follows:
‘22.1.7. The presence of one of the “badges” of heinousness as viewed by the Department makes a case more likley to be selected for prosecution. Bearing in mind that the presence of intention to decieve is crutial we find it difficult to find anything to object to in the Department’s selection as criteria of (b) evidence of collusion between the taxpayer and others; (c) evidence that documents have been forged with intent to deceive the Revenue: or (d) evidence of other irregularities which are denied on challenge. We likewise endorse the Department being more ready to initiate criminal proceedings against individuals who (category (f)) have already enjoyed the benefit of a negotiated settlement following a previous investigation or who, (category (e)) while making a show of cooperation, withhold significant information leading to a materially incomplete disclosure in a current investigation.
22.1.8. The remaining indicia of heinousness are more subjective in that they require the Board to take a view about either the status of the potential offender (category (a)) or about particular exceptional circumstances in relation to the offence itself, for example, the amount of tax at risk in absolute terms or where the nature of the fraud is particulary ingenious (category (g)). This amounts to selecting a case for prosecution for exemplary purposes, both as a warning to others who might be minded to do likewise and as a
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reminder to the general public that the “big” offender in any sense cannot escape the public disgrace of a criminal trial.’
Mr Roberts is an under secretary in the Inland Revenue and director of the compliance and collection division of the Board of Inland Revenue. It was he who authorised the prosecution of the applicants. Before doing so he considered reports by the Revenue investigators and their group leader together with a covering report by a principal inspector of taxes and the assistant director of the compliance and collection division. These reports indicated that the type of offences to which I have referred were committed by the applicants, that they were well aware of the nature of the frauds and had taken an active and extensive role in the perpetration of them. He did not accept that the offences against them as individuals could properly be described as venial. In his affidavit he says:
‘I was aware, before making the order to prosecute, that other clients of Mr Scannell who had participated in schemes of tax evasion on Mr Scannell’s advice were not being recommended to me for consideration for prosecution. I took the view, however, that the fact that these other clients were not being proposed for prosecution was not a reason why I should not order that criminal proceedings be taken against Mr Scannell, Dr Cook and Mr Mead.’
Mr Roberts therefore makes it clear that he considered the cases of the applicants on their own merits and not in comparison with those of others.
The nature of the challenge
The applicants do not challenge the lawfulness of the Revenue’s policy of selective prosecution as set out in the Keith Report. What is complained of is the application of the policy in the case of the applicants. Mr Beloff QC for the applicants submits that Mr Roberts, or someone else in the Revenue, should have compared their cases with that of the other six taxpayers, or the other 48 or however many there are who were engaged in similar frauds and were clients of Mr Scannell and only if there were distinguishing features which made their cases more serious than the others is the decision to prosecute them justified. In the absence of this comparative exercise and in the light of the evidence which suggests that other clients of Mr Scannell had been engaged in similar schemes, can the decision to prosecute be lawful? He submits that the decision is unfair and involves inconsistent treatment of taxpayers and is unlawful and ultra vires the powers of the Revenue for that reason. He sought at one time to rely on a document called the ‘Taxpayer’s Charter’, which is apparently a publication put out by the Revenue which contains the statement: ‘You will be treated in the same way as other taxpayers in similar circumstances.’
For my part I do not think the document is concerned with the Revenue’s policy on prosecution; but in any event Mr Beloff accepted that it added nothing to his case. Mr Beloff also submitted that the applicants had a legitimate expectation that they would be treated equally with other taxpayers, that is to say allegedly fraudulent taxpayers, and this expectation was not fulfilled unless the comparative exercise, to which I have referred, was conducted and established the necessary distinguishing features between their cases and that of others of Mr Scannell’s clients.
The Revenue’s response
Mr Moses QC for the Crown submits that a decision to prosecute an adult in the courts taken by the relevant prosecuting authority is not amenable to judicial
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review; alternatively, if there is jurisdiction to entertain such an application, this decision is not reviewable.
Is the decision to prosecute an adult in the courts taken by the relevant prosecuting authority judicially reviewable?
I pose the question in that way because: (i) a decision not to prosecute is reviewable (see R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118); (ii) a decision by the Crown Prosecution Service to prosecute a juvenile is reviewable (see R v Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary, ex p L (a minor) [1993] 1 All ER 756); (iii) it may be that there is a distinction between a prosecution before a domestic or professional tribunal and a prosecution in the courts.
There is no authority directly in point, though there are expressions of opinion by judges in this court in recent cases. Mr Beloff submits that as a matter of principle such a decision, being an exercise of executive or administrative discretion by a person acting pursuant to a public duty, whether empowered by statute, statutory instrument or the prerogative, is subject to the supervisory procedures of the court (see R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 esp at 575–577, [1987] QB 815 esp at 836–838 per Lord Donaldson MR).
The Board of Inland Revenue is the creature of statute, its function being to collect and cause to be collected every part of inland revenue (see the Inland Revenue Regulation Act 1890, ss 1 and 13, and the Taxes Management Act 1970, s 1). There is no express statutory power to prosecute; but it is common ground that the Revenue have such power in aid of their overall function.
In R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118 the court appears to have drawn a distinction between matters of policy in relation to prosecution, which is reviewable, and the exercise of discretion in each individual case, which is not. Lord Denning MR said ([1968]1 All ER 763 at 769, [1968] 2 QB 118 at 136):
‘Although the chief officers of police are answerable to the law, there are many fields in which they have a discretion with which the law will not interfere. For instance, it is for the Commissioner of Police, or the chief constable, as the case may be, to decide in any particular case whether enquiries should be pursued, or whether an arrest should be made, or a prosecution brought. It must be for him to decide on the disposition of his force and the concentration of his resources on any particular crime or area. No court can or should give him direction on such a matter. He can also make policy decisions and give effect to them, as, for instance, was often done when prosecutions were not brought for attempted suicide; but there are some policy decisions with which, I think, the courts in a case can, if necessary, interfere. Suppose a chief constable were to issue a directive to his men that no person should be prosecuted for stealing any goods less than £100 in value. I should have thought that the court could countermand it. He would be failing in his duty to enforce the law.’
And Salmon LJ said ([1968] 1 All ER 763 at 771, [1968] 2 QB 118 at 138–139):
‘In my judgment the police owe the public a clear legal duty to enforce the law—a duty which I have no doubt they recognise and which generally they perform most conscientiously and efficiently. In the extremely unlikely event, however, of the police failing or refusing to carry out their duty, the
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court would not be powerless to intervene. For example, if, as is quite unthinkable, the chief police officer in any district were to issue an instruction that as a matter of policy the police would take no steps to prosecute any housebreaker, I have little doubt but that any householder in that district would be able to obtain an order of mandamus for the instruction to be withdrawn. Of course, the police have a wide discretion whether or not they will prosecute in any particular case. In my judgment, however, the action which I have postulated would be a clear breach of duty. It would be so improper that it could not amount to an exercise of discretion.’
In Selvarajan v Race Relations Board [1976] 1 All ER 12, [1975] 1 WLR 1686 Lawton LJ drew an analogy between the functions of the Race Relations Board and the Director of Public Prosecutions. He said of the director ([1976] 1 All ER 12 at 21, [1975] 1 WLR 1686 at 1697):
‘He receives complaints from public bodies and members of the public, he can start investigations; and if he is of the opinion that there is sufficient evidence to justify a prosecution, he can initiate one; but he does not decide guilt or innocence. As far as I know, the courts have never interfered with the exercise of the director’s discretion; but it does not follow that they could not do so if he refused or failed to perform his public duties or acted corruptly or unfairly … ‘
Mr Beloff relies on these last few words.
In R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212 this court held that a decision by the Bar Council in professional conduct proceedings to prefer a less serious charge than that which the complainant maintained should be preferred was reviewable, though the application was dismissed on the merits. Mr Moses seeks to distinguish that case on two grounds. First he submits that a decision to prefer a lesser rather than a more serious charge is akin to a decision not to prosecute, and for reasons to which I shall shortly come there is a material difference between the two. Second because that is a case of a domestic or professional tribunal and not a prosecution in the courts. But the court did not seem to draw any such distinction and considered the question under the heading ‘Is a prosecuting authority’s decision whether or not to prosecute reviewable at all?’ (see [1990] 3 All ER 137 at 149–152, [1991] 1 QB 212 at 231–234), Watkins LJ, giving the judgment of the court after reviewing the authorities including Ex p Blackburn and Selvarajan v Race Relations Board, said ([1990] 3 All ER 137 at 152, [1991] 1 QB 212 at 234):
‘In our view such discretion is plainly reviewable but the question is whether the limits of review should be as strict as those contended for by the Bar Council. Much will depend, we think, on the powers of the body subject to review, the procedures which it is required to follow and on the way in which a particular proceeding has been conducted; there is potentially an almost infinite variety of circumstances. We do not think it right that strictly defined limits should be set to the judicial review of a body which can broadly be described as a prosecuting authority. Each case must be considered with due regard to the powers, functions and procedures of the body concerned and the manner in which it has dealt (or not dealt) with the particular complaint or application. This complaint should not, we think, fail because the applicant is unable to demonstrate that it was not dealt with at all or excluded by the adoption of an illegitimate prior policy. It falls to be decided, in our view, on the substantive issues of irrationality and/or
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procedural irregularity, with due regard to the nature of the discretion involved.’
In R v Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary, ex p L (a minor) [1993] 1 All ER 756 this court held that the discretion of the Crown Prosecution Service to continue or discontinue a prosecution against a juvenile was reviewable but only where it could be shown that the decision was made regardless of or clearly contrary to a settled policy of the Director of Public Prosecutions evolved in the public interest such as a policy of cautioning juveniles. The two applications in that case failed on the merits.
Watkins LJ, after referring to the passage in his judgment in Ex p Percival, which I have quoted above, said (at 788): ‘The statement relates to other bodies with very different responsibilities and discretions to which perhaps a less rigorous approach to judicial review might apply.’
Contrary to Mr Beloff’s submissions, I agree with Mr Moses that Watkins LJ is here saying that it may be easier to obtain judicial review against such a body rather than the police, who at the time of Ex p Blackburn were the prosecuting authority. Be that as it may, the fact that it is difficult to review the discretion of a body charged with the duty of prosecuting in the courts does not mean that it is impossible.
In the next passage in his judgment in Ex p L Watkins LJ drew a distinction between the decision not to prosecute or to discontinue a prosecution which was reviewable on the principles laid down in Ex p Blackburn and a decision to prosecute or continue a prosecution. He then dealt with a submission that is the foundation of Mr Moses’s contention in this case (at 768–769):
‘Mr Collins [counsel for the CPS] submitted that there is no circumstance in which the CPS decision to continue proceedings can be impugned in this court. If a decision to prosecute is wrongfully made the criminal court has, he said, ample powers, if abuse of its process is thereby occasioned, to refuse to deal with the proceedings. Otherwise, he said, an acquittal or the imposition of a nominal fine may be its response to an unmeritorious prosecution.’
And later he said (at 769–770):
‘The arguments presented by Mr Rhodes and Mr Cocks [counsel for the applicants] are founded on the following propositions. (1) The exercise by the chief constable and the commissioner of his administrative discretion is reviewable: see Holgate-Mohammed v Duke [1984] 1 All ER 1054 at 1057, [1984] AC 437 at 443, which is to be preferred to Lord Denning MR’s obiter comments in Ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763 at 769, [1968] 2 QB 118 at 126 and Hallett v A-G [1989] 2 NZLR 87. (2) Support is to be found in Ex p Percival and Ex p Blackburn for the contention that judicial review lies against a prosecuting authority of a decision to prosecute. (3) Although to enable every person prosecuted to delay his trial by seeking judicial review of the decision to prosecute could pose serious administrative problems, such applications could be contained by the filtering process of obtaining leave and the penalty of costs for the unsuccessful: R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 578, [1987] QB 815 at 840. (4) A lower court’s power to stop the proceedings because of an abuse of process is an inadequate remedy because it is not available in a case where a defendant intends to plead guilty: R v Derby Crown Court, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164. (5) A Crown Prosecutor has to exercise executive discretion under statute in deciding whether a prosecution
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which has been taken over should be discontinued. The code which he has to follow fairly closely resembles the Attorney General’s guidelines, Criteria for Prosecution, which were promulgated in February 1983. (6) The executive discretion exercised by a Crown Prosecutor in continuing or discontinuing a prosecution is one which is reviewable by the court if exercised in bad faith or based on the wrong principle: Raymond v A-G [1982] 2 All ER 487, [1982] QB 839, Turner v DPP (1978) 68 Cr App R 70 at 77, Riches v DPP [1973] 2 All ER 935 at 941, [1973] 1 WLR 1019 at 1026 and R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854 at 863, [1991] 2 QB 78 at 90, where the statement that the decision to commence criminal proceedings is not reviewable is not a considered statement of the law and is obiter (I was a party to that judgment and I am obliged, I think, to agree with that contention). (7) It has for many years been the policy of the Director of Public Prosecutions that he should not prosecute in every case where there was sufficient evidence but “wherever it appears that the offence or the circumstances of its commission is or are of such a character that a prosecution in respect thereof is required in the public interest” (see 483 HC Official Report (5th series) col 681, where Lord Shawcross when Attorney General quoted from the first regulations under which the Director of Public Prosecutions worked, which quotation is set out in the guidelines issued by the Attorney General, Criteria for Prosecution. That statement is specially apt in the case of a juvenile. I have come to the conclusion that, in respect of juveniles, the discretion of the CPS to continue or to discontinue criminal proceedings is reviewable by this court but only where it can be demonstrated that the decision was made regardless of or clearly contrary to a settled policy of the Director of Public Prosecutions evolved in the public interest, for example the policy of cautioning juveniles, a policy which the CPS are bound to apply, where appropriate, to the exercise of their discretion to continue or discontinue criminal proceedings. But I envisage that it will be only rarely that a defendant could succeed in showing that a decision was fatally flawed in such a manner as that.’
These are substantially the same arguments that were advanced by Mr Moses in this case. He does not however submit that Ex p L was wrongly decided; he seeks to distinguish it on the grounds that it related to juveniles and the policy of Parliament and the prosecuting authorities to keep juveniles out of the criminal system altogether. This policy would be frustrated once a decision to prosecute was implemented by a court appearance. Watkins LJ undoubtedly considered that there was or might be a difference between adults and juveniles. After summarising the policy with regard to juveniles as being that—
‘a prosecution should not occur unless it is required in the public interest, regard being given to the stigma of a conviction which can cause irreparable harm to the future prospects of a young person and to his previous character, parental attitude and the likelihood of the offence being repeated’,
he said (at 770–771):
‘I find it very difficult to envisage, with regard to that policy, a circumstance, fraud or dishonesty apart possibly, which would allow of a challenge to a decision to prosecute or to continue proceedings unless it could be demonstrated, in the case of a juvenile, that there had been either a total disregard of the policy or, contrary to it, a lack of inquiry into the circumstances and background of that person, previous offences and general character and so on, by the prosecutor and later by the CPS. But here too I
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envisage the possibility of showing that such disregard had happened as unlikely. Therefore, although the CPS decision may in principle be reviewed, in practice it is rarely likely to be successfully reviewed. I have confined my views as to the availability of judicial review of a CPS decision not to discontinue a prosecution to the position of juveniles because, of course, the present cases involve only juveniles. My view as to the position of adults, on the other hand, in this respect is that judicial review of a decision not to discontinue a prosecution is unlikely to be available. The danger of opening too wide the door of review of the discretion to continue a prosecution is manifest and such review, if it exists, must, therefore, be confined to very narrow limits. Juveniles and the policy with regard to them are, in my view, in a special position.’
It may be that in those last words Watkins LJ had in mind the distinction Mr Moses seeks to make. And naturally he relies strongly on the expression of opinion there set out. But in my judgment the distinction is only a reason why it is even more unlikely in the case of an adult that a successful application for judicial review could be made. The existence of the policy in relation to juveniles is at least a yardstick against which a decision could be tested. There is no such policy in the case of adults. It does not in my judgment affect the principle that a decision to prosecute by the prosecuting authority is in theory susceptible to judicial review, albeit the circumstances in which such jurisdiction could be successfully invoked will be rare in the extreme. Absurd examples, such as a policy only to prosecute black men or the political opponents of an outgoing government, which are virtually unthinkable, do however point to the theoretical existence of the jurisdiction to review. Fraud and corruption are perhaps other examples where the jurisdiction could be invoked. Mr Moses submitted that a person who is prosecuted has adequate protection in the inherent powers of the court, both magistrates’ courts and the Crown Court, to protect them from abuse of process and of course to dismiss it if the evidence is insufficient to make out the case. So far as abuse of process is concerned, the court’s powers are to be exercised within well-established principles which are strictly limited (see R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78 and R v Crown Court at Derby, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164). He submitted that this court should not interfere, by permitting direct access to a litigant seeking judicial review, with the prosecutor’s right of access to the courts which have power to control abuse of process. He relied on DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497 esp at 508–510, 527–528, 533–534, [1977] AC 1 esp at 23–25, 46, 53 per Viscount Dilhorne, Lord Salmon and Lord Edmund-Davies, as showing that a trial judge has no power to refuse to allow a prosecution to proceed merely because he considers that as a matter of policy it ought not to have been brought.
Mr Moses also pointed to the inconvenience and delay in the criminal process which would be occasioned by such application for review being entertained by this court, a feature which is highlighted in this case because a passage in the affidavit of Mr Bunker, who is the applicants’ tax consultant, indicates that an application to the magistrates’ court to strike out the prosecution on grounds of prejudice caused by delay is in contemplation. I pause only to say at this stage that, if Mr Beloff is right and judicial review will lie, then it will also lie on the grounds of abuse of process, though as a matter of discretion, if that is the only ground, the court will not entertain it because the litigant has an appropriate alternative remedy in the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court. It would in my view be an abuse of process to follow these proceedings, if unsuccessful, with an
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application to strike out for abuse of process, a matter which could have been raised in this court.
I see much force in these submissions of Mr Moses. Nevertheless I cannot see why, if this court has jurisdiction to quash an executive discretion on well recognised principles of judicial review, the fact that there is an alternative remedy in respect of some matters, ie abuse of process and inadequate evidence to justify trial or conviction, should prevent direct access to this court if those remedies do not cover the whole ambit of the jurisdiction in judicial review. If there is a gap the litigant should be able to avail himself of it. The gap is very small in the case of a juvenile; it is even smaller in the case of an adult, but it is not, at least in theory, non-existent.
Is the decision to prosecute the applicants unlawful and ultra vires?
Mr Beloff submits that though the gap may be narrow, the applicants are able to steer their cases through it. It is a principle of public law that an authority charged with the duty of exercising its discretion must do so fairly and consistently. The cases abound with statements to this effect. HTV Ltd v Price Commission [1976] ICR 170 at 185–186, 191–192 per Lord Denning MR and per Scarman LJ, approved in Preston v IRC [1985] 2 All ER 327 at 339–341, [1985] AC 835 at 864–867 per Lord Templeman and IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93 at 112, [1982] AC 617 at 651 per Lord Scarman are but a few examples. But all these cases have to be considered in the light of their own facts to see what was considered unfair or inconsistent conduct. The crucial factor in the present case is that the Revenue operate a selective policy of prosecution. They do so for three main reasons: first their primary objective is the collection of revenue and not the punishment of offenders; second they have inadequate resources to prosecute everyone who dishonestly evades payment of taxes; and third and perhaps most importantly they consider it necessary to prosecute in some cases because of the deterrent effect that this has on the general body of taxpayers, since they know that if they behave dishonestly they may be prosecuted. It is inherent in such a policy that there may be inconsistency and unfairness as between one dishonest taxpayer and another who is guilty of a very similar offence. Nevertheless while not challenging the validity of the policy Mr Beloff submits that there must be grafted onto it a requirement to treat all dishonest taxpayers guilty of similar offences in like manner: either all must be prosecuted or none. I reject this submission for two reasons. First it is inconsistent with the policy and cannot be operated consistently with it: you cannot be both selective and treat every case alike. Second it seems to me to be quite impracticable. How are the Revenue to decide what cases are alike? What is to be the basis of the group of cases that has to be considered? Over what period of time are the group to be considered? Are all cases involving forgery to be in one group? Or those involving forgery and false accounting? Are those who make a full disclosure to be in the same group as those who deny that they have acted dishonestly, although the Revenue consider that there is evidence that they have? These questions only have to be posed to demonstrate that it is quite impossible to answer them; and certainly in my judgment Mr Beloff was quite unable to proffer any convincing answer. What he did say was that there is an identifiable group of taxpayers here who were all clients of Mr Scannell. That appears to me to be a wholly adventitious and irrelevant consideration. It does not affect the nature or gravity of the offence; it only arises because in the course of investigation of Mr Scannell’s tax affairs the Revenue have uncovered alleged dishonest tax evasion on the part of a number of his clients, he is simply the common source from which the inquiry springs and the information flows.
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There may be other dishonest taxpayers who have been advised by dishonest accountants and who have embarked on similar schemes; why should they not be part of the group? Does the group consist only of the six other taxpayers referred to in Mr Bunker’s affidavit or the much larger number who are still being investigated and may turn out to have indulged in similar practices?
In my judgment the requirement of fairness and consistency in the light of the Revenue’s selective policy of prosecution is that each case is considered on its merits fairly and dispassionately to see whether the criterion for prosecution was satisfied; there is no dispute that the applicants’ cases were so considered. The decision to prosecute must then be taken in good faith for the purpose of fulfilling the Revenue’s objectives of collecting taxes and not for some ulterior, extraneous or improper purpose, such as the pursuit of some racialist bias, political vendetta or corrupt motive. This again is not in dispute.
The principle that a public body must not frustrate a citizen’s legitimate expectation takes the case no further. The only legitimate expectation that a dishonest taxpayer can have is that he may be selected for prosecution in accordance with the Revenue’s stated policy, and that in considering whether to do so the decision maker will act fairly in the sense that I have just defined.
Only if that policy could be attacked on grounds of irrationality could the applicants succeed. They do not attempt to do so. It was a policy that was approved by the Keith Committee and it seems to me, for the three reasons that I have given earlier, not only a rational policy but very probably the only workable policy.
For these reasons, in my judgment, this application must be dismissed.
POPPLEWELL J. I agree that this application should be dismissed. I only add some words of my own because I have even greater doubts than Stuart-Smith LJ whether we have jurisdiction in this case.
The relevant decisions have already been referred to. For my part I can envisage no situation in practice which could give rise to a remedy by way of judicial review which could not equally be treated by the courts as an abuse of its process. To my mind there is an essential difference in a situation where for instance it is decided as a matter of policy not to prosecute a white man because of his colour but as a matter of policy to prosecute a black man because of his colour. Although they may well be mirror images of the same situation the only way to challenge a failure to prosecute is by judicial review. However once the decision to prosecute is taken, the criminal courts are seised with jurisdiction. All the examples which Mr Beloff QC for the applicants posed seemed to me to be examples of abuse of process.
The decisions governing this particular problem leave the matter very much at large. Stuart-Smith LJ has already referred to what Watkins LJ said in R v Chief Constable of the Kent County Constabulary, ex p L (a minor) [1993] 1 All ER 756 esp at 769 where he qualified what was said by the court in R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78. It is clear however that Watkins LJ did contemplate a distinction between the prosecution of adults and juveniles—the latter being the subject of the decision in Ex p L. He said (at 771): ‘Juveniles and the policy with regard to them are, in my view, in a special position.’
In Badhan’s case a three-man Divisional Court consisting of Watkins, Mann LJJ and Otton J decided that in a justices’ inquiry into a rape case which was 16 years old they had power to refuse to undertake that inquiry on the ground that to do so would be an abuse. Mann LJ gave the judgment of the court and said ([1991] 2 All ER 854 at 862–863, [1991] 2 QB 78 at 90):
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‘We emphasise that the power which the justices have is one to prevent an abuse of process. They have no power to-refuse to embark on an inquiry because they think that a prosecution should not have been brought because it is, for example, mean-minded, petty or animated by personal hostility. It is for this reason that the powers of the justices are said to be “very strictly confined” (see R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Smith (1982) 75 Cr App R 200 at 204 per Lord Lane CJ). That being said, there is here a point of constitutional importance. It is the duty of any court, be that court superior or inferior, to protect its process from abuse. We believe that the number of cases in which examining justices are called upon to perform that duty is, and will remain, small. That it should remain small will be the result of a responsible exercise by prosecuting authorities of their powers to initiate proceedings. An exercise of those powers is not reviewable here.’ (My emphasis.)
For my part I would have been happy to accept and adopt what Mann LJ there said.
I would also like to add that while it is true that judicial review is a remedy which is calculated to be adaptable and broad in its concept (see Lord Donaldson MR in R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815) it has to be observed that attempts to stifle prosecutions by general allegations of unfairness in one form or another are now a growth industry. Direct access by way of judicial review is hardly calculated to stem that flow.
As Stuart-Smith LJ has already pointed out, the suggestion that in the instant case there should hereafter be some application to the magistrates’ court on the ground of abuse of process due to delay highlights the problems of this sort of application in a criminal case which ought to be speedily resolved and where an accused already has more than ample protection from the criminal courts and from a jury against any perceived unfairness. I would for my part be prepared to hold that we have no jurisdiction.
In the result, however, I agree with Stuart-Smith LJ that on the facts of this case the application should be dismissed.
Application dismissed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, pursuant to s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that the following points of law of general public importance were involved in the decision: (1) whether a decision by the Revenue to prosecute an adult for an alleged criminal offence is susceptible to judicial review; and (2) if so, whether a decision to prosecute may be successfully challenged on the ground that the prosecuting authority has not (for reasons set out in the Divisional Court judgments) compared the position of the proposed defendant with other alleged offenders.
6 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Goff of Chieveley and Lord Slynn of Hadley) refused leave to appeal.
Siew Ling Choo Barrister.
Practice Direction
(ex parte applications and consent orders)
[1993] 1 All ER 786
(Chancery 1/93)
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): 12 February 1993
Hearing Date(s): Practice – Chancery Division – Ex parte applications to master and consent orders – File to be bespoken from registry – Masters normally to deal only with cases allocated to them – Procedure in emergencies – Minutes of orders to be made by consent.
1. It has been the practice for many years for the Chancery masters to be available at 2.15 pm on working days for ex parte applications, to give advice about court procedure and to deal with urgent consent applications and urgent applications for stays of execution and the like.
2. Those intending to make such applications have been required to bespeak the file from the registry, 7th Floor, Thomas More Building (telephone: 071-936 7391 or 6146) by not later than 12 noon on the day of the application. In future the file must be bespoken by 4.30 pm on the previous day, except in cases of real emergency.
3. In future, and except in cases of real emergency, masters will only deal with ex parte applications relating to cases allocated to them (see Chancery Practice Direction (13)(A) in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 2, p 210, para 853).
4. Accordingly Chancery Practice Direction (5)(vi) in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 2, p 194, para 809 will now be replaced by the following:
‘(vi) Masters are normally available to hear ex parte applications at 2.15 pm on working days. Notice should be given to the masters’ clerk in room TM709 or by telephone on 071-936 6146 or 7391 by 4.30 pm on the previous day, except in cases of real emergency when notice may be given at any time.
If the allocated master (as shown in paragraph (13)(A) below) is not available on any particular day, the applicant will be informed and (except in cases of emergency) asked to come when the master is next available. Applications will only be heard by another master in cases of emergency or when the allocated master is on vacation.
Minutes of orders to be made by consent, signed by all relevant solicitors or parties, should, except in emergency, be left initially in room TM709 and not with the master.’
By direction of the Vice-Chancellor.
J M DYSON
12 February 1993 Chief Chancery Master.
Practice Direction
(Master’s lists: short notice list)
[1993] 1 All ER 787
PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
20 January 1993
Practice – Queen’s Bench Division – Lists – Masters’ lists – Short notice list – Urgent applications lasting five minutes or less – Conditions for inclusion in list – Form of summons – Fee – Lodging – Indorsement of backsheet – Lodging party to hand original summons to master at hearing – RSC Ord 4, r 8(1), Ord 6 6.
1. This practice direction only concerns litigation proceeding before the masters of the Queen’s Bench Division.
2. Under this practice direction a new list will be introduced on an experimental basis entitled the ‘short notice list’. This list will be available from 20 April 1993.
3. The short notice list is intended for applications which are expected to last for no more than five minutes and are fairly to be described as urgent. Applications for ‘unless’ orders will normally be considered as suitable for inclusion in this list.
4. The short notice list may only be used if EITHER all the following conditions are met: (a) all parties concerned in the summons are represented by solicitors and (b) all such solicitors have offices or agents who have been duly instructed in the London postal districts EC, WC, W1 and SW1 and (c) all such solicitors are equipped with facsimile transmission equipment (fax) and their fax numbers appear upon their printed stationery OR all parties to the summons consent to the summons being entered in the short notice list, in which case a certificate of such consent must be indorsed upon the backsheet of the document lodged.
5. To enter a summons in the short notice list it should be typed or printed as required by RSC Ord 66 and the appropriate fee paid. Thereafter the document upon which the receipt of the fee is marked should be lodged in room E216 at the Royal Courts of Justice. When issued in accordance with para 7 of this practice direction this document will become the original summons.
6. The backsheet of the document lodged in room E216 must be indorsed with the following:
‘For entry in Short Notice List. We certify that the minimum number of clear days required by the Rules of Court to elapse between the service of this summons and the return day is [fill in] days.’
In addition the backsheet must show the fax number, the telephone number and reference number of each party to the summons and the name of the assigned master. If no master has been assigned then the backsheet must be indorsed with the words ‘No assigned master’.
7. As soon as practicable after the lodging of the document in room E216 the Queen’s Bench Masters’ Secretary’s listing officer shall insert upon it the date, time and place of the hearing and the name of the master in whose short notice list the summons will be heard. He shall then issue the summons by application of the court seal.
8. A copy of the original summons shall then be transmitted by the court by fax to all parties to the summons at the fax numbers shown on the backsheet.
9. On receipt of information through the court’s fax equipment that successful transmission has been effected to all parties to the summons, the listing officer shall forthwith enter the summons for hearing in the short notice list. In the event of confirmation of successful transmission not being received through the court’s fax equipment from all parties to the summons, the listing officer shall forthwith inform any party to whom a copy of the summons has been successfully
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transmitted that the hearing is cancelled by reason of inability to serve all parties. Such information may be communicated by telephone, fax or otherwise at the court’s discretion.
10. The party who lodged the document in room E216 pursuant to para 5 of this practice direction shall be responsible for retrieving the original summons from that room before the hearing and shall hand it to the master at the hearing. Any order made on the hearing of the summons will be indorsed by the master on the original summons and not upon a fax copy.
11. In the event of the assigned master being on leave or for any other reason temporarily absent from the Royal Courts of Justice then the Queen’s Bench Masters’ Secretary’s listing officer may insert upon the document to be issued the name of some other master. In this event it should be assumed that a transfer has been effected pursuant to RSC Ord 4, r 8(1).
12. This practice direction is issued with the approval of the Lord Chief Justice.
KEITH TOPLEY
Senior Master,
20 January 1993 Queen’s Bench Division.
Morris and others v Director of Serious Fraud Office and others
[1993] 1 All ER 788
Categories: CRIMINAL; Corporate Crime, Criminal Procedure
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C
Hearing Date(s): 14, 15, 16, 31 JULY 1992
Company – Investigation by Serious Fraud Office – Seizure of documents – Disclosure to third party – Disclosure to liquidator of company – Liquidators applying for production of documents acquired by Serious Fraud Office under compulsory powers – Whether Serious Fraud Office having general power to disclose to liquidators documents obtained under compulsory powers – Whether third parties whose documents are in possession of Serious Fraud Office entitled to object to disclosure to liquidators – Insolvency Act 1986, s 236 – Criminal Justice Act 1987, ss 2(3), 3.
In the course of his investigation into the affairs of an insolvent deposit taking institution (BCCI) the Director of the Serious Fraud Office obtained a large number of documents from various sources, including the firm of chartered accountants who had provided auditing and accounting services to BCCI for some years prior to its liquidation. The documents were obtained either directly by the Serious Fraud Office pursuant to s 2(3)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, which empowered the Director to give notice to any person requiring him to produce any documents which appeared to the Director relevant to an investigation being conducted by the Serious Fraud Office, or by the police under search warrants and subsequently disclosed to the Serious Fraud Office. The liquidators of BCCI
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wished to obtain access to the records in the possession of the accountants but they were unwilling to make voluntary disclosure because of the possibility that the liquidators might bring legal proceedings against them. The liquidators accordingly applied under s 236b of the Insolvency Act 1986 for an order requiring the Serious Fraud Office to produce certain documents in its possession, including documents seized from the accountants and documents seized by the police from the premises of third parties. The Serious Fraud Office supported the application, contending that it was at liberty to give assistance to the liquidators, and that it could in its discretion make voluntary disclosure to the liquidators of documents in its possession obtained pursuant to the exercise of its compulsory powers or by the police. The liquidators contended that on a s 236 application the court was not concerned with the position of a third party whose documents were in the possession of the respondent to the application but was only concerned with whether the information sought would assist the liquidators and whether the person from whose possession the documents were sought would be prejudiced. The question arose as to the extent of the Serious Fraud Office’s power to make disclosure to the liquidators.
Held - (1) The Serious Fraud Office’s compulsory powers of investigation existed to facilitate the discharge of its primary functions of investigating serious fraud and instituting and conducting criminal proceedings relating to serious fraud and were not to be regarded as encroaching upon the rights of individuals more than was fairly and reasonably necessary to achieve the purpose for which the powers were created. Although s 3c of the 1987 Act authorised disclosure of information obtained in the exercise of those powers to certain persons, office-holders of a company such as liquidators, provisional liquidators, administrators and administrative receivers were not included among those to whom disclosure could be made. Furthermore, there was no justification for implying a general power for the Serious Fraud Office to disclose information obtained in the exercise of the compulsory powers conferred by the 1987 Act to persons not named in s 3. Likewise, information obtained by the police and subsequently disclosed to the Serious Fraud Office was subject to the same limitations on further disclosure as those applicable to information directly obtained by the Serious Fraud Office pursuant to an exercise of the compulsory powers contained in s 2 of the 1987 Act (see p 794 h to p 795 c h to p 796 b, post).
(2) When exercising its discretion under s 236 of the 1986 Act to order the Serious Fraud Office to disclose information obtained in the exercise of its compulsory powers the court had to weigh the advantages and disadvantages of making the order sought and when the documents belonged to or related to the affairs of a third party the court had to take into account any prejudice the third party might suffer if disclosure was ordered. Further, persons from whom documents were seized or the true owners of the documents were in general entitled to be given an opportunity to present to the court any objections they
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might have to the disclosure of the documents. Accordingly, in the ordinary way when an application was made or was proposed to be made against the Serious Fraud Office for an order under s 236 requiring disclosure of documents acquired by the office under its compulsory powers, a third party who might be affected by the disclosure ought to be notified of the application and the Serious Fraud Office’s attitude to disclosure, and asked whether he objected to an order being made. If his assent was not forthcoming, he should be joined as a respondent to the application. However in exceptional cases, if it was just to do so, the court could make an order under s 236 in the exercise of its discretion even though the third party had not been notified. In the circumstances the court would make an order in an agreed form concerning the documents in the possession of the accountants, would leave the form of the order relating to production of certain third party documents to be agreed between the parties and would adjourn the application so far as it related to the documents of other persons not parties to the application (see p 796 e to p 797 a h, 798 a e to h and p 800 d to g, post); Marcel v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 1 All ER 72 considered.
Notes
For the court’s power to order an inquiry into a company’s dealings under the Insolvency Act 1986, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1677–1678, and for cases on the subject, see 10(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 452–458, 9458–9493.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 236, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 886.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1987, s 2, 3, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1072, 1077.
Cases referred to in judgment
British and Commonwealth Holdings plc, Re (Nos 1 and 2) [1992] 2 All ER 801, [1992] Ch 342, [1992] 2 WLR 931, CA.
Marcel v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 1 All ER 72, [1992] Ch 225, [1992] 2 WLR 50, CA.
Rolls Razor Ltd, Re [1968] 3 All ER 698.
Cases also cited
Barlow Clowes Gilt Managers Ltd, Re [1991] 4 All ER 385, [1992] Ch 208.
Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1, CA.
Cloverbay Ltd (joint administrators) v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA [1991] 1 All ER 894, [1991] Ch 90, CA.
Hargreaves (Joseph) Ltd, Re [1900] 1 Ch 347, Ch D and CA.
Highgrade Traders Ltd, Re [1984] BCLC 151, CA.
London and County Securities Ltd v Nicholson [1980] 3 All ER 861, [1980] 1 WLR 948
Application
Christopher Morris, Nicholas Roger Lyle, John Parry Richards and Stephen John Akers, the joint liquidators of the Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (BCCI), applied for an order under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986 that the first respondent, the Director of the Serious Fraud Office, produce all books, correspondence and documents in the custody or power of the first respondent relating to BCCI as specified in a schedule to the application. Price Waterhouse (a firm of chartered accountants who had provided auditing and accounting services to BCCI prior to its liquidation) and Control Securities plc were the second and third respondents. The facts are set out in the judgment.
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Edward Bannister QC and Susan Prevezer (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for the liquidators.
A G Bompas (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Serious Fraud Office.
Roger Kaye QC and Paul Girolami (instructed by Herbert Smith) for Price Waterhouse.
Peter R Griffiths (instructed by DJ Freeman) for Control Securities.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. As everyone knows, the Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA, or BCCI for short, is in the course of being wound up. It is hopelessly insolvent. The task confronting the liquidators is gargantuan. BCCI and other companies in the group carried on business through 365 branches and agencies in about 70 countries. The group’s records are scattered throughout the world. In many countries the liquidators do not have unrestricted access to the group’s documents. In the United Kingdom alone there are 100m documents, principally at BCCI’s headquarters in the City of London and at 40 warehouse and branch premises. By January 1992 some 40m documents in 26,000 boxes had been logged on computer. The process of logging and reviewing all the documents in this country will take two years.
Price Waterhouse
One of the many problems facing the liquidators is the recoverability of loans shown in certain customer accounts. These are known as the problem loans. The liquidators need to establish whether each loan is recoverable and in which jurisdiction, whether any security given is valid and enforceable, whether there were any connected but unrecorded transactions regarding the loan, and whether the bank has any related claims against the customer or others.
Messrs Price Waterhouse, the well-known firm of chartered accountants provided auditing and accounting services to BCCI for some years prior to its liquidation. From June 1987 Price Waterhouse co-ordinated the worldwide audits and reviewed the consolidation of the accounts of BCCI and its associated company, Bank of Credit and Commerce International (Overseas) Ltd. They produced periodic reports for the college of banking supervisers. This body was established in 1988 to supervise and regulate the affairs of the group. Its members comprised the regulatory authorities of the United Kingdom, United Arab Emirates, Luxembourg, Cayman Islands and other countries. The group’s majority shareholders are situated in the United Arab Emirates, BCCI was incorporated in Luxembourg and BCCI Overseas in the Cayman Islands. As a result of the 1989 audit, some partners in Price Waterhouse became members of a committee set up by the Abu Dhabi government to investigate the problem loans. The committee was later reconstituted as a committee of BCCI and other companies in the group.
Not surprisingly, the liquidators turned to Price Waterhouse to help with the problem loans. It would be absurd for the liquidators to undertake afresh the identical task of investigation of the problem loans already carried out by Price Waterhouse and the investigating committee. The liquidators wanted to see the documents Price Waterhouse have regarding these loans, including the audit working papers. Price Waterhouse did not wish to be unhelpful but they were not willing to produce everything sought. They considered that the all-embracing nature of the request was oppressive. They were concerned at the effect disclosure could have on proceedings the BCCI group has brought or may yet bring against them. They were not prepared to make voluntary disclosure. Their solicitors
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suggested that the liquidators should make an application under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. The liquidators did not adopt that suggestion. Instead they followed a different course.
The Serious Fraud Office
There is evidence of fraud, on a massive scale, in the conduct of BCCI’s business. The Director of the Serious Fraud Office (the SFO) is investigating these matters, with a view to bringing criminal proceedings. Three persons have already been charged in England.
In the course of his investigations the Director has obtained large numbers of documents from a variety of sources here and abroad. One source comprises copies of documents produced in response to notices served by the Director under s 2(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987. That subsection empowers the Director to give notice to any person requiring him to produce any documents which appear to the Director to relate to a matter relevant to an investigation being conducted by the SFO. Another source consists of documents seized by the police exercising compulsory powers. A constable can enter and search premises and seize and retain documents pursuant to a search warrant issued by a justice of the peace under s 8 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. A constable has similar power if duly authorised by a police inspector pursuant to s 18 of that Act. A constable who is lawfully on any premises has power to seize documents and other items under s 19. Again, a constable has power to enter and search and take possession of documents pursuant to a search warrant issued by a justice of the peace, following information laid by a member of the SFO, under s 2(4) of the 1987 Act. One circumstance in which a warrant may be issued under s 2(4) is when a person has failed to comply with a notice served by the SFO under s 2(3).
Pursuant to notices served under s 2(3) the SFO has been supplied with many copy documents by Price Waterhouse. Further, in exercise of their powers the police have seized documents from Control Securities plc, its associated company Inarive Group (UK) Ltd, their subsidiaries and Mr Nazmudin Virani. I shall refer to these persons altogether as ‘the Control group’. Mr Virani was the chairman and chief executive of Control Securities before he was arrested. The documents seized from the Control group are voluminous. They were placed in over 200 sealed bags. Copies of about half these documents have already been supplied by the police to the SFO. The rest are still being copied, and copies will be handed over to the SFO when made.
The police have also taken possession of documents from other sources I shall mention later.
The s 236 application against the SFO
With this background the liquidators launched against the SFO an application under s 236, seeking production of 23 categories of documents. The liquidators’ view is that production of the documents by the SFO is the most expeditious and cost-effective way of obtaining documents required for the purposes of their investigations regarding pending proceedings by or against BCCI, and regarding the problem loans and other matters. The need to obtain some of the documents is urgent as there is a risk of claims becoming statute-barred.
The vast majority of the documents sought comprises copies of documents obtained directly by the SFO pursuant to a notice under s 2(3) of the 1987 Act or copies of documents seized by the police under search warrants. The Director’s view is that these documents acquired under compulsory powers will assist the liquidators in carrying out their task, and he wishes to disclose them to the liquidators if permitted by law to do so. Production of these documents will not prejudice the SFO in the performance of its duties.
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About 16 of the categories of documents sought relate to documents obtained from Price Waterhouse. For instance, category comprises reports prepared for meetings of the investigating committee dated April and June 1991; category 2 comprises minutes of certain meetings of this committee; and category 3 is concerned with correspondence between Price Waterhouse, BCCI and the controlling shareholders in connection with matters under investigation by the investigating committee. I need say no more about the Price Waterhouse documents. The parties reached agreement on the form of an order regarding them, and Price Waterhouse did not oppose an order being made in that form.
Further categories of documents sought comprise copies of the documents seized by the police from the Control group. The attitude of the Control group is that they do not object to an order being made subject to certain safeguards and conditions.
The remaining categories relate to documents seized from the premises of persons who are not parties to this application: from the home addresses of Mr Abedi and Mr Naqvi, two former officers of BCCI, from a safe deposit box in the name of Mr Iqbal, also a former officer of BCCI, and from Capcom Financial Services Ltd. Capcom Financial Services is a broker through which many of the bank’s treasury transactions took place. A flight log for a BCCI jet was also seized in the course of a search at Stanstead Airport.
The issues
This state of affairs has given rise to two principal issues. First, the liquidators contended that, in general, on a s 236 application the court is not concerned with the position of a third party whose documents are in the possession of the respondent to the application. The court is not concerned with any ground of objection the third party might have. The court is concerned only with whether the person from whose possession the documents are sought will be prejudiced, and with whether the information sought will assist the liquidator. The court balances these two interests if there is a conflict. Accordingly, it was submitted, there was no need for Capcom Financial Services, or Mr Abedi or the other former BCCI officers, to be joined in the proceedings or to be told of them, nor are the Control group’s concerns of any materiality on this application brought by the liquidators against the SFO.
For its part the SFO is concerned lest it become an unwilling participant in future applications of this nature, diverting its staff from getting on with their investigations of serious fraud. In its submissions the SFO went further than the liquidators. It contended, and this is the second issue, that as a matter of law it is at liberty to give assistance to liquidators, and that in its discretion it may make voluntary disclosure to them of documents in the SFO’s possession pursuant to an exercise of the compulsory powers mentioned above.
The Control group refuted the liquidators’ submissions on the first of these issues. They contended that the second issue does not arise because a s 236 application has been made and is before the court. Price Waterhouse wished to be heard on both issues. They feared they might be prejudiced in the future by an adverse decision given in these proceedings to which they are parties. I gave them leave to argue both points. Despite their agreement to the form of the order being made against them, Price Waterhouse have an interest in these issues. They are live issues, and the SFO needs to know where it stands. In the result I heard full argument on both points.
Voluntary disclosure to office-holders
The SFO was created as a serious fraud office for England and Wales and Northern Ireland by the Criminal Justice Act 1987. The Director is appointed by
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the Attorney General and he discharges his functions under the superintendence of the Attorney General. His functions are set out in s 1. By s 1(3) he may investigate any suspected offence which appears to him on reasonable grounds to involve serious or complex fraud. He may institute and have the conduct of, or take over the conduct of, criminal proceedings which appear to him to relate to such fraud (s 1(5)). The Attorney General may assign to him other functions in relation to fraud (s 1(6)). Section 2 confers on the Director wide powers but only for the purposes of an investigation under s 1. This power has been extended in relation to the Isle of Man, Jersey and Guernsey.
Section 3 is concerned with the disclosure of information by the SFO. Subsection (1) relates to information disclosed by the Commissioners of Inland Revenue to the SFO for the purposes of a prosecution of a tax offence. Where such information is subject to an obligation of secrecy under the Taxes Management Act 1970 it may be disclosed by the SFO for defined criminal prosecution purposes ‘but not otherwise’. Subsection (3) contains a similar provision regarding information subject to a secrecy obligation under other statutes. Subsection (5) provides:
‘Subject to subsections (1) and (3) above and to any provision of an agreement for the supply of information which restricts the disclosure of the information supplied, information obtained by any person in his capacity as a member of the Serious Fraud Office may be disclosed … (a) to any government department or Northern Ireland department or other authority or body discharging its functions on behalf of the Crown … (b) to any competent authority; (c) for the purposes of any prosecution in England and Wales, Northern Ireland or elsewhere; and (d) for the purposes of assisting any public or other authority for the time being designated for the purposes of this paragraph by an order made by the Secretary of State to discharge any functions which are specified in the order.’
Subsection (6) contains a list of competent authorities. It includes several classes of persons appointed to carry out investigative functions under statutes, such as inspectors appointed under the Companies Act 1985, the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Financial Services Act 1986. The list includes any body having supervisory, regulatory or disciplinary functions in relation to any profession or any area of commercial activity. It also includes any person or body having, under the law of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom, functions corresponding to any of the functions of any person or body mentioned in the list.
Since the SFO is the creature of statute, its powers and functions comprise, and are confined to, the powers and functions expressly or impliedly conferred or imposed upon it by the statute. The information obtained by the SFO is obtained to enable or assist it to carry out its primary functions of investigating serious fraud and instituting and conducting criminal proceedings relating to serious fraud. Section 3 authorises disclosure of that information to other persons, but liquidators and provisional liquidators and administrators and administrative receivers, conveniently referred to as ‘office-holders’, are not included in the list of these to whom disclosure may be made.
In the absence of an express power to make disclosure to office-holders, is a power to make disclosure to them to be implied? In my view it is not. Whether the list in s 3 is to be regarded as exhaustive for all purposes in respect of information obtained by the SFO from all types of sources is not a matter I need pursue on this application. Suffice to say I can see no justification for implying a general power for the SFO to disclose information, obtained in the exercise of
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compulsory powers conferred by the Act, to persons not named in s 3. That, surely, is only what one would expect. The compulsory powers of investigation exist to facilitate the discharge by the SFO of its statutory investigative functions. The powers conferred by s 2 are exercisable only for the purposes of an investigation under s 1. When information is obtained in exercise of those powers the SFO may use the information for those purposes and purposes reasonably incidental thereto and such other purposes as may be authorised by statute, but not otherwise. Compulsory powers are not to be regarded as encroaching more upon the rights of individuals than is fairly and reasonably necessary to achieve the purpose for which the powers were created. That is to be taken as the intention of Parliament, unless the contrary is clearly apparent.
One submission made was that, even if there is no general power for the SFO to disclose information obtained compulsorily, the SFO does have power to disclose such information to office-holders. The official receiver is one of the persons specified in the list of competent authorities. When a winding-up order is made he becomes the liquidator of the company and he continues in office until another person becomes liquidator in his place. Hence, so it was argued, if the SFO’s contention is rejected one would have the curious position that when a winding-up order is made the SFO can disclose information to the official receiver, but as soon as another liquidator is appointed in his place the SFO must stop doing so. Further, the new liquidator could use the information which had been disclosed to the official receiver. In my view the inclusion of the official receiver in the list of competent authorities cuts both ways. By drawing a distinction between the official receiver and other liquidators the Act does produce the results just mentioned. But the presence of the official receiver in the list of competent authorities makes more marked the absence of office-holders. That suggests their omission was deliberate, and not an oversight. The explanation for the inclusion of the official receiver in the list despite the absence of liquidators may well lie in the particular statutory duties imposed on him. For example, he is under a duty to investigate the causes of the failure of a company and generally the business, dealings and affairs of the company (s 132 of the Insolvency Act 1986). I cannot divine here an unexpressed but implicit intention by Parliament that disclosure of information to office-holders was one of the purposes of the 1987 Act. Nor, in my view, is such disclosure reasonably incidental to those purposes.
I appreciate that the SFO’s contention would leave the Director with a discretion. He would only make disclosure if satisfied that the case was a proper one to do so. I am not impressed by this. This argument does not advance the SFO’s case. I am concerned to construe a statute which confers power to obtain information compulsorily. Plainly, the SFO may use the information for its own investigative purposes. Parliament has also expressly authorised the SFO to disclose the information to specified persons. In respect of those specified persons the Director has a discretion (‘may be disclosed’). The issue before me is whether, having regard to the objectives of the Act, it is implicit that the Director has the like discretion in respect of a wider group. In my view it is not.
I pause to note that the matter stands differently if the person from whom the documents were obtained, either by a notice under s 2(3) or a warrant issued under s 2(4), consents to the disclosure sought. In such a case the SFO’s authority to disclose the documents to an office-holder, or anyone else, will derive from the consent.
Thus far I have addressed myself to the disclosure by the SFO of information obtained pursuant to an exercise of the powers contained in s 2 of the Act. There remains the position regarding information obtained by the police compulsorily under the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 and disclosed later to the SFO.
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In my view the position here is the same as described above. Whatever may be the position regarding information obtained from other sources and disclosed voluntarily to the SFO, in my view information obtained by the police compulsorily under the 1984 Act is, in the hands of the SFO, subject to similar limitations on further disclosure as those applicable to information directly obtained by the SFO pursuant to an exercise of the compulsory powers contained in s 2 of the 1987 Act. I can see no ground for distinguishing these two cases.
Section 236 applications: the position of third parties
I turn to the other issue. Section 236(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 empowers the court, on the application of an office-holder, to summon before it a wide range of persons:
‘(a) any officer of the company, (b) any person known or suspected to have in his possession any property of the company or supposed to be indebted to the company, or (c) any person whom the court thinks capable of giving information concerning the … business, dealings, affairs or property of the company.’
Such a person can be required by the court to produce any books, papers or, records in his possession or under his control relating to the company or its business, dealings, affairs or property.
The present application is not concerned with providing evidence by answering questions. The application is concerned only with the production of documents, and I shall confine my remarks accordingly. Section 236 confers a discretion on the court. When exercising its discretion the court has to weigh the advantages and disadvantages of making the order sought. The court will take into account any prejudice the office-holder may suffer in carrying out his duties if an order for production of the documents is refused. Conversely, the court will have regard to any prejudice the respondent may suffer if an order is made. When the documents whose production is sought belong to or relate to the affairs of a third party, in principle it must be right that the court should also take into account any prejudice the third party may suffer if production is ordered. By a ‘third party’ I mean a person other than the person who has possession or control of the documents. Otherwise the position would be that a liquidator would be in a better position by bringing an application under s 236 against an agent of a third party than if he had made the application directly against the third party. That cannot be right, and I see nothing in the legislative scheme of which s 236 is part which would lead to that conclusion. Under the section the court has an unfettered discretion. There is no reason why the court should have to wear blinkers when exercising this discretion and be unable to have regard to the interests of a third party who would be adversely affected by an order to produce documents.
The present case affords a striking example of how unsatisfactory and unjust such an artifically narrow approach would be in some circumstances. The documents of which production is sought are in the possession of the SFO. They are copies of documents belonging to third parties. According to the liquidators, the third parties need not be joined as parties to the s 236 application, because the court is not concerned with their interests at all. The court is concerned only to balance the interests of the SFO against production and the interests of the liquidators in favour of production. If an order for production would not be oppressive so far as the SFO is concerned or inimical to the proper functioning of the SFO in this case or generally, production should be ordered regardless of whether this would be oppressive to the third party in question.
I have no hesitation in rejecting this submission. It would mean that the third
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party would be worse off than if the liquidators had made their application directly against him and that this would be so as a result of the exercise of compulsory powers having a different objective. I altogether reject the notion that in the exercise of a discretion, under which the court may and should look at all relevant circumstances, that can be the position.
There is no reported decision on the point, either concerning s 236 generally or concerning a case where the documents sought have been acquired under compulsory powers. However, in the latter regard there is a compelling analogy in Marcel v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 1 All ER 72, [1992] Ch 225. There the police had seized documents under the 1984 Act. A defendant in civil proceedings issued a subpoena to produce documents against the police officer in charge of the investigations, requiring production of some of the seized documents in court at the trial of the civil proceedings. The police themselves had no objection to production. The Court of Appeal held that the police officer, like anyone else, is amenable to produce on subpoena any documents in his possession, subject to the true owner having the right to challenge the subpoena, or the production of the documents, on any of the grounds on which a subpoena can be challenged. That includes the ground of legal professional privilege in favour of the true owner. Further, as Dillon LJ observed, that includes objection on the ground of oppression to those whose documents the police have seized (see [1992] 1 All ER 72 at 82, [1992] Ch 225 at 257–258). The court also held that the police should not disclose seized documents without the consent of the owner, otherwise than for the specific purposes mentioned in the 1984 Act, unless a subpoena has been served and the police have first given the owner of the documents notice of the service of the subpoena, and of the wish of the police to produce the documents, in advance of the attendance at court required by the subpoena and have given the owner a reasonable opportunity to state any objections he may have. Nolan LJ said ([1992] 1 All ER 72 at 84, [1992] Ch 225 at 259):
‘… I cannot see why the owners of the documents should be able to stop the police from producing them to the court in obedience to a subpoena duces tecum when the owners themselves, if the documents were in their possession, would be bound to obey such a subpoena … If it is right that the owners of documents seized by the police should be no better off, as regards their production on subpoena, than if the documents were in their own hands it must also be right that, so far as possible, they should be no worse off. I say “So far as possible” because in one respect the owners of such documents are inevitably worse off.’
That reasoning is equally applicable in the present case. There is no sound distinction between production of documents in answer to a subpoena and production of documents pursuant to an order made under s 236. In both cases, those from whom the documents were seized, or the true owners of the documents, are in general entitled to an opportunity to present to the court any ground of objection they may have to the production of the documents. The court will take those matters into account when considering whether to make the order sought under s 236 or to set aside the subpoena in whole or in part. In a broad sense, and sometimes also in a very specific sense, there is a public interest in seeing that office-holders have the assistance of those who were involved in running a company’s business or had dealings with the company. As Woolf LJ observed in Re British and Commonwealth Holdings plc (Nos 1 and 2) [1992] 2 All ER 801 at 834 [1992] Ch 342 at 384, Parliament has attached importance to office-holders being able to perform their functions, prescribed by statute, in an effective and expeditious manner. But office-holders do not have an absolute right to an
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order for the production of documents. The court has a discretion, and this head of public interest does not necessitate or justify refusing to afford to those whose documents have been seized an opportunity to advance any proper objections they may have to the court making a s 236 order regarding the documents in question.
These views are in conformity with the practice of the Companies Court on s 236 applications. Usually no question of third party rights arises. If such a question does arise, the rights of the third party are not ignored. What happens in practice is that if, for example, a claim is made by the person having the documents that some of them are the subject of legal professional privilege in favour of a third party the point is argued if necessary and the court does not require production of the documents which are properly the subject of the privilege. (In parentheses I mention in passing that one point touched upon in the course of argument before me was whether legal professional privilege is an answer to an order under s 236. The point was not pursued because it does not arise for decision on this application, so I shall say no more. I am not to be taken as expressing any view, either way, on the point.)
Nor are the views expressed above in conflict with the decision of Buckley J in Re Rolls Razor Ltd [1968] 3 All ER 698. The point about third party rights was not argued there, but in any event the witnesses who had given the evidence to the inspectors appointed under the Companies Act 1948 could have had no objection to the production of transcripts of evidence to the liquidators. There is an express statutory provision that answers given by a person to questions put in exercise of powers conferred on the inspectors are admissible in evidence against him in other proceedings.
Accordingly, in the ordinary way when an application is made or proposed to be made against the SFO for an order under s 236 regarding documents acquired by the SFO under compulsory powers, the third party from whom the documents were obtained should be notified of the application or proposed application. He should be told of the SFO’s attitude to the production sought, and asked whether he objects to an order being made. If his consent is not forthcoming, steps should be taken to join him as a respondent to the application.
This should be the normal course. There will be exceptional cases. For instance there may be cases where notice to a third party of the office-holder’s application might seriously prejudice the object the office-holder is seeking to achieve in existing or proposed proceedings; or the third party may not be traceable; or the documents may be needed as a matter of dire emergency. This is not intended to be a comprehensive list. There may be cases where for other reasons it is not appropriate or practicable to follow the ordinary route. In such exceptional cases, if it is just to do so the court may make an order under s 236 in the exercise of its discretion even though the third party has not been notified.
I add two further points. In general, it ought not to be necessary for the SFO to be represented on s 236 applications if the Director has no objection to the order sought. The views of the Director can be set out in correspondence which may be formally put in evidence by the office-holder. He need be represented only if there are particular matters arising which cannot be dealt with satisfactorily in his absence. Secondly, nothing I have said is directed at circumstances in which the SFO itself wishes to object to the production of documents. For example different considerations may well apply to documents created for the purposes of a prosecution, such as witness statements, or documents containing information obtained from abroad where the Director has given an undertaking not to disclose the information except for the purposes of a prosecution. There is no issue under that head on the present application.
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The Control group’s documents
I turn now to apply the principles outlined above, starting with the Control group. The Control group are concerned to be protected on three points. First, many of the documents held by the SFO are irrelevant to the liquidators’ investigations. They have nothing to do with BCCI. Had the liquidators served a s 236 application on the Control group in respect of documents in their possession, the Control group would have had the opportunity to segregate the relevant from the irrelevant. They are concerned that they should still have that opportunity. Second, they are concerned about the cost of inspecting the documents in the premises of the SFO. Third, they wish to be supplied with copies of all documents provided by the SFO to the liquidators.
I shall take these three points in turn. In principle the Control group’s contention on the first point is sound. They are entitled, as far as possible, not to be disadvantaged by reason of the liquidators having chosen to make a s 236 application against the SFO rather than directly against the Control group. Nevertheless, the documents are in the possession of the SFO and the order will be directed at the SFO. Accordingly, the SFO will be under an obligation to see that all the documents falling within s 236 are disclosed to the liquidators. The way ahead here is that if there is disagreement between the SFO and the Control group on whether a particular document or class of documents falls within the scope of s 236, the disagreement will have to be resolved by the court.
I see no reason to anticipate that this course is likely to involve the SFO in significant extra work or expense. The SFO has not suggested that the need for it to separate the documents which fall within s 236 from those which do not would make an order oppressive. Having combed through the documents, the SFO presumably could readily and shortly state its views on relevance if necessary. If a dispute does arise, the SFO should produce the documents to the liquidators unless the Control group make an application to the court supported by an affidavit, verifying that the documents do not relate to BCCI or its affairs. As officers of the court, the Control group’s solicitors will have a duty to the court to see that this affidavit is made responsibly.
As to the second point, I was informed by counsel appearing for the SFO that the copy documents held by the SFO are available for inspection in lever-arch files and are not subject to the (understandably) cumbersome procedure attendant upon inspection of documents in the sealed bags held by the City of London Police. The SFO would not object to a solicitor inspecting these files on behalf of the Control group. If the solicitor needs to take instructions on a document the SFO would not object to his obtaining a copy and showing it to his client. On that footing I see no reason why a special order should be made in this case in respect of legal costs incurred by the Control group in separating the relevant from the irrelevant. In the ordinary way the cost of separating the relevant from the irrelevant in response to a s 236 order falls upon the person to whom the order is addressed.
As to the third point, I consider that if the Control group wish to have copies of the documents supplied by the SFO to the liquidators they should be entitled to have them but at their own expense. The need for copies stems from the police seizure of the documents; that being so, the liquidators cannot fairly be expected to pay for copies sought by the Control group.
The documents seized from persons not parties to this application
I turn, finally, to the documents seized from Capcom Financial Services and other persons who are not parties to this application. Mr Bannister QC submitted that there is only a remote chance that any of these persons could object to
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production of the documents. The compulsory powers under s 2 of the 1987 Act and under Pt II of the 1984 Act do not extend to documents which are the subject of legal professional privilege. Presumably the police and the SFO have acted responsibly and properly. Production of the documents will not be physically burdensome because these persons are not being asked to produce the documents. All that would remain is an objection that this or that particular document is irrelevant.
I do not think these considerations justify making an order regarding these documents without further ado. I can see no reason why Capcom Financial Services should not be approached and told of this application and its attitude to disclosure ascertained. I know nothing about the flight log seized at Stanstead Airport. Further inquiries should be made about this and its ownership. As to Mr Abedi, Mr Naqvi and Mr Iqbal, I understand they are all abroad. I need more information about their present circumstances and the practicability of notifying them of this application before I can decide whether notification to them should be dispensed with.
Conclusion
I have already made an order, in the agreed form, concerning the Price Waterhouse documents.
As to the Control group documents, various procedures relating to the production of the documents have been canvassed between the parties with the sensible objective of reducing the number of documents which will need to be inspected. The SFO considers that when the liquidators know more about the documents they will not wish to have copies of most of the Control group documents falling within the scope of the order sought. The principal stumbling-block seems to have been disagreement on one or more of the three matters mentioned above. I have now decided these matters. It is to be hoped that agreement between the parties on a workable practical procedure should now be possible. I shall therefore leave the form of the order relating to production of these documents to be agreed between the parties. If agreement cannot be reached, the matter can be mentioned again.
I shall adjourn the application so far as it relates to the documents of Capcom Financial Services and the other persons not parties to this application.
Order accordingly.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex parte Director of Public Prosecutions
[1993] 1 All ER 801
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Courts: CONSTITUTIONAL; Legislatures
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): LEGGATT LJ AND PILL J
Hearing Date(s): 29, 30 JUNE, 2 JULY 1992
Crown Court – Supervisory jurisdiction of High Court – Trial on indictment – High Court having no supervisory jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment - Indictment charging former member of European Parliament with offences of dishonesty relating to expenses received as member of European Parliament – Crown Court quashing indictment – Whether High Court having jurisdiction to grant judicial review of Crown Court’s decision to quash indictment – Whether decision of Crown Court quashing indictment a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29(3).
European Economic Community – European Parliament – Sovereignty – Member of European Parliament – Allegations of criminal dishonesty – Whether member of European Parliament can be prosecuted in respect of expenses dishonestly received as member of European Parliament.
The defendant, a former member of the European Parliament, was committed for trial in the Crown Court on an indictment charging him with dishonestly obtaining by deception two cheques in respect of expenses from the political group of the European Parliament to which he belonged. The judge quashed the indictment on the ground that the Crown Court had no jurisdiction to entertain proceedings against the defendant because the exercise of jurisdiction would result in an infringement of the sovereignty of the European Parliament and offend the principle of comity since the court would have to interpret the rules of the European Parliament or of political groups within the Parliament relating to the payment of expenses to members of the European Parliament despite the fact that the European Parliament had a procedure of its own, albeit not of a criminal nature, for dealing with the improper payment of expenses. The Director of Public Prosecutions applied for judicial review of the judge’s decision. The defendant contended, inter alia, (i) that the judge’s decision was a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ and therefore by virtue of s 29(3)a of the Supreme Court Act 1981 it fell within the exclusive jurisdiction of the Crown Court, (ii) that judicial review of a decision of the European Parliament that a member’s claim for expenses was in order and should be refunded would constitute an interference in the internal functioning of the European Parliament and thus an infringement of its sovereignty or autonomy and (iii) that recourse to prosecution by a national authority without the consent of the European Parliament would prejudice the immunity to which the defendant was entitled by virtue of his former status as a member of the European Parliament.
Held - The application would be granted and the judge’s order quashed for the following reasons—
(1) The High Court had jurisdiction to entertain an application for judicial review of a decision of a judge of that Crown Court to quash an indictment for want of jurisdiction, since the question of the existence of the Crown Court’s jurisdiction was not part of the conduct of the trial and s 29(3) of the 1981 Act
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did not have the effect of rendering immune from judicial review the very question whether the court had jurisdiction, as distinct from the manner of the exercise of that jurisdiction. Furthermore, it was not appropriate that a determination of an individual judge of the Crown Court that Community law prohibited criminal proceedings should be immune from challenge and so from supervision, nor was it appropriate for a court of limited jurisdiction to determine the limits of that jurisdiction (see p 807 e, p 809 g, p 810 d, p 815 j and p 816 a b g, post); Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 applied; R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370 and R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394 considered.
(2) A review by a national court of an allegation that European Community funds had been dishonestly appropriated did not constitute an interference with the internal functioning of the European Parliament, since the fact that national proceedings might give rise to the need to interpret the rules of the European Parliament could not deprive the national court of jurisdiction. In any event what was in issue was the honesty of a member of the European Parliament in claiming expenses as provided by rules of the European Parliament, rather than a challenge to the validity of those rules. It followed that there was nothing about the conduct of the proposed prosecution which would detract from the autonomy of the European Parliament (see p 813 d e, p 814 g h, p 815 d e j, p 816 a and p 819 g h, post).
(3) Furthermore, in the absence of any provisions of Community law exempting a member of the European Parliament from criminal liability or of any sanctions which could be imposed by the European Parliament on a former member, the question whether expenses in connection with the European Parliament had been obtained by dishonesty was a question of national law which was capable of being raised by a prosecution in criminal proceedings in a national court. Member states were therefore entitled to prosecute members of the European Parliament or former members for the criminal offence of obtaining by dishonesty expenses from the European Parliament (see p 814 b to d j, p 815 b j, p 816 a and p 819 j, post).
Per Leggatt J. (1) There is no concept of ‘sovereignty’ of the European Parliament, except in so far as it denotes the autonomy of that Parliament in relation to the organisation of its internal affairs (see p 814 h, post).
(2) Both the validity and interpretation of rules of the European Parliament may be the subject of proceedings in national courts and the Court of Justice of the European Communities. Since the interpretation and validity of those rules may be referred if need be, to the European Court, it follows that a national court cannot be precluded from assuming jurisdiction in a case in which the rules might be relevant (see p 814 j to p 815 a, post).
Notes
For the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the Crown Court, see 10 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 710, 717, 870, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 229, 2273–2277.
For the direct effect of Community law in the United Kingdom and its application in English courts, see 51 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 3.41–3.85.
For the European Parliament, see ibid paras 1.71–1.73.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 990.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bruce of Donington (Lord) v Aspden Case 208/80 [1981] ECR 2205.
EC Commission v Greece Case 68/88 [1989] ECR 2965.
Page 803 of [1993] 1 All ER 801
France v European Parliament Joined cases 358/85 and 51/86 [1988] ECR 482l.
Parti écologiste ‘Les Verts’ v European Parliament Case 294/83 [1986] ECR 1339.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087, DC.
R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S (a minor) [1992] 2 All ER 659, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Cunningham [1992] COD 23, DC.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v Crown Court at Sheffield, ex p Brownlow [1980] 2 All ER 444, [1980] QB 530, [1980] 2 WLR 892, CA.
R v Shoreditch Assessment Committee, ex p Morgan [1910] 2 KB 859, [1908–10] All ER Rep 792, CA.
Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194, HL.
Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, [1985] 2 WLR 538, HL.
Wybot v Faure Case 149/85 [1986] ECR 2391.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Anklagemyndigheden v Hansen & Son I/S Case C-326/88 [1990] ECR I-2911.
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 40l, [1964] AC 1254, HL.
European Parliament v EC Council Case 302/87 [1988] ECR 5651.
European Parliament v EC Council Case C-70/88 [1990] ECR I-2041.
Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport (No 2) Case C-213/89 [1991] 1 All ER 70 [1991] AC 603, CJEC and HL.
Foto-Frost v Hauptzollamt Lübeck-Ost Case 314/85 [1987] ECR 4199.
Garland v British Rail Engineering Ltd Case 12/81 [1982] 2 All ER 402, [1983] 2 AC 751, CJEC and HL.
Group of European Right and National Front Party v European Parliament Case 221/86R [1986] ECR 2969.
Litster v Forth Dry Dock and Engineering Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 1134, [1990] 1 AC 546, HL.
Luxembourg v European Parliament Case 230/81 [1983] ECR 255.
Marleasing SA v La Comercial Internacional de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135.
Meredith, Ex p [1973] 2 All ER 234, [1973] 1 WLR 435, DC.
Pickstone v Freemans plc [1987] 3 All ER 756, [1989] AC 66, CA; affd [1988] 2 All ER 803, [1989] AC 66, HL.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Raymond [1986] 2 All ER 379 [1986] I WLR 710, DC.
R v County of London Quarter Sessions (Chairman), ex p Downes [1953] 2 All ER 750, [1954] 1 QB 1, DC.
R v Crown Court at Cardiff, ex p Jones [1973] 3 All ER 1027, [1974] QB 113, DC.
R v Crown Court at Chichester, ex p Abodunrin and Sogbanmu (1984) 79 Cr App R 293, DC.
R v Crown Court at Maidstone, ex p Gill [1987] 1 All ER 129, [1986] 1 WLR 1405, DC.
R v Smith (Martin) [1974] 1 All ER 651, [1975] QB 531, CA.
Wagner v Fohrmann Case 101/63 [1964] ECR 195.
Application for judicial review
The acting Director of Public Prosecutions applied, with leave of Macpherson J given on 25 March 1992, for judicial review by way of (i) an order of certiorari to quash the order of Morland J on 4 September 1991 sitting in the Crown Court at Manchester whereby he quashed the indictment in R v Huckfield, Ennis and Dowd
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and made a declaration that the prosecution and proceedings in the Crown Court and in the magistrates’ court were invalid and of no effect, (ii) declarations that the Crown Court possessed jurisdiction to try the defendants for offences of the kind charged in the indictment, that the Crown Court lacked jurisdiction to grant any declaration of the kind granted by the judge, and that the Crown Court lacked jurisdiction to quash the proceedings in the magistrates’ court or to declare the same invalid, and (iii) an order of mandamus directed to the Crown Court requiring it to exercise the jurisdiction conferred on it by s 46 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 and directing it to hear and determine the indictment according to law. The facts are set out in the judgment of Leggatt LJ.
Gerald Barling QC, Presiley Baxendale QC and Stephen Richards (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the applicant.
Richard Plender QC, Geoffrey Robertson QC and Gavin Millar (instructed by David Phillips & Partners, Liverpool) for Mr Dowd and Mr Ennis as interested parties.
Richard Plender QC and Edward Fitzgerald (instructed by Christian Fisher & Co) for Mr Huckfield as an interested party.
The respondent was not represented.
Cur adv vult
2 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
LEGGATT LJ. The Director of Public Prosecutions applies by leave for judicial review of an order made by Morland J on 4 September 1991 in the Crown Court at Manchester whereby he quashed an indictment in R v Huckfield, Ennis and Dowd, and made a consequential order and declaration.
From June 1984 to June 1989 Mr Huckfield was a member of the European Parliament (an MEP) for the Merseyside East constituency and was a member of the British Labour Group and of the Socialist Group of the European Parliament (the Parliament). On 14 January 1991 Mr Huckfield was committed for trial in the Crown Court on an indictment which charged him under two counts of dishonestly obtaining by deception cheques in respect of expenses from Mr Balfe, the then treasurer of the British Labour Group in the European Parliament. The judge quashed the indictment in upholding an objection on behalf of Mr Huckfield to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court to entertain criminal proceedings against him, as a former MEP, on the grounds that the exercise of jurisdiction would result in an infringement of the sovereignty of the European Parliament because the court would have to interpret rules of the Parliament, or its subordinate groups, relating to the payment of expenses to MEPs and that the prosecution would offend the principle of comity because the European Parliament had a procedure of its own, albeit not of a criminal nature, for dealing with the improper payment of expenses.
The judge held:
‘Not only legitimately but also of necessity in order to present Mr Huckfield’s defence effectively the defence would have to introduce the rules and regulations which in turn would require the court to interpret them or give guidance as to their meaning. In my judgment this would involve an infringement by this court of the sovereignty of the European Parliament. For this reason this court declines jurisdiction. I also accept Mr Carman’s submission [on behalf of Mr Huckfield] that the prosecution offends the principle of comity. This prosecution concerns the payment by an authorised constituent organ of the European Parliament of moneys for
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expenses to a member of the European Parliament in accordance with European Parliament budget lines and rules of the Parliament and of subordinate regulations. The European Parliament, a sovereign body, has a regular procedure, albeit not of a criminal nature, for dealing with irregular or improper payments of expenses. In my judgment it would be wholly improper for this court to supplement that procedure by allowing a criminal prosecution.’
At the end of his judgment the judge declined jurisdiction in this case and counsel adopted his suggestion that the proper form of order was to quash the indictment and also to make an order and declaration that the prosecution and the proceedings, both in the Crown Court and in the magistrates’ court, were invalid and of no effect.
The issues in this court are: (1) whether the court has jurisdiction to review the judge’s decision to quash the indictment; (2) whether there has been undue delay in making the application for judicial review and, if so, whether the granting of the relief sought would be likely to cause substantial hardship to, or substantially prejudice the rights of, any of the defendants; and (3) whether the judge was right to decline jurisdiction on the ground that trial of the defendants on indictment would have entailed a contravention of European Community law in either of the respects specified by the judge.
It is convenient to consider these issues in that order.
Jurisdiction
The issue under this head is whether this court has jurisdiction to entertain this application in the light of the provisions of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
Section 46, so far as material, provides:
‘(1) All proceedings on indictment shall be brought before the Crown Court.
(2) The jurisdiction of the Crown Court with respect to proceedings on indictment shall include jurisdiction in proceedings on indictment for offences wherever committed …’
Section 29(3) provides:
‘In relation to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment, the High Court shall have all such jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari as the High Court possesses in relation to the jurisdiction of an inferior court.’
In R v Crown Court at Sheffield, ex p Brownlow [1980] 2 All ER 444, [1980] QB 530 the Court of Appeal was concerned with an application by a chief constable for an order to quash the judge’s pre-trial order for disclosure of criminal convictions recorded against members of the jury panel. Shaw LJ said ([1980] 2 All ER 444 at 454, [1980] QB 530 at 544):
‘The closeness or remoteness of the relationship of the decision in question to the jurisdiction to try cases on indictment is wholly irrelevant … Any decision as to a matter which arises out of or incidentally to or in the course of that jurisdiction whether it relates to a proximate trial or a remote one falls, as I see it, inescapably and inevitably into the immunity from review by the High Court.’
Lord Denning MR, on the other hand, equated the determinative phrase ‘relating to trial on indictment’ with ‘in the course of trial on indictment’ (see [1980] 2 All ER 444 at 451–452, [1980] QB 530 at 540).
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This case was reviewed by the House of Lords in Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779, [1985] AC 622 at 642–643, in which Lord Bridge said:
‘It is, of course, obvious that the phrase “relating to trial on indictment” in ss 28(2)(a) and 29(3) is apt to exclude appeal or judicial review in relation to the verdict given or sentence passed at the conclusion of a trial on indictment, both of which are subject to appeal as provided by the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. I accept the submission of counsel for the respondents that in this context, as in ss 76 and 77 of the 1981 Act, the words “trial on indictment” must include the “trial” of a defendant who pleads guilty on arraignment. Beyond this it is not difficult to discern a sensible legislative purpose in excluding appeal or judicial review of any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment, whether given in the course of the trial or by way of pretrial directions. In any such case to allow an appellate or review process might, as Shaw LJ pointed out in Brownlow’s case [1980] 2 All ER 444 at 455, [1980] QB 530 at 544–545, seriously delay the trial. If it is the prosecutor who is aggrieved by such a decision, it is in no way surprising that he has no remedy, since prosecutors have never enjoyed rights of appeal or review when unsuccessful in trials on indictment. If, on the other hand, the defendant is so aggrieved, he will have his remedy by way of appeal against conviction under the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 if he has suffered an injustice in consequence of a material irregularity in the course of the trial, which, I apprehend, may well result not only from a decision given during the trial, but equally from a decision given in advance of the trial which affects the, conduct of the trial, eg a wrongful refusal to grant him legal aid. I can, however, discover no intelligible legislative purpose which would be served by giving to the words “relating to trial on indictment” a wider operation than indicated in the foregoing paragraph. An order estreating the recognisance of surety for a defendant who fails to surrender to his bail at the Crown Court to which he was committed for trial cannot affect the conduct of any trial on indictment in any way … If, therefore, the phrase “relating to trial on indictment” may be construed broadly or narrowly, a purposive approach points, to my mind, unmistakably to a construction sufficiently narrow, at all events, to avoid the exclusion of judicial review in such a case as this.’
Having commented in relation to Brownlow’s case that Lord Denning MR took too narrow a view and that he could find nothing in the language or the policy of the legislation to support what he called the ‘sweeping statements’ of Shaw LJ, which I have cited, Lord Bridge said ([1985] 1 All ER 769 at 780, [1985] AC 622 at 643–644):
‘It must not be thought that in using the phrase “any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment” I am offering a definition of a phrase which Parliament has chosen not to define. If the statutory language is, as here, imprecise, it may well be impossible to prescribe in the abstract a precise test to determine on which side of the line any case should fall and, therefore, necessary to proceed, as counsel for the appellant submitted that we should, on a case by case basis. But it is obviously desirable that your Lordships’ House should give as clear guidance as the statutory language permits, and I hope the criterion I have suggested may provide a helpful pointer to the right answer in most cases.’
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The House reverted to this topic in Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987]1 All ER 609 at 611, [1987] 1 WLR 194 at 196 in which Lord Bridge said:
‘It is in any event clear, I apprehend, that certain orders made at the conclusion of a trial on indictment are excluded from judicial review as “relating to trial on indictment” not because they affect the conduct of the trial, but rather because they are themselves an integral part of the trial process. This is obviously true of the verdict and sentence.’
In the light of these authorities this court has had to consider in two recent cases whether it had jurisdiction to entertain an application for judicial review of the refusal by a judge of the Crown Court to order a stay of proceedings on the ground of delay amounting to an abuse of the process. The court held in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 and reaffirmed in R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54 that an application to stay an indictment on grounds of abuse of process did not affect the conduct of the trial because, if granted, it would permanently prevent the trial taking place or continuing, that such an application was not therefore a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ under s 29(3) of the 1981 Act and that, accordingly, the High Court in the exercise of its supervisory jurisdiction had jurisdiction to entertain the application for judicial review.
For the DPP in the present case Mr Barling QC submitted that the orders and declaration made by Morland J were neither themselves an integral part of the trial nor did they affect the conduct of the trial. They were directed to the question of the existence of the court’s jurisdiction rather than the exercise of that jurisdiction. He submitted that Parliament cannot have intended to exclude judicial review in relation to such a question and that s 29(3) is not to be construed as having that effect. He supported this submission by citing Randle’s case [1992] 1 All ER 370 at 386, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1103, where Watkins LJ, giving the judgment of the court, said:
‘If approaching the matter in the way Lord Bridge indicates is appropriate, we are inclined to the view that a decision on an application to stay on grounds of abuse of process does not affect the conduct of a trial on indictment, because what is being determined is whether there should ever be a trial.’ (Watkins LJ’s emphasis.)
That case was expressly upheld in Belsham’s case; and in the similar case of R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Cunningham [1992] COD 23 this court drew a distinction between cases relating to an actual trial on indictment and those where ‘consideration is being given as to whether there should be a trial at all’.
Mr Barling sought to distinguish the motion to quash in the present case from the type envisaged by Watkins LJ in the cases cited. He also contended that it would be contrary to principle for the Crown Court’s determination of the boundaries of its own jurisdiction to be conclusive. Finally, he invoked art 5 of the EEC Treaty for the duty it confers on the United Kingdom to take all measures necessary to guarantee the application and effectiveness of Community law.
Mr Robertson QC, who presented the argument for the defendants on this issue, argued that the judge’s decision to quash the indictment was valid in form, and that it was a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ both literally and in the purposive sense adopted by the House of Lords. A decision to quash an indictment affects the conduct of a trial and is part of the trial process. Lord Bridge’s use of these expressions was intended to exclude peripheral matters from immunity from review. By controlling the immunity Parliament intended to avoid delay, to give the defendant (but not the prosecution) a right of appeal, and also to give
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the defendant a right to treat the judge’s decision as final. The defendants relied on Randle’s case and Belsham’s case for their assumption that a motion to quash is part of trial on indictment and proposed as a test that, wherever a decision is made on the merits or legality of the indictment and the allegation it contains, that decision is unreviewable.
Mr Robertson further supported his submission by an eloquent plea that a motion to stay for abuse is an invitation to a court to exercise its inherent power to stop a proceeding because it is per se oppressive and unfair. Such an order does not relate to trial on indictment in any procedural sense at all: it is not part of a trial nor does it have any impact on the way the trial is conducted. A motion to quash, on the other hand, is concerned with the form of the indictment. This may be a technical form (such as duplicity) or substantive form (such as the charging of an offence unknown to English law, or an offence which the court has no jurisdiction to try). He submitted that it is plain from the cases in the House of Lords that an order to quash the indictment, or any count thereof, is unreviewable. There is no decision which is more closely related to trial on indictment than a decision as to whether the indictment is good or bad. It relates to the legal foundation for the trial itself. The soundness of the indictment is integral to the trial process. It affects the conduct of the trial in that it decides on what counts, if any, the trial shall be conducted. In so far as it results in delay, it offends both public policy and legislative intent. In asserting the distinction between a motion to stay a trial on the ground of abuse of process and a motion to quash an indictment, Mr Robertson urged that the distinction is in reality between an order that an unjust trial should not take place and an order that an indictment is so deficient that it cannot form the basis for a trial. He supported this distinction by the submission that abuse decisions are reviewable because the jurisdiction to stay for abuse is independent of the statutory jurisdiction to try a case on indictment and arises at common law.
Looking at the words of the subsection without the benefit of authority, it would be difficult to say that the quashing of an indictment is not a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’. The use of the expression ‘trial on indictment’ as distinct from ‘a trial on indictment’ might have been thought to indicate an intention to distinguish it from other aspects of the court’s jurisdiction, such as appeals from magistrates’ courts. But the stress laid by the House of Lords in Smalley’s case and in Sampson’s case on ‘the conduct of the trial’ and ‘the trial process’ shows that weight must be given to the actual trial. Thus the forfeiture of a surety’s recognisance is not within the exception, but an order that an acquitted defendant should make a legal aid contribution is within it.
This accounts for the decisions of the Divisional Court which have held that applications to stay are out with the exception and are therefore amenable to judicial review. The court has held that such applications do not affect the conduct of a trial, and so do not relate to trial on indictment because, if granted, they, would permanently prevent the trial from taking place.
It was conceded by counsel in both cases that a motion to quash was a matter relating to the conduct of the trial and thus within the exception. The court remarked in Belsham’s case [1992] 1 All ER 394 at 402, [1992] 1 WLR 54 at 62–63 that—
‘a motion to quash is part and parcel of the trial process invariably made at the court of trial on the day fixed for the hearing while an application for a stay is designed to stop the trial taking place on grounds unrelated to the indictment and to the conduct of a trial, namely that it would be unfair for the trial to take place at all.’
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But the court at once specified what sort of motion to quash it had in mind ([1992] 1 All ER 394 at 402, [1992] 1 WLR 54 at 63):
‘We would indorse that court’s reasoning and emphasise that a motion to quash an indictment is made to ensure that the defendant be tried on a count that is properly framed. Such a motion, is, we think, inseparable from the conduct of the trial. It relates directly to the question of whether there exists a properly framed indictment which is essential to the launch of the trial itself.’
Similarly, in Randle’s case [1992] 1 All ER 370 at 386, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1103 the court said:
‘An application to stay on the grounds that the proceedings are an abuse of process seems to us to be in an altogether different category. It is an attempt to stop the trial taking place, not by reason of some defect in the indictment, but on grounds quite separate and distinct. It is an application based on principles of fairness and justice, and the contention is that it would be unjust that there should be a trial at all. It is not, in the sense that an application to quash is, part of the trial process.’
It had earlier remarked ([1992] 1 All ER 370 at 379–380, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1096):
‘ … it can undoubtedly be said that an application made before a trial commences for an order in effect to prohibit that trial from taking place does not affect the conduct of the trial and is not an integral part of the trial process. Of course, the application may, as it did in this case, fail, in which case the trial proceeds. Here again, however, the dismissal of the order determines merely that there shall be a trial, not how it shall take place. In that sense the dismissal of the application neither affects the conduct of the trial nor is it an integral part of it.’
The type of motion to quash that was being distinguished was one directed to the framing of the indictment. Here the application to the court was that it should decline jurisdiction on the ground that the exercise of it would infringe what the judge called the ‘sovereignty’ of the European Parliament. In my judgment, the 1981 Act does not have the effect of rendering immune from judicial review the very question whether the court has jurisdiction as distinct from the manner of its exercise. It would not make for the orderly conduct of the law if the determination of individual judges of the Crown Court that Community law prohibits criminal proceedings of a particular kind were immune from challenge and so from supervision.
Mr Barling helpfully referred us to various passages from Sir William Wade’s work on Administrative Law (6th edn, 1988) esp at p 297 where there is a citation from Farwell LJ in R v Shoreditch Assessment Committee, ex p Morgan [1910] 2 KB 859 at 880 where he said:
‘No tribunal of inferior jurisdiction can by its own decision finally decide on the question of the existence or extent of such jurisdiction: such question is always subject to review by the High Court, which does not permit the inferior tribunal either to usurp a jurisdiction which it does not possess … or to refuse to exercise a jurisdiction which it has … Subjection in this respect to the High Court is a necessary and inseparable incident to all tribunals of limited jurisdiction; for the existence of the limit necessitates an
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authority to determine and enforce it; it is a contradiction in terms to create a tribunal with limited jurisdiction and unlimited power to determine such limit at its own will and pleasure—such a tribunal would be autocratic, not limited—and it is immaterial whether the decision of the inferior tribunal on the question of the existence or non-existance of its own jurisdiction is founded on law or fact …’
It is pointed out that this was said about administrative tribunals. But in my judgment it applies equally to courts of limited jurisdiction which are otherwise amenable to judicial review. It would equally be a contradiction in terms to create a court with limited jurisdiction, and unlimited power to determine such limits at its own will and pleasure, whether the existence or otherwise of its own jurisdiction was founded on law or fact.
To Mr Plender QC’s point that it would be anomalous if an objection to jurisdiction taken at the close of the prosecution case were immune from review whereas the same objection taken before the trial began would not be, the answers must be that a defendant who is not acquitted until the close of the prosecution case will have been in jeopardy and that, following his acquittal, the Attorney General could still test the point of law by reference to the Court of Appeal.
I have therefore come to the conclusion that this court has jurisdiction to entertain the motion for judicial review.
Delay
Mr Robertson also relied on such delay as has occurred in these proceedings as relevant to the court’s discretion to refuse the relief sought. The offences charged were alleged to have been committed in May 1986 and May 1987. The police became aware of the allegations in 1987, and then began an investigation which included the search of Mr Huckfield’s home in 1988, visits to Strasbourg in 1989, and the arrest of the defendants on 4 June 1990. It is also said that the police must have become aware during this time of what may be termed ‘the European connection’, and that that placed them under a statutory duty to report the matter to the Director of Public Prosecutions: see the Prosecution of Offences Regulations 1978, SI 1978/1357 reg 6(1)(f). It is said that at the hearing of the pre-trial review on 15 July 1991 prosecuting counsel was told about the argument of Community law and the authorities on which the defendants would rely. On any view, after the application which resulted in the quashing of the indictment on 4 September, 1991, the Crown knew in fullest detail what the defendants’ case was. The essential question is whether the Crown acted promptly to seek judicial review of the judge’s order thereafter. The application for leave to move was not lodged until 3 December 1991, only one day within the time allowed.
Mr Dowd is aged 73; Mr Ennis has received a suspended sentence for similar offences; and Mr Huckfield is not alleged to have made any personal gain from his involvement in these matters. In those circumstances it is submitted that the lack of promptness shown by the Crown after the judge’s order of 4 September 1991 was made was such as would be likely to cause them substantial hardship.
In an affidavit submitted in draft during the hearing against an undertaking to file it at once, the Crown Prosecutor has deposed that the judge’s decision—
‘raised novel, important and complex issues of law and policy which had to be considered by a number of different Government Departments and on which legal advice had to be obtained and considered.’
This process was impeded by the fact that the transcript of the judgment was not available for over five weeks after it had been given. After legal advice had been
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obtained from leading and junior counsel one of the law officers had to be consulted.
Whilst I regard the difficulties by which the Crown say they were confronted as exaggerated, I do not consider that such delay as can be said to have occurred in making the application was ‘undue’ within the meaning of s 31(6) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, nor do I consider that such delay as has occurred should affect the court’s willingness to grant relief, should it otherwise be so minded.
Community law
As I have earlier indicated, the judge upheld the respondents’ objection to the court’s jurisdiction on two grounds: first, because the need for the court to interpret the rules of a political group of the European Parliament would involve an infringement of what he called the ‘sovereignty’ of the Parliament; and, secondly, because it would be improper for the court, by allowing criminal prosecution, to supplement the European Parliament’s own procedure, albeit not of a criminal nature, for dealing with improper payments of expenses. It is common ground that the European Parliament is not sovereign, but is autonomous. In dealing succesively with these issues I shall therefore refer to them as ‘autonomy’ and ‘comity’.
(a) Autonomy
Mr Plender, who presented the arguments of Community law on behalf of the defendants, advanced as his main submission the proposition that as a matter of Community law, national authorities are bound to respect the decision by the European Parliament to refund to MEPs expenses for political activities or for information campaigns, and the decision taken by the European Parliament that a claim for such expenses is in order. He contended that a review carried out in this area by the national authorities, without the consent of the European Parliament, including a review conducted in the courts of criminal proceedings against a person who claims expenses in his capacity as an MEP, constitutes an interference in the internal functioning of the European Parliament resulting in a substitution by the national authorities of their appraisal of an MEP’s claim for the appraisal undertaken by the European Parliament in the exercise of its powers. Each side relied as its main authority on the decision of the Court of Justice of the European Communities in Lord Bruce of Donington v Aspden Case 208/80 [1981] ECR 2205. That case raised the issue whether a member state may tax payments made to an MEP from Community funds as travel and subsistence expenses. Lord Bruce contended that by reason of art 142 of the EEC Treaty and the first para of art 8 of the Protocol on the Privileges and Immunities of the European Communities, which guarantees the free movement of MEPs, the authorities of the member states were precluded from reviewing the performance by an MEP of his duties, including his travel and his related expenditure, in order to see whether there existed any excess of reimbursement over actual expenses, with a view to taxing such excess. Lord Bruce contended that member states were not entitled to tax payments made by the European Parliament for these purposes. By its judgment the court confirmed that the rules adopted by the European Parliament governing subsistence and travelling expenses of MEPs fell within the scope of measures of internal organisation the adoption of which was a matter for the European Parliament pursuant to the first para of art 142 of the EEC Treaty.
After remarking that the appropriations available to the European Parliament for the reimbursement of expenses of MEPs are subject to the budgetary procedures provided for by Community law, the court continued (at 2220 (para 19)):
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‘It is clear from the foregoing that the national authorities are bound to respect the decision taken by the European Parliament to refund travel and subsistence expenses to its Members on a lump-sum basis. A review carried out in this area by the national revenue authorities, such as the one provided for by the United Kingdom legislation, constitutes an interference in the internal functioning of the Parliament resulting in a substitution by the national authorities of their appraisal of the system of allowances for the one undertaken by the Parliament in the exercise of its powers. It would therefore be likely to impair the effectiveness of the action of the Parliament and be incompatible with its autonomy.’
The court concluded that it would be incompatible with this system for revenue authorities to demand from an MEP vouchers for expenses actually incurred. The court added (at 2220–2221 (para 21)):
‘In so far as the lump sum fixed for the allowances is excessive and in reality constitutes in part disguised remuneration and not reimbursement of expenses, the Member States are entitled to charge such remuneration to national income tax, given that in the present state of Community law the remuneration of Members of the Parliament is a matter of national law and is not the responsibility of the institutions of the Community. However, an assessment of whether the lump sums fixed by the Parliament are excessive, which is, moreover, a matter of Community law alone, was not requested by the national tribunal, before which it was not alleged that at the time the allowances were unreasonably high.’
Mr Plender invoked art 5 of the EEC Treaty in support of his submission that the obligation to respect decisions made by the European Parliament, and to refrain from reviewing them (or to co-operate with the Parliament), is a duty owed by the United Kingdom to the European Parliament and to other member states pursuant to that article. It provides:
‘Member States shall take all appropriate measures, whether general or particular, to ensure fulfilment of the obligations arising out of this Treaty or resulting from action taken by the institutions of the Community. They shall facilitate the achievement of the Community’s tasks. They shall abstain from any measure which could jeopardise the attainment of the objectives of this Treaty.’
Mr Plender argued that the claims in respect of which the indictment was laid were for expenses which the European Parliament had decided to make available for political activities or for information campaigns, and that both that decision and the decisions to accept the claims were made by the European Parliament in respect of its internal functioning with which any review by the police and the criminal courts, conducted without the consent of the Parliament, would constitute an interference. This was apparently the view taken by the President of the European Parliament as well as by the chairman of the British Labour Group.
Mr Barling, however, emphasised the court’s recognition in Lord Bruce of Donington v Aspden that in the absence of any provision conferring a tax exemption on MEPs, the member states were entitled to tax any emoluments derived by them from the exercise of their mandate, that in so far as the lump sum fixed by the European Parliament was excessive in relation to expenses actually incurred, so as to constitute disguised remuneration, member states were entitled to subject
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the excess to national income tax, and that the question whether a lump sum was excessive was a question of Community law capable of being raised by the competent national authority in the course of proceedings in the national court. These features are at variance with the judge’s reasoning because they show that a national court is entitled to proceed with a case that involves the need to interpret the European Parliament’s rules. It seems to me that the reference (see [1981] ECR 2205 at 2220–2221 (para 21)) to an assessment of whether the lump sums fixed by the European Parliament are excessive, being a matter of Community law alone, is to the principle that a measure adopted by a Community institution can only be declared invalid by the European Court itself.
As Mr Barling has pointed out, the validity of the rules of the European Parliament and of its political groups about expenses is not challenged. What is alleged is that Community funds were dishonestly appropriated without the European Parliament or the relevant political group being aware of the dishonesty.
Since the European Court has in several cases, such as Wybot v Faure Case 149/ 85 [1986] ECR 2391 and Parti écologiste ‘Les Verts v European Parliament Case 294/83 [1986] ECR 1339, considered questions not only about the interpretation but also about the validity of rules of the European Parliament upon reference in the course of proceedings before national courts, it seems to me to follow ineluctably that the judge’s notion that the need to interpret the relevant rules precluded the assumption of jurisdiction by a Crown Court was based upon a fundamental misconception. Since such rules can be referred for interpretation to the European Court, the fact that national proceedings may give rise to the need to interpret them cannot deprive the national court of jurisdiction. In my judgment there is nothing that this court has been told about the conduct of the proposed prosecution which would or might detract from the autonomy of the European Parliament; and I do not accept that art 5 imports a duty to respect decisions of the European Parliament of which the United Kingdom would be in breach if the defendants were prosecuted.
(b) Comity
In this court Mr Plender did not use the word ‘comity’. Instead, he seemed to rely upon the argument that recourse to prosecution by a national authority without consent would in some way prejudice immunity to which his former status as an MEP entitled him. Mr Plender speculated that the reason why there is apparently no precedent for an attempt by national police to prosecute an MEP for a claim made to the European Parliament for expenses may be that in most member states such proceedings would not be initiated at all, without a waiver of the immunity given to all MEPs. He submits that the conclusion of the European Parliament’s Committee on Rules, Powers and Immunities that an MEP enjoys a parliamentary immunity from prosecution in respect of political acts is itself an essay in autonomy. This, he says, may be justified on the practical ground that differences should be eliminated between the immunities, and so the risks of prosecution, which MEPs enjoy and to which they are subject, according to which member state they represent. Mr Plender argues that in this context it is for the European Parliament to give or withhold consent to the bringing of a prosecution.
Relevant to the exercise of the court’s discretion, though not to its jurisdiction, is the fact that Mr Balfe, from whom Mr Huckfield is alleged to have obtained the two cheques the subject of the indictment, is apparently an unwilling witness, and is not compellable. Even if the court could compel his attendance, and even though the European Parliament could waive his immunity, no application has been made for either purpose.
Page 814 of [1993] 1 All ER 801
On this latter issue this court does not have sufficient information to enable it to evaluate either the importance of Mr Balfe’s evidence or the likelihood that he would not give it.
On the main issue of comity I have great difficulty in understanding how it can be said that in circumstances where there is no provision of Community law which exempts an MEP from criminal liability, and there is no way in which the European Parliament could take criminal proceedings against him, prosecution by a national authority can be said to be unwarranted or exceptionable, let alone ‘wholly improper’. The Protocol on the Privileges and Immunities of the European Communities defines precisely the immunities from legal proceedings, including criminal proceedings, to which an MEP is entitled. Since an immunity cannot be enjoyed which has not been expressly granted, and since it has not been suggested that any express provision for immunity applies in this case, there is no exemption which the defendants can invoke. If there was any dishonest obtaining of expenses I am not myself persuaded that the European Parliament can impose even disciplinary sanctions against a former MEP. Certainly there is no provision which makes the initiation of prosecutions for criminal offences connected with expenses the sole prerogative of the European Parliament. But I do not find much more compelling than Mr Plender’s argument on art 5 of the EEC Treaty Mr Barling’s corresponding submissions that, irrespective of the attitude of the European Parliament, the member state concerned owes a duty under art 5 to take criminal proceedings in order to penalise misuse of Community funds. That there is imposed by art 5 of the Treaty ‘a duty to prosecute and impose appropriate penalties on those who infringe Community law in such a way as to prejudice its effectiveness’ was explained by Advocate General Tesauro in EC Commission v Greece Case 68/88 [1989] ECR 2965 at 2977. This opinion was expressly confirmed by the European Court itself which said (at 2985 (para 24)):
‘… whilst the choice of penalties remains within their discretion, [the member states] must ensure in particular that infringements of Community law are penalized under conditions, both procedural and substantive, which are analogous to those applicable to infringements of national law of a similar nature and importance and which, in any event, make the penalty effective, proportionate and dissuasive.’
It is, however, unnecessary for present purposes to decide whether the United Kingdom would be in breach of this duty were it to refrain from taking criminal proceedings in respect of the offences alleged against the defendants. It is sufficient that the adoption of that course is not shown to be incompatible with any provision of Community law, from which it follows that maintenance of the prosecution cannot be said to be in disharmony with proceedings of the European Parliament so as to offend the principle of comity.
Conclusion
In summary, there is no concept of ‘sovereignty’, except in so far as it denotes the autonomy of the European Parliament in relation to the organisation of its internal affairs. Member states are entitled to prosecute an MEP (or former MEP) for criminal offences of obtaining by dishonesty expenses from the Parliament. The question whether they were obtained by dishonesty is a question of national law which is capable of being raised by a prosecutor in criminal proceedings in a national court.
Neither the validity nor the interpretation of the European Parliament’s rules is here in question, though both can be the subject of proceedings in national
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courts or the Court of Justice. Since the interpretation and even the validity of the European Parliament’s rules can be referred, if need be, to the Court of Justice, the national courts cannot be precluded from assuming jurisdiction in a case in which the rules might be relevant.
No provision of Community law exempts an MEP (or former MEP) from criminal liability. An MEP enjoys no immunities except such as are specified in the protocol. Since irregular payments can only be deducted from a group’s appropriation, and no sanctions can be imposed on a former MEP, the only way of bringing criminal proceedings against him is in a national court, whether or not art 5 imports a duty to do so.
It should not be a matter of surprise that an MEP is liable to criminal proceedings in this country in respect of offences connected with his membership. It might be thought sensible if all MEPs were dealt with alike, and if the outcome of such criminal proceedings did not depend upon the immunities accorded, and the penalties imposed, by the particular member state they happened to represent. But that result could only be achieved by an appropriate provision of Community law. That is why the first step, disavowing preconceptions, is to inquire whether any provision of Community law accords to a former MEP immunity from criminal prosecution. None does. There is then no inhibition on the prosecution of the former MEP unless the review by national authorities of this alleged offence constitutes an interference with the internal functioning of the Parliament. In this case that could only occur if the process of review involved any challenge to the validity or to the interpretation of the rules of the Parliament or one of its groups. Neither is challenged. What is called in question is the honesty of the defendants in claiming expenses as provided by the rules. Whether cheques in payment of such expenses were obtained dishonestly is peculiarly a matter for resolution by prosecution in a national court. What would be surprising would be if no criminal proceedings could be brought at all against a dishonest person simply because he was a former MEP.
In these circumstances Mr Plender argues that if the court is against the defendants on jurisdiction and on discretion, as well as on art 5, the court should refer to the Court of Justice of the European Communities the questions of Community law arising in this case, and he has proffered draft questions for reference, which I need not particularise. In a remarkable about-face to the Crown’s attitude adopted in the Crown Court Mr Barling has also, though less forcefully, urged a reference at this stage. From these submissions it seems to follow that whilst the Crown would be interested, for the clarification of the law in this important context, to obtain the definitive ruling of the European Court, the defendants must wish to take that course only if there remains no other means of avoiding prosecution. In circumstances where it has seemed to this court that the determination of sensitive issues of Community law admits of only one sensible solution, and where the prosecution of the defendants has already been subject to delays longer than are normally regarded as tolerable in criminal cases, I do not consider that the court should at this stage introduce into the process a procedure which would inevitably cause further delay that would, we are told, be of the order of 18 months. I would accordingly decline to order any reference to the European Court.
I would quash the orders and the declaration made by the judge.
As a footnote I add that the quality of counsel’s skeleton arguments and prereading by the court in its own time enabled the oral arguments of three leading counsel to be presented in no more than 1½ days, after which the urgency of the matter (as we see it) has moved us to give judgment at once without the further consideration that the main issues raised no doubt deserve.
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PILL J. I agree with the order proposed. For the purpose of considering whether a matter comes within the words of exception in s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, as relating to ‘trial on indictment’, not all motions to quash fall on the same side of the line indicated by Lord Bridge in Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 780, [1985] AC 622 at 643. The application to quash in the present case did not depend on whether the indictment was properly framed but upon whether, in the light of Community law, the court had jurisdiction.
I agree with Leggatt LJ that the case did not come within the exception in s 29(3) and with Leggatt LJ’s reasoning. I cannot accept Mr Robertson QC’s submission that Watkins LJ, giving the judgment of the court in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 and in R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, was laying down that the distinction to be drawn in this context is always the distinction between an order that an unjust trial should not, on grounds of morality, take place and an order that an indictment is, for whatever reason, so deficient that it cannot form the basis for a trial. Watkins LJ was not deciding that an order in the second category must inevitably be an order relating to trial on indictment. The court in Randle’s case was considering questions of fairness and justice because it was considering an application based on an alleged abuse of process.
That one factor to be considered, in applying s 29(3), is whether a trial should take place at all, emerges clearly from the extracts from the judgment in Randle’s case cited by Leggatt LJ. More recently in R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S (a minor) [1992] 2 All ER 659 at 661 Watkins LJ stated:
‘The leading principle of law which arises from the authorities can be said to be that if the matter in contention, be it an act, decision or order, is either an integral part of the trial process or it affects the course of the trial, the matter comes within the words of exception in s 29(3) of the 1981 Act and judicial review is not available in respect of it; otherwise it is reviewable.’
We are not constrained by decisions of this court from approaching the statute in the manner indicated by Lord Bridge in Smalley’s case and Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194 which is what, in my judgment, the court in Randle’s case did. For the reasons given by Leggatt LJ, the court has jurisdiction to entertain the application for judicial review of Morland J’s decision to quash the indictment against Mr Huckfield (the defendant) and others.
The defendant was charged on an indictment containing two alleged offences of obtaining property by deception contrary to s 15(1) of the Theft Act 1968. Other defendants were also charged. The charge includes allegations that the defendant dishonestly obtained cheques from R A Balfe by deception, namely by falsely representing that the documents which were sent to Mr Balfe were all genuine and original documents and related to actual or proposed expenditure in respect of which the defendant was entitled to payment from the British Labour Group of the European Parliament.
Morland J, in the course of his judgment, stated that there was a clear prima facie case that the supporting documents were ‘utterly bogus and the proceeds of the cheques were improperly paid’. I accept the contention of both parties to this application that, for present purposes, the actual documents do not require further consideration.
The Crown’s case, as noted by the learned judge, was that the proceeds went into legal defence funds to support certain suspended Labour Party members. The learned judge also noted that the defendant’s case was that he honestly
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believed that the supporting documents were genuine and that he was the innocent conduit pipe for the frauds of others. It was not suggested by the Crown that the defendant had benefited personally.
Morland J declined jurisdiction on the ground that the issues in the case were such that the court would be required to interpret rules of the European Parliament and that to do so would be an infringement of its sovereignty. A prosecution would also offend the principles of comity. The learned judge stated that it would be wholly improper for the court to supplement the European Parliament’s procedures for dealing with irregular or improper payment of expenses by allowing a criminal prosecution.
The learned judge obviously attached importance to the contents of letters written by parliamentary figures and cited extensive extracts from them. The letters included those from Mr Ramsay, director of the private office of the European Parliament, on 6 October 1988, Mr Rudi Arndt, chairman of the Socialist Group in the European Parliament, on 10 November 1988 and 14 March 1989 and Lord Plumb, former President of the European Parliament, on 30 August 1991. We also have before us a letter from the current President of the European Parliament, Dr Egan Klepoh, sent in June 1992 to the Attorney General and indorsing the views of Lord Plumb.
Mr Arndt stated on 14 March 1989:
‘I would inform you again that, in as far as Leslie Huckfield has submitted accounts to us for monies from the information campaign fund, these have been checked in London and Brussels and found to be in order before reimbursement was made. These accounts are available for inspection by the Court of Auditors in accordance with the regulations of our Institution. If you have the slightest indication that the regulations of the European Parliament have been contravened in any way, I would ask you to let me know.’
Lord Plumb stated:
‘I was of the view then and remain of the view, that any alleged irregularity or alleged dishonesty in a claim for expenses made by a serving member of the European Parliament lies within the exclusive jurisdiction of the European Parliament and is to be determined by that Parliament in accordance with its own Rules. Therefore, I am of the view respectfully that any domestic national Court hearing of a Member State of the European Community prima facie infringes upon the Sovereignty of the European Parliament.’
It is not suggested in this court that the Protocol on the Privileges and Immunities of the European Communities confers immunity from prosecution upon the defendant. It is accepted on behalf of the defendant that the question whether the European Parliament is sovereign, or the sovereign legislative authority, does not arise upon this application. What is at issue, it is submitted, is the European Parliament’s autonomy with respect to its internal functioning. It is also common ground that the proposed prosecution does not involve a challenge to the rules of the European Parliament or to the internal rules of the Socialist Group.
The defendant’s submission is that his prosecution constitutes an interference in the internal functioning of the European Parliament resulting in a substitution of the English court’s appraisal of the member’s claim for expenses for the appraisal undertaken by the European Parliament in the exercise of its powers. It is accepted that the Parliament could consent to the bringing of a prosecution, or
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even request the national authorities to take appropriate action, in the event of a misappropriation of the Community’s funds. It is submitted, by reference to EC Commission v Greece Case 68/88 [1989] EC R 2965, that, if the European Parliament requests the national authorities to do so, member states must take such action as may be necessary to guarantee the effectiveness of Community law.
What does not follow, it is submitted, is that the national authorities have a duty, or indeed a power, to prosecute where the Community institution has not concluded that it has been a victim of fraud and has not called on the member state to act but, indeed, has protested against the initiation of proceedings.
Mr Plender QC for the defendant accepts that if the relevant claim for, and payment of, expenses had been made by and to a member of an English institution, such as a county council, views expressed by the chairman or officers of the council that payments were ‘in order’ would not be conclusive of the question whether the claim was an honest one. The issues arising upon a deception charge could properly be investigated by the courts. He submits, however, that by reason of arts 5 and 142 of the EEC Treaty and the decision of the Court of Justice of the European Communities in Lord Bruce of Donington v Aspden Case 208/80 [1981] ECR 2205, the United Kingdom and its authorities are under an obligation to respect the decision of the European Parliament and indeed the European Parliament’s views as expressed by officers. There has been no formal resolution or decision of the European Parliament that the relevant payments were in order. What is relied on, as excluding the jurisdiction of the English court, are the statements of the president and relevant officers of the Socialist group considered in the context of the EEC Treaty obligation in art 5. The expenses claim has been checked on behalf of the European Parliament, it is submitted, and found to be in good order and that is the end of the matter.
Articles 4(1) and 5 of the EEC Treaty provide:
‘Article 4
1. The tasks entrusted to the Community shall be carried out by the following institutions: a European Parliament, a Council, a Commission, a Court of Justice.
Each institution shall act within the limits of the powers conferred upon it by this Treaty …
Article 5
Member States shall take all appropriate measures, whether general or particular, to ensure fulfilment of the obligations arising out of this Treaty or resulting from action taken by the institutions of the Community. They shall facilitate the achievement of the Community’s tasks.
They shall abstain from any measure which could jeopardise the attainment of the objectives of this Treaty.’
We have been referred to a decision of the European Court upon the meaning of art 5 in France v European Parliament Joined cases 358/85 and 51/86 [1988] ECR 4821. The court stated (at 4855 (para 34)):
‘With a view to determining the significance of the decisions of the governments of the Member States, attention should also be drawn to the rule imposing reciprocal obligations of bona fide cooperation on the Member States and the Community institutions, as embodied in particular in Article 5 of the EEC Treaty. As regards the working conditions of the Parliament, that rule is of particular importance in a situation where the governments of the Member States have not yet fulfilled their obligation to establish the seat of
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the institutions or even decided on a single provisional working place for the Parliament.’
Article 142 provides in its first sentence: ‘The European Parliament shall adopt its rules of procedure, acting by a majority of its members.' It is not suggested that the article confers a general power to exempt members of the Parliament from criminal proceedings in member states.
In Lord Bruce of Donington’s case, the United Kingdom Commissioners for the Special Purposes of the Income Tax Acts referred to the European Court the question whether any rule of European law, including art 142, should be interpreted as precluding member states from taxing any part of the expenses and allowances paid from Community funds to members of the European Parliament. The court’s ruling was that Community law prohibits the imposition of national tax on lump sum payments made by the European Parliament to its members from Community funds by way of reimbursement of travel and subsistence expenses, unless it can be shown in accordance with Community law that such lump sum reimbursement constitutes in part remuneration.
The European Court stated ([1981] ECR 2205 at 2219 (para 15)):
‘Rules such as those adopted by the Parliament governing subsistence and travel expenses and allowances therefore fall within the scope of measures of internal organization whose adoption is a matter for the Parliament pursuant to …’
and there is a reference to several articles including art 142 of the EEC Treaty.
The court concluded (at 2220 (para 19)):
‘It is clear from the foregoing that the national authorities are bound to respect the decision taken by the European Parliament to refund travel and subsistence expenses to its Members on a lump-sum basis.’
The court went on to hold that it was open to member states to challenge whether, as a matter of Community law, the lump sum payments were excessive. The European Parliament’s decision to refund expenses on a lump sum basis, rather than on some other basis, cannot however be challenged by national authorities.
It does not follow that the jurisdiction of the English courts to consider whether the defendant obtained valuable securities from the commission in the dishonest manner alleged in the indictment is excluded. The prosecution does not involve a challenge to the validity or the reasonableness of the expenses rules of the European Parliament or of a political grouping. Those rules can be construed in an English court if the need arises and subject to the powers and duties of the court under art 177 of the Treaty. For the purposes of the present application, I see no valid distinction between the rules of the European Parliament and those of a political grouping within the European Parliament.
Having considered the EEC Treaty and the decision in Lord Bruce of Donington’s case, I am unable to read into the Treaty obligations of the United Kingdom anything excluding the jurisdiction of the English court in a case in which specific claims for expenses are alleged to have been made dishonestly. Neither can I read the Treaty as conferring upon the European Parliament, or individual officers, an exclusive jurisdiction to determine the honesty of members’ claims for expenses out of community funds. I also agree with the decisions of Leggatt LJ upon the questions of delay, discretion and referral.
Application allowed. Order of certiorari granted to quash orders and declaration of Crown Court. Order of mandamus refused.
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The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that the following points of law of general public importance were involved in the decision. (1) Whether, in the light of s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, the High Court has jurisdiction to entertain an application for judicial review seeking any one or more of the following orders, namely certiorari, mandamus and declarations in respect of: (a) an order of the Crown Court quashing an indictment on the ground that the court lacks jurisdiction to entertain the proceedings in question; (b) an order and declaration by the Crown Court that, for like reasons, a prosecution and proceedings in the Crown Court and in the magistrates’ court are invalid and of no effect. (2) If and to the extent that the answer to (1) is Yes: (a) whether the Crown Court had jurisdiction to entertain the proceedings here in question; (b) whether the Crown Court had jurisdiction to make and was right in law to make the order and declaration referred to in (1)(b) above.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Practice Direction
(Family proceedings orders: applications by children)
[1993] 1 All ER 820
PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
FAMILY DIVISION
22 February 1993
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Application for order – Application by child concerned – Application to be determined in High Court – Application to be transferred to High Court for hearing – Children Act 1989, ss 8, 10 – Family Proceedings Rules 1991, r 4.3 – Family Proceedings Courts (Children Act 1989) Rules 1991, r 3.
Under s 10 of the Children Act 1969 the prior leave of the court is required in respect of applications by the child concerned for s 8 orders (contact, prohibited steps, residence and specific issue orders). Rule 4.3 of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991, SI 1991/1247, and r 3 of the Family Proceedings Courts (Children Act 1989) Rules 1991, SI 1991/1395, set out the procedure to be followed when applying for leave.
Such applications raise issues which are more appropriate for determination in the High Court and should be transferred there for hearing.
Issued with the concurrence of the Lord Chancellor.
22 February 1993 Stephen Brown P
Airedale NHS Trust v Bland
[1993] 1 All ER 821
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE: PROFESSIONS; Medical
Court: FAMILY DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR STEPHEN BROWN P
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13, 19 NOVEMBER 1992
COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, BUTLER-SLOSS AND HOFFMANN LJJ
1, 2, 3, 9 DECEMBER 1992
HOUSE OF LORDS
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD LOWRY, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
14, 15, 16 DECEMBER 1992, 4 FEBRUARY 1993
Medical treatment – Withdrawal of treatment – Insensate patient – Patient in persistent vegetative state with no hope of recovery – Whether in patient’s best interests not to prolong his life – Whether continuance of medical care would confer any benefit on patient – Whether lawful to withdraw life support and allow patient to die.
Declaration – Procedure – Declaration as to lawfulness of proposed conduct – Proposed medical treatment – Withdrawal of treatment – Insensate patient – Patient in persistent vegetative state with no hope of recovery – Guidance of court to be sought in all cases by way of application for declaration before life-prolonging treatment withheld from patient.
A 21-year-old patient, AB, in the care of the applicant health authority had been in a persistent vegetative state for three and a half years after suffering a severe crushed chest injury which caused catastrophic and irreversible damage to the higher functions of his brain. He was being fed artificially and mechanically by a nasogastric tube which had been inserted through his nose and down into his stomach. The unanimous opinion of all the doctors who had examined him was that there was no hope whatsoever of recovery or improvement of any kind in his condition and that there was no reasonable possibility of his ever emerging to a cognitive sapient state from his existing persistent vegetative state in which, although he continued to breathe unaided and his digestion continued to function, he could not see, hear, taste, smell, speak or communicate in any way, was incapable of involuntary movement, could not feel pain and had no cognitative function. In those circumstances the consultant geriatrician at the hospital where AB was being cared for reached the clear conclusion that it would be appropriate to cease further treatment, which would involve withdrawing the artificial feeding through the nasogastric tube and declining antibiotic treatment if and when infection appeared. If such a course were adopted the lack of sustenance would bring to an end the physical functioning of AB’s body within one to two weeks and he would die by starvation. The consultant’s view was supported by other distinguished medical experts. The health authority responsible for AB’s care applied to the court for declarations that it and the responsible physicians could lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep AB alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation, nutrition and hydration by artificial means and that they could lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to him except for the sole purpose of enabling him to end his life and die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least pain, suffering and
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distress. The plaintiffs’ action was supported by the parents and family of AB. The judge granted the declarations sought. The Official Solicitor appealed to the Court of Appeal, which affirmed the judge’s decision. The Official Solicitor appealed to the House of Lords, contending that the withdrawal of life support was both a breach of the doctor’s duty to care for his patient, indefinitely if need be, and a criminal-act.
Held - A doctor who had in his care a patient who was incapable of deciding whether or not to consent to treatment was under no absolute obligation to prolong the patient’s life regardless of the circumstances or the quality of the patient’s life. Medical treatment, including artificial feeding and the administration of antibiotic drugs, could lawfully be withheld from an insensate patient with no hope of recovery when it was known that the result would be that the patient would shortly thereafter die, provided responsible and competent medical opinion was of the view that it would be in the patient’s best interests not to prolong his life by continuing that form of medical treatment because such continuance was futile and would not confer any benefit on him. Furthermore, discontinuance of life support by the withdrawal of artificial feeding or other means of support did not amount to a criminal act because if the continuance of an intrusive life support system was not in the patient’s best interests the doctor was no longer under a duty to maintain the patient’s life but was simply allowing his patient to die of his pre-existing condition and his death would be regarded in law as exclusively caused by the injury or disease to which his condition was attributable. Having regard to AB’s condition it followed the declaration had been properly granted and that the appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 861 f g j, p 862 d, p 865 e f, p 866 b h j, p 868 d to j, p 869 c to f h j, p 870 f to h, p 871 c e g, p 872 c d j to p 873 a g to j, p 875 d e, p 876 g j to p 877 a f; p 881 g, p 882 j to p 883 c g j to p 884 c, p 885 d, p 894 g to j, p 895 d e g and p 896 f, post).
Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 2 All ER 118 and F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545 applied.
Per curiam. (1) Euthanasia by means of positive steps to end a patient’s life, such as administering a drug to bring about his death, is unlawful (see p 861 h j, p 862 d, p 867 c d f, p 875 e, p 884 g, p 885 d and p 890 e to h, post).
(2) Doctors should for time being, as a matter of practice, seek the guidance of the court in all cases before withholding life-prolonging treatment from a patient in a persistent vegetative state. The appropriate means of seeking such guidance is by way of an application for declaratory relief. It is to be hoped that with the passage of time a body of experience and practice will build up which will enable the President of the Family Division to relax that requirement so as to limit applications for declarations to those cases in which there is a special need for the procedure to be invoked (see p 862 b to d, p 874 j, p 876 a b, p 880 c e, p 884 e and p 885 d, post); F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545 considered.
Per Lord Browne-Wilkinson and Lord Mustill. It is imperative that the moral, social and legal issues raised by the witholding of treatment from an insensate patient with no hope of recovery should be considered by Parliament (see p 879 j and p 889 b c, post).
Notes
For consent to medical treatment, see 30 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 38, and for cases on the subject, see 33 Digest (Reissue) 273–275, 2242–2246.
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Cases referred to in judgments and opinions
Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235, NZ HC.
B (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment), Re (1981) [1990] 3 All ER 927, [1981] 1 WLR 1421, CA.
B (a minor) (wardship: sterilisation), Re [1987] 2 All ER 206, [1988] AC 199, [1987] 2 WLR 1213, HL.
Barber v Superior Court of Los Angeles County (1983) 147 Cal App 3d 1006, Cal CA (2nd Dist).
Belchertown State School Superintendent v Saikewicz (1977) 373 Mass 728, Mass Sup Jud Ct.
Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 2 All ER 118, [1957] 1 WLR 582.
C (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment), Re [1989] 2 All ER 782, [1990] Fam 26, [1989] 3 WLR 240, CA.
Clarke v Hurst (30 July 1992, unreported), SA SC.
Conroy, Re (1985) 98 NJ 321, NJ SC.
Cruzan v Director, Missouri Dept of Health (1990) 497 US 261, 110 S Ct 2841, US SC.
Doe (Jane), Guardianship of (1992) 411 Mass 512, Mass Sup Jud Ct.
F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, sub nom Re F (mental patient: sterilisation) [1990] 2 AC 1, [1989] 2 WLR 1025, HL.
Finlayson v HM Advocate 1979 JC 33, HC of Just.
Gardner, Re (1987) 534 A 2d 947, Me Sup Jud Ct.
Imperial Tobacco Ltd v A-G [1980] 1 All ER 866, [1981] AC 718, [1980] 2 WLR 466, HL.
J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment), Re [1990] 3 All ER 930, [1991] Fam 33, [1991] 2 WLR 140, CA.
J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment), Re [1992] 4 All ER 614, [1993] Fam 15, [1992] 3 WLR 507, CA.
Jobes, Re (1987) 108 NJ 394, NJ SC.
Malette v Shulman (1990) 72 OR (2d) 417, Ont CA.
Nancy B v Hôtel-Dieu de Québec (1992) 86 DLR (4th) 385, Que Superior Ct.
Quinlan, Re ( 1976) 70 NJ 10, NJ SC.
R v Adams (Bodkin) [1957] Crim LR 365, CCC.
R v Arthur (1981) Times, 6 November, pp 1, 12.
R v Blaue [1975] 3 All ER 446, [1975] 1 WLR 1411, CA.
R v Cox (18 September 1992, unreported), Crown Ct at Winchester.
R v Gibbins (1918) 13 Cr App R 134, CCA.
R v Laskey and ors (1993) pending, HL.
R v Malcherek [1981] 2 All ER 422, [1981] 1 WLR 690, CA.
R v Stone [1977] 2 All ER 341, [1977] QB 354, [1977] 2 WLR 169, CA.
Royal College of Nursing of the UK v Dept of Health and Social Security [1981] 1 All ER 545, [1981] AC 800, [1981] 2 WLR 279, HL.
S v S, W v Official Solicitor [1970] 3 All ER 107, [1972] AC 24, [1970] 3 WLR 366, HL.
Schloendorff v Society of New York Hospital (1914) 211 NY 125, NY Ct of Apps.
Sidaway v Bethlem Royal Hospital Governors [1985] 1 All ER 643, [1985] AC 871, [1985] 2 WLR 480, HL.
Storar, Re, re Eichner (1981) 52 NY 2d 363, NY Ct of Apps; certiorari denied 454 US 858, US SC.
T (adult: refusal of medical treatment), Re [1992] 4 All ER 649, [1992] 3 WLR 782, CA.
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Originating summons
By an originating summons dated 25 September 1992 the plaintiffs, Airedale NHS Trust, sought in relation to the future medical care and treatment of the defendant, Anthony Bland, a patient at Airedale General Hospital, Skipton Road, Steeton, Keighley, West Yorkshire, acting by the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem, declarations in the form of a draft order that, despite the inability of the defendant to consent thereto, the plaintiffs and the responsible physicians (1) might lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep the defendant alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation, nutrition and hydration by artificial means, (2) might lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to him except for the sole purpose of enabling him to end his life and die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least of pain, suffering and distress, (3) that if death should occur following such discontinuance or termination the cause of death should be attributed to the natural and other causes of the defendant’s said persistent vegetative state and (4) that such discontinuance or termination and any other things done or omitted to be done in good faith in accordance with the order should not give rise to and should be without any civil or criminal liability therefor on the part of the plaintiffs or any participant whether physician, hospital or others. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Robert Francis QC and M R Taylor (instructed by Penningtons, agents for W J M Lovel, Harrogate) for the plaintiffs.
James Munby QC (instructed by the Official Solicitor) for the Official Solicitor as guardian ad litem.
Anthony Lester QC and Stephen Richards (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Attorney General as amicus curiae.
Cur adv vult
19 November 1992. The following judgment was delivered:
SIR STEPHEN BROWN P. Anthony Bland became 21 on 21 September 1992 but for the past three and a half years he has been totally unaware of the world around him. As a keen supporter of Liverpool Football Club he was at the Hillsborough football ground on 15 April 1989. He was then 17½. He was one of the victims of the disaster. He suffered a severe crushed chest injury which gave rise to hypoxic brain damage. His condition rapidly deteriorated and despite the intensive and heroic efforts of doctors and nurses he has remained ever since in a state of complete unawareness. This is known to the medical profession as a ‘persistent vegetative state’. Although his brain stem is intact he suffered irreparable damage to the cortex. All the higher functions of Anthony Bland’s brain have been destroyed. There is no hope whatsoever of recovery or improvement of any kind. That is the unanimous opinion of all the distinguished doctors who have examined Anthony Bland.
Since 12 May 1989 he has been under the care of Dr J G Howe FRCP, a consultant geriatrician at the Airedale General Hospital. Dr Howe has very considerable experience of patients suffering from what is described as persistent vegetative state. After his transfer to the Airedale General Hospital prolonged and persistent attempts were made to revive Anthony Bland. The skilled hospital staff including senior physiotherapists assisted by the parents and sister of Anthony Bland made exhaustive attempts to achieve some sign of revival. Although Anthony Bland’s body breathes and reacts in a reflex manner to painful stimuli it
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is quite clear that there is no awareness on his part of anything that is taking place around him. EEG and CT scans reveal no evidence of cortical activity. Indeed recent scans which have been photographed and produced to the court show that there is more space than substance in the relevant part of Anthony Bland’s brain. There is simply no possibility whatsoever that he has any appreciation of anything that takes place around him. He is fed artificially and mechanically by a nasogastric tube which has been inserted through his nose and down into his stomach. All the natural bodily functions have to be operated with nursing intervention. He is fitted with a catheter which has given rise to infection necessitating surgical intervention. It is to be noted that the necessary surgical incision was made without any anaesthetic because Anthony Bland is utterly devoid of feeling of any kind. He requires four to five hours’ nursing attention by two nurses every day. No complaint is made by the hospital authorities of the fact that they have to allocate substantial resources to this particular case—that is not a factor which has been prayed in aid of the course which the plaintiffs now seek to be allowed to follow. By August 1989, supported by the opinion of Dr Michael Johnson, a consultant neurologist of St James’s University Hospital, Leeds, Dr Howe had reached the clear conclusion that there was absolutely no hope of any improvement. He felt that it would be appropriate to cease further treatment. This would involve withdrawing the artificial feeding through the nasogastric tube and declining antibiotic treatment if and when infection appeared. If this course were to be adopted then within some 10 to 14 days the lack of sustenance would bring an end to the physical functioning of the body of Anthony Bland and he would in terms ‘die’. The process would be that of ‘starvation’. This would be unpleasant for those who had to observe it but Anthony Bland himself would be totally unaware of what was taking place.
In August 1989 Dr Howe got into touch with the Sheffield coroner who was responsible for dealing with the fatal cases arising from the Hillsborough disaster. The coroner, who is both medically and legally qualified, alerted Dr Howe to the risks which he considered he might run if he took the proposed course of withdrawing treatment. The coroner pointed out that as the law stood it was his understanding that Dr Howe would run the risk of criminal proceedings if he took a course which brought to an end the existence of Anthony Bland, even though that existence could be regarded as being wholly pointless. He suggested that Dr Howe should consult his legal advisers. Heeding the warning of the coroner Dr Howe did indeed consult legal advisers and as a result the Airedale NHS Trust, which is responsible for administering the Airedale General Hospital, issued the originating summons which is now before the court. This seeks declarations that the trust and their responsible physicians may lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep Anthony Bland alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation, nutrition and hydration by artificial means and that they may lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to Anthony Bland except for the sole purpose of enabling Anthony Bland to end his life and die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least of pain, suffering and distress. The plaintiffs’ action is fully supported by the parents and family of Anthony Bland. Because Anthony Bland himself is wholly incapable of taking any step with regard to this matter the Official Solicitor of the Supreme Court has been appointed to act as his guardian ad litem. He has instructed counsel to appear on the hearing of this summons. Whilst not disputing the completely insensate condition of Anthony Bland, he opposes the plaintiffs’ application, contending that if the action proposed by Dr Howe and the plaintiff hospital authority were to be implemented it would in terms amount in law to
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the crime of murder. Because of the public importance of this case the court invited the assistance of the Attorney General and he has instructed counsel to appear as amicus curiae.
This case clearly raises serious moral, medical and ethical issues. However, none of the facts relating to the circumstances and the condition of Anthony Bland are in dispute. The court has been assisted by expert medical evidence from witnesses of the highest calibre and of the very greatest experience. All agree that Anthony Bland is now, and has been ever since the date of the Hillsborough disaster, in what is known to the medical profession now as a persistent vegetative state. The condition is irreversible and is not susceptible of any improvement. He is completely insensate and no medical procedure or treatment can bring about any beneficial change in his condition. All the witnesses have stated that the standard of care which has been afforded to Anthony Bland at the Airedale General Hospital is of the highest character. His parents have visited him daily and his sister has also been present frequently. The anguish which they continue to experience is self-evident. His father has given oral evidence before me and I also have a statement from Anthony Bland’s mother. The father is a splendid straightforward Yorkshireman. He has faced the terrible tragedy which has befallen his family with remarkable realism and dignity. He has not allowed emotion to influence his judgment. He traced for me Anthony’s brief life—explaining how he was a thoroughly normal boy. He described him as not a very clever boy but with a good personality—sensitive and willing. His great interest was football and Liverpool his chosen team. He said that he was not religious but that he had attended Sunday School in the Church of England. His assessment of Anthony Bland’s situation was expressed in these clear terms:
‘He certainly wouldn’t want to be left like he is. I would feel that he should be removed and the family feel the same. I was angry when the advice from the coroner was received. I can see no point whatsoever in continuing treatment.’
Of course Anthony Bland is unable to express views of his own and there had been no occasion for him to express any view as to how he might view his situation if some terrible tragedy such as this befell him.
This case raises for the first time in the English courts the question in what circumstances, if any, can a doctor lawfully discontinue life-sustaining treatment (including nutrition and hydration) without which a patient in Anthony Bland’s condition will die. Professor Bryan Jennett CBE, until recently Foundation Professor of Neurosurgery at the Institute of Neurological Science in the University of Glasgow and having the very widest experience as a neurosurgeon, was responsible together with Professor Plum of New York for coining the term ‘persistent vegetative state’ in 1972. It is intended to describe a syndrome that was being increasingly encountered as the life-saving and life-sustaining technologies of intensive care were securing the survival of some patients with brain damage of a severity that would previously have proved fatal. Professor Jennett told the court that until this descriptive term was proposed, and soon widely adopted, such patients were often referred to as being in a prolonged or irreversible coma. However the word ‘coma’, he said, implies a continuing sleeplike state due to depression of the brain stem activating systems—whilst the hallmark of the vegetative patient is that after a variable time in coma wakefulness returns, with long periods of spontaneous eye opening. This period in coma commonly lasts 10 to 21 days after head injury which causes concussive depression of brain stem function, but after hypoxic insults patients often begin to open their eyes in two
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to three days. Unlike less severely brain damaged patients emerging from coma, the vegetative patient fails to regain any cognitive behaviour that would indicate function in the cerebral cortex—the grey matter responsible for consciousness, thinking, feeling and responding in meaningful (as distinct from reflex) ways to stimuli from the surroundings. Because the brain stem and various other sub-cortical and more primitive parts of the brain are still functioning, the vegetative patient has a wide range of reflex activity, including breathing and, in some patients, a very limited capacity to swallow reflexly. Vegetative patients must be distinguished from patients in a ‘locked in’ syndrome—who, because of a focal lesion in the brain stem that does not affect consciousness, are totally paralysed in limbs and speech but may communicate by a yes/no code using eye or eyebrow movements. They are also quite different from patients who have suffered ‘brain death’—whose brain stem has permanently ceased to function and who are dependent on a ventilator to maintain respiration, and whose heart always stops within a week or two at the most. By contrast, vegetative patients have suffered cognitive death, but can continue to breath for years because the brain stem is still functioning. The key to the diagnosis is that, on clinical observation over a prolonged period of time, there is no evidence of a working mind. EEG records show a range of abnormal activity with severe depression of cortical activity obvious only in a minority of cases. Professor Jennett referred to the very considerable research which has taken place internationally and the consideration of the problem by the medical ethics committee of the British Medical Association. He concluded from all the research material that only exceptional cases have been reported as showing recovery after a year, and none of those patients appear to have achieved independence. He gave it as his opinion that nasogastric feeding is a form of ‘medical treatment’ just as is a ventilator or a kidney machine. It is a means of substituting a function that has naturally failed. He said that tube feeding is accepted as ‘medical treatment’ in the United States of America and in Canada. He referred to the Appleton International Conference, which accepted that life-sustaining hydration and nutrition is a medical treatment which may justifiably be withdrawn from persistently vegetative patients for whom there are no patient-based reasons for continuing to treat. He expressed the opinion that it has become accepted good practice in this country as elsewhere to agree in consultation with the families of the vegetative patients to withhold antibiotics and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in the event of complications that would call for such measures in patients with a prospect of recovery. He expressed the very strong view that it would be in accordance with good medical practice in the case of Anthony Bland to withdraw the nasogastric artificial feeding. He stated that he considered there to be no benefit in maintaining life-sustaining treatment because he could see no prospect of recovery of cognitive function. He, like the other expert medical witnesses who gave evidence before me, had examined Anthony Bland. He stated that in his view this was an extreme and clear case of the persistent vegetative state. He could see no benefit to the patient in continuing the treatment of feeding by means of a nasogastric tube. Dr Cartlidge FRCP is the consultant neurologist to the Newcastle Health Authority and senior lecturer in neurology at the University of Newcastle-upon-Tyne. He has very considerable experience of the so-called persistent vegetative state. He too examined Anthony Bland and expressed the firm opinion that he was showing all the signs of this extreme condition. He said there is no possibility whatsoever that he will recover. He too expressed the opinion that it would be medically justifiable to withdraw the artificial feeding process for there was no useful purpose in continuing it and it was not in the patient’s best interests to prolong
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survival in these circumstances. Professor Peter Behan FRCP of the Department of Neurology at the Institute of Neurological Sciences at the Southern General Hospital of Glasgow was instructed by the Official Solicitor to examine Anthony Bland. The court has the advantage of a report prepared by Professor Behan which has been accepted in evidence. He was unable to attend court to give oral evidence. In his report he said:
‘1) What is the diagnosis? This can be confidently answered that on the basis of history, physical and neurological examination supplemented by laboratory data, this is a classical example of the persistent vegetative state …
2) I am confident that from my knowledge of other patients, neurophysiology, previous cases from the literature and from animal experimentation that the patient has no awareness nor can he suffer pain or experience pleasure …
3) The prospect of improvement can also confidently be answered since based on what we know of the degree of damage to his brain, the comparison of his case with those recorded in the literature (particularly considering the nature of his damage and the duration of his illness) and the type of symptoms and signs he exhibits, there is no hint or hope or any prospect of improvement.
4) In my opinion artificial feeding and hydration constitutes medical treatment. If a patient was to be admitted under my care and was for one reason or another unable to feed himself, the setting up of a nasogastric tube for feeding and hydration would constitute beyond any measure of doubt medical treatment as opposed to normal feeding.’
He further stated that he was very impressed by the recommendation of the British Medical Association, that is to say in respect of the consultation and treatment of patients in the persistent vegetative state, which seemed to him to be a recommendation that where the diagnosis had been well established, the differential diagnoses had been ruled out and all the necessary laboratory tests done, then ‘the prognosis could confidently be given as zero if after one year there was no sign of improvement’.
Dr Keith Andrews FRCP is the Director of Medical Research Services at the Royal Hospital and Home, Putney. At his hospital there is a 20-bed brain injury rehabilitation unit. Dr Andrews has had experience of about 50 patients in a persistent vegetative state. He examined Anthony Bland. He told the court: ‘I regard [him] as being in persistent vegetative state and indeed … the most severe case … I have seen … I do not consider that Tony Bland will make any recovery whatsoever.' He went on to say that if the regime continues as at present ‘he is likely to survive a few years … not more than about five, mainly because he … is very prone to develop infections …’ He expressed the view that feeding by tube was not in his view medical treatment. In amplification he said: ‘The use of the equipment might be thought to be medical treatment but not the supply of food which is a basic human requirement.' He said he would not favour the withdrawal of treatment because he would find the means of death worrying. It would be distressing to watch, although Anthony Bland himself would not experience any sensation. He agreed that sedative drugs could be given to lessen the unpleasant features which he felt would inevitably follow from the withdrawal of the artificial feeding.
The plaintiffs’ submissions have been put clearly and succinctly by Mr Francis QC both in a written skeleton argument and also in oral submissions. He submits that it is the unanimous opinion of all the expert medical witnesses that Anthony Bland is in a severe persistent vegetative state. There is no hope of any improvement. His parents with knowledge of their son say that he would not wish his present condition to be continued. Although Anthony Bland himself
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cannot express any view it should be inferred in the light of the medical evidence as well as of the evidence of his own father and mother that the prolongation of the present treatment is not in his best interests. Good medical practice, accepted by a large and responsible body of medical opinion, suggests that the course proposed by Dr Howe, and supported by Professor Jennett and by Dr Cartlidge, should be followed. Mr Francis referred to a passage in the speech of Lord Bridge in the leading case of F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545 at 548–549, [1990] 2 AC 1 at 52 where he said:
‘Moreover it seems to me of first importance that the common law should be readily intelligible to and applicable by all those who undertake the care of persons lacking the capacity to consent to treatment. It would be intolerable for members of the medical, nursing and other professions devoted to the care of the sick that, in caring for those lacking the capacity to consent to treatment, they should be put in the dilemma that, if they administer the treatment which they believe to be in the patient’s best interests, acting with due skill and care, they run the risk of being held guilty of trespass to the person, but, if they withhold that treatment, they may be in breach of a duty of care owed to the patient. If those who undertake responsibility for the care of incompetent or unconscious patients administer curative or prophylactic treatment which they believe to be appropriate to the patient’s existing condition of disease, injury or bodily malfunction or susceptibility to such a condition in the future, the lawfulness of that treatment should be judged by one standard, not two. If follows that if the professionals in question have acted with due skill and care, judged by the well-known test laid down in Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 2 All ER 118, [1957] 1 WLR 582, they should be immune from liability in trespass, just as they are immune from liability in negligence.’
It is acknowledged that the present case is not a similar situation to that of the mental patient in F v West Berkshire Health Authority. There is no curative or therapeutic treatment which can be applied to Anthony Bland. However, Mr Francis submits, the same basic principles should be followed because what is proposed by Dr Howe is effectively medical treatment and it is in the patient’s best interests. He submits that it would be intolerable if Dr Howe were to be put at risk of a prosecution for murder if he were to follow what he submits is generally regarded now as good medical practice.
In his detailed and erudite submission Mr Munby QC on behalf of the Official Solicitor challenged the view that the artificial feeding regime could be considered as ‘medical treatment’. He sought support for that submission from the evidence of Dr Keith Andrews. However, his principal submission was that what is proposed by Dr Howe is the doing of an act intended to lead to the death of Anthony Bland. In the result, he argued, the withdrawal of the feeding regime would amount to unlawful killing and would in fact be the crime of murder. He referred to the summing up of Devlin J in R v Adams (Bodkin) [1957] Crim LR 365. He picked out a phrase used by the learned judge, ‘cutting the thread of life’. Mr Munby argued that even if the artificial feeding process were to be considered to be medical treatment it would nevertheless be unlawful in the instant case to withdraw that treatment. He referred to what Lord Donaldson MR described as the ‘critical equation’ in Re J (a minor) (wardship; medical treatment) [1990] 3 All ER 930 at 938, [1991] Fam 33 at 46. That case concerned the consideration of potential further treatment to a severely brain damaged child. The problem raised in the case was what should be done if the child should suffer another
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collapse, which might occur at any time. Should resuscitative treatment be given in such a case? Mr Munby, relying upon a passage in the judgment of Lord Donaldson MR, submitted that because of the very strong presumption which exists in favour of preserving life a withholding or withdrawing of treatment could only be justified in the critical case where the pain and suffering likely to be suffered by the patient exceeded the benefit to the patient of preserving life. Lord Donaldson MR said ([1990] 3 All ER 930 at 938, [1991] Fam 33 at 46):
‘This brings me face to face with the problem of formulating the critical equation. In truth it cannot be done with mathematical or any precision. There is without doubt a very strong presumption in favour of a course of action which will prolong life, but, even excepting the “cabbage” case to which special considerations may well apply, it is not irrebuttable. As this court recognised in Re B [Re B (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) (1981) [1990] 3 All ER 927, [1981] 1 WLR 1421], account has to be taken of the pain and suffering and quality of life which the child will experience if life is prolonged. Account has also to be taken of the pain and suffering involved in the proposed treatment itself … But in the end there will be cases in which the answer must be that it is not in the interests of the child to subject it to treatment which will cause increased suffering and produce no commensurate benefit, giving the fullest possible weight to the child’s, and mankind’s, desire to survive.’
In this case however, said Mr Munby, there is no question of suffering because Anthony Bland is totally without feeling or awareness. He went on to speak of ‘the slippery slope’ which would be embarked upon if the court were to make a declaration in the terms sought by the plaintiffs: a dangerous precedent would be established. He developed in depth his submission that there is an absolute prohibition upon a doctor against taking active steps designed to bring about death. He likened the situation to that of two climbers roped together where one climber deliberately cut the rope which bound his companion to himself, or to switching off an iron lung.
Mr Anthony Lester QC, instructed by the Attorney General to appear as amicus curiae, made submissions which in effect supported the plaintiffs’ case. He acknowledged that the subject matter of this case is obviously emotive and difficult. He said that the court would not be assisted by an absolutist or dogmatically legalistic approach. It was not a so-called euthanasia case; it was in terms a case about whether in the view of the doctors and the court a particular treatment decision should be taken which would remove the artificial support for life and allow nature to take its course so that death supervenes. He submitted that the law should strive to be in accordance with contemporary medical ethics and good medical practice. He acknowledged that Anthony Bland’s case is difficult because, at first sight, it seems to require the court to reject the vital principle of the sanctity of life in favour of value judgments as to the quality of the further artificial prolongation of the life of Anthony Bland. He submitted however that there is no inherent conflict between having regard to the quality of life and respecting the sanctity of life; on the contrary, they are complementary; the principle of sanctity of life embraces the need for full respect to be accorded to the dignity and memory of the individual human being. The meaning and, criteria of quality of life should focus on benefit to the patient. He contended that Anthony Bland had an interest in the way in which his family would remember him after his death and in the manner of his dying and submitted that where one could be medically sure on all the evidence that the patient in a persistent
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vegetative state is suffering permanently from loss of consciousness, there is no legal duty to maintain what remains of his or her ‘life’ whether by feeding or by giving medication. It is not in the patient’s best interests to do so. In those circumstances he submitted there would be no breach of duty or criminal liability in ceasing to feed or otherwise to treat the patient. Such a conclusion, he argued, is in accordance with existing English case law. If the court declared the treatment proposed by Dr Howe to be ‘lawful’ then he said the criminal law would not become involved because a basic element of criminal liability, that is to say an unlawful act (the actus reus) is not made out.
It is correct that there has been no previous case of this nature in this jurisdiction. Mr Lester referred to a case before the Supreme Court of the United States, Cruzan v Director, Missouri Dept of Health (1990) 110 S Ct 2841. The headnote of the report reads:
‘Guardians of patient in persistent vegetative state brought declaratory judgment action seeking judicial sanction of their wish to terminate artificial hydration and nutrition for patient. The Circuit Court, Jasper County, Probate Division, Charles E. Teel Jr., J., directed state employees to cause request of guardians to be carried out. Appeal was taken. The Missouri Supreme Court reversed. Certiorari was granted. The Supreme Court, Chief Justice Rehnquist, held that: (1) the United States Constitution did not forbid Missouri from requiring that clear and convincing evidence of an incompetent’s wishes to the withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment; (2) state Supreme Court did not commit constitutional error in concluding that evidence adduced at trial did not amount to clear and convincing evidence of patient’s desire to cease hydration and nutrition; and (3) due process did not require state to accept substituted judgment of close family members absent substantial proof that their views reflected those of patient.’
The decision therefore turned on a constitutional point as to the jurisdiction of the State of Missouri. However, in dissenting judgments Brennan J and three other justices referred to what may be regarded as the substantive merits of the case with regard to the treatment of patients in a persistent vegetative state. Mr Lester referred to passages in the judgments of Brennan and Stevens JJ. He drew attention to a passage (at 2883):
‘Medical advances have altered the physiological conditions of death in ways that may be alarming: highly invasive treatment may perpetuate human existence through a merger of body and machine that some might reasonably regard as an insult to life rather than as its continuation. But those same advances, and the reorganization of medical care accompanying the new science and technology, have also transformed the political and social conditions of death: people are less likely to die at home, and more likely to die in relatively public places, such as hospitals or nursing homes. Ultimate questions that might once have been dealt with in intimacy by a family and its physician have now become the concern of institutions.’
Stevens J observed (at 2886–2887):
‘But for patients like Nancy Cruzan, who have no consciousness and no chance of recovery, there is a serious question as to whether the mere persistence of their bodies is “life” as that word is commonly understood … The State’s [Missouri’s] unflagging determination to perpetuate Nancy Cruzan’s physical existence is comprehensible only as an effort to define life’s
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meaning, not as an attempt to preserve its sanctity … In any event, absent some theological abstraction, the idea of life is not conceived separately from the idea of a living person.’ (Stevens J’s emphasis.)
Brennan J used a phrase (at 2864) to which Mr Lester also pointed when he described the subject in that case as ‘a passive prisoner of medical technology’.
Mr Lester also drew attention to the Canadian Law Reform Commission Working Paper of July 1983. I do not need to comment in detail upon it but in it the Law Reform Commission of Canada recommended that the cessation of life-sustaining treatment in such cases should not attract criminal liability. There are a number of other decisions of state courts in the United States in which applications for a declaration, or for leave to withdraw life-sustaining treatment have been granted. However they are not strictly comparable to cases in this jurisdiction because many of them import a consideration of parens patriae in the particular states.
In the present case there is no question but that Anthony Bland is in a condition known as the persistent vegetative state. He has no feeling, no awareness, nor can he experience anything relating to his surroundings. To his parents and family he is ‘dead’. His spirit has left him and all that remains is the shell of his body. This is kept functioning as a biological unit by the artificial process of feeding through a mechanically operated nasogastric tube. Intensive attention by skilled nurses assists the continuation of the existence of the body. It is a desperately tragic situation both for what remains of Anthony Bland and for the devoted members of his family. The doctor having the responsibility for the care of Anthony Bland has come to a very clear medical conclusion. He is supported in his assessment and opinion by doctors of unrivalled experience and professional standing. They say in terms that it is in accordance with good medical practice and in accordance with the true benefit to Anthony Bland himself that the artificial feeding regime should be withdrawn. The Official Solicitor has made clear to the court the possible implications of a precedent being established by a decision in favour of the plaintiffs in this case, although such a decision would accord with decisions taken in other common law jurisdictions.
The court must consider this case in the light of its particular facts and upon the principles of law obtaining in this jurisdiction. In my judgment the provision of artificial feeding by means of a nasogastric tube is ‘medical treatment’. The court has before it overwhelming medical evidence which supports this view. I accept it. The clinical judgment of Dr Howe is to the effect that it would be in the best interests of Anthony Bland for that artificial feeding regime to be withdrawn at this stage. He has cogently given his reasons for reaching that conclusion. After three and a half years he has not lightly made that decision. It is a clinical decision arrived at in the honest and responsible exercise of his duty of caring for his patient. The fact that Anthony Bland’s existence will terminate does not in my judgment alter the reality that the true cause of death will be the massive injuries which he sustained in what has been described as the Hillsborough disaster. I am satisfied that there is no reasonable possibility of Anthony Bland ever emerging from his existing persistent vegetative state to a cognitive sapient state. I am satisfied that there is no therapeutic, medical or other benefit to Anthony Bland in continuing to maintain his ventilation, nutrition and hydration by artificial means. I am further satisfied that to discontinue the same would accord with good medical practice as recognised and approved within the medical profession and finally that the order that I propose to make is in the circumstances in the best interests of Anthony Bland. His parents and sister concur in the making of the order which I propose to make and I therefore declare that despite
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the inability of Anthony Bland to consent thereto the plaintiffs and the responsible attending physicians: (1) may lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep Anthony Bland alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation, nutrition and hydration by artificial means; and (2) that they may lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to Anthony Bland except for the sole purpose of enabling Anthony Bland to end his life and to die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least distress.
I do not consider it appropriate to make any declaration with regard to any possible consequences so far as the criminal law is concerned. In my judgment the declaration that the course proposed is lawful is sufficient to give to the doctors and to the hospital the necessary assurance as to the lawfulness of what is proposed. There will of course be liberty to apply in the event of there being any material change in the existing circumstances before the withdrawal of the artificial feeding. May his soul rest in peace.
It is understandable that those who are concerned with patients in the persistent vegetative state should seek assistance as to the appropriate practice in the future. Because of the gravity of the decision and the likely possible variation in the facts of individual cases I consider that the approval of the court should be sought in cases of a similar nature. In accordance with the procedures indicated by Lord Brandon of Oakbrook in F v West Berkshire Health Authority [1989] 2 All ER 545 at 558, [1990] 2 AC 1 at 65 the appropriate procedure should be by a summons for a declaration made to the Family Division of the High Court. The Official Solicitor should in my judgment be invited to act as the guardian ad litem of the patient, which would guarantee the fullest possible investigation of all the facts and circumstances of the individual case. Although essentially the decision is one for the clinical judgment of responsible medical practitioners, in my judgment it is desirable as a safeguard and for the reassurance of the public that the court should be involved in the way that I have indicated. I would expect that in all similar applications there would be not merely one medical opinion but at least two responsible medical opinions. Further, the position of the members of the family is very important. It may be that there will be cases where there is a division of opinion among members of a family. In such cases it would be essential in my judgment for responsible medical carers to seek the authority of the court.
Declarations accordingly. No order as to costs.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
Appeal
The defendant, acting by the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem, appealed from so much of the order as declared that, despite the inability of the defendant to consent thereto, the plaintiffs and the responsible physicians (1) might lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep the defendant alive in his existing persistent vegetative state, including the termination of ventilation, nutrition and hydration by artificial means and (2) might lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to the defendant except for the sole purpose of enabling him to end his life and to die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least distress.
James Munby QC (instructed by the Official Solicitor) for the Official Solicitor as guardian ad litem.
Robert Francis QC and M R Taylor (instructed by Penningtons, agents for W J M Lovel, Harrogate) for the plaintiffs.
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Anthony Lester QC and Pushpinder Saini (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Attorney General as amicus curiae.
At the conclusion of the argument the appeal was dismissed and leave to appeal to the House of Lords was granted for reasons to be given later.
9 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. Mr Anthony David Bland, then aged 17½, went to the Hillsborough ground on 15 April 1989 to support the Liverpool Football Club. In the course of the disaster which occurred on that day his lungs were crushed and punctured and the supply of oxygen to his brain was interrupted. As a result, he suffered catastrophic and irreversible damage to the higher centres of the brain. The condition from which he suffers, and has suffered since April 1989, is known as a persistent vegetative state (PVS).
PVS is a recognised medical condition quite distinct from other conditions sometimes known as ‘irreversible coma’, ‘the Guillain-Barré syndrome’, ‘the locked-in syndrome’ and ‘brain death’. Its distinguishing characteristics are that the brain stem remains alive and functioning while the cortex of the brain loses its function and activity. Thus the PVS patient continues to breathe unaided and his digestion continues to function. But, although his eyes are open, he cannot see. He cannot hear. Although capable of reflex movement, particularly in response to painful stimuli, the patient is incapable of voluntary movement and can feel no pain. He cannot taste or smell. He cannot speak or communicate in any way. He has no cognitive function and can thus feel no emotion, whether pleasure or distress. The absence of cerebral function is not a matter of surmise: it can be scientifically demonstrated. The space which the brain should occupy is full of watery fluid.
The medical witnesses in this case include some of the outstanding authorities in the country on this condition. All are agreed on the diagnosis. All are agreed on the prognosis also: there is no hope of any improvement or recovery. One witness of great experience described Mr Bland as the worst PVS case he had ever seen.
Mr Bland lies in bed in the Airedale General Hospital, his eyes open, his mind vacant, his limbs crooked and taut. He cannot swallow, and so cannot be spoon-fed without a high risk that food will be inhaled into the lung. He is fed by means of a tube, threaded through the nose and down into the stomach, through which liquefied food is mechanically pumped. His bowels are evacuated by enema. His bladder is drained by catheter. He has been subject to repeated bouts of infection affecting his urinary tract and chest, which have been treated with antibiotics. Drugs have also been administered to reduce salivation, to reduce muscle tone and severe sweating and to encourage gastric emptying. A tracheostomy tube has been inserted and removed. Urino-genitary problems have required surgical intervention.
A patient in this condition requires very skilled nursing and close medical attention if he is to survive. The Airedale National Health Service Trust has, it is agreed, provided both to Mr Bland. Introduction of the nasogastric tube is itself a task of some delicacy even in an insensate patient. Thereafter it must be monitored to ensure it has not become dislodged and to control inflammation, irritation and infection to which it may give rise. The catheter must be monitored: it may cause infection (and has repeatedly done so); it has had to be resited, in an operation performed without anaesthetic. The mouth and other parts of the body must be
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constantly tended. The patient must be repeatedly moved to avoid pressure sores. Without skilled nursing and close medical attention a PVS patient will quickly succumb to infection. With such care, a young and otherwise healthy patient may live for many years.
At no time before the disaster did Mr Bland give any indication of his wishes should he find himself in such a condition. It is not a topic most adolescents address. After careful thought his family agreed that the feeding tubes should be removed and felt that this was what Mr Bland would have wanted. His father said of his son in evidence: ‘He certainly wouldn’t want to be left like that.' He could see no advantage at all in continuation of the current treatment. He was not cross-examined. It was accordingly with the concurrence of Mr Bland’s family, as well as the consultant in charge of his case and the support of two independent doctors, that the Airedale NHS Trust as plaintiff in this action applied to the Family Division of the High Court for declarations that they might—
‘(1) ... lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep AB [Mr Bland] alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation nutrition and hydration by artificial means; and (2) ... lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to AB except for the sole purpose of enabling AB to end his life and die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least of pain suffering and distress.’
After a hearing in which he was assisted by an amicus curiae instructed by the Attorney General, Sir Stephen Brown P made these declarations (subject to a minor change of wording) on 19 November 1992. He declined to make further declarations which were also sought. The Official Solicitor on behalf of Mr Bland appeals against that decision: in doing so he fulfils his traditional role as the voice of those who, for reasons of incapacity, cannot speak for themselves, ensuring that their interests do not go by default because of their involuntary silence.
The present appeal raises moral, legal and ethical questions of a profound and fundamental nature, questions literally of life and death. The case has naturally provoked much public discussion and great anxiety. Strong and sincerely held opinions have been expressed both in favour of the decision under appeal and against it. The issues are such as inevitably to provoke divisions of opinion. But they are fairly and squarely before the court, which has had the benefit of eloquent and erudite argument. It cannot shirk its duty to decide. It is, however, important to be clear from the outset what the case is, and is not, about. It is not about euthanasia, if by that is meant the taking of positive action to cause death. It is not about putting down the old and infirm, the mentally defective or the physically imperfect. It has nothing to do with the eugenic practices associated with fascist Germany. The issue is whether artificial feeding and antibiotic drugs may lawfully be withheld from an insensate patient with no hope of recovery when it is known that if that is done the patient will shortly thereafter die.
There are certain important principles relevant to this issue which both parties accept. (1) A profound respect for the sanctity of human life is embedded in our law and our moral philosophy, as it is in that of most civilised societies in the East and the West. That is why murder (next only to treason) has always been treated here as the most grave and heinous of crimes. (2) It is a civil wrong, and may be a crime, to impose medical treatment on a conscious adult of sound mind without his or her consent: see F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1. (3) A medical practitioner must comply with clear instructions given by an adult of sound mind
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as to the treatment to be given or not given in certain circumstances, whether those instructions are rational or irrational: see Sidaway v Bethlem Royal Hospital Governors [1985] 1 All ER 643 at 665–666, [1985] AC 871 at 904–905 and Re T (adult: refusal of medical treatment) [1992] 4 All ER 649, [1992] 3 WLR 782. This principle applies even if, by the time the specified circumstances obtain, the patient is unconscious or no longer of sound mind. (4) Where an adult patient is mentally incapable of giving his consent, no one (including the court) can give consent on his behalf. Treatment in such a case may lawfully be provided by a doctor where the treatment is in the best interests of the patient: see F v West Berkshire Health Authority. (5) Where the patient is a child and a ward of court, it will itself decide (paying appropriate regard to professional medical opinion) whether medical treatment is in the best interests of the patient: see Re B (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) (1981) [1990] 3 All ER 927, [1981] 1 WLR 1421, Re B (a minor) (wardship: sterilisation) [1987] 2 All ER 206, [1988] AC 199, Re C (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1989] 2 All ER 782, [1990] Fam 26 and Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1990] 3 All ER 930, [1991] Fam 33.
It follows from these propositions that, if, presciently, Mr Bland had given instructions that he should not be artificially fed or treated with antibiotics if he should become a PVS patient, his doctors would not act unlawfully in complying with those instructions but would act unlawfully if they did not comply even though the patient’s death would inevitably follow. If Mr Bland were a child and a ward of the court, it would decide what was in his best interests, having regard to the views of his parents but not treating them as conclusive: see Re B (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment). If the ratio of Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) is sound, an issue expressly reserved by Mr Munby QC (for the Official Solicitor) for argument in the House of Lords, the court may judge it to be in a child’s best interest that life-saving measures be withheld if of opinion that the life thereby prolonged would be one of intolerable pain and deprivation: see Re B (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) and Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment). This case is novel because Mr Bland is not a child and a ward of the court, he is immune to suffering and, as already stated, he gave no instructions concerning his treatment if he were to become a PVS patient.
There can be no doubt that the administration of antibiotics is medical treatment: they cannot be lawfully obtained in this country without prescription and the choice of antibiotic to treat a given condition calls for professional skill and knowledge. The overwhelming consensus of medical opinion in this country and the United States is that artificial feeding by nasogastric tube is also medical treatment. This is a readily understandable view. The insertion of the tube is a procedure calling for skill and knowledge, and the tube is invasive of the patient’s body to an extent which feeding by spoon or cup is not. An intubated patient certainly looks as if he is undergoing treatment, and the mechanical pumping of food through the tube is a highly unnatural process. It does not, however, seem to me crucial whether this is regarded as medical treatment or not, since whether or not this is medical treatment it forms part of the patient’s medical care and I cannot think the answer to this problem depends on fine definitional distinctions.
It is relevant to consider the objects of medical care. I think traditionally they have been (1) to prevent the occurrence of illness, injury or deformity (which for convenience I shall together call ‘illness’) before they occur, (2) to cure illness when it does occur, (3) where illness cannot be cured, to prevent or retard deterioration of the patient’s condition and (4) to relieve pain and suffering in body and mind. I doubt if it has ever been an object of medical care merely to prolong the life of an insensate patient with no hope of recovery where nothing
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can be done to promote any of these objects. But until relatively recently the question could scarcely have arisen since the medical technology to prolong life in this way did not exist. That is also a new feature of this case.
There are, however, a number of other jurisdictions in which the question has arisen and been squarely confronted.
In the United States the issue has been much litigated. Despite variations of practice and strong expressions of dissent, the courts have in the great majority of cases sanctioned the discontinuance of artificial feeding of PVS patients. They have reached this result in deference to the express wishes of the patient where there were such and, where there were not, on the basis either that the court could judge what the patient’s wishes would have been if expressed or that such discontinuance was in all the circumstances in the patient’s best interests. The courts have consistently rejected the suggestion that such discontinuance amounts to suicide or criminal homicide. Since US courts exercise a parens patriae jurisdiction even in relation to adults, these cases must be viewed with reserve, but the trend of authority is clear.
In the South African case Clarke v Hurst (30 July 1992, unreported) there was evidence of a PVS patient’s wish that his life should not be artificially prolonged, but the court acted on wider grounds in sanctioning the discontinuance of nasogastric and other non-natural feeding methods and the withholding of medical treatment.
In New Zealand the question arose in relation to a victim of the Guillain-Barré syndrome who had expressed no wishes concerning his treatment: see Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235. Thomas J delivered a comprehensive oral judgment in the course of which he said (at 250):
‘In my view, doctors have a lawful excuse to discontinue ventilation when there is no medical justification for continuing that form of medical assistance. To require the administration of a life-support system when such a system has no further medical function or purpose and serves only to defer the death of the patient is to confound the purpose of medicine. In such circumstances, the continuation of the artificial ventilation may be lawful, but that does not make it unlawful to discontinue it if the discontinuance accords with good medical practice.’
Having considered Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1992] 4 All ER 614, [1993] Fam 15 he said (at 252):
‘The point, for present purposes is, as I apprehend it, that a doctor acting in good faith and in accordance with good medical practice is not under a duty to render life support necessary to prolong life if that is, in his or her judgment, contrary to the best interests of the patient.’
Finally he concluded (at 253):
‘Medical science and technology has advanced for a fundamental purpose; the purpose of benefiting the life and health of those who turn to medicine to be healed. It surely was never intended that it be used to prolong biological life in patients bereft of the prospect of returning to an even limited exercise of human life. Nothing in the inherent purpose of these scientific advances can require doctors to treat the dying as if they were curable. Natural death has not lost its meaning or significance. It may be deferred but it need not be postponed indefinitely. Nor, surely, was modern medical science ever developed to be used inhumanely. To do so is not consistent with its
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fundamental purpose. Take the case of a man riddled with cancer, in constant agony, and facing imminent death. Is he to be placed upon a respirator? On the contrary, it has been generally accepted that doctors may seek to alleviate a patient’s terminal pain and suffering even though the treatment may at the same time possibly accelerate the patient’s death. As I perceive it, what is involved is not just medical treatment, but medical treatment in accordance with the doctor’s best judgment as to what is in the best interests of his or her patient. They remain responsible for the kind and extent of the treatment administered and, ultimately, for its duration. In exercising their best judgment in this regard it is crucial for the patient and in the overall interests of society that they should not be inhibited by considerations pertinent to their own self-interest in avoiding criminal sanctions. Their judgment must be a genuinely independent judgment as to what will best serve the well-being of their dying patients. Conscientious doctors will undoubtedly continue to strive with dedication to preserve and promote the life and health of their patients. That is their primary mission. But with a patient such as Mr L, where “life” is being prolonged for no therapeutic or medical purpose or, in other words, death is merely being deferred, the doctor is not under a duty to avert that death at all costs. If, in his judgment, the proper medical practice would be to discontinue the life-support system, and that would be in the best interests of his patient, he may do so subject to adhering to a procedure which provides a safeguard against the possibility of individual error.’
In Nancy B v Hôtel-Dieu de Québec (1992) 86 DLR (4th) 385 the Quebec Superior Court granted the plaintiff, a victim of the Guillain-Barré syndrome whose intellectual faculties were unimpaired but whose survival was dependent on artificial respiration, an order that further treatment be discontinued. That was, however, in response to her express and informed wish. A question closer to the present was addressed by the Law Reform Commission of Canada in its Working Paper 28 on Euthanasia, Aiding Suicide and Cessation of Treatment (1982), which stated (at p 65):
‘At this stage, it may be useful to summarize the tentative conclusions which the Commission has reached to date. These conclusions are as follows: (1) the law should recognise the competent patient’s wishes and respect them as regards the cessation or non-initiation of treatment; (2) the law should clearly state that a physician acts legally when he decides to terminate or not to initiate treatment which is useless or which no longer offers reasonable hope, unless the patient has expressed his wishes to the contrary; (3) the law should recognize that the prolonging of life is not an absolute value in itself and that therefore a physician does not act illegally when he fails to take measures to achieve this end, if these measures are useless or contrary to the patient’s wishes or interests; (4) the law should recognize that a physician who continues to treat a patient against his wishes is subject to the provisions of the Criminal Code; (5) the law should recognize that the incapacity of a person to express his wishes is not sufficient a reason to oblige a physician to administer useless treatment for the purpose of prolonging his life; (6) the law should recognize that in the case of an unconscious or incompetent patient, a physician incurs no criminal responsibility by terminating treatment which has become useless.’
After extensive consultation the commission recommended in Report 20 (on the same subject) (at p 27) that—
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‘a physician should not incur any criminal liability if he decides to discontinue or not initiate treatment for an incompetent person, when that treatment is no longer therapeutically useful and is not in the person’s best interest.’
In this country, a discussion paper published by the ethics committee of the British Medical Association (the BMA) in September 1992 recorded (at p 22) that there had been no prosecutions in Scotland in cases where doctors had withdrawn nutrition from PVS patients with the agreement of the patients’ families. An earlier BMA report had expressed the view that—
‘feeding/gastrostomy tubes for nutrition and hydration are medical treatments and are warranted only when they make possible a decent life in which the patient can reasonably be thought to have a continued interest … There is no justification for continuing medical intervention in such a state [PVS] and the working party feels that the individual concerned is most appropriately treated as an incompetent patient with a terminal condition.’
In 1991 the Institute of Medical Ethics published a majority view (at p 16) that—
‘it can be morally justified to withdraw artificial nutrition and hydration from patients in persistent vegetative state.’
In seeking declarations from the court Mr Francis QC for the plaintiff trust relied on the reasoning underlying this weight of authority, as did Mr Lester QC who supported the plaintiff’s application. The central steps in the argument were, I think, these. (1) The question whether artificial feeding and antibiotic treatment of Mr Bland should be discontinued is one to be resolved by the doctors in charge of his case, in consultation with independent medical experts conscientiously exercising a careful and informed judgment of what the best interests of their patient require. In forming that judgment it is appropriate for them to take full account of the family’s wishes, as they have done. (2) While the respect accorded to human life always raises a presumption in favour of prolonging it, that presumption is not irrebuttable. (3) Mere prolongation of the life of a PVS patient such as Mr Bland, with no hope of any recovery, is not necessarily in his best interests, if indeed such prolongation is in his interest at all. (4) In making an objective judgment of Mr Bland’s best interests, account can be taken not only of any pain and suffering which prolonged feeding and medication might cause but also of wider, less tangible considerations. (5) The assessment of Mr Bland’s best interests, although a matter for his doctors in the first instance, is ultimately subject to the sanction of the court where (as here) its jurisdiction is invoked. There is no ground for overriding their judgment.
Step (1) of this argument is in my view consistent with the English authority already referred to. I do not think there is any English authority inconsistent with it.
If the reasoning of Re J [1992] 4 All ER 614, [1993] Fam 15 is sound, step (2) of the argument is also sound. I think that the reasoning in Re J is sound. It is also consistent with the reasoning in Re B (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) (1981) [1990] 3 All ER 927, [1981] 1 WLR 1421 and Re C [1989] 2 All ER 782, [1990] Fam 26. In any event the ratio of Re J is binding on this court.
I would for my part accept step (3). Looking at the matter as objectively as I can, and doing my best to look at the matter through Mr Bland’s eyes and not my own, I cannot conceive what benefit his continued existence could be thought to give him. It might be different were it possible to hope that, if he lived long enough, means might be found to restore some part of his faculties, but no
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grounds have been suggested for cherishing such a hope and the physiological findings appear to preclude it.
It is of course true that pain and suffering, which may (if the foregoing reasoning is sound) weigh in the balance against the presumption in favour of life, are here to be ignored because of Mr Bland’s insensible condition. But I accept the argument in step (4) that account may be taken of wider and less tangible considerations. An objective assessment of Mr Bland’s best interests, viewed through his eyes, would in my opinion give weight to the constant invasions and humiliations to which his inert body is subject; to the desire he would naturally have to be remembered as a cheerful, carefree, gregarious teenager and not an object of pity; to the prolonged ordeal imposed on all members of his family, but particularly on his parents; even, perhaps, if altruism still lives, to a belief that finite resources are better devoted to enhancing life than simply averting death.
I accept step (5). In cases where assessment of the patient’s best interests is not undertaken by the court itself (as in wardship), the doctors’ assessment is none the less subject to the court’s review, where its jurisdiction is invoked. Such review may be of real value in excluding the possibilities of medical error, misapprehension of the correct approach, divisions of opinion, conflicts of interest, improper motives and so on. On the doctors’ premises, Sir Stephen Brown P found no reason to impugn the doctors’ judgment and none was suggested. Unless their premises can be effectively challenged, there is in my view no ground for withholding the court’s sanction.
I have not so far directly addressed the submissions made to the court by Mr Munby for the Official Solicitor. He did, however, challenge, radically and robustly, the premises upon which the doctors’ judgment was based. To those submissions I now turn.
Mr Munby’s first submission was:
‘To withdraw Anthony Bland’s feeding tube is to do an act which will inevitably cause, and is intended to cause, his death. It is, therefore, necessarily unlawful and criminal. This is so whether or not artificial feeding is medical treatment.’
The submission was a short one. Reliance was placed on Devlin J’s famous direction in R v Adams (8 April 1957, unreported) that ‘no doctor, nor any man, no more in the case of the dying than of the healthy, has the right deliberately to cut the thread of life’. Attention was also drawn to Ognall J’s recent direction to the jury in R v Cox (18 September 1992, unreported) that there is an ‘absolute prohibition on a doctor purposefully taking life as opposed to saving it’. Accordingly it is said that the doctors’ proposed course of action (at least in relation to feeding) would amount at least to manslaughter, at most to murder.
I have some difficulty in regarding this as a practical issue, since both R v Adams and R v Cox concerned drugs said to have been deliberately administered to cause or hasten death and I cannot on the present facts imagine any prosecutor prosecuting, any judge leaving the issue to a jury or any jury convicting. But that does not meet the theoretical argument.
The submission may perhaps be tested by three hypothetical examples.
(1) In compliance with the express instructions of a PVS patient given before onset of the condition, when the patient was adult and of sound mind, a doctor discontinues artificial feeding after three years and the patient dies. Has the doctor aided and abetted suicide? I think the answer plainly is that he has not. Why not? There are several possible answers. One is that it cannot be unlawful to act in accordance with the instructions of an adult patient of sound mind. Another is
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that the patient lacked the intent necessary for suicide. A third is that it was not the discontinuance of artificial feeding but the patient’s condition and its underlying cause which caused his death. A fourth is that the doctor lacked the intent necessary for aiding and abetting suicide. It may be all four answers are correct. But if it was not the discontinuance which caused the death or if the doctor lacked the intent to kill he would have defences to murder and perhaps manslaughter also even if the patient had given no instructions.
(2) A PVS patient’s nasogastric tube becomes defective after years of use and has to be removed. The doctor has to decide whether to continue artificial feeding through a replacement nasogastric tube or a newly implanted gastrostomy tube. He decides that, in all the circumstances, three years after the onset of the condition and with no hope of improvement, it is not in the patient’s best interests to do so. He does not do so and the patient dies. Is the doctor guilty of murder or manslaughter? In my view plainly not. If that is so, and the doctors here were to be guilty, it could only be because of a distinction between initiating a new regime of artificial feeding and discontinuing an existing regime. Where the doctor’s duty to the patient (to care for him with ordinary professional skill in the patient’s best interests) is the same in the two cases, I cannot think that criminal liability depends on such a distinction. The doctor must be guilty in both cases or neither.
(3) A PVS patient shows signs of life-threatening failure of, in succession, heart, lungs, liver, kidneys, spleen, bladder, pancreas. In each case the failure can be safely rectified by serious surgery, carried out without pain or distress to the unconscious patient. Is the doctor obliged to undertake these life-saving procedures? Although pointing out, correctly, that his first submission related only to artificial feeding, Mr Munby answered that the doctor was so obliged. Such a suggestion is in my view so repugnant to one’s sense of how one individual should behave towards another that I would reject it as possibly representing the law. But if I am right to reject it, the doctors could only be guilty here if some distinction were to be drawn between the surgical procedures described and artificial feeding. But I do not think that criminal liability can depend on the relative invasiveness of different invasive procedures.
A doctor who discontinues artificial feeding of a PVS patient, after a lapse of time which entitles him to be sure that there is no hope of recovery, in pursuance of a conscientious and proper judgment that such discontinuance is in the patient’s best interests, is in my view guilty of no crime. For present purposes I do not think it greatly matters whether one simply says that that is not an unlawful act, or that the doctor lacks criminal intent, or that he breaches no duty or that his act did not cause death. But even if this first submission were (contrary to my view) sound, it would leave the doctors free to discontinue antibiotics, with the result that Mr Bland would die sooner rather than later, perhaps less peacefully than on withdrawal of artificial feeding. The factual merits of the submission are not compelling.
Mr Munby’s second submission was:
‘To withdraw Anthony Bland’s feeding tube is a breach of the doctors’ duty to care for and feed him: discontinuance of mechanical hydration and nutrition involves the withdrawal of food, whether or not it also involves the withdrawal of medical treatment. Since it will inevitably cause, and is intended to cause, his death, it is necessarily unlawful and criminal.’
I think it is evident from what I have already said that I do not accept any ingredient of this submission for reasons I have given. Its falsity is in my view highlighted by an attempted analogy with R v Stone [1977] 2 All ER 341, [1977]
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QB 354, where the defendant convicted of manslaughter had failed to supply food or procure medical attention for an elderly and infirm but conscious woman who was perfectly capable of feeding herself if food was supplied.
Mr Munby’s third submission was:
‘In any event, and even assuming that artificial feeding is properly to be regarded as medical treatment (and it ought not to be), there is no justification for withdrawing that treatment. To withdraw Anthony Bland’s feeding tube is a breach of the doctors’ duty to treat and nurse him. Since it will inevitably cause, and is intended to cause, his death, it is necessarily unlawful and criminal.’
Again, I think it is evident from what I have already said that I do not accept any ingredient of this submission for reasons I have given.
I turn lastly to the issue of procedure, on the assumption that the plaintiff trust is entitled to the declarations made. There was only limited dispute about this. At the end of his judgment Sir Stephen Brown P held that in cases of this kind application should be made to the court to obtain its sanction for the course proposed. This was in my respectful view a wise ruling, directed to the protection of patients, the protection of doctors, the reassurance of patients’ families and the reassurance of the public. The practice proposed seems to me desirable. It may very well be that with the passage of time a body of experience and practice will build up which will obviate the need for application in every case, but for the time being I am satisfied that the practice which Sir Stephen Brown P described should be followed.
I would dismiss the appeal. I have read in draft the judgments of Butler-Sloss and Hoffmann LJJ and agree also with their reasons for reaching this conclusion.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. This is a tragic case and the necessary dispassionate consideration of all the necessary components of the issues before us should not blind us to the anguish of the family for whom everyone feels the greatest sympathy.
Each court seised of these issues has an awesome task to face. In doing so we have to rid ourselves of emotional overtones and emotive language which do not assist in elucidating the profound questions which require to be answered.
The facts are not in dispute. The present condition of Tony Bland has been described by Sir Thomas Bingham MR. He is at the extreme end of the spectrum of those suffering from the condition of persistent vegetative state (PVS). He has been in that state for three and a half years and there is, while he lives, no release from it. He is in a ‘state of chronic wakefulness without awareness’ (American Medical Association Council Report, January 1990), and has irreversible loss of cognition. A recent surgical operation was carried out on him without anaesthetic, and his future care and whether he does or does not receive nutrition and hydration, or the manner in which he will die will be a matter of indifference to him in his present state.
His ability to survive with artificial support is a product of the medical advances in recent years. Medical science and technology have provided for many a cure or alleviation of injury or disease but have also created conditions which allow Anthony Bland to exist in a twilight world. Twenty years ago he would not have survived.
Self-determination
The starting point for consideration, in my view, is the right of a human being to make his own decisions and to decide whether to accept or reject treatment,
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the right of self-determination. Such a decision may be rational or irrational (see Sidaway v Bethlem Royal Hospital Governors [1985] 1 All ER 643 at 665–666, [1985] AC 871 at 904–905). Counsel all agree that the right to reject treatment extends to deciding not to accept treatment in the future by way of advance directive or ‘living will’. A well-known example of advance directive is provided by those subscribing to the tenets of the Jehovah’s Witnesses, who make it clear that they will not accept blood transfusions (see for example Malette v Shulman (1990) 72 OR (2d) 417). The provision of treatment by a doctor without the consent of the patient other than in an emergency is likely to be a trespass (see F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545 at 562, [1990] 2 AC 1 at 71 per Lord Goff of Chieveley and Schloendorff v Society of New York Hospital (1914) 211 NY 125 at 129 per Cardozo J).
In this case Anthony Bland has not given a clear indication of his views. His family are unable to consent on his behalf (see Re T (adult: refusal of medical treatment) [1992] 4 All ER 649 at 653, [1992] 3 WLR 782 at 787 per Lord Donaldson MR). His father expressed in evidence his view that his son would not have wished to live in his present state. As Lord Donaldson MR said the views of relatives may reveal that the patient had made an anticipatory choice which does not arise here. The views of the family must always be treated with respect and will be an important consideration in the overall assessment. In some cases the evidence of relatives will require to be treated with great caution since there may be hidden motives. There is no suggestion that such concerns arise in this family.
Lack of consent
Mr Bland is both by medical and legal standards incompetent in that he lacks the capacity to give valid consent to medical treatment. No one can consent on his behalf. The parens patriae jurisdiction of the High Court no longer exists and in F v West Berkshire Health Authority the House of Lords held that at common law there was no jurisdiction in the court to approve or disapprove the giving of medical treatment to such a patient. The lawfulness of the action depended upon whether the treatment was in the best interests of the patient. The House of Lords then devised a procedure in cases of proposed sterilisation of those unable to consent that a declaration might be made by the High Court as to whether such an operation was in the best interests of the patient.
Two possible approaches have been suggested to us, the United States preferred route of substituted judgment or the objectively ascertained best interests of the patient. The majority of state superior courts (of the United States) have, in the absence of expressed wishes, founded their decisions on similar issues on the exercise of a substituted judgment based upon ascertaining the patient’s known views, beliefs, philosophy and lifestyle. In the absence of sufficient information many of the American courts have made decisions based upon the patient’s ‘best interests’.
Although it appears in origin derived from the English common law, the American approach based on substituted judgment appears to have little in common with the trend discernible in recent English decisions, all of which consider the objective best interests of the patient (see for example F v West Berkshire Health Authority and Re T). I can see no reason to extend the test of substituted judgment beyond the Court of Protection. In assessing the best interests of Anthony Bland, however, his views, personality, how others including his family saw him before his accident will form part of that assessment, although that evidence has a subjective element.
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Medical treatment
Before considering the duty of care of the doctor towards his patient, it is necessary to deal with the argument of Mr Munby QC that the method of providing nutrition to Anthony Bland is not ‘medical treatment’. All but one of the doctors who gave evidence to Sir Stephen Brown P treated it as such, and even Dr Andrews, who disagreed, accepted that, if asked to do so by a patient who was capable of making a decision, he would remove the nasogastric tube. The evidence of the doctors was supported by a wealth of medical expertise that it is medical treatment, the report of the British Medical Association, the American Medical Association, the medical ethics committees of England and of the United States. It is also the conclusion of the Supreme Courts of many of the states of the United States and, even more persuasive, of the Supreme Court of the United States in Cruzan v Director, Missouri Dept of Health (1990) 497 US 261. Interestingly, the Mental Health Act 1983 includes nursing in its definition of ‘medical treatment’.
Although Mr Munby for the Official Solicitor argued that it is not ‘medical treatment’ there was overwhelming evidence upon which Sir Stephen Brown P was entitled to conclude that it is.
If we describe what is being done by the doctors and nurses for Anthony Bland and others in his condition as medical care rather than treatment, it may to the layman make more sense and avoid the uncomfortable attempt to draw a line between different forms of feeding such as spoon-feeding a helpless patient or inserting a tube through the nose or direct into the stomach.
The definition of medical treatment does not, in my view, of itself resolve the problem. The underlying issue is whether, under the extreme circumstances of this case, there is a duty upon his doctor to continue to provide to Anthony Bland nutrition and hydration by an artificial method. Mr Munby argued that there are basic needs which are the right of a patient, the need for air and the need for nutrition. That is in my view too narrow an expression of basic needs, which cannot be seen in isolation from general care including for instance warmth and hygiene.
Duty of care
A doctor owes a duty of care towards his patient and in the case of a patient unable to give instructions or consent to treatment, a duty to treat him in the patient’s best interests (see F v West Berkshire Health Authority). The general duty of a doctor is to act in accordance with a responsible and competent body of relevant professional opinion based upon the principles laid down in Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 2 All ER 118, [1957] 1 WLR 582 (the Bolam test). In carrying out his duty towards his patient a doctor is faced all the time with a series of decisions each of which requires choices—a choice whether to operate, whether to initiate other invasive treatment such as chemotherapy, whether to give antibiotics. As his care of the patient progresses he may have to decide whether to discontinue a process conscious that such a choice marks not only the cessation of effective treatment but also brings closer the end of his patient’s life. Medical ethics draw no distinction between the withholding of treatment and the withdrawing of treatment. It is accepted by Mr Munby that in making those decisions and choosing one course rather than another the doctor is rightly guided by the value of the treatment given and the lack of value of other treatment proposed and from time to time the futility of giving any further treatment which will not benefit the patient. The assessment of the futility of the treatment is in his view justification for ceasing the treatment. He argued none the less that, since feeding is not treatment, the futility of
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continuing useless treatment does not arise, and in any event it is never futile to feed. None the less decisions have to be made about future treatment which involve choices such as whether to provide antibiotics. Sir Stephen Brown P found that it was the unanimous opinion of all the distinguished doctors who have examined Mr Bland that there is no hope whatsoever of recovery or improvement of any kind. The only purpose of the present care is to keep him artificially alive within his present condition. The medical team caring for Mr Bland have formed the medical opinion that it is in his best interests to discontinue all forms of treatment including the provision of nutrition and hydration.
The question then arises as to the extent or limit of the duty of care of the doctor towards a PVS patient. The formulation of the duty of care within the Bolam test may not by itself be an adequate basis for this grave decision which requires more than the decision as to the uselessness of future treatment. The principle of the best interests of an incompetent patient in the present circumstances encompasses wider considerations, including some degree of monitoring of the medical decision.
There is a conflict between the principle of self-determination and whatever may be the equivalent right of those who cannot choose and another basic principle of our society, the preservation of life. Lord Donaldson MR spoke in Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1990] 3 All ER 930 at 938, [1991] Fam 33 at 46 of the vast importance of the sanctity of the human life. I respectfully agree with him. Its importance cannot be overemphasised. He said:
‘The decision on life and death must and does remain in other hands. What doctors and the court have to decide is whether, in the best interests of the child patient, a particular decision as to medical treatment should be taken which as a side effect will render death more or less likely. This is not a matter of semantics. It is fundamental. At the other end of the age spectrum, the use of drugs to reduce pain will often be fully justified, notwithstanding that this will hasten the moment of death. What can never be justified is the use of drugs or surgical procedures with the primary purpose of doing so.’ (Lord Donaldson MR’s emphasis.)
Lord Donaldson MR then set out the balancing exercise to be performed:
‘This brings me face to face with the problem of formulating the critical equation. In truth it cannot be done with mathematical or any precision. There is without doubt a very strong presumption in favour of a course of action which will prolong life, but, even excepting the “cabbage” case to which special considerations may well apply, it is not irrebuttable.’
Mr Munby argued in Re J the fundamentalist or absolutist approach, that the pain and suffering experienced and to be experienced by that child should not displace the sanctity of life, including the preservation of the life of that child, whatever it was to be. This court rejected that approach and placed on the other side of the critical equation the tragic situation of the child concerned and the quality of her life. Lord Donaldson MR did not feel bound to follow the views expressed (obiter) in Re B (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) (1981) [1990] 3 All ER 927, [1981] 1 WLR 1421 as to the degree of awfulness or intolerability of treatment which might be proposed as providing a quasi-statutory yardstick. He left the door open. Apart from preferring to use a word other than ‘cabbage’, I respectfully agree with him. In Re B this court was considering a simple operation to clear an intestinal obstruction of a Down’s syndrome baby. The circumstances of Re J or of this appeal were not considered by the members of the court. Dunn
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LJ pointed out that there was no reliable prognosis as to the life expectancy of the child and no evidence at all about the quality of life the child might expect (see [1990] 3 All ER 927 at 929–930, [1981] 1 WLR 1421 at 1424).
Although this court in Re J was exercising the parens patriae jurisdiction, the approach is equally apposite to an incompetent adult, since the consideration of best interests has to import a balancing exercise which Mr Munby recognised. His answer was that severe pain and suffering as experienced by the child in Re J is the only factor which can be put on the other side of the equation to the sanctity of life. He reserved his position to argue elsewhere that Re J was wrongly decided and there was nothing to place in the balance against the sanctity of life. In his argument to this court the interests of the PVS patient are limited to that sole consideration.
To place pain and suffering in a unique category, the existence of which may justify foregoing the preservation of the sanctity of life, does not appear to me to be justifiable. Two reasons come immediately to mind. First, on a practical level, according to Mr Munby the exception of extreme pain can be justified on the basis that it can be objectively verified. The degree of resistance to pain varies enormously from person to person and is intensively subjective however its existence as such may be objectively verified. It is not an absolute state and it will always be a matter of degree as to whether the state of pain of an incompetent patient is sufficiently severe to meet the necessary criterion. If it is to be the only criterion, excluding all other considerations, the lack of clarity in formulating when it comes into play, creates for me a logical problem in accepting it alone on the other side of the equation.
There is however a second and more fundamental objection. The case for the universal sanctity of life assumes a life in the abstract and allows nothing for the reality of Mr Bland’s actual existence. There are clearly dangers in departing from the fundamental approach to the preservation of life, but in the American decisions it is not conclusive. Two exceptions are already recognised in English common law, the right of self-determination and the Re J situation of extreme pain and suffering. The quality of life has already been recognised as a factor and placed in the equation to allow a life not to be prolonged at all costs. Taylor LJ said in Re J [1990] 3 All ER 930 at 945, [1991] Fam 33 at 55: ‘Once the absolute test is rejected, the proper criteria must be a matter of degree.' To limit the quality of life to extreme pain is to take a demeaning view of a human being. There must be something more for the humanity of the person of a PVS patient. He remains a person and not an object of concern. In Re Conroy (1985) 98 NJ 321 at 396 Handler J supports this approach:
‘Clearly, a decision to focus exclusively on pain as the single criterion ignores and devalues other important ideals regarding life and death. Consequently, a pain standard cannot serve as an indirect proxy for additional and significant concerns that bear on the decision to forego life-prolonging treatments.’
The concentration exclusively upon pain is to me an unacceptable approach to a patient in Anthony Bland’s extreme situation. There are other factors to be placed in the critical equation.
Those other factors have not so far been explored in English decisions but they have been considered extensively in the United States and in a recent case in New Zealand. In Cruzan v Director, Missouri Dept of Health (1990) 110 S Ct 2841 at 2885–2886 (a PVS case) Stevens J (in a dissenting opinion) said:
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‘But Nancy Cruzan’s interest in life, no less than that of any other person, includes an interest in how she will be thought of after her death by those whose opinions mattered to her. There can be no doubt that her life made her dear to her family, and to others. How she dies will affect how that life is remembered.’
In Guardianship of Jane Doe (1992) 411 Mass 512 the Supreme Judicial Court of Massachusetts (in a PVS case where the patient had always been incompetent) held that incompetent individuals have the same rights as competent individuals to refuse and terminate medical treatment. Abrams J, giving the majority opinion, accepted the rights of the patient to bodily integrity and privacy and upheld the judge’s decision to terminate nasoduodenal feeding and hydration. Re Jobes (1987) 108 NJ 394 (a PVS patient) following Re Quinlan (1976) 70 NJ 10 upheld the principle of self-determination for the incompetent. The views of the family were accepted in each of those cases. Handler J in a concurring opinion considered the best interests test and, after describing the extreme physical condition of Mrs Jobes (very similar to Mr Bland), quoted a passage in his opinion in Re Conroy (1985) 98 NJ 321 at 398–399:
‘“The medical and nursing treatment of individuals in extremis and suffering from these conditions entails the constant and extensive handling and manipulation of the body. At some point, such a course of treatment upon the insensate patient is bound to touch the sensibilities of even the most detached observer. Eventually, pervasive bodily intrusions, even for the best motives, will arouse feelings akin to humiliation and mortification for the helpless patient. When cherished values of human dignity and personal privacy, which belong to every person living or dying, are sufficiently transgressed by what is being done to the individual, we should be ready to say: enough.” Based upon such factors it should be possible to structure critical treatment decisions that are reliable, understandable and acceptable.’ (See 108 NJ 394 at 443–444.)
Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235 was an extreme example of a Guillain-Barré syndrome, causing a condition somewhat similar to a PVS patient, where the doctors sought a declaration that to withdraw artificial ventilation would not constitute culpable homicide. Thomas J granted the declaration and in doing so considered decisions from a number of common law jurisdictions including the American and our own. He referred (at 245) to—
‘values of human dignity and personal privacy… Human dignity and personal privacy belong to every person, whether living or dying. Yet, the sheer invasiveness of the treatment and the manipulation of the human body which it entails, the pitiful and humiliating helplessness of the patient’s state, and the degradation and dissolution of all bodily functions invoke these values …’
The judge based his decision upon the best interests test. Mr Munby accepted that there was no difference in principle between the ventilator and the nasogastric tube.
Although the American decisions are often based upon the principle of achieving the right of an incompetent patient to make decisions as if competent through the device of the substituted judgment, in many cases the distinction from best interests is blurred, as Handler J pointed out in Re Jobes (1987) 108 NJ 394 at 436, and in some cases it is clearly an objective assessment of best interests
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and the decisions are persuasive support for considerations far wider than the factor of pain to be taken into account in balancing the critical equation.
We all of course recognise that a patient unable to choose cannot himself exercise his right of self-determination and he cannot make the irrational decision he might notionally have made if in possession of his faculties. But not to be able to be irrational does not seem to me to be a good reason to be deprived of a rational decision which could be taken on his behalf in his best interests. Otherwise, if, as I believe they are, other factors as well as pain are relevant considerations, he is put at an unfair disadvantage.
A mentally incompetent patient has interests to be considered and protected, the basic one being the right to be properly cared for by others. He retains the right to have proceedings taken on his behalf, for instance to claim damages for negligence, or to have his estate or other property managed for him, or to respond to actions or proceedings taken against him, such as divorce proceedings. He retains in my view the right to be well regarded by others, and to be well remembered by his family. That right is separate from that of his family to remember him and to have the opportunity to grieve for him when he is dead. He has the right to be respected. Consequently he has a right to avoid unnecessary humiliation and degrading invasion of his body for no good purpose. I was dismayed to hear the argument of the Official Solicitor that, if Mr Bland suffered a cardiac arrest or a renal failure, it would be the duty of the doctors to perform a heart bypass operation or a kidney transplant. I cannot believe that a patient in the situation of Mr Bland should be subjected to therapeutically useless treatment contrary to good medical practice and medical ethics which would not be inflicted upon those able to choose. It is an affront to his right to be respected.
The considerations as to the quality of life of Mr Bland now and in the future in his extreme situation are in my opinion rightly to be placed on the other side of the critical equation from the general principle of the sanctity and inviolability of life. In this appeal those factors which include the reality of Mr Bland’s existence outweigh the abstract requirement to preserve life. The doctors charged with his care have balanced that equation from the medical standpoint and, after consultation with the family, who are in agreement, have concluded that his best interests lie in not artificially prolonging his life. Sir Stephen Brown P reconsidered all the relevant matters and came to the conclusion that to discontinue the artificial feeding would be in accordance with good medical practice and was in the best interests of Mr Bland. In my respectful view he was right and I entirely agree with his conclusion. The duty of the doctors towards a PVS patient at the extreme end of the spectrum does not extend to prolonging his life at all costs. Where they can be medically certain on all the evidence that he has been suffering from loss of consciousness without hope of recovery for a substantial period of time, in my judgment they are not in breach of their duty of care if they discontinue the artificial nutrition and hydration.
The criminal law
The thrust of Mr Munby’s argument has been that it is unlawful to discontinue artificial feeding and consequently the doctors would be at risk of criminal proceedings. If a doctor owes a duty to continue to treat or to provide artificial nutrition, his failure to do so is a breach of his duty to the patient and may not only be actionable, but also a criminal act. In my view, as I have already set out in this judgment, I do not consider that there remains a duty of care upon the doctors to continue the artificial feeding and I agree with Mr Lester QC that there is no actus reus and no unlawful act or omission. The issue of mens rea does not arise.
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There has been no criminal prosecution on these facts in England. My view is supported, however, by the decision of the Superior Court of the State of California, in the County of Los Angeles, in Barber v Superior Court of Los Angeles County (1983) 147 Cal App 3d 1006. The court held that the doctors’ omission to continue treatment though intentional and with knowledge that the patient would die was not unlawful failure to perform a legal duty.
The position of Dr Cox is different (see R v Cox (18 September 1992, unreported), Ognall J). He injected a lethal dose, which was designed to cause death and was an external and intrusive act committed by an outsider and was not in accordance with his duty of care as a doctor. The effect of the cessation of artificial feeding is to place the patient in the position he would have been in before the nasogastric tube was inserted. Without the tube he would have died from his medical condition and with it he has been artificially kept alive despite that condition until now. Whether this is an act or omission carries the matter no further. The distinction between Mr Bland’s doctors and Dr Cox is between an act or omission which allows causes already present in the body to operate and the introduction of an external agency of death.
The idea of ceasing the artificial feeding is a distressing one for all of us to contemplate. It would no doubt also be distressing for those who are caring for Mr Bland. We know however from the medical evidence that it would not be a distressing or painful experience for him in his state of non-cognition. The manner of his death can be eased for him and those seeing it by appropriate medical and nursing care until the end of his life.
I have anxiously considered whether this is a decision which ought to be taken by the doctors alone. As the House of Lords said in F v West Berkshire Health Authority [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 it is not generally for the courts to intervene in the decision-making process as to whether a course of action is in the best interests of a patient. That process is for the doctors. The BMA have laid down careful guidelines for these cases. None the less in F v West Berkshire Health Authority the House of Lords recognised an exceptional situation which required guidance from the High Court. I have been persuaded by the amicus that in a decision-making process of such gravity as whether to continue treating a PVS patient, the intervention of the High Court is a proper safeguard. I respectfully agree with the formulation of the procedures proposed by Sir Stephen Brown P and that, for the time being at least, each application to discontinue treatment should be made to the High Court. The rapid advances of medical technology create problems which may require the intervention of the courts from time to time. Such intervention may also reassure public concern.
I would dismiss the appeal.
HOFFMANN LJ. Anthony Bland was a cheerful teenager from Keighley in Yorkshire. He enjoyed pop music, football and drinking with his friends. In the spectators’ pen at Hillsborough football stadium on 15 April 1989 his lungs were crushed by the pressure of the crowd around him. He ceased breathing until resuscitated by first aid. While he could not breathe his brain was deprived of oxygen.
The human brain consists of the cerebral hemispheres and the lower centre of the brain, which is called the brain stem. The cerebral hemispheres, or more precisely their outer layers, which are called the cerebral cortex, contain the function of consciousness. Without them, we cannot see, hear, feel pain or pleasure, or make any voluntary movements. The brain stem controls the body’s semi-autonomous movements, like breathing, reflex actions and the beating of the heart.
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The cerebral cortex requires a constant supply of oxygen, glucose and blood. An interruption of oxygen for a few minutes can cause extensive damage to the cells of the cortex, which never regenerate. But the brain stem is relatively resistant to being deprived of oxygen. It may therefore continue to function, and enable the heart to beat, the lungs to breathe and the stomach to digest, after the cortex has been irretrievably destroyed. This condition has been called ‘persistent vegetative state’.
Since 15 April 1989 Anthony Bland has been in a persistent vegetative state. He lies in Airedale General Hospital in Keighley, fed liquid food by a pump through a tube passing through his nose and down the back of his throat into the stomach. His bladder is emptied through a catheter inserted through his penis, which from time to time has caused infections requiring dressing and antibiotic treatment. His stiffened joints have caused his limbs to be rigidly contracted so that his arms are tightly flexed across his chest and his legs unnaturally contorted. Reflex movements in the throat cause him to vomit and dribble. Of all this, and the presence of members of his family who take turns to visit him, Anthony Bland has no consciousness at all. The parts of his brain which provided him with consciousness have turned to fluid. The darkness and oblivion which descended at Hillsborough will never depart. His body is alive, but he has no life in the sense that even the most pitifully handicapped but conscious human being has a life. But the advances of modern medicine permit him to be kept in this state for years, even perhaps for decades.
The question in this appeal is whether the court should in these circumstances declare that those in charge of caring for Anthony Bland may lawfully stop providing the artificial means of keeping him alive. This is a terrible decision because the consequence is that he will die. It is a question which until relatively recently would never have arisen. A person who had irreversibly lost consciousness would quickly have died: from lack of nutrition or from one of the many complications which have afflicted Anthony Bland’s body over the past three years and which medical technology has been able to hold at bay. Modern medicine therefore faces us with fundamental and painful decisions about life and death which cannot be answered on the basis of normal everyday assumptions.
For reasons which I will eventually state quite briefly, I agree with Sir Thomas Bingham MR and Butler-Sloss LJ that in English law it would be lawful for the Airedale Hospital to stop keeping Anthony Bland alive. But this case has caused a great deal of public concern. People are worried, perhaps not so much about this particular case, but about where it may lead. Is the court to assume the role of God and decide who should live and who should die? Is Anthony Bland to die because the quality of his life is so miserable? Does this mean that the court would approve the euthanasia of seriously handicapped people? And what about the manner of his death? Can it ever be right to cause the death of a human being by deliberately depriving him of food? This is not an area in which any difference can be allowed to exist between what is legal and what is morally right. The decision of the court should be able to carry conviction with the ordinary person as being based not merely on legal precedent but also upon acceptable ethical values. For this reason I shall start by trying to explain why I think it would be not only lawful but right to let Anthony Bland die. In the course of doing so I shall also try to explain why the principles upon which this judgment rests do not make it a precedent for morally unacceptable decisions in the future.
To argue from moral rather than purely legal principles is a somewhat unusual enterprise for a judge to undertake. It is not the function of judges to lay down systems of morals and nothing which I say is intended to do so. But it seemed to
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me that in such an unusual case as this, it would clarify my own thought and perhaps help others, if I tried to examine the underlying moral principles which have lead me to the conclusion at which I have arrived. In doing so, I must acknowledge the assistance I have received from reading the manuscript of Professor Ronald Dworkin’s forthcoming book, Life’s Dominion, and from conversations with him and Professor Bernard Williams.
I start with the concept of the sanctity of life. Why do we think it would be a tragedy to allow Anthony Bland to die? It could be said that the entire tragedy took place at Hillsborough and that the curtain was brought down when Anthony Bland passed into a persistent vegetative state. Until then his life was precious to him and his family. But since then he has had no consciousness of his life and it could be said to be a matter of indifference to him whether he lives or dies. But the fact is that Anthony Bland is still alive. The mere fact that he is still a living organism means that there remains an epilogue of the tragedy which is being played out. This is because we have a strong feeling that there is an intrinsic value in human life, irrespective of whether it is valuable to the person concerned or indeed to anyone else. Those who adhere to religious faiths which believe in the sanctity of all God’s creation and in particular that human life was created in the image of God himself will have no difficulty with the concept of the intrinsic value of human life. But even those without any religious belief think in the same way. In a case like this we should not try to analyse the rationality of such feelings. What matters is that, in one form or another, they form part of almost everyone’s intuitive values. No law which ignores them can possibly hope to be acceptable.
Our belief in the sanctity of life explains why we think it is almost always wrong to cause the death of another human being, even one who is terminally ill or so disabled that we think that if we were in his position we would rather be dead. Still less do we tolerate laws such as existed in Nazi Germany, by which handicapped people or inferior races could be put to death because someone else thought that their lives were useless.
But the sanctity of life is only one of a cluster of ethical principles which we apply to decisions about how we should live. Another is respect for the individual human being and in particular for his right to choose how he should live his own life. We call this individual autonomy or the right of self-determination. And another principle, closely connected, is respect for the dignity of the individual human being: our belief that quite irrespective of what the person concerned may think about it, it is wrong for someone to be humiliated or treated without respect for his value as a person. The fact that the dignity of an individual is an intrinsic value is shown by the fact that we feel embarrassed and think it wrong when someone behaves in a way which we think demeaning to himself, which does not show sufficient respect for himself as a person.
No one, I think, would quarrel with these deeply rooted ethical principles. But what is not always realised, and what is critical in this case, is that they are not always compatible with each other. Take, for example, the sanctity of life and the right of self-determination. We all believe in them and yet we cannot always have them both. The patient who refuses medical treatment which is necessary to save his life is exercising his right to self-determination. But allowing him, in effect, to choose to die, is something which many people will believe offends the principle of the sanctity of life. Suicide is no longer a crime, but its decriminalisation was a recognition that the principle of self-determination should in that case prevail over the sanctity of life.
I accept that the sanctity of life is a complex notion, often linked to religion, on
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which differing views may be held. The Jehovah’s Witness who refuses a blood transfusion even though he knows this may result in his death, would probably not consider that he was sacrificing the principle of the sanctity of life to his own right of self-determination. He would probably say that a life which involved receiving a transfusion was so defiled as no longer to be an object of sanctity at all. But someone else might think that his death was a tragic waste and did offend against the sanctity of life. I do not think it would be a satisfactory answer to such a person to say that if he could only see it from the point of view of the Jehovah’s Witness, he would realise that the principle of the sanctity of life had not been sacrificed but triumphantly upheld. Similarly it is possible to qualify the meaning of the sanctity of life by including, as some cultures do, concepts of dignity and fulfilment as part of the essence of life. In this way one could argue that, properly understood, Anthony Bland’s death would not offend against the sanctity of life. But I do not think that this would satisfy the many people who feel strongly that it does. I think it is better to accept this and confront it.
A conflict between the principles of the sanctity of life and the individual’s right of self-determination may therefore require a painful compromise to be made. In the case of the person who refuses an operation without which he will certainly die, one or other principle must be sacrificed. We may adopt a paternalist view, deny that his autonomy can be allowed to prevail in so extreme a case, and uphold the sanctity of life. Sometimes this looks an attractive solution, but it can have disturbing implications. Do we insist upon patients accepting life-saving treatment which is contrary to their strongly held religious beliefs? Should one force-feed prisoners on hunger strike? English law is, as one would expect, paternalist towards minors. But it upholds the autonomy of adults. A person of full age may refuse treatment for any reason or no reason at all, even if it appears certain that the result will be his death.
I do not suggest that the position which English law has taken is the only morally correct solution. Some might think that in cases of life and death, the law should be more paternalist even to adults. The point to be emphasised is that there is no morally correct solution which can be deduced from a single ethical principle like the sanctity of life or the right of self-determination. There must be an accommodation between principles, both of which seem rational and good, but which have come into conflict with each other.
It would therefore be in accordance with the English approach to resolving the conflict between the right to self-determination and the sanctity of life that, if Anthony Bland were to be momentarily restored to consciousness with full knowledge that he would shortly revert to his persistent vegetative state, and if he were to instruct those caring for him that he no longer wanted artificially to be kept alive, the doctors and nurses would be obliged to respect his wishes. If he were to give such an instruction, I think that many would feel that his wishes be obeyed, not only because they were his wishes, but because (unlike the case of a person who for religious reasons refuses treatment which could restore him to vigorous health) his wishes were entirely understandable. The horror of his situation is such that few would not think it perfectly reasonable for him to decide that, as he had already lost all sense and consciousness, he would prefer to die.
In this case, however, Anthony Bland has not made such a decision and never will. Some people make it clear in advance that, if they should fall into a state which seems to them in anticipation to be intolerable, they do not want life-sustaining treatment to be continued. The right of self-determination entails that such wishes should be respected. Different jurisdictions have varying requirements about how clearly such wishes should be expressed. But Anthony Bland expressed
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none at all. There is nothing to show that in the course of his short life he gave the matter any thought. All that his family can say is that from their knowledge of him and his general attitude to life, the things that interested him and gave him pleasure, he would not have wanted to survive in his present state.
Does this mean that people who have not expressed their wishes in advance and are now incapable of expression must lose all right to have treatment discontinued and that those caring for them are in every case under a corresponding duty to keep them alive as long as medical science will allow? Counsel for the Official Solicitor said that this was so. If they have not chosen, the court has no right to choose on their behalf. I think that the fallacy in this argument is that choice cannot be avoided. To continue treatment is as much a choice as to discontinue it. Why is it not an act of choice to decide to continue to invade the privacy of Anthony Bland’s body with tubes, catheters, probes and injections? If on account of his unconsciousness he is obliged to submit to such treatment, one cannot say that it is because the court is refusing to choose on his behalf. One way or the other, a choice is being made. It is only if one thinks it natural and normal to want treatment that continuing to provide it seems not so much a choice as a given state of affairs. And of course in most cases this would be true. In a case in which it was being said that a person should not be given treatment which would avoid death and restore him to full health, one would want to know that this was his personal choice and that it had been expressed very clearly indeed.
But Anthony Bland’s is not a normal case. The continuation of artificial sustenance and medical treatment will keep him alive but will not restore him to having a life in any sense at all. It is necessary to emphasise the awful certainty of his fate. We all know of cases in which doctors have been mistaken and where people have recovered to live meaningful lives after being given over for dead. But no one has ever recovered any vestige of consciousness after being in a persistent vegetative state for more than a year. Anthony Bland has been in this state for more than three years. He has been examined by a number of the most eminent doctors and they are unanimous that there is no hope whatever of any consciousness being regained. They say that this is the worst case of irreversible cortex damage that they have seen. Nor is this a case in which one has to make an assessment of the quality of life which Anthony Bland has. We all know and admire people who suffer pain and disability, of whom many would think that in their position they would rather be dead, and yet who endure their lives and derive meaning and satisfaction from living. But the very concept of having a life has no meaning in relation to Anthony Bland. He is alive but has no life at all.
Counsel for the Official Solicitor argued that however vestigial Anthony Bland’s life might be, one could not assume that he would choose to die. Being unconscious, he felt no pain or humiliation and therefore had no interests which suffered from his being kept alive. Anthony Bland was in fact indifferent to whether he lived or died and there was nothing to put in the balance against the intrinsic value of his life.
I think that the fallacy in this argument is that it assumes that we have no interests except in those things of which we have conscious experience. But this does not accord with most people’s intuitive feelings about their lives and deaths. At least a part of the reason why we honour the wishes of the dead about the distribution of their property is that we think it would wrong them not to do so, despite the fact that we believe that they will never know that their will has been ignored. Most people would like an honourable and dignified death and we think it wrong to dishonour their deaths, even when they are unconscious that this is
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happening. We pay respect to their dead bodies and to their memory because we think it an offence against the dead themselves if we do not. Once again I am not concerned to analyse the rationality of these feelings. It is enough that they are deeply rooted in our ways of thinking and that the law cannot possibly ignore them. Thus I think that counsel for the Official Solicitor offers a seriously incomplete picture of Anthony Bland’s interests when he confines them to animal feelings of pain or pleasure. It is demeaning to the human spirit to say that, being unconscious, he can have no interest in his personal privacy and dignity, in how he lives or dies.
Anthony Bland therefore has a recognisable interest in the manner of his life and death which help the court to apply the principles of self-determination and the value of the individual. We can say from what we have learned of Anthony Bland from those closest to him that, forced as we are to choose, we think it is more likely that in his present state he would choose to die than to live. There is no suggestion that he was, for example, motivated by any religious principles which would have made him want his life in its present state prolonged. We can also say that in allowing him to die, we would be showing more respect to him as an individual than by keeping him alive.
Thus it seems to me that we are faced with conflicting ethical principles. On the one hand, Anthony Bland is alive and the principle of the sanctity of life says that we should not deliberately allow him to die. On the other hand, Anthony Bland is an individual human being and the principle of self-determination says he should be allowed to choose for himself and that, if he is unable to express his choice, we should try our honest best to do what we think he would have chosen. We cannot disclaim this choice because to go on is as much a choice as to stop. Normally we would unquestioningly assume that anyone would wish to live rather than die. But in the extraordinary case of Anthony Bland, we think it more likely that he would choose to put an end to the humiliation of his being and the distress of his family. Finally, Anthony Bland is a person to whom respect is owed and we think that it would show greater respect to allow him to die and be mourned by his family than to keep him grotesquely alive.
There is no formula for reconciling this conflict of principles and no easy answer. It does no good to seize hold of one of them, such as the sanctity of life, and say that because it is valid and right, as it undoubtedly is, it must always prevail over other principles which are also valid and right. Nor do I think it helps to say that these principles are all really different ways of looking at the same thing. Counsel for the Attorney General said that there was—
‘no conflict between having regard to the quality of life and respecting the sanctity of life; on the contrary they are complementary; the principle of the sanctity of life embraces the need for full respect to be accorded to the dignity and memory of the individual.’
To my mind, this is rhetoric intended to dull the pain of having to choose. For many people, the sanctity of life is not at all the same thing as the dignity of the individual. We cannot smooth away the differences by interpretation. Instead, we are faced with a situation which has been best expressed by Sir Isaiah Berlin in ‘Two concepts of liberty’ in Four Essays on Liberty (1969) pp 168, 170:
‘The world that we encounter in ordinary experience is one in which we are faced with choices between ends equally ultimate, and claims equally absolute, the realisation of some of which must inevitably involve the sacrifice of others … The knowledge that it is not merely in practice but in principle impossible to reach clear-cut and certain answers, even in an ideal world of
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wholly good and rational men and wholly clear ideas—may madden those who seek for final solutions and single, all-embracing systems, guaranteed to be eternal. Nevertheless it is a conclusion that cannot be escaped by those who, with Kant, have learnt the truth that out of the crooked timber of humanity no straight thing was ever made.’
In my view the choice which the law makes must reassure people that the courts do have full respect for life, but that they do not pursue the principle to the point at which it has become almost empty of any real content and when it involves the sacrifice of other important values such as human dignity and freedom of choice. I think that such reassurance can be provided by a decision, properly explained, to allow Anthony Bland to die. It does not involve, as counsel for the Official Solicitor suggested, a decision that he may die because the court thinks that his ‘life is not worth living’. There is no question of his life being worth living or not worth living because the stark reality is that Anthony Bland is not living a life at all. None of the things that one says about the way people live their lives—well or ill, with courage or fortitude, happily or sadly—have any meaning in relation to him. This in my view represents a difference in kind from the case of the conscious but severely handicapped person. It is absurd to conjure up the spectre of eugenics as a reason against the decision in this case.
Thus in principle I think it would be right to allow Anthony Bland to die. Is this answer affected by the proposed manner of his death? Some might say that as he is going to die, it does not matter how. Why wait for him to expire for lack of food or be carried off by an untreated infection? Would it not be more humane simply to give him a lethal injection? No one in this case is suggesting that Anthony Bland should be given a lethal injection. But there is concern about ceasing to supply food as against, for example, ceasing to treat an infection with antibiotics. Is there any real distinction? In order to come to terms with our intuitive feelings about whether there is a distinction, I must start by considering why most of us would be appalled if he was given a lethal injection. It is, I think, connected with our view that the sanctity of life entails its inviolability by an outsider. Subject to exceptions like self-defence, human life is inviolate even if the person in question has consented to its violation. That is why although suicide is not a crime, assisting someone to commit suicide is. It follows that, even if we think Anthony Bland would have consented, we would not be entitled to end his life by a lethal injection.
On the other hand, we recognise that, one way or another, life must come to an end. We do not impose on outsiders an unqualified duty to do everything possible to prolong life as long as possible. I think that the principle of inviolability explains why, although we accept that in certain cases it is right to allow a person to die (and the debate so far has been over whether this is such a case) we hold without qualification that no one may introduce an external agency with the intention of causing death. I do not think that the distinction turns upon whether what is done is an act or omission. This leads to barren arguments over whether the withdrawal of equipment from the body is a positive act or an omission to keep it in place. The distinction is between an act or omission which allows an existing cause to operate and the introduction of an external agency of death.
What complicates this distinction, however, is another ethical principle which demands that we should show kindness and humanity to our fellow human beings. At the most basic level, this principle insists that we should, if we are able to do so, provide food and shelter to a human being in our care who is unable to provide them for himself. If someone allows a small child or invalid in his care to starve to death, we do not say that he allowed nature to take its course. We think
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he has committed a particularly wicked crime. We treat him as if he had introduced an external agency of death. It is the same ethical principle which requires doctors and hospitals to provide the patients in their care with such medical attention and nursing as they are reasonably able to give.
In the normal case there is no moral difference between violations of these two principles—the prohibition on violating the person and the positive duty to act with humanity towards the helpless. Starving a child to death is no different from giving him poison. But there are two distinctions between the prohibition on external violation and the duty to provide humane care and assistance. One distinction is that the duty to provide care—for example to provide medical treatment—ceases when such treatment can serve no humane purpose. In cases when further treatment can prolong the life of the patient only for a short period and at the cost of great pain and suffering, the doctor is under no obligation to continue. Indeed, the duty to act with kindness and humanity points in the opposite direction. But the prohibition on violating the person is absolute. Whatever the patient’s sufferings, no one is entitled to introduce an external agency of death. It was this prohibition which Dr Cox violated by injecting Mrs Boyes with potassium chloride (see R v Cox (18 September 1992, unreported), Ognall J). The debate over euthanasia centres on the agonising conflict which can arise when, as in that case, the duty to act with kindness and humanity comes into conflict with the absolute prohibition on the violation of the person. At the moment English law unequivocally resolves this conflict by giving priority to the latter principle. This is not the place to debate whether this is the only morally or socially acceptable position. In the present case, no such issue arises. This is not a case about euthanasia because it does not involve any external agency of death. It is about whether, and how, the patient should be allowed to die.
It is, I think, the duty to act with kindness and humanity which leads people to say that, whatever may be the position about artificial medical treatment, it cannot be right to deny the patient food. The giving of food to a helpless person is so much the quintessential example of kindness and humanity that it is hard to imagine a case in which it would be morally right to withhold it. If it is right that Anthony Bland should be allowed to die, then refrain from giving antibiotics and let him be carried off by an infection. But do not allow him to starve.
American writers have referred to these qualms about denial of food as the ‘sloganism’ and ‘emotional symbolism’ of food. I do not think that one should make light of these deeply intuitive feelings, which derive, as I have said, from a principle of kindness which is a badge of our humanity. But like the principle of the sanctity of life, they cease to provide true guidance in the extreme case. It is of course hard to imagine a case in which it could be humane to deny food to a patient. But this case stretches the imagination. To deny someone food is wrong because it causes suffering and death. But Anthony Bland cannot suffer and his condition is such that it is right that he should be allowed to die. His interest in the manner of his death—and it is a very important one—is that it should not be distressing or humiliating. If therefore, withdrawal of nourishment would produce distressing symptoms of which Anthony Bland was unconscious but which were visible to the nursing staff and family, this would be a good reason for allowing him to die in some other way. But the medical evidence is that suitable sedation can prevent any untoward symptoms and that withdrawal of nourishment is the most gentle and controlled way in which to allow him to die.
Counsel for the Official Solicitor opened this appeal by saying that Sir Stephen Brown P ‘had held that it was lawful for a doctor to starve his patient to death’. This is emotive language and by that I do not mean that this is not a proper case
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for emotion. It certainly is. By emotive language I mean language which evokes emotional images which are false, which have no application to the present case. The use of the language is intended to evoke images of cruelty, suffering and unwelcome death. Such images have no part to play in arriving at an answer to the problem, already difficult enough, which this case presents to the court.
I said that there were two distinctions between the prohibition on violating the person and the duty to provide care and assistance. So far I have mentioned only one. The second is that while the prohibition on violation is absolute, the duty to provide care is restricted to what one can reasonably provide. No one is under a moral duty to do more than he can, or to assist one patient at the cost of neglecting another. The resources of the national health service are not limitless and choices have to be made. This qualification on the moral duty to provide care did not enter into the argument in this case at all. The Airedale NHS Trust invited us to decide the case on the assumption that its resources were unlimited and we have done so. But one is bound to observe that the cost of keeping a patient like Anthony Bland alive is very considerable and that in another case the health authority might conclude that its resources were better devoted to other patients. We do not have to consider such a case, but in principle the allocation of resources between patients is a matter for the health authority and not for the courts.
I can deal with the authorities very shortly. The House of Lords decided in F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 that the duty of a doctor towards a patient who lacks mental capacity to express his own wishes (and has not expressed any at a time when he had such capacity) is to give or withhold treatment according to what appears to be the best interests of the patient. The best interests of the patient in my judgment embrace not only recovery or the avoidance of pain (neither of which apply to this case) but also a dignified death. On this issue I respectfully agree with the dissenting judgments of Handler J in Re Conroy (1985) 98 NJ 321 and Brennan and Stevens JJ in Cruzan v Director, Missouri Dept of Health (1990) 497 US 261. The patient’s best interests would normally also include having respect paid to what seems most likely to have been his own views on the subject. To this extent I think that what the American courts have called ‘substituted judgment’ may be subsumed within the English concept of best interests. On the other hand, cases involving minors like Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1990] 3 All ER 930, [1991] Fam 33 show that full weight has to be given to the principle of the sanctity of life before deciding that a test of best interests justifies a decision to allow the patient to die. In my judgment, however, such a decision is justified here. I agree with what Sir Thomas Bingham MR and Butler-Sloss LJ have said about the procedure to be followed in future cases.
Finally, I must deal with some aspects of the judgment of Sir Stephen Brown P. As will be apparent, I am in agreement with the decision which he reached. But there are certain points in his judgment which may have given rise to concern. First, the judgment contains some discussion about whether the administration of liquid food through a tube can properly be called medical treatment. Some have felt that the issues in this case could not depend upon a semantic point like that. I agree. As I see it, there are only two ways in which it may be relevant to call the feeding medical treatment. They are to identify it as something upon which, first, the hospital can properly ask for the guidance of the court as to what it should do and, secondly, the medical profession can properly express a view. Once one is clear about why the question is being asked, it does not matter whether one calls it medical treatment, nursing, care or anything else. There is in my view no distinction between medical treatment and other kinds of
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care for the purposes of deciding the central issue in this case. This brings me to the second point of concern. Sir Stephen Brown P laid some emphasis upon the fact that according to professional medical opinion and the British Medical Association’s statement on ethics, ending artificial feeding would be in accordance with good medical practice. Some have felt concern at the suggestion that questions of whether patients should live or die should be decided according to what was thought to be good practice by the medical profession. Once again, I sympathise with this concern.
I do not think that Sir Stephen Brown P was saying that the views of the medical profession should determine the legal and moral questions which I have discussed in this judgment. Nor do I think that the profession would be grateful to the court for leaving the full responsibility for such decisions in its hands. It seems to me that the medical profession can tell the court about the patient’s condition and prognosis and about the probable consequences of giving or not giving certain kinds of treatment or care, including the provision of artificial feeding. But whether in those circumstances it would be lawful to provide or withhold the treatment or care is a matter for the law and must be decided with regard to the general moral considerations of which I have spoken. As to these matters, the medical profession will no doubt have views which are entitled to great respect, but I would expect medical ethics to be formed by the law rather than the reverse.
I should emphasise that this is not a case in which some past act on the part of a doctor is being called into question. If the issue was whether such an act had given rise to civil or criminal liability, the fact that the doctor has acted in accordance with responsible professional opinion would usually be determinative. But in this case the plaintiff hospital trust is seeking the opinion of the court as to whether future conduct will be lawful. It has invited the court to decide whether, on medical facts which are not in dispute, the termination of life-support would be justified as being in the best interests of the patient. This is a purely legal (or moral) decision which does not require any medical expertise and is therefore appropriately made by the court.
I would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords granted. No order as to costs.
Francis Rustin Barrister.
Appeal
The defendant, acting by the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem, appealed with the leave of the Court of Appeal.
James Munby QC (instructed by the Official Solicitor) for the Official Solicitor as guardian ad litem.
Robert Francis QC and M R Taylor (instructed by Penningtons, agents for W J M Lovel, Harrogate) for the plaintiffs.
Anthony Lester QC and Pushpinder Saini (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amicus curiae.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
4 February 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
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LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, as a result of injuries sustained in the Hillsborough disaster, Anthony Bland has for over three years been in the condition known as persistent vegetative state (PVS). It is unnecessary to go into all the details about the manifestations of this state, which are fully set out in the judgments of the courts below. It is sufficient to say that it arises from the destruction, through prolonged deprivation of oxygen, of the cerebral cortex, which has resolved into a watery mass. The cortex is that part of the brain which is the seat of cognitive function and sensory capacity. Anthony Bland cannot see, hear or feel anything. He cannot communicate in any way. The consciousness which is the essential feature of individual personality has departed for ever. On the other hand the brain stem, which controls the reflexive functions of the body, in particular heartbeat, breathing and digestion, continues to operate. In the eyes of the medical world and of the law a person is not clinically dead so long as the brain stem retains its function. In order to maintain Anthony Bland in his present condition, feeding and hydration are achieved artificially by means of a nasogastric tube and excretionary functions are regulated by a catheter and by enemas. The catheter from time to time gives rise to infections which have to be dealt with by appropriate medical treatment. The undisputed consensus of eminent medical opinion is that there is no prospect whatever that Anthony Bland will ever make any recovery from his present condition, but that there is every likelihood that he will maintain his present state of existence for many years to come, provided that the medical care which he is now receiving is continued.
In that state of affairs the medical men in charge of Anthony Bland’s case formed the view, which was supported by his parents, that no useful purpose was to be served by continuing that medical care and that it was appropriate to stop the artificial feeding and other measures aimed at prolonging his existence. Since, however, there were doubts as to whether this course might not constitute a criminal offence, the responsible hospital authority, the Airedale NHS Trust, sought in the High Court of Justice declarations designed to resolve these doubts. In the result declarations on the lines asked for were granted by judgment of Sir Stephen Brown P on 19 November 1992. That judgment was affirmed by the Court of Appeal (Sir Thomas Bingham MR, Butler-Sloss and Hoffmann LJJ) on 9 December 1992. The declarations are in these terms:
‘… that despite the inability of [the defendant] to consent thereto the Plaintiffs and the responsible attending physicians: (1) may lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep [the defendant] alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation nutrition and hydration by artificial means; and (2) may lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to [the defendant] except for the sole purpose of enabling [him] to end his life and die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least of pain suffering and distress …’
Anthony Bland, by the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem, now appeals, with leave given in the Court of Appeal, to your Lordships’ House. At the hearing of the appeal your Lordships were assisted by submissions made by Mr Anthony Lester QC as amicus curiae instructed by the Treasury Solicitor.
The broad issue raised by the appeal is stated by the parties to be: ‘In what circumstances, if ever, can those having a duty to feed an invalid lawfully stop doing so?' The immediate issue, however, is whether in the particular circumstances of Anthony Bland’s case those in charge of it would be acting lawfully if they discontinued the particular measures, including feeding by
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nasogastric tube, which are now being used to maintain Anthony Bland in his existing condition.
The first point to make is that it is unlawful, so as to constitute both a tort and the crime of battery, to administer medical treatment to an adult, who is conscious and of sound mind, without his consent: see F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1. Such a person is completely at liberty to decline to undergo treatment, even if the result of his doing so will be that he will die. This extends to the situation where the person, in anticipation of his, through one cause or another, entering into a condition such as PVS, gives clear instructions that in such event he is not to be given medical care, including artificial feeding, designed to keep him alive. The second point is that it very commonly occurs that a person, due to accident or some other cause, becomes unconscious and is thus not able to give or withhold consent to medical treatment. In that situation it is lawful, under the principle of necessity, for medical men to apply such treatment as in their informed opinion is in the best interests of the unconscious patient. That is what happened in the case of Anthony Bland when he was first dealt with by the emergency services and later taken to hospital.
The object of medical treatment and care is to benefit the patient. It may do so by taking steps to prevent the occurrence of illness, or, if an illness does occur, by taking steps towards curing it. Where an illness or the effects of an injury cannot be cured, then efforts are directed towards preventing deterioration or relieving pain and suffering. In Anthony Bland’s case the first imperative was to prevent him from dying, as he would certainly have done in the absence of the steps that were taken. If he had died, there can be no doubt that the cause of this would have been the injuries which he had suffered. As it was, the steps taken prevented him from dying, and there was instituted the course of treatment and care which still continues. For a time, no doubt, there was some hope that he might recover sufficiently for him to be able to live a life that had some meaning. Some patients who have suffered damage to the cerebral cortex have, indeed, made a complete recovery. It all depends on the degree of damage. But sound medical opinion takes the view that if a PVS patient shows no signs of recovery after six months, or at most a year, then there is no prospect whatever of any recovery. There are techniques available which make it possible to ascertain the state of the cerebral cortex, and in Anthony Bland’s case these indicate that, as mentioned above, it has degenerated into a mass of watery fluid. The fundamental question then comes to be whether continuance of the present regime of treatment and care, more than three years after the injuries that resulted in the PVS, would confer any benefit on Anthony Bland. It is argued for the respondents, supported by the amicus curiae, that his best interests favour discontinuance. I feel some doubt about this way of putting the matter. In F v West Berkshire Health Authority [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 this House held that it would be lawful to sterilise a female mental patient who was incapable of giving consent to the procedure. The ground of the decision was that sterilisation would be in the patient’s best interests because her life would be fuller and more agreeable if she were sterilised than if she were not. In Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1990] 3 All ER 930, [1991] Fam 33 the Court of Appeal held it to be lawful to withhold life-saving treatment from a very young child in circumstances where the child’s life, if saved, would be one irredeemably racked by pain and agony. In both cases it was possible to make a value judgment as to the consequences to a sensate being of in the one case withholding and in the other case administering the treatment in question. In the case of a permanently insensate being, who if continuing to live
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would never experience the slightest actual discomfort, it is difficult, if not impossible, to make any relevant comparison between continued existence and the absence of it. It is, however, perhaps permissible to say that to an individual with no cognitive capacity whatever, and no prospect of ever recovering any such capacity in this world, it must be a matter of complete indifference whether he lives or dies.
Where one individual has assumed responsibility for the care of another who cannot look after himself or herself, whether as a medical practitioner or otherwise, that responsibility cannot lawfully be shed unless arrangements are made for the responsibility to be taken over by someone else. Thus a person having charge of a baby who fails to feed it, so that it dies, will be guilty at least of manslaughter. The same is true of one having charge of an adult who is frail and cannot look after herself: see R v Stone [1977] 2 All ER 341, [1977] QB 354. It was argued for the guardian ad litem, by analogy with that case, that here the doctors in charge of Anthony Bland had a continuing duty to feed him by means of the nasogastric tube and that if they failed to carry out that duty they were guilty of manslaughter, if not murder. This was coupled with the argument that feeding by means of the nasogastric tube was not medical treatment at all, but simply feeding indistinguishable from feeding by normal means. As regards this latter argument, I am of opinion that regard should be had to the whole regime, including the artificial feeding, which at present keeps Anthony Bland alive. That regime amounts to medical treatment and care, and it is incorrect to direct attention exclusively to the fact that nourishment is being provided. In any event, the administration of nourishment by the means adopted involves the application of a medical technique. But it is, of course, true that in general it would not be lawful for a medical practitioner who assumed responsibility for the care of an unconscious patient simply to give up treatment in circumstances where continuance of it would confer some benefit on the patient. On the other hand a medical practitioner is under no duty to continue to treat such a patient where a large body of informed and responsible medical opinion is to the effect that no benefit at all would be conferred by continuance. Existence in a vegetative state with no prospect of recovery is by that opinion regarded as not being a benefit, and that, if not unarguably correct, at least forms a proper basis for the decision to discontinue treatment and care: see Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 2 All ER 118, [1957] 1 WLR 582.
Given that existence in the persistent vegetative state is not a benefit to the patient, it remains to consider whether the principle of the sanctity of life, which it is the concern of the state, and the judiciary as one of the arms of the state, to maintain, requires this House to hold that the judgment of the Court of Appeal was incorrect. In my opinion it does not. The principle is not an absolute one. It does not compel a medical practitioner on pain of criminal sanctions to treat a patient, who will die if he does not, contrary to the express wishes of the patient. It does not authorise forcible feeding of prisoners on hunger strike. It does not compel the temporary keeping alive of patients who are terminally ill where to do so would merely prolong their suffering. On the other hand it forbids the taking of active measures to cut short the life of a terminally ill patient. In my judgment it does no violence to the principle to hold that it is lawful to cease to give medical treatment and care to a PVS patient who has been in that state for over three years, considering that to do so involves invasive manipulation of the patient’s body to which he has not consented and which confers no benefit upon him.
Although this case falls to be decided by the law of England, it is of some
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comfort to observe that in other common law jurisdictions, particularly in the United States where there are many cases on the subject, the courts have with near unanimity concluded that it is not unlawful to discontinue medical treatment and care, including artificial feeding, of PVS patients and others in similar conditions.
The decision whether or not the continued treatment and care of a PVS patient confers any benefit on him is essentially one for the practitioners in charge of his case. The question is whether any decision that it does not and that the treatment and care should therefore be discontinued should as a matter of routine be brought before the Family Division for indorsement or the reverse. The view taken by Sir Stephen Brown P and the Court of Appeal was that it should, at least for the time being and until a body of experience and practice has been built up which might obviate the need for application in every case. As Sir Thomas Bingham MR said (at p 842, ante), this would be in the interests of the protection of patients, the protection of doctors, the reassurance of the patients’ families and the reassurance of the public. I respectfully agree that these considerations render desirable the practice of application.
My Lords, for these reasons, which are substantially the same as those set out in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley, with which I agree, I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, the facts of the present case are not in dispute. They are fully set out in the judgment of Sir Stephen Brown P at first instance (see p 824, ante); they have been admirably summarised in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR in the Court of Appeal (see p 834, ante); and they have been summarised yet again in the agreed statement of facts and issues prepared by counsel for the assistance of the Appellate Committee of your Lordships’ House. They reveal a tragic state of affairs, which has evoked great sympathy, both for Anthony Bland himself and for his devoted family, and great respect for all those who have been responsible for his medical treatment and care since he was admitted to hospital following the terrible injuries which he suffered at Hillsborough in April 1989. For present purposes, I propose simply to adopt the sympathetic and economical summary of Sir Thomas Bingham MR (see pp 834–835, ante), which, for convenience of reference, I will now incorporate into this opinion.
‘Mr Anthony David Bland, then aged 17½, went to the Hillsborough ground on 15 April 1989 to support the Liverpool Football Club. In the course of the disaster which occurred on that day his lungs were crushed and punctured and the supply of oxygen to his brain was interrupted. As a result, he suffered catastrophic and irreversible damage to the higher centres of the brain. The condition from which he suffers, and has suffered since April 1989, is known as a persistent vegetative state (PVS). PVS is a recognised medical condition quite distinct from other conditions sometimes known as “irreversible coma”, “the Guillain-Barré syndrome”, “the locked-in syndrome” and “brain death”. Its distinguishing characteristics are that the brain stem remains alive and functioning while the cortex of the brain loses its function and activity. Thus the PVS patient continues to breathe unaided and his digestion continues to function. But, although his eyes are open, he cannot see. He cannot hear. Although capable of reflex movement, particularly in response to painful stimuli, the patient is incapable of voluntary movement and can feel no pain. He cannot taste or smell. He cannot speak or communicate in any way. He has no cognitive function and can thus feel no
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emotion, whether pleasure or distress. The absence of cerebral function is not a matter of surmise: it can be scientifically demonstrated. The space which the brain should occupy is full of watery fluid. The medical witnesses in this case include some of the outstanding authorities in the country on this condition. All are agreed on the diagnosis. All are agreed on the prognosis also: there is no hope of any improvement or recovery. One witness of great experience describe Mr Bland as the worst PVS case he had ever seen. Mr Bland lies in bed in the Airedale General Hospital, his eyes open, his mind vacant, his limbs crooked and taut. He cannot swallow, and so cannot be spoon-fed without a high risk that food will be inhaled into the lung. He is fed by means of a tube, threaded through the nose and down into the stomach, through which liquefied food is mechanically pumped. His bowels are evacuated by enema. His bladder is drained by catheter. He has been subject to repeated bouts of infection affecting his urinary tract and chest, which have been treated with antibiotics. Drugs have also been administered to reduce salivation, to reduce muscle tone and severe sweating and to encourage gastric emptying. A tracheostomy tube has been inserted and removed. Urino-genitary problems have required surgical intervention. A patient in this condition requires very skilled nursing and close medical attention if he is to survive. The Airedale National Health Service Trust have, it is agreed, provided both to Mr Bland. Introduction of the nasogastric tube is itself a task of some delicacy even in an insensate patient. Thereafter it must be monitored to ensure it has not become dislodged and to control inflammation, irritation and infection to which it may give rise. The catheter must be monitored: it may cause infection (and has repeatedly done so); it has had to be resited, in an operation performed without anaesthetic. The mouth and other parts of the body must be constantly tended. The patient must be repeatedly moved to avoid pressure sores. Without skilled nursing and close medical attention a PVS patient will quickly succumb to infection. With such care, a young and otherwise healthy patient may live for many years. At no time before the disaster did Mr Bland give any indication of his wishes should he find himself in such a condition. It is not a topic most adolescents address. After careful thought his family agreed that the feeding tube should be removed and felt that this was what Mr Bland would have wanted. His father said of his son in evidence: “He certainly wouldn’t want to be left like that.” He could see no advantage at all in continuation of the current treatment. He was not cross-examined. It was accordingly with the concurrence of Mr Bland’s family, as well as the consultant in charge of his case and the support of two independent doctors, that the Airedale NHS Trust as plaintiff in this action applied to the Family Division of the High Court for declarations that they might—“(1) … lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep AB [Mr Bland] alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation nutrition and hydration by artificial means; and (2) … lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to AB except for the sole purpose of enabling AB to end his life and die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least of pain suffering and distress.” After a hearing in which he was assisted by an amicus curiae instructed by the Attorney General, Sir Stephen Brown P made these declarations (subject to a minor change of wording) on 19 November 1992. He declined to make further declarations which were also sought.’
The Official Solicitor, acting on behalf of Anthony Bland, appealed against that
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decision to the Court of Appeal, which dismissed the appeal. Now, with the leave of the Court of Appeal, the Official Solicitor has appealed to your Lordships’ House.
In so acting, the Official Solicitor has ensured that all relevant matters of fact and law are properly investigated and scrutinised before any irrevocable decision is taken affecting Anthony Bland, for whom he acts as guardian ad litem. This function was performed by Mr James Munby QC, who appeared before your Lordships as he did before the courts below; and he made submissions in the form of a series of propositions any of which, if accepted, would preclude the grant of the declarations granted by Sir Stephen Brown P. Like the courts below, I have come to the conclusion that I am unable to accept Mr Munby’s submissions; but I have nevertheless found them to be of great assistance in that they have compelled me to think more deeply about the applicable principles of law and, I hope, to formulate those principles more accurately. Your Lordships were also fortunate to have the assistance of Mr Anthony Lester QC, appearing as amicus curiae, instructed by the Treasury Solicitor, and of the thoughtful argument of Mr Robert Francis QC for the respondents.
On one point there was no disagreement between counsel appearing before your Lordships. This was that proceedings for declaratory relief of the kind considered by this House in F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 provided the most appropriate means by which authoritative guidance could be provided for the respondents to the appeal, the Airedale NHS Trust, and for Dr Howe, who has Anthony Bland in his care, whose wish it is, in agreement with Anthony’s parents, to discontinue the artificial feeding of Anthony, with the inevitable result that, within one or two weeks, he will die. There has therefore been no contested argument about the appropriateness of the declaratory remedy in cases such as these, which are in fact concerned with the question whether in the particular circumstances those who discontinue life support (here artificial feeding) will commit a civil wrong or a criminal offence. In F v West Berkshire Health Authority the question arose whether it would be lawful for doctors to sterilise an adult woman of unsound mind. In that case, this House was deeply concerned to discover that it was common ground between the parties that, in the case of adult persons of unsound mind, the parens patriae jurisdiction of the courts had been revoked with the effect that the courts could no longer exercise their jurisdiction to give consent on behalf of such persons. On that occasion Mr Munby, who there as here was instructed by the Official Solicitor, was invited to assist this House by advancing such arguments as could be advanced that the jurisdiction had not been abolished. At the end of the argument, your Lordships’ House came reluctantly to the conclusion that the jurisdiction no longer existed; but, dismayed by the possibility that the courts might be powerless to provide the necessary guidance to the medical profession in that case, this House had recourse to declaratory relief for that purpose. Speaking for myself, I remain of the opinion that this conclusion was entirely justified. Of course, I recognise that strong warnings have been given against the civil courts usurping the function of the criminal courts, and it has been authoritatively stated that a declaration as to the lawfulness or otherwise of future conduct is ‘no bar to a criminal prosecution, no matter the authority of the court which grants it’: see Imperial Tobacco Ltd v A-G [1980] 1 All ER 866 at 875, 884, [1981] AC 718 at 741, 752 per Viscount Dilhorne, and see also per Lord Lane. But it is plain that the jurisdiction exists to grant such a declaration, and on occasion that jurisdiction has been exercised, as for example by your Lordships’ House in Royal College of Nursing of the UK v Dept of Health and
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Social Security [1981] 1 All ER 545, [1981] AC 800. It would, in my opinion, be a deplorable state of affairs if no authoritative guidance could be given to the medical profession in a case such as the present, so that a doctor would be compelled either to act contrary to the principles of medical ethics established by his professional body or to risk a prosecution for murder. As Compton J said in Barber v Superior Court of Los Angeles County (1983) 147 Cal App 3d 1006 at 1011: ‘… a murder prosecution is a poor way to design an ethical and moral code for doctors who are faced with decisions concerning the use of costly and extraordinary “life support” equipment.' In practice, authoritative guidance in circumstances such as these should in normal circumstances inhibit prosecution or, if (contrary to all expectation) criminal proceedings were launched, justify the Attorney General in entering a nolle prosequi. In the present case it is to be remembered that an amicus curiae has been instructed by the Treasury Solicitor; yet no representations have been made on behalf of the Attorney General that declaratory relief is here inappropriate. In expressing this opinion, I draw comfort from the fact that declaratory rulings have been employed for the same purpose in other common law jurisdictions, such as the United States of America (in a number of cases, of which the most recent appears to be Re Gardner (1987) 534 A 2d 947 at 949), New Zealand Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235 at 241–244, 255 per Thomas J, to whom submissions had been addressed upon the point) and South Africa (Clarke v Hurst (30 July 1992, unreported) per Thirion J).
The central issue in the present case has been aptly stated by Sir Thomas Bingham MR to be whether artificial feeding and antibiotic drugs may lawfully be withheld from an insensate patient with no hope of recovery when it is known that if that is done the patient will shortly thereafter die. The Court of Appeal, like Sir Stephen Brown P, answered this question generally in the affirmative, and (in the declarations made or approved by them) specifically also in the affirmative in relation to Anthony Bland. I find myself to be in agreement with the conclusions so reached by all the judges below, substantially for the reasons given by them. But the matter is of such importance that I propose to express my reasons in my own words.
I start with the simple fact that, in law, Anthony is still alive. It is true that his condition is such that it can be described as a living death; but he is nevertheless still alive. This is because, as a result of developments in modern medical technology, doctors no longer associate death exclusively with breathing and heart beat, and it has come to be accepted that death occurs when the brain, and in particular the brain stem, has been destroyed (see Professor Ian Kennedy’s paper entitled ‘Switching off life support machines: the legal implications’ reprinted in Treat Me Right, Essays in Medical Law and Ethics (1988) esp at 351–352 and the material there cited). There has been no dispute on this point in the present case, and it is unnecessary for me to consider it further. The evidence is that Anthony’s brain stem is still alive and functioning and it follows that, in the present state of medical science, he is still alive and should be so regarded as a matter of law.
It is on this basis that I turn to the applicable principles of law. Here, the fundamental principle is the principle of the sanctity of human life—a principle long recognised not only in our own society but also in most, if not all, civilised societies throughout the modern world, as is indeed evidenced by its recognition both in art 2 of the European Convention on Human Rights (Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969)) and in art 6 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (New York, 19 December 1966; TS 6 (1977); Cmnd 6702).
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But this principle, fundamental though it is, is not absolute. Indeed there are circumstances in which it is lawful to take another man’s life, for example by a lawful act of self-defence, or (in the days when capital punishment was acceptable in our society) by lawful execution. We are not however concerned with cases such as these. We are concerned with circumstances in which it may be lawful to withhold from a patient medical treatment or care by means of which his life may be prolonged. But here too there is no absolute rule that the patient’s life must be prolonged by such treatment or care, if available, regardless of the circumstances.
First, it is established that the principle of self-determination requires that respect must be given to the wishes of the patient, so that, if an adult patient of sound mind refuses, however unreasonably, to consent to treatment or care by which his life would or might be prolonged, the doctors responsible for his care must give effect to his wishes, even though they do not consider it to be in his best interests to do so (see Schloendorff v Society of New York Hospital (1914) 211 NY 125 at 129–130 per Cardozo J, S v S, W v Official Solicitor [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 111, [1972] AC 24 at 43 per Lord Reid and Sidaway v Bethlem Royal Hospital Governors [1985] 1 All ER 643 at 649, [1985] AC 871 at 882 per Lord Scarman). To this extent, the principle of the sanctity of human life must yield to the principle of self-determination (see p 851 ante, per Hoffmann LJ), and, for present purposes perhaps more important, the doctor’s duty to act in the best interests of his patient must likewise be qualified. On this basis, it has been held that a patient of sound mind may, if properly informed, require that life support should be discontinued: see Nancy B v Hôtel-Dieu de Québec (1992) 86 DLR (4th) 385. Moreover the same principle applies where the patient’s refusal to give his consent has been expressed at an earlier date, before he became unconscious or otherwise incapable of communicating it; though in such circumstances especial care may be necessary to ensure that the prior refusal of consent is still properly to be regarded as applicable in the circumstances which have subsequently occurred (see eg Re T (adult: refusal of medical treatment) [1992] 4 All ER 649, [1992] 3 WLR 782). I wish to add that, in cases of this kind, there is no question of the patient having committed suicide, nor therefore of the doctor having aided or abetted him in doing so. It is simply that the patient has, as he is entitled to do, declined to consent to treatment which might or would have the effect of prolonging his life, and the doctor has, in accordance with his duty, complied with his patient’s wishes.
But in many cases not only may the patient be in no condition to be able to say whether or not he consents to the relevant treatment or care, but also he may have given no prior indication of his wishes with regard to it. In the case of a child who is a ward of court, the court itself will decide whether medical treatment should be provided in the child’s best interests, taking into account medical opinion. But the court cannot give its consent on behalf of an adult patient who is incapable of himself deciding whether or not to consent to treatment. I am of the opinion that there is nevertheless no absolute obligation upon the doctor who has the patient in his care to prolong his life, regardless of the circumstances. Indeed, it would be most startling, and could lead to the most adverse and cruel effects upon the patient, if any such absolute rule were held to exist. It is scarcely consistent with the primacy given to the principle of self-determination in those cases in which the patient of sound mind has declined to give his consent that the law should provide no means of enabling treatment to be withheld in appropriate circumstances where the patient is in no condition to indicate, if that was his wish, that he did not consent to it. The point was put forcibly in the judgment of
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the Supreme Judicial Court of Massachusetts in Belchertown State School Superintendent v Saikewicz (1977) 373 Mass 728 at 747 as follows:
‘To presume that the incompetent person must always be subjected to what many rational and intelligent persons may decline is to downgrade the status of the incompetent person by placing a lesser value on his intrinsic human worth and vitality.’
I must however stress, at this point, that the law draws a crucial distinction between cases in which a doctor decides not to provide, or to continue to provide for his patient treatment or care which could or might prolong his life and those in which he decides, for example by administering a lethal drug, actively to bring his patient’s life to an end. As I have already indicated, the former may be lawful, either because the doctor is giving effect to his patient’s wishes by withholding the treatment or care, or even in certain circumstances in which (on principles which I shall describe) the patient is incapacitated from stating whether or not he gives his consent. But it is not lawful for a doctor to administer a drug to his patient to bring about his death, even though that course is prompted by a humanitarian desire to end his suffering, however great that suffering may be: see R v Cox (18 September 1992, unreported) per Ognall J in the Crown Court at Winchester. So to act is to cross the Rubicon which runs between on the one hand the care of the living patient and on the other hand euthanasia—actively causing his death to avoid or to end his suffering. Euthanasia is not lawful at common law. It is of course well known that there are many responsible members of our society who believe that euthanasia should be made lawful; but that result could, I believe, only be achieved by legislation which expresses the democratic will that so fundamental a change should be made in our law, and can, if enacted, ensure that such legalised killing can only be carried out subject to appropriate supervision and control. It is true that the drawing of this distinction may lead to a charge of hypocrisy, because it can be asked why, if the doctor, by discontinuing treatment, is entitled in consequence to let his patient die, it should not be lawful to put him out of his misery straight away, in a more humane manner, by a lethal injection, rather than let him linger on in pain until he dies. But the law does not feel able to authorise euthanasia, even in circumstances such as these, for, once euthanasia is recognised as lawful in these circumstances, it is difficult to see any logical basis for excluding it in others.
At the heart of this distinction lies a theoretical question. Why is it that the doctor who gives his patient a lethal injection which kills him commits an unlawful act and indeed is guilty of murder, whereas a doctor who, by discontinuing life support, allows his patient to die may not act unlawfully and will not do so if he commits no breach of duty to his patient? Professor Glanville Williams has suggested (see Textbook of Criminal Law (2nd edn, 1983) p 282) that the reason is that what the doctor does when he switches off a life support machine ‘is in substance not an act but an omission to struggle’ and that ‘the omission is not a breach of duty by the doctor, because he is not obliged to continue in a hopeless case’.
I agree that the doctor’s conduct in discontinuing life support can properly be categorised as an omission. It is true that it may be difficult to describe what the doctor actually does as an omission, for example where he takes some positive step to bring the life support to an end. But discontinuation of life support is, for present purposes, no different from not initiating life support in the first place. In each case, the doctor is simply allowing his patient to die in the sense that he is desisting from taking a step which might, in certain circumstances, prevent his
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patient from dying as a result of his pre-existing condition; and as a matter of general principle an omission such as this will not be unlawful unless it constitutes a breach of duty to the patient. I also agree that the doctor’s conduct is to be differentiated from that of, for example, an interloper who maliciously switches off a life support machine because, although the interloper may perform exactly the same act as the doctor who discontinues life support, his doing so constitutes interference with the life-prolonging treatment then being administered by the doctor. Accordingly, whereas the doctor, in discontinuing life support, is simply allowing his patient to die of his pre-existing condition, the interloper is actively intervening to stop the doctor from prolonging the patient’s life, and such conduct cannot possibly be categorised as an omission.
The distinction appears, therefore, to be useful in the present context in that it can be invoked to explain how discontinuance of life support can be differentiated from ending a patient’s life by a lethal injection. But in the end the reason for that difference is that, whereas the law considers that discontinuance of life support may be consistent with the doctor’s duty to care for his patient, it does not, for reasons of policy, consider that it forms any part of his duty to give his patient a lethal injection to put him out of his agony.
I return to the patient who, because for example he is of unsound mind or has been rendered unconscious by accident or by illness, is incapable of stating whether or not he consents to treatment or care. In such circumstances, it is now established that a doctor may lawfully treat such a patient if he acts in his best interests, and indeed that, if the patient is already in his care, he is under a duty so to treat him: see F v West Berkshire Health Authority [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1, in which the legal principles governing treatment in such circumstances were stated by this House. For my part I can see no reason why, as a matter of principle, a decision by a doctor whether or not to initiate, or to continue to provide, treatment or care which could or might have the effect of prolonging such a patient’s life should not be governed by the same fundamental principle. Of course, in the great majority of cases, the best interests of the patient are likely to require that treatment of this kind, if available, should be given to a patient. But this may not always be so. To take a simple example given by Thomas J in the High Court of New Zealand in Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235 at 253, to whose judgment in that case I wish to pay tribute, it cannot be right that a doctor, who has under his care a patient suffering painfully from terminal cancer, should be under an absolute obligation to perform upon him major surgery to abate another condition which, if unabated, would or might shorten his life still further. The doctor who is caring for such a patient cannot, in my opinion, be under an absolute obligation to prolong his life by any means available to him, regardless of the quality of the patient’s life. Common humanity requires otherwise, as do medical ethics and good medical practice accepted in this country and overseas. As I see it, the doctor’s decision whether or not to take any such step must (subject to his patient’s ability to give or withhold his consent) be made in the best interests of the patient. It is this principle too which, in my opinion, underlies the established rule that a doctor may, when caring for a patient who is, for example, dying of cancer, lawfully administer painkilling drugs despite the fact that he knows that an incidental effect of that application will be to abbreviate the patient’s life. Such a decision may properly be made as part of the care of the living patient, in his best interests; and, on this basis, the treatment will be lawful. Moreover, where the doctor’s treatment of his patient is lawful, the patient’s death will be regarded in law as exclusively caused by the injury or disease to which his condition is attributable.
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It is of course the development of modern medical technology, and in particular the development of life support systems, which has rendered cases such as the present so much more relevant than in the past. Even so, where, for example, a patient is brought into hospital in such a condition that, without the benefit of a life support system, he will not continue to live, the decision has to be made whether or not to give him that benefit, if available. That decision can only be made in the best interests of the patient. No doubt, his best interests will ordinarily require that he should be placed on a life support system as soon as necessary, if only to make an accurate assessment of his condition and a prognosis for the future. But, if he neither recovers sufficiently to be taken off it nor dies, the question will ultimately arise whether he should be kept on it indefinitely. As I see it, that question (assuming the continued availability of the system) can only be answered by reference to the best interests of the patient himself, having regard to established medical practice. Indeed, if the justification for treating a patient who lacks the capacity to consent lies in the fact that the treatment is provided in his best interests, it must follow that the treatment may, and indeed ultimately should, be discontinued where it is no longer in his best interests to provide it. The question which lies at the heart of the present case is, as I see it, whether on that principle the doctors responsible for the treatment and care of Anthony Bland can justifiably discontinue the process of artificial feeding upon which the prolongation of his life depends.
It is crucial for the understanding of this question that the question itself should be correctly formulated. The question is not whether the doctor should take a course which will kill his patient, or even take a course which has the effect of accelerating his death. The question is whether the doctor should or should not continue to provide his patient with medical treatment or care which, if continued, will prolong his patient’s life. The question is sometimes put in striking or emotional terms, which can be misleading. For example, in the case of a life support system, it is sometimes asked: should a doctor be entitled to switch it off, or to pull the plug? And then it is asked: can it be in the best interests of the patient that a doctor should be able to switch the life support system off, when this will inevitably result in the patient’s death? Such an approach has rightly been criticised as misleading, for example by Professor Ian Kennedy (in his paper in Treat Me Right, Essays in Medical Law and Ethics (1988)), and by Thomas J in Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235 at 247. This is because the question is not whether it is in the best interests of the patient that he should die. The question is whether it is in the best interests of the patient that his life should be prolonged by the continuance of this form of medical treatment or care.
The correct formulation of the question is of particular importance in a case such as the present, where the patient is totally unconscious and where there is no hope whatsoever of any amelioration of his condition. In circumstances such as these, it may be difficult to say that it is in his best interests that the treatment should be ended. But, if the question is asked, as in my opinion it should be, whether it is in his best interests that treatment which has the effect of artificially prolonging his life should be continued, that question can sensibly be answered to the effect that it is not in his best interests to do so.
Even so, a distinction may be drawn between (1) cases in which, having regard to all the circumstances (including, for example, the intrusive nature of the treatment, the hazards involved in it and the very poor quality of the life which may be prolonged for the patient if the treatment is successful), it may be judged not to be in the best interests of the patient to initiate or continue life-prolonging
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treatment and (2) cases such as the present in which, so far as the living patient is concerned, the treatment is of no benefit to him because he is totally unconscious and there is no prospect of any improvement in his condition. In both classes of case the decision whether or not to withhold treatment must be made in the best interests of the patient. In the first class, however, the decision has to be made by weighing the relevant considerations. For example in Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1990] 3 All ER 930 at 945, [1991] Fam 33 at 55 the approach to be adopted in that case was stated by Taylor LJ as follows:
‘I consider that the correct approach is for the court to judge the quality of life the child would have to endure if given the treatment and decide whether in all the circumstances such a life would be so afflicted as to be intolerable to that child.’
With this class of case, however, your Lordships are not directly concerned in the present case; and, though I do not wish to be understood to be casting any doubt upon any of the reported cases on the subject, nevertheless I must record that argument was not directed specifically towards these cases and for that reason I do not intend to express any opinion about the precise principles applicable in relation to them.
By contrast, in the latter class of case, of which the present case provides an example, there is in reality no weighing operation to be performed. Here the condition of the patient, who is totally unconscious and in whose condition there is no prospect of any improvement, is such that life-prolonging treatment is properly regarded as being, in medical terms, useless. As Sir Thomas Bingham MR pointed out in the present case, medical treatment or care may be provided for a number of different purposes. It may be provided, for example, as an aid to diagnosis, for the treatment of physical or mental injury or illness, to alleviate pain or distress, or to make the patient’s condition more tolerable. Such purposes may include prolonging the patient’s life for example to enable him to survive during diagnosis and treatment. But for my part I cannot see that medical treatment is appropriate or requisite simply to prolong a patient’s life when such treatment has no therapeutic purpose of any kind, as where it is futile because the patient is unconscious and there is no prospect of any improvement in his condition. It is reasonable also that account should be taken of the invasiveness of the treatment and of the indignity to which, as the present case shows, a person has to be subjected if his life is prolonged by artificial means, which must cause, considerable distress to his family—a distress which reflects not only their own feelings but their perception of the situation of their relative who is being kept alive. But in the end, in a case such as the present, it is the futility of the treatment which justifies its termination. I do not consider that, in circumstances such as these, a doctor is required to initiate or to continue life-prolonging treatment or care in the best interests of his patient. It follows that no such duty rests upon the respondents, or upon Dr Howe, in the case of Anthony Bland, whose condition is in reality no more than a living death, and for whom such treatment or care would, in medical terms, be futile.
In the present case it is proposed that the doctors should be entitled to discontinue both the artificial feeding of Anthony and the use of antibiotics. It is plain from the evidence that Anthony, in his present condition, is very prone to infection and that, over some necessarily uncertain but not very long period of time, he will succumb to infection which, if unchecked, will spread and cause his death. But the effect of discontinuing the artificial feeding will be that he will inevitably die within one or two weeks.
Objection can be made to the latter course of action on the ground that
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Anthony will thereby be starved to death, and that this would constitute a breach of the duty to feed him which must form an essential part of the duty which every person owes to another in his care. But here again it is necessary to analyse precisely what this means in the case of Anthony. Anthony is not merely incapable of feeding himself. He is incapable of swallowing, and therefore of eating or drinking in the normal sense of those words. There is overwhelming evidence that, in the medical profession, artificial feeding is regarded as a form of medical treatment; and, even if it is not strictly medical treatment, it must form part of the medical care of the patient. Indeed, the function of artificial feeding in the case of Anthony, by means of a nasogastric tube, is to provide a form of life support analogous to that provided by a ventilator which artificially breathes air in and out of the lungs of a patient incapable of breathing normally, thereby enabling oxygen to reach the bloodstream. The same principles must apply in either case when the question is asked whether the doctor in charge may lawfully discontinue the life-sustaining treatment or care; and, if in either case the treatment is futile in the sense I have described, it can properly be concluded that it is no longer in the best interests of the patient to continue it. It is true that, in the case of discontinuance of artificial feeding, it can be said that the patient will as a result starve to death; and this may bring before our eyes the vision of an ordinary person slowly dying of hunger, and suffering all the pain and distress associated with such a death. But here it is clear from the evidence that no such pain or distress will be suffered by Anthony, who can feel nothing at all. Furthermore, we are told that the outward symptoms of dying in such a way, which might otherwise cause distress to the nurses who care for him or to members of his family who visit him, can be suppressed by means of sedatives. In these circumstances, I can see no ground in the present case for refusing the declarations applied for simply because the course of action proposed involves the discontinuance of artificial feeding.
In F v West Berkshire Health Authority [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 it was stated that, where a doctor provides treatment for a person who is incapacitated from saying whether or not he consents to it, the doctor must, when deciding on the form of treatment, act in accordance with a responsible and competent body of relevant professional opinion, on the principles set down in Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 2 All ER 118, [1957] 1 WLR 582. In my opinion, this principle must equally be applicable to decisions to initiate, or to discontinue, life support, as it is to other forms of treatment. However, in a matter of such importance and sensitivity as discontinuance of life support, it is to be expected that guidance will be provided for the profession; and, on the evidence in the present case, such guidance is for a case such as the present to be found in a discussion paper on Treatment of Patients in Persistent Vegetative State, issued in September 1992 by the medical ethics committee of the British Medical Association. Anybody reading this substantial paper will discover for himself the great care with which this topic is being considered by the profession. Mr Francis for the respondents drew to the attention of the Appellate Committee four safeguards in particular which, in the committee’s opinion, should be observed before discontinuing life support for such patients. They are: (1) every effort should be made at rehabilitation for at least six months after the injury; (2) the diagnosis of irreversible PVS should not be considered confirmed until at least 12 months after the injury, with the effect that any decision to withhold life-prolonging treatment will be delayed for that period; (3) the diagnosis should be agreed by two other independent doctors; and (4) generally, the wishes of the patient’s immediate family will be given great weight.
In fact, the views expressed by the committee on the subject of consultation
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with the relatives of PVS patients are consistent with the opinion expressed by your Lordships’ House in F v West Berkshire Health Authority that it is good practice for the doctor to consult relatives. Indeed the committee recognises that, in the case of PVS patients, the relatives themselves will require a high degree of support and attention. But the committee is firmly of the opinion that the relatives’ views cannot be determinative of the treatment. Indeed, if that were not so, the relatives would be able to dictate to the doctors what is in the best interests of the patient, which cannot be right. Even so, a decision to withhold life-prolonging treatment, such as artificial feeding, must require close co-operation with those close to the patient; and it is recognised that, in practice, their views and the opinions of doctors will coincide in many cases.
Study of this document left me in no doubt that if a doctor treating a PVS patient acts in accordance with the medical practice now being evolved by the medical ethics committee of the British Medical Association he will be acting with the benefit of guidance from a responsible and competent body of relevant professional opinion, as required by the Bolam test. I also feel that those who are concerned that a matter of life and death, such as is involved in a decision to withhold life support in case of this kind, should be left to the doctors would do well to study this paper. The truth is that, in the course of their work, doctors frequently have to make decisions which may affect the continued survival of their patients, and are in reality far more experienced in matters of this kind than are the judges. It is nevertheless the function of the judges to state the legal principles upon which the lawfulness of the actions of doctors depend; but in the end the decisions to be made in individual cases must rest with the doctors themselves. In these circumstances, what is required is a sensitive understanding by both the judges and the doctors of each other’s respective functions, and in particular a determination by the judges not merely to understand the problems facing the medical profession in cases of this kind, but also to regard their professional standards with respect. Mutual understanding between the doctors and the judges is the best way to ensure the evolution of a sensitive and sensible legal framework for the treatment and care of patients, with a sound ethical base, in the interest of the patients themselves. This is a topic to which I will return at the end of this opinion, when I come to consider the extent to which the view of the court should be sought, as a matter of practice, in cases such as the present.
I wish however to refer at this stage to the approach adopted in most American courts under which the court seeks, in a case in which the patient is incapacitated from expressing any view on the question whether life-prolonging treatment should be withheld in the relevant circumstances, to determine what decision the patient himself would have made had he been able to do so. This is called the substituted judgment test, and it generally involves a detailed inquiry into the patient’s views and preferences: see eg Re Quinlan (1976) 70 NJ 10 and Belchertown State School Superintendent v Saikewicz (1977) 373 Mass 728. In later cases concerned with PVS patients it has been held that, in the absence of clear and convincing evidence of the patient’s wishes, the surrogate decision-maker has to implement as far as possible the decision which the incompetent patient would make if he was competent. However, accepting on this point the submission of Mr Lester, I do not consider that any such test forms part of English law in relation to incompetent adults, on whose behalf nobody has power to give consent to medical treatment. Certainly, in F v West Berkshire Health Authority your Lordships’ House adopted a straightforward test based on the best interests of the patient; and I myself do not see why the same test should not be applied in the case of PVS patients, where the question is whether life-prolonging treatment should be
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withheld. This was also the opinion of Thomas J in Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235, unreported), a case concerned with the discontinuance of life support provided by ventilator to a patient suffering from the last stages of incurable Guillain-Barré syndrome. Of course, consistent with the best interests test, anything relevant to the application of the test may be taken into account; and, if the personality of the patient is relevant to the application of the test (as it may be in cases where the various relevant factors have to be weighed), it may be taken into account, as was done in Re J (a minor) (wardship: medical treatment) [1990] 3 All ER 930, [1991] Fam 33. But, where the question is whether life support should be withheld from a PVS patient, it is difficult to see how the personality of the patient can be relevant, though it may be of comfort to his relatives if they believe, as in the present case, and indeed may well be so in many other cases, that the patient would not have wished his life to be artificially prolonged if he was totally unconscious and there was no hope of improvement in his condition.
I wish to add however that, like the courts below, I have derived assistance and support from decisions in a number of American jurisdictions to the effect that it is lawful to discontinue life-prolonging treatment in the case of PVS patients where there is no prospect of improvement in their condition. Furthermore, I wish to refer to the section in Working Paper No 28 (1982) on Euthanasia, Aiding Suicide and Cessation of Treatment published by the Law Reform Commission of Canada concerned with cessation of treatment, to which I also wish to express my indebtedness. I believe the legal principles as I have stated them to be broadly consistent with the conclusions summarised in the Working Paper (at pp 65–66), which was substantially accepted in the Report of the Commission (1983) pp 32–35. Indeed, I entertain a strong sense that a community of view on the legal principles applicable in cases of discontinuing life support is in the course of development and acceptance throughout the common law world.
In setting out my understanding of the relevant principles, I have had very much in mind the submissions advanced by Mr Munby on behalf of the Official Solicitor, and I believe that I have answered, directly or indirectly, all his objections to the course now proposed. I do not, therefore, intend any disrespect to his argument if I do not answer each of his submissions seriatim. In summary, his two principal arguments were as follows. First, he submitted that the discontinuance of artificial feeding would constitute an act which would inevitably cause, and be intended to cause, Anthony’s death; and as such, it would be unlawful, and indeed criminal. As will be plain from what I have already said, I cannot accept this proposition. In my opinion, for the reasons I have already given, there is no longer any duty upon the doctors to continue with this form of medical treatment or care in his case, and it follows that it cannot be unlawful to discontinue it. Second, he submitted that discontinuance of the artificial feeding of Anthony would be a breach of the doctor’s duty to care for and feed him- and since it will (as it is intended to do) cause his death, it will necessarily be unlawful. I have considered this point earlier in this opinion, when I expressed my view that artificial feeding is, in a case such as the present, no different from life support by a ventilator, and as such can lawfully be discontinued when it no longer fulfils any therapeutic purpose. To me, the crucial point in which I found myself differing from Mr Munby was that I was unable to accept his treating the discontinuance of artificial feeding in the present case as equivalent to cutting a mountaineer’s rope, or severing the air pipe of a deep sea diver. Once it is recognised, as I believe it must be, that the true question is not whether the doctor should take a course in which he will actively kill his patient, but rather whether
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he should continue to provide his patient with medical treatment or care which, if continued, will prolong his life, then, as I see it, the essential basis of Mr Munby’s submissions disappears. I wish to add that I was unable to accept his suggestion that recent decisions show that the law is proceeding down a ‘slippery slope’, in the sense that the courts are becoming more and more ready to allow doctors to take steps which will result in the ending of life. On the contrary, as I have attempted to demonstrate, the courts are acting within a structure of legal principle, under which in particular they continue to draw a clear distinction between the bounds of lawful treatment of a living patient and unlawful euthanasia.
I turn finally to the extent to which doctors should, as a matter of practice, seek the guidance of the court, by way of an application for declaratory relief, before withholding life-prolonging treatment from a PVS patient. Sir Stephen Brown P considered that the opinion of the court should be sought in all cases similar to the present. In the Court of Appeal Sir Thomas Bingham MR expressed his agreement with Sir Stephen Brown P in the following words (see p 842, ante):
‘This was in my respectful view a wise ruling, directed to the protection of patients, the protection of doctors, the reassurance of patients’ families and the reassurance of the public. The practice proposed seems to me desirable. It may very well be that with the passage of time a body of experience and practice will build up which will obviate the need for application in every case, but for the time being I am satisfied that the practice which Sir Stephen Brown P described should be followed.’
Before the Appellate Committee this view was supported both by Mr Munby for the Official Solicitor and by Mr Lester as amicus curiae. For the respondents, Mr Francis suggested that an adequate safeguard would be provided if reference to the court was required in certain specific cases, ie (1) where there was known to be a medical disagreement as to the diagnosis or prognosis, and (2) problems had arisen with the patient’s relatives—disagreement by the next of kin with the medical recommendation; actual or apparent conflict of interest between the next of kin and the patient; dispute between members of the patient’s family; or absence of any next of kin to give their consent. There is, I consider, much to be said for the view that an application to the court will not be needed in every case, but only in particular circumstances, such as those suggested by Mr Francis. In this connection I was impressed not only by the care being taken by the medical ethics committee to provide guidance to the profession, but also by information given to the Appellate Committee about the substantial number of PVS patients in the country, and the very considerable cost of obtaining guidance from the court in cases such as the present. However, in my opinion this is a matter which would be better kept under review by the President of the Family Division than resolved now by your Lordships’ House. I understand that a similar review is being undertaken in cases concerned with the sterilisation of adult women of unsound mind, with a consequent relaxation of the practice relating to applications to the court in such cases. For my part, I would therefore leave the matter as proposed by Sir Thomas Bingham MR; but I wish to express the hope that the President of the Family Division, who will no doubt be kept well informed about developments in this field, will soon feel able to relax the present requirement so as to limit applications for declarations to those cases in which there is a special need for the procedure to be invoked.
I wish to add one footnote. Since preparing this opinion, I have had the opportunity of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend
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Lord Browne-Wilkinson, in which he has expressed the view that a doctor, in reaching a decision whether or not to continue, in the best interests of his patient, to prolong his life by artificial means, may well be influenced by his own attitude to the sanctity of human life. The point does not arise for decision in the present case. I only wish to observe that it has implications not only in the case of a patient who, like Anthony Bland, is totally unconscious, but also one who may be suffering from great physical pain or (as in the case of one suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome) extreme mental distress; and it would in theory fall to be tested if the patient’s relatives, dismayed by the artificial prolongation of the agony of their loved one, were to seek to restrain by injunction a doctor who was persisting in prolonging his life. I cannot help feeling, however, that such a situation is more theoretical than real. I suspect that it is unlikely to arise in practice, if only because the solution could be found in a change of medical practitioner. It is not to be forgotten, moreover, that doctors who for conscientious reasons would feel unable to discontinue life support in such circumstances can presumably, like those who have a conscientious objection to abortion, abstain from involvement in such work. For present purposes, however, it is enough to state that the best interests test is broad and flexible in the sense that room must be allowed for the exercise of judgment by the doctor as to whether the relevant conditions exist which justify the discontinuance of life support.
For these reasons, I would dismiss the appeal. Having read in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Keith of Kinkel, I can see no significant difference from the opinion which I have expressed.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, l have had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches of my noble and learned friends and, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley, with which I understand the remainder of your Lordships to be generally in agreement, I agree that this appeal should be dismissed.
I cannot usefully elaborate on your Lordships’ careful analysis of the arguments. There are, however, four points in relation to your Lordships’ reasoning and conclusions which it may be worth my while to make.
1. I do not believe that there is a valid legal distinction between the omission to treat a patient and the abandonment of treatment which has been commenced, since to recognise such a distinction could quite illogically confer on a doctor who had refrained from treatment an immunity which did not benefit a doctor who had embarked on treatment in order to see whether it might help the patient and had abandoned the treatment when it was seen not to do so.
2. As noted in F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 and again in your Lordships’ speeches, the parens patriae jurisdiction over adults who are for whatever reason mentally incompetent was abolished by statute. I have never heard a rational, or indeed any, explanation for this step, which has placed under a further disadvantage a class of adults who are already handicapped. Parliament has done nothing since F v West Berkshire Health Authority was decided, but I sincerely hope that the parens patriae jurisdiction over adults will soon be restored. The corresponding jurisdiction in wardship has continued to prove its value and it is most unfortunate that the court’s armoury in relation to adults remains thus depleted. The prospect of restoration of this lost power is not controversial, since it does not conjure up the spectre of euthanasia; the decisions which can be made by the courts on behalf of incompetent persons would, as in wardship cases, be confined within lawful bounds.
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3. Procedurally I can see no present alternative to an application to the court such as that made in the present case. This view is reinforced for me when I reflect, against the background of your Lordships’ conclusions of law, that, in the absence of an application, the doctor who proposes the cessation of life-supporting care and treatment on the ground that their continuance would not be in the patient’s best interests will have reached that conclusion himself and will be judge in his own cause unless and until his chosen course of action is challenged in criminal or civil proceedings. A practical alternative may, however, be evolved through the practice of the Family Division and with the help of the medical ethics committee, which has already devoted so much thought to the problem, and possibly of Parliament through legislation, it will of course be understood that the court has no power to render lawful something which without the court’s sanction would have been unlawful. When I take into account that the case now before your Lordships could not be clearer on its facts, I have to say that I am left with the feeling that the general position is not satisfactory.
4. Although entirely satisfied with your Lordships’ consensus, I ought finally to touch on the real point in the case. The strength of the Official Solicitor’s argument lies in its simplicity. In answer to the respondents’ reliance on accepted medical opinion that feeding (nutrition and hydration), particularly by sophisticated artificial methods, is part of the life-supporting medical treatment, he says that the duty to feed a helpless person, such as a baby or an unconscious patient, is something different—an elementary duty to keep the patient alive which exists independently of all questions of treatment and which the person in charge cannot omit to perform: to omit deliberately to perform this duty in the knowledge that the omission will lead to the death of the helpless one, and indeed with the intention, as in the present case, of conducing to that death, will render those in charge guilty of murder. One of the respondents’ counter-arguments, albeit not conclusive, is based on the overwhelming verdict of informed medical opinion worldwide, with particular reference to the common law jurisdictions, where the relevant law generally corresponds closely with our own, that therapy and life-supporting care, including sophisticated methods of artificial feeding, are components of medical treatment and cannot be separated as the Official Solicitor contends. In this connection it may also be emphasised that an artificial feeding regime is inevitably associated with the continuous use of catheters and enemas and the sedulous avoidance and combating of potentially deadly infection. I consider that the court, when intent on reaching a decision according to law, ought to give weight to informed medical opinion both on the point now under discussion and also on the question of what is in the best interests of a patient and I reject the idea, which is implicit in the appellant’s argument, that informed medical opinion in these respects is merely a disguise for a philosophy which, if accepted, would legalise euthanasia.
The real answer to the Official Solicitor, as your Lordships are already agreed, is that his argument starts from the fallacious premiss, which can be taken as correct in ordinary doctor-patient relationships, namely that feeding in order to sustain life is necessarily for the benefit of the patient. But in the prevailing circumstances the opposite view is overwhelmingly held by the doctors and the validity of that view has been accepted by the courts below. The doctors consider that in the patient’s best interests they ought not to feed him and the law, as applied by your Lordships, has gone further by saying that they are not entitled to feed him without his consent, which cannot be obtained. So the theory of the ‘duty to feed’ is founded on a misapprehension and the Official Solicitor’s argument leads to a legally erroneous conclusion. Even though the intention to
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bring about the patient’s death is there, there is no proposed guilty act because, if it is not in the interests of an insentient patient to continue the life-supporting care and treatment, the doctor would be acting unlawfully if he continued the care and treatment and would perform no guilty act by discontinuing.
I have no difficulty in accepting both this legal conclusion and its practical effect, but it is not hard to see how the case might appear to a non-lawyer, who might express himself on the following lines: ‘Yes, I understand the point, now that you have explained it to me. There is no duty, or indeed right, to feed when feeding is not in the best interests of the patient. But the real reason for withdrawing feeding is that the doctors consider that it would be in the patient’s best interests for him to be allowed to die. (I also know that the same result could be achieved, if not so quickly, by allowing the patient’s next infection to go untreated, but that is not just the point which we have been discussing here.) The solution here seems to me to introduce what lawyers call a distinction without a difference: the intention is to terminate life, but the acceptable way of doing it is to discontinue a regime which the law has said that the doctors have no duty or even right to continue. And, incidentally, F v West Berkshire Health Authority (not that I would venture to query your reliance on that authority) was not concerned with matters of life and death at all. So might it not be suggested, no doubt quite wrongly, that this case is, in effect if not in law, an example of euthanasia in action? I can of course appreciate the arguments in a case like this for indirectly terminating the patient’s life and I believe that very many of my friends would be in favour of what is now proposed, but equally there must be many people who, from conviction or simply by virtue of their conventional upbringing, are unconvinced that someone who can be kept alive should be allowed to die.’
My Lords, I have used the homely expedient of attributing these words to my hypothetical non-lawyer in order to demonstrate the possible gap which my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill sees between old law and new medicine and perhaps also, I might add, new ethics. It is important, particularly in the area of criminal law which governs conduct, that society’s notions of what is the law and what is right should coincide. One role of the legislator is to detect any disparity between these notions and to take appropriate action to close the gap.
At all events, for the reasons already relied on by your Lordships, I, too, would dismiss this appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords; in this case the courts are asked to give the answer to two questions: whether the Airedale NHS Trust and the physicians attending Anthony Bland may—
‘(1) … lawfully discontinue all life-sustaining treatment and medical support measures designed to keep [Mr Bland] alive in his existing persistent vegetative state including the termination of ventilation nutrition and hydration by artificial means; and (2) … lawfully discontinue and thereafter need not furnish medical treatment to [Mr Bland] except for the sole purpose of enabling [Mr Bland] to end his life and die peacefully with the greatest dignity and the least of pain suffering and distress …’
Those are questions of law. But behind the questions of law lie moral, ethical medical and practical issues of fundamental importance to society. As Hoffmann LJ in the Court of Appeal emphasised, the law regulating the termination of artificial life support being given to patients must, to be acceptable, reflect a moral attitude which society accepts. This has led judges into the consideration of the ethical and other non-legal problems raised by the ability to sustain life artificially
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which new medical technology has recently made possible. But in my judgment in giving the legal answer to these questions judges are faced with a dilemma. The ability to sustain life artificially is of relatively recent origin. Existing law may not provide an acceptable answer to the new legal questions which it raises. Should judges seek to develop new law to meet a wholly new situation? Or is this a matter which lies outside the area of legitimate development of the law by judges and requires society, through the democratic expression of its views in Parliament, to reach its decisions on the underlying moral and practical problems and then reflect those decisions in legislation?
I have no doubt that it is for Parliament, not the courts, to decide the broader issues which this case raises. Until recently there was no doubt what was life and what was death. A man was dead if he stopped breathing and his heart stopped beating. There was no artificial means of sustaining these indications of life for more than a short while. Death in the traditional sense was beyond human control. Apart from cases of unlawful homicide, death occurred automatically in the course of nature when the natural functions of the body failed to sustain the lungs and the heart.
Recent developments in medical science have fundamentally affected these previous certainties. In medicine, the cessation of breathing or of heartbeat is no longer death. By the use of a ventilator, lungs which in the unaided course of nature would have stopped breathing can be made to breathe, thereby sustaining the heartbeat. Those, like Anthony Bland, who would previously have died through inability to swallow food can be kept alive by artificial feeding. This has led the medical profession to redefine death in terms of brain stem death, ie the death of that part of the brain without which the body cannot function at all without assistance. In some cases it is now apparently possible, with the use of the ventilator, to sustain a beating heart even though the brain stem, and therefore in medical terms the patient, is dead: ‘the ventilated corpse’.
I do not refer to these factors because Anthony Bland is already dead, either medically or legally. His brain stem is alive and so is he; provided that he is artificially fed and the waste products evacuated from his body by skilled medical care, his body sustains its own life. I refer to these factors in order to illustrate the scale of the problem which is presented by modern technological developments, of which this case is merely one instance. The physical state known as death has changed. In many cases the time and manner of death is no longer dictated by nature but can be determined by human decision. The life of Anthony Bland, in the purely physical sense, has been and can be extended by skilled medical care for a period of years.
To my mind, these technical developments have raised a wholly new series of ethical and social problems. What is meant now by ‘life’ in the moral precept which requires respect for the sanctity of human life? If the quality of life of a person such as Anthony Bland is non-existent since he is unaware of anything that happens to him, has he a right to be sustained in that state of living death and are his family and medical attendants under a duty to maintain it? If Anthony Bland has no such right and others no such duty, should society draw a distinction (which some would see as artificial) between adopting a course of action designed to produce certain death, on the one hand through the lack of food, and on the other from a fatal injection, the former being permissible and the latter (euthanasia) prohibited? If the withdrawal of life support is legitimate in the case of Anthony Bland, whose persistent vegetative state (PVS) is very severe, what of others in this country also in PVS (whom we were told numbered between 1,000 and 1,500) and others suffering from medical conditions having similar impact,
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eg the Guillain-Barré syndrome? Who is to decide, and according to what criteria, who is to live and who to die? What rights have the relatives of the patient in taking that decision?
In addition to these ethical questions, the new technology raises practical problems. Given that there are limited resources available for medical care is it right to devote money to sustaining the lives of those who are, and always will be unaware of their own existence rather than to treating those who, in a real sense, can be benefited, eg those deprived of dialysis for want of resources? Again, the timing of the patient’s death may have a direct impact on the rights of other parties. In the case of a patient suffering from PVS as a result of a road accident, the amount of damages recoverable will depend on whether the patient is kept alive or allowed to die. We were told by the Official Solicitor that there have already been cases in which this factor has been taken into account by relatives of the patient, though there is no question of that in the present case. Again, rights of succession to the estate of the patient may well depend on the timing of his death.
On the moral issues raised by this case, society is not all of one mind. Although it is probably true that the majority would favour the withdrawal of life support in the present case, there is undoubtedly a substantial body of opinion that is strongly opposed. The evidence shows that the Roman Catholic church and orthodox Jews are opposed. Within the medical profession itself there are those, including one of the very distinguished doctors who gave evidence in this case, who draw a distinction between withholding treatment on the one hand and withholding food and care on the other, the latter not being acceptable. The present case is an extreme one, since Anthony Bland can appreciate nothing whether he is alive or dead; but I have no doubt that less extreme cases will come before the courts on which public opinion may be more sharply divided.
The position therefore, in my view, is that if the judges seek to develop new law to regulate the new circumstances, the law so laid down will of necessity reflect judges’ views on the underlying ethical questions, questions on which there is a legitimate division of opinion. By way of example, although the Court of Appeal in this case, in reaching the conclusion that the withdrawal of food and Anthony Bland’s subsequent death would be for his benefit, attaches importance to impalpable factors such as personal dignity and the way Anthony Bland would wish to be remembered but does not take into account spiritual values which, for example, a member of the Roman Catholic church would regard as relevant in assessing such benefit. Where a case raises wholly new moral and social issues, in my judgment it is not for the judges to seek to develop new, all-embracing, principles of law in a way which reflects the individual judges’ moral stance when society as a whole is substantially divided on the relevant moral issues. Moreover, it is not legitimate for a judge in reaching a view as to what is for the benefit of the one individual whose life is in issue to take into account the wider practical issues as to allocation of limited financial resources or the impact on third parties of altering the time at which death occurs.
For these reasons, it seems to me imperative that the moral, social and legal issues raised by this case should be considered by Parliament. The judges’ function in this area of the law should be to apply the principles which society, through the democratic process, adopts, not to impose their standards on society. If Parliament fails to act, then judge-made law will of necessity through a gradual and uncertain process provide a legal answer to each new question as it arises. But in my judgment that is not the best way to proceed.
The function of the court in these circumstances is to determine this particular
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case in accordance with the existing law, and not seek to develop new law laying down a new regimen. The result of this limited approach may be unsatisfactory, both in moral and practical terms, but it is for Parliament to address the wider problems which the case raises and lay down principles of law generally applicable to the withdrawal of life support systems.
Before turning to the strict legality of what is proposed, I must say something about the procedure adopted in this case. The application asks the court to make declarations as to the legality of proposed future actions, ie, if granted, the declarations will purport to decide whether the proposed discontinuance of life support will constitute a crime. In general the court sets its face against making declarations as to the criminality of proposed future actions. But I agree with my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley that in this case it is absolutely necessary to do so. The doctors; responsible for Anthony Bland’s care have reached the view that it is for his benefit to withdraw life support but have been warned by the coroner that it may constitute a criminal offence if they do so. In the past, doctors exercised their own discretion, in accordance with medical ethics, in cases such as these. To the great advantage of society, they took the responsibility of deciding whether the perpetuation of life was pointless. But there are now present amongst the medical and nursing staff of hospitals those who genuinely believe in the sanctity of human life, no matter what the quality of that life, and report doctors who take such decisions to the authorities with a view to prosecution for a criminal offence. I am not criticising such people: they are acting in accordance with their own moral standards. But their actions have made it extremely risky for a doctor to take a decision of this kind when his action may lie on the borderline of legality. I have no doubt that the courts should, by declaration, provide to doctors faced with such decisions clear rulings whether the course they propose to adopt is or is not lawful.
I turn then to the question whether, under existing law, the proposed discontinuance of the artificial feeding of Anthony Bland would be lawful. Such discontinuance might be unlawful because (a) it would constitute a criminal offence or (b) it will give rise to civil liability to Anthony Bland or his personal representatives after his death.
A. CRIMINAL LIABILITY/MURDER
It is the submission of the Official Solicitor that the withdrawal of artificial feeding would constitute murder. The Official Solicitor has been criticised for using emotive language in this case. In my judgment this criticism is misplaced: much the most difficult question is indeed whether the proposed course of action is, in law, murder notwithstanding the best motives from which everyone concerned is acting.
Murder consists of causing the death of another with intent so to do. What is proposed in the present case is to adopt a course with the intention of bringing about Anthony Bland’s death. As to the element of intention, or mens rea, in my judgment there can be no real doubt that it is present in this case: the whole purpose of stopping artificial feeding is to bring about the death of Anthony Bland.
As to the guilty act, or actus reus, the criminal law draws a distinction between the commission of a positive act which causes death and the omission to do an act which would have prevented death. In general an omission to prevent death is not an actus reus and cannot give rise to a conviction for murder. But where the accused was under a duty to the deceased to do the act which he omitted to do, such omission can constitute the actus reus of homicide, either murder (see R v
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Gibbins (1918) 13 Cr App R 134) or manslaughter (see R v Stone [1977] 2 All ER 341, [1977] QB 354) depending upon the mens rea of the accused. The Official Solicitor submits that the actus reus of murder is present on two alternative grounds, viz (1) the withdrawal of artificial feeding is a positive act of commission or (2) if what is proposed is only an omission, the hospital and the doctors have assumed a duty to care for Anthony Bland (including feeding him) and therefore the omission to feed him would constitute the actus reus of murder.
1. Positive act of commission
Mr Munby QC, in his powerful but balanced argument for the Official Solicitor, submits that the removal of the nasogastric tube necessary to provide artificial feeding and the discontinuance of the existing regime of artificial feeding constitute positive acts of commission. I do not accept this. Apart from the act of removing the nasogastric tube, the mere failure to continue to do what you have previously done is not, in any ordinary sense, to do anything positive: on the contrary it is by definition an omission to do what you have previously done.
The positive act of removing the nasogastric tube presents more difficulty. It is undoubtedly a positive act, similar to switching off a ventilator in the case of a patient whose life is being sustained by artificial ventilation. But in my judgment in neither case should the act be classified as positive, since to do so would be to introduce intolerably fine distinctions. If, instead of removing the nasogastric tube, it was left in place but no further nutrients were provided for the tube to convey to the patient’s stomach, that would not be an act of commission. Again, as has been pointed out (Skegg Law, Ethics and Medicine (1985) p 169ff), if the switching off of a ventilator were to be classified as a positive act, exactly the same result can be achieved by installing a time-clock which requires to be reset every 12 hours: the failure to reset the machine could not be classified as a positive act. In my judgment, essentially what is being done is to omit to feed or to ventilate: the removal of the nasogastric tube or the switching off of a ventilator are merely incidents of that omission: see Glanville Williams Textbook of Criminal Law (2nd edn, 1983) p 282 and Skegg p 169ff.
In my judgment, there is a further reason why the removal of the nasogastric tube in the present case could not be regarded as a positive act causing the death. The tube itself, without the food being supplied through it, does nothing. The removal of the tube by itself does not cause the death since by itself it did not sustain life. Therefore even if, contrary to my view, the removal of the tube is to be classified as a positive act, it would not constitute the actus reus of murder since such positive act would not be the cause of death.
2. Omission: duty to provide care
Mr Munby submits that, by starting to treat Anthony Bland as a patient and instituting a regime of artificial feeding, the hospital and doctors have undertaken a duty to provide him with medical care and food for an indefinite period. That being their duty, the withdrawal of artificial feeding, even though a mere omission, will be a breach of that duty and therefore constitute murder.
The crux of this submission is the extent of the duty owed by the hospital and the doctors to Anthony Bland. In order to analyse the nature of that duty, it is necessary first to consider the relationship between a doctor and a patient who, through mental disability, is unable to consent to treatment. Any treatment given by a doctor to a patient which is invasive (i e involves any interference with the physical integrity of the patient) is unlawful unless done with the consent of the patient: it constitutes the crime of battery and the tort of trespass to the
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person. Thus, in the case of an adult who is mentally competent, the artificial feeding regime (and the attendant steps necessary to evacuate the bowels and bladder) would be unlawful unless the patient consented to it. A mentally competent patient can at any time put an end to life support systems by refusing his consent to their continuation. In the ordinary case of murder by positive act of commission, the consent of the victim is no defence. But where the charge is one of murder by omission to do an act and the act omitted could only be done with the consent of the patient, refusal by the patient of consent to the doing of such act does, indirectly, provide a defence to the charge of murder. The doctor cannot owe to the patient any duty to maintain his life where that life can only be sustained by intrusive medical care to which the patient will not consent.
How then does the matter stand in the case of a patient who, by reason of his being under age or, like Anthony Bland, of full age but mentally disabled, is unable to give consent to treatment? So far as minors are concerned, the guardian of the child can consent, failing which the court, exercising the Crown’s rights as parens patriae under the wardship jurisdiction, can consent on the child’s behalf. Until 1960 the court had the same parens patriae jurisdiction over adults who were mentally incompetent. But by the joint effect of the Mental Health Act 1959 and the revocation of the warrant under the sign manual under which the jurisdiction of the Crown as parens patriae over those of unsound mind was conferred on the courts, the courts ceased to have any parens patriae jurisdiction over the person of a mentally incompetent adult, being left only with the statutory jurisdiction over his property (as opposed to his person) conferred by the 1959 Act: see F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1. Although no one has been able to explain why Parliament chose to take this course (indeed it has been suggested that it was an accident) no step has been taken to restore to the courts the parens patriae jurisdiction over the body of a mentally disabled adult. As a result the court, even if it thought fit, has no power on Anthony Bland’s behalf either to consent or to refuse consent to the continuation of the invasive procedures involved in artificial feeding.
Faced with this lacuna in the law, this House in F v West Berkshire Health Authority developed and laid down a principle, based on concepts of necessity, under which a doctor can lawfully treat a patient who cannot consent to such treatment if it is in the best interests of the patient to receive such treatment. In my view, the correct answer to the present case depends on the extent of the right , to continue lawfully to invade the bodily integrity of Anthony Bland without his consent. If in the circumstances they have no right to continue artificial feeding, they cannot be in breach of any duty by ceasing to provide such feeding.
What then is the extent of the right to treat Anthony Bland which can be deduced from F v West Berkshire Health Authority? Both Lord Brandon of Oakbrook and Lord Goff make it clear that the right to administer invasive medical care is wholly dependent upon such care being in the best interests of the patient (see [1989] 2 All ER 545 at 557, 565–566, 567, [1990] 2 AC 1 at 64, 75, 77). Moreover, a doctor’s decision whether invasive care is in the best interests of the patient falls to be assessed by reference to the test laid down in Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee[1957] 2 All ER 118, [1957] 1 WLR 582, viz is the decision in accordance with a practice accepted at the time by a responsible body of medical opinion? (see [1989] 2 All ER 545 at 559, 567, [1990] 2 AC 1 at 66–67, 78 per Lord Brandon and Lord Goff). In my judgment it must follow from this that, if there comes a stage where the responsible doctor comes to the reasonable conclusion (which accords with the views of a responsible body of medical
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opinion) that further continuance of an intrusive life support system is not in the best interests of the patient, he can no longer lawfully continue that life support system: to do so would constitute the crime of battery and the tort of trespass to the person. Therefore he cannot be in breach of any duty to maintain the patient’s life. Therefore he is not guilty of murder by omission.
3. What is the correct question?
If I am right so far in my analysis, the critical decision to be made is whether it is in the best interests of Anthony Bland to continue the invasive medical care involved in artificial feeding. That question is not the same as, ‘Is it in Anthony Bland’s best interests that he should die?' The latter question assumes that it is lawful to perpetuate the patient’s life; but such perpetuation of life can only be achieved if it is lawful to continue to invade the bodily integrity of the patient by invasive medical care. Unless the doctor has reached the affirmative conclusion that it is in the patient’s best interest to continue the invasive care, such care must cease.
The answer to the question must of course depend on the circumstances of each case and there will be no single ‘right’ answer. Different doctors may take different views both on strictly medical issues and the broader ethical issues which the question raises. It follows that the legal question in this case (unlike the question which would arise if there were a parens patriae jurisdiction under which the court has to make the decision) is not whether the court thinks it is in the best interests of Anthony Bland to continue to receive intrusive medical care but whether the responsible doctor has reached a reasonable and bona fide belief that it is not. The doctor’s answer may well be influenced by his own attitude to the sanctity of human life. In cases where there is no strictly medical point in continuing care, if a doctor holds the view that the patient is entitled to stay alive, whatever the quality of such life, he can quite reasonably reach the view that the continuation of intrusive care, being the only way of preserving such life, is in the patient’s best interests. But, in the same circumstances another doctor who sees no merit in perpetuating a life of which the patient is unaware can equally reasonably reach the view that the continuation of invasive treatment is not for the patient’s benefit. Accordingly, on an application to the court for a declaration that the discontinuance of medical care will be lawful, the court’s only concern will be to be satisfied that the doctor’s decision to discontinue is in accordance with a respectable body of medical opinion and that it is reasonable.
4. The answer to the question
Anthony Bland has been irreversibly brain damaged: the most distinguished medical opinion is unanimous that there is no prospect at all that the condition will change for the better. He is not aware of anything. If artificial feeding is continued, he will feel nothing; if artificial feeding is discontinued and he dies he will feel nothing. Whether he lives or dies he will feel no pain or distress. All the purely physical considerations indicate that it is pointless to continue life support. Only if the doctors responsible for his care held the view that, though he is aware of nothing, there is some benefit to him in staying alive, would there be anything to indicate that it is for his benefit to continue the invasive medical care. In Anthony Bland’s case, the doctors do not take that view. The discontinuance of life support would be in accordance with the proposals contained in the discussion paper on Treatment of Patients in Persistent Vegetative State issued in September 1992 by the medical ethics committee of the British Medical Association. Therefore the Bolam requirement is satisfied.
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In these circumstances, it is perfectly reasonable for the responsible doctors to conclude that there is no affirmative benefit to Anthony Bland in continuing the invasive medical procedures necessary to sustain his life. Having so concluded, they are neither entitled nor under a duty to continue such medical care. Therefore they will not be guilty of murder if they discontinue such care.
B. CIVIL LIABILITY
The discontinuance of life support could expose the plaintiffs to a liability in tort to Anthony Bland or, more realistically, to his personal representatives. But such liability would have to be founded on a breach of some duty owed by them to Anthony Bland to maintain such life support. For the reasons which I have given in dealing with criminal liability, no such breach of duty can exist in this case. Therefore the discontinuance of life support will also be lawful under civil law.
I am very conscious that I have reached my conclusions on narrow, legalistic, grounds which provide no satisfactory basis for the decision of cases which will arise in the future where the facts are not identical. I must again emphasise that this is an extreme case where it can be overwhelmingly proved that the patient is and will remain insensate: he neither feels pain from treatment nor will feel pain in dying and has no prospect of any medical care improving his condition. Unless, as I very much hope, Parliament reviews the law, the courts will be faced with cases where the chances of improvement are slight, or the patient has very slight sensate awareness. I express no view on what should be the answer in such circumstances: my decision does not cover such a case. I therefore consider that, for the foreseeable future, doctors would be well advised in each case to apply to the court for a declaration as to the legality of any proposed discontinuance of life support where there has been no valid consent by or on behalf of the patient to such discontinuance.
Finally, the conclusion I have reached will appear to some to be almost irrational. How can it be lawful to allow a patient to die slowly, though painlessly, over a period of weeks from lack of food but unlawful to produce his immediate death by a lethal injection, thereby saving his family from yet another ordeal to add to the tragedy that has already struck them? I find it difficult to find a moral answer to that question. But it is undoubtedly the law and nothing I have said casts doubt on the proposition that the doing of a positive act with the intention of ending life is and remains murder.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, the pitiful state of Anthony Bland and the suffering of his devoted family must attract the sympathy of all. The devotion to duty of the medical staff, and the complete propriety of those who have faced up to the painful dilemma must equally attract the respect of all. This combination of sympathy and respect can but yield an urgent desire to take up the burden, to reach a conclusion on this deep moral issue of life and death, and to put that conclusion into effect as speedily and humanely as possible. The compelling nature of this task does however have its own risks, for it leads to an assumption that the central question of ethics is the only question, and that anything which stands in the way of a solution should be brushed aside as an empty technicality. However natural this impulse may be I believe that it must be resisted, for the authority of the state, through the medium of the court, is being invoked to permit one group of its citizens to terminate the life of another. Thus, although the issues spring from a private grief and the course which is proposed is also private, in the sense that it will not be put into effect by the state, we are
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nevertheless here in the field of public law. The court must therefore be concerned not only to find a humane and morally justified solution to the problems of those directly involved, but also to examine rigorously both the process by which the solution is reached and the legal foundation on which it rests. Otherwise, the pressures created by this very extreme case may distort the law in a way which leads to false conclusions in situations where the issues are similar but more finely balanced, and may in addition create unforeseen anomalies in criminal cases far removed from the present. This appeal obviously raises acute problems of ethics, but this should not obscure the fact that it is also exceptionally difficult in point of law, and it is essential that these difficulties should be clearly recognised and objectively analysed, not in a spirit of obstruction or pedantry, but because they are an inescapable part of any decision on whether the declarations made in the High Court should be allowed to stand.
Accordingly I shall concentrate in what follows on the legal rather than the ethical aspects of the appeal, although I have of course given the latter the most careful and anxious consideration. The moral issues have already been extensively discussed. I agree with the conclusion of all those who have delivered judgments in the case that the declarations ought to stand and I also agree broadly, although not necessarily in every detail, with the way in which that conclusion has been reached. Rather than traverse the same ground again in different language I think it more useful to concentrate on two important matters which received comparatively little attention in the courts below. First, the role of the court, that is the nature of the function which the court is being called upon to perform, and the suitability of the court to perform it. Second, the consistency of the steps authorised by the two declarations now under appeal (which I will call ‘the proposed conduct’) with the existing criminal law. In placing these matters firmly before the House the Official Solicitor, through the medium of Mr Munby QC, has performed a most valuable service.
When performing this task it is essential to face up squarely to the true nature of what is proposed, and to have in mind what has been called ‘the distinction between the right to choose one’s own death and the right to choose someone else’s’: see ‘Medical technology and the law’ (1989) 103 Harv LR 1519 at 1665n. Emollient expressions such as ‘letting nature take its course’ and ‘easing the passing’ may have their uses, but they are out of place here, for they conceal both the ethical and the legal issues, and I will try to avoid them. I will also abstain from debate about whether the proposed conduct will amount to euthanasia. The word is not a term of art, and what matters is not whether the declarations authorise euthanasia, but whether they authorise what would otherwise be murder. I will say only this. The conclusion that the declarations can be upheld depends crucially on a distinction drawn by the criminal law between acts and omissions, and carries with it inescapably a distinction between, on the one hand what is often called ‘mercy killing’, where active steps are taken in a medical context to terminate the life of a suffering patient, and a situation such as the present, where the proposed conduct has the aim for equally humane reasons of terminating the life of Anthony Bland by withholding from him the basic necessities of life. The acute unease which I feel about adopting this way through the legal and ethical maze is I believe due in an important part to the sensation that however much the terminologies may differ the ethical status of the two courses of action is for all relevant purposes indistinguishable. By dismissing this appeal I fear that your Lordships’ House may only emphasise the distortions of a legal structure which is already both morally and intellectually misshapen. Still, the law is there and we must take it as it stands.
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I. THE ROLE OF THE COURT
The issues now before the House fall into three groups. (1) Is it right, as a matter of general ethical principle, that the lives of persons in the position of Anthony Bland should be brought to an end, and if so is it right that they should be brought to an end in the manner proposed? (2) Under the law as it now stands, can the proposed conduct be put into effect without committing a criminal offence, and particularly the offence of murder? (3) If the answer to the second question is ‘Yes, provided that certain conditions are shown to exist’, do those conditions exist in the case of Anthony Bland?
What is the function of the courts in relation to these groups of issues? It is convenient to begin with the third. If the criteria for the legitimacy of the proposed conduct are essentially factual, a decision upon them is one which the court is well accustomed to perform, and may properly be obtained through the medium of an application for declaratory relief. If however they contain an element of ethical judgment, for example if the law requires the decision-maker to consider whether a certain course is ‘in the best interests’ of the patient, the skill and experience of the judge will carry him only so far. They will help him to clear the ground by marshalling the considerations which are said to be relevant, eliminating errors of logic, and so on. But when the intellectual part of the task is complete and the decision-maker has to choose the factors which he will take into account, attach relevant weights to them and then strike a balance the judge is no better equipped, though no worse, than anyone else. In the end it is a matter of personal choice, dictated by his or her background, upbringing, education, convictions and temperament. Legal expertise gives no special advantage here.
Questions within the second group are entirely within the province of the courts. It is these questions which have exercised the family and all those in the medical and nursing professions who have cared for Anthony Bland and given advice on his case. (For brevity, I will call these ‘the doctors’.) As I understand the position they have all, with heavy hearts, taken the ethical decision that since their efforts have run their course it is better from every point of view that Anthony Bland’s life should be brought to an end. But they wish to act within the law, and the very proper warning given by the coroner has been taken to heart. It is therefore natural that they should turn to the court for authority to do what they believe to be best. It is also natural that the court should wish to do everything proper to ensure that the doctors act, as they themselves wish to act, only in accordance with the law. No sensible person could want the doctors to take the risk of having to validate their conduct after the event in the context of a trial for murder.
Because all this is perfectly natural, everyone concerned has pressed ahead without I believe having analysed at all closely just what it is the court is being required to do. Very many applications to the Family Division raise issues of what is essentially social management, as for example where the court decides whether, in the light of guidance given by the appellate courts as to the correct general approach, it is better for a child to go to one parent rather than the other. The present case is quite different, for the declarations under appeal assume the answers to a set of hypothetical questions of criminal law. Not of course hypothetical through being divorced from real life, but hypothetical because they put in suit the criminal consequences of conduct which not only has not happened but never will happen, if the present appeal succeeds. We are thus embarked on a kind of proleptic criminal trial, without charge, jury or verdict.
My Lords, no procedure exists, nor so far as I am aware has one ever been
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proposed, for conducting such an inquiry before the criminal courts. Not only would the notion that it is a proper function of the criminal courts to provide a decision, intended to be legally binding as to the future, on the criminality of acts or omissions as yet only in contemplation be rejected out of hand, but there exists no mechanism which would enable an application for this purpose even to be brought before the court. Yet we find that the present proceedings have been brought in the Family Division without demur, and that the extremely important questions of the criminal law to which they give rise have reached your Lordships’ House not through the criminal appellate system but through the civil.
My Lords, by raising this point I am not of course suggesting that your Lordships should allow this appeal because the procedure adopted was impermissible. The appeal has reached this House, and your Lordships must decide it. Anything else would be unthinkable in human terms. Nor do I suggest that the grant of declarations as to criminality can never be granted in civil cases. The principle so strongly urged in Imperial Tobacco Ltd v A-G [1980] 1 All ER 866, [1981] AC 718 is, as was there acknowledged, subject to exception, and this is an exceptional case. Nor am I troubled by the fact that the decision in the present case does not create an issue estoppel in the criminal courts and therefore does not form a conclusive bar to any future prosecution. I think it a great pity that the Attorney General did not appear in these proceedings between private parties to represent the interests of the state in the maintenance of its citizens’ lives and in the due enforcement of the criminal law, for although Mr Munby for the Official Solicitor and Mr Lester QC as amicus curiae have made invaluable submissions they were here in a different interest. Nevertheless it would be fanciful to suppose that if this appeal is dismissed and the proposed conduct goes ahead the prosecuting authorities would even think of starting proceedings against the doctors. What troubles me is very different.
In the first place, whilst the members of the House have all picked a way through the minefields of the existing law to the conclusion that the proposed conduct is lawful, it would in my opinion be too optimistic to suppose that this is the end of the matter, and that in the future the doctors (or perhaps the judges of the High Court) will be able without difficulty to solve all future cases by ascertaining the facts and applying to them the precepts established in the speeches delivered today. The dozens of cases in the American courts have shown that the subject is too difficult, and the situations too diverse, for the law to be settled by a single appeal. I foresee that the appellate courts will be visited again, and that we shall find important areas of the criminal law in the course of elaboration through declaratory relief in the civil courts. Whilst I do not say that this is technically impossible it may not be the right way ahead. At all events I think it plain that the court is engaged on an unusual task and that it will be necessary to be sure, before this procedure becomes firmly established, just how it is that the civil courts can do in a criminal matter what the criminal courts themselves cannot do. The present appeal is not the right vehicle for this task, but since the House is invited to uphold the declarations granted in the High Court it is I believe necessary to consider what their effect will be. Three possibilities have been canvassed.
(1) The effect of the declarations is to change the legal status of the proposed conduct in this particular case. On this view, even if the proposed conduct would have been unlawful without the decision of the court the declarations have made it lawful. This could be accomplished either by enlarging the category of proper medical treatment, which already stands outside the criminal law, so as to include a termination of life which the court has sanctioned in advance, or alternatively
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(and perhaps it comes to much the same) by altering the content of the doctors’ duty to maintain life in cases where declarations such as the present have been made. This proposition would require a change in the law which I would hesitate long before indorsing, but the matter need not be further pursued, since it became plain during argument that none of the counsel were advocating this route.
(2) The effect of the declaration, upheld by your Lordships’ House, would be to create, through a binding precedent, a new common law exception to the offence of murder, which in future would not only bind all courts faced with criminal proceedings arising from the termination of life for medical reasons, but would also form a point of growth for the development of the criminal law in new and at present unforeseeable directions. This approach would have the great attraction of recognising that the law has been left behind by the rapid advances of medical technology. By starting with a clean slate the law would be freed from the piecemeal expedients to which courts throughout the common law world have been driven when trying to fill the gap between old law and new medicine. It has however been rightly acknowledged by counsel that this is a step which the courts could not properly take. Any necessary changes would have to take account of the whole of this area of law and morals, including of course all the issues commonly grouped under the heading of euthanasia. The formulation of the necessary broad social and moral policy is an enterprise which the courts have neither the means nor in my opinion the right to perform. This can only be achieved by democratic process through the medium of Parliament.
(3) The declarations will simply apply the law as it now stands to the undisputed facts of the present case. By upholding them the House will bind all courts charged in the future with a similar task to approach it in the same way. The declarations will not however alter the legal status of the proposed conduct from what it would have been even if no declarations had been sought, nor will it make any change in the existing criminal law. The declarations will therefore achieve no more in the present case than the useful but limited function of reassuring the doctors that what they wish to do was lawful when proposed and will be lawful when carried out, and will as a by-product ensure that in practice if the proposed conduct goes ahead no prosecution will ensue. I will not repeat what I have said about the unusual nature of this process, which must I believe be carried out by supposing that the doctors have already put into effect their proposals, have been charged with murder and are now in the course of obtaining a ruling on whether on the undisputed facts they have a good defence.
My Lords, a little while ago I suggested that the present appeal raised three questions. Having discussed the nature of the second and third, I turn to the first which asks whether it is right to terminate the lives of persons in the position of Anthony Bland, and in particular whether it is right that this should be done in the manner proposed. (I mention the latter question because it is a striking fact that in 20 out of the 39 American states which have legislated in favour of ‘living wills’ the legislation specifically excludes termination of life by the withdrawal of nourishment and hydration.) These are only fragments of a much wider nest of questions, all entirely ethical in content, beginning with the most general: ‘Is it ever right to terminate the life of a patient, with or without his consent?’ I believe that adversarial proceedings, even with the help of an amicus curiae, are not the right vehicle for the discussion of this broad and highly contentious moral issue, nor do I believe that the judges are best fitted to carry it out. On the latter aspect I would adopt the very blunt words of Scalia J in Cruzan v Director, Missouri Dept of Health (1990) 110 S Ct 2841 at 2859, where a very similar problem arose in a
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different constitutional and legal framework. These are problems properly decided by the citizens, through their elected representatives, not by the courts.
My Lords, I believe that I have said enough to explain why, from the outset, I have felt serious doubts about whether this question is justiciable, not in the technical sense, but in the sense of being a proper subject for legal adjudication. The whole matter cries out for exploration in depth by Parliament and then for the establishment by legislation not only of a new set of ethically and intellectually consistent rules, distinct from the general criminal law, but also of a sound procedural framework within which the rules can be applied to individual cases. The rapid advance of medical technology makes this an ever more urgent task, and I venture to hope that Parliament will soon take it in hand. Meanwhile, the present case cannot wait. We must ascertain the current state of the law and see whether it can be reconciled with the conduct which the doctors propose.
II. THE LEGAL FRAMEWORK
Since it is common ground that the function of the court on this appeal is to apply and if necessary develop the existing law, rather than create entirely new exceptions to the law of murder, it is convenient to begin by taking stock.
1. Consent to bodily invasion Any invasion of the body of one person by another is potentially both a crime and a tort. At the bottom end of the scale consent is a defence both to a charge of common assault and to a claim in tort. The concentration in most discussions of this topic on this end of the scale has tended to divert attention from the fact that whatever the scope of the civil defence of volenti non fit injuria there is a point higher up the scale than common assault at which consent in general ceases to form a defence to a criminal charge. The precise location of this point is at present under consideration by another committee of your Lordships’ House in R v Laskey and ors and I need not explore it here, but that the point exists is beyond question. If one person cuts off the hand of another it is no answer to say that the amputee consented to what was done.
2. Proper medical treatment How is it that, consistently with the proposition just stated, a doctor can with immunity perform on a consenting patient an act which would be a very serious crime if done by someone else? The answer must be that bodily invasions in the course of proper medical treatment stand completely outside the criminal law. The reason why the consent of the patient is so important is not that it furnishes a defence in itself, but because it is usually essential to the propriety of medical treatment. Thus, if the consent is absent, and is not dispensed with in special circumstances by operation of law, the acts of the doctor lose their immunity.
3. Paramountcy of the patient’s choice If the patient is capable of making a decision on whether to permit treatment and decides not to permit it his choice must be obeyed, even if on any objective view it is contrary to his best interests. A doctor has no right to proceed in the face of objection, even if it is plain to all, including the patient, that adverse consequences and even death will or may ensue.
4. Cessation of treatment Thus it is that the patient who is undergoing life-maintaining treatment and decides that it would be preferable to die must be allowed to die, provided that all necessary steps have been taken to be sure that this is what he or she really desires.
5. Emergencies Although the consent of the patient is normally essential to the immunity of the doctor from criminal (and also from civil) process there are occasions when the law permits him to proceed without it. Notably, where
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urgent action is imperative in the interests of the patient, and because the patient is unconscious, or disorientated, or for some other reason the consent cannot be obtained until it is too late.
6. Necessity In F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 your Lordships’ House has extended this general exception to the special situation where the patient is permanently incapacitated from making any decision about treatment. In that case, the nature of the bodily invasion was such that unless the acts of the doctors fell into the special category of proper medical treatment they would have amounted to a most serious crime. If the patient had been capable of deciding whether or not she wished to be treated, and had either not been asked for her consent or had refused it, the doctors would have been criminally liable since consent is normally an essential element in proper medical treatment. As matters stood, however, the patient was incapable of making a decision, so that to abstain from proceeding without her consent would mean that a decision against treatment would have been taken by default. The necessity for a decision to be made, one way or the other, coupled with her inability to make it enabled treatment to be made in what was considered her best interest.
7. Murder It has been established for centuries that consent to the deliberate infliction of death is no defence to a charge of murder. Cases where the victim has urged the defendant to kill him and the defendant has complied are likely to be rare, but the proposition is established beyond doubt by the law on duelling, where even if the deceased was the challenger his consent to the risk of being deliberately killed by his opponent does not alter the case.
8. ‘Mercy killing’ Prosecutions of doctors who are suspected of having killed their patients are extremely rare, and direct authority is in very short supply. Nevertheless, that ‘mercy killing’ by active means is murder was taken for granted in the directions to the jury in R v Adams (Bodkin) [1957] Crim LR 365, R v Arthur (1981) Times, 5 November, Farquharson J) and R v Cox (18 September 1992, unreported), was the subject of direct decision by an appellate court in Barber v Superior Court of Los Angeles County (1983) 147 Cal App 3d 1006 and has never so far as I know been doubted. The fact that the doctor’s motives are kindly will for some, although not for all, transform the moral quality of his act, but this makes no difference in law. It is intent to kill or cause grievous bodily harm which constitutes the mens rea of murder, and the reason why the intent was formed makes no difference at all.
9. Consent to ‘mercy killing’ far as I am aware no satisfactory reason has ever been advanced for suggesting that it makes the least difference in law, as distinct from morals, if the patient consents to or indeed urges the ending of his life by active means. The reason must be that, as in the other cases of consent to being killed, the interest of the state in preserving life overrides the otherwise all-powerful interest of patient autonomy.
10. Acts and omissions The English criminal law, and also it would appear from the cases cited, the law of transatlantic state jurisdictions, draws a sharp distinction between acts and omissions. If an act resulting in death is done without lawful excuse and with intent to kill it is murder. But an omission to act with the same result and with the same intent is in general no offence at all. So also with lesser crimes. To this general principle there are limited statutory exceptions, irrelevant here. There is also one important general exception at common law, namely that a person may be criminally liable for the consequences of an omission if he stands in such a relation to the victim that he is under a duty to act. Where the result is death the offence will usually be manslaughter, but if the necessary intent is proved it will be murder: see R v Gibbins (1918) 13 Cr App R 134.
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Precisely in what circumstances such a duty should be held to exist is at present quite unclear. No doubt it would be too stern a morality to place human beings on the same footing as regards criminal responsibility for allowing an undesirable state of affairs to continue as for bringing that state of affairs into being, but even if there is sense in the distinction the current state of the law is unsatisfactory both morally and intellectually, as shown by the troubling case of R v Stone [1977] 2 All ER 341, [1977] QB 354. We cannot however try to put it in order here. For the time being all are agreed that the distinction between acts and omissions exists, and that we must give effect to it.
My Lords, this sketch of the law immediately brings forward two very difficult questions. The first is this. A doctor who kills his patient even with the consent of the patient is guilty of murder. Plainly a second doctor who kills his patient in circumstances where the obtaining of consent is impracticable cannot be in a better position than the first, even if the termination of life is in the best interests of the patient; for the combination of necessity and best interests is no more than a replacement for consent. How then can best interests legitimate the conduct proposed in the present case? The second question requires a comparison between this case and R v Gibbins. In the latter the appellant had a helpless person in her care; because that person was helpless, she could not furnish herself with nourishment and was dependent for it on the appellant; the appellant intended to bring about the death of the helpless person by withholding nourishment; she did so, and the helpless person died. Of course the cases are miles apart from an ethical standpoint, but where is the difference on the essential facts?
These and kindred questions have given rise to an extensive and understandably contentious literature, and to thoughtful discussions in the courts of the United States, Canada and New Zealand, and no doubt elsewhere. It is impossible to study it all, but the sources placed before the House, supplemented by a few others, have been sufficient to bring out the main lines of the possible arguments. I gratefully acknowledge the great help which this material has furnished, without thinking it necessary to give any but the barest of citation in what follows.
It is convenient now to discuss in turn the grounds upon which it might be held that, under the existing law, and independently of the intervention of the court, the doctors may lawfully put the proposed conduct into effect.
III. POTENTIAL DEFENCES
1. Attenuation of the interest in preserving life
The interest of the state in preserving the lives of its citizens is very strong, but it is not absolute. There are contrary interests, and sometime these prevail; as witness the over-mastering effect of the patient’s refusal of treatment, even where this makes death inevitable. It has been suggested, for example in Re Quinlan (1976) 70 NJ 10, that the balance may also be tipped, not by the weight of an opposing policy but by the attenuation of the interest in preserving life, where the ‘quality’ of the life is diminished by disease or incapacity. My Lords, I would firmly reject this argument. If correct it would validate active as well as passive euthanasia, and thus require a change in the law of murder. In any event whilst the fact that a patient is in great pain may give him or her a powerful motive for wanting to end it, to which in certain circumstances it is proper to accede, that is not at all the same as the proposition that because of incapacity or infirmity one life is intrinsically worth less than another. This is the first step on a very dangerous road indeed, and one which I am not willing to take.
2. The patient’s choice
In the majority of cases where the American courts have sanctioned the
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withdrawal of life-supporting medical care they have done so by developing the rule that informed consent can release the doctor from his duty to treat. For this purpose they have founded upon the constitutional rights of the patient, either the express right of due process or the still developing implied right of privacy. It is unnecessary to explore whether a similar approach would be appropriate in England, where constitutional rights play a much less theoretically important role, for I cannot see that the doctrine has anything to offer in the present case. It is perhaps sufficient to say that it takes two forms. In the first, the court looks for the making of an antecedent choice by a patient who can no longer make one, or communicate one, by the time that the question of termination has arisen. What is often called a ‘living will’ has been held sufficient for this purpose. If no explicit choice has been made, the courts have on occasion felt able to infer from other evidence what they believe were the general feelings of the patient about termination of life in the case of incurable illness. In any event since there is no evidence that Anthony Bland ever thought or said anything on the subject the question of making an imputed choice does not arise. Whilst this course is in many ways attractive there are obvious dangers which may well be felt to justify the cautious attitude adopted by the courts of New York State in cases such as Re Storar, re Eichner (1981) 52 NY 2d 363.
The second method, which is adopted if the evidence is insufficient to justify an inference of what the patient chose in the past so that it can be projected to the present, involves the appointment of a surrogate to make on behalf of the patient the choice which he believes the patient would now make if able to do so. For this purpose the surrogate builds up a picture of the patient’s former character, feelings, convictions and so on from which the putative choice is deduced. This process may perhaps have some justification where the patient is sentient but unable to communicate a choice, but it breaks down totally in a case such as the present. To postulate a patient who is in such a condition that he cannot know that there is a choice to be made, or indeed know anything at all, and then ask whether he would have chosen to terminate his life because that condition made it no longer worth living is surely meaningless, as is very clearly shown by the lengths to which the court was driven in Belchertown State School Superintendent v Saikewicz (1977) 373 Mass 728. The idea is simply a fiction, which I would not be willing to adopt even if there were in the case of Anthony Bland any materials upon which a surrogate could act, which as far as I can see there are not.
3. Causation
One argument in support of the conclusion that if the proposed conduct is carried out and Anthony Bland then dies the doctors will nevertheless be guilty of no offence depends upon a very special application of the doctrine of causation. This has powerful academic support: Skegg Law, Ethics and Medicine (1985) ch 6, where it represents the author’s chosen solution, and also Glanville Williams Textbook of Criminal Law (2nd edn, 1983) pp 282–283 and Professor Ian Kennedy’s paper Treat me Right, Essays in Medical Law and Ethics (1988) pp 360–361, where it is offered by way of alternative. Nevertheless I find it hard to grasp. At several stages of his discussion Professor Skegg frankly accepts that some manipulation of the law of causation will be needed to produce the desired result. I am bound to say that the argument seems to me to require not manipulation of the law so much as its application in an entirely new and illogical way. In one form the argument presented to the House asserts that for the purpose of both civil and criminal liability the cause of Anthony Bland’s death, if and when it takes place, will be the Hillsborough disaster. As a matter of the criminal law of causation
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this may well be right, once it is assumed that the conduct is lawful: see R v Blaue [1975] 3 All ER 446, [1975] 1 WLR 1411, R v Malcherek [1981] 2 All ER 422, [1981] 1 WLR 690 and Finlayson v HM Advocate 1979 JC 33. It does not perhaps follow that the conduct of the doctors is not also causative, but this is of no interest since if the conduct is lawful the doctors have nothing to worry about. If on the other hand the proposed conduct is unlawful, then it is in the same case as active euthanasia or any other unlawful act by doctors or laymen. In common sense they must all be causative or none; and it must be all, for otherwise euthanasia would never be murder.
A variant of the argument appears to put the ordinary law of causation into reverse. Normally, when faced with an act and a suggested consequence one begins by ascertaining the quality of the act and then, if it is found to be unlawful, one considers its connection to the consequence. This variant, by contrast, seems to begin the inquiry with the connection and then by applying a special rule of causation determine the character of the act. I confess that I cannot understand what mechanism enables this to be done. If the declarations are wrong and the proposed conduct is unlawful it is in my judgment perfectly obvious that the conduct will be, as it is intended to be, the cause of death, and nothing in the literature or the reported cases from other jurisdictions persuades me to any other conclusion. I should add that, although part of the thoughtful judgment of Thomas J in the High Court of New Zealand in Auckland Area Health Board v A-G [1993] 1 NZLR 235 discusses the question of causation, the main thrust of the reasoning was aimed elsewhere, towards a solution which is broadly in line with the one which all your Lordships have preferred.
4. Best interests of the community
Threaded through the technical arguments addressed to the House were the strands of a much wider position, that it is in the best interests of the community at large that Anthony Bland’s life should now end. The doctors have done all they can. Nothing will be gained by going on and much will be lost. The distress of the family will get steadily worse. The strain on the devotion of a medical staff charged with the care of a patient whose condition will never improve, who may live for years and who does not even recognise that he is being cared for, will continue to mount. The large resources of skill, labour and money now being devoted to Anthony Bland might in the opinion of many be more fruitfully employed in improving the condition of other patients, who if treated may have useful, healthy and enjoyable lives for years to come.
This argument was never squarely put, although hinted at from time to time. In social terms it has great force, and it will have to be faced in the end. But this is not a task which the courts can possibly undertake. A social cost-benefit analysis of this kind, which would have to embrace ‘mercy killing’, to which exactly the same considerations apply, must be for Parliament alone, and the outcome of it is at present quite impossible to foresee. Until the nettle is grasped we must struggle on with the existing law, imperfect as it is.
5. Best interests: the termination of life
An alternative approach is to develop the reasoning of F v West Berkshire Health Authority [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 by concentrating on the best interests, not of the community at large, but of Anthony Bland himself. Just as in F v West Berkshire Health Authority, so the argument runs, the best interests of the patient demand a course of action which would normally be unlawful without the patient’s consent. Just as in F v West Berkshire Health Authority the patient is
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unable to decide for himself. In practice, to make no decision is to decide that the care and treatment shall continue. So that the decision shall not thus be made by default it is necessary that someone other than Anthony Bland should consider whether in his own best interests his life should now be brought to an end, and if the answer is affirmative the proposed conduct can be put into effect without risk of criminal responsibility.
I cannot accept this argument, which, if sound, would serve to legitimate a termination by much more direct means than are now contemplated. I can accept that a doctor in charge of a patient suffering the mental torture of Guillain-Barré syndrome, rational but trapped and mute in an unresponsive body, could well feel it imperative that a decision on whether to terminate life could wait no longer and that the only possible decision in the interests of the patient, even leaving out all the other interests involved, would be to end it here and now by a speedy and painless injection. Such a conclusion would attract much sympathy, but no doctrine of best interests could bring it within the law.
Quite apart from this the case of Anthony Bland seems to me quite different. He feels no pain and suffers no mental anguish. Stress was laid in argument on the damage to his personal dignity by the continuation of the present medical regime, and on the progressive erosion of the family’s happy recollections by month after month of distressing and hopeless care. Considerations of this kind will no doubt carry great weight when Parliament comes to consider the whole question in the round. But it seems to me to be stretching the concept of personal rights beyond breaking point to say that Anthony Bland has an interest in ending these sources of others’ distress. Unlike the conscious patient he does not know what is happening to his body, and cannot be affronted by it; he does not know of his family’s continuing sorrow. By ending his life the doctors will not relieve him of a burden become intolerable, for others carry the burden and he has none. What other considerations could make it better for him to die now rather than later? None that we can measure, for of death we know nothing. The distressing truth which must not be shirked is that the proposed conduct is not in the best interests of Anthony Bland, for he has no best interests of any kind.
6. Best interests: the termination of treatment
After much expression of negative opinions I turn to an argument which in my judgment is logically defensible and consistent with the existing law. In essence it turns the previous argument on its head by directing the inquiry to the interests of the patient, not in the termination of life but in the continuation of his treatment. It runs as follows. (i) The cessation of nourishment and hydration is an omission not an act. (ii) Accordingly, the cessation will not be a criminal act unless the doctors are under a present duty to continue the regime. (iii) At the time when Anthony Bland came into the care of the doctors decisions had to be made about his care which he was unable to make for himself. In accordance with F v West Berkshire Health Authority [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1 these decisions were to be made in his best interests. Since the possibility that he might recover still existed his best interests required that he should be supported in the hope that this would happen. These best interests justified the application of the necessary regime without his consent. (iv) All hope of recovery has now been abandoned. Thus, although the termination of his life is not in the best interests of Anthony Bland, his best interests in being kept alive have also disappeared, taking with them the justification for the non-consensual regime and the correlative duty to keep it in being. (v) Since there is no longer a duty to provide nourishment and hydration a failure to do so cannot be a criminal offence.
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My Lords, I must recognise at once that this chain of reasoning makes an unpromising start by transferring the morally and intellectually dubious distinction between acts and omissions into a context where the ethical foundations of the law are already open to question. The opportunity for anomaly and excessively fine distinctions, often depending more on the way in which the problem happens to be stated than on any real distinguishing features, has been exposed by many commentators, including in England the authors above-mentioned, together with Smith and Hogan Criminal Law (6th edn, 1988) p 51, Beynon ‘Doctors as murderers’ [1982] Crim LR 17 and Gunn and Smith ‘Arthur’s case and the right to life of a Down’s syndrome child’ [1985] Crim LR 705. All this being granted, we are still forced to take the law as we find it and try to make it work. Moreover, although in cases near the borderline the categorisation of conduct will be exceedingly hard, I believe that nearer the periphery there will be many instances which fall quite clearly into one category rather than the other. In my opinion the present is such a case, and in company with Compton J in Barber v Superior Court of Los Angeles County (1983) 147 Cal App 3d 1006 at 1017 amongst others I consider that the proposed conduct will fall into the category of omissions.
I therefore consider the argument to be soundly based. Now that the time has come when Anthony Bland has no further interest in being kept alive, the necessity to do so, created by his inability to make a choice, has gone; and the justification for the invasive care and treatment together with the duty to provide it have also gone. Absent a duty, the omission to perform what had previously been a duty will no longer be a breach of the criminal law.
In reaching this conclusion I have taken into account the fact that, whereas for almost all concerned the adoption of the proposed course will be a merciful relief, this will not be so for the nursing staff, who will be called on to act in a way which must be contrary to all their instincts, training and traditions. They will encounter the ethical problems, not in a court or in a lecture room, but face to face. As the United Kingdom Council for Nursing Midwifery and Health Visiting has emphasised, for the nurses involved the interval between the initiation of the proposed conduct and the death of Anthony Bland will be a very stressful period. Acknowledging this, I hope that the nurses will accept, as I believe, that sadly it is for the best.
For these reasons I would uphold the declarations. Whilst there is no need to go further it is better to mention one further point. The reasoning which I propose is, I believe, broadly in line with that of your Lordships. But I venture to feel some reservations about the application of the principle of civil liability in negligence laid down in Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 2 All ER 118, [1957] 1 WLR 582 to decisions on ‘best interests’ in a field dominated by the criminal law. I accept without difficulty that this principle applies to the ascertainment of the medical raw material such as diagnosis, prognosis and appraisal of the patient’s cognitive functions. Beyond this point, however, it may be said that the decision is ethical, not medical, and that there is no reason in logic why on such a decision the opinions of doctors should be decisive. If there had been a possibility that this question might make a difference to the outcome of the appeal I would have wished to consider it further, but since it does not I prefer for the moment to express no opinion upon it.
IV. THE ETHICAL QUESTION
After discussing the legal issues at length I will deal only briefly with the ethical question, which must be for most lay people what the case is really about. With
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the general tenor, if not with the details, of what was said in the courts below I respectfully agree. But, I prefer to advance on a narrower front. In law, if my conclusion is right, the way is clear for the doctors to proceed as they and the family think best. If the principle of Bolam applies that is the end of the matter, since nobody could doubt that a body of reasonable medical opinion would regard the proposed conduct as right. But, even if Bolam is left aside, I still believe that the proposed conduct is ethically justified, since the continued treatment of Anthony Bland can no longer serve to maintain that combination of manifold characteristics which we call a personality. Some who have written on this subject maintain that this is too narrow a perspective, so I must make it clear that I do not assert that the human condition necessarily consists of nothing except a personality, or deny that it may also comprise a spiritual essence distinct from both body and personality. But of this we can know nothing, and in particular we cannot know whether it perishes with death or transcends it. Absent such knowledge we must measure up what we do know. So doing, I have no doubt that the best interests of Anthony Bland no longer demand the continuance of his present care and treatment. This is not at all to say that I would reach the same conclusion in less extreme cases, where the glimmerings of awareness may give the patient an interest which cannot be regarded as null. The issues, both legal and ethical, will then be altogether more difficult. As Mr Munby has pointed out, in this part of the law the court has moved a long way in a short time. Every step forward requires the greatest caution. Here however I am satisfied that what is proposed, and what all those who have considered the matter believe to be right, is in accordance with the law.
My Lords, having said this I must admit to having felt profound misgivings about almost every aspect of this case. I will not rehearse them. I need only say that I entirely agree with and adopt everything said by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson at the conclusion of his judgment.
I would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed. No order as to costs.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Joyce v Sengupta and another
[1993] 1 All ER 897
Categories: TORTS; Other Torts
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C, BUTLER-SLOSS LJ AND SIR MICHAEL KERR
Hearing Date(s): 23, 24 JUNE, 31 JULY 1992
Malicious falsehood – Libel and slander – Choice of action – Defendant making false statement about plaintiff – Plaintiff choosing to sue for malicious falsehood rather than defamation – Legal aid available for action for malicious falsehood but not for action for defamation – Defendant not entitled to jury trial as of right in action for malicious falsehood – Whether plaintiff having choice of action – Whether malicious falsehood and defamation incompatible causes of action – Defamation Act 1952, s 3.
Malicious falsehood – Damages – Nature of damages recoverable – Damages for anxiety and distress – Aggravated damages – Whether plaintiff who is unable to prove any compensatable pecuniary loss restricted to nominal damages – Whether damages for anxiety and distress or aggravated damages recoverable for malicious falsehood – Defamation Act 1952, s 3.
The defendants published on the front page of their newspaper an article written by the first defendant, who was their chief crime correspondent, about the alleged theft of letters from the Princess Royal by a lady’s maid employed by her. The article, which was based on police suspicions, clearly referred to the plaintiff and contained several assertions regarding her, in particular that she had stolen the Princess Royal’s intimate letters, that she had handed the letters to a national newspaper, that she had been ordered not to go into rooms where there might be confidential papers and that she had been or was about to be dismissed. Those assertions were in fact false. Instead of suing for defamation, for which legal aid was not available, the plaintiff issued a writ against the defendants claiming damages for malicious falsehood and obtained legal aid to pursue her claim. The defendants applied to strike out the statement of claim as an abuse of process. The judge struck out the claim on the ground that the case could not be pleaded properly as malicious falsehood because it was in essence a case of libel. The plaintiff appealed.
Held - Since a plaintiff could choose which cause of action he wished to pursue when more than one cause of action was available to him, a person who was the subject of a defamatory article was entitled to bring an action for malicious falsehood with the assistance of legal aid instead of defamation, notwithstanding that legal aid was not available in defamation cases or that, unlike a defamation action, the defendant was not entitled to jury trial as of right in an action for malicious falsehood, or that the damages recoverable in an action for malicious falsehood could be insignificant compared to the costs involved. In order to succeed in a claim for malicious falsehood the plaintiff had to establish that the defendant had maliciously made a false statement which had caused him damage or in respect of which he was relieved from proving damage by s 3a of the Defamation Act 1952 because the words complained of were calculated to cause the plaintiff pecuniary damage. Since the plaintiff’s statement of claim raised an arguable claim for malicious falsehood she was entitled to pursue her claim even though had legal aid been available the action would have been a straightforward
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defamation action. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the action reinstated (see p 901 c to e, p 902 b to g j, p 903 c d, p 904 b e to g, p 905 a c, p 908 d e and p 910 d, post).
Per curiam. A plaintiff who relies on s 3 of 1952 Act because he is unable to prove any compensatable pecuniary loss is not thereby restricted to nominal damages (see p 906 d to f and p 908 e f, post).
Per Sir Michael Kerr. There is no reason why aggravated damages should not be recoverable for the tort of malicious falsehood either in addition to special pecuniary loss where that has been pleaded and proved or as general damages where the plaintiff relies on s 3 of 1952 Act (see p 910 c and p 911 h j, post).
Quaere. Whether damages for anxiety and distress are recoverable for malicious falsehood (see p 907 c d g to j, p 908 c e, p 910 e f, p 911 j to p 912 a, post).
Notes
For malicious falsehood, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 265, 272.
For the Defamation Act 1952, s 3, see 24 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 109.
Cases referred to in judgments
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesday Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Bracegirdle v Orford (1813) 2 M & S 77, 105 ER 311.
Calvet v Tomkies [1963 ] 3 All ER 610, [1963] 1 WLR 1397, CA.
Davis v Bromley UDC (1903) 67 JP 275, CA.
Fielding v Variety Inc [1967] 2 All ER 497, [1967] 2 QB 841, [1967] 3 WLR 415, CA.
Huxley v Berg (1815) 1 Stark 98, 171 ER 413.
Lynch v Knight (1861) 9 HL Cas 577, 11 ER 854.
Marshall (W F) Ltd v Barnes & Fitzpatrick (a firm) [1953] 1 All ER 970, [1953] 1 WLR 639.
Pratt v British Medical Association [1919] 1 KB 244, [1918–19] All ER Rep 104.
Quinn v Leathem [1901] AC 495, [1900–3] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129, [1964] 2 WLR 269, HL.
Rothermere v Times Newspapers Ltd [1973] 1 All ER 1013, [1973] 1 WLR 448, CA.
Royal Baking Powder Co v Wright Crossley & Co (1900) 18 RPC 95, HL.
Sutcliffe v Pressdram Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 269, [1991] 1 QB 153, [1990] 2 WLR 271, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Ashmore v British Coal Corp [1990] 2 All ER 981, [1990] 2 QB 338, CA.
Balden v Shorter [1933] Ch 427, [1933] All ER Rep 249.
Derbyshire CC v Times Newspapers Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 65, [1992] QB 770, CA.
Goldsmith v Sperrings Ltd [1977] 2 All ER 566, [1977] 1 WLR 478, CA.
Greers Ltd v Pearman & Corder Ltd (1922) 39 RPC 406, KBD and CA.
Halsey v Brotherhood (1881) 19 Ch D 386, CA.
Horrocks v Lowe [1974] 1 All ER 662, [1975] AC 135, HL.
Kaye v Robertson [1991] FSR 62, CA.
Lawrance v Lord Norreys (1890) 15 App Cas 210, [1886–90] All ER Rep 858, HL.
Ratcliffe v Evans [1892] 2 QB 524, [1891–4] All ER Rep 699, CA.
Remmington v Scoles [1897] 2 Ch 1, [1895–99] All ER Rep 1095, Ch D and CA.
Shapiro v La Morta (1923) 40 TLR 39; affd 130 LT 622, [1923] All ER Rep 378, CA.
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Slipper v BBC [1991] 1 All ER 165, [1991] 1 QB 283, CA.
Smith & Fawcett Ltd, Re [1942] l All ER 542, [1942] Ch 304, CA.
Steamship Mutual Underwriting Association Ltd v Trollope & Colls (City) Ltd (1986) 6 Con LR 11, CA.
Strix Ltd v Otter Controls Ltd [1991] FSR 354, CA.
Wenlock v Moloney [1965] 2 All ER 871, [1965] 1 WLR 1238, CA.
Willis v Earl Howe [1893] 2 Ch 545, CA.
Interlocutory appeal
The plaintiff, Linda Karen Joyce, appealed from the judgment of Gilbert Gray QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 12 December 1990 whereby he struck out the plaintiff’s statement of claim in her action claiming damages against the defendants, Kim Sengupta and News (UK) Ltd, for malicious falsehood and dismissed the action. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Donald Nicholls V-C.
Geoffrey Robertson QC and Andrew Nicol (instructed by Stephens Innocent) for the plaintiff.
Desmond Browne QC (instructed by Theodore Goddard) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. In 1989 Miss Linda Joyce was employed by Her Royal Highness the Princess Royal as her lady’s maid. On 25 April the Today newspaper published an eye-catching article written by its chief crime correspondent, Mr Kim Sengupta. The banner headlines on the front page read ‘Royal Maid Stole Letters’ and ‘Sacked as Anne names the culprit’. The material part of the article read:
‘The thief who stole Princess Anne’s intimate letters has been tracked down by police. She is a royal maid who has been interviewed by detectives four times. The Princess had told police that she believed the maid was the culprit and that she acted out of spite when she handed the four letters, written by the Queen’s Equerry, to a national newspaper. After the theft, Anne immediately ordered that the maid should not go into rooms where there might be confidential papers. The servant, who is unmarried, will now be dismissed from royal service. As TODAY revealed two weeks ago, she will not be prosecuted. Buckingham Palace has told Scotland Yard that the Queen does not want the adverse publicity a court case will inevitably bring. But the maid will have to give a written guarantee that she will not discuss the sensitive letters from Commander Tim Laurence either in Britain or abroad. The woman, who has travelled abroad on royal tours, has repeatedly denied the allegation despite intense grilling by the Yard’s Serious Crime Squad under Det Chief Supt Roy Ramm. Her fingerprints were taken at Anne’s home, Gatcombe Park in Gloucestershire, and will now be compared with forensic clues from the intimate notes. The results will be known within a week. Police have discovered that the maid had been on bad terms with the Princess for a long time. Anne had told her off several times. The maid has also complained to colleagues about poor pay and conditions. A senior detective said: “This appears to be a classic case of a woman who feels she has
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been wronged. We have little doubt she is the guilty party and are now awaiting forensic confirmation. Even if we get the proof we cannot prosecute. The matter will be decided behind closed doors by the Palace.”’
The article clearly referred to the plaintiff, and it contained several assertions regarding her. In particular, the article said she had stolen her royal employer’s intimate letters, she had handed the letters to a national newspaper, she had been ordered not to go into rooms where there might be confidential papers and she had been or was about to be dismissed.
One might expect that proceedings for libel would have followed. The article was grossly defamatory. The newspaper did not publish any retraction or apologise, although it has not sought to say that the assertions of fact were true. However, there was a difficulty confronting the plaintiff. She did not have the money needed to pursue proceedings at her own expense, and legal aid is not available for defamation proceedings. There is an express provision to this effect in the Legal Aid Act 1988 (see Sch 2, Pt II, para 1).
Nothing daunted, the plaintiff’s legal advisers formulated a claim against Mr Sengupta and News (UK) Ltd, the publisher of the newspaper, for malicious falsehood. In law this is a different cause of action, with different ingredients, from a claim for defamation. Unlike defamation, malicious falsehood is a type of proceedings for which legal aid is available. Legal aid to bring proceedings for malicious falsehood was granted to the plaintiff, and this action followed. A writ was issued on 31 August 1990, and the statement of claim was served on 21 September. The defendants then applied to strike out the statement of claim as an abuse of the process of the court. On 12 December 1990 Mr Gilbert Gray QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division, acceded to that application. He decided that a case of defamation had been forced into the ill-fitting garb of an action for malicious falsehood. The case could not be pleaded properly as malicious falsehood because it was in essence a case of libel. From that decision the plaintiff has now appealed.
The plaintiff’s claim
The plaintiff seeks an opportunity to amend her statement of claim, so I work from the latest version of the proposed amendments. Miss Joyce’s case is that the article contains several serious untruths regarding her: contrary to what is said in the article, she did not steal the letters, she was not banned from rooms containing confidential documents, she was not dismissed in consequence, she was not required to undertake that she would not discuss the letters and she was not on bad terms with the Princess. She has left her employment with Princess Anne. She did so on 5 May 1989, following a letter of resignation written months earlier in January 1989, but her resignation was for personal reasons unconnected with the statements in the Today article.
Miss Joyce asserts that the article was published maliciously: Mr Sengupta who wrote the article and the sub-editor who chose the headline ‘Royal Maid Stole Letters’ were recklessly indifferent about the truth or falsity of the serious allegations. Mr Sengupta took no steps to check the police suspicions on which he says he relied; he did not speak to the plaintiff, he made no independent investigations, he did not even await the outcome of the fingerprint tests mentioned in the article.
Miss Joyce claims damages. The article falsely portrays her as untrustworthy. This has damaged her future employment prospects. She also claims exemplary damages, and an injunction against repetition.
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Malicious falsehood and defamation
Before turning to the issues raised by the appeal I should comment briefly on the difference between defamation and malicious falsehood. The remedy provided by the law for words which injure a person’s reputation is defamation. Words may also injure a person without damaging his reputation. An example would be a claim that the seller of goods or land is not the true owner. Another example would be a false assertion that a person has closed down his business. Such claims would not necessarily damage the reputation of those concerned. The remedy provided for this is malicious falsehood, sometimes called injurious falsehood or trade libel. This cause of action embraces particular types of malicious falsehood such as slander of title and slander of goods, but it is not confined to those headings.
Falsity is an essential ingredient of this tort. The plaintiff must establish the untruth of the statement of which he complains. Malice is another essential ingredient. A genuine dispute about the ownership of goods or land should not of itself be actionable. So a person who acted in good faith is not liable. Further, since the object of this cause of action is to provide a person with a remedy for a false statement made maliciously which has caused him damage, at common law proof of financial loss was another essential ingredient. The rigour of this requirement was relaxed by statute. I shall have to return to the question of damages at a later stage. For present purposes it is sufficient to note that if a plaintiff establishes that the defendant maliciously made a false statement which has caused him financial damage, or in respect of which he is relieved from proving damage by the Defamation Act 1952, the law gives him a remedy. The false statement may also be defamatory, or it may not. As already mentioned, it need not be defamatory. Conversely, the fact that the statement is defamatory does not exclude a cause of action for malicious falsehood, although the law will ensure that a plaintiff does not recover damages twice over for the same loss.
Abuse of process: (1) no right to trial by jury
It is as plain as a pikestaff that, had legal aid been available for libel, this action would have been a straightforward defamation action. In an action for malicious falsehood the plaintiff has to take on the burden of proving that the words were false and that in publishing them the defendant was actuated by malice. It would make no sense for Miss Joyce to take on this burden. If this had been a defamation action she would not have to prove malice, and if the newspaper wished to put in issue the truth of the defamatory assertions it would have to plead and prove justification as a defence.
One consequence of this action being a claim for malicious falsehood and not defamation is that there is no absolute right to a trial by jury. With certain exceptions not applicable to this case, either party to an action has a right to have the action tried with a jury where there is in issue a claim in respect of libel, slander, malicious prosecution or false imprisonment (see s 69(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981). In cases outside s 69(1) there is no such right, although the court retains a discretion to order trial with jury. Counsel for the defendants submitted that trial by jury in defamation actions is a constitutional right of newspapers. He reminded us of the observation of Lord Denning MR in Rothermere v Times Newspapers Ltd [1973] 1 All ER 1013 at 1017, [1973] 1 WLR 448 at 452 that every defendant who is charged with libel, either in criminal or civil proceedings, has a ‘constitutional right to have his guilt or innocence determined by a jury’. In Sutcliffe v Pressdram Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 269 at 286, [1991] 1 QB 153 at 181
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Nourse LJ referred to ‘the primacy of the jury’ in defamation cases and that this had been settled by the Libel Act 1792 (Fox’s Act).
Against this background counsel submitted that the present action should be struck out by the court as an abuse of process because it is based on a secondary tort which deprives the defendants of their absolute right to have a jury trial. This right is a legitimate juridical advantage they would have had if the plaintiff had relied on the primary tort. By a ‘secondary tort’ was meant a tort which would not be relied upon save for the plaintiff’s need to secure a collateral purpose unrelated to the merits of her claim.
I am not able to accept this submission. The concept of a legitimate juridical advantage has been taken from the field of conflict of laws where an issue arises over the country in which a dispute between the parties should be determined. The issue there concerns which of two countries, with their different laws and legal systems, would be the more appropriate forum.
I can see no place for that concept in wholly domestic proceedings. English law has marked out causes of action on which plaintiffs may rely. Many causes of action overlap. On one set of facts a plaintiff may have more than one cause of action against a defendant. He may have a cause of action in tort and also for breach of contract. This is an everyday occurrence with some claims for negligence, or with claims for breach of confidence. Again, a plaintiff may have a cause of action for breach of contract and for breach of fiduciary duty. This also is a frequent occurrence with claims against directors of companies. Or a plaintiff may have more than one cause of action in tort: a factory accident may give rise to a claim in negligence and for breach of statutory duty. These instances could be multiplied. When more than one cause of action is available to him, a plaintiff may choose which he will pursue. Usually he pursues all available causes of action, but he is not obliged to do so. He may pursue one to the exclusion of another, even though a defence available in one cause of action is not available in another. Indeed, the availability of a defence in one cause of action but not another may be the very reason why a plaintiff eschews the one and prefers the other. Limitation is an example of such a defence. I have never heard it suggested before that a plaintiff is not entitled to proceed in this way, and take full advantage of the various remedies English law provides for the wrong of which he complains. I have never heard it suggested that he must pursue the most appropriate remedy, and if he does not do so he is at risk of having his proceedings struck out as a misuse of the court’s procedures. In my view those suggestions are as unfounded as they are novel.
I add one further comment regarding the particular context of defamation actions and trial by jury. I shall return to the question of legal aid. Legal aid apart, there is no reason to suppose that in future persons who are the subject of defamatory articles in newspapers will be queuing up to issue writs for malicious falsehood. It would make no sense for them to do so, and take on the burden of, proving malice and, if successful, still not be able to recover damages for loss of reputation.
I return to the present case and add this. The plaintiff is not seeking to avoid a trial by jury. That is not the reason why there is no claim for defamation. As it is, the court retains a discretion to order that the action be tried with a jury. Through her counsel the plaintiff has said she would not oppose any application the defendants may wish to make for a jury in this case. I can detect no improper use of the court’s process by the plaintiff.
Abuse of process: (2) ‘economic lunacy’ and legal aid
Mr Browne QC’s second submission was as bold as his first. He submitted that
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another reason why this action is an abuse is that only nominal damages, or at best modest damages of a few hundred pounds, will be recoverable by the plaintiff. The amount she stands to obtain is wholly out of line with the costs each side will incur. In practice the defendants will never recover their costs even if they are successful in defending the action and even if they make a payment into court of an amount in excess of any damages awarded at the trial. Mr Browne submitted that, so far as the plaintiff is concerned, the action is ‘economic lunacy’, given that any damages awarded to her will be swallowed up by the Legal Aid Board’s charge over them as property recovered in the proceedings. Public funds are being used to support the plaintiff in a wholly uneconomic way.
With all respect to counsel, this a hopeless submission. I shall consider later the question of damages. For the moment let me assume that the defendants are correct in submitting that the plaintiff is unlikely to recover more than a few hundred pounds in damages. I shall make that assumption although I am not to be taken as indorsing it. Even so I do not see how it follows that this action should be struck out as an abuse. The plaintiff’s main purpose in bringing this action is to clear her name. If she wins, she will succeed in doing so. Compared with a libel action, the amount of damages she may recover in malicious falsehood may be small, but there is no reason why she should not be entitled to pursue such a claim. I see no justification for the court stopping her action. The defendants, it must be borne in mind, are resisting her claim in its entirety. The prospect that they are unlikely to recoup their costs even if their defence is wholly successful is an unfortunate fact of everyday life for many defendants when sued by legally aided plaintiffs.
The reality here is that the defendants are unhappy that the plaintiff has obtained legal aid to pursue the action. They fear that if this action is permitted to proceed, the floodgates will be opened. The Legal Aid Board will be flooded with applications for legal aid to pursue claims for malicious falsehood against newspapers. Newspapers will be faced with the prospect, not intended by Parliament, of legally aided plaintiffs pursuing claims against them founded on defamatory articles.
As to these fears, it is vital to keep in mind that the decision on whether or not to grant legal aid has been entrusted by Parliament to the Legal Aid Board, not the court. Parliament has prescribed a framework of limitations and conditions but the Legal Aid Board retains a discretion. A person whose financial resources make him eligible for legal aid must satisfy the board that he has reasonable grounds for taking, defending or being a party to the proceedings (see s 15(2) of the Legal Aid Act 1988). He may be refused representation if in the particular circumstances of the case it appears to the board unreasonable he should be granted representation (see s 15(3)). Representation may be granted with or without limitations and may be amended, withdrawn or revoked (see s 15(4)). Regulation 28 of the Civil Legal Aid (General) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/339, as substituted by reg 10 of the Civil Legal Aid (General) (Amendment) (No 2) Regulations 1991, SI 1991/2036, underscores the duty of the area director to consider the overall merits of each case:
‘(1) Without prejudice to the generality of sections 15(2) … of the Act … an application for a certificate shall only be approved after the Area Director has considered all the questions of fact or law arising in the action, cause or matter to which the application relates and the circumstances in which the application was made …’
These provisions show that in reaching its decision the board takes into account a wide range of factors. One factor is the probable cost of the proceedings (see
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W F Marshall Ltd v Barnes & Fitzpatrick (a firm) [1953] 1 All ER 970 at 978, [1953] 1 WLR 639 at 649). Another is that it may be unreasonable for legal aid to be continued if a legally assisted plaintiff refuses to accept a reasonable offer or a payment made into court by a defendant. In the present case a further factor to be taken into account by the board is the policy underlying the legislature’s exclusion of proceedings wholly or partly in respect of defamation from the scope of civil legal aid. These factors are material to the board’s decision, but they are not material to a decision by the court on whether to permit a properly constituted action to proceed to trial or to stop it summarily as a misuse of the court’s processes.
If the defendants consider legal aid should not have been granted in this case one course open to them is to take up the matter with the Legal Aid Board. This is commonly done by unassisted parties. Frequently an unassisted defendant goes to the board and asks for a legal aid certificate to be revoked when a legally assisted plaintiff has declined a reasonable offer. Further, if these defendants consider they have grounds for contending that the board misdirected itself or that the decision to grant legal aid was unreasonable in the Wednesbury sense (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223), an application for judicial review of the board’s decision is another course open to them. Those are remedies available to the defendants with regard to the board’s decision.
I hasten to add that I do not mention these points with a view to encouraging the defendants to challenge the board’s decision. I am not to be taken as hinting that the board’s decision was erroneous. I express no view either way on that matter. I mention these points only because it is important to appreciate that the defendants’ submission raises two distinct questions; one of these questions is before us on this appeal and the other is not. One question is whether legal aid should have been granted. That question is not before us. The other question is whether, legal aid having been granted, this action should be permitted to continue even if, as the defendants assert, at most only modest damages will be recoverable. On this second question the fact that the plaintiff is legally aided is neither here nor there. In general the rights conferred on assisted persons by the Legal Aid Act 1988—
‘shall not affect the rights or liabilities of other parties to the proceedings or the principles on which the discretion of any court or tribunal is normally exercised.’ (See s 31(1)(b).)
Once this is appreciated, there is nothing left of the defendants’ second submission.
Abuse of process: (3) the action is bound to fail
The defendant’s third submission was that the action is incapable of success and should be struck out summarily. The jurisdiction the defendants invoke here is well established. The court will not permit an action to go to trial if plainly and obviously it cannot succeed. But when exercising this jurisdiction the court is careful not to conduct a summary trial on affidavit evidence without the benefit of discovery of documents and cross-examination of witnesses on disputed questions of fact. If there is an issue or dispute that ought to be tried, the action must go to trial.
Whether this action is bound to fail turns on a consideration of the statement of claim and the affidavit evidence. I approach this issue having in mind that, but for the legal aid complication, this would be a defamation action. It is right to scrutinise the allegations of malice and damage with particular care.
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So far as the statement of claim is concerned I am satisfied that, although open to criticism here and there, it does disclose the essentials of a cause of action for malicious falsehood. It is susceptible to a request for further particulars in some respects, but the omissions are not so serious or incapable of being made good that the defendants will be embarrassed in the conduct of their defence.
The judge took a different view. He considered that the particulars of malice were hopelessly inadequate, but he had before him an earlier version of the statement of claim. The draftsman of the pleading has taken note of the criticisms, and the draft before us reflects this. Essentially, the plaintiff’s case on malice is that the defendants went ahead and published the police suspicions as though they were fact and did so without taking any steps to check or verify them. This showed a calculated, reckless indifference to the truth or falsity of the allegations. Malice is to be inferred from the grossness and falsity of the assertions and the cavalier way they were published. In my view the pleading raises an arguable issue, and it does so in terms sufficient to inform the defendants of the case against them.
I turn to the evidence. Mr Sengupta has made an affidavit setting out the circumstances in which he wrote the article. He refers to conversations with senior police officers. The police told him they were convinced Miss Joyce had stolen the letters. Mr Sengupta tried to reach her on the telephone but was unable to do so. He had no antipathy to her. He honestly believed that what he wrote was true. There are other affidavits produced by the defendants, including one from the editor of Today. The judge seems to have proceeded on the footing that he should accept this affidavit evidence when there was no affidavit evidence on the other side about Mr Sengupta’s state of mind. I think the judge fell into error on this. The plaintiff does not accept the accuracy of Mr Sengupta’s evidence. In the nature of things she is not in a position to produce evidence to the contrary effect. That should not deprive her of the opportunity to question Mr Sengupta, with a view to persuading the judge or jury that he is not to be believed. In some cases a plaintiff’s case will be so weak that a trial is not necessary, but that is not this case. Indeed, had this been a libel action in which a plea of malice had been raised, I do not believe the defendants would have attempted to strike out the plea summarily as one which was bound to fail at trial.
The other matter which weighed with the judge concerned the damage alleged in the statement of claim. He was impressd by the plaintiff’s letter of resignation. It was clear she had decided that her days as a private personal maid to other ladies, no matter of what status or high degree, were finished. She had indicated her desire to leave service as a ladies’ maid before the article was published. This was inconsistent with publication of the article having caused her any special damage. As to this, all I need say is that the damages allegation has now been amended. I did not understand Mr Browne to contend that in its present form the damages claim is bound to fail.
Damages
I turn to the points raised regarding damages. The plaintiff claims, first, that she suffered financial loss in consequence of the Today article. Having regard to the nature and prominence of the assertions in the article, her chances of finding work in any employment requiring trust and confidence have been diminished. Secondly, she relies on s 3 of the Defamation Act 1952, which provides:
‘(1) In an action for slander of title, slander of goods or other malicious falsehood, it shall not be necessary to allege or prove special damage—(a) if
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the words upon which the action is founded are calculated to cause pecuniary damage to the plaintiff and are published in writing or other permanent form; or (b) if the said words are calculated to cause pecuniary damage to the plaintiff in respect of any office, profession, calling, trade or business held or carried on by him at the time of the publication …’
The plaintiff relies on para (a). She alleges that the article was likely to cause pecuniary damage to her by seriously prejudicing her opportunity to obtain other employment requiring trust and confidence.
On this interlocutory appeal it would be wholly inappropriate for us to attempt to go into the detail of the evidence which may properly be called in support of these claims. Suffice to say, on the first claim the plaintiff will need to give particulars of the financial loss she claims to have suffered sufficient to ensure that the defendants will not be taken by surprise by any evidence she may adduce on the amount of her loss.
As to the second claim, this is an allegation of general damage. In support of this claim the plaintiff cannot adduce evidence of actual loss (see Lord Denning MR in Calvet v Tomkies [1963] 3 All ER 610 at 611, [1963] 1 WLR 1397 at 1399). I do not accept, however, that in consequence the award under this head must necessarily be nominal only. In Fielding v Variety Inc [1967] 2 All ER 497, [1967] 2 QB 841 the malicious falsehood lay in falsely describing the ‘Charlie Girl’ show in London as a disastrous flop. Only nominal damages of £100 were awarded in that case because there was no likelihood of the words damaging the success of the show in London or prejudicing the chances of a production in the United States. That case is not authority for the proposition that, in the absence of evidence of actual loss, a plaintiff who relies on s 3 can recover only nominal damages. The whole purpose of s 3 was to give the plaintiff a remedy in malicious falsehood despite the difficulty of proving actual loss. A plaintiff is seldom able to call witnesses to say they ceased to deal with him because of some slander that had come to their ears. In consequence actions for malicious falsehood had become extremely rare (see the Report of Lord Porter’s Committee on Defamation (1948 (Cmd 7535 (1948), paras 50–54)). Section 3 was enacted to right this injustice. The section would fail in its purpose if, whenever relied on, it could lead only to an award of nominal damages.
Damages for distress and injury to feelings
The plaintiff claims, thirdly, that as a consequence of the article she suffered anxiety, distress and injury to her feelings. Mr Browne submitted that this third head of damages is irrecoverable as a matter of law and should be struck out. Mr Robertson QC contended that, although at common law proof of pecuniary damage was an essential ingredient of the tort, once pecuniary loss is established, or a claim under s 3 is made out, a plaintiff is entitled to recover his whole loss. If he suffered mental distress, the law will include an award of damages under this head also.
The point seems never to have been decided. As already noted, it is well settled that at common law proof of ‘special damage’ is an essential ingredient in this cause of action. At common law if such damage is not established the action will fail. Lord Robertson emphasised this in Royal Baking Powder Co v Wright Crossley & Co (1900) 18 RPC 95 at 103:
‘Unless the Plaintiff has in fact suffered loss which can be and is specified, he has no cause of action. The fact that the Defendant has acted maliciously cannot supply the want of special damage, nor can a superfluity of malice eke out a case wanting in special damage.’
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With one exception there is no authority dealing expressly with the question whether, if pecuniary loss is established, a plaintiff can also recover damages for anxiety and distress. The authorities are silent on the point. Thus, so far as the reported decisions go, they show that an award of ‘parasitic’ damages under this head has never been made for malicious falsehood. The one exception is an observation of high authority. In Fielding v Variety Inc [1967] 2 All ER 497 at 499, [1967] 2 QB 841 at 850 Lord Denning MR stated, in the context of a case where s 3 was being relied on, that the plaintiffs could only recover damages for their probable money loss and not for their injured feelings.
This state of the authorities suggests that damages for anxiety and distress are not recoverable for malicious falsehood. If that is the law it could lead to a manifestly unsatisfactory and unjust result in some cases. Take the example I gave earlier of a person who maliciously spreads rumours that his competitor’s business has closed down. Or the rumour might be that the business is in financial difficulty and that a receiver will soon be appointed. The owner of the business suffers severe financial loss. Further, because of the effect the rumours are having on his business he is worried beyond measure about his livelihood and his family’s future. He suffers acute anxiety and distress. Can it be right that the law is unable to give him any recompense for this suffering against the person whose malice caused it? Although injury to feelings alone will not found a cause of action in malicious falsehood, ought not the law to take such injury into account when it is connected with financial damage inflicted by the falsehood?
One turns to analogous torts for guidance. Inducement of breach of contract is another tort in which proof of damage is an essential ingredient. In Pratt v British Medical Association [1919] 1 KB 244 at 282, [1918–19] All ER Rep 104 at 122 McCardie J took humiliation and menace into account when assessing the damages. Likewise in conspiracy (see the direction to the jury in Quinn v Leathem [1901] AC 495 at 498). A close analogy is that of slander in a case where it is actionable only on proof of pecuniary damage. In Lynch v Knight (1861) 9 HL Cas 577 at 598, 11 ER 854 at 863 Lord Wensleydale said:
‘Mental pain or anxiety the law cannot value, and does not pretend to redress, when the unlawful act complained of causes that alone; though where a material damage occurs, and is connected with it, it is impossible a jury, in estimating it, should altogether overlook the feelings of the party interested.’
The point bristles with problems, not all of which were explored in argument. One possibility is that in an action for malicious falsehood damages are limited to financial loss. That would mark out a clear boundary, but it would suffer from the drawback of failing to do justice in the type of case I have mentioned. I instinctively recoil from the notion that in no circumstances can an injured plaintiff obtain recompense from a defendant for understandable distress caused by a false statement made maliciously. However, once it is accepted there are circumstances in which non-pecuniary loss, or some types of non-pecuniary loss, can be recovered in a malicious falsehood action, it becomes extremely difficult to define those circumstances or those types of loss in a coherent manner. It would be going too far to hold that all non-pecuniary loss suffered by a plaintiff is recoverable in a malicious falsehood action, because that would include injury to reputation at large. The history of malicious falsehood as a cause of action shows it was not designed to provide a remedy for such injury: the remedy for such loss is an action for defamation in which, incidentally, damages for injury to feelings may be included in a general award of damages (see Fielding v Variety Inc [1967] 2
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All ER 497 at 500, 502, [1967] 2 QB 841 at 851, 855 per Lord Denning MR and Salmon LJ).
Nor would these difficulties be solved by rejecting damages for distress as a separate head of loss in a malicious falsehood action but permitting distress to be taken into account as an aggravating factor. On this footing the judge or jury could take injury to feelings into account when awarding a lump sum of damages ‘in the round’. I do not see how, if only pecuniary loss is recoverable, the amount awarded can be increased to reflect the plaintiff’s distress. That would be a contradiction in terms. It would be to award damages for distress in a disguised fashion. If distress can inflame the damages recoverable for pecuniary loss, the difference between awarding aggravated damages for that reason and awarding damages for distress as a separate head of loss is a difference of words only.
My conclusion is that, on the limited argument addressed to us, it would be undesirable to decide this point. It is an important point of law but only a minor point in the present application. The pleading should be left as it stands and, if need be, this issue can be pursued further at the trial. Taking this course will not significantly affect the preparation of the evidence for the trial.
Conclusion
I would allow this appeal, discharge the judge’s order, and give the plaintiff leave to amend her statement of claim.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. I agree.
SIR MICHAEL KERR. I agree with the judgment of Sir Donald Nicholls V-C and the order which he proposes. I only add a few words on the issues relating to damages. However, I do so with some hesitation, since my remarks refer to authorities which were not canvassed in the arguments before us. I therefore mention them merely as an aide-mémoire for the sake of completeness.
The first aspect concerns the recoverability of general damages in cases where a plaintiff relies on s 3 of the Defamation Act 1952 because he or she is unable to prove any compensatable pecuniary loss. I agree that in such cases it does not follow at all that he will only recover nominal damages. As it seems to me, this conclusion flows from a general principle of the law of torts. As shown by the speech of Lord Devlin in Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 407, [1964] AC 1129 at 1221, with which the other members of the House agreed, there are many illustrations of circumstances in which torts are committed which may justify an award of damages beyond mere pecuniary compensation. He said:
‘It must be remembered that in many cases of tort damages are at large, that is to say, the award is not limited to the pecuniary loss that can be specifically proved. In the present case, for example, and leaving aside any question of exemplary or aggravated damages, the appellant’s damages would not necessarily be confined to those which he would obtain in an action for wrongful dismissal. He can invite the jury to look at all the circumstances, the inconvenience caused to him by the change of job and the unhappiness maybe by a change of livelihood. In such a case as this, it is quite proper without any departure from the compensatory principle to award a round sum based on the pecuniary loss proved.’
Pausing there, it seems to me that in referring to ‘a round sum based on the pecuniary loss proved’ Lord Devlin was using the word ‘based’ in the sense that the pecuniary loss would provide the core or starting point for the assessment of
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the ultimate award, not that this must be limited to, or reflect no more than, the proved pecuniary loss. Perhaps this goes without saying, having regard to the context. He went on ([1964]1 All ER 367 at 407, [1964] AC 1129 at 1221):
‘Moreover, it is very well established that in cases where the damages are at large the jury (or the judge if the award is left to him) can take into account the motives and conduct of the defendant where they aggravate the injury done to the plaintiff. There may be malevolence or spite or the manner of committing the wrong may be such as to injure the plaintiff’s proper feelings of dignity and pride. These are matters which the jury can take into account in assessing the appropriate compensation. Indeed, when one examines the cases in which large damages have been awarded for conduct of this sort, it is not at all easy to say whether the idea of compensation or the idea of punishment has prevailed. There are also cases in the books where the awards given cannot be explained as compensatory, and I propose therefore to begin by examining the authorities in order to see how far and in what sort of cases the exemplary principle has been recognised.’
Lord Devlin then proceeded to review a long line of cases in which damages of this nature have been awarded, but wrongly, as he held, under the categorisation of exemplary damages. He then stated that exemplary damages may only be awarded in three categories of cases (see [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 410–412, [1964] AC 1129 at 1226–1228). These do not matter for present purposes save that it should be mentioned, for completeness, that in the present action there is also a claim for exemplary damages under the second of these categories, ‘in which the defendant’s conduct has been calculated by him to make a profit for himself which may well exceed the compensation payable to the plaintiff’. However, we are not concerned with that aspect today.
Lord Devlin then proceeded to deal with the category of damages to which he had referred, which should properly be described as aggravated damages. He said ([1964] 1 All ER 367 at 411–412, [1964] AC 1129 at 1228):
‘As I have said, damages that are at large can always be fixed as a round sum. Some juries have in the past been very liberal in their ideas of what a round sum should be and the courts which have always been very reluctant to interfere with awards of damages by a jury, have allowed very liberal awards to stand.’
After referring to some of the epithets which have been used to describe such damages, he went on ([1964] 1 All ER 367 at 412, [1964] AC 1129 at 1229):
‘When this has been said, there remains one class of case for which the authority is much more precise. It is the class of case in which the injury to the plaintiff has been aggravated by malice or by the manner of doing the injury, that is, the insolence or arrogance by which it is accompanied. There is clear authority that this can justify exemplary damages, though … it is not clear whether they are to be regarded as in addition to, or in substitution for, the aggravated damages that could certainly be awarded.’
He then reviewed a number of further authorities and concluded that exemplary damages could not be awarded in addition to aggravated damages. He said ([1964] 1 All ER 367 at 412, [1964] AC 1129 at 1230):
‘This conclusion will, I hope, remove from the law a source of confusion between aggravated and exemplary damages which has troubled the learned
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commentators on the subject. Otherwise, it will not, I think, make much difference to the substance of the law or rob the law of the strength which it ought to have. Aggravated damages in this type of case can do most, if not all, of the work that could be done by exemplary damages.’
Many illustrations of cases in which aggravated general damages have been recovered for the commission of various kinds of torts can be found in the textbooks. They have been considered, for instance, in the context of the torts of assault, conversion, deceit, false imprisonment, malicious prosecution, trespass and others, and Sir Donald Nicholls V-C has already referred to conspiracy and inducing breaches of contract. There is therefore no reason whatever why such damages should not also be recoverable for the tort of malicious falsehood, either in addition to special pecuniary loss where this has been pleaded and proved or as general damages where a plaintiff relies on s 3 of the Defamation Act 1952.
I need hardly add that, in drawing attention to this line of authority, I am not for one moment suggesting that an award of aggravated damages would be appropriate in the present case, even if the plaintiff establishes the necessary ingredients of falsity and malice. That will of course be a matter for the judge or jury if the case goes to trial. My object is solely to demonstrate why there could in my view be no question of striking out this action on the ground that no more than nominal damages could be recovered in any event.
However, while the authorities go thus far in favour of the plaintiff, they conflict with her contention that damages for distress and injury to her feelings can also be recovered as an additional or separate head of damage, and there is certainly no support for such a contention where the alleged malicious falsehood is defamatory, as in the present case. However, for the sake of completeness, and although the authorities are somewhat confused (see McGregor on Damages (15th edn, 1988) paras 1403–1406), it is worth noting two old cases which support the conclusion that in claims other than for defamation damages for distress and injury to feelings are not recoverable as a separate head of damage, but only in appropriate cases as an ingredient of aggravated damages.
The first is the decision of the King’s Bench in Bracegirdle v Orford (1813) 2 M & S 77, 105 ER 311. That was an action for trespass to the plaintiff’s dwelling-house by searching and ransacking it, and it was also alleged that the circumstances implied a false charge to her credit and character that she was a receiver of stolen goods. The jury awarded £50 as general damages, a very large sum at that time, and there was a motion for a new trial. The argument for the defendants was that the allegation of injury to the plaintiff’s credit and character was effectively one which lay in slander, for which there was a different limitation period, and there was also a complaint that the judge should not have directed the jury that ‘the damages undoubtedly ought not to be merely nominal’ if they found that the defendant’s conduct implied that the plaintiff had had stolen property on the premises. However, Lord Ellenborough CJ and Le Blanc J upheld the verdict. Lord Ellenborough CJ said that the alleged false charge of receiving stolen goods had been ‘laid as matter of aggravation only’, and not ‘as a distinct and substantive ground of damage’. Le Blanc J added: ‘It is always the practice to give in evidence the circumstances which accompany and give a character to the trespass.’
It seems to me that this decision clearly supports the conclusion that in claims for torts other than defamation damages for distress and injury to the plaintiff’s feeling are not recoverable as an additional head of damages. The second old case may also be taken to lend some weight to this conclusion, but it is less compelling since the alleged injury was not caused to the plaintiff but to his wife. That was
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Huxley v Berg (1815) 1 Stark 98, 171 ER 413. The claim was again for trespass for breaking and entering the plaintiff’s house, and also for battery. The report is contained in a single paragraph as follows:
‘The plaintiff was allowed to give in evidence that his wife was so terrified by the conduct of the defendants, that she was immediately taken ill, and soon afterwards died; but this was held to be admissible for the purpose only of shewing how outrageous and violent the breaking, &c. was, and not as a substantive ground of damage.’
Finally, a decision of this court may also be worth noting, since it provides a good example of a case in which general aggravated damages were held to be recoverable in addition to a claim for pecuniary loss. In Davis v Bromley UDC (1903) 67 JP 275 the plaintiff brought a claim for damages for trespass against his local authority on the ground that they had wrongfully demolished a wall which he had built on his property. The circumstances showed that the authority had done so in a high-handed and arrogant manner, without respect to his rights. The trial judge directed the jury that the measure of damages was the amount of the out-of-pocket expenses to which the plaintiff had been put by reason of the trespass, and the jury assessed the damages at £20. But the plaintiff successfully appealed on the ground that this was a misdirection, and a new trial was ordered. Collins MR said that there must be a new trial because there had been a miscarriage of justice. He said (at 276):
‘It seems to me that the local authority had taken the law into their own hands, and had done it in such a way as to aggravate the insult to the plaintiff. They acted in a way which had the effect of branding him as a person who was interfering with their rights … The action was brought for an injunction and damages, and in my opinion the learned judge ought to have drawn the attention of the jury to the fact that the defendants had acted in an arbitrary and high-handed manner and without any real justification whatever. I do not think it was fair to treat the matter, as the learned judge appears to have treated it, as a mere question of costs out of pocket. On the contrary, it seems to me that the gist of the case was the aggravation by reason of the circumstances under which the act was done … The learned judge at the trial dealt with the action as if it had been one for the recovery of money out of pocket, and I am bound to say that his dealing with it in that way led to a miscarriage of justice.
Stirling LJ agreed and Mathew LJ said (at 276):
‘In my opinion, a material part of the plaintiff’s case was the insult which he had suffered, and I think the learned judge was wrong in dealing with the expenses out of pocket as the proper measure of damages.’
As already mentioned, in my view all these authorities must be equally applicable to claims for malicious falsehood. Furthermore, I can see no reason why they should apply any differently according to whether the plaintiff pleads that he has suffered special damage in the form of some pecuniary loss, as he had to before 1952, or whether he now takes advantage of s 3 of the Defamation Act 1952, as in the present case. But they only support the possibility of an award for aggravated general damages, not for an additional claim for distress and injury to feelings, as is expressly claimed in the present case.
I would accordingly strike out this claim as such, although I recognise that something of the same nature could still be recovered as an ingredient of a possible
Page 912 of [1993] 1 All ER 897
award of aggravated damages. However, since none of the foregoing authorities were considered in the arguments before us and the issue was not explored in depth, I agree that it would be undesirable to decide this point at the present stage and that the pleading should be left as it stands.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Director of Public Prosecutions v Corcoran
[1993] 1 All ER 912
Categories: CRIMINAL; Road Traffic
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): McCOWAN LJ AND PILL J
Hearing Date(s): 23 JUNE 1992
Road traffic – Failure to provide specimen for analysis or laboratory test – Offence – Information – Driving or being in charge of vehicle when under influence of drink or with blood-alcohol proportion above prescribed limit – Different penalties depending on whether accused driving or being in charge of vehicle – Information – Accused charged with failing without reasonable excuse to provide specimen – Information not specifying whether specimen was required in connection with driving or being in charge of vehicle – Whether information containing two offences – Whether information duplicitous – Road Traffic Act 1988, ss 4(1)(2), 5(1)(a)(b), 7(6).
The respondent was seen by police officers in uniform on mobile patrol to be driving his car erratically. After being chased by the police patrol the respondent drove his car into a driveway and left the vehicle. The officers apprehended the respondent and, suspecting that he had committed the offence of driving with excess alcohol, requested him to provide a specimen of breath for testing but he failed to provide the specimen requested. He was arrested and taken to a police station where the drink/driving procedure was followed. He was subsequently charged with failing without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen of breath for analysis in pursuance of a requirement by a constable, contrary to s 7(6)a of the Road Traffic Act 1988. At the hearing of the charge the justices found that he had been charged on the basis that he had been driving his vehicle but dismissed the information on the ground that it was bad for duplicity. The prosecution appealed.
Held - An information charging the offence of failing without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen of breath, blood or urine for analysis when required to do so by a constable, contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988, had to specify whether at the time the request for a specimen was made the specimen was required in connection with an offence with respect to driving or attempting to drive a vehicle contrary to s 4(1)b or s 5(1)(a)c of the Road Traffic Act 1988 or whether it was required in connection with an offence with respect to being in charge of a vehicle contrary to s 4(2) or s 5(1)(b) of that Act, since offences with respect to driving or attempting to drive and offences with respect to being in charge of a vehicle carried different penalties. Accordingly, s 7(6) created two offences with different penalties under the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988, Sch 2d , and if the charge did not state in respect of which offence the specimen
Page 913 of [1993] 1 All ER 912
had been required it was bad for duplicity. Since the information preferred against the respondent did not specify the purpose for which the specimen had been required it was duplicitous and had rightly been dismissed. The prosecution’s appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 917 g h, post).
R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740 applied.
Notes
For the scope of an information, see 29 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 318, and for cases on the subject, see 33 Digest (Reissue) 116–122, 739–805.
For failure to provide a specimen of breath, blood or urine for analysis, see 40 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 492–493, and for cases on the subject, see 39(1) Digest (Reissue) 503–508, 3721–3747.
For the Road Traffic Act 1988, ss 4, 5, 7, see 38 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 834, 836, 842.
For the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988, Sch 2, see ibid 1137.
Cases referred to in judgments
Gardner v DPP (1989) 89 Cr App R 229, DC.
George v DPP [1989] RTR 217, DC.
R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740, [1984] AC 463, [1984] 2 WLR 330, HL.
R v Newton (1982) 77 Cr App R 13, CA.
R v Waltham Forest Justices, ex p Barton [1990] RTR 49, DC.
Case stated
The Director of Public Prosecutions appealed by way of a case stated by the Justices for the County of Merseyside acting in and for the Petty Sessional Division of South Sefton, in respect of their adjudication as a magistrates’ court sitting at Bootle on 31 January 1991 whereby they dismissed for duplicity an information laid by the Crown Prosecution Service against the respondent, Terence Michael Corcoran, that he had on 19 May 1990 in the course of an investigation whether he had committed an offence under ss 4 or 5 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 without reasonable excuse failed to provide a specimen of breath for analysis in pursuance of a requirement by a constable under s 7 of that Act, contrary to s 7(6). The ground on which the justices dismissed the information was that as it did not specify the purpose for which the specimen was required it contained two offences and was therefore duplicitous. The questions for the opinion of the court are set out at p 915 f. The facts are set out in the judgment of Pill J.
Stuart Baker (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Bootle) for the prosecutor.
Alison Hewitt (instructed by Moore Sexton Bibby, Liverpool) for the respondent.
23 June 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
PILL J (giving the first judgment at the invitation of McCowan LJ). This is a prosecutor’s appeal by way of case stated from an adjudication of the justices for the petty sessional division of South Sefton sitting at Bootle on 31 January 1991. On 19 May 1990 an information had been preferred by the prosecutor against Terence Michael Corcoran that he, on 19 May 1990 in the course of an investigation whether he had committed an offence under ss 4 or 5 of the Road Traffic Act 1988, did, without reasonable excuse, fail to provide a specimen of breath for analysis in pursuance of a requirement by a constable under the provisions of s 7 of Road Traffic Act 1988 contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988.
The respondent did not appear at the hearing on 31 January but nothing turns upon that. He was represented. The facts as found by the justices, in so far as they are material, were that on 19 May 1990 police officers in uniform on mobile
Page 914 of [1993] 1 All ER 912
patrol saw a BMW motor car being driven erratically in Altway. They followed the car, which accelerated away. They gave chase. Eventually the car was driven into a driveway and the respondent left the vehicle from the driver’s door. There were no other persons in the vehicle or at the scene.
The officers found that the respondent’s breath smelt of intoxicants and they suspected that he had committed an offence of driving with excess alcohol in his body. He was requested to go to the police vehicle and provide a specimen of breath for test. The kit was assembled but he failed to provide the specimen requested. He was arrested and taken to the police station. There the procedure in the drink/drive check sheet, known as AOJ 17, was followed and questions were put to the respondent. It is clear that the justices found that it had been alleged that the respondent was arrested on the basis that he had been driving his vehicle.
On behalf of the respondent it was submitted to the justices at the close of the prosecution case that the information was bad for duplicity. The justices upheld
that submission. They stated that they—
‘were satisfied that the offence of failing to provide a specimen under Section 7(6) Road Traffic Act 1988 did create two offences, one of failing to provide a specimen after driving and one after being in charge of a motor vehicle and that in fairness to the offender he should be aware of the prosecution case as to what purpose the specimen was required for in the information at the outset of the case. As the information in the above case did not specify the purpose for which the specimen was required it therefore contained two offences and was therefore duplicitous.’
The questions for the opinion of this court are whether:
‘(a) A charge under Section 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 creates two offences depending on whether the defendant is alleged to have been driving a vehicle or in charge of a vehicle at the time a request for a specimen was made and (b) whether a charge under Section 7(6) Road Traffic Act 1988 which does not distinguish the purpose [for] which the request was made is therefore bad for duplicity.’
I refer to the statutory framework. Section 4 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 provides:
‘(1) A person who, when driving or attempting to drive a motor vehicle on a road or other public place, is unfit to drive through drink or drugs is guilty of an offence.
(2) Without prejudice to subsection (1) above, a person who, when in charge of a motor vehicle which is on a road or other public place, is unfit to drive through drink or drugs is guilty of an offence …’
Section 5 provides:
‘(1) If a person—(a) drives or attempts to drive a motor vehicle on a road or other public place, or (b) is in charge of a motor vehicle on a road or other public place, after consuming so much alcohol that the proportion of it in his breath, blood or urine exceeds the prescribed limit he is guilty of an offence …
It will be noted that ss 4(1) and 5(1)(a) deal with persons who are driving or attempting to drive a motor vehicle, whereas ss 4(2) and 5(1)(b) deal with persons in charge of a motor vehicle. Section 7 provides, inter alia:
‘(1) In the course of an investigation into whether a person has committed an offence under section 4 or 5 of this Act a constable may, subject to the …
Page 915 of [1993] 1 All ER 912
‘ provisions of this section … require him—(a) to provide two specimens of breath for analysis …’
Section 7(6) provides:
‘A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to provide a specimen when required to do so in pursuance of this section is guilty of an offence.’
The appropriate punishments are set out in Sch 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988. That refers in a table first to the provision creating the offence, in this case s 7 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 defined as ‘Failing to provide specimen for analysis or laboratory test.' The table provides in col 3 that the offence is triable summarily. Under the heading ‘Punishment’ in col 4 it is stated:
‘(a) Where the specimen was required to ascertain ability to drive or proportion of alcohol at the time offender was driving or attempting to drive, 6 months or level 5 on the standard scale or both. (b) In any other case, 3 months or level 4 on the standard scale or both.’
In the column headed ‘Disqualification’ it appears that where para (a) under the heading ‘Punishment’ applies it is obligatory to disqualify, whereas where para (b) applies it is discretionary.
The sentencing powers of the justices upon a s 7(6) offence depend therefore upon whether the offence being investigated is a s 4(1) or s 5(1)(a) offence, on the one hand, or a s 4(2) or s 5(1)(b) offence, on the other hand. Heavier sentences can be imposed in the former case and disqualification is obligatory.
Miss Hewitt for the respondent submits that there are two offences. She relies upon the statement of Lord Diplock in R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740, [1984] AC 463. In that case consideration was given to offences created by the Sexual Offences Act 1967. The House of Lords held that the 1967 Act created a number of specific offences for which the maximum punishment prescribed varied upon a descending scale according to the existence or absence of particular factual ingredients. A material ingredient under consideration was the presence or absence of consent.
In that context Lord Diplock stated ([1984] 1 All ER 740 at 744, [1984] AC 463 at 471):
‘My Lords, where it is provided by a statute that an accused person’s liability to have inflicted on him a maximum punishment which, if the prosecution is successful in establishing the existence in his case of a particular factual ingredient, is greater than the maximum punishment that could be inflicted on him if the existence of that particular factual ingredient were not established, it seems to me to be plain beyond argument that Parliament has thereby created two distinct offences, whether the statute by which they are created does so by using language which treats them as being different species of a single genus of offence or by using language which treats them as separate offences unrelated to one another.’
Mr Baker on behalf of the appellant submits that, if the factual ingredient goes to sentence only and not to the question of guilt, one offence only is created. The lack of particulars in a charge does not render that charge bad for duplicity. Where the factual ingredient goes only to punishment, there is no duplicity. He submits that in the present situation there is only one type of misconduct specified and that is the failure to provide a specimen.
Miss Hewitt accepts that the basic act charged is the refusal to give a specimen. However, she submits that the extent of the penalty and the powers to impose a penalty depend also upon the surrounding circumstances. The circumstances and
Page 916 of [1993] 1 All ER 912
in particular the nature of the default are relevant. Whether or not the defendant was driving at the time is a material fact and ingredient. That matter should be charged and decided, she submits, upon the trial of the issue of conviction and not at the stage of sentence. A defendant would be entitled to an acquittal on a charge where driving is alleged if the driving is not proved. She makes the further point that, if the offence is charged in the form it was charged in this case, then upon a guilty plea, it will not be apparent to the magistrates what their powers of sentence are.
Mr Baker also submits that no injustice has been done in the present case. It was made plain by the prosecutor that what was being alleged was that the defendant had driven. The defendant can have been in no doubt as to what case he had to meet.
We were referred to three decisions of this court made under similar provisions in the Road Traffic Act 1972. George v DPP [1989] RTR 217, Gardner v DPP (1989) 89 Cr App R 229 and R v Waltham Forest Justices, ex p Barton [1990] RTR 49. Gardner’s case was a defendant’s appeal against the justices’ opinion on disqualification on the question whether, where a motorist was charged with having failed to provide a breath specimen on being required so to do to assess his ability to be in charge of a vehicle, the justices could sentence on the factual basis that he was driving in circumstances where the constable requiring the screening breath test stated in evidence that he required such a test to be taken only so as to ascertain the ability of the defendant to be in charge of the vehicle.
Leggatt J stated (89 Cr App R 229 at 234):
‘Where the investigating officer does not specify the offence which he is investigating, it will be a question of fact no doubt for resolution by the justices for what purpose he was requiring the specimen of breath. But where, as here, a particular offence is specified by the officer, there is no room for dispute which offence was under investigation.’
Leggatt J added (at 234–235):
‘Before leaving the case it is right to refer to the decision of the House of Lords in R v Courtie ([1984] 1 All ER 740, [1984] AC 463) to which our attention has helpfully been drawn by Mr. Lyons who has appeared before us, though not before the justices, on behalf of the defendant. In that case it was held by the House of Lords that where a statute provided that a defendant’s liability to have inflicted upon him a maximum punishment which, if the prosecution was successful in establishing the existence in this case of a particular factual ingredient was greater than the maximum punishment that could have been inflicted upon him in its absence, it was manifest that Parliament had thereby created two distinct offences. It was suggested by their Lordships that this difficulty could be overcome either by charging the more serious offence (and thereby leaving it open to the jury to convict of either offence), or more suitably by charging both offences in the alternative. It seems to me that similar considerations may apply to offences charged under section 8(7) of the Road Traffic Act 1972, since upon the interpretation which I would adopt of Schedule 4, the question whether the disqualification which is to be imposed by justices is obligatory or discretionary will be determined by the purpose for which the specimen was originally required. If the prosecution allege that the specimen was required to ascertain ability to drive or proportion of alcohol at the time the offender was driving or attempting to drive, that information should in fairness to the person charged be made plain by the summons.’
Page 917 of [1993] 1 All ER 912
In R v Waltham Forest Justices, ex p Barton [1990] RTR 49 a sentence of disqualification was quashed upon an application for judicial review. Woolf LJ stated (at 58):
‘In order to assist those who are responsible for prosecuting these matters to avoid this sort of catalogue of errors occurring again in the future, I would make the following suggestions. First of all, having regard to the two sets of penalties contained in Schedule 4 with regard to section 8(7) offences, the charge itself should allege that the case comes within paragraph (a) of Schedule 4 on the basis that it is alleged that the specimen was required to ascertain the ability of the defendant at the time that he was driving or attempting to drive. If that is done, then if the defendant wishes to plead guilty to a charge in that form, it will make it clear that he is accepting that he has committed an offence to which the heavier penalty applies. If he is not prepared to accept that that paragraph is applicable to his case, then there can be a hearing to determine whether or not the case is properly alleged to involve an offence to which the heavier sentence applies. In order to establish that matter, the procedure laid down in Reg. v Newton ((1982) 77 Cr App R 13) will be perfectly appropriate. It will be for the prosecution to call the evidence to show that they are entitled to rely on the greater powers of punishment imposed by paragraph (a). It will be open to the defendant to call evidence in rebuttal. If the justices are not satisfied at the end of that evidence that the case does fall within paragraph (a), then their powers of punishment will be those which are applicable to cases falling within paragraph (b). In cases where the charge does not include the allegations which would make it appropriate for the heavier penalties to be available, then again there can be a hearing. However, although the procedure to that extent will be the same, in my view it certainly is at least preferable that the charge itself should make the position clear so that the defendant knows exactly the penalty which he faces.’
Mr Baker accepts that in those judgments adverse comments are made upon procedure which the prosecution followed in this case. Mr Baker, however, points out that in none of the three cases was the charge held to be bad for duplicity. It appears that the point was not argued in those cases. Indeed the Divisional Court proceedings took a form in which it may have been inappropriate to argue the point.
In my judgment the charge is bad for duplicity. There are two offences. Lord Diplock’s statement in R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740, [1984] AC 463 covers the present situation. Further, the good sense of the approach he lays down, if I may say so with respect, is illustrated by the difficulties which have arisen in other cases where informations have been laid upon a different basis, namely the basis of the information in the present case.
There must be a single rule covering this point and its application cannot depend upon whether the defendant has been given notice of how the prosecution put their case. I would answer the questions posed in the affirmative and dismiss this appeal.
McCOWAN LJ. I agree.
Appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Shaw v Director of Public Prosecutions and other cases
[1993] 1 All ER 918
Categories: CRIMINAL; Road Traffic
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WATKINS LJ, MACPHERSON AND ROCH JJ
Hearing Date(s): 8 OCTOBER, 12 NOVEMBER 1992
Road traffic – Failure to provide specimen for analysis or laboratory test – Offence – Information – Driving or being in charge of vehicle when under influence of drink or with blood-alcohol proportion above prescribed limit – Different penalties depending on whether accused driving or being in charge of vehicle – Information – Accused charged with failing without reasonable excuse to provide specimen – Information not specifying whether specimen was required in connection with driving or being in charge of vehicle – Whether information containing two offences – Whether information duplicitous – Road Traffic Act 1988 ss 4(1)(2), 5(1)(a)(b), 7(6).
Section 7(6)a of the Road Traffic Act 1988, which provides that it is an offence to fail without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen of breath, blood or urine for analysis when required to do so by a constable, does not create two offences notwithstanding that under Sch 2b to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 the maximum punishment for failing to provide a specimen pursuant to s 7(6) is higher where the specimen was required to be provided by a defendant who was alleged to have been driving or attempting to drive a vehicle than where it was alleged that the defendant was in charge of a vehicle. Section 7(6) creates the single offence of failing without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen when required to do so and the particular purpose for which the specimen is required, which is not referred to in s 7(6) but only in Sch 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988, is relevant only to the question of sentence. Accordingly, an information charging a failure to provide a specimen for analysis contrary to s 7(6) without specifying whether at the time a request for a specimen was made it was required in connection with an offence with respect to driving or attempting to drive a vehicle contrary to s 4(1)c or s 5(1)(a)d of the Road Traffic Act 1988 or whether it was required in connection with an offence with respect to being in charge of a vehicle contrary to s 4(2) or s 5(1)(b) of that Act, is not bad for duplicity (see p 922 f g, p 926 c d and p 930 d e post).
Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran [1976] 1 All ER 162 applied.
R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740 distinguished.
DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912 doubted.
Notes
For the scope of an information, see 29 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 318, and for cases on the subject, see 33 Digest (Reissue) 116–122, 739–805.
Page 919 of [1993] 1 All ER 918
For failure to provide a specimen of breath, blood or urine for analysis, see 40 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 492–493, and for cases on the subject, see 39(1) Digest (Reissue) 503–508, 3721–3747.
For the Road Traffic Act 1988, ss 4, 5, 7, see 38 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 834, 836, 842.
For the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988, Sch 2, see ibid 1137.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bastin v Davies [1950] 1 All ER 1095, [1950] 2 KB 579, DC.
DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912, DC.
Edwards v Jones [1947] 1 All ER 830, [1947] KB 659, DC.
Gardner v DPP (1989) 89 Cr App R 229, DC.
George v DPP [1989] RTR 217, DC.
Mallon v Allon [1963] 3 All ER 843, [1964] 1 QB 385, [1963] 3 WLR 1053, DC.
Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran [1976] 1 All ER 162, [1976] 1 WLR 87, HL.
R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740, [1984] AC 463, [1984] 2 WLR 330, HL.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67, [1984] 3 WLR 643, DC.
R v Greenfield [1973] 3 All ER 1050, [1973] 1 WLR 1151, CA.
R v Newton (1982) 77 Cr App R 13, CA.
R v Richardson (John) [1975] 1 All ER 905, [1975] 1 WLR 321, CA.
R v Surrey Justices, ex p Witherick [1932] 1 KB 450, [1931] All ER Rep 807, DC.
R v Waltham Forest Justices, ex p Barton [1990] RTR 49, DC.
Roberts v Griffiths [1978] RTR 362, DC.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Amos v DPP [1988] RTR 198, DC.
Anderton v Lythgoe [1985] 1 WLR 222, DC.
Bunyard v Hayes [1985] RTR 348, DC.
Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801, [1972] AC 1027, HL.
Cotterill v Lempriere (1890) 24 QBD 634, DC.
Dillon v R [1982] 1 All ER 1017, [1982] AC 484, PC.
Foulkes v Baker [1975] 3 All ER 651, [1975] 1 WLR 1551, HL.
Griffiths v Freeman [1970] 1 All ER 117, [1970] 1 WLR 659, DC.
Halls Construction Services v DPP [1989] RTR 399, DC.
Hargreaves v Alderson [1962] 2 All ER 1019, [1964] 2 QB 159, DC.
Huddersfield Police Authority v Watson [1947] 2 All ER 193, [1947] KB 842, DC.
Jemmison v Priddle [1972] 1 All ER 539, [1972] 1 QB 489, DC.
Jones v Sherwood [1942] 1 KB 127, DC.
Meek v Powell [1952] 1 All ER 347, [1952] 1 KB 164, DC.
Morelle Ltd v Wakeling [1955] 1 All ER 708, [1955] 2 QB 379, CA.
Newton (G) Ltd v Smith [1962] 2 All ER 19, [1962] 2 QB 278, DC.
Note [1966] 3 All ER 77, [1966] 1 WLR 1234, HL.
O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 2 All ER 1124, [1983] AC 237, HL.
Pearson v Comr of Police for the Metropolis [1988] RTR 276, DC.
Practice Direction [1982] 2 All ER 704, [1982] 1 WLR 979, DC.
R v Bolton Justices, ex p Scully [1991] 2 All ER 619, [1991] 1 QB 537, DC.
R v Bove [1970] 2 All ER 20, [1970] 1 WLR 949, CA.
R v Clow [1963] 2 All ER 216, [1965] 1 QB 598, CCA.
R v Dairy Produce Quota Tribunal, ex p Caswell [1990] 2 All ER 434, [1990] 2 AC 738, HL.
R v Gould [1968] 1 All ER 849, [1968] 2 QB 65, CA.
Page 920 of [1993] 1 All ER 918
R v Greenwich London BC, ex p Lovelace (No 2)[1992] 1 All ER 679, [1992]QB 155, CA.
R v Harrow Justices, ex p Osaseri [1985] 3 All ER 185, [1986] QB 589, DC.
R v Jones, ex p Thomas [1921] 1 KB 632, DC.
R v Leeds County Court, ex p Morris [1990] 1 All ER 550, [1990] 1 QB 523, DC.
R v Mitchell [1977] 2 All ER 168, [1977] 1 WLR 753, CA.
R v Newsome [1970] 3 All ER 455, [1970] 2 QB 711, CA.
R v Ramsden [1972] Crim LR 547, CA.
R v Shivpuri [1986] 2 All ER 334, [1987] AC 1, HL.
R v Spencer [1985] 1 All ER 673, [1985] QB 771, CA.
R v Surrey Coroner, ex p Campbell [1982] 2 All ER 545, [1982] QB 661, DC.
R v Taylor [1950] 2 All ER 170, [1950] 2 KB 368, CCA.
R v Whitehouse [1977] 3 All ER 737, [1977] QB 868, CA.
R v Wilson (1979) 69 Cr App R 83, CA.
Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals v Fishwick (31 January 1991, unreported), DC.
Thomson v Knights [1947] 1 All ER 112, [1947] 1 KB 336, DC.
Ware v Fox [1967] 1 All ER 100, [1967] 1 WLR 379, DC.
Young v Bristol Aeroplane Co Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 293, [1944] KB 718, CA; affd [1946] 1 All ER 98, [1946] AC 163, HL.
Younghusband v Luftig [1949] 2 All ER 72, [1949] 2 KB 354, DC.
Case stated and applications for judicial review
Shaw v DPP
Christopher Shaw appealed by way of a case stated by the Crown Court at Leeds in respect of its adjudication sitting on appeal from the justices for the county of West Yorkshire in and for the petty sessional division of Wetherby on 21 February 1992 whereby it dismissed his appeals against his conviction by the justices on 14 November 1991 on an information charging him with failure without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen of breath when required to do so contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 on the ground that, following the decision in DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912 the information was duplicitous, and against sentence passed by the justices on 9 January 1992 of two months’ imprisonment, disqualification from holding or obtaining a licence to drive for four years, and endorsement of his licence. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Applications for judicial review
R v Crown Court at Bournemouth, ex p Yates
James Richard Yates applied out of time with the leave of Macpherson J given on 5 August 1992 for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the Crown Court at Bournemouth on 27 March 1992 to dismiss his appeal against conviction by the Ringwood Magistrates’ Court on 13 February 1992 on an information charging him with failure without reasonable cause to provide a specimen of blood for analysis when required to do so contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 and an order of mandamus requiring the Crown Court at Bournemouth to allow the appeal, on the ground that, in the light of the subsequent decision of the Divisional Court in DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912, the information was bad for duplicity. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Vale of Glamorgan Magistrates’ Court, ex p Boundford
Graham Percival Boundford applied out of time with the leave of Rose J given on 25 September 1992 for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash
Page 921 of [1993] 1 All ER 918
his conviction by the Vale of Glamorgan Magistrates’ Court on 9 December 1991 on an information charging him with failure without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen of breath for analysis contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 and Sch 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 on the ground that, following the decision in DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912 the information was duplicitous. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Coventry Magistrates’ Court, ex p Bolton
William George Bolton applied out of time with the leave of Rose J given on 25 September 1992 for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash his conviction by the Coventry Magistrates’ Court on 1 May 1992 on an information charging him with failure without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen of breath for analysis when required to do so contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 on the ground, inter alia, that following the decision in DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912 the information was duplicitous. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Cheshire Justices, ex p White
Paul White applied out of time with the leave of Rose J given on 25 September 1992 for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash his conviction by the Cheshire Justices on 5 February 1992 on an information charging him with failure without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen for analysis when required to do so contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 on the ground that, following the decision in DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912 the information was duplicitous. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Marylebone Magistrates’ Court, ex p Garcia
Gabriel Gus Garcia applied out of time with the leave of Rose J given on 25 September 1991 for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash his conviction by the Marylebone Magistrates’ Court on 21 August 1991 on an information charging him with failure without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen for analysis when required to do so, contrary to s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 and Sch 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988, on the ground that, following the decision in DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912 the information was duplicitous. An appeal by way of case stated, on other grounds, was pursued separately from the application for judicial review. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Stuart Brown QC and David Hall (instructed by Ian Bosley & Co, Leeds) for the appellant Shaw.
Graham J Davies (instructed by Cordell Tibber & Co) for the applicants Yates and Garcia.
Nigel Joseph Ley (instructed by Passmore Walters & Hopkins, Cardiff) for the applicant Boundford, (instructed by Hughes & Masser, Coventry) for the applicant Bolton and (instructed by Byrne Frodsham & Co, Widnes) for the applicant White.
R Alun Jones QC and James Lewis (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the respondents.
Stephen Richards (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amicus curiae.
Cur adv vult
12 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
WATKINS LJ. On 7 and 8 October 1992 this court heard arguments in six cases concerning s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988, which provides:
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‘A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to provide a specimen when required to do so in pursuance of this section is guilty of an offence.’
The maximum punishment for failing to provide a specimen pursuant to s 7(6) is higher—
‘where the specimen was required to ascertain ability to drive or proportion of alcohol at the time the offender was driving or attempting to drive’
than it is ‘in any other case’ (see the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988, Sch 2).
It was held by the Divisional Court (McCowan LJ and Pill J) on 23 June 1992, in DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912, that (a) by reason of that difference in maximum punishment s 7(6) creates two offences and (b) an information in terms of s 7(6) alone is therefore bad for duplicity.
All the six cases before this court concern convictions under s 7(6) which the applicants seek to have quashed in accordance with the decision in DPP v Corcoran. They are but a few of very many decided cases which are affected by that decision. The persons convicted in those cases, either by the court or upon confession, await with very much interest the resolution of the issues which we have been called upon to determine.
The respondents, represented by Mr Alun Jones QC, argue that DPP v Corcoran was wrongly decided. Anyhow, he said, the decision was per incuriam and, therefore, not binding upon us. Even if the decision was not per incuriam we should, he claimed, depart from it regardless of precedent. The respondents’ contentions, indorsed in essential parts in the submissions of Mr Stephen Richards, for whose helpful argument as amicus curiae we are most grateful, are said to be supported by an examination of the framework of the road traffic legislation of 1988, the legislative history of s 7(6) thereof, the applicable sentencing provisions and by the words of those sentencing provisions themselves.
In its starkest form the argument for the respondents is that as a matter of simple construction by reference to the language of its own provisions, s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 defines a single offence, while Sch 2 of the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 separately defines the varying punishment for offences under s 7(6). This section makes no reference to the particular purpose for which the specimen is required; that comes into play only in the context of sentence and that is referred to only in Sch 2 of the latter Act.
This construction and argument is strongly supported, it was submitted, by the decision in Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran [1976] 1 All ER 162, [1976] 1 WLR 87, which was not cited to the court in DPP v Corcoran. If Curran’s case had been cited to the court in Corcoran the court’s conclusion would, Mr Alun Jones maintained, surely have been different.
Five of the cases before this court are applications for judicial review. One is by way of appeal by case stated from the Crown Court.
The procedural circumstances of each individual case are as follows.
Shaw is an appeal by way of case stated from the Crown Court. The points raised are the same as those in DPP v Corcoran but were taken prior to the decision in DPP v Corcoran and were indeed argued both before the justices and on appeal before the Crown Court. The appeal was brought within the relevant time limit.
Yates is an application for judicial review to quash a decision of the Crown Court dismissing an appeal against conviction. The application was made out of time following the decision in DPP v Corcoran. The conviction was on an appeal after a plea of not guilty, but it would seem that the points argued before the magistrates’ court and the Crown Court were not the same as those in DPP v Corcoran.
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Boundford, Bolton and White are applications for judicial review to quash convictions by magistrates’ courts. The applications were made out of time following the decision in DPP v Corcoran. The convictions were on a plea of guilty and the points in DPP v Corcoran were not argued below. (Bolton also raises a separate issue unconnected with DPP v Corcoran.)
Garcia is an application for judicial review to quash a conviction by the magistrates’ court. The application was made out of time following the decision in DPP v Corcoran. The conviction followed a plea of not guilty, but the points argued were entirely different from those in DPP v Corcoran. The points argued were the subject of a case stated which is to be heard separately from the present applications.
It is unnecessary in our judgment to set out the individual details of each case. In all of them the fact was that there was failure to provide a specimen of breath or blood, and each applicant was sentenced after conviction.
If DPP v Corcoran was wrongly decided all the convictions will stand, and the questions posed by the case stated will be answered in the negative. The questions posed by the case stated are: (i) does s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 create two offences? (ii) should a charge alleging an offence under s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 state on its face whether the appellant was being investigated for an offence under either s 4(1) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 or s 4(2) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 or s 5(1)(a) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 or s 5(1)(b) of the Road Traffic Act 1988? (iii) does a failure on its face of a charge under s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 to specifically identify which other sections of the Act are said to apply so that the appellant cannot determine the penalty for the offence which he is charged mean that the charge is defective as being in breach of r 100 of the Magistrates Courts Rules 1981, SI 1981/552?
Each case will effectively be resolved by this court’s conclusions as to the proper construction of s 7(6) and the argument as to duplicity, to which we now turn.
Rule 12(1) of the Magistrates Court Rules 1981, provides:
‘Subject to any Act passed after 2nd October 1848, a magistrates’ court shall not proceed to the trial of an information that charges more than one offence.’
Where, however, an information contains more than a single offence, the justices must decline to allow the prosecutor to proceed on both, but if one charge is discarded, the other can be proceeded with: see Edwards v Jones [1947] 1 All ER 830, [1947] KB 659. Section 123 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 provides:
‘(1) No objection shall be allowed to any information or complaint, or to any summons or warrant to procure the presence of the defendant, for any defect in it in substance or in form, or for any variance between it and the evidence adduced on behalf of the prosecutor or complainant at the hearing of the information or complaint.
(2) If it appears to a magistrates’ court that any variance between a summons or warrant and the evidence adduced on behalf of the prosecutor or complainant is such that the defendant has been misled by the variance, the court shall, on the application of the defendant, adjourn the hearing.’
Mr Alun Jones conceded that s 123 could not be used to cure an information bad for duplicity once the trial of the defendant had started in the magistrates’ court.
The nature of ‘duplicity’ was considered by the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, in R v Greenfield [1973] 3 All ER 1050, [1973] 1 WLR 1151 by a court consisting of Lord Widgery CJ, Lawton LJ and Milmo J. In the judgment of the
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court delivered by Lawton LJ it was said ([1973] 3 All ER 1050 at 1054, [1973] 1 WLR 1151 at 1156):
‘Duplicity in a count is a matter of form; it is not a matter relating to the evidence called in support of the count.’
The word ‘duplicity’ is applied to more than one kind of defect in an information. The first is where the information charges two separate offences. An example is Edwards v Jones, where the information charged the defendant with unlawfully driving a motor car in a manner dangerous to the public having regard to all the circumstances, contrary to s 11 of the Road Traffic Act 1930, and with having on the same date and at the same place unlawfully driven a motor car without due care and attention contrary to s 12(1) of the 1930 Act. In such a case the information purports to charge the defendant with two distinct offences. The fact that the two distinct offences are contained within the same section of the Act does not prevent the information being duplicitous: see R v Surrey Justices, ex p Witherick [1932] 1 KB 450, [1931] All ER Rep 807, where the information charged a defendant with driving a motor vehicle on a road without due care and attention or without reasonable consideration for other persons using the road contrary to s 12 of the 1930 Act.
The second kind of duplicity is where an offence can be committed in several different ways and the charge specifies more than one of the alternative ways of committing that offence. That occurred in Mallon v Allon [1963] 3 All ER 843, [1964] 1 QB 385, where para 2 of Sch 2 to the Betting and Gaming Act 1960 provided that no person apparently under the age of 18 years or who is known to any person connected with the licensee’s business and present on the licensed premises to be under that age should be admitted to or allowed to remain on those premises. An information charging the manager of the betting office that he did unlawfully admit and allow to remain in the licensed betting office a person apparently under the age of 18 was held to be bad for duplicity and the manager’s convictions were quashed because the justices had had no jurisdiction to hear the information. In the second category of case the vice is ambiguity and uncertainty rather than the charging of two separate offences. The defendant does not know which case he has to meet. In Bastin v Davies [1950] 2 KB 579 at 581 Lord Goddard CJ, in respect of such an information, said:
‘The blemish, however, if any, is not duplicity but uncertainty. Duplicity consists in charging two or more separate offences in one information or count conjunctively: uncertainty arises when two or more offences are so charged in the alternative or disjunctively, for obviously such a procedure leaves it quite uncertain with which of those offences the defendant is charged, and the conviction, which must follow the information, would also leave it in doubt of which offence the defendant had been found guilty. The question therefore is whether this information did in fact charge three offences in the alternative, or disjunctively, or whether it disclosed only one offence.’
The information had charged the sale of an article of food which was not of the nature or not of the substance or not of the quality of the article demanded, contrary to s 3(1) of the Food and Drugs Act 1938.
The charges in the cases before us were these.
Shaw
‘That you at Garforth Police Station on Monday 10th June 1991 without reasonable excuse failed to provide a specimen of breath when required to do so, contrary to section 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988.’
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Yates
‘At Ringwood in Hampshire on Friday 29th November 1991 having been required to provide a specimen of blood for analysis pursuant to section 7 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 failed without reasonable excuse to do so contrary to section 7(6) Road Traffic Act 1988.’
Boundford
‘For that you at Barry in the County of South Glamorgan on Saturday 9th November 1991, having been required to provide a specimen of breath for analysis pursuant to section 7 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 failed without reasonable excuse to do so contrary to section 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 and Schedule 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988.’
Bolton
‘On Friday 28/2/92 in Coventry having been required by a constable to provide a specimen of breath for analysis under section 8 of the Road Traffic Act 1972 without reasonable excuse you failed to do so contrary to section 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988.’
It will be observed that in the wording of this charge an incorrect reference was made to s 8 of the Road Traffic Act 1972 but nothing now turns upon that error.
White
‘That you did at Widnes in the County of Cheshire on Sunday 16th December 1990 in the course of an investigation into whether you had committed an offence under section 4/5 of the Road Traffic Act 1988, did fail without reasonable excuse, whilst at the police station, to provide two specimens of breath when required to do so by a constable, contrary to section 7, Road Traffic Act 1988.’
Garcia
‘… at Notting Hill police station being a person who was required in pursuance of section 7 Road Traffic Act 1988 to provide a specimen you did without reasonable excuse fail to provide such a specimen contrary to section 7(6) Road Traffic Act 1988 and Schedule 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988.’
The information charged each defendant with a single omission or course of conduct, namely failure to provide a specimen when requested to do so. The request would have to be lawful, that is to say made in accordance with the provisions of ss 7 and 9 of the Road Traffic Act 1988. Section 9 provides for the protection of hospital patients and has no relevance to these appeals. Thus the request would have to be made at a police station or a hospital and in the course of an investigation into whether a person has committed an offence under s 4 or s 5 of the Road Traffic Act 1988. Only one information, namely that in White, referred to an investigation under s 4 or s 5.
The purpose of empowering a constable to require a person to provide a specimen is to enable the police to obtain evidence of blood alcohol level without delay which would cause such evidence to be lost for ever. Common sense would suggest that provided there is a bona fide investigation into the existence of an offence under s 4 or s 5 of the Road Traffic Act 1988, that is an offence of driving a vehicle on a road whilst unfit to drive through drink or drugs, attempting to drive a vehicle in such circumstances, being in charge of a vehicle in such circumstances, driving a vehicle on a road after consuming so much alcohol that
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the proportion of the alcohol in the breath, blood or urine exceeds the prescribed limit, attempting to drive a motor vehicle in such circumstances and being in charge of a motor vehicle in such circumstances, then the request is within s 7.
Part of the investigation may be to discover whether the person asked for the specimen was driving or attempting to drive or in charge of a vehicle whilst unfit or with more than the prescribed limit of alcohol in his blood, breath or urine. At the time the specimen is required, however, the investigating officer may well have no or no sufficient evidence as to these matters and will have no or no sufficient evidence until the investigation is complete. At that stage the officers may well not know if they are investigating an offence vis-à-vis the person of whom the request is being made under s 4 or s 5 of the Road Traffic Act 1988, and within each of those sections precisely which of the three possible offences, or variation of them.
Having regard to the provisions of s 7(6), provided the requirement for the specimen is properly made, there is unquestionably, in our view, a single course of conduct which constitutes the offence, namely the failing to provide the specimen without reasonable excuse.
On this analysis no one of the informations or charges we have set out could possibly be bad for duplicity. The appellants collectively argue that if s 7(6) is read together with Pt 1 of Sch 2 of the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988, it will be seen that Parliament has created more than one offence or alternatively more than one way of committing the offence of failing to provide a specimen.
In Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran [1976] 1 All ER 162, [1976] 1 WLR 87 the ingredients of an offence under s 9(3) of the Road Traffic Act 1972, which was a predecessor of s 7(6), were considered by their Lordships’ House. Section 9(3) provided:
‘A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to provide a specimen for a laboratory test in pursuance of a requirement imposed under this section shall be guilty of an offence.’
Their Lordships held that the language of s 9(3) of the 1972 Act was simple, clear and unambiguous and nothing in it suggested that the offence thereby created was in any way connected with the suspect’s guilt or innocence of the offence which he was suspected of having committed when he was arrested. The offence under s 9(3) could be established without establishing that the defendant was a person in charge of, or driving, or attempting to drive a motor vehicle on a road or other public place. Lord Diplock in his speech said ([1976] 1 All ER 162 at 165, [1976] 1 WLR 87 at 91–92):
‘What these sections provide is a procedure by which a person who is reasonably suspected by a policeman of having committed an offence under s 5 or s 6 [the predecessors of ss 4 and 5 of the 1988 Act] can be required to provide material evidence in the form of a specimen of his blood or urine which may be used against him at his trial for an offence under either section, and without which, in the case of an offence under s 6, no prosecution could ever be brought against him. So the procedure under ss 8 and 9 applies to persons when they are suspects only. They may not in fact have committed the offence under s 5 or s 6 of which they are suspected; but, if they have, their refusal to provide a specimen of blood or urine would prevent their being prosecuted for any offence under s 6 and would enhance their prospects of escaping conviction for an offence under s 5. If the procedure is to achieve its evident purpose it is essential that a refusal without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen of blood or urine should attract penal sanctions
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irrespective of whether or not it ultimately proved that the person refusing to provide the specimen had been guilty of the offence of which he was suspected. In my opinion this is what s 9(3) quite plainly does … There is nothing in that language to suggest that the offence thereby created is in any way connected with the suspect’s guilt or innocence of the offence which he was suspected of having committed when he was arrested.’
Lord Hailsham in his speech said ([1976] 1 All ER 162 at 171, [1976] 1 WLR 87 at 98):
‘We must now, therefore, consider whether a refusal to provide the required laboratory specimen, made in such circumstances without reasonable excuse, gives rise of itself to an offence under s 9(3) of the 1972 Act. If it does, it is because it is not necessary for the prosecution to establish, if the fact be challenged, to the satisfaction of the jury that the suspect was at the time of the alleged offence in actual physical charge of the vehicle in question. The question of reasonable excuse hardly arises in this connection. If being in charge is an essential ingredient of the offence, no reasonable excuse is required. The prosecution fails because it has failed to prove what is necessary. If it succeeds, it is because the essential ingredients do not include that the accused should actually have been in charge.’
The appellant Curran had been indicted with being unfit to drive through drink when in charge of a motor vehicle on a road, in respect of which the jury had acquitted him, and of failing without reasonable excuse to provide the required specimen of blood or urine for the prescribed laboratory test, an offence of which he was convicted. His case was that the two verdicts were inconsistent, and that submission depended upon it being a necessary ingredient of the offence of failing to provide a specimen that it should be proved that he had been in charge of the motor vehicle. The punishment for the offence was set out in Pt I of Sch 4 to the 1972 Act. The relevant part of that read:
4 5
Punishment Disqualification
(i) Where it is shown that at the relevant time … the offender was driving or attempting to drive a motor vehicle on a road or other public place, 4 months or £100 or both … (a) Obligatory if it is shown as mentioned in paragraph (i) of column 4.
(ii) Where in any other case it is shown that at that time the offender was in charge of a motor vehicle on a road or other public place, 4 months or £ 100 or both. (b) Discretionary if it is not so shown.
It was submitted to the House of Lords that that provision in Sch 4 meant that there were at least two separate offences in respect of which there were different punishments. Lord Hailsham closed his speech with these words ([1976] 1 All ER 162 at 174, [1976] 1 WLR 87 at 101):
‘It follows, moreover, from what I have said about the decision in R v Richardson [1975] 1 All ER 905, [1975] 1 WLR 321, that I agree with the opinion expressed by my noble and learned friends to the effect that, on a charge under s 9(3), the matters of fact on which the decision as to penalty under cols 4 and 5 of Sch 4 depend are matters of fact for the court after verdict and not matters of fact for the jury at the trial.’
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The House of Lord’s decision in Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran was referred to by the Divisional Court in Roberts v Griffiths [1978] RTR 362. In that case justices dismissed an information charging a defendant with contraventions of ss 5(2) and 9(3) of the 1972 Act. As in Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran the justices found that it was not established that the defendant had been in charge of the motor vehicle. However, the justices found that the defendant had been properly arrested and that the requirement for the laboratory test specimen had been properly made under s 9, and that he had failed without reasonable excuse to provide a specimen. The particulars in the information relating to contravention of s 9(3) had referred to the defendant being in charge of the motor vehicle. The justices invited the prosecutor to amend the information by deleting that reference and the prosecutor refused. The justices then dismissed the information. On appeal the Divisional Court held that it was irrelevant that he had not been proved to have been in charge of the vehicle or committing an offence under s 5(2), that consequently the reference in the information to the defendant being a person in charge of a motor vehicle was surplusage, that the defendant would not have been misled by the superfluous words and that consequently the justices should have disregarded them and convicted the defendant. The case was sent back to the justices with a direction to convict. The Divisional Court followed the House of Lords in Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran.
It is true that in neither of those cases was the question of duplicity raised, but it is conceded by counsel for the appellants that if the punishment provisions are not to be looked at in deciding what are the essential ingredients of the offence of failing to provide a specimen, then no question of duplicity can arise.
Since those two decisions the 1972 Act has been repealed and the offence is now contained in s 7(6) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 and the penalties in Pt I of Sch 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988. The relevant part of that schedule reads:
2 4 5
General nature of offence Punishment Disqualification
Failing to provide specimen for analysis or laboratory test. (a) Where the specimen was required to ascertain ability to drive or proportion of alcohol at the time offender was driving or attempting to drive, 6 months or level 5 on the standard scale or both. (a) Obligatory in case mentioned in column 4(a).
(b) In any other case, 3 months or level 4 on the standard scale or both. (b) Discretionary in any other case.
Since the decision in Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran there have been further decisions of the courts and in particular R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740, [1984] AC 463 and Gardner v DPP (1989) 89 Cr App R 229. The question which arises is whether the changes in the statutory wording or decisions such as R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740, [1984] AC 463 and Gardner v DPP have overruled or substantially affected the decision in Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran? If not, we consider ourselves bound by Curran’s case. The authorities of Curran’s case and Roberts v Griffiths [1978] RTR 362 were not cited to the Divisional Court in DPP v
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Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912, whereas the most recent authorities, and particularly those of R v Courtie and Gardner v DPP were relied upon by the Divisional Court in DPP v Corcoran in reaching their conclusion that an information which charged Corcoran with failing to provide a specimen of breath for analysis in pursuance of a requirement by a constable under the provisions of s 7 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 contrary to s 7(6) of that Act was bad for duplicity because the court was satisfied that s 7(6) of the 1988 Act read together with Pt I of Sch 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 created at least two offences.
Pill J, with whose judgment McCowan LJ agreed, quoted what was said by Lord Diplock in R v Courtie [1984] 1 All ER 740 at 744–745, [1984] 1 AC 463 at 471:
‘My Lords, where it is provided by a statute that an accused person’s liability to have inflicted on him a maximum punishment which, if the prosecution is successful in establishing the existence in his case of a particular factual ingredient, is greater than the maximum punishment that could be inflicted on him if the existence of that particular factual ingredient were not established, it seems to me to be plain beyond argument that Parliament has thereby created two distinct offences, whether the statute by which they are created does so by using language which treats them as being different species of a single genus of offence, or by using language which treats them as separate offences unrelated to one another.’
And ended his judgment by saying ‘Lord Diplock’s statement … covers the present situation’ (see DPP v Corcoran [1993] 1 All ER 912 at 917).
The failure to refer that court to Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran [1976] 1 All ER 162, [1976] 1 WLR 87 and Roberts v Griffiths [1978] RTR 362 denied it the opportunity, most unfortunately we think, to consider a comparison between the class or classes of criminal offence which Lord Diplock had in mind in R v Courtie and the very different road traffic legislation considered by the House of Lords, Lord Diplock included of course, in Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran.
Mr Richards submitted, very cogently in our opinion, as follows. We quote from his written submissions:
‘The weight of the decision in Corcoran is placed on R. v. Courtie ([1984] 1 All ER 740 esp at 744, [1984] AC 463 esp at 471) per Lord Diplock. It is submitted, however, that Courtie does not have the effect that the court in Corcoran considered it to have. The case was not concerned with a statutory context comparable with that of the Road Traffic Act 1988; Curran and the reasoning in that case were not even raised for consideration; and Lord Diplock’s dicta as to the effect of differences in maximum punishment have to be placed in their particular context and must not be treated as being of universal application. The reasoning in Courtie was that the statutory definition of the offences under consideration involved the existence of at least one of several necessary factual ingredients which differed from one another; it did not necessarily follow that as many different statutory offences were created as there were necessary factual ingredients; but where there were different maximum punishments according to the existence or absence of particular factual ingredients, it was plain that distinct offences were created (see [1984] 1 All ER 740 at 743–745, [1984] AC 463 at 470–471). That reasoning does not apply to the present context, where the statutory definition of the offence is in the simple terms of s. 7(6) and does not involve the existence of different factual ingredients. (Only if one assumes that Sched. 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 is part of the statutory definition of the offence do
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different factual ingredients exist. But that is to fly in the face of the straightforward language of s. 7(6) and/or to engage in circularity by assuming the very point that falls to be determined.) [We interpolate here that in oral argument the telling point was made that offence and punishment are now in different Acts.] George v. DPP ([1989] RTR 217), Gardner v. DPP ((1989) 89 Cr App R 229) and R. v. Waltham Forest Justices, ex p. Barton ([1970] RTR 49), all of which are referred to in Corcoran, do not focus on the material issue and do not support the decision in Corcoran. On the contrary, they presuppose that the factual issues raised by the differences in maximum punishment can properly be investigated at the sentence stage and do not have to be determined through the formulation of the offence.’ (Mr Richard’s emphasis.)
It is of relevance to observe that in each of the three cases to which Mr Richards referred at the end of that extract the issues involved sentence only, conviction was not questioned. None of those courts had, therefore, to consider Metropolitan Police Comr v Curran and Roberts v Griffiths, nor so far as we can discover did they.
We agree entirely with the submissions of Mr Richards and are, therefore, driven with respect to differ from the decision in DPP v Corcoran, which, in our opinion, was erroneous and reached per incuriam.
It is, of course, understandable that a defendant should wish to be aware as precisely as possible of the likely consequences in terms of punishment of his admitted conduct or that found by the court to have been committed. But that cannot affect the construction of a plain straightforward provision creating an uncomplicated offence, as s 7(6) undoubtedly does. It stands in isolation from other circumstances prior to and succeeding its commission. The matter of penalty and the other circumstances which may affect it are for independent ascertainment by ‘Newton’ style hearing (see R v Newton (1982) 77 Cr App R 13) if they have not been admitted, or have not emerged during a trial of a not guilty plea. Whether it would be more just that the prosecution at some early stage inform a defendant of relevant circumstances sought to be relied upon is a matter which goes to procedural fairness and is, we think, easily resolved by a suitable procedure.
Finally, we turn to the precedent issue. Should we be wrong in regarding the decision in DPP v Corcoran as being reached per incuriam we recognise, of course, the rareness of departing from a previous decision of this court. In this context we have naturally reminded ourselves of R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67 and R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54.
We agree with Mr Richards for the reasons he advanced that it would be highly artificial to adopt different tests according to whether we are in the context of the cases before us considering an appeal by case stated or judicial review.
We are persuaded that we should depart from DPP v Corcoran on the basis that it was wrongly decided, though we infinitely prefer the view that it was decided per incuriam.
Therefore, we dismiss the appeal by case stated and answer the questions posed in the negative and dismiss all applications for judicial review.
We think it right to add that, if we had concluded that DPP v Corcoran should be followed, we would have allowed Shaw’s appeal which was brought in time following a hearing in the Crown Court in which the points of relevance considered in this judgment were argued. However, we would not in our discretion grant relief to any one of the applicants notwithstanding that leave to move was granted. Their applications were made well outside the normal time limit for judicial review either following a plea of guilty or a contest upon a
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different point. In none of the applications is it alleged that the applicant did not know the case he had to meet. As Mr Richards pointed out, the applications were based on a procedural technicality which could have been raised and cured at the time. We agree with that. It is, moreover, absolutely plain that none of the applicants has suffered any injustice whatsoever as a consequence of the decision in DPP v Corcoran.
Appeal dismissed. Applications for judicial review refused.
The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords and refused to certify, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that a point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Re B (a minor) (disclosure of evidence)
[1993] 1 All ER 931
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: COURT OF APPEAL CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): GLIDEWELL, BALCOMBE LJJ AND BOREHAM J
Hearing Date(s): 17, 18 JUNE, 16 JULY 1992
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Residence or contact orders – Evidence – Disclosure – Application by mother to revoke father’s access to son – Affidavit by mother supporting application – Affidavit containing allegations against father of sexual abuse of daughter – Whether court having power to prohibit disclosure of mother’s affidavit to father – Children Act 1989, ss 8, 10.
The parties were divorced in 1991. In July and November 1991 consent orders were made granting custody, care and control of the mother’s daughter by a previous marriage, L, to the mother, and joint custody of the son of the marriage, T, to both parents with care and control to the mother and reasonable access to the father. Subsequently, the mother applied under s 10(1)a Of the Children Act 1989 for an order under s 8b of that Act varying the joint custody order, revoking the order for reasonable access and prohibiting the father from communicating with T. The application was supported by an affidavit sworn by the mother which contained allegations that L had been sexually abused by the father and that since T had become aware of his sister’s allegations the mother wished to ensure that T did not, during access, inadvertently tell his father of L’s complaints. When the matter came on for hearing ex parte the judge ordered that T should
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have no contact with his father until the full directions hearing of the application and that the mother should not disclose to the father the affidavit filed by her in connection with her application. The father applied for orders discharging the prohibition of contact with T and requiring disclosure of the mother’s affidavit. The judge held that he had had no power to order that the affidavit was not to be disclosed and ordered that the affidavit be supplied forthwith to the father’s solicitors. The mother appealed.
Held - For the purposes of applications under ss 8 and 10 of the 1989 Act the court had power to order that evidence filed by one party in support of the application or in opposition to the application, or any part of the material contained in the application form should not be disclosed to the other party if the court was satisfied, having balanced the interests of the child, which were paramount, against the requirements of natural justice, that such disclosure would be so detrimental to the welfare of the child or children under consideration as to outweigh the normal requirement for a fair trial that all evidence must be disclosed so that all parties could consider it and if necessary seek to rebut it. However, the power to prohibit disclosure should only be exercised in exceptional circumstances and then only for the shortest possible period consonant with preserving the welfare of the child or children. Since the order had been sought for the protection of the daughter, whereas it was the son’s welfare which was the paramount consideration when considering whether he should continue to have access to his father, the interests of justice to the father greatly outweighed any possible detriment to the son. It followed that disclosure of the mother’s affidavit to the father should not be prohibited and that the appeal would be dismissed (see p 936 d e h, p 941 e f, p 942 g to j and p 943 a to h, post).
Official Solicitor v K [1963 ] 3 All ER 191 followed.
Notes
For the principle that judgment should only be given on the basis of evidence made known to all the parties, see 10 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 722.
For orders with respect to children in family proceedings, see Supplement to 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 541A.
For the Children Act 1989, ss 8, 10, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 400, 403.
Cases referred to in judgments
C (a minor: irregularity of practice), Re [1991] 2 FLR 438, CA.
Fowler v Fowler and Sines [1963] 1 All ER 119, [1963] P 311, [1963] 2 WLR 155, CA.
Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201, [1963] 3 WLR 403, HL, rvsg sub nom Re K (infants) [1962] 3 All ER 1000, [1963] Ch 381, [1962] 3 WLR 1517, CA; rvsg [1962] 3 All ER 178, [1963] Ch 381, [1962] 3 WLR 752.
Russell v Duke of Norfolk [1949] 1 All ER 109, CA.
Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A (minors) (residence order), Re [1992] 3 All ER 872, [1992] 3 WLR 422, CA.
A (minors) (wardship: child abuse: guidelines), Re [1992] 1 All ER 153, [1991] 1 WLR 1026.
B v B (child abuse: evidence) [1991] 2 FLR 487.
Boatman v Boatman (1980) 10 Fam Law 120, DC.
Brinkley v Brinkley [1963] 1 All ER 493, [1965] P 75, DC.
D v National Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children [1977] 1 All ER 589, [1978] AC 171, HL.
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DF (a minor), Re (1977) 76 LGR 133.
Eaton (decd), Re, Shaw v Midland Bank Executor and Trustee Co Ltd [1964] 3 All ER 229, [1964] 1 WLR 1269.
Elder v Elder [1986] 1 FLR 610, CA.
H v H and C [1969] 1 All ER 262, [1969] 1 WLR 208, CA.
J v C [1969] 1 All ER 788, [1970] AC 668, HL.
M (an infant) (adoption: parental consent), Re [1972] 3 All ER 321, [1973] QB 108, CA.
M (a minor) (disclosure of material), Re [1990] 2 FLR 36, CA.
M (minors) (wardship: freedom of publication), Re, [1990] 1 All ER 205, [1990] Fam 211, CA.
Moritz (decd), Re, Midland Bank Executor and Trustee Co Ltd v Forbes [1959] 3 All ER 767, [1960] Ch 251.
R v Hampshire CC, ex p K [1990] 2 All ER 129, [1990] 2 QB 71, DC.
R v West Malling Juvenile Court, ex p K [1986] 2 FLR 405.
R v Worcester City Juvenile Court, ex p F [1989] 1 All ER 500.
S (minors) (wardship: police investigation), Re [1987] 3 All ER 1076, [1987] Fam 199.
Suter v Suter and Jones [1987] 2 All ER 336, [1987] Fam 111, CA.
T (an infant), Re (1974) 118 SJ 78.
T (a minor) (adoption: parental consent), Re [1986] 1 All ER 817, [1986] Fam 160, CA.
W (a minor), Re (1980) 10 Fam Law 120.
WLW, Re [1972] 2 All ER 433, [1972] Ch 456.
Interlocutory appeal
By notice of appeal dated 28 April 1992 the mother of two children appealed from the order of Judge John Wilson made in the Northampton County Court on 15 April 1992 whereby he ordered, inter alia, (i) than an earlier order made by the judge dated 27 March 1992 that the mother do not disclose to the father the affidavit filed by her in support of her application under ss 8 and 10 of the Children Act 1989 be discharged and (ii) that the mother serve on the father’s solicitors a copy of the affidavit. The facts are set out in the judgment of Glidewell LJ.
Jeremy Posnansky (instructed by Toller Hales & Collcutt, Wellingborough) for the mother.
Richard Vain (instructed by Woolley & Weston, Welwyn Garden City) for the father.
At the conclusion of the argument the court ordered that the mother’s affidavit be disclosed 36 hours thereafter and that it would give its reasons later.
16 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
GLIDEWELL LJ. This is an appeal against part of an order made on 15 April 1992 by Judge John Wilson in the Northampton County Court on an application made on behalf of the father to vary an order made by the learned judge on 27 March 1992 on an ex parte application by the mother.
The father and the mother were married on 2 June 1979. The mother already had a daughter by her previous marriage, L, who was born on 16 December 1976 and is thus now 15 years of age. On 16 April 1980 she gave birth to a son, T. He is now 12 years old.
The father, the mother and the two children lived together in the matrimonial home until 27 October 1990 when, as a result of disagreements between the mother and the father, the father left at the mother’s request. They have not lived
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together since. On 31 January 199 l the mother filed a petition for divorce and on April 1991 a decree nisi was pronounced.
On 15 July 1991 Judge Wilson made an order by consent, after the giving of a number of undertakings by the father, which included: (1) a prohibition on the exercise by the father of his right to occupy the former matrimonial home; (2) the grant of custody, care and control of L to the mother; (3) the grant of interim custody, care and control of T to the mother; (4) a provision that there should be no access by the father to L; and (5) an order that the applications concerning the custody of, and access to, T should be adjourned to a date to be fixed, with interim access to T to the father, and directions as to the steps to be taken before the hearing of the application.
The undertakings given by the father on that occasion included undertakings that he would not assault, molest or interfere with the mother or either of the children, that he would not communicate with L in any way, that he would not, save in one respect, go within 100 yards of the former matrimonial home, and that he would not remove the children from the care of the mother save for access to T.
On 27 November 1991 the application regarding the custody and access of T came before the learned judge. He granted by consent joint custody of T to both parents, with care and control to the mother and reasonable access to the father. In certain respects not relevant to this appeal the father’s undertakings were amended.
On 27 November 1991 the divorce decree was made absolute.
On 27 December 1991 the father moved to a new home in Oxfordshire. Over the weekend of 17–19 January 1992 the father remarried. T stayed with his father over that weekend and attended the wedding. This was the last occasion on which there was contact between T and his father.
On the morning of 31 January 1992 the mother’s solicitors sent to the father’s solicitors by fax a letter giving notice that T would not have access to his father that weekend, the access being due to start on the evening of that day. By letter dated 7 February 1992 the mother’s solicitors said:
‘For the record we do confirm all parties in contact with [T], his School, his Doctor and of course our Client, his mother, have become increasingly aware [T] has been under a good deal of stress recently, it would seem as a result of his father’s sudden move to Oxford having told his son the reason for this was a secret and the fact that his father has remarried so quickly and to someone his father had not taken the time to ensure his son knew.’
On 26 March 1992 application was made on behalf of the mother under s 10 of the Children Act 1989. The form of application said that it was made in respect of both T and L. Orders were sought (1) varying the joint custody order and ordering that T should reside with his mother, (2) revoking the order for the father to have reasonable access to T and for an order that there be no contact between them, (3) prohibiting the father from communicating with T and (4)—
‘That no part of the evidence produced to the court be disclosed to the [father] whilst the present investigations remain to be completed and that a specific issue order be made directing the [father’s] solicitors as officers of the court not to disclose to the [father] the nature of the matters under investigation and the information now laid before the court.’
The reason for the making of the application was expressed in the following terms:
‘I am fearful of the consequences for both children of the family in the
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event of the [father] becoming aware of the allegations now being made against him and I refer to my affidavit of even date filed in connection with this my application together with the exhibits thereto in support.’
As there said, the application was supported by an affidavit sworn by the mother.
This application came on for hearing ex parte in the Northampton County Court before Judge Wilson on 27 March 1992. The judge ordered: (1) that the father should not have any contact with T until the full directions hearing of the application or further order; (2) that the father’s access to T should be suspended until further order; and (3) that the mother should not disclose to the father the affidavit filed by her in connection with her application.
Although it seems that the judge had not specifically so ordered, the form of application then served upon the father was amended by deleting parts of it. The fourth order sought was truncated so that it read only: ‘That no part of the evidence produced to the court be disclosed to the [father].' The reason why the application was made was wholly deleted, so that this part of the form was simply left blank.
On 10 April 1992 the father applied for orders discharging the prohibition of contact with T, requiring the mother to complete her application form, and requiring her to supply him forthwith with a copy of her affidavit and exhibits. It was this application which came before the learned judge on 15 April 1992.
At the hearing the father was represented by Mr Vain of counsel who appears before us. The mother was represented by her solicitor, Mr Mitchell. At the hearing Mr Vain, without any objection from Mr Mitchell, referred the judge to two previous decisions of this court, of which the first was Re K (infants) [1962] 3 All ER 1000, [1963] Ch 381, in which the decision of this court was given on 30 October 1962. In that case two children had been made wards of court, and the Official Solicitor was ordered to be their guardian ad litem. At two stages during the course of the proceedings the Official Solicitor lodged statements of fact, accompanied by confidential reports, and on the second occasion the report of a medical specialist on the children. He did not serve copies either of the confidential reports or of the specialist’s report on either the mother or the father.
The mother took a preliminary point that she was entitled as of right to see the whole of the material filed by the Official Solicitor, including the confidential reports and the medical report. Ungoed-Thomas J rejected her contention. On appeal, this court allowed the appeal on the principle that the determination of the question what was best to be done for the welfare of the children was a judicial inquiry, and that it is fundamental to any such inquiry that an interested party has the right to see all information put before the judge to enable him or her to comment on it and if need be to seek to challenge it.
The second decision to which the judge was referred was that in Fowler v Fowler and Sines [1963] 1 All ER 119, [1963] P 311. In that case this court, in a judgment given on 7 December 1962, followed its previous decision in Re K (infants).
Judge Wilson concluded that he was bound by the decision of this court in Re K (infants) to hold that in the present case the father was entitled to see the mothers affidavit. He recognised that such disclosure might cause some harm to the children, but nevertheless concluded that only if there is a specific statutory power to order non-disclosure to a party of material which is placed before the court itself can the court make such an order. He therefore discharged his ex parte order that the mother should not disclose her affidavit to the father, required her forthwith to serve upon the father’s solicitors a copy of her affidavit together with the exhibits and a copy of the completed application form, adjourned the application to a date to be fixed and agreed to stay his order pending consideration
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by the mother of an appeal to this court. On 14 May 1992 he extended his stay until the hearing of the appeal.
Most unfortunately, when they appeared before the judge, neither Mr Vain nor Mr Mitchell was aware that the Official Solicitor had appealed to the House of Lords against the decision of this court in Re K (infants) and that the appeal had been allowed. Thus the decision upon which the judge had based himself had been reversed: see sub nom Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201. We need not consider at this stage how this most regrettable state of affairs came about. It suffices to say that the judge’s understandable ignorance of the decision of the House of Lords invalidated the basis of his judgment.
Before us the following issues arose. (1) On an application relating to the custody or care and control of and/or access to a child, has a court any power to order that evidence filed by one party in support of the application or in opposition to the application, or any part of the material contained in the form of application shall not be disclosed to the other party? (2) If so, should this court decide whether in the circumstances it was right to make such an order in this case, or should it remit that question for rehearing? (3) If this court is prepared to decide this second issue itself, should such an order be made?
At the hearing we considered the first issue, which obviously raises a question of general importance. We announced our decision that in our opinion in proceedings such as these, affecting the welfare of children, the court does have power to make an order for non-disclosure of the kind sought by the mother, but that such power is only to be exercised in the most exceptional circumstances. Having announced that decision, we also concluded without any objection from the parties that we were in as good a position as a lower court would be to decide whether in the circumstances of this case such an order should be made. At that stage in the hearing, at our request, we were supplied with copies of the mother’s affidavit and of the text of the words deleted from her form of application when it was served on the father. We were told that the words of the application form had been shown to Mr Vain at the hearing before the judge, but neither he nor his client was as yet aware of the content of the affidavit filed on behalf of the mother.
We decided that the proper way in which to hear submissions on the question whether the affidavit should be disclosed was to hear submissions first from Mr Posnansky, counsel for the mother, in the absence of the father, his solicitors and his counsel, Mr Vain. We made it clear that, if we were minded to be persuaded by Mr Posnansky’s arguments, we would then require disclosure on terms of the affidavit to Mr Vain (but not to his client at that stage) for him to be able to argue against an order for non-disclosure. However, at the conclusion of Mr Posnansky’s argument we had no doubt that it would be wrong for us to make an order that the affidavit should remain undisclosed for more than a very short time. Indeed Mr Posnansky in effect conceded that at this stage the affidavit must be disclosed, only asking for a short delay to enable appropriate steps to be taken to inform one of the children that this was to be done. We therefore ordered disclosure of the affidavit and of the material contained in the application form to take effect some 36 hours after the conclusion of our hearing.
We now give our reasons for our decision.
Does the court have power to order that evidence filed by one party be not disclosed to the other party?
The main authority on this issue is the decision of the House of Lords in Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201. I have already set out the facts of that case, and the way in which the issue came, on an appeal on a preliminary point, before the House of Lords.
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In his speech, Lord Evershed quoted the well-known dictum of Tucker LJ in Russell v Duke of Norfolk [1949] 1 All ER 109 at 118 as follows:
‘There are, in my view, no words which are of universal application to every kind of inquiry and every kind of domestic tribunal. The requirements of natural justice must depend on the circumstances of the case, the nature of the inquiry, the rules under which the tribunal is acting, the subject matter that is being dealt with, and so forth.’
Lord Evershed continued ([1963] 3 All ER 191 at 196–197, [1965] AC 201 at 218–219):
‘My lords, I would adopt Tucker, L.J.’s language and apply it to the present case. It is not in doubt that a judicial inquiry concerning the proper steps to be taken for the care and maintenance of a ward of court is subject—and necessarily subject because of the nature and purpose of the inquiry—to a procedure in many respects quite special. The case is normally heard in private and it is conceded that the judge may properly see—that it may be his duty to see—the infant (and perhaps one or other or both parents) in private; and it is important to have in mind that in ordinary circumstances no final order is ever made. I venture to repeat and to emphasise that the aim and purpose of the judicial inquiry is the benefit of the infant, and for such purpose to make a decision about his or her immediate future upbringing or control. For such purpose also the infant is in relation to the court in a special position distinct from that of other parties—for he or she is a ward of the court, a “child-in-law” of the court exercising the ancient prerogative and parental jurisdiction. If this be so, then it cannot, as it seems to me, be right that the court is always compelled in circumstances such as have arisen in the present case, to choose the lesser of two evils, to do that which in the court’s view will be against the infant’s interest and to console itself in so doing by regarding the result as a distressing consequence of a broken home. If the court is compelled so to act, then it is surely disqualifying and disabling itself from exercising the judicial function with which it is invested … It follows, therefore, in my opinion, that there cannot be in circumstances such as exist or as are suggested in the present case, an absolute right on the mother’s part to see the report of the Official Solicitor. On the other hand I have equally no doubt that the judge must give very great weight indeed to the principle that he should not base a conclusion adverse to a proper party to the proceedings (and particularly a parent) on information which that party has not seen and has had no opportunity of challenging or contesting. When a situation arises such as has in the present case arisen, there may well indeed have to be, in the language of Russell, L.J. ([1962] 3 All ER 1000 at 1016, [1963] Ch 381 at 417), a “balancing” of the generally accepted right of a properly interested party, particularly a parent, to disclosure of information submitted to the judge on which he proposes in some measure to base his conclusion (on the one hand) and the paramount interest of the ward of court (on the other hand). It may, however, be that, in such a situation, the latter consideration on the balance should outweigh the former. But in reaching such a conclusion the judge must in the first place be well satisfied that the confidential information to which he proposes to pay regard is in truth reliable … It must, therefore, follow that a judge should not reach such a conclusion without the relevant disclosure to the party or parent save in rare cases and where he is fully satisfied judicially that real harm to the infant must otherwise ensue.’
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Lord Evershed ([1963] 3 All ER 191 at 197, [1965] AC 201 at 220):
‘I am concerned only to express my view that, though the judge must indeed attach very great weight to the principle which I have stated, yet there can be no unqualified right on the part of a parent or other proper party to disclosure of information supplied to the judge, unless the judge wholly rejects such information in arriving at his conclusion. I accept entirely the view of Upjohn, L.J. ([1962] 3 All ER 1000 at 1007, [1963] Ch 381 at 403), that “the rights, claims or wishes (however one likes to describe them) of the parents or other proper parties must be … given such weight as the judge may consider proper, in forming his final view.” But I cannot deduce from that premise the conclusion that, if the conflict arises, the “right” of the parent to disclosure must inevitably override what the judge regards as the best interest of the ward. The interest of the infant is the paramount interest and purpose of the jurisdiction. Disclosure or no disclosure therefore must in the end remain a matter for the judge’s discretion …’
Lord Jenkins said ([1963] 3 All ER 191 at 205, [1965] AC 201 at 232):
‘I must now return to the specific question whether the mother is entitled as of right to disclosure of the two reports made by the Official Solicitor as guardian ad litem of the children. It seems to me, as it did to Ungoed-Thomas J., that this question must be answered in the negative, the disclosure (if any) to be allowed in any particular case being essentially a matter to be determined by the judge in the exercise of his discretion. If it were not so, there, so far as I can see, would be an end of any effective control of wards by the court. If the mother is to be entitled as of right to disclosure of the two reports with which the present application is concerned, I do not see why, by parity of reasoning, she should not equally be entitled to insist on like disclosure of information from other sources however damaging to the ward such disclosure might be. I appreciate that the welfare of the infant is the paramount consideration, but surely this requirement can only be complied with if the judge, or the master on his behalf, is given a wide discretion to determine whether the disclosure sought by the parent in the particular case is in the best interests of the ward. It is objected that the use by the court of undisclosed documents or information in wardship cases is objectionable as offending against the fundamental principle of justice to the effect that anyone against whom a charge is made must be given a fair opportunity of knowing and understanding what the charge is and on what evidence it is based. The question whether in a particular case compliance with that principle should be accorded greater or less importance than the probability, whatever it may be, of damage (if any) to the infant ensuing from such compliance, depends on the facts of that particular case; and any attempt to formulate general pronouncements applicable in all cases will be likely to create more difficulties than it solves.’
Lord Hodson said ([1963] 3 All ER 191 at 206–207, [1965] AC 201 at 234–235):
‘I agree with the Court of Appeal that this appeal raises an acute conflict between two principles. It is said with force, as Russell, L.J., remarked ([1962] 3 All ER 1000 at 1015, [1963] Ch 381 at 416), that it is contrary to natural justice that the contentions of a party in a judicial proceeding may be overruled by considerations in the judicial mind which the party has no opportunity of criticising or controverting because he or she does not know what they are: that moreover the judge may (without the inestimable benefit
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of critical argument) arrive at a wrong conclusion on the undisclosed material, and that even worse the undisclosed evidence may, if subjected to criticism, prove to be misconceived or based on false premises. On the other hand the substantive law governing proceedings of this character is summarised in the Guardianship of Infants Act, 1925, of which s. 1 says that the first and foremost consideration is the welfare of the infant. How then, it is said, can it be right to insist on the application of a view of natural justice over procedural law in a manner which in the view of the judge will do harm to the infant? … There is no doubt that, although its origin lies in the prerogative of the Crown as parens patriae, the jurisdiction over infants has long been exercised by the judges of the Chancery Division in accordance with the principle to which Viscount Haldane, L.C., referred in Scott v. Scott ([1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1) when he said ([1913] AC 417 at 437, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 9): “There the judge who is administering their affairs in the exercise of what has been called a paternal jurisdiction, delegated to him from the Crown through the Lord Chancellor, is not sitting merely to decide a contested question. His position as an administrator as well as judge may require the application of another and overriding principle to regulate his procedure in the interests of those whose affairs are in his charge … In the two cases of wards and lunatics the court is really sitting primarily to guard the interests of the ward or the lunatic. Its jurisdiction is in this respect paternal and administrative, and the disposal of controverted questions is an incident only in the jurisdiction. It may often be necessary, in order to attain its primary object, that the court should exclude the public. The broad principle which usually governs it, therefore, yields to the paramount duty, which is the care of the ward or lunatic.” As the passage which I have read shows, the subject under consideration in Scott’s case was the jurisdiction of courts to exclude the public, not as here one of the primary rules of natural justice expressed by the phrase audi alteram partem, but the conclusion that I have reached after long hesitation is that one must approach the question now under consideration from the point of view expressed by Lord Haldane when discussing hearings in camera. In the last resort the welfare of the child must dominate and in those rare cases, of which this is one, where the judge has found himself unable to disregard a secret and unverified report yet has thought the report must not in the child’s interest be shown to the parents, his view must prevail.’
Lord Devlin said ([1963] 3 All ER 191 at 209–210, [1965] AC 201 at 238–241):
‘But a principle of judicial inquiry, whether fundamental or not, is only a means to an end. If it can be shown in any particular class of case that the observance of a principle of this sort does not serve the ends of justice, it must be dismissed; otherwise it would become the master instead of the servant of justice. Obviously, the ordinary principles of judicial inquiry are requirements for all ordinary cases and it can only be in an extraordinary class of case that any one of them can be discarded. This is what was so clearly decided in Scott v. Scott ([1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1). That case offers much more than authority for the view, not challenged before your Lordships, that wardship proceedings are an exception to the general principle that justice cannot be done in camera. Viscount Haldane, L.C. sets out the terms on which such exceptions are to be made. After he had considered two exceptions to the general rule that justice must be done in public, namely, wardship proceedings and a case involving a secret process, he states the test which is applicable to both. He says ([1913] AC 417 at 437, [1911–13] All ER
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Rep 1 at 9): “As the paramount object must always be to do justice, the general rule as to publicity, after all only the means to an end, must accordingly yield. But the burden lies on those seeking to displace its application in the particular case to make out that the ordinary rules must as of necessity be superseded by this paramount consideration. The question is by no means one which, consistently with the spirit of our jurisprudence, can be dealt with by the judge as resting in his mere discretion as to what is expedient. The latter must treat it as one of principle, and as turning, not on convenience, but on necessity.” … That test is not easy to pass. It is not enough to show that dispensation would be convenient. It must be shown that it is a matter of necessity in order to avoid the subordination of the ends of justice to the means. I think that the learned judge in this case stated and applied the test correctly, and I cannot do better than quote from what he said ([1962] 3 All ER 178 at 180, [1963] Ch 381 at 386): “The jurisdiction regarding wards of court which is now exercised by the Chancery Division is an ancient jurisdiction deriving from the prerogative of the Crown as parens patriae. It is not based on the rights of parents, and its primary concern is not to ensure their rights but to ensure the welfare of the children … and now the legislature, by the Guardianship of Infants Act, 1925, s. 1, has expressly enacted that where, in any proceedings before any court, the custody or the upbringing of an infant is in question, the court in deciding that question shall regard the welfare of the infant as the first and paramount consideration. A ward of court case is not, therefore, an ordinary lis between the parties but partakes of an administrative character… In the ordinary lis between parties, the paramount purpose is that the parties should have their rights according to law, and in such cases the procedure, including the rules of evidence, is framed to serve that purpose. Where, however, the paramount purpose is the welfare of the infant, the procedure and rules of evidence should serve and certainly not thwart that purpose. Over a very large field in infant cases, the procedure and rules of evidence applicable to a lis between parties serve that purpose admirably and are habitually applied, but they should never be so rigidly applied as of inflexible right as to endanger or prejudice the very purpose which they should serve. In general, publicity is vital to the administration of justice. Disclosure to parties not only enables them to present their case fully but it provides in some degree the advantages of publicity; and it further ensures that the court has the assistance of those parties in arriving at the right decision. So when full disclosure is not made, it should be limited only to the extent essential to achieve the object of the jurisdiction and no further.” This is the essence of the matter. Where the judge sits as an arbiter between two parties, he need consider only what they put before him. If one or other omits something material and suffers from the omission, he must blame himself and not the judge. Where the judge sits purely as an arbiter and relies on the parties for his information, the parties have a correlative right that he should act only on information which they have had the opportunity of testing. Where the judge is not sitting purely or even primarily as an arbiter but is charged with the paramount duty of protecting the interests of one outside the conflict, a rule that is designed for just arbitrament cannot in all circumstances prevail.’
Mr Vain argues that the principle embodied in Official Solicitor v K applies only to wardship proceedings, and is therefore not applicable to the present case. I see no reason why this should be so. Section 1 of the Children Act 1989 required the judge, when considering the mother’s application for custody of and for the
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revocation of the father’s access to T, to treat the child’s welfare as the paramount consideration. As is clear from the passages I have quoted from the speeches in Official Solicitor v K, the application of that principle was the whole basis of their Lordships’ decision that the mother was not entitled as of right to disclosure of the Official Solicitor’s confidential reports and the medical report.
My conclusion that the principles laid down in Official Solicitor v K applied to cases relating to children who are not wards of court is confirmed by the decision of this court in Re C (a minor: irregularity of practice) [1991] 2 FLR 438. In that case this court held that it was permissible for a judge in the exercise of his discretion and acting in the paramount interests of the child, to see a court welfare officer privately in his chambers during a trial, and that there was no absolute objection to the receipt of a confidential report, but that the judge should only exercise his discretion to adopt either of these courses in exceptional circumstances. In his judgment, with which Thorpe J agreed, Dillon LJ applied the principles to be derived from Official Solicitor v K. He said (at 444): ‘In my judgment, all questions need to be decided by reference to what the House of Lords held in Re K.’
It is right to say that he records that counsel for the appellant, the father, had accepted there can be no distinction between the wardship jurisdiction and the jurisdiction under the Guardianship of Minors Act 1971 (now the Children Act 1989). However, it is clear that the court considered and adopted this concession as part of its reasoning.
In my opinion, therefore, a court which is considering an application for an order under ss 8 and 10 of the Children Act 1989 has the power, in its discretion, to receive and act on evidence adduced by one party, or emanating from a welfare officer, which is not disclosed to the other party. That power is, however, only to be exercised in most exceptional circumstances, in accordance with the principles laid down in Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201. Before ordering that any such evidence be not disclosed to another party, the court will have to consider it in order to satisfy itself that the disclosure of the evidence would be so detrimental to the welfare of the child or children under consideration as to outweigh the normal requirements for a fair trial that all evidence must be disclosed, so that all parties can consider it and if necessary seek to rebut it.
On this issue we were referred to other decisions of the courts. I have not found it necessary to cite them in this judgment because, without disrespect to counsel, I did not find that they assisted me to arrive at a conclusion on the issue of principle.
On the second issue, should this court then exercise its discretion to decide whether the evidence should not be disclosed, or order the question to be reheard, both counsel agreed that this court would be in as good a position to consider the matter as would a court of first instance, and that if we did so there would be a saving of time. We therefore agreed to this course, which involved us reading and considering the evidence which had not hitherto been disclosed.
Should an order be made that the mother’s evidence in support of her application, or any part of it, should not be disclosed to the father?
The evidence consists of an affidavit sworn by the mother on 26 March 1992, to which are exhibited reports by a consultant in child and family psychiatry, a social worker and a police officer. We have also been supplied with a psychiatric report dated 11 June 1992 from Dr McCann of the adolescent unit where L is at present staying.
The information and advice contained in these documents can be summarised as follows.
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In the latter part of 1991 L’s emotional condition gave grave cause for concern. On 30 December 1991 L informed a friend that her stepfather (the father in these proceedings) had sexually abused her. She expressed the fear that, if the father learnt that she had made this complaint, he would kill her.
These complaints were investigated by the social services department of Bedfordshire County Council in January 1992. L complained of indecent assaults and of the use of force—punching, kicking and holding her down—by the father. Since these disclosures, L has taken overdoses of paracetamol and cut her arms.
T became aware of the general nature of the complaints his sister was making, and of her fears for her life if the father should learn that she had made the complaints.
The mother terminated T’s access to the father in order to ensure that he did not, during such access inadvertently tell his father something of L’s complaints. This decision was made on the advice of the social services, mainly to protect L.
The report dated 11 June 1992 from Dr McCann includes the following recommendation, which I regard as extremely sensible:
‘I have been asked to consider whether I believe that it would be detrimental to [L’s] mental state if [the father] were to see [the mother’s] affidavit. In my opinion, the fear that [L] is currently experiencing about this issue is increasing steadily. The longer this fear is avoided, the greater it will become in [L’s] mind. [L] currently sees [the father] as very powerful but I believe part of this power lies in the “secret” that exists between [the father] and [L], i.e. the sexual abuse that has occurred to [L]. I do not believe that it would necessarily be detrimental to [L] if [the father] were to see [the mother’s] affidavit. It may be therapeutic for the abuse victim to confront the fear and progress forward thereafter. However, were this to happen, I feel strongly that it would need to occur while [L] was still an inpatient as she would need to feel that she was in a safe, containing environment to help her with her very real fear. For these reasons, I do not feel this step could have been taken while [L] was at home.’
Conclusion
If, at the inter partes hearing on 15 April 1992, Judge Wilson had been made aware of the decision of the House of Lords in Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201, and thus that he had the power to continue in force his ex parte order that the mother’s affidavit should not be disclosed, I have no doubt at all that it would have been wrong for him to exercise his discretion so as to continue the order in force. The order was sought, mainly if not entirely, for the protection of L, and it was T’s welfare which was the paramount consideration when considering whether he should continue to have access to his father. Even if it were suggested that in some way T might be harmed, eg by being put in a position where he had to try to conceal L’s allegations from his father, that possibility had to be weighed against the grave injustice to the father which resulted from non-disclosure. L’s allegations are, of course, extremely serious. It is quite wrong that, for an indefinite period, the father should not know of them and be given the opportunity to deny them if they are untrue or explain them if they are true in part. Balancing these factors, in my view the interests of justice to the father greatly outweighed any possible detriment to T.
But there is another aspect of the matter which is reflected in Dr McCann’s report. Having made these grave allegations, L must somehow be persuaded to overcome her expressed fear, and this can only be done when the allegations are disclosed to the father. I can understand that, while L was still at home, the
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mother would not wish the allegations to be disclosed. But, once L was staying at the adolescent unit, this ceased to be a valid reason for non-disclosure. I am far from sure that it was right to make the order for non-disclosure ex parte in the first place, though I well understand the judge’s anxiety to avoid what was presented to him as a real risk of harm to both children. But by the time the husband’s application for discharge of the ex parte order came to be heard, there was in my view no justification for continuing the order in force.
Although I have concluded that the learned judge made his decision of 15 April 1992 for reasons which, through no fault of his, were unsound, I am confident that the decision itself was correct. These are my reasons for the dismissal of the appeal.
BALCOMBE LJ. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgment of Glidewell LJ in this case. I agree with him that the effect of the decisions of the House of Lords in Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 19l, [1965] AC 201 and of this court in Re C (a minor: irregularity of practice) [1991] 2 FLR 438 is that in any case which is directly concerned with the welfare of a child the court has power to direct that material, the disclosure of which may be damaging to the child, shall not be disclosed to a party to the case. However, the jurisdiction should only be exercised in exceptional circumstances, and then only for the shortest period possible consonant with preserving the welfare of the child.
In the present case the relevant facts are set out in the judgment of Glidewell LJ and I do not repeat them. In my judgment it was quite impossible that the father should be kept in indefinite ignorance of the allegations made against him by L, since those allegations were the basis of the mother’s application that he be denied contact with his son T. If it was at any time proper to withhold from the father the nature of the allegations being made against him, it could only have been for such period as might have been necessary for L to be moved to a place of safety, so that the father did not know, and she knew that the father did not know, where she was. In my judgment the ex parte order of 27 March 1992 should have been limited accordingly. Equally, by the time of the inter partes hearing on 15 April 1992 it would have been clearly wrong to continue further the ban on the father being shown material containing L’s allegations against him, as the judge was minded to do had he not been convinced, wrongly, that he had no power to continue the ban.
For these reasons, as well as those given by Glidewell LJ with which I agree, it was inevitable that this appeal should be dismissed.
BOREHAM J. I have had the advantage of reading the judgments of Glidewell and Balcombe LJJ. I agree, for the reasons they have given, that this appeal must be dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Hampshire County Council v S
[1993] 1 All ER 944
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: FAMILY DIVISION
Lord(s): CAZALET J
Hearing Date(s): 17 SEPTEMBER, 13 OCTOBER 1992
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Contact order – Variation – Hearing – Local authority applying for variation of contact order – Justices varying contact order without reading documents filed – Justices dealing with application on basis of submissions only – Justices failing to give proper reasons and findings of fact for variation of order – Procedure to be followed by justices on interim applications – Children Act 1989, s 34(2) – Family Proceedings Courts (Children Act 1989) Rules 1991, r 21(1)(6)
On 19 March 1992 the parents of a five-year-old boy agreed to the making of an order under s 31 of the Children Act 1989 placing the child in the care of the local authority and a contact order under s 34(2)a under which the child and the parents were to have contact with a view to rehabilitation. The local authority subsequently became concerned at the effect of contact on the boy and suspended contact for seven days under s 34(6)b and applied for a variation of the contact order. At a hearing for directions on 18 June 1992 the matter was adjourned for an interim hearing on 25 June to decide only those matters relating to the reduction of contact, if any, pending the final hearing. Although no specific directions were given on 18 June as to the filing of evidence, the local authority filed statements from four different deponents and the guardian ad litem filed her report but the mother and father did not file any statements. On 25 June 1992 the justices, after seeking the views of the parties’ legal representatives as to how best to proceed given that there would not be enough time for evidence to be called and without having read any of the evidence filed, decided, contrary to the wishes of the local authority and guardian ad litem, to determine the question of interim contact on the basis of the parties’ submissions rather than reading all the statements. At the end of the hearing the justices made on order reducing the parents’ contact pending the final hearing and stated that their reasons would be given within one week. The parents appealed on the ground that the justices had acted contrary to r 21(1)c of the Family Proceedings Courts (Children Act 1989) Rules 1991, which required justices to read before the hearing any documents filed in respect of the hearing, and r 21(6), which provided that the justices had to state any findings of fact and the reasons for the court’s decision when making their order.
Held - (1) Although concerned with an interim application, the hearing on 25 June 1992 was a ‘hearing’ within r 21(1) of the 1991 rules involving the making of a judicial decision and the justices had failed to comply with the mandatory requirements of r 21(1) that before the hearing they had to read the documents which had been filed. Furthermore, since r 21(2) gave the justices a discretion to make directions as to the order of speeches and evidence, at the 18 June hearing
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for directions they could and should have ordered the parents to file written statements before the hearing on 25 June. It followed that the justices’ decision to deal with the interim application on the basis of submissions only without having read the filed statements was erroneous (see p 948 f j, p 949 b c and p 950 g, post).
(2) The limited statement given by the justices when making their order was a clear breach of r 21(6) since, although they were dealing with an interim application, the justices were not absolved from stating their findings of fact and giving proper reasons for their decision. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the justices’ order set aside (see p 948 f; p 949 g, p 950 g h and p 952 b, post).
Observations on the way in which justices should deal with interim applications in family proceedings courts (see p 950 j to 952 a, post).
Notes
For the making of care orders on the application of the local authority, see Supplement to 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 732A.
For the Children Act 1989, ss 31, 34, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 431, 437.
For the Family Proceedings Courts (Children Act 1989) Rules 1991, r 21, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1992 reissue) 338.
Cases referred to in judgment
Hillingdon London BC v H [1993] 1 All ER 198, [1993] Fam 43, [1992] 3 WLR 521.
W (minors) v Hertfordshire CC (1992) Times, 1 September.
Appeal
The parents of a child, S, who was in the care of the respondent, Hampshire County Council, appealed from the order of the Andover Family Proceedings Court made under s 34(9) of the Children Act 1989 and dated 25 June 1992, whereby it ordered that a contact order made on 19 March 1992 defining contact between S and the parents be varied so that the parents be limited to one two hour supervised visiting contact each week. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Mark Johnstone (instructed by Houghton Russell-Smith & Coward, Andover and Lemon Felon, Salisbury) for the parents.
Patricia Kelly (instructed by P C B Robertson, Winchester) for the local authority.
Roberta Holland (instructed by Dutton Gregory & Williams, Winchester) for the guardian ad litem.
Cur adv vult
13 October 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
CAZALET J. This appeal concerns a child, S, who is now nearly five years of age.
The first appellant is the mother of S. The second appellant is the father of S. I shall hereafter refer to the first and second appellants as ‘mother’ and ‘father’ respectively. They are jointly represented before me. The first respondent is the Hampshire County Council and the second respondent is S himself, who is represented by his guardian ad litem.
The mother and father appeal from an interim order made by the Andover Family Proceedings Court on 25 June 1992 when the court varied an order made by the family proceedings court on 19 March 1992.
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The order of 19 March 1992 had been made by consent and was to the effect that S, having already been moved from his parents’ home, should be placed in the care of the local authority, but with arrangements building up from visiting to staying contact with a view to there being a rehabilitation of S to his parents. The consent order of 19 March 1992 established a pattern which was to lead on to staying contact starting at about mid-April for one night each week.
This plan was set in train. However, soon after the staying contact of once a week had started the local authority became concerned as to its effect on S. As a result the local authority, in what appeared to it to be a worsening situation from S’s standpoint, resolved to apply to the family proceedings court for an order substantially reducing contact, and in particular prohibiting staying contact.
In the event, on 25 June 1992, when the court was first required to make an order, the matter had to be dealt with on an interim basis. An interim order was made to the effect that the mother’s and father’s contact to S should be reduced from 32 hours contact per week (which included unsupervised and staying contact) to two hours supervised contact once per week. It is against this interim order that the mother and father appeal.
Both the local authority and the guardian ad litem have been represented before me. For reasons to which I will turn in a moment they have indicated through counsel that because of the course which was followed in the lower court they are not in a position to oppose this appeal being allowed.
The consent care order made on 19 March 1992 was made under s 31 of the Children Act 1989. It was coupled with the contact order, to which I have referred, made under s 34(2) of that Act.
S had visiting contact to his parents on 30 May 1992; his next contact was due on 2 June 1992. In the light of their concern the local authority elected to exercise their powers under s 34(6) of the Act, which provides as follows:
‘An authority may refuse to allow the contact which would otherwise be required by virtue of subsection (1) or an order under this section if—(a) they are satisfied that it is necessary to do so in order to safeguard or promote the child’s welfare; and (b) the refusal—(i) is decided upon as a matter of urgency; and (ii) does not last for more than seven days.’
Because the next contact date was 2 June 1992 the local authority was entitled under this section, subject to being satisfied as to the other provisions required by the section, to suspend contact for up to seven days. After the seven-day period had almost elapsed the local authority issued its application, on 8 June 1992, to the family proceedings court, for a variation of contact. There was no hearing, interim or otherwise, at this stage, but it was agreed between the parties that pending the matter first coming before the court on 18 June 1992 some visiting, but not staying contact, should continue.
On 18 June 1992 the matter was listed for hearing before the Andover Family Proceedings Court. All parties were present. It was accepted by all concerned that that hearing day should be treated as being for directions only, with the matter to go over to 25 June 1992 on the basis that, as was indicated by the court clerk, the justices would then only have time to hear the ‘emergency’ issues and an interim order could only then be made. Two visiting contact visits were agreed during the intervening week.
The parties have agreed that there should be put before this court affidavits sworn to on behalf of the father and mother by the solicitors who represented them at the family proceedings court. At that stage the father and mother, although they had lived together for many years and continue so to do, were separately represented as it was thought that there might be a conflict of interest
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between them. The father’s representative swore to an affidavit on 4 August 1992 and an affidavit on behalf of the mother was sworn on 3 August 1992. The two deponents were present at court on both 18 and 25 June 1992. The mother’s representative exhibits to her affidavit a full note which she took of the proceedings before the justices and that is confirmed by the father’s representative. The court clerk took a very short note of the proceedings.
It is apparent from the evidence before me that, following the directions hearing on 18 June 1992, it was the understanding of all concerned that the hearing on 25 June was to be an interim hearing, with the afternoon set aside for it, and that only ‘emergency issues’ would be considered. It was understood that the ‘emergency issues’ were those matters which related to any reduction of contact pending the final hearing.
No specific directions were given on 18 June 1992 as to the filing of evidence. However by that time the local authority had filed, pursuant to r 17 of the Family Proceedings Courts (Children Act 1989) Rules 1991, SI 1991/1395, statements running to 31 pages from four different deponents, namely the maternal grandmother (with whom S was living), the social worker, the health visitor and a resource centre worker. It was however envisaged that the local authority would cause the four witnesses from whom the filed statements had been taken to attend at court on 25 June 1992 so that they would be available for the purpose of cross-examination.
Prior to the resumed hearing on 25 June 1992 the solicitors for the father sought by letter to obtain from the local authority an outline of those matters in the filed statements upon which the local authority would rely at the resumed hearing in support of the ‘emergency issues’. The local authority answered by stating the substance of the local authority’s case and that the witnesses concerned would be available for cross-examination.
In fact the hearing on 25 June 1992 did not start until about 3.40 pm. Because of the shortage of time views were sought of the legal representatives concerned as to how the matter could best proceed on the basis that there would not be time for evidence to be called. The mother and father had not by then filed any statements and so the only written material before the court comprised that filed by the local authority, and a report from the guardian ad litem dated 24 June 1992. For the reasons set out in her report the guardian ad litem advised that there should be an immediate change in the contact arrangements with a reduction to two supervised contacts each week of one to two hours duration.
At the start of the hearing the justices indicated that they were not in a position to hear evidence. They had not read any of the statements filed. Those appearing on behalf of the local authority and the guardian ad litem required the justices to read the filed statements. Those appearing on behalf of the mother and father submitted that it would be most unfair to the mother and father if such statements were to be read because there were no statements as yet filed by the mother and father, and the court would, in such circumstances, obtain a wholly one-sided view of the matter. This procedural point was argued and the justices retired in order to decide what course to adopt. The notes of evidence prepared by the clerk of the court indicate that they decided to determine the question of interim contact ‘on the basis of representation by parties rather than reading all the statements.' The matter proceeded on this basis and submissions were made by all concerned. Because the justices had not read the guardian ad litem’s report, the representative on behalf of the guardian ad litem then told the justices that she felt so strongly about the matter that she intended to make her own submissions and that would include reading the guardian’s statement to the court.
The hearing proceeded, with counsel on behalf of the local authority putting
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the case for reduced contact. This inevitably meant that counsel was obliged to make quite extensive reference to the detailed factual evidence in the statements filed by the local authority.
In answer to this, submissions were made to the court on behalf of the mother and father. Submissions were then made on behalf of the guardian ad litem and at the conclusion of the submissions the guardian herself addressed the court. She summarised the content of her report and recommended substantially reduced contact.
At about 5.40 pm the bench retired. At 6.15 pm when the bench returned the substance of what was then said by or on behalf of the chairman was as follows:
‘The welfare of the child must come first. We are aware of the need to do something urgently and have therefore decided to make the following interim order: one session per week from 2–4 pm at the Family Resources Centre until final order. The reasons should be given in writing within one week.’
There was a discussion as to a date for a directions hearing. The justices were told that witnesses required for the hearing would, for reasons of holiday, be in a difficulty in attending after 7 July until a date into September. The justices directed the parents to file their written statements of evidence by 9 July 1992.
The matter came back for a directions appointment on 9 July 1992. By that time the parents had filed their evidence. The matter was put over to 23 July for a further directions hearing. When the matter then came back before the justices on 23 July 1992 they transferred the case to the county court.
On 10 August 1992, on application, the county court certified that the hearing of the appeal was fit for vacation business. On 17 August 1992 leave to appeal out of time was given to the parents and directions were given as to the hearing at the care centre. On 7 and 8 September the care centre court at Portsmouth, at the end of a two-day hearing, gave directions as to interim contact pending the final hearing. This final hearing is now to take place at the care centre starting on 23 November next.
Although the court procedure on how to deal with interim applications of the kind raised in the present case has not as yet been fully clarified, it is apparent that the justices in the present case made a number of serious errors.
When the matter came back before them on 25 June 1992 it was envisaged that the limited time available would only permit an interim order to be made. The statements of the four witnesses to be called on behalf of the local authority had in fact been filed pursuant to r 17 by 18 June 1992; yet at no time had the justices read them. Rule 21(1) provides as follows:
‘Before the hearing, the justice or justices who will be dealing with the case shall read any documents which have been filed under rule 17 in respect of the hearing.’
Although concerned with an interim application, this hearing involved the making of a judicial decision and was a hearing within the meaning of r 21(1). The justices therefore failed to comply with the mandatory provisions of r 21(1), which required that, before the hearing, they must read those documents which had been filed. Accordingly they should not have permitted any argument as to whether they were required to read them; put quite simply they were obliged to read these statements, including the report filed on behalf of the guardian ad litem before the hearing began. I would add that, in my view, the justices should, on 18 June 1992, have directed that the parents file written statements before the hearing on 25 June 1992. These statements could have been short and to the
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point, dealing only with the immediate issues. Fuller statements could later have been filed on their behalf prior to the final hearing. Had this course been taken the justices would have had before them the substance of each party’s case in writing. Rule 21(2) provides as follows:
‘The justices’ clerk at a directions appointment, or the court at a hearing or directions appointment, may give directions as to the order of speeches and evidence.’
Under this rule justices have a discretion, which must always be exercised judicially, to give directions as to the order of speeches and evidence. However because the justices in this case had not read the filed statements they were not, in my view, in a position properly to exercise their discretion under this rule; accordingly any direction to deal with the interim application on the basis of submissions only without having read the filed statements was wholly erroneous. If, because of the shortage of time on that date, they had decided after reading the filed statements to hear submissions only, they should, bearing in mind the substantial change of direction arising from the interim order which they proposed to make, have taken much more positive steps to ensure that the final hearing took place at an earlier stage, notwithstanding the difficulties that certain witnesses had in attendance at court. A timetable to lead to an early hearing should have been devised. Furthermore, in my view, given that the justices were to permit the guardian ad litem to give her advice, they should also have permitted her to have been cross-examined at that stage.
I turn now to the justices’ reasons. Rule 21(5) and (6) provides as follows:
‘(5) Before the court makes an order or refuses an application or request, the justices’ clerk shall record in writing—(a) the names of the justice or justices constituting the court by which the decision is made, and (b) in consultation with the justice or justices, the reasons for the court’s decision and any findings of fact.
(6) When making an order or when refusing an application, the court, or one of the justices constituting the court by which the decision is made, shall state any findings of fact and the reasons for the court’s decision.’
I have already referred to the short statement given by the bench when making its order. This limited statement was, in my view, a clear breach of r 21(6). Although this was an interim application, the court was not absolved from stating its findings of fact and giving proper reasons for the basis of its decision.
Furthermore, it does not appear that the appropriate record was made by the justices’ clerk, at that time, in compliance with r 21(5). Such a record must be prepared before the court makes its order.
On 2 July 1992 I was told that a statement of the justices’ reasons was served on the parties concerned. In W (minors) v Hertfordshire CC (1992) Times, 1 September Booth J held as follows:
‘Rule 21 was mandatory. In every case the decision-making process was the same. Parties were entitled to know the reasons and the findings. On July 28 a document purporting to contain the justices’ reasons became available to the parties. However, in view of the failure to comply with the provisions of rule 21 the reasons could not be admitted to the appellate court: see Hillingdon London BC v H ([1993] 1 All ER 198, [1993] Fam 43).’
The question accordingly arises as to whether in fact the justices’ reasons are admissible on this appeal. No point was taken before me in regard to this, doubtless because no party opposes this appeal. However the reasons themselves
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do not appear to comply with the formal requirements of r 21(5)(a), namely that of setting out the names of the justices concerned, although the substance of the decision is then, in my view, adequately set out. Had reasons in this form, or substantially in this form been given on 25 June 1992, then no question could have been raised as to a breach of r 21(6). Nevertheless this was not the course which was followed. No proper reasons were given prior to the order being made. Accordingly following W (minors) v Hertfordshire CC the justices’ reasons are not strictly admissible before me on this appeal.
It is not suggested in the present case that the justices did not take a great deal of care in reaching their decision. However, it is inevitable that the drafting of findings and reasons can, particularly when a number of individuals are concerned, take much time even when the actual decision has been made following full discussion. In the present case the justices, as permitted by r 21(6), would have been well advised to have required one of their number to come back the following court day and at that stage (and not before) give their decision. This would have avoided the time pressure to which they must have felt subjected and would have enabled the appropriate written record to have been completed before the order was made.
I turn now to the note of the hearing made by the clerk to the court. Rule 20 reads as follows:
‘The justices’ clerk or the court shall keep a note of the substance of the oral evidence given at the hearing of, or directions appointment in, relevant proceedings.’
It is plain that the note made by the clerk is extremely short, omitting reference to a number of the main submissions. Furthermore there is no reference in the note to the fact that submissions were made on behalf of the guardian ad litem, nor indeed that the guardian ad litem herself gave oral advice to the court.
Under r 20 the justices’ clerk is required to keep a note of the oral evidence. However, in the present case, where competing submissions, in the absence of oral evidence, on matters of substances are made by the different parties, I consider that it is desirable that the justices’ clerk should, as a matter of practice, keep a much fuller note than was taken in the present case. Further and in any event, the note should have made reference to the fact that the guardian ad litem had given advice to the court and to the nature of that advice (see r 11(5)). In fact the disadvantages arising from the paucity of the note by the clerk have been alleviated by the full note taken by the legal representatives who were at court.
For the reasons which I have given the hearing before the justices was, in my view, fatally flawed on the grounds of the improper and erroneous procedures adopted. However, as a result of the justices transferring this case to the care centre on 23 July 1992 matters have, happily, proceeded satisfactorily from there and, as I have indicated, an interim order has already been made with the hearing date for the substantive application fixed. It follows therefore that it is not necessary for me to make any order on the appeal other than that of setting aside the interim order which the justices made on 18 June 1992.
I have been told that, in the light of the procedural problems which have arisen in the present case, it would help if I was to give some guidance as to the way in which justices should deal with interim applications of the nature raised in these proceedings. Accordingly with the President’s approval I make the following observations.
1. Justices should bear in mind that they are not, at an interim hearing, required to make a final conclusion; indeed it is because they are unable to reach a final conclusion that they are empowered to make an interim order. An interim
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order or decision will usually be required so as to establish a holding position after weighing all the relevant risks, pending the final hearing. Nevertheless justices must always ensure that the substantive issue is tried and determined at the earliest appropriate date. Any delay in determining the question before the court is likely to prejudice the welfare of the child (see s 1(2) of the 1989 Act).
2. If justices find that they are unable to provide the appropriate hearing time, be it through pressure of work or for some other reason, they must, when an urgent interim order may have to be made, consider taking steps pursuant to r 14(2)(h) to transfer the proceedings laterally to an adjacent family proceedings court.
3. At the start of a hearing which is concerned with interim relief, justices will usually be called upon to exercise their discretion under r 21(2) as to the order of speeches and evidence. The circumstances prevailing will almost certainly not permit full evidence to be heard. Accordingly, in such proceedings, justices should rarely make findings as to disputed facts. These will have to be left over to the final hearing.
4. Justices must bear in mind that the greater the extent to which an interim order deviates from a previous order or the status quo the more acute the need is likely to be for an early final hearing date. Any disruption in a child’s life almost invariably requires early resolution. Justices should be cautious about changing a child’s residence under an interim order. The preferred course should be to leave the child where it is with a direction for safeguards and the earliest possible hearing date.
5. When an interim order may be made which will lead to a substantial change in a child’s position, justices should consider permitting limited oral evidence to be led and challenged by way of cross-examination. However, it will necessarily follow that, in cross-examination, the evidence will have to be restricted to the issues which are essential at the interim stage. To this end the court may well have to intervene to ensure that this course is followed and that there is not a ‘dress rehearsal’ of the full hearing.
6. Justices should, if possible, ensure that they have before them written advice from the guardian ad litem. When there are substantial issues between the parties the guardian should, if possible, be at court to give oral advice. A party who is opposed to a recommendation made by the guardian should normally be given an opportunity to put questions to him/her in regard to advice given to the court.
7. Justices must always comply with the mandatory requirements of the 1991 rules. These include compliance with: (a) r 21(1), which requires the justices to read, before the hearing, any documents which have been filed under r 17; (b) r 21 (5), which requires the justices’ clerk to make the appropriate written record of the hearing and in consultation with the justices to record the reasons for the court’s decision and any findings of fact; and (c) r 21(6), which requires the court, when making its order, or giving its decision, to state any findings of fact and the reasons for the court’s decision.
8. If shortage of time or some other circumstance delays the court in the preparation of its written findings of fact and reasons, justices should adjourn the making of their order or the giving of their decision until the following court day or the earliest possible date. At that further hearing it is permissible for one of their number to return to court and state the decision, findings of fact and reasons (see r 21 (6)). When the length of a hearing lasts beyond normal hours it will often be sensible for the court to take this course so that it is not formulating its reasons and making perhaps a difficult decision under the sort of pressure which can arise when a sitting runs late into the day.
9. When justices grant interim relief, they should state their findings and
Page 952 of [1993] 1 All ER 944
reasons concisely. Although it will not normally be open to them to make findings on disputed facts (because the court will not have heard the full evidence) it may assist if justices summarise briefly the essential factual issues between the parties.
I return now to the instant appeal. For the reasons which I have already given, I allow this appeal but make no other order save that of setting aside the order made by the justices on 25 June 1992.
Appealed allowed.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
Costellow v Somerset County Council
[1993] 1 All ER 952
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, STUART-SMITH AND SIMON BROWN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 28 OCTOBER, 9 NOVEMBER 1992
Action – Dismissal – Failure to serve statement of claim – Application to dismiss action for want of prosecution – Plaintiff failing to deliver statement of claim within time specified in rules of court – Plaintiff guilty of inexcusable but not inordinate delay – Defendant not prejudiced by delay – Appropriate practice to be followed in deciding whether action should be dismissed.
On 15 September 1987 the plaintiff suffered personal injuries when he slipped on loose gravel thrown onto a pavement during road resurfacing works. He consulted solicitors but no claim was intimated to the defendant highway authority until a letter before action dated 13 September 1990. The following day a writ was issued, just within the three-year limitation period, against the defendants claiming damages for personal injuries but it was not served on the defendants until 11 January 1991, just within the four-month period allowed for service. On 24 May 1991, by which time no statement of claim had been served despite repeated reminders and threats to apply for the action to be dismissed, the defendants issued a summons to dismiss the plaintiff’s action for failure to comply with RSC Ord 18, r 1 by serving a statement of claim, failure to serve a medical report or schedule of loss in breach of RSC Ord 18, r 12(4)(a) or for want of prosecution. The district judge made the order sought and his decision was affirmed on appeal by the judge, who also dismissed an application by the plaintiff for leave to serve the statement of claim out of time on the ground that the plaintiff had not shown good reason for the delay. The plaintiff appealed, contending that the delay complained of after the issue of proceedings had caused no prejudice or serious risk of prejudice to the defendant, that although it was inexcusable it was not inordinate and that therefore the action should be allowed to proceed.
Held - In the ordinary way and in the absence of special circumstances, such as procedural abuse, questionable tactics, contumelious and intentional default or where a default was repeated or persisted in after a peremptory order, the court should not exercise its inherent jurisdiction to dismiss a plaintiff’s action for want of prosecution unless the delay complained of after the issue of the proceedings
Page 953 of [1993] 1 All ER 952
had caused at least a real risk of prejudice to the defendant. A similar approach should govern applications to dismiss on failure to comply with a time limit under Ords 19, 24, 25, 28 and 34. Furthermore, the approach to applications to extend the time limit under Ord 3, r 5 should in most cases not be very different and save in special cases or exceptional circumstances it would rarely be appropriate to refuse the plaintiff an extension because of a procedural fault where the overall justice of the case required that the action be allowed to proceed. Although the plaintiff’s case was not very strong there was no ground for dismissing the action for want of prosecution in the absence of prejudice to the defendants. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the plaintiff’s application for an extension of time in which to serve the statement of claim would be granted (see p 960 a to h, post).
Per curiam. There is no general rule that where the defendant seeks to dismiss an action and the plaintiff seeks an extension of time the plaintiff’s application should be heard first, with dismissal being the inevitable consequence if he fails to show good reason for his procedural default. In most cases it is appropriate for the court to hear both summonses together, since in considering what justice requires the court is concerned to do justice to both parties, and the case is best viewed in the round (see p 959 h j and p 960 g h, post).
Notes
For judgment in default of service of statement of claim, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 404, and for cases on the subject, see 37(1) Digest (Reissue) 246, 1644–1645 and 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 27, 3092.
Cases referred to in judgments
Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, [1968] 2 WLR 366, CA.
Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297, [1977] 3 WLR 38, HL.
Erskine Communications Ltd v Worthington (1991) Times, 8 July, [1991] CA Transcript 725.
Hytrac Conveyors Ltd v Conveyors International Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 415, [1983] 1 WLR 44, CA.
Price v Dannimac Ltd (1990) Independent, 3 August, [1990] CA Transcript 579.
Revici v Prentice Hall Inc [1969] 1 All ER 772, [1969] 1 WLR 157, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Abouchalache v Hilton International Hotels (UK) Ltd (1982) 126 SJ 857, CA.
Boys v Chaplin [1968] 1 All ER 283, [1968] 2 QB 1, CA; affd [1969] 2 All ER 1085, [1971] AC 356, HL.
Clough v Clough [1968] 1 All ER 1179, [1968] 1 WLR 525, CA.
Dept of Transport v Chris Smaller (Transport) Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 897, [1989] AC 1 197, HL.
Dutton v Spink & Beeching (Sales) Ltd [1977] 1 All ER 287, CA.
Greek City Co Ltd v Demetriou (trading as Spectron Electronics), Greek City Co Ltd v Athanasiou (trading as Alpha Electrical Contractors) [1983] 2 All ER 921.
Halls v O’Dell [1992] 2 QB 393, CA.
Marlton (an infant) v Lee-Leviten [1968] 2 All ER 874, [1968] 1 WLR 1214, CA.
Martin v Turner [1970] 1 All ER 256, [1970] 1 WLR 82, CA.
Morelle Ltd v Wakeling [1955] 1 All ER 708, [1955] 2 QB 379, CA.
Rowe v Tregaskes [1968] 3 All ER 447, [1968] 1 WLR 1475, CA.
Young v Bristol Aeroplane Co Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 293, [1944] KB 718, CA; affd [1946] 1 All ER 98, [1946] AC 163, HL.
Page 954 of [1993] 1 All ER 952
Interlocutory appeal
The plaintiff, Joseph Henry William Costellow, appealed with the leave of the judge from the decision of Sir Gervase Sheldon sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 11 November 1991 dismissing the plaintiff’s appeal from the decision of District Judge Turner sitting in chambers at Taunton given on 6 August 1991 striking out the plaintiff’s claim pursuant to RSC Ord 19, r 1 for failure to serve a statement of claim within the time limited by RSC Ord 18, r 1 and refusing to extend the time for serving the statement of claim in an action in which the plaintiff claimed from the defendants, Somerset County Council, as the highway authority responsible for the maintenance and/or repair of St Augustine Street, Taunton, Somerset, (1) damages for personal injuries and consequential losses sustained on 15 September 1987 by reason of the negligence and/or breach of duty of the defendants, their servants or agents with regard to the carrying out of the maintenance and/or repair of the highway and (2) interest pursuant to s 35A of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
Dermod O’Brien QC and Stephen Archer (instructed by Clarke Willmott & Clarke, Taunton) for the plaintiff.
Timothy Preston QC and Henry de Lotbiniere (instructed by Porter Bartlett & Mayo, Yeovil) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
9 November 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. On 6 August 1991 District Judge Turner, sitting in Taunton, struck out the plaintiff’s action for failure to serve a statement of claim. That decision was affirmed on 11 November 1991 by Sir Gervase Sheldon, sitting as a judge of the High Court in Exeter, who also refused an application by the plaintiff for an extension of time to serve a statement of claim. The plaintiff challenges the judge’s decision with leave granted by the judge.
The facts giving rise to the appeal are of the simplest. The plaintiff says that on 15 September 1987 he slipped on loose gravel thrown onto a pavement in Taunton during road resurfacing works. He suffered personal injuries as a result. He consulted solicitors but no claim was intimated to the defendants until a letter before action dated 13 September 1990. A writ was issued against the defendants on the following day, just within the three-year limitation period.
In October the defendants called for a statement of claim, although the writ had not been served, and the plaintiff’s solicitors said they would serve one. But they did not do so. The writ was served on 11 January 1991, just within the four-month period allowed for service.
The statement of claim became due on 2 February 1991. The plaintiff’s solicitors invited the defendants’ solicitors on 11 February to agree to a moratorium in service of the statement of claim, but the defendants’ solicitors refused to agree and spoke of applying to dismiss for want of prosecution. On 1 March 1991 the plaintiff’s solicitors sought to explain their reasons for delay in serving the statement of claim, but the defendants’ solicitors again threatened to apply for dismissal of the action. On 24 May 1991, no statement of claim having been served, the defendants duly issued a summons. In this they asked that the plaintiff’s claim be dismissed for failure to comply with RSC Ord 18, r 1 by serving a statement of claim, and alternatively on the ground that no medical report or schedule of loss had been served, in breach of Ord 18, r 12(4)(a), and,
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alternatively, for want of prosecution. When the summons was heard by the district judge he had no evidence before him other than an affidavit of the defendants exhibiting the correspondence. He made the order asked. The plaintiff’s solicitors had by then, on 25 June 1991, tried to serve a statement of claim together with a medical report and schedule of special damage, which the defendant had refused to accept.
By the date of the appeal to the judge on 11 November 1991 there had been two changes. First, the plaintiff’s solicitors had issued a summons seeking leave to serve the statement of claim out of time. Secondly, the plaintiff’s solicitor had sworn an affidavit seeking to explain and excuse the delay. He advanced three reasons. Following the accident in September 1987 the plaintiff had suffered another accident and had instructed his solicitors to concentrate on that. There had been doubt as to the local authority responsible for the pavement where the original accident had occurred. And, most importantly, there had been difficulty in arranging an appointment for the medical examination of the plaintiff and obtaining a medical report.
On the appeal, the judge directed himself in accordance with a recent decision of the Court of Appeal in Price v Dannimac Ltd (1990) Independent, 3 August, which I discuss below. With reference to that case he said, according to the approved note of his judgment:
‘It is for the plaintiff as applicant in that application [for an extension of time to serve the statement of claim] to satisfy the court that time should be extended. The plaintiff was very seriously in default and had to tender a good reason for the delay.’
On the instant case, he said:
‘I am conscious of the fact that greater delay occurred in the three years and the delay since then has been relatively minor. I approach the matter on the basis that in order to extend time, the plaintiff has to satisfy me there is good reason for the delay. I have read the affidavit by [the plaintiff’s solicitor] and I am not persuaded there was good reason.’
This last conclusion of the judge is not challenged. The plaintiff accepts there was no good reason for delay in serving the statement of claim. If the medical report and schedule of special damage were not ready, application could have been made to the court under Ord 18, r 12(1B).
In conclusion, the judge held that he should exercise his discretion to extend time, as under Ord 6, r 8, only if the plaintiff showed a good reason for his delay:
‘That is the principle which should apply in the present instance although the rules are not identical. I am not persuaded to grant leave. That is the end of the matter. Dismissal is a formality. I would in any event have taken the view that I would have complied with the application of the defendant and would have dismissed the action and upheld the decision of District Judge Turner.’
In Price v Dannimac Ltd a personal injuries plaintiff delayed in issuing her writ and delayed in serving it. There was then a delay of some 22 months in serving a statement of claim. The plaintiff sought an extension of time to serve it. The defendant applied to dismiss for want of prosecution. When the matter reached a deputy judge on appeal he directed himself:
‘If the defendants are unable to persuade me that this action should be dismissed for want of prosecution then there is no reason to refuse the leave
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which the plaintiff seeks. Such a conclusion of fact on that issue would make this an appropriate case to go forward to trial.’
Commenting on this direction, Fox LJ said (and I read from the transcript):
‘That may have the effect of reversing the burden of proof in relation to the application for extension of time. It is for the plaintiff as applicant in that application to satisfy the court that time should be extended. If the plaintiff fails to discharge that burden, then the action is defunct. It can go no further. Striking out would follow as a formality. If the application to extend time failed, there would be no action to go to trial. The result is that the decision on either application may have the practical effect of deciding the whole matter. If, however, the application to dismiss the action for want of prosecution fails, the plaintiff still has to persuade the court that it is a proper case to extend time for delivery of the statement of claim. The position here is that the plaintiff is very seriously in default. She was no less than 22 months out of time in serving the statement of claim. In order to justify an extension of time she must tender a good reason for the delay.’
It is evident that in the present case the learned judge based himself in particular on that last sentence.
Later in his judgment Fox LJ said:
‘This is a case of very serious delay amounting almost to two years before the statement of claim was attempted to be served. In my view, the evidence comes nowhere near justifying that delay. The evidence is thin in the extreme. One is given little or no information at all as to what was actually done, what inquiries were made and when they were made to enable the claim to be proceeded with. The result, in my view, is that the evidence is quite inadequate to explain the delay and does not justify an order extending time under Ord 3, r 5. I would, therefore, dismiss the application to extend time. That is really enough to dispose of the case but for completeness let me consider the application to dismiss for want of prosecution.’
He went on to hold that the plaintiff’s delay had been prejudicial to the defendant and that the action should be dismissed for want of prosecution. Johnson J, the other member of the court, took the same view on both points.
Price v Dannimac Ltd is relied on by the editors of The Supreme Court Practice 1993 Vol 1, para 19/1/4 as authority for this proposition:
‘When the court is faced with an application by the plaintiff for an extension of time in which to serve a statement of claim under O. 3, r. 5 and O. 18, r. 1, and a cross-application by the defendant to dismiss the action for want of prosecution under O. 19, r. 1, it should consider the plaintiff’s application first, since it is for the plaintiff to satisfy the court that time should be extended, and, if he fails to discharge that burden, the cross-application becomes a mere formality …’
On the hearing of this appeal our attention was drawn (as that of the judge below was not) to a decision of the Court of Appeal given on 22 May 1991, Erskine Communications Ltd v Worthington (1991) Times, 8 July. The facts and procedural history of that case were very different from those of Price v Dannimac Ltd and the present case. The common features were delay (of about three months) in service of a statement of claim and application by the defendants to dismiss the action for want of prosecution. At first instance the judge declined to dismiss for want of prosecution and gave the plaintiffs leave to serve a statement of claim out of time.
Page 957 of [1993] 1 All ER 952
The Court of Appeal affirmed that decision, and in doing so made valuable observations on the correct approach to issues of this kind. In argument in that case, the defendants had relied on Hytrac Conveyors Ltd v Conveyors International Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 415, [1983] 1 WLR 44 and also Price v Dannimac Ltd. Mustill LJ, in a leading judgment with which Balcombe and Woolf LJJ agreed, said (and I read from the transcript):
‘On these authorities the appellants based a number of propositions. It is convenient to take the first three together. They are :—(1) there is a difference between the standards to be applied when the plaintiff requires an extension of the time for delivering his statement of claim and when the defendant seeks to have the action dismissed under the general jurisdiction; (2) the burden of proof is different in the two cases; (3) whereas in the present case there are cross-applications the question of extending the time for service should be considered first. As regards the first and second of these propositions, I am willing to accept that an application to extend time in the context of a failure to comply with rules of court may be approached in a rather different light from an application to dismiss for want of prosecution. In the one instance the plaintiff has by instituting his action submitted himself to an explicit and mandatory regime, set out in the rules. If he wishes his action to continue notwithstanding his transgression of these rules, he has some work to do, in the sense of persuading the court that in the interests of justice the action ought to go ahead, whereas in the case of an application to dismiss under the general jurisdiction, where often the plaintiff’s lack of progress does not directly infringe any rule of court, the defendant must make the running so as to show that there is good reason why the proceedings, apparently well constituted, should be brought to a halt. Thus, I am ready to go this far with the appellants that the principles, so far as there are any, governing the application to extend and the application to dismiss may on occasion require the facts to be looked at in a rather different perspective. So that, for example, the inability of the defendant to prove that he has suffered detriment through the delay, or the fact that a fresh action may be started within the time limit, are now regarded as almost inevitably fatal to an attempt to dismiss, whereas in the context of a long overdue statement of claim, which is not only a breach of the rules but may leave the defendant without any clear idea of the case which he has to meet, may call for an assessment which treats the plaintiff more severely. Nevertheless, these are only shades of emphasis. For my part, I deprecate the attempts which are constantly made to cram the general discretions conferred by the rules of court into a set of rigid formulae, expressed in terms of the burden of proof, and so on. The rules are an indispensable framework for the orderly administration of justice. But they are no more. They should not be a prison restricting the free exercise by the court of its powers to conduct the litigation brought before it in whatever way, consistently with rules, seems [most] fair in the circumstances of the individual case. Thus, when one comes to regard the appellants’ third proposition, its artificiality is easily seen. In some cases for example where the real vice is not the plaintiff’s breach of a rule, but his consistent delay in prosecuting the action, it will be sensible to look at the dismissal first. In others, the total delay may not be long, so that a fair hearing is still feasible; and yet the plaintiff’s breach of the rules may be serious enough, and the immediate consequences sufficiently damaging, to justify a course which enables the defendant to have the action disposed of with all the attendant costs, even if at some later date a properly prepared and
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conducted action can be started afresh. In still other cases, the factors weighing in the scales of justice may be substantially the same, whichever of the cross-applications is considered. It is true that in Price v Dannimac Ltd the court started with the application to extend; but it does not follow that this is the only permissible point of entry. It is also true that the court disapproved of the judge’s formulation, quoted above, which entailed that failure on dismissal inevitably led to the granting of an extension. But this does not imply that, because in one case it is the defendant and in the other the plaintiff who makes the application, the nature of the inquiry to be performed, and the outcome of it, will necessarily be different. In some instances it will be sensible to start with the extension; in others with the dismissal; and in the remainder the best course will be to look at the merits of both applications together. The appellants’ next proposition is also founded on Price v Dannimac Ltd, and is to the effect that a plaintiff who is late in tendering a statement of claim must furnish a convincing excuse for the delay if his application for an extension of time is to succeed. I do not agree. I go this far with the appellants, that the reference to an “excuse” in Price v Dannimac Ltd must have meant “an acceptable explanation”, not a mere assertion that the person in charge of the action forgot the statement of claim or was too busy to get on with it. I also accept, what is obvious, that the tendering of an acceptable excuse, such as illness, will prompt a more sympathetic response to the application than if the omission was caused by neglect. Furthermore, there is no doubt, as I have already said, that the party guilty of inexcusable delay in complying with the rules, rather than his opponent, has to make the running when the court is asked to exercise a discretion. This is, I believe, all that can be extracted by way of principle from Revici v Prentice Hall Inc [1969] 1 All ER 772, [1969] 1 WLR 157, a case in which, it may be noted, the applicant sought an extension of time for appealing, and was therefore in a situation in which his opponent had obtained an order which on the face of it was final. But it would be absurd to say that every instance of overstepping the time limit without excuse, however short and however lacking in harmful consequence to the defendant, should be punished by the loss of the action. I am confident that the court in Price v Dannimac Ltd intended no such result.’
It is plain that the court would not have accepted the stark proposition quoted from the current Supreme Court Practice. The difference of approach between Price v Dannimac Ltd and Erskine Communications Ltd v Worthington is, indeed, referred to in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 1, para 3/5/6.
On the hearing of this appeal, counsel for the appellant plaintiff criticised the decision in Price v Dannimac Ltd. It was, he argued, inconsistent with the line of authority established by leading cases such as Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229 and Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297 to dismiss actions where, as here, the plaintiff’s delay complained of after the issue of proceedings had caused no prejudice or serious risk of prejudice to the defendant. Put shortly, he submitted that the delay involved in almost every application to strike out for want of prosecution carries with it a failure by the plaintiff to comply with a procedural time limit and thus his need to apply for an extension of time. To refuse an extension and therefore dismiss the action merely because the delay is inexcusable is, he submits, wholly inconsistent with the great body of jurisprudence recognising that actions are not ordinarily dismissed for want of prosecution unless the delay is not merely
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inexcusable but also inordinate and, more pertinently to this appeal, such as to cause prejudice. It is a powerful argument.
Counsel for the defendants did not argue for a rigid approach along the lines suggested by The Supreme Court Practice but did point to the plaintiff’s four and a half month delay in serving his statement of claim, following a long delay in telling the defendants of his claim and issuing proceedings, and following repeated reminders and threats by the defendants. He could not, however, point to any prejudice the defendants might have suffered as a result of the plaintiff’s failure to serve a statement of claim in time.
We are told that there is some uncertainty among practitioners and judges as to the appropriate practice in situations such as this. It is plainly desirable that we should give such guidance as we can.
As so often happens, this problem arises at the intersection of two principles, each in itself salutary. The first principle is that the rules of court and the associated rules of practice, devised in the public interest to promote the expeditious dispatch of litigation, must be observed. The prescribed time limits are not targets to be aimed at or expressions of pious hope but requirements to be met. This principle is reflected in a series of rules giving the court a discretion to dismiss on failure to comply with a time limit: Ord 19, r 1, Ord 24, r 16(1), Ord 25, r 1(4) and (5), Ord 28, r 10(1) and Ord 34, r 2(2) are examples. This principle is also reflected in the court’s inherent jurisdiction to dismiss for want of prosecution.
The second principle is that a plaintiff should not in the ordinary way be denied an adjudication of his claim on its merits because of procedural default, unless the default causes prejudice to his opponent for which an award of costs cannot compensate. This principle is reflected in the general discretion to extend time conferred by Ord 3, r 5, a discretion to be exercised in accordance with the requirements of justice in the particular case. It is a principle also reflected in the liberal approach generally adopted in relation to the amendment of pleadings.
Neither of these principles is absolute. If the first principle were rigidly enforced, procedural default would lead to dismissal of actions without any consideration of whether the plaintiff’s default had caused prejudice to the defendant. But the court’s practice has been to treat the existence of such prejudice as a crucial, and often a decisive, matter. If the second principle were followed without exception, a well-to-do plaintiff willing and able to meet orders for costs made against him could flout the rules with impunity, confident that he would suffer no penalty unless or until the defendant could demonstrate prejudice. This would circumscribe the very general discretion conferred by Ord 3, r 5, and would indeed involve a substantial rewriting of the rule.
The resolution of problems such as the present cannot in my view be governed by a single universally applicable rule of thumb. A rigid, mechanistic approach is inappropriate. Where, as here, the defendant seeks to dismiss and the plaintiff seeks an extension of time, there can be no general rule that the plaintiff’s application should be heard first, with dismissal of his action as an inevitable consequence if he fails to show a good reason for his procedural default. In the great mass of cases, it is appropriate for the court to hear both summonses together, since, in considering what justice requires, the court is concerned to do justice to both parties, the plaintiff as well as the defendant, and the case is best viewed in the round. In the present case, there was before the district judge no application by the plaintiff for extension, although there was before the judge. It is in my view of little or no significance whether the plaintiff makes such an application or not: if he does not, the court considering the defendant’s application
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to dismiss will inevitably consider the plaintiff’s position and, if the court refuses to dismiss, it has power to grant the plaintiff any necessary extension whether separate application is made or not.
Cases involving procedural abuse (such as Hytrac Conveyors Ltd v Conveyors International Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 415, [1983] 1 WLR 44) or questionable tactics (such as Revici v Prentice Hall Inc [1969] 1 All ER 772, [1969] 1 WLR 157) may call for special treatment. So, of course, will cases of contumelious and intentional default and cases where a default is repeated or persisted in after a peremptory order. But in the ordinary way, and in the absence of special circumstances, a court will not exercise its inherent jurisdiction to dismiss a plaintiff’s action for want of prosecution unless the delay complained of after the issue of proceedings has caused at least a real risk of prejudice to the defendant. A similar approach should govern applications made under Ords 19, 24, 25, 28 and 34. The approach to applications under Ord 3, r 5 should not in most cases be very different. Save in special cases or exceptional circumstances, it can rarely be appropriate, on an overall assessment of what justice requires, to deny the plaintiff an extension (where the denial will stifle his action) because of a procedural default which, even if unjustifiable, has caused the defendant no prejudice for which he cannot be compensated by an award of costs. In short, an application under Ord 3, r 5 should ordinarily be granted where the overall justice of the case requires that the action be allowed to proceed.
In the present case, the judge was in my view misled by Price v Dannimac Ltd and by reliance on an inappropriate analogy with Ord 6, r 8 into taking much too narrow a view of the task before him. Had he viewed the case in the round, he would have been bound to hold that there was no ground for dismissing the action for want of prosecution in the absence of prejudice to the defendants. He would also have felt it unjust to stifle the plaintiff’s claim on the basis of a delay which he described as ‘relatively minor’, however lame the excuses for it, in the absence of such prejudice. The plaintiff’s case may not be very strong, but on a proper direction in law the conclusion is in my view inescapable that he should not be precluded from pursuing it for whatever it is worth. Since the judge’s exercise of discretion was in my judgment vitiated by misdirection, it is for this court to exercise its discretion afresh. I would do so by granting the plaintiff the extension he seeks and refusing the defendants’ application to dismiss for want of prosecution.
I would accordingly allow the appeal.
STUART-SMITH LJ. I agree.
SIMON BROWN LJ. I also agree.
Appeal allowed. Order of judge set aside; plaintiff to have necessary extension of time to serve statement of claim; defendants’ application to dismiss for want of prosecution dismissed; plaintiff’s solicitors personally to pay costs of hearing before district judge; defendants to pay plaintiff ‘s costs of hearing before judge and of appeal.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Trill and another v Sacher and others
[1993] 1 All ER 961
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL AND GLIDEWELL LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 18, 19 MARCH, 6 MAY 1992
Practice – Dismissal of action for want of prosecution – Inordinate delay without excuse – Three periods of delay after issue of writ – First two periods of delay occurring before expiry of limitation period – Third period of delay occurring after expiry of limitation period – Periods of delay amounting to three years in total out of a period of six years five months between issue of writ and application to dismiss action – Whether first two periods of delay relevant – Whether court entitled to take account of all three periods of delay on application to dismiss action for want of prosecution – Whether delay inordinate and inexcusable.
In September 1983 the plaintiffs issued a writ and shortly thereafter served a statement of claim against the defendants alleging, inter alia, breach of contract and conspiracy to defraud and claiming rescission of the contract, the return of shares in a private company which the plaintiffs had agreed under the contract to sell to one of the defendants for a nominal sum, and damages. In December 1983 the defendants applied to strike out the writ and statement of claim as disclosing no reasonable cause of action, but that application was substantially dismissed, as was an appeal to the Court of Appeal on 3 September 1984. On 20 May 1985 the statement of claim was amended and re-served. On 15 April 1986 an order was made laying down a timetable for the remaining steps in the action prior to trial, including service of lists of documents by 25 April. The order was ignored by both parties and nothing further happened in the action until 24 April 1987, when the plaintiffs’ solicitors purported to serve a list of documents on the defendants’ solicitors. Following service by the defendants of their own list of documents, the parties entered into negotiations with a view to reaching a settlement, but by 11 January 1989 it was apparent that those negotiations had not been successful. In July 1989 the limitation period relating to the plaintiffs’ claim expired. No further steps in the action were taken until 12 June 1990, when the plaintiffs served an amended list of documents. On 11 September the plaintiffs served notice of intention to proceed pursuant to RSC Ord 3, r 6a, which provided that, where a year or more had elapsed since the last proceeding in a cause or matter, the party desiring to proceed was required to give to every other party not less than one month’s notice of his intention to proceed. On 4 February 1991 the defendants applied to have the action dismissed for want of prosecution. The judge dismissed the application on the grounds, inter alia, that the periods of delay from 3 September 1984 to 20 May 1985 and from 15 April 1986 to 24 April 1987 were not relevant since they had occurred before the expiration of the limitation period, and were in any event not inordinate and inexcusable, and that the period of delay from 11 January 1989 to 12 June 1990 had not prejudiced the chances of a fair trial. The defendants appealed to the Court of Appeal, where the questions arose (i) whether there had been inordinate and inexcusable delay since the issue of the writ on the part of the plaintiffs in the conduct of the action, (ii) if so, whether the defendants were estopped from relying on that delay by their
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own conduct in not applying to dismiss the action for want of prosecution within one month following the plaintiffs’ service of notice of intention to proceed and (iii) if they were not so estopped, whether the delay had caused serious prejudice to the defendants.
Held – (1) RSC Ord 3, r 6 placed no obligation on a defendant who wished to apply to strike out an action for want of prosecution to do so within the one month period of notice under that rule and since the defendants had taken no active step to induce in the plaintiffs a belief that the defendants consented to the action continuing the defendants were not estopped from applying to have the action dismissed for want of prosecution because of the plaintiffs’ delay (see p 972 a to d, p 975 c d and p 981 a b, post).
(2) Where a defendant applied after the expiry of the limitation period to strike out an action for want of prosecution, inordinate and inexcusable delay by the plaintiff after the issue of the writ but within the limitation period could be relied upon to support the application. It followed that all three periods of delay were relevant and could be taken into account by the court in deciding whether to strike out the action. Moreover, those periods, amounting together to three years in total, out of a period of six years and five months between the issue of the writ and the application to strike out, constituted inordinate and, for the most part, inexcusable delay on the part of the plaintiffs. However, since that delay had not given rise to a substantial risk that it would not be possible to have a fair trial, nor had it caused serious prejudice to the defendants, the application to strike out had been rightly dismissed. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 970 d e j to p 971 a, p 974 e to g, p 975 b to d, p 980 j to p 981 d, post); dicta of Diplock LJ in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, of Lord Diplock in Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 805 and Rath v C S Lawrence & Partners (a firm) (P J Cook & Co (a firm), third party) [1991] 3 All ER 679 applied.
Per Neill LJ. Principles and guidelines to be applied on an application to strike out for want of prosecution where it is not suggested that the plaintiff has been guilty of intentional and contumelious default (see p 978 f to p 980 h, post).
Notes
For dismissal of actions for want of prosecution, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 447–450, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 67–78, 3293–3341.
Cases referred to in judgments
Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd, Bostic v Bermondsey and Southwark Group Hospital Management Committee, Sternberg v Hammond [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, [1968] 2 WLR 366, CA.
Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297, [1977] 3 WLR 38, HL.
County and District Properties Ltd v Lyell (1977) [1991] 1 WLR 683, CA.
Dept of Transport v Chris Smaller (Transport) Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 897, [1989] AC 1197, [1989] 2 WLR 578, HL.
Eagil Trust Co Ltd v Pigott-Brown [1985] 3 All ER 119, CA.
Fitzpatrick v Batger & Co Ltd [1967] 2 All ER 657, [1967] 1 WLR 706, CA.
Hollis v Islington London BC [1989] CA Transcript 67.
Rath v C S Lawrence & Partners (a firm) (P J Cook & Co (a firm), third party) [1991] 3 All ER 679, [1991] 1 WLR 399, CA.
Reynolds v British Leyland Ltd [1991] 2 All ER 243, [1991] 1 WLR 675, CA.
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Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Austin Securities Ltd v Northgate and English Stores Ltd [1969] 2 All ER 753, [1969] 1 WLR 529, CA.
Banca Popolare di Novara v John Livanos & Sons Ltd (1973) 117 SJ 509, CA.
Dexters Ltd v Hillcrest Oil Co (Bradford) Ltd [1926] 1 KB 348, [1925] All ER Rep 273, CA.
Dutton v Spink & Beeching (Sales) Ltd [1977] 1 All ER 287, CA.
Greek City Co Ltd v Demetriou (trading as Spectron Electronics), Greek City Co Ltd v Athanasiou (trading as Alpha Alpha Electrical Contractors) [1983] 2 All ER 921.
Instrumatic Ltd v Supabrase Ltd [1969] 2 All ER 131, [1969] 1 WLR 519, CA.
Lissenden v Bosch (CAV) Ltd [1940] 1 All ER 425, [1940] AC 412, HL.
National Insurance and Guarantee Corp Ltd v Robert Bradford & Co Ltd, City General Insurance Co Ltd v Robert Bradford & Co Ltd (1970) 114 SJ 436, CA.
Tinkler v Hilder (1849) 4 Exch 187, 154 ER 1176.
Tsangaris v Tzortzis (1976) Times, 17 December, [1976] CA Transcript 448.
Wallersteiner v Moir [1974] 3 All ER 217, [1974] 1 WLR 991, CA.
Interlocutory appeal
The defendants, Elizabeth Sacher, Simon Sacher, Steinberg & Sons Ltd, Christopher Trill Ltd and Anthony Stanbury, appealed with the leave of the deputy judge from the decision of Philip Cox QC sitting as a deputy judge of The High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 30 April 1991 dismissing their application to dismiss the action brought against them by the plaintiffs, Christopher Trill and Patricia Glanville, for want of prosecution. The facts are set out in the judgment of Glidewell LJ.
Gordon Pollock QC and Joseph Smouha (instructed by S J Berwin & Co) for the defendants.
Michael Burke-Gaffney QC and Anthony Connerty (instructed by Beor Wilson & Lloyd, Swansea) for the plaintiffs.
Cur adv vult
6 May 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
GLIDEWELL LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Neill LJ). This is an appeal against a decision of Mr Philip Cox QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court, who, on 30 April 1991, dismissed an application by the defendants to dismiss this action for want of prosecution. The judge then made consequential orders, to some of which I shall refer later.
The history
The plaintiffs, Mr Trill and Miss Glanville, are designers of high fashion handbags, belts and other fashion accessories. Before 1982 they had both achieved considerable success and reputation in that field. They wished to form a new company to manufacture and sell articles designed by them. For this purpose they needed financial backing. They therefore entered into discussions with the first defendant, Mrs Sacher, who was the controlling director of a company called Argohome Ltd. Mrs Sacher is the wife of the second defendant, Mr Simon John Sacher, who is, or was at the material time, a director of Marks & Spencer plc.
By a written agreement made on 15 July 1982 between the two plaintiffs, Mrs Sacher, Argohome Ltd, Mr Jasper Conran (a fashion designer) and his company Jasper Conran Ltd, the parties agreed to form a new company, Christopher Trill
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Ltd, which is now the fourth defendant. All four individuals, parties to the agreement, became directors of the new company. The company had 1,000 issued shares, of which 750 were issued to Argohome Ltd and 250 were agreed to be issued to the plaintiffs to be shared between them in such proportions as they should decide. The agreement was expressed to last for five years in the first instance. The plaintiffs agreed to work full-time for the company, in return for salaries and commission. Argohome Ltd agreed to provide finance by guaranteeing bank borrowing by the company, together with management services, in return for a management fee.
The company was formed and in July 1982 started to trade. Its products were shown for the first time at the London Designer Collection in October 1982.
In their statement of claim in this action, the plaintiffs make the following allegations about Mrs Sacher’s conduct from October 1982 onwards. (a) In or about October 1982 Mrs Sacher represented to the plaintiffs that she would be unable to obtain further overdraft facilities, which was untrue. As a result Mr Trill obtained a loan of £10,000 from his father and himself loaned this amount to the company. Mrs Sacher also loaned £10,000 to the company. (b) In May 1983 Mrs Sacher made it clear to the plaintiffs that neither she nor Argohome Ltd was prepared to invest any more in the company, which the plaintiffs allege was a breach of the agreement of 15 July 1982. (c) Also in breach of that agreement, Mrs Sacher refused to devote sufficient time to the management of the company.
It is common ground that the plaintiffs were then introduced to Mr Stanbury, the fifth defendant, a friend of Mr Sacher. Mr Stanbury controlled the third defendant, Steinberg & Sons Ltd. Steinberg & Sons Ltd was a major supplier to Marks & Spencer plc.
On 8 July 1983 the plaintiffs entered into a new agreement to sell their shares in Christopher Trill Ltd to Argohome Ltd at a nominal price and to resign as directors of the company. In return it was agreed that both plaintiffs would be employed as senior designers by the third defendant, Steinberg & Sons Ltd, at a salary subject to six months’ notice, and would be paid compensation for loss of their offices in Christopher Trill Ltd.
The plaintiffs allege that on 25 August 1983 they were summarily dismissed from their employment with Steinberg by the fifth defendant, Mr Stanbury, and paid six months’ salary in lieu of notice. In addition to the allegations of breach of contract against Mrs Sacher, the plaintiffs in their statement of claim as amended allege that they entered into the agreement of 8 July 1983 as the result of an inducement held out to them by all the defendants except Christopher Trill Ltd, and that these defendants had conspired together to defraud them. The nub of the allegation is that the offers of employment by Steinberg & Sons Ltd were sham offers which Steinberg and Mr Stanbury never intended to honour or be bound by.
In the statement of claim as pleaded and indeed after amendment in May 1985, the plaintiffs claimed rescission of the agreement of 8 July 1983, an order for the return to the plaintiffs of their shares in Christopher Trill Ltd, and damages including exemplary and aggravated damages. However, this claim for damages was not quantified in any way in the statement of claim.
The progress of the action
The action got off to a speedy start. The cause of action as alleged arose on or about 8 July 1983. On 26 September 1983 the writ was issued against the first, second and third defendants. The fourth defendant was added on 3 November 1983. On 23 November 1983 the statement of claim was served.
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On 5 December 1983 the defendants took out a summons to strike out the writ and statement of claim as disclosing no reasonable cause of action. This application was heard by Master Topley on 16 March 1984. He dismissed the application, gave leave to add Mr Stanbury as the fifth defendant, and extended time for service of the defence until after any appeal against his order.
The first four defendants duly appealed, and the appeal was heard on 13 June 1984 by Mustill J. He allowed it to the limited extent of striking out two paragraphs alleging fraudulent misrepresentation, but otherwise dismissed the appeal.
The defendants appealed to this court, which heard the appeal on 3 September 1984. Griffiths LJ, in a judgment with which May LJ agreed, referred to the separate causes of action alleged in the statement of claim as originally drafted, and said:
‘What has been submitted by Mr Lightman QC is that nowhere on the face of the pleadings does that allegation, namely, “You induced us to waive all our rights under the 1982 agreement by a bogus promise of employment by Steinberg Ltd” appear clearly set out. I am bound to agree with Mr Lightman that this pleading is not an elegant document. It does appear to me to have shied away from setting out the real gravamen of the complaint. Nevertheless, at the end of the day, I have arrived at the same conclusion as did Mustill J, which is that, reading the pleading as a whole, the nature of the allegation does emerge. As Mr Lightman has said, this being a serious matter the defendants are very anxious that it should be brought to trial as quickly as possible, because of course he points out that he is arguing this case upon the basis that he must accept what appears in the statement of claim, whereas in fact it will be seriously contested. That being so, it seems to me that it is preferable that this action should proceed on the pleading as it stands at the moment, rather than that we should take the alternative course suggested by Mr Lightman, namely, to strike out the pleading in its present form and allow Mr Godfrey to recast it, setting out, certainly with greater clarity, the true nature of the allegation that the defendants have to meet.’
The appeal to this court was therefore dismissed.
So, a year had passed since the issue of the writ, nine months of it on the defendants’ application to strike out and subsequent appeals. At least those proceedings had the effect of clarifying the plaintiffs’ allegations.
On 20 May 1985 the statement of claim was amended to reflect what Griffiths LJ had said, and re-served. We have had no explanation why, after the judgment of this court, it took over eight months to make this amendment, save that during this period the plaintiffs applied for legal aid.
On 2 July 1985, on an application by the plaintiffs for judgment against the defendants for failing to serve their defences (or in the case of the fifth defendant for failing to serve notice of intention to defend), the application was dismissed. The time for service of defence was extended to 2 July 1985, the date on which a defence and counterclaim had already been served. A timetable for further steps in the action was then laid down. This provided for service of a reply to the defence within 21 days, exchange of lists of documents within 28 days, inspection 7 days thereafter, and setting down for trial within 42 days thereafter.
On 31 October 1985 legal aid was granted to the plaintiffs.
On 12 December 1985 a defence to the counterclaim was served, four months outside the period limited by the order of 2 July 1985.
On 11 February and again on 15 April 1986 further orders were made for a timetable for the remaining steps in the action. The order of 15 April 1986
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provided for lists of documents by 25 April 1986, inspection 7 days thereafter, and setting down within 42 days thereafter. This timetable required the action to be set down not later than 14 June 1986.
The solicitors seem not to have taken the slightest notice of the order of 15 April 1986. Nothing more happened between the parties until 24 April 1987, when the plaintiffs’ solicitors purported to serve a list of documents on the defendants’ solicitors. The defendants’ solicitors wrote pointing out that under RSC Ord 3, r 6 notice of intention to proceed was required. On 30 April 1987 the plaintiffs’ solicitors therefore served such a notice, and on 30 May 1987 again served the plaintiffs’ list of documents.
As to the defendants, they finally served their list of documents on 6 August 1987.
On 28 October 1987 there were without prejudice negotiations between the respective solicitors which were not successful. For the next three months the parties were engaged in exchanging documents. Up to this time the plaintiffs had changed solicitors on two occasions. In June 1988 there was a further change of solicitors to Messrs Beor Wilson & Lloyd, the plaintiffs’ present solicitors. Shortly after they were appointed, the defendants’ solicitors made a further approach for a discussion of a possible settlement. Without prejudice negotiations then ensued which continued until 11 January 1989, when it became apparent that they had failed.
From that date until 12 June 1990 there was no further exchange of correspondence or activity between the parties. Affidavits filed on behalf of the plaintiffs disclose what the plaintiffs’ advisers were doing during this time, but the action itself made no progress. During this period to June 1990, namely in July 1989, the limitation period expired.
The action awoke from its sleep when, on 12 June 1990, the plaintiffs purported to serve an amended list of documents. However, the plaintiffs’ solicitors had again failed to serve the necessary notice of intention to proceed required under RSC Ord 3, r 6. Such a notice was finally served on 11 September 1990. On the following day, the limitation on the plaintiffs’ legal aid certificate, which until then had covered the proceedings up to the end of discovery plus counsel’s advice, was removed.
On 30 October 1990, the plaintiffs’ solicitors issued summonses relating to applications for leave to reamend the statement of claim and for interrogatories, both returnable on 25 February 1991. On 4 December 1990 they issued a further summons seeking specific discovery.
On 4 February 1991 the defendants’ solicitors issued the application to dismiss for want of prosecution, for hearing on the same day as the plaintiffs’ applications. It was then agreed that all the matters should be put in front of a judge.
There is unfortunately a disagreement between the respective parties’ solicitors as to what occurred before the defendants issued their application to dismiss. The defendants’ solicitor asserts that he informed his opposite number early in November 1990 of his intention to issue an application to dismiss for want of prosecution. The plaintiffs’ solicitor does not recollect receiving this notification until shortly before the issue of the summons in February 1991. Whichever be correct, the plaintiffs had already issued their two summonses on 30 October 1990 before any such conversation took place. For the purposes of this appeal we cannot resolve this dispute, and in my view must therefore proceed on the basis that there was no notification of intention to apply to strike out until shortly before the application itself was made.
The deputy judge delivered his judgment on 30 April 1991, but the resulting order was not drawn up until 22 May 1991 or sealed until 3 June 1991. Meanwhile
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on 13 May 1991 the plaintiffs’ solicitors set down the action for trial. In addition to refusing to dismiss the action for want of prosecution, the judge gave the plaintiffs leave to reamend the statement of claim with leave to the defendants to make consequential amendments to the defence. The judge also made two ‘unless’ orders requiring the plaintiffs to serve full and proper particulars of the quantum of their claim by 11 June 1991 provided that if such particulars be not served by midnight on that date the plaintiffs’ claim should be struck out and judgment be entered for the defendants with costs, and also requiring the plaintiffs to serve by the same time any accountant’s report in support of their claim for damages, failing which they would be barred from calling or relying upon expert evidence at the trial.
Within the time-scale a copy of an accountant’s report was served by the plaintiffs, with a letter indicating that they took the view that this served as further and better particulars. The defendants took the opposite view and the parties made their positions clear in correspondence. On the plaintiffs failing to serve any different form of further and better particulars, the defendants entered judgment in default on 12 June 1991. On 17 July 1991 on the plaintiffs’ application it was ordered by Macpherson J that the judgment should be set aside if particulars were served by 22 July 1991.
On 25 July 1991 the defendants’ notice of appeal was served, with a respondent’s notice being served on 13 August 1991.
The issues
The principles to be applied are those set out in the speech of Lord Diplock in Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 805, [1978] AC 297 at 318:
‘The power [to strike out for want of prosecution] should be exercised only where the court is satisfied either (1) that the default has been intentional and contumelious, eg disobedience to a peremptory order of the court or conduct amounting to an abuse of the process of the court; or (2) (a) that there has been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the plaintiff or his lawyers, and (b) that such delay will give rise to a substantial risk that it is not possible to have a fair trial of the issues in the action or is such as is likely to cause or to have caused serious prejudice to the defendants …’
These principles were derived from the decision of this court in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, which was expressly approved in Birkett v James. In particular in his judgment in that case Diplock LJ (as he then was) explained the reasons which led him to the conclusion ([1968] 1 All ER 543 at 555, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 258):
‘It is thus inherent in an adversary system which relies exclusively on the parties to an action to take whatever procedural steps appear to them to be expedient to advance their own case, that the defendant, instead of spurring the plaintiff to proceed to trial, can with propriety wait until he can successfully apply to the court to dismiss the plaintiff’s action for want of prosecution on the ground that so long a time has elapsed since the events alleged to constitute the cause of action that there is a substantial risk that a fair trial of the issues will not be possible.’
After setting out the principles to which I have already referred, Diplock LJ said ([1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 260):
‘Since the power to dismiss an action for want of prosecution is only exercisable on the application of the defendant his previous conduct in the
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action is always relevant. So far as he himself has been responsible for any unnecessary delay, he obviously cannot rely on it. Moreover, if after the plaintiff has been guilty of unreasonable delay the defendant so conducts himself as to induce the plaintiff to incur further costs in the reasonable belief that the defendant intends to exercise his right to proceed to trial notwithstanding the plaintiff’s delay, he cannot obtain dismissal of the action unless the plaintiff has thereafter been guilty of further unreasonable delay. For the reasons already mentioned, however, mere non-activity on the part of the defendant where no procedural step on his part is called for by the rules of court is not to be regarded as conduct capable of inducing the plaintiff reasonably to believe that the defendant intends to exercise his right to proceed to trial. It must be remembered, however, that the evils of delay are cumulative, and even where there is active conduct by the defendant which would debar him from obtaining dismissal of the action for excessive delay by the plaintiff anterior to that conduct, the anterior delay will not be irrelevant if the plaintiff is subsequently guilty of further unreasonable delay. The question will then be whether as a result of the whole of the unnecessary delay on the part of the plaintiff since the issue of the writ, there is a substantial risk that a fair trial of the issues in the litigation will not be possible.’
The main issue in Birkett v James was whether the court should strike out an action on the ground of inordinate delay (as opposed to disobedience to a court order) when the application to strike out is made before the period of limitation has expired. The House of Lords decided that normally in such circumstances the action should not be struck out. To quote Lord Diplock again ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 806, [1978] AC 297 at 320):
‘So in such a case, at any rate, time elapsed before issue of the writ which does not extend beyond the limitation period cannot be treated as inordinate delay; the statute itself permits it.’
Lord Diplock added ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 808, [1978] AC 297 at 322):
‘It follows a fortiori from what I have already said in relation to the effect of statutes of limitation on the power of the court to dismiss actions for want of prosecution, that time elapsed before the issue of a writ within the limitation period cannot of itself constitute inordinate delay however much the defendant may already have been prejudiced by the consequent lack of early notice of the claim against him, the fading recollections of his potential witnesses, their death or their untraceability. To justify dismissal of an action for want of prosecution the delay relied on must relate to time which the plaintiff allows to lapse unnecessarily after the writ has been issued.’
In the present case, there was argument in the court below as to whether the plaintiffs had been guilty of intentional and contumelious delay. The judge held that the delay could not properly be described as contumelious. In this court Mr Pollock QC for the defendants, rightly, in my view, does not seek to reopen this question.
The issues for this court’s decision can therefore be summarised as follows (1) Has there been inordinate and inexcusable delay since the issue of the writ on the part of the plaintiffs in the conduct of the action? (2) If so, are the defendants estopped by their own conduct from relying on that delay? (3) If not, does the delay give rise to a substantial risk that it will not now be possible to have a fair
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trial of the action, or is it likely to cause, or has it caused, serious prejudice to the defendants?
I will deal with each of these matters in turn. In doing so, I remind myself of Lord Diplock’s words in Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 804, [1978] AC 297 at 317 about the approach which this court should adopt to such questions:
‘It is only very exceptionally that an appeal on an interlocutory order is allowed to come before this House. These are matters best left to the decision of the masters and, on appeal, the judges of the High Court whose daily experience and concern is with the trial of civil actions. They are decisions which involve balancing against one another a variety of relevant considerations on which opinions of individual judges may reasonably differ as to their relative weight in a particular case. That is why they are said to involve the exercise by the judge of his “discretion”. That, and the consequent delay and expense which appeals in interlocutory matters would involve, is also why no appeal to the Court of Appeal from his decision is available except with the judge’s leave or that of the Court of Appeal. Where leave is granted, an appellate court ought not to substitute its own “discretion” for that of the judge merely because its members would themselves have regarded the balance as tipped against the way in which he had decided the matter. They should regard their function as primarily a reviewing function …’
Delay
As the history I have summarised reveals, during the course of this action there have been three substantial periods of delay for which the plaintiffs or their legal advisers were responsible. They were: (i) from 3 September 1984 to 20 May 1985 when the statement of claim was amended; (ii) from 15 April 1986 to 24 April 1987; (iii) from 11 January 1989 to 12 June 1990.
The defendants could not seek to strike out during the first or second periods of delay since both fell within the limitation period. The question therefore arises, as a result of the third period of delay, should the court now take account of all three periods in deciding whether to strike out?
In Rath v C S Lawrence & Partners (a firm) [1991] 3 All ER 679, [1991] 1 WLR 399 this court held that inordinate and inexcusable delay by the plaintiffs after the issue of a writ but within the limitation period could be relied upon to support the defendant’s application to strike out after the expiry of the limitation period. Farquharson LJ said ([1991] 3 All ER 679 at 684, [1991] 1 WLR 399 at 406):
‘Once a plaintiff has issued his writ and set the treadmill of litigation into motion, he is bound to observe the rules of the court. If he flouts them to the extent that the plaintiffs have in the present case I can see no reason why the defendants should not rely upon it, after the limitation period has expired, to support an application to strike out.’
Slade LJ, with whom Nicholls LJ expressly agreed, said ([1991] 3 All ER 679 at 688–689, [1991] 1 WLR 399 at 411):
‘Having once again studied Birkett v James, however, I can find no support for the proposition that time elapsed after the issue of a writ but before the expiration of the limitation period cannot constitute inordinate delay for the relevant purpose. The late issue of a writ is one thing; by itself if cannot be regarded as culpable. The casual and dilatory conduct of proceedings in
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breach of the rules, after a writ has been issued, is another thing. If a person who claims to have a cause of action chooses to take advantage of the process of the court by issuing a writ at whatever time during the limitation period, he has, in the words of Lord Diplock ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 809, [1978] AC 297 at 323), “a corresponding right to continue to prosecute it to trial and judgment so long as he does so with reasonable diligence.” Though I do not think they bind this court, I respectfully agree with the observations of Stuart-Smith LJ in Hollis v Islington London BC [1989] CA Transcript 67 quoted by Farquharson LJ, in which he found—“no warrant for equating the effect of prejudice due to delay which inevitably is caused by permitted and non-culpable delay in issuing proceedings, with prejudice caused by culpable delay, even though the right to strike out has not yet arisen because the limitation period has not expired.” In my judgment, therefore, the full period of inordinate and inexcusable delay in the plaintiffs’ conduct of their action running between about October 1984 and February 1989 falls to be taken into account for the purpose of applying the principle of Birkett v James referred to above.’ (Slade LJ’s emphasis)
It follows that in the present case all three periods are relevant. Together they amount to three years in total, out of a period of six years five months between the issue of the writ and the application to strike out. I have no doubt that all this delay was inordinate. It may be said that there was some excuse for the first period, since during it the plaintiffs (in January 1985) applied for legal aid. But this cannot have been a major reason for not amending the statement of claim in accordance with the suggestions made by Griffiths LJ, since an amended statement of claim was finally served on 20 May 1985, although legal aid was not granted to the plaintiffs until October of that year. Most, if not all, of this three years’ delay was therefore inexcusable.
In his judgment, the judge said of the earlier periods of delay:
‘On any view, the case did not proceed as expeditiously as one would have wished, and it is accepted by Mr Beveridge on behalf of the plaintiffs that proper particulars of the way in which the plaintiffs’ claim is calculated have not even today been given. However, this is far from saying that there has been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the plaintiffs or their solicitors in the prosecution of this case. As Mr Beveridge pointed out in the course of his argument, this is not a case, as is so often before the courts, where nothing is done for years. This is a case where something was being done, unfortunately not always very effectively, and it is that picture which really prevails throughout the chronology in this case. It is not, however, necessary, in my judgment, for me to analyse in detail the history of this action up to the end of 1988, because between October 1987 and early January 1989, it is clear that without prejudice negotiations for a settlement were going on between the parties. Sometimes the defendants themselves were seeking information with a view to the possibility of a settlement. I find, therefore, that the defendants, by taking part in these negotiations, acquiesced in the slow progress of the case, and when the negotiations were broken off, they must have contemplated that the case would then proceed to trial. I have to bear in mind that had an application to dismiss the action for want of prosecution been made before the expiry of the limitation period in July 1989, the plaintiff would have had the right to issue a fresh writ. This was made clear by the House of Lords in Birkett v James.’
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It is clear, therefore, that the judge did not regard the earlier periods of delay as relevant. For the reasons I have already explained, he was wrong not to do so.
As to the last period of delay, the judge said simply:
‘Since July 1989 it is clear that progress has still been somewhat slow. But again, in my judgment, the additional lapse of time has not prejudiced the chances of a fair trial …’
The judge made no finding whether this period of delay was inordinate or inexcusable. In concluding that this delay deserves both adjectives, I am thus not trespassing on any exercise of the judge’s discretion.
Estoppel
Mr Burke-Gaffney QC for the plaintiffs argues that even though his clients’ solicitors may have been guilty of inordinate and inexcusable delay, at the time when they issued the application to dismiss for want of prosecution in February 1991 the defendants were estopped by their own previous conduct from relying on that delay.
I have already quoted the passage from the judgment of Diplock LJ in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 260 which referred to this question. In a more recent decision of this court, County and District Properties Ltd v Lyell (1977) [1991] 1 WLR 683 at 688–689, both Stephenson and Roskill LJJ said that they preferred to regard the concept as one of estoppel. Bridge LJ, agreeing with them both, said (at 690):
‘I share the opinion of both Stephenson and Roskill L.JJ. that the principle with which we are concerned in this appeal may not be altogether aptly labelled by the terms “waiver” or “acquiescence.” If one looks to the classic and precise expressions of principle in the two passages from the judgments of Diplock and Salmon L.JJ. cited by Stephenson L.J. from Allen v. Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd. ([1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, 563–564, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 260, 272), one finds that the elements which are present are the familiar elements of the principle of estoppel understood in its broadest sense. To disentitle a defendant from relying upon inordinate and inexcusable delay which has caused substantial prejudice to secure the dismissal of an action for want of prosecution, two things must be shown: first, that the defendant’s own conduct has reasonably induced in the plaintiff a belief that the action is to be allowed to proceed; secondly, action taken upon that reasonable belief by the plaintiff to alter his position or to act to his detriment, action which will take the form in the ordinary case of incurring expense.’
This decision has recently been relied upon and applied by Russell and Staughton LJJ in Reynolds v British Leyland Ltd [1991] 2 All ER 243, [1991] 1 WLR 675.
Mr Burke-Gaffney makes the point that, after the plaintiffs’ solicitors had given notice of intention to proceed on 11 September 1990, the defendants’ solicitors did not at once make an application to dismiss for want of prosecution. RSC Ord 3, r 6 requires one month’s notice, so the plaintiffs could not take any further steps in the action until a month had elapsed. In the ordinary way the application to dismiss would be made within that month. As it was not made, Mr Burke-Gaffney continues, the plaintiffs on 30 October 1990 issued summonses for leave to reamend the statement of claim and for leave to interrogate some of the defendants, and on 4 December 1990 a further summons seeking specific discovery. It was not until 4 February 1991 that the defendants’ solicitors issued
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the application to dismiss for want of prosecution. By this time they were estopped, since the plaintiffs had incurred further costs in issuing the summonses in the belief that the defendants were content that the action should continue.
In reply Mr Pollock argues that RSC Ord 3, r 6 places no obligation on a defendant to apply to strike out within the period of notice under that rule. He accepts that if such an application is not made within the month the plaintiff at the end of that time may set down the action for trial, after which it will of course be too late to apply to dismiss for want of prosecution. But, provided that the defendant takes no active step which induces in the plaintiff a belief that he consents to the action continuing, he is not estopped. While it is true that the plaintiffs’ solicitors did issue the summonses, between September 1990 and 4 February 1991 the defendants had taken no steps at all to induce such a belief. Therefore although they had waited a long time to issue their application, they were not estopped.
In my view, the defendants’ advisers were taking a risk in not issuing the application to dismiss for want of prosecution within the month following the service of notice of intention to proceed, but nevertheless I would hold that Mr Pollock’s argument is correct. I therefore conclude that the defendants were not estopped from applying to dismiss for want of prosecution.
Mr Burke-Gaffney also argues that, by their conduct following the judgment of the judge, the defendants are estopped from pursuing this appeal. He advances this argument under two heads.
(a) I have already said that the judge not merely ordered that the application to dismiss for want of prosecution should be dismissed, but ordered that, unless the plaintiffs served certain further and better particulars of this claim by midnight on 11 June 1991, their claim should be struck out and judgment be entered for the defendants. In the event the plaintiffs served an accountant’s report within this time-scale, and sought to have it treated as further and better particulars. The defendants said that they were not prepared to accept it as compliance with the order for further and better particulars. On the plaintiffs’ failure to serve particulars as such, the defendants entered judgment in default on 12 June 1991. On 17 July 1991 this judgment was set aside by Macpherson J on condition that the particulars requested were served by 22 July 1991, as they were.
The point made by Mr Burke-Gaffney is that, by entering judgment, the defendants estopped themselves from appealing against the judge’s decision when that judgment was set aside. Mr Pollock’s answer to this is that the defendants’ entry of judgment, although very likely to be set aside in the circumstances, did not induce the plaintiffs to do anything to their detriment. In my view this argument is also correct.
(b) There then followed some correspondence between the parties about the possibility of splitting the trial on liability from the issue of damages. It commenced with a ‘without prejudice’ letter from the defendants’ solicitors dated 22 July 1991 making the suggestion. The letter however says:
‘Our present advice to our clients would be to appeal the order of [the judge] and to apply to strike out the Particulars but, if we can hear from you before Notice of Appeal is given on the issue of a split trial, we can take instructions as to whether that alternative course could be taken.’
The plaintiffs’ solicitors replied by fax on 23 July 1991 saying they were taking instructions and giving an estimate of time. On the same day the defendants’ solicitors wrote saying that they had been instructed to appeal the order of the judge and a notice of appeal would be served shortly. On 25 July 1991 the
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plaintiffs’ solicitors sent a letter by fax agreeing to a split trial, but on the same day the defendants’ solicitors served notice of appeal against the judge’s decision. There followed some further correspondence about a split trial, but in their letters the defendants’ solicitors made it clear that this was without prejudice to the appeal to this court.
I can find nothing here that estops the defendants from pursuing this appeal. On the contrary, I think it was sensible to seek to deal with issues leading to the trial of this action at the same time as giving notice of appeal but without prejudice to that appeal.
Prejudice
I use this as a title for the last issue, namely have the defendants shown that the—
‘delay will give rise to a substantial risk that it is not possible to have a fair trial of the issues in the action or is such as is likely to cause or to have caused serious prejudice to the defendants …’ (See Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 805, [1978] AC 297 at 318.)
I have found this in some ways the most difficult of the issues to decide. In his judgment the judge referred to the speech of Lord Griffiths in Dept of Transport v Chris Smaller (Transport) Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 897 at 905, [1989] AC 1197 at 1209, where he said:
‘I would, however, express a note of caution against allowing the mere fact of the anxiety that accompanies any litigation being regarded as of itself a sufficient prejudice to justify striking out an action. Counsel for the defendants did not seek to argue that the anxiety occasioned by the extra 13 months in this case should be regarded as a sufficient ground of prejudice to justify making a striking out order. There are, however, passages in some of the judgments that suggest that the mere sword of Damocles, hanging for an unnecessary period, might be a sufficient reason of itself to strike out. On this aspect I repeat the note of caution I expressed in the Court of Appeal in Eagil Trust Co Ltd v Pigott-Brown [1985] 3 All ER 119 at 124, where I said: “Any action is bound to cause anxiety, but it would as a general rule be an exceptional case where that sort of anxiety alone would found a sufficient ground for striking out in the absence of any particular prejudice …” ’
The allegations of fraud and conspiracy made in the statement of claim against these defendants are extremely serious, and it is wholly wrong that they should have not been able to have them brought to trial as soon as could be done. The delay must therefore have caused them anxiety. Nevertheless, Mr Pollock on their behalf, no doubt having Lord Griffiths’s words in mind, has not sought to argue that this of itself amounts to sufficient prejudice to justify striking out.
In his judgment the judge gave the following reason for not striking out:
‘In my judgment, this is not a case which will depend upon the witnesses’ recollection of fine points of detail such as frequently occurs in road accident cases and cases involving personal injury at work and so forth … If this case proceeds to trial, it will be essentially a case where the judge will have to decide which of two entirely conflicting accounts is the truth. Even after the passing of many years, it seems to me that each of the parties present at the various meetings who are likely to be witnesses at the trial will retain a pretty
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clear recollection of the essentials of what took place, and indeed affidavits of these witnesses were sworn on behalf of the plaintiffs and on behalf of the defendants at a comparatively early stage in this history.’
It is true that when he said this, the judge was considering only the period of delay from January 1989 onwards. Nevertheless, we have to decide whether the same considerations apply to the whole of the delay. On the one hand, it is true that the trial of this issue will depend to a considerable extent upon the oral evidence of the parties and perhaps some other supporting witnesses. No doubt, some of them will be subjected to substantial cross-examination. Moreover, the plaintiffs’ solicitors, for reasons I do not understand, have sought to administer interrogatories to some of the defendants, thus showing that they seek to go into a fair amount of detail.
On the other hand, in the end the main question which the court of trial is going to have to decide is: does the evidence prove that these defendants conspired together to defraud or damage the plaintiffs? It is unlikely that the plaintiffs will be able to produce direct evidence of such a conspiracy. They will presumably ask the court to infer it from the circumstances, and in particular from the fact that they were dismissed from what they had been led to believe would be secure, profitable and interesting employment so soon after being engaged. In order for the plaintiffs to succeed, it will be necessary for the court to find that Mr Stanbury, of his own volition or persuaded by Mr and Mrs Sacher, offered the plaintiffs employment when, in truth, he knew perfectly well that he did not intend to retain them as employees of his company. In other words, it must be shown that the entire offer of employment was a sham. This is the essence of the plaintiffs’ case.
Although after the passage of so many years the memories of all the witnesses, whether for the plaintiffs or the defendants, will undoubtedly be less clear than they would have been nearer the time about the detail of particular events or conversations, it is in my view unlikely in the extreme that any of the defendants will not remember whether they did enter into a fraudulent agreement. In particular, I find it inconceivable that Mr Stanbury will not have a clear recollection of the truth or falsity of the plaintiffs’ allegations. In the end, therefore, I have concluded that the judge’s evaluation of this issue was correct.
As I have said, the plaintiffs on 3 June 1991, pursuant to the order of the judge, served on the defendants their accountants’ report, and later served particulars of their claim for damages based upon that report. The plaintiffs claim loss of earnings from 30 November 1982 to 30 November 1987 in the sum of £83,060, and loss of the share value in Christopher Trill Ltd in the sum of £792,000, together with interest on both sums.
These claims are both based on the opinion expressed in the accountants’ report that if the defendants had not fraudulently persuaded the plaintiffs to dispose of their shares in Christopher Trill Ltd, that company would have traded successfully and profitably and would have expanded its turnover and profits year by year, to the benefit of both plaintiffs. The accountants’ report contains for each of the five years ending 30 November 1987 projected balance sheets, profit and loss accounts and cash flow projections for Christopher Trill Ltd.
Mr Pollock submits that, as a result of the delay, it will be difficult, if not impossible, for the defendants to counter this evidence properly. Doing so will involve a consideration of the trading conditions for such companies at the relevant time which will now be extremely difficult to make. Moreover, it may prove impossible to check some of the assumptions in the accountants’ report.
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I do not accept this submission. Whilst consideration of the plaintiffs’ accountants’ report may well involve a considerable amount of detailed work, the majority of the assumptions in it must be based upon documentary material—documents in the action or other published material—which will be equally available to accountants instructed by the defendants. Moreover, it is for the plaintiffs to prove the case they seek to make. If some of the assumptions in the accountants’ report cannot be checked, it must follow that they cannot be justified. If anybody will suffer prejudice in this situation, it will be the plaintiffs.
Although I think that the delays in the conduct of this litigation are deserving of very considerable censure, I cannot find that there is a substantial risk that a fair trial of the central issue will not be possible, or that the defendants have been prejudiced in relation to that issue by this delay.
For this reason, despite the view I have formed about the other issues, I would dismiss this appeal.
NEILL LJ. I agree that this appeal should be dismissed for the reasons given by Glidewell LJ. As, however, we had the benefit of detailed arguments as to the practice to be followed on an application to strike out for want of prosecution, I have decided to add a short judgment of my own.
The power of the court to dismiss an action for want of prosecution is not based on any statute or any rule of court but on the inherent jurisdiction of the court to control its own procedure.
It was in 1967, following the decision of the Court of Appeal in Fitzpatrick v Batger & Co Ltd [1967] 2 All ER 657 at 659, [1967] 1 WLR 706 at 710, that this power began to be exercised with any frequency. Since then countless cases involving delay have been decided. Many of these cases have been reported. For the purpose of formulating the relevant principles, however, it is sufficient to refer to only a few authorities.
In December 1967 three cases which had been dismissed for want of prosecution came before the Court of Appeal. In judgments which were delivered in January 1968 the court laid down the principles to be applied. The leading case was Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229. Diplock LJ set out the principles as follows ([1968] 1 All ER 543 at 555–556, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 259–260):
‘What then are the principles which the court should apply in exercising its discretion to dismiss an action for want of prosecution on a defendant’s application? The application is not usually made until the period of limitation for the plaintiff’s cause of action has expired. It is then a Draconian order and will not be lightly made. It should not in any event be exercised without giving the plaintiff an opportunity to remedy his default, unless the court is satisfied either that the default has been intentional and contumelious, or that the inexcusable delay for which the plaintiff or his lawyers have been responsible has been such as to give rise to a substantial risk that a fair trial of the issues in the litigation will not be possible at the earliest date at which, as a result of the delay, the action would come to trial if it were allowed to continue. It is for the defendant to satisfy the court that one or other of these two conditions is fulfilled. Disobedience to a peremptory order of the court would be sufficient to satisfy the first condition. Whether the second alternative condition is satisfied will depend on the circumstances of the particular case; but the length of the delay may of itself suffice to satisfy this condition if the relevant issues would depend on the recollection of witnesses
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of events which happened long ago. Since the power to dismiss an action for want of prosecution is only exercisable on the application of the defendant his previous conduct in the action is always relevant. So far as he himself has been responsible for any unnecessary delay, he obviously cannot rely on it. Moreover, if after the plaintiff has been guilty of unreasonable delay the defendant so conducts himself as to induce the plaintiff to incur further costs in the reasonable belief that the defendant intends to exercise his right to proceed to trial notwithstanding the plaintiff’s delay, he cannot obtain dismissal of the action unless the plaintiff has thereafter been guilty of further unreasonable delay. For the reasons already mentioned, however, mere non-activity on the part of the defendant where no procedural step on his part is called for by the rules of court is not to be regarded as conduct capable of inducing the plaintiff reasonably to believe that the defendant intends to exercise his right to proceed to trial. It must be remembered, however, that the evils of delay are cumulative, and even where there is active conduct by the defendant which would debar him from obtaining dismissal of the action for excessive delay by the plaintiff anterior to that conduct, the anterior delay will not be irrelevant if the plaintiff is subsequently guilty of further unreasonable delay. The question will then be whether as a result of the whole of the unnecessary delay on the part of the plaintiff since the issue of the writ, there is a substantial risk that a fair trial of the issues in the litigation will not be possible.’
Ten years later the principles laid down in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd were approved by the House of Lords in Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297. Lord Diplock sets out the circumstances in which the power should be exercised in these terms ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 805, [1978] AC 297 at 318):
‘The power should be exercised only where the court is satisfied either (1) that the default has been intentional and contumelious, e g disobedience to a peremptory order of the court or conduct amounting to an abuse of the process of the court; or (2) (a) that there has been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the plaintiff or his lawyers, and (b) that such delay will give rise to a substantial risk that it is not possible to have a fair trial of the issues in the action or is such as is likely to cause or to have caused serious prejudice to the defendants either as between themselves and the plaintiff or between each other or between them and a third party.’
In Birkett v James the House of Lords considered three further questions which had not arisen for decision in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd: (1) whether an action should be struck out on the ground of delay before the expiration of the limitation period; (2) where the plaintiff has delayed bringing an action, whether the defendant has to show that he has suffered prejudice additional to that caused by the tardy commencement of proceedings; (3) whether it is relevant that the plaintiff may have an alternative remedy against his solicitor.
In addition the House of Lords gave guidance as to how in an interlocutory matter an appellate court should approach the decision of the court of first instance.
On the first of these questions it is sufficient to refer to a passage in the speech of Lord Diplock ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 806–807, [1978] AC 297 at 320–321):
‘There may be exceptional cases … where the plaintiff’s conduct in the previous proceedings has induced the defendant to do something which will create more difficulties for him in presenting his case at the trial than he
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would have had if the previous proceedings had never been started. In such a case it may well be that the court, in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction, should stay the second proceedings on the ground that, taken as a whole, the plaintiff’s conduct amounts to an abuse of the process of the court. But such exceptional cases apart, where all that the plaintiff has done has been to let the previous action go to sleep, the court in my opinion would have no power to prevent him starting a fresh action within the limitation period and proceeding with it with all proper diligence notwithstanding that his previous action had been dismissed for want of prosecution. If this be so, it follows that to dismiss an action for want of prosecution before the limitation period has expired does not, save in the exceptional kind of case to which I have referred, benefit the defendant or improve his chances of obtaining a fair trial; it has the opposite tendency.’
On the second question I can again take a short passage from the speech of Lord Diplock. He said ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 809, [1978] AC 297 at 323):
‘To justify dismissal of an action for want of prosecution some prejudice to the defendant additional to that inevitably flowing from the plaintiff’s tardiness in issuing his writ must be shown to have resulted from his subsequent delay (beyond the period allowed by rules of court) in proceeding promptly with the successive steps in the action. The additional prejudice need not be great compared with that which may have been already caused by the time elapsed before the writ was issued; but it must be more than minimal; and the delay in taking a step in the action if it is to qualify as inordinate as well as prejudicial must exceed the period allowed by rules of court for taking that step.’
On the third question Lord Diplock, Lord Edmund-Davies and Lord Russell of Killowen expressed the opinion that the fact that the plaintiff may or may not have an alternative remedy against his solicitor is not a relevant consideration in considering whether to dismiss an action for want of prosecution.
In the light of some of the arguments which were addressed to this court, I should refer also to an earlier passage in the speech of Lord Diplock ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 804, [1978] AC 297 at 317):
‘It is only very exceptionally that an appeal on an interlocutory order is allowed to come before this House. These are matters best left to the decision of the masters and, on appeal, the judges of the High Court whose daily experience and concern is with the trial of civil actions. They are decisions which involve balancing against one another a variety of relevant considerations on which opinions of individual judges may reasonably differ as to their relative weight in a particular case. That is why they are said to involve the exercise by the judge of his “discretion”. That, and the consequent delay and expense which appeals in interlocutory matters would involve, is also why no appeal to the Court of Appeal from his decision is available except with the judge’s leave or that of the Court of Appeal. Where leave is granted, an appellate court ought not to substitute its own “discretion” for that of the judge merely because its members would themselves have regarded the balance as tipped against the way in which he had decided the matter. They should regard their function as primarily a reviewing function and should reverse his decision only in cases either (1) where they are satisfied that the judge has erred in principle by giving weight to something which he ought not to have taken into account or by failing to give weight to something which he ought to take into account; or (2) … in order to promote
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consistency in the exercise of their discretion by the judges as a whole where there appear, in closely comparable circumstances, to be two conflicting schools of judicial opinion as to the relative weight to be given to particular considerations.’
Finally I should refer to the decision of the Court of Appeal in Rath v C S Lawrence & Partners (a firm) [1991] 3 All ER 679, [1991] 1 WLR 399. In that case the causes of action accrued in January 1983 and the limitation period expired in January 1989. The writ was issued on 22 May 1984 and reasonable progress was made until about the end of that year. There then followed, however, a delay by the plaintiffs in proceeding with the action which extended to a period in excess of four years. In March 1989 the defendants took out summonses to dismiss the action for want of prosecution. The question which arose for decision was whether the defendants could rely on the long period of delay which, except for the few weeks between January and March 1989, had taken place exclusively during the limitation period. The Court of Appeal held unanimously that the defendants were entitled to rely on this delay. Slade LJ said ([1991] 3 All ER 679 at 688–689, [1991] 1 WLR 399 at 411):
‘The late issue of a writ is one thing; by itself it cannot be regarded as culpable. The casual and dilatory conduct of proceedings in breach of the rules, after a writ has been issued, is another thing. If a person who claims to have a cause of action chooses to take advantage of the process of the court by issuing a writ at whatever time during the limitation period, he has, in the words of Lord Diplock ([1977] 2 All ER 801 at 809, [1978] AC 297 at 323), “a corresponding right to continue to prosecute it to trial and judgment so long as he does so with reasonable diligence” … In my judgment, therefore, the full period of inordinate and inexcusable delay in the plaintiffs’ conduct of their action running between about October 1984 and February 1989 falls to be taken into account for the purpose of applying the principle of Birkett v James …’ (Slade LJ’s emphasis.)
From these and the other relevant authorities, I would extract the following principles and guidelines for use on an application to strike out for want of prosecution where it is not suggested that the plaintiff has been guilty of intentional and contumelious default.
(1) The basic rule is that an action may be struck out where the court is satisfied—
‘(a) that there has been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the plaintiff or his lawyers, and (b) that such delay will give rise to a substantial risk that it is not possible to have a fair trial of the issues in the action or is such as is likely to cause or to have caused serious prejudice to the defendants either as between themselves and the plaintiff or between each other or between them and a third party.’ (See Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 805, [1978] AC 297 at 318.)
(2) The general burden of proof on an application to strike out for want of prosecution is on the defendant.
(3) ‘Inordinate’ delay cannot be precisely defined. ‘What is or is not inordinate delay must depend on the facts of each particular case’ (see Allen’s case [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 561, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 268). It is clear, however, (a) that for delay to be inordinate it must exceed, and probably by a substantial margin, the times prescribed by the rules of court for the taking of steps in the action and (b) that delay in issuing the writ cannot be classified as ‘inordinate’ provided the writ is issued within the relevant period of limitation.
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(4) Delay which is inordinate is prima facie inexcusable (see Allen’s case [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 561, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 268). It is for the plaintiff to make out a credible excuse. For example, difficulties with regard to obtaining legal aid may provide such an excuse.
(5) Where a plaintiff delays issuing proceedings until towards the end of the period of limitation he is then under an obligation to proceed with the case with reasonable diligence (see Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 809, [1978] AC 297 at 323). Accordingly, a court is likely to look strictly at any subsequent delay which is in excess of the period allowed by rules of court for taking the relevant step, and may regard such subsequent delay as inordinate even though a similar lapse of time might have been treated less strictly had the action been started earlier.
(6) A defendant cannot rely on a period of delay for which he has himself been responsible.
(7) A defendant cannot rely on a period of delay if at the end of the period he—
‘so conducts himself as to induce the plaintiff to incur further costs in the reasonable belief that the defendant intends to exercise his right to proceed to trial notwithstanding the plaintiff’s delay …’ (See Allen’s case [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 260.)
It has been said that this rule is based on waiver or acquiescence, but the better view appears to be that the defendant is estopped (see County and District Properties Ltd v Lyell (1977) [1991] 1 WLR 683 at 690).
(8) Save in exceptional cases an action will not be struck out for want of prosecution before the expiry of the relevant limitation period (see Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 807, [1978] AC 297 at 321). It is not altogether clear how this rule is best explained. It may be that before the limitation period has expired the delay cannot properly be regarded as ‘inordinate’ (cf Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 807, [1978] AC 297 at 321). Alternatively, it may be that, though the delay is both inordinate and inexcusable, the court would not in the ordinary case exercise its discretion to strike the action out if a fresh writ could be issued at once. To do so would only delay the trial.
(9) Once the limitation period has expired the court is entitled to take account of all the earlier periods of inexcusable delay since the issue of the writ. These periods can include: (a) periods of delay occurring before the expiry of the limitation period which at an earlier stage could not be treated as ‘inordinate’ (see 8 above); (b) periods of delay on which at an earlier stage the defendant could not rely because he was estopped from doing so by inducing the plaintiff to incur further costs in the reasonable belief that the action was going to proceed to trial, but which have been revived by subsequent inordinate and inexcusable delay. This proposition seems to follow from Diplock LJ’s proviso in Allen’s case [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 260: ‘… unless the plaintiff has thereafter been guilty of further unreasonable delay’. It is also supported by a later passage in his judgment in Allen’s case [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 556, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 260 where he said:
‘It must be remembered, however, that the evils of delay are cumulative, and even where there is active conduct by the defendant which would debar him from obtaining dismissal of the action for excessive delay by the plaintiff anterior to that conduct, the anterior delay will not be irrelevant if the plaintiff is subsequently guilty of further unreasonable delay.’
(10) A defendant cannot rely on any prejudice caused to him by the late issue of a writ. Thus such prejudice is not due to delay which can be characterised as
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inordinate or inexcusable. Some additional prejudice after the issue of the writ must be shown:
‘The additional prejudice need not be great compared with that which may have been already caused by the time elapsed before the writ was issued; but it must be more than minimal; and the delay in taking a step in the action if it is to qualify as inordinate as well as prejudicial must exceed the period allowed by rules of court for taking that step.’ (See Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 809, [1978] AC 297 at 323.)
(11) Prejudice to the defendant may take different forms. In many cases the lapse of time will impair the memory of witnesses. In other cases witnesses may die or move away and become untraceable.
(12) The prejudicial effect of delay may depend in large measure on the nature of the issues in the case. Thus the evidence of an eye witness or of a witness who will testify to the words used when an oral representation was made is likely to be much more seriously impaired by the lapse of time than the evidence of someone who can rely on contemporary documents. A defendant may also suffer some prejudice from prolonged delay in an action which involves imputations against his reputation, though this factor by itself is unlikely to provide a ground for striking out.
(13) When considering the question of prejudice and, if it is raised, the question whether there is a substantial risk that it will not be possible to have a fair trial of the issues in the action, the court will look at all the circumstances. It will look at the periods of inordinate and inexcusable delay for which the plaintiff or his advisers are responsible and will then seek to answer the questions: has this delay caused or is it likely to cause serious prejudice, or is there a substantial risk that because of this delay it is not possible to have a fair trial of the issues in the action? As Slade LJ stressed in Rath’s case [1991] 3 All ER 679 at 688, [1991] 1 WLR 399 at 410:
‘… a causal link must be proved between the delay and the inability to have a fair trial or other prejudice, as the case may be.’
(14) An appellate court should regard its function as primarily a reviewing function and should recognise that the decision below involved a balancing of a variety of different considerations upon which the opinion of individual judges may reasonably differ as to their relative weight. Accordingly, unless intervention is necessary or desirable in order to achieve consistency where there appear to be conflicting schools of judicial opinion, the appellate court should only interfere where the judge has erred in principle (see Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801 at 804, [1978] AC 297 at 317).
I return to the facts of the present case. The writ against the first three defendants was issued as long ago as 26 September 1983. At that point, in the words of Farquharson LJ in Rath’s case [1991] 3 All ER 679 at 684, [1991] 1 WLR 399 at 406, the plaintiffs ‘set the treadmill of litigation into motion’ and thereafter became bound to observe the rules of court. This is not a case where the plaintiffs can place any reliance on the principle that delay in the issue of the writ cannot constitute inordinate delay provided it is issued within the limitation period.
Glidewell LJ has identified the three relevant periods of delay: (a) 3 September 1984 to 20 May 1985; (b) 15 April 1986 to 24 April 1987; (c) 11 January 1989 to 12 June 1990. The period of limitation expired in July 1989 so the first two periods of delay occurred before the date of expiry. The third period spanned that date. I am satisfied, applying the principles I have set out above, that the
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defendants can rely on all three periods. They amount in aggregate to about three years. The earlier periods of delay were revived by the last period.
One comes therefore to the questions of estoppel and prejudice. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgment of Glidewell LJ on the issue of estoppel. I agree with his analysis of the matter and do not wish to add anything.
I also agree with Glidewell LJ’s conclusion on the more difficult question of prejudice. Furthermore, though I consider that the judge went wrong when dealing with the issue of delay, I attach some importance to the reasons which he gave for not striking the action out. I agree with him that the case at trial will not depend upon the witnesses’ recollection of fine points of detail. The central issue is stark and clear: did these defendants conspire together to defraud or damage the plaintiffs? Or, to put the matter even more simply, was the offer of employment by Mr Stanbury a dishonest trick?
The delay is serious and deplorable, but in the end I have reached the same conclusion as Glidewell LJ and the judge. I am not persuaded that by reason of the delay there is a substantial risk that a fair trial will not be possible or that the defendants have been seriously prejudiced in relation to the trial of the central issue of conspiracy.
I too would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
McAllister v General Medical Council
[1993] 1 All ER 982
Categories: PROFESSIONS; Medical
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL,
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD GRIFFITHS AND LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE
Hearing Date(s): 23, 24 NOVEMBER, 14 DECEMBER 1992
Medical practitioner – Professional misconduct – Charge of serious professional misconduct – Evidence – Corroboration – Acts of dishonesty – Committee sitting in Scotland – Whether English or Scots law applicable – Whether acts of dishonesty required to be proved by corroborated evidence – Civil Evidence (Scotland) Act 1988, ss 1(1), 9.
The appellant, a Scottish registered medical practitioner practising in Scotland, was charged by the Professional Conduct Committee of the General Medical Council with serious professional misconduct by, inter alia, acting dishonestly in persuading a company to give him cheque for £38,000 as a donation to the hospital where he was a consultant for the purchase of specific equipment and then inducing the hospital finance officer to give him a replacement cheque for the same amount, part of which he put into his personal account. Because of the state of the appellant’s health the committee sat for the first time in Scotland rather than London to hear the charges. Both the appellant and the council were represented by English counsel and an English Queen’s Counsel assisted the committee as legal assessor. The appellant was found guilty and his name was ordered to be erased from the register of medical practitioners. The appellant appealed to the Privy Council, contending that since no specific provision had been made for the law to be applied by the committee Scots law applied to the proceedings as the lex fori, not English law, and that since the Scots criminal law of evidence required corroboration, of which there was none, the legal assessor’s failure to draw the committee’s attention to the need for corroboration vitiated the proceedings.
Held – (1) The law of England applied to all proceedings before the Professional Conduct Committee of the General Medical Council wherever the committee sat in the United Kingdom. Even if the law of Scotland had applied there was ample evidence to corroborate the hospital finance officer’s evidence that the appellant had dishonestly induced him to provide a replacement cheque. In any event no corroboration of that evidence would have been required because the relevant law of evidence would have been Scots civil rather than criminal law since no specific provision had been made pursuant to para (c) of the definition of ‘civil proceedings’ in s 9a of the Civil Evidence (Scotland) Act 1988 as regards the rules of evidence which were to apply and under s 1(1)b of that Act a Scottish civil court was entitled to find a fact proved notwithstanding that the evidence was not corroborated (see p 987 g h and p 988 e to p 989 d, post).
(2) When a charge of serious professional misconduct was brought against a doctor by the Professional Conduct Committee of the General Medical Council, it was of prime importance that the charge and the conduct of the proceedings should be fair to the doctor in question. However, the rules of evidence applicable to a criminal trial did not necessarily apply in all cases before the committee since although it might be appropriate to apply the criminal onus and standard of proof where the charges would found serious criminal charges it might not be
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appropriate to do so if the charges could not be the subject of serious or criminal charges. In the circumstances the committee was entitled to find the appellant guilty of serious professional misconduct and the appeal would be dismissed (see p 987 j to p 988 c and p 989 d, post); dictum of Lord Lowry in Lanford v General Medical Council [1989] 2 All ER 921 at 925 disapproved.
Notes
For procedure on an inquiry by the Professional Conduct Committee of the General Medical Council into professional misconduct, see 30 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 144–153, and for cases on the subject, see 33 Digest (Reissue) 289–292, 2335–2348.
Case referred to in judgment
Lanford v General Medical Council [1989] 2 All ER 921, [1990] 1 AC 13, [1989] 3 WLR 665, PC.
Appeal
Dr Thomas Anderson McAllister appealed from the determination of the Professional Conduct Committee of the General Medical Council on 8 May 1992 that by reason of serious professional misconduct his name be erased from the register of medical practitioners. The hearing was in Glasgow and the committee was assisted by an English Queen’s Counsel as legal assessor. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Jonathan Mitchell QC (of the Scottish Bar) (instructed by Le Brasseurs) for the appellant.
Julian Bevan QC and Rosalind Foster (instructed by Field Fisher Waterhouse) for the General Medical Council.
14 December 1992. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. This appeal arises from a decision of the Professional Conduct Committee (the committee) of the General Medical Council (the council) on 8 May 1992 that the appellant, Dr Thomas Anderson McAllister, was guilty of serious professional misconduct and a direction by the committee that his name be erased from the register of medical practitioners. The charges against the appellant, all of which were found by the committee to be proved, were in these terms:
‘That being registered under the Medical Act, 1(a) On various occasions between 1 January 1988 and 12 May 1989 you suggested to representatives of John Laing Construction Ltd (JLCL) that JLCL might donate money for the purchase of a Blood Culture System machine (known as a Bactec machine) for the Royal Hospital for Sick Children, Yorkhill, Glasgow; (b) On about 10 May 1989 you took possession of a cheque for £38,000 made payable to the Royal Hospital for Sick Children by JLCL; (c) At the time you took possession of the said cheque you knew that JLCL had donated a cheque in the belief that the proceeds of the said cheque would be used to enable the said hospital to pay for the Bactec machine, then installed in the said hospital; (d) Prior to 10 May (i) the said Bactec machine had been paid for by the Greater Glasgow Health Authority; (ii) you knew that the said Bactec machine had been paid for as described in (i) above; (e) In May 1989 you induced the Unit Finance Officer of the said hospital to pay the said £38,000 cheque into
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a hospital account and to provide you with a replacement cheque in the sum of £38,000 made payable to the Interferon Fund; (f) In June 1989 you (i) caused £30,000 of the £38,000 replacement cheque to be credited to an account number 057720 held at the Clydesdale Bank plc, Bearsden bearing the title “Dr T McAllister for the Interferon High Interest Cheque Account”, you being a signatory to the said account; (ii) caused £8,000 of the said £38,000 replacement cheque to be credited to an account number (7)0055076 held at the Clydesdale Bank plc, Bearsden, bearing the title “Dr Thomas Anderson McAllister and Mrs Catherine M McAllister”, you being a signatory to the said account, which at the material time was your personal account; (g) On about 3 June 1989 you caused £8,000 to be withdrawn from account number (7)0055076 and to be deposited in an Abbey National account number K665604McA, bearing the title “Dr T A and Mrs C M McAllister”, being an account to which you were a signatory; (h) after being informed in mid-June 1989 of allegations regarding your financial dealings, you caused £8,000 to be transferred from the said Abbey National Account to the Interferon account number 057720. 2(a) You acted dishonestly in deliberately misleading JLCL into believing that it was your intention to use the proceeds of the said £38,000 cheque provided by JLCL towards paying for the said Bactec machine then installed at the said hospital; (b) You acted dishonestly in inducing the Unit Finance Officer to provide you with a replacement cheque for £38,000, knowing that JLCL had donated the money to the said hospital; (c) You acted dishonestly in using the proceeds of the replacement cheque provided by the Unit Finance Officer to credit accounts held under your control and outside the control of the said hospital, thereby removing the money from the said hospital. And that in relation to the facts alleged you have been guilty of serious professional misconduct.’
A hearing took place before the committee in Glasgow from 4 to 8 May 1992 at which both parties were represented by English counsel and at which an English Queen’s Counsel attended as legal assessor.
At the time of the events referred to in the charges the appellant was a consultant microbiologist at the Royal Hospital for Sick Children and Queen Mother’s Hospital, Yorkhill, Glasgow. The charges arose out of circumstances summarised by him as ‘the case against him’ in his original printed case to this Board:
‘In 1988 John Laing Construction Company (“Laings”) decided to raise money for charity. Laings were put in touch with the Appellant who had a reputation going back many years for raising charity money. Eventually, by letter dated 3rd April 1989, Laings wrote to the Appellant indicating that they intended to hold a cheque handing-over ceremony in the Glasgow City Chambers banqueting hall on 10th May 1989. The letter included the sentence “An indication of specific areas where the money could be used would also be appreciated”. By letter dated 12th April 1989, the Appellant wrote back indicating, inter alia, that there was situate in the hospital and on approval a “Bactec” machine which “would be top of our shopping list. It is also photogenic”. The machine had in fact already been paid for in March 1989 by the Greater Glasgow Health Authority and this fact was known to the Appellant. (The Appellant disputed this). Under the impression that their charity money was going to be used for the purchase of this machine, at a public ceremony on 10th May 1989 at The City Hall, Laings handed over the Appellant a cheque for £38,000 payable to The Royal Hospital for Sick Children, Glasgow. On 11th May 1989 representatives of Laings made a tour
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of the hospital and inspected a plaque which had been affixed to the machine by Mr. Roud, the Chief Medical Laboratory Scientific Officer, at the request of the Appellant indicating that the machine had been presented by Laings. On the same day the Appellant asked the Unit Finance Officer [Mr Paterson] of the hospital to bank the Laings cheque and issue him with a replacement cheque made payable to The Interferon Fund, a fund set up in the late 1970s by the Appellant for research purposes. On 31st May 1989 the Unit Finance Officer provided a replacement cheque to the Appellant in the sum of £38,000 payable to The Interferon Fund. The Appellant split the £38,000, paying £30,000 into a newly opened High Interest Account named The Interferon Fund and £8,000 into a current non-interest bearing personal account in the name of himself and his wife, both accounts being at The Clydesdale Bank. He then transferred the £8,000 from the current personal account to an interest bearing personal account at The Abbey National Building Society in the name of himself and his wife. In about mid-June 1989 the Appellant was formally told he was the subject of an investigation in relation to the Laing charity gift and he gave instructions for the £8,000 to be transferred from The Abbey National Building Society to The Interferon Fund High Interest Account, where it thereafter remained.’
All the matters in the summary were matter of admission or the subject of evidence. In his original printed case, which was signed by English counsel who had represented him before the committee, he advanced three reasons why the appeal should be allowed, which were as follows:
‘1. Because a material irregularity with regard to disclosure of documents prejudiced the Appellant. 2. Because the Committee failed to apply the correct test in relation to jurisdiction to order disclosure of documents. 3. Because of the way the case was put to the Committee on the ingredients and meaning of the word “dishonestly”.’
The documents referred to in the first and second reasons were precognitions taken by the Procurator Fiscal in Glasgow.
When the case came before this Board, Scottish counsel appeared on behalf of the appellant and sought leave to lodge a supplementary case which departed entirely from the reasons in the original case and sought to introduce fresh reasons attributable to the fact that the proceedings before the committee had taken place in Scotland rather than in England. The case also accepted that there was evidence in relation to charges 2(a) and (c) which, if accepted as credible and reliable, was sufficient to entitle the committee to find those charges proved. The new reasons were in the following terms:
‘1. Because the proceedings were subject to Scots law and not to English law. 2. Because there was insufficient evidence to entitle the Committee to find the allegations in paragraphs 1(e) and 2(b) proved. 3. Because the entire decision of the Committee was vitiated by its failure to appreciate the existence and importance of the requirement for corroboration on all charges. 4. Because the Committee were materially misdirected by omission on a matter of central significance to the case and which they required a direction upon, causing a material risk that there was a miscarriage of justice. 5. Because the legal assessor’s failure to advise on the question of sufficiency of evidence and of corroboration amounted to a material misdirection causing a material risk that there was a miscarriage of justice, and accordingly invalidated the decision of the Committee.’
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Although the questions raised in the grounds of appeal in the supplementary case had never been argued before the committee their Lordships allowed Mr Mitchell QC, for the appellant, to lodge the supplementary case and develop an argument thereupon. This he did with considerable skill and ingenuity, maintaining that, in the absence of any direction in the statutory rules as to which system of law should apply to hearings before the committee, the lex fori must apply and that there was insufficient corroboration by the law of Scotland to entitle the committee to find charge 2(b) proved. Before considering this argument in more detail it is necessary to examine the statutory background against which the committee operates.
The Medical Act 1983, which was a consolidation Act, provided by s 1(3) for the continued existence of four committees of the council including the professional conduct committee. Schedule 4 dealt, inter alia, with proceedings before the committee and provided by para 1 that the council should make rules with respect, inter alia, to the procedure to be followed and the rules of evidence to be observed in proceedings before the committee. Paragraph 2 of the schedule referred specifically to proceedings which might take place not only in England and Wales but also in Northern Ireland and in Scotland. Paragraph 7 of the schedule provided that the committee should sit with a legal assessor who should be either a barrister, advocate or solicitor of not less than ten years’ standing and made further reference to proceedings taking place in Scotland.
In accordance with their duty under para 1 of Sch 4 to the 1983 Act the council made rules which were approved in the General Medical Council Preliminary Proceedings Committee and Professional Conduct Committee (Procedure) Rules Order of Council 1988, SI 1988/2255. Two of these rules were relied upon by the appellant, namely r 27(1)(e), which provides:
‘In cases relating to conduct, the following order of proceedings shall be observed as respects proof of the facts alleged in the charge or charges … (e) At the close of the case against him the practitioner may make either or both of the following submissions, namely: (i) in respect of any or all of the facts alleged and not admitted in the charge or charges, that no sufficient evidence has been adduced upon which the Committee could find those facts proved; (ii) in respect of any charge, that the facts of which evidence has been adduced or which have been admitted are insufficient to support a finding of serious professional misconduct; and where any such submission is made, the Solicitor or the complainant, as the case may be, may answer the submission and the practitioner may reply thereto.’
And r 50(1), which was in the following terms:
‘The Professional Conduct Committee may receive oral, documentary or other evidence of any fact or matter which appears to them relevant to the inquiry into the case before them: Provided that, where any fact or matter is tendered as evidence which would not be admissible as such if the proceedings were criminal proceedings in England, the Committee shall not receive it unless, after consultation with the legal assessor, they are satisfied that their duty of making due inquiry into the case before them makes its reception desirable.’
Two further statutory provisions are relevant to this appeal, namely ss 1(1) and 9(c) of the Civil Evidence (Scotland) Act 1988, which provide respectively:
‘1.—(1) In any civil proceedings the court or, as the case may be, the jury, if satisfied that any fact has been established by evidence in those proceedings,
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shall be entitled to find that fact proved by that evidence notwithstanding that the evidence is not corroborated …
9 … “civil proceedings” includes … (c) any proceedings before a tribunal or inquiry, except in so far as, in relation to the conduct of proceedings before the tribunal or inquiry, specific provision has been made as regards the rules of evidence which are to apply …’
Mr Mitchell submitted that, the Medical Act 1983 and r 50 of the 1988 rules having made no specific provision for the law to be applied by the committee, the lex fori must determine questions of substantive law, evidence and procedure. Rule 50, although referring questions of admissibility of evidence to English law, left all other evidential matters to be dealt with by the lex fori. Scots law required corroboration of which there was none in relation to the dishonesty referred to in charge 2(b), the only relevant evidence being that of Mr Paterson the unit finance officer. The failure of the legal assessor to draw the attention of the committee to the need for corroboration vitiated the whole proceedings and accordingly the case should be remitted back to the committee for a rehearing. This argument presented Mr Mitchell with some difficulty in relation to the Civil Evidence (Scotland) Act 1988 since he accepted that the proceedings before the committee albeit analogous to criminal proceedings were in fact civil rather than criminal. However he sought to overcome this difficulty by submitting that the reference in r 50 to the application of English criminal law to questions of admissibility of evidence constituted ‘specific provision’ for the purposes of the exception in s 9(c), thereby removing proceedings before the committee from the ambit of the 1988 Act. He further submitted that a dictum in the judgment of this Board in Lanford v General Medical Council [1989] 2 All ER 921 at 925, [1990] 1 AC 13 at 19–20 required that notwithstanding the provision of the 1988 Act corroboration was necessary. That passage was in the following terms:
‘Counsel for the appellant (rightly, as their Lordships consider) submitted that the onus and standard of proof in these disciplinary proceedings and the relevant legal principles were those applicable to a criminal trial.’
If it be the case that Scots law of evidence, as the lex fori, applied to the proceedings of the committee in Glasgow, there are two reasons why their Lordships consider that the appeal must fail. In the first place s 1(1) of the 1988 Act applies to any civil proceedings or a tribunal unless specific provision has been made as regards the rules of evidence which are to apply (s 9(c)). Rule 50 deals with admissibility of evidence in certain circumstances but makes no reference to corroboration which has therefore not been made the subject of a provision. As a matter of construction the exception to s 9(c) can apply only where there exist rules which specifically deal with corroboration in a manner which supersedes the application of s 1(1). There being no such provision in the 1988 rules, it follows that if the Scots law of evidence applied to the proceedings the rules did not exclude the application of s 1(l) of the 1988 Act.
It remains to consider the above quoted dictum in Lanford v General Medical Council. That case concerned two separate complaints by women patients of indecent conduct and speech towards them on the part of a doctor. The passage therefore related to events which, had they been the subject of criminal charges in England, would have required to be proved by corroborated evidence. The appellant argued that in the particular circumstances of the case the evidence of one patient did not corroborate that of the other. The council did not traverse this argument by submitting that corroboration was not necessary and the issue of the need for corroboration was therefore not before the Board. Their Lordships do
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not consider that the above dictum can be treated as having universal application in all cases arising before the committee. In charges brought against a doctor where the events giving rise to the charges would also found serious criminal charges it may be appropriate that the onus and standards of proof should be those applicable to a criminal trial. However there will be many cases where the charges which a doctor has to face before the committee could not be the subject of serious or any criminal charges at all. The committee is composed entirely of medical men and women learned in their profession and to require that every charge of professional misconduct has to be proved to them just as though they were a jury of laymen is, in their Lordships’ view, neither necessary nor desirable. What is of prime importance is that the charge and the conduct of the proceedings should be fair to the doctor in question in all respects. It is not without significance (i) that r 50 clearly contemplates that the committee may consider evidence which would not be admissible in criminal proceedings and (ii) that the rules nowhere provide that criminal standards of proof and corroboration must at all times apply.
Neither r 50 nor any other rule required to be considered by this Board in Lanford v General Medical Council and their Lordships doubt whether the above dictum would have been couched in such wide terms had it been drawn to the attention of the Board. Indeed if Parliament had intended that rules of evidence appropriate to criminal proceedings should apply in all proceedings before the committee, it is surprising that the council were not directed to make such rules in para 1(1) of Sch 4 to the 1983 Act. In all the circumstances their Lordships do not consider that, if Scots law applied to proceedings in Glasgow, the council would have been obliged to disregard the provision of s 1(1) of the 1988 Act and to apply the criminal law of evidence instead.
In the second place, even if corroboration of the fact that the appellant dishonestly induced Mr Paterson to provide him with a replacement cheque were necessary, their Lordships are satisfied that there was ample evidence to corroborate that of Mr Paterson. The provision of a replacement cheque by Mr Paterson was admitted by the appellant, as were his subsequent dealings with that cheque through the accounts in the Clydesdale Bank, Bearsden. The committee found, as the appellant accepts that they were entitled to find, that he acted dishonestly in deliberately misleading John Laing Construction Ltd into believing that he intended to use their cheque towards payment for the Bactec machine. There was accordingly ample evidence on which the committee were entitled to infer that when the appellant induced Mr Paterson to provide him with a replacement cheque he was acting dishonestly.
That is sufficient for the disposal of this appeal but their Lordships think it right to consider whether Scots law was applicable at all to the proceedings. This is the first occasion, so this Board was informed, on which the committee had sat in Scotland. It did so because of the state of health of the appellant. Cases involving Scots doctors have to date always been heard in London and it has never been suggested that any law other than that of England applied to the proceedings. The council and the committee are United Kingdom bodies and it is highly desirable that the same rules of evidence and procedure should apply throughout the United Kingdom wherever the committee sits. Conversely it is highly undesirable that the committee should apply different standards of proof to different doctors depending upon where they elect to sit. Although the 1983 Act makes reference to the Court of Session in the context of termination or suspension of a person’s registration in the register (s 38(6) and (7)) and to the appointment of an advocate as a legal assessor to the committee in relation to proceedings in Scotland (paras 7(1) and (3) of Sch 4), these provisions do not necessarily point to
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Scots law being applied by the committee. It is possible to envisage situations where a doctor had been convicted of offences in Scotland in circumstances in which it would be desirable for the committee to be advised as to what were the necessary components of that offence. More significant matters are: (1) that in para 1(1) of Sch 4 to the 1983 Act no direction is given to the General Medical Council to make different sets of rules of evidence for Scotland and England, and (2) that in r 50 admissibility of evidence is in certain circumstances to be tested by English law.
This latter provision suggests that the council as rule makers contemplated that English law should apply to all proceedings before the committee wherever they might take place. Given the desirability of a single code of evidence being applied in the committee’s proceedings throughout the United Kingdom and given the aforementioned indications in r 50, their Lordships are satisfied that the law of England was the correct law to have been applied in these proceedings.
In summary the appeal fails for the following reasons: (1) because the law of England applied to the proceedings before the committee; (2) even if the law of Scotland had applied (a) there was ample evidence to corroborate that of Mr Paterson in relation to charge 2(b), and (b) in any event no corroboration of that evidence was required having regard to the provision of s 1(1) of the Civil Evidence (Scotland) Act 1988.
Their Lordships will therefore humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal should be dismissed. The appellant must pay the respondent’s costs.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Lawson v Midland Travellers Ltd and another
[1993] 1 All ER 989
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, STUART-SMITH AND SIMON BROWN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 11 NOVEMBER, 2 DECEMBER 1992
Practice – Acknowledgment of service – Notice of intention to contest proceedings – Oral agreement extending time for service of defence – Oral agreement not confirmed in writing until after expiry of time limit for service of defence – Defendant allowing time for service of defence to expire without issuing summons to set aside writ – Whether defendant irrevocably submitting to jurisdiction and waiving any irregularity in writ – Whether service of writ should be set aside – RSC Ord 3, r 5, Ord 12, r 8(1)(7).
The plaintiff, a disabled person who had to use crutches or a wheelchair to get about, booked a holiday at a hotel in Spain organised by the second defendant, a tour operator, through the first defendant, a travel agent. On 26 September 1987, while on holiday, the plaintiff accidentally fell while walking up some steps at the hotel recommended by the defendants. On 31 August 1990 he issued a writ against the defendants alleging negligence and/or breach of statutory duty and claiming damages for personal injuries. The limitation period for the plaintiff’s claim expired on 25 September 1990. On 8 November the writ was amended to include a claim for breach of contract. The writ was not served within the four months permitted by the rules of court. On 7 March 1991 the plaintiff served the
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writ and statement of claim but the statement of claim was not accompanied by a medical report or statement of special damages as required by RSC Ord 18, r 12(1A). On 8 March the second defendant filed an acknowledgment of service and on 28 March there was an oral agreement between the parties’ solicitors extending the time for service of the defence until 14 days after the plaintiff served a medical report and schedule of special damages. That agreement was confirmed in writing on 8 April. The time for service of the defence would have expired on 3 April but for the agreement to extend the time, assuming the agreement was valid. On 19 April the plaintiff served his medical evidence but not a schedule of special damages. On 4 July the second defendant issued summonses (i) to set aside service of the writ, (ii) for an extension of time to serve their defence if there had been no valid extension by agreement and (iii) for leave to withdraw their acknowledgment of service. The district judge dismissed the summonses. The second defendant appealed to the judge, who dismissed the appeal on the ground that under Ord 12, r 8(7)a the second defendant had submitted to the jurisdiction by acknowledging service of the writ and not applying under Ord 12, r 8(1)b to have the service of the writ set aside before the time limited for service of the defence on 3 April 1992. The judge further held that the written consent given by the plaintiff on 8 April 1991 confirming the previous oral consent, after the time for service of the defence had expired, was ineffective to extend the time limited by the rules for service of the defence because although there could be a retrospective extension of the time for service of a defence by the court under Ord 3, r 5(2)c there could be no retrospective extension by consent under Ord 3, r 5(3). The second defendant appealed.
Held – RSC Ord 3, r 5(3) enabled the parties to do by consent that which the court could do on an application under r 5(2), thereby avoiding the need for an application to the court, since there was no fetter on the power of the court under Ord 3, r 5 to grant a retrospective extension of time. Accordingly, the written consent given by the plaintiff on 8 April 1991 had validly extended the time for service of the defence. Furthermore, an extension of time for service of the defence automatically involved an extension of time for making an application under Ord 12, r 8(1) to set aside service of the writ, since the defendant was entitled to see the nature of the claim properly pleaded in the statement of claim before deciding whether to challenge the jurisdiction or deal with the case on the merits. Accordingly, since the application to set aside the service had been made within the extended period the second defendant was not deemed irrevocably to have submitted to the jurisdiction by failing to apply within the prescribed time. It followed that, since the statement of claim was defective because it did not comply with Ord 18, r 12(1A), the second defendant was not to be taken, simply by taking a step in the action by inviting the plaintiff or the court to extend the time for service of the defence, to have waived its right to apply under Ord 12, r 8(1) to set aside the writ until the plaintiff had made good the defective service of the statement of claim. The appeal would therefore be allowed and service of the writ set aside (see p 994 g to j, p 995 d, p 996 f g and p 997 b g, post).
Per curiam. A plaintiff who wishes only to grant an extension of time for service of the defence but not to apply to set aside the writ must expressly say so when granting his consent (see p 996 e g and p 997 b g, post).
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Notes
For extension or abridgment of time, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 30–31, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 200–203, 1319–1344.
For effect of non-compliance with the rules of court, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 36, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 205–212, 1355–1390.
For disputing jurisdiction of court, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 209–211 and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 341, 2123–2127.
Cases referred to in judgments
Carmel Exporters (Sales) Ltd v Sea-Land Services Inc [1981] 1 All ER 984, [1981] WLR 1068.
Sage v Double A Hydraulics Ltd, Chambers v Starkings (1992) Times, 2 April, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Bernstein v Jackson [1982] 2 All ER 806, [1982] 1 WLR 1082, CA.
Rein v Stein [1892] 1 QB 753, CA; affg 66 LT 469, DC.
Somportex Ltd v Philadelphia Chewing Gum Corp [1968] 3 All ER 26, CA.
Williams & Glyn’s Bank plc v Astro Dinamico Cia Naviera SA [1984] 1 All ER 760, [1984] 1 WLR 438, HL.
Interlocutory appeal
The second defendant, Thomson Holidays Ltd, appealed with leave of the judge given on 14 April 1992 from the order of Laws J sitting at Birmingham on 6 March 1992 dismissing its appeal from the order of District Judge Hargreaves dated 11 November 1991 dismissing the second defendant’s application for an order that service of the writ issued on 31 August 1990 by the plaintiff, Michael Roderick Lawson, claiming damages for personal injury, loss and expense from the first defendant, Midland Travellers Ltd, and the second defendant, arising out of an accident allegedly caused by the negligence and/or breach of statutory duty of the defendants, and damages for breach of contract, be set aside and the action be dismissed, and dismissing the second defendant’s application for an extension of the time for service of the defence and/or for leave to withdraw acknowledgment of service. Service of the writ against the first defendant was set aside pursuant to the order of District Judge Cole made in Birmingham district registry on 27 June 1991. The facts are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ.
Dermod O’Brien QC (instructed by Lawrence Graham) for the second defendant.
Julia Smith (instructed by Howell & Co, Birmingham) for the plaintiff.
Cur adv vult
2 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Thomas Bingham MR). This appeal raises a question of some interest and general importance on the interpretation of RSC Ord 12, r 8 relating to disputes as to jurisdiction and in particular applications to set aside service of a writ, and Ord 3, r 5 relating to extensions of time within which such an application can be made.
The facts are these. The plaintiff is crippled and has to use crutches or a wheelchair to get about. He booked a holiday at a hotel in Spain through the agency of the first and/or second defendant. On 26 September 1987 he suffered an accident when he fell while walking up some steps at the hotel recommended
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by the defendants. On 31 August 1990 he issued a writ against both defendants claiming damages for personal injuries caused by their negligence and/or breach of statutory duty. On 25 September 1990 the limitation period expired. On 8 November the writ was amended to include a claim for breach of contract. The writ was not served within the four months permitted by the rules (see Ord 6, r 8(1)(b)).
On 7 March 1991 the plaintiff’s solicitors prepared to serve the writ and a statement of claim by fax. No point is taken by the defendants that the purported service was by fax. The statement of claim was not accompanied, as it should have been, with a medical report or statement of the special damages claimed (see Ord 18, r 12(1A)). But Mr O’Brien does not contend that the statement of claim is a nullity because of non-compliance with this rule. On 8 March the second defendant’s solicitors filed an acknowledgment of service. On 28 March there was an oral agreement between solicitors extending the time for service of the defence until 14 days after the plaintiff served a medical report and schedule of special damages. On 2 April 1991 the second defendant’s solicitors wrote to the plaintiff’s solicitors as follows:
‘We also confirm our telephone conversation with Mr Williams of the 28 March when we pointed out that when serving the Statement of Claim you had failed to comply with the revised provisions of RSC Order 18 Rule 12 in that you had not served with the pleading your medical evidence and a Schedule of Special Damages. In these circumstances we confirm your agreement to extend our time for service of the Defence until 14 days after you have remedied this omission.’
On 8 April by letter the plaintiff’s solicitors confirmed their agreement in those terms. But for that extension of time, if it was valid, time for service of the defence would have expired on 3 April. On 19 April the plaintiff served medical evidence, but not a schedule of special damages. On 4 July the second defendant issued a summons to set aside service of the writ. On 11 November District Judge Hargreaves dismissed the application. The second defendant appealed on 15 November and on the same day issued a summons returnable before the judge asking for an order for extension of time to serve the defence (if there had been no valid extension by agreement) and leave to withdraw the acknowledgment of service. On 6 March 1992 Laws J dismissed the second defendant’s appeal and summons; on 14 April 1992 he gave leave to the second defendant to appeal his order. The second defendant now appeals pursuant to that leave. For the sake of completeness I should add that the first defendant had successfully applied to have the service of the writ set aside against it. Furthermore, the plaintiff had applied to the district judge for an extension of the writ; that was refused and the plaintiff did not appeal.
Before coming to Ord 12, r 8 as it is presently drafted, it is desirable to consider briefly the legislative history of this rule. Before 1979 a defendant had to enter an appearance; by so doing he not only showed his intention to defend, but he submitted to the jurisdiction of the court. If he wished to challenge the jurisdiction, he could either obtain leave to enter a conditional appearance and then apply to set aside service of the writ, or make that application forthwith. In 1979 the rules were changed and the defendant no longer had to enter an appearance (see RSC (Writ and Appearance) 1979, SI 1979/1716). Instead he had to file an acknowledgment of service.
Order 12, r 7 was in substantially the same terms as it now is. The current rule provides:
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‘The acknowledgment by a defendant of service of a writ shall not be treated as a waiver by him of any irregularity in the writ or service thereof or in any order giving leave to serve the writ out of the jurisdiction or extending the validity of the writ for the purpose of service.’
Order 12, r 8(1) of the 1979 rules was as follows:
‘A defendant who wishes to dispute the jurisdiction of the court in the proceedings by reason of any such irregularity as is mentioned in rule 7 or on any other ground shall give notice of intention to defend the proceedings and shall, within 14 days thereafter, apply to the Court for—(a) an order setting aside the writ or service of the writ or notice of the writ on him …’
Sub-paragraphs (b) to (h) are not material to this appeal and are in substantially the same terms as in the current rule. Paragraph (2) provided:
‘Order 3, rule 5 shall apply in relation to the period of 14 days mentioned in paragraph (1) with the modification that the said period may be extended by the Court only on an application made before the expiration of the period.’
Paragraphs (3) to (6) are not material. Paragraph (7) was as follows:
‘Except where the defendant makes an application in accordance with paragraph (1), the acknowledgment by a defendant of service of a writ [or notice of a writ] shall, unless the acknowledgment is withdrawn by leave of the Court under Order 21, rule 1, be treated as a submission by the defendant to the jurisdiction of the Court in the proceedings.’
The effect of paras (2) and (7) was that, if the defendant failed to make an application to extend the 14 days provided by para (1) within that time, he was to be treated as having submitted to the jurisdiction. This was so held by Robert Goff J in Carmel Exporters (Sales) Ltd v Sea-Land Services Inc [1981] 1 All ER 984, [1981] 1 WLR 1068. But the judge drew attention to the difficulties caused by this rigid time limit. He said ([1981] 1 All ER 984 at 993, [1981] 1 WLR 1068 at 1079):
‘Second, I wish to return to the requirement in the new Ord 12, r 8(2), that an application under Ord 3, r 5, for an extension of the 14-day period within which an application to the court under r 8(1) has to be made, must be made before the expiration of the 14-day period. The exceptional rigidity of this requirement contrasts forcibly with the flexibility which is now generally characteristic of the Rules of the Supreme Court, and which enables the court to ensure that justice is done. No doubt short time limits are sometimes desirable; a recent example of this is the period of 21 days now required under Ord 73, r 5 for the commencement and service of proceedings to challenge arbitration awards. But the imposition of the guillotine in Ord 12, r 8(2) appears to be contrary to the trend in our rules, which is to ensure so far as possible that parties do not fall into procedural traps, and to give the court power to deal with the situation if they do so. The widening some years ago of the court’s powers under Ord 2, r 1 to deal with failures to comply with the rules, provides a vivid illustration of this trend. It is not difficult to see how, due to error, oversight or even illness in a busy solicitor’s office, the 14-day period in r 8(1) might be allowed to pass without an application being made under Ord 3, r 5 for an extension of time. I must confess that it seems strange that the court should be deprived of any power to remedy the situation, especially where the plaintiff has suffered no
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prejudice, as for example where the point at issue has already been developed in correspondence.’
He expressed the hope that the Rule Committee might remedy the situation. The committee responded and produced the current rule in 1983.
Order 12, r 8(1) now reads, so far as is material:
‘A defendant who wishes to dispute the jurisdiction of the court in the proceedings by reason of any such irregularity as is mentioned in rule 7 or on any other ground shall give notice of intention to defend the proceedings and shall, within the time limited for service of a defence, apply to the Court for—(a) an order setting aside the writ or service of the writ on him …’
Paragraph (2) has now been revoked.
Save for reference to the notice of the writ which has been deleted para (7) is in the same terms as the 1979 rule.
I must now refer to Ord 3, r 5. This provides:
‘(1) The Court may, on such terms as it thinks just, by order extend or abridge the period within which a person is required or authorised by these rules, or by any judgment, order or direction, to do any act in any proceedings.
(2) The Court may extend any such period as is referred to in paragraph (1) although the application for extension is not made until after the expiration of that period.
(3) The period within which a person is required by these rules, or by any order or direction, to serve, file or amend any pleading or other document may be extended by consent (given in writing) without an order of the Court being made for that purpose …’
Laws J held that although there could be a retrospective extension of time for delivery of defence by the court under Ord 3, r 5(2) there could be no such retrospective extension by consent under para (3). Accordingly, since the written consent was not given until after the time for service of the defence had expired, there was no valid extension and the second defendant had not made its application in time.
In my judgment the judge was wrong in adopting this construction. Paragraph (3) enables the parties to do by consent what the court can do on application under para (2), thereby avoiding the need for an application to the court. This being so, Mr O’Brien QC on behalf of the second defendant submits that the written consent validly extended time for service of the defence and the application to set aside the service was made within the extended period.
Miss Smith for the plaintiff sought to counter this argument in four ways. First, she submitted that the effect of Ord 12, r 8(7) is that, as soon as the primary time limit set out in r 8(1) has expired, unless it is extended during the currency of that period, the defendant is to be treated as having submitted to the jurisdiction and he cannot apply under r 8(1). In other words, she submits that the revocation of para (2) makes no difference. I cannot accept that submission; the only effect of the old para (2) was to place a fetter on the power of the court which otherwise existed under Ord 3, r 5 to grant a retrospective extension of time. That fetter has now been removed. It cannot be reintroduced by a sidewind.
The second argument, which was not advanced before Laws J and was prompted by a suggestion from the court and was then the subject of an amended respondent’s notice, was to this effect: it is not sufficient for the defendant to obtain an extension of time for service of the defence whether by order of the court or by consent; he must apply in terms for an extension of time in which to
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make the application under Ord 12, r 8(1). In other words the reference to the time limited for service of the defence is simply shorthand for the times specified in Ord 18, r 2(1). If the rule therefore is set out in full it would read:
‘A defendant who wishes to dispute the jurisdiction of the court … shall, within 14 days after the time limited for acknowledgment of service of the writ or after the statement of claim is served on him, whichever is the later, apply to the court for an order.’
I cannot accept this submission for three reasons. (1) If that is what is intended, there is no difficulty in saying so, or if the language is thought cumbersome, a fixed period of say 28 days could have been specified as in the older Ord 12, r 8(1). (2) While the new rule may have removed one trap for a defendant, it would have introduced an equally fatal but more subtle one. If he follows precisely the word of the rule and applies to extend time for service of the defence, he does not thereby automatically extend his time for making the application under Ord 12, r 8(1); but he has to make a separate application in that behalf. I cannot believe that was the intention of the Rule Committee. (3) In my judgment there has been a deliberate change of policy to enable the defendant to see the nature of the claim properly pleaded in the statement of claim before he has to decide whether to challenge the jurisdiction or deal with the case on the merits. There may be cases where the grounds for setting aside the service are less clear cut than in this case, where the defendants’ insurers may prefer to buy off for a modest sum what appears to be a weak case made at the end of the limitation period, rather than contest the court’s jurisdiction.
Miss Smith relied upon a recent decision of this court in Sage v Double A Hydraulics Ltd, Chambers v Starkings (1992) Times, 2 April, of which we have seen a transcript. The facts of that case were unusual. The plaintiff had served the writ after its expiry and after the limitation period. The defendants applied within the primary time limited by Ord 12, r 8(1) to set aside service; however they failed to turn up on the summons and it was dismissed. Instead of applying to reinstate the summons they applied retrospectively for an order to extend time for delivery of defence and only after that applied to reinstate the summons to set aside service.
The question in that case was whether by issuing a summons for extension of time for serving the defence at a time when they had not either appealed the dismissal of the application to set aside or applied to reinstate that summons, the defendants had waived their right to challenge the writ or the court’s jurisdiction. Farquharson LJ, with whose judgment Lord Donaldson MR and Stocker LJ agreed, said in answer to this question:
‘What in my judgment is conclusive against the defendants is the issue of the time summons on 22 March 1991 and its service. This was done at a time when the writ was not apparently being challenged as the application for reinstatement of the original summons to set aside was not made until 26 March 1991. It is appreciated that the steps taken to extend time were to protect the defendants’ position in the event of the failure of the summons to set the writ aside, but as already observed the acts of the defendant and his solicitors must be regarded objectively. So regarded, in my judgment, the defendants did take a step in the action inconsistent with their challenge and thus waived their right to object to the writ.’
In my judgment that case depends on its particular facts. The present argument was not addressed to the court. It is no authority for the proposition that if the defendant merely applies for an extension of time for service of the defence,
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which automatically carries with it the extension of time in which to apply under Ord 12, r 8(1), that this is to be taken as a waiver.
Thirdly, Miss Smith submitted that the second defendant’s solicitors’ letter of 2 April 1991, the material part of which I have already set out, constituted a step in the action and hence a waiver. She submitted that by asking for service of the medical evidence and schedule of special damage the second defendant was inviting the plaintiff to incur further expense in the belief that the matter would be defended on the merits.
In my judgment there are a number of answers to this submission. First, the second defendant did not call for those documents at all, it merely asked for an extension of time until they were served. Secondly, there is no evidence that the plaintiff incurred any expense after the letter of 2 April; they may or may not have done. Those reasons are peculiar to this case. But the real objection in my opinion is that the service of the statement of claim was defective (although not a nullity) because it did not comply with Ord 18, r 12(1A). This did not prevent time for service of the defence running. But, having regard to the policy to which I have earlier referred, I do not think the second defendant should be taken to have waived his right to apply under Ord 12, r 8(1) simply because he has invited the plaintiff or the court to extend time for service of the defence until the plaintiff has made good the defective service of the statement of claim.
Finally, Miss Smith submitted that the exchange of letters between the solicitors should be construed as granting an extension of time for service of the defence, but not for applying to set aside the writ. I can see no basis for this construction. If, as in my opinion is the case, an extension of time for service of the defence automatically involves an extension of time for applying under Ord 12, r 8(1) a plaintiff who wishes only to extend the time for the former but not the latter purpose, must expressly say so in granting his consent. I see no reason why he should not do so, if he is so minded; though this will draw attention to the defective service which he may hope, perhaps forlornly, that the defendant has overlooked. Equally it would I think be possible for the court, on an application under Ord 3, r 5(2) to grant a longer extension for service of the defence in contradistinction to making the application to set aside. But if no such distinction is made, the extension of time for service of the defence carries with it the extension of time to apply to set aside service of the writ.
For these reasons I would allow the appeal and set aside service of the writ.
SIMON BROWN LJ. I am in full agreement with the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ.
Recognising, however, the force of the concern expressed by Sir Thomas Bingham MR in his draft judgment, which I have also had the advantage of reading, I venture to advance these two thoughts.
First, that, following upon this decision, plaintiff’s solicitors will know that one of the consequences of consenting to an extension of time for the defence is, unless otherwise stipulated, that time is also extended for RSC Ord 12, r 8 purposes. Where appropriate, therefore, they should stipulate the contrary and, indeed, invite the court so to do if extension is being sought under Ord 3, r 5(1) or (2). If, of course, as here, the defendant is virtually entitled to an extension of time because of the plaintiff’s failure to serve his medical evidence and schedule of special damage with the statement of claim, such stipulation is unlikely to be accepted. Assuming, however, that the plaintiff is not in default, it doubtless would be.
Second, that, in any case where the consequence of obtaining extensions of time for the service of the defence and thus for the making of a setting aside
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application under Ord 12, r 8 is to put the plaintiff outside the limitation period for the institution of fresh proceedings, the court would be alert to find wherever appropriate that the defendant by his conduct had waived any rights under Ord 12, r 8, in particular where the defendant appeared to have sought extensions of time for that very purpose.
For the reasons given by Stuart-Smith LJ I too would allow this appeal and set aside service of the writ.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. I have felt more difficulty about this case than Stuart-Smith and Simon Brown LJJ.
I do not doubt that the amendments made to RSC Ord 12, r 8 following Carmel Exporters (Sales) Ltd v Sea-Land Services Inc [1981] 1 All ER 984, [1981] 1 WLR 1068 were intended to allow extensions of time for applying to set aside service to be applied for or agreed after expiry of the time allowed for making such applications, and I see no reason to distinguish between extensions granted by the court under Ord 3, r 5(2) and extensions agreed in writing between the parties under Ord 3, r 5(3). I think that the judge was wrong to draw that distinction. I cannot, therefore, accept the plaintiff’s argument that if a defendant fails to apply for, or agree, an extension of time for setting aside service within the time prescribed he is deemed irrevocably to have submitted to the jurisdiction.
What troubles me is the proposition that any extension of time for serving a defence, whether granted by the court or agreed in writing between the parties, carries with it an extension of time for applying to set aside service, even though no reference is made to setting aside and even though the plaintiff and the court may be quite unaware of the possibility of such an application.
If ‘the time limited for service of a defence’ in Ord 12, r 8 means ‘the time limited by Ord 18, r 2 as extended by any order of the court or agreement in writing between the parties’, then the proposition noted above must follow. If, on the other hand, it means ‘the period prescribed by Ord 18, r 2’, I do not think it would follow.
I do not find it altogether easy to choose between these constructions, and the first construction would make it possible for a defendant to obtain extensions of time for defence until after a limitation period had expired and then spring an application to set aside service on the grounds of some default of which he had been aware all along. The plaintiff’s counsel in this case did not, however, at first advance the second construction as part of her case, it was never considered by the judge, it does not find favour with Stuart-Smith and Simon Brown LJJ and I do not find any clear pointer to the rule-makers’ intentions in the rules themselves.
In these circumstances, although with some unease, I agree that the appeal should be allowed and the service of the writ set aside.
Appeal allowed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
The Indian Endurance
Republic of India and others v India Steamship Co Ltd
[1993] 1 All ER 998
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: SHIPPING
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 26, 27 OCTOBER 1992, 18 FEBRUARY 1993
Pleading – Striking out – Estoppel per rem judicatam – Claim for damage to and loss of cargo – Judgment obtained in India in respect of part of goods – Action brought in England in respect of whole of loss – Whether cause of action in England identical to that in India – Whether English action barred – Whether action should be struck out – Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982, s 34.
The appellants, the Republic of India and the Indian Ministry of Defence, were the owners of a cargo of munitions carried on board the respondents’ vessel in September 1987 pursuant to bills of lading for a voyage from Sweden to India. The munitions, which included a small number of artillery shells, were loaded in no 3 hold above wood pulp destined for other consignees. In the course of the voyage a fire was discovered in the hold and it was extinguished with water. The vessel diverted to Cherbourg for a survey and the cargo was repacked and restowed. Fifty-one artillery shells were jettisoned as damaged and compression damage to some of the boxes of munitions, caused by the swelling of the wood pulp in the hold after it had been flooded with water, was noted. The vessel then continued its voyage to India, where the cargo was unloaded from the vessel. Following correspondence between the Ministry of Defence and the respondents about the damage to the cargo, the ministry made a claim against the respondents for the total loss of their cargo. In early August 1988 agreement was reached to extend time for commencement of proceedings for a year. On 1 September 1988 the Union of India as plaintiff brought proceedings in India against the respondents claiming damages for the 51 shells which had not been delivered, alleging negligence while the cargo was in transit. Judgment was given against the respondents in December 1989. However, before judgment was given the appellants issued out of the Admiralty Court in England a writ in rem against the respondents claiming total loss of the munitions, including the 51 shells which had been the subject of the Indian action, and alleging (i) breach of contract and/or duty as a carrier by sea for reward to deliver the goods in like good order and condition as when shipped, (ii) negligence and breach of duty as carriers and/or bailees for reward, and (iii) breach of their obligations under the Hague Visby Rules (as set out in the schedule to the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act 1971). The respondents by their defence asserted that the claim was barred by res judicata and relied on s 34a of the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982. The judge upheld that contention and struck out the claim. On appeal by the appellants the Court of Appeal affirmed his decision. The appellants appealed to the House of Lords, contending, inter alia, that there was no identity between the subject matters of the two sets of proceedings and, in any event, there was an arguable case that the respondents had waived or were estopped from relying on their right
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to invoke s 34 of the 1982 Act and that, therefore, the case should be remitted to the Admiralty Court to determine that issue on the evidence.
Held – (1) Since the contract of carriage under which the goods were shipped regulated the respective rights and obligations of the parties regarding the seaworthiness of the ship and the care of the goods, the mere fact that an action could be raised by pleading short delivery or delivery of the goods not in the like good order and condition as when shipped was irrelevant because the cause of action arose under the contract. Since the factual basis relied on by the appellants, ie the fire during transit resulting in the damage to and loss of the consignment, as giving rise to the two breaches of contract was the same in both actions there was identity of the causes of action in the two proceedings and s 34 of the 1982 Act applied (see p 1000 f, p 1007 b to e and p 1010 f to h, post).
(2) However, s 34 of the 1982 Act on its true construction provided no more than a bar against proceedings by a plaintiff and did not exclude the jurisdiction of the court, its function being to give effect to the policy underlying the principle of res judicata in the circumstances specified therein. It was therefore open to the appellants to raise the plea of waiver or estoppel. In the circumstances the plea of waiver or estoppel should not be rejected summarily; whether the respondents were estopped from raising the plea of res judicata was a matter to be decided on the evidence. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the case remitted to the judge to order pleadings and determine the issue in the ordinary way (see p 1000 f, p 1009 f to j and p 1010 b c f to h, post).
Notes
For the doctrine of res judicata and issue estoppel, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 974–983, and for cases on the subject, see 21 Digest (Reissue) 56–62, 368–390.
For the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982, s 34, see 22 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 402.
For the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act 1971, Sch, see 39 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 836.
Cases referred to in opinions
Arnold v National Westminster Bank plc [1991] 3 All ER 41, [1991] 2 AC 93, [1991] 2 WLR 1177, HL.
Brunsden v Humphrey (1884) 14 QBD 141, [1881–5] All ER Rep 357, CA.
Carl-Zeiss-Stiftung v Rayner & Keeler Ltd (No 2) [1966] 2 All ER 536, [1967] 1 AC 853, [1966] 3 WLR 125, HL.
Conquer v Boot [1928] KB 336, [1928] All ER Rep 120, DC.
Henderson v Henderson (1843) 3 Hare 100, [1843–60] All ER Rep 378, 67 ER 313, V-C.
Kammins Ballrooms Co Ltd v Zenith Investments (Torquay) Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 871, [1971] AC 850, [1970] 3 WLR 287, HL.
Kendall v Hamilton (1879) 4 App Cas 504, [1874–80] All ER Rep 932, HL.
King v Hoare (1844) 13 M & W 494, 153 ER 206.
Langdon v Richards (1917) 33 TLR 325.
Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929, [1965] 1 QB 232, [1964] 3 WLR 573, CA.
Litchfield v Ready (1850) 5 Exch 939, 155 ER 409.
Lothian v Henderson (1803) 3 Bos & P 499, 127 ER 271, HL.
Magrath v Hardy (1838) 4 Bing NC 782, 132 ER 990.
New Brunswick Rly Co v British and French Trust Corp Ltd [1938] 4 All ER 747, [1939] AC 1, HL.
Page 1000 of [1993] 1 All ER 998
Ricardo v Garcias (1845) 12 Cl & Fin 368, 8 ER 1450, HL.
Thoday v Thoday [1964] 1 All ER 341, [1964] P 181, [1964] 2 WLR 371, CA.
Yat Tung Investment Co Ltd v Dao Heng Bank Ltd [1975] AC 581, [1975] 2 WLR 690, PC.
Appeal
The Republic of India and the Government of India (Ministry of Defence), being the owners of the cargo lately laden on board the vessel Indian Grace, appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 30 January 1992 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Glidewell, McCowan and Leggatt LJJ) (sub nom Republic of India and the Government of the Republic of India (Ministry of Defence) v India Steamship Co Ltd, The Indian Grace [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 124) on 26 September 1991 dismissing their appeal from the order of Sheen J dated 12 December 1990 striking out their action in rem against the respondents, India Steamship Co Ltd, the owners of the vessel Indian Endurance, a sister ship of the Indian Grace, on the ground that the cause of action was the same as the cause of action on which the appellants had relied when they obtained judgment in India for damage to part of the cargo which had been carried on the respondents’ vessel from Sweden to India. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Goff.
Jonathan Sumption QC and Timothy Charlton (instructed by Clyde & Co) for the appellants.
Stewart Boyd QC and Jeffrey Gruder (instructed by Ince & Co) for the respondents.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
18 February 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, there is before your Lordships’ House an appeal by the appellants, the Republic of India and the Government of India (Ministry of Defence), against the dismissal by the Court of Appeal of an appeal from a decision by Sheen J ordering that the appellants’ claim against the respondents, the India Steamship Co Ltd (the owners of the vessel Indian Endurance) be struck out.
The following account of the facts of the case is largely taken from the agreed statement of facts helpfully prepared by the parties’ counsel. The appellants claim to be entitled to sue for damage suffered by a consignment of munitions carried on board the respondents’ vessel (Indian Grace) on a voyage from Uddevala in Sweden to Cochin in India between 26 June and 4 September 1987. The munitions were loaded in no 3 hold, above wood pulp destined for other consignees. On 1 July, a fire was discovered in no 3 hold; this was extinguished with water. The vessel put in to Cherbourg for survey, and to repack and restow the cargo in no 3 hold. At about this time a small number of artillery shells, probably 51, were jettisoned as damaged. In addition, compression damage to some of the boxes of munitions was noted. This was caused by the swelling of the wood pulp in the hold after it had been flooded with water.
The vessel resumed her voyage to India on 6 August 1987, arriving at Cochin in early September, and the cargo was cleared by 4 September. The appellants contend that they have not only lost the shells jettisoned and those damaged by
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crushing in the hold, but that they have also lost the value of the remaining munitions because of the effect of radiant heat upon them. It is accordingly contended that the cargo was a total loss. The claim amounts to just over SwKr27m the equivalent of £2.6m at the time of the appeal before this House.
The damage became the subject of correspondence (the record of which appears to be incomplete at present). On 9 December 1987 the Ministry of Defence in New Delhi wrote to the respondents making a claim for the total loss of the cargo in the sum of Rs136m—the sterling equivalent is £2.6m. The respondents replied on 2 January 1988 asking, in effect, for further particulars of the loss. It appears that on 3 February 1988 a notice of claim in the sum of Rs189,508, the equivalent of £6,000, was lodged with the vessel’s agents by the appellants ‘as per directions from Army headquarters’. At all events, correspondence between the Ministry of Defence in New Delhi and the respondents resumed on 5 July 1988, when the Ministry of Defence repeated its demand for payment of the full claim for Rs136m. This was followed on 21 July 1988 by a request for an extension of the Hague Rules time limit (due to expire on 31 August 1988) and notice that the appellants’ underwriters, Oriental Insurance Co Ltd, were authorised to pursue the claim. Thereafter, there were telex exchanges between W E Cox (Recoveries) Ltd, who were instructed to handle the claim for recovery of the loss, and the respondents, in which agreement was reached to extend time for commencement of proceedings for one year with effect from 1 September 1988. It was also agreed that English law and jurisdiction should apply. These agreements were concluded in early August 1988.
On 1 September 1988 the ‘Union of India represented by the Madras Commandant as plaintiff’ issued a plaint in the Subordinate Judge’s Court in Cochin, India, seeking damages for the 51 shells which were not delivered. By para 4 of the plaint the plaintiff purported to confine the suit to a claim for Rs189,508.67 in respect of the 51 shells only. No application was made to amend the pleading to bring forward a larger claim. This suit came on for final hearing on 7 December 1989, and judgment was given on 16 December 1989 by the principal sub-judge in the Subordinate Judge’s Court, Cochin. The plaintiff was awarded the full amount of its claim against the respondents. The respondents have appealed against this judgment, and the appeal is still pending in India.
On 25 August 1989 (ie before judgment was given in the action in Cochin) the writ in rem in the present action was issued. It was served on 4 May 1990 upon the Indian Endurance at Tees Dock, Middlesborough. Exchanges then ensued between the appellants’ solicitors, Clyde & Co, the respondents’ P & I club, Steamship Mutual Underwriting Association Ltd, and the respondents’ solicitors, Ince & Co. On 8 May these resulted in a (repeated) agreement to the application of English law and jurisdiction, and in the provision of a letter of undertaking by Steamship Mutual to pay the claim (if proved).
The statement of claim was served on 25 May 1990. In its original form, it makes claim for the total loss of the munitions cargo, including the 51 shells and 10 charges which had been the subject of the action in Cochin. The defence was served on 16 August 1990 and, in its original form, it pleaded issue estoppel as a defence to the claim, upon the ground that the appellants were capable of bringing the whole claim in Cochin but decided not to do so. The respondents issued a summons on 16 August 1990 seeking to strike out the appellants’ claim upon the grounds that it was frivolous, vexatious or abusive, pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19.
At the hearing of this summons before Sheen J the respondents amended their defence (and therefore the grounds for their application by the summons) to
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allege that the appellants’ claim was barred by res judicata and to rely upon s 34 of the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982. By order dated 12 December 1990, Sheen J acceded to the respondents’ application, and struck out the appellants’ claim on that ground. The appellants’ appeal to the Court of Appeal against this order was dismissed (see [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 124).
There is no doubt that the effect, in financial terms, of the decision of the courts below is most striking. The successful claim of the appellants in Cochin in respect of part of the consignment yielded only £6,000. The remainder of their claim, pursued in the English courts, is for over £2.5m. Yet the effect of invocation by the respondents of the principle of res judicata, as embodied in s 34 of the 1982 Act is, if the courts below are correct, to exclude any adjudication on the merits of this very substantial claim in the courts of this country. This result was regarded with dismay by Sheen J, who reached his decision only because he felt that he was compelled to do so on the basis of s 34. Similar sentiments were expressed by Glidewell LJ in the Court of Appeal (see [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 124 at 133), but he, together with Leggatt LJ (who delivered the principal judgment) and McCowan LJ, reached the same conclusion. Indeed, it has to be recognised that consequences of this kind may result from the application of the principle, which is founded upon the public interest in finality of litigation rather than the achievement of justice as between the individual litigants. What is startling about the present case is the extreme disparity between the very small size of the appellants’ recovery in the courts of Cochin and the very large size of their claim in the English courts which has been held to be excluded by reason of the judgment obtained by them in Cochin.
Apart from one argument not raised in the courts below which the appellants sought to raise before your Lordships (to which I will refer later), the appellants challenged the correctness of the decision below on three grounds. First, they submitted that there was no identity between the cause of action which was the subject matter of the Cochin judgment, and that which is the subject matter of the proceedings in this country. Second, they submitted that the issue in the present case fell to be decided not under s 34, but on the principle of issue estoppel; and that on that basis it was not appropriate to strike out the appellants’ claim at the present stage, since there were matters which required examination before any conclusion could be reached on that issue. Third, in any event, the appellants had raised the issue that the respondents’ plea of res judicata was not open to them, since arguably they had waived their right to rely upon it or were estopped from doing so, and the resolution of this issue too depended upon a full investigation of the relevant facts.
Central to the consideration of these issues is the impact of s 34 of the 1982 Act, upon which Sheen J and the Court of Appeal based their conclusion that the appellants’ claim should be struck out. Indeed Sheen J expressed the view that, if s 34 did not apply, and the case was to be decided upon the basis of the common law principle of issue estoppel, further investigation of the facts would be necessary. I propose therefore to turn first to consider the legislative purpose underlying s 34, and the effect of the section in the light of that legislative purpose; and in order to carry out that task it will, in my opinion, be necessary to set the section against the background of the common law principle of res judicata.
In Thoday v Thoday [1964] 1 All ER 341 at 352, [1964] P 181 at 197–198 Diplock LJ explained that estoppel per rem judicatam is a generic term which in modern law includes two species. He continued:
‘The first species, which I will call “cause of action estoppel”, is that which
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prevents a party to an action from asserting or denying, as against the other party, the existence of a particular cause of action, the non-existence or existence of which has been determined by a court of competent jurisdiction in previous litigation between the same parties. If the cause of action was determined to exist, i.e., judgment was given on it, it is said to be merged in the judgment, or, for those who prefer Latin, transit in rem judicatam. If it was determined not to exist, the unsuccessful plaintiff can no longer assert that it does; he is estopped per rem judicatam. This is simply an application of the rule of public policy expressed in the Latin maxim “nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa”. In this application of the maxim causa bears its literal Latin meaning. The second species, which I will call “issue estoppel”, is an extension of the same rule of public policy. There are many causes of action which can only be established by proving that two or more different conditions are fulfilled. Such causes of action involve as many separate issues between the parties as there are conditions to be fulfilled by the plaintiff in order to establish his cause of action; and there may be cases where the fulfilment of an identical condition is a requirement common to two or more different causes of action. If in litigation on one such cause of action any of such separate issues whether a particular condition has been fulfilled is determined by a court of competent jurisdiction, either on evidence or on admission by a party to the litigation, neither party can, in subsequent litigation between them on any cause of action which depends on the fulfilment of the identical condition, assert that the condition was fulfilled if the court has in the first litigation determined that it was not, or deny that it was fulfilled if the court in the first litigation determined that it was.’
I wish to add that—
‘there is a wider sense in which the doctrine [of res judicata] may be appealed to, so that it becomes an abuse of process to raise in subsequent proceedings matters which could and therefore should have been litigated in earlier proceedings.’ (See Yat Tung Investment Co Ltd v Dao Heng Bank Ltd [1975] AC 581 at 590 per Lord Kilbrandon, citing the locus classicus of Henderson v Henderson (1843) 3 Hare 100 at 115, [1843–60] All ER Rep 378 at 381–382 per Wigram V-C.)
There is one observation which I wish to make upon the passage from the judgment of Diplock LJ which I have just quoted. This is that the principle of merger to which Diplock LJ refers as applying where the cause of action was determined to exist, in the sense that judgment was given upon it, cannot be described simply as a species of estoppel. The principle, which is sometimes called the doctrine of merger in judgment, is that a person—
‘in whose favour an English judicial tribunal of competent jurisdiction has pronounced a final judgment … is precluded from afterwards recovering before any English tribunal a second judgment for the same civil relief on the same cause of action …’
(See Spencer Bower and Turner on the Doctrine of Res Judicata (2nd edn, 1969) p 355, para 423.)
The basis of the principle is that the cause of action, having become merged in the judgment, ceases to exist, as is expressed in the Latin maxim transit in rem judicatam: see King v Hoare (1844) 13 M & W 494 at 504, 153 ER 206 at 210 per Parke B, cited by Lord Penzance and Lord Blackburn in Kendall v Hamilton (1879) 4 App Cas 504 at 526, 542, [1874–80] All ER Rep 932 at 941, 950.
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The distinction between cause of action estoppel and issue estoppel on the one hand, and the principle of merger in judgment on the other hand, has been of great importance where the judgment in question is the judgment of a foreign court in the sense of a non-English court. This is because, whereas it has been recognised that the judgment of a non-English court may give rise to a cause of action estoppel where the judgment is in favour of the defendant (see eg Ricardo v Garcias (1845) 12 Cl & Fin 368, 8 ER 1450), and more recently to an issue estoppel (see Carl-Zeiss-Stiftung v Rayner & Keeler Ltd (No 2) [1966] 2 All ER 536, [1967] 1 AC 853), nevertheless such a judgment, in favour of the plaintiff, did not at common law constitute a bar against proceedings in England founded upon the same cause of action. This was because the principle of merger in judgment did not apply in the case of a non-English judgment: see Spencer Bower and Turner pp 363–364, and cases there cited. It was to remove this anomaly that s 34 of the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982 was enacted. This provides:
‘No proceedings may be brought by a person in England and Wales or Northern Ireland on a cause of action in respect of which a judgment has been given in his favour in proceedings between the same parties, or their privies, in a court in another part of the United Kingdom or in a court of an overseas country, unless that judgment is not enforceable or entitled to recognition in England and Wales or, as the case may be, in Northern Ireland.’
In Dicey and Morris The Conflict of Laws (11th edn, 1987) p 431 the effect of the section is described as being that it ‘reverses in part the rule that a foreign judgment does not of itself extinguish the original cause of action in respect of which the judgment was given.’
Such is the common law background to s 34. This will be of particular relevance when I come to consider the third submission of the appellants, concerned with their plea of waiver or estoppel by representation. However I propose to turn next to their first submission, which was that there was no identity between the cause of action which was the subject matter of the Cochin judgment, and that which is the subject matter of the proceedings in this country; and that on that basis s 34 of the 1982 Act does not apply in the present case.
It is necessary for this purpose to examine the two sets of proceedings. I take first the present proceedings in this country. There, the statement of a claim is in the ordinary form for a damage to cargo claim, alleging against the shipowners (1) breach of contract and/or duty as carrier by sea for reward to deliver the goods in like good order and condition as when shipped, (2) negligence, in breach of duty as carriers and/or as bailees for reward, and (3) breach of their obligations under art III(1) and (2) of the Hague Visby Rules (set out in the schedule to the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act 1971), which apply to the contracts contained in or evidenced by the two bills of lading under which the goods were shipped. Article III(1) provides:
‘The carrier shall be bound before and at the beginning of the voyage to exercise due diligence to—(a) Make the ship seaworthy … (c) Make the holds … fit and safe for [the] reception, carriage and preservation [of the goods].’
Article III(2) provides:
‘Subject to the provisions of Article IV, the carrier shall properly and carefully load, handle, stow, carry, keep, care for, and discharge the goods carried.’
Article IV(2) sets out a list of circumstances in which neither the carrier nor the ship shall be responsible for loss or damage. These include: ‘(a) Act, neglect, or
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default of the master, mariner, pilot, or the servants of the carrier in the navigation or in the management of the ship. ‘(b) Fire, unless caused by the actual fault or privity of the carrier …’
It will be observed that, among the allegations pleaded against the shipowners is a failure to deliver the goods in like good order and condition as when shipped. This reflects the fact that such a failure is prima facie evidence of breach of contract, and probably also of negligence (ie breach of duty as bailee), with the effect that the onus then passes to the shipowner to exonerate himself from liability, which is normally done by invoking one of the excepted perils. However in a case like the present, in which the Hague Visby Rules apply, it is inevitable that attention will be focused upon the applicable obligations and exceptions in arts III and IV of the rules, and that the dispute will be decided on the basis of those provisions.
I turn to the proceedings in India. As appears from the plaint in the Cochin action, the claim was in respect of deficiencies in (or, as we usually call it, short delivery of) the cargo delivered at Cochin, viz 51 shells (and a small item described as ‘charge green bag’). According to the agreed statement of facts before your Lordships, the 51 shells had been jettisoned at Cherbourg. The claim was advanced under one of the two bills of lading under which the consignment was shipped. Your Lordships were, however, informed that no point was taken on this, presumably because some of the 51 shells had in fact been shipped under each of the two bills of lading (see the particulars of loss under para 10 of the amended statement of claim in the present proceedings ([1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 124 at 128). In the plaint, it was alleged that the shipowners had been guilty of negligence while the cargo was in transit in the vessel, which presumably refers to a breach of their duty as bailees (carriers for reward). However, in the judgment, the learned judge stated that it was ‘more or less not in dispute’ that the law applicable to the carriage of the goods was the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act 1925. That must have incorporated the old Hague Rules into the bill of lading contract; they are not for present purposes different from the Hague Visby Rules. Further, the judge made an express finding that the ship was seaworthy and cargoworthy. He then considered whether the shipowners were entitled to be relieved from liability (presumably under art III(2)) by virtue of art IV(2)(a) or (b) of the Hague Visby Rules, and decided that they were unable to do so on the facts of the case. Accordingly, he held the shipowners liable for the value of the undelivered cargo.
The argument advanced by the appellants before your Lordships was that, for the purposes of ascertaining whether there was identity between the causes of action in the two sets of proceedings, a distinction had to be drawn between an action for damage to cargo (as in the present proceeding) and an action for short delivery (as in the Cochin proceedings). The submission was that, in accordance with the principle stated by Diplock LJ in Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929 at 935, [1965] 1 QB 232 at 243, a cause of action consists of the minimum facts which a plaintiff is required in law to plead and (if traversed) prove in order to obtain the relief which he claims. The minimum facts which, it was submitted, have to be proved in a damage to cargo claim are (1) the condition of goods on shipment and (2) their damaged condition on delivery; whereas in a short delivery claim they are (1) the quantity of the goods shipped and (2) the lesser quantity delivered. It follows, ran the submission, that there was no identity between the causes of action in the two sets of proceedings. Furthermore, the appellants submitted, the Court of Appeal had in truth confused the principle of res judicata, under which the same cause of action cannot be litigated twice, with the wider principle in Henderson v Henderson (1843) 3 Hare 100, [1843–60] All ER Rep 378,
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under which a point which could and should have been but was not raised in certain proceedings is barred in subsequent proceedings in which the same issue arises. On this basis, the appellants were able to argue, first, that s 34 of the 1982 Act did not apply, and second, that on the principle in Henderson v Henderson, which does not apply in certain special circumstances, arguments were open to them which required investigation and which rendered it inappropriate to strike out their statement of claim in the present case.
Now the difficulty with this argument is that it ignores the fact that the goods in question were shipped under a contract of carriage the terms of which (as set out in the Hague Rules or the Hague Visby Rules) regulate the respective rights and obligations of the parties. In these circumstances, the mere fact that the pleader can, so to speak, get the case on its feet by alleging short delivery or delivery of the goods not in the like good order and condition as when shipped, does not in my opinion assist. For it is wholly unrealistic to regard the cause of action as being other than a cause of action arising under the contract, which provides for the relevant duties of the shipowners regarding the seaworthiness of the ship and the care of the goods. Even if attention is concentrated on the liability of the shipowner as bailee, the fact remains that he is a bailee for reward and that accordingly his liability will be governed by the terms of the contract of carriage.
In these circumstances, the case is very different from a simple action in negligence, as for example a running down action, where damage is of the essence of the claim in the sense that damage must be proved to establish the cause of action. In such a case, it is theoretically possible to segregate different causes of action by reference to different heads of damage. Thus in Brunsden v Humphrey (1884) 14 QBD 141, [1881–5] All ER Rep 357, a case concerned with res judicata, a distinction was drawn between damage to the plaintiff’s carriage and damage to his person arising out of the same incident, and it was held that an earlier action by the plaintiff for the former constituted no bar to a subsequent action for the latter. The decision has not been without its critics, who prefer the dissenting judgment of Lord Coleridge CJ; but so narrow an approach is not in any event possible in a contractual context, where proof of damage is not necessary to establish the cause of action. Here, as is shown by Conquer v Boot [1928] 2 KB 336, [1928] All ER Rep 120, it is necessary to identify the relevant breach of contract; and if it transpires that the cause of action in the first action is a breach of contract which is the same breach of contract which constitutes the cause of action in the second, then the principle of res judicata applies, and the plaintiff cannot escape from the conclusion by pleading in the second action particulars of damage which were not pleaded in the first. In Conquer v Boot the relevant breach of contract was identified as being breach of a promise to complete a bungalow which the defendant was building for the plaintiff. Talbot J said ([1928] 2 KB 336 at 344–345, [1928] All ER Rep 120 at 124):
‘Here there is but one promise, to complete the bungalow; and the question whether or not it has been performed is to be decided by the state in which the bungalow was when it was handed over by the defendant to the plaintiff as complete. From that moment the Statute of Limitations began to run as to the whole. The plaintiff could not alter the fact that he was recovering damages for the breach of this single promise by failing to specify in his action all the particulars of the breach and all the damages to which he was entitled. The test whether a previous action is a bar is not whether the damages sought to be recovered are different, but whether the cause of action is the same …’
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Talbot J expressed his conclusion as follows ([1928] 2 KB 336 at 346, [1928] All ER Rep 120 at 125):
‘I think therefore that the plea of res judicata or judgment recovered is an answer to the whole of this action, and that the defendant is entitled to judgment.’
If I turn to the present case, I find that the situation is not precisely the same. The present case is not concerned with the failure to construct a building in accordance with a certain specification, which can result in a whole series of defects which may nevertheless lead to a single breach of contract, ie the failure to hand over the building constructed in accordance with the terms of the contract. It is rather concerned with a single incident, ie the fire during transit which broke out in the cargo over which the appellants’ consignment of munitions was stowed, which resulted in the damage to that consignment and to loss (by jettison) of a small part of it. Furthermore, as appears from the pleadings, that loss or damage might have resulted from breach of more than one term of the contract, for example breach of the obligation to make the vessel seaworthy under art III(1) of the Hague Visby Rules, or breach of the obligation to load and stow etc the vessel carefully under art III(2). However, for present purposes, there is no need to distinguish between the two breaches, because the factual basis relied upon by the appellants as giving rise to the two breaches is the same, and indeed was referred to compendiously by the appellants in the Cochin action as ‘negligence’. In these circumstances, I am satisfied that there is identity between the causes of action in the two sets of proceedings.
In these circumstances the appellants’ second submission, which was founded upon the assumption that s 34 of the 1982 Act is inapplicable, does not arise. I turn therefore to their third submission which was that there was an arguable case that the respondents had waived, or were estopped from relying upon, their right to invoke s 34; and that, if so, the matter should be remitted to the Admiralty judge to determine the question on the evidence. It was however recognised by the appellants that, before your Lordships, the issue really turned on the question whether s 34 is (as the Court of Appeal held) a mandatory provision limiting the jurisdiction of the English courts, or simply makes available a defence. It was common ground between the parties that if the section imposed a mandatory limitation on the jurisdiction of the English courts, then the parties could not enlarge that jurisdiction by any agreement between themselves.
Before considering the wording of s 34 itself, I think it desirable first to return to the background to the section, which I have already set out, with the purpose of considering whether, and if so how far, the principles of waiver or estoppel apply to the common law principle of res judicata. I put on one side for the moment the doctrine of merger in judgment, and take first estoppel per rem judicatam. In Spencer Bower and Turner on the Doctrine of Res Judicata (2nd edn, 1969) pp 331–332 the opinion is expressed that in such cases it is open to a party, against whom a plea of res judicata is raised, to invoke an estoppel by representation, and a fortiori by agreement, in answer to that plea. The reasoning runs as follows:
‘385 … where an estoppel per rem judicatam meets an estoppel by representation, there is a genuine cross-estoppel, in the strictest sense of the word. For here, A. having established a good estoppel by res judicata against B., B. confesses and avoids such estoppel by alleging and proving that A., by representation, has precluded himself from relying upon the res judicata. B.
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does not deny that he is estopped, but insists that A. is estopped from saying so …
387 It is scarcely necessary to add that, if a party can by conduct or inaction estop himself from setting up estoppel per rem judicatam, an express contract to disregard any judicial decision which may be given on a specified point affords, a fortiori, a complete affirmative answer to an estoppel based upon such decision.’
The line of authority cited in support of these propositions includes Lothian v Henderson (1803) 3 Bos & P 499 at 547–548, 127 ER 271 at 546–547, per Lord Eldon LC and Lord Alvanley (a Scottish appeal); Magrath v Hardy (1838) 4 Bing NC 782, 132 ER 980; Litchfield v Ready (1850) 5 Exch 939 at 945, 155 ER 409 at 412 per Parke B; and Langdon v Richards (1917) 33 TLR 325. I do not propose to examine these cases in detail. The line of authority is not particularly strong. Apart from Langdon v Richards, the cases are of some antiquity. Lothian v Henderson was concerned with the effect to be given to the decision of a French court which determined that cargo on a ship was lawful prize. Magrath v Hardy decided that a party who took issue on a fact relevant to the estoppel had waived any benefit which might have derived from the estoppel. Litchfield v Ready is doubtfully relevant. Langdon v Richards was a case in which the Crown took no objection to the fact that an issue had been determined previously by another tribunal. Furthermore, the point was not investigated in argument before your Lordships. I propose therefore to content myself with the observation that, as a matter of justice, there is much to be said for the opinion so expressed by Spencer Bower and Turner; and, especially since Arnold v National Westminster Bank plc [1991] 3 All ER 41, [1991] 2 AC 93, in which your Lordships’ House evinced a readiness to adopt a less technical approach than has been adopted in the past to this most technical subject, it may very well be recognised that what Spencer Bower and Turner call a ‘cross-estoppel’ may be pleaded in answer to a plea of estoppel per rem judicatam. Moreover such an approach appears to be consistent with the view of Spencer Bower and Turner p 13 that the principle of estoppel per rem judicatam is no more than a rule of evidence, with the view of Lord Maugham LC that the basis of the principle is that ‘it is unjust and unreasonable to permit the same issue to be litigated afresh between the same parties, or persons claiming under them’ (see New Brunswick Rly Co v British and French Trust Corp Ltd [1938] 4 All ER 747 at 754, [1939] AC 1 at 20) and with the view of Diplock LJ in Thoday v Thoday [1964] 1 All ER 341 at 351, [1964] P 181 at 197 that here, as elsewhere, an estoppel merely means that—
‘a party is not allowed, in certain circumstances, to prove in litigation particular facts and matters which, if proved, would assist him to succeed as plaintiff for defendant in an action.’
I strongly suspect that, in practice, the point seldom arises, except where in litigation the principle of estoppel per rem judicatam is not invoked and the party who might have taken it but does not do so thereby waives his right to rely upon it, and that this is the explanation for the dearth of authority on the matter. However, it is perhaps more difficult for a plea of waiver or estoppel to be effective in a case where the doctrine of merger in judgment applies, since the effect of the merger is that the cause of action ceases to exist; and indeed in Spencer Bower and Turner pp 398–399, para 491 it is pointed out that the only instances of estoppel as an affirmative answer to a case of this kind are to be found in cases of waiver or estoppel by omission to plead the former recovery. Even so, I hesitate to conclude
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that estoppel or waiver can otherwise have no application in such a case. However once again your Lordships did not have the benefit of argument on the point; and I will assume, in favour of the respondents, that generally a plea of estoppel or waiver will not be effective where the doctrine of merger in judgment applies at common law.
Now it can be argued that, since the function of s 34 was to overcome the anomaly created by the fact that the doctrine of merger in judgment did not apply in the case of foreign, ie non-English, judgments, s 34 should be read as having the same effect as that doctrine, and that upon that basis it would not be open to the appellants in the present case to plead either waiver or estoppel by representation. However it is important to observe that s 34 does not expressly apply the doctrine of merger in judgment to foreign judgments. It simply provides that ‘No proceedings may be brought’ on a cause of action in respect of which a foreign judgment of the relevant kind has been given. Founding themselves upon these words, the appellants submitted that the intention of Parliament was to do no more than create a defence, which was capable of being defeated by estoppel or waiver. A similar view was expressed in a note on the present case in the Law Quarterly Review by Mr Lawrence Collins, the general editor of Dicey and Morris on the Conflict of Laws (see ‘Illogical survivals and astonishing results’ (1992) 108 LQR 393).
Taking the section in isolation, the words of the statute are certainly amenable to this approach. Indeed, similar provisions in statutes of limitation (for example ss 2 and 5 of the Limitation Act 1980 ‘An action shall not be brought after …’) have been held to be capable of waiver. Furthermore, in Kammins Ballrooms Co Ltd v Zenith Investments (Torquay) Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 871, [1971] AC 850, which was concerned with s 29(3) of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, in which it was provided that ‘No application under subsection (1) of section twenty-four of this Act shall be entertained’ unless made within a certain period, not only did this House hold that the words in question did not have the effect of ousting the jurisdiction of the court, but Lord Reid relied upon the ‘well-established principle that any provision ousting the jurisdiction of the court must be construed strictly’ (see [1970] 2 All ER 871 at 875, [1971] AC 850 at 860). On this approach, the words of s 34 can appropriately be read as providing no more than a bar against proceedings by the plaintiff rather than excluding the jurisdiction of the court.
I then ask myself: does the fact that the function of s 34 is to overcome the difficulty created by the old rule that the doctrine of merger in judgment does not apply to foreign judgments require any different conclusion? For my part, I do not think so. To achieve the requisite result of giving effect to the policy underlying the principle to res judicata in the circumstances specified in s 34, there was no need for Parliament to invoke the highly technical doctrine of merger in judgment; the same practical result could be achieved by the simple words chosen in the section. And if the effect is that the statutory bar created by the section may be the subject of waiver or estoppel or contrary agreement, the result is only that in a case such as this the general rule of public policy enshrined in the principle of res judicata is subject to a particular exception which enables practical justice to be done in rare cases, without any harm being done to the rule of public policy.
For these reasons, I am of the opinion that it is open to the appellants to raise the plea of waiver or estoppel in the present case.
Before your Lordships, it was urged by the respondents that the matters invoked by the appellants as giving rise to a waiver or estoppel could not have any such effect; and accordingly, even if such a plea was open to them, your Lordships should nevertheless not disturb the order that the appellants’ statement of claim
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be struck out. I must confess that I would be most reluctant, as a matter of principle, to strike out a pleading which raises an issue of this kind, which is essentially one that should be decided on the evidence. The present claim is for a very large sum of money, and the defence of res judicata is a highly technical defence which has the effect, where it applies, of precluding a decision on the merits. The appellants’ plea of waiver or estoppel has not yet been pleaded; but it is plain that it relates to events in India as well as in this country. I for my part do not think it would be right for this plea to be rejected summarily in the way suggested by the respondents. I would therefore allow the appeal, and remit the action generally to the Admiralty judge, with the effect that he will be able to order the necessary pleadings and determine the issue in the ordinary way.
Finally, I wish to refer to the argument which the appellants sought to raise for the first time before your Lordships, which was to the effect that the judgment of the Cochin court was not a judgment on the same cause of action as the appellants assert in the present action, because it was a judgment in personam, whereas the present action is an Admiralty action in rem. This point was explained to your Lordships, and it became plain that it involved examination of matters of Admiralty law and practice of a fundamental kind. Your Lordships were put in the position that, on the one hand they were most reluctant to shut out an argument on a point of pure law of this kind, but on the other hand they were also more reluctant to determine, as a court of last resort, fundamental questions of Admiralty law and practice without having the benefit of the opinions of the Admiralty judge and the Court of Appeal on those questions. However, if the case is in any event to be remitted to the Admiralty judge, this matter too can be raised before him in the ordinary way, subject to any order which he may think fit to make on the question of costs when giving leave to amend.
The costs already incurred in your Lordships’ House and in the courts below will be costs in the cause in so far as it relates to the issue raised by the respondents’ plea of res judicata.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley I would allow this appeal.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley I too would allow this appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. For the reasons he gives I too would allow the appeal and remit the matter as he proposes.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. For the reasons he gives I too would allow the appeal and remit the matter as he proposes.
Appeal allowed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Derbyshire County Council v Times Newspapers Ltd and others
[1993] 1 All ER 1011
Categories: TORTS; Defamation: LOCAL GOVERNMENT
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 7, 8, 9, 10 DECEMBER 1992, 18 FEBRUARY 1993
Libel and slander – Parties – Right to sue – Corporation – Local government corporation – Right of local authority to sue – Publication relating to administration by local authority of its superannuation fund – Local authority alleging publication defamatory of it – Whether organs of central or local government entitled to sue for libel.
The plaintiff local authority brought an action against the publishers of a Sunday newspaper, its editor and two journalists claiming damages for publishing articles about the authority’s investment and control of its superannuation fund which were alleged to be defamatory of the local authority. The defendants applied to have the action struck out as disclosing no cause of action against them on the grounds, inter alia, that a local authority, being a non-trading statutory corporation, could not maintain an action for a libel which reflected on its administrative reputation when no actual financial loss was pleaded. The judge dismissed the defendants’ application, holding that a local authority could sue for libel in respect of its governing or administrative reputation even though no actual financial loss was pleaded or alleged, since it was an ordinary incident of all corporations, whether trading or municipal, that they could sue for libel. The defendants’ appeal to the Court of Appeal was allowed on the grounds that a local authority could not sue for libel in respect of its governing or administrative reputation if no actual financial loss was pleaded or alleged because if it were to have that right it would be able to stifle legitimate public criticism of its activities. The local authority appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – Under common law a local authority did not have the right to maintain an action for damages for defamation as it would be contrary to the public interest for the organs of government, whether central or local, to have that right. Not only was there no public interest favouring the right of government organs to sue for libel but it was of the highest public importance that a governmental body should be open to uninhibited public criticism, and a right to sue for defamation would place an undesirable fetter on freedom of speech. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 1017 j, p 1019 d, p 1020 e, p 1021 g to p 1022 a, post).
City of Chicago v Tribune Co (1923) 307 Ill 595 and dicta of Watermeyer CJ and Schreiner JA in Die Spoorbond v South African Railways [1946] AD 999 at 1009, 1012–1013 applied.
Bognor Regis UDC v Campion [1972] 2 All ER 61 overruled.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1992] 3 All ER 65 affirmed.
Notes
For actions for libel and slander by corporations, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1378 and 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 25, and for cases on the subject, see 13 Digest (Reissue) 349–350, 2972–2977.
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Cases referred to in opinions
A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd [1987] 3 All ER 316, [1987] 1 WLR 1248, HL.
A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, [1988] 2 WLR 805, CA and HL.
Barthold v Germany (1985) 7 EHRR 383, E Ct HR.
Bognor Regis UDC v Campion [1972] 2 All ER 61, [1972] 2 QB 169, [1972] 2 WLR 983.
Brind v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1991] 1 All ER 720, [1991] 1 AC 696, [1991] 2 WLR 588, HL.
Chicago (City) v Tribune Co (1923) 307 Ill 595, Ill SC.
Die Spoorbond v South African Railways [1946] AD 999, SA SC.
Hector v A-G of Antigua and Barbuda [1990] 2 All ER 103, [1990] 2 AC 312, [1990] 2 WLR 606, PC.
Lingens v Austria (1986) 8 EHRR 407, E Ct HR.
Manchester Corp v Williams [1891] 1 QB 94, 63 LT 805, DC.
Metropolitan Saloon Omnibus Co Ltd v Hawkins (1859) 4 H & N 87, [1843–60] All ER Rep 430, 157 ER 769.
National Union of General and Municipal Workers v Gillian [1945] 2 All ER 593, [1946] KB 81, CA; affg [1945] 2 All ER 593.
New York Times Co v Sullivan (1964) 376 US 254, US SC.
South Hetton Coal Co Ltd v North-Eastern News Association Ltd [1894] 1 QB 133, [1891–4] All ER Rep 548, CA.
Sunday Times v UK (1979) 2 EHRR 245, E Ct HR.
W (a minor) (wardship: freedom of publication), Re [1992] 1 All ER 794, [1992] 1 WLR 100, CA.
Warner Instrument Co v Ingersoll (1907) 157 F 311, US CC SD NY.
Willis v Brooks [1947] 1 All ER 191.
Appeal
The plaintiffs, the Derbyshire County Council, appealed with the leave of the Court of Appeal from the decision of that court (Balcombe, Ralph Gibson and Butler-Sloss LJJ) ([1992] 3 All ER 65, [1992] 1 QB 770) on 19 February 1992 allowing the appeal of the defendants, Times Newspapers Ltd, the publishers of the Sunday Times newspaper, Andrew Neil, the editor of the newspaper, and Peter Hounam and Rosemary Collins, two journalists employed on the newspaper, from the judgment of Morland J ([1991] 4 All ER 795, [1992] 1 QB 770) given on 15 March 1991 after the trial of a preliminary issue ordered by Master Miller on 2 November 1990 whereby, on an application by the defendants to strike out the action brought by the plaintiffs against the defendants claiming damages for libel and an injunction in respect of articles published in the Sunday Times on 17 and 24 September 1989 relating to the investment of the council’s superannuation fund, the judge held (i) that a local authority could sue for libel in respect of its governing or administrative reputation, when no actual damage was alleged, and (ii) that the plaintiffs had a cause of action in libel against the defendants on the basis of the pleaded statement of claim. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Keith.
Charles Gray QC and Heather Rogers (instructed by Kingsford Stacey, agents for David Tysoe, Matlock) for the plaintiffs.
Anthony Lester QC and Desmond Browne QC (instructed by Biddle & Co) for the defendants.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
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18 February 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, this appeal raises, as a preliminary issue in an action for damages for libel, the question whether a local authority is entitled to maintain an action in libel for words which reflect on it in its governmental and administrative functions. That is the way the preliminary point of law was expressed in the order of the master, but it has opened out into an investigation of whether a local authority can sue for libel at all.
Balcombe LJ, giving the leading judgment in the Court of Appeal, summarised the facts thus ([1992] 3 All ER 65 at 69, [1992] QB 770 at 802):
‘The facts in the case are fortunately refreshingly simple. In two issues of the Sunday Times newspaper on 17 and 24 September 1989 there appeared articles concerning share deals involving the superannuation fund of the Derbyshire County Council. The articles in the issue of 17 September were headed “REVEALED: SOCIALIST TYCOON’S DEALS WITH A LABOUR CHIEF” and “BIZARRE DEALS OF A COUNCIL LEADER AND THE MEDIA TYCOON”: that in the issue of 24 September was headed “COUNCIL SHARE DEALS UNDER SCRUTINY”. The council leader was Mr David Melvyn Bookbinder; the “media tycoon” was Mr Owen Oyston. It is unnecessary for the purposes of this judgment to set in any detail the contents of these articles: it is sufficient to say that they question the propriety of certain investments made by the council of moneys in its superannuation fund, with Mr Bookbinder as the prime mover, in three deals with Mr Oyston or companies controlled by him. Excerpts from the articles giving the flavour of the allegations made will be found in the judgment at first instance to which those interested may refer (see [1991] 4 All ER 795 at 798, [1992] QB 770 at 776–777). The council is the “administering authority” of its superannuation fund under the Superannuation Act 1972 and the regulations made thereunder.’
Following the publication actions for damages for libel were brought against the publishers of the Sunday Times, its editor and the two journalists who wrote the articles, by Derbyshire County Council (the appellants), Mr Bookbinder and Mr Oyston. Mr Oyston’s action was settled by an apology and payment of damages and costs. The statements of claim in this action by the appellants and in that by Mr Bookbinder are for all practical purposes in identical terms. That of the appellants asserts in para 6 that there were written and published ‘of and concerning the council and of and concerning the council in the way of its discharge of its responsibility for the investment and control of the superannuation fund’ the words contained in the article of 17 September, and para 8 makes a similar assertion in relation to the article of 24 September. Paragraph 9 states:
‘By reason of the words published on the 17th September 1989 and the words and graph published on the 24th September 1989 the Plaintiff Council has been injured in its credit and reputation and has been brought into public scandal, odium and contempt, and has suffered loss and damage.’
No special damage is pleaded. On 31 July 1991 French J refused an application by the appellants to amend the statement of claim so as to plead a certain specific item of special damage.
The preliminary point of law was tried at first instance before Morland J, who on 15 March 1991 decided it in favour of the appellants ([1991] 4 All ER 795, [1992] QB 770). However, on appeal by the present respondents his judgment was reversed by the Court of Appeal (Balcombe, Ralph Gibson and Butler-Sloss LJJ) on 19 February 1992 (see [1992] 3 All ER 65, [1992] QB 770). The appellants now appeal, with leave given in the Court of Appeal, to your Lordships’ House.
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There are only two reported cases in which an English local authority has sued for libel. The first is Manchester Corp v Williams [1891] 1 QB 94, 63 LT 805. The defendant had written a letter to a newspaper alleging that ‘in the case of two if not three departments of our Manchester city council, bribery and corruption have existed and done their nefarious work’. A Divisional Court consisting of Day and Lawrance JJ held that the statement of claim disclosed no cause of action. The judgment of Day J is in these terms (as reported in [1891] 1 QB 94 at 96):
‘This is an action brought by a municipal corporation to recover damages for what is alleged to be a libel on the corporation itself, as distinguished from its individual members or officials. The libel complained of consists of a charge of bribery and corruption. The question is whether such an action will lie. I think it will not. It is altogether unprecedented, and there is no principle on which it can be founded. The limits of a corporation’s right of action for libel are those suggested by Pollock, C.B., in the case which has been referred to. A corporation may sue for a libel affecting property, not for one merely affecting personal reputation. The present case falls within the latter class. There must, therefore, be judgment for the defendant.’
Lawrance J said that he was of the same opinion.
The Law Times report contains a somewhat longer judgment of Day J in these terms (63 LT 805 at 806–807):
‘This action is brought by the mayor, aldermen, and citizens of the city of Manchester to recover damages from the defendant in respect of that which is alleged by them to be a libel on the corporation. The alleged libel is contained in a letter written by the defendant to the editor of the Manchester Examiner and Times, which charged, as alleged by the statement of claim, that bribery and corruption existed or had existed in three departments of the Manchester City Council, and that the plaintiffs were either parties thereto or culpably ignorant thereof, and that the said bribery and corruption prevailed to such an extent as to render necessary an inquiry by a Parliamentary Commission. Now it is for us to determine whether a corporation can bring such an action, and I must say that, to my mind, to allow such a thing would be wholly unprecedented and contrary to principle. A corporation may sue for a libel affecting property, not for one merely affecting personal reputation. This does not fall within the class of cases in respect of which a corporation can maintain an action, but does fall within the second class commented on by Pollock, C.B. in his judgment in the case of the Metropolitan Saloon Omnibus Company v. Hawkins ((1859) 4 H & N 87, [1843–60] All ER Rep 430) with which I fully agree [a quotation follows]. The charge in the present case is one of bribery and corruption, of which a corporation cannot possibly be guilty, and therefore, in my opinion, this action will not lie.’
It is likely that the Law Reports version of his judgment was one revised by Day J, in which he omitted the sentence which ends the Law Times report, so that the true and only ratio of the decision is that a corporation may sue for a libel affecting property, but not for one merely affecting personal reputation.
Metropolitan Saloon Omnibus Co Ltd v Hawkins (1859) 4 H & N 87, [1843–60] All ER Rep 430 was an action by a company incorporated under the Joint Stock Companies Act 1856 in respect of a libel imputing to it insolvency, mismanagement and dishonest carrying on of its affairs. The Court of Exchequer held the action to be maintainable. Pollock CB, in the passage referred to by Day J, said (4 H & N 87 at 90, [1843–60] All ER Rep 430 at 431):
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‘That a corporation at common law can sue in respect of a libel there is no doubt. It would be monstrous if a corporation could maintain no action for slander of title through which they lost a great deal of money. It could not sue in respect of an imputation of murder, or incest, or adultery, because it could not commit those crimes. Nor could it sue in respect of a charge of corruption, for a corporation cannot be guilty of corruption, although the individuals composing it may. But it would be very odd if a corporation had no means of protecting itself against wrong; and if its property is injured by slander it has no means of redress except by action. Therefore it appears to me clear that a corporation at common law may maintain an action for a libel by which its property is injured.’
In South Hetton Coal Co Ltd v North-Eastern News Association Ltd [1894] 1 QB 133, [1891–4] All ER Rep 548 a newspaper had published an article alleging that the houses in which the company accommodated its colliers were in a highly insanitary state. The Court of Appeal held that the company was entitled to maintain an action for libel without proof of special damage, in respect that the libel was calculated to injure the company’s reputation in the way of its business. Lord Esher MR said ([1894] 1 QB 133 at 138, [1891–4] All ER Rep 548 at 550):
‘I have considered the case, and I have come to the conclusion that the law of libel is one and the same as to all plaintiffs; and that, in every action of libel, whether the statement complained of is, or is not, a libel, depends on the same question—viz., whether the jury are of opinion that what has been published with regard to the plaintiff would tend in the minds of people of ordinary sense to bring the plaintiff into contempt, hatred, or ridicule, or to injure his character. The question is really the same by whomsoever the action is brought—whether by a person, a firm, or a company. But though the law is the same, the application of it is, no doubt, different with regard to different kinds of plaintiffs. There are statements which, with regard to some plaintiffs, would undoubtedly constitute a libel, but which, if published of another kind of plaintiffs, would not have the same effect.’
He went on to say that certain statements might have the same effect, whether made with regard to a person, or a firm, or a company, for example statements with regard to conduct of a business, and, having elaborated on the question whether or not a particular statement might reflect on the manner of conduct of a business, he continued ([1894] 1 QB 133 at 139, [1891–4] All ER Rep 548 at 551):
‘With regard to a firm or a company, it is impossible to lay down an exhaustive rule as to what would be a libel on them. But the same rule is applicable to a statement made with regard to them. Statements may be made with regard to their mode of carrying on business, such as to lead people of ordinary sense to the opinion that they conduct their business badly and inefficiently. If so, the law will be the same in their case as in that of an individual, and the statement will be libellous. Then, if the case be one of libel—whether on a person, a firm, or a company—the law is that the damages are at large. It is not necessary to prove any particular damage; the jury may give such damages as they think fit, having regard to the conduct of the parties respectively, and all the circumstances of the case.’
In National Union of General and Municipal Workers v Gillian [1945] 2 All ER 593, [1946] KB 81 the Court of Appeal held that a trade union could, in general,
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maintain an action in tort, and that an action for libel was no exception to that rule. No detailed consideration was given to the nature of the statements in respect of which the action might lie, though Scott LJ referred to the disintegration of a trade union which might result from a libel (see [1945] 2 All ER 593 at 604, [1946] KB 81 at 87), and Uthwatt J said that he saw no reason why a non-trading corporation should not have the same rights as a trading corporation as respects inputations on the conduct by it of its activities (see [1945] 2 All ER 593 at 605, [1946] KB 81 at 88).
The second case involving proceedings by a local authority is Bognor Regis UDC v Campion [1972] 2 All ER 61, [1972] 2 QB 169, a decision of Browne J. Mr Campion had distributed at a meeting of a ratepayers’ association a leaflet savagely attacking the council, which sued him for libel. At the trial Mr Campion conducted his own case without the assistance of solicitors or counsel. Browne J found in favour of the council and awarded it damages of £2,000. He stated his intention to apply a principle to be found in National Union of General and Municipal Workers v Gillian, from which he quoted extensively. He continued ([1972] 2 All ER 61 at 66, [1972] 2 QB 169 at 175):
‘Just as a trading company has a trading reputation which it is entitled to protect by bringing an action for defamation, so in my view the council, as a local government corporation, have a “governing” reputation which it is equally entitled to protect in the same way—of course, bearing in mind the vital distinction between defamation of the corporation as such and defamation of its individual officers or members. I entirely accept the statement made in Gatley on Libel and Slander (6th edn, 1967) p 409, para 890): “A corporation or company cannot maintain an action of libel or slander for any words which reflect, not upon itself, but solely upon its individual officers or members.” Then there is a quotation: “To merely attack or challenge the rectitude of the officers or members of a corporation, and hold them or either of them up to scorn, hatred, contempt, or obloquy for acts done in their official capacity, or which would render them liable to criminal prosecution, does not give the corporation a right of action for libel.” I stress the words “solely” and “merely” in those passages. The quotation given in Gatley there is from a United States case (Warner v Ingersoll (1907) 157 F 311).’
Browne J then proceeded to consider Manchester Corp v Williams, and after quoting from the judgment of Day J (63 LT 805 at 806) said ([1972] 2 All ER 61 at 68, [1972] 2 QB 169 at 177):
‘Day J seems to put his judgment on two grounds; first, that a corporation may sue for a libel affecting property and not for one merely affecting personal reputation. If this was ever right, it has in my view been overruled by the South Hetton case [1894] 1 QB 133, [1891-4] All ER Rep 548 (where substantially this argument was used by the defendants (see [1894] 1 QB 133 at 134–135)) and by National Union of General and Municipal Workers v Gillian [1945] 2 All ER 593 at 601 (where the Manchester case [1891] 1 QB 94 was cited). The other ground seems to have been that a corporation cannot be guilty of corruption and therefore it cannot be defamatory to say or write that it has been guilty of corruption. This was based on the obiter dictum of Pollock CB in the Metropolitan Saloon Omnibus case (1859) 4 H & N 87, [1843–60] All ER Rep 430 and was repeated later by Lopes LJ in the South Hetton case [1894] 1 QB 133 at 141, [1891–4] All ER Rep 548 at 552. The Manchester case is severely criticised in Spencer on Bower on Actionable Defamation
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(2nd edn, 1923) pp 245–246, in Fraser on Libel and Slander (7th edn, 1936) pp 89–90, and by Oliver J in Willis v Brooks [1947] 1 All ER 191 at 192 (another trade union case) where he said after reading the National Union of General and Municipal Workers case that he agreed with the editors of Fraser, who say (p 90): “It is respectfully submitted that the above statement of the law by Mr Justice Day … is unsound in principle and would not be upheld in the Court of Appeal.” Oliver J in Willis v Brooks [1947] 1 All ER 191 at 192 said: “Counsel for the defendants [who incidentally were Sir Valentine Holmes KC and Mr H P J Milmo (as he then was)] did not seriously contend that an action for libel imputing something very like corruption, as in this case, would not lie in any circumstances at the suit of a trade union,” and he awarded the plaintiffs £500 damages. As I have said, the Manchester case was cited in the General and Municipal Workers case and the libel in that case seems to have imputed among other things something very like corruption.’
Finally, he said ([1972] 2 All ER 61 at 69, [1972] 2 QB 169 at 178):
‘The actual decision in the Manchester case can perhaps be supported, as counsel for the council suggested, on the argument that the libel there was not capable of referring to a corporation consisting (as the plaintiffs did) of the mayor, aldermen and citizens, and not, as here, of the chairman and councillors. I think that that case is distinguishable from this on that ground, and also on the ground that in my view none of the statements in the leaflet in this case actually impute corruption. But I hope that the Court of Appeal will soon have occasion to consider the Manchester case.’ (Browne J’s emphasis.)
It is to be observed that Browne J did not give any consideration to the question whether a local authority, or any other body exercising governmental functions, might not be in a special position as regards the right to take proceedings for defamation. The authorities cited above clearly establish that a trading corporation is entitled to sue in respect of defamatory matters which can be seen as having a tendency to damage it in the way of its business. Examples are those that go to credit such as might deter banks from lending to it, or to the conditions experienced by its employees, which might impede the recruitment of the best qualified workers, or make people reluctant to deal with it. The South Hetton Coal Co case would appear to be an instance of the latter kind, and not, as suggested by Browne J, an authority for the view that a trading corporation can sue for something that does not affect it adversely in the way of its business. The trade union cases are understandable upon the view that defamatory matter may adversely affect the union’s ability to keep its members or attract new ones or to maintain a convincing attitude towards employers. Likewise in the case of a charitable organisation the effect may be to discourage subscribers or otherwise impair its ability to carry on its charitable objects. Similar considerations can no doubt be advanced in connection with the position of a local authority. Defamatory statements might make it more difficult to borrow or to attract suitable staff and thus affect adversely the efficient carrying out of its functions.
There are, however, features of a local authority which may be regarded as distinguishing it from other types of corporation, whether trading or non-trading. The most important of these features is that it is a governmental body. Further, it is a democratically elected body, the electoral process nowadays being conducted almost exclusively on party political lines. It is of the highest public importance that a democratically elected governmental body, or indeed any governmental body, should be open to uninhibited public criticism. The threat of a civil action for defamation must inevitably have an inhibiting effect on freedom of speech.
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In City of Chicago v Tribune Co (1923) 307 Ill 595 the Supreme Court of Illinois held that the city could not maintain an action of damages for libel. Thompson CJ said (at 606–607):
‘The fundamental right of freedom of speech is involved in this litigation and not merely the right of liberty of the press. If this action can be maintained against a newspaper it can be maintained against every private citizen who ventures to criticise the ministers who are temporarily conducting the affairs of his government. Where any person by speech or writing seeks to persuade others to violate existing law or to overthrow by force or other unlawful means the existing government he may be punished … but all other utterances or publications against the government must be considered absolutely privileged. While in the early history of the struggle for freedom of speech the restrictions were enforced by criminal prosecutions, it is clear that a civil action is as great, if not a greater, restriction than a criminal prosecution. If the right to criticise the government is a privilege which, with the exceptions above enumerated, cannot be restricted, then all civil as well as criminal actions are forbidden. A despotic or corrupt government can more easily stifle opposition by a series of civil actions than by criminal prosecutions …’
After giving a number of reasons for this, he said (at 607–608):
‘It follows, therefore, that every citizen has a right to criticise an inefficient or corrupt government without fear of civil as well as criminal prosecution. This absolute privilege is founded on the principle that it is advantageous for the public interest that the citizen should not be in any way fettered in his statements, and where the public service or due administration of justice is involved he shall have the right to speak his mind freely.’
These propositions were indorsed by the Supreme Court of the United States in New York Times Co v Sullivan (1964) 376 US 254 at 277. While these decisions were related most directly to the provisions of the American Constitution concerned with securing freedom of speech, the public interest considerations which underlaid them are no less valid in this country. What has been described as ‘the chilling effect’ induced by the threat of civil actions for libel is very important. Quite often the facts which would justify a defamatory publication are known to be true, but admissible evidence capable of proving those facts is not available. This may prevent the publication of matters which it is very desirable to make public. In Hector v A-G of Antigua and Barbuda [1990] 2 All ER 103, [1990] 2 AC 312 the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council held that a statutory provision which made the printing or distribution of any false statement likely to undermine public confidence in the conduct of public affairs a criminal offence contravened the provisions of the constitution protecting freedom of speech. Lord Bridge of Harwich said ([1990] 2 All ER 103 at 106, [1990] 2 AC 312 at 318):
‘In a free democratic society it is almost too obvious to need stating that those who hold office in government and who are responsible for public administration must always be open to criticism. Any attempt to stifle or fetter such criticism amounts to political censorship of the most insidious and objectionable kind. At the same time it is no less obvious that the very purpose of criticism levelled at those who have the conduct of public affairs by their political opponents is to undermine public confidence in their
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stewardship and to persuade the electorate that the opponents would make a better job of it than those presently holding office. In the light of these considerations their Lordships cannot help viewing a statutory provision which criminalises statements likely to undermine public confidence in the conduct of public affairs with the utmost suspicion.’
It is of some significance to observe that a number of departments of central government in the United Kingdom are statutorily created corporations, including the Secretaries of State for Defence, Education and Science, Energy, Environment and Social Services. If a local authority can sue for libel there would appear to be no reason in logic for holding that any of these departments (apart from two which are made corporations only for the purpose of holding land) were not also entitled to sue. But as is shown by the decision in A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, a case concerned with confidentiality, there are rights available to private citizens which institutions of central government are not in a position to exercise unless they can show that it is the public interest to do so. The same applies, in my opinion, to local authorities. In both cases I regard it as right for this House to lay down that not only is there no public interest favouring the right of organs of government, whether central or local, to sue for libel, but that it is contrary to the public interest that they should have it. It is contrary to the public interest because to admit such actions would place an undesirable fetter on freedom of speech. In Die Spoorbond v South African Railways [1946] AD 999 the Supreme Court of South Africa held that the South African Railways and Harbours, a governmental department of the Union of South Africa, was not entitled to maintain an action for defamation in respect of a publication alleged to have injured its reputation as the authority responsible for running the railways. Schreiner JA said (at 1012–1013):
‘I am prepared to assume, for the purposes of the present argument, that the Crown may, at least in so far as it takes part in trading in competition with its subjects, enjoy a reputation, damage to which could be calculated in money. On that assumption there is certainly force in the contention that it would be unfair to deny to the Crown the weapon, an action for damages for defamation, which is most feared by calumniators. Nevertheless it seems to me that considerations of fairness and convenience are, on balance, distinctly against the recognition of a right in the Crown to sue the subject in a defamation action to protect that reputation. The normal means by which the Crown protects itself against attacks upon its management of the country’s affairs is political action and not litigation, and it would, I think, be unfortunate if that practice were altered. At present certain kinds of criticism of those who manage the State’s affairs may lead to criminal prosecutions, while if the criticism consists of defamatory utterances against individual servants of the State actions for defamation will lie at their suit. But subject to the risk of these sanctions and to the possible further risk, to which reference will presently be made, of being sued by the Crown for injurious falsehood, any subject is free to express his opinion upon the management of the country’s affairs without fear of legal consequences. I have no doubt that it would involve a serious interference with the free expression of opinion hitherto enjoyed in this country if the wealth of the State, derived from the State’s subjects, could be used to launch against those subjects actions for defamation because they have, falsely and unfairly it may be, criticised or condemned the management of the country. Such actions could not, I think,
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be confined to those brought by the Railways Administration for criticism of the running of the railways. Quite a number of Government departments, as appeared in the course of the argument, indulge in some form of trading on a greater or a lesser scale. Moreover, the Government, when it raises loans, is interested in the good or bad reputation that it may enjoy among possible subscribers to such loans. It would be difficult to assign any limits to the Crown’s right to sue for defamation once its right in any case were recognised.’
These observations may properly be regarded as no less applicable to a local authority than to a department of central government. In the same case Watermeyer CJ observed that the reputation of the Crown might fairly be regarded as distinct from that of the group of individuals temporarily responsible for the management of the railways on its behalf (at 1009). In the case of a local authority temporarily under the control of one political party or another it is difficult to say that the local authority as such has any reputation of its own. Reputation in the eyes of the public is more likely to attach itself to the controlling political party, and with a change in that party the reputation itself will change. A publication attacking the activities of the authority will necessarily be an attack on the body of councillors which represents the controlling party, or on the executives who carry on the day-to-day management of its affairs. If the individual reputation of any of these is wrongly impaired by the publication any of these can himself bring proceedings for defamation. Further, it is open to the controlling body to defend itself by public utterances and in debate in the council chamber.
The conclusion must be, in my opinion, that under the common law of England a local authority does not have the right to maintain an action of damages for defamation. That was the conclusion reached by the Court of Appeal, which did so principally by reference to art 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights (Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969), to which the United Kingdom has adhered but which has not been enacted into domestic law. Article 10 is in these terms:
‘(1) Everyone has the right to freedom of expression. This right shall include freedom to hold opinions and to receive and impart information and ideas without interference by public authority and regardless of frontiers …
(2) The exercise of these freedoms, since it carries with it duties and responsibilities, may be subject to such formalities, conditions, restrictions or penalties as are prescribed by law and are necessary in a democratic society, in the interests of national security, territorial integrity or public safety, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, for the protection of the reputation or rights of others, for preventing the disclosure of information received in confidence, or for maintaining the authority and impartiality of the judiciary.’
As regards the words ‘necessary in a democratic society’ in connection with the restrictions on the right to freedom of expression which may properly be prescribed by law, the jurisprudence of the European Court of Human Rights has established that ‘necessary’ requires the existence of a pressing social need, and that the restrictions should be no more than is proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued. The domestic courts have ‘a margin of appreciation’ based upon local knowledge of the needs of the society to which they belong (see Sunday Times v UK (1979) 2 EHRR 254, Barthold v Germany (1985) 7 EHRR 383 and Lingens v
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Austria (1986) 8 EHRR 407 at 418). The Court of Appeal approached the matter upon the basis that the law of England was uncertain upon the issue lying at the heart of the case, having regard in particular to the conflicting decisions in Manchester Corp v Williams [1891] 1 QB 94, 63 LT 805 and Bognor Regis UDC v Campion [1972] 2 All ER 61, [1972] 2 QB 169 and to the absence of any relevant decision in the Court of Appeal or in this House. In that situation it was appropriate to have regard to the convention. Balcombe LJ referred in this connection to Brind v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1991] 1 All ER 720, [1991] 1 AC 696, A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd [1987] 3 All ER 316, [1987] 1 WLR 1248, Re W (a minor) (wardship: freedom of publication) [1992] 1 All ER 794, [1992] 1 WLR 100 and A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109. Having examined other authorities he concluded, having carried out the balancing exercise requisite for the purposes of art 10 of the convention, that there was no pressing social need that a corporate public authority should have the right to sue in defamation for the protection of its reputation. That must certainly be true considering that in the past 100 years there are only two known instances of a defamation action by a local authority. He considered that the right to sue for malicious falsehood gave such a body all the protection which was necessary. Similar views were expressed by Ralph Gibson and Butler-Sloss LJJ, who observed that the law of criminal libel might be available in suitable cases, to afford additional protection. All three Lords Justices also alluded to the consideration that the publication of defamatory matter concerning a local authority was likely to reflect also on individual councillors or officers, and that the prospect of actions for libel at their instance also afforded some protection to the local authority.
My Lords, I have reached my conclusion upon the common law of England without finding any need to rely upon the European convention. Lord Goff of Chieveley in A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545 at 660, [1990] 1 AC 109 at 283–284 expressed the opinion that in the field of freedom of speech there was no difference in principle between English law on the subject and art 10 of the convention. I agree, and can only add that I find it satisfactory to be able to conclude that the common law of England is consistent with the obligations assumed by the Crown under the treaty in this particular field.
For these reasons I would dismiss the appeal. It follows that Bognor Regis UDC v Campion [1972] 2 All ER 61, [1972] 2 QB 169 was wrongly decided and should be overruled.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Keith of Kinkel and, for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Keith of Kinkel and, for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I, too, would dismiss the appeal for the reasons given in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Keith of Kinkel.
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LORD WOOLF. My Lords, I, too, would dismiss the appeal for the reasons given in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Keith of Kinkel.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Secretary of State for Employment, ex parte Equal Opportunities Commission and another
[1993] 1 All ER 1022
Categories: EMPLOYMENT; Unfair dismissal: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, KENNEDY AND HIRST LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13, 14, 15, 16 OCTOBER, 6 NOVEMBER 1992
Judicial review – Application for judicial review – Locus standi of applicant – Alternative remedy available – Discrimination against women in field of employment – Part-time worker made redundant after working for employer for less than five years – Equal Opportunities Commission and part-time worker alleging that United Kingdom redundancy legislation discriminatory against women – Commission and part-time worker applying in Divisional Court for judicial review of Secretary of State’s refusal to introduce amending legislation – Whether part-time worker having locus standi to apply for judicial review – Whether Divisional Court appropriate forum to consider claim – Whether appropriate forum for claim an industrial tribunal.
Judicial review – Application for judicial review – Locus standi of applicant – Equal Opportunities Commission – Discrimination against women in field of employment – Commission alleging that United Kingdom employment legislation discriminatory against women – Secretary of State expressing view that United Kingdom not in breach of European Community law – Commission seeking judicial review of Secretary of State’s refusal to introduce amending legislation – Whether commission having locus standi to apply for judicial review – Whether Secretary of State’s view on state of law amounting to decision susceptible to judicial review.
Employment – Remuneration – Pay – Compensation for unfair dismissal – Whether compensation for unfair dismissal ‘pay’ – Whether part of ordinary basic wage or salary and any other consideration which a worker receives, directly or indirectly, in respect of his employment – EEC Treaty, art 119.
Under the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978 full-time workers (ie those who worked 16 hours or more a week) had to be in continuous employment for two years to qualify for unfair dismissal and redundancy payments under that Act, while part-time workers (ie those who worked between 8 and 16 hours a week) had to be in continuous employment for five years to qualify for the statutory employment rights under that Act. Furthermore, part-time workers who had previously worked full-time were not entitled to have their period of full-time work taken into account in the calculation of statutory redundancy pay. Some 90% of part-time workers were women and the Equal Opportunities Commission took the view that the unfavourable treatment of
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part-time workers as compared with full-time workers in the respective qualifying periods for eligibility for statutory employment rights had the effect of discriminating against women and conflicted with the obligations of the United Kingdom under EEC law, namely art 199a of the EEC Treaty and Council Directives (EEC) 75/117 (the equal pay directive) and 76/207 (the equal treatment directive), to provide men and women with the right to receive equal pay for equal work. In correspondence with the commission the Secretary of State declined to accept that the United Kingdom was in breach of its obligations under Community law by providing less favourable treatment in the conditions of employment of full-time and part-time workers. The commission and a part-time worker who had been made redundant by her employer after less than five years’ employment applied for judicial review of the Secretary of State’s decision and sought a declaration that the Secretary of State and the United Kingdom were in breach of Community law obligations. They also sought an order of mandamus requiring the Secretary of State to introduce legislation to provide for the right of men and women to receive equal pay for equal work. The commission also sought a declaration and mandamus in respect of the Secretary of State’s failure to amend the 1978 Act so as to provide that part-time workers who had previously worked full-time should have their period of full-time work taken into account in the calculation of statutory redundancy pay. The Divisional Court rejected the Secretary of State’s contention that he had not made any ‘decision’ susceptible to judicial review and held that the commission had locus standi to bring the proceedings, that it was appropriate that the proceedings should be brought by way of judicial review, both by the individual applicant and the commission, and that it was appropriate for the commission to bring proceedings in the national court rather than wait for the European Commission to bring proceedings in the European Court, but further held that the Divisional Court only had jurisdiction to declare rights and obligations under the existing state of the law which were enforceable and that it had no jurisdiction to grant mandamus requiring the Secretary of State to introduce legislation to amend the 1978 Act or to declare that he was under a duty to do so. On the substantive issue the court held that the fact that the less favourable treatment of part-time workers under the 1978 Act was discriminatory against women did not constitute an infringement of art 119 of the EEC Treaty and was in any event justifiable. The commission and the individual applicant appealed.
Held – The appeals would be dismissed for the following reasons—
(1) The individual applicant’s application was essentially a private law claim and the natural respondent to such a claim was the individual applicant’s employer, not the Secretary of State. The appropriate forum for her claim was therefore an industrial tribunal and not the Divisional Court. Accordingly, without prejudice to the continuation of her proceedings in the industrial tribunal, the individual applicant’s appeal would be dismissed (see p 1029 e f j, p 1030 a, p 1038 h, p 1050 b c and p 1056 a b, post); R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425 applied.
(2) (Dillon LJ dissenting) The commission’s appeal would also be dismissed because the nature and subject matter of the application and the commission’s position, coupled with the impossibility of granting remedies to force the Secretary of State to comply with the directives if he was wrong in his view that the United Kingdom was not in breach of Community law, or to force him to introduce legislation to amend the 1978 Act, together with the availability of
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remedies elsewhere, meant not only that there was no justiciable issue suitable for consideration by means of judicial review but also that the commission had no locus standi to bring proceedings for judicial review against the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State’s statement in his correspondence with the commission that the United Kingdom was not in breach of its obligations under Community law and that he did not intend to bring in legislation to amend the 1978 Act was not, as such, a decision or expression of view which could be challenged by means of judicial review since it did not alter any person’s rights or obligations or deprive anyone of any benefit or advantage and did not infringe or affect any right belonging to the commission, but merely sought to preserve the status quo. Moreover, the directives were obligations under Community law and not only could the courts not directly enforce their implementation in the United Kingdom but also there were alternative procedures available for challenging either the compatibility of the United Kingdom’s domestic legislation relating to sex discrimination with Community law or any alleged failures of the United Kingdom to comply with its Community obligations, namely by individuals before an industrial tribunal, supported by the commission if it so wished, or by the EC Commission before the Court of Justice of the European Communities. Furthermore, as between the commission and the Secretary of State, the issue raised by the commission was one of public and not private law and the commission did not have a sufficient interest within RSC Ord 53, r 3(7) to bring proceedings for judicial review either to challenge the Secretary of State’s view of the law or to require him to introduce legislation reflecting the commission’s proposals (see p 1040 g to j, p 1042 g to p 1043 b e h, p 1044 d e h j, p 1045 g, p 1047 b c, p 1048 g h, p 1050 j, p 1055 d to h and p 1056 a b, post); dictum of Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 at 949 followed; Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402 and Equal Opportunities Commission v Birmingham City Council [1989] 1 All ER 769 considered.
Per Dillon and Hirst LJJ. Compensation for unfair dismissal, being compensation payable by the employer for the unfair premature determination of the contract of employment, falls within the definition of ‘pay’ in art 119 of the EEC Treaty as being part of ‘the ordinary basic or minimum wage or salary and any other consideration, whether in cash or in kind, which the worker receives, directly or indirectly, in respect of his employment’ (see p 1033 d and p 1053 a b, post); Arbeiterwohlfahrt der Stadt Berlin eV v Bötel Case C-360/90 [1992] IRLR 423 at 425 (para 12) and Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660 at 700–701 (paras 12–18) followed.
Per Kennedy and Hirst LJJ. The United Kingdom complies with its Community obligations under art 6 of Council Directive 76/207 (the equal treatment directive) by providing industrial tribunals and the corresponding appellate procedure to protect individuals’ rights in respect of sex discrimination (see p 1045 e f and p 1051 e, post).
Quaere (per Dillon and Hirst LJJ). Whether the fact that less favourable treatment in the conditions of employment of full-time and part-time workers under the 1978 Act discriminates against women is objectively justified (see p 1035 f g, p 1038 a to d and p 1052 e to p 1053 a, post); Bilka-Kaufhaus GmbH v Weber von Hartz Case 170/84 [1986] ECR 1607 considered.
Appeal from the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division [1992] 1 All ER 545 dismissed.
Notes
For the Equal Opportunities Commission, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 771:21–771:22, and for a case on the subject, see 20 Digest (Reissue) 594, 4520.
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For the requirement in United Kingdom legislation of equal treatment of men and women regarding terms and conditions of employment, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 767, and for cases on the subject, see 20 Digest (Reissue) 579–593, 4466–4515.
For the principle of equal pay for equal work in Community law, see 52 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 21.11–21.13.
For the nature and scope of judicial review, mandamus and declarations and locus standi therefor, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 60, 64, 128, 132, 134, 155, 157, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 321–366, 3362–3874 and 30 Digest (2nd reissue) 254–264, 2971–3025.
For the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 232.
For the EEC Treaty, arts 119, see 50 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 306.
Cases referred to in judgments
Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v SpA San Giorgio Case 199/82 [1983] ECR 3595.
Arbeiterwohlfahrt der Stadt Berlin eV v Bötel Case C-360/90 [1992] IRLR 423, CJEC.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344, [1991] 2 WLR 72, [1990] ECR I–1889, CJEC.
Bilka-Kaufhaus GmbH v Weber von Hartz Case 170/84 [1986] ECR 1607.
Coenen v Sociaal-Economische Raad Case 39/75 [1975] ECR 1547.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, [1984] 3 WLR 1174, HL.
EC Commission v Belgium Case 155/82 [1983] ECR 531.
Emmott v Minister for Social Welfare Case C-208/90 [1991] 3 CMLR 894, CJEC.
Enderby v Frenchay Health Authority [1991] ICR 382, EAT.
Equal Opportunities Commission v Birmingham City Council [1989] 1 All ER 769, [1989] AC 1155, [1989] 2 WLR 520, HL.
Francovich v Italy, Bonifaci v Italy Joined cases C-6/90 and C-9/90 [1992] IRLR 84, CJEC.
Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112, [1985] 3 WLR 830, HL.
Handels- og Kontorfunktionœrernes Forbund i Danmark v Dansk Arbejdsgiverforening (acting on behalf of Danfoss) Case C-109/88 [1989] ECR I–3199.
IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93, [1982] AC 617, [1981] 2 WLR 722, HL.
Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584, [1986] QB 401, [1986] 2 WLR 780, [1986] ECR 723, CJEC.
Nakkuda Ali v Jayaratne [1951] AC 66, PC.
Netherlands v Federatie Nederlandse Vakbeweging Case 71/85 [1986] ECR 3855.
Nimz v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-184/89 [1991] ECR I–297.
R v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, ex p Calveley [1986] 1 All ER 257, [1986] QB 424, [1986] 2 WLR 144, CA.
R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425, [1985] QB 152, [1984] 3 WLR 818, CA.
Rainey v Greater Glasgow Health Board [1987] 1 All ER 65, [1987] AC 224, [1987] 3 WLR 1017, HL.
Rewe-Zentralfinanz eG v Landwirtschaftskammer für das Saarland Case 33/76 [1976] ECR 1989.
Rinner-Kühn v FWW Spezial-Gebäudereinigung GmbH & Co KG Case 171/88 [1989] ECR 2743.
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Roy v Kensington and Chelsea and Westminster Family Practitioner Committee [1992] 1 All ER 705, [1992] 1 AC 624, [1992] 2 WLR 239, HL.
Royal College of Nursing of the UK v Dept of Health and Social Security [1981] 1 All ER 545, [1981] AC 800, [1981] 2 WLR 279, QBD, CA and HL.
Ruzius-Wilbrink v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor Overheidsdiensten Case C-102/88 [1989] ECR 4311.
Thomas v Adjudication Officer [1991] 3 All ER 315, [1991] 2 QB 164, [1991] 2 WLR 886, CA.
Cases also cited
Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629.
Brind v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1991] 1 All ER 720, [1991] 1 AC 696, HL.
Costa v ENEL Case 6/64 [1964] ECR 585.
Cotter v Minister for Social Welfare Case C-377/89 [1991] ECR I–1155.
Defrenne v Sabena Case 43/75 (1976) [1981] 1 All ER 122, [1976] ECR 455, CJEC.
Dik v College van Burgemeester en Wethouders Arnhem Case 80/87 [1988] ECR 1601.
Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692, [1990] 2 AC 85, HL.
Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport (No 2) Case C-213/89 [1991] 1 All ER 70, [1991] 1 AC 603, CJEC and HL.
Johnston v Chief Constable of the Royal Ulster Constabulary Case 222/84 [1986] 3 All ER 135, [1987] QB 129, [1986] ECR 1651, CJEC.
Kowalska v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-33/89 [1990] ECR I–2591.
Marleasing SA v Comercial Internacional de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I–4135.
Orphanos v Queen Mary College [1985] 2 All ER 233, [1985] AC 761, HL.
Pickstone v Freemans plc [1988] 2 All ER 803, [1989] AC 66, HL.
Preston v IRC [1985] 2 All ER 327, [1985] AC 835, HL.
Stevens v Bexley Health Authority [1989] ICR 224, EAT.
Appeals
The Equal Opportunities Commission and Patricia Elizabeth Day (the individual applicant) appealed from the decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Nolan LJ and Judge J) ([1992] 1 All ER 545) given on 10 October 1991 refusing the application of the commission and the individual applicant for judicial review of a decision of the Secretary of State for Employment dated 23 April 1990 declining to accept that the United Kingdom was in breach of its obligations under EEC law by providing less favourable treatment of part-time workers than of full-time workers in relation to the conditions for the right not to be unfairly dismissed and for receipt of statutory redundancy pay and compensation for unfair dismissal and refusing to introduce amending legislation to make the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978 comply with the relevant provisions of Community law. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Anthony Lester QC and Monica Carss-Frisk (instructed by J Alan Lakin, Manchester) for the appellants.
Michael Beloff QC and Stephen Richards (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Cur adv vult
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6 November 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ.
General
The court has before it appeals, in the one case by the Equal Opportunities Commission (the EOC) and a Mrs Patricia Day (the first application) and in the other case by the EOC alone (the second application), against orders of a Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Nolan LJ and Judge J) ([1992] 1 All ER 545), which on 10 October 1991 rejected two substantive applications for relief by way of judicial review. Leave to move had in each case been duly granted earlier. The respondent to each of the applications was the Secretary of State for Employment, who is the sole respondent to the appeals.
The relief sought by each of the appeals is merely declaratory, viz declarations to the effect that the United Kingdom is in breach of its obligations under art 119 of the EEC Treaty and Council Directive (EEC) 75/117 (the equal pay directive) or, alternatively, Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 (the equal treatment directive), by providing less favourable treatment of part-time workers (most of whom are women) than of full-time workers (most of whom are men) in relation, under the first application, to the conditions for receipt of statutory redundancy pay and compensation for unfair dismissal and in relation, under the second application, to the method of calculation of statutory redundancy pay. In essence the claim is in each case that provisions at present contained in the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978 are inconsistent with and overriden by EC law under art 119 and the two directives.
In the court below, and at the suggestion of the court, the appellants amended their forms of application to claim additionally relief by way of mandamus, viz mandamus to compel the Secretary of State to introduce the necessary legislation to amend the 1978 Act to ensure that provisions contrary to art 119 and the two directives are eliminated. In this court Mr Lester QC for the appellants disclaimed seeking relief by way of mandamus, and said that he had not in fact sought it in the court below. He realises, as no doubt he realised below, that mandamus in that form is a relief which the court could not or would not grant. But the nature of what would be required if there were to be enforcement by mandamus is relevant to one of the arguments as to whether the court can or should grant the declarations sought. I will come to that later.
Apart from the substantive questions as to whether the relevant provisions of the 1978 Act are discriminatory or justifiable under EC law, the appeals raise important questions of national law as to the procedures available under English law to raise a question in the English courts whether a statutory provision enacted by the United Kingdom Parliament is valid or not under EC law and as to the capacity of the EOC to raise a general question of alleged sexual discrimination by bringing an application in its own name for judicial review, as opposed to merely sponsoring an application in the appropriate English court—be it the Divisional Court, an industrial tribunal or some other court—by a person who is an actual victim of the alleged discrimination.
I find it convenient to deal with the two appeals separately, and I take first the appeal against the refusal of relief on the first application.
The first application
The provisions in the 1978 Act complained of on this appeal are the provisions as to the qualifying periods for entitlement to the right to statutory redundancy pay and the right to compensation for unfair dismissal. Under the 1978 Act the
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qualifying period for employees who work for 16 or more hours a week is two years of continuous employment, but the qualifying period for employees who work for between 8 and 16 hours a week is five years of continuous employment, and employees who work for fewer than 8 hours a week cannot qualify at all for either of the rights in question. It is convenient in this part of this judgment to refer to employees who work for 16 or more hours a week as ‘full-time employees’ and to employees who work for between 8 and 16 hours a week as ‘part-time employees’; these are ad hoc definitions only.
Since it is common ground that a very large majority of part-time employees are women and a majority of full-time employees are men, and it is common ground also that the main reason why women seek part-time employment rather than full-time employment is their responsibility as carers for children or elderly relatives, it is accepted by the Secretary of State that the difference in thresholds between two years for full-time employees and five years for part-time employees involves indirect discrimination on grounds of sex, but it is said that that discrimination is ‘objectively justifiable’ by factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex, and is therefore not offensive to EC law.
The essential question on this appeal is therefore the question of objective justification.
In relation to the provision that employees who work for fewer than eight hours a week cannot qualify for any of the rights, it is to be noted that the EC Social Affairs Commissioner issued, apparently on grounds of administrative convenience, a form of directive which recognised that it was appropriate that employees who had only worked for very short periods every week should not be entitled to every right or benefit to which employees who worked for much longer periods would be entitled; it was recognised therefore that there could be a threshold, which was set at eight hours per week. In the light of this, I would despite Mr Lester’s arguments hold that the provision that employees who work for fewer than eight hours a week cannot qualify for the rights in question is objectively justified on the ground of administrative convenience and is not offensive to EC law. This was not a matter to which any great length of argument was directed, and I do not propose to refer to it further.
Apart from the essential question of objective justification of the differential thresholds of two or five years for full-time or part-time employees as above defined, Mr Beloff QC for the Secretary of State takes a number of points on which he contends that these proceedings for judicial review are misconceived. In his skeleton argument he has classified these points as ‘the decision issue’, ‘the locus issue’, ‘the forum issue’ and ‘the relief issue’. In the Divisional Court the appellants succeeded on the decision issue, the locus issue and the forum issue, but the Secretary of State succeeded on the relief issue. All these issues go to the ability and readiness of the court to grant relief by way of judicial review and there is considerable overlap between several of them. I propose therefore to deal with the issues in a somewhat different order.
There is a further subordinate issue referred to by Mr Beloff as ‘the pay issue’. This is whether compensation for unfair dismissal is ‘pay’ within the meaning of art 119 and the equal pay directive. (It has been held that redundancy pay counts as pay within that meaning—Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344—and it is accepted that the conditions for receiving compensation for unfair dismissal fall within the scope of the equal treatment directive even if the compensation is not pay.) I propose to deal first with the locus forum and relief issues, then with the decision issue and then with the pay issue before turning to the substantive question of objective justification.
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The locus and forum issues and Mrs Day
Has Mrs Day standing to make a claim against the Secretary of State, and is the Divisional Court the, or an, appropriate forum for her to proceed in?
Mrs Day was joined as a co-applicant in the first application during the hearing in the Divisional Court. The application was initially brought by the EOC alone. Mrs Day was employed by the Hertfordshire Area Health Authority as a part-time employee, but was made redundant shortly before she had completed five years’ continuous employment. She did not therefore pass the threshold under the 1978 Act as it stands, but claims that as a result of EC law she has none the less a directly enforceable right to recover redundancy pay. On the facts she does not assert any claim to compensation for unfair dismissal. She has brought proceedings for redundancy pay against her employers in the appropriate industrial tribunal, and these stand adjourned pending the outcome of the present proceedings.
Since Mrs Day’s former employer is a public body, it is regarded in EC law as an emanation of the state and so is not entitled to set up against Mrs Day any failure of the state to amend its legislation to comply with art 119 and the equal pay directive; any offending provisions of the national statute can be disapplied by the national court—Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584, [1986] QB 401.
It is therefore conceded by the Secretary of State that if the five-year threshold for part-time employees is not objectively justified Mrs Day is entitled to recover her redundancy pay from her former employers.
But the appropriate forum for that is the industrial tribunal, in which she has already started proceedings, and not the Divisional Court. Moreover, the party liable to pay her the redundancy pay would be her former employer and not the Secretary of State, although the Secretary of State would be entitled to apply to be heard on her proceedings in the industrial tribunal.
It follows that, there being the remedy available to her in the industrial tribunal, it is not right that Mrs Day should bring proceedings in the Divisional Court. I respectfully agree with the statement of the law by May LJ in R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425 at 434, [1985] QB 152 at 169–170. The industrial tribunal has ample jurisdiction to decide the question of objective justification; analogous issues arising from EC law were decided by the industrial tribunal in Marshall’s case. Although the success of Mrs Day’s claim depends on the effect of EC law it is essentially a private law claim to be enforced in the appropriate tribunal for private claims, and not in the Divisional Court; compare also Roy v Kensington and Chelsea and Westminster Family Practitioner Committee [1992] 1 All ER 705, [1992] 1 AC 624.
There may be cases in which it is appropriate for proceedings for judicial review to be brought before a private law claim can be launched, eg where a statute or a certificate of a minister apparently precludes a person from bringing proceedings in the private tribunal which would otherwise be appropriate. It is not necessary to pursue such possibilities in the present case.
I do not however agree with the views expressed by the Divisional Court in its judgment (see [1992] 1 All ER 545 at 557–558) as to the justification for Mrs Day proceeding in the Divisional Court. Since Mrs Day has directly enforceable rights—if she is correct in her contentions on objective justification—the natural respondent to her complaints is indeed her employer, and not the Secretary of State as the designated minister for the purpose of s 2(2) of the European Communities Act 1972 in relation to measures to prevent discrimination between men and women as regards terms and conditions of employment. That aspects of the facts may be difficult to decide does not warrant trying issues of fact in a claim for redundancy pay in a tribunal other than the tribunal to which such claims are
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by statute allocated. Moreover, if certain types of claim are by statute allocated to the industrial tribunals, the fact that legal aid is not available in those tribunals cannot warrant having issues raised by those claims tried in other courts where legal aid may be available.
I would accordingly dismiss Mrs Day’s appeal, without prejudice to the continuation of her proceedings in the industrial tribunal.
The locus, forum and relief issues and the EOC
There can be no doubt that if the EOC is, on the locus and relief issues, entitled at all to bring proceedings in its own name against the Secretary of State the only possible forum is the Divisional Court. The EOC has no locus to bring any claim in its own name in an industrial tribunal and as between the EOC and the Secretary of State the issue raised by the EOC is an issue of public, and not private, law.
So far as the EOC is concerned, therefore, the question is essentially one of locus, having regard also to the nature of the relief claimed.
The EOC was established by the Sex Discrimination Act 1975. Its duties are set out in s 53(1) of that Act. So far as, in my judgment, they are relevant to the present case, they are: ‘(a) to work towards the elimination of discrimination, and (b) to promote equality of opportunity between men and women generally …’
Subsequent sections give the EOC specific powers, including in s 75 power to grant assistance, including payment of legal expenses, to any actual or prospective claimant or complainant if the case raises a question of principle, or it is unreasonable, having regard, inter alia, to the complexity of the case, to expect the claimant to deal with the case unaided.
Mr Beloff tended to the submission that the powers of the EOC should, in general, be limited to the powers expressly conferred by the 1975 Act. But I see nothing to make the maxim expressio unius est exclusio alterius applicable, and I note that s 57, which gives power to the EOC to conduct a formal investigation for any purpose connected with the carrying out of its duties, is prefaced with the words ‘Without prejudice to their general power to do anything requisite for the performance of their duties under section 53(1), the Commission may if they think fit …’ In my judgment, the EOC has such a general power and it is therefore, in my judgment, in general at any rate, authorised to apply for judicial review where the application, if successful, would be requisite in working towards the elimination of some particular instance of discrimination.
No doubt if the case did not raise a question of principle—see s 75(1)(a)—leave to move would not be granted.
An instance unconnected with EC law in which the EOC made a successful application for judicial review to establish that a public authority was in continuing breach of its obligations under the Sex Discrimination Act 1975 is Equal Opportunities Commission v Birmingham City Council [1989] 1 All ER 769, [1989] AC 1155. There the city council, as education authority, was held to be in breach of its obligations under that Act because it had failed to provide as many grammar school places for girls as for boys; it was not absolved from liability by the fact that the disparity had come about because the city council had inherited a number of grammar schools founded long ago which were by their constitutions legitimately single sex schools for boys only. In the Birmingham City Council case there was no suggestion at any stage that the EOC had no locus to bring the proceedings; had such a suggestion been made, it should, in my judgment, have been rejected by the courts.
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I do not regard the jurisdiction of the Divisional Court as so limited that in such a context all that the EOC can do to combat discrimination is to sponsor claims for compensation by individual girls who have wrongly been denied grammar school places which they would have obtained had they been boys.
Mr Beloff submits that the limits to define the requisites for locus standi for a person to bring proceedings for judicial review have been authoritatively considered by Lord Diplock in IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93 at 105–107, [1982] AC 617 at 642–644. He submits that the EOC does not qualify because it has no right, interest, privilege or legitimate expectation at stake, and would not itself be the beneficiary of any changes to the domestic law which might result from the establishment of the incompatibility of such law in its present state with EC law.
But Mr Beloff concedes that the criteria indicated in his submissions were extended in Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112, where Mrs Gillick was held to have locus standi to challenge advice issued to the public by a public body which she claimed was wrong in law. A fortiori the EOC which was established by statute for the statutory purpose of eliminating discrimination has locus standi to apply for judicial review on a point of public law when a public body such as the Birmingham City Council is perpetuating discrimination by its policies, and is denying that it is under any obligation to act otherwise.
Does it then make any difference that the present case involves EC law?
Mr Beloff submits that it is not the function of the courts to enforce treaty obligations against the Crown. Indeed the courts do not even have the power to construe a treaty if the treaty has not been given statutory effect by Parliament.
But s 2 of the European Communities Act 1972 expressly provides:
‘(1) All such rights, powers, liabilities, obligations and restrictions from time to time created or arising by or under the Treaties, and all such remedies and procedures from time to time provided for by or under the Treaties, as in accordance with the Treaties are without further enactment to be given legal effect or used in the United Kingdom shall be recognised and available in law, and be enforced, allowed and followed accordingly …’
But matters arising under art 119 of the Treaty and the two directives are directly enforceable against the Crown. That is the basis of Marshall’s case and the earlier decisions of the European Court on which it is founded. Moreover, quoad the points in the 1978 Act with which the appeal in relation to the first application is concerned, it is, as in Marshall’s case, merely a question of disapplying the five-year threshold, and applying the two-year threshold which (in the phrase used in the EC cases of Ruzius-Wilbrink v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor Overheidsdiensten Case C-102/88 [1989] ECR 4311 and Nimz v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-184/89 [1991] ECR I–297) will remain the only valid reference point. In addition it appears from the recent EC decision of Francovich v Italy, Bonifaci v Italy Joined cases C-6/90 and C-9/90 [1992] IRLR 84—though Mr Richards disputes this on behalf of the Secretary of State and it is not necessary to form a final conclusion—that, though the two directives are not directly enforceable against a private employer, a part-time employee of a private employer who is deprived of redundancy pay or compensation for unfair dismissal as against his private employer because his or her employment is terminated after less than five but more than two years of continuous employment will have an action for damages against the Crown to be enforced by action by writ against the Attorney General.
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I see no basis, therefore, for denying locus to the EOC to bring the application for judicial review in the first application in its own name, notwithstanding that matters of EC law are involved. The EC aspect does not render this application distinguishable from the Birmingham City Council case so far as locus is concerned.
Moreover, so far as the relief issue is concerned, the fact that relief will not be granted against the Secretary of State by way of mandamus requiring him to introduce new legislation in Parliament to amend the 1978 Act (or to amend it himself by exercise of the powers delegated to him under s 2 of the European Communities Act 1972) will not render the declarations sought brutum fulmen, or of no practical effect. The making of the declarations in these proceedings would further the statutory duties of the EOC by providing an authoritative ruling by a competent national court which can form the basis for claims by persons otherwise discriminated against by the five-year threshold, in industrial courts, or by actions for damages on the basis of Francovich’s case.
The decision issue
This is the label used in argument to describe the question whether, even if the EOC has locus to bring these proceedings, there is anything for the court to review. It is of course accepted by the EOC that not every expression of an opinion on a point of law by a department of state or other public authority in a correspondence with some other person or body automatically warrants that other person or body rushing to the Divisional Court to determine whether the opinion expressed is or is not erroneous in law. Mr Beloff submits that there is no basis for judicial review unless there has been a decision founded on error of law or a refusal to make a decision—see per Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 at 949, [1985] AC 374 at 408—or, presumably in the light of Gillick’s case, a public promulgation for the public to act on of a policy founded on error of law.
What actually happened so far as regards the first application is as follows. On 21 March 1990 the chief executive of the EOC wrote to the Secretary of State. The letter referred to a certain decision of the European Court and suggested in effect that certain provisions of the 1978 Act, and in particular the five-year qualifying period for part-time employees (working for between 8 and 16 hours per week) to qualify for redundancy pay or compensation for unfair dismissal, constituted indirect discrimination against women employees, contrary to the relevant rules of Community law. The Secretary of State was accordingly asked to consider these makers as a matter of urgency and to inform the EOC whether the government would be willing to introduce the necessary legislation to remove the discrimination from the 1978 Act, giving reasons for his decision if the reply was in the negative.
The Secretary of State gave his considered reply in a letter of 23 April 1990. He stated that ‘we do not accept that statutory redundancy pay and statutory compensation for unfair dismissal constitutes pay within the meaning of Article 119, or that they fall within the equal treatment directive’—a position that in a large part Mr Beloff has not sought to defend. He further stated that, for reasons briefly touched on, ‘we’ believe that the current statutory thresholds are entirely justifiable, and ended by stating that ‘we’ have no plans to change the thresholds.
I have no doubt that, given that the EOC is a statutory body and that its statutory duties include the elimination of discrimination, and given the clarity of the Secretary of State’s statement of the government’s position, the EOC was on receipt of that letter fully entitled to apply for judicial review to challenge the government’s position, thus clearly stated, as erroneous in law.
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The pay issue
‘Pay’ is defined in art 119 as—
‘the ordinary basic or minimum wage or salary and any other consideration, whether in cash or in kind, which the worker receives, directly or indirectly, in respect of his employment …’
That has been broadly interpreted by the European Court. Thus in the decision of the court in Arbeiterwohlfahrt der Stadt Berlin eV v Bötel Case C-360/90 [1992] IRLR 423 at 425 (para 12) it is stated:
‘According to the case law of the Court … the concept of “pay” within the meaning of Article 119 of the Treaty comprises any consideration whether in cash or in kind, whether immediate or future, provided that the employee receives it, albeit indirectly, in respect of his employment from his employer, whether under a contract of employment, legislative provisions or made ex gratia by the employer.’
See also the decision of the European Court in Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660 at 700–701, [1991] 1 QB 344 at 399–400 (paras 12–18), which established that redundancy pay was pay.
By this test compensation for unfair dismissal, which is compensation payable by the employer for the unfair premature determination of the contract of employment, must, in my judgment, fall within the definition of ‘pay’.
Objective justification
This is the substantive, as opposed to procedural, point in the appeal against the refusal of relief on the first application. The EC law on the subject is well settled and has been many times stated. It is conveniently summed up in the decision of the European Court in Bilka-Kaufhaus GmbH v Weber von Hartz Case 170/84 [1986] ECR 1607 at 1628–1629 (paras 36–37), which were cited by Lord Keith of Kinkel in Rainey v Greater Glasgow Health Board [1987] 1 All ER 65 at 72, [1987] AC 224 at 238:
‘36. It is for the national court, which has sole jurisdiction to make findings of fact, to determine whether and to what extent the grounds put forward by an employer to explain the adoption of a pay practice which applies independently of a worker’s sex but in fact affects more women than men may be regarded as objectively justified economic grounds. If the national court finds that the measures chosen by Bilka correspond to a real need on the part of the undertaking, are appropriate with a view to achieving the objectives pursued and are necessary to that end, the fact that the measures affect a far greater number of women than men is not sufficient to show that they constitute an infringement of Article 119.
37. The answer to question 2(a) must therefore be that under Article 119 a department store company may justify the adoption of a pay policy excluding part-time workers, irrespective of their sex, from its occupational pension scheme on the ground that it seeks to employ as few part-time workers as possible, where it is found that the means chosen for achieving that objective correspond to a real need on the part of the undertaking, are appropriate with a view to achieving the objective in question and are necessary to that end.’
Although, however, the law is clear, its application by the national court can in some cases be difficult, and there can be questions of EC law as to what is capable of amounting to an objective justification of an otherwise discriminatory practice. Thus it is stated in the judgment of the European Court in Rinner-Kühn v FWW
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Spezial-Gebäudereinigung GmbH & Co KG Case 171/88 [1989] ECR 2743 at 2761 (para 15) that considerations which only represent generalised statements concerning certain categories of worker do not admit the conclusion of objective criteria unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex; the member state must be in a position to establish that the means selected correspond to an objective necessary for its social policy and are appropriate and necessary to the attainment of that objective.
It appears from the evidence given by an official of the Department of Employment to the House of Commons Employment Committee in 1989 that the original rationale for having the differential five-year threshold for part-time employees who worked less than 16 hours a week was the view that there is a difference in the commitment of a part-timer and a full-timer to their employer. That is not now relied on as a justification for the discriminatory threshold, and it could not be in the light of the decisions of the European Court.
In the letter of 23 April 1990 the Secretary of State, after asserting that the statutory thresholds were entirely justifiable, said:
‘These thresholds have existed in one form or another ever since employment protection legislation was first introduced. Their purpose is to ensure that a fair balance is struck between the interests of employers and employees.’
That again is not good enough to establish objective justification. It does not indicate what the objective or real need is that the differential threshold is said to satisfy nor does it offer any evidence that the differential threshold is necessary—in any sense of that word—to achieve that objective or satisfy that real need.
What is now said is that the objective is that there should be as much part-time work as possible available for those who want to work part-time, rather than full-time, and that to achieve that it is necessary that the qualifying period of continuous employment for these particular benefits should be longer for part-time workers than for full-time workers; otherwise employers will engage full-time workers rather than part-time workers and there will be (significantly) less part-time work available.
That appears to me to be the surviving shadow of the thinking that was once prevalent and is now discarded in this country that, unless the basic rate of pay of part-time workers was less than the basic rate of pay for full-time workers, employers would engage full-time workers rather than part-time workers and there would be less part-time work available.
It appears from the evidence given to the House of Commons Employment Committee in 1989 that representatives of employers’ organisations were of the opinion that if there were no differential thresholds for part-time workers to qualify for redundancy pay and compensation for unfair dismissal there would be less part-time work available, because employers would prefer to engage full-time employees; but representatives of the trade union movement and of certain corporate employers were of the opposite opinion, viz that the absence of the differential threshold would have no significant effect on the amount of part-time work available. What emerges to my mind from the expression of these differing views is that there was no factual evidence to support either view.
The Divisional Court accepted, as would anyone, that any reduction in the number of employment opportunities would be socially undesirable. It added—
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in words eerily apposite to the particular events of the week in which this appeal happened to be argued ([1992] 1 All ER 545 at 565):
‘Some would put it higher and suggest that any deliberate step which might have the effect of reducing employment opportunities would be socially unacceptable.’
But the essence of the Divisional Court’s decision rests, as I understand it, on two propositions, namely firstly that the submissions of the Secretary of State appear to be ‘inherently logical’, and secondly that, even if it cannot be positively established that the high rate of employment of women in the United Kingdom is a direct consequence of the provisions of the 1978 Act, ‘it is not unreasonable for the Secretary of State for Employment to conclude that amendments to the legislation might have adverse consequences for women seeking part-time employment’ (at 565).
Mr Lester submits that in these passages the Divisional Court is setting up a Wednesbury test, as the criterion for testing an assertion by the Crown of objective justification (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223). The word ‘Wednesbury’ has emotive connotations, and I prefer not to use it. The essential point to my mind is the distinction to which Lord Radcliffe drew attention in Nakkuda Ali v Jayaratne [1951] AC 66 at 76 between the Secretary of State having reasonable cause to believe something or other and the Secretary of State honestly supposing that he has reasonable cause to believe whatever it is. In the present case objective justification has to be shown, and it is not shown by showing that the Secretary of State honestly and not unreasonably believes that there is objective justification.
I can see no evidence that abolishing the five-year threshold of continuous employment for part-time workers to be able to claim redundancy pay or compensation for unfair dismissal will cause any significant reduction in the availability of part-time employment. On the contrary, recent history in relation to other discriminatory measures underlines that according women the equal status which is justly their due has not led to the dire results which were foretold by the prophets of doom. In addition I am much impressed by the fact that no other member state of the European Community has a comparable threshold for workers working not more than 16 hours a week or thereabouts who want to claim such benefits. The Republic of Ireland did have an 18 hour per week threshold for entitlement to such benefits, but this has been reduced by the Irish Parliament to 8 hours per week.
The Divisional Court attached importance to the fact that the European Commission had accepted that there could be a threshold before part-time employees may qualify for the same benefits and advantages as full-time employees. That is a reference to the draft directive put forward by the Social Affairs Commissioner. But the justification for the 8 hours per week threshold in the document was to rule out disproportionate administrative costs and take into account firms’ economic needs. That is not the justification put forward by the Secretary of State for the five years’ continuous employment threshold for employees who work between 8 and 16 hours per week. ‘Administrative costs’ to the employer cannot justify having the two thresholds, one at 8 hours per week and the other at 16. Extra cost to the employer, from having to pay higher benefits to women so as to bring their benefits in line with the benefits paid to men, is inherent in the concepts of equal pay and equal treatment, and so cannot, per se, justify failure to accord a class which is predominantly female equality with a class which is predominantly male.
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The onus is on the Secretary of State and, in my judgment, he has not discharged it. Therefore I would, for my part, allow the appeal of the EOC in relation to the first application, and I would make a declaration to the effect of the first two of the declarations sought.
I would add one point.
Mr Lester has stressed that the EC doctrine of proportionality applies to the question of objective justification, ie even if a particular objective is legitimate and desirable, and some restriction on the free movement of goods, or some discriminatory measure, is therefore warranted, the particular restriction or discriminatory measure imposed by the national state will none the less not be justified if a lesser restriction or less discriminatory measure would have sufficed: see the decision of the European Court in EC Commission v Belgium Case 155/82 [1983] ECR 531 at 543 (para 12) and in Coenen v Sociaal-Economische Raad Case 39/75 [1975] ECR 1547 at 1556 (para 12). But in the application of that rule there must, I apprehend, be a margin of appreciation (to adopt a phrase from the jurisprudence of the European Court of Human Rights) or balance of discretion allowed to the national authority. It is not enough to say that the Secretary of State has not directed his attention to showing that a four-year threshold, rather than a five-, or 14 hours per week of employment rather than 16, would not be enough to achieve his purpose.
The second application
This application is concerned with the method of calculation of statutory redundancy pay. It is not concerned with compensation for unfair dismissal. The particular point in the 1978 Act which is challenged as being offensive to art 119 and the directives is that under the 1978 Act as it stands redundancy pay is calculated by reference to the rate of pay of an employee at the time when he or she is made redundant without regard to the rate of his or her pay at any earlier stage of his or her employment. It is said that this requirement is unfair to employees who work full-time and then work part-time, because it gives them no credit, in the calculation of their redundancy pay, for the higher wages that they would have been earning while they were working full-time, as compared with the wages they would have been earning when working part-time.
The evidence shows that a higher proportion of those switching from full-time to part-time work are women, and the proportion of men so switching is lower. Typically a woman who worked full-time would switch to part-time work when she became subject to responsibilities as a carer for a newborn child or an elderly relative. It is therefore submitted that there is unfair discrimination against women in breach of art 119 and the directives.
This application is brought by the EOC alone. Mrs Day is not concerned, since she never worked full-time for the Hertfordshire Area Health Authority. We are only concerned with the employees who, having worked full-time for an employer, switch to working part-time for the same employer. We are not concerned for example with women who, having worked full-time for an employer, switch to part-time work for a different employer because of calls on them as carers.
For the purposes of this application and this appeal, the definition of part-time employees is taken to be those who work for less than 30 hours per week, which was the definition used in a memorandum submitted by the Department of Employment to the House of Commons Employment Committee in 1989. It was said by the author of that memorandum to be the normal definition. (The 16 hours per week and 8 hours per week figures discussed in my judgment in
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relation to the first application are relevant to the thresholds for qualifying for redundancy pay; they are not relevant to the calculation of the redundancy pay of those who do qualify, and thus are not relevant to the second application).
As to the facts, on 16 May 1990 the chief executive of the EOC wrote to the Secretary of State for Employment a letter on substantially the same lines as the letter of 21 March 1990 to which I have referred in relation to the first application, and asking at the end the same question, but in relation to discrimination as I have indicated in the calculation of redundancy payments for those who qualify for such payments. The Secretary of State replied by a letter of 2 June 1990; he did not agree that the legislation was unfairly discriminating against women, he referred to the earlier correspondence and he maintained that the statutory thresholds were justified.
So far as the ‘decision issue’, discussed above, is concerned, I see no significant distinction between this appeal and that in respect of the first application. Likewise much that I said in the earlier part of this judgment in relation to the locus standi of the EOC applies to this appeal. There are, however, three separate points which arise on the second application.
(1) Apart altogether from any question of objective justification, the Secretary of State does not accept that the provisions of the 1978 Act which are attacked by the second application involve any discrimination against women (the discrimination issue).
(2) Even if there would otherwise be unlawful discrimination, the Secretary of State submits that there is objective justification for the statutory provisions, but the objective justification put forward is, of course, not the same as that put forward in relation to the provisions attacked by the first application (the objective justification issue).
(3) On the question of the relief sought, the Secretary of State seeks to distinguish the provisions considered in relation to the first application on the ground that, even if anything, illegal by EC law, in those provisions can be cured by disapplying the offending threshold, any cure for anything illegal in the provisions to be considered in respect of the second application must involve writing in some new statutory provision (the relief issue). The distinction drawn by the Secretary of State on the discrimination issue is that, in the provisions of the 1978 Act which had to be considered in relation to the first application, there were on the face of the statute two rival thresholds to be compared, the five-year threshold for part-time employees and the two-year threshold for full-time employees. Since therefore the more onerous five-year threshold was imposed for part-time employees, who are mainly women, and the less onerous two-year threshold was imposed for full-time employees, who are mainly men, there was plainly indirect sexual discrimination against women unless the distinction in treatment could be objectively justified. But in relation to the provisions to be considered on the second application there are no two criteria laid down by the statute and there is no comparison invited by the terms of the statute. There is merely a single factor—not even a condition—to be taken into account, in relation to pay, namely the rate of pay at the date the employee was made redundant, and that is to apply to all employees, whether male or female and whether they worked full-time throughout their employment, or part-time throughout, or full-time and then part-time or part-time and then full-time. Essentially, the Secretary of State submits that there can be no discrimination if all are treated alike.
Apart from its relevance to the discrimination issue, this distinction is, to my mind, highly relevant to the relief issue.
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As for objective justification, if there is otherwise discrimination, the case for the Secretary of State is that the present scheme has the advantage of being clear, direct and simple in so far as, so far as pay is concerned, it is founded on the rate of pay at the date of redundancy. But it is submitted that any alternative scheme would have to take into account rates of pay of an employee at some past date or dates and would be ‘administratively extremely complex’.
Part of the difficulty is that we do not know what alternative scheme ought to be compared with the existing scheme. Mr Lester suggests that an employee who has worked full-time and then switched to part-time working should be credited, in relation to the pay factor, with the highest pay he or she earned when working full-time as being the rate of pay for the whole of his or her period of full-time working. Should it be the highest rate, or the final rate immediately before the switch to part-time working? Should it in either case be adjusted for inflation, which has forced the nominal amount of rates of pay up since the switch to part-time working? What is to be the calculation with an employee who has switched several times between full-time and part-time working? Should, under a fair scheme, an employee who has worked part-time and then full-time be credited with only part-time wages, and not end of service full-time wages, for the period when he or she was only working part-time?
These considerations lead me to doubt whether, in relation to this application, the national court can have any function. I therefore turn first to the relief issue.
The primary obligation on the nation state under the directives, if there is illegal discrimination under existing national legislation, is to change the law. That cannot be done by the courts. So far as the second application is concerned there is no valid reference point (to adopt the phrase used in the Ruzius-Wilbrink and Nimz cases) other than the existing provisions of the 1978 Act by reference to which any national court could calculate redundancy pay for a full-time employee who switched to part-time working, even if that employee had been employed by a public authority and could claim that the directives were directly enforceable. Equally there is no valid reference point by reference to which the national court could assess and award damages under Francovich’s case, if applicable. If therefore the court were to make a declaration of illegal discrimination on this application, it would be brutum fulmen and of no practical effect. It follows, in my judgment, that it would not be right for the court to entertain this application. Accordingly, I would dismiss this appeal.
It follows also that it would not be right for me to express any view on the discrimination and objective justification issues in relation to the second application, and I refrain from doing so.
KENNEDY LJ.
1. Introductory
I agree with Dillon LJ as to the issues which arise in this appeal, and for the reasons which he has given I too would dismiss the appeal of Mrs Day, without prejudice to the continuation of her proceedings in the industrial tribunal. Turning to the position of the Equal Opportunities Commission (the EOC), I agree with Dillon LJ that if that body is entitled to bring proceedings in its own name against the Secretary of State the only possible forum is the Divisional Court. That brings me to the question of whether the EOC has the necessary capacity to bring these proceedings before the Divisional Court (the issue of locus standi), and to the question of whether at the heart of these applications there is really a justiciable issue (the decision issue). It became clear during the course of argument that in this appeal these two issues are not free-standing. They are
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interrelated, and they lead also to a consideration of the remedies claimed, and the alternative remedies which may be available.
2. Locus standi
RSC Ord 53, r 3(7) provides that the court shall not grant leave to move for judicial review unless it considers that the applicant has ‘a sufficient interest’ in the matter to which the application relates. That reflects the wording of s 31(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. It is obvious from the authorities which have been cited to us that where there is a justiciable issue which cannot be aired in any other way, and what is sought is a remedy which can be granted and which will be effective if the case is proved, then the courts have adopted a generous approach to the question of locus standi. We were reminded that in IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93 at 107, [1982] AC 617 at 644 Lord Diplock said:
‘It would, in my view, be a grave lacuna in our system of public law if a pressure group, like the federation, or even a single public spirited taxpayer, were prevented by outdated technical rules of locus standi from bringing the matter to the attention of the court to vindicate the rule of law and get the unlawful conduct stopped.’
However, as Lord Wilberforce pointed out in the same case, whenever there is an application for judicial review the need to show locus standi remains (see [1981] 2 All ER 93 at 97, [1982] AC 617 at 631), and as the Divisional Court said in the present case ([1992] 1 All ER 545 at 556):
‘The question whether the EOC has a “sufficient interest” depends in part on the nature of its duties as defined by the statute which created it and in part by consideration of the particular subject matter of the application itself …’
I turn first therefore to Pt VI of the Sex Discrimination Act 1975 as amended. That is the statute which created the EOC. Sections 53 and 55, so far as material, provide:
‘53.—(1) There shall be a body of Commissioners named the Equal Opportunities Commission … appointed by the Secretary of State … which shall have the following duties—(a) to work towards the elimination of discrimination, (b) to promote equality of opportunity between men and women generally, and (c) to keep under review the working of this Act and the Equal Pay Act 1970 and, when they are so required by the Secretary of State or otherwise think it necessary, draw up and submit to the Secretary of State proposals for amending them …
55.—(1) Without prejudice to the generality of section 53(1), the Commission, in pursuance of the duties imposed by paragraphs (a) and (b) of that subsection—(a) shall keep under review the relevant statutory provisions in so far as they require men and women to be treated differently, and (b) if so required by the Secretary of State, make to him a report on any matter specified by him which is connected with those duties and concerns the relevant statutory provisions. Any such report shall be made within the time specified by the Secretary of State, and the Secretary of State shall cause the report to be published.
(2) Whenever the Commission think it necessary, they shall draw up and submit to the Secretary of State proposals for amending the relevant statutory provisions …
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(4) In this section “the relevant statutory provisions” has the meaning given by section 53 of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974.’
Section 53(1) of the 1974 Act defines ‘the relevant statutory provisions’ as:
‘(a) the provisions of this Part and of any health and safety regulations … and (b) the existing statutory provisions …’
Returning to Pt VI of the Sex Discrimination Act 1975, s 57(1) provides:
‘Without prejudice to their general power to do anything requisite for the performance of their duties under section 53(1), the Commission may if they think fit, and shall if required by the Secretary of State, conduct a formal investigation for any purpose connected with the carrying out of those duties.’
Part VII of the 1975 Act is entitled ‘Enforcement’ and s 62, so far as material, provides:
‘(1) Except as provided by this Act no proceedings, whether civil or criminal, shall lie against any person in respect of an act by reason that the act is unlawful by virtue of a provision of this Act.
(2) Subsection (1) does not preclude the making of an order of certiorari, mandamus or prohibition …’
Mr Lester QC for the EOC makes the obvious point that the wording of s 62(2) clearly contemplates the possibility of an application for judicial review, and at the end of Pt VII s 75(1) provides:
‘Where, in relation to proceedings or prospective proceedings either under this Act or in respect of an equality clause, an individual who is an actual or prospective complainant or claimant applies to the Commission for assistance under this section, the Commission shall consider the application and may grant it if they think fit to do so on the ground that—(a) the case raises a question of principle, or (b) it is unreasonable, having regard to the complexity of the case or the applicant’s position in relation to the respondent or another person involved or any other matter, to expect the applicant to deal with the case unaided, or by reason of any other special consideration.’
The rest of s 75 specifies how assistance can be provided.
I can find nothing in the sections which I have cited which would enable me to conclude that the EOC is entitled to proceed against the Secretary of State, either to challenge his interpretation of the law, or to induce him to introduce fresh legislation. Certainly the EOC is required to work towards the elimination of discrimination and to promote equality of opportunity between men and women generally (s 53(1)(a) and (b)). If those provisions are considered in isolation it can be argued that the present proceedings are within their scope, but the subsequent provisions of the 1975 Act which I have cited, in particular ss 53(1)(c), 55(1) and (2), make it clear to me that, vis-à-vis the Secretary of State, the role of the EOC is that of adviser and, as the Divisional Court pointed out, there is nothing in the 1975 Act which suggests that the Secretary of State is under any obligation to accept the proposals made to him by the EOC or to introduce legislation on its recommendations (see [1992] 1 All ER 545 at 553). It is surprising that if Parliament intended to vest the EOC with authority to compel the Secretary of State to act it did not say so. Accordingly I conclude that the EOC does not have the capacity to initiate either of these applications, and in my judgment it is of no significance that on other occasions the EOC has initiated or taken part in
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proceedings for judicial review, not only because, as is conceded, the issue of locus standi was not argued, but also because the proceedings themselves were of a different character. In Equal Opportunities Commission v Birmingham City Council [1989] 1 All ER 769, [1989] AC 1155 the respondent was a local authority which was found to have treated girl pupils less favourably than boys. In Thomas v Adjudication Officer [1991] 3 All ER 315, [1991] 2 QB 164 the EOC was simply, without opposition, joined as a party to resist an appeal by the Secretary of State from a decision of social security commissioners.
In order to complete my consideration of locus standi I must also look, as the Divisional Court pointed out, at the subject matter of the application. I must consider the remedies sought, and the available alternatives. Those are matters to which I turn in the ensuing paragraphs of this judgment.
3. Justiciable issues
In Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 at 949, [1985] AC 374 at 408–409 Lord Diplock said:
‘The subject matter of every judicial review is a decision made by some person (or body of persons) whom I will call the “decision-maker” or else a refusal by him to make a decision. To qualify as a subject for judicial review the decision must have consequences which affect some person (or body of persons) other than the decision-maker, although it may affect him too. It must affect such other person either (a) by altering rights or obligations of that person which are enforceable by or against him in private law or (b) by depriving him of some benefit or advantage … For a decision to be susceptible to judicial review the decision-maker must be empowered by public law (and not merely, as in arbitration, by agreement between private parties) to make decisions that, if validly made, will lead to administrative action or abstention from action by an authority endowed by law with executive powers, which have one or other of the consequences mentioned in the preceding paragraph.’
It may well be that if those words are read in isolation too much emphasis can be given to the concept of a decision. In Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402 at 427, [1986] AC 112 at 193 a government department’s circular dealing with contraceptive advice to young people was under consideration in an action commenced by writ, and Lord Bridge, after referring to the decision of the House of Lords in Royal College of Nursing of the UK v Dept of Health and Social Security [1981] 1 All ER 545, [1981] AC 800, said:
‘… if a government department, in a field of administration in which it exercises responsibility, promulgates in a public document, albeit non statutory in form, advice which is erroneous in law, then the court, in proceedings in appropriate form commenced by an applicant or plaintiff who possesses the necessary locus standi, has jurisdiction to correct the error of law by an appropriate declaration.’
In each of the present applications the decision complained of is to be found in an exchange of correspondence between the EOC and the Secretary of State for Employment, and it is of some importance to look at what was said. To my mind there is for present purposes no significant difference between the two sets of correspondence, so I need deal only with the correspondence which is relevant to the first application. It begins with a letter from the chief executive of the EOC dated 21 March 1990. The letter refers to a decision of the Court of Justice of the
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European Communities, and to the qualifying periods prescribed by the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978 before benefits such as redundancy payments can be obtained. The period is longer for those who work only part-time, and as those who work part-time are mostly women it is suggested in the letter that the qualification provisions offend against European law because they are discriminatory. The letter ends:
‘We should be grateful if you would consider these matters as a matter of urgency, and inform the Commission whether the government will be willing to introduce the necessary legislation to remove this discrimination from the 1978 Act. If your answer is in the negative, we would ask you to give reasons for your decision.’
On 23 April 1990 the Secretary of State replied. He challenged the assertion that redundancy payments and compensation for unfair dismissal constitute ‘pay’ within the meaning of art 119 of the EEC Treaty or within the equal treatment directive, and concluded:
‘Whether or not such payments were ever held to be pay, or to come within the Directive, we believe that our current statutory thresholds are entirely justifiable. These thresholds have existed in one form or another ever since employment protection legislation was first introduced. Their purpose is to ensure that a fair balance is struck between the interests of employers and employees. We have no plans to change the thresholds.’
In the amended notice of application for leave to move for judicial review the decision in respect of which relief was sought was identified as:
‘The decision of the Secretary of State for Employment dated 23 April 1990 declining to accept that the United Kingdom is in breach of its obligations under Community law by providing less favourable treatment of part-time workers than of full-time workers in relation to the conditions for the right not to be unfairly dismissed and for receipt of statutory redundancy pay and compensation for unfair dismissal and refusing to introduce amending legislation to make the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978 comply with the relevant provisions of Community law.’
So what is complained of is, first, a refusal by a minister to accept that the United Kingdom is in breach of Community law, and, secondly, his refusal to introduce legislation to amend the 1978 Act.
I accept of course that the Secretary of State’s letter of 23 April 1990 was a considered reply to a letter from a responsible body, but I do not see why it should be regarded as a decision subject to challenge by means of judicial review. It does not satisfy the criteria suggested by Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service. It did not alter any rights or obligations of any person, or deprive anyone of any benefit or advantage. On the contrary it sought to preserve the status quo. If, by reason of the admitted supremacy of Community law, a part-time employee whose employment was terminated was entitled by virtue of art 119 of the Treaty or (if she was a state employee) by virtue of Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 (the equal treatment directive) to require an industrial tribunal to disapply the qualifying period of five years in the 1978 Act, her right to have that period disapplied was the same after the Secretary of State wrote his letter as it was before it. Furthermore, the decision required of the Secretary of State did not satisfy Lord Diplock’s further criteria. It was not a decision which if validly made would lead to administrative action or abstention from action by an
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authority endowed by law with executive powers which altered rights or obligations or deprived persons of some benefit or advantage. The action in contemplation was the introduction of proposals to amend the 1978 legislation, which proposals Parliament might or might not accept. Turning to what was said by Lord Bridge in Gillick’s case, I cannot regard the letter of 23 April 1990 as a public document promulgating advice, comparable with a ministry circular, and, as I have already indicated, if it expressed an erroneous view of the law that could easily be tested in relation to an individual claimant before an industrial tribunal. No right belonging to the EOC was infringed by the letter of 23 April 1990, nor so far as the EOC was concerned was the Secretary of State on 23 April 1990 under any obligation to act in any other way, which is another reason for saying that the EOC in these proceedings in my view lacks locus standi.
On behalf of the EOC the case was put in different ways. It was submitted that if the letter of 23 April 1990 could not be regarded as a decision, it could be regarded as a challengeable expression of view in relation to which the EOC is entitled to launch a challenge by means of judicial review so as to clarify the law for the public benefit. But it is not the function of judicial review simply to pronounce upon the law in order to clarify it, especially when in the normal course of events an industrial tribunal would have to pronounce upon it in order to decide a specific claim. If the tribunal is wrong the decision can be tested through the usual appellate channels. In his reply Mr Lester submitted that this is a very exceptional case because it attacks the alleged non-implementation of directives. In my judgment that is, as Mr Beloff QC submitted, what the case is really about. It is an attempt to enforce obligations which if they exist do so only under international law, and even the implementation of the European Communities Act 1972 does not entitle the courts of this country to enforce obligations of that kind. As the Divisional Court said in the present case ([1992] 1 All ER 545 at 561):
‘… the 1972 Act alters the traditional relationship between the courts and Parliament in this country in that it obliges the courts to disregard the laws made by Parliament in so far as they conflict with directly enforceable Community law. Further than that it does not go. Domestic legislation remains a matter for Parliament, not for the courts. How could it be right for us to tell the Secretary of State that he must introduce legislation amending the 1978 Act, when so far as we can see it would equally be open to him as a member of Parliament to introduce legislation amending or repealing the 1972 Act? If it would be wrong and unconstitutional, as we believe, for the courts to give him an order in these terms, it must equally be wrong for the courts to make a declaration that such was his duty.’
I recognise that the EOC does not now seek an order of mandamus, and only did so by amendment at the invitation of the Divisional Court, but for the reasons given by the Divisional Court it is my conclusion that the EOC is not entitled to the principal declaration which it seeks.
In attempting to deal with the decision issue I have been to some extent concerned with the remedies sought, but before I turn to other aspects of that topic it is worth noting that whereas, as it seems to me, Mr Lester had considerable and understandable difficulty in defining in a compelling way the justiciable issue or the decision issue so as to fit the EOC’s complaint within the framework of judicial review, no such problem would arise in the case of Mrs Day. If there were not another forum for her she could simply rely on the refusal to make redundancy payments without regard to the threshold requirement of employ-
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ment for five years. There is a decision which to my mind contrasts sharply with the absence of any well-defined justiciable issue in the case of the EOC.
4. Remedies
In the first application the EOC seeks four declarations as well as an order for mandamus and costs. The court is invited to declare that by reason of the operation of the qualifying provisions in the 1978 Act the United Kingdom is: (1) in breach of its obligations under art 119 of the EEC Treaty and Council Directive 75/117 (the equal pay directive), (2) in breach of its obligations under the equal treatment directive.
The third declaration sought is that the United Kingdom is in breach of its obligations under the Treaty and the directives by failing to introduce legislation to amend the 1978 Act. Finally, the fourth declaration sought is to the effect that—
‘employees who work for fewer than sixteen hours per week are subject to the same conditions for the right not to be unfairly dismissed and for entitlement to compensation for unfair dismissal and redundancy pay pursuant to the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978 as employees who work for more than sixteen hours per week.’
For the reasons given by the Divisional Court, and which I have already cited, it is my conclusion that the EOC cannot be entitled to any of the first three declarations which are sought. It is not for the Divisional Court or for this court to pronounce upon whether the United Kingdom is or is not in breach of international obligations, although it is for the court to apply directly effective European law in preference to domestic law if the laws conflict. As the Divisional Court said ([1992] 1 All ER 545 at 561):
‘Rights and duties which have become part of English law by virtue of s 2 of the 1972 Act, or by virtue of subordinate legislation made under that section, are matters for us; the obligations of the United Kingdom under the EEC Treaty are not … declarations by the court should not in our view go beyond defining the present state of the law as a matter of practical reality. They should be limited to rights and obligations which the national courts can and will, if necessary, enforce.’
That leaves only the fourth declaration, which does no more than recite what, if the EOC’s arguments are correct, an individual claimant such as Mrs Day can prove before an industrial tribunal. In saying that I recognise that an employee who is not an employee of an organ of the state cannot claim that she has directly effective rights arising out of the directive, but such a person may be able to obtain damages from the state if the directive is not acted upon (Francovich v Italy, Bonifaci v Italy Joined cases C-6/90 and C-9/90 [1992] IRLR 84). As Mr Beloff put it, relief confined to the fourth declaration sought would not have any immediate connection with the exchange of letters between the EOC and the Secretary of State, and would really amount to no more than a declaration of private rights arising under Community law. If that is the only remedy that can properly be claimed it casts further doubt upon the standing of the EOC in these proceedings, and upon the question of whether there ever was a justiciable issue suitable for consideration by means of judicial review.
5. Alternative remedies
I have already given some consideration to the existence of alternative remedies, but I must say a little more because it is in the forefront of Mr Beloff’s case that
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the availability of alternative remedies which cover most of the ground makes judicial review unnecessary. In R v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, ex p Calveley [1986] 1 All ER 257, [1986] QB 424 all three members of the Court of Appeal emphasised that judicial review will very rarely be available where there is an alternative remedy. Here it is common ground that employees such as Mrs Day can go to an industrial tribunal, and arts 169 and 170 of the EEC Treaty provide the means by which the European Commission can take steps to ensure that the United Kingdom complies with its obligations under the Treaty, such as its obligation to give effect to directives. I accept that the art 169 procedure may be slow and cumbersome, and that, subject to the decision in Francovich’s case, until that procedure is complete an employee not employed by an organ of the state is at some disadvantage, because directives until implemented have no direct effect. But nevertheless, for the reasons I have attempted to outline, I do not accept that it is possible to use the procedure of judicial review as a form of fast track to give European directives full and immediate effect in English law. As Mr Beloff submitted, if that route is available there is really little left of the Community law concept of direct effect. Even where there is no direct effect the rights will be enforceable. Of course it would be convenient, and possibly cost effective, for the EOC to be able to obtain a declaratory judgment rather than support one or more litigants before an industrial tribunal and proceed from there, but it seems to me that convenience cannot be even a persuasive factor in the present case.
I accept, as I said at the outset, that if the EOC cannot proceed in the Divisional Court it cannot proceed at all, but its only object in bringing proceedings is to protect part-time workers from discrimination, and as I have indicated if they are discriminated against they can at least to a very large extent protect themselves. Although not directly in issue in the present case it is my conclusion that the United Kingdom complies with its obligations under art 6 of the equal treatment directive by providing industrial tribunals and the appellate structure that goes with them.
6. Conclusion
The conclusions which I have reached in relation to the various issues which I have canvassed, namely, locus standi, the decision issue, the remedies sought and the remedies available elsewhere, lead me to decide against the EOC in relation to both applications. I find it unnecessary to consider the remaining issues and I would dismiss the EOC’s appeals.
HIRST LJ. I gratefully adopt Dillon LJ’s recital of the facts, and of the relevant framework of EC law and United Kingdom legislation. I propose to consider the issues under similar headings to those used in the Divisional Court, though, if I am right in my conclusion in favour of the Secretary of State on the jurisdictional issues, the substantive issues are academic.
The remedies sought
These are as follows, using the same numbering as the Divisional Court ([1992] 1 All ER 545 at 560):
‘… (1) declarations to the effect that employees who work for fewer than 16 hours per week (most of whom are women) are subject to the same conditions as employees who work for 16 or more hours per week (most of
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whom are men) as regards the right not to be unfairly dismissed, the right to compensation for unfair dismissal, the right to redundancy pay and the method of calculation of redundancy pay in respect of those part-time workers who have previously worked full time, (2) declarations to the effect that the Secretary of State is in breach of the obligations imposed upon the United Kingdom by art 119 of the EEC Treaty and the equal pay and equal treatment directives [Council Directives (EEC) 75/117 and 76/207] by failing to introduce legislation to amend the [Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978] so as to bring it into line with the Treaty and the directives, (3) mandamus to compel the Secretary of State to introduce such legislation and (4) a declaration that the United Kingdom is in breach of its obligations under art 119 and the directives.’
During the hearing Mr Lester QC made it clear that he was not pressing for the order of mandamus.
The ‘decisions’ issue
The request of the Equal Opportunities Commission (the EOC) and the Secretary of State’s reply so far as relevant were in the following terms:
‘We should be grateful if you would consider these matters as a matter of urgency, and inform the Commission whether the Government will be willing to introduce the necessary legislation to remove this discrimination from the 1978 Act. If your answer is in the negative, we would ask you to give reasons for your decision.’
‘Whether or not such payments were ever held to be pay, or to come within the Directive, we believe that our current statutory thresholds are entirely justifiable. These thresholds have existed in one form or another ever since employment protection legislation was first introduced. Their purpose is to ensure that a fair balance is struck between the interests of employers and employees. We have no plans to change the thresholds.’
The Divisional Court held that this amounted to a decision or decisions susceptible to judicial review on ordinary principles, as embodying the Secretary of State’s considered view on the question of employment law, and constituting a refusal to carry out what the EOC contended was his legal duty.
In Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 at 949, [1985] AC 374 at 408 Lord Diplock stated, in a passage with which Lord Scarman agreed, as follows:
‘To qualify as a subject for judicial review the decision must have consequences which affect some person (or body of persons) other than the decision-maker, although it may affect him too. It must affect such other person either (a) by altering rights or obligations of that person which are enforceable by or against him in private law or (b) by depriving him of some benefit or advantage which either (i) he has in the past been permitted by the decision-maker to enjoy and which he can legitimately expect to be permitted to continue to do until there has been communicated to him some rational ground for withdrawing it on which he has been given an opportunity to comment or (ii) he has received assurance from the decision-maker will not be withdrawn without giving him first an opportunity of advancing reasons for contending that they should not be withdrawn.’
Only para (a) is relevant in the present case.
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Mr Lester supported the Divisional Court’s conclusion, and submitted that the Secretary of State’s reply amounted to a statement that he had no intention to amend the 1978 Act, because he did not regard Community law as requiring the United Kingdom to change it, and that this was an official decision by the responsible minister in relation to the performance of his public duties in the exercise of his public powers.
Mr Beloff QC relied on Lord Diplock’s statement, and submitted that this was not a decision at all, but rather no more than a deliberately solicited expression of the Secretary of State’s view as to the scope of Community law.
I accept Mr Beloff’s construction of the Secretary of State’s reply, and am unable to accept Mr Lester’s argument that it amounted to a refusal in effect to carry out a legal duty, since it is plain that, when stating that he did not plan to change the thresholds, he was saying no more than that he had no plans to exercise his power under s 2(2) of the European Communities Act 1972 to introduce subordinate legislation. This seems to me a far cry from the test laid down by Lord Diplock above. There was not, therefore, in my judgment a decision susceptible of judicial review.
This still leaves open the question whether it constituted a ‘view’ susceptible of judicial review under the principles laid down by the House of Lords in Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112.
In that case Lord Bridge of Harwich laid down the limitations of this extension of the scope of judicial review, in a statement with which Lord Templeman agreed, as follows ([1985] 3 All ER 402 at 426–427, [1986] AC 112 at 193–194):
‘The question whether the advice tendered in such non-statutory guidance is good or bad, reasonable or unreasonable cannot, as a general rule, be subject to any form of judicial review. But the question arises whether there is any exception to that general rule. Your Lordships have been referred to the House’s decision in Royal College of Nursing of the UK v Dept of Health and Social Security [1981] 1 All ER 545, [1981] AC 800. The background to that case was exceptional, as only becomes fully clear when one reads the judgment of Woolf J at first instance (see [1981] 1 All ER 545). The Royal College of Nursing (the RCN) and the DHSS had received conflicting legal advice whether or not it was lawful, on the true construction of certain provisions of the Abortion Act 1967, for nurses to perform particular functions in the course of a novel medical procedure for the termination of pregnancy, when acting on the orders and under the general supervision of a registered medical practitioner but not necessarily in his presence. The RCN had issued a memorandum and a later circular to its members to the effect that it was not lawful. The DHSS had issued a circular advising that it was lawful. The desirability of an authoritative resolution of this dispute on a pure question of law was obvious in the interests both of the nursing profession and of the public. The proceedings took the form of a claim by the RCN against the DHSS for a suitable declaration and the DHSS in due course counterclaimed a declaration to the opposite effect. As Woolf J pointed out, neither side took any point as to the jurisdiction of the court to grant a declaration. Woolf J himself felt it necessary to raise and examine certain questions as to the locus standi of the RCN to bring the proceedings and as to the propriety of their form. He answered these questions in a favourable sense to enable him to decide the disputed question of law on its merits. No technical question bearing on jurisdiction attracted any mention in the Court of Appeal (see [1981] 1 All ER 545, [1981] AC 800) or in this House. In the litigation the
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original conflict between the parties was reflected in a conflict of judicial opinion. On a count of judicial heads a majority of five to four favoured the RCN. But by a majority of three to two in your Lordships’ House the DHSS carried the day and obtained the declaration they sought. Against this background it would have been surprising indeed if the courts had declined jurisdiction. But I think it must be recognised that the decision (whether or not it was so intended) does effect a significant extension of the court’s power of judicial review. We must now say that if a government department, in a field of administration in which it exercises responsibility, promulgates in a public document, albeit non-statutory in form, advice which is erroneous in law, then the court, in proceedings in appropriate form commenced by an applicant or plaintiff who possesses the necessary locus standi, has jurisdiction to correct the error of law by an appropriate declaration. Such an extended jurisdiction is no doubt a salutary and indeed a necessary one in certain circumstance, as the Royal College of Nursing case itself well illustrates. But the occasions of a departmental non-statutory publication raising, as in that case, a clearly defined issue of law, unclouded by political, social or moral overtones, will be rare. In cases where any proposition of law implicit in a departmental advisory document is interwoven with questions of social and ethical controversy, the court should, in my opinion, exercise its jurisdiction with the utmost restraint, confine itself to deciding whether the proposition of law is erroneous and avoid either expressing ex cathedra opinions in areas of social and ethical controversy in which it has no claim to speak with authority or proffering answers to hypothetical questions of law which do not strictly arise for decision.’
The Divisional Court held that this alternative basis of jurisdiction did apply if, contrary to its view, no decision had been made, and Mr Lester supported this conclusion by submitting that the present case is comparable, seeing that the EOC has to regulate its own affairs, ie its duties and powers, in the light of ministerial statements.
I am unable to accept this submission. The passage I have quoted from Lord Bridge’s speech above plainly shows that the extended jurisdiction applied in Gillick’s case is the exception rather than the rule.
In the present case, as the evidence shows, the legal issue is closely interwoven with questions of social and political controversy, and does not in my judgment qualify as an exception to the general rule.
I would therefore hold that the Secretary of State’s letter was neither a decision nor an expression of view susceptible of judicial review.
This conclusion is reinforced by the Divisional Court’s analysis of available remedies in which it held (rightly in my judgment) that declarations (2) and (4), which went to the Secretary of State’s duties and powers, were outside its jurisdiction.
Declaration (1), which it did grant, is not declaratory of the Secretary of State’s duties and powers, but of employees’ rights under the employment legislation. In the end, therefore, the application, which Mr Lester submits was the proper means of reviewing the Secretary of State’s decision, resulted in no express declaration on that topic. I shall refer to this aspect in more detail in the final section of this judgment.
The locus standi issue
The issue here is as to the EOC’s locus standi, it not being in dispute that Mrs Day, for the purpose of the first application only, has the necessary locus
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standi. It is common ground that the crucial question is whether the EOC has a sufficient interest, which, as the Divisional Court rightly stated, depends in part on the nature of its duties as defined by the statute which created it, and in part by consideration of the particular subject matter of the application itself.
So far as the first limb of the test is concerned, Mr Beloff submitted that the EOC has no right, interest, privilege or legitimate expectation at stake, and that nothing in the Sex Discrimination Act 1975 expressly gives it locus standi in matters of this kind. On the contrary, he submitted, its duties quoad the Secretary of State are no more than to advise on the working of the 1975 Act and the Equal Pay Act 1970 under s 53(1)(c) of the former.
In my judgment Mr Lester is right in submitting that this approach is much too narrow in view of the EOC’s duty under s 53(1)(a) to work toward the elimination of discrimination. This is a very wide power, which is sufficient to embrace applications for judicial review, and which is not cut down by para (c).
It follows that the EOC has locus standi to bring judicial review proceedings provided the second limb of the Divisional Court’s test is also fulfilled, and provided also that the other necessary criteria (reviewable decision, appropriate forum etc) are met, as no doubt they were in, for example, Equal Opportunities Commission v Birmingham City Council [1989] 1 All ER 769, [1989] AC 1155, though there appears to have been no contest on this issue there.
The forum issue
It is not in dispute that there are clearly established procedures for challenging either the compatibility of domestic legislation with Community law, or alleged failures by the United Kingdom to comply with its Community obligations, viz (a) by individuals enjoying directly effective rights under Community law (in this case under art 119 of the EEC Treaty), who are entitled to enforce such rights in the appropriate court or tribunal, which will be bound under s 2(1) of the 1972 Act to disapply domestic legislation if and so far as it is inconsistent with those rights, and (b) by the EC Commission and other member states, who can invoke the machinery laid down by the Treaty, particularly in art 169, for bringing proceedings against a member state in the European Court for failure to fulfil its obligations under the Treaty.
To this may be added a third method, as laid down in the decision of the European Court in Francovich v Italy, Bonifaci v Italy Joined cases C-6/90 and C-9/90 [1992] IRLR 84, namely a claim by individuals not enjoying directly enforceable rights under EC law for damages against the government for failure to implement EC directives; however, Mr Richards in his final reply invited the court to approach this case with caution, seeing that the scope of the remedy is as yet not clearly delimited.
Mr Lester, supporting the conclusion of the Divisional Court, submitted that the central issues in the present case do not depend on the ‘adjudicative facts’ of individual cases involving private disputes between employees and their employers, but rather the ‘legislative and governmental facts, information, and opinion’ about the operation of the statutory scheme upon the labour market in the United Kingdom and elsewhere in the Community, and the law and practice in other member states, and that it is obvious that the Divisional Court is more expert in tackling such issues and more capable of granting appropriate relief than an industrial tribunal; consequently the Divisional Court is the appropriate forum for both Mrs Day and the EOC.
Mr Beloff submitted that, so far as Mrs Day is concerned, she enjoys directly effective rights both under art 119, and, because her employer is a public
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authority, under the directives, and that these are private rights which she should seek to enforce against her employers in the industrial tribunal in the proceedings which are already in progress.
So far as the EOC is concerned, Mr Beloff submitted that it is seeking impermissibly to use the machinery of judicial review as a means of enforcing the alleged obligation of the United Kingdom under the Treaty, and is not asserting any directly effective rights of its own.
In my judgment, for the reasons given by Dillon LJ, where an individual like Mrs Day is seeking to enforce directly effective rights under art 119, the appropriate forum for their enforcement is unquestionably the industrial tribunal. This tribunal will be obliged under s 2(1) of the 1972 Act to disapply domestic legislation if and in so far as it is inconsistent with Community law, thus ensuring that Community law will prevail.
The industrial tribunal, rather than the Divisional Court, is moreover in my judgment the appropriate forum for the determination of the factual issues which arise in relation to the objective justification of any discriminatory law or practice. In R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425 at 434, [1985] QB 152 at 169–170 May LJ stated as follows:
‘Further, I think that at the present time, in at least the great majority of cases involving disputes about the dismissal of an employee by his employer, the most appropriate forum for their resolution is an industrial tribunal. In my opinion the courts should not be astute to hold that any particular dispute is appropriate for consideration under the judicial review procedure provided for by RSC Ord 53. Employment disputes not infrequently have political or ideological overtones, or raise what are often described as “matters of principle”; these are generally best considered not by the Divisional Court but by an industrial tribunal to the members of which, both lay and legally qualified, such overtones or matters of principle are common currency.’
These words seem to me entirely apposite to the present case, since, as already observed, objective justification has significant political and ideological overtones. So far as the EOC is concerned, it will always be open to it to support Mrs Day, or any other suitable claimant with directly enforceable rights, in industrial tribunal proceedings under its powers contained in s 75 of the Sex Discrimination Act 1975. This will ensure that cases in which the EOC wishes to obtain a ruling are brought in the appropriate forum.
Mr Lester raised the spectre of hundreds of industrial tribunal cases being mounted at inordinate expense, and contrasted what he submitted are the much more convenient and expeditious alternative proceedings by way of judicial review in the Divisional Court. This seems to me to be unduly alarmist. It is always open to the EOC to select one or a very small number of suitable test cases, which can be brought conveniently in the industrial tribunal, without undue expense, and if necessary carried through to appeal within the equivalent time-scale (two and a half years) to the present case.
Proceedings aimed at impleading the government, or a minister, for failure to fulfil their obligations under the Treaty to amend legislation inconsistent with the EC law or directives should in my judgment be brought not by the EOC or any equivalent body in the English courts, but by the commission, who are the guardians of the Treaty, in the European Court under the machinery laid down in the Treaty itself in art 169. In the light of the past record of the United Kingdom government, so we were assured by Mr Richards, any adverse ruling by
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the European Court will quickly result in the introduction of amending legislation.
The Divisional Court reached the opposite conclusion on the ground that women in the United Kingdom should not have to wait upon a decision of the commission to invoke art 169, and that the directly enforceable rights which the EOC seeks to enforce are rights under English law as well as under Community law which the EOC is entitled to have determined by the English courts.
This reasoning seems to me to overlook the fact that the EOC will not have to wait for the commission to act, but can achieve the result sought in English proceedings by supporting Mrs Day’s case in the industrial tribunal, and if necessary carrying it to appeal.
In this connection the recent ruling of the European Court in Emmott v Minister for Social Welfare Case C-208/90 [1991] 3 CMLR 894 at 914–915 (para 16) is highly pertinent. The court in that case ruled as follows:
‘As the Court has consistently held (see, in particular, Case 33/76 REWE-ZENTRALFINANZ EG AND REWE-ZENTRAL AG v. LANDWIRTSCHAFTSKAMMER FÜR DAS SAARLAND ([1976] ECR 1989) and Case 199/82 AMMINISTRAZIONE DELLE FINANZE DELLO STATO v. SAN GIORGIO SPA ([1983] ECR 3595)) in the absence of Community rules on the subject, it is for the domestic legal system of each member-State to determine the procedural conditions governing actions at law intended to ensure the protection of the rights which individuals derive from the direct effect of Community law, provided that such conditions are not less favourable than those relating to similar actions of a domestic nature nor framed so as to render virtually impossible the exercise of rights conferred by Community law.’
In the United Kingdom industrial tribunal proceedings meet this criterion.
The first application
It is common ground that the thresholds laid down under the 1978 Act are discriminatory against part-time employees, 90% of whom are women.
It follows that it is incumbent on the Secretary of State to satisfy the court that this discrimination is objectively justifiable.
A great deal of time was spent in argument debating the requirements which have to be satisfied in the light of Bilka-Kaufhaus GmbH v Weber von Hartz Case 170/84 [1986] ECR 1607. The key passage in the judgment in the European Court in that case is as follows (at 1628 (para 36)):
‘It is for the national court, which has sole jurisdiction to make findings of fact, to determine whether and to what extent the grounds put forward by an employer to explain the adoption of a pay practice which applies independently of a worker’s sex but in fact affects more women than men may be regarded as objectively justified economic grounds. If the national court finds that the measures chosen by Bilka correspond to a real need on the part of the undertaking, are appropriate with a view to achieving the objectives pursued and are necessary to that end, the fact that the measures affect a far greater number of women than men is not sufficient to show that they constitute an infringement of Article 119.’
Mr Lester in effect invited the court to treat these words as if they are equivalent to a statutory definition, though he did not go so far as to submit that the word ‘necessary’ is equivalent to ‘indispensable’.
In my judgment Mr Beloff is right in his submission that these words are not definitive, but illustrative of the stringency of the criterion, which goes well
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beyond reasonableness, let alone the Wednesbury test (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223).
This I think is supported by the formulation of the test by the European Court in Handels- og Kontorfunktionœrernes Forbund i Danmark v Dansk Arbejdsgiverforening (acting on behalf of Danfoss) Case C-109/88 [1989] ECR I–3199 at 3228 (para 22) where the court stated as follows:
‘In its judgment of 13 May 1986 in Case 170/84 Bilka v Weber von Hartz [1986] ECR 1607, the Court took the view that an undertaking’s policy of generally paying full-time employees more than part-time employees who were excluded from the undertaking’s pension scheme, could affect far more women than men in view of the difficulties which women encountered in working full-time. It nevertheless held that the undertaking might show that its wages practice was based on objectively justified factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex and if the undertaking did so there was no infringement of Article 119 of the Treaty. Those considerations also apply in the case of a wages practice which specially remunerates the employee’s adaptability to variable hours and varying places of work. The employer may therefore justify the remuneration of such adaptability by showing it is of importance for the performance of specific tasks entrusted to the employee.’ (My emphasis.)
In its answers to the questions posed under art 177 by the Danish Industrial Arbitration Board, the European Court repeated the same test (‘of importance for the performance of the specific tasks …’).
The Divisional Court cited the Bilka-Kaufhaus case and, despite Mr Lester’s submission to the contrary, I am satisfied that it applied the correct test (see [1992] All ER 545 at 562–563).
I am also satisfied that its careful and thorough analysis of the evidence was sound, and that it was correct to conclude that the Secretary of State had objectively justified the thresholds.
I do not propose to repeat its analysis, but wish to emphasise the following points.
(i) Mr Lester set great store by the Department of Employment’s own survey, but in my judgment this survey does not carry the weight which he sought to attach to it, both because it does not concentrate on the relevant class (ie those working between 0 and 16 hours per week) but rather upon those working up to 30 hours per week, and because the respondents from the comparatively small sample (under 1,000) comprised mostly those working over 16 hours per week.
(ii) Mr Lester also laid stress on the arrangements in other member states, especially Ireland and the Netherlands. These do not, however, seem to me to have much force, since Ireland has reduced its thresholds not abolished them, and the Netherlands has no minimum wage requirements for a substantial proportion of part-time workers.
(iii) The evidence accepted by the Divisional Court seems to me to give ample support for the proposition that the application of the same conditions for all part-timers, irrespective of their hours of work, would impose significant administrative burdens and costs on employers, and would tend to reduce the availability of part-time work.
(iv) Mr Beloff was in my view fully entitled to lay stress on the commission’s proposals for an 8-hour threshold, which gives powerful independent support for the conclusion that a threshold is in principle objectively justifiable, derived from a body which presumably applied the Bilka test. Once it is established that a
Page 1053 of [1993] 1 All ER 1022
threshold as such is in principle objectively justifiable under EC law, it seems to me that a margin of appreciation must be allowed to the national legislature in fixing at which precise hour or hours the line is to be drawn.
The pay issue
I agree with Dillon LJ.
The second application—discrimination
Mr Lester submitted that the Divisional Court was correct to hold that the mode of calculation, based on salary at date of redundancy, was discriminatory against part-time workers, seeing that indirect sex discrimination arises where there is an equal rule which has a disproportionate adverse impact on women, since the concept of indirect discrimination looks at the consequences, ie inequality of result.
He relied strongly on Arbeiterwohlfahrt der Stadt Berlin eV v Bötel Case C-360/90 [1992] IRLR 423, where the European Court held that there was discrimination against a part-time nurse in respect of her participation in training courses, since the provisions in force only entitled her to compensation for time spent on the course up to the limit of her own working hours, whereas full-time employees were fully compensated. The European Court stated as follows (at 426 (para 17)):
‘It appears that the two categories of members of Staff Committees devote the same number of hours to participation in the training courses in question. Nevertheless, as the length of the courses organised within the full-time working hours applicable in the undertaking exceeds the working hours of members who are part-time employees, the latter receive less by way of compensation from their employer than those employees who are employed full-time and are, in consequence, treated differently.’
Mr Beloff submitted that the present method of calculation treats all workers identically, namely by reference to their pay at the date of termination of employment, and that there is no discrimination against any definable group of workers, since the system operates in exactly the same way in respect of part-time workers and full-time workers.
He relied on the statement in Ruzius-Wilbrink v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor Overheidsdiensten Case C- 102/88 [1989] ECR 4311 at 4333 (para 20) as follows:
‘It is apparent from the judgment of 4 December 1986 in Case 71/85 Netherlands v Federatie Nederlandse Vakbeweging [1986] ECR 3855 that, in a case of direct discrimination, women are entitled to be treated in the same manner, and to have the same rules applied to them, as men who are in the same situation, since, where the directive has not been correctly implemented, those rules remain the only valid point of reference. By analogy, in a case of indirect discrimination such as that in the main proceedings, the members of the group placed at a disadvantage, be they men or women, are entitled to have the same rules applied to them as are applied to the other recipients of the allowance.’
Here, he submitted, application of the same rules as are applied to the other recipients of the benefit would produce exactly the same result as at present, since identical rules are already applied to both classes, drawing no distinction between either class.
He further submitted that a practice could only be assumed to have an adverse disproportionate impact on part-time workers if it was a precondition for
Page 1054 of [1993] 1 All ER 1022
acquiring a particular benefit that a worker was in full-time employment. This applied in Bötel’s case, seeing that, as the above quoted passage shows, it was a condition, which the part-time workers could not meet, that the entire course took place in working hours.
In my judgment Mr Beloff’s submissions are correct. This particular pay practice lays down precisely identical rules for both full-time and part-time workers, and there is no condition which part-timers (unlike full-timers) are unable to meet. Mr Lester gave the following example to illustrate his case. A woman who has been in continuous full-time employment for six years between the ages of 22 and 28 (earning £160 per week), who changes to part-time work at the age of 28 (working 16 hours per week, earning £64 per week) and is then made redundant at the age of 30, will under the present scheme be entitled to a redundancy payment of only £512 (8 × £64), whereas if she were given credit for her years of full-time service she would be entitled to a payment of £1,088 (6 × £160 + 2 × £64). In my judgment this example vividly demonstrates that Mr Lester is not seeking to redress a discriminatory disadvantage affecting part-time workers, but rather impermissibly to substitute an entirely new set of rules for the present system.
I should add that if the European Court upholds the decision of the Employment Appeal Tribunal in Enderby v Frenchay Health Authority [1991] ICR 382, which has been referred by the Court of Appeal to the court under art 177, this would place a further obstacle in the EOC’s path, since the Employment Appeal Tribunal concluded, in the words of the headnote (at 383):
‘Held, (1) dismissing the appeal, that where unintentional indirect discrimination was alleged it was necessary to identify a requirement or condition and to consider whether it had a disparate adverse impact on women because fewer women than men in the appropriate pool were able to comply with it; that the mere fact of a difference in pay, with a predominantly female group earning less than another group which at the time happened to be predominantly male, was not sufficient to raise a prima facie case of indirect discrimination; that if the difference in pay came about from a factor which was not tainted by gender the question of justification did not arise; that since either no requirement or condition had been shown in the present case or, alternatively, that the suggested requirement, the Whitley Council collective bargaining arrangements, was not tainted by sex discrimination, the requirement for the respondents to justify their policy did not arise …’
The second application—justification
Mr Beloff supported the conclusion of the Divisional Court, and submitted that it was right to place weight on the fact that it was a clear, direct and simple rule, calculated on a straightforward formula which is applicable to all employees without distinction, and in a manner which avoids administrative complexities and costs to which an alternative system of the kind proposed by the EOC would give rise.
Mr Lester submitted that it was the main objective of the redundancy payments scheme to compensate for length of service, and that the calculation by reference to final pay failed adequately to compensate for length of service those part-time employees who have switched from full-time to part-time work at the date of redundancy.
In my judgment Mr Lester placed too much weight on one of a number of factors underlying the redundancy scheme, which include not only reward for length of service, bur also the facilitation of the employee’s adjustment to the new
Page 1055 of [1993] 1 All ER 1022
circumstances resulting from the loss of his employment, and the provision of a source of income during the period in which he is seeking new employment (Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344). I accept Mr Beloff’s submissions and consider that the Divisional Court was right for the reasons it gave in holding that the Secretary of State had made good his objective justification in relation to the second application.
Remedies
Although Mr Lester no longer presses for an order of mandamus, it is plain from declarations (2) and (4) that the main purpose of both these applications is, as stated by the Divisional Court, to establish as a matter of law that the Secretary of State is bound to introduce amending legislation under s 2(2) of the 1972 Act in his capacity as the designated minister. This was confirmed by Mr Lester in his reply submissions when he stated that the Divisional Court is the only forum able to determine whether the minister acted or failed to act lawfully. The Divisional Court proceeded as follows ([1992] 1 All ER 545 at 561):
‘… we are of the opinion that it is not open to us to grant relief of the kind sought under the second and third headings. It is plain enough that s 2 of the 1972 Act alters the traditional relationship between the courts and Parliament in this country in that it obliges the courts to disregard the laws made by Parliament in so far as they conflict with directly enforceable Community law. Further than that it does not go. Domestic legislation remains a matter for Parliament, not for the courts. How could it be right for us to tell the Secretary of State that he must introduce legislation amending the 1978 Act, when so far as we can see it would equally be open to him as a member of Parliament to introduce legislation amending or repealing the 1972 Act? If it would be wrong and unconstitutional, as we believe, for the courts to give him an order in these terms, it must equally be wrong for the courts to make a declaration that such was his duty. Declarations are intended to have practical consequences and not merely to be of academic interest. Further, it goes without saying that, even if, contrary to our view, it were right for us to exert the legal pressure of mandamus or the moral pressure of a declaration upon the Secretary of State to introduce legislation amending the 1978 Act, the last word would lie with Parliament. At one point in his argument Mr Lester appeared to envisage that Parliament itself could be made a respondent to these proceedings and directed in effect to mend its ways, but at the end we understood him to resile from this revolutionary proposition. It follows from what we have said that in our judgment it is equally not open to us to contemplate the granting of relief under the fourth heading. We accept Mr Beloff’s submissions upon this aspect of the case. Rights and duties which have become part of English law by virtue of s 2 of the 1972 Act, or by virtue of subordinate legislation made under that section, are matters for us; the obligations of the United Kingdom under the EEC Treaty are not.’
This is entirely consistent with para 2 of Sch 2 to the 1972 Act, which provides:
‘(1) Subject to paragraph 3 below, where a provision contained in any section of this Act confers power to make regulations (otherwise than by modification or extension of an existing power), the power shall be exercisable by statutory instrument.
(2) Any statutory instrument containing an Order in Council or regulations made in the exercise of a power so conferred, if made without a draft having
Page 1056 of [1993] 1 All ER 1022
been approved by resolution of each House of Parliament, shall be subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House.’
This analysis by the Divisional Court of the constitutional position seems to me strongly to reinforce my conclusion on the jurisdictional issues.
For all the above reasons I would dismiss the appeals of both appellants.
Appeals dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
25 February 1993. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords gave leave to appeal.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
Volume 2
R v Robinson
[1993] 2 All ER 1
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, POTTS AND JUDGE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 27 NOVEMBER 1992
Sentence – Custodial sentence – Sexual offence – Violent offence – Attempted rape – Whether attempted rape a ‘sexual offence’ – Whether attempted rape a ‘violent offence’ – Criminal Justice Act 1991, ss 1(2), 31(1).
Although attempted rape is indictable under s 1 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 it is properly regarded as an offence under the Sexual Offences Act 1956 and is therefore a ‘sexual offence’ for the purpose of imposing a custodial sentence under s 1(2)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991. It will also be a ‘violent offence’ for the purpose of imposing a custodial sentence under s 1(2) of the 1991 Act if it leads or is intended or likely to lead to any sort of physical injury since under s 31(1)b of the 1991 Act such an offence is any offence which leads or is intended or likely to lead ‘to physical injury to a person’ and is not restricted to offences which lead to serious injury (see p 3 j to p 4 b d e, post).
Notes
For restrictions on sentencing, see Supplement to 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1202A–1204A.
For the Sexual Offences Act 1956, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 245.
For the Criminal Attempts Act 1981, s 1, see ibid 776.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Danga [1992] 1 All ER 624, [1992] QB 476, [1992] 2 WLR 277, CA.
R v Pesapane (1992) 12 Cr App R (S) 438, CA.
Appeal against sentence
Kenneth Mark Robinson appealed against the sentences of eight years’ detention under s 53 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 for attempted rape and two years’ detention concurrent for burglary imposed by Blofeld J following his pleas of guilty to both charges on 29 June 1992 and 28 July in the Crown Court at Teesside. The appeal was brought pursuant to a certificate granted by the judge under s 81(1B) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 and s 11(1A) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Andrew Robertson (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Jeremy Richardson (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
27 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
Page 2 of [1993] 2 All ER 1
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. This is a truly shocking case. On 29 June 1992 in the Crown Court at Teesside the appellant pleaded guilty to burglary (count 2) and not guilty to attempted rape (count 1).
On 28 July 1992 he was rearraigned, and pleaded guilty to count 1. Sentence was adjourned for the preparation of reports.
On 8 October 1992 before Blofeld J he was sentenced as follows: on count 1, attempted rape, eight years’ detention under s 53 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933; on count 2, burglary, two years’ detention concurrently. The total sentence therefore was one of eight years’ detention under the 1933 Act.
He appeals against sentence, the learned trial judge having granted a certificate pursuant to s 81(1B) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 and s 11(1A) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968.
The complainant was a widow aged 87 described in the case as a frail old lady fitted with a pacemaker. Her husband died in 1979 and she lived alone in a ground floor flat in Hartlepool.
On 31 January 1992 at about 9 pm she was watching television having already changed into her night clothes ready for bed. There was a knock at her front door. Being nervous and cautious, she turned the lights and the television off, went to the letter box, opened it and said: ‘Who is it?' The appellant replied: ‘It’s the police.' She saw the appellant’s blue trousers and, thinking it was in fact a police officer, opened the door.
The appellant forced his way in, pushing the complainant into the living room and onto the settee. He pulled her trousers down and exposed his penis. Her legs were forced apart and the appellant attempted to have sexual intercourse with her. She tried to resist, but found this impossible, due to the appellant’s weight upon her.
Having failed to penetrate her, the appellant dragged her into the bedroom. He pulled off her pyjama trousers completely, lifted her right leg and pushed it over his shoulder. He roughly opened her private parts and tried to insert his penis. Again he failed to penetrate her. Instead he inserted his finger. Throughout the appellant tried to kiss and insert his tongue into the appellant’s mouth, slobbering over her, as she put it. He also attempted to insert his penis into her mouth.
He then asked her if she had any money, to which she replied no. He tried to pull her out of the bedroom, but she managed to push him out of the door, shut the door and lock it. She raised the assistance of her neighbour by banging on the wall. The appellant ran away.
The complainant was medically examined. She had sustained swelling and bruising to the back and to the side of her right ankle and inside her lower leg. There was a tear to her private parts, which had bled.
The appellant was arrested on 4 February 1992 after his fingerprints had been found in the complainant’s flat. During interview he initially denied even being at the flat. When told of the fingerprint evidence, he admitted his guilt of burglary but still denied any form of sexual assault. He maintained that denial at the hearing on 29 June, so that the complainant had to attend court on 28 July, believing until then she would face the second ordeal of having to give evidence. However, that day the appellant changed his plea.
He is now aged 17, but was only 16 at the time of the offence. He was of previous good character.
A social inquiry report described him as a very sad and pathetic young man, yet clearly dangerous. The psychiatric report confirmed that there was no evidence of mental illness, mental impairment or psychopathic disorder.
On the appellant’s behalf it was urged before the learned judge that he had been in custody for a period of eight months on remand, which had been a difficult time for him. His delay in entering a guilty plea to the charge of
Page 3 of [1993] 2 All ER 1
attempted rape had been due to shame and fear. It was submitted that he had shown remorse when interviewed by the psychiatrist. He was sexually inexperienced and emotionally immature. The only explanation for the offence which was put forward was the alcohol which he had consumed.
The learned judge granted a certificate of appeal so that this court could rule whether the offence was (a) a sexual offence and (b) a violent offence within the meaning of s 1(2) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991. The learned judge held that it was both.
The first submission on behalf of the appellant was that attempted rape was not a ‘sexual offence’ within the meaning of the 1991 Act. As a matter of common sense this submission may seem so absurd that it should simply be dismissed without further consideration.
However, s 31(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 provides:
‘… “sexual offence” means an offence under the Sexual Offences Act 1956, the Indecency with Children Act 1960, the Sexual Offences Act 1967, section 54 of the Criminal Law Act 1977 or the Protection of Children Act 1978, other than—(a) an offence under section 12 or 13 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 which would not be an offence but for section 2 of the Sexual Offences Act 1967; (b) an offence under section 30, 31 or 33 to 36 of the said Act of 1956; and (c) an offence under section 4 or 5 of the said Act of 1967 …’
This narrow definition confines ‘sexual’ offence to specific statutory provisions. It expressly excludes some crimes which in ordinary language would amount to sexual offences, such as procuring buggery by adult males in private and offences related to prostitution and brothel keeping. It also omits some crimes which would normally be regarded as sexual offences, such as indecent exposure or, more important, burglary with intent to rape, an offence against the Theft Act 1968.
In this, as in any other similar case, attempted rape was charged as an offence contrary to the Criminal Attempts Act 1981. This statute is omitted from the statutory provisions included in the definition of sexual offence in the 1991 Act. Accordingly it was submitted that, however absurd it may appear at first sight, attempted rape was not included within the definition.
This argument requires careful analysis. It is not enough to hold that it would be an affront to common sense if it were accepted. Although it is surprising, burglary with intent to rape is outside the statutory definition of a sexual offence for the purposes of the 1991 Act. The court is obliged to approach the issue as a matter of construction of the definition section.
Several arguments have been deployed. Section 4(1)(b) of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 provides that, on conviction of an attempt to commit an indictable offence other than murder or any other offence the sentence for which is fixed by law, the maximum penalty will coincide with the maximum penalty available for the substantive offence itself. For sentencing purposes therefore the statutory provisions relating to substantive offences and attempts to commit them are clearly aligned. In our judgment this is insufficient to bring attempted rape within the statutory definition.
Section 7 of the Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act 1976 expressly includes in the definition of ‘rape offence’ both rape and attempted rape. This Act may be cited together with the Sexual Offences Act 1956 as the Sexual Offences Acts 1956 to 1976. There is therefore not only a close alignment in the relevant sentencing provisions but ‘attempted rape’ is a ‘rape offence’. However the definition section in the 1991 Act makes no reference to the Sexual Offences Acts 1956 to 1976 and in view of its express terms it is not possible to construe it in such a way as to include the 1976 Act.
Section 37 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 provides for the prosecution and
Page 4 of [1993] 2 All ER 1
punishment of rape and attempted rape as well as other sexual offences. In Pt I of Sch 2 rape and attempted rape are listed together in the column marked ‘Offence’. Attempt to commit rape is treated in exactly the same way as the full offence of rape, in effect, for these purposes, as identical. In other words attempted rape is an offence under the 1956 Act for the purpose of specifying the court’s statutory powers of sentence. Although this offence is indicted under the Criminal Attempts Act 1981, it is in our judgment properly regarded as an offence ‘under’ the Sexual Offences Act 1956. In these circumstances we have concluded that attempted rape comes within the definition of ‘sexual offence’ for the purposes of the Criminal Justice Act 1991.
The second submission was that this offence was not a ‘violent offence’ within the Criminal Justice Act 1991.
Section 31(1) of the 1991 Act provides:
‘… “violent offence” means an offence which leads, or is intended or likely to lead, to a person’s death or to physical injury to a person, and includes an offence which is required to be charged as arson …’
In contrast to the definition of ‘sexual offence’, this is a broad definition which focuses not on classes of offences specified in statutory provisions but on the individual facts of each case. By contrast with s 31(3) this definition does not include psychological harm nor is there any requirement that the physical injury should be serious. In the present case the unfortunate victim was likely to suffer and did in fact suffer actual physical injury as a direct result of the offence of attempted rape. It was therefore a violent offence for the purposes of the Act.
The next submission made on behalf of the appellant was that the sentence of eight years’ detention under the Children and Young Persons Act 1993 was unlawful because the court had exceeded its jurisdiction. The basis of the submission was that as the appellant was convicted before he reached his 17th birthday the effect of s 63 of and Schs 8 and 12 to the 1991 Act was to provide that the maximum available sentence on him in October 1992 would have been 12 months’ detention in a young offender institution. The appellant was convicted on 28 July 1992. He was then 16 years old. It was accepted that if sentenced then he would have been liable to an order under s 53(2) of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933.
In R v Danga [1992] 1 All ER 624, [1992] QB 476 this court considered a situation not dissimilar from the present case. Danga was 20 years old when convicted, and 21 years old when he was sentenced to imprisonment in the Crown Court. This court considered that the proper sentence should have been an order for detention in a young offender institution rather than imprisonment as an adult on the ground that for the purposes of sentencing the age of the defendant was his age at the date of conviction (see also R v Pesapane (1992) 13 Cr App R (S) 438). In our judgment the same principle should be applied to the present case. This appellant was accordingly liable to be sentenced under s 53(2) of the 1933 Act and the jurisdiction of the court was not limited to a maximum of 12 months’ detention.
We have considered the sentence itself. We have borne in mind the youth and the eventual plea of the appellant. Nevertheless this was an appalling crime committed against a lady approaching 90 years of age, who was in her home alone at night. In our judgment the sentence was right: if the appellant had been older the sentence might well have been longer. This appeal is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
R v Okinikan
[1993] 2 All ER 5
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, POTTS AND JUDGE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 27 NOVEMBER 1992
Sentence – Pre-sentence report – Adequacy of report – Trial judge to determine adequacy of pre-sentence report – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 3(1)(2).
Sentence – Suspended sentence – Suspended sentence only to be imposed in ‘exceptional circumstances’ – Whether good character, youth or early plea of guilty are exceptional circumstances – Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973, s 22(2).
It is for the trial judge to decide whether a report available to the court is adequate for sentencing purposes and constitutes a proper ‘pre-sentence report’ which the court is obliged by s 3(1) and (2)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 to obtain and consider before sentencing. Provided the report is in writing and is made or submitted by a probation officer or social worker and gives appropriate information about the offender in relation to the offences for which he is before the court, the judge is not obliged to ensure that every detail of the information put before him by counsel is checked and confirmed in a further pre-sentence report or by way of addendum. If the judge considers that a further written report is required to confirm further information, he may adjourn the case but he is not obliged to do so (see p 7 j to p 8 a, post).
Section 22(2)b of the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973 (as substituted by s 5(1) of the 1991 Act) makes it clear that a suspended sentence should only be imposed in ‘exceptional circumstances’, which will depend on the facts of the particular case. Taken on their own or in combination, good character, youth and an early plea of guilty are not exceptional circumstances justifying a suspended sentence, although they may amount to mitigation sufficient to persuade the court that a custodial sentence should not be passed or to reduce its length (see p 8 e f, post).
Notes
For restrictions on sentencing, see Supplement to 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1202A–1204A.
For the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973, s 22, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 380.
Appeal against sentence
Simon Okinikan appealed against the sentences of one month’s imprisonment for handling stolen goods, forgery and obtaining property by deception, nine months’ imprisonment for theft of a car and six months’ imprisonment for obtaining property by deception, all the sentences to be concurrent, imposed by Judge Stockdale following his pleas of guilty to all charges on 7 October 1992 in the
Page 6 of [1993] 2 All ER 5
Crown Court at St Albans. Six other offences of obtaining property by deception were taken into consideration. He was also disqualified for holding or obtaining a driving licence for six months. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Roger Belle-Fortune (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
David Calvert-Smith and David E Thomas (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
27 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 7 October 1992 in the Crown Court at St Albans the appellant pleaded guilty on two indictments to handling stolen goods, forgery, three offences of obtaining property by deception and two offences of theft. He was sentenced as follows: on the first indictment, count 1, handling stolen goods, one month’s imprisonment; count 2, forgery, one month’s imprisonment concurrent; count 3, obtaining property by deception, one month’s imprisonment concurrent; count 6, obtaining property by deception, one month’s imprisonment concurrent; on the second indictment, count 2, theft of a car, nine months’ imprisonment concurrent, with his licence endorsed; count 3, obtaining property by deception, six months’ imprisonment concurrent; and count 4, theft of a car, nine months’ imprisonment concurrent, with his licence endorsed. Six other offences, each of obtaining property by deception, were taken into consideration. The cumulative total of penalty points endorsed for the two car thefts rendered the appellant liable to disqualification for holding or obtaining a driving licence for six months. Accordingly, the total sentence was one of nine months’ imprisonment and a disqualification for driving for six months.
The appellant pleaded not guilty to counts 4 and 5 on the first indictment. They were left on the file on the usual terms. He also pleaded not guilty to count 1 on the second indictment, in respect of which a verdict of not guilty was recorded.
He was jointly indicted with Michael Mahama, aged 19, a youth with no previous convictions, who pleaded guilty to counts 1, 3, 4 and 6 on the first indictment and asked for the same six offences to be taken into consideration. He was discharged conditionally for two years on each count. He was not involved in the second indictment.
The appellant appeals against sentence by leave of the single judge.
The facts supporting the second indictment were the first in time. On 19 September 1991 the appellant hired a car using false particulars and a corresponding driving licence. He failed to return the car at the end of the hire period. That was the subject of the theft charge on count 2 of the second indictment.
On 26 September 1991 he hired a second car in the same way and again failed to return it when due. That was count 4 on the second indictment.
On 5 October 1991 he sold the first car for £1,450. That was the charge of obtaining by deception on count 3 of the second indictment.
Turning to the other indictment, during September 1991 two credit cards sent by post to account holders were intercepted and stolen. On 9 November 1991, with his co-defendant Mahama, the appellant used one of the cards to buy a cassette player for £74.90. That is the subject of counts 1 and 3 of the first indictment.
Page 7 of [1993] 2 All ER 5
On 20 November 1991, again with Mahama, he used the other card to buy clothing for £197.80 (count 6 on the first indictment). In a further six transactions on that day, electrical goods and more clothing to a total value of over £1,000 were acquired. Those were the offences taken into consideration.
The appellant was arrested that same day whilst trying to use the second credit card on a further occasion.
The second car which he had hired and had not returned was found nearby containing some of his purchases.
During the first of three interviews, the appellant admitted those offences committed with the second credit card. He said, however, that the car which was found was his and had been bought lawfully. During the second and third interviews he admitted the offence with the first credit card, and admitted the theft of the car which he said he meant in due course to return. He volunteered a full account of his theft and disposal of the first car. He admitted signing the first credit card—the forgery offence on count 2 in the first indictment.
The appellant is 22 years of age. At the time of his arrest he was a student living with his mother. He had no previous convictions.
A social inquiry report was before the learned judge. It was dated 26 March and was accepted by the learned judge as a pre-sentence report. It referred to the appellant’s studies, and described him as intelligent, articulate, ambitious and thoughtful. The appellant in interview with the probation officer attributed his offending to his co-defendant. The report recommended a suspended sentence or alternatively community service.
It was urged in mitigation on the appellant’s behalf before the learned judge that his youth, his good character and his plea of guilty together with voluntary work that he had done, teaching 11 and 12 year olds science, justified a suspended sentence.
The first submission on behalf of the appellant was that the pre-sentence report dated 26 March 1992 was out of date by the time of the hearing in October 1992. Therefore, it was argued, it did not comply with the provisions of s 3(5) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991. At the hearing counsel was given some information by the appellant and asked that the judge should adjourn the case so that these matters could be considered in a pre-sentence report. The judge refused the application and told counsel that he could produce the relevant information on the basis of his instructions. Accordingly, this is what counsel did.
The effect of s 3(1) and (2) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 is that the court is obliged to obtain and consider a pre-sentence report. Section 3(5) provides that a ‘pre-sentence report’ means a report in writing which—
‘(a) with a view to assisting the court in determining the most suitable method of dealing with an offender, is made or submitted by a probation officer or by a social worker of a local authority social services department; and (b) contains information as to such matters, presented in such manner, as may be prescribed by rules made by the Secretary of State.’
No rules under para (b) have yet been prescribed.
Without in any way minimising the importance courts should attach to the proper performance of the obligations imposed by the statutory provisions relating to pre-sentence reports, in our judgment it is for the trial judge to decide whether the report actually available to the court is adequate for sentencing purposes and constitutes proper compliance with the statute. Provided the report is in writing and is made or submitted by a probation officer or social worker and gives appropriate information about the offender in relation to the offences which bring him before the court, the judge is not obliged to ensure that every detail of
Page 8 of [1993] 2 All ER 5
information put before him by counsel is checked and confirmed in a further pre-sentence report or by way of addendum. If he considers that a further written report is required to confirm further information, he may of course adjourn the case, but he is not obliged to do so.
In this case the single judge ordered an up-to-date report to be obtained for the assistance of this court and counsel accepted that it revealed hardly anything not contained already in the report before the learned judge.
In our judgment there was no failure to comply with s 3 of the 1991 Act.
The second submission on behalf of the appellant was that, if a custodial sentence was appropriate, it should have been suspended.
The power to order a suspended sentence was formerly contained in s 22 of the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973. This provided that a suspended sentence should not be imposed—
‘… (2) … unless the case appears to the court to be one in which a sentence of imprisonment would have been appropriate …’
Section 5(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 substitutes s 22(2) of the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973. It provides:
‘A court shall not deal with an offender by means of a suspended sentence unless it is of the opinion—(a) that the case is one in which a sentence of imprisonment would have been appropriate even without the power to suspend the sentence; and (b) that the exercise of that power can be justified by the exceptional circumstances of the case.’
The significant amendment is the new emphasis on the exceptional nature of a suspended sentence. Parliament has given statutory force to the principle that a suspended sentence should not be regarded as a soft option, but should only be imposed in exceptional circumstances.
This court cannot lay down a definition of ‘exceptional circumstances’. They will inevitably depend on the facts of each individual case. However, taken on their own, or in combination, good character, youth and an early plea are not exceptional circumstances justifying a suspended sentence. They are common features of many cases. They may amount to mitigation sufficient to persuade the court that a custodial sentence should not be passed or to reduce its length. The statutory language is clear and unequivocal.
In the present case exceptional circumstances were not shown. It would therefore have been inappropriate for the sentence of imprisonment to have been suspended.
We have reconsidered the sentence passed on this appellant in the light of an argument based on possible disparity between him and his co-accused. The co-accused’s criminal involvement was significantly less than that of the appellant. He was involved only in the lesser of two indictments. There was no disparity.
We have considered the length of the sentence in the light of information about work done by the appellant on a voluntary basis to teach and help people younger than himself.
Having considered all the matters advanced for the appellant, we have reached the conclusion that this sentence was neither wrong in principle nor excessive and there is no basis to justify interference with it. This appeal is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
R v Oliver
R v Little
[1993] 2 All ER 9
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, POTTS AND JUDGE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 27 NOVEMBER 1992
Sentence – Breach of probation order – Sentence for original offence – Probation order not a sentence – Further offences committed while on probation – Whether court having jurisdiction to pass sentence for original offence – Criminal Justice Act 1991, ss 2(1), 14(1), Sch 2, para 8(2)(b).
Sentence – Breach of probation order – Sentence for original offence – Original offence not so serious as to merit a custodial sentence – Further offences committed while on probation – Whether court having jurisdiction to pass custodial sentence for original offence.
Sentence – Custodial sentence – Offences meriting custodial sentence and offences not meriting custodial sentence – Whether court having jurisdiction to pass custodial sentence in respect of offences which by themselves do not merit custodial sentence.
Section 14(1)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991, by bringing Sch 2, para 8(2)(b)b into effect, continues the power formerly found in s 8 of the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973 by which the Crown Court may in circumstances which have arisen since the making of the probation order ‘revoke the order and deal with the offender, for the offence in respect of which the order was made, in any manner in which it could deal with him if he had just been convicted by or before the court of the offence’. Accordingly, where an offender who was placed on probation under s 2(1)c of the 1973 Act commits further offences while on probation he may be sentenced under the 1991 Act as if he had just been convicted of the original offence for which he was placed on probation, notwithstanding that s 13d of the 1973 Act provided that the making of a probation order was not a sentence (see p 12 j and p 13 b to d, post).
The fact that the original court concluded that a probation order was the appropriate order does not mean that the offence could not have been ‘so serious’ as to merit a custodial sentence when it comes to be considered because further offences have been committed while on probation, since although the offence for which probation was imposed may itself have passed the custody threshold of being ‘so serious’ that only custodial sentence could be justified for it there may have been sufficient mitigation to lead the court to impose a probation order rather than a custodial sentence. Accordingly, the fact that the offences committed while on probation do not themselves attract custodial sentence does not oblige the court to pass non-custodial sentences for the original offence which had resulted in a probation order (see p 13 f to h, post).
Where one or more offences are properly dealt with by a custodial sentence and there are further offences before the court which, standing in isolation from the
Page 10 of [1993] 2 All ER 9
offences for which custody is appropriate, are not in themselves so serious that only a custodial sentence could be justified, the court may nevertheless pass custodial sentences for those offences which do not themselves qualify for a custodial sentence. However, it will usually be inappropriate for consecutive sentences to be passed for offences which do not in themselves satisfy the requirements relating to custody or for sentences to be increased more than strictly justified by reference to those offences which do qualify (see p 14 a to c, post); R v Mussell [1991] 2 All ER 609 applied.
Notes
For restrictions on sentencing, see Supplement to 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1202A-1204A.
For the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973, ss 2, 8, 13, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 552, 562, 567.
As from 1 October 1992 s 2 of the 1973 Act was substituted and ss 8 and 13 thereof were repealed by ss 8 and 101(2) of and Sch 13 to the Criminal Justice Act 1991, subject to certain transitional provisions in s 101(1) of and paras 1 and 2 of Sch 12 to the 1991 Act.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Bray (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 705, CA.
R v Mussell [1991] 2 All ER 609, [1991] 1 WLR 187, CA.
R v Webster (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 760, CA.
Appeals against sentence
Harry Christopher Oliver appealed against the sentence of 12 months’ detention in a young offender institution imposed by Owen J in the Crown Court at Great Grimsby on 5 October 1992 for breach of a probation order for two years imposed by the Crown Court on 3 April 1992 in respect of two offences of burglary of dwelling houses with four other offences being taken into consideration. The sentence was imposed following his plea of guilty to one count of burglary committed on 4 May 1992 in respect of which no orders were made and consideration of eight offences in respect of which he had been committed from the magistrates’ court to the Crown Court for sentence under s 56 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 and in respect of which no orders were made. Paul Anthony Little appealed against the sentence of 12 months’ detention in a young offender institution imposed by Owen J in the Crown Court at Great Grimsby on 5 October 1992 for breach of a probation order for two years imposed by the Crown Court. The sentence was imposed following his plea of guilty to one count of burglary committed on 4 May 1992 in respect of which no orders were made. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Andrew Robertson (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellants.
David Calvert-Smith and David E Thomas (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
27 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 5 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Grimsby the two appellants both pleaded guilty to a single joint count of
Page 11 of [1993] 2 All ER 9
burglary committed on 4 May 1992. No orders were made in respect of that offence.
Oliver at the same time had also been committed from the magistrates’ court to the Crown Court for sentence under s 56 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 in respect of eight offences. Again no separate penalties were imposed at the Crown Court in respect of those.
However, the burglary on 4 May 1992 put both appellants in breach of probation orders. Oliver was in breach of a probation order for two years imposed by the Crown Court on 3 April 1992 for two offences of dwelling house burglary. For those two original offences he was sentenced to 12 months’ detention in a young offender institution. Little was in breach of a probation order imposed by the Grimsby Magistrates’ Court on 8 March 1991 for two offences of house burglary. For those two original offences he was sentenced to 12 months’ detention in a young offender institution. He was also in breach of a probation order made by the Crown Court at Grimsby on 13 November 1991 for two offences of driving whilst disqualified, but no separate order was made in respect of those.
Applications for leave to appeal against sentence in respect of both appellants were referred by the learned registrar to the full court and we granted leave.
The burglary charged on the indictment took place on 4 May, as already indicated, at about 10 pm. Oliver, Little and a co-accused, Fairbanks, broke a roof-top window and entered some first-floor offices in Grimsby. They stole a video recorder, some bottles of wine, some pens and a dictaphone.
The police attended. The offenders, with possibly a further offender, ran away. The three of them were caught and arrested nearby. The video, which was valued at £645, was recovered but was damaged beyond repair. The wine bottles were broken; they were valued at £48. The pens and dictaphone were recovered from Fairbanks. When interviewed, each of the offenders admitted involvement in the offence.
In respect of Oliver, four offences were taken into consideration. They were committed between January and May 1992. They consisted of three thefts of cash to the total value of £1,035, and one of receiving a stolen car radio worth about £120. Little asked for two offences to be taken into consideration: one offence of burglary of a shop and one of attempted burglary of commercial premises. Both of those offences were committed between June and August 1992 in Grimsby. Nothing was stolen.
The committals for sentence in Oliver’s case under s 56 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 comprised taking a motor vehicle without consent, driving without a licence, using the vehicle while uninsured, failing to stop after an accident, failure to report an accident, two thefts and one offence of failing to surrender to custody. Those offences had been committed between November 1991 and July 1992. It is unnecessary to describe them in detail.
Turning to the offences for which Oliver was originally put on probation, both involved breaking into dwelling houses by forcing a rear window. In the first, on 27 November 1991, Oliver stole a television set and some sound equipment valued at £700, of which items to the value of £300 were recovered. In the second offence, on 29 November 1991, he stole a video recorder, cigarette lighter, a watch, a pocket knife and £100 in cash, to a total value of £740. None of that property was recovered. He asked for seven other offences to be taken into consideration.
Little was, as already indicated, put on probation on 8 March 1991 for two burglaries of dwelling houses, handling and failing to surrender to bail, with 21 other offences taken into consideration. The probation order in his case of 13
Page 12 of [1993] 2 All ER 9
November 1991 was for two offences of driving while disqualified, committed between 21 April and 30 June 1991. It also involved taking a motor vehicle without consent, two burglaries of non-residential premises, two thefts and one offence of going equipped for theft.
Oliver is 18 years of age, unemployed and was in receipt of benefit. He had a number of previous convictions. A pre-sentence report in his case indicated that much of his previous offending was linked to his misuse of cannabis and to financial difficulties. The report suggested that consideration might be given to a community service order.
Little is 19. He too was unemployed and in receipt of benefit. He too had previous convictions. The pre-sentence report suggested that his response to supervision in the past had been positive. However he was not prepared to give his consent to a community service order, although he expressed himself willing to work with the probation service in an intensive day centre programme, which was recommended.
The first and most important submission made on behalf of the appellants was that the court had no jurisdiction to pass sentence for the offences for which they had been placed on probation before the Criminal Justice Act 1991 had come into force.
If this submission were correct, then the implementation of the 1991 Act has left the court bereft of jurisdiction to deal with defendants for which they were placed on probation prior to October 1992, notwithstanding the commission of crimes subsequent to the making of the probation orders. It was accepted that nothing in the 1991 Act suggests that this result was intended.
The orders placing the appellants on probation were made under the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973. Section 2(1) provided:
‘Where a court by or before which a person … is convicted of an offence … is of opinion that … it is expedient to do so, the court may, instead of sentencing him, make a probation order …’
Section 13, so far as is relevant, provided:
‘(1) … a conviction of an offence for which an order is made … placing the offender on probation … shall be deemed not to be a conviction for any purpose other than the purposes of the proceedings in which the order is made and of any subsequent proceedings which may be taken against the offender …
(2) Where the offender … is subsequently sentenced … for that offence, subsection (1) above shall cease to apply to the conviction …’
Therefore the making of a probation order prior to October 1992 was not a sentence, and was only for limited and specific purposes to be treated as a ‘conviction’. If the appellants committed any offence while subject to probation orders, they were liable to be brought back to court and dealt with as if they had just been convicted of the original offences (see s 8 of the 1973 Act).
Sections 8 and 13 of the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973 were repealed by Sch 13 to the 1991 Act. Nevertheless, para 2 of Sch 12 provides that the operation of s 13 in relation to persons placed on probation before the repeal should not be affected. Paragraph 5 of Sch 12 also provides a transitional provision for custodial and community sentences and refers to ‘pre-existing failures’ to comply with the requirements of probation orders, that is failures which have occurred before the 1991 Act came into force. These provisions support a very powerful argument against the appellants’ contentions. The particular matter relied on by the
Page 13 of [1993] 2 All ER 9
appellants was the absence from para 1 of Sch 12 of any reference to s 14 of the 1991 Act. Paragraph 1 of Sch 12 provides:
‘Each of sections 1 to 13 of this Act shall apply in relation to offenders convicted (but not sentenced) before the commencement of that section as it applies in relation to offenders convicted after that commencement.’
In our judgment the explanation for this omission is that reference to it was unnecessary. Persons subject to probation orders made before October 1992 have not been ‘sentenced’. The saving of s 13 of the 1973 Act by para 2 means that for the purposes of subsequent proceedings following the probation orders the offenders were convicted.
Section 14 of the 1991 Act came into force simultaneously with the remaining provisions of Pt 1 of the Act, and brought Sch 2 into effect. This deals with the enforcement of community orders, including a probation order. Paragraph 8(2)(b) gives the Crown Court jurisdiction if appropriate, in the circumstances which have arisen since the making of the probation order, to—
‘revoke the order and deal with the offender, for the offence in respect of which the order was made, in any manner in which it could deal with him if he had just been convicted by or before the court of the offence.’
In summary, s 14(1) of the 1991 Act, by bringing Sch 2 into effect, continues the power formerly found in s 8 of the 1973 Act. When s 8 was repealed, s 14(1) replaced it.
In our judgment when the appellants appeared before the Crown Court on 5 October 1992 they were liable to be ‘sentenced’ as if they had just been convicted of the original offences for which they were placed on probation.
It is unnecessary to consider further whether, so far as the Crown Court is concerned, the provisions of s 16 of the Interpretation Act 1978 would serve to reinforce this conclusion.
The second submission is that it was not open to the Crown Court to conclude that ‘the offence, or the combination of the offence and one other offence associated with it’, considered by the Crown Court at Grimsby, was ‘so serious’ that only a custodial sentence could be justified for the offence. The basis of this submission was that, if the original court had concluded that a probation order was the appropriate order, that of itself demonstrated that there was a realistic alternative to custody.
In our judgment there may well be cases where, notwithstanding that the offence itself passes the custody threshold, there is sufficient mitigation to lead the court to impose a community sentence. Nevertheless if a further offence was or offences were committed while the community sentence was in force, and the defendant was brought to court for sentence, he would have deprived himself of much of the mitigation, such as good character, genuine remorse, isolated lapse and similar considerations, which had led the original court to pass a community rather than a custodial sentence. This conclusion is entirely consistent with the decisions of the Court of Appeal in R v Bray (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 705 at 710 and R v Webster (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 760 at 765. The authority of these decisions is not diminished by the provision of the 1991 Act.
The next question which arises in this appeal concerns the question of orders which should be made where one or more offences are properly dealt with by way of custody and there are further offences before the court which, standing in isolation from the offences for which custody is appropriate, would not in themselves be so serious that only a custodial sentence could be justified.
Page 14 of [1993] 2 All ER 9
In R v Mussell [1991] 2 All ER 609, [1991] 1 WLR 187 this court considered this issue in relation to s 1(4) and (4A) of the Criminal Justice Act 1982 as substituted by s 123(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. It concluded that, once an offender had qualified for a custodial sentence, the court was not precluded from passing on the same occasion custodial sentences for offences which did not themselves satisfy the statutory requirements. Although the terms of s 1(2)(a) of the 1991 Act are not identical to the statutory language considered by the Court of Appeal in R v Mussell, it was submitted that the course approved in R v Mussell should continue to apply following implementation of the 1991 Act.
We agree with those submissions. However, whatever the theoretical position may be in relation to consecutive sentences, it would usually be inappropriate for consecutive sentences to be passed for offences which did not themselves satisfy the requirements relating to custody or, indeed, for sentences to be made longer than strictly justified by reference to those offences which did qualify.
Finally, we have considered the sentences passed on the appellants. The fact that the offences committed while on probation did not themselves attract custodial sentences did not oblige the court to pass non-custodial sentences for the original offences which had resulted in probation orders. Those offences had to be considered on their merits in the light of everything which had happened subsequent to the making of the orders. The court concluded that, viewed in that light, the two offences of burglary and theft in dwelling houses were so serious that only a custodial sentence could be justified. Without implying that one such offence would have been insufficient for the purpose of s 1(2)(a), we have no doubt that the conclusion of the Crown Court was correct and that the length of sentence in each case was not excessive.
Accordingly this appeal is dismissed.
Appeals dismissed.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
R v Cunningham
[1993] 2 All ER 15
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, POTTS AND JUDGE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 27 NOVEMBER 1992
Sentence – Custodial sentence – Purpose of custodial sentence – Punishment and deterrence – Sentence commensurate with seriousness of offence – Sentence commensurate with punishment and deterrence – Prevalence of type of offence may be taken into account – Length of sentence not to be increased to make special example of defendant – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 2(2).
The purpose of a custodial sentence is primarily to punish and deter and therefore the requirement in s 2(2)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 that a custodial sentence be for such term as is ‘commensurate with the seriousness of the offence’ means that the sentence must be commensurate with the punishment and deterrence which the seriousness of the offence requires. Furthermore, the prevalence of the type of offence is a legitimate factor in determining the length of the custodial sentence to be passed, since the seriousness of an offence is clearly affected by how many people it harms and to what extent. However, s 2(2)(a) prohibits adding to the length of the sentence which is commensurate with the seriousness of the offence simply to make a special example of the defendant (see p 17 h and p 18 b to d, post).
Dictum of Lord Lane CJ in A-G’s Reference (No 9 of 1989) (1990) 12 Cr App R (S) 7 at 9 applied.
Notes
For restrictions on sentencing, see Supplement to 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1202A–1204A.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G’s Reference (No 9 of 1989) (1990) 12 Cr App R (S) 7, CA.
Practice Note [1992] 4 All ER 307, [1992] 1 WLR 948, CA.
Application for leave to appeal against sentence
Brian Gregory Cunningham applied for leave to appeal against the sentence of four years’ imprisonment for robbery and two years’ imprisonment concurrent for theft imposed by Judge Wrintmore on 2 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Chichester following his pleas of guilty to both charges. The Court of Appeal granted leave to appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Philip G Meredith (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
David-Calvert Smith and David E Thomas (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
27 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 1 September 1992 in the Crown Court at Chichester the appellant pleaded guilty to two indictments and on
Page 16 of [1993] 2 All ER 15
2 October 1992 was sentenced on the first indictment for robbery to four years’ imprisonment and on the second indictment for theft to two years’ imprisonment concurrently. He now applies for leave to appeal against sentence, which we have granted.
The offence of theft was the first in time. It was committed jointly with co-accused Dunkerton, aged 29, and Cole, aged 26. Dunkerton was employed by a newsagent in Crawley as a deputy manager. On the morning of 6 April 1992 he staged a fake robbery. He pretended that he had been tied up against his will and was found secured to a chair. Cash, cigarettes and confectionery to the value of £1,500 had been stolen. The appellant, who was in possession of stolen cigarettes, was arrested initially for robbery. The police then discovered it had been a fake.
The appellant when first interviewed denied any involvement. Later he admitted being fetched to the shop by Dunkerton and Cole. They had all three stolen the property. He helped carry out the cigarettes and secured Dunkerton to a chair with his tie. He expected to get ‘something’ from Dunkerton for his part.
The offence of robbery took place on the evening of 24 April 1992. Whilst on bail for the offence of theft the appellant, brandishing a knife and accompanied by Cole, went to a corner shop in Crawley. They demanded money from the shopkeeper, who had a small child in his arms. There was a struggle during which the knife was bent against the counter. Cole grabbed the till, containing some £2,700, and ran off. The till itself was worth £600. It was damaged when recovered. The shopkeeper managed to overpower the appellant and detained him, still holding the knife, until the police arrived. When interviewed, the appellant said he had been given the knife and some gloves by Cole. He admitted robbing the shopkeeper at knife-point and claimed he had been threatened with death if he did not participate.
Cole pleaded guilty to the same offences as the appellant and was also sentenced to four years’ and two years’ imprisonment concurrently. Dunkerton pleaded guilty to the theft charge and two further thefts from his employers. He was sentenced to two years’ imprisonment concurrently on each charge.
The appellant is 22. He had no previous convictions, whereas Cole and Dunkerton both had previous records for dishonesty. The appellant was unemployed and had been lodging with his co-defendant Cole, whom he blamed for his involvement in these offences.
In passing sentence the learned judge indicated that in his view the offence of robbery was so serious that only a custodial sentence could be justified. No challenge is made to that finding and in our judgment it was right. Robbery committed in a small shop at knife-point clearly falls within the scope of s 1(2)(a) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991.
The basis of this appeal is that the sentence passed upon the appellant was too long. Mr Meredith’s first argument prayed in aid the practice direction I issued on 1 October 1992 (see Practice Note [1992] 4 All ER 307, [1992] 1 WLR 948). He submits that the sentence of four years under the regime of the 1991 Act would require the appellant actually to serve two years before he could be released. Under the previous regime he would have been eligible for parole after one-third of his sentence, ie 16 months. Therefore he was sentenced more harshly by the learned judge under the new regime than he would have been under the old.
This argument is wholly fallacious. It assumes that under the old regime the learned judge would have imposed the same sentence. That does not follow. Indeed, the practice direction contemplates that the sentence passed under the new regime may well be a different sentence from that which would have been passed before the 1991 Act.
The ante-penultimate paragraph of the practice direction reads as follows:
Page 17 of [1993] 2 All ER 15
‘Accordingly, from 1 October 1992, it will be necessary, when passing a custodial sentence in the Crown Court, to have regard to the actual period likely to be served, and as far as practicable to the risk of offenders serving substantially longer under the new regime than would have been normal under the old.’
Thus, the comparison to be made is between the period likely to be served under the sentence to be imposed and the period likely to have been served under whatever sentence the judge would have imposed before the 1991 Act.
The practice direction does not require an arithmetically precise calculation to be made. Its object was to give general guidance by alerting sentencers to the changed regime of early release and requiring them to have regard to the possible effects of passing sentences after October 1992 of the same length as those they would have passed before. Precise and calculated comparisons are not possible. Although offenders became eligible for parole under the old regime after serving one-third of the term imposed and are now, if sentenced to more than four years, eligible after serving one-half, under neither regime was or is such parole automatic. That is why the practice direction uses the phrases ‘likely to be served’ and ‘as far as practicable’ and the words ‘substantially’ and ‘normal’.
It should be stressed that, where the length of a custodial sentence is challenged, this court will be concerned as to whether the term is appropriate under the criteria of the 1991 Act. It is unlikely to be moved by nice arithmetical comparisons between periods under the old and new regimes.
Mr Meredith’s second submission is that the learned judge was wrong in regarding deterrence as a legitimate consideration in passing sentence. The learned judge said in the course of his sentencing remarks:
‘This was a robbery of a small shop at knife-point. Such shops are very vulnerable and there are far too many such robberies. Others who might be tempted to follow your example must realise that a long deterrent sentence will follow such a robbery.’
Section 2(2) of the 1991 Act provides that, where a court passes a custodial sentence other than one fixed by law or one involving a violent or sexual offence, that sentence shall be:
‘(a) for such term (not exceeding the permitted maximum) as in the opinion of the court is commensurate with the seriousness of the offence, or the combination of the offence and other offences associated with it …’
Does that provision permit the sentencing judge to take the need for deterrence into account? In our judgment, it does. The purposes of a custodial sentence must primarily be to punish and to deter. Accordingly, the phrase ‘commensurate with the seriousness of the offence’ must mean commensurate with the punishment and deterrence which the seriousness of the offence requires.
In A-G’s Reference (No 9 of 1989) (1990) 12 Cr App R (S) 7 at 9 Lord Lane CJ said:
‘Businesses such as small post offices coupled with sweetie-shops—that is exactly what these premises were—are particularly susceptible to attack. They are easy targets for people who wish to enrich themselves at other people’s expense. That means that in so far as is possible the courts must provide such protection as they can for those who carry out the public service of operating those post offices and sweetie-shops, which fulfil a very important public function in the suburbs of our large cities. The only way in which the
Page 18 of [1993] 2 All ER 15
Court can do that is to make it clear that if people do commit this sort of offence, then, if they are discovered and brought to justice, inevitably a severe sentence containing a deterrent element will be imposed upon them in order so far as possible to persuade other like-minded robbers, greedy persons, that it is not worth the candle.’
Although those remarks were made before the 1991 Act, we consider they still hold good. The sentence commensurate with the seriousness of an offence of this kind will be substantial to reflect the need both for punishment and for deterrence. What s 2(2)(a) does prohibit is adding any extra length to the sentence which by those criteria is commensurate with the seriousness of the offence simply to make a special example of the defendant.
Prevalence of this kind of offence was also mentioned by the learned judge. Is that a legitimate factor in determining the length of the custodial sentence to be passed? Again, our answer is Yes. The seriousness of an offence is clearly affected by how many people it harms and to what extent. For example, a violent sexual attack on a woman in a public place gravely harms her. But, if such attacks are prevalent in a neighbourhood, each offence affects not only the immediate victim but women generally in that area, putting them in fear and limiting their freedom of movement. Accordingly, in such circumstances, the sentence commensurate with the seriousness of the offence may need to be higher there than elsewhere. Again, and for similar reasons, a bomb hoax may at one time not have been so serious as it is when a campaign of actual bombings mixed with hoaxes is in progress.
In the present case we consider the learned judge was right to regard the robbery as very serious and to bear in mind both the need for deterrence and the prevalence generally of offences of this kind.
However, Mr Meredith’s final ground of appeal is that the learned judge did not sufficiently have regard to the mitigating circumstances in the appellant’s case, especially when compared with that of his co-accused, Cole, who received the same sentence. We think there is merit in this argument.
This appellant was younger than either of his co-accused. He was of previous good character, whereas both his co-accused had records for dishonesty. Furthermore, the appellant co-operated with the police from the start, whereas Cole made no admissions and was putting forward an alibi until a very late stage. These were, in our judgment, matters relevant in mitigation of sentence within the meaning of s 28(1) of the 1991 Act.
Bearing them in mind, we consider that the sentence of four years passed by the learned judge was too long. We therefore quash that sentence and substitute for it a sentence of three years’ imprisonment. The concurrent sentence of two years in respect of the offence of theft will stand. Accordingly the overall sentence is reduced to one of three years’ imprisonment.
Appeal allowed. Sentence varied.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
R v Cox
[1993] 2 All ER 19
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, POTTS AND JUDGE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 30 NOVEMBER 1992
Sentence – Custodial sentence – Seriousness of offence – Offence so serious that only custodial sentence can be justified – Test of whether offence sufficiently serious to justify custodial sentence – Mitigating factors to be taken into account – Criminal Justice Act 1991, ss 1(2)(a), 28(1).
For the purposes of s 1(2)(a)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 an offence is ‘so serious that only [a custodial] sentence can be justified’ if it is such as to make all right-thinking members of the public, knowing all the facts, feel that justice would not be done by the passing of anything other than custodial sentence (see p 21 e to g, post); dictum of Lawton LJ in R v Bradbourn (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 180 at 183 applied.
The prevalence of a particular class of offence and public concern about them are relevant to the seriousness of an offence, although a court is not required to pass a custodial sentence even when the offence is serious according to those criteria, since, although an offender may qualify for a custodial sentence by virtue of s 1(2), the court is still required by s 28(1)b to consider whether a custodial sentence is appropriate having regard to the mitigating factors available and relevant to the offender (as opposed to factors relevant to the offence) (see p 21 j to p 22 a, post).
Notes
For restrictions on sentencing, see Supplement to 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1202A–1204A.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Bradbourn (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 180, CA.
R v Cunningham [1993] 2 All ER 15, [1993] 1 WLR 183, CA.
Appeal against sentence
David Geoffrey Cox appealed with the leave of the single judge against the sentences of one month’s detention in a young offender institution for theft and of four months’ detention for reckless driving, to run concurrent, imposed by Judge May in the Crown Court at Birmingham on 16 October following his plea of guilty on 8 September 1992 to the charges. He was also disqualified for driving for 12 months. His plea of guilty to using a vehicle while uninsured, for which he had been committed from the magistrates’ court under s 41 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988, was also taken into consideration and no separate penalty was imposed. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Amin Welch (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
David Calvert-Smith and David E Thomas (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
Page 20 of [1993] 2 All ER 19
30 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 8 September 1992 in the Crown Court at Birmingham the appellant pleaded guilty to theft and reckless driving. The case was put back for reports. On 16 October the appellant was sentenced to one month’s detention in a young offender institution for theft, and four months’ detention concurrently for reckless driving. His licence was endorsed and he was disqualified for driving for 12 months.
The appellant also pleaded guilty to an offence of using a vehicle while uninsured which was committed from the magistrates’ court under s 41 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. No separate penalty was imposed in respect of that. He pleaded not guilty to a charge of driving without a licence, also committed to the Crown Court under s 41, and that was left on the file on the usual terms.
He now appeals against sentence by leave of the single judge.
The facts relating to the reckless driving were as follows. On 7 April 1992 at 11.35 at night police officers in a patrol car observed the appellant riding a trials motor cycle along the road with a pillion passenger. The motor cycle had no lights. The weather was wet. The visibility was poor.
The appellant saw the police car and rode off. The police car pursued him with flashing beacon. After 100 yards the appellant mounted the pavement and drove along it at about 25 to 30 miles an hour for some 50 metres. He then turned left into a walkway and across that onto another road. He overtook a car by going onto the pavement, turned left in front of the car, ignored a give way sign and went onto a narrow pathway towards some waste land. The appellant then lost control of the motor cycle and fell off. The police officers arrived and arrested him.
He was found to have in his possession a tan coloured haversack containing electrical hedge cutters, an electric drill, a portable vacuum cleaner, a spool of fishing line and a roll of white tape, all of which had been stolen from a domestic garage that evening along with other items not recovered. The theft charge was in respect of that property.
On interview the appellant claimed that he had panicked when he saw the police. He had found the stolen items in the field some ten minutes before being seen by them. He said he knew it had probably been ‘stolen, left abandoned or whatever’. He denied burglary.
The appellant was 18, single and had been unemployed since February 1992. He had one previous conviction for taking away a vehicle without the owner’s consent in 1990.
A pre-sentence report noted that he had an offer of part-time employment, and recommended a probation order.
In passing sentence the learned judge said:
‘… this was a matter in which you were driving at speed on the pavement, trying to get away from the police, and you had no lights. It would be difficult to conceive a more dangerous form of driving.’
He indicated that, because of the appellant’s age and plea, the fact that he had not previously received a custodial sentence, and the short distance travelled during the chase, he would pass a shorter sentence than would otherwise be the case. He went on:
‘But I am quite satisfied, having heard the facts of this case, that this is so serious that only a custodial sentence can be justified. There is great public concern about driving of this sort.’
Page 21 of [1993] 2 All ER 19
It is submitted that the judge erred in finding that the offence of reckless driving was so serious that only a custodial sentence could be justified. Mr Welch, who appeared for the appellant, relied on the provisions of ss 1(2)(a) and 3(3)(a) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991.
Section 1(2) provides:
‘… the court shall not pass a custodial sentence on the offender unless it is of the opinion—(a) that the offence, or the combination of the offence and one other offence associated with it, was so serious that only such a sentence can be justified for the offence …’
Section 3(3) provides:
‘In forming any such opinion as is mentioned in subsection (2) of section 1 or 2 above a court—(a) shall take into account all such information about the circumstances of the offence (including any aggravating or mitigating factors) as is available to it …’
Mr Welch argues that when the circumstances of this offence of reckless driving are looked at in context, and all available information relating to the aggravating and mitigating factors is taken into account, a custodial sentence should not have been passed.
The Criminal Justice Act 1991 does not attempt a definition of the expression ‘so serious that only such a sentence can be justified for the offence’. In R v Bradbourn (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 180 another division of this court had to consider the provisions of s 1(4) of the Criminal Justice Act 1982, and in particular the phrase, ‘so serious that a non-custodial sentence cannot be justified’. Lawton LJ said (at 183):
‘In our judgment the phrase, “so serious that a non-custodial sentence cannot be justified” comes to this: the kind of offence which when committed by a young person would make right-thinking members of the public, knowing all the facts, feel that justice had not been done by the passing of any sentence other than a custodial one. We think that is as good guidance as we can give to courts and that any attempt to be more specific would only add to the difficulties of courts and not help them.
The form of the words in s 1(4) of the 1982 Act differs from that of s 1(2)(a) of the 1991 Act, which applies not just to young offenders but generally. Nevertheless, we think that Lawton LJ’s formulation is appropriate to any consideration of the expression ‘so serious that only such a sentence can be justified for the offence’ and we adopt it.
Standing back and applying it to all the known facts of this case, we have reached the conclusion that only a custodial sentence could be justified for this offence.
Mr Welch submitted in particular that the learned judge’s observation, ‘There is great public concern about driving of this sort’, was irrelevant. We do not agree. The prevalence of offences of a particular class and public concern about them are relevant to the seriousness of an instant offence, as we made clear in R v Cunningham [1993] 2 All ER 15, [1993] 1 WLR 183.
That, however, is not the end of the matter. Section 1(2) enjoins the court not to pass a custodial sentence unless it is of the opinion that the criteria of seriousness are met. The court is not required to pass such a sentence even when they are.
Although an offender may qualify for a custodial sentence by virtue of s 1(2), the court is still required to consider whether such a sentence is appropriate having regard to the mitigating factors available and relevant to the offender (as
Page 22 of [1993] 2 All ER 19
opposed to such factors as are relevant to the offence). Section 28(1) of the 1991 Act provides:
‘Nothing in this Part shall prevent a court from mitigating an offender’s sentence by taking into account any such matters as, in the opinion of the court, are relevant in mitigation of sentence.’
It is submitted that, even if the learned judge in the court below was correct in holding as he did in regard to the seriousness of the offence of reckless driving, he nevertheless failed to give due weight to the mitigating factors personal to the offender. The appellant was 18 at the time of the offence charged and had one previous court appearance for taking a motor vehicle without the owner’s consent, driving whilst disqualified and driving with no insurance. These offences were committed together in August 1990.
The pre-sentence report recommended probation. It said:
‘Mr. Cox has not yet been the subject of a probation order and it is my belief that such a disposal would allow him the opportunity to examine his offending behaviour in more detail. It could also enable him to recognise the danger that he places both himself and the general public in, when he engages in this type of offence … He would be expected to attend supervision no less than twelve times in the first three months and then contact would be re-assessed according to the progress he had made in respect to the aims and objectives of the Order.’
We are of the view that, given the age and antecedent history of the appellant, this course would have been appropriate in the present case. Accordingly, if the appellant is willing to be placed on probation, we are prepared to quash sentences of detention and substitute for them concurrent probation orders. In reaching this conclusion we are satisfied that the offence of reckless driving was serious enough to warrant the making of such orders pursuant to s 6(1) of the 1991 Act.
Accordingly, if the appellant is willing, and bearing in mind that he has served a month and a half of custody, we are prepared to substitute a sentence of 12 months’ probation for the sentences originally passed.
Appeal allowed. Sentence varied.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
R v Bexley
R v Summers
R v Harrison
[1993] 2 All ER 23
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, POTTS AND JUDGE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 24, 30 NOVEMBER 1992
Sentence – Previous convictions – Circumstances of other offences – Seriousness of offence or its combination with another offence – Previous convictions not to be taken into account – Sentencing judge entitled to take into account circumstances of previous offences or offences presently before court in determining seriousness of instant offence – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 29.
On their true construction sub-ss (1) and (2) of s 29a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 are complementary. On the one hand, sub-s (1) prohibits the sentencing court from regarding an offence as more serious simply because the offender has previous convictions, whether the previous convictions are for different classes of offence or even for the same class of offence as that before the sentencing court, and in particular, the second limb of sub-s (1) expressly provides that failure to respond to previous sentences (which includes failure to respond to probation or a conditional discharge) is not to be regarded as rendering the instant offence as being more serious. Accordingly, a sentencing judge cannot regard the mere existence of previous convictions as relevant to the seriousness of the instant offence or its combination with another offence. On the other hand, sub-s (2) in referring to ‘the circumstances of other offences’ entitles a sentencing judge to take into account the circumstances of previous offences or the offences presently before the court in determining the seriousness of the instant offence; however, the only circumstances of other offences which may be taken into account are those which disclose some aggravating factor in the instant offence or its combination with another offence, eg deliberately targeting or selecting elderly victims or persistently using stolen credit cards to acquire large amounts of luxury goods (see p 25 d to p 26 e, post).
Notes
For restrictions on sentencing, see Supplement to 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1202A–1204A.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Bailey (1988) 10 Cr App R (S) 231, CA.
R v Brooks (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 756, CA.
R v Chamberlain (1991) 13 Cr App R (S) 525, CA.
R v McElhorne (1983) 5 Cr App R (S) 53, CA.
R v Queen (1981) 3 Cr App R (S) 245, CA.
Cases also cited
A–G’s Reference (No 1 of 1988) [1989] 2 All ER 1, [1989] AC 971, HL.
R v Bradbourn (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 180, CA.
Page 24 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
R v Bray (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 705, CA.
R v Bumrungpruik (1992) Times, 5 June, CA.
R v Hawker (1992) 13 Cr App R (S) 694, CA.
R v Parkes (1988) 10 Cr App R (S) 494, CA.
R v Scott (1989) 11 Cr App R (S) 249, CA.
R v Smith (1978) 67 Cr App R 211, CA.
R v Webster (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 760, CA.
Application for leave to appeal against sentence and appeals against sentence
R v Bexley
John Andrew Bexley applied for leave to appeal against his sentence of a total of two years’ imprisonment imposed by Judge Rice in the Crown Court at Chelmsford on 7 October 1992 following his plea of guilty at the Colchester Magistrates’ Court on 31 July 1992 to nine offences of dishonesty for which he was committed to the Crown Court for sentence under s 38 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980. Thirty-nine other offences were taken into consideration. The Court of Appeal granted leave to appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Summers
Stephen Summers appealed pursuant to a certificate granted by the judge against his sentence of a total of eight months’ imprisonment imposed by Turner J in the Crown Court at Liverpool on 11 November 1992 following his plea of guilty on 21 October 1992 before Mr Terence Rigby sitting as an assistant recorder to two counts of theft. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Harrison
Victor Raymond Harrison pleaded guilty on 7 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Lancaster sitting at Preston before Mr Recorder N G Wootton to handling stolen goods and obtaining by deception in respect of which he was sentenced to concurrent terms of six months’ imprisonment. In addition he was in breach of a suspended sentence of two months’ imprisonment imposed by the Lancaster Magistrates’ Court on 24 October 1991. That sentence was activated and ordered to run consecutively to the above sentence, making eight months’ imprisonment in all. Five offences of obtaining by deception were also taken into consideration. He appealed against his sentence by leave of the single judge. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
The three appeals were heard together by consent.
Andrew Jackson (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant Bexley.
David Bennett (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant Summers.
Kathryn Johnson (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant Harrison.
David Calvert–Smith and David E Thomas (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
Page 25 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
30 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. These three appeals against sentence have been listed together since in each of them it is necessary to consider the true construction of s 29 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991. The section provides as follows:
‘(1) An offence shall not be regarded as more serious for the purposes of any provision of this Part by reason of any previous convictions of the offender or any failure of his to respond to previous sentences.
(2) Where any aggravating factors of an offence are disclosed by the circumstances of other offences committed by the offender, nothing in this Part shall prevent the court from taking those factors into account for the purpose of forming an opinion as to the seriousness of the offence.’
How those two subsections relate to one another has been the subject of much controversy. It has even been suggested that sub-s (2) is in conflict with sub-s (1). However, in our judgment, Parliament must have intended the two subsections to be complementary and we proceed to analyse their interrelationship.
Subsection (1) prohibits the sentencing court from regarding an offence as more serious simply because the offender has previous convictions. This prohibition applies whether the previous convictions are for different classes of offence or even for the same class of offence as that before the sentencing court. It embodies the principle established in case law before the 1991 Act, that an offender who has been punished for offences committed in the past should not in effect be punished for them again when being sentenced for a fresh offence (see eg R v Queen (1981) 3 Cr App R (S) 245 and R v Bailey (1988) 10 Cr App R (S) 231). But s 29(1) goes further.
The criterion for deciding whether only a custodial sentence can be justified is the seriousness of the offence or its combination with one other (s 1(2)(a)). So the sentencer must focus attention on the seriousness of that offence or that combination.
The approach, commonly adopted before the 1991 Act, of regarding the instant offence as more serious and deserving of custody because it repeated previous offending which had been treated more leniently is now forbidden. Thus the second limb of s 29(1) expressly provides that failure of the offender to respond to previous sentences is not to be regarded as rendering the instant offence more serious.
It follows that familiar sentencing remarks before the 1991 Act such as ‘You have a long history of committing offences of this kind’, or ‘You have been given every chance, fines, probation, community service, and here you are again’, will no longer be appropriate. They would be statutorily irrelevant as indicators of seriousness in the instant offence. So much is clear from s 29(1).
What then is the effect of s 29(2)? Whereas sub-s (1) refers to ‘previous convictions’, by contrast sub-s (2) refers to ‘the circumstances of other offences’. In our judgment the effect of the contrast is this. A sentencer cannot regard the mere existence of previous convictions as relevant to the seriousness of the instant offence A, or its combination with one other offence B, but he can take into account on that issue the circumstances of previous offences or of other offences presently before the court.
What circumstances of other offences can he take into account? Only those which disclose some aggravating factor in offence A or offence B. In other words the sentencer must concentrate his attention on A or A and B. Keeping that offence or combination in the forefront of his mind, he may properly ask himself
Page 26 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
whether there are any circumstances of other offences committed by the offender which shed light on offence A or offence B, so as to disclose some aggravating factor in either of them. If an aggravating factor is revealed by such circumstances, the sentencer is entitled to weigh it in deciding the seriousness of either A or A and B in combination. Relevant circumstances will usually be those which bear upon the offender’s guilty mind. For example, they may show an aggravating element of planning, deliberation or selection; or they may disclose some added gravity of criminal purpose in the instant offence.
Two examples may assist. If the instant offence is house burglary by night, the mere fact that the offender has six previous convictions for house burglary by night would not make the instant offence more serious, although it could rebut a mitigation on behalf of the offender that his offence was a one-off piece of opportunism. However, if the burglary was at the home of an 80-year-old widow, the fact that the previous offences were also burglaries of elderly widows would be a circumstance disclosing an aggravating factor in the instant offence, to wit that the offender had deliberately targeted or selected an elderly victim.
Again, take an offence of stealing a credit card. The motive might be to use it to acquire modest necessaries for an indigent family. In such a case even coupling the acquisition of the card with one instance of its use would probably not justify a custodial sentence. However, given a case in which the offender asks for many other offences to be considered of using the card to acquire large amounts of luxury goods, the court would be entitled to look at the circumstances of the other offences as disclosing the motive for stealing the card, and therefore the gravity of that offence, and might conclude s 1(2)(a) applied.
With these principles in mind we now proceed to the three appeals before us.
John Andrew Bexley
On 31 July 1992 in the Colchester Magistrates’ Court the appellant pleaded guilty to various offences of dishonesty and was committed to the Crown Court for sentence under s 38 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980.
On 7 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Chelmsford the appellant was sentenced as follows: on the first charge-sheet, for theft, two years’ imprisonment; for attempting to obtain property by deception, two years’ imprisonment concurrently; on a second charge-sheet, for handling stolen goods, two years’ imprisonment concurrent; and for obtaining by deception, two years’ imprisonment concurrent; on a third charge-sheet, for theft, one year’s imprisonment concurrent; for handling stolen goods, one year’s imprisonment concurrent; making a false instrument, two years’ imprisonment concurrent; on a fourth charge-sheet, for handling stolen goods, two years’ imprisonment concurrent; and for attempting to obtain property by deception, two years’ imprisonment concurrent, making a total sentence of two years’ imprisonment. Thirty-nine other offences were taken into consideration.
The application for leave to appeal against sentence was referred to the full court by the learned registrar, and we granted leave.
All the offences, including those taken into consideration, were committed between December 1991 and July 1992. Those on the first charge-sheet were committed in May 1992. On 1 May the appellant stole a Barclaycard. The next day he tried to buy a pair of trainers with the card at Olympic Sports in Oxford Street. He was arrested and released on bail. In interview he said he had found the card that day. It had been stolen on or about 18 April.
The two offences in the second charge-sheet came to light when the appellant was arrested again on 21 May. On 16 April a cheque book and card belonging to a Mr Rowe had been stolen from Colchester Leisure Centre. When the appellant
Page 27 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
was arrested on 21 May he was found to be in possession of the stolen cheque card. In interview on 22 May he made full admissions, and admitted having used the stolen card to obtain £50 in cash on 3 May, the very day after he had been bailed for the Olympic Sports offence. He was released on bail again.
The appellant was arrested again on 5 June regarding the offences on the third charge-sheet. On about 7 May in Colchester he had attended a post office and arranged a redirection of mail from a Mr Shreeve’s address to his, the appellant’s girlfriend’s address. The girlfriend then delivered the mail to the appellant. In this way they stole a quantity of mail between 13 May and 2 June. On 27 May, by forging one of Mr Shreeve’s cheques stolen with the mail, the appellant attempted to obtain £100 in cash from Lloyds Bank. When arrested he was found to be in possession of a driving licence in the name of a Mr Marshall. Mr Marshall’s briefcase had been stolen between 27 and 29 May. Yet again the appellant was released on bail on 5 June.
He was finally arrested on 5 July for the offences on the fourth charge-sheet. On 28 June a cheque book and Barclays Connect card had been stolen from a parked car at St Osyth. On 5 July the appellant went to M & W Stores in Colchester, where he attempted to use the stolen cheque and card to pay for goods and to obtain £20 in cash. The supervisor became suspicious and the police were called. A woman police officer arrived at the shop and arrested the appellant. He was thereafter remanded in custody.
The 39 offences taken into consideration comprised one theft and two handlings, all of bank cards, together with 30 offences of obtaining by deception and six attempted obtainings by using such cards. The total amount of compensation sought was over £2,500.
The appellant was 24 years of age at the time of his sentence and was on arrest living in a rented room in a house. He had a number of previous convictions, including offences of robbery and burglary.
In his report the probation officer noted that the appellant had returned to Stevenage after he was released from prison in February 1991, but in order to break away from established delinquent circles he went to Colchester in September 1991. Being unable to find work there, he was drawn into a series of offences through his addiction to drugs. By his own admission, ‘things escalated out of control’. The report recommended a community service order or probation order with attendance at a day centre.
In his sentencing remarks the learned judge made it clear that the court considered the two offences on the fourth charge-sheet, and concluded that in combination they were so serious that only a custodial sentence would be justified. In arriving at that conclusion the court had regard to 39 other offences taken into consideration. Although the learned judge’s remarks did not explicitly spell out this reasoning, we consider that the circumstances of the 39 offences taken into consideration did disclose an aggravating factor in the handling of the cheque book and cheque card, namely an intention to use them extensively as a plan of campaign to defraud many people on a large scale. Furthermore, as the learned judge expressly said, the two offences he considered in combination were both committed on bail. We agree with the learned judge that this was also an aggravating factor.
However, the learned judge also expressly indicated that he took into account the appellant’s previous record. Mr Jackson submits he was wrong to do so, and we agree. It was impermissible to have regard to previous convictions simpliciter. The previous offences were different from those before the court, and there were no circumstances disclosing any aggravating feature in the instant offence.
Mr Jackson accepted that the circumstances of the offences taken into
Page 28 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
consideration could properly be considered by the learned judge and that to commit an offence while on bail is an aggravating factor. He submitted, however, that the offences identified by the learned judge, even with the relevant aggravating factors already mentioned, were not so serious as to come within s 1(2)(a) of the 1991 Act. We disagree.
Counsel further complains that the learned judge failed to explain his reasons for passing a custodial sentence in sufficiently ordinary language, and failed to explain why he had not passed a community sentence.
The judge’s duty under s 1(4) is to explain to the offender why he is passing a custodial sentence. He is not obliged, nor would it be desirable for him, to go through various other available sentences and explain why he is not imposing them. The judge’s language here conveyed in sufficiently ordinary terms what s 1(4)(b) required.
Finally, counsel submitted that a sentence of two years’ imprisonment was too long. With that submission we agree. We consider that 12 months would have sufficed. Accordingly we quash the sentence of two years and substitute a sentence of 12 months wherever a sentence of two years was imposed by the learned judge. All the sentences will be concurrent. Accordingly the sentence that he will serve will be one of 12 months’ imprisonment. To that extent this appeal is allowed.
Stephen Summers
On 21 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Liverpool the appellant pleaded guilty to two counts of theft. His case was adjourned for sentence.
On 11 November 1992 he was sentenced to nine months’ imprisonment on each count. Later the same day, however, the learned judge varied the sentence by imposing three months’ imprisonment in respect of the first theft, and five months consecutively in respect of the second theft, making a total sentence of eight months’ imprisonment.
The following day the learned judge granted a certificate of appeal against the sentence.
The two offences of theft were both shopliftings. Count 1 related to 26 September 1991. The appellant was observed in the men’s wear department in Lewis’s in Liverpool. He removed several pairs of jeans from a display and walked out of that department. He was next observed in the sports department carrying a bag, which appeared full. As he approached the alarm system the alarm was activated, and he retreated back into the store. A little while later he appeared again. The bag was now empty and, as he walked under the security system, the alarm was not activated.
He was stopped at the exit by a security guard. It was found that the jeans valued at £75 had been replaced on the display after the earlier incident when the alarm was activated. Asked to explain his actions, the appellant replied, ‘I was looking for a fitting room.' He was admitted to bail.
Count 2 related to 7 May 1992. That day, whilst still on bail, the appellant was observed to select two video cassettes worth £28 from a display in W H Smith in Liverpool. He placed one of the videos into the pocket of his jacket and made his way to the exit. He made no attempt to pay for the videos. He was detained and the police were called. On interview he admitted the offence, saying he had intended giving the videos to his children.
He was also questioned about the incident with the jeans. He had been given a caution in respect of that matter, but it had been given in the false name of his brother, Paul Anthony Summers, since the appellant had given that name to the police at the time of his arrest.
The appellant is 29 years old. He lived alone in rented accommodation and was
Page 29 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
unemployed. His record included six offences of shoplifting in the last three years, that is to say four offences plus the two for which he was before the court. The offences put the appellant in breach of a conditional discharge.
A pre-sentence report stated that his previous shoplifting had been committed to finance the appellant’s former heroin habit. The report recommended a financial penalty or a further probation order.
In sentencing the appellant the learned judge said:
‘For very nearly three years now you have been a persistent shoplifter. I have very much in mind the circumstances of the offences which you have committed on 21 November 1989, 15 September 1990, 22 October that year and 25 March 1991 and the fact that the first of the offences for which you stand before the court today was committed some six months after you had first of all been placed on probation and then granted a conditional discharge, that is on 26 September. Then while on bail for that offence you committed a further offence on 7 May 1992. The court is bound to regard that history of, as I describe it, barefaced shoplifting, not just shoplifting for your own personal needs, as so serious as to justify a sentence of imprisonment … As I have said, I have come to the conclusion that the circumstances of your previous offences, coupled with the circumstances of the two offences for which you are before the court, are so serious that a non-custodial sentence cannot be justified. As I see it, the only factor of mitigation in your case is that you have pleaded guilty to these two offences. That does not carry with it the full reduction in sentence that is usually to be granted because the evidence against you on both cases was simply overwhelming.’
It is submitted that circumstances of previous offences which merely show the appellant to be a persistent offender—here a persistent shoplifter—do not disclose any aggravating feature of the instant offences, other than showing that the offender has previous convictions. That fact, and the failure to respond to probation and conditional discharge are excluded from consideration in regard to the seriousness of the instant offences by s 29(1) of the 1991 Act. With that submission we agree.
The learned judge was entitled to consider the instant offences were committed on bail. If there had been circumstances of the previous offences showing for example that the appellant was working as one of a gang or otherwise operating as a professional commercial shoplifter for profit, they would have disclosed an aggravating factor within s 29(2). Here the two instant offences were of property valued at about £100. The four previous offences in three years did not suggest any greater scale. In our judgment the 1991 Act does not permit the court to aggregate this sort of petty persistent offending so as to qualify cumulatively for a custodial sentence, despite the learned judge’s finding that it was not just for personal needs.
Accordingly, even taking into account the commission of the second offence on bail, we do not think it, or the two offences together, qualified under s 1(2)(a), so that only a custodial sentence could be justified. We do find it serious enough to qualify for a community sentence under s 6. We are minded therefore, if the appellant is willing, to order him to perform community service. Bearing in mind the short period of custody he has served, we would propose to order 120 hours community service.
Victor Raymond Harrison
On 7 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Lancaster sitting at Preston the appellant pleaded guilty and was sentenced as follows: on count 1, handling, six
Page 30 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
months’ imprisonment; on count 2, obtaining by deception, six months’ imprisonment concurrently. Those offences put him in breach of a suspended sentence for driving while disqualified on four occasions, the sentence having been imposed by the Lancaster Magistrates’ Court on 24 October 1991. The period of sentence suspended was one of two months’ imprisonment. That suspended sentence was activated by the learned recorder consecutively to the sentences for handling and obtaining by deception. Accordingly the total sentence was one of eight months’ imprisonment. The appellant asked for five offences of obtaining by deception to be taken into consideration.
He now appeals against sentence by leave of the single judge.
The facts are as follows. On 22 April 1992 the appellant drove to a filling station and used a stolen Halifax Visa card to buy petrol and cigarettes. The stolen card was on the garage’s list of thefts, and when the cashier queried this with the appellant he left the card and made off in the car with the cigarettes. The value of the property obtained was £23.36. The registration number of his car was noted by the garage attendant, and the appellant was arrested the next day. He admitted being given a card which was in the name of someone called Dean about a fortnight before. The card had been stolen before it had reached its rightful owner.
The offences taken into consideration were five instances of obtaining property valued in all at £119 from filling stations in Lancashire in the week before 13 and 20 April 1992 by means of deception with another credit card in the name of someone called Kent.
The appellant was 26. He had a number of previous convictions, mostly for offences different from those before the court. Since quite rightly no reliance was placed upon those previous convictions by the learned recorder, no more need be said about them.
A pre-sentence report said that the appellant still lacked the resolve to adopt a more constructive lifestyle. A financial penalty was tentatively suggested. The appellant had successfully completed community service, and that also was put forward as a possible course to be taken by the court.
Two points are raised by this appeal. First, Miss Johnson submits that the learned recorder was wrong to consider the five other offences taken into consideration when weighing the seriousness of the two offences on the indictment. He said in the course of his sentencing remarks:
‘I think when you have five separate offences of a similar nature, of the same nature, as one of the offences on the indictment, I can look at that in regard to the matter of forming an opinion as to the seriousness of the offence, and I do. Accordingly, I think that the second offence on the indictment can be regarded as more serious than if it was standing in isolation. That is not the situation that I have now, where there are five offences of a similar character, of using this credit card to pay for property and goods at filling stations. I think that is a serious offence because of the other offences committed by the offender and I am entitled to take those into consideration in s 29 to form an opinion as to the seriousness of that offence.’
In that passage the learned recorder seems to be making the error of thinking that similarity of the five offences taken into consideration to the obtaining offence on the indictment was sufficient to bring s 29(2) into play. Only if some circumstances of the five offences disclosed an aggravating factor in the offence on indictment would they be relevant to the seriousness of the latter.
The contrast between this case and a case such as that of Bexley may be one of degree. The total amount involved in the substantive charges and the five other offences here was less than £150. We do not consider that the circumstances here
Page 31 of [1993] 2 All ER 23
disclosed an aggravating factor sufficient to bring the substantive offences within s 1(2)(a) of the 1991 Act.
Moreover, unlike Bexley’s case, the offences here were not committed on bail. It is true that they were committed during the period of a suspended sentence, which would seem to be just as serious a matter if not more so. However, s 29(1) prohibits taking into consideration failure to respond to a previous sentence. A suspended sentence is a previous sentence. Accordingly a failure to respond to the suspended sentence here is not, by the terms of s 29(1), a matter which can be taken into account.
It seems to this court to be an extraordinary anomaly that the court can take into account as an aggravating factor the commission of an offence on bail, because bail is not a sentence, whereas it cannot take into account as an aggravating factor the failure to respond to a probation order or a suspended sentence by the commission of the instant offence during the operational period of either of those offences. However, those seem to be the plain effects of s 29.
Secondly, Miss Johnson refers to the activation of the suspended sentence. It was argued before us that for the purposes of s 1(2)(a) a sentencer cannot combine an instant offence with an offence in respect of which the offender is in breach of a suspended sentence. The latter is not ‘one other offence associated with it’.
Section 31(2) provides:
‘For the purposes of this Part, an offence is associated with another if—(a) the offender is convicted of it in the proceedings in which he is convicted of the other offence, or (although convicted of it in earlier proceedings) is sentenced for it at the same time as he is sentenced for that offence; or (b) the offender admits the commission of it in the proceedings in which he is sentenced for the other offence and requests the court to take it into consideration in sentencing him for that offence.’
Paragraph (b) clearly does not apply. It is argued, neither does para (a), because activating a suspended sentence is not sentencing the offender (see R v Chamberlain (1991) 13 Cr App R (S) 525).
We note that R v Chamberlain was a decision in relation to s 133 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980. We consider that this question is one which requires fuller argument than we have heard in the present case. Moreover it does not strictly arise in the present case, because the learned recorder did not seek to combine an offence on the indictment with the offence for which the appellant had previously been given a suspended sentence. So the issue raised by this argument is one which the court will reserve for another occasion.
However, Miss Johnson further submits that where the fresh offence or offences before the court do not justify a custodial sentence, it is usually inappropriate to activate a suspended sentence, especially where it was imposed for a different class of offence (see R v McElhorne (1983) 5 Cr App R (S) 53 and R v Brooks (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 756).
Here the suspended sentence was for driving whilst disqualified. We accept Miss Johnson’s argument. Accordingly we quash the sentence imposed by the learned recorder. In our view the proper sentence was a community service order. We are satisfied that the offences are serious enough to justify this pursuant to s 6. In view of the fact that the appellant has served some weeks in custody, we propose, if he is willing, to make an order that he perform 60 hours only of community service. We do not activate the suspended sentence.
Appeals allowed. Sentences varied.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
R v Baverstock
[1993] 2 All ER 32
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, POTTS AND JUDGE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 24, 30 NOVEMBER 1992
Sentence – Custodial sentence – Reasons for imposing custodial sentence – Reasons to be explained to offender in ordinary language – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 1(2)(4).
Sentence – Previous convictions of offender – Previous convictions of offender to be supplied to trial judge – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 29.
Sentence – Aggravating features – Offence committed on bail – Whether fact that offence committed on bail may be taken into account in determining sentence.
Sentence – Custodial sentence – Warning to counsel – Judge contemplating longer sentence than is commensurate with seriousness of offence – Whether judge under duty to warn counsel that he is contemplating custodial sentence – Whether judge under duty to warn counsel that he is contemplating longer sentence than is commensurate with seriousness of offence – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 2(2).
When passing a custodial sentence under s 1(2)(a) or (b)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 because of the seriousness of the offence or because of its violent or sexual nature, a judge will comply with the statutory obligation imposed on him by s 1(4)(a)b of that Act to state his opinion in the terms laid down by the statute if he states simply, using the language of the subsection, that in his opinion either or both of those paragraphs apply and in most cases at the same time explains in ordinary language the reasons for his conclusions and tells the offender why he is passing a custodial sentence. If he has not used ordinary language it will be necessary for him to go on and do so in order to comply with s 1(4)(b). However, if the sentencing judge errs in complying with his statutory duty under s 1(4), the Court of Appeal will not interfere with the sentence unless it is wrong in principle or excessive (see p 35 e to j, post).
The sentencing court must continue to be supplied with a list of previous convictions since it is for the judge, if he thinks it appropriate, to seek information about the ‘circumstances’ of previous convictions for offences committed by the defendant or to require that the existing information before him be amplified. It is not for the prosecution to decide what circumstances of other offences may be relevant nor is it appropriate for there to be argument between the prosecution and defence about the relevance and admissibility of the material which is to be placed before the judge. Nothing in the 1991 Act suggests that the established procedure in relation to previous convictions is inappropriate (see p 36 f g, post).
The sentencing judge may take account of the fact that the instant offence was committed while the offender on bail since the fact that the offender was on bail when he committed the offence is an aggravating feature of the offence (see p 36
Page 33 of [1993] 2 All ER 32
h j, post); dictum of Lord Taylor CJ in A-G’s References (Nos 3, 4 and 5 of 1992) (R v Boyd and ors) (1992) 14 Cr App R (S) 191 at 195 applied.
It will very rarely be necessary for a judge to indicate in express terms that he is considering a custodial sentence since in most cases that will be the most important issue and the obvious question to which any counsel will address his attention. However, where the offence is of a violent or sexual nature and the court is considering whether to impose a longer sentence pursuant to s 2(2)(b)c of the 1991 Act to protect the public from the offender, the court should give an express indication to counsel that it is being considered to enable counsel to deal specifically with the point (see p 37 b c e f, post).
Notes
For restrictions on sentencing, see Supplement to 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1202A–1204A.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G’s References (Nos 3, 4 and 5 of 1992) (R v Boyd and ors) (1992) 14 Cr App R (S) 191, CA.
R v Bexley [1993] 2 All ER 23, [1993] 1 WLR 192, CA.
R v Bradburn (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 180, CA.
R v Cunningham [1993] 2 All ER 15, [1993] 1 WLR 183, CA.
R v Oliver [1993] 2 All ER 9, [1993] 1 WLR 177, CA.
Case also cited
R v Scott (1989) 11 Cr App R (S) 249, CA.
Appeal against sentence
Ashley Baverstock appealed with the leave of the single judge against the sentence of a total of four months’ detention in a young offender institution imposed by Judge Lownie in the Crown Court at Croydon on 9 October 1992 following his plea of guilty on 29 June 1992 to handling stolen goods, common assault and theft. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Graham O J Cooke (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
David Calvert-Smith and David E Thomas (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
30 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 29 June 1992 in the Crown Court at Croydon the appellant pleaded guilty on a first indictment. On 2 October he pleaded guilty on a second indictment. Following an adjournment for reports he was sentenced on 9 October as follows. On the first indictment, count 4, handling stolen goods: three months’ detention in a young offender institution; count 6, common assault: one month’s detention consecutive; on the second indictment, for theft on count 1: three months’ detention concurrent.
He also admitted being in breach of a conditional discharge imposed by the Bromley Magistrates’ Court on 8 August 1991. No order was made in respect of that. The total sentence therefore was one of four months’ detention in a young offender institution, and one offence was taken into consideration.
Page 34 of [1993] 2 All ER 32
On the first indictment counts 1, 2, 3 and 5 charging two thefts, one taking of a conveyance without authority and one assault occasioning actual bodily harm, were ordered to lie on the file on the usual terms.
There were two co-defendants: Glen James, aged 19, pleaded guilty to handling stolen goods, and was ordered to perform an additional 40 hours community service consecutive to an order already in existence; James Rye pleaded not guilty and he, we understand, is yet to be tried.
The appellant appeals against sentence by leave of the single judge.
The offences on the first indictment were committed on 10 September 1991. A Ford Escort car was taken from outside the owner’s house. The next day it was seen by a police officer being driven across some fields. The officer heard the car stop in a clearing and while he radioed for assistance he could hear the sound of tools being used. The appellant was acting as lookout while the car was being dismantled. The police arrived and the appellant was arrested. He struggled with the arresting officer and that was the basis of the offence of common assault. The appellant was admitted to bail following that incident.
While still on bail he participated in the offence in the second indictment. On 12 April 1992 about 1.30 am a Mr Paine parked his Vauxhall Astra motor car in the driveway of his home in Orpington. About 5 am he was woken by the police and discovered that his radio cassette player and the rear passenger shelf in his car, which contained four speakers, had been removed. The items were valued at about £430.
About 3.30 am a neighbour, Mr Woodgate, had been awoken by the sound of burglar alarms. On looking out he saw a white Ford Fiesta and a short while later a youth, allegedly the appellant, running towards the car carrying a car parcel shelf. He also saw a young girl and a youth, the co-accused James, sitting in the rear of the Fiesta. He saw James manoeuvre the parcel shelf inside the Fiesta, having been given it by the appellant. Mr Woodgate then saw the appellant and another youth, the co-accused Rye, running towards the car. The appellant got into the driver’s seat and Rye into the front passenger seat. The car was driven off. Mr Woodgate was able to catch part of the registration number. About the same time other neighbours were also looking out of their windows. They saw the appellant carrying an item and the co-accused Rye running towards the car. They saw also the appellant open the door of the Vauxhall Astra, lean in and appear to tamper with the console.
The police were alerted. They stopped the Fiesta containing the four occupants. The appellant agreed the car was his and that no one else had used it. He said he had taken a wrong turning into the street where the officers found him. All four were arrested and in a blue Metro car parked at the home of the co-accused James police found the items stolen from Mr Paine’s car.
On interview the appellant insisted he had only taken a wrong turn and he denied any involvement in the offence.
The conditional discharge which had been imposed on the appellant on 8 August 1991 was in relation to allowing himself to be carried in a motor vehicle knowing that it had been stolen. The offence taken into consideration was of taking without the owner’s consent a motor vehicle on 7 July 1992.
The appellant is 19 years of age, unemployed and lives with his sister. He had a number of previous convictions, but none for dishonesty. He had not served a custodial sentence.
The pre-sentence report showed that during the past year he had been caught up in a pattern of relatively minor offending, which appeared to have been connected with his use of cannabis. The report suggested a short period of
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supervision. A psychiatric report indicated that, although there was no mental illness, he was immature and had an inadequate personality.
Counsel for the appellant developed a number of submissions. We deal first with the submissions based on the learned judge’s sentencing remarks. Counsel argued that the judge erred in a number of respects.
In the course of his remarks he said he had formed the opinion that each of the offences committed by the appellant was ‘so serious that a custodial sentence can be justified’. Later he said ‘a custodial sentence is justified’. The submission is that this language differs markedly from the words of s 1(2)(a) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 that ‘the court shall not pass a custodial sentence … unless … (a) … the offence … was so serious that only such a sentence can be justified for the offence …’
When passing sentence a statutory obligation is imposed on the judge by s 1(4), which provides:
‘Where a court passes a custodial sentence, it shall be its duty—(a) in a case not falling within subsection (3) above, to state in open court that it is of the opinion that either or both of paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (2) above apply and why it is of that opinion; and (b) in any case, to explain to the offender in open court and in ordinary language why it is passing a custodial sentence on him.’
Accordingly, before a custodial sentence was passed, the judge was required as a matter of ‘duty’, to state his opinion in the terms laid down in the statute. The language used by the judge on this occasion wholly failed to accord with these provisions.
In our view a judge should state simply that in his opinion either or both of sub-s (2)(a) or (2)(b) apply using the language of the subsection. Having stated his opinion in this way, the judge is then required by s 1(4)(a) and (b) to state why he reached that opinion and to explain his reasoning to the offender in ordinary language.
In general we do not consider that this should normally be a two-stage process. In most cases that should be unnecessary and the judge should be able at one and the same time to explain in ordinary language the reasons for his conclusions and tell the offender why he is passing a custodial sentence. When complying with this second requirement, however, the judge will be addressing the offender directly and if, in complying with sub-s (4)(a), he has not used ordinary language, it will be necessary for him to go on to do so in order to comply with sub-s (4)(b).
We would emphasise that the precise words used by a judge are not critical. The statutory provisions are not to be treated as a verbal tightrope for judges to walk. Given that the judge’s approach accords with the effect of the statutory provisions, this court will not be sympathetic to appeals based on fine linguistic analysis of the sentencing remarks.
Our conclusions here that the judge’s language and approach failed to accord with the statutory provisions does not mean that this appeal must be automatically successful. It obliges this court to consider afresh the sentence imposed in the light of the statutory provisions.
To summarise, sentencing judges must comply with their statutory duty, but if they err this court will not interfere with the resultant sentence, unless it is wrong in principle or excessive.
A further passage in the sentencing remarks is criticised, not for the language used, but as a matter of principle. It reads:
Page 36 of [1993] 2 All ER 32
‘Your record, of course, is important. The fact that you were on bail at the time when some of the offences were committed, and the prevalence of the offences … you have a history of being involved in matters of this sort.’
It is first argued that prevalence of offences is irrelevant to the seriousness of an offence.
The correct approach to offences which are ‘prevalent’ was considered by this court in R v Cunningham [1993] 2 All ER 15, [1993] 1 WLR 183. We repeat the observations made in that judgment. In our view the learned judge in the present case did not misdirect himself on this issue.
However, the same cannot be said of his references to ‘record’ and ‘history’. The approach evidenced by those references was contrary to s 29(1) of the 1991 Act, which provides:
‘An offence shall not be regarded as more serious for the purposes of any provision of this Part by reason of any previous convictions of the offender or any failure of his to respond to previous sentences.’
In our judgment the list of the appellant’s previous convictions and the orders made following conviction could not, on their own, be treated by the court as having any significance as to the seriousness of the particular offences before the court. Without repeating the observations recently made in R v Bexley [1993] 2 All ER 23, [1993] 1 WLR 192 we have concluded that the learned judge misdirected himself here.
A connected aspect of counsel’s submission on this topic is the proposition that following the implementation of the 1991 Act it was wrong in principle for the court to be provided with a list of the defendant’s previous convictions. Such material was irrelevant. The court should consider only those matters which in the submission of counsel for the Crown could properly be regarded as relevant for the purposes of s 29(2) of the 1991 Act.
We reject this argument. In our judgment the sentencing court must continue to be supplied with a list of previous convictions. It is for the judge, if he thinks it appropriate, to seek information about the ‘circumstances’ of previous convictions committed by the defendant or to require that the existing information should be amplified. It is not for the prosecution to decide what circumstances of other offences may be relevant or for there to be argument between the prosecution and the defence about the relevance and admissibility of the material which is to be placed before the judge. Nothing in the 1991 Act suggests that the procedure in relation to previous convictions, now established for very many years, is inappropriate and it would be surprising if it had.
It is next submitted that the judge misdirected himself by taking account of the fact that an offence had been committed on bail. The fact that the offender was on bail when he committed the offence was not an aggravating feature of the offence: it was merely a characteristic of the offender.
This submission is misconceived. In A-G’s References (Nos 3, 4 and 5 of 1992) (R v Boyd and ors) (1992) 14 Cr App R (S) 191 at 195 this court observed:
‘The other indictments are, however, relevant in our judgment, because the two offenders … were on bail in respect of those two indictments at the time when they committed the offence of conspiracy and in our judgment that does amount to an aggravating feature of the offence of conspiracy such as to be relevant to the appropriate sentence.’
That extract from the judgment encapsulates the relevant principle.
The next area of complaint is that the judge failed to warn counsel expressly at any stage of the hearing that he was considering a custodial sentence. Indeed
Page 37 of [1993] 2 All ER 32
counsel submitted that the judge should have identified in advance any features of the case which might be treated by the judge as aggravating the offence.
There are, of course, some circumstances in which fairness to the defendant requires the judge to tell counsel that he has a particular course in mind. The most obvious, which requires no citation of authority, arises when the court is considering a discretionary life sentence.
In our view, however, in the normal class of case, of which this appeal is an example, it will very rarely be necessary for the judge to indicate in express terms that he is considering a custodial sentence. The most important issue in the majority of cases is whether or not there must be a custodial sentence. It is the obvious question to which any counsel will address his attention. He should not need the judge’s prompting to alert him to do so. In fact counsel informed this court that he had given his mind to the possibility of a custodial sentence, but decided to address no argument on the question because he did not wish to alert the judge to the possibility. Nothing further need be said about this submission save that we consider this criticism of the judge is wholly unjustified.
However, as a result of this argument we propose to give general guidance on one new problem which will have to be faced by sentencing judges.
Section 2(2)(b) of the 1991 Act provides that the length of a custodial sentence shall be—
‘where the offence is a violent or sexual offence, for such longer term (not exceeding that maximum) as in the opinion of the court is necessary to protect the public from serious harm from the offender.’
In the present appeal it would be inappropriate for the court to consider the circumstances in which this power should be exercised. However, in our judgment, before such a sentence is imposed, the court should give an express indication to counsel that it is being considered. This will enable counsel to deal specifically with the point. Fairness to the defendant requires that a proper opportunity be given for this purpose. In summary, if a longer sentence than is commensurate with the seriousness of the offence is contemplated, the proper practice will be for the court to put counsel on notice.
We now turn to the submission that, regardless of criticisms levelled at the learned judge’s sentencing remarks, the custodial sentence passed on the appellant was wrong in principle. None of the offences for which the appellant had to be sentenced either on its own or in combination with any other offence was so serious that only a custodial sentence could be justified. Mr Cooke relies on the provisions of ss 1(2)(a)and 3(3)(a)of the 1991 Act.
Section 1(2) provides:
‘… the court shall not pass a custodial sentence on the offender unless it is of the opinion—(a) that the offence, or the combination of the offence and one other offence associated with it, was so serious that only such a sentence can be justified for the offence …’
The 1991 Act does not attempt a definition of the expression ‘so serious that only such a sentence can be justified for the offence’. In R v Bradbourn (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 180 another division of this court had to consider the provisions of s 1(4) of the Criminal Justice Act 1982, and in particular the phrase ‘so serious that a non-custodial sentence cannot be justified’. Lawton LJ said (at 183):
‘In our judgment the phrase … comes to this: the kind of offence which when committed by a young person would make right-thinking members of the public, knowing all the facts, feel that justice had not been done by the
Page 38 of [1993] 2 All ER 32
passing of any sentence other than a custodial one. We think that is as good guidance as we can give to courts and that any attempt to be more specific would only add to the difficulties of courts and not help them.’
The form of words in s 1(4) of the 1982 Act differs from that of s 1(2)(a) of the 1991 Act, which applies not just to young offenders but generally. Nevertheless, we think that this formulation is appropriate to any consideration of the expression ‘so serious that only such a sentence can be justified for the offence’, and we adopt it.
Under the 1991 Act the court may be considering not a single offence but ‘the combination of the offence and one other offence associated with it’. Section 31(2) provides:
‘… an offence is associated with another if—(a) the offender is convicted of it in the proceedings in which he is convicted of the other offence, or (although convicted of it in earlier proceedings) is sentenced for it at the same time as he is sentenced for that offence; or (b) the offender admits the commission of it in the proceedings in which he is sentenced for the other offence and requests the court to take it into consideration in sentencing him for that offence.’
In view of the three offences to which the appellant had pleaded guilty on two indictments and the further offence which he asked the court to take into consideration, the possible combination of the offence and one other required consideration.
Section 3(3) of the 1991 Act provides:
‘In forming any such opinion as is mentioned in subsection (2) of section 1 or 2 above a court—(a) shall take into account all such information about the circumstances of the offence (including any aggravating or mitigating factors) as is available to it …’
Although the appellant had a record or history of offences, for the reasons already given in this judgment the list of his convictions could not, without knowledge of the ‘circumstances’ of those offences, have entitled the court to regard them as disclosing any aggravating factor in the offence for which he had to be sentenced.
We shall now apply these statutory provisions to the known facts of this case. Following the offence of handling stolen property in which he acted as a lookout man while three colleagues dismantled a stolen motor car, the appellant was arrested. In the course of arrest a very minor assault was committed on a police officer. It consisted only of struggling with the officer. No injury was sustained as a result of it. In due course the appellant was allowed bail. While on bail he took part in a significant offence of theft from a car parked outside the owner’s home at night. This offence was aggravated by the fact that the appellant was on bail. In our judgment the combination of that offence with its aggravating feature and the earlier offence of handling was so serious that only a custodial sentence could be passed.
In these circumstances it is unnecessary to consider further the offence of taking the vehicle without the owner’s consent which was taken into consideration, and was itself committed after the appellant had yet again been admitted to bail. The offence of common assault in this particular case was not, in our view, sufficient to justify only a custodial sentence, whether on its own or in combination with any other offence which the court was able to consider.
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Our conclusion that only a custodial sentence could be justified is not an end of the matter. Although s 1(2) enjoins the court not to pass a custodial sentence unless it is of the opinion that the criteria of seriousness are met, the court is not bound to pass such a sentence even when they are. The court still has to consider whether such a sentence is appropriate, having regard to the mitigating factors available and relevant to the offender (as opposed to such factors as are relevant to the offence).
Section 28(1) of the 1991 Act provides:
‘Nothing in this Part shall prevent a court from mitigating an offender’s sentence by taking into account any such matters as, in the opinion of the court, are relevant in mitigation of sentence.’
It is submitted that, even if the learned judge was correct to hold that only a custodial sentence could be justified, he nevertheless failed to give due weight to the mitigating factors personal to the defendant.
We have considered those factors in the light of the pre-sentence report and a psychiatric report. We have taken account of his pleas, his involvement in these crimes, the extent of his criminality, his age and his immature personality.
Having reflected on these matters, we agree with the trial judge that a custodial sentence was required, notwithstanding the matters in mitigation. With one exception, we conclude that the length of the sentence was appropriate and commensurate with the seriousness of the offence, or the combination of the offence and other offences associated with it.
For the reasons already given, a custodial sentence for common assault was not required in this case. Accordingly, in accordance with the principles referred to in R v Oliver [1993] 2 All ER 9, [1993] 1 WLR 177 we shall order that the sentence of one month in a young offender institution shall run concurrently rather than consecutively. The overall sentence is reduced to three months at a young offender institution. To that limited extent this appeal is successful.
Appeal allowed in part. Sentence varied.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Re a debtor (No 51/SD/91), ex parte Ritchie Bros Auctioneers v The debtor
[1993] 2 All ER 40
Categories: BANKRUPTCY
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MORRITT J
Hearing Date(s): 29 JUNE, 10 JULY 1992
Insolvency – Statutory demand – Debt – Sum claimed expressed in foreign currency – Demand claiming higher sum than amount due and omitting claim for interest and costs – Whether statement of sterling equivalent required in demand – Whether demand causing injustice to debtor – Insolvency Act 1986, s 268(1)(a).
The debtor successfully bid $US25,000 for a lot at an auction in Rotterdam conducted by the creditor, a Canadian auctioneering company, but subsequently claimed that he had made the bid by mistake. The creditor offered to resell the lot in accordance with the terms of sale, but that was not acceptable to the debtor. On 1 May the creditor’s solicitors notified the debtor’s solicitors that they would attempt to resell the lot and would claim any deficiency from the debtor. On 6 July the lot was resold for $US8,600. On 11 July the creditor served a statutory demand under s 268(1)(a)a of the Insolvency Act 1986 on the debtor claiming $US25,000 and subsequently demanded by letter payment of $US16,400 plus interest and costs. The debtor applied to the county court for an order setting aside the statutory demand, contending that the demand was invalid because the sum claimed was in a foreign currency without stating a sterling equivalent or stipulating a date for conversion into sterling and that the demand was inaccurate and perplexing because, inter alia, it overstated the amount of the debt and made no reference to the claim for interest and costs mentioned in the subsequent letter. The district judge rejected the debtor’s submission that the demand was invalid because the sum claimed was in a foreign currency but set aside the demand on the ground that it was inaccurate and perplexing. The creditor appealed. By a respondent’s notice the debtor contended that the demand was invalid because the sum claimed was in a foreign currency.
Held – (1) There being no express provision to the effect that if a debt was not payable in sterling the option to pay a specific sterling sum or a date for conversion had to be stated in the statutory demand, there were no grounds for implying a requirement in s 268(1)(a) of the 1986 Act that the sum claimed in a statutory demand had to be stated in sterling. The only requirement in the 1986 Act and the Insolvency Rules 1986 relating to debts payable in a foreign currency was that a foreign currency debt was required to be converted into sterling at the rate prevailing at the date of the bankruptcy order for the purpose of proving the debt. Moreover, since insolvency proceedings could not be equated with the enforcement of a petitioner’s debt, no analogy could be drawn with the requirement for conversion to sterling for the purposes of a writ of fieri facias in aid of execution or other process issued in respect of the debt pursuant to s 268(1)(b) (see p 45 b c e and p 46 a b f, post).
(2) Applying the test of whether a statutory demand ought to be set aside because the errors in the demand would cause injustice to the debtor, the inaccuracy as to the overstatement of the amount owed and the omission of the claim for interest and costs could not have resulted in injustice to the debtor. Accordingly, the demand should not have been set aside. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the demand reinstated (see p 46 h to p 47 a h j and p 48 j,
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post); Re a debtor (No 1 of 1987, Lancaster), ex p the debtor v Royal Bank of Scotland plc [1989] 2 All ER 46 applied.
Notes
For conditions of auction sales, bidding and auctioneers’ rights against the purchaser, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 941–942, 955, and for cases on the subject, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 374–375, 377–379, 398–401, 2570–2576, 2595–2605, 2735–2757.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 268, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 911.
For the Insolvency Rules 1986, see 3 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1991 reissue) 233.
Cases referred to in judgment
Debtor, Re a (No 1 of 1987, Lancaster), ex p the debtor v Royal Bank of Scotland plc [1989] 2 All ER 46, [1989] 1 WLR 271, CA.
Debtor, Re a (No 10 of 1988, Aylesbury), ex p Lovell Construction (Southern) Ltd v The debtor [1989] 2 All ER 39, [1989] 1 WLR 405.
Debtor, Re a (No 490/SD/91), ex p the debtor v Printline (Offset) Ltd [1992] 2 All ER 664, [1992] 1 WLR 507.
Dynamics Corp of America, Re [1976] 2 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 757.
Lines Bros Ltd, Re [1982] 2 All ER 183, [1983] Ch 1, [1982] 2 WLR 1010, CA.
Maclaine Watson & Co Ltd v Dept of Trade and Industry [1988] 3 All ER 257, [1989] Ch 309, [1988] 3 WLR 1159, CA; affd [1989] 3 All ER 523, [1990] 2 AC 418, [1989] 3 WLR 969, HL.
Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd (No 2) [1976] 3 All ER 599, [1977] AC 443, [1976] 3 WLR 477, HL.
Practice Direction [1976] 1 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 83.
Appeal
By a notice of appeal dated 20 March 1992 Ritchie Bros Auctioneers, a Canadian company (the creditor), appealed from the order of Mr C A Hooper sitting as a deputy district judge in the Newport (Gwent) County Court on 25 February 1991 whereby he set aside a statutory demand dated 11 June for $US25,000 which had been served on a debtor by the creditor. By a respondent’s notice dated 14 April 1992 the debtor sought at the hearing of the appeal to maintain his contention before the deputy district judge that the statutory demand was invalid and ineffective in that it expressed the alleged debt in a foreign currency without demanding a sterling equivalent and without stipulating a date for conversion of the debt into sterling. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Marcia Shekerdemian (instructed by Taylor Joynson Garrett) for the creditor.
Stephen Rees Davies (instructed by Gabb & Co, Crickhowell) for the respondent debtor.
Cur adv vult
10 July 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
MORRITT J. This is an appeal by Ritchie Bros Auctioneers, the creditor, from an order of Mr C A Hooper sitting as a deputy district judge in the Newport (Gwent) County Court on 25 February 1992 setting aside a statutory demand served by the creditor on the debtor in July 1991. The creditor is a Canadian company which carries on the business of organising auctions.
On 7 March 1991 the creditor held an auction in Rotterdam. The auction was
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attended by the debtor as agent for T Ltd, a company incorporated in England. In accordance with the creditor’s normal practice the debtor was required to enter into a bidder’s registration agreement whereby the debtor and T Ltd jointly and severally agreed to abide by the terms and conditions set out therein and in the listing catalogue. Those terms and conditions included the creditor’s terms of sale. By cl 1 the purchaser was defined as the highest bidder whose bid was accepted. In addition it provided that no purchaser should retract his bid and that all sales were final. By cl 9 the creditor was entitled to resell any lots sold but not paid for. The net proceeds of such resale were to be credited to the purchaser, who was to pay the creditor on demand any deficiency arising on the resale. By cl 15 the purchaser was deemed to have accepted the lot when he made his bid. Clause 18 provided that the purchaser should pay interest at 24% per annum on any overdue amount together with any legal or collection costs incurred by the creditor.
At the auction the debtor bid $US25,000 for lot 427, a Caterpillar 826B compacter. His bid was the highest and the lot was knocked down accordingly. The debtor claimed that he had made his bid by mistake. The creditor offered to resell the lot in accordance with its terms of sale, but this was not acceptable to the debtor.
On 3 April 1991 the creditor’s solicitors wrote to T Ltd for the attention of the debtor demanding payment of $US25,000, pointing out that the debtor was jointly and severally liable with T Ltd for that amount. On 25 April the solicitors for T Ltd denied liability on the basis that the debtor’s bid had been made by mistake. On 1 May the creditor’s solicitors gave notice to T Ltd’s solicitors that the creditor would seek to resell the lot and would claim the deficiency from T Ltd and the debtor. On 6 June the lot was resold for the net sum of $US8,600 which was credited to the account of T Ltd.
The statutory demand with which I am concerned is dated 11 June 1991. Substituted service thereof on the debtor was effected on 3 July. The demand was addressed to the debtor. In the space for his address was inserted ‘[T] Ltd’ and the company’s address is given. The name and address of the creditor is then set out. The demand continues:
‘The creditor claims that the company owes the sum of US$25,000, full particulars of which are set out on page 2, and that it is payable immediately and, to the extent that the sum demanded is unsecured the creditor demands that you pay the above debt or secure or compound for it to the creditor’s satisfaction.’
The particulars set out on page 2 are as follows:
‘(1) The debtor attended at an auction in Rotterdam on 7 March 1991 held by the creditor.
(2) The debtor bid for lot 427, a Caterpillar 826B compacter and was the successful bidder at US$25,000.
(3) The debtor has failed to pay the sum due in spite of demands made by the creditor.’
On 11 July the solicitors for the creditor wrote to the solicitors for T Ltd enclosing various statements showing the sale and resale and demanding the deficiency of $US16,400 plus interest and costs from T Ltd and the debtor. Interest to 13 August 1991 was computed at $US2,132.91 and costs at £1,288.51.
On 15 July the debtor was appointed a director of T Ltd. On 10 September the debtor applied to the Newport (Gwent) County Court for an order setting aside the statutory demand. He also sought and obtained an order extending his time for that purpose. In his affidavit supporting the application the debtor denied
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liability on the ground that he was acting as the disclosed agent for T Ltd. This point was not pursued in view of the terms of the bidding agreement signed by the debtor. The debtor also relied on the fact that the demand was overstated by $US8,600 because credit had not been given for the net proceeds of the resale.
The application was heard by the district judge on 27 November 1991. It was then adjourned part heard to 25 February 1992. At the first hearing counsel for the debtor contended that the statutory demand was invalid because the sum claimed was in a foreign currency without demanding a sterling equivalent or stipulating a date for conversion into sterling. At the commencement of the second hearing the district judge indicated that he rejected that submission but either he gave no reasons or there is no note of his reasons. The debtor contends that the district judge was wrong in law and has served a respondent’s notice to maintain this point. At the second hearing it was contended that the statutory demand should be set aside on the grounds that it was inaccurate and perplexing. The particular points relied on were the overstatement of the amount claimed, the fact that the address of the debtor was stated to be T Ltd at the address given, the reference in the demand to the creditor’s claim that ‘the company owes the sum of $US25,000’ and the fact that the demand made no reference to the claim for interest and costs put forward in the letter of 11 July 1991.
The note of the district judge’s views and conclusions, as approved by him, states as follows:
‘I have indicated my views. I think, despite the arguments, that I must stand by those views. In connection with the statutory demand there are various criteria which need to be complied with. There do seem to be a number of discrepancies. There is a reference to the currency point, there is complexity. Although it now comes out that the claim included interest, there is no mention of interest in the demand. Details must be given of interest. I have been referred to a Court of Appeal authority and a High Court authority. They do seem to differ. One is based on a judgment, the other on a demand. There are a number of matters in this. It was possible for the creditor to have got the sums right, he was aware of the facts and did not. All in all I feel the demand is perplexing and the debtor had a reasonable argument with regard to the sum claimed thereunder. I grant the application of the debtor to set the statutory demand aside.’
The authorities referred to are the decision of Hoffmann J in Re a debtor (No 10 of 1988, Aylesbury), ex p Lovell Construction (Southern) Ltd v The debtor [1989] 2 All ER 39, [1989] 1 WLR 405 and the decision of the Court of Appeal in Re a debtor (No 1 of 1987, Lancaster),ex p the debtor v Royal Bank of Scotland plc [1989] 2 All ER 46, [1989] 1 WLR 271. The district judge did not have the benefit of Hoffmann J’s subsequent decision in Re a debtor (No 490/SD/91), ex p the debtor v Printline (Offset) Ltd [1992] 2 All ER 664, [1992] 1 WLR 507 that the decision of the Court of Appeal had overruled the earlier decision of his own, to which I have referred.
The creditor contends that the district judge was wrong in law in concluding that the demand was perplexing and misdirected himself in concluding that perplexity alone was enough.
Before considering the grounds of appeal it is convenient to deal with the currency point raised by the debtor’s respondent’s notice. The argument proceeds by the following steps. Following the decision of the House of Lords in Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd (No 2) [1976] 3 All ER 599, [1976] AC 443 a practice direction was issued (see Practice Direction [1976] 1 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 83) whereby a judgment could be given in a foreign currency with the addition of the words ‘or the sterling equivalent at the time of payment’. A writ of fieri facias had to be indorsed with a certificate of the judgment debt converted into sterling
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at the rate prevailing at the date nearest to the date of the issue of the writ of fieri facias. In the case of bankruptcy petitions under the Bankruptcy Act 1914 a bankruptcy notice could only be issued in respect of a judgment debt. In December 1976 the Chief Registrar issued a note for guidance indicating that a bankruptcy notice would be accepted for issue if it demanded a debt in a foreign currency ‘or the sterling equivalent at the time of payment’ or it claimed the sterling equivalent converted at the rate prevailing on the date the notice was issued.
The debtor contends that these principles still apply to the Insolvency Act 1986 so that a bankruptcy petition cannot be properly presented in respect of a debt expressed in a foreign currency alone. He contends that insolvency proceedings are the collective enforcement of the creditor’s debt and equate with the enforcement of a judgment for which some form of option or conversion is requisite. He submits that it would be illogical and give rise to problems in practice if a statutory demand could be served in respect of a foreign currency debt when a petition in the same form could not be presented if the demand was not complied with.
Finally, he points out that the prescribed form of statutory demand contemplates sterling sums only, as only the sign for the pound sterling is included.
The creditor disputes both the propositions and the results. The only requirement in the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925, relating to debts payable in a foreign currency is in r 6.111, which requires a foreign currency debt to be converted into sterling at the rate prevailing at the date of the bankruptcy order for the purpose of proving that debt. It is contended by reference to Maclaine Watson & Co Ltd v Dept of Trade and Industry [1988] 3 All ER 257, [1989] Ch 309 that insolvency proceedings are not the enforcement of a petitioner’s debt, so that no analogy can be drawn with a writ of fieri facias.
Finally, it is submitted that a debtor has no difficulty with a statutory demand claiming a sum in United States dollars. Either he pays in United States dollars or pays in sterling at the rate of exchange prevailing at the date of payment.
The question seems to me to depend on the proper construction of the Insolvency Act 1986 and the rules made thereunder. I will refer only to those dealing with individual insolvency, but I see no material difference in those dealing with corporate insolvency. The conditions for presentation of a petition for a bankruptcy order are set out in s 267(2) of the 1986 Act in the following terms:
‘Subject to the next three sections, a creditor’s petition may be presented to the court in respect of a debt or debts only if, at the time the petition is presented—(a) the amount of the debt, or the aggregate amount of the debts, is equal to or exceeds the bankruptcy level, (b) the debt, or each of the debts, is for a liquidated sum payable to the petitioning creditor, or one or more of the petitioning creditors, either immediately or at some certain, future time, and is unsecured, (c) the debt, or each of the debts, is a debt which the debtor appears either to be unable to pay or to have no reasonable prospect of being able to pay, and (d) there is no outstanding application to set aside a statutory demand served (under section 268 below) in respect of the debt or any of the debts.’
Section 268(1) provides:
‘For the purposes of section 267(2)(c), the debtor appears to be unable to pay a debt if, but only if, the debt is payable immediately and either—(a) the petitioning creditor to whom the debt is owed has served on the debtor a demand (known as “the statutory demand”) in the prescribed form requiring him to pay the debt or to secure or compound for it to the satisfaction of the
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creditor, at least 3 weeks have elapsed since the demand was served and the demand has been neither complied with nor set aside in accordance with the rules, or (b) execution or other process issued in respect of the debt on a judgment or order of any court in favour of the petitioning creditor, or one or more of the petitioning creditors to whom the debt is owed, has been returned unsatisfied in whole or in part.’
Thus the argument for the debtor requires an interpolation in s 268(1)(a) to the effect that if the debt is not payable in sterling the option to pay a specific sterling sum or a date for conversion must be stated. It is true that if para (b) is relied on in respect of a writ of fieri facias there will have been a conversion into sterling in accordance with Practice Direction [1976] 1 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 83, but if the writ of fieri facias is not wholly satisfied the creditor is not committed to the conversion he made for that purpose. He must still convert his unpaid debt as at the date of any bankruptcy order in order to prove pursuant to r 6.111. Thus, there is no reason to make an interpolation in para (a) by reason of the terms of para (b).
The definitions of ‘bankruptcy debt’ and ‘creditor’ in ss 382(1) and (2) and 383 show that the debt referred to in ss 267(2) and 268(1) includes a debt payable in foreign currency.
The 1986 Act was passed against the background of the decisions of the House of Lords in Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd (No 2) [1976] 3 All ER 599, [1977] AC 443, of Oliver J in Re Dynamics Corp of America [1976] 2 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 757 and of the Court of Appeal in Re Lines Bros Ltd [1982] 2 All ER 183, [1983] Ch 1 and the Practice Direction to which I have referred. If Parliament had intended to make special provision with regard to debts payable in a foreign currency it would surely have done so expressly. In my judgment, there is no ground for making the interpolation into the Act for which the debtor contends.
But it is possible that the 1986 rules have imposed an additional requirement. The rules contain a number of provisions relating to the identification of the debt in the statutory demand and any subsequent petition. In relation to a statutory demand r 6.1(3) provides:
‘The demand must state the amount of the debt and the consideration for it (or, if there is no consideration, the way in which it arises) and—(a) if made under section 268(1) and founded on a judgment or order of a court, it must give details of the judgment or order, and (b) if made under section 268(2), it must state the grounds on which it is alleged that the debtor appears to have no reasonable prospect of paying the debt.’
Rule 6.2(1) provides:
‘The statutory demand must include an explanation to the debtor of the following matters—(a) the purpose of the demand, and the fact that, if the debtor does not comply with the demand, bankruptcy proceedings may be commenced against him; (b) the time within which the demand is to be complied with, if that consequence is to be avoided; (c) the methods of compliance which are open to the debtor; (d) his right to apply to the court for the statutory demand to be set aside.’
Thus there is no express requirement for the demand for a foreign currency debt to contain the options for which the debtor contends. In the case of a bankruptcy petition r 6.8(1)(a) and (b) requires:
‘There shall be stated in the petition, with reference to every debt in respect of which it is presented—(a) the amount of the debt, the consideration for it, (or, if there is no consideration, the way in which it arises) and the fact that it is owed to the petitioner; (b) when the debt was incurred or became due …’
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Thus there is no express requirement in the case of a bankruptcy petition that it should contain the option for which the debtor contends. It is true that the prescribed form of the statutory demand contains only the sign for the pound sterling, but that cannot, in my judgment, impose a requirement not to be found in the Act or the rules. I would add that it would seem unreasonable to expect the prescribed form to contain the appropriate hieroglyphic for foreign currencies.
Counsel for the debtor submitted that as a basic principle in proceedings in England a debtor must at least have the option of paying in sterling. So he does, in accordance with Practice Direction [1976] 1 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 83. But a statutory demand is not part of or a preliminary to such proceedings. I see no analogy with a final judgment or a writ fieri facias.
Counsel for the debtor emphasised the difficulties which could arise with debts payable in a foreign currency which is not freely convertible. Not only is that not this case, but it seems to me that the discretion of the court conferred by r 6.5(4)(d) is more than adequate to deal with any difficulty which might arise in practice. If the debtor makes genuine attempts to satisfy the demand by paying what reasonably appears to be the sterling equivalent at the time of payment, that will probably be regarded as compounding the debt in a manner which the creditor could not reasonably refuse (see s 271(3)) and a good reason to set aside the statutory demand under r 6.5(4)(d) if the creditor declined to accept such alternative performance. Both points would also arise with a debt payable in a freely convertible currency if the debtor paid a sum in sterling equal at the rate of exchange prevailing at the date of payment to the debt payable in a foreign currency.
Counsel for the debtor based his argument on the proposition that in a bankruptcy petition the options for which he contended must be included. Therefore, he submitted, the same requirements must be fulfilled by the preceding statutory demand. But I am only concerned with a statutory demand. I see no necessary implication that a statutory demand should comply with the same conditions in this respect as a petition. I do not accept that the statutory demand should have included the options for which the debtor contends and I express no view whether those options should be included in a bankruptcy petition. That question is not before me.
I turn then to the creditor’s appeal. The other points on which the debtor relied before the district judge were alleged to amount to other grounds sufficient to satisfy the court that the statutory demand ought to be set aside within r 6.5(4)(d). The proper approach to this provision is shown by the decision of the Court of Appeal in Re a debtor (No 1 of 1987, Lancaster), ex p the debtor v Royal Bank of Scotland plc [1989] 2 All ER 46, [1989] 1 WLR 271, to which the district judge was referred. In that case the statutory demand was perplexing and, amongst other defects, overstated the amount of debt. Nicholls LJ stated ([1989] 2 All ER 46 at 50, [1989] 1 WLR 271 at 276):
‘When therefore the rules provide, as does r 6.5(4)(d), for the court to have a residual discretion to set aside a statutory demand, the circumstances which normally will be required before a court can be satisfied that the demand “ought” to be set aside, are circumstances which would make it unjust for the statutory demand to give rise to those consequences in the particular case. The court’s intervention is called for to prevent that injustice.’
Later Nicholls LJ rejected a submission that the appropriate test is an objective one, namely whether the statutory demand is calculated to perplex. That test, which was used on applications under the old law to set aside bankruptcy notices
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(see [1989] 2 All ER 46 at 50, [1989] 1 WLR 271 at 276), was not the correct one under the new law.
Nicholls LJ dealt with the exercise of the court’s discretion in the following terms ([1989] 2 All ER 46 at 52–53, [1989] 1 WLR 271 at 279:
‘Nevertheless, applying the approach which I have indicated above as the correct approach to these statutory provisions, in my view it by no means follows from the existence of those defects that this statutory demand ought to be set aside. The court will exercise its discretion on whether or not to set aside a statutory demand having regard to all the circumstances. That must require the court to have regard to all the circumstances as they are at the time of the hearing before the court. There may be cases where the terms of the statutory demand are so confusing or misleading that, having regard to all the circumstances, justice requires that the demand should not be allowed to stand. There will be other cases where, despite such defects in the contents of the statutory demand, those defects have not prejudiced and will not prejudice the debtor in any way, and to set aside the demand in such a case would serve no useful purpose. For example, a debtor may be wholly unable to pay a debt which is immediately payable, either out of his own resources or with financial assistance from others. In such a case the only practical consequence of setting aside a statutory demand would be that the creditor would promptly serve a revised statutory demand, which also and inevitably would not be complied with. In such a case the need for a further statutory demand would serve only to increase costs. Such a course would not be in the interests of anyone. In the present case the amount stated was wrong, but in my view the mere overstatement of the amount of the debt in a statutory demand is not, by itself and without more, a ground for setting aside a statutory demand. This is implicit, first, in the provisions in r 6.5(4)(a) to (c), which envisage that the counterclaim, set-off, cross-claim, dispute or security, will extend to the full amount of the debt, and, second, in the terms of r 6.25(3). In the present case there is no evidence that the error as to the amount due or the misleading features of the calculation have resulted or will result in the debtor being prejudiced in any way. There is, for example, no evidence that had the correct amount been stated in the statutory demand, the debtor would have taken steps to satisfy the demand, or that he has been deprived of this or any other opportunity by his perplexity, either as to the precise amount of the debt due or as to anything else contained in the demand.’
I do not find that this approach is reflected in the reasons given by the district judge. First, there is the suggestion that the decision of the Court of Appeal was in some way distinguishable on the basis that the debt in that case was a judgment debt. If that was in the district judge’s mind, in my judgment he was wrong. I see nothing in the judgment of Nicholls LJ to suggest that the principles he expressed were confined to such a case. Secondly, the fact that the creditor could have got the demand right but did not seem to me to be irrelevant to the true question of whether the errors would cause injustice to the debtor if the statutory demand was not set aside. Thirdly, the perplexity which the district judge felt, the fact that he thought that the debtor had a reasonable argument with regard to the sum claimed thereunder, is not indicative of injustice to the debtor if the demand were not set aside.
I conclude that the district judge did not properly direct himself as to the test to be applied, so that the exercise of his discretion was vitiated and the discretion should now be exercised by me.
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In his affidavit the debtor dealt at some length with his mental state at the time the statutory demand was served on him. He said that he was unable to give it any attention until September. This was relied on in support of his application, which was granted, to extend the time within which to apply to set aside the statutory demand. But he did not state in his affidavit that he found the statutory demand perplexing in any of the respects on which his counsel relies. It is necessary to deal with each in turn.
First, there is the overstatement of the amount alleged to be due. There is no doubt that it was overstated, but this was specifically pointed out by the debtor himself in his affidavit. He was not perplexed by the overstatement and made no attempt to pay the balance because he considered that he could not be personally liable at all. But the latter point was not pursued when the bidding agreement he had signed was produced by the deponent for the creditor. Thus there can be no injustice to the debtor in this respect.
The second and third points, namely the address given for the debtor and the reference to T Ltd and the company in the address and the claim can conveniently be considered together. So far as the address alone is concerned, there is no requirement that the address given should be the private residence of the debtor. It indicates where the debtor should be served with the demand and, in the case of a common name, may also serve to identify the individual to whom it is addressed. In this case there is no doubt that the statutory demand was properly brought to the attention of the debtor and he does not suggest that he thought it was addressed to some other person with the same name. Nor, dealing with the third point, does he suggest that he thought the demand was addressed to T Ltd. As his affidavit makes plain, he thought that another statutory demand had been served on T Ltd and that he was not personally liable in any way. The debtor referred to in the particulars plainly referred to him and he did not contend otherwise. It is true that the particulars made no mention of the bidding agreement which he had signed; thus the ground for alleging personal liability was not clearly stated. But a statutory demand is not a pleading and personal liability has not, since service of the creditor’s evidence in answer, been in dispute. Thus, setting aside the statutory demand on this ground would serve no useful purpose.
It is true that the statutory demand makes no reference to interest and thus fails to comply with r 6.1(4). Nor does it refer to costs. The letter from the creditor’s solicitors dated 11 July 1991 sought to maintain the validity of the statutory demand in the sum of $US18,532.91 and £1,288.51 by adding the interest and costs to the undisputed deficiency of $US16,400. But in argument counsel for the creditor accepted that the demand could only be maintained in the sum of $US16,400. I think that is right. These are separate debts, though arising from the same contract and neither interest nor costs was specified in the demand. Thus there has been no statutory demand in those respects and the letter of 11 July 1991 did not create one. But the omission does not invalidate the demand in respect of the balance of the debt to which it did refer. Accordingly, in my judgment, the fourth point relied on by the debtor cannot result in any injustice to him and is not a ground for setting aside the statutory demand either.
I conclude therefore that the district judge misdirected himself as to the principles to be applied in the exercise of his discretion and that none of the grounds relied on by the debtor justify the order the district judge made. I allow this appeal.
Appeal allowed.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Moodie v Inland Revenue Commissioners and another and related appeal
[1993] 2 All ER 49
Categories: TAXATION; Income Tax, Tax Avoidance: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Courts
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13, 14 JANUARY, 11 FEBRUARY 1993
Income tax – Annual payment – Payment out of profits etc already taxed – Tax avoidance scheme – Sale of annuity by surtax payer to charitable company in return for capital – Capital sum invested by payer in promissory notes and payments met out of proceeds of notes – Self-cancelling scheme – Whether ‘annuity or other annual payment’ – Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970, s 52(1).
Precedent – House of Lords – Conflicting decisions – Successful argument in later case not considered in earlier case – House of Lords satisfied that earlier case would have been decided differently if successful argument in later case had been argued in earlier case – Whether House of Lords should ignore earlier decision and follow later decision.
In 1971 the taxpayers participated in tax avoidance schemes which took advantage of the fiscal treatment of annuities. The schemes, which were similar to each other, involved a series of ten steps all of which were to be taken and which were designed to reduce the taxable income of the participating taxpayer without reducing his actual income. Under the scheme a charitable company (H) which was incorporated for the purposes of the scheme purchased a five-year annuity from the taxpayer in consideration of a capital sum. The taxpayer agreed to make five annual payments to H net of standard rate income tax. H would recover from the Revenue the tax deducted from the annuity payments and the taxpayer would deduct the grossed-up amount of those payments from his total income. Using the consideration money received from H the taxpayer would buy promissory notes and deposit them with H as security. The annual payments would be met by repayment of the appropriate number of promissory notes year by year. The total cost to the taxpayer was the fee paid for the implementation of the scheme. The taxpayer appealed to the Special Commissioners against assessments to surtax, claiming that each payment made by him to H under the scheme was deductible in computing his total income for the purposes of surtax or higher rate tax because it was an ‘annuity or other annual payment’ within s 52(1)a of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970. The commissioners dismissed the taxpayer’s appeal, on the ground that the steps taken under the scheme were self-cancelling and therefore ineffective to reduce tax. The judge upheld the commissioners’ decision, but the Court of Appeal allowed an appeal by the taxpayer on the ground that the facts were indistinguishable from those in a case in the House of Lords in 1979 in which the House had held that such annuity payments made by a taxpayer had the character of ‘an annuity or other annual payment’ within s 52(1). The Crown appealed to the House of Lords.
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Held – The 1979 decision of the House of Lords was inconsistent with a later decision of the House in 1981. In the former case the House had not been asked to consider the effect of a self-cancelling tax avoidance scheme. In the latter case, however, the House had held that a scheme of self-cancelling transactions which made neither a loss nor a gain for a taxpayer was not effective to produce an allowable loss for a taxpayer for the purpose of capital gains tax, and it was clear that an application of that decision to the facts of the earlier case would have led to a decision in favour of the Crown, although not on any of the grounds advanced in the earlier decision. Faced with conflicting decisions of the House of Lords, the courts were entitled and bound to follow the later decision, which in any event restored justice between individual taxpayers and the general body of taxpayers. The Special Commissioners and the judge had therefore been correct to ignore the inconsistent 1979 decision and hold that the tax avoidance schemes in which the taxpayers had participated were struck down by the 1981 decision. The Crown’s appeals would accordingly be allowed (see p 51 d e, p 52 e f and p 54 j to p 55 f h to p 56 b, post).
W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865 applied.
IRC v Plummer [1979] 3 All ER 775 not followed.
Notes
For the tax consequences of a preordained series of transactions consisting of two or more steps inserted for no commercial business purpose apart from the avoidance of a liability to tax, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 25.
For annuities or other annual payments, see ibid paras 496, 568–569, and for cases on the subject, see 28(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 376–390, 1811–1855.
In relation to tax for the year 1988–89 and subsequent years of assessment and for companies’ accounting periods ending after 5 April 1988 s 52 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 was replaced by s 348 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988. For s 348 of the 1988 Act, see 44 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 419.
Cases referred to in opinions
Ensign Tankers (Leasing) Ltd v Stokes (Inspector of Taxes) [1992] 2 All ER 275, [1992] 1 AC 655, [1992] 2 WLR 469, HL.
Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474, [1984] 2 WLR 226, HL.
IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30, HL.
IRC v Plummer [1979] 3 All ER 775, [1980] AC 896, [1979] 3 WLR 689, HL.
Note [1966] 3 All ER 77, sub nom Practice Statement (judicial precedent) [1966] 1 WLR 1234, HL.
Ramsay (W T) Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300, [1981] 2 WLR 449, HL; affg W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC [1979] 3 All ER 213, [1979] 1 WLR 974, CA, and Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1980] 2 All ER 12, CA.
Appeal
The Crown appealed from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Balcombe, McCowan LJJ and Sir Christopher Slade) ([1991] STC 433, [1991] 1 WLR 930) given on 30 April 1991 allowing an appeal from the decision of Hoffmann J ([1990] STC 475, [1990] 1 WLR 1084) on 4 May 1990 dismissing an appeal by way of cases stated (set out at [1990] STC 477–494) by the Commissioners for the Special Purposes of the Income Tax Acts in respect of their decision that payments made by Oliver Christopher David Moodie and Richard Eric Sotnick (the
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taxpayers) under a tax avoidance scheme which had previously been considered by the House of Lords (see IRC v Plummer [1979] 3 All ER 775, [1980] AC 896) did not have the character of an ‘annuity or other annual payment’ within s 52(1) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 and were therefore not deductible in computing the respective total incomes of the taxpayers for income tax purposes. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Templeman.
Alan Moses QC, Launcelot Henderson and Peter Cranfield (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue) for the Crown.
Michael Burton QC, Andrew Thornhill QC and Kevin Prosser (instructed by Berwin Leighton) for the taxpayers.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
11 February 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman, which I have had the opportunity of reading in draft and with which I agree, I would allow these appeals.
I would add only that, having been one of the majority in IRC v Plummer [1979] 3 All ER 775, [1980] AC 896, I feel no doubt that on the issues which were actually argued before the House, that decision was correct. On the other hand, I have equally no doubt that if the argument which was successful in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300 had been presented by the Crown in Plummer’s case my conclusion would have been against the taxpayer.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, income tax is a tax on wealth so that the higher the income of the taxpayer, the greater the amount of income tax which he must pay. Conversely, if a taxpayer reduces his income, he reduces his income tax. In 1971 there were in circulation a number of tax avoidance schemes which were designed to reduce the taxable income of an individual taxpayer without reducing his actual income. The Cardale Capital Income Plan Mark I was designed to enable a taxpayer to enjoy part of his actual income tax free by exploiting the fiscal treatment of annuities.
By the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 an annuity payable for at least four years and fulfilling certain other conditions ceases to be the income of the payer and becomes the income of the annuitant. By ss 108 and 109 of the 1970 Act income tax is charged on the annuity and by s 52 income tax at the standard rate is deductible by the payer and retained by him if he pays the annuity out of his income. By ss 3 and 528 the payer may deduct from his total income for income tax purposes the gross amount of the annuity. Thus the gross amount of the annuity is paid out of the actual income of the payer reducing his actual income and reducing his taxable income by the like amount. The annuity becomes the actual and taxable income of the annuitant. Tax at the standard rate is deducted by the payer of the annuity. If the payer certifies that he has paid the annuity out of his actual income and if the annuitant’s total income does not render the annuitant liable to income tax at the standard rate then the annuitant can claim from the Revenue the amount of tax which has been deducted from the annuity so far as that deduction exceeds the amount of tax for which the annuitant is liable. But the taxable incomes of payer and annuitant are only altered if an annuity is paid and received.
In March 1971 the respondent, Mr Moodie, paid a fee of £3,693 for the implementation of the Cardale Capital Income Plan Mark I. The following steps
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were taken on 8 March 1971. (1) The bankers Slater Walker Ltd (SWL) advanced £59,400 to Home and Overseas Voluntary Aid Services Ltd (HOVAS), a charitable trust company formed for the purposes of the plan. (2) HOVAS paid £59,400 to Mr Moodie in consideration of his covenanting to pay HOVAS for five years, or, if shorter, the remainder of his life an annuity at such a rate as should equal £12,000 after deduction of tax at the standard rate. The first payment was to be made on 29 March 1971 and subsequent payments on each 29 March. (3) Mr Moodie paid £59,400 to Old Change Court (Investments) Ltd (OCC) a company comprised in the Slater Walker group of companies in consideration for ten promissory notes for £60,000. The notes were deposited by Mr Moodie with HOVAS as security for the payment of the annuity of £12,000 pursuant to step (2). (4) OCC advanced £59,400 to Baldrene Ltd, another Slater Walker company. (5) Baldrene advanced £59,400 to HOVAS. (6) HOVAS paid £59,400 to SWL in discharge of the advance made under step (1).
On 29 March 1971 and the four succeeding anniversaries of that date the following steps were taken pursuant to the plan. (7) OCC paid £12,000 to Mr Moodie in redemption of two of the promissory notes in discharge of its obligations under step (3). (8) Mr Moodie paid £12,000 to HOVAS to discharge his agreement to pay an annuity under step (2). (9) HOVAS paid Baldrene £12,000 in part discharge of the advance under step (5). (10) Baldrene paid OCC £12,000 in part discharge of the advance under step (4).
With the benefit of the hindsight afforded by the speeches of this House in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300 it is now plain that Mr Moodie did not pay an annuity within the meaning of the taxing statute because the steps taken under the plan were self-cancelling. The payments and receipts were recorded as book entries but it would have made no difference if payment had been made by cash or cheque. The plan provided that all ten steps should be taken and that no one should be financially better off or worse off. The Cardale Capital Income Plan was a tax avoidance scheme which had no object or effect save the manufacture for Mr Moodie of claims that he had reduced his income by sums which amounted in the aggregate to £99,460. He had not reduced his actual income and had not been put to any capital expense save the cost of the scheme which amounted to £3,693. In due course Mr Moodie’s claims were disallowed by the inspector of taxes, the Special Commissioners and Hoffmann J (see [1990] STC 475, [1990] 1 WLR 1084) but were allowed by the Court of Appeal (Balcombe and McCowan LJJ and Sir Christopher Slade) (see [1991] STC 433, [1991] 1 WLR 930). The Crown now appeals.
The respondent Mr Sotnick paid a fee for the Cardale Capital Income Plan Mark II. That plan incorporated variations from the Mark I plan but the results were similar. The Mark II plan was a tax avoidance scheme which manufactured claims by Mr Sotnick that he had reduced his taxable income by sums which in the event amounted in the aggregate to £69,576. These claims were also allowed by the Court of Appeal and the Crown now appeals.
In 1971 Mr Plummer took advantage of the Cardale Capital Income Plan Mark I. In his case there were manufactured claims by Mr Plummer that he had reduced his taxable income by some £20,000 and those claims were allowed by this House in IRC v Plummer [1979] 3 All ER 775, [1980] AC 896. In the instant cases the Court of Appeal allowed the claims of Mr Moodie and Mr Sotnick (the taxpayers) on the ground that the court was bound by the result in Plummer’s case. It is quite clear that the facts in Plummer’s case were almost exactly the same as and cannot be distinguished from the facts in the case of Mr Moodie or the facts in the case of Mr Sotnick. On behalf of the taxpayers it is submitted that the House is bound by the result in Plummer’s case to allow the claims of the taxpayers.
Plummer’s case came before the House in 1979. The annuity was £851.06 and
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the capital sum was £2,500. The Crown made four submissions, each of which, if accepted, would defeat the claim of Mr Plummer: (1) that a payment made under step (8) was the payment of an annuity but that the annuity was not paid out of income but out of the capital paid under step (2); (2) that a payment made under step (8) was paid by means of the promissory notes obtained under step (3) and was not paid out of Mr Plummer’s income; (3) that the consideration for the annuity namely the sum paid by HOVAS pursuant to step (2) was not ‘valuable and sufficient consideration’ and the annuity fell to be disregarded under s 434 of the 1970 Act; and (4) that the steps constituted a settlement within s 457 of the 1970 Act, that Mr Plummer was the settlor and that the annuity payments remained part of his total income for income tax purposes by virtue of that section.
The four submissions made on behalf of the Crown were rejected by this House. On the assumption, accepted by all parties, that payments were made in implementation of each of the planned ten steps which constituted the scheme, this House decided that step (8) was the payment of an annuity out of income since the taxpayer’s actual income exceeded the gross amount of the annuity. The payments of the annuity were not made out of the capital constituted by the promissory notes. The consideration for the annuity was good and sufficient. There was no element of bounty so there was no settlement. On the assumption that Mr Plummer paid an annuity, Plummer’s case was rightly decided for the right reasons.
In the light of the submissions made by the Crown and the presentation of the facts in Plummer’s case the failure of the Crown against Mr Plummer was inevitable.
The argument that a self-cancelling tax avoidance scheme was effective to reduce tax was ridiculed in the Court of Appeal in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC [1979] 3 All ER 213, [1979] 1 WLR 974 and rejected in Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1980] 2 All ER 12 at 21. When these two cases came before the House of Lords in January 1981 the Crown ‘mounted a fundamental attack on the whole of the scheme acquired and used by the taxpayer. It contended that it should simply be disregarded as artificial and fiscally ineffective’ (see Ramsay [1981] 1 All ER 865 at 869, [1982] AC 300 at 321 per Lord Wilberforce). That attack succeeded. In Ramsay the taxpayer claimed to have made an allowable loss for the purpose of capital gains tax but when the scheme was analysed it was plain that the taxpayer by self-cancelling transactions made neither a loss nor a gain. In Eilbeck v Rawling, also, the scheme manufactured a tax loss by self-cancelling transactions without the taxpayer suffering any real loss. Lord Wilberforce laid down the applicable principle as follows ([1981] 1 All ER 865 at 871, [1982] AC 300 at 323–324):
‘It is the task of the court to ascertain the legal nature of any transaction to which it is sought to attach a tax or a tax consequence and if that emerges from a series or combination of transactions, intended to operate as such, it is that series or combination which may be regarded.’
Lord Fraser, discussing the schemes in Ramsay and Eilbeck v Rawling, said ([1981] 1 All ER 865 at 881, [1982] AC 300 at 337–338):
‘The essential feature of both schemes was that, when they were completely carried out, they did not result in any actual loss to the taxpayer. The apparently magic result of creating a tax loss that would not be a real loss was to be brought about by arranging that the scheme included a loss which was allowable for tax purposes and a matching gain which was not chargeable. In Ramsay the loss arose on the disposal of the taxpayer’s shares … In Rawling it arose on the disposal of the taxpayer’s reversionary interest … But it is perfectly clear that neither of these disposals would have taken place except
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as part of the scheme, and, when they did take place, the taxpayer and all others concerned in the scheme knew and intended that they would be followed by other prearranged steps which cancelled out their effect … There is, therefore, no reason why the court should stop short at one particular step … The absence of contractual obligation does not in my opinion make any material difference.’
The effect of Ramsay was underlined by Lord Diplock in IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30 at 32 as follows:
‘It would be disingenuous to suggest, and dangerous on the part of those who advise on elaborate tax-avoidance schemes to assume, that Ramsay’s case did not mark a significant change in the approach adopted by this House in its judicial role to a pre-ordained series of transactions (whether or not they include the achievement of a legitimate commercial end) into which there are inserted steps that have no commercial purpose apart from the avoidance of a liability to tax which in the absence of those particular steps would have been payable.’
The effect of Ramsay was further elucidated in Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 532, [1984] AC 474 at 512 by Lord Fraser as follows:
‘The true principle of the decision in Ramsay was that the fiscal consequences of a preordained series of transactions, intended to operate as such, are generally to be ascertained by considering the result of the series as a whole, and not by dissecting the scheme and considering each individual transaction separately.’
Lord Bridge said in Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 535–536, [1984] AC 474 at 517:
‘It would need no more than a cursory exposition of the avoidance schemes in Ramsay and Rawling to lead any intelligent layman to the conclusion that neither scheme was designed to achieve any substantial effect in the real world and that the elaborate steps designed to manufacture a tax deductible loss in each case were purely formal in character.’
Lord Brightman in Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 539–540, [1984] AC 474 at 522–523 discussing Ramsay said:
‘Features of the scheme were as follows. (1) There was no commercial justification for the scheme. There was no prospect of a profit. In fact there was bound to be a small loss in the form of the fees and similar expenses which would be payable. (2) No step in the scheme was a sham. Every step was genuinely carried through, and was exactly what it purported to be. (3) There was no binding arrangement that each planned step would be followed by the next planned step, but it was reasonable to assume that all the steps would in practice be carried out. (4) The scheme was designed to, and did, return the taxpayer to the position which he occupied before it began, except for the payment of the expenses of the scheme. (5) The money needed for the various steps was lent by a finance house on terms which ensured that the loan came back to the finance house on completion; the taxpayer’s personal outlay was confined to his expenses of the scheme.’
The authorities which preceded and followed Ramsay were discussed in Ensign Tankers (Leasing) Ltd v Stokes (Inspector of Taxes) [1992] 2 All ER 275, [1992] 1 AC 655. For present purposes it suffices that an application of the Ramsay principle
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to the facts in Plummer’s case must have led to a decision in favour of the Crown. In Ramsay the taxpayer did not make a loss. In Plummer’s case Mr Plummer did not pay an annuity.
Similarly Mr Moodie did not pay an annuity. Book entries were made which purported to record that OCC paid £12,000 to Mr Moodie who paid £12,000 to HOVAS which paid £12,000 to Baldrene which paid £12,000 to OCC. These circular book entries were all preordained and made pursuant to a single composite contract effected on 8 March 1971. On the construction of the taxing statute and in the events which happened no annuity was paid. The results of the scheme were to manufacture a claim by HOVAS against the Revenue for repayment of tax and to manufacture a claim by Mr Moodie against the Revenue for a reduction in his taxable income. So too, Mr Sotnick did not pay an annuity.
Mr Thornhill QC on behalf of the taxpayers made a number of gallant attempts to argue that Plummer’s case and the present appeals were distinguishable from Ramsay but all these attempts foundered because they depended on the assertion that the taxpayer in each case paid an annuity to HOVAS. If Plummer’s case had been decided after Ramsay, the Crown would have succeeded, though not on any of the grounds advanced in Plummer. The present appeals are heard after Ramsay and this House is bound to give effect to the principle of Ramsay. I do not consider that it is necessary to invoke the 1966 practice statement which allows the House ‘to depart from a previous decision when it appears right to do so’ (see Note [1966] 3 All ER 77, [1966] 1 WLR 1234). The result in Plummer’s case (which is a decision of this House) is inconsistent with the later decision in Ramsay (which is also a decision of the House). Faced with conflicting decisions, the courts are entitled and bound to follow Ramsay because in Plummer’s case this House was never asked to consider the effect of a self-cancelling scheme and because the Ramsay principle restores justice between individual taxpayers and the general body of taxpayers. I agree with the Special Commissioners and Hoffmann J that the Cardale Capital Income Plans are struck down by the Ramsay principle and that the inconsistent decision in Plummer’s case must be ignored. If it were necessary to invoke the 1966 practice statement I have no doubt that this would be an appropriate course to take but in my opinion it is sufficient to state that the decision in Plummer’s case would have been different if the appeal had been heard after the enunciation by this House of the Ramsay principle.
After Ramsay the Chancellor of the Exchequer announced that the decision had saved the Revenue and thus the general body of taxpayers sums of about £300m. We were told that the results of the present appeals will decide the fate of claims to millions of pounds by taxpayers who are in the same position as Mr Moodie and Mr Sotnick. On their behalf Mr Burton QC advanced several submissions designed to show that the application of the Ramsay principle to Mr Moodie and Mr Sotnick and others would be unfair. But his real complaint was that the Cardale Capital Income Plan succeeded for Mr Plummer but fails for everybody else. The Crown failed against Mr Plummer because the Ramsay principle had not been adumbrated by the House at that time. The Crown succeeds now because the Ramsay principle applies.
I would allow the appeals. The Court of Appeal in giving leave to the Crown to appeal to this House imposed terms, namely that the Crown would not seek to disturb the order for costs made by the Court of Appeal and would not ask for an order for costs against the taxpayers in this House. There will therefore be no order for costs.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman, and for the reasons he gives I, too, would allow the appeals.
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LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman, and for the reasons he gives I, too, would allow the appeals.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have read the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman, and for the reasons he gives I, too, would allow the appeals.
Appeals allowed. No order as to costs.
Susan J Murphy Barrister.
R v Chief Constable of the Lancashire Constabulary, ex parte Parker and another
[1993] 2 All ER 56
Categories: CRIMINAL; Police
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): NOLAN LJ AND JOWITT J
Hearing Date(s): 26 FEBRUARY, 13, 31 MARCH 1992
Police – Search warrant – Retention of documents unlawfully seized – Application to judge for warrant – Warrant consisting of authorisation and schedule – Judge signing authorisation – When searching premises police using original authorisation and photocopy of schedule – Whether warrant issued lawfully – Whether search and seizure lawful – Whether police entitled to retain documents unlawfully seized – Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s 16.
The police applied to a circuit judge for the issue of 14 search warrants under s 9 of and Sch 1 to the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 to enable a search of the applicants’ premises to be carried out. The applications for the warrants consisted of a two-page document headed ‘Warrant to enter and search premises’, which was signed by the judge, and a one-page document headed ‘Schedule of Application’ setting out a list of documents and other material sought. After the warrants had been signed by the judge the police detached the schedules and made photocopies, which were attached to the original authorisation signed by the judge. When searching the applicants’ premises the police used the original authorisation and the photocopy of the schedule and supplied the applicants with a copy of the authorisation but not the schedule. In the course of the search a large quantity of documents and other material were removed from the applicants’ premises. The applicants applied for judicial review of both the issue and the execution of the warrants. The relief sought included in each case an order of certiorari to quash the warrant and the judge’s decision to issue it, declarations that the entry on the premises and the search of the premises were unlawful, a declaration that the seizure of the documents and other materials was unlawful in whole or in part and an order for the return of the documents and materials.
Held – When executing a search warrant issued under s 9 of and Sch 1 to the 1984 Act the police were required not only to produce the original warrant signed by the judge or magistrate, including the original schedule of documents and other material sought, and not merely a photocopy of the warrant or schedule, but also to supply at the time of the search a copy of the warrant, including the schedule, to the person whose premises were being searched, in order to comply
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with the requirement under s 16(5)(c)a of that Act that the warrant be produced and a copy be supplied to the person whose premises were being searched. Furthermore, if the entry and search were unlawful, the police were not entitled to retain documents and other material which were seized in the search. On the facts, although the original warrants were lawfully issued by the judge they had not, in contravention of s 16(5)(b) and (c), been produced nor had a copy of them been supplied to the applicants when their homes were searched, and a declaration to that effect would be granted. Furthermore, since the breaches of s 16(5)(b) and (c) meant that the entries of the applicants’ homes and the subsequent searches and seizures had been unlawful, the police were deprived of any authority to retain the seized material, which had to be returned forthwith (see p 58 b, p 59 e f, p 60 j to p 61 a, p 62 c d g to j, p 63 f g and p 64 d e h j, post).
Notes
For the effect of and execution of a warrant, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 679–680, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 72–77, 12187–12205.
For retention of property, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 688.
For the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, ss 9,16, Sch 1, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 855, 860, 918.
Case referred to in judgment
R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402, [1979] 3 WLR 263, HL.
Applications for judicial review
Harold Parker and Frank McGrath applied, with the leave of Macpherson J given on 23 September 1991, for judicial review by way of (i) an order of certiorari to quash the search warrants to enter and search Mr Parker’s premises at 13 Oakwood Drive, Fulwood, Preston and McGrath’s premises at 4 Belton Hill, Fulwood, Preston issued by Judge Lockett sitting in the Crown Court at Preston on 5 August 1991 and the judge’s decision to issue the warrants on the application of Det Con Ferguson of the Lancashire Police, (ii) a declaration that the entry of the police officers upon the premises was unlawful, (iii) a declaration that the searches conducted on the premises were unlawful, (iv) a declaration that the seizure of the materials and documents removed from the premises was unlawful, alternatively that the seizure of all materials and documents, other than those specified in a schedule to the application for the warrants was unlawful, (v) an order that the materials and documents seized on 7 August 1991 at the premises be returned forthwith, alternatively that all materials and documents other than those referred to in the schedule to the application be returned forthwith, (vi) damages for trespass to land, (vii) damages for trespass to goods and/or unlawful interference with the applicants’ goods, (viii) aggravated damages and (ix) exemplary damages. The respondent to the applications was the Chief Constable of the Lancashire Constabulary. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Eldred Tabachnik QC and Daniel Janner (instructed by John Roberts & Co, Preston) for the applicants.
Michael Shorrock QC and Geoffrey Tattersall (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, agents for G A Johnson, Preston) for the chief constable.
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the documents and other materials seized from the applicants’ premises should be returned and that
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the court would give its reasons for that decision and its judgment on the other matters raised in the applications later.
31 March 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
NOLAN LJ. In this judgment, which is the judgment of the court, we give the reasons for our decision which we announced on 13 March that the documents and other materials seized at the houses of the applicants must be returned. We also now deal with the other matters raised by the applications before us.
On 5 August 1991 Det Con Ferguson of the Lancashire Constabulary applied through leading counsel to Judge Lockett in the Crown Court at Preston for the issue of 14 search warrants, under the provisions of s 9 of and Sch 1 to the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. One of the warrants related to 4 Belton Hill, Fulwood, Preston, which is the home of Mr McGrath. Another related to 13 Oakwood Drive, Fulwood, Preston, which is the home of Mr Parker. The judge granted the application and the warrants were executed on 7 August 1991. A large quantity of documents and other material was taken from the home of each of the applicants.
On 4 September 1991 the applicants applied for leave to seek judicial review in respect of both the issue and the execution of warrants. The relief sought included in each case certiorari to quash the warrant and the judge’s decision to issue it, declarations that the entry upon the premises and the search of the premises were unlawful, a declaration that the seizure of the documents and other materials was unlawful in whole or in part, an order for the return of the documents and materials, and finally damages for trespass to land and to goods, and aggravated damages. Leave to move was granted by Macpherson J on 23 September 1991. The relief sought has subsequently been amended, with leave, to include a claim for exemplary damages. Although the area of dispute between the parties has been narrowed in the intervening months it still includes both issues of principle which raise important questions of public law and issues of fact which could not suitably be resolved in judicial review proceedings. It is common ground that the issues of principle should be determined by this court and that the factual issues, including the question whether the damages should include aggravated and exemplary damages, should be determined by a single judge as if the proceedings had been begun by writ, pursuant to RSC Ord 53, r 9(5).
The first issue of principle arises out of the physical make-up of the warrants, of which that relating to Mr McGrath’s house will serve as an example. It consisted of a two-page document headed ‘Warrant to enter and search premises’ and signed by the judge, whose signature is covered by the court stamp, and a one-page document headed ‘Schedule of application’ setting out the articles to be sought. The full text of the two-page document, so far as material, is as follows:
‘ON 5th August 1991
IN THE MATTER OF THE POLICE AND CRIMINAL EVIDENCE ACT 1984 Section 9 and Schedule 1, Paragraph 12.
WARRANT TO ENTER AND SEARCH PREMISES
Application supported by an information in writing has been made this day by Detective Constable Peter Ferguson, a Constable in the Lancashire Constabulary who says that:—i. there are reasonable grounds for believing that there is material which consists of special procedure material but does not include excluded material, and which is referred to in the attached schedule. on premises situated at:—4 Belton Hill Fulwood Preston. ii. The first set of access conditions specified in paragraph 2 of Schedule 1 to the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, are satisfied to the said material and
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iii. service of notice of an application for an order under paragraph 4 of the said Schedule 1 may seriously prejudice the investigation to which the application relates.
You are hereby authorised within one month from the date of this warrant, to enter the said premises, accompanied by any other constable or constables, on one occasion only and to search the said premises for the said material and to seize and retain it.
Signed:—R. Lockett
CIRCUIT JUDGE
[Court stamp]
To: Each and all the constables of the Lancashire Constabulary.’
The one-page document headed ‘Schedule of Application’ sets out a list of documents and other material in seven numbered paragraphs.
Much of the difficulty which has arisen in this case has been due to the tendency of some of the police officers concerned to refer to the two-page document as if that document alone constituted the warrant for the purposes of the 1984 Act. Clearly it cannot do so, because of the provisions of s 15(6) which read as follows:
‘A warrant—(a) shall specify—(i) the name of the person who applies for it; (ii) the date on which it is issued; (iii) the enactment under which it is issued; and (iv) the premises to be searched; and (b) shall identify, so far as is practicable, the articles or persons to be sought.’
It will be seen that the two-page document satisfies the requirements of para (a), and it is common ground that the one-page document, the schedule, satisfies the requirements of para (b), so that taken together they constitute a warrant which complies with the provisions of sub-s (6). Taken separately, neither of them does so. With a view to avoiding the confusion which this point has created, both in the evidence and also, occasionally, in argument, we shall refer to the two-page document as ‘the authorisation’, to the one-page document as ‘the schedule’, and to the composite three-page document as ‘the warrant’.
Paragraph 12 of Sch 1 to the 1984 Act provides, inter alia, that if a circuit judge is satisfied that one of the sets of access conditions set out in paras 2 and 3 of Sch 1 is fulfilled, and that any of the further conditions set out in para 14 of Sch 1 is also fulfilled, he may issue a warrant authorising a constable to enter and search the premises. It is not in dispute that the fulfilment of these conditions is sufficiently established by what is said in paras (i), (ii) and (iii) of the signed authorisation.
Paragraph 12 provides that the judge may issue the warrant. It does not say how he should signify that he has done so. The natural way in the case of a warrant made up like the warrants in the present case was to sign the authorisation as the judge in fact did, and no one can object to that. In retrospect, it can be seen that it would have been preferable for him to sign the schedule as well, if only to emphasise the importance of that document as an integral part of the original warrant, but no harm would have ensued from his omission to do so provided that the schedule was at all material times attached to the authorisation.
Unfortunately, at the crucial time of execution, it was not so attached. How did this come about? We take first Det Con Ferguson’s account of the matter as set out in his affidavit dated 25 November 1991, starting with his application to the judge:
‘2. On 5th August 1991 I made application to His Honour Judge Lockett for search warrants in respect of (inter alia) 4 Belton Hill Fulwood Preston and 13 Oakwood Drive Fulwood Preston. The documentation produced to the Court consisted of my information, the application itself, the Schedule to the application and the search warrant itself. It was always intended that the
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Schedule was to perform two functions in that it was also to be the Schedule to the warrant. The learned Judge granted such search warrants and signed the warrants. At such time the Judge had in front of him 14 separate bundles each separately and securely fastened and in particular was in possession of the original Schedule to each application. 3. At the conclusion of the hearing I asked the Judge (through Counsel) whether it would be permissible for me not to leave a copy of the warrant with the Court Office as there was considerable anxiety in respect of security. The Judge agreed that I need not do so and accordingly I took the warrants separately to the Court Office where the Court stamp was affixed. The original informations, applications and Schedules thereto were ordered by the Judge to be retained by the Court Clerk until after the warrants had been executed. 4. On returning to the Commerce Branch I made a photocopy of each warrant which were placed in a folder with the original warrants and photocopies of the Schedules of application which I had previously made. 5. After the execution of the warrants I re-attached those photocopied Schedules to the original warrants …’
The other evidence we have as to what took place at the time of the issue of the warrants is that of the judge himself. In his affidavit dated 25 February 1992 he deposes as follows:
‘… 3. In the case of both the material warrants … they had attached to them the material schedule … I was aware of the requirements of Section 15(6)(b) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. When I issued the warrants, the respective schedules formed a part of them. That was my intention and understanding and is reflected in the wording of paragraph (i) of the warrants … I thus signed and issued warrants with schedules attached which identified the articles to be sought. 4. If, as I understand to be the case, the schedules became detached from the remainder of the warrants, that occurred after they were issued by me …’
There is a gap in the evidence here. The judge makes no reference to the events described in para 3 of Det Con Ferguson’s affidavit. We can only assume that he had not seen that affidavit when he swore his own. We shall have to return to Det Con Ferguson’s affidavit later, but we do not think it is necessary to explore any possible difference between his account and that of the judge because the affidavit of Wpc Tinsley confirms, and the chief constable fully accepts, that the original schedules were separated from the original authorisations immediately after the hearing before the judge, and were filed together with the information and the application. The officers who were to carry out the search were then equipped with plastic files marked ‘Do not hand over’ containing the original authorisation and a photocopy of the schedule, and with files marked ‘To be handed over’ containing photocopies of the original authorisation. The purpose which was thought to be served by providing the officers with photocopies of the original schedule rather than with the original itself remains a mystery.
We now come to the execution of the warrants. Before dealing with the evidence relating to that we must make further reference to the provisions of ss 15 and 16 of the 1984 Act. Section 15(1) provides:
‘This section and section 16 below have effect in relation to the issue to constables under any enactment, including an enactment contained in an Act passed after this Act, of warrants to enter and search premises; and an entry on or search of premises under a warrant is unlawful unless it complies with this section and section 16 below.’
We read ‘it’ as referring to the composite process of entering and searching under a warrant so that in order for that process to be lawful the application for
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and issue of the warrant has to have been in compliance with s 15 and its execution has to comply with s 16. This does no violence to the language of the subsection and gives effect to what seems to us to be its obvious legislative purpose.
We have already referred to s 15(6), which sets out the particulars which the warrant must contain. The section continues:
‘(7) Two copies shall be made of a warrant.
(8) The copies shall be clearly certified as copies.’
The need for two certified copies of the warrant is explicable in the following way. A copy has to be served on the occupier or left at the premises and the occupier needs a copy whose authenticity does not depend on the word of the police. For their part the police need to be able to retain an authentic copy for record purposes lest any question should arise over the legality of the warrant and its execution. They also should be able to rely on a copy for whose authenticity they are not responsible.
Section 16(1) requires that in due course the original warrant be returned to the court from which it was issued. However, the court need only then retain it for a period of 12 months: see s 16(11). Its contents may, however, become material in litigation which may still be pending after the expiry of this period. The availability of a certified copy of the warrant at that stage obviously becomes important.
All this makes it highly desirable that the copying and certification of copies under s 15(7) and (8) be carried out by the issuing court. Does the 1984 Act require this? We would answer Yes. Section 15 provides for the issue of the warrant. It is issued by a judge or magistrate. Compliance with s 15(7) and (8) is to be seen as part of the issuing process and is therefore the responsibility of the judge or magistrate who issues the warrant, though the section does not prevent him from delegating this part of the issuing process to the staff of his court.
Section 16(5) provides:
‘Where the occupier of premises which are to be entered and searched is present at the time when a constable seeks to execute a warrant to enter and search them, the constable—(a) shall identify himself to the occupier and, if not in uniform, shall produce to him documentary evidence that he is a constable; (b) shall produce the warrant to him; and (c) shall supply him with a copy of it.’
A considerable amount of conflict as to precisely what occurred when the warrants were executed is to be found in the affidavits of the applicants on the one hand and in those of the officers who were in charge of the search of their houses (Det Chief Insp Langdon in the case of Mr McGrath and Det Chief Insp Herd in the case of Mr Parker on the other). This much has become clear, namely that in purported compliance with s 16(5)(c) the police officers supplied the applicants with a copy of the authorisation, but not with a copy of the schedule. The applicants did not receive copies of the schedule until 13 August 1991. In acknowledgment of that fact and its consequences the solicitor for the chief constable wrote to the applicants’ solicitor on 20 February 1992 saying amongst other things:
‘The Chief Constable is advised and accepts that in the execution of the search warrants there was a failure to comply with Section 16(5)(c) of PACE 1984, in that a copy of the Schedule to the warrant was not supplied to the Applicants at the time of the search albeit that such was supplied on the 13th August, 1991. It thus inevitably follows that the searches of the Applicants’ premises were thereby unlawful and that the Applicants are entitled to the relief sought in paragraphs 2, and 3 of the “Relief Sought”. For the sake of
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completeness, we add that the Chief Constable denies that the issue of the warrants was in any way unlawful and will, if necessary, resist the Applicants’ entitlement to the grant of certiorari (set out in paragraph 1 of the “Relief Sought”). Further the Chief Constable will contend that pursuant to Section 22(2) of PACE 1984, he is entitled to retain the Documents seized.’
The relief sought in paras 2 and 3 of the applications for judicial review consisted of declarations that the entry of the police officers upon the premises was unlawful, and that the search conducted on the premises was unlawful.
Implicit in the chief constable’s acceptance that there was a breach of s 16(5)(c) is the concession—the inevitable concession—that the schedule was an essential part of the warrant. It remains to consider, before coming to the question of retention of documents and other material by the police, whether the warrants were lawfully issued, and whether they were produced to the applicants in compliance with s 16(5)(b). If one approaches the first of these latter questions by reference to the affidavit of the judge the answer is simple: the warrants, consisting of the original authorisations with the original schedules attached to them, were lawfully issued by him. But Mr Shorrock QC for the chief constable seeks to go much further than that, and to link the two questions together, by this means. Basing himself upon what he says is to be understood or inferred from para 3 of the affidavit of Det Con Ferguson, he submits that the judge, in the process of issuing the warrants, did more than simply sign the original authorisations. He also authorised not only the detachment of the original schedules, but their replacement for the purposes of execution by photocopies. The original authorisations and the photocopied schedules thus became warrants issued by the judge. The fact that they were detached from each other is neither here nor there provided that both component parts remained, as they did, in the hands of the officers carrying out the searches. Mr Tabachnick QC for the applicants concedes if only for the purposes of this hearing that the photocopied schedules as well the original authorisations were ‘produced’ to the applicants, in the sense of being read out or referred to, within the meaning of s 16(5)(b). The paragraph, says Mr Shorrock, was thus complied with by the production of warrants lawfully issued by the judge.
This will not do. We leave aside the fact that it is based upon an interpretation of para 3 of Det Con Ferguson’s affidavit which finds no support in the affidavit of the judge. We leave that aside, because if it be the fact that the judge authorised the replacement of the original schedule attached to the original authorisation which he signed by a photocopied scheduled then in our judgment he had no right to do so. It seems to us clear beyond argument that when the 1984 Act refers to a warrant issued by a judge it means the whole of the original document seen and approved and put forth by him. The copies of the warrant for which s 15(7) and (8) provide must be clearly certified as such. It would be wholly contrary to the purpose of the legislation if a judge could authorise the police to replace the whole or a part of the original warrant, for the purposes of its execution, by an uncertified photocopy which he has not seen.
We hold therefore, on the basis of the judge’s affidavit, that the original warrants were lawfully issued by him in the manner which he describes, that no other ‘warrants’ were lawfully issued and that the lawfully issued warrants were not produced to the applicants when their houses were searched. We accordingly refuse the application for certiorari, but grant a declaration that there was a breach of the provisions of s 16(5)(b), in addition to the admitted breach of s 16(5)(c). We should make it clear, however, that, although as we have said the purpose of replacing the original schedule with a photocopied substitute remains a mystery,
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there is no suggestion that it was carried out with any improper object in mind, or that the photocopy was anything other than a faithful reproduction of the original.
Before leaving this part of the case we would refer to the discussion which took place in the course of argument about the situation which would arise if a warrant consisted (as it normally does) of a number of pages, and if one or more of those pages became accidentally detached before the warrant was produced to the occupier of the premises to be searched. That, of course, is not the present case, and it can best be dealt with when it arises, but we can hardly imagine that an accidental temporary detachment, promptly remedied if there were a stapler to hand, would be regarded as invalidating the warrant, provided always that all of the pages were held by the officer in charge of the search. The possibility of accidental detachment however, coupled with the difficulties which have arisen in the present case, lead us to suggest that something more than the signature of the judge and the court stamp on one page of the document would be desirable as a means of authenticating the whole. The judge might, for example, initial the other pages. In the case of a three-page warrant the pages might be numbered 1/2/3 etc. We are reluctant to suggest what might seem to be excessive and time-consuming precautions, but the recent experience of this court has strikingly illustrated the consequences for the police of failures to observe the strict statutory procedure which Parliament has laid down.
We turn now to the chief constable’s argument that, even though the entry and search were unlawful, he is entitled to retain the documents and other materials which have been seized.
The searches were purportedly made under the authority of the warrants issued pursuant to para 12 of Sch 1. The power to seize and retain material for which a search has been authorised under para 12 is conferred by para 13. No information was extracted from a computer in the course of the search so that the police did not have recourse to s 19(4) or s 20(1). Nor did they need to have recourse to the powers provided upon a lawful entry by s 19(1) to (3) which are, along with s 19(4), additional to any other powers conferred by para 13 (see s 19(5)). The only power invoked by the police was under that paragraph.
The consequence of the breaches of s 16(5)(b) and (c) is that by virtue of s 15(1) the entries, searches and seizures were unlawful, so depriving the respondent of any authority under para 13 to retain any of the material seized. Mr Shorrock relies, however, upon the power of retention conferred by s 22(2)(a), which, he submits, is designed to authorise the retention by the police of material which has come into their hands by unlawful means. The provisions of s 22, so far as material, read as follows:
‘(1) Subject to subsection (4) below, anything which has been seized by a constable or taken away by a constable following a requirement made by virtue of section 19 or 20 above may be retained so long as is necessary in all the circumstances.’
This provision is brought into play, therefore, if either there has been a seizure by a constable, whether justified by statute or by common law, or (not this case) a constable has taken away what would generally be called a computer print-out which has been provided to him as a result of a requirement made by him pursuant to s 19(4) or s 20(1). The section continues:
‘(2) Without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1) above—(a) anything seized for the purposes of a criminal investigation may be retained, except as provided by section (4) below—(i) for use as evidence at a trial for
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an offence; or (ii) for forensic examination or for investigation in connection with an offence …
(4) Nothing may be retained for either of the purposes mentioned in subsection (2)(a) above if a photograph or copy would be sufficient for that purpose.’
Mr Shorrock accepts that he cannot bring himself within sub-s (1). He submits, however, that if the provisions of sub-s (2)(a) applied only to material which was lawfully in the possession of the police then it would be superfluous. Its purpose, so runs the argument, must therefore be to authorise the retention by the police of material held without legal right. Such material might come into the possession of the police not only as the result of unlawful seizure by them, but also, for example, by the police taking possession of goods stolen by a thief which were found to include evidence incriminating others. He referred to the decision of the House of Lords in R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402, which established that evidence is none the less admissible if it was obtained by improper means, and he pointed out that a defendant would be protected against the unfair use of such evidence by the discretion conferred upon the trial judge under s 78 of the 1984 Act.
In our judgment, this submission too must be rejected. Neither R v Sang nor s 78 provide any support for the proposition that the police have a general right to retain unlawfully seized material as against its owner for use as evidence. Such a right could only be conferred by express statutory language. In our judgment s 22(2)(a) cannot bear the weight which Mr Shorrock seeks to place upon it. The purpose of the subsection, as it seems to us, is the normal purpose of subordinate provisions introduced by the words ‘Without prejudice to the generality’ of what has gone before, namely to give specific examples of matters which are to be treated as falling within the scope of the general provision. Thus the paragraph provides examples of what may be regard as ‘necessary in all the circumstances’ for the purposes of sub-s (1).
As was pointed out by Jowitt J in argument, Mr Shorrock’s submission is open to the further objection that both sub-ss (1) and (2)(a) are made subject to sub-s (4). Subsection (4), for its part, refers back only to sub-s (2)(a). The three subsections can only be reconciled on the basis that sub-s (2)(a) falls within the scope of sub-s (1).
In the circumstances, it is unnecessary to deal with Mr Shorrock’s further argument that the chief constable needs to retain the original documents, and not merely copies of them as provided for by sub-s (4), because the material is still in the course of being sifted, and the original documents may be required as evidence under the best evidence rule. It is sufficient to say that, unless there is something about a particular document, such as an allegation of forgery, which requires examination of the original, we would find Mr Shorrock’s argument difficult to accept.
In the event, however, the argument does not arise, because the original documents are not lawfully held by the chief constable, and must be returned forthwith.
The matter must now stand over for the damages claim to be pursued before a single judge. We assume that this will not take place until after the conclusion of the criminal proceedings which are now in train.
Application allowed. Declarations accordingly.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Garlick v Oldham Metropolitan Borough Council and related appeals
[1993] 2 All ER 65
Categories: HOUSING
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD ACKNER, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 18, 19 JANUARY, 18 MARCH 1993
Housing – Homeless person – Duty of housing authority to provide accommodation – Application for priority need accommodation – Application by person suffering from incapacity – Application made by another person on behalf of person suffering mental incapacity – Application made on behalf of four-year-old child – Housing authorities rejecting applications – Whether application for priority need housing may be made on behalf of person suffering from incapacity – Whether dependent child having priority need for accommodation as result of ‘special reason’ making them vulnerable – Whether decision of local authority that applicant for accommodation lacks capacity to make application by reason of lack of understanding susceptible to judicial review – Housing Act 1985, ss 59(1)(c), 62.
In three separate appeals concerning applications by homeless people for priority need housing under s 62a Of the Housing Act 1985 the question arose whether the application could be made by a person acting on behalf of a potential applicant who was unable, through lack of capacity such as mental handicap or being a dependent child, either to make or to consent to the making of the application.
In the first two appeals the parents of four-year-old children had become homeless because in the one case the family home had been repossessed following the parents’ failure to keep up mortgage repayments and in the other the child’s mother had been evicted for failure to pay rent. In each case the parents’ application for accommodation under the 1985 Act had been refused by the local authority on the grounds that the parents had become homeless intentionally due to the failure to pay the mortgage and rent respectively. The parents then submitted applications for accommodation under the 1985 Act on behalf of their four-year-old children, claiming that the children were homeless and in priority need under s 59(1)(c)b by reason of each being ‘a person who is vulnerable as a result of … [a] special reason’, namely their age. In each case the local authority refused to entertain the application on the ground that the application by the children was a device to get round the provisions of the 1985 Act. Applications were then made on behalf of the children for judicial review of the local authorities’ decisions. The judge dismissed the applications and on appeal the Court of Appeal upheld his decision. The applicants appealed to the House of Lords.
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In the third appeal the appellant, who was 25, deaf and had limited speech, had arrived from Bangladesh with her family in 1989. In July 1990 the appellant and her father attended the homeless persons unit of the local authority and she signed an application under s 62 for priority housing in accordance with the provisions of s 59(1)(c). However, the local authority concluded that she lacked the necessary capacity to make the application and refused to entertain it. The appellant applied for judicial review of the local authority’s decision but the judge dismissed the application on the basis that, for the purposes of an application under s 62, prima facie there had to be knowledge on the part of the applicant that an application was being made. The appellant appealed to the Court of Appeal, which allowed the appeal on the ground that an application for priority housing under s 62 could be made on behalf of a person who was entitled to make an application but who was unable through mental incapacity to make or consent to the making of an application, provided the writer or maker of the application on behalf of that person could demonstrate reasonable grounds for making the application and that he was acting bona fide in the best interests of the applicant. The local authority appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – (1) Section 59(1)(c) of the 1985 Act was not intended to confer any rights to priority need housing under s 62 of that Act on dependent children since it was the intention of the Act that a child’s accommodation would be provided by his parents or those looking after him and it was to those people that the offer of accommodation had to be made, not to the dependent child. Dependent children were not amongst those classified as in priority need as a result of a ‘special reason’ making them vulnerable as they depended on their parents or those looking after them to decide where they were to live and any offer of accommodation could only sensibly be made to those in charge of them. Furthermore, a dependent child suffering from some disability did not thereby acquire an independent priority right to accommodation since healthy four-year-old children were just as vulnerable as disabled four-year-old children from a housing point of view; neither were capable of looking after themselves let alone deciding whether to accept an offer of accommodation. It followed that the appeals in the first two cases would be dismissed (see p 69 f to p 70 b d, p 72 j to p 73 b and p 74 j, post).
(2) Similarly (Lord Slynn dissenting), no duty was owed under the 1985 Act to persons so disabled that they had neither the capacity to make an application themselves nor to authorise an agent to make it on their behalf. It was implicit in the provisions of the 1985 Act that a local authority’s duty to make an offer of permanent accommodation was only owed to those who had the capacity to understand and respond to such an offer and if they accepted it to undertake the responsibilities that would be involved. If a person caring for a person who was vulnerable by reason of mental incapacity became homeless s 59(1)(c) gave him the status of priority need and, provided his homelessness was not intentional, he would qualify for an offer of accommodation which would enable him to continue to look after the vulnerable person. The local authority’s appeal in the third case would therefore be allowed (see p 71 e h to p 72 a j to p 73 b and p 74 j, post).
Per Lord Griffiths, Lord Bridge, Lord Ackner and Lord Woolf. A decision by a local housing authority that a particular applicant lacks the capacity to make an application because he cannot understand or act upon an offer of accommodation can only be challenged on judicial review if it can be shown to be unreasonable (see p 72 h to p 73 b and p 74 g to j, post).
Decision of the Court of Appeal in R v Tower Hamlets London BC, ex p Begum [1993] 1 All ER 447 reversed.
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Notes
For accommodation for homeless persons and priority need for accommodation, see 22 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 509–510, and for cases on the subject, see 26 Digest (Reissue) 797–801, 5325–5338.
For the Housing Act 1985, ss 59, 62, see 21 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 98, 101.
Cases referred to in opinions
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Kelly v Monklands DC 1986 SLT 169, Ct of Sess.
R v Tower Hamlets London BC, ex p Monaf (1988) 86 LGR 709, CA.
Appeal
Garlick v Oldham Metropolitan BC
Graham Anthony Garlick, a minor suing by his mother and guardian Sharon Garlick, appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal from the decision of that court (Ralph Gibson, Nolan and Scott LJJ) on 6 August 1992 dismissing his appeal from the decision of Henry J on 13 April 1992 dismissing his application for judicial review of the decision of the respondent, Oldham Metropolitan Borough Council (Oldham), refusing to consider the application made on behalf of the appellant for accommodation under Pt III of the Housing Act 1985. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Griffiths.
Bentum v Bexley London BC
Moses Bentum, a minor suing by his next friend and father, appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal from the decision of that court (Ralph Gibson, Nolan and Scott LJJ) on 6 August 1992 dismissing his appeal from the decision of Henry J on 13 April 1992 dismissing his application for judicial review of the decision of the respondent, Bexley London Borough Council (Bexley), refusing to consider the application made on behalf of the appellant for accommodation under Pt III of the Housing Act 1985. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Griffiths.
Tower Hamlets London BC v Begum
Tower Hamlets London Borough Council (Tower Hamlets) appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords Lord Mustill given on 18 January 1993 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Lord Donaldson MR, Butler-Sloss and Staughton LJJ) ([1993] 1 All ER 447, [1993] 2 WLR 9) on 30 July 1992 allowing the appeal of the respondent, Ferdous Begum, from the order of Rose J (24 HLR 115) made on 28 November 1991 whereby he dismissed the respondent’s motion for judicial review of Tower Hamlet’s decision, communicated to the respondent’s father by letter dated 11 July 1991 that the respondent had not made an application to Tower Hamlets pursuant to Pt III of the 1985 Act as a homeless person and therefore Tower Hamlets was under no obligation to make inquiries into the respondent’s homelessness pursuant to s 62 of that Act. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Griffiths.
Andrew Arden QC and George Warr (instructed by Moon Beever) for the applicant Garlick.
Timothy Straker (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard, agents for David Shipp, Oldham) for Oldham.
Patrick Elias QC and David Watkinson (instructed by Norton & Co) for the applicant Bentum.
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James Goudie QC and Brenda Morris (instructed by L J Birch, Bexleyheath) for Bexley.
Ashley Underwood and Lisa Giovannetti (instructed by J E Marlowe) for Tower Hamlets.
Derek Wood QC, David Watkinson and Leslie Thomas (instructed by Hereward & Foster) for the respondent Begum.
18 March 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, your Lordships heard these three appeals together because they all concern the nature of the duties owed by local housing authorities to homeless persons under Pt III of the Housing Act 1985 which re-enacts the provisions first contained in the Housing (Homeless Persons) Act 1977. The first two appeals raise the question of what if any duty is owed under the 1985 Act to dependent children of four years of age who are living with their parents.
I take the facts of the first two appeals from the judgment of Henry J:
‘The facts of the two cases are these. In the first, that involving Bexley London Borough Council, Mr and Mrs B are political refugees from Ghana. They had been here for a number of years with their youngest child, the applicant. They had purchased their own property. They mortgaged it and remortgaged it. They got into financial difficulties and were unable to keep up the mortgage payments. The property was repossessed and on 15 August 1990 they presented themselves to Bexley council as homeless, applying for accommodation under s 62 of the 1985 Act. On 2 February 1991 their three other children, born respectively in 1966, 1974 [and] 1980, together with the young daughter of the eldest then just three months old, arrived in the United Kingdom from Ghana. On 4 February 1991 their housing application was amended to add those recently arrived persons. In February 1991 the family was placed by the [council] in temporary accommodation while their claim was considered. On 23 September 1991 the council found that Mr and Mrs B were homeless, that they were considered to be in priority need, but they were considered to have become homeless intentionally on the basis that the loss of their accommodation was caused by a deliberate omission to make the mortgage repayments due. Accordingly they gave Mr and Mrs B 28 days to find alternative accommodation. There was no legal challenge to that decision. Instead, on 17 October 1991 a fresh application was made, physically by Mr B but in the name of his youngest son, who was then aged four. By letter of 24 October that application was not accepted as an application but, in the alternative if it were to be considered to be a valid application, it was rejected on the basis that the four-year-old applicant was not considered to be in priority need. It is that decision that the applicants here apply to quash. Meanwhile the council have been providing accommodation pending the outcome of this hearing. The other application concerns Oldham Metropolitan Borough Council. Again the applicant was four at the date of his application. In January 1991 his mother was evicted for failure to pay rent. She applied to the local housing authority claiming homelessness. After investigation the local authority found her to be homeless, found her to have priority need but to have become homeless intentionally due to her failure to make any payment towards her rent. Again she was temporarily accommodated for a short period under the provisions of the 1985 Act and before that period had expired on 19 March 1991 an application for accommodation was made on behalf of the applicant. On 4 April 1991 the [council] refused to entertain the application on the basis
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that it was a “transparent device to get round the provisions of the Housing Act”. It is to quash that decision that the second set of proceedings are brought.’
Henry J and the Court of Appeal dismissed these applications and in my opinion they were right to do so.
It is of the first importance to understand the nature of the duty imposed upon local housing authorities by Parliament. It is not a duty to take the homeless off the streets and to place them physically in accommodation. The duty is to give them and their families the first priority in the housing queue. The duty is expressed in s 65(2) as a duty to ‘secure that accommodation becomes available for his occupation’. It is a duty to offer a homeless person who applies to them for assistance suitable permanent accommodation to house him and his family (see s 75). It is then up to the applicant to decide whether or not he will accept the accommodation. The local housing authority cannot force the applicant to accept it but they will have discharged their duty under the 1985 Act by finding and offering suitable permanent accommodation.
The persons to whom this duty is owed are those who are homeless and in priority need and have not disqualified themselves by becoming homeless intentionally. Those in priority need are classified in s 59(1):
‘The following have a priority need for accommodation—(a) a pregnant woman or a person with whom a pregnant woman resides or might reasonably be expected to reside; (b) a person with whom dependent children reside or might reasonably be expected to reside; (c) a person who is vulnerable as a result of old age, mental illness or handicap or physical disability or other special reason, or with whom such a person resides or might reasonably be expected to reside; (d) a person who is homeless or threatened with homelessness as a result of an emergency such as flood, fire or other disaster.’
Dependent children are not amongst those classified as in priority need. This is not surprising. Dependent children depend on their parents or those looking after them to decide where they are to live and the offer of accommodation can only sensibly be made to those in charge of them. There is no definition of a dependent child in the 1985 Act but the Homelessness Code of Guidance for Local Authorities (3rd edn, 1991), to which local authorities must have regard for guidance (see s 71), suggests in para 6.3 that authorities should normally include as dependent all children under 16 and all children aged 16 to 18 who are in, or about to begin, full-time education or training or who for other reasons are unable to support themselves and who live at home. This seems to me to be sensible guidance and likely to result in families being housed together until the children are reasonably mature. There will obviously be the case from time to time when a child leaves home under the age of 16 and ceases to be dependent on the parents or those with whom he or she was living and such a child may be vulnerable and in priority need by virtue of s 59(1)(c): see Kelly v Monklands DC 1986 SLT 169. But however that may be, it cannot possibly be argued that a healthy four-year-old living with parents is other than a dependent child. Such a child is in my opinion owed no duty under this Act for it is the intention of the Act that the child’s accommodation will be provided by the parents or those looking after him and it is to those people that the offer of accommodation must be made, not to the dependent child.
I cannot accept the argument that extreme youth is a ‘special reason’ making the child vulnerable and thus giving it a priority need under s 59(1)(c). ‘Old age’ is mentioned as a cause of vulnerability but ‘young age’ is not. The reason of
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course is that already stated. Parliament has provided for dependent children by giving a priority right to accommodation to their parents or those looking after them. Nor can I accept the argument that if a dependent child suffers from some disability it thereby acquires an independent priority right to accommodation. A healthy four-year-old is just as vulnerable as a disabled four-year-old from a housing point of view; neither is capable of looking after himself let alone deciding whether to accept an offer of accommodation. I am satisfied that s 59(1)(c) was not intended to confer any rights upon dependent children.
It is also to be observed that the Act imposes a duty on the authority to give written advice to the applicant and makes it a criminal offence for an applicant not to notify an authority of a change in his circumstances (see ss 64 and 74). This is all part of a pattern that supports the view that the intention of this Act was to create a duty to offer accommodation to those homeless persons in priority need who can decide whether or not to accept the offer and that this does not include dependent children.
If a family has lost its right to priority treatment through intentional homelessness the parent cannot achieve the same result through the back door by an application in the name of a dependent child; if he could it would mean that the disqualification of intentional homelessness had no application to families with dependent children. If this had been the intention of Parliament it would surely have said so.
For these reasons I would dismiss the first two appeals. I wish however to point out that there are other provisions of our social welfare legislation that provide for the accommodation and care of children and of the duty of cooperation between authorities in the discharge of their duties. Section 20(1) of the Children Act 1989 provides:
‘Every local authority shall provide accommodation for any child in need within their area who appears to them to require accommodation as a result of—(a) there being no person who has parental responsibility for him; (b) his being lost or having been abandoned; or (c) the person who has been caring for him being prevented (whether or not permanently, and for whatever reason) from providing him with suitable accommodation or care.’
And I also draw attention to s 27, which deals particularly with co-operation between authorities.
The third appeal concerns the duty owed to a vulnerable adult. The facts are as follows. The respondent, the applicant, is a 25-year-old Bangladeshi woman who lacks hearing, speech and education. Communication with her is very difficult and within the family takes place by a unique form of sign language. She arrived in the United Kingdom in December 1989 with her parents, sisters and a brother. On 18 December 1989 her father applied to the local authority’s homeless persons unit. He was interviewed several times in early 1990. By letter of 1 June 1990 to the father the authority communicated their decision that the family had been rendered homeless and were in priority need because of the dependent children but that the family were intentionally homeless, having left accommodation in Bangladesh which it was reasonable for them to continue to occupy. Temporary accommodation was offered the family until 18 July 1990. On 17 July the respondent attended with her father at the local authority’s offices bringing a letter dated 15 July from the solicitors who had been acting on behalf of the father. This letter said that the solicitors were now acting on behalf of the daughter and submitted that the authority had a duty to provide her together with the other members of her family with accommodation. The letter contained the following paragraph:
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‘If, which is not admitted, you were correct in your finding that Mr Ali [the father] is intentionally homeless, we submit that Ferdous Begum [the daughter] is not intentionally homeless because given her abilities and level of understanding, she could not have acquiesced in any act or omission by her father rendering her homeless.’
On 11 July 1991 the authority wrote the decision letter refusing the application which contained the following paragraph:
‘I have carried out a number of inquiries and I do indeed conclude that Ferdous’s abilities and level of understanding are very low. She suffers from a double disability in that she has neither speech nor hearing. She uses a form of sign language apparently unique to her. She is under-stimulated and educationally undeveloped. Her only means of communication with us has been through you [the father]. In all these circumstances I conclude not only that she could not have acquiesced in any act or omission by you rendering her homeless, I find that she cannot have acquiesced in any application for housing. It follows that I must treat her as not having made an application and I therefore conclude that the purported application was merely a device by which you sought to get around the unchallenged finding of your intentional homelessness.’
The judge dismissed the applicant’s challenge to the local authority’s decision but the Court of Appeal reversed his decision and the local housing authority now appeal to your Lordships.
The first question to be considered is whether any duty is owed under the 1985 Act to persons so disabled that they have neither the capacity to make an application themselves nor to authorise an agent to make it on their behalf. The judge answered this question in the negative, the Court of Appeal in the affirmative. I agree with the judge.
I have already pointed out that the duty under this Act is a duty to make an offer of permanent accommodation. As Purchas LJ pointed out in R v Tower Hamlets London BC, ex p Monaf (1988) 86 LGR 709 at 732, the Act is primarily to do with the provision of bricks and mortar and not with care and attention for the gravely disabled, which is provided for in other legislation.
The priority need of the disabled is dealt with in s 59(1)(c), which I will set out again:
‘… a person who is vulnerable as a result of old age, mental illness or handicap or physical disability or other special reason, or with whom such a person resides or might reasonably be expected to reside …’
Many vulnerable people are cared for in the community by their relatives or other good-hearted people with whom they live. If such a ‘carer’ should have the misfortune to become homeless then s 59(1)(c) gives him the status of priority need, and provided his homelessness was not intentional, he will qualify for an offer of accommodation which will enable him to continue to look after the vulnerable person.
Other people although vulnerable are nevertheless able to lead an independent existence, albeit sometimes in sheltered accommodation; these people also have the status of priority need and can apply for assistance if they are homeless but not intentionally so. When they are made the offer of accommodation they can decide whether or not to accept it.
But I can see no purpose in making an offer of accommodation to a person so disabled that he is unable to comprehend or evaluate the offer. In my view it is
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implicit in the provisions of the Act that the duty to make an offer is only owed to those who have the capacity to understand and respond to such an offer and if they accept it to undertake the responsibilities that will be involved. If a person is so disabled that he cannot do this he is not left destitute but is protected by the National Assistance Act 1948, which by s 21(1) provides:
‘It shall be the duty of every local authority, subject to and in accordance with the provisions of this Part of this Act, to provide—(a) residential accommodation for persons who by reason of age, infirmity or any other circumstances are in need of care and attention which is not otherwise available to them; (b) temporary accommodation for persons who are in urgent need thereof, being need arising in circumstances which could not reasonably have been foreseen or in such other circumstances as the authority may in any particular case determine.’
In the present appeal the authority regarded the applicant as so disabled that she lacked the capacity to be regarded as an applicant and that they thus owed her no duty under the Act. At the hearing before the Court of Appeal further evidence of the mental capacity of the applicant was admitted. The authority wish to evaluate this evidence and have undertaken to reconsider their decision that the applicant lacks capacity to make an application. But if they decide that the applicant does lack capacity to make an application the question arises whether that decision is one which Parliament entrusted to the authority and so can only be reviewed on Wednesbury grounds (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223) or whether it is to be regarded as a question of precedent fact going to the jurisdiction and so to be decided by the court.
If, as the Court of Appeal decided, an application can be made on behalf of a totally mentally incapacitated person because a duty is owed to him or her under the Act it is understandable to regard the question of whether or not an application has been made to be a question of fact to be decided by the court. But if, on the true construction of the Act, Parliament only imposes the duty in respect of applicants of sufficient mental capacity to act upon the offer of accommodation then it seems to me it must have intended the local housing authority to evaluate the capacity of the applicant. In this field of social welfare all those concerned with the welfare of the victims must necessarily work closely together. When an application is made by or on behalf of a homeless person an immediate investigation must be started and if it is decided that the homeless person is so disabled as to be incapable of looking after himself and there is no one to care for him then the social services must be alerted immediately so that they may look after him. All these very immediate investigations and decisions are necessary to make the system work and they can only be carried out by the authorities concerned. I therefore conclude that a decision by a local housing authority that a particular applicant lacks the capacity to make an application because he cannot understand or act upon an offer of accommodation can only be challenged on judicial review if it can be shown to be Wednesbury unreasonable. As the local housing authority is in any event going to review its decision there is no purpose in entering upon a Wednesbury review at this stage. But on the material before the learned judge he was in my view right to dismiss the application and I would allow this appeal.
LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths.
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I agree with it and, for the reasons he gives I would dismiss the first two appeals and allow the third.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths. For the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the first two appeals and allow the third appeal.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths. I agree that, for the reasons he gives, the first two appeals should be dismissed.
I have more difficulty with the third appeal. The cases are prima facie different in that ‘a person who is vulnerable as a result of old age, mental illness or handicap or physical disability or other special reasons’, unlike a dependent child, has a priority need for accommodation in his or her own right (s 59(1)(c) of the Housing Act 1985).
By s 62(1) of the Act, if a person (an ‘applicant’) applies to a local housing authority for accommodation or for assistance in obtaining accommodation, the local authority must first ask if he is homeless or threatened with homelessness. If they are satisfied that he is they must then ask if (a) he has a priority need and (b) whether he is homeless intentionally.
I do not think it right to define the phrase ‘a person (an “applicant”)’ who ‘applies to a local housing authority for accommodation’ as meaning a person who has a priority need and who is capable both of being offered and accepting accommodation if he establishes that he is homeless and has a priority need. I agree with Nolan LJ in the Court of Appeal when dealing with the first two appeals that that is putting the cart before the horse. Any person can be an applicant. The local authority must then consider, step by step, the three matters referred to in s 62 of the Act.
By s 65 of the Act, if the local authority are satisfied that a person is homeless (other than intentionally) and that he has a priority need, they must ‘secure that accommodation becomes available’ for his occupation either—
‘by making available suitable accommodation held by them, or by securing that he obtains suitable accommodation from some other person, or … by giving him such advice and assistance as will secure that he obtains suitable accommodation from some other person …’ (See s 69(1) as substituted by s 14(3) of the Housing and Planning Act 1986.)
There is thus not simply a duty to provide accommodation from the housing stock of the local authority itself. However, this section must be read subject to s 75 since accommodation is to be regarded as available for a person’s occupation ‘only if it is available for occupation both by him and by any other person who might reasonably be expected to reside with him’.
If a person is so disabled, mentally or physically, that he cannot make the application himself then someone else may, in my view, do it on his behalf. Section 74 of the Act impliedly recognises this as a possibility since it makes it an offence for a person to make a false statement, with intent to induce a local housing authority to believe, in connection with the exercise of their functions under this part, that he or another person is homeless, has a priority need or did not become homeless intentionally.
I do not consider that the person making the application is to be excluded from the class of vulnerable persons who can establish a priority need because he or she
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is not capable of understanding the nature or details of a lease or a contract. Nor do I consider that the fact that such a person, physically or mentally handicapped, is incapable of doing everything for himself means that he is excluded. Persons who are physically or mentally disabled may be able to do much for themselves. In any event the accommodation must by virtue of s 69 of the Act be ‘suitable’ accommodation. If the vulnerable person is alone with no existing carer, he may need special accommodation under s 69(1)(b) of the Act. If he is not alone but has an existing carer or family ‘who might reasonably be expected to reside with him’ then the accommodation must be available for their occupation also.
Section 74 of the Act is said to create difficulties for this approach. Section 74(1) does not do so because of the words already referred to. Section 74(2) must be read as meaning that if a person makes an application on behalf of another, the former must notify the authority of any material change of fact and the local authority must make the explanation required to that person on behalf of the applicant. A person incapable of understanding has a reasonable excuse for non-compliance with s 74(2) within the meaning of s 74(3). Whether the person making the application is covered by s 74(3) (as I tend to think) it is not necessary in this case to decide.
I fully accept that the provisions of other Acts (eg the National Assistance Act 1948) may also cover a person in the position of the present applicant. It may be that facilities for care and accommodation can be provided more appropriately under other legislation. Like Butler-Sloss LJ in the Court of Appeal ([1993] 1 All ER 447 at 453, [1993] 2 WLR 9 at 16), however, I do not consider that this is conclusive against the applicant’s argument in the present case. The question still has to be asked whether relief is available under this statute. I also accept that as the legislation stands, this may mean that a parent or carer who has himself become intentionally homeless may obtain accommodation as being a person who might reasonably be expected to reside with the person having a priority need. That a person should have been admitted to the country without any accommodation being available, or being likely to be available, for them, obviously raises a different question.
At the end of the day, however, and with considerable diffidence in view of the forceful reasoning of my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths, I would not read into the statute a requirement of capacity which is not spelled out there but would give the provisions their ordinary meaning. I consider, like all the members of the Court of Appeal, that the present appellant was ‘an applicant’ and her case must be considered under s 62 of the Act.
It follows in my view that the local authority were wrong in law as a matter of the interpretation of s 62 of the Act to refuse to consider her as an applicant. Their subsequent decision as to whether she was homeless, has a priority need, was homeless intentionally and as to what is suitable and available accommodation, can only be reviewed by the courts on Wednesbury principles (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223). These are not matters to be decided de novo by the courts.
In the circumstances I would dismiss the third appeal.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths. For the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the first two appeals and allow the third appeal.
First and second appeals dismissed; third appeal allowed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Brown and other appeals
[1993] 2 All ER 75
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD LOWRY, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 1, 2, 3, 7 DECEMBER 1992, 11 MARCH 1993
Criminal law – Assault – Assault occasioning actual bodily harm – Defence – Consent – Sado-masochistic acts in private with consent – Whether persons carrying out sadomasochistic acts in private with consent guilty of assault occasioning actual bodily harm – Offences against the Person Act 1861, s 47.
Criminal law – Wounding – Unlawful wounding – Defence – Consent – Sado-masochistic acts carried out in private with consent – Whether persons carrying out sado-masochistic acts in private with consent guilty of unlawful wounding – Offences against the Person Act 1861, s 20.
The appellants belonged to a group of sado-masochistic homosexuals who over a 10-year period from 1978 willingly participated in the commission of acts of violence against each other, including genital torture, for the sexual pleasure which it engendered in the giving and receiving of pain. The passive partner or victim in each case consented to the acts being committed and suffered no permanent injury. The activities took place in private at a number of different locations, including rooms equipped as torture chambers at the homes of three of the appellants. Video cameras were used to record the activities and the resulting tapes were then copied and distributed amongst members of the group. The tapes were not sold or used other than for the delectation of members of the group. The appellants were tried on charges of assault occasioning actual bodily harm, contrary to s 47a of the Offences against the Person Act 1861, and unlawful wounding, contrary to s 20b of that Act. The Crown’s case was based very largely on the contents of the video tapes. Following a ruling by the trial judge that the consent of the victim afforded no defence to the charges, the appellants pleaded guilty and were sentenced to terms of imprisonment. The appellants appealed against their convictions, contending that a person could not guilty be of assault occasioning actual bodily harm or unlawful wounding in respect of acts carried out in private with the consent of the victim. The Court of Appeal dismissed their appeals. The appellants appealed to the House of Lords.
Held (Lord Mustill and Lord Slynn dissenting) – Consensual sado-masochistic homosexual encounters which occasioned actual bodily harm to the victim were assaults occasioning actual bodily harm, contrary to s 47 of the 1861 Act, and unlawful wounding, contrary to s 20 of that Act, notwithstanding the victim’s consent to the acts inflicted on him, because public policy required that society be protected by criminal sanctions against a cult of violence which contained the danger of the proselytisation and corruption of young men and the potential for the infliction of serious injury. Accordingly, a person could be convicted of unlawful wounding and assault occasioning actual bodily harm, contrary to ss 20
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and 47 of the 1861 Act, for committing sado-masochistic acts which inflicted injuries which were neither transient nor trifling, notwithstanding that the acts were committed in private, the person on whom the injuries were inflicted consented to the acts and no permanent injury was sustained by the victim. It followed that the appellants had been properly convicted and that their appeals would be dismissed (see p 83 h j, p 84 g, p 90 h j, p 91 b c g to j, p 92 a to c, p 93 b c, p 94 d e, p 100 b to h and p 101 c, post).
Dictum of Cave J in R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 at 539, R v Donovan [1934] All ER Rep 207 and A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057 applied.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1992] 2 All ER 552 affirmed.
Notes
For consent to assault, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 494, and for cases on the subject, see 14(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 148–149, 6006–6617.
For the Offences against the Person Act 1861, ss 20, 47, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 94, 105.
Cases referred to in opinions
A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715, [1981] 3 WLR 125, CA.
Cole v Turner (1704) Holt KB 108, 90 ER 958, NP.
Collins v Wilcock [1984] 3 All ER 374, [1984] 1 WLR 1172, DC.
DPP v Smith [1960] 3 All ER 161, [1961] AC 290, [1960] 3 WLR 546, HL.
Fairclough v Whipp [1951] 2 All ER 834, 35 Cr App R 138, DC.
J J C (a minor) v Eisenhower [1983] 3 All ER 230, DC.
Pallante v Stadiums Pty Ltd (No 1) [1976] VR 331, Vict SC.
R v Boyea (1992) 156 JP 505, CA.
R v Bradshaw (1878) 14 Cox CC 83, Assizes.
R v Bruce (1847) 2 Cox CC 262, CCC.
R v Cheeseman (1836) 7 C & P 455, 173 ER 202, NP.
R v Ciccarelli (1989) 54 CCC (3d) 121, Ont Dist Ct.
R v Clarence (1888) 22 QBD 23, [1886–90] All ER Rep 133, CCR.
R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534, CCR.
R v Conner (1835) 7 C & P 438, 173 ER 194, NP.
R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207, 25 Cr App R 1, CCA.
R v Griffin (1869) 11 Cox CC 402, Assizes.
R v Hopley (1860) 2 F & F 202, 175 ER 1024, Assizes.
R v Jones (Terence) (1986) 83 Cr App R 375, CA.
R v McCoy 1953 (2) SA 4, S Rhodesia HC.
R v Moore (1898) 14 TLR 229.
R v Mowatt [1967] 3 All ER 47, [1968] 1 QB 421, [1967] 3 WLR 1192, CA.
R v Orton (1878) 39 LT 293, CCR.
R v Raleigh (1603) 2 State Tr 1.
R v Rice (1803) 3 East 581, 102 ER 719.
R v Savage, R v Parmenter [1991] 4 All ER 698, [1992] 1 AC 699, [1991] 3 WLR 914, HL; R v Savage [1991] 2 All ER 220, [1992] 1 AC 699, [1991] 2 WLR 418, CA and rvsg R v Parmenter [1991] 2 All ER 225, [1992] 1 AC 699, [1991] 2 WLR 418, CA.
R v Taverner (1616) 3 Bulst 171, 81 ER 144.
R v Wollaston (1872) 26 LT 403, CCR.
R v Young (1866) 31 JP 215, CCC.
Turberville v Savage (1669) 1 Mod Rep 3, 86 ER 684.
Wilson v Pringle [1986] 2 All ER 440, [1987] QB 237, [1986] 3 WLR 1, CA.
Page 77 of [1993] 2 All ER 75
Conjoined appeals
Anthony Joseph Brown, Colin Laskey, Roland Leonard Jaggard, Saxon Lucas and Christopher Robert Carter appealed with the leave of the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division against the decision of that court (Lord Lane CJ, Rose and Potts JJ) ([1992] 2 All ER 552, [1992] QB 491, 94 Cr App R 302) on 7 November 1990 dismissing their appeals against their convictions and sentences on 19 December 1990 in the Central Criminal Court before Judge Rant QC on counts of unlawful wounding, assault occasioning actual bodily harm and aiding and abetting the same contrary to ss 20 and 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861, the appellants having pleaded guilty to the charges following rearraignment as a result of a ruling by the judge on 2 November 1990. The Court of Appeal certified, under s 33(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that a point of law of general public importance (set out at letter h, below) was involved in the decision to dismiss the appeals. The appeals were conjoined by order of the House of Lords dated 9 November 1992. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Templeman.
Lawrence Kershen QC, Eleanor Sharpston and Pauline Hendy (instructed by Geffens, Walsall) for the appellant Brown.
Baroness Mallalieu QC, Adrian Fulford and Eleanor Sharpston (instructed by J P Malnick & Co) for the appellants Lucas and Jaggard.
Anna Worrall QC, Gibson Grenfell and Eleanor Sharpston (instructed by J P Malnick & Co) for the appellant Laskey.
Ronald Thwaites QC, Jonathan Lurie and Eleanor Sharpston (instructed by Shakespeares, Birmingham) for the appellant Carter.
Nicholas Purnell QC and David Spens (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
11 March 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, the appellants were convicted of assaults occasioning actual bodily harm contrary to s 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861. Three of the appellants were also convicted of wounding contrary to s 20 of the 1861 Act. The incidents which led to each conviction occurred in the course of consensual sado-masochistic homosexual encounters. The Court of Appeal upheld the convictions and certified the following point of law of general public importance:
‘Where A wounds or assaults B occasioning him actual bodily harm in the course of a sadomasochistic encounter, does the prosecution have to prove lack of consent on the part of B before they can establish A’s guilt under section 20 and section 47 of the 1861, Offences Against the Person Act?’
The definition of assault set forth in the 14th Report of the Criminal Law Revision Committee on Offences against the Person (Cmnd 7844 (1980)) para 158 and adopted by the Law Commission in their Consultation Paper No 122, Legislating the Criminal Code: Offences against the Person and General Principles (1992) para 9.1 is as follows:
‘At common law, an assault is an act by which a person intentionally or recklessly causes another to apprehend immediate and unlawful personal violence and a battery is an act by which a person intentionally or recklessly
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inflicts personal violence upon another. However, the term “assault” is now, in both ordinary legal usage and in statutes, regularly used to cover both assault and battery.’
There are now three types of assault in ascending order of gravity: first, common assault, secondly, assault which occasions actual bodily harm and, thirdly, assault which inflicts grievous bodily harm.
By s 39 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988:
‘Common assault and battery shall be summary offences and a person guilty of either of them shall be liable to a fine … to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months, or to both.’
By s 47 of the 1861 Act, as amended:
‘Whosoever shall be convicted upon an indictment of any assault occasioning actual bodily harm shall be liable [to a maximum penalty of five years’ imprisonment].’
In R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498 at 509, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 212 Swift J, delivering the judgment of the Court of Criminal Appeal, said:
‘… “bodily harm” has its ordinary meaning and includes any hurt or injury calculated to interfere with the health or comfort of the prosecutor. Such hurt or injury need not be permanent, but must, no doubt, be more than merely transient and trifling.’
In the present case each appellant pleaded guilty to an offence under this section when the trial judge ruled that consent of the victim was no defence.
By s 20 of the 1861 Act, as amended:
‘Whosoever shall unlawfully and maliciously wound or inflict any grievous bodily harm upon any other person, either with or without any weapon or instrument, shall be guilty of [an offence] … and shall be liable [to a maximum penalty of five years’ imprisonment].’
To constitute a wound for the purposes of the section the whole skin must be broken and not merely the outer layer called the epidermis or the cuticle: see J J C (a minor) v Eisenhower [1983] 3 All ER 230.
‘Grievous bodily harm’ means simply bodily harm that is really serious and it has been said that it is undesirable to attempt a further definition: see DPP v Smith [1960] 3 All ER 161, [1961] AC 290.
In s 20 the words ‘unlawfully’ means that the accused had no lawful excuse such as self-defence. The word ‘maliciously’ means no more than intentionally for present purposes: see R v Mowatt [1967] 3 All ER 47, [1968] 1 QB 421.
Three of the appellants pleaded guilty to charges under s 20 when the trial judge ruled that the consent of the victim afforded no defence.
In the present case each of the appellants intentionally inflicted violence upon another (to whom I shall refer as ‘the victim’) with the consent of the victim and thereby occasioned actual bodily harm or in some cases wounding or grievous bodily harm. Each appellant was therefore guilty of an offence under s 47 or s 20 of the 1861 Act unless the consent of the victim was effective to prevent the commission of the offence or effective to constitute a defence to the charge.
In some circumstances violence is not punishable under the criminal law. When no actual bodily harm is caused, the consent of the person affected precludes him from complaining. There can be no conviction for the summary offence of
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common assault if the victim has consented to the assault. Even when violence is intentionally inflicted and results in actual bodily harm, wounding or serious bodily harm the accused is entitled to be acquitted if the injury was a foreseeable incident of a lawful activity in which the person injured was participating. Surgery involves intentional violence resulting in actual or sometimes serious bodily harm but surgery is a lawful activity. Other activities carried on with consent by or on behalf of the injured person have been accepted as lawful notwithstanding that they involve actual bodily harm or may cause serious bodily harm. Ritual circumcision, tattooing, ear-piercing and violent sports including boxing are lawful activities.
In earlier days some other forms of violence were lawful and when they ceased to be lawful they were tolerated until well into the nineteenth century. Duelling and fighting were at first lawful and then tolerated provided the protagonists were voluntary participants. But, where the results of these activities was the maiming of one of the participants, the defence of consent never availed the aggressor: see 1 Hawkins’ Pleas of the Crown (8th edn, 1824) ch 15. A maim was bodily harm whereby a man was deprived of the use of any member of his body which he needed to use in order to fight but a bodily injury was not a maim merely because it was a disfigurement. The act of maim was unlawful because the King was deprived of the services of an able-bodied citizen for the defence of the realm. Violence which maimed was unlawful despite consent to the activity which produced the maiming. In these days there is no difference between maiming on the one hand and wounding or causing grievous bodily harm on the other hand except with regard to sentence.
When duelling became unlawful, juries remained unwilling to convict but the judges insisted that persons guilty of causing death or bodily injury should be convicted despite the consent of the victim.
Similarly, in the old days, fighting was lawful provided the protagonists consented because it was thought that fighting inculcated bravery and skill and physical fitness. The brutality of knuckle fighting however caused the courts to declare that such fights were unlawful even if the protagonists consented. Rightly or wrongly the courts accepted that boxing is a lawful activity.
In R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 the court held that a prize-fight in public was unlawful. Cave J said (at 539):
‘The true view is, I think, that a blow struck in anger, or which is likely or is intended to do corporal hurt, is an assault, but that a blow struck in sport, and not likely, nor intended to cause bodily harm, is not an assault, and that an assault being a breach of the peace and unlawful, the consent of the person struck is immaterial.’
Stephen J said (at 549):
‘When one person is indicted for inflicting personal injury upon another, the consent of the person who sustains the injury is no defence to the person who inflicts the injury, if the injury is of such a nature, or is inflicted under such circumstances, that its infliction is injurious to the public as well as to the person injured. But the injuries given and received in prize-fights are injurious to the public, both because it is against the public interest that the lives and the health of the combatants should be endangered by blows, and because prize-fights are disorderly exhibitions, mischievous on many obvious grounds. Therefore the consent of the parties to the blows which they
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mutually receive does not prevent those blows from being assaults … In cases where life and limb are exposed to no serious danger in the common course of things, I think that consent is a defence to a charge of assault, even when considerable force is used, as, for instance, in cases of wrestling, single-stick, sparring with gloves, football and the like; but in all cases the question whether consent does or does not take from the application of force to another its illegal character, is a question of degree depending upon circumstances.’
Hawkins J said (at 553):
‘… whatever may be the effect of a consent in a suit between party and party, it is not in the power of any man to give an effectual consent to that which amounts to, or has a direct tendency to create, a breach of the peace; so as to bar a criminal prosecution. In other words, though a man may by consent debar himself from his right to maintain a civil action, he cannot thereby defeat proceedings instituted by the Crown in the interest of the public for the maintenance of good order … He may compromise his own civil rights, but he cannot compromise the public interests.’
Lord Coleridge CJ said (at 567):
‘… I conceive it to be established, beyond the power of any argument however ingenious to raise a doubt, that as the combatants in a duel cannot give consent to one another to take away life, so neither can the combatants in a prize-fight give consent to one another to commit that which the law has repeatedly held to be a breach of the peace. An individual cannot by such consent destroy the right of the Crown to protect the public and keep the peace.’
The conclusion is that, a prize-fight being unlawful, actual bodily harm or serious bodily harm inflicted in the course of a prize-fight is unlawful notwithstanding the consent of the protagonists.
In R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207 the appellant in private beat a girl of 17 for purposes of sexual gratification, it was said with her consent. Swift J said ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 507, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210):
‘… it is an unlawful act to beat another person with such a degree of violence that the infliction of bodily harm is a probable consequence, and when such an act is proved, consent is immaterial.’
In A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 719 where two men quarrelled and fought with bare fists Lord Lane CJ, delivering the judgment of the Court of Appeal, said:
‘… it is not in the public interest that people should try to cause or should cause each other bodily harm for no good reason. Minor struggles are another matter. So, in our judgment, it is immaterial whether the act occurs in private or in public; it is an assault if actual bodily harm is intended and/or caused. This means that most fights will be unlawful regardless of consent. Nothing which we have said is intended to cast doubt on the accepted legality of properly conducted games and sports, lawful chastisement or correction, reasonable surgical interference, dangerous exhibitions etc. These apparent exceptions can be justified as involving the exercise of a legal right, in the case of chastisement or correction, or as needed in the public interest, in the other cases.’
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Duelling and fighting are both unlawful and the consent of the protagonists affords no defence to charges of causing actual bodily harm, wounding or grievous bodily harm in the course of an unlawful activity.
The appellants and their victims in the present case were engaged in consensual homosexual activities. The attitude of the public towards homosexual practices changed in the second half of this century. Change in public attitudes led to a change in the law.
The Report of the Committee on Homosexual Offences and Prostitution (the Wolfenden Report) (Cmnd 247 (1957)) ch 2 para 13, declared that the function of the criminal law in relation to homosexual behaviour—
‘is to preserve public order and decency, to protect the citizen from what is offensive or injurious, and to provide sufficient safeguards against exploitation and corruption of others, particularly those who are especially vulnerable because they are young, weak in body or mind, inexperienced, or in a state of special, physical, official or economic dependence.’
In response to the Wolfenden Report and consistently with its recommendations, Parliament enacted s 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1967, which provided, inter alia, as follows:
‘(1) Notwithstanding any statutory or common law provision … a homosexual act in private shall not be an offence provided that the parties consent thereto and have attained the age of twenty-one years.
(2) An act which would otherwise be treated for the purposes of this Act as being done in private shall not be so treated if done—(a) when more than two persons take part or are present …
(6) It is hereby declared that where in any proceedings it is charged that a homosexual act is an offence the prosecutor shall have the burden of proving that the act was done otherwise than in private or otherwise than with the consent of the parties or that any of the parties had not attained the age of twenty-one years.
(7) For the purposes of this section a man shall be treated as doing a homosexual act if, and only if, he commits buggery with another man or commits an act of gross indecency with another man or is a party to the commission by a man of such an act.’
The offence of gross indecency was created by s 13 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 in the following terms:
‘It is an offence for a man to commit an act of gross indecency with another man, whether in public or private, or to be a party to the commission by a man of an act of gross indecency with another man, or to procure the commission by a man of an act of gross indecency with another man.’
By the 1967 Act Parliament recognised and accepted the practice of homosexuality. Subject to exceptions not here relevant, sexual activities conducted in private between not more than two consenting adults of the same sex or different sexes are now lawful. Homosexual activities performed in circumstances which do not fall within s 1(1) of the 1967 Act remain unlawful. Subject to the respect for private life embodied in the 1967 Act, Parliament has retained criminal sanctions against the practice, dissemination and encouragement of homosexual activities.
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My Lords, the authorities dealing with the intentional infliction of bodily harm do not establish that consent is a defence to a charge under the 1861 Act. They establish that the courts have accepted that consent is a defence to the infliction of bodily harm in the course of some lawful activities. The question is whether the defence should be extended to the infliction of bodily harm in the course of sadomasochistic encounters. The Wolfenden Committee did not make any recommendations about sado-masochism and Parliament did not deal with violence in 1967. The 1967 Act is of no assistance for present purposes because the present problem was not under consideration.
The question whether the defence of consent should be extended to the consequences of sado-masochistic encounters can only be decided by consideration of policy and public interest. Parliament can call on the advice of doctors, psychiatrists, criminologists, sociologists and other experts and can also sound and take into account public opinion. But the question must at this stage be decided by this House in its judicial capacity in order to determine whether the convictions of the appellants should be upheld or quashed.
Counsel for some of the appellants argued that the defence of consent should be extended to the offence of occasioning actual bodily harm under s 47 of the 1861 Act but should not be available to charges of serious wounding and the infliction of serious bodily harm under s 20. I do not consider that this solution is practicable. Sado-masochistic participants have no way of foretelling the degree of bodily harm which will result from their encounters. The differences between actual bodily harm and serious bodily harm cannot be satisfactorily applied by a jury in order to determine acquittal or conviction.
Counsel for the appellants argued that consent should provide a defence to charges under both ss 20 and 47 because, it was said, every person has a right to deal with his body as he pleases. I do not consider that this slogan provides a sufficient guide to the policy decision which must now be made. It is an offence for a person to abuse his own body and mind by taking drugs. Although the law is often broken, the criminal law restrains a practice which is regarded as dangerous and injurious to individuals and which if allowed and extended is harmful to society generally. In any event the appellants in this case did not mutilate their own bodies. They inflicted bodily harm on willing victims. Suicide is no longer an offence but a person who assists another to commit suicide is guilty of murder or manslaughter.
The assertion was made on behalf of the appellants that the sexual appetites of sadists and masochists can only be satisfied by the infliction of bodily harm and that the law should not punish the consensual achievement of sexual satisfaction. There was no evidence to support the assertion that sado-masochist activities are essential to the happiness of the appellants or any other participants but the argument would be acceptable if sado-masochism were only concerned with sex as the appellants contend. In my opinion sado-masochism is not only concerned with sex. Sado-masochism is also concerned with violence. The evidence discloses that the practices of the appellants were unpredictably dangerous and degrading to body and mind and were developed with increasing barbarity and taught to persons whose consents were dubious or worthless.
A sadist draws pleasure from inflicting or watching cruelty. A masochist derives pleasure from his own pain or humiliation. The appellants are middle-aged men. The victims were youths some of whom were introduced to sadomasochism before they attained the age of 21. In his judgment in the Court of Appeal, Lord Lane CJ said that two members of the group of which the appellants formed part, namely one Cadman and the appellant Laskey—
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‘were responsible in part for the corruption of a youth “K” … It is some comfort at least to be told, as we were, that “K” has now it seems settled into a normal heterosexual relationship. Cadman had befriended “K” when the boy was 15 years old. He met him in a cafeteria and, so he says, found out that the boy was interested in homosexual activities. He introduced and encouraged “K” in “bondage” affairs. He was interested in viewing and recording on video tape “K” and other teenage boys in homosexual scenes … One cannot overlook the danger that the gravity of the assaults and injuries in this type of case may escalate to even more unacceptable heights.’ (See 94 Cr App R 302 at 310.)
The evidence disclosed that drink and drugs were employed to obtain consent and increase enthusiasm. The victim was usually manacled so that the sadist could enjoy the thrill of power and the victim could enjoy the thrill of helplessness. The victim had no control over the harm which the sadist, also stimulated by drink and drugs, might inflict. In one case a victim was branded twice on the thigh and there was some doubt as to whether he consented to or protested against the second branding. The dangers involved in administering violence must have been appreciated by the appellants because, so it was said by their counsel, each victim was given a code word which he could pronounce when excessive harm or pain was caused. The efficiency of this precaution, when taken, depends on the circumstances and on the personalities involved. No one can feel the pain of another. The charges against the appellants were based on genital torture and violence to the buttocks, anus, penis, testicles and nipples. The victims were degraded and humiliated, sometimes beaten, sometimes wounded with instruments and sometimes branded. Bloodletting and the smearing of human blood produced excitement. There were obvious dangers of serious personal injury and blood infection. Prosecuting counsel informed the trial judge against the protests of defence counsel that, although the appellants had not contracted AIDS, two members of the group had died from AIDS and one other had contracted an HIV infection although not necessarily from the practices of the group. Some activities involved excrement. The assertion that the instruments employed by the sadists were clean and sterilised could not have removed the danger of infection, and the assertion that care was taken demonstrates the possibility of infection. Cruelty to human beings was on occasions supplemented by cruelty to animals in the form of bestiality. It is fortunate that there were no permanent injuries to a victim though no one knows the extent of harm inflicted in other cases. It is not surprising that a victim does not complain to the police when the complaint would involve him in giving details of acts in which he participated. Doctors of course are subject to a code of confidentiality.
In principle there is a difference between violence which is incidental and violence which is inflicted for the indulgence of cruelty. The violence of sadomasochistic encounters involves the indulgence of cruelty by sadists and the degradation of victims. Such violence is injurious to the participants and unpredictably dangerous. I am not prepared to invent a defence of consent for sado-masochistic encounters which breed and glorify cruelty and result in offences under ss 47 and 20 of the 1861 Act.
The appellants’ counsel complained that some of the group’s activities involved the appellants in offences of gross indecency which, happily for the appellants, became time-barred before the police obtained video films made by members of the group of some of their activities. Counsel submitted that, since gross indecency charges were time-barred, the police acted unfairly when they charged the
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appellants with offences under the 1861 Act. But there was no reason for the police to refrain from pursuing the charges under the 1861 Act merely because other charges could not be pursued. Indecency charges are connected with sex. Charges under the 1861 Act are concerned with violence. The violence of sadists and the degradation of their victims have sexual motivations but sex is no excuse for violence.
The appellants’ counsel relied, somewhat faintly, on art 7 of the European Convention on Human Rights (see the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969)). That article, so far as material, provides:
‘1. No one shall be guilty of any criminal offence on account of any act or omission which did not constitute a criminal offence under national or international law at the time when it was committed …’
At the relevant time it was a criminal offence under English law to inflict actual bodily harm or worse. Counsel submitted that the appellants reasonably believed that consent was a defence. This was an ingenious argument for which there was no foundation in fact or principle and which in any event does not seem to me to provide a defence under art 7.
The appellants’ counsel relied on art 8 of the convention, which is in these terms.
‘1. Everyone has the right to respect for his private and family life, his home and his correspondence.
2. There shall be no interference by a public authority with the exercise of this right except such as is in accordance with the law and is necessary in a democratic society in the interests of natural security, public safety or the economic well-being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’
It is not clear to me that the activities of the appellants were exercises of rights in respect of private and family life. But assuming that the appellants are claiming to exercise those rights I do not consider that art 8 invalidates a law which forbids violence which is intentionally harmful to body and mind.
Society is entitled and bound to protect itself against a cult of violence. Pleasure derived from the infliction of pain is an evil thing. Cruelty is uncivilised. I would answer the certified question in the negative and dismiss the appeals of the appellants against conviction.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, all five appellants and a number of other persons were charged with offences against s 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861, and the appellants Laskey, Jaggard and Lucas were also charged with contraventions of s 20 of that Act. The events giving rise to all the charges were sado-masochistic homosexual activities carried out consensually by the appellants with each other and with other persons. Following upon a ruling of the trial judge that consent of the other participant (the receiver) was no defence to the charges the appellants pleaded guilty and were duly sentenced. Their appeals against the judge’s ruling were dismissed by the Court of Appeal, which certified the following point of law as being of general public importance:
‘Where A wounds or assaults B occasioning him actual bodily harm in the course of a sadomasochistic encounter, does the prosecution have to prove
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lack of consent on the part of B before they can establish A’s guilt under section 20 or section 47 of the 1861, Offences Against the Person Act.’
Although the issue of consent was fundamental and indeed common to all five appeals the appellants did not lack for representation since no less than four Queen’s Counsel and one junior counsel addressed your Lordships on their behalf on different aspects of this matter.
The facts giving rise to the charges came to light as a result of police investigation into other matters. It was common ground that the receivers had neither complained to the police nor suffered any permanent injury as a result of the activities of the appellants. Although the incidents giving rise to each charge were the subject of a video-recording, these recordings were made not for sale at a profit but for the benefit of those members of the ‘ring’, if one may so describe it, who had not had the opportunity of witnessing the events in person. Your Lordships were further informed that the activities of the appellants, who are middle-aged men, were conducted in secret and in a highly controlled manner, that code words were used by the receiver when he could no longer bear the pain inflicted upon him and that when fish-hooks were inserted through the penis they were sterilised first. None of the appellants however had any medical qualifications and there was, of course, no referee present such as there would be in a boxing or football match.
The basic argument propounded by all the appellants was that the receivers having in every case consented to what was inflicted upon them no offence had been committed against s 20 or s 47 of the 1861 Act. All the appellants recognised however that so broad a proposition could not stand up and that there must be some limitation upon the harm which an individual could consent to receive at the hand of another. The line between injuries to the infliction of which an individual could consent and injuries to whose infliction he could not consent must be drawn it was argued where the public interest required. Thus except in the case of regulated sports the public interest required that injuries should not be inflicted in public where they might give rise to a breach of the peace. Baroness Mallalieu QC, for Jaggard argued that injuries to which consent would be irrelevant were those which resulted in actual expense to the public by reason, for example, of the expenses of hospital or other medical treatment, or payment of some benefit. Such injuries would be likely to be serious and to be appropriate to a s 20 charge, whereas the consensual infliction of less serious injuries would not constitute an offence. Furthermore the presence of hostility was an essential element in the offence of assault, which element was necessarily lacking where a valid consent was present. Miss Worrall QC for Laskey maintained that everyone had a right to consent to the infliction on himself of bodily harm not amounting to serious harm or maiming, at which point public interest intervened. She further argued that having regard to the common law offence of keeping a disorderly house and to the various offences created by the Sexual Offences Acts 1956 to 1976 it was inappropriate to use the 1861 Act for the prosecution of sexual offences because the public interest was adequately looked after by the common law offence and the later Acts. Mr Kershen QC for Brown also argued that the 1861 Act was an inappropriate weapon to use in these cases. He submitted that, while deliberate infliction of injury resulting in serious bodily harm might be an offence whether or not consent was given, deliberate consensual wounding would not be an offence if it did not cause serious bodily harm. This latter proposition would appear to draw the line somewhere down the middle of s 20. Mr Kershen further argued that if his primary submissions were wrong this
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House should, having regard to the current public interest in freedom of sexual expression, lay down new rules for sado-masochistic activities. Mr Thwaites QC for Carter traced the history of the offence of maiming, which deprived the King of possible service, invited your Lordships to hold that R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207 and A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715, to which I shall refer later, were wrongly decided and submitted that as a matter of principle a man could lawfully consent to the infliction of any injury upon himself which fell short of maiming.
In concluding that the consent of the receivers was immaterial to the offences charged the Court of Appeal relied on three cases, namely R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534, R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207 and A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715. Before examining these cases it is interesting to look at the definitions of ‘maim’ and ‘assault’ in Hawkins’ Pleas of the Crown (1 Hawk PC (8th edn, 1824) ch 15). Maiming is defined as ‘… such a hurt of any part of a man’s body whereby he is rendered less able, in fighting, either to defend himself or to annoy his adversary …’ (see p 107, s 1). Examples are then given. Assault is defined as ‘… an attempt to offer, with force and violence, to do a corporal hurt to another’ (see p 110, s 1) and battery as ‘… any injury whatsoever be it never so small, being actually done to the person of a man in an angry, revengeful, rude, or insolent manner …’ (see p 110, s 2). It is to be noted that lack of consent of the victim is stated to be a necessary ingredient neither of assault nor of battery. In R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 the 11 judges who heard the case held that a prize-fight was unlawful, that all persons aiding and abetting therein were guilty of assault and that consent of the persons actually engaged in fighting to the interchange of blows did not afford any answer to the criminal charge of common assault. The appellants were spectators at an organised fight between two men near a public road. Cave J said (at 539):
‘The true view is, I think, that a blow struck in anger, or which is likely or is intended to do corporal hurt, is an assault, but that a blow struck in sport, and not likely, nor intended to cause bodily harm, is not an assault, and that, an assault being a breach of the peace and unlawful, the consent of the person struck is immaterial. If this view is correct a blow struck in a prize-fight is clearly an assault; but playing with single-sticks or wrestling do not involve an assault; nor does boxing with gloves in the ordinary way, and not with the ferocity and severe punishment to the boxers deposed to in Reg. v. Orton ((1878) 39 LT 293).’
Stephen J said (at 549):
‘The principle as to consent seems to me to be this: When one person is indicted for inflicting personal injury upon another, the consent of the person who sustains the injury is no defence to the person who inflicts the injury, if the injury is of such a nature, or is inflicted under such circumstances, that its infliction is injurious to the public as well as to the person injured. But the injuries given and received in prize-fights are injurious to the public, both because it is against the public interest that the lives and the health of the combatants should be endangered by blows, and because prize-fights are disorderly exhibitions, mischievous on many obvious grounds. Therefore the consent of the parties to the blows which they mutually received does not prevent those blows from being assaults.’
In this passage Stephen J clearly considered that prize-fights were likely to cause breaches of the peace and that no consent could render fights with such a result lawful. In a later passage he said:
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‘In cases where life and limb are exposed to no serious danger in the common course of things, I think that consent is a defence to a charge of assault, even when considerable force is used, as, for instance, in cases of wrestling, single-stick, sparring with gloves, football, and the like; but in all cases the question whether consent does or does not take from the application of force to another its illegal character, is a question of degree depending upon circumstances.’
In this passage he appears to be considering organised sports where danger to life and limb is merely incidental to the main purpose of the activity. Hawkins J said (at 553):
‘As a general proposition it is undoubtedly true that there can be no assault unless the act charged as such be done without the consent of the person alleged to be assaulted, for want of consent is an essential element in every assault, and that which is done by consent is no assault at all … it is not in the power of any man to give an effectual consent to that which amounts to, or has a direct tendency to create, a breach of the peace; so as to bar a criminal prosecution.’
Hawkins J concluded that every fight in which the object and intent of each of the combatants was to subdue the other by violent blows tending to a breach of the peace was illegal and he distinguished friendly encounters in the follow passage (at 554):
‘The cases in which it has been held that persons may lawfully engage in friendly encounters not calculated to produce real injury to or to rouse angry passions in either, do not in the least militate against the view I have expressed; for such encounters are neither breaches of the peace nor are they calculated to be productive thereof …’
It is obvious that in concluding that prize-fights were unlawful he was influenced mainly, if not entirely, by the fact that they were likely to be productive of breaches of the peace. Furthermore, it would in my view be wrong to treat the first cited dictum of Hawkins J as referring to all assaults irrespective of the gravity thereof. The court was considering a charge of common assault and I do not think that the learned judge was intending to lay down a general principle which was applicable also to assaults charged under s 47 of the 1861 Act or to offences under s 20 thereof. Lord Coleridge CJ similarly concluded that the combatants in a prize-fight could not consent to commit a breach of the peace (at 567).
Although there was unanimity among the judges in R v Coney as to consent in the particular circumstances affording no answer to a charge of assault, there were differing reasons advanced for reaching that conclusion. However, Cave, Stephen and Hawkins JJ and Lord Coleridge CJ all considered that effectual consent could not be given to blows producing or likely to produce a breach of the peace. Stephen J specifically referred to prize-fights being injurious to the public as disorderly exhibitions and it may be assumed that the other three judges also had in mind the public interest in preventing breaches of the peace. Given the fact that the fight took place before a crowd of more than 100 persons the likelihood of a breach of the peace would by itself have been sufficient to negative consent without considering the nature and effect of the blows struck. Nevertheless, Stephen J also considered that it was against the public interest that blows should endanger the health of the combatants. Whether he had in mind only blows which produced a maim is not stated although in the editions of his Digest of the
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Criminal Law published before and after R v Coney he stated (3rd edn (1883) pp 141–142, art 206): ‘Every one has a right to consent to the infliction upon himself of bodily harm not amounting to a maim.' I do not find great assistance in R v Coney towards the immediate resolution of the questions raised in these appeals where the offences charged were statutory and where no question of breach of the peace arose. I would therefore sum up my analysis of R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 by concluding that it is authority for the proposition that the public interest limits the extent to which an individual may consent to infliction upon himself by another of bodily harm and that such public interest does not intervene in the case of sports where any infliction of injury is merely incidental to the purpose of the main activity.
In R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207 the appellant was charged with indecent and common assault upon a girl whom he had beaten with her consent for his own sexual gratification. In delivering the judgment of the Court of Criminal Appeal Swift J, after citing the passage in the judgment of Cave J in R v Coney 8 QBD 534 at 539, to which I have already referred, said ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 507, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210):
‘If an act is unlawful in the sense of being in itself a criminal act, it is plain that it cannot be rendered lawful because the person to whose detriment it is done consents to it. No person can license another to commit a crime. So far as the criminal law is concerned, therefore, where the act charged is in itself unlawful, it can never be necessary to prove absence of consent on the part of the person wronged in order to obtain the conviction of the wrongdoer. There are, however, many acts in themselves harmless and lawful which become unlawful only if they are done without the consent of the person affected. What is, in one case, an innocent act of familiarity or affection, may, in another, be an assault, for no other reason than that, in the one case there is consent, and in the other consent is absent. As a general rule, although it is a rule to which there are well established exceptions, it is an unlawful act to beat another person with such a degree of violence that the infliction of bodily harm is a probable consequence, and when such an act is proved, consent is immaterial.’
Swift J also observed that the passage from Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law which I have quoted above needed considerable qualification in 1934. He went on to consider exceptions to the general rule that an act likely or intended to cause bodily harm is an unlawful act. Such exceptions included friendly contests with cudgels, foils or wrestling which were capable of causing bodily harm, rough and undisciplined sports or play where there was no anger and no intention to cause bodily harm and reasonable chastisement by a parent or a person in loco parentis. He might also have added necessary surgery. After referring to the fact that if the appellant acted so as to cause bodily harm he could not plead the gratification of his perverted desires as an excuse, Swift J said ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 509, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 211–212):
‘Always supposing, therefore, that the blows which he struck were likely or intended to do bodily harm, we are of opinion that he was doing an unlawful act, no evidence having been given of facts which would bring the case within any of the exceptions to the general rule. In our view, on the evidence given at the trial, the jury should have been directed that, if they were satisfied that the blows struck by the prisoner were likely or intended to do bodily harm to the prosecutrix, they ought to convict him, and that it
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was only if they were not so satisfied, that it became necessary to consider the further question whether the prosecution had negatived consent. For this purpose we think that “bodily harm” has its ordinary meaning and includes any hurt or injury calculated to interfere with the health or comfort of the prosecutor. Such hurt or injury need not be permanent, but must, no doubt, be more than merely transient and trifling.’
It is clear from the report that the girl did in fact suffer actual bodily harm.
In A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715 the respondent and the victim had a fist-fight in a public street which resulted in actual bodily harm to the victim. The respondent was charged with assault causing actual bodily harm and was acquitted. The question referred to the Court of Appeal was ([1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1058, [1981] QB 715 at 717):
‘Where two persons fight (otherwise than in the course of sport) in a public place can it be a defence for one of those persons to a charge of assault arising out of the fight that the other consented to fight?’
The court answered the question in the negative. Lord Lane CJ said ([1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 718–719):
‘Bearing in mind the various cases and the views of the textbook writers cited to us, and starting with the proposition that ordinarily an act consented to will not constitute an assault, the question is: at what point does the public interest require the court to hold otherwise?’
He later said ([1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 719):
‘The answer to this question, in our judgment, is that it is not in the public interest that people should try to cause or should cause each other actual bodily harm for no good reason. Minor struggles are another matter. So, in our judgment, it is immaterial whether the act occurs in private or in public; it is an assault if actual bodily harm is intended and/or caused. This means that most fights will be unlawful regardless of consent. Nothing which we have said is intended to cast doubt on the accepted legality of properly conducted games and sports, lawful chastisement or correction, reasonable surgical interference, dangerous exhibitions etc. These apparent exceptions can be justified as involving the exercise of a legal right, in the case of chastisement or correction, or as needed in the public interest, in the other cases.’
Although the reasoning in these two cases differs somewhat, the conclusion from each of them is clear, namely that the infliction of bodily harm without good reason is unlawful and that the consent of the victim is irrelevant. In R v Boyea (1992) 156 JP 505 at 512–513, in which the appellant was convicted of indecent assault on a woman, Glidewell LJ, giving the judgment of the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, said:
‘The central proposition in Donovan ([1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207) is in our view consistent with the decision of the court in the Attorney-General’s Reference [A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715]. That proposition can be expressed as follows: an assault intended or which is likely to cause bodily harm, accompanied by indecency, is an offence irrespective of consent, provided that the injury is not “transient or trifling”.’
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Glidewell LJ went on to point out that having regard to the change in social attitude towards sexual relations ‘transient and trivial’ must be understood in the light of conditions prevailing in 1992 rather than in 1934.
Before considering whether the above four cases were correctly decided and if so what relevance they have to these appeals, I must say a word about hostility. It was urged upon your Lordships that hostility on the part of the inflicter was an essential ingredient of assault and that this ingredient was necessarily lacking when injury was inflicted with the consent of the receiver. It followed that none of the activities in question constituted assault. The answer to this submission is to be found in the judgment of the Court of Appeal in Wilson v Pringle [1986] 2 All ER 440 at 447, [1987] QB 237 at 253, where it was said, that hostility could not be equated with ill-will or malevolence. The judgment went on to state ([1986] 2 All ER 440 at 448, [1987] QB 237 at 253):
‘Take the example of the police officer in Collins v Wilcock [1984] 3 All ER 374, [1984] 1 WLR 1172. She touched the woman deliberately, but without an intention to do more than restrain her temporarily. Nevertheless, she was acting unlawfully and in that way was acting with hostility.’
If the appellants’ activities in relation to the receivers were unlawful they were also hostile and a necessary ingredient of assault was present.
It was accepted by all the appellants that a line had to be drawn somewhere between those injuries to which a person could consent to infliction upon himself and those which were so serious that consent was immaterial. They all agreed that assaults occasioning actual bodily harm should be below the line but there was disagreement as to whether all offences against s 20 of the 1861 Act should be above the line or only those resulting in grievous bodily harm. The four English cases to which I have referred were not concerned with the distinction between the various types of assault and did not therefore have to address the problem raised in these appeals. However it does appear that in R v Donovan, A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) and R v Boyea the infliction of actual bodily harm was considered to be sufficient to negative any consent. Indeed in R v Donovan and R v Boyea such injuries as were sustained by the two women could not have been described as in any way serious. Cave J in R v Coney appeared to take the same view. On the other hand, Stephen J in R v Coney appeared to consider that it required serious danger to life and limb to negative consent, a view which broadly accords with the passage in his digest to which I have already referred. A similar view was expressed by McInerney J in the Supreme Court of Victoria in Pallante v Stadiums Pty Ltd (No 1) [1976] VR 331.
I prefer the reasoning of Cave J in R v Coney and of the Court of Appeal in the later three English cases which I consider to have been correctly decided. In my view the line properly falls to be drawn between assault at common law and the offence of assault occasioning actual bodily harm created by s 47 of the 1861 Act, with the result that consent of the victim is no answer to anyone charged with the latter offence or with a contravention of s 20 unless the circumstances fall within one of the well-known exceptions such as organised sporting contests and games, parental chastisement or reasonable surgery. There is nothing in ss 20 and 47 of the 1861 Act to suggest that consent is either an essential ingredient of the offences or a defence thereto. If consent is to be an answer to a charge under s 47 but not to one under s 20, considerable practical problems would arise. It was held in R v Savage, R v Parmenter [1991] 4 All ER 698 at 711, [1992] 1 AC 699 at 740 that a verdict of guilty of assault occasioning actual bodily harm is a
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permissible alternative verdict on a count alleging unlawful wounding contrary to s 20 (per Lord Ackner). A judge charging a jury in a s 20 case would therefore not only have to direct them as to the alternative verdict available under s 47, but also as to the consequences of consent in relation to that alternative only. Such direction would be more complex if consent was an answer to wounding under s 20 but not to the infliction of grievous bodily harm under the same section. These problems would not arise if consent is an answer only to common assault. I would therefore dispose of these appeals on the basis that the infliction of actual or more serious bodily harm is an unlawful activity to which consent is no answer. In reaching this conclusion I have not found it necessary to rely on the fact that the activities of the appellants were in any event unlawful inasmuch as they amounted to acts of gross indecency which, not having been committed in private, did not fall within s 1(1) of the Sexual Offences Act 1967. Notwithstanding the views which I have come to, I think it right to say something about the submissions that consent to the activity of the appellants would not be injurious to the public interest.
Considerable emphasis was placed by the appellants on the well-ordered and secret manner in which their activities were conducted and upon the fact that these activities had resulted in no injuries which required medical attention. There was, it was said, no question of proselytising by the appellants. This latter submission sits ill with the following passage in the judgment of Lord Lane CJ (94 Cr App R 302 at 310):
‘They [Laskey and Cadman] recruited new participants: they jointly organised proceedings at the house where much of this activity took place; where much of the pain inflicting equipment was stored. Cadman was a voyeur rather than a sado-masochist, but both he and Laskey through their operations at the Horwich premises were responsible in part for the corruption of a youth “K” to whom the judge, rightly in our view, paid particular attention. It is some comfort at least to be told, as we were, that “K” is now it seems settled into a normal heterosexual relationship.’
Be that as it may, in considering the public interest it would be wrong to look only at the activities of the appellants alone, there being no suggestion that they and their associates are the only practitioners of homosexual sado-masochism in England and Wales. This House must therefore consider the possibility that these activities are practised by others and by others who are not so controlled or responsible as the appellants are claimed to be. Without going into details of all the rather curious activities in which the appellants engaged, it would appear to be good luck rather than good judgment which has prevented serious injury from occurring. Wounds can easily become septic if not properly treated, the free flow of blood from a person who is HIV positive or who has AIDS can infect another and an inflicter who is carried away by sexual excitement or by drink or drugs could very easily inflict pain and injury beyond the level to which the receiver had consented. Your Lordships have no information as to whether such situations have occurred in relation to other sado-masochistic practitioners. It was no doubt these dangers which caused Baroness Mallalieu to restrict her propositions in relation to the public interest to the actual rather than the potential result of the activity. In my view such a restriction is quite unjustified. When considering the public interest potential for harm is just as relevant as actual harm. As Mathew J said in R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 at 547:
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‘There is, however, abundant authority for saying that no consent can render that innocent which is in fact dangerous.’
Furthermore, the possibility of proselytisation and corruption of young men is a real danger even in the case of these appellants and the taking of video-recordings of such activities suggests that secrecy may not be as strict as the appellants claimed to your Lordships. If the only purpose of the activity is the sexual gratification of one or both of the participants what then is the need of a video-recording?
My Lords I have no doubt that it would not be in the public interest that deliberate infliction of actual bodily harm during the course of homosexual sado-masochistic activities should be held to be lawful. In reaching this conclusion I have regard to the information available in these appeals and of such inferences as may be drawn therefrom. I appreciate that there may be a great deal of information relevant to these activities which is not available to your Lordships. When Parliament passed the Sexual Offences Act 1967 which made buggery and acts of gross indecency between consenting males lawful it had available the Report of the Committee on Homosexual Offences and Prostitution (the Wolfenden Report) (Cmnd 247 (1957)), which was the product of an exhaustive research into the problem. If it is to be decided that such activities as the nailing by A of B’s foreskin or scrotum to a board or the insertion of hot wax into C’s urethra followed by the burning of his penis with a candle or the incising of D’s scrotum with a scalpel to the effusion of blood are injurious neither to B, C and D nor to the public interest then it is for Parliament with its accumulated wisdom and sources of information to declare them to be lawful.
Two further matters only require to be mentioned. There was argument as to whether consent, where available, was a necessary ingredient of the offence of assault or merely a defence. There are conflicting dicta as to its effect. In R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 at 549 Stephen J referred to consent as being ‘no defence’, whereas in A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1058, [1981] QB 715 at 718 Lord Lane CJ referred to the onus being on the prosecution to negative consent. In Collins v Wilcock [1984] 3 All ER 374 at 378, [1984] 1 WLR 1172 at 1177 Robert Goff LJ referred to consent being a defence to a battery. If it were necessary, which it is not, in this appeal to decide which argument was correct I would hold that consent was a defence to but not a necessary ingredient in assault.
The second matter is the argument that the appellants should have been charged under the Sexual Offences Act 1956 and not under the 1861 Act. The appellants could within the time limit have been charged under the 1956 Act with committing acts of gross indecency. However that Act contained no provision limiting the effect of ss 20 and 47 of the 1861 Act to offences unconnected with sex. The Wolfenden Report in considering gross indecency between males took the view that it usually took one of three forms, of which none involved the deliberate infliction of injury. Your Lordships were referred to no material which suggested that Parliament, when enacting the 1967 Act, had in contemplation the type of activities engaged in by the appellants. These activities necessarily comprehended acts of gross indecency as referred to in s 13 of the 1956 Act and s 1(7) of the 1967 Act. However, the Wolfenden Report para 105 states that from police reports seen by the committee and other evidence acts of gross indecency usually take one of the three forms in which none involves violence or injury. The activities of the appellants thus went far beyond the sort of conduct contemplated by the legislature in the foregoing statutory provisions and I consider that they were unlawful even when carried out in private. In these
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circumstances there exists no reason why the appellants should not have been charged under the 1861 Act.
I cannot usefully add anything to what my noble and learned friend Lord Templeman has said in relation to the appellants’ argument on arts 7 and 8 of the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedom (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969).
My Lords, I would answer the certified question in the negative and dismiss the appeals.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches of your Lordships. I agree with the reasoning and conclusions of my noble and learned friends Lord Templeman and Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle and I, too, would answer the certified question in the negative and dismiss the appeals.
In stating my own further reasons for this view I shall address myself exclusively to the cases in which, as has been informally agreed, one person has acted upon another in private, occasioning him actual bodily harm but nothing worse.
The appellants’ main point is that, contrary to the view of the trial judge and the Court of Appeal, the consent of the victim, as I shall call the willing recipient of the sado-masochistic treatment, constitutes a defence to the charges of assault occasioning actual bodily harm contrary to s 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 and of wounding contrary to s 20 of the 1861 Act (no more than actual bodily harm being occasioned) or, to put it another way, that, when the victim consents, no such offence of assault or wounding as I have described takes place.
Under the law which formerly held sway (and which has been thoroughly described and analysed by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill) consent was a defence to a charge of common assault but not to a charge of mayhem or maiming. Everyone agrees that consent remains a complete defence to a charge of common assault and nearly everyone agrees that consent of the victim is not a defence to a charge of inflicting really serious personal injury (or ‘grievous bodily harm’). The disagreement concerns offences which occasion actual bodily harm: the appellants contend that the consent of the victim is a defence to one charged with such an offence, while the respondent submits that consent is not a defence. I agree with the respondent’s contention for reasons which I now explain.
The 1861 Act was one of several laudable but untidy Victorian attempts to codify different areas of the law. From the accusation of untidiness I must exempt such measures as the Bills of Exchange Act 1882 and the Sale of Goods Act 1893, but in regard to the 1861 Act I would adopt the words of para 7.4 of the Law Commission’s Consultation Paper No 122, Legislating the Criminal Code: Offences against the Person and General Principles (1992):
‘Sections 18, 20 and 47 of the 1861 Act are not part of a comprehensive legislative code, were not drafted with a view to setting out the various offences with which they deal in a logical or graded manner; in some cases do not create offences, but merely state the punishment for what is regarded as an existing common law offence; and, above all, in so doing employ terminology that was difficult to understand even in 1861. The sections are virtually the only significant part of the extensive series of criminal law statutes passed in 1861 that still remains on the statute book. Those Acts as a whole attracted early criticism, not least from Sir [James] Fitzjames Stephen [in a letter to Sir John Holker, 20 January 1877 cited by Sir Rupert Cross in Glazebrook (ed) Reshaping the Criminal Law (1978) p 10]: “Their arrangement is so obscure, their language so lengthy and cumbrous, and they are based
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upon and assume the existence of so many singular common law principles that no-one who was not already well acquainted with the law would derive any information from reading them.” More recent critics have agreed with these strictures describing the 1861 Act as “piece-meal legislation”, which is a “rag-bag of offences brought together from a wide variety of sources with no attempt, as the draftsman frankly acknowledged, to introduce consistency as to substance or as to form” [see Professor J C Smith in his commentary on R v Parmenter [1991] 2 All ER 225, [1992] 1 AC 699, CA ([1991] Crim LR 43) cited in R v Savage, R v Parmenter [1991] 4 All ER 698 at 721, [1992] 1 AC 699 at 752, HL].’
The 1861 Act has not the form or substance of a true consolidation but, with acknowledgments to the work of C S Greaves QC (Criminal Law Consolidation and Amendment Acts (2nd edn, 1862) pp xxvi, 52–53, 76), Law Commission Consultation Paper No 122 traces s 18 of the 1861 Act to s 4 of the Act 7 Will 4 & 1 Vict c 85 (offences against the person (1837)), s 20 to s 29 of the Act 10 Geo 4, c 34 (offences against the person (Ireland) (1829)) and s 47 to s 29 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1851). I do not think, however, that it would be helpful to your Lordships for me to go further back than the 1861 Act itself.
It follows that the indications to be gathered from the 1861 Act are not precise. Nevertheless, I consider that it contains fairly clear signs that, with regard to the relevance of the victim’s consent as a defence, assault occasioning actual bodily harm and wounding which results in actual bodily harm are not offences ‘below the line’, to be ranked with common assault as offences in connection with which the victim’s consent provides a defence, but offences ‘above the line’, to be ranked with inflicting grievous bodily harm and the other more serious offences in connection with which the victim’s consent does not provide a defence. The sections in question, in their original form, read as follows:
‘18. Whosoever shall unlawfully and maliciously by any Means whatsoever wound or cause any grievous bodily Harm to any Person, or shoot at any Person, or, by drawing a Trigger or in any other Manner, attempt to discharge any Kind of loaded Arms at any Person, with Intent, in any of the Cases aforesaid, to maim, disfigure, or disable any Person, or to do some other grievous bodily Harm to any Person, or with Intent to resist or prevent the lawful Apprehension or Detainer of any Person, shall be guilty of Felony, and being convicted thereof shall be liable, at the Discretion of the Court, to be kept in Penal Servitude for Life or for any Term not less than Three Years,—or to be imprisoned for any Term not exceeding Two Years, with or without Hard Labour, and with or without Solitary Confinement …
20. Whosoever shall unlawfully and maliciously wound or inflict any grievous bodily Harm upon any other Person, either with or without any Weapon or Instrument, shall be guilty of a Misdemeanour, and being convicted thereof shall be liable, at the Discretion of the Court, to be kept in Penal Servitude for the Term of Three Years, or to be imprisoned for any Term not exceeding Two Years, with or without Hard Labour …
47. Whosoever shall be convicted upon an Indictment of any Assault occasioning actual bodily Harm shall be liable, at the discretion of the Court, to be kept in Penal Servitude for the Term of Three Years, or to be imprisoned for any Term not exceeding Two Years, [with] or without Hard Labour; and whosoever shall be convicted upon an Indictment for a common Assault shall be liable, at the Discretion of the Court, to be imprisoned for any Term not exceeding One Year, with or without Hard Labour.’
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I suggest that the following points should be noted. (1) Offences against s 18 were felonies, but offences against ss 20 and 47 were misdemeanours. Therefore s 20 was not associated with s 18 and separated from s 47 by categorisation. (2) Although s 47 appears to describe a less serious offence than s 20, the maximum penalty was the same. Equality was maintained at five years’ imprisonment after the distinction between felony and misdemeanour was abolished. (3) Wounding is associated in ss 18 and 20 with the infliction of grievous bodily harm and is naturally thought of as a serious offence, but it may involve anything from a minor breaking or puncture of the skin to a near fatal injury. Thus wounding may simply occasion actual bodily harm or it may inflict grievous bodily harm. If the victim’s consent is a defence to occasioning actual bodily harm, then, so far as concerns the proof of guilt, the line is drawn, as my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle puts it, ‘somewhere down the middle of s 20’, which I would regard as a most unlikely solution. (4) According to the appellants’ case, if an accused person charged with wounding relies on consent as a defence, the jury will have to find whether anything more than actual bodily harm was occasioned, something which is not contemplated by s 20. (5) The distinction between common assault and all other attacks on the person is that common assault does not necessarily involve significant bodily injury. It is much easier to draw the line between significant injury and some injury than to differentiate between degrees of injury. It is also more logical, because for one person to inflict any injury on another without good reason is an evil in itself (malum in se) and contrary to public policy. (6) That consent is a defence to a charge of common assault is a common law doctrine which the 1861 Act has done nothing to change.
The proposition that the line of ‘victim’s consent’ is regarded as drawn just above common assault gains support from the wording of cl 8(1) of the Bill attached to Law Commission Consultation Paper No 122 (see para 9.10):
‘A person is guilty of assault if—(a) he intentionally or recklessly applies force to or causes an impact on the body of another, (i) without the consent of the other; or (ii) where the act is likely or intended to cause injury, with or without the consent of the other; or (b) he intentionally or recklessly, without the consent of the other, causes the other to believe that any such force or impact is imminent.’
My Lords, on looking at the cases, I get little help from R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534, which was much canvassed at the hearing of the appeal and on which your Lordships, necessarily, have commented. The case contains a number of inconclusive and sometimes conflicting statements, but it was generally agreed (the charge being one of common assault) that consent was no defence to that which amounted to, or had a direct tendency to create, a breach of the peace. The only support for the present appellants is found in the judgment of Stephen J (at 549):
‘In cases where life and limb are exposed to no serious danger in the common course of things, I think that consent is a defence to a charge of assault, even when considerable force is used …’
The learned judge developed this view in his Digest of the Criminal Law, where he stated that consent was a defence to a charge of assault occasioning actual bodily harm. Archbold Criminal Pleading Evidence and Practice adopted that statement, for which there is no other judicial authority, until it was disapproved in R v Donovan
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[1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207 and the editor of later editions of Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law has abandoned the distinguished author’s proposition.
In R v Donovan the appellant had been convicted on two counts, indecent assault and common assault. The only issue of fact was whether the victim consented. The chairman of quarter sessions rightly told the jury that the case depended on the issue of consent. The jury must have rejected the appellant’s evidence, but the Court of Criminal Appeal held that the chairman had misdirected the jury as to the burden of proof on the consent issue and quashed the conviction. It was obvious what had to be done once the court found misdirection on the vital issue, but it is instructive to note what happened. Lord Hewart CJ is reported as saying at the conclusion of argument (25 Cr App R 1 at 4):
‘We have come to the conclusion that this trial, dealing as it did with a revolting matter, was in various ways unsatisfactory. The Court is compelled, however reluctantly, to take the view that in the circumstances this conviction cannot safely be upheld and that this appeal must be allowed. The matter involves, however, more than one question of importance and we propose therefore to give our reasons for our decision upon a later day.’
Five weeks later Swift J delivered the judgment of the court, disposing first of the consent issue and another point (see [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207). He then dealt with the question which has some relevance to the present appeals and which he introduced as follows ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 506, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210):
‘This conclusion would have been enough to dispose of the case were it not for the fact that the learned counsel for the Crown relied in this Court upon the submission which he had unsuccessfully made at the trial, and argued that, this being a case in which it was unnecessary for the Crown to prove absence of consent, this Court ought not to quash the conviction.’
A doctor who gave evidence for the Crown had said that marks on the girl’s body two days after the incident indicated ‘a fairly severe beating’; therefore clearly actual bodily harm had been caused. The judgment continued: ‘We have given careful consideration to the question of law which this submission raises.' Then, having noted observations of Cave J in R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 334 at 539, the judge said ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 507, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210–211):
‘We have considered the authorities upon which this view of the learned judge was founded, and we think it of importance that we should state our opinion as to the law applicable in this case. If an act is unlawful in the sense of being in itself a criminal act, it is plain that it cannot be rendered lawful because the person to whose detriment it is done consents to it. No person can license another to commit a crime. So far as the criminal law is concerned, therefore, where the act charged is in itself unlawful, it can never be necessary to prove absence of consent on the part of the person wronged in order to obtain the conviction of the wrongdoer … As a general rule, although it is a rule to which there are well established exceptions, it is an unlawful act to beat another person with such a degree of violence that the infliction of bodily harm is a probable consequence, and when such an act is proved, consent is immaterial. We are aware that the existence of this rule has not always been clearly recognised. In his Digest of the Criminal Law (6th edn, 1904), Art. 227, Sir James FitzJames Stephen enunciates the proposition that “every one has a right to consent to the infliction upon himself of bodily
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harm not amounting to a maim.” This may have been true in early times when the law of this country showed remarkable leniency towards crimes of personal violence, but it is a statement which now needs considerable qualification.’ (My emphasis.)
Having referred to East’s Pleas of the Crown and Foster’s Crown Law (3rd edn, 1809) p 259, Swift J stated ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 508, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 211):
‘If an act is malum in se in the sense in which Sir Michael Foster used the words, that is to say, is, in itself, unlawful, we take it to be plain that consent cannot convert it into an innocent act.’
Having then mentioned the ‘well established exceptions’ to the general rule that an act likely or intended to cause bodily harm is an unlawful act, he continued ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 509, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 211–212):
‘In the present case it was not in dispute that the motive of the appellant was to gratify his own perverted desires. If, in the course of so doing, he acted so as to cause bodily harm, he cannot plead his corrupt motive as an excuse, and it may truly be said of him in Sir Michael Foster’s words that “he certainly beat him with an intention of doing him some bodily harm, he had no other intent,” and that what he did was malum in se. Nothing could be more absurd or more repellent to the ordinary intelligence than to regard his conduct as comparable with that of a participant in one of those “manly diversions” of which Sir Michael Foster wrote. Nor is his act to be compared with the rough but innocent horse-play in Reg. v. Bruce ((1847) 2 Cox CC 262). Always supposing, therefore, that the blows which he struck were likely or intended to do bodily harm, we are of opinion that he was doing an unlawful act, no evidence having been given of facts which would bring the case within any of the exceptions to the general rule. In our view, on the evidence given at the trial, the jury should have been directed that, if they were satisfied that the blows struck by the prisoner were likely or intended to do bodily harm to the prosecutrix, they ought to convict him, and that it was only if they were not so satisfied, that it became necessary to consider the further question whether the prosecution had negatived consent.’
This passage is followed by an explanation why, the question not having been put to the jury, the court did not feel that, consistently with its practice, it could uphold the conviction on the ground argued by Crown counsel.
I find this part of the court’s judgment hard to follow, when I recall the protest made at his trial by Sir Walter Raleigh to Sir Edward Coke ((1603) 2 State Tr 1 at 26): ‘Mr Attorney, you should speak secundum allegata et probata.' The rule that the Crown cannot otherwise recover is a universal proposition, not confined to trials of the high and mighty for treason. The prosecution must both allege and prove. There were two counts in the indictment, to which consent of the victim was a complete defence. If the jury, properly directed, had found that consent was not disproved, they must have acquitted the appellant of the only charges brought against him. How, then, could they have convicted the appellant of either of those charges or of the offence of assault, occasioning actual bodily harm, with which he was not charged? It will not be overlooked that the judgment ran, ‘where the act charged is in itself unlawful’ (see [1934] 2 KB 498 at 507, 1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210).
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Does the second part of the Court of Criminal Appeal’s judgment therefore stand condemned in all respects? My Lords, I suggest not. It clearly indicates the view of the court that assault, occasioning actual bodily harm, is malum in se, an offence for which, absent one of the recognised exceptions, the accused will be convicted, even though the victim consents.
A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715 was relied on by both sides before your Lordships. The charge was one of assault, occasioning actual bodily harm; the fight, between youths of 18 and 17 years, took place in the street; and the question referred was concerned with fighting in public. In giving judgment, however, the court expressly made no distinction between fighting in public and in private. Lord Lane CJ introduced the subject by saying ([1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1058, [1981] QB 715 at 718):
‘We think that it can be taken as a starting point that it is an essential element of an assault that the act is done contrary to the will and without the consent of the victim; and it is doubtless for this reason that the burden lies on the prosecution to negative consent. Ordinarily, then, if the victim consents, the assailant is not guilty.’
Then he said ([1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 718–719):
‘Bearing in mind the various cases and the views of the textbook writers cited to us, and starting with the proposition that ordinarily an act consented to will not constitute an assault, the question is: at what point does the public interest require the court to hold otherwise?’
I would concede that the natural way in which to construe these passages is to the effect that (1) there is no assault if the act is consented to by the victim and (2) where the victim has consented, a factor directed to the public interest is needed in order to make the court hold that an offence has been committed. No doubt this is what caused Professor Glanville Williams in Textbook of Criminal Law (2nd edn, 1983) pp 582–589 to express the view that, by vitiating the effect of the victim’s consent in cases where the occasioning of physical harm seemed to be against the public interest, the courts were extending the law against assault and were legislating judicial paternalism.
Lord Lane CJ then spoke of the need for a ‘partly new approach’ (compared with that found in R v Coney and R v Donovan). He continued ([1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 719):
‘The answer to this question [at what point does the public interest require the court to hold otherwise?], in our judgment, is that it is not in the public interest that people should try to cause, or should cause, each other actual bodily harm for no good reason. Minor struggles are another matter. So, in our judgment, it is immaterial whether the act occurs in private or in public; it is an assault if actual bodily harm is intended and/or caused. This means that most fights will be unlawful regardless of consent.
Nothing which we have said is intended to cast doubt upon the accepted legality of properly conducted games and sports, lawful chastisement or correction, reasonable surgical interference, dangerous exhibitions etc. These apparent exceptions can be justified as involving the exercise of a legal right, in the case of chastisement or correction, or as needed in the public interest, in the other cases.
Our answer to the point of law is No, but not (as the reference implies) because the fight occurred in a public place, but because, wherever it
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occurred, the participants would have been guilty of assault (subject to self-defence) if (as we understand was the case) they intended to and or did cause actual bodily harm.’
The appellants submitted that this pronouncement was confined to fighting but, as Professor Glanville Williams pointed out, the contents of the second paragraph cited above appear to contradict this view. Thus we are left with the proposition that it is not in the public interest that people should try to cause, or should cause, each other actual bodily harm for no good reason and that it is an assault if actual bodily harm is caused (except for good reason).
This principle was adopted in R v McCoy 1953 (2) SA 4 [SR] (although it was not required in order to decide the case), where the manager of an airline caned an air hostess, allegedly with her consent, as a punishment for failing to secure her seat belt when landing, and also by the Court of Appeal in R v Boyea (1992) 156 JP 505. I think that consideration of the 1861 Act and the indications to be derived from the cases together provide strong support for the Crown’s case on the effect of consent on charges involving actual bodily harm. While saying this, I do not forget the danger of applying to a particular situation cases decided by judges who, in reaching their decisions, were not thinking of that situation at all.
Let me now consider the judgment of the Court of Appeal in this case, delivered by Lord Lane CJ (see [1992] 2 All ER 552, [1992] QB 491). First, I agree with the disposal, brief as it was, of the appellants’ argument directed to the word ‘hostility’. On this point I gladly adopt everything which has been said by my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey. I also concur in the summary dismissal of the argument that it was inappropriate for the Crown to have proceeded under the 1861 Act. There was a considerable delay and one may speculate that the prosecuting authorities had cast around for a suitable vehicle for their accusations before finally deciding to proceed under the 1861 Act in this unusual case, but the only way of meeting these charges otherwise than on the merits was to contend that they amounted to an abuse of process. This procedure was not resorted to, which is not surprising in the state of the authorities.
Predictably, the appeal and the judgment in the Court of Appeal were mainly occupied with the effect of the victim’s consent (see [1992] 2 All ER 552 at 557–560, [1992] QB 491 at 497–500). Having cited R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207 Lord Lane CJ drew attention to Kenny’s Outline of Criminal Law (19th edn, 1966) p 209 and Archbold’s Pleading Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (43rd edn, 1988) para 20–124 (see [1992] 2 All ER 552 at 558–599, [1992] QB 491 at 499) and went on to consider A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715. Commenting on that case ([1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 719), he said ([1992] 2 All ER 552 at 559, [1992] QB 491 at 500):
‘What may be “good reason” it is not necessary for us to decide. It is sufficient to say, so far as the instant case is concerned, that we agree with the trial judge that the satisfying of sado-masochistic libido does not come within the category of good reason nor can the injuries be described as merely transient or trifling.’
In the immediately following paragraph of his judgment Lord Lane CJ shows that what he said in A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) was intended by him to be of general application:
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‘It was submitted to us that the facts in that case were so different from those in the instant case that the principle which is expressed in the answer to the Attorney General’s question does not apply to the present circumstances. We disagree. In our judgment the principle as expressed in the reference does apply. Consequently for those reasons the question of consent was immaterial. The judge’s ruling was accordingly correct.’
If, as I, too, consider, the question of consent is immaterial, there are prima facie offences against ss 20 and 47 and the next question is whether there is good reason to add sado-masochistic acts to the list of exceptions contemplated in A-G’s Reference. In my opinion, the answer to that question is No
In adopting this conclusion I follow closely my noble and learned friends Lord Templeman and Lord Jauncey. What the appellants are obliged to propose is that the deliberate and painful infliction of physical injury should be exempted from the operation of statutory provisions the object of which is to prevent or punish that very thing, the reason for the proposed exemption being that both those who will inflict and those who will suffer the injury wish to satisfy a perverted and depraved sexual desire. Sado-masochistic homosexual activity cannot be regarded as conducive to the enhancement or enjoyment of family life or conducive to the welfare of society. A relaxation of the prohibitions in ss 20 and 47 can only encourage the practice of homosexual sado-masochism, with the physical cruelty that it must involve, (which can scarcely be regarded as a ‘manly diversion’) by withdrawing the legal penalty and giving the activity a judicial imprimatur. As well as all this, one cannot overlook the physical danger to those who may indulge in sado-masochism. In this connection, and also generally, it is idle for the appellants to claim that they are educated exponents of ‘civilised cruelty’. A proposed general exemption is to be tested by considering the likely general effect. This must include the probability that some sado-masochistic activity, under the powerful influence of the sexual instinct, will get out of hand and result in serious physical damage to the participants and that some activity will involve a danger of infection such as these particular exponents do not contemplate for themselves. When considering the danger of infection, with its inevitable threat of AIDS, I am not impressed by the argument that this threat can be discounted on the ground that, as long ago as 1967, Parliament, subject to conditions, legalised buggery, now a well-known vehicle for the transmission of AIDS.
So far as I can see, the only counter-argument is that to place a restriction on sado-masochism is an unwarranted interference with the private life and activities of persons who are indulging in a lawful pursuit and are doing no harm to anyone except, possibly, themselves. This approach, which has characterised every submission put forward on behalf of the appellants, is derived from the fallacy that what is involved here is the restraint of a lawful activity as opposed to the refusal to relax existing prohibitions in the 1861 Act. If in the course of buggery, as authorised by the 1967 Act, one participant, either with the other participant’s consent or not, deliberately causes actual bodily harm to that other, an offence against s 47 has been committed. The 1967 Act provides no shield. The position is as simple as that, and there is no legal right to cause actual bodily harm in the course of sado-masochistic activity.
As your Lordships have observed, the appellants have sought to fortify their argument by reference to the European Convention on Human Rights (see the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969)). On the view which I have
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taken, art 7 has no relevance since the question of retrospective legislation or a retrospective judicial decision does not arise. Article 8(1) of the convention states that everyone has the right to respect for his private and family life, his home and his correspondence. The attempt to rely on this article is another example of the appellants’ reversal of the onus of proof of legality, which disregards the effect of ss 20 and 47. I would only say, in the first place, that art 8 is not part of our law. Secondly, there has been no legislation which, being post-convention and ambiguous, falls to be construed so as to conform with the convention rather than to contradict it. And thirdly, if one is looking at art 8(2), no public authority can be said to have interfered with a right (to indulge in sado-masochism) by enforcing the provisions of the 1861 Act. If, as appears to be the fact, sado-masochistic acts inevitably involve the occasioning of at least actual bodily harm, there cannot be a right under our law to indulge in them.
For all these reasons I would answer No to the certified question and would dismiss the appeals.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, this is a case about the criminal law of violence. In my opinion it should be a case about the criminal law of private sexual relations, if about anything at all. Right or wrong, the point is easily made. The speeches already delivered contain summaries of the conduct giving rise to the charges under the Offences against the Person Act 1861 now before the House, together with other charges in respect of which the appellants have been sentenced, and no longer appeal. Fortunately for the reader my Lords have not gone on to describe other aspects of the appellants’ behaviour of a similar but more extreme kind which was not the subject of any charge on the indictment. It is sufficient to say that whatever the outsider might feel about the subject matter of the prosecutions—perhaps horror, amazement or incomprehension, perhaps sadness—very few could read even a summary of the other activities without disgust. The House has been spared the video tapes, which must have been horrible. If the criminality of sexual deviation is the true ground of these proceedings, one would have expected that these above all would have been the subject of attack. Yet the picture is quite different.
The conduct of the appellants and of other co-accused was treated by the prosecuting authorities in three ways. First, there were those acts which fell squarely within the legislation governing sexual offences. These are easily overlooked, because attention has properly been concentrated on the charges which remain in dispute, but for a proper understanding of the case it is essential to keep them in view. Thus, four of the men pleaded guilty either as principals or as aiders and abettors to the charges of keeping a disorderly house. It is worth setting out, with abbreviations, the particulars of a typical charge:
‘[GWC] on divers days between the 1st day of January 1979 and the 5th day of November 1987 at … Bolton, kept a disorderly house to which numerous persons resorted in order to take part in, and who did take part in, acts of sadistic and masochistic violence, and in accompanying acts of a lewd, immoral and unnatural kind. [IW, PJG, Colin Laskey and PJK] at the same times and at the same place did aid, abet, counsel and procure [GWC] to commit the said offence.’
Laskey also pleaded guilty to two counts of publishing an obscene article. The articles in question were video tapes of the activities which formed the subject of some of the counts laid under the 1861 Act.
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The pleas of guilty to these counts, which might be regarded as dealing quite comprehensively with those aspects of Laskey’s sexual conduct which impinged directly on public order, attracted sentences of four years reduced on appeal to 18 months’ imprisonment and three months’ imprisonment respectively. Other persons, not before the House, were dealt with in a similar way.
The two remaining categories of conduct comprised private acts. Some were prosecuted and are now before the House. Others, which I have mentioned, were not. If repugnance to general public sentiments of morality and propriety were the test, one would have expected proceedings in respect of the most disgusting conduct to be prosecuted with the greater vigour. Yet the opposite is the case. Why is this so? Obviously because the prosecuting authorities could find no statutory prohibition apt to cover this conduct. Whereas the sexual conduct which underlies the present appeals, although less extreme, could at least arguably be brought within ss 20 and 47 of the 1861 Act because it involved the breaking of skin and the infliction of more than trifling hurt.
I must confess that this distribution of the charges against the appellants at once sounds a note of warning. It suggests that the involvement of the 1861 Act was adventitious. This impression is reinforced when one considers the title of the statute under which the appellants are charged, ‘Offences against the Person’. Conduct infringing ss 18, 20 and 47 of the 1861 Act comes before the Crown Court every day. Typically it involves brutality, aggression and violence, of a kind far removed from the appellants’ behaviour which, however worthy of censure, involved no animosity, no aggression, no personal rancour on the part of the person inflicting the hurt towards the recipient and no protest by the recipient. In fact, quite the reverse. Of course we must give effect to the statute if its words capture what the appellants have done, but in deciding whether this is really so it is in my opinion legitimate to assume that the choice of the 1861 Act as the basis for the relevant counts in the indictment was made only because no other statute was found which could conceivably be brought to bear upon them.
In these circumstances I find it easy to share the opinion expressed by Wills J in R v Clarence (1888) 22 QBD 23 at 33, [1886–90] All ER Rep 133 at 137, a case where the accused had consensual intercourse with his wife, he knowing and she ignorant that he suffered from gonorrhoea, with the result that she was infected. The case is of general importance, since the Court for Crown Cases Reserved held that there was no offence under ss 47 and 20, since both sections required an assault, of which the wound or grievous bodily harm was the result, and that no assault was disclosed on the facts. For present purposes, however, I need only quote from the report (22 QBD 23 at 30, [1886–90] All ER Rep 133 at 137):
‘… such considerations lead one to pause on the threshold, and inquire whether the enactment under consideration could really have been intended to apply to circumstances so completely removed from those which are usually understood when an assault is spoken of, or to deal with matters of any kind involving the sexual relation or act.’
I too am led to pause on the threshold. Asking myself the same question, I cannot but give a negative answer. I therefore approach the appeal on the basis that the convictions on charges which seem to me so inapposite cannot be upheld unless the language of the statute or the logic of the decided cases positively so demand. Unfortunately, as the able arguments which we have heard so clearly demonstrate, the language of the statute is opaque, and the cases few and unhelpful. To these I now turn.
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I. THE DECIDED CASES
Throughout the argument of the appeal I was attracted by an analysis on the following lines. First, one would construct a continuous spectrum of the infliction of bodily harm, with killing at one end and a trifling touch at the other. Next, with the help of reported cases one would identify the point on this spectrum at which consent ordinarily ceases to be an answer to a prosecution for inflicting harm. This could be called ‘the critical level’. It would soon become plain however that this analysis is too simple and that there are certain types of special situation to which the general rule does not apply. Thus, for example, surgical treatment which requires a degree of bodily invasion well on the upper side of the critical level will nevertheless be legitimate if performed in accordance with good medical practice and with the consent of the patient. Conversely, there will be cases in which even a moderate degree of harm cannot be legitimated by consent. Accordingly, the next stage in the analysis will be to identify those situations which have been identified as special by the decided cases, and to examine them to see whether the instant case either falls within one of them or is sufficiently close for an analogy to be valid. If the answer is negative, then the court will have to decide whether simply to apply the general law simply by deciding whether the bodily harm in the case under review is above or below the critical level, or to break new ground by recognising a new special situation to which the general law does not apply.
For all the intellectual neatness of this method I must recognise that it will not do, for it imposes on the reported cases and on the diversities of human life an order which they do not possess. Thus, when one comes to map out the spectrum of ordinary consensual physical harm, to which the special situations form exceptions, it is found that the task is almost impossible, since people do not ordinarily consent to the infliction of harm. In effect, either all or almost all the instances of the consensual infliction of violence are special. They have been in the past, and will continue to be in the future, the subject of special treatment by the law.
There are other objections to a general theory of consent and violence. Thus, for example, it is too simple to speak only of consent, for it comes in various sorts. Of these, four spring immediately to mind. First, there is an express agreement to the infliction of the injury which was in the event inflicted. Next, there is express agreement to the infliction of some harm, but not to that harm which in the event was actually caused. These two categories are matched by two more, in which the recipient expressly consents not to the infliction of harm, but to engagement in an activity which creates a risk of harm; again, either the harm which actually results, or to something less. These examples do not exhaust the categories, for corresponding with each are situations of frequent occurrence in practice where the consent is not express but implied. These numerous categories are not the fruit of academic over-elaboration, but are a reflection of real life. Yet they are scarcely touched on in the cases, which just do not bear the weight of any general theory of violence and consent.
Furthermore, when one examines the situations which are said to found such a theory it is seen that the idea of consent as the foundation of a defence has in many cases been forced on to the theory, whereas in reality the reason why the perpetrator of the harm is not liable is not because of the recipient’s consent, but because the perpetrator has acted in a situation where the consent of the recipient forms one, but only one, of the elements which make the act legitimate. This concept is clearly expressed in the following extract from the judgment of Robert
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Goff LJ in Collins v Wilcock [1984] 3 All ER 374 at 378, [1984] 1 WLR 1172 at 1177:
‘We are here concerned primarily with battery. The fundamental principle, plain and incontestable, is that every person’s body is inviolate. It has long been established that any touching of another person, however slight, may amount to a battery. So Holt CJ held in 1704 that “the least touching of another in anger is a battery”: see Cole v Turner (1704) Holt KB 108, 90 ER 958. The breadth of the principle reflects the fundamental nature of the interest so protected; as Blackstone wrote in his Commentaries, “the law cannot draw the line between different degrees of violence, and therefore totally prohibits the first and lowest stage of it; every man’s person being sacred, and no other having a right to meddle with it, in any the slightest manner” (see 3 Bl Com (17th edn, 1830) 120). The effect is that everybody is protected not only against physical injury but against any form of physical molestation. But so widely drawn a principle must inevitably be subject to exceptions. For example, children may be subjected to reasonable punishment; people may be subjected to the lawful exercise of the power of arrest; and reasonable force may be used in self-defence or for the prevention of crime. But, apart from these special instances where the control or constraint is lawful, a broader exception has been created to allow for the exigencies of everyday life. Generally speaking, consent is a defence to battery; and most of the physical contacts of ordinary life are not actionable because they are impliedly consented to by all who move in society and so expose themselves to the risk of bodily contact. So nobody can complain of the jostling which is inevitable from his presence in, for example, a supermarket, an underground station or a busy street; nor can a person who attends a party complain if his hand is seized in friendship, or even if his back is (within reason) slapped (see Tuberville v Savage (1669) 1 Mod Rep 3, 86 ER 684). Although such cases are regarded as examples of implied consent, it is more common nowadays to treat them as falling within a general exception embracing all physical contact which is generally acceptable in the ordinary conduct of daily life. We observe that, although in the past it has sometimes been stated that a battery is only committed where the action is “angry, or revengeful, or rude, or insolent” (see 1 Hawk PC (8th edn, 1824) ch 15, s 2), we think that nowadays it is more realistic, and indeed more accurate, to state the broad underlying principle, subject to the broad exception.’
In these circumstances I must accept that the existing case law does not sustain a step-by-step analysis of the type proposed above. This being so I have considered whether there is some common feature of those cases in which consent has been held ineffectual whose presence or absence will furnish an immediate solution when the court is faced with a new situation. The only touchstone of this kind suggested in argument was the notion of ‘hostility’ without which, as Mr Kershen QC maintained, no offence of violence can be made out. This argument, which equates hostility with antagonism, is attractive because antagonism felt by the perpetrator against the recipient, and expressed in terms of violence, is present in the great majority of the offences dealt with by the courts under the 1861 Act. Nevertheless I cannot accept it as a statement of the existing law which leads automatically to a conclusion on the present appeals. It is true that counsel was able to cite a series of cases on indecent conduct with consenting children, beginning with Fairclough v Whipp [1951] 2 All ER 832, in which the absence of
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hostility formed a ground for holding that indecent assaults were not proved. It is however clear to my mind that whatever precise meaning the word was intended to bear in the judgments there delivered it must have been different from the one for which Mr Kershen now contends. The facts were far removed from the present, for the accused persons did nothing to the children but merely persuaded them to do certain acts. They used no force, nor inflicted any physical harm. It is not surprising that no assault was made out, and the decisions do no more than furnish a useful reminder of the care to be taken before punishing repugnant sexual conduct under laws aimed at violence. Furthermore this theory does not fit the situations at the upper end of the scale. The doctor who hastens the end of a patient to terminate his agony acts with the best intentions, and quite without hostility to him in any ordinary sense of the word, yet there is no doubt that notwithstanding the patient’s consent he is guilty of murder. Nor has it been questioned on the argument of the present appeal that someone who inflicts serious harm, because (for example) he is inspired by a belief in the efficacy of a pseudo-medical treatment, or acts in conformity with some extreme religious tenet, is guilty of an offence notwithstanding that he is inspired only by a desire to do the best he can for the recipient. Hostility cannot, as it seems to me, be a crucial factor which in itself determines guilt or innocence, although its presence or absence may be relevant when the court has to decide as a matter of policy how to react to a new situation.
I thus see no alternative but to adopt a much narrower and more empirical approach, by looking at the situations in which the recipient consents or is deemed to consent to the infliction of violence upon him, to see whether the decided cases teach us how to react to this new challenge. I will take them in turn.
1. Death
With the exception of a few exotic specimens which have never come before the courts, euthanasia is in practice the only situation where the recipient expressly consents to being killed. As the law stands today, consensual killing is murder. Why is this so? Professor Glanville Williams (Textbook of Criminal Law (2nd edn, 1983) pp 579–580, §25.16) suggests that the arguments in support are transcendental, and I agree. Believer or atheist, the observer grants to the maintenance of human life an overriding imperative, so strong as to outweigh any consent to its termination. Some believers and some atheists now dissent from this view, but the controversy as to the position at common law does not illuminate our present task, which is to interpret a statute which is aimed at non-lethal violence.
Nor is anything gained by a study of duelling, an activity in which the recipient did not consent to being killed (quite the reverse) but did consent to running the risk. The nineteenth century authorities were not too concerned to argue the criminality of the practice as between principals, but to stamp out this social evil by involving in the criminality those others, such as seconds and surgeons, who helped to perpetuate it. A series of nineteenth century cases, such as R v Rice (1803) 3 East 581, 102 ER 719, reiterated that the dueller who inflicted the fatal wound was guilty of murder, whether he was the challenger or not, and regardless of the fact that the deceased willingly took the risk, but by then it was already very old law—certainly as old as R v Taverner (1619) 3 Bulstr 171, 81 ER 144 where Coke CJ and Croke J expounded the heinousness of the offence with copious reference to the ancients and to Holy Scripture. Killing in cold blood was the sin of Cain, and that was that. There is nothing to help us here.
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2. Maiming
The act of maiming consisted of ‘such a hurt of any part of a man’s body, whereby he is rendered less able, in fighting either to defend himself or to annoy his adversary’ (see 1 Hawk PC (8th edn, 1824) ch 15, p 107, s 1). Maiming was a felony at common law. Self-maiming was also a crime, and consent was no defence to maiming by another. Maiming was also, in certain circumstances, a statutory offence under a series of Acts, now repealed, beginning with the so-called ‘Coventry Act’ (22 & 23 Car 2 c 1 (1670) (maiming)), and continuing as part of a more general prohibition of serious offences against the person until an 1803 Act (43 Geo 3 c 58 (malicious shooting or stabbing)). Then it seems to have disappeared. There is no record of anyone being indicted for maim in modern times, and I doubt whether maiming would have been mentioned in the present case but for the high authority of Sir James Fitzjames Stephen, who as late as 1883, in his Digest of the Criminal Law (3rd edn) pp 141–142, art 206, stated: ‘Everyone has a right to consent to the infliction upon himself of bodily harm not amounting to a maim.' No reported decision or statute was cited in support of this proposition, and the reasoning (according to a footnote) rested upon the assertion that below the level of maiming an injury was no more than an assault, to which consent was a defence.
My Lords, I cannot accept that this antique crime any longer marks a watershed for the interrelation of violence and consent. In the first place the crime is obsolete. The 1861 Act says nothing about it, as it must have done if Parliament had intended to perpetuate maiming as a special category of offence. Furthermore, the rationale of maiming as a distinct offence is now quite out of date. Apparently the permanent disablement of an adult male was criminal because it cancelled him as a fighting unit in the service of his King. I think it impossible to apply this reasoning to the present case.
Finally, the practical results of holding that maim marks the level at what consent ceases to be relevant seem to me quite unacceptable. The point cannot be better made than in terms of the only illustration given by Stephen J in art 206 of his work: ‘It is a maim to strike out a front tooth. It is not a maim to cut off a man’s nose.' Evidently consent would be a defence in the latter instance, but not in the former. This is not in my view a sound basis for a modern law of violence.
3. Prize-fighting, sparring and boxing
Far removed as it is from the present appeal, I must take a little time over prize-fighting, for it furnishes in R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 one of the very few extended judicial analyses of the relationship between violence and consent. By the early part of the nineteenth century it was firmly established that prize-fighting was unlawful notwithstanding the consent of the fighters. It nevertheless continued to flourish. It is therefore not surprising to find that the few and meagrely reported early cases at nisi prius were concerned with the efforts of the courts to stamp out the practice by prosecuting those who were thought to encourage it by acting as seconds or promoters, or just by being present. Although it was at that stage taken for granted that the activity was criminal per se, it is significant that in almost all the cases the accused were charged with riot, affray or unlawful assembly, and that emphasis was given to the tendency of prize-fights to attract large and unruly crowds. We encounter the same theme when at a later stage, in cases such as R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534, R v Young (1866) 31 JP 215 and R v Orton (1878) 39 LT 293, the courts were forced to rationalise the distinction between prize-fighting (unlawful) and sparring between amateurs (lawful). Of
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these cases much the most important was R v Coney. Burke and Mitchell fought in a ring of posts and ropes on private land a short distance from a highway. Upwards of 100 people were present. There was no evidence that the fight was for money or reward. Coney, Gilliam and Tully were in the crowd. Originally, Burke, Mitchell and three spectators and others who did not appeal were charged under an indictment which contained counts against all the accused for riot and other offences against public order, but these were dropped and the trial proceeded on two counts alone, one alleging (against all the accused except Burke) a common assault upon Burke, and the other a kindred count relating to Mitchell. The chairman of quarter sessions left to the jury the question whether this was a prize-fight, with a direction that if so it was illegal and an assault. He also directed that all persons who go to a prize-fight to see the combatants strike each other and who are present when they do so are guilty of an assault. The jury convicted all the accused. The chairman stated for decision by the Court of Crown Cases Reserved the question whether in relation to the three last-named accused his direction was right.
Two issues arose. First, whether the fighting between Burke and Mitchell was an assault. If it was not, none of the accused were guilty of any offence. Second, whether the direction as to the participation of the other three appellants as aiders and abettors was correct. The court was divided on the second issue. But on the first all the judges were agreed that if the proceedings constituted a prize-fight then Burke and Mitchell were guilty of assault irrespective of the fact that they had agreed to fight.
Even at first sight it is clear that this decision involved something out of the ordinary, for the accused were charged, not with any of the serious offences of violence under the 1861 Act but with common assault; and as all concerned in the argument of the present appeal have agreed, in common with the judges in R v Coney itself, consent is usually a defence to such a charge. Furthermore it seems that the degree of harm actually inflicted was thought to be immaterial, for no reference was made to it in the case stated by quarter sessions or (except tangentially) in the judgments of the court. What then was the basis for holding that a prize-fight stood outside the ordinary rules of criminal violence? Of the 11 judges only five went further than to say that the law was well-established. Their reasons were as follows. (1) Prize-fighting is a breach of the peace. The parties may consent to the infliction of blows as a civil wrong, but cannot prevent a breach of the peace from being criminal (see 8 QBD 534 at 538, 549, 553, 567 per Cave, Stephen, Hawkins JJ and Lord Coleridge CJ respectively). As Stephen J put it, prize-fights were ‘disorderly exhibitions, mischievous on many obvious grounds’. (2) The participants are at risk of suffering ferocity and severe punishment, dreadful injuries and endangerment of life, and are encouraged to take the risk by the presence of spectators. It is against the public interest that these risks should be run, whether voluntarily or not (see per Cave and Mathew JJ (at 539, 544)). (3) Fists are dangerous weapons like pistols, and prize-fighting should be proscribed for the same reasons as duelling (see per Mathew J (at 547)).
My Lords, there is nothing here to found a general theory of consensual violence. The court simply identifies a number of reasons why as a matter of policy a particular activity of which consent forms an element should found a conviction for an offence where the level of violence falls below what would normally be the critical level. As Stephen J made clear, the question whether considerations of policy are strong enough to take the case outside the ordinary law depends on whether ‘the injury is of such nature or is inflicted under such
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circumstances that its infliction is injurious to the public’ (at 549). Speaking of duels, Bramwell LJ was later to say in R v Bradshaw (1878) 14 Cox CC 83, at 84–85:
‘… no person can by agreement go out to fight with deadly weapons, doing by agreement what the law says shall not be done, and thus shelter themselves from the consequences of their acts.’ (My emphasis.)
Precisely the same reliance on an empirical or intuitive reference to public policy in substitution for any theory of consent and violence are seen in discussions of amateur sparring with fists and other sports which involve the deliberate infliction of harm. The matter is put very clearly in East’s Pleas of the Crown (1 East PC (1803) ch v, §§ 41–42, pp 268–270):
‘… if death ensue from such [sports] as are innocent and allowable, the case will fall within the rule of excusable homicide; but if the sport be unlawful in itself, or productive of danger, riot, or disorder, from the occasion, so as to endanger the peace, and death ensue; the party killing is guilty of manslaughter … manly sports and exercises which tend to give strength, activity, and skill in the use of arms, and are entered into merely as private recreations among friends, are not unlawful; and therefore persons playing by consent at cudgels, or foils, or wrestling, are excusable if death ensue. For though doubtless it cannot be said that such exercises are altogether free from danger; yet are they very rarely attended with fatal consequences; and each party has friendly warning to be on his guard. And if the possibility of danger were the criterion by which the lawfulness of sports and recreations were to be decided, many exercises must be proscribed which are in common use, and were never heretofore deemed unlawful … But the latitude given to manly exercises of the nature above described, when conducted merely as diversions among friends, must not be extended to legalise prize fightings, public boxing matches and the like, which are exhibited for the sake of lucre, and are calculated to draw together a number of idle disorderly people … And again, such meetings have a strong tendency in their nature to a breach of the peace …’
In his work on Crown Law (3rd edn, 1809) p 230 Sir Michael Foster put the matter in a similar way when he distinguished beneficial recreations such as single-stick fighting from—
‘prize-fighting and … other exertions of courage, strength and activity … which are exhibited for lucre, and can serve no valuable purpose, but on the contrary encourage a spirit of idleness and debauchery.’
Thus, although consent is present in both cases the risks of serious violence and public disorder make prize-fighting something which ‘the law says shall not be done’, whereas the lesser risk of injury, the absence of the public disorder, the improvement of the health and skills of the participants, and the consequent benefit to the public at large combine to place sparring into a different category, which the law says ‘may be done’.
That the court is in such cases making a value judgment, not dependent upon any general theory of consent is exposed by the failure of any attempt to deduce why professional boxing appears to be immune from prosecution. For money, not recreation or personal improvement, each boxer tries to hurt the opponent more than he is hurt himself, and aims to end the contest prematurely by
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inflicting a brain injury serious enough to make the opponent unconscious, or temporarily by impairing his central nervous system through a blow to the midriff, or cutting his skin to a degree which would ordinarily be well within the scope of s 20 of the 1861 Act. The boxers display skill, strength and courage, but nobody pretends that they do good to themselves or others. The onlookers derive entertainment, but none of the physical and moral benefits which have been seen as the fruits of engagement in manly sports. I intend no disrespect to the valuable judgment of McInerney J in Pallante v Stadiums Pty Ltd (No 1) [1976] VR 331 when I say that the heroic efforts of that learned judge to arrive at an intellectually satisfying account of the apparent immunity of professional boxing from criminal process have convinced me that the task is impossible. It is in my judgment best to regard this as another special situation which for the time being stands outside the ordinary law of violence because society chooses to tolerate it.
4. ‘Contact’ sports
Some sports, such as the various codes of football, have deliberate bodily contact as an essential element. They lie at a mid-point between fighting, where the participant knows that his opponent will try to harm him, and the milder sports where there is at most an acknowledgement that someone may be accidentally hurt. In the contact sports each player knows and by taking part agrees that an opponent may from time to time inflict upon his body (for example by a rugby tackle) what would otherwise be a painful battery. By taking part he also assumes the risk that the deliberate contact may have unintended effects, conceivably of sufficient severity to amount to grievous bodily harm. But he does not agree that this more serious kind of injury may be inflicted deliberately. This simple analysis conceals a number of difficult problems, which are discussed in a series of Canadian decisions, culminating in R v Ciccarelli (1989) 54 CCC (3d) 121, on the subject of ice hockey, a sport in which an ethos of physical contact is deeply entrenched. The courts appear to have started with the proposition that some level of violence is lawful if the recipient agrees to it, and have dealt with the question of excessive violence by inquiring whether the recipient could really have tacitly accepted a risk of violence at the level which actually occurred. These decisions do not help us in the present appeal, where the consent of the recipients was express, and where it is known that they gladly agreed, not simply to some degree of harm but to everything that was done. What we need to know is whether, notwithstanding the recipient’s implied consent, there comes a point at which it is too severe for the law to tolerate. Whilst common sense suggests that this must be so, and that the law will not license brutality under the name of sport, one of the very few reported indications of the point at which tolerable harm becomes intolerable violence is in the direction to the jury given by Bramwell LJ in R v Bradshaw (1878) 14 Cox CC 83 that the act (in this case a charge at football) would be unlawful if intended to cause ‘serious hurt’. This accords with my own instinct, but I must recognise that a direction at nisi prius, even by a great judge, cannot be given the same weight as a judgment on appeal, consequent upon full argument and reflection. The same comment may be made about R v Moore (1898) 14 TLR 229.
5. Surgery
Many of the acts done by surgeons would be very serious crimes if done by anyone else, and yet the surgeons incur no liability. Actual consent, or the substitute for consent deemed by the law to exist where an emergency creates a
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need for action, is an essential element in this immunity; but it cannot be a direct explanation for it, since much of the bodily invasion involved in surgery lies well above any point at which consent could even arguably be regarded as furnishing a defence. Why is this so? The answer must in my opinion be that proper medical treatment, for which actual or deemed consent is a prerequisite, is in a category of its own.
6. Lawful correction
It is probably still the position at common law, as distinct from statute, that a parent or someone to whom the parent has delegated authority may inflict physical hurt on his or her child, provided that it does not go too far and is for the purpose of correction and not the gratification of passion or rage: see R v Conner (1835) 7 C & P 438, 173 ER 194, R v Cheeseman (1836) 7 C & P 455, 173 ER 202, R v Hopley (1860) 2 F & F 202, 175 ER 1024, R v Griffin (1869) 11 Cox CC 402. These cases have nothing to do with consent, and are useful only as another demonstration that specially exempt situations can exist and that they can involve an upper limit of tolerable harm.
7. Dangerous pastimes; bravado; mortification
For the sake of completeness I should mention that the list of situations in which one person may agree to the infliction of harm, or to the risk of infliction of harm by another includes dangerous pastimes, bravado (as where a boastful man challenges another to try to hurt him with a blow) and religious mortification. These examples have little in common with one another and even less with the present case. They do not appear to be discussed in the authorities although dangerous pastimes are briefly mentioned and I see no advantage in exploring them here.
8. Rough horseplay
The law recognises that community life (and particularly male community life), such as exists in the school playground, in the barrack-room and on the factory floor, may involve a mutual risk of deliberate physical contact in which a particular recipient (or even an outsider, as in R v Bruce (1847) 2 Cox CC 262) may come off worst, and that the criminal law cannot be too tender about the susceptibilities of those involved. I think it hopeless to attempt any explanation in terms of consent. This is well illustrated by R v Jones (Terence) (1986) 83 Cr App R 375. The injured children did not consent to being thrown in the air at all, nor to the risk that they might be thrown so high as to cause serious injury. They had no choice. Once again it appears to me that as a matter of policy the courts have decided that the criminal law does not concern itself with these activities, provided that they do not go too far. It also seems plain that as the general social appreciation of what is tolerable and of the proper role of the state in regulating the lives of individuals changes with the passage of time, so we shall expect to find that the assumptions of the criminal justice system about what types of conduct are properly excluded from its scope, and about what is meant by going ‘too far’, will not remain constant.
9. Prostitution
Prostitution may well be the commonest occasion for the voluntary acceptance of the certainty, as distinct from the risk, of bodily harm. It is very different from the present case. There is no pretence of mutual affection. The prostitute, as
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beater or beaten, does it for money. The dearth of reported decisions on the application of the 1861 Act clearly shows how the prosecuting authorities have (rightly in my view) tended to deal with such cases, if at all, as offences against public order. Only in R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207 amongst the English cases, has the criminality of sexual beating been explored.
The facts were as follows. The accused met the complainant and immediately asked her: ‘Where would you like to have your spanking, in Hyde Park or in my garage?' Previous telephone conversations had made it clear that he wanted to beat her for sexual gratification. She went with him to his garage, where he caned her in a manner which left seven or eight marks indicative, as a medical witness said, of ‘a fairly severe beating’. He was charged with indecent assault and common assault. The defence was that the girl consented and that it was for the prosecution to prove that she did not. The chairman of quarter sessions directed the jury that the vital issue was ‘consent or no consent’, apparently without giving any guidance on burden of proof. After retiring for an hour the jury asked a question about reasonable belief and consent, which again the chairman answered without reference to burden of proof.
The Court of Criminal Appeal (Lord Hewart CJ, Swift and du Parcq JJ) quashed the conviction. The judgment fell into two entirely distinct parts. The first was concerned with the direction on consent and proceeded on the footing that consent was material to guilt and that the burden was on the Crown to disprove it. This part of the judgment concluded ([1934] 2 KB 498 at 506, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210):
‘It is, in our view, at least possible that [a correct direction] would have resulted in the acquittal of the appellant, and we are, therefore, compelled to come to the conclusion … that the trial was not satisfactory.’
On the face of it this conclusion was fatal to the conviction, but the court went on to consider an argument for the Crown that this was not so, because on the facts the striking of the girl was not an act for which consent afforded a defence; so that the absence of a proper direction upon it made no difference. On this question the court held that it was for the jury to decide whether the situation was such that the consent of the girl was immaterial, and that since the issue had never been left to the jury and the trial had proceeded on the footing that consent was the key to the case, the appeal ought to be decided on the same basis. Accordingly, the direction on consent being unsatisfactory the conviction must be quashed.
How did the court arrive at the opinion that there was an issue for the jury which ought to have been tried? As I understand it, the course of reasoning was as follows. (1) On the basis of a statement of Cave J in R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 at 539 and the old authorities on which it was founded the court was of the opinion—:
‘If an act is unlawful in the sense of being in itself a criminal act, it is plain that it cannot be rendered lawful because the person to whose detriment it is done consents to it. No person can license another to commit a crime. So far as the criminal law is concerned, therefore, where the act charged is in itself unlawful, it can never be necessary to prove absence of consent on the part of the person wronged in order to obtain the conviction of the wrongdoer.’ (See [1934] 2 KB 498 at 507, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210.)
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(2) ‘There are, however, many acts in themselves harmless and lawful which become unlawful only if they are done without the consent of the person affected’ (see [1934] 2 KB 498 at 507, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210). (3) ‘As a general rule, although it is a rule to which there are well established exceptions, it is an unlawful act to beat another person with such a degree of violence that the infliction of bodily harm is a probable consequence, and when such an act is proved, consent is immaterial’ (see [1934] 2 KB 498 at 507, [1934] All ER Rep 207 at 210). (4) The former distinction between maim and other types of injury was out of date. Beating with the intent of doing some bodily harm is malum in se to which consent is not a defence. (5) There are exceptions to this general rule, such as sparring, sport or horseplay. (6) But what happened in the instant case did not fall within any of the established exceptions. (7) For the purpose of the general rule bodily injury meant any hurt or injury calculated to interfere with the health or comfort of the prosecutor; it need not be permanent, but must be more than merely transient or trifling. (8) It was for the jury to decide whether the appellant had inflicted or intended to inflict bodily injury in this sense.
My Lords, the first two of these propositions have more than once been criticised as tautologous. I do not accept this, but will not stay to discuss the point for its seems to me that they are right, as the instances of prize-fighting and duelling make plain, and as all the counsel appearing in the present appeal have agreed. The law simply treats some acts as criminal per se irrespective of consent.
It is with the next stages in the reasoning that I part company. Donovan was charged only with indecent assault, and the latter is an offence to which, it is common ground, consent is a defence. Yet the Court of Criminal Appeal proceeded on the basis that the critical level of violence was that of actual bodily harm, and that the jury should have been directed to decide whether he was guilty of facts establishing an offence under s 47 of the 1861 Act: an offence with which he had not been charged. There is something amiss here. What is amiss is that the dictum of Cave J in R v Coney and the old cases said to support it are taken out of their context, which was in each instance the kind of battery regarded for reasons of public policy as being in a special category which is automatically criminal. Plainly the court in R v Donovan did not put the beating of the complainant into that category, or the appeal would have taken a quite different course. All that the court had to say about the nature of the beating was that it was not, as the present appellants would have us say, in a category which is automatically innocent.
10. Fighting
I doubt whether it is possible to give a complete list of the situations where it is conceivable that one person will consent to the infliction of physical hurt by another, but apart from those already mentioned only one seems worth considering, namely what one may call ‘ordinary’ fighting. This was the subject of A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715. The accused fell into an argument with another youth in a street. They agreed to settle it there and then by a fight, which they did, and as a result the other person suffered a bleeding nose and a bruised face. The accused was charged with common assault. There was no evidence that anyone was present except one bystander, nor that there was any public disorder other than the fight itself. The judge directed the jury that the fight did not necessarily amount to an assault, and that they should consider whether it was a case of both parties agreeing to fight and use only reasonable force. The Attorney General referred for the opinion of the Court of Appeal the question—
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‘Where two persons fight (otherwise than in the course of sport) in a public place can it be a defence for one of those persons to a charge of assault arising out of the fight that the other consented to fight?’
When answering this question the court consciously broke new ground. No reliance was placed on the unsystematic old cases on sparring, or on R v Donovan, or even as I understand it on R v Coney, except as showing that public interest may demand a special response to a special situation. Indeed, the protection of public order, which had been the principal ground for the recognition of prize-fighting as a special category in R v Coney was explicitly discarded. Instead, the court began by stating that in general consent is a defence to a charge of assault, and went on to observe that there might be cases where the public interest demanded otherwise. Such a case existed ‘where people … try to cause or … cause each other bodily harm for no good reason’ (see [1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 719).
My Lords, I am not sure that I can detect here the inconsistency for which this judgment has been criticised. Perhaps it is unduly complicated to suggest that the public interest might annul the defence of consent in certain situations and then in the shape of ‘good reason’ recreate it. Nevertheless I am very willing to recognise that the public interest may sometimes operate in one direction and sometimes in the other. But even if it be correct that fighting in private to settle a quarrel is so much against the public interest as to make it automatically criminal even if the fighter is charged only with assault (a proposition which I would wish to examine more closely should the occasion arise), I cannot accept that the infliction of bodily harm, and especially the private infliction of it, is invariably criminal absent some special factor which decrees otherwise. I prefer to address each individual category of consensual violence in the light of the situation as a whole. Sometimes the element of consent will make no difference and sometimes it will make all the difference. Circumstances must alter cases. For these reasons I consider that the House is free, as the Court of Appeal in the present case was not (being bound by A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980)), to consider entirely afresh whether the public interest demands the interpretation of the 1861 Act in such a way as to render criminal under s 47 the acts done by the appellants.
II. AN UNLAWFUL ACT
A question has arisen, not previously canvassed, whether the appellants are necessarily guilty because their acts were criminal apart from the Offences against the Person Act 1861, and that accordingly a defence of consent which might otherwise have been available as an answer to a charge under s 47 is to be ruled out. This proposition if correct will have some strange practical consequences. First of all, it means that solely because the appellants were guilty of offences under the Sexual Offences Act 1967, with which they had not been charged and of which they could not (because of the time limit) be convicted they can properly be convicted of crimes of violence under a different statute carrying a much larger maximum penalty. The logic of this argument demands that if the prosecution can show that a sexual harming constitutes some other offence, however trifling and however different in character, the prosecution will be able to establish an offence of common assault or an offence under the 1861 Act, even if in its absence the defendant would not be guilty of any offence at all. Surely this cannot be right.
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Moreover, if one returns to offences of the present kind further practical anomalies may be foreseen. Not all grossly indecent acts between males are indictable under the Sexual Offences Act 1956. Thus, if the criminality of conduct such as the present under the Offences against the Person Act 1861 is to depend on whether the conduct is criminal on other grounds, one would find that the penal status of the acts for the purposes of s 47 would depend upon whether they were done by two adult males or three adult males. I can understand why, in relation to a homosexual conduct, Parliament has not yet thought fit to disturb the compromise embodied in the Sexual Offences Act 1967, but am quite unable to see any reason to carry a similar distinction into the interpretation of a statute passed a century earlier, and aimed at quite different evil. Since the point was not raised before the trial judge, and the House has properly not been burdened with all the committal papers, it is impossible to tell whether, if advanced, it might have affected the pleas offered and accepted at the Central Criminal Court, but its potential for creating anomalies in other cases seems undeniable.
I would therefore accede to this argument only if the decided cases so demand. In my opinion they do not, for I can find nothing in them to suggest that the consensual infliction of hurt is transmuted into an offence of violence simply because it is chargeable as another offence. Even in the prize-fighting cases, which come closest to this idea, the tendency of these events to attract a disorderly crowd was relevant not because the fighters might have been charged, if anyone had cared to do so, with the separate offence of causing a breach of the peace, but rather because this factor was a reason why the events were placed as a matter of policy in a category which the law treated as being in itself intrinsically unlawful notwithstanding the presence of consent. I am satisfied that it was in this sense that the courts made reference to the unlawfulness of the conduct under examination, and not to its criminality aliunde.
III. THE EUROPEAN CONVENT10N ON HUMAN RIGHTS
The appellants relied on the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969) for two reasons. First, because it was said to support an argument that the law as it now stood should be interpreted or developed in a sense favourable to the appellants, and, secondly, because in the event of failure before the House the appellants intend to pursue the matter before the European Court of Human Rights, and for this purpose must show that their local remedies have been exhausted.
Two provisions of the convention are called in aid. The first is art 7, the proposition being that the convictions cannot be upheld without making the appellants guilty in respect of acts which were not criminal when they were committed. I am satisfied that this argument is unsound. Many of the acts relied on took place after the decision in A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715, and all of them long postdated R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207. The ruling of the trial judge was perfectly comprehensible in the light of these and other decisions. The law was being applied as it was then understood. If the view which I now propose were to prevail the law would be understood differently. If this happened the appeals would succeed, without any reference to art 7. And if, as I understand to be the case, your Lordships hold that on the law as it already exists the trial judge’s ruling was right, there is no change of any kind, whether retrospective or otherwise, that could possibly infringe art 7.
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The second argument, ably presented by Miss Sharpston, is altogether more substantial. Not of course because the enunciation of a qualified right of privacy in art 8 leads inexorably to a conclusion in the appellants’ favour, since even after all these years the United Kingdom has still failed to comply with its treaty obligation to enact the convention. Nor because I consider that the individual provisions of the convention will always point unequivocally to the right answer in a particular case. Far from it. Emphasis on human duties will often yield a more balanced and sharply-focused protection for the individual than the contemporary preoccupation with human rights. The sonorous norms of the convention, valuable as they unquestionably are in recalling errant states to their basic obligations of decency towards those in their power, are often at the same time too general and too particular to permit a reasoned analysis of new and difficult problems. Article 8 provides a good example. The jurisprudence with which this article, in common with other terms of the convention, is rapidly becoming encrusted shows that in order to condemn acts which appear worthy of censure they have had to be forced into the mould of art 8, and referred to the concept of privacy, for want of any other provision which will serve. I do not deny that the privacy of the conduct was an important element in the present case, but I cannot accept that this fact on its own can yield an answer.
Nevertheless, I believe that the general tenor of the decisions of the European Court of Human Rights does furnish valuable guidance on the approach which the English courts should adopt, if free to do so, and I take heart from the fact that the European authorities, balancing the personal considerations invoked by art 8(1) against the public interest considerations called up by art 8(2), clearly favour the right of the appellants to conduct their private lives undisturbed by the criminal law: a conclusion at which I have independently arrived for reasons which I must now state.
IV. PUBLIC POLICY
The purpose of this long discussion has been to suggest that the decks are clear for the House to tackle completely anew the question whether the public interest requires s 47 of the 1861 Act to be interpreted as penalising an infliction of harm which is at the level of actual bodily harm, but not grievous bodily harm; which is inflicted in private (by which I mean that it is exposed to the view only of those who have chosen to view it); which takes place not only with the consent of the recipient but with his willing and glad co-operation; which is inflicted for the gratification of sexual desire, and not in a spirit of animosity or rage; and which is not engaged in for profit.
My Lords, I have stated the issue in these terms to stress two considerations of cardinal importance. Lawyers will need no reminding of the first, but since this prosecution has been widely noticed it must be emphasised that the issue before the House is not whether the appellants’ conduct is morally right, but whether it is properly charged under the 1861 Act. When proposing that the conduct is not rightly so charged I do not invite your Lordships’ House to indorse it as morally acceptable. Nor do I pronounce in favour of a libertarian doctrine specifically related to sexual matters. Nor in the least do I suggest that ethical pronouncements are meaningless, that there is no difference between right and wrong, that sadism is praiseworthy, or that new opinions on sexual morality are necessarily superior to the old, or anything else of the same kind. What I do say is that these are questions of private morality; that the standards by which they fall to be judged
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are not those of the criminal law; and that if these standards are to be upheld the individual must enforce them upon himself according to his own moral standards, or have them enforced against him by moral pressures exerted by whatever religious or other community to whose ethical ideals he responds. The point from which I invite your Lordships to depart is simply this, that the state should interfere with the rights of an individual to live his or her life as he or she may choose no more than is necessary to ensure a proper balance between the special interests of the individual and the general interests of the individuals who together comprise the populace at large. Thus, whilst acknowledging that very many people, if asked whether the appellants’ conduct was wrong, would reply ‘Yes, repulsively wrong’, I would at the same time assert that this does not in itself mean that the prosecution of the appellants under ss 20 and 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 is well founded.
This point leads directly to the second. As I have ventured to formulate the crucial question, it asks whether there is good reason to impress upon s 47 an interpretation which penalises the relevant level of harm irrespective of consent: ie to recognise sado-masochistic activities as falling into a special category of acts, such as duelling and prize-fighting, which ‘the law says shall not be done’. This is very important, for if the question were differently stated it might well yield a different answer. In particular, if it were to be held that as a matter of law all infliction of bodily harm above the level of common assault is incapable of being legitimated by consent, except in special circumstances, then we would have to consider whether the public interest required the recognition of private sexual activities as being in a specially exempt category. This would be an altogether more difficult question and one which I would not be prepared to answer in favour of the appellants, not because I do not have my own opinions upon it but because I regard the task as one which the courts are not suited to perform, and which should be carried out, if at all, by Parliament after a thorough review of all the medical, social, moral and political issues, such as was performed by the Wolfenden Committee (see the Report of the Committee on Homosexual Offences and Prostitution (Cmnd 247 (1957)). Thus, if I had begun from the same point of departure as my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle I would have arrived at a similar conclusion; but differing from him on the present state of the law, I venture to differ.
Let it be assumed however that we should embark upon this question. I ask myself, not whether as a result of the decision in this appeal, activities such as those of the appellants should cease to be criminal, but rather whether the 1861 Act (a statute which I venture to repeat once again was clearly intended to penalise conduct of a quite different nature) should in this new situation be interpreted so as to make it criminal. Why should this step be taken? Leaving aside repugnance and moral objection, both of which are entirely natural but neither of which are in my opinion grounds upon which the court could properly create a new crime, I can visualise only the following reasons.
(1) Some of the practices obviously created a risk of genito-urinary infection, and others of septicaemia. These might indeed have been grave in former times, but the risk of serious harm must surely have been greatly reduced by modern medical science.
(2) The possibility that matters might get out of hand, with grave results. It has been acknowledged throughout the present proceedings that the appellants’ activities were performed as a prearranged ritual, which at the same time enhanced their excitement and minimised the risk that the infliction of injury would go too far. Of course things might go wrong and really serious injury or
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death might ensue. If this happened, those responsible would be punished according to the ordinary law, in the same way as those who kill or injure in the course of more ordinary sexual activities are regularly punished. But to penalise the appellants’ conduct even if the extreme consequences do not ensue, just because they might have done so, would require an assessment of the degree of risk, and the balancing of this risk against the interests of individual freedom. Such a balancing is in my opinion for Parliament, not the courts; and even if your Lordships’ House were to embark upon it the attempt must in my opinion fail at the outset for there is no evidence at all of the seriousness of the hazards to which sado-masochistic conduct of this kind gives rise. This is not surprising, since the impressive argument of Mr Purnell QC for the Crown did not seek to persuade your Lordships to bring the matter within the 1861 Act on the ground of special risks, but rather to establish that the appellants are liable under the general law because the level of harm exceeded the critical level marking off criminal from non-criminal consensual violence which he invited your Lordships to indorse.
(3) I would give the same answer to the suggestion that these activities involved a risk of accelerating the spread of auto-immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and that they should be brought within the 1861 Act in the interests of public health. The consequence would be strange, since what is currently the principal cause for the transmission of this scourge, namely consenting buggery between males, is now legal. Nevertheless, I would have been compelled to give this proposition the most anxious consideration if there had been any evidence to support it. But there is none, since the case for the Crown was advanced on an entirely different ground.
(4) There remains an argument to which I have given much greater weight. As the evidence in the present case has shown, there is a risk that strangers (and especially young strangers) may be drawn into these activities at an early age and will then become established in them for life. This is indeed a disturbing prospect but I have come to the conclusion that it is not a sufficient ground for declaring these activities to be criminal under the 1861 Act. The element of the corruption of youth is already catered for by the existing legislation; and if there is a gap in it which needs to be filled the remedy surely lies in the hands of Parliament, not in the application of a statute which is aimed at other forms of wrongdoing. As regards proselytisation for adult sado-masochism the argument appears to me circular. For if the activity is not itself so much against the public interest that it ought to be declared criminal under the 1861 Act then the risk that others will be induced to join in cannot be a ground for making it criminal.
Leaving aside the logic of this answer, which seems to me impregnable, plain humanity demands that a court addressing the criminality of conduct such as that of the present should recognise and respond to the profound dismay which all members of the community share about the apparent increase of cruel and senseless crimes against the defenceless. Whilst doing so I must repeat for the last time that in the answer which I propose I do not advocate the decriminalisation of conduct which has hitherto been a crime; nor do I rebut a submission that a new crime should be created, penalising this conduct, for Mr Purnell has rightly not invited the House to take this course. The only question is whether these consensual private acts are offences against the existing law of violence. To this question I return a negative response.
V. CONCLUS10N
Accordingly I would allow these appeals and quash such of the convictions as are now before the House.
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LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division when granting leave to the appellants to appeal to the House of Lords certified that a point of law of general importance was involved in its decision to dismiss the appeal, namely:
‘Where A wounds or assaults B occasioning him actual bodily harm in the course of a sadomasochistic encounter, does the prosecution have to prove lack of consent on the part of B before they can establish A’s guilt under section 20 and section 47 of the 1861, Offences Against the Person Act?’
By s 20: ‘Whosoever shall unlawfully and maliciously wound or inflict any grievous bodily harm upon any other person … shall be liable [to imprisonment]’ and by s 47: ‘Whosoever shall be convicted upon an indictment of any assault occasioning actual bodily harm shall be liable [to imprisonment].' The trial judge ruled as a preliminary issue that:
‘1. It is an assault deliberately to strike or touch another person other than in self-defence with the intention thereby to cause bodily harm, or a fortiori so to act so that bodily harm is thereby caused intentionally or recklessly. 2. Such an act or touching can be excused on the grounds that it was lawfully carried out. Therefore whether consent is an element of the offence itself, or whether it is to be treated as a defence in exception to the general rule that I have stated, it is, accordingly, in some cases a defence to the charge that the subject consented. The circumstances of this case do not permit these defendants to rely on consent as a defence in law if any of them have carried out acts satisfying the conditions under my first heading.’
On the basis of that ruling the appellants pleaded guilty to the charges under s 47 of the 1861 Act (actual bodily harm) and to wounding (though not to inflicting grievous bodily harm) under s 20 of that Act.
Some of the appellants and certain others also pleaded guilty to other offences concerned with keeping a disorderly house, for which longer sentences were imposed than those on the assault charges, and with the publication and possession of obscene or indecent articles, for which sentences of imprisonment were also imposed.
The argument on both sides has proceeded on the basis of earlier authorities that bodily harm means any hurt or injury that is calculated to or does interfere with the health or comfort of the subject but must be more than transient or trifling, that grievous bodily harm means really serious bodily harm and that wounding involves the breaking of the whole skin. Common assault would include any physical touching which did not fall within these categories.
The facts upon which the convictions under appeal were based are sufficiently and clearly set out in the judgment of Lord Lane CJ and fortunately it is not necessary to repeat them. Nor is it necessary to refer to other facts which are mentioned in the papers before the House which can only add to one’s feeling of revulsion and bewilderment that anyone (in this case men, in other cases mutatis mutandis, men and women or women) should wish to do or to have done to him or her the acts so revealed. Some of those other facts, though no less revolting to most people than the facts set out in the charges, could not possibly have constituted an assault in any of the degrees to which I have referred.
The determination of the appeal, however, does not depend on bewilderment or revulsion or whether the right approach for the House in the appeal ought to be liberal or otherwise. The sole question is whether, when a charge of assault is
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laid under the two sections in question, consent is relevant in the sense either that the prosecution must prove a lack of consent on the part of the person to whom the act is done or that the existence of consent by such person constitutes a defence for the person charged.
If, as seems clear on previous authority, it was a general rule of the common law that any physical touching could constitute a battery, there was an exception where the person touched expressly or impliedly consented. As Robert Goff LJ put it in Collins v Wilcock [1984] 3 All ER 374 at 378, [1984] 1 WLR 1172 at 1177: ‘Generally speaking, consent is a defence to battery …’ As the word ‘generally’ suggests, the exception was itself subject to exceptions. Thus in Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law (3rd edn, 1883) pp 141–142, art 206 it is stated: ‘Every one has a right to consent to the infliction upon himself of bodily harm not amounting to a maim.' By way of footnote it is explained: ‘Injuries short of maims are not criminal at common law unless they are assaults, but an assault is inconsistent with consent.' Maim could not be the subject matter of consent since it rendered a man less able to fight or defend himself (see 1 Hawkin’s Pleas of the Crown (8th edn, 1824) p 107, s 1). Nor could a person consent to the infliction of death (see Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law (3rd edn, 1883) p 142, art 207) or to an infliction of bodily harm in such manner as to amount to a breach of the peace (art 208). It was ‘uncertain to what extent any person has a right to consent to his being put in danger of death or bodily harm by the act of another’ (art 209), where the example given suggests that dangerous acts rendering serious bodily harm likely were contemplated.
The law has recognised cases where consent, expressed or implied, can be a defence to what would otherwise be an assault and cases where consent cannot be a defence. The former include surgical operations, sports, the chastisement of children, jostling in a crowd, but all subject to a reasonable degree of force being used, tattooing and ear-piercing; the latter include death and maiming. None of these situations, in most cases pragmatically accepted, either covers or is analogous to the facts of the present case.
It is, however, suggested that the answer to the question certified flows from the decisions in three cases.
The first is R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534. This is a somewhat remarkable case in that not only the two participants in a prize-fight but a number of observers were convicted of a common assault. The case was said to be relevant to the present question since it was decided that consent was not a defence to common assault. It is, however, accepted in the present appeal that consent can be a defence to common assault. Moreover it is plain from the judgment as a whole that a fight of this kind, since in public, either did, or had a direct tendency to, create a breach of the peace. It drew large crowds who gambled, who might have got excited and have fought among themselves. Moreover it was plain that such fights were brutal—the fighters went out to kill or very gravely injure their opponents and they fought until one of them died or was very gravely injured. As Mathew J put it (at 544):
‘… the chief incentive to the wretched combatants to fight on until (as happens too often) dreadful injuries have been inflicted and life endangered or sacrificed, is the presence of spectators watching with keen interest every incident of the fight.’
This emphasis on the risk of a breach of the peace and the great danger to the
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combatants is to be found in all of the judgments in the case (for example, at 538, 544, 546, 554, 562, 567). I cite only the judgment of Stephen J (at 549):
‘The principle as to consent seems to me to be this: When one person is indicted for inflicting personal injury upon another, the consent of the person who sustains the injury is no defence to the person who inflicts the injury, if the injury is of such a nature, or is inflicted under such circumstances, that its infliction is injurious to the public as well as to the person injured. But the injuries given and received in prize-fights are injurious to the public, both because it is against the public interest that the lives and the health of the combatants should be endangered by blows, and because prize-fights are disorderly exhibitions, mischievous on many obvious grounds. Therefore the consent of the parties to the blows which they mutually receive does not prevent those blows from being assaults.’
The second case is R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498, [1934] All ER Rep 207. Here the appellant, in private for his sexual gratification, caned a girl, who consented and was paid. The appeal was allowed because the question of consent was not left to the jury, yet it was said that, if the act done was itself unlawful, consent to the act could not be a defence. This, however, was a long way from R v Coney, upon which the essential passage in the judgment was largely based, where the act was held to be unlawful in all circumstances regardless of consent. In R v Donovan there was accepted to be an issue for the jury as to whether the prosecution had proved that the girl had not consented and whether the consent was immaterial.
The third case is A-G’s Reference (No 6 of 1980) [1981] 2 All ER 1057, [1981] QB 715. Here two youths fought following an argument. There was one bystander but no suggestion of public disorder as in R v Coney. If the judgment had been limited to the fact that the fight took place in public then there would clearly have been a possibility of a breach of the peace being caused; but the court laid down that even consensual fighting in private constitutes an assault on the basis that consent is no defence where ‘people … try to cause or … cause each other bodily harm for no good reason’ (see [1981] 2 All ER 1057 at 1059, [1981] QB 715 at 719).
I am not satisfied that fighting in private is to be treated always and necessarily as so much contrary to the public interest that consent cannot be a defence. In any event I think that the question of consent in regard to a fight needs special consideration. If someone is attacked and fights back he is not to be taken as consenting in any real sense. He fights to defend himself. If two people agree to fight to settle a quarrel the persons fighting may accept the risk of being hurt; they do not consent to serious hurt, on the contrary the whole object of the fight is to avoid being hurt and to hurt the opponent. It seems to me that the notion of ‘consent’ fits ill into the situation where there is a fight. It is also very strange that a fight in private between two youths where one may, at most, get a bloody nose should be unlawful, whereas a boxing match where one heavyweight fighter seeks to knock out his opponent and possibly do him very serious damage should be lawful.
Accordingly I do not consider that any of these three cases is conclusive in resolving the present question.
These decisions are not in any event binding upon your Lordships’ House and the matter has to be considered as one of principle.
Three propositions seem to me to be clear.
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It is ‘… inherent in the conception of assault and battery that the victim does not consent’ (see Glanville Williams ‘Consent and Public Policy’ [1962] Crim LR 74 at 75). Secondly, consent must be full and free and must be as to the actual level of force used or pain inflicted. Thirdly, there exist areas where the law disregards the victim’s consent even where that consent is freely and fully given. These areas may relate to the person (eg a child); they may relate to the place (eg in public); they may relate to the nature of the harm done. It is the latter which is in issue in the present case.
I accept that consent cannot be said simply to be a defence to any act which one person does to another. A line has to be drawn as to what can and as to what cannot be the subject of consent. In this regard it is relevant to recall what was said by Stephen J in R v Coney (1882) 8 QBD 534 at 549. Even though he was referring to the position at common law, his words seem to me to be of relevance to a consideration of the statute in question.
‘In cases where life and limb are exposed to no serious danger in the common course of things, I think that consent is a defence to a charge of assault, even when considerable force is used that, as, for instance, in cases of wrestling, single-stick, sparring with gloves, football, and the like; but in all cases the question whether consent does or does not take from the application of force to another its illegal character, is a question of degree depending upon circumstances.’
There are passages in the judgment of McInerney J in the Australian case of Pallante v Stadiums Pty Ltd (No 1) [1976] VR 331, where a boxing match was in issue, which also seem to me to be helpful. Thus (at 340):
‘It is easy to understand the proposition that if the harm to which consent is alleged to have been given is really grievous, as, for instance, in a case of maiming, the consent should be treated as nugatory: see, for instance, Stephen’s Digest of Criminal Law (7th edn, 1926, art 290). In Cross and Jones’ “An Introduction to Criminal Law” (7th edn, 1972, p 40) it is suggested as a reason for this conclusion that the injured person is likely to become the charge of society. This may be a good enough reason, though I would think it is not the primary reason. The primary reason, I would think, is that, as a general proposition, it injures society if a person is allowed to consent to the infliction on himself of such a degree of serious physical harm … Grievous bodily harm is now to be understood as meaning “really serious bodily harm”. So understood, the dictum of Stephen, J., in Coney’s Case ((1882) 8 QBD 534 at 549) [ie that the infliction of the blows is regarded as injurious to the public as well as to the person injured] may, as Cross and Jones point out in the work cited (at p 40), require to be understood as meaning that a person can lawfully consent to the infliction of bodily harm upon himself provided it falls short of being grievous bodily harm.’
I do not think a line can simply be drawn between ‘maiming’ and death on the one hand and everything else on the other hand. The rationale for negating consent when maiming occurred has gone. It is, however, possible to draw the line, and the line should be drawn, between really serious injury on the one hand and less serious injuries on the other. I do not accept that it is right to take common assault as the sole category of assaults to which consent can be a defence and to deny that defence in respect of all other injuries. In the first place the range of injuries which can fall within ‘actual bodily harm’ is wide—the description of
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two beatings in the present case show that one is much more substantial than the other. Further, the same is true of wounding where the test is whether the skin is broken and where it can be more or less serious. I can see no significant reason for refusing consent as a defence for the lesser of these cases of actual bodily harm and wounding.
If a line has to be drawn, as I think it must, to be workable it cannot be allowed to fluctuate within particular charges and in the interests of legal certainty it has to be accepted that consent can be given to acts which are said to constitute actual bodily harm and wounding. Grievous bodily harm I accept to be different by analogy with and as an extension of the old cases on maiming. Accordingly, I accept that, other than for cases of grievous bodily harm or death, consent can be a defence. This in no way means that the acts done are approved of or encouraged. It means no more than that the acts do not constitute an assault within the meaning of these two specific sections of the Offences against the Person Act 1861.
None of the convictions in the present cases have been on the basis that grievous bodily harm was caused. Whether some of the acts done in these cases might have fallen within that category does not seem to me to be relevant for present purposes.
Even if the act done constitutes common assault, actual bodily harm or wounding, it remains to be established that the act was done otherwise than in public and that it was done with full consent. I do not accept the suggested test as to whether an offence is committed, to be whether there is expense to the state in the form of medical assistance or social security payments. It seems to me better to ask whether the act was done in private or in public: is the public harmed or offended by seeing what is done or is a breach of the peace likely to be provoked? Nor do I consider that ‘hostility’ in the sense of ‘aggression’ is a necessary element to an assault. It is sufficient if what is done is done intentionally and against the will of the person to whom it is done. These features in themselves constitute ‘hostility’.
In R v Wollaston (1872) 26 LT 403 at 404 (where indecent assault was charged) Kelly CB, with whom the rest of the court concurred, said:
‘If anything is done by one being upon the person of another to make the act a criminal assault, it must be done without the consent and against the will of the person upon whom it is done. Mere submission is not consent, for there may be submission without consent, and while the feelings are repugnant to the act being done. Mere submission is totally different from consent. But in the present case there was actual participation by both parties in the act done, and complete mutuality.’
In the present cases there is no doubt that there was consent; indeed there was more than mere consent. Astonishing though it may seem, the persons involved positively wanted, asked for, the acts to be done to them, acts which it seems from the evidence some of them also did to themselves. All the accused were old enough to know what they were doing. The acts were done in private. Neither the applicants nor anyone else complained as to what was done. The matter came to the attention of the police ‘coincidentally’; the police were previously unaware that the accused were involved in these practices though some of them had been involved for many years. The acts did not result in any permanent or serious injury or disability or any infection and no medical assistance was required even though there may have been some risk of infection, even injury.
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There has been much argument as to whether lack of consent is a constituent of the offence which must be proved by the prosecution or whether consent is simply raised by way of defence. Reliance is placed on the Canadian case of R v Ciccarelli (1989) 54 CCC (3d) 121 at 123, where it is said that in the absence of express consent the Crown must prove that the victim did not impliedly consent to the act done. That decision, however, is in the context of s 244 of the Criminal Code (Revised Statutes of Canada 1970), which provides:
‘A person commits an assault when, without the consent of another person, or with consent (a) he applies force intentionally to the person of the other, directly or indirectly …’
In the present statute there is no such provision, but it seems to me that here too the onus is on the prosecution to prove that there was no consent on the part of the person said to have been assaulted.
It has been suggested that if the act done is otherwise unlawful then consent cannot be a defence, but it can be a defence, if the act is otherwise lawful, in respect of injury which is less than really serious injury. That would produce the result in the present case that if these acts are done by two men they would be lawful by reason of s 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1967, even though the acts are far away from the kinds of homosexual acts which the Wolfenden Report had in mind (see the Report of the Committee on Homosexual Offences and Prostitution (Cmnd 247 (1957)) para 105); in that situation, consent, it is said, would be a defence. If on the other hand three men took part, the activity would be unlawful under the 1967 Act, so that there could be no consent to the acts done. But it would also appear to mean that if these acts were done mutatis mutandis by a man and a woman, or between two men and a woman, or a man and two women, where the activity was entirely heterosexual, consent would prevent there being an offence. I do not find that this distinction produces an acceptable result.
My conclusion is thus that, as the law stands, adults can consent to acts done in private which do not result in serious bodily harm, so that such acts do not constitute criminal assaults for the purposes of the 1861 Act. My conclusion is not based on the alternative argument that for the criminal law to encompass consensual acts done in private would in itself be an unlawful invasion of privacy. If these acts between consenting adults in private did constitute criminal offences under the 1861 Act, there would clearly be an invasion of privacy. Whether that invasion would be justified and in particular whether it would be within the derogations permitted by art 8(2) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969) it is not necessary, on the conclusion to which I have come, to decide, despite the interesting arguments address to your Lordships on that question and even on the basis that English law includes a principle parallel to that set out in the European Convention on Human Rights.
Mr Kershen QC contended in a very helpful argument that the answer to the question should be on the basis (a) of existing law or (b) that a new ruling was to be given. My conclusion is on the basis of what I consider existing law to be. I do not consider that it is necessary for the House in its judicial capacity to give what is called ‘a new ruling’ based on freedom of expression, public opinion and the consequences of a negative ruling on those whom it is said can only get satisfaction through these acts; indeed the latter I regard as being of no or at best of little relevance to the decision in this case. Nor do I think that it is for your Lordships to make new law on the basis of the position in other states so that English law
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can ‘keep in line’. All these are essentially matters, in my view, to be balanced by the legislature if it is thought necessary to consider the making criminal of sadomasochistic acts per se. The problems involved are carefully analysed by Dr L H Leigh in ‘Sado-masochism, consent and the reform of the criminal law’ (1976) 39 MLR 130.
The Director of Public Prosecution contends in her written submissions:
‘In the end it is a matter of policy. Is/are the state/courts right to adopt a paternalistic attitude as to what is bad or good for subjects, in particular as to deliberate injury.’
I agree that in the end it is a matter of policy. It is a matter of policy in an area where social and moral factors are extremely important and where attitudes can change. In my opinion it is a matter of policy for the legislature to decide. If society takes the view that this kind of behaviour, even though sought after and done in private, is either so new or so extensive or so undesirable that it should be brought now for the first time within the criminal law, then it is for the legislature to decide. It is not for the courts in the interests of ‘paternalism’, as referred to in the passage I have quoted, or in order to protect people from themselves, to introduce, into existing statutory crimes relating to offences against the person, concepts which do not properly fit there. If Parliament considers that the behaviour revealed here should be made specifically criminal, then the Offences against the Person Act 1861 or, perhaps more appropriately, the Sexual Offences Act 1967 can be amended specifically to define it. Alternatively, if it is intended that this sort of conduct should be lawful as between two persons but not between more than two persons as falling within the offence of gross indecency, then the limitation period for prosecution can be extended and the penalties increased where sado-masochistic acts are involved. That is obviously a possible course; whether it is a desirable way of changing the law is a different question.
I would therefore answer the question certified on the basis that, where a charge is brought in respect of acts done between adults in private under s 20 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 in respect of wounding and under s 47 in respect of causing actual bodily harm, it must be proved by the prosecution that the person to whom the act was done did not consent to it.
Accordingly, I consider that these appeals should be allowed and the convictions set aside.
Appeals dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Capcount Trading v Evans (Inspector of Taxes)
[1993] 2 All ER 125
Categories: TAXATION; Capital Gains Tax
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): STAUGHTON, MANN AND NOLAN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 26, 27 OCTOBER, 15 DECEMBER 1992
Capital gains tax – Computation of chargeable gains – Disposal of asset – Allowable deduction – Consideration given for acquisition – Money or money’s worth – Taxpayer purchasing and selling foreign asset in foreign currency – Computation of gain or loss – Whether allowable loss on disposal equal to foreign currency difference between acquisition cost and disposal proceeds converted to sterling equivalent at exchange rate prevailing at date of disposal – Whether allowable loss equal to difference between sterling equivalent of sale proceeds at exchange rate prevailing at date of disposal and sterling equivalent of acquisition cost at exchange rate prevailing at date of acquisition – Finance Act 1965, Sch 6, para 4(1)(a).
The taxpayer company was an unlimited company resident in the United Kingdom. Between March 1973 and October 1975 it purchased shares in Canadian companies for Canadian dollars, and in July and September 1976 it sold them, receiving the proceeds in Canadian dollars. The taxpayer company appealed to a Special Commissioner against an estimated assessment to corporation tax for the accounting period ending 25 March 1979, contending that any capital gain or loss for corporation tax purposes which arose on the disposal of the shares should be computed by deducting the base cost in Canadian dollars from the disposal proceeds in Canadian dollars and translating the resulting sum into sterling at the rate prevailing at the date of disposal, which gave a loss of some £16m. The Crown contended that any gain or loss should be computed by translating the Canadian dollar acquisition cost and the disposal proceeds into sterling at the rates prevailing at, respectively, the date of acquisition and the date of disposal and deducting the sterling acquisition cost from the sterling disposal proceeds, which produced a loss of only some £3.1m. The difference between the results produced by the two computations was caused by the considerable depreciation of sterling against the Canadian dollar during the period between purchase and sale. The commissioner determined the appeal in the Crown’s favour. On appeal to the Court of Appeal, the taxpayer company contended that where there was an acquisition and disposal of a Canadian asset, acquired and disposed of in Canada, for a price in Canadian dollars that was the currency naturally appropriate to the asset and accordingly, for the purposes of para 4(1)(a)a of Sch 6 to the Finance Act 1965, the consideration accruing on the disposal of that asset was a sum of money (Canadian dollars) from which there fell to be deducted the amount in money (again Canadian dollars) given for the acquisition of the asset.
Held – The capital gains tax which formed the basis of the corporation tax on chargeable gains was a tax measured on differences computed in pounds sterling and in no other way, and for the purposes of the capital gains tax legislation, in particular para 4(1)(a) of Sch 6 to the 1965 Act, foreign currency was not ‘money’ but ‘money’s worth’, which was an asset. Accordingly, when the taxpayer company acquired the Canadian shares for Canadian dollars it gave a consideration in money’s worth which fell to be valued in sterling terms for the purposes of
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computing both the gain (if any) accruing on the disposal of the dollars and the cost of acquisition of the shares. Similarly, when the shares were sold for Canadian dollars the consideration was not money, but another asset whose value fell to be translated into sterling for the purposes of computing the gain or loss on the disposal of the shares. The taxpayer company’s appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 137 j, p 138 e, p 139 b to d f g, p 141 b c, p 142 c to g and p 143 b c e to g, post).
Bentley v Pike (Inspector of Taxes) [1981] STC 360 applied.
Pattison (Inspector of Taxes) v Marine Midland Ltd [1984] STC 10 distinguished.
Notes
For the classes of expenditure allowable as a deduction from the consideration in the computation of the gain accruing to a person on the disposal of an asset, see, 5(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 32, and for cases on the subject, see 8(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 41–43, 95–100.
In relation to tax for the year 1979–80 and subsequent years of assessment and tax for other chargeable periods beginning after 5 April 1979 para 4(1) of Sch 6 to the Finance Act 1965 was replaced by s 32(1) of the Capital Gains Tax Act 1979, which, in relation to tax for the year 1992–93 and subsequent years of assessment and tax for other chargeable periods beginning on or after 6 April 1992, was in turn replaced by s 38(1) of the Taxation of Chargeable Gains Act 1992. For s 38 of the 1992 Act, see 43 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 1482.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bentley v Pike (Inspector of Taxes) [1981] STC 360.
BSC Footwear Ltd v Ridgway (Inspector of Taxes) [1971] 2 All ER 534, [1972] AC 544, [1971] 2 WLR 1313, HL.
Halcyon the Great, The [1975] 1 All ER 882, [1975] 1 WLR 515.
Lothian Chemical Co Ltd v Rogers (Inspector of Taxes) (1926) 11 TC 508, Ct of Sess.
Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 801, [1976] AC 443, [1975] 3 WLR 758, HL.
Pattison (Inspector of Taxes) v Marine Midland Ltd rvsg [1984] STC 10, [1984] AC 362, [1984] 2 WLR 11, HL; affg [1983] STC 269, [1983] Ch 205, [1983] 2 WLR 819, CA; [1981] STC 540, [1982] Ch 145, [1981] 3 WLR 673.
Stanton (Inspector of Taxes) v Drayton Commercial Investment Co Ltd [1982] 2 All ER 942, [1983] 1 AC 501, [1982] 3 WLR 214, HL.
Case stated
1. On 27 and 28 November 1990 a commissioner for the special purposes of the Income Tax Acts heard an appeal by Capcount Trading, an unlimited company (the taxpayer company), against an estimated assessment to corporation tax for the chargeable accounting period of 12 months ending on 25 March 1979 in the sum of £300,000.
2. Shortly stated the question for the commissioner’s decision was whether the capital gain or loss for corporation tax purposes arising on the disposal of an asset situated in Canada, acquired for a consideration in Canadian dollars and disposed of for Canadian dollars, should be computed—
(a) by deducting from the Canadian dollar disposal proceeds the Canadian dollar base cost and translating the resulting sum into sterling at the spot rate prevailing at the date of disposal, or
(b) by translating the Canadian dollar acquisition cost and disposal proceeds into sterling at the spot rates prevailing at, respectively, the date of acquisition
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and the date of disposal and deducting from the sterling disposal proceeds the sterling acquisition cost.
The taxpayer company contended that method (a) was correct while the Crown contended for method (b).
3. The commissioner heard no witnesses. [There then followed a list of documents put in evidence before him.]
4. The commissioner reserved his decision and gave it in writing on 3 January 1991 dismissing the appeal and determining the assessment in the figure, agreed in that event, of £674,092. A copy of that decision, which set out the material facts, the contentions of the parties and the commissioner’s reasons for the conclusion that the taxpayer company’s appeal should fail, was attached to and formed part of the case.
5. The taxpayer company immediately after the determination of the appeal declared to the commissioner its dissatisfaction therewith as being erroneous in point of law and on 8 January 1991 required the commissioner to state a case for the opinion of the High Court pursuant to the Taxes Management Act 1970, s 56.
6. The question of law for the opinion of the court was whether, on the agreed facts, the commissioner’s decision that the taxpayer company’s capital gain should be computed in accordance with method (b), referred to in para 2 above, was erroneous in point of law.
7 The commissioner certified that his decision involved a point of law relating wholly or mainly to the construction of an enactment, namely Pt III of the Finance Act 1965, which had been fully argued before him and fully considered by him.
DECISION
The appellant company, referred to as the taxpayer company in this decision, is an unlimited company resident in the United Kingdom which has been known as Capcount Trading since 1978, having changed its name three times since its incorporation in the United Kingdom as Genoxa Ltd in 1973. It appeals against a corporation tax assessment for the 12 months ended on 25 March 1979 in the nominal figure of £300,000.
The issue in the appeal relates to the computation of a loss which accrued to the taxpayer company on the disposal of shares in a Canadian company for a consideration in Canadian dollars. The question of principle which I am asked to determine is whether the capital gain or loss for corporation tax purposes arising on the disposal of an asset situated in Canada, acquired for a consideration in Canadian dollars and disposed of for Canadian dollars should be computed (a) by deducting from the Canadian dollar disposal proceeds the Canadian dollar base cost and translating the resulting sum into sterling at the spot rate prevailing at the date of disposal, or (b) by translating the Canadian dollar acquisition cost and disposal proceeds into sterling at the spot rates prevailing at, respectively, the date of acquisition and the date of disposal and deducting from the sterling disposal proceeds the sterling acquisition cost.
The taxpayer company contends that method (a) is correct while the Crown contends for method (b).
The facts are agreed and are sufficiently recorded for the purposes of this decision as follows.
1. On 23 March 1973 the taxpayer company acquired two holdings, of 2,211,903 and 7,200 common shares respectively, in Great Northern Capital Corp (GNC) which was then a public quoted company registered in Ontario, Canada. The purchase price was $Can13 per share and the total consideration $Can28,848,339.
Page 128 of [1993] 2 All ER 125
2. On 12 October 1973 the taxpayer company acquired 3,997,452 common shares in Western Realty Projects Ltd (WRP), another Canadian company. The price was $Can12 per share and the total consideration was $Can47,969,424.
3. On 1 April 1974 GNC and WRP were amalgamated under a new Canadian company Abbey Glen Property Corp (AGP). Under the terms of the merger the taxpayer company’s shares in GNC and WRP were exchanged for 7,326,099 shares in AGP.
4. On 8 October 1975 the taxpayer company bought a further 172,000 shares in AGP from a Mr McIsaac for $Can650,000.
5. The taxpayer company was a member of a group of companies in which, as a matter of group policy, all banking and borrowing arrangements were made by the parent company Capital and Counties Property Co Ltd (C & C), now known as Capital and Counties plc. The taxpayer company’s share purchases were financed by loans obtained on its behalf by C & C.
6. Those loans were, for the most part, obtained in United States dollars but the proceeds of the loans were immediately exchanged for Canadian dollars with which the share purchases were completed. Details of the financing and refinancing arrangements are contained in the agreed statement of facts to which reference can be made if necessary.
7. By an agreement dated 15 July 1976 the taxpayer company sold 7,326,099 AGP shares (being the total of the AGP shares which had replaced the original holdings in GNC and WRP) at $Can6.75 per share to Genstar Ltd, another Canadian company. The sale price was $Can49,451,168 and the sale was completed on 28 July 1976.
8. On 29 September 1976 the taxpayer company sold 172,000 AGP shares to Mr McIsaac for $Can650,000.
9. The proceeds of both sales were received in Canadian dollars. C & C exchanged Canadian dollars for United States dollars as necessary to repay its borrowings in that currency.
10. The exchange rates for Canadian dollars to £1 sterling at the relevant dates were:
23.3.73 — 2.46563
13.10.73 — 2.4387
8.10.75 — 2.0945
28.7.76 — 1.74
29.9.76 — 1.62.
11. The taxpayer company’s computation, on method (a) referred to above, produces total losses for capital gains tax purposes of £16,063,632. The Crown’s computation, on method (b) above, produces total losses of £3,146,683. Both figures are agreed as arithmetically correct on the methods employed.
12. The losses were incurred in the accounting year to March 1977 but, not being usable for that year, were carried forward to be set off against subsequent profits for tax purposes. The issue first arises as a matter of practical importance in the year to March 1979.
Mr Park QC for the taxpayer company summarises the case for using method (a) thus: if there is an acquisition and disposal of a foreign asset, acquired abroad and disposed of abroad, for prices in a foreign currency naturally appropriate to the asset, then (1) the currency of the transaction is the foreign currency and not sterling and (2) the chargeable gain or allowable loss falls to be computed in the currency of the transaction. In reality the taxpayer company suffered a loss in Canadian dollars and that should be the measure of the loss for capital gains purposes, although it has to be converted into sterling for assessment purposes.
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Mr Park further submits that neither the statutory provisions nor case law contradicts that view: indeed recent case law supports it.
As to statute, the Finance Act 1965 is silent on the point, says Mr Park. Part I of Sch 6 assumes, without actually providing, that a gain or loss is computed by comparing the acquisition cost with the consideration for the disposal; but it does not say in what terms that is to be done. Paragraph 4(1) restricts the sums allowable as a deduction in the computation to:
‘(a) the amount or value of the consideration, in money or money’s worth, given by him or on his behalf wholly and exclusively for the acquisition of the asset, together with the incidental costs to him of the acquisition …’
Paragraphs (b) and (c) allow respectively enhancement costs and incidental costs of disposal. The only requirement as to the nature of the consideration is that it must be in money or money’s worth. Canadian dollars are ‘money’, says Mr Park, no less than sterling.
Turning to case law Mr Park acknowledges that a similar point was decided in the opposite sense to that for which he contends in Bentley v Pike (Inspector of Taxes) [1981] STC 360. In that case Mrs Bentley had inherited in October 1967 a share in property situated in Berlin, her share then being worth DM132,780. When the property was sold in July 1973 her share of the net proceeds was DM152,241. The Crown’s contention that the chargeable gain was the difference between the sterling equivalent of the value in October 1967 and the sterling equivalent of Mrs Bentley’s share in the proceeds of sale was accepted by the judge. Rejecting the contrary argument (essentially for what I call method (a)) Vinelott J said (at 364):
‘While I feel some sympathy for Mrs Bentley, who is in large measure called on to pay capital gains tax on a gain resulting from the devaluation of the pound, I can see no possible justification in the capital gains tax legislation for this approach. Under s 24(1) Mrs Bentley must be deemed to have acquired the one-sixth share of the property which passed to her on her father’s death for a consideration equal to its market value. That is the acquisition cost which she is entitled to deduct under para 4(1)(a) of Sch 6 from the share of the proceeds of sale to which she became entitled on 6th July 1973. The market value of the acquisition thus deemed to have taken place at her father’s death, as I see it, can only be expressed for the purposes of the computation required to be made under the capital gains tax legislation in sterling, which is the only permissible unit of account.’
Mr Park submits that this case is distinguishable on its facts because Bentley v Pike was concerned with a deemed acquisition cost whereas here we have an actual purchase price in Canadian dollars. More fundamentally he submits that the decision in Bentley v Pike is not binding on and need not be followed even by an inferior tribunal because (a) it was patently given per incuriam on this point and (b) it is inconsistent with subsequent decisions of higher courts (see Young v Bristol Aeroplane Co Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 293, [1944] KB 718 for the principles which should guide an inferior court in those circumstances towards an authority which would otherwise be binding on it). He also reserves the right to contend at a later stage that it was simply wrong.
As to the first of those grounds, Mr Park argues that by the words ‘the only permissible unit of account’ the judge was applying a general principle that English courts can deal with financial transactions only in terms of sterling; but that principle had disappeared at least by 1976 when in Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 801, [1976] AC 443 the House of Lords held that
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judgment could be given by an English court in terms of a foreign currency. That case was not cited in Bentley v Pike and if it had been Vinelott J could not have expressed his judgment in the terms which he in fact used.
As to the second ground, Mr Park relies strongly on Pattison (Inspector of Taxes) v Marine Midland Ltd [1983] STC 269, [1983] Ch 205 in which the Crown contended that a company resident in the United Kingdom which lent $US15m to its customers and in due course received $US15m in repayment had made a profit in its banking business measured by the difference in the sterling equivalent of $US15m at the date of the advance and the date of repayment respectively. Vinelott J (see [1981 STC 540, [1982] Ch 145), hearing the case at about the same time as Bentley v Pike, upheld that contention, but his decision was reversed by the Court of Appeal (see [1983] STC 269, [1983] Ch 205) and the House of Lords (see [1984] STC 10, [1984] AC 362). Mr Park relies in particular on the judgments in the Court of Appeal to explain the principles applicable to foreign currency transactions.
Dillon LJ said ([1983] STC 269 at 274, [1983] Ch 205 at 212):
‘The profit which counsel claims that the Crown can tax is not a dollar profit, but a sterling profit, and a notional profit at that, namely the profit which the company would have made if it had converted or translated into sterling from time to time an appropriate amount of the debts due to it in dollars so as to match in sterling the amount of the subordinated loan stock. But the company never did that … It is a wholly unreal conception, in this day and age, that an English company can only carry on its business in sterling. Of course, an English company must convert into sterling the actual profits of its business activities carried on in other currencies, and where there are actual currency switches the profits or losses occasioned by these actual conversions must be brought into its accounts. But I see nothing to constrain it to translate its foreign currency activities step by step, or year by year, into sterling so as to throw up wholly notional profits by reference to the hypothetical sterling equivalents of assets or liabilities which are in fact never payable in sterling at all and are never expected to be payable in sterling at all.’
And Donaldson MR ([1983] STC 269 at 276, [1983] Ch 205 at 214), after stating that the real basis of the Crown’s case was the concept that a juridical person had an integral money of account determined by its nationality and that its profits or loss could only be determined by reference to that currency, continued:
‘If I had been persuaded of the correctness of this basic concept that an English company can only have sterling assets and sterling liabilities and make sterling profits and incur sterling losses, in whatever currencies those assets, liabilities, profits and losses may be expressed, I should have wanted to hear argument on the second limb of the appeal, namely, whether there was a right of set off. However I am not so persuaded. Prior to 1976 the English courts adopted an attitude which is analogous to that of the Crown in the instant case. Foreign currencies did indeed exist as a fact of life and they had a distressing habit of changing their exchange values, but it was their value and not that of sterling which changed. All transactions must therefore be converted into sterling and, when this was done, justice would prevail. In Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 801, [1976] AC 443, the House of Lords recognised that this was far too insular a view and that treating sterling as the only true money of account was in some circumstances to work very grave injustice. And so a new rule was introduced which
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allowed other currencies to be used as the money of account and, where that was done, brought in in sterling purely as a money of payment of last resort.’
He then referred to the new philosophy introduced by the House of Lords in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300 and quoted Lord Wilberforce’s dictum ([1981] STC 174 at 182, [1982] AC 300 at 326: ‘The capital gains tax was created to operate in the real world and not that of make-believe’. And then he said ([1983] STC 269 at 277, [1983] Ch 205 at 215):
‘Why then should the Crown’s argument be accepted? Tax has to be assessed and paid in sterling and I would accept that the assessment must therefore be expressed in sterling as the money of measurement or account of the taxpayer’s taxable profits. But I know of no commercial reason why the company’s own profit and loss account should be expressed solely in sterling. This is certainly customary and may be a requirement of company legislation, although no one was able to refer us to any such provision. However this would not preclude a company from drawing up a multi-currency profit and loss account and then providing an “English translation”, ie a twin account expressed in sterling.’
Mr Park referred me also to four cases outside the field of tax which, in his submission, reinforce the view that the courts nowadays recognise foreign currencies as money and are prepared to give effect to foreign currency transactions without converting them into sterling if that accords with commercial reality. The cases are The Halcyon the Great [1975] 1 All ER 882, [1975] 1 WLR 515 (in which the Admiralty Marshal was authorised to sell a ship for a consideration in US dollars, that being the most advantageous course, and to pay the proceeds into court in dollars), the Miliangos case to which I have already referred, Choice Investments Ltd v Jeromnimon (Midland Bank Ltd, garnishee) [1981] 1 All ER 225, [1981] QB 149 (in which it was held that the word ‘debts’ in the Administration of Justice Act 1956 included a sum standing to the credit of the judgment debtor in a dollar account and that the sum in dollars could be attached to satisfy the judgment debt) and Re Scandinavian Bank Group plc [1987] 2 All ER 70, [1988] Ch 87 (in which Harman J authorised a reorganisation of an English company’s share capital which included the issue of some shares in foreign currencies).
Finally Mr Park puts forward two points on the statute which show, in his submission, that there cannot be a universal rule that every capital gains tax computation must be in sterling however inappropriate to the transaction that currency might be.
First he refers to s 41 of the Finance Act 1965 which deals with chargeable gains accruing to a non-resident company. Suppose, he says, that a United Kingdom close company has a Canadian subsidiary which conducts all its business and keeps its accounts in Canadian dollars; and suppose that the Canadian company makes a capital gain by selling its office building in Toronto. The shareholders in the United Kingdom parent will be liable to capital gains tax on the shares of the gain apportioned to them—or would be so liable if there were no double taxation treaty the existence of which is to be ignored for the purpose of this argument. He suggests that to compute the gain on the sale of the Canadian building by converting the acquisition cost into sterling at the exchange rate in force at the time of acquisition would verge on the absurd in those circumstances.
Second he points out that gains accruing from the buying and selling of assets in the course of trade (as for example in share-dealing) are excluded from capital gains tax only because under paras 2(1) and 5(1) of Sch 6 receipts and expenditure which are taken into account in determining the profits of a trade are to be left
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out of the computation. In theory therefore, a capital gains computation should be made for each such transaction but because both the acquisition cost and the disposal proceeds would be nil (the actual figures being omitted by virtue of those paragraphs) it is pointless to make such computations and they are in practice not made. But suppose that a United Kingdom share-dealing company has a branch in Canada which buys and sells shares in Canadian dollars. If it makes a dealing profit in dollars that profit will be converted into sterling and brought into the company’s Case I computation at that figure. But if, for capital gains tax purposes the acquisition cost and the disposal proceeds have to be translated into sterling at the exchange rates in force at the relevant times the figure may not coincide with the figures taken into account in the Case I computation and there may be a chargeable gain or allowable loss because paras 2(1) and 5(1) of Sch 6 do not operate to exclude those figures entirely from a capital gains tax computation. Would the Crown’s argument be taken that far he asks? If so the result would be so remarkable as to suggest that it must be wrong.
In summary, therefore, Mr Park submits that there is no rule of law which requires every capital gains tax computation to be made in sterling and in this case it is clearly appropriate to do the computation in Canadian dollars. He invites me to disregard the decision in Bentley v Pike because it is distinguishable on the facts, being concerned with market value and not an actual acquisition cost and because it cannot stand with later decisions in Marine Midland and other cases. And the Crown’s method cannot be said to have the merit of being capable of universal application because it could be unworkable in some cases. He concedes that there could be cases, as for example where the acquisition and disposal are effected in different currencies, where sterling might have to be used for the computation as the currency of last resort but that does not negate the argument that in a case such as this the plainly appropriate currency should be used.
Mr Thirkell for the Crown contends that the taxpayer company’s computation conflicts with the statute. Foreign currency is not ‘money’ but ‘money’s worth’ for the purposes of capital gains tax, so that an acquisition cost or a disposal consideration in foreign currency has to be translated into money, ie sterling, in the computation. The situation is just the same as if the Canadian shares in this case had been brought and sold for a consideration in shares in another company or some other asset not being money, which would have to be taken into account at its value in sterling.
For that proposition Mr Thirkell refers to s 22(l)(b) of the Finance Act 1965 which says that ‘any currency other than sterling’ is included in the forms of property which constitute ‘assets’. And that is followed through in s 30(6) which provides that that section (chattels sold for £1,000 or less) does not apply to ‘a disposal of currency of any description’. He refers also to para 11A of Sch 7 which excludes from the provisions concerning debts in para 11 debts owed by banks in foreign currency and standing to a person’s credit in an account with the bank. It is not right, therefore, in the Crown’s submission, to say that the 1965 Act is silent on the point in issue. Those provisions show that foreign currency is regarded as a different thing from sterling in the relevant statutory provisions.
Mr Thirkell next denies that the Crown is seeking to impose a harsh result in this case. It seeks to apply the proper principles as a matter of legal analysis and it can be demonstrated that the result will be either beneficial or unfortunate for the taxpayer according to the facts of the case and the direction in which the exchange rate has fluctuated.
As to case law Mr Thirkell submits that Bentley v Pike is a decision directly on the point in issue and is binding authority for this tribunal. The judgment deals
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briefly with this issue but it would be wrong to assume in the absence of full reasoning that it was delivered per incuriam and would have been different if the Miliangos case had been cited.
Nor, in the Crown’s submission, is its argument inconsistent with Marine Midland. The Crown was there seeking to assess to corporation tax under Sch D a notional profit arising from exchange fluctuations. This case concerns an actual acquisition cost to be determined in accordance with the provisions of the 1965 Act which were not considered in that case. Equally unhelpful are the other cases cited by Mr Park because the context was different in each case. For example in The Halcyon the Great the issue concerned the meaning of ‘money’ in the Administration of Justice Act 1965, which does not affect the specific provisions as to foreign currency in the Finance Act 1965.
Mr Thirkell was not prepared to give authoritative answers to the two examples given by Mr Park in the short time available to him during the hearing but he does not accept that they would be unworkable on the Crown’s construction. In the first example the Toronto office would indeed have its acquisition cost translated into sterling: and in the second he would expect the capital gain still to come out at nil. The important point is that the Crown’s method can deal with all situations, including one in which the acquisition and disposal were in different currencies which would create an insoluble difficulty under method (a).
In his reply Mr Park challenged the foundation of the Crown’s argument, that because foreign currency is itself an asset for capital gains tax purposes it cannot also be ‘money’ in arriving at the acquisition cost or disposal proceeds of other assets. In his submission it can be both and there is nothing in the 1965 Act to prevent it being used for the computation where, as in this case, it is the currency appropriate to the transactions.
The argument of principle is an interesting one but I have first to consider whether it is open to me to reach an independent conclusion on it in view of the decision in Bentley v Pike. That is, in my view, a decision directly on the point in issue here and cannot be distinguished on the ground that it related to a deemed acquisition cost, taken to be market value, and not an actual cost in foreign currency. I can see nothing in the parties’ contentions as recorded in the report or in the judgment to indicate that this was a relevant factor. The decision was simply that both the acquisition cost and the disposal proceeds had to be converted into sterling at the respectively relevant dates: and it would have been the same, I think, if there had been an actual acquisition for Deutschmarks.
The question is therefore whether the decision can be disregarded on either of the grounds suggested by Mr Park, namely that it was given per incuriam, adopting a general rule of law which had already been abrogated in the Miliangos case, or that it has been overtaken by subsequent events in that it is inconsistent with more recent decisions of higher authority.
As to the first of those grounds I am not convinced that the judge was applying a general rule of law that the courts were concerned only with sterling so that foreign currency has always to be translated into its sterling equivalent. The full sentence in his judgment reads ([1981] STC 360 at 364):
‘The market value of the acquisition thus deemed to have taken place at her father’s death, as I see it, can only be expressed for the purposes of the computation required to be made under the capital gains tax legislation in sterling, which is the only permissible unit of account.’
That must be taken, in my opinion, as an observation limited to the context of capital gains tax, as if the unspoken words ‘for that purpose’ were added at the
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end. It is at any rate capable of that limited construction and it would therefore be wrong for me to assume that it was intended to reflect a rule of wider application. I must treat it as stating a principle to be applied specifically to capital gains tax computations.
Am I nevertheless free to disregard it on the grounds that, though not expressly overruled, it cannot stand with a subsequent decision of a higher court? That, slightly adapted, is a restatement of one of the the grounds on which in Young v Bristol Aeroplane Co Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 293 at 300, [1944] KB 718 at 729–730 the Court of Appeal said that it was free to refuse to follow one of its own decisions. In terms therefore it applies to a decision of a court of coordinate jurisdiction. If it is available at all to a lower court in relation to a decision of a higher court then the implicit overruling must, I think, be plain beyond reasonable argument. If in any doubt the lower court or tribunal must follow the higher court’s decision until it is expressly overruled.
Mr Park has advanced a most persuasive argument to the effect that method (b) is out of line with the trend of recent judicial opinion as to the treatment of foreign currency transactions: but none of the cases to which he refers is directly in point. His argument draws substantial support from dicta of the Court of Appeal (notably of Donaldson MR) in Marine Midland. The facts of that case were, however, very different from those in the present case and the point in issue was also different. The speeches in the House of Lords were directed solely to the issue which fell to be determined.
If the issue were free from authority I might have accepted the company’s argument: but I find it impossible to say that the decision in Bentley v Pike has been so clearly overruled by necessary implication from subsequent decisions that it can be disregarded by an inferior tribunal. It was given in the specific context of the capital gains tax legislation and the Crown has at any rate an argument for saying that in that context it stands good. It is my duty to follow it.
I accordingly dismiss the appeal and determine the assessment in the sum of £674,092 which is agreed on that basis.
Andrew Park QC (instructed by Freshfields) for the taxpayer company.
Nicholas Warren (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
15 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
NOLAN LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Staughton LJ). This is an appeal against a decision of a Special Commissioner, Mr R H Widdows, which was given on 3 January 1991. The appeal comes straight to this court by virtue of leave granted by Nicholls LJ on 19 July 1991, under the provisions of RSC Ord 61, r 4. The subject matter of the dispute between the parties is a loss which the taxpayer company sustained on the disposal of shares in a Canadian company. It is common ground that the loss qualifies for relief in computing the liability of the taxpayer company to corporation tax on its chargeable gains. It is common ground that, although the purchases and sales of shares which gave rise to the loss were effected for prices in Canadian dollars, the loss must be translated into sterling for United Kingdom tax purposes. The question is how the translation should be carried out. The taxpayer company says that it should be done by deducting the dollar sale price from the dollar cost, and translating the resulting sum into sterling at the spot rate prevailing at the date of disposal. The Crown
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says that it should be done by translating the dollar purchase price and the dollar sale price into sterling at the spot rates prevailing at, respectively, the date (or dates) of purchase and the date (or dates) of sale, and deducting the sterling equivalent of the sale price from the sterling equivalent of the purchase price. There is a very substantial difference between the results produced by the two methods. If the taxpayer company is right, the loss amounted to £16,063,632. If the Crown is right, the loss amounted to £3,146,683. The reason for the difference is simply that the pound depreciated considerably against the Canadian dollar during the period between purchase and sale, so that the dollars received on the sale were worth much more, in sterling terms, than the dollars paid on the purchase.
The material facts are, I think, sufficiently covered by what I have already said, but I should set them out a little more fully for the sake of completeness. The shares were disposed of in 1976, that is to say during the taxpayer company’s accounting year to March 1977. The question over the computation of the loss was raised by the taxpayer company in its appeal against its corporation tax assessment for its accounting year to March 1979. That is the appeal which was determined by Mr Widdows, and which is now before us. We are therefore dealing with events of some antiquity. It appears from para 12 of the summary of facts in the decision of Mr Widdows that the reason why the question first arose in the year to March 1979 was that this was the first year in which the company had chargeable gains against which the loss could be set. We have no precise explanation for the very long further delay before the appeal was heard by Mr Widdows in January 1991, but Mr Park QC has told us that, as he understands the position, the taxpayer company had insufficient chargeable gains to make the issue worth litigating until fairly recently. At all events, no complaint about the delay is made by either side, and it presents no obstacle to the determination of the issue between the parties.
The details of the relevant share transactions are set out in paras 1 to 10 of the summary of facts in the decision of Mr Widdows, which read as follows:
‘(1). On 23 March 1973 [the taxpayer company] acquired two holdings, of 2,211,903 and 7,200 common shares respectively, in Great Northern Capital Corporation (“GNC”) which was then a public quoted company registered in Ontario, Canada. The purchase price was 13 Canadian dollars per share and the total consideration 28,848,339 Canadian dollars.
(2). On 12 October 1973 [the taxpayer company] acquired 3,997,452 common shares in Western Realty Projects Limited (“WRP”), another Canadian company. The price was 12 Canadian dollars per share and the total consideration was 47,969,424 Canadian dollars.
(3). On 1 April 1974 GNC and WRP were amalgamated under a new Canadian company Abbey Glen Property Corporation (“AGP”). Under the terms of the merger [the taxpayer company’s] shares in GNC and WRP were exchanged for 7,326,099 shares in AGP.
(4). On 8 October 1975 [the taxpayer company] bought a further 172,000 shares in AGP from a Mr McIsaac for 650,000 Canadian dollars.
(5). [The taxpayer company] was a member of a group of companies in which, as a matter of group policy, all banking and borrowing arrangements were made by the parent company Capital and Counties Property Company Limited (“C & C”), now known as Capital and Counties plc. [The taxpayer company’s] share purchases were financed by loans obtained on its behalf by C & C.
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(6). Those loans were, for the most part, obtained in United States dollars but the proceeds of the loans were immediately exchanged for Canadian dollars with which the share purchases were completed. Details of the financing and re-financing arrangements are contained in the agreed Statement of Facts to which reference can be made if necessary.
(7). By an agreement dated 15 July 1976 [the taxpayer company] sold 7,326,099 AGP shares (being the total of the AGP shares which had replaced the original holdings in GNC and WRP) at 6.75 Canadian dollars per share to Genstar Ltd, another Canadian company. The sale price was 49,451,168 Canadian dollars and the sale was completed on 28 July 1976.
(8). On 29 September 1976 [the taxpayer company] sold 172,000 AGP shares to Mr McIsaac for 650,000 Canadian dollars.
(9). The proceeds of both sales were received in Canadian dollars. C & C exchanged Canadian dollars for United States dollars as necessary to repay its borrowings in that currency.
(10). The exchange rates for Canadian dollars to £1 sterling at the relevant dates were—
23.3.73 — 2.46563
13.10.73 — 2.4387
8.10.75 — 2.0945
28.7.76 — 1.74
29.9.76 — 1.62.’
The exchange of shares in GNC and WRP for shares in AGP was a neutral event for tax purposes, by virtue of the provisions governing the reconstruction and amalgamation of companies which were enacted by paras 4 and 6 of Sch 7 to the Finance Act 1965, and are now re-enacted in Chapter II of Pt IV of the Taxation of Chargeable Gains Tax Act 1992. The losses realised on the two sales of shares in AGP fell to be computed under the rules relating to part-disposals, which are to be found in the same statutory provisions. Nothing turns on these points. For the purposes of the question of principle raised by this appeal, the position is just the same as if a single holding of shares in a Canadian company had been acquired for a price in Canadian dollars and sold for a price in Canadian dollars.
Substantially the same question arose in Bentley v Pike (Inspector of Taxes) [1981] STC 360, a decision of Vinelott J which was cited and applied by the Special Commissioner in the present case. In Bentley v Pike the taxpayer had inherited from her father, who died on 31 October 1967, a one-sixth share in a property in Berlin. The value of a one-sixth share in the property at that date was DM132,780. On 6 July 1973 the property was sold, and the taxpayer’s share of the net proceeds of sale amounted to DM152,241. The case turned principally on the nature of the taxpayer’s rights under German law, her argument being that she had acquired no interest in the property itself, but only an interest in the ultimate proceeds of sale. It was common ground that if (as was held to be the case) she did acquire an interest in the property on her father’s death, then that was to be treated for capital gains tax purposes as an acquisition for the market value of the interest, by virtue of s 22(4)(a) of the Finance Act 1965. Adopting the same approach as the taxpayer company in the present case, the taxpayer argued that her gain should be computed by calculating the difference in Deutschmarks between the deemed acquisition cost and the sale proceeds, and translating the result into sterling at the date of sale, while the Revenue argued that it should be computed by comparing the sterling equivalent of the deemed acquisition cost with the sterling equivalent of the sale proceeds. There, as here, there was a substantial difference
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between the results of the two computations, because of the fall in the value of sterling. Vinelott J (at 364) expressed sympathy for the taxpayer ‘who is in large measure called on to pay capital gains tax on a gain resulting from the devaluation of the pound’ but concluded that he could see no possible justification in the capital gains tax legislation for the approach for which she contended.
It is fair to add that this issue does not appear to have been fully explored before Vinelott J, whereas it has been very fully explored before us. In contending that Vinelott J arrived at the wrong conclusion Mr Park urges us to construe the relevant provisions of the Finance Act 1965 in the light of the views expressed by the courts in recent years towards the relationship between sterling and foreign currencies. Mr Park relies in particular on the judgments given by this court in a tax case, Pattison (Inspector of Taxes) v Marine Midland Ltd. This case, in which the decision of the Court of Appeal ([1983] STC 269, [1983] Ch 205) was upheld by the House of Lords ([1984] STC 10, [1984] AC 362), was decided after Bentley v Pike and, in Mr Park’s submission, is inconsistent with it.
I turn now to consider the statute and the authorities.
Section 22(9) of the Finance Act 1965 provides that the amount of the gains accruing on the disposal of assets is to be computed in accordance with Pt I of Sch 6, and s 23(1) provides that the amount of a loss accruing on a disposal is to be computed in the same way as the amount of a gain, but Pt I of Sch 6 does not provide a comprehensive method of computation. Assistance is to be found, however, in para 4(1) of the schedule, which provides:
‘Subject to the following provisions of this Schedule, the sums allowable as a deduction from the consideration in the computation under this Schedule of the gain accruing to a person on the disposal of an asset shall be restricted to—(a) the amount or value of the consideration, in money or money’s worth, given by him or on his behalf wholly and exclusively for the acquisition of the asset …’
Mr Park submits that when applying the provisions of para 4(1)(a) to the circumstances of the present case one starts with the fact that this was an acquisition and disposal of a Canadian asset, bought in Canada and sold in Canada, for a price in Canadian dollars, the currency naturally appropriate to the asset. It follows in his submission that, for the purposes of para 4(1)(a), the consideration accruing on the disposal of the asset was a sum of money, namely Canadian dollars, from which there fell to be deducted the amount in money, Canadian dollars again, given for the acquisition of the asset. Mr Park points out that the days are long past when the courts of this country refused to give judgments in currencies other than sterling, and refers us to the statement of Brandon J in The Halcyon the Great [1975] 1 All ER 882 at 887, [1975] 1 WLR 515 at 520 that ‘the word “money”, in its ordinary and natural meaning, includes money in a foreign currency as well as money in sterling’, a statement which was approved by Lord Wilberforce in Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 801 at 810, [1976] AC 443 at 464.
Mr Warren for the Crown submitted that cases such as The Halcyon the Great and the Miliangos case were of no assistance in construing the provisions of the capital gains tax legislation. Those provisions were concerned with gains and losses computed by measuring the purchase price and the sale price in pounds; they could not be made to operate consistently and fairly on any other footing. For the purposes of the capital gains tax legislation in general, and para 4(1)(a) of Sch 6 in particular, Canadian dollars were not money: they were money’s worth.
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That this was so was borne out by s 22(l)(b), which provides:
‘All forms of property shall be assets for the purposes of this Part of this Act, whether situated in the United Kingdom or not, including … (b) any currency other than sterling …’
The same distinction between sterling and other currencies is observed in the provisions relating to debts. A debt is an asset for capital gains tax purposes (see s 22(l)(a) of the 1965 Act) but as a general rule the satisfaction of a debt, even of a debt in foreign currency, does not give rise to a chargeable gain (see para 11 of Sch 7). This rule does not apply, however, where the debt is a non-sterling debt owed on a bank account (see para 11A of Sch 7). The evident purpose of this provision is to treat a foreign currency banking transaction in the same way as a corresponding transaction in the currency itself.
Mr Warren also referred us to the provisions of s 30, by which an exemption from tax is allowed for disposals of chattels if ‘the amount or value of the consideration … does not exceed one thousand pounds’. The word ‘amount’ here can only refer to the amount in pounds sterling. If the consideration consists, not of pounds, but of Canadian dollars or of some other asset, then it must be translated into pounds in order to see whether its value exceeds £1,000.
Mr Park sought to meet these submissions by arguing that Canadian dollars or other foreign currencies might rank either as money or money’s worth, according to the circumstances. Thus, he accepted that when the taxpayer company in the present case paid Canadian dollars for the acquisition of the shares it disposed of an asset, namely the Canadian dollars; but that, he said, did not prevent the payment from ranking as the payment of a price in money for the purposes of para 4(1)(a). He urged us not to regard s 30 as a criterion for judging the scheme of the legislation as a whole.
I am unable to accept these submissions of Mr Park. They seem to me to place a strained construction on the statutory provisions, and they lead to conclusions which cannot, in my judgment, have been contemplated by the legislature. Thus, as Mr Park frankly accepted, the taxpayer company’s approach of computing the gain or loss in a foreign currency and then translating it into sterling could not on any view of the matter be adopted unless both the purchase price and the sale price were paid in the same currency. In applying para 4(1)(a) to a particular acquisition and disposal one cannot, so to speak, subtract peas from beans. He accepted, in other words, that unless the currency for which the acquisition was made was the same as the currency for which the disposal was made one had to fall back on sterling as what he called the residual currency, and adopt the approach for which the Crown contends. Thus, for example, in the present case, if the Canadian shares had been acquired for United States dollars instead of Canadian dollars Mr Park would agree with the Crown’s approach to the computation of the loss on disposal. The acquisition would have been for a consideration in money’s worth, not money; and since United States dollars cannot be subtracted from Canadian dollars, nor vice versa, both the consideration for the acquisition and the consideration for the disposal would have to be translated into sterling for the purpose of computing the loss.
I am bound to say that I can see no justification for interpreting the legislation in the manner for which the taxpayer company contends. To treat foreign currency as ‘money’ is one thing. To treat it as either money or money’s worth, according to the circumstances, would introduce an arbitrary and even capricious element into the scheme of taxation. If Mr Park’s submissions were right, a taxpayer who had acquired an asset for foreign currency would have a choice
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when the time for sale came as to the manner in which his gain or loss was to be computed, the choice to be exercised by selling for a price in the same currency or a different currency, whichever gave the more favourable result according to the levels of exchange. This is too good from the taxpayer’s point of view, and too bad from the Revenue’s, to be true. The correct reading of the legislation, in my judgment, is the simple and straightforward reading for which the Crown contends, namely that for the purposes of the tax on capital gains foreign currency is not money but is an asset: it cannot be both. Therefore when the taxpayer company acquired the Canadian shares for Canadian dollars it gave a consideration in money’s worth which fell to be valued in sterling terms for the purposes of computing both the gain (if any) on the disposal of the dollars and the cost of acquisition of the shares. By the same token, when the shares were sold for Canadian dollars the consideration for United Kingdom tax purposes was not money, but another asset whose value fell to be translated into sterling terms for the purpose of computing the gain or loss on the disposal of the shares.
Putting the matter more broadly, I accept the Crown’s proposition that, for better or worse, the capital gains tax which forms the basis of the corporation tax on chargeable gains is a tax measured on differences computed in pounds sterling and in no other way. This has proved to be a considerable misfortune for the majority of taxpayers, because the years since 1965 when the tax was introduced have seen a drastic fall in the purchasing power of the pound in the United Kingdom, and comparable falls in its value against many foreign currencies of which during the relevant period the Canadian dollar was one. So far as the fall in the internal purchasing power of the pound is concerned, the legislature has taken steps in the Finance Act 1982 and subsequent legislation to relieve the taxpayer from having to pay tax on purely inflationary gains. The broad effect of this legislation is to reduce the amount of the taxable gain by an amount which reflects the contemporaneous rise in the United Kingdom retail prices index. As Mr Warren rightly says, the legislation proceeds on the assumption that the consideration for the acquisition and the consideration for the disposal are calculated in sterling terms: it should be wholly inappropriate for a gain measured in foreign currency. But I do not think that it would be right to judge the intentions of Parliament in 1965 by reference to this more recent legislation. What, I think, can fairly be said is that in 1965 no less than today some foreign currencies at least were notoriously unstable. It seems to me unlikely that Parliament would have intended to levy a capital gains tax, payable in sterling, on gains measured in such currencies. In short, I agree with the conclusion reached by Vinelott J in Bentley v Pike [1981] STC 360 at 364 that sterling is ‘the only permissible unit of account’ for capital gains tax purposes.
Is this conclusion inconsistent with the decision of this court in Pattison v Marine Midland Ltd? In that case the taxpayer company, which carried on a banking trade, had raised $US15m by the issue of loan stock, had lent $US15m to its customers, and had in due course received $US15m in repayment. In the meantime the pound had fallen against the United States dollar. The Crown claimed that the difference in sterling terms between the value of the dollars at the time of the loan and the time of the repayment represented a taxable trading profit. The claim was upheld by Vinelott J ([1981] STC 540, [1982] Ch 145) in a decision given at about the same time as his decision in Bentley v Pike, but was rejected by the Court of Appeal ([1983] STC 269, [1983] Ch 205), whose decision was upheld by the House of Lords [1984] STC 10, [1984] AC 362. At first sight, the Crown’s claim in the Marine Midland case bears a resemblance to the claim made against the taxpayer company in the present case, but it is to be borne in
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mind that the former claim was for tax on trading profits, that is to say on income, whereas the latter is a claim for tax under the capital gains legislation.
Referring to the judgment of Vinelott J in the Marine Midland case, Dillon LJ said ([1983] STC 269 at 273–274, [1983] Ch 205 at 211–212):
‘He proceeds to give the example of a trader liable to United Kingdom tax who operates a multiple store in Bremen, and keeps his accounts in deutschmarks; at the end of each accounting period the trader will for tax purposes have to translate his profits in deutschmarks into sterling. Of course the trader in Bremen has to convert his profit into sterling. But what he converts is his actual profit earned in deutschmarks—the equivalent in the present case of the differential in interest earned by the company on its matched dollar borrowings and lendings. The example would only forward the reasoning of the judge if he is right in saying that the company has realised a dollar profit by repaying the subordinated loan stock. No one however suggested for a moment in this court that the company has realised a dollar profit, and counsel for the Crown has disclaimed reliance on this part of the judgment. Indeed it is plain beyond peradventure that the company, in borrowing $15m from the holders of the subordinated loan stock, lending the same sum in dollars to other borrowers, recovering $15m from those borrowers in dollars, or from other dollar sources, and repaying the same amount of $15m to the holders of the subordinated loan stock is not making a dollar profit, or any actual commercial profit at all, save for the interest differential.’
Dillon LJ added ([1983] STC 269 at 274, [1983] Ch 205 at 212):
‘It is a wholly unreal conception, in this day and age, that an English company can only carry on its business in sterling. Of course, an English company must convert into sterling the actual profits of its business activities carried on in other currencies, and where there are actual currency switches the profits or losses occasioned by these actual conversions must be brought into its accounts. But I see nothing to constrain it to translate its foreign currency activities step by step, or year by year, into sterling so as to throw up wholly notional profits by reference to the hypothetical sterling equivalents of assets or liabilities which are in fact never payable in sterling at all and are never expected to be payable in sterling at all.’
Donaldson MR said ([1983] STC 269 at 277, [1983] Ch 205 at 215):
‘Why then should the Crown’s argument be accepted? Tax has to be assessed and paid in sterling and I would accept that the assessment must therefore be expressed in sterling as the money of measurement or account of the taxpayer’s taxable profits. But I know of no commercial reason why the company’s own profit and loss account should be expressed solely in sterling. This is certainly customary and may be a requirement of company legislation, although no one was able to refer us to any such provision. However this would not preclude a company from drawing up a multicurrency profit and loss account and then providing an “English translation”, ie a twin account expressed in sterling.’
In the House of Lords Lord Templeman said simply ([1984] STC 10 at 13, [1984] AC 362 at 373):
‘The Crown’s argument that the company made a capital loss on its unsecured loan stock and an income profit on its customers’ borrowing is
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misconceived. There never was any loss or profit from the lending and borrowing and there never was any exchange profit because the company did not make any relevant currency conversions.’
The transaction with which the courts were concerned in the Marine Midland case was, of course, of a very different kind from that which has given rise to the present appeal, but there is attraction and apparent force in the taxpayer company’s argument that if a trader’s United Kingdom tax liability is to be determined by first calculating his profits (or losses) in the foreign currency in which he has traded, and then converting it into sterling, the same approach should be adopted for capital gains tax purposes. This argument cannot, however, in my judgment prevail against the specific provisions of the capital gains tax legislation to which I have referred. It is to be remembered in this connection that the capital gains tax provisions are essentially concerned with gains or losses made on the acquisition and disposal of a single asset. By way of contrast the income tax legislation dealing with the profits of traders is concerned with the results shown over a given period by what will commonly be a large number of operations and transactions of different types, some of them still in progress when the period comes to an end. As is well known, the statutory provisions which govern the imposition of tax on trading profits have always been expressed in the broadest and simplest terms. At the time when the Finance Act 1965 was passed those provisions were contained in the Income Tax Act 1952. It dealt with the charge on trading profits under Case I of Sch D and the charge on the profits of professions and vocations under Case II in s 126 by stating simply that: ‘The tax under Cases I and II of Schedule D shall be charged without any other deduction than is by this Act allowed.' Section 127(1) required the tax to be charged ‘on the full amount of the profits or gains of the year preceding the year of assessment’. Section 137 listed the deductions which could and those which could not be allowed in computing the profits. Thus it performed a function somewhat similar to that of para 4(1)(a) of Sch 6 to the Finance Act 1965, but was couched in much wider terms designed as it was for all manner of trading activities. There is no definition of the ‘full amount of the profits or gains of the year’ in the computation of which the specified allowable deductions may be made but it has long been established by the courts that one must first calculate the profits according to the ordinary principles of commercial accountancy. Thus, in Lothian Chemical Co Ltd v Rogers (Inspector of Taxes) (1926) 11 TC 508 at 520–521 the Lord President (Clyde) observed:
‘My Lords, it has been said times without number … you deal in the main with ordinary principles of commercial accounting. They do expressly exclude a number of deductions and allowances, some of which according to the ordinary principles of commercial accounting might be allowable. But where these ordinary principles are not invaded by Statute they must be allowed to prevail.’
More recently, in BSC Footwear Ltd v Ridgway (Inspector of Taxes) [1971] 2 All ER 534 at 536, [1972] AC 544 at 552 Lord Reid said:
‘It is commonplace that a trader’s profit for tax purposes must be determined by framing a profit and loss account in which there is set against his gross receipts all relevant expenditure … There are no statutory rules about this, and it is well settled that the ordinary principles of commercial accounting must be used except insofar as any specific statutory provision requires otherwise.’
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Against that background I do not find it surprising that, in the case of trading companies operating abroad, the commercial accounting procedures which, it seems, commonly result in the profit being first computed in the particular overseas currency and then translated into sterling for tax purposes should be adopted and accepted by the Revenue. Given the multiplicity and the diverse character of the transactions which may be expected to take place in any given trade during any given year, I imagine that it would normally be impracticable to effect instantaneous translations into sterling of every debit and credit. Even if it were possible in the exceptional case, it would still appear to me inappropriate in principle because of the fact that, as I have mentioned, the income tax legislation, unlike the capital gains tax legislation, is not generally concerned with the measurement of a gain or loss on a single disposal but with a balance at the year end computed on accounting principles.
For these reasons, I am unable to regard the Marine Midland decision as affording a guide to the construction of the capital gains tax provisions which are determinative of the present case. I would dismiss the appeal.
STAUGHTON LJ. I agree that this appeal should be dismissed, for three reasons.
(1) The problem turns on para 4(1) of Sch 6 to the Finance Act 1965:
‘… the sums allowable as a deduction from the consideration … shall be restricted to—(a) the amount or value of the consideration, in money or money’s worth, given by him or on his behalf wholly and exclusively for the acquisition of the asset …’
It seems to me that ‘amount’ is the appropriate word when the consideration is in ‘money’, and ‘value’ when it is ‘money’s worth’ (see Stanton (Inspector of Taxes) v Drayton Commercial Investment Co Ltd [1982] 2 All ER 942 at 945, [1983] 1 AC 501 at 509). If therefore ‘money’ in this context can include Canadian dollars, the taxpayer may be right that it is a sum in Canadian dollars that is to be deducted from the sale proceeds. But if ‘money’ means only the currency of the United Kingdom, then it was ‘money’s worth’ that was given for the acquisition of the shares, that is to say Canadian dollars, and the value of those dollars is to be ascertained before the deduction is made; in that case the natural construction appears to me to be that the ‘value’, like ‘money’, must be expressed in sterling.
In The Halcyon the Great [1975] 1 All ER 882 at 887, [1975] 1 WLR 515 at 520 Brandon J had to consider whether the word ‘money’ in s 4(1) of the Administration of Justice Act 1965 included foreign money. He concluded that it did: ‘… the word “money”, in its ordinary and natural meaning, includes money in a foreign currency as well as money in sterling.' That decision was approved in Miliangos v George Frank (Textiles) Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 801 at 810, [1976] AC 443 at 464.
No doubt there are other instances where ‘money’ in a statute of the United Kingdom is plainly capable of referring to foreign money. One example that occurs to me is s 2(1) of the Sale of Goods Act 1979:
‘A contract of sale of goods is a contract by which the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a money consideration, called the price.’
It is not to be supposed that a contract to supply goods in return for foreign currency is barter rather than sale.
However, it is less readily apparent that ‘money’ in a revenue statute includes foreign currency, seeing that, as all are agreed, tax must at least be assessed and
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paid in pounds sterling. Furthermore, s 22(1)(b) provides that ‘any currency other than sterling’ shall be an asset for the purpose of Pt III of the 1965 Act. And s 30(1) provides:
‘… a gain accruing on a disposal of an asset which is tangible movable property shall not be a chargeable gain if the amount or value of the consideration … does not exceed one thousand pounds.’
That shows that, whether foreign currency has an ‘amount’ or (as I think) a ‘value’ for the purpose of this legislation, it must be converted into sterling on its own and therefore that the purchase consideration must also be converted separately. I conclude that ‘money’ in para 4(1) refers to sterling money only.
(2) Where the purchase and sale prices are in different currencies, it is inevitable that one, if not both of them, must be converted. The only logical method is to convert one (or both) into sterling at the date(s) of the relevant transaction(s). Hence the taxpayer company’s method cannot be used in such a case, and the argument for the Revenue must prevail. A purchase and sale in different currencies may not often happen, but it is certainly possible with chattels that are easily transported, such as jewels or rare books. If the owner has an option to diminish his tax liability by selling in a different currency, that would be a strange result. A similar problem could arise under s 22(4), where the market value of an asset is in some cases to be brought into the calculation. Some assets could have a market value in several different currencies.
(3) Both parties urged us to determine what the gain or loss was ‘in the real world’; but they differ as to where that test leads. One should, in my opinion, disregard the circumstances peculiar to this case, that the taxpayer company borrowed Canadian dollars from its parent company, which in turn borrowed United States dollars and converted them into Canadian dollars. The correct interpretation of para 4(1) must (as Mr Park QC accepted) be that appropriate for the ordinary case, where a United Kingdom taxpayer uses his own sterling resources to buy foreign currency for the purchase of an asset, and later, on disposing of the asset, sells the foreign currency proceeds so as to replenish his sterling funds. In that situation the gain or loss, in the real world, is the difference between the two sterling sums.
I agree that Pattison (Inspector of Taxes) v Marine Midland Ltd [1983] STC 269, [1983] Ch 205; [1984] STC 10, [1984] AC 362 is to be distinguished for the reasons given by Nolan LJ.
MANN LJ. I agree.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Siew Ling Choo Barrister.
B v B (abduction: custody rights)
[1993] 2 All ER 144
Categories: FAMILY; Children
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR STEPHEN BROWN P, LEGGATT AND SCOTT LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 7 MAY 1992
Minor – Custody – Rights of custody – Foreign custody rights – Wrongful removal or retention – Grave risk that return would place child in intolerable situation – Canadian court giving custody to mother and interim access to father – Mother removing child to England without consent of Canadian court – Father applying for order that child be returned to Canada – Whether father having rights of custody – Whether removal of child wrongful – Whether grave risk of intolerable situation for child if return to Canada ordered – Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, arts 3, 13.
The mother married the father in England in 1977. In 1981 they moved to Canada and became Canadian citizens. There was one child of the marriage, a boy born in 1985. In 1990 the marriage broke down when the father left the matrimonial home to live with another woman by whom he had had a child. It was agreed between the parties that the mother should have care and control of their child and that the father should have access. In 1991 the father started divorce proceedings in which he claimed joint custody of the child. The mother applied for custody and leave to remove the child to England. In July 1991, on the mother giving an undertaking not to remove the child out of the jurisdiction without a court order, the Ontario court granted interim custody to the mother and access to the father and gave directions for the substantive hearing of the proceedings. The following day the mother removed the child to England. Eight days later the Ontario court made an ex parte order for the immediate return of the child. The father commenced proceedings in England for the return of the child under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (which was incorporated into English law by s 1(2) of the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985 and was set out in Sch 1 to that Act). At the hearing the mother submitted that the return of the child should be refused under art 13a of the convention because the child would be placed in an intolerable situation in Ontario since the mother had no employment there and received no support from the father and would be living on charity. The father gave an undertaking that if the mother returned to Canada he would not attempt to remove the child from her care without a court order and would pay her maintenance. The judge held that since the mother had been granted custody and the father had only been granted access, the father had no rights of custody at the time of the removal and accordingly the removal from Canada was not in breach of rights of custody under art 3b of the convention. The judge further held that there was a grave risk that the child would be placed in an intolerable situation within the meaning of art 13 if he was returned to Canada and dismissed the father’s application. The father appealed, contending that he had a ‘right of custody’ under art 3, that the Ontario court, which had been seised of the matter also had ‘rights of custody’ within the context of the convention, that the mother’s removal had been plainly wrongful, and that there was no evidence that there was a grave risk the child would be placed in an intolerable situation in Ontario since the mother would be entitled to financial assistance such as subsidised housing and family benefits from the state welfare services.
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Held – The appeal would be allowed for the following reasons—
(1) The removal of the child was plainly unlawful since the removal by the mother had been done precipitately at the very time when the child’s future care was already under consideration by the Canadian court, which itself had a right of custody at the time, in the sense that it had the right to determine the child’s place of evidence. Accordingly, on the facts the judge had been wrong to decide that the removal was lawful (see p 149 e f and p 153 c e h, post).
(2) A high degree of intolerability had to be established before art 13(b) of the convention applied to prevent a mandatory return under art 12 of a child to the jurisdiction from which it had been wrongfully removed. Moreover, art 13 did not oblige the court to decline to order the return of the child even if a grave risk of intolerability had been established but merely gave the judge a discretion to consider whether the return was appropriate in all the circumstances. On the evidence it was clear that a sufficiently grave risk of intolerability for the child if he were returned to Canada had not been established to entitle the judge to refuse to order his return under art 12. It followed that an order would be made that the child should be returned forthwith to the jurisdiction of the Canadian court (see p 152 h to p 153 b d f to h, post).
C v C (minor: abduction: rights of custody abroad) [1989] 2 All ER 465 and Re A and anor (minors) (abduction: acquiescence) [1992] 1 All ER 929 applied.
Notes
For the return of children wrongfully removed, see Supplement to 8 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 525A.
For the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, s 1, Sch 1, arts 3, 12, 13, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 295, 310, 312.
Cases referred to in judgments
A and anor (minors) (abduction: acquiescence), Re [1992] 1 All ER 929, [1992] Fam 106, [1992] 2 WLR 536, CA.
C v C (minor: abduction: rights of custody abroad) [1989] 2 All ER 465, [1989] 1 WLR 654, CA.
H (a minor) (abduction), Re [1990] 2 FLR 439.
Cases also cited
H and anor (minors) (abduction: custody rights), Re, Re S and anor (minors) (abduction: custody rights) [1991] 3 All ER 230, [1991] 2 AC 476, HL.
J (minor: abduction: ward of court), Re [1989] 3 All ER 590, [1989] Fam 85.
Appeal
The father of a child appealed from the order of Ewbank J made on 3 March 1992 dismissing his originating summons under the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985 and refusing to order that the child be returned to the jurisdiction of the Province of Ontario, Canada on the grounds that the removal of the child by the mother from Ontario had been neither unlawful within the meaning of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction nor in breach of the rights of custody of the parties or the Ontario court and that the mother had established that there was a grave risk that the return of the child to Ontario would place him in an intolerable situation and that he would not exercise his discretion to order the return of the child to Ontario. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Stephen Brown P.
Lord Meston (instructed by Reynolds Porter Chamberlain) for the father.
Robert Warnock (instructed by Bell Lamb & Joynson, Birkenhead) for the mother.
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7 May 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR STEPHEN BROWN P. This is an appeal from a decision of Ewbank J of 3 March 1992. The learned judge had before him an application by a father made under the provisions of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33) (The Hague Convention) which comprise Sch 1 to the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985. The father of the little boy concerned, who is now approaching six and a half years of age, seeks an order of the court in this country that the defendant (the child’s mother) shall return the child to the jurisdiction of the court in Ontario, which is in fact presently seised of custody applications relating to the child in the context of divorce proceedings between the father and the mother.
The relevant history of the matter may be shortly stated. The mother is English by birth and the father was born in Rhodesia. They married in England in March 1977 but moved to Ontario in Canada in 1981, and both became Canadian citizens. The little boy was born on 28 December 1985. It so happened that at that time, apparently unknown to the mother, the father had formed an association with another woman, and, as a result, had become the father of that other woman’s child. That child was born only three months before the child with whom this court is concerned. The mother eventually found out about this relationship, and was outraged by her discovery. The father left the matrimonial home at the end of April 1990. He went to live with his mistress and with the child born of that association.
On 2 May 1990 the mother and father entered into an ‘interim agreement’ pending the institution of divorce proceedings. That provided that the mother should have the care and control of the child and that the father should have liberal access. It also provided that divorce proceedings should be instituted when all the matters in dispute were to be finally settled between the parties in the context of the court proceedings.
Subsequently, in the same year, 1990, the mother brought the child to England for a visit. She remained in England from August 1990 until November 1990. During those months the matrimonial home was sold. In November 1990 the mother returned to Ontario to live with the little boy at Kingston. The father did not immediately discover that the mother had returned to Canada, but he did so in December 1990. The mother by this time had not acted upon the terms of the ‘settlement’, as it had been termed, by which she had undertaken to commence divorce proceedings. So the father petitioned for divorce on 2 January 1991 in the Ontario court. In the divorce petition he claimed, inter alia, interim and permanent joint custody of, and access to, the child.
The father issued a notice of motion seeking interim orders on 18 January 1991, including an application that there should be an order preventing the child’s removal from Ontario. On 22 January 1991 an order was made by consent in the Ontario court which, inter alia, granted to the father liberal and generous access. On 17 May 1991 the mother filed a ‘counter-petition’, seeking custody and also seeking leave to remove the child to England. On 4 June 1991 the mother applied by cross-motion, seeking custody and leave to remove the child to England. That motion was returnable on 27 June 1991. In a supporting affidavit the mother said: ‘I have no intention of leaving this jurisdiction without an appropriate order of this honourable court.’
On 27 June 1991 the motion came before Judge Lally in the Ontario court. He adjourned the hearing of the substantive issues, but he ordered that the child ‘shall not be removed from the jurisdiction in the interim’. The adjournment ordered was until 2 July 1991. On 2 July 1991 the learned judge gave directions for the substantive hearing, which was to be dealt with by hearing oral evidence. He also ordered that the file should be transferred to Kingston and that meanwhile
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the wife (who was the respondent to the motion) should be granted interim custody of the child. He ordered that the petitioner husband should be granted interim access to the child, which he defined as every other weekend in Kingston from 10.00 am to 5.00 pm Saturday and from 12 noon to 4.00 pm Sunday, commencing 13 July 1991. He made it a requirement that the husband should not exercise such access in the presence of his mistress or her son without further order of the court. However, the order as drawn did not in fact include a specific prohibition against the removal of the child from the jurisdiction as in the order of 27 June 1991.
The mother, notwithstanding what she had previously said about not taking the child out of the jurisdiction without an order of the court, nevertheless left Ontario for England on the very next day, 3 July 1991. She took the child to live in Birkenhead with her parents and she has remained there ever since. On 11 July 1991 Judge Lally, on the ex parte application of the husband, ordered the return of the child. The court has been told that that order has not been formally served upon the mother, but there is no question but that she knows of its existence and its terms. It appears that, following her leaving Ontario, the lawyers who had been acting for her in Ontario were removed from the record.
The father quickly sought relief under the provisions of the Hague Convention. On 15 August 1991 his lawyers sent an application to the Attorney General of Ontario. It appears that due to delays in the Attorney General’s department the matter was not processed immediately. It was not until 30 January 1992 that the Attorney General of Ontario sent a formal request to the Lord Chancellor, who is the central authority in England. However, eventually the matter came before the court and the father’s application was heard by Ewbank J on 3 March 1992. The learned judge declined to find that the mother’s removal of the child from Ontario was wrongful. On that ground he dismissed the father’s application for the return of the child. Further and/or alternatively, the learned judge said that under the provisions of art 13 of the Hague Convention he considered that there was a grave risk that the return of the child would place him in an intolerable situation, and said that on that ground also he would have declined to order the return of the child.
The father now appeals to this court. Lord Meston, on his behalf, submits that the learned judge erred in declining to find that the removal of the child by the mother from Ontario was ‘wrongful’. Article 3 of the Hague Convention provides:
‘The removal or the retention of a child is to be considered wrongful where—(a) it is in breach of rights of custody attributed to a person, an institution or any other body, either jointly or alone, under the law of the State in which the child was habitually resident immediately before the removal or retention; and (b) at the time of removal or retention those rights were actually exercised, either jointly or alone, or would have been so exercised but for the removal or retention …’
Article 5 is also relevant. It provides, inter alia:
‘… (a) “rights of custody” shall include rights relating to the care of the person of the child and, in particular, the right to determine the child’s place of residence …’
The learned judge, having recited the sequence of events to which I have referred, said:
‘On 27 June the matter came before Judge Lally in the Ontario court and he adjourned the case for a week, I believe because of shortage of time, and
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meanwhile ordered that [the child] was not to be removed from the jurisdiction of the Ontario court in the interim. The matter came before him again on 2 July. The order recites that an interim order had been made that the child was not to be removed from the Province of Ontario. [The court has been told that the order did not in fact contain that recitation.] On this occasion the court ordered that the case should be heard at the end of August 1991. The court ordered that the mother should be granted interim custody of [the child] and the court ordered interim access to [the child] to the father, that access to be [alternate] weekends in Kingston but not in the presence of the husband’s mistress or son. The mother, I am told, had explained to the judge that she was packed and ready to go but he said that the matter would have to be dealt with by evidence rather than on motion and the trial would have to take place in August. The mother was far from satisfied with this approach and she was cross during the course of the hearing, I am told, and evidently decided to take the law in her own hands and on 3 July she came to England with [the child] and she has been here ever since. The father says that the removal by her of the child on 3 July was wrongful and, accordingly, that the Hague Convention applies. The mother says that it was not a wrongful removal and that, even if it was, she has a defence under art 13 in that there is a grave risk that the return of the child would expose him to physical or psychological harm or otherwise place him in an intolerable situation.’
The learned judge referred to a previous decision of his, Re H (a minor) (abduction) [1990] 2 FLR 439, but he said that that was to be distinguished because in that case there was in existence at the time of the removal an order of the court that the child should not be removed from the jurisdiction. Referring to the instant case, the learned judge then said:
‘I am not satisfied, accordingly, despite the affidavit of Miss Heal [a barrister in the Crown Office of the Attorney General in Ontario] that the removal of this child was in breach of the rights of custody attributed to the father—because, in my judgment, he had no rights of custody—or in the court, because, in my judgment, the court had given custody to the mother. Nor do I think that either the father or the court were exercising any rights of custody at the time of the removal.’
Lord Meston submits that the judge was wrong in this interpretation of the effect of art 3 of the Hague Convention, which must be considered in the context of art 5. He says that in this case the father clearly had substantial rights of ‘access’ which could only be exercised in Kingston. Indeed, Judge Lally’s order of 2 July had specifically provided for the access being exercised in Kingston on alternate weekends. In addition, Lord Meston submits the court also had ‘rights of custody’ in the context of the Hague Convention, because it had made orders in the course of the cross-motions before it which indicated that it was seised of the matter and that it had not determined either the father’s or the mother’s substantive applications and had adjourned the hearing of the mother’s substantive application for custody and for leave to remove the child from the jurisdiction until a date in August. So, submits Lord Meston, in this case there was, firstly, on the part of the father, a ‘right of custody’ in the context of the extended rights which were referred to by Butler-Sloss LJ in her judgment in C v C (minor: abduction: rights of custody abroad) [1989] 2 All ER 465 at 468, [1989] 1 WLR 654 at 658. In that case Butler-Sloss LJ referred to the necessity of reading together with art 3 the terms of art 5 of the Hague Convention. She said the right of custody in the context of
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the Hague Convention was a wider concept than that which would normally be considered in the domestic context. In this case Lord Meston submits that it was implicit in the order of Judge Lally of 2 July that the father had a joint interest in and a ‘right of custody’ of the child, inasmuch as he had a right to be consulted and to have his views considered in relation to the determination of the child’s place of residence. Lord Meston submits that art 5 supports that interpretation. However, he further submits that the Ontario court was ‘an institution or other body’ within the terms of the Hague Convention which had a right to determine the child’s place of residence and that it was in the process of exercising that right by adjourning the matter to a date in August and by giving directions as to how the matter should be dealt with—that is to say by hearing oral evidence. Accordingly, Lord Meston submits that the mother’s removal of the child on 3 July 1991 was quite plainly unlawful within the meaning of art 3 of the Hague Convention.
In support of the judge’s finding that the removal was not unlawful, Mr Warnock for the mother submits that the court should apply a strict and restricted interpretation of the term ‘rights of custody’. Since the court had ordered interim custody in favour of the mother (subject to access by the father pending the substantive hearing) there could be no right of custody in any person or body other than the mother. Therefore, he says, she was not in breach of any right vested in the husband, or, indeed, in the court, when she removed the child on 3 July 1991.
I find that submission unacceptable. In my view this was the plainest example of an unlawful removal. The mother herself appears to have thought so, for she later stated that she regretted having taken that step at that time. It is suggested that she did not appreciate the legal position, although she was in receipt of legal advice at the time. It seems to me that the court itself had a right of custody at this time in the sense that it had the right to determine the child’s place of residence, and it was in breach of that right that the mother removed the child from its place of habitual residence. I should say that there has never been any issue as to the fact that the child’s habitual residence was at all material time in Ontario. Accordingly I am of the view that the learned judge was in error when he decided that the removal of the child was not unlawful.
Once an unlawful removal has been established within the meaning of art 3 of the Hague Convention, then the provisions of art 12 come into operation. Article 12 provides:
‘Where a child has been wrongfully removed or retained in terms of Article 3 and, at the date of the commencement of the proceedings before the judicial or administrative authority of the Contracting State where the child is, a period of less than one year has elapsed from the date of the wrongful removal or retention, the authority concerned shall order the return of the child forthwith …’
In this case the proceedings were commenced in less than one year after the wrongful removal. Accordingly art 12 comes into operation and renders it mandatory for the court to order the return of the child forthwith. However, this is subject to the ‘proviso’ provided in art 13:
‘Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding Article, the judicial or administrative authority of the requested State is not bound to order the return of the child if the person, institution or other body which opposes its return establishes that … (b) there is a grave risk that his or her return would expose the child to physical or psychological harm or otherwise place the
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child in an intolerable situation. The judicial or administrative authority may also refuse to order the return of the child if it finds that the child objects to being returned and has attained an age and degree of maturity at which it is appropriate to take account of its views …’
In this case the mother submitted to the learned judge that to order the removal of the child from the United Kingdom back to Canada would expose him to a grave risk of being placed in an intolerable situation. The grounds upon which that submission was based were recited by the learned judge in his judgment. They are, briefly, that before the mother left Ontario she was in difficult circumstances—she would say intolerable circumstances. She had no money from the father; she had to rent a home because the matrimonial home had been sold. She received no support from the father for the child, and had to rely upon charity and from what is called ‘the food bank’ because she did not receive enough money from the welfare services to feed the child.
There was evidence in the form of a letter from a friend or neighbour and of another witness, a Miss Lobo, who spoke of the mother’s difficulties at this stage. It was submitted to the learned judge, and accepted by him, that, if the mother were to be ordered to return the child to Canada, ‘it would be an intolerable situation for [the child].' He said:
‘If it was necessary to come to a decision on this aspect, I would have to say that, in my judgment, to go from the grandmother’s house where she is at the moment and leaving the job she has in Birkenhead with the social services department, to Canada with no work and no money and living on charity and food banks, would be an intolerable situation for [the child]. Accordingly, I would refuse the application on that ground also. So this application under the Hague Convention is dismissed.’
The judge was told that the father had given undertakings (which the learned judge recited in the course of his judgment) that, if the court ordered the child to be returned to Canada, he would not attempt to remove him from the care of the mother without an order of the Canadian court, that he would not support or initiate any contempt of court or criminal proceedings arising from the mother’s removal of the child, and would co-operate in having an early hearing of the proceedings in Ontario. He also offered to pay the costs of the return of the child and to pay the mother $200 a month towards his support.
The submission made by Lord Meston is that there was no factual basis for a finding that the child would be placed in an intolerable situation if returned to Canada. He submitted that the words of art 13 must be accorded full meaning and effect. Paragraph (b) commences with the words: ‘there is a grave risk that his or her return would … place the child in an intolerable situation.' This submission was supported by reference to various decisions of the court to the effect that it is a strict test. Further, he cited the recent decision of Re A and anor (minors) (abduction: acquiescence) [1992] 1 All ER 929 at 942, [1992] Fam 106 at 122–123, in which Lord Donaldson MR considered the context in which the return of a child to the country from which he had been unlawfully removed should be approached. Lord Donaldson MR said:
‘In considering the first issue, the court of country B should approach the matter by giving the fullest force to the policy which clearly underlies the convention and the Act, namely that wrongful removal or retention shall not confer any benefit or advantage on the person (usually a parent) who has committed the wrongful act. It is only if the interests of the child render it appropriate that the courts of country B rather than country A shall determine
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its future that there can be any exception to an order for its return. This is something quite different from a consideration of whether the best interests of the child will be served by its living in country B rather than country A. That is not the issue unless para (b) of art 13 applies. The issue is whether decisions in the best interests of the child shall be taken by one court rather than another. If, as usually should be the case, the courts of country B decide to return the child to the jurisdiction of the courts of country A, the latter courts will be in no way inhibited from giving permission for the child to return to country B or indeed becoming settled there and so subject to the jurisdiction of the courts of that country. But that will be a matter for the courts of country A.’
In C v C (minor: abduction: rights of custody abroad) [1989]2 All ER 465 at 473, [1989] 1 WLR 654 at 664 Lord Donaldson MR considered the application of art 13. He said:
‘We have also had to consider art 13, with its reference to “psychological harm”. I would only add that in a situation in which it is necessary to consider operating the machinery of the convention, some psychological harm to the child is inherent, whether the child is or is not returned. This is, I think, recognised by the words “or otherwise place the child in an intolerable situation”, which cast considerable light on the severe degree of psychological harm which the convention has in mind. It will be the concern of the court of the state to which the child is to be returned to minimise or eliminate this harm and, in the absence of compelling evidence to the contrary or evidence that it is beyond the powers of those courts in the circumstances of the case, the courts of this country should assume that this will be done. Save in an exceptional case, our concern, ie the concern of these courts, should be limited to giving the child the maximum possible protection until the courts of the other country, Australia in this case, can resume their normal role in relation to the child.’
Further, Balcombe LJ in Re A and anor (minors) (abduction: acquiescence) [1992] 1 All ER 929 at 939, [1992] Fam 106 at 118–119 considered the degree of intolerability which had to be established in order to bring into operation the provisions of art 13(b). Balcombe LJ said:
‘The judge also rejected a submission on behalf of the mother that there was a grave risk that to return the boys to Australia would place them in an intolerable situation. If the judge had accepted that submission that would have unlocked the door to the exercise of his discretion under art 13(b). The argument relied on to support that submission is set out in the judgment in the following passage: “The argument there is that on their arrival there is no home and there is no financial support forthcoming from the plaintiff who himself lives on state benefits. That is in contrast to the security that the mother has achieved since her arrival in this jurisdiction. Here she has the support of her parents. She is in a position to sign a lease immediately for the rent of a suitable home. There is a letter from the school showing that the children have apparently settled in well to a Church of England primary school. Therefore it is said that the situation on their return would be intolerable and pointless.” The judge rejected this argument: “I have reached the clear conclusion that the mother has not established a sufficiently grave risk of a sufficiently substantial intolerable situation. The fact is that between July and September of this year the whole family was dependent on state benefits. In this jurisdiction equally the mother and children are dependent
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on state benefits. On their return they would again be entirely dependent on Australian state benefits. So that can hardly be said in itself to constitute an intolerable situation.” This submission was revived before us. Nevertheless I am quite clear in my mind that the matters (largely financial) upon which the mother seeks to rely as constituting an intolerable situation in Australia come nowhere near to establishing what the Hague Convention requires by that phrase. In my judgment the judge was entirely right on this point.’
The other members of the Court of Appeal agreed with Balcombe LJ on that issue.
Lord Meston submits that the relevant facts of that case are remarkably comparable to the facts of this case, for the mother’s assertion that there would be a grave risk of an intolerable situation for the child largely depends upon the financial circumstances in which she and the child would be placed if they were to be returned to Canada.
In this case Ewbank J had before him evidence from Miss Heal, a barrister and solicitor of the relevant regional municipality in the Province of Ontario, who is employed as a Crown Office lawyer in the Crown Office of the Attorney General for the Province of Ontario. In her affidavit Miss Heal set out, pursuant to the provisions of art 8(f) of the Hague Convention, the circumstances which she said would obtain so far as the mother is concerned if she and the child were to be returned to Ontario. First, she said that her department—
‘is in a position to take steps under a programme arranged between the Canadian government and both Canadian national airlines for the provision of return air transportation to Canada for both the child and an accompanying adult. I will be happy to activate this system if called upon to do so.’
Then she said:
‘With regard to the provision of State benefits, I am advised and do verily believe that [the mother] would be eligible for financial assistance under the Ontario General Welfare Assistance Act (administered by local municipalities) or the Family Benefits Act (administered provincially by the maintenance branch of the Ministry of Community and Social Services).’
She then set out details of the assistance which she said would be available. This would include the opportunity of subsidised housing and, if this were not to be made available immediately, then additional general welfare or family benefits would be made available to pay for accommodation as necessary. She also said:
‘All the above sources of financial assistance are of course in addition to the support obligation provided for in Part III of Ontario’s Family Law Act.’
The learned judge did not refer to that evidence in the course of his judgment. However, it seems to me that it was very important evidence. I consider that the judge did not have the material before him on which to find that there was a grave risk that the child would be placed in an intolerable situation if the court were to order this return to Canada. I stress what Balcombe LJ said in Re A and anor (minors), that a very high degree of intolerability must be established in order to bring into operation art 13(b). It seems to me that the facts of this case do not come anywhere near to the level of intolerability which is required when considering the provisions of art 13. It must also be borne in mind that art 13 does not oblige the court to decline to order the return of the child even if grave risk of an intolerable situation is established. It provides a discretion to the judge
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to consider whether the return is an appropriate order to make in all the circumstances.
In the light of the conclusion to which I have come, I do not need to explore further the question of the exercise of the judge’s discretion. I am satisfied that the evidence in this case did not entitle the judge to come to the conclusion that there was in fact a grave risk of an intolerable situation for the child if his return were to be ordered. I wish to say further that it is important when considering applications under the Hague Convention that it should be borne in mind that these are matters which affect the comity of nations. It is a convention on the civil aspects of international child abduction. Its purpose, as the preamble and art 1 indicate, is to deal summarily with the mischief of taking children from the appropriate jurisdiction in a manner which is considered to be unlawful. In my judgment this is clearly such a case. There is no doubt that the removal of the child by this mother was done precipitately at the very time when the child’s future care was already under consideration by the Ontario court. Directions had been given in order to enable a speedy hearing of the merits of the substantive applications. Although it may be distressing to the mother to find that she has now to take the child back, nevertheless there is no escape in my judgment from the conclusion that the child’s return should be ordered in this case.
For these reasons I would allow the appeal and order that the child be returned forthwith to the jurisdiction of the court in Ontario so that that court may continue its consideration of the applications which are currently before it.
LEGGATT LJ. Having made what is no more than an interim custody order, the Ontario court, in my judgment, retained what art 5(a) of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33) calls ‘the right to determine the child’s place of residence’. Ewbank J therefore erred in concluding that the child’s removal from the jurisdiction was not wrongful within the meaning of art 3.. Although upon return to Canada for what might prove to be no more than a temporary visit the mother’s situation might be unsatisfactory and she might suffer discomfort or perhaps even hardship, there is no evidence that there is a risk let alone a great one, that the child’s return would place him in a situation which is intolerable. The judge’s conclusion that there is such a risk was plainly wrong. This is an example of just such an abduction as the convention was designed to combat. In those circumstances we have no alternative but to adopt the course dictated by the convention and order the child’s return to Canada forthwith so that the Ontario court may proceed with its consideration of what is best for his welfare.
I therefore agree that the appeal should be allowed and that, subject to the undertakings that the husband has offered, an order should go such as Sir Stephen Brown has proposed.
SCOTT LJ. I also agree. I agree with both the judgments that have been given and with the reason given in those judgments for allowing this appeal.
Appeal allowed.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
R v Ashford Magistrates’ Court, ex p Hilden
[1993] 2 All ER 154
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): McCOWAN LJ AND POPPLEWELL J
Hearing Date(s): 23 JULY 1992
Criminal evidence – Witness – Witness not giving oral evidence through fear – Admissibility of written statement made to police when making complaint – Witness giving some oral evidence but refusing to give evidence going to issues in case – Application by prosecution for written statement to be admitted – Written statement admitted by examining magistrate – Whether statement inadmissible where witness gives some oral evidence – Whether necessary for witness to state that he is in fear – Whether fact that witness refusing to give evidence through fear can be determined by court from witness’s demeanour – Whether necessary for magistrate to read statement before giving leave to admit it – Criminal Justice Act 1988, ss 23(3)(b), 26.
The applicant was charged with causing grievous bodily harm with intent and false imprisonment of his girlfriend. At the committal proceedings the girl friend went into the witness box and took an oath but the examining magistrate formed the opinion from her demeanour and responses to questions put by the prosecution that she was failing or refusing to ‘give oral evidence through fear’ and granted an application by the prosecution for her written statement to the police to be admitted in evidence under s 23(3)(b)a and s 26b of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 on the grounds that it was ‘in the interests of justice’ to do so. The magistrate had not read the statement before making her decision but subsequently deposed that she would have reached the same conclusion even if its contents had been put before her. The applicant applied for judicial review of the magistrate’s decision, contending (i) that a witness’s written statement was only admissible under s 26 if the witness did not give any oral evidence at all, ie refused to utter a single word of evidence before the court, (ii) that the witness had actually to state that he was not giving evidence through fear or there had to be evidence from someone who had seen the witness outside the court and concluded that he was in fear and (iii) that the magistrate was required to have seen and read the statement before deciding that it should be admitted since the court was required under s 26 to have regard to ‘the contents of the statement’, ‘any risk [of] unfairness to the accused’ if the statement was admitted and ‘any other circumstances’ appearing to be relevant.
Held – (1) For the purposes of s 23 of the 1988 Act a witness’s written statement was admissible under s 26 of that Act because the witness had refused to ‘give oral evidence through fear’ not only when the witness literally uttered not a word and stood mute but also (per McCowan LJ) when he refused through fear to give any evidence of significant relevance or (per Popplewell J) when the witness, having started to give evidence, was prevented by fear from giving further oral evidence (see p 158 a to c, p 159 j and p 160 d e, post).
(2) Whether a witness was refusing to give oral evidence ‘through fear’ did not have to be explicitly stated by the witness but could be determined by the court forming its own opinion from the witness’s demeanour that it was sure that the
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witness was being prevented by fear from giving evidence (see p 158 f to j and p 160 f, post).
(3) The court was not required to have seen and read the witness’s written statement before deciding that it was admissible under s 26 of the 1988 Act but merely had to be apprised of the contents of the document before making its decision (see p 159 b and p 160 f, post).
(4) On the facts, the witness had clearly given no oral evidence of significant relevance to the case, the examining magistrate had formed the clear view that the witness had refused or failed to do so as a result of fear, and the magistrate had been apprised of the contents of the witness’s written statement when the case was opened by the prosecution. It followed that the witness’s written statement was admissible in evidence under ss 23 and 26 of the 1988 Act. The application for judicial review would therefore be refused (see p 158 e f h j, p 159 b f and p 160 f, post).
Notes
For admissibility of written statements, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1102, and for a case on the subject, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 16, 18102.
Case referred to in judgments
R v Acton Justices, ex p McMullen, R v Tower Bridge Magistrates’ Court, ex p Lawlor (1990) 92 Cr App R 98, DC.
Application for judicial review
Kevin John Hilden applied, with the leave of Henry J given on 6 July 1992, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash an order made by the first respondent Valerie Ann Dawes, sitting as an examining magistrate at Ashford Magistrates’ Court on 3 July 1992 whereby she committed the applicant for trial in the Crown Court at Maidstone on charges of causing grievous bodily harm with intent and false imprisonment. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCowan LJ.
Louis French (instructed by Bradleys, Ashford, Kent) for the applicant.
Geoffrey Cox (instructed by Kingsford Flower & Pain, Ashford, Kent) for the first respondent.
John Hillen (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Maidstone) for the Crown.
23 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
McCOWAN LJ. This is an application for judicial review, leave having been given by Henry J on 6 July 1992.
The relief sought is an order of certiorari to quash an order made by the Ashford magistrates on 3 July 1992 that the applicant, Kevin John Hilden, be committed for trial in the Crown Court at Maidstone. It is submitted in the grounds that this was wrong in law and/or contrary to natural justice.
The applicant was charged with causing grievous bodily harm with intent and false imprisonment. The person who is the subject of each of those charges is his girlfriend. At the committal proceedings she went into the witness box and took an oath. Her deposition is before the court. What she said according to the deposition is:
‘I do not remember where I was on Friday 1st May, 1992. I sometimes go for a drink in public houses in Ashford. I go for a drink in the evening in Ashford all the time. I do know Kevin Hilden. Kevin Hilden is my boyfriend. He has been my boyfriend for 3 years. I am sure I still regard him as my
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boyfriend now. [She is shown the album of photos.] I do not know who that is in the photos. I have no comment as to whether I have any injuries like that or have had any injuries like that. Again I say no comment as to whether I have ever had injuries like that. I have answered the question. I do not have to say nothing. Again no comment as to why I don’t want to tell the court why I have ever had injuries like that. Before being called into court I read through a document. I did read it. I read it quickly. The lady at the back of the court is Kevin’s grandmother. She is here because Kevin is. And because she came with me. I do not now live at 65 Crownfield Road, Ashford. I do not know if I was there on the 28th June. When was that. I was probably there last Friday. My friend lives there. Her name is Veronica. I cannot remember what happened it was a long time ago. I accept that I looked through a document this morning before I came in to give evidence. I don’t know if that was to refresh my memory.’
There was no cross-examination.
The court has had before it an affidavit sworn by Valerie Ann Dawes, who was the justice of the peace sitting as an examining magistrate in this case. She says:
‘(3) … During the taking of the deposition I formed the firm impression from her demeanour and from her responses that she was affected by fear and that that explained her refusal to answer the questions put to her … (5) After some further questioning the Crown did not persist and made application to me that her written statement should be admitted under Section 23(3)(b) of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. It was submitted on behalf of the Crown that the witness was plainly in fear as a consequence of the offence, if not of something said or done to her subsequently and that nothing in the act prevented it from applying in the present circumstances, where the witness appeared but failed to give answers to the questions asked. It was submitted on behalf of the applicant that the witness had not herself asserted in evidence that she was in fear. (6) I retired to consider the application and sought the advice of the Deputy Chief Clerk to the Magistrates. I was advised that I could admit the written statement into evidence if I was sure that the witness was in fear as a result of the offence or had been put in fear subsequently in relation to the offence and the possibility of having to testify to it. I was referred to Archbold paragraphs 9-130 to 137. (7) I was satisfied so that I was sure and found as a fact, based upon my observations of the witness and the injuries caused [to] her, that she was in fear. Thereafter upon advice I considered the provisions of Section 26 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. I decided that it was in the interests of justice that the statement should be admitted having regard to the matters set out at (i), (ii) and (iii) thereof. However, I was not at this time shown a copy of the statement nor did I have its full contents before me during these deliberations. I relied solely upon the outline of the circumstances of the allegations made by [the witness] which had been given by the prosecution in the opening and upon the photographs given to me by agreement. The statement dated 4th May 1992 was only shown to me after I had given leave for it to be admitted when it was also read in Open Court by the Crown. (8) It has been pointed out to me that Section 26 provides that “it shall be the duty of the Court to have regard (i) to the contents of the statement …” and in so far as this requires that the statement itself should be before the Court for its consideration that I was in error in not requesting a copy of it before making the decision to admit it. (9) However, I have carefully considered whether or not the full contents of
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the statement having been put before me I would have made the same decision to allow it to be read. I have concluded that nothing within it substantially differed from the account of it which I had received at the outset of the hearing and upon which I relied and that the interests of justice would still have required me to have admitted it.’
I turn to the relevant sections of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. In so far as relevant, s 23 reads as follows:
‘(1) … a statement made by a person in a document shall be admissible in criminal proceedings as evidence of any fact of which direct oral evidence by him would be admissible if … (ii) the requirements of subsection (3) below are satisfied …
(3) The requirements mentioned in subsection (1)(ii) above are … (b) that the person who made it does not give oral evidence through fear or because he is kept out of the way …’
Section 26 reads:
‘Where a statement which is admissible in criminal proceedings by virtue of section 23 or 24 above appears to the court to have been prepared, otherwise than in accordance with section 29 below or an order under paragraph 6 of Schedule 13 to this Act or under section 30 or 31 below, for the purposes—(a) of pending or contemplated criminal proceedings; or (b) of a criminal investigation, the statement shall not be given in evidence in any criminal proceedings without the leave of the court, and the court shall not give leave unless it is of the opinion that the statement ought to be admitted in the interests of justice, and in considering whether its admission would be in the interests of justice, it shall be the duty of the court to have regard—(i) to the contents of the statement; (ii) to any risk, having regard in particular to whether it is likely to be possible to controvert the statement if the person making it does not attend to give oral evidence in the proceedings, that its admission or exclusion will result in unfairness to the accused or, if there is more than one, to any of them; and (iii) to any other circumstances that appear to the court to be relevant.’
Appearing for the applicant before this court, Mr French has made three submissions. The first of those turns upon the words in s 23(3)(b), ‘the person who made it does not give oral evidence through fear or because he is kept out of the way’. In this case there is no suggestion that she was kept out of the way. The important words therefore are ‘does not give oral evidence through fear’.
Mr French submits that for s 26 to bite (as he puts it) the court must have before it a witness that does not utter a single word of evidence. He says that oral evidence starts immediately after the taking of the oath. Indeed, he went so far as to submit that this section is aimed at covering those who will not come into court at all; they may not have been kept out of the way, they may have arrived at the court building, but they will not come into court and in fact do not come into court. Once they come into court and take the oath, anything they say thereafter, be it only their name and address, amounts to oral evidence.
He sought also to get some support from the words in s 26(ii) ‘if the person making it does not attend to give oral evidence’. For my part, I cannot see how that assists him. If anything, I should have thought it was against him. Those words ‘does not attend to give oral evidence’ do not appear in s 23. What is said there is ‘does not give oral evidence through fear or because he is kept out of the
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way’. Those words are clearly disjunctive. It is one or the other. In the present case the question is: did this witness give oral evidence?
I cannot accept the submission that she must literally utter not one word, that she must stand there completely mute in order that s 26 can have any effect. In my judgment, what it means is that she must not have given evidence of significant relevance to the case.
Mr Hillen appearing for the prosecution before us drew our attention to definitions of ‘evidence’ in two very well known textbooks. Cross on Evidence (7th edn, 1990) p 42 defines testimony as ‘the statement of a witness in court offered as evidence of the truth of that which is stated’. Phipson on Evidence (14th edn, 1990) para 1-03 says: ‘In a real sense evidence is that which may be placed before the court in order that it may decide the issues of fact.' Those definitions are saying in another and perhaps more elegant way what I am saying, namely that before there is oral evidence in the context of this section, there must be evidence of significant relevance to the case.
Looking back at this young woman’s deposition, I note in particular these phrases:
‘I do not remember where I was on Friday 1st May 1992 … I do not know who that is in the photos. I have no comment as to whether I have any injuries like that or have had any injuries like that … I do not have to say nothing. Again no comment as to why I don’t want to tell the court why I have ever had injuries like that … I do not now live at 65 Crownfield Road, Ashford. I do not know if I was there on the 28th June … I cannot remember what happened. It was a long time ago.’
In my judgment, she clearly gave no evidence of significant relevance to the case. Put another way, in no real sense did the evidence which she placed before the court go to decide the issues of fact in the case. Accordingly, I for my part would reject Mr French’s first submission.
His second submission turns upon the words ‘through fear’. He submits in effect that either the witness has actually to say, ‘I am not giving evidence through fear’ or there has to be evidence from a witness, presumably a police officer, to say that he has seen the witness outside the court and has concluded that she was in fear. This ties in with his argument that the section is to cover those who will not come into court; and, since the witness has not come into court, it is perfectly permissible, he submits, for a police officer to say, ‘I have seen her outside and she was shaking with fear.’
I cannot for my part understand how that is better evidence than a magistrate seeing the witness and forming her own view that the witness is shaking with fear. I see nothing in the section which requires that the witness herself should say, ‘I am not giving evidence through fear.' I have already recounted the affidavit of the magistrate, which makes it clear that in this case she formed a clear view that the reason why the witness was not giving oral evidence was because she was fearful of doing so.
Mr French points out that the criminal standards of proof must be applied. He is right about that. It is apparent from the affidavit of the magistrate that she appreciated that, and she made it clear that she was sure that the witness was not giving evidence as a result of fear.
I have no doubt that it is open to magistrates to be satisfied of that fact, namely that the evidence is not being given through fear, by reason of the demeanour of the witness. Accordingly, I reject Mr French’s second submission.
Thirdly, he says that s 26 provides that it shall be the duty of the court to have
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regard ‘to the contents of the statement’ and he says that the magistrate has admitted that she did not have regard to the contents of the statement before making her mind up on the issue in question.
He is only right about that if the words I quoted from s 26 mean that she has to have seen and read the statement. She has admitted she did not do that, but in my judgment the section does not say and does not mean that she must have seen and read the statement. What she must have done is been apprised of the contents of the statement and, on her evidence, she had been apprised of those contents because the case was opened by the prosecutor and it is apparent that she did tell her of the contents of the statement in opening the case. She did, in other words, in essence know what the contents of the statement were.
In any event, she goes on to say that she would have reached the same decision had she read the document. The relevance of that becomes apparent when I turn to R v Acton Justices, ex p McMullen, R v Tower Bridge Magistrates’ Court, ex p Lawlor (1990) 92 Cr App R 98 at 106, which was a decision of the Divisional Court. Watkins LJ said:
‘Lastly, it is complained that the magistrate did not, in reaching his decision to allow the statement of the young witness to be read, act according to the provisions of section 26. It is, as I have already indicated, clear that he did not consider that section at all. Obviously he should have done that. Nevertheless he informs us in his affidavit, and I accept, that had he done so his decision would have been the same.’
That was plainly a stronger case than the present one because there the magistrate had not considered s 26 at all. In the present case the magistrate did consider s 26. She did consider the contents of the document. But, if I were wrong about that, the fact is she has read it now and she has said, as the magistrates did in the Tower Bridge Magistrates’ Court case, that, having read it, her decision would have been exactly the same. Consequently, I reject Mr French’s third submission.
It follows that in my judgment this application should be refused.
POPPLEWELL J. I agree with the result proposed by McCowan LJ, but, as I have arrived at the same conclusions by a somewhat different route, I propose to express my own views in relation to the interpretation of s 23 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. McCowan LJ has already set out the section with which we are concerned.
In my judgment, it is capable of two interpretations. First is the interpretation which Mr French puts on it, that is that the person who made the statement does not give (in my words) any oral evidence through fear, that is to say that he or she is prevented from going into the witness box through fear. I do not accede to the submission made by Mr Hillen that the phrase ‘oral evidence’ must mean some material oral evidence. The 1988 Act quotes no support for such an interpretation. It seems to me that once the witness has gone into the witness box, taken the oath and given any evidence, that constitutes oral evidence.
The other interpretation is to remove the word ‘any’ and insert the word ‘some’. That is to say, if a person starts giving oral evidence (even material oral evidence) without fear but is prevented from giving further oral evidence through fear, that is a person who can properly be categorised as a person who does not give oral evidence through fear.
Both those interpretations seem to me to be possible and there being in my judgment an ambiguity, the question which then arises is which interpretation is to be preferred.
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We have been referred to a useful article ‘Hostile witnesses and the admission of witness statements under section 23 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988’ [1991] Crim LR 349 by Mr Munday, who is a Fellow of Peterhouse. He observes (at 351) that this section, s 23, is additional to s 13(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 which refers to witnesses ‘kept out of the way by means of the procurement of the accused or on his behalf’. It is clear that the intention of Parliament was to widen that provision.
Mr French also drew our attention to the decision of R v Acton Justices, ex p McMullen, R v Tower Bridge Magistrates’ Court, ex p Lawlor (1991) 92 Cr App R 98 at 103, where Watkins LJ said in relation to this particular section:
‘The clear object of the provision is to render a statement admissible in circumstances where someone has sought to place its maker in fear of attending court or has physically prevented him from doing so.’
Mr French relies on that passage as supporting his submission. It has to be remembered that that observation by Watkins LJ was made in the context of that case where the witness had not gone into the witness box and given any evidence.
It seems to me there is no logic in the submission made by Mr French as to his interpretation. Why should a witness who is terrified during the course of giving evidence be treated differently from a witness terrified before giving evidence ? It is by no means uncommon for a witness to dry up during the course of giving evidence. If a threat inducing fear is made during the trial, there seems to be no logical reason for treating its effect differently from a threat made before trial. Common sense requires that Mr French’s submissions, admirably made, should be rejected. He makes a submission that that will cause difficulties in dealing with evidence at trial. Those difficulties in my judgment are easily and readily overcome by the provisions of s 26, which provide that a statement will not be admitted unless the court is of the opinion that it is in the interests of justice. The anxieties which he expresses in my judgment are non-existent given the power of the court under s 26.
I entirely agree with what McCowan LJ said about the other submissions made, and I agree with the conclusion that this application must be dismissed.
Application dismissed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: what is the meaning of the words ‘does not give oral evidence’ in s 23(3)(b) of the Criminal Justice Act 1988? In particular, does it mean no oral evidence at all, or no evidence of significant relevance to the case, or a failure to give some evidence?
4 November. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle and Lord Slynn of Hadley) refused leave to appeal.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Dagnell and another v J L Freedman & Co (a firm) and others
[1993] 2 All ER 161
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD OLIVER OF AYLMERTON, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12 NOVEMBER 1992, 11 MARCH 1993
Writ – Extension of validity – Action statute-barred – Discretion to renew writ – Good reason for extension – Collateral proceedings – Beddoe application – Plaintiff trustees failing to serve writ within period of validity because of need to make Beddoe application to protect their costs – Whether plaintiffs showing good reason for failure to serve writ within period of validity – RSC Ord 6, r 8(2).
The plaintiffs were the trustees of the will of S, who died in 1966 leaving as part of his estate a 75% share of a freehold property which was subject to a 35-year lease expiring in 1982 with an option to renew for a further 35 years at the same rent, such option being conditional on there being no breach of the covenants in the lease. When the lease expired in 1982 the lessees gave notice exercising the option to renew and a further 35-year lease at the same rent was granted to the lessees. On 25 August 1987 a beneficiary under S’s will brought an action against the trustees of the will claiming that they had acted in breach of trust in relation to the renewal of the lease. On 29 September 1988 the plaintiffs issued, but did not serve, a writ against former partners or their representatives (the defendants) of a firm of solicitors instructed by S and his co-owner to act for them in relation to the grant of the option to renew the lease. The firm had subsequently been dissolved. The plaintiffs claimed that the solicitors had been negligent in failing to advise that the exercise of the option to renew could be resisted on the ground that at the time of its exercise there were subsisting breaches of the repairing covenants in the lease. On 10 March 1989 the beneficiary’s action against the trustees was stayed on the trustees undertaking to make a Beddoe application authorising them to sue the solicitors for negligence and thereby protecting them as to costs. On 21 March 1989 the plaintiffs made a Beddoe application, the hearing date being fixed for 3 October 1989, which was after the expiration of the limitation period of six years for the plaintiffs’ claim on 6 April 1989 and also a few days after the validity of the writ would expire. In August 1989 the plaintiffs were granted an ex parte extension of the validity of the writ under RSC Ord 6, r 8(2)a until 28 December. When the Beddoe application was heard in October 1989 the plaintiffs were authorised to serve the writ but, because of various difficulties, the writ was not served on all material parties until 4 January 1990. Meanwhile, on 8 December 1989, a further extension of the validity of the writ until 31 January 1990 had been granted. The defendants applied to the master to set aside the two extensions but he refused their application and on appeal the judge affirmed his decision. The defendants appealed to the Court of Appeal, which allowed their appeal and set aside the two orders extending the validity of the writ. The plaintiffs appealed to the House of Lords.
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Held – Although the power conferred by RSC Ord 6, r 8 to extend the validity of a writ was wholly discretionary, a judge had to approach the exercise of that discretion in accordance with established principles, including the principle that in the ordinary case collateral litigation against third parties was not capable of constituting a good reason for failure to serve a writ. There was no good reason for treating a Beddoe application on a different basis from other collateral litigation and therefore failure to serve a writ due to the need to make a Beddoe application did not in itself ordinarily provide good reason for failure to serve the writ. Although trustee plaintiffs might need to secure their position as to costs before starting proceedings by making a Beddoe application, they had to do so in good time. It followed that the Court of Appeal had been entitled to set aside the extensions of the writ and the appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 163 b to d, p 167 j, p 168 e to g and p 169 b to e, post).
Battersby v Anglo-American Oil Co Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 387 and Baly v Barrett [1988] NI 368 applied.
Re Beddoe, Downes v Cottam [1893] 1 Ch 547 explained.
Notes
For renewal of a writ, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 124, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 245–249, 1602–1623.
For a trustee’s right to reimbursement and indemnity out of the trust property in respect of expenses and liabilities incurred in performing the trust or in respect of the trust property, see 48 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 776, 781, and for cases on the subject, see 48 Digest (Reissue) 328–355, 420–430, 2952–3246, 3860–3977.
Cases referred to in opinions
Baly v Barrett [1988] NI 368, NI CA and HL.
Battersby v Anglo-American Oil Co Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 387, [1945] KB 23, CA.
Beddoe, Re, Downes v Cottam [1893] 1 Ch 547, CA.
Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd, The Myrto (No 3) [1987] 2 All ER 289, [1987] AC 597, [1987] 2 WLR 1053, HL.
Waddon v Whitecroft-Scovill Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 996, [1988] 1 WLR 309, HL.
Consolidated appeals
The plaintiffs, Michael Peter Dagnell and Sidney Gould, the trustees of the will of Chaim Joseph Stillitz deceased, appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 18 February 1992 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Dillon and Ralph Gibson LJJ (Staughton LJ dissenting)) on 22 October 1991 allowing the appeals of the second defendant, Julian Michael Weider, the sixth defendant, Stephen Howard Brown, the seventh defendant, Michael Simon Brown and the eighth defendant, David Philip Brown, from the judgment of Hoffmann J on 14 February 1991 dismissing their appeals from the orders of Master Gowers dated 13 June 1990 dismissing their applications to set aside orders extending the validity of the writ issued by the plaintiffs on 29 September 1988 made by Master Gowers on 11 August and 8 December 1989. The appeals were consolidated by order of the House of Lords dated 10 March 1992. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Templeman.
Peter Leaver QC and Jeffery Onions (instructed by McKenna & Co) for the plaintiffs.
Martin Mann QC and Daniel Gerrans (instructed by Ince & Co) for the defendants.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
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11 March 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, a writ ceases to be valid unless it is served within 12 months of its issue. The validity of the writ can be extended if the plaintiff shows good cause. If the limitation period applicable to the cause of action is due to expire before the end of the 12 months’ period the court should not, as a general rule, grant any extension. In the present case the writ was issued on 29 September 1988, the limitation period expired on 6 April 1989 and the court on 11 August 1989 granted an extension of the writ until 28 December 1989. That order should not have been made; the plaintiffs should have been left to serve before 29 September 1989. The plaintiffs and their solicitors cannot be criticised for applying for an extension or for relying on the order for an extension although the Court of Appeal rightly set aside the order for an extension.
For the reasons to be given by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson I would dismiss the appeals with costs.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives, I too would dismiss the appeals with costs.
LORD OLIVER OF AYLMERTON. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives, I too would dismiss the appeals with costs.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, in this case the plaintiffs, who are trustees, applied to the Chancery Division for directions whether they should bring this action against the defendants (the Beddoe application: see Re Beddoe, Downes v Cottam [1893] 1 Ch 547). The delay caused by the Beddoe application meant that they felt unable to serve the writ in this action within 12 months of its issue. They accordingly applied for and obtained an extension of the validity of the writ. Such extension can only be granted if good reason is shown. The question is whether the making of the Beddoe application constituted or was capable of constituting such good reason.
The full facts of the case are lengthy and complicated. I will seek to limit my exposition to those facts necessary for the decision of the only issue which arises for decision by your Lordships. The plaintiffs in the action are the present trustees of the will of C J Stillitz. During his lifetime C J Stillitz and his brother A L Stillitz were tenants in common of a freehold property, Hartsbourne Manor (Hartsbourne), Bushey Heath, C J Stillitz being entitled to a 75% share and his brother to the remaining 25% share.
On 1 May 1948 the Stillitz brothers granted a lease of Hartsbourne for a term of 35 years with an option to renew for a further period of 35 years at the same rent, such option being conditional upon there being no breach of the covenants in the lease at the date of its exercise.
C J Stillitz died in 1966; his 75% share in Hartsbourne vested in his personal representatives. The 25% share of A L Stillitz became vested in a Mrs Azizoff.
In January 1982 the lessees of Hartsbourne gave notice exercising the option to renew the lease. The then trustees of the will of C J Stillitz and Mrs Azizoff instructed first Messrs Trower Still & Keeling (Trowers) and later Messrs J L Freedman & Co (Freedmans) to act for them as solicitors in relation to the exercise of the option.
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In this action the plaintiffs claim against the former partners in Freedmans (which firm has since been dissolved) that Freedmans were negligent in failing to advise that the exercise of the option to renew could be resisted on the ground that at the time of its exercise there were subsisting breaches of the repairing covenants in the lease. In the absence of such advice, a further lease for 35 years at the same rent was granted to the lessees on 5 April 1983. It follows that the plaintiffs’ claim in this action against the defendants became time-barred at the latest by 6 April 1989.
In 1986 a Mrs Taylor, who was a beneficiary under the will of C J Stillitz, raised a complaint that the then trustees of the will had acted in breach of trust in relation to the renewal of the lease. The trustees then instructed Messrs McKenna & Co (McKennas) to deal with this complaint. On 25 August 1987 Mrs Taylor started proceedings against the trustees, which proceedings were stayed on 10 March 1989 on the trustees of the will giving an undertaking to make a Beddoe application for directions whether they should sue Trowers and Freedmans for negligence.
In the meantime, McKennas had been seeking to investigate what had occurred in 1982 and 1983, their research being hampered by a number of factors the details of which I need not recount. The judge accepted that McKennas had considerable difficulty in assembling the necessary material. On 25 November 1987, when researches were far from complete, the plaintiffs issued a writ against Trowers. This writ was served on 23 November 1988, it being agreed with Trowers that the time for acknowledgment of service and for a statement of claim should be extended generally.
The writ in this action was issued on 29 September 1988 but was not immediately served. The defendants to the action were initially (1) Freedmans, (2) J M Weider (a partner in Freedmans) and (3) Sybil Brown (the executrix of Michael Brown, a deceased partner in Freedmans). It subsequently transpired that Freedmans had been dissolved in 1986 and that Sybil Brown had herself died on 30 September 1988. Effectively the action is now brought against the second defendant, Mr Weider, as a former partner in Freedmans and the sixth, seventh and eighth defendants who are the personal representatives of Mrs Brown and the executors by representation of Michael Brown, the former partner in Freedmans.
The trustees of the C J Stillitz will trust were advised that they ought to make a Beddoe application to the court before pursuing the action against Trowers and the action against Freedmans. Shortly stated, a Beddoe application is directed to ensuring that trustees who, in defence of the trust estate, become involved in litigation with third parties are entitled to recover their costs out of the trust estate. In an action between trustees as plaintiffs and strangers to the trust as defendants, the costs of the action will be dealt with by the trial judge on the normal basis and without regard to the fact that the plaintiffs are trustees. If, in such an action, trustee plaintiffs are ordered to pay the defendants’ costs, the trustee plaintiffs will be personally liable so to do. If the trustees wish to be indemnified out of the trust estate against their own costs of litigation and any costs which they are ordered to pay to the other side, they must show that those costs were incurred honestly and reasonably for the benefit of the trust estate. In Re Beddoe, Downes v Cottam [1893] 1 Ch 547 the Court of Appeal held that the fact that the trustees had acted on the advice of counsel did not necessarily demonstrate that they had acted reasonably. The only absolutely certain protection is for trustees to obtain an order from the court in separate proceedings, the Beddoe application, authorising the bringing or defending of proceedings before the costs of such proceedings are incurred.
In the present case, the originating summons in the Beddoe application was not issued until 21 March 1989. In June 1989 a hearing date for the Beddoe application was fixed for 3 October 1989, ie after the expiry of the limitation
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period of six years and a few days after the validity of the writ would expire. It was not urged before either the master or the judge that the plaintiff trustees had been guilty of any improper delay in issuing the Beddoe application or fixing the date for its hearing. To meet the difficulties which had arisen, on 11 August 1989 the plaintiffs applied for and were granted by Master Gowers ex parte an extension of the validity of the writ until 28 December 1989 (the first extension).
When the Beddoe application was heard on 3 and 5 October 1989, the plaintiffs were authorised by Master Munrow to serve the writ but not to take any further steps without the leave of the court. The trustees were directed to serve the order on all beneficiaries under the C J Stillitz will trust, who were given liberty to apply to set aside the order. Due to an error in the drawing up of the order of the court and the threat by a beneficiary to apply to vary the order, there was some delay but by 6 December these difficulties were cleared away and McKennas took steps to serve the writ.
At that time it was thought that Mrs Brown, though aged, was still alive. However, when attempts were made to serve her it was discovered that she had died on 30 September 1988. It was therefore necessary for the plaintiffs to apply for and obtain an order to carry on this action against Mrs Brown’s personal representatives. It was also thought, mistakenly in the event, that there had been two further partners in Freedmans and application was made to join them. Those applications were heard and granted by Master Gowers on 8 December 1989; the master also extended the validity of the writ for another month, ie until 31 January 1990 (the second extension). There were again difficulties in drawing up the order, but the writ in this action was finally served on all material parties by 4 January 1990.
After service, the defendants applied to Master Gowers to set aside the two extensions. He refused to do so. Hoffmann J dismissed appeals from the master. The defendants appealed to the Court of Appeal, which by a majority (Dillon and Ralph Gibson LJJ (Staughton LJ dissenting)) allowed the appeal and set aside the two orders extending the validity of the writ. The plaintiffs appeal to your Lordships’ House.
The principles applicable to the extension of the validity of a writ under RSC Ord 6, r 8 have recently been considered by this House on three occasions: see Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd, The Myrto (No 3) [1987] 2 All ER 289, [1987] AC 597, Waddon v Whitecroft-Scovill Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 996, [1988] 1 WLR 309 and Baly v Barrett [1988] NI 368. The starting point is that a defendant has a right to be sued, if at all, by means of a writ issued within the statutory period of limitation and served within the period of its initial validity which, at the relevant time, was 12 months. RSC Ord 6, r 8(2) confers on the court a discretion to extend the period of the writ’s validity. The rule expresses such discretion in entirely general terms, but the three decisions of this House to which I have referred have laid down the principles applicable to the exercise of such discretion. Lord Brandon of Oakbrook in Baly v Barrett [1988] NI 368 at 416–417 summarised those principles as follows:
‘(1) On the true construction of Ord. 6, r. 8 the power to extend the validity of a writ should only be exercised for good reason. (2) The question whether good reason exists in any particular case depends on all the circumstances of that case. Difficulty in effecting service of the writ may well constitute good reason, but it is not the only matter which is capable of doing so. (3) The balance of hardship between the parties can be a relevant matter to take into account in the exercise of the discretion. (4) The discretion is that of the judge and his exercise of it should not be interfered with by an appellate court except on special grounds the nature of which is well established. In the Waddon case the House corrected an apparent misunder-
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standing of principle (3) above by emphasising that the question of the balance of hardship between the parties can only arise if matters amounting to good reason for extension, or at least capable of so amounting, have first been established. In that case the balance of hardship between the parties may be a relevant factor in the exercise of the court’s discretion. But, if no matters amounting to good reason for extension, or capable of so amounting, have been established, the effect of principle (1) is that there is no room for the exercise of discretion at all, and that the question of the balance of hardship between the parties does not therefore arise.’
It is also established by the Waddon case [1988] 1 All ER 996 at 1001, [1988] 1 WLR 309 at 314 that, although what has to be shown is good reason for granting the extension of the writ, it is normally impossible to show such good reason without first showing good reason for the failure to serve the writ during the period of its validity. It has throughout been common ground in the present case that the crucial question is whether the plaintiffs have shown good reason for not serving the defendant during the validity of the original writ, ie by 28 September 1989.
Before the introduction of the new Ord 6, r 8 it had been established under the old rule which it superseded that the desire of a plaintiff to complete litigation against third parties (collateral litigation) does not normally provide a good reason for failure to serve a writ in the instant action during the period of its validity. In Battersby v Anglo-American Oil Co Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 387 at 391, [1945] KB 23 at 32 Lord Goddard, giving the judgment of the Court of Appeal, said:
‘In every case care should be taken to see that the renewal will not prejudice any right of defence then existing, and in any case it should only be granted where the court is satisfied that good reasons appear to excuse the delay in service, as, indeed, is laid down in the order. The best reason, of course, would be that the defendant has been avoiding service, or that his address is unknown, and there may well be others. But ordinarily it is not a good reason that the plaintiff desires to hold up the proceedings while some other case is tried, or to await some future development. It is for the court and not for one of the litigants to decide whether there should be a stay, and it is not right that people should be left in ignorance that proceedings have been taken against them if they are here to be served.’
Although those remarks were obiter and related to a rule expressed in different terms, that principle (the Battersby principle) was cited with approval in the Kleinwort case [1987] 2 All ER 289 at 295–296, [1987] AC 597 at 616–617, and there has been no submission to your Lordships that it is not equally applicable to cases under Ord 6, r 8.
Against that background, I turn to consider the reasons for their decisions given by Hoffmann J and the majority of the Court of Appeal.
Hoffmann J found that:
‘The reason why the first extension was sought was that the plaintiffs did not want to serve the writ and thereby commence proceedings against the Freedman defendants without the authority of a Beddoe order’
which could not be obtained within the period of the validity of the writ. After quoting the Battersby principle, he said that it was commonly applied to cases where it is thought that collateral litigation may be determinative of issues in the instant action. He then said:
‘It seems to me, however, as it did to the master, that an application on the
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grounds that a Beddoe order is being sought does not stand on the same footing as collateral litigation of the kind I have described. Trustees act gratuitously and are entitled to be protected against the risk that they may find themselves, notwithstanding their having acted in good faith, liable for the costs of litigation. One is not here speaking of collateral litigation which might be useful or even determinative in relation to issues but to a precondition upon which the trustees can reasonably insist before commencing the action at all. In principle, therefore, I do not think that what I might call the Battersby principle prevents the pendency of a Beddoe application from constituting a good reason for an extension of the writ. Each case must, however, be decided upon its own facts and there may be cases in which notwithstanding the pendency of such an application it is unreasonable for the trustees not to take some alternative course of action which would enable the writ to be served.’
The judge then proceeded to consider three courses which the plaintiffs might have adopted so as to serve the defendant without obtaining the first extension. First, it was suggested that the plaintiffs might have served without waiting for the court to give directions in the Beddoe application. The judge held that it was not reasonable to expect the plaintiffs to run the risk of being personally liable for their own and the defendants’ costs if subsequently such service was not approved on the Beddoe application. Second, the plaintiffs might, as in the Trowers action, have sought the defendants’ agreement to service of the writ followed by a standstill: the plaintiffs explained they had not taken this course because Mrs Brown was an old lady and they did not wish to worry her; the judge held this to be a reasonable explanation. Third, the plaintiffs might have made an emergency application in the Beddoe application for authority limited to service of the writ: the judge considered that on such emergency application the master’s view would have been conditioned by his view as to whether the writ could be validly extended. On these grounds he held that the first extension was proper. He also held the second extension to be proper.
In the Court of Appeal, the majority held that the judge had misdirected himself in law by treating the Beddoe application as not subject to the Battersby principle. They held that, treating the Battersby principle as applicable, there was nothing in the facts of this case sufficient to show good reason for granting the first extension; accordingly they set aside the orders granting the first and second extension.
In this House Mr Leaver QC for the plaintiffs submitted that the Court of Appeal had illegitimately interfered with the exercise of the judge’s discretion. He submitted that Hoffmann J had directed himself correctly. The majority in the Court of Appeal had expressly stopped short of saying that the need of a Beddoe application could never constitute a good reason for failure to serve the writ during the period of its validity. Therefore, Hoffmann J had directed himself correctly in finding that a Beddoe application was ‘capable’ of constituting a good reason and had then gone on correctly to consider all the circumstances of this particular case in reaching his conclusion that there was in fact good reason for the failure to serve the writ during the original 12-month period.
The power conferred by Ord 6, r 8, is wholly discretionary. However, a judge has to approach the exercise of that discretion in accordance with the principles laid down in the cases that I have referred to. Amongst those principles is the Battersby principle that ‘ordinarily’ collateral litigation is not capable of constituting good reason for failure to serve a writ. In the present case, the judge expressly held that the Battersby principle does not apply to cases where the plaintiffs are
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trustees and the collateral litigation is a Beddoe application made by the plaintiffs. He treated the need for a Beddoe application as ‘ordinarily’ providing good reason for an extension. He only went on to consider whether the other circumstances of the case were sufficient to show that there were special factors which led to the conclusion that the Beddoe application was not a good reason. He acted on a presumption that the Beddoe application provided a good reason and looked to see whether the facts of the present case rebutted that presumption, thereby reversing the Battersby principle.
In so doing, Hoffmann J was giving himself a direction in law as to the correct basis on which to exercise his discretion. The question is whether, in law, the presumption is that ordinarily a Beddoe application does provide a good reason for failure to serve the writ or whether it does not ordinarily provide a good reason. The Battersby principle does not state that collateral litigation can never constitute good reason, only that ‘ordinarily’ it does not do so: it is a legal presumption, not a rule of law. But if the judge was wrong in holding that a Beddoe application is not subject to the same legal presumption as other collateral litigation, the Court of Appeal was fully entitled to hold, as it did, that he had misdirected himself in law and therefore to exercise the discretion afresh themselves.
The question, therefore, is whether it is right to treat a Beddoe application as being different to other collateral litigation and to approach the matter on the basis that the need of trustee plaintiffs to secure their costs position prima facie constitutes good reason for not serving the writ in the action before its validity expires. In my judgment, there is no ground for treating a Beddoe application differently. The fundamental consideration is that a defendant has a right to be served with proceedings (if at all) within the statutory period of limitation plus the period for the validity of a writ. The convenience of the plaintiffs seeking to have other collateral proceedings determined first is not ordinarily good reason for impinging on this right of the defendant. The trustee plaintiffs, like other plaintiffs, may wish to secure their position as to costs before starting proceedings but this does not ordinarily justify denying defendants their normal right to be sued in due time.
If trustee plaintiffs wish to protect themselves against liability for costs by making a Beddoe application, they must do so, if possible, in good time. If time does not permit and, acting in accordance with the advice of competent counsel that they have a reasonable cause of action, they serve the writ on the defendant before a Beddoe order is obtained, no judge will hold that the costs incurred by so doing are not payable out of the trust estate as being improperly incurred. Although the principle that substantial legal costs should not be incurred by trustees without obtaining directions of the court remains good law, the decision in Re Beddoe, Downes v Cottam [1893] 1 Ch 547 itself repays study. First, it should be noted that in Re Beddoe counsel had advised that although the position was doubtful there was in his view no defence to the action brought against the trustee (at 564). Counsel also advised, wrongly, certain procedural steps to be adopted. But at root the case was concerned with costs amounting to nearly a quarter of the trust fund incurred by a trustee who had been advised that he would lose in fighting a case to judgment. Lindley LJ said that the solicitor to the trustee was at fault in not applying for directions ‘as he was advised that he had a doubtful case’ (at 558). Second, the Court of Appeal did not disallow all the costs incurred: the trustee was allowed such costs of the action as he would have incurred had he applied for directions (at 558). Re Beddoe does not decide that a trustee who fails to apply to the court for directions as to bringing litigation will never recover the
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costs incurred in so doing. All it decides is that he may be at risk in being entitled to be indemnified against such costs if he has acted imprudently, albeit on legal advice. Where counsel has advised that there is a good cause of action but time limits preclude an order being obtained from the court on a Beddoe application, in my judgment there can be no risk that the court will not sanction the payment of the costs consequent on serving the writ when the Beddoe application is heard.
Accordingly, in my judgment there is no special factor which requires Beddoe applications to be treated on any different basis from other collateral proceedings: failure to serve a writ due to the need to make a Beddoe application will ordinarily provide no good reason for failure to serve the writ. Accordingly, I agree with the Court of Appeal that the judge misdirected himself in law.
The majority of the Court of Appeal were therefore entitled themselves to exercise their own discretion on the right basis and set aside the extension of the writ. Although Ralph Gibson LJ (on this issue disagreeing with both Dillon and Staughton LJJ) thought that he could take into account factors not urged before the master and the judge, he expressly did not rely on those matters in reaching his final conclusion that no good reason had been shown to grant the first extension. Therefore, the majority of the Court of Appeal having exercised their own discretion when they were entitled so to do and on the right basis, it is not for this House to review their exercise of such discretion.
For these reasons, which are in substance the same reasons as those relied on by the majority in the Court of Appeal, I would dismiss this appeal with costs.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson, I too would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Lee
[1993] 2 All ER 170
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LLOYD LJ, TUDOR EVANS AND LATHAM JJ
Hearing Date(s): 30 JUNE, 6, 7 JULY 1992
Children and young persons – Court proceedings – Protection of child concerned in proceedings – Order that no report shall reveal particulars calculated to lead to identification of child concerned in proceedings – Criminal proceedings – Crown Court lifting order prohibiting identification of juvenile defendant – Application by defendant to Court of Appeal to reimpose order – Whether Court of Appeal having jurisdiction to make order in relation to proceedings in Crown Court – Whether order restricting reporting should be refused only in rare and exceptional cases – Children and Young Persons Act 1933, s 39.
In 1991 the defendant, a 14-year-old boy, was convicted of raping a 14-year-old girl. He was subsequently sentenced to two years and ten months’ imprisonment. At the start of his trial the judge made an order under s 39a of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 prohibiting the publication of particulars calculated to lead to the identification of the defendant. On 4 June 1992 the defendant was convicted of further offences committed while on bail for the rape. Again, at the start of that trial, an order was made under s 39 preventing his identification. However, when the defendant was sentenced on 25 June, the judge lifted the order under s 39 and reports identifying the defendant appeared in national newspapers that evening and the following morning. Later that day the defendant applied to the judge for the reimposition of reporting restrictions but the judge refused to reverse his decision although he imposed a temporary restriction while the defendant made an application to the Court of Appeal for an order under s 39 prohibiting the publication of particulars calculated to lead to his identification. At the hearing of that application the question arose whether the Court of Appeal had jurisdiction to impose such an order in relation to proceedings in the court below. The defendant contended, inter alia, that s 39 enabled a court to make an order in relation to ‘any proceedings’, which meant the whole course of the proceedings from the start of the case in the Crown Court until the conclusion of the proceedings in the Court of Appeal, and that since the proceedings were continuous and indivisible the Court of Appeal had jurisdiction under s 39 to make an order restricting publication of the proceedings in the Crown Court.
Held – The Court of Appeal had no jurisdiction under s 39 of the 1933 Act to make an order restricting publication of proceedings in the Crown Court which might lead to lead to the identification of a child concerned in the proceedings, since, on the true construction of s 39, ‘any proceedings’ meant any proceedings in the court that was making the order, and not any proceedings anywhere. Accordingly, although the Court of Appeal could make an order under s 39 in relation to any proceedings before it once they had been commenced, there was nothing in s 39 which enabled the Court of Appeal to make an order in relation to proceedings in the Crown Court. It followed that the application would be dismissed, the appropriate course being for the defendant to go back to the Crown Court in the event of any change of circumstances or to challenge the validity of the order by way of judicial review. Furthermore, treating the application as an application for judicial review, leave to apply would be granted but relief would be refused because the judge had directed himself correctly and had not been shown to have omitted any relevant factors (see p 174 d to h, p 175 h and p 176 j, post).
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Per curiam. The discretion of the court under s 39 to restrict reporting of proceedings involving a child should not be too strictly fettered. There is nothing in s 39 which says that it is only in rare and exceptional cases that a direction will not be given or having been given that it will be discharged. If the discretion under s 39 is too narrowly confined, there will be a danger of blurring the distinction between proceedings in juvenile courts and proceedings in the Crown Court (see p 175 j to p 176 c, post); dictum of Watkins LJ in R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S (a minor) [1992] 2 All ER 659 at 662 doubted.
Observations on the procedure to be followed by persons aggrieved by the imposition or discharging of an order under s 39 (see p 176 f to h, post).
Notes
For restrictions on reporting proceedings concerning children or young persons, see 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 899:3.
For the Children and Young Persons Act 1933, s 39, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 48.
Cases referred to in judgment
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] KB 223, CA.
R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S (a minor) [1992] 2 All ER 659, [1993] 1 WLR 111, DC.
R v Miall [1992] 3 All ER 153, [1992] QB 836, [1992] 2 WLR 883, CA.
Applications
By notice dated 30 June 1992 the applicant, a juvenile, applied to the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division for an order that no newspaper report of certain proceedings on indictment against him should reveal his name, address or school or include any particulars calculated to lead to his identification until further order and that no picture of him should be published in any newspaper until further order. By notice of application dated 6 July 1992 the applicant applied to the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division for leave to move for judicial review of the decisions of Judge Coombe sitting without a jury in the Central Criminal Court (i) on 25 June 1992 to lift an order prohibiting publication of matters calculated to lead to the identification of the applicant and prohibiting the publication of any photograph of him made by Mr Recorder Crespi QC pursuant to s 39 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 at the Central Criminal Court on 1 June 1992 and (ii) on 26 June 1992 not to reimpose such an order under s 39 beyond midnight on 1 July 1992, the relief sought being (i) an order of certiorari to quash the decisions, alternatively (ii) an order of certiorari to quash the second decision and an order of mandamus requiring the judge to impose an order under s 39 in respect of the proceedings on indictment and (iii) by way of interim relief an order in like terms until the trial or further order. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Court of Appeal.
Andrew Short (who did not appear below) (instructed by Hallmark Atkinson Wynter) for the applicant.
Presiley Baxendale QC (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amica curiae.
Cur adv vult
7 July 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LLOYD LJ. In this case we have been asked to consider an unusual point which does not appear to be covered by authority. Accordingly we asked for the assistance of an amicus curiae. We are grateful for Miss Baxendale QC’s help.
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The question is whether the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, has jurisdiction to make an order under s 39 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 prohibiting the publication of the applicant’s name, address and photograph in the newspapers, not in relation to proceedings pending in the Court of Appeal but in relation to proceedings in the court below. Section 39 provides:
‘(1) In relation to any proceedings in any court the court may direct that—(a) no newspaper report of the proceedings shall reveal the name, address, or school, or include any particulars calculated to lead to the identification, of any child or young person concerned in the proceedings, either as being the person by or against or in respect of whom the proceedings are taken, or as being a witness therein; (b) no picture shall be published in any newspaper as being or including a picture of any child or young person so concerned in the proceedings as aforesaid; except in so far (if at all) as may be permitted by the direction of the court …’
The facts are that in November 1991 a 14-year-old boy was tried and convicted in the Central Criminal Court on a charge of raping a 14-year-old girl. At the outset of the trial Judge Lowry made an order under s 39. That order is still in force and has not been appealed. On 2 January 1992 he was sentenced to two years ten months’ detention under s 53(2) of the 1933 Act.
On 1 June 1992 the applicant faced a second indictment. He was tried at the Central Criminal Court for offences of robbery and possessing an imitation firearm committed on 3 November 1991 while he was on bail for the rape. At the outset of the trial Mr Recorder Crespi QC made an order under s 39. On 4 June the applicant was convicted. On 25 June he was sentenced by Judge Coombe to three years’ detention under s 53(2) consecutive to the two years ten months imposed in January 1992.
We are told that the applicant intends to apply for leave to appeal against his conviction on both indictments but no leave has yet been granted. On this application we are not concerned with the merits of those appeals if leave is granted; we are concerned solely with our powers under s 39.
After passing sentence on 25 June Judge Coombe lifted the restriction upon publication. In a ruling which he gave the next day he said that he had reached his decision without hesitation. We come to his reasons in due course.
Meanwhile, on the evening of 25 June there was an urgent application to Mantell J on the telephone. He was the duty judge hearing applications in the Divisional Court list that day. He was, understandably, reluctant to make an order ex parte on the telephone. However, at 7.15 pm he was persuaded to make a holding order restraining publication until 11 am on 26 June on the applicant’s undertaking to file a notice of appeal against conviction by midday on 26 June (this must, we suspect, mean notice of application for leave to appeal against conviction), and further undertaking to apply to Judge Coombe not later than 11 am for a renewed order under s 39. It is not clear in what capacity Mantell J was acting, whether as a judge of the High Court, a judge of the Crown Court, or in some other capacity.
Meanwhile, the Evening Standard newspaper carried a report of the judge’s sentencing remarks on the evening of 25 June and published the applicant’s name and address, accompanied by a photograph with the subscription: ‘Rapist and Robber’. The following morning there were extensive reports in the Daily Mirror and other national papers.
Judge Coombe heared submissions for the best part of 26 June. He was referred to R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S (a minor) [1992] 2 All ER 659, [1993] 1 WLR 111. At the end of the day he ruled that he would not reverse his order made the
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previous day lifting the restrictions under s 39. However, he was then persuaded to impose a temporary restriction until midnight on Wednesday, 1 July, pending an application to the Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal. We heard that application ex parte as a matter of great urgency on the evening of Tuesday, 30 June at the end of our day’s list.
The application was made by Mr Short, who had taken no part in any of the previous proceedings, so it is not surprising that he was to some extent feeling his way. However, he made it very plain at the outset that, despite appearances, he was not appealing against the order made by Judge Coombe. He saw difficulties in taking that course. Instead he was asking us to exercise our original jurisdiction conferred by s 39 of the Act. Since this was itself not without its difficulties, we thought it desirable to invite the help of an amicus. Accordingly we arranged for the case to be relisted on Monday, 6 July. We could not make an interim order pending that relisting since that would be to prejudge the question of our jurisdiction. So we suggested that Mr Short go back yet again to Judge Coombe. The judge was naturally concerned that any remaining news value in the story was fast evaporating. Nevertheless he extended the order for a further seven days until midnight on 15 July. We heard argument yesterday, as anticipated, and we now give judgment.
The first and most important point made by Mr Short is, as we have already said, that this is not in form or in substance an appeal against the order of Judge Coombe lifting the reporting restrictions. He accepts that if he wishes to challenge the validity of that order he must go to the Divisional Court by way of judicial review—see R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S. In that case the applicant, aged 12, had pleaded guilty to a charge of arson. He had set fire to an ambulance station causing damage estimated at £2.5m. Judge Wild imposed reporting restrictions under s 39. That order was subsequently lifted by Judge Young. But he stayed the lifting of the order for 48 hours so as to enable an application to be made to the Divisional Court. The application was successful. The court held that the granting or withholding of an order under s 39 is not a matter relating to trial on indictment within s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, so the Divisional Court had jurisdiction to deal with the application. The court went on to hold, inter alia, that Judge Young’s order lifting the restrictions was Wednesbury unreasonable (see Associated Provisional Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223). Judge Wild’s order was therefore reinstated. Mr Short does not challenge the correctness of that decision. We are prepared to assume therefore that Mr Short’s first point is well founded.
The second point made by Mr Short is that there is nothing in s 39 of the 1933 Act to prevent the Court of Appeal giving a fresh direction under s 39 independent of any order made by Judge Coombe. Section 39 enables any court to make an order in relation to any proceedings. The Court of Appeal is now, he says, seised of the case since the applicant has given notice of application for leave to appeal. ‘Proceedings’ in s 39 means the whole course of the proceedings from the start of the case in the Crown Court until the conclusion of the proceedings in the Court of Appeal. Since the proceedings are continuous and indivisible, the Court of Appeal has jurisdiction under s 39 to make an order restricting publication of the proceedings in the court below. It is just and convenient, says Mr Short, that the Court of Appeal should have that power and should exercise it when appropriate, for three reasons.
In the first place, circumstances can change. If the Crown Court were to make no order on the first application it is desirable that the parties should be able to go back in the event of a change of circumstances. But there is no procedure for going back to the Crown Court after 28 days have elapsed. The Crown Court
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would be functus officio. The only alternative is to come straight to the Court of Appeal on an interlocutory application.
Secondly, there is express provision in s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988, which gives a person aggrieved by an order restricting publication, in practice a member of the press, the right to appeal to the Court of Appeal. There is no equivalent provision enabling a person aggrieved by the withholding or discharging of an order to come to the Court of Appeal. This must be because Parliament assumed that a person aggrieved by the withholding or discharing of an order already had a right of access to the Court of Appeal under s 39 of the 1933 Act.
Thirdly, it would be most inconvenient if a member of the press seeking to challenge Judge Lowry’s order, for example, were to have come to the Court of Appeal (the Divisional Court would be unlikely to grant leave so long as the statutory right of appeal was open to him), while the applicant seeking to challenge Judge Coombe’s order were to be forced to go to the Divisional Court. It would also be unjust, since the applicant would have to show that Judge Coombe’s refusal to grant an order was Wednesbury unreasonable, a much heavier burden than would rest on a member of the press in an appeal under s 159 of the 1988 Act.
We see the force of some of those arguments, but in the end we have to go by the language of s 39 of the 1933 Act. The section enables any court, including the Court of Appeal, to make an order in relation to ‘any proceedings’. But ‘any proceedings’ does not mean ‘any proceedings anywhere’: it must mean any proceedings in the court that is making the order. So the Court of Appeal can make an order in relation to any proceedings in the Court of Appeal once they have been commenced. But there is nothing in s 39 to enable the Court of Appeal to make an order in relation to proceedings in the Crown Court. The only court which can make such an order under s 39 is the Crown Court itself. This seems to be the natural and ordinary meaning of the words of the section. It is perhaps reinforced by the language of s 57 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1963, which, in a related context, draws a line between proceedings in the juvenile court and proceedings on appeal from the juvenile court, or at least implies that they are not all one continuous set of proceedings.
As for the other arguments advanced by Mr Short, we see no reason why a party seeking, for example, to vary or discharge an order made by the Crown Court in the light of changed circumstances should not go back to the Crown Court even if 28 days have elapsed. This is what happens on a grant or refusal of an injunction in civil proceedings. We see no reason why the same procedure should not apply in the Crown Court. Nor can we see any logic in the solution which would enable the applicant to come to the Court of Appeal for an order restraining publication in a case where he has given notice of application for leave to appeal, on the one hand, and a case where, on the other hand, he does not wish to appeal, or perhaps has nothing to appeal about. Yet Mr Short concedes that in the latter case the Court of Appeal would have no jurisdiction under s 39 of the 1933 Act to make an order.
For the reasons stated we would hold that on the language of s 39 of the 1933 Act we have no original jurisdiction to make an order restraining publication of the proceedings in the court below. We repeat that we have not been asked to entertain an appeal from Judge Coombe’s order. There is no appeal of any kind before us.
In those circumstances we invited Mr Short to consider whether he would wish to make an application for leave to apply for judicial review along the lines of the application which was originally made on the telephone to Mantell J. We could
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ourselves hear such an application as judges of the Divisional Court. The precedent for adopting that flexible, desirable and time-saving approach is to be found in the recent decision of R v Miall [1992] 3 All ER 153, [1992] QB 836, in which the judgment of the Court of Appeal was given by Tudor Evans J, and where he refers to the previous authorities. Mr Short accepted the invitation so tendered. At the close of the court’s sitting he placed before us a draft Form 86A, dated 6 July, in which the applicant seeks an order for certiorari to quash Judge Coombe’s decision of 25 June to lift the restriction on publication, and his order of 26 June affirming his order of 25 June, but subject to the temporary restriction until midnight on 1 July.
We do not have a transcript of what, if anything, Judge Coomb said when lifting the restriction on 25 June. But we have a transcript of the very full and clear ruling which he gave on 26 June. In the course of the argument before him on that day he had been referred to R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S, and in particular to the following passage from the judgment of the court given by Watkins LJ ([1992] 2 All ER 659 at 662, [1993] 1 WLR 111 at 114):
‘In our judgment, the correct approach to the exercise of the power given by s 39 is that reports of proceedings should not be restricted unless there are reasons to do so which outweigh the legitimate interest of the public in receiving fair and accurate reports of criminal proceedings and knowing the identity of those in the community who have been guilty of criminal conduct and who may, therefore, present a danger or threat to the community in which they live. The mere fact that the person before the court is a child or young person will normally be a good reason for restricting reports of the proceedings in the ways permitted by s 39 and it will, in our opinion, only be in rare and exceptional cases that directions under s 39 will not be given or having been given will be discharged.’
The judge quoted extensively from that passage in his ruling. It may be, he said, that it is now exceptional for the press to be allowed, under the section, to publicise the name or identity of the defendant. At the same time, if an order were never to be made, it would emasculate the court’s discretion under the section. Yet Parliament clearly intended that the court should have such a discretion. This was not a case, he said, of a minor offence where the applicant was going straight back into the community. In such a case it would not help the applicant to get back on his feet if everybody knew that he had had a conviction. This was a case at the very opposite end of the spectrum. The applicant’s offences were exceptionally grave. He would on any view be detained for a lengthy period. In those circumstances he could see no real harm to the applicant, and a powerful deterrent effect on his contemporaries, if the applicant’s name and photograph were published. The public interest in knowing the identity of the applicant outweighed any harm to the applicant himself.
That is a brief summary of the judge’s ruling. We have not attempted to set out his reasons in full. It is sufficient to say that having read his reasons we can see no basis on which we could in this court interfere with his discretion, even if we were so minded. He directed himself correctly and he is not shown to have omitted any relevant factors. In those circumstances the case is very different from R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S, where Judge Young did not express his reasons or identify in any way the exceptional circumstances which in his view justified lifting the restriction in that case.
Before leaving R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S, we would add this comment. At the conclusion of the passage which we have already quoted from the judgment, the court said that the mere fact that the person before the court is a
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child will normally be a good reason for restricting reports of the proceedings. It will, the court said, only be in rare and exceptional cases that a direction will not be given or having been given will be discharged. For our part, we would not wish to see the court’s discretion fettered so strictly. There is nothing in s 39 about rare or exceptional cases. There must of course be a good reason for making an order under s 39, just as there must be a good reason for lifting the restriction on publicity of proceedings in the juvenile court under s 49, namely to avoid injustice to the child. The rule under s 49, as has been pointed out, is the reverse of the rule under s 39. The onus is, so to speak, the other way round. If the discretion under s 39 is too narrowly confined, we will be in danger of blurring the distinction between proceedings in the juvenile courts and proceedings in the Crown Court, a distinction which Parliament clearly intended to preserve.
Even if we had thought that Judge Coombe’s decision to lift the restriction on 25 June was erroneous, there would have remained the objection that by 26 June any damage had already been done. To reimpose a restriction on the afternoon of 26 June after all the publicity which the case received on the morning of 26 June would be a classic case of locking the stable door after the horse had bolted. Mr Short submitted that there were other horses in the stable ready to bolt, and in particular the local newspapers, which had not yet had an opportunity of publishing a report of the applicant’s conviction.
We have been shown a letter dated 4 July from Mr Walby, the manager of the secure unit where the applicant is detained. He tells us that any further publicity will add to the considerable pressure already on the applicant and his family. We take full account of that view. Nevertheless to reimpose an order at this stage, after the case has already received so much publicity, would in our view be an unjustifiable restriction on the local newspapers and others which have not so far carried a report. Again the contrast between the present case and R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S is obvious. In that case there had been no publicity between the lifting of the order by Judge Young and the reimposition of the order by the Divisional Court.
For convenience we summarise the position as follows. (1) A member of the press who is aggrieved by the making of an order restricting publication under s 39 should go back to the Crown Court in the event of any change in circumstances or should appeal to the Court of Appeal under s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. (2) A defendant aggrieved by the withholding or discharging of an order under s 39 should go back to the Crown Court in the event of any change in circumstances, or should challenge the validity of the order by proceedings for judicial review. (3) If the defendant indicates that he is intending to apply for judicial review, the Crown Court may, in its discretion, give a temporary direction under s 39 or grant a stay on the order discharging the direction under s 39 pending such an application, as happened in R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S. (4) Any application to restrain the publication of proceedings in the Court of Appeal should be made in the ordinary way to the Court of Appeal.
For the reasons we have given we will grant leave to move for judicial review in this case but refuse relief. The temporary restriction imposed by Judge Coombe pending yesterday’s hearing and today’s judgment will now be lifted.
Application dismissed for lack of jurisdiction. Leave to apply for judicial review granted but relief refused.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Beck and others, ex parte Daily Telegraph plc and others
[1993] 2 All ER 177
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Contempt of Court
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): FARQUHARSON LJ, TUCKER AND OWEN JJ
Hearing Date(s): 26 SEPTEMBER 1991
Contempt of court – Publications concerning legal proceedings – Prohibition of report of proceedings – Substantial risk of prejudice to administration of justice – Accused facing second indictment after trial of first indictment – Widespread public concern over circumstances in which offences charged in first indictment were committed – Whether public concern outweighing risk of prejudice to conduct of second trial – Whether appropriate to prohibit reporting of first trial – Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 4(2).
Three social workers were charged with serious offences of sexual and physical abuse of children in their care over a long period of time. Having regard to the number of counts laid in the original indictment, it was split into three. The first indictment, which concerned the more serious allegations contained 29 counts against the principal defendant, B, three against the second defendant and two against the third defendant. At the trial of the first indictment the trial judge, at the request of B’s counsel, made an order under s 4(2)a of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 prohibiting any reporting of the first trial up to and including the verdicts, when the matter would be further considered. The appellants, four national newspapers and a press agency, appealed under s 159b of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 against the order.
Held – As a matter of principle the press and the media should always be allowed to exercise their right to report criminal trials unless it was necessary for them to be excluded under the provisions of a particular statute, and the courts should always be alert to ensure that the press had the opportunity to exercise that right. In determining whether to make an order under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act the judge had to be satisfied, first, that there would be, by a report of the proceedings, a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice and then whether, if there was such a risk, it was necessary to make an order postponing publication in the circumstances of the case. The second step involved a balancing act of the considerations which supported the need for a fair trial by an unprejudiced jury on the one hand and the requirement of open justice and a legitimate public interest and concern in those matters on the other. The fact that an accused expected to face a second indictment after the hearing of the first indictment against him did not in itself justify the making of a s 4 order, since it depended on all the circumstances, including the nature of the charges, the timing of the second trial and the place where the second trial was to be heard, whether such an order should be made. Having regard to the nature of the allegations, the identity of the defendants concerned and the circumstances being in the field of public administration, there was a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice within the terms of s 4(2) if the trial of the first indictment were to be reported. However, having regard to the widespread public concern caused by the trial, and the concern over the circumstances in which persons in public service had had the opportunity to commit the offences charged over a long period without any action being taken notwithstanding complaints on the part of
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the victims, it would not be right for the trial to proceed without the public having any opportunity of knowing what was going on. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the judge’s order rescinded (see p 180 d, p 181 b g h and p 182 a to f h, post).
Per curiam. In order to give the press a proper opportunity to present their case against the making of an order under s 4(2) of the Act, such matters should if possible be dealt with at the time of the preliminary hearing or the summons for directions (see p 182 g, post).
Notes
For the reporting of criminal proceedings, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 13.
For the Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 4, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 188.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1988, s 159, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1218.
Application for leave to appeal
Daily Telegraph plc, Newspaper Publishing plc, Guardian Newspapers Ltd, Press Association Ltd and Times Newspapers Ltd applied for leave to appeal under s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 against the order made by Jowitt J on 16 September 1991 in the Crown Court at Leicester prohibiting any report of the first trial in R v Beck, Jaynes and Lincoln, up to and including the verdict, in which the three defendants were charged with sexual offences and offences of violence committed against children in the care of the Leicester City Council social services department. At the commencement of the hearing of the application the court granted the applicants leave to appeal and the hearing was treated as the appeal against the judge’s order. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Richard Aikens QC and Victoria Sharp (instructed by Oswald Hickson Collier & Co) for the appellants.
J A Black (instructed by Greene D’Sa, Leicester) for the defendant Beck.
Graham Buchanan (instructed by Harts, Leicester) for the defendant Jaynes.
Stuart Rafferty (instructed by Harts, Leicester) for the defendant Lincoln.
Peter Joyce QC and Clive Stockwell (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
26 September 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
FARQUHARSON LJ delivered the following judgment of the court. This matter came before the court this morning as an application for leave to appeal on the part of various well-known newspapers and press agencies under s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988. At the outset of the hearing this court granted leave and so we now treat the present proceedings as the appeal against the order. That order was made by Jowitt J under the provisions of s 4(2) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 on 16 September 1991 in the Crown Court at Leicester in R v Beck, Jaynes and Lincoln.
Section 4(2) of the 1981 Act provides as follows:
‘In any [legal proceedings held in public] the court may, where it appears to be necessary for avoiding a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in those proceedings, or in any other proceedings pending or imminent, order that the publication of any report of the proceedings, or any part of the proceedings, be postponed for such period as the court thinks necessary for that purpose.’
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The right of appeal given by s 159(1)(a) of the 1988 Act is in these terms:
‘A person aggrieved may appeal to the Court of Appeal, if that court grants leave, against—(a) an order under section 4 … of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 made in relation to a trial on indictment… and the decision of the Court of Appeal shall be final.’
There are certain consequential subsections.
We have no difficulty in concluding that the present appellants are persons aggrieved within the terms of s 159.
Turning, as we do briefly, to the facts of the case before the learned judge, the three defendants were all social workers employed by the Leicester social services. The defendant Beck was the most senior of the three and had a position of considerable authority in more than one of the homes maintained by the local authority. The other two defendants were assistants to Beck and, it is alleged by the prosecution, associated with him in the offences alleged in the indictment, to which I shall come. They were accused of offences which took place over a long period of time, offences of sexual and physical abuse of the children in their care. Offences concerning the sexual abuse of children are, most unhappily, increasing in this country. We merely mention that to emphasise, as all the counsel actually engaged in the case have done, that this is the most serious of such cases—one has told us that it is the most serious case the courts have ever had to deal with in this context—and the word ‘horrific’ in describing the allegations has been used more than once by counsel during the course of their submissions to us this morning. So we take it that this is a very serious case indeed, and that the allegations which have been made in the course of it are very disturbing.
Having regard to the number of counts laid in the original indictment, it was split into three. The first indictment, which is presently being tried by Jowitt J and a jury, concerned the more serious allegations. There are some 29 counts against the defendant Beck, three against the defendant Jaynes and two against the remaining defendant Lincoln. By reason of the severance, the second indictment dealt with the serious offences of violence, some having sexual connotations but not all, and was laid against all three of the defendants. In that indictment there are some 21 counts and once again the vast majority of them are laid against Beck. The third indictment, which is not one which has loomed at all largely in the submissions made this morning, contained less serious allegations, some 17 in number, against Beck alone.
On 19 March 1991, at a preliminary hearing, Simon Brown J, at the request of counsel for Beck, made an order in the case, also under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act, in the following terms:
‘That there be no reporting of the fact that the Defendants face three Indictments, until the conclusion of the first Indictment, in order to prevent a jury being prejudiced by the knowledge that the Defendants in their charge face further allegations.’
That order of Simon Brown J was in fact confirmed by Jowitt J in the order which is now complained of which he made on 16 September. He ordered that Simon Brown J’s order under s 4(2) should remain in force, but he extended it in these terms:
‘That there be no reporting of this trial up to and including verdicts in this present trial, when the matter will be further considered …’
There is no appeal on the part of the appellants against Simon Brown J’s order or indeed Jowitt J’s confirmation of the order. The part which is in contest is the
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additional provision made by Jowitt J on 16 September that there be no reporting of the current trial. It is against that part of the order that the present appeal is brought.
The initiative for making the order on 16 September appears to have come from the learned judge. It was provoked in some degree by the publication of a newspaper report and the transmitting of a television broadcast. Those are not matters which concern this court, except to the extent that it alerted the judge to the dangers in the reporting of this trial and the need for accuracy and fairness. Mr Black, counsel appearing for Beck, was principally concerned that the order of Simon Brown J should be maintained. He has not opposed the present application in the sense that he accepts that if there is fair reporting of the current proceedings there will be no objection from Beck. Although we have indicated that the initiative for the making of the order came from the learned judge, we have been told this morning by Mr Buchanan for Jaynes that he would have made an application for such an order if the judge himself had not raised it.
We now turn to the text of s 4 of the 1981 Act. We do not propose to go into an analysis of this section in detail because this is a matter of great urgency. There are two parts of the section which have to be satisfied: first of all, that there will be, by a report of the proceedings, a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice. Then the court has to go on to consider whether, if there is such a risk, it is necessary to make an order postponing publication in the circumstances of the case.
It has been correctly submitted to us by Mr Aikens QC that in applying the subsection we, as the Court of Appeal, can exercise our own discretion. It is not a case of reviewing the exercise of the learned judge’s discretion with the limitations imposed on the Court of Appeal in such circumstances. So we approach the case first of all by deciding whether there was such a substantial risk of prejudice and secondly whether, if we find that there is such a risk, in our discretion we should make the order.
The appellants, in the notice that has been filed in support of these proceedings, contend first that there was no substantial risk on a number of different grounds. In the course of the argument before us Mr Aikens did not emphasise this particular part of his case. The thrust of his submissions was that, if there was a substantial risk to the interests of justice, nonetheless in the particular circumstances of this case it was not necessary to make an order to avoid it.
The grounds which he set out in his notice of appeal are, first, that the fact further trials were expected to take place at the conclusion of the present one is insufficient for making the order, and it was unreasonable for the judge so to find. Secondly, it is submitted that the fact that the trials were split to make them more manageable should not be allowed to deprive the public of the opportunity to read about such an important trial. He also suggested that the learned judge when making the order failed to take into account a number of matters: first, that this was an important trial; second, the need for the open administration of justice; third, whether there was an alternative method of avoiding the risk of prejudice; and, fourth, that he failed to give the media the opportunity to make representations to him against the making of such an order.
There was no doubt in the judge’s mind about the importance of the trial. Everybody in this case has said again and again what great consequence these proceedings have. The judge obviously was familiar with all aspects of the trial and he would have had the need for the open administration of justice in the forefront of his mind. Another criticism by Mr Aikens is that the learned judge did not go through the mental process of an examination of the subsection, an analysis of its provisions and then making the necessary findings of the prejudice
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to the administration of justice and the reasons why he exercised his discretion, if he got to that stage, in the way he did.
In our judgment, in an application of this kind made on circuit at the moment when a long trial is about to begin, it would be unusual for a judge to make such a thorough examination of the issues. The situation in fact is a very familiar one where an accused is facing a series of trials. The judge when contemplating the making of an order under s 4 of the 1981 Act has, once he has found that there is a substantial risk of injustice, to enter into a balancing act of the considerations which support the need for fair trial by an unprejudiced jury on the one hand and the requirement of open justice and a legitimate public interest and concern in these matters on the other.
In the present case the learned judge was concerned that the first trial would involve widespread reporting of the evidence, which was in the circumstances likely to provoke an emotional reaction among potential jurors when they read about it. That is a matter which perhaps would be accepted on all sides. Plainly, if the order is removed, the press would be most anxious to report the details of it, and there is that risk to which we have already alluded. There must be a very considerable local interest in Leicester in a matter which concerns the social services, their administration and the conduct of its officers in the county.
Another matter which exercised the judge’s mind was that the second trial was expected to follow shortly after the first had concluded. Mr Joyce QC, appearing on behalf of the prosecution and responding in the present appeal, has made it perfectly clear that the question whether the second trial should take place is one which he could not possibly consider at this stage of the proceedings. He would need of course to know how the first trial had been conducted and concluded and what the jury’s verdicts were in relation to the three defendants. We of course entirely respect his stance in those circumstances.
However, we do not shut our eyes to the fact that the first indictment contains a very large number of counts and there is always a possibility, when a prosecution proceeds on that basis, that if the jury conclude that the defendants are guilty, the Crown would then consider whether the second trial should take place at all. If of course the jury acquit, then there is no prejudice.
As a matter of principle it is clear that the press and the other organs of the media should always be allowed to exercise their right to report criminal trials unless, under the provisions of a particular statute, it is necessary for them to be excluded. An example of such restriction is to be found in the section we have under examination at the present time. Furthermore, it is very well known that considerations of national security sometimes compel a judge to hear a case in camera. Other than in those unusual circumstances, courts should always be alert to ensure that the press have the opportunity to exercise that right.
The fact that an accused expects to face a second indictment after the hearing of the first one against him does not in itself justify the making of a s 4 order. It depends on all the circumstances, including the nature of the charges, the timing of the second trial and the place where that second trial is to be heard. If by an extension of the period between the trials, or by the transfer to another court, substantial prejudice to the accused can be avoided, then of course that course should be taken. It must be recognised that if the case excites interest on a national scale—which would appear to be the case here having regard to the identity of the present defendants—the transfer from one place to another of the second or subsequent trial would not always be effective in that context. Thus one recognises here that if the trial of the second indictment were to be transferred from Leicester to another court centre in the Midlands it may be a safeguard only of a minimal nature.
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We return finally to the points that have exercised our minds. Having regard to the features that we have already described—the nature of the allegations, the identity of the defendants concerned and the circumstances being in the field of public administration—we conclude that there was indeed within the terms of s 4(2) of the 1981 Act a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice. Although, as we have already indicated, counsel for the appellants did not concede that, the general feeling of the appeal is that most people recognise that to be the case. In reality the problem that we really have to consider is whether it is necessary to avoid that risk by making the order excluding the press or other organs of the media from reporting the trial. We bear very much in mind the submissions made by counsel representing the three defendants. The horrific nature of the details of the charges against their respective clients are such that there is no possibility, they would contend, of anybody who read about the matter ever forgetting about it. So the difficulties of empanelling a second jury would be great, if not insurmountable. We recognise the force of that argument.
It can be said to be a two-edged argument, because on the other side we have the submissions of the appellants, which seem to us in turn to have great force. The allegations here concern officers of the social services and they are of a grave and horrific nature. Those activities by the persons accused are alleged to have gone on over a very long period of time. There must therefore inevitably be widespread public concern, not only in Leicester but generally, over the circumstances in which those in public service have the opportunity to commit such offences, and why, notwithstanding complaints on the part of the victims, nothing whatever was done about it. Is it right in those circumstances, we ask ourselves, that this trial should proceed without the public having any opportunity of knowing what is going on? In approaching this question, we have balanced those matters with the arguments put forward on behalf of the defendants.
Having regard to the considerations we have put forward, we conclude it was not necessary to make the order, notwithstanding the risk to the administration of justice, and that the order made by the learned judge in respect of the current trial should be reversed. There are one or two subsidiary matters which we should mention at this stage. One recognises that in a case of this kind the press may not feel that they are being given a proper opportunity to put their case. If the judge’s intention of making the order is announced suddenly, the press is not generally in a position to make any representations to the judge as to the need for them to make reports of the proceedings. In those circumstances, it seems to us, the best course is for the judge to make a limited order under s 4 for, say, two days, and thus give time for the press to make representations to him. Perhaps best of all is the suggestion made by Tucker J during the course of argument, to the effect that these matters really ought to be dealt with at the time of the preliminary hearing or the summons for directions. Indeed, to some extent in the present case that did take place. It would avoid any feeling of injustice that might otherwise arise.
Accordingly this appeal will be allowed and, as we have already indicated, the order of the learned judge to the extent that we have described will be reversed.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Clerkenwell Magistrates’ Court, ex parte Telegraph plc and others
[1993] 2 All ER 183
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Contempt of Court
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): MANN LJ AND LEONARD J
Hearing Date(s): 7, 8, 15 OCTOBER 1992
Contempt of court – Publications concerning legal proceedings – Prohibition of report of proceedings – Representations from press – Order prohibiting publication of committal proceedings – Right of press to make representations against making or continuance of order – Whether court should hear press representations against making or continuance of order – Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 4(2).
On 15 July 1992 the Serious Fraud Office laid an information against T, who had already been charged with other offences arising out of an investigation by the Serious Fraud Office. The information alleged that T had committed the summary offence of failing without reasonable excuse to comply with a requirement under s 2(2) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 to answer questions relevant to an investigation of serious fraud being undertaken by the Director of the Serious Fraud Office, contrary to s 2(13) of that Act. At the hearing of the information, which was in private, the magistrate made an order under s 4(2)a of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 prohibiting publication of any matter relating to the case until the determination of it in his court or further order, on the grounds that any publication showing that T was being prosecuted under s 2(13) of the 1987 Act would involve a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the proceedings which were to follow the earlier charges. The applicants, five national newspapers, applied to the magistrate to make representations as to why the order should be discharged, but at a hearing at which T, the Serious Fraud Office and the newspapers were represented the magistrate held that he had no power to hear anyone but the parties to the proceedings and he accordingly declined to hear representations from the applicants as to the discharge of his order. The applicants sought judicial review of the magistrates’ decision to make the order prohibiting publication of the proceedings and his refusal to hear representations of the press.
Held – The court had a discretionary power to hear representations from the press or the news media when considering whether to make an order under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act prohibiting publication of proceedings, since a judge or magistrate who was asked to make an order under s 4(2) had to balance the need for fair trial by an unprejudiced jury against the requirement of open justice and a legitimate public interest and concern in the reports of legal proceedings, and it was implicit in s 4(2) that a court which had to carry out that balancing exercise should be enabled to receive assistance from the press and the news media, who were best qualified to represent the public interest in reporting the proceedings. Although the power to hear representations from the press and the news media was discretionary, the court ought normally to hear their representations whenever they asked to be heard and the court anticipated that their representations would be of assistance. It followed that the magistrate’s decision to refuse to hear representations from the applicants as to the discharge of his order would be
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quashed and the matter would be remitted back to him for reconsideration (see p 187 d e and p 188 h to p 189 c e f, post).
Dictum of Farquharson LJ in R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 177 at 181 applied.
Per curiam. In practice it will be convenient if the press are able to present a single view, thereby avoiding any need for the court to restrain repetition (see p 189 c f g, post).
Notes
For the reporting of criminal proceedings, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 13.
For the Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 4, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 188.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1987, s 2, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1072.
Cases referred to in judgments
A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, [1988] 2 WLR 805, Ch D and CA; affd [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, [1988] 3 WLR 776, HL.
O’Toole v Scott [1965] 2 All ER 240, [1965] AC 939, [1965] 2 WLR 1160, PC.
R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 177, CA.
R v Horsham Justices, ex p Farquharson [1982] 2 All ER 269, [1982] QB 762, [1982] 2 WLR 430, CA.
R v West London Justices, ex p Klahn [1979] 2 All ER 221, [1979] 1 WLR 933, DC.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G v Leveller Magazine Ltd [1979] 1 All ER 745, [1979] AC 440, HL.
A-G v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 833, [1987] QB l, CA.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Central Independent Television plc, Re [1991] 1 All ER 347, [1991] 1 WLR 4, CA.
Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985, Re an inquiry under [1988] 1 All ER 203, [1988] 1 AC 660, HL.
Cullen v Trimble (1872) LR 7 QB 416.
Fairfax (John) & Sons Ltd v Police Tribunal of New South Wales (1986) 5 NSWLR 465, NSW CA.
Gee v BBC (1984) 136 NLJ 515, CA.
Johnson v Colam (1875) LR 10 QB 544, DC.
Lansbury v Riley [1914] 3 KB 229, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1059, DC.
Lloyd v McMahon [1987] 1 All ER 1118, [1987] AC 625, HL.
Maxwell, Ex p (1992) Independent, 7 October, DC.
Practice Note [1983] 1 All ER 64, [1982] 1 WLR 1475, DC.
R v Bradford Justices, ex p Wilkinson [1990] 2 All ER 833, [1990] 1 WLR 692, DC.
R v Ealing Justices, ex p Weafer (1982) 74 Cr App R 204, DC.
R v Kent Justices, ex p Lye [1967] 1 All ER 560, [1967] 2 QB 153, DC.
R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App R 412, CCC.
R v Leeds Justices, ex p Sykes [1983] 1 All ER 460, [1983] 1 WLR 132, DC.
R v Leicester City Justices, ex p Barrow [1991] 3 All ER 935, [1991] 2 QB 260, CA.
R v Malvern Justices, ex p Evans, R v Evesham Justices, ex p McDonagh [1988] 1 All ER 371, [1988] QB 540, DC.
R v National Westminster Investment Bank Ltd (11 January 1991, unreported), CCC.
R v Saunders (5 February 1990, unreported), CCC.
Simms v Moore [1970] 3 All ER 1, [1970] 2 QB 327, DC.
Page 185 of [1993] 2 All ER 183
White v Feast (1872) LR 7 QB 353.
Wiseman v Borneman [1969] 3 All ER 275, [1971] AC 297, HL.
Applications for judicial review
Telegraph plc, Guardian Newspapers Ltd, Newspaper Publishing plc and Financial Times Ltd applied, with the leave of Rose J given on 22 July 1992, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the orders made under s 4(2) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 by C J Bourke Esq, a stipendiary magistrate sitting at Clerkenwell Magistrates’ Court on 15 and 17 July 1992, prohibiting any publication of the proceedings in R v Trachtenberg then before the magistrate. The applicants, together with Times Newspapers Ltd, also applied, with the leave of Pill J given on 13 August 1992, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the magistrate on 4 August 1992 refusing to hear representations from the applicants against the making of the s 4(2) orders. The applicants further sought a declaration that they had locus standi to apply to the magistrate to have the s 4(2) orders set aside. The facts are set out in the judgment of Mann LJ.
Lord Williams of Mostyn QC and Andrews Nicol (instructed by Simon Olswang & Co) for the applicants.
Michael Hill QC and Isobel Ascherson (instructed by Russell Jones & Walker) for Mr Trachtenberg.
Nigel Pleming QC and Paul Garlick (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Director of the Serious Fraud Office.
The stipendiary magistrate did not appear.
Cur adv vult
15 October 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
MANN LJ. There are before the court two applications for judicial review. The applicants are the publishers of well-known national newspapers and the respondent is the stipendiary magistrate at Clerkenwell Magistrates’ Court. The first application, for which leave to move was given by Rose J on 22 July 1992, impugns decisions of Mr Christopher John Bourke made when sitting as a metropolitan stipendiary magistrate at Clerkenwell Magistrates’ Court on 15 and 17 July 1992, whilst the second application, for which leave to move was given by Pill J on 13 August 1992, impugns a decision of Mr Bourke made when sitting at the same court on 4 August 1992. The applications raise, amongst other questions, the important and novel question of whether magistrates have power to hear representations from the press in regard to the making or continuance of an order under s 4(2) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981.
Section 4(1) and (2) of the 1981 Act provides as follows:
‘(1) Subject to this section a person is not guilty of contempt of court under the strict liability rule in respect of a fair and accurate report of legal proceedings held in public, published contemporaneously and in good faith.
(2) In any such proceedings the court may, where it appears to be necessary for avoiding a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in those proceedings, or in any other proceedings pending or imminent, order that the publication of any report of the proceedings, or any part of the proceedings, be postponed for such period as the court thinks necessary for that purpose.’
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Those provisions, in particular sub-s (2), come to be germane in the following circumstances. On 15 July 1992 an officer of the Serious Fraud Office laid an information before Mr Bourke which alleged that Larry Steven Trachtenberg had on 14 July 1992 committed an offence contrary to s 2(13) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987. The summary offence created by s 2(13) is that of without reasonable excuse failing to comply with a requirement under s 2(2) of the 1987 Act to answer questions relevant to an investigation of serious fraud being undertaken by the Director of the Serious Fraud Office.
Mr Bourke heard the information in private but Mr Trachtenberg knew of the hearing and was represented by counsel. Counsel did not oppose the issue of a summons but applied for an order to be made under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act. This application was supported by the prosecutor. The basis of it was that Mr Trachtenberg had already been charged with other offences arising out of the affairs which the Director was investigating and that any publication showing Mr Trachtenberg was being prosecuted under s 2(13) of the 1987 Act would involve a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the proceedings which are to follow the earlier charges. Mr Bourke acceded to the application and after issuing a summons returnable on 4 August 1992, he made an order prohibiting publication of any matter relating to the case until the determination of it in his court or further order.
The issue of the summons and the making of the order became known to some, if not all, of the present applicants on the afternoon of 15 July, when they were informed of those events by Mr Trachtenberg’s solicitors. The applicants, together with the publishers of other national newspapers, were, and are, of the opinion that the s 2(13) proceedings against Mr Trachtenberg are a matter of public interest and that a report of them would not involve a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the proceedings which are to follow on the earlier charges.
The applicants wished to represent their opinion to the magistrate and at their request he speedily arranged for a hearing on the afternoon of 17 July. At that hearing, the press were represented by solicitors and counsel, who submitted that the court had power to hear representations from them as to why the order should be discharged. Counsel for Mr Trachtenberg submitted that the court had no power to hear anyone but the parties to the proceedings. This submission was accepted by Mr Bourke, who accordingly declined to hear representations as to the discharge of his order. He did, however, somewhat vary the order at the request of counsel for the Director. The refusal to hear the press and the decision to make the varied order are the second and third decisions, impugned.
On the return date of 4 August, the summary trial was fixed for 19 and 20 October. The prosecution and the defence jointly applied for the further variation and continuance of the order. The press were represented but because of the decision on 17 July did not again ask to be heard. Mr Bourke made a varied order which inhibited any report of the s 2(13) proceedings. This order effectively replaced those made on 15 and 17 July and the decision to make it is the fourth decision impugned. The earlier decisions to make and to vary are now only of historical interest, but I observe there can be room for doubt as to whether there was any power to make the order on 15 July because the proceedings on that day were not ‘legal proceedings held in public’.
Lord Williams of Mostyn QC submitted on behalf of the applicants that the magistrate was wrong in holding that he had no power to entertain representations from, or on behalf of, the press, and that he was therefore wrong to make the varied order of 4 August on the assumption that he had no power to hear from the press as to why it should not be made. Lord Williams further argued, in the
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event of his first submission failing, that the magistrate misdirected himself as to the conditions necessary for the making of an order under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act and that, if he did not, his decision was none the less so plainly wrong that it should be set aside by this court.
Mr Michael Hill QC submitted on behalf of Mr Trachtenberg that the magistrate was correct in concluding that he had no power to hear the press, that he did not misdirect himself and that the decision was so far from being plainly wrong as to be one which was plainly right in the circumstances.
Mr Nigel Pleming QC, who appeared on behalf of the Director, did not submit an argument on the magistrates’ power to entertain representations, for on that issue the Director is neutral, but otherwise he made submissions similar to those of Mr Hill.
The respondent, Mr Bourke, neither appeared nor was represented, but he submitted a helpful affidavit in which he explains how, although he sympathised with the application on behalf of the press, he felt constrained to refuse it. He also explains the factors to which he had regard when making the orders which he did.
The public has a legitimate and important interest in legal proceedings held in public and is accordingly entitled to reports of all such proceedings. Of course, not all proceedings are reported but an order under s 4(2) necessarily inhibits the provision of reports upon the proceedings to which it relates and thus inevitably prevents the satisfaction of the important public interest. Accordingly a judge or magistrate who is asked to make an order so as to avoid the risk of prejudice may be presented with the need to perform a balancing exercise. The process was described as follows by Farquharson LJ when delivering the judgment of the Court of Appeal in R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 177 at 181:
‘The judge when contemplating the making of an order under s 4 of the 1981 Act has, once he has found that there is a substantial risk of injustice, to enter into a balancing act of the considerations which support the need for fair trial by an unprejudiced jury on the one hand and the requirement of open justice and a legitimate public interest and concern in these matters on the other.’
There is no express provision in regard to who can make representations as to the making or continuance of a s 4(2) order. Section 159(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 gives to a ‘person aggrieved’ a right of appeal with leave against an order made in relation to a trial on indictment. The publisher of a newspaper can be a person aggrieved for this purpose (see R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 177 at 179). There is no equivalent provision in regard to an order made in relation to a summary trial, although a newspaper publisher has a sufficient interest to apply for judicial review (see eg R v Horsham Justices, ex p Farquharson [1982] 2 All ER 269, [1982] QB 762), and he may also be a person ‘aggrieved’ within the meaning of s 111(1) of the Magistrates’ Court Act 1980 and thus able to obtain a statement of case on law or jurisdiction. The scope for argument under those two procedures is by their nature a limited one.
In the absence of express provision it was my own practice when sitting in the Crown Court to hear any representations which the press desired to make in regard to a s 4(2) order and I believe that the practice of other judges has been and is, the same. It is a practice which is recognised by the Court of Appeal (see R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 171 at 182). The advantages of it are plain. The prosecution and the defence will frequently share as a prime concern the need to protect the integrity of the present and future proceedings
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and an application is often supported or not opposed by the other party. The interest which an order would adversely affect is best represented by the news media serving in their capacity as the eyes and ears of the public (see A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545 at 600, [1990] 1 AC 109 at 183 per Donaldson MR). They can argue, for example, that there is really no necessity, or no substantial risk, or that the public interest in knowing should be paramount in the circumstances.
Lord Williams submitted that it would be wrong if magistrates, who hear most of the criminal business in England and Wales, should be deprived of the assistance of representations from the news media when considering a s 4(2) order. He pointed to the absurdity of the contrast between an inability to hear such representations and the locus standi afforded to publishers in this court on a judicial review of any order made by the magistrates. Lord Williams suggested that a solution was to be found by treating the power to hear as inherent in the jurisdiction of magistrates’ courts. He cited a number of authorities as affording suggestive analogies. I found the most helpful to be R v West London Justices, ex p Klahn [1979] 2 All ER 221, [1979] 1 WLR 933. The case was one where judicial review was sought of a magistrate’s decision whereby on an application for a summons he refused to hear counsel on behalf of the proposed defendant. In the judgment of this court (Lord Widgery CJ, Eveleigh LJ and Stephen Brown J) it was said ([1979] 2 All ER 221 at 223, [1979] 1 WLR 933 at 936):
‘In the overwhelming majority of cases the magistrate will not need to consider material beyond that provided by the informant. In my [sic] judgment, however, he must be able to inform himself of all relevant facts. Counsel who appeared as amicus curiae, and to whom the court is indebted for his assistance, submitted that the magistrate has a residual discretion to hear a proposed defendant if he felt it necessary for the purpose of reaching a decision. We would accept this contention.’
Mr Hill submitted that a magistrates’ court is a creature of statute and in consequence enjoys only such powers as are expressly or by implication given to it by statute. That a magistrates’ court is a creature of statute cannot be doubted, and Mr Hill’s consequence must necessarily follow. The principal statute relating to the jurisdiction, practice and procedure of magistrates’ courts is the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980. Mr Hill drew our attention to the provisions in that Act which provided for the parties to a criminal or civil proceeding to be heard (see ss 4, 9, 19 and 53), and which exceptionally in s 111 allow for a non-party to have a locus in that a person aggrieved who is not a party can apply for a statement of case. Mr Hill pointed out that the news media were not a party to the proceedings and submitted that an inherent power in favour of other persons could be exercised only in regard to a person acting in place of a party to the proceedings, as in O’Toole v Scott [1965] 2 All ER 240, [1965] AC 939.
I do not consider the confined terms in which locus standi is granted before a magistrates’ court to be determinant of the issue now before the court. The news media do not seek a right to be heard on the issue in the proceedings. They ask that they should be the subjects of a power to hear on consideration of reporting restrictions. In my judgment there is such a power in any court which is contemplating the exercise of powers under s 4(2) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981. I regard it as implicit in the enactment of s 4(2) that a court contemplating its use should be enabled to receive assistance from those who will, if there is no order, enjoy the right of making reports of the proceedings before the court. They are in particular the best qualified to represent that public interest in publicity which the court has to take into account when performing any balancing
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exercise which has to be undertaken. The need properly to operate s 4(2) requires that a court should be able to receive the best assistance available when considering the curtailment of the freedom to report. I accordingly conclude that Mr Bourke was wrong when on 17 July he decided that he had no power to hear the applicants and I would grant a declaration that on that day, and on 4 August, he had a power to hear the applicants.
The power which I have identified is a discretionary one. The occasion and manner of its exercise are matters for the court invested with the power, but I expect that the power will ordinarily be exercised when the media ask to be heard either on the making of an order or in regard to its continuance. The power will ordinarily be exercised because the court can expect to find assistance in representations from the news media. In practice, it will be convenient if the press are able to present a single view, thereby avoiding any need for the court to restrain repetition.
Mr Bourke’s error on 17 July and his implied indorsement of that error on 4 August have the undisputed consequences that his order on the latter date must be quashed and the matter remitted to him for reconsideration. In that circumstance, it is unnecessary and undesirable to express any opinion upon the arguments which we heard as to misdirection and plain error. All counsel agreed that in the event of remission the order to quash should not issue until the magistrate had made a decision upon his reconsideration. I would order accordingly with the consequence that meanwhile the order of 4 August will stand. I would also invite the observations of counsel upon the continuance of the reporting restrictions imposed in regard to these applications respectively by Rose and Pill JJ.
LEONARD J. I agree with the conclusion reached by Mann LJ that the learned magistrate had power to hear the press on the question of imposing reporting restrictions and I have nothing to add to his reasons. I would only advert to Mr Hill QC’s submissions on a practical matter. He referred to the high proportion of all criminal cases which are disposed of in the magistrates’ courts. The implication was that this court should be reluctant to add to the workload by holding that the magistrates have a power to hear the press. For my part, I would underline what Mann LJ has said about the convenience of there being only one representative view expressed. Apart from that, the courts will be able to, and should, discourage prolix representations and attempts to repeat on later occasions what had already been said earlier. I emphasise that the power to hear the press is a discretionary one. If these principles are applied, I do not foresee any real addition to the already heavy burden on the magistrates’ courts.
Order of certiorari granted. Matter remitted to magistrate for reconsideration.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Attorney General’s Reference (No 1 of 1992)
[1993] 2 All ER 190
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, HUTCHISON AND HOLLAND JJ
Hearing Date(s): 12 OCTOBER 1992
Criminal law – Attempt – Acts preparatory to offence – Acts constituting offence – Rape – Attempted rape – Whether necessary for prosecution to prove actual physical attempt at penetration – Criminal Attempts Act 1981, s 1(1).
In order to raise a prima facie case of attempted rape under s 1(1)a of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that the defendant had with the requisite intent necessarily gone as far as to attempt physical penetration of the victim’s vagina. If there is evidence from which the intent can be inferred and there are proved acts which a jury could properly regard as being more than merely preparatory to the commission of rape and as showing that the defendant had embarked on committing the offence that is sufficient to raise a prima facie case of attempted rape (see p 194 c to e, post).
R v Gullefer [1990] 3 All ER 882 applied.
Notes
For the actus reus of attempt, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 72, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 194–201, 1632–1683.
For rape and the penalty for attempted rape, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 514, and for cases on the subject, see 14(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 182–193, 7008–7107.
For the Criminal Attempts Act 1981, s 1, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 776.
Cases referred to in judgment
DPP v Stonehouse [1977] 2 All ER 909, [1978] AC 55, [1977] 3 WLR 143, HL.
R v Campbell (Tony) (1990) 93 Cr App R 350, CA.
R v Eagleton (1855) Dears CC 515, [1843–60] All ER Rep 363, 169 ER 826, CCR.
R v Gullefer [1990] 3 All ER 882, [1990] 1 WLR 1063, CA.
R v Jones (Kenneth) [1990] 3 All ER 886, [1990] 1 WLR 1057, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Bank of England v Vagliano Bros [1891] AC 107, [1891–4] All ER Rep 93, HL.
R v Boyle (1986) 84 Cr App R 270, CA.
R v Hill (1781) 1 East PC 439.
R v Ilyas (1983) 78 Cr App R 17, CA.
R v Lloyd (1836) 7 C & P 318, 173 ER 141, NP.
R v Ransford (1874) 31 LT 48, CCR.
R v Robinson [1915] 2 KB 342.
R v Rowley [1991] Crim LR 785.
R v Widdowson (1986) 82 Cr App R 314, CA.
R v Wright (1866) 4 F & F 967, 176 ER 869, NP.
Reference
The Attorney General referred to the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, pursuant to s 36 of the Criminal Justice Act 1972, the following point of law for
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the consideration of the court: whether, on a charge of attempted rape, it is incumbent on the prosecution, as a matter of law, to prove that the defendant physically attempted to penetrate the woman’s vagina with his penis. The facts are set out in the opinion of the court.
Victor Temple (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Attorney General.
Gordon Lakin (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the respondent.
12 October 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ delivered the following opinion of the court. This case comes before the court on a reference by Her Majesty’s Attorney General under s 36 of the Criminal Justice Act 1972.
The respondent was charged with attempted rape and was acquitted by direction of the trial judge. In consequence of the learned judge’s ruling, the Attorney General has referred a point of law for the opinion of this court. The point of law is stated thus:
‘Whether, on a charge of attempted rape, it is incumbent upon the prosecution, as a matter of law, to prove that the defendant physically attempted to penetrate the woman’s vagina with his penis.’
The effect of the evidence for the prosecution is not entirely clear, but the following facts were, it seems, proved.
During the evening of Friday, 30 November 1990 the complainant, a young woman aged 17, was drinking at various clubs in the company of her boyfriend and others. During the early hours of the following morning she lost contact with them, but began talking to the respondent, a young man of 20, whom she had known as a friend for several years. She indicated she wanted to walk home and began to do so. The respondent accompanied her.
On the way they stopped by a gap in a hedge where there were steps leading to a shed. It is not clear how long they were there, the respondent contending that it was about an hour. However, at some stage the respondent asked the complainant to wait while he relieved himself. When he re-emerged she alleged that he grabbed her, pulled her behind the hedge, forced her to the ground and lay full length on top of her. He put his hand over her mouth and threatened to kill her if she did not stop screaming. At that stage the young woman became extremely frightened and lost consciousness.
Although her account was challenged, there was independent evidence to the following effect. An occupier of a nearby house heard a muffled moaning sound. She looked out of her window and saw the respondent on top of the complainant the complainant’s knickers being around her ankles. The respondent then got up and pulled the complainant roughly up the stone steps away from the road. She was clearly distressed, crying and trying to scream.
The police were called. They arrived within minutes. Two officers heard muffled screams and crying. The complainant was on her back, her skirt pulled up to waist level and her breasts exposed. She was barefoot and without her knickers, which were subsequently found in the undergrowth nearby. At the time the police arrived at the scene the respondent was kneeling near to the girl, although it is contended on his behalf that there was some 6 feet between them.
The respondent immediately stood up when the police arrived. His trousers were round his ankles and he pulled them up. At that stage one of the officers observed that his penis was flaccid. He was questioned as follows:
‘Q. What have you been doing? A. What do you think?
‘Q. This girl appears very upset and distressed. Did she agree to you having sex with her? A. I don’t know. I didn’t ask her.’
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The young woman was medically examined. She had two love bites on her neck and an area of redness on her left breast. There were superficial injuries to her left shoulder blade, both elbows, left ankle and right calf, together with mud and grass stains on both heels. As to her private parts, there was a recent bruise just outside the hymen but inside the labia which, in the doctor’s opinion, could have been caused by finger pressure, ‘someone using fingers clumsily, like a drunken man, that was more likely than a penis to cause it’.
The respondent was also examined. He had superficial cuts and bruises to both knees and recent bruising on the shaft of the penis, consistent either with attempted intercourse or vigorous masturbation.
The bruising of the complainant’s private parts corresponded to the bruising of the respondent’s penis.
On interview the respondent admitted touching the complainant’s breasts and putting his hand up her skirt. He claimed that she did not protest or make any noise. He accepted that she was in no fit state owing to drink to give consent. He said he never asked. He denied having an erection, but he admitted that his trousers were down. He was asked:
‘Q. Surely, there is only one reason to have your trousers down isn’t there, what’s that ? A. To have intercourse but I didn’t have intercourse though.
Q. Why didn’t you have intercourse with her? A. I don’t know, I just didn’t.’
It was then put to him that to have intercourse would be the natural conclusion, and his answer was, ‘But I couldn’t, cause I was drunk, so I couldn’t, could I?' He was unable to recall how the complainant’s knickers were removed, but denied that he was responsible.
On that evidence at the close of the prosecution case Mr Lakin on behalf of the respondent submitted that the evidence did not disclose any act which went beyond mere preparation.
It is convenient at this point to set out the relevant provisions of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981. Section 1(1) provides as follows:
‘If, with intent to commit an offence to which this section applies, a person does an act which is more than merely preparatory to the commission of the offence, he is guilty of attempting to commit the offence.’
Section 4(3) provides:
‘Where, in proceedings against a person for an offence under section 1 above, there is evidence sufficient in law to support a finding that he did an act falling within subsection (1) of that section, the question whether or not his act fell within that subsection is a question of fact.’
In his ruling the learned judge referred to those Provisions of the Act. He also referred to the decisions of this court in R v Gullefer [1990] 3 All ER 882, [1990] 1 WLR 1063 and R v Kenneth Jones [1990] 3 All ER 886, [1990] 1 WLR 1057, in which it was held that the words of the Act should be given their ordinary and natural meaning. The learned judge then reviewed the facts which have already been outlined, and concluded that there was evidence from which the jury could conclude that the respondent had done acts more than merely preparatory to the commission of the offence of rape. He said:
‘That is evidence, in my judgment, from which the jury being properly directed can come to the conclusion that the defendant intended to have sexual intercourse with his victim at the very least whether she consented or not. Secondly, having regard also to the additional facts that the girl had been heard to scream and/or moan in the moments before she was dragged inside
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the fence, she was as a matter of fact not consenting to what was happening to her at that time. Thirdly, there is evidence, in my judgment, that the defendant had done acts more than merely preparatory to the commission of the offence.’
The learned judge then referred to a passage from the judgment of Lord Lane CJ in R v Gullefer, including this sentence ([1990] 3 All ER 882 at 884, [1990] 1 WLR 1063 at 1065):
‘Was the appellant still in the stage of preparation to commit the substantive offence, or was there a basis of fact which would entitle the jury to say that he had embarked on the [offence] itself?’
Finally the learned judge said:
‘… I am satisfied that, whether or not the defendant’s penis was ever erect or even semi-erect, he had embarked upon the preparation of, he had embarked upon the commission of the offence itself but had not gone beyond the stage of attempt.’
The case then proceeded. The respondent gave evidence and Mr Lakin for the defence was nearing the end of his final speech when the learned judge intervened and caused the jury to retire. The judge then indicated that he had changed his mind and concluded that his earlier ruling was incorrect. The jury were then brought back to court and the learned judge directed them as follows:
‘The position is that I have ruled as a matter of law that what the prosecution can prove cannot in law amount to an attempted rape because, it seems to me, it is essential that, for that offence to be proved, there must be some evidence of attempt, actual physical attempt at penetration. Of that there is no evidence.’
Mr Temple, on behalf of the Attorney General, submits to us that the learned judge was correct in his first ruling and that the test he stated to the jury in directing them to acquit was wrong. That test, it is submitted, sought to resurrect one of two rival tests developed in the common law before the 1981 Act.
In R v Kenneth Jones, and again in R v Campbell (1990) 93 Cr App R 350, this court made it clear that the words of the Act were to be applied in their plain and natural meaning, as the learned judge reminded himself in his first ruling. The words are not to be interpreted so as to reintroduce either of the earlier common law tests. Indeed one of the objects of the Act was to resolve the uncertainty those tests created.
One of those tests was the so-called ‘last act’ test, stated in R v Eagleton (1855) Dears CC 515, [1843–60] All ER Rep 363, ie has the defendant, with intent to commit the full offence, done the last act in his power towards committing that offence, or, as Lord Diplock put it in DPP v Stonehouse [1977] 2 All ER 909 at 917, [1978] AC 55 at 68, has he ‘crossed the Rubicon and burnt his boats’? The other test, derived from Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law (9th edn, 1950) art 29 was: did the act done with the intent to commit the full offence form part of a series of acts which would constitute its actual commission if not interrupted?
In R v Gullefer [1990] 3 All ER 882 at 885, [1990] 1 WLR 1063 at 1066 Lord Lane CJ, after referring to those two approaches, said:
‘It seems to us that the words of the 1981 Act seek to steer a midway course. They do not provide, as they might have done, that the R v Eagleton test is to be followed, or that, as Lord Diplock suggested, the defendant must have reached a point from which it was impossible for him to retreat before the actus reus of an attempt is proved. On the other hand the words give
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perhaps as clear a guidance as is possible in the circumstances on the point of time at which Stephen’s “series of acts” begins. It begins when the merely preparatory acts come to an end and the defendant embarks on the crime proper. When that is will depend of course on the facts in any particular case.’
Mr Temple submits that here the test applied by the learned judge amounted to resurrecting the Eagleton test. It would be equivalent in the case of a charge of attempted murder by the use of a gun to saying that, unless the trigger of the gun was actually pulled, there was insufficient evidence to go to the jury on that charge.
In our judgment the learned judge was correct in the ruling which he gave at first and fell into error in reconsidering it at the end of the case.
It is not, in our judgment, necessary, in order to raise a prima facie case of attempted rape, to prove that the defendant with the requisite intent had necessarily gone as far as to attempt physical penetration of the vagina. It is sufficient if there is evidence from which the intent can be inferred and there are proved acts which a jury could properly regard as more than merely preparatory to the commission of the offence. For example, and merely as an example, in the present case the evidence of the young woman’s distress, of the state of her clothing, and the position in which she was seen, together with the respondent’s acts of dragging her up the steps, lowering his trousers and interfering with her private parts, and his answers to the police, left it open to a jury to conclude that the respondent had the necessary intent and had done acts which were more than merely preparatory. In short that he had embarked on committing the offence itself.
For the reasons which we have endeavoured to give, we would answer the question posed in the reference No.
Opinion accordingly.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Barclays Mercantile Business Finance Ltd and another v Sibec Developments Ltd and others
[1993] 2 All ER 195
Categories: COMPANY; Insolvency
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION (COMPANIES COURT)
Lord(s): MILLETT J
Hearing Date(s): 8, 9 JULY 1992
Company – Administration order – Discharge of order – Release of administrators – Postponement of release – Outstanding claim against administrators – Applicants leasing goods to company on hire purchase – Administration order made against company – Administrators refusing to permit applicants to repossess goods – Applicants applying to court for leave to commence proceedings against company and/or administrators for wrongful interference with goods – Administration order discharged and winding-up order made – Applicants applying for administrators’ release to be postponed until applicants’ claim for conversion tried – Whether applicants having valid claim against administrators – Whether administrators’ release should be postponed – Insolvency Act 1986, s 11(3).
The applicants leased or supplied goods on hire purchase to a company which became subject to an administration order. The hire-purchase agreements were terminated because of arrears of payment and the applicants requested repossession of the goods, but the administrators refused to consent to repossession by the applicants. The applicants applied to the court, pursuant to s 11(3)(c) and (d)a of the Insolvency Act 1986, for leave to repossess and to commence proceedings against the company and/or the administrators for delivery up of the goods, damages for wrongful interference and payment of hire or lease charges in respect of the goods as an expense of the administration. The administrators subsequently consented to the goods being repossessed and the alternative claims were adjourned. Before those claims were heard the administration order was discharged on the administrators’ petition and a compulsory winding-up order was made. The winding-up order provided for the release of the administrators after a specified period. The applicants applied for the administrators’ release to be postponed until their claims for damages and payment of hire or lease charges had been tried.
Held – The applicants could not succeed in an action for conversion against the administrators unless they established an immediate right to possession, a lawful demand for redelivery and an unreasonable refusal to deliver. The applicants’ immediate right to possession of the goods was not affected by s 11(3) of the 1986 Act, since s 11(3) merely imposed a moratorium on the enforcement of a creditor’s legal rights and did not alter or destroy those rights. Furthermore, irrespective of whether the making of a demand necessary to constitute a cause of action in conversion against the company was prohibited by s 11(3)(c), the administrators remained until their release liable at the discretion of the court to pay not only for the use of the goods of another but also compensation for having wrongfully refused consent to the owner to retake the goods and therefore remained exposed to the applicants’ claim for wrongful retention of goods, whether or not they had
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committed the tort of conversion. In the circumstances the administrators ought not to be released while there was outstanding against them a proper claim which ought to be tried and their release would accordingly be postponed pending determination of the applicants’ claim (see p 199 a b and p 200 b to d g j to p 201 a d f, post).
Notes
For administration orders, see 3(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 863–878.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 11, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 739.
Cases referred to in judgment
Clayton v Le Roy [1911] 2 KB 1031, [1911–13] All ER Rep 284, CA.
Clough Mill Ltd v Martin [1984] 3 All ER 982, [1985] 1 WLR 111, CA.
Cases also cited
Atlantic Computer Systems plc, Re [1992] 1 All ER 476, [1992] Ch 505, CA.
Bristol Airport plc v Powdrill [1990] 2 All ER 493, [1990] Ch 744, CA.
Sheridan Securities Ltd, Re (1988) 4 BCC 200.
Application
By an application dated 25 September 1990 the applicants, Barclays Mercantile Business Finance Ltd and Mercantile Credit Co Ltd, sought as against the respondents, Sibec Developments Ltd (the company), Michael Anthony Jordan and Robin Michael Addy, the administrators of the company, (1) an order that notwithstanding the administration order made in respect of the company on 25 June 1990 they be at liberty to repossess the goods particularised in the schedule to the application, (2) delivery up of the goods by the respondents and each of them, (3) alternatively, an order that notwithstanding the administration order made in respect of the company on 25 June 1990 the applicants be at liberty to commence proceedings in the High Court against the company and/or the respondents for delivery up of the goods and/or damages for wrongful interference with them and for other relief relating thereto, (4) in the further alternative, payment of hire and/or lease charges in respect of the goods as an expense of the administration. On 15 October 1990 the respondents agreed to the applicants repossessing the goods and when the application came before the court on 22 October 1990 no order was made on para (1) or (2) of the application and paras (3) and (4) were adjourned generally by consent with liberty to restore. On 11 January 1992 the respondents presented a petition for the discharge of the administration order and for a winding-up order. On 10 February 1992 the administration order was discharged, a compulsory winding-up order was made and the respondents were appointed liquidators, the winding-up order providing for the release of the respondents as administrators once they had filed their receipts and payments account. That account was filed on 22 April 1992, with the result that the administrators were due to obtain their release on 20 May 1992. On 15 April 1992, however, the applicants had applied to the court for (i) an order postponing the release of the second and third respondents as administrators of the company until after the claims under paras (3) and (4) of the applicants’ adjourned application had been disposed of and (ii) directions as to the determination of those claims. The respondents opposed that application. The facts are set out in the judgment.
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Anthony Mann QC (instructed by Bond Pearce, Plymouth) for the applicants.
Patrick Howell QC and Edmund Cullen (instructed by D J Freeman) for the respondents.
9 July 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
MILLETT J. On 25 June 1990 an administration order was made against Sibec Developments Ltd (which I will call ‘the company’). Mr Jordan and Mr Addy (whom I will call ‘the respondents’) of Messrs Cork Gully were appointed administrators. The purposes for which the order was made were those contained in paras (a), (b) and (d) of s 8(3) of the Insolvency Act 1986, that is to say:
‘... (a) the survival of the company, and the whole or any part of its undertaking, as a going concern; (b) the approval of a voluntary arrangement under Part I [of the Act] … (d) a more advantageous realisation of the company’s assets than would be effected on a winding up …’
At the date on which the administration order was made the company was in possession of a number of motor vehicles and computer equipment which were leased to the company by Barclays Mercantile Business Finance Ltd or Mercantile Credit Co Ltd (which I will call ‘the applicants’) or were the subject of hire purchase agreements with one or other of the applicants. At the date of the order the company’s rental payments were several weeks in arrear and in many, and perhaps all, cases the relevant leasing or hire-purchase agreement had been automatically terminated without notice to the company pursuant to the terms of the relevant agreement.
On 30 July 1990 the applicants’ solicitors wrote to the respondents formally determining all agreements not previously determined, and in a separate letter of the same date they invited the respondents to consent forthwith to the repossession of the goods which, they asserted, with the possible exception of a few of the vehicles, did not appear to be required for the purposes of the administration. (The motor vehicles in question had been used by the company’s employees, many of whom had been made redundant, and by 30 July 1990 many, and perhaps most, of the vehicles had been placed in storage.) The respondents did not consent to the applicants’ repossessing any of the goods. Accordingly, on 25 September 1990 the applicants issued an application to the Companies Court for leave to repossess them. Leave was required because of the provisions of s 11(3) of the 1986 Act, which provides:
‘During the period for which an administration order is in force … (c) no other steps may be taken to enforce any security over the company’s property, or to repossess goods in the company’s possession under any hire-purchase agreement, except with the consent of the administrator or the leave of the court and subject (where the court gives leave) to such terms as the court may impose; and (d) no other proceedings and no execution or other legal process may be commenced or continued, and no distress may be levied, against the company or its property except with the consent of the administrator or the leave of the court and subject (where the court gives leave) to such terms as aforesaid.’
Section 10(4) of the 1986 Act extends the meaning of hire-purchase agreement to include chattel leasing agreement.
The application sought an order: (1) that notwithstanding the administration order the applicants might be at liberty to repossess the goods; (2) delivery up of the goods by the respondents; (3) alternatively an order that notwithstanding the administration order the applicants might be at liberty to commence proceedings
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in the High Court against the company and/or the respondents for delivery up of the goods and/or damages for wrongful interference therewith; (4) in the further alternative payment of hire and/or lease charges in respect of the goods as an expense of the administration.
On 15 October 1990 the respondents agreed that the applicants could repossess all the goods but imposed a condition, which was waived on 19 October. The application came before the court on 22 October 1990. By then the respondents had agreed to let the applicants retake possession of the goods, and accordingly the court made no order on para (1) or (2) of the application. Paragraphs (3) and (4) of the application were adjourned generally by consent with liberty to restore. The applicants’ application for costs was adjourned for evidence to be filed. It was restored before the court on 12 November 1990, when, by consent, the court ordered the respondents to pay the applicants’ costs of the application personally.
The purposes for which the administration order was made were subsequently found to be incapable of achievement. On 11 January 1992 the respondents presented a petition for the discharge of the administration order and for a winding-up order. On 10 February 1992 the administration order was discharged and a compulsory winding-up order was made. The respondents were appointed liquidators. The order provided in the normal way for the release of the respondents as administrators on the expiration of a specified period after they had filed their receipts and payments account. They filed that account on 22 April 1992 and accordingly were due to obtain their release on 20 May.
In the meantime, on 15 April, however, the applicants applied for an order postponing the respondents’ release until after the claims under paras (3) and (4) of their adjourned application had been disposed of and for directions as to the determination of those claims. That application is now before me. The respondents oppose it and press for their release to take effect. The release has not already taken effect because I made an interim order postponing the release pending the determination of this question.
The respondents oppose the postponement of their release on the ground that the applicants’ claim (in para (3) of the application) against them personally for damages for wrongful interference with goods is bound to fail, and that the applicants have unreasonably delayed in prosecuting their claims whether for damages or for payment for hire or lease charges.
I will deal first with the claim for damages against the respondents personally for wrongful interference with goods. The applicants’ case is as follows. (1) An officer of a company is liable if he procures the commission of a tort by the company. (2) On this basis a receiver may be liable in damages for conversion: see Clough Mill Ltd v Martin [1984] 3 All ER 982, [1985] 1 WLR 111. That too is not in dispute. (3) It is implicit in s 234(3) and (4) of the 1986 Act that an administrator may be liable in tort. (4) There is no reason in principle why an administrator should not be liable for unlawful interference with goods if he procures the company to commit acts which amount to that tort. Subject to the effect of s 11 of the 1986 Act, none of those contentions is challenged.
The respondents submit that the claim is doomed to fail because by virtue of s 11(3)(c) of the 1986 Act the immediate right to possession of the goods was no longer vested in the applicants after the making of the administration order. That submission treats s 11 as affecting substantive rights. In my judgment it does not have that effect. The section is couched in purely procedural terms: ‘(c) no other steps may be taken to enforce any security … or to repossess goods …' Similarly para (d): ‘No other legal proceedings … may be commenced or continued …’
Both paragraphs presuppose that the legal right to enforce the security or
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repossess the goods and the cause of action remain vested in the party seeking leave. By giving leave, in my judgment, the court does not alter the parties’ legal rights. It merely grants the person having a legal right liberty to enforce it by proceedings if necessary. The section imposes a moratorium on the enforcement of the creditor’s rights but does not destroy those rights.
The applicants wish to sue the respondents for wrongful interference with goods, that is to say conversion, within the meaning of s 1(a) of the Torts (Interference with Goods) Act 1977. That tort covers the wrongful retention of goods in a manner which is adverse to the rights of the owner. In Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) p 1234 conversion by keeping is described as follows:
‘Mere unpermitted keeping of another’s chattel is not a conversion of it. There must be some detention consciously adverse to the rights of the owner, such as an assertion of a lien that does not exist. The ordinary way of showing a conversion by unlawful retention of property is to prove that the defendant, having it in his possession, refused to give it up on demand made by the party entitled.’
Mr Mann QC for the applicants seized on the word ‘ordinary’ to submit that the making of a demand was not a precondition of the cause of action for damages in conversion. But in my judgment the use of that word was not intended to contradict the opening sentence: ‘Mere unpermitted keeping of another’s chattel is not a conversion of it.' Demand is not an essential precondition of the tort in the sense that what is required is an overt act of withholding possession of the chattel from the true owner. Such an act may consist of a refusal to deliver up the chattel on demand made, but it may be demonstrated by other conduct, for example by asserting a lien. Some positive act of withholding, however, is required; so that, absent any positive conduct on the part of the defendant, the plaintiff can establish a cause of action in conversion only by making demand. In my judgment so much is clear from Clayton v Le Roy [1911] 2 KB 1031 at 1048, 1050, [1911–13] All ER Rep 284 at 286, 288, where the need for a demand in a simple retention case is clearly stated. The reason for this is clearly stated by Fletcher Moulton LJ:
‘The question as to the exact moment at which a cause of action arises may seem a very technical one, but in my opinion it is a point of substance in this case, and for the following reason. In an action of detinue, as in other actions of tort, the Statute of Limitations runs from the time when the cause of action arose; consequently, if nothing has happened to give rise to an action of detinue, there is no period of time which can operate to extinguish the title of the real owner. He may have been deprived of control over his chattel for a hundred years, but it still remains his property, and an action will lie to recover it, unless there have been a demand and a refusal which would be sufficient to give rise to a cause of action. If there is a demand by the owner from the person in possession of the chattel and a refusal on the part of the latter to give it up, then in six years the remedy of the owner is barred; it is therefore very important for the owner that the law should lay down the principle that some clear act of that kind is required to constitute a cause of action in detinue … the plaintiff must establish that at the moment of issue of the writ he was in a position to bring an action of detinue; in other words that there had been wrongful denial by the defendant of the plaintiff’s title to the watch. At first the case was treated as though the question was as to the effect of a demand by the plaintiff of his watch and a refusal by the
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defendant to hand it over; but this point was practically abandoned, for there had been neither demand nor refusal. Then the question was treated, but rather vaguely, as one of conversion, and the defendant’s letter of May 16 was said to be evidence of conversion. But the mere fact that there was evidence pro and con on such a point would not be enough; it is necessary to find as a fact that there was a demand and refusal before the issue of the writ.’
In my judgment, that shows clearly that an overt act of withholding goods from the true owner is a condition precedent to the tort of conversion and that absent any overt act on the part of the party in possession the true owner must establish both demand and refusal before he can establish a cause of action.
In my judgment, therefore, to succeed in the present case, where the respondents did nothing save retain the goods and decline to give their consent for the applicants retaking possession, the applicants could not succeed in an action for conversion unless they were to establish (1) an immediate right to possession, (2) a lawful demand for redelivery and (3) unreasonable refusal to redeliver. In my judgment, s 11(3) does not affect the applicants’ immediate right to possession. The question then arises whether para (c) precludes the making of a demand, and, if it does not, whether the letter of 30 July constituted such a demand. The construction of s 11(3) of the 1986 Act is not free from difficulty; the meaning and effect of the word ‘other’ in both para (c) and para (d) in particular is obscure. One question of some difficulty is whether para (c) is confined to extra-legal steps, that is to say enforcing security without legal proceedings (for example retaining possession under a lien or taking possession of goods), so that the taking of proceedings for the enforcement of a security or the repossession of goods is governed exclusively by para (d), or whether there is an overlap between the two paragraphs.
The question whether the making of a demand necessary to constitute a cause of action in conversion is a step prohibited by para (c) in a case where the proceedings would be for the enforcement of a security or the repossession of goods is, I think, a difficult one and ought to be left to be decided in a case where it directly arises. It does not arise in the present case because the applicants wish to sue the respondents personally, not the company.
In my judgment the administrators remain exposed to the claim so long as they have not been released, whether they committed the tort of conversion or not. That is because the respondents, as administrators, are officers of the court and at all times subject to the court’s direction. If they wish to make use of another party’s property for the purposes of the administration and cannot agree terms, they can seek the directions of the court. If administrators wrongly retain goods otherwise than for the proper purposes of the administration, for example to use them as a bargaining counter, the owner can apply to the court to direct the administrators to hand over the goods without the need for action, and to pay compensation for having retained them in the meantime. Only in a case where there was a triable issue as to the ownership of the goods would the question of giving leave to take proceedings for possession arise. I can see no difference between the amount of compensation that the administrators should be directed to pay for having wrongfully retained goods properly demanded and for having wrongfully refused leave to repossess them.
Accordingly, in my judgment, whether or not the company, and possibly the administrators, may be liable to a claim for damages for conversion, the administrators, until their release, remain liable at the direction of the court to pay not only for the use of the goods of another, but also for compensation for having wrongfully refused leave to the owner to retake the goods.
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In my judgment it is the more appropriate course that questions of this kind should be decided by the court having control of the administration. In the present case the questions whether the company should pay rental for the period during which the respondents were properly retaining the goods for the purpose of the administration, or while they were considering whether or not they needed to do so, can be considered by the same court and at the same time as the claim for compensation for retaining the goods after the time when they ought to have consented to the applicants’ retaking possession. There will be two advantages in this course. First the questions will be decided by the court which is seised of the administration and can give directions to the administrators who are its own officers. Secondly, the court will have a discretion to decide whether the administrators should be personally liable, should have a right of recoupment against the company’s assets, or be released from liability.
There is no difference in the quantification of loss arising from a wrongful refusal to comply with the owner’s demand for delivery and loss arising from a wrongful refusal to consent to the owner taking possession, and there are considerable advantages in the claim being heard at the same time as the claim for rental. It is, in my judgment, unthinkable that the respondents should be released while there is a proper claim against them which is outstanding and which ought to be tried.
I accept that it would have been better in the present case for the applicants to have proceeded more quickly against the respondents so that these questions should not have remained outstanding when the administration order was discharged. But there is no evidence that the delay has prejudiced the respondents. Accordingly, I will accede to the application to postpone the release of the respondents, pending the determination of the applicants’ claims for rental and for loss by reason of the respondents’ failure to consent to the retaking of the goods earlier than was the case.
Application for postponement of administrators’ release granted.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex parte Vernons Organisation Ltd
[1993] 2 All ER 202
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (CROWN OFFICE LIST)
Lord(s): LAWS J
Hearing Date(s): 9 SEPTEMBER 1992
Injunction – Interlocutory – Pending proceedings – Judicial review – Interlocutory injunction sought to restrain publication of public authority’s decision pending outcome of judicial review proceedings – Self regulatory public authority supervising advertising standards upholding complaint relating to misleading advertisement published by applicants – Applicants applying for judicial review of authority’s decision and injunction to prevent publication of decision pending outcome of judicial review proceedings – Whether potential damage to applicants by publication of decision amounting to pressing ground for restraining publication – Whether publication of decision should be restrained.
The respondent authority, which was responsible for supervising the advertising industry’s system of self-regulation and investigating complaints of breaches of the British Code of Advertising Practice, received a complaint relating to a misleading advertisement placed by the applicant, a well-known football pools organisation, which referred to an easy way to win £¾m on the pools when in fact their single winner on the treble chance the previous year had only won £550,000. The authority upheld the complaint and issued a decision to that effect. The authority intended to publish its decision as a case report which would be circulated to some 4,000 subscribers and to any members of the public who requested it but before it could do so the applicant applied for judicial review of the decision and sought an order to stay the publication of the decision pending the outcome of its judicial review application, on the grounds that the publication of the decision would seriously damage its reputation and standing. The authority contended that there were no compelling reasons to restrain the publication of the decision so as to interfere with the public function of a public body.
Held – The general principle that the expression of opinion and the conveying of information would not be restrained by the courts except on pressing grounds applied just as much to a public body which was under a duty to express its opinion as to a private individual. Furthermore, a public body would not be restrained from carrying out its everyday duties, including the publication of information, simply because the intended publication contained material which was subject to challenge by judicial review on the grounds that it was vitiated by an error of law. Since there were ample means available to the applicant to correct any adverse impression given to the public if the authority’s decision were to be held unlawful on judicial review, the damage which the applicant claimed it might suffer by the publication was not so irreparable as to amount to a pressing ground for restraining the publication of the authority’s decision. The application would therefore be dismissed (see p 205 j and p 206 f to p 207 a, post).
Notes
For the granting of an interlocutory injunction to restrain publication of defamatory statements, see 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 896 and 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 166–167, and for cases on the subject, see 28(4) Digest (2nd reissue) 274–275, 5880–5887 and 32 Digest (Reissue) 323, 2682–2689.
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Cases referred to in judgment
Bonnard v Perryman [1891] 2 Ch 269, [1891–4] All ER Rep 965, CA.
Fraser v Evans [1969] 1 All ER 8, [1969] 1 QB 349, [1969] 3 WLR 1172, CA.
Harakas v Baltic Mercantile and Shipping Exchange Ltd [1982] 2 All ER 701, [1982] 1 WLR 958, CA.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
Interlocutory application
Vernons Organisation Ltd applied, with the leave of Otton J given on 28 August 1992, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the respondent, Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, issued on 7 August 1992 upholding a complaint made of an advertisement published by the applicant as to an easy way to win £¾m on the pools. By a notice of motion dated 7 September 1992 the applicant applied for a stay of publication of the authority’s decision, which was due to be published on 16 September 1992. The application for a stay was heard and judgment was given in chambers. The case is reported by permission of Laws J. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Richard Drabble (instructed by Mishcon de Reya) for the applicant.
Charles Flint (instructed by Theodore Goddard) for the authority.
9 September 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
LAWS J. This is an application for what is called a stay. In truth, as I shall shortly explain, it is an application for an injunction. The applicant is the well-known company Vernons Organisation Ltd and the respondent is the Advertising Standards Authority Ltd. It is responsible for supervising the advertising industry’s system of self-regulation. That task includes the duty of investigating complaints made to the authority to the effect that an advertisement is in breach of the code, that is the British Code of Advertising Practice.
What has happened here, described shortly, is as follows. The authority received a complaint to a press advertisement which had been published by the applicant, Vernons. The advertisement referred to or laid claim to an easy way to win £¾m on the pools. The complainant said that the advertiser had a single winner on its treble chart on the pools earlier in the year in question. He had won only £550,000-odd and the complainant raised a question as to the propriety of the advertisement on the basis that these winnings were nearly £200,000 short of the advertised figure. It is not necessary to go further into the background facts.
The authority upheld the complaint and made or issued a decision to that effect on 7 August 1992. That launched an application for leave to move for judicial review against that decision, and details of the grounds are contained in form 86A which are among the papers before me. On 28 August Otton J gave leave. Form 86A includes a claim for a stay, under RSC Ord 53, r 3(10), of the publication of the authority’s decision. The publication of the decision will, unless it is stayed by this court, take place in the shape of one of the authority’s reports. It will be published on, I am told, 16 September of this year and that publication will entail circulation of the case report to some 4,000 subscribers and it will be made available to members of the public who may ask for it. In the British Code of Advertising Practice one finds these words at para 21:
‘Each advertisement, whether pin-pointed by this process or raised by means of complaint, is carefully scrutinised. Any requisite investigation is
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undertaken and, after the issues, when necessary, have been discussed by the ASA Council, appropriate action on any advertisement that contravenes the Code is put in hand. The outcome of concluded investigations is recorded each month in the Authority’s “Case Report”, which gives details of all complaints that have necessitated investigation, including the names of the advertisers and advertising agencies involved.’
At para 34 under a heading ‘Case Reports’ it is said:
‘Copies are available on request of the reports of which are published at regular intervals by both ASA and CAP, and which give details of the complaints the two bodies have investigated. Reports identify those responsible for the advertisements involved, and why, and set out what action has been taken on those which contravene the Code.’
So one can see that what is enshrined in the code contemplates the publication of narrative case reports which, where appropriate, will contain criticism, perhaps detailed, of advertisers in relation to whom the authority has upheld complaints.
In this case there is an affidavit sworn on the applicant’s behalf by Mr Hughes, its managing director, which gives some evidence as to what it is the applicant fears or apprehends if publication is to take place. At para 19 Mr Hughes says:
‘Unless leave and a stay is granted as requested in the Application, this highly damaging and, in my opinion, unjustified criticism of my company will be published widely on 16 September 1992.’
Earlier in para 16 he gives chapter and verse as to the damage which he says will be caused by the narrative of the decision if it is published. I need not, I think, go into the detail of what the authority propose to publish. It is enough to say that the applicant fears for its reputation or standing within the industry if the report is circulated, and so it seeks to restrain that publication. As I have said the application is by name a stay. It is clearly indistinguishable from a negative or prohibitory injunction, and I do not understand either counsel to make any submission on an actual or putative distinction between stay and injunction. I propose to deal with the application as an application for an injunction.
Mr Drabble for the applicant in support of the application says that his client’s fundamental concern is that the authority should not publish as a concluded determination the decision which they have made while it is subject to judicial review. He makes no complaint to the effect that the authority should not indicate that its decision has been made or perhaps otherwise discuss the matter, should it arise for consideration in any other proper context. The mischief, he says, which he seeks to avoid is the publication of the formal ruling in the course of the authority’s functions, that having the stamp of the authority’s authority and, as I have said, being circulated to all the 4,000 subscribers.
The case is an important one because it raises in the context of the authority’s public activities the question what attitude the court should take to an invitation to invoke its jurisdiction, in itself undoubted, to restrain the publication of a formal document of this kind when judicial review leave has been granted. As I have said, there is no possible question as to the existence of the jurisdiction to do what Mr Drabble asks. The question is how should that jurisdiction be approached.
Mr Flint for the authority puts his case in three ways after making certain preliminary submissions. First, he says that in principle the court should not prohibit the authority from publishing its decision, that being its public function and public duty, that only exceptional circumstances would justify interfering
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with the performance of that duty and that none is shown here. He would draw a broad analogy to the position taken by the courts in relation to the take-over panel as explained in the well-known decision of R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815. It seems to me that that analogy is perhaps a frail one. But there is no doubt that the authority here is a public authority with duties to the public to perform and those duties are to an important degree fulfilled by the procedures which include publication of the case report. But it seems to me that this first submission of Mr Flint’s is on analysis only a function of the second. The second submission was that the imposition of a restraining order upon a public body so as to prevent it publishing a document like this is in conflict with the general principle well recognised by the law that the court will not prohibit the publication of opinion material save on pressing grounds. This wants a little examination.
First Mr Flint referred me to a well-known authority in the field of breach of confidence, Fraser v Evans [1969] 1 All ER 8 at 10, [1969] 1 QB 349 at 360, where Lord Denning MR referred to the libel case of Bonnard v Perryman [1891] 2 Ch 269 [1891–4] All ER Rep 965 as supporting the proposition that:
‘The court will not restrain the publication of an article, even though it is defamatory, when the defendant says that he intends to justify it or to make fair comment on a matter of public interest.’
And Lord Denning MR cited this quotation from Bonnard v Perryman [1891] 2 Ch 269 at 284, [1891–4] All ER Rep 965 at 968:
‘The right of free speech is one which it is for the public interest that individuals should possess, and, indeed, that they should exercise without impediment, so long as no wrongful act is done …’
Mr Flint also cites Harakas v Baltic Mercantile and Shipping Exchange Ltd [1982] 2 All ER 701, [1982] 1 WLR 958 as supporting a like position. Lord Denning MR said ([1982] 2 All ER 701 at 703, [1982] 1 WLR 958 at 960):
‘This court never grants an injunction in respect of libel when it is said by the defendant that the words are true and that he is going to justify them. So also, when an occasion is protected by qualified privilege, this court never grants an injunction to restrain a slander or libel, to prevent a person from exercising that privilege, unless it is shown that what the defendant proposes to say is known by him to be untrue so that it is clearly malicious … When there is a bureau of this kind, which is specially charged with the responsibility of obtaining information and giving it to those interested, to warn them of possible dangers, it is very important that they should be able to give information to people who are properly interested, so long as it is done honestly and in good faith. That is all the bureau wish to do in this case.’
These cases exemplify a well-known principle or approach taken by the courts in the context of defamation proceedings. It seems to me that that is not the whole extent of Mr Flint’s second submission. Running along with those cases there is a general principle in our law that the expression of opinion and the conveyance of information will not be restrained by the courts save on pressing grounds. Freedom of expression is as much a sinew of the common law as it is of the European Convention on Human Rights (Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms) (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969) and for my part I would take the view that the long-established
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principles in Bonnard v Perryman [1891] 2 Ch 269, [1891–4] All ER Rep 965 more lately described in the cases which I have mentioned are no more than a part and parcel of that legal tradition, and so I must grapple with the submission that here there is no pressing ground to restrain the publication which the authority intends.
Mr Flint’s third submission was that the particular circumstances of this case demonstrate that a stay, or, as I have preferred to call it, an injunction, is not appropriate. As regards this third submission I should note, before proceeding to determine the matter, that both parties rely upon the fact that the applicant does not intend, as I have been told, to republish this advertisement. Mr Drabble relies on this as showing that the case is not one where the authority may have a special interest or duty in publishing their report so as to discourage a continuing recalcitrant advertiser who has breached the British Code of Advertising Practice and intends to breach it in future. Mr Flint relies on it as showing that there is nothing in Mr Drabble’s application except a bare desire to protect reputation, and that would not be protected by an interlocutory injunction in an analogous case where the respondent was a newspaper, as one can see from the libel cases to which I have referred.
Mr Drabble submitted, in my judgment correctly, that the real heart of the case lies in Mr Flint’s second point. Is there here a set of circumstances which disengages the general principle that the courts will not prevent the publication of opinion or the dissemination of information save on pressing grounds? Mr Drabble would deflect the bite of that principle by the submission that here he is not concerned to prevent the public knowing that this adverse decision has been made. He says, as I have already indicated, that the mischief is, and is only, the publication of the formal document, the ruling of the authority, with the authority or status that the authority inevitably possesses. That does not seem to me to disengage the general principle which I have mentioned. If a private individual will not be restrained from expressing his opinion save on pressing grounds I see no reason why a public body having a duty, other things being equal, to express its opinion should be subject to any less rigid rules. It seems to me that the case is, if anything, analogous to one where an administrative body has an adjudicative function and in the course of its duties publishes a ruling criticising some affected person and the ruling is later disturbed or reversed by an appropriate appellate process. There are many such instances and many of them involve the criticism of members of the public, corporate or natural.
I do not know of an instance in which a public body of that kind would fall to be restrained from carrying out what is no more nor less than its ordinary, but important, everyday duties simply upon the grounds that the intended publication contains material which is subject to legal challenge as being vitiated by some error of law. If the application for judicial review here is successful I cannot think but that there are ample means at the applicant’s disposal to correct any adverse impression which what, ex hypothesi, would be an unlawful report may have given to the public. Indeed, though it has not been canvassed in argument, I know of no reason why the fact that it has obtained leave should not itself be disseminated if it wishes to take any steps in that direction this is an attempt to prevent the public and indeed, in fairness to the applicant, its fellow advertisers and others in the trade to which it belongs, from seeing that the authority has reached these conclusions. I do not consider that the effects of that publication are damaging to the applicant in a manner which would be so irreparable, so past recall as to amount to a pressing ground, in the language of Strasbourg, a pressing
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social need to restrain this public body from carrying out their functions in the ordinary way.
I would dismiss the application.
Application dismissed.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex parte Massingberd-Mundy
[1993] 2 All ER 207
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL LJ AND ROCH J
Hearing Date(s): 14, 15 NOVEMBER, 20 DECEMBER 1989
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Jockey Club – Disciplinary proceedings against local steward – Jockey Club withdrawing applicant’s name from list of persons approved to act as chairmen of stewards at race meetings – Whether Jockey Club’s decisions susceptible to judicial review – Whether Jockey Club’s decisions within sphere of public law.
The applicant was a local steward appointed by the Jockey Club, the body which controlled and regulated horse racing in Great Britain, to act at race meetings run under the Rules of Racing and was on the list of stewards approved by the Jockey Club to act as chairmen of stewards. In 1987 he was the chairman of stewards at a race meeting at which possible interference was caused by the winner and the second horse during a race. An inquiry was convened under the Rules of Racing before the applicant as chairman and two other stewards. The senior stewards’ secretary was also present. In the course of the inquiry the applicant suggested that it might be appropriate to disqualify both horses. The senior stewards’ secretary intervened and said that if the applicant persisted with that view he would put in an adverse report against the applicant to the senior stewards of the Jockey Club. After further lengthy deliberations the stewards announced that they had concluded that the possible instances of interference had been accidental and had not affected the result. The trainer of the horse placed second appealed to the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club. The appeal was heard by the chairman and two other members of the disciplinary committee and the case on behalf of the Jockey Club was presented by the applicant. Having heard the appeal the committee upheld the local stewards’ decision. The applicant subsequently complained to the disciplinary committee about the remarks made by the senior stewards’ secretary at the inquiry and met the chairman of the disciplinary committee to discuss the matter. Following that meeting the chairman wrote to the applicant, stating that his complaint had been referred to the steward responsible for Jockey Club Officials and further expressing concern that the inquiry had taken so long and stating that if the applicant had exercised more authority during the course of the deliberations the local stewards might have been able to reach a decision more speedily and that due account would be taken of the incident when the disciplinary committee came to consider
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appointments to stewards’ panels for the next season. In a subsequent letter to the applicant the chairman of the disciplinary committee informed him that his name had been withdrawn from the list of local stewards qualified to act as chairmen although he would be permitted to act as a member of the panel of stewards. The applicant applied for judicial review of the disciplinary committee’s decision by way of an order of certiorari to quash it. The question arose whether the Jockey Club was a body whose decisions could be challenged by judicial review, and, if so, whether the decision withdrawing the applicant’s name from the list of approved chairmen could be challenged and, in any event, whether in the exercise of its discretion the court ought to grant the relief sought by the applicant.
Held – The decisions of the Jockey Club and its disciplinary committee were not decisions within the sphere of public law since the proceedings before the stewards of the club were domestic proceedings where the source of power was a consensual submission to the jurisdiction. Furthermore, even if some decisions of the Jockey Club were capable of being reviewed by the process of judicial review, not only was the decision not to approve the applicant as a person to act as a chairman of local stewards at race meetings not a decision which had any public element about it or which infringed or affected some public law right of the applicant but relief would in any event have been refused as a matter of discretion. The application would therefore be dismissed (see p 219 d to g, p 220 a to f j and p 224 c to e, post).
Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440 and Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300 followed.
Notes
For the Jockey Club, see 4(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 82.
For the scope of judicial review, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 64, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 321–435, 3362–4797.
Cases referred to in judgments
Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 573, [1979] 2 WLR 755, PC.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, [1984] 3 WLR 935, HL.
Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302, CA.
Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633, [1966] 2 WLR 1027, CA.
R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864, [1967] 3 WLR 348, DC.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
Application for judicial review
Adrian Massingberd-Mundy applied, with the leave of Simon Brown J granted on 27 April 1989, for judicial review of the decision of the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club contained in a letter from Lord Vestey, the chairman of the disciplinary committee, dated 14 July 1988 to the applicant informing him that the committee had decided not to approve the applicant as a person to act as a chairman at meetings of local stewards at Doncaster racecourse. The relief sought was an order of certiorari to quash the committee’s decision and an order requiring the committee to reconsider the matter. The facts are set out in the judgment of Neill LJ.
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Michael Beloff QC and Richard Drabble (instructed by Penningtons) for the applicant.
P Milmo QC and Susanna Fischer (instructed by Charles Russell Williams & James) for the Jockey Club.
Cur adv vult
20 December 1989. The following judgments were delivered.
NEILL LJ. This is an application by Mr Adrian Massingberd-Mundy for judicial review of a decision of the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club which was communicated to the applicant by a letter from Lord Vestey, the chairman of the disciplinary committee, dated 14 July 1988. The letter was in the following terms:
‘As you will be aware, the Disciplinary Committee is required to approve panels of Stewards on an annual basis and to decide which member of the Panel should act as Chairman. My Committee have just completed this exercise in connection with the Jump season 1988/89. In considering your name we were, of course, mindful of the events arising out of the Glasgow Paddocks Selling Hurdle at Doncaster on 12th December 1987. We met to discuss the matter on 21st January 1988 following which I wrote to you on 2nd February 1988. Having received all the papers, we have regretfully come to the conclusion that your name should be withdrawn from the list of those qualified to act as Chairman although, of course, we would be content if you were to continue to act as a Panel Member. I will, of course, quite understand if you would wish to discuss this decision with me. If this is the case there is some urgency so I would be grateful if you would contact Nigel Macfarlane, the Secretary to the Disciplinary Committee straight away in order that an appointment can be made.’
The application for judicial review is brought by leave granted by Simon Brown J on 27 April 1989. The applicant seeks an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the disciplinary committee and an order requiring the disciplinary committee to reconsider the matter. The applicant submits that if the matter is reconsidered the disciplinary committee should be differently constituted.
The following questions arise for consideration in this case: (1) whether the Jockey Club is a body whose decisions can in any circumstances be challenged by the process of judicial review; (2) if so, whether the decision of July 1988 can be so challenged; and (3) in any event, whether in the exercise of its discretion the court should grant the relief sought by the applicant.
Before I turn to consider these questions, however, I must first make some reference to the history and functions of the Jockey Club and to stewards of meetings and also to the events leading up to the present application.
The Jockey Club
For many years flat racing in this country has been subject to the control of the stewards of the Jockey Club. The extent of this control was noticed by Lord Denning MR in Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689 at 691, [1966] 2 QB 633 at 642, where he said:
‘[The stewards] sanction the holding of race meetings up and down the country. They make rules of racing which they enforce on all persons concerned. No person is allowed to train horses for racing at their meetings unless he holds a licence.’
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Until about 1970 a similar control over steeplechasing and hurdle racing was exercised by the National Hunt Committee. In 1970, however, the senior stewards of an unincorporated association then known as ‘The Jockey Club (incorporating the National Hunt Committee)’ petitioned the Queen to grant a royal charter—
‘for the object of acquiring and taking over the property and liabilities of the said unincorporated association and of carrying on and developing its work and functions and discharging its responsibilities under such regulations and with such powers as to [Her Majesty The Queen] might appear meet and expedient.’
On 26 May 1970 a royal charter was granted to a body corporate to be known by the name of ‘The Jockey Club (incorporating the National Hunt Committee)’. The objects of the Jockey Club as set out in the charter included the following:
‘(ii) to take over the activities connected with the control and regulation of horse-racing throughout [the United Kingdom] heretofore carried on by the old Club and to undertake all such responsibilities and activities as may be necessary or convenient for the proper conduct and due encouragement of horse-racing howsoever carried on and whether or not of a kind heretofore controlled or regulated by the Old Club;
(iii) to make, print and publish rules, regulations, advices and directions for the proper conduct of horse-racing, race-meetings and racehorse-training and to take all necessary steps for the communication and enforcement thereof;
(iv) to encourage and foster the breeding of bloodstock whether by means of races or otherwise …’
By art 12 of the charter it was provided that the rules and orders set out in the schedule to the charter should be the rules and orders of the Jockey Club until they had been amended in the manner prescribed.
Rule 11 of the rules and orders set out in the schedule to the charter prescribes the functions of the stewards. Rule 11(1) is in these terms:
‘The Stewards shall publish or cause to be published on behalf of the Club such Rules (hereinafter called “the Rules of Racing”) regulations, orders and directions as they may think necessary for the proper conduct of horse racing, race meetings and racehorse training.’
Rule 11(4) provides:
‘The Stewards shall have power to take such steps as they may think fit to secure the enforcement and observance of the Rules of Racing and other regulations, orders and directions made by them.’
Rule 12 provides for the appointment of standing committees, including the disciplinary committee.
Part 1 of the Rules of Racing as published by the stewards of the Jockey Club contains provisions relating to the stewards themselves and also to stewards of meetings. Rule 1 provides:
‘The Stewards of the Jockey Club have power at their discretion: (i) To grant or to refuse to grant or to renew or refuse to renew licences in respect of Racecourses to the managing executives thereof … (xii) to entertain and determine appeals from the Stewards of Meetings as provided for by Rules 176–179 …’
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Stewards of meetings
Rules 10 to 17 of the Rules of Racing make provision for stewards of meetings. Rule 10 is in these terms:
‘(i) There must be at least four Stewards for every meeting (five if nine or more races are to be run) including a Chairman, appointed by the Racecourse Executive and approved by the Stewards of the Jockey Club. Each Steward may appoint a deputy at any time but, in the case of the Chairman, such deputy must have the approval of the Stewards of the Jockey Club, except in an emergency when time does not permit such approval being obtained.
(ii) The powers given by these Rules to the Stewards of Meetings may be exercised by the Chairman and any two other Stewards for the meeting (or their deputies).
(iii) The Stewards of the Jockey Club may at their discretion by Notice to the Racecourse Executive withdraw their approval of a Steward whereupon he, and any deputy appointed by him, shall cease to be empowered to act as a Steward.’
Rules 12 to 17 prescribe the powers of the stewards of meetings. Rule 12 provides:
‘The Stewards have control over, and have free access to, all stands, rooms, enclosures, and other places used for the purposes of the Meeting.’
Rule 14 gives the stewards of a meeting a number of specific powers. It is sufficient to refer to part only of this rule. It contains these provisions (inter alia):
‘The Stewards of a Meeting have full power:—
(i) to make (and, if necessary, to vary) all such arrangements for the conduct of the meeting or any race run thereat as they think fit … and to give all necessary instructions for that purpose …
(iv) To determine all questions arising in reference to racing at the meeting whether during the course of or subsequent to the meeting except as otherwise provided in these Rules and subject to appeal under Rule 176 …
(viii) To enquire into, regulate, control, take cognisance of, and adjudicate upon, the conduct of all officials, and of all owners, nominators, trainers, riders, grooms, persons attendant upon horses, and of all persons frequenting the Stands or other places used for the purpose of the Meeting.
(ix) By notices exhibited on the Number Board or elsewhere and by any form of public address system at the Racecourse to state and announce that an objection has been lodged, the subject and nature thereof, and also their decision in respect of such objection, or of any other matter coming within their jurisdiction’
Part 17 of the Rules of Racing is concerned with disputes, objections and appeals. It is not necessary to make any detailed reference to this part of the rules. It is sufficient to notice that in prescribed circumstances objections are to be decided by stewards of meetings sitting as a panel of three, and that by r 176 any owner, trainer or rider of a horse who is aggrieved by the stewards’ decision may appeal to the stewards of the Jockey Club.
It will be apparent from these brief extracts from the Rules of Racing that stewards of meetings play a very important role in controlling the proper conduct of horse-racing at local level. The appointment of these stewards is supervised by the Jockey Club, which issues instructions to clerks of the course from time to time. I propose to refer to the general instruction which was issued dated 3 April 1986. It was in these terms:
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‘APPOINTMENT OF STEWARDS
1. Clerks of the Course are required to submit to the Secretary to the Jockey Club the names and addresses of at least six persons who it is proposed to be asked to act as Stewards for the following season, and to include details of their addresses, the number of days upon which they acted as Stewards at the racecourse concerned in the current season and which one it is proposed should act as Chairman for the following season. These names must be submitted by November 1st each year in respect of the Flat racing season and by April 1st each year in respect of the Steeple Chasing and Hurdle racing season.
2. Wherever possible, at least one Steward should be appointed who lives close to the Course so that he may assist with early morning course inspections.
3. No name of any person over the age of 70 years at the start of the relevant season may be included in any panel of Stewards. Older persons who the Managing Executive wishes to be associated with their Meeting should be invited to act as patrons.
4. No invitation to act should be sent out until the name submitted, including that of the Chairman, has received the approval of the Stewards of the Jockey Club. In communicating their approval the Stewards of the Jockey Club will indicate which local Stewards may act as Chairmen of Panels and except in an emergency one of these must be appointed to act as Chairman on any race day when the approved Chairman cannot attend.
5. Wherever possible each of the Members of the Panel approved as Chairmen should take the chair in turn on an annual basis and therefore the Chairman of the Panel should stand down at the end of each season and should be replaced by another Steward who has been duly approved as a Chairman by the Stewards of the Jockey Club.
6. In any case where no approved Chairman is present at a race meeting and another Steward has to be appointed to act, a report must be submitted by the Clerk of the Course to the Secretary of the Disciplinary Committee, setting out the reasons.’
I need not refer to the remaining paragraphs of this general instruction. In 1985 the Jockey Club constituted a committee under the chairmanship of General Sir Cecil Blacker to report on local stewarding. In due course the committee made its report. As a result of this report and the recommendations which it contained new procedures were introduced for the selection and approval of local stewards. It is to be observed that in the report mention was made of the important position of the chairman of a local stewards’ panel. The report contained these paragraphs:
‘41. The Chairman, with the three Local Stewards acting under him, carries the responsibility for the day’s racing. The pressures on the day’s Chairman are far heavier than those laid on his fellow Stewards. He—or she—is ultimately responsible for all decisions, and for determining the verdict in often controversial enquiries. He is always working against time, particularly now that so much technical evidence has to be studied. He knows that his findings will be closely scrutinised, and often criticised, by the TV and the Press, and that, particularly with the present-day sums of money involved, tension may be aroused amongst the trainers and jockeys which needs careful but strong handling.
42. No Chairman should be appointed to act on a day’s racing unless he/she has the experience, the ability to resist pressure, and the personality to measure up to the job.
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43. We recommend that every race course should have at least two, preferably three, such individuals on their panels, and that an active policy for “grooming” potential Chairmen should always exist. This will require an organisation charged with bringing this about; a matter which we discuss later in the Report.’
With this introduction I must now turn to the events which led to the institution of these proceedings.
The events leading up to these proceedings
The applicant has been closely associated with racing for many years. He has been a local steward since 1970. In 1982 he was appointed a steward at Doncaster. In 1987 he was the chairman at the Doncaster December meeting. Before this meeting he had been in the chair at Doncaster and also at Market Rasen and at Southwell for about 70 meetings. In addition he had on occasion stood in for other approved chairmen who had not been able to act on the day.
Saturday, 12 December 1987 was the second day of the December meeting. The first race was the Glasgow Paddocks Selling Hurdle Race. In the course of this race instances occurred of possible interference and a stewards’ inquiry was called. The inquiry was held under r 171(iii) of the Rules of Racing. The inquiry took place before the applicant as chairman and two other stewards, Miss J M Thompson and Mr Carlin. Among those also present was Major P K Steveney, the senior stewards’ secretary.
We have seen a transcript of the inquiry. The two jockeys concerned were called in and questioned. In addition the stewards were shown a video film of the closing stages of the race. In his affidavit sworn on 3 February 1989 the applicant gave this account of what happened at the inquiry:
‘5. It was rapidly established at the Enquiry that three separate acts of interference had taken place between the last two flights of hurdles and just short of the winning post. The first and second horses were involved in all three cases of interference. It soon became clear to me that there were likely to be several different versions of where and how much blame could or should be apportioned to either jockey or horse and I had to adjourn the enquiry after the jockeys’ evidence had been taken in order to allow everyone to get ready for the second race of the day.
6. At some stage during the remainder of the enquiry (either between the second and third races or between the third and fourth) I indicated a personal view that it might be appropriate to disqualify both horses. It was then that Major P. K. Steveney intervened and said: “Adrian, please, I think that would be a diabolical decision and if you persist with that view, I shall put in an adverse report against you to the Stewards of the Jockey Club.” I regarded this intervention as wholly inappropriate in the circumstances. Although Stewards’ Secretaries are required, by Jockey Club Instruction 15.24 to inform the Secretary of the Disciplinary Committee when, in their view, “Stewards of Meetings have not acted in accordance with the Rules of Racing and/or the policies of the Stewards of the Jockey Club as set out in the Jockey Club Instructions”… the debate on the appropriate course to take in what has always been acknowledged to be a complicated case of interference was in my view proceeding properly and I thought it wholly wrong to put a threat that if one particular decision was made, trouble, in the shape of a report to the Stewards of the Jockey Club, would ensue.
7. Once the remark had been made, a majority appeared in support of taking no action against either horse, and this was the view finally taken.’
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It will be appreciated that other races were due to take place after the inquiry had been convened. Accordingly the inquiry had to be adjourned on at least two occasions while the stewards and the officials attended the later races. As a result the decision of the stewards was not made known until 2.18 pm, that is after the fourth race and about an hour and a half after the conclusion of the first race. In the report of the inquiry the stewards announced that they had concluded that the three possible instances of interference had been accidental and had not affected the result.
The trainer of the horse which had been placed second in the race was dissatisfied with the result of the inquiry. He appealed, as he was entitled to do, to the stewards of the Jockey Club in accordance with r 176 of the Rules of Racing. The appeal was heard by the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club on 23 December 1987. The committee comprised Lord Vestey in the chair and Mr J R Sumner and Mr B R Hobbs. Mr Nigel Macfarlane, the secretary to the disciplinary committee, was in attendance. The case on behalf of the Jockey Club was presented by the applicant. Also present at the hearing were the riders and trainers of the two horses, Major Steveney, Mr C Nichols, the legal adviser to the Jockey Club, and Mr J Richardson, who appeared as legal adviser on behalf of the trainer and jockey of the horse which had been placed second.
We have seen a transcript of the hearing before the disciplinary committee on 23 December 1987. It is not necessary, however, to refer to this transcript for the purpose of this judgment. It is sufficient to record that at the conclusion of the hearing the disciplinary committee upheld the decision of the local stewards.
The matter did not rest there. On 4 January 1988 the applicant wrote to the secretary to the disciplinary committee as follows:
‘I have the honour to request that I may be afforded an interview with an appropriate body of Jockey Club Stewards to state a complaint about certain aspects of the conduct of the Enquiry held at Doncaster racecourse following the running of the Glasgow Paddocks Selling Hurdle race there on Saturday, December 12th 1987.’
On 21 January 1988 the applicant went to see Lord Vestey. Lord Vestey was accompanied by Mr Macfarlane. We have seen a note of this meeting prepared by Mr Macfarlane dated 27 January. It appears that the applicant gave a detailed account of what had happened at the inquiry on 12 December and explained his objection to the remarks made by Major Steveney.
At the end of the interview Lord Vestey came to the conclusion that as the complaint was about the conduct of a Jockey Club employee it was not a matter for the disciplinary committee and accordingly it was referred to Colonel Parker Bowles, the steward responsible for Jockey Club officials.
On 2 February 1988 Lord Vestey wrote to the applicant. His letter was in these terms:
‘I have given considerable thought to the outcome of our meeting last week concerning your formal complaint about the conduct of Major Peter Steveney at the above Meeting. In the light of your representations I have decided to refer the matter of Major Steveney’s conduct to Colonel Andrew Parker Bowles, the Steward responsible for all Jockey Club Officials. I accept that the Enquiry at Doncaster involved a complicated case of interference but I have to express my concern that this particular enquiry took so long leaving the Press and particularly the public guessing for ninety minutes. Of course, being a televised Meeting the events received still greater attention. I am bound to say that when we considered the case we came to the conclusion
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that if you, as Chairman, had exercised a little more authority during the course of the deliberations, it might have enabled the Panel to reach a decision more readily. This leads me to conclude that when my Committee considers appointments to Stewards’ Panels for the 1988/89 Jump Season we will have to take due account of this incident.’
There then followed an interval of about six months. In July 1988 the disciplinary committee met to approve the panels of stewards for the jump season 1988–89. They had before them the names submitted by racecourses around the country, including the seven names submitted by the clerk of the course at Doncaster by a letter dated 14 March 1988. It is to be noted that in the letter of 14 March the clerk of the course had written: ‘By rotation, Mr. J. Carlin will become Chairman and [the applicant] will drop to the bottom of the list.’
As appears from para 13 of the affidavit of Mr Macfarlane, the disciplinary committee had to consider about 320 local stewards for the 59 racecourses with which the Jockey Club is concerned. It is to be observed that of the 320 local stewards approximately 220 have been approved by the Jockey Club to act as chairmen. Following this meeting of the disciplinary committee Lord Vestey sent to the applicant the letter dated 14 July 1988, the terms of which I set out at the beginning of this judgment. On receipt of this letter the applicant consulted solicitors and later took the advice of counsel. He did not, however, avail himself of the offer in the last paragraph of the letter of 14 July to discuss the matter further with Lord Vestey. On 27 July 1988 a letter was sent on behalf of the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club to the clerk of the course at Doncaster in these terms:
‘The Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club have approved your proposed Panels of Stewards for the above courses for the 1988/89 Steeplechase and Hurdle Race season. I enclose copies of the lists showing the style and order of the Panels which will appear in the Racing Calendar. You should note that [the applicant] is no longer approved to act as a Chairman. .A copy of the full list of those Local Stewards approved to act as Chairmen will be forwarded to you in due course.’
It is to be noted that of the seven stewards in the list only the applicant was not approved to act as a chairman.
There then followed a further interval of a few months. On 2 November 1988 the applicant’s solicitors wrote to the Jockey Club. The letter was in these terms:
‘We act for [the applicant] who has consulted us concerning a decision taken by the Disciplinary Committee to remove his name from the panel of stewards fit to sit as chairmen. This decision was communicated to our client by letter dated 14th July 1988 under the above reference. On 21st January our client met Lord Vestey to discuss a complaint made by [the applicant] concerning the conduct of a stewards secretary during an enquiry held following a race at Doncaster on 12th December 1987. This meeting dealt solely with our client’s complaint and no other matters were discussed. Despite this in July Lord Vestey on behalf of the Disciplinary Committee wrote to [the applicant] stating that a number of papers had been received, that the Committee had considered the position, and had reached its decision to remove our client from the list of eligible chairmen. At no stage has [the applicant] been informed in detail of the case made out against him, of the documents considered by the Committee, and has been given no opportunity whatsoever to be heard. It is our view that the manner in which the Jockey Club’s decision was reached demonstrates an obvious absence of fairness and
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as such an application lies to the High Court to quash the decision as being in breach of the rules of natural justice. We have therefore advised [the applicant] that such an application has every prospect of success. [The applicant] has been closely associated with racing for many years, has been stewarding since 1970 and has acted as chairman at over 70 meetings. No complaint of any sort has been raised as to his conduct in the past and the Jockey Club’s decision has been met with dismay by large numbers of [the applicant’s] colleagues in the racing industry including both stewards who sat with him on the 12th December 1987 enquiry. In view of his close association with racing in general and the Jockey Club in particular and despite his undoubted legal rights [the applicant] has no wish to take proceedings if litigation can be avoided. If the Disciplinary Committee is prepared to divulge fully the case formulated against our client, to notify us in detail why it is considered that he is unfit to retain the position of chairman, to disclose all documents referred to in the letter of 14th July as having been considered by the Committee, and finally to afford him the opportunity to be heard before the Disciplinary Committee Court proceedings can be avoided. Our client has every confidence that the Jockey Club has no wish to deny him an opportunity to meet the case against him and in the circumstances we await a reply to our request as a matter of some urgency.’
This letter led to an informal discussion between the applicant’s solicitors and the solicitors for the Jockey Club but, though a further letter by way of reminder was sent on 30 January 1989, no formal reply was received until after the applicant had filed his application for leave to apply for judicial review.
On 16 February 1989 Mr Cyril Russell of the Jockey Club’s solicitors replied in these terms:
‘Your letter of the 30th January was received here when I was away from the office. As you have chosen to write specifically for my attention requesting that I provide you with a formal response to your letter to the Secretary of the Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club dated the 2nd November 1988 you leave me with no alternative but to record that I invited you to come and discuss this matter with me on a solicitor to solicitor basis. You accepted the invitation and we met on the 25th November. I gave you a copy of the Jockey Club’s General Instruction No 15.24 of which, I assumed correctly, you were not aware. I also explained the position generally from the point of view of the Disciplinary Committee. I had hoped that as a consequence neither I nor my clients would hear anything more in this matter. Your client did not take advantage of Lord Vestey’s offer in the final paragraph of his letter to your client of the 14th July 1988 and evidently my meeting with you has not assisted. Nevertheless Lord Vestey’s offer to [the applicant] to come and discuss the matter with him remains open. It is Lord Vestey’s hope that he will take it up.’
In the meantime, before this letter was received, the applicant’s solicitors had written on 13 December 1988 to Colonel Parker Bowles to ask him for information as to the outcome of his investigations into the applicant’s complaint about Major Steveney. On 20 December Colonel Parker Bowles replied as follows:
‘I write in reply to your letter of 13th December. As you are aware, Lord Vestey having met with your client in regard to his complaint about Major Steveney’s actions during the inquiry at the Doncaster December Meeting 1987 asked me to see Major Steveney since I am the Steward responsible for all Jockey Club Officials. I was advised of the complaint and,
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having been given the facts by Major Steveney, concluded that in the circumstances he had not exceeded his duties as set out in Jockey Club General Instruction No 15.24 and that the matter could be closed.’
The case for the applicant
Before I come to consider the three issues which I identified earlier it will be convenient to outline as shortly as possible the case for the applicant and then the case for the Jockey Club.
The submissions which were put forward on behalf of the applicant were developed on the following lines.
(1) The decisions of bodies whose powers are derived from statute or statutory instrument or from a royal charter are in general susceptible to judicial review. This is the source of power test.
(2) Accordingly, whatever may have been the position before 1971, the decisions of the Jockey Club are now susceptible to judicial review. The powers of the Jockey Club are derived from its charter.
(3) An alternative approach is to consider the nature of the powers exercised by the Jockey Club. On this test it is plain that the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club is not a merely domestic tribunal. It exercises control over a large and important industry and over the livelihoods of those who work in this industry. The importance of the office of chairman was apparent from the Jockey Club’s own documents. Furthermore, by withdrawing its approval without any proper explanation, the Jockey Club had damaged the applicant’s reputation and caused him great embarrassment.
(4) The procedure followed by the disciplinary committee was manifestly unfair. On this aspect of the case our attention was drawn in particular to para 8 of the affidavit sworn by Lord Vestey on 12 April 1989 which contained the following passage:
‘There were essentially two matters on which the Disciplinary Committee based its refusal of approval in July 1988. The first was the opinion formed by the members of the Committee who sat on the Appeal of 23rd December 1987 of [the applicant’s] capacity to chair the panel effectively. [The applicant] presented that Appeal on behalf of the local Stewards. What is not revealed by the transcript is the length of time taken by [the applicant] over some of the things he said, or his demeanour. The second concerned the handling of the Local Stewards’ Inquiry at Doncaster on the 12th December 1987.’
It was submitted that though the applicant had had some notice in the letter of 2 February 1988 of criticism of his handling of the inquiry on 12 December 1987 he was quite unaware until Lord Vestey swore his affidavit that fault had been found with his presentation of the case on the appeal. Counsel drew our attention to the fact that on a number of occasions in the past the applicant had conducted appeals before the disciplinary committee and there had been no suggestion whatever of any criticism.
(5) It seemed to the applicant that a final decision had been taken by the disciplinary committee and he saw no purpose in holding any further discussion with Lord Vestey.
(6) In addition counsel for the applicant drew our attention to a number of authorities, to some of which I shall have to make reference later, and also pointed to the fact that the special position and role of the Jockey Club was underlined by the fact that the representatives of the horse-racing industry on the Horserace Betting Levy Board are drawn exclusively from the Jockey Club: see s 24 of the Betting, Gaming and Lotteries Act 1963.
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The case for the Jockey Club
On behalf of the Jockey Club on the other hand it was argued as follows.
(1) The decisions of the Jockey Club are not susceptible to judicial review because it is a domestic body which derives its jurisdiction from contract.
(2) This does not mean that decisions of the Jockey Club are immune from consideration by the courts. The proper procedure is by way of writ. It is recognised that the disciplinary committee is under a duty to act fairly but this obligation arises by reason of an implied term of the contract between the Jockey Club and those who have agreed to be subject to its jurisdiction in accordance with the Rules of Racing.
(3) The fact that the Jockey Club is incorporated by royal charter does not mean that its powers are derived from the prerogative any more than a public company’s powers are derived from statute because the company is incorporated under the Companies Act.
(4) The remedy of judicial review would be quite unsuitable in the case of the decisions of the Jockey Club. If it were available it would mean that any person interested in the result of a stewards’ inquiry, that is not only owners and trainers of horses but also members of the public who had placed bets, could seek judicial review.
(5) In the present case the disciplinary committee denied that they had acted in any way unfairly. The stewards had to make decisions in the exercise of their discretion as to the persons who were suitable to act as local stewards and as chairmen. The applicant had been approved to continue to act as a local steward, but, basing themselves on what they had seen and read, the stewards concluded that the applicant should not continue to be a chairman.
(6) In any event, even if some decisions of the Jockey Club were susceptible to judicial review, a decision of this nature was not. There was no public element about the decision.
(7) Lord Vestey had throughout been willing to discuss the matter with the applicant and this offer still remained open.
The first issue
It is plain that in order to determine whether the decisions of a particular body can be reviewed by the process of judicial review it is not always sufficient to apply a single test. In many cases it will be enough to inquire whether the source of the powers of the body concerned is statutory or derived from the prerogative. Thus the extension of judicial review to bodies and tribunals set up under the prerogative rather than by statute is now well recognised. In R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 777, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 881 Lord Parker CJ (in a passage subsequently approved by Lord Fraser of Tullybelton in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 at 942, [1985] AC 374 at 399) said:
‘I can see no reason either in principle or in authority why a board set up as this board was set up is not a body of persons amenable to the jurisdiction of this court. True it is not set up by statute but the fact that it is set up by executive government, i.e., under the prerogative, does not render its acts any the less lawful. Indeed, the writ of certiorari has issued not only to courts set up by statute but to courts whose authority is derived, inter alia, from the prerogative. Once the jurisdiction is extended, as it clearly has been, to tribunals as opposed to courts, there is no reason why the remedy by way of certiorari cannot be invoked to a body of persons set up under the prerogative.’
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In other cases, however, it may be necessary to examine the nature of the duties which the body is called upon to perform to determine whether these duties are in the public domain. Indeed it seems to me to be probable that it is the public element in the relevant body’s decision rather than the source from which its powers are derived which is likely to provide the surest answer to the question whether the decisions of that body can be reviewed by the process of judicial review. But in R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, [1987] QB 815 at 838 Donaldson MR cautioned against applying a single test:
‘In all the reports it is possible to find enumerations of factors giving rise to the jurisdiction, but it is a fatal error to regard the presence of all those factors as essential or as being exclusive of other factors. Possibly the only essential elements are what can be described as a public element, which can take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
In the present case I am not persuaded that the source of the powers of the Jockey Club can properly be regarded as derived from the prerogative even though it has been set up under a royal charter. On the other hand an examination of the charter and of the powers conferred on the Jockey Club strongly suggest that in some aspects of its work it operates in the public domain and that its functions are at least in part public or quasi-public functions. Accordingly, if the matter were free from authority I might have been disposed to conclude that some decisions at any rate of the Jockey Club were capable of being reviewed by the process of judicial review. Before reaching such a conclusion, however, in any future case it would be necessary to bear in mind that owners, trainers and riders of horses as well as executives of the various racecourses have a contractual relationship with the Jockey Club and have agreed to be bound by the Rules of Racing. Account would also have to be taken of the wide terms of r 231 of the Rules of Racing.
The matter is not, however, free from authority. In Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 the Court of Appeal held that the authority of the stewards of the National Greyhound Racing Club to suspend a trainer’s licence was derived wholly from a contract between him and the club and that the status of the stewards was that of a domestic tribunal. The court recognised that the decisions of the stewards might affect the public but concluded that the decisions were not decisions in the sphere of public law. For my part I am unable to find any satisfactory distinction between the status of the stewards of the National Greyhound Racing Club and the stewards of the Jockey Club for the purpose of deciding this present appeal.
Furthermore, the decision of the Privy Council in Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 573 is of some limited assistance to the Jockey Club in this case. In Calvin’s case the Privy Council was concerned with an appeal from the Supreme Court of New South Wales. The claim in the action was for a declaration that the plaintiff’s disqualification by the stewards of the Australian Jockey Club and the dismissal of this appeal were void and of no effect. The issue of judicial review was not raised. Nevertheless it seems clear from the opinion of the Privy Council that it was there considered that the Australian Jockey Club was not a body within the domain of public law and that the proceedings before the
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stewards of that club were domestic proceedings where the source of power was a consensual submission to the jurisdiction.
I would therefore decide the first issue in favour of the Jockey Club.
The second issue
In view of the conclusion which I have reached on the first issue it is, strictly speaking, unnecessary to express an opinion on the two remaining issues. Nevertheless I think that it is right that I should do so.
I have come to the conclusion that, even if some decisions of the Jockey Club are capable of being reviewed by the process of judicial review, the decision reached in July 1988 not to approve the applicant as a person to act as a chairman at meetings was not a decision which had any public element about it at all.
I can readily understand that the position of chairman of the local stewards is an important position and that the applicant may have been distressed by his exclusion from the approved list of chairmen. He may also have had a lurking suspicion, however unwarranted, that his complaint about Major Steveney had affected his standing in the eyes of the stewards. But I am completely satisfied that judicial review is an inappropriate remedy in this case. In order to succeed in obtaining an order for judicial review it is necessary for an applicant to show not only that the body concerned is one whose decisions are susceptible to judicial review but also that the relevant decision was one which infringed or affected some public law right of the applicant.
The third issue
Here again, though it is not necessary to do so, I propose to state my conclusions. Even had the applicant succeeded on the first two issues I would still have been disposed to exercise my discretion against granting any relief. It is important that the courts should act with restraint before interfering with the decisions of sporting bodies, however wide-ranging their powers may be.
This does not mean, however, that I think that the applicant has been well treated. It seems to me that it is a matter of regret that a man of high standing in the local community who has given many years’ voluntary service to the racing community should have been treated with what only can be described as a surprising lack of courtesy.
At the conclusion of the hearing before us, however, it was drawn to our attention that on 1 January 1990 a new panel of the disciplinary committee will take over and that in the summer of 1990 they will be considering the appointment of local stewards for the 1990–91 jump season. We were also told that the applicant would have an opportunity to put forward such representations as he might wish as to his suitability to act as a chairman in the future.
The stewards of the Jockey Club have to make decisions in what they consider to be in the best interests of racing. It is clearly important to ensure that high standards are set and maintained. At the same time it is also important that as far as possible anyone whose performance is open to criticism should be given an opportunity to meet that criticism.
As far as the present application is concerned, however, I have come to the conclusion that for the reasons I have outlined it should be dismissed.
ROCH J. The first issue is whether the applicant’s claim to relief can be brought by way of judicial review. The answer to that question turns on whether the applicant is seeking to enforce some public right or the performance or proper performance by some public or other similar authority of a public duty. Thus the
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general test seems to be the question: was the person or body performing a public duty when carrying out the act or reaching the decision in respect of which the applicant seeks judicial review?
If that question is answered in an applicant’s favour there are still the further questions whether the court should in the proper exercise of its discretion review the particular act or decision of which complaint is made and whether grounds exist for such a review.
In answering the first question the courts look at various aspects of the case and in the authorities several tests have been adopted. I would suggest that these tests are no more than tools used by the courts to reach a resolution of the fundamental question, and further that no one test is necessarily decisive.
Thus the courts will look at the source of the existence of the body concerned. Is it a body created by statute, statutory instrument or under the royal prerogative, or is it a company incorporated under the companies legislation ? Mr Beloff QC urged that the fact that the Jockey Club is now a creation of a royal charter given under the royal prerogative is, because the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club were exercising a disciplinary function, decisive of the first issue in this case. I disagree. To accept that submission might lead in other cases to undesirable results. It would be possible for the executive to take certain acts or decisions out of the domain of public law by entrusting them to companies incorporated under the Companies Acts if the source of the body’s existence were to be decisive.
Another relevant factor is the nature and source of the power to do the act or reach the decision of which complaint is made. Is that power based on private law? Or is it based on public law, being a statutory power or an exercise of the royal prerogative?
The courts will also take account of the role fulfilled by the person or body whose act or decision is being called into question. Does the body hold a position of major national importance? Does it have monopolistic or near monopolistic powers in an area in which the public generally or a large section thereof have an interest?
Next the court will consider whether the case is a case where, if judicial review is refused, there is no or no effective remedy.
Finally the court will look at the particular function which the person or body was performing and ask whether that particular function affects the applicant’s rights qua subject, or does it affect the applicant’s rights in a way which is peculiar to him or to a limited class of persons? It does not follow because a corporate or unincorporated body is susceptible to judicial review that all its acts or decisions will attract the remedy.
As I said earlier, no one test is decisive. These various matters have to be considered and a conclusion reached on the facts of the particular case. To paraphrase the words of Lord Parker CJ in R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882: the exact limits of judicial review have never been and ought not to be specifically defined.
As Donaldson MR said in R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, [1987] QB 815 at 838:
‘In all the reports it is possible to find enumerations of factors giving rise to the jurisdiction, but it is a fatal error to regard the presence of all those factors as essential or as being exclusive of other factors. Possibly the only essential elements are what can be described as a public element, which can take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
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If the matter were free of authority, I would have reached the conclusion that the Jockey Club was a body susceptible to judicial review. It is a body created under the royal prerogative by royal charter with the objects of—
‘carrying on and developing its work and functions and discharging its responsibilities under such regulations and with such powers as to [Her Majesty The Queen] might appear meet and expedient.’
The objects for which the Jockey Club was incorporated in 1970 were, inter alia, these:
‘(ii) to take over the activities connected with the control and regulation of horse-racing throughout [the] United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland heretofore carried on by the Old Club and to undertake all such responsibilities and activities as may be necessary or convenient for the proper conduct and due encouragement of horse-racing howsoever carried on and whether or not of a kind heretofore controlled or regulated by the Old Club;
(iii) to make, print and publish rules, regulations, advices and directions for the proper conduct of horse-racing, race-meetings and racehorse-training and to take all necessary steps for the communication and enforcement thereof;
(iv) to encourage and foster the breeding of bloodstock whether by means of races or otherwise;
(v) to organise and participate in schemes or arrangements for the assistance and relief of persons employed in any capacity connected with horse-racing and being in need of assistance or relief whether by virtue of poverty, sickness, injury or otherwise and of the dependants howsoever related of such persons as aforesaid whether currently or formerly employed as aforesaid and if formerly so employed whether living or deceased and to act as Trustee whether alone or jointly with other persons of any Charitable Body administering or providing such assistance and relief …’
Thus the Jockey Club holds a position of major national importance. Further, it has near monopolistic powers in an area in which the public generally have an interest and in which many persons earn their livelihoods.
The Jockey Club has just over 100 members. Mr Milmo QC has demonstrated that horse owners, horse trainers and jockeys as well as the executives of various race courses have a contractual relationship with the Jockey Club in that they agree to be bound by the Rules of Racing produced by the stewards of the Jockey Club. Rule 231 of the Rules of Racing provides:
‘All persons who have agreed to be bound by the Rules of Racing and the overseas owners, riders, trainers and their employees of horses trained outside Great Britain and which are entered to run under these Rules are subject to these Rules and are deemed to have knowledge of them howsoever amended.’
However those persons would have no vote or voice in the amendment of those rules any more than they had any vote or voice in the promulgation of those rules. The alternative to their accepting the Rules of Racing is to be excluded from all the recognised racecourses and race meetings in the United Kingdom, be they on the flat or over jumps.
Thus in the absence of authority I would have concluded in this case that the Jockey Club was a public or similar authority whose actions under the power conferred on them by royal charter should be subject to the supervisory jurisdiction which the courts exercise under s 31 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 and RSC Ord 53.
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Such a conclusion would not in my judgment lead to the Jockey Club or its disciplinary committee or local stewards appointed by the Jockey Club being subjected to a flood of cases, because in each case it would be for the applicant to show that he had a sufficient interest in the decision before leave could be granted, as well as having to show a prima facie case that there existed grounds on which the court could exercise its supervisory jurisdiction. Against that there would appear to be cases where a person with a legitimate interest in the decision or act of the Jockey Club does not at the present time have any or any effective remedy because such a person would be unable to demonstrate a contractual relationship with the Jockey Club. However, there are decisions which relate directly to this matter.
The first decision is a decision of the Privy Council in Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 573, which was an appeal from the Supreme Court of New South Wales. That was an action by Mr Calvin against the Australian Jockey Club. Mr Calvin asked for a declaration that his disqualification by the stewards of the Australian Jockey Club and the dismissal of his appeal from that decision by the committee of the Australian Jockey Club were void and of no effect and for an order that the Australian Jockey Club be restrained from giving effect to the purported disqualification. The judgment of the Privy Council was delivered by Lord Wilberforce. The issue whether the Australian Jockey Club was susceptible to judicial review did not arise in that case. Further, the decision is not strictly binding on us, but it is inevitably of great persuasive force. It is clear in the judgment that the Privy Council considered that the Australian Jockey Club was not a body within the domain of public law and that proceedings before the stewards and committee of that club remained ‘essentially domestic proceedings’ and that those who partook in such proceedings had accepted the Rules of Racing and the standards which lay behind them and must also have accepted to be bound by the decisions of the stewards and the committee. For example Lord Wilberforce said ([1979] 2 All ER 440 at 451, [1980] AC 573 at 596): ‘This brings the matter of disputes and discipline clearly into the consensual field.’
The second authority is that of Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302, a decision of the Court of Appeal which is binding on this court. That case involved the National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd. The plaintiff began proceedings in the Chancery Division by way of originating summons seeking a declaration that a decision made by the defendants’ stewards was void and ultra vires the stewards’ powers. The National Greyhound Racing Club, a company limited by guarantee, applied to strike out the plaintiff’s claim for want of jurisdiction. Walton J declined to do so. The club sought to have the proceedings struck out for want of jurisdiction because they claimed by virtue of s 31(1) and (2) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 the application for the declaration should have been made by way of judicial review under RSC Ord 53(1). The decision of the Court of Appeal is stated in the headnote to the case in these terms ([1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1303):
‘… dismissing the appeal … the authority of the stewards to suspend the plaintiff’s licence was derived wholly from a contract between him and the defendants and the status of the stewards was that of a domestic tribunal albeit their decisions might affect the public, so that the process of judicial review would not have been open to the plaintiff before the Supreme Court Act 1981 was passed; that section 31 of that Act did not enlarge the jurisdiction of the court to enable it to review the decisions of domestic tribunals either by way of orders of mandamus, certiorari or prohibition, or by granting a declaration or injunction by way of judicial review; that the
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process of judicial review still applied only to public law matters and, therefore, the plaintiff had properly brought an action seeking a declaration in the High Court …’
It is true that certain distinctions exist between the facts in that case and the facts in the present case. First, and Mr Beloff suggests most important, is the fact that the National Greyhound Racing Club is a company limited by guarantee whereas the Jockey Club is a body established by royal charter. Second, the National Greyhound Racing Club controlled dog racing in an area which represented approximately half of the United Kingdom, whereas the Jockey Club operates its Rules of Racing throughout the whole of the United Kingdom. But, apart from these two matters, the organisation, the objectives, the rules and the functions of the National Greyhound Racing Club and the Jockey Club are strikingly similar; so similar that I do not feel able to draw a distinction between that case and the present for either of those reasons, and I agree with the conclusion reached by Neill LJ on the first issue.
In Law’s case the authority of the stewards to suspend the plaintiff’s licence was derived wholly from contract. There may be cases where the authority of the stewards of the Jockey Club will not be derived from a contract between them and the person aggrieved by their act or decision or alternatively may not be derived wholly from a contract. It seems to me that, if such a case were to arise, then the question is such an act or decision of the Jockey Club susceptible to judicial review? may receive an answer different from that given by the court in Law’s case.
Even if I had reached a different conclusion in this case on the first issue, then this would still not be a case in my judgment where a court in the exercise of its discretion should grant relief by way of judicial review, for those reasons which Neill LJ has indicated under the headings ‘The second issue’ and ‘The third issue’ in his judgment.
Application dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Jockey Club, ex parte RAM Racecourses Ltd
[1993] 2 All ER 225
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): STUART-SMITH LJ AND SIMON BROWN J
Hearing Date(s): 6, 7, 8, 9, 30 MARCH 1990
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Jockey Club – Licensing of racecourses – Legitimate expectation – Jockey Club carrying out policy review of fixture list – Jockey Club accepting report that additional 60 fixtures ought to be allocated in 1990 and 1991 seasons – Applicant wishing to establish new racecourse and applying for additional fixtures to be allocated to new course – Jockey Club refusing to allocate fixtures to new course – Whether report raising legitimate expectation that Jockey Club would grant fixtures for applicant’s new racecourse – Whether Jockey Club’s decisions susceptible to judicial review.
In 1988 the Jockey Club, the private body which controlled and regulated horse racing in Great Britain, carried out a policy review on the need to allocate additional racing fixtures in the future to accommodate the needs of existing racecourses and possible new courses. The resulting report stated that an additional 60 fixtures ought to be allocated in 1990 and 1991 and that an unspecified number of fixtures should be made available to any new licensed racecourse. The report was adopted by the Jockey Club on 5 December 1988 and copies were sent to existing racecourse owners but not to prospective new racecourse owners such as the applicant. Shortly afterwards the Jockey Club made it known that it had an additional 30 fixtures to allocate in 1990 and a further 30 fixtures in 1991. The applicant had purchased a green field site with a view to establishing a racecourse on it and, having indirectly obtained a copy of the report, spent £100,000 on the site in the belief that the new racecourse would be allocated 15 fixtures in 1991. In July 1989 the applicant sent a copy of its development proposals for the new racecourse to the Jockey Club. On 20 July the Jockey Club wrote to the applicant stating that notwithstanding the report the Jockey Club had made no commitment as to the number of fixtures which would be allocated to new racecourses. At a meeting between representatives of the applicant and the Jockey Club on 29 August the chairman of the Jockey Club’s race planning committee made it clear that no fixtures would be allocated for the applicant’s new racecourse for 1991. At a further meeting on 6 September the Jockey Club refused to give any commitment to the applicant. On 8 September, in a letter before action, the applicant’s solicitors unsuccessfully sought an assurance from the Jockey Club that the applicant’s new racecourse would be allocated the minimum number of fixtures for 1991 in accordance with the report. On 19 October the Jockey Club formally resolved that the applicant’s new racecourse would not be allocated any fixtures in 1991 and that it would not indicate when such an allocation might be made. The applicant sought judicial review of the Jockey Club’s decisions refusing to allocate to the applicant at least 15 racing fixtures at its new racecourse for 1991, contending that the report had raised a legitimate expectation in the applicant that the Jockey Club would grant a minimum of 15 fixtures for the new racecourse for 199l. The Jockey Club contended (i) that the court had no jurisdiction to hear the application because the decisions of the Jockey Club which the applicant sought to challenge were not amenable to judicial review, (ii) that the applicant could not in the circumstances rely on the doctrine of legitimate
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expectation and (iii) that, if the court did have jurisdiction to hear the application, the court ought to exercise its discretion by refusing relief to the applicant.
Held – The applicant could not rely on the report as raising a legitimate expectation that the Jockey Club would grant a minimum of 15 fixtures for the applicant’s new racecourse for 1991 since there had not been a clear and unambiguous representation in the report that a new racecourse would receive as of right a minimum of 15 fixtures in 1991. Furthermore, since the applicant was not a person to whom the Jockey Club had directly made any representation, the report not having been made available directly to it, it was not within the class of persons who were entitled to rely upon the report and it was not reasonable for it to rely on any representation in the report without inquiring directly from the Jockey Club whether its assumption that 15 fixtures would be available for its new racecourse in 1991 was correct. On that ground the application would be dismissed (see p 237 d e, p 238 e f h j, p 239 e f j and p 244 g to j, post).
Dictum of Bingham LJ in R v Board of Inland Revenue, ex p MFK Underwriting Agencies Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 91 at 110 applied.
Per curiam. Were it not for existing authority to the contrary, a decision of the Jockey Club on the allocation of fixtures would be susceptible to judicial review (see p 242 a b, p 244 d, p 247 b c and p 248 e f, post); R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207 considered.
Notes
For the Jockey Club, see 4(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 82.
For the scope of judicial review, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 64, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 321–435, 3362–4797.
Cases referred to in judgments
A-G of Hong Kong v Ng Yuen Shiu [1983] 2 All ER 346, [1983] 2 AC 629, [1983] 2 WLR 735, PC.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union [1971] 1 All ER 1148, [1971] 2 QB 175, [1971] 2 WLR 742, CA.
Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 573, [1979] 2 WLR 755, PC.
Dairy Crest Ltd v Pigott [1989] ICR 92, CA.
Eastham v Newcastle United Football Club Ltd [1963] 3 All ER 139, [1964] Ch 413, [1963] 3 WLR 574.
Greig v Insole, World Series Cricket Pty Ltd v Insole [1978] 3 All ER 449, [1978] 1 WLR 302.
Huddersfield Police Authority v Watson [1947] 2 All ER 193, [1947] KB 842, DC.
Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302, CA.
McInnes v Onslow-Fane [1978] 3 All ER 211, [1978] 1 WLR 1520.
Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633, [1966] 2 WLR 1027, CA.
R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex p Insurance Service plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169, DC.
R v BBC, ex p Lavelle [1983] 1 All ER 241, [1983] 1 WLR 23.
R v Board of Inland Revenue, ex p MFK Underwriting Agencies Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 91, [1990] 1 WLR 1545, DC.
R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864, [1967] 3 WLR 348, DC.
R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207, DC.
Page 227 of [1993] 2 All ER 225
R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425, [1985] QB 152, [1984] 3 WLR 818, CA.
R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212, [1990] 3 WLR 323, DC.
R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67, [1984] 3 WLR 643, DC.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
Thomas v University of Bradford [1987] 1 All ER 834, [1987] AC 795, [1987] 2 WLR 677, HL.
Wandsworth London BC v Winder [1984] 3 All ER 976, [1985] AC 461, [1984] 3 WLR 1254, HL.
Application for judicial review
RAM Racecourses Ltd (RAM) applied, with the leave of Roch J given on 24 November 1989, for judicial review of the decisions of the Jockey Club taken on 29 August and 6, 21 and 28 September and confirmed on 19 October 1989 refusing to allocate to RAM at least 15 racing fixtures at Telford racecourse with effect from 1 January 1991. The relief sought was (i) a declaration that the Jockey Club had acted unlawfully, (ii) an order of certiorari to quash its decision, (iii) an order of mandamus requiring it (a) to reconsider whether to allocate the racing fixtures to RAM and (b) to allocate such fixtures to RAM and (iv) an injunction to restrain it from taking steps inconsistent with or preventing it from allocating such fixtures to RAM. The facts are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ.
Michael Beloff QC and David Pannick (instructed by Simmons & Simmons) for RAM.
Patrick Milmo QC and Richard Spearman (instructed by Charles Russell Williams & James) for the Jockey Club.
Cur adv vult
30 March 1990. The following judgments were delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ. This is an application for judicial review of the decisions of the Jockey Club taken on 29 August and 6, 21 and 28 September and confirmed on 19 October 1989 refusing to allocate to the applicant company, RAM Racecourses Ltd (RAM), at least 15 racing fixtures at Telford racecourse with effect from 1 January 1991.
In essence it is contended on behalf of the applicant that such decisions are amenable to judicial review and should be reviewed on the basis that, without justification, the Jockey Club acted in breach of legitimate expectations of the applicant, created by statements made by the Jockey Club. These statements were contained in a report by a study group appointed by the Jockey Club for the purpose of reviewing the Jockey Club’s policy on fixtures; the report was indorsed and adopted by the Jockey Club on 5 December 1988.
RAM was incorporated in 1981; it is owned and controlled by Mr Ron Muddle (Mr Muddle) and his son, Richard. Mr Muddle is an entrepreneur of enterprise and vision. In 1982 RAM purchased Lingfield Park racecourse in Surrey. In the six years that the company owned it, it was transformed from a loss-making enterprise to an attractive and highly successful undertaking. That racecourse was sold in 1988 for £7m, most of which RAM intended to invest in further racecourse ventures. In March 1989 Southwell racecourse near Newark was purchased. Since then RAM has taken the initiative in developing all-weather track racing; there are or will be two such tracks in the country: the one in the south is Lingfield Park, that in the north is Southwell. Towards the latter part of 1988 Mr Muddle was interested in establishing a third racecourse in the Midlands.
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The site eventually decided upon was Telford Park in Shropshire. It is a green field site.
For many years the Jockey Club (which incorporated the National Hunt Committee, the body concerned with jump racing) has controlled and regulated horse racing in Great Britain. In 1970 it was incorporated by royal charter. It is necessary to refer to some of the provisions of the charter and the rules made under it. Among the objects of the club are:
‘3 … (ii) to take over the activities connected with the control and regulation of horse-racing throughout Our United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland heretofore carried on by the Old Club and to undertake all such responsibilities and activities as may be necessary or convenient for the proper conduct and due encouragement of horse-racing howsoever carried on and whether or not of a kind heretofore controlled or regulated by the Old Club; (iii) to make, print and publish rules, regulations, advices and directions for the proper conduct of horse-racing, race-meetings and racehorse training and to take all necessary steps for the communication and enforcement thereof …
9. Subject to the provisions of this Our Charter and of the Rules and Orders the Stewards shall have the management and control of the affairs of the Club and the administration of the property and income thereof with power to delegate all or any of their powers to Committees of the Club appointed in accordance with the Rules and Orders and with power to appoint or employ such officers, servants or agents as may be expedient for the purposes of the Club on such terms as to remuneration and otherwise as the Stewards may think fit …
12. The Rules and Orders set forth in the Schedule hereto shall be the Rules and Orders of the Club until the same shall have been amended in manner hereinafter provided.’
The rules are to be found in the schedule to the charter; they include the following:
‘11. Functions of the Stewards.
(1) The Stewards shall publish or cause to be published on behalf of the Club such Rules (hereinafter called “the Rules of Racing”) regulations, orders and directions as they may think necessary for the proper conduct of horse racing, race meetings and racehorse training.
(2) The Stewards shall have power on behalf of the Club to issue licences and permits in relation to horse racing, race meetings or racehorse training and all such licences and permits issued by the Old Club and current at the date of the Charter shall be deemed to have been issued by the Stewards as the licences and permits of the Club.
(3) The Stewards shall publish or cause to be published to the members and to such other persons and at such intervals and in such manner generally as they may think fit a Calendar of race meetings held in accordance with the Rules of Racing and such Calendar may contain in addition to the details of such race meetings such further instructions, information or advice as the Stewards may in the interests of horse racing think appropriate to be published.
(4) The Stewards shall have power to take such steps as they may think fit to secure the enforcement and observance of the Rules of Racing and other regulations, orders and directions made by them.’
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There is no direct sanction provided by the charter. Nevertheless the Jockey Club have in practice a highly effective sanction that secures their monopoly control of horse racing. Any horse that races on an unlicensed course is disqualified from running on a course licensed by the club (see r 181 of the Rules of Racing). And any person who owns, trains or rides a horse at an unrecognised meeting is liable to be disqualified for 12 months, and during such disqualification cannot enter, run, train or ride a horse at a recognised meeting (see rr 204(ii) and 205(iii)). All 59 racecourses in the country are controlled and licensed by the Jockey Club. The stewards have power to grant or refuse to grant or to renew licences in respect of racecourses to the managing executives of the courses subject to conditions. And such licences may be withdrawn. They also have power to fix the dates of all meetings and to cancel such fixtures (r 1). Managing executives of racecourses must obtain licences annually from the stewards which may be granted subject to such restrictions and conditions as the stewards consider necessary or desirable (r 80(1)). All meetings must be authorised by the stewards (r 81).
In the autumn of 1988 a policy review was undertaken on behalf of the Jockey Club. This was in part in response to the recognition in the horse racing industry that there was a need for the allocation of additional fixtures in future to accommodate the needs of existing racecourses and possible new courses. In due course the policy review group reported. Since it is upon their report that the applicant founds its case it is necessary to set out a substantial part of it:
‘Background
The Jockey Club’s Policy Group met in August this year to review, amongst other matters, their policy on Fixtures. This has become a particularly important issue, as the last 18 months have seen various applications for proposed new Racecourses and the upgrading of existing Racecourses.’
There is then reference to a number of new racecourses or substantial investment in existing ones. These include three in which Mr Muddle or his son were involved. The report records that none of these proposals materialised but adds:
‘It is likely that further proposals will be received in the future. With this in mind, the Policy Group agreed that the Stewards should have the opportunity to review their policy on new Racecourses and additional fixtures.
2. Fixture Availability
The crux of the problem is fixtures. Every applicant for a licence for a new Racecourse requires fixtures, and invariably a substantial number in order for the investment to be viable. Furthermore, in the region of 50% of existing National Hunt courses and over 80% of Flat courses would like additional fixtures. It is almost impossible to be encouraging to persons wishing to invest in a new course as the Fixture List is so tightly controlled, with a maximum number of fixtures established each year. On the other hand, if additional fixtures were to be offered to a new Racecourse, existing Racecourses would quite rightly also demand new fixtures.
3. Study Group
This study is undertaken at a time of metamorphosis in the Racing Industry, viz Racecourses are attracting new investment opportunities, all-weather track racing will probably be introduced, there is continuing buoyancy in the number of horses in training, attendances and betting turnover, and the impact of SIS on the criteria and on betting patterns is not yet fully known.’
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Paragraph 3 sets out the terms of reference:
‘(a) To consider whether additional fixtures can be justified and would be beneficial. (b) To consider how fixture proposals arising from major investment schemes in expanded or new Racecourses might be treated. (c) To consider whether the Jockey Club should maintain its policy of offering additional fixtures to all Racecourses. (d) To consider how such additional fixtures might be funded.’
Their findings are set out in para 4:
‘4.1 To consider whether additional fixtures can be justified and would be beneficial. The first question that had to be addressed was whether additional fixtures could be (a) justified and (b) beneficial. If additional fixtures could not be slotted into the current Fixture List then scope for new Racecourses in particular was negligible. In the Group’s study it was assumed that 60 all-weather track fixtures would be programmed from January to mid-March, and a limited number between October and December and between mid-March and the end of April.’
Under sub-para (iv) the group considered that there were four areas in which the fixture list could be enhanced. These can be summarised as: (a) jumping fixtures between November and mid-April; (b) flat racing fixtures between the end of March and end of April; (c) an extension of the flat racing season until the end of November, (d) with the exception of July and August a general strengthening of the flat fixture list in certain areas of the country. The last three weeks in June in the Midlands are identified as being sparsely fixed. The report continues:
‘The Group were firmly of the opinion that the above statistics indicated that an increase in the Fixture List in the areas identified in (iv) above would be of overall benefit to the industry. It would enable greater continuity within the Fixture List and would ensure a greater balance of opportunities for the horse population. The Group further considered that the horse population would service a significant number of additional fixtures as long as these were geared towards its needs at various times of the year.
4.2 How many additional Fixtures could be introduced? Taking all the above factors into account, the Group studied the Fixture List and identified an absolute minimum of 120 fixtures (split Flat 70: Jump 50) that could be placed in the existing List without creating unacceptable geographical clashes or placing unrealistic demands on the horse population. The Group then tackled the all-important question of how to deal with fixture proposals arising from proposed new Racecourses and proposed major new investments from existing Racecourses. In this context parts (b) and (c) of the Terms of Reference were taken together.
4.3 To consider how Fixture Proposals arising from major investment schemes in expanded or new Racecourses might be treated. To consider whether the Jockey Club should maintain its policy of offering additional fixtures to all Racecourses. The Group believed that a clear and concise fixture policy must be established and well publicised to ensure that all existing Racecourses, and more importantly potential new ventures, knew what they could expect. At present the only policy was that the minimum number of funded fixtures was allocated each year, and thus any new proposed Racecourses had to rely on either buying fixtures from existing Racecourses (subject to locational acceptability) or
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taking self-funding fixtures, neither being a very attractive option. Existing Racecourses who, for historical reasons had a small number of fixtures, also had little hope of expanding their Fixture List. Therefore, at a time when Racecourses are constantly being encouraged to be more entrepreneurial and self-reliant, they are at the same time being greatly restricted by the number of fixtures available. Taking this into account, the Group considered that a number of fixtures should be made available to any new licensed Racecourse and to any existing Racecourse with a proposed major new investment. Whilst this would satisfy courses in these two categories, existing Racecourses with no plans for major investment would undoubtedly be unhappy over the distribution of new fixtures in this way, bearing in mind that many of these courses have been applying for more fixtures annually over the past 10 years. With this in mind, the Group considered that a radical new approach to the allocation of fixtures was necessary, and recommended that each Racecourse should be entitled to a minimum number of Levy Board funded fixtures. This had the attraction that both new and existing Racecourses could be treated equally. The Group considered that a minimum number of fixtures should be identified, for which existing and new Racecourses would be invited to apply. The following minimum figures were agreed, subject to track suitability: Flat only courses—15; Jump only courses—14; Dual purpose courses—24. These fixtures would be available to the Racecourse but not necessarily taken up; eg Aintree would clearly not seek an additional fixtures.’
A maximum number of fixtures was also recommended.
At para 4.5, under the heading ‘Effect of this policy on the 1990 Fixture List’, the group identified those racecourses which at present had less than the minimum number of fixtures envisaged, and also estimated the likely uptake. For flat only courses this might involve 32 additional fixtures, the likely uptake being 21. For National Hunt the figures were 47 and 20 and for dual purpose courses 30 and 21. They expressed their conclusions in these terms:
‘The Group have therefore concluded that of the 109 fixtures available under this concept, it is probable that only about 62 fixtures would be applied for by the Racecourses concerned. There are three National Hunt courses whose fixture list exceeds the maximums proposed, and who also stage replacement fixtures. If these replacement fixtures, which number five in total, were to be withdrawn, it is calculated that there would be an additional 57 fixtures in the 1990 Fixture List, exclusive of any requirements that new racecourses may have. As already stated, these fixtures would be used to strengthen the Fixture List in the areas identified in 4.1 (iv) above.
4.6 Apportionment of Fixtures. The desire of racecourses to race on particular days must be reconciled with the needs of the Fixture List. Therefore, the Race Planning Committee would offer slots to the eligible racecourses. As far as Dual Purpose Courses are concerned, the Race Planning Committee would decide which code of fixture was required. It was also anticipated that the Committee would be closely involved in the compilation of race programmes.
4.7 Maximum Total Number of Fixtures. The Group considered that this policy should continue until such time as the total number of new fixtures reached the identified mark of 120. Realistically this figure would not be reached for some years to come, as it would require both new Racecourses and a significant number of self-funding fixtures. However the horse
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population must continue to be closely monitored as a significant change in numbers in either direction would necessitate a review of the maximum number of fixtures permitted …
4.9 The introduction of additional Fixtures. The Group considered that it might be advisable to phase in the introduction of the additional fixtures over 2 years, rather than all 60 fixtures being introduced in 1990. In practice, this would result in 30 fixtures being offered per year. This would have the advantage of being able to gauge the effect of this policy on top of the introduction of All Weather Track racing and the Seventh Race Scheme.
5. Summary. The Group considered that the recommendations contained within this paper were necessary for the following reasons: (a) A coherent policy would be established for the future. (b) All Racecourses, both existing and new, would be treated fairly and would be entitled to a specified minimum number of fixtures. (c) Certain areas of weakness within the Fixture List could be improved. (d) A number of these additional fixtures would be slotted in as criteria fixtures, thereby releasing other Racecourses’ fixtures to race in the evening or on a more advantageous date.’
The recommendations of the report were adopted at a meeting of the Jockey Club on 5 December 1988. The minute reads as follows:
‘(ii) Review of Fixtures Policy Having taken account of the views of Members expressed at the meeting of the General Purposes Committee on November 12 and being aware of the unreserved support of the HAC Executive Committee the Stewards approved the recommendations as set out in paragraph 6 of the report produced by the Fixture List Review Study Group. They approved also that the ceiling of fixtures for 1990 should be raised by 30. It was appreciated that until the levy dispute was settled the Levy Board would be unable to make any commitment on the funding of these extra fixtures. However, the proposed policy for extra fixtures should be implemented even if “new” money was not available. Finally, it was agreed that the revised fixtures policy should be widely publicised at a time to be decided.’
The last part of this minute should be briefly explained. A levy is raised on each bet that is made and is made available to help fund horse racing. The amount of the levy each year is determined by the Horseracing Levy Board in conjunction with the Home Secretary. This funding is of vital importance to the racing industry, because without it many fixtures are not profitable.
On 6 December the senior steward made a speech at the Gimcrack Dinner, which was well attended by prominent figures in the racing industry. He is reported as saying:
‘(15) … largely as a result of applications for new racecourses and the upgrading of existing ones, a Study Group was set up in August to review policy on fixtures. The Stewards have approved the Group’s recommendations which revolve around the principle that all courses, new and old, should be entitled to an agreed maximum [sic] number of fixtures. Representatives of the industry will meet in Portman Square [the headquarters of the Jockey Club] tomorrow to consider any changes to the fixture criteria. I am therefore pleased to announce that, subject to the availability of new money, the Fixture List in 1990 will be increased by up to 30 fixtures (flat and jump) and by a further 30 in 1991. It is possible that more still may be introduced in 1992.’
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On 21 December 1988 copies of the report were sent by Racecourse Association Ltd, which represents the interests of racecourse owners and to which they all belong, to the managers of all racecourses. And on 7 February 1989 the Jockey Club sent a working paper to all clerks of the course of racecourses. Under the heading ‘Review of Fixtures Policy’ it was said:
‘The Racecourse Association has already circulated a copy of the report from the Fixture List Study Group. This was dispatched on 21st December 1988. (A further copy of the report is attached). The contents have been endorsed by the Stewards of the Jockey Club and the Horserace Betting Levy Board. In order to establish this policy, the recommendations as outlined in paragraph 6 of the Report have been approved by both the Stewards and the Levy Board, and therefore the Race Planning Committee have up to an additional 30 fixtures to allocate in 1990 and a further 30 fixtures in 1991, with any residue fixtures to be allocated in 1992, if circumstances permit.’
The dates available for the additional 30 fixtures in 1990 were identified in accordance with para 4.1(iv) of the report and existing racecourses were invited to apply for additional fixtures. It is important to notice that neither the report nor the working paper of 7 February 1989 were sent to RAM or Mr Muddle, since they were not at that time racecourse owners. The documents were only sent to existing racecourses.
Nevertheless the applicant and Mr Muddle claim that they obtained a copy of the report and that they relied upon it in making their plans for Telford and that they expended over £100,000 because they so relied upon it. It is also their case that the Jockey Club, through its stewards and officers, knew that RAM were relying upon the report and making their plans to invest in a new racecourse at Telford accordingly. They contend that they were led to believe and did believe that 15 flat racing fixtures would be made available to them for Telford in the year 1991. All these matters are disputed by the Jockey Club. They contend that it is not proved that RAM had a copy of the report until one was sent in answer to a request, that it is not proved that RAM relied upon the report, or were reasonable in assuming that 15 fixtures would be made available in 1991 to them, that it is not proved that £100,000 or any sum was spent by RAM in reliance upon the report, or that the Jockey Club knew until a later stage that RAM were expecting such an allocation; as soon as they did know, they disabused them. Some of these issues will have to be examined at greater length.
For the purpose of tracing the history it is convenient to take up the matter again in July 1989. It is from this time that the applicant alleges that the Jockey Club began to resile from their statement of policy in the report and the Jockey Club say that they began to realise that RAM were proceeding under a misapprehension of what fixtures would be allocated to them. On 11 July RAM sent a document entitled ‘Telford Park, Proposed Racecourse Development Report’ to the Jockey Club. It is an important document because the applicant claims that it shows that it was relying on the report. It was envisaged that there would be a turf track for flat racing and an all-weather track, with racing starting in January 1991. Under the heading ‘Fixtures’ appears this paragraph:
‘It is intended to transfer some of the present Southwell allocation of 66 meetings to Telford. This fixture calendar would be a combination of days and dates which would include several Saturdays and Bank Holidays. Racing would occur under all three codes. The “new racecourse policy document” indicates 30 fixtures should be available to new racetracks from 1990. This
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would give Telford and Southwell together a total of 96 race fixtures per annum.’
It may be observed at this stage that the second sentence of this section bears little resemblance to the contents of the report. It is now accepted by Mr Beloff QC, on behalf of the applicant, that the report did not envisage any fixtures for new racecourses in 1990. I shall have to consider in more detail what on its true construction was envisaged for new racecourses thereafter.
At App A/4 appears this statement:
‘Fixtures
1. Telford Park anticipate taking advantage of the Racecourse Policy document allowing new racecourses 24 fixtures. [The allowance is actually 30 fixtures from 1990]. 2. Southwell racecourse would also “give” Telford 21 of its fixtures, giving Telford a total of 45 fixtures per annum. 3. It is anticipated that these 45 fixtures would be spread out as follows …’
There is then set out a table from which it appears that it is planned to hold 38 flat races and 7 jump fixtures and that 14 of the fixtures are on turf and 31 on the all-weather track. It is now said that the figure of 24 in para 1 should be 15 because Telford is intended for flat racing only.
As Mr Milmo QC pointed out, if this appendix is based on the report there are a number of curious errors. Why is there a reference to 24 fixtures if in fact the course is for flat racing only? The report does not make allowance for 30 fixtures for new racecourses from 1990. It would appear to assume that all-weather fixtures were included in the additional allotments of 30 for 1990 and 30 for 1991 and 60 thereafter, instead of being in addition to them, this being a mistaken interpretation that Major Wyatt of the Jockey Club himself subsequently made.
The first reaction of the Jockey Club to this report is to be seen in a minute of a meeting of the race planning committee on 18 July 1989. Major Wyatt (referred to as ‘MGW’) was the chairman of the committee. The minute reads:
‘MGW reported that he had just received a copy of the Muddles’ latest scheme for a Racecourse at Telford in Shropshire. Two major problems were immediately apparent from this document, namely that they think that fixtures are transferable from Racecourse to Racecourse provided that they are under the same ownership, and also that they anticipate being licensed to build another AWT [all-weather track] venue. It was agreed that they should be warned of the inaccuracy of their perceptions as soon as possible.’
These no doubt were the major problems; but there is no reference in this meeting to any misconception in relation to the allocation of turf fixtures in accordance with the policy review.
On 20 July 1989 the Jockey Club wrote to Mr Muddle. The important paragraph reads:
‘1. Your document refers to the Policy Review on fixtures carried out last year. The review did suggest that some 120 additional fixtures should be allocated over a two to three year period. However, since the review was carried out, 119 additional fixtures have been allocated. The review did lay down a minimum number of fixtures which could be applied for by new licensed racecourses, but at the same time it stated that when 120 fixtures were allocated, this policy should be reviewed and no commitment was made as to the quantity of fixtures which would actually be granted.’
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This letter indicates a clear misconstruction by the Jockey Club at this time of the report, inasmuch as it appears to aggregate the additional all-weather track fixtures with the turf fixtures to make up the total maximum of 120 additional fixtures. This was plainly an error: the all-weather track fixtures were to be extra to the 120 turf fixtures. It is not altogether clear how many turf fixtures had been allotted for 1990 at this stage; but it was not more than 40.
RAM held a press conference on 24 July 1989 at which its plans for Telford were announced; the letter of 20 July was received just before the conference. On 25 July Mr Muddle wrote to Lord Hartingdon, the senior steward, in the course of which he said:
‘At all times, we have discreetly kept every branch of the industry informed and received encouragement in all directions and then we receive the enclosed arrogant postscript. During the process of this exercise, we have strictly worked within the guidelines laid down in the Review of Fixtures Policy October 1988 and approved by the stewards.’
The letter ends by asking for a private discussion.
On 28 July the applicant’s solicitors wrote asking for confirmation that the report accurately reflected the Jockey Club’s policy for the allocation of fixtures to new racecourses.
On 29 August a meeting took place between Mr Muddle and representatives of the Jockey Club. At this meeting Major Wyatt made it clear that he was not prepared to recommend any additional fixtures for 1991 until the Jockey Club had had an opportunity of assessing the effect on the horse population of the extra fixtures, including the all-weather track fixtures in 1990. It was his opinion that too many fixtures had been granted for 1990. He made it clear that no fixtures would be allotted at that stage to Telford for 1991. This is the first decision that is subject to challenge in this application.
On 6 September there was a further meeting attended by, amongst others, Lord Hartingdon, Major Wyatt and Mr Muddle. According to the minute of the meeting Lord Hartingdon is recorded as saying that—
‘while he shared Mr Muddle’s excitement about new investment in racing, the Jockey Club must temper its view with concern about the availability of fixtures, quite apart from considerations about the site or financial matters. A fixture policy document had been published in 1988 detailing proposals for a staged expansion of the Fixture List. In practice, because of the need to ensure that the new all-weather track developments were acceptable to their owners, the expansion of the fixture list had been accelerated. Two years planned expansion had been undertaken in one as could be seen from the 1990 Fixture List published in July 1989. 30 more turf and all-weather fixtures had been allocated than had been originally envisaged.’
This is somewhat confused because the report did not envisage a specified number of all-weather track fixtures in 1990; what it did envisage was 30 turf fixtures in that year in addition to such all-weather track fixtures as might be allocated. The meeting ended in disagreement and dissatisfaction on the part of Mr Muddle. He did not succeed in getting a commitment to any fixtures for Telford in 1991. This is the second decision of the Jockey Club that is subject to challenge.
On 8 September the applicant’s solicitors sent a letter before action; they sought an assurance that RAM would be allocated the minimum number of fixtures for 1991 in accordance with the report, and asserted that ‘any resolution to resile
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from the policy … would be unreasonable and unlawful’. The assurance was not forthcoming. As had been foreshadowed in the correspondence between solicitors, on 19 October the Jockey Club formally resolved as follows:
‘Telford Resolution
The Stewards have decided that until they have been able to evaluate the effects of the increase of 11% in fixtures for 1990, including the introduction of a full year’s programme of All Weather Track Racing, they should not commit themselves to any significant further increase in the fixtures. They do not therefore, consider that the requirements of a new racecourse can be accommodated within the probable Fixture List for 1991. Furthermore, at the present time, the Stewards cannot indicate when fixtures may become available but they will keep the matter under annual review.’
It is this decision that is the principal subject of challenge in these proceedings.
On 9 November the Jockey Club referred RAM’s application for a licence for Telford Park; the stewards indicated that it was not their policy to grant a licence unless they were reasonably confident that fixtures would be available.
On 24 November 1989 Roch J gave leave to move for judicial review.
Three main issues arise in this application. (1) Jurisdiction: are the decisions of the Jockey Club which the applicant challenges amenable to judicial review? (2) The substantive issue: did the report create a legitimate expectation in the applicant that the Jockey Club would grant a minimum of 15 fixtures for the racecourse at Telford in 1991? (3) Discretion: if the answers to issues (1) and (2) are in the affirmative, ought the court to exercise its discretion in favour of the applicant and quash the decisions?
For reasons which will appear I propose to consider the substantive issue before that of jurisdiction. The law in relation to legitimate expectation created by a public body was concisely stated by Bingham LJ in the recent case of R v Board of Inland Revenue, ex p MFK Underwriting Agencies Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 91 at 110, [1990] 1 WLR 1545 at 1569–1570. Bingham LJ said:
‘In so stating these requirements I do not, I hope, diminish or emasculate the valuable developing doctrine of legitimate expectation. If a public authority so conducts itself as to create a legitimate expectation that a certain course will be followed it would often be unfair if the authority were permitted to follow a different course to the detriment of one who entertained the expectation, particularly if he acted on it. If in private law a body would be in breach of contract in so acting or estopped from so acting a public authority should generally be in no better position. The doctrine of legitimate expectation is rooted in fairness. But fairness is not a one-way street. It imports the notion of equitableness, of fair and open dealing, to which the authority is as much entitled as the citizen.’
The doctrine has many similarities with the principles of estoppel in private law. In my judgment the matters that the applicant has to prove in this case are these. (1) A clear and unambiguous representation (see per Bingham LJ in Ex p MFK Underwriting Agencies Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 91 at 110, [1990] 1 WLR 1545 at 1569–1570). (2) That since the applicant was not a person to whom any representation was directly made it was within the class of persons who are entitled to rely upon it; or at any rate that it was reasonable for the applicant to rely upon it without more (see A-G of Hong Kong v Ng Yuen Shiu [1983] 2 All ER 346 at 351, [1983] 2 AC 629 at 638). (3) That it did so rely upon it. (4) That it did so to its detriment. While in some cases it is not altogether clear that this is a
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necessary ingredient, since a public body is entitled to change its policy if it is acting in good faith, it is a necessary ingredient where, as here, an applicant is saying, ‘You cannot alter your policy now in my case; it is too late’. (5) That there is no overriding interest arising from their duties and responsibilities for the proper conduct or due encouragement of horse-racing as required in their charter which entitled the Jockey Club to change their policy to the detriment of the applicant.
The burden of proving the first four points is, in my judgment, upon the applicant. It is the submission on behalf of the Jockey Club that it has failed to satisfy this burden in each respect. As to the fifth requirement, it seems to me that that is a matter for the Jockey Club to establish.
Was there a clear and unambiguous representation?
The representation alleged is that RAM would be allocated a minimum of 15 flat racing fixtures for Telford racecourse, assuming that it was then built and ready for racing, in 199l. Mr Beloff submits that this is the plain effect of the second recommendation. Mr Milmo, on the other hand, submits that the report is capable of two possible constructions, but not that put upon it by the applicant. They are these: (a) that the report stated desired objectives as regards increase of fixtures to achieve a minimum number of fixtures for existing and new racecourses, but left unresolved the question of timing and priorities in relation to fulfilment of these objectives; (b) that it was made sufficiently clear that it was contemplated that the allocation of the first 60 additional fixtures in 1990 and 1991 would be made to existing racecourses.
In favour of his first construction Mr Milmo submits that recommendations 1 and 2 are, or at any rate may be, irreconcilable. It is common ground that the report does not contemplate any new racecourses in 1990 and the only way in which both recommendations could be achieved either in 1990 or 1991 is if existing racecourses did not apply for the expected number of additional fixtures (namely 62 which might be reduced to 57, see para 4.5 of the report), let alone if all existing racecourses applied for the minimum number to which they were entitled (namely 109 less the 5 fixtures previously referred to); alternatively it could be achieved if there are no new racecourses in 1990 or 1991. If there are one or more new racecourses in those years it is apparent that the two recommendations cannot be achieved.
Mr Beloff sought to answer this argument in a number of ways. First, he submitted that the study group themselves considered the point and reached a figure, based on their knowledge and expertise, of the expected take-up of additional fixtures, which was less than the 109 to which existing courses were strictly entitled. But even taking the anticipated take-up figure of 57, this leaves no more than 3 fixtures for new racecourses, unless there is to be some balancing exercise or distribution in the exercise of the stewards’ discretion. Secondly, he submitted that in fact there are still 23 unallocated fixtures for 1991; there are so far as is known no other new racecourses seeking fixtures for that year, and even if there were, they are not in the same position as the applicant, that is to say they have not acted to their detriment in reliance on the representation and so vis-à-vis such racecourses the Jockey Club can change its policy.
But there are to my mind two answers to this: the first is that it is immaterial what has in fact occurred. The question is whether the representation is clear and unambiguous; if it is apparent that there are wholly foreseeable consequences, and indeed consequences which are actually contemplated in the report, namely that existing racecourses may apply for 57 or more of the available 60 fixtures in
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1990 and 1991, it is equally apparent that a new racecourse may not be able to be allotted, as of right, 15 or 24 depending whether it is flat only or dual purpose. The second answer is that, while it is not altogether easy to discover from the papers how many fixtures have been allocated and how many are still available, it does appear from an analysis made by Mr Milmo that in fact there are only 3 additional flat fixtures available in 1991. This is because of the distribution of additional fixtures as between flat and National Hunt fixtures. Although the report itself does not indicate this breakdown, any knowledgeable person receiving the report would appreciate that there would have to be some such breakdown. In fact what was decided by the Jockey Club was that 7/12ths would be allocated to flat and 5/12ths to jump fixtures; and this was indicated in the letter of 7 February 1989 to racecourses in the passage which I have quoted.
In favour of his second construction Mr Milmo points to paras 4.5 and 4.9 and submits that the latter clearly contemplates a pause at the end of 1991 to enable the Jockey Club to assess the impact of the additional fixtures and the impact of all-weather track racing; what has in fact happened is that some 40 additional turf fixtures have been granted in 1990 (as opposed to the 30 envisaged by the report) and the Jockey Club wish to bring forward to the end of 1990 the assessment of the position before committing themselves to further fixtures.
To my mind it is a matter of considerable regret that those who drafted the report and accepted it did not resolve these inherent contradictions before the report was distributed. There was a risk, which may have materialised in this case, that those who read it, read into it what they wanted. But nevertheless I have come to the conclusion that there is force in Mr Milmo’s submission, at least to this extent, that the report does not contain a clear and unambiguous representation that a new racecourse will receive as of right a minimum of 15 flat fixtures or 24 dual purpose fixtures in 1991.
Second, as I have already pointed out, the report was never sent directly to RAM or Mr Muddle. It is however perfectly possible that he obtained a copy and he says he did so; for present purposes I am content to assume that he did, though the respondents challenge his assertion. In these circumstances RAM must establish that it is entitled to rely on the representation. The test, so far as estoppel is concerned, is stated in Spencer Bower and Turner Estoppel by Representation (3rd edn, 1977) p 117 as follows:
‘(iii) any specific person, not being a representee of either of the above types, whom nevertheless the representor, actually or presumptively, intended the representation to reach and affect, and whom it did in fact so reach and affect; and (iv) any member of the public, or of a section of the community, who is proved to have acted on a representation addressed in the first instance, not to any specific individual, but to such public, or section.’
Both counsel accepted that this was the correct test.
In my judgment, the applicant does not fall into the class headed (iii). I am not persuaded that by sending the report to existing racecourses the Jockey Club either actually or presumptively intended it to reach and affect those who contemplated building new racecourses, though I accept that there was no reason why the document should not come into the hands of such persons and indeed it is likely that it would. The document has not been made public, and it was not supplied to the applicant in answer to a request as a prospective new racecourse owner.
Nor in my opinion does the applicant come within class (iv). The commentary on this class is illuminating (at 117–118):
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‘Representations “to the world”
121 The fourth class of persons deemed in law to be representees is, in appropriate cases, the public, or a section of the community to whom the representation is addressed. Just as a man, though he cannot “contract with the world”, can nevertheless make a proposal to the public at large, or to a section of the community, which proposal, on being accepted by any individual belonging to the public, or the class in question, becomes a valid contract between him and the proposer, so also, on the same principle, anyone, though not capable of raising an estoppel against himself in favour of the public, or a class, in its entirety, can address a representation to such public, or class, which, if and when, but not unless and until, acted upon to his prejudice by any member of such body of undesignated persons, may operate as an estoppel against himself in favour of that individual. Where, however, the representation, though contained in a document apparently designed for public distribution, or of a nature to attract public notice, is not proved to have been actually intended for, or addressed to, the public, or a class, by the alleged representor, no member of the public or of that class, however clear it may be that he in fact acted upon the representation, can claim to have been a representee; nor can he do so, where the representation was not made by such means and methods as to ensure, or render probable, a reasonable degree of publicity, nor where, though the representation was made to the public, or class, it is not shown to have been the precise representation relied upon.’
But, even if I am wrong in this conclusion, in my judgment it was not reasonable for the applicant to rely on the representation without more. By ‘without more’ I mean without inquiring directly from the Jockey Club whether its assumption, if such it was, that 15 flat fixtures would be available at Telford in 1991 was correct. I say this both because of the lack of clarity and the inherent contradiction in the report itself, to which I have already referred and because of the fact that the applicant was not a direct recipient of the report. It seems to me that no prudent businessman who gave careful consideration to the contents of the report was reasonable in assuming without further inquiry that he had a guarantee of a minimum of 15 fixtures in 1991 for a new racecourse.
Mr Beloff has sought to counter this argument by showing that the Jockey Club in fact knew of Mr Muddle’s plans for Telford and knew that he was counting on a minimum number of fixtures in 1991. To my mind this is the only significance of this evidence. There is an acute conflict as to what, if anything, was said on this subject. I do not propose to rehearse the evidence on this conflict, which in any event could not be resolved without oral evidence. In my judgment, taken at its highest it falls far short of indicating that the Jockey Club by its stewards appreciated or ought to have appreciated, at any time before they received the Proposed Racecourse Development Report on about 11 July 1989 and had an opportunity to consider it, that RAM was relying upon any such representation as it now alleges. By then it was too late; and as soon as they did appreciate this they set about to disabuse the applicant.
For these reasons, in my judgment, the applicant has failed to establish two of the necessary ingredients of its case that it had a legitimate expectation which the Jockey Club could not frustrate. And accordingly it is not necessary to consider whether in fact the applicant relied on what it considered as a representation or that it did so to its detriment.
Mr Milmo has offered powerful submissions to the effect that neither are
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proved on the balance of probability. As to the first, I doubt whether it could be resolved without oral evidence. Mr Muddle has sworn that he did obtain a copy of the report; this is not inherently improbable, on the contrary it seems to me probable in view of his interest at Southwell that he did; there is some corroboration in the documents that this is so, albeit such corroboration is not consistent with an accurate appreciation of the contents of the report (see, for example, my earlier comments on the passages referred to in the Telford report). I take the view therefore that it is established that he received and read the report or at any rate I am prepared to make the assumption. I have more doubt on the second point, namely whether RAM can establish any prejudice. There is a singular paucity of documentation establishing anything of the sort. It was not until 28 September 1989 that RAM committed itself to an option to purchase the land at Telford; but by then the attitude of the Jockey Club was quite clear: they would not grant any fixtures. The option must have been taken on the basis that the applicant could successfully challenge that decision. There is a lack of evidence of the relationship between Rowanglen Ltd, which is an associated company with the applicant, and for whom the initial work of investigating the feasibility and planning at Telford seems to have been done; there is no evidence of any consideration passing from RAM to Rowanglen whereas RAM apparently took over from the latter the project at Telford. Unsatisfactory though the evidence is, it does seem clear that RAM had taken over the Telford project before July 1989; that a considerable amount of professional work must have been done before this time and that even if Rowanglen incurred the primary liability for this, RAM would bear the ultimate responsibility. If it were necessary therefore I would be prepared to hold that RAM had established some prejudice.
I should add that if I had found in favour of the applicant on the other issues, I do not consider that the Jockey Club established justification under the fifth head.
Jurisdiction
In these circumstances it is not necessary to consider the difficult question of jurisdiction. However, in deference to the arguments of counsel I will give my opinion as shortly as I can.
In R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207 a Divisional Court consisting of Neill LJ and Roch J held that a decision of the Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club to remove the appellant’s name from the panel of those qualified to act as chairmen of a local panel of stewards was not amenable to judicial review. Neill LJ undoubtedly went further and held that no decisions of the Jockey Club were subject to judicial review. He stated the issue in this way: ‘(1) Whether the Jockey Club is a body whose decisions can in any circumstances be challenged by the process of judicial review’ (see at 209). And in due course answered it in favour of the Jockey Club (see at 220). He clearly did so with some regret because he considered he was bound by the authority of Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 to reach this conclusion. He cited the well-known passage from the judgment of Donaldson MR in R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, [1987] QB 815 at 838:
‘In all the reports it is possible to find enumerations of factors giving rise to the jurisdiction, but it is a fatal error to regard the presence of all those factors as essential or as being exclusive of other factors. Possibly the only essential elements are what can be described as a public element, which can
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take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
Roch J also said that in the absence of authority he would have concluded that the Jockey Club were amenable to judicial review. He pointed to the monopolistic powers in an area of major national importance in which the public generally have an interest and in which many persons earn their livelihoods and unlike Neill LJ he considered that since incorporation its powers derive from the royal charter. But he did not feel able to distinguish Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd. At the conclusion of his judgment Roch J said (at 224):
‘In Law’s case the authority of the stewards to suspend the plaintiff’s licence was derived wholly from contract. There may be cases where the authority of the stewards of the Jockey Club will not be derived from a contract between them and the person aggrieved by their act or decision or alternatively may not be derived wholly from a contract. It seems to me that, if such a case were to arise, then the question is such an act or decision of the Jockey Club susceptible to judicial review? may receive an answer different from that given by the court in Law’s case.’
It seems possible that the learned judge had in mind such a case as the present which is plainly unconnected with contract.
But I have had difficulty in reconciling this with the equally undoubted fact that there was no contractual relationship between Mr Massingberd-Mundy and the Jockey Club. It is of course trite law that, in respect of a body some of whose decisions are amenable to judicial review, that remedy is not available to every decision. For example, decisions in the realm of employment and commercial contracts are not normally amenable to judicial review even in the case of an undoubted public body established by statute. But I do not see how it is possible to distinguish Ex p Massingberd-Mundy on this basis. Mr Beloff has submitted that the Divisional Court’s decision was wrong and that we are at liberty not to follow it. In R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240 at 248, [1985] QB 67 at 81 Robert Goff LJ said:
‘If a judge of the High Court sits exercising the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court then it is, in our judgment, plain that the relevant principle of stare decisis is the principle applicable in the case of a judge of first instance exercising the jurisdiction of the High Court, viz that he will follow a decision of another judge of first instance, unless he is convinced that that judgment is wrong, as a matter of judicial comity; but he is not bound to follow the decision of a judge of equal jurisdiction (see Huddersfield Police Authority v Watson [1947] 2 All ER 193 at 196, [1947] KB 842 at 848 per Lord Goddard CJ), for either the judge exercising such supervisory jurisdiction is (as we think) sitting as a judge of first instance, or his position is so closely analogous that the principle of stare decisis applicable in the case of a judge of first instance is applicable to him. In our judgment, the same principle is applicable when the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court is exercised not by a single judge, but by a Divisional Court, where two or three judges are exercising precisely the same jurisdiction as the single judge. We have no doubt that it will be only in rare cases that a Divisional Court will think it fit to depart from a decision of another Divisional Court exercising this jurisdiction.’
Mr Beloff argues that, since both judges in Ex p Massingberd-Mundy said that if
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the matter was free from authority they would have decided the matter in favour of the applicant, the question is whether they were so bound or whether they were in error in so concluding. I think it is certainly clear that if any decisions of the Jockey Club are amenable to judicial review the decisions in the present case fall within the category of those that are reviewable. He argues with great force that Law’s case is distinguishable because the source of power in that case was wholly consensual.
In Law’s case [1983] 3 All ER 300 at 303, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1307 Lawton LJ said:
‘In my judgment, such powers as the stewards had to suspend the plaintiff’s licence were derived from a contract between him and the defendants. This was so for all who took part in greyhound racing in stadiums licensed by the defendants. A stewards’ inquiry under the defendants’ rules of racing concerned only those who voluntarily submitted themselves to the stewards’ jurisdiction. There was no public element in the jurisdiction itself. Its exercise, however, could have consequences from which the public benefited, as for example by the stamping out of malpractices, and from which individuals might have their rights restricted by, for example, being prevented from employing a trainer whose licence has been suspended. Consequences affecting the public generally can flow from the decisions of many domestic tribunals. In the past the courts have always refused to use the orders of certiorari to review the decisions of domestic tribunals. In R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882 Lord Parker CJ said: “Private or domestic tribunals have always been outside the scope of certiorari since their authority is derived solely from contract, that is from the agreement of the parties concerned.” ’
Fox LJ said ([1983] 3 All ER 300 at 305, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1309):
‘Accordingly, in my view, the authority of the stewards to suspend the licence of the plaintiff derives wholly from a contract between him and the defendants. I see nothing to suggest that the defendants have rights or duties relating to members of the public as such. What the defendants do in relation to the control of greyhound racing may affect the public, or a section of it, but the defendants’ powers in relation to the matters with which this case is concerned are contractual.’
Slade LJ said ([1983] 3 All ER 300 at 307, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1313):
‘The difficulty, to my mind insuperable, which has faced counsel for the defendants in contending that the process of judicial review is a procedure, and indeed the only procedure, available to the plaintiff in the present case is that, as he frankly accepted, the rules of racing of the NGRC and its decision to suspend the plaintiff in purported compliance with those rules have not been made in the field of public law. Furthermore, its authority to perform judicial or quasi-judicial functions in respect of persons holding licences from it is not derived from statute or statutory instrument or from the Crown. It is derived solely from contract.’
Furthermore, Mr Beloff points out that in Law’s case counsel for the applicant argued that it was in effect axiomatic that, if the respondent’s powers derived from charter, judicial review would lie (see [1983] 3 All ER 300 at 306, 309, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1311, 1315 per Fox and Slade LJJ, where this argument is
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rehearsed). But it is not in terms adopted by either judge. I have been much impressed by Mr Beloff’s argument.
Mr Milmo sought to counter it with four submissions. First, that powers of the Jockey Club to issue licences and control fixtures do not derive from the royal prerogative itself; the charter is granted under the prerogative, but the Jockey Club powers are no different than would be the case if it had been incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act or as in the case of the National Greyhound Racing Club it was a company limited by guarantee. He points out, rightly as it seems to me, that so far as its functions of issuing licences and controlling fixtures is concerned the Jockey Club is in no different position from a practical point of view after the charter than before. The ultimate sanction by which it enforces its monopoly is not one granted by the charter, but depends upon its power to exclude disqualified persons or horses, which is a contractual basis.
Secondly, Mr Milmo points out that there would be a remarkable disparity between the position of existing racecourses, who might equally have a legitimate expectation, if the applicant does. The former are in contractual relationship with the Jockey Club through their licences. Are they to be confined to an action begun by writ, while the applicant can obtain the same or possibly more extensive relief through the remedy of judicial review? There is, it is true, a somewhat bizarre condition in the standard form of licence, which reads:
‘2. By issuing this Licence no legal liability, whether by way of contract or otherwise is assumed by the Stewards of the Jockey Club.’
Mr Beloff submitted that you cannot have a contract without legal liability and that it is intended that the relationship should be binding in honour only and not intended to create legal relations. Whatever it means, if anything, I am not persuaded that it goes as far as this when in all other respects the relationship is a business one of a contractual nature.
Thirdly, Mr Milmo accepted that in an appropriate case where a body enjoys a monopoly position such that it can prevent a person from earning his living by not admitting him or from conducting a legitimate business in restraint of trade, it will be amenable to a declaratory judgment in an action begun by writ, if it has acted in an arbitrary and capricious way in refusing to permit the applicant’s activities: see Eastham v Newcastle United Football Club Ltd [1963] 3 All ER 139 at 157, [1964] Ch 413 at 446 per Wilberforce J, Greig v Insole, World Series Cricket Pty Ltd v Insole [1978] 3 All ER 449 at 495, [1978] 1 WLR 302 at 345 per Slade J and Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633. Thus, in my opinion, if the Jockey Club, enjoying the monopoly power that it does, had given a clear and unambiguous statement to anyone seeking to open a new racecourse that they would be allotted a certain number of fixtures, that being in accordance with their declared policy, it would be prima facie unlawful and in restraint of trade to refuse such an application. And equally, if a licence to operate a racecourse depends, as it appears to do, on the allocation of fixtures (all other necessary conditions being satisfied), it would prima facie be in restraint of trade and unlawful if the Jockey Club refused a licence on the grounds that they had not allocated the necessary fixtures to the applicant, contrary to their declared policy and clear representation. The significance of the declared policy and representation in these circumstances would be that it would be virtually impossible for the Jockey Club to contend that the restraint of trade was reasonable. For these reasons it appears to me that in an appropriate case, very similar relief could be obtained by a writ action, to that which is sought by the applicant in this case. And indeed
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there is no doubt that such procedure is more appropriate when the courts are required to consider matters of restraint of trade: see Dairy Crest Ltd v Pigott [1989] ICR 92. Nevertheless, like Simon Brown J, I suspect that if these cases had first arisen for determination after R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] l All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, relief might well have been sought and granted along the public law rather than the private law route.
Finally, Mr Milmo submitted that there have been no successful applications for judicial review against sporting bodies, such as the Football Association, British Board of Boxing Control or the MCC. This may be so; but it is of limited value: each case will depend on the source of powers and nature of functions of the body and whether there is a sufficient public element involved. Quite clearly the majority of cases, involving disciplinary disputes or adjudications between participants in the sport, will be of an entirely domestic character and based upon the contractual relationship between the parties. Such disputes have never been amenable to judicial review.
Nevertheless, at the end of the day I am unable to say that I am convinced that the decision of this court in R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207 was wrong. It is quite clear that it was not in any way per incuriam, the court having given careful consideration to Law’s case and, we are told, other extensive citations of authority. But for this authority I should have held that the decisions of the Jockey Club in this case were amenable to judicial review.
The exercise of discretion in these circumstances does not arise. Mr Beloff urged us, if we did not accede to the application for judicial review, to exercise our power under RSC Ord 53, r 9(5) to order that the proceedings continue as if they had begun by writ. But this power only exists where—
‘the relief sought is a declaration, an injunction or damages and the Court considers that it should not be granted on an application for judicial review but might have been granted if it had been sought in an action begun by writ …’
I agree with Mr Beloff that the rule applies where the relief sought includes and is not confined to a declaration, injunction or damages. But since I have concluded that the applicant fails on the substantive issue and not only on the jurisdictional, it would not be appropriate to make any such order. In any event, it would be of little value in this case. It is clear that there would have to be pleadings if the matter is to be pursued in a claim at private law; only the costs of the writ and a little time would be saved.
For all these reasons I would refuse the application.
SIMON BROWN J. The two central issues raised upon this challenge are: (1) the jurisdictional issue as to whether the Jockey Club are in any circumstances amenable to judicial review. If they are, it cannot I think be doubted that they would be in this case; (2) the substantive issue as to whether the decision of the Jockey Club under challenge offended against the doctrine of legitimate expectation—a doctrine, of course, only applicable to the Jockey Club if they are reviewable.
So far as that substantive issue is concerned, I wholly concur in the views expressed and conclusions arrived at by Stuart-Smith LJ and propose to say nothing further about it. But I do desire to express certain thoughts of my own
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upon the jurisdictional question. I recognise that in one sense this is strictly unnecessary given our decision upon the question of legitimate expectation. But logically, of course, the jurisdictional issue falls to be resolved first and, if resolved against the applicant, that would be determinative of all issues; only if the Jockey Club were carrying out a reviewable public law function were they under a duty to give thought, let alone effect, to anyone’s legitimate expectations. In short, the resolution of the jurisdictional issue carries with it not merely procedural consequences but, yet more fundamentally, substantive consequences in terms of the duties owed by the Jockey Club to others in respect of some at least of their decision-making processes.
Given that this identical issue has recently been determined by another Division of this court in R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207 it necessarily follows that I must expressly consider the correctness of that decision. Let me say at once that, like Stuart-Smith LJ, I fall far short of being ‘convinced’ that it was wrong—the test formulated in R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67 as to whether the Divisional Court should feel free to depart from one of its own earlier decisions. Accordingly, were the jurisdictional issue decisive of the present application, I would not decide it in the applicant’s favour. But, that said, the very fact that the issue here is not decisive, better enables this court to voice its own independent view. Mine, let me immediately indicate with both diffidence and respect, is one of limited dissent. This will not, I believe, place the law in any needless and inappropriate state of doubt. The truth is, whatever this court decides or declines to decide in the present litigation, this particular issue will not go away. Sooner or later the Court of Appeal will have to resolve it. In essence, therefore, my thoughts are offered in deference to the excellence of the arguments addressed to us and in the faint hope that, right or wrong, they may just possibly assist those who must decide this point hereafter.
Before endeavouring to state why I disagree with the conclusions of the court in Ex p Massingberd-Mundy, let me first indicate the limited extent of my disagreement. The substantive decision there subject to challenge was that of the disciplinary committee to remove the applicant’s name from the list of those eligible to sit as chairmen of local panels of stewards. All that the applicant had theretofore enjoyed was a non-renewable privilege. I have no difficulty in regarding that particular decision as one taken within an essentially domestic context lacking any significant public dimension and as non-reviewable on that ground. It is only in so far as the court’s decision rested upon the wider ground that the Jockey Club can never be reviewable in regard to any of their decision-making functions that I would respectfully question its correctness.
My reasons are essentially these. First, I accept Mr Beloff QC’s argument that Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 was distinguishable from Ex p Massingberd-Mundy—as to my mind it is, yet more plainly, from the present case. As appears from the passages from the judgments in Law’s case cited by Stuart-Smith LJ, that decision was founded squarely upon the Court of Appeal’s conclusion that the powers there being exercised by the National Greyhound Racing Club were purely contractual. The citation from R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882 relied upon in Lawton LJ’s leading judgment in Law’s case was:
‘Private or domestic tribunals have always been outside the scope of certiorari since their authority is derived solely from contract, that is from
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the agreement of the parties concerned.’ (See [1983] 3 All ER 300 at 303, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1307.)’
And it must be remembered too that it was Law who desired to challenge the club’s decision by way of private law proceedings in contract, the club itself which was seeking to drive him unwillingly into the arena of judicial review. The other decision which clearly influenced the Divisional Court in Ex p Massingberd-Mundy was that of the Privy Council in Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 573. As Mr Beloff points out, however, that case was concerned not at all with the appropriate legal process—judicial review or action—but rather with a substantive issue of natural justice. The Board approached the matter on the basis that it could interfere if it wished; it chose not to do so upon a substantive basis. We are, indeed, told that the case was cited to the Divisional Court in another connection entirely.
Even, therefore, without considering the impact of the developing jurisprudence over the last seven years, I myself would feel able to distinguish, rather than driven to follow, Law’s case. I would observe parenthetically that it is that part of Mr Beloff’s argument upon Law’s case that I accept, not his (still less counsel for the club’s in Law’s case) references to the question of a charter. For the reasons indicated by Stuart-Smith LJ, I have difficulty in attributing great weight to that although, as I shall explain, it nevertheless seems to me of some relevance in this matter.
Even, however, had I concluded that the Court of Appeal’s decision in Law’s case on its face governed also the position in Ex p Massingberd-Mundy and this case, I would still have concluded that the issue remained open in the light of R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815. This clearly was a landmark decision in respect of the true scope and extent of this court’s supervisory jurisdiction: all earlier cases need now to be re-examined in its light. Stuart-Smith LJ has cited the critical passage from Donaldson MR’s judgment which sets out what may be regarded as the parameters of the debate. At one end of the spectrum are reviewable decisions with a sufficient ‘public element’; at the other, non-reviewable decisions of a body ‘whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction’. This last category echoes the passage I have already cited from Ex p Lain and has long been recognised to encompass arbitrators, private social clubs and the like. Within those extreme limits, however, Datafin reaffirmed Lord Parker CJ’s dictum in Ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882 that ‘the exact limits of the ancient remedy of certiorari had never been and ought not to be specifically defined’. In short, it seems to me that Datafin expressly recognised the extent to which public policy ought properly to inform the development of this part of our law and, by giving clear emphasis and perhaps priority to the ‘functions’ test as opposed to the ‘source of power’ test earlier thought paramount, pointed the way forward.
The proper application of this fresh approach will obviously have to be determined on a case by case basis. There are many different types of institution—often of an increasingly monopolistic nature—ruling various aspects of our national life. Some flexibility of response by the courts is surely required. And for this there is ample scope—above all in the well-settled principle which establishes that merely because some public body is amenable to judicial review it by no means follows that it is reviewable in all its functions. As Stuart-Smith LJ has pointed out, even statutory bodies are not reviewable when acting qua employers or parties to commercial contracts: see, for example, R v BBC, ex
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p Lavelle [1983] 1 All ER 241, [1983] 1 WLR 23 and R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425, [1985] QB 152. In those cases certain areas of decision-making were held excluded from the scope of judicial review in recognition of the fact that the public authorities were in reality acting in a capacity akin to private institutions. Why should not the courts be prepared similarly to approach the question the other way and extend the review jurisdiction to certain (even if relatively few) functions of what may ordinarily be regarded as non-governmental institutions when those particular functions can be seen to have an essentially public character.
I find myself, I confess, much attracted by Mr Beloff’s submissions that the nature of the power being exercised by the Jockey Club in discharging its functions of regulating racecourses and allocating fixtures is strikingly akin to the exercise of a statutory licensing power. I have no difficulty in regarding this function as one of a public law body, giving rise to public law consequences. On any view it seems to have strikingly close affinities with those sorts of decision-making that commonly are accepted as reviewable by the courts. And at the same time I certainly cannot identify this particular exercise of power with that of an arbitrator or other domestic body such as would clearly be outside the supervisory jurisdiction.
Stuart-Smith LJ has already outlined Mr Milmo QC’s four main opposing submissions. The first goes to the significance of the charter. As stated, I agree that the incorporation of the Jockey Club under charter with effect from 1970 cannot of itself be a decisive consideration in attracting the review jurisdiction. On the other hand, I do not regard it as an irrelevance. Rather it seems to me to indicate a governmental (in the widest sense) recognition of the national importance of the Jockey Club’s position, holding as it does monopolistic powers in this important field of public life. It is a position which could as well have been enshrined in legislation.
As to Mr Milmo’s second point—the suggestion that a striking disparity would arise between the position of those concerned with existing racecourses and those wishing to create new ones, were decisions regarding the latter to be reviewable—I believe it to be based upon a false premise. In Wandsworth London BC v Winder [1984] 3 All ER 976, [1985] AC 461 the House of Lords held that a local authority’s statutory entitlement to make ‘reasonable charges’ in respect of a council tenant’s rent was subject to an obligation to act reasonably in the Wednesbury sense (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223). No difficulty was found in superimposing that public law duty upon the ordinary private law obligations that arose under contract. By the same token it seems to me that the owners of existing racecourses, quite apart from exercising any contractual rights, would be entitled in appropriate circumstances to invoke public law remedies too.
Mr Milmo’s third submission is found in the Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633 line of authority and, as I understand it, amounts essentially to this. Given the development of a free-standing right to declaratory judgments in private law ‘restraint of trade’ cases, there is no need to stretch the bounds of the court’s supervisory jurisdiction to encompass the licensing-like functions of bodies such as the Jockey Club. The force of the submission is readily apparent. But the answer to it is, in my judgment, this. Cases like Eastham v Newcastle United Football Club Ltd [1963] 3 All ER 139, [1964] Ch 413, Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633, Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union [1971] 1 All ER 1148, [1971] 2 QB 175 and McInnes v Onslow-Fane [1978] 3 All ER 211, [1978] 1 WLR 1520, had they arisen today and not some years ago, would have
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found a natural home in judicial review proceedings. As it was, considerations of public policy forced the courts to devise a new private law creature: a right in certain circumstances to declaratory judgments without any underlying cause of action.
But clear recognition of the true, essentially public law, nature of these cases is to be found in the judgment of Lord Denning MR in Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union itself and I for my part would judge it preferable to develop these principles in future in a public law context than by further distorting private law principles. Nagle v Feilden was never in my judgment a restraint of trade case properly so called; rather it brought into play clear considerations of public law.
Mr Milmo’s final argument can be shortly stated and quickly seen to be inconclusive. It is that never hitherto has any sporting body been found amenable to review. So be it—although, as I have suggested, that is really only because the courts have in the past sought to meet the needs of public policy by developing private law principles instead. But put that thought aside. We are here in a dynamic area of law, well able to embrace new situations as justice requires. Many recent cases illustrate the point—Datafin of course, but also Thomas v University of Bradford [1987] 1 All ER 834, [1987] AC 795 where the House of Lords recognised that university visitors would be reviewable; R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex p Insurance Service plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169 in which the Divisional Court held that the authority, a company limited by guarantee, was reviewable; and yet more recently the Bar Council litigation (see R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212).
Plainly the Jockey Club for the most part take decisions which affect only—or at least essentially—those voluntarily and willingly subscribing to their rules and procedures. The wider public have no interest in all this, certainly not sufficient to make such decisions reviewable. But just occasionally, as when exercising the quasi-licensing power here under challenge, I for my part would regard the Jockey Club as subject to review.
Application dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congregations of Great Britain and the Commonwealth, ex parte Wachmann
[1993] 2 All ER 249
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (CROWN OFFICE LIST)
Lord(s): SIMON BROWN J
Hearing Date(s): 25 JANUARY, 6 FEBRUARY 1991
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Chief Rabbi – Disciplinary proceedings against rabbi – Chief Rabbi deciding that rabbi morally and religiously unfit to hold rabbinical office – Rabbi dismissed from congregation – Whether Chief Rabbi’s decisions susceptible to judicial review – Whether Chief Rabbi’s decisions within sphere of public law.
The applicant was an Orthodox rabbi appointed in 1972 to a synagogue by a congregation which belonged to the United Hebrew Congregations of Great Britain and the Commonwealth, the spiritual head of which was the Chief Rabbi. The constitution of the applicant’s congregation provided that the congregation’s religious guidance was under the supervision of the Chief Rabbi. Early in 1990 allegations were made against the applicant of adultery with members of his congregation. By letter dated 8 May 1990 the Chief Rabbi notified the applicant that he had appointed a commission of inquiry to investigate those allegations and that in the meantime he was suspended from rabbinical activities. The commission found the applicant guilty of serious conduct unbecoming of a rabbi and no longer religiously and morally fit to occupy his position as a rabbi. By a letter dated 1 August the Chief Rabbi wrote to the president of the applicant’s congregation unreservedly accepting the commission’s findings and stating that having regard to the extreme gravity of the applicant’s conduct, which was incompatible with his rabbinical standing and activities, the Chief Rabbi would no longer regard the applicant as morally and religiously fit to hold his rabbinical office. On 24 August the executive and council of the applicant’s congregation resolved that, in the light of the Chief Rabbi’s decision, the applicant’s employment with the congregation would be terminated by three months’ notice. The applicant applied for judicial review of the Chief Rabbi’s decision. The question arose whether the Chief Rabbi was subject to judicial review in respect of the discharge of his essential functions, including his disciplinary function, as the spiritual head of Hebrew congregations. The Chief Rabbi contended that his decisions were not amenable to judicial review because (i) the applicant had consensually submitted to the Chief Rabbi’s jurisdiction and (ii) that there was no public law element in the Chief Rabbi’s decisions and it would be against public policy for a secular court to regulate the religious functions of the Chief Rabbi.
Held – For a decision of a given body to be a public law decision with public law consequences which attracted the court’s supervisory jurisdiction the effect of the decision had to be more than merely of great interest or concern to the public or to have consequences for the public. Instead, there had to be not merely a public but potentially a governmental interest in the decision-making power in question. The Chief Rabbi’s functions were essentially intimate, spiritual and religious functions which the government could not and would not seek to discharge in his place were he to abdicate his regulatory responsibility and Parliament would never contemplate legislating to regulate the discharge of his functions. It followed that his decisions contained no public law element. Furthermore,
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although an Orthodox rabbi pursuing his vocation had no choice but to accept the Chief Rabbi’s disciplinary decisions and therefore could not be said to submit to the Chief Rabbi’s jurisdiction consensually, the court was not in a position to regulate what was essentially a religious function, namely the determination of whether someone was morally and religiously fit to carry out the spiritual and pastoral duties of his office and the court would inevitably be wary of entering so self-evidently sensitive an area and straying across the well-recognised divide between church and state. The application would therefore be dismissed (see p 253 j, p 254 c d j, p 255 g to j and p 256 a to c, post).
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 applied.
Notes
For the scope of judicial review, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 64 and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 321–435, 3362–4797.
Cases referred to in judgment
Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302, CA.
Leech v Parkhurst Deputy Prison Governor [1988] 1 All ER 485, [1988] AC 533, [1988] 2 WLR 290, HL.
R v Advertising Standards Authority, ex p Insurance Service plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169, DC.
R v Code of Practice Committee of the Association of the British Pharmaceutical Industry, ex p Professional Counselling Aids Ltd (1990) 10 BMLR 21.
R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd [1993] 2 All ER 225, DC.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
R v Rabbinical Commission for the Licensing of Shochetim, ex p Cohen (1987) Times, 22 December, [1987] CA Transcript 1259.
Application for leave to apply for judicial review
Ivan Wachmann, a rabbi appointed to the Broughton Synagogue, Manchester, applied for leave to apply for judicial review of the decision of the Chief Rabbi of the United Hewbrew Congregations of the British Commonwealth in a letter dated 1 August 1990 to the president of the Broughton congregation declaring that the applicant was no longer morally and religiously fit to hold his rabbinical office, which decision caused the congregation to dismiss him from the congregation’s employment. The relief sought was a declaration that the Chief Rabbi’s decision was void and of no effect and a declaration that the factual findings on which the decision was based were void and had been reached in breach of the rules of natural justice. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Roderick Carus QC and M J Booth (instructed by Read Roper & Read, Manchester) for the applicant.
Michael Beloff QC and David Pannick (instructed by Beachcroft Stanleys) for the Chief Rabbi.
Cur adv vult
6 February 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
SIMON BROWN J. The issue before the court is whether the Chief Rabbi is subject to judicial review in respect of the discharge of his essential functions as
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the spiritual head of the United Hebrew Congregations of Great Britain and the Commonwealth. More particularly, as to whether he is subject to judicial review in respect of what may broadly although inexactly be called his disciplinary function. More precisely still, as to whether it is properly arguable that he is amenable to such review.
The issue arises upon an adjourned application for leave to move for judicial review, the application having been adjourned by Kennedy J on 16 November 1990 so that the Chief Rabbi might assist the court upon the matter of jurisdiction. At the outset of this adjourned hearing I suggested to counsel that it might be preferable to reach a final decision one way or the other (subject to appeal) upon the jurisdictional issue, essentially as a preliminary point. That course the applicant declined. Although, however, it follows that leave would fall to be given if I regard the point as properly arguable, that is a decision I am entitled to take in light of the full and helpful arguments already advanced before me. Let me say at once that with counsel’s assistance I have indeed been able to form a clear view upon the issue.
Before turning to the principles of law applying to this application, it is convenient first to relate something of the nature of the Chief Rabbi’s role in Jewish life and law and then to indicate something of how this proposed judicial review application arises.
As stated, the Chief Rabbi is the spiritual head of the United Hebrew Congregations of Great Britain and the Commonwealth. Those congregations embrace the entire Orthodox Jewish community save only for certain splinter groups of an ultra orthodox character. Those splinter groups, together with reform and liberal Jewish communities, are not subject to the Chief Rabbi’s spiritual guidance. In respect, however, of all those within the mainstream of Orthodox Judaism in the British Commonwealth—and that includes the South Broughton congregation of Manchester where the applicant rabbi officiated—the Chief Rabbi is for all purposes the spiritual head. His essential functions are to advise and rule on matters of Jewish law, ritual and doctrine, to officiate at special functions and ceremonies, and, importantly to this application, to certify religious officiants as religiously and morally fit (or unfit) to hold their respective offices within their congregations. In certain congregations a clause in the constitution specifically stipulates that only a rabbi approved by the Chief Rabbi may be appointed. In others—including the applicant’s—the constitution provides rather that the congregation’s religious guidance is under the supervision of the Chief Rabbi.
The applicant is an Orthodox rabbi appointed in 1972 to the Broughton synagogue in Manchester. Early in 1990 grave allegations were raised against him, essentially of adultery with members of his congregation. By letter dated 8 May 1990 the Chief Rabbi notified the applicant that he had appointed a commission to investigate these allegations; meantime, however, he thought it right to suspend the applicant from rabbinical activities. He therefore directed ‘that as of today until further notice you do not officiate at weddings, funerals or preach, or in any other way discharge rabbinic duties’. On 16 July 1990, following a number of hearings, the commission of inquiry reported to the Chief Rabbi. Essentially the commission found the applicant ‘guilty of serious conduct unbecoming of a rabbi and … no longer religiously and morally fit to occupy his position as Rabbi’. By letter dated 1 August 1990—the decision sought to be challenged—the Chief Rabbi wrote to the president of the applicant’s congregation unreservedly accepting the commission’s findings and stating:
‘Accordingly, having regard to the extreme gravity of Rabbi Wachmann’s conduct, which I considered to be incompatible with his rabbinical standing
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and activities, I am most painfully and reluctantly forced to declare that I no longer regard him as morally and religiously fit to hold his rabbinical office. I want to emphasise that this declaration is not intended as a punishment, which I am not called upon to impose, but simply as my conclusion on his fitness. This is required and expected of me by any congregation under my jurisdiction. The prime objective is to assure members of such congregations and the community at large that those entrusted with high spiritual office, can and will justify the trust reposed in them. Congregations must be able to feel confident that they will be neither exploited nor misguided in matters of moral delicacy and intimacy. This applies particularly in matters of personal counselling.’
On 24 August 1990 the executive and council of the Broughton congregation passed the following resolution:
‘It is regretfully resolved that, in the light of the decision of the Chief Rabbi … the Executive and Council have no alternative but to terminate Rabbi Wachmann’s employment with the Congregation by three months’ notice …’
That same day they wrote to each member of the congregation setting out the history of the matter, enclosing a notice convening a general meeting, and concluding thus:
‘We cannot emphasise too strongly the consequences of your not confirming that resolution. Not only would the Congregation be left with a Minister who would not be authorised by the Chief Rabbi to perform marriages or any other rabbinical duties but, by its refusal to accept the decision of the Chief Rabbi, the Congregation would be removing itself from his jurisdiction and authority and would almost certainly be ostracised by the Rabbis of all other Congregations recognising his authority.’
At the meeting of members on 11 September 1990 the resolution was duly passed.
It is unnecessary, indeed inappropriate, to set out the detailed nature of this proposed challenge. Suffice to say that the applicant contends that the Chief Rabbi’s decision was flawed by both the conduct and the make-up of the commission of inquiry. This commission was set up to hold what was tantamount to a judicial (or at least quasi-judicial) inquiry. Charges were framed. Principles as to the burden and standard of proof were established. Rules of evidence were recognised. The three tribunal members acted in effect as judges. The Chief Rabbi clearly recognised his duty to set up such an inquiry as would ensure that justice was both done and seen to be done. The submission is, however, that whilst that is what he intended to achieve, in the event he failed.
For the purposes of the application presently before the court, such challenge must be regarded as one properly arguable assuming only that the court would have jurisdiction to entertain it. I shall further assume for present purposes: (1) that the respondent’s ‘declaration’ constituted such a decision as is potentially subject to review; (2) that the practical consequence of that decision was the applicant’s dismissal from his appointment to the office of rabbi of the Broughton congregation; (3) that the consequence of that dismissal was in turn that the applicant is now unemployable as a rabbi and is stripped of all religious status; (4) that this challenge is not outwith the court’s review jurisdiction on the grounds that it concerns a dispute as to employment; (5) that the applicant has no contractual remedies open to him; indeed, no contractual relationship whatever with the Chief Rabbi.
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In a most able argument Mr Carus QC for the applicant takes as his starting point the landmark decision of the Court of Appeal in R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, in particular the oft-cited passage from Donaldson MR’s judgment ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, [1987] QB 815 at 838):
‘Possibly the only essential elements [required to attract the High Court’s supervisory jurisdiction] are what can be described as a public element, which can take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
He then refers to a number of subsequent cases in which the court has applied this review jurisdiction to bodies which in earlier days would surely have been thought beyond its reach, including the Divisional Court decision in R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd [1993] 2 All ER 225 at 248, where, as Mr Carus reminds me, I said: ‘We are here in a dynamic area of law, well able to embrace new situations as justice requires.' Mr Carus urges that justice does here require the court’s jurisdiction to extend to this case. Were it otherwise, he submits, a minister of religion such as his client, holding important office, entitling him, inter alia, to solemnise marriages and officiate at burials, could be disqualified and dismissed from office and unable to pursue his vocation by a decision which might conceivably have been wholly unfairly arrived at and yet be without redress from any quarter. It could be, for instance, that the tribunal consisted of a minister’s sworn enemies, displaying rampant bias towards him, refusing even to hear his answer to the charges.
Returning to the cited passage from Donaldson MR’s judgment in the Datafin case, Mr Carus submits: (a) that the applicant cannot be said to have consensually submitted to the Chief Rabbi’s jurisdiction: rather he is pursuing his vocation as an Orthodox rabbi and has no choice but to accept the respondent’s disciplinary decisions; and (b) that there is a clear ‘public element’ to this decision: as, indeed, the Chief Rabbi himself said: ‘The prime objective [of the Chief Rabbi declaring his conclusion upon fitness for rabbinical office] is to assure members of such congregations and the community at large that those entrusted with high spiritual office, can and will justify the trust reposed in them’ (my emphasis). Mr Beloff QC suggests, I think rightly, that ‘the community at large’ there refers to the Jewish community, but that scarcely diminishes the weight of Mr Carus’s point, assuming the point to be otherwise good. To that I shall return.
In response to these arguments, Mr Beloff takes essentially three points. First, he contends that this is indeed a case of consensual submission to the respondent’s jurisdiction. Second, he urges that there is no public law element to this case, certainly nothing coming within measurable distance of any of the precedents nor within the Datafin concept of ‘public law functions’ or ‘public law consequences’ as properly understood. Third, he relies on considerations of public policy militating against the secular courts arrogating to themselves the regulation of religious functions by the Chief Rabbi (or, indeed, other religious bodies). Let me consider these in turn.
Consensual submission
Mr Beloff submits that the Chief Rabbi’s role and authority is exercised only in respect of those persons and communities who choose to belong to the United Hebrew Congregations. No one is compelled to be a Jew, or Orthodox Jew, still less a rabbi. This argument I reject. I prefer Mr Carus’s submission that an Orthodox rabbi is pursuing a vocation and has no choice but to accept the Chief Rabbi’s disciplinary decisions. I can see no distinction in this regard between
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rabbis and, for instance, members of the Bar or members of a university. So far as the Bar and universities are concerned, once the exclusive visitorial jurisdiction has been invoked and exhausted, the court can review the visitor’s decision; it does not decline such review on the footing that those aggrieved chose rather than were compelled to go to the Bar or university.
As it seems to me, the exclusion from judicial review of those who consensually submit to some subordinate jurisdiction properly applies only to arbitrators or ‘private or domestic tribunals’: see Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302. Certainly I know of no other bodies held exempt from judicial review on this particular ground. Perhaps, however, it is artificial to regard this as a wholly distinct ground; perhaps rather it shades into consideration of whether the body in question is fulfilling an essentially public duty and its decision is one having public law consequences.
The public element
Mr Beloff invites my attention to certain passages in the judgments of the Court of Appeal both in the Law and Datafin cases. I need not recite them. Their effect is clear enough. To say of decisions of a given body that they are public law decisions with public law consequences means something more than that they are decisions which may be of great interest or concern to the public or, indeed, which may have consequences for the public. To attract the court’s supervisory jurisdiction there must be not merely a public but potentially a governmental interest in the decision-making power in question. And, indeed, generally speaking the exercise of the power in question involves not merely the voluntary regulation of some important area of public life but also what Mr Beloff calls a ‘twin-track system of control’. In other words, where non-governmental bodies have hitherto been held reviewable, they have generally been operating as an integral part of a regulatory system which, although itself non-statutory, is nevertheless supported by statutory powers and penalties clearly indicative of government concern.
Perfectly evidently it was just such considerations which led Popplewell J (and even then with obvious reluctance) recently to conclude in R v Code of Practice Committee of the Association of the British Pharmaceutical Industry, ex p Professional Counselling Aids Ltd (1990) 10 BMLR 21 that the Code of Practice Committee of the British pharmaceutical industry is reviewable. And certainly it is a feature of all these cases that, were there no self-regulatory body in existence, Parliament would almost inevitably intervene to control the activity in question. There is much emphasis on this consideration in Datafin itself. That was also the position in R v Advertising Standards Authority, ex p Insurance Service plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169. Even, moreover, in the RAM Racecourses case, where the respondent body operated entirely outside any relevant statutory context (albeit under royal charter)—and which is thus a decision which arguably carries the review jurisdiction to its widest limits thus far—I described the Jockey Club’s discharge of its ‘functions of regulating racecourses and allocating fixtures [as] strikingly akin to the exercise of a statutory licensing power’, and its position ‘holding as it does monopolistic powers in this important field of public life [as] a position which could as well have been enshrined in legislation’ (see [1993] 2 All ER 225 at 247).
It cannot be suggested, Mr Beloff submits and I accept, that the Chief Rabbi performs public functions in the sense that he is regulating a field of public life and but for his offices the government would impose a statutory regime. On the contrary, his functions are essentially intimate, spiritual and religious functions which the government could not and would not seek to discharge in his place were he to abdicate his regulatory responsibility. It is no answer to all this to say,
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as Mr Carus does, that the effect on those such as this applicant of the exercise of the respondent’s disciplinary function is far graver than that of adverse decisions in such cases as Ex p Insurance Service plc and Ex p Professional Counselling Aids Ltd. There exclusively commercial concerns were affected and even then not perhaps to any great extent. But that distinction is nothing to the point: whether or not a decision has public law consequences must be determined otherwise than by reference to the seriousness of its impact upon those affected.
Before leaving this point, I must briefly mention two statutes. First the Jewish United Synagogues Act 1870 (33–34 Vict C cxvi), an Act whose relevance Mr Carus had little opportunity to consider but which he tentatively suggested could be regarded as one of the sources of the Chief Rabbi’s authority in the exercise of his disciplinary functions. That argument seems to me impossible. Rather, Mr Beloff is clearly right in submitting that, as its title states, it is no more than an Act to confirm a scheme of the Charity Commissioners to enable the synagogues encompassed within it to enjoy charitable status, assuming always they organise their affairs in accordance with its provisions. The subsequent deed of foundation and trust is merely an instrument amending the scheme. In short, the Act operates in the discrete area of the law of charities. Unsurprisingly, it recognises the existence and essential role of the Chief Rabbi. It cannot, however, be construed either as conferring upon him disciplinary powers that he would not otherwise have had or as indicating Parliament’s interest in and concern to underpin such powers.
Similarly irrelevant to the point at issue is the Slaughterhouses Act 1974, which by Sch 1 provides for the Chief Rabbi to chair the Rabbinical Commission itself for the licensing of Shochetim. True, as shown by R v Rabbinical Commissioner for the Licensing of Shochetim, ex p Cohen (1987) Times, 22 December, the Rabbinical Commission is in this regard judicially reviewable. That, however, cannot assist the applicant in respect of the Chief Rabbi’s non-statutory functions here in question. Indeed, Mr Carus does not submit to the contrary.
Public policy
As Mr Beloff points out, the court would never be prepared to rule on questions of Jewish law. Mr Carus, recognising this prospective difficulty, says that in advancing his challenge here the applicant would be prepared to rely solely upon the common law concept of natural justice. But it would not always be easy to separate out procedural complaints from consideration of substantive principles of Jewish law which may underlie them. In this very case, for instance, the applicant seeks to contend that the only procedure recognised by Jewish law for investigating the allegations facing him is a Beth Din—three qualified Dayanim judges.
That consideration apart, the court is hardly in a position to regulate what is essentially a religious function—the determination whether someone is morally and religiously fit to carry out the spiritual and pastoral duties of his office. The court must inevitably be wary of entering so self-evidently sensitive an area, straying across the well-recognised divide between church and state.
One cannot, therefore, escape the conclusion that, if judicial review lies here then one way or another this secular court must inevitably be drawn into adjudicating upon matters intimate to a religious community.
Although the speeches of the House of Lords in Leech v Parkhurst Deputy Prison Governor [1988] 1 All ER 485, [1988] AC 533 appear to lend some support to Mr Beloff’s submission that a court may decline to recognise a review jurisdiction for reasons of public policy, I prefer to regard these considerations as going instead to the earlier question raised—the question whether the Chief Rabbi’s discharge of his religious functions has about it a truly public law character such as alone
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would attract the court’s supervisory jurisdiction. I do not think it has. Rather, the selfsame considerations of policy that prompt the court’s reluctance to regulate this area of decision-making demonstrate also its lack of real public law character and consequences in the sense established by the authorities. Not merely is the Chief Rabbi without any statutory support for his decision-making but, by the same token that the court would be loath to intervene, so too Parliament, as already suggested, would never contemplate legislating in this field.
In the result it is my firm conclusion that to entertain this challenge would involve a clear departure from and extension of the principles established by the Datafin case and the subsequent cases and that such an extension would be wholly inappropriate. This application I accordingly regard as doomed to inevitable failure upon the issue of jurisdiction. I therefore dismiss it.
Application dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Wentworth v Wiltshire County Council
[1993] 2 All ER 256
Categories: ENVIRONMENTAL: TORTS; Statutory Duty: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): PARKER, STUART-SMITH AND BELDAM LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 13, 14 APRIL, 20 MAY 1992
Highway – Maintenance – Statutory duty of highway authority – Breach of duty – Failure to repair – Whether action lies for economic damage resulting from breach of duty – Whether action for breach of duty limited to users of highway who sustain physical injury to person or property from breach of duty – Highways Act 1959, s 44(1) – Highways (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1961, s 1(1).
Interest – Damages – Award of interest – Purpose of award of interest – Compensation for being kept out of money and having to borrow in meantime – Simple interest only awardable – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 35A(1).
The plaintiff was a dairy farmer whose farm was served by a road which the Milk Marketing Board’s tanker used to make bulk collections of milk from the farm. The road fell into disrepair and became dangerous to traffic and from 10 January 1980 the board refused to allow its tankers to use the road to collect milk from the plaintiff’s farm. In consequence the plaintiff had to give up his dairy herd and resort to less profitable farming activities and had to increase his bank overdraft because of the loss of profits from the farm. For some 20 years prior to January 1980 the plaintiff had been in dispute with the local highway authority over its liability to repair the road since the authority claimed that it was not under a duty under s 44(1)a of the Highways Act 1959 to repair the road because it was not a highway maintainable at the public expense. In November 1980 the plaintiff availed himself of the procedure under s 59 of the 1959 Act to establish in the Crown Court that the highway authority was under such a duty and obtained an order requiring it to repair the road, whereupon the authority did in fact repair the road. In November 1991 the plaintiff brought an action against the highway authority claiming that since s 1(1)b of the Highways (Miscellaneous Provisions)
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Act 1961 had removed the exemption of highway authorities for liability for non-repair of roads he could claim damages for breach of the authority’s statutory duty to repair the road. He limited his claim for damages to financial loss resulting from having to give up his dairy herd from January 1980 and pursue less profitable farming activities. The judge awarded the plaintiff damages of £77,409 for financial loss, including damages of £14,000 for loss of profit and £8,500 for bank interest incurred on his increased overdraft, together with interest on both those awards. The highway authority appealed, contending that it was not liable to the plaintiff because no action lay for purely economic loss under s 1(1) of the 1961 Act and that even if it was liable the judge had awarded the plaintiff double recovery or more by awarding damages for the bank interest in addition to damages for loss of profit and interest thereon and had also wrongly awarded interest on the damages for bank interest.
Held – On its true construction s 1(1) of the 1961 Act afforded only a limited cause of action for breach of a highway authority’s duty of repair in favour of a limited class of persons, namely users of the highway who could prove that they had suffered physical injury to person or property while using the highway when it was in a dangerous condition due to want of repair or maintenance. It followed that there was no right of action for damage arising out of breach of the highway authority’s duty to repair (i) for purely economic loss resulting from the highway being in a dangerous condition, or (ii), in the light of the statutory defences provided in s 1(2) and (3) of the 1961 Act that the highway authority had taken reasonable care to secure that the highway was not dangerous or that it did not know and could not reasonably have known that it was dangerous, if the plaintiff was unable to establish that the relevant part of the highway was dangerous to traffic, or (iii) (per Beldam LJ) in favour of an adjoining occupier of a highway against a highway authority for breach of the statutory duty to repair the highway. Accordingly, a person such as the plaintiff who did not claim on account of his own user of the highway for passage but relied instead on its user by others for the purpose of his business, eg to deliver or collect goods from the business, was not within the class of persons who could bring an action under s 1(1) of the 1961 Act and the only remedy in such a case lay under the procedure under s 59 of the 1959 Act. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 261 d e j to p 262 d f to p 263 b, p 266 j to p 267 a h j, p 268 a b h j, p 269 g h and p 272 d to g, post).
Dicta of Lord Simonds in Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium Ltd (in liq) [1949] 1 All ER 544 at 547–548 and of Lord Diplock in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 461 applied.
Dictum of Cumming-Bruce J in Littler v Liverpool Corp [1968] 2 All ER 343 at 344 considered.
Per curiam. The purpose of awarding interest under s 35A(1)c of the Supreme Court Act 1981 is to compensate, not to award damages to, a plaintiff for being kept out of his money until the time when damages were awarded to him and having in the meantime to borrow money. Since an award of interest on damages for loss of profits will compensate a plaintiff for the delayed payment of his lost profits and his need to borrow money from his bank in the meantime, a further
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award of damages representing the bank interest would amount to double recovery. In any event, to award interest on damages for bank interest would amount to an award of interest on interest, contrary to s 35A(1), which provides that only simple interest may be awarded (see p 263 a and p 269 b to f, post).
Notes
For actions against a highway authority for non-repair of a highway, see 21 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 227, and for cases on the subject, see 26 Digest (Reissue) 564–569, 3920–3945.
For the award of interest under statute in proceedings for the recovery of damages, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 549–550, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 326–327, 4924, 4927.
For the Supreme Court 1981, s 35A, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 998.
As from 1 January 1981 ss 44 and 59 of the Highways Act 1959 and s 1 of the Highways (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1961 were replaced by ss 41, 56 and 58 respectively of the Highways Act 1980. For ss 41 and 58 of the 1980 Act, see 20 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 176, 193.
Cases referred to in judgments
Atkinson v Newcastle and Gateshead Waterworks Co (1877) 2 Ex D 441, [1874–80] All ER Rep 757, CA.
Benjamin v Storr (1874) LR 9 CP 400.
Black v Fife Coal Co Ltd [1912] AC 149, HL.
Boyce v Paddington BC [1903] 1 Ch 109; rvsd [1903] 2 Ch 556, CA; rvsd sub nom Paddington Corp v A-G [1906] AC 1, [1904–7] All ER Rep 362, HL.
Bright v A-G [1971] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 68, CA.
Burnside v Emerson [1968] 3 All ER 741, [1968] 1 WLR 1490, CA.
Cowley v Newmarket Local Board [1892] AC 345, HL.
Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium Ltd (in liq) [1949] 1 All ER 544, [1949] AC 398, HL.
Doe d Bishop of Rochester v Bridges (1831) 1 B & Ad 847, [1824–34] All ER Rep 167, 109 ER 1001.
Gibson v Preston Corp (1870) LR 5 QB 218.
Groves v Lord Wimborne [1898] 2 QB 402, [1895–9] All ER Rep 147, CA.
Hartnall v Ryde Comrs (1863) 4 B & S 361, 122 ER 494.
Haydon v Kent CC [1978] 2 All ER 97, [1978] QB 343, [1978] 2 WLR 485, CA.
Lawman v Waltham Forest London BC [1980] CA Transcript 25.
Littler v Liverpool Corp [1968] 2 All ER 343, Assizes.
Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 456, [1982] AC 173, [1981] 3 WLR 33, HL.
M‘Kinnon v Penson (1854) 9 Exch 609, 156 ER 260; affg (1853) 8 Exch 319, 155 ER 1369.
Meggs v Liverpool Corp [1968] 1 All ER 1137, [1968] 1 WLR 689, CA.
Monk v Warbey [1935] 1 KB 75, [1934] All ER Rep 373, CA.
Parsons v St Mathew, Bethnal Green (vestry) (1867) LR 3 CP 56.
Pasmore v Oswaldtwistle UDC [1898] AC 387, [1895–9] All ER Rep 191, HL.
R v St George, Hanover Square (inhabitants) (1812) 3 Camp 222, 170 ER 1361.
Rider v Rider [1973] 1 All ER 294, [1973] QB 505, [1973] 2 WLR 190, CA.
Russell v Men of Devon (1788) 2 Term Rep 667, 100 ER 359.
Wilkes v Hungerford Market Co (1835) 2 Bing NC 281, 132 ER 110.
Wilson v Halifax Corp (1868) LR 3 Exch 114.
Young v Davis (1863) 2 H & C 197, 159 ER 82; affg (1862) 7 H & N 760, 158 ER 675.
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Cases also cited
Blundy Clark & Co Ltd v London and North Eastern Rly Co [1931] 2 KB 334, [1931] All ER Rep 160, CA.
Burton v West Suffolk CC [1960] 2 All ER 26, [1960] 2 QB 72, CA.
Bushwall Properties Ltd v Vortex Properties Ltd [1976] 2 All ER 283, [1976] 1 WLR 591, CA; rvsg [1975] 2 All ER 214, [1975] 1 WLR 1649.
Campbell v Paddington Corp [1911] 1 KB 869, DC.
Gravesham BC v British Railways Board [1978] 3 All ER 853, [1978] Ch 379.
Griffiths v Liverpool Corp [1966] 2 All ER 1015, [1967] 1 QB 374, CA.
Harper v GN Haden & Sons Ltd [1933] Ch 298, [1932] All ER Rep 59, CA.
Jacobs v London CC [1950] 1 All ER 737, [1950] AC 361, HL.
Spartan Steel and Alloys Ltd v Martin & Co (Contractors) Ltd [1972] 3 All ER 557 [1973] QB 27, CA.
Tate & Lyle Industries Ltd v Greater London Council [1983] 1 All ER 1159, [1983] 2 AC 509, HL.
Vasiliou v Secretary of State for Transport [1991] 2 All ER 77, CA.
Appeal
The defendants, Wiltshire County Council, appealed from the judgment of Judge Lewis-Bowen sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 30 January 1991 whereby on the trial of an action in which the plaintiff, Guy Edward Wentworth, claimed from the appellants damages for financial loss arising from breach of their statutory duty to maintain a highway, namely Ewans Hill Road, Aldbourne, Wiltshire, serving the plaintiff’s dairy farm, the judge gave judgment for the respondent in the sum of £77,409. The grounds of appeal were (1) that the judge erred in law in holding that the respondent was entitled to recover from a highway authority for breach of their statutory duty to maintain a highway damages for purely economic loss resulting from the breaches and (2) that the judge misdirected himself on when interest was recoverable as damages and wrongly awarded the respondent £8,500 damages in respect of interest accrued on his bank overdraft in consequence of the loss of profit which he sustained, in addition to awarding the respondent interest on the loss of profit of £14,000 the judge found that he had sustained. The facts are set out in the judgment of Parker LJ.
Michael de Navarro QC and Bradley Martin (instructed by Wansbroughs Willey Hargrave, Bristol) for the appellants.
Robert Reid QC and Katharine Holland (instructed by Penleys, Dursley) for the respondent.
Cur adv vult
20 May 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
PARKER LJ. By writ dated 27 November 1981 the respondent instituted proceedings against the appellants for breach of statutory duty in failing to repair a certain highway known as Ewins Hill Road. The damages claimed consisted wholly in financial loss, there being no suggestion of injury to persons or damage to property. The financial loss arose in this way. The respondent was a dairy farmer and his farm was served by the road. The survival of the farm depended on the ability of the Milk Marketing Board’s tanker to use the road for collection of the milk produced by his herd. Owing to lack of repair the road became dangerous for use and the board were thus unable to collect the milk as from 10 January 1980.
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On 30 January 1991 Judge Lewis-Bowen sitting as a judge of the High Court gave judgment for the respondent in the total sum of £77,409 and costs. The appellants submit that the judge erred in holding them liable at all. If unsuccessful in that contention they challenge a comparatively small item in the award of damages.
Liability
For some years before the withdrawal of the Milk Marketing Board’s collection the respondent had been in dispute with the appellants on the question of repair. The appellants denied that the road was a highway maintainable at the public expense. That it is such a highway and thus that the appellants were under and were in breach of a statutory duty to repair imposed by the Highways Act 1959 is not in issue. It was established by decision of the Crown Court on 3 November 1980 in proceedings initiated by the respondent under s 59(3) of the Highways Act 1959. As a result of that decision the appellants repaired the road some nine months later but it was then too late to save the respondent’s farm. The sole question is whether the respondent can claim for the economic loss which admittedly flowed from the breach. This depends upon the construction of certain provisions of the 1959 Act and of the Highways (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1961, which, by s 16, is to be construed as one with the 1959 Act.
Prior to the 1959 Act no civil action for damages resulting from non-repair (non-feasance) lay against the inhabitants at large or their successors who were responsible for repair, although at common law an indictment based on public nuisance could be brought if the lack of repair was sufficiently serious. An action for damages also lay for damages including financial loss directly flowing from obstruction to a highway.
The 1959 Act, as appears from its long title, was designed to consolidate with amendments earlier enactments relating to highways, streets and bridges and make consequential amendments to the common law. Part I created various highway authorities. Part IV deals with the maintenance of highways. It begins with s 38, which by sub-s (1) abolishes the pre-existing duty with respect to the maintenance of highways, which lay upon the inhabitants at large of any area. The common law duty is thus swept away.
There then follow provisions creating or providing for the creation of categories of highways maintainable at the public expense. The first of such categories is, by s 38(2)(a), any highway which immediately prior to the commencement of the Act was maintainable by the inhabitants at large of any area or maintainable by a highway authority.
I go next to s 44(1), which creates the statutory duty upon which the respondent founds his claim. It provides:
‘The authority who are for the time being the highway authority for a highway maintainable at the public expense shall, subject to the following subsection, be under a duty to maintain the highway.’
Since, by s 295, ‘maintenance’ includes ‘repair’ the duty is clear.
The next relevant, and in my view vital, section is s 59. Subsection (1) provides: ‘After the commencement of this Act, no indictment shall be preferred in respect of neglect to maintain a highway.’
Thereby the only pre-existing means of enforcing the duty to repair was removed. This must be coupled with the provisions of s 298, which, subject to s 89(1) to which I refer next, preserves from being affected by the Act the pre-existing exemption from liability for non-repair ‘available to a highway authority
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immediately before the commencement of this Act as the successor to the inhabitants at large’.
Subject to s 89(1) therefore it would at this point appear that the new statutory duty was without teeth. The remedy by indictment had gone and the exemption for non-repair had been preserved. That subsection provides that cattle-grids provided under the 1959 Act for a highway (and certain other works)—
‘shall be maintainable by the highway authority for the highway; and they shall not be entitled to rely on any exemption from liability for non-repair available to a highway authority as the successor to the inhabitants at large.’
There is, however, still even in such case an apparent absence of teeth.
This is plainly intended to be cured by the provisions of s 59(2) to (10), which enable any person who alleges that a way or bridge is a highway maintainable at the public expense and is out of repair to establish those matters (if not admitted) by application to quarter sessions (now the Crown Court) and obtain an order that it be put in proper repair by the highway authority within such reasonable period as may be specified in the order. In cases where both matters are admitted a similar order may be made by a magistrates’ court. If the order is not complied with within the time specified the complainant must be authorised by the court to carry out such works as may be necessary to put the highway in proper repair and to recover any expenses reasonably incurred in carrying out the works so authorised from the highway authority as a civil debt. The 1959 Act thus provides a specific and very detailed means of enforcing the statutory duty which it has placed on the highway authority.
This in my judgment indicates that no other means of enforcement was intended by Parliament: see Doe d Bishop of Rochester v Bridges (1831) 1 B & Ad 847 at 859, [1824–34] All ER Rep 167 at 169–170 per Lord Tenterden CJ, Pasmore v Oswaldtwistle UDC [1898] AC 387 at 394, [1895–9] All ER Rep 191 at 193 and Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 461, [1982] AC 173 at 185 per Lord Diplock. The indication is of course not conclusive, for there are exceptions as appears clearly from Lord Diplock’s speech in the Lonrho case and also from the speech of Lord Simonds in Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium Ltd (in liq) [1949] 1 All ER 544 at 548, [1949] AC 398 at 407. If however the 1959 Act stood alone I would have no hesitation in concluding that, as a matter of construction, no other method of enforcement was available. It does not however stand alone, and it is necessary to see what is the effect of construing it as one with the 1961 Act.
Section 1(1) of that Act abolished the exemption of liability for non-repair which had been preserved, save as to cattle grids etc, by s 298 of the earlier Act, and s 1(6) repealed that section and also the concluding words of s 89(1), which had abolished the exemption in relation to cattle-grids. The situation thus becomes one in which the highway authority is under a general duty to repair and has no exemption from liability for breach of that duty. At the same time, however, s 1(2) provided a defence to any action against a highway authority in respect of damage resulting from failure to maintain. That defence consisted in proof—
‘that the authority had taken such care as in all the circumstances was reasonably required to secure that the part of the highway to which the action relates was not dangerous for traffic.’
It is in my view clear from the nature of the defence that it is an essential part of any claim for non-repair to establish that the relevant part of the highway was
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dangerous to traffic. This is, indeed, well settled by authority: see Meggs v Liverpool Corp [1968] 1 All ER 1137, [1968] 1 WLR 689, Burnside v Emerson [1968] 3 All ER 741, [1968] 1 WLR 1490 and Lawman v Waltham Forest London BC [1980] CA Transcript 25 amongst others. Further light is shed on the nature of the action contemplated by the provisions of s 1(3), which prescribes the matters to which the court is to have particular regard when considering a defence under s 1(2). They are five in number. The first three are of no particular significance but I regard the last two as important. They are:
‘(d) whether the highway authority knew, or could reasonably have been expected to know, that the condition of the part of the highway to which the action relates was likely to cause danger to users of the highway; (e) where the highway authority could not reasonably have been expected to repair that part of the highway before the cause of action arose, what warning notices of its condition had been displayed …’
Both of those provisions indicate that the contemplated action is one for damage to a road user or his property from a condition of the highway making it dangerous to road users, ie such an action as was previously unavailable by reason of the non-repair exemption, but which now became available for the first time.
Mr de Navarro QC for the appellants submits that any action for non-repair is so limited and that no action lies for purely economic damage resulting from a highway being in a condition dangerous to users of that highway. The possible plaintiffs are those who suffer injury to person or property from the dangerous condition. The remedy for non-repair, previously by indictment, was, when that remedy was abolished, replaced by the provisions of s 59(2) to (10) of the 1959 Act and no civil action lies. Mr Reid QC for the respondent submits however that the action lies because here there is a public duty and the respondent has, by its breach, suffered direct damage over and above that suffered by ordinary members of the public. On principle, therefore, he should be able to recover. Moreover, he points out that, where a highway through neglect has become impassable to traffic, the position is in essence the same as it would be if the highway were obstructed and there is no doubt that economic damage resulting from obstruction is recoverable. Whilst I appreciate the force of his arguments the matter is in the end one of statutory construction and in my judgment the intention of Parliament, to be gathered from the wording of the two Acts and the pre-existing state of the law, is clear. It is (1) to replace the remedy for non-repair by way of indictment by the new remedy under s 59 and (2) to replace the previous exemption from civil liability for damage resulting from non-repair by an action for damage to the person or property of a road user from the dangerous condition of a highway, subject only to the statutory defence.
I accept at once that, in one sense, the respondent was a road user even when himself not using the road for passage. The purpose of many highways is, inter alia, to enable traffic to deliver goods to, or visit, or collect goods from, or leave commercial premises. The owners of such premises might therefore be regarded as making use of the road for the purposes of their business although not themselves using the road for passage. In the light, however, of the fact that such persons are provided with the s 59 remedy to replace the former remedy by way of indictment I do not regard them as being within the scope of those intended to have a civil remedy for breach of statutory duty going beyond that.
If Mr Reid were right, a person such as the respondent would be, and indeed the respondent was, in the position of being able to bring an action for large, perhaps very large, damages, notwithstanding that he could have avoided the damage by taking action under s 59. Parliament did not in my view intend any
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such thing. In my judgment the appellants are not liable and I would allow the appeal.
This conclusion makes it unnecessary to deal with the appellants’ point on damages. With regard to that I say only that I have had the advantage of reading the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ in draft and I agree with his conclusions and his reasoning on the point.
In the result I would allow the appeal, set aside the judgment below and dismiss the respondent’s claim.
STUART-SMITH LJ. The main question in this appeal is whether a person who suffers only economic loss as a consequence of breach by a highway authority of its statutory duty to maintain a highway is entitled to recover those losses from the highway authority by an action for damages. The question is of considerable importance, especially to highway authorities. The answer lies in the construction of the statute or statutes which impose the duty and the circumstances, including the pre-existing law, in which they were enacted. In Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium Ltd (in liq) [1949] 1 All ER 544 at 547–548, [1949] AC 398 at 407–408 Lord Simonds said:
‘It is, I think, true that it is often a difficult question whether, where a statutory obligation is placed on A., B., who conceives himself to be damnified by A.’s breach of it, has a right of action against him. But on the present case I cannot entertain any doubt. I do not propose to try to formulate any rules by reference to which such a question can infallibly be answered. The only rule which in all circumstances is valid is that the answer must depend on a consideration of the whole Act and the circumstances, including the pre-existing law, in which it was enacted. But that there are indications which point with more or less force to the one answer or the other is clear from authorities which, even where they do not bind, will have great weight with the House. For instance, if a statutory duty is prescribed but no remedy by way of penalty or otherwise for its breach is imposed, it can be assumed that a right of civil action accrues to the person who is damnified by the breach. For, if it were not so, the statute would be but a pious aspiration. But, as Lord Tenterden, C.J., said in Doe d. Rochester (Bp.) v. Bridges ((1831) 1 B & Ad 847 at 859, [1824–34] All ER Rep 167 at 170): “… where an Act creates an obligation, and enforces the performance in a specified manner, we take it to be a general rule that performance cannot be enforced in any other manner.” This passage was cited with approval by the Earl of Halsbury, L.C. in Pasmore v. Oswaldtwistle Urban District Council ([1898] AC 387 at 394, [1895–9] All ER Rep 191 at 193). But this general rule is subject to exceptions. It may be that, though a specific remedy is provided by the Act, yet the person injured has a personal right of action in addition. I cannot state that proposition more happily, or, indeed, more favourably to the appellant, than in the words of Lord Kinnear in Black v. Fife Coal Co., Ltd. ([1912] AC 149 at 165): “If the duty be established, I do not think there is any serious question as to the civil liability. There is no reasonable ground for maintaining that a proceeding by way of penalty is the only remedy allowed by the statute. The principle explained by Lord Cairns in Atkinson v. Newcastle Waterworks Co. ((1877) 2 Ex D 441 at 448, [1874–80] All ER Rep 757 at 760–761) and by Lord Herschell in Cowley v. Newmarket Local Board ([1892] AC 345 at 352) solves the question. We are to consider the scope and purpose of the statute and in particular for whose benefit it is intended. Now the object of the present statute is plain. It was intended to compel mine owners to make due
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provision for the safety of the men working in their mines, and the persons for whose benefit all these rules are to be enforced are the persons exposed to danger. But when a duty of this kind is imposed for the benefit of particular persons, there arises at common law a correlative right in those persons who may be injured by its contravention.” An earlier and a later example of the application of this principle will be found in Groves v. Lord Wimborne ([1898] 2 QB 402 at 406, [1895–9] All ER 147 at 149) and Monk v. Warbey ([1935] 1 KB 75, [1934] All ER Rep 373), in the former of which cases the Act in question was described by A.L. Smith, L.J., as: “… a public Act passed in favour of the workers in factories and workshops to compel their employers to do certain things for their protection and benefit.” ’
In Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 461–462, [1982] AC 173 at 185–186 Lord Diplock said:
‘So one starts with the presumption laid down originally by Lord Tenterden CJ in Doe d Bishop of Rochester v Bridges (1831) 1 B & Ad 847 at 859, [1824–34] All ER Rep 167 at 170, where he spoke of the “general rule” that “where an Act creates an obligation, and enforces the performance in a specified manner… that performance cannot be enforced in any other manner”, a statement that has frequently been cited with approval ever since, including on several occasions in speeches in this House. Where the only manner of enforcing performance for which the Act provides is prosecution for the criminal offence of failure to perform the statutory obligation or for contravening the statutory prohibition which the Act creates, there are two classes of exception to this general rule. The first is where on the true construction of the Act it is apparent that the obligation or prohibition was imposed for the benefit or protection of a particular class of individuals, as in the case of the Factories Acts and similar legislation. As Lord Kinnear put it in Black v Fife Coal Co Ltd [1912] AC 149 at 165, in the case of such a statute: “There is no reasonable ground for maintaining that a proceeding by way of penalty is the only remedy allowed by the statute … We are to consider the scope and purpose of the statute and in particular for whose benefit it is intended. Now the object of the present statute is plain. It was intended to compel mine owners to make due provision for the safety of the men working in their mines, and the persons for whose benefit all these rules are to be enforced are the persons exposed to danger. But when a duty of this kind is imposed for the benefit of particular persons there arises at common law a correlative right in those persons who may be injured by its contravention.” The second exception is where the statute creates a public right (ie a right to be enjoyed by all those of Her Majesty’s subjects who wish to avail themselves of it) and a particular member of the public suffers what Brett J in Benjamin v Storr (1874) LR 9 CP 400 at 407 described as “particular, direct and substantial” damage “other and different from that which was common to all the rest of the public”. Most of the authorities about this second exception deal not with public rights created by statute but with public rights existing at common law, particularly in respect of use of highways. Boyce v Paddington Borough Council [1903] 1 Ch 109 is one of the comparatively few cases about a right conferred on the general public by statute. It is in relation to that class of statute only that Buckley J’s oft-cited statement (at 114) as to the two cases in which a plaintiff, without joining the Attorney General, could himself sue in private law for interference with that public right, must be understood. The two cases he said were: “first, where the interference with the public right is such as that some private right of his
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is at the same time interfered with … and, secondly, where no private right is interfered with, but the plaintiff, in respect of his public right, suffers special damage peculiar to himself from the interference with the public right.” The first case would not appear to depend on the existence of a public right in addition to the private one; while to come within the second case at all it has first to be shown that the statute, having regard to its scope and language, does fall within that class of statutes which creates a legal right to be enjoyed by all of Her Majesty’s subjects who wish to avail themselves of it. A mere prohibition on members of the public generally from doing what it would otherwise be lawful for them to do is not enough.’
The statutes in question in the present case are the Highways Act 1959 and the Highways (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1961, which by s 16 of the 1961 Act must be construed together.
The law prior to the 1959 Act can be briefly summarised. (1) The inhabitants of a parish at large were under a duty to repair the roads in the parish. This duty might be delegated for example to the surveyor, or vested in certain institutions, such as the vestry or council. (2) Remedies for non-repair consisted of (a) a common law indictment of the inhabitants of the parish for non-repair and (b) under various statutes summary procedures for obtaining orders requiring repair. (3) No action for damages lay against the inhabitants at large or those responsible for maintaining the highway for non-feasance or failure to repair. (4) Obstruction of the highway was an indictable offence at common law being a public nuisance. If anyone suffered special damage, whether personal injury, damage to property or economic loss directly caused by the obstruction he could sue those responsible for the obstruction. This included the inhabitants at large provided it amounted to a misfeasance and not mere non-feasance.
The 1959 Act effected a number of changes. It created various categories of highway authorities, including county councils (s 1). It abolished the duty on the inhabitants at large to maintain the highways in their area (s 38(1)), and designated or created ‘highways maintainable at public expense’ (s 38(2)). Section 44(1) provided:
‘The authority who are for the time being the highway authority for a highway maintainable at the public expense shall, subject to the following subsection, be under a duty to maintain the highway.’
Maintenance includes repair (s 295).
Section 59(1) abolished indictments for neglect to maintain the highway, so that it was no longer a criminal offence. Section 59(2) to (10) laid down a procedure to enforce the liability for maintenance. These are very important provisions but they can be summarised as follows. A person, the complainant, who alleges that a way or bridge is a highway maintainable at the public expense and that it is out of repair may serve on the highway authority alleged to be liable to maintain it a notice requiring the respondent authority to admit that it is liable to maintain the way or bridge (s 59(2)). It should be noted that anyone may be a complainant; there is no restrictive qualification. If the respondent does not make the admission, the complainant may apply to the court (now the Crown Court) for an order, if it finds the respondent liable to maintain and that there is want of repair, to put the way or bridge in proper repair within a reasonable time (s 59(3)). If the respondent admits liability to repair, but does not carry out the repairs, the complainant may within six months of the admission apply to the magistrates’ court for an order requiring the respondent to put it in repair within a reasonable time (s 59(4)). If the respondent does not comply with an order made under sub-s
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(3) or (4) the court may authorise the complainant to carry out the repairs and the cost of doing so is recoverable as a civil debt (s 59(7) and (8)).
Section 298 provided:
‘Subject to subsection (1) of section eighty-nine of this Act, nothing in this Act with respect to the duty of highway authorities to maintain highways maintainable at the public expense shall be construed as affecting any exemption from liability for non-repair available to a highway authority immediately before the commencement of this Act as the successor to the inhabitants at large.’
The effect of these provisions was that non-repair of the highway was no longer a criminal offence. A special statutory remedy was provided for enforcing the liability to repair. A highway authority could not be sued in an action for damage for failure to repair—non-feasance. This was not a defence to an action but an exemption or immunity from suit on the grounds that there was no liability. But the highway authority could be sued, like anyone else, for creating an obstruction to the highway through misfeasance, provided the plaintiff suffered special damage.
Section 1 of the 1961 Act, which came into force on 3 August 1964, provided as follows:
‘(1) The rule of law exempting the inhabitants at large and any other persons as their successors from liability for non-repair of highways is hereby abrogated.
(2) In an action against a highway authority in respect of damage resulting from their failure to maintain a highway maintainable at the public expense, it shall be a defence (without prejudice to any other defence or the application of the law relating to contributory negligence) to prove that the authority had taken such care as in all the circumstances was reasonably required to secure that the part of the highway to which the action relates was not dangerous for traffic.
(3) For the purposes of a defence under the last foregoing subsection, the court shall in particular have regard to the following matters, that is to say—(a) the character of the highway, and the traffic which was reasonably expected to use it; (b) the standard of maintenance appropriate for a highway of that character and used by such traffic; (c) the state of repair in which a reasonable person would have expected to find the highway; (d) whether the highway authority knew, or could reasonably have been expected to know, that the condition of the part of the highway to which the action relates was likely to cause danger to users of the highway; (e) where the highway authority could not reasonably have been expected to repair that part of the highway before the cause of action arose, what warning notices of its condition had been displayed …’
It is clear that for the first time an action will lie against the highway authority for failure to maintain the highway. But who can bring the action and in respect of what damage? Mr de Navarro QC for the appellants submits that the answer is clear and is to be found in a consideration of sub-ss (2) and (3). The action is only for the benefit of those users of the highway who sustained personal injury or damage to their vehicles as a result of the non-repair of a highway making it dangerous. Such a person will succeed, subject to the highway authority being able to establish the statutory defence provided in sub-s (2). Anyone else who wishes to complain of the non-repair of the highway has the remedy provided by s 59 of the 1959 Act. In my judgment this submission is correct. There are many
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authorities which show that a plaintiff who sues for personal injury resulting from an accident caused by non-repair of the highway contrary to s 44 of the 1959 Act must show that the want of repair caused a dangerous condition to exist. In Meggs v Liverpool Corp [1968] 1 All ER 1137 at 1139, [1968] 1 WLR 689 at 692 Lord Denning MR said of a claim for breach of statutory duty under the Highways Acts:
‘At the outset, however, in order to make a prima facie case, the plaintiff must show that the highway was not reasonably safe, ie, that it was dangerous to traffic.’
In Burnside v Emerson [1968] 3 All ER 741 at 745, [1968] 1 WLR 1490 at 1497 Diplock LJ said:
‘A mere failure to repair gives rise to no cause of action unless the failure to repair results in a danger to the traffic using the road and damage caused to some user of the highway by the existence of that danger.’
Rider v Rider [1973] 1 All ER 294, [1973] QB 505, Bright v A-G [1971] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 68, Haydon v Kent CC [1978] 2 All ER 97, [1978] QB 343 and Lawman v Waltham Forest London BC [1980] CA Transcript 25 are to the like effect.
Mr Reid QC for the respondent submits that these are all cases involving personal injury and the question that arises in this appeal was not in issue. He relies on a passage in the judgment of Cumming-Bruce J in Littler v Liverpool Corp [1968] 2 All ER 343 at 344 where he said:
‘The statutory duty of the defendants is to maintain the highway. A person who has suffered damage by reason of non-repair of a highway has a cause of action against the highway authority for breach of the duty to maintain, but what standard is a highway authority under a duty to maintain? The right of the subject is a right of passage along the highway. If the state of the highway is such that a subject is impeded or obstructed in his passage and he suffers damage other than personal injury thereby, it may be that he can establish a prima facie case without showing that the highway was dangerous: but where the cause of action of the plaintiff is that the plaintiff suffered personal injury by reason of the failure to maintain the highway, the plaintiff must make out a case that the highway was not reasonably safe, that is, was dangerous to the relevant traffic.’
But the reference to the possibility of a person who suffers damage other than personal injury being able to recover without showing that the highway was dangerous was not in my judgment an expression of the judge’s opinion albeit obiter that this was the law, but merely that it might be. He used it in contrast to what was the position when the plaintiff suffered personal injury. In my judgment it affords the respondent no support. Section 1(2) and (3) of the 1961 Act plainly contemplates that the action is brought by the user of the highway in respect of a dangerous condition of the highway resulting from non-repair and causing personal injury or damage to traffic. The statutory defence makes clear in my judgment both the class of persons for whose benefit, namely users, and the type of damage, namely physical damage to persons or property, in respect of which the action can be brought.
Mr Reid sought to counter this argument with two propositions. First he submitted that the statutory defence only related to claims by road users in respect of physical damage and therefore the need to establish a dangerous condition was unnecessary when some other person who has suffered special damage seeks to rely on the breach of statutory duty. He sought to rely on the public nuisance
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cases. In my judgment the public nuisance cases are not in point. Public nuisance is a criminal offence; s 59(1) of the 1959 Act specifically makes failure to maintain the highway non-criminal. But more importantly it appears to me that the opening words of s 1(2) of the 1961 Act make it clear that the statutory defence is to apply to all actions based on breach of s 44 of the 1959 Act. If they cannot do so, as they cannot in the case of the respondent’s claim, it is a sure indication that Parliament only intended an action for damages for breach of statutory duty to lie in cases where the statutory defence could also be available.
Alternatively Mr Reid relies on the judge’s finding that the road was dangerous for the tanker in the sense that continual driving over the potholes in the road increased the wear and tear on the mechanical parts of the lorry. But even if this were to give a cause of action to the Milk Marketing Board, as to which I express no opinion, it cannot in my judgment avail the respondent.
There is a further consideration which in my view supports Mr de Navarro’s submission. The remedy provided by s 59 of the 1959 Act is available to all, but it is of no use to those who have been injured as a result of the dangerous condition of the road caused by non-repair. Such a person ex hypothesi will not have known of the want of repair, still less have had a chance to put the s 59 procedure into operation. If he has no cause of action for damages, he has no remedy. The sad thing about the present case is that it was not until 1980 that the respondent availed himself of the s 59 procedure and obtained an order from the Crown Court that the appellants were liable to maintain the road as highway authority, whereupon they effected the repairs. That liability had always been in dispute until then and that is why the appellants had refused to carry out repair. If the respondent had gone to the Crown Court at any time in the previous 20 years or so that the dispute had run, he would have suffered no loss. Unfortunately he did not do so until after the Milk Marketing Board had withdrawn the bulk milk collection.
It is not without interest that in Haydon & Kent CC [1978] 2 All ER 97 at 105, [1978] QB 343 at 360 Lord Denning MR considered that breach of s 129 of the 1959 Act did not give rise to a civil action for damages, presumably because sub-s (3) of that section prescribes the method of enforcement by means of a fine, albeit the somewhat inadequate one of £5. Section 129(1) provides:
‘If an obstruction arises in a highway from accumulation of snow or from the falling down of banks on the side of the highway, or from any other cause, the highway authority for the highway shall cause the obstruction to be removed from time to time, and within twenty-four hours from the date of service of a notice from a justice of the peace acting for the petty sessions area in which the highway is situated requiring the removal of the obstruction.’
In my judgment the 1961 Act affords a cause of action for breach of s 44 of the 1959 Act only to a limited class of persons, namely road users who can prove that they have suffered physical injury to person or property as a result of the dangerous condition of the highway through want of repair and maintenance. Section 59 of the 1959 Act provides an adequate and appropriate remedy, and, in my view, the only remedy, for all other persons who wish to complain of the non-repair of the highway, whether or not they have suffered or expect to suffer loss consequent thereon.
The second question in this appeal relates to the question of damages. Strictly speaking, in the light of our decision on liability, it no longer arises. But it has been fully argued, it is a point of some importance and, since I have formed a clear conclusion on it, I will state my reasons shortly. The judge awarded the
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respondent £14,000 loss of profit on the basis that the farming activities which he carried on after he gave up his milking herd was less profitable than selling milk. But in addition he also awarded as damages £8,500 in respect of increased bank charges in the form of interest, which was over and above the interest he would have paid on his overdraft had he continued as a milk farmer. Not content with that he also awarded the respondent interest pursuant to statute on the £14,000 loss of profit and also on the £8,500. Mr de Navarro submits that in doing so he gave the plaintiff double recovery or more. I agree. The purpose of awarding interest under s 35A of the Supreme Court Act 1981 is to compensate the plaintiff for not having received money when he should have done. This will mean that during the period that the plaintiff has been kept out of his money he has either had to borrow it or use funds available to him which might have been otherwise profitably employed. The award of interest is compensatory and not additional damages. In the present case because of his shortfall in profits the plaintiff had to borrow from the bank until the loss was made good by the judgment. An award of interest on the loss of profit was designed to make good the cost of his borrowing, although it may not necessarily have done so pound for pound because the bank no doubt charged compound interest. The position is no different from that of an injured plaintiff who suffers loss of earnings during incapacity. Save in so far as his loss is made good by insurance, either national or private, he will either have to borrow money for living expenses and pay the cost of borrowing in interest charges or use his savings or other funds for the purpose, in which case he loses interest which might otherwise be paid. Precisely the same position applies if the plaintiff’s source of income is his business profits rather than wages or salary. In the present case the award of interest on £14,000 lost profit compensated the respondent for delayed payment of these profits; to award him bank interest as well amounted to double recovery; to award interest on that sum was awarding interest on interest, and is contrary to s 35A(1), which provides that only simple interest may be awarded, and gives the respondent something in excess of double recovery. The judge’s finding that the appellants must have known that the respondent would have incurred additional overdraft charges is nothing to the point. All tortfeasors must be taken to know that, if they deprive a plaintiff of profits from his business or loss of earnings through incapacity, he will suffer loss from being kept out of his money and will entitle him to an award of interest.
I would allow the appeal.
BELDAM LJ. I have read the judgments of Parker and Stuart-Smith LJJ and I agree with them that the respondent’s action based on the failure of the appellants to fulfil their statutory duty of repairing Ewins Hill Road, Aldbourne, nr Marlborough, must fail. I desire only to add some observations upon the respondent’s assertion that a claim for damages for breach of statutory duty under s 1 of the Highways Act 1961 would arise wherever a member of the public suffers particular, direct and substantial damage as a result of the failure of the highway authority to fulfil that duty.
Prior to the passing of the Highways Act 1959 a person who owned property adjoining a highway, as the respondent did, could in that capacity maintain an action for damages for nuisance to the highway only if he suffered particular damage above that suffered by other members of the public. Blackstone, dealing with the remedies which the law had given for the injury of nuisance, said (3 Bl Com (1st edn, 1768) 219–220):
‘And here I must premise that the law gives no private remedy for anything but a private wrong. Therefore no action lies for a public or common nuisance,
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but an indictment only: because the damage being common to all the king’s subjects, no one can assign his particular proportion of it; or, if he could, it would be extremely hard, if every subject in the kingdom were allowed to harrass the offender with separate actions. For this reason, no person, natural or corporate, can have an action for a public nuisance, or punish it; but only the king in his public capacity of supreme governor, and pater-familias of the kingdom. Yet this rule admits of one exception; where a private person suffers some extraordinary damage, beyond the rest of the king’s subjects, by a public nuisance; in which case he shall have a private satisfaction by action. As if, by means of a ditch dug across a public way, which is a common nuisance, a man or his horse suffer any injury by falling therein; there, for this particular damage, which is not common to others, the party shall have his action.’
Such an action was also given in the case of obstruction of the highway. An injury to a business carried on by the plaintiff in premises adjoining the highway was in Wilkes v Hungerford Market Co (1835) 2 Bing NC 281, 132 ER 110 held a sufficient particular damage to enable him to maintain an action in nuisance. In that case the plaintiff carried on business as a bookseller in Craven Street in Northumberland Passage. The defendant, having executed building works, failed to remove the hoarding and obstructed the public right of passage past the plaintiff’s shop, thereby preventing customers gaining access to buy his books. The plaintiff suffered a loss of profit in consequence for which he claimed damages. It is, however, clear that he was not suing simply for the interference with his right to pass and repass upon the highway but as an adjoining occupier to whose premises the public had a right of access exercising their right to pass and repass along the highway and to divert to his shop if they wished. Similarly in Benjamin v Storr (1874) LR 9 CP 400, cited to us by the respondent, the plaintiff was an adjoining occupier who ran a business as a coffee house and who suffered particular damage from a public nuisance caused by unreasonable user of the highway outside his premises by his neighbour, the defendant. Prior to 1959, therefore, an occupier of premises adjoining the highway who suffered particular damage which was the direct and immediate consequence of a public nuisance might maintain an action based on grounds of nuisance. Equally, if a person suffered particular damage while exercising his right to use the highway, as for example if his horse stumbled and fell in a trench, he could maintain an action against a person who created the nuisance but no action would lie against the parish or the highway authority for mere failure to maintain or repair the highway: see Russell v Men of Devon (1788) 2 Term Rep 667, 100 ER 359.
Throughout the nineteenth century it was frequently argued that the effect of statutes transferring highways and responsibility for them from the parishes and their surveyors to local boards created a statutory duty for breach of which an action would lie and that the old rule that an action would not lie for mere nonfeasance did not apply to failure to perform the new statutory duties. In Gibson v Preston Corp (1870) LR 5 QB 218 at 222–224 this argument was rejected. Hannen J, giving the judgment of the court, said:
‘But whatever the reason was the fact remains, that no action could be maintained for an injury arising from the non-repair of a highway by the parish, and the legislature has not interfered by any general enactment to give a remedy by action, to persons sustaining such an injury. It is therefore incumbent on a plaintiff who seeks to establish that such a right is exceptionally given to persons sustaining an injury in a particular district, to shew distinctly that the legislature had such an intention in passing the
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enactment to which such an effect is attributed. The Court of Exchequer held in M‘Kinnon v. Penson ((1853) 8 Exch 319, 155 ER 1369), that such an intention could not be inferred from the very comprehensive language of the 43 Geo. 3, c. 59 [the Bridges Act 1803], s. 4, which enacts that the county may be sued in the name of their surveyor. This was held not to create a new liability, but only to afford a more convenient remedy in cases, if any, in which the county would be liable, and this construction, founded on the presumed intention of the legislature, though with difficulty be collected from its language, was upheld by the Court of Exchequer Chamber ((1854) 9 Exch 609, 156 ER 260). Again, in Young v. Davis ((1862) 7 H & N 760, 158 ER 675), the Court of Exchequer, confirmed by the Court of Exchequer Chamber ((1863) 2 H & C 197, 159 ER 82), held that an intention to give a right of action for injury resulting from non-repair could not be inferred from the language of 5 & 6 Wm. 4, c. 50 [the Highway Act 1835]. Again, in Parsons v. St. Mathew, Bethnal Green ((1867) LR 3 CP 56), the Court of Common Pleas held that such an intention could not be inferred from the language of 18 & 19 Vict. c. 120 [the Metropolis Management Act 1855]. And again, in Wilson v. Mayor, &c., of Halifax ((1868) LR 3 Exch 114), Kelly, C.B., while deciding the case on another point, says, “should a case arise in which the question shall be whether the 68th section of the Public Health Act, 1848, imposes upon the local authority the liability to be sued in a civil action for damages, by reason of a failure to perform a duty assigned to them by the Act, we should pause before we could hold that in addition to the well-established remedy by indictment every individual among the public would have a right of action for any and every injury resulting from such breach of duty.” … The enactment that the streets shall “vest in” the local board, whatever meaning may be assigned to that expression, does not seem to us to enlarge the liability resulting from the following words, that they shall be “under the management and control of the local board,” language similar to that used in the statute under consideration in Rex v. St. George, Hanover Square ((1812) 3 Camp 222, 170 ER 1361), where it was held, that the imposing of the duty of repairing on a person or body other than the parish did not, by implication, exempt the parish from liability to indictment; and while this liability remains, the cases above referred to, Young v. Davis, and Parsons v. St. Mathew, Bethnal Green, established that no right of action is created against those to whom the management and control of the roads is given. For these reasons we are of opinion that the legislature did not intend by the Public Health Act, 1848, to give to a person in the position of the plaintiff a right of action which did not previously exist …’
So too in Cowley v Newmarket Local Board [1892] AC 345 it was held that sections of the Public Health Act 1875 transferring the duties and liabilities of surveyors of highways to urban authorities should similarly be construed as not imposing any additional liability. The decision in Hartnall v Ryde Comrs (1863) 4 B & S 361, 122 ER 494 was doubted. Lord Herschell said ([1892] AC 345 at 354):
‘For it appears to be assumed in the judgment that if the defendants were liable to be indicted for the non-repair of the highway as for a misdemeanour, an action would lie by anyone specially aggrieved. No reasons are given for this conclusion, which seems to have been treated as a necessary consequence.’
In his judgment Lord Hannen said (at 354–355):
‘The question, therefore, is reduced to this, whether the defendants in whom the powers and liabilities of surveyors of highways are vested by
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statute have thereby imposed upon them a liability to be sued for a cause of action which could not have been maintained against the surveyor of highways. This is a subject which has engaged the attention of the Courts on many occasions. The governing principle was stated by the Exchequer Chamber as long ago as 1863 in the case of Young v. Davis (2 H & C 197, 159 ER 82; affg 7 H & N 760, 158 ER 675), that the surveyor of highways was not liable to be sued for damage resulting from the highway being out of repair because no action could have been brought against the parish, and that the Act of Parliament requiring the surveyor to keep the roads in repair was not passed for the purpose of creating a new liability, but simply in order to provide machinery whereby the duty of the parish to repair might be conveniently fulfilled. This principle is equally applicable where the duties and liabilities of the surveyor have been transferred to other bodies, unless a distinct intention on the part of the Legislature can be inferred from the particular statute under consideration to create a new liability.’
Section 1(1) and (2) of the Highways Act 1961, which is to be read with the 1959 Act, was clearly intended to establish a new liability by the abolition of the exemption from liability for non-repair but it is still incumbent upon a plaintiff to show distinctly that the legislature by abolishing the exemption intended to impose a liability of such wide implication as that contended for and it is necessary to look strictly at the words of the Act to determine the scope of the liability intended to be imposed on the highway authority for failure to perform the duties imposed by the statute. In the absence of clear words indicating a liability of the scope contended for by the respondent I would reject such a contention. I can find no clear words to indicate that Parliament intended to create in favour of adjoining occupiers a right of action against a highway authority for failure to carry out its statutory duty to maintain and repair the highway of the scope suggested. On the contrary, it seems to me for the reasons given by Parker and Stuart-Smith LJJ that any cause of action should be confined to a person who in the exercise of his right to pass or repass along the highway is caused injury or damage due to the dangerous state of the highway. If through lack of repair a public nuisance has been created, then particular, direct and substantial damage may give rise to a cause of action in nuisance. That, however, is not alleged here and it was acknowledged that the respondent’s claim was based solely on the appellants’ failure to carry out their statutory duty.
Appeal allowed.
16 November. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Goff of Chieveley and Lord Mustill) refused leave to appeal.
Wendy Shockett Barrister.
Spring v Guardian Assurance plc and others
[1993] 2 All ER 273
Categories: TORTS; Statutory Duty, Negligence: EMPLOYMENT; Contract of service
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): GLIDEWELL, ROSE LJ AND SIR CHRISTOPHER SLADE
Hearing Date(s): 27, 28, 29, 30 OCTOBER, 10 DECEMBER 1992
Malicious falsehood – Malice – Test of malice – Whether same test for malicious falsehood as for libel and slander – Whether honest belief or positive belief in truth of what was published good defence to action for malicious falsehood.
Negligence – Duty to take care – Employer – Character reference given by employer on former employee – Reference required by new employer – Whether employer owing duty to former employee when giving character reference to new employer – Whether insurance company obliged to give reference in same position as former employer agreeing to give reference – Whether duty merely to make full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters believed to be true Lautro Rules 1988, r 3.5(2).
Employment – Contract of employment – Implied term – Character reference given by employer on former employee – Whether implied term that reference would be full, frank and truthful and prepared with reasonable care – Whether such term necessary incident of contract of employment – Whether employer under duty merely to make full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters believed to be true.
The plaintiff was employed as sales director and office manager by the defendants, C Ltd, who were agents for the sale of life assurance policies. In April 1989 C Ltd was taken over by the first defendant, G plc, and in July the plaintiff was dismissed when it was discovered that he was planning to join a rival firm. He attempted to set up a business elsewhere selling the assurance policies of another company but that company, which was obliged by the Lautro code of conduct to obtain a reference from the plaintiff’s previous employer, which was in turn required by r 3.5(2) of the Lautro Rules 1988 to give a reference which made ‘full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters which are believed to be true’, received such a bad reference from G plc about the plaintiff that it refused to have anything to do with him. G plc’s reference stated that he kept the best business for himself, that he was a man of little or no integrity and could not be regarded as honest, and that he had mis-sold a policy with the aim of generating a very substantial commission for himself at the client’s expense. The plaintiff endeavoured to obtain employment with two other life assurance companies which were members of Lautro but was rejected. He brought an action for damages against the defendants alleging (i) malicious falsehood, (ii) breach of an implied contractual term that the defendants would prepare any reference in regard to the plaintiff using reasonable care and would provide a reference which was full, frank and truthful, and (iii) negligence in providing an unsatisfactory reference. The judge held that the claim for malicious falsehood failed, that there was no contract between the plaintiff and G plc and no implied term in the plaintiff’s contract with C Ltd that any reference would be full, frank and truthful and prepared with reasonable care. However, the judge held that the defendants owed a duty of care to the plaintiff in regard to the reference and that they had been negligent in preparing the reference and he gave judgment for the plaintiff for damages to be assessed. The defendants appealed. The plaintiff cross-appealed against the dismissal of his claims in malicious falsehood and breach of contract.
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Held – (1) The test of what constituted malice in the tort of malicious falsehood was the same as the test in relation to the torts of libel and slander, namely ‘honest belief’ or a positive belief in the truth of what was published. Since that was the test adopted by the judge in deciding that the defendants, acting through their employees, honestly believed that the plaintiff had been guilty of dishonesty in the example of mis-selling referred to in the reference, the claim of malicious falsehood and the cross-appeal on that issue failed (see p 288 f j to p 289 a and p 296 f; post); dictum of Lord Diplock in Horrocks v Lowe [1974] 1 All ER 662 at 669–670 applied.
(2) The giver of a reference owed no duty of care in negligence to the person who was the subject of the reference either in giving or compiling the reference or in obtaining the information on which it was based. Any duty owed to the person who was the subject of the reference was governed by and lay in the tort of defamation and accordingly the only remedy available to the subject of a reference in respect of an error or falsehood was an action in defamation, in which the defence of qualified privilege would be available, or for the associated tort of malicious falsehood, in which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove malice. Although the defendants had been bound by the Lautro Rules to give a reference, and unlike most employers could not decline to do so, the extent of their obligation was, as in the tort of defamation, to make full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters which were believed to be true, as required by r 3.5(2) of the Lautro Rules. Since the defendants owed no duty of care to the plaintiff in regard to the reference, their appeal would be allowed (see p 294 j, p 295 c to f and p 296 c d f, post); Governors of the Peabody Donation Fund v Sir Lindsay Parkinson & Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 529, dictum of Cooke P in Bell-Booth Group Ltd v A-G [1989] 3 NZLR 148 at 156 and Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 applied; Lawton v BOC Transhield Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 608 overruled.
(3) A term could not be implied in the plaintiff’s contract of employment with the defendants that any reference they gave would be full, frank and truthful and prepared with reasonable care since such a term was not a necessary incident of the contract. If the law did imply any term in the plaintiff’s contract with the defendants, such a term would go no further than to require the defendants to comply with their obligations under r 3.5(2) of the Lautro Rules, ie to give a reference which made ‘full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters which are believed to be true’, and the defendants had complied with such an obligation. The cross-appeal on that issue therefore failed (see p 296 c d, post); dicta of Lord Edmund-Davies in Liverpool City Council v Irwin [1976] 2 All ER 39 at 54 and of Lord Bridge in Scally v Southern Health and Social Services Board (British Medical Association, third party) [1991] 4 All ER 563 at 571 applied.
Notes
For negligence in relation to statements, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 53.
Cases referred to in judgment
Addis v Gramophone Co Ltd [1909] AC 488, [1908–10] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Bell-Booth Group Ltd v A-G [1989] 3 NZLR 148, NZ CA.
Candler v Crane Christmas & Co [1951] 1 All ER 426, [1951] 2 KB 164, CA.
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL; rvsg [1989] 1 All ER 798, [1989] QB 653, [1989] 2 WLR 316, CA.
Page 275 of [1993] 2 All ER 273
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465 [1963] 3 WLR 101, HL.
Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004, [1970] 2 WLR 1140, HL.
Horrocks v Lowe [1974] 1 All ER 662, [1975] AC 135, [1974] 2 WLR 282, HL.
Junior Books Ltd v Veitchi Co Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 201, [1983] 1 AC 520, [1982] 3 WLR 477, HL.
Lawton v BOC Transhield Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 608.
Liverpool City Council v Irwin [1976] 2 All ER 39, [1977] AC 239, [1976] 2 WLR 562, HL.
Ministry of Housing and Local Government v Sharp [1970] 1 All ER 1009, [1970] 2 QB 223, [1970] 2 WLR 802, CA.
Moorcock, The (1889) 14 PD 64, [1886–90] All ER Rep 530, CA.
Peabody Donation Fund (Governors) v Sir Lindsay Parkinson & Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 529, [1985] AC 210, [1984] 3 WLR 953, HL.
Scally v Southern Health and Social Services Board (British Medical Association, third party) [1991] 4 All ER 563, [1992] 1 AC 294, [1991] 3 WLR 778, HL.
Smith v Eric S Bush (a firm), Harris v Wyre Forest DC [1989] 2 All ER 514, [1990] AC 831, [1989] 2 WLR 790, HL.
Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424, Aust HC.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G v BBC [1980] 3 All ER 161, [1981] AC 303, HL.
Adams v Cape Industries plc [1991] 1 All ER 929, [1990] Ch 433, CA.
Albazero, The [1976] 3 All ER 129, [1977] AC 774, HL.
Balden v Shorter [1933] Ch 427, [1933] All ER Rep 249.
Balfour v A-G [1991] 1 NZLR 519, NZ CA.
Barnard v National Dock Labour Board [1953] 1 All ER 1113, [1953] 2 QB 18, CA.
Bata v Bata [1948] WN 366, CA.
Bliss v South East Thames Regional Health Authority [1987] ICR 700, CA.
British Railway Traffic and Electric Co Ltd v CRC Co Ltd [1922] 2 KB 260.
Broadway Approvals Ltd v Odhams Press Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 523, [1965] 1 WLR 805, CA.
Cellactite and British Uralite Ltd v H H Robertson Co Inc (1957) Times, 23 July, CA.
Comptoir Commercial Anversois and Power Son & Co, Re [1920] 1 KB 868, [1918–19] All ER Rep 661, CA.
Derbyshire CC v Times Newspapers Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 65, [1992] QB 770, CA.
Egger v Viscount Chelmsford [1964] 3 All ER 406, [1965] 1 QB 248, CA.
Foaminol Laboratories Ltd v British Artid Plastics Ltd [1941] 2 All ER 393.
Greers Ltd v Pearman & Corder Ltd (1922) 39 RPC 406, CA.
Guaranty Trust Co of New York v Hannay & Co [1915] 2 KB 536, [1914–15] All ER Rep 24, CA.
Hall v Semple (1862) 3 F & F 337, 176 ER 151, NP.
Hornal v Neuberger Products Ltd [1956] 3 All ER 970, [1957] 1 QB 247, CA.
Joyce v Motor Surveys Ltd [1948] Ch 252.
Leigh & Sillavan Ltd v Aliakmon Shipping Co Ltd, The Aliakmon [1986] 2 All ER 145, [1986] AC 785, HL; affg [1985] 2 All ER 44, [1985] QB 350, CA.
Lion Laboratories Ltd v Evans [1984] 2 All ER 417, [1985] QB 526, CA.
Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398, HL.
O’Laoire v Jackel International Ltd (No 2) [1991] ICR 718, CA.
Riddick v Thames Board Mills Ltd [1977] 3 All ER 677, [1977] QB 881, CA.
Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580, [1980] Ch 297.
Page 276 of [1993] 2 All ER 273
Royal Baking Powder Co v Wright Crossley & Co (1900) 18 RPC 95, HL.
Salomon v A Salomon & Co Ltd [1897] AC 22, [1895–9] All ER Rep 33, HL.
Shove v Downs Surgical plc [1984] 1 All ER 7.
South Pacific Manufacturing Co Ltd v New Zealand Security Consultants and Investigations Ltd [1992] 2 NZLR 282, NZ CA.
Speight v Gosnay (1891) 60 LJQB 231, CA.
Whiteley v Adams (1863) 15 CBNS 392, 143 ER 838.
Appeal and cross-reference
The defendants, Guardian Assurance plc, Corinium Holdings Ltd, Corinium Mortgage Services (Cirencester) Ltd and Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance plc, appealed from the judgment of Judge Lever QC sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 20 December 1991 whereby following the trial of the action brought by the plaintiff, Graham Spring, against the defendants claiming damages for the loss caused to him by a reference provided by the first defendant to Scottish Amicable Assurance plc he ordered that judgment be entered for the plaintiff against the defendants for damages in negligence. The plaintiff cross-appealed for an order that judgment be entered against the defendants for injurious or malicious falsehood, and against the second and third defendants for breach of contract. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
David Eady QC and Gerard Clarke (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the defendants.
Bernard Livesey QC and Witold Pawlak (instructed by Ringrose Wharton & Co, Bristol) for the plaintiff.
Cur adv vult
10 December 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
GLIDEWELL LJ.
INTRODUCTION
This is an appeal from a decision of Judge Lever QC sitting as a judge of the High Court, who, on 20 December 1991, gave judgment for the plaintiff in this action, Mr Spring, against all four defendants, Guardian Assurance plc, Corinium Holdings Ltd, Corinium Mortgage Services (Cirencester) Ltd and Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance plc, for damages to be assessed and for a declaration. Against that decision, all four defendants now appeal. The assessment of damages has been stayed pending the hearing of this appeal. The plaintiff has given notice of cross-appeal.
In this judgment we shall refer to the first defendant as ‘Guardian Assurance’, and to the fourth defendant as ‘GRE Assurance’. It is agreed that no distinction need be made between the second and third defendants to whom we shall refer collectively as ‘Corinium’.
Corinium are estate agents and agents for the sale of life assurance policies, with a main office in Cirencester. In April 1989 the plaintiff was sales director (designate) and office manager of Corinium. In that same month the majority shareholder in Corinium sold the company to Guardian Assurance.
In July 1989 the plaintiff was dismissed by Corinium. He attempted to set up a business elsewhere selling the assurance policies of another company, Scottish Amicable. The code of conduct of the Life Assurance and Unit Trust Regulatory Organisation (Lautro), of which both Guardian Assurance and Scottish Amicable are members, required the latter to seek and the former to supply a reference for the plaintiff. The reference given by Guardian Assurance about the plaintiff was, to use the judge’s words, ‘so strikingly bad as to amount to … “the kiss of death”
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to his career in insurance. Scottish Amicable wanted no truck with the man it described’.
In this action the plaintiff claims damages for the loss caused to him by that reference. The judge found that all four defendants were liable to him. It is against that decision that the defendants now appeal.
SELF-REGULATION UNDER THE FINANCIAL SERVICES ACT 1986
The 1986 Act introduced a regime for the control of persons and bodies carrying on investment business, by what has come to be known as self-regulation. The definition of investment business in that Act includes the sale of long-term insurance contracts. Section 3 of the 1986 Act prohibits the carrying on of investment business by any person who is not either an authorised person or an exempted person under the provisions of that Act.
The scheme of the 1986 Act so far as material to this appeal can be summarised as follows.
The Secretary of State for Trade and Industry has delegated to the Securities and Investments Board (the SIB) many of his functions under the 1986 Act. The SIB is empowered to declare that a body which wishes to act as a self-regulatory organisation (SRO) is recognised. In order to qualify for recognition, the SRO must have rules which comply with the requirements of Sch 2 to the 1986 Act.
By s 7 of the Act, a member of a recognised SRO is an authorised person by virtue of that membership. By s 22 a company authorised under the Insurance Companies Act 1982 to carry on insurance investment business is also an authorised person under the 1986 Act. Under s 44 persons and bodies which enter into contracts for services with authorised persons are known as appointed representatives, and are thus exempted persons under the Act. Thus they are able to carry on investment business lawfully. Under r 1.2 of the Lautro Rules 1988, a member, or an appointed representative, may appoint a person as a company representative to sell the member’s investment products.
The scheme of self-regulation is thus that the SIB grants recognition to a SRO if its rules comply with the statutory requirements. A member of a SRO, and an insurance company which is an authorised person, are required to comply with Lautro’s rules and to ensure that their appointed representatives and company representatives also comply with the rules.
The Lautro Rules at the relevant time contained the following requirement:
‘3.5 (1) A person shall not be appointed as a company representative of a member unless the member has first taken reasonable steps to satisfy itself that he is of good character and of the requisite aptitude and competence, and those steps shall … include … the taking up of references relating to character and experience.
(2) A member which receives an enquiry for a reference in respect of a person whom another member or appointed representative is proposing to appoint shall make full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters which are believed to be true to the other member or the representative.’
THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE PARTIES
At the relevant time in 1989 Guardian Assurance was a subsidiary of GRE Assurance, which provided many administrative services for Guardian Assurance. Guardian Assurance was a member of Lautro and by virtue of that membership, or by virtue of being an authorised insurance company, was an authorised person for the carrying on of investment business under the 1986 Act. Both Corinium companies were subsidiaries of Guardian Assurance, and appointed representatives
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under the 1986 Act. The plaintiff was self-employed but had a contract to provide his services to Corinium. In July 1988 the plaintiff was appointed by Guardian Assurance as a company representative, a position which he held until his dismissal in July 1989. There is a dispute as to whether this relationship between the plaintiff and Guardian Assurance was one of contract or simply of status. We shall revert to this later.
Scottish Amicable was also a member of Lautro and an authorised person under the Act.
FACTS AGREED AND FOUND BY THE JUDGE
In 1987 the plaintiff had served in the army for some 22 years. He was then about 41 years of age, and had risen to the rank of warrant officer. His army conduct was assessed as ‘exemplary’, the highest grading awarded. His commanding officer wrote a highly complimentary testimonial about him. Though this did not specifically refer to his honesty, it is apparent that the army would not have considered his conduct exemplary if it had not thought him totally honest.
In 1987 the plaintiff was serving at RAF station Lyneham. He decided to try to start a new career in the insurance field, in an area close to Lyneham. He therefore applied to join Corinium. Under the army’s civilian resettlement programme he worked in their Cirencester office from August 1987 to the spring of 1988 whilst still technically a serving soldier. In 1987 he attended a five-day training course at Corinium’s main office on the broad principles of insurance, and he also attended a training seminar particularly relating to the sale of Guardian Assurance products in February 1988. He passed an examination at the end of that seminar with a creditable mark. He told the judge that he felt confident to handle the full range of insurance problems that an insurance salesman in his position would normally have to tackle.
After joining Corinium the plaintiff progressed satisfactorily at first. He told the judge that 90% of his work concerned the sale of endowment policies linked to mortgages of houses sold by Corinium. We have already said that in April 1989 he had risen to be sales director (designate) and office manager. In that month he carried through what the judge described as ‘by far the largest insurance transaction with which he had been involved since joining Corinium and one which was well outside the normal range of his experience’. It was this transaction which led to his downfall. We shall refer to it in more detail later.
As we have already said, it was in 1988 that Corinium became an appointed representative of Guardian Assurance, and in July of that year that the plaintiff became a company representative. From that time forward he was concerned with the selling only of insurance policies issued by Guardian Assurance and other GRE companies.
The sale by the former managing director of Corinium, Mr Fulner, of his shareholding to Guardian Assurance, which was agreed in April 1989, was completed in July of that year. Mr Fulner left, and a Mr Siderfin, who had for some months been in charge of the estate agency side of the business, was appointed chief executive of the Corinium companies.
Mr Siderfin had formed an unfavourable impression of the plaintiff. At a meeting of all company employees on 18 July 1989 Mr Siderfin asked for, and the plaintiff gave, a ‘110% loyalty pledge’ to Corinium.
Mr Fulner, after his departure from Corinium, had purchased another firm of estate agents called Heritage Estates in the nearby town of Dursley. The plaintiff had remained on friendly terms with Mr Fulner. He learnt that Mr Fulner was
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negotiating with Scottish Amicable with a view to selling their policies in the same way as Corinium sold those of Guardian Assurance. Mr Fulner intended to install salesmen in various Heritage offices, who would be the company representatives of Scottish Amicable.
The plaintiff told the judge in evidence that on the night after he had given the pledge of loyalty to Corinium he immediately regretted it. On the next day he arranged a meeting with Mr Fulner at which a Mr Parker, a fellow salesman of the plaintiff at Corinium, and a Scottish Amicable executive, Mr McGill, were present. At the meeting Mr Fulner, Mr Parker and the plaintiff agreed that the plaintiff and Mr Parker should be appointed as franchisees for Heritage working from the office at Dursley from 2 August 1989. This inevitably meant, of course that the plaintiff and Mr Parker would have to cease to be company representatives of Guardian Assurance, and become company representatives of Scottish Amicable.
Before the plaintiff gave notice to Corinium of his intention to leave them Mr Siderfin heard rumours about his and Mr Parker’s potential departure to work for a competitor. A week after the meeting with Mr Fulner, Mr Siderfin dismissed the plaintiff summarily. The plaintiff’s name was immediately removed from the Lautro register of Guardian Assurance company representatives. On 2 August 1989 he applied to become a company representative of Scottish Amicable.
Before Scottish Amicable could appoint the plaintiff as a company representative they were obliged by r 3.5(1) of the Lautro Rules to obtain a reference in respect of the plaintiff from Guardian Assurance. In turn, Guardian Assurance were required by r 3.5(2) to provide such a reference. Later in August 1989 the negotiations between Mr Fulner and Scottish Amicable apparently ran into difficulties, and were not resumed until late in October 1989. Whether this was the reason or not, it was not until 10 November 1989 that Scottish Amicable wrote to Guardian Assurance seeking references for Messrs Spring and Parker. The letter was answered on behalf of Guardian Assurance by a letter dated 21 November 1989 from Mrs Debra Lee-Moore, the assistant chief compliance officer of GRE Assurance, who act as the compliance section for the GRE group of companies. In that letter Mrs Lee-Moore said of the plaintiff:
‘Mr Spring held the position of Sales Manager until he was asked to leave in August of this year. His former superior has stated in writing that he was seen by some of the sales staff as a person who consistently kept the best leads for himself with little regard for the sales team that he supposedly was to manage; and his former superior has further stated that he is a man of little or no integrity and could not be regarded as honest … Since the 1st January 1989, Messrs Spring and Parker shared all their commission earnings on a 50:50 basis and left owing the company some £12,000 in funding which to date has not been repaid. This matter is now in the hands of solicitors. The current lapse ratio is running at 18% and this is only for policies written since March of this year. Since their departure, we have found a serious case of mis-selling where the concept of “best advice” was ignored and the policies sold yielded the highest commissions. GRE personnel have had to visit the investor to rectify the situation. There have been other cases where there has been bad advice but there is no current evidence to indicate whether it was deliberate or through ignorance.’
The information upon which Mrs Lee-Moore based these damning opinions and statements about the plaintiff was obtained from several sources. The ‘former superior’ to whom she referred was Mr Siderfin. The information about the amount of funding owed by Messrs Spring and Parker and the lapse ratio of
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policies they had negotiated was no doubt contained in Corinium’s records, and was in any case accurate.
The reference to the ‘serious case of mis-selling’ was to the transaction which the plaintiff negotiated in April 1989 to which we have referred earlier.
The judge said of Mrs Lee-Moore that her—
‘own personal involvement was … no more than to mirror, with absolute accuracy, what she had learnt from her four sources, and I find that indeed she did so, being guilty of neither malice nor negligence in the matter.’
Mr Siderfin’s opinions about the plaintiff were based upon his own relationship to him during the time that the plaintiff was working under him. In particular it is clear from his memorandum to Mrs Lee-Moore that to a large extent he was basing his views on the fact that, immediately after giving the pledge of ‘110% loyalty’ to Corinium, the plaintiff had entered into negotiations with Mr Fulner to join Heritage. The full text of his view about Mr Spring’s honesty is:
‘… I would say that most certainly Mr Spring could in no way be regarded as honest in as much that he often appeared to be economical with the truth, to say the least.’
In order to understand the reference to the ‘serious case of mis-selling’, it is necessary first to explain the April 1989 transaction. The unchallenged facts are as follows.
Mr Fennell was a fireman, who had been seriously injured in an accident which incapacitated him from working in his job for the rest of his life. He had been awarded £170,000 as damages for his injuries, and he was in receipt of a pension. He and his wife owned their own home subject to a mortgage debt of about £20,000, but with a fairly substantial equity. Tragically, Mrs Fennell was dying of cancer.
In April 1989 Mr and Mrs Fennell visited Mr Spring and Mr Parker at Corinium to seek advice on investing the £170,000. They put themselves completely in the hands of the plaintiff and Mr Parker. The Fennells had three adult daughters, and their major objective was to invest most of the money to achieve growth, so as to benefit their daughters in the future.
The plan which the plaintiff devised, and into which the Fennells agreed to enter, was in three parts. Firstly, £20,000 was invested in a building society to allow Mr and Mrs Fennell some additional income each year to improve their standard of living. Clearly this was a perfectly proper step. Secondly, £90,000 was invested in a GRE bond, in trust for the three daughters. In other words, the growth on the bond would be wholly for the benefit of the daughters. Under the terms of the bond, 5% per annum of the initial investment, ie £4,500, could be withdrawn tax free.
The third element in the plan which the plaintiff devised for the Fennells, and into which they agreed to enter, was to invest the remainder of their funds, ie £60,000, in three maximum investment plan policies, one for the benefit of each of the daughters. The proposal was to pay an initial premium of £20,000 on each policy, thus using up the whole £60,000. As the judge put it: ‘This concept was fundamentally flawed.’
The maximum investment plan is intended to be a qualifying policy for tax purposes. By law such a policy must be for a minimum period of ten years, with an unvarying annual premium. It can be seen that with a yearly premium of £20,000 per policy, the total premiums payable under the proposal form which, on Mr Spring’s advice, Mr and Mrs Fennell both signed involved them in paying
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total premiums over the ten years of £200,000 for each of the policies—ie £600,000 in all. This of course was a total impossibility for them. It is a feature of a policy of this kind that a substantial part of the first year’s premium is devoted to setting up charges and payment of the salesman’s commission. If the policies had been effected as proposed, it would have been inevitable that at the end of the first year the Fennells would have been unable to pay any further premiums. The policies would then have been made ‘paid up’, but at that stage no more than about £40,000 out of the first year’s premium would have been invested on the Fennell’s behalf Thus they would immediately have incurred a loss of about £20,000.
On the other hand, the commission paid to Corinium on this policy would have been very substantial. The evidence as to the precise amount did not wholly agree but the judge found that the commission due to Corinium on these three policies and the bond would have been about £22,500, of which some £13,500 would have gone to the plaintiff and Mr Parker. In other words, each of them would have been paid commission approaching £7,000.
Fortunately, this transaction was not effected. There was some delay in processing the proposal, and the policies had still not been issued when the facts of the proposal came to the notice of Mr Dixon, senior sales consultant for GRE Assurance in Gloucester, in late June or early July 1989. He immediately appreciated the impracticability of the proposal and the risk it held for the Fennells. Together he and a colleague, Mr Bowring, interviewed the Fennells again and put a plan before them which achieved what they wanted. Thus in the event the Fennells suffered no loss.
For an insurance salesman to advise a client whom he knows is not skilled in insurance policies to enter into a contract of this kind is on the face of it a classic instance of generating a substantial commission for the salesman at the client’s expense. Mr Dixon formed the view that it was probable that Messrs Spring and Parker were guilty of such dishonest conduct.
It so happened that at about the same time as Scottish Amicable asked Guardian Assurance for a reference for the plaintiff in November 1989, a team from the compliance department of GRE Assurance was making a regular visit to Corinium. Obviously the team learnt if indeed they did not already know, about the Fennell transaction. Before compiling the reference which she sent to Scottish Amicable, Mrs Lee-Moore therefore sought information about this transaction from one of the members of the compliance team, Mr Beard, as well as from Mr Dixon. Mr Beard had already written a memorandum to Mr Siderfin about this transaction on 7 November 1989. In it he described the proposal for the maximum plan and the investment bond, and said:
‘The Fennells are not sophisticated investors. Prime target for rip-off merchants. Lautro/FSA particularly designed to protect these type of people. (Mega bad publicity for GRE—Multinational insurer “steals” disabled ex fireman of £170K).’
He then described how the whole matter had been rectified to the Fennells’ satisfaction, and concluded:
‘[therefore] matter now closed apart from “crucifying” Spring & Parker who are now [company representatives] of Scottish Amicable.’
Mr Beard also wrote another memorandum in which he referred to another doubtful transaction into which Mr Spring had entered. He said that Mr Dixon’s view was that whilst this policy was ‘poorly sold this was due to incompetence
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rather than malice’. Mr Beard added a sentence which clearly implied that the Fennell transaction was due to malice rather than incompetence.
In reply to the request for information from Mrs Lee-Moore, Mr Dixon wrote a memorandum in which he said:
‘One case that had come to my notice was that of Fennell, the details of which you know, and I insisted on seeing the salesperson concerned to discuss the matter—to see if he would justify his actions to me—before I pointed out the error of his ways. In the event he insisted that he had done nothing wrong—and that large [Maxi Plans] were written and made paid up after one year quite commonly in PFM [GRE Personal Financial Management Ltd]. I was left with the very firm impression that this had been a blatant exercise to generate commission. Having met the clients myself subsequently I have not changed my view.’
There was an issue at the trial as to whether Mr Dixon ever did have a meeting with the plaintiff to discuss the Fennell matter. We shall revert to this.
The judge described succinctly the effect of the reference written by Mrs Lee-Moore on 21 November 1989 in the following words:
‘The inevitable happened. As I have said, Scottish Amicable wanted no truck with a man so described, and when in December 1989 and January 1990 the plaintiff endeavoured to secure an appointment as a representative of National Financial Management and Irish Life Assurance, these institutions rejected him virtually out of hand. As far as his insurance career was concerned, the reference was, as Mr Livesey QC says, indeed the kiss of death. Within a few weeks the present proceedings were commenced.’
THE ISSUES AT THE TRIAL
The reamended statement of claim pleads three causes of action. These are as follows.
(1) Malicious falsehood
The pleading contains the following assertions:
‘16 … (e) The following matters in the reference were untrue and known to be untrue to the source or sources of such information and/or opinion, or ought to have been known to be untrue: that the Plaintiff, (i) consistently kept the best leads for himself; (ii) had little regard for the sales team he was supposed to be managing; (iii) was a person of little or no integrity and could not be regarded as honest; (iv) left owing Corinium Financial Management Limited some £12,000 in funding which had not, by the date of the reference been repaid; (v) had a lapse ratio which at the date of the reference was running at 18% for policies written since March 1989; (vi) sold a policy or policies in one case where the concept of “best advice” was deliberately ignored with a view to obtaining the highest commission for himself; and (vii) gave bad advice on other occasions either deliberately or through ignorance. (f) Neither Debra Lee-Moore nor anyone else can have attempted to verify any of the aforesaid matters and it was reckless not to do so.’
In order to succeed in this cause of action the plaintiff had to prove that in giving the reference the defendants were actuated by malice. Whether they were or were not was a major issue in the trial.
Obviously any of the defendants could only act through their servants or agents. We have already said that the judge concluded that Mrs Lee-Moore was
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not actuated by malice. He therefore had to consider whether any of her informants, notably Mr Siderfin and Mr Dixon, were actuated by malice for which any of the defendants was responsible.
The judge analysed the various complaints made in the passage of the statement of claim which we have set out above as falling into four categories. Having considered the first three of these he said:
‘As far as these three elements of the reference are concerned, it is perhaps convenient to summarise my findings at this point. The statement about the lapse ratio is an accurate answer to a simple question; the statement about funding was accurate up to a point even though perhaps it did not tell the full story; the statement that the plaintiff had kept the best leads to himself was not justified by the evidence. None of these elements, taken singly or together, would, in my judgment, have precluded Scottish Amicable from appointing the plaintiff as its company representative in any event. The only possible significance that the statement about the leads and the funding may possibly play in this case hereafter is solely in relation to the state of the mind in which their original author, Mr Siderfin, wrote them. The lapse ratio question disappears from the case … The Fennell case, however, lies at the heart of the present suit.’
Of this transaction the judge said:
‘The alternatives are stark. Either the plaintiff did this out of sheer incompetence deriving from one or all of a number of factors: a lack of training, an inability to apply his training, a misplaced faith in his own abilities, an unwillingness to seek advice and/or a far too superficial investigation of what was, and what was not, an appropriate investment for Mr Fennell, but, nevertheless, at the end of the day, not a proposal put forward in bad faith. Alternatively, he was guilty of a gross breach of the Lautro code of conduct and in particular the “best advice” concept—and, far simpler, ordinary canons of honesty and professional integrity—by deliberately selling Mr Fennell a policy to the latter’s potential grave detriment, with the objective of securing for himself a commission far and away greater than he could have earned had Mr Fennell received advice in his best interests. The plaintiff himself conceded that were this latter the case, any referee would have been entitled, and indeed bound, to describe him as dishonest and lacking in integrity. The reference states: “We have found a serious case of mis-selling where the concept of ‘best advice’ was ignored and the policies sold yielded the highest commission.” The defendants have never denied that, although the words do not spell out the allegation verbatim, the plainest possible implication of the words is that the Fennell case was a deliberate attempt by the plaintiff dishonestly to enrich himself at the expense of a client.’
The judge’s final conclusion was expressed with his usual felicity. He said:
‘In the last analysis, the problem can be reduced to a simple, if somewhat brutal, question: was the plaintiff a fool or a rogue? Balancing the evidence as best I can, my conclusion is that he was a fool.’
The judge then referred to the evidence given by Mr Dixon that he had had a meeting with the plaintiff shortly after he learnt of the Fennell transaction in July or August 1989 at which the plaintiff in effect admitted that he had been dishonest and expressed no contrition. As we have already said, the plaintiff denied that any
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such meeting took place, much less that he made any admission. Mr Livesey QC for the plaintiff relied on this as evidence of malice on Mr Dixon’s part. The judge’s conclusion on this aspect was:
‘My judgment of what happened is as follows. First, contrary to what Mr Dixon said, as an able and experienced man, as soon as he laid eyes on the Fennell file he concluded that it was a commission-generating exercise. There is a very striking analogy here with Mr Beard, another GRE executive with a sophisticated knowledge in the field of insurance, who did exactly the same. Indeed, throughout his lengthy evidence Mr Dixon time and again took the line that nobody could be such a fool as the plaintiff had been, ergo he must be a rogue. In my opinion, he told the lie to bolster a conclusion he had already reached and which he honestly believed to be true. Such a situation is by no means unknown in human affairs. I do not think that he said that this was a case of deliberate mis-selling to give vent to any spite or ill-will towards Mr Spring, or that this was his dominant motive … As I have said, I think he concluded that any man who could sell such a policy must be a rogue. That was his honest belief and that is what he said. What he then did much later was to add the lie, not by way of qualifying the belief but as a reason for it. In my view, he did so either to bolster a case he believed genuinely to be true with this untrue piece of evidence and/or, more probably, because he was looking over his shoulder at what others in GRE might think about his inactivity in the Fennell case till Mr Bowring came on the scene. It was deplorable but, in my judgment, it is not inconsistent with my finding that when he told Mrs Lee-Moore that the plaintiff was a rogue he honestly believed what he said to be true.’
The judge also concluded that Mr Siderfin honestly believed the truth of what he said.
The judge had already directed himself that this was the test he had to apply. He therefore concluded that malicious falsehood was not made out.
(2) Breach of implied term of contract
Paragraph 8 of the reamended statement of claim pleads:
‘It was or became an implied term (by reason of the matters hereinbefore pleaded at paragraph 1–3) of each of the said contracts [ie the plaintiff’s contracts with Corinium and Guardian Assurance] that, the Defendants and/or any of them would provide a reference which was full, frank and truthful and which was in any event prepared using reasonable care.’
In relation to this cause of action the judge held that there was no contract between the plaintiff and either Guardian Assurance or GRE Assurance. As to Corinium, he concluded that there was no term as pleaded implied in the plaintiff’s contract with Corinium. The claim under this head therefore failed.
(3) Negligence
Paragraph 9 of the reamended statement of claim pleads:
‘Further, the Defendants and each of them owed the Plaintiff a duty of care in the provision of such reference or any material required therefor when called upon to do so by any Lautro member in the knowledge that an unsatisfactory reference would prevent or substantially damage the prospects of the Plaintiff being employed as a representative and salesman of life
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assurance anywhere in the United Kingdom alternatively by any Lautro member.’
The first issue the judge had to decide was, were any of the defendants under such a duty of care? After a detailed examination of the authorities, he concluded:
‘It seems to me to be impossible in the situation which I am asked to consider, namely one in which the giving of a reference, good or bad, is not a matter of discretion and where the consequences of a negligent misstatement are known to the potential author, namely that such a misstatement might well blight a man’s entire career, not to say that it is only fair, just and reasonable that the author of the reference should take all reasonable care to ensure that his statement is not a misstatement.’
The judge then turned to consider whether there had been a breach of such a duty. Clearly Mrs Lee-Moore had not broken any duty of care, on the judge’s findings. He therefore considered whether either Mr Dixon or Mr Siderfin had done so. As to Mr Dixon he said:
‘… in my judgment, there can equally be no doubt that he was negligent. Here again the analogy with Mr Beard is striking. The latter, as I have recounted, conceded very fairly that on a full study of all the documentation in the Fennell file, and in particular the submission slips, his view that the plaintiff was a rogue would be significantly modified … Both men over-hastily concluded that because they would never make such a mistake nobody else possibly could. In my judgment, further investigation would have shown otherwise, and Mr Dixon did not exercise reasonable care before making the allegation he did.’
Of Mr Siderfin, the judge said the opinion he formed of the plaintiff—
‘was not, in my view, the careful and accurate assessment of his qualities that the plaintiff was entitled to. In my judgment, it was motivated by leaping to a conclusion—of dishonesty and lack of integrity—careless of the true facts of the case. It may be that the question of whether a man possesses the qualities of honesty and integrity lies ultimately in the realm of opinion rather than fact, but the negligent misstatement in the Hedley Byrne case itself [Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465] was indeed one of opinion. It follows that I find Mr Siderfin, too, culpable in the matter of negligence.’
Causation
The judge thus had to consider whether the negligence which he had found established caused the plaintiff the damage he claimed. On this he said:
‘On the face of it, causation seems plain. Because of the reference, which I have held constitutes a negligent misstatement, not only Scottish Amicable but Irish Life and National Financial Management refused to employ the plaintiff … I can only say that, in my judgment, on balance, had the plaintiff received the careful and accurate reference he was entitled to, he would probably have obtained employment with one of these companies. I am fortified in this conclusion by the evidence of the experts and of Mrs Evans herself [compliance officer of Scottish Amicable], who, whilst unable to give categoric answers, all regarded deliberate mis-selling as the crucial element in the reference …’
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The judge therefore gave judgment for the plaintiff on liability and ordered that damages should be assessed.
THE ISSUES IN THIS APPEAL
Neither party has sought to challenge any of the judge’s findings of primary fact, save in relation to causation. The questions for our decision in the appeal and the cross-appeal can therefore be formulated as follows.
(1) Malicious falsehood
Did the judge direct himself correctly as to what constitutes malice in the tort of malicious falsehood?
(2) Negligence
(a) Does the giver of a reference in the circumstances of this case owe a duty of care in tort to the subject of the reference? (b) If so, is that duty broken solely by a lack of care on the part of the particular employee of the defendant who supplies the reference (Mrs Lee-Moore), or is lack of care on the part of somebody who supplies the information upon which the reference is based a breach of the duty for which the employer is liable?
(3) Breach of contract
(a) Was there a contract between the plaintiff and Guardian Assurance? (b) If so, is it necessary to imply into that contract a term that Guardian Assurance must exercise due care in preparing the reference? (c) Alternatively, is it necessary to imply into the plaintiff’s contract with Corinium a term of which Corinium were in breach?
(4) Causation
If Guardian Assurance, or any of the defendants, owed to the plaintiff and were in breach of a duty of care in tort, or if they were in breach of an implied term of a contract with the plaintiff, was the loss suffered by the plaintiff caused by that breach?
We shall consider these issues in that order.
Malice in the tort of malicious falsehood
If the plaintiff had a right of action for damages against any of the defendants arising out of the giving of the reference to Scottish Amicable, the most obvious cause of action was in the tort of libel. However, legal aid is not available to a plaintiff who wishes to bring an action for defamation. The judge inferred that it was for this reason that the plaintiff did not pursue his obvious cause of action. As the judge put it, if the plaintiff had sued in libel, the defence would have been qualified privilege, met by the reply that the privilege was negatived by malice on the part of the defendants. Thus in either cause of action, the onus was on the plaintiff to prove such malice.
The defendants did not seek to argue that, if the plaintiff proved malice, the facts of this case did not come within the ambit of the tort of malicious falsehood. For the purposes of this judgment we are therefore prepared to assume, without deciding, that they do.
The judge found that the plaintiff was a fool, not a rogue. In other words, the passages in the reference which asserted, or from which it could only be inferred, that he had acted dishonestly were untrue.
The judge correctly said that, since the defendants could only act through their
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servants or agents, he had to inquire whether Mrs Lee-Moore, Mr Dixon or Mr Siderfin were actuated by malice in giving the reference or providing the information and opinions upon which the reference was based. We have already said that the judge found that Mrs Lee-Moore was not guilty of malice.
The test adopted by the judge as to what constitutes malice in the tort of malicious falsehood was derived from the speech of Lord Diplock in Horrocks v Lowe [1974] 1 All ER 662 at 669–670, [1975] AC 135 at 150. That was an appeal arising out of an action for slander during the course of a meeting of a local council. The defence was qualified privilege, to which the plaintiff replied that the defendant was actuated by malice.
The passage quoted by Judge Lever from Lord Diplock’s speech is so important that we think it right to quote most of it in this judgment. Lord Diplock said:
‘… what is required on the part of the defamer to entitle him to the protection of the privilege is positive belief in the truth of what he published or, as it is generally though tautologously termed, “honest belief”. If he publishes untrue defamatory matter recklessly, without considering or caring whether it be true or not, he is in this, as in other branches of the law, treated as if he knew it to be false. But indifference to the truth of what he publishes is not to be equated with carelessness, impulsiveness or irrationality in arriving at a positive belief that it is true. The freedom of speech protected by the law of qualified privilege may be availed by all sorts and conditions of men. In affording to them immunity from suit if they have acted in good faith in compliance with a legal or moral duty or in protection of a legitimate interest the law must take them as it finds them. In ordinary life it is rare indeed for people to form their beliefs by a process of logical deduction from facts ascertained by a rigorous search for all available evidence and a judicious assessment of its probative value. In greater or in less degree according to their temperaments, their training, their intelligence, they are swayed by prejudice, rely on intuition instead of reasoning, leap to conclusions on inadequate evidence and fail to recognise the cogency of material which might cast doubt on the validity of the conclusions they reach. But despite the imperfection of the mental process by which the belief is arrived at it may still be “honest”, ie a positive belief that the conclusions they have reached are true. The law demands no more. Even a positive belief in the truth of what is published on a privileged occasion—which is presumed unless the contrary is proved—may not be sufficient to negative express malice if it can be proved that the defendant misused the occasion for some purpose other than that for which the privilege is accorded by the law. The commonest case is where the dominant motive which actuates the defendant is not a desire to perform the relevant duty or to protect the relevant interest, but to give vent to his personal spite or ill-will towards the person he defames. If this be proved, then even positive belief in the truth of what is published will not enable the defamer to avail himself of the protection of the privilege to which he would otherwise have been entitled. There may be instances of improper motives which destroy the privilege apart from personal spite. A defendant’s dominant motive may have been to obtain some private advantage unconnected with the duty or the interest which constitutes the reason for the privilege. If so, he loses the benefit of the privilege despite his positive belief that what he said or wrote was true. Judges and juries should, however, be very slow to draw the inference that a defendant was so far actuated by improper motives as to deprive him of the protection of the
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privilege unless they are satisfied that he did not believe that what he said or wrote was true or that he was indifferent to its truth or falsity.’
Having decided, as he did, that both Messrs Dixon and Siderfin honestly believed that what they said about the plaintiff was true, the judge acquitted both of malice.
Mr Livesey for the plaintiff argues that honest belief is not the sole test for establishing malice in the tort of malicious falsehood. He submits that in order to prove malice for the purposes of this tort, a plaintiff must prove either (i) that the defendant did not believe in the truth of what he said or (ii) that the defendant was actuated by some improper motive, even though he believed the truth of what he said, which need not be the dominant motive.
In Gatley on Libel and Slander (8th edn, 1981) para 303, in the chapter dealing with malicious falsehood, the learned editors say:
‘The malice essential to support the action is some dishonest or otherwise improper motive. Such a motive will be inferred on proof that the words were calculated to produce actual damage, and that the defendant knew that they were false when he published them, or was recklessly indifferent as to whether they were false or not.’
It will be seen that in the passage from his speech in Horrocks v Lowe which we have quoted Lord Diplock made the very point which Mr Livesey is seeking to make when he said:
‘A defendant’s dominant motive may have been to obtain some private advantage unconnected with the duty or the interest which constitutes the reason for the privilege. If so, he loses the benefit of the privilege despite his positive belief that what he said or wrote was true.’
In our judgment, the test of what constitutes malice in the tort of malicious falsehood is the same as the test in relation to the torts of libel and slander. In this case the learned judge directed himself entirely properly in adopting the guidance given in Lord Diplock’s speech.
Mr Livesey argues that the false statement made by Mr Dixon that he had interviewed the plaintiff, who had in effect admitted entering into the Fennell transaction for a dishonest purpose, was evidence of Mr Dixon being activated by an improper motive.
It should be remembered that in the reference no mention was made of Mr Dixon’s alleged meeting with the plaintiff, nor of course of the plaintiff’s alleged admission. The judge found that, when Mr Dixon in his report to Mrs Lee-Moore expressed the view that the Fennell transaction was ‘a blatant exercise to generate commission’, he honestly believed this to be true. Thus his lies about the alleged meeting and admission were only evidence of an improper motive if Mr Dixon told the lies in order to harm the plaintiff. But the judge, who dealt with this issue in some detail in his judgment, concluded in the passage we have already quoted about the reasons for Mr Dixon’s lie that Mr Dixon invented the meeting in order (a) to bolster what he genuinely believed, that the plaintiff was dishonest, and (b) to protect himself against possible accusations of inefficiency.
In short, on the judge’s findings, Mr Dixon did not invent the meeting or the admission with the deliberate intention of harming the plaintiff.
Having so concluded, the judge’s finding that Mr Dixon did honestly believe that the plaintiff had been guilty of dishonesty in the Fennell transaction remained unaltered. The judge dealt with this matter entirely properly, as in our judgment
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he did with the entire issue of malice. His conclusions in relation to malicious falsehood were impeccable. The cross-appeal on this issue must therefore fail.
Negligence
As we have said, the first and major issue under this head is: does the giver of a reference owe a duty of care to the subject of the reference (i) in giving or compiling the reference or (ii) in obtaining the information on which it is based? This is the most difficult and controversial question in this appeal.
Paragraph 9 of the reamended statement of claim pleads that—
‘the Defendants and each of them owed the Plaintiff a duty of care in the provision of such reference or any material required therefor when called upon to do so by any Lautro member in the knowledge that an unsatisfactory reference would prevent or substantially damage the prospects of the Plaintiff being employed as a representative and salesman of life assurance anywhere in the United Kingdom alternatively by any Lautro member.’
The judge carefully and logically considered the relevant modern authorities and directed himself that, in order to hold that any of the defendants owed the plaintiff a duty of care in the circumstances, he had to consider the relationship between the parties and, if he considered that it was sufficiently close, to consider further whether the law should impose the duty for which the plaintiff contended. The judge said:
‘In my judgment, there was between the plaintiff and the defendants, to quote Lord Bridge that “relationship categorised by the law as one of ‘proximity’ or ‘neighbourhood’ …” (see Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 574, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 618). The giving of the reference was bound to have a direct and immediate effect upon the plaintiff and upon no one else other than Scottish Amicable. The facts of the present case are, in this respect, essentially different from those of the Caparo Industries case in which Lord Oliver said ([1990] 1 All ER 568 at 598, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 649–650): “… I can see nothing in the statutory duties of a company’s auditor to suggest that they were intended by Parliament to protect the interests of investors in the market and I see no reason in policy or in principle why it should be either desirable or appropriate that the ambit of the special relationship required to give rise to liability in cases such as the present should be extended beyond those limits which are deducible from the Hedley Byrne case …” Lord Bridge continues that the court should, if it finds proximity, consider whether it is fair, just or reasonable that the law should impose a duty of a given scope upon the one party for the benefit of another. It seems to me to be impossible in the situation which I am asked to consider, namely one in which the giving of a reference, good or bad, is not a matter of discretion and where the consequences of a negligent misstatement are known to the potential author, namely that such a misstatement might well blight a man’s entire career, not to say that it is only fair, just and reasonable that the author of the reference should take all reasonable care to ensure that his statement is not a misstatement.’ (Judge Lever’s emphasis.)
The judge therefore held that the defendants owed the plaintiff a duty of care not merely in giving, but in the preparation of the reference.
It is a commonplace that, if A (a former or present employer) gives B (a possible future employer) a written or oral reference concerning C (an employee), the reference is given on an occasion of qualified privilege. Thus, if the reference
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contains some untrue statement about C which damages his reputation, C can only succeed in an action against A in defamation if he can prove that A was actuated by malice. This has been the law for over 200 years because the courts have held it to be in the public interest that, in giving such a reference, A should be encouraged to express his honest opinion, fully and frankly, about C without fear that he will be liable to C if something which he honestly believes to be true nevertheless is proved not to be true. Moreover, if A makes an untrue statement to B about C which damages C’s business but not his reputation, C can sue A for damages for financial loss only if he can prove that A in making the statement was actuated by malice.
In this case the plaintiff’s claim, under this as under the other possible heads of liability, is for damages for loss of earnings. Thus it is for financial or economic loss, which does not flow from any damage to the plaintiff’s person or to his property.
In Candler v Crane Christmas & Co [1951] 1 All ER 426, [1951] 2 KB 164 by a majority this court, following a series of decisions extending back to the nineteenth century, held that the law imposed no liability for financial loss caused by a negligent misstatement. Denning LJ in a powerful judgment dissented. In Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465 the House of Lords overruled this decision and approved Denning LJ’s dissenting judgment.
The Hedley Byrne principle was recently reconsidered by the House of Lords in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605. In allowing the appeal the House held that liability for economic loss due to negligent misstatement is typically confined to cases where the statement or advice has been given to a known recipient for a specific purpose of which the maker was aware and upon which the recipient has relied and acted to his detriment (see [1990] 1 All ER 568 esp at 589, [1990] 2 AC 605 esp at 638 per Lord Oliver. In that case the House of Lords was not considering whether, if a statement is made negligently about a third person, the maker of the statement owes any duty to use reasonable care in making the statement not merely to the person to whom he makes it but also to the person about whom it is made. The decision in Caparo is therefore of no direct assistance in relation to the present problem.
The Hedley Byrne principle was relied upon by the majority of this court in Ministry of Housing and Local Government v Sharp [1970] 1 All ER 1009, [1970] 2 QB 223 in deciding that if an employee of a local authority failed to use proper care in conducting a search of the local land charges register, which resulted in an inaccurate certificate which caused loss to the minister as incumbrancer under the charge, the local authority could be liable. Lord Denning MR said ([1970] All ER 1009 at 1018–1019, [1970] 2 QB 223 at 268–269):
‘I have no doubt that the clerk is liable. He was under a duty at common law to use due care. That was a duty which he owed to any person—incumbrancer or purchaser—who, he knew or ought to have known, might be injured if he made a mistake. The case comes four square within the principles which are stated in Candler v Crane Christmas & Co [1951] 1 All ER 426 at 433–436, [1951] 2 KB 164 at 179–185, and which were approved by the House of Lords in Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465 … In my opinion the duty to use due care in a statement arises, not from any voluntary assumption of responsibility, but from the fact that the person making it knows, or ought to know, that others, being his neighbours in this regard, would act on the faith of the statement being accurate. That is enough to bring the duty into being. It is owed, of
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course, to the person to whom the certificate is issued and who he knows is going to act on it … But it is also owed to any person who he knows or ought to know, will be injuriously affected by a mistake, such as the incumbrancer here.’
Mr Livesey argues that these words show that Lord Denning MR envisaged the duty being owed to a group wider than the person to whom the statement is made. We accept that this is so, but only to the extent that the duty may be owed also to some other person whom the maker of the statement should anticipate will receive the statement and rely upon it. In that case it was the incumbrancer, as Lord Denning MR made clear and as also did Salmon LJ in his judgment in agreement. In Smith v Eric S Bush (a firm), Harris v Wyre Forest DC [1989] 2 All ER 514, [1990] 1 AC 831 the House of Lords reached a similar decision in holding liable an estate agent who gave a negligent report on the condition of a property to a building society, when he knew that the intending purchaser of the property would receive a copy of his report and rely upon it. Thus in our view neither Sharp’s case nor Smith v Bush assists Mr Livesey to establish that a duty in this case was owed to his client.
A direct decision in his favour was that of Tudor Evans J in Lawton v BOC Transhield Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 608. In that case the defendants had employed the plaintiff for ten years, at the end of which he left his employment because the depot at which he worked was closed. The defendants gave him an unfavourable reference, and in consequence he lost a job he had obtained subject to his reference being good. He sued for damages in negligence. Tudor Evans J, applying dicta which he derived from the decisions of the House of Lords in Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004, Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728 and Junior Books Ltd v Veitchi Co Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 201, [1983] 1 AC 520, held that the defendants in that case did owe a duty of care to the plaintiff in compiling and giving the reference, but that they were not in breach of their duty.
As is well known, in recent years the House of Lords has reformulated the basis upon which a defendant may be held to owe a duty of care to a plaintiff in circumstances which are not already covered by established authority. In Governors of the Peabody Donation Fund v Sir Lindsay Parkinson & Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 529, [1985] AC 210 the question was, were a local authority under a duty of care to a building owner in relation to the supervision of the construction of the building on his land? The House held that they were not.
In his speech Lord Keith of Kinkel said ([1984] 3 All ER 529 at 533, [1985] AC 210 at 239):
‘Lord Atkin’s famous enunciation of the general principles on which the law of negligence is founded, in Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562 at 580, [1932] All ER Rep 1 at 11, has long been recognised as not intended to afford a comprehensive definition, to the effect that every situation which is capable of falling within the terms of the utterance and which results in loss automatically affords a remedy in damages.’
Lord Keith then quoted well-known passages from the speeches of Lord Reid in Dorset Yacht case and Lord Wilberforce in the Anns case and continued ([1984] 3 All ER 529 at 534, [1985] AC 210 at 240–241):
‘There has been a tendency in some recent cases to treat these passages as being themselves of a definitive character. This is a temptation which should be resisted. The true question in each case is whether the particular defendant
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owed to the particular plaintiff a duty of care having the scope which is contended for, and whether he was in breach of that duty with consequent loss to the plaintiff. A relationship of proximity in Lord Atkin’s sense must exist before any duty of care can arise, but the scope of the duty must depend on all the circumstances of the case. In Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294 at 307–308, [1970] AC 1004 at 1038–1039 Lord Morris, after observing that at the conclusion of his speech in Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562 at 599, [1932] All ER Rep 1 at 20 Lord Atkin said that it was advantageous if the law “is in accordance with sound common sense” and expressing the view that a special relation existed between the prison officers and the yacht company which gave rise to a duty on the former to control their charges so as to prevent them doing damage, continued: “Apart from this I would conclude that in the situation stipulated in the present case it would not only be fair and reasonable that a duty of care should exist but that it would be contrary to the fitness of things were it not so. I doubt whether it is necessary to say, in cases where the court is asked whether in a particular situation a duty existed, that the court is called upon to make a decision as to policy. Policy need not be invoked where reason and good sense will at once point the way. If the test whether in some particular situation a duty of care arises may in some cases have to be whether it is fair and reasonable that it should so arise, the court must not shrink from being the arbiter …” So in determining whether or not a duty of care of particular scope was incumbent on a defendant it is material to take into consideration whether it is just and reasonable that it should be so.’
Applying that test, the House held that the defendants were not liable. All others of their Lordships agreed with Lord Keith’s speech. It appears from the report of Lawton v BOC Transhield Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 608 that that decision, although it preceded the hearing by Tudor Evans J by over a year, was not drawn to his attention.
We have already referred to the decision of the House of Lords in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605. The House there decided that the auditors of a company owed no duty of care to purchasers of shares in that company, but only to existing shareholders. Lord Bridge of Harwich, after quoting Lord Reid in the Dorset Yacht case and Lord Wilberforce in the Anns case, said ([1990] 1 All ER 568 at 573–574, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 617–618):
‘… since Anns’s case a series of decisions of the Privy Council and of your Lordships’ House, notably in judgments and speeches delivered by Lord Keith, have emphasised the inability of any single general principle to provide a practical test which can be applied to every situation to determine whether a duty of care is owed and, if so, what is its scope … What emerges is that, in addition to the foreseeability of damage, necessary ingredients in any situation giving rise to a duty of care are that there should exist between the party owing the duty and the party to whom it is owed a relationship characterised by the law as one of “proximity” or “neighbourhood” and that the situation should be one in which the court considers it fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose a duty of a given scope upon the one party for the benefit of the other. But it is implicit in the passages referred to that the concepts of proximity and fairness embodied in these additional ingredients are not susceptible of any such precise definition as would be necessary to give them utility as practical tests, but amount in effect to little
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more than convenient labels to attach to the features of different specific situations which, on a detailed examination of all the circumstances, the law recognises pragmatically as giving rise to a duty of care of a given scope. Whilst recognising, of course, the importance of the underlying general principles common to the whole field of negligence, I think the law has now moved in the direction of attaching greater significance to the more traditional categorisation of distinct and recognisable situations as guides to the existence, the scope and the limits of the varied duties of care which the law imposes. We must now, I think, recognise the wisdom of the words of Brennan J in the High Court of Australia in Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424 at 481, where he said: “It is preferable in my view, that the law should develop novel categories of negligence incrementally and by analogy with established categories, rather than by a massive extension of a prima facie duty of care restrained only by indefinable ‘considerations which ought to negative, or to reduce or limit the scope of the duty or the class of person to whom it is owed’.” ’
Lord Oliver said ([1990] 1 All ER 568 at 602, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 655):
‘Once foreseeability of likely harm from a careless statement has been established, it becomes necessary to examine the circumstances in and the purposes for which the statement was made in order to determine whether there are also present the further ingredients necessary to establish the requisite proximity of relationship between the maker of the statement and the person who has acted upon it. As Bingham LJ observed in the present case, the concept of proximity is somewhat elusive, extending as it does beyond mere physical proximity (see [1989] 1 All ER 798 at 802, [1989] QB 653 at 678). It might be described as the circumstances in which the law considers it proper that a duty of care should be imposed on one person towards another. If in any given circumstances a relationship of proximity is found to exist, consideration must still be given to the scope of the duty which arises therefrom. In the case of physical proximity, few problems will arise, but where there exists a duty of care in relation to the making of statements, written or oral, problems may arise if those statements are capable of being used for more than one purpose.’
Bell-Booth Group Ltd v A-G [1989] 3 NZLR 148 was a decision of the Court of Appeal of New Zealand. The claim was for damages for defamation and alternatively for negligence. At first instance the defence of justification to the defamation succeeded, but the judge held that the plaintiff was liable in negligence. The Court of Appeal allowed the appeal, concluding that the defendants owed no duty of care in the circumstances.
Giving the judgment of the court Cooke P referred to the decision of Tudor Evans J in Lawton v BOC Transhield Ltd, and to a comment on it in Demopoulos ‘Misleading references and quantified privilege’ (1988) 104 LQR 191 at 194 to the effect that it—
‘involves an extension of the law of negligence which flies in the teeth of express statements that anything less than malice in the making of a privileged statement cannot engage liability.’
Cooke P continued (at 156–157):
‘Similar comments could be made in cases of justification or fair comment. The common law rules, and their statutory modifications, regarding defamation and injurious falsehood represent compromises gradually worked
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out by the Courts over the years, with some legislative adjustments, between competing values. Personal reputation and freedom to trade on the one hand have to be balanced against freedom to speak or criticise on the other. In the result the present rules are in broad terms well-known and reasonably clear. To an action for defamation truth is an absolute defence. Privilege, where applicable, is in a few areas an absolute but in most a qualified defence. Fair comment is a qualified defence subject to rather different rules. In injurious falsehood, on the other hand, the plaintiff has the burden of proving both falsity and malice. These evolved compromises may not draw the lines in places that will always be found generally acceptable in the community. Some argue, for instance, for greater media freedom or licence; statutory changes have been recommended but not enacted. It is a controversial area. The important point for present purposes is that the law as to injury to reputation and freedom of speech is a field of its own. To impose the law of negligence upon it by accepting that there may be common law duties of care not to publish the truth would be to introduce a distorting element. It was argued for the appellant, inter alia, that neither defamation nor slander of goods requires a background duty or breach; and if injury does or may involve those separate elements, there is no ground for depriving the plaintiff of a separate cause of action. That is really no more than a semantic point. The duty in defamation may be described as a duty not to defame without justification or privilege or otherwise than by way of fair comment. The duty in injurious falsehood may be defined as a duty not to disparage goods untruthfully and maliciously. In substance the appellant would add to these duties a duty in such a case as this to take care not to injure the plaintiff’s reputation by true statements. All the arguments for the appellant, though put skilfully in various ways by counsel, reduce to that proposition. In our opinion, to accept it would be to introduce negligence law into a field for which it was not designed and is not appropriate … For these reasons in our opinion justice does not require or warrant an importation of negligence law into this class of case. Where remedies are needed they are already available in the form of actions for defamation, injurious falsehood, breach of contract or breach of confidence. Accordingly the cross-appeal must be allowed, and the findings of duty of care and breach and the award of damages for negligence set aside.’
Mr Livesey argues that the decision in that case (which is of course not binding upon us, though obviously of high persuasive authority) related only to its own facts, ie where the alleged defamatory statement had been held to be true. But from the passage which we have quoted from the judgment of Cooke P this was patently not so. Clearly he intended to distinguish the tort of defamation, with its range of defences of justification, privilege and fair comment, from the tort of negligence.
In our view the decision in Bell-Booth Group Ltd v A-G represents the law of England. As a general proposition, in our judgment the giver of a reference owes no duty of care in the tort of negligence to the subject of the reference. His duty to the subject is governed by and lies in the tort of defamation. If it were otherwise, the defence of qualified privilege in an action for defamation where a reference was given, or the necessity for the plaintiff to prove malice in an action for malicious falsehood, would be bypassed. In effect, a substantial section of the law regarding these two associated torts would be emasculated. It follows that in our judgment Tudor Evans J was wrong in Lawton v BOC Transhield Ltd to hold that the defendants in that case owed a duty of care. It appears from the report of
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that decision that there was no discussion during the hearing of the relationship between the torts of negligence and defamation.
Mr Livesey however submits that the facts of the present case create a special situation, which does not fall within the general proposition which we have just enunciated. Guardian Assurance, he argues, were obliged by r 3.5(2) of the Lautro Rules to give a reference for Mr Spring when asked to do so by Scottish Amicable. In this way they were not in the same position as most former employers, who can if they wish decline to give a reference.
In our judgment this makes no difference. Other employers are not under a legal duty to give a reference, though they are commonly thought to be under a moral or social duty to do so if a reference is requested by either the employee or the prospective employer. If, however, a former employer declines to give a reference, this may almost be as damaging to the employee as an unsatisfactory reference. In our view the position of an insurance company obliged to give a reference under the Lautro Rules is the same as that of a former employer who, when asked, agrees to give a reference for a former employee, and the law relating to the insurance company is no different from the law relating to other employers in this respect.
In the present case the judge correctly directed his mind to the modern authorities, and asked himself the correct question. He found, and we accept and agree, that the defendants should have foreseen that if what they said in the reference was untrue it would be likely to cause substantial damage to the plaintiff. Nevertheless, in our judgment the judge answered the last question, namely ‘Is it fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose a duty to take reasonable care in the provision of the reference and any material required for it of the defendants?’, incorrectly. Insurance companies and other members of Lautro are under the duty imposed by r 3.5 of the Lautro Rules because of the necessity to ensure that potential investors are protected against possibly dishonest insurance salesmen. In our view, the obligation to ‘make full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters which are believed to be true’, which in summary form incorporates the principles of the tort of defamation, is the extent of the duty owed by former employers bound by these rules. It is therefore our judgment that in the present case neither Guardian Assurance nor Corinium owed the duty of care to the plaintiff alleged in the statement of claim.
It is therefore not necessary to consider issue 2(b), ie if there were such a duty, what would constitute a breach of it.
Breach of contract
The judge held that there was no contract between the plaintiff and Guardian Assurance. We have heard from Mr Livesey a persuasive argument that he was wrong in this respect. If he was (which we do not find it necessary to decide), the essential question is: did either the plaintiff’s contract with Corinium or his contract with Guardian Assurance contain the implied term pleaded in the reamended statement of claim? This is set out in para 8 of the pleading as:
‘… that, the Defendants and/or any of them would provide a reference which was full, frank and truthful and which was in any event prepared using reasonable care.’
The judge, having referred to the decisions in Addis v Gramophone Co Ltd [1909] AC 488, [1908–10] All ER Rep 1 and The Moorcock (1889) 14 PD 64, [1886–90] All ER Rep 530, cited a sentence from the speech of Lord Edmund-Davies in Liverpool City Council v Irwin [1976] 2 All ER 39 at 54, [1977] AC 239 at 266 to the
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effect that: ‘The touchstone is always necessity and not merely reasonableness …’ (Lord Edmund-Davies’s emphasis.)
More recently Lord Bridge in Scally v Southern Health and Social Services Board (British Medical Association, third party) [1991] 4 All ER 563 at 571, [1992] 1 AC 294 at 307 drew a clear distinction between what he described as—
‘the search for an implied term necessary to give business efficacy to a particular contract and the search, based on wider considerations, for a term which the law will imply as a necessary incident of a definable category of contractual relationship.’
In our view the judge directed himself entirely correctly that he had to decide whether a term of the kind pleaded was a necessary incident of either contract. He concluded that it was not, and thus that he would not imply such a term. In our view, if the law implied any term in the plaintiff’s contract with either Guardian Assurance or Corinium in relation to this matter, such a term would go no further than to require the defendants to comply with their obligations under r 3.5(2) of the Lautro Rules, ie to give a reference which made ‘full and frank disclosure of all relevant matters which are believed to be true’. With such an obligation the judge of course held that the defendants complied.
We therefore agree with the judge that no such term as pleaded is to be implied into the contracts here.
Causation
Mr Eady QC argues that, even if negligence were established, it did not cause the damage alleged to the plaintiff. In the light of our decision to the effect that the defendants owed no duty of care, it is unnecessary to consider this argument further. We comment only that we would have been reluctant to disagree with the judge on this issue.
CONCLUSIONS
For the reasons we have given, it is our judgment that the judge’s conclusions were correct in relation to the claim under the heads of malicious falsehood and breach of contract, but incorrect in relation to the claim under the head of negligence. We therefore allow the appeal and set aside the judgment in the plaintiff’s favour.
Appeal allowed. Cross-appeal dismissed.
17 December. The court granted leave to appeal to the House of Lords.
Raina Levy Barrister.
Note
Stoke-on-Trent City Council v B & Q plc
Norwich City Council v B & Q plc
[1993] 2 All ER 297
Categories: EUROPEAN COMMUNITY; Free movement of goods
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD BRANDON OF OAKBROOK, LORD ACKNER AND LORD LOWRY
Hearing Date(s): 13, 14 MAY 1991, 2 FEBRUARY 1993
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD BRANDON OF OAKBROOK AND LORD ACKNER
31 MARCH 1993
Appeals
B & Q plc appealed directly to the House of Lords pursuant to a certificate granted by the judge under Pt II of the Administration of Justice Act 1969 from the decisions of Hoffmann J ([1991] 4 All ER 221, [1991] Ch 48) on 18 July 1990 whereby, on the appellant having undertaken that it would not open its stores in Festival Park, Hanley, Stoke-on-Trent and Westwick Street, Norwich, on Sundays for the serving of customers with goods other than those included in Sch 5 to the Shops Act 1950, the judge made no order save as to costs on the applications of the respondents, Stoke-on-Trent City Council and Norwich City Council, for injunctions restraining the appellant from opening or causing or permitting to be opened on Sundays its do-it-yourself shops for the serving of customers in breach of s 47 of the 1950 Act. After hearing argument the House of Lords, by order dated 20 May 1991, referred to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty three questions (see Case C-169/91 [1993] 1 All ER 481 at 517–518) on the interpretation of art 30 of the EEC Treaty which concerned the applicability of art 30 to s 47 of the 1950 Act. Having received the answer given by the Court of Justice (see [1993] 1 All ER 481 at 519) the House of Lords heard further submissions from the parties.
David Vaughan QC, Gerald Barling QC, Nicholas Davidson and David Anderson (instructed by Hepherd Winstanley & Pugh, Southampton) for the appellant.
Stuart Isaacs QC and Neil Calver (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard, agents for John Pickin, Stoke-on-Trent and Richard M Auton, Norwich) for the respondents.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
31 March 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, the case which is the subject of the present appeals is one of the line of cases concerned with Sunday trading which have come before the courts in recent years, in which large retailers have sought to argue that s 47 of the Shops Act 1950, which (subject to certain exceptions) prohibits Sunday trading, must be rejected as inconsistent with the prohibition in art 30 of the EEC Treaty against ‘Quantitative restrictions on imports and all measures having equivalent effect’. In the present case, that argument was rejected by Hoffmann J at first instance (see [1991] 4 All ER 221, [1991] Ch 48); and, after he had indicated that he would be prepared to grant an
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injunction, asked for by the respondent local authorities, restraining the appellant retailers, B & Q plc, from opening on Sundays, the appellants gave an undertaking to that effect. The appellants then appealed to your Lordships’ House under the leap-frog procedure. However, after hearing argument, your Lordships decided to refer certain questions to the Court of Justice of the European Communities under art 177 of the Treaty, and the hearing of the appeals was adjourned pending receipt of the answers to those questions by the European Court. These answers having now been received (see [1993] 1 All ER 481), the hearing of the appeals has been restored before the Appellate Committee.
The European context in which the question at issue in the present case has arisen is set out in Kirklees Metropolitan BC v Wickes Building Supplies Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 717 at 729–734, [1993] AC 227 at 275–279. It is unnecessary to rehearse the European jurisprudence again in the present case. It is sufficient for present purposes to record that the question of the impact of art 30 on s 47 of the 1950 Act was first raised before the European Court of Justice in Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case 145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129, [1990] 2 QB 19. The answer then given by the Court of Justice of the European Communities was ([1990] 1 All ER 129 at 157, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 53):
‘… art 30 of the Treaty must be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national rules prohibiting retailers from opening their premises on Sunday where the restrictive effects on Community trade which may result therefrom do not exceed the effects intrinsic to rules of that kind.’
This answer led to a large number of cases up and down this country in which the issue of proportionality was raised and answered as a question of fact, on the basis of evidence from expert witnesses. However, when the present case came before Hoffmann J he solved the problem on the basis that all the relevant facts were properly matters of judicial notice; and it was on that basis that he dismissed the arguments of the appellants and indicated that he was prepared to grant an injunction.
Before the present appeal first came before the Appellate Committee of your Lordships’ House, the Court of Justice of the European Communities had given judgment in two related cases, known as the Conforama and Marchandise cases (see Union départmentale des syndicats CGT de l’Aisne v SIDEF Conforama Case C-312/89 [1991] ECR I–997 and Criminal proceedings against Marchandise Case C-332/89 [1991] ECR I–1027), concerned with similar although not precisely identical subject matter to the Sunday trading prohibited by s 47 of the 1950 Act. In its judgment in those cases (as to which see [1992] 3 All ER 717 at 730–732, [1993] AC 227 at 277–279), the Court of Justice, urged by Mr Advocate General van Gerven to accept the argument of the Commission that assessment of the need for and proportionality of specific legislation cannot be left to the national courts, substantially departed from its previous approach in the Torfaen case. Indeed, at the first hearing of the present appeals before your Lordships, Mr Isaacs QC for the respondents submitted that it was now clear from those decisions of the European Court that in the Sunday trading cases it was no longer appropriate for a national court to investigate any issue of proportionality, and that the Torfaen case should no longer be understood as requiring any such investigation. However, your Lordships’ House felt compelled to make a reference to the Court of Justice of the European Communities under art 177, and posed three questions for consideration by the court, of which the first was as follows ([1993] 1 All ER 481 at 517–518):
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‘Whether the effect of the Court of Justice’s rulings in Case C-312/89 Conforama and C-332/89 Marchandise is to determine that the prohibition contained in Article 30 of the EEC Treaty does not apply to national rules, such as those in issue in Case 145/88 Torfaen Borough Council v. B & Q plc, which prohibit retailers from opening their premises on Sunday for the serving of customers with certain goods.’
To that question, the Court of Justice has now provided an unequivocal answer ([1993] 1 All ER 481 at 519):
‘… art 30 of the Treaty is to be interpreted as meaning that the prohibition which it lays down does not apply to national legislation prohibiting retailers from opening their premises on Sundays.’
Since the other two questions posed for the court only arose if the first question was answered in the negative, the court did not answer them, and they are no longer of any relevance in the present appeals.
This answer makes it plain that the present appeal must fail, and indeed this was accepted by the appellants before the Appellate Committee. The appellants nevertheless referred to the criticisms previously advanced by them of the judgment of Hoffmann J, in relation to his approach to the issue of proportionality and his invocation of the principle of judicial notice; and they invited your Lordships to express an opinion on the approach so adopted by the learned judge. However, in view of the answer of the Court of Justice of the European Communities, these matters are no longer relevant. Any comments upon them which your Lordships might make would be obiter; and in these circumstances it would, in my opinion, be undesirable for your Lordships to respond to this invitation of the appellants. For my part, therefore, I would simply dismiss the appeals with costs.
LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the appeal with costs.
LORD BRANDON OF OAKBROOK. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. I agree with it and for the reasons which he gives I would dismiss the appeals.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives, I too would dismiss the appeal with costs.
Appeals dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Harries and others v Church Commissioners for England and another
[1993] 2 All ER 300
Categories: TRUSTS: CHARITIES
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C
Hearing Date(s): 7, 8, 9, 25 OCTOBER 1991
Charity – Trustee – Investment policy – Duty of trustee – Duty to further purposes of trust – Church Commissioners for England – Management of assets – Whether trustees of charitable trust required to obtain maximum return consistent with commercial prudence – Whether commissioners obliged to take non-financial considerations into account when making investment decisions – Whether commissioners’ investment decisions incompatible with object of promoting Christian faith through Church of England.
The Church Commissioners for England, a charitable body corporate established in 1947, were required to keep a general fund into which they were required to carry all income received in respect of property and funds held by them and to discharge out of it all trusts and commitments to which that income was subject. The commissioners administered estates and assets worth some £2.645bn producing some £164m in investment income out of which in 1990 the commissioners provided almost half the costs of the stipends of Church of England serving clergy, much of their housing costs and almost all of their pension costs. The commissioners’ assets committee had the exclusive power and duty to act on behalf of the commissioners in all matters relating to the management of those assets in accordance with the commissioners’ investment policy, which was that financial return was the primary importance of any investment, given the commissioners’ position as trustees, but proper account was to be taken of social, ethical and environmental issues’ so that for example there was no investment in companies whose main business was in armaments, gambling, alcohol, tobacco or newspapers. The plaintiffs brought proceedings against the commissioners seeking declarations that the commissioners were obliged to have regard to the object of promoting the Christian faith through the established Church of England and not to act in a manner which would be incompatible with that object when managing their assets. The plaintiffs contended that in making investment decisions the commissioners attached overriding importance to financial considerations and that their policy was erroneous in law in that they were only prepared to take non-financial considerations into account to the extent that such considerations did not significantly jeopardise or interfere with accepted investment principles.
Held – It was axiomatic that charity trustees were concerned to further the purposes of the trust of which they had accepted the office of trustee. When property was held by trustees for the purpose of generating money, whether from income or capital growth, with which to further the work of the trust, prima facie the purposes of the trust were best served by the trustees seeking to obtain the maximum return which was consistent with commercial prudence, and in most cases the best interests of the charity required that the trustees’ choice of investments be made solely on the basis of well-established investment criteria. Accordingly, the circumstances in which charity trustees were bound or entitled to make a financially disadvantageous investment decision for ethical reasons were extremely limited and there was no evidence to suggest any such circumstance existed in the case of the Church Commissioners. The court would not grant the declarations sought since it was clear that the commissioners did
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have an ethical investment policy and that in managing their investments they did seek to have regard to the object for which they were established, namely to achieve the promotion of the Christian faith through the established Church of England (see p 304 a to f, p 305 b c, p 307 h, p 308 d e and p 310 b c, post).
Notes
For the Church Commissioners’ functions, see 14 Halsbury’ Laws (4th edn) paras 371, 376, 383.
For the general powers of trustees of a charitable trust to invest, see 5 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 818 and 48 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 862, and for cases on the subject, see 8(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 634–636, 5036–5046 and 48 Digest (Reissue) 598–600, 5439–5448.
Cases referred to in judgment
Buttle v Saunders [1950] 2 All ER 193.
Cowan v Scargill [1984] 2 All ER 750, [1985] Ch 270, [1984] 3 WLR 501.
Liverpool and District Hospital for Diseases of the Heart v A-G [1981] 1 All ER 994, [1981] Ch 193, [1981] 2 WLR 379.
Cases also cited
Construction Industry Training Board v A-G [1972] 2 All ER 339, [1973] Ch 173, CA.
Hampton Fuel Allotment Charity, Re [1989] Ch 484, CA.
Malone v Comr of Police of the Metropolis (No 2) [1979] 2 All ER 620, [1979] Ch 344.
Marlin v City of Edinburgh DC 1988 SLT 329, Ct of Sess.
Moxon’s Will Trusts, Re, Downey v Moxon [1958] 1 All ER 386, [1958] 1 WLR 165.
Powles (decd), Re, Little v Powles [1954] 1 All ER 516, [1954] 1 WLR 336.
Snowden (decd), Re [1969] 3 All ER 208; [1970] Ch 700.
Summons
By a summons dated 4 July 1990 issued by the plaintiffs, the Rt Rev Richard Douglas Harries, Lord Bishop of Oxford, the Ven Michael Bourke, Archdeacon of Bedford, and the Rev William Whiffen, against the Church Commissioners for England and the Attorney General, the plaintiffs sought declarations (1) that the church commissioners, the board of governors of the commissioners and the board’s assets committee respectively, in exercising their various functions under the Church Commissioners Measure 1947 in relation to the management of the assets under the control of the commissioners, were obliged to have regard to the object of promoting the Christian faith through the established Church of England and (2) that, in the exercise of those functions, the board of governors and the assets committee could not act in a manner which would be incompatible with that object. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Timothy Lloyd QC and Launcelot Henderson (instructed by Bates Wells & Braithwaite) for the plaintiffs.
Robert Walker QC and Christopher Nugee (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the commissioners.
David Unwin (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Attorney General.
Cur adv vult
25 October 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. The Church Commissioners for England administer vast estates and large funds. At the end of 1990 their holdings of land
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were valued at about £1.7bn, their mortgages and loans at about £165m and their stock exchange investments at about £780m. In 1990 these items yielded altogether an investment income of £164m. The commissioners’ income included also some £66m derived principally from parish and diocesan contributions to clergy stipends. So the commissioners’ total income last year was £230m.
The needs which the commissioners seek to satisfy out of this income are daunting. In 1990 they provided almost one-half of the costs of the stipends of the Church of England serving clergy, much of their housing costs, and almost all their pension costs. These items absorbed over 85% of the commissioners’ income: that is a sum of almost £200m. Unfortunately, this does not mean that the clergy are well remunerated or that the retired clergy receive good pensions. Far from it. The commissioners’ income has to be spread widely, and hence thinly, over 11,400 serving clergy and 10,100 clergy pensioners and widows. So, as is well known, the amount each receives is not generous. In 1990–91 the national average stipend of incumbents was only £11,308. The full-service pension from April 1991 was £6,700 per year.
For some time there have been voices in the Church of England expressing disquiet at the investment policy of the commissioners. They do not question either the good faith or the investment expertise of the commissioners. Their concern is not that the commissioners have failed to get the best financial return from their property and investments. Their concern is that, in making investment decisions, the commissioners are guided too rigorously by purely financial considerations, and that the commissioners give insufficient weight to what are now called ‘ethical’ considerations. They contend, moreover, that the commissioners have fallen into legal error. The commissioners attach overriding importance to financial considerations, and that is a misapprehension of the approach they ought properly to adopt when making investment decisions. The commissioners ought to have in mind that the underlying purpose for which they hold their assets is the promotion of the Christian faith through the Church of England. The commissioners should not exercise their investment functions in a manner which would be incompatible with that purpose even if that involves a risk of incurring significant financial detriment. So these proceedings, seeking declaratory relief, were launched by the Bishop of Oxford, who is himself a church commissioner, the Archdeacon of Bedford, and the Rev William Whiffen, a parish priest, with the support of the Christian Ethical Investment Group. This is a body set up in 1988 with the object of ‘promoting a stronger ethical investment policy in the Church of England’. I understand that by an ethical investment policy is meant an investment policy which is not guided solely by financial criteria but which takes into account non-financial considerations deduced from Christian morality.
The Church Commissioners
I must first say something about the commissioners. Their constitution is set out in the Church Commissioners Measure 1947, as amended by the Church Commissioners Measures 1964 and 1970. Church Measures, when they have received the royal assent, have the force and effect of an Act of Parliament: see s 4 of the Church of England Assembly (Powers) Act 1919, as amended. The 1947 Measure incorporated the Church Commissioners as a corporate body. The incorporated body comprises the Archbishops of Canterbury and York, the three church estates commissioners, the 41 diocesan bishops, five deans, ten clergy and ten laymen appointed by the General Synod, together with a number of other individuals ex officio or nominated by the Crown or by others. The board of governors, which consists principally of 27 commissioners, has overall responsi-
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bility for carrying on the commissioners’ business. One of the committees is known as the assets committee. Subject to any general rules made by the board for the committee’ direction and guidance, the assets committee has the exclusive power and duty to act for the commissioners in all matters relating to the management of those assets of the commissioners the income of which is carried into their general fund, including power to sell, purchase, exchange, and let land and make, realise, and change investments. I pause to interpose that it is with the management of those assets that these proceedings are concerned. No rules have been made by the board of governors for the direction or guidance of the assets committee, but the committee regularly seeks the views of the board on important aspects of investment policy. The assets committee has a lay majority. It comprises the first church estates commissioner, one commissioner who is a clerk in holy orders, and between three and five lay commissioners appointed by the Archbishop of Canterbury as persons who in his opinion are well qualified to assist in the management of the assets of the commissioners.
The commissioners were established for the purpose of uniting two bodies: Queen Anne’s Bounty and the Ecclesiastical Commissioners. On the appointed day, which was 1 April 1948, those two bodies were dissolved, all their property was vested in the commissioners, and ‘all functions, rights and privileges’ of the two predecessor bodies were transferred to and became functions, rights and privileges of the commissioners (s 2 of the 1947 Measure). Section 10 is concerned with finance. So far as is material, sub-s (6) provides:
‘… the Commissioners shall carry all income received in respect of property and funds held by them into their general fund, and shall discharge thereout [all expenses etc], and the balance from time to time thereafter remaining in the said fund shall be available for any purpose for which, but for this Measure, any surplus of the common fund of the Ecclesiastical Commissioners or of the corporate fund of Queen Anne’s Bounty would have been available.’
Thus to ascertain the functions of the present-day commissioners, and the purposes for which their income is applicable, it is necessary to travel back as far as 1704, to the charter founding the ‘Governors of the bounty of Queen Anne for the augmentation of the maintenance of the poor clergy’, and to the Ecclesiastical Commissioners Acts 1836 and 1840.
I shall have to return and make that journey presently. For the moment it is sufficient to note, first, that s 10(6) is a direction regarding the application of income. Section 10 contains no general provision requiring or authorising the commissioners to apply capital. Second, the direction in s 10(6) regarding the application of the balance of income of the general fund is for a purpose which is exclusively charitable. Third, the commissioners are in law a charity. Fourth, the assets in question are held by the commissioners as a corporate body’s property and applicable in accordance with its constitution. The assets are not, strictly, vested in trustees and held by them upon defined trusts: see Liverpool and District Hospital for Diseases of the Heart v A-G [1981] 1 All ER 994 at 1006, [1981] Ch 193 at 209. For present purposes, however, nothing turns upon this distinction. Whatever significance this distinction may or may not have in other contexts, in the context of the issues arising in these proceedings the commissioners’ position is no different from what it would be if the commissioners were unincorporated and they held the assets formally as trustees.
Charity trustees and investment powers
Before going further into the criticism made of the commissioners I will consider the general principles applicable to the exercise of powers of investment
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by charity trustees. It is axiomatic that charity trustees, in common with all other trustees, are concerned to further the purposes of the trust of which they have accepted the office of trustee. That is their duty. To enable them the better to discharge that duty, trustees have powers vested in them. Those powers must be exercised for the purpose for which they have been given: to further the purposes of the trust. That is the guiding principle applicable to the issues in these proceedings. Everything which follows is no more than the reasoned application of that principle in particular contexts.
Broadly speaking, property held by charity trustees falls into two categories. First, there is property held by trustees for what may be called functional purposes. The National Trust owns historic houses and open spaces. The Salvation Army owns hostels for the destitute. And many charities need office accommodation in which to carry out essential administrative work. Second, there is property held by trustees for the purpose of generating money, whether from income or capital growth, with which to further the work of the trust. In other words, property held by trustees as an investment. Where property is so held, prima facie the purposes of the trust will be best served by the trustees seeking to obtain therefrom the maximum return, whether by way of income or capital growth, which is consistent with commercial prudence. That is the starting point for all charity trustees when considering the exercise of their investment powers. Most charities need money; and the more of it there is available, the more the trustees can seek to accomplish.
In most cases this prima facie position will govern the trustees’ conduct. In most cases the best interests of the charity require that the trustees’ choice of investments should be made solely on the basis of well-established investment criteria, having taken expert advice where appropriate and having due regard to such matters as the need to diversify, the need to balance income against capital growth, and the need to balance risk against return.
In a minority of cases the position will not be so straightforward. There will be some cases, I suspect comparatively rare, when the objects of the charity are such that investments of a particular type would conflict with the aims of the charity. Much-cited examples are those of cancer research charities and tobacco shares, trustees of temperance charities and brewery and distillery shares, and trustees of charities of the Society of Friends and shares in companies engaged in production of armaments. If, as would be likely in those examples, trustees were satisfied that investing in a company engaged in a particular type of business would conflict with the very objects their charity is seeking to achieve, they should not so invest. Carried to its logical conclusion the trustees should take this course even if it would be likely to result in significant financial detriment to the charity. The logical conclusion, whilst sound as a matter of legal analysis, is unlikely to arise in practice. It is not easy to think of an instance where in practice the exclusion for this reason of one or more companies or sectors from the whole range of investments open to trustees would be likely to leave them without an adequately wide range of investments from which to choose a properly diversified portfolio.
There will also be some cases, again I suspect comparatively rare, when trustees’ holdings of particular investments might hamper a charity’s work either by making potential recipients of aid unwilling to be helped because of the source of the charity’s money, or by alienating some of those who support the charity financially. In these cases the trustees will need to balance the difficulties they would encounter, or likely financial loss they would sustain, if they were to hold the investments against the risk of financial detriment if those investments were excluded from their portfolio. The greater the risk of financial detriment, the
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more certain the trustees should be of countervailing disadvantages to the charity before they incur that risk.
Another circumstance where trustees would be entitled, or even required, to take into account non-financial criteria would be where the trust deed so provides.
No doubt there will be other cases where trustees are justified in departing from what should always be their starting point. The instances I have given are not comprehensive. But I must emphasise that of their very nature, and by definition, investments are held by trustees to aid the work of the charity in a particular way: by generating money. That is the purpose for which they are held. That is their raison d’être. Trustees cannot properly use assets held as an investment for other, viz non-investment, purposes. To the extent that they do they are not properly exercising their powers of investment. This is not to say that trustees who own land may not act as responsible landlords or those who own shares may not act as responsible shareholders. They may. The law is not so cynical as to require trustees to behave in a fashion which would bring them or their charity into disrepute (although their consciences must not be too tender: see Buttle v Saunders [1950] 2 All ER 193). On the other hand, trustees must act prudently. They must not use property held by them for investment purposes as a means for making moral statements at the expense of the charity of which they are trustees. Those who wish may do so with their own property, but that is not a proper function of trustees with trust assets held as an investment.
I should mention one other particular situation. There will be instances today when those who support or benefit from a charity take widely different views on a particular type of investment, some saying that on moral grounds it conflicts with the aims of the charity, others saying the opposite. One example is the holding of arms industry shares by a religious charity. There is a real difficulty here. To many questions raising moral issues there are no certain answers. On moral questions widely differing views are held by well-meaning, responsible people. This is not always so. But frequently, when questions of the morality of conduct are being canvassed, there is no identifiable yardstick which can be applied to a set of facts so as to yield one answer which can be seen to be ‘right’ and the other ‘wrong’. If that situation confronts trustees of a charity, the law does not require them to find an answer to the unanswerable. Trustees may, if they wish, accommodate the views of those who consider that on moral grounds a particular investment would be in conflict with the objects of the charity, so long as the trustees are satisfied that course would not involve a risk of significant financial detriment. But when they are not so satisfied trustees should not make investment decisions on the basis of preferring one view of whether on moral grounds an investment conflicts with the objects of the charity over another. This is so even when one view is more widely supported than the other.
I have sought above to consider charity trustees’ duties in relation to investment as a matter of basic principle. I was referred to no authority bearing directly on these matters. My attention was drawn to Cowan v Scargill [1984] 2 All ER 750, [1985] Ch 270, a case concerning a pension fund. I believe the views I have set out accord with those expressed by Megarry V-C in that case, bearing in mind that he was considering trusts for the provision of financial benefits for individuals. In this case I am concerned with trusts of charities, whose purposes are multifarious.
The commissioners’ objects
I turn next to the commissioners’ objects. As already noted, it is necessary to go back to the objects of the two constituent bodies which became united in the
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commissioners in 1947. First, Queen Anne’s Bounty. Here it is sufficient to refer to one passage from the 1704 charter. The ‘bounty’ consisted of the grant by the Crown to the governors of certain ‘first fruits and yearly perpetual tenths’ to which the Crown had become entitled at the Reformation. These revenues were—
‘to be applied and disposed of by the said Governors hereby constituted, to and for the augmentation of the maintenance of such Parsons, Vicars, Curates, and Ministers officiating in any Church or Chapel within the kingdom of England, dominion of Wales, and town of Berwick upon Tweed where the liturgy and rites of the Church of England as now by law established, are or shall be used and observed … in such manner … as shall be established pursuant to these presents.’
Thus, in short, financial provision was made for certain clergy of the Church of England. Between 1704 and 1947 the functions of Queen Anne’s Bounty were extended, but they remained primarily and principally provision of financial assistance and housing for the lower clergy.
Second, the Ecclesiastical Commissioners. They were incorporated by the 1836 Act. Here again it is sufficient to refer to one section. Section 67 of the 1840 Act provided for the application of the revenues which under that Act became payable to the commissioners. These revenues were directed to be carried by the commissioners to a common fund, and by payments thereout or by the conveyance of lands—
‘additional provision shall be made … for the cure of souls in parishes where such assistance is most required, in such manner as shall … be deemed most conducive to the efficiency of the Established Church …’
Before me there was some argument over the precise width of this section. It is sufficient for the purpose of these proceedings to say that s 67 is concerned with making additional (financial) provision by payments out of the common fund ‘for the cure of souls in parishes’. In its context that must mean making financial provision for those who have the cure of souls. The Ecclesiastical Commissioners, as much as the governors of Queen Anne’s Bounty, were charged with providing financial assistance for clergy of the Church of England.
This, then, under s 10(6) of the 1947 Measure, became the purpose for which after 1 April 1948 the balance of the general fund established by the 1947 Measure was applicable by the commissioners. For completeness I add that from time to time other Measures have made express provision for the application of the general fund for other particular purposes, such as loans or grants to the church urban fund. Nothing turns on these other Measures for present purposes.
The commissioners’ investment policy
The commissioners’ investment policy is set out in their annual report for 1989 in terms I should quote in full:
‘The primary aim in the management of our assets is to produce the best total return, that is capital and income growth combined. While financial responsibilities must remain of primary importance (given our position as trustees), as responsible investors we also continue to take proper account of social, ethical and environmental issues. As people become increasingly aware of the many factors which can adversely affect both their own and other people’ lives, so we must be responsive to these areas of concern. As
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regards our Stock Exchange holdings this means that we do not invest in companies whose main business is armaments, gambling, alcohol, tobacco and newspapers: it also means that we must continue to be vigilant in our monitoring of the activities of those companies where we do have a shareholding. Our practice is to follow up with senior management any major criticisms of a particular company’s activities through confidential correspondence and, where appropriate, direct discussions. Our aim is to establish facts, to see whether there is any basis for the criticism and to evaluate what action the company has taken or is prepared to take if the criticism is justified. Each case is considered on its merits. The ultimate pressure we can bring to bear is that of disinvestment. The paradox of doing so is that we then lose any opportunity to use our influence for good. Our policy with regard to investment and South Africa remains unchanged. We do not invest in any South African company nor in any other company where more than a small part of their business is in South Africa. Where we do invest in a company with a small stake in South Africa we try to ensure that it follows enlightened social and employment policies, so far as is possible within the system of apartheid of which we have repeatedly expressed our abhorrence. In common with the rest of the Church, we welcome the important political developments since the end of 1989 and hope that the momentum will be sustained. On the property side, although we shall continue to seek out development possibilities so as to discharge our duties as trustees, we are conscious of the effect of our actions upon local communities and their perceptions of the Church as a whole. We shall therefore continue to ensure that environmental considerations are properly taken into account when development schemes arise. In particular, during the year we have introduced new procedures for keeping Bishops, incumbents and local church members informed whenever we are involved in a scheme affecting their community. We are also keen to find investments which respond positively to specific areas of concern in our society. We were glad therefore that our development of four small light industrial units at Walsall was completed during 1989. We believe that in direct property investments such as this we can set an example of what help can be given to small businesses wishing to expand, particularly in Urban Priority Areas, although only a small proportion of our total funds can be invested in this way. However, if we can influence others to respond in a similar way it will do much to improve the quality of life of those living in areas of high unemployment.’
It will be seen, therefore, that the commissioners do have an ‘ethical’ investment policy. They have followed such a policy for many years. Indeed, they have done so ever since they were constituted in 1948. Let me say at once that I can see nothing in this statement of policy which is inconsistent with the general principles I have sought to expound above.
The statement of policy records that the commissioners do not invest in companies whose main business is in armaments, gambling, alcohol, tobacco or newspapers. Of these, newspapers fall into a category of their own. The commissioners’ policy regarding newspapers is based on the fact that many newspapers are associated, to a greater or lesser extent, with a particular political party or political view. Leaving aside newspapers, the underlying rationale of the commissioners’ policy on these items is that there is a body of members of the Church of England opposed to the businesses in question on religious or moral grounds. There are members who believe these business activities are morally
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wrong, and that they are in conflict with Christian teaching and its moral values. But this list has only to be read for it to be obvious that many committed members of the Church of England take the contrary view. To say that not all members of the Church of England eschew gambling, alcohol or tobacco would be an understatement. As to armaments, the morality of war, and the concept of a ‘just war’, are issues which have been debated for centuries. These are moral questions on which no single view can be shown to be ‘right’ and the others ‘wrong’. As I understand the position, the commissioners have felt able to exclude these items from their investments despite the conflicting views on the morality of holding these items as investments because there has remained open to the commissioners an adequate width of alternative investments.
I have already indicated that at the heart of the plaintiffs’ case is a contention that the commissioners’ policy is erroneous in law in that the commissioners are only prepared to take non-financial considerations into account to the extent that such considerations do not significantly jeopardise or interfere with accepted investment principles. I think it is implicit, if not explicit, in the commissioners’ evidence that they do regard themselves as constrained in this way. So far as I have been able to see, this is the only issue identifiable as an issue of law raised in these proceedings. In my view this self-constraint applied by the commissioners is not one which in practice has led to any error of law on their part, nor is it likely to do so. I have already indicated that the circumstances in which charity trustees are bound or entitled to make a financially disadvantageous investment decision for ethical reasons are extremely limited. I have noted that it is not easy to think of a practical example of such a circumstance. There is no evidence before me to suggest that any such circumstance exists here.
The evidence does show that the commissioners have declined to adopt financially disadvantageous policies advocated by, among others, the Bishop of Oxford. In October 1989 his bishop’s council passed a resolution urging his diocesan board of finance to adopt certain specific criteria in relation to South Africa. For example, investments should not be directly or indirectly in groups of companies (other than banks, for the time being) which derived more than £10m in annual profits from South Africa or more than 3% of their worldwide profits from South African activities. As to that, the commissioners’ ethical policy excludes about 13% of listed United Kingdom companies (by value) from consideration. The companies in which the commissioners hold shares that would be excluded under the suggested criteria would comprise a further 24% (by value) of listed United Kingdom companies, making a total exclusion of about 37%. The part of the market excluded by the criteria would include some of the largest United Kingdom companies whose shares make up a very important part of the commissioners’ total portfolio. The criteria would exclude two companies which make up 65% of the oil sector, and a further two companies which make up 62% of the chemical sector of the UK equity market. Not surprisingly, the commissioners’ view is that a portfolio thus restricted would be much less balanced and diversified, and they would not regard it as prudent or in the interests of those for whom they provide.
The investment issue raised by this resolution is another example of a moral question to which there can be no certain answer. The commissioners do not invest in a company where more than a small part of its business is in South Africa. The policy advocated by the Bishop of Oxford’s council does not seek to exclude every company which has a South African business connection. The council’s policy embodies fixed, and to this extent, artificial limits on the degree of South African involvement which is acceptable. As between these two
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alternatives, there can be no right or wrong answer. This is a question of degree, and whether Christian ethics require a more restrictive policy than that adopted by the commissioners is a matter on which there can be literally endless argument and debate. The commissioners are therefore right not to prefer one view over the other beyond the point at which they would incur a risk of significant financial detriment.
Another example raised before me concerned land owned by the commissioners in a village where local young people are finding housing impossible to afford. Such land, it was suggested by the plaintiffs, could be made available for low-cost housing at a price below open-market value. Investing instead in a more expensive housing development with a higher rate of return would undermine the credibility of the Christian message by the affront such a policy would cause to the needs and consciences of local people. I do not think this example advances the plaintiffs’ case. The commissioners are not a housing charity. There is force in the commissioners’ contention that local housing needs are or should be reflected in local planning policies. When planning permission is available for a particular type of development, it is not a proper function for the commissioners to sell their land at an undervalue in order to further a social objective on which the local planning authority has taken a different view. This, once more, is an illustration of a circumstance in which different minds within the Church of England, applying the highest moral standards, will reach different conclusions. If the commissioners’ land is to be disposed of at an undervalue, they need an express power to do so. Such a disposition cannot properly be made in exercise of their power to make and change investments.
The relief claimed
In these proceedings the commissioners are not themselves seeking directions from the court, nor are they surrendering to the court the exercise of any of their discretionary powers. I turn to the relief claimed, to consider whether nevertheless the declarations sought would furnish useful guidance for them. The plaintiffs claim two declarations: (1) that the commissioners, the board of governors and the assets committee respectively, in exercising their various functions under the Church Commissioners Measure 1947 in relation to the management of the assets the income of which is carried to the general fund of the commissioners, are obliged to have regard to the object of promoting the Christian faith through the established Church of England; and (2) that in the exercise of those functions, the board of governors and the assets committee may not act in a manner which would be incompatible with that object.
The fundamental difficulty I have with these declarations is their ambiguity. The objects of a charity can be stated at different levels of generality. Stated at one level of generality, the object which the financial payments made by the commissioners seek to achieve is the promotion of the Christian faith through the established Church of England. That is not in dispute. And it is clear that in managing their investments the commissioners do have regard to that object. That is shown by their ethical investment policy. Thus there is no need for the court to make the first declaration. But the matter goes further. The first declaration is not merely unnecessary. ‘Have regard to the object’ is a loose phrase and there is a real danger it will mean all things to all men. Such a declaration should not be made.
Likewise with the second declaration. The phrase I have used above when considering the position of charity trustees is ‘conflict with’. In the course of argument many other phrases, synonymous to a greater or lesser extent, were
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canvassed before me: directly contrary to, inimical to, inconsistent with, undermine, defeat, incompatible with. Each of these phrases has its own shades of meaning. I certainly do not claim that ‘conflict with’ is superior to all others. There may be circumstances where other phrases would be more helpful and apt. But it seems to me that, in general, this phrase encapsulates as well as any other, and better than some, the principle which is involved. Even so, and even if this change were made to the wording of the second declaration, I do not think such a declaration would be of assistance to the commissioners. In particular, it would not deal with how the commissioners should proceed when confronted with differing views on whether, on moral grounds, a proper investment is in conflict with the objects the commissioners are seeking to promote. I shall therefore not make either declaration.
I add only this. In bringing these proceedings the Bishop of Oxford and his colleagues are actuated by the highest moral concern. But, as I have sought to show, the approach they wish the commissioners to adopt to investment decisions would involve a departure by the commissioners from their legal obligations. Whether such a departure would or would not be desirable is, of course, not an issue in these proceedings. That is a matter to be pursued, if at all, elsewhere than in this court.
Declarations refused.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall, ex parte Salinger and another
[1993] 2 All ER 310
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): STUART-SMITH LJ AND POPPLEWELL J
Hearing Date(s): 17, 25 MARCH 1992
Criminal evidence – Special procedure material – Terrorist investigation – Order for production of special procedure material – Ex parte application – Evidence in support of application to be made available to person ordered to produce special procedure material – Application to discharge order – Whether statement of evidence given to judge to be served with order – Whether applicant entitled to see information put before judge at ex parte hearing – Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989, Sch 7, para 3.
On 27 November 1991 the first applicant, a journalist working for the second applicant, a television news network, went to Libya to interview two men who had been charged in the United States and Scotland with offences in connection with a terrorist bomb explosion which caused the crash of Pan Am Flight 103 at Lockerbie in Scotland in 1988. The first applicant recorded interviews lasting one hour 20 minutes on videotape, of which one and a half minutes were broadcast. On 19 December police officers investigating the explosion visited the second applicant’s offices and interviewed the first applicant. He showed them some 20 minutes of the video recording but refused to show them the rest of the tapes. On 4 March 1992 a police officer applied ex parte to a circuit judge for an order under para 3a of Sch 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act
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1989 requiring the applicants to produce the videotapes on the grounds that they were ‘excluded’ or ‘special procedure’ material, ie journalistic material held in confidence or other journalistic material, which was nevertheless required to be produced to the police under court order if the judge was satisfied, inter alia, that a terrorist investigation was being carried out and that the material was likely to be of substantial value to the investigation. The judge made the order sought. When the order was served on the applicants it was not accompanied by a statement of the evidence given to the judge on which he had expressed himself to be satisfied that it was proper to make the order. The applicants applied inter partes to discharge the order, contending that the statement of evidence given to the judge should have been served with the order or that the applicants were entitled to hear the evidence in the same form and from the same witness who had given evidence at the ex parte hearing. The judge refused to discharge the order. The applicants applied for judicial review of the judge’s decision, contending, inter alia, that the recipient of an order under para 3 was entitled to see the same information which was put before the judge.
Held – (1) The recipient of an order for the production of ‘excluded’ or ‘special procedure’ material made under para 3 of Sch 7 of the 1989 Act was entitled to be given as much information as could properly be provided to him as to the grounds for the application for the order but it would rarely be appropriate or necessary for the police to disclose the source of their information to the recipient. Such information as could be provided ought to be provided, preferably in writing, as early as possible provided that was consistent with the security of the operation and should in any event be provided either at the time the order was served on the recipient or, if he decided to make an application to discharge or vary the order, before or at the time of the hearing of the application. In particular: (i) the ex parte application should be accompanied by a written statement of the material evidence on which the police officer wished to rely to persuade the judge that the conditions for making an order had been fulfilled; the statement should normally contain the nature of the information available to the police unless it was too secret to be disclosed but it should not disclose the nature or source of that information if, as was likely to be the case, it was sensitive; the police officer should appear before the judge to supplement his statement by oral evidence; (ii) if the judge was satisfied that the conditions for making an order had been met and decided to make the order, he should give directions as to what, if any, information should be served with the order itself; it was normally desirable that that should take the form of a written statement from the police officer; (iii) if the judge decided that it was inappropriate for any information other than that which was contained in the order itself to be served on the recipient at the time the order was made, he should consider whether such other information should be served in the event of an application to discharge or vary being made; and (iv) an application to discharge or vary an order should where possible be made to the judge who made the ex parte order with the same officer who gave oral evidence at that application being present (see p 318 h to p 319 a c to p 320 a, post.
(2) On the facts, although it would have been preferable if material justifying the judge’s order had been given to the applicants in writing, it was clear that such information had been provided to them orally when they were first interviewed by the police officers on 19 December and, furthermore, the applicants could have obtained further information from the officer who was available to give evidence at the inter partes hearing of the application to discharge the order. It followed that there was nothing unlawful in the order made by the judge, nor was it rendered unlawful by the fact that when it was served it was not
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accompanied by any statement of evidence or that no statement was served before the hearing. The application would therefore be dismissed (see p 320 b to e g h, post).
Per curiam. On an inter partes hearing of an application to discharge an order made under para 3 of Sch 7 of the 1989 Act the judge is entitled to re-examine the order on its merits and is not restricted to determining whether it was unclear, imprecise, technically defective or made against a person who did not have the relevant material. Furthermore, there is no onus on the applicant to satisfy the judge that the ex parte order was wrongly made (see p 320 d f g, post).
Notes
For orders for production of excluded or special procedure material, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 133.
For the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989, Sch 7, para 3, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1337.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Aylesbury Justices, ex p Wisbey [1965] 1 All ER 602, [1965] 1 WLR 339, DC.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Adegbesan [1986] 3 All ER 113, [1986] 1 WLR 1292, DC.
R v Crown Court at Inner London Sessions, ex p Baines & Baines (a firm) [1987] 3 All ER 1025, [1988] QB 579, [1988] 2 WLR 549, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Taylor [1988] 2 All ER 769, [1988] 1 WLR 705, DC.
WEA Records Ltd v Visions Channel 4 Ltd [1983] 2 All ER 589, [1983] 1 WLR 721, CA.
Cases also cited
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Ellis Carr (1987) Independent, 5 March, DC.
R v Epping and Harlow General Comrs, ex p Goldstraw [1983] 3 All ER 257, QBD and CA.
Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66, [1964] AC 40, HL.
Application for judicial review
Pierre Salinger and ABC News Intercontinental Inc applied, with the leave of Popplewell J given on 13 March 1992, for judicial review by way of (1) orders of certiorari to quash: (a) the production order dated 4 March 1992 made against the applicants by Judge Clarkson QC sitting in the Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall under para 3 of Sch 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 and (b) the orders dated 12 March 1992 whereby, inter alia: (i) the applicants were refused an order that Det Insp Norman McKinlay serve on them any grounds put before the judge on the application for the production order and (ii) the applicants’ application dated 9 March 1992 under para 4 of Sch 7 to the 1989 Act seeking the discharge of the production order was dismissed; and (2) orders of mandamus to the Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall to compel the court, inter alia, to order that Det Insp McKinlay serve on the applicants any grounds placed before Judge Clarkson on the application for the production order on 4 March 1992. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Sir Patrick Neill QC and Dominic Dowley (instructed by Marriott & Co) for the applicants.
Peter Clarke (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the respondent.
Cur adv vult
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25 March 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ.
Introduction
This is an application for judicial review of an order made by Judge Clarkson QC sitting in the Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall on 4 March 1992 pursuant to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989, Sch 7, para 3 for production of certain video recordings and other documents. The applicants seek an order of certiorari to quash that order. They also seek judicial review of certain orders made by the same judge on 12 March 1992 refusing to order that Det Insp McKinlay serve upon the applicants the grounds which were put before the judge when he made his order of 4 March and dismissing the application to discharge the production order. They seek an order for certiorari of those orders and certain further orders of mandamus.
These applications for judicial review are brought pursuant to leave granted by Popplewell J on Friday, 13 March 1992. The case raised an important point of principle and procedure in relation to Sch 7 of the 1989 Act.
The facts
On 21 December 1988 Pan American World Airways Flight 103 crashed at Lockerbie in Scotland, killing 270 people. The crash was caused by the explosion of a bomb which was obviously the work of terrorists. Following a lengthy inquiry, on 14 November 1991 a grand jury in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia indicted two citizens of Libya, Abdel Baset Ali Al-Megrahi and Al Amin Khalifa Fhimah on charges of conspiracy to destroy a civil aircraft by means of explosive and to kill the occupants. On the same day the procurator fiscal for Dumfries, Mr James T MacDougall, charged the two men with, among other offences, conspiracy to destroy the aircraft; warrants for their arrest were granted by the sheriff for South Strathclyde, Dumfries and Galloway.
The first applicant, Mr Salinger, is the chief correspondent of the second applicant, ABC News International Inc; he is an American citizen who resides in England. ABC News is a United States corporation with an office in London. Following the indictment and charging of Mr Megrahi and Mr Fhimah, Mr Salinger went to Libya and on 27 November 1991 interviewed them about the charges laid against them. The interviews were recorded on videotape. Brief excerpts from the interviews lasting some one-and-a-half minutes were broadcast by satellite from Libya in a news item on 27 November. The tapes are now under Mr Salinger’s control in the office of ABC News in London.
On 19 December 1991 police officers attached to the Lockerbie incident control centre visited ABC News offices and interviewed Mr Salinger. He showed them excerpts of the videotapes, lasting some 20 minutes in all; but declined to show them the bulk of the tapes, which lasted 1 hour 20 minutes.
On 4 March 1992 Det Insp McKinlay applied ex parte to Judge Clarkson for an order, inter alia, for production of the videotapes. He made the order. On 9 March the applicants applied to discharge the order; on 12 March the judge dismissed that application.
The statutory provisions
Section 17 of the 1989 Act so far as is relevant provides:
‘(1) Schedule 7 to this Act shall have effect for conferring powers to obtain information for the purposes of terrorist investigations, that is to say—(a) investigations into—(i) the commission, preparation or instigation of acts of terrorism to which section 14 above applies …’
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Section 14(2) provides:
‘The acts of terrorism to which this section applies are—(a) acts of terrorism connected with the affairs of Northern Ireland; and (b) acts of terrorism of any other description except acts connected solely with the affairs of the United Kingdom or any part of the United Kingdom other than Northern Ireland.’
The Act plainly applies to international terrorism. Terrorism is defined as the ‘use of violence for political ends, and includes any use of violence for the purpose of putting the public in fear’ (s 20(1)).
The relevant provisions of Sch 7 are as follows:
‘3.—(1) A constable may, for the purposes of a terrorist investigation, apply to a Circuit judge for an order under sub-paragraph (2) below in relation to particular material or material of a particular description, being material consisting of or including excluded material or special procedure material.
(2) If on such an application the judge is satisfied that the material consists of or includes such material as is mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) above, that it does not include items subject to legal privilege and that the conditions in sub-paragraph (5) below are fulfilled, he may make an order that the person who appears to him to be in possession of the material to which the application relates shall—(a) produce it to a constable for him to take away; or (b) give a constable access to it, within such period as the order may specify and if the material is not in that person’s possession (and will not come into his possession within that period) to state to the best of his knowledge and belief where it is …
(4) The period to be specified in an order under sub-paragraph (2) above shall be seven days from the date of the order … unless it appears to the judge that a longer or shorter period would be appropriate in the particular circumstances of the application.
(5) The conditions referred to in sub-paragraph (2) above are—(a) that a terrorist investigation is being carried out and that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the material is likely to be of substantial value (whether by itself or together with other material) to the investigation for the purposes of which the application is made; and (b) that there are reasonable grounds for believing that it is in the public interest, having regard—(i) to the benefit likely to accrue to the investigation if the material is obtained; and (ii) to the circumstances under which the person in possession of the material holds it, that the material shall be produced or that access to it should be given …
4.—(1) Provision may be made by Crown Court Rules as to—(a) the discharge and variation of orders under paragraph 3 above; and (b) proceedings relating to such orders.
(2) The following provisions shall have effect pending the coming into force of Crown Court Rules under sub-paragraph (1) above—(a) an order under paragraph 3 above may be discharged or varied by a Circuit judge on a written application made to the appropriate officer of the Crown Court by any person subject to the order; (b) unless a Circuit judge otherwise directs on grounds of urgency, the applicant shall, not less than forty-eight hours before making the application, send a copy of it and a notice in writing of the time and place where the application is to be made to the constable on whose application the order to be discharged or varied was made or on any other constable serving in the same police station.
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(3) An order of a Circuit judge under paragraph 3 above shall have effect as if it were an order of the Crown Court …’
The relevant parts of the 1989 Act came into force on 22 March 1989 but no rules have yet been made under sub-para 4(1).
These provisions are no doubt derived from similar provisions in the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (see in particular Sch 1) and the expressions ‘excluded material’ and ‘special procedure material’ have the meaning given in ss 11 and 14 of the 1984 Act (see para 1 of Sch 7 to the 1989 Act). There is no dispute that the material sought in this case is either excluded material or special procedure material or both. There is one important difference between the procedure under the 1989 Act and that under the 1984 Act. Under the former the application is made ex parte, but a respondent may apply to discharge or vary the order. Under the 1984 Act the application is made inter partes (Sch 1, para 7).
The order of 4 March 1992
The operative part of the order which is addressed to the present applicants is in the following terms:
‘An application having been made in pursuance of paragraph 3 of Schedule 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989, by … Norman McKinlay, Detective Inspector of the … Metropolitan Police, New Scotland Yard. I am satisfied that you are a person who appears to be in possession of material to which this application relates and which consists of or includes such material as is mentioned in sub paragraph (1) of paragraph 3 of Schedule 7 of the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 namely …
[1] Audio & Video recordings, interview records, statements, photographs or other notes taken or maintained, or any other records which directly pertain to the interviews of Abdel Megrahi & Al Amin Fhimah.
[2] All files, documents and accounts and other records used in ordinary business, whether these records are in written form or are kept on microfilm, magnetic tape or any other form of mechanical or electronic data retrieval mechanism, paid cheques, inter-account transfers, telegraphic transfers, and correspondence concerning transactions in relation to dealings with the below mentioned person: Abdel Baset Megrahi & Al Amin Fhimah, and that the set of access conditions specified in subsection 5 of paragraph 3 Schedule 7 are fulfilled in relation thereto. Accordingly you are hereby ordered to produce the said material to a constable for him to take away … or … not later than the end of the period of 7 days from the date of this order …’
For convenience we have numbered (1) and (2) the two paragraphs specifying the material to which the order relates. Paragraph (1) is typed and specifically relates to this case. In para (2) is printed the rubric ‘delete as appropriate’: in fact none of it was deleted. It is now common ground that para (2) should have been deleted in toto and was not required. The order, signed by Judge Clarkson, was duly served on the applicants. It was not accompanied by a statement of the evidence that was given to the judge upon which he expressed himself satisfied that it was proper to make the order.
The application to discharge the order
When the application to discharge the order came before Judge Clarkson, Mr Dowley submitted on behalf of the applicants that such evidence should have been served with the order, alternatively that the applicants were entitled to hear the evidence in the same form and from the same witness who gave evidence at
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the ex parte hearing. The judge rejected this submission. Mr Clarke proffered a witness, who was a Scottish police officer familiar with the case, who could give the substance of the evidence, excluding anything of a secret or sensitive nature. The applicants refused this offer. No other ground for discharging the order was put forward and the judge dismissed the application to discharge. Mr Clarke offered to delete para (2) from the order; but this offer was not accepted and he did not invite the judge to vary the order by deleting this paragraph.
The nature of the challenge
In Form 86A it is contended on behalf of the applicants that:
‘… the Crown Court erred in law and/or exceeded its powers and/or acted unreasonably in carrying out its functions under Schedule 7 to the 1989 Act in:
(1) making the Production Order on 4th March 1992:—(a) when there were no or insufficient grounds before the Court on which the Judge could have been satisfied that the preconditions to the making of the Production Order which are set out in paragraph 3 to Schedule 7 of the 1989 Act were met; and/or (b) without making provision for the service of the grounds on which the Production Order was made on the applicants; and/or
(2) refusing to order Detective Inspector McKinlay to serve upon the applicants any grounds relied upon when the Production Order was sought.’
It should be noted that, while this paragraph refers to the grounds, what in fact is sought is the evidence. In developing these contentions before this court Sir Patrick Neill QC submitted that the procedure should be just like any other application in civil proceedings, it being a principle of natural justice that the recipient of the order is entitled to see the same information as that which is put before the judge. It is immaterial whether the application is made ex parte or inter partes; if it is made ex parte the defendant/respondent in civil proceedings has an express or implied right to apply to discharge the order; and, if he does so, he will see the evidence on which the judge acted, albeit it may be supplemented by further evidence. He relied upon the fact that the recipient of the order is given a statutory right under para 4(1) of Sch 7 to the 1989 Act to apply to discharge or vary the production order as showing that Parliament intended to introduce a procedure similar to civil procedure commonly adopted in the case of ex parte injunctions, Mareva injunctions and Anton Piller orders. Thus in WEA Records Ltd v Visions Channel 4 Ltd [1983] 2 All ER 589 at 591, [1983] 1 WLR 721 at 724 Lord Donaldson MR said in an Anton Piller case:
‘I cannot at the moment visualise any circumstances in which it would be right to give a judge information on an ex parte application which cannot at a later stage be revealed to the party affected by the result of the application.’
In R v Crown Court at Inner London Sessions ex p Baines & Baines (a firm) [1987] 3 All ER 1025, [1988] QB 579 Watkins LJ, with whose judgment Kennedy J agreed, held that a person subject to a production order under Sch 1 to the 1984 Act was entitled to see the information put before the court to justify making the order. He said ([1987] 3 All ER 1025 at 1030, [1988] QB 579 at 586):
‘That leads me to explore more fully the second ground, because its implication is that notice of an application under Sch 1 should always be accompanied by a recital of the evidence on which the applicant intends to rely in order to persuade the judge that the access conditions have been
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fulfilled. We left this difficult point open in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Adegbesan [1986] 3 All ER 113, [1986] 1 WLR 1293. It must now be dealt with. At the outset I should say that whatever is served on the court must, I believe, be served on the party against whom the order is sought. The question is whether the police are required to provide to anyone in advance of the hearing the evidence sought to be relied on. I can well understand the reluctance of the police to provide the other party with it, because it may have the effect of bringing about the destruction of the material or of encouraging someone in some other way to hinder or thwart the police in their investigations. I understand equally well that the other party would be better equipped to decide whether to accede to the application or to resist it if the applicant’s evidence was served on them with the notice. There is nothing in the 1984 Act or the schedule to compel the police to provide the evidence in support of the application in advance of the hearing. I think the risk which would or might accompany advance information is a powerful reason why the police should not be compelled to provide it and I would hold that they are not so compelled. If in the course of an investigation special procedure material is sought and the police think no risk of harm will flow from giving their evidence in advance there is no reason why they should not provide it to the court and to the other party. Which course is adopted is best left to the judgment of the police, having regard to any special features of the investigation. In a case where no advance information is given, it will be open to a party against whom an order is sought to seek an adjournment of the hearing if evidence is given which cannot be adequately responded to there and then. It may be of use if I add a little advice to the effect that the evidence should be designed so as to, in an orderly way, deal with each condition which has to be satisfied. If that is done, it should assist the judge and the parties to avoid neglecting to consider any one or more of the necessary conditions.’
Sir Patrick submitted that there should be no difference in principle between an application made inter partes and one made ex parte which may be followed by an inter partes hearing to discharge or vary the order. The introduction of the ex parte procedure in the 1989 Act was not, he submitted, to ensure secrecy but to overcome a problem which had been revealed in the inter partes procedure of the 1984 Act. Under that Act the material which is sought under the order is protected between the time of service of the notice of application and the time of the hearing. Paragraph 11 of Sch 1 to that Act provides that a person served with notice of application must not conceal, destroy, alter or dispose of the material sought until the application for an order has been heard. But there is no special sanction for breach of this paragraph and it may well be that it is not a contempt of court until the order is made. The point was left open in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Adegbesan [1986] 3 All ER 113 at 116, 118, [1986] 1 WLR 1292 at 1296, 1300 per Watkins LJ and Schiemann J. It was to overcome this lacuna that the ex parte procedure was adopted, both in the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 and the 1989 Act, since it will be a contempt of court to interfere with the material as soon as the order is served.
The respondent’s answer
Mr Clarke submits that the procedure under Sch 7 to the 1989 Act has been deliberately devised by Parliament because of the secret and sensitive nature of the information upon which an application may often be based. He contends that
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the procedure is criminal and not civil and is akin to applications made ex parte for the issue of summons, search or bench warrants. In those cases the defendant or subject of the warrant is not entitled to see the information upon which it was granted, though the decision to grant it may be reviewable in this court on accepted principles of judicial review. In R v Aylesbury Justices, ex p Wisbey [1965] 1 All ER 602, [1965] 1 WLR 339 it was held that the defendant was not entitled to a sight of the sworn information upon which the summons had been issued as its disclosure would go further than was necessary to specify the nature of the charge and accordingly the justices’ order whereby they instructed their clerk to show the accused the prosecutor’ sworn statement was quashed. Marshall J, with whose judgment Lord Parker CJ and Widgery J agreed, said [1965] 1 All ER 602 at 606, [1965] 1 WLR 339 at 346):
‘In my judgment, the disclosure of the whole of that document goes further than is necessary to give reasonable information of the nature of the charge. It would be against natural justice, the principle of which applies with equal force both to the prosecution and to the defence alike, and applies also, be it added, where the prosecution is brought by a private individual, in the same way as if the prosecution were brought by a public prosecuting official. The information, therefore, in this particular case ought not, in my judgment, to have been handed over to the defence. In the circumstances I have come to the conclusion that an order to hand over this information is wrong, it being against the natural justice to which I have referred, and that the order in its present form must be quashed; but this court, in my judgment, should uphold the right of the respondent to be given further reasonable information of the nature of the charge.’
Mr Clarke submitted that Parliament had entrusted the duty and responsibility to a circuit judge of being satisfied that access conditions set out in para 3(5) of Sch 7 to the 1989 Act are met and that effectively his decision on these matters cannot be challenged on the application to discharge or vary. On such an application he submitted that the onus was upon the recipient of the order to show that it should be discharged and that in effect such a challenge was confined to showing that the recipient of the order was not in possession of the material although he could invite the circuit judge to reconsider his decision in the light of further submissions, which would of necessity not be based on all the evidence which had been before the judge. It was because of the secret and sensitive nature of the material that might have to be put before the circuit judge that change has been brought about between the procedure under the 1984 Act and that under the 1989 Act. Effectively therefore the recipient of the order had to take the judge’s decision very largely, if not entirely, on trust.
While we recognise that the sensitive and secret nature of the information available to the constable making the application may create difficulties, we do not consider that the mere change from an inter partes application to one made ex parte can bear the significance that Mr Clarke seeks to put upon it. In applications under the 1984 Act the information and its source may be sensitive, though we accept that it is more likely to be so in a case under the 1989 Act. There may indeed be occasions when the nature and identity of the source of information and perhaps also the information itself in the case of a terrorist investigation is of such a nature that it is not appropriate to disclose it even to the judge. But, even if it is disclosed to him, it will rarely be appropriate or necessary to disclose the nature and identity of the source of information to the recipient of the order; and it is equally inappropriate to disclose it to counsel and solicitors
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even on an undertaking of confidentiality. Nevertheless the recipient of the order should be given as much information as he properly can as to the grounds upon which the application is made, either at the time the order is served upon him or, if he decides to make an application to discharge or vary the order, before or at the time of the hearing of the application.
It is unfortunate that no rules have yet been made under para 4(1) of Sch 7; in their absence we have been asked to give guidance to those involved in such applications as these. We do so, but we must emphasise that these are not intended to be hard and fast rules, since much will depend upon the judge’s discretion as to how information should be disclosed and at what stage.
1. The ex parte application should be accompanied by a written statement of the material evidence upon which the constable wishes to rely to persuade the judge that the conditions laid down have been fulfilled. This statement should not disclose the nature or source of the information, if, as is likely to be the case, it is sensitive. It should normally contain the nature of the information unless there are grounds for thinking that it too is secret and should not be disclosed. The constable should appear before the judge and be ready to supplement his statement by oral evidence. It will rarely be necessary or desirable for the judge to inquire into or the constable to disclose the nature and identity of the source of information; but it may well be necessary for the constable to amplify the nature of the information itself, especially if this has not been fully disclosed in the written statement.
2. If the judge is satisfied that the conditions are met and decides to make the order, he should give directions as to what if any information should be served with the order itself. While it is not essential that such information should be given in writing but can be given orally (see R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Taylor [1988] 2 All ER 769 at 779, [1988] 1 WLR 705 at 717), it is normally desirable that it should be and we would expect it normally to take the form of the written statement from the constable. In deciding whether the recipient should be given more or less information than that contained in the written statement or whether no information should be given at that stage the judge will obviously pay regard to the submissions made by or on behalf of the constable. The information should be as full as possible without compromising security.
3. If the judge decides that it is inappropriate for any information other than that which is contained in the order itself to be served on the recipient at the time the order is served he should consider whether it should be served in the event of an application to discharge or vary being made. It is clearly desirable if it can be done without risk to security that the information should be available to the recipient of the order before the hearing of the application to discharge, since if this is not made available till that time it is possible that there may need to be an adjournment.
4. An application to discharge or vary the production order should if possible be made before the judge who made the ex parte order. It is desirable that the same officer, if he gave oral evidence at the ex parte hearing, should also attend. In most cases sufficient information will have been given to the recipient before the hearing of the application to discharge, but, if it has not, it may be supplemented by oral evidence from the applying constable or some other police officer. Questions should not be permitted as to the nature or identity of the source of information. If the nature of the information itself is sensitive in the sense that it may compromise the security of the investigation, the judge should not allow the questions. He should tell the respondent, if it be the case, that he has been given information which satisfies him that the conditions are met but that the information cannot be disclosed.
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The overall objective should be to provide the recipient of the order with as much information, preferably in writing, as early as possible provided this is consistent with the security of the operation.
How are these principles to be applied in the present case? There is in our judgment abundant material simply derived from what the applicants themselves have put before the court on this application to justify Judge Clarkson making the order he did on 4 March. It would have been preferable if this information had been given to the applicants in writing in the manner we have indicated; but it is plain that it was provided to them orally on 19 December 1991 or thereafter and they cannot have been in any doubt about the matter. If there was any information of a sensitive and secret nature which was given to Judge Clarkson on the ex parte hearing, in addition to that which was known to the applicants, then they should have been told that this was so; but it cannot have been of a decisive nature, since as we have already indicated there was ample material known to the applicants to justify the order. The applicants could have obtained further information from the officer who was available to give evidence at the inter partes hearing. They were not entitled to insist that Det Insp McKinlay gave evidence; but they were entitled to have the evidence presented at the inter partes hearing and submit, if so advised, that the conditions for making the order were not satisfied. The application to discharge should have been in the nature of a rehearing and there was no onus on the applicants to satisfy the judge that the ex parte order was wrongly made. If there had been evidence of a sensitive nature which had been given to the judge at the ex parte hearing which in his opinion was decisive but could not be disclosed to the applicants, he should have told them so. For the reasons we have given we do not think this can have been the case. In the event the applicants did not avail themselves of the opportunity of hearing evidence from the police, because they asserted, wrongly in our judgment, that they were entitled to see all the evidence given by Det Insp McKinlay at the ex parte hearing.
In our judgment there was nothing unlawful in the order made by the judge on 4 March. Nor was it rendered unlawful by the fact that when it was served it was not accompanied by any statement of evidence and no statement of evidence was served on the applicants before the hearing on 12 March. If and in so far as the judge took the view on 12 March that he could not re-examine the order on its merits, but only if it was unclear, imprecise, technically defective or made against a person who did not have the material, he was in our judgment wrong. No other ground was put before him for discharging the ex parte order, save that it was unlawful for the reasons indicated. He made no error in law in dismissing that application.
For these reasons this application is dismissed.
Application dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Vince and another v Chief Constable of the Dorset Police
[1993] 2 All ER 321
Categories: CRIMINAL; Police
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): FOX, McCOWAN AND STEYN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 2, 3, 30 JULY 1992
Police – Custody officer – Appointment of custody officer – Appointment of custody officers for each designated police station – Chief constable required to appoint ‘one or more custody officers … for each designated police station’ – Whether chief constable only required to appoint one custody officer at each designated station – Whether chief constable required to appoint sufficient custody officers to ensure at least one custody officer normally available at each designated station – Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s 36(1).
Under s 36(1)a of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 chief constables were required to appoint ‘One or more custody officers … for each designated police station’, ie police stations designated under s 35b for the purpose of detaining arrested persons. A custody officer had to be of the rank of sergeant or above. The appellant chief constable designated six police stations in country towns in the county for the purpose of detaining arrested persons. Those stations operated a three-shift system and the chief constable, who took the view that he was only required to appoint one custody officer at each designated station and that the appointment of further custody officers at each designated station was a matter for his discretion, appointed three sergeants to act as custody officers at each designated station. Because of absences for various reasons three sergeants were not a sufficient number to ensure that there was a custody officer on duty at all times at the designated stations. The respondents, on behalf of the Police Federation, sought declarations, inter alia, that the chief constable was under a duty to appoint sufficient custody officers to ensure that at each designated station there was at least one custody officer always readily available to perform the functions of a custody officer, that an officer other than a custody officer could not lawfully perform the functions of a custody officer except in an emergency, that a custody officer could not be appointed for more than one designated station and that an acting sergeant could not lawfully be appointed a custody officer under s 36(3) of the 1984 Act. The judge held that the chief constable was under a duty to appoint sufficient custody officers to ensure that at each designated station there was at least one custody officer normally available to perform the functions of a custody officer. The judge further held that it would not be appropriate to make a declaration that an acting sergeant could not lawfully be appointed a custody officer. The chief constable appealed. The respondents cross-appealed against the judge’ refusal to make a declaration that an acting sergeant could not lawfully be appointed a custody officer. On the hearing of the appeal the respondents contended that the chief constable was under a duty to appoint as many custody officers as were required to ensure that at each station there would ordinarily be available a custody officer to perform the functions thereof.
Held – (1) On its true construction s 36(1) of the 1984 Act was clear and unambiguous and meant that a chief constable had a duty to appoint one custody officer for each designated police station and a discretion, which had to be
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exercised reasonably, to appoint more than one custody officer at a designated police station. Furthermore, the provision in s 36(4) that any officer could perform the duties of custody officer if a custody officer was not ‘readily’ available did not mean that any officer could perform the custody officer’s duties if one was not ‘normally’ or ‘ordinarily’ available but that he could do so only if a custody officer was not actually at the station and could not, without much difficulty, be fetched there. It followed that the chief constable’s appeal would be allowed (see p 330 c to f, p 335 e f h and p 337 g, post).
(2) (Steyn LJ dissenting) Since there was no evidence that the chief constable had ever appointed an acting sergeant to be a custody officer it was academic or hypothetical whether he had the power to do so and in those circumstances it would not be appropriate to make a declaration on the matter. The cross-appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 331 j to p 332 a and p 337 g, post).
Per Steyn LJ. Section 36 of the 1984 Act, by permitting a chief constable as a matter of routine to allow the duties of custody officer to be carried out by untrained constables provided one custody officer is appointed for each designated police station, may have provided a less effective safeguard for the protection of detained suspects than was intended and the Royal Commission on Criminal Justice may wish to examine the point (see p 335 f g, post).
Decision of Sir Peter Pain sitting as a judge of the High Court [1992] 3 All ER 98 reversed in part.
Notes
For custody officers, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 716.
For the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, ss 35, 36, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 876, 877.
Cases referred to in judgments
A-G v HRH Prince Ernest Augustus of Hanover [1957] 1 All ER 49, [1957] AC 436, [1957] 2 WLR 1, HL.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53, [1988] 2 WLR 1049, HL.
Padfield v Minister of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997, [1968] 2 WLR 924, HL.
R v Alladice (1988) 87 Cr App R 380, CA.
R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118, [1968] 2 WLR 893, CA.
R v Secretary of State for Social Services, ex p Child Poverty Action Group [1989] 1 All ER 1047, [1990] 2 QB 540, [1989] 3 WLR 1116, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
R v Chief Constable of the Devon and Cornwall Constabulary, ex p Central Electricity Generating Board [1981] 3 All ER 826, [1982] QB 458, CA.
R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn (No 3) [1973] 1 All ER 324, [1973] QB 241, CA.
Appeal and cross-appeal
The Chief Constable of the Dorset Police appealed from the decision of Sir Peter Pain sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 26 July 1991 ([1992] 3 All ER 98, [1992] 1 WLR 47) whereby he declared that by virtue of s 36(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 the chief constable
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was under a duty to appoint sufficient custody officers to ensure that at each designated police station at least one custody officer was normally available to preform the functions of a custody officer as provided for by that Act. The respondents, Jeffrey Vince (for and on behalf of the members of the joint branch board of the Police Federation of England and Wales of the Dorset Police) and Jeff Moseley (for and on behalf of the members of the joint branch board of the sergeants’ central committee of the Police Federation of England and Wales), cross-appealed against so much of the judgment of Sir Peter Pain given on 26 July 1991 as adjudged that it was not appropriate to make a declaration that an acting sergeant may not lawfully be appointed a custody officer under s 36(3) of the 1984 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCowan LJ.
Alan Rawley QC and Nicholas Haggan (instructed by D H Jenkins, Dorchester) for the chief constable.
Michael Beloff QC and Philip Havers (instructed by Russell Jones & Walker) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
30 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
McCOWAN LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Fox LJ). This is an appeal from a judgment of Sir Peter Pain, sitting as a judge of the High Court, delivered on 26 July 1991 by which he made a declaration that by virtue of s 36(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, the appellant is under a duty to appoint sufficient custody officers to ensure that at each designated police station at least one custody officer is normally available to perform the functions of a custody officer as provided for by the 1984 Act (see [1992] 3 All ER 98, [1992] 1 WLR 47). The respondents in turn cross-appeal against so much of the judgment as adjudged that it was not appropriate to make a declaration that an acting sergeant may not lawfully be appointed a custody officer under s 36(3) of the 1984 Act.
The plaintiffs in the proceedings (and respondents to the appeal) brought the proceedings respectively on behalf of the members of the joint branch of the Police Federation of England and Wales of the Dorset Police and of the members of the sergeants’ central committee of the Police Federation of England and Wales. The defendant to the proceedings (and appellant in the appeal) is the Chief Constable of the Dorset Police.
In the proceedings, which were by way of originating summons, the following relief was claimed:
‘(1) A declaration that by virtue of Section 36(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”) the Defendant is under a duty to appoint sufficient Custody Officers to ensure that at each designated Police Station at least one Custody Officer is always readily available to perform the functions of a Custody Officer as provided for by the Act.
(2) A declaration that an acting Sergeant may not lawfully be appointed a Custody Officer under Section 36(3) of the Act.
(3) A declaration that pursuant to Section 36(4) of the Act an Officer other than a Custody Officer may not lawfully perform the functions of a Custody Officer at a designated Police Station save in the event of some operational emergency or other unforeseen circumstances.
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(4) A declaration that under Section 36(2) of the Act an Officer may not lawfully be appointed a Custody Officer for more than one designated Police Station.’
The following sections of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 are relevant:
‘30. Arrest elsewhere than at police station.—(1) Subject to the following provisions of this section, where a person—(a) is arrested by a constable for an offence; or (b) is taken into custody by a constable after being arrested for an offence by a person other than a constable, at any place other than a police station, he shall be taken to a police station by a constable as soon as practicable after the arrest.
(2) Subject to subsections (3) and (5) below, the police station to which an arrested person is taken under subsection (1) above shall be a designated police station.
(3) A constable to whom this subsection applies may take an arrested person to any police station unless it appears to the constable that it may be necessary to keep the arrested person in police detention for more than six hours …
(6) If the first police station to which an arrested person is taken after his arrest is not a designated police station, he shall be taken to a designated police station not more than six hours after his arrival at the first police station unless he is released previously.
34. Limitations on police detention.—(1) A person arrested for an offence shall not be kept in police detention except in accordance with the provisions of this Part of this Act.
(2) Subject to subsection (3) below, if at any time a custody officer—(a) becomes aware, in relation to any person in police detention, that the grounds for the detention of that person have ceased to apply; and (b) is not aware of any other grounds on which the continued detention of that person could be justified under the provisions of this part of this Act, it shall be the duty of the custody officer, subject to subsection (4) below, to order his immediate release from custody.
(3) No person in police detention shall be released except on the authority of a custody officer at the police station where his detention was authorised or, if it was authorised at more than one station, a custody officer at the station where it was last authorised.
(4) A person who appears to the custody officer to have been unlawfully at large when he was arrested is not to be released under subsection (2) above.
(5) A person whose release is ordered under subsection (2) above shall be released without bail unless it appears to the custody officer—(a) that there is need for further investigation of any matter in connection with which he was detained at any time during the period of his detention; or (b) that proceedings may be taken against him in respect of any such matter, and, if it so appears, he shall be released on bail.
(6) For the purposes of this Part of this Act a person arrested under section 6(5) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 is arrested for an offence.
35. Designated police stations.—(1) The chief officer of police for each police area shall designate the police stations in his area which, subject to section 30(3) and (5) above, are to be the stations in that area to be used for the purpose of detaining arrested persons.
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(2) A chief officer’ duty under subsection (1) above is to designate police stations appearing to him to provide enough accommodation for that purpose …
36. Custody officers at police stations.—(1) One or more custody officers shall be appointed for each designated police station.
(2) A custody officer for a designated police station shall be appointed—(a) by the chief officer of police for the area in which the designated police station is situated; or (b) by such other police officer as the chief officer of police for that area may direct.
(3) No officer may be appointed a custody officer unless he is of at least the rank of sergeant.
(4) An officer of any rank may perform the functions of a custody officer at a designated police station if a custody officer is not readily available to perform them.
(5) Subject to the following provisions of this section and to section 39(2) below, none of the functions of a custody officer in relation to a person shall be performed by an officer who at the time when the function falls to be performed is involved in the investigation of an offence for which that person is in police detention at that time …’
Section 37 deals with ‘duties of custody officer before charge’, s 38 with ‘duties of custody officer after charge’ and s 39 with his ‘responsibilities in relation to persons detained’. It will be apparent that the 1984 Act places heavy and important duties upon a custody officer and seeks to ensure where possible that those duties are performed by an officer who is not involved in the investigation of an offence for which the person in question is in police detention at the time.
The nature of the dispute in respect of the first declaration sought in the proceedings is clearly brought out by the following passages in an affidavit sworn on 28 February 1991 by Mr Cooper, the solicitor having the conduct of the proceedings on behalf of the respondents:
‘7. The first question which arises concerns the proper construction of Section 36(1) of the Act. On one construction of this sub-section a Chief Officer of Police is under a duty to appoint one but no more than one Custody Officer for each designated Police Station. On the basis of that construction the Chief Officer must have a discretion to appoint more than one Custody Officer but the exercise of that discretion would be a matter entirely for the Chief Officer. On the other construction, Section 36(1) must be construed with Section 36(4) with the result that a Chief Officer of Police is under a duty to appoint sufficient Custody Officers to ensure that at each designated Police Station at least one Custody Officer is always readily available to perform the functions of a Custody Officer as provided for by the Act.
8. The Plaintiff believes that the former construction would have a number of undesirable consequences which cannot have been intended by Parliament. If correct, it would mean that the appointment of only one Custody Officer, no matter how large and/or busy the designated Police Station to which he was appointed may be, would satisfy the requirements of the Act. As a result many of the safeguards explicit in the requirement that the custody officer must be of at least the rank of Sergeant (see Section 36(3)) would be removed and the purpose of the Act would be undermined.
9. This issue has given rise to a particular area of concern in Dorset where, in relation to a number of designated Police Stations, the Defendant has appointed only three Custody Officers. Where this has occurred it is impossible to ensure that a Custody Officer will at any material time be in
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attendance by reason of the following: first, the absence from duty of the appointed Custody Officers due to rest days, annual leave, sickness, attendance at courses, etc; secondly, additional former appointments (eg as Patrol Officers) which means that appointed Custody Officers are frequently away from the designated Police Station.
10. It is submitted by the Plaintiff that on a proper construction of Section 36(1) and (4) the Chief Officer of Police, in this case the Defendant, is under a duty to appoint sufficient Custody Officers to ensure that at each designated Police Station at least one Custody Officer is always readily available to perform the functions of a Custody Officer as provided for by the Act.’
Mr Davies, a senior assistant solicitor with the Dorset County Council, having the conduct of the proceedings on behalf of the chief constable, made the following points in an affidavit sworn on 5 July 1991:
‘3. There are 11 designated police stations in Dorset. The designated police stations at Bournemouth, Poole and Weymouth remain open to the public for 24 hours a day and are situated, certainly so far as Bournemouth and Poole Police Stations are concerned, in the major centres of population in Dorset. The remaining eight designated police stations are situated in the smaller towns of Dorset and although open from an operational standpoint throughout any 24 hour period are not open to the public during that same period. Many of these designated police stations are situated in comparatively quiet market towns and have a much smaller percentage of work that involves the use of custody officers. By way of comparison I set out the number of persons arrested during 1990 by way of reference to all 11 designated police stations.
Bournemouth — 7,207
Poole — 4,975
Weymouth — 3,051
Christchurch — 1,026
Bridport — 518
Dorchester — 484
Blandford — 439
Wareham — 416
Shaftesbury — 245
Sherborne — 216
Swanage — 217
4. Due to the volume of work generated within the areas covered by Bournemouth, Poole and Weymouth Police Stations the Defendant appointed full time custody officers of the rank of Sergeant to those stations. Five custody officers were appointed to Bournemouth and four each to Poole and Weymouth. The remaining designated police stations had a minimum of three sergeants appointed to each of them but having regard to the small and variable number of arrests the sergeants who were appointed to those stations were appointed to perform both the role of custody officer at those designated police stations in conjunction with their normal supervisory policing role to ensure that the most effective and efficient use was made of their time …
11 … In deciding the number of custody officers to be appointed to each designated police station the Defendant had due regard to both the number of persons likely to be arrested and brought to those police stations and the likely times of such arrests and his duty to ensure that the most efficient use was made of the time of each custody officer. To this end those designated
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police stations which were to remain open for 24 hours per day and both receive and detain arrested persons throughout that period had appointed to them sufficient custody officers of the rank of sergeant to enable one such officer to be present performing the duties of a custody officer at all times. The remaining designated police stations had a minimum of three sergeants appointed to each to perform both custody officer and supervisory functions. At the six police stations specifically referred to by Mr Cooper in his affidavit whilst there may not always be a custody officer physically present at the police station at all times a custody officer is always readily available to perform the functions of that post. If for any reasons, an unforeseen emergency arose requiring the attendance of all officers who could perform the function of custody officer then an arrested person would be taken to one of the three main police stations at Bournemouth, Poole or Weymouth where a custody officer would be present to receive them. The Defendant interprets the phrase “readily available” to mean available promptly or without unreasonable delay but not necessarily immediately. It is unreasonable and not the Defendant’s policy to have a custody officer present at each designated police station on the off chance that their services will be required—such a policy would not make the most effective or efficient use of those officers under the Defendant’s operational control.’
It is apparent from the terms of the judgment that the main argument before the judge, in respect of the first declaration sought, was as to whether or not the words of s 36(1) are ambiguous. In arguing that they were not, reliance was placed for the chief constable before the judge on 44 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 857, which reads:
‘If the words of a statute are clear and unambiguous, they themselves indicate what must be taken to have been the intention of Parliament, and there is no need to look elsewhere to discover their intention or their meaning.’
In counsel’s submission the words of sub-s (1) plainly say that the chief constable is under a duty to appoint one custody officer for each designated police station, but has a discretionary power to appoint more than one custody officer for each designated police station.
For the respondents before the judge reliance was placed on 44 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 896, which reads:
‘If the language of a statute is ambiguous so as to admit of two constructions, the consequences of the alternative construction must be regarded, and that construction must not be adopted which leads to manifest public mischief, or great inconvenience, or repugnance, inconsistency, unreasonableness, or absurdity, or to great harshness or injustice.’
It was submitted to the judge on behalf of the respondents that the words of s 36(1) are ambiguous, and that the construction argued for by the chief constable would lead to public mischief.
The judge resolved this conflict as follows ([1992] 3 All ER 98 at 102–103, [1992] 1 WLR 47 at 51):
‘I am left in no doubt that there is an ambiguity in s 36(1). It might have the meaning of conferring a discretion upon the chief constable as to the number of custody officers he appoints, providing that he appoints one; or it might be making provision for the complement of each designated police station on duty to include a custody officer. I therefore have to resolve this
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ambiguity. I have no doubt that the meaning for which the plaintiffs contend is the right one. Parliament could indeed have expressed it a good deal more clearly. But when one looks at the concept of a custody officer, it is plain that he must normally be readily available at each designated police station. The stop-gap provision in s 36(4) implies that in the normal way the custody officer will be readily available … I readily accept that I must not interfere with the discretion of the chief constable. But to construe the statute is not to interfere with his discretion. If I take Mr Rawley’s construction to its logical conclusion, the chief constable could exercise his discretion by appointing one custody officer only to each designated police station, and leaving it to any officer, however junior, who is not involved in the investigation for which the prisoner is in custody, to perform the highly responsible duties of the custody officer for the greater part of the time when the custody officer will not be on duty if, as is normal, the three-shift system is worked. I do not believe that any chief constable would do this. But I also cannot believe that Parliament intended to give a chief constable discretion to act in a way which would completely undermine one of the important principles of the 1984 Act. I am therefore prepared to make a declaration in the terms sought in paragraph 1 of the summons with one amendment. The words “normally available” should be substituted for “always readily available”. Subsidiary to this is the third declaration sought. I am not prepared to grant a declaration in these terms. I think that to do so would be to interfere improperly with the discretion of the chief constable, who must be at liberty to deploy his men subject to the proper construction of the Act. It is to emphasise this liberty that I have chosen the rather wide words “normally available” in the declaration I have made. Similarly, as to the fourth declaration, it is not for me to say whether one officer can be normally available at two stations which are a few miles apart. Much will depend on the likely number of arrests and the means of communication between the arresting officer and the designated station. Normal availability all depends on the circumstances and that is a matter for the judgment of the chief constable.’
It is to be noted that, whereas the respondents had sought a declaration in terms of at least one custody officer being ‘always readily available’ (the words ‘readily available’ obviously coming from s 36(4)), the judge granted the declaration in terms of at least one custody officer being ‘normally available’, a phrase not used in the section. Mr Beloff QC, who appeared for the respondents before this court but not before the judge, was not apparently happy with either version and put forward somewhat tentatively for our consideration a third version which would place the chief constable under a duty—
‘to appoint sufficient custody officers to ensure that at each designated police station there will ordinarily be available a custody officer to perform the functions thereof.’
He agreed, however, that formulating any declaration to meet his purposes in this case was a difficult task, and suggested that if we were in his favour in principle we should defer for later argument the precise wording of the declaration.
In fact, the argument advanced to this court by Mr Beloff was very different from that advanced on the respondents’ behalf below. Mr Beloff does not say that the words of sub-s (1) are ambiguous. On the contrary, they are clear, but not in the sense argued for on behalf of the chief constable. Mr Beloff argues that they mean that the chief constable is under a duty to appoint one custody officer for
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each designated police station and is given a power (coupled with a duty) to appoint as many custody officers as are required to ensure that at each such station there will ordinarily be available a custody officer to perform the functions thereof.
In Mr Beloff’s contention, the present is a case similar to Padfield v Minister of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997, where it was held that the permissive words there in question gave the minister a discretion, but he was not entitled to use that discretion in such a way as to thwart the policy and objects of the Act. For my part, however, I regard the suggestion that what the chief constable has done in the present case constitutes a thwarting of the policy and objects of the Act as sheer hyperbole.
We were also referred by Mr Beloff to R v Secretary of State for Social Services, ex p Child Poverty Action Group [1989] 1 All ER 1047, [1990] 2 QB 540. In fact, the Court of Appeal held in that case that the Secretary of State was under no duty to have an adjudication officer available immediately to deal with a claim and that a decision on the claim could be lawfully reached after the stipulated period of 14 days if it were not practicable for it to be reached earlier. Mr Beloff, however, places reliance on these words of Woolf LJ in giving the judgment of the court ([1989] 1 All ER 1047 at 1055, [1990] 2 QB 540 at 555):
‘The fact that we have rejected counsel’s submission does not mean that the Secretary of State is under no obligation as to numbers of adjudication officers whom he should appoint and this is a discretion to be exercised reasonably, taking into account the legislative scheme requiring the expeditious disposal of claims within 14 days, where this is practicable. If, for reasons other than the refusal of the Treasury to give its consent, the Secretary of State were to exercise this discretion unreasonably or, to use another word, irrationally, then a Wednesbury challenge could be mounted (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223).’
Mr Rawley QC for the chief constable indeed, while arguing that the chief constable has a discretion as to whether to appoint more than one custody officer at a designated police station, accepts that the discretion has to be reasonably exercised and, if it is not, that the actions of the chief constable can be judicially reviewed. He must, however, submits Mr Rawley, be granted responsibility and flexibility. In this context Mr Rawley relies on a line of authority which shows that the courts will not interfere with the daily operation of a police force, culminating in these words in the speech of Lord Keith of Kinkel in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 240–241, [1989] AC 53 at 59:
‘By common law police officers owe to the general public a duty to enforce the criminal law: see R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118. That duty may be enforced by mandamus, at the instance of one having title to sue. But as that case shows, a chief officer of police has a wide discretion as to the manner in which the duty is discharged. It is for him to decide how available resources should be deployed, whether particular lines of inquiry should or should not be followed and even whether or not certain crimes should be prosecuted. It is only if his decision on such matters is such as no reasonable chief officer of police would arrive at that someone with an interest to do so may be in a position to have recourse to judicial review.’
Mr Rawley points out that the effect of the declaration sought by Mr Beloff namely that the chief constable must ensure that at each designated police station
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there will ordinarily be available a custody officer to perform the functions thereof, will be very seriously to curtail the chief constable’s discretion and to require him to employ a great many more sergeants. At a station that opens 24 hours a day, not even three custody officers each working the customary 8-hour shift would suffice when account is taken of illness and holidays. Mr Beloff for his part frankly admits that, if the respondents are right, one happy result for them will be many more officers promoted to sergeant and a greater call on the public purse, but says that there is nothing objectionable in that if in the process it achieves the intention of Parliament.
It is to be noted that whereas s 36(1) and (3) deal with the appointment of custody officers, sub-s (4) deals with the performance of the functions of a custody officer ‘if a custody officer is not readily available to perform them’. It would be very curious in those circumstances if the construction of sub-s (1) were to be determined by the words of sub-s (4). The latter moreover only applies conditionally, that is to say ‘if a custody officer is not readily available’. Finally, on this subsection, I do not believe that ‘readily available’ is synonymous with ‘normally available’ or ‘ordinarily available’. In my judgment, unlike the other two expressions, ‘readily available’ covers a situation where a custody officer is not actually at the station but could without much difficulty be fetched there.
I agree with the submission of Mr Rawley that, if the intention of the legislature were that a custody officer must ordinarily be in attendance at a designated police station, the wording of s 36(1) is indeed surprising. What could have been easier than to word it on the lines: ‘As many custody officers shall be appointed for each designated police station as are required to ensure that a custody officer is ordinarily available at each such station at all times that it is open to the public.’
In my judgment, the wording of sub-s (1) is not ambiguous. It plainly means that the chief constable has a duty to appoint one custody officer for each designated police station and a power to appoint more in his discretion, which must be reasonably exercised.
I find no breach by the appellant of sub-s (1) and, accordingly, I would allow the appeal.
Turning to the cross-appeal, this concerns the second declaration sought by the respondents. Their case in this respect is summarised by Mr Cooper at para 11 of his affidavit:
‘The second question which arises is whether an acting sergeant may lawfully be appointed a Custody Officer under Section 36(3) of the Act, as has been the case in Dorset. By “acting Sergeant” is meant not a Constable promoted temporarily to the rank of Sergeant under Regulation 8 of the Police (Promotion) Regulations 1979 (and who by reason of Regulation 4 will in any event have passed the Sergeants’ examination and have a minimum of 2 years’ service) but simply a Constable who is required by his Chief Officer to “act up” as Sergeant for a defined period, typically during the absence on leave of a named substantive Sergeant. It is respectfully submitted that the practice of appointing acting Sergeants as custody officers is unlawful and contrary to Section 36(3) of the Act because a Constable acting up does not thereby acquire “the rank” of Sergeant (as opposed to a Regulation 8 promotion which is “to the higher rank”). Further, it is submitted that the practice is plainly contrary to the spirit and intention of Part IV of the Act which are that (save in exceptional circumstances) only Officers whose competence and experience have qualified them for promotion to the rank of Sergeant should perform the manifold and often difficult functions and duties of a custody officer.’
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The judge dealt with this part of the claim in these terms ([1992] 3 All ER 98 at 103–104, [1992] 1 WLR 47 at 52–53):
‘The [respondents] accept that a temporary sergeant qualifies to be a custody officer under s 36(3). The chief constable says that he has never appointed a constable required to perform a sergeant’s duties as a custody officer and has no intention of doing so. But the affidavit contends that there is no distinction or difference between a temporary sergeant and an “acting sergeant”. Mr Rawley tells me that this is meant to be a contention of law. I do not think it appropriate to make a declaration in the circumstances, but to assist the parties I express the clear conclusion that an officer required to act up to the duties of a sergeant is not qualified to be appointed a custody officer.’
Mr Beloff submits that, being against Mr Rawley’s contention of law, the judge had no good reason for refusing the declaration sought.
Before this court Mr Rawley has repeated the instructions which he has received from the chief constable, that he has never appointed an acting sergeant as a custody officer under sub-s (3) and has no intention of ever doing so. Nevertheless, he submits that the chief constable has the power to do so by reason of the decision of the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division in R v Alladice (1988) 87 Cr App R 380. There, the court was concerned with s 107(1) of the 1984 Act, which provides:
‘For the purpose of any provision of this Act or any other Act under which a power in respect of the investigation of offences or the treatment of persons in police custody is exercisable only by or with the authority of a police officer of at least the rank of superintendent, an officer of the rank of chief inspector shall be treated as holding the rank of superintendent if he has been authorised by an officer of at least the rank of chief superintendent to exercise the power or, as the case may be, to give his authority for its exercise.’
Giving the judgment of the court, Lord Lane CJ said (at 383):
‘Chief Inspector Corbett was given apparent authority to exercise the necessary power by an officer who held the rank of chief superintendent, but did so not in a substantive but only in an acting capacity. The appellant submits that an acting chief superintendent is not an officer of “at least the rank of chief superintendent”, and that therefore Chief Inspector Corbett was not in any event authorised to delay access to a solicitor. It is very much a matter of first impression, but in our judgment the holder of an acting rank, at least so far as authority and powers are concerned, is to be treated as if he were the holder of the substantive rank, unless his appointment to the acting rank was a colourable pretence, which is not suggested here.’
Mr Beloff expressly disclaimed any suggestion that that point was wrongly decided in R v Alladice. But he pointed out that it concerned another section of the 1984 Act. He also stressed that s 36(3) is dealing with the ‘rank’ of sergeant. However, s 107(1) is dealing with the ‘rank’ of chief superintendent. For my part, I would find it difficult to distinguish R v Alladice. The question is, in my judgment, one of either agreeing or not agreeing with the decision in R v Alladice.
The position is, however, that while not accepting that the chief constable has never appointed an acting sergeant to be a custody officer, the respondents have not pointed to any instance where they say he has or indeed where any other chief constable has. In those circumstances I regard this question as an academic or hypothetical question and would prefer to express no final view upon it. In any event I agree with the judge that it is not an appropriate case for the making of a declaration.
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I would, therefore, dismiss the cross-appeal.
STEYN LJ. Like the captain of a ship, a judge must sometimes start by clearing the decks. The issues in this case are limited to two important but narrow questions of statutory construction about the scope of the duties of the Chief Constable of the Dorset Police to appoint custody officers under s 36(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. No other issues arise for decision. We have been referred to decisions of high authority which establish that a court of law will not interfere with the policy or operational decisions of chief constables about the deployment of their officers: see, for example, Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 240, [1989] AC 53 at 59. That is trite law. This case raises no legal issue about the scope of that principle, or about its application in the county of Dorset, or about the limited circumstances in which a court might as a matter of discretion grant declaratory relief about a chief constable’s discharge of his statutory duties. We have also been referred to a line of decisions where courts treated discretionary statutory powers as powers coupled with a duty to exercise the powers in proper cases. Perhaps the best example of this line of authority is Padfield v Minister of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997 where the House of Lords held that a ministerial discretion to appoint a committee of investigation could not be used to thwart the policy of the statute creating the power. Padfield’s case, and other cases in this line of authority, involve issues regarding abuse of statutory power. On this construction summons those decisions are irrelevant. It has never been an issue in this case whether the chief constable properly exercised a statutory discretion.
The principal point: the number of custody officers
Section 36 is the critical provision. While the setting and context of s 36 is important, I need only quote sub-ss (1) to (5) of s 36. Those subsections read as follows:
‘(1) One or more custody officers shall be appointed for each designated police station.
(2) A custody officer for a designated police station shall be appointed—(a) by the chief officer of police for the area in which the designated police station is situated; or (b) by such other police officer as the chief officer of police for that area may direct.
(3) No officer may be appointed a custody officer unless he is of at least the rank of sergeant.
(4) An officer of any rank may perform the functions of a custody officer at a designated police station if a custody officer is not readily available to perform them.
(5) Subject to the following provisions of this section and to section 39(2) below, none of the functions of a custody officer in relation to a person shall be performed by an officer who at the time when the function falls to be performed is involved in the investigation of an offence for which that person is in police detention at that time.’
The principal issue before the judge, and before us, was whether the chief constable’s construction of s 36(1) is right. The chief constable’s contention is that s 36(1) imposes upon him a duty to appoint one custody officer for each designated station, and vests in him a discretion to appoint more than one custody officer for a designated police station if he considers it right to do so. The rival contention of the Police Federation, which was upheld by the judge, is reflected in the order which the judge made. The order provides:
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‘By virtue of Section 36(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 the Defendant is under a duty to appoint sufficient Custody Officers to ensure that at each designated Police Station at least one Custody Officer is normally available to perform the functions of a Custody Officer as provided by the said Act.’
Subject to a qualification to which I will come, we must choose between these two constructions the one which best matches the intention of the legislature.
Mr Rawley QC submitted that a linguistic or semantic process of interpretation produces only one answer, namely that the chief constable ‘shall’ appoint one custody officer for each designated police station but that he ‘may’ appoint more. That, he submitted, is the end of the matter. Mr Rawley acknowledged that this interpretation may render the statutory safeguard of the appointment of independent custody officers of the rank of sergeant less effective than some may have thought. But, he said, we need look no further than the words of s 36(1).
For my part I am satisfied that a broader approach to the construction of s 36(1) is in principle permissible. In considering the meaning of words in any statute, it is always right to take into account the purpose of the statute. The speeches in the House of Lords in A-G v HRH Prince Ernest Augustus of Hanover [1957] 1 All ER 49 at 53–54, 61, [1957] AC 436 at 461, 473 per Viscount Simonds and Lord Somervell showed that the purpose of a statute, or of part of a statute, is something to be taken into account in arriving at the ordinary meaning of words in the statute. Such a purpose may, of course, also be called in aid at a later stage of the process of interpretation, namely in choosing between rival interpretations where the language of the statute is ambiguous, but that is another matter. But it does not follow that resort to the purpose of a statute will always, or even usually, be a controlling factor. The extent to which a resort to the purpose of a statute will be helpful may depend on how far the language is capable of stretching. Ultimately, having taken into account the purpose of the statute, a court cannot avoid considering what different meanings the language of the statute can accommodate.
The broad purpose of the 1984 Act was to find a pragmatic compromise between two competing considerations: one is the public interest in promoting the effective use of police power in order to ensure the peace and tranquillity of the realm, and the other is the public interest in ensuring that the police power is not used in an unfair and oppressive manner towards a detained subject. But this general purpose tells us little about the objective underlying s 36(1). It is necessary to move from the general to the specific. In striking a balance between the two competing considerations of public interest, the legislature assigned a key role to custody officers in the protection of the welfare and interests of detained suspects in police stations. In doing so, the legislature adopted a recommendation of the Royal Commission on Criminal Proceedings (Cmnd 8092). Paragraph 3.112 of the Report of the Royal Commission stated:
‘We consider that what is the general practice needs to be reaffirmed, namely that, as soon as a suspect is brought into a police station under arrest, accountable responsibility for his welfare, for seeing that he is aware of his rights, for answering enquiries about his whereabouts and for decisions on his detention passes out of the hands of the arresting or investigating officer and into the hands of another officer. Who should this be? The answer to that question clearly depends upon the nature of the police station concerned and the volume of business done at it. We take the view that where the number of suspects dealt with at a police station warrants it there should be an officer whose sole responsibility should be receiving, booking in, supervising and charging suspects. He should be of no less rank than sergeant
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and should be of the uniform branch. He should be responsible to the subdivisional commander.’
In enacting of the 1984 Act the legislature apparently proceeded on the assumption that custody officers, as officers unconnected with the relevant investigation, with the rank of sergeant, and responsible only to their sub-divisional commanders, would have the necessary competence and independence to ensure that the welfare and interests of detained subjects are properly protected. And the duties of custody officers under the 1984 Act and its codes are extensive and onerous.
For my part I would start from the provisional premise that the legislature intended to introduce an effective system for the care and protection of detained suspects by custody officers. And on this basis s 36(4), which allows an independent officer of any rank to perform the function of a custody officer at a designated police station ‘if a custody officer is not readily available to perform them’, can be viewed as a concession to practicality in the light of the problems which will inevitably occur in a busy police station. In other words, there is much to be said for the view that it was not intended that chief constables would be entitled to arrange matters so that as a matter of routine officers below the rank of sergeant performed the functions of custody officers.
If the matter is approached in this way, an acceptance of the chief constable’s contention in this case leads to surprising consequences. It can best be illustrated by an example. The designated police station in Bournemouth is open 24 hours a day. In 1990 more than 7,000 persons were detained at that police station. The chief constable in fact appointed five full-time custody officers to that station. But Mr Rawley argues on behalf of the chief constable that the chief constable is bound as a matter of law to appoint only one custody officer to that police station, and that the chief constable is entitled to arrange for the great preponderance of the duties of custody officers at that police station to be discharged by constables under s 36(4). In other words, provided that the chief constable appoints one custody officer for each designated station, he is free as a matter of routine to allow the duties of custody officers to be performed by constables. On this interpretation, the chief constable may regularly use constables to perform the functions of custody officers despite the fact that the constables are not qualified for promotion to the rank of sergeant by virtue of examination results, period of service and probationary service pursuant to regs 4 and 8 of the Police (Promotion) Regulations 1979, SI 1979/991. While ineligible for appointment as custody officers, inexperienced and untrained constables may routinely be used to perform the functions of custody officers. That is the legal consequence flowing from the chief constable’s construction. The result of accepting this interpretation is even more surprising since a custody officer may be appointed to more than one police station and a custody officer may be assigned tasks other than duties as a custody officer. Mr Rawley said that these results are not so surprising if one takes into account the possibility of judicial review of the chief constable’s decisions under s 36(1) and (4) but, given the nature and width of the suggested discretion, the prospects of mounting successful review proceedings seem fairly limited.
The consequences of adopting the chief constable’s construction raised in my mind an initial scepticism that the legislature could have intended to create such an ineffective safeguard for the protection of detained suspects. And I do not regard it as a satisfactory answer to say that chief constables can be expected to act reasonably. That is of course so, but if a chief constable with a limited establishment of officers is permitted by the statute to use untrained constables as custody officers as a matter of routine, nobody can blame him if he should choose to do so.
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Given my view that the chief constable’s construction emasculates the safeguard of having custody officers of the rank of sergeant, the question is whether the language of s 36 can accommodate the construction put forward by the Police Federation. Mr Beloff QC recognised that the declaration made by the judge suffers from the flaw that it assumes that if one custody officer is available at each designated police station he will normally be able to perform the functions of a custody officer. In some large police stations in London and elsewhere that is almost certainly a wrong assumption. Accordingly, Mr Beloff refined his submission by asking for an order in the following terms:
‘A declaration that by virtue of s 36 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 the Chief Constable is under a duty to appoint sufficient Custody Officers to ensure that at each designated police Station there will ordinarily be available a Custody Officer to perform the function thereof.’
Mr Beloff also observed that in a case with public law overtones, the court ought to concentrate on the substance of the matter, leaving the precise terms of any declaration to be settled after judgment. That seems to me to be a sensible and acceptable approach.
While the Police Federation need not be rigidly tied to its formulation, the question has to be faced whether the language of s 36 can be stretched to mean that the chief constable is under a statutory duty to appoint a sufficient number of custody officers to ensure that the functions of custody officers are ordinarily performed by duly appointed custody officers, or a meaning substantially to the same effect. The context of words in a statute will frequently let in more than one meaning. It is a matter of judgment in every case whether the language can accommodate more than one meaning. Having made every allowance for the context, and the purpose of the statute, it seems to me that the paraphrased words ‘the chief constable shall appoint one or more custody officers’ are not capable of letting in a meaning imposing a duty on a chief constable to appoint a sufficient number of custody officers.
The 1984 Act was an important reforming statute. By and large the Act has worked tolerably well in practice. But the conclusion in this case shows that a central provision of the Act is a less effective safeguard than many may have thought. In saying that, I attribute no blame to the Chief Constable of the Dorset Police, or to chief constables generally. Chief constables will, of course, loyally carry out their statutory duties but with limited resources they cannot necessarily be expected to increase the quality of the safeguards beyond that required by Parliament. If there is a fault, it lies in the language of s 36. Since the effectiveness of the 1984 Act is a matter of crucial importance to the criminal justice system, it may well be that the already overburdened Royal Commission on Criminal Justice may wish to examine this point.
Reluctantly I agree that the appeal of the chief constable should be allowed.
The second point: the appointment of acting sergeants
Section 36(3) provides that no officer shall be appointed as a custody officer unless he is of at least the rank of sergeant. Regulation 4(1) of the Police (Promotion) Regulations 1979 reads as follows:
‘A constable to be qualified for promotion to rank of sergeant must—(a) have obtained a pass in the qualifying examination for promotion to the rank of sergeant; (b) have completed two years’ service; and (c) have completed his probationary service.’
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Regulation 8(1) deals with temporary promotion. It provides:
‘A member of a police force who is required to perform the duties of a higher rank may be promoted temporarily thereto, provided that, in the case of promotion to the rank of sergeant or inspector, he is qualified therefor under Regulation 4.’
It follows that a temporary sergeant holds the rank of sergeant for the period of his temporary appointment. It is accepted by the Police Federation that, while temporarily holding the rank of sergeant, a temporary sergeant may be appointed as a custody officer.
The question is whether an acting sergeant may be appointed as a custody officer. Whatever other attributes an acting sergeant may have, it can safely be accepted that he will usually be an officer who lacks the qualifications to be appointed as a temporary sergeant. When a constable is asked ‘to act up’ as a sergeant, although unqualified to be one, he clearly does not in any relevant sense hold the rank of sergeant. In these circumstances the Police Federation asked the judge to rule that an acting sergeant may not be appointed as a custody officer. The judge concluded that the Police Federation’s conclusion was correct but he decided that it was unnecessary to make a declaration to that effect.
On behalf of the chief constable, Mr Rawley submitted that the chief constable may ‘appoint’ acting sergeants, who do not hold the rank of sergeant, as custody officers under s 36(1). Prima facie the result for which Mr Rawley contends is astonishing. After all, s 36(3) expressly provides that a custody officer must hold ‘at least the rank of sergeant’. There is no definition in the 1984 Act of the words ‘at least the rank of sergeant’. It seems inevitable therefore that when the subordinate legislation governing the police specifies who does or who does not hold the rank of sergeant a court should accept that categorisation for the purposes of s 36.
Mr Rawley’ submission that acting sergeants may be appointed as custody officers is based solely on an observation by Lord Lane CJ in R v Alladice (1988) 87 Cr App R 380 at 383:
‘It is very much a matter of first impression, but in our judgment the holder of an acting rank, at least so far as authority and powers are concerned, is to be treated as if he were the holder of the substantive rank, unless his appointment to the acting rank was a colourable pretence, which is not suggested here.’
It is not clear that in R v Alladice the court was referred to regulations governing the police ranks. The judgment does not mention the regulations. In the present case the regulations have been examined in some depth. Much of the debate has concentrated on the distinction between temporary sergeants and acting sergeants. In R v Alladice no corresponding distinction was explored. Since different statutory language was under consideration in R v Alladice, the decision is not a precedent binding on us. But it seems to me that no issue corresponding to the one we have been asked to decide was debated or decided in R v Alladice. In my view the decision in R v Alladice is not only distinguishable but it is of no assistance in the present case.
The judge concluded ([1992] 3 All ER 98 at 104, [1992] 1 WLR 47 at 53):
‘… an officer required to act up to the duties of a sergeant is not qualified to be appointed a custody officer.’
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I respectfully agree. An officer who, in accordance with police regulations, has not attained the rank of sergeant has not attained eligibility for appointment as a custody officer since he does not hold ‘the rank of sergeant’ within the meaning of s 36(3).
That leaves only the question whether, as a matter of discretion, a declaration ought to be granted on this point. Mr Rawley says that the chief constable has never appointed an acting sergeant as a custody officer, and that the chief constable has no intention at present of doing so in the future. On the other hand, Mr Rawley made quite clear that the chief constable is giving no assurance that he will not do so. The chief constable apparently considers that, because of the holding in R v Alladice, he is entitled to appoint acting sergeants as custody officers if it seems necessary to do so. But, says Mr Rawley, it is unlikely to be necessary since the chief constable is entitled in terms of s 36(4) as a matter of routine to ask acting sergeants to perform the functions of custody officers. On the other hand it has to be faced that the chief constable’s use of s 36(4) in such a way could conceivably be challenged in judicial review proceedings. The chief constable may therefore have an incentive to make appointments of acting sergeants under s 36(1) if he is entitled to do so. In any event, the Police Federation are sceptical about the accuracy of the chief constable’s assertions and predictions. It is impossible on this construction summons to determine those issues. But Mr Beloff is on firmer ground when he points to the fact that the chief constable said in his affidavit: ‘There is no distinction or difference between a temporary sergeant and an “acting” sergeant.' That is an erroneous view. Mr Beloff says that if the chief constable’s mistaken view remains uncorrected it may well colour the chief constable’s approach to appointments under s 36(1).
In my view it is fair and just to grant a declaration that acting sergeants may not be appointed as custody officers. That will give the Police Federation the assurance which the chief constable is not prepared to give. And it will assist the chief constable in as much as he will know where he stands. But it is also in the wider public interest that this point, which arose for decision and has been argued by leading counsel on both sides, should be decided so that chief constables throughout the country will know where they stand.
I would therefore allow the cross-appeal.
FOX LJ. I have read in draft the judgment of McCowan LJ. I agree and would order accordingly.
Appeal allowed. Cross-appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
11 February 1993. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Templeman, Lord Goff of Chieveley and Lord Mustill) refused leave to appeal.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Re Tonbridge School Chapel (No 2)
[1993] 2 All ER 338
Categories: ECCLESIASTICAL
Court: ROCHESTER CONSISTORY COURT
Lord(s): CHANCELLOR JUDGE GOODMAN
Hearing Date(s): 3 NOVEMBER, 12 DECEMBER 1992
Ecclesiastical law – Consecrated ground – Lease – Chapel – School chapel consecrated to divine worship – School governors establishing separate charity to restore, maintain and manage chapel – Governors seeking faculty authorising lease of chapel to charity – Whether faculty could be granted for lease of consecrated land – Whether restriction on alienation of churches consecrated to public worship applying to school chapel consecrated to divine worship – Pastoral Measure 1983, s 56(2).
A school chapel which had been consecrated in 1902 ‘to the service of Almighty God and Divine Worship’ was gutted by fire in 1988, only the four walls remaining. In 1991 the governors of the school decided to build a new chapel out of the old shell and they presented a petition and were granted a faculty for that purpose. The governors subsequently decided to set up a separate charitable company to which a lease of the chapel would be granted so that the independent charity could carry out the restoration works and maintain the chapel thereafter and be responsible for its management in consultation with the school. The governors and the charity accordingly presented a petition seeking a faculty authorising the governors to grant the charity a lease of the chapel. The question arose whether a faculty could be granted for a lease of consecrated land.
Held – There was nothing at common law, which included ecclesiastical law, which prevented the alienation of consecrated land per se, and the restrictions which existed in the case of parish churches and churchyards were the consequence of property and trust considerations, those properties being vested in the incumbent by virtue of his office. It followed therefore that there was nothing at common law to prevent the leasing of a consecrated school chapel such as that at the petitioners’ school, the freehold of which was vested in its governors. Furthermore, s 56(2)a of the Pastoral Measure 1983, which provided that it was not lawful to sell, lease or otherwise dispose of a church or chapel which had been consecrated for the purpose of public worship or its site or any consecrated land belonging or annexed to it, did not apply, since the chapel had been consecrated to ‘divine worship’ and not ‘public worship’, and was in any event, like other similarly consecrated chapels, outside the parochial system. Moreover, the position of the governors could readily be distinguished from that of an incumbent of a parish church, since the governors were the freeholders and not subject to the limitations imposed on a rector or vicar in respect of his freehold and the school constituted an educational, as opposed to an ecclesiastical, charity. A faculty would therefore be granted to authorise the governors to grant a lease of the chapel (see p 346 a to d, p 347 d and p 348 j to p 349 a d j, post).
St Mary Abbots, Kensington (vicar and churchwardens) v St Mary Abbots, Kensington (inhabitants) (1873) Trist 17, St Gabriel, Fenchurch Street (rector and churchwardens) v City of London Real Property Co Ltd [1896] P 95 and Re Parish of St Swithin, Norwich [1959] 3 All ER 301 distinguished.
Dictum of Chancellor Newsom in Re St Peter’s, Bushey Heath [1971] 2 All ER 704 at 706 doubted.
Semble. There is nothing at common law to prevent the leasing of consecrated chapels in private houses, schools, hospitals and other similar institutions. The
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use to which such chapels can be put will nevertheless remain limited by the effect of consecration (see p 346 d e, post).
Notes
For alienation of consecrated ground, see 14 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1074.
For chapels, see ibid para 1225, and for cases on the subject, see 19 Digest (Reissue) 420–423, 3325–3348.
For the Pastoral Measure 1983, s 56, see 14 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 669.
Cases referred to in judgment
Campbell v Paddington (parishioners and inhabitants) (1852) 2 Rob Eccl 558, 163 ER 1413, Con Ct.
R v Twiss (1869) LR 4 QB 407, DC.
St Gabriel, Fenchurch Street (rector and churchwardens) v City of London Real Property Co Ltd [1896] P 95, Con Ct and Arches Ct.
St George Hanover Square (rector etc) v Steuart (1740) 2 Str 1126, 93 ER 1077.
St Mary Abbots, Kensington (vicar and churchwardens) v St Mary Abbots, Kensington (inhabitants) (1873) Trist 17, Con Ct.
St Paul’s, Covent Garden, Re [1974] Fam 1, [1973] 1 WLR 464, Con Ct.
St Peter’s, Bushey Heath, Re [1971] 2 All ER 704, [1971] 1 WLR 357, Con Ct.
St Swithin, Norwich (parish), Re [1959] 3 All ER 301, [1960] P 77, [1959] 3 WLR 989, Con Ct.
Tonbridge School Chapel, Re (No 1) (note) [1993] 2 All ER 350, Con Ct.
Petition for faculty
By a petition dated 17 August 1992 the petitioners, (1) the Governors of Tonbridge School (the governors) and (2) St Augustine’s Chapel Charity (the charity), a new charity which was funded in all its activities by the governors (pursuant, so far as was necessary, to schemes or other authorisation from the Charity Commission) and which was formed and registered at the Charity Commission, the principal objects of which were the rebuilding of the Chapel of St Augustine and the subsequent running and maintenance of the same for all purposes for which the previous chapel was used and maintained before its destruction by fire, sought a faculty authorising the governors to grant to the charity a lease for a term of 99 years at a nominal rent of £10 per annum of the lands comprising the site of the Chapel of St Augustine. The petition was unopposed, but in view of doubt as to whether a faculty could be granted for a lease of consecrated land the chancellor directed a hearing. The petition was heard in chambers. The reserved judgment is reported by permission of the Chancellor. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Timothy Briden (instructed by Farrer & Co) for the petitioners.
Cur adv vult
12 December 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
THE CHANCELLOR. This is a petition by the Governors of Tonbridge School (the governors) for a faculty permitting them to grant a lease of the lands comprising the site of the chapel at Tonbridge School to St Augustine’s Chapel Charity (the charity) for a term of 99 years at a rent of £10 per year. The governors of the school are in fact the Governors of the Skinners Company, to whom the school’s founder, Sir Andrew Judd, left the property in trust for the school in 1558.
Tonbridge School is itself, of course, a charity and the proposal to grant this
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lease has been approved by the Charity Commission by an order sealed on 10 September 1992 pursuant to s 23 of the Charities Act 1960.
However, Tonbridge School Chapel (the chapel), which was consecrated on 26 May 1902, is subject to the faculty jurisdiction, as was averred and accepted by the governors and Tonbridge and Malling Borough Council (the council) at the hearing of an earlier petition by the governors to which I will refer in a moment. Therefore a faculty is required before the proposed lease can be granted, in addition to the approval of the Charity Commission.
BACKGROUND
The chapel was virtually gutted by a disastrous fire in 1988, only the four main walls remaining. The governors eventually decided to build a new chapel out of the old shell and in July 1991 they presented a petition for a faculty for that purpose. Planning permission was granted but certain aspects of the proposed restoration were nevertheless opposed by the council on the grounds that they were not appropriate in the case of the chapel which was and remains a listed building (grade II). Eventually, following a contested hearing which took place at the school in July 1992, I gave my reserved written judgment on 28 August (see Re Tonbridge School Chapel (No 1) (note) [1993] 2 All ER 350), in which I stated that I would grant the faculty as prayed subject to certain conditions and I directed counsel then appearing for the governors to draw up minutes of order in consultation with the solicitor who appeared for the council and to submit them to me for my approval. Draft minutes of order have been submitted and have been approved by me subject to certain amendments. The faculty for the restoration works dated 9 December 1992 requires that they should be completed within a period of five years. Among the other conditions is one which requires detailed proposals regarding internal furnishings to be submitted to the diocesan advisory committee for their consideration and then to me for my approval. It is, I gather, hoped to make a start on the works in the very near future. The estimated cost of these works is £7m.
Following the presentation of their petition for the restoration works, the governors decided to set up a separate charitable company to which a lease would be granted so that the independent charity could carry out the works and maintain the chapel thereafter and be responsible for its management in consultation with the school. The charity was incorporated on 12 September 1991 as a company limited by guarantee and named St Augustine’ Chapel Charity, the original chapel having been dedicated to St Augustine. The proposal to grant a lease to the charity was not canvassed during the hearing in July. Thereafter, and while I was still writing my judgment, the governors presented their present petition, informing the registrar that they had not thought it appropriate to raise this matter about the lease until the court had reached its decision about the proposed restoration as such.
THE PETITION FOR A LEASE
Following receipt of the present petition dated 17 August 1992 I directed a general citation and, as the earlier petition had attracted a good deal of attention, I also directed, as I had previously, that there should be special citation on the Old Boys Association and that the present proposal should be advertised in the national and local press. I also directed that a copy of the present petition should be sent to the council.
No opposition was forthcoming but, because it seemed to me that there was considerable doubt as to whether I could grant a faculty for a lease of the site of the chapel, which had of course been consecrated, I decided to hear the matter in
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chambers, at which the petitioners were represented by Mr Briden. I am grateful to him for the considerable assistance he was able to give me at the hearing on 3 November, as well as for certain further written submissions which have been sent to me in response to my request for clarification on certain points. The petitioners’ solicitors have also supplied further information.
In the course of the hearing Mr Briden supplied me with the memorandum and articles of association of St Augustine’s Chapel Charity, a list of the proposed directors of the company, should a lease be granted, the draft lease from the governors to the charity and a statutory declaration by the assistant to the clerk of the governors, confirming that the chapel has always been vested in the governors since Sir Andrew Judd’s death in 1558. I have not seen a formal resolution by the governors in support of their present petition but I am fully satisfied that it is being presented with their authority. Such a resolution should be filed at the registry as soon as possible.
The reasons why the governors wish to grant a lease to the charity were adverted to in the petition and expanded by Mr Briden in his submissions to me. First, I am told, it seemed desirable to have the funds earmarked for what is going to be known as the New Chapel made over to a separate independent charity which would be responsible for restoration and the subsequent maintenance and management of the chapel, which is of course subject to the faculty jurisdiction. Secondly, it was felt that funds resulting from any appeal which may have to be launched would best be applied to an independent fund separate from that available for other school purposes. Thirdly, the charity would be better placed to make the chapel available for religious and educational purposes in a wider context than just for school services. There has, as I know, always been a close link between the chapel and the local community and it was felt that if the chapel was subject to a separate trust, there would be a sound basis for continuing and developing contact and co-operation with the Tonbridge community. With this in mind, I understand that the Bishop of Rochester has agreed to nominate one of the directors, whom he proposes should be the vicar of Tonbridge.
The final reason for granting the lease to a separate charity, and a compelling one I am sure, relates to value added tax. Mr Briden told me that the governors had been advised that if they carried out the restoration work themselves value added tax would be payable in respect of the cost, as the school, although a charity itself, is regarded as carrying on a business for value added tax purposes. On the other hand, if the chapel was vested in a separate charity constituted for the purpose of restoring, maintaining and managing the chapel, as the objects clause in the memorandum of association indicates, there would be no liability to this tax.
Clause 3 of the memorandum provides:
‘The exclusively charitable objects for which the Company is established are:—
3.1 The advancement of religion by providing religious premises and in particular by:
3.1.1 acquiring land and buildings at Tonbridge School for use as a chapel for persons professing the Christian faith and in particular for the pupils of Tonbridge School;
3.1.2 rebuilding, repairing, preserving and maintaining the fabric and contents of the chapel;
3.1.3 holding services in the chapel.
3.2 The advancement of religious and musical education of pupils attending Tonbridge School by means of classes, seminars, lectures and musical performances.
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3.3 The advancement of education and of religion generally.’
Clause 4, which sets out the powers of the charity, specifically authorises the charity to accept leases of real property.
THE LAW
The first matter I have to consider in this case is whether I have jurisdiction to grant a faculty authorising the governors to grant a lease in respect of this consecrated school chapel.
(1) Common law
On my initial perusal of the papers I had grave doubts whether a lease of a consecrated school chapel or its site was possible in terms of ecclesiastical law, albeit it was a chapel outside the parochial system. There are a number of statements in the textbooks which seem to say just that. Thus in 14 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1074, n 2 one reads: ‘It has repeatedly been held that it is impossible to alienate or create any legal estate in consecrated land without the authority of an Act or Measure …' This is repeated in para 1080. In Cripps on Church and Clergy (8th edn, 1937) p 245 it is stated thus: ‘There is no power to grant the freehold of consecrated ground by faculty.’ (See also p 247, n(x).) And in the late Chancellor Newsom’s Faculty Jurisdiction of the Church of England (1988) p 100 there appears this passage: ‘… no legal estate can be created in consecrated land.' On this basis the most that could be granted would be a licence to use the land or part of it or any consecrated buildings thereon for a limited period and for purposes consistent with the land being consecrated.
However, Mr Briden submits that the bald statements of principle in these textbooks are too wide and are not justified by the cases cited therein, all of which were concerned with parish churches and churchyards within the parochial system. He submits, in the context in which the statements of principle appear, that the authors could not have had in mind consecrated buildings and land of the kind involved here. He contends that the reason it is impossible for an incumbent to grant a lease of the parish church or its churchyard—or of course sell either of them—is not because they are consecrated as such but because, as the cases indicate, the incumbent only has a limited interest in property law which does not permit him to sell or lease the land or buildings. While the incumbent is described as enjoying ‘the parson’s freehold’, it is a very attenuated freehold. It is limited to the duration of his incumbency, which must now normally terminate when he reaches the age of 70 (see the Ecclesiastical Offices (Age Limit) Measure 1975), whereupon the church and churchyard will in due course become vested in his successor. Moreover, he points out that the incumbent’s freehold is hedged about by all sorts of rights for the parishioners and others for whom he holds the church and churchyard on trust. Indeed as Chancellor Ellison put it in Re Parish of St Swithin, Norwich [1959] 3 All ER 301 at 304, [1960] P 77 at 81, albeit in a slightly different context to which I will return:
‘Any notion of sale or exchange is, of course, wholly inconsistent with the incumbent’s duty to preserve the church with its ornaments, furnishings and beauty for posterity and also with the parishioners’ rights at common law to worship in the church and be buried in the parish churchyard.’
On the other hand Mr Briden submits that the owners of a consecrated chapel in a private house or school, hospital or other similar institution and, I suggested in argument, the owners of a local authority cemetery, part of which has been consecrated for burials according to the rites and ceremonies of the Church of
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England, stand in a wholly different position. He contends that it would be surprising and indeed extraordinary if such owners were unable to dispose of their property. Such a chapel might be situated in a large building, the remainder of which was not consecrated; the consecrated area of land, maybe including a cemetery chapel, might be placed in the middle of an otherwise unconsecrated local authority cemetery, thereby virtually rendering the whole building or land inalienable. The same would apply if one monastic community wished to sell its land and buildings including its consecrated chapel to another monastic community. Mr Briden accepts that, if there was a sale or lease of the chapel, it would remain subject to the effects of consecration which would prevent it being put to other uses by its new owners or lessees.
I dealt with the uncertain position of consecrated chapels in cemeteries, schools, hospitals and other institutions or in private houses in relation to the faculty jurisdiction in my earlier judgment (see p 350, post, and see also 14 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1309 and Moore’s Introduction to Canon Law (3rd edn, 1992) p 87) and I shall say something more about this in a moment.
I now turn to the authorities.
The first case to which I was referred was St Mary Abbots, Kensington (vicar and churchwardens) v St Mary Abbots, Kensington (inhabitants) (1873) Trist 17. The headnote reads as follows:
‘The use of a small strip of a churchyard, which had been closed for burials was granted by Faculty, so long as it might be required for the purpose, for a public footway to be constructed outside the churchyard wall, the Court being satisfied that the reasonable convenience of the parishioners attending the church, as well as of the public, could not be otherwise provided for. If at any future time the ground in question were to cease to be required for this purpose, it reverts to the church. The Court has no power to grant the freehold or fee of consecrated ground to a local board, or to any other person, but only the use of it by Faculty.’
On reading the judgment it becomes quite clear that the Chancellor, Dr Tristram, was considering the question of a right of way in relation to consecrated land specifically in the context of a parish church or churchyard. As he said (at 19):
‘But the Court is asked to sanction a grant of this strip of consecrated ground being made to the Local Board. This neither the Vicar nor the Court has power to do. The freehold of the churchyard is in the Vicar for the use of the parishioners, subject to the jurisdiction of this Court, but the fee is in abeyance. The Court cannot give away what is has not got.’
In St Gabriel, Fenchurch Street (rector and churchwardens) v City of London Real Property Co Ltd [1896] P 95 the court was concerned about the proposed demise by the rector of a right of way across the churchyard. In his judgment (at 101) Dr Tristram said that the Ecclesiastical Leasing Acts 1842 and 1858 were limited in their operation to glebe lands and property of that description, and could not, on any reasonable interpretation or in law be extended to churchyards, and for this reason (at 101–102):
‘churchyards are by the law placed under the protection and control of the Ecclesiastical Courts and the freehold of the churchyard is in the rector, the fee being in abeyance; but the freehold is vested in him for the use (in so far as may be required) of the parishioners. Subject to that use, he is entitled to receive the profits arising from the churchyard; but he cannot by law make any appropriation of the soil of the churchyard. Such appropriation can only
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be made for limited purposes by a faculty issued from the Ecclesiastical Court.’
In the more recent case of Re St Peter’s, Bushey Heath [1971] 2 All ER 704, [1971] 1 WLR 357 the court had before it a petition for a faculty for a right of way over unconsecrated curtilage. I appeared myself as counsel for the petitioners and it is right to say that I am recorded as having conceded ([1971] 2 All ER 704 at 706, [1971] 1 WLR 357 at 360), correctly in the view of Chancellor Newsom, ‘that it is impossible to create a legal estate in consecrated land, save under the authority of an Act of Parliament or a Measure’, reference being made to the St Mary Abbots case. But I think it is clear that neither the court—nor I—had in mind the application of this principle to a school chapel.
Finally in Re St Paul’s, Covent Garden [1974] Fam 1 at 4 Chancellor Newsom considered the precise status of an incumbent in relation to a churchyard and commented as follows:
‘In a judgment in this court, later approved (though not explicitly on this point) by Lord Penzance, Dean, in the Court of Arches, Tristram Ch. stated that the freehold of a churchyard is in the rector, the fee being in abeyance: see St. Gabriel, Fenchurch Street v. City of London Real Property Co. Ltd. ([1896] P 95 at 101). At the date of that decision there could of course be a legal life estate, which was a freehold estate. In my judgment, it was that to which Tristram Ch. was referring as being the freehold vested in the incumbent. There is nothing so far as I can find in the transitional provisions of the Law of Property Act 1925 or in the Settled Land Act 1925 which has given the incumbent the legal fee simple and, in my judgment, the fee simple is, as it always was, in abeyance.’
In all these cases the courts were concerned with the inability of an incumbent to grant a legal estate in respect of the parish church or churchyard due to his limited interest. Naturally, nearly all parish churches and churchyards at that time were consecrated and, even if they were not—as increasingly happens in the case of new churches—the incumbent would still be unable to grant a lease because of the nature of the freehold vested in him.
In R v Twiss (1869) LR 4 QB 407 at 412, which was decided before any of the cases cited to me, Cockburn CJ said:
‘… I do not hesitate to express a very decided opinion that the doctrine laid down by Dr. Lushington [in Campbell v Paddington (parishioners and inhabitants) (1852) 2 Rob Eccl 558 at 559, 163 ER 1413] is perfectly correct, that when ground is once consecrated and dedicated to sacred purposes, no judge has power to grant a faculty to sanction the use of it for secular purposes, and that nothing short of an act of parliament can divest consecrated ground of its sacred character …’
This observation dealt with consecrated land in general and was concerned with the use to which it could be put rather than with the question of alienation. See also St George Hanover Square (rector etc) v Steuart (1740) 2 Str 1126, 93 ER 1077 and Campbell v Paddington (parishioners and inhabitants) (1852) 2 Rob Eccl 558, 163 ER 1413.
This has led me to consider whether a proper distinction can be made between the effect of consecration with regard to the use to which consecrated land can be put, as opposed to the question whether it makes the land inalienable. In this connection I was referred by Mr Briden to an interesting discourse by that distinguished and very learned canon lawyer, the late Rev Chancellor E Garth
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Moore, in his valuable book Introduction to English Canon Law, of which I have already made mention. The first edition (1967) was the work of Chancellor Moore alone. In the second edition (1985) Mr Briden was his co-author and in the third edition (1992), following Chancellor Moore’s death, Mr Briden was joined by Mr Brian Hanson. I wish to make it clear that the passage from the third edition which I shall read in a moment is in Chancellor Moore’s own words in the first edition and has remained unchanged except for a reference to the Care of Churches and Ecclesiastical Jurisdiction Measure 1991. Chancellor Moore wrote as follows (at p 86):
‘Consecration must not be confused with dedication. Theologically it would seem that there is no difference between the two. Each is an act by man whereby he gives back to God what God has given or lent to man to do therewith what he will. By freely giving it back to God man in effect declares himself a trustee of the land for godly purposes. But such a declaration, if expressed by dedication, amounts in law to no more than an expression of pious intention. To be clothed with legal effect it is necessary that there should be a sentence of consecration by the Bishop, which occurs only after the freehold of the land has been secured. Though in practice there is invariably a religious ceremony devised and performed by the Bishop, the legal effect of consecration is brought about by his signing the sentence of consecration which is then lodged in the Diocesan Registry. The effect of this is twofold; first, it brings the land and everything on it within the jurisdiction of the ordinary; secondly, it as it were freezes the land forever by setting it aside in sacros usus. Thereafter only an Act of Parliament or a Measure, or a direction given under the Pastoral Measure 1983 or the Care of Churches and Ecclesiastical Jurisdiction Measure 1991, can remove the legal effects of consecration and thereby free the land for secular purposes.’
In a footnote at this point the learned author comments as follows:
‘It is said that it is not possible to convey the freehold of consecrated land. It is doubtful whether this is correct. But it is certainly of very little advantage to do so, for the land still remains consecrated and is still, therefore, under the jurisdiction of the ordinary and subject to all the limitations of consecration.’
In another passage in his book (at p 87) Chancellor Moore deals with the position of a private chapel in relation to the faculty jurisdiction when he observes that ‘as in the case of the Parish Church, the ordinary is the Bishop, and thus the private chapel was brought within the faculty jurisdiction of the Consistory Court’. It was for this reason that I held Tonbridge School Chapel to be within the faculty jurisdiction. In a further footnote Chancellor Moore adds:
‘the owners of private chapels sometimes find themselves seriously embarrassed by the limitation which [the faculty jurisdiction] places on their freedom to deal with the chapel as they wish. If the full implications of consecration had been realised, resort might have been had to dedication rather than to consecration.’
In the light of the authorities and Chancellor Moore’s observations, I think it is significant that the first reference to the need for an Act of Parliament was made by Dr Lushington in the context of deciding whether a faculty could be granted or the use of consecrated land or any building erected thereon for secular purposes and not whether the same could be let or sold. It was in the later cases, concerned
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with the incumbent’s freehold in respect of the parish church and churchyard, that the property status of the land or building, rather than the use to which such land or building could be put, became a determinant factor. This led to the observation of Chancellor Newsom in Re St Peter’s, Bushey Heath [1971] 2 All ER 704 at 706, [1971] 1 WLR 357 at 360 that ‘it is impossible to create a legal estate in consecrated land, save under the authority of an Act of Parliament or a Measure’. With due respect to such a distinguished chancellor, whom I indeed encouraged to make that observation, I consider on reflection that it is a generalisation and is not justified by the authorities taken as a whole.
In my view, therefore, there is nothing at common law—and that of course includes ecclesiastical law—which prevents the alienation of consecrated land per se. The restrictions which of course exist in the case of parish churches and churchyards are, in my opinion, the consequence of property and trust considerations, these properties being vested in the incumbent by virtue of his office. There will be other consecrated buildings and land which are inalienable (save pursuant to an Act or Measure) for other reasons—cathedrals are an example given by Chancellor Ellison in Re Parish of St Swithin, Norwich [1959] 3 All ER 301 at 305, [1960] P 77 at 83.
I thus hold that there is nothing at common law to prevent the leasing of a consecrated school chapel such as that at Tonbridge School, the freehold of which is vested in its governors. The same would, moreover, I think apply to most consecrated chapels in private houses, schools, hospitals and other similar institutions. The use to which such chapels can be put will nevertheless remain limited by the effect of consecration.
(2) Pastoral Measure 1983
However, the position at common law has recently been affected by s 56(2) of the Pastoral Measure 1983 (re-enacting s 56(2) of the Pastoral Measure 1968). This provides:
‘It shall not be lawful to sell, lease or otherwise dispose of any church or part of a church or the site or part of the site of any church or any consecrated land belonging or annexed to a church except in pursuance of powers under this Part or section 30.’
Why it was thought appropriate to include this provision, which appears to be of general application, in the part of the Measure dealing with redundancy I am not sure.
‘Church’ is defined in s 87(1) as meaning ‘a church or chapel which has been consecrated for the purpose of public worship according to the rites and ceremonies of the Church of England …’; cf the same definition in s 3 of the Interpretation Measure 1925.
The sentence of consecration in this case dated 26 May 1902 provided that the chapel was consecrated ‘to the service of Almighty God and Divine Worship therein according to the rites and ceremonies of the Church of England’. It was not consecrated to ‘public worship’ but to ‘divine worship’. If ‘divine worship’ is not the same as ‘public worship’ then s 56(2) does not apply to the chapel. What then does ‘divine worship’ mean?
According to 14 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1225:
‘… in strict legal parlance a chapel is a building consecrated for the purposes of divine worship in accordance with the tenets of the Church of
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England, other than the church of a parish or the cathedral church of a diocese.’
In this sense it is to be contrasted with the parish church, which, whether consecrated or not, is inevitably made available for public worship, where the parishioners enjoy the right of attending the statutory services and of being married there and being buried in the churchyard (if there is one). Moreover (para 993)
‘A minister must not refuse or, save for the purpose of preparing or instructing the parents or guardians or godparents, delay to baptise any infant within his cure who is brought to the church to be baptised, provided that due notice has been given and the provisions relating to godparents are observed.’
In this case the chapel belongs to the school and exists for the benefit of its pupils and staff. The public are of course not entitled to admission although they are no doubt welcomed there, as are parents. However, they clearly attend there by invitation.
In these circumstances, I have no hesitation in finding that the chapel was not consecrated for the purposes of public worship and accordingly s 56(2) does not apply. This, in my opinion, is not surprising bearing in mind the fact that the chapel, like other similar consecrated chapels, is outside the parochial system, its ownership being vested in the school’s governors.
I do not forget the provisions of s 22(1) of the Care of Churches and Ecclesiastical Jurisdiction Measure 1991, which comes into operation on 1 March 1993, under which a bishop is able to make an order in respect of any ‘building or land … which … (a) … is not held or controlled by any ecclesiastical corporation (that is to say, any corporation in the Church of England, whether sole or aggregate, which is established for spiritual purposes) or by any Diocesan Board of Finance … [where] (b) no purpose will be served by its remaining subject to the legal effects of consecration’. In that event the faculty jurisdiction would also cease to be applicable to the building or land (see sub-s (4)). But, as I have already held that the chapel is not subject to any prohibition against alienation as such, that provision would not be required in this case to enable a lease to be granted.
That said, there remains one further problem and that is: by what means can the governors grant a lease to the charity?
(3) Settled Land Act 1925
Mr Briden submits that the governors are entitled to grant a lease of the chapel to the charity by virtue of s 29 of the Settled Land Act 1925, which provides:
‘(1) For the purposes of this section, all land vested or to be vested in trustees on or for charitable, ecclesiastical, or public trusts or purposes shall be deemed to be settled land, and the trustees shall, without constituting them statutory owners, have in reference to the land, all the powers which are by this Act conferred on a tenant for life and on the trustees of a settlement …
(3) Nothing in this section affects the jurisdiction of the court, Charity Commissioners, Board of Education, or other competent authority, in regard to the administration of charitable, ecclesiastical, or public trusts …’
Section 41 of the 1925 Act, so far as applicable, provides:
‘A tenant for life may lease the settled land, or any part thereof … for any
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purpose whatever … for any term not exceeding—(i) In the case of a building lease, nine hundred and ninety-nine years …’
Section 44(1) provides:
‘Every building lease shall be made partly in consideration of the lessee, or some person by whose direction the lease is granted, or some other person, having erected or agreeing to erect buildings, new or additional, or having improved or repaired or agreeing to improve or repair buildings, or having executed or agreeing to execute on the land leased, an improvement authorised by this Act for or in connexion with building purposes.’
The governors intend to grant a lease for 99 years to the charity pursuant to their powers and rely on the order of the Charity Commissioners of 10 September 1992, which reads as follows:
‘Whereas:
1. It has been represented to The Charity Commissioners for England and Wales, by or on behalf of the Trustees of the above-mentioned Charity (hereinafter referred to as the Charity), that the Trustees propose to lease the property specified in the schedule hereto and belonging to the Charity to the Trustees of St. Augustine’s Chapel Charity administered in connection with Tonbridge School, at Tonbridge, in the County of Kent, for a period of 99 years at a yearly rent of £10 to be appropriated for the general purposes thereof.
2. It appears to the Commissioners that action proposed as aforesaid is expedient in interests of the Charity:
Now the Commissioners by this order sanction the action proposed as aforesaid.’
Mr Briden very properly referred me to a passage in Re Parish of St Swithin Norwich [1959] 3 All ER 301 at 304, [1960] P 77 at 81 where Chancellor Ellison held that he had no jurisdiction to grant a faculty to enable the incumbent to grant to a bank an option to take a lease of the parish church, holding that—
‘land vested in trustees for ecclesiastical purposes as referred to in s. 29 does not include consecrated buildings and land such as churches and churchyards which are vested in an incumbent for the duration of his incumbency. To hold otherwise would seem to me to introduce the gravest complications. It is true that to some extent an incumbent holds the land in a capacity as trustee for himself, for his successor incumbents and for the parishioners, present and future, in their respective spheres. The exercise of some of those elements of trusteeship seems to be antithetic to the exercise of some of the powers of a tenant for life.’
He went on to refer to s 29(3), saying ([1959] 3 All ER 301 at 304, [1960] P 77 at 82):
‘I do not think that Parliament ever intended that those Courts should engage themselves in matters relating to consecrated churches and churchyards, the administration of which has from time immemorial fallen within the jurisdiction of the ordinary, exercised through the consistory court.’
In view of the conclusion I have reached in this matter already, while I can readily understand the Chancellor’s decision in relation to the position of an incumbent of a parish church, I consider that that case can be readily distinguished
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as I am of course dealing here with a case where the governors are the freeholders and not subject to the limitations imposed on a rector or vicar in respect of his freehold. Moreover Tonbridge School constitutes an educational, as opposed to an ecclesiastical, charity.
Of course I would not countenance granting a faculty if the chapel was going to be used for secular purposes by the lessee and unless the future of the chapel as the chapel of Tonbridge School was secured as such and would remain within the faculty jurisdiction which would bind the lessee just as much as it does the governors. But, having read the draft lease, I do not think there is any problem here on that score and I am fortified in that opinion by the terms of the memorandum and articles of association of the charity. The problem facing Chancellor Ellison therefore does not arise.
Chancellor Ellison also considered the question whether the consistory court was a court of competent jurisdiction within the meaning of s 29 of the Charitable Trusts Amendment Act 1855. This Act has now been repealed by the Charities Act 1960 and, in view of the position held by the governors, I do not think any issue arises with regard to that. All I can do by granting a faculty is to authorise the governors to grant a lease which has already been sanctioned by the Charity Commission.
THE CHARITY
I have considered the memorandum and articles of association of the charity, which, as I have already indicated, also serve to ensure the future of the chapel subject to the lease and I see no problems arising with respect thereto.
Nevertheless I propose to make it a condition of granting the faculty that the charity is joined as a petitioner so that it will be clear beyond any doubt that the charity is as much subject to the faculty jurisdiction as regards the future of the chapel as are the governors. I understand that the charity is willing to be added and to submit to the jurisdiction and I grant leave for it to be added.
THE LEASE
I have considered the terms of the lease as amended and I am satisfied that its terms protect the chapel and the jurisdiction of this court.
THE OBJECTS OF THE LEASE
As I have already indicated an important, if not the primary, reason for granting a lease to the charity is to avoid the application of value added tax. I was at one time troubled by this, but it is clear that it is avoidance and not evasion that is involved and full disclosure was made to the Charity Commission when seeking authority to grant the lease. I have received evidence which satisfies me that the Charity Commission was fully aware of this purpose and indeed the Inland Revenue had been consulted and were agreeable to the registration of the charity. In the circumstances, I accept Mr Briden’s submissions that the governors would be found wanting in exercising their duties as trustees if they did not so order their affairs as to minimise their liability to tax for the sake of their beneficiaries. That said, the precise position regarding value added tax is of course a matter for the charity and HM Customs and Excise to resolve.
DECISION
Subject to the charity being added as a petitioner, I propose to grant a faculty authorising the governors to grant a lease in the form initialled by me to the charity. The faculty will be subject to two conditions. First 28 days’ notice must be given by the charity to the registrar of any proposed appointment of a director
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to the charity. Second the charity must prior to the commencement of any works on the new chapel by resolution confirm that it will abide by the terms and conditions of the faculty granted on 9 December 1992 to the governors in respect of the works intended to be carried out thereunder and notify the registrar thereof.
The governors will be responsible for the payment of all court fees, including a correspondence fee for the registrar which I will assess in due course.
Petition granted.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Note
Re Tonbridge School Chapel (No 1)
[1993] 2 All ER 350
Categories: ECCLESIASTICAL
Court: ROCHESTER CONSISTORY COURT
Lord(s): CHANCELLOR JUDGE GOODMAN
Hearing Date(s): 30, 31 JULY, 28 AUGUST 1992
Ecclesiastical law – Faculty – Consecrated school chapel – Planning and listed building controls – Consecrated school chapel listed as being of special architectural or historic interest – Restrictions on alterations to listed buildings not applying to ecclesiastical buildings – School chapel consecrated to divine worship – Whether consecrated school chapel subject to faculty jurisdiction in respect of building works.
Notes
For listed building consent and the exemption in respect of ecclesiastical buildings, see 46 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 903.
For the principles and practice of the faculty jurisdiction, see 14 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1310, and for cases on the subject, see 19 Digest (Reissue) 452–461, 3564–3622.
For the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990, s 60, see 46 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 1064.
Cases referred to in judgment
All Saints, Melbourn, Re [1992] 2 All ER 786, [1990] 1 WLR 833, Arches Ct.
Peek v Trower (1881) 7 PD 21, Arches Ct.
St Mary’s, Banbury, Re [1987] 1 All ER 247, [1987] Fam 136, [1987] 3 WLR 717, Arches Ct.
St Stephen Walbrook, Re [1987] 2 All ER 578, [1987] Fam 146, [1987] 3 WLR 726, CECR.
Petition for faculty
By a petition dated 25 July 1991 the Governors of Tonbridge School sought a faculty authorising certain works to the Tonbridge School Chapel, a grade II listed building which was extensively damaged by fire in 1988. Applications for planning permission for the works and for listed building consent were submitted to the local planning authority, Tonbridge and Malling Borough Council, on 21 June 1991. The case is reported only on (a) the application of the faculty jurisdiction to consecrated school chapels and (b) the relationship of secular planning and listed building controls and the faculty jurisdiction of the consistory court.
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Philip Petchey (instructed by Farrer & Co) for the petitioners.
Mrs Janet Bowen, Tonbridge and Malling Borough Solicitor, West Malling, for the council.
28 August 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
THE CHANCELLOR. I have before me a petition dated 25 July 1991 by the Governors of Tonbridge School for a faculty for the rebuilding of the school chapel which was almost totally destroyed by a disastrous fire on 17 September 1988, believed to have been caused by an electrical fault in the roof. All that remained were the four walls.
The rebuilding programme is in accordance with a brief drawn up by the governors and a design prepared by their architect, Donald Buttress. Planning permission was granted by the Tonbridge and Malling Council on 20 March 1992 but, for reasons which will become apparent, the petition is nevertheless opposed by the council with regard to five particular aspects of the design.
[The Chancellor then considered the background to the petition, discussing the history of the school and its chapel, the problems posed by the fire and the architect’s proposals. The Chancellor continued:]
Faculty and listed building consent procedures
In June 1991 an application was submitted by the governors to the council for planning permission. At the same time an application was made for listed building consent which the governors then assumed was required. On 27 July, having already consulted the diocesan advisory committee, which had on 20 June generally commended the proposals, which were described as ‘sensible and acceptable’, subject to certain matters which they invited Mr Buttress to reconsider, the governors petitioned this court for a faculty.
I should here explain briefly the relationship between state planning and listed building control and the Church of England’s own system of control over church buildings under the faculty jurisdiction. All buildings, secular and ecclesiastical, are subject to state planning control, which, among other things, requires planning permission for building operations which include rebuilding, structural alterations or additions to existing buildings. Thus, except in the case of planning permission required for a ‘material change of use’, it concerns the exterior rather than the interior of buildings—see the Town and Country Planning Act 1990.
On the other hand, where a building has been listed by the Secretary of State as a building of ‘special architectural or historic interest’, there being three grades, grade I, grade II* and grade II—
‘… no person shall execute or cause to be executed any works for the demolition of a listed building or for its alteration or extension in any manner which would affect its character as a building of special architectural or historic interest, unless the works are authorised.’ (See the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990, s 7.)
Consent can be given by the Secretary of State or the local authority (see s 8). Listed building control extends to the interior as well as to the exterior of buildings. This legislation is clearly designed to protect and preserve buildings which form part of our national heritage. English Heritage is a body which exists to advise the Secretary of State and local authorities on applications for listed building consent and on certain aspects of planning permission where listed buildings are involved. It also deals with applications for grants by way of state aid for the repair of such buildings.
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However, by what is now s 60 of the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990 the necessity for listed building consent before works are carried out does not apply to ‘any ecclesiastical building which is for the time being used for ecclesiastical purposes’. This is because the ecclesiastical authorities of the various churches are left to administer their own forms of control over such listed buildings, where of course special considerations relating to function and use arise. In the case of the Church of England there is a long-established and very full system of control which requires a faculty to be obtained from the consistory court of the diocese before any but the most minor alterations, additions or changes are made to the fabric of a church or its contents. The jurisdiction of the court is exercised by the chancellor of the diocese and he has the benefit of advice from the diocesan advisory committee for the care of churches, which includes experienced church architects, archaeologists, artists, engineers, town planners and experts in many fields. Indeed there will certainly be at least one member appointed after consultation with English Heritage and another appointed after consultation with the national amenity societies. It will also include the archdeacons of the diocese, who can give great assistance with regard to theological and liturgical questions which may arise. The chancellor can also seek advice elsewhere, sometimes from English Heritage. The Church of England’s system has been reviewed recently by the Faculty Jurisdiction Commission and, following discussion between church and state, many of its recommendations for improvement in the faculty system have been incorporated in the Care of Churches and Ecclesiastical Jurisdiction Measure 1991, which is shortly to come into force.
The petition
On receiving the petition in this case I was prepared to accept jurisdiction although it is not usual for the faculty procedure to be invoked in the case of school chapels.
Generally speaking the faculty jurisdiction is applied to parish churches and other consecrated buildings within a parish. Certain buildings are clearly outside the faculty jurisdiction, for example cathedrals (although a new system of Church control for cathedrals has been introduced by the Care of Cathedrals Measure 1990). The position with regard to consecrated school chapels and the consecrated chapels of certain other institutions ‘is not sufficiently clear to justify any general statement of the law’ (see 14 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1309). It may depend to some extent on whether the bishop is the Ordinary in respect of the chapel in question and whether the chapel was consecrated for public worship (see para 1309).
However, in this case the chapel was consecrated by the archbishop ‘to the service of Almighty God and Divine Worship therein according to the rites and ceremonies of the Church of England’, and I note that in the faculty of 1907 the Bishop of Rochester describes himself as acting ‘by virtue of our Authority Ordinary and Episcopal’. Moreover, faculties have been granted on three occasions since the chapel was consecrated and I have no doubt that such distinguished and learned chancellors as Chancellor Errington back in 1907 and Chancellor Vaisey in 1923 would have declined jurisdiction if they had had the slightest doubt about the matter. It was for that reason that I was prepared to accept jurisdiction in 1990 concerning the petition for a faculty for the temporary protection of the walls of the chapel and why I do so now. It would clearly be welcomed by all concerned with consecrated chapels of schools, colleges, cemeteries, hospitals and other institutions, or even private houses, if the law was made clearer.
I should add that, at a summons for directions which I held in June, both
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counsel for the governors and the solicitor for the council who had previously considered the matter, expressly accepted that the faculty jurisdiction applied. They reiterated their agreement at the hearing before me in July. Indeed they also informed me that they agreed that the chapel, whilst properly listed pursuant to s 60 of the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990 is exempt from the requirements for listed building consent.
It does seem to me desirable that an ecclesiastical building should be under one or other form of control, ecclesiastical or secular, rather than both, or possibly in some cases, neither. Having submitted to the jurisdiction of the consistory court the governors in due course withdrew their application for listed building consent.
[The Chancellor then pointed out that, although no objections to the petition were received within the time allowed following citation of the petition and public notice in the national and local press, the council applied to enter an objection out of time. Having referred to the planning permission granted to rebuild and refit the chapel, the Chancellor then considered the law.]
The law
During the hearing there was some discussion as to how far I should have regard to the principles applied by a local planning authority in deciding whether or not to grant listed building consent and, by agreement between the parties, I have since received further written submissions on this point.
In his judgment in the Court of Ecclesiastical Causes Reserved in Re St Stephen Walbrook [1987] 2 All ER 578 at 599–600, [1987] Fam 146 at 192—this being a listed church grade I—Sir Ralph Gibson said:
‘… in exempting ecclesiastical buildings from the provisions of the [Town and Country Planning Act 1971] [now s 60 of the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990] Parliament relied on the care and responsibility of the ecclesiastical authorities, including those exercising faculty jurisdiction, to ensure that churches of special architectural or historic interest are as fully protected in the interest of the general public as are secular buildings in the secular context. The principles applied in the faculty jurisdiction have, as the citations from decided cases set out in this judgment make clear, long recognised the obligation to protect for the whole community and for future generations churches of special architectural or historic interest against irreversible and inappropriate changes at the hands of those having the immediate care of the building … The right approach in my view is to exercise the discretion as I think Parliament intended that it should be exercised, namely in accordance with established principles, and that includes, of course, having full regard to all the circumstances including the interest of the community as a whole in the special architectural or historic attributes of the building and to the desirability of preserving the building and any features of a special architectural or historic interest which it possesses’.
In the later case in the Arches Court of Canterbury of Re All Saints, Melbourn [1992] 2 All ER 786 at 796, [1990] 1 WLR 833 at 844 the Dean of the Arches, Sir John Owen, said that, when a church is listed as a building of special architectural or historic interest, there is a strong presumption against allowing any change which would adversely affect its character. I of course have to bear in mind that he, like Sir Ralph Gibson in the earlier case, was very clearly thinking in terms of alterations to a complete building rather than rebuilding from a mere shell, which is of course a very unusual situation.
In the course of argument Mr Petchey, counsel for the governors, and
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Mrs Bowen, the solicitor for the council, agreed that, if this had been an application for listed building consent, the ‘listed building’ would have been the building as it now is following the fire and not the building as it was before. This must be right because proposals for ‘alteration or extension [of a listed building] in any manner which would affect its character as a building of special architectural or historic interest’ must be considered in relation to the building as it exists at the time of the application, in this case the shell formed by the four walls. While guidance is given as to the approach to be adopted to applications for listed building consent in Department of the Environment Circular 1987/8 (Historic Buildings and Conservation Areas: Policy and Procedures), there are no special guidelines which would apply to a burnt-out shell and, as far as I am aware and despite the researches of Mr Petchey and Mrs Bowen, there are no decided cases, secular or ecclesiastical, in which the position of a building which has almost been totally destroyed has been considered. Nevertheless, while, therefore, most of the advice contained in the guidelines in paras 89 and 90 of the circular is not entirely appropriate to a case of this extreme kind, I bear it in mind to the extent that it assists.
With regard to the submissions of Mr Petchey concerning the similarity of provisions in s 16(2) of the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990 regarding the duties of a local authority in relation to listed buildings in the context of a planning application and provisions in s 60 regarding its duties in relation to an application for listed building consent, I am fully satisfied that the criteria which would apply in the case of an application for listed building consent are not precisely the same as those which arise in the case of an application for planning permission. The mere fact that planning permission has been granted would not necessarily lead a local authority to grant listed building consent. This is because listed building consent concerns the interior as well as the exterior of the building and because aesthetics plays a more important role.
Now in this case in the consistory court I am exercising my judicial discretion and I must of course consider not only how the proposed works affect the exterior of the building, but also the proposals for the interior, including how those would relate to the exterior and how various aspects of the proposals for the interior relate to each other.
I must also bear in mind that, as Sir John Owen said in Re St Mary’s, Banbury [1987] 1 All ER 247 at 254, [1987] Fam 136 at 144, the chancellor—
‘is appointed by law to be a disinterested but informed and committed guardian of all interests and he must consider all relevant factors. Then bearing in mind that the burden is on those who propose changes (per Lord Penzance, Dean of the Arches, in Peek v Trower (1881) 7 PD 21 at 27) he must decide whether or not there should be a faculty for change’.
[The Chancellor then considered in detail the five objections raised by the council but rejected them all, saying that he was fully satisfied that the architect had designed a new chapel from the old which would produce a sensible and acceptable solution to the school’s very real need for a permanent place of worship and meet the aspirations of those who used it. The Chancellor accordingly granted the faculty as prayed.]
Petition granted.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Law Debenture Trust Corp plc v Ural Caspian Oil Corp Ltd and Others
[1993] 2 All ER 355
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: CONTRACT: TORTS; Other Torts
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): HOFFMANN J
Hearing Date(s): 19, 20, 21 FEBRUARY, 6, 9 MARCH, 29 SEPTEMBER 1992
HOFFMANN LJ
2 NOVEMBER 1992
Pleading – Striking out – No reasonable cause of action – Claim based on implied collateral contract – Sale of shares in breach of covenant – Transferee acquiring shares with knowledge of covenants – Claim that transferee bound by covenants under implied collateral contract – Whether claim should be struck out.
Covenant – Breach – Remedy – Sale of shares – Seller bound by contractual covenants including covenant not to transfer shares without procuring transferee to enter into similar covenants – Transferee with knowledge of covenants acquiring shares without entering into similar covenants – Transferee selling shares to further transferee – Whether covenantee having any remedy against transferees in law or equity.
Contract – Stranger to contract – Benefit and burden – Connection between defendant and contract – Defendant buying shares – Seller bound by contractual covenants including covenant not to transfer shares without procuring transferee to enter into similar covenants – Seller failing to procure that defendant enter into similar covenants – Whether defendant bound to take burden of covenants with benefit of shares.
Injunction – Mandatory injunction – Interference with contract – Performance of predecessor’s covenants – Interference with remedies for breach of contract – Sale of shares by party to contract – Transferor bound by contractual covenants including covenant not to transfer shares without procuring transferee to enter into similar covenants – Transferor selling shares to transferee without procuring transferee to enter into similar covenants – Transferee failing to perform covenants – Whether transferee bound in equity to perform covenants – Whether court having power to compel retransfer of shares.
Tort – Procurement of violation of right – Interference with contract – Violation of plaintiff’s secondary right – Interference with remedies for breach of contract – Defendant knowingly accepting transfer of shares in breach of covenant – Defendant having no contractual connection with plaintiff – Whether plaintiff entitled to injunction requiring retransfer of shares.
In 1986 the shareholders of the first four defendants (the Russian companies), which were English-registered companies which had carried on business in Russia before the Bolshevik revolution in 1917 and whose assets had been confiscated and their claims for compensation rejected by the Soviet authorities, agreed to accept an offer by L Ltd for their entire share capital on condition that the Russian companies and L Ltd covenanted to pay any compensation subsequently obtained from the Soviet authorities to the plaintiff as trustee for the existing shareholders. L Ltd also covenanted not to part with control of the Russian companies except on terms that the transferee entered into similar covenants. L Ltd later sold the shares in the Russian companies to the fifth defendant without requiring it to covenant with the plaintiff on the same terms. The fifth defendant later sold the
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shares in the Russian companies to the sixth defendant, again without any covenant being required. In the meantime compensation totalling some £13.2m was received by the Russian companies but none of it was paid over to the plaintiff under the covenant. The plaintiff brought an action for damages against the six defendants, alleging in para 9(a) of its statement of claim that the fifth defendant had, with knowledge of the agreement between the Russian companies and L Ltd, caused or procured L Ltd to breach the covenants, and in para 9(b) that the fifth defendant was thereby under an implied collateral contractual obligation to the plaintiff to observe and perform similar covenants. The plaintiff further alleged that, by accepting the shares from the fifth defendant with knowledge of the agreements and what had gone before, the sixth defendant in turn had caused or procured the fifth defendant to breach its implied collateral obligation and was itself thereby under a similar implied collateral obligation. The fifth defendant applied for para 9(b), and the sixth defendant for the whole of the statement of claim, to be struck out as disclosing no reasonable cause of action. The plaintiff applied to amend its statement of claim to include allegations that, because the fifth and sixth defendants took the shares with knowledge of the agreements and of their breach by L Ltd, each of them also took the burden of the covenants and was thereby under a legal or equitable obligation to perform them, and to add claims for relief by way of a positive injunction to that effect, or damages in substitution therefor, or alternatively orders requiring the retransfer of the shares to L Ltd with a view to compelling L Ltd to perform the covenants.
Held – (1) Since the plaintiff’s claim against the sixth defendant was entirely predicated upon the allegation that the fifth defendant was under a contractual liability which the sixth defendant induced it to break, and since, whatever the fifth defendant’s liability might be in tort, neither the fifth nor sixth defendant was party to a contract with the plaintiff nor were there any grounds for implying a collateral contract, the statement of claim disclosed no arguable case against the sixth defendant. Accordingly, the fifth defendant’s application to strike out para 9(b) of the statement of claim and the sixth defendant’s application to strike out the whole of the statement of claim would be granted (see p 360 j to p 361 c, post).
(2) The equitable principle that where a person acquired property with knowledge of a contractual covenant binding his predecessor he could not use the property in any way inconsistent with his predecessor’s covenant permitted no more than the grant of a negative injunction to restrain the person acquiring the property from doing acts which would be inconsistent with the performance of the contract by his predecessor. The principle had never been used to impose upon a purchaser a positive duty to perform the covenants of his predecessor, and therefore could not save the claim for performance of the covenants by the fifth and sixth defendants from being struck out. Since, moreover, there were no grounds for granting an injunction, the court could not grant damages in substitution thereof, pursuant to s 50a of the Supreme Court Act 1981, so as to compensate the plaintiff for L Ltd’s failure to perform its covenants (see p 362 g h j to p 363 a and p 364 a to d, post); Lumley v Wagner [1843–60] All ER Rep 368, dictum of Knight Bruce LJ in De Mattos v Gibson [1843–60] All ER Rep 803 at 805, Barker v Stickney [1919] 1 KB 121, Lord Strathcona Steamship Co Ltd v Dominion Coal Co Ltd [1925] All ER Rep 87, Port Line Ltd v Ben Line Steamer Ltd [1958] 1 All ER 787 and Swiss Bank Corp v Lloyds Bank Ltd [1979] 2 All ER 853 considered.
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(3) The principle that a person who took the benefit of a transaction had also to take the burden likewise did not assist the plaintiff since the right and burden did not arise under the same instrument, as the shares had been transferred to L Ltd by some of the registered shareholders while the covenant had been made by L Ltd to the plaintiff as trustee for all shareholders. Nor were the obligations clearly reciprocal. Since, moreover, the plaintiff asserted that the whole object of the transaction was to ensure that the fifth and sixth defendants would not be subject to the burden of the agreements, no inference could be drawn that they were intended to assume a burden such as might found a right in the plaintiff as covenantee to enforce the covenant. Accordingly, the plaintiff’s application to amend the statement of claim would be refused (see p 364 j to p 365 a f, post); Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129 considered.
(4) The plaintiff had to demonstrate a cause of action before the court had jurisdiction to make any injunctive order against the sixth defendant. However, the effect of the transfer of the shares in the Russian companies by the fifth defendant to the sixth defendant was not to interfere with the plaintiff’s contractual relations but to deprive the plaintiff of the remedy, namely the potential claim to a retransfer to L Ltd so that L Ltd could be ordered to perform its covenants, which it would have had but for the inducement of an earlier breach of contract by the fifth defendant. It was not appropriate on a striking-out application to determine the question whether the tort of interference with contractual relations could be extended to include interference with remedies arising out of a broken contract. Instead, that issue would be left to be argued at trial when all the relevant facts had been established. Accordingly, although the statement of claim as it stood would be struck out as against the sixth defendant, the action itself would not be dismissed (see p 366 b to j, post).
On an application by the plaintiff to amend its statement of claim to allege that, by causing or procuring or accepting the transfer of shares from the fifth defendant, the sixth defendant had knowingly, intentionally and/or wrongfully rendered ineffective the plaintiff’s potential claim against the fifth defendant for the retransfer of the shares to L Ltd, and had interfered with the remedies available to the plaintiff against the fifth defendant,
Held – (5) The facts pleaded gave rise to a cause of action against the sixth defendant based on the tort of procuring the violation of a right. The essential principle upon which that tort was based, namely that where the law secured to a person a particular right then it should give a remedy for any intentional and unjustifiable violation of that right unless there was some clear and compelling reason for denying a remedy, was wide enough to cover a case in which the right which had been violated was a secondary right to a remedy (such as the right to a retransfer of shares) arising out of the tortious inducement of a breach by a third party of its primary obligation under a contract. The plaintiff’s further application to amend the statement of claim would therefore be granted (see p 368 e f j to p 369 b g h, post); Lumley v Gye [1843–60] All ER Rep 208 and dictum of Ralph Gibson J in F v Wirral Metropolitan BC [1991] 2 All ER 648 at 677 applied; RCA Cory v Pollard [1982] 3 All ER 771 and Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14 distinguished.
Notes
For striking out pleadings on the ground of no reasonable cause of action, see 36 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 73, and for cases on the subject, see 37(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 273–286, 1782–1837.
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For the doctrine of privity of contract, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 329–334, and for cases on the subject, see 12(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 374–387, 3132–3241.
For mandatory injunctions and injunctions in protection of contractual rights, see 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 846–852, 899–920, and for cases on the subject, see 28(4) Digest (2nd reissue) 136–152, 279–310, 4825–4951, 5920–6132.
For the tort of interference with contractual relations, see 45 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1518–1524, and for cases on the subject, see 46 Digest (Reissue) 571–587, 6326–6377.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 50, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 1018.
Cases referred to in judgments
Associated British Ports v Transport and General Workers’ Union [1989] 3 All ER 796, [1989] 1 WLR 939, CA; rvsd [1989] 3 All ER 822, [1989] 1 WLR 939, HL.
Barker v Stickney [1919] 1 KB 121, CA.
Barnes v Addy (1874) LR 9 Ch App 244, LC and LJJ.
Boulting v Association of Cinematograph Television and Allied Technicians [1963] 1 All ER 716, [1963] 2 QB 606, [1963] 2 WLR 529, CA.
British Motor Trade Association v Salvadori [1949] 1 All ER 208, [1949] Ch 566.
De Mattos v Gibson (1858) 4 De G & J 276, [1843–60] All ER Rep 803, 45 ER 108, LJJ.
Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Kingswood Motors (Addlestone) Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 1057, [1974] 1 QB 142, [1973] 3 WLR 780.
F v Wirral Metropolitan BC [1991] 2 All ER 648, [1991] Fam 69, [1991] 2 WLR 1132, CA.
Halsall v Brizell [1957] 1 All ER 371, [1957] Ch 169, [1957] 2 WLR 123.
London CC v Allen [1914] 3 KB 642, [1914–15] All ER Rep 1008, CA.
Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303, [1992] 1 AC 448, [1991] 3 WLR 188, HL.
Lord Strathcona Steamship Co Ltd v Dominion Coal Co Ltd [1926] AC 108, [1925] All ER Rep 87, PC.
Lumley v Gye (1853) 2 E & B 216, [1843–60] All ER Rep 208, 118 ER 749.
Lumley v Wagner (1852) 1 De GM & G 604, [1843–60] All ER Rep 368, 42 ER 687, LC.
McGruther v Pitcher [1904] 2 Ch 306, CA.
Manchester Ship Canal Co v Manchester Racecourse Co [1901] 2 Ch 37, CA.
Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14, [1990] 1 QB 391, [1989] 3 WLR 563, CA.
Nisbet and Potts’s Contract, Re [1906] 1 Ch 386, [1904–7] All ER Rep 865, CA.
Photo Production Ltd v Securicor Transport Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 556, [1980] AC 827, [1980] 2 WLR 283, HL.
Port Line Ltd v Ben Line Steamer Ltd [1958] 1 All ER 787, [1958] 2 QB 146, [1958] 2 WLR 551.
RCA Corp v Pollard [1982] 3 All ER 771, [1983] Ch 135, [1982] 3 WLR 1007, CA.
Sefton (Earl) v Tophams Ltd [1965] 3 All ER 1, [1965] Ch 1140, [1965] 3 WLR 523, CA; rvsg [1966] 1 All ER 1039, [1967] 1 AC 50, [1966] 2 WLR 814, HL.
Swiss Bank Corp v Lloyds Bank Ltd [1979] 2 All ER 853, [1979] Ch 548, [1979] 3 WLR 201.
Taddy & Co v Sterious & Co [1904] 1 Ch 354.
Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129, [1977] Ch 106, [1977] 2 WLR 496.
Torquay Hotel Co Ltd v Cousins [1969] 1 All ER 522, [1969] 2 Ch 106, [1969] 2 WLR 289, CA.
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Tulk v Moxhay (1848) 2 Ph 774, [1843–60] All ER Rep 9, 41 ER 1143, LC.
Wells (Merstham) Ltd v Buckland Sand and Silica Ltd [1964] 1 All ER 41, [1965] 2 QB 170, [1964] 2 WLR 453.
Cases also cited
Clore v Theatrical Properties Ltd [1936] 3 All ER 483, CA.
Greenhalgh v Mallard [1943] 2 All ER 234, CA.
Leeds Industrial Co-op Society Ltd v Slack [1924] AC 851, [1924] All ER Rep 259, HL.
Puddephatt v Leith [1916] 1 Ch 200, [1916–17] All ER Rep 624.
Taylor v Salmon (1838) 4 My & Cr 134, 41 ER 53, LC.
Applications
Caspian Resources Ltd (Caspian), the sixth defendant in an action brought by the plaintiff, Law Debenture Trust Corp plc, against it and (1) Ural Caspian Oil Corp Ltd, (2) North Caucasian Oil Fields Ltd, (3) New Schibaieff Petroleum Co Ltd, (4) Grozny-Sundja Oil Fields Ltd and (5) Hilldon Ltd (Hilldon), in which the plaintiff claimed as against the first four defendants payment of moneys received by them as compensation for assets in Russia confiscated by the Soviet government in 1917 and against Hilldon and Caspian damages, applied by summons dated 25 July 1991 for an order under RSC Ord 18, r 19 and/or the inherent jurisdiction of the court striking out the whole of the plaintiff’s statement of claim on the ground that it disclosed no reasonable cause of action and was otherwise an abuse of the process of the court. By summons dated 24 January 1992 Hilldon applied for an order striking out certain paragraphs of the statement of claim on the grounds that they were embarrassing or vexatious or frivolous or disclosed no cause of action. The first four defendants took no part in the proceedings. The applications were heard in chambers but judgment was given by Hoffmann J in open court. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Robin Potts QC and Richard Snowden (instructed by Hill Taylor Dickinson) for Caspian.
Robert Kirk (instructed by Jerrard Saunders Donn) for Hilldon.
Michael Crystal QC and John Higham (instructed by Linklaters & Paines) for the plaintiff.
Cur adv vult
9 March 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
HOFFMANN J. The first four defendants (the Russian companies) are English registered companies which carried on business in Russia before the Bolshevik revolution. The Soviets confiscated all their assets and for many years rejected their claims for compensation.
In April 1986 a company called Leisure Investments (Overseas) Ltd (Leisure Overseas) made an offer for the entire issued share capitals of the Russian companies. By then, an improvement in our relations with the Soviet Union had made payment of compensation a practical possibility. The controlling shareholder in each of the Russian companies was the Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (Shell) but there were a fair number of small shareholders as well. Shell agreed to accept the offer on condition that Leisure Overseas and the Russian companies entered into covenants to apply any compensations which might be paid for the benefit of the existing shareholders. Accordingly by four separate agreements dated 2 May 1986 (the agreements), each of the Russian companies and Leisure Overseas entered
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into covenants with the plaintiff, Law Debenture Trust Corp plc as trustee for the shareholders. Each Russian company covenanted to take whatever steps were necessary to pursue its compensation claim and to pay the net amount of any compensation it received (after deduction of expenses and costs) to the plaintiff as trustee. In each agreement, Leisure Overseas covenanted, first, to procure that the Russian company would perform its covenants and, secondly, not to part with control of the Russian company except on terms that the transferee entered into covenants in similar form. After the execution of the agreements, Shell and certain other shareholders who had accepted the offer transferred their shares to Leisure Overseas, which thereby acquired control.
On 15 December 1989 the Russian companies were paid about £7.2m compensation through the Foreign Compensation Commission. Very shortly before the payment was received, Leisure Overseas agreed to sell its entire shareholdings to the fifth defendant, Hilldon Ltd (Hilldon), an Isle of Man company. In breach of its covenant, Leisure Overseas imposed no requirement that Hilldon should covenant with the plaintiff and Hilldon did not do so. On 5 March 1990 the shares were transferred to Hilldon. A further tranche of about £6m compensation was paid on 4 June 1990. On 20 June 1990 the sixth defendant, Caspian Resources Ltd (Caspian), made an offer for the entire issued share capitals of the Russian companies. Hilldon accepted the offer and in October 1990 transferred its shares to Caspian.
The Russian companies refused to pay any part of the compensation to the plaintiff and on 15 November 1990 the plaintiff commenced proceedings against the Russian companies, Hilldon and Caspian. There are now before the court applications by Hilldon and Caspian. Hilldon admits that, as against it, the statement of claim discloses a cause of action in tort but applies to strike out certain paragraphs which make claims in contract as embarrassing or disclosing no cause of action. Caspian applies, under RSC Ord 18, r 19, to strike out the whole statement of claim on the ground that it discloses no reasonable cause of action in either tort or contract. The Russian companies have raised various defences: lack of consideration, lack of capacity and illegality under various provisions of the Companies Act 1985. But for the purposes of these applications I assume that the agreements were valid and binding.
Paragraph 9(a) of the statement of claim alleges against Hilldon that, by accepting the transfer of the shares in the Russian companies with knowledge of the terms of the agreements, it caused or procured Leisure Overseas to breach its covenants with the plaintiff. Hilldon admits that this allegation discloses a cause of action: see British Motor Trade Association v Salvadori [1949] 1 All ER 208, [1949] Ch 556. In para 9(b), however, the pleading goes on to allege that by reason of the same acts, Hilldon—
‘itself came under an implied collateral obligation to the Plaintiff to observe and perform the like covenants, mutatis mutandis, [as Leisure Overseas had entered into.]’
In further and better particulars, the plaintiff has said that the ‘implied collateral obligation’ was contractual. This contractual obligation is in turn used to found the claim against Caspian. Paragraph 11(a) alleges that, by accepting the transfer of the shares with knowledge of the agreements and what had gone before, Caspian caused or procured Hilldon to breach its implied collateral obligation and thereby itself came under an implied collateral obligation to observe and perform the covenants. The prayer is for damages.
Hilldon and Caspian apply to have these claims struck out. Hilldon says that, whatever may be its liability in tort, there are no grounds for implying any
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contract between itself and the plaintiff. Caspian says that, as against it, the statement of claim discloses no arguable case because it is all predicated upon the allegation that Hilldon was under a contractual liability which Caspian induced it to break.
These submissions are in my judgment correct. Neither Hilldon nor Caspian was party to a contract with the plaintiff. Nor are there any grounds for implying a collateral contract. One would have to imply a promise by Hilldon to the plaintiff, made for consideration and with intention to contract: Wells (Merstham) Ltd v Buckland Sand and Silica Ltd [1964] 1 All ER 41 at 45–46, [1965] 2 QB 170 at 180. The acts alleged against Hilldon and Caspian do not suggest any such intention. As for the plaintiff, there is no allegation that it had even heard of Hilldon or Caspian at the time when it is alleged to have impliedly contracted with them. It follows that para 9(b) of the statement of claim is liable to be struck out as against Hilldon and the whole as against Caspian.
At the commencement of the hearing, Mr Crystal QC for the plaintiff applied for leave to amend the statement of claim so as to formulate the claim in alternative ways and to seek additional relief. Mr Kirk and Mr Potts QC, for Hilldon and Caspian respectively, opposed the granting of leave on the ground that the amendments also disclosed no cause of action. It is agreed that this would be a proper ground on which to refuse leave and that the question therefore depends upon whether or not the amendments would themselves be liable to be struck out under RSC Ord 18, r 19.
A proposed new para 9A says that, because Hilldon took the shares with knowledge of the agreements and their breach by Leisure Overseas, it also took the burden of those covenants and thereby came under a legal or equitable obligation to perform them. A new para 11A makes similar allegations against Caspian. In argument, Mr Crystal submitted that the obligation to perform the covenants arose either in equity under the principle of De Mattos v Gibson (1858) 4 De G & J 276 at 282, [1843–60] All ER Rep 803 at 805 or at law or in equity under a developing principle relating to benefits and burdens.
The De Mattos principle was formulated by Knight-Bruce LJ in a well-known passage (see 4 De G & J 282, [1843–60] All ER Rep 803 at 805)
‘Reason and justice seem to prescribe that, at least as a general rule, where a man, by gift or purchase, acquires property from another, with knowledge of a previous contract, lawfully and for valuable consideration made by him with a third person, to use and employ the property for a particular purpose in a specified manner, the acquirer shall not, to the material change of the third person, in opposition to the contract and inconsistently with it use and employ the property in a manner not allowable to the giver or seller. This rule, applicable alike in general as I conceive to moveable and immoveable property, and recognized and adopted, as I apprehend, by the English law may, like other general rules, be liable to exceptions arising from speciai circumstances; but I see at present no room for any exception in the instance before us.’
This generalisation has had its ups and downs over the past 130 years. The enforceability of a restrictive covenant against a purchaser of land was at first taken to be its paradigm example. But restrictive covenants turned out to be equitable interests in land whose enforceability owed nothing to the De Mattos principle. The actual knowledge of the purchaser was neither necessary nor sufficient. Like other equitable interests, they bound any purchaser who could not show that he had acquired a legal estate in good faith and for value without actual or constructive notice of the covenant: see Re Nisbet and Potts’s Contract
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[1906] 1 Ch 386, [1904–7] All ER Rep 865. But the right of enforcement, even against purchasers with actual knowledge, was confined to owners of neighbouring land for whose benefit it had been imposed: see London CC v Allen [1914] 3 KB 642, [1914–15] All ER Rep 1008.
The defection of restrictive covenants was not the only setback. The De Mattos principle also failed to secure the enforceability of resale price maintenance agreements against retailers who acquired stock with full knowledge of the covenants into which their wholesalers had entered: see Taddy & Co v Sterious & Co [1904] 1 Ch 354 and McGruther v Pitcher [1904] 2 Ch 306. (See the comment on the inconsistency between these cases and De Mattos by Buckley LJ in London CC v Allen [1914] 3 KB 642 at 658–659, [1914–15] All ER Rep 1008 at 1014.) These cases, Scrutton LJ later said in Barker v Stickney [1919] 1 KB 121 at 132, showed that ‘the general rule of Knight Bruce LJ was quite impracticable’. It was, however, applied by the Privy Council in Lord Strathcona Steamship Co Ltd v Dominion Coal Co Ltd [1926] AC 108, [1925] All ER Rep 87 to restrain the owner of a ship from using it inconsistently with a charter granted by a predecessor in title. Diplock J thought that the Strathcona case had been wrongly decided: see Port Line Ltd v Ben Line Steamer Ltd [1958] 1 All ER 787, [1958] 2 QB 146. But Swiss Bank Corp v Lloyds Bank Ltd [1979] 2 All ER 853, [1979] Ch 548 declared the principle to have continuing validity. I am bound to say that neither Strathcona nor Swiss Bank make it entirely clear when the principle applies and when it does not. Why, for example, does it apply to a time charter but not to a resale price maintenance agreement? But I need not explore this question in a motion to strike out. I shall assume that the principle applies in this case.
The plaintiff’s difficulty, as it seems to me, is not whether the principle applies but the extent of the remedy which it provides. One thing is beyond doubt: it does not provide a panacea for outflanking the doctrine of privity of contract. In the Strathcona case [1926] AC 108 at 119, [1925] All ER Rep at 92 Lord Shaw said:
‘It has sometimes been considered that Tulk v .Moxhay ((1848) 2 Ph 774 at 777, 41 ER 1143 at 1144) and De Mattos v. Gibson (4 De G & J 276, 45 ER 108) carried forward to and laid upon the shoulders of an alienee with notice the obligations of the alienor, and, therefore, that the former is liable to the covenantee in specific performance as by the law of contract, and under a species of implied privity. This is not so; the remedy is a remedy in equity by way of injunction against acts inconsistent with the covenant, with notice of which the land was acquired.’
Thus the De Mattos principle permits no more than the grant of a negative injunction, to restrain the third party from doing acts which would be inconsistent with performance of the contract by the original contracting party. The terms of the injunction must be such that refraining altogether from action would constitute compliance. A time charter, as Diplock J pointed out in Port Line Ltd v Ben Line Steamer Ltd, is a contract under which the owner is under a positive obligation to provide the vessel. It is clear that Lord Shaw did not intend to order the purchaser to fulfil this obligation. The injunction only prohibited him from doing an inconsistent act, namely chartering the vessel to someone else. In practice, the Board thought that this would provide the owner with an economic incentive to perform the charter: as Lord Shaw said ([1926] AC 108 at 125, [1925] All ER Rep 87 at 95): ‘it is incredible that the owners will lay up the vessel rather than permit its use under the contract.' But such dog-in-the-manger behaviour would not have been a breach of the injunction.
In the Swiss Bank case Browne-Wilkinson J analysed the other cases in which it appeared that the De Mattos principle had been applied and showed that in each
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case the remedy was a purely negative restraint. In Lumley v Wagner (1852) 1 De GM & G 604 at 618, [1843–60] All ER Rep 368 at 373 Lord St Leonards LC restrained Johanna Wagner from singing at Covent Garden and also injuncted Mr Gye from employing her there. But he did not order her to sing at Her Majesty’s Theatre or require Mr Gye to procure that she did so. In De Mattos v Gibson itself, the plaintiff had chartered a ship to carry his coals from the Tyne to Suez. In the Channel it suffered damage and put into Penzance for expensive repairs. The owner had no money to pay for them and Gibson, who held a mortgage over the ship, proposed himself to discharge the repairer’s lien and order the ship back to Newcastle so that he could exercise his power of sale. Knight Bruce and Turner LJJ granted an interlocutory injunction to restrain him from doing so on the ground that this would be inconsistent with the performance of the charter, of which he had knowledge. But there was never any question of ordering Gibson to sail the ship to Suez and Lord Chelmsford LC later discharged the injunction on the grounds that it was useless to De Mattos because the owner did not have the resources to sail it to Suez either. In Manchester Ship Canal Co v Chester Racecourse Co [1901] 2 Ch 37 the defendant, which had given the plaintiff a right of pre-emption over its land, was proposing to sell it to a third party. The Court of Appeal, following Lumley v Wagner, granted an injunction to restrain the defendant from selling without first offering the land to the plaintiff and also injuncted the third party from purchasing until such an offer had been made and rejected. Similarly in Earl of Sefton v Tophams Ltd [1965] 3 All ER 1, [1965] Ch 1140 the Court of Appeal, having decided by a majority that the sale of Aintree Racecourse by Tophams Ltd to a third party for building houses would infringe a covenant with Lord Sefton not to ‘cause or permit the land to be used otherwise than for the purpose of horse racing and for agricultural purposes’, granted an injunction in the Manchester Ship Canal form, restraining Tophams Ltd and the third party from completing the sale (the House of Lords disagreed on construction and held that the sale would not infringe the covenant: see Tophams Ltd v Earl of Sefton [1966] 1 All ER 1039, [1967] 1 AC 50).
These cases of negative injunctions may be contrasted with Barker v Stickney [1919] 1 KB 121, in which the plaintiff wanted an order that the purchaser positively perform the covenants in the agreement of which he had notice. Barker had assigned the copyright in his book to a publisher on terms which provided for a royalty as well as a lump sum payment and the publisher expressly covenanted not to assign the copyright except subject to the terms of the agreement. The publisher went into receivership and by its receiver assigned the copyright to Stickney without any stipulation as to payment of royalties. Barker claimed that Stickney should have to pay the royalties because he had acquired the copyright with full knowledge of the agreement with the publisher. This claim was emphatically rejected by the Court of Appeal. Although Diplock J regarded this decision as writing finis to the entire De Mattos principle (see Port Line Ltd v Ben Line Steamers Ltd [1958] 1 All ER 787 at 797, [1958] 2 QB 146 at 168), Browne-Wilkinson J has more recently explained it as a case in which the plaintiff was trying to push the principle too far by securing positive performance of the contract (see Swiss Bank Corp v Lloyds Bank Ltd [1979] 2 All ER 853 at 874, [1979] Ch 548 at 575). He agreed however with Diplock J’s statement of the limits of Strathcona in Port Line Ltd v Ben Line Steamers Ltd [1958] 1 All ER 787 at 797–798, [1958] 2 QB 146 at 168:
‘… I do not think that it purported to decide … (2) that the charterer has any remedy against the subsequent purchaser with notice except a right to restrain the use of the vessel by such purchaser in a manner inconsistent with the terms of the charter; (3) that the charter has any positive right against
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the subsequent purchaser to have the vessel used in accordance with the terms of his charter.’
Thus there is not a single case in which the De Mattos principle has been used to impose upon a purchaser a positive duty to perform the covenants of his predecessor. It cannot therefore save the claim to performance of the covenants by Hilldon and Caspian from being struck out. The negative injunction granted in De Mattos and the Strathcona is of no use to the plaintiff. Hilldon and Caspian are not proposing to do any particular acts inconsistent with the covenants given by Leisure Overseas. They are proposing in fact to do nothing whatever. Under the De Mattos principle, this cannot give rise to any liability.
Mr Crystal developed a further line of argument based on s 50 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 which (reproducing Lord Cairns’s Act (the Chancery Amendment Act 1858)) gives the court jurisdiction to award damages ‘in addition to, or in substitution for’ an injunction. He submitted that, since in principle the court could grant a De Mattos injunction, it could award damages in addition to, or in substitution for, that injunction and by that route require Hilldon or Caspian to compensate the plaintiff for the failure of Leisure Overseas to perform its covenants. But damages can only be granted ‘in substitution’ if the court would otherwise have been able to grant an injunction. In this case the court could not, because neither Hilldon nor Caspian is alleged to be threatening or intending to do anything which would conflict with their De Mattos obligations. And, since there are no grounds for granting such an injunction, there can be no question of damages in addition.
In the alternative, the plaintiff relies upon the principle that he who takes the benefit of a transaction must also take the burden. In Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129 at 280, [1977] Ch 106 at 289 Megarry V-C examined all the cases which could be said to exemplify the principle. Many were cases in which, upon the true construction of the instrument, enjoyment of the benefit is conditional upon assumption of the burden. There is little difficulty about such cases and this is plainly not one of them. But Megarry V-C found a handful of cases which he said embodied the ‘pure principle’ of benefit and burden ([1977] 3 All ER 129 at 281, [1977] Ch 106 at 290):
‘… the right and burden, although arising under the same instrument, are independent of each other: X grants a right to Y, and by the same instrument Y independently covenants with X to do some act.’
The leading example of the ‘pure principle’ is Halsall v Brizell [1957] 1 All ER 371, [1957] Ch 169. Upjohn J said, obiter, that successors in title to the original purchasers of houses on an estate laid out in 1851 could not take the benefit of rights to use the estate roads and sewers which had been granted by a deed between the owners and the original purchasers unless they also accepted obligations in the deed to contribute to the upkeep of the estate (see [1957] 1 All ER 371 at 377, [1957] Ch 169 at 183). The two other cases mentioned by the judge also concerned rights of property conferred by an instrument or transaction which created reciprocal obligations.
The present case differs from any case which might embody the ‘pure principle’. The right and burden do not arise under the same instrument. The shares were transferred to Leisure Overseas by transfers from some of the registered shareholders, while the covenant was made by Leisure Overseas with the plaintiff as trustee for all shareholders. Nor are the obligations clearly reciprocal. There is nothing in any transfer of the shares to which Hilldon and Caspian became successors in title which links them to the agreements. The connection between
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the shares and the obligations of Leisure Overseas is that use of the voting rights attached to the shares is the most obvious way in which Leisure Overseas can give effect to its covenant to procure that the Russian companies observe their obligations. It is not however the only way.
More important, Megarry V-C in Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129, [1977] Ch 106 recognised that, without some limits, the ‘pure principle’ could completely subvert the doctrine of privity of contract and the principle that a purchaser of goods or the assignee of a contract or other chose in action is not bound to perform the obligations undertaken by the seller or assignor. So, for example, it is hard to believe that Barker v Stickney [1919] 1 KB 121 would have been decided differently if counsel (who was already scraping the barrel for arguments) had put forward the pure principle of benefit and burden. Some explanation is required for why the application of the principle would have been rejected. Megarry V-C proposed various limits, including the following ([1977] 3 All ER 129 at 29l–292, [1977] 1 Ch 106 at 302):
‘If the initial transaction has created benefits and burdens which, on its true construction, are distinct, the question whether a person who is not an original party can take one without the other will prima facie depend on the circumstances in which he comes into the transaction. If, for instance, all that is assigned to him is the benefit of a contract, and the assignor, who is a party to the contract, undertakes to continue to discharge the burdens of it, it would be remarkable if it were held that the assignee could not take the benefit without assuming the burden. The circumstances show that the assignee was intended to take only the benefit, and that the burden was intended to be borne in the same way as it had been borne previously.’
The right of the covenantee to enforce his covenant against an assignee therefore depends, perhaps rather curiously, upon the circumstances of a transaction to which he is not a party. One must be able to infer from that transaction that the assignee was intended to assume the burden. If correct, this would explain Barker v Stickney, where the assignment by the receiver contained no provision that the purchaser should pay royalties. Equally, no such inference can be drawn here. On the contrary, the plaintiff asserts that the whole object of the transaction was to ensure that Hilldon and Caspian would not be subject to the burden of the agreements. In my judgment, therefore, the benefit and burden doctrine does not assist the plaintiff.
Finally, the plaintiff claims an extension of the relief available for the tort of inducing breach of contract. In Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Kingswood Motors (Addlestone) Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 1057, [1974] QB 142 the owner of a garage subject to a solus agreement in favour of Esso conveyed it in breach of contract to an associated company which had full knowledge of the agreement. Bridge J made a mandatory order requiring the transferee to convey the garage back to the original owner so that the agreement could be enforced against it by injunction. Bridge J made it clear that he was not imposing upon the transferee any liability to perform the obligations of the solus agreement. The effect of the order was only to ‘enforce the personal liability incurred by a tortfeasor to undo the consequences of his tort which could have been restrained before it was committed’ (see [1973] 3 All ER 1057 at 1069, [1974] QB 142 at 156).
The grant of a mandatory order is of course a matter of discretion, but the Esso case is authority for the proposition that the court would have had jurisdiction to order Hilldon to retransfer the shares to Leisure Overseas with a view to ordering Leisure Overseas to vote the shares so as to procure performance by the Russian companies. In this case, however, such an order is no longer possible because
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Hilldon has transferred the shares to Caspian. The plaintiff therefore asks for orders, first, against Caspian to retransfer the shares to Hilldon and then against Hilldon to retransfer them to Leisure Overseas.
In order to give the court jurisdiction to make any injunctive order against Caspian, the plaintiff must demonstrate a cause of action. I have already rejected the possibility of a cause of action in contract or under the equitable principle in the De Mattos case. The question is whether the plaintiff has a cause of action in tort. Caspian is not alleged to have played any part in inducing Leisure Overseas to break its covenant as to disposal of the shares. It is true that Leisure Overseas, Hilldon and Caspian are alleged to have been at all material times under common control and the statement of claim names the persons alleged to have controlled them. But it makes nothing of these facts except to support the allegation that Hilldon and Caspian, each in their turn, had actual knowledge of the terms of the agreements. It is not alleged that the court should disregard the separate legal personalities of the three companies. Mr Crystal disclaimed in argument any desire to ‘pierce the veil’. It follows that Caspian is simply a person which acquired the shares from Hilldon. By reason of the common control, it had full knowledge of what had gone before, but that is all.
It follows that in my judgment there is no arguable case that Caspian has committed the tort of interference with the plaintiff’s contractual relations. I have rejected as unarguable that original allegation that it interfered with a collateral contractual obligations undertaken by Hilldon. It came upon the scene after the covenant as to disposal of the shares by Leisure Overseas had been irretrievably broken. It is true that Leisure Overseas was also under a continuing obligation to procure performance by the Russian companies, but the transfer from Hilldon to Caspian could make no difference to the ability of Leisure Overseas to perform that obligation. In neither case would Leisure Overseas have had any right against Hilldon or Caspian to get the shares back. The plaintiff may have had the right to secure a retransfer as in the Esso case, but such a claim could not have been made by Leisure Overseas.
The effect of the transfer to Caspian was not to interfere with contractual relations but to deprive the plaintiff of the remedy which it would have had but for the inducement of the earlier breach of contract by Hilldon. It rendered ineffective the potential claim to a retransfer as in the Esso case. This raises the question of whether the principal of Lumley v Gye (1853) 2 E & B 216, [1843–60] All ER Rep 208 can be extended beyond interference with contractual relations to interference with the remedies arising out of a broken contract. There is no authority for such liability, but I do not think that on an application under RSC Ord 18, r 19 I can say that an affirmative answer could not be given. In Esso the court could not accept that it was powerless to require parties to reverse an act which it could have granted a negative injunction to restrain. A court might find it equally difficult to accept that a further transferee who had knowledge of the previous events is beyond its reach. It seems to me, at any rate, that such a claim should not be struck out but should be left to be argued at trial when all the relevant facts have been established.
The result is that, as against Hilldon, I strike out paras 9(b), 10, 12 and the words ‘the breaches of Hilldon and Caspian pleaded in paragraph 12 above and/or by reason of’ in para 13 of the statement of claim. As against Caspian, I strike out the whole statement of claim but do not dismiss the action. I shall give leave to serve an amended statement of claim against all parties, though not in the form for which leave has been sought. Counsel will no doubt wish to reconsider the draft in the light of this judgment.
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Applications
On 29 September 1992 the plaintiff applied for leave to amend its statement of claim against Hilldon and Caspian. The application was heard and judgment was given in chambers. The judgment is reported by permission of the judge.
John Higham QC (instructed by Linklaters & Paines) for the plaintiff.
Robin Potts QC and Richard Snowden (instructed by Hill Taylor Dickinson) for Caspian.
Hilldon was not represented.
Cur adv vult
2 November 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
HOFFMANN LJa. This is the adjourned hearing of two applications which were last before me on 9 March 1992. On that occasion I struck out certain paragraphs of the statement of claim as against the fifth defendant (Hilldon) and the whole of the statement of claim as against the sixth defendant (Caspian) but adjourned the applications to enable the plaintiff to formulate an application to amend. This now comes before me.
The material part of the proposed amendment reads as follows:
‘11 … by causing or procuring or accepting such transfers Caspian … knowingly intentionally and/or wrongfully—(a) rendered ineffective … the potential claim by the plaintiff against Hilldon for the re-transfer of the shares in the Russian companies to Leisure Overseas … (b) interfered with … the remedies available to the plaintiff against … Hilldon for the … tortious conduct of Hilldon … and the plaintiff claims: … (2) Against Hilldon and Caspian: (a) Damages (b) … a mandatory injunction that Caspian do forthwith transfer to Leisure Overseas, alternatively that Caspian do forthwith transfer … to Hilldon and that Hilldon do thereupon forthwith transfer … to Leisure Overseas all such shares in the Russian Companies now held by Caspian as were originally acquired by Leisure Overseas …’
In the judgment I gave on the last occasion, I said that a claim along the above lines would arguably disclose a cause of action. Mr Potts QC for Caspian nevertheless opposes leave to amend. He says, first, that the point was not argued last time and, secondly, that it would be unsatisfactory to grant leave to amend merely on the basis that the point was arguable. The relevant facts were not in dispute and the question of whether Caspian could be liable in tort was capable of determination, under RSC Ord 14A without a full trial of the action. I should therefore hear argument and decide the point now.
It is true that the point was not argued on the last occasion. It appeared for the first time in my judgment. That is why I did not think it right to express a concluded view. But Mr Potts has persuaded me that there is nothing to be gained from allowing the question to go to trial. Unlike Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303, [1992] 1 AC 448 this is not a case in which the relevant facts are strongly disputed. Caspian does not deny its acquisition of the shares from Hilldon or that it had full knowledge of the terms of the contract between the plaintiff and Leisure Overseas and of the nature and effect of the transaction between Leisure Overseas and Hilldon. There is an issue as to whether these facts, assuming the
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enforceability of the original contract, give rise to tortious liability. This issue can be finally determined (subject only to any possible appeal) in these applications and if determined in Caspian’s favour, will entitle Caspian to be dismissed from the action.
Although Lumley v Gye (1853) 2 E & B 216, [1843–60] All ER Rep 208 usually appears under the rubric ‘Procuring breach of contract’ or the like, the principle was formulated in wider terms. Erle J said (2 E & B 216 at 232, [1843–60] All ER Rep 208 at 214): ‘It is clear that the procurement of the violation of a right is a cause of action in all instances where the violation is an actionable wrong …’
There are thus three elements to the tort: (1) a right in the plaintiff (2) violated by an actionable wrong (3) procured by the defendant. In Lumley v Gye itself the plaintiff’s right was his contractual entitlement to the services of Miss Wagner, the actionable wrong was the breach of that contract and the procurement took the form of holding out an inducement. Since then, there has been an extension of at least the first and third of these elements in the tort.
First, the rights capable of being violated have been held to include rights conferred by statute (see Associated British Ports v Transport and General Workers’ Union [1989] 3 All ER 796, 822, [1989] 1 WLR 939) and fiduciary obligations imposed in equity, such as a company director’s duty of fidelity to the company (Boulting v Association of Cinematograph Television and Allied Technicians [1963] 1 All ER 716 at 724, 736, [1963] 2 QB 606 at 627, 648) or an agent’s duty of confidence (see citations in Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) para 15-06). In F v Wirral Metropolitan BC [1991] 2 All ER 648 at 677, [1991] Fam 69 at 107 Ralph Gibson J said that the Lumley v Gye tort was based on—
‘one of the essential principles of our law. If the law secures to a person a particular right, then the law should give a remedy for any intentional and unjustifiable violation of that right unless there is some clear and compelling reason for denying a remedy.’
It is true that in Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14, [1990] 1 QB 391 the Court of Appeal refused to extend the Lumley v Gye principle to create a tort of inducing breach of trust, but that was only because the ground was already adequately covered by the equitable doctrine of knowing assistance as formulated in Barnes v Addy (1874) LR 9 Ch App 244.
Secondly, there has been a suggestion that the actionable wrong can be extended to non-performance by the contracting party which does not involve a breach of contract (see dicta of Lord Denning MR in Torquay Hotel Co Ltd v Cousins [1969] 1 All ER 522 at 529, [1969] 2 Ch 106 at 137–138). An example is where the contracting party is protected by a force majeure clause against liability for non-performance arising from the very interference in question. On the other hand, it is not easy to classify non-performance which involves no breach of contract as an ‘actionable wrong’. The cases relied upon for this extension all seem to involve the causing of loss by unlawful means, which would be tortious anyway (see Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (16th edn) para 15-05). This debatable extension is not relevant in the present case.
Thirdly, the concept of procurement has been extended to include knowingly entering into a transaction inconsistent with the contracting party’s obligations, without regard to who induced whom to do so. This extension is derived from British Motor Trade Association v Salvadori [1949] 1 All ER 208, [1949] Ch 556 and despite some criticism (see Carty ‘Intentional violation of economic interests: the limits of common law liability’ (1988) 104 LQR 250) seems well established.
In my judgment the general principle is wide enough to cover a case in which the right which has been violated is a secondary right to a remedy arising out of
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the tortious inducement of a breach by a third party of its primary obligation under a contract. For this purpose I am borrowing and adapting Lord Diplock’s well-known analysis of contractual obligations in Photo Production Ltd v Securicor Transport Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 556 at 566, [1980] AC 827 at 848. This situation falls within the general principle formulated by Ralph Gibson LJ which I have quoted above and there are no compelling reasons for denying a remedy. On the contrary, it would, as this case shows, allow the introduction of an additional company under the same control as the original contract-breaker to provide an easy escape from the salutary remedy devised by Bridge J in Esso Petroleum Ltd v Kingswood Motors (Addlestone) Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 1057 at 1067, [1974] QB 142 at 155.
Mr Potts submitted that such a remedy is excluded by the decision of the Court of Appeal in RCA Corp v Pollard [1982] 3 All ER 771, [1983] Ch 135. This was one of a number of attempts by record companies, before the introduction of recording rights in the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988, to use the law of torts to protect their interests under exclusive recording agreements from the depredations of bootleggers. It was argued that the bootlegger was interfering with the company’s contractual rights under the exclusive recording agreement by reducing their commercial value. Slade LJ rejected this argument in the following passage ([1982] 3 All ER 771 at 784, [1983] Ch 135 at 156):
‘… as I understand the facts of all these cases where liability has been established under this particular head of tort, there has been an interference or attempt to interfere with the performance by a third party of his contractual obligations. There is nothing in this line of authority which I have been able to discover which suggests that A may be liable to B under this head of tort merely because A does an act (even an illegal act) which he knows is likely to render less valuable certain contractual rights of B as against C, without actually interfering with the performance by C of the contractual obligations owed by him to B.’ (Slade LJ’s emphasis.)
RCA Corp v Pollard was a case in which the right relied upon by the plaintiff was its primary rights under the recording agreement with the artist and the issue was whether the acts which the defendant had done or procured (making bootleg recordings) involved a violation of the plaintiff’s right. The answer was that the plaintiff’s right had not been violated at all: the artist had fully performed all his obligations under the agreement. That seems to me to have nothing to do with the present case, which is about whether the plaintiff can rely upon a right which is not the primary right under a contract but a secondary right in context or tort arising out of the breach of the original contract. This question was never addressed in RCA Corp v Pollard. On the other hand, if the plaintiff can rely upon his secondary rights, there seems to me no doubt that such rights were violated by the sale to Caspian.
Accordingly I rule that the facts pleaded in the draft amended statement of claim (which, as I understand it, are substantially admitted) give rise to a cause of action in tort against Caspian and I give leave to amend.
Order accordingly.
Paul Magrath Esq Barrister.
Workers Trust and Merchant Bank Ltd v Dojap Investments Ltd
[1993] 2 All ER 370
Categories: LAND; Sale of Land
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD DONALDSON OF LYMINGTON, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND SIR CHRISTOPHER SLADE
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12 NOVEMBER 1992, 22 FEBRUARY 1993
Sale of land – Deposit – Forfeiture – Penalty – Relief against forfeiture – Purchaser’s failure to complete – Contract providing for payment of deposit of 25% of contract price – Purchaser failing to complete within stipulated time – Vendor forfeiting deposit – Whether amount of deposit required to be reasonable – Whether deposit of more than 10% unreasonable – Whether deposit of 25% of contract price a penalty – Whether deposit to be repaid in full.
On 5 October 1989 the appellant bank as second mortgagee sold certain premises in Jamaica at auction to the respondent for $11,500,000. Clause 4 of the contract provided for the payment of a deposit of 25% of the contract price and a deposit of $2,875,000 was duly paid by the respondent to the bank’s solicitors. The contract provided that the remainder of the purchase money was to be paid within 14 days of the date of the auction, whereupon the bank were to execute a transfer of the property to the respondent and lodge such transfer for registration. Clause 13 of the contract provided for forfeiture of the deposit if the purchaser failed to observe or comply with any of the contractual stipulations and cl 15 provided that time was to be of the essence of all time limits contained in the contract. On the date fixed for completion (19 October 1989) the respondent’s attorney sent to the bank a letter of undertaking from another bank to pay the balance of the purchase price, subject to certain conditions. The bank’s attorney rejected that and gave the respondent 24 hours to provide a satisfactory undertaking. The respondent attempted to do so on 20 October 1989 but the bank again rejected it. On 23 October the bank wrote to the respondent rescinding the contract and purporting to forfeit the deposit. The respondent refused to accept that and on 26 October 1989 tendered to the bank the balance of the purchase price with interest. The bank returned the cheque the next day. The respondent then started proceedings claiming, inter alia, relief from forfeiture of the deposit. The judge rejected the respondent’s claim but on appeal the Court of Appeal of Jamaica held that the respondent was entitled to relief from forfeiture to the extent that the deposit exceeded 10% of the price but did not award any interest on that sum. The bank appealed to the Privy Council against the decision of the Court of Appeal to give relief against forfeiture. The respondent cross-appealed claiming that it should have been awarded relief against forfeiture as to the whole of the 25% deposit and should also have been awarded interest.
Held – A deposit by the purchaser on a contract for the sale of land showed that the purchaser was in earnest in performing the contract and, as such, forfeiture of the deposit in the event of failure to complete the sale did not fall within the general rule that a penalty payable in the event of a breach of contract was unlawful unless the provision for the payment or forfeiture of a sum of money in the event of a breach was a genuine pre-estimate of the loss which the innocent party would incur by reason of the breach. Accordingly, a deposit could be validly forfeited even though the amount of the deposit bore no reference to the
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anticipated loss to the vendor flowing from the breach of contract. However, the amount of the deposit had to be reasonable and, having regard to usage which had been established over a long period that the customary deposit was 10% of the contract price, a vendor who sought to obtain a larger amount than 10% by way of forfeitable deposit had to show special circumstances which justified such a deposit, otherwise the deposit would be held to be a penalty intended to act in terrorem. Since the 25% deposit required by the bank was not a true deposit by way of earnest, the provision for its forfeiture was a plain penalty and had to be repaid. Moreover, since the bank could not establish that the whole sum was truly a deposit, it had not contracted for a true deposit at all and therefore the deposit had to be repaid in full to the respondent, which was also entitled to interest at 12% pa from the date of rescission until the date of actual payment. The appeal would therefore be dismissed and the cross-appeal allowed (see p 373 a to f; p 374 b e f; p 375 f and p 376 c to j, post).
Stockloser v Johnson [1954] 1 All ER 630 considered.
Notes
For forfeiture of a deposit paid under a contract for the sale of land, see 42 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 92–93, 244–248, and for cases on the subject, see 40 Digest (Reissue) 122–123, 319–328, 886–887, 2789–2856.
Cases referred to in judgment
Public Works Comr v Hills [1906] AC 368, [1904–7] All ER Rep 919, PC.
Howe v Smith (1884) 27 Ch D 89, [1881–5] All ER Rep 201, CA.
Linggi Plantations Ltd v Jagatheesan [1972] 1 MLJ 89, PC.
Stockloser v Johnson [1954] 1 All ER 630, [1954] 1 QB 476, [1954] 2 WLR 439, CA.
Appeal
Workers Trust and Merchant Bank Ltd appealed with final leave of the Court of Appeal of Jamaica granted on 7 October 1991 from the decision of that court (Rowe P, Forte and Downer JJA) on 11 February 1991 allowing the appeal of the respondent, Vojap Investments Ltd, from the decision of Zacca CJ on 25 June 1990 refusing the respondent’s claim, inter alia, for the return of a deposit of $J2,875,000 paid on behalf of the respondent following the acceptance of a bid by the respondent’s agent at an auction of premises known as 57–59 Half-Way-Tree Road and 19 Carlton Terrace, St Andrews, Jamaica on 5 October 1989. A contract of sale was entered into between the appellant and the respondent on the same day but on 23 October the appellant purported to rescind the contract and forfeit the deposit. The respondent cross-appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal granted on 25 February 1991 from the decision of that court limiting the respondent’s claim for relief from forfeiture of the deposit to the extent that the deposit exceeded 10% of the contract price and refusing to award the respondent interest on the amount which had to be repaid. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
R N A Henriques QC and David Batts (both of the Jamaican Bar) (instructed by Philip Conway Thomas) for the appellant.
Richard Mahfood QC (of the Jamaican Bar) and James Guthrie (instructed by Charles Russell) for the respondent.
22 February 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
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LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. This case raises the question whether a deposit in excess of 10% paid under a contract for the sale of land can be lawfully forfeited by the vendor in the event of a failure by the purchaser to complete on the due date.
On 5 October 1989 Workers Trust and Merchant Bank Ltd (the bank) as second mortgagee sold certain premises at auction to Dojap Investments Ltd (Dojap) at a price of $J11,500,000. Clause 4 of the contract provided for the payment of a deposit of 25% of the contract price and a deposit of $2,875,000 was duly paid by Dojap to the bank’s solicitors. The contract provided that the remainder of the purchase money should be paid within 14 days of the date of the auction whereupon the bank were to execute a transfer of the property to Dojap and lodge such transfer for registration. Clause 15 of the contract provided that time should be of the essence of all time limits contained in the contract. Clause 13 of the contract provided as follows:
‘If the purchaser shall fail to observe or comply with any of the foregoing stipulation on his part his deposit shall be forfeited to the vendor who shall be at liberty (without tendering any transfer) to re-sell the property either by public auction or private contract at such time and in such manner and subject to such conditions as the vendor may think fit and any deficiency in price which may result on and all charges costs and expenses attending a resale or attempted re-sale, together or rendered useless by such default, shall be made good and paid by the defaulting purchaser at the present sale and be recoverable from him by the vendor as liquidated damages. Any increase of price on a re-sale shall belong to the vendor.’
On the date fixed for completion (19 October 1989) Dojap’s attorney, Mr Clough, sent to the bank a letter of undertaking from the Jamaica Citizens Bank Ltd to pay the balance of the purchase price, subject to certain conditions. The bank’s attorney, Miss Eaton, rejected this and gave Dojap 24 hours to provide a satisfactory undertaking. Dojap attempted to do so on 20 October 1989, but the bank again rejected it. On 23 October the bank wrote to Dojap rescinding the contract and purporting to forfeit the deposit. Dojap refused to accept this, and on 26 October 1989 tendered to the bank the balance of the purchase price with interest. The bank returned the cheque the next day.
On 24 November 1989 Dojap started proceedings claiming specific performance or alternatively relief from forfeiture of the deposit. The case was heard by Zacca CJ, before whom a number of different issues arose for decision on the claim for specific performance. These are no longer in issue before the Board. The judge gave judgment on 25 June 1990 rejecting Dojap’s claim for specific performance and its claim for return of the deposit.
On 12 November 1990 Dojap arranged to purchase the same piece of land from the first mortgagee, Jamaica Citizens Bank Ltd, as a result of which the claim to specific performance of the contract of the bank became largely academic. Dojap appealed to the Court of Appeal but did not pursue its claim for specific performance. On Dojap’s alternative claim for relief from forfeiture and the return of the deposit, the Court of Appeal (Rowe P, Forte and Downer JJA) held that Dojap was entitled to relief from forfeiture to the extent that the deposit exceeded 10% of the price but did not award any interest on that sum. The bank appeals to the Board against the decision of the Court of Appeal to give such relief against forfeiture. Dojap cross-appeals claiming that it should have been awarded relief against forfeiture as to the whole of the 25% deposit and should also have been awarded interest.
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In general, a contractual provision which requires one party in the event of his breach of the contract to pay or forfeit a sum of money to the other party is unlawful as being a penalty, unless such provision can be justified as being a payment of liquidated damages, being a genuine pre-estimate of the loss which the innocent party will incur by reason of the breach. One exception to this general rule is the provision for the payment of a deposit by the purchaser on a contract for the sale of land. Ancient law has established that the forfeiture of such a deposit (customarily 10% of the contract price) does not fall within the general rule and can be validly forfeited even though the amount of the deposit bears no reference to the anticipated loss to the vendor flowing from the breach of contract.
This exception is anomalous and at least one textbook writer has been surprised that the courts of equity ever countenanced it: see Farrand Contract and Conveyancing (4th edn, 1983) p 204. The special treatment afforded to such a deposit derives from the ancient custom of providing an earnest for the performance of a contract in the form of giving either some physical token of earnest (such as a ring) or earnest money. The history of the law of deposits can be traced to the Roman law of arra, and possibly further back still: see Howe v Smith (1884) 27 Ch D 89 at 101–102, [1881–5] All ER Rep 201 at 208–09 per Fry LJ. Ever since the decision in Howe v Smith the nature of such a deposit has been settled in English law. Even in the absence of express contractual provision, it is an earnest for the performance of the contract: in the event of completion of the contract the deposit is applicable towards payment of the purchase price; in the event of the purchaser’s failure to complete in accordance with the terms of the contract, the deposit is forfeit, equity having no power to relieve against such forfeiture.
However, the special treatment afforded to deposits is plainly capable of being abused if the parties to a contract, by attaching the label ‘deposit’ to any penalty, could escape the general rule which renders penalties unenforceable. There are two authorities which indicate that this cannot be done. In Stockloser v Johnson [1954] 1 All ER 630 at 638, [1954] 1 QB 476 at 491 Denning LJ in considering the power of the court to relieve against forfeiture said, obiter:
‘Again, suppose that a vendor of property, in lieu of the usual ten per cent. deposit, stipulates for an initial payment of fifty per cent. of the price as a deposit and part payment, and later, when the purchaser fails to complete, the vendor re-sells the property at a profit and in addition, claims to forfeit the fifty per cent. deposit. Surely the court will; relieve against the forfeiture. The vendor cannot forestall this equity by describing an extravagant sum as a deposit, any more than he can recover a penalty by calling it liquidated damages.’
In Linggi Plantations Ltd v Jagatheesan [1972] 1 MLJ 89 Lord Hailsham LC delivered the judgment of the Board which upheld the claim to forfeit a normal 10% deposit even though the vendor had in fact suffered no loss. He referred on a number of occasions to a requirement that the amount of a deposit should be ‘reasonable’ and said (at 94):
‘It is also no doubt possible that in a particular contract the parties may use language normally appropriate to deposits properly so called and even to forfeiture which turn out on investigation to be purely colourable and that in such a case the real nature of the transaction might turn out to be the imposition of a penalty, by purporting to render forfeit something which is in truth part payment. This no doubt explains why in some cases the
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irrecoverable nature of a deposit is qualified by the insertion of the adjective “reasonable” before the noun. But the truth is that a reasonable deposit has always been regarded as a guarantee of performance as well as a payment on account, and its forfeiture has never been regarded as a penalty in English law or common English usage.’
In the view of their Lordships these passages accurately reflect the law. It is not possible for the parties to attach the incidents of a deposit to the payment of a sum of money unless such sum is reasonable as earnest money. The question therefore is whether or not the deposit of 25% in this case was reasonable as being in line with the traditional concept of earnest money or was in truth a penalty intended to act in terrorem.
The Chief Justice tested the question of ‘reasonableness’ by reference to the evidence before him that it was of common occurrence for banks in Jamaica selling property at auction to demand deposits of between 15% and 50%. He held that, since this was a common practice, it was reasonable. Like the Court of Appeal, their Lordships are unable to accept this reasoning. In order to be reasonable a true deposit must be objectively operating as ‘earnest money’ and not as a penalty. To allow the test of reasonableness to depend upon the practice of one class of vendor, which exercises considerable financial muscle, would be to allow them to evade the law against penalties by adopting practices of their own.
However, although their Lordships are satisfied that the practice of a limited class of vendors cannot determine the reasonableness of a deposit, it is more difficult to define what the test should be. Since a true deposit may take effect as a penalty, albeit one permitted by law, it is hard to draw a line between a reasonable, permissible amount of penalty and an unreasonable, impermissible penalty. In their Lordships’ view the correct approach is to start from the position that, without logic but by long continued usage both in the United Kingdom and formerly in Jamaica, the customary deposit has been 10%. A vendor who seeks to obtain a larger amount by way of forfeitable deposit must show special circumstances which justify such a deposit.
As their Lordships understood from the submissions made in argument, formerly the normal practice in Jamaica was to require a deposit of 10%. This was changed by the introduction of a transfer tax by the Transfer Tax Act 1971. Under that Act a transfer tax of 7.5% is payable on a transfer of land on sale. Although the tax is ultimately payable by the transferor (s 3), under s 18 it is collected from the transferee, ie the purchaser. As from 3 April 1984, any contract for the sale of land must contain a requirement for the payment of a deposit of at least 7.5% and the purchaser is required to pay this sum to the Commissioner of Stamp Duty and Transfer Tax: s 18(4). The purchaser is entitled to recover from the vendor the amount of the tax so paid either by way of deduction from the purchase price or by action: s 18(1).
Their Lordships were told that in practice this statutory machinery is not followed. Since the tax has to be paid within 30 days of the date of contract (failing which interest is payable by the vendor), a vendor is concerned to see that the tax is paid promptly. Accordingly what happens in practice is that the contractual deposit is increased to at least 17.5% and is paid by the purchaser to the vendor. The vendor then pays the tax. It is apparently this practice that has caused the departure from the previously customary deposit of 10%.
If the contract of sale in respect of which the transfer tax is payable is not in fact completed, there is no liability to pay the tax: if such tax has been paid and the contract goes off, the tax can be recovered by the vendor and, by virtue of s 16(1) of the 1971 Act, any amount so refunded ‘shall be dealt with according to
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the rights of the parties to the contract (including any requirement of a deposit implied therein under s 18(4))’.
Since in the present case completion was supposed to take place within 14 days of the contract, in the ordinary course completion would have taken place before the transfer tax was due. Accordingly, there was strictly no need in the present case for the bank to insist on the inclusion in the deposit of a sum equal to 7.5% of the contract price so as to be in pocket to pay the tax when it fell due. However, the provisions as to the transfer tax are relevant. First, the transfer tax provides the explanation for the departure from the customary 10% deposit which was previously contracted for in Jamaica. Second, it illustrates how unconscionable it would be for the vendor to forfeit the deposit to the extent of 7.5% in the ordinary case. Where the tax has in fact been paid by the vendor out of the deposit and then the sale goes off, the vendor would recover the tax from the Revenue and then put the money in his own pocket.
In the present case, the attorney for the bank in evidence sought to justify the amount of the 25% deposit in part by reference to the amount of the transfer tax which would have been payable, viz $862,500. This evidence indicates that far from the amount of the deposit having been fixed upon as a reasonable amount of earnest, the amount was substantially influenced by fiscal considerations having nothing to do with encouragement to perform the contract.
For the rest, although the attorney for the bank gave evidence that the amount of the deposit was fixed in part because it was a sum set ‘to ensure that persons do not bid frivolously at the auction’, she also sought to justify the amount of the deposit by reference to the payments that would have had to be made on completion, ie tax, stamp duty, auction costs and auctioneer’s commission. She accepted that the amount of the deposit was far in excess of what would have been required to cover the maximum out of pocket expenses which would have attended completion.
Their Lordships agree with the Court of Appeal that this evidence falls far short of showing that it was reasonable to stipulate for a forfeitable deposit of 25% of the purchase price or indeed any deposit in excess of 10%. As for the tax element the Board do not suggest that it would be unreasonable for a vendor to require advance payment of an amount sufficient to discharge the liability for transfer tax on or before completion. But it does not follow that such advance payment of tax should be capable of forfeiture if completion does not take place: such tax is either not in the event payable or is recoverable by the vendor. However, quite apart from the specific tax element in this case, there is in the view of the Board no sufficient evidence to justify a deposit of 25% as being a true deposit.
The question therefore arises whether the court has jurisdiction to relieve against the express provision of the contract that the deposit of 25% was to be forfeited. Although there is no doubt that the court will not order the payment of a sum contracted for (but not yet paid) if satisfied that such sum is in reality a penalty, it was submitted that the court could not order, by way of relief, the repayment of sums already paid to the defendant in accordance with the terms of the contract which, on breach, the contract provided should be forfeit. The basis of this submission was the view expressed in a considered obiter dictum of Romer LJ in Stockloser v Johnson [1954] 1 All ER 630 at 640–641, [1954] 1 QB 476 at 495–496.
In that case there was a contract for the sale of quarry machinery to the plaintiff, the purchase price to be paid by instalments. The contract provided that in the event of a default in payment of the instalments, the vendor could retake the machinery and all instalments of the price previously paid should be forfeit. Pursuant to the contract, the plaintiff took possession and used the machinery but
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defaulted in payment of an instalment. The defendant forfeited the instalments already paid. In the action, the plaintiff sought to recover the instalments, alleging that their forfeiture was a penalty. The Court of Appeal unanimously held that the forfeiture did not constitute a penalty on the facts of that case but went on to express conflicting views, obiter, as to whether, if the forfeiture had been a penalty, the court had jurisdiction to order repayment. Somervell and Denning LJJ expressed the view that there was such jurisdiction. Romer LJ held that there was no general right in equity to mend the parties’ bargain and that, even where there was jurisdiction to relieve from forfeiture, that could only be exercised by allowing a late completion to a party who was in default in performance but willing and able to carry out the terms of the contract belatedly.
Their Lordships do not find it necessary to decide which of those two views is correct in a case where a party is seeking relief from forfeiture for breach of contract to pay a price by instalments, the party in default having been let into possession in the meantime. This is not such a case. In the view of their Lordships, since the 25% deposit was not a true deposit by way of earnest, the provision for its forfeiture was a plain penalty. There is clear authority that in a case of a sum paid by one party to another under the contract as security for the performance of that contract, a provision for its forfeiture in the event of non-performance is a penalty from which the court will give relief by ordering repayment of the sum so paid, less any damage actually proved to have been suffered as a result of non-completion: Public Works Comr v Hills [1906] AC 368, [1904–7] All ER Rep 919. Accordingly, there is jurisdiction in the court to order repayment of the 25% deposit.
The Court of Appeal took a middle course by ordering the repayment of 15% out of the 25% deposit, leaving the bank with its normal 10% deposit which it was entitled to forfeit. Their Lordships are unable to agree that this is the correct order. The bank has contracted for a deposit consisting of one globular sum, being 25% of the purchase price. If a deposit of 25% constitutes an unreasonable sum and is not therefore a true deposit, it must be repaid as a whole. The bank has never stipulated for a reasonable deposit of 10%: therefore it has no right to such a limited payment. If it cannot establish that the whole sum was truly a deposit, it has not contracted for a true deposit at all.
As to interest, Downer JA in the Court of Appeal was under the misapprehension that Dojap had never made any claim for interest: he indicated that if they had done so he would have awarded 12% interest (being the rate provided in cl 5 of the contract). It is clear that in written submissions headed ‘Reply to defendant’s submissions’ counsel for Dojap before the Court of Appeal did claim such interest. Dojap is therefore entitled to interest at 12% pa from the date of rescission until the date of actual payment.
Finally, it appears that the bank may have suffered some damage as a result of Dojap’s failure to complete. If so, the bank is entitled to deduct the amount of such damages from the ‘deposit’ of 25%. Such damage has not been quantified in the judgment below but appears to be small in amount. It would not be right to keep Dojap out of all its money to await the outcome of the necessary inquiry as to damages. The bank ought accordingly to make immediate repayment of a substantial amount of the deposit, leaving a fund out of which the bank’s damages, if any, can be satisfied.
Their Lordships will therefore humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal ought to be dismissed and the cross-appeal allowed, and that the order of the Court of Appeal should be varied so as to provide: (1) an inquiry as to the damage (if any) suffered by the bank by reason of Dojap’s failure to complete the contract; (2) an order that the bank forthwith repay to Dojap the sum of $2m (being part
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of the deposit) together with interest at 12% pa from 23 October 1989 (being the date of rescission) down to the date of actual payment; (3) that the sum, if any, found due under the inquiry as to damages be deducted from the remainder of the deposit ($875,000) and that the balance of the said sum of £875,000 be paid to Dojap together with interest as aforesaid; and (4) an order that the bank must pay Dojap’s costs of the appeal to the Court of Appeal.
The bank must pay Dojap’s costs before their Lordships’ Board.
Appeal dismissed; cross-appeal allowed
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v King’s Lynn Magistrates’ Court, ex parte Holland
[1993] 2 All ER 377
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): BELDAM LJ AND TUDOR EVANS J
Hearing Date(s): 13 MARCH, 1 APRIL 1992
Criminal law – Committal – Preliminary hearing before justices – Evidence for the prosecution – Exclusion – Whether examining justices may exclude admissible evidence on ground of unfairness – Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s 78.
The discretion given by s 78a of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 to exclude on the ground of unfairness to the accused evidence which would otherwise be admissible may be exercised by magistrates sitting as examining justices but only in the clearest case and in exceptional circumstances where they are satisfied that to admit the evidence at the trial would be so obviously unfair that no judge properly directing himself could admit it. Examining magistrates should generally leave the decision on the exclusion of evidence to the trial judge who will be in a better position to assess the effect of the evidence on the fairness of the proceedings (see p 379 c to e and p 380 j to p 381 b d).
Notes
For the discretion to exclude relevant prosecution evidence, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1060, 1147.
For the preliminary hearings before justices, see ibid paras 825–841, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 139–156, 12772–12944.
For the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s 78, see 17 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 215.
Cases referred to in judgments
R v Conway (1990) 91 Cr App R 143, CA.
R v Highbury Corner Magistrates’ Court, ex p Boyce (1984) 79 Cr App R 132, DC.
R v Horsham Justices, ex p Bukhari (1981) 74 Cr App R 291, DC.
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R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Berry [1987] 1 All ER 1244, [1988] QB 507, [1987] 3 WLR 643, DC.
R v Philips, R v Quayle [1938] 3 All ER 674, [1939] 1 KB 63, CCA.
R v Quinn [1990] Crim LR 581, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
R v Acton Justices, ex p McMullen, R v Tower Bridge Magistrates’ Court, ex p Lawlor (1990) 92 Cr App R 98, DC.
R v Carden (1879) 5 QBD 1, DC.
R v Cruttenden [1991 ] 3 All ER 242, [1991] 2 QB 66, CA.
R v Fulling [1987] 2 All ER 65, [1987] QB 426, CA.
R v Weaver [1967] 1 All ER 277, [1968] 1 QB 353, CA.
R v Wells Street Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Seillon [1978] 3 All ER 257, [1978] 1 WLR 1002, DC.
Vel v Owen [1987] Crim LR 496, DC.
Application
Reuben Charles Holland applied, with the leave of Webster J given on 25 October 1990, for judicial review by way of (i) an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the King’s Lynn justices on 24 May 1990 committing him for trial in the Crown Court for offences including burglary and deception, on the ground that the justices should have excluded evidence of identification under s 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, and (ii) an order of mandamus requiring the justices to reopen the committal proceedings and to consider whether they should exercise their discretion under s 78 to exclude certain points of the prosecution evidence. The facts are set out in the judgment of Beldam LJ.
Michael M Wood (instructed by Hawkins, King’s Lynn) for the applicant.
Richard Daniel (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, King’s Lynn) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
1 April 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
BELDAM LJ. On 15 May 1990 the applicant appeared at the King’s Lynn Magistrates’ Court to answer 11 charges on which his committal for trial to the Crown Court was sought. The offences charged against him included burglary and obtaining by deception. The evidence before the justices was partly contained in written statements and partly in depositions taken before them. The depositions were of witnesses who identified the applicant as being involved in some of the offences and of Insp Lakey, who had conducted a group identification. The applicant’s solicitor apparently wished to challenge this evidence on the familiar ground that the group identification had been held when it was not practicable to hold an identification parade and that there had thus been a breach of the Code of Practice for the Identification of Persons by Police Officers (Code D) issued under s 66 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. On 24 May the applicant was committed to stand trial at the Crown Court at King’s Lynn, where, on 4 September 1990, the prosecution having elected not to proceed with one of the charges, he pleaded not guilty to an indictment containing ten counts. In due course at his trial, the judge rejected a submission that he should exercise his discretion under s 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 to exclude
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the evidence of identification. The applicant was found guilty of nine offences and was sentenced to a term of 12 months’ imprisonment. He has already served his sentence. He now applies to the court to quash the order of the justices committing him for trial and to review a decision by the justices in the course of the committal proceedings to admit the evidence of identification.
At the committal hearing the applicant’s solicitor had submitted that the justices should exercise a discretion to exclude the evidence of identification under s 78 of the 1984 Act. The submission was initially made before any evidence had been given, when the question was purely academic and the justices had no knowledge of any of the circumstances they had to consider, nor any basis on which to judge any effect the admission of the evidence might have on the fairness of the proceedings. After argument, which appears to have been confined solely to the construction of the words introducing s 78(1), ‘In any proceedings’ the justices eventually decided that committal proceedings were not within those words. Had they been referred to R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Berry [1987] 1 All ER 1244, [1988] QB 507, no doubt they would have held that the words did include committal proceedings, but they would certainly not have been justified in refusing to admit the evidence in this case.
In Ex p Berry the court emphasised that it would only exercise its discretion to review a decision of examining justices, or to quash a committal, in an exceptional case. I see no exceptional circumstances in this case nor were counsel able to suggest any; I would have dismissed this application for that reason but for the assertion of both counsel that the application of s 78 to committal proceedings is a question which causes difficulty from time to time when raised in other cases.
Without the assistance of the judgment in Ex p Berry, it is clear from Pt VIII of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 that the word ‘proceedings’ defined in s 82, means ‘any criminal proceedings’. The suggestion that the words are intended only to refer to the proceedings of a trial cannot be sustained when contrasted with the words of ss 77 and 79.
Even so, it is still essential to consider how the discretion to exclude evidence under s 78 is intended to be exercised by magistrates in committal proceedings. In R v Quinn [1990] Crim LR 581 Lord Lane CJ said of s 78 in general (and I read from the transcript):
‘When a judge is asked to exclude evidence pursuant to s 78 the vital question which he has to consider is whether in all the circumstances including the circumstances in which the evidence was obtained, the admission of the evidence will have such an adverse effect upon the proceedings that he ought not to admit it. The function of the judge is therefore to protect the fairness of the proceedings, and normally proceedings are fair if a jury hears all relevant evidence which either side wishes to place before it, but proceedings may become unfair if, for example, one side is allowed to adduce relevant evidence which, for one reason or another, the other side cannot properly challenge or meet, or where there has been an abuse of process, eg because evidence has been obtained in deliberate breach of procedures laid down in an official code of practice. One important factor in the exercise of its discretion will be for the court to weigh the probative effect of the disputed evidence against its prejudicial effect.’ (Lord Lane CJ’s emphasis.)
Thus in deciding the nature and scope of their discretion to refuse to allow evidence to be given the justices have to have regard to all the circumstances including the circumstances in which the evidence was obtained, and to weigh the effect of its admission by them on the fairness of the proceedings as a whole
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paying due regard to the probative value of the evidence and any prejudice to the accused. As examining magistrates their function is to decide whether they—
‘[are] of opinion, on consideration of the evidence and of any statement of the accused, that there is sufficient evidence to put the accused on trial by jury …’ (See s 6(1) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980.)
At common law justices had no discretion in committal proceedings to refuse to admit admissible evidence: see R v Horsham Justices, ex p Bukhari (1981) 74 Cr App R 291, R v Highbury Corner Magistrates’ Court, ex p Boyce (1984) 79 Cr App R 132 and R v Conway (1990) 91 Cr App R 143. Before the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 was enacted it was for the court of trial to decide whether legally admissible evidence should be excluded, though obviously the justices cannot act on inadmissible evidence: see R v Philips, R v Quayle [1938] 3 All ER 674, [1939] 1 KB 63. Under the Magistrates’ Courts Rules 1981, SI 1981/552, r 70(5), justices can treat as inadmissible a part of a statement tendered in committal proceedings by noting that they have so treated it against that part.
Although Parliament has enacted that the discretion in s 78 of the 1984 Act can be exercised in committal proceedings it did so against the background that committal proceedings were the preliminary stage of trial on indictment, that the function of justices at that stage was different from that of the judge at trial and that at common law they had no power to reject admissible evidence. Yet under s 78 the discretion given is to refuse to admit evidence which, but for the exercise of the discretion, is admissible evidence.
As the justices’ province is to decide whether on the evidence adduced the accused ought to be tried by a jury, they will not be able to decide whether the admission of the disputed evidence at the committal stage would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings as a whole that they ought to exercise their discretion to exclude it, until they have heard all the evidence.
At that stage one of the most relevant circumstances in deciding whether the admission of the evidence would adversely affect the fairness of the proceedings will be that the accused can invite the judge at the Crown Court to exclude the evidence when the issues to be tried by the jury are clarified by the indictment and when any dispute of fact concerning the evidence can be resolved in their absence. Moreover, if apart from the disputed evidence the justices would be bound to commit for trial, their refusal to admit the disputed evidence would be of no moment because the prosecutor could give notice of his intention to rely at trial on the disputed evidence in addition to the evidence contained in the depositions. The question whether to admit the evidence would then have to be considered over again at the Crown Court.
If the justices refused to admit the evidence and declined to commit the accused for trial, the prosecutor could apply for a voluntary bill of indictment or, if they committed the accused on some charges only, could seek to include in the indictment the charge or charges on which the justices declined to commit provided that the evidence was within proviso (i) to s 2(2) of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933.
Even in a case in which without the disputed evidence the justices would have to discharge the accused, the question whether the evidence is sufficient to justify the committal of the accused for trial must depend on the likelihood of the judge at the Crown Court refusing to allow the evidence to be given at the trial. Examining justices could exclude the evidence from their consideration only if satisfied that its admission at the trial would be so obviously unfair to the proceedings that no judge properly directing himself could admit it.
I have no doubt that even in such a case it would generally be far better to leave
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the decision to the trial judge who will, as I have said, be in a better position to assess the effect on the fairness of the proceedings and have had greater experience of deciding such questions.
I would therefore hold that magistrates sitting as examining justices to decide whether to commit an accused for trial on indictment ought not to exercise their discretion under s 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 to exclude admissible evidence from their determination save in the clearest case and in exceptional circumstances. The present case was certainly not such a case. Although the justices were misled into holding that s 78 did not apply to committal proceedings at all, their decision to commit the applicant for trial must have been the same had they regarded themselves as having a discretion to exclude evidence under s 78. They ought not to have been asked to rule on a purely hypothetical basis before they had heard any evidence. No court can decide whether to exercise a discretion which is to be exercised in the light of all the circumstances of a particular case until those circumstances are known and the question for decision can be properly judged.
For the reasons given this is a sterile application which is refused.
TUDOR EVANS J. I agree.
Application refused.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Poplar Coroner, ex parte Thomas
[1993] 2 All ER 381
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Judiciary
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, FARQUHARSON AND SIMON BROWN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 30 NOVEMBER, 15 DECEMBER 1992
Coroner – Inquest – Duty to hold inquest – Unnatural death – Failure of ambulance services to respond to emergency call – Deceased suffering severe asthma attack and having cardiac arrest while waiting for ambulance – Evidence that death might not have occurred but for late arrival of ambulance – Coroner refusing to order inquest – Whether deceased dying from ‘unnatural’ cause – Whether coroner under duty to hold inquest – Coroners Act 1988, s 8(1)(a).
The deceased suffered a severe attack of asthma at 1.00 am on 9 April 1989. Her family telephoned for an ambulance when the attack began but received a recorded message: ‘There is no one here at present. Please hold on and we will answer your call as soon as we can.' When that message was repeated they decided to take the deceased to hospital by car. On the way the deceased collapsed and the car was stopped. The deceased, who was still alive but unconscious, was laid out on the pavement and the police were summoned from a nearby police station. The police attempted to revive her and at 1.15 am a police officer urgently requested an ambulance. Two further calls were made from the police station at 1.17 am and 1.32 am. An ambulance in fact arrived at 1.33 am, but the deceased had suffered a cardiac arrest a minute or so before and attempts to resuscitate her were abandoned shortly after her arrival at hospital. A post-mortem examination and report ordered by the coroner revealed that death was due to natural causes, ie a prolonged asthmatic attack. Under s 8(1)(a)a of the Coroners Act 1988 the
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coroner had a duty to hold an inquest where there was reasonable cause to suspect that the deceased had died a ‘violent or unnatural’ death but on the basis of the report the coroner decided that an inquest was unnecessary. The deceased’s mother applied for and was granted judicial review of the coroner’s decision by the Divisional Court, which ordered the coroner to hold an inquest, on the grounds that he had been wrong to concentrate on the medical evidence to the exclusion of all other evidence. The coroner appealed and the question arose whether it could be said that by reason of the late arrival of the ambulance there was reasonable cause to suspect that the deceased died an ‘unnatural’ death within s 8(1)(a) of the 1988 Act.
Held – For the purposes of deciding whether a person had died an ‘unnatural’ death within s 8(1)(a) of the 1988 Act, the term ‘unnatural’ was to be given its ordinary meaning. Whether the death of a deceased was natural or unnatural depended on the cause of death, which was essentially a practical question of fact. The cause of the deceased’s death was the asthmatic attack and that was a natural cause of death, and the death was not turned into an unnatural death by the lapse of some 33 minutes between the first abortive emergency call and the actual arrival of the ambulance, since there were a variety of different reasons why an ambulance might arrive too late to save a patient, eg the distance from the ambulance centre to the patient’s home, heavy traffic or a computer malfunction and in each case the cause of death would be the natural cause and not the distance, the heavy traffic or the computer malfunction. It followed that the coroner had directed himself properly and was therefore under no duty to order an inquest. The coroner’s appeal would accordingly be allowed (see p 386 f to j, p 387 a g h and p 389 f, post).
Dictum of Lord Salmon in Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475 at 490 applied.
R v Southwark Coroner, ex p Hicks [1987] 2 All ER 140 considered.
Per Simon Brown LJ. Although ‘unnatural’ is an ordinary word of the English language and there is nothing to suggest that in s 8(1) of the 1988 Act it is being used in any unusual sense, that is not to say that whether or not a particular death is properly to be regarded as unnatural is a pure question of fact. It is necessary to recognise that cases may well arise in which human fault can and properly should be found to turn what would otherwise be a natural death into an unnatural one (see p 388 a b and p 389 c d, post).
Notes
For a coroner’s duty to hold an inquest, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) 1048, 1062, and for cases on the subject, see 13 Digest (Reissue) 171, 1436–1349.
For the Coroners Act 1988, s 8, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 559.
Cases referred to in judgments
Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475, [1972] AC 824, [1972] 2 WLR 1320, HL.
Brutus v Cozens [1972] 2 All ER 1297, [1973] AC 854, [1972] 3 WLR 521, HL.
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, HL.
McGhee v National Coal Board [1972] 3 All ER 1008, [1973] 1 WLR 1, HL.
R v Inner London North District Coroner, ex p Linnane [1989] 2 All ER 254, [1989] 1 WLR 395, DC.
R v Inner South London Coroner, ex p Kendall [1989] 1 All ER 72, [1988] 1 WLR 1186, DC.
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R v Southwark Coroner, ex p Hicks [1987] 2 All ER 140, [1987] 1 WLR 1624, DC.
Wilsher v Essex Area Health Authority [1988] 1 All ER 871, [1988] AC 1074, [1988] 2 WLR 557, HL.
Cases also cited
R v Birmingham Coroner, ex p Secretary of State for the Home Dept (1990) Times, 6 August, DC.
R v East Berkshire Coroner, ex p Buckley (1992) Times, 1 December, DC.
R v Hammersmith Coroner, ex p Peach [1980] 2 All ER 7, [1980] QB 211, CA.
R v Portsmouth Coroner, ex p Anderson [1988] 2 All ER 604, [1987] 1 WLR 1640, DC.
R v Price (1884) 12 QBD 247, Assizes.
R v Surrey Coroner, ex p Campbell [1982] 2 All ER 545, [1982] QB 661, DC.
R v West London Coroner, ex p Gray [1987] 2 All ER 129, [1988] QB 467, DC.
Rapier (decd), Re [1986] 3 All ER 726, [1988] QB 26, DC.
Appeal
Douglas Robert Chambers, the coroner for Greater London (Inner London North District), appealed from an order made on 13 April 1992 by the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Watkins LJ and Tudor Evans J) (10 BMLR 109) granting the application of Doris Thomas for judicial review by way of an order for mandamus directing the coroner to hold an inquest into the death of her daughter, Mavis Thomas. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Terence Coghlan (instructed by Hempsons) for the coroner.
Edward Fitzgerald (instructed by Deighton Guedalla) for the respondent.
Cur adv vult
15 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ. This is an appeal by HM Coroner for Greater London (Inner London North District), Mr Chambers, from an order of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Watkins LJ and Tudor Evans J) (10 BMLR 109) made on 13 April 1992. By that order, made on an application by Mrs Doris Thomas for relief by way of mandamus, the court ordered that an inquest be held into the death of Mavis Thomas, a daughter of Doris Thomas. The court also directed that that inquest be held by a coroner other than Mr Chambers, but nothing turns on that.
Miss Thomas died at the age of 17 in the early hours of the morning of 9 April 1989. She had been a lifelong sufferer from asthma, and she had a severe attack of asthma at about 1.00 am that morning. Her sister and a neighbour attempted to summon the ambulance service by dialling 999; but a recorded message from the ambulance service stated: ‘There is no one here at present. Please hold on and we will answer your call as soon as we can.' This was repeated, and it was decided to take Miss Thomas to hospital by car. On the way Miss Thomas collapsed and the car was stopped. Miss Thomas was laid out on the pavement and the police were summoned from a nearby police station. Miss Thomas was still alive but unconscious, and attempts were made by the police to revive her. At about 1.14 or 1.15 am an officer in the street dialled 999, urgently requesting an ambulance. A similar call was made from the police station and logged at 1.17 am, and another call was made from the station at 1.32 am. An ambulance in fact arrived at where Miss Thomas was at 1.33 am, but she had stopped breathing a minute
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or so before. She was taken by the ambulance to the London Hospital, arriving at 1.40 am; she then had no pulse and was not breathing and attempts to resuscitate her were abandoned at 1.55 am.
In exercise of his powers under s 19 of the Coroners Act 1988, the coroner directed a post-mortem examination of Miss Thomas, and a report. The report of the pathologist who carried out the post mortem is dated 19 April 1989 and gives as the cause of death ‘status asthmaticus’, ie a prolonged asthmatic attack.
There is other medical evidence, however, from Mr Alastair Wilson, the consultant in charge of the accident and emergency department at the hospital, and a Dr Roy Davies, a consultant physician and cardiologist, which shows, firstly, that had Miss Thomas arrived in that department before her cardiac arrest she would not have died and, secondly, that even if she had arrived in the department within some five minutes of her cardiac arrest there was a good chance that she would not have died. Miss Thomas’s family are, naturally, very concerned at the failure of the ambulance to arrive in time to have saved Miss Thomas’s life.
The question in these circumstances is whether there should be an inquest on Miss Thomas.
A coroner’s powers and duties in respect of inquests are now set out in the Coroners Act 1988. Subsections (1) and (3) of s 8 provide:
‘(1) Where a coroner is informed that the body of a person (“the deceased”) is lying within his district and there is reasonable cause to suspect that the deceased—(a) has died a violent or an unnatural death; (b) has died a sudden death of which the cause is unknown; or (c) has died in prison or in such a place or in such circumstances as to require an inquest under any other Act, then, whether the cause of death arose within his district or not, the coroner shall as soon as practicable hold an inquest into the death of the deceased either with or, subject to subsection (3) below, without a jury …
(3) If it appears to a coroner, either before he proceeds to hold an inquest or in the course of an inquest begun without a jury, that there is reason to suspect—(a) that the death occurred in prison or in such a place or in such circumstances as to require an inquest under any other Act; (b) that the death occurred while the deceased was in police custody, or resulted from an injury caused by a police officer in the purported execution of his duty; (c) that the death was caused by an accident, poisoning or disease notice of which is required to be given under any Act to a government department, to any inspector or other officer of a government department or to an inspector appointed under section 19 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974; or (d) that the death occurred in circumstances the continuance or possible recurrence of which is prejudicial to the health or safety of the public or any section of the public, he shall proceed to summon a jury in the manner required by subsection (2) above.’
The wording of sub-s (1) follows precisely the wording of s 3(1) of the Coroners Act 1887. There is no general discretion in the 1988 Act or elsewhere for the coroner to hold an inquest in any circumstances in which he considers it to be in the public interest that an inquest should be held. An inquest can only be held in a case which falls within s 8(1); but in any such case it is mandatory to hold an inquest—the word is ‘shall’ and not ‘may’—save that under s 19, in a case where there was reasonable cause to suspect that the person had died a sudden death of which the cause was unknown, the coroner can dispense with an inquest if he is satisfied as a result of the pathologist’s report after a post-mortem that an inquest is unnecessary—ie after the pathologist’s report the cause of death is known and found to have been natural.
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In the present case no one disputes the pathologist’s assessment of the cause of death in the post-mortem report if only the medical aspect is considered. It follows that, as none of the other alternatives in s 8(1) is remotely relevant, the only basis on which an inquest could be held would be if it can be said that, because of the late arrival of the ambulance, there is reasonable cause to suspect that Miss Thomas died an unnatural death. That is therefore the question we have to consider.
Mr Coghlan submitted on behalf of the coroner that the word ‘unnatural’ is an ordinary word of the English language which should be given its ordinary meaning. He refers to Brutus v Cozens [1972] 2 All ER 1297, [1973] AC 854, which was concerned with the meaning of the word ‘insulting’ in the phrase ‘insulting words or behaviour’. In my judgment, that approach is in general correct as there is no context in s 8(1) to suggest that the word ‘unnatural’ is being used there in any unusual sense.
In the context of death, ‘unnatural’ is obviously the antithesis of ‘natural’. But since the most obvious instances of unnatural deaths, in the ordinary sense of that word, are violent deaths, which are—no doubt for that reason—expressly covered by s 8(1)(a), it is helpful to consider what non-violent deaths are none the less to be regarded as unnatural.
One obvious class is people who have died of industrial illness (as opposed to industrial accident). We were told that in such cases an inquest is always held. That can only be upon the basis that such deaths were unnatural: though the illness took its course leading to death, the inception of the illness was from unnatural causes. A parallel would be the deaths of persons in a typhoid epidemic—such as occasionally used to happen—occasioned by contamination of the public water supply in a particular area.
We were also told that inquests are invariably held on persons who die of legionnaires’ disease. That is presumably because the disease is, thankfully, very rare in this country, and it is regarded, on a broad view, as ‘unnatural’ that a person should die of an extremely rare disease. But asthma is not very rare, and there is nothing unnatural, per se, in a person dying of asthma.
Another instance of deaths which are unnatural but not violent is where persons die from ‘lack of care’ in the narrow and somewhat technical sense in which that term was interpreted by the Divisional Court in R v Southwark Coroner, ex p Hicks [1987] 2 All ER 140, [1987] 1 WLR 1624. That phrase ‘lack of care’ bulks somewhat large in the judgment of Tudor Evans J in the Divisional Court in the present case, with which Watkins LJ agreed. But as the concept was interpreted in Ex p Hicks it has no relevance, in my judgment, to the circumstances of the present case. Thus Croom-Johnson LJ said ([1987] 2 All ER 140 at 146, [1987] 1 WLR 1624 at 1633):
‘The history of the verdict “lack of care” indicates that it is appropriate only to the physical condition of the deceased as causing the death and should not be used to indicate a breach of duty by some other person. Questions of criminal negligence amounting to manslaughter were always a different problem, and now that they are out of the way the verdict of “lack of care” can be given its original and proper meaning. It should generally be regarded as the other side of the coin to self-neglect, and consequently was an inappropriate verdict in the case to which I have referred of the child who drowned in the Serpentine.’
Similarly Peter Pain J, reiterating what Croom-Johnson LJ had said, said specifically that in this context lack of care—
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‘ “bears no relation to the question whether there was a duty of care in the Donoghue v Stevenson sense (see [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1) and whether that duty of care has been breached.” (See [1987] 2 All ER 140 at 149, [1987] 1 WLR 1624 at 1637.)’
In the present case, it could not be said that Miss Thomas was in the ‘care’ of the ambulance service in the sense in which that word was used in Ex p Hicks.
Whether Miss Thomas’s death was natural or unnatural must therefore depend on what was the cause of death. At this point, I remind myself of the observation of Lord Salmon in Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475 at 490, [1972] AC 824 at 847 where he said:
‘I consider, however, that what or who has caused a certain event to occur is essentially a practical question of fact which can best be answered by ordinary common sense rather than by abstract metaphysical theory.’
Lord Salmon repeated what he had there said in his speech in McGhee v National Coal Board [1972] 3 All ER 1008 at 1017, [1973] 1 WLR 1 at 11 and it seems to have been an important part of the material which, in Wilsher v Essex Area Health Authority [1988] 1 All ER 871 at 881, [1988] AC 1074 at 1090, led the House of Lords to classify McGhee’s case as a robust application of ordinary principles of causation to the undisputed primary facts of the case.
In Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475 at 479, [1972] AC 824 at 834 Lord Wilberforce also said that ‘causing’ must be given a commonsense meaning, and he deprecated the introduction of refinements such as causa causans, effective cause or novus actus.
In the present case the complaint is that the chance of saving Miss Thomas’s life was lost because such a long time—33 minutes—elapsed between the first abortive 999 call and the actual arrival of the ambulance at the place where Miss Thomas was lying.
But it is easy to think of a variety of different scenarios as a result of which an ambulance could have arrived too late to save a patient who had suffered a severe attack of asthma like Miss Thomas’s, eg (i) the distance from the ambulance centre to the patient’s home was too great for there to have ever been any chance of the ambulance arriving in time to save the patient, (ii) there was much more traffic than normal in the locality and so the ambulance was delayed and arrived just too late, (iii) the ambulance was diverted on its journey and had to take a much longer route because of flooding caused by a burst water main, which may have been due to lack of proper maintenance by the water company, (iv) a newly installed computer installed by the ambulance service to handle emergency calls more efficiently malfunctioned, as newly installed computers are prone to, or (v) the ambulance came late because the ambulance crew were inefficient and the management was slack.
I do not suggest that any of these scenarios actually fits the facts of Miss Thomas’s case. I do not know what the cause of delay was. But in each of these scenarios common sense indicates that what caused the patient’s death was, on Lord Salmon’s test in Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475 at 490, [1972] AC 824 at 847, the asthmatic attack not the congestion of the traffic, the bursting of the water main, the malfunction of the computer or the inefficiency of the ambulance service. But the asthmatic attack is a natural cause of death, and the death is not, in my judgment, turned into an unnatural death by any of the facts suggested in any of the alternative scenarios.
The Divisional Court criticised the coroner for concentrating on the medical cause of death to the exclusion of all other evidence. I do not think the criticism
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is justified. The coroner was not excluding the other evidence: he was saying that, even when all the other evidence is taken into account, the cause of death was still the asthmatic attack and the death was not an unnatural death. That is also my view, for the reasons I have endeavoured to give.
The Divisional Court also criticised the coroner for not asking himself whether this might be a case for a verdict of death aggravated by lack of care. But on the analysis in R v Southwark Coroner, ex p Hicks [1987] 2 All ER 140, [1987] 1 WLR 1624 the concept of lack of care as understood in this field of law is not appropriate to this case. Other verdicts could easily be devised, if it were appropriate to hold an inquest, since forms of inquisition set out in Form 22 in Sch 4 to the Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552, are merely suggestions and not mandatory. But the key question is not what the form of inquisition or verdict ought to be; it is whether an inquest should be held at all.
In the course of argument, a certain amount of attention was directed to s 8(3), which sets out the circumstances in which a coroner’s inquest should be held with a jury. Attention was particularly directed to para (d) in sub-s (3), viz ‘that the death occurred in circumstances the continuance or possible recurrence of which is prejudicial to the health or safety of the public or any section of the public’. Paragraph (d) was helpfully interpreted by Taylor LJ in R v Inner London North District Coroner, ex p Linnane [1989] 2 All ER 254, [1989] 1 WLR 395, and it has been suggested that recurrence of delay on the part of the ambulance service in answering emergency calls is a matter of justified public concern which falls within para (d) and would warrant having a jury if an inquest is held.
That may be so, but it does not answer the particular question which is before us. One can easily think of cases which are obviously within sub-s (1) and would require a jury for the inquest under sub-s (3)(d). But it does not follow from that that every case in which the death occurred in circumstances the continuance or possible recurrence of which is prejudicial to the health or safety of a section of the public is necessarily an unnatural death within the meaning of sub-s (1).
It is also as well to remember, as a check on any tendency to over-purposive construction of s 8, that r 42 of the 1984 rules expressly provides:
‘No verdict shall be framed in such a way as to appear to determine any question of—(a) criminal liability on the part of a named person, or (b) civil liability.’
It is not the function of a coroner’s inquest to provide a forum for attempts to gather evidence for pending or future criminal or civil proceedings.
For these reasons, I would allow this appeal and I would set aside the order of the Divisional Court save in so far as it dealt with costs.
FARQUHARSON LJ. I agree for the reasons given by Dillon LJ that this appeal should be allowed.
SIMON BROWN LJ. I have had the advantage of reading Dillon LJ’s judgment in draft. I agree with the result which he proposes but since I reach that conclusion with more hesitation than Dillon and Farquharson LJJ and by a rather different route it is, I think, desirable to set out something of my own reasoning.
The central question raised in these proceedings is: did Miss Thomas die an unnatural death? (The question was, of course, in the first instance one for the coroner in the context that, if he had reasonable cause to suspect that the answer was Yes—ie if he thought that might be the true view—he was bound to hold an inquest. It is only a question for this court—and even then only with a view to
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remitting the matter for further decision by the coroner—if the coroner misdirected himself in law upon the proper approach to it.)
I agree that ‘unnatural’ is an ordinary word of the English language and that there is nothing to suggest that in s 8(1) of the Coroners Act 1988 it is being used in any unusual sense. That, however, is not to say that whether or not a particular death is properly to be regarded as unnatural is a pure question of fact. On the contrary, it seems to me that some guidance at least can and should be given as a matter of law by the courts to coroners so that they may focus their attention upon the real considerations material to the decision and, one hopes, thereby achieve an essential measure of consistency in their approach to the section. Brutus v Cozens [1972] 2 All ER 1297, [1973] AC 854, in short, seems to me of limited value in this case: even ordinary words can have more than one usual sense and be capable of differing applications depending upon the particular context in which they are found.
I agree further that the question whether or not a death is natural or unnatural depends ultimately upon the view one takes as to the cause of death. But I do not find the question of causation in this context susceptible of quite the sort of robust approach as the House of Lords advocated in a very different context in cases such as McGhee v National Coal Board [1972] 3 All ER 1008, [1973] 1 WLR 1. The question arising there was: can the court properly infer, in the absence of a provable direct link, that one particular state of affairs caused or contributed to another. In those cases the possibility of there being more than one cause was immaterial. Indeed, courts often find there to have been several different causes of a given eventuality. Take this very case: can it really be doubted that, if an action was brought in respect of Miss Thomas’s death, whatever the court found regarding negligence it would certainly find the death to have been caused at least in part by the late arrival of the ambulance? The question posed in the present context is surely therefore different: given that all the important facts are known to the coroner, what view should he take of causes that may well be secondary but are not self-evidently irrelevant? As in litigation, why should he not sometimes find a death to be the result of two causes, either one of which could serve to make it unnatural.
I do not suggest that the coroner was bound to take that view here. But there will be occasions when in my judgment that will be the only proper approach. Take a medical condition between the extremes postulated by the coroner in this case—neither a condition like strangulated hernia or ectopic pregnancy which clearly ought never to result in death and which, if it does, will require an inquest, but nor a condition as serious as this deceased’s asthma with its considerable natural mortality rate; assume then that consequent upon some clear failure of the emergency services the condition, unusually, proved fatal. Would not common sense dictate that that was an unnatural death? Indeed, I for my part would so regard this very case if the late arrival of the ambulance had constituted a more extreme failure of the service than I believe it did. If death from legionnaires’ disease is accepted to be unnatural only because it is extremely rare, why not these sorts of cases too?
One hopes and believes that grave failures of the emergency services are an extreme rarity too. I should perhaps add that by ‘failure’ I mean culpable human failure on the part of those responsible for providing a reasonably efficient emergency service. Congested traffic, or other transportation or communication difficulties causing delayed arrivals are not, I fear, rare, and certainly could not as a matter of common sense be thought directly causative of the death such as to make it in this context unnatural.
I recognise, of course, that r 42 of the Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552,
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prohibits a verdict being framed so as to appear to determine any question of civil liability. It is indeed true to say more generally that the scope of what a coroner’s inquisition may achieve by way of a formal result has gradually been whittled down over the years. All, indeed, that remains, bar the verdict, is the coroner’s limited power under r 43:
‘A coroner who believes that action should be taken to prevent the recurrence of fatalities similar to that in respect of which the inquest is being held may announce at the inquest that he is reporting the matter in writing to the person or authority who may have power to take such action and he may report the matter accordingly.’
Merely, however, because the coroner’s inquest may nowadays be thought lacking any very clear or cogent role is no sufficient reason for adopting too narrow an approach to s 8. I repeat, it seems to me necessary to recognise that cases may well arise in which human fault can and properly should be found to turn what would otherwise be a natural death into an unnatural one, and one into which, therefore, an inquest should be held. What the appropriate verdict should then be is no doubt open to question, although to my mind the answer is of limited importance. As I endeavoured to point out in R v Inner South London Coroner, ex p Kendall [1989] 1 All ER 72 at 77, [1988] 1 WLR 1186 at 1193, it is unclear what if any use is in fact made by the responsible authorities of the actual inquisitions and annexed coroner’s certificates; and the forms themselves merely provide ‘suggested’ ways in which the coroner may fulfil his statutory duty under s 11(5)(b) of the 1988 Act to set out who the deceased was, and how, when and where he came by his death. But that is really by the way. Whether or not the Home Office choose to rationalise and clarify the role intended to be played by inquisitions in present-day society, coroners and reviewing courts must necessarily grapple with the legislation as presently it stands.
The coroner in the present case was, I believe, entitled to reach the conclusion he did that this particular deceased’s death was properly to be regarded as natural. He cannot be criticised for regarding the late arrival of the ambulance as insufficiently causative of death to alter its essential character. I too, therefore, would allow this appeal and set aside the order of the Divisional Court.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
R v Crown Court at Isleworth, ex parte Willington
[1993] 2 All ER 390
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): McCOWAN LJ AND JOWITT J
Hearing Date(s): 28 JULY 1992
Crown Court – Supervisory jurisdiction of High Court – Trial on indictment – High Court having no supervisory jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment – Legal aid certificate – Revocation of legal aid certificate by judge in Crown Court – Reinstatement of original legal aid certificate – Reinstatement having effect that applicant not represented by solicitors of his choice – Whether Divisional Court having jurisdiction to quash judge’s order reinstating legal aid certificate – Whether judge’s decision a ‘matter relating to trial on indictment’ – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29(3).
The applicant, who had been charged with 11 counts of dishonesty, applied on 12 June 1992 to have his legal aid certificate transferred from one firm of solicitors to another on the grounds that he had lost confidence in the first solicitors. The application was refused and on 17 June, on his own application, his certificate was discharged by a judge in the Crown Court. On 22 June at the hearing of an application for an adjournment to a later date to allow proper preparation of the applicant’s case, the judge refused the application, but stated that the case was suitable for legal aid and revoked his order of 17 June thereby reinstating the applicant’s original legal aid certificate, which had the effect that the applicant would be represented by the first firm of solicitors, whom he did not wish to represent him, rather than the solicitors of his choice. The applicant applied for judicial review of the judge’s decision on the ground that the judge had had no jurisdiction to revoke the discharge of the legal aid certificate or to reinstate the discharged certificate. The question arose whether if he had acted without jurisdiction the judge’s decision was nevertheless within the Crown Court’s ‘jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment’ and thus excluded from judicial review by s 29(3)a of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The applicant contended that whenever a judge in the Crown Court had to decide not only whether he had any jurisdiction to try the case at all but also a point of jurisdiction his decision was not within his jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment and was therefore amenable to judicial review.
Held – The High Court was prevented by s 29(3) of the 1981 Act from reviewing the exercise or failure to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court if it related to trial on indictment whether or not jurisdiction existed in relation to the matter the subject of the application for judicial review. The decision of a judge in the Crown Court to revoke a previous order discharging a legal aid certificate was a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ within s 29(3) whether or not the judge had power to make that decision. It followed that the High Court had no jurisdiction to review the judge’s decision. The appropriate remedy in the event of a conviction was an appeal to the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, on the ground that the applicant had been denied the lawyers of his choice by the judge’s decision. The application for judicial review would therefore be dismissed (see p 392 g h, p 394 g, p 395 j to p 396 b f to h and p 398 a to d h, post).
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R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801 distinguished.
R v Crown Court at Chichester, ex p Abodunrin and Sogbanmu (1984) 79 Cr App R 293 considered.
Notes
For the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the Crown Court, see 10 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 710, 717, 870.
For revocation of legal aid orders in criminal proceedings, see Supplement to 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 983.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 990.
Cases referred to in judgments
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087, DC.
R v Crown Court at Chichester, ex p Abodunrin and Sogbanmu (1984) 79 Cr App R 293, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, DC.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v Crown Court at Sheffield, ex p Brownlow [1980] 2 All ER 444, [1980] QB 530, [1980] 2 WLR 892, CA.
R v Shoreditch Assessment Committee, ex p Morgan [1910] 2 KB 859, [1908–10] All ER Rep 792, CA.
Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194, HL.
Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, [1985] 2 WLR 538, HL.
Application for judicial review
Kevin Willington applied, with the leave of Popplewell J given on 26 June 1992, for judicial review by way of, inter alia, (i) an order of certiorari to quash the decision of Judge Miller on 22 June 1992 to revoke the discharge of a legal aid certificate previously discharged on 17 June 1992, and (ii) an order of mandamus requiring the court to grant a legal aid certificate to the applicant in order that he might have representation by a solicitor of his choice. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCowan LJ.
Richard Gordon (instructed by Bindman & Partners) for the applicant.
Stephen Richards (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the respondent.
Andrew Colman (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
28 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
McCOWAN LJ. This is an application for judicial review in respect of a decision of Judge Miller made on 22 June 1992 to revoke the discharge of legal aid previously discharged on 17 June 1992. The relief sought is certiorari to quash that decision and mandamus requiring the court to grant a legal aid certificate to the applicant, in order that he may have representation by a solicitor of his choice.
From the grounds on which relief is sought the story emerges as follows. The applicant was charged on 15 June 1991 with two counts of fraudulent trading and a further nine counts of obtaining moneys by deception. He instructed solicitors, they being Messrs Davis Walker & Co. On 12 June 1992 he made an application for the transfer of his legal aid certificate on the basis that he had lost all confidence in that firm of solicitors. That application was refused. On 17 June he applied to Judge Miller to have his legal aid certificate discharged. He was
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represented on this application by a representative of another firm of solicitors. The certificate was discharged. On 18 June he approached Messrs Bindman & Partners to represent him at his trial. In other words, this was a third firm of solicitors. Bindmans instructed counsel to appear on 22 June. On that day counsel made an application for the case to be adjourned to allow proper preparation of the applicant’s defence. The judge refused that application, although he indicated that a short adjournment would be allowed in order that the applicant might obtain legal representation and make application for legal aid. Counsel then informed the court that any application for legal aid would be made for Bindmans to represent him, that firm being the solicitors of his choice. It appears that the judge then stated that the case was suitable for legal aid. However, what he did was to reinstate the applicant’s original legal aid certificate, that discharged on 17 June, by revoking his order of 17 June. By that means, if it was lawful, the applicant was back in the hands of the first firm of solicitors whom he did not want to represent him.
What is submitted in the grounds is that:
‘(a) the Judge had no jurisdiction to revoke a previous discharge, once ordered, of a legal aid certificate; (b) the Judge had no jurisdiction to reinstate a legal aid certificate once discharged; (c) The effect of the Judge’s order was to circumvent the right of a person entitled to representation to select a solicitor under the Legal Aid Act 1988, S. 32(1)(a) …’
In the application two questions arise: (1) has this court any jurisdiction to hear this application and (2) if we have, had the judge jurisdiction to do what he did? We have only heard argument on (1), since we took the view that if we are of the opinion that we have no jurisdiction it would be not only pointless for us to consider the second point but wrong because, if the applicant were to be convicted, it is a point which the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division might, on appeal, have to decide.
As to our jurisdiction, it is necessary to consider s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which reads:
‘In relation to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment, the High Court shall have all such jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari as the High Court possesses in relation to the jurisdiction of an inferior court.’
The vital words for present purposes are ‘other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment’. Mr Gordon’s basic point is that, if in truth the judge had no jurisdiction to do what he did, then that decision cannot fall within the class of decision properly categorised as a jurisdiction in a matter relating to trial on indictment.
I turn to consider the authorities on s 29(3). The first to which our attention has been drawn is R v Crown Court at Chichester, ex p Abodunrin and Sogbanmu (1984) 79 Cr App R 293. The headnote will suffice. It reads:
‘The applicants were committed to the Crown Court for trial charged with importing cannabis into the United Kingdom contrary to section 3(1) of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 and section 170(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979. They applied to the Crown Court for legal aid which was refused. Their appeal against that refusal to a Crown Court judge in chambers was also refused. Accordingly, they applied to the Divisional Court for judicial review by way of an order for certiorari to quash the Crown Court’s decision and for an order of mandamus requiring that Court to consider their application for legal aid afresh.
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Held, that it was clear from the Legal Aid in Criminal Proceedings (General) Regulations 1968 that only a Crown Court judge could refuse the grant of legal aid in the Crown Court and that as that decision arose out of his jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment, the Divisional Court had no jurisdiction pursuant to section 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 to hear the present application which would be refused.’
In Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622 the facts do not matter. Passages in the speech of Lord Bridge do. He said [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 777, [1985] AC 622 at 640):
‘I complete this review by noting that the Divisional Court (Ackner LJ and Taylor J) in R v Crown Court at Chichester, ex p Abodundrin (1984) 79 Cr App R 293 held that a decision of the Crown Court refusing to grant legal aid to defendants for their trial on indictment was “in a matter relating to trial on indictment” and was accordingly not reviewable.’
It is to be noted that he refers to the decision in the earlier case without any disapproval. He continued ([1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779, [1985] AC 622 at 642):
‘It is, of course, obvious that the phrase “relating to trial on indictment” in ss 28(2)(a) and 29(3) is apt to exclude appeal or judicial review in relation to the verdict given or sentence passed at the conclusion of a trial on indictment, both of which are subject to appeal as provided by the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. I accept the submission of counsel for the respondents that in this context, as in ss 76 and 77 of the 1981 Act, the words “trial on indictment” must include the “trial” of a defendant who pleads guilty on arraignment. Beyond this it is not difficult to discern a sensible legislative purpose in excluding appeal or judicial review of any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment, whether given in the course of the trial or by way of pretrial directions. In any such case to allow an appellate or review process might, as Shaw LJ pointed out in Brownlow’s case [1980] 2 All ER 444 at 445, [1980] QB 530 at 544–545, seriously delay the trial. If it is the prosecutor who is aggrieved by such a decision, it is in no way surprising that he has no remedy, since prosecutors have never enjoyed rights of appeal or review when unsuccessful in trials on indictment. If, on the other hand, the defendant is so aggrieved, he will have his remedy by way of appeal against conviction under the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 if he has suffered an injustice in consequence of a material irregularity in the course of the trial, which, I apprehend, may well result not only from a decision given during the trial, but equally from a decision given in advance of the trial which affects the conduct of the trial, eg a wrongful refusal to grant him legal aid.’
I look next at Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194. The headnote reads (see [1987] 1 WLR 194):
‘The applicant, who received legal aid for his trial on indictment at Croydon Crown Court in March 1980 on a charge of attempted arson, was acquitted on a direction by the circuit judge to the jury. The applicant was nevertheless ordered to pay £250 towards his defence pursuant to section 32 of the Legal Aid Act 1974. There being no right of appeal to the Court of Appeal (Criminal Division) against the making of an order of that nature the applicant sought to challenge it by way of an application for judicial review. The Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division dismissed the application on the ground that by virtue of section 10(5) of the Courts Act 1971 the court had no jurisdiction to entertain it. On appeal by the applicant:—
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Held, dismissing the appeal, that a legal aid contribution order like any other order as to costs which the Crown Court might make at the end of a trial on indictment, was an integral part of the trial process, and thus formed part of the court’s “jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment” within section 10(5) of the Courts Act 1971, and, accordingly, was not subject to judicial review.’
In the speech of Lord Bridge this is to be found ([1987] 1 All ER 609 at 613–614, [1987] 1 WLR 194 at 199):
‘A legal aid order granting legal aid for the purposes of a trial on indictment may be made either by the magistrates’ court before which the committal proceedings are conducted or by the Crown Court to which the defendant is committed: see s 28 of the 1974 Act, as amended by s 2 of the [Legal Aid Act 1982]. It is established by R v Crown Court at Chichester, ex p Abodunrin (1984) 79 Cr App R 293, which the House affirmed in Smalley [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, that a decision of the Crown Court to refuse legal aid for trial on indictment is within the statutory exclusion from judicial review since it clearly affects the conduct of the trial. But, as at present advised, I see no reason why a legal aid contribution order under s 7(1) of the 1982 Act should not be subject to review on an appropriate ground, eg that the order was made in the face of unchallenged evidence that the defendant’s disposable income and disposable capital did not exceed the prescribed limits. Such an order cannot affect the conduct of the trial and certainly cannot be regarded as an integral part of the trial process. On the other hand, a decision of the Crown Court at the conclusion of a trial whether or not to exercise its discretion under s 8(5) to remit or order repayment of any sums due from or paid by the defendant under a legal aid contribution order is in all respects comparable to the decisions relating to costs falling to be made under ss 3 and 4 of the Costs in Criminal Cases Act 1973 and s 32 of the 1974 Act which have been examined earlier in this opinion. It is, for the same reason, an integral part of the trial process and on that ground excluded from judicial review.’
These authorities seem to me to be plainly against Mr Gordon’s contentions. He says, however, that in refusing to grant legal aid a judge is exercising a discretion, and even if he does so unreasonably, it is, nevertheless, done within his jurisdiction. In the present case, he submits, the judge had no jurisdiction at all to do what he did. I, for my part, cannot accept that that is a valid difference.
Mr Gordon further argues that the decision under review does not affect the conduct of the trial because, one way or the other, the applicant will be represented by counsel under legal aid at the trial. As Mr Richards pointed out, if which lawyer is going to represent him at the trial is not going to affect the conduct of the trial, one may be forgiven for asking what the purpose is of the present application. Mr Gordon submits, however, that there is authority supporting him, namely a decision of the Divisional Court, consisting of Leggatt LJ and Pill J, in R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801. We have before us only a transcript of the judgment of Leggatt LJ. In those proceedings the Director of Public Prosecutions applied with leave for judicial review of an order made by Morland J on 4 September 1991 in the Crown Court at Manchester, whereby he quashed an indictment in R v Huckfield, Ennis and Dowd. I mention Mr Huckfield for this reason. The judge quashed the indictment in upholding an objection on behalf of Mr Huckfield to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court to entertain criminal proceedings against him as a former member of the European
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Parliament, on the ground that the exercise of jurisdiction would result in an infringement of the sovereignty of European Parliament. The first issue for the court was, apparently, whether the court had jurisdiction to review the judge’s decision to quash the indictment.
From Leggatt LJ’s judgment it is to be seen that for the Director of Public Prosecutions Mr Barling QC was submitting that the orders and declarations made by Morland J were neither themselves an integral part of a trial nor did they affect the conduct of the trial (see [1993] 1 All ER 801 at 807). Leggatt LJ then cited part of the judgment of Watkins LJ giving the judgment of the court in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370 at 386, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1103:
‘… approaching the matter in the way Lord Bridge indicates is appropriate, we are inclined to the view that a decision on an application to stay on grounds of abuse of process does not affect the conduct of a trial on indictment, because what is being determined is whether there should ever be a trial.’ (Watkins LJ’s emphasis.)
Mr Gordon relies on a later passage in Leggatt LJ’s judgment ([1993] 1 All ER 801 at 809–810):
‘In my judgment, the 1981 Act does not have the effect of rendering immune from judicial review the very question whether the court has jurisdiction as distinct from the manner of its exercise. It would not make for the orderly conduct of the law if the determination of individual judges of the Crown Court that Community law prohibits criminal proceedings of a particular kind were immune from challenge and so from supervision. Mr Barling helpfully referred us to various passages from Sir William Wade’s work on Administrative Law (6th edn, 1988) esp at p 297 where there is a citation from Farwell LJ in R v Shoreditch Assessment Committee, ex p Morgan [1910] 2 KB 859 at 880 where he said: “No tribunal of inferior jurisdiction can by its own decision finally decide on the question of the existence or extent of such jurisdiction: such question is always subject to review by the High Court, which does not permit the inferior tribunal either to usurp a jurisdiction which it does not possess … or to refuse to exercise a jurisdiction which it has … Subjection in this respect to the High Court is a necessary and inseparable incident to all tribunals of limited jurisdiction; for the existence of the limit necessitates an authority to determine and enforce it; it is a contradiction in terms to create a tribunal with limited jurisdiction and unlimited power to determine such limit at its own will and pleasure—such a tribunal would be autocratic, not limited—and it is immaterial whether the decision of the inferior tribunal on the question of the existence or non-existence of its own jurisdiction is founded on law or fact …” It is pointed out that this was said about administrative tribunals. But in my judgment it applies equally to courts of limited jurisdiction which are otherwise amenable to judicial review. It would equally be a contradiction in terms to create a court with limited jurisdiction, and unlimited power to determine such limits at its own will and pleasure, whether the existence or otherwise of its own jurisdiction was founded on law or fact.’
Mr Gordon says that Leggatt LJ was there extending, and intending to extend, the law to say that, whenever the Crown Court has to decide a point of jurisdiction and not just the question of whether it has any jurisdiction to try the case at all, an application for judicial review in respect of it will lie to this court. I do not read Leggatt LJ as doing that. Indeed, any such extension of the law was quite
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unnecessary for the purpose of his decision and in my judgment played no part in the ratio decidendi. I should add that we have not seen Pill J’s judgment. We understand, however, that he made no mention of R v Shoreditch Assessment Committee or Sir William Wade’s work on Administrative Law. Indeed, we do not know whether he agreed with Leggatt LJ other than in the result. I do not, therefore, consider ourselves bound to accept Mr Gordon’s point because of the decision in that case.
His next point is based on s 46 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The sidenote to that reads ‘Exclusive jurisdiction of Crown Court in trial on indictment.’:
‘(1) All proceedings on indictment shall be brought before the Crown Court.
(2) The jurisdiction of the Crown Court with respect to proceedings on indictment shall include jurisdiction in proceedings on indictment for offences wherever committed, and in particular proceedings on indictment for offences within the jurisdiction of the Admiralty of England.’
The point that he is seeking to make, as I understand it, is that the right to grant legal aid is not exclusive to the Crown Court because magistrates can grant it. So indeed they can. From there he goes back to s 29(3) and submits that ‘other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment’ must mean other than its exclusive jurisdiction. Here, he says, it did not have an exclusive jurisdiction because magistrates can grant legal aid also. As we have seen, s 46 does not actually incorporate the word ‘exclusive’. That word is simply a shorthand way of saying that all proceedings on indictment shall be brought in the Crown Court.
I see not the slightest reason for reading in the word ‘exclusive’ before the word ‘jurisdiction’ in s 29(3). The subsection, in my judgment, is referring only to the jurisdiction that the Crown Court possesses, that is to say in all proceedings on indictment.
Finally, Mr Gordon submits that if this application is refused and the trial takes place with solicitors and counsel not of the applicant’s choice, and he is convicted, there can be no certainty that any appeal by him against conviction will succeed. That is true. But the point is that he would be entitled to argue that he was denied the lawyers of his choice by reason of an unlawful decision of the judge. If the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division thought that that had occasioned him an injustice or that, at least, justice did not appear to have been done, it could allow the appeal. What is important and what clearly emerges from the relevant authorities is that he will be able so to argue, and that that is the appropriate stage at which to advance the argument.
I would therefore refuse the application.
JOWITT J. I agree. Mr Gordon tells us that this is an almost novel point, and therefore I add some words of my own. The extent of the judicial review powers of the High Court in respect of the Crown Court is contained in s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. That subsection draws a distinction between those decisions of the Crown Court which are susceptible to review by the High Court and those which, because they relate to trial on indictment, are not. The practical purpose of that distinction ought not to be lost sight of in seeking to apply the subsection to the facts of a particular case. There are some matters which, though having some connection with trial on indictment, can with advantage be considered on judicial review, but others where the connection is such that they are better considered on appeal by the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division. Inevitably, as the courts seek, on a case-by-case basis, to apply the words of exception contained in the subsection, there will be cases which give rise to
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arguments both for and against the availability of each procedure, so that the resulting decision, whatever it may be, will in some cases produce a result which is less than ideal.
Mr Gordon submits that whether or not a decision relates to a trial on indictment will in some cases not be decisive as to whether or not it is susceptible to judicial review. He referred to three types of case. First, he accepts that if a decision which relates to a trial on indictment concerns a decision to exercise a jurisdiction which exists, but the preconditions for the exercise of that jurisdiction have not been made out, then the decision is not subject to review. He seeks to identify a second and third type of case where the decision relates to a trial on indictment within the meaning of those words as used in the subsection, but which are, none the less, subject to review. The second type of case is a decision which purports to exercise a jurisdiction in an area to which no jurisdiction of that kind applies at all. Such a decision is, he submits, subject to review because it is not one made in the exercise of a jurisdiction.
For myself, I can see no valid distinction between this case and the first type of case. The first kind of decision is no less made without jurisdiction than the first. A decision is made either with or without jurisdiction. Mr Gordon’s third type of case is where there is a jurisdiction which requires the judge to make a decision but he declines even to consider the exercise of that jurisdiction. Such a jurisdiction is also subject to review, he contends. It is subject to review because the decision is not one made in the exercise of a jurisdiction.
How are these submissions to be read with s 29(3)? Paragraph 4.03 of Mr Gordon’s skeleton argument suggests an answer. I read it with modifications of my own, partly to accommodate his third type of case and partly because s 29(3) has to do with decisions made in relation to the exercise of jurisdiction. I read para 4.03:
‘If there is no such jurisdiction [to make the decision complained of or if the decision is not to exercise a jurisdiction which should be exercised] then the decision … cannot, logically, fall within the class of decision properly categorised as a jurisdiction [exercised] in a matter relating to trial on indictment.’
This seems to me to require the word ‘jurisdiction’ to be given one meaning when it first appears in the subsection and a different meaning at its second appearance. At its second appearance, ‘jurisdiction’ refers to a decision which there was jurisdiction to make; so, if the decision was made without jurisdiction, outwith the judge’s power, it will not fall within the exception and will come within the words of the subsection, which do not relate to the excepted cases. I read the subsection as it appears without the exception:
‘In relation to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court … the High Court shall have all such jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari as the High Court possesses in relation to the jurisdiction of an inferior court.’
Here, though, the jurisdiction of the Crown Court must now be understood to refer to decisions purporting to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, whether in fact made with or without jurisdiction, for otherwise cases which have been removed by Mr Gordon’s submission from the ambit of the words of exception would be removed also from the ambit of judicial review, together with any other decision of the Crown Court not relating to trial on indictment, outwith its jurisdiction to make. This would make a nonsense of the subsection.
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In my judgment, the term ‘jurisdiction’ bears the same meaning on both occasions when it is referred to in the subsection in relation to the Crown Court. The High Court cannot review the jurisdiction of the Crown Court but only the exercise or lack of exercise of jurisdiction. Further, jurisdiction is exercised or not exercised through the making or the not making of a decision, and the decision or the lack of one cannot be reviewed in isolation from the consequences attending upon that decision or the lack of it.
As I read s 29(3) it refers to the exercise or purported exercise and the failure to exercise jurisdiction by the Crown Court, and it draws a distinction between those matters which relate to trial on indictment which are not susceptible to judicial review and those which do not so relate and are therefore subject to review. Whether or not jurisdiction existed in relation to the matter sought to be reviewed does not affect the jurisdiction of the High Court.
In my judgment, the decision of Judge Miller to reinstate the applicant’s legal aid certificate was one relating to a trial on indictment, whether or not he had power to make that decision. It cannot be distinguished from a decision by a Crown Court judge to grant or refuse legal aid, which was said by this court in R v Crown Court at Chichester, ex p Abodunrin and Sogbanmu (1984) 79 Cr App R 293 not to be subject to judicial review. It is accordingly unnecessary to consider whether or not the learned judge was or was not entitled to make an order reinstating the applicant’s legal aid certificate.
If Mr Gordon’s submissions were right, then it seems to me that a whole variety of decisions said to have been made by a judge in the Crown Court without jurisdiction would become subject to judicial review, and even though a defendant in the Crown Court would be likely to be refused leave because he can always seek to raise his point in the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, if convicted, that ground for refusal of leave would not apply to an application by the prosecution.
Mr Gordon has pressed upon us passages from the judgment of Leggatt LJ in R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801. It does not seem to me that Leggatt LJ had in contemplation a case of the kind which is before us or was seeking to deal with such a case. The facts of that case were wholly different. One should proceed with caution if one is to seek to isolate the decision of a court and the reasons for it from the facts to which the decision relates. Moreover, there are references in the judgment of Leggatt LJ to the decisions of this court in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 and R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, which show that the court clearly had in mind decisions to quash or not to quash an indictment which cannot be judicially reviewed, albeit in the case of a wrong decision not to quash the trial may proceed thereafter on an invalid indictment and without jurisdiction.
I also would refuse this application.
Application refused.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v Central Criminal Court and another, ex parte Director of Serious Fraud Office
[1993] 2 All ER 399
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WOOLF LJ AND PILL J
Hearing Date(s): 22, 23, 30 JULY 1992
Crown Court – Supervisory jurisdiction of High Court – Trial on indictment – High Court having no supervisory jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment – Serious fraud case transferred to Crown Court – Application to judge in Crown Court for dismissal of charges – Judge dismissing charges – Whether judge’s decision a ‘matter relating to trial on indictment’ – Whether Divisional Court having jurisdiction to quash judge’s decision to dismiss charges – Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 6 – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29(3) – Criminal Justice Act 1987, s 6.
The defendant was arrested in December 1990 on 66 charges of theft involving some £150m. On 7 February 1992 the case was transferred to the Central Criminal Court pursuant to s 4 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, on the grounds that the evidence revealed a fraud of such seriousness and complexity that the management of the case should be taken over by the Crown Court. On 27 March 1992 the defendant applied to the nominated trial judge pursuant to s 6(1)a of the 1987 Act for 46 of the charges of theft against him to be dismissed on the grounds that the evidence against him ‘would not be sufficient for a jury properly to convict him’. After hearing argument the judge dismissed the charges. The Director of the Serious Fraud Office applied for judicial review to quash that decision. The question arose whether the Divisional Court had jurisdiction to review the decision of the judge to dismiss charges against the defendant under s 6(1). The defendant contended that the judge’s decision was within the Crown Court’s ‘jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment’ and thus excluded from judicial review by s 29(3)b of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
Held – An application to a judge under s 6(1) of the 1987 Act for dismissal of transferred charges in serious fraud cases was not a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ within s 29(3) of the 1981 Act since an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act was analogous to committal proceedings by magistrates under s 6c of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, where it was established that s 29(3) of the 1981 Act did not apply and that decisions on committal proceedings were open to judicial review, and it would be anomalous to exclude judicial review of decisions on applications under s 6(1) of the 1987 Act. Furthermore, by conferring jurisdiction on the Crown Court in serious fraud cases, instead of on magistrates as in other cases, Parliament could not have intended to exclude the possibility of reviewing the relevant decision judicially because it would be unsatisfactory for there to be no method of correction of a decision on an application under s 6(1) of the 1987 Act. However, the jurisdiction to review such decisions would only be exercised in exceptional circumstances. It followed that the Divisional Court had jurisdiction to review the judge’s decision (see p 407 d to h and p 409 a b, post).
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Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 and Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609 considered.
Per Woolf LJ. Observations on the boundary between what does or does not relate to trial on indictment for the purposes of s 29(3) of the 1981 Act (see p 406 e to h, post).
Notes
For the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the Crown Court, see 10 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 710, 717, 870.
For the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 6, see 27 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 157.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 990.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1987, ss 4, 6, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1079, l082.
Cases referred to in judgments
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, [1964] 2 WLR 1145, HL.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087, DC.
R v County of London Quarter Sessions (Chairman), ex p Downes [1953] 2 All ER 750, [1954] 1 QB 1, [1953] 3 WLR 586, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Williams and Simpson [1990] Crim LR 654, DC.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v Gomez [1991] 3 All ER 394, [1991] 1 WLR 1334, CA.
R v Jones (John) (1974) 59 Cr App R 120, CA.
R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Berry [1987] 1 All ER 1244, [1988] QB 507, [1987] 3 WLR 643, DC.
Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194, HL.
Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, [1985] 2 WLR 538, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Raymond [1986] 2 All ER 379, [1986] 1 WLR 710, DC.
R v Crown Court at Leicester, ex p S (a minor) [1992] 2 All ER 659, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Brokenbrow (1991) Times, 31 October, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP (6 April 1992, unreported), DC.
Application for judicial review
The Director of the Serious Fraud Office applied, with the leave of Pill J granted on 25 June 1992, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the order of Tucker J sitting in the Central Criminal Court on 8 June 1992, whereby on an application by the defendant, Asil Nadir, under s 6 of the Criminal Justices Act 1987, he dismissed 46 charges of theft against Mr Nadir. The facts are set out in the judgment of Woolf LJ.
Robert Owen QC and Stephen Richards (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Director of the Serious Fraud Office.
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Anthony Scrivener QC and Tony Shaw (instructed by Pannone March Pearson, Manchester) for Mr Nadir.
Cur adv vult
30 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
WOOLF LJ. This case involves an application by the Director of the Serious Fraud Office in the proceedings brought by the Serious Fraud Office against Mr Asil Nadir. Mr Nadir is alleged to have stolen sums totalling at least £151m from Polly Peck International plc (PPI) between August 1987 and August 1990. Mr Nadir was then the chairman and chief executive of PPI. He was arrested on 15 December 1990, and on 7 February 1992 66 charges of theft were transferred to the Central Criminal Court pursuant to s 4 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, ‘an authority’ (here the Director) being of the opinion that the evidence was sufficient for the person charged to be committed for trial and that it revealed a case of fraud of such seriousness and complexity that the management of the case should without delay be taken over by the Crown Court.
After the case had been transferred to the Central Criminal Court Tucker J was nominated by the Lord Chief Justice as the trial judge and the judge who was to be responsible for the pre-trial management of the case. On 27 March 1992 Mr Nadir applied to Tucker J pursuant to s 6 of the 1987 Act for 46 charges of theft against him to be dismissed. Following oral argument on 18 May 1992, on 8 June 1992 Tucker J dismissed those 46 charges because of the absence of any appropriation, as defined by s 3(1) of the Theft Act 1968, from PPI. In his reserved judgment Tucker J explained his reasons for coming to this conclusion. They were based upon his view of the law, as can be identified by a short passage of his judgment which reads as follows:
‘If a defendant has authority to do a specific act, and he does X so as to enable himself to do a further and unauthorised act, Y, is act X unauthorised? If for example a defendant has authority to arrange the disposition of goods in a warehouse, and he places certain goods near the door so that his accomplices can come and steal them, is that defendant’s act an unauthorised act so as to amount to an appropriation and theft? Or is it merely a preparatory act? In my opinion it is the latter.’ (Tucker J’s emphasis.)
This conclusion of Tucker J was crucial since, while it was common ground that Mr Nadir was in the appropriate circumstances authorised to transfer funds from PPI to the foreign subsidiary to which the funds were actually transferred, the prosecution case was that the transfers in issue were not so authorised since the funds were transferred to the subsidiary not in the course of business of PPI but so that the funds in question could be transferred onwards from the subsidiary to Mr Nadir or to his private interests.
The charges having been dismissed, the Director of the Serious Fraud Office decided to apply for judicial review to quash Tucker J’s decision. On 25 June 1992 he was granted leave by Pill J and the substantive hearing took place on 22 and 23 July 1992 and, but for the recent hearing of a case in the House of Lords to which I must now refer, this court would have been in a position to give final judgment in the judicial review proceedings today which would have been within a suitably expeditious time-scale, particularly by comparison with the progress which has otherwise been made in Mr Nadir’s trial. The appeal was in R v Gomez [1991] 3 All ER 394, [1991] 1 WLR 1334. That case also involves the question of
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what constitutes appropriation for the purposes of the offence of theft and in the course of argument in that case both sides made submissions as to the correctness of the approach adopted by Tucker J. The House of Lords has not yet given judgment and both Mr Robert Owen QC on behalf of the Director and Mr Scrivener QC on behalf of Mr Nadir share the view of this court that it would be inappropriate for us to give judgments as to the correctness of Tucker J’s approach to the law without having the benefit of the speeches of the House of Lords in the Gomez cased. We are therefore not in a position to give judgment on the substantive issue today. However, in addition to the substantive issue, there is an important question to be resolved as to whether or not this court has jurisdiction to review the decision of the judge on an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act. On this issue we have had the benefit of admirably clear and concise arguments by Mr Owen and Mr Scrivener. We have also been referred to all the principal cases in which the question has been considered. It is not necessary to refer to all these authorities, but I regret it will be necessary to refer to some of them. However, before I do so, it is helpful to identify the precise role which the court is playing when it hears an application under s 6 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987.
The role of the court on an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act
Section 6 clearly sets out this role. The section provides:
‘(1) Where notice of transfer has been given, any person to whom the notice relates, at any time before he is arraigned (and whether or not an indictment has been preferred against him), may apply orally or in writing to the Crown Court sitting at the place specified by the notice of transfer as the proposed place of trial for the charge, or any of the charges, in the case to be dismissed; and the judge shall dismiss a charge (and accordingly quash a count relating to it in any indictment preferred against the applicant) if it appears to him that the evidence against the applicant would not be sufficient for a jury properly to convict him …
(3) Oral evidence may be given on such an application only with the leave of the judge or by his order, and the judge shall give leave or make an order only if it appears to him, having regard to any matters stated in the application for leave, that the interests of justice require him to do so.
(4) If the judge gives leave permitting, or makes an order requiring, a person to give oral evidence, but he does not do so, the judge may disregard any document indicating the evidence that he might have given.
(5) Dismissal of the charge, or all the charges, against the applicant shall have the same effect as a refusal by examining magistrates to commit for trial, except that no further proceedings may be brought on a dismissed charge except by means of the preferment of a voluntary bill of indictment …’
Subsection (5) emphasises the close relationship between an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act and an application under s 6 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 that an accused should not be committed for trial. However, s 6(5) of the 1987 Act provides greater protection to an accused than does s 6 of the 1980 Act, since, if an accused is not committed by the magistrates on a particular charge when an indictment is settled, the prosecution can reintroduce a count reflecting that charge in the indictment. This is not possible where a charge is dismissed under s 6 of the 1987 Act because of the words ‘no further proceedings may be brought on a dismissed charge’. The close relationship between s 6 of the 1987
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and s 6 of the 1980 Act is also emphasised by the similarity of the language of s 6(1) in each Act. In the case of magistrates, they have to ask themselves whether ‘there is sufficient evidence to put the accused on trial by jury for any indictable offence’ (see s 6(1) of the 1980 Act). Under the 1987 Act the judge has to ask himself whether it appears to him that the evidence against the applicant would be sufficient for a jury properly to convict the accused.
At one stage I also thought that there was a considerable overlap between the jurisdiction which a judge exercises on hearing a motion to quash an indictment and an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act. However, on further examination, with the assistance of counsel, there is in fact less of an overlap than I anticipated. A judge’s powers when hearing an application to quash an indictment are circumscribed. The matters which may result in objection being taken to an indictment are conveniently listed in Archbold Pleading Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (44th edn, 1992) vol 1, para 1–209. The list indicates that the majority of objections are as to procedural matters and not as to the sufficiency of the evidence. This is also emphasised by three cases to which we were referred by Mr Owen. The earliest was R v Chairman, County of London Quarter Sessions, ex p Downes [1953] 2 All ER 750, [1954] 1 QB 1. In that case a distinguished three judge Divisional Court held that a court is not entitled to quash an indictment on the ground that the evidence as disclosed in the depositions does not appear to be sufficient to justify a conviction on a count in the indictment. (Incidentally, the court also decided that it had power to grant mandamus directing the court to try an indictment where it had been wrongly quashed although it had no power to make an order of certiorari.) This approach was indorsed in the House of Lords by Lord Morris in Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401 at 409, [1964] AC 1254 at 1300, while in R v Jones (John) (1974) 59 Cr App R 120 at 126 James LJ said:
‘Upon a motion to quash a count made before arraignment the judge gives his ruling upon the form and matter on the face of the indictment. Only in one circumstance can the judge look beyond the indictment to the depositions or statements. That is when the motion to quash is on the ground that the offence is not disclosed by the depositions or statements, and there has been no committal for trial of that offence.’
In this case the application under s 6 of the 1987 Act was made after the indictment had been settled. However, this is not necessarily the case and although there has been an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act there may also be a motion to quash the indictment. The proviso to s 2(2) of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, as amended, enables a bill of indictment to include counts either in substitution for or in addition to any count charging an offence not specified in the notice of transfer so long as the count is ‘founded on material’ that accompanied the copy of the notice which was given to the person charged. If, therefore, it is alleged that a count has been added, which is not supported by the material which accompanied the notice of transfer, or if it is alleged that the indictment when settled is procedurally incorrect, there can be a motion to quash before arraignment. I draw attention to this because it also helps to make it clear that an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act has more in common with an application which is made to the magistrates’ court under s 6 of the 1980 Act than it has with a motion to quash.
Section 9 of the 1987 Act, as originally enacted, permitted the judge conducting a preparatory hearing in accordance with that section to determine an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act at the same time (see s 9(3)(a)). However, before the Act came into force s 9(3)(a) was repealed because this power was inconsistent with the requirement that an application under s 6 has to be made before an accused is
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arraigned, while the preparatory hearing under s 9 has to take place after arraignment in accordance with s 8 of the 1987 Act. It is, however, to be noted that while under s 9(11) there is appeal with leave to the Court of Appeal in respect of both the other matters which the judge is entitled to determine under s 9(3), namely ‘(b) any question as to the admissibility of evidence; and (c) any other question of law relating to the case’, this power of appeal did not apply to the determination under s 9(3)(a) of a s 6 application. As this case illustrates it is unfortunate that there is no express right of appeal in respect of a decision on a s 6 application and a s 6 application cannot be dealt with at the preparatory hearing. If it could have been so dealt with then no doubt a judge faced with the problem such as that with which Tucker J was here faced would, as part of his decision of the s 6 application, make a ruling on a question of law, which would then be a ruling which either party could appeal.
The jurisdiction of the Divisional Court
Having attempted to identify the role of the court on a s 6 application under the 1987 Act, it is now necessary to refer to the statutory provisions which restrict the powers of this court to hear applications for judicial review of decisions of the Crown Court. The problem does not arise because the present application was heard by a High Court judge: the position would be exactly the same whether the application was heard by a High Court judge, circuit judge or recorder since ‘any such persons when exercising the jurisdiction of the Crown Court shall be judges of the Crown Court’ (see s 8(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981). It is the language of s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 which creates the problem. Section 29(3) provides:
‘In relation to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment, the High Court shall have all such jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari as the High Court possesses in relation to the jurisdiction of an inferior court.’
The crucial issue is what is ‘the jurisdiction of Crown Court, other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment …' There have now been two important decisions by the House of Lords on this issue. The earlier decision was Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779, [1985] AC 622 at 642, where Lord Bridge said:
‘… the words “trial on indictment” must include the “trial” of a defendant who pleads guilty on arraignment. Beyond this it is not difficult to discern a sensible legislative purpose in excluding appeal or judicial review of any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment, whether given in the course of the trial or by way of pre-trial directions.’
Lord Bridge explained the reason for this approach by saying ([1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779, [1985] AC 622 at 642):
‘In any such case to allow an appellate or review process might … seriously delay the trial. If it is the prosecutor who is aggrieved by such a decision, it is no way surprising that he has no remedy, since prosecutors have never enjoyed rights of appeal or review when unsuccessful in trials on indictment.’
Subsequently he added ([1985] 1 All ER 769 at 780, [1985] AC 622 at 643):
‘It must not be thought that in using the phrase “any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment” I am offering a definition of a phrase which Parliament has chosen not to define. If the statutory language is, as here,
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imprecise, it may well be impossible to prescribe in the abstract a precise test to determine on which side of the line any case should fall and, therefore, [it is] necessary to proceed … on a case by case basis.’
Lord Bridge added further guidance in the other case of Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609 at 611, [1987] 1 WLR 194 at 196. He indicated that orders as to costs which the Crown Court may make at the conclusion of a trial on indictment fall within the jurisdiction of the Crown Court relating to trial on indictment. This was because the orders were ‘an integral part of the trial process’. Orders which affect the conduct of trial on indictment or are an integral part of that trial process therefore are not subject to review by this court.
Is there jurisdiction to review a decision on an application under s 6 of the 1987 Act
An application under s 6 of the 1987 Act is clearly not part of the trial since it is before arraignment. Nor is it ‘an integral part of the trial process’. It antecedes that process. However, is it a ‘decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment’? As to this some assistance is provided by the cases which have now established that this court has power judicially to review the decision of a court to grant or refuse a stay of a trial on indictment as being an abuse of the process of the court. In R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370 at 379–380, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1096 Watkins LJ, having subjected the earlier authorities to an extensive examination, explained why this was the position by saying:
‘… an application made before a trial commences for an order in effect to prohibit that trial from taking place does not affect the conduct of the trial and is not an integral part of the trial process. Of course, the application may, as it did in this case, fail, in which case the trial proceeds. Here again, however, the dismissal of the order determines merely that there shall be a trial, not how it shall take place. In that sense the dismissal of the application neither affects the conduct of the trial nor is it an integral part of it.’
In R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54 a court also presided over by Watkins LJ (in addition consisting of Farquharson LJ and Tudor Evans J) came to the same conclusion. In giving the judgment of the court Watkins LJ distinguished an application for a stay of an indictment for abuse of process from a motion to quash an indictment. Referring to Ex p Randle he said ([1992] 1 All ER 394 at 402, [1992] 1 WLR 54 at 62–63):
‘… a motion to quash is part and parcel of the trial process invariably made at the court of trial on the day fixed for the hearing while an application for a stay is designed to stop the trial taking place on grounds unrelated to the indictment and to the conduct of a trial, namely that it would be unfair for the trial to take place at all.’
At that time it was clearly considered that a motion to quash an indictment could not be subject to judicial review. However, in the recent case of R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, this court concluded that it was possible to review a decision to quash an indictment where that decision was based upon the acceptance of a contention that the Crown Court had no jurisdiction to try the defendant on the indictment. (In that case, the alleged lack of jurisdiction was based upon a suggested interference with the autonomy of the European Parliament.) In his judgment Leggatt LJ pointed out that, while the language of s 29(3) of the 1981 Act might appear to indicate the intention to
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distinguish the Crown Court’s jurisdiction on ‘trial on indictment’ from its other jurisdiction such as on appeals from magistrates’ courts, the stress laid by the House of Lords in Smalley’s case [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622 and Sampson’s case [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194 on ‘the conduct of the trial’ and ‘the trial process’ shows that weight must be given to the actual trial. He regarded this as accounting for the decisions of the Divisional Court which have held ‘that applications to stay are outwith the exception and are therefore amenable to judicial review’.
He added that this was because—
‘The court has held that such applications do not affect the conduct of a trial, and so do not relate to trial on indictment because, if granted, they would permanently prevent the trial from taking place.’ (See [1993] 1 All ER 801 at 808.)
Leggatt LJ then went on to distinguish motions to quash which relate to the framing of the indictment from other grounds for moving to quash and regarded the comments made in the judgments of Watkins LJ in Belsham’s case and Randle’s case about there being no jurisdiction in respect of motions to quash as explicable on the basis that this had been conceded by counsel in both cases and he demonstrated that when Watkins LJ’s remarks are examined they indicate that he had in mind motions to quash directed to the framing of the indictment. He therefore concluded that—
‘the 1981 Act does not have the effect of rendering immune from judicial review the very question whether the court has jurisdiction as distinct from the manner of its exercise.’ (See [1993] 1 All ER 801 at 809.)
Reference to those authorities does, in my judgment, give a fairly clear indication of how far the courts have progressed down the road, on a case-by-case basis, to identify the boundary between what does and does not relate to trial on indictment in the area with which the present case is concerned. The position can be summarised as follows. (i) Section 29(3) of the 1981 Act does not apply to anything which happens in the magistrates’ court, for example the magistrates’ decisions whether or not to commit and as to the court to which to commit. (ii) The subsection will apply to motions to quash which relate to defects in the indictment but not motions to quash based upon an absence of jurisdiction in the Crown Court to try a defendant on an indictment. (iii) It is not clear as to which side of the line a motion to quash will fall where the motion is based on an allegation that a charge has been included in the indictment which is not founded on the evidence disclosed in the depositions or, in the case of serious frauds, the notice of transfer, contrary to the proviso to s 2(2) of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933. (iv) The decision to stay a trial on indictment because it would amount to an abuse of process is amenable to judicial review but the position is still unclear as to an application to quash an indictment on the same basis, although to distinguish between the two situations would obviously be absurd.
With the help of that survey, on which side of the line do you insert the present decision? On behalf of Mr Nadir, Mr Scrivener advanced a powerful argument for saying that decisions under s 6 of the 1987 Act should not be reviewable. He rightly submits, in my judgment, that the provisions of the Act relating to serious fraud trials were intended to create and do create an entire and comprehensive statutory procedure to deal with such trials, that where a remedy or appeal is allowed to either side in such a case the Act expressly so provides. He submits that the provision in s 6(5) that the effect of the dismissal of a charge should be
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that ‘no further proceedings may be brought on a dismissed charge except by means of the preferent of a voluntary bill of indictment’ excludes judicial review. He also submits that this demonstrates that an application under s 6(1) relates to a trial on indictment since the only statutory remedy available against the decision on the application is to prefer a voluntary bill and the decision to accept the preferment bill and the preferment of a voluntary bill is not capable of being reviewed by the Divisional Court (R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p Williams and Simpson [1990] Crim LR 654). He also adds that the Crown Court was exercising, and not declining to exercise, the jurisdiction given to it by s 6(1) in this case. Furthermore, in this case, as on the majority of s 6 applications, the jurisdiction was being exercised by a High Court judge who is not normally subject to judicial review. He argues that it cannot have been intended by Parliament when creating a code which was intended to result in the more expeditious disposal of serious fraud trials that delays should be caused by applications for judicial review. The decision, he submits, is an integral part of trial on indictment which has an effect on that trial itself.
Notwithstanding these submissions, in my judgment this court does have jurisdiction to review a decision on a s 6 application. The critical test still depends on the language of s 29(3) of the 1981 Act as applied by the courts. I do not consider that the Act gives any clear indication that it is the intention of Parliament that if there were otherwise jurisdiction, this jurisdiction is to be taken away. The ability to make an application for judicial review need not unnecessarily delay the trial as this case demonstrates. However, what I regard as being the decisive factor is the close relationship between the nature of the s 6 application and the committal proceedings by magistrates. The only real distinguishing feature is the fact that the adjudicating body is the judge and will frequently be the trial judge on the s 6 application rather than the magistrates. It is to be noted that on a s 6 application the judge may have to conduct mini-committal proceedings with the assistance of oral evidence before deciding an application. In addition, I believe that it would be anomalous if it were not possible judicially to review the exceptional decision of the sort which was given in this case. For there to be no method of correction of a s 6 decision would be unsatisfactory. I would however emphasise that I do not anticipate the courts being prepared as a matter of discretion to give leave to make a s 6 application except in the exceptional case. The jurisdiction should clearly only be exercised in extremely limited circumstances. In this contention I would draw particular attention to the comments of May LJ in R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Berry [1987] 1 All ER 1244 at 1248, [1988] QB 507 at 512–513 with regard to the judicial review of a decision of the justices to commit a defendant for trial. Normally the assessment of the judge of the merits of the proceedings should be regarded as conclusive. In accord with the normal approach to judicial review it will not be part of the function of this court to second guess the judge who has heard the application. It is for these reasons that I would accept Mr Owen’s very helpful submissions and conclude that this court has jurisdiction.
PILL J. This is another case in which the court has to consider the scope of the words of exception in s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which provides:
‘In relation to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment, the High Court shall have all such jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari as the High Court possesses in relation to the jurisdiction of an inferior court.’
Woolf LJ has cited the extracts from the speeches of Lord Bridge in Smalley v
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Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779–780, [1985] AC 622 at 642–643 and Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609 at 611, [1987] 1 WLR 194 at 196 in which guidance is given as to the scope of the expression ‘matters relating to trial on indictment’ when considering the jurisdiction of the Crown Court.
That expression now falls to be considered in the context of applications to a judge under s 6 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 for dismissal of transferred charges in serious fraud cases. A person charged can make an application ‘at any time before he is arraigned (and whether or not an indictment has been preferred against him)’. The judge shall—
‘dismiss a charge (and accordingly quash a count relating to it in any indictment preferred against the applicant) if it appears to him that the evidence against the applicant would not be sufficient for a jury properly to convict him …’
To perform his duty under the section, the judge must consider whether the evidence is sufficient to support the relevant charge as defined in law. In so far as is material, it is the same function as that performed by examining justices in committal proceedings in cases other than those of serious fraud. Section 6(1) of the Magistrates’ Court Act 1980 provides:
‘Subject to the provisions of this and any other Act relating to the summary trial of indictable offences, if a magistrates’ court inquiring into an offence as examining justices is of opinion, on consideration of the evidence and of any statement of the accused, that there is sufficient evidence to put the accused on trial by jury for any indictable offence, the court shall commit him for trial; and, if it is not of that opinion, it shall, if he is in custody for no other cause than the offence under inquiry, discharge him.’
It is common ground that a decision of magistrates under s 6 of the 1980 Act is susceptible to judicial review, though that remedy is rarely sought because alternative remedies are available both to prosecution and defence. Consideration of the ‘jurisdiction of the Crown Court’ contemplated by s 29(3) does not arise because the jurisdiction is that of the magistrates. The construction of s 29(3) does however arise upon a decision under s 6 of the 1987 Act because the same jurisdiction is conferred upon the Crown Court in cases of serious fraud. If what is an integral part of the trial process is assessed in terms of its functions, it is difficult to see how the categorisation of a decision should depend upon who performs it.
Mr Scrivener QC submits that the policy of the transferred charge procedure is to give full control of proceedings to the judge subject to the possibility of preferment of a voluntary bill under s 6(5) and to an appeal under s 9(11). The magistrates’ court is a separate and subordinate court but, now that the relevant jurisdiction is conferred upon the Crown Court, it would defeat the object of the legislation if it were to be susceptible to judicial review upon a decision under s 6 of the 1987 Act. Judged on its own merits, a decision as to whether there is sufficient evidence to support a charge is, it is submitted, essentially an integral part of the trial process as contemplated by Lord Bridge (see Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779–780, [1985] AC 622 at 642–643). Now that such a decision comes within the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, it comes within the words of exception in s 29(3) of the 1981 Act. As Lord Bridge recognised in the Smalley case [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779, [1985] AC 622 at 642, the fact that a decision is made in advance of the trial is not a bar to its coming within the exception.
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I am bound to say that I have found considerable force in those submissions. However, I am persuaded that Parliament did not intend, by conferring, in serious fraud cases, a jurisdiction upon the Crown Court which in other cases is exercised by magistrates, to exclude the possibility of reviewing the relevant decision judicially. I agree with Woolf LJ’s conclusion. I also agree with Woolf LJ that the jurisdiction should be exercised only in extremely limited circumstances.
Application allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Raina Levy Barrister.
R v Toney
R v Ali (Tanveer)
[1993] 2 All ER 409
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LLOYD LJ, LATHAM AND SMITH JJ
Hearing Date(s): 30 NOVEMBER, 1 DECEMBER 1992
Criminal law – Obstructing course of justice – Witness – Interference with witness – Defendant’s brother attempting to persuade witness not to give evidence against defendant – No evidence of bribe, threat, undue pressure or other unlawful means used against witness – Whether evidence of unlawful means essential ingredient of offence.
The appellant’s brother was due to be tried on a charge of robbery. Two days before the trial the appellant called to see a potential witness in the trial with whom he had been at school. The appellant spoke to the witness and told him that his brother had not been at the scene of the robbery. The witness did not wish to discuss the case and walked away. At no stage did the appellant offer a bribe or make any threat to the witness. The witness duly gave evidence and the appellant’s brother was convicted. The appellant was subsequently charged with and convicted of doing an act tending and intended to pervert the course of justice. He appealed, contending that, since he had not used bribery, force or the threat of force, he had not used the unlawful means which were an essential ingredient of the offence.
Held – The offence of perverting the course of justice by interfering with a potential witness could be committed where there was no evidence of any bribe, threat, undue pressure or other unlawful means, since, notwithstanding the fact that in the great majority of cases the actus reus would be accompanied by such unlawful means, the use of unlawful means was not an essential ingredient of the offence. It followed that, since there was ample evidence on which the jury could find that the appellant’s intention was to pervert the course of justice by persuading the witness to change his evidence, the appeal would be dismissed (see p 412 c to e and p 413 j to p 414 b, post).
R v Kellett [1975] 3 All ER 468 explained.
Per curiam. In a case where a defendant might otherwise have a defence of lawful excuse for interfering with a witness, for example where he intended to persuade a witness he believed would give false evidence not to commit perjury, he would be guilty of an offence if he employed unlawful means, since ‘unlawful
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means’ includes a threat to do an otherwise lawful act or to exercise a legal right (see p 414 c, post).
Notes
For improperly interfering with a witness, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 315, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 350–351, 3259–3268.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bishop of Lincoln’s Case (1637) 3 State Tr 769.
R v Kellett [1975] 3 All ER 468, [1976] QB 372, [1975] 3 WLR 713, CA.
Cases also cited
R v Britton [1973] RTR 502, CA.
R v Greenberg (1919) 63 SJ 553, CCA.
R v Machin [1980] 3 All ER 151, [1980] 1 WLR 763, CA.
R v Murray (Gordon) [1982] 2 All ER 225, [1982] 1 WLR 475, CA.
R v Rowell [1978] 1 All ER 665, [1978] 1 WLR 132, CA.
R v Thomas (Derek) [1979] 1 All ER 577, [1979] QB 326, [1979] 2 WLR 144, CA.
R v Vreones [1891] 1 QB 360, CCR.
R v Williams (1990) 92 Cr App R 158, CA.
Appeal against conviction and application for leave to appeal against conviction
R v Toney
Ivan Toney appealed with the leave of the full court granted on 19 May 1992 against his conviction on 30 April 1991 in the Crown Court at Northampton before Mr Recorder W D Matthews and a jury of doing an act tending and intended to pervert the course of justice, for which he was sentenced on 16 May 1991 to perform 150 hours’ community service. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Ali (Tanveer)
Tanveer Ali applied for leave to appeal against his conviction on 15 January 1992 in the Crown Court at Durham of conspiracy to pervert the course of justice to which he had pleaded guilty on rearraignment following a rule by Judge MacMurray QC that a bribe offered in exchange for a witness’s agreement not to give evidence was, without further pressure, an improper means of interference with the witness. The application was referred by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals to the full court. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Andrew Wheeler (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Toney.
Peter Haynes (who did not appear below) (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Leicester) for the Crown in R v Toney.
Richard Lowden (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Ali.
Robert Woodcock (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Newcastle-upon Tyne) for the Crown in R v Ali.
1 December 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LLOYD LJ. We are giving judgment in these two appeals together since they both involve considerations of R v Kellett [1975] 3 All ER 468, [1976] QB 372, a case in which the Court of Appeal reviewed the scope of the common law offence of perverting the course of justice in relation to interference with witnesses.
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The appellant in the first case is Ivan Toney. He was convicted on 30 April 1991 in the Crown Court at Northampton by a majority of 10:2 of doing an act tending and intended to pervert the course of public justice. He was sentenced to perform 150 hours’ community service. He appeals against conviction by leave of the full court granted on 19 May 1992.
Particulars of the offence charged were that the appellant had attempted to persuade Ian John May to alter the evidence which he was to give in the trial of the appellant’s brother Brian Toney on a charge of robbery. The trial was due to start in the Crown Court at Northampton the following week. Although the particulars refer to an attempt to persuade Mr May to change his evidence, the offence is correctly charged as a substantive offence.
The facts were very straightforward. On 17 June 1990 at about 10.45 in the evening Mr May was at home when the appellant called and asked to see him. Mr May went outside and spoke to the appellant by the garden gate. They had been in the same class at school together. The appellant wanted to talk about the evidence which Mr May was to give at the forthcoming trial. He had been told that the prosecution case would be that Mr May had seen two people near the community centre, one with a stocking mask over his head. The appellant said that this was not so. His brother Brian was not there and ‘… the white guy didn’t have a stocking over his face’. Mr May started to walk back to the house. He felt irritated and annoyed. He did not want to discuss the case with the appellant. At that point the appellant said: ‘You’re going to court to say you didn’t see two people, one with a stocking mask over his head.' Mr May replied: ‘I did’ or ‘I am’, or words to that effect.
Mr May agreed that the appellant had not used any force nor uttered any threat. It was put to him in cross-examination that the appellant might have been mistaken as to what Mr May had said. Mr May said that that was possible. Two days later Mr May gave evidence at the trial of Brian Toney, who was duly convicted of robbery.
At the conclusion of the prosecution case against the appellant there was a submission of no case to answer. The basis of that submission was that there was no evidence of any bribe or threat or improper pressure of any kind brought to bear on Mr May. The recorder rejected that submission. He said:
‘I am satisfied that with a proper direction a jury might conclude first of all that they were entitled on the evidence to draw the inference that the defendant had the necessary intention to pervert the course of justice, and second that what he did, and perhaps more particularly what he said, did produce a situation from which injustice might have resulted. Those appear to me to be matters entirely for the jury and not for me, and I take the view that it would not be appropriate at this stage for me to substitute my view for theirs.’
In the course of his summing up the recorder directed the jury as follows:
‘What the prosecution have to prove in order to satisfy you of the defendant’s guilt is first of all that the defendant had an intention to pervert the course of justice, that he actually intended that Mr May should give evidence which differed from the evidence which Mr May would otherwise have given, and you must be satisfied that the defendant had that specific intention and a decision to bring about the offence which the prosecution say he attempted to commit, in other words an intention to pervert the course of justice. You must also be satisfied, before you can convict him, in addition, that what he actually did—and that includes what he said—had a tendency
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to that effect. What you have to be sure of is that what Mr Toney said to Mr May when he went to see him that night on 17 June produced a risk that injustice might result.’
We doubt if it is possible to improve on that very clear direction.
The single judge refused leave on the ground that the submission at the end of the prosecution case was founded on a misunderstanding of R v Kellett. The full court, however, gave leave so that the point could be argued.
The short question is whether the offence of perverting the course of justice by interfering with a potential witness can be committed where there is no evidence of any bribe, threat, undue pressure or other unlawful means. The short answer is that it can and there is nothing in R v Kellett which decides the contrary. It will of course usually be easier to prove the actus reus of the offence, that is to say an act tending to pervert the course of justice and the necessary intention or mens rea, if the means are unlawful. That no doubt explains why, in almost all the reported cases, as pointed out by the court in R v Kellett, the actus reus has been accompanied by bribery, force or the threat of force. But we do not agree that the use of unlawful means is an essential ingredient in the offence. It is not an ingredient in other ways in which the offence of perverting the course of justice can be committed, as Mr Wheeler, on behalf of the appellant, concedes, and as numerous recent decisions have made clear. Why then should interference with a witness be an exception?
Take, for example, the case of a man who comes up to a witness for the prosecution as he is entering the courtroom and says: ‘Tell the court that the defendant had nothing to do with it.' This would be evidence from which a jury could find that the man had committed the actus reus of the offence even if there was no indication of improper pressure. The gist of the offence lies in telling a potential witness what he should or should not say with the intention of influencing his evidence, not in the means adopted.
In support of his submission counsel relied on a passage in the judgment of Stephenson LJ in R v Kellett [1975] 3 All ER 468 at 482–483, [1976] QB 372 at 392 which reads as follows:
‘Counsel for the Crown, while asking us to approve both directions, [given by the trial judge] as we understood him, submitted that the Crown had to prove (1) interference with the witnesses, (2) on such a scale as to pervert the course of justice, (3) with that purpose, that is with the intention to make the witnesses do what they would not otherwise have done. We understand (1) and (3) to mean that there must be an attempt to make the witnesses do what they would not otherwise have done, with that intention, whatever the means used; but we are not sure what (2) added to the ingredients of the offence. We have already given our opinion that some means of attempting to influence witnesses are outside the limits of this particular offence. But subject to the qualification that the means must be unlawful or improper, such as force or a threat of force, a reward or the promise of a reward, we accept his general submission that an intentional interference with a witness is enough.’
The last sentence of that passage certainly seems to suggest that the use of unlawful or improper means, or some improper pressure, is an essential ingredient in the offence in every case. But for reasons which we shall mention we do not think that that can have been what the court intended.
The facts of the case were unusual. The question as defined by the trial judge, Lord Widgery CJ, was to what extent a person may threaten to do an otherwise
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lawful act in order to induce a witness not to give evidence. The otherwise lawful act in that case was the issue of a writ for defamation. It was held that the threat of issuing a writ against potential witnesses with the necessary intent was enough to render the defendant liable for perverting the course of justice. Since it was common ground in that case that the defendant had uttered threats in order to persuade potential witnesses to change their evidence, no question arose as to whether the offence could be committed without a threat. Why then did the Court of Appeal qualify Sir Peter Rawlinson’s formulation by adding the requirement of unlawful or improper means?
The answer is to be found in another feature in R v Kellett. Lord Widgery CJ had directed the jury that the truth or falsity of the intended evidence and the defendant’s belief as to the truth or falsity of the evidence was not a material issue. That led the Court of Appeal to conduct an extensive review of this field of law and to consider all the principle authorities, going back as far as 1637. Some of the textbook authorities have suggested that any intentional interference with a witness is an offence even where the object is to dissuade him by reasoned argument from committing perjury. The court rejected that extreme view. After referring to Bishop of Lincoln’s Case (1637) 3 State Tr 769 Stephenson LJ said ([1975] 3 All ER 468 at 479, [1976] QB 372 at 388):
‘With this authority in mind we would not consider that the offence of attempting to pervert the course of justice would necessarily be committed by a person who tried to persuade a false witness, or even a witness he believed to be false, to speak the truth or to refrain from giving false evidence. Secondly, with this among other authorities in mind, we think that however proper the end, the means must not be improper. Even if the intention of the meddler with a witness is to prevent perjury and injustice, he commits the offence if he meddles by unlawful means.’
These paragraphs provide the clue to what follows. The court was not dealing with a case where the end in view was improper, as where the defendant has no genuine belief in the falsity of the witness’s proposed evidence. The court was dealing with a case where the end was assumed to be proper. In such a case interference with a witness would not necessarily constitute an offence. But it would constitute an offence if the means of interference were improper. It was for this reason that the court thought it necessary to qualify counsel for the Crown’s formulation. There could be cases where interference with a witness with the intention of persuading him to change his evidence would not be an offence unless of course the defendant used unlawful means.
This becomes all the more clear when one comes to the following passage ([1975] 3 All ER 468 at 483, [1976] QB 372 at 393):
‘If our understanding of the law is correct, there was nothing in the directions of Lord Widgery CJ to the jury of which the appellant can complain. There was no error in his direction that the truth or falsity of the intended evidence, or the appellant’s belief as to whether it was true of false, was not a material issue. These would only have been material issues if the appellant has used no threat or other improper means of dissuasion. He was also correct in directing them that a threat to do an otherwise lawful act in order to induce a potential witness not to give evidence was unlawful and an attempt to pervert the course of justice.’ (Our emphasis.)
The words which we have emphasised show that in the court’s view the offence of interfering with a witness can indeed be committed where the defendant has not used any threat or other improper means of persuasion. Otherwise how could
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the defendant’s belief in the truth or falsity of the witness’ evidence ever be a material issue? The court clearly contemplated that if the end in view is shown to be improper, as where the defendant has no genuine belief in the falsity of the evidence, then the actus reus may be complete even though the defendant has used no unlawful means. The passage on which Mr Wheeler relies must be read subject to that overriding qualification.
We can now summarise the position as follows. (1) In the great majority of cases of perverting the course of justice by interfering with a witness the actus reus will be accompanied by unlawful means such as threats, bribery or improper pressure. (2) The use of unlawful means is not however an essential ingredient in the offence. The ingredients are those set out by the judge in his summing up, which we need not repeat. (3) In cases where the defendant might otherwise have a defence of lawful excuse, for example where his purpose is to persuade a false witness or a witness he believes to be false, not to commit perjury, he will nevertheless be liable if he employs unlawful means. (4) ‘Unlawful means’ in this context includes a threat to do an otherwise lawful act or to exercise a legal right. (5) In all cases the prosecution must prove the necessary intent.
It was not suggested in this case that the defendant had any genuine belief in the falsity of the evidence Mr May was to give. It follows from proposition (2) above that the learned recorder was not obliged to withdraw the case on the ground that there was here no evidence of unlawful means.
Mr Wheeler’s second ground of appeal is that there was no evidence to go to the jury that the appellant intended to pervert the course of justice. It was, he said, significant that there were no raised voices in the course of conversation. It is further suggested that the appellant’s only purpose in going to Mr May’s house was to find out the truth about what Mr May was going to say at the trial and not to persuade him to change his evidence.
The adverse indications are much stronger. The appellant comes late at night to Mr May’s house, having spent much of Sunday looking for Mr May’s address. He believes that his brother’s trial for robbery in which Mr May is the principal identifying witness is to start the following day. It further appears that he knows very little about the circumstances of the alleged offence. There was here ample evidence on which the jury could find that the appellant’s intention was to pervert the course of justice by persuading Mr May to change his evidence and that he was not just engaged as a disinterested seeker after truth.
As for the summing up, there is no substance in any of Mr Wheeler’s complaints. We would accordingly dismiss Toney’s appeal.
Coming now to the case of Ali, he pleaded guilty on 15 January 1992 in the Crown Court at Durham to a charge of conspiracy to pervert the course of justice after a ruling by Judge MacMurray QC at the close of the prosecution case. His application for leave to appeal against conviction has been referred to us by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals.
On 14 August 1990 the applicant was charged with assaulting Gary Lines in Brandon, County Durham. Thereafter there were negotiations between the parties conducted by David Gibbons on behalf of the applicant and Wayne Robinson on behalf of Lines. The particulars charged are as follows:
‘Gary Paul Lines, Wayne Robinson, Tanveer Ali and David Gibbons on a day between the 7th day of October 1990 and the 9th day of October 1990 with intent to pervert the course of public justice did a series of acts which had a tendency to pervert the course of public justice in that they conducted negotiations for Gary Paul Lines to withdraw his complaint of assault in
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return for a sum of money, so that the charge of assault pending against Tanveer Ali would be withdrawn at Durham Magistrates’ Court.’
Lines and Robinson pleaded guilty to the charge. The case against Gibbons was dropped. Gibbons then became the principal witness at the applicant’s trial. Lines also gave evidence for the prosecution.
The facts were that on 8 October 1990 the applicant approached David Gibbons with a view to Gibbons acting as an intermediary between himself and Lines. He told Gibbons to ask Lines if he would drop the charges. When the proposition was put to Lines he said that if the applicant bought him a certain car down the road he would drop the charges. The car was worth about £50 or £100. The applicant was agreeable. He drove Lines and Gibbons to a firm of solicitors and thereafter to the police with a view to trying to get the assault charges dropped.
Later the same day Lines spoke to Robinson, his brother-in-law. Robinson told Lines that he had not asked enough. He could have got a better deal. Robinson mentioned a figure of £2,000 or £2,500 for dropping the charges. The applicant said that he could not afford that much.
Mr Lowden submitted that in the absence of pressure over and above any bribery there was no case to go to the jury. He relied on a passage in R v Kellett [1975] 3 All ER 468 at 479, [1976] QB 372 at 388 as follows:
‘Threats and bribery are the means used by offenders in the cases, and any pressure by those means—or by force as for example by actually assaulting or detaining a witness—would, in our opinion, be an attempt to pervert the course of justice by unlawfully or wrongfully interfering with a witness.’
The following exchange then took place between the learned judge and Mr Lowden:
‘Mr Lowden. I read those words as drawing a necessary distinction between bribery and pressure by bribery.
Judge MacMurray. Well, Mr Lowden, I may be wrong, but I do not read it that way. It seems to me that they are saying quite clearly that if there is bribery or threats then the offence is committed. If there is other pressure which does not amount to bribery or threats, then it is a matter for the jury as to whether it amounts to the offence. Mr Lowden. Well if that is the way that your Honour is minded to direct the jury then, as I think I intimated earlier, the only matter then to be considered is whether there is a triable issue for the jury as to whether to accept an offer made by the other party to enter into a negotiation for money or monies worth—where the offer of consideration comes from Lines—provides a defence to that charge or not?
Judge MacMurray. Bearing in mind that the initiator of these negotiations was the intermediary of your client who went to Lines’s door asking him to drop the charges … Mr Lowden. Yes.
Judge MacMurray. I would not have thought that it would. It was a two-way transaction, so to speak. Mr Lowden. Yes. Well in that case do I take it then that as the evidence stands your Honour would direct the jury that there is no defence shown here and that they would be bound to convict?
Judge MacMurray. Well I do not think I could ever do that, Mr Lowden, because the Court of Appeal have said really that you must not, but I think I am bound to direct them in the terms that I have indicated.’
Thereafter the applicant changed his plea to guilty. The judge did not give a formal ruling after the discussion. But in the grounds of appeal the ruling is formulated as follows:
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‘That any offer by a defendant of money or money’s worth made to a witness in exchange for his agreeing not to give evidence in forthcoming proceedings against that defendant is, without further pressure, necessarily an improper means of interference with that witness, and so constitutes an act tending to pervert the course of public justice, even if the evidence to be given by the witness is or may be false.’
Mr Lowden submits that that ruling is erroneous and that the judge ought to have said that she would leave it to the jury to decide whether there was in fact any pressure on Lines to withdraw the charge notwithstanding the offer of a bribe.
We can find nothing in R v Kellett to support Mr Lowden’s distinction between bribery and pressure by bribery. There may of course be cases of pressure falling short of bribery. But we cannot envisage any form of bribery which does not amount to pressure. Accordingly we can see no error in the judge’s ruling. If bribery was established on the facts, then that would in law amount to unlawful means.
There was some discussion at the hearing before use, at our instigation, whether what was offered could be regarded as the payment of reasonable compensation for the injury suffered by Mr Lines so as to bring the case within the exception set out in s 5(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1967. But the point was not raised below and is not the subject of any ground of appeal; nor did it prove possible to investigate the point at any length before us. So we say no more about it.
There is no substance here in the only point urged on behalf of the applicant. We would grant leave but dismiss the appeal.
Appeal in R v Toney dismissed. Leave to appeal in R v Ali (Tanveer) granted; appeal dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Smith (Inspector of Taxes) v Abbott and related appeals
[1993] 2 All ER 417
Categories: TAXATION; Income Tax, Emoluments from office or employment
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): RALPH GIBSON, MANN AND NOLAN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 1, 2, 15 MARCH 1993
Income tax – Emoluments from office or employment – Expenses wholly, exclusively and necessarily incurred – Newspaper allowance – Journalists receiving newspaper allowance as reimbursement towards expenses incurred in purchasing newspapers and periodicals – Whether reading of other newspapers and periodicals to be regarded as means of maintaining general qualifications and fitness of journalists to carry out employment or as part of daily performance of journalists’ duties – Whether expenses wholly, exclusively and necessarily incurred in performance of journalists’ duties – Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970, s 189(1).
The taxpayers were five journalists who were employed on national daily or Sunday newspapers as, respectively, a news layout journalist, a staff photographer, a sports reporter, an assistant chief sub-editor and a picture editor. The taxpayers all received a newspaper allowance as reimbursement towards expenses incurred by them in purchasing newspapers and periodicals. On appeal to the General Commissioners against assessments to income tax under Sch E for the years 1980–81 to 1985–86 the taxpayers claimed that the newspaper allowance was deductible under s 189(1)a of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 on the grounds that it was a condition of their employment that they purchase and read newspapers and periodicals and that it was an integral part of their duties to do so. In the case of four of the taxpayers, KH, BS, TS and GW, the commissioners accepted evidence that reading newspapers and periodicals was a necessary part of the duties of their employment and was not used merely to qualify them or maintain their qualifications to do their duties, but in the case of the other taxpayer, PA, the commissioners made reference to no such evidence. In each case, however, the commissioners found as a fact that it was necessary for the taxpayer to read the newspapers and periodicals because he had to be ‘equipped’ with news and ideas as soon as he began work and that newspaper reading outside office hours was regarded by the employer as an essential part of the taxpayers’ duties. The commissioners accordingly allowed all five appeals, holding that the expenditure in question had been incurred wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of the taxpayers’ duties and that the allowance was therefore deductible under s 189. The Crown appealed to the High Court, contending, inter alia, that the true and only reasonable conclusion from the primary facts found by the commissioners was that the taxpayers had purchased and read the periodicals and newspapers not ‘in the performance of their duties’ but in preparing or equipping themselves to perform them. The judge dismissed the Crown’s appeal in the cases of KH, BS, TS and GW on the ground that the evidence accepted by the commissioners was fairly capable of leading to their decision that the expenditure had been incurred wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of the taxpayers’ duties. In PA’s case, however, the judge allowed the appeal on the basis that, as there was no evidence that his reading of newspapers and periodicals was a necessary part of the performance of the duties
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of his employment, the commissioners’ decision was not justified in his case. The Crown appealed in the cases of KH, BS, TS and GW, and PA cross-appealed.
Held – In considering what the duties of an employment comprised for the purposes of s 189(1) of the 1970 Act the things which the employee had to do as a practical matter in performing the work of that particular employment had to be identified. Adopting that approach in the circumstances before the court, the question the commissioners ought to have asked themselves was whether the reading of other newspapers and periodicals was to be regarded as a means of maintaining the general qualifications and fitness of the taxpayers to carry out the employment which they held or whether it formed part of the daily performance of the duties of that employment. That was not merely a question of fact but was essentially a matter of practical experience and judgment. The true and only reasonable conclusion that could be reached from the primary facts found by the commissioners did not contradict their determination that the taxpayers had read the publications in the performance of their duties, namely the production of the next edition of newspaper on which they were working, and not in preparing or equipping themselves to perform those duties. Furthermore, on the facts found by the commissioners, their conclusion that the expenditure on newspapers and periodicals had been incurred by the taxpayers wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of their duties was fully justified and incontrovertible. The expenditure was therefore deductible under s 189(1) from the emoluments to be assessed. The Crown’s appeals would therefore be dismissed and, since the omission from the commissioners’ decision in PA’s case of any reference to evidence that reading newspapers and periodicals was a necessary part of the duties of his employment and was not used merely to qualify him or maintain his qualifications to do his duties was immaterial and did not contradict their decision in his case, PA’s cross-appeal would be allowed (see p 427 b to e, p 428 b c, p 429 e to j, p 431 c j and p 432 a b, post).
Dictum of Lord Radcliffe in Edwards (Inspector of Taxes) v Bairstow [1955] 3 All ER 48 at 57 and Humbles (Inspector of Taxes) v Brooks (1962) 40 TC 500 applied.
Notes
For relief for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of the duties of an office or employment, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 677, and for cases on the subject, see 28(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 13–25, 2455–2510.
In relation to tax for the year 1988–89 and subsequent years of assessment s 189 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 was replaced by s 198 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988. For s 198 of the 1988 Act, see 44 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 247.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bentleys Stokes & Lowless v Beeson (Inspector of Taxes) [1952] 2 All ER 82, CA.
Brown v Bullock (Inspector of Taxes) [1961] 3 All ER 129, [1961] 1 WLR 1095, CA.
Edwards (Inspector of Taxes) v Bairstow [1955] 3 All ER 48, [1956] AC 14, [1955] 3 WLR 410, HL.
Fitzpatrick v IRC (No 2) [1992] STC 406, Ct of Sess.
Humbles (Inspector of Taxes) v Brooks (1962) 40 TC 500.
Owen v Pook (Inspector of Taxes) [1969] 2 All ER 1, [1970] AC 244, [1969] 2 WLR 775, HL.
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Ricketts v Colquhoun (Inspector of Taxes) [1926] AC 1, HL.
Simpson (Inspector of Taxes) v Tate [1925] 2 KB 214, 9 TC 314.
Cases also cited
Elwood (Inspector of Taxes) v Utitz (1965) 42 TC 482, NI CA.
Kirkby v Hughes (Inspector of Taxes) [1993] STC 76.
Lomax (Inspector of Taxes) v Newton [1953] 2 All ER 801, [1953] 1 WLR 1123.
Nolder (Inspector of Taxes) v Walters (1930) 15 TC 380.
Taylor v Provan (Inspector of Taxes) [1974] 1 All ER 1201, [1975] AC 194, HL.
Wimpy International Ltd v Warland (Inspector of Taxes) [1989] STC 273, CA.
Appeal
The Crown appealed from the order of Warner J ([1991] STC 661, [1992] 1 WLR 201) dated 18 October 1991 whereby he dismissed appeals by the Crown by way of cases stated (set out at [1991] STC 666–673) by the Commissioners for the General Purposes of the Income Tax in respect of their determination that expenditure incurred by Kevin Peter Holt, Brian Souter Scovell, Terence Reginald Shuttleworth and Gary Woodhouse in purchasing newspapers and periodicals had been incurred wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of their duties within s 189(1) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970. Patrick John Abbott appealed from the order of Warner J ([1991] STC 661, [1992] 1 WLR 201) dated 18 October 1991 whereby he allowed an appeal by the Crown by way of a case stated (set out at [1991] STC 662–666) by the Commissioners for the General Purposes of the Income Tax in respect of their determination that expenditure incurred by Mr Abbott in purchasing newspapers and periodicals had been incurred wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of his duties within s 189(1) of the 1970 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of Nolan LJ.
Alan Moses QC and Nicholas Warren (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue) for the Crown.
Peter Whiteman QC and Marion Simmons (instructed by Berwin Leighton) for the respondent taxpayers.
Cur adv vult
15 March 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
NOLAN LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Ralph Gibson LJ). The taxpayers involved in these appeals are journalists employed by Associated Newspapers Ltd. Four of them work for the Daily Mail. They are: Mr P J Abbott, a news layout journalist; Mr K P Holt, a staff photographer; Mr B S Scovell, a sports reporter specialising in cricket and football; and Mr T R Shuttleworth, who was at first a news sub-editor and subsequently an assistant chief sub-editor. The fifth is Mr Gary Woodhouse, who is the picture editor of the Mail on Sunday.
In each of the years of assessment under appeal each of them received from Associated Newspapers Ltd an allowance in reimbursement of the cost of newspapers and periodicals which he bought. It is common ground between the parties in each case (i) that the amount of the allowance was correctly included in the taxpayer’s assessment under Sch E as an assessable emolument and (ii) that he had spent on newspapers and periodicals an amount at least equal to the amount
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of the allowance. The issue in each case was whether the amount thus spent by the taxpayer and reimbursed by Associated Newspapers Ltd was deductible in computing his taxable emoluments under s 189(1) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970.
The five taxpayers appealed to the General Commissioners for the City of London against the refusal of the Revenue, in the person of Mr R W Smith, inspector of taxes, to allow the deduction of these expenses. Their appeals were heard together on five days in June 1989, during which all of them gave evidence, as did Mr G P Burden, the deputy managing director of the Daily Mail. On 1 December 1989 the commissioners gave their decision, which was in favour of the taxpayer in all five cases.
On 18 October 1991 Warner J allowed the appeal of the Crown against that decision in the case of Mr Abbott, but dismissed it in the four other cases (see [1991] STC 661, [1992] 1 WLR 201).
Section 189(1) of the 1970 Act re-enacted a provision which was first introduced, in substantially the same terms, by s 51 of the Income Tax Act 1853. It has itself now been re-enacted by s 198(1) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988. It reads as follows:
‘If the holder of an office or employment is necessarily obliged to incur and defray out of the emoluments thereof the expenses of travelling in the performance of the duties of the office or employment, or of keeping and maintaining a horse to enable him to perform the same, or otherwise to expend money wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of the said duties, there may be deducted from the emoluments to be assessed the expenses so necessarily incurred and defrayed.’
In his judgment Warner J described the general meaning and effect of the provision in terms which have been accepted and adopted by counsel on both sides as the basis for their arguments, and which I, too, gratefully adopt. He said ([1991] STC 661 at 674, [1992] 1 WLR 201 at 204):
‘It is notorious that that provision is rigid, narrow and to some extent unfair in its operation. In order to satisfy its requirements, an office-holder or employee has to show four things. First, he has to show that he has incurred the expenses in question “in the performance of the duties of the office or employment” … Second, an office-holder or employee has to show that the expenses he seeks to deduct are expenses that he has been “necessarily obliged” to incur and defray in the performance of the duties of the office or employment. Third, he has to show that those expenses have been “wholly” so incurred. The better view seems to be that that goes only to quantum. Last, he has to show that they have been “exclusively” so incurred.’
Each of the five cases stated by the General Commissioners had annexed to it a copy of the relevant decision given by the commissioners on 1 December 1989. The five cases stated and decisions followed the same pattern and much of the wording is common to them all. The findings and conclusions of the commissioners are expressed in paras 7 and 8 of each decision. That is where the commissioners deal with the duties of the individual concerned, and with the reasons why he bought the newspapers and periodicals in question. The duties differ fairly widely, as one would expect, but for the narrow purposes of the present appeal they can be considered together because the common features which they share, and on which the claim for a deduction is based, are substantially the same. It was argued on both sides that all five cases stand or fall together,
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though the Crown would naturally wish to preserve the decision of Warner J on the case of Mr Abbott if it fails on the other four. Accordingly, leaving Mr Abbott aside for the moment, I think it will be sufficient if I quote fully from the findings of the commissioners in relation to one of the other four taxpayers. I take, by way of example, the case of Mr Woodhouse, the first named respondent to the Crown’s appeal. Paragraphs 7 and 8 of the decision in his case read as follows ([1991] STC 661 at 672–673):
‘7. We find the following facts:—(a) [Mr Woodhouse] during the years of assessment was the Picture Editor of the Mail on Sunday. His duties involved attendance at the Mail on Sunday offices from Tuesday to Saturday (inclusive), his day being from 9.15 a.m. to approximately 7.0 p.m. at the beginning of the week and to 10.0–11.0 p.m. at the end. (b) He was directly responsible to the Editor for obtaining illustrations for every page in the newspapers and any supplements. The newspaper currently had sixty-four pages and the supplements forty-eight pages. He had an Assistant Picture Editor, a Sports Picture Editor and a secretary assistant immediately under him. He had to generate ideas for illustrations and arrange for obtaining them from in-house and freelance photographers or from other sources. He participated in an early conference on Tuesdays with other editors when the overall look of the paper and its contents were considered, usually starting on the features page. There were seven conferences with the Editor and specialist Editors of sections of the paper during the week. At each of these, [Mr Woodhouse] was expected to produce a written paper listing his ideas for copy to be discussed. He was expected to suggest to the Editors ways in which particular items of news and articles could be illustrated. He was primarily there to put up visual ideas to enhance the look of the paper. He also had mini-conferences with his subordinates who were expected to provide their own ideas which he, in turn, could discuss with the other Editors concerned. These were usually held before the daily editorial conference (usually held at about 11.0 a.m.) although on Tuesdays they were held afterwards. Once ideas were approved, [Mr Woodhouse] decided who would do the job and delegated the organisation of the work. (c) To obtain the necessary ideas, [Mr Woodhouse] always spoke to editors, journalists and specialists in the building because they read publications which he did not read. He always read other publications and to this end he purchased all the daily and Sunday newspapers, the Evening Standard and Evening News. The dailies were delivered to his home by the local newsagent, the Sunday papers he purchased himself from that newsagent. He purchased in London each day two or three editions of the evening newspapers. He also purchased each publication of the British Journal of Photography, SLR, Amateur Photographer, Paris Match, Stern, Creative Camera, Epoca, Punch, Time, Sussex Courier, Life, Express & Star Illustrated London News, Tatler, Country Life, Bunte, Cosmopolitan and Melbourne Newsweek. (d) [Mr Woodhouse] gave us many examples of the profitable use to which he put the reading of these newspapers and periodicals for the purpose of obtaining ideas for pictures and, in some cases, to obtain copies of the pictures shown therein. We accept the evidence of Mr Burden and [Mr Woodhouse] that the reading of this material was inherent in the process of finding ideas for the illustrations which it was his duty to obtain and was not merely required to qualify, or maintain the qualifications of, [Mr Woodhouse] to do the work. (e) He read the newspapers delivered to his house on his railway journey to the office, lasting usually from 8.30 a.m.
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to 9.15 a.m., on a selective basis and continued this at the office for the first three-quarters of an hour. There was no time afterwards for reading newspapers or periodicals in the office. He also spent time scanning and buying from the railway station bookstall periodicals that would be useful for finding illustrations or ideas for them. He would buy others on the way home and would read them on the homeward journey and at home in the evenings. He spent 3–4 hours on Sunday morning reading the Sunday newspapers. On holidays he read every newspaper and periodical he could buy, since even then he was on call, and if a story broke where he was, he was expected to file copy. (f) It was necessary for him to do this reading and provide his own reading material because—(a) he had to be equipped with ideas as soon as he started consultations with specialist editors and the Editor of the Mail on Sunday; (b) his duties in the office except for the first three quarters of an hour gave him no time for such reading; (c) the cuttings library available to employees of the Mail on Sunday was not equipped to provide the necessary reading facilities; (d) newspaper reading outside office hours was regarded by his employer and by [Mr Woodhouse] as an essential part of his duties.
8. (a) We conclude that the reading of the newspapers and periodicals outside the offices of the Mail on Sunday was in the performance of the duties of the employment notwithstanding that this was done at home and on the train outside the hours of attendance at the offices of the Mail on Sunday, and the money expended on them was in each case expended wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of [Mr Woodhouse’s] duties. (b) We find also that [Mr Woodhouse] spent not less than the sums referred to in paragraph 2 above on newspapers and periodicals, that he purchased them with the sole object of reading the relative material in the performance of the duties of his employment and that there was no private purpose in the purchase. (c) We hold that the sums expended on newspapers and periodicals by [Mr Woodhouse] as indicated in paragraph 2 above were sums expended wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of the duties of his employment and are therefore expenses admissible as deductions from his emoluments within Section 189(1) Income & Corporation Taxes Act, 1970.’
The primary attack launched against this conclusion by Mr Moses QC, on behalf of the Crown, is to the effect that the expenditure in question has not been shown to have been laid out ‘in the performance of the duties’ of the employment, and thus fails to satisfy the first of the requirements set out by Warner J. Mr Moses acknowledges that the conclusion of the commissioners is one of fact. He asks us to overturn it on the basis that, in Lord Radcliffe’s familiar words, ‘the true and only reasonable conclusion contradicts the determination’ of the commissioners (see Edwards (Inspector of Taxes) v Bairstow [1955] 3 All ER 48 at 57, [1956] AC 14 at 36).
More specifically, Mr Moses submits that the true and only reasonable conclusion from the primary facts found by the commissioners is that Mr Woodhouse purchased and read the publications in question, not in the performance of his duties, but in preparing or equipping himself to perform them. Mr Moses referred us to decided cases which exemplified the difference between preparing and performing. One of these was Simpson (Inspector of Taxes) v Tate [1925] 2 KB 214, 9 TC 314, in which a county medical officer failed in his claim to deduct the costs of belonging to a number of professional bodies. His case was that, in order to carry out his duties efficiently, he had to be aware of all
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recent advances in sanitary science, and had to keep himself up to date on all medical questions affecting public health; without belonging to the bodies in question it would be difficult if not impossible for him to do so. Dismissing his appeal, Rowlatt J distinguished between the cost of qualifying for an office and the cost of performing the duties which it entailed. He said (9 TC 314 at 318, cf [1925] 2 KB 214 at 219):
‘This gentleman of course qualified in one sense before he got this appointment, but he is continually keeping himself qualified very properly and rightly by keeping himself abreast of all the highest developments and knowledge of the day. But when one looks at it closely one sees that that is not in the performance of duties. He does not belong to societies in order that he may get the journals and read them to the patients. It is absurd to suggest anything of that sort, but, if he did, that would be quite different. He is qualifying himself in order that he may continue to hold this office just as he did qualify himself, before he got the office, to enable him to perform it.’
In Brown v Bullock (Inspector of Taxes) [1961] 3 All ER 129, [1961] 1 WLR 1095 the taxpayer was a bank manager who was instructed by his employers ‘that he must foster local contacts and that he should join the club or clubs best suited for that purpose’ ([1961] 3 All ER 129 at 130, [1961] 1 WLR 1095 at 1098). He failed in his claim to deduct his club subscriptions. In this court Lord Evershed MR said ([1961] 3 All ER 129 at 132,[1961] 1 WLR 1095 at 1101):
‘The phrase which is used in the Case, to “foster local contacts”, is a vague phrase, not capable of precise significance. No doubt it is like many such phrases, a useful formula so long as it has not to be further expounded. The natural intention on the part of the taxpayer’s superior officers was no doubt that, if he belonged to clubs of this standing in this part of London, it gave him a certain status. It would be obvious that, if he was a member of these clubs, he was the sort of man who would be acceptable in that sort of social circle, and that no doubt would be useful to him and to the bank, because he would thereby meet people who, as a result of meeting him and liking him, might tend to have business relations with him or with the bank … But it seems to me that to the short question, “When he pays his subscription, is the sum paid necessarily incurred in the performance of his duties as a bank manager?” the answer is, “No”. What his employers may think is desirable for him to do, socially, is one thing. Performance of the duties of manager of their branch is something else.’
Mr Moses acknowledged that a distinction must be drawn between the acquisition of qualifications or status or knowledge as a general preparation for carrying out the duties of an employment, and what he described as preparation for a particular assignment, which might well fall to be carried out in the actual performance of the employee’s duties. That is the crucial distinction in the present case. It is helpfully illustrated by the decision of Ungoed-Thomas J in Humbles (Inspector of Taxes) v Brooks (1962) 40 TC 500. That was the case of a headmaster who was required to teach various subjects, including history. He attended a series of weekend lectures in history at a college for adult education for the purpose of improving his background knowledge of the subject. He failed in his claim to deduct the cost of attending the lectures. The judge said (at 503–504):
‘[Counsel for the Crown] contended that he was not employed to prepare
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lectures but to deliver them. This, to my mind, is an unreal distinction for present purposes. I cannot recognise that a person who is employed to deliver lectures or to teach is not, when preparing the lectures or the talks which he gives, doing what he is employed to do—that he is not acting in the course of the performance of his duties. Preparing lectures is, to my mind, a necessary part of his duties. That leaves the question, was the Respondent in this case, when listening to the lecture at the adult college, preparing his own lecture … First, he attended a course to improve his background knowledge of the subject which he had studied to G.C.E. “O” level only; second, he gleaned useful information from the lectures at the college; third, he felt the course was essential to keep himself up to date; and, fourth, to provide him with material which he reproduced in the history lessons. There is, in my view, a distinction between qualifying to teach and getting background material—and even getting information and material which he reproduced in his own lecture—on the one hand, and preparing his own lecture for delivery on the other hand. The statement, in the passages in the Case Stated, that the lectures at the college provided the Respondent with material which he reproduced gets nearest to the performance of his duties within the Section, but even if this element could be treated in isolation, it goes no further than providing material—just as any background information would provide material—and is not, of itself, part of the preparation of his own lecture. It is, to my mind, qualifying for lecturing, or putting himself in a position to prepare a lecture. It is not the preparation of a lecture. In this sense, the distinction is between preparation for lecturing on the one hand and the preparation of a lecture on the other hand. In my judgment, the Respondent, when he was attending a course and listening to a lecture, was not preparing his own lecture, and he was therefore not acting in the performance of his duties within the meaning of Paragraph 7 of the Ninth Schedule [to the Income Tax Act 1952].’
Another helpful illustration of the crucial distinction was given by Warner J in the present case. In his judgement, after referring to the cases which I have cited and other authorities for the proposition that expenditure incurred by the holder of an office or employment in qualifying himself, or keeping himself qualified to hold it, is not incurred in the performance of the duties in the statutory sense, he continued ([1991] STC 661 at 682, [1992] 1 WLR 201 at 212–213):
‘On the other hand, it is not in my judgment the law that no reading that is preparatory to the performance of duties of an office or employment can ever itself be part of the performance of the duties of that office or employment. There are manifestly cases where preparatory reading is part of the duties of an office or employment. An example that springs to my mind is that of an employed solicitor reading in preparation for giving advice to a client the papers in that client’s case and the statutory provisions or other authorities relevant to it. That reading is just as much in the performance of the duties of his employment as is the giving of the advice itself.’
Mr Moses fully accepted this proposition. In reply to Mann LJ in the course of argument he equally accepted that a judge may fairly be described as performing the duties of his office when he studies the case papers and skeleton arguments in the case which he is about to hear. He submitted that, by way of contrast, the duties of Mr Woodhouse as described in the stated case could not be regarded as including his preparatory reading. The duties, he said, were those set out in
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para 7(b) of the decision (at 672). Mr Woodhouse performed his duties by generating ideas and carrying them into effect. The preliminary reading described in the following sub-paragraphs of para 7 merely provided him with general background information. In the terms of sub-para (f) (at 673) it ensured that he was ‘equipped’ with the knowledge which he needed to perform his tasks.
The submissions of Mr Moses in relation to the other four taxpayers followed the same course. In the case of Mr Shuttleworth, the relevant findings were that as news sub-editor for particular pages of the newspaper he had to select and check the news reports, rewriting them as necessary, determine the headlines and page layout, choose pictures, select the type and consider whether any legal problems arose. As assistant chief sub-editor he was in charge of a number of sub-editors and had to check and correct as necessary their work as already described. Properly to carry out his duties, it was found, he needed to have an up-to-date knowledge of all aspects of the news. In order to select copy for the next edition of the Daily Mail, he had to know what other newspapers were doing about a particular news item, what stage various issues in the story had reached, judge every story in relation to everything else going on, not repeat stories appearing in other newspapers the previous day and take the story forward (where there was a continuing event) from what had appeared in the previous day’s newspapers, as well as in the Daily Mail. It was to this end that he purchased the other newspapers and periodicals in question.
In the case of Mr Scovell the corresponding findings are that he reported football and cricket matches but most of his time was spent writing about events in the sports world rather than reporting what was happening in (sic) the field (at 668). He developed and explored the information which he acquired from reading other newspapers and followed up ideas obtained from them to provide stories to report for the Daily Mail. He reported to the sports editor at 10.00 am on an average morning and was expected to know what had been going on as reported in other newspapers.
Mr Holt, the staff photographer, worked at and from home as well as from the office, and was on call effectively for 24 hours a day. Paragraph 7(b) of the decision in his case states (at 666–667):
‘The duties of the employment were to provide ideas for photographs as well as taking them. He would telephone or be telephoned to discuss ideas gleaned from reading the newspapers and accept the assignment he was to pursue. He would go and do the work, return to the office to develop the film, print it and give the pictures to the Picture Editor. There was no set time for going home.’
Paragraph 7(c) adds:
‘[Mr Holt] needed to read newspapers to obtain ideas for stories and photographs and to check that any idea that he had was not already dealt with by another newspaper, whether local or national … Furthermore, he needed to know the latest news so that he was always ready for discussion of matters raised by the Picture Editor.’
It was with these objects in view, said the commissioners, that he purchased the other newspapers and periodicals.
Finally, in the case of Mr Abbott, the news layout journalist, the corresponding passages read as follows (at 665):
‘7 … (b) His duties were to create a page or series of pages with news
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stories and pictures relative to one another and to the advertisements in such a way as to be attractive and make people want to read it. He organised illustrations with types, graphs or drawings. He had to work out measures for headlines for sub-editors to write, the lengths of stories and the sizes of pictures. The creation and preparation of page layouts were designed for the use of sub-editors in order to get the stories sorted out. Everything for a particular page had to be carefully measured for the space available and [Mr Abbott] was directly responsible to the Night Editor or his Deputy and was responsible for the last production stage before the page was published. (c) [Mr Abbott] needed to read newspapers and periodicals in order to keep himself informed of current news and how other papers were dealings [sic] with it so that he would know what pictures to place in relation to a story. He had to have this information so that when he went to the office he did not have to be primed. As a result when he was given a series of pictures, he would know from his reading which were appropriate to a given story. The relative information had to be known by him before he started work in the office. The pictures had to suit the stories and it was no use printing pictures which had already appeared in other newspapers. With these objects in view he purchased all the daily and Sunday newspapers. In addition, he purchased the New Statesman, Newsweek, Time, Campaign, UK Press Gazette, Kent Messenger, T.V. Times and Radio Times.’
All five of the cases contained, mutatis mutandis, the findings which are set out in para 7(f) of the decision in the case of Mr Woodhouse (at 673). The first part of those findings in the case of Mr Shuttleworth appears at para 7(e) of the decision and states (at 671):
‘… It was necessary for him to do this work outside the office because—(i) he had to be equipped with the news before he started operations in the Daily Mail offices …’
Paragraph 7(f) of the decision in Mr Scovell’s case states (at 669):
‘It was necessary for him to do this work outside the office because—(i) he had to be equipped with the news as soon as he started consultations with the Sports Editor …’
The corresponding wording in para 7(f) of the decision in the case of Mr Holt is (at 667):
‘It was necessary for him to do this reading and provide his own reading material otherwise than when he was in the office or on an assignment because—(i) he had to be equipped with the news and ideas as soon as he started discussions for assignments or the assignments themselves …’
Finally, in the case of Mr Abbott para 7(e) of the decision reads (at 665):
‘It was necessary for him to do this reading and provide his own reading material otherwise than when he was performing his office duties because:—(i) he had to be already equipped with the news and ideas as soon as he started his layout and checking work in the office; one, two or even three pages would be waiting for him on his arrival at the office …’
In each of the five cases the relevant sub-paragraph concludes with the finding that—
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‘newspaper reading outside office hours was regarded by his employer and by the taxpayer as an essential part of his duties.’
In each case Mr Moses directed our attention to the use of the word ‘equipped’ in the first part of the sub-paragraph, and Mr Whiteman QC for the taxpayers directed our attention to the concluding words of the sub-paragraph.
Paragraph 8 of the decision in each of the other four cases is couched in virtually identical terms to those of para 8 of the decision in Mr Woodhouse’s case (at 673).
When asked to say what approach commissioners should adopt in considering what the duties of an employment comprised for the purposes of s 189(1), Mr Moses submitted that they should identify the things which the employee has to do as a practical matter in performing the work of that particular employment. Mr Whiteman supported that submission, and I would for my part accept it as a correct statement of the law. Adopting this approach to the circumstances of the present case, the question the commissioners had to ask themselves was whether the reading of other newspapers and periodicals should be regarded as a means of maintaining the general qualifications and fitness of the taxpayers to carry out the employments which they held or whether it formed part of the daily performance of the duties of those employments. This appears to me to be not merely a question of fact, as is accepted, but essentially a matter of practical experience and judgment. The commissioners were referred to all of the relevant authorities, including Humbles v Brooks (1962) 40 TC 500, and there is no reason to suppose that they misdirected themselves as to the law in any respect. Does the true and only reasonable conclusion from the facts as found contradict their determination?
In my judgment it does not. Their conclusions appear to me to follow perfectly reasonably, and indeed almost inevitably, from their primary findings. The submission that the reading by the taxpayers of other newspapers and publications could only reasonably be regarded as a means of adding to their general qualifications seems to me to ignore the short-lived and almost ephemeral nature of the benefit which they thus acquired. They were studying the news, not history. The purpose which their reading was designed to serve, and did serve, was the production of the next edition of the Daily Mail or the Mail on Sunday. In these circumstances, their reading seems to me to constitute preparation for a particular assignment.
Mr Moses did not suggest that this was a case, like those involving the cost of travelling from home to work, in which a line can be drawn at the office door in order to determine the point at which the performance of duties begins. On the contrary, he submitted that the reading of other newspapers and periodicals within the office, no less than outside it, could only reasonably be regarded as preparatory to the performance of duties. Thus, said Mr Moses, Mr Woodhouse did not begin to perform his duties until after the first three-quarters of an hour at the office which he normally spent in completing his reading (see para 7(e) of the decision in his case (at 673)). On this line of argument, his conversations with other journalists in the building who read papers which he did not read (see para 7(c) of the decision (at 672)) would equally constitute mere preparation for the performance of his duties.
Conversely Mr Holt, the staff photographer, did most of his work on assignments outside the office and away from home, and Mr Moses accepted, of course, that in carrying them out Mr Holt was performing the duties of his employment. In Mr Holt’s case, however, it was found at para 7(d)(ii) of the decision (at 667) that, in addition to reading newspapers before he left home, ‘It was his practice to buy the local newspapers of the town in which he was carrying on an assignment and read them before leaving the town to see whether there was anything of interest to the Daily Mail’. Did he, then, cease to perform his
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duties during the time when, in mid-assignment he bought and read the local newspapers? Mr Moses submitted that this must necessarily follow.
Mr Moses, who argued the Crown’s case with his customary skill and frankness, acknowledged that his submissions on the facts of the present case resulted in the making of some highly artificial distinctions. He contended, however, that this was the unavoidable consequence of applying s 189(1) in the strict and literal sense in which it had always been construed by the courts, and which Parliament had approved by its numerous re-enactments. For my part, I accept at once that the rule is strict, and must be strictly applied, but I do not accept that strictness need involve the drawing of artificial distinctions. The view of the matter which the commissioners evidently formed was that the five taxpayers began to perform their daily duties when they read the newspapers and periodicals which they had selected to provide some of the raw material for the contribution which they would make towards the finished product later in the day. This seems to me to be a sensible and natural appraisal of what was evidently a continuous process, and one which conforms fully with s 189(1). The practical application of the strict statutory test must always depend on the precise facts. It is interesting to note in this connection that shortly before the decision of the commissioners in the present case the Special Commissioners had dismissed appeals by journalists on the Glasgow Herald who were making similar claims (see Fitzpatrick v IRC (No 2) [1992] STC 406, where the unsuccessful appeal of the taxpayers to the Court of Session is reported). Although the working backgrounds to the two sets of appeals were similar, the evidence and the findings in the Fitzpatrick case were significantly different from those in the present case: the Court of Session regarded the decision of Warner J as being distinguishable, and of no material assistance (at 439 per the Lord President (Hope)).
Before considering the remaining matters which were touched on in argument, I must turn to the ground on which Warner J allowed the appeal of the Crown in the case of Mr Abbott. It will appear from what I have said that the findings of the commissioners in relation to him were very similar to their findings in relation to the other four taxpayers. There was, however, one difference, to which the judge attached critical importance. It arose out of the evidence of Mr Burden and is illustrated in para 7(d) of the decision in the case of Mr Woodhouse, quoted above. The second sentence of that paragraph reads:
‘We accept the evidence of Mr Burden and [Mr Woodhouse] that the reading of this material was inherent in the process of finding ideas for the illustrations which it was his duty to obtain and was not merely required to qualify, or maintain the qualifications of, [Mr Woodhouse] to do the work.’
Similar findings appeared in the cases of Mr Shuttleworth, Mr Scovell and Mr Holt except that in the cases of Mr Shuttleworth and Mr Holt the finding described the reading as ‘a necessary part of’ the duties rather than being ‘inherent in’ their performance: but there was no such finding in the case of Mr Abbott. It is a curious omission. It is hard to suppose that Mr Burden was not asked the same questions when giving evidence about Mr Abbott as he was when giving evidence about the other four taxpayers. The omission could readily have been repaired, or at least addressed, by one or other of the parties asking the commissioners to make a finding on the point in Mr Abbott’s case when the draft case was sent to them (as we were told it was) for comment. Alternatively, when the matter came before Warner J, either party could have asked him to remit the case to the commissioners for them to make a finding on the point, in the exercise of his wide powers under s 56(6) and (7) of the Taxes Management Act 1970. Neither
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course was taken. Perhaps neither party wanted to take the risk of getting an unwelcome answer.
Mr Whiteman submitted to Warner J that the absence of the ‘Burden findings’, as the judge called them, in the case of Mr Abbott was immaterial because the same ground was covered by the findings in para 7(e)(iv) and para 8(a) of the decision (at 665) on his appeal. I have already quoted these findings, directly or indirectly, but I repeat them for ease of reference—
‘7 … (e) … (iv) newspaper reading outside office hours was regarded by his employer and [Mr Abbott] as an essential part of his duties.
8. (a) We conclude that the reading of the newspapers and periodicals outside the Daily Mail offices was in the performance of the duties of the employment, notwithstanding that this was done at home and outside the hours of attendance at the Daily Mail offices, and the money expended on them was in each case expended wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of [Mr Abbott’s] duties.’
Warner J described para 7(e)(iv) as ‘at best a finding that Associated Newspapers Ltd and Mr Abbott himself regarded his newspaper reading as an essential part of his duties. It is not a finding by the commissioners themselves that it did’ (see [1991] STC 661 at 684, [1992] 1 WLR 201 at 216). He accepted that para 8(a), although it begins with the words ‘we conclude’, might be taken to contain findings of fact, the commissioners’ conclusion being that expressed in para 8(c) (see [1991] STC 661 at 685, [1992] 1 WLR 201 at 216). What was lacking from para 8(a), he said, was any finding to negative the contention of the Crown that in part at least Mr Abbott’s reading was undertaken in order to keep him qualified to perform the duties of his employment. In the result the judge came to the conclusion, ‘after considerable hesitation’, that in Mr Abbott’s case the findings of fact of the commissioners did not justify their determination.
I cannot share these views. Paragraph 7(e), like the Burden findings, shows that the commissioners accepted the evidence of Mr Burden and the taxpayer concerned as an important part of the basis for their decision. Paragraph 8(a) seems to me to dispose completely of the Crown’s contention that Mr Abbott’s reading was undertaken, at least in part, merely to keep him qualified. All that the Burden findings in the other cases add is that the commissioners accepted what was really the opinion rather than the evidence of Mr Burden and the taxpayer concerned on the central issue in the case, namely whether the reading was a necessary part of the duties of the taxpayer or was merely required to qualify him or maintain his qualifications. The absence of the Burden findings in the case of Mr Abbott may have been due to a mere oversight, as Mr Whiteman suggested, but whether accidental or deliberate it plainly did not affect the commissioners’ conclusions. I cannot regard it as a justification for holding that the true and only reasonable conclusion from the primary facts found in the Abbott case, as distinct from the others, contradicts the determination of the commissioners. Mr Moses, for his part, did not submit that the Burden findings were crucial: he could hardly have done so without sacrificing his appeals in the case of the four taxpayers other than Mr Abbott. He submitted on the more general grounds to which I have referred that in the case of Mr Abbott and of the four other taxpayers alike, the commissioners’ conclusion that the expenses were incurred in the performance of duties could not be sustained, and I would reject this submission for the reasons already given.
Following the terms of the summary by Warner J of the requirements imposed by s 189(1), Mr Moses next submitted that even if the expenses were laid out in
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the performance of the duties, the taxpayers were not ‘necessarily obliged to’ incur them, nor could they be said to have been laid out ‘wholly and exclusively’ in the performance of duties. He accepted, realistically, that if he failed in his first and main submission, he was unlikely to succeed in these remaining arguments and I can, I hope, without disrespect deal with them more shortly.
The gist of his submissions on the words ‘necessarily obliged’ was that there were insufficient findings in the cases stated to justify the conclusion that the expenditure was incurred necessarily in the performance of the duties in the sense that the duties objectively considered could not be performed without such expenditure. It may well be, continued Mr Moses, that the duties of the employment could not be performed as efficiently without preparatory reading, but there are no findings that they could not be performed at all without such reading; as the findings make clear, he said, newspapers and periodicals were not the only source of the acquisition of general knowledge of the daily news.
Mr Moses relied in this connection on a passage in the judgment of Donovan LJ in Brown v Bullock (Inspector of Taxes) [1961] 3 All ER 129 at 133, [1961] 1 WLR 1095 at 1102 which reads:
‘The test is not whether the employer imposes the expense, but whether the duties do, in the sense that irrespective of what the employer may prescribe, the duties cannot be performed without incurring the particular outlay. This result follows in my opinion from the decision of the House of Lords in Ricketts v. Colquhoun.’
Mr Whiteman submitted that this statement of Donovan LJ went too far, and had not been applied in any later case. I for my part do not read Donovan LJ as saying any more than was said by Lord Blanesburgh in the very well-known passage from his speech in Ricketts v Colquhoun (Inspector of Taxes) [1926] AC 1 at 7 where, speaking of the statutory predecessor of s 189(1) he said:
‘Undoubtedly its most striking characteristic is its jealously restricted phraseology, some of it repeated to heighten the effect. But I am also struck by this, that, as it seems to me, although undoubtedly less obtrusively, the language of the rule points to the expenses with which it is concerned being only those which each and every occupant of the particular office is necessarily obliged to incur in the performance of its duties—to expenses imposed upon each holder ex necessitate of his office, and to such expenses only. It says: “If the holder of an office”—the words, be it observed, are not “If any holder of an office”—“is obliged to incur expenses in the performance of the duties of the office”—the duties again are not the duties of his office. In other words, the terms employed are strictly, and, I cannot doubt, purposely not personal but objective …’
As appears from their context, these remarks of Lord Blanesburgh were spoken with reference to the duties of an office—the office of the recorder of a city in that case. I would suppose that the duties of an office tend to be more uniform and more readily defined than those of a commercial employment. Even in that context, however, Lord Blanesburgh’s remarks need to be read with the speech of Lord Wilberforce in Owen v Pook (Inspector of Taxes) [1969] 2 All ER 1 at 12, [1970] AC 244 at 263, where his Lordship, after referring to the passage which I have cited, says:
‘Now, I would entirely agree that r. 7 [of the rules applicable to Sch E in Sch 9 to the Income Tax Act 1952] is drafted in an objective form so as to
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distinguish between expenses which arise from the nature of the office and those which arise from the personal choice of the taxpayer. But this does not mean that no expenses can ever be deductible unless precisely those expenses must necessarily be incurred by each and every office holder. The objective character of the deductions allowed relates to their nature, not to their amount: to take the often-quoted case of the Archdeacon, it would be absurd to suppose that each holder of that office or even each Archdeacon of Plumstead Episcopi travels the same distance or travels by the same means in a year, or that his choice of residence would affect his entitlement.’
So the test is whether the expenses are dictated by the nature of the employment as distinct from the personal choice of the taxpayer. The question whether the taxpayer is necessarily obliged to incur them is to be answered not simply by reference to the legal obligations imposed by the contract of employment (though these may be highly relevant) but by considering once again what the employee has to do as a practical matter in performing the work of his employment. Judged by this yardstick, the commissioners’ conclusion that each of the taxpayers was necessarily obliged to incur them is, to my mind, amply justified by the primary findings to which I have referred.
It remains to consider the words ‘wholly’ and ‘exclusively’. Mr Moses advanced no argument to us on the requirement imposed by the word ‘wholly’. He accepted that this adverb refers to the quantum of money expended, on which no point is taken by the Crown (see in this connection Bentleys Stokes & Lowless v Beeson (Inspector of Taxes) [1952] 2 All ER 82 at 84 per Romer LJ). That case was concerned with the meaning of the words ‘wholly and exclusively’ in the context of the rule governing the deduction of expenses in computing profits taxable under Cases I and II of Sch D, but it is common ground that it applies equally to those words as they appear in the Sch E rule.
In relation to the word ‘exclusively’ Mr Moses submitted, as I have already mentioned, that the expenses were incurred in part at least by way of general preparation for the continued holding of the employment. Thus, for example, Mr Scovell was found to have been furnished with ideas, and Mr Shuttleworth with up-to-date knowledge, which, it was submitted, would be of continuing use to them; and the finding in Mr Holt’s case (at 667, para 7(d)(ii)) that in relation to his early morning newspaper reading included the statements:
‘He scanned them at first and then read the items that interested him in more detail. He made notes and also took cuttings for filing and for future use.’
Mr Moses accepted, however, once again in the light of the judgment of Romer LJ in Bentleys Stokes & Lowless (at 84–85) that if in truth the sole object of the expenditure was to read the newspapers and periodicals in performance of the daily duty, then the fact that this activity necessarily involved the attainment of some other result, or the enjoyment of some incidental benefit, did not prevent the expense from being deductible. He accepted, as he put it, that if the benefit was purely residual, then his argument on this issue could not succeed. Finally he accepted, of course, that the question once again was one of fact. And once again the conclusion of the commissioners in para 8(c) that the sole object of the expenditure was to read the relevant material in the performance of the taxpayer’s duties is to my mind fully justified and incontrovertible.
In this as in every other aspect of the argument before us the submissions of Mr Moses on the law appeared to me to be impeccable, but his assault on the
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commissioners’ findings and conclusions of fact was in my judgment unsustainable. I would dismiss the appeals of the Crown in the cases of Messrs Woodhouse, Shuttleworth, Scovell and Holt, and would allow the appeal of Mr Abbott.
MANN LJ. I agree.
RALPH GIBSON LJ. I also agree. I have nothing to add to the reasons given by Nolan LJ. The appeals of the Crown will be dismissed. The appeal of Mr Abbott will be allowed.
The Crown’s appeals dismissed. Mr Abbott’s appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Siew Ling Choo Barrister.
Oldham Metropolitan Borough Council v Attorney General
[1993] 2 All ER 432
Categories: CHARITIES
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, RUSSELL AND FARQUHARSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 20, 21, 22, 28 JULY 1992
Charity – Cy-près doctrine – Occasion for applying property cy-près – Original purposes of charitable gift – Gift of land for purpose of providing playing fields – Trustee wishing to sell land and apply proceeds to provide better playing fields and facilities – Whether proposed sale constituting alteration of ‘original purposes’ – Whether cy-près scheme required – Whether court having power to authorise application to sell land – Charities Act 1960, s 13.
Under cl 3 of the terms of a charitable trust founded in 1962, a council held land ‘upon trust to preserve and manage the same at all times hereafter as playing fields … for the benefit and enjoyment’ of the local inhabitants. The council wished to sell the site to a developer and to use the proceeds to purchase a new site for playing fields having better facilities than the existing site. The council applied to the court for the determination of the question whether the court had power to authorise the sale of the land and, if so, for such authority. The judge held that retention of the existing site was part of the ‘original purposes’ of the charity and that, since sale of the site would therefore involve an alteration of the original purposes of the charity, the court could not authorise sale of the land unless the charity fell within any of the circumstances specified in s 13a of the Charities Act 1960, which provided for the application of a cy-près scheme where the original purposes of the charitable gift could not be carried out, and that since none of the circumstances specified in s 13 relating to the impossibility of carrying out the original purposes of the charitable gift applied the court had no power to authorise the sale of the land. The council appealed.
Held – On the true construction of cl 3 of the trust deed, the donor intended that the land he was giving should be used for the purposes of the charity, which were
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playing fields for the benefit of the local inhabitants, and since the particular quality of the land was not itself a factor which made the purpose of the gift charitable, in contrast to cases where, for example, a particular area of land of outstanding natural beauty was held on trust, it followed that the charitable purpose of the gift, ie playing fields for the benefit of the local inhabitants, could be carried out on other land. Furthermore, in referring to ‘the original purposes of a charitable gift’, s 13 of the 1960 Act was concerned with the intention and purpose of the donor where the original purpose of the charitable gift could not be carried out and there was nothing to suggest that s 13 extended to the mere sale of charitable property and reinvestment of the proceeds in the acquisition of other property to be held on precisely the same charitable trusts or the same charitable purposes, where before the 1960 Act a cy-près scheme would not have been required. Accordingly, the sale of charitable property and reinvestment of the proceeds in the acquisition of other property to be held for precisely the same charitable purposes did not involve an alteration of the original purposes of the charity and thus did not require a scheme. It followed that the trust was not affected by the provisions of s 13 and that the court could, under its statutory or common law powers relating to charities, authorise the sale of the land if that was held to be appropriate. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the case remitted to the court below to determine that issue (see p 435 c to e p 436 h to p 437 c and p 438 e to p 439 b d, post).
Re Parke’s Charity (1842) 12 Sim 329, Re Ashton Charity (1856) 22 Beav 288 and Re North Shields Old Meeting House (1859) 7 WR 541 applied.
Notes
For the cy-près doctrine, see 5 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 666–675, 696–703, and for cases on the subject, see 8(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 561–595, 4352–4547.
For the Charities Act 1960,s 13, see 5 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 824.
Cases referred to in judgments
Ashton Charity, Re (1856) 22 Beav 288, 52 ER 1119, MR.
Dominion Students’ Hall Trust, Re, Dominion Students’ Hall Trust v A-G [1947] Ch 183.
Laing (JW) Trust, Re, Stewards’ Co Ltd v A-G [1984] 1 All ER 50, [1984] Ch 143, [1983] 3 WLR 886.
Lepton’s Will Trusts, Re, Re Lepton’s Charity, Ambler v Thomas [1971] 1 All ER 799, [1972] Ch 276, [1971] 2 WLR 659.
North Shields Old Meeting House, Re (1859) 7 WR 541, V-C.
Parke’s Charity, Re (1842) 12 Sim 329, 59 ER 1158, V-C.
Robinson, Re, Wright v Tugwell [1923] 2 Ch 332.
St Mary Magdalen College, Oxford (President and scholars) v A-G (1857) 6 HL Cas 189, 10 ER 1267.
Weir Hospital, Re [1910] 2 Ch 124, [1908–10] All ER Rep 690, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G v Bishop of Manchester (1867) LR 3 Eq 436.
A-G v Brettingham (1840) 3 Beav 91, 49 ER 35, MR.
A-G v Kell (1840) 2 Beav 575, 48 ER 1305, MR.
A-G v Kerr (1840) 2 Beav 420, 48 ER 1244, MR.
A-G v Newark-upon-Trent Corp (1842) 1 Hare 395, 66 ER 1086.
A-G v Pilgrim (1849) 12 Beav 57, 50 ER 981, MR.
A-G v South Sea Co (1841) 4 Beav 453, 49 ER 414, MR.
A-G v Warren (1818) 2 Swan 291, [1814–23] All ER Rep 215, 36 ER 627, MR.
Page 434 of [1993] 2 All ER 432
A-G of Ireland v Hungerford (1834) 2 Cl & Fin 357, 6 ER 189, HL.
Colston’s Hospital, Re (1859) 27 Beav 16, 54 ER 6, MR.
Ecclesall Overseers, Re (1852) 16 Beav 297, 51 ER 793, MR.
Howard Street Congregational Chapel, Sheffield, Re [1913] 2 Ch 690.
Manchester New College, Re (1853) 16 Beav 610, 51 ER 916, MR.
Mason’s Orphanage and London and North Western Rly Co, Re [1896] 1 Ch 596, CA.
Mildmay v Lord Methuen (22 February 1851, unreported) (referred to in Re Hall’s Charity (1851) 14 Beav 115 at 121, 51 ER 230 at 232).
Newton’s (Alderman) Charity, Re (1848) 12 Jur 1011, LC.
Philpott v St George’s Hospital (1859) 27 Beav 107, 54 ER 42, MR.
Powlett’s Trusts, Re [1915] VLR 115, Vict SC.
Appeal
The plaintiff, Oldham Metropolitan Borough Council, the trustees of a charity founded by deed of gift of 16 April 1962, appealed from the decision of Chadwick J given on 7 April 1992 on an originating summons dated 16 May 1991, whereby he determined that the court had no power to authorise the council to sell or exchange all or any part of such part of the freehold land vested in the council as trustee, being the existing site of the Clayton Playing Fields. The defendant to the summons was the Attorney General, who supported the appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
David Lowe QC and Hubert Picarda QC (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard, agents for David Shipp, Oldham) for the council.
David Unwin (instructed by Treasury Solicitor) for the Attorney General.
Cur adv vult
28 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ. By an originating summons dated 16 May 1991 the Oldham Metropolitan Borough Council, as trustee of a charity founded by a deed of gift of 16 April 1962, sought, by way of relief under para 1 of the summons, that it might be determined whether the court has power to authorise the council to sell or exchange all or any part of the freehold land, referred to as ‘the blue land’, vested in the council as a trustee of the charity, being the existing site of the Clayton Playing Fields.
The summons further asked by para 2 that, if the answer to the question in para 1 was Yes, the council might be authorised to sell or exchange the blue land on such terms as the court may think fit. What lies behind this is a proposal, which has been the subject of much local debate and controversy, that the existing site of the Clayton Playing Fields should be sold to developers for a very large price, and that with that price the council should acquire a new site for playing fields which, because the price will be so high, will have much better facilities, in the way of changing rooms and car parking and so forth, than the existing site.
The originating summons came before Chadwick J, and by his order of 7 April 1992 he declared on para 1 of the originating summons that the court does not have power to authorise the council to sell or exchange the blue land referred to in the originating summons. The council now appeals against that declaration. In the meantime, para 2 of the originating summons stands adjourned generally under the judge’s order.
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The sole defendant to the originating summons, and sole respondent to the appeal, is the Attorney General, as representing the interests of charities generally. He, through Mr Unwin of counsel, supports the appeal, as he supported the council in the court below in relation to para 1; but he reserves his position in relation to the proposal, outlined above, and para 2 of the originating summons.
It follows that we in this court are in no way concerned with the details of the proposal or with whether it is a good idea, and we express no opinion at all on that. We have merely to decide question 1 in the originating summons as a question of law, and to that end we assume that the proposal, if approved and carried through, would result in the council holding a new site on precisely the same charitable trusts as are declared, with regard to the existing site, by the deed of gift of 6 April 1962 already mentioned.
Question 1 of the originating summons has been referred to as a question of jurisdiction, but that is a bit of an oversimplification of the question.
It is not in doubt as a general proposition that charitable trustees who hold land as part of the permanent endowment of a charity or land which has been occupied for the purposes of the charity have power to sell that land with the consent of the court (or of the Charity Commissioners). That power may be classified as (i) a power conferred by s 29 of the Charities Act 1960, which replaced similar provisions in s 24 of the Charitable Trusts Act 1853, as qualified by s 29 of the Charitable Trusts Amendment Act 1855 or (ii) a general power at common law curtailed by s 29 of the 1960 Act and previously by the 1853 and 1855 Acts which made the consent of the court or the Charity Commissioners necessary or (iii) a power conferred by s 29 of the Settled Land Act 1925, which gives charitable trustees all the powers conferred by that Act on a tenant for life and on the trustees of a settlement; but for present purposes its precise classification is immaterial. In so far as the answer to question one depends on any of these Acts, the answer must be Yes.
The problem arises because of a different section, s 13 of the Charities Act 1960 sub-ss (1) and (2) of which provide as follows:
‘(1) Subject to subsection (2) below, the circumstances in which the original purposes of a charitable gift can be altered to allow the property given or part of it to be applied cy-près shall be as follows:—(a) where the original purposes, in whole or in part,—(i) have been as far as may be fulfilled; or (ii) cannot be carried out, or not according to the directions given and to the spirit of the gift; or (b) where the original purposes provided a use for part only of the property available by virtue of the gift; or (c) where the property available by virtue of the gift and other property applicable for similar purposes can be more effectively used in conjunction, and to that end can suitably, regard being had to the spirit of the gift, be made applicable to common purposes; or (d) where the original purposes were laid down by reference to an area which then was but has since ceased to be a unit for some other purpose, or by reference to a class of persons or to an area which has for any reason since ceased to be suitable, regard being had to the spirit of the gift, or to be practical in administering the gift; or (e) where the original purposes, in whole or in part, have, since they were laid down,—(i) been adequately provided for by other means; or (ii) ceased, as being useless or harmful to the community or for other reasons, to be in law charitable; or (iii) ceased in any other way to provide a suitable and effective method of using the property available by virtue of the gift, regard being had to the spirit of the gift.
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(2) Subsection (1) above shall not affect the conditions which must be satisfied in order that property given for charitable purposes may be applied cy-près, except in so far as those conditions require a failure of the original purposes.’
Broadly the effect of that section is that an alteration of the ‘original purposes’ of a charitable gift can only be authorised by a scheme for the cy-près application of the trust property and such a scheme can only be made in the circumstances set out in paras (a) to (e) of s 13(1).
It follows that, if the retention of a particular property is part of the ‘original purposes’ of a charitable trust, sale of that property would involve an alteration of the original purposes even if the proceeds of the sale were applied in acquiring an alternative property for carrying out the same charitable activities. If so, a sale of the original property could only be ordered as part of a cy-près scheme, and then only if circumstances within one or other of paras (a) to (e) of s 13(1) are made out. The particular bearing of that in the present case is that the council accepts, and the Attorney General agrees, that the circumstances of this charity do not fall within any of these paragraphs.
If therefore, on a true appreciation of the deed of gift and of s 13, the retention of the existing site is part of the original purposes of the charity, the court cannot authorise any sale.
It is necessary therefore to look first at the terms of the deed of gift.
It is made between Ina Clayton of Oldham, a metal merchant, who is called ‘the donor’ of the one part and the mayor, aldermen and burgesses of the county borough of Oldham, the urban district council of Chadderton and the urban district council of Royton, collectively called ‘the donees’, of the other part. By local government reorganisation the present council became the successor to all three of the donees; nothing turns on that.
There are then recitals: (1) of the donor’s seisin of the land thereby conveyed; (2) that the donor was desirous of conveying that land to the donees for the purposes of playing fields solely and had offered to convey it to the donees by way of gift; (3) that the donees had authority to acquire land for the purpose of playing fields and the land was required by the donees solely for that purpose; and (4) that the donees had accepted the donor’s offer with gratitude and had requested the donor to convey the land in the manner and upon the trusts thereinafter appearing.
The land is then conveyed by the donor to the donees in pursuance of the said desire and without consideration in fee simple upon the trusts thereinafter declared.
These trusts are declared in cl 3, which is as follows:
‘The Donees hereby declare that they will hold the said land upon trust to preserve and manage the same at all times hereafter as playing fields to be known as “the Clayton Playing Fields” for the benefit and enjoyment of the inhabitants of the Oldham, Chadderton and Royton aforesaid.’
On that wording, I have no doubt at all that the original purpose, in ordinary parlance, of the donor was, in one sense, that the particular land conveyed should be used for ever as playing fields for the benefit and enjoyment of the inhabitants of Oldham, Chadderton and Royton. In that, I agree with Chadwick J.
It is urged to the contrary that, on recital (2), the only wish of the donor was that the land should be conveyed for the purposes of playing fields solely and that, on recital (4) and the opening words of cl 3, it was only the donees who wanted to
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declare the particular trusts which are to be found in cl 3. I do not agree. I have no doubt that the donor would not have been conveying the land to the three local authorities which collectively constituted the donees if it had not been his purpose also that the land should be used as playing fields for the benefit and enjoyment of the inhabitants of the districts of the three donees as declared in cl 3, although there is no such limitation in recital (2). Clause 3 sets out the purposes of the donor as well as of the donees.
But, even if cl 3 is to be read as being only the words of the donees, it makes no difference, since cl 3 declares the trusts which are binding and which therefore show the purposes of the charity; it could not be said that, because recital (2) in setting out the donor’s desire contains no territorial limitation, it was within the purposes of the trust to use the original land, or land purchased with the proceeds of sale of the original land, in providing playing fields for the benefit and enjoyment of the inhabitants of Blackburn or Bootle.
The actual words in cl 3 were, as set out above, ‘upon trust to preserve and manage the same at all times hereafter as playing fields …' Mr Unwin in his skeleton argument suggested alternatives, viz: (1) upon trust to be used as playing fields etc; (2) upon trust to be used as playing fields for ever etc; (3) upon trust to be maintained and used as playing fields etc; and (4) upon trust to be preserved and maintained as playing fields etc.
I see no difference in effect between any of these four forms of orders and the actual words used in cl 3. As Lord Cranworth LC said in St Mary Magdalen College, Oxford (President and scholars) v A-G (1857) 6 HL Cas 189 at 205, 10 ER 1267 at 1273–1274:
‘… it is plain that persons who give lands to a charity, devote them for ever to the purposes of that charity, and such is always the expression used in such gifts, the gifts being made to the charitable object “for ever.” With the belief that the charity will endure for ever, it is extremely improbable that they can have contemplated the sale of the lands …’
That wording of Lord Cranworth LC suggests an alternative formulation of the effects of the deed of gift, viz the donor intended that the land he was giving should be used for ever for the purposes of the charity, sc as playing fields to be known as the Clayton Playing Fields for the benefit and enjoyment of the inhabitants of the donees’ districts—now the council’s district.
I come then to what I regard as the crux of this case, viz the true construction of the words ‘original purposes of a charitable gift’ in s 13 of the 1960 Act. Do the ‘original purposes’ include the intention and purpose of the donor that the land given should be used for ever for the purposes of the charity, or are they limited to the purposes of the charity, in the sense in which Lord Cranworth LC was using these words in the passage just cited?
Certain of the authorities cited to us can be put on one side.
Thus in Re J W Laing Trust, Stewards’ Co Ltd v A-G [1984] 1 All ER 50 at 56, [1984] Ch 143 at 153 Peter Gibson J said, plainly correctly:
‘It cannot be right that any provision, even if only administrative, made applicable by a donor to his gift should be treated as a condition and hence as a purpose.’
In that case, however, the provision, which was held to be administrative and was plainly not a ‘purpose’, was a provision that the capital was to be wholly distributed within the settlor’s lifetime or within ten years of his death.
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Conversely there are cases where the donor has imposed a condition as part of the terms of his gift, which limits the main purpose of the charity in a way which, with the passage of time, has come to militate against the achievement of that main purpose. The condition was there part of the purpose, but the court found itself able on the facts to cut out the condition by way of a cy-près scheme under the cy-près jurisdiction, on the ground that the subsistence of the condition made the main purpose impossible or impracticable of achievement: see Re Dominion Students’ Hall Trust, Dominion Students’ Hall Trust v A-G [1947] Ch 183, where a condition of a trust for the maintenance of a hostel for male students of the overseas dominions of the British Empire restricted the benefits to dominion students of European origin; see also Re Robinson, Wright v Tugwell [1923] 2 Ch 332, where it was a condition of the gift of an endowment for an evangelical church that the preacher should wear a black gown in the pulpit. But, unlike those conditions, the intention or purpose in the present case that the actual land given should be used as playing fields is not a condition qualifying the use of that land as playing fields.
It is necessary, in my judgment, in order to answer the crucial question of the true construction of s 13 to appreciate the legislative purpose of s 13. Pennycuick V-C said in Re Lepton’s Will Trusts, Re Lepton’s Charity, Ambler v Thomas [1971] 1 All ER 799 at 803, [1972] Ch 276 at 284 that the section in part restates the principles applied under the existing law but also extends those principles. But the principles with which it is concerned are the principles for applying property cy-près and nothing else. The stringency of those principles as stated in Re Weir Hospital [1910] 2 Ch 124, [1908–10] All ER Rep 690 had been somewhat mitigated, but to nothing like the extent contended for by the unsuccessful parties in Re Weir Hospital.
But there is nothing to suggest any legislative intention in enacting s 13 to extend the cases, where a cy-près scheme is necessary if anything is to be done, to cases where before the 1960 Act no scheme was required.
The cases seem to be consistent, before the 1960 Act, that mere sale of charitable property and reinvestment of the proceeds in the acquisition of other property to be held on precisely the same charitable trusts, or for precisely the same charitable purposes, did not require a scheme: see especially Re Ashton Charity (1856) 22 Beav 288, 52 ER 1119, where, in a case decided in relation to the law in force before the passing of the Charitable Trusts Act 1853 and the 1855 Act, Romilly MR, rejecting a submission of Mr Dart of counsel that it does not form part of the administration of a charitable purpose to sell the very estate which the founder intended to uphold it, held that the Court of Chancery had a general jurisdiction, as incidental to the administration of a charity estate, to alien charity property where the court clearly sees that the alienation is for the charity’s benefit and advantage. Other cases where the court decreed a sale of charity lands, otherwise than by way of cy-près scheme, because the court was satisfied that the sale of those lands would be beneficial to the charity are Re Parke’s Charity (1842) 12 Sim 329, 59 ER 1158, a decision of Shadwell V-C under Sir Samuel Romilly’s Act (the Charities Procedure Act 1812), and Re North Shields Old Meeting House (1859) 7 WR 541, a decision of Kindersley V-C under the Charitable Trusts Act 1853 as amended by the 1855 Act. This seems to have been the standard practice in the last century and I see no reason why Parliament should have intended to alter it by s 13 of the 1960 Act. That section is concerned with the cy-près application of charitable funds, but sales of charitable lands have, in so far as they have been dealt with by Parliament, always been dealt with by other sections not concerned with the cy-près doctrine.
There are of course some cases where the qualities of the property which is the
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subject matter of the gift are themselves the factors which make the purposes of the gift charitable, eg where there is a trust to retain for the public benefit a particular house once owned by a particular historical figure or a particular building for its architectural merit or a particular area of land of outstanding natural beauty. In such cases sale of the house, building or land would necessitate an alteration of the original charitable purposes and therefore a cy-près scheme because after a sale the proceeds or any property acquired with the proceeds could not possibly be applied for the original charitable purpose. But that is far away from cases such as the present, where the charitable purpose—playing fields for the benefit and enjoyment of the inhabitants of the districts of the original donees, or it might equally be a museum, school or clinic in a particular town—can be carried on on other land.
Accordingly, I would allow this appeal, set aside the declaration made by the learned judge and substitute a declaration to the opposite effect.
Whether there should be a sale, or whether the existing site should continue to be used as the Clayton Playing Fields as now, is one of the matters for the court to consider under para 2 of the originating summons, with which we are not concerned. Accordingly, we should remit the proceedings to the Chancery Division for consideration of para 2.
I should add finally that we were referred by counsel to the provisions of the Charities Act 1992, which have not yet come into force. That Act changes the law in various respects; therefore its provisions cannot help us in deciding the questions with which we have been concerned on this appeal. Equally, however we have not had to consider whether our decision would have been different if all the provisions of the 1992 Act had already come into force.
RUSSELL LJ. I agree.
FARQUHARSON LJ. I also agree.
Appeal allowed.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
Wychavon District Council v National Rivers Authority
[1993] 2 All ER 440
Categories: ENVIRONMENTAL
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WATKINS AND McCOWAN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 22 JUNE, 31 JULY 1992
Water and watercourses – Pollution of river – Causing sewage effluent to be discharged into controlled waters – Causing – Sewage effluent discharging into river because of blocked sewer – Council responsible for maintenance of sewers – Failure by council to clear blockage promptly – Whether positive act required for offence to be committed – Whether council ‘causing’ sewage effluent to enter river by failing to discover source of pollution and clear it promptly – Water Act 1989, s 107(1)(c).
A pollution control officer employed by the National Rivers Authority (the NRA) saw what subsequently proved to be raw sewage discharging into a river when she inspected a storm overflow into the river near a hospital. The appellant council, which was the sewerage agent for the statutory sewerage undertaker and had day-to-day responsibility for the operation, maintenance and repair of sewers in its area, was informed. However, on two subsequent visits to the scene later the same day and the following morning NRA pollution control officers saw sewage effluent continuing to discharge into the river and no sign of any activity by the council to prevent it. Later the following day a pipe between the hospital and the river was found to be blocked and was cleared by council contractors. The NRA preferred an information against the council alleging that the council had caused sewage effluent to enter the river, contrary to s 107(1)(c)a of the Water Act 1989, which provided that a person was guilty of an offence if he ‘causes … any … sewage effluent to be discharged … into any controlled waters’. The council were convicted by justices who held that ‘cause’ in the 1989 Act did not require a physical act but could mean a lack of preventive action and since the council had not taken sufficient steps to discover the source of the discharge and thereafter to stop it within a reasonable time they had failed in their duty to maintain the sewage system and had thereby ‘caused’ the discharge. The council appealed. The question arose whether the council’s failure to act promptly to discover the source of the pollution and clear the blockage could amount to ‘causing’ the pollution within s 107(1)(c).
Held – The offence of causing, as opposed to knowingly permitting, polluting matter to enter a river contrary to s 107(1) of the 1989 Act required a positive act by the defendant involving some active operation or chain of operations bringing about the pollution and not merely passive inactivity. Since prior to the clearance of the blockage the council had not carried out any positive or deliberate act which in any way interfered with the continuous flow of sewage effluent into the river, the council could not be held to have ‘caused’ the pollution. The council’s appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 448 b to g j, post).
Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475 and Price v Cromack [1975] 2 All ER 113 applied.
Page 441 of [1993] 2 All ER 440
Notes
For the prohibition on pollution of streams, see 49 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 817, and for cases on the subject, see 49 Digest (Reissue) 332, 2540–2542.
As from 25 July 1991 s 107 of the Water Act 1989 was replaced by s 85 of the Water Resources Act 1991. For s 85 of the 1991 Act, see 49 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 802.
Cases referred to in judgments
Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475, [1972] AC 824, [1972] 2 WLR 1320, HL; affg [1971] 2 All ER 910, [1972] QB 127, [1971] 2 WLR 445, DC.
Price v Cromack [1975] 32 All ER 113, [1975] 1 WLR 988, DC.
R v Stephens (1886) LR 1 QB 702.
Welsh Water Authority v Williams Motors (Cymdu) Ltd (1988) Times, 5 December, DC.
Case stated
Wychavon District Council appealed by way of a case stated by the justices for the county of Hereford and Worcester in respect of their adjudication as a magistrate’s court sitting at Pershore on 11 October 1990 on informations preferred by the respondent, the National Rivers Authority, whereby they decided to convict the council of causing sewage effluent to enter the river Avon contrary to s 107(1)(c) of the Water Act 1989. The facts are set out in the judgment of Watkins LJ.
James Tillyard (instructed by I G Marshall, Pershore) for the council.
Roger D H Smith QC (instructed by G G Forster, Solihull) for the respondent.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
WATKINS LJ. Wychavon District Council appeals against a decision of the justices of the county of Hereford and Worcester acting in and for the petty sessional division of the Vale of Evesham when they were sitting as a magistrates’ court at the Court House, Pershore.
On 1 June 1990 informations were preferred by the National Rivers Authority against the council alleging that on 11 March 1990, at a storm overflow outfall adjacent to Evesham Hospital, the council caused sewage effluent to enter the river Avon contrary to s 107(1)(c) of the Water Act 1989 and further that on 12 March 1990, at the same place, the council caused similar effluent to enter the river Avon contrary to s 107(1)(c).
The justices heard the informations on 11 October 1990 and found the following facts.
Information was given to a pollution control officer employed by the National Rivers Authority, namely Suzanne King-Davies, which caused her to go to Evesham on Sunday, 11 March 1990 in the early evening. She went to the bank of the river Avon opposite to Evesham Hospital, and saw that the overflow at that place was discharging into the river what seemed to be raw sewage. She came to the conclusion that the sewer was blocked. She took steps to inform the council.
She was asked to go to the same place again later that evening. She went at some time between 7 and 7.45 pm with a colleague, Mrs Watts, who took a legal sample of the sewage effluent which was later divided into three separate parts. One of them was later on served on the council. There was no sign of any activity on behalf of the council that evening at the scene of the trouble.
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At about 10 am on the following morning, the National River Authority’s pollution control officers went to the scene yet again. One of them, Mr Kelly, took a further sample of sewage effluent which he served on a council official, namely Mr Probert. There was still no sign of any council activity although the overflow continued to discharge sewage effluent.
Mr Kelly went to the council’s offices where he met their engineer, Mr Boyce, who acknowledged that the council had been made aware of the problem but, he said, contractors who had undertaken weekend emergency work for them had been unable to find any discharge of sewage effluent before dark; and, when they lifted manhole covers in the region of where the blockage had been said to be, they found the sewer to be free-flowing. However, Mr Kelly, who was present when the sewer gang lifted a manhole cover, said it appeared to him that it had not been recently removed nor had other manhole covers in the vicinity. Moreover he saw no flow under the cover which was lifted. The conclusion made on behalf of the National Rivers Authority was that a straightforward blockage in the sewer had caused the discharge of the sewage effluent. It was apparently common ground that the blockage was in a pipe between the hospital and the river and was cleared at some time on 12 March by the council’s contractors. Pollution then ceased.
The system of sewers from which the discharge emanated was part of a combined system where foul and surface water flowed through the same pipes. This was probably installed at the beginning of the century. The overflow was designed to allow for the build-up in the system after heavy rainfall when a limited discharge would be acceptable.
The council have the sewerage agency for the Severn-Trent Water Authority, the statutory sewerage undertaker. Thus they carry out on behalf of the sewerage undertaker the operation, maintenance and repair of sewers as well as undertaking some of the detailed design of new sewers. They accepted that they have the day-to-day responsibility for the sewerage system. The management of the system had to be within a restricted financial budget set by Severn-Trent Water Authority. The council, as their agents, carry out remedial repairs up to a maximum of £15,000 without recourse to them.
An analysis of the contents of the samples referred to showed that they contained raw sewage. This evidence was not disputed.
The sewer in question had been designed and constructed according to usual practice and had no history of problems. It was unaltered from its original state and was of common design. It was fed by gravity. The explanation given by Mr Boyce for the blockage was that it could well have been caused by solid material emanating from the nearby hospital’s link sewer.
It was contended on behalf of the National Rivers Authority that the council caused sewage effluent to enter the river Avon controlled waters and that the cause of that was a blocked sewer. Despite the fact that sewage was discharged on two consecutive days, the council had taken no preventative steps. It was acceptable for the storm overflow to discharge after a prolonged spell of wet weather or heavy rainstorm. In this instance, however, no evidence of such weather conditions was evident. ‘Cause’ in the relevant section of the 1989 Act did not have to include physically cause, and here the council, operating under a statutory duty, maintained a system which led to the sewage entering the river in dry conditions. Accordingly, as the council had the responsibility for overflows of the system, they had failed to prevent such an occurrence as this. Thus, by their omissions, they created a public nuisance; and, in allowing that to continue over a considerable period, they had committed the offences. Finally, it was contended that although they were not physically responsible for causing the
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blockage in the system, which appeared to have resulted in the discharge from the overflow, the council had neither done sufficient to prevent it happening when it was their responsibility to do so nor had they taken sufficient steps to remedy the situation upon being informed of the problem.
It was contended on behalf of the council that, whilst accepting that the discharges of sewage took place, they did not cause them to occur. Section 107(5) of the 1989 Act recognises that being the undertaker and owner of a sewer is not alone sufficient to say that that person caused any subsequent discharge from the sewer. However, by this section, if the undertaker is required to accept polluting matter into his sewer, then he is taken to have caused any discharge that occurs. In drafting s 107(5) Parliament may have considered the undertaker to be best placed to accept responsibility for the discharge and thus the commission of the offence. Section 67(1) of the 1989 Act provides that every sewage undertaker has to provide and maintain a safe sewerage system. It is thus a statutory duty for an agent to be responsible for the maintenance and repairs of sewers. The council operated under an agency agreement and so had a contractual duty to maintain and repair the sewers. To commit an offence under s 107(1)(c), the council must have done more than merely be under a contractual duty to maintain a system but actually to have performed the act which caused the blockage. There had been a partial blockage of the waterside sewer and that as the hospital discharged into that sewer, that could have been the source of the offending material. Alternatively any household in the vicinity could have been responsible for the blockage.
It was further argued that Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475, [1972] AC 824 should be distinguished in that the defendants in that case, although not negligent, had created the problem by their own operation. The council in the present case had created none of the sewage. They did not occupy any of the nearby premises and could not have caused the blockage. Moreover, they committed no positive acts to effect the discharge of sewage.
R v Stevens (1866) LR 1 QB 702 should also be distinguished in that the defendants there had created the polluting matter and had stored the offending items so as to create the risk of subsequent escape of polluted materials into a river. That was not so here.
Finally it was contended that failing to act promptly and properly in the circumstances was not sufficient to convict the council of the offences charged. The court had to decide whether the council had caused the discharge by a positive act. They had not done so. The system was owned by the Severn-Trent Water Authority and the council were merely under a contractual duty to maintain and repair and that did not create a material positive act. The overflow system created in the 1950’s had no internal defects and had been designed according to normal practice. It was not accepted that because the council operated the sewage system it could be said thereby to have caused the offences. It cannot be properly said that a council responsible for the maintenance of a sewerage system is guilty of an offence whenever a blockage to a system gives rise to discharge of sewage no matter how quickly or otherwise it responds to the problem.
The court was referred to the cases already mentioned and to Price v Cromack [1975] 2 All ER 113, [1975] 1 WLR 988 and Welsh Water Authority v Williams Motors (Cymdu) Ltd (1988) Times, 5 December (we have seen a transcript of the judgment of Lloyd LJ in the latter case; I agree broadly speaking with his approach to defining the word ‘cause’ as it appeared in similar legislation in s 32 of the Control of Pollution Act 1974).
The justices were of the opinion that the council were the agents for the Severn-Trent Water Authority. They had the responsibility for the day-to-day
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management of the sewerage system under a contractual duty. The system was properly designed. No fault could be attributed to it. The Severn-Trent Water Authority had provided that system and the council had failed to maintain it. On the occasion in question the maintenance procedure was insufficient subsequently to deal with the blockage. As a result more sewage effluent entered the river. The council did not take effective action, did not act promptly and so caused the discharge by their failure to maintain the system. On the first day the council caused the overflow by their lack of ability to discover the source of the problem and to provide the remedy for it. On the second day the council allowed that to go on. They were under a duty to ensure that such a blockage is cleared as soon as possible and the discharge ceases. They failed to do that. They had a statutory responsibility to rectify any problem as soon as it was brought to their attention.
The word ‘cause’ in the 1989 Act did not require a physical act but could mean a lack of preventive action. They were not satisfied that the sub-contractors agents of the council, had taken sufficient steps to discover the source of the discharge. They were satisfied that the manhole covers had not been disturbed on the Sunday evening. Thus the council had failed in their duty to maintain the system and consequently caused the discharge. They were not of the opinion that the council, merely by operating and maintaining the public sewers in the vicinity of Evesham Hospital on behalf of the Severn-Trent Water Authority, caused the sewage effluent to enter the river Avon.
Finally the justices found that the council by their or their agent’s actions had failed in their duty to maintain the system and thus could be said to have caused the discharge on the material days. They convicted the council.
The justices now ask: whether in law the council can be held to have ‘caused’ the pollution by failing promptly to discover the source of the discharge of sewage effluent into the river Avon once it had occurred and thereafter by failing to clear the blockage as soon as possible.
It is, I think, quite clear that the justices effectively found that the council did not bring about the blockage and could not be said to have caused sewage effluent to enter the river merely by, as agents, maintaining and operating the sewer. However, whilst they did not cause the initial overflow of sewage effluent, they caused the overflow to continue by failing, as they should have done, within a reasonable time, to discover what brought that about and thereafter to stop the overflow much earlier than they did.
The meaning attributed to the word ‘cause’ in a number of well-known dictionaries is ‘what produces an effect, bringing something about’, ‘that which produces an effect, that by or through which anything happens’. Doubtless this word may be capable of slightly different meanings given the context in which it is used in any particular statute. In other words, in interpreting the word, regard must be paid to the context in which it appears. It is a well-known truism that where such a word appears, as here, in a penal section and if it is capable of bearing more than one meaning, the meaning most favourable to the subject must be adopted.
The parts of the 1989 Act in point in the present case are as follows. Section 67 provides:
‘(1) It shall be the duty of every sewerage undertaker—(a) to provide, improve and extend such a system of public sewers (whether inside its area or elsewhere) and so to cleanse and maintain those sewers as to ensure that that area is and continues to be effectually drained; and (b) to make provision for the emptying of those sewers and such further provision (whether inside its area or elsewhere) as is necessary from time to time for effectually dealing,
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by means of sewage disposal works or otherwise, with the contents of those sewers …’
Section 107, so far as relevant, states:
‘(1) Subject to section 108 below, a person contravenes this section if he causes or knowingly permits—(a) any poisonous, noxious or polluting matter or any solid waste matter to enter any controlled waters; or (b) any matter, other than trade effluent or sewage effluent, to enter controlled waters by being discharged from a drain or sewer in contravention of a relevant prohibition; or (c) any trade effluent or sewage effluent to be discharged—(i) into any controlled waters; or (ii) from land in England and Wales, through a pipe, into the sea outside the seaward limits of controlled waters …
(5) For the purposes of this section where—(a) any sewage effluent is discharged as mentioned in subsection (1)(c) or (d) above from any sewer or works vested in a sewerage undertaker; and (b) the undertaker did not cause or knowingly permit the discharge but was bound (either unconditionally or subject to conditions which were observed) to receive into the sewer or works matter included in the discharge, the undertaker shall be deemed to have caused the discharge.
(6) A person who contravenes this section or the conditions of any consent given under this Chapter for the purposes of this section shall be guilty of an offence and liable—(a) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both; (b) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or to a fine or to both.’
The term ‘controlled waters’ is defined in s 103 and includes rivers such as the river Avon.
Obviously the council were contractually responsible for conforming with the requirement to cleanse and maintain the sewers in their area so as to ensure a continuity of effectual drainage. Therefore, it was encumbent upon them to discover the whereabouts of a blockage without delay and to clear it by taking prompt action. But, if they failed to act promptly in those respects and the pollution of the river thereby persisted, did they, beyond the point of failure to act promptly, cause the continuing pollution? That is, as all concerned with this appeal agree, the essential issue.
In Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475, [1972] AC 824 the main relevant authorities upon causing polluted matter to flow into a river were reviewed by the House of Lords with regard to the provisions of s 2(1) of the Rivers (Prevention of Pollution) Act 1951, which are essentially similar to those contained in s 107(1)(a) of the 1989 Act.
The Alphacell case was applied in Price v Cromack [1975] 2 All ER 113, [1975] 1 WLR 988. In the latter case the appellant had entered into an agreement to allow effluent created by an industrial company to pass onto his land and be dispersed. The amount of effluent increased. With the consent of the appellant two lagoons were built by the company on the appellant’s land to contain the effluent. Subsequently a district pollution prevention officer of the river authority found two cracks in the walls of the lagoons which had allowed the effluent to escape into a nearby river. The appellant was convicted of causing poisonous, noxious or polluting matter to enter the river contrary to s 2(1) of the 1951 Act. This court held that the offence of causing polluting matter to enter a river required some positive act on the part of the accused and not merely a passive looking on. The effluent had come onto the appellant’s land and passed from there into the river
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by natural causes without any positive act by the appellant. It could not, therefore, be said that the appellant had caused the polluting matter to enter the river. Accordingly the conviction of the appellant was quashed.
In his judgment Lord Widgery CJ explained the circumstances of that case and the law as stated by the House of Lords in the Alphacell case as follows ([1975] 2 All ER 113 at 117–118, [1975] 1 WLR 988 at 992–994):
‘The relevant statutory provision, the Rivers (Prevention of Pollution) Act 1951, s 2(1), is in these terms: “Subject to this Act, a person commits an offence punishable under this section—(a) if he causes or knowingly permits to enter a stream any poisonous, noxious or polluting matter …” I read those words to draw attention to the fact that the section contemplates two separate offences: (1) causing to enter a stream any poisonous matter and (2) knowingly permitting to enter a stream any poisonous matter. It is not for us to decide whether this appellant would have been found guilty of knowingly permitting had the offence been so framed. It was not so framed. The question is whether the prosecution are right and can uphold their conviction on the alternative offence of causing. It so happens that very similar considerations were examined in some considerable detail in the House of Lords as recently as 1972 in Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475, [1972] AC 824. This was a case in which industrialists with land on the boundaries of a river had constructed tanks to hold water which was liable to be polluted to some degree and which water was intended to be recycled, that is to say allowed to settle and purify and then re-used again in the factory. If the level of water rose above a certain limit, the water would inevitably spill into the river. To cover that situation in the Alphacell case the industrialists had installed pumps, the purpose of which was to pump away the water if and when it reached the stage at which it might overflow into the river and cause damage. On a particular occasion the pumps proved ineffective because their impellers were clogged with vegetable produce of some kind, and accordingly the level in the tanks rose above the safety level, the water overflowed into the river and there was pollution. As in the present case, the company Alphacell were charged with causing the polluted matter to enter the river. Their answer in effect was that they had not done anything which could be described as causation of the overflow into the river. They had installed a perfectly adequate system for dealing with the water which they had accumulated in the tanks, and they could not be said to have caused the entry of the effluent into the river merely because the pumps had failed and thus had proved ineffective to contain the water in the tanks. It is not necessary to go at great length into the speeches of their Lordships in that case, but it is important to note that the distinction between ‘causing’ and ‘knowingly permitting’ was very much in their Lordships’ minds. It seems to me that the overwhelming opinion of their Lordships in that case was, that whatever else ‘causing’ might or might not involve, it did involve some active operation as opposed to mere tacit standing by and looking on. That is made good first of all by Lord Wilberforce who says ([1972] 2 All ER 475 at 479, [1972] AC 824 at 834): “The subsection evidently contemplates two things—causing, which must involve some active operation or chain of operations involving as the result the pollution of the stream; knowingly permitting, which involves a failure to prevent the pollution, which failure, however, must be accompanied by knowledge.” [Lord Wilberforce’s emphasis.] I draw attention again therefore to Lord Wilberforce’s words in relation to causing: “some active operation”. One gets the same note struck
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by Lord Cross. He refers to certain words of Bridge J ([1971] 2 All ER 910 at 914, 915, [1972] QB 127 at 136) who had given a dissenting judgment in this court in the same case. Lord Cross said ([1972] 2 All ER 475 at 489, [1972] AC 824 at 846): “Bridge J said—and I agree with him—that the contrast drawn in the section between ‘causing’ and ‘knowingly permitting’ shows that a man cannot be guilty of causing polluting matter to enter a stream unless at the least he does some positive act in the chain of acts and events leading to that result.” Then Lord Pearson said of the activities of which the company had been responsible in the Alphacell case [1972] 2 All ER 475 at 488, [1972] AC 824 at 845: “Those were positive activities and they directly brought about the overflow. What other cause was there?” I feel that as a result of the guidance which we get from their Lordships’ House in the Alphacell case one must begin in this instance by asking where was the positive act of the appellant which is said to be a cause, or perhaps the cause, of the polluting matter entering the stream [Lord Widgery CJ’s emphasis]. Counsel for the respondent says, and not surprisingly, that the positive act in this instance was the entering into of the arrangement between the appellant and the industrialist whose land adjoined his that the appellant would receive the effluent from the industrialist concerned. He says that that was a positive act and consequently justifies the charge being one of “causing” rather than “knowingly permitting”. I agree with counsel that if this were a case in which the effluent had been, to use his phrase, handed over to the appellant at the boundary between the industrialist’s land and his own, and he had then been free to deal with it as he wished, it might very well have been that in that instance one would find in the appellant the essential feature of positive action which would justify his being said to have caused the ultimate entry into the river. But of course it did not happen like that. There was no question of the appellant going to the boundary and receiving the effluent to dispose of it. The effluent came on to his land by gravity and found its way into the stream by gravity with no act on his part whatever, if one thinks in terms of a physical act connected with the land or the owner. I sympathise with counsel for the respondent’s approach to this case in this respect that I can well see that there should really be no great difference between the man who generates polluting matter on his own land and one who voluntarily agrees to accept somebody else’s polluting matter and have it put on his land. But it is not so much a question of distinguishing between the culpability of those two individuals. The distinction may not be their culpability but in the precise nature of the offence which they commit because, whereas the man who generates the polluting matter on his land, or physically brings it on his own land, may well on the authorities be guilty of causing, I cannot myself find it possible to say that a causing of the entry of the polluting matter occurs merely because the land owner stands by and watches the polluting matter cross his land into the stream, even if he has committed himself by contract to allowing the adjoining owner so to act. The absence of any positive act on the part of the appellant seems to me to show that this was not a case in which a conviction on the charge was possible in law, and I would, for myself, allow the appeal and quash the conviction.’
I think I should add that it was also held in the Alphacell case that the offence created by s 2(1) was in the nature of a public nuisance and belonged to that class of offences which could not strictly be described as criminal but were rather acts prohibited by statute under a penalty. The prosecution did not have to establish
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that the appellant had knowingly, intentionally or negligently caused the polluted matter to enter the river.
I should also add that a common nuisance, ie a public nuisance, was stated in Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law (9th edn, 1950) to be an act not warranted by law or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all His Majesty’s subjects.
Mr Tillyard for the council submitted, very convincingly, I thought, that the offence under s 107(1) contemplates two things and two separate offences, namely (a) causing polluting matter to enter any controlled waters, which must involve some active operation or chain of operations bringing about pollution, and (b) knowingly permitting polluting matter to enter any controlled waters, which involves a failure to prevent the pollution, which failure must obviously be accompanied by knowledge.
The offence of causing polluting matter to enter a river requires, he said, a positive act by an accused and not merely a passive looking on. On neither material day was there in the present case, before the act which cleared the blockage, any positive or active operation by the council which in any way interfered with the continuous flow of sewage effluent into the river. As a matter of law, therefore, Mr Tillyard said, the council cannot in any sense be said to have caused the pollution.
If recourse is had to the possible commission of a nuisance by the council, I understood him to have submitted finally that the council did nothing not warranted by law and did not in any sense omit to discharge a legal duty.
In my judgment the facts found by the justices are not capable of establishing that the council caused the pollution by creating a nuisance or otherwise. There is nothing to point to the performance by the council of either a positive or a deliberate act such as could properly be said to have brought about the flow of sewage effluent into the river Avon. There are facts which, in my opinion, could point to inactivity amounting possibly to negligence. There are others which could amount to knowingly permitting sewage effluent to be discharged into controlled waters, but the council was not charged with that. Whether if they had been so charged conviction would have followed, it is not, I think, right to comment upon here.
Accordingly I would answer the question posed in the negative and quash the conviction.
It is necessary, I think, in conclusion, to make a brief reference to s 107(5)—the deeming provision—having regard to certain submissions made to us about it. The council, not being sewerage undertakers, are not, in my view, exposed to its terms but it seems to me that the Severn-Trent Water Authority were. It was suggested that if that authority had been prosecuted, as it could have been, it would have been caught by the deeming provision—in other words convicted of the offence. That might be so, but it is not necessary for present purposes to examine the matter further than that. Suffice it that the council could not have been deemed to have caused the pollution.
McCOWAN LJ. I agree.
Appeal allowed. Conviction quashed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
City of London Corp v Fell and others
Herbert Duncan Ltd v Cluttons (a firm)
[1993] 2 All ER 449
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NOURSE, EVANS LJJ AND SIR MICHAEL KERR
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13, 14 OCTOBER, 25 NOVEMBER 1992
Landlord and tenant – Business lease – Term of lease – Assignment of unexpired term – Tenancy extended by assignee company by operation of statute – Assignee compulsorily wound up – Lessors claiming from original lessees outstanding rent for period following expiry of contractual term – Whether term of lease covering statutorily extended period of tenancy – Whether obligations of original lessees ceasing on expiry of lease – Whether original lessees liable for outstanding rent – Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, s 24(1).
On 25 March 1976 the defendants entered into a lease of business premises owned by the plaintiffs, the lease being expressed to be for a ‘term of ten years’. In June 1979 the defendants assigned the residue of the unexpired term of the lease of the demised premises to a company, subject to the payment of rent and observance of the lessee’s covenants and conditions. The ten-year term expired on 24 March 1986 but the assignee company continued in occupation pursuant to the provisions of Pt II of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 until 23 January 1987, when it surrendered the premises following its compulsory winding up. The plaintiffs were left with a deficit of £33,460.64 in respect of unpaid rent and were informed by the company’s liquidators that the prospect of a dividend was remote. The plaintiffs then issued proceedings against the defendants, as the original lessees, for the outstanding rent. The defendants contended that the phrase ‘term of ten years’ in the lease agreement defined clearly and without equivocation the extent in time for which they remained liable for payment of rent and the plaintiffs, having received rent for that term, were not entitled to any more. The plaintiffs contended (i) that, since the tenancy was a business tenancy to which Pt II of the 1954 Act applied, the privity of contract between the original parties to the contractual lease continued during the statutory extension of the lease since, by virtue of s 24(1)a of that Act, a business tenancy did not come to an end unless determined in accordance with the provisions of that Act, and the effect of the Act was that the contractual tenancy continued with a statutory variation as to the mode of determination and thus remained throughout one and the same tenancy, and (ii) that therefore the defendants’ obligation to pay rent, despite the unequivocal agreement as to the duration of the obligation contained in the lease, was extended beyond the ‘term’ and into the period of the statutory continuation of the tenancy. The judge held that the defendants were not liable for sums due in respect of any period after the expiration of the contractual term, since Pt II of the 1954 Act only operated to sustain the tenure of business premises on expiry of the contractual period of the lease, and thereby sustained the right to occupy the premises pursuant to the lease and defined the rights and obligations of the parties to the statutory extension of the tenancy, rather than continuing the contractual term of the lease itself. The plaintiffs appealed.
Held – Although a tenancy required a contract to create it, it did not require one to continue it. The contractual obligations which touched and concerned the land
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subject to the lease having become imprinted on the estate, the tenancy was capable of existence as a species of property independently of the contract. Once created, a lease gave rise to one or other of two distinct legal relationships between the landlord and the tenant, namely privity of contract or privity of estate, which determined the obligations enforceable between the owners thereof for the time being as conditions of the enjoyment of their respective estates. Having regard to that principle, and on the true construction of s 24(1) of the 1954 Act, which merely continued tenancies and not contracts, a ‘tenant’ was a person who ‘held’ land of another, for which purpose it was immaterial whether he did so by contract or by estate, and, although he might remain contractually liable to the landlord, an original tenant who had assigned the tenancy, equally with an assignee who had himself assigned, could not properly be described as the ‘tenant’ since it was the assignee and not the original tenant who held the land and it was therefore the assignee who currently held the tenancy. It followed that, where an original tenant had assigned a business tenancy before the end of the contractual term, the tenancy which s 24(1) provided should not come to an end was, and could only be, the tenancy of the assignee. Since the contractual obligations of the original tenant formed no part of the legal relationship between the landlord and the assignee, and since they were not independently continued by s 24(1), they were in no way affected. Accordingly, since the defendants as the original tenants had covenanted to pay rent only during the contractual term, the plaintiffs could not recover from them any rent payable after that date. The plaintiffs’ appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 453 d to p 454 a e j and p 457 c d f g j to p 458 b d, post).
Decision of Desmond Perrett QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in City of London Corp v Fell [1992] 3 All ER 224 affirmed.
Notes
For the duration of the term of a lease, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 207, and for cases on the subject, see 31(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 388–393, 3310–3369.
For continuation of tenancies to which Pt II of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 applies, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 483, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 275–276, 299–315, 11007–11008, 11084–11136.
For the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, s 24, see 23 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 147.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bleachers’ Association Ltd’s Leases, Re, Weinbergs Weatherproofs Ltd v Radcliffe Paper Mill Co Ltd [1957] 3 All ER 663, [1958] Ch 437, [1958] 2 WLR 1.
Cornish v Brook Green Laundry Ltd [1959] 1 All ER 373, [1959] 1 QB 394, [1959] 2 WLR 215, CA.
GMS Syndicate Ltd v Gary Elliott Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 619, [1982] Ch 1, [1981] 2 WLR 478.
Junction Estates Ltd v Cope (1974) 27 P & CR 482.
Plesser (A) & Co Ltd v Davis (1983) 267 EG 1039.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Associated Dairies Ltd v Pierce (1982) 265 EG 127, CA.
Baynton v Morgan (1888) 22 QBD 74, CA.
Bolsom (Sidney) Investment Trust Ltd v E Karmios & Co (London) Ltd [1956] 1 All ER 536, [1956] 1 QB 529, CA.
Page 451 of [1993] 2 All ER 449
Bolton (H L) (Engineering) Co Ltd v T J Graham & Sons Ltd [1956] 3 All ER 624, [1957] 1 QB 159, CA.
Bowes-Lyon v Green [1961] 3 All ER 843, [1963] AC 420, HL.
Cadogan v Dimovic [1984] 2 All ER 168, [1984] 1 WLR 609, CA.
Castle Laundry (London) Ltd v Read [1955] 2 All ER 154, [1955] 1 QB 568.
Cheryl Investments Ltd v Saldanha, Royal Life Saving Society v Page [1979] 1 All ER 5, [1978] 1 WLR 1329, CA.
Commercial Properties Ltd v Wood [1967] 2 All ER 916, [1968] 1 QB 15, CA.
Cooper v Robinson (1842) 10 M & W 694, 152 ER 651.
Cottee v Richardson (1851) 7 Exch 143, 155 ER 892.
English Exporters (London) Ltd v Eldonwall Ltd [1973] 1 All ER 726, [1973] Ch 415.
Follett (Charles) Ltd v Cabtell Investments Ltd (1987) 55 P & CR 36, CA.
Green v Edwards (1591) Moore KB 297, 72 ER 590.
Pivot Properties Ltd v Secretary of State for the Environment (1980) 41 P & CR 248, CA.
Right v Cartwright (1757) 1 Keny 529, 96 ER 1080.
Scholl Mfg Co Ltd v Clifton (Slim-Line) Ltd [1966] 3 All ER 16, [1967] Ch 41, CA.
Appeals
City of London Corp v Fell and others
The plaintiffs, the City of London Corp, appealed from the decision of Desmond Perrett QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division ([1992] 3 All ER 224) given on 10 July 1991 whereby he held that the liability of the defendants, John Arnold Fell, John Edward James Hayward and Edward Denham Sturmer, as original contractual tenants under a ten-year lease commencing on 25 March 1976 in respect of business premises at Boston House, 63–64 New Broad Street, London and to which Pt II of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 applied, to pay rent on the default of their assignees, Grovebell Group plc, came to an end at the expiration of the term as defined in the lease. The facts are set out in the judgment of Nourse LJ.
Herbert Duncan Ltd v Cluttons (a firm)
The defendant, Cluttons (a firm), appealed, with the leave of the judge from the decision of Tudor Evans J ([1992] 1 EGLR 101) on 20 December 1991 whereby he held that the defendant as the original tenant of premises at 74 Grosvenor Street, London W1 demised by the plaintiffs, Herbert Duncan Ltd (then called Herbert Duncan (Furs) Ltd), as lessors for a term commencing 1 December 1984 and expiring 25 March 1990 was liable to the plaintiff for the interim rent which the High Court on 15 February 1991 ordered the defendant’s assignee, Warringtons plc, to pay pursuant to s 24A of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, during the continuation of the lease under ss 24 and 25 of that Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of Nourse LJ.
Andrew Arden QC and Noah Weiniger (instructed by the Comptroller and City Solicitor) for the City of London Corp.
David Neuberger QC and Erica Foggin (instructed by Wilde Sapte) for Fell and others.
Barry Denyer Green (instructed by Wray Smith & Co) for Cluttons.
Jonathan Brock (instructed by Forsyte Kerman) for Herbert Duncan Ltd.
25 November 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
Page 452 of [1993] 2 All ER 449
NOURSE LJ.
Introduction
Section 24(1) of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 provides:
‘A tenancy to which this Part of this Act applies shall not come to an end unless terminated in accordance with the provisions of this Part of this Act …’
The well-recognised effect of that provision is to continue a tenancy of business premises after the end of the contractual term. The principal question arising on these appeals is whether it also has the effect of continuing the contractual obligations, in particular the obligation to pay rent, of an original tenant who has assigned the tenancy before that date. In City of London Corp v Fell [1992] 3 All ER 224 Desmond Perrett QC, sitting as a deputy judge, has answered the question in the negative. In Herbert Duncan Ltd v Cluttons [1992] 1 EGLR 101 Tudor Evans J has answered it in the affirmative. Now we have to say which of them was right.
It may be thought curious that this question, seemingly so fundamental to the working of Pt II of the 1954 Act, has not earlier arisen for decision. A possible explanation is that the answer cannot before have been doubted. More probably, it has taken the effects of a serious recession on the solvency of assignees to make the question a live one.
Although both appeals were called on together, they were argued consecutively. It is convenient to follow the course adopted in argument by dealing first with City of London Corp v Fell, where the facts are simple and no subsidiary questions arise.
City of London Corp v Fell
By a lease dated 15 July 1977 and made between the plaintiffs, the City of London Corp, as lessors, of the one part and the defendants and another, four partners in the solicitors’ firm of Wilde Sapte, as lessees, of the other part, the plaintiffs demised business premises at Boston House, 63–64 New Broad Street in the City of London to the lessees for a term of ten years from 25 March 1976 (defined as ‘the term’) ‘Yielding and Paying therefor during the term unto the Lessors’ the yearly rent of £27,500 in advance, subject to review as at the expiration of the fifth year of the term. Clause 2(1) of the lease contained a covenant by the lessees that they ‘Will pay the said yearly rents on the days and in the manner hereinbefore appointed for payment thereof’.
From these provisions it is clear that the contractual liability of the lessees for rent was coterminous with the contractual term.
On 15 June 1979 the then lessees, with the licence of the plaintiffs, assigned the lease to a company called Grovebell Group Ltd (Grovebell). The yearly rent was subsequently reviewed and increased to £38,500 with effect from 25 March 1981. After the expiration of the contractual term on 24 March 1986 Grovebell continued in occupation of the premises under the 1954 Act. There can be no doubt that the effect of s 24(1) was to continue the tenancy as between the plaintiffs and Grovebell. But on 1 December 1986 an order for its compulsory winding up was made in the Companies Court. The judge found that Grovebell remained in occupation of the premises until 23 January 1987, when the lease was surrendered by its joint liquidators to the plaintiffs, who thereupon retook possession.
Grovebell failed to pay the quarterly instalment of rent due on 25 March 1986 and it paid no rent thereafter. It also failed to pay other sums payable as additional rent in respect of insurance and service charge. Having been informed by the liquidators of Grovebell that no significant assets had been recovered in the
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liquidation and that it was unlikely that there would be any dividend to unsecured creditors, the plaintiffs wrote to the defendants on 7 September 1989 stating that they would look to them, as original lessees, for payment of the amount outstanding. The defendants denied that they were liable for any sums due in respect of any period after the expiration of the contractual term. On 6 July 1990 the plaintiffs issued the writ in the action claiming payment of £33,460.64, together with interest amounting to £4,166.54. The action came on for trial before the deputy judge on 19 and 20 June 1991, when he reserved judgment. On 10 July 1991 he gave judgment for the defendants. The plaintiffs now appeal to this court.
The principal question
Section 24(1) of the 1954 Act provides that the ‘tenancy’ shall not come to an end unless terminated in accordance with the statutory provisions. That word is not defined in the 1954 Act. It must therefore be given its ordinary legal meaning. To what does it refer in a case where the original tenant has assigned the tenancy before the end of the contractual term? In order that that question may be answered, some elementary propositions in the law of landlord and tenant must be restated.
A lease of land, because it originates in a contract, gives rise to obligations enforceable between the original landlord and the original tenant in contract. But because it also gives the tenant an estate in the land, assignable, like the reversion, to others, the obligations, so far as they touch and concern the land, assume a wider influence, becoming, as it were, imprinted on the term or the reversion as the case may be, enforceable between the owners thereof for the time being as conditions of the enjoyment of their respective estates. Thus landlord and tenant stand together in one or other of two distinct legal relationships. In the first it is said that there is privity of contract between them, in the second privity of estate.
To what, in ordinary legal parlance, do we refer when we speak of a ‘tenancy’? I think that we refer to a particular legal relationship between tenant and landlord under which land is held by the one of the other. A ‘tenant’, both by derivation and by usage, is someone who ‘holds’ land of another, for which purpose it is immaterial whether he does so by contract or by estate. Although he may remain contractually liable to the landlord, an original tenant who has assigned the tenancy, equally with an assignee who has himself assigned, cannot properly be described as the tenant. He no longer holds the land. It is the assignee who now holds the land. It is he who has the tenancy.
It follows that where an original tenant has assigned the tenancy before the end of the contractual term the tenancy which s 24(1) provides shall not come to an end is, and can only be, the tenancy of the assignee. Since the contractual obligations of the original tenant form no part of the legal relationship between the landlord and the assignee, and since they are not independently continued by the subsection, they are in no way affected. If, as here, the original tenant has covenanted to pay rent only during the contractual term, the landlord cannot recover from him any rent payable in respect of a period after that date. Further elaboration of the principal question could only obscure the clarity of the answer. The defendants are entitled to succeed on this appeal.
The basic submission of Mr Arden QC for the plaintiffs was that because a tenancy can only originate in contract its continued existence is dependent on continued contractual support. Accordingly, the effect of s 24(1) must be to continue, not only the obligations arising by privity of estate between the landlord and the assignee, but also those arising by privity of contract between the original landlord and the original tenant. For the reasons already stated, that submission,
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afflicted as it is by a confusion between the creation and the continuation of a tenancy, must be rejected. A tenancy needs a contract to create it. It does not need one to continue it. The contractual obligations which touch and concern the land having become imprinted on the estate, the tenancy is capable of existence as a species of property independently of the contract.
Mr Arden helpfully referred us to many other provisions of the 1954 Act. None of them provides any support for the view that ‘tenancy’ in s 24(1) is to be given any other than its ordinary meaning. Indeed, by their exclusive concern with the tenant in occupation they affirm the contrary. Mr Arden also took us to all the previous authorities on s 24(1). They establish that the effect of the subsection is to continue the common law tenancy with a statutory variation as to the mode of its determination: see for example, Cornish v Brook Green Laundry Ltd [1959] 1 All ER 373 at 383, [1959] 1 QB 394 at 409. In some of them reference has been made to the continuation, not of the tenancy, but of the ‘term’; see for example Re Bleachers’ Association Ltd’s Leases, Weinbergs Weatherproofs Ltd v Radcliffe Paper Mill Co Ltd [1957] 3 All ER 663 at 668, [1958] Ch 437 at 446. There is no significance in this distinction in language. The term is an integral part of the tenancy and, if the one is continued, so is the other.
Unfortunately, as it now appears, the insignificance of judicial references to the continuation of the term or the contractual term was not fully grasped in the courts below, where counsel for the respective landlords invoked them as authority for the proposition that the contractual obligations of the original tenant are also continued by s 24(1). That line of argument involves a clear non sequitur. Although the term is created by contract, it is continued by statute. Accordingly, while it is usual to speak of the continuation of the contractual term, it does not follow that the contractual obligations of the original tenant are continued. The true view is that none of the references in the previous authorities to the continuation of the tenancy or the term has illuminated the meaning of ‘tenancy’ in its application to a case such as the present. A decision of my own at first instance, GMS Syndicate Ltd v Gary Elliott Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 619, [1982] Ch 1, which was much relied on in the courts below, is especially unilluminating. Rather more helpful, although by analogy only, are Junction Estates Ltd v Cope (1974) 27 P & CR 482 and A Plesser & Co Ltd v Davis (1983) 267 EG 1039, in each of which it was held that a covenant guaranteeing the tenant’s payment of rent and performance of his covenants was limited to the contractual term of the lease and did not extend to the period of a continuation tenancy under s 24(1).
A further point must be mentioned. Mr Neuberger QC for the defendants argued that even if there had been no assignment of the lease, so that the defendants remained the tenants, their contractual obligations would not have been continued by s 24(1). If the views already expressed are correct, it would seem that that argument ought to be rejected. The ‘tenancy’, the particular legal relationship between landlord and tenant, would have been that created by the original contract. It would have been that relationship which was continued by s 24(1). However, this is not a question which arises for decision in the present case. It was not fully argued. It could only be of practical significance in relation to an obligation which did not touch and concern the land. In all the circumstances it is neither necessary nor desirable to express a concluded opinion on it.
The learned deputy judge in this case came to a correct decision. I would affirm it and dismiss the appeal accordingly.
Herbert Duncan Ltd v Cluttons
This case has two additional features. First, the landlord claims that the
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covenant in the lease for payment of rent obliges the original tenants to pay it, not only during the contractual term, but also during any continuation tenancy under s 24(1). Secondly, the landlord claims that the original tenants are liable during that period, not simply for the contractual rent, but for an interim rent determined pursuant to s 24A of the 1954 Act by a consent order made in proceedings between the assignee and the landlord.
By a lease dated 9 July 1985 and made between the plaintiff, then called Herbert Duncan (Furs) Ltd, as lessor, of the one part and four partners in the chartered surveyors’ firm of Cluttons, the defendants, as lessees, of the other part, the plaintiff demised business premises at 74 Grosvenor Street, London W1, to the defendants for a term commencing on 1 December 1984 and expiring on 25 March 1990 (defined as ‘the said term’) ‘Yielding and Paying therefor unto the Lessor during the said term’ the yearly rent of £70,000 in advance. Clause 2(1)(a) of the lease contained a covenant by the defendants that they ‘will pay the yearly rent hereinbefore reserved …' Clause 5(g) provided:
‘The expression “the said term” shall where the context admits include not only the term hereby granted but also the period of any holding over or of any extension thereof whether by statute or at common law.’
On 27 September 1988 the defendants, with the licence of the plaintiff, assigned the lease to a company called Warringtons plc. On 5 July 1989 the plaintiff served a notice under s 25 of the 1954 Act on Warringtons terminating its tenancy at the end of the contractual term on 25 March 1990. On 23 November 1989 Warringtons, having duly notified the plaintiff that it was not willing to give up possession of the premises, issued an application in the Chancery Division for a new tenancy. On 18 December 1989, by summons issued in those proceedings the plaintiff applied for an interim rent to be determined pursuant to s 24A of the 1954 Act. On 6 November 1990 Warringtons served on the plaintiff notice of discontinuance of its application for a new tenancy. That meant that, by virtue of s 64 of the 1954 Act, the continuation tenancy was terminated on 5 February 1991. On 15 February 1991 the master made a consent order on the plaintiff’s summons under s 24A determining the interim rent at £200,000 per annum.
The admitted effect of the determination was that Warringtons became liable to pay rent for the period between 25 March 1990 and 5 February 1991 at the yearly rate of £200,000, the apportioned amount for that period being £174,246.57. However, it continued to pay at the contractual rate and no more (£60,794.52), leaving a balance of £113,452.05. Warringtons having since gone into administrative receivership, the plaintiff may be assumed to have little hope of recovering the balance from it. In any event, it commenced the present action against the defendants by a writ issued in the Queen’s Bench Division on 9 August 1991. It claimed payment of £113,452.05. together with interest of £8,065.97 to date. It also claimed damages for dilapidations.
The plaintiff issued a summons for the determination of a point of construction and/or law under RSC Ord 14A and, if successful, for final judgment under Ord 14. It also issued a summons for final judgment under Ord 14 in respect of the claim for dilapidations. The summonses came on for hearing before Tudor Evans J in December 1991. On 20 December he gave judgment in open court for the plaintiff in the sum of £113,452.05, together with £14,313.08 in respect of interest. He granted the defendants leave to appeal and a stay of execution on terms which have been duly complied with. He also gave judgment for the plaintiff on its dilapidations claim for damages, interest and costs to be assessed
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and made an order for an interim payment of £30,000. No appeal is brought against the judge’s decision so far as it related to the dilapidations claim.
The first question raised by the defendants’ appeal was the principal question, on which Mr Denyer Green for the defendants, and Mr Brock for the plaintiff, were content to adopt the arguments advanced by Mr Neuberger and Mr Arden respectively. For the reasons already stated, that question must be resolved in favour of the defendants. It then becomes necessary to consider two subsidiary questions.
The subsidiary questions
The first subsidiary question is whether, by virtue of the particular provisions of the lease, the defendants were liable to pay the contractual rent of £70,000 per annum, not only during the contractual term, but also during the continuation tenancy under s 24(1). This is a very simple question. The combined effect of the reddendum and cl 2(1)(a) of the lease was that the defendants covenanted to pay the yearly rent of £70.000 during ‘the said term’ which, by cl 5(g), was defined to include, not only the contractual term, but also ‘the period of … any extension thereof whether by statute or at common law’. In other words, there was a covenant to pay the rent during the period of any statutory extension of the contractual term, ie by s 24(1) of the 1954 Act. The first subsidiary question must be decided in favour of the plaintiff.
The plaintiff, by its success on that question alone, cannot acquire any financial benefit as against the defendants. That is because it has already received the full amount of the contractual rent during the continuation tenancy from Warringtons. However, its success is a necessary preliminary to the second subsidiary question, which is whether the defendants are liable, not for the contractual rent, but for the interim rent instead. This question is almost as simple as its predecessor.
So far as material, s 24A provides:
‘(1) The landlord of a tenancy to which this Part of this Act applies may,—(a) if he has given notice under section 25 of this Act to terminate the tenancy … apply to the court to determine a rent which it would be reasonable for the tenant to pay while the tenancy continues by virtue of section 24 of this Act, and the court may determine a rent accordingly.
(2) A rent determined in proceedings under this section shall be deemed to be the rent payable under the tenancy …’
Mr Denyer Green submitted, correctly, that in a case such as the present ‘the tenant’ referred to in sub-s (1) can only be the assignee. He added that Parliament cannot have intended that an original tenant should be liable for payment of a rent which, although it might be reasonable for the assignee to pay, might be unreasonable for the original tenant to pay, especially when it fell to be determined in proceedings to which he would not be a party.
Although I see great force in that submission, it is unnecessary to resort to it in this case, where everything depends on the contract between the parties. All that the defendants covenanted to pay was the yearly rent of £70,000. True it is that they covenanted to pay it during the continuation tenancy. But they did not covenant to pay any other rent. They certainly did not covenant to pay an interim rent determined pursuant to s 24A and, the principal question having been decided as it has, they cannot be fastened with any liability to do so. I cannot accept Mr Brock’s submission that the deeming provision in sub-s (2) in some way translated the contract into one for payment of the interim rent. For these reasons
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the second subsidiary question must be decided in favour of the defendants. They are entitled to succeed on this appeal.
Tudor Evans J decided the principal question and both subsidiary questions in favour of the plaintiff. He dealt very briefly with the second subsidiary question. Having referred to Mr Denyer Green’s submission that the liability must be limited to £70,000 and having acknowledged its attraction, the judge rejected it, saying that s 24A was in the nature of a statutory rent review. That is no doubt correct as between the landlord and the assignee. With respect to the judge, it could only be correct as between the landlord and the original tenant if the terms of their contract allowed it. They did not allow it in the present case.
In this case I would allow the appeal and discharge para 1 of Tudor Evans J’s order dated 20 December 1991.
EVANS LJ. I agree with the judgments of Nourse LJ and Sir Michael Kerr.
In cases where the assignee is in occupation of the premises at the expiry of the contractual term, the ‘tenancy’ referred to in s 24(1) of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 is, in my judgment, the legal relationship which exists between the landlord and his tenant, the assignee. The period of that tenancy was the period of the original contractual term, but it does not follow that the statute has the effect of extending the original contract between the parties to it. Where, on the other hand, the original tenant and assignor has covenanted to pay rent during the contractual term and ‘the period of … any extension thereof whether by statute or at common law’, as in cl 5(g) of the lease in the second of these cases, then the landlord can enforce that covenant as a matter of contract against the original tenant during a statutory extension of the contractual term. This liability of the original tenant is not qualified, in my judgment, by the fact that the statutory extension would give the landlord no right against him, in the absence of contract.
SIR MICHAEL KERR. I agree, for the reasons stated in the judgment of Nourse LJ, that the appeal in City of London Corp v Fell should be dismissed and that the appeal in Herbert Duncan Ltd v Cluttons should be allowed. I only wish to add a few remarks, principally with reference to the relevant provisions of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954.
As Nourse LJ pointed out, when a tenancy has been assigned, the assignee becomes the tenant and the assignor ceases to be the tenant. If he is the person to whom the tenancy has been granted originally, or an intermediate assignee who has concluded a direct contract with the landlord, then their contracts will continue in the absence of any contrary provision. But they will no longer have any estate or interest in the land as tenants of it. The only tenant will be the assignee.
This state of affairs is clearly reflected in the 1954 Act. Leaving aside subleases, which are irrelevant for present purposes, the references in the Act to ‘the tenant’ designate only the tenant in occupation, not the original or any prior tenants who have parted with their interests by assignment. It is the tenant in occupation who can request a new tenancy under s 26 and it is his request which may be opposed by the landlord under s 30. It is his tenancy which is continued until the fate of his application is resolved pursuant to s 29 et seq, and it is in relation to his tenancy that an interim rent may meanwhile be determined pursuant to s 24A. The Act makes no reference to the continuation of any contract, only to the continuation of tenancies. Mr Arden QC submitted that there can be no tenancy without an underlying contract, and that in continuing tenancies the Act must
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impliedly also have the effect of continuing these underlying contracts. But this is clearly incorrect. Where an assignee of a tenancy does not enter into a direct contract with his landlord the relationship between them will rest on privity of estate alone, without any privity of contract. Depending on the contractual terms, privity of contract with the landlord may continue in relation to the original tenant and any intermediate assignee who has entered into a direct contract with him. But the Act does not continue these contracts and has no effect upon them.
In this context it is interesting, and at first sight perhaps surprising, to note that the Act makes no reference to the assignment of leases in the ordinary way. The only direct reference to assignment is to be found in s 42(2)(c) which deals with groups of companies and provides that ‘an assignment of the tenancy from one member of the group to another shall not be treated as a change in the person of the tenant’. It therefore follows that in that case, but in that case alone, an assignor is treated as though he continued to be the tenant, which he would not be otherwise.
Since the contract contained in the lease granted by the City of London Corp contained no provision for the payment of rent after the expiry of the contractual term, and since the Act has no effect upon this contract, it must follow that the claim for rent after its expiry must fail against the original tenant. On the other hand, cl 5(g) of the lease granted by Herbert Duncan contained such a provision. This was clearly directed, at least in part, to the effect of s 24 of the Act, with the result that there would be a liability in the original tenant for the original rent during any statutory continuation of the tenancy under the Act if the rent is not paid by the tenant in occupation. But nothing in the lease is directed to s 24A. The term or period of the lease is continued, together with the contractual rights and obligations for which the lease provides. These obviously include payment of the contractual rent. But they do not include payment of any increased rent which may be payable by the tenant in occupation pursuant to s 24A.
Appeal in City of London Corp v Fell dismissed.
Appeal in Herbert Duncan Ltd v Cluttons (a firm) allowed.
Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused in both cases.
Frances Rustin Barrister.
Take Harvest Ltd v Liu and another
[1993] 2 All ER 459
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases: LAND; Sale of Land: CONTRACT
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND SIR CHRISTOPHER SLADE
Hearing Date(s): 1, 2 FEBRUARY, 9 MARCH 1993
Lease – Surrender – Surrender by operation of law – Creation of new tenancy – No express grant of new lease – Parties not intending tenant to have new tenancy on different terms from former tenancy – Whether doctrine of surrender of tenancy and creation of new tenancy by operation of law applying.
Sale of land – Contract – Memorandum – Contract for disposition of land – Oral contract for disposition of land – Oral contract for surrender of lease – Reliance on oral contract by way of defence – Landlord refusing to accept surrender and claiming rent beyond surrender date – Whether tenant entitled to rely on oral contract for surrender of lease as defence to landlord’s claim – Whether tenant in substance seeking to enforce oral contract – Conveyancing and Property Ordinance (Hong Kong), s 3.
The tenants sold a residential apartment in Hong Kong to the landlord subject to a leaseback of the premises to the tenants under a tenancy agreement dated 29 October 1990 for one year from 18 October 1990 at a monthly rent of $HK55,000. The landlord was entitled to terminate the tenancy by one month’s prior notice in writing, the tenants having agreed to take the leaseback of the premises so as to keep them tenanted while the landlord looked for a suitable tenant. Clause 5(a) of schedule 2 to the agreement provided for the tenants to pay to the landlord a deposit of $HK110,000 as security for the observance of the tenants’ covenants and entitled the landlord to deduct therefrom the amount of any rent or other charges payable which were in arrear. Clause 5(b) provided that the deposit was to be refunded to the tenants by the landlord within 15 days after the expiration or sooner determination of the agreement and the delivery of vacant possession of the premises to the landlord. On 9 November 1990 the parties orally agreed that the tenants would surrender their tenancy on or before 30 November 1990 and that the landlord, who had a prospective tenant for the premises, would accept the surrender. However, on 15 November the landlord requested the tenants to stay as his prospective tenant had decided not to take a lease of the premises. The tenants signed a lease for another apartment on 29 November and at the same time informed the landlord that they intended vacating the premises on 10 December. On 11 December the tenants sent the landlord a fax stating that they were relinquishing the premises and requesting a refund of the deposit less outstanding rent to 10 December 1990. The landlord refused to accept a surrender of the agreement and refused to refund the deposit. The tenants brought an action claiming the return of the deposit less $HK42,167 outstanding rent. The landlord counterclaimed that the tenancy agreement had come to an end on 11 February 1991, when he re-entered, and claimed arrears of rent at the rate of $HK55,000 per month from 18 November 1990 to 11 February 1991 and a declaration that he was entitled to forfeit the deposit. The judge held that since the oral agreement of 9 November 1990 had not been reduced to writing there had been no determination of the tenancy agreement or surrender of the remainder of the term, but the agreement of 9 November 1990 had been binding and effective to create a new tenancy from 9 November to 30 November 1990 which was statutorily continued beyond 30 November 1990 until it was
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determined on 10 January 1991 by one month’s notice given by the tenants on 11 December 1990, so that the tenants’ obligation to pay rent carried on until 10 January 1991. The judge accordingly held that the tenants were entitled to the repayment of $HK12,833 representing the balance of the deposit after deduction of rent for the period from 18 November 1990 to 10 January 1991 plus interest. An appeal by the landlord was allowed by the Hong Kong Court of Appeal, which held that the tenants were liable for rent up to 11 February when the landlord re-entered and accordingly ordered that judgment be entered for the landlord for $HK44,354. The tenants appealed to the Privy Council. At the hearing of the appeal the landlord applied for leave to rely on s 3a of the Hong Kong Conveyancing and Property Ordinance, which required contracts for the sale or other disposition of land to be in writing, in order to argue that the tenants could not rely on the oral agreement for the purpose of defeating the landlord’s claim for rent up to 11 February 1991. The tenants applied for leave to plead and argue that there had been part performance of the oral agreement of 9 November 1990, so as to render s 3 inapplicable, and/or that, since the tenants had acted in reliance on the agreement, the landlord was estopped from seeking to enforce the provisions for payment of rent in respect of any period after 10 December 1990, when the tenants vacated the premises.
Held – (1) The doctrine that a new tenancy could be created by operation of law on the surrender of a tenancy without the express grant of a new lease because only the creation of a new tenancy would achieve the result intended by the landlord and the tenant applied only where the parties intended that the tenant should have a new tenancy on different terms from those of his former tenancy. In cases where the parties did not have that result in mind, the grant of a new tenancy with a consequent surrender by operation of law would not be inferred. In reaching the agreement of 9 November 1990 the parties never thought of or contemplated a new 21-day tenancy and were not intending to do any more than agree a surrender of the subsisting tenancy. A term of that agreement, by necessary implication, was that the tenants should not be charged rent in respect of a period after they had surrendered the tenancy in accordance with the agreement. It followed that, subject to the impact of s 3 of the ordinance, if the oral agreement were to be given full force the tenants would be liable for rent up to, but not beyond, 10 December 1990 (see p 468 b to e j to p 469 a f to j, post); Sidebotham v Holland [1891–4] 4 All ER Rep 617 applied; dictum of Russell LJ in Jenkin R Lewis & Son Ltd v Kerman [1970] 3 All ER 414 at 419 explained.
(2) An oral contract which did not conform with the requirement in s 3 of the ordinance that contracts for the sale or other disposition of land had to be in writing if they were to be enforceable could not be invoked as a defence to a claim by the other contracting party to recover money paid under the contract if the party relying on the oral agreement by way of a defence was in substance seeking to enforce it. Although the tenants were in form seeking to rely on the oral agreement as a defence to the landlord’s claim for rent up to 11 February 1991 they were in substance seeking to enforce the agreement both to obtain the return of their deposit and to give effect to their rights under the agreement to meet the landlord’s claim for rent up to 11 February 1991. It followed that, subject to the possible operation of the doctrines of part performance and/or estoppel, s 3 of the ordinance deprived the tenants of the right to rely on the oral agreement for the purpose of defeating the landlord’s claim for rent up to 11 February 1991. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed in part but the case would be remitted
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to the district court to determine, on amended pleadings and fresh evidence, whether those doctrines applied to defeat the operation of s 3 of the ordinance (see p 471 d to j, p 472 f g and p 473 d to f j to p 474 b, post); Thomas v Brown (1876) 1 QBD 714, Perpetual Executors and Trustees Association of Australia Ltd v Russell (1931) 45 CLR 146 and Steadman v Steadman [1974] 2 All ER 977 considered.
Notes
For surrender of a lease by operation of law, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 446, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 192–195, 10336–10352.
For the necessity to have a memorandum of contract on the sale or disposition of land, see 42 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 27, and for cases on the subject, see 40 Digest (Reissue) 41, 163–166.
Section 3 of the Hong Kong Conveyancing and Property Ordinance corresponds to s 40 of the Law of Property Act 1925. For s 40 of the 1925 Act, see 37 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 122.
Cases referred to in judgment
Couvell v Hodkisson (1961) 179 EG 497.
Delaney v T P Smith Ltd [1946] 2 All ER 23, [1946] KB 393, CA.
Elsden v Pick [1980] 3 All ER 235, [1980] 1 WLR 898, CA.
Fenner v Blake [1900] 1 QB 426, DC.
Lewis (Jenkin R) & Son Ltd v Kerman [1970] 3 All ER 414, [1971] Ch 477, [1970] 3 WLR 673, CA.
McDonald v Windaybank (1975) 120 SJ 96.
Perpetual Executors and Trustees Association of Australia Ltd v Russell (1931) 45 CLR 146, Aust HC.
Sidebotham v Holland [1895] 1 QB 378, [1891–4] All ER Rep 617, CA.
Steadman v Steadman [1974] 2 All ER 977, [1976] AC 536, [1974] 3 WLR 56, HL.
Thomas v Brown (1876) 1 QBD 714, DC.
United Marketing Co v Hasham Kara [1963] 2 All ER 553, [1963] 1 WLR 523, PC.
Appeal and cross-appeal
Take Harvest Ltd (the landlord) appealed with leave granted by the Court of Appeal of Hong Kong from the decision of that court (Cons V-P, Kempster and Penlington JJA) given on 10 April 1992 allowing the landlord’s appeal from the decision of Deputy Judge Bharwaney in the District Court on 15 January 1992 in proceedings brought by George Liu and Susan Liu (the tenants) against the landlord claiming the return of the deposit of $HK110,000 paid by them as security for the observance of the tenants’ covenants under a lease dated 29 October 1990 of premises comprising the second floor of Wilfred Apartment at 110 Repulse Bay Road, Hong Kong, by which the judge held that the tenants were entitled to the repayment of $12,833 representing the balance of the deposit after deduction of rent for the period from 18 November 1990 to 10 January 1991 plus interest. The landlord’s appeal to the Board was in respect of the Court of Appeal’s decision that the landlord should pay to the tenants three-quarters of the costs of the appeal and their full costs in the court below. The tenants cross-appealed from the decision of the Court of Appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Edward Nugee QC and Benjamin Chain (of the Hong Kong Bar) (instructed by Philip Conway Thomas) for the landlord.
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Gavin Lightman QC and Mervyn Merry (of the Hong Kong Bar) (instructed by Macfarlanes) for the tenants.
9 March 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
SIR CHRISTOPHER SLADE. This appeal and cross-appeal raise two principal issues. The first is whether an oral agreement to surrender a subsisting lease within a period not exceeding three years, which by s 3 of the Hong Kong Conveyancing and Property Ordinance (the ordinance) is rendered unenforceable, should be held to operate as an agreement to create a new lease taking effect in possession for a term enduring for a corresponding period, and whether or not there is evidence that the parties intended to create such a new lease. The second concerns the impact of s 3 in a case where one of the parties to the oral agreement to surrender asserts that it is relying on such agreement solely by way of defence.
The relevant premises comprise the second floor of Wilfred Apartment at 110 Repulse Bay Road, Hong Kong. They originally belonged to a company controlled by the plaintiffs in these proceedings, George Liu and his wife Susan Liu (the tenants), but were subsequently sold to the defendant Take Harvest Ltd (the landlord) subject to a leaseback of the premises to the tenants. The leaseback was effected by a tenancy agreement of 29 October 1990, which provided for the grant of a term of one year from 18 October 1990 at a monthly rent of $HK55,000 and entitled the landlord to terminate the tenancy by one month’s prior notice in writing. Clause 5(a) of schedule 2 provided for the tenants to pay to the landlord a deposit of $HK110,000 as security for the observance of the tenants’ covenants and entitled the landlord to retain it for his own benefit throughout the term with power ‘to deduct therefrom the amount of any rent or other charges payable hereunder which is in arrear’. Clause 5(b) provided that subject as aforesaid the deposit should be refunded to the tenants by the landlord within 15 days after the later to occur of two specified contingencies, the relevant contingency for present purposes being ‘the expiration or sooner determination of this Agreement and the delivery of vacant possession of the Premises … to the Landlord …’
The deposit was duly paid and the tenancy agreement was suitably indorsed on behalf of the Commissioner of Rating and Valuation, with the result that it fell outside Pt IV of the Landlord and Tenant (Consolidation) Ordinance, which requires a landlord to give his tenant notice (of a specified length) of termination of his tenancy and gives the tenant the right to apply to the Lands Tribunal for the grant of a new tenancy. The tenants had always been on very amicable terms with Henry Lau, a director of the landlord. They had agreed to take a leaseback of the premises so as to keep them tenanted while Mr Lau looked for a suitable tenant. Although the agreement provided for a term of one year, they were prepared to move out on short notice.
On 9 November 1990, 11 days after the signing of the tenancy agreement, Mr Lau informed Mr Liu in a telephone conversation that he had a prospective tenant for the premises and inquired when the tenants could move out. Though there was a conflict of evidence on this important point, the trial judge, Deputy Judge Bharwaney, found that Mr Liu telephoned and spoke to Mr Lau a second time on 9 November, that when he made that second call he offered to move out by the end of the month and that ‘Henry Lau, on behalf of Take Harvest, accepted that offer and invited the Lius to move out earlier, if possible’. The trial judge further found that ‘Henry Lau did not take care to express a rider to the effect that the matter was subject to confirmation or words to that effect’ and that, though Mr Lau believed that he had not reached any agreement with Mr Liu
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regarding the termination of the tenancy agreement by the end of November 1990, ‘a binding agreement was reached in this case’. Subject to the operation of s 3 of the ordinance, this finding has not been challenged on this appeal.
The tenants, with the assistance of Mr Lau, who had experience in the real estate business, then sought alternative accommodation for themselves. Mr Lau himself was also occupied in attempting to conclude arrangements with a prospective tenant of the premises. The events and discussions between the parties between 9 November and 10 December 1990 are recited in detail in the trial judge’s careful judgment. In this context for present purposes it will suffice to mention only a few of them. On 13 November the tenants arranged, subject to contract, to take a lease of an apartment in Kennedy Road, Hong Kong. By 15 November, however, the prospective tenant had decided not to take a lease of the premises in Wilfred Apartment. On that day Mr Lau requested Mr Liu to delay the commencement of the Kennedy Road lease or to cancel it altogether and offered to pay the legal costs involved. At the trial, the tenants did not plead or rely on any estoppel. The trial judge, however, said:
‘… if it had been contended that the statements made by Henry Lau on 9 November 1990 gave rise to an estoppel against Take Harvest, I would have found, given the fact that the Lius were not legally bound to take up the lease of the Kennedy Road apartment, that Henry Lau’s offer, on 15 November 1990, to shoulder wasted legal costs would have removed any detriment that could have been suffered by the Lius, and would have enabled Take Harvest to revert to the strict legal position pertaining on 9 November 1990 before the creation of any estoppel against it, whether of the promissory variety or of the classic type, arising out of representations made by Henry Lau, on behalf of Take Harvest, on that day.’
The tenants did not commit themselves in response to Mr Lau’s request. Over the succeeding days, the parties had a number of conversations, the tenor of which showed Mr Lau’s attitude changing from a polite request to the tenants to delay moving out to his firm insistence that they could not do so until a new tenant had entered into a binding agreement to take up the premises. On 23 November 1990 Mr Liu sent to him a facsimile message stating that the tenants could not delay their move beyond 10 December 1990. Mr Lau replied contending that they were not entitled to do this. The trial judge accepted that the date 10 December originated from the tenants and that Mr Lau had never agreed to that particular day as the day on which they could vacate the premises. On 29 November 1990 Mrs Liu signed the tenancy agreement for the Kennedy Road apartment. On 7 December Mr Liu and Mr Lau had a meeting at which, as the trial judge found—
‘George Liu informed Henry Lau that the Lius were moving out on the 10th, like it or not. Henry Lau refused to accept the keys and insisted that it was wrong of them to move out.’
On 10 December 1990 the tenants moved out of the premises. On that day Mr Liu called Mr Lau and asked him what he should do with the keys. Mr Lau told him that he was not accepting a surrender and suggested that the best thing for both of them would be if he left the keys with the tenant of the first floor premises which were also owned by the landlord. This was done the next day.
On 11 December 1990 Mr Liu sent to Mr Lau a facsimile message in which he said:
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‘… I am right now relinquishing the premises to you and would like to ask you to refund our deposit of $110,000 proportional to the date that we have vacated the premises.’
The tenants had paid rent up to 17 November 1990 but not thereafter. The landlord declined to repay the deposit and for its part claimed repayment of outstanding rent. Though, according to the findings of the trial judge, the parties had entered into a contract under which the tenants agreed to surrender their lease on or before 30 November and the landlord had agreed to accept such surrender, the tenants, with the consent of the landlord, had continued in occupation of the premises until 10 December. They were plainly liable for rent at least up to that date, if not beyond it (as the landlord has at all times contended). The outstanding rent for the period from 18 November to 10 December 1990 amounted to $42,167. On 11 February 1991 the landlord re-entered the premises in purported exercise of a right of re-entry conferred by the tenancy agreement.
On 26 February 1991 the tenants instituted proceedings in the District Court of Hong Kong claiming the return of $67,833 (representing their deposit of $110,000 less $42,167) plus interest. In their particulars of claim, to justify their claim to such repayment, they pleaded the relevant provisions of the tenancy agreement (including cl 5(a) and (b) of schedule 2) and the payment of the deposit and alleged:
‘(5) On or about 9th November 1990 a Mr Henry Lau of the Defendant called to George H. Liu of the Plaintiffs asking the Plaintiffs to terminate the Tenancy Agreement by delivering vacant possession of the Premises to the Defendant as soon as possible because the Defendant had found a tenant who was willing to take up the Premises.
(6) At a later time on the 9th November 1990, George H. Liu of the Plaintiffs accepted the Defendant’s proposal to terminate the Tenancy Agreement and vacate the Premises by the end of November 1990. It was further agreed that the rental for the period from 18th November 1990 to the date of delivery of vacant possession should be deducted from the Deposit.’
They further alleged:
‘(13) Pursuant to the agreement made on the 9th November 1990, the Plaintiffs had vacated the Premises on 10th December 1990 and on the 11th December 1990 delivered the key to the domestic helper in the 1st Floor of Wilfred Apartment as suggested by Henry Lau of the Defendant.’
Section 3 of the ordinance (which is in similar terms to s 40 of the Law of Property Act 1925 of England, replacing part of s 4 of the Statute of Frauds (1677)) provides:
‘Land contracts to be in writing
(1) Subject to section 6(2), no action shall be brought upon any contract for the sale or other disposition of land unless the agreement upon which such action is brought, or some memorandum or note thereof, is in writing and signed by the party to be charged or by some other person lawfully authorised by him for that purpose.
(2) This section applies to contracts or other dispositions whenever made and does not affect the law relating to part performance …’
Section 4 provides:
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‘Legal estate to be disposed of etc. by deed
(1) A legal estate in land may be created, extinguished or disposed of only by deed.
(2) This section does not apply to … (c) a surrender by operation of law, including a surrender which may, by law, be effected without writing; (d) the grant, disposal or surrender of a lease taking effect in possession for a term not exceeding 3 years (whether or not the lessee is given power to extend the term) at the best rent which can be reasonably obtained without a premium …’
Section 6 provides:
‘Creation of interest in land by parol
(1) All interests in land created by parol and not put in writing and signed by the persons creating the same, or by their agents thereunto lawfully authorised in writing, have, notwithstanding any consideration having been given for the same, the force and effect of interests at will only.
(2) Nothing in section 3 or 5 or in subsection (1) shall affect the creation by parol of leases taking effect in possession for a term not exceeding 3 years (whether or not the lessee is given power to extend the term) at the best rent which can be reasonably obtained without a premium.’
It is clear (and now common ground) that (a) the contract alleged in paras (5) and (6) of the particulars of claim would constitute ‘a contract for the disposition of land’ within the meaning of s 3 of the ordinance and (b) a defence based on s 3 (like any defence based on s 40 of the Law of Property Act 1925 in England) has to be specially pleaded if it is to be relied on at a trial in the courts of Hong Kong.
No reference to s 3, however, was made in the formal defence to the action filed on behalf of the landlord. The defence and counterclaim denied the oral agreement alleged to have been concluded on 9 November 1990 and any liability to the tenants. It asserted that the tenancy agreement had come to an end on 11 February 1991 by the landlord’s re-entry, and claimed arrears of rent at the rate of $55,000 per month from 18 November 1990 to 11 February 1991 and a declaration that the landlord was entitled to forfeit the deposit. A reply and defence to counterclaim filed by the tenants raised no plea of estoppel based on the oral agreement of 9 November 1990. However, it repeated paras 5 to 15 of the particulars of claim and thus reasserted that oral agreement.
At the trial, counsel for the landlord did not pursue its claim to forfeit the deposit and limited its counterclaim to $44,354.80, being the arrears of rent calculated up to 11 February 1991 less the amount of the deposit.
The relevant findings of fact made by the trial judge have been summarised above. On the basis of these findings, he reached (in summary) the following conclusions of law. (a) Since the oral agreement of 9 November 1990 providing for the determination of the tenancy agreement and the surrender of the remainder of the term was not reduced to writing, the tenants, in order to resist the landlord’s claim for rent, had to persuade him that there had been a surrender by operation of law (which by s 4(2)(c) of the ordinance is exempted from the requirement in s 4(1) that a term of years may be disposed of only by deed). (b) There was no surrender by operation of law arising from any conduct of Mr Lau amounting to an acceptance of possession by the landlord prior to 11 February 1991 or raising an estoppel against the landlord. (c) However, the oral agreement of 9 November 1990 was binding and effective to create a new tenancy for a term from 9 November to 30 November 1990. (d) This new tenancy was
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exempted from the requirement of writing by s 6(2) of the ordinance. (e) The new tenancy was inconsistent with the continuation of the former tenancy and accordingly the former tenancy was surrendered by operation of law. (f) The new tenancy was continued beyond 30 November 1990 by s 117 of the Landlord and Tenant (Consolidation) Ordinance. (g) The new tenancy was determined on 10 January 1991 by one month’s notice given in accordance with s 119B(2) of the latter ordinance by Mr Liu’s facsimile message dated 11 December 1990, so that the tenants’ obligation to pay rent ceased on 10 January 1991.
In the light of these conclusions the trial judge in his judgment of 15 January 1992 held that the tenants were entitled to the repayment of $12,833 representing the balance of the deposit after deduction of rent for the period from 18 November 1990 to 10 January 1991 plus interest. He dismissed the counterclaim and made an order nisi as to costs, on both the claim and the counterclaim, in favour of the tenants.
On 11 February 1992 the trial judge heard an application by the landlord (a) for leave to amend the defence and counterclaim so as to plead, inter alia, s 3 of the ordinance and (b) to review his decision on the grounds that the agreement of 9 November 1990 did not have the effect of creating an oral tenancy for a term expiring on 30 November 1990.
The trial judge dismissed the application with costs but gave the landlord leave to appeal from his judgment of 15 January 1992. With this leave, the landlord appealed to the Court of Appeal of Hong Kong, which by an order of 10 April 1992 allowed the appeal. Neither party sought to disturb the trial judge’s findings of fact. By its notice of appeal, however, the landlord challenged the finding of surrender by operation of law while, by their respondent’s notice, the tenants sought to support the trial judge on grounds of estoppel in relation to which, though not pleaded, he had made a finding adverse to them. As to estoppel the court found it unnecessary to express an opinion. Kempster JA pointed out that, contrary to the trial judge’s view, s 6(2) of the ordinance could not be prayed in aid in relation to the new parol lease held to have come into existence since it did not provide for the best rent which could reasonably be obtained without a premium. He continued:
‘It would therefore be unenforceable but, being nonetheless valid, effective to work a surrender of the existing written lease by operation of law if the intention of the parties could not otherwise be implemented. There was no other way. In the absence of writing, the existing lease could not be varied and an agreement to surrender it on 30 November could not be enforced. On this somewhat laconic basis I would affirm the judge’s finding on the law in relation to surrender.’
Cons V-P and Penlington JA agreed with this conclusion. However, during the course of the argument, the court had questioned the correctness of the trial judge’s conclusion that the facsimile letter of 11 December 1990 constituted a sufficient notice to comply with s 119B(2) of the Landlord and Tenant (Consolidation) Ordinance. Though given the opportunity to do so, counsel for the landlord did not seek to amend his notice of appeal to argue this point. In giving judgment, the court unanimously held that the facsimile letter of 11 December 1990 did not constitute such sufficient notice and that the tenants accordingly remained liable for rent up to 11 February 1991 when the landlord re-entered. In the result the court, by its order of 10 April 1992, allowed the appeal, set aside the trial judge’s judgment and ordered that judgment be entered for the landlord in the sum of $44,354.80. However, inasmuch as the landlord
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had succeeded on a point which had not been taken in the notice of appeal—and indeed which the landlord’s counsel had expressly declined to take—the court ordered that the landlord should pay to the tenants three-quarters of the costs of the appeal and their full costs in the court below.
Subsequently the landlord applied to the Court of Appeal for leave to appeal to Her Majesty in Council from that part of its order which related to costs, primarily on the grounds that the court had erred in upholding the finding of the trial judge that on the facts as found there was a surrender by operation of law. On giving leave, the Court of Appeal recognised that the point was one of importance in the context of Hong Kong, where most interests in land are of a leasehold nature. The tenants then sought and obtained leave to cross-appeal, with the object of establishing that their liability for rent terminated on a date earlier than 11 February 1991.
Did the oral agreement of 9 November 1990 give rise to a new tenancy?
In Jenkin R Lewis & Son Ltd v Kerman [1970] 3 All ER 414 at 419, [1971] Ch 477 at 496 Russell LJ, delivering the judgment of the Court of Appeal, summarised a set of circumstances in which, on well-established principles, a lease will be treated as having been surrendered by operation of law:
‘If a tenant holding land under a lease accepts a new lease of the same land from his landlord he is taken to have surrendered his original lease immediately before he accepts the new one. The landlord has no power to grant the new lease except on the footing that the old lease is surrendered and the tenant by accepting the new lease is estopped from denying the surrender of the old one. This “surrender by operation of law” takes effect whether or not the parties to the new lease intend it to take effect. Moreover, even if there is no express grant of a new lease the old lease will be surrendered by operation of law if the arrangements made between the landlord and the tenant are such as can only be carried out so as to achieve the result which they have in mind if a new tenancy is in fact created.’
On the facts of that case, however, the court held that an agreement between a landlord and tenant for an increase in the rent did not result in a surrender of the existing tenancy and the creation of a new tenancy. As Russell LJ observed ([1970] 3 All ER 414 at 420, [1971] Ch 477 at 496):
‘Viewing the matter apart from authority it is difficult to see why the fiction of a new lease and a surrender by operation of law should be necessary in this case; for by simply increasing the amount of the rent and providing that the additional rent shall be annexed to the reversion, one is not altering the nature of the pre-existing item of property.’
The trial judge, in giving judgment on the landlord’s application for review, having cited in full the first of these two passages from Russell LJ’s judgment, said:
‘The present case falls within the latter category. If my conclusion that there was a grant of an oral tenancy is no more than a legal fiction, or, to borrow from the same judgment of Russell LJ ([1970] 3 All ER 414 at 420, [1971] Ch 477 at 496), “the fiction of a new lease”, then so be it—I have reached that conclusion in order to give effect to the oral agreement reached between the parties on 9 November 1990.’
In his original judgment he had cited the decision in Fenner v Blake [1900] 1 QB
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426 as authority for the proposition that ‘although an oral agreement to surrender a lease is per se ineffective, it may nevertheless bring about a surrender by operation of law’.
In the Court of Appeal Kempster JA, who delivered the leading judgment, made a passing reference to Fenner v Blake. However, both he and Cons V-P principally relied on the judgment of Russell LJ in Jenkin R Lewis & Son Ltd v Kerman as authority for the proposition that in the present case the oral agreement to surrender the subsisting tenancy gave rise to a new tenancy.
With respect to both courts below, their Lordships consider that this conclusion involved a misinterpretation of Russell LJ’s judgment and a misunderstanding of the relevant law. The substantial result which the landlord and tenant ‘have in mind’ in making their arrangements in the hypothetical case postulated by Russell LJ is that the tenant shall have a new tenancy of the premises on different terms from those of his former tenancy, whether or not they realise that the law would analyse their agreement as having the effect of the grant of a new tenancy and a surrender of the former tenancy. In cases where the parties do not have this substantial result in mind, the grant of a new tenancy (with a consequent surrender by operation of law) will not be inferred. This is made additionally clear by the illustrations given by Russell LJ by way of example (see [1970] 3 All ER 414 at 420, [1971] Ch 477 at 496).
In the present case there was no evidence whatever that, in reaching the agreement of 9 November 1990, the parties ever thought of or contemplated a new 21-day tenancy. On the trial judge’s findings, they were intending to do no more than agree a surrender of the subsisting tenancy. The courts below appear to have considered that, because s 3 of the ordinance rendered such agreement unenforceable, they were obliged or entitled to invoke the fiction of a new tenancy, because this was the only way to give legal effect to the agreement for a surrender. Their Lordships consider this conclusion to be contrary to principle and authority.
In Sidebotham v Holland [1895] 1 QB 378, [1891–4] All ER Rep 617 the plaintiff agreed to let a house to the defendant on a yearly tenancy, beginning on 19 May 1890. In late 1893 the plaintiff gave the tenant notice to quit on 19 May 1894 and subsequently brought an action to recover possession of the house. The defendant disputed the validity of the notice to quit and also set up an alleged oral agreement made in December 1892 that the tenancy should not be terminated till November 1895. The Court of Appeal rejected both defences. As to the alleged promise by the landlord not to turn the tenant out, Lindley LJ, giving the reserved judgment of himself and Lord Halsbury, said ([1895] 1 QB 378 at 385, [1891–4] All ER Rep 617 at 620–621):
‘Unfortunately, however, the promise was a verbal one; it was not to be performed within a year, and the Statute of Frauds precludes the defendant from enforcing it. Under these circumstances it is impossible to hold the notice bad on this ground. An argument was advanced that this verbal agreement created a new lease until November, 1895, and that the term created by the written agreement of 1890 was impliedly surrendered. But it is familiar law that whether an agreement operates as a demise or as an agreement only depends on the intention of the parties. Now, in this case it is plain that no new lease was ever thought of or intended by either party, and it would not be right to invent one in order to get the defendant out of the difficulty in which the absence of a written agreement places her.’
Their Lordships accept the landlord’s submission that this passage, mutatis
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mutandis, is directly applicable in the present case. It would not be right to invent a fictitious new tenancy supposed to have subsisted from 9 November to 30 November 1990 simply in order to avoid the consequences of the agreement for surrender made on 9 November 1990 having failed to comply with the requirements of writing contained in s 3 of the ordinance.
Finally in the context of this point of law brief reference should be made to Fenner v Blake [1900] 1 QB 426, on which both courts below placed some reliance. On the facts of that case the Divisional Court held that an action for ejectment against a tenant by a landlord under a yearly tenancy was maintainable on the grounds, inter alia, that an oral agreement to surrender a tenancy, though ineffective as an agreement to surrender because of the Statute of Frauds, amounted to the grant and acceptance of a new tenancy, and that the acceptance of the new tenancy caused a surrender of the old one. The extempore judgments of Channell and Bucknill JJ were very short and the findings of fact, if any, made by the county court judge as to the parties’ intentions are not clear from the report.
On the facts as reported, however, it would seem that no intention in the parties to create a new tenancy could properly have been inferred and that, insofar as the Divisional Court implied the grant and acceptance of a new tenancy, its decision was therefore probably erroneous (though it may have been justified on the alternative stated ground of estoppel).
In the event, before this Board Mr Lightman QC on behalf of the tenants did not seek to dispute the contention of Mr Nugee QC on behalf of the landlord that the oral agreement of 9 November 1990 gave rise to no new tenancy. It is thus common ground that an essential link in the reasoning which led both courts below to their ultimate (albeit different) conclusions was erroneous, as their Lordships now conclude. The consequences are far-reaching; the case must now be looked at entirely afresh.
The essential facts, however, can now be restated very shortly. On 9 November 1990 the parties orally agreed that the tenants should surrender their tenancy on or before 30 November 1990 and that the landlord should accept the surrender. A term of this agreement, by necessary implication, was that the tenants should not be charged rent in respect of a period after they had surrendered the tenancy in accordance with the agreement. Mr Liu’s evidence, which the trial judge appears to have accepted, was that on 9 November Mr Lau had expressly suggested that the rental for the period before the vacation of the premises should be deducted from the deposit. In the event the tenants continued in occupation of the premises until 10 December 1990, but this was with the consent, indeed at the request, of the landlord; it has not been suggested that this involved a repudiation by the tenants of the oral agreement. On 10 December 1990 the tenants vacated the premises as they were entitled to do. Though the landlord would not accept the attempted surrender of the tenancy by the tenants, they did all that was in their power to restore possession of the premises to the landlord. Save to the extent that, by mutual agreement of the parties, the tenants continued in occupation of the premises for ten days after 30 November 1990, there are no grounds for supposing that the oral agreement of 9 November 1990 was subsequently either varied or rescinded; no such rescission or further variation was pleaded or proved in evidence.
In these circumstances, if full force is to be given to that oral agreement, but subject to the impact of s 3 of the ordinance, their Lordships regard it as plain that the tenants would be liable for rent up to, but not beyond, 10 December 1990. This leaves for consideration the crucially important question of the impact of s 3.
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The impact of s 3 of the ordinance
As stated above, the landlord in its defence to the tenants’ action did not plead s 3 and its application to the trial judge for leave to amend the pleading after judgment was refused. No application for leave to amend was made to the Court of Appeal. Against this background, at an early stage of the hearing before this Board, Mr Nugee for the landlord applied for leave to rely on s 3. This application was strongly opposed by Mr Lightman for the tenants, who submitted that it was far too late for the landlord to invoke the section. On grounds which will be explained hereafter, Mr Lightman further informed the Board that he would seek to argue that s 3 could not in any event afford a defence to the landlord against the tenants’ claim to repayment of part of the deposit. If, however, the Board did not accept that submission but were to permit the landlord to rely on s 3, he submitted that justice would require that the case be remitted to the District Court of Hong Kong, so that the tenants should be given the opportunity to plead and argue that there had been part performance of the oral agreement of 9 November 1990, so as to render s 3 inapplicable, and/or that, since the tenants had acted in reliance on the agreement, the landlord was estopped from seeking to enforce the provisions for payment of rent in respect of a period after 10 December 1990, when the tenants vacated the premises.
Their Lordships consider that the landlord’s failure to plead s 3 was a substantial cause of the wrong course taken by these proceedings until they reached this Board. On the other hand, so also was the tenants’ failure to plead estoppel and their reliance on Fenner v Blake, a decision which in their Lordships’ view led the lower courts to misdirect themselves in law. In the very exceptional circumstances of this case, their Lordships thought it right, in the exercise of their discretion, to accede to the application made by the landlord’s counsel for leave to rely on s 3, while at the same time permitting the tenants’ counsel by way of response to advance and develop the arguments summarised above.
The next question therefore is whether s 3 of the ordinance can in law afford any assistance to the landlord on the facts of the present case. Mr Lightman submitted that an oral agreement which is unenforceable because of that section (or s 40 of the English Law of Property Act 1925) is (a) none the less valid and binding and (b) available as a defence in the same way and to the same extent as any enforceable contract. In the present case, he submitted, the tenants’ claim was not an action to enforce the oral agreement because they were suing for return of the balance of the deposit under cl 5 of schedule 2 to the tenancy agreement and relying on the oral agreement solely by way of defence to counterclaim.
Their Lordships have been referred to a number of authorities relating to the legal effects of the absence of writing in cases where s 40 of the English Law of Property Act 1925 or equivalent sections have rendered an oral contract unenforceable. ‘It must be remembered that this legislation did not and does not make oral contracts relating to land void; it only makes them unenforceable’ (see Steadman v Steadman [1974] 2 All ER 977 at 981, [1976] AC 536 at 540 per Lord Reid). Furthermore, as Viscount Dilhorne pointed out in the same case ([1974] 2 All ER 977 at 990, [1976] AC 536 at 551), while s 40 of the Law of Property Act 1925 and s 4 of the Statute of Frauds both prohibit the bringing of an action on such a contract, neither Act explicitly prohibits it being relied on in defence. There is authority for the proposition that a contract not complying with the Statute of Frauds can still give rise to a good defence to a claim by the other contracting party to recover money paid in pursuance of it: see Thomas v Brown (1876) 1 QBD 714. Their Lordships are disposed to think that Gavan Duffy
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CJ, Starke and McTiernan JJ in their joint judgment in the High Court of Australia in Perpetual Executors and Trustees Association of Australia Ltd v Russell (1931) 45 CLR 146 at 153 went a liule too far in saying that ‘neither at law nor in equity can a claim unenforceable by action because of the Statute be enforced by counterclaim or defence’ (our emphasis). Reference in this context may be made to an article by Professor James Williams ‘Availability by way of defence of contracts not complying with the Statute of Frauds’ (1934) 50 LQR 532.
Nevertheless, as Evatt J pointed out in the Russell case (at 157), if in any such situation it were open to a party by way of pleaded defence to set up and prove an oral agreement, much of the mischief which the statutory provisions were designed to avoid would continue. The courts have therefore been rightly very cautious before acceding to a submission that a party seeking to rely on an oral agreement is seeking to invoke the oral agreement as a shield rather than a sword—in other words is not seeking to enforce the agreement: see eg Delaney v T P Smith Ltd [1946] 2 All ER 23, [1946] KB 393 and McDonald v Windaybank (1975) 120 SJ 96, where such a submission was advanced but rejected.
Their Lordships cannot accept in its unqualified form the proposition that, in cases such as this, an oral agreement is available as a defence in the same way and to the same extent as any enforceable contract. If due regard is to be paid to the statute, the question in any given case must be whether the party who relies on the oral agreement is in substance seeking to enforce it. If he is so seeking, it matters not whether he happens to be plaintiff or defendant in the proceedings or whether, as a matter of formal pleading, he is seeking to enforce the oral agreement by way of claim, defence, counterclaim or otherwise (cf Delaney v T P Smith Ltd [1946] 2 All ER 23 at 26-27, [1946] KB 393 at 399-401 per Wynn-Parry J). In any such case due effect must be given to the statute.
In the present proceedings their Lordships are satisfied that the tenants must be regarded as seeking in substance to enforce the oral agreement of 9 November 1990. The point may be tested in this manner. Prima facie cl 5(b) of schedule 2 to the tenancy agreement governed the tenants’ right to repayment of their deposit. Prima facie, when the tenants sought the return of the balance of their deposit after 10 December 1990 none of the contingencies specified in cl 5(b), which would entitle them to the return of this balance, had yet occurred. They were therefore obliged to rely on the oral agreement of 9 November 1990 for the purpose of justifying their claim to repayment and indeed did rely on it in paras (5), (6) and (13) of their particulars of claim. In these circumstances, it is clear that they were seeking to enforce the oral agreement at least insofar as they sought return of their deposit (less the rent due up to 10 December 1990).
But then, it is submitted, when the landlord subsequently counterclaimed for rent in respect of a period after 10 December and the tenants relied on the oral agreement by way of defence to this counterclaim, the tenants were not seeking to enforce the oral agreement. This submission cannot be accepted. If regard is confined to the only relevant written document (the tenancy agreement), the landlord was in the events which happened entitled to receive rent up to February 1991. In order to meet that claim, the tenants were obliged to ask and (in their reply and defence to counterclaim) did ask the court to give effect to their rights under the oral agreement. Thus, once again, they were seeking in substance to enforce that agreement, within the meaning of s 3 of the ordinance.
The situation in the present case is different from that in Thomas v Brown (1876) 1 QBD 714. In that case the purchaser of land paid to the vendor a deposit on account of the purchase money. Later she decided not to proceed with the purchase and brought an action to recover the deposit as on a failure of
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consideration, contending that the contract did not comply with the statute and hence could not be relied on by the defendant to justify the retention of the money. Though the court’s expressed grounds for rejecting this unmeritorious claim are not perhaps entirely clear, the decision may well be justifiable for reasons which can be gleaned from Professor Williams’s article already referred to. Though the contract was not enforceable, it was not a nullity and there was nothing in the statute to prevent any court which might have to exercise jurisdiction in the matter from inquiring into and taking notice of the truth of the facts. Those facts would presumably have shown that the property in the money paid by way of deposit had passed to the vendor. Accordingly, in resisting the purchaser’s claim, the vendor was not seeking in substance to enforce the oral contract; he was merely asking the court to recognise the title to the money which he had already acquired by virtue of the valid, though unenforceable, contract.
The only cited authority which appeared to give direct support to the tenants’ submissions in this context was a decision of first instance, Couvell v Hodkisson (1961) 179 EG 497. The facts of that case bore at least a superficial similarity to those of the present case insofar as the plaintiff landlord, despite the existence of a prior oral agreement for the surrender of the lease, was seeking to recover rent in respect of a period after the agreed date of surrender. Buckley J dismissed the claim. In the course of his judgment, as reported, he said:
‘Here the first defendant was not seeking to bring an action on this contract. He was seeking to use it as a weapon of defence, as, in his [Buckley J’s] judgment, he was entitled to do, notwithstanding the absence of a written memorandum, and the plaintiff could not use the absence of a memorandum to cloak or justify her own breach of the agreement.’
Their Lordships have some doubts as to the correctness of this part of Buckley J’s decision. The case, however, is only very briefly reported and there may be material distinctions from this case on the facts. In particular it is to be observed that the proceedings in that case were not initiated by a claim on the tenants’ part founded on the oral agreement.
For the reasons stated, their Lordships conclude that, subject to the possible operation of the doctrines of part performance and/or estoppel, s 3 of the ordinance must deprive the tenants of the right to rely on the oral agreement for the purpose of defeating the landlord’s claim for rent up to 11 February 1991.
Part performance and estoppel
In response to the tenants’ invitation to the Board to give them the opportunity to rely on the doctrine of estoppel, Mr Nugee drew attention to the fact that the point was not pleaded and that, though it was dealt with briefly (and rejected) by the trial judge, it was not argued before him. He submitted that, if the point had been pleaded or raised at the trial, its resolution might have necessitated a good deal of further evidence as to the background of the matter and the relationship between the parties. In his submission, in accordance with the practice of the Board illustrated by such cases as United Marketing Co v Hasham Kara [1963] 2 All ER 553, [1963] 1 WLR 523, the tenants should not be allowed to raise and argue this point for the first time in the Privy Council.
As to part performance, Mr Nugee in the course of argument accepted that rather different considerations applied. He accepted that if the landlord were given leave to pursue the point based on s 3, which had not been pleaded and argued at the trial, it could not be right to preclude the tenants from pursuing, in
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direct response to that point, such arguments as might be available to them based on the principle of part performance. He submitted, however, that the principle could be of no avail to the tenants, on the simple ground that it can never apply to a contract for the surrender of a lease. If acts are to qualify as acts of part performance, he submitted, they must be in furtherance of the relevant contract, and not merely by way of recognition of its existence (see Elsden v Pick [1980] 3 All ER 235 at 240, [1980] 1 WLR 898 at 905 per Shaw LJ). If a tenant merely vacates the premises without the landlord retaking possession of them, this, it was submitted, cannot constitute part performance in the relevant sense.
The decision of the House of Lords in Steadman v Steadman [1974] 2 All ER 977, [1976] AC 536 shows that alleged acts of part performance have to be considered in their surrounding circumstances and must at the very least point, on the balance of probabilities, to the existence of a contract. The mere vacation by a tenant of the tenanted property cannot, by itself and without more, constitute an act of part performance because viewed in isolation it is equally consistent with the existence or non-existence of a contract to surrender the tenancy. Their Lordships, however, are not persuaded that on the facts of the present case the tenants would necessarily fail in establishing part performance of the oral agreement of 9 November 1990, in one way or another, if they were given the opportunity to plead and argue it and support it by appropriate evidence at a new hearing. They consider that in fairness the tenants should be given such opportunity to rebut the landlord’s newly advanced plea based on s 3 of the ordinance at a remitted hearing in the District Court of Hong Kong.
Much the same considerations apply to the question of estoppel. The tenants’ position in this context is perhaps somewhat weaker, in that they could reasonably have been expected to plead and rely on estoppel in the District Court, even though s 3 had not been pleaded by the landlord. However, the only reason why the tenants now seek to rely on estoppel is that the landlord has been given by this Board the great indulgence of permission to rely on s 3 at this very late stage. Their Lordships consider that in all the circumstances indulgence should in justice similarly be shown to the tenants in relation to estoppel and that they should be given the opportunity to plead and argue it and support it, so far as they are able, by appropriate evidence at the remitted hearing.
Costs
Regrettably, due to errors on both sides, these proceedings have taken a wrong course more or less from the beginning and even now cannot be finally disposed of by this Board. Their Lordships consider that the responsibility for these errors cannot fairly be attributed more to one party than the other and that as yet it cannot be said that one side, rather than the other, has emerged the victor. In all the circumstances, notwithstanding submissions to the contrary by counsel on both sides, their Lordships consider that the fair order to make in regard to costs is that each party shall pay its own costs both of the trial before the trial judge, the application to review his decision and of the hearings before the Court of Appeal and this Board. The costs of the remitted hearing will of course fall to be dealt with by the District Court of Hong Kong.
Conclusion
Their Lordships, who are indebted to counsel on both sides for their admirable arguments, will therefore humbly advise Her Majesty that: (1) the landlord’s appeal and the tenants’ cross-appeal should each be allowed in part; (2) the orders of the trial judge and of the Court of Appeal should be set aside; (3) the landlord
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should have leave to amend its defence and counterclaim so as to plead s 3 of the ordinance; (4) the tenants should have leave to amend their reply and defence to counterclaim so as to plead part performance and estoppel; (5) the case should be remitted to the District Court of Hong Kong finally to adjudicate on the parties’ respective rights, having regard to this Board’s judgment and the amended pleadings and any further evidence adduced by the respective parties in support or rebuttal of the pleas of part performance and estoppel, and (6) each party should pay its own costs both of the trial before the trial judge, the application to review his decision and of the hearings before the Court of Appeal and their Lordships’ Board.
Appeal and cross-appeal allowed in part; case remitted to District Court of Hong Kong for further consideration.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Horseferry Road Magistrates’ Court and another, ex parte Bennett
[1993] 2 All ER 474
Categories: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WOOLF LJ AND PILL J
Hearing Date(s): 31 JULY 1992
Extradition – Disguised extradition – Deportation to United Kingdom – Applicant arrested in South Africa and put on aircraft bound for England – Applicant arrested on arrival in England and charged – Applicant alleging he was brought within jurisdiction by improper collusion between South African authorities and Metropolitan Police – Whether alleged collusion between South African authorities and Metropolitan Police amounting to abuse of process of court – Whether court having power to inquire into circumstances in which applicant brought within jurisdiction.
In November 1990 the applicant, who was born in New Zealand, was arrested in South Africa, having allegedly entered that country on a false passport. He was put on an aircraft bound for London and when he arrived in England on 28 January 1991 he was arrested on criminal charges. He was subsequently brought before magistrates, who committed him for trial in the Crown Court on those charges. The applicant sought judicial review of the magistrates’ decision to commit him for trial, claiming that he had been brought within the jurisdiction as a result of disguised extradition or kidnapping. He alleged that the South African police had indicated that he would be deported to New Zealand but had then arranged with the Metropolitan Police that he would journey via England to enable him to be arrested and tried in England. He contended that the subterfuge and complicity between the Metropolitan Police and the South African authorities to obtain his presence within the jurisdiction to enable him to be arrested amounted to an abuse of the process of the court and that it would be wrong and improper for him to be tried in England.
Held – The court had no power to inquire into the circumstances in which a defendant in criminal proceedings was found to be within the jurisdiction since the circumstances in which he came to be within the jurisdiction had nothing to do with the process of the court, which could not be abused by the fact that he might have been brought within the jurisdiction improperly. The circumstances
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in which he came to be within the jurisdiction merely explained how he came to be within the jurisdiction so that the process of the court could commence. Accordingly, where a defendant in criminal proceedings alleged that he had been brought before the court as a result of the complicity of the British authorities that could not amount to an abuse of the process of the court. It followed that the defendant’s application would be dismissed (see p 478 a b, p 479 b c and p 480 d e g, post).
R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681 followed.
Per curiam. (1) The appropriate remedy for a defendant who claims that he has been brought within the jurisdiction improperly as the result of complicity between the United Kingdom police and foreign authorities is either to invoke such rights as he has under international law or to invoke the civil jurisdiction of the English courts to provide redress for what occurred overseas (see p 480 c d, post).
(2) The court may have a residual discretion in limited circumstances to grant relief if the prosecution themselves were involved in improper conduct which has caused the defendant to be brought within the jurisdiction so that he could be arrested and tried on criminal charges, but the court’s intervention in such a case would not be on the basis of abuse of process but on some other basis which could in appropriate circumstances avail a person in such a situation (see p 479 c to p 480 b, post).
Notes
For seizure of persons in violation of international law, see 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1534.
Cases referred to in judgments
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, [1964] 2 WLR 1145, HL.
DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, [1976] 2 WLR 857, HL.
Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464, NZ CA.
R v Bow Street Magistrates, ex p Mackeson (1981) 75 Cr App R 24, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, [1993] 1 WLR 693, DC.
R v Guildford Magistrates Court, ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108, DC.
R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199, NZ CA.
R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95, [1985] 3 WLR 689, DC.
R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 46, [1980] AC 402, [1979] 2 WLR 439, CA; affd [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402, [1979] 3 WLR 263, HL.
R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, [1991] 2 WLR 866, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169, [1992] QB 630, CA.
Ker v Illinois (1886) 119 US 436, US SC.
R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p DPP (1992) Independent, 31 January, DC.
R v Brixton Prisoner Governor, ex p Soblen [1962] 3 All ER 641, [1963] 2 QB 243, CA.
R v Garrett, ex p Sharf [1917] 2 KB 99, CA.
R v O/C Depot Battalion RASC Colchester, ex p Elliott [1949] 1 All ER 373, DC.
R v Thames Magistrates’ Court, ex p Polemis [1974] 2 All ER 1219, [1974] 1 WLR 1371, DC.
Page 476 of [1993] 2 All ER 474
S v Ebrahim 1991 (2) SA 553, SA App Div.
Scott, Ex p (1829) 9 B & C 446, 109 ER 166.
Sinclair v DPP [1991] 2 All ER 366, [1991] 2 AC 64, HL.
Sinclair v HM Advocate (1890) 17 R (J) 38, Ct of Sess.
US (ex rel Lujan) v Gengler (1975) 510 F 2d 62, US Ct of Apps (2nd Cir); cert denied 421 US 1001, US SC.
US v Toscanino (1974) 500 F 2d 267, US Ct of Apps (2nd Cir).
Application for judicial review
Paul James Bennett applied, with the leave of McCullough J given on 11 September 1991, for judicial review by way of (1) an order of certiorari to quash the criminal proceedings preferred against him by the Crown Prosecution Service in the Horseferry Road Magistrates’ Court and (2) an order of certiorari to quash the order of the Horseferry Road Magistrates’ Court made on 22 May 1991 committing the applicant for trial in the Crown Court at Southwark on those criminal charges. The facts are set out in the judgment of Woolf LJ.
Alan Newman QC and Brian Jubb (instructed by Hallinan Blackburn Gittings & Nott) for the applicant.
Colin Nicholls QC and Robert Fischel (instructed by Crown Prosecution Service, Inner London) for the prosecution.
31 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
WOOLF LJ. This application for judicial review raises an important point of law on a preliminary issue as to the ability of magistrates and this court to grant relief where it is alleged that someone has been brought within the jurisdiction of this court as a result of what is described by Mr Newman QC on behalf of the applicant as ‘disguised extradition’ or ‘kidnapping’. The application is made by Mr Paul James Bennett and arises, shortly, in these circumstances.
On 5 November 1990 the applicant, who was born in New Zealand, entered South Africa on, what was alleged to be, a false passport. He was arrested in South Africa on 28 January 1991. The applicant was, to use a neutral term, transported from South Africa to this country. He arrived on 22 February 1991 when he was arrested and subsequent to that criminal proceedings were brought against him which resulted in his being committed for trial by the Horseferry Road magistrate. The applicant contends that he was unlawfully removed from South Africa by the South African police. Although it was indicated that he was being removed to New Zealand, he alleges that he travelled via this country because of complicity between the South African authorities and the authorities in this country, including the Metropolitan Police, the journey to New Zealand via this country being a subterfuge to enable him to be arrested and then tried in this country.
On 22 July 1992 this court ordered that there should be tried as a preliminary issue the question as to whether or not the judgment of this court in R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95 had the effect of preventing the applicant relying on what he contends are the circumstances which resulted in his being before the British courts as a basis for establishing that there had been an abuse of court process which means it would be wrong and improper for him to be tried in this country.
The account given by the applicant in his evidence as to the circumstances in which he came to be in this country is in dispute and, although I have indicated what his version of the situation is, it should not be thought that that is necessarily a correct account. However, for the purposes of the preliminary issue, I will assume that he can establish that there has been collusion between the United Kingdom executive and the Metropolitan Police, other than the Crown Prosecution
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Service who are responsible for the criminal proceedings, and the South African police concerning his detention in and removal from South Africa.
The issue is clearly an important one and 5.15 pm on the last day of term would not normally be the most appropriate time to deal with this issue. However, the court is satisfied that the matter can be properly dealt with now as a result of the very helpful arguments which the court has had from both Mr Newman QC on behalf of the applicant and Mr Nicholls QC on behalf of the prosecution. The court has well in mind the period that the applicant has now been in custody in this country and that it would be wrong that his application to this court should result in that period being prolonged if this can be avoided.
Before coming to the primary issue which the court has to determine, it is necessary to consider the point raised by Mr Nicholls as to the appropriateness of this court hearing the application for judicial review, bearing in mind what happened before the magistrate. As to what occurred there, I would set out the description which is contained in the affidavit of Howard Lawrence Cohen, which reads as follows:
‘5. Prior to 22nd May I became aware that the Applicant would seek to argue a jurisdictional point in that the deportation was a disguised form of extradition. Counsel was instructed on behalf of the Crown Prosecution Service to conduct the committal proceedings and he was advised of the point being taken.
6. On 22nd May 1991 the matter came again before G.B. Breen Esq., and the Defence made an application to adjourn the case in order to argue the jurisdictional point. The learned Stipendiary Magistrate indicated that he was extremely unhappy with the application, particularly in view of the events of 24th April 1991, and would be extremely reluctant to grant any such application. He further indicated that, in his view he was bound by R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex parte Driver and he could not enquire into the circumstances which resulted in the Defendant being found within the jurisdiction. He also indicated that he had read the papers in the case, as he had been requested to do, and his preliminary view was that there was ample evidence to commit the Defendant to the Crown Court.’
Mr Nicholls submits that, when that situation is examined, the proper forum in which to consider the arguments which the applicant wishes to raise is no longer on an application for judicial review in respect of the decision of the magistrates but should be made on an application for judicial review, if necessary, of any decision which is made by the Crown Court if such an application for judicial review would then be appropriate. He submits that an application could have been made in the Crown Court prior to the applicant pleading to the indictment on the grounds of lack of jurisdiction or abuse of process. A recent decision of this court indicates that, if there is a motion to quash the indictment on the basis of lack of jurisdiction, then that is a matter which can be the subject of an application for judicial review. I have in mind R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, [1993] 1 WLR 693 involving Mr Huckfield. However, I am satisfied that it would be appropriate to consider the present application in respect of the magistrate’s decision to commit.
The matter was dealt with in the manner described by Mr Cohen because, not unreasonably, the applicant’s legal advisers took the indication given by the magistrate as a decision that having regard to R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95 he had no jurisdiction to consider the present issue. That being so, it would have been pointless to have delayed the proceedings in the magistrates’ court by developing the sort of arguments that
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have been advanced before this court before the magistrate with a view to trying to alter his opinion. The application for judicial review is therefore well founded.
I turn, therefore, to consider the preliminary issue which was identified by this court at the previous hearing. R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver clearly establishes that there is no power in a court either to inquire into the circumstances in which a person is found within the jurisdiction for the purpose of refusing to try him, or to prohibit his trial, or to refuse to try a person who had been lawfully arrested within the jurisdiction for a crime committed here. In coming to that conclusion, the court regarded R v Bow Street Magistrates, ex p Mackeson (1982) 75 Cr App R 24 and R v Guildford Magistrates’ Court, ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108 as being decided per incuriam.
As far as the facts which were before the court in Ex p Driver are concerned, Mr Newman accepts that that case covers the present situation but he submits that the present case can be distinguished from Ex p Driver because of the alleged complicity of the British authorities in what occurred and, in particular, the involvement of the Metropolitan Police. He recognises that there are obiter statements, and he is correct to so describe them, in the decision of Ex p Driver which indicate that, even in the circumstances that I have just described, the court would have no jurisdiction to investigate the matter but he submits that those statements are not binding on this court. They are however clearly of very persuasive authority.
In the course of giving the principal judgment of the court, Stephen Brown LJ said in Ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681 at 690, [1986] QB 95 at 113–114:
‘It is not in fact contested that an irregularity outside the jurisdiction of this court without any improper dealing by the authorities here would not amount to an abuse of process sufficient for a court to refuse to try such a person. The submission is made on the facts of this case that there is no evidence of improper dealing on the part of the authorities here. All that the Devon and Cornwall police did was, first, to inquire of the whereabouts of the suspected person, and, second, to invite the Turkish authorities acting within their powers to make such arrangements as would enable the Devon and Cornwall police to interview the fugitive. He submits that there was no irregular or improper dealing on the part of the Devon and Cornwall police or any other English authority. The evidence before this court does not establish any impropriety, illegality or collusion on the part of the Devon and Cornwall police in relation to any unlawful act which the Turkish authorities may have committed in requiring the applicant to leave Turkey.’ (Stephen Brown LJ’s emphasis.)
However, in addition to dealing with the case on that basis, Stephen Brown LJ subjected the previous authorities to a vigorous scrutiny and he concluded by saying ([1985] 2 All ER 681 at 697, [1986] QB 95 at 123):
‘After careful consideration of the authorities to which counsel for the Secretary of State has referred this court, I have come to the conclusion that his second proposition is well founded, that is to say that the court has no power to inquire into the circumstances in which a person is found in the jurisdiction for the purpose of refusing to try him …’
And he then adds that in that respect he is differing from the decision in Ex p Mackeson (1982) 75 Cr App R 24.
This court has been given the opportunity of reconsidering the authorities cited to Stephen Brown LJ in Ex p Driver and the authorities which have been decided since that time in so far as they take the matter further.
Page 479 of [1993] 2 All ER 474
In my judgment, the authorities which postdate Ex p Driver do not conclusively decide the present issue as to which is the preferable decision: the decision in Ex p Driver or the decision of this court in Ex p Mackeson which was regarded as being decided per incuriam by Stephen Brown LJ.
However, quite apart from authority, I am bound to say it seems to me that the approach of Stephen Brown LJ, in general, must be correct. The power which the court is exercising, and the power which the court was purporting to exercise, in Ex p Mackeson is one which is based upon the inherent power of the court to protect itself against the abuse of its own process. If the matters which are being relied upon have nothing to do with that process but only explain how a person comes to be within the jurisdiction so that that process can commence, it seems to me difficult to see how the process of the court (and I emphasise the word ‘court’) can be abused by the fact that a person may or may not have been brought to this country improperly.
When Ex p Mackeson is examined, you find that the judgment of Lord Lane CJ appears to be accepting that general approach. As the holding in the headnote indicates (75 Cr App R 24 at 25):
‘… although the Court had jurisdiction to hear the charges against the applicant since by whatever means he had arrived in the United Kingdom he was subject to arrest by the police force in the United Kingdom, and the mere fact that his arrival might have been procured by illegality did not in any way oust the jurisdiction of the court.’
None the less it appears that the court, without identifying the source of its jurisdiction to do so on the basis of a decision of the Court of Appeal in New Zealand in R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199, came to the conclusion that it was possible to intervene.
When R v Hartley is examined, it is clear that at least in part the decision in that case was influenced by the provision which was examined in the judgments of the court which gives a very wide jurisdiction to a judge, a jurisdiction which is not reflected even in the provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 in this country. However, in addition, R v Hartley has been reconsidered by the Court of Appeal in New Zealand in the later decision of Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464. In that later case Richmond P did indicate that he was not necessarily still of the same view as that which he had expressed in R v Hartley. Referring to that case, which also involved a Mr Bennett, he said (at 470):
‘… I am now inclined to the view that Bennett’s case could not have been properly disposed of on the basis that the prosecution was an abuse of process. That is because I now see difficulty in using the oppressive conduct of the police towards Bennett to support an argument that the process of the Supreme Court was itself being abused. However my purpose in mentioning the matter is merely to sound a warning. The question whether illegal or “unfair” conduct by the police in the course of investigating a crime can so taint a subsequent prosecution as to render it an abuse of process must remain for determination in a suitable case.’
Woodhouse J, on the other hand, appears to have still been of the same view as he had been previously (see [1980] 1 NZLR 464 at 476).
Mr Nicholls submits that if one examines the authorities in other jurisdictions, the position is in accord with that indicated by Stephen Brown LJ in Ex p Driver. Speaking for myself, I am not satisfied that there could not be some form of residual discretion which in limited circumstances would enable a court to intervene, not on the basis of an abuse of process but on some other basis which
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in the appropriate circumstances could avail a person in a situation where he contends that the prosecution are involved in improper conduct.
However, having regard in particular to the approach which can be observed from the speeches of Lord Scarman and Lord Diplock in R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402, and the judgment of Roskill LJ in the Court of Appeal in the same case (see [1979] 2 All ER 46 at 60–63, [1980] AC 402 at 421–423), I am satisfied that that residual discretion could only be invoked in a situation where it can be shown that the prosecution—and I am here drawing a distinction between the prosecution and the police—were themselves involved in the improper conduct which occurred. In this case there is no suggestion that the Crown Prosecution Service have not behaved with perfect propriety and, this being so, the present case does not come within that area.
It seems to me that in respect of improper conduct of the sort which is alleged to exist in this case, the remedy of a person in the applicant’s position must either be to invoke such rights as he has under international law or to invoke the civil and not the criminal jurisdiction of the courts of this country to provide him with redress for what occurred in South Africa and his being brought to this country. In other words, civil causes of action, in so far as they avail him, in particular under the law of tort, are the ones to which he has to go for redress. The prosecution itself in his case is a perfectly proper prosecution. The only matters of which he claims to have grounds of complaint is how he came to be within the jurisdiction so that that prosecution could take place. But the prosecution, being a proper one, there being no abuse in the procedures and process of that prosecution, it seems to me that the preliminary issue must be determined in the respondent’s favour and, accordingly, as this preliminary issue is decisive of the application, the application has to be dismissed.
PILL J. I agree. Mr Newman QC places particular reliance upon the decision of this court in R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78 and the authorities there considered, including the decisions of the House of Lords in Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254 and DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1. The concern of the court in Ex p Badhan was that those who appear before courts should have a fair trial. That line of cases does not, in my judgment, provide authority for the proposition that the court can or should prevent a prosecution because of the means by which the defendant’s presence within the jurisdiction has been obtained.
Accepting as I do for present purposes the facts as the applicant claims them to be, there is, in my judgment, no jurisdiction in the court to quash the proceedings.
I agree with the judgment of Woolf LJ.
Application dismissed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: whether a court has power to inquire into the circumstances by which a person has been brought within the jurisdiction and if so what remedy is available, if any, to prevent his trial where that person has been lawfully arrested within the jurisdiction for a crime committed within the jurisdiction.
3 December. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords gave leave to appeal.
Raina Levy Barrister.
Palk and another v Mortgage Services Funding plc
[1993] 2 All ER 481
Categories: LAND; Mortgages
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C, BUTLER-SLOSS LJ AND SIR MICHAEL KERR
Hearing Date(s): 3, 31 JULY 1992
Mortgage – Redemption – Order for sale – Application for sale of mortgaged property by mortgagor – Price negotiated for sale of property not sufficient to discharge mortgage debt – Mortgagee refusing to consent to sale – Mortgagee wishing to rent house and wait for improvement in house prices – Rental income likely to be well below amount of interest saved by mortgagor if property sold – Whether court can direct sale of mortgaged property against mortgagee’s wishes when large part of debt remaining unsecured and outstanding – How court should exercise discretion to direct sale of mortgaged property against mortgagee’s wishes – Law of Property Act 1925, s 91(2).
In January 1990 the first plaintiff obtained an advance of £300,000 from a finance company which was secured by a mortgage over the house owned by him and his wife, the second plaintiff. The plaintiffs met the first three mortgage instalments but when the first plaintiff’s business started to founder they were unable to make any further payments. Subsequently the first plaintiff’s company became insolvent and went into liquidation. The plaintiffs decided to sell the house despite a slump in the property market at the time and in March 1991 they negotiated a sale for £283,000. By that time the amount required to redeem the mortgage, including arrears, was £358,587. Despite the shortfall the plaintiffs wished to proceed with the sale in order to stop interest accruing on the debt but the finance company refused to agree, wishing instead to let the house on a short-term lease and sell at some future date when the housing market improved. It was common ground that the annual revenue by way of rent which the property was capable of generating fell far below the amount of interest which the plaintiffs would save if the property were sold. The finance company obtained an order for possession which was suspended pending an application by the plaintiffs for an order that the house be sold pursuant to s 91(2)a of the Law of Property Act 1925, which provided that any person interested in the right of redemption of a mortgaged property could apply to the court for an order for sale. The judge dismissed the application on the grounds that an order for sale could only be made against a mortgagee’s wishes if the property could be sold for an amount which would discharge the mortgage debt or if security was provided for that amount. The wife appealed.
Held – The court had an unfettered discretion to direct a sale of mortgaged property under s 91(2) of the 1925 Act against a mortgagee’s wishes and notwithstanding the fact that a large part of the mortgage debt would remain unsecured and outstanding. In exercising that discretion the court would have regard to the interests of all concerned and to what, in all the circumstances, was just and equitable. Furthermore, the court would not decline to direct a sale if the alternative would be manifest unfairness. In all the circumstances of the case, which was exceptional, it would be just and equitable for the court to direct a sale since (i) the rental under the proposed letting would fall significantly short of the interest which would be saved if the house were sold, (ii) the likelihood of the
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wife suffering increased loss if the finance company’s plan were to proceed was so high as to make the plan oppressive to her since her liability would be open-ended and would increase indefinitely, and that far outweighed the prospect of any gain the finance company might make from its proposed realisation of the house, and (iii) the wife should not be compelled to participate in and underwrite the risk which the finance company wished to take. If the finance company wished to take that risk it could, as mortgagee, buy the property and wait and see what happened to house prices in the future. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 488 a c to p 489 a f g, p 490 c e f, p 491 e, p 492 b and p 493 a, post).
Merchant Banking Co of London v London and Hanseatic Bank (1886) 55 LJ Ch 479 and China and South Sea Bank Ltd v Tan [1989] 3 All ER 839 considered.
Notes
For the jurisdiction of court to order sale in foreclosure proceedings, see 32 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 849, and for cases on the subject, see 35 Digest (Reissue) 444–445, 3909–3912.
For the Law of Property Act 1925, s 91, see 37 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 205.
Cases referred to in judgments
China and South Sea Bank Ltd v Tan [1989] 3 All ER 839, [1990] 1 AC 536, [1990] 2 WLR 56, PC.
Hurst v Hurst (1852) 16 Beav 372, 51 ER 822.
McHugh v Union Bank of Canada [1913] AC 299, PC.
Merchant Banking Co of London v London and Hanseatic Bank (1886) 55 LJ Ch 479.
Union Bank of London v Ingram (1882) 20 Ch D 463, CA.
Woolley v Colman (1882) 21 Ch D 169.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Brewer v Square [1892] 2 Ch 111.
Clark v Pannell (1884) 29 SJ 147.
Countrywide Banking Corp v Robinson [1991] 1 NZLR 75, NZ CA.
Exchange and Hop Warehouses Ltd v Association of Land Financiers (1887) 34 Ch D 195.
Jefferys v Dickson (1866) LR 1 Ch App 183, LC.
Norman v Beaumont [1893] WN 45.
Parker-Tweedale v Dunbar Bank plc [1990] 2 All ER 577, [1991] Ch 12, CA.
Potters Oils Ltd, Re [1986] 1 All ER 890, [1986] 1 WLR 201.
Rhymney Valley DC v Pontygwindy Housing Association Ltd [1976] LS Gaz R 405.
Silsby v Holliman [1955] 2 All ER 373, [1955] Ch 552.
Smithett v Hesketh (1890) 44 Ch D 161.
Teevan v Smith (1881) 20 Ch D 724, CA.
Appeal
The second plaintiff, Margaret Palk, the wife of the first plaintiff, Anthony Malcolm Ronald Palk (now a bankrupt), appealed from the decision of Judge Lovegrove QC sitting in the Eastbourne County Court on 12 November 1991 whereby he dismissed the plaintiffs’ application for an order for sale of The Thatch, Warren Lane, Cross-in-Hand, Heathfield, East Sussex owned by the plaintiffs and mortgaged to the respondent, Mortgage Services Funding plc (Mortgage Services). The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Donald Nicholls V-C.
Anthony Rimmer (instructed by Meredith Smith & Pratt, Tonbridge) for Mrs Palk.
Page 483 of [1993] 2 All ER 481
Gavin Lightman QC and Michael Kay (instructed by Lewis Silkin) for Mortgage Services.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. Anthony Palk is a victim of the recession. In January 1990 he obtained an advance of £300,000 from Mortgage Services Funding plc (Mortgage Services). The loan was secured by a mortgage over the house owned by him and his wife Margaret: The Thatch, Warren Lane, Cross-in-Hand, Heathfield, East Sussex. The formal mortgage deed was dated 6 April 1990. Mr Palk met the instalments due in February, March and April but he was unable to make any more payments. His business started to founder, and his company went into insolvent liquidation.
In July 1990 Mr Palk realised he could not cope with the mounting arrears under the mortgage and his other debts. He resolved to sell the house. As everyone knows, the housing market has been experiencing considerable difficulty for some time. Ultimately in March 1991 Mr Palk negotiated a sale for £283,000. The amount required to redeem the mortgage, including the arrears, was £358,587. He wished to proceed with the sale despite the shortfall because that would at least stop interest accruing on most of the debt. The house was also subject to two further mortgages, and the second and third mortgagees were prepared to agree to the sale at this price. No doubt they realised there was no prospect of obtaining anything from their security. Mortgage Services declined to agree. So on 19 June 1991 Mr and Mrs Palk applied to the Eastbourne County Court for an order that the house should be sold.
Meanwhile, Mortgage Services had obtained an order for possession. The order was suspended pending the outcome of Mr and Mrs Palk’s application. It has remained suspended pending the outcome of this appeal. Although Mortgage Services is seeking possession its object is not to sell the house at present. The company does not intend to put the house on the market. It believes the best course is to let the property on a short-term lease and to sell when the market improves.
This course of action did not, and does not, commend itself to the Palks. For a postponement of sale to be worth while, housing prices would have to rise faster than the rate of interest payable under the mortgage after deducting the amount of the rent obtainable from the proposed letting. The sum due under the mortgage is increasing by about £43,000 a year. Lettings are unlikely to yield more than £13,000 or £14,000 per annum. So the overall debt would continue to grow by a sum approaching £30,000 each year. Moreover, the likely rental would not even match the interest the Palks would save if the house were sold and they were credited with the net proceeds of sale. Even in this respect, which I shall refer to as ‘the income shortfall’, there would be a significant shortfall. The Palks see no prospect of the housing market recovering at a rate fast enough to overtake the income shortfall or, still less, the rate at which their overall debt is increasing steadily month by month.
On 12 November 1991 Judge Lovegrove QC dismissed their application for an order for sale. He did so ‘with a good deal of regret’. He held that the law is that an order for sale can only be made against a mortgagee’s wishes if the property can be sold for an amount which will discharge the mortgage debt or if security is provided for that amount. That was not the position here.
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Mr Palk is now bankrupt. His wife has appealed against the judge’s decision. The amount, including interest, now owing under the mortgage is approximately £409,000.
The statute
The jurisdiction being invoked by Mrs Palk is statutory. Section 91(2) of the Law of Property Act 1925 provides:
‘In any action, whether for foreclosure, or for redemption, or for sale, or for the raising and payment in any manner of mortgage money, the court, on the request of the mortgagee, or of any person interested either in the mortgage money or in the right of redemption, and, notwithstanding that—(a) any other person dissents; or (b) the mortgagee or any person so interested does not appear in the action; and without allowing any time for redemption or for payment of any mortgage money, may direct a sale of the mortgaged property, on such terms as it thinks fit, including the deposit in court of a reasonable sum fixed by the court to meet the expenses of sale and to secure performance of the terms.’
The origin of this subsection is s 48 of the Chancery Amendment Act 1852. As originally enacted, the section only empowered the court to make an order for sale in the course of foreclosure proceedings. Its object was to enable the court in its discretion to direct a sale ‘in order to avoid the great delay and expense occasioned by foreclosure and redemption, in a case where there is a great number of successive mortgages’: per Romilly MR in Hurst v Hurst (1852) 16 Beav 372 at 374–375, 51 ER 822 at 823. Romilly MR added:
‘The power given to the Court … is at the instance of the first mortgagee, to direct a sale if it should think fit, or at the instance of a second or any puisne incumbrancer, with the consent of the prior incumbrancer; or if they do not consent, then upon ordering such sum of money to be paid into Court as the Court may think necessary to protect them.’
In 1881 s 48 of the 1852 Act was replaced by s 25(2) of the Conveyancing and Law of Property Act of that year. In all material respects, s 25(2) of the 1881 Act was worded the same as s 91(2) of the 1925 Act. Under the new section the court could direct a sale at any time. In Union Bank of London v Ingram (1882) 20 Ch D 463 at 464 Jessel MR observed that the new Act was to be construed liberally:
‘The Act is a remedial Act, one effect of it being to allow a mortgagor whose property is worth more than the mortgage-money, but who cannot raise it, to obtain a sale and get the benefit of the surplus. The Act being remedial is to be construed liberally. The Court has power to impose terms so as to take care that no injustice shall be done to anyone, and I think that the Legislature has given it jurisdiction to make the order at any time before foreclosure absolute.’
Likewise Brett LJ said (at 465):
‘This is an enabling and remedial statute intended to give the Court a very beneficial power, and I do not see any reason to cut down the words of the enactment …’
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The practice
As one would expect, if a mortgagee seeks to foreclose the court will only direct a sale contrary to his wishes if repayment of his debt is fully secured. This can be achieved by fixing a suitable reserve price for a sale, or by requiring the mortgagor to make a payment into court. Thus in Woolley v Colman (1882) 21 Ch D 169 a mortgagor in a redemption action sought an order for sale. Sale was opposed by the first and second mortgagees. Fry J directed a sale but fixed a reserve price sufficient to protect their interests. In Merchant Banking Co of London v London and Hanseatic Bank (1886) 55 LJ Ch 479 the same approach was adopted. A first mortgagee sought a foreclosure order, and the second mortgagee asked the court to order a sale but postpone it for a year or two. Chitty J refused to direct a sale and made a foreclosure order. To have directed a sale would have been to extend the usual redemption period without cause. The value of the property was speculative and it was not just that the rights of first mortgagees should be postponed to a speculative sale at the instance of second mortgagees. The judge said (at 480):
‘If a sale were ordered, the reserved price would be fixed at an amount which would cover the first mortgage and costs; and if no bid were made, the market value of the property would be depreciated by the knowledge that there had been an abortive attempt to sell it. Therefore, were the Court to direct a sale, the plaintiffs’ rights might be seriously prejudiced. The plaintiffs have satisfied me as to the insufficiency of their security.’
The approach exemplified in these two cases hardened into an established practice in the Chancery Division. In its own particular field of foreclosure proceedings the principle underlying this practice is as sound today as ever: in that field it strikes a fair balance between the interests of the parties.
A new problem
So far as I am aware, foreclosure actions are almost unheard of today and have been so for many years. Mortgagees prefer to exercise other remedies. They usually appoint a receiver or exercise their powers of sale. Take the present case: the security is inadequate, but Mortgage Services is not seeking to foreclose, nor is it seeking to sell at once. It is seeking to hold onto the house, preferably without becoming accountable as a mortgagee in possession, with a view to exercising its own power of sale at some future date. It is seeking to do this despite the income shortfall mentioned above. The nineteenth century cases were not concerned with this situation. The principle applied in those cases does not address the problem which has now arisen. Underlying the present case is not merely a disagreement between a mortgagor and a mortgagee about the likely future trend of house prices. I suspect that probably another feature is a difference in their attitudes towards taking risks. We were told that Mortgage Services has many properties in a similar situation and that this case raises an important question of principle for the company. A substantial lender may be prepared to take risks that would be imprudent for a householder with limited financial resources.
There is also the further feature that the interests of the mortgagor and the mortgagee do not march hand in hand in all respects. The security afforded by the house is not the only remedy possessed by Mortgage Services: the company also has a personal claim against Mrs Palk. If the property market does not improve as Mortgage Services hopes, and so the shortfall ultimately becomes
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larger than it is now, the company can have recourse against Mrs Palk for the increased shortfall. Hence, it is said, Mortgage Services is intent on speculating at Mrs Palk’s expense. If its gamble on property prices fails, the company can still go against Mrs Palk. Whether she is worth powder and shot is not the subject of evidence before the court. However, in the course of the hearing of the appeal, the suggestion was made that Mortgage Services should take over the house at its current sale value. That would stop interest accruing on part of the debt, and Mortgage Services would keep for itself any increase in the value of the house. Mortgage Services showed no interest in this suggestion. Clearly the company wishes to retain its right to sue Mrs Palk for the shortfall, whatever it may turn out to be.
The thrust of Mortgage Services’s answer is that, in exchange for the loan, it acquired a security and several remedies. The company may choose which remedy it wishes to pursue and when, so long as it acts in good faith and not for some collateral purpose. It may choose the time of sale, however disadvantageous this may be for the mortgagor. If it decides to sell, it must exercise reasonable care to obtain the proper market value, but it is under no duty to exercise its power of sale. Mr Lightman QC for Mortgage Services relied on the observations of Lord Templeman in China and South Sea Bank Ltd v Tan [1989] 3 All ER 839 at 842, [1990] 1 AC 536 at 545:
‘If the creditor chose to exercise his power of sale over the mortgage security he must sell for the current market value but the creditor must decide in his own interest if and when he should sell.’
Thus, he submitted, if the mortgagee decides to postpone a sale indefinitely, there is no occasion for the court to intervene. If the mortgagor asks the court to intervene and direct a sale against the wishes of a mortgagee who has not misconducted himself, the sale should be on terms that provide for repayment of the whole indebtedness. Thus the argument runs full circle, and ends where it started with the established practice of the court as described above.
A duty to be fair
The first observation I make on this argument is to emphasise that a mortgagee does owe some duties to a mortgagor. As Lord Templeman noted in China Bank Tan [1989] 3 All ER 839 at 842, [1990] 1 AC 536 at 545, a mortgagee can sit back and do nothing. He is not obliged to take steps to realise his security. But if he does take steps to exercise his rights over his security, common law and equity alike have set bounds to the extent to which he can look after himself and ignore the mortgagor’s interests. In the exercise of his rights over his security the mortgagee must act fairly towards the mortgagor. His interest in the property has priority over the interest of the mortgagor, and he is entitled to proceed on that footing. He can protect his own interest, but he is not entitled to conduct himself in a way which unfairly prejudices the mortgagor. If he takes possession he might prefer to do nothing and bide his time, waiting indefinitely for an improvement in the market, with the property empty meanwhile. That he cannot do. He is accountable for his actual receipts from the property. He is also accountable to the mortgagor for what he would have received but for his default. So he must take reasonable care to maximise his return from the property. He must also take reasonable care of the property. Similarly, if he sells the property: he cannot sell hastily at a knock-down price sufficient to pay off his debt. The mortgagor also has an interest in the property and is under a personal liability for the shortfall. The mortgagee must keep that in mind. He must exercise reasonable
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care to sell only at the proper market value. As Lord Moulton said in McHugh v Union Bank of Canada [1913] AC 299 at 311:
‘It is well settled law that it is the duty of a mortgagee when realizing the mortgaged property by sale to behave in conducting such realization as a reasonable man would behave in the realization of his own property, so that the mortgagor may receive credit for the fair value of the property sold.’
I have given two examples where the law imposes a duty on a mortgagee when he is exercising his powers: if he lets the property he must obtain a proper market rent, and if he sells he must obtain a proper price. I confess I have difficulty in seeing why a mortgagee’s duties in and about the exercise of his powers of letting and sale should be regarded as narrowly confined to these two duties. In addition to the mortgaged property, a mortgagee normally has a right of recourse against the borrower personally. He may also have the benefit of a guarantee from a third party. There is no problem when the borrower or guarantor can raise the necessary money, or the security available is adequate and readily realisable. Then the borrower should arrange to pay off his debt in full. The difficulty arises when that is not possible. Then the borrower is in the mortgagee’s hands. Whether in that situation a mortgagee is at liberty to exercise his rights of leasing and sale in a way that in all likelihood will substantially increase the burden on the borrower or guarantor beyond what otherwise would be the case is not a question I need decide on this appeal, for a reason I shall mention later. That he can act in such a cavalier fashion is not a proposition I find attractive. That is a question which may call for careful examination on another occasion. For present purposes it is sufficient to note that, quite apart from s 91(2) of the 1925 Act, there is a legal framework which imposes some constraints of fairness on a mortgagee who is exercising his remedies over his security.
In the present case Mortgage Services is exercising its rights over the house. It has obtained an order for possession, suspended at present. The company has embarked on a course of realisation: initially by letting the property, with a sale to follow. This course is likely to be highly prejudicial to Mrs Palk’s financial position as borrower. If the situation had been that the rental would exceed or equal or at least approach the interest she would save if the house were sold, it might have been reasonable for the company to decide to postpone the sale and to let the house for the time being. In the long run property prices can be expected to recover, so postponing the sale would be in the company’s interest and would be unlikely to be prejudicial to Mrs Palk. That is not the situation. Mortgage Services intends to let the property, despite the income shortfall: the rentals to be credited to Mrs Palk will fall significantly short of the interest she would save if the house were sold. This is an important feature of this case. Unless good fortune shines on the parties, she is bound to suffer financially by a postponement of the sale.
For its part Mortgage Services wishes to preserve the possibility of good fortune. Its commercial judgment is that it is likely to do better by waiting. In other words, it hopes that house prices will not merely rise but that they will do so at a rate which will compensate for the financial disadvantage suffered by postponing receipt of the proceeds of sale. And the company can always fall back on Mrs Palk’s personal covenant for whatever it may be worth.
However, and this is my second observation on the mortgagee’s argument, whether in these circumstances Mortgage Services is in breach of any duty it owes to Mrs Palk is not a crucial question on this appeal, for this reason: an exercise by the court of its statutory power to direct a sale even against the wishes of Mortgage Services is not dependent on there first having been a breach of duty by the
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company. The discretion given to the court by s 91(2) of the 1925 Act is not hedged about with preconditions. The question on this appeal is how ought the court to exercise its discretion under the statute in the particular circumstances and against the background that a mortgagee owes at least some duties in law to a mortgagor when exercising his rights over the mortgaged property. That Mortgage Services is not, or may not be, in breach of any duty it owes Mrs Palk is only one of the circumstances to be taken into account.
The court’s discretion
I turn therefore to the question of discretion. As to this, the features which strike me most forcibly are, first, the unfairness of Mrs Palk being compelled to participate in and underwrite the risk Mortgage Services wishes to take. If Mortgage Services wishes to chance its arm, and run the risk involved in waiting to see what happens to house prices, it should be free to do so. In common fairness, however, it ought not to be able to saddle Mrs Palk with that risk and a rising debt against her wishes. It should back its own judgment. It should not be able to have recourse against Mrs Palk for an increased sum, being the adverse financial consequences of a realisation scheme Mrs Palk opposes on reasonable grounds. She should not be at risk of being worse off than she is now. She ought not to be made liable for what I have referred to as the income shortfall. She ought to be credited now with the current value of the property. Subsequent fluctuations in value, for better or for worse, would then become a matter of concern only to Mortgage Services.
The second notable feature is that the primary objective of the company can be achieved without Mrs Palk being compelled to become an unwilling risk-taker. If Mortgage Services takes over the property at current market value, it can obtain for itself the benefit of any improvement in house prices. This result would strike a fair balance between the interests of the parties.
Section 91(2) of the 1925 Act gives the court a discretion in wide terms. The discretion is unfettered. It can be exercised at any time. Self-evidently, in exercising that power the court will have due regard to the interests of all concerned. The court will act judicially. But it cannot be right that the court should decline to exercise the power if the consequence will be manifest unfairness.
In my view this is a case in which a sale should be directed even though there will be a deficiency. It is just and equitable to order a sale because otherwise unfairness and injustice will follow. I can summarise the four factors which combine to produce this result. First, there is a substantial income shortfall: the rental under the proposed letting would fall significantly short of the interest Mrs Palk would save if the house were sold. Second, the only prospect of recoupment of the shortfall lies in the hope that there will be a substantial rise in house prices generally. This is not a case where a sale is being postponed for a reason specific to this property: for example, pending the outcome of an application for planning permission for development. Following on from this, third, on the scanty evidence before the court the likelihood of Mrs Palk suffering increased loss if the company’s plan proceeds is so high as to make the plan oppressive to her. Her liability is open-ended and will increase indefinitely. This risk of increased loss to her under her repayment obligation far outweighs the prospect of any gain the company may make from its proposed realisation scheme for the house. The one is unacceptably disproportionate to the other. Fourth, directing a sale will not preclude the mortgagee from having the opportunity to wait and see what happens to house prices. The mortgagee can buy the property.
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A mortgagee cannot buy property from itself, but here the sale is directed by the court; it is not a sale by a mortgagee in exercise of its own power of sale.
In my view, to direct a sale in this case does not run counter to the established practice of the court. As already noted, these are different circumstances from those in which the practice arose and at which the underlying principle is directed. In the cases mentioned above the mortgagee wished to take over the property and foreclose. The court declined to deprive him of that right and direct a sale unless he was fully protected. Here Mortgage Services does not wish to foreclose. It does not wish to take over the property. I have already mentioned that it showed no interest in the suggestion that it should take over the property at current value. On the contrary, Mortgage Services is set upon realising its security, but in a way fraught with risks the borrowers ought not fairly to be expected to run. In the absence of a dramatic surge in house prices in the near future, Mortgage Services’s preferred course will result in an increased deficit. The shortfall will increase every month. Mrs Palk is personally liable for the whole debt and she will be personally liable for the shortfall. Her personal liability for the shortfall ought not to be increased in this way when there exists a means by which a fairer result can be achieved.
I add this. For the court to direct a sale even though the mortgagee may not be in breach of its duties to the mortgagor, does not mean the court is interfering without justification in the relationship agreed between this mortgagor and this mortgagee. Under the Law of Property Act 1925 a mortgagee has powers of sale. He also has other powers, including power to let the property and power to appoint a receiver. These statutory powers are impliedly incorporated, with some amendments, into Mortgage Services’ standard form mortgage conditions. In the same Act, and superimposed on these powers conferred on mortgagees, is a power Parliament has given to the court to direct a sale notwithstanding the dissent of any person. This is an overriding statutory power, and is to have effect as such.
I would allow this appeal and direct a sale. Mortgage Services will be at liberty to make an offer for the property. I would remit the proceedings to the county court to give any further necessary directions.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. I agree.
SIR MICHAEL KERR. I agree with the judgment of Sir Donald Nicholls V-C and that there should be a direction for the sale of this property on the terms proposed by him. I only add some remarks of my own because it has to be faced that our decision in this case breaks new ground.
The power of the court to direct a sale of mortgaged property pursuant to s 91(2) of the Law of Property Act 1925 is expressed in remarkably wide terms whose purpose can be traced back in history. In its original form in the Chancery Amendment Act 1852 it could only be invoked in aid of mortgagors as a measure of protection against foreclosure proceedings instituted by mortgagees. But by the time of the Conveyancing Act 1881 it had been recognised that the power to direct a sale should be available to the court whenever any party interested on either side of a mortgage transaction institutes any of the kinds of proceedings to which the subsection refers. Its wide scope in this respect, and in the references to the variety of persons at whose request a sale can be directed, is no doubt due to the desire to cover not only mortgagors and mortgagees themselves, but their assignees as well. In the present case the court’s power to direct a sale is invoked by the plaintiffs as mortgagors in reliance on the words, ‘In any action … for sale
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… on the request … of any person interested … in the right of redemption …’ (see s 91(2) of the 1925 Act). Although mortgagors are for some reason not referred to expressly as such, in the same way as mortgagees, counsel for Mortgage Services rightly conceded that these words entitled Mrs Palk to request the court to direct a sale of the property, and that the court’s statutory jurisdiction to accede to this request was accordingly not in issue.
The issue relates solely to the question whether it is an appropriate, or perhaps even a permissible, exercise of the court’s discretion to direct a sale against the wishes of the first mortgagee when the circumstances make it clear that this will leave a large part of his debt unsecured and outstanding. But in this connection it is of the greatest significance that the subsection not only places no restriction on the exercise of the court’s powers, but that it confers these expressly even when ‘any other person dissents’, or when the mortgagee does not appear at all. The position is therefore that s 91(2) deliberately places no restriction on the power of the court other than the inherent and necessarily implied obligation to exercise the power judicially. Thus, the judicial availability of the power does not depend on whether the mortgagee has taken some step to exercise his rights over the mortgaged property, such as seeking an order for possession, as happened here, although in practice an application for a sale at the request of a mortgagor would no doubt only arise in cases where the mortgagee has taken some such step. Nor does it matter whether the mortgagee’s dissent and objection are based on express contractual rights, or on the statutory rights provided by ss 99 to 101 of the Law of Property Act 1925, or on their express incorporation with variations into the mortgage deed, as in the present case.
Are there then any limits to the proper exercise of the court’s discretion? The requirement of fairness to both sides goes without saying. But equality in giving effect to their wishes is manifestly impossible, since Mrs Palk requests a sale and Mortgage Services oppose it. The court must decide between them on the basis of what is just in all the circumstances. This will mean giving preference to the commercial interests of one over the other, but there is nothing new in that. Thus, in Merchant Banking Co of London v London and Hanseatic Bank (1886) 55 LJ Ch 479 the court gave preference to the wishes of the first mortgagee over those of the second by making an immediate foreclosure order in preference to a postponed speculative sale. This left the second mortgagee with the choice of losing his security and being left with the mortgagor’s personal covenant on the one hand, or of backing his belief in the future increase in the value of the property on the other hand, by stepping into the shoes of the mortgagor and redeeming the first mortgagee’s interest in it: see eg Fisher and Lightwood’s Law of Mortgages (10th edn, 1988) at pp 423–424.
The commercial problem which faced the court in Merchant Banking v London and Hanseatic Bank was concerned with the future speculative value of the property, and to that extent the case was the closest to the present of all the authorities cited to us. But it was still crucially different in one respect: in rejecting the wishes of the second mortgagee the court did not have to override any of his contractual rights. The second mortgagee had no contractual right to prevent the first mortgagee from exercising his right of foreclosure. And in all the cases in which the court has directed a sale at the request of a mortgagor against opposition by a mortgagee, the court was able to protect the latter against the loss of his right to repayment of the loan with interest, either by ordering the mortgagor to put up sufficient security to ensure full repayment of the mortgage debt, or by imposing a sufficiently high reserve price on the property so as to preclude a sale unless it achieved this result. It therefore seems that in all the old cases cited to us,
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these relatively easy options were available to the court, either because the mortgagor had sufficient funds or because the property had a sufficiently high market value.
The present case is different, but not as fundamentally as first appears. Admittedly, an order of sale against the wishes of Mortgage Services will deprive them of at least two relevant contractual rights. The first is their negative right not to sell at the present time, given that the decision whether or not to realise his security by sale is undoubtedly a mortgagee’s unfettered discretion, both in contract and in tort: see eg Lord Templeman in China and South Sea Bank Ltd v Tan [1989] 3 All ER 839 at 842, [1990] 1 AC 536 at 545. The second is that a sale will preclude them from exercising one of their positive rights, to take possession of the property for the purpose of leasing it. However, the court’s statutory powers to override these contractual rights cannot be in doubt in the face of s 91(2) of the 1925 Act. They are inherent in it. Any order of sale from which the mortgagee dissents must necessarily deprive him of his contractual right to decide for himself when he wants to sell. And any such order necessarily deprives the mortgagee of the opportunity of exercising any of his alternative rights over the property. Both consequences were inherent in all the cases in which the courts have ordered sales against the wishes of mortgagees.
The only question of principle is therefore whether the court may never exercise its power to order a sale under s 91(2) of the 1925 Act against a mortgagee’s wishes when it is clear that the effect will be not only to deprive him of his security but also to leave a substantial part of the loan outstanding. In this connection two considerations stand out. The first is that the subsection contains no such restriction. The court is given express power to override dissent, and this power is unrestricted. The second is that an order of sale in such circumstances appears never to have been made in the 140-year history of the existence of this power. Counsel for Mortgage Services concedes the first, but relies on the second for the proposition that it has become a fixed rule of practice that the power will never be exercised unless the terms of the order will have the effect that a sale will only take place if the mortgage debt will be discharged at the same time, without loss to the mortgagee.
I do not accept this proposition. There can be no relevant rule of practice when its existence appears never to have arisen for consideration, let alone be tested, with reference to issues such as those raised by this appeal. I accept, of course, that it must be only in exceptional circumstances that the power will be exercised against the mortgagee’s wishes when a substantial part of the mortgage debt will nevertheless remain outstanding. Whenever a mortgagee can demonstrate a real possibility, let alone a probability, that a refusal or postponement of a sale would be financially beneficial, because of the property’s likely increase in value or because of the extent of the revenue which it would generate in the interim, then the mortgagor’s request for a sale will no doubt be refused out of hand, even though either of these events would also pro tanto inure to his financial benefit. The reason is that when the financial prospects are fairly evenly balanced, let alone when the balance of the argument favours the mortgagee, his wishes should be given preference. An order for sale would deprive him of contractual rights without any fault on his part, and would confer a benefit on the mortgagor to which he is not contractually entitled.
Thus, take the present case as an illustration. In the long term the present value of the property will no doubt increase, perhaps substantially. This appears to be a long-term characteristic of all real property. It may even appreciate significantly in the medium term, or even to some extent in the short term. The defendant
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mortgagees can evidently afford to wait and see, and prefer to do so. But in these uncertain times the value might of course also depreciate further in the short and perhaps even the medium term. One cannot tell; on the evidence before us, or rather the lack of it, it is simply a matter of speculation. But nevertheless, if the mortgagee could show that in the interim the property was capable of generating revenue—in this case in the form of rent—equal to, or perhaps even approaching, the amount of interest which the mortgagor would save if the property were sold, then the position would be different.
But this is not the position. The facts of this case are extreme and exceptional in comparison with all reported cases which have come before the courts pursuant to s 91(2) of the 1925 Act and its predecessors, though they are no doubt far from unusual (except perhaps in relation to the amounts involved) in comparison with the present fate of many other outstanding mortgages. We do not have the full figures, but those which we have are quite enough to point the way if the principles discussed above are correct.
We know that in January 1990 the property had a market value in excess of £300,000, the amount of Mortgage Services’s loan as the first of three mortgagees. No interest was paid by Mr and Mrs Palk after April 1990, and by March 1991 the first mortgage debt was about £360,000. By March 1991 the market value of the property had fallen to £283,000, the amount of the sale which was then negotiated by Mr Palk. There was no evidence of any increase or decrease since then, and I will therefore assume that it has remained about the same. We know that the mortgage debt has by now risen to £409,000, and we also know that it is increasing at a rate of about £43,000 a year. Finally, and in contrast to these figures, we know that the expected annual rental value of the property is only of the order of £13,000 to £14,000.
Two things can be seen at once from these figures.
First, although we do not know the precise rate of interest, it is clear that the annual revenue which the property is capable of generating in the form of rent falls far below the amount of interest which Mrs Palk would save if the property were sold. The annual difference between these figures is the ‘income shortfall’ referred to in the judgment of Sir Donald Nicholls V-C: Mrs Palk would be far better off by saving the interest payable on the present value of the property than by being credited with the obtainable rent.
Secondly, there is no realistic prospect, let alone evidence, to suggest that this position will change to any material extent if a sale is refused or postponed. Mortgage Services do not contend that the value of the property is likely to increase so as to eliminate, or even substantially reduce, this income shortfall in the foreseeable future. They merely say that their commercial judgment is to wait and see, which they also contend to be their unfettered legal right, because they expect some increase in the value at some future time
On the side of Mrs Palk, on the other hand, the picture is perfectly clear. If a sale is refused, then she is in a situation of financial haemorrhage for an indefinite period while Mortgage Services continue to speculate at her expense on an increase in the value of the property. But, although a sale cannot staunch this outflow entirely, it can greatly reduce it. On the assumed present value of about £283,000 and expenses of, say, £8,000, a sale would reduce Mrs Palk’s capital debt from £300,000 to about £25,000, and her liability for interest to about one-twelfth of what it is now.
At the same time, if a sale is ordered, Mortgage Services can back their faith in the future value of the property by acquiring it in the sale, if they wish to do so. So there is fairness to both sides.
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Since the court’s statutory jurisdiction empowers it to order a sale despite the fact that a large part of the mortgage debt will remain outstanding, I consider that in all the circumstances this is clearly the correct exercise of the court’s discretion.
Accordingly I would allow this appeal.
Appeal allowed. Case remitted to county court. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Tan v Cameron
[1993] 2 All ER 493
Categories: COMMONWEALTH; Dependencies: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12, 13 MAY, 29 JUNE 1992
Hong Kong – Court of Appeal – Jurisdiction – Criminal cause or matter – Judicial review – Application for stay of criminal proceedings – Refusal of application – Refusal of judicial review of decision to refuse stay – Appeal – Whether Court of Appeal having jurisdiction to entertain appeal against refusal of judicial review – Whether appeal arising in ‘civil cause or matter’ – Supreme Court Ordinance (Hong Kong), s 13(2)(a).
Criminal law – Trial – Stay of proceedings – Abuse of process – Delay – Delay in bringing proceedings – Burden of proof – Whether burden of proof shifting to prosecution if long delay – Whether question whether prosecution would be unfair to be considered in the round without burden of proof shifting.
The appellant was the chairman of a group of Hong Kong companies which collapsed in 1983. Following the collapse a series of criminal investigations into the affairs of the group led to the appellant being charged with others with conspiracy as to the accounts of the main company in the group (the first charges) and 9 counts of conspiracy to defraud and 14 counts of bribing officials of a bank which had made substantial loans to the group (the second charges). The trial of the first charges began in February 1986 and ended some 17 months later, when the trial judge ruled that there was no case to answer and directed the jury to acquit the defendants. The second charges were laid in December 1985 but for the next six years were the subject of successive remands, initially because it would have been inappropriate to proceed against the appellant while the prosecution of the first charges was in progress and then because of continuing delays in obtaining the extradition of a potential co-defendant from the United Kingdom. In 1988, when it became apparent that there were going to be delays in those extradition proceedings, the appellant was charged with two offences of offering an advantage to an employee of another bank, contrary to the Hong Kong Prevention of Bribery Ordinance (the third charges) and in June 1988 he was charged with six offences of bribing officials of a third bank (the fourth charges). Since it was logistically and procedurally impossible for all four cases to be brought to trial at the same time the prosecuting authorities decided initially to concentrate on the trials of the first and second charges, as they were the most
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serious, and to suspend the trial of the third and fourth charges. However, when the trial of the first charges collapsed and the trial of the second charges was held up by the failure to have the potential co-defendant extradited, the prosecuting authorities decided in 1989 to press ahead with the trial of the third and fourth charges. The appellant applied for a perpetual stay of the prosecution of the third charges and/or the postponement of the trials of the third and fourth charges until the conclusion of the trial of the second charges. The grounds of the applications were that the allegations regarding the third charges were so old that it would be an abuse of process to bring them to trial and to try the third and fourth charges before the second charges would inevitably damage the appellant’s defence to the second charges. The district judge refused the applications. The appellant applied to the High Court for judicial review of the district judge’s decision but that application was dismissed. The appellant appealed to the Court of Appeal, which ruled that it had no jurisdiction under s 13(2)(a)a of the Supreme Court Ordinance to hear the appeal under its civil jurisdiction because, given the criminal origins of the judicial review proceedings, they were not ‘a civil cause or matter’. The Court of Appeal accordingly dismissed the appeal. The appellant appealed to the Privy Council.
Held – (1) The Court of Appeal’s civil jurisdiction under s 13(2)(a)of the Supreme Court Ordinance depended not on the proceedings which led to the order from which the appeal was brought but the nature of the cause or matter in which the appeal was brought. If the cause or matter was properly characterised as criminal, it could not lose that character simply because at one stage it was carried forward by techniques which closely resembled those employed in civil matters, or which led to relief often granted in civil matters, or which were available in civil or criminal matters alike. Since the applications made by the appellant to the district judge were applications in a criminal cause, because their purpose was to determine the way in which the prosecution should proceed in a matter which from the outset had been exclusively criminal in nature, the Court of Appeal had no jurisdiction under s 13(2)(a) of the Supreme Court Ordinance to hear the appeal under its civil jurisdiction (see p 503 e to p 504 b, post); Amand v Secretary of State for Home Affairs [1942] 2 All ER 381 applied.
(2) In determining whether the court should exercise its exceptional jurisdiction to stay criminal proceedings on the grounds of delay in bringing the proceedings, the court should take into account all the factors together, without reference to any burden of proof other than the heavy burden which always rested on a defendant who sought a stay on the grounds of delay. Although the longer the delay the more likely it was that the prosecution was at fault and that the delay had caused prejudice to the defendant and the less the prosecution had to offer by way of explanation the more easily fault could be inferred, the question whether, in all the circumstances, the situation created by the delay was such as to make a prosecution unfair was a question to be considered in the round without the introduction of shifting burdens of proof, which served only to break down into formal steps what was in reality a single appreciation of what was or was not unfair. Since the district judge had correctly taken into account all the factors together in deciding not to grant a stay of the third and fourth charges the appeal would be dismissed (see p 506 h j, p 507 c to g and p 509 e f, post); A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169 applied.
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Notes
For prolonged delay in starting or conducting criminal proceedings amounting to an abuse of process, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 786, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 60–65, 12097–12132.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G v Alick Au Shui Yuen [1992] 1 HKLR 88, Hong Kong CA.
A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169, [1992] QB 630, [1992] 3 WLR 9, CA.
Amand v Secretary of State for Home Affairs [1942] 2 All ER 381, [1943] AC 147, HL.
Carr v Atkins [1987] 3 All ER 684, [1987] QB 963, [1967] 3 All ER 529, CA.
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, [1964] 2 WLR 1145, HL.
Day v Grant [1987] 3 All ER 678, [1987] QB 972, [1987] 3 WLR 537, CA.
DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, [1976] 2 WLR 857, HL.
Hunter v Chief Constable of West Midlands [1981] 3 All ER 727, [1982] AC 529, [1981] 3 WLR 906, HL.
Jago v District Court of New South Wales (1989) 168 CLR 23, Aust HC.
Mills v Cooper [1967] 2 All ER 100, [1967] 2 QB 459, [1967] 2 WLR 1343, DC.
R v Bow Street Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p DPP (1989) 91 Cr App R 283, DC.
R v Brentford Justices, ex p Wong [1981] 1 All ER 884, [1981] QB 445, [1981] 2 WLR 203, DC.
R v Chief Registrar of Friendly Societies, ex p New Cross Building Society [1984] 2 All ER 27, [1984] QB 227, [1984] 2 WLR 370, CA.
R v Crown Court at Derby, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164, DC.
R v Heston-Francois [1984] 1 All ER 785, [1984] QB 278, [1984] 2 WLR 309, CA.
R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App R 412, CCC.
R v Southampton Justices, ex p Green [1975] 2 All ER 1073, [1976] QB 11, [1975] 3 WLR 277, CA.
R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, [1991] 2 WLR 866, DC.
R v West London Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Anderson (1984) 80 Cr App R 143, DC.
Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, [1985] 2 WLR 538, HL.
Solicitors, Re a firm [1990] 2 HKLR 146, Hong Kong CA.
US Government v Bowe [1989] 3 All ER 315, [1990] 1 AC 500, [1989] 3 WLR 1215, PC.
Cases also cited
A-G’s application, Re [1972] HKLR 336, Hong Kong SC (Full Ct).
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, HL.
Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] AC 34, PC.
R v Buzalek and Schiffer [1991] Crim LR 115, CA.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v Harris [1991] 1 HKLR 389, Hong Kong CA.
R v Independent Television Commission, ex p TSW Broadcasting Ltd (1992) Independent, 27 March.
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Appeal
George Tan Soon Gin appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal in Hong Kong and by special leave granted by the Board from the judgment of the Court of Appeal (Yang CJ and Bewley J (Silke V-P dissenting in part)) given on 29 November 1991 dismissing for lack of jurisdiction the appellant’s appeal from the decision of Barnett J ([1991] 2 HKLR 400) given on 13 May 1991 refusing the appellant’s application for judicial review of the decisions of Judge Cameron in the District Court given on 4 December 1990 refusing the appellant’s applications for a perpetual stay of the criminal prosecution brought against the appellant for two offences of offering an advantage to an employee of Barclays (Asia) Ltd, contrary to the Hong Kong Prevention of Bribery Ordinance, and for an order that the Barclays (Asia) trial and the trial of the appellant for six offences of bribing officials of West Deutsche Landesbank Girozentrale be postponed until the conclusion of the trial of the appellant on 9 counts of conspiracy to defraud and 14 counts of bribing officials of Bumiputra Malaysia Finance Ltd. The applicant also appealed with special leave from the judgment of Barnett J. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Graeme Hamilton QC and James Guthrie (instructed by Philip Conway Thomas) for the appellant.
The Deputy Director of Public Prosecutions for Hong Kong (Clive Grossman) and Graham Harris (Crown Counsel, Hong Kong) (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the Attorney General of Hong Kong.
13 May 1992. At the conclusion of argument the Board announced that the appeal would be dismissed for reasons to be given later.
29 June 1992. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD MUSTILL. This appeal is concerned with the pre-trial management of criminal prosecutions in Hong Kong. In circumstances which must be explained at a later stage the appeal is before the Board both by leave of the Court of Appeal in Hong Kong and by special leave granted by the Board itself. At the conclusion of the hearing the Board intimated that it would humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal should be dismissed, for reasons which it would subsequently deliver. This they now do.
THE PROSECUTIONS
Although the appeal is directly concerned only with two groups of criminal charges, these cannot fairly be considered in isolation from two further and much graver groups of charges. Their Lordships must therefore begin by summarising the history of all four sets of proceedings, as it appears from the materials now before the Board.
(i) The Carrian case
The present appellant, Mr George Tan Soon Gin, was the chairman and prime mover of a group of companies, registered in Hong Kong, of which the most important was Carrian International Ltd (Carrian). By the early 1980s these had come to occupy a central position in the commercial life of Hong Kong, with businesses in widely dispersed fields, financed on a great scale by advances from institutional investors. When the Carrian empire abruptly collapsed in 1983 the outcome was what has been described as the greatest financial disaster to afflict Hong Kong for at least 40 years. Enormous sums have been lost, and the
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repercussions are still being felt today. These events led to a series of criminal investigations into the affairs of Carrian which began soon after the demise of the companies and culminated in the laying of charges against the appellant and others. The details are immaterial, and it is sufficient for present purposes to say that they were concerned with two subjects, namely the accounts of Carrian and a building called Gammon House. The decision was taken to try these two matters separately, and the trial of the charges relating to an alleged conspiracy as to the accounts was taken first. This trial began in February 1986 and ended some 17 months later, when the trial judge acceded to a submission that the evidence for the prosecution had raised no case to answer, and directed the jury to acquit all the defendants. After an interval for reflection the prosecuting authorities elected to offer no evidence in relation to the Gammon House affair.
The Carrian proceedings, at their various stages, were current for the whole of the five years between 1983 and 1988. Without doubt they occupied enormous resources of time, energy and funds for prosecutors and defendants alike.
(ii) The BMFL case
Bumiputra Malaysia Finance Ltd (BMFL) is a wholly-owned Hong Kong subsidiary of Bank Bumiputra Malaysia Bhd, an important bank, owned and controlled by the Malaysian government. Mr Lorrain Osman was a director of BMFL. Other officials were Mr Shamsudin and Dr Saniman. Between 1979 and 1983 very large advances were made by BMFL to Carrian. After the collapse of Carrian suspicions arose about the propriety of these advances, and ultimately a series of very grave charges were laid upon the appellant and various officers of BMFL, including Mr Osman. The charges against the appellant comprised 9 counts of conspiracy to defraud and 14 counts of bribing officials of BMFL. These charges were first laid in December 1985. Throughout the six years which have intervened these charges have remained in the magistracy, the subject of successive remands. No indictment has yet been preferred. For the first few years the remands were unopposed, since it would plainly have been inappropriate to proceed against the appellant whilst the Carrian prosecution was still afoot. From 1990 however those representing the appellant have opposed further remands, but without success, and the prosecution of the BMFL charges is currently at a standstill.
The reasons for this most unusual state of affairs become clear, as soon as one looks at the history of the proceedings against Mr Osman, who, if an indictment against him is preferred, will become a co-accused of the appellant. As was the case with others alleged to be implicated in this affair he left the colony, and has not yet returned, notwithstanding strenuous efforts on the part of the prosecuting authorities. It is unnecessary to give more than the following sketch of the widespread litigation which has attended the efforts made to bring this case to trial.
(1) A warrant for the arrest of Mr Osman was issued in November 1985, at a time when he was in London. The process to extradite him to Hong Kong commenced in May 1986, and continued until June 1987, when after a long hearing the metropolitan stipendiary magistrate committed him to prison to await an order from the Home Secretary to return to Hong Kong. There followed a series of seven applications to the Divisional Court in England, coupled in some instances with applications for judicial review, each application being launched upon the failure of the last, and each pursued unsuccessfully by way of petition to the House of Lords for leave to appeal. Certainly nothing in the recent history, and very probably nothing in the ancient history, of what were once the prerogative writs, has been seen to match this stream of applications. The sixth
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application was dismissed as an abuse of the process of the court in November 1991, and directions were made about the procedures to be adopted in future applications. Another application was not long in coming, on this occasion for habeas corpus coupled with judicial review. It met the same fate as its predecessors. A petition for leave to appeal is now pending before the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords.
(2) Since 1987 Mr Osman has launched two complaints before the European Commission of Human Rights. Both have been rejected, the second in 1991.
(3) During the same period Mr Osman has pursued applications for judicial review in Hong Kong. With one exception these have failed; and the exception appears to have had no lasting effect on the course of the proceedings.
(4) Meanwhile, since 1985 attempts have been made by the prosecution, against the most strenuous objections from Mr Osman and the appellant, to take evidence in Malaysia pursuant to letters of request. Their Lordships do not have the details, but it does seem that at least some evidence has been obtained in this way, subject no doubt to objection at the trial.
(5) Similar efforts were made to obtain evidence from Switzerland and the United States of America. Nothing is known as to what has happened in Switzerland, but it does appear that in the United States, after a long course of litigation, the attempts have failed.
(6) Mr Shamsudin, who had been abroad, returned to Hong Kong during 1986. He pleaded guilty to two counts of conspiracy and two of corruption, and received what became, after review, a long term of imprisonment.
(7) Mr Saniman, who had made his way to France, did not return. Efforts to procure his extradition, which have been going on for five years, and which seemed for a time to have been successful, have now been thwarted, at least for the moment.
This sketch may serve to show what obstacles the prosecuting authorities have experienced in bringing the BMFL case to trial, and how hard it is to predict when the trial will eventually occur, and what form it will then take. What is clear, however, is that any trial, whether or not Mr Osman takes part, will be long and complex; more so even than the Carrian trial.
(iii) The Barclays (Asia) case
During August 1983 the Independent Commission Against Corruption (the ICAC) received information that Mr Stuart Leslie Turner, an officer of Barclays (Asia) Ltd, had received illegal advantages from two companies, one of which was a Carrian company. The ICAC decided to postpone inquiries, to avoid collision with another agency which was investigating the affairs of Carrian, but eventually Mr Turner was charged with, pleaded guilty to and was sentenced to imprisonment for, a total of four charges arising from these transactions. It is evident that the prosecuting authorities also had in mind to prosecute the appellant for implication in some of Mr Turner’s offences, but a decision was taken in 1988, and communicated to the appellant’s solicitors, that proceedings would be put back until after the BMFL trial. At this time it was believed that the return of Mr Osman to Hong Kong was imminent. When this expectation was disappointed it was decided to press forward with the Barclays (Asia) prosecution. Thus it happened that in November 1989, more than six years after the matter had first come to light, he was charged with two offences of offering an advantage to Mr Turner, contrary to the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance of the Laws of Hong Kong. The trial of these charges was subsequently fixed for June 1992, with an estimated duration of nine weeks, and in the light of the advice already given by this Board in relation to the appeal, it is now in progress.
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(iv) The WestLB case
During February 1987 the ICAC began to investigate transactions between Carrian and the local affiliate of West Deutsche Landesbank Girozentrale (WestLB), another banking organisation. In September 1987 an official of WestLB, Paul Kiang, was arrested although it seems that he was not actually charged until June 1988. Not long afterwards, the appellant was also charged, on this occasion with six offences, alleged to have been committed between October 1981 and June 1982, of bribing officials of WestLB, including Mr Kiang. Although the two co-accused were initially remanded together, the prosecution of Mr Kiang ultimately went ahead separately. He pleaded not guilty, but on 2 May 1989 was convicted and sentenced to imprisonment. The Attorney General then gave notice that he intended to proceed with the charges against the appellant.
THE PROCEEDINGS IN HONG KONG
The general shape of these events is clear enough. The combination of the Carrian collapse with the emergence of the BMFL irregularities presented the investigating and prosecuting authorities of Hong Kong with massive tasks, which must have stretched resources to the limit. Given the great public importance attached to these two matters it was inevitable that they should receive priority over the Barclays (Asia) and WestLB allegations, serious as the latter undoubtedly were. Both logistically and procedurally it would be impossible for all four cases to be pursued to trial at the same time, and it was therefore natural for the Barclays (Asia) and WestLB matters to be placed in relative suspense, whilst attention was concentrated on Carrian and BMFL.
The authorities were then faced with two quite unforeseen events: the utter failure of the Carrian prosecution and the successive reverses suffered in their attempts to have Mr Osman returned to Hong Kong for a trial of BMFL, with the appellant as co-defendant. Given the setbacks encountered in the really big cases it is understandable that the authorities now wish to make some headway as regards the Barclays (Asia) and WestLB accusations which, although dwarfed by comparison with Carrian and BMFL, were nevertheless concerned with really serious offences: as witness the long sentences imposed on those who have been dealt with on kindred matters.
To this the appellant and his advisers respond that however understandable the authorities’ current attitude may be the course which they are adopting is unfair, for two cumulative reasons. First, because the Barclays (Asia) allegations are so old—and so unnecessarily old—that it would be an abuse of process now to bring them to trial.
Secondly, because to try the Barclays (Asia) and WestLB charges at the present stage would do inevitable damage to the defence of the appellant when the very grave charges relating to BMFL come to be heard. The right course, so the argument runs, is to do what the Attorney General would have done but for the reverses suffered in the extradition proceedings, namely to postpone the Barclays (Asia) and WestLB trials until the BMFL case is out of the way.
To put these contentions into effect the appellant made two applications in the District Court to which the cases had been transferred. First, for a perpetual stay of the Barclays (Asia) prosecutions. Secondly, for an order that the trials of the Barclays (Asia) and WestLB charges should be postponed until the conclusion of the BMFL trial. These applications failed.
The appellant then applied to the High Court for judicial review of these decisions. On 13 May 1991 Barnett J in a reasoned judgment refused relief.
Nest, the appellant appealed to the Court of Appeal against the decision of Barnett J. During the argument of the appeal the question arose whether the
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Court of Appeal had any jurisdiction to hear it, under the empowering legislation, given the criminal origins of the proceedings in suit. The court ruled that there was indeed no jurisdiction, and on this ground dismissed the appeal. Nevertheless the court went on to discuss in some detail what the position would have been if the appeal could properly have been entertained, expressing the opinion that (i) (Silke V-P differing) there was no ground to intervene in the Barclays (Asia) case and (ii) (all members of the court concurring) there was no ground to intervene as regards the order in which the cases should be decided.
Against this decision the appellant sought and obtained leave to appeal to Her Majesty in Council, but since there was an issue both as to the jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal to hear the appeal from Barnett J, and as to the power of that court to grant onward leave, the appellant also applied to Barnett J himself for leave to appeal direct. This being refused he applied to the Board, and on 5 February 1992 the Board granted special leave.
THE JURISDICTION OF THE COURT OF APPEAL
Since there is no doubt that an appeal is now properly before the Board it was suggested that the question whether the Court of Appeal was right to decline jurisdiction has become academic, and subject to one qualification their Lordships agree. Nevertheless, since the subject is of some general importance in Hong Kong the Board was invited to express an opinion upon it.
The Court of Appeal in Hong Kong has both a civil and a criminal jurisdiction, each defined and limited by s 3 of the Supreme Court Ordinance of the Laws of Hong Kong. It is common ground that none of the instances in which criminal jurisdiction is conferred on the Court of Appeal by s 13(3) is material to the present case. It is also common ground that, if the court is to have civil jurisdiction under s 13(2) in a case such as the present, this must be by virtue of s 13(2)(a), which reads as follows:
‘The civil jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal shall consist of—(a) appeals from any judgment or order of the High Court in any civil cause or matter …’
The question is thus whether the proceedings before Barnett J constituted a civil cause or matter. The interpretation for which both the appellant and the Attorney General contended before the Court of Appeal was that the answer was affirmative; either because the proceedings for habeas corpus were so firmly imprinted with a civil character that they were to be treated as civil, notwithstanding the essentially criminal nature of the proceedings from which they arose, or because they were of an indeterminate nature, which s 13(2)(a) was wide enough to embrace. The judges of the Court of Appeal, by contrast, took the view that the proceedings before Barnett J, being concerned only to review the order of Judge Cameron and having no independent existence of their own, took their character from the entirely criminal nature of that order.
This question is not new, and has previously been considered by courts in England and Hong Kong. It is convenient to begin with the more important of the English cases.
The first is Amand v Secretary of State for Home Affairs [1942] 2 All ER 381, [1943] AC 147. The appellant, who had been conscripted whilst in England into the Netherlands armed forces was alleged to be absent without leave. Pursuant to an order made under the Allied Forces Act 1940 he was arrested by the Metropolitan Police. He applied for habeas corpus on the ground that he did not fall within the scope of the order. The Divisional Court refused the application. When he sought to appeal, a preliminary objection was raised that an appeal did
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not lie, as the appeal was in a ‘criminal cause or matter’ in respect of which the Court of Appeal had at that time no jurisdiction. On appeal to the House of Lords it was held that the objection was well founded.
After pointing out that the distinction between cases of habeas corpus in a criminal matter and cases where the matter is not criminal goes back very far, Viscount Simon LC said ([1942] 2 All ER 381 at 385, [1943] AC 147 at 156):
‘It is the nature and character of the proceeding in which habeas corpus is sought which provide the test. If the matter is one the direct outcome of which may be trial of the applicant and his possible punishment for an alleged offence by a court claiming jurisdiction to do so, the matter is criminal … The proceedings in the present case are for the direct purpose of handing the appellant over so that he may be dealt with on these charges. Whether they are hereafter withdrawn or disproved does not affect the criminal character of the matter in the least …’
So also Lord Wright ([1942] 2 All ER 381 at 387–388, [1943] AC 147 at 159):
‘The words “cause or matter” are, in my opinion, apt to include any form of proceeding. The word “matter” does not refer to the subject-matter of the proceeding, but to the proceeding itself. It is introduced in order to exclude any limited definition of the word “cause”. In the present case, the immediate proceeding in which the order was made was not the cause or matter to which the section refers. The cause or matter in question was the application to the court to exercise its powers under the Allied Forces Act, 1940, and the Allied Forces … (No. 1) Order, 1940, and to deliver the appellant to the Netherlands military authorities. It is in reference to the nature of that proceeding that it must be determined whether there was an order made in a criminal cause or matter. That was the matter of substantive law. The writ of habeas corpus deals with the machinery of justice, and is essentially a procedural writ, the object of which is to enforce a legal right … The principle which I deduce from the authorities which I have cited and the other relevant authorities which I have considered is that, if the cause or matter is one which, if carried to its conclusion, may result in the conviction of the person charged and in a sentence of some punishment, such as imprisonment or fine, it is a criminal cause or matter. The person charged is thus put in jeopardy. Every order made in such a cause or matter by an English court, is an order in a criminal cause or matter, even though the order, taken by itself, is neutral in character and might equally have been made of a cause or matter which is not criminal.’
Amand v Secretary of State for Home Affairs was the subject of a number of decisions in the Court of Appeal. One of these, R v Southampton Justices, ex p Green [1975] 2 All ER 1073, [1976] QB 11, has been a source of problems which perhaps have yet to be resolved at the highest level. Even, however, if it was rightly decided, it is remote from the present issue, since it proceeded on the basis that the giving of surety for a defendant’s bail created something in the nature of a civil debt. Much more directly in point is Day v Grant [1987] 3 All ER 678, [1987] QB 972, which was concerned with attacks upon witness summonses, in one instance by way of judicial review, and in the other by order of a High Court judge. The Court of Appeal held that no appeal lay in such a case. After citing passages from Amand v Secretary of State for Home Affairs Donaldson MR, with whose judgment Kerr and Lloyd LJJ agreed, observed that he could not think of a case in which the order appealed from arose more clearly in a criminal cause or matter. Returning to the same topic in Carr v Atkins [1987] 3 All ER 684, [1987]
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QB 963, in the light of the intervening decision of the House of Lords in Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, Donaldson MR expressed no doubt whatsoever that an order or a refusal of an order by a criminal judge for the production of documents under the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 was properly described as an order in a criminal cause or matter.
Reference must also be made to a brief but important statement by the Privy Council, in the course of an elaborate opinion, largely concerned with other matters, in US Government v Bowe [1989] 3 All ER 315, [1990] 1 AC 500. A fugitive was the subject of extradition proceedings in the Bahamas. An order was made against which he sought recourse in the Supreme Court. An attempt was then made to pursue an onward appeal to the Court of Appeal. Amongst the points in issue was the question whether, if the appeal was validly brought, the court had jurisdiction to make an order for costs. On a further appeal to the Privy Council the Board held that, if jurisdiction existed at all, it must have been under a section of the relevant Bahamas legislation (s 23 of the Court of Appeal Act) which provided:
‘No costs shall be allowed by the court on either side in connection with the hearing and determination of an appeal in any criminal cause or matter …’
In the course of rehearsing the facts Lord Lowry, who delivered the opinion of the Board, stated ([1989] 3 All ER 315 at 330, [1990] 1 AC 500 at 528):
‘The appeal proceedings were intituled on the civil side of the court (although their Lordships have no doubt that they were proceedings in a criminal cause or matter) …’
Later, Lord Lowry cited Amand v Secretary of State for Home Affairs, and in particular one of the passages from the speech of Viscount Simon ([1942] 2 All ER 381 at 385, [1943] AC 147 at 156) quoted above, as clear authority for the view that the proceedings were in a criminal cause or matter. The opinion of the Board concluded as follows ([1989] 3 All ER 315 at 335, [1990] 1 AC 500 at 535):
‘Ultimately, the question for decision admits of, and indeed demands, a simple answer. The certiorari and prohibition proceedings constituted a criminal cause or matter, as would a habeas corpus application if the subject matter were criminal in the sense described in Amand v Secretary of State for Home Affairs …’
Their Lordships turn to the authorities in Hong Kong, where there is a conflict of judicial opinion. The first case for mention is Re a firm of solicitors [1990] 2 HKLR 146. A warrant authorised officers of the ICAC to enter and search certain premises. The occupiers complained by way of judicial review that the warrant lacked particularity. It is noteworthy that the application sought relief in the shape of a declaration, injunctions and damages. The judge in the High Court granted part of the relief claimed. The ICAC sought to appeal, and the occupiers contested the jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal, on the ground that the order of the judge was not made in a civil cause or matter. In a judgment delivered by Hunter JA the court rejected this argument. First, the judicial history in England was examined and explained by reference to legislative circumstances for which there was no parallel in Hong Kong. Looking at s 13 of the Supreme Court Ordinance, the question in issue should be answered by considering the nature of the cause and of the relief sought and granted. Scrutiny of s 21K of the Supreme Court Ordinance, which introduced the radical changes in procedure of Ord 53, and to the peculiarly civil remedies of injunction, declaration and damages,
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pointed (in the opinion of the court) irresistibly to the conclusion that the proceedings were civil. It seemed to the court that in its current form the civil components of the process of judicial review were so strong that an application which claimed the civil relief authorised by s 21K was to be regarded as a civil cause or matter. This was sufficient to determine the issue, but the court went on to say (at 151):
‘The second question is whether this conclusion applies to all applications for judicial review. We think there is very strong ground for saying that it does, and that by recognising both potential criminal origins in section 211 and then by channelling all judicial review applications together by section 21K under Order 53, the legislature was providing for all …’
Subsequently, during the argument of the appeal in the present case, the same point came before a Court of Appeal, differently constituted, in A-G v Alick Au Shui Yuen [1992] 1 HKLR 88, in which the court disagreed with the conclusion and dicta in Re a firm of solicitors. This court had the advantage, denied to the previous court, of a reference to US Government v Bowe. The court attached great weight to the advice delivered by Lord Lowry, and in particular to the final paragraph already quoted (see [1989] 3 All ER 315 at 335, [1990] 1 AC 500 at 535). Cons V-P concluded the judgment of the court as follows (at 92):
‘We are confident that had these words [sc those of Lord Lowry] been brought to the attention of the other division it would have taken the view that we do today.’
Finally, there was the decision of the Court of Appeal in the present case, where the point was considered in great detail in the judgment of Silke V-P, by reference to a full range of reported cases (only a few of which have been cited herein), and also to the details of the procedures for judicial review in Hong Kong. In the result he concluded that—
‘this court, when the root is criminal, cannot have conferred upon it, by that root growing in some transmuted fashion a civil tree, an appellate jurisdiction which, in my judgment, the terms of the legislation do not permit … While the whole scheme of the judicial review sections of the Supreme Court Ordinance is couched in terms of civil proceedings I do not accept that it is right to ignore the nature of the cause from which those applications spring.’
Their Lordships have no doubt that the approach of the Court of Appeal in the present case was right. The language of the ordinance directs attention, not to the proceedings which led to the order from which the appeal is brought, but to the nature of the cause or matter ‘in’ which the appeal is brought. If the cause or matter is properly characterised as criminal, it cannot lose that character simply because at one stage it is carried forward by techniques which closely resemble those employed in civil matters, or which lead to relief often granted in civil matters, or which are available in civil or criminal matters alike; any more than, having gained this new character by the employment of such techniques, it would revert to its former status when the deployment of the techniques came to an end. The position is surely much simpler than this. Nobody could doubt that the applications made by the appellant to the district judge were applications in a criminal cause, for their purpose was to determine the way in which the prosecution should proceed. The purpose of the judicial review was to dispose of the district judge’s order so as to permit the substitution by the reviewing court of a different order, still directed to the way in which the matter should proceed.
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Whatever the position may be as regards the kind of procedure, ancillary to a criminal matter, such as the estreatment of surety considered in R v Southampton Justices, ex p Green, everything happening in the present case has been no more than one stage in a continuing contest between the prosecutor and the appellant in a matter which from the outset has been exclusively criminal in nature.
In these circumstances their Lordships consider that the Court of Appeal was right to decline jurisdiction. Two consequences follow. First, that the appeal with which the Board is concerned is that brought by special leave from the decision of Barnett J. Secondly, whilst their Lordships fully understand why the Court of Appeal should have wished to state its opinion on the questions argued, any observations concerning the merits of an appeal which should not be before the court must necessarily be extra-judicial. The Board will, at the concluding stage, test its own opinions against those of judges with long judicial experience in Hong Kong. Nevertheless, their Lordships think it right to concentrate attention on the reasons given by Barnett J for the order now under appeal.
THE BARCLAYS (ASIA) APPEAL
Their Lordships turn to the first of the orders under appeal, namely the order of Barnett J refusing to overturn the decision of Judge Cameron not to grant a perpetual stay of the Barclays (Asia) prosecution.
It is important to emphasise at the outset the magnitude of the task which the appellant has set himself by this appeal. Although the jurisdiction to stay a pending prosecution is undoubted, it is equally beyond doubt that the discretion to prevent a prosecution from going to trial should be very sparingly exercised. To this must be added the further obstacle, that the application to Barnett J was not in the nature of an appeal against the conclusion of the district judge, but as (as the learned judge reminded himself) a review of the decision-making process, to be performed within narrow limits. As Griffiths LJ emphasised in R v Chief Registrar of Friendly Societies, ex p New Cross Building Society [1984] 2 All ER 27 at 42, [1984] QB 227 at 260 in relation to the duties of a court seised of an application for judicial review:
‘The court must take a broad view of the decision and not allow itself to be bogged down in minutiae, or led into the error of taking over the role of a fact finding tribunal … particular care must be taken before stigmatising a decision as one at which no reasonable person could have arrived, for this is coming dangerously close to the court substituting its own discretion for that of the tribunal.’
Finally, the appeal to the Privy Council encounters a further hurdle, in the shape of the long-established reluctance of the Board to interfere where the appeal is brought by special leave, except in cases of a serious miscarriage of justice, a reluctance which is even greater where the appeal is concerned with matters of procedure.
Very properly there was extensive discussion in the judgments of Barnett J and the Court of Appeal of the English decisions on this recently-developed aspect of criminal procedure. This citation was repeated before the Board, but with the very important addition of A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169, [1992] QB 630, judgment in which was delivered by the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, while the present appeal awaited a hearing. At the time of argument before the Board only an abbreviated account of the judgment was available for consideration. Subsequently, their Lordships have had sight of the approved transcript of the judgment which corresponds in all material respects with the report considered in argument.
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The facts of A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) are of no consequence for present purposes. It is however important to note the two questions which were referred to the Court of Appeal for consideration:
‘(i) Whether proceedings upon indictment may be stayed on the grounds of prejudice resulting from delay in the institution of those proceedings even though that delay has not been occasioned by any fault on the part of the prosecution. (ii) If the answer to (i) above is in the affirmative, what is the degree of: (a) the likelihood and (b) the seriousness of any prejudice which is required to justify a stay of such proceedings.’
After setting out the facts, the judgment of the Court of Appeal, delivered by Lord Lane CJ, first dealt with and dismissed an argument for the respondent based on c 29 of Magna Carta (1225), similar to one which had been advanced before the High Court of Australia in Jago v District Court of New South Wales (1989) 168 CLR 23. No such argument has been advanced in the present case, and their Lordships need say nothing about it. The court went on to cite a series of authorities for supporting a general jurisdiction to prevent a misuse of the process of the court. These were Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, Mills v Cooper [1967] 2 All ER 100, [1967] 2 QB 459, DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, Hunter v Chief Constable of West Midlands [1981] 3 All ER 727, [1982] AC 529 and R v Brentford Justices, ex p Wong [1981] 1 All ER 884, [1981] QB 445. The court continued ([1992] 3 All ER 169 at 174, [1992] QB 630 at 641):
‘However, the most usual ground is that based on delay, that is to say the lapse of time between the commission of the offence and the start of the trial. The number of applications based on this ground has increased alarmingly over the past few years.’
The court then proceeded to discuss two groups of authorities. The first included R v Crown Court at Derby, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164 and R v Heston-Francois [1984] 1 All ER 785, [1984] QB 278, from the judgments in which the Court of Appeal quoted with approval. The second was called up by reference to the current edition of Archbold, Criminal Pleading and Practice (44th edn, 1992) vol 1, p 433, para 4–45. These cases included R v West London Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Anderson (1984) 80 Cr App R 143, R v Bow Street Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p DPP (1989) 91 Cr App R 283 and R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78. After this citation of authority, the Court of Appeal drew attention to an apparent discrepancy between the stricter rule applied in the earlier cases, and that to which the later decisions appear to have given effect. The Court of Appeal then set out its own opinion on the matter, which it is convenient now to set out at length ([1992] 3 All ER 169 at 176–177, [1992] QB 630 at 643–644):
‘One therefore reaches the anomalous situation whereby the earlier and stricter rule has been broadened, so it seems, by the weight of subsequent decisions. On the basis of the decision in R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, Mr Hooper QC, appearing before us on behalf of the Attorney General, felt constrained to concede that the answer to the Attorney General’s first question is a qualified Yes. As it is not possible to anticipate in advance all the infinitely variable circumstances which may arise in the future, we feel ourselves, albeit reluctantly, forced to agree to a limited extent with that concession. However, we remind ourselves of the principles outlined earlier in this judgment and the observation of Lord Morris
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in Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401 at 411, [1964] AC 1254 at 1304: “… generally speaking a prosecutor has as much right as a defendant to demand a verdict of a jury on an outstanding indictment, and where either demands a verdict a judge has no jurisdiction to stand in the way of it”. Stays imposed on the grounds of delay or for any other reason should only be employed in exceptional circumstances. If they were to become a matter of routine, it would be only a short time before the public, understandably, viewed the process with suspicion and mistrust. We respectfully adopt the reasoning of Brennan J in Jago v District Court of New South Wales (1989) 168 CLR 23. In principle, therefore, even where the delay can be said to be unjustifiable, the imposition of a permanent stay should be the exception rather than the rule. Still more rare should be cases where a stay can properly be imposed in the absence of any fault on the part of the complainant or prosecution. Delay due merely to the complexity of the case or contributed to by the actions of the defendant himself should never be the foundation for a stay. In answer to the second question posed by the Attorney General, no stay should be imposed unless the defendant shows on the balance of probabilities that owing to the delay he will suffer prejudice to the extent that no fair trial can be held, in other words, that the continuance of the prosecution amounts to a misuse of the process of the court. In assessing whether there is likely to be prejudice and if so whether it can properly be described as serious, the following matters should be borne in mind. First, the power of the judge at common law and under the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 to regulate the admissibility of evidence; secondly, the trial process itself, which should ensure that all relevant factual issues arising from delay will be placed before the jury as part of the evidence for their consideration, together with the powers of the judge to give appropriate directions to the jury before they consider their verdict. It follows from what we have said that in our judgment the decision of the judge to stay the proceedings in the instant case was wrong. The delay, such as it was, was not unjustifiable; the chances of prejudice were remote; the degree of potential prejudice was small; the powers of the judge and the trial process itself would have provided ample protection for the defendant; there was no danger of the trial being unfair; in any event the case was in no sense exceptional so as to justify the ruling. This judgment will, we hope, result in a significant reduction in the number of applications to stay proceedings on the ground of delay. At the risk of repetition, we emphasise the exceptional nature of the jurisdiction. In the event of an unsuccessful application to the Crown Court on such grounds, the appropriate procedure will be for the trial to proceed in accordance with the ruling of the trial judge and, if necessary, the point should be argued as part of any appeal to the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division.’
Their Lordships indorse this statement of the manner in which the court should exercise its exceptional jurisdiction to halt criminal proceedings and, except in one respect, they prefer not to offer for their own account any further exploration of the prior authorities.
This exception relates to what became, on the argument before the Board, the principal ground advanced by the appellant in support of the permanent stay of the Barclays (Asia) proceedings. It is most conveniently illustrated by the following passage from the judgment of the Divisional Court in R v Bow Street Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p DPP (1989) 91 Cr App R 283 at 296:
‘Obviously, what has to be demonstrated to the court is that the delay complained of has produced genuine prejudice and unfairness. In some
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circumstances as the cases show, Mr Lawson [counsel for the respondents] referred to them in his skeleton argument, prejudice will be presumed from substantial delay. Where that is so it will be for the Prosecution to rebut, if it can, the presumption. He contended that in the absence of a presumption where there is substantial delay it will be for the prosecution to justify it. He went further and said that the prosecution bore that burden whenever the issue of prejudice through delay was raised. We have no difficulty in accepting the former …’
It seems that this passage led Barnett J (and indeed the Court of Appeal) to conclude that the district judge should have approached the inquiry on the footing that (i) the burden of showing that the continuance of the prosecution would be a misuse of the process of the court rested upon the appellant, but (ii) this burden could prima facie be discharged by demonstrating an inexcusably long delay, unless the prosecution could in turn discharge the burden of showing that prejudice did not in fact follow from the delay. Barnett J went on to hold that the district judge had mistakenly overlooked the reversal of the burden of proof at the second stage but that this had not vitiated his assessment of the material and arguments, nor his arrival at the correct conclusion that the prosecution had discharged the burden thus placed upon it.
Their Lordships do not agree with this appreciation of the law. Naturally, the longer the delay the more likely it will be that the prosecution is at fault, and that the delay has caused prejudice to the defendant, and the less that the prosecution has to offer by explanation, the more easily can fault be inferred. But the establishment of these facts is only one step on the way to a consideration of whether, in all the circumstances, the situation created by the delay is such as to make it an unfair employment of the powers of the court any longer to hold the defendant to account. This is a question to be considered in the round, and nothing is gained by the introduction of shifting burdens of proof, which serves only to break down into formal steps what is in reality a single appreciation of what is or is not unfair.
Thus, whilst their Lordships entirely understand why both Barnett J and the Court of Appeal should have felt, in the light of the passage cited from R v Bow Street Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p DPP that the district judge had paid insufficient regard to the task undertaken by the prosecution, they consider that the district judge was in fact correct to take into account all the factors together, without reference to any burden of proof other than the heavy burden which always rests on a defendant who seeks a stay on the grounds of delay.
This conclusion serves to dispose of the only question of principle raised in relation to the Barclays (Asia) prosecution. All that is left is the complaint about the way in which the district judge assessed the fault of the prosecution for the delay, the expectations aroused by a supposed assurance given on behalf of the prosecutor that the Barclays (Asia) charges would not be pursued and the undoubted ill-health of the appellant. Their Lordships abstain from detailed discussions of these questions, in so far as they were developed in argument, for that would lead the Board to fall into precisely the errors against which Griffiths LJ gave warning in the passage cited above, and which Barnett J clearly set himself to avoid. All their Lordships need to say is that having carefully considered the arguments advanced, in the manner indicated by Griffiths LJ, they can see no ground upon which Barnett J would have been justified in taking the decision-making power out of the hands of the district judge, and substituting a decision of his own.
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THE ORDER OF TRIALS
There remains the question whether, as the appellant contends, the only proper course for the district judge was to postpone the trials of the Barclays (Asia) and WestLB matters until after the conclusion of the BMFL trial, or at least postpone them until it had become clear whether, and if so when and in what shape, the BMFL case would proceed.
It is necessary first to consider an argument which has throughout been presented by the respondent as decisive, namely that the answer to this question must inevitably be negative because the district judge had no power, or no power that he could properly exercise, to do anything other than proceed with the cases assigned to his court, without any regard at all to the pendency of the BMFL prosecution, destined for committal to the High Court. The history of this proposition is not altogether clear. The district judge was undoubtedly aware of it, since it features in his lengthy rehearsal of the arguments, but he did not refer to it when he came to give reasons for his ruling, which was based exclusively on an examination of the merits. From a brief and rather difficult passage in his judgment, it seems that Barnett J was disposed to consider that the submission was correct, but it evidently served only to underline his reasons for concurring with the district judge. However this may be, it is plain that the district judge must have tacitly rejected the argument. Their Lordships have no doubt that he was right to do so, for although it is obvious that a judge of subordinate jurisdiction has no power to make an order which directly governs the proceedings which not only are not before him but are in progress in a court of superior jurisdiction, the proposition that, when deciding what course to take as regards the furthering of the proceedings which are before him, he is forced to ignore the other proceedings entirely, is in their Lordships’ opinion quite unsustainable. Although he can do nothing directly about them, the existence of the concurrent proceedings is an element, albeit not necessarily decisive, in the assembly of facts by reference to which the judge of subordinate jurisdiction must decide how in the interests of justice to exercise his powers to regulate the proceedings in his court.
No absolute rule can be laid down as to the way the subordinate judge should proceed. Everything will depend on the circumstances. These will include the relative gravity of the offences alleged in the two sets of proceedings; the degree of connection, on facts or law, between them; the degree of prejudice which the defendant may suffer, in the shape of adverse publicity or in other respects, if the lesser matters are brought to trial first; the likely time-spans of the two sets of proceedings; the possibility of hardship to the defendant in being required to divert attention and resources to the defence of the lesser charges whilst the graver are in preparation; the risk that if the lesser charges are postponed the lapse of time may render a fair trial of them more difficult; the desirability in the public interest of ensuring that charges properly brought are pressed to a conclusion. These are only examples; other factors may come into play in a particular case.
Leaving aside, therefore, the proposition that the district judge had no choice in the matter, it must be asked whether there is any sufficient reason to interfere with the choice which he actually made. The principal ground urged on behalf of the appellant was that the district judge had been misled by counsel then appearing for the Attorney General into the belief that there was no real prospect that the BMFL prosecution of the appellant would go ahead, and that accordingly there could be no objection to pressing forward with the lesser charges. As to what counsel said there is a keen dispute which their Lordships cannot resolve, beyond observing that there is nothing in the abbreviated note of the arguments
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in the district court to suggest that counsel went further than to point out that the immediate future of the BMFL prosecution was highly speculative. This question need not however be pursued since, whatever counsel may have said, it is plain that the district judge did not proceed upon a false hypothesis. The argument for the appellant fastens on the words ‘I understand and accept that in refusing this application this may give rise to problems should the BMFL charges come to trial …' Reading this part of the judgment as a whole, however, it is clear that the district judge was doing no more than taking note of the fact that whereas the proceedings before him were ready for trial the future of the BMFL prosecution was beset with uncertainty. In doing so he was undeniably right.
There remains only the appellant’s general argument that since it was acknowledged that the publicity of an adverse verdict in the Barclays (Asia) trial might prejudice his defence of the BMFL charges, the obvious course was to eliminate the risk by reversing the order of trials. Their Lordships must disagree. It was not the existence of the risk which mattered, so much as (a) the degree to which it enhanced the prejudice already created by the great publicity which all these matters had attracted in Hong Kong during the preceding years, and (b) the degree to which this additional risk could be neutralised by the trial judge when the BMFL prosecution eventually arrived at a hearing (see R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App R 412). The district judge in Hong Kong was far better placed than this Board to make such a judgment, as part of his assessment of the situation as a whole. In effect, the district judge was faced with a difficult choice between two unattractive alternatives. Their Lordships find it quite impossible to say that he was in error, and still less in the kind of error which would entitle a reviewing court to intervene, by making the choice which he did. Although for the reasons stated they have thought it inappropriate to discuss in detail the reasoning of the Court of Appeal, their conclusion on this question of procedure is fortified by the fact that all four judges in the local courts were of the same opinion.
In the result, their Lordships have humbly advised Her Majesty that the appeal against the ruling of the Court of Appeal that it had no jurisdiction should be dismissed, and that the appeal against the judgment of Barnett J should also be dismissed. The appellant must pay the respondent’s costs before their Lordships’ Board.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Attorney General of Hong Kong v Cheung Wai-bun
[1993] 2 All ER 510
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD LOWRY, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 9, 10, 29 MARCH 1993
Criminal law – Trial – Stay of proceedings – Abuse of process – Delay – Delay in bringing proceedings – Defendant’s conduct alleged to be cause of delay – Defendant’s conduct would be an issue in trial – Defendant alleged to have contributed to delay in bringing prosecution by committing false accounting offences to cover up conspiracy – Whether trial should be held to determine whether defendant’s conduct had caused delay.
The respondent was arrested on 31 August 1988 and charged on 6 May 1989, together with five other defendants, in connection with a cheque cycle conspiracy designed to defraud a Hong Kong bank. The charges against the respondent, who was the general manager of the bank, were one offence of conspiracy to defraud contrary to common law, which was alleged to have been committed between 1979 and March 1982, and two offences of false accounting, contrary to s 19(1)(a) and (b) of the Hong Kong Theft Ordinance, which were alleged to have been committed between February 1982 and June 1982 and in October 1982 with the object of covering up the alleged conspiracy. As a result of the conspiracy the bank was faced with an indebtedness of approximately $US27m. The first preparatory hearing under the Complex Commercial Crimes Ordinance into the offences was held by the judge in charge of the case on 28 October 1989. On 5 September 1990, on the application of the other defendants, the judge ordered the respondent to stand trial separately from his co-accused and directed that the trial of the co-accused should begin immediately. On 6 December 1990, after one accused had pleaded guilty to the offence of conspiracy, two of the other co-accused were convicted of conspiracy and one accused was also convicted of false accounting. They were sentenced to terms of imprisonment ranging from 6 to 42 years’ imprisonment. The trial of the respondent was rescheduled to commence on 2 December 1991 but because of the unavailability of counsel and the prosecution’s involvement in extradition proceedings in Canada involving a co-accused, the commencement of the trial was deferred to 28 April 1992. The respondent applied for a stay of proceedings both at common law for delay amounting to an abuse of process and under arts 11(2)(c) and 10 of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. The judge found that the Crown was responsible for the need to order a separate and subsequent trial of the respondent, that the very long wait for the trial had seriously prejudiced his health and that the excessive delay, none of which had been caused by the respondent, had jeopardised the fairness of the proceedings. The judge accordingly granted a permanent stay of the proceedings against the respondent on 16 June 1992. The Attorney General appealed to the Privy Council, contending that the judge had been wrong to hold that the respondent had not contributed to the delay which had occurred because he had contributed to the delay by committing the false accounting offences to cover up and conceal the conspiracy offence.
Held – In determining whether criminal proceedings should be stayed where the prosecution alleged that the delay in bringing the proceedings on which the
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defendant relied to show that a fair trial could not be held had in fact been caused by the defendant’s own conduct and where that conduct would be an issue at the trial, eg where the prosecution alleged that the defendant had contributed to the delay by committing further offences to conceal his principal offence thereby delaying its discovery, the correct approach was for the judge to bear in mind the nature of the prosecution’s case as part of the factual background against which the alleged delay had to be considered and not as necessarily being a bar to the application for a stay succeeding. However, it would not be proper for the trial to proceed merely to establish whether the defendant’s criminal conduct had contributed to the delay, since unless and until his guilt or innocence were to be established at trial it would not be known whether he was responsible for any delay while at the same time he would be deprived of the protection of not having to stand trial when to do so would amount to an abuse of process. Since it could not be said that by committing the false accounting offences to cover up the conspiracy the respondent had contributed to the delay and since the judge had applied the correct test in deciding that the delay in bringing the proceedings had been such that on the balance of probabilities a fair trial could not be held, the Attorney General’s appeal would be dismissed (see p 515 e to j and p 516 f g, post).
A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169 considered.
Notes
For prolonged delay in starting or conducting criminal proceedings amounting to an abuse of process, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 786, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 60–65, 12097–12132.
Section 19 of the Hong Kong Theft Ordinance corresponds to s 17 of the Theft Act 1968. For s 17 of the 1968 Act, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 498.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169, [1992] 1 QB 630, [1992] 3 WLR 9, CA.
Buxoo v R [1988] 1 WLR 820, PC.
Tan v Cameron [1993] 2 All ER 493, [1992] 2 AC 205, [1992] 3 WLR 249, PC.
Appeal
The Attorney General of Hong Kong appealed with special leave granted by Her Majesty in Council on 5 August 1992 from the order made by Duffy J on 16 June 1992 permanently staying criminal proceedings against the respondent, Charles Cheung Wai-bun, in respect of the charges laid against him on 6 May 1989 of conspiracy to defraud, contrary to common law (count 1), and false accounting, contrary to s 19(1)(a) and (b) of the Theft Ordinance of Hong Kong (counts 2 and 3). The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Colin Nicholls QC and Dick Turnbull (Crown Counsel, Hong Kong) (instructed by Macfarlanes) for the Attorney General.
Geoffrey Robertson QC and Warwick Haldane (of the Hong Kong Bar) (instructed by Simons Muirhead & Burton) for the respondent were not called on.
29 March 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD WOOLF. This is an appeal by special leave granted to the Attorney General of Hong Kong on 5 August 1992 from an order made by Duffy J on 16
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June 1992. That order permanently stayed criminal proceedings against the respondent for the reasons set out in a detailed written ruling handed down on 1 July 1992.
The respondent had been arrested on 31 August 1988 and he was charged on 6 May 1989. He was one of six defendants who were charged in connection with a cheque cycle conspiracy designed to defraud the Hong Kong Industrial and Commercial Bank Ltd (the HICB). The respondent was charged with one offence of conspiracy to defraud contrary to common law (count 1) and two offences of false accounting, contrary to s 19(1)(a) and (b) of the Theft Ordinance of Hong Kong (counts 2 and 3).
Count 1 was alleged to have been committed between 1979 and March 1982 with the complicity of employees of the HICB, including the respondent who was the general manager of the HICB, and employees of a second bank, First Hong Kong Credit Ltd (the FHKC). Count 2 was alleged to have been committed between February 1982 and June 1982 with the object of covering up the alleged conspiracy; and count 3 in October 1982. The proceedings against the respondent and his co-accused were the first proceedings conducted under the provisions of the Complex Commercial Crimes Ordinance of the Laws of Hong Kong. The offences were serious and cheques to the value of $US13.24m were dishonoured by banks in the United States and ultimately as a result of the conspiracy the HICB was faced with an indebtedness to the FHKC amounting to approximately $US27m.
The first preparatory hearing under the Complex Commercial Crimes Ordinance into the offences was held by Duffy J on 28 October 1989. On 5 September 1990, on the application by the other defendants, Duffy J ordered the respondent to stand trial separately from his co-accused and directed that the trial of the co-accused should begin immediately. On 24 September 1990 after one accused had pleaded guilty to the offence of conspiracy, the trial of the other co-accused commenced and on 6 December 1990 two were convicted of conspiracy and one accused was also convicted of the offence of false accounting. They were sentenced to terms of imprisonment ranging from 42 years to 6 years’ imprisonment. The trial judge was Duffy J.
Originally the trial of the respondent was rescheduled to commence on 2 December 1991. However, because of counsel being unavailable and the prosecution being involved in extradition proceedings in Canada involving a co-accused, the commencement of the trial was deferred to 28 April 1992. Having previously considered a number of other applications, including an application on behalf of the respondent that he should disqualify himself, which he rejected, Duffy J commenced the hearing of the respondent’s application for a stay on 7 May 1992. The hearing of that application continued for 18 days during which expert medical evidence was called on behalf of the prosecution as well as the respondent. The respondent contended that he was entitled to a stay both at common law for delay amounting to an abuse of process and under the provisions of arts 11(2)(c) and 10 of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights.
The terms of art 11(2)(c) of the Bill are as follows:
‘In the determination of any criminal charge against him, everyone shall be entitled to the following minimum guarantees, in full equality … (c) to be tried without undue delay …’
Article 10 of the Bill provides:
‘All persons shall be equal before the courts and tribunals. In the determination of any criminal charge against him, or of his rights and
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obligations in a suit at law, everyone shall be entitled to a fair and public hearing by a competent, independent and impartial tribunal established by law. The press and the public may be excluded from all or part of a trial for reasons of morals, public order (ordre public) or national security in a democratic society, or when the interest of the private lives of the parties so requires, or to the extent strictly necessary in the opinion of the court in special circumstances where publicity would prejudice the interests of justice; but any judgment rendered in a criminal case or in a suit at law shall be made public except where the interest of juvenile persons otherwise requires or the proceedings concern matrimonial disputes or the guardianship of children.’
Duffy J decided that for all intents and purposes his power to grant a stay at common law and under the Bill were the same. The Attorney General accepts that this is the position. The respondent contends that this ruling is unduly favourable to the Attorney General as art 11(2)(c) of the Bill ‘by guaranteeing a right to a defendant not to be tried after undue delay (irrespective of the prospect of such trial being unfair) … imposes a stricter duty on the prosecution than Duffy J was prepared to make it shoulder’.
A question was raised in the papers before their Lordships as to whether it was appropriate for an appeal to proceed directly from the decision of Duffy J to their Lordships’ Board. However, at the outset of the hearing both sides conceded that this was the correct course. This concession is not surprising since in Tan v Cameron [1993] 2 All ER 493, [1992] 2 AC 205, in a judgment of their Lordships delivered by Lord Mustill, the Board indicated that this was the appropriate procedure when the appeal was by a defendant to the Board against the refusal to grant a stay of a criminal prosecution on the grounds of alleged abuse of process. The fact that the present appeal is by the prosecutor rather than the defendant does not alter the situation.
On an appeal a prosecutor is in no better position than a defendant who seeks to appeal by special leave. In his judgment in Tan v Cameron [1993] 2 All ER 493 at 504, [1992] 2 AC 205 at 222 Lord Mustill referred to:
‘… the long-established reluctance of the Board to interfere where the appeal is brought by special leave, except in cases of a serious miscarriage of justice, a reluctance which is even greater where the appeal is concerned with matters of procedure.’
This is an approach which echoes the judgment of the Board delivered by Lord Keith of Kinkel in Buxoo v R [1988] 1 WLR 820 and a long line of earlier authority. In this case there has to be added to this onus which an appellant faces the fact that Duffy J was in a peculiarly advantageous position in considering the merits of the respondent’s application to stay since he was intimately acquainted with the issues which would be involved in the trial, having had the conduct of the preparatory proceedings and the trial of the respondent’s co-accused.
Certain of the arguments in the Attorney General’s case and skeleton argument suggested that on the hearing of this appeal their Lordships should act as a court of appeal in relation to findings of fact made by Duffy J after the 18-day hearing. To do so would be totally inconsistent with the approach of their Lordships on an appeal by special leave and these arguments were very properly not persisted in by Mr Nicholls QC on behalf of the Attorney General.
Included in the findings made by Duffy J was a finding that, in preparing the prosecution, there had been a failure by the prosecution to take account of the defendant’ s position so that the Crown were responsible for the need to order a separate and subsequent trial of the respondent. In addition he made a finding
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that the defendant had recently suffered a serious blood loss from a bleeding duodenal ulcer and that a possible, if not the probable, cause of this condition was the stress to which the defendant had been subjected due to the long delay in his criminal proceedings. Duffy J therefore had ‘no doubt whatsoever that the very long period of waiting for his trial has seriously prejudiced the defendant’s general health’. He was further of the view that there had been ‘excessive delay in this case, none of which has been caused by the defendant. He has been seriously prejudiced as a result of that delay and the fairness of these proceedings have been jeopardised’.
Having regard to these findings and the proper approach to them on this appeal, the only possibility which the Attorney General has of succeeding on this appeal is if he can point to some serious misdirection by Duffy J which undermined his conclusions. However Duffy J, having surveyed the leading authorities from various Commonwealth, European and United States courts, as Mr Nicholls accepts, correctly set out the test which he had to apply when he said:
‘Ultimately what has to be determined is whether proceedings can be fair, and it is for the defendant, if he is to succeed, to establish on the balance of probabilities that they cannot be fair.’
That test does not materially differ from that laid down by Lord Lane CJ in A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169 at 176, [1992] 1 QB 630 at 644, which was approved by their Lordships’ Board in Tan v Cameron [1993] 2 All ER 493 at 506, [1992] 2 AC 205 at 224. Lord Lane CJ stated that—
‘no stay should be imposed unless the defendant shows on the balance of probabilities that owing to the delay he will suffer prejudice to the extent that no fair trial can be held …’
The approval of the Board in Tan v Cameron of that statement of Lord Lane CJ was made subject to one exception, which the Board identified, namely as to whether it was appropriate in certain circumstances to presume that the delay has caused prejudice. As to this Lord Mustill, in his judgment, said ([1993] 2 All ER 493 at 507, [1992] 2 AC 205 at 225):
‘Naturally, the longer the delay the more likely it will be that the prosecution is at fault, and that the delay has caused prejudice to the defendant; and the less that the prosecution has to offer by explanation, the more easily can fault be inferred. But the establishment of these facts is only one step on the way to a consideration of whether, in all the circumstances the situation created by the delay is such as to make it an unfair employment of the powers of the court any longer to hold the defendant to account. This is a question to be considered in the round, and nothing is gained by the introduction of shifting burdens of proof, which serves only to break down into formal steps what is in reality a single appreciation of what is or is not unfair.’
The opinion of the Board in Tan v Cameron was given on 29 June 1992 and was understandably not cited to Duffy J. He was therefore unaware of the comment of Lord Mustill to which reference has just been made and so it is not surprising that he should in his reasons, in accord with earlier authorities, have used language with regard to the burden of proof shifting which is inconsistent with the correct approach indicated by Lord Mustill. Just after the passage of his judgment which has already been cited in which he set out the test correctly, Duffy J went on to say that delay could be so excessive that a presumption of prejudice arises and it is
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for the Crown to rebut that presumption. He also indicated that in his view the amount of delay which has occurred in this case was such as to put the case into ‘the category of the presumptively prejudicial’. Duffy J then went on in his judgment to examine ‘whether the Crown has rebutted the inference of prejudice that inevitably arises’. While Mr Nicholls was justified in his criticism of this approach, he recognised that there were limits to the extent to which he was entitled to pray this in aid since in a subsequent passage of his judgment Duffy J, without relying on any presumption, made a finding that the defendant had actually suffered substantial prejudice. His earlier error does not therefore affect the outcome.
The only criticism which Mr Nicholls makes, which, if it was well founded, would be of substance, is with regard to Duffy J’s conclusion that the respondent had not contributed to the delay which had occurred. Mr Nicholls submitted that this was a conclusion to which the judge was not entitled to come. Indeed, he argued that the only proper approach for the judge to adopt was that the defendant had or at least could have contributed substantially to the delay and that this case should have been regarded as falling within an earlier passage of the opinion of Lord Lane CJ in A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) to which reference has already been made. That passage is in these terms ([1992] 3 All ER 169 at 176, [1992] 1 QB 630 at 644):
‘Delay due merely to the complexity of the case or contributed to by the actions of the defendant himself should never be the foundation for a stay.’
In support of his submission, he relied on the nature of the prosecution’s case as to the false accounting charges (counts 2 and 3). This was that the respondent with others had committed these offences in order to cover up and conceal the conspiracy offence and accordingly by so doing the respondent had contributed to the delay. Mr Nicholls submits that the approach of the judge involved ignoring this responsibility of the respondent. However, the difficulty in the way of Mr Nicholls’s argument is that unless and until the respondent’s guilt or innocence was established at the trial, it would not be known whether the respondent had been responsible for concealing the fraud offence. His involvement was the very question around which the trial would revolve. Mr Nicholls had to acknowledge this was the situation and his solution was that, in cases of this nature, an application to stay the proceedings would have to be deferred until the issue could be resolved at the trial. With respect this obviously cannot be an acceptable solution because it would mean that in relation to this category of crime a defendant would be deprived of the protection of not having to stand trial where the trial would amount to an abuse of process. In his remark as to the consequences of delay contributed to by the actions of a defendant, Lord Lane CJ was presumably referring to collateral acts or conduct which would not be the subject of the charge and disputed at the trial by the defendant, for example jumping bail. In relation to conduct which will be an issue at the trial the correct approach is for the judge to bear in mind the nature of the prosecution’s case as part of the factual background against which the alleged delay has to be considered and not as necessarily being a bar to the application succeeding. In this case there can be no doubt that Duffy J was well aware of this and there is nothing in his judgment to indicate that he did not give due consideration to the nature of the prosecution’s case in reaching his decision to grant a stay.
The remaining criticisms of Mr Nicholls were directed to the judge’s assessment of the facts. These are not matters which, for reasons already explained, could possibly constitute a ground of appeal which would succeed before their Lordships’ Board.
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The judge in his initial ruling stated that he was ‘not insensitive to the predicament of the prosecution’ and that his ‘decision was taken purely on the particular merits of this defendant’s case’. He concluded his reasons by describing the case as being ‘exceptional’ although he saw the balance as coming ‘down heavily on the defendant’s side’. By these remarks he was presumably indicating, correctly in their Lordships’ view, that this is very much a case on its own facts, the decision on which should not be taken as a precedent in other cases. While there was no prospect of this appeal succeeding, the fact that their Lordships are of the opinion that the appeal ought to be dismissed should not be regarded as an indication that in the ordinary way, in the absence of exceptional circumstances, the time-scales of the order of those under consideration will result in prosecutions of fraud being stayed.
There remains the question as to whether Duffy J was correct in saying that there is no material distinction between the onus on a defendant who seeks to have a prosecution stayed as being an abuse of process at common law and the onus which faces a defendant who wishes to establish that he is entitled to have the proceedings stayed under the Bill of Rights. Mr Nicholls having accepted that, if there was any distinction between the approach at common law and under the Bill, this distinction could not avail him on this appeal, their Lordships had to decide whether to determine this issue. In the circumstances their Lordships decided not to do so and did not call on Mr Robertson QC to address the Board as they had already decided that his help was not needed as to the outcome of the appeal. Their Lordships recognise that it is possible to argue that there is a difference of approach at common law and under the Bill. However, as any difference in the approach to be adopted is only likely to be of significance in a very small minority of applications for stay, their Lordships have decided that it is preferable not to determine the extent of the difference in this case, where it would be merely an academic exercise, but to leave it to be determined in a case where the existence of the difference would materially affect the result of the appeal. The issue is one which can be more satisfactorily examined in the context of a case where a difference in approach could have practical consequences.
In these circumstances their Lordships will humbly advise Her Majesty that this appeal should be dismissed. The Attorney General must pay the respondent’s costs before their Lordships’ Board.
Appeal dismissed.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Director of Public Prosecutions v Channel Four Television Co Ltd and another
[1993] 2 All ER 517
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Contempt of Court
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WOOLF LJ AND PILL J
Hearing Date(s): 27, 28, 31 JULY 1992
Contempt of court – Criminal contempt – Contempt committed ‘in connection with … criminal proceedings’ – Disobedience of order of court or breach of undertaking given to court – Order to produce documents in connection with terrorist investigation – Order of Crown Court – Refusal to comply with order – Whether Crown Court or Divisional Court appropriate court to deal with contempt – What response appropriate when clear that order would not be complied with – Whether sequestration order appropriate – Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989, Sch 7, para 3 – RSC Ord 52, r 1(2).
On 2 October 1991 the first respondent, a television channel, broadcast a television programme made by the second respondent which alleged that there was widespread and systematic collusion between members of the Royal Ulster Constabulary (the RUC) and loyalist terrorists that had resulted in at least 20 sectarian murders in Northern Ireland over the previous two years and that there was a committee consisting of some 60 members, some of whom were members of the RUC, who were responsible for deciding that individuals who were believed to be republicans would be murdered. Following transmission of the programme an officer in the Metropolitan Police Special Branch applied under para 3a of Sch 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 to a circuit court judge for an order requiring both respondents to produce a wide class of documents connected with the programme. On 31 October the judge granted the application. On 15 November the respondents applied to the judge for the orders to be set aside on the grounds that source A, who had played a central role in the programme, had only revealed his information on being given the most explicit undertakings by both respondents that his identity would be protected. The judge dismissed the application to rescind the order. The first respondent, which had already handed a dossier of material to the Special Branch and the RUC, but not the name of source A, then informed the Crown Prosecution Service that extremely sensitive material which had come into existence during production of the programme had been destroyed when it was no longer required, in order to prevent it falling into the wrong hands and that at the end of the production of the programme such material as had not been destroyed had been sent out of the jurisdiction of the court, in accordance with legal advice, so as to avoid improper seizure and that the only person who knew the precise whereabouts of the material was the researcher on the programme, an employee of the second respondent, who was currently out of the jurisdiction and was not likely to return in the near future because he was in fear of his own safety. At a further hearing the judge directed that the material which had been taken abroad should be brought back and produced to a constable in accordance with the orders made by him on 31 October. The respondents refused to comply with that order because, while acknowledging that they would thereby be in breach of the order, they considered that they were unable to expose either source A or the researcher to grave personal risk and that the risk of death to the individuals outweighed any other consideration. The Director of Public Prosecutions sought orders for
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the payment of fines or alternatively the issue of writs of sequestration for contempt of the judge’s order. The questions arose as to (i) whether the Divisional Court was the appropriate court to hear committal proceedings for an alleged contempt of court committed ‘in connection with … criminal proceedings’ in the Crown Court, since under RSC Ord 52, r 1(2)b an order for committal in respect of contempt committed in connection with criminal proceedings could only be made by the Divisional Court except where the contempt was committed in the face of the court or consisted of disobedience of an order of or breach of an undertaking given to the court and (ii) what should be the court’s response to the respondents’ refusal to obey the judge’s order.
Held – (1) Where the alleged contempt of court consisted of disobedience of an order of the court or breach of an undertaking given to the court both the Crown Court and the Divisional Court had jurisdiction to deal with an application for committal but where the application was dealt with in the Crown Court it was important that justice was not only done but was seen to be done and that the judge should not appear to be the prosecutor acting in his own cause. If necessary the application should be made and the proceedings conducted by the Director of Public Prosecutions or the matter should be determined by another judge of the Crown Court. Where the alleged contempt of court was the refusal to comply with an order made under para 3 of Sch 7 to the 1989 Act requiring the production of information the application should invariably be heard by the Divisional Court rather than the Crown Court (see p 520 e f h to p 521 a c d and p 534 h j, post); Balogh v Crown Court at St Albans [1974] 3 All ER 283 applied.
(2) Until an order made under para 3 of Sch 7 to the 1989 Act requiring the production of information was set aside it had to be obeyed and the Divisional Court could not review the judge’s exercise of his discretion to make the order. Moreover, since the respondents had brought upon themselves the situation in which they found themselves and had themselves created their dilemma of being compelled for genuinely held moral considerations to disobey what they knew to be their legal duty, they had to accept the consequences. The penalty for their refusal to divulge the name of their source had to reflect the fact that the law should not be flouted but, having regard to the fact that it was clear that the respondents would not change their moral stance and therefore the order would not be complied with, the penalty should be proportionate to the situation and should not be such as to put the respondents out of business. Accordingly, the court would not make sequestration orders as requested by the Attorney General but would impose a fine of £75,000 (see p 529 a to d g h, p 530 b f, p 531 j to p 532 a d j, p 533 b and p 534 g h, post).
Notes
For punishment of contempt generally, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 87, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 88–92, 858–900.
For the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989, s 18, Sch 7, para 3, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1299, 1337.
Cases referred to in judgments
A-G v Lundin (1982) 75 Cr App R 90, DC.
Balogh v Crown Court at St Albans [1974] 3 All ER 283, [1975] QB 73, [1974] 3 WLR 314, CA.
Keeley v Mr Justice Brooking (1979) 143 CLR 162, Aust HC.
Weston v Courts Administrator of the Central Criminal Court [1976] 2 All ER 875, [1977] QB 32, [1976] 3 WLR 103, CA.
Page 519 of [1993] 2 All ER 517
X Ltd v Morgan-Grampian (Publishers) Ltd [1990] 2 All ER 1, [1991] 1 AC 1, [1990] 2 WLR 1000, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Carr v Atkins [1987] 3 All ER 684, [1987] QB 963, CA.
Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985, Re an inquiry under [1988] 1 All ER 203, [1988] AC 660, HL.
Hadkinson v Hadkinson [1952] 2 All ER 567, [1952] P 285, CA.
Isaacs v Robertson [1984] 3 All ER 140, [1985] AC 97, PC.
R v Griffin (1988) 88 Cr App R 63, CA.
Rooney v Crown Court at Snaresbrook (1978) 68 Cr App R 78, CA.
Application
By notice of motion dated 6 May 1992, pursuant to the leave of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division given on 29 April 1992, the Director of Public Prosecutions on behalf of the Attorney General applied for an order for the payment of fines or alternatively the issue of writs of sequestration against Channel Four Television Co Ltd (Channel Four) and Box Productions Ltd (Box) for their contempt of court and/or failure to obey orders of Judge Clarkson QC sitting in the Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall on 31 October 1991, made under para 3 of Sch 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989, requiring them to produce to a constable within seven days material relating to a programme entitled ‘The Committee’ made by and broadcast by Channel Four on 2 October 1991 as part of their series of programmes known as ‘Dispatches’. The application was partly heard with another application, which does not call for a report, in which the Attorney General sought the committal or fining of a respondent for an alleged contempt of court in not complying with an undertaking given in unrelated proceedings. The facts are set out in the judgment of Woolf LJ.
Andrew Collins QC and David Calvert-Smith (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Gareth Williams QC and Jonathan Caplan QC (instructed by D J Freeman) for Channel Four and (instructed by Bindman & Partners) for Box Productions.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
WOOLF LJ. The first part of this judgment relates to two separate sets of proceedings for contempt. Their subject matter is very different but they were partly heard together since they raise a common issue as to what court is the appropriate court to hear committal proceedings for an alleged contempt of court committed in connection with criminal proceedings in the Crown Court.
In the proceedings with which this judgment is primarily concerned, the Director of Public Prosecutions is the applicant. The Director seeks orders for the payment of fines, alternatively the issue of writs of sequestration for contempt of an order of Judge Clarkson QC made in the Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall against Box Productions Ltd (Box) and Channel Four Television Co Ltd (Channel Four).
The order was made on 31 October 1991 by Judge Clarkson under para 3 of Sch 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 and it ordered Box and Channel Four respectively to produce to a constable specified documents in relation to dealings with the ‘Dispatches’ programme entitled ‘The
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Committee’ broadcast on 2 October 1991 [His Lordship then referred to the second set of proceedings and continued:].
The question of jurisdiction and forum
The Crown Court has, in relation to contempt, under s 45(4) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, ‘the like powers, rights, privileges and authority as the High Court’. The power of the High Court to make an order on its own motion against a person guilty of contempt is expressly preserved by RSC Ord 52, r 5. Therefore, because of s 45(4) of the 1981 Act, Ord 52, r 5 also applies to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court.
However, Ord 52, r 1(2), so far as relevant, provides:
‘Where contempt of court—(a) is committed in connection with … (ii) criminal proceedings, except where the contempt is committed in the face of the court or consists of disobedience to an order of the court or a breach of an undertaking to the court … then, subject to paragraph (4), an order of committal may be made only by a Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division …’
The words ‘in connection with … criminal proceedings’ do not give rise to the same problems as similar provisions which refer to a ‘criminal cause or matter’ in connection with appeals (see s 18(1) of the 1981 Act) or ‘relating to trial on indictment’ in connection with applications for judicial review (see s 29(3) of the 1981 Act). It is therefore correctly accepted that both applications arise from contempts alleged to have been ‘committed in connection with … criminal proceedings’. Accordingly, both applications fall within the exception referred to in Ord 52, r 1(2)(a)(ii). So the applications are not ones where a committal order can only be made by a Divisional Court.
In these circumstances, it is also correctly accepted by all parties that in the case of these alleged contempts, which are said to consist of disobedience to an order of that court or a breach of an undertaking given to that court, both the Crown Court and the Divisional Court have jurisdiction to deal with an application for committal (see Balogh v Crown Court at St Albans [1974] 3 All ER 283, [1975] QB 73).
The problem is as to when it is appropriate for the alleged contempt to be dealt with by a judge in the Crown Court and when it is appropriate for the contempt to be dealt with by a Divisional Court. Mr Collins QC, who has appeared for the Director, submits that it is always appropriate for applications of this nature to be dealt with in the Crown Court. He rightly points out that the Crown Court is part of the Supreme Court (see s 1(1) of the 1981 Act) and those proceedings may be heard by a High Court judge, a circuit judge or recorder, each of ‘such persons when exercising the jurisdiction of the Crown Court’ being judges of the Crown Court (s 8(1) of the 1981 Act).
It is also pointed out by Mr Collins that the Box and Channel Four applications relate to an order under para 3 of Sch 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 which can only be made by a circuit judge. However, notwithstanding this, that application exemplifies, in my judgment, the type of application which should invariably be heard by the Divisional Court. [His Lordship then said that the second application was well suited for disposal by the Divisional Court and continued:]
Which court in general is the appropriate court for the disposal of cases where there is a choice of jurisdiction I have ascertained is already under consideration and it would not be right for me to anticipate the result of that consideration. In the meantime, if an application is dealt with in the Crown Court then it is important that the need is recognised for justice not only to be done but to be
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seen to be done. The judge should not appear to be a prosecutor acting in his own cause. Here the comments of the Court of Appeal in Balogh v Crown Court at St Albans should be borne in mind.
Mr Munby QC, who appeared for the respondent in the second application, in his helpful submissions, also referred us to Weston v Courts Administrator of the Central Criminal Court [1976] 2 All ER 875, [1977] QB 32 and the persuasive decision of the High Court in Australia in Keeley v Mr Justice Brooking (1979) 143 CLR 162. There is considerable force in Mr Munby’s submission that a judge should only act of his own motion in a matter of contempt if (a) the contempt is clear, (b) the contempt affects a trial in progress or about to start, (c) it is urgent and imperative to act immediately in order to prevent justice being obstructed and undermined and to preserve the integrity of the trial and (d) no other procedure will do if the ends of justice are to be met.
However, it is possible within the Crown Court to make arrangements to ensure a fair procedure. First of all a judge need not appear in the position of prosecutor. Mr Collins, having at the request of the court taken the instructions of the Director, indicated that, where a contempt occurred in the Crown Court, then, although the court may have to draw the situation to the attention of the Director, the Director through the Crown Prosecution Service would accept responsibility for deciding whether there should be an application and, if so, for making the application to the court and conducting the proceedings in the same way as it would if there were to be a trial on indictment. In a case involving issues which would not be appropriate for the trial judge to determine, another judge of the Crown Court could hear the application.
Background to the application
On 2 October 1991 Channel Four broadcast a television programme called ‘The Committee’ as part of their series of programmes known as ‘Dispatches’. The programme made grave allegations. It alleged that there was widespread and systematic collusion between members of the Royal Ulster Constabulary (the RUC) and loyalist terrorists that had resulted in at least 20 sectarian murders in Northern Ireland over the previous two years. It stated that there was a committee known as the Ulster Central Co-ordinating Committee consisting of some 60 members, some of whom were members of the RUC, who were responsible for what happened. The programme suggested that during regular meetings of the committee decisions would be taken to murder individuals who were believed to be Republicans.
The programme was made by Box. Box is an independent programme producer which has made approximately 20 documentary films for both the BBC and Channel Four. Box specialises in making programmes in the field of current affairs, science and technology and economics and finance. Its programmes tend to be of an investigative nature, but this is the first time that it has been involved in legal proceedings in relation to its programmes.
Channel Four was set up under the terms of the Broadcasting Act 1981. Prior to the Independent Television Commissions (the ITC) replacing the Independent Broadcasting Authority (the IBA) on 1 January 1991 Channel Four had been subject to the supervision of the IBA. The IBA was, according to an affidavit of its director of programmes—
‘charged by statute to ensure, among other things, that programmes on Channel Four contained a suitable proportion of matter calculated to appeal to tastes and interests not generally catered for on ITV, to encourage innovation and experiment in the form and content of the programmes and to give Channel Four a distinctive character of its own. The Channel was not
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to make its own programmes, but to commission and purchase them from independent producers and other broadcasters.’
Channel Four does not declare any dividends to its shareholders and it is, in that sense, a non-profit organisation. It obtains its funds from the ITC, which collects the fourth channel subscriptions from each of the ITV companies.
On 31 October 1991 Judge Clarkson granted applications under para 3 of Sch 7 to the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 by an officer in the Metropolitan Police Special Branch and made an order requiring both Box and Channel Four to produce a wide class of documents connected with the programme. That order was made ex parte and Channel Four and Box were not represented.
On 15 November 1991 Box and Channel Four made applications to Judge Clarkson for the orders to be set aside. Those applications were supported by affidavits by Mr McPhilemy, Box’s chief executive on behalf of Box, and Mr Lloyd, on behalf of Channel Four. In the affidavits it was explained that source A, who had played a central role in the programme, had only revealed his information on being given the most explicit undertakings by both Box and Channel Four that his identity would be protected. Mr McPhilemy, in particular, in his affidavit explained why he had serious fears that any disclosure of the identity or whereabouts of source A from members of the production team involved in the programme could put them and their families’ safety at risk.
Mr Lloyd, who is the senior commissioning editor for news and current affairs of Channel Four, also indicated his concern that the investigation should not be carried out by the RUC, bearing in mind the allegations made in the programme. He indicated that he was not confident, should the names of the sources be revealed to officers of the RUC, that they would not very quickly find their way into the hands of the very people whose violence and terrorist activities had been the subject of the ‘serious and disturbing allegations made in the programme’.
Judge Clarkson heard lengthy argument. At the end he gave an admirably clear ruling. He pointed out that the programme, while he hoped it was of concern in the United Kingdom, must be of overwhelming public concern in Northern Ireland. He indicated that it could be desirable for the investigation, which was already being conducted by the RUC, to be taken over by an independent body, although he recognised that it would be wrong of him to cast any doubt on the honesty and good faith of those who belonged to the investigative group in the RUC. However, while he acknowledged that his mind had wavered in the course of the hearing, he came to the conclusion that the orders which he had previously made should stand with the limitation that there should not be any disclosure of any material that would or might lead to the revelation of any home address of any of the officers, employees or agents of Box or Channel Four.
Channel Four, two days after the programme was transmitted, handed a dossier based on the material in its possession to Special Branch and the RUC. The dossier, which was exhibited before this court, contained a considerable amount of material. Following the application which had been made by Box and Channel Four a letter was written by the solicitors for Channel Four to the officer in the Crown Prosecution Service dealing with the matter indicating that their clients had complied with the order. However, the letter pointed out that, because during production of the programme a great deal of material came into existence which was, by its very nature, extremely sensitive and required the most careful security measures to prevent it falling into the wrong hands, that material, when it was no longer required, was destroyed. The letter added that at the end of the production of the programme such material as had not been destroyed, in
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accordance with the legal advice given to Channel Four, was sent out of the jurisdiction of the court, again for security purposes so as to avoid improper seizure and that the only person within either company who knew the precise whereabouts of this material was an employee of Box who was currently out of the jurisdiction and was not likely to return in the near future because he is in fear of his safety. The letter went on to indicate the material which remained in their client’s possession were items that it was not required to produce, either because it was subject to legal privilege or subject to the limitation which had been made to his order by the judge. A similar letter was written on behalf of Box by its solicitors.
In view of the fact that material had been sent out of the jurisdiction, as the letters indicated, the only inference that one can properly draw from those letters is that the view was taken by Channel Four and Box that there was no need to comply with the court’s order in relation to the material which was taken out of the jurisdiction.
There then followed a further hearing before the judge on 9 January 1992, when he directed that the material which had been taken abroad should be brought back and produced to a constable in accordance with his orders. It is not suggested now nor, indeed, so far as I am aware, has it been suggested that the judge lacked jurisdiction to make the order which he did.
On 15 January 1992 further letters were written on behalf of the companies by their respective solicitors to the Crown Prosecution Service. Those letters identified four classes of documents. The only category which is relevant is the category which has been taken out of the jurisdiction, which could assist in the identification of source A. Each of the letters then goes on to record that the respective clients—
‘having considered the matter carefully in the face of clear legal advice as to the consequences, has resolved by unanimous decision of its Board that it is unable to complete its compliance with the Production Order by producing material [which is in issue]. Our client recognises that it is thereby in breach of the Order but it feels unable to expose either Source A or the researcher to such grave personal risk. This decision is based not simply on what may be described as “journalistic” reasons relating to the protection of such sources but because it genuinely believes that the risk of death to the individuals must outweigh in its own conscience any other consideration.’
Having written those letters, Box and Channel Four very properly referred the matter back to Judge Clarkson. On 21 January 1992, having heard further argument, the judge came to the conclusion that there was a prima facie case that the companies were in contempt of court and that rather than deal with the contempt himself he should, as Mr Caplan QC who appeared on behalf of the companies urged, refer the matter to the Attorney General so that he could make the application which is now before the court.
The statutory provisions
The starting point for the consideration of the important issues raised on this application are the relevant provisions of the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989. That Act was described in argument as draconian and so it is. The court is here concerned with Pt V of that Act, which deals with the obtaining of information about acts of terrorism and there is little doubt that it is because the Act is designed to assist the authorities to combat terrorism that its provisions are even temporarily in force.
Section 17 of the 1989 Act indicates that Sch 7 to that Act is to have effect for
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conferring powers to obtain information for the purposes of terrorist investigations, which it defines. It is not necessary to set out the provisions of s 17 since it is not in issue that Sch 7 applies to the investigations which are being conducted as a result of ‘The Committee’ programme.
It is under para 3 of Sch 7 that the judge made the order. Paragraph 3 enables a constable for the purpose of a terrorist investigation to apply to a circuit judge for an order that there be produced to a constable, or given to a constable, access to material which includes ‘excluded material or special procedure material’. Excluded and special procedure material have the same meaning as is given to those terms in ss 10 to 14 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (see paras 1 and 3(1) and (2) of Sch 7 to the 1989 Act). Section 11 of the 1984 Act defines ‘excluded material’ as including material held by journalists who hold the material subject to an express or implied undertaking to hold it in confidence. There is no issue as to whether the material, which the companies are refusing to deliver, is ‘excluded material’.
Paragraph 3(5) of Sch 7 is of importance since it sets out the conditions which the circuit judge has to be satisfied are fulfilled before he makes an order. These conditions are:
‘(a) that a terrorist investigation is being carried out and that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the material is likely to be of substantial value (whether by itself or together with other material) to the investigation for the purposes of which the application is made; and (b) that there are reasonable grounds for believing that it is in the public interest, having regard—(i) to the benefit likely to accrue to the investigation if the material is obtained; and (ii) to the circumstances under which the person in possession of the material holds it, that the material should be produced or that access to it should be given.’
The language of para 3(5)(b)(ii) allows the judge to take into account the undertaking which was given to source A as a circumstance under which they held and still hold the material.
Paragraph 4(3) provides that an order of a circuit judge under para 3 shall have effect as if it were an order of the Crown Court. However, there is no right of appeal against an order made under para 3 and a person who is subject to such an order is limited in his remedies, if he considers that an order has been improperly made, either to applying to the judge who made the order to discharge or vary the order or to apply for judicial review.
In this case the companies, having failed in their application to have the order discharged, were without any other remedy since they rightly accept that there would have been no prospect whatever of showing that the judge’s orders were liable to be quashed on an application for judicial review. Indeed, it is right that it should be recorded that the judge considered the issues involved in an exemplary manner and that it could not possibly be successfully suggested that he was not entitled to exercise the discretion which the paragraph gives him in the way which he did. Each of the conditions was satisfied.
Indeed, it is to be noted that counsel on behalf of the companies at the end of the third hearing expressed appreciation for the manner in which the hearings had been conducted and similar terms of appreciation are reflected in the correspondence.
In addition to Sch 7, the provisions of s 18 are important. It provides:
‘(1) A person is guilty of an offence if he has information which he knows or believes might be of material assistance—(a) in preventing the commission by any other person of an act of terrorism connected with the affairs of
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Northern Ireland; or (b) in securing the apprehension, prosecution or conviction of any other person for an offence involving the commission, preparation or instigation of such an act, and fails without reasonable excuse to disclose that information as soon as reasonably practicable—(i) in England and Wales, to a constable …
(2) A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable—(a) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for term not exceeding five years or a fine or both …’
This section makes a substantial inroad upon the usual position of a member of the public since it places a member of the public under a duty, which would not normally exist, to make available information of the type referred to and makes it an offence, in the absence of reasonable excuse, not to disclose that information.
The position of the companies
There is a substantial volume of evidence before the court as to how the companies came to make the programme and to be in a position where the members of the board of both companies have unanimously come to the decision that they have to disobey an order of the court. Channel Four can properly be regarded as being among the more important public bodies in the country, having regard to its role in the media.
Box, on the other hand, is a company of modest financial resources but in its field it is highly regarded. The members of the boards of both companies are people of integrity and standing who should be well used to bearing heavy responsibility and making difficult decisions. I am prepared to accept that in connection with their activities in relation to the programme they believed they were acting with propriety in a difficult situation. If they were not fully aware of the implications of what was happening, they certainly should have been. The voluminous evidence which has been filed on their behalf makes this clear.
The project was initiated by a researcher of Box, Ben Hamilton, in February 1991 as a result of the trial of Brian Nelson, a member of the Ulster Defence Association. Initially, only conditional approval to the project was given by Mr McPhilemy. After Channel Four became involved members of that company ‘gave this project particularly close attention in view of the sensitivity of the subject that [was being investigated] and the potential legal difficulties that might arise’.
It was as a result of the investigations which were being conducted that Mr Hamilton had made contact with the man who became known as source A. Source A provided a number of long interviews in which he claimed that most of the sectarian murders of Catholics and Republicans in the province were orchestrated and co-ordinated by a secret committee of which he was a member. Mr McPhilemy describes the significance of these revelations as being overwhelming. He appreciated that in—
‘a deeply and bitterly divided society the Police Force is an institution of crucial significance, being the agency to which all citizens, regardless of religion or political conviction, should be able to turn for security and even-handed protection.’
If the allegations source A was making were true, then that institution was drastically flawed. He therefore says he regarded it as his main task to satisfy Box and Channel Four that source A’s testimony was accurate and reliable. Extensive inquiries were made to find corroboration and intense research took place. Mr Hamilton describes that research, indicating that each step was agreed in advance by both companies and the process continued until the programme was
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broadcast. By contrast with all the other programmes that he had worked on, every single step of the research and production of film required evaluation and approval by Channel Four before it was undertaken.
Mr Hamilton also explains how the undertakings came to be given. He did so in these terms:
‘38. When I met with source “A” he refused to talk to me until I had given him an assurance that he would remain anonymous. Even after I had offered “A” the detailed and specific undertakings he requested, he hesitated for days before finally agreeing to speak frankly to me. He explicitly asked me whether I would go to prison rather than reveal his name. Once I gave him that assurance he agreed to a first oral interview but it took a lot of persuasion before he agreed to a filmed interview. It seemed he was prepared to reveal the secrets of his organisation in order to publicise the cause of independence to which he was deeply committed. It soon became apparent that he had taken, and was taking, a deadly risk. In subsequent meetings he cross-examined me several times as to who knew his name; what had happened to the video of the interview; how we were going to disguise his face and voice for the programme; and other such matters which showed profound concern for his personal safety.
39. I have not the slightest doubt that had I not been prepared to give the undertakings required, “A” would not have agreed to say anything to me in the initial phase of my research. I am similarly convinced that if the undertakings had not been continued and extended to the Channel Four personnel and had the very extensive measures taken to disguise his voice and appearance not been promised, “A” would have withdrawn from the project entirely prior to the filming of the interview with him.’
The position with regard to Channel Four in relation to undertakings is explained by Elizabeth Forgan, the director of programmes and executive director of Channel Four. She says in her affidavit:
‘6. The first production meeting which was held at which I was present, took place before the proposed interview of Source A. Although the production company had undertaken to Source A that his identity would not be disclosed, such undertaking only really became an issue when it was clear we needed to film and record what he had to say. It was the fact that he was prepared to be interviewed that in our view gave the programme its strength. It was explained that he was prepared to be interviewed on camera providing that he was given total anonymity. It is a serious journalistic problem to have an anonymous source and it arises only in wholly exceptional circumstances if the story is of exceptional importance. It meant that neither the Commissioning Editors nor myself could know of the identity of the source and that the programme itself would have to be able to persuade viewers of the truth of the allegations without giving his identity.
7. We decided there was sufficient justification to carry out the interview because the public interest seemed to us to be overwhelming. Necessarily the decision to interview A required us to accept the conditions concerning anonymity which had already been agreed with the production company. Up to that point had we not been prepared to be bound by the undertaking we could simply have stopped the project. Once we committed ourselves to the interview we had bound ourselves with the undertaking and could not resile from it. It appeared incontrovertible that anyone offering information of this kind in the context of Northern Ireland would necessarily be in real
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fear of his life and there appeared to us no other way in which to make the programme without the undertaking being given.’
Elizabeth Forgan also identifies the four considerations that she had in mind in relation to the programme. They were:
‘i) The need to verify serious allegations which were being made, before transmission; ii) The need to ensure the safety of the staff of the production company; iii) The need to fulfil guarantees given to a source whose life was at risk; iv) The duty to assist the security services to the fullest extent possible consistent with the first three concerns.’
She goes on to explain the position of Channel Four:
‘26. Notwithstanding the mass of information that has been passed over to the RUC, there remains one question unresolved. Reference was made in the programme to an individual called “Source A” whose co-operation on the programme was secured by an undertaking that his identity would not be disclosed. The RUC wish to interview this individual but the Channel having given the undertaking, is unable to disclose information which may reveal his identity. I should make it clear that no person at Channel Four has ever met with or spoken to Source A. During the making of the programme documentation or other material came into existence which even though it does not name Source A, nevertheless could enable a competent investigator to trace his identity and it is this material which the Channel feels unable to hand over even though it is the subject of the Production Orders.
27. The Channel is faced with an impossible dilemma. Either it complies with the undertaking given to Source A and risks being in contempt of a Court Order or it complies with the Order of His Honour Judge Clarkson and exposes Source A to personal risks with, perhaps, lethal consequences. The Channel approaches the dilemma with the greatest concern and respect. It does not treat the matter casually nor does it view the prospect of being in breach of a Court Order, if it is upheld, with anything but the deepest regret.
28. The Channel does not mean any disrespect to His Honour Judge Clarkson who was himself deeply troubled by the matter and, we believe, understood and sympathised with the Channel’s concern even though ultimately he made the Order with which we find ourselves unable fully to comply.’
Because of the sensitive nature of the programme, Channel Four also not only involved its in-house legal team but consulted leading counsel from June 1991 to advise on, inter alia, issues relating to contempt and about the future of programme investigation, having regard to s 18 of the 1989 Act to which I have referred.
In her affidavit the lawyer employed by Channel Four who was most directly involved indicates that the chief executive, Mr Michael Grade, and the board all accepted that Channel Four was bound by the undertakings given to source A. It was, however, not until the end of September 1991 that a decision was made to proceed with the transmission of the programme. Her affidavit is not specific as to when the material was sent abroad but it appears probable that this was at the end of September, shortly before the transmission of the broadcast, although it is possible it was sent just after the broadcast.
The evidence filed on behalf of the companies indicates that, once the activities in relation to the investigations which were being carried on became known, there were a series of incidents which would justifiably give rise to a very real
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concern on the part of the companies for the safety of their employees and the security of the material which was collected in the course of preparing the programme. Mr McPhilemy explains in his affidavit the reason why he felt unable to comply with the judge’s orders:
‘86. The seeds of the proceedings in this Court were sown when I first endorsed and agreed to be bound by the undertakings given to “A”. Such undertakings, if they are to have any meaning or validity, cannot contain unspoken escape clauses or be given with mental reservations which will allow them to be abrogated at a later stage. To do otherwise, would be to engage in a deliberate and life-threatening deception of those to whom the undertakings are given. For this reason, such undertakings are not given lightly or without thought and deliberation, particularly when the consequences may be as grave as the proceedings in which I am currently involved.
87. No responsible journalist or broadcaster can be neutral about terrorism: if there is one issue upon which all parties to this matter can agree, it is the need to eradicate this scourge from the society in which we live. If there is evidence to show that the very institutions upon which we depend for our collective security contain a significant number of individuals who are actually engaged in perpetrating that evil, the public interest can only be served by bringing that evidence to public notice …
90. These are the reasons I respectfully believe that His Honour Judge Clarkson should not have made the Production Orders against my company and Channel Four. The public interest, having regard to the circumstances in which we held the material we sought to protect, in my view demanded that nothing be done to impede the process of bringing these matters to public attention. Journalistic exposure of institutional corruption is always likely to commence with information given in confidence. If journalists can be compelled to disclose their sources in circumstances such as these, such corruption will survive unchecked. In a plural, democratic society, the public interest cannot be served by the creation of no-entry zones into which journalists may not stray: such areas will then become fertile grounds for unrestrained wrongdoing.
91. Finally, and quite apart from the issues raised and arguments deployed above, there is one overriding and compelling reason why I cannot comply with any order which requires my company to hand over material which will identify the source for this film. That reason is my profound fear for my own safety and the safety of my family were I to do so. For several months we have been unable to live in our family home and we continue to live in secure accommodation elsewhere. I have been prepared to endure this disruption as the price of fulfilling my duty to bring this matter to public attention. I am not prepared, however, to escalate the risks we face by reneging on the undertakings I have given.’
The effect of the order in the Crown Court
Mr Williams QC, in his powerful and moving submissions on behalf of the companies, argued, while fully recognising that this was not his best point, that, although there is no right of appeal in respect of the order made by the judge, on an application for committal for contempt this court, even where there is a clear breach of the order, is entitled on the application for committal to decide that the lower judge wrongly exercised his discretion under Sch 7. In support of this argument he referred the court to A-G v Lundin (1982) 75 Cr App R 90, Arlidge and Eady Law of Contempt (1982) paras 4–87b to 4–87d and other authority.
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I cannot accept this contention. In my judgment, the law is clear that, until an order of the type made by the judge is set aside, it has to be obeyed. However, in this case, as I have already indicated, this point is purely academic since, in my judgment, the learned judge exercised his discretion perfectly properly. However, in deciding what is the appropriate punishment for contempt, the court is required to have regard to all the circumstances and can when doing so have regard to the matters argued before the judge for not making the order.
The response of this court
I accept Mr Williams’s submission that the response of the court to the undoubted contempt committed both by Box and Channel Four should be proportionate to the situation in which the companies found themselves. I accept that they are faced by a genuine dilemma. However, the proportionate response which Mr Williams urges the court to adopt, namely only to make an order for costs against the companies, is not one which I regard as being appropriate. Let me try and explain why.
I fully accept that throughout both Channel Four and Box were motivated by what they regard as being proper motives. I also accept that they now find themselves in, as I have just said, a real dilemma. For genuinely held moral considerations they feel compelled to disobey what they know well is their legal duty. However, in determining their responsibility, it is necessary to identify how it is that they find themselves in this dilemma.
In the passage of his affidavit which I have already cited Mr McPhilemy identifies the source of the problem when he says: ‘The seeds of the proceedings in this Court were sown when I first endorsed and agreed to be bound by the undertakings given to “A”.' Whether they were aware of this at the time or not, both Box and Channel Four should have appreciated that, because of the provisions of the 1989 Act, they should not have given an unqualified undertaking to source A. They could properly give an undertaking that they would not disclose source A’s identity unless they were ordered to do so by the court and that they would do everything in their power to protect his identity, but they were not in the position to give the totally unqualified undertaking which they did unless they were intending to break an order of the court to disclose if an order was made. It was and should have been obvious to them, particularly having regard to the legal advice which they were receiving, that, if they were going to act, or might act, on the information which source A provided, there was at least a substantial risk of an order being made in the terms of the order which was actually made.
This is particularly true in the case of Channel Four, which only became subject to the undertaking on deciding to go ahead with the preparations for the programme with a view to its being broadcast. Both companies must have appreciated what would be the consequences of the programme: that almost inevitably there would be an inquiry as a result of the programme and source A’s role would be crucial. Why did they otherwise send a dossier to the RUC immediately the programme was over? The immediate effect of the programme would be to undermine the confidence of the public, particularly in the Province of Northern Ireland, in the RUC and an inquiry would be essential if the damage to that confidence was to be kept within limits. They should also have appreciated that, however careful the companies had been, there would remain a risk, a risk confirmed by the evidence filed on behalf of the Director, that source A’s allegations may have been untrue and were possibly designed to achieve the undermining of the confidence in the RUC. It was and should have been obvious that, if the investigations into the RUC took place (which, after all, is now claimed to be one of the hoped for benefits of the programme), the security forces would inevitably want to identify source A and follow up his involvement. This would
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be necessary, if source A was speaking the truth, to eradicate a canker within the RUC and it would be necessary, if he was not speaking the truth, to show that the RUC had been gravely slandered to the disadvantage of the province. It was no doubt because this was obvious that the companies themselves, once the programme was over, commendably supported the authorities, at least to the extent of providing assistance which they did. This being the situation, as responsible companies, who I am sure would not claim to be above the law, they were under a duty not to create a situation which they should have realised would almost inevitably lead to their present dilemma. They have themselves created that dilemma.
I, of course, appreciate that the companies would say that source A would never have co-operated but for the undertakings and without his co-operation there would have been no programme and as it was in the public interest that the programme be broadcast, so the public interest required them to give the undertaking. However, this in accordance with the law Parliament has enacted is an impermissible approach for the companies to adopt. Even if they decided improperly to adopt this approach, they should have at least tried to secure source A’s co-operation by a qualified undertaking, or have sought advice at the highest level of government (which should have been available in view of Channel Four’s standing) as to the propriety of the action they were proposing.
If, however, they felt that either or both of these possibilities would not realistically produce any result, then they should have borne in mind the nature of the issue at stake. They should have borne in mind that what they were proposing to do would inevitably undermine not only the reputation of the RUC but also, and possibly more importantly, the rule of law and thus help to achieve the very result that the terrorists on both sides in Northern Ireland are seeking to bring about.
Whatever one may personally think of the 1989 Act, it is an Act which is the law of the land and, like any other law, it has to be observed while it is in force. An institution with the status and responsibility of Channel Four must surely be required not to act in a way which will, or even may, result in it flouting the law. If Channel Four—and I emphasise its part because everything that Box did was under its supervision and with its approval—is seen to be able to flout the law with impunity, what is the example that this sets to those who do not have its standing and reputation?
What is at issue here was made abundantly clear by Lord Bridge in X Ltd v Morgan-Grampian (Publishers) Ltd [1990] 2 All ER 1 at 13, [1991] 1 AC 1 at 48–49 in a case which did not have the same constitutional significance as this case when considering the protection provided to journalists by s 10 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981, a section which was not even relied upon by the companies in this case since, presumably, it was accepted it provided no protection. What Lord Bridge said was:
‘The maintenance of the rule of law is in every way as important in a free society as the democratic franchise. In our society the rule of law rests on twin foundations: the sovereignty of the Queen in Parliament in making the law and the sovereignty of the Queen’s courts in interpreting and applying the law. While no one doubts the importance of protecting journalists’ sources, no one, I think, seriously advocates an absolute privilege against disclosure admitting of no exceptions. Since the enactment of s 10 of the 1981 Act both the protection of journalists’ sources and the limited grounds on which it may exceptionally be necessary to override that protection have been laid down by Parliament. I have not heard of any campaign in the media suggesting that the law itself is unjust or that the exceptions to the
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protection are too widely drawn. But if there were such a campaign, it should be fought in a democratic society by persuasion, not by disobedience to the law. Given the law as laid down by s 10, who, if not the courts, is to interpret it and to decide in the circumstances of any given case whether the protection is to prevail or whether the case is brought within one of the exceptions? The journalist cannot be left to be judge in his own cause and decide whether or not to make disclosure. This would be an abdication of the role of Parliament and the courts in the matter and in practice would be tantamount to conferring an absolute privilege. Of course the courts, like other human institutions, are fallible and a journalist ordered to disclose his source may, like other disappointed litigants, feel that the court’s decision was wrong. But to contend that the individual litigant, be he a journalist or anyone else, has a right of “conscientious objection” which entitles him to set himself above the law if he does not agree with the court’s decision, is a doctrine which directly undermines the rule of law and is wholly unacceptable in a democratic society. Any rule of professional conduct enjoining a journalist to protect his confidential sources must, impliedly if not expressly, be subject to whatever exception is necessary to enable the journalist to obey the orders of a court of competent jurisdiction. Freedom of speech is itself a right which is dependent on the rule of law for its protection and it is paradoxical that a serious challenge to the rule of law should be mounted by responsible journalists.’
So far I have not referred to the alternative grounds relied upon by Mr McPhilemy, namely the unhappy situation in which he and his family now find themselves. The court can and does sympathise with Mr McPhilemy as to this situation. However, with the greatest respect, this cannot be a justification for not complying with an order of the court. Regrettably, and particularly in the province, many in all walks of life find themselves routinely in the same position as that in which he finds himself through no fault of their own. None the less they carry on and do their duty. If Mr McPhilemy is going to be involved in running a company which conducts the production of investigatory television programmes of the sort that was transmitted by Channel Four on 2 October 1991, then he must be prepared not to hide behind the consequences which can follow from this sort of activity.
There is one more factor which I have to mention. That is the evidence which was given before Judge Clarkson by Det Chief Insp Mack. He indicated that he was a member of the team that had been established by the Chief Constable of the RUC to investigate the allegations made in the programme. The team, which is headed by the most senior detective in Northern Ireland, is being overseen and directed by the assistant chief constable. The investigation which is being conducted is clearly at the highest level. He gave evidence that, when a person is given the full degree of protection which can be provided, so far there has been no occasion when the security provided has been breached. The risk to source A may, therefore, not be quite as great as it is feared.
On behalf of the Attorney General Mr Collins suggested that the appropriate response to the contempt of the companies is sequestration orders. However, this is not a course which the court is going to adopt. Mr Collins submits that if that course is not taken it will have the effect of rendering the order of the judge worthless. I recognise fully the danger of this. However, I can see no purpose in making a sequestration order which could result in the destruction of both Channel Four and Box and the effect upon their employees if it is not going to achieve the purpose which it is designed to achieve, namely the giving of the material to the authorities which should identify source A.
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Although the respective boards of Channel Four and Box would no doubt be horrified if a sequestrator were to be appointed, I do not believe this would cause them to change their moral stance. The court, in my judgment, must accept the reality of the situation, that the companies having given the undertakings will not now be compelled by sanctions, financial or otherwise, to comply with the order.
The position is different from that which applied in the miners’ strike, where the appointment of a sequestrator could disenable a union from continuing to ignore the orders of the court. If sequestration is not an appropriate remedy, then the only alternative is a fine. In deciding on the amount of that fine, I have in mind each of the matters to which Mr Williams asked the court to have regard. I have particularly in mind the fact that it may not have been appreciated by the companies in this case the dangers which were implicit in giving an unqualified undertaking, although, as I have already indicated, this should have been in their mind. This will not apply to the future but is a compelling factor in the present situation.
I also have in mind that no one questions in these proceedings the genuineness of the dilemma in which the respective boards find themselves and their desire to co-operate with the order of the court so far as their conscience will permit. In these circumstances, I would propose a substantially smaller fine than I would otherwise have done. The fine must, however, be of sufficient size to mark the gravity of the situation. The fine which I would impose in respect of the wrongdoings of both Channel Four and Box would be a total fine of £75,000. In the first instance, I do not propose to allocate the amounts which the companies should respectively pay because it seems to me that Channel Four, as the predominant partner, is in the best position to judge who should appropriately pay what sum.
In addition Channel Four and Box will have to bear the costs, which will not be insubstantial in these proceedings. I should make it clear that, in fixing the sum which I have, I intend that to be a punishment in relation to the totality of the conduct of Channel Four and Box and their respective officers and employees. I say that because, although I may have misunderstood the implication of what was said, I did understand there might have been some intention of bringing further proceedings against individuals. For the reasons which I have set out, this should not be necessary.
I would hope that both boards will at least reconsider their position carefully in the light of our judgments and particularly having regard to the eloquent words of Lord Bridge which I have cited.
The record of providing security protection, which happily so far has not been breached, should not be forgotten nor should it be forgotten that there is more at stake here even than their undertaking to source A. In this judgment I have accepted that the companies are faced with a real and genuine dilemma. However, the answers to the issues posed by that dilemma that I would give can be summarised as follows.
1. The companies were at fault in authorising the giving of an unqualified undertaking to source A when they should have recognised the obvious risk of either having to break their undertakings or to contravene an order of the court.
2. Even having given an unqualified undertaking, they should recognise that there are some circumstances when they are legally required not to keep their undertaking and source A must be taken to have appreciated this. For example, if it had been ascertained that source A himself was a serial murderer and disclosure of his identity to the authorities was the only way in which we could avoid him killing again, would Channel Four, in those circumstances, think that
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they should not disclose his identity to the authorities? If they would answer that question by saying No, they would disclose his identity, then I would suggest that the situation here is that source A, on his own admission, was a party to serial murders and, if they do not provide his identity, then Channel Four and Box could be collaborating in the continuation of killings which are, unfortunately, still taking place.
3. It was the intention of Parliament as expressed in the 1989 Act that it is for a judge and not for the companies to decide whether the public interest requires the companies to keep or break their undertakings. The judge, in accordance with Parliament’s intention, has assessed this issue to the best of his ability and exercised this issue more objectively than I suggest Channel Four or Box can do. He has, after straining his conscience, come to the conclusion that the identity should be disclosed. The judge having carefully considered the arguments and having come to this conclusion, should not Channel Four and Box accept his judgment and not seek to be the judge in their own cause?
Finally, I would ask the companies to take into account their public role and I would ask that they should set an example to others who are in less responsible positions of not openly flouting the law.
PILL J. Judge Clarkson QC, having considered the evidence and the issues involved, has found that the respondents, Channel Four Television Co Ltd and Box Productions Ltd, are in contempt of court and it is for this court to decide what action to take. Contrary to an order made in the Crown Court, the respondents refuse to disclose documents taken out of the jurisdiction on their instructions by Mr Ben Hamilton. Such documents would be expected to reveal the identity of source A, whose identity they have undertaken to withhold. An interview with source A was central to the programme ‘The Committee’ broadcast by Channel Four on 2 October 1991.
What disturbs me about this case is the raw deal which the public have had. There is public revulsion against terrorism. That is reflected in the enactment by Parliament of the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 and the stringent provisions it contains.
The respondents have sought to investigate terrorism in Northern Ireland and in particular an alleged campaign of murder in which the Royal Ulster Constabulary (the RUC) are said to be involved. Extremely serious allegations were made in the programme and are made, in detail, in the affidavits now before the court, some of which, understandably, have been publicised. Allegations against the RUC and others have taken a particularly strident form in the recent affidavit of Mr Sean McPhilemy, the managing director of Box Productions. I will not exacerbate the situation by repeating them. The Chief Constable of the RUC issued a prompt denial of the truth of the allegations when they were broadcast. Mr Gareth Williams QC, leading counsel for the respondents, rightly says that it is not the function of the court at this hearing to decide the truth or otherwise of the allegations.
By their solicitor’s letter of 15 January 1992 the respondents made clear their intention to defy the court. It was stated:
‘The concern of our client is, and always has been, that disclosure of information which might lead to the identity of Source A … would be to expose them to death … This decision is based not simply on what may be described as “journalistic” reasons relating to the protection of such sources but because it genuinely believes that the risk of death to the individuals must outweigh in its own conscience any other consideration.’
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Mr D M Lloyd, senior commissioning editor for news and current affairs at Channel Four, stated in his recent affidavit:
‘I believe it is a proper journalistic principle to protect sources of information who require that their identity should be kept secret, but the undertaking to A involved a far greater principle, namely the protection of human life.’
Concern for safety is, of course, an important consideration in this or any other context. However, it appears to follow that the respondents believe that, provided they interview someone whose allegations against identified persons or organisations are so serious and provocative that he puts his own life in danger, they are entitled to defy a court order to identify him. That appears to me to be claiming an entitlement to set themselves above the law in situations of their own making. The words of Lord Bridge, which Woolf LJ has cited, are apt (see X Ltd v Morgan-Grampian (Publishers) Ltd [1990] 2 All ER 1 at 13, [1991] 1 AC 1 at 48–49).
Further, if the respondents’ attitude is appropriate, it puts a premium on wild and extreme allegations which could then be used (and I am not doubting the good faith of the deponents in the present case) to form the basis for a submission that the situation is so dangerous that the court can be defied. Similarly, legitimate concern for the safety of those concerned with the making of the programme and their families cannot exclude other considerations of public importance.
Woolf LJ has set out the sequence of events. The result of the respondents’ contempt of court is that the authorities and the courts have been deprived of the opportunity to investigate the extremely serious and inflammatory allegations which have been made. If the allegations are true, urgent and thorough investigation is required. Prosecutions would be likely. If the allegations are untrue, they should be exposed for the dangerous and pernicious falsehoods they are.
The public have the worst of it. They endure the distrust, fear and distress which are bred by the allegations without the opportunity to have the truth of the allegations properly investigated. The danger to society if falsehoods of this kind go uncorrected needs no underlining. Neither does the degree of concern to be felt if source A is telling the truth.
The respondents should not have so conducted themselves as to place themselves in the position they have, for the reasons given by Woolf LJ. Their dilemma is of their own making. Their conduct in defying the court cannot, in my judgment, be justified. In X Ltd v Morgan-Grampian (Publishers) Ltd [1990] 2 All ER 1 at 13, [1991] 1 AC 1 at 48–49 Lord Bridge, in a speech with which the other members of the House agreed, resoundingly expressed the importance of the rule of law in a democratic society.
However, it may be that, at the time the undertaking was given to source A, the effect and implications of that undertaking in the context of the Prevention of Terrorism (Temporary Provisions) Act 1989 and efforts to combat terrorism had not fully been appreciated even by the experienced people involved in the production of the programme ‘The Committee’. On that basis, I agree with the order proposed by Woolf LJ.
Application granted. Fine of £75,000 imposed.
Raina Levy Barrister.
Attorney General v Associated Newspapers Ltd and others
[1993] 2 All ER 535
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Contempt of Court
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): BELDAM LJ AND TUDOR EVANS J
Hearing Date(s): 5, 6, 12 NOVEMBER 1992
Contempt of court – Publications concerning legal proceedings – Disclosure by newspaper of secrets of jury room – Jurors giving opinions regarding trial to third party – Third party revealing information to journalist – Journalist writing article in newspaper using information – Whether journalist, publisher and editor guilty of contempt – Whether prohibition against disclosure of jury’s deliberations confined to disclosure by members of jury – Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 8(1).
The respondents, the publishers and editor of a national newspaper and a journalist employed on the paper, published an article in the paper on 5 July 1992 referring to statements, opinions and arguments made by some members of the jury as they discussed their verdicts in a well-publicised fraud trial. The article gave the thoughts of some jurors on the evidence and the opinion of one member of the jury that another juror showed a complete lack of understanding of the case and only wanted to drag it out and had only agreed with the verdict because he wanted to get home. The article also related comments made by another juror about the defendants and how his reluctance to believe in their guilt had been overcome, and it recounted how certain other jurors had been persuaded to change their minds in the course of the deliberations. The respondents had not obtained the information directly from the jurors concerned but from transcripts of interviews with the jurors conducted supposedly for the purpose of bona fide research by persons who had placed an advertisement in another newspaper offering a reward to jurors who had taken part in the trial if they contacted a box number. The Attorney General brought proceedings for contempt under s 8(1)a of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 against the respondents for publishing the information. Under s 8(1) it was a contempt of court to ‘obtain, disclose or solicit’ particulars of statements, opinions, arguments or voting which took place in the jury room. The respondents contended that the prohibition against disclosure of the deliberations of a jury was confined to disclosure by members of the jury and did not apply where the information had been obtained indirectly from another source as the respondents had done.
Held – Disclosure of the deliberations of a jury, even though the deliberations were obtained indirectly, nevertheless amounted to a contempt of court under s 8(1) of the 1981 Act, since the free, uninhibited and unfettered discussion by the jury in the course of their deliberations was essential to the proper administration of a system of justice which included trial by jury and s 8(1) was aimed at keeping the secrets of the jury room inviolate in the interests of justice. In particular, the term ‘disclose’ in s 8(1) was not confined solely to disclosure by members of a jury but was wide enough to encompass the revealing of the secrets of the jury room by a juryman to his friend or neighbour as well as the disclosure of such knowledge to the public as a whole by someone to whom it had been revealed. It followed that the Attorney General had proved a breach of s 8(1) by the respondents, for which each would be fined (see p 543 b c h to p 544 g, post).
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Notes
For disclosing particulars of a jury’s deliberations, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1023, and for a case on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 372, 5155.
For the Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 8, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 192.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G v Hislop [1991] 1 All ER 911, [1991] 1 QB 514, [1991] 2 WLR 219, CA.
A-G v Leveller Magazine Ltd [1979] 1 All ER 745, [1979] AC 440, [1979] 2 WLR 247, HL.
A-G v New Statesman and Nation Publishing Co Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 644, [1981] QB 1, [1980] 2 WLR 246, DC.
A-G v Times Newspapers Ltd [1991] 2 All ER 398, [1992] 1 AC 191, [1991] 2 WLR 994, HL.
Brind v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1991] 1 All ER 720, [1991] 1 AC 696, [1991] 2 WLR 588, HL.
Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985, Re an inquiry under [1988] 1 All ER 203, [1988] AC 660, [1988] 2 WLR 33, HL.
DPP v Channel Four Television Co Ltd [1993] 2 All ER 519, DC.
R v Jameson (1896) 12 TLR 551, DC.
Sunday Times v UK (1979) 2 EHRR 245, E Ct HR.
X Ltd v Morgan-Grampian (Publishers) Ltd [1990] 2 All ER 1, [1991] 1 AC 1, [1990] 2 WLR 1000, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1988) [1989] 2 All ER 1, [1989] AC 971, HL.
Autronic AG v Switzerland (1990) 12 EHRR 485, E Ct HR.
Derbyshire CC v Times Newspapers Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 65, [1992] QB 770, CA.
Garland v British Rail Engineering Ltd Case 12/81 [1982] 2 All ER 402, [1983] 2 AC 751, CJEC and HL.
Lingens v Austria (1986) 8 EHRR 407, E Ct HR.
Litster v Forth Dry Dock and Engineering Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 1134, [1990] 1 AC 546, HL.
Lonrho plc, Re [1989] 2 All ER 1100, [1990] 2 AC 154, HL.
McMonagle v Westminster City Council [1990] 1 All ER 993, [1990] 2 AC 716, HL.
Open Door Counselling Ltd v Ireland (1992) Times, 5 November, E Ct HR.
Thorgeirson v Iceland (1992) 14 EHRR 843, E Ct HR.
Application
By a notice of motion dated 27 July 1992 the Attorney General applied under RSC Ord 52, pursuant to the leave of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Leggatt LJ and Popplewell J) given on 15 July 1992, for orders for contempt against Associated Newspapers Ltd, publishers of the Mail on Sunday, Stewart Steven, the editor of the Mail on Sunday, and Clive Wolman, a journalist on the Mail on Sunday, in respect of an article in the issue of the Mail on Sunday for 5 July 1992 entitled ‘Common people … common sense COMMON JUSTICE’ in that the conduct of the first and second respondents in publishing and of the third in writing the article was in breach of s 8 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 in that the article disclosed particulars of statements made, opinions expressed, arguments advanced or votes cast by members of a jury in the course of their
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deliberations in legal proceedings. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Philip Havers (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Attorney General.
David Pannick QC and Dinah Rose (instructed by Mishcon de Reya) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
12 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
BELDAM LJ. Early in July 1992 the third respondent, a journalist and editor of a City section, wrote a newspaper article in which he attributed to jurors in R v NatWest Investment Bank, known as the ‘Blue Arrow’ trial, ‘accounts by three jurors about how they actually reached their decision’. The article was shown to the second respondent, the editor of the Mail on Sunday, who decided to publish it in the ‘Money Analysis’ section of the issue on 5 July. The article revealed the statements, opinions and arguments of some members of the jury as they discussed their verdicts. It gave the thoughts of some jurors on the evidence and the opinion of one member of the jury that another showed a complete lack of understanding, only wanted to drag the case out and had agreed with the verdict only because he wanted to get home; it related comments made by another juror about the defendants and how his reluctance to believe in their guilt had been overcome and it recounted how certain other jurors had been persuaded to change their minds in the course of the deliberations.
How the respondents were able to reveal to the readers of the Mail on Sunday these confidential details of the jury’s deliberations has not been disclosed to the court. It is, however, known that about two weeks after the conclusion of the trial an advertisement appeared in the London Evening Standard offering a reward to jurors who had taken part in the trial if they contacted a box number. A woman posing as an American researcher in Massachusetts was said to be seeking data for a comparative study. Two members of the jury answered the advertisement. Other members were contacted by telephone by a woman who avowed that she was preparing a paper for university studies. After preliminary meetings, the initial scruples of two of the jurors were overcome and they were persuaded to answer questions about the confidential proceedings in the jury room. One was paid £200 and the other £100. The third respondent denies any knowledge of the advertisement in the Evening Standard. He asserts that he later learnt from the ‘researchers’ of the interviews which had taken place and that he received from those researchers ‘transcripts of their interviews’.
He then telephoned and spoke directly to one of the jurors of whose interview he had a transcript. Although the third respondent does not accept the sworn evidence of the juror that he refused his agreement to publish the information which he had supplied under the clearest assurance that it was for research only and not for publication, the third respondent must have realised that the information had been supplied in confidence. One would have expected in these circumstances, as the juror asserted had happened, that a responsible journalist would have sought the consent of the juror to disclose information he had given to the professed researcher, and without that consent would have respected his confidence. It seems a rather plastic ethic which protects the deceiving source yet asserts a licence to betray the confidence of the deceived.
However that may be, the third respondent was aware that he was including in the article statements made, opinions expressed and arguments advanced by
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members of the jury in the course of their deliberations in the Blue Arrow trial. In the same edition of the Mail on Sunday, in a column drawing attention to the main feature in the ‘Money Section’, the third respondent wrote:
‘THREE jurors in one of the biggest City fraud trials this century have given the full inside story of how they reached their decision. No one has ever previously investigated, let alone published, in any detail how jurors make their decisions because of the restrictions imposed by law. The jurors served for a year in the Blue Arrow trial which ended in February. Of the ten defendants, four were ultimately found guilty of conspiracy to defraud.’
In the main article he said:
‘But in Britain the Contempt of Court Act 1981 makes it illegal for jurors to “disclose” what goes on in a jury’s deliberations. However, having received transcripts of the Blue Arrow interviews, we believe these edited extracts should be published …’
The Attorney General, hearing of the publication, initiated these proceedings alleging that the respondents as publisher, editor and author respectively are responsible for a deliberate breach of the secrecy of the jury room and are guilty of contempt of court. Presenting the case for the Attorney General, Mr Havers contended that the words of s 8(1) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 are unambiguous and their meaning clear. He relied upon the references in the published article to the statements, opinions and arguments attributed to the jurors during their deliberations and upon the unqualified words of the section that it was a contempt of court to obtain, disclose or solicit such particulars.
For the respondents, Mr Pannick QC stressed that the sole ground on which the Attorney General sought to condemn the respondents was that they had disclosed particulars of statements made, opinions expressed and arguments advanced by members of the jury. He accepted that, if the word ‘disclose’ in s 8 of the 1981 Act was to be given the unrestricted interpretation contended for by the Attorney General, a contempt of court was established. But he submitted that the scope of the section could be widely or narrowly interpreted and in its context in the section ‘disclose’ applied only to conduct of a member of the jury in revealing particulars of its deliberations to a third party and not the further disclosure by that third party of details already revealed.
As s 8 created a criminal offence, the court was bound to adopt this restricted meaning which, he contended, would be consistent with the United Kingdom’s obligation as a signatory to the European Convention on Human Rights (Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969)). He further argued that as Parliament had enacted the 1981 Act following the decision of the European Court of Human Rights in Sunday Times v UK (1979) 2 EHRR 245 and with the purpose of meeting criticism of the undue width of the United Kingdom rules on contempt of court, this court should construe s 8 so that it was compatible with art 10 of the convention. Such an approach would lead to the adoption of the narrow construction he urged upon us that the section restrained disclosure of the secrets of the jury room only by the members of the jury.
Mr Havers countered by referring to Brind v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1991] 1 All ER 720 esp at 722–723, [1991] 1 AC 696 esp at 747–748 per Lord Bridge of Harwich:
‘It is accepted, of course, by the appellants that, like any other treaty obligations which have not been embodied in the law by statute, the
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convention is not part of the domestic law, that the courts accordingly have no power to enforce convention rights directly and that, if domestic legislation conflicts with the convention, the courts must nevertheless enforce it. But it is already well settled that, in construing any provision in domestic legislation which is ambiguous in the sense that it is capable of a meaning which either conforms to or conflicts with the convention, the courts will presume that Parliament intended to legislate in conformity with the convention, not in conflict with it.’
Since the words of s 8 are clear, it is only if the respondents could point to a meaning of ‘disclose’ equally credible in the context that the court could have regard to the terms of the convention. He further argued that his interpretation was neither incompatible with nor unnecessarily restrictive of the purpose of the convention to secure freedom of expression. So in this case whether the respondents are guilty of a breach of s 8(1) of the 1981 Act depends on the construction to be given to the words of the section.
Section 8(1)of the 1981 Act provides:
‘Subject to subsection (2) below, it is a contempt of court to obtain, disclose or solicit any particulars of statements made, opinions expressed, arguments advanced or votes cast by members of a jury in the course of their deliberations in any legal proceedings.’
The exceptions in sub-s (2) are not relevant in this case.
Mr Pannick contends that unless the word ‘disclose’ in the section is confined to members of the jury alone, the restrictions would so interfere with the right of freedom of expression as to be incompatible with art 10 of the convention. Article 10 provides:
‘(1) Everyone has the right to freedom of expression. This right shall include freedom to hold opinions and to receive and impart information and ideas without interference by public authority …
(2) The exercise of these freedoms, since it carries with it duties and responsibilities, may be subject to such formalities, conditions, restrictions or penalties as are prescribed by law and are necessary in a democratic society … for the protection of the reputation or rights of others, for preventing the disclosure of information received in confidence, or for maintaining the authority and impartiality of the judiciary.’
Interpretation of the expression ‘for maintaining the authority and impartiality of the judiciary’ within the convention has to take into account the different legal systems of the subscribing states and the fundamental principle of the rule of law. The European Court of Human Rights held in the Sunday Times case (1979) 2 EHRR 245 at 274:
‘The term “judiciary” … comprises the machinery of justice or the judicial branch of government as well as the judges in their official capacity. The phrase “authority of the judiciary” includes, in particular, the notion that the courts are, and are accepted by the public at large as being, the proper forum for the ascertainment of legal rights and obligations and the settlement of disputes relative thereto; further, that the public at large have respect for and confidence in the courts’ capacity to fulfil that function.’
Under the common law the jury has traditionally played a unique role in the machinery of justice. No one described it better than Sir Patrick Devlin in this celebrated passage in Trial by Jury (Hamlyn Lecture, 1956) at 164:
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‘… no tyrant could afford to leave a subject’s freedom in the hands of twelve of his countrymen. So that trial by jury is more than an instrument of justice and more than one wheel of the constitution: it is the lamp that shows that freedom lives.’
Today the jury still has vital roles to play in legal proceedings. First in deciding whether an accused tried on indictment has been guilty of a crime, it is the sole arbiter of fact. It decides whether the state has proved the accused guilty beyond reasonable doubt. Doubts which appear reasonable to three or more jurors will preclude his conviction in that trial. Secondly the jury plays an important function in protecting the reputation of a person claiming he has been defamed. It decides whether in the exercise of freedom of expression the bounds of a free press have been exceeded and, by an award of damages, may not only compensate for the wounded reputation but make an exemplary award to deter others.
Thirdly a jury may be called on to decide whether an individual has been subjected to arbitrary or oppressive action by servants of government and, if he has, what exemplary damages should be awarded.
The background to the enactment of s 8 of the 1981 Act is in our view significant and illuminating.
In 1955 in the Hamlyn Lecture, The Proof of Guilt, Professor Glanville Williams devoted a substantial passage to the absence of information on the working of the jury, the general arguments for the jury system and the general arguments against it. As one might expect, this provided impetus to research into the workings of the jury system and an account of the research of this period can be found in ‘Jury Trials’ by John Baldwin and Michael McConville in the chapter headed ‘Jury Lore and Jury Learning’. The Hamlyn Lecture Trial by Jury was given in 1956 by Sir Patrick Devlin. Of the obligation of secrecy of what passes in the jury room, he said (at p 46):
‘What goes on in the jury room is not only to be subject to no interference but it is also to be kept secret. It is doubtful whether there is any formal obligation upon a juror not to disclose what takes place in a jury room and it says a good deal for the sense of responsibility of the average juror that it never seems to have been necessary to decide the point.’
In 1963 under the chairmanship of Lord Morris of Borth-y-Guest a departmental committee considered jury service as a whole. In para 355 of its report published in April 1965 (Cmnd 2627) the committee said:
‘It has sometimes been suggested that there is no need to require jurors not to disclose what happened during their deliberations, and even that the requirement shows a lack of confidence in the jury system and implies that the system would break down if it were generally known what happens when a jury retires to consider its verdict. We recognise that it is impossible to make a proper assessment of the merits of trial by jury in the absence of the adequate knowledge of what does happen when the jury retires, but we agree with those of our witnesses who argued that if such disclosure were to be made, particularly to the Press, jurors would no longer feel free to express their opinions frankly when the verdict was under discussion, for fear that what they said later might be made public. In fact they might even fear reprisals from criminals for whose convictions they were responsible, and who had heard about their deliberations. We think there is much force in this argument, and we recommend that the notice mentioned above [a reminder of the solemn obligation not to reveal in any circumstances to any
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person either during the trial or after it was over anything which had occurred in the jury room while they had considered their verdict] should continue to be displayed in all jury retiring rooms. Gross breaches of the obligation to preserve secrecy might be treated as a contempt of court.’ (The committee’s emphasis.)
Shortly after this report the Home Secretary asked the Criminal Law Revision Committee to consider—
‘whether statutory provision should be made to protect the secrecy of the jury room; and in particular whether, and, if so, subject to what exemptions and qualifications, it should be an offence to seek information from a juror about a jury’s deliberations or for a juror to disclose such information.’
In its report in 1968 (Cmnd 3750) the committee did not, at that time, think it necessary or desirable to reinforce the conventional and accepted recognition of the need to protect the secrecy of the jury room by statutory sanction. They said (para 4):
‘We think it is as true today … that it has been generally accepted by the public as a rule of conduct that what passes in the jury room during the discussion by the jury of what their verdict should be ought to be treated as private and confidential. We would affirm that rule of conduct and would in no way wish to undermine it. We are of opinion that secrecy has been well maintained and that such breaches or attempts to break it as have become known so far have not established a mischief so extensive or serious that it calls for legislation and punishment.’
They further added (para 9):
‘There are two important reasons that may be advanced why things said during the jury’s deliberations should not be disclosed afterwards:—(i) the need to protect the jurors themselves, and (ii) the need to preserve the principle that the jury’s decision should be treated as final unless upset on appeal. As to (i), obviously jurors might feel inhibited from expressing their opinions freely during their deliberations if they knew that their fellow-jurors might disclose what they said, and they might be seriously embarrassed by pressure to give information about what any juror said or how he voted. As to (ii), whatever opinion one holds as to the merits of the jury system, the committee generally take the view that it is contrary to the public interest that the issue before the jury should be “retried” in public with the use of information supplied by one or more of the jurors. Such a discussion, without judicial control of its course and very likely with imperfect knowledge of the evidence given at the trial, might well give a false impression of the reasons for the verdict, especially as other members of the jury might feel inhibited by the obligation of secrecy or by dislike of publicity from coming forward and correcting mistaken statements by the juror who supplied the information. This might lead to unjustifiable dissatisfaction with the results of trials.’
By 1979, however, the picture had changed and in A-G v New Statesman and Nation Publishing Co Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 644, [1981] QB 1 this court was asked to consider whether publication in a magazine of an interview with a juror who came forward without reward to divulge what had happened in the jury room constituted a contempt of court. In the circumstances of that case there was no
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contempt but in the course of his judgment Lord Widgery CJ said ([1980] 1 All ER 644 at 646–647, [1981] QB 1 at 7):
‘We were reminded that, until a few years ago, it was accepted that the secrets of the jury room had to be treated as secret. The solemn obligation by jurors to observe secrecy was well maintained and breaches of the obligation were kept at an acceptable level. It had never been necessary to invoke the law of contempt in respect of such breaches, but that law had always been available for use in any case in which the administration of justice would have been imperilled. Recently, however, the solemn obligation of secrecy has been shown to be breaking down; a considerable number of publications involving jury room revelations, some more objectionable than others, have occurred. Accordingly, in view of the apparently diminishing respect for the convention of observance of jury secrecy and the risk of escalation in the frequency and degree of the disclosures, it has become right for the Attorney-General to invoke the law of contempt in relation to this article in the New Statesman since it represents a departure from the norm and is a serious and dangerous encroachment into the convention of jury secrecy.’
After considering the report of the Criminal Law Revision Committee to which I have referred, he said ([1980] 1 All ER 644 at 650, [1981] QB 1 at 11):
‘The evidence before us shows that for a number of years the publication of jury room secrets has occurred on numerous occasions. To many of those disclosures no exception could be taken because, from a study of them, it would not be possible to identify the persons concerned in the trials. In these cases, jury room secrets were revealed in the main for the laudable purpose of informing would-be jurors what to expect when summoned for jury service. Thus, it is not possible to contend that every case of post-trial activity of the kind with which we are concerned must necessarily amount to a contempt.’
It was against this background that Parliament enacted s 8 of the 1981 Act. If breaches of the secrecy of the jury room had escalated to a degree that Parliament deemed a statutory sanction to be necessary, then its duty was to define clearly the circumstances in which an offence would be committed so that criminal sanctions were restricted to those offences which in Lord Diplock’s words in A-G v Leveller Magazine Ltd [1979] 1 All ER 745 at 749, [1979] AC 440 at 449:
‘… involve an interference with the due administration of justice, either in a particular case or more generally as a continuing process.’
Parliament, mindful of the decision in Sunday Times v UK (1979) 2 EHRR 245, also needed to ensure that the restrictions or penalties it enacted were no greater than was necessary in a democratic society to prevent disclosure of information received in confidence and to maintain the authority and impartiality of the jury as part of the administration of justice.
Thus the historical and legislative background to the enactment of s 8 gives a clear guide to its purpose and to its proper interpretation but Mr Pannick focused on the proposal in 1986 to replace trial by jury in complicated fraud cases as a stimulus to public interest in, and the increased need for, research into the jury system, arguing that, unless a restricted interpretation was given to s 8, the public interest in discussion of the value of the system would be unjustifiably curtailed.
Lord Roskill’s Fraud Trials Committee Report 1986, App A, however, accepted rather than questioned the need for secrecy of the jury’s deliberations by declining
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to ‘countenance any research in this field which would be against the spirit of the law’.
Mr Pannick also emphasised the phrase ‘pressing social need’ repeatedly used in decisions of the European Court of Human Rights to describe the circumstances which alone can justify restriction of the right to freedom of expression.
The phrase invites an evaluation of the interference complained of, the purpose it seeks to achieve and whether the need is sufficiently pressing to outweigh the public interest in freedom of expression within the meaning of the convention. In addition to the factors we have already identified in the historical background to the legislation, other aspects of the practice and procedure of jury trial reflect the importance attached to a verdict founded solely on the opinions, arguments and deliberations of a jury uninfluenced by fear of recrimination or ridicule, improper pressure or undue influence. The accused is entitled to nothing less. Nothing less will command public confidence.
We therefore refer to some of those aspects directed particularly at protecting the integrity of the jury’s discussions.
Although in directing the jury a judge is entitled to express an opinion on the evidence, a verdict may be set aside if he fails to direct them that it is only their judgment of the evidence that matters or if he comments excessively or unfairly.
If the jury seems to have difficulty in reaching a verdict and has been in discussion for a long time, the judge may in further directions emphasise the importance of their reaching a verdict if they can but he must be careful to avoid any expression which could suggest that a minority should yield to the view of the majority and must not create the impression that they are under a legal duty to agree. Similarly, he must not suggest that the jury have only a limited time to reach agreement. In either case a verdict may be impugned.
Further, if in the course of the trial it appears that a juror may have been threatened or influenced or have received information about the case, or those involved, outside the evidence, the accused has a right to ask for the discharge of the jury, which will not be refused if there is any risk of injustice.
Next jurymen are entitled to full judicial immunity and are not accountable for anything said or done in the discharge of their office. Any threat or attempt to persuade or influence them in the discharge of their functions is punishable as a contempt of court.
After they have returned their verdict, even if questioned by the judge, the jury are not bound to answer (see R v Jameson (1896) 12 TLR 551 at 594 per Lord Russell CJ). So it has been held that after an unambiguous verdict the jury’s function is complete and the judge ought not to ask questions which could lead to confusion of the basis of the verdict. Exceptionally a judge may inquire the factual basis on which a defendant has been found guilty but still the jury may decline to answer without undermining the validity of their verdict. Thus we believe the law has long recognised the importance of complete freedom of discussion in the jury room. If a juror were to be deterred from expressing his doubt of the accused’s guilt because he feared subsequent recrimination or ridicule, the accused might be deprived of a persuasive voice in his favour. So too, a jury deciding a plaintiff’s claim to damages for libel ought not to be exposed to interrogation by the erstwhile defendants or others who share an interest in avoiding liability for or reducing the consequences of defamatory publication. We consider that the free, uninhibited and unfettered discussion by the jury in the course of their deliberations is essential to the proper administration of a system of justice which includes trial by jury. The enacted provisions designed to maintain such discussion are confined to soliciting, disclosing or publishing the
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particular aspects of the discussion in the jury room identified in the section. To that extent only do they restrain freedom of expression. There is no restriction, as Mr Pannick suggested, on the freedom to express opinions, advance arguments, advocate changes or promote reform in comment upon the many aspects of jury trial which have already been the subject of public debate and which are, and remain, proper objects of public concern and interest. In due course the European Court of Human Rights may be called upon to decide whether the measures enacted by Parliament are disproportionate to the restriction imposed on freedom of expression. When it does so, it will surely take full account of Parliament’s experience of trial by jury as an instrument of justice in the United Kingdom and its appreciation of the need today to protect the secrecy of the jury room. We were invited to take these factors into account to guide our interpretation of s 8. To the extent that it is permissible for this purpose, we have considered them.
We now come to the words of the section itself, and can find no warrant for qualifying the meaning of the word ‘disclose’ by confining it solely to disclosure by the members of the jury. On the contrary, the course of argument convinced us that Parliament intended no such restriction. The word ‘disclose’, in origin to open up or uncover, has come to mean: ‘To open up to the knowledge of others’ (see Shorter Oxford English Dictionary). It is a word wide enough to encompass the revealing of the secrets of the jury room by a juryman to his friend or neighbour as well as the opening up of such knowledge to the public as a whole by someone to whom it has been revealed. And in the light of the background to which we have referred, we see every reason why Parliament should have intended the word ‘disclose’ to cover both situations. Nor do we regard it as significant that the secrets came into the hands of the respondents indirectly. The existence of a market for the transcript of interviews with jurors containing prohibited details of their deliberations is as inimical to the interests of justice as the direct solicitation for money which occurred in this case. The section is aimed at keeping the secrets of the jury room inviolate in the interests of justice. We believe that it would only be by giving it an interpretation which would emasculate Parliament’s purpose that it could be held that the widespread disclosure in this case did not infringe the section. By declaring such conduct to be a contempt, Parliament recognised the exceptional discretion vested in a court to protect the process of justice and its ability to reflect the varying shades of infringement. In our judgment the Attorney General has proved a breach of s 8(1) of the 1981 Act by all three respondents.
Having given judgment on the application the court heard counsel for the respondents in mitigation before deciding on the appropriate penalty. Counsel referred to DPP v Channel Four Television Co Ltd [1993] 2 All ER 517, where fines totalling £75,000 were imposed; Re an inquiry under the Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985 reported on the merits [1988] 1 All ER 203, [1988] AC 660, where a fine of £20,000 was imposed; X Ltd v Morgan-Grampian (Publishers) Ltd reported on the merits [1990] 2 All ER 1, [1991] 1 AC 1, where a fine of £20,000 was imposed; A-G v Times Newspapers Ltd reported on the merits [1991] 2 All ER 398, [1992] 1 AC 191, where a fine of £50,000 imposed by Morritt J had been discharged by the Court of Appeal; and A-G v Hislop [1991] 1 All ER 911, [1991] 1 QB 514, where fines totalling £20,000 were imposed.
BELDAM LJ. It now falls to the court to consider what, if any, penalty should be imposed for the infringement of s 8 of the 1981 Act which we have found to have been proved. We accept Mr Pannick’s submission that in total any penalties imposed on the three respondents should not exceed an amount which is necessary
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to emphasise the importance of the principle to which we referred and is commensurate with the circumstances of its infringement. He urged us to impose one sanction only for all respondents. We have carefully considered whether that would be appropriate in this case. We do not think it would.
Although the decision to publish was a responsibility shared between the second and third respondents, taking into account the fact that the first respondent has apologised to the court and has given assurances that, until our ruling is successfully challenged, there will be no repetition, it is nevertheless necessary, as it seems to us, to impose a penalty on the publishers to deter what is in fact a deliberate and serious breach of the law expressed, in our view, in clear and unambiguous terms in the 1981 Act.
The article was published in a newspaper with a large circulation, with the obvious risk that potential jurors might receive the impression that their obligation of secrecy was not of significance because it was an infringement of their right to freedom of expression. It was published against a long tradition of respect by responsible journalists of a jury’s confidence and against the background which we have sought to set out in our judgment. In the circumstances we consider that the appropriate penalty for the first respondent would be a fine of £30,000.
Turning now to the responsibility of the second and third respondents, as in the case of the first respondent, we take into account the apology tendered and the assurances we were given. We take into account that they sought legal advice before deciding to publish and that they were, however, as the articles themselves indicate, aware of the clear terms of the 1981 Act and they took a calculated risk. They each bear a responsibility for what we regard as a serious and dangerous encroachment on the jury’s functions and its confidentiality in deliberation.
The second respondent must bear ultimate responsibility for the decision to publish, the third respondent for the use of the transcripts of interview with the jury. We have, of course, taken into account the differences in the means of these respondents disclosed confidentially to us. But for those differences, we would not have felt able to draw a distinction in the degree of their responsibility. The second respondent will be fined £20,000 and the third respondent £10,000.
Conduct of respondents declared to be contempt. First respondent fined £30,000, second respondent £20,000 and third respondent £10,000. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
22 April 1993. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords gave leave to appeal.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Thrells Ltd (in liq) v Lomas and another
[1993] 2 All ER 546
Categories: PENSIONS
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C
Hearing Date(s): 1, 2, 6, 7 APRIL, 5 JUNE, 31 JULY 1992
Pension – Pension scheme – Company pension scheme – Surplus fund – Company in liquidation – Dissolution of scheme – Distribution of surplus fund – Trustee’s discretion surrendered to court – Manner in which discretion to be exercised – Whether employer precluded from taking surplus out of scheme unless provision made for all pensions under scheme to be increased by statutory limited price index – Social Security Act 1990, s 11(3).
On 28 November 1984 the plaintiff company went into creditors’ voluntary liquidation owing some £2m to creditors. The company’s pension scheme was wound up when the company went into liquidation and after provision was made for the discharge of the pension fund’s liabilities applicable on a winding up of the fund there was a surplus of about £505,000 in the fund. The pension scheme provided an earnings-related pension for employees of 1/60th of the employee’s retiring salary for each year of service and the company was the sole trustee of the fund. Rule 14(ii) of the scheme’s rules provided that in the event of the scheme being wound up the benefits secured at the date of the discontinuance were to be dealt with in accordance with r 12 or the scheme was to be wound up under r 15. Rule 12 provided, inter alia, for the transfer of benefits to another retirement scheme at the request of a member. Rule 15(i) provided that on a winding up of the scheme the entitlement to benefits of existing pensioners and members who had previously left service was to remain unaltered and all other members of the scheme were to be entitled to benefits as if they had left the company’s employment on the date of the winding up provided, however, that the liability of the trustee was limited to securing pensions and associated benefits for existing and prospective pensioners and dependants in the manner and sequence prescribed by paras (a) to (f) of r 15(i). Paragraph (f) gave the trustee power in its discretion to increase benefits for prospective pensioners. Paragraph (g) provided that any balance remaining after provision was made in accordance with paras (a) to (f) was to be paid to the company. Under s 11(3)a of the Social Security Act 1990 no payment was to be made out of an occupational pension scheme to an employer until provision had been made for every pension under the scheme to be increased by a percentage equal to the statutory limited price index increase. Rule 18 of the scheme provided for the alteration or modification of the rules by the company provided, however, that no alteration or modification could be made which reduced the benefits of a member which had already accrued at the date of the alteration or modification. The liquidator of the company, who was in the irreconcilable position of acting on behalf of both the creditors and the trustee of the scheme, sought the determination of the court as to how the surplus in the pension fund should be administered and in doing so surrendered to the court the exercise of any discretion vested in the company as trustee of the scheme. The questions arose (1) whether the power of alteration contained in the declaration of trust and the scheme rules could still be exercised even though under the rules the scheme was required to be wound up, (2) whether s 11(3) of the 1990 Act
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applied to the scheme and (3) how the court should exercise the discretion conferred on the trustee by r 15(i)(f).
Held – (1) On the true construction of the rules the effect of the coming into operation of r 14(ii) on the company being wound up was to exclude the entirety of the winding-up provisions in r 15(i) from the company’s power of alteration since r 14(ii) provided for the consequences of a winding up in terms which were inconsistent with the company retaining any right thereafter to change the rules so far as those consequences were concerned and r 18 could not have been intended to enable the company to change the rules once the machinery under r 14(ii), including a winding up of the scheme under r 15, had been put into operation (see p 550 j to p 551 c, post).
(2) On its true construction s 11(3) of the 1990 Act applied to every pension which was prospectively payable or was already being paid under the scheme on the date the company went into liquidation, ie 28 November 1984. If a pension fund was in surplus the employer was precluded from taking or receiving the surplus out of the scheme unless the condition for payment, namely that provision was made for every pension under the scheme to be increased by a percentage equal to the statutory limited price index increase, had been satisfied at the date when the payment out of the scheme to the employer was to be made and, in the case of a scheme which was being wound up, the pensions which were to have the benefit of the limited price index increase before any payment of surplus to the employer could be made on a winding up were those payable under the scheme, either actually or prospectively, when the scheme went into liquidation (see p 552 j to p 553 a c to g, p 554 f g and p 555 c, post).
(3) When exercising the discretion conferred on the trustee by r 15(i)(f) the court had to act in the manner which a reasonable trustee could be expected to act having regard to all the material circumstances and would do what was just and equitable. However, having regard to the text and drafting of r 15(i)(f), the discretionary power to increase benefits contained in the rule only applied to prospective pensions and could not be used to increase benefits for existing pensioners. Taking into account all the relevant factors, namely the purpose of the power, which was to compensate early leavers for erosion by inflation, the source of the surplus, the size of the surplus and the impact of s 11(3) of the 1990 Act, the financial position of the employer and the size of the deficiency on its winding up, and the needs of the members of the scheme, the discretion conferred by para (f) should be exercised in a manner which would (1) enable s 11(3) to operate fully, (2) increase deferred pensions by limited price indexing and (3) enable the balance to go to the creditors, subject only to any payments which the trustee might be compelled to make under European law (see p 555 f g j to p 556 e, p 557 e and p 558 a to f, post).
Notes
For modification and winding up of occupational pension schemes, see 33 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1004–1005.
For the Social Security Act 1990, s 11, see 40 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 467.
Cases referred to in judgments
Barber v Guardian Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344, [1991] 2 WLR 72, [1990] ECR I-1889, CJEC.
Mettoy Pension Trustees Ltd v Evans [1991] 2 All ER 513, [1990] 1 WLR 1587.
Page 548 of [1993] 2 All ER 546
Cases also cited
ABC Television Ltd Pension Scheme, Re, Goodlatte v John (22 May 1973, unreported) (referred to in Ellison Private Occupational Pension Schemes (1979) pp 347, 351).
Courage Group’s Pension Scheme, Re, Ryan v Imperial Brewing and Leisure Ltd [1987] 1 All ER 528, [1987] 1 WLR 495.
Davis v Richards & Wallington Industries Ltd [1991] 2 All ER 563, [1990] 1 WLR 1511.
Imperial Foods Ltd’s Pension Scheme, Re [1986] 2 All ER 802, [1986] 1 WLR 717.
Jones v Williams (15 March 1988, unreported), Ch D.
Jones (Edward) Benevolent Fund Trusts, Re, Spink v Samuel Jones & Co Ltd (8 March 1985, unreported), Ch D.
Lock v Westpac Banking [1991] Pensions LR 1657.
Originating summons
By an originating summons dated 29 January 1991 and subsequently amended the plaintiff Thrells Ltd (in liquidation), which was the sole trustee of the Thrells Ltd (1974) Pension Scheme, sought by Peter Lomas its liquidator, the determination of the court on, inter alia, the question whether s 11 of the Social Security Act 1990 applied to the scheme and whether the plaintiff had power to exercise its power of alteration pursuant to r 18 of the rules of the scheme. The liquidator was also the first defendant, joined to represent the unsecured creditors. The second defendant was Geoffrey Morris, a pensioner, joined to represent the interests of pensioners and other beneficiaries interested in the scheme. The facts are set out in the judgment.
John Stephens (instructed by Allen & Overy) for the plaintiff.
Nicholas Warren (instructed by Allen & Overy) for the first defendant.
James Clifford (instructed by Alexander Tatham, Manchester) for the second defendant.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. Thrells Ltd (which I shall call ‘the company’) carried on business as a textile merchant. On 28 November 1984 it went into insolvent liquidation. There was a deficiency so far as creditors were concerned of the order of £2m. For some ten years the company had operated a pension scheme, known as the ‘Thrells Ltd (1974) Pension Scheme’. When the company went into liquidation the scheme also fell to be wound up. The scheme was substantially over-funded. According to the most recent valuation, there is a surplus of about £505,000 after providing for the discharge of the fund’s liabilities applicable on a winding up of the fund.
Before me is an application concerning the distribution of this surplus. The application is brought by the company acting by its liquidator, Mr Peter Lomas. The company was the sole trustee of the scheme. That is still the position. It has not been possible to find anyone willing to accept appointment as trustee in place of the company. Mr Lomas is also the first defendant. He has been joined to represent the unsecured creditors because of difficulties experienced in practice in finding an unsecured creditor, most of whom are resident overseas, willing to participate in the proceedings. The second defendant, Mr Morris, is a pensioner. He has been joined to represent the interests of pensioners and other beneficiaries interested in the scheme.
In those circumstances, the liquidator is confronted with an impossible conflict of duties. He is acting as the representative of the unsecured creditors. He also acts for the sole trustee of the scheme. Accordingly and properly, he has
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surrendered to the court the exercise of any discretion vested in the company as trustee of the scheme.
Several questions arise on this application. One of them concerns the way in which the court should exercise that discretion. There is also a question concerning the interpretation and application of a provision in the Social Security Act 1990. The questions are being argued before me in a different order from that set out in the originating summons. The first question, which has now been argued before me, concerns whether a power of alteration contained in the declaration of trust and the scheme rules can still be exercised even though under the rules the scheme is now required to be wound up. That is a question of construction or interpretation of, in particular, the rules.
The scheme was established by a declaration of trust dated 7 October 1974. That was made by the company, which was referred to in that deed and in the rules as the ‘founder’. The object of the scheme was stated in cl 1 as—
‘to provide relevant benefits [as defined in certain provisions in the Finance Act 1970] for such of the directors and employees of the Founder as are admitted to membership thereof secured by contributions of the Founder and where the Founder has so determined by contributions of such directors and employees.’
Clause 3 provided that any policy of assurance providing relevant benefits should be effected with the Norwich Union Life Insurance Society, and vested in and held by the founder as trustee upon trust to hold, apply and dispose of the proceeds in accordance with the provisions of the rules. The founder as trustee undertook to adopt rules not later than two years from the execution of the deed, in a form which would enable the scheme to be treated as an exempt approved scheme. Clause 5 provided:
‘Subject to adequate prior notice being given to all members the Founder may at any time alter or modify by resolution or deed any of the provisions of this Declaration but not so as to reduce the benefits already accrued without the prior consent of the majority of members affected by such alteration or modification.’
I do not need to refer to any of the other clauses of the declaration of trust.
The rules before me are the rules revised with effect from 1 September 1977. They provide for a conventional final salary pension scheme offering 1/60th of retiring salary for each year of service. The scheme was contracted out of the state earnings-related pension scheme. Most of the members paid 4% of their salaries towards the cost of providing the benefits. Directors and consultants were not required to contribute. The employer was required to pay the balance. The scheme contributions were invested in an insurance policy affected with the Norwich Union.
For the purposes of the question I am now considering, I need refer only to a few of the rules. In the events which happened the employer, as defined in the rules, meant the founder, that is to say the company. Rule 14(ii) provided for what should happen if the employer were wound up otherwise than for the purposes of reconstruction. Rule 14(ii) provided:
‘… the Founder shall proceed to wind up such part of the Scheme as relates to that employer. In this event the benefits secured to the date of discontinuance shall be dealt with in accordance with Rule 12 or that part of the Scheme shall be wound up under Rule 15.’
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In fact the whole of the scheme related to the company. Rule 14(iii) provided that when the employer was so wound up its liability to make contributions should cease. Rule 12 provided, amongst other things, for the transfer of benefits to another retirement scheme at the request of a member.
Rule 15 was concerned with winding up, and r 15(i) provided as follows:
‘On the winding-up of the Scheme … the entitlement to benefits of existing pensioners and members who had previously left the service shall remain unaltered, and all other members shall be entitled to benefits calculated in accordance with Rule 11.1 as if the members had left service on the date of winding-up. The liability of the trustees shall, however, be limited to the policies, or the proceeds thereof, which shall be applied as follows. (a) First, in securing non-assignable and non-commutable pensions for existing pensioners equal in amount to their existing pensions under these Rules, and any other benefits to which such pensioners’ widows or dependants will be entitled on the death of such pensioners. (b) Second, in securing pensions with associated death benefits if applicable payable to members or other beneficiaries to which entitlement to payment has already arisen, including the pension and other benefits in respect of members who have attained normal pension age but who have deferred retirement. (c) Third in securing for prospective pensioners pensions with associated death benefits if applicable commencing on the normal pension age of the amounts secured by members’ voluntary contributions (if any) which have not been secured under paragraph (b) of this Rule. (d) Fourth in securing for prospective pensioners non-assignable pensions with associated death benefits if applicable commencing at the normal pension age of the amounts (having taken into consideration amounts of benefit if any secured under paragraph (c) of this Rule) which would have been secured by the policies or proceeds thereof if the Scheme had been wound up as at the day before the Scheme was contracted out. (e) Fifth in securing for prospective pensioners guaranteed minimum pensions and accrued rights to such guaranteed minimum pensions which have not been secured under paragraphs (b) and (d) of this Rule and in payment of any State scheme premiums for which the Scheme is liable. (f) Sixth in securing so far as the policies permit non-assignable pensions (with associated death benefits if applicable) for prospective pensioners commencing at the normal pension age of the balance of the amounts to which they are entitled provided that the pension and associated death benefits may be increased if the value of the policies will permit and the trustees so decide except that no pension shall exceed the maximum approvable pension for the period of service up to the date of winding-up of the Scheme nor shall the associated death benefits exceed the limits set out in Rule 10. (g) Seventh if any balance remains after the policies or the proceeds thereof have been applied as above it shall be paid to the employer …’
Rule 18 is headed ‘Alterations,’ and reads:
‘The Founder may from time to time alter or modify all or any of the provisions of these Rules provided that no such alteration or modification shall be made which reduces the benefits of a member already accrued at the date of such alteration or modification.’
In the interests of the creditors of the company, the first defendant argued that this power of alteration is still exercisable. The rule is expressed in open-ended terms. There is no justification for implying a limitation to the effect that the power ceases to be exercisable at any particular point of time.
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I am unable to accept this. Rule 14(ii) provides for the consequences of a winding up in terms which seem to me to be inconsistent with the founder retaining any right thereafter to change the rules so far as those consequences are concerned. Rule 14(ii) provides that the benefits secured should be dealt with in accordance with r 12, or that the scheme should be wound up under r 15. I cannot think that the r 18 power to make alterations was intended to enable the founder to detract from that provision in r 14(ii) once it had come into operation.
The first defendant submitted that continuance of the power of alteration was not inconsistent with these winding-up provisions having already come into operation, because the power of alteration in its terms cannot impinge on benefits already accrued. Accrued benefits are expressly excluded from the scope of the alterations which may be made. It was submitted that would leave untouched the discretionary power conferred by r 15(i)(f). Again, I cannot accept this. That discretionary power nestles within the fold of paras (a) to (g) of r 15(i). In my view, the effect of r 14(ii) when it came into operation on the company being wound up was to exclude the entirety of the winding-up provisions in r 15(i) from the founder’s power of alteration.
The court then heard argument on the application of s 11(3) of the Social Security Act 1990.
7 April 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. The next question which arises on this summons concerns the application of s 11(3) of the Social Security Act 1990. This raises a point of statutory construction of some difficulty.
Before turning to the Act, I must mention some further facts concerning the scheme.
Rule 15(i), which I have already set out fully, provides that on a winding up the entitlement to benefits of existing pensioners and of members who had previously left service should remain unaltered. That covers most of the members of this scheme. The company went into creditors’ voluntary liquidation on 28 November 1984, having been in receivership since the previous June. Most of the remaining employees were dismissed during the receivership. As to the employees who were still in service when the scheme fell to be wound up because of the liquidation of the company, their position is that under r 15(i) they became entitled to benefits in accordance with the rules as if they had left the service at the date of the winding up. The last employee left on 7 December 1984.
Rule 15(i) then makes provision for the policy effected by the trustee with the Norwich Union and the proceeds of that policy to be applied in securing pensions and associated benefits for existing pensioners and others in the manner and in the sequence prescribed in paras (a) to (f). That has yet to be done in the present case. At present, the pensions in payment when the scheme went into liquidation are still being paid under the master policy or policies effected by the trustee with the Norwich Union. However, it is anticipated that in due course, pursuant to para (a), scheme funds will be applied in securing these pension rights and other benefits by means of insurance policies in the names of the individuals. There are 13 persons in this category, plus a further three whose pensions came into payment since the commencement of the winding up. Provision has also to be made in like fashion for the pension and other benefits of some 22 employees who left service before attaining normal pension age. That is the ‘early leavers’ category. In addition, since the winding up two early leavers have taken a transfer of their benefits to another pension scheme. That was pursuant to r 12. Finally,
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although this has not affected the winding up, in 40 instances employees left the service of the company before the winding up and thereupon took their benefits by way of transfers to another scheme.
In all these instances, therefore, there will come a time in the course of the winding up when none of those now entitled to pensions, prospectively or immediately, will continue to look to the scheme for payment thereof. They will have ceased to be members, pursuant to r 12, and taken a transfer of their benefits to another scheme, or they will have had their benefits fully secured by the provision of policies in their own names. Rule 15(iii) provides for the latter means of satisfying pensioners’ rights. Either way, their rights against the scheme will have been discharged. The scheme fund will become devoid of liabilities. The money in hand will then be an actual surplus which, in accordance with the rules, is not and will not be needed. This applies as much to any increased amounts of pensions payable pursuant to an exercise of the discretionary power to increase pension and associated death benefits pursuant to para (f) as to other amounts payable under the rules.
Against that background I turn to s 11 of the 1990 Act. Subsection (1) provides for the insertion of a new section (s 58A) into the Social Security Pensions Act 1975. Section 58A applies in relation to specified occupational pension schemes in terms which embrace the scheme with which I am concerned. All I need mention is that under s 58A(1)(b) the scheme must be one—
‘whose rules do not require the annual rate of every pension which commences or has commenced under the scheme to be increased each year by at least an amount equal to the appropriate percentage of that rate.’
‘The appropriate percentage’ means, in short, the percentage specified in the last revaluation order made before the increase is to take effect. Revaluation orders are made by the Secretary of State under s 52A of the 1975 Act, and they reflect the percentage increase in prices in Great Britain over the relevant period, limited to 5% compound per annum. Such increases are usually referred to as ‘limited price indexing’, or ‘LPI’ for short. In s 58A ‘pension’ does not include a guaranteed minimum pension or any increase in such a pension under s 37A of the 1975 Act. Section 58A(2) provides that from the appointed day a new schedule, Sch 3A to that Act, is to have effect for the purpose of requiring the provision by schemes to which the section applies of annual increases in the annual rates of pensions under those schemes.
Section 11(3) reads as follows:
‘In the case of an occupational pension scheme—(a) such as is mentioned in subsection (1) of section 58A of the Pensions Act, and (b) which is constituted by trust deed, no payment shall be made out of the resources of the scheme to or for a person who is or has been the employer of persons in the description or category of employment to which the scheme relates until such time as provision has been made by the scheme for every pension which commences or has commenced under it to be increased as mentioned in paragraph (b) of that subsection.’
Subsection (6) enacts that the provisions of sub-s (3) override any conflicting provisions of a scheme. Section 11(3) came into operation on 17 August 1990. A day has yet to be appointed for the coming into operation of s 58A.
The question which has arisen is how s 11(3) operates in the present case regarding payment of the surplus to the company pursuant to r 15(1)(g). Several features of s 11(3) are to be noted. First, the subsection does not itself operate to increase the benefits payable to pensioners. It is a negative provision, imposing a
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restriction. Loosely stated, what the subsection does, but all it does, is to stop money being paid from the scheme funds to the employer until a condition has been satisfied. I shall refer to that as ‘the payment condition’. If a fund is in surplus, an employer is precluded from taking or receiving that surplus out of the pension scheme unless the payment condition has been satisfied. But the subsection does not prevent the employer, in a balance of costs scheme such as the present scheme, from taking a prolonged ‘contribution holiday’ and making no further contributions while the fund is in surplus. If he does that, and I am now referring to a continuing scheme which is not in course of being wound up, the employer may by this means ultimately achieve the same end result, albeit over a period of time, as if he had withdrawn the surplus from the fund. He will achieve that result without having to satisfy the payment condition. Thus, this statutory provision is a fairly blunt instrument. It is not a sophisticated tool. It stops cash withdrawals unless the payment condition is satisfied. It achieves an improvement in the non-guaranteed minimum pension benefits to the extent only that an immediate payment out of surplus cash to the employer is sought to be made even at the price of satisfying the payment condition.
Second, the payment condition provides for LPI in ‘every pension … under [the scheme]’. Thus, the condition relates only to pensions which at the relevant time fall within the description of pensions under the scheme. As one might expect, the pensions to which the subsection relates are those payable under the scheme whose resources are proposed to be used for making the payment to the employer or former employer.
Third, the relevant time for this purpose must be the date when the payment condition falls to be fulfilled. That, in turn, must be the date when the payment out of the resources of the scheme to the employer or former employer is being made. No other date is stated. The sense of the subsection points to that date. If at that date the payment condition is satisfied, the payment can be made; if not, not.
Fourth, the payment condition embraces prospective pensions as well as present pensions (‘pensions in payment’). The words ‘which commences’, when used in conjunction with ‘or has commenced’, are apt to encompass a pension which will or may commence in the future. The subsection applies to such a pension as much as one already being paid under the scheme.
Fifth, the payment condition envisages provision being made by the scheme for the pensions to be increased for the future. That sufficiently appears from the words ‘to be increased’. The payment condition does not require LPI to be backdated.
Sixth, and this follows from what I have already said, if at the relevant time a person no longer has any right to look to the pension scheme for payment of a pension as defined in s 58A(3), either currently or from some future date, his pension is no longer within the payment condition. For instance, if an employee leaves employment and accepts a transfer of all his rights under a scheme to another pension scheme, thenceforward his rights exist under and against his new pension scheme. He no longer has any claim to a pension under his old scheme. His pension rights under the old scheme have been wholly superseded and replaced by his rights, whatever they may be, under the new scheme. In his case the payment condition will apply, if at all, to his new scheme. It will not apply to the pension to which at one time he was prospectively entitled under the old scheme but which ceased to be a liability of that scheme before the relevant time.
Likewise in respect of any other pension which, before the relevant time, has by some other means ceased altogether to be a liability of the scheme. An instance of this would be if, pursuant to a provision in the scheme, trustees purchased for
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the member his own insurance policy in his own name, and that purchase wholly satisfied the member’s rights and discharged the trustee and the scheme from any further liability to the member. For the future the former member’s rights would comprise rights against the insurance company under the policy. The scheme would drop out of the picture. Such a purchase might be made in respect of a pension payable from a future date. Or, equally, it might be made in respect of a pension already in payment.
Thus far I have been addressing myself to an ongoing pension scheme. Thus far there is no particular difficulty. But when one turns to apply these principles in the present case, where the scheme is being wound up, the result is surprising. In the present case, as already noted, there will come a time in the course of the winding up when the rights of all those with payments in pension, and the rights of all those who left service with the company before or after the winding up began, will have been secured and satisfied either by the purchase of their own insurance policies or by transfers to other pension schemes or otherwise. Then there will be no pensions which fall within the payment condition, if what I have set out so far applies without modification to a payment made to a company when a scheme is being wound up. There will be no such pensions because all the liabilities of the scheme will have been discharged. Such a discharge is to be expected in the ordinary course of events in the winding up of a scheme. That is part of the winding up process. But it would be quite extraordinary, and to my mind absurd, if the consequence of that ordinary course of events in a winding up were that s 11(3) would never apply, either in this case or presumably in any other case when a scheme is being wound up. On that footing s 11(3) would seldom, if ever, operate as a brake on repayments to a former employer once the scheme were being wound up.
I am unable to accept that as the proper interpretation of s 11(3). When a scheme is being wound up, and a payment falls to be made to a former employer pursuant to the rules applicable in the winding up of a scheme, the pensions to which the payment condition applies are to be understood as being those for which provision is being made in the course of that selfsame winding up. When the payment to the former employer is triggered by a winding up of a scheme the pensions which are to have the benefit of LPI before the payment can be made are those which were payable under the scheme, either actually or prospectively, at the time the trigger was pulled, namely when the scheme went into liquidation. In my view, that is necessarily implicit. That is the only sensible way in which s 11(3) can work in the case of a winding up. Otherwise the winding-up process would itself operate to defeat the application of the subsection.
The alternative, that s 11(3) does not apply in a winding up, cannot have been the intention of Parliament. To construe the legislation as having that effect would be exceedingly pusillanimous. After all, when interpreting legislation courts are striving to identify the intention of Parliament expressed in the language used. Parliament intended a workable result, not an absurdity. Take this very case. Under r 3(ii) the company had power to wind up the scheme at any time. Section 11(3) may be a fairly blunt instrument, but Parliament cannot have intended that it could be side-stepped, and a payment made to an employer without complying with the payment condition, by the simple expedient of the employer winding up the scheme and making provision only for non-indexed benefits.
That this was not the intention of Parliament gains support from the purpose of the legislation as foreshadowed in the report of the Occupational Pensions Board which preceded the enactment of s 11 and to which Mr Clifford drew my attention. On 22 October 1988 the board made a report in accordance with s 66
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of the Social Security Act 1973 to the Secretary of State. This was presented to Parliament in February 1989, entitled Protecting Pensions: Safeguarding Benefits in a Changing Environment (Cmnd 573). Chapter 10 was concerned, among other matters, with winding up and insolvencies. In para 10.7 the board expressed the view that, even in a scheme which had not provided for pension increases while the scheme was in full force, such increases should be provided on winding up due to the insolvency of the employer before any surplus remaining in the fund could be paid to the company. In paras 10.9 and 10.11 the board recommended that there should be a requirement for those parts of present and future pensions in course of payment which did not represent guaranteed minimum pensions to be provided with annual increases in line with price increases but limited to 5% or such lower figure as scheme assets permitted, and that this should be achieved by overriding legislation.
Accordingly, I hold that, properly construed, s 11(3) applies in this case to every pension which on 28 November 1984 was prospectively payable or was already being paid under the scheme.
I have not overlooked that this date precedes the date on which s 11(3) came into force. But that does not mean that the legislation is being given retrospective effect. The payment to the company had not been made by 17 August 1990. If it had, the subsection would not have applied to the payment. Since it had not, the subsection applies. The earlier date is material merely for crystallising the pensions to which the payment condition applies in this case. The LPI increases will be payable in respect of those pensions, but only for the future. They will not date back to 28 November 1984. LPI must be provided for the future, and pensions secured on that footing, before any payment to the company can be made.
Discretion
I turn next to the question of how I should exercise the discretion, conferred on the trustee by r 15(i)(f), which the trustee has now surrendered to the court. I am told that this is the first occasion a trustee has surrendered such a discretion in the winding up of a pension scheme in this way. In exercising this discretion I must act in the manner a reasonable trustee could be expected to act having regard to all the material circumstances. I must do what is just and equitable. The following are the principal factors material in this case.
(1) The scope of the power
For convenience, I repeat the terms of para (f):
‘Sixth in securing so far as the policies permit non-assignable pensions (with associated death benefits if applicable) for prospective pensioners commencing at the normal pension age of the balance of the amounts to which they are entitled provided that the pension and associated death benefits may be increased if the value of the policies will permit and the trustees so decide except that no pension shall exceed the maximum approvable pension for the period of service up to the date of the winding-up of the Scheme nor shall the associated death benefits exceed the limits set out in Rule 10.’
Not without some encouragement from the bench, Mr Clifford contended that the power conferred by the proviso applied to all of paras (a) to (f) of r 15(i), and that the power was not confined to para (f). Certainly the terms in which it is expressed are such that it could be applied, without modification of language, to existing pensioners as well as prospective pensioners. Further, there is no immediately obvious reason why the trustees should have been given a wide
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power to increase benefits for prospective pensioners and at the same time given no power at all in any circumstances to increase benefits for existing pensioners. So I am sympathetic to Mr Clifford’s submission. In the end, however, I am unable to read the proviso as having a wider application than para (f). One is familiar with mistakes being made in the layout of documents whereby a proviso intended to qualify more than one precedent provision is typed or printed in such a way that it reads as a qualification of only the last of those provisions. It is, I suppose, possible that that has occurred here. But, as printed, the proviso runs directly on, in mid-line and with a small ‘p’ for the introductory word ‘provided’, from the preceding words. I can see no sufficient justification for ignoring that textual arrangement.
(2) The purpose of the power
Since the power is given in relation to prospective pensioners but not existing pensioners, the principal purpose of the power seems to be to enable the trustee in its discretion to increase prospective pensioners’ pensions to compensate for the fact that early leavers’ pensions are geared to the amount of salaries at a date which is earlier, and often many years earlier, than the date from which the pensions will actually be paid. The value of early leavers’ pensions is thus subject to erosion by inflation. That purpose is particularly in point in the present case with regard to employees who became early leavers, with adverse consequences for their pensions, by being dismissed because of the company’s insolvency.
(3) The source of the surplus
As already noted, the scheme was a ‘balance of costs’ scheme. The scheme was non-contributory for directors and consultants. Other employees were required to contribute an amount equal to 4% of their actual salary or wages. The company was required to contribute each year an amount which should be applied ‘together with the members’ contributions to secure benefits under these Rules’. The precise rate at which the company’s contributions were made is not now clear. Between 1980 and 1982 the contribution rate was 16.6%, which was a substantially higher rate than recommended by the Norwich Union’s actuary. Why the company continued to fund the scheme at the higher rate is not now known.
Doing the best he could with inadequate material, the actuary, Mr Nicholas Salter, instructed by the liquidator, gave evidence to the effect that the estimated surplus of £238,000 in 1984, which has subsequently increased because of accumulated interest and investment appreciation, was derived from several sources: from unnecessary contributions by the company between 1980 and 1982 (£55,000), from investment returns being at a higher rate than that assumed in the actuarial calculations made at the time (£50,000), from the release of reserves held in respect of the long-term pension expectations of members who left before normal retirement age (£35,000), and from the release of reserves kept for winding-up benefits (£15,000). He was not able to identify a particular source for the balance of £83,000.
So far as now can be judged, and that is quite a severe limitation in this case, the members’ contributions alone would not have sufficed to buy all the benefits which have now been provided for the existing and prospective pensioners under the rules. I am unable, however, to proceed from there to a conclusion that all the surplus should be regarded as an unintended surplus arising from the company’s contributions in which the members can have no reasonable expectation to share. It is necessary to disentangle several points. First, to the extent that an employer is under an obligation to make contribution, it is fair for some purposes to regard those as part of the employees’ overall remuneration package, just as much as
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contributions made by the employees by deduction from their salaries and wages. Second, it is true that in a ‘balance of costs’ scheme the employer’s obligation is to provide the necessary balance of contributions and no more. It may be that if actuaries were gifted with perfect foresight of the outcome of future uncertainties, such as the rate of return on investment contributions, the rates at which salaries are assumed to rise, the dates on which and the circumstances in which employees will leave and the cost of buying annuities at retirement, unintended surpluses would not usually arise from employer’s contributions. It is necessary to have this in mind when exercising a discretion such as that conferred by r 15(i)(f). But, thirdly, it is necessary also to have in mind that this scheme itself provided for the trustee to have power to increase benefits. That power ranks ahead of the provision that any remaining balance of the scheme funds should be paid to the company. When a scheme so provides, members have a reasonable expectation that if the scheme funds permit, namely if there is a surplus after providing for the estimated liabilities, or in a winding up, for the actual liabilities, the trustee will exercise that power to the extent that is fair and equitable in all the circumstances, having particular regard to the purpose for which the power was conferred. The power is an integral part of the scheme. It assumes the existence of a surplus. A trustee should not decline to exercise it solely on the ground that the employer was under no legal obligation to provide the surplus. That accords with the approach adopted by Warner J with regard to the comparable provision in the winding-up rules in Mettoy Pension Trustees Ltd v Evans [1991] 2 All ER 513 at 549–551, [1990] 1 WLR 1587 at 1618–1620.
(4) The size of the surplus, and the impact of s 11(3)
I have already mentioned that at the most recent valuation the surplus here is about £505,000. To set this in perspective, I add that discharge of the scheme liabilities in the winding up in accordance with the rules, by buying annuity policies etc, is estimated at the moment to cost about £73,000. From the sum of £505,000 there will have to be deducted the costs of all parties of this application, which are estimated to be of the order of £50,000 or possibly more. In addition, I must have in mind the cost of satisfying the payment condition under s 11(3). That will have to be met before any surplus can be paid to the company. On this, the figures available are that, as matters now stand, the cost of providing LPI increases for pensions in payment is about £100,000 and for prospective pensions about £10,000. So, in very approximate terms, the surplus available for the company and, hence, for unsecured creditors, would on these figures be about £345,000. On these figures, the sum available to be applied pursuant to the para (f) discretion, however, is £455,000, because that discretion ranks ahead of the satisfaction of the s 11(3) payment condition.
The sum of £345,000 may, perhaps, fall to be reduced even further, regardless of any exercise of the discretion under para (f), by reason of the decision of the Court of Justice of the European Communities in Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344. The implications of that decision are still being worked out. The amendments to the EEC Treaty negotiated to form the Maastricht protocol, although not yet ratified, may be regarded as showing the way ahead. However, I am told that in some quarters a challenge is being mounted to the constitutional propriety of that protocol. The liquidator, therefore, acting on advice wishes to retain such sum as on advice he considers appropriate to meet any obligations under this head. The very approximate figures available suggest that, as matters now stand, the cost of providing pensions for men at the age of 60 would be about £16,000. The cost of providing pensions for men at this age would rise if, pursuant to an exercise of
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the discretion under para (f), LPI increases were ordered for pensions while deferred or when in payment or if ‘franking’ were removed. If all three of these improvements were directed, the total cost under this head would rise to a sum of the order of £86,000.
(5) The financial position of the employer
The deficiency in respect of the company’s unsecured creditors is approximately £2.4m. The dividend paid so far is negligible. Overfunding of the scheme can be said in one sense to have been at the expense of these creditors. As matters stand, they will suffer severe loss by the failure of the company to meet its obligations to them.
(6) The needs of the members of the scheme
I have before me no evidence regarding the financial situation of any particular prospective pensioner.
Taking all these factors into account, I consider, first, that the para (f) discretion should be exercised in a manner which will let s 11(3) operate fully. This will benefit both pensions in payment and also deferred pensions. It is equitable that this should be so. That would mean that the maximum sum available to be applied under the discretion is about £345,000. Second, having regard to the purpose for which the para (f) power was created, it is right that, within reason, deferred pensions should be increased by LPI. But this would be no more than a hollow gesture so long as ‘franking’ remains in operation. This is shown by the cost of such increases in the absence of franking, namely £10,000. If franking is removed for the future but not the past, the additional sum required is of the order of £154,000. In my view, that would be a fair and equitable exercise of the discretion. The balance should go to the creditors, subject only to any payments which the trustee may be compelled to make pursuant to art 119 of the EEC Treaty. In that regard, the liquidator should set aside a reserve as he seeks, but I confess I do not expect that that reserve will be called upon.
I shall so direct. The trustee should administer and wind up the scheme accordingly.
For the avoidance of doubt I add that the trustee’s power to apply scheme funds in satisfying the payment condition derives from a combination of the statute and the liquidator’s claim to the surplus. Section 11(3) of the 1990 Act precludes the liquidator, who is claiming payment, from objecting to this application of funds to which otherwise he would be entitled.
Having given judgment the court heard submissions as to the cost of the additional benefits to be provided out of the surplus fund.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. I gave judgment in these proceedings on 7 April. One of the issues was the exercise by the court of the discretionary power, given to the trustee by r 15(i)(f), to increase benefits for prospective pensioners. Subsequently it transpired that, due to a misunderstanding by me of the figures, the cost of the additional benefits I decided should be provided out of the surplus was substantially less than I had understood. I had thought that the cost of satisfying the payment condition under s 11(3) was £110,000 and the cost
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of providing LPI increases for the period of deferment with franking removed from the date of my judgment was £154,000. These two items totalled £264,000, out of a distributable surplus of £455,000. Counsel very properly drew to my attention that the correct figures were £72,000 and £96,000 respectively.
The cost of the benefits was a matter I took into account when deciding on the extent to which it was reasonable for LPI increases to be provided. Having heard further submissions and been provided with further figures I consider that the LPI increases for deferred pensioners, and the removal of franking, should take effect from the date of the winding up of the scheme, and not the date of my judgment. The cost of providing this revised benefit for the prospective pensioners will be £192,000.
By a happy coincidence this means that the balance available to the liquidator will be £191,000, exactly the same figure (£345,000 minus £154,000) envisaged in my judgment of 4 April 1992. It also means that the liquidator and the pensioners will share more or less equally the amount of the surplus that would be available if the discretion were not exercised at all and the liquidator were to receive the whole balance (viz £383,000) remaining after the payment condition under s 11(3) had been met.
Order accordingly.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Richurst Ltd v Pimenta and another
[1993] 2 All ER 559
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Arbitration
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): DAVID NEUBERGER QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 16, 18 SEPTEMBER 1992
Arbitration – Commencement – Extension of time fixed by agreement – Rent review – Service of landlord’s notice seeking rent review – Notice served out of time – Whether service of landlord’s notice ‘some other step to commence arbitration proceedings’ – Whether court having power to extend time for service of landlord’s notice – Arbitration Act 1950, s 27.
The plaintiff was the landlord and the defendants were the tenants under a lease granted on 31 January 1972 for a term of 34 years from 29 September 1971 at a rent of £1,250 pa for the first three years, £1,500 pa for the next two years and thereafter the open market rent assessed at five yearly reviews. Paragraph 3 of the proviso to the reddendum in the lease provided that the ‘open market rental value … shall be (a) specified in a notice in writing [by the landlord] addressed to the tenant … at any time before the beginning of … two quarters of a year … immediately preceding the review date … or (c) determined at the election of the tenant (to be made by counternotice in writing served by the tenant upon the lessor … ) by an independent surveyor … in accordance with … the Arbitration Act 1950’. In order to implement the rent review due on 29 September 1991 the landlord should have served a notice under para 3(a) by 25 March 1991. On 17 April 1991 the landlord’s surveyors wrote to the tenants purporting to give formal notice that the rent would be reviewed from 29 September. The landlord applied to the court under s 27a of the Arbitration Act 1950 for an extension of time in
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which to serve the notice. Under s 27 the court was empowered to extend the time for giving notice to appoint an arbitrator or for appointing an arbitrator or for taking ‘some other step to commence arbitration proceedings’. The landlord contended that the service of a landlord’s notice under para 3(a) of the rent review provisions in the lease fell within the expression ‘some other step to commence arbitration proceedings’. The tenants contended that, although there could be no reference to arbitration under para 3(c) of the rent review provisions without a landlord’s notice first being served under para 3(a), the service of a landlord’s notice was too remote to constitute a ‘step to commence arbitration proceedings’. The master held that he had jurisdiction to extend the time for service of the landlord’s notice. The tenants appealed.
Held – Unlike service of a tenant’s counter-notice under para 3(c) of the rent review provisions in the lease, service of the landlord’s notice under para 3(a) was not a ‘step to commence arbitration proceedings’ within s 27 of the 1950 Act since, unless and until a valid notice under para 3(a) was served, there could be no dispute as to the only matter to which the arbitration provision applied, namely the level of the reviewed rent. Accordingly, the court had no power to extend the 25 March 1991 deadline for the service of the landlord’s notice. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 562 f to j, p 563 a, p 565 h j and p 566 d e h, post).
Babanaft International Co SA v Avant Petroleum Inc, The Oltenia [1982] 3 All ER 244 and Jedranska Slobodna Plovidba v Oleagine SA, The Luka Botic [1983] 3 All ER 602 considered.
Notes
For the extension of time limits contained in arbitration agreements, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 654, and for cases on the subject, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 7–9, 6–15.
For the Arbitration Act 1950, s 27, see 2 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 603.
Cases referred to in judgment
Babanaft International Co SA v Avant Petroleum Inc, The Oltenia [1982] 3 All ER 244, [1982] 1 WLR 871, CA.
Jedranska Slobodna Plovidba v Oleagine SA, The Luka Botic [1983] 3 All ER 602, [1984] 1 WLR 300, CA.
Mariana Islands Steamship Corp v Marimpex Mineraloel-Handelsgesellschaft mbh & Co KG, The Medusa [1986] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 328, CA.
Nestlé Co Ltd v E Biggins & Co Ltd [1958] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 398, DC.
Pittalis v Sherefettin [1986] 2 All ER 227, [1986] QB 868, [1986] 2 WLR 1003, CA.
Case also cited
Tradax Export SA v Italcarbo Societa di Navigazione SpA, The Sandalion [1983] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 514.
Appeal
Jose Sousa Rodrigues Pimenta and Maria Jose Rodrigues Pimenta (the tenants), appealed against the decision of Master Barratt given on 19 March 1992 extending until 27 March 1992 the time for service by Richurst Ltd (the landlord) of a landlord’s notice under cl 1(3)(a) of the lease made between the parties dated 31 January 1972. The appeal was heard in chambers but judgment was given by David Neuberger QC in open court. The facts are set out in the judgment.
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Christopher Harrison (instructed by Vernon & Shakespeare, Oldbury Warley) for the landlord.
William Batstone (instructed by Hart Reade & Co, Eastbourne) for the tenants.
Cur adv vult
18 September 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
DAVID NEUBERGER QC. This is an appeal from Master Barratt which raises a short but not entirely easy point as to the ambit of s 27 of the Arbitration Act 1950 in the context of a rent review clause.
The plaintiff is the landlord and the defendants are tenants under a lease granted on 31 January 1972 of 30 York Place, Brighton, East Sussex. The lease is for a term of 34 years from 29 September 1971 at a rent of £1,250 pa for the first three years and £1,500 pa for the next two years. For the remainder of the term the rent is to be ‘the open market rental value of the demised premises at the review date’, the review date being defined as every fifth anniversary of the term, and so on. This case is concerned with the review due on 29 September 1991.
The proviso to the reddendum in the lease sets out the machinery pursuant to which the reviewed rent is to be determined. Paragraph 3 of the proviso states:
‘The open market rental value shall be determined in manner following that is to say it shall be such annual sum as shall be (a) specified in a notice in writing … addressed to the tenant at the demised premises at any time before the beginning of a clear period of two quarters of a year … immediately preceding the review date … or (b) agreed between the parties before the expiration of three months immediately after the date of posting of such notice as aforesaid in substitution of the said sum, or (c) determined at the election of the tenant (to be made by counternotice in writing served by the tenant upon the lessor not later than the expiration of the said three months) by an independent surveyor … in accordance with the provisions of the Arbitration Act 1950.’
I should also refer to para 5 of the proviso which provides that all stipulations as to time in the forgoing provisions of the proviso ‘shall be of the essence of the contract and shall not be capable of enlargement save as agreed in writing by the parties’.
It is common ground between the parties that, in order to implement the rent review due on 29 September 1991, the landlord should have served a notice under para 3(a) of the proviso by 25 March 1991. In fact the first time any notice was served by the landlord was on 17 April 1991 when the landlord’s surveyors wrote to the first defendant referring to the rent review on 29 September and purporting to give ‘formal notice that the rent will be reviewed with effect from that date’. The letter asked the first defendant ‘to acknowledge this letter by signing the attached copy and returning it to me in the envelope provided’. At the bottom, the letter contained the words ‘received by’ and the first defendant signed it and returned it.
In view of the fact that time is expressly made of the essence, it is clear that, as a matter of contract, the letter of 17 April 1991 was ineffective as a valid notice under para 3(a) of the rent review provisions.
The first point which it is convenient to dispose of is the argument raised on behalf of the landlord that the date for service of the landlord’s notice was enlarged by agreement between the parties by virtue of the first defendant having signed
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and returned a copy of the letter of 17 April 1991. I reject that contention, which, it is fair to say is not put forward on behalf of the landlord as its main point. Even ignoring the fact that the copy letter was only countersigned by one of the tenants (as counsel for the landlord very fairly pointed out) it seems that all that the acknowledgment of the letter did was to confirm that it had been received. I think it is quite impossible to read the letter as inviting the tenants to agree an extension of time for the service of the landlord’s notice, or to read the tenant’s acknowledgment as an agreement to enlarge that time limit.
The landlord’s main argument is that the court has power to extend the 25 March 1991 deadline for the service of the landlord’s notice under s 27 of the Arbitration Act 1950. That section provides:
‘Where the terms of an agreement to refer future disputes to arbitration provide that any claims to which the agreement applies shall be barred unless notice to appoint an arbitrator is given or an arbitrator is appointed or some other step to commence arbitration proceedings is taken within a time fixed by the agreement, and a dispute arises to which the agreement applies, the High Court, if it is of opinion that in the circumstances of the case undue hardship would otherwise be caused, and notwithstanding that the time so fixed has expired, may, on such terms, if any, as the justice of the case may require … extend the time for such period as it thinks proper.’
The landlord contends that the service of a landlord’s notice under para 3(a) of the rent review provisions in the lease falls within the expression ‘some other step to commence arbitration proceedings’. The tenants contend that, although there can be no reference to arbitration under para 3(c) of the rent review provisions without a landlord’s notice first having been served under para 3(a), the service of a landlord’s notice is too remote to constitute a ‘step to commence arbitration proceedings’.
As a matter of ordinary language, it seems to me that the service of a landlord’s notice under para 3(a) of the rent review provisions in the instant case is not a ‘step to commence arbitration proceedings’. The service of a tenant’s counternotice under para 3(c) of those provisions is such a step. It is true that the service of a landlord’s notice under para 3(a) is a step as a result of which arbitration proceedings may be commenced. I do not consider that it falls naturally within the language of s 27.
I am reinforced in that view by the fact that the three matters which are specifically stated to fall within s 27 are: (i) notice to appoint an arbitrator; (ii) an arbitrator being appointed; (iii) some other step to commence arbitration proceedings. The first two matters are intimately and immediately connected with the arbitration process itself, which suggests to me the third matter does not have as wide a compass as the landlord’s case would involve it having.
In addition, in order for the High Court to have jurisdiction the section requires that a dispute arises to which the agreement applies. It seems to me that, if, as a matter of contract, no valid notice seeking a review of the rent has been served, then it would be rather a misuse of words to say that a dispute has arisen to which the arbitration agreement contained in para 3 of the rent review provisions has arisen. Unless a valid notice under para 3(a) of the rent review provisions has been served, there can be no dispute as to the only matter to which the arbitration provision applies, namely the level of the reviewed rent.
Analogies are always a little dangerous, but it would appear that, if the landlord is right, a person who is granted an option to purchase certain goods provided he serves a notice by a specified date (time to be of the essence thereof), whereupon the price of goods is to be determined by arbitration if it cannot be agreed, could
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invoke s 27 to extend the time for the service of his notice exercising the option. That appears to me to be a surprising conclusion.
Accordingly, considering the matter free of authority, I would be against the landlord. In relation to this sort of case, at any rate, I reach such a conclusion with a degree of regret. First, as a matter of principle it seems to me that where, as here, no prejudice appears to have been suffered by the other party due to the missing of the time limit, and the circumstances in which the time limit has been missed are understandable, there is a great deal to be said for the court having power, on appropriate terms, to extend time.
Furthermore, it does seem a little one-sided in a case such as this that the court should have the power to extend the time for the service of the tenant’s counternotice under para 3(c) of the rent review provisions (as it undoubtedly does under s 27: see Pittalis v Sherefettin [1986] 2 All ER 227, [1986] QB 868) but not to extend the time for the service of the landlord’s notice under para 3(a).
I turn now to the authorities. There is no doubt that they do lay down some guiding principles as to the applicability of s 27, but equally, as one would expect, they also make it clear that the proper approach is to consider the terms of the contract in the case concerned.
In Nestlé Co Ltd v E Biggins & Co Ltd [1958] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 398 a contract for the sale of coffee contained a clause (cl 14) in the following terms:
‘Failing amicable agreement, both parties to this contract hereby agree to submit any dispute of whatever nature arising out of this contract to arbitration … according to the rules of the Coffee Trade Federation (of London). Any claim on quality or condition of the goods must be made not later than 14 days from final day of weighing and/or discharge of goods …’
Rule 2 of the arbitration rules of the Coffee Trade Federation provided:
‘All arbitrations must be claimed within 14 days following the final day of weighing and/or warehousing of the contract goods …’
The claim made by the buyers was later than the 14 days permitted by cl 14 of the contract, and the buyers accordingly applied to the Divisional Court for an extension of time under s 27. Rejecting the argument of the seller that the court did not have jurisdiction Lord Goddard CJ said (at 400) that it seemed to him that—
‘the Court has clear jurisdiction under that section to extend the time in which a claim is to be made, because the claim is the first step towards arbitration. If the claim is not made within 14 days and if the parties go before the arbitrator, the objection will at once be taken that the arbitrator cannot make an award in favour of the buyer here in question because the claim was not made within 14 days.’
That decision was overruled by the Court of Appeal in Babanaft International Co SA v Avant Petroleum Inc, The Oltenia [1982] 3 All ER 244 at 255, [1982] 1 WLR 871 at 885, where Donaldson LJ (with whom the other two members of the court agreed) said in relation to the contract in the Nestlé case:
‘I would … accept that, under that particular contract, the claim for quality or condition had to precede or accompany the claim for arbitration, since arbitration cannot be claimed in vacuo: it has to be linked to a specific dispute. Where I have much more difficulty is in seeing why the making of a claim for quality or condition is a step to commence arbitration proceedings. It is a condition precedent to such proceedings, but it does not in itself
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commence the proceedings or necessarily lead to their being commenced. The claim may be conceded or settled amicably. In my judgment, the decision of the Divisional Court was wrong and should be overruled.’
In The Oltenia the contract under consideration was a charterparty in the Asbatankvoy form (October 1977 edn), which provided for arbitration in London in respect of any dispute. An additional clause in the charterparty, cl M2, provided that the charterers should be discharged and released from all liability—
‘unless a claim has been presented to Charterers in writing with all available supporting documents, within 90 (ninety) days from completion of discharge of the cargo concerned …’ (See [1982] 3 All ER 244 at 247, [1982] 1 WLR 871 at 875.)
The owners’ claim against charterers was presented outside the 90-day period, and the argument for the owners, which was rejected by the Court of Appeal, was that the court had power under s 27 effectively to extend the 90-day limitation period under cl M2. Donaldson LJ said of the owner’s argument ([1982] 3 All ER 244 at 254–255, [1982] 1 WLR 871 at 884):
‘This involves linking the cl M2 time limit to the arbitration clause and giving a very wide construction to the concept of taking a step to commence arbitration proceedings. I doubt whether the argument could have been advanced with the faintest air of plausibility but for the discovery since the hearing below of the decision of the Divisional Court in Nestlé …’
Later in his judgment he said ([1982] 3 All ER 244 at 255–256, [1982] 1 WLR 871 at 886):
‘Counsel for the owners submitted that presenting a claim with all available supporting documents can itself be regarded as a step to commence arbitration proceedings and that accordingly cl M2 can be construed as barring claims unless such a step is taken. The answer to this is that presenting a claim with all available supporting documents does not necessarily lead to an arbitration and so is not a step to commence such proceedings.’
It is true, as was pointed out by counsel for the landlord, that the two relevant clauses in The Oltenia, cl M2 and the arbitration clause, were less closely linked that the two provisions, para 3(a) and para 3(c) of the rent review provisions, in the instant case; however I am not persuaded that that is a valid reason for distinguishing the present case from The Oltenia, particularly in the light of the passages I have quoted from the judgment of Donaldson LJ. I am reinforced in that view by the overruling of Nestlé Co Ltd v E Biggins & Co Ltd, where, it will be remembered, the two provisions were closely linked in that the arbitration clause was effectively incorporated in the very provision (namely cl 14) of the contract which contained the time limits which were sought to be extended.
Counsel for the landlord relied on the later decision of the Court of Appeal in Jedranska Slobodna Plovidba v Oleagine SA, The Luka Botic [1983] 3 All ER 602, [1984] 1 WLR 300. That case was concerned with an application for an extension of time under s 27 under the Centrocon form of arbitration clause, which was in the following terms ([1983] 3 All ER 602 at 604, [1984] 1 WLR 300 at 302):
‘All disputes from time to time arising out of this contract shall … be referred to the final arbitrament of two Arbitrators … Any claim must be made in writing and Claimants’ Arbitrator appointed within three months
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of final discharge and where this provision is not complied with the claim shall be deemed to be waived and absolutely barred.’
No claim was made within the three-month period, but the owners, who wished to make a claim, sought an extension of time from the court for the making of a claim under the clause, pursuant to s 27. On behalf of the charterers, it was contended that, in light of the decision in and reasoning in The Oltenia the court had no power to extend time. That argument was rejected. In giving the judgment of the Court of Appeal, Ackner LJ said ([1983] 3 All ER 602 at 607, [1984] 1 WLR 300 at 305–306):
‘… nothing in The Oltenia decides that a claim in writing cannot be a step to commence arbitration proceedings within the meaning of s 27, if the parties so agree. The whole of the clause with which we are concerned relates to arbitration. The first sentence requires claims to be referred to arbitration; the second sentence deals with the requirement that the claim is to be in writing and the arbitrator appointed in the limited period and the consequences if this does not occur. The third sentence deals with the invalidation of awards. Moreover, the use of the singular “where this provision is not complied with” is a clear indication that the notice requirement is a “step to commence arbitration proceedings”. As previously stated, in The Oltenia the arbitration clause and the M2 clause were separate, distinct and unrelated. In Nestlé Co Ltd v E Biggins & Co Ltd the time limit for making claims for quality or condition was a separate and distinct provision in the same clause … the appointment of the arbitrator and the making of the claim in writing in the arbitration clause go hand in hand, and … both provisions are so inextricably bound together that they should be regarded as part of the same process of commencing arbitration proceedings within the meaning of s 27.’
It seems to me that the decision does not assist the landlord. First, the whole clause there was concerned with the reference of disputes to arbitration, whereas para 3 of the rent review provisions in the instant case is not: only sub-para (c) is. In The Luka Botic the making of the claim and the appointment of the arbitrator went ‘hand in hand’ not only because they were referred to together, but because they had to be effected by the same person and were subject to the same three months time limit. The landlord’s notice in the instant case is not referred to in the same provision as the reference to arbitration, is not subject to the same time limit as the reference to arbitration and is not to be effected by the same person as the reference to arbitration. It seems to me that para 3(a) of the rent review provisions in the instant case is ‘a separate and distinct provision [from para 3(c) of the provisions] in the same clause’, to adopt the words of Ackner LJ in The Luka Botic [1983] 3 All ER 602 at 607, [1984] 1 WLR 300 at 306.
It was submitted on behalf of the landlord that para 3(a) and para 3(c) of the rent review provisions in the instant case went ‘hand in hand’ because the arbitration provisions in the latter case could only apply if a notice under the former paragraph was served. It is right to say that this submission receives a degree of support from observations in The Oltenia [1982] 3 All ER 244 at 255–256, [1982] 1 WLR 871 at 885–886. However, while it is a point which should be taken into account, it does not seem to me that the fact that the service of a landlord’s notice under para 3(a) of the rent review provisions is a necessary precondition of arbitration can outweigh the other factors I have mentioned.
It has been suggested that the two decisions of the Court of Appeal to which I have referred may be mutually inconsistent. In my judgment, that is not a good
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point. I note that both decisions were considered subsequently by the Court of Appeal in Marian Islands Steamship Corp v Marimpex Mineraloel-Handelsgesellschaft mbh & Co K G, The Medusa [1986] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 328, where there was no suggestion by any member of the court that there was any inconsistency between the two decisions. In that case the relevant provisions before the court were held to be governed by the approach in The Oltenia rather than in The Luka Botic.
In Pittalis v Sherefettin [1986] 2 All ER 227, [1986] QB 868 the Court of Appeal had to consider a rent review clause with a procedure very similar indeed to that in the instant case. However, in that case it was the tenant who was seeking to invoke s 27 as he had missed the time limit for the service of his notice under the equivalent of para 3(c) of the rent review provisions of the instant case. Fox LJ referred to the tenant’s notice as being ‘effectively the first step in the arbitration proceedings’ (see [1986] 2 All ER 227 at 232, [1986] QB 868 at 877). Counsel for the tenant suggests that this observation assists his argument that service of the landlord’s notice under para 3(a) of the rent review provisions is not a ‘step to commence arbitration proceedings’ because it precedes what Fox LJ referred to as ‘the first step’. The remark of Fox LJ was strictly obiter and he was in no way addressing the point at issue in the instant case. The furthest I can go is to say that I draw little comfort from his observation.
Accordingly, my analysis of the relevant cases on s 27 confirms the view I would have reached had the matter been free of authority.
Master Barratt reached a different view. Having decided he had jurisdiction to extend time under s 27, he exercised his jurisdiction in favour of granting an extension. In case this matter goes further, I should say that, while I take a different view from the master as to the question of jurisdiction, I have no hesitation whatever in holding that, had I got jurisdiction under s 27, I would have upheld his decision to extend time. Given that I have decided that there is no jurisdiction to do so, it would be inappropriate for me to set out my reasons at any length as to why I would have extended time had I got jurisdiction. Put shortly, the following facts appear to me to be relevant. (1) The individual controlling and managing the affairs of the landlord was very ill in early 1991 and died on 12 March. (2) It took time for the affairs of the landlord to be sorted out by the solicitors and surveyors and the letter of 17 April was served as soon as reasonably possible. (3) The letter of 17 April was a mere matter of some three or four weeks late. (4) The application to extend time was promptly made. (5) If time is not extended, the landlord will lose an increase in rent in the region of 75%. (6) No prejudice is even alleged by the tenants as a result of the late service of the landlord’s notice. This short recital of the relevant facts serves to explain why I regret reaching the decision that the court has no power to extend time in the instant case under s 27.
In these circumstances, I must allow the appeal from Master Barratt and dismiss the originating summons.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Family Housing Association (Manchester) Ltd v Michael Hyde & Partners (a firm) and others
[1993] 2 All ER 567
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BALCOMBE, MANN AND HIRST LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 10, 26 NOVEMBER 1992
Evidence – Without prejudice correspondence – Application to dismiss action for want of prosecution – Without prejudice correspondence concerning negotiations between parties – Whether admissible in evidence at hearing of application to strike out for want of prosecution.
The plaintiffs brought an action against the defendant architects for negligence and breach of contract arising out of the design of flats which was alleged to be faulty. The defendants applied to strike out the action for want of prosecution. In answer to the application the plaintiffs filed in evidence an affidavit by their solicitor and correspondence exhibited thereto referring to without prejudice negotiations which had taken place between the parties and in particular referring to settlement offers and concessions on some of the issues in the proceedings made for the purpose of the negotiations only. The defendants applied to strike out parts of the plaintiffs’ solicitor’s evidence on the ground that while it was permissible to refer to the fact that without prejudice negotiations had taken place, together with the period of those negotiations, it was not permissible to refer to the details of what was offered, said or conceded for negotiation purposes only. The judge dismissed the application. The defendants appealed, contending that the principle that without prejudice correspondence could not be referred to by either side in the course of a trial extended, with a few isolated exceptions, to the imposition of a general embargo on any reference to without prejudice correspondence at any stage of litigation, including applications to strike out, since, as a matter of principle, the public policy considerations of encouraging negotiations and compromises between parties by preventing anything they said from being used against them at any stage or in any circumstances outweighed the fact that the content of without prejudice correspondence might be of relevance in an application to strike out.
Held – The contents of without prejudice correspondence could be disclosed in an application to strike out for want of prosecution since the admission of such evidence did not infringe the main considerations of public policy in favour of the general rule excluding reference to without prejudice correspondence, as the parties’ willingness to talk frankly about the strengths and weaknesses of their case and make provisional offers would not be inhibited to any significant extent by the knowledge that such negotiations could be referred to for the sole purpose of explaining the passage of time and the conduct of the parties during the negotiations. In any event, if the application to strike out succeeded the action would be at an end and if it failed and the case proceeded to trial the material would not be available to the trial judge. Furthermore, wider considerations of public policy required the disclosure of without prejudice correspondence in a striking out application in so far as it explained what had transpired between the parties where such activity was relevant to the issues arising on the application to strike out, especially where inordinate and inexcusable delay was alleged.
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Furthermore, the admission of such material was by no means a one-sided advantage since the defendant might wish to refer to it to show that the plaintiff had not been negotiating sincerely or was dragging his feet. It followed that the appeal would be dismissed (see p 575 e f to p 576 d f g, post).
Notes
For communications without prejudice, see 17 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 212–213, and for cases on the subject, see 22(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 99–104, 6770–6815.
Cases referred to in judgments
Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd, Bostick v Bermondsey and Southwark Group Hospital Management Committee, Sternberg v Hammond [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, [1968] 2 WLR 366, CA.
Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93, [1975] 3 WLR 586, CA.
County and District Properties Ltd v Lyell (1977) [1991] 1 WLR 683, CA.
Cutts v Head [1984] 1 All ER 597, [1984] Ch 290, [1984] 2 WLR 349, CA.
Jones v Foxall (1852) 15 Beav 388, 51 ER 588.
Rush & Tomkins Ltd v Greater London Council [1988] 3 All ER 737, [1989] AC 1280, [1988] 3 WLR 939, HL.
St Matthew, Reading Parochial Church Council v Sir Alexander Gibb & Partners (a firm) [1989] CA Transcript 1031.
Scott Paper Co v Drayton Paper Works Ltd (1927) 44 RPC 151; on appeal 44 RPC 529, CA.
Sheffield City Council v Hodkin & Jones (Sheffield) Ltd [1989] CA Transcript 983.
Taylor v St Augustine with St George, Brandon Hill, Bristol Parochial Church Council [1980] CA Transcript 558.
Walker v Wilsher (1889) 23 QBD 335, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Biss v Lambeth Southwark and Lewisham Health Authority [1978] 2 All ER 125, [1978] 1 WLR 382, CA.
Daintrey, Re, ex p Holt [1893] 2 QB 116, [1891–4] All ER Rep 209, DC.
Fabbrica Italiana Astucci Bologna SRL v Targus Europe Ltd (1992) Times, 26 February.
Rabin v Mendoza & Co [1954] 1 All ER 247, [1954] 1 WLR 271,CA.
Reynolds v British Leyland Ltd [1991] 2 All ER 243, [1991] 1 WLR 675, CA.
River Steamer Co, Re, Mitchell’s Claim (1871) 6 Ch App 822, LJJ.
Simaan General Contracting Co v Pilkington Glass Ltd [1987] 1 All ER 345, [1987] 1 WLR 516.
South Shropshire DC v Amos [1987] 1 All ER 340, [1986] 1 WLR 1271, CA.
Stotesbury v Turner [1943] KB 370.
Waldridge v Kennison (1794) 1 Esp 142, 170 ER 306, NP.
Whiffen v Hartwright (1848) 11 Beav 111, 50 ER 759.
Interlocutory appeal
Michael Hyde & Partners (a firm) (formerly DH Design Partnership) and Dry Halasz Dixon Partnership (a firm), the first and third defendants respectively in an action brought by the plaintiffs, Family Housing Association (Manchester) Ltd, for damages for negligence and breach of contract, appealed from the order of Judge Franks hearing official referees’ business in the Manchester district registry on 18 December 1991 whereby he dismissed the first and third defendants’
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application under RSC Ord 41, r 6 to strike out parts of the affidavit of the plaintiffs’ solicitor, Geoffrey Kenneth Thornley, and parts of the correspondence exhibited thereto, which had been filed in answer to the first and third defendants’ application that the action be dismissed for want of prosecution. The facts are set out in the judgment of Hirst LJ.
Stephen Grime QC (instructed by Elliott & Co, Manchester) for the first and third defendants.
Charles Bloom QC (instructed by Sedgwick Phelan & Partners, Manchester) for the plaintiffs.
Cur adv vult
26 November 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
HIRST LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Balcombe LJ). This is an appeal by the first and third defendants from the order of Judge Franks sitting as an official referee dated 18 December 1991, whereby he dismissed the application made by the first and third defendants under RSC Ord 41, r 6 to strike out parts of the evidence of the plaintiffs in answer to the first and third defendants’ pending application that the action be dismissed for want of prosecution.
The action arises out of the employment by the plaintiffs of the first and third defendants, both of whom are firms of architects, to design and construct a block of flats in Manchester, under a contract made as long ago as 1973.
The second defendants were employed on the same project as builders, but they dropped out of the action several years ago. The plaintiffs’ complaint relates to defects in the flooring of the building, which consisted of a ‘sandwich’ on top of a concrete structure, in the middle of which there is a layer of cement screed which proved faulty. The plaintiffs blamed the architects on the ground that their design specified too thin a layer of cement screed; the architects say that the blame or at least the substantial proportion thereof attaches to the builders for bad workmanship and/or defective mixing of the cement.
The question at present before the court arises as a preliminary issue in the defendants’ application to dismiss the action for want of prosecution. The evidence objected to consists in part of statements in the affidavit of the plaintiffs’ solicitor, Mr Geoffrey Kenneth Thornley, in answer to the application, and in part to correspondence exhibited to that affidavit, and focuses in particular on references to the content of without prejudice negotiations which took place between the parties. The essence of the objection is that, while it is permissible to refer to the fact that without prejudice negotiations have taken place, together with the period of those negotiations, it is not permissible to refer to the details of what was offered, or conceded for negotiation purposes only, or said. The defendants therefore object to various passages in Mr Thornley’s affidavit and in the correspondence, including in particular references to settlement offers either precisely quantified or scaled by reference to the total quantum of the plaintiffs’ damages, and concessions on some of the controversial issues at stake in the proceedings made for the purpose of the negotiations only. There are also a number of references to trial dates, in which it seems at any rate at first sight that the plaintiffs were suggesting the fixing of an early trial date, while the defendants were demurring to that suggestion pending the completion of the expert evidence and of further amendments to the pleadings.
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The learned official referee dismissed the application, and his ratio decidendi is crystallised in the following passage from his judgment:
‘… it seems to me, when considering questions of delay and striking out for delay, it is not sufficient just to know there have been negotiations. If that is all a judge knows he might well do an injustice either to a plaintiff or to a defendant. To my mind it is sensible in such cases to see what each party was saying to the other, and to see if for instance delay was actively encouraged, whether protests were being made about it, whether both were just letting the action sleep. Such an inquiry would ensure that a judge, who is deciding whether a party should be struck out or not because of delay, would have a full picture before him so that he could meet the full justice of the case without any blindfold. If it be the case that in any such interlocutory application there are matters a trial judge should not know of, then of course the judge making the interlocutory decision sends it over for trial by another judge. That is in fact what is going to happen in this case in any event because I have already been told of the sums that have been offered by way of settlement and cannot try the matter.’
It is of course common ground between the parties that correspondence marked without prejudice cannot be referred to by either side in the course of a trial, or in the course of proceedings following a trial such as applications for costs (subject to the exception of a Calderbank letter (see Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93)).
Mr Grime QC for the defendants submits that the reported authorities establishing that principle, to which I am about to refer, extend on their proper construction to imposing a general embargo on any reference to without prejudice correspondence at any stage of the litigation, including applications of the present kind, apart from a few isolated exceptions which are of no relevance for present purposes.
Mr Bloom QC for the plaintiffs submits that the reported authorities do not on their proper interpretation debar reference to without prejudice correspondence in an application of the present kind, and he also relies on three unreported authorities to which I shall also be referring shortly, and which he submits support his argument.
In Jones v Foxall (1852) 15 Beav 388 at 396, 51 ER 588 at 591 Romilly MR stated as follows in a breach of trust action:
‘And here I should conclude what I have to say, but that I think it proper to add, that I have paid no attention to the correspondence and negotiations which occurred between the father of the Plaintiff and the Defendant Foxall which have been given in evidence, and commented upon in this case. In the first place, the Plaintiff, who is an infant, cannot be bound by any admissions made by any one professing to act on his behalf. But, in addition to this, I find that the offers were in fact made without prejudice to the rights of the parties; and I shall, as far as I am able, in all cases, endeavour to repress a practice which, when I was first acquainted with the profession, was never ventured upon, but which, according to my experience in this place, has been common of late—namely, that of attempting to convert offers of compromise into admissions of acts prejudicial to the person making them. If this were permitted, the effect would be, that no attempt to compromise a dispute could ever be made. If no reservation of the person who made an offer of compromise could prevent that offer, and the letters containing or relating to it, from being afterwards given in evidence, and made use of
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against him, it is obvious that no such letter would be written or offer made. In my opinion, such letters and offers are admissible for one purpose only, namely, to show that an attempt has been made to compromise the suit which may sometimes be necessary; as, for instance, in order to account for the lapse of time, but never for the purpose of fixing the person making them with any admissions contained in such letters; and I shall do all I can to discourage this modern and, as I think, most injurious practice.’ (Romilly MR’s emphasis.)
In Walker v Wilsher (1889) 23 QBD 335 the Court of Appeal (Lord Esher MR, Lindley and Bowen LJJ) ruled out the use of without prejudice correspondence by the unsuccessful litigant seeking to deprive his opponent of costs. Lindley LJ, having referred to a first instance case where such correspondence had been admitted, stated as follows (at 338):
‘That case is the only authority that I know of for the course taken by the learned judge, and, when we come to consider the principle on which it was decided, it does not convince me that a judge is entitled to look at letters written without prejudice unless he has the consent of both parties to his so doing. No doubt there are cases where letters written without prejudice may be taken into consideration, as was done the other day in a case in which a question of laches was raised. The fact that such letters have been written and the dates at which they were written may be regarded, and in so doing the rule to which I have adverted would not be infringed. The facts may, I think, be given in evidence, but the offer made and the mode in which that offer was dealt with—the material matters, that is to say, of the letters—must not be looked at without consent. I think, therefore, that there was no good cause for depriving the plaintiff of costs, and that the decision should be reversed.’
In Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 2 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93 the principle was established in a matrimonial case that reference could be made in an application for costs to a without prejudice offer to settle made subject to a clearly expressed reservation of the right to refer to it on the costs issue.
In Cutts v Head [1984] 1 All ER 597, [1984] Ch 290 the Court of Appeal had to consider whether the Calderbank principle extended across the whole spectrum of civil litigation. Oliver LJ stated as follows in relation to the well-established meaning of ‘without prejudice’ ([1984] 1 All ER 597 at 605–606, [1984] Ch 290 at 306–307):
‘The answer to the question whether, accepting that meaning, it is yet open to a party taking advantage of the protection afforded by the use of the formula to qualify its operation must, I think, therefore be sought in an analysis of the underlying basis for the protection and the practice of the courts generally in relation to its application. As to this the argument of counsel for the defendant may, I think, be summarised conveniently in three propositions. (1) The protection from disclosure of without prejudice negotiations rests in part on public policy and in part on convention (ie an express or implied agreement that the negotiations shall be so protected). (2) There is no public policy which precludes a conventional modification of the protection to the extent suggested in Calderbank v Calderbank. (3) The actual practice adopted in all divisions of the High Court shows that this conventional modification has been generally accepted and is recognised by the courts and to that extent at least public policy has been modified. That
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the rule rests, at least in part, on public policy is clear from many authorities, and the convenient starting point of the inquiry is the nature of the underlying policy. It is that parties should be encouraged so far as possible to settle their disputes without resort to litigation and should not be discouraged by the knowledge that anything that is said in the course of such negotiations (and that includes, of course, as much the failure to reply to an offer as an actual reply) may be used to their prejudice in the course of the proceedings. They should, as it was expressed by Clauson J in Scott Paper Co v Drayton Paper Works Ltd (1927) 44 RPC 151 at 157, be encouraged freely and frankly to put their cards on the table. If, however, the protection against disclosure rested solely on a public policy to encourage out-of-court settlement of disputes, Walker v Wilsher is not readily intelligible, for, although the court, and in particular Bowen LJ, seem to have been prepared to assume that an inability to refer to the correspondence on a question of costs, after judgment, would encourage settlement, it is difficult to see, if one thinks about it practically, how that could do so. As a practical matter, a consciousness of a risk as to costs if reasonable offers are refused can only encourage settlement, whilst, on the other hand, it is hard to imagine anything more calculated to encourage obstinacy and unreasonableness than the comfortable knowledge that a litigant can refuse with impunity whatever may be offered to him even if it is as much as or more than everything to which he is entitled in the action. The public policy justification, in truth, essentially rests on the desirability of preventing statements or offers made in the course of negotiations for settlement being brought before the court of trial as admissions on the question of liability. It was expressed thus by Romilly MR in Jones v Foxall (1852) 15 Beav 288 at 396, 51 ER 588 at 591: “… I find that the offers were, in fact, made without prejudice to the rights of the parties; and I shall, as far as I am able, in all cases, endeavour to repress a practice which, when I was first acquainted with the profession, was never ventured upon, but which, according to my experience in this place, has become common of late—namely, that of attempting to convert offers of compromise into admissions of acts prejudicial to the person making them. If this were permitted, the effect would be that no attempt to compromise a dispute could ever be made.” Once, however, the trial of the issues in the action is at an end and the matter of costs comes to be argued, this can have no further application for there are no further issues of fact to be determined on which admissions could be relevant. One is, therefore, compelled to seek some additional basis to the decision in Walker v Wilsher and it is, as it seems to me, to be found in an implied agreement imported from the marking of letter “without prejudice” that it shall not be referred to at all.’ (Romilly MR’s emphasis.)
Fox LJ delivered the concurring judgment.
This passage was approved in the House of Lords on an application for discovery of without prejudice correspondence in Rush & Tomkins Ltd v Greater London Council [1988] 3 All ER 737 at 739–740, [1989] AC 1280 at 1299 by Lord Griffiths giving the leading speech, with which the other members of the Appellate Committee agreed; Lord Griffiths proceeded as follows ([1988] 3 All ER 737 at 740, [1989] AC 1280 at 1299–1300):
‘The rule applies to exclude all negotiations genuinely aimed at settlement whether oral or in writing from being given in evidence. A competent solicitor will always head any negotiating correspondence “without prejudice”
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to make clear beyond doubt that in the event of the negotiations being unsuccessful they are not to be referred to at the subsequent trial. However the application of the rule is not dependent on the use of the phrase “without prejudice” and if it is clear from the surrounding circumstances that the parties were seeking to compromise the action, evidence of the content of those negotiations will, as a general rule, not be admissible at the trial and cannot be used to establish an admission or partial admission. I cannot therefore agree with the Court of Appeal that the problem in the present case should be resolved by a linguistic approach to the meaning of the phrase “without prejudice”. I believe that the question has to be looked at more broadly and resolved by balancing two different public interests, namely the public interest in promoting settlements and the public interest in full discovery between parties to litigation. Nearly all the cases in which the scope of the without prejudice rule has been considered concern the admissibility of evidence at trial after negotiations have failed. In such circumstances no question of discovery arises because the parties are well aware of what passed between them in the negotiations. These cases show that the rule is not absolute and resort may be had to the without prejudice material for a variety of reasons when the justice of the case requires it. It is unnecessary to make any deep examination of these authorities to resolve the present appeal but they all illustrate the underlying purpose of the rule which is to protect a litigant from being embarrassed by an admission made purely in an attempt to achieve a settlement.’
In all three unreported Court of Appeal cases reference was made to the contents of without prejudice correspondence in applications to dismiss for want of prosecution, though it seems clear that in none of them was there any objection, as in the present case, to the admissibility of such evidence. These cases are Taylor v St Augustine with St George, Brandon Hill, Bristol Parochial Church Council [1980] CA Transcript 558, Sheffield City Council v Hodkin & Jones (Sheffield) Ltd [1989] CA Transcript 983 and St Matthew, Reading Parochial Church Council v Sir Alexander Gibb & Partners (a firm) [1989] CA Transcript 1031. In Taylor’s case Megaw LJ stated as follows:
‘Negotiations in progress are not necessarily an excuse for delay which will prevail. Whether or not they should prevail, what weight they should have in the balancing process, depends, in my judgment, upon all the circumstances of the case, the nature of the negotiations, how urgently they are pursued, how they are left and what has been said by one side or another in relation to their effect upon the urgent proceeding with the action. They may well be of importance. The fact that there have been negotiations may be of smaller importance.’
Eveleigh LJ delivered a concurring judgment and Watkins LJ agreed.
The law is stated as follows in Phipson on Evidence (14th edn, 1990) pp 554–555:
‘It is certainly the case that without prejudice communications are admissible for the purpose of showing that they have been made. It is long established that they may be adduced in evidence as explaining delay. Though there is little authority on this topic, in practice without prejudice correspondence is regularly exhibited to affidavits without objection from the court or counsel on interlocutory applications, for example to strike out for want of prosecution, or for discovery. In some cases this is because the correspondence, though headed without prejudice, is in reality nothing of
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the sort. In others, however, it genuinely falls within the protection accorded to without prejudice correspondence, but is admissible because the purpose for which it is tendered does not infringe the policy of the rules.’
Mr Grime, on behalf of the defendants, accepts that the content of without prejudice correspondence may be of relevance in relation to applications of this kind, particularly on the question of whether or not the plaintiff is guilty of unreasonable an inexcusable delay (and also possibly on the question of whether such delay, if established, has caused substantial prejudice to the defendant). However, he submits that as a matter of principle, in the light of the reported authorities, such evidence is inadmissible. He submits that the juridical basis of the rule is founded on public policy in encouraging negotiations and compromises, coupled with an implied or tacit agreement or convention binding upon those who negotiate with a view to compromise.
So far as public policy is concerned, he submits that it is impossible to have a system which encourages compromise if there are loopholes which may lead to discovery of what is said in negotiations. The aim is to permit parties to litigation to talk frankly about the strengths and weaknesses of their case on both liability and quantum, in the knowledge that any concession which they make cannot be held against them later: thus the true purpose of the rule is not merely to ensure that admissions or statements made should not be used to the disadvantage of a party at trial, but to put a complete shield round without prejudice communications in order to encourage negotiation and to enable complete freedom of expression to parties whilst negotiating. The parties must, he suggests, be able to have confidence that nothing which they say can be turned against them at any stage or in any circumstances, and that there is in consequence no distinction between evidence in interlocutory matters and evidence at trial.
So far as implied agreement or convention is concerned, he submits that it is not open to one party to choose to disregard such an agreement without the consent of the other, thereby breaking the agreement, unless a new convention is developed as in the Calderbank case.
Mr Bloom on behalf of the plaintiffs relied on the following basic propositions.
(i) The admission in an application of this kind of the contents of without prejudice correspondence for the limited purpose of explaining the passage of time, and the conduct of the parties during negotiations, does not infringe the policy which lies behind the exclusion of such correspondence for other purposes and on other issues. The policy is only infringed if admissions etc are opened up on issues which will be before the trial judge.
(ii) Wider considerations of public policy require the disclosure of without prejudice correspondence in so far as it explains what has been going on between the parties, so far as such activity is relevant to the issues arising on an application to strike out, especially alleged inordinate and inexcusable delay.
(iii) In so far as the exclusion is founded on agreement between the parties, such agreements should by implication be confined to the opening up of admissions and concessions on the merits of the issues likely to be raised at the trial, and should not extend to exclusion of material explaining delay and the conduct of the parties.
(iv) Whilst public policy dictates that, in the majority of cases and in relation to the majority of issues, the details of without prejudice discussions cannot be disclosed, there is in a residuum of cases, including the present, a stronger public policy which dictates disclosure. In the present case the prevailing public policy consideration is that of enabling a party to lay all relevant facts before the court so
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that the court has sufficient information to reach a just conclusion in accordance with established precedent.
Mr Bloom also made it clear that he intended to submit on the application that the defendants are in effect estopped from making the present application by reason of their conduct in inducing the plaintiff to believe that the action would proceed to settlement or trial notwithstanding any delay by the plaintiffs, and that the plaintiffs subsequently incurred further expense relying on that inducement. This submission is based on the decision of the Court of Appeal in County and District Properties Ltd v Lyell [1991] 1 WLR 683, a 1977 case decided by Stephenson, Roskill and Bridge LJJ, and reported as a note. In that case the Court of Appeal, basing itself on passages from the classic judgments of Diplock and Salmon LJJ in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd, Bostick v Bermondsey and Southwark Group Hospital Management Committee, Sternberg v Hammond [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, held that where a defendant has induced in the plaintiff a belief that the action is to be allowed to go on, and the plaintiff has in consequence taken action to alter his position or to act to his detriment, the defendant is debarred from relying upon inordinate and inexcusable delay in order to secure the dismissal of the action for want of prosecution (esp at 690 per Bridge LJ).
Mr Bloom submits that, if he is debarred from referring to the defendants’ conduct in the without prejudice negotiations on which he relies for this purpose to show that the defendants so conducted themselves, he will be deprived of the opportunity of presenting his case on this issue. Mr Grime submitted that on this issue also the without prejudice negotiations are a closed book.
In reaching my conclusion it seems to me important to stress at the outset that I can find nothing in any of the reported authorities which excludes the use of without prejudice correspondence in applications of the present kind. Those authorities are concerned with the use of such correspondence at a trial or during its aftermath, and do not in my judgment extend to an application of the present kind, which essentially determines whether or not there should be a trial at all. I am therefore unable to accept Mr Grime’s basic premise as to the wide ambit of those authorities. The unreported authorities, on the other hand, while not determinative of the issue since, as Mr Grime rightly stresses, the point at issue was not expressly debated, do certainly in my view demonstrate the recognition of a practice allowing admission of without prejudice correspondence in applications of the present kind. This is consistent with the statement in Phipson on Evidence, and suggests that there has developed a convention permitting the use of such documents for this special purpose. If, as I think, such a convention exists, any agreement between the parties would be subject to it (as in the case of the conventional modification of the general rule established by the Calderbank case). In any event, it seems to me somewhat unreal to treat such an agreement as covering this type of application, which would be most unlikely to be in either party’s mind at the time of the without prejudice agreement. So far as public policy is concerned, I fully recognise the strength of the considerations in favour of an embargo as a general rule, as established by the reported cases, but it seems to me that there is a preponderant public policy consideration in favour of admitting the evidence in applications of the present kind.
The main considerations of public policy in favour of the general rule excluding reference to without prejudice correspondence, on which Mr Grime so strongly relies, seem to me to have little or no application in the present context, seeing that I do not think the parties’ willingness to talk frankly about the strengths and weaknesses of their case, and to make provisional offers or admissions for the purposes of negotiation only, will be to any significant extent inhibited by the
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knowledge that the negotiations may be referred to in this very narrow field, not for the purpose of showing that such provisional offers or admissions were made, but solely for the purpose of explaining delay and the conduct of the parties at any relevant period. On the other hand the content of the negotiations may well be of much more significance in this context than the mere fact that they have taken place, for the reasons given by Megaw LJ in Taylor’s case; indeed the present case is a very good example, in view of the references in the correspondence which may show which side was anxious to move ahead to trial and which side was favouring delay. Moreover the admission of such material is by no means a one-sided advantage, since the defendant may well wish to refer to it to show that the plaintiff was not negotiating sincerely or was dragging his feet. Consequently I am unable to see how exposure of the course of negotiations in this narrow context is in any way harmful to either side. If the application succeeds, the action will be at an end. If it fails, and the case proceeds to trial, the material will not be available to the trial judge and he will not be in any way embarrassed.
For the above reasons I accept Mr Bloom’s submissions, which seem to me to have particular force in relation to reliance on an alleged estoppel, which is undoubtedly open to a plaintiff in an application of this kind, having regard to the decision of the Court of Appeal in the County and District Properties case. It seems to me manifest that a plaintiff must be entitled to rely for this purpose on any relevant statements in the without prejudice correspondence, to demonstrate either conduct or an implied intimation by the defendant showing that he is willing for the case to proceed.
As a Parthian shot, Mr Grime submitted that the court can sever parts of without prejudice correspondence which do not directly form part of the actual negotiations, disregarding or covering up the remainder. This suggestion seems to me to be unsound in principle, since the without prejudice label attaches to the letters as a whole. Furthermore, in practice it would often be difficult to obtain the flavour of the severed part without reference to its context in the letter as a whole, and severance would often lead to controversy between the two sides as to where the line should be drawn.
For all the above reasons I would uphold the learned official referee’s order and dismiss this appeal.
MANN LJ. I agree.
BALCOMBE LJ. I also agree.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
10 February 1993. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Templeman, Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle and Lord Woolf) refused leave to appeal.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
R v Ward
[1993] 2 All ER 577
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): GLIDEWELL, NOLAN AND STEYN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 29 APRIL, 5, 6, 7, 8, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 18, 26, 27, 28 MAY, 4 JUNE 1992
Criminal evidence – Practice – Prosecution’s duty to disclose – Duty of prosecution to disclose all relevant material – Duty to disclose scientific material adverse to prosecution case – Failure by prosecution to disclose all relevant material – Whether material irregularity in course of trial.
Criminal evidence – Admissions and confessions – Reliability – Admissibility of expert medical evidence to show unreliability of confession or admission – Whether evidence of mental disorder falling short of mental illness admissible to cast doubt on reliability of defendant’s confessions or admissions.
In the course of a bombing campaign in 1973 and 1974 thought to be carried out by a terrorist organisation, damage and injuries were caused by a bomb which exploded at a London railway station, 12 persons were killed and others were injured by a bomb on a coach in which soldiers and their families were travelling and damage and injuries were caused by a bomb at a defence college. The appellant was arrested shortly after the last explosion and later indicted on three charges of causing an explosion likely to endanger life or property and 12 counts of murder relating to the persons killed in the explosion on the coach. At her trial the prosecution case was based largely but not exclusively on confessions and admissions which the appellant had made in interviews with police officers after her arrest and on expert scientific evidence to the effect that after both the railway station and defence college explosions traces of nitroglycerine were found on the appellant’s person, and that after the coach explosion traces of nitroglycerine were found in a caravan in which she had been staying and on various articles belonging to her. The appellant was convicted on all counts and sentenced to life imprisonment on the murder counts and 30 years on the other charges. She did not appeal. In 1991 the Home Secretary, acting under s 17(1)(a) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, referred her case to the Court of Appeal. At the hearing the appellant submitted (i) that before and at her trial there was a material irregularity in the failure of the prosecution to disclose to the defence relevant evidence which it was under a duty to disclose, (ii) that fresh evidence was available which cast considerable doubt on the validity of parts of the scientific evidence given on behalf of the Crown at the trial and (iii) that there was fresh evidence that at and before the time of the trial the appellant was suffering from a personality disorder so severe and deep-rooted that none of the admissions that she had made could be relied upon as being true.
Held - The appeal would be allowed and the conviction quashed for the following reasons—
(1) The prosecution’s duty at common law to disclose to the defence all relevant material, ie evidence which tended either to weaken the prosecution case or to strengthen the defence case, required the police to disclose to the prosecution all witness statements and the prosecution to supply copies of such witness statements to the defence or to allow them to inspect the statements and make copies unless there were good reasons for not doing so. Furthermore, the prosecution were under a duty, which continued during the pre-trial period and throughout the
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trial, to disclose to the defence all relevant scientific material, whether it strengthened or weakened the prosecution case or assisted the defence case and whether or not the defence made a specific request for disclosure. Pursuant to that duty the prosecution were required to make available the records of all relevant experiments and tests carried out by expert witnesses. Furthermore, an expert witness who had carried out or knew of experiments or tests which tended to cast doubt on the opinion he was expressing was under a clear obligation to bring the records of such experiments and tests to the attention of the solicitor who was instructing him so that they might be disclosed to the other party. On the facts, the non-disclosure of notes of some interviews by the police to the Director of Public Prosecutions, the non-disclosure of certain material by the Director of Public Prosecutions and prosecuting counsel to the defence and the non-disclosure by forensic scientists employed by the Crown of the results of certain tests carried out by them which threw doubt on the scientific evidence put forward by the Crown at the trial cumulatively amounted to a material irregularity which, on its own, undoubtedly required the appellant’s conviction to be quashed. Furthermore, the fresh scientific evidence available to the court was such that the scientific case against the appellant was insupportable and that further rendered her conviction unsafe and unsatisfactory (see p 598 g h, p 604 d, p 607 d, p 609 a to c g, p 610 b g h, p 612 h, p 613 b c, p 615 e f, p 626 g h, p 631 h to p 632 c e to g and p 643 b c, post).
(2) The expert evidence of a psychiatrist or a psychologist was admissible at a criminal trial on the issue of whether what a defendant had said in a confession or admission was reliable, and therefore likely to have been true, if that evidence was to the effect that because he was suffering from a condition which, although not properly described as mental illness, was a personality disorder so severe as properly to be categorised as mental disorder, no reliance could be placed on his confessions and admissions. On the facts, not only had the prosecution not made available to the defence a medical report which suggested that the appellant may not have been truthful in her statements to the police, but the fresh medical evidence before the court, which categorised the condition from which she was suffering in and before 1974 as mental disorder, showed that no reliance could be placed on her confessions and admissions. It followed that the appellant’s conviction was unsafe and unsatisfactory on that ground as well (see p 641 f to j, p 642 c and p 643 b c, post); Toohey v Metropolitan Police Comr [1965] 1 All ER 506, Lowery v R [1973] 3 All ER 662 and R v Turner [1975] 1 All ER 70 considered.
Per curiam. (1) If the prosecution in a criminal case wish to claim public interest immunity for documents which would be helpful to the defence they are obliged to give notice thereof to the defence so that if necessary the court can be asked to rule on the matter. If, in a wholly exceptional case, the prosecution are not prepared for the court to determine the issue of public interest immunity, the inevitable conclusion will be that the prosecution will have to be abandoned (see p 632 h to p 633 b, post).
(2) It is the clear duty of government forensic scientists to assist in a neutral and impartial way in criminal investigations. They must act in the cause of justice and not become partisan or regard their task as being to help the police. The surest way of preventing the misuse of scientific evidence is by ensuring that there is a proper understanding of the nature and scope of the prosecution’s duty of disclosure in respect of scientific evidence which exists irrespective of any request by the defence and is not limited to documentation on which the opinion or findings of an expert is based but extends to anything which may arguably assist the defence. Moreover, it is a positive duty, which in the context of scientific evidence obliges the prosecution to make full and proper inquiries from forensic scientists in order to ascertain whether there is discoverable material, and, given
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the undoubted inequality as between prosecution and defence in access to forensic scientists, it is of paramount importance that the common law duty of disclosure should be appreciated by those who prosecute and defend in criminal cases. If difficulties arise in a particular case, the court must be the final judge (see p 628 e f h j, post).
Notes
For the disclosure of unused material to the defence, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1004, 1119.
For appeals against conviction, see ibid para 1352, and for cases on the subject, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 402–417, 21956–22146.
For evidence of expert witnesses, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1137, and for cases on the subject, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 105-106, 19053–19057.
For the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, s 17, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1959 reissue) 402.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G v Briant (1846) 15 M & W 169, 153 ER 808.
Air Canada v Secretary of State for Trade (No 2) [1983] 1 All ER 910, [1983] 2 AC 394, [1983] 2 WLR 494, HL.
Baksh v R [1958] AC 167, [1958] 2 WLR 536, PC.
Dallison v Caffery [1964] 2 All ER 610, [1965] 1 QB 348, [1964] 3 WLR 385, CA.
Duncan v Cammell Laird & Co Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 587, [1942] AC 624, HL.
Lowery v R [1973] 3 All ER 662, [1974] AC 85, [1973] 3 WLR 235, PC.
Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis (1989) [1992] 3 All ER 617, CA.
Practice Note [1982] 1 All ER 734.
R v Bryant and Dickson (1946) 31 Cr App R 146, CCA.
R v Clarke (1930) 22 Cr App R 58, CCA.
R v Everett [1988] Crim LR 826, CA.
R v Fenn (1959) J Cr L 253, Assizes.
R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 1) [1992] 1 All ER 108, [1991] 1 WLR 281, DC.
R v Gunewardene [1951] 2 All ER 290, [1951] 2 KB 600, CCA.
R v Hall (1958) 43 Cr App R 29, CCC.
R v Hennessey (1978) 68 Cr App R 419, CA.
R v Howes (27 March 1950, unreported), CCA.
R v Lawson (1989) 90 Cr App R 107, CA.
R v Leyland Magistrates, ex p Hawthorn [1979] 1 All ER 209, [1979] QB 283, [1979] 2 WLR 28, DC.
R v McIlkenny [1992] 2 All ER 417, CA.
R v Maguire [1992] 2 All ER 433, [1992] QB 936, [1992] 2 WLR 767, CA.
R v Masih [1986] Crim LR 395, CA.
R v Raghip (1991) Times, 9 December, CA.
R v Turner [1975] 1 All ER 70, [1975] QB 834, [1975] 2 WLR 56, CA.
R v Xinaris (1955) 43 Cr App R 30n, CCC.
Toohey v Metropolitan Police Comr [1965] 1 All ER 506, [1965] AC 595, [1965] 2 WLR 439, HL; rvsg [1964] 3 All ER 582, [1964] 1 WLR 1286, CCA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Evans v Chief Constable of Surrey Constabulary (A-G intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 594, [1988] QB 588.
R v Bolton Justices, ex p Scally [1991] 2 All ER 619, [1991] 1 QB 537, DC.
R v McIlkenny [1992] 2 All ER 417, CA.
Page 580 of [1993] 2 All ER 577
Appeal against conviction
On 17 September 1991 the Secretary of State for the Home Department referred to the Court of Appeal under s 17(1)(a) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 the conviction of Judith Theresa Ward on 4 November 1974 in the Crown Court at Wakefield before Waller J and a jury on 12 counts of murder and three counts of causing an explosion likely to endanger life or property, for which she was sentenced to life imprisonment with a total of 30 years’ imprisonment concurrent. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Michael Mansfield QC and Nicholas Blake (instructed by B M Birnberg & Co) for the appellant.
Timothy Langdale QC and William Boyce (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown.
During the course of the hearing the court announced that it would allow the appeal for reasons to be given later, but that it would hear argument and evidence on further matters arising in the appeal.
4 June 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
GLIDEWELL LJ. On 10 September 1973 at about 1.15 pm a bomb exploded at Euston Railway Station in London. The bomb was relatively small, containing between 2 and 5 lb of a nitroglycerine-based explosive. Fortunately nobody was killed but about a dozen people were injured and damage to the extent of £5,400 was caused.
At 11.00 pm on Sunday, 3 February 1974 a motor coach left Chorlton Street bus station, Manchester, carrying soldiers and their families back to Catterick Camp, North Yorkshire, after a weekend’s leave. The coach stopped to pick up more passengers in Oldham and Huddersfield. Shortly after midnight on Monday, 4 February 1974 whilst the coach was travelling along the M62 motorway, a bomb containing between 20 and 25 lb of explosive, which had been placed in the rear luggage compartment of the coach, exploded. Twelve of the passengers, including two children, were killed, many more were injured and the coach, of course, was wrecked.
On the morning of Tuesday, 12 February 1974 another bomb, also containing about 20 lb of explosive, was placed close to one of the main buildings at the National Defence College at Latimer in Buckinghamshire. At 9.10 am that morning the bomb exploded injuring many people but, fortunately, killing nobody. Damage estimated at over £6,000 was caused.
On 3 October 1974 the appellant, Judith Theresa Ward, was arraigned at Wakefield Crown Court before Waller J and a jury on an indictment containing 15 counts. These charged her as follows. Count 1: causing an explosion likely to endanger life or property on 10 September 1973 at Euston station. Count 2: a similar count relating to the explosion of the motor coach on the M62 on 4 February 1974. Counts 3 to 14: 12 counts of murder relating to each of the persons killed in the explosion on the motor coach. Count 15: causing an explosion as before on 12 February 1974 at the National Defence College at Latimer.
The appellant pleaded not guilty to all counts. On 4 November 1974 she was convicted on all counts, by a majority of 10 to 2 on count 1, unanimously on all the others. She was sentenced by Waller J to 5 years’ imprisonment on count 1, 20 years’ imprisonment concurrently on count 2, to life imprisonment for the murder counts 3 to 14, and to 10 years on count 15 to be served consecutively to the 20 years on count 2, making a determinate sentence of 30 years.
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After her conviction she did not apply for leave to appeal against either conviction or sentence. Unlike other cases arising out of bomb explosions which have been before this court in recent years, the appellant’s case has not previously been considered by this court.
However, on 17 September 1991 the Home Secretary, acting under s 17(1)(a) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, referred ‘the whole case of Miss Judith Theresa Ward’ to the court. She therefore now appeals against her conviction on all counts.
To a considerable extent, though not exclusively, the prosecution case at the trial was based upon confessions and admissions which the appellant had made in interviews with police officers in the period before her arrest and the date of trial. The second major plank in the prosecution’s case consisted of expert scientific evidence to the effect that after both the Euston and Latimer explosions, traces of nitroglycerine were found on the appellant’s person and that after the M62 motor coach explosion, traces of nitroglycerine was found in a caravan in which she had been staying and on various articles belonging to her. In this appeal it is argued that the appellant’s admissions and confessions were wholly unreliable and thus could not be relied upon as being true. It is also argued that the scientific evidence can now be shown not to have been sufficiently reliable to be acceptable. It is thus necessary for us to start by considering the evidence given at the trial in some detail.
EVIDENCE AT THE TRIAL
The appellant’s life and activities before 10 September 1973
The appellant was born in Stockport on 10 January 1949. She was thus 25 years old at the time of the bombing of the motor coach on the M62. After her birth she was named Judith Minna Ward.
The appellant left school in 1965 and, after a short time, trained in Wiltshire as a riding instructor. In 1966 she then obtained employment at a riding school at Ravensdale, near Dundalk in the Irish Republic. Dundalk lies a few miles south of the border with Northern Ireland, approximately midway between Dublin and Belfast and not far from Newry.
The appellant remained in her employment at the Ravensdale riding school until October 1970. She then returned to Stockport. Her mother and father were divorced when she was a child but both still lived in Stockport, her mother having remarried. One of the appellant’s two older brothers also then lived in Stockport with his wife and child. After spending a few weeks in Stockport on 5 February 1971 the appellant enlisted in the Women’s Royal Army Corps (WRAC). She trained at Guildford and was then sent to Catterick Camp for four months. On 5 August 1971 she was posted to Aldershot. After two months, on 4 October 1971, she went absent without leave. A day later she flew from Manchester to Dublin and returned to the riding school at Dundalk. While she was there she had an association with, and became engaged to, a young man called Sean McKeowan. She left the riding school in about April 1972 and visited various places in Ireland, both north and south of the border. On 22 May 1972 she returned to England and on the following day went to the police station in Stockport and gave herself up.
She was then interviewed on 24 May 1972 at Aldershot army barracks by Det Insp Ison and other officers of the Special Branch of the Metropolitan Police. On 25 May 1972, after that interview, the appellant made a statement under caution. That statement started by referring to two events which had then recently occurred, namely Bloody Sunday, 30 January 1972, when a number of persons present at a demonstration in Londonderry were killed by shots fired by members of an army unit, and an explosion which had occurred at an army base at
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Aldershot on 22 February 1972. She said that between these two events she was in a bar in Dundalk when she was asked to go into a back room where she met two men, one of whom was called Seamus Quigley. She said that one of the men tried to persuade her to give information about ‘the Paras’, urging her to be ‘loyal to Ireland’. She said that she refused to do so as he asked.
Private Blake, another member of the WRAC, was a prosecution witness. She said that she talked to the appellant during the short time that she was at Aldershot after she had given herself up. According to Private Blake, the appellant said that she was a lieutenant in the Irish Republican Army (the IRA), that she had been helping to ‘blow places up and things like that’, and that she had the letters ‘IRA’ scratched on her arm. Miss Blake said, ‘I did not take much notice.’
The appellant was discharged from the WRAC on 2 June 1972. She returned to Stockport, where she worked for a short time, her second employment being at the Bridge Restaurant.
In August 1972 she returned to the riding school at Dundalk, where she worked for a further year. On 23 August 1972 she visited and obtained entry to Thiepval Barracks, near Lisburn, Northern Ireland, the headquarters of the army in the province. Information about her visit to Thiepval Barracks came to the attention of the authorities and on 3 September 1972 the appellant was interviewed by Cpl Coleman (a sergeant by the time of the trial), who was in the security forces in Northern Ireland, and Det Con McNulty of the Royal Ulster Constabulary (the RUC), together with a woman police constable. Both Coleman and McNulty gave evidence at the trial.
At this stage the appellant was still calling herself Judith Minna Ward. According to the witnesses, she gave information about her family, her service in the army and the fact that she had been absent without leave. She said that during the period that she was absent without leave and back in Ireland she had visited republican areas of Londonderry and Belfast and named various people with whom she had been associated, including Mickey Pierce and Mickey Moore of Newry. She said that Mickey Moore was an ex-internee whom she had visited, using the name Theresa O’Connell, while he was interned in Long Kesh; she had smuggled letters into and out of Long Kesh for him.
She said that shortly after she had joined the army a man visited her at her home in Stockport saying that Mickey Moore had sent him. He asked her to obtain information which Moore could use, but at that stage she declined. However, she then referred to the occasion at which she had been asked to give information in the back room of the bar in Dundalk by two men. At this interview she said that she had been asked to draw a plan of the army camp at Aldershot and that she had drawn a plan as best she could, which she gave to the men. She said that she knew one of the men was a member of the IRA. She concluded:
‘When I heard of the explosion at the Officers’ Mess at Aldershot I didn’t think that the map I had supplied had anything to do with the explosion. A couple of days later it occurred to me that the map which I had supplied to Quigley and McNally had been used in the bomb attack in which a number of people died. I didn’t repeat to any Police or Army that I had supplied a map of Aldershot Army Camp.’
Another prosecution witness was L/Cpl Lamb (née Stevenson) of the WRAC, who gave evidence of a further statement made by the appellant while she was being interviewed by the army and police on 6 September 1972. In this the appellant referred back to her visit to Thiepval Barracks. She gave considerable detail about the circumstances in which she entered the barracks. She said:
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‘I entered HQ Northern Ireland with the intentions of looking the place over regarding security measures and so on, having been asked 2 days previously by Michael Kelly to do so.’
She then gave details of Kelly’s request to her and how she had met him. She said:
‘The extent of my observations of Thiepval Barracks was regards security on all gates, ie, searching pedestrians and civilians’ cars. Also anything more that can be of interest.’
She signed this statement. After this series of interviews she was not arrested, no charges were preferred against her and no further action was taken. She continued to work at the riding school until some time in the summer of 1973.
In August 1973 she returned to England. On 26 August 1973 she was detained at Euston where she was sleeping rough. She was interviewed by a police sergeant and a sergeant of the Special Branch of the Metropolitan Police. She gave an address in Dublin, said that she carried out assignments for the IRA but was not a member and that she was in London to find work. In her rucksack was material relating to the activities of the IRA. No action was taken at that time.
On 28 August 1973 the appellant obtained employment as a chambermaid at the London Park Hotel, near the Elephant and Castle. She remained there until 10 November 1973. Another young woman, Elaine Gateley, also started a job at the London Park Hotel on the same day and the two women shared a room for a time and spent their off-duty time together.
The appellant gave evidence at her trial. Her evidence of her life and the events preceding the bomb at Euston differed from the evidence given on behalf of the prosecution in material respects. In summary, she said as follows. (a) Before she joined the WRAC she had no contact with either branch of the IRA or with Sinn Fein. (b) While she was at Catterick she knew of the weekly Catterick/Manchester bus service, but did not use it. (c) When she returned to Ireland, being absent without leave from the army, she had no contact with any Irish political organisation and her fiancé, Sean McKeowan, was not interested in Irish politics. (d) When she surrendered, the letters IRA were not scratched on her arm. If she had said what Margaret Blake reported her as saying, it was not true. (e) She did go to Thiepval Barracks on 23 August 1972 but purely to visit a former friend in the WRAC, not to spy out the land. (f) She had been interviewed, as the prosecution alleged, by Insp Ison and by Det Con McNulty and Cpl Coleman. She could not recollect saying what they alleged she said but if she did, it was not true. (g) She did know both Mickey Pierce and Mickey Moore. It was Mickey Pierce who was in Long Kesh. She did visit him using the name Theresa O’Connell and smuggled letters for him. (h) She had passed herself off as Theresa O’Connell saying that she was 14 years 8 months old. (i) She had not admitted to McNulty that she had passed a map of Aldershot to the two men, nor had she in fact done so. (j) On 15 August 1973 she had married in a religious ceremony Michael McVerry. He was working for the Provisional IRA. On 15 November 1973 he was shot dead by the British Army. (k) A Joe Coyle asked her to drive a car for him to Belfast which she did twice. After one of the trips he said there had been guns in the back, but she had not believed him. (l) On 25 August 1973 she travelled to England with Joe Coyle after having a row with her husband. After being questioned at Euston Station, they both went to 72 Dyne Road, Kilburn, where Joe Mooney lived. After staying there for a few days, she obtained the job at the London Park Hotel and joined a branch (cumman) of the Sinn Fein in Kilburn. (m) About this time she also went to a shop run by Brendan Magill in Goldhawk Road, Hammersmith. Whilst there she was asked by Coyle to, suss out, Euston Station. Having asked what this meant, she went to Euston and checked up on the times that the police officers there changed their beats and noted where the television surveillance cameras were sited.
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10 September 1973—the Euston bomb
At 1.00 pm on 10 September 1973 a bomb exploded at King’s Cross station, London. About five minutes later a man with an Irish voice telephoned the Press Association and warned that a bomb was about to explode at a snack bar at Euston Station. At about 1.15 pm a bomb did, indeed, explode outside the rail bar at Euston. Much damage was caused and about 12 persons were injured.
Det Sgt Baker gave evidence that between 5.00 pm and 5.30 pm that afternoon, while he was standing by the barrier erected outside the rail-bar at Euston, he saw the appellant and Elaine Gateley nearby. They were both shouting and swearing abuse, the appellant being the more talkative of the two. Amongst other things, Baker said the appellant shouted: ‘If the IRA had done it, it would have been a bigger and better fucking bang, they would have done it properly.’
Later the same evening, at about 8.00 pm the appellant, Elaine Gateley and a young man called James Patrick Diamond were drinking together in another bar at Euston. The police were already interested in Diamond and after a time all three of them were detained and taken to the police station. The appellant was interviewed and asked where she had been at the time when the Euston bomb exploded. She gave an alibi, saying that she had been in the London Park Hotel at that time and afterwards had gone to the cinema with Elaine Gateley. A police officer then took swabs from her hands and fingernails. The appellant’s alibi was checked and found to be correct, and she and Elaine Gateley were released.
In evidence at the trial, the appellant did not dispute much of this prosecution evidence, though she said it was Elaine Gateley who had been doing most of the shouting and swearing and that they had not arrived at Euston in the first place until after 6.30 pm.
The appellant’s movements between 11 September 1973 and 3 February 1974
The appellant continued to work at the London Park Hotel until 10 November 1973 when she was dismissed. On that day she travelled to Ireland via Holyhead. As she was going through the embarkation hall she was stopped, questioned and searched by Pc Owen. In her luggage he found a quantity of literature relating to Sinn Fein and the Irish Republican cause and a small address book containing a number of addresses and telephone numbers including that of Mr Magill. Pc Owen said that he mentioned during his questioning of her the bombings in London, to which the appellant said, ‘Yes, Sean Mac is doing well.' In her evidence at the trial, the appellant agreed that she had said that Sean Mac was doing well and said that this was a reference to Sean McStiofan, who was reported to be the head of the IRA at that time.
According to the appellant’s evidence at the trial, she remained in Ireland for about ten days. She said that whilst she was there, a man told her that her husband, Mickey McVerry, had been shot and that the funeral was to take place on Saturday, 17 November 1973. She therefore travelled to Newry on the previous day. On the evening of Friday, 16 November she was apprehended by the police and taken to a police station where they took from her her address book and two other books. She said that Police Sgt McFarland saw her on 18 November 1973 and that the police put her on the boat to Liverpool on the night of Monday, 19 November 1973. At the trial, no prosecution evidence was called about this episode at all. We shall have to refer to this later.
The appellant returned to Stockport, where, for a time, she worked in a restaurant. In January 1974 she wished to hire a car but could not do so because her driving licence was still in the possession of Sgt McFarland, who had kept it when he interviewed her. She therefore wrote to him for the licence which he returned to her.
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The appellant then obtained employment as a groom with Chipperfields Circus, starting work with them on 26 January 1974. The circus was at that time at Belle Vue, Manchester, but after the last performance on Saturday, 2 February 1974, it moved to its winter quarters at Chipping Norton in the Cotswolds. The appellant travelled with the other members of the staff, arriving at Chipping Norton between 2.00 am and 3.00 am on Sunday, 3 February 1974. She remained at the circus that day and went out on the evening of the Sunday with other members of the staff. At the trial the prosecution accepted, and indeed there was ample evidence to the effect, that she was in Chipping Norton, nowhere near Manchester, on the night of Sunday, 3 February 1974. During the time that she worked for Chipperfields Circus, the appellant shared a caravan with a New Zealander, Wendy Claxton. Miss Claxton gave evidence that in conversation the appellant told her that ‘We’ had made bombs, or a bomb, and that she had a boyfriend who had been killed, shot by soldiers.
The coach bombing on the M62
Mr Handley operated a regular coach service for servicemen from Catterick who wished to return for a weekend’s leave to the Manchester area. He ran two coaches from Catterick to Manchester on Friday, 1 February 1974 which returned on the night of Sunday, 3 February. Mr Handley himself drove one of the coaches. This coach was parked during the evening of Sunday, 3 February at Chorlton Street bus station in central Manchester with the boot unlocked so that passengers could put their own luggage inside. The coach left the bus station at 11.00 pm, stopped in Oldham and Huddersfield and shortly after midnight was travelling along the M62 east bound when the explosion occurred. The bomb had been hidden in a piece of luggage placed in the boot. Eleven people died immediately and a twelfth a few days later as a result of his injuries. Many other passengers were injured.
The appellant’s movements to 14 February 1974
As we have said, the appellant was in Chipping Norton on the night of 3 February 1974 sleeping in the same caravan as Wendy Claxton. However, on the morning of Monday, 4 February she left the circus. About 8.00 am that morning she told Wendy Claxton that she was leaving. In evidence, Wendy Claxton said that the appellant gave as a reason for leaving that she was too slow at doing the job. She told Wendy she was going into Chipping Norton to buy a bag in which to pack her things.
According to her evidence, the appellant that morning bought a brown duffle bag and a raffia bag which were exhibits at the trial. She packed her belongings in them, went to Oxford by bus and that evening to London. She went to 72 Dyne Road, Kilburn and stayed with Joe Mooney there until the following Friday. While there she said that she found pieces of paper with references to the IRA, written in Irish, and to explosives and to persons who could supply them. After finding this paper she said that she decided to leave the flat, which she did on the afternoon of Friday, 8 February 1974, going to Euston station.
There, according to her evidence, she met a man whom she had known in Manchester called Ernie Mayall together with a Welsh girl. The next few days the three of them spent mostly at Euston station, sleeping at night either in a disused flat nearby or in railway freight vans parked in a siding at Primrose Hill. During this time, the appellant left the two bags which she had bought in Chipping Norton, which contained her belongings, in a railway van. She returned to collect them on the night of Monday, 11 February 1974 to find that the van
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had been removed. That afternoon she also obtained a platform ticket for Euston in the hope that she would be able to stay the night there. On Tuesday, 12 February 1974 the appellant and Ernie Mayall went to Cardiff by bus and stayed the night in a cheap hotel. The following day, Wednesday, 13 February 1974, the appellant said that she hitched a lift from Cardiff to Liverpool arriving there about 11.30 pm.
At the trial Ernie Mayall, who had a number of previous convictions for burglary and similar offences, gave evidence on behalf of the appellant in which he effectively corroborated her story of their movements during these days. He also said that this time she said nothing about the IRA or anything related to it.
At the trial, evidence was given that the railway van in which the appellant had left her two bags formed part of a train which left Euston at 11.15 pm on Monday, 11 February 1974. The vehicle travelled via Crewe and Chester to Bangor. On the evening of 12 February 1974 it was conveyed from Manchester to Crewe and then attached to a train to York, where it arrived about 5.20 am on 13 February 1974. At that point a goods guard found the appellant’s two bags in the van. When she was later shown these bags, the appellant at first denied, but later admitted, that they were hers. We shall refer later to scientific evidence relating to these bags.
The bomb at Latimer
Meanwhile, on the afternoon of Monday, 11 February 1974 between 3.00 pm and 3.30 pm a red Audi motor car was seen parked close to the entrance of the National Defence College at Latimer, Buckinghamshire, and shortly afterwards a similar car, driven by a person with shoulder length hair, was seen inside the grounds of the college. Shortly after 7.00 am one morning in February 1974 a young man and a woman had breakfast at a café some 15 miles from Latimer, and drove away afterwards in a red Audi car. About 9.10 am on Tuesday, 12 February 1974 a bomb containing approximately 20 lb of explosive, which had been planted by one of the main buildings in the college, exploded injuring many people but killing no one.
The appellant’s detention
At 1.15 am on 14 February 1974 Pc Barnes was on duty in the centre of Liverpool. He saw a person, whose sex he was at first unable to determine, standing in a doorway. When he spoke to the person he realised that she was a woman, the appellant. She said that she had just arrived from London, that her luggage had been stolen in London and that she was going to Newry in Northern Ireland by the night boat for Belfast. The constable decided to detain her and take her to a police station. The appellant said: ‘I have been questioned by the Army intelligence and the Ulster Constabulary and they got nothing out of me.' In her possession were a Northern Ireland driving licence, a letter from the RUC, a Euston platform ticket and a small notebook.
The appellant was later questioned by Det Sgt Hayes and Det Insp Ralphson. She gave her name as Judith Theresa Ward. She said that most recently she had stayed with Jane Rooney (sic) at 72 Dyne Road, Kilburn until 13 February. She said that the address on the driving licence, which the police had established was a false address, was that of her driving instructor and that she had the platform ticket because she had accompanied Joe Coyle, a friend of Jane Rooney, to the station to see him off.
The appellant was asked how she was going to pay for her fare back to Belfast.
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She said that she was going to telephone a friend in Ireland to send her the money. When the police asked the friend’s telephone number, she gave it but said: ‘… don’t phone now for God’s sake.' When asked why she did not wish them to telephone the lady, she replied: ‘I’ve been a member of the IRA for three years and you know what will happen to me if they find out.' She then said that she was a member of the Roger Casement Cumman of the Sinn Fein in Kilburn.
The appellant’s notebook contained a sketch, which she said was a drawing of Manchester airport, which she had been asked to make by a man called O’Reilly, whose address in Longsight in Manchester she gave. She said that O’Reilly had threatened her brother’s child if she did not make the drawing. Det Insp Ralphson then said: ‘In leaving Manchester, if what you’ve said about O’Reilly’s threats are true you did in fact place your relatives in danger.' To that the appellant replied: ‘I had to get away. After the bus I want out.' Asked to expand, she said: ‘Killing children, I just want out.' She was then told she would be detained.
At her trial the appellant denied that she had said that she had been a member of the IRA for three years. She said that she told the officers wholly untrue facts about going to London. She did not know why she said she was with Jane Rooney until 13 February.
Interviews
At 6.40 am on 14 February 1974 the appellant was taken into custody by Sgt Scott. At her trial evidence was given by the prosecution of the following interviews with her and of statements made by her.
14 February 1974 (10.00 am)
The appellant was seen at a police station by Det Sgt Giltrap. He showed her the items taken from her possession, to which we have referred, and she agreed they were hers. She was then taken to the police headquarters in Liverpool. Det Sgt Giltrap then interviewed the appellant, asking her questions relating to her movements during the preceding six months or so. It is not clear from the material before us whether during this time the appellant was allowed any time to sleep. It seems that at no stage during this interview was she cautioned.
At about 6.00 pm she was seen by Dr Skuse, who, with her consent, took swabs from her hands and fingernails. In conversation, according to him, she said she had been examined in this way before and that nothing would be found because she had cleaned herself.
At 8.20 pm that evening Det Sgt Giltrap recorded a long written statement by the appellant, exhibit 38, which he said included the information elicited from her during his earlier interview with her. In this statement the appellant gave an account of her family background saying that she had been christened Judith Minna Ward and that her father had been born in Ireland. She spoke of her work at the Ravensdale Riding School and her engagement to Sean McKeowan. She gave an innocuous account of her time in the WRAC, of going absent without leave and her return to England to give herself up. She said that from June to September 1973, whilst in Dublin, she had sold a republican newspaper each day but she was not a member of any organisation. She spoke of attending meetings and rallies. She then said that when she came to London in September 1973 she obtained a job as a chambermaid at the London Park Hotel, she went to Brendan Magill’s address in Goldhawk Road and joined a local Sinn Fein cumman. She said she had also made friends with Jane Mooney of 72 Dyne Road, Kilburn.
She spoke of being taken into custody on the evening of the Euston explosion
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when she was with Elaine Gateley in a bar talking to a man who said that he had only been out of Long Kesh for a couple of weeks.
She said that after she was sacked from the hotel at the beginning of November, she went to Ireland and, after a time, was detained by the police for two days while in Newry. She was then put on a boat for Liverpool. She then said that when she was in the Ducie Arms in Longsight she was approached by a man called Seamus O’Reilly whom she had met previously in Dublin. He asked her to ‘suss out’ Manchester Airport for him and threatened her brother’s child if she did not. She said that as a result she drew a small sketch of the interior layout of part of the airport but thought about whether to let O’Reilly have it and realised he could only want it for one thing, probably to blow a plane up or something like that, so decided not to give the note to him. She said that in consequence on Sunday, 3 February 1974 she went to Chorlton Street bus station in Manchester about 9.00 am and travelled by bus to Victoria bus station in London. She then went to Kilburn where she went to stay in Jane Mooney’s flat. She left Jane Mooney’s flat on Wednesday, 13 February and went to Victoria bus station where her luggage was stolen. She then hitched a series of lifts to Liverpool, arriving the same evening. It should be noted that this statement, parts of which were clearly untrue, was not made under caution. At the conclusion of the statement, Det Sgt Giltrap asked the appellant if she had any objection to a request from Det Chief Supt Oldfield of the West Yorkshire Police to assist them regarding the M62 bomb incident and she said: ‘No, I don’t mind.’
15 February 1974
At 1.15 am the appellant was taken by officers from the West Yorkshire police to Wakefield arriving at 3.45 am. Again, it is not clear whether she had any sleep since she was taken into custody in Liverpool some 28 hours earlier.
At the trial no evidence was given about any interviews on this day. As we shall say, there was, in fact, a number of interviews with the appellant to which no reference was made in evidence.
16 February 1974
At 11.50 am Det Insp Moffatt and Det Con Smith of the Metropolitan Police interviewed the appellant at the Police Training College in Wakefield. Part of the interview consisted of a conversation about the making of explosive devices of which Det Insp Moffatt said, ‘it appeared that her knowledge of the making of explosive devices was poor and of no importance to us at that stage.’
Det Insp Moffatt and Det Con Smith interviewed the appellant again at 2.45 pm. She was cautioned. She gave an account of her detention at Euston with Elaine Gateley and Diamond which was similar to that which she had given in her statement, exhibit 38. When it was pointed out to her that there were differences between this statement and what police officers said about having seen her at Euston that day, she said that what she was now saying was correct.
In a further interview at 4.50 pm with Det Insp Moffatt and Det Con Smith she said: ‘I went to Euston to see how much mess the bang had caused, Elaine did not have anything to do with it, she is just a loudmouth as I have said.’
Asked if she was a member of the IRA she said: ‘Yes I am a volunteer but not part of an ASU [active service unit]. I first got interested when I sold papers in Dublin and then I got to know a lot of them in the bars in Dublin.' She then gave an account of driving cars containing guns for O’Reilly from Dublin to Belfast.
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She said that she had made the run a couple of times after she came to know that she was carrying guns.
She then spoke of going to see Magill in Shepherd’s Bush and being told by him to check up on the police at Euston, when they changed beat, how many and so on. She said that on that occasion Magill told her to get a parcel from a locker at the back of the shop, which she understood was explosive. She handed this over to O’Reilly. Det Insp Moffatt turned to questioning her about the M62 explosion. She said: ‘I didn’t like it when those children were killed on the coach. That shouldn’t have happened.' Asked whether a warning should have been given she said: ‘Yes. There should have been a warning. In London they get shorter and shorter and I didn’t go along with that.' Det Insp Moffatt asked: ‘What part did you take in the M62 explosion?' The appellant replied: ‘I carried the explosives up from London.' At this point the interviewing party was joined by Det Supt Edington. The appellant gave a more detailed description of going to Magill’s shop and collecting the parcel. She said: ‘I stayed in the shop all day and then caught the train back … I gave it to O’Reilly at the Ducie Arms in Longsight. That’s when he told me he was going to blow up a bus and asked me about the Army buses to Catterick.' Asked whether she gave him the details she said: ‘Yes. Then I said I wasn’t going to do anything else for him but he threatened me and told me to make a plan of Manchester Airport. I think I went there later in the week and drew something but I never gave it to him.' Det Insp Moffatt asked: ‘Did he make you do something more in connection with the M62 explosion?' After a pause, the appellant said: ‘Yes. He said I had to put the bomb in the back of the coach because I looked more the part and could get away with it.' Question: ‘Did you place the bomb in the coach?' Answer (after a long pause): ‘Yes.’
That interview was concluded at 6.00 pm and at 7.45 pm the appellant wrote out in her own hand a statement under caution, exhibit 44, which repeated the admissions to which we have just referred, and gave more detail of how she came to place the bomb in the coach. She said:
‘I walked to the bus station. I was shaking like a leaf. I can’t remember exactly where the bus was, the boot was open I looked in and saw a few Army suitcases and a few army issue bags. I put the bag in and pushed it to the back around about the middle of the bus. I turned and legged it back to the corner where O’Reilly was standing … I did not intend there to be any persons killed when I agreed to plant the bomb.’
This statement was concluded at 9.50 pm.
17 February 1974
At 5.15 pm on this day, interviewed by Det Supt Edington and Det Insp Frost of the West Yorkshire Constabulary, she was shown the raffia and the canvas bag found in the railway van and denied that they were hers.
20 February 1974
At 3.45 pm Det Supt Weight and Det Insp Milner of Thames Valley Police saw the appellant at Risley Remand Centre. When they explained where they were from she replied: ‘Oh yes, I’ve been expecting to hear from you.' They then questioned her about the Latimer explosion and she at first said that she did not even know where Latimer was. Later she said, of the M62 coach explosion, ‘True I put the bomb in the boot of the coach, but they told me it would go off in
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twenty minutes when the coach was at the station. It shows how unreliable they are. It didn’t go off for two hours.' She then said that it may be that she had been at Latimer and at one stage offered to ‘have Latimer taken into consideration’. Later she said that on one occasion she had driven through the Defence College at Latimer with a man-friend out of interest.
25 February 1974
At 2.55 pm the appellant again saw Det Supt Weight and Det Insp Milner at Risley. They understood that she had asked to see them. After caution she said: ‘I wanted to see you about that statement I made to the other officers. I want to change it. I didn’t put the bomb on the bus.' Det Supt Weight said: ‘Yes I know that.' The appellant said: ‘I know about it and I carried it up there, but I never put it on the bus. I want to get this straight.’
She then continued: ‘I know something about the Latimer job, but I’m not going to name names. I have a family to worry about in Stockport.' She then gave an account of her movements between the M62 explosion and the Latimer explosion very similar to that which she had given previously. She then repeated what she had said about her part in the Latimer explosion in a written statement under caution, exhibit 51, in which she said:
‘After I left Chipperfields to London by bus from Oxford. I stayed at an address in the Kilburn area, until Monday night, it must have been the 11th February 1974. When I left London in the company of a young man, it was very late. We were in a car and I was driving. We arrived somewhere in the vicinity of Latimer, we stayed the night in the car up some shady lane. The next morning we drove to a village and we had breakfast in a cafe. Then we left the cafe and drove towards Latimer and we drove into the grounds and then we stopped. The man got out of the car and got the stuff out of the boot. It was a brown packet about eighteen inches by a foot, I knew it was explosive. I was very nervous. I said, “I will wait and keep the engine running, don’t be long,” he said, “O.K. I’ll be back in a while,” and away he went. He was away a few minutes and then he came back and we drove away at full speed. It was a red car I don’t know the make or registration number. Later I read about the explosion in the evening papers. That evening I saw him off at Euston Station and I hitch-hiked up Liverpool. We went like this because we were told to go separate ways. I was later stopped in Liverpool. I refused to give any names and addresses of the people involved.’
26 February 1974: 10.30 am
Det Chief Supt Oldfield of the West Yorkshire police, together with Det Supt Edington, saw the appellant at her request at Dewsbury. After caution, she said that she wished to change her statement. She then wrote out a further statement under caution, exhibit 52, in her own hand. In this she said: ‘The beginning of these operations started in Dublin in summer of ’73.' She then repeated that she had driven cars from Belfast to Dublin with guns three times; that she came to England with two men; moved to a house in Kilburn and got the job at the London Park Hotel; that she, at the request of one of the men, ‘sussed out’ Euston Station and carried the explosive for the Euston bomb from Cricklewood to a house in Kilburn; and that after that explosion she went to Euston to see what damage had been done. She gave an account of being taken into custody and having her hands tested for explosives.
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She then spoke of returning to Ireland for about a week and then returning to Manchester. There, she said, she was told to get in touch with a girl living in Longsight. It was this girl who told her to ‘suss out’ Manchester Airport which she did, handing over the drawing she had made. She continued:
‘She [the same girl] then asked me if I knew where the army buses came to when they were coming off leave and I told her it was usually Chorlton St. Bus Station. She then fixed a date for myself and her to go and suss it out. Meanwhile I had changed my job and was working with Chipperfields Circus as a groom at Belle Vue, this was because it was much nearer my contact and easily accessible to Manchester itself. I called at this girl’s house a few times and arranged a date when I would collect the stuff from another house at an address in Derby. About 3 or 4 days before the 3rd Feb. I went to the address in Derby and collected this package and delivered it to the house in Longsight. Then I realised that the circus would be moving the day before we had planned to plant the bomb. I told the girl this and she said that she would have to do it with a friend of hers who had been in the Army and still had short hair resembling a soldier’s, and could easily pass as one.’
As a result, she said, she left with the circus and went to Chipping Norton.
At 2.25 pm Commander Huntley and Det Chief Supt Nevill of the Metropolitan Police interviewed the appellant under caution. In this interview she denied that she had planted the bomb at Euston and said she had already told the police what part she played in the Euston explosion. When asked about Brendan Magill she said, ‘I just thought I would give a few names to mess them about.' She then gave a slightly more detailed account of collecting the explosive for the Euston bomb from Cricklewood and taking it to the house in Kilburn. Later in the interview she was asked, ‘How many times have you collected or carried explosives?' She replied, ‘Twice, once for Euston and once for Manchester.' During the interview she was shown a photofit picture of McMorrow and asked also about a girl called Marlene Coyle. She denied that they were the two people whom she had met in Manchester. This apart, what she said in this statement was essentially a repeat of what she had already said to other officers previously.
4 March 1974: 2.45 pm
Det Supt Weight and Det Insp Milner of Thames Valley Police saw the appellant at Risley. They told her that they had come to see her to try to get her co-operation regarding the identity of her accomplices. She said, ‘I can’t do that, you know that. I told you, you can’t grass on this sort of thing.' She was then told, ‘The scientist has found traces of explosive in the caravan. What was that used for?' The appellant said, ‘I don’t know about any explosive in there.' She denied that she had explosive in her duflle bag. Later she said that she had not been married to her boyfriend, he was killed before they could marry. He was killed by the soldiers in Ireland, ‘the Paras killed my man, I don’t care what happens to me.' Towards the end of the interview she was asked whether she had thought of getting a solicitor and she said, ‘I don’t want a solicitor. I’ll stand by what I’ve done. You can’t expect a country to supply a defence for you when you’ve tried to kill their people.' It was only at the end of this interview that she was cautioned.
20 March 1974
The final interview of which evidence was given at the trial was at 4.55 pm this day, when Det-Chief Supt Nevill and Det Insp Boreham of the Metropolitan
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Police interviewed the appellant at Risley. After caution, she started to give them names of people who had been involved in various incidents, together with descriptions. Amongst other people she named, she said that the two people called Joe, to whom she had previously referred, were Joe Mooney and Joe Coyle. Joe Coyle was the man she had met in Dublin and Joe Mooney was the man who lived in Kilburn who had set up the Euston job for her. Joe Coyle was the man who was with her in the red car to do the Latimer job. They had picked up the car from Joe Mooney’s. When asked whom she had met in Manchester she said that the people had gone. One of them was Kiaran McMorrow and the girl was Marlene Coyle. She said she supposed Kiaran was the one who put the bomb on the coach and she did not know whether Marlene was with him. That was the explosive that she had fetched from Derby. When asked why she had told them all this now she said: ‘Because I had good news, my brother is moving house and the council told him they would not tell anybody.’
During her evidence at the trial she said of her interview with Moffatt and Smith on 16 February 1974 that she gave them a different account of her movements for the day of the Euston bombing from that which she had given in court. She said: ‘I gave this account because I was tired and mixed up.' She said she had given a wrong name for the man who had asked her to drive the guns to Belfast.
As to her account of going to Magill’s shop, she said that this was wholly fictitious. She said that when she said she took the parcel from Magill’s shop she understood it was explosives, she gave this reason because she was fed up with Det Supt Moffatt. She agreed however that she had said all these things.
She denied however that she had said she carried explosives for the Manchester bomb from London to Manchester. In her evidence she was taken through the written statement she had made on 16 February 1974, exhibit 44, and she said that parts had never happened and the statement was fiction. She had never, for instance, been a member of an armed service unit. She said that she had finished with Joe Coyle, Joe Mooney and the two Hardys because of the children being killed. She said however that she believed in the cause that Sinn Fein was fighting for but she believed it could be done politically.
In summary, in her evidence at the trial, though the appellant denied saying some of the things she was alleged to have said by the police, of the majority she either accepted that she said them or said that she could not remember saying them. Whether she accepted that she had said them, or accepted that she might have done, where they implicated her in any of these offences, at her trial she said that what she had previously said was untrue and she was not involved. The most she admitted was being a supporter of Sinn Fein, of knowing many people involved in IRA activity, of knowing something of their movements and thus of being able to put two and two together and make a guess as to what had actually happened and who had been involved, which she later translated into a fictitious account. She continued however to say that she had been married to Michael McVerry and that he was shot while on an IRA operation. She said: ‘I suppose he was something of a martyr.' At the conclusion of her evidence-in-chief she said:
‘There is no substance in the admissions except in relation to going to Derby but even in relation to going to Derby there’s no truth in the admission that I knew what was in the bag or that I knew what was going to go into the bag before we set off. The true account is that which I’ve given here into the witness box.’
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The scientific evidence at the trial
Scientific evidence was a major feature of the trial of the appellant. A total of six scientific witnesses gave evidence: four for the prosecution and two for the defence. Four of the prosecution witnesses were employed by the Royal Armaments Research and Development Establishment (RARDE) at Woolwich. The full complement of officers who worked on explosives in the forensic section of RARDE were as follows: (1) Mr Douglas Higgs, the principal scientific officer and the head of the forensic section; (2) Mr Donald Lidstone, a senior scientific officer; (3) Mr Walter Elliott, a higher scientific officer; (4) Mr George Berryman, a higher scientific officer; (5) Mrs Pamela Brooker (now Mrs Kemp), an assistant scientific officer. In addition, a Mrs Keeble also assisted on experiments with explosives from time to time. The prosecution called the four senior RARDE officers: Mr Higgs, Mr Lidstone, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman. The other prosecution witness was a Dr Frank Skuse, a chemist, from the Home Office Forensic Science Laboratory at Chorley.
The defence called as experts two former RARDE employees, namely Mr Howard Yallop, who was Mr Higgs’s immediate predecessor as head of the forensic section of RARDE, and Mr Vernon Clancey, who was Mr Yallop’s immediate predecessor as head of the forensic section at RARDE. Mr Yallop retired in November 1973 and Mr Clancey retired in 1969.
Mr Lidstone was the first prosecution witness. He examined debris from the Euston explosion. He was not a chemist and his evidence was limited to explaining that fragments of an electric detonator and an alarm clock were among the items he received.
Mr Elliott was a more important witness. He testified that the explosive substance in the bomb which exploded at Euston was nitroglycerine (NG). The tests of the swabs taken from Diamond, Gateley and the appellant at Euston were done under his supervision. His evidence was that the swabs taken from the appellant showed faint traces of NG. Mr Elliott also testified that the samples taken by him and Mr Higgs inside the caravan on 21 and 25 February 1974 gave positive test results for the presence of NG. The defence did not challenge these test results. Between Mr Elliott, on the prosecution side, and Mr Clancey and Mr Yallop, on the defence side, the principal terrain of the debate was whether the appellant could have been accidentally contaminated with NG by contact with Diamond. Mr Elliott was confident that the risk of accidental contamination could be excluded.
As the head of the forensic section at Woolwich, Mr Higgs was a major witness at the trial. He testified about his own sampling in the caravan. He said the test results for the caravan samples were positive. He accepted that he told Mr Clancey that the test was ‘definitely positive’. On the issue of accidental contamination his evidence was that there was no real risk of contamination.
Mr Berryman’s evidence fulfilled a supporting role. He had not taken any samples nor had he supervised any tests. But he was an experienced forensic scientist and he testified that the risk of contamination from the debris of an explosion could safely be excluded.
Dr Skuse testified about tests of swabs taken by him under the appellant’s fingernails. He said the results were positive. That was the only evidence of the presence of NG under the appellant’s fingernails. That led Mr Higgs to comment that the appellant must have taken part in the making of the bomb. Dr Skuse also testified that tests performed on swabs from a ring taken from the appellant and on swabs from the duffle bag belonging to the appellant were positive. The defence case was that Dr Skuse’s positive results were, in fact, preliminary in
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nature and inconclusive and that Dr Skuse had obtained no acceptable confirmation.
Mr Clancey and Mr Yallop testified at some length. The thrust of their evidence was that the Euston and caravan test results, which they accepted, were explicable on the basis of accidental contamination. They roundly challenged Dr Skuse’s test results as falling short of establishing the presence of NG on the appellant or her belongings.
On the scientific evidence as presented at the trial, the scientific case for the prosecution seemed cogent and the defence seemed weak and implausible. What must have particularly impressed the jury was the number of alleged contacts of the appellant with NG, all of which had to be explained away if the appellant’s protestation of innocence was to be given credence.
The prosecution case at trial
As we have already said, the prosecution case was to a large extent based upon the admissions which the appellant had made in the various interviews to which we have referred, coupled with damaging remarks she was alleged to have made to people other than police officers. In particular, the prosecution based their case on her admissions of the following matters. (i) The Euston bomb: that she had ‘sussed out’ Euston Station to observe the police patrols and the times they were changed over and that she had collected the explosive from Cricklewood and taken it to Kilburn. (ii) As to the M62 coach explosion, the Crown accepted that her initial admission that she had planted the bomb could not be correct, but suggested that she might well have conceived the idea of blowing up the coach because of service in the WRAC. She had admitted advising on the movements of the coach and had admitted carrying the explosive from Derby to Manchester. (iii) She had admitted driving the car containing the man who planted the bomb at Latimer and had given a circumstantial account of how this was done. In addition, the prosecution relied on evidence that she was implicated in other matters, eg providing information upon which the Aldershot bombing may have been based.
It was the Crown’s case moreover that her admissions were substantially supported by the scientific evidence. Of Dr Skuse’s evidence as to the swabs he took in Liverpool after her detention there, Mr Cobb for the prosecution said that it was this examination that revealed that the appellant had relatively recently been in contact with an explosive substance and had actually handled uncovered and unwrapped explosives. The admission of carrying the explosive for the Euston station bomb was supported by the evidence of swabs taken from her right hand after that bomb exploded. The scientific evidence of traces of explosive in her bags and in the caravan supported the evidence that she carried the explosive for the M62 bomb, the suggestion being that she had left the explosive in the caravan inside one of her bags while the caravan was parked at Belle Vue before handing it on to its recipient in Longsight.
The case for the defence at trial
As we have already made clear, the conclusions sought to be drawn by the scientists who gave evidence for the prosecution were challenged in the evidence called on behalf of the appellant. Nevertheless it was of course open to the jury to accept the prosecution evidence unless it was shown to be fallacious.
The main plank of the case for the defence outlined by Mr Rankin was that it was clear that in much of what she had said to the police the appellant was simply
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not telling the truth. He suggested to the jury that she had lied time after time. Thus, the jury could not rely upon the truth of any admission she had made. He asked: ‘Is this girl a female Walter Mitty, is she a pathological liar, is she trying to achieve notoriety by making false admissions, is she trying to seek a place in Irish folklore?' Mr Rankin questioned whether the jury should accept the truth of the claim to be married to Michael McVerry. He pointed out that the IRA would have been most unlikely to rely upon somebody of such apparent incompetence and ineptitude and, in particular, somebody who, as was clear so frequently, came to the attention of the police and the army authorities in Northern Ireland. Such conduct, suggested Mr Rankin, was inconsistent with guilt of the kind to which in her police interviews she had admitted.
The Home Secretary’s reference and the grounds of appeal
In the letter of 17 September 1991 written on behalf of the Home Secretary referring this case to this court, it is made clear that the reason for the reference was concern about the validity of the scientific evidence at the trial. In particular, the investigations which had led to the appeal in R v McIlkenny [1992] 2 All ER 417 (the Birmingham Six) cast considerable doubt upon the validity of the opinions expressed by Dr Skuse at the trial in that case based upon a similar use of the Griess test to that which he used in the appellant’s case. Moreover, scientific investigation carried out in connection with the inquiry by Sir John May into the case of the Maguire family, whose convictions have also been quashed by this court (see R v Maguire [1992] 2 All ER 433, [1992] QB 936), had shown that some other substances may give a result in some of the tests similar to that given by NG and thus raise the possibility that what appeared to be scientific proof of the presence of NG on the appellant’s hands, on her baggage and in the caravan may have been due to the presence of some other substance.
This then was the basis upon which the case was referred to this court. However, as in the case of every appeal, once the Home Secretary has referred the case of a particular defendant to this court, it is open to that defendant to raise at her appeal any relevant issue. Mr Mansfield QC has therefore argued before us grounds of appeal under three main heads. These are: (i) that before and at the trial there was a material irregularity in the failure of the prosecution to disclose to the defence relevant evidence which the prosecution was under a duty to disclose. This non-disclosure relates to evidence which was relevant to both the matters raised in the second and third grounds of appeal; (ii) that fresh evidence is available which casts considerable doubt upon the validity of parts of the scientific evidence given on behalf of the Crown at the trial; and (iii) that fresh evidence establishes that at and before the time of the trial the appellant was suffering from a personality disorder so severe and deep-rooted that none of the admissions that she had made could be relied upon as being true. We shall consider each of these grounds in turn. We shall deal with non-disclosure first, both because of the seriousness of the allegations made and because the extent of the non-disclosure is relevant to the matters we have to consider under the other grounds of appeal.
Fresh evidence
At the start of the hearing of this appeal Mr Mansfield for the appellant sought leave to call before us the evidence of five witnesses. Four had not been called to give evidence at the trial. The fifth, Mr Frederick Ollier, the solicitor who represented the appellant at the trial, gave evidence that various statements and
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reports which were now available to us had not been supplied to him before or at the trial. Mr Mansfield’s application was that the evidence of all five witnesses should be admitted under s 23(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. Mr Langdale QC for the Crown did not argue that the conditions of that subsection were not satisfied in relation to any of the witnesses. Even if we had thought that in relation to any of the witnesses there was some doubt about this, having considered the nature of the evidence to be given we were clearly of the view that we should allow the evidence to be called under s 23(1) of the 1968 Act, since it was clearly necessary to do so in the interests of justice.
We also gave leave to the Crown to call the evidence of a number of witnesses, some of whom gave evidence about documents available to us but not produced at the trial, and some of whom gave expert evidence on the subjects on which we permitted such evidence to be called on behalf of the appellant. In addition, at our request, three police officers from the relevant police forces, the West Yorkshire Police, the Metropolitan Police and the Thames Valley Police, gave evidence about the practice in their police forces, both in 1974 and now, as to the disclosure of the names and addresses of witnesses interviewed and of relevant documents before the trial of an accused person.
Accordingly, we have heard, over nine days, the evidence of the following witnesses. On the appellant’s unreliability—for the appellant: Dr J A C MacKeith, a consultant psychiatrist; Dr G H Gudjonsson, a consultant psychologist; Mr R G McFarland, formerly a detective sergeant in the RUC; for the Crown: Dr Northage J de V Mather, a retired consultant psychiatrist; Dr P M A Bowden, a consultant psychiatrist; Dr W K Lawson, formerly principal medical officer at HM Remand Centre at Risley, where the appellant was detained whilst on remand. On nondisclosure—for the appellant: Mr Frederick W Ollier, the appellant’s former solicitor; for the Crown: Mr L J Sage, now retired but formerly on the staff of the Director of Public Prosecutions; Mr M J Bibby, now a senior Crown prosecutor, on the staff of the Director of Public Prosecutions in 1974; Det Chief Supt Baines, West Yorkshire Police; Det Chief Supt Horrocks, Metropolitan Police; Det Insp Peedell, Thames Valley Police. On the scientific evidence—for the appellant: Dr John Lloyd, a consultant chemist, formerly with the Home Office forensic science service; for the Crown: Mr D G Higgs, Mr George Berryman and Mrs P J Kemp (formerly Mrs Brooker), all formerly members of the staff of the explosives section of RARDE; Dr R W Hiley, a principal scientific officer in the forensic explosives’ group of the Defence Research Agency (DRA) (the successor to RARDE).
In addition, a considerable amount of documentary material was placed before us which we admitted in evidence under s 23(1) of the 1968 Act. Much of this consisted of witness statements and other documents which were in existence but were not disclosed nor placed before the court at trial.
We also had reports from Doctors MacKeith, Gudjonsson, Bowden, Lloyd and Hiley (this last written with two of his colleagues at the DRA), to which each spoke in his evidence.
There is one further category of fresh evidence which was placed before us by Mr Mansfield which establishes to our satisfaction that (a) the appellant’s father was not born in Ireland and (b) the appellant was never married to Michael McVerry. The Crown did not challenge this evidence and we therefore received it in the form of a witness statement by Mrs Gareth Peirce, the appellant’s solicitor, the accuracy of which was formally admitted by the Crown. Searches made by Mrs Peirce have disclosed Mr Ward’s birth certificate, which shows that he was born in Stockport on 18 December 1925. They have also disclosed there is no
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record in any relevant register of marriages of the appellant’s marriage to Michael McVerry.
During the trial Mr Ollier had in his possession some information about both these matters. He had a witness statement from Mr Ward which showed his place of birth as Stockport. During the trial, after the appellant had given evidence that she had married Michael McVerry, counsel for the defence received a letter from a solicitor in Newry who, on the instructions of Michael McVerry’s parents, denied that he had at any time married the appellant.
Counsel and the solicitor acting for the appellant at the trial were, of course, in the difficulty that if they had sought to prove that either of these statements made by their client in the witness box was untrue, it would reflect upon her credibility as a witness. No doubt this was considered to outweigh the effect that such proof would have in seeking to establish the appellant’s unreliability. Added to the other evidence on this subject, to which we shall refer later, we decided that this evidence should be admitted.
Det Chief Supt Baines has been in charge of a police team engaged in finding (sometimes with difficulty) the statements and other documents which came into existence 18 years ago. We are satisfied that their dedicated efforts have resulted in us having the material necessary for us to decide this appeal. Perhaps inevitably, much of this material reached the appellant’s solicitors at a late stage before the hearing, but it has been assembled in such a way as to be readily accessible.
Another major difficulty faced by those now representing both the appellant and the Crown has been that, since there was no earlier appeal, there were no transcripts of Waller J’s summing up or of much of the evidence at trial. Transcripts have been found of the evidence of a few witnesses. With these witness statements, a transcript of the judge’s notes, counsel’s note for his opening speech and some press reports of counsels’ speeches and the summing up, there has been assembled a record of the proceedings at the trial which is as accurate and comprehensive as possible. Much of the burden of collating and assembling all this documentary material has been borne by Mrs Peirce, the appellant’s solicitor, to whom we give our congratulations and thanks.
THE COURSE OF THE HEARING
Mr Mansfield then invited us to hear the appeal in three parts, dealing with each of the main heads of appeal in turn. We agreed to adopt this course, and we therefore heard the fresh evidence and submissions relating to each head of appeal before we considered the next head. Although it is convenient for us to consider, first, the issue of non-disclosure, which overlaps both the other two heads of appeal, Mr Mansfield first addressed us and called evidence on the issue of the appellant’s unreliability when making her various submissions and confessions. At the conclusion of the fresh evidence and submissions on this head of appeal, we had received persuasive and impressive evidence that in 1974 the appellant was suffering from a personality disorder of such a nature that no reliance could be placed on any statement of fact made by her. Thus, we concluded that none of the admissions or confessions she made before her trial could be relied upon as the truth; since the admissions and confessions were the core of the prosecution’s case, it follows on this ground alone that the appellant’s conviction was unsafe and unsatisfactory. At that stage in the hearing we announced that we should in due course allow her appeal against conviction, but that we intended to hear argument and evidence on the other heads of appeal. Pending the conclusion of the hearing, we granted the appellant bail.
We shall now consider the heads of appeal in turn.
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Non-disclosure of evidence
It is clear from the two opening paragraphs of the grounds of appeal that the issue of non-disclosure lies at the heart of the appellant’s case. First, it is submitted that evidence which should have been disclosed at the trial, taken together with the fresh evidence now available and added to the evidence which was given at the trial, shows that the appellant’s admissions and confessions were unreliable and that the scientific evidence adduced against her was worthless, with the result that her convictions are unsafe and unsatisfactory for the purposes of s 2(1)(a) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. Secondly, and in the alternative, it is submitted that the non-disclosure at trial of relevant evidence which should have been disclosed by or on behalf of the Crown amounts to a material irregularity in the course of the trial for the purposes of s 2(1)(c) of the 1968 Act. The first of these submissions is self-explanatory and calls for no further comment at this stage. The second requires further examination.
It is now settled law, in this court at least, that the failure of the prosecution to disclose to the defence evidence which ought to have been disclosed is an ‘irregularity in the course of the trial’ within the meaning of s 2(1)(c). We refer in this connection to R v Maguire [1992] 2 All ER 433 at 446, [1992] QB 936 at 957, where, after a reference to earlier authorities, the judgment continues:
‘The court has now consistently taken the view that a failure to disclose what is known or possessed and which ought to have been disclosed, is an “irregularity in the course of the trial”. Why there was no disclosure is an irrelevant question, and if it be asked how the irregularity was “in the course of the trial” it can be answered that the duty of disclosure is a continuing one.’
It follows that if the irregularity is ‘material’, then for this reason alone the appeal must be allowed unless the proviso applies. In the sentence immediately following the passage which we have quoted from R v Maguire the court said:
‘If categorisation is necessary we are content to categorise a failure to disclose as a “procedural” irregularity, and because that which was not disclosed ought to have been disclosed, we would expect the irregularity to be one which usually satisfied the adjective “material”.’
We share this expectation. The obligation to disclose only arises in relation to evidence which is or may be material in relation to the issues which are expected to arise, or which unexpectedly do arise, in the course of the trial. If the evidence is or may be material in this sense, then its non-disclosure is likely to constitute a material irregularity. The proviso makes it plain that ‘material’ means something less than ‘crucial’, because it contemplates that although there may have been a material irregularity, yet a verdict of ‘guilty’ can be upheld on the ground that it involves no miscarriage of justice.
Mr Langdale conceded that there were a number of items of evidence in the present case which should have been disclosed but were not. In relation to most of them, however, he argued that the failure to disclose did not bring s 2(1)(c) into operation: the undisclosed evidence may have been material to issues in the case, but it was relatively insignificant in the context of the case viewed as a whole, and therefore the failure to disclose it did not amount to a material irregularity. This is a perfectly valid proposition and one which appears to have been adopted in relation to some of the undisclosed evidence in R v Maguire, as to which the court said that it ‘was of such insignificance in regard to any real issue that we cannot describe its non-disclosure as a “material irregularity”.’ (See [1992] 2 All ER 433 at
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447, [1992] QB 936 at 958; Stuart-Smith LJ’s emphasis.) We would emphasise, however, that the scope for the application of Mr Langdale’s proposition is limited to matters which, at the end of the day, can be seen to have been of no real significance. The possibility that this view will ultimately be taken of any particular piece of disclosable evidence should be wholly excluded from the minds of the prosecution when the question of disclosure is being considered. Nondisclosure is a potent source of injustice and even with the benefit of hindsight, it will often be difficult to say whether or not an undisclosed item of evidence might have shifted the balance or opened up a new line of defence. We refrain from pursuing the matter further because in the present case it is unnecessary to do so. It is unnecessary because we are satisfied that the failures to disclose on the part of the prosecution which we have found to exist were of such an order that collectively, and in some cases individually, they constituted material irregularities in the course of the trial.
We have spoken of ‘the prosecution’. In this term we include four categories of individuals and organisations, namely: (1) the three police forces, West Yorkshire, Thames Valley and Metropolitan, which carried out the relevant investigations, (though we say at once that the failure to disclose were limited to the West Yorkshire Police: there was no such failure by the Thames Valley or Metropolitan Police); (2) the staff of the Director of Public Prosecutions and counsel who advised them; (3) the psychiatrists who prepared medical reports on the appellant at the request of the prosecution; and (4) the forensic scientists who gave evidence for the prosecution at the trial. The responsibilities of the individuals involved in each of these four categories must be considered separately.
The duty of disclosure
In his written submissions dealing with the appellant’s complaints of nondisclosure, Mr Langdale has distinguished between what, as a matter of law and procedure, was disclosable in 1974 and what is disclosable in 1992, but both he and Mr Mansfield invited us to apply the standards of 1992 to the question of what ought to have been disclosed at the trial. We do not think that this is the correct approach to s 2(1)(c). It is true that in R v Maguire, where the original trial had taken place in 1975, the court adopted a test for disclosability which first appeared in the Attorney General’s guidelines published in December 1981 (see Practice Note [1982] 1 All ER 734), namely whether the undisclosed material had ‘some bearing on the offences(s) charged and the surrounding circumstances of the case’. The point does not, however, appear to have been argued—the case for the Crown was that non-disclosure was incapable of constituting a material irregularity in the course of the trial—and we do not regard R v Maguire as requiring us to take what was called in argument a ‘here and now’ approach to the question of what should have been disclosed in 1974. The last 18 years have brought considerable advances in medical and forensic science.
In deciding whether a verdict is ‘safe and satisfactory’ for the purposes of s 2(1)(a), or whether there has been a miscarriage of justice for the purposes of the proviso, we must clearly take account of all of the knowledge and experience which is available to us in 1992, but in order to determine whether there were material irregularities in the course of the appellant’s trial in 1974 we must, as it seems to us, apply as best we can the standards of what was considered to be proper and regular at that time. The distinction is, however, of limited practical significance because the appellant submits, and we accept, that even by the standards of 1974 there were failures to disclose by each of the four prosecution groups to which we have referred.
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In terms of quantity the most substantial failures were those of the West Yorkshire Police and the Director of Public Prosecutions to give information about (1) witnesses from whom statements had been taken, but who were not called to give evidence and (2) police interviews of the appellant. With regard to the first of these categories the then current edition of Archbold’s Criminal Pleading Evidence and Practice (38th edn, 1973) pp 202–203, read as follows:
‘Information the Prosecution Should Make Available to the Defence 443. Where the prosecution have taken a statement from a person whom they know can give material evidence but decide not to call him as a witness, they are under a duty to make that person available as a witness for the defence, but they are not under the further duty of supplying the defence with a copy of the statement which they have taken: R. v. Bryant & Dickson ((1946) 31 Cr App R 146) … Where a witness whom the prosecution call or tender gives evidence in the box on a material issue, and the prosecution have in their possession an earlier statement from that witness substantially conflicting with such evidence, the prosecution should, at any rate, inform the defence of that fact: R. v. Howes (27 March 1950, unreported) … In certain cases, particularly where the discrepancy involves detail, as in identification by description, it may be difficult effectively to give such information to the defence without handing to them a copy of the earlier statement: R. v. Clarke ((1930) 22 Cr App R 58); see also Baksh v. R ([1958] AC 167).
443a. Further, there had been cases where, in view of their particular circumstances, judges have ordered the prosecution to hand to the defence statements made to the police by witnesses for the prosecution: see R. v. Hall ((1958) 43 Cr App R 29); R. v. Xinaris ((1955) 43 Cr App R 30n). In both these last-mentioned cases it is clear that the judge adopted the course only in the circumstances of the particular case, and neither case should be regarded as an authority for the proposition that there is any general duty on the part of the prosecution with regard to statements to the police by witnesses or potential witnesses beyond what is above stated. A different view, however, appears to have been taken by Lord Denning MR in Dallison v. Caffery ([1964] 2 All ER 610 at 618, [1965] 1 QB 348 at 369), when he stated: “The duty of a prosecuting counsel or solicitor, as I have always understood it, is this: if he knows of a credible witness who can speak to material facts which tend to show the prisoner to be innocent, he must either call that witness himself or make his statement available to the defence.” Diplock LJ., however ([1964] 2 All ER 610 at 622, [1965] 1 QB 348 at 376), while approving of the course adopted by the prosecution in that case, appears to have thought that they had gone further than they were strictly bound to do: see also R. v. Fenn ((1959) 23 J Cr L 253).’
We note in passing that the corresponding passage in the then current Archbold (43rd edn, 1988), which was quoted with approval by this court in R v Lawson (1989) 90 Cr App R 107 at 114, shows a move in more recent years towards the Dallison v Caffery approach. After referring to the relevant paragraph, para 4–178, Parker LJ, giving the judgment of the court, said (at 114):
‘I read it for two reasons: first for the comment of which this Court approves; and secondly, to point out that there is one omission in the paragraph which may be of some importance. The paragraph reads as follows: “Where the prosecution have taken a statement from a person whom they know can give material evidence but decide not to call him as a witness,
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they are under a duty to make the person available as a witness for the defence and should supply the defence with the witness’ name and address. The prosecution are not under the further duty of supplying the defence with a copy of the statement which they have taken: Bryant and Dickson … Certain prosecuting authorities and prosecutors not infrequently use this authority as a justification for never supplying the defence with the statement in such circumstances. It should be borne in mind however, that an inflexible approach to these circumstances can work an injustice. For example the witness’s memory may have faded when the defence eventually seek to interview him, or he may refuse to make any further statement. The better practice is to allow the defence to see such statements unless there is good reason for not doing so. Furthermore, it should be observed that the ruling in Bryant and Dickson cannot be reconciled with the observations of Lord Denning M.R. in Dallison v. Caffery ([1964] 2 All ER 610 at 618, [1965] 1 QB 348 at 369): ‘The duty of a prosecuting counsel or solicitor, as I have always understood it, is this: if he knows of a credible witness who can speak to material facts which [tend to] show the prisoner to be innocent, he must either call that witness himself or make his statement available to the defence.' If one looks at the authority itself, Lord Denning continued immediately after that with these words: “It would be highly reprehensible to conceal from the court the evidence which such a witness can give. If the prosecuting counsel or solicitor knows, not of a credible witness, but a witness whom he does not accept as credible, he should tell the defence about him so that they can call him if they wish.” ’
To return, however, to the position in 1974, Mr Mansfield submits, rightly, that paras 443 and 443a of Archbold (38th edn, 1973) were by no means exhaustive. They were merely aspects of the defendant’s elementary common law right to a fair trial which depends upon the observance by the prosecution, no less than the court, of the rules of natural justice. No authority is needed for this proposition but it is illustrated by the decision of the Divisional Court in R v Leyland Magistrates, ex p Hawthorn [1979] 1 All ER 209, [1979] QB 283. On the broad basis of this right, the defendant is plainly entitled (subject to statutory limitations on disclosure, and the possibility of public interest immunity, which we discuss below) to be supplied with police evidence of all relevant interviews with him. We would adopt the words of Lawton LJ in R v Hennessey (1978) 68 Cr App R 419 at 426 where he said that the courts must—
‘keep in mind that those who prepare and conduct prosecutions owe a duty to the Courts to ensure that all relevant evidence of help to an accused is either led by them or made available to the defence. We have no reason to think that this duty is neglected; and if ever it should be, the appropriate disciplinary bodies can be expected to take action. The judges for their part will ensure that the Crown gets no advantage from neglect of duty on the part of the prosecution.’
That statement reflects the position in 1974 no less than today. We would emphasise that ‘all relevant evidence of help to an accused’ is not limited to evidence which will obviously advance the accused’s case. It is of help to the accused to have the opportunity of considering all the material evidence which the prosecution have gathered, and from which the prosecution have made their own selection of evidence to be led. We believe that in practice the importance of disclosing unused material has been much more clearly recognised by prosecutors
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since the publication of the Attorney General’s guidelines. The current Code of Conduct of the Bar of England and Wales (1991) Annexe H ‘Written standards for the conduct of professional work, Standards applicable to criminal cases’, para 1.2, reflecting the words of Lawton LJ which we have quoted, provides:
‘Prosecuting counsel should bear in mind at all times whilst he is instructed that he is responsible for the presentation and general conduct of the case and that it is his duty to ensure that all relevant evidence is either presented by the prosecution or made available to the defence.’
So far as the law is concerned, however, the only practical difference between 1974 and 1992 in the present case is that in 1974 the police and the Director of Public Prosecutions were entitled as a general rule to adopt the Bryant and Dickson rather than Dallison v Caffery approach to the statements of persons who could give material evidence but were not to be called, that is to say they were not generally obliged to disclose more than the name and address of the person concerned and the fact that he had made a statement. But subject to public interest immunity all statements or other documents recording relevant interviews with the appellant should have been disclosed. It makes no difference for this purpose whether the document took the form of a witness statement, or notes of interview, or a police officer’s report.
There are two further matters of law which we must mention before coming to specific instances of non-disclosure. The first is the doctrine of public interest immunity which we have mentioned. Quite apart from statutory limitations on the disclosure of information, the common law has always recognised that the public interest might require relevant evidence to be withheld from the defendant. Obvious examples are evidence dealing with matters of national security, or disclosing the identity of an informant. The Attorney General’s guidelines refer, under the latter heading, to the judgment of Pollock CB in A-G v Briant (1846) 15 M & W 169 at 185, 153 ER 808 at 814–815, for the statement that—
‘the rule clearly established and acted on is this, that in a public prosecution, a witness cannot be asked such questions as will disclose the informer, if he be a third person. This has been the settled rule for fifty years, and although it may seem hard in a particular case, private mischief must give way to public convenience … and we think the principle of the rule applies to the case where a witness is asked if he himself is the informer …’
Much more recently, and in more general terms, the subject has been discussed by the Divisional Court in R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 1) [1992] 1 All ER 108 at 116–117, [1991] 1 WLR 281 at 288–289, which was an extradition case. Mann LJ said:
‘The seminal cases in regard to public interest immunity do not refer to criminal proceedings, but the principles are expressed in general terms. Asking myself why those general expositions should not apply to criminal proceedings, I can see no answer but that they do. It seems correct in principle that they should apply. The reasons for the development of the doctrine seem equally applicable to criminal as to civil proceedings. I acknowledge that the application of the public immunity doctrine in criminal proceedings will involve a different balancing exercise to that in civil proceedings. I shall come in one moment to the concept of the balancing exercise. Suffice it to say for the moment that a judge is balancing on the one hand the desirability of preserving the public interest in the absence of disclosure against, on the other hand, the interests of justice. Where the interests of justice arise in a
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criminal case touching and concerning liberty or conceivably on occasion life, the weight to be attached to the interests of justice is plainly very great indeed. It may be that what I have just said explains the paucity of authority. It may be that prosecutions are not initiated where material is not to be exposed, or it may be that the force of the balance is recognised by prosecuting authorities and the immunity is never claimed. I know not. We have been referred to a few instances at trial where rulings have been made upon public interest immunity, but apart from indicating that the point has arisen I would attach no significance to those instances. I base myself upon the proposition that there is no discernible reason why the immunity should not apply in criminal proceedings … I turn then to the balancing exercise which is predicated in all the authorities. It may be shortly put: do the interests of justice in the particular case outweigh those considerations of public interest as spoken to in the certificate?’
The certificate to which he referred was a certificate by the Minister of State for Foreign and Commonwealth Affairs in which public interest immunity had been claimed. It is of course implicit in Mann LJ’s judgment, and in the earlier authorities to which he referred, that the ultimate decision as to whether evidence, which was otherwise disclosable, should be withheld from disclosure on the grounds of public interest immunity was one to be made by the court. Certainly this is our view. We would add that, as we understand it, one of the main reasons why in recent years the concept of ‘Crown privilege’ as it used to be called has given way to the concept of public interest immunity is that no ‘privilege’ in the ordinary sense of that word was involved: see, for example, Duncan v Cammell Laird & Co Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 587 at 595, [1942] AC 624 at 641 per Viscount Simon LC. In Air Canada v Secretary of State for Trade (No 2) [1983] 1 All ER 910 at 917, [1983] 2 AC 394 at 436 Lord Fraser added: ‘Public interest immunity is not a privilege which may be waived by the Crown or by any party.’
More recently, in Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis (1989) [1992] 3 All ER 617 at 623 Bingham LJ made the same point, observing that although one can waive rights, one cannot waive duties. He added:
‘… where a litigant holds documents in a class prima facie immune, he should (save perhaps in a very exceptional case) assert that the documents are immune and decline to disclose them, since the ultimate judge of where the balance of public interest lies is not him but the court …’
We are conscious that we are applying statements made in the relatively peaceful context of an extradition case, or a civil case, to the circumstances surrounding the trial of the appellant. It is not difficult to imagine the anxieties which must have beset the police and the prosecution lawyers lest the lives of investigating officers, of members of the public, and even perhaps of the appellant herself might be put at risk by the disclosure of ‘sensitive’ information. But the rule that the court and not the litigant must be the ultimate judge of where the balance of public interest lies must always have applied to the prosecution in criminal cases, though it may not have been clearly spelt out in 1974. It is a matter of concern that at least two important decisions as to what should be withheld from disclosure on the grounds of its sensitivity appear to have been made by the prosecution alone—in one case by the West Yorkshire Police, in the other by the Director of Public Prosecutions and counsel—and without reference to the court.
The second preliminary matter of law which must be mentioned is the proviso to s 2. When we announced on Monday, 11 May, which was the fifth day of the
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hearing, that we proposed to allow the appeal in the light of the fresh psychiatric evidence which had been placed before us, we made it clear by doing so that by reason of this fresh evidence alone we were unable to say, in the language of the proviso, ‘that no miscarriage of justice has actually occurred’. In these circumstances, it would be pointless to consider at any length whether we might have applied the proviso by reference to any of the material irregularities which occurred in the course of the trial. It is sufficient to say that, even if our decision in favour of the appellant had been limited to the issue of material irregularities, we would not have thought it right to apply to the proviso.
Particular instances of non-disclosure amounting to material irregularities
In her grounds of appeal and in the accompanying bundles, the appellant referred to 43 items of evidence consisting of, or contained in, documents such as witness statements, notes of interviews and reports (including medical reports). In the course of the hearing Mr Mansfield did not pursue his complaint in respect of many of these items, accepting either that they were not disclosable or that the failure to disclose them involved no material irregularity. It seemed to us that a number of the remaining items, though meriting examination and providing scope for debate, could ultimately be excluded from the reckoning on the same grounds. We think that it will be sufficient in the interests of justice if we confine our attention to the items to which we now turn, whose non-disclosure amounted collectively, and in some cases individually, to material irregularities. We list them under the headings of the four categories of individuals and organisations to which we have referred.
1. The West Yorkshire Police
On 17 January 1992 Det Chief Supt Baines was appointed to co-ordinate the police inquiries on behalf of the Director of Public Prosecutions into the appellant’s case and to prepare a report for the assistance of this court. We are grateful to him both for the meticulous and comprehensive investigations which he conducted in the relatively short time available and for the clarity with which he has presented his findings, both in his written report and in oral evidence. We would make particular mention of the alphabetical lists and notes prepared by Mr Baines of 58 individuals and 24 addresses referred to by the appellant as having played a significant part in the criminal activities which she alternately admitted and denied. The glossary of these names and addresses, some of them known terrorists, some suspects, some apparently wholly innocent people, and some shadowy figures who cannot be traced and may never have existed, has been an invaluable guide for us as we have traced and retraced our steps through the maze of fact and fancy in the appellant’s accounts of her activities.
The West Yorkshire Police were principally concerned with the M62 bombing, but they also acted as the ‘lead’ force in the collection of evidence for the appellant’s trial. Some idea of the burden which they bore can be gained from the fact that they took statements—sometimes more than one—from over 1,700 people. Of this total, however, only 225 statements were forwarded to the Director of Public Prosecutions. By way of contrast, every one of the 882 statements taken by the Thames Valley Police and of the 148 statements taken by the Metropolitan Police was forwarded to the Director of Public Prosecutions. How did this discrepancy arise?
Det Insp Peedell of the Thames Valley Police gave oral evidence about the practice of his force in 1974. He produced an extract from Force Weekly Orders dated 2 August 1971 concerning the procedures to be adopted in cases submitted
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to the force legal department. The gist of this order was that all statements and other material taken during an investigation for trial on indictment were to be fully disclosed to the force solicitors, who would vet the file, advise on charges and other related matters. The decision to disclose or not disclose statements or other material to the defence was and remained a matter for the solicitor or counsel. In cases conducted by the Director of Public Prosecutions a report, documents and statements would be referred to his office without being edited by the force solicitors. Again, it was force policy to disclose to the Director all statements and other material taken during the course of the investigation.
Det Sgt Horrocks, who gave evidence on behalf of the Metropolitan Police, had been unable to trace any written order in force in 1974 requiring witness statements and other material to be submitted to the solicitor’s department or the Director of Public Prosecutions. Paragraph 17 of the Metropolitan Police Orders published on 5 February 1982 makes full and clear provision for this to be done, but was apparently introduced as a result of the publication in December 1981 of the Attorney General’s guidelines. None the less, as we have said, all of the witness statements in the present case were duly transferred by the Metropolitan Police to the Director of Public Prosecutions, despite the apparent absence of a written order to that effect in 1974. Det Sgt Horrocks told us of steps now being taken to introduce a standard form to be used by all police forces for the disclosure of material to the Crown Prosecution Service on the lines of Form 151 which is currently in use by the Metropolitan Police.
What, then, was the procedure in force in West Yorkshire in 1974? Det Chief Supt Baines was a member of the West Yorkshire Force at the time, but played no part in the inquiries into the appellant’s case. He knew of no written orders then in force covering the forwarding of witness statements to the solicitor’s department or the Director of Public Prosecutions. In the appellant’s case, the senior investigating officer would have decided what should be forwarded. Det Chief Supt Baines would have expected the senior investigating officer to sit down with his team and divide the statements which had been taken into (1) those providing evidence that the accused person was guilty, in other words those which the prosecution might wish to use, (2) those which related to the accused but were not admissible in evidence, such as descriptions of her antecedents and background, and (3) non-relevant statements, such as statements taken from suspects who were later eliminated from the case—though if such statements referred to the accused they would be included in the documents mentioned in category (2).
It is perhaps understandable that the West Yorkshire Police should have been reluctant to burden the Director of Public Prosecutions with the statements of 1,700 witnesses, the vast majority of whom, no doubt, were unable to contribute anything really significant, but it must be made clear that the course adopted was wholly wrong and led to the suppression of information which the appellant was entitled to receive. The principal relevance of the statements in question lies in their bearing on the appellant’s proclivities for attention-seeking, fantasy and the making and withdrawal of untrue confessions. The West Yorkshire Police may well have been fully justified, on the information before them, in taking the view that the statements were of little or no relevance to the offences with which the appellant was charged. Even the Director of Public Prosecutions might only have appreciated their relevance as the trial proceeded and the full scope of the defence of unreliability became clear. But this simply shows why it was wholly wrong for the statements to be withheld from the Director.
The first of these statements was one taken from Sgt Reynard of the Royal Electrical and Mechanical Engineers on 26 February 1974. He spoke of an
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incident which had occurred on 15 August 1972, a time at which, it will be remembered, the appellant was absent without leave from the WRAC. Whilst on patrol in Belfast on that date Sgt Reynard had seen an individual, whom he later discovered to be a girl named Ward, jump from a ground floor window ledge and run away from the patrol. She stopped when ordered to do so and was detained and questioned by Sgt Reynard and by the police. She told him, amongst other things, that her parents had been gipsies and had originated from Dublin, where she had spent her early childhood. This is to be compared with what the appellant had said in the course of a long and detailed statement taken from the appellant by the Royal Ulster Constabulary on 22 March 1972, also during the period when she was absent without leave. That statement had been forwarded to the Director of Public Prosecutions but had not been disclosed to the defence and we shall refer to it more fully in the context of failures to disclose by the Director of Public Prosecutions. At this stage, it is sufficient to note that on 22 March 1972 she said that her name was Theresa O’Connell, that she was aged 14 years and 8 months, and that she had been leading an itinerant life with her 19-year-old brother in the Irish Republic. She said that her mother had died when she was six years old and that her father had walked out on her and her brother four years ago.
The next undisclosed interview to which we must refer was concerned with the occasion on 23 August 1972, which we have already described, when the appellant visited Thiepval Barracks, Lisburn with a companion. It will be remembered that by then she had obtained her discharge from the WRAC. She was questioned about the visit by the army on 29 August 1972 and again over a period of four days from 3 to 6 September. On this last date, as we have said, she made a voluntary statement, which was witnessed by a L/Cpl Lamb (née Stephenson). The appellant’s statement was duly disclosed and became exhibit 79 at the trial. In the course of it she said that she had—
‘entered HQ Northern Ireland with the intentions of looking the place over regarding security measures and so on, having been asked 2 days previously by Michael Kelly to do so.’
She also said that she had first met Michael Kelly when he introduced her to Seamus Quigley and Paeder McNally in McLoughlin’s Bar in Dundalk in February 1972. Det Chief Supt Baines’s glossary states that it has not been possible to identify Michael Kelly, Seamus Quigley or Paeder McNally but that McLoughlin’s Bar was a regular haunt for members of the Official IRA.
What was not disclosed was that on the same day, 6 September, the appellant was also interviewed by two officers of the RUC, Det Sgt Speers and Det Insp Hylands. To Det Sgt Speers she said that the statement which she had made ‘was all true except for the portion about her carrying out the observation for the IRA’. She was asked why she had written that part of the statement if it was untrue and she said that she had just said it to get away from the army because they had held her for four days; she had signed the statement in order to get out.
She was then questioned by Det Insp Hylands, together with another officer. To them she repeated that her statement was true with the exception of the fact that she had collaborated with, and furnished information about, the barracks to the IRA. Again, when asked to explain, she said that she had been with the military for four days and ‘would have admitted to almost anything to get away from them’, though she had no complaints to make in connection with her treatment. In his witness statement, which was taken on 27 May 1974, Det Insp Hylands added that, ‘Despite being further interviewed with regard to this aspect of her confession, she continued to profess her innocence and I must concede that
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I found her to be convincing.' Neither the army nor the RUC took any further action against the appellant in connection with the incident.
The statements of Det Sgt Speers and Det Insp Hylands were not forwarded to the Director of Public Prosecutions or disclosed to the defence. They clearly should have been. They recorded the almost immediate retraction by the appellant of the confession which she had made in her statement, exhibit 79, that she had visited Thiepval Barracks in order to reconnoitre it for the IRA. That confession must have been part of the basis upon which (according to newspaper reports at the trial) Mr Cobb QC for the Crown submitted in his closing speech that the appellant was an intelligence officer, as well as a gunrunner, bomb carrier, bomb maker and even bomb planter for the IRA. Her prompt withdrawal of the confession was therefore plainly material to an issue raised in the trial. Further, although the comment of Det Insp Hylands that he found the appellant’s profession of innocence to be convincing would not have been admissible in evidence as such, it was a statement helpful to the defence which he would probably have made in evidence when asked why no further action had been taken against the appellant over the Thiepval Barracks visit. Mr Langdale very properly conceded that the failure to disclose these statements constituted a material irregularity.
The final item in this category consists of notes made by Det Chief Supt Oldfield of conversations which he had with the appellant on 11 and 18 June 1974 after she had been charged. These conversations took place without the knowledge of the appellant’s solicitor. They ranged widely over the appellant’s movements, activities and contacts. In the course of them the appellant named Joe Coyle as the man responsible for the bomb explosions at Euston and also at King’s Cross and made allegations against many other individuals, some of them known or suspected members of the IRA. Det Chief Supt Oldfield has since died. Det Chief Supt Baines in his evidence said that clearly Det Chief Supt Oldfield was endeavouring to obtain intelligence and use the appellant as a source of information. The notes had been removed from the West Yorkshire files and transferred for security reasons to a special room maintained by the Metropolitan Police, where Det Chief Supt Baines had found them. Mr Langdale accepted that the notes were prima facie disclosable but said it was arguable that Det Chief Supt Oldfield and the West Yorkshire Police were not obliged to forward them to the Director of Public Prosecutions. He said that, although he did not know how the meeting came about, it was possible that the appellant asked to see Det Chief Supt Oldfield in complete confidence without even her solicitor knowing and that she acted as an informer only on the express basis that the conversations would not be disclosed.
The suggestion that the appellant may have made such a stipulation is clearly speculative. We should be surprised if it had occurred, bearing in mind the uninhibited freedom with which the appellant had volunteered allegations against other individuals on almost every other occasion when she was interviewed. But, if such a stipulation had been made, Det Chief Supt Oldfield should at least have consulted the Director of Public Prosecutions before accepting it. It might then have been decided that the stipulation was unacceptable or, alternatively, steps could have been taken to invoke public interest immunity for the conversations. Det Chief Supt Oldfield had no right to make the decision that the conversations should remain wholly undisclosed.
2. The Director of Public Prosecutions and counsel
We heard evidence from Mr Bibby, now a senior prosecutor for the Crown
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Prosecution Service, who was the professional officer in charge of the appellant’s case, and also from Mr Sage, who in 1974 was in charge of an office opened by the Director of Public Prosecutions in Leeds for use in connection with the appellant’s trial and other major trials which were in progress, or in the course of preparation, at the time. Other members of the legal department at the time were Mr Bourke and Mr Phillips. They were senior to Mr Bibby and signed some of the letters sent out from the Director of Public Prosecutions’ office in London in connection with the appellant’s trial, but all those letters were drafted by Mr Bibby.
All decisions as to the disclosure or non-disclosure of evidence to the defence were implemented by Mr Bibby after consultation with counsel, generally with Mr Brian Walsh (now Mr Brian Walsh QC), who was the junior counsel instructed by the Crown and whom Mr Bibby knew well. The general policy adopted in relation to statements from people who were not going to be called as witnesses was to adopt the R v Bryant and Dickson (1946) 31 Cr App R 146 approach and to disclose to the defence only the names and addresses of those individuals. Mr Bibby was unable to recall the detail of any discussions about the disclosure of particular documents. The Crown decided not to call Mr Walsh as a witness before us. We made it clear that we should feel free to draw such inferences as seemed appropriate from the evidence concerning his role in the matter.
The first of the undisclosed items about which complaint was made by Mr Mansfield was the statement made by the appellant to the RUC, giving the name Theresa O’Connell, on 22 March 1972. It is, as we have indicated, a graphic and highly imaginative tale about Theresa O’Connell, aged 14 years and 8 months (the appellant at the time was 23) whose mother had died when she was six (the appellant’s mother is still alive) and whose father, Francis O’Connell, had walked out on her and her brother in Cork City four years previously. Her father, Thomas Ward, an English crane driver, married her mother in 1946. They had five children of whom the appellant was the second and were divorced in 1962. The statement, after describing her itinerant life with her 19-year-old brother, Eddie (she had no such brother), speaks of him deciding on 4 March 1972, that is a fortnight before the statement, after a quarrel with the appellant, that he was going to go North and join the Provos. According to the statement, the appellant left their caravan before he did and hitchhiked up to Newry, where she was questioned by the Newry police. She told them that she was going to Antrim to look for her brother but then hitchhiked to Belfast and after that to Derry searching for her brother. After further encounters with the police and with soldiers, one of whom hit her with a rifle, and after a night in hospital, she was taken to a convent from which she departed, again in search of her brother. She was picked up on the streets by soldiers at 3.45 am and handed over to the police. They evidently arranged for her to be accommodated at St Joseph’s Training School for two days before she made her statement.
It was apparently decided that the statement need not be disclosed because it was not material to the issues in the case. Mr Langdale submitted that this was a perfectly reasonable decision and further submitted that, even if the statement should have been disclosed, the failure to disclose it was not a material irregularity. He added that at any rate some of the information contained in the statement had come out in the course of the trial as part of the evidence given by Sgt Coleman for the prosecution and by the appellant herself. As we have said, Sgt Coleman did indeed speak of the appellant as having stated to him, in the course of an interview on 3 September 1972, that she had passed herself off as being 14 years and 8 months old whilst in Northern Ireland and absent without leave and linked this with statements made by the appellant about visits to inmates of Long Kesh
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as a carrier for the IRA. The appellant, for her part, when giving evidence, spoke of staying at a convent in Newry during the same period and added that, ‘this was at the time of my visiting Long Kesh and I passed myself off as being 14 years and 8 months because Theresa O’Connell is a juvenile.’
In our judgment, the statement of 22 March 1972 should have been disclosed. Taken by itself, it may well have been thought to have no bearing on the question of the appellant’s responsibility for the offences with which she was charged, but when compared with the other accounts of this period given by the appellant including those contained in the evidence of Sgt Reynard and in the trial itself, its relevance to the crucial problem of discovering the truth or falseness of the appellant’s various statements becomes apparent. We bear fully in mind the dangers of judging the matter with hindsight and in the light of the fresh evidence from the psychiatrists but it seems to us that the statement threw enough additional light upon the appellant’s powers of deception and unreliability for it to have been disclosable.
We take the same view of an undisclosed statement made by Pc Open on 19 March 1974. On 16 September 1973 the appellant and her friend Elaine Gateley, with whom she shared a hotel room, had reported the theft of property belonging to Miss Gateley from that room. Pc Open visited the room on 2 October 1973 and found it to be filled with IRA posters and other material of that type. He made a joke of the posters and the frequent bomb hoaxes at the hotel and the appellant stated that there would be no bombs in the hotel whilst she was staying there. In a general conversation regarding fingerprints the appellant said, ‘Oh yes mate. I had them done in Derry. They said I had planted a bomb but they couldn’t make it stick.’
Again it may be said that, at any rate at first sight, the statement had no direct bearing upon the issues in the case. But it will be remembered that 16 September 1973 was only six days after the bomb explosion at Euston and after the detention of the appellant and Miss Gateley in connection with it. It may well be that, if the appellant’s advisers had been given Pc Open’s name and address and had sought a statement from him, they would not have wished to call him as a witness but that was a matter for them. Here too we would say, even after making allowance for the distorted vision of hindsight, that the attention-seeking behaviour of the appellant, if she were in fact guilty of the Euston bombing, was so bizarre as to merit further consideration by the defence and the opportunity to look into the matter should have been given to them.
The next undisclosed interview which must be recorded is one which was described by Det Sgt McFarland of the RUC in a witness statement made on 8 March 1974. Det Sgt McFarland also gave evidence before us. In his statement and in his oral evidence, he spoke of an interview with the appellant on 18 November 1973 during which he questioned her about her possible involvement with the IRA. At first she said, ‘I don’t know anything about it. I have never been involved.' During further questioning she stated, ‘I have brought guns up to Belfast on several occasions’, adding that they were revolvers and that she had brought them in her handbag. A short time after that, she again denied ever being involved with the IRA. When asked why she boasted about bringing guns to Belfast she replied, ‘It was just something to say, I know that’s what you want me to say.' Mr McFarland’s statement closed with the words, ‘I formed the opinion that the appellant was not mentally stable and that she could be easily persuaded to say or do anything.’
It will be remembered that gunrunning was the first of the assertions which Mr Cobb had levelled against the appellant in his closing speech.
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In his oral evidence Det Sgt McFarland added that in 1973 he had been a detective sergeant for a number of years and had had quite a few dealings with those suspected of terrorist activities and crimes. He felt that he had a reasonable insight into their organisation. He thought that the appellant’s claim to be gunrunning for the Provisional IRA was total nonsense. That organisation would not trust a person of her mentality at that time. From talking to her, he formed the view that she was not mentally stable. He reported his view to his seniors in the RUC. She was released and helped onto a boat to England the same day.
There can be no doubt that the defence should have been given Det Sgt McFarland’s record of the interview. His account of the appellant’s admission and denial of gunrunning activities was plainly relevant to an issue in the case. Further, as with Det Insp Hylands, his view of her confession might usefully have been elicited by the defence when he gave evidence. In saying this we must make it abundantly clear that we are not suggesting that the belief of a particular police officer in the innocence of the defendant makes him a disclosable witness. A belief in the defendant’s innocence by a police officer, or any other witness, is no more admissible or relevant than a belief in the defendant’s guilt. But it is a factor to be borne in mind when considering whether the evidence of a particular witness is significant enough for the defence to be given the opportunity of obtaining it in the interests of fairness. In the case of Det Sgt McFarland it is arguable this his evidence upon her unreliability was admissible in its own right. In Cross on Evidence (7th edn, 1990) p 498 it is stated:
‘In some cases a non-expert witness has been allowed to give evidence of opinion on a subject on which expert testimony would have been admissible. Acquaintances of a person whose sanity is in issue may be asked whether they consider him sane, but this is not so much a demand for an opinion as a “compendious mode of ascertaining the result of the actual observations of the witness”. Did the witness observe any action by the accused characteristically associated with persons of dubious sanity?’
Mr Langdale pointed out that this passage only referred to cases where ‘sanity is in issue’, and in the present case it was not. Nor, of course, was the existence of the personality disorder which Dr MacKeith and Dr Bowden have now diagnosed. The admissibility of the observations made by Det Sgt McFarland, as a very experienced observer of the mentalities of terrorists, might more usefully be considered in the context of the fresh evidence which we have received than in the context of whether he should have been made available to the defence as a witness of unreliability at the trial. For the reason which we have already given, however, we are satisfied that, whether or not his opinion as such was admissible, his statement describing his interview with the appellant should have been disclosed.
We turn next to the statement of Det Supt Wilson describing a series of interviews with the appellant which he and other officers conducted on 15 February 1974, the day after she had been found by police in a doorway at Liverpool and detained. As we have said, no evidence was given at the trial about these interviews. It will be remembered that at this stage the appellant had been neither cautioned nor arrested. She was first cautioned on the afternoon of 16 February and was arrested at 9.55 pm that evening.
The interviews described by Det Supt Wilson consisted of six separate question and answer sessions, the first beginning at 11.00 am and the last at 4.10 pm. For most of the time Det Supt Edington was present and he and Det Supt Wilson
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took it in turns to question the appellant. For a short time in the afternoon they were joined by Det Chief Supt Nevill, who also asked the appellant a number of questions. All three officers were from New Scotland Yard. Det Supt Wilson was serving in the Special Branch.
On the previous day she had made the long voluntary statement to the Merseyside Police, exhibit 38, which we have earlier described. As we have noted, it is clear that parts of the statement were untrue, though the jury were not to know that. For example, she said in it, as she was to say again in evidence at her trial, that her father was born in Eire, County Offaly. The fresh evidence before us includes a copy of his birth certificate, which states that he was born in Stockport. Later in the statement, as we have mentioned, she spoke of coming to London in September 1973 and making contact with Brendan Magill, who was to figure prominently in her later statements as a supporter of the IRA and supplier of explosives. Brendan Magill is identified in the notes made by Det Chief Supt Baines as a man who had previously been convicted of possessing explosives for which he had been sentenced to two years’ imprisonment but no connection was established between him and the offences of which the appellant was convicted. The statement also spoke, as we have said, of the appellant being approached by a man called O’Reilly, whom she met in a public house called the Ducie Arms in Manchester, and asked to ‘suss out’ Manchester Airport. Det Chief Supt Baines reports that it has proved impossible to identify such an O’Reilly, or any connection between the Ducie Arms and IRA sympathisers or activities.
The interviews on 15 February began with questions to the appellant about her statement of the previous day and then ranged widely over the subject of her contacts with Sinn Fein and the IRA, including meetings with named individuals who were either known or suspected to be members of the latter organisation. She admitted such meetings and spoke favourably of the IRA but criticised their training methods. She denied carrying out any activities on behalf of the IRA in England. The relevant questions (put by Det Supt Wilson) and answers were as follows:
‘Q. Have you ever done anything in this country for the IRA. A. Never.
Q. Have you ever been asked to do something for them. A. Never.
Q. If you had been asked would you. A. Never.
Q. Are you in favour of carrying on the war in this country. A. No.
Q. There have been all kinds of bombs here, some have killed and maimed, do you know anything about them. A. No.
Q. In Ireland and England you’ve been a dedicated Sinn Feiner. A. Yes.
Q. I find it difficult under these circumstances to think that you know nothing. A. No they’re two different groups.
Q. Are you not more than a follower. A. If I wanted to be in it—the Army that is I’d be in it.
Q. Can’t Sinn Fein lead to other organisations. A. Yes.
Q. Are you saying you didn’t want to (join the IRA). A. Yes.’
The appellant also denied that she knew Stuart McMorrow or Marlyn Coyle when these names were put to her by Det Chief Supt Nevill. This appears to have been the first occasion on which those names figured in the case.
The interview was plainly relevant to issues in the trial, and was therefore plainly disclosable. Mr Bibby told us that it was not disclosed on the advice of counsel, Mr Walsh. It was, however, referred to in a letter written by Mr Bibby to Mr Ollier on 26 September 1974. In the third paragraph of that letter Mr Bibby wrote:
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‘I understand that there were interviews with the defendant and senior police officers on Friday 15th February concerning antecedent and certain peripheral matters, details of which I do not propose to adduce at the trial.’
This wording closely followed the written advice given by Mr Walsh on 24 September, extracts from which have been put before us by Mr Langdale, legal professional privilege having been waived by the Director of Public Prosecutions. To be precise, para 4 of that advice, so far as relevant, reads:
‘Will Mr. Bibby please write to the defendant’s solicitors to inform them … (c) That he “understands that there were interviews with the defendant generally about her antecedents and of a peripheral nature on the 15th February 1974, the details of which the prosecution does not propose to adduce in evidence.” ’
Paragraph 9 states: ‘This written advice confirms my telephone conversation earlier today with Mr. Bibby.’
In cross-examination, Mr Bibby accepted that the matters discussed in the interviews were central to the issues in the case. He could not explain the use of the word ‘peripheral’. He added that ‘in general terms we were very conscious of security at that time’ and in re-examination he said that the fact that much of the material contained in the interviews was also to be found in other interviews and evidence which were before the jury would have weighed with him.
With the assistance of Det Chief Supt Baines, Mr Langdale also put before us a letter dated 16 September 1974 written by Det Chief Supt Oldfield of the West Yorkshire Police to the Director of Public Prosecutions. It refers to a statement by Det Supt Edington dealing with the interviews of 15 February. In its edited version, which we approved, the second paragraph of the letter reads:
‘This statement was not included in the original papers passed to you because at that time Detective Chief Inspector Wilson of the Metropolitan Police was involved, and any disclosure of his identity could have placed him in considerable personal danger.’
We were also shown an extract from a report made by Det Chief Supt Nevill on 11 September 1974 which refers to the interview and which states: ‘For security reasons it is requested that Detective Chief Inspector Wilson is not called to give evidence unless it is absolutely vital.’
The inference must be that the motive for the decision to withhold the interview from disclosure, and to refer to them in correspondence in terms which can only be described as misleading, was concern for the safety of Det Chief Insp Wilson and fear of jeopardising the anti-terrorist activities upon which he was engaged. The motive was right. The decision was wrong. There should have been no difficulty in putting the substance of the interviews before the jury with the co-operation of the defence, or by direction of the judge, without Det Chief Insp Wilson being involved. Indeed, there is no apparent reason why Det Supt Edington and Det Chief Supt Nevill should not have dealt with, at any rate, the bulk of the interviews in their evidence (both of them were called as witnesses, but did not refer to the interviews) without Det Chief Insp Wilson making an appearance. It was wholly wrong for Mr Walsh to draft, and for Mr Bibby to adopt, the language of the letter of 26 September 1974. This letter seriously misrepresented the position. It was calculated to give the impression to the defence that the interviews were of no material significance and that is precisely what it did. Mr Ollier told us: ‘Having regard to the contents of that paragraph I took the view, rightly or wrongly, that [the interviews] were not relevant.’
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It is true that most of the matters discussed in the interviews were also discussed in other interviews and statements of which the jury were made aware, but the jury did not know of the appellant’s denials of ‘guilty’ in the answers which we have quoted. The appellant was entitled to have these denials taken into account and set against what she had said in her interview with Det Sgt Hayes and in her written statement of the previous day. The non-disclosure of the interviews of 15 February amounted to a material irregularity in the course of her trial.
There are three other matters of which complaint is made in this category and which require mention. The first is the non-disclosure of the fact that statements had been taken from Joseph Mooney, Brendan Magill and Alexander Rowntree, all of whom had been named by the appellant at various times as being implicated in terrorist offences. No evidence was found to support the allegations made against them. All of them, in their statements, admitted knowing the appellant but denied the assertions which she had made against them. The names and addresses of these witnesses and the fact that they had made statements, if no more, were plainly disclosable to the defence under the R v Bryant and Dickson (1946) 31 Cr App R 146 rule.
The second matter concerns Joseph Mooney. In his case the non-disclosure went a stage further. He had made statements to the police in February and May 1974 and the address which he gave was 72 Dyne Road, Kilburn. We have mentioned that, when first detained in Liverpool on 14 February 1974, the appellant had spoken of staying with a Jane Rooney of that address and had repeated this in her statement, exhibit 38, of the same day. In her interviews with Det Chief Insp Wilson, and on later occasions, she spoke of Jane Mooney and Joe Mooney as living at that same address. Although Mr Ollier had difficulty in remembering the details of the event, he was able to tell us, by reference to his files, that he had taken out a witness summons in the name of a Miss Jane Mooney on 16 September 1974 and had visited 72 Dyne Road the following day with a view to speaking to her or to Mr Joseph Mooney. According to his file note, he was told on his arrival that no one of the name of Mooney lived there.
On 18 September 1974 Mr Ollier wrote a letter which referred to the fact that he had had the opportunity of interviewing a Mrs Perera and Elaine Gateley. The letter to the Director of Public Prosecutions continued:
‘They inform us that they have been interviewed by the Prosecution and that statements had been taken from them. We are extremely surprised to learn this in view of the fact that where the Prosecution have taken a statement from a person whom they know can give material evidence but decide not to call them, they are under a duty to make that person available for the defence. The authority for this is R. v Bryant and Dickson. We shall be obliged if you will kindly confirm that there are no other persons from whom a statement has been taken who can give material evidence but whom the prosecution have decided not to call. If so, will you kindly let us have their names and addresses immediately. In particular, will you kindly inform us whether the prosecution have interviewed a Joe Mooney or a Jane Mooney both formerly of 72 Dyne Road, Kilburn, London. If so, will you kindly inform us of their present whereabouts.’
A reply was sent from the Director of Public Prosecutions’ office on 23 September 1974. It was signed by Mr Bourke but drafted by Mr Bibby. It said:
‘I thank you for your letter of 18th September which will have crossed my letter of 18th September. Extensive enquiries have been made in the Kilburn area by the police, and no trace of the existence of a Joe Mooney or a Jane Mooney has been found.’
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It will be noted that Mr Ollier’s emphatic reminder of the rule in R v Bryant and Dickson was not acknowledged and appears to have remained entirely unheeded. The second paragraph of the letter was, of course, simply wrong so far as Joseph Mooney was concerned. As we have said, he had made statements to the police giving the address 72 Dyne Road in February and in May 1974. These statements were actually forwarded by the police to the Director of Public Prosecutions, though we cannot be certain that this occurred before 23 September. At all events, Mr Bibby told us that he was sure that he would have checked with the police before drafting the letter of that date. His recollection of the incident was faint but he thought that he had spoken to an officer in the Bomb Squad. He could not remember who the officer was, save that it was not one with whom he normally dealt.
Finally, under this heading, we must deal with the appellant’s complaint that her advisers never received the medical reports of Dr Lawson and Dr Mather. As will be seen, Dr Lawson made two full reports upon the appellant. The first, which was in handwriting and was presumably an internal prison service report, was on 6 July 1974. The second, which was addressed to the Director of Public Prosecutions, was made on 4 September 1974. Dr Mather, who was consulted as an independent psychiatrist, made his report to the Director of Public Prosecutions on 18 September 1974. These reports reveal that on 5 July 1974 the appellant had attempted to commit suicide and had been diagnosed by Dr Lawson as suffering from an acute psychotic depression. In evidence before us Mr Ollier said that he felt quite confident in saying that he had not seen them ‘because those reports indicate that she had a psychiatric problem and that issue was not a matter which I took into consideration at the trial but I would have done if I had seen those reports’.
Mr Bibby and Mr Sage were confident, for their part, that the medical reports must have been sent to Mr Ollier. They said that it was standard procedure in a murder case. Copies would go automatically to the court, to the prosecution and to the defence. Mr Sage spoke of a printed form which would be at the front of the file in a murder case, setting out a list of matters to be recorded and these matters would include the receipt and dispatch of medical reports. There was, however, no such form in the appellant’s file and Mr Bibby thought that the form did not come into existence until after 1974. When asked by the court what system was in existence for dispatching material to Mr Ollier, he said that there was no system; he was in regular contact with Mr Sage and they dealt with the matter between them.
Mr Bibby and Mr Sage confirmed that there was no letter or other record on the file covering the forwarding of the medical reports to Mr Ollier. At one stage Mr Bibby suggested that he might have handed them to Mr Sage on one of the latter’s visits to the Director of Prosecutions’ office in London, so that Mr Sage could deliver them personally to Mr Ollier and defence counsel, but Mr Sage was sure that this had not occurred.
All that does appear from the office diary and correspondence file is that (1) on 21 August 1974 a note was sent to prosecuting counsel telling them of the appellant’s suicide attempt, (2) on 23 August 1974 Dr Lawson telephoned the Director of Public Prosecutions’ office asking for the depositions and saying that an independent psychiatrist had been called in: the papers were sent to him that day together with a covering letter in standard form signed by Mr Bibby, (3) in response to a telephone call on 3 September, Dr Lawson said that the reports would arrive early next week: the diary note adds, ‘nothing in them’, (4) on 9 September the prison medical officer’s report (in the singular—presumably Dr Lawson’s report of 4 September) is noted as having been received and
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dispatched to the copying room, (5) on 11 September copies of the report were sent to the three prosecuting counsel, to Mr Bibby and to New Scotland Yard and the Thames Valley and West Yorkshire Police and (6) on 19 September the Director of Public Prosecutions’ office in London received a letter from Dr Mather enclosing his report: there is a note on the letter in Mr Bibby’s handwriting saying, ‘12 copies of this report, please.’
This last note is consistent, and Mr Langdale submits only consistent, with the standard procedure being followed and with sufficient copies of the report being obtained for the defence as well as the court, the prosecution and the police.
We are bound to say, however, that, in the absence of any comprehensive system for recording the receipt and dispatch of reports and other material, it cannot, in our view, be assumed that the standard procedure was followed. On the contrary, such records as do exist seem to us to point in the opposite direction, at any rate so far as Dr Lawson’s report is concerned. It is to be noted that the information about the suicide attempt of 5 July is recorded as having been given to the prosecution lawyers but not to the defence lawyers and similarly that Dr Lawson’s report is recorded as having been sent to the prosecution lawyers and the police but not to the defence. Further, we think it most unlikely that Mr Ollier and the very experienced counsel (Mr Andrew Rankin QC) who represented the appellant at her trial would have omitted to obtain a further psychiatric report upon the appellant if they had seen Dr Lawson’s report to the Director of Public Prosecutions. (Dr Mather’s report was much more favourable and might not have aroused concern.) Whether further psychiatric advice at that stage would have led to a diagnosis of mental disorder, of the kind now made by Dr MacKeith and Dr Bowden, is, of course, another matter and one upon which we cannot usefully speculate. There is no question, however, but that the reports should have been seen by the appellant’s advisers and we think it is established on the balance of probability that Dr Lawson’s at least was not. It is not suggested that the reports were deliberately withheld from the defence by Mr Bibby but the failure to disclose them both was none the less a material irregularity.
3. Dr Lawson and Dr Mather
As we have said, Dr Lawson made two full reports upon the appellant. The handwritten report dated 6 July 1974 was evidently prompted by the suicide attempt which had occurred during the previous night. The report states:
‘Ward appeared very well until 5.7.74, when the discipline staff noted that her mood was changing, and about 23.00 hours on this day, she scratched her L wrist. The wound was trivial, but the desire for death was acute. When I examined her at length on 6.7.74, she was withdrawn, tearful, retarded, silent and intensely suicidal. In short, she has an acute psychotic depression of rapid onset. At this stage, I feel I must say, that precipitate or impulsive action would be most unwise, and that for the present, the clinical management should remain at Risley. At the moment, Judith Ward is unfit to plead and it must be faced squarely, that her life is in some danger. In short we have an acute psychiatric emergency on our hands.’
The report goes on to discuss the political implications and dangers of the appellant’s illness and possible death and the need to be prepared for a possible leakage of information. Dr Lawson describes himself as ‘satisfied that she is NOT malingering, [nor] has she produced these symptoms in some attempt to evade trial’. He says it is obvious that the Crown will require independent psychiatric opinion and that he intends to consult Dr Mather. It is plain that, although the appellant’s self-inflicted wounds were trivial in themselves, the incident was
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regarded by Dr Lawson as one of the utmost gravity. His report of 6 July 1974 was not sent to the Director of Public Prosecutions and appears to have remained undisclosed until now. We make no criticism on that score because, as we have said, it was evidently an internal report.
In his typewritten report to the Director of Public Prosecutions of 4 September 1974 Dr Lawson presents a more reassuring picture. It says:
‘She was committed for trial to Wakefield Crown Court on the 24th June, 1974 and on the 6th July, 1974 it was reported to me that her behaviour had changed. [We interpose to observe that the appellant was, in fact, committed for trial on 11 June. On 24 June there had been a pre-trial hearing before Cumming-Bruce J.] Up to this time she had been alert, and surprisingly cheerful. However on the 6th July, 1974 she managed to scratch her wrists in some way and when I saw her she was withdrawn, retarded, silent, tearful and intensely suicidal. At this stage it was obvious that she had an acute psychotic depression and as she was refusing medication, I did consider her life to be in danger. However, due to the efforts of our very devoted and disciplined staff she was persuaded to take treatment and she gradually improved. In view of the serious nature of this case, I asked Dr. H. Northage Mather—Consultant Psychiatrist—to see her as an independent Psychiatrist to see her on behalf of the Crown. He agreed with my diagnosis and treatment and by the 12th July we were satisfied that Ward was improving and by the 1st August, 1974, we classified her as “relieved”.’
What this report does not disclose is that there had been a further incident on 24 August, when the appellant had damaged her wrists. This was discovered by Dr MacKeith when he studied the Risley notes and records concerning the appellant. He found a letter written by Prison Officer Scott to the governor on that day, stating that:
‘I report for your information that at 10.50 pm the female night orderly officer, S/O Martin, informed me that she suspected that this inmate was attempting to cut her wrists. On my arriving at the female wing her cell was unlocked and she was examined by the Hospital sister. Ward had minute abrasions on both wrists. They appeared to have been caused by her rubbing them on the bed straps. As she was upset and very emotional, I instructed the female night orderly officer to put her Category A staff on special watch, as has been the routine over the past few weeks and to fully report the matter to the medical officer am. The Hospital sister gave her medication, and she spent a restful night. Dr. Lawson was in the prison on another matter, and I informed him of Ward’s state.’
There is a handwritten note at the bottom of the letter, in writing other than that of Prison Officer Scott, saying, ‘To Dr. Lawson for information please.’
There is also a letter to the governor dated 25 August 1974 from S/O Martin, who had been keeping the appellant under observation. The letter says:
‘She settled down to sleep, eyes closed, and about 5 minutes later it appeared as though she was rubbing her wrists under the covers … it was found both Ward’s wrists were scratched. It was decided to have a night officer with her for the rest of the night. Ward stated she hadn’t done this because she was locked up or worried about her trial. Refused to state reason …’
In giving evidence before us Dr Lawson stated that he had no recollection of the incident whatever. At first he was inclined to suggest that he might have been
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on holiday at the time, but when shown the letter from Prison Officer Scott he accepted that the incident must have been reported to him. He was wholly unable to offer an explanation for his apparent failure to take any action in the matter, save that at Risley he was working under great pressure and with inadequate resources. He denied that, when he wrote the report, he was toning things down. He said that he thought he had signalled his views of the appellant’s mental state loud and clear in the first sentence of his opinion in which he had said:
‘I would say at this stage that Ward cannot be described as a very truthful person, in that she has changed her story to me several times and I have never been satisfied that she has been as horror struck by the incident as she claims to be.’
He said that he was amazed when he was not called to give evidence at the appellant’s trial, and was very surprised that no psychiatrist was instructed on her behalf.
It is clear that when writing his report of 4 September 1974 Dr Lawson did tone things down, quite apart from his failure to record the incident of 24 August. The report states that by 1 August the appellant was classified as ‘relieved’, but Dr Lawson’s note of 2 August describes her merely as ‘improved’ and adds that ‘treatment requires to be maintained’. On 9 August he noted: ‘Today she is weeping, withdrawn and silent as she was in early July.' It was not until 21 August that Dr Lawson felt able to report to the governor: ‘This inmate’s clinical condition is now satisfactory.’
This accords with a letter written by Dr Lawson to the regional principal medical officer on 23 November 1982, in which he said: ‘During the remand period she had a severe reactive depression between 6 July and 21 August.’
We must add that we are unable to accept Dr Lawson’s statement that he had signalled his views of the appellant’s mental state loud and clear in the first sentence of his opinion, which we have quoted above. That sentence records, in muted terms, Dr Lawson’s assessment of the appellant’s powers of deception and self-deception, but it fails to meet Mr Mansfield’s submission that Dr Lawson had put the interests of secrecy and of security before the interests of the appellant, who was his patient. Dr Lawson admitted that he had not told the appellant’s family, let alone her solicitor, about the acute psychosis which he had diagnosed.
Dr Mather’s report, dated 18 September 1974, dealt with the subject in these terms:
‘On July 6th, 1974 it is reported that her behaviour changed, that she scratched her wrist with a needle, became withdrawn, tearful and suicidal refusing to speak. She was kept under constant supervision and an antidepressant drug was prescribed for her. To this she responded rapidly and has been quite well ever since.’
Thus his report too made no mention of the incident on 24 August, and gave the impression of a prompt and complete recovery from the incident of 6 July. Dr Mather had visited the appellant at Risley on 13 July and 17 September, and had kept in touch with Dr Lawson by telephone. He stated in his evidence that he was aware of the second suicide attempt but when asked what was said about it by him and Dr Lawson he answered: ‘That I cannot tell you. I cannot remember.' Asked if it did not alert him possibly to the fact that she had not recovered and was still prone to suicide he answered: ‘Not particularly, because one quite often gets behaviour of attempted suicides and this sort of thing in a large remand prison.' When asked again by the court whether he did not attach significance to the injury to the wrists on 24 August he answered: ‘Not particularly,
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no.' These answers are astonishing both in their own right, and in the light of the anxiety caused by the earlier wrist cutting incident.
We can only assume that if the incident of 24 August in fact registered in Dr Lawson’s mind and was notified to Dr Mather (as to which we feel considerable doubt, despite Dr Mather’s recollection that he was aware of it) then both doctors must have succeeded in persuading themselves that it was of no significance. Its non-disclosure none the less plainly amounts to a material irregularity. If it had been disclosed, together with the other information contained in the reports of Dr Lawson and Dr Mather, it was evidence which established beyond doubt that the defence required the assistance of psychiatric advice.
4. The forensic scientists
The non-disclosure of evidence by the forensic scientists who gave evidence for the prosecution is a matter whose significance must be considered in the context of the scientific evidence as a whole. To this we now turn.
THE SCIENTIFIC EVIDENCE: GROUNDS OF APPEAL A AND D
The role of the prosecution’s scientific evidence of the trial of the appellant was to lend cogent support to the reliability of her confessions. The confessions of the appellant amounted to a clear acknowledgment by her that she had played a part in causing the explosions at Euston station, on the coach travelling along the M62 motorway and at the National Defence College, Latimer. But at the trial there was a real issue about the reliability of the appellant’s confessions, and about the truth of what she had said in the confessions. By and large the defence accepted that she had made the statements attributed to her by the police but the appellant testified, and the defence argued, that the confessions were untrue. The scientific evidence was the basis on which the prosecution asserted that the appellant had at critical times been in contact with NG in relation to all three explosions. Given that the appellant denied that she had been in contact with explosives, the scientific evidence led by the prosecution struck at the heart of the appellant’s credibility. To the jury a combination of her confessions and the supporting scientific evidence linked with all three explosions would have seemed compelling proof of the appellant’s guilt.
The shape of the prosecution’s scientific case
Newspaper reports for Saturday, 2 November 1974 stated that on the previous day Waller J had made some trenchant comments to the jury about the defence case. The judge apparently said—
‘that Miss Ward’s case, in a nutshell, as put by Mr Andrew Rankin QC, for the defence, was that she was a pathological liar and, once [the jury] had found she was telling lies about one thing, they could not tell what was true or false. The case was also that, although there had been four occasions in six or eight months when something resembling traces of nitroglycerine had been found either on Miss Ward or on her belongings, “this is the most appalling series of coincidences”. The defence contended that “the first one must have come from debris; the second was found in a caravan which most unfortunately must have been used by a safe blower, and the last two were found by somebody who drew the wrong conclusion from his test”.’
It will be noted that the judge referred to four occasions when something resembling NG had been found either on the appellant or on her belongings. It is right that we should describe those four occasions straight away.
The first occasion was when at 11.20 pm on 10 September 1973, some 10 hours after the Euston station explosion, swabs were taken from the hands and under the fingernails of James Diamond, Elaine Gateley and the appellant. The samples
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were tested at the laboratory of the forensic section of RARDE at Woolwich. At the trial the prosecution led evidence that the tests on swabs from the appellant showed ‘faint traces’ of NG. This conclusion was not disputed but the defence contended that the appellant had been accidentally contaminated, directly or via Diamond, by debris from the explosion.
The second occasion involved a duffle bag and a raffia bag which the appellant had placed on a train which left Euston station at 11.15 pm on 11 September 1974. At the trial Dr Skuse, a chemist from the Home Office Forensic Science Laboratory at Chorley, testified that swabs from the duffle bag gave a positive test result for NG. The defence case was that a proper identification of NG had not been established. This occasion came seven days after the M62 explosion, and ten hours before the explosion at Latimer. The prosecution case was that these test results established a link between the appellant and the explosion at Latimer.
The third occasion must now be described. After the appellant was taken into custody in Liverpool on 14 February Dr Skuse took swabs from her hands and under her fingernails. Dr Skuse was satisfied that the tests revealed a positive reaction for a substance similar to NG. At the trial the issue was whether this finding was correct. The prosecution contended that this occasion was linked with the explosion at Latimer.
The fourth occasion relied on by the prosecution related back to the period during which the appellant had stayed in the caravan at Chipping Norton. It will be recalled that after a brief stay at Chipping Norton the appellant packed her belongings and left the caravan on 4 February. That was the very day on which the M62 coach explosion took place. The relevance of this occasion depends on swabs taken inside the caravan at Chipping Norton at midnight on 21 February by Mr Higgs, the head of the forensic section of RARDE, and on swabs taken on 25 February by Mr Elliott, a higher scientific officer of RARDE, inside the caravan after it had been moved to Woolwich. The prosecution case was that this evidence linked the appellant with the M62 explosion. This is all that needs to be said by way of introduction about the context of the four occasions on which the prosecution alleged that there was NG, or something similar, on the person of the appellant or on her belongings. It will now be convenient to group our discussion of the test results under three headings, namely the test results of the Euston samples, the caravan samples and the samples taken by Dr Skuse, the latter test results covering both samples taken from the appellant’s hands and under her fingernails as well as test results of swabs from the duffle bag.
THE SCIENTIFIC TESTS
In the IRA bombing campaign in mainland Britain during 1973 and 1974 the IRA used NG as an explosive substance, sometimes with an addition of dinitrotoluene (DNT) to give it greater explosive force. NG is a pale yellow, heavy oily substance which explodes with great violence when subjected to sudden shock or detonation. By 1973 various tests had been developed to detect the presence of NG. There was the Griess test, of which there were several variants. It is a test which is designed to detect nitrite. Since nitrite is not present as such in NG, caustic soda is used to convert NG to nitrite. The addition of the Griess reagent to a material containing nitrite results in the development of a pink colour within ten seconds. It was regarded as a preliminary test which, if positive, would lead to the application of the more sensitive thin layer chromatography (TLC) test. In a memorandum dated 22 May 1991 Dr A W Scaplehorn of the DRA described this technique as follows:
‘Thin layer chromatography (TLC) is a technique whereby a mixture of substances in solution can be separated from each by applying them to one
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side of a flat plate coated with absorbent inert material such as silica or alumina. The insertion of the edge of the plate where the mixture has been spotted into a solvent causes the components of the mixture to migrate up the plate and the distance travelled is governed amongst other things, by the chemical nature of the compound and the solvent. Different compounds will travel different distances in relation to the solvent front.’
The test is performed with a suspect sample and a control sample. It is common ground that the distance travelled by each spot from its starting point is characteristic of the compound forming the spot, and this assists in the identification of the compound. The distance is conventionally measured relative to the final distance travelled by the eluent (the solvent). The ratio of the distances is known as the Rf value for the compound. If the suspect sample travels the same distance as the control sample, and it turns pink when a Griess reagent is applied, NG has been identified.
In this case samples were sent to the Home Office Research Establishment at Aldermaston for gas chromatography/mass spectrometry (GCMS) tests to be done. The samples were rejected as unacceptable and no GCMS testing took place.
THF TEST RESULTS
It will now be necessary to examine with as much precision as possible the test results in respect of the swabs taken at Euston, in Liverpool and in the caravan. This exercise is possible in respect of the Euston and caravan test results in the light of contemporary RARDE chemical analysis sheets and notebooks which were disclosed in 1991. Unfortunately, the corresponding documentation for Dr Skuse’s test results is no longer available.
On 10 September 1973 Det Sgt Brian Vickery collected the swabs at Euston. He used hand test kits issued by the laboratory at Woolwich. He took swabs from the hands and under the fingernails of James Diamond, Elaine Gateley and the appellant. The samples were analysed by TLC in the laboratory at Woolwich. Mr Elliott was in charge. It is now clear from chemical analysis sheets, which were disclosed by RARDE in 1991, that the test results were as follows:
Nitroglycerine
Dry swab Ether swab Nail scrapings
right left right left right left
James Diamond positive positive positive positive trace trace
Elaine Gateley trace trace trace trace trace negative
Judith Ward faint trace negative faint trace negative negative negative
Exactly the same results were recorded for DNT.
On 14 February 1974 Dr Skuse took a series of samples from the appellant at the Merseyside Police Headquarters in Liverpool. He took swabs from the appellant’s right and left hands and from her right and left fingernail crevices. On 15 and 16 February 1974 he took samples from her eternity ring and from her brown duffle bag. Using the modified Griess test Dr Skuse obtained positive results for the presence of NG in respect of the fingernail swabs, the eternity ring and the brown duffle bag. These tests were done at the police station. Subsequently, in a laboratory, Dr Skuse attempted to confirm by TLC the presence of NG in the swabs taken under the appellant’s fingernails. The TLC result was negative in respect of the swabs from the right fingernail crevices. But in the case of swabs taken from the left fingernail crevices Dr Skuse professed to see a spot at the same position as NG was seen. He described it as a shadow and colourless. In due course Dr Skuse was to testify that this test supported his view that NG was present. Dr Skuse sent swabs taken from the appellant’s fingernails to Aldermaston
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for GCMS testing but as we have said the testing did not take place. No confirmatory tests were done in respect of the samples from the eternity ring and the duffle bag: lack of intensity on the Griess test made Dr Skuse believe that it would be pointless to try.
That brings us to the series of samples taken from the caravan by Mr Higgs on 21 February and by Mr Elliott on 25 February. Mr Higgs took his swabs under the bed and in adjoining areas. There is before us a chemical analysis sheet which shows that the TLC process yielded negative results in respect of all samples except one from under the bed, which was entered as ‘NG Rf=0.50 v. faint +ve’. Mr Elliott took further samples from the floor under the bed and at the bottom of the cupboard. The chemical analysis sheet records in respect of the first showed ‘NG +ve v. faint trace’ and in respect of the second ‘NG +ve (faint)’. The laboratory notes give Rf values of 0.07, 0.10 and 0.05 for the three caravan test results. The chemical analysis sheets and the laboratory notes were disclosed by RARDE in 1991.
THE PRE-TRIAL DISCLOSURE OF THE SCIENTIFIC EVIDENCE
Mr Mansfield asked us to examine the adequacy and fairness of the pre-trial disclosure of scientific evidence. He did not allege that any staff member of the Director of Public Prosecution’s office, or prosecuting counsel, failed to disclose any material scientific evidence. On the contrary, the thrust of Mr Mansfield’s submission is that government forensic scientists, acting on their own, concealed from the prosecution, the defence and the court matters material to the issues in the case. Mr Mansfield’s criticism was directed at the conduct of three senior RARDE officials, namely Mr Higgs, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman. Mr Mansfield did not suggest that the other members of the RARDE staff, that is Mr Lidstone, Mrs Brooker and Mrs Keeble, withheld information. Nor did Mr Mansfield contend that Dr Skuse withheld information.
That brings us to an examination of the non-disclosures alleged by Mr Mansfield. The starting point must be the Euston swabs. The chemical analysis sheets showed only two faint traces in respect of hand swabs in the case of the appellant, and more positive results in the case of Gateley and still more positive results in the case of Diamond. That was important since it was not alleged by the prosecution that Gateley and Diamond were involved in the Euston explosion. The relevant witness statement is that of Mr Elliott dated 18 February 1974. It was served on the defence and used at the committal proceedings. In respect of the Euston test Mr Elliott simply stated: ‘All gave positive results for Nitroglycerine and Dinitrotoluene.' This was a misleading statement for which Mr Elliott was responsible. The statement failed to distinguish between the test results for Diamond, Gateley and the appellant. Moreover, it was an overstatement to describe ‘a faint trace’ simply as ‘positive’. If the true results had been revealed we believe that the defence might have contested the conclusion that NG was present on the appellant or her belongings. In any event, the fact that only a faint trace was involved was relevant to the possibility of contamination. It was also wrong for the prosecution to serve such an uninformative witness statement on behalf of a forensic scientist. It was calculated to make it more difficult for the defence experts to probe the matter.
Dr Skuse’s statement is dated 25 February 1974. It was served on the defence and used at the committal proceedings. The relevant part of the statement reads as follows:
‘A positive colour reaction for a substance similar to nitroglycerine has been obtained from each of the swabs FS3 and FS4 [fingernail scrapings] and item 47 [the ring]. No confirmatory test for nitroglycerine was obtained
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from these swabs. Negative tests for ammonium and nitrate were obtained from these swabs. The examination of these items is consistent with the opinion that contact of the hands with an explosive substance could have occurred. Item 45 is a brown fabric bag [the duffle bag] fitted with a string grip. The bag and grip were swabbed and positive colour reactions were obtained for a substance similar to nitroglycerine and ammonium ion a part component of ammonium nitrate. No confirmatory tests for nitroglycerine and ammonium ion were obtained. A negative test for nitrate was obtained from these swabs. The examination of these items is consistent with the opinion that contact of the inside of the bag and commercial explosive has probably occurred.’
This was not an unfair summary of the view which Dr Skuse apparently held. But it is noteworthy that at the trial Dr Skuse’s evidence became more positive in his insistence on what he believed to be the correct inferences to be drawn from his tests.
The prosecution evidence served in respect of the caravan tests must now be considered. Mr Higgs’s witness statement is dated 25 March 1974. This statement was served on the defence and used at the committal proceedings. Mr Higgs said that one of his samples gave on a TLC test ‘a positive result for nitroglycerine’. That sample was apparently taken under the bed. Mr Higgs said that the samples taken by Mr Elliott on 25 February gave ‘a positive indication for nitroglycerine’. Mr Higgs said that the positive results for samples taken under the bed on different days—
‘could only have arisen from the placement thereon of a package, parcel or some form of container in which was contained a quantity of an explosive composition based on nitroglycerine.’
Mr Elliott’s witness statement is equally economical. He referred to the tests on the samples which he took and said: ‘From these results it is my opinion that explosive material has been present in the vehicle.' On any view both statements overstated the position. The chemical analysis sheets recorded the results as ‘v. faint’, ‘v. faint trace’ and ‘faint’. If the statements had disclosed the true position, it is likely that the defence experts would have probed this aspect. The statements were calculated to discourage investigation.
But Mr Mansfield’s complaint goes further. On 27 September 1974 Mr Higgs met Mr Clancey, the defence expert, at the caravan, which was then at Kiddlington Police Headquarters. At that time it would still have been possible for Mr Clancey to take further swabs. Mr Higgs said to Mr Clancey that the TLC ‘definitely’ established the presence of NG. That was a considerable overstatement of the true position. Relying on Mr Higgs’s assurance Mr Clancey did not take further samples. The inaccurate statements of Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott caused the defence to concede that the test results established the presence of NG in the caravan. Mr Elliott has died. We did, however, have the benefit of hearing Mr Higgs’s explanations in oral evidence. We find that Mr Higgs did not wish to reveal anything which might encourage investigation by the defence. He did not want to disclose the faintness of the traces or the details of the Rf values which were recorded in the laboratory notes.
So far we have discussed in general terms the inadequacy of disclosure of scientific evidence in the pre-trial process. It will now be convenient to discuss three specific challenges made by Mr Mansfield in respect of non-disclosure by the three RARDE forensic scientists, namely about discrepancies in Rf values, the conclusions drawn from certain boot polish experiments and the results of certain firing cell tests.
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NON-DISCLOSURE OF RF VALUES
At trial Mr Higgs said that for a positive TLC test to be recorded the centre of the control spot must be in line with the centre of the suspect spot. Today there is general agreement among responsible scientists that on a TLC test there must be a maximum variation of 0.03 before a suspect sample can be declared positive. There was some dispute at the trial about the question whether there was a practice regarding permissible variation in 1974. We are not satisfied that in 1974 any specific figure was accepted as a maximum variation, but we are persuaded that in 1974 it was accepted at RARDE that if the variation exceeded 0.05 the identification of NG would have been regarded as unreliable, particularly if the recording for a sample was ‘very faint’ or ‘faint’.
There are no surviving records which enable us to determine the Rf values for the TLC tests performed on the Euston and Liverpool samples. But fortunately the chemical analysis sheets and laboratory notes for the caravan samples are now available. These documents show that the caravan test results were recorded as ‘very faint’, ‘very faint trace’ and ‘faint’. On any view these recordings were at the margin of reportability. Given this context the details of the recorded RF values is important. The details are as follows:
Mr Higgs’s sample from under the bed Rf=0.50 (very faint)
NG control sample Rf=0.57
Mr Elliott’s sample from under the bed Rf=0.55 (very faint)
NG control sample Rf=0.65
Mr Elliott’s sample from the cupboard Rf=0.55 (very faint)
NG control sample Rf=0.60
The discrepancies therefore ranged from 0.05 to 0.1. Two of these discrepancies were beyond the acceptable maximum in 1974, and the third was in the grey area particularly in the light of recordings of ‘faint’ and ‘very faint’. If these discrepancies had been disclosed it would have weakened the prosecution case on the caravan samples; it would probably have caused the defence experts to challenge the validity of the caravan samples and it would probably have led to a parallel investigation of Rf values for the Euston and Liverpool TLC results which at that time would probably still have been available. It is sufficient to say that if the chemical analysis sheets and the laboratory notes for the caravan samples, or the substances of the information contained in those documents, had been disclosed in the pre-trial process, the course of the deployment of the scientific evidence at the trial may have been different.
NON-DISCLOSURE OF THL SHOE POLISH TESTS
The defence contention at the trial was that a TLC test can only be regarded as giving a positive result if the suspect spot matches the known NG spot both in position and colour. That involved saying that there might be a substance which produces a point in the right position for NG but which does not have the right colour. At the trial Mr Clancey said that there could be such a substance but he was unable to name one. That seemed a weakness in the defence case. But Mr Higgs, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman had superior knowledge which they suppressed. In 1973 Mr Elliott had carried out control tests at the Woolwich laboratory on samples of ten black shoe polishes to determine whether dyestuffs present in black shoe polish could interfere in the detection of NG and DNT by TLC. The result o f those tests is summarised in a supplementary DRA report dated March 1992 from Drs R W Hiley, D N Marshall and A Scaplehorn, which was placed before us by the prosecution. The authors of the report pointed out that the dye described as solvent yellow 56 (SY56) was found in some types of black shoe polish. Their conclusion was as follows:
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‘The primary discriminating factors in TLC analysis are Rf value and final spot colour. The dyestuff SY56 corresponds quite closely with NG in both respects, and is not a “chemical curiosity” but a substance which can be encountered in normal domestic life. It is not an explosive. The possibility that it might be confused with NG in TLC analysis must be carefully considered … In our view the possibility that the reported detections of NG in the caravan were in fact misidentifications of the dyestuff SY56 derived from shoe polish or another material is small but cannot be entirely excluded. Although our ether swab of shoe polish on a linoleum tile failed to produce any detectable TLC spots it was clearly possible for spots to be obtained from shoes and shoe polish since these are recorded in case file PP5985.’
Bearing in mind that the Euston and caravan test results established at the highest merely faint traces of the presence of NG, the significance of the experimental data regarding boot polish was obvious long before the trial began on 3 October 1974. And it was known in 1974 that the distinctive dyestuffs were present not only in certain boot polishes but also in a range of other commodities which were in common use. The results of these experiments were not revealed to the prosecution. Indeed in a RARDE memorandum, signed by Mr Higgs, in answer to a series of questions posed by prosecuting counsel, which was delivered to prosecuting counsel between 3 and 11 September 1974, Mr Higgs advised that there was no commodity which could on a TLC test mimic the reaction for NG in respect of colour, position and time of colour development. He added: ‘These three factors constitute an absolute test, in our opinion, for nitroglycerine.' It is probable, we find, that the memorandum was the combined work of Mr Higgs, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman. Having supervised the boot polish tests in 1973, Mr Elliott must have known that the advice to prosecuting counsel was incorrect and misleading. Mr Higgs said that he was unaware of these experimental data. He became head of the Woolwich laboratory in November 1973. He was an experienced chemist. He was the head of a closely-knit team of five forensic scientists. It is in our judgment inconceivable that Mr Higgs was not aware of these experimental data. We reject Mr Higgs’s evidence and find that he was fully aware of these data. But Mr Higgs did not want the prosecution and defence to know about these experiments.
In short, Mr Higgs’s attitude was that he was not going to reveal data which might weaken the prosecution case. Mr Berryman also denied that he was aware of the boot polish tests. We are satisfied that he was aware of these experimental data. About the materiality of the boot polish experiments there is no argument. The results of the experiments should have been disclosed to the prosecution, the defence and to the court.
NON-DISCLOSURE OF THE FIRING CELL TEST RESULTS
Towards the end of February 1974 Mr Higgs, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman knew that in respect of the Euston TLC results there would be an issue as to whether the appellant could have become contaminated by touching debris or as a result of physical contact with a companion. On 26 February 1974 a firing cell experiment was conducted at Woolwich. A recently disclosed RARDE notebook shows that a member of staff recorded a faint positive from one swab taken during the tests. This experiment was not disclosed before the trial. But at the trial Mr Higgs relied on it. He gave evidence on 16 October. The relevant passage in his evidence-in-chief reads as follows:
‘Q. Has any test been done as to whether their hands are contaminated by picking up debris? A. We have a firing cell, my Lord, in which we fire off
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charges, and, on one occasion, a number of our staff went in and touched the walls and objects within the firing cell and the results were all negative.’
This amounted to a disclosure of the experiment, in an attempt to assist the prosecution, but it was simply not true to say that all the results were negative. Even more importantly it now appears from the recently disclosed RARDE notebooks that between 20 September and 4 October 1974 in a firing cell at RARDE a series of further experiments were conducted. These experiments resulted in a number of positive results for the presence of NG on the hands of staff members who had touched objects in the firing cell. One such result related to the hands of Mr Higgs: it showed positive results for NG contamination to a degree described as ‘very heavy’ and ‘extremely heavy’. These experiments and their results should undoubtedly have been disclosed to the prosecution, the defence and the court. Mr Higgs agreed on this point. But he sought to distance himself from these results, in much the same way as he had tried to distance himself from the boot polish experiments in the present case, and from a series of second test results in the case against the Maguires: see Sir John May’s Interim Report on the Maguire case (HC Paper (1989–90) no 556), paras 11.13–11.20. Mr Higgs said that he had no recollection of the faint positive found on 26 February, and he said that he must have attended the one subsequent test, in which the documents show that he undoubtedly participated, on what he in oral evidence described as a ‘blind basis’. He said that he had not been involved in the other tests. And he said that when he testified at trial he had forgotten about the tests in September and on 4 October.
Bearing in mind that (1) Mr Higgs was the head of a very small team, who conducted firing cell experiments with a view to using the results in evidence in the case against the appellant, and (2) that Mr Higgs was to be the senior RARDE witness at the trial of the appellant, we reject Mr Higgs’s account as a deliberate falsehood. We are conscious that we have not had the benefit of Mr Elliott’s explanations. But the evidence leaves us in no doubt that Mr Elliott knew of the firing cell tests, and was a party to the concealment of the results which were unfavourable to the prosecution case. Mr Berryman had set up the tests. He knew what the results were. In evidence before us he sought to deny the relevance of the tests. That was wholly implausible since he had made a statement on 4 October 1974, that is on the second day of the trial, in which he described, and misdescribed, the results of the firing cell tests on 26 February, but failed to mention the firing cell tests with positive results which had been going on in September 1974. We reject Mr Berryman’s evidence as untrue. The consequence is that in a criminal trial involving grave charges three senior government forensic scientists deliberately withheld material experimental data on the ground that it might damage the prosecution case. Moreover, Mr Higgs and Mr Berryman misled the court as to the state of their knowledge about the possibility of contamination occurring from the debris of an explosion. No doubt they judged that the records of the firing cell tests would forever remain confidential. They were wrong. But the records were only disclosed about 17 years after the appellant’s conviction and imprisonment.
THE SCIENTIFIC EVIDENCE AT TRIAL
It is now necessary to take stock of the deployment of the scientific evidence at trial. The starting point must again be the results of the tests done on the Euston samples. At the trial Mr Elliott gave evidence that the TLC tests revealed ‘positive’ results in respect of Diamond, ‘traces’ in respect of Gateley and ‘faint traces’ in respect of the appellant. Mr Higgs’s evidence was to the same effect. That redressed Mr Higgs earlier misleading witness statements about the precise test
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results to a considerable extent. But the full test results in respect of all three were not produced even at trial.
Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott gave evidence about the caravan test results. Both described the relevant results as positive. Neither revealed that the true findings were ‘v. faint’, ‘v. faint trace’ and ‘faint’. We are satisfied that both must have looked at the actual results as set out in RARDE laboratory notes and chemical analysis sheets before they gave evidence. They must have known that they were overstating the prosecution case.
Dr Skuse’s evidence was along the lines of his witness statement. He insisted that his Griess test results showed that the appellant had probably been in contact with a commercial explosive. He also testified that a TLC test of a swab taken under the left fingernail reinforced his view despite the fact that the suspect spot did not turn pink or anything like it. He was cross-examined on these points but refused to budge. If the jury chose to accept Dr Skuse’s evidence, as they probably did, it followed that the appellant had NG on her person some 57 hours after the explosion at Latimer.
During their oral evidence on the caravan test results Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott did not mention the discrepant Rf values. This is the more surprising since the question of Rf values was canvassed during the oral evidence.
Mr Higgs, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman, who knew of the significance of the boot polish tests, never mentioned these tests in their oral evidence. They would have appreciated that these experimental data revealed a risk of misidentification of NG, particularly when the findings were recorded only as ‘v. faint trace’ or ‘faint trace’.
On the question of the risk of contamination as a result of the appellant handling debris, or more realistically as a result of contact between the appellant and Diamond, the three senior RARDE forensic scientists put forward a solid front. They were prepared to exclude it as a realistic possibility. They mentioned the firing cell test of 26 February but wrongly stated that the results were all negative. They professed to have no knowledge of the possibility of such contamination occurring. They made no mention of the positive firing cell tests in September and October 1974. They misrepresented the position to the court.
CONCLUSIONS ON GROUND A: MATERIAL NON-DISCLOSURE
It is necessary to consider the impact of the legal rules governing the disclosure by the prosecution of material scientific evidence. An incident of a defendant’s right to a fair trial is a right to timely disclosure by the prosecution of all material matters which affect the scientific case relied on by the prosecution, that is whether such matters strengthen or weaken the prosecution case or assist the defence case. This duty exists whether or not a specific request for disclosure of details of scientific evidence is made by the defence. Moreover, this duty is continuous: it applies not only in the pre-trial period but also throughout the trial. The materiality of evidence on the scientific side of a case may sometimes be overlooked before a trial. If the significance of the evidence becomes clear during the trial there must be an immediate disclosure to the defence. These propositions were already established in 1974, and decisions such as R v Leyland Magistrates, ex p Hawthorn [1979] 1 All ER 209, [1979] QB 283 merely served to reinforce the generality of the legal duty of fair disclosure.
In the appellant’s case the disclosure of scientific evidence was woefully deficient. Three senior RARDE scientists took the law into their own hands, and concealed from the prosecution, the defence and the court matters which might have changed the course of the trial. The catalogue of lamentable omissions included failures to reveal actual test results, the failure to reveal discrepant Rf values, the suppression of the boot polish experimental data, the misrepresentation
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of the first firing cell test results, the concealment of subsequent positive firing cell test results, economical witness statements calculated to obstruct inquiry by the defence, and, most important of all, oral evidence at the trial in the course of which senior RARDE scientists knowingly placed a false and distorted scientific picture before the jury. It is in our judgment also a necessary inference that the three senior RARDE forensic scientists acted in concert in withholding material evidence. Common sense suggests that none of them would have wanted a sudden revelation of the suppressed material at the trial. It is pointless to try to add up the number of failures which amount to material irregularities. It is sufficient to say that cumulatively the failures amount to a material irregularity which, on its own, would undoubtedly have required us to quash the appellant’s conviction. The application of the proviso would have been out of the question. On the scientific case deployed against her the appellant did not have a fair trial. Our law does not tolerate a conviction to be secured by ambush.
For the future is it important to consider why the scientists acted as they did. For lawyers, jurors and judges a forensic scientist conjures up the image of a man in a white coat working in a laboratory, approaching his task with cold neutrality and dedicated only to the pursuit of scientific truth. It is a sombre thought that the reality is sometimes different. Forensic scientists may become partisan. The very fact that the police seek their assistance may create a relationship between the police and the forensic scientists. And the adversarial character of the proceedings tend to promote this process. Forensic scientists employed by the government may become to see their function as helping the police. They may lose their objectivity. That is what must have happened in this case. It is illustrated by the catalogue of non-disclosures which we have set out. But in oral evidence before us Mr Higgs came close to giving an insight into the philosophy of the senior RARDE forensic scientists in 1974. His answers in oral evidence were as follows:
‘Q. You did not tell Mr Clancey that you had used a vapour detector, did you? A. No, but the policy at Woolwich was that you answered questions for scientists for the defence; you do not proffer information.
Q. Was it? A. Yes. You give them every assistance to investigate what they want, but you did not in fact necessarily say what you had yourself found out.
Q. You were careful about what you said, to use your words on another occasion. Is that right? A. I think that is right, yes. That was the policy I seemed to be following, as guided by the people who were there before me.’
At a conference after the trial of the Maguires in 1976, which was attended by a large number of forensic scientists, Mr Higgs gave the following explanation:
‘What did worry us, however, was that we were not able to satisfactorily distinguish between NG and PETN using toluene as eluant. However, this point never really cropped up during the trial. We were all very careful about what not to say in this respect. I know this is not entirely a satisfactory scientific viewpoint, but we took the view that for a given amount of explosive we could distinguish PETN by the slower rate of colour development.’
PETN is another explosive substance. The validity of Mr Higgs’s comments on possible confusion between the two explosives does not matter. What does matter is the revelation that there was an understanding among the senior RARDE forensic scientists that nothing would be said about their doubts at the trial. It is this attitude which, for example, led Mr Higgs at the trial to explain the results of
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the testing of the caravan samples in terms which amounted at least to suppressio veri and probably to suggestio falsi. It also led Mr Higgs, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman to conceal the positive firing cell test results. The disinclination by the RARDE forensic scientists to assist the defence was also a feature of the Maguire case: see Sir John May’s Interim Report on the Maguire case, paras 12.1–12.4. And in the present case Mr Higgs, Mr Elliott and Mr Berryman had plainly succumbed to the dangers of partisanship. They misled both the prosecution and the defence in order to promote a cause which they had made their own, namely that the appellant had been in contact with NG.
What are the lessons to be learnt from this miscarriage of justice? The law is of necessity concerned with practical affairs, and it cannot effectively guard against all the failings of those who play a part in the criminal justice system. But that sombre realism does not relieve us, as judges, from persevering in the task to ensure that the law, practice and methods of trial should be developed so as to reduce the risk of conviction of the innocent to an absolute minimum. At the same time we are very much alive to the fact that, although the avoidance of the conviction of the innocent must unquestionably be the primary consideration, the public interest would not be served by a multiplicity of rules which merely impede effective law enforcement. Recognising that the Royal Commission on Criminal Justice will no doubt consider the subject of scientific evidence in criminal trials in depth, we propose to limit our observations about the lessons to be learnt to two matters which we regard as of critical importance. First, we have identified the cause of the injustice done to the appellant on the scientific side of the case as stemming from the fact that three senior forensic scientists at RARDE regarded their task as being to help the police. They became partisan. It is the clear duty of government forensic scientists to assist in a neutral and impartial way in criminal investigations. They must act in the cause of justice. That duty should be spelt out to all engaged or to be engaged in forensic services in the clearest terms. We trust that this judgment has assisted a little in that exercise. Secondly, we believe that the surest way of preventing the misuse of scientific evidence is by ensuring that there is a proper understanding of the nature and scope of the prosecution’s duty of disclosure. In our view there was an imperfect understanding of the position in 1974. Mr Langdale suggested to us that the problem was solved by the Crown Court (Advance Notice of Expert Evidence) Rules 1987, SI 1987/716, which came into force on 15 July 1987. Those rules enable the legal representatives of a defendant in a Crown Court criminal case to require the prosecution by notice in writing to provide in respect of scientific evidence a copy of (or an opportunity to inspect) ‘the record of any observation, test, calculation or other procedure on which [any] finding or opinion is based’ (see r 3(1)(b)). The new rules are helpful. But it is a misconception to regard them as exhaustive: they do not in any way supplant or detract from the prosecution’s general duty of disclosure in respect of scientific evidence. That duty exists irrespective of any request by the defence. It is also not limited to documentation on which the opinion or findings of an expert is based. It extends to anything which may arguably assist the defence. It is therefore wider in scope than the rule. Moreover, it is a positive duty, which in the context of scientific evidence obliges the prosecution to make full and proper inquiries from forensic scientists in order to ascertain whether there is discoverable material. Given the undoubted inequality as between prosecution and defence in access to forensic scientists, we regard it as of paramount importance that the common law duty of disclosure, as we have explained it, should be appreciated by those who prosecute and defend in criminal cases. And, if difficulties arise in a particular case, the court must be the final judge.
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FRESH EVIDENCE RELATING TO THE PRESENCE OF EXPLOSIVES: GROUND D
We must now turn to the question whether, in any event, the conviction of the appellant is safe and satisfactory, having regard to the totality of the fresh scientific evidence, satisfying the requirements of s 23(1) and (2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, which has been placed before us. That evidence consists of a detailed report by Dr Lloyd, with supporting appendices. Dr Lloyd was also called on behalf of the appellant to give oral evidence before us. On behalf of the prosecution there was placed before us a general review by Drs Hiley, Marshall and Scaplehorn, three forensic scientists from the DRA, as well as a specific report on the boot polish experiments, both reports being supported by appendices, and supplemented by two helpful scientific memoranda. The general review we will call ‘the DRA report’. Dr Hiley was also called by the prosecution to give oral evidence. It is our pleasure to record how impressed we were with the objectivity and care with which the forensic scientists on both sides approached the matter and compiled their reports in this case. Not surprisingly there was some divergence of views. We were willing to resolve those issues. But on behalf of the appellant Mr Mansfield urged, in the light of what has been agreed between the forensic scientists, that it would serve no useful purpose to investigate these issues. Mr Mansfield’s submission was that on the basis of what had been agreed between the experts the conviction of the appellant is, in any event, unsafe and unsatisfactory. For reasons which will emerge in this section of the judgment we accept Mr Mansfield’s submission. Mr Langdale for the prosecution also submitted that we should not investigate the outstanding issues between the scientists. While we have been anxious throughout this appeal, in the interests of the appellant as well as in the public interest, to examine all the grounds of appeal, we are prepared on this aspect to accede to the joint request of counsel. That makes it possible for us to deal with the fresh evidence quite shortly. Departing from the strict chronology we will deal first with Dr Skuse’s evidence, and then with the Euston test results and the caravan test results.
Dr Skuse’s evidence
The prosecution did not call Dr Skuse to give evidence before us. But there is before us an impressive body of expert opinion to the effect that Dr Skuse’s tests, notwithstanding his confident assertions at the trial, were of no value in establishing contact between the appellant and the explosives in 1974. The fact that Dr Skuse apparently got the Griess test result which he described cannot be regarded as more than an initial step towards the identification of NG: it was not evidence of the presence of NG. Dr Skuse relied on one TLC test spot, despite the fact that is was not pink. It is established to our satisfaction that this conclusion was wrong. The scientific evidence before us further shows that the interval of some 57 hours between the alleged handling of explosives at Latimer and the taking of samples by Dr Skuse rendered unlikely the suggestion of the presence of explosives on the appellant’s hands as a result of planting explosive devices. Moreover, the very fact that the TLC test did not work puts a substantial question mark over the conditions of the preliminary Griess test. In our judgment, if the trial judge had known what we know, he would have excluded Dr Skuse’s evidence as valueless. Dr Skuse’s conclusion was wrong, and demonstrably wrong, judged even by the state of forensic science in 1974.
That brings us to the impact of Dr Skuse’s evidence on the trial of the appellant. In many ways Dr Skuse was the most important scientific witness called by the prosecution. He was after all the only forensic scientist who professed to have found NG under the appellant’s fingernails. That evidence enabled Mr Higgs to say that the appellant must have kneaded explosives. The elimination of Dr Skuse’s
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evidence is therefore an important matter. But it would be artificial to pose the question whether on its own it warrants a finding that the conviction is unsafe and unsatisfactory. Instead we will address that question at the end of our review of all the fresh scientific evidence.
The Euston samples
There are outstanding issues between the experts on the reliability of the Euston findings. These issues include: (1) the difficulty of evaluating the findings without knowing the Rf values; (2) the adequacy of a single TLC test; (3) the possibility of contamination of hand test kits by police officers or explosive vapour in the laboratory; (4) the adequacy of the identification of DNT in the Euston sample, having regard to the fact that not more than 10% of the bomb would have been DNT but nevertheless all the findings in respect of Diamond, Gateley and the appellant coincided in respect of NG and DNT; and (5) the effect of possible interference of dyestuffs in giving false positives in TLC results.
In view of the agreement that we should not embark on an investigation of these issues, we will assume (without deciding) that there were faint traces of NG on the appellant when the Euston samples were taken. We also do not propose to assess the importance of the point that Diamond and Gateley, whose samples were respectively ‘positive’ and ‘trace’ for the presence of NG, were not involved in causing the explosion.
In respect of the Euston swabs there is agreement between the experts that any NG traces found on the appellant’s hands could have been transferred from Diamond. The DRA report concludes:
‘… that a transfer from a person heavily contaminated with explosive traces to Miss Ward, at a level detectable by TLC, could have occurred provided that there was some direct or indirect physical contact between them. If at trial the defence were suggesting that Mr Diamond had been the source of the contamination detected on Miss Ward’s hand, we agree that such a transfer would have been possible.’
Dr Lloyd’s conclusion was as follows:
‘Given that Mr. Diamond was heavily contaminated, a hand-to-hand contact with Miss Ward earlier in the evening could have transferred an amount of NG to her sufficient to survive as a faint trace when she was swabbed.’
In the light of this evidence the Euston test results do not prove that the appellant had handled explosives.
The caravan samples
There is again a measure of agreement between the experts. The DRA report states:
‘… despite the deficiencies in the TLC results, we believe it most probable that the substance detected on the caravan floor was nitroglycerine.’
In a supplementary report on the boot polish tests the conclusion of the DRA review is as follows:
‘… the possibility that the reported detections of NG in the caravan were in fact misidentifications of the dyestuff SY56 derived from shoe polish or another material is small but cannot be entirely excluded.’
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Dr Lloyd summarises the position as follows:
‘… the results obtained from the caravan swabs were inadequately specific and cannot be taken as an adequate identification of NG.’
That is how matters stood on the report placed before us. But in oral evidence the divergence in views was narrowed down. We have already pointed out the discrepancies in the Rf values for the caravan samples. The DRA report pointed out that the discrepancies may be attributable to the phenomenon of ‘holding back’. That process involves an interference in the TLC by materials such as fats and waxes collected in the swabs. The question is, however, whether there was in fact a ‘holding back’ observed in the TLC. The contemporary laboratory notes of Mrs Kemp (formerly Miss Brooker) do not record a ‘holding back’. Mrs Kemp’s usual practice was to make a note of any ‘holding back’. It seems to us therefore more probable than not that there was not any ‘holding back’. On this assumption Dr Hiley accepted that the two ‘v. faint’ samples with Rf values of 0.1 and 0.07 were not NG, and that one cannot make any judgment on the ‘faint’ sample with an Rf value of 0.05. On the fresh expert evidence the highest that the case against the appellant could be put is that NG was possibly present but, in the absence of confirmation, its presence is not established.
There was another matter which caused us concern. Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott took the caravan samples. They must have supervised the TLC tests. And on Mrs Kemp’s evidence, which we accept, her role was that of a laboratory assistant and Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott must have determined the test results. The interpretation of a TLC process is a matter of judgment. The chemist must exercise judgment in respect of the distances travelled by the suspect and control spots as well as the colour of the suspect spot. Given the fact that we have found that Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott had allowed their objectivity to become clouded by partisanship, the question arises whether we can have faith in their supervision and interpretation of test results. It may, of course, be that in dealing with the tests Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott were approaching their task with clinical detachment. But can we be sure? After all, in February 1974, a day or two after the caravan samples were tested, Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott were already arranging for firing cell tests to be done at Woolwich, with a view to obtaining evidence which could be used by the prosecution at the appellant’s trial. Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott in due course misrepresented the results of the first firing cell tests to the court, and they concealed the results of the further firing cell tests in September and October. In these circumstances it seems more realistic to accept that the lack of objectivity that subsequently characterised the conduct of Mr Higgs and Mr Elliott may also have affected their judgment on the earlier interpretation of the TLC tests. For this further reason we have to say that we have no faith in the accuracy of the caravan test results.
CONCLUSIONS ON GROUND D: FRESH SCIENTIFIC EVIDENCE
A careful study of the fresh scientific evidence has persuaded us that the scientific case against the appellant is now insupportable. In our judgment on this further ground the appellant’s conviction is unsafe and unsatisfactory.
NON-DISCLOSURE—A SUMMARY
It is now convenient to summarise the principles of law and practice which at the present time govern the disclosure of evidence by the prosecution before trial.
(i) ‘Where the prosecution have taken a statement from a person whom they know can give material evidence but decide not to call him as a witness, they are
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under a duty to make that person available as a witness for the defence …’ (see Archbold’s Pleadings, Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (44th edn, 1992) para 4–276). It is part of the same passage as is quoted with approval in this court in R v Lawson (1989) 90 Cr App R 107 at 114 from the preceding edition. ‘Material evidence’ means evidence which tends either to weaken the prosecution case or to strengthen the defence case.
(ii) Unless there are good reasons for not doing so, the duty should normally be performed by supplying copies of the witness statements to the defence or allowing them to inspect the statements and make copies: see R v Lawson. Where there are good reasons for not supplying copies of the statements, the duty to disclose can be performed by supplying the name and address of the witness to the defence.
(iii) In relation to statements recording relevant interviews with the accused, as we have already said, subject to the possibility of public interest immunity, the defence are entitled to be supplied with copies of all such statements.
(iv) In relation to the evidence of expert witnesses, both for the prosecution and the defence, the Crown Court (Advance Notice of Expert Evidence) Rules 1987 now require that any party to the proceedings in the Crown Court who proposes to adduce expert evidence must, as soon after committal as possible, furnish the other party with a written statement of any finding or opinion of which he proposes to give evidence and, where a request in writing is made by that other party, either supply copies of, or allow the other party to examine, the record of any observation, test, calculation or other procedure on which such finding or opinion is based. There is an exception in r 4, which is not here relevant. What the rules do not say in terms is that if an expert witness has carried out experiments or tests which tend to disprove or cast doubt upon the opinion he is expressing, or if such experiments or tests have been carried out in his laboratory and are known to him, the party calling him must also disclose the record of such experiments or tests. In our view the rules do not state this in terms because they can only be read as requiring the record of all relevant experiments and tests to be disclosed. It follows that an expert witness who has carried out or knows of experiments or tests which tend to cast doubt on the opinion he is expressing is in our view under a clear obligation to bring the records of such experiments and tests to the attention of the solicitor who is instructing him so that it may be disclosed to the other party. No doubt this process can often be simplified by the expert for one party (usually the prosecution) supplying his results, and any necessary working papers, to the expert advising the other party (the defence) directly.
(v) It is true that public interest immunity provides an exception to the general duty of disclosure. For present purposes it is not necessary to attempt to analyse the requirements of public interest immunity. But in argument the question arose whether, if in a criminal case the prosecution wished to claim public interest immunity for documents helpful to the defence, the prosecution is in law obliged to give notice to the defence of the asserted right to withhold the documents so that, if necessary, the court can be asked to rule on the legitimacy of the prosecution’s asserted claim. Mr Mansfield’s position was simple and readily comprehensible. He submitted that there was such a duty, and that it admitted of no qualification or exception. Moreover, he contended that it would be incompatible with a defendant’s absolute right to a fair trial to allow the prosecution, who occupy an adversarial position in criminal proceedings, to be judge in their own cause on the asserted claim to immunity. unfortunately, and despite repeated questions by the court, the Crown’s position on this vital issue remained opaque to the end. We are fully persuaded by Mr Mansfield’s reasoning on this point. It seems to us that he was right to remind us that when the
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prosecution acted as judge in their own cause on the issue of public interest immunity in this case they committed a significant number of errors which affected the fairness of the proceedings. Policy considerations therefore powerfully reinforce the view that it would be wrong to allow the prosecution to withhold material documents without giving any notice of that fact to the defence. If, in a wholly exceptional case, the prosecution are not prepared to have the issue of public interest immunity determined by a court, the result must inevitably be that the prosecution will have to be abandoned.
(vi) For the avoidance of doubt we make it clear that we have not overlooked the Attorney General’s guidelines for the disclosure of ‘unused’ material to the defence in cases to be heard on indictment: see Practice Note [1982] 1 All ER 734. It is sufficient to say that nothing in those guidelines can derogate in any way from the legal rules which we have stated. It is therefore unnecessary for us to consider to what extent the Attorney General’s guidelines relating to ‘sensitive material’ (the phrase used in those guidelines) are in conformity with the law as we have expounded it in the judgment.
We now turn to consider the third head under which the appeal was argued.
THE ISSUE OF THE APPELLANT’S UNRELIABILITY
It is trite law that when in a criminal trial the prosecution seek to rely upon a confession or admission, or a series of confessions or admissions, made by the accused person it is necessary for the prosecution to prove (to the criminal standard of proof) the following matters: (1) that the accused spoke or wrote the words alleged; (2) that the confession was made voluntarily, not as the result of the use of force or a threat or the holding out of an inducement; and (3) that the confession or admission was true.
Formerly the first of these matters was often in issue in criminal trials. Fortunately the tape recording of the great majority of interviews of suspects by the police has resulted in a lessening of allegations that the defendant did not say what he was alleged to have said, though of course this can still be an issue where it is alleged there was a verbal confession before arrival at the police station. As we have made clear, in the present case the appellant at her trial did not accept that she had said everything that she was alleged to have said, and sometimes said that she could not remember whether she had made a particular statement, but for the most part the fact that she had made the damaging confessions she was alleged to have made was not seriously in issue. Certainly the various written statements which were exhibited were not challenged in this respect.
Moreover, it was not suggested that any of the confessions which were made were the result of the use of force or of any threat, or of the holding out of any inducement. Thus there was no question of a ‘trial within a trial’ before Waller J to determine whether the evidence of the confessions was admissible. Counsel for the defence accepted that it was.
While it is for the prosecution to prove that a confession was true, this is normally not a matter which creates any great difficulty for them. If they have succeeded in proving that the statement was made voluntarily, and the accused appears to be of normal intelligence, most juries will readily accept that an accused would be most unlikely to make a damaging series of confessions against his or her own interest unless they were true. This was no doubt in the mind of the learned judge when he said in his summing up to the jury (as reported in the Daily Telegraph for 2 November 1974) that the jury were entitled to consider whether there was any possible reason for making the statements other than to tell the truth and the weight of conscience after being in custody for nine or ten days. ‘When people make very serious admissions you have to ask yourself if they are likely to do it if they are not true.’
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When an accused person who is alleged to have made admissions or confessions asserts that he did so because of a threat or an inducement held out to him, he will normally also assert that the admissions or confessions were untrue. But the question of the truth or otherwise of the confessions is normally subsumed in the question whether they were made voluntarily. If the judge on the voire dire decides that the confessions were voluntary and thus are admissible, and the jury believes that they were not the result of threat or inducement, then normally there is no further challenge to the truth. In our experience, cases in which it is accepted that a confession was made and was made voluntarily but nevertheless it is asserted that the confession was wholly untrue are rare in the extreme. This of course is such a case. No doubt because of this rarity, there is but little authority on issues of this kind.
In considering the question of the appellant’s reliability, we have taken account of the fresh evidence of witnesses and by way of documents put before us, principally the medical evidence, and also of relevant parts of the evidence which was not disclosed before the trial but which is now available to us. Thus the evidence we have considered falls into three categories: (i) the undisclosed evidence of interviews with the appellant at various times before the trial; (ii) Dr Lawson’s evidence; and (iii) the fresh evidence. This is principally the medical evidence, but also includes the evidence that what the appellant said both before the trial and in her evidence at the trial about her father’s birth and her marriage to Michael McVerry were untrue.
We will consider each of these categories in turn.
Undisclosed evidence of interviews
We have already considered this in some detail under the heading of ‘Nondisclosure’. It is therefore only necessary to refer again briefly to those interviews which we consider of particular significance in relation to the appellant’s unreliability. These are as follows.
(a) The ‘Theresa O’Connell’ statement to the RUC on 22 March 1972. We have already set out this statement in some detail. It was a graphic story, almost every word of which was fiction.
(b) The interview by Det Insp Speers and Det Sgt Hyland on 23 August 1972. It will be remembered that in this interview the appellant said that it was untrue that she had gone to Thiepval Barracks in order to obtain information for the IRA. Sgt Hyland’s comment, ‘She continued to profess her innocence and I found her to be convincing’, may well not have been directly admissible in evidence, but if he had been called by the prosecution as a witness no doubt counsel for the defence could have made use of it by asking—certainly in cross-examination, possibly even if he had been a witness for the defence—why, after this interview, no action in respect of her entry to Thiepval Barracks was taken against the appellant. The answer would almost inevitably have been, in effect, ‘We did not believe her.’
(c) The statement of Pc Open, who, it will be remembered, whilst investigating a complaint of theft by the appellant and Miss Gateley, visited their room at the London Park Hotel on 16 September 1973 and found it full of IRA posters and the like. Coming as it did a few days after the Euston bomb incident, and the detention of the two young women after that incident, the defence might well have suggested that this was a prime example of the appellant deliberately trying to draw attention to herself.
(d) The interview with Det Sgt McFarland on 18 November 1973. We have already set out the content of this interview in some detail. The significant point
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about this interview is that the appellant first said that she had brought guns up to Belfast on several occasions, adding that they were revolvers and that she had brought them in her handbag, but shortly afterwards denied ever being involved with the IRA and, when asked why she had boasted about bringing guns to Belfast, replied, ‘It was just something to say, I know that’s what you want me to say.' As we have said, Mr McFarland’s opinion, in his witness statement, was: ‘I formed the opinion that the appellant was not mentally stable and that she could be easily persuaded to say or do anything.' In evidence to us, Mr McFarland said that at the time when he saw the appellant he had been a member of the RUC for some 20 years, and he had a reasonable familiarity with, and insight into, the workings of terrorist organisations. He said that of the appellant’s claim that she had been gunrunning for the IRA, ‘I thought it was total nonsense.' When asked why, he said: ‘That particular organisation, my Lord, would not trust a person of the mentality of Judith Ward at that time.' He repeated that in his opinion she was not stable, and that following this interview the RUC had released her and put her on a boat back to England.
(e) The interview on 15 February 1974 by Det Supt Wilson and Det Supt Edington. Substantial parts of this interview, or at least of the information elicited in this interview, were given in evidence at the trial through other witnesses, sometimes as the result of other interviews. However, what was not given in evidence was the important passage which we have already set out in which in answer to direct questions she denied having done anything in the United Kingdom for the IRA or having been asked to do so and said that she would not have done so if asked. She drew a distinction between her support for Sinn Fein and her denial of being involved in the IRA.
(f) Finally, there were the two interviews with Det Supt Oldfield on 11 and 18 June 1974. In these the appellant mostly gave information about the alleged activities of and parts played by other persons in terrorist enterprises. Many of her allegations were wild and untrue. We do not find it possible to say what use the defence would have made of the interviews, but it might have been considerable. This non-disclosure, though perhaps in the event not as important as that of the evidence of Det Chief Supt Wilson, is not insignificant.
Medical evidence available at the home office trial
In his report to the Director of Public Prosecutions dated 18 September 1974 Dr Mather said:
‘From my examinations there is nothing to lead me to think that there is anything abnormal or has been about her mental state and I have no medical recommendation to make. She is fit to plead to the indictment and stand her trial.’
In evidence before us Dr Mather said that he was not then concerning himself with expressing an opinion about her reliability, but only as to whether she was of sound mind and fit to plead.
As we have already said, in his report to the Director prepared on 4 September 1974 Dr Lawson started his opinion by saying:
‘I would say at this stage that Ward cannot be described as a very truthful person, in that she has changed her story to me several times and I have never been satisfied that she has been as horror struck by the incident as she claims to be. She is a most difficult person to evaluate. At times, she is feminine and well mannered, at other times she is rough, foul mouthed and coarse.’
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In evidence to us under cross-examination Dr Lawson said:
‘I think I signalled my views loud and clear in the first sentence of my opinion, and I may say that I was amazed that I was not called to Wakefield Crown Court.’
He explained that he had not felt able to express his views as to her veracity more strongly, in case it was thought that in some way this prejudiced the defence. We do not regard this as a valid reason. We have said that we do not accept that Dr Lawson signalled his views ‘loud and clear’. We have also found that he toned down his report. We think however that, if his report, even with these defects, had been received by Mr Ollier, it is most probable that counsel would have advised that another psychiatrist be asked to examine the appellant on behalf of the defence. No doubt this might have been initially with a view to determining her mental state in view of the psychotic depression, but such a psychiatrist might very well have followed up Dr Lawson’s view about the appellant’s failure to tell the truth on occasions, and been able to give evidence at the trial on that issue. Of course, the fact that the defence did not receive the prosecution’s medical report did not prevent them from seeking psychiatric evidence themselves, but it can at least be said that they lacked the spur to seek such evidence which Dr Lawson’s report might well have provided.
The fresh medical evidence
The fresh evidence before us was given by two witnesses called on behalf of the appellant and one called on behalf of the Crown. Dr James MacKeith, a distinguished consultant psychiatrist, had been instructed in May 1991 to give psychiatric advice about the appellant to her solicitors. He had provided them with a report dated 7 April 1992, the contents of which he confirmed in his oral evidence to us. In that report he expressed the following views:
‘I think that Miss Ward probably suffered from personality disorder—hysterical type, long before her arrest in 1974. Moreover, I think it likely that she was suffering from mental illness as well … I believe her false claims, which she may have believed, served to reduce emotional distress and to enhance self-esteem. Her untrue claims related to romantic themes and her involvement with Ireland, Irish people and Irish causes. They were in a sense specific, not general as in an unprincipled compulsive liar … It is my opinion that Miss Ward was mentally disordered from the time of her arrest, on remand and during her trial. Her impaired functioning was both the product of her personality and mental illness. As explained in this report, this mental disorder had a profound effect on her capacity to give a reliable account of herself and her memories to anybody.’
When giving evidence, in answer to questions from the court, Dr MacKeith explained that he used the phrase ‘mental disorder’ as a generic term embracing both mental illness and personality disorder. He placed hysteria under the heading of mental illness. He said, however, that his concern was to establish whether in his opinion the appellant in 1974 was a person upon whose word any reliance could be placed, and that in reaching his opinion on that issue it was not absolutely essential to his opinion whether the impairment from which she was suffering was categorised as mental illness or personality disorder.
Dr MacKeith’s evidence was supported by that of Dr Gudjonsson, a senior lecturer in clinical psychology, who has evolved a technique for seeking to measure suggestibility and confabulation. By suggestibility Dr Gudjonsson means the extent to which a person can be persuaded to adopt a leading question or give
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an answer which is affected by verbal pressure, and by confabulation he means the extent to which a memory of an event or statement can have added to it some other material which is conscious or unconscious invention. His opinion as to suggestibility was that the appellant was ‘abnormally yielding to the misleading questions. She had an abnormal tendency to accept the suggestions offered.' On the second matter he said that the appellant’s ‘tendency to confabulate fell well outside the normal range’.
Dr Bowden, a consultant psychiatrist, who gave evidence for the Crown, had had much less time to prepare his report. He was only able to interview the appellant for the first time on 29 April 1992 but he succeeded in interviewing her in all four times before he gave evidence before us on 8 May 1992. We are grateful to him for being able to devote so much of his time to this task in that period. We accept that he has reported more rapidly than he would have wished, and we wish to say that we have found his evidence, coupled with that of Dr MacKeith, of the greatest assistance.
In his report dated 6 May 1992 Dr Bowden expressed the following views:
‘My task as an assessor is made even more difficult by my suspicion that Miss Ward can be both deliberately and unconsciously devious and manipulative. Miss Ward exemplifies the basic traits of the hysterical type of personality disorder. From the time of adolescence she has sought to appear, both to herself and others, as more than she is. Genuine experience and natural expressions were replaced by a contrived act, and forced kinds of experiences concerning Irish Republican matters. Miss Ward has been caught up in a series of dramas engineered by herself so that there is no sense in anything existing within her, she being merely the reflection of those dramas. For many years Miss Ward sought to convince herself and others of the existence of dramatic and life-threatening experiences and her attachment to the Republican cause reflects this attraction to what is dramatic and extreme. The cause brought interest and excitement to an otherwise lonely, friendless person and the supposed marriage to an IRA “hero” can be taken as reflecting at so many levels the reality of a largely asexual woman who has often been taken for, and has masqueraded as, a young man. In the weeks before the final arrest she was clearly forcing herself to experience more than she was capable of … Miss Ward has lied to create an effect, and for other reasons. This initially conscious lying became unconscious and is then believed by Miss Ward. These are not permanent states and there is a constant flux between conscious lying and the acceptance of believed (but false) material as truth. Thus Miss Ward’s claims to have association with important personalities, serves to deceive not only others but Miss Ward herself In this context I suspect that at times she has lost awareness of her own reality and fantasy has become a reality of her … In summary, I believe that Miss Ward has exhibited evidence of mental disorder in the form of hysterical personality disorder since adolescence. The current manifestations of the disorder have been modified by 18 years’ imprisonment and by the usual ameliorative effects of ageing but the passage of time has revealed a coherent and consistent picture. The course of the disorder for Miss Ward has led from insecurity, aloneness, and doubts about gender identity to the restless seeking of excitement, a tendency to lie and fantasize, and ultimately to claims of involvement, or actual involvement in terrorist activities. Miss Ward has the capacity both to seek out terrorist activities and to fantasize about them. She has been provocative and has led from innuendo to unbridled admission. Her narratives have been sometimes plausible, at others implausible and
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contradictory. The essence of her nature is her unreliability, both to others and herself. It is her lack of substance which she is seeking to disguise with a series of real and imagined roles. In assessing Miss Ward I was struck by the complexity of understanding the ever-changing picture. With Miss Ward both reality and truth are ephemeral, effected as they are by both conscious and unconscious mechanisms, so that it is almost impossible to find a reliable point from which to progress. These considerations and the disharmony which existed in her behaviour before the final arrest in February 1974 lead me to believe that her personality disorder is severe in degree. With my own limited assessment in mind I do not believe that the medical information which was available to the court in 1974 adequately explored these issues. [I interpolate that he presumably assumed that some medical information was available to the court.] Miss Ward’s essential unreliability leads me to believe that her statements regarding the offences of which she was convicted should be required to pass one at least of two tests of truth and reality. Her statement should be required to reveal a special knowledge, or it must be shown that there is objective evidence, being fact not merely thought.’
Dr Bowden confirmed those opinions in his evidence to us.
It will be seen that the only respect in which Dr MacKeith and Dr Bowden differ was that Dr MacKeith categorised the appellant’s disability as mental illness, whereas Dr Bowden did not. As we have already said, this was not an essential part of Dr MacKeith’s opinion, and thus on the essential issue they are in agreement. We found their evidence entirely persuasive.
There is one last point made by Dr MacKeith which we found of interest. He was asked in cross-examination whether he would have been able to reach the conclusions he had reached if there had been available to him only the information that was available to the defence in 1974. He answered:
‘I do not know whether I would, if I try and enter this hypothetical situation, because in 1974 I was comparatively unaware of the dangers of people making such false, self-incriminating statements as to render themselves in danger of being convicted. It is only in the last 12 years that I have had an interest in this subject and tried to learn how to approach the issue of assessment.’
We do not of course know whether what Dr MacKeith says about his own lack of experience in 1974 was true of other psychiatrists. Even at that time of course it may not have been true of all.
Admissibility of evidence of psychiatrists and psychologists as to an accused’s reliability
At one time the authorities on this issue seemed fairly clear. In Toohey v Metropolitan Police Comr [1965] 1 All ER 506, [1965] AC 595 three men were charged with assault with intent to rob a boy aged 16. Their defence was, in essence, that they had neither assaulted nor robbed the boy, who was hysterical and had invented the whole matter. On behalf of the defence it was sought to call the evidence of a police surgeon who had expressed the view that from his examination of the boy he would consider him to be more prone to hysteria than a normal person, and that the hysteria might be exacerbated by alcohol. The judge at trial refused to allow these questions to be asked. The Court of Criminal Appeal dismissed an appeal, (see [1964] 3 All ER 582, [1964] 1 WLR 1286) following its own decision in R v Gunewardene [1951] 2 All ER 290, [1951] 2 KB 600. In a speech with which all the members of the House of Lords agreed in favour of allowing the appeal, Lord Pearce said ([1965] 1 All ER 506 at 512, [1965] AC 595 at 608–609):
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‘Human evidence shares the frailties of those who give it. It is subject to many cross-currents such as partiality, prejudice, self-interest and, above all, imagination and inaccuracy. Those are matters with which the jury, helped by cross-examination and commonsense, must do their best. But when a witness through physical (in which I include mental) disease or abnormality is not capable of giving a true or reliable account to the jury, it must surely be allowable for medical science to reveal this vital hidden fact to them.’
Lord Pearce drew an analogy and then added:
‘So, too, must it be allowable to call medical evidence of mental illness which makes a witness incapable of giving reliable evidence, whether through the existence of delusions or otherwise.’
His Lordship said:
‘Gunewardene’s case was, in my opinion, wrongly decided. Medical evidence is admissible to show that a witness suffers from some disease or defect or abnormality of mind that affects the reliability of his evidence. Such evidence is not confined to a general opinion of the unreliability of the witness but may give all the matters necessary to show not only the foundation of and reasons for the diagnosis but also the extent to which the credibility of the witness is affected.’
Lowery v R [1973] 3 All ER 662, [1974] AC 85 was a case in which the appellant and another young man were charged with the sadistic murder of a young girl. Each said it was the other who had killed the girl. Despite objection on the part of the appellant, the defence for the other man were allowed to call the evidence of a psychologist as to their respective personalities. On that evidence the jury were invited to conclude that the appellant was the more likely of the two to have killed the girl. They were both convicted, and the appellant appealed on the ground that the psychologist’s evidence was inadmissible.
Giving the opinion of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council dismissing the appeal, Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest said ([1973] 3 All ER 662 at 672, [1974] AC 85 at 103):
‘… it was most relevant for King to be able to show, if he could, that Lowery had a personality marked by aggressiveness whereas he, King, had a personality which suggested that he would be led and dominated by someone who was dominant and aggressive. In support of King’s case the evidence of Professor Cox was relevant if it tended to show that the version of the facts put forward by King was more probable than that put forward by Lowery. Not only however was the evidence which King called relevant to this case: its admissibility was placed beyond doubt by the whole substance of Lowery’s case. Not only did Lowery assert that the killing was done by King and not only did he say that he had been in fear of King but, as previously mentioned, he set himself up as one who had no motive whatsoever in killing the girl and as one who would not have been likely to wreck his good prospects and furthermore as one who would not have been interested in the sort of behaviour manifested by the killer. While ascribing the sole responsibility to King he was also in effect saying that he himself was not the sort of man to have committed the offence. The only question now arising is whether in the special circumstances above referred to it was open to King in defending himself to call Professor Cox to give the evidence that he did. The evidence was relevant to and necessary for his case which involved negativing what Lowery had said and put forward: in their Lordships’ view in agreement with that of the Court of Criminal Appeal the evidence was admissible.’
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So far the position seems reasonably clear, and the authorities would support the proposition that the evidence which we heard would be admissible in the present case and would have been admissible in 1974. However, a number of decisions thereafter showed a less clear picture. In R v Turner [1975] 1 All ER 70, [1975] QB 834, a decision of this court, a defendant on a charge of murder was not permitted to call a psychiatrist to prove the depth of his emotional state in order to support his defence of provocation. Giving the judgment of the court dismissing the appeal Lawton LJ said ([1975] 1 All ER 70 at 75, [1975] QB 834 at 842):
‘We adjudge Lowery v The Queen to have been decided on its special facts. We do not consider that it is an authority for the proposition that in all cases psychologists and psychiatrists can be called to prove the probability of the accused’s veracity. If any such rule was applied in our courts trial by psychiatrist would be likely to take the place of trial by jury and magistrates. We do not find that prospect attractive and the law does not at present provide for it … we are firmly of the opinion that psychiatry has not yet become a satisfactory substitute for the common sense of juries or magistrates on matters within their experience of life.’
That decision was followed by another division of this court presided over by Lord Lane CJ in R v Masih [1986] Crim LR 395.
However, R v Everett [1988] Crim LR 826 was a decision to the opposite effect. The issue was whether the judge at trial should have ruled under s 76(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 that a confession allegedly made by the appellant was inadmissible because, although the appellant was of very low mental age, he did not have a solicitor or other responsible person present when he was interviewed. The judge at trial had admitted the evidence. He had heard the evidence of a psychiatrist about the mental condition of the defendant, but had apparently given little or no weight to it. This court allowed the appeal. Giving the judgment of the court, Watkins LJ said (and we read from the transcript):
‘Thus, when the judge had to decide in making up his mind whether or not to admit these confessions, he had to take into account the evidence which he had listened to from experts as to that mental condition.’
Watkins LJ then summarised the evidence and later said:
‘What the judge in fact did was to rule in effect that he did not have to take account of the medical evidence of the mental condition of the appellant. On the contrary he listened to the tape recording and expressed himself, having done that, to be satisfied that the appellant understood the questions and made rational answers to them. That is not the function of a judge in such a situation as this. He cannot say to himself, “I am going to listen to a tape recording of the interviews and decide upon that alone whether it is proper to admit evidence of confessions.” He must, as we have already said, regard the whole circumstances and take account of the medical evidence, which was here in no way contested. Having done so, he may decide, bearing in mind the terms of the provision I have referred to and the code, whether the prosecution has discharged the clear burden upon it. Here it most certainly had not.’
Most recently in R v Raghip (1991) Times, 9 December the court was directly concerned with the question whether the trial judge should have admitted the evidence of psychologists and a psychiatrist as to the appellant’s lack of mental
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capacity. Giving the judgment of this court, Farquharson LJ said of the decision in R v Masih (and we read from the transcript):
‘With respect to Lord Lane CJ he is there indorsing the “judge for yourself” approach in respect of the jury which this court in R v Everett held was the wrong approach for the judge. The state of the psychological evidence before us as outlined earlier in this judgment—in contradistinction to that which was available to the defence at Raghip’s trial and before this court on the renewed application—is such as to demonstrate that the jury would have been assisted in assessing the mental condition of Raghip and the consequent reliability of the alleged confessions … We emphasise that nothing we say in this judgment is intended to reflect upon the admissibility of psychiatric or psychological evidence going to the issue of the defendant’s mens rea. But in the context of assessment of reliability of a confession pursuant to s 76(2)(b) we consider that the trial judge should ask himself the question posed earlier … Posing that question and applying those criteria in the instant case we consider that the psychological evidence as deployed before us was required to assist the jury and would have been admissible at Raghip’s trial but not available at the time thereof. Having done so, it is apparent for the reasons given earlier that this fresh evidence renders Raghip’s conviction unsafe and unsatisfactory and his appeal is allowed on this ground also.’
We appreciate that in R v Raghip the fresh evidence was advanced in support of an argument that, if it had been available at the trial, it would have supported an application to the judge to rule that Raghip’s confessions were inadmissible under s 76(2)(b) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. The judgment in that case, however, applies equally to the admissibility of such evidence to prove that no reliance could be placed on the appellant’s confessions and admissions.
We agree with what Lawton LJ said in R v Turner, that Lowery v R is not an authority for the proposition that in all cases psychologists and psychiatrists can be called to prove the probability of the accused’s veracity. Nor is the decision of this court in R v Raghip authority for such a wide-ranging proposition. But we conclude on the authorities as they now stand that the expert evidence of a psychiatrist or a psychologist may properly be admitted if it is to the effect that a defendant is suffering from a condition not properly described as mental illness, but from a personality disorder so severe as properly to be categorised as mental disorder. Both Dr MacKeith and Dr Bowden here so categorise the condition from which, in their opinion, the appellant was suffering in 1974 and before. In our view such evidence is admissible on the issue whether what a defendant has said in a confession or admission was reliable and therefore likely to have been true.
We emphasise that the occasions on which such evidence will properly be admissible will properly be rare. This decision is not to be construed as an open invitation to every defendant who repents of having confessed and seeks to challenge the truth of his confession to seek the aid of a psychiatrist. But, where evidence of the quality and force of that of Doctors MacKeith and Bowden is tendered, it is in our view properly admissible. For that reason we admitted it and have taken account of it.
Mr MacFarland’s opinion
As to the admissibility of Mr MacFarland’s opinion about the appellant, we have already quoted and repeat a passage from Cross on Evidence (7th edn, 1990)
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p 498. We add only that, if the defence had had his statement in their possession, they could properly have used it in cross-examination of him, and no doubt, without too much difficulty elicited his view.
Conclusions on this issue
The extent to which the appellant’s confessions and admissions could be regarded as reliable and thus true was the major issue in the trial. We have already quoted the comment which the learned judge made, and, on the evidence which had been called before him, was perfectly entitled to make, in his summing up. We believe that if Waller J had had before him the evidence we have had, both the fresh evidence or evidence of that kind, and the evidence which was in existence at the time of the trial and was not disclosed, he would not have made the comment he did.
In the light of all this evidence, we cannot now be satisfied that reliance can be placed upon the truth of any of the appellant’s confessions or admissions. Accordingly on this ground her conviction on all counts is unsafe and unsatisfactory.
OVERALL CONCLUSION
This was and is a most extraordinary case. For almost two years before her arrest the appellant on frequent occasions both did and said things which were calculated to make those who saw and heard her believe that she was a supporter of the Provisional IRA and had assisted that organisation to the extent of committing serious criminal offences. It is to the credit of some of those in Northern Ireland who heard what she said that they did not believe her and therefore took no action against her. Then, after her arrest, she admitted, apparently voluntarily, being involved in three separate offences of causing explosions, all of them offences of the greatest seriousness, of which one in particular had horrifying results. Only at trial, so far as the jury knew, did she say that the confessions on which the prosecution relied were not true. But her confessions were supported, and the force of her denials accordingly weakened, by scientific evidence which appeared to show that after two of the explosions she had traces of nitroglycerine on her hands, with no innocent explanation, and that at a time relevant to the M62 bombing, nitroglycerine had been in her luggage and in the caravan in which she was living. On the evidence placed before the judge and jury, the prosecution had a strong case.
It is rare, but not unknown, for a person who is not subjected to any improper pressure or an inducement to confess to crimes he or she has not committed. It is even more rare for somebody, in such circumstances, to confess to crimes as grave as those for which the appellant stood trial. Nevertheless our criminal courts, and all those who owe a duty to do what is necessary to ensure that the courts arrive at proper verdicts, must take account of the possibility that confessions, though not the result of any impropriety, may be untrue. For this reason amongst others it is essential that those who are responsible for a prosecution and for the provision of evidence upon which the prosecution is based should comply with their basic duty to seek to ensure a trial which is fair both to the prosecution, representing the Crown, and to the accused. In failing to disclose evidence in the various respects we have described, one or more members of the West Yorkshire Police, the scientists who gave evidence for the prosecution at the trial and some of those members of the staff of the Director of Public Prosecution and counsel who advised them, to whom we have earlier referred, failed to carry out this basic duty. We greatly regret that as a result a grave miscarriage of justice has occurred.
If Mr Ollier had obtained the opinion of a psychiatrist, it may well be that he
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would not have been able to obtain evidence of the same nature or quality as that which we received from Dr MacKeith and Dr Bowden. If there had been no such evidence, but the evidence which should have been but was not disclosed had all been available to the defence, the prosecution’s case would have been much weakened, the defence would have been strengthened in seeking to establish the appellant’s unreliability and the scientific evidence would have been shown to provide little if any support to the truth of her confessions.
Our conclusion overall on the three heads of appeal is therefore that, in the failure to disclose evidence, some in the possession of the police, some in the possession of the scientists and some in the possession of the Director, there were material irregularities at the trial and that, having regard to that non-disclosure added to the fresh evidence we have heard, the convictions were all unsafe and unsatisfactory. We therefore allow the appeal and quash the convictions of the appellant on all counts.
Appeal allowed. Conviction quashed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Davis and other appeals
[1993] 2 All ER 643
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, OWEN AND CURTIS JJ
Hearing Date(s): 14, 15 JANUARY 1993
Criminal evidence – Prosecution evidence – Disclosure of information to defence – Disclosure of documents – Public interest immunity – Guidelines where Crown seeking to justify non-disclosure of prosecution evidence to defence.
The three applicants were convicted of a number of offences including murder. They applied for leave to appeal against their convictions and their application was referred to the full court. Pending the hearing of the application, however, counsel for the Crown applied to the Court of Appeal seeking its ruling on a matter of disclosure. Counsel handed the court a document which was not shown to counsel for the defence and invited the court to sit in camera, submitting that the matter was so sensitive that the court ought to hear counsel for the Crown ex parte or if inter partes only if defence counsel gave an undertaking not to disclose what took place to their clients or to their solicitors. Counsel for the defence indicated that they could not give such an undertaking and voluntarily withdrew from the hearing in camera. The court, having heard counsel for the Crown ex parte, indicated that it indorsed counsel’s decision not to disclose certain material to the defence at the trial of the applicants. Counsel for the defence subsequently requested that the matter be reconsidered, contending that they may have been incorrect in withdrawing voluntarily from the hearing in camera and that not only should they have been permitted to hear counsel for the Crown’s application without having to give an undertaking but counsel for the Crown should have been required to disclose at least the category of the material which he wished not to disclose to the defence.
Page 644 of [1993] 2 All ER 643
Held – Open justice required that maximum disclosure of evidence be made by the prosecution in a criminal trial and, whenever possible, that the defence be given the opportunity to make representations on the basis of fullest information; and it was for the court and not the prosecution to decide what material should or should not be disclosed to the defence. If the prosecution wished to rely on public interest immunity or sensitivity to justify non-disclosure, then, whenever possible, which would be in most cases, (a) they had to give notice to the defence that they were applying for a ruling by the court, (b) they had to indicate to the defence at least the category of the material they held and (c) the defence had to be given the opportunity of making representations to the court. However, where to disclose even the category of the material in question would in effect reveal that which the Crown contended should not in the public interest be revealed, a different procedure would apply and, although the Crown should still notify the defence that an application to the court would be made, the category of the material need not be specified and the application would be ex parte. If the court on hearing the application, considered that the normal procedure ought to have been followed, it would so order. If not, it would rule on the ex parte application. However, in highly exceptional and rare cases where disclosure of even the fact that an ex parte application was to be made could defeat the public interest in non-disclosure, the prosecution should apply to the court ex parte without notice to the defence and if the court, on hearing the application, considered that at least notice of the application should have been given to the defence or even that the normal inter partes procedure should be adopted, it would so order. Applying those principles, the court would not depart from its earlier decision that the material should not be disclosed to the defence and the appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 646 d e and p 647 e to p 648 b j, post).
R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577 considered.
Dictum of Glidewell LJ in R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577 at 632–633 disapproved.
Notes
For the disclosure of unused material to the defence, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1004, 1119.
For exclusion of evidence in criminal cases on grounds of public interest, see ibid para 1164, and for cases on the subject, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 178–179, 19771–19774.
Cases referred to in judgment
Practice Note [1982] 1 All ER 734.
R v Hennessey (1978) 68 Cr App R 419, CA.
R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577, [1993] 1 WLR 619, CA.
Cases also cited
R v Agar [1990] 2 All ER 442, CA.
R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 1) [1992] 1 All ER 108, [1991] 1 WLR 281, DC.
R v Hallett [1986] Crim LR 462, CA.
R v Henderson (6 October 1992, unreported), CCC.
R v Preston (1992) 95 Cr App R 355, CA.
Application
Michael George Davis, Raphael George Rowe and Randolph Egbert Johnson applied for leave to appeal against their convictions for, inter alia, murder in the
Page 645 of [1993] 2 All ER 643
Central Criminal Court before Auld J and a jury on 26 February 1990. The applications were referred to the full court by the single judge. On 20 October 1992 the applications came before the Court of Appeal (Lord Taylor CJ, Hutchison and Holland JJ), when counsel for the Crown sought the court’s ruling with respect to the disclosure of a document which counsel had handed to the court and having regard the contents of which he invited the court to sit in camera. Being unwilling to give undertakings not to disclose what took place at the hearing in camera either to the applicants or to their solicitors counsel for the applicants voluntarily withdrew. The court then heard counsel for the Crown and ruled that the document need not be disclosed to the defence. Counsel for the applicants subsequently sought the relisting of the case with a view to redeciding the matter on which the court had ruled on 20 October 1992. The application to relist the case came before the Court of Appeal (Lord Taylor CJ, Owen and Curtis JJ) on 14 January 1993 inter partes. The facts are set in the judgment of the court.
Michael Mansfield QC and Alan B R Masters (instructed by J B Wheatley & Co) for the applicant Davis and (instructed by B M Birnberg & Co) for the applicant Rowe.
David Stokes QC and Maurice Aston (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the applicant Johnson.
Julian Bevan QC and David Waters (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
15 January 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 26 February 1990 at the Central Criminal Court the three applicants were convicted of a number of offences including murder on the fifth indictment of a series of indictments concerning them. They were each sentenced to life imprisonment. They applied for leave to appeal against conviction, their appeals were referred to the full court by the single judge and they are imminently due to be heard.
Meanwhile, on 20 October 1992, the case came before a different constitution of this court and an application was made by Mr Bevan QC on behalf of the Crown. He handed to the court a document which was not shown to counsel for the defence. Having regard to the contents of the document, Mr Bevan invited the court to sit in camera. This the court did.
Mr Bevan then indicated that he sought the court’s ruling in regard to a matter of disclosure. The matter was said to be sensitive to a degree which would have required the court either to hear Mr Bevan ex parte or, if inter partes, only on an undertaking by defence counsel not to disclose what took place either to the applicants or to their solicitors. At that point, Mr Mansfield QC indicated that he could not conscientiously give such an undertaking and that he would therefore voluntarily withdraw from the hearing in camera. Mr Stokes QC adopted a similar stance. Mr Bevan’s application then proceeded ex parte. When he concluded it, the court indicated simply that it entirely indorsed the attitude Mr Bevan had adopted at the time of the trial in regard to the material in question. The case was then adjourned to be listed at a later date.
Subsequently, Mr Mansfield and Mr Stokes asked to have the case listed again with a view to reopening the matter decided on 20 October. The reason for this was that defending counsel considered they may have been incorrect in withdrawing voluntarily as they did. Mr Mansfield wished to argue that not only
Page 646 of [1993] 2 All ER 643
should he have been permitted to hear Mr Bevan’s application without having to give an undertaking, but Mr Bevan ought to have been required to disclose at least the category of the material about which he sought the court’s ruling on disclosure so that defending counsel could make representations on that issue.
Accordingly, the case was listed before us yesterday and we allowed Mr Mansfield to develop his argument, which was adopted by Mr Stokes. I should say that, although the constitution on this hearing has been different, I myself was a member of both constitutions.
It is common ground that the procedure when the prosecution are in possession of material they believe should not be disclosed to the defence has been changed by the decision of this court in R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577, [1993] 1 WLR 619. Previously, the decision whether to disclose or not was made by the prosecution in accordance with the Attorney General’s guidelines on unused material (see Practice Note [1982] 1 All ER 734). Those guidelines provided in para 2 that all unused material should normally be made available to the defence ‘if it has some bearing on the offence(s) charged and the surrounding circumstances of the case’. This normal rule was made subject to discretionary exceptions set out in para 6 of the guidelines. In particular, para 6(v) set out by way of example a number of categories of ‘sensitive’ material which it would not be in the public interest to disclose.
In R v Ward this court held that, where the prosecution wishes to claim public interest immunity justifying non-disclosure, it is for the court, not the prosecution, to decide whether disclosure must be made.
Reference was made to the words of Lawton LJ in R v Hennessey (1978) 68 Cr App R 419 at 426 where he said:
‘ … those who prepare and conduct prosecutions owe a duty to the Courts to ensure that all relevant evidence of help to an accused is either led by them or made available to the defence.’
Glidewell LJ went on ([1993] 2 All ER 577 at 601, [1993] 1 WLR 619 at 645):
‘We would emphasise that “all relevant evidence of help to the accused” is not limited to evidence which will obviously advance the accused’s case. It is of help to the accused to have the opportunity of considering all the material evidence which the prosecution have gathered, and from which the prosecution have made their own selection of evidence to be led.’
He continued ([1993] 2 All ER 577 at 632–633, [1993] 1 WLR 619 at 680-681):
‘It is true that public interest immunity provides an exception to the general duty of disclosure. For present purposes it is not necessary to attempt to analyse the requirements of public interest immunity. But in argument the question arose whether, if in a criminal case the prosecution wished to claim public interest immunity for documents helpful to the defence, the prosecution is in law obliged to give notice to the defence of the asserted right to withhold the documents so that, if necessary, the court can be asked to rule on the legitimacy of the prosecution’s asserted claim. Mr Mansfield’s position was simple and readily comprehensible. He submitted that there was such a duty, and that it admitted of no qualification or exception. Moreover, he contended that it would be incompatible with a defendant’s absolute right to a fair trial to allow the prosecution, who occupy an adversarial position in criminal proceedings, to be judge in their own cause on the asserted claim to immunity. Unfortunately, and despite repeated questions by the court, the Crown’s position on this vital issue remained opaque to the end. We are fully persuaded by Mr Mansfield’s reasoning on
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this point. It seems to us that he was right to remind us that when the prosecution acted as judge in their own cause on the issue of public interest immunity in this case they committed a significant number of errors which affected the fairness of the proceedings. Policy considerations therefore powerfully reinforce the view that it would be wrong to allow the prosecution to withhold material documents without giving any notice of that fact to the defence. If, in a wholly exceptional case, the prosecution are not prepared to have the issue of public interest immunity determined by a court, the result must inevitably be that the prosecution will have to be abandoned.’
Before us, Mr Mansfield submitted first that, where the court has to consider disclosure, it cannot be right to require counsel for the defence to give an undertaking not to reveal what passes in court to his instructing-solicitors and client. Nor should he, as happened here, voluntarily absent himself. We agree. It would wholly undermine counsel’s relationship with his client if he were privy to issues in court but could reveal neither the discussion nor even the issues to his client. There would also be practical difficulties, as Mr Bevan pointed out. Counsel might have different views as to whether they would give such an undertaking; there might be a change of counsel and therefore a change of view, where several defendants were concerned their counsel might differ about giving undertakings. Accordingly, whatever happens in court with defending counsel present would, in our view, have to be disclosable to his clients.
Relying on R v Ward, Mr Mansfield submits that in all cases where the prosecution contend public interest immunity or sensitivity justifies nondisclosure (a) they must give notice to the defence that they are applying for a ruling by the court, (b) they must indicate to the defence at least the category of the material they hold and (c) the defence must have the opportunity to make representations to the court.
In other words, he contends for an inter partes hearing in all cases with disclosure of at least the category of the material. By ‘category’, he refers to those listed in para 6(v) of the Attorney General’s guidelines.
Mr Bevan accepts that in the majority of cases these requirements should be met. The problem arises where, exceptionally, the sensitivity of the material is such that to reveal the category, or, still more exceptionally, the very fact that an application is being made to the court, will defeat the public interest in nondisclosure.
In our judgment, the proper approach is as follows. (1) In general, it is the duty of the prosecution to comply, voluntarily and without more, with the requirements in para 2 of the Attorney General’s guidelines. (2) If the prosecution wish to rely on public interest immunity or sensitivity to justify non-disclosure, then, whenever possible, which will be in most cases, (a), (b) and (c) of Mr Mansfield’s formulation above will apply. (3) Where, however, to disclose even the category of the material in question would in effect be to reveal that which the Crown contends should not in the public interest be revealed, a different procedure will apply. The Crown should still notify the defence that an application to the court is to be made, but the category of the material need not be specified and the application will be ex parte. If the court, on hearing the application, considers that the normal procedure under (2) above ought to have been followed, it will so order. If not, it will rule on the ex parte application. (4) It may be that, in a highly exceptional case, to reveal even the fact that an ex parte application is to be made, could ‘let the cat out of the bag’ so as to stultify the application. Such a case would be rare indeed, but we accept Mr Bevan’s contention that it could occur. In that event, the prosecution should apply to the court, ex parte, without notice to the defence. Again, if the court, on hearing the
Page 648 of [1993] 2 All ER 643
application, considered that at least notice of the application should have been given to the defence or even that the normal inter partes procedure should have been adopted, it will so order.
In reaching these conclusions, we recognise that open justice requires maximum disclosure and whenever possible the opportunity for the defence to make representations on the basis of fullest information. However, in regard to public interest immunity in criminal cases, it is implicit that the defence cannot have the fullest information without pre-empting the outcome of the application. Before R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577, [1993] 1 WLR 619 the defence would have been totally unaware that, within the prosecution authority, the question of whether to disclose sensitive material or not was being resolved. The effect of R v Ward is to give the court the role of monitoring the views of the prosecution as to what material should or should not be disclosed and it is for the court to decide. Thus, the procedure described as unsatisfactory in R v Ward, of the prosecution being judge in their own cause, has been superseded by requiring the application to the court. This clearly gives greater protection to the defence than existed hitherto—indeed as much protection as can be given without pre-empting the issue. Although ideally one would wish the defence to have notice of all such applications, and to have sufficient information to make at least some representations, we recognise that, in a small minority of cases, the public interest prevents that being possible.
The only way of avoiding ex parte applications in that rare class of case would be to say the prosecution must choose between following the normal inter partes procedure or declining to prosecute. Rare though these highly sensitive cases will be, they are likely to be serious cases which it would be in the public interest to prosecute. Accordingly, we see no alternative to the rules we have set out above. In our view, the passage in R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577 at 632–633, [1993] 1 WLR 619 at 680–681 went too far in accepting Mr Mansfield’s submission that the general rule requiring notice to the defence admitted of no qualification or exception. It may be that the court was disadvantaged by lacking, as mentioned in the judgment, a clear statement such as we have had of the Crown’s arguments on this topic.
We should add that, where the court, on application by the Crown, rules in favour of non-disclosure before the hearing of a case begins, that ruling is not necessarily final. In the course of the hearing, the situation may change. Issues may emerge so that the public interest in non-disclosure may be eclipsed by the need to disclose in the interests of securing fairness to the defendant. If that were to occur, the court would have to indicate to the Crown its change of view. The Crown would then have to decide whether to disclose or offer no further evidence.
It will therefore be necessary for the court to continue to monitor the issue. For that reason, it is desirable that the same judge or constitution of the court which decides the application should conduct the hearing. If that is not possible, the judge or constitution which does conduct the hearing should be apprised at the outset of the material upon which non-disclosure was upheld on the Crown’s earlier application.
Applying these principles, we decline in the present case to depart from the ruling given on 20 October 1992.
Order accordingly.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Taylor v Newham London Borough Council
[1993] 2 All ER 649
Categories: HOUSING: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Tenancies
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, McCOWAN AND HIRST LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 27 JANUARY 1993
Housing – Local authority houses – Tenant’s right to buy – Enforcement of right – Injunction – Tenant exercising right to buy – Local authority accepting tenant had right to buy but refusing to complete sale because of tenant’s alleged harassment of neighbours – Tenant seeking injunction to enforce right to buy – Whether grant of injunction to enforce right to buy discretionary – Whether court having discretion to refuse injunction on grounds of hardship – Housing Act 1985, s 138(1)(3).
In October 1990 the plaintiff, the tenant of a council house, served a notice under s 122 of the Housing Act 1985 claiming to exercise her right under s 118(1)(a)a of that Act to buy the house. The council accepted that the plaintiff had the right to buy and agreed a purchase price with the plaintiff. Subsequently, the council decided that it did not wish to go through with the sale and in June 1991 it issued proceedings in the county court to obtain possession of the house on the ground that the plaintiff had breached the terms of her tenancy by racially harassing her neighbours. The plaintiff denied the council’s allegations and in March 1992 issued proceedings in the county court for an injunction under s 138(3)b of the 1985 Act to enforce the duty imposed on the council by s 138(1) to convey the freehold to a tenant who exercised his right to buy. By its defence the council contended that an injunction under s 138(3) enforcing the right to buy was discretionary and that, having regard to the plaintiff’s alleged conduct towards her neighbours, the court should refuse to grant the injunction sought, since otherwise the council would be prevented from discharging its duty to third parties such as neighbouring tenants, and hardship would be caused. The tenant’s claim for an injunction and the council’s claim for possession were heard together, when a preliminary point was argued whether the court had a discretion under s 138(3) of the 1985 Act to refuse the grant of an injunction to the plaintiff. The judge held that the court did not have such a discretion and ordered that the defence be struck out as disclosing no reasonable defence and that the sale of the house be completed. The council appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – Section 138 of the 1985 Act set out in unequivocal and unqualified mandatory terms a local authority’s duty to convey a dwelling house to a council tenant exercising his right to buy under s 118 of that Act, and it was clear, as a matter of construction, that Parliament did not intend that general considerations of hardship should afford any ground for refusing to grant an injunction under s 138(3) to back up the right to buy. It followed that, the conditions in s 138(1) having been satisfied, the plaintiff was entitled as of right to an injunction to enforce the council’s duty to convey the house to her on the terms agreed and the court had no discretion to refuse the injunction. Furthermore, the council’s claim for possession did not afford a ground for withholding an injunction under s 138(3) since that claim had not been decided when the conditions of s 138(1) were satisfied. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see p 654 c d, p 655 e f and p 656 a b d e, post).
Page 650 of [1993] 2 All ER 649
Dictum of McCowan LJ in Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572 at 578–579 applied.
Notes
For local authority tenants’ right to buy their homes, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 886–909, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 618–620, 12542–12552.
For the Housing Act 1985, ss 118, 122, 138, see 21 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 148, 151, 168.
Cases referred to in judgments
Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572, [1990] 1 WLR 1097, CA.
Enfield London BC v McKeon [1986] 2 All ER 730, [1986] 1 WLR 1007, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Hambro Life Assurance plc v White Young & Partners [1985] 2 EGLR 165, CA.
Patel v Ali [1984] 1 All ER 978, [1984] Ch 283.
Appeal
The defendant, Newham London Borough Council, appealed with the leave of the judge against the order of Judge Goldstein made on 12 May 1992 in the Bow County Court whereby he granted the claim of the plaintiff, Cathryn Taylor, for an injunction pursuant to s 138(3) of the Housing Act 1985 requiring the council to convey to the plaintiff the freehold of 96 Carlyle Road, London E12. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
David Watkinson (instructed by Gerard Curran) for the council.
David Brook (instructed by Kenneth Elliott & Rowe, Romford) for the plaintiff.
27 January 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. The plaintiff in this action is the tenant of a house owned by the defendant local authority. She is entitled to buy the house under the provisions of Pt V of the Housing Act 1985. The issue in the appeal is whether, on her application to enforce that right to buy by injunction, the court has a discretion to refuse that relief. There is further a subsidiary question as to whether on the facts here, if it does have such a discretion, it should exercise it to deny her an injunction.
The facts are very short and very simple. The plaintiff lives at 96 Carlyle Road, Manor Park, London E12. The defendant council is her landlord and owns the house. By virtue of a tenancy agreement dated 6 August 1984 the plaintiff is a secure tenant of the house within the meaning of s 79 of the 1985 Act. She is a person entitled to buy the house under s 118 of that Act.
In October 1990 she claimed to exercise her right to buy the house by written notice to the council under s 122 of the 1985 Act. The council duly admitted the plaintiff’s right to buy under s 124. In due course, but after a certain amount of negotiation and pressure, a purchase price of £32,860 was agreed.
Just before that stage was reached, on 18 January 1991, the plaintiff received from the council notice of the landlord’s intention to seek possession. That was some months before the particulars of the offer to buy were finally agreed with the council. The outcome was that on 24 June 1991 the council issued proceedings in the Bow County Court claiming possession of the house. The grounds upon which that claim was made was that the plaintiff was in breach of the terms of her tenancy. Putting the matter very shortly, it was contended that the plaintiff herself and her family had been guilty of conduct which harassed and annoyed
Page 651 of [1993] 2 All ER 649
her neighbours. Details were given in the pleading of a number of acts said to have been committed between April 1988 and August 1989, being acts of an aggressive, violent, insulting and offensive nature and being, as it was alleged, the product of hostility born of racial enmity. Certainly, the pleading was to the effect that the victims of the plaintiff’s conduct were almost, if not entirely, drawn from the local Asian community.
A defence was put in dated 12 July 1991 to that claim for possession in which the right to possession and also the facts pleaded were roundly denied. It is right to emphasise that those allegations have not been investigated and they should be regarded as no more than allegations which are contradicted. It is, however, relevant to point out that at the date of the claim the events were some two to three years old and that, at the time when the plaintiff exercised her right to buy the house by giving notice of her intention to do so, there was no claim for possession made against her, let alone any possession order.
The next stage of the proceedings came on 9 March 1992 when these proceedings were issued in the Bow County Court and the plaintiff claimed in those proceedings an injunction to enforce her right to buy under s 138(3) of the 1985 Act. The council put in a defence on 3 April 1992 in which, in para 12, it denied the plaintiff’s right to an injunction. It pleaded the acts of annoyance, discrimination and harassment set out in the particulars of claim in the possession action and it relied on s 121(1) of the 1985 Act to contend that the plaintiff was not entitled to exercise effectively her right to buy. The county court ordered that the claim for an injunction should be heard on 5 May 1992 when the possession action was also due to be heard.
Thus it was that the parties went to the Bow County Court on 5 May 1992 and then, by agreement, there was argument on a preliminary point whether the county court had discretion to refuse the grant of an injunction to the plaintiff. Judge Goldstein, who heard the argument, gave his judgment on 12 May 1992 and it was plainly a carefully considered judgment. I would take this opportunity not only to acknowledge our indebtedness to the learned judge for giving such a clear and careful judgment, but also to observe how helpful it now is when county court judges’ judgments reach us in the form of transcripts taken from the tape and give us a very much better idea of what the learned judge actually said than was available in days of yore.
In his judgment the learned judge very plainly indicated the issue which he had to decide. He said, referring to the plaintiff:
‘She has now become entitled, under Pt V of the Housing Act 1985 to exercise her right to buy that house from [the council]. Three important matters are not in dispute in this case: firstly, that she is entitled in law to make her application to buy; secondly, that she is not a disqualified person under s 121 of the Act from exercising that right; lastly, despite some delay in the matter, all the formalities for completing the transfer of the property from the [council] to the secure tenant are now in place. The [council] however, do not wish to go through with the sale. They say it would not be equitable to force them to complete the sale of this house to this plaintiff. Thus it is that this action has been brought on behalf of the plaintiff, who seeks to enforce the sale under s 138(3) of the same Act by asking this court to grant her an injunction. To that claim the [council] have put in and put forward the defence, discussion of which has formed the preliminary issue in this trial. If I could just summarise the defence—I hope doing it no injustice—what is being said is to grant an injunction is of course to exercise a discretionary remedy which the court may or may not so exercise. That the court should exercise the discretion in the [council’s] favour and not enforce
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the sale for the following reasons: firstly, it would be a hardship to the [council] if the injunction were granted; secondly, the [council] owe a duty to third parties and in all the circumstances of this case it would be unreasonable if the court were to act in such a way as to prevent the defendant [council] from discharging its duty to those third parties. The real basis for putting forward such a claim arises in this way. In the defence, and indeed in another separate but obviously linked matter, the defence outline an alleged claim for possession which they say they have against the [plaintiff] based upon what is basically one act of alleged racial harassment in 1989, proceedings of which were only commenced in June 1991.’
The learned judge then reviewed the 1985 Act and in particular the authority of Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 (to which I shall come) and then he said:
‘It seems to me here that what these defendants [the council] are seeking to do is one of two things. They are either seeking to circumvent the principles of the right to buy, which the court obviously cannot and will not condone, or they are seeking to impose some form of condition that any proposed purchaser must be a person of whom the landlords approve and nowhere in the legislation can I find support for that proposition.’
He accordingly held that the council’s allegations did not give grounds upon which it could effectively resist the injunction and, that being so, he did not go into the allegations. He did, however, add that, even if the complaints were made out and even if he did have a discretion to withhold an injunction, he thought it very doubtful if he could make a possession order in the council’s favour in all the circumstances. That question, however, did not arise for decision since he ruled that the defence of 3 April 1992 disclosed no reasonable defence. He accordingly ordered that the defence be struck out, that the sale of the house be completed and that the possession proceedings be stayed pending appeal. He also gave leave to appeal.
It is not necessary for the purposes of this judgment to go at great length into the provisions of Pt V of the 1985 Act. It suffices, I think, to refer to s 118(1)(a), which provides:
‘A secure tenant has the right to buy, that is to say, the right, in the circumstances and subject to the conditions and exceptions stated in the following provisions of this Part—(a) if the dwelling-house is a house and the landlord owns the freehold, to acquire the freehold of the dwelling-house …’
Section 120 sets out exceptions to the right to buy by reference to cases specified in Sch 5, and s 121 defines the circumstances in which the right to buy cannot be exercised. So far as material it reads:
‘(1) The right to buy cannot be exercised if the tenant is obliged to give up possession of the dwelling-house in pursuance of an order of the court or will be so obliged at a date specified in the order.
(2) The right to buy cannot be exercised if the person, or one of the persons, to whom the right to buy belongs—(a) has a bankruptcy petition pending against him … (c) is an undischarged bankrupt, or (d) has made a composition or arrangement with his creditors the terms of which remain to be fulfilled.’
There follow a series of sections outlining the procedure to be followed when the
Page 653 of [1993] 2 All ER 649
right to buy is exercised and dealing with the right to a mortgage and ascertainment of the purchase price. Then one comes to s 138, which is the relevant section for present purposes. It provides:
‘(1) Where a secure tenant has claimed to exercise the right to buy and that right has been established, then, as soon as all matters relating to the grant and to the amount to be left outstanding or advanced on the security of the dwelling-house have been agreed or determined, the landlord shall make to the tenant—(a) if the dwelling-house is a house and the landlord owns the freehold, a grant of the dwelling-house for an estate in fee simple … in accordance with the following provisions of this Part.
(2) If the tenant has failed to pay the rent or any other payment due from him as a tenant for a period of four weeks after it has been lawfully demanded from him, the landlord is not bound to comply with subsection (1) while the whole or part of that payment remains outstanding.
(3) The duty imposed on the landlord by subsection (1) is enforceable by injunction.’
It is that last provision which founds the plaintiff’s claim in this action.
In submitting in this court that the learned judge below erred in holding that he had no discretion, Mr Watkinson, who argues the case on behalf of the council relies principally on a recent authority of this court in Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572, [1990] 1 WLR 1097, to which I have already referred. In that case the tenants sought to exercise their right to buy, but they wanted to leave part of the purchase price outstanding and accordingly made arrangements to defer their purchase for a period of three years. The council acknowledged that the tenants had chosen to defer the purchase. The council also accepted a deposit towards the purchase price, and the council confirmed that there was no compulsory purchase scheme which affected houses in the area of that which the plaintiffs wished to buy. Unhappily, however, the housing committee of the council had resolved to demolish houses including the plaintiffs’. Accordingly, eight months later the council informed the tenants that they proposed to demolish the house and offered to return the deposit. The tenants, however wrote a letter on 2 September 1988 in which they required the council to complete the sale of the property to them and specified a date by which completion was to take place. The council did not comply with that notice and instead served a notice of their own, seeking possession on the grounds that they proposed to demolish the house. At that stage the tenants issued proceedings, claiming an injunction under s 138(3) of the 1985 Act. The council for their part counterclaimed for possession and said that the right to buy was defeated by s 121(1), which is the section already referred to, which makes the existence of a possession order a ground of defence. The council also issued separate possession proceedings. Judge John Hamilton in that case acceded to a request by the council that the tenants’ claim for an injunction should be adjourned until the merits of the claim for possession had been investigated. Against that decision the tenants appealed and the appeal in this court was allowed.
There were observations in the course of the first judgment given by Nourse LJ in this court on which Mr Watkinson principally founds his submissions now. He points out that in the opening sentences of his judgment Nourse LJ made reference to the similarity between the right to buy provided by the 1985 Act and an option to purchase. He also draws attention to Nourse LJ’s statement that—
‘The right to an injunction in a case where there is no contract cannot be any different in its incidents from the right to an order for specific
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performance in a case where there is a contract … The comparison may or may not be exact, but the injunction cannot be less readily available than an order for specific performance, which, although it is a discretionary remedy, is refused only on well settled grounds, for example hardship to the party against whom it is granted.’ (See [1990] 3 All ER 572 at 577–588, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 at 1104–1105; Nourse LJ’s emphasis.)
In reliance on those observations in a judgment with which Browne-Wilkinson V-C agreed, Mr Watkinson submits that any ground which would enable a defendant to resist an order for specific performance, in particular hardship to third parties, or any ground which might induce a court properly to refuse the grant of an injunction in the exercise of its discretion, will enable a local authority to resist the grant of an injunction under s 138(3). Accordingly, he submits that the injury to third party neighbours of the plaintiff’s is a legitimate consideration to which attention should be given in considering whether the statutory remedy of an injunction should be granted.
Approaching the matter at this stage purely on the basis of this authority, I find myself wholly unpersuaded by that argument. In drawing attention to the possible analogy with an option to purchase or with specific performance Nourse LJ was doing what any lawyer tends to do when confronted by a new statutory animal, which is to consider and reflect on what analogies there are to that statutory animal in the existing law. Thus it was natural for Nourse LJ to consider options to purchase and specific performance, both of which clearly have some resemblance to the statutory animal created by the 1985 Act.
What, however, I feel sure that Nourse LJ did not intend was that the analogy in the general law should wag the statutory dog. He was dealing with a case in which the right to an injunction was quite clear. There was no question of hardship and I find no reason whatever to suppose that Nourse LJ was intending to introduce into this straightforward statutory remedy doctrines which have grown up around both the grant of specific performance and the grant of an injunction. I would, however, observe, in case there should be any doubt about it, that various grounds which do enable a court properly to resist an order for specific performance such as mistake, misrepresentation or fraud would unquestionably afford a reason for not making an order under s 138(3) because they would be grounds for saying that the conditions in s 138(1) had not been fulfilled.
It is not, however, necessary to confine one’s consideration of the reasoning in Dance’s case to the judgment of Nourse LJ alone since McCowan LJ was also a member of that court and gave a judgment with which Browne-Wilkinson V-C also agreed. I draw attention in particular to what McCowan LJ said ([1990] 3 All ER 572 at 578–579, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 at 1106):
‘From receipt of the letter of 2 September the defendants were under a duty to convey the house to the plaintiffs on or before 26 September. It follows that from that date the defendants were in breach of their statutory duty to convey the house, and the plaintiffs were entitled to an injunction to enforce that duty. It would, in my view, be very regrettable if the defendants could, by refusing or failing to carry out their statutory duty, improve their position. Therefore, unless I am obliged by the words of the statute or by authority to decide otherwise, I would hold that, certainly by the time 26 September 1988 had passed, it was too late for the defendants to take steps to defeat the plaintiffs’ entitlement to completion. Section 121(1) of the Act could not assist the defendants at the hearing before the judge because at that date it was not possible to say that “the tenant is obliged to give up possession
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of the dwelling-house in pursuance of an order of the court or will be so obliged at a date specified in the order”.’
McCowan LJ then distinguished an earlier authority of this court (Enfield London BC v McKeon [1986] 2 All ER 730, [1986] 1 WLR 1007) which had been considered in argument and continued ([1990] 3 All ER 572 at 579, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 at 1106–1107):
‘Before us, counsel for the defendants put the matter in this way: “I accept the judge had a discretion to grant the plaintiffs the injunction they sought. Had he done so, I could not have complained. But he chose to exercise his discretion by adjourning the application in order to hear at the same time the defendants’ claim for possession. Unless it can be said that that exercise of discretion was wholly wrong, this court should not interfere.” In my judgment, the judge had, in the circumstances of this case, no discretion to refuse the plaintiffs an injunction, and no question therefore arose, as the judge thought, of a “balancing exercise required to exercise the discretion either to grant or refuse an injunction and consequently to grant or refuse an order for possession”. Accordingly, I do not consider that he had a discretion to adjourn the matter to allow the defendants to get their claim for possession before the court.’
This was, I repeat, a judgment with which Browne-Wilkinson V-C agreed and plainly McCowan LJ was holding in robust terms that there was no discretion and that the learned judge was obliged to make the order which was asked in favour of the tenants.
I understand the upshot of that judgment as being that, once the conditions in s 138(1) are satisfied, the tenant is entitled as of right to an injunction to enforce the landlord’s duty to convey the property to him on the terms agreed or determined and the court has no discretion to withhold such an injunction.
In this case, like Dance’s case, the claim for possession had not been decided when the conditions of s 138(1) were satisfied and therefore did not provide a ground for withholding the injunction. It may be going too far, and unnecessarily far, to hold that there is no conceivable situation in which there could be any discretionary ground for withholding an injunction but, for my part, I find it almost impossible to imagine circumstances in which such a discretion would arise or be properly exercisable.
As a second string to his bow Mr Watkinson relied on the general law, and in particular a passage drawn from Spry Equitable Remedies (4th edn, 1990) pp 436–437. The passages to which he particularly drew our attention were these. First, a sentence to this effect:
‘And even if the subject matter is new in the sense that rights are being created that had no prior equivalents that were protected by injunctions ordinary equitable considerations may be expected to apply unless a statutory intention to the contrary is established.’
The second passage was:
‘However all these matters involve questions of construction, and care should be taken to ensure both that preconceptions by reference to the general practices of courts of equity do not cause legislation conferring special powers to be misapplied and also that in the exercise of widely expressed powers a desire to assist an inferred legislative policy does not cause discretionary considerations such as hardship to be overlooked.’
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Those observations occur in a passage dealing with statutory injunctions and I do not for a moment question that it is the duty of any court, considering and construing a provision providing for the grant of an injunction, to construe the provisions in question and endeavour to give them their correct effect. What, however, seems to me to be crucial in the present situation is that s 118 creates what is described as a right to buy, and s 138, setting out the council’s duty to convey to the tenant, expresses it in unequivocal and unqualified mandatory terms. It seems to me quite plain as a matter of construction that Parliament did not intend in this instance that general considerations of hardship should afford any ground for refusing the grant of an injunction under s 138(3).
That consideration is in my mind greatly strengthened when one recalls the history of this particular right. It was introduced for the first time in 1980 at a time when a number of local authorities strongly resisted parting with the ownership of publicly owned accommodation to those who then lived in it, and it seems to me that we should be doing great violence to the obvious intention of Parliament if we did not recognise that it was Parliament’s intention to block to the maximum the opportunities open to reluctant councils to obstruct the acquisition of title by their tenants.
For all those reasons I consider that the learned judge in the court below reached an entirely correct decision. There was no discretion to refuse the injunction for which the plaintiff asked and, accordingly, I would dismiss the appeal.
McCOWAN LJ. I agree.
HIRST LJ. I also agree.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused. Stay of injunction refused.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
R v Crown Court at Wood Green and others, ex parte Director of Public Prosecutions
[1993] 2 All ER 656
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): MANN LJ AND LEONARD J
Hearing Date(s): 9, 15 OCTOBER 1992
Crown Court – Supervisory jurisdiction of High Court – Trial on indictment – High Court having no supervisory jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment – Costs order – Crown Prosecution Service not preparing case against defendants properly – Application to stay trial as abuse of process – Prosecution offering no evidence – Judge ordering verdicts of not guilty to be recorded – Judge ordering Crown Prosecution Service to pay all defence costs incurred after committal – Whether costs order a decision affecting conduct of trial on indictment – Whether making of order an integral part of trial process – Whether High Court having jurisdiction to hear application for certiorari to quash order – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29(3).
Crown Court – Costs – Trial on indictment – Crown Prosecution Service not preparing case properly – Defendants pleading not guilty – Prosecution offering no evidence – Judge ordering verdicts of not guilty to be recorded – Judge ordering Crown Prosecution Service
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to pay all defence costs incurred after committal – Whether judge entitled to make such order – Whether order should be restricted to costs incurred as result of proven improper omissions – Whether order should be limited to costs proved to be wasted by Crown Prosecution Service’s neglect – Costs in Criminal Cases (General) Regulations 1986 reg 3.
Three defendants were committed for trial in the Crown Court. Thereafter the Crown Prosecution Service ignored repeated defence requests for information and complaints about the failure to supply the information, and it neglected to prepare the prosecution case properly, with the result that on the date fixed for trial the defendants applied for the trial to be stayed as an abuse of process. The prosecution decided to offer no evidence and stated that it would not resist an order that costs wasted as the result of the Crown Prosecution Service’s proven acts or omissions be paid to the defendants pursuant to reg 3a of the Costs in Criminal Cases (General) Regulations 1986. The effect of such an order would have been that the Crown would have had to pay the costs of the Crown Court hearing but no other costs. The defendants were then arraigned and pleaded not guilty. The prosecution offered no evidence and the judge ordered that not guilty verdicts be recorded in accordance with s 17 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967. No ruling was made on the application for a stay as it was not necessary. The judge then ordered the Crown Prosecution Service to pay the whole of the defence costs incurred after committal. The Director of Public Prosecutions applied for judicial review of the costs order, contending that it had not been made within the powers conferred by reg 3 as that regulation only permitted an order in respect of costs incurred as a result of proven improper omissions and therefore the order should have been limited to the costs wasted on the hearing in the Crown Court. The question arose whether the High Court had jurisdiction to review the costs order or whether it was within the Crown Court’s exclusive ‘jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment’ and excluded from judicial review by s 29(3)b of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The Director contended that since the order was made only because there had been no trial on indictment it was thus not an exercise by the Crown Court of its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment.
Held – (1) The High Court had jurisdiction to entertain the application for judicial review as the costs order was not ‘a decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment’, since if there had been a trial it had been concluded on the recording of not guilty verdicts in favour of defendants, and nor was it an integral part of the trial, since the recording of not guilty verdicts in favour of defendants by order of the judge under s 17 of the 1967 Act was not a ‘trial’ in the ordinary meaning of that term. Accordingly, the order did not fall within the exclusion from judicial review contained in s 29(3) of the 1981 Act (see p 661 j to p 662 c j, post); Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 applied.
(2) Regulation 3(1) of the 1986 regulations required that a causal relationship be established between the act or omission and incurrence of costs before an order could be made for the payment of costs incurred and, since it could not be assumed that all the defendants’ costs incurred after committal were due to the acts or omissions of the Crown Prosecution Service, which had admitted only that the costs of the hearing had been wrongly incurred and no more, the judge had wrongly exercised his discretion in not considering whether there were costs incurred which were not due to the Crown Prosecution Service’s actions. The
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application for judicial review would therefore be granted and the matter remitted to the Crown Court for rehearing (see p 662 e to j, post).
Notes
For the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the Crown Court, see 10 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 710, 717, 870, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 229, 2273–2277.
For costs unnecessarily or improperly incurred, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1530.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1967, s 17, see Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 365.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 990.
For the Costs in Criminal Cases (General) Regulations 1986, reg 3, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments 25.
Cases referred to in judgments
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Director of Serious Fraud Office [1993] 2 All ER 399, DC.
R v Crown Court at Isleworth, ex p Willington [1993] 2 All ER 390, [1993] 1 WLR 713, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, [1993] 1 WLR 693, DC.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v Crown Court at Sheffield, ex p Brownlow [1980] 2 All ER 444, [1980] QB 530, [1980] 2 WLR 892, CA.
Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194, HL.
Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, [1985] 2 WLR 538, HL.
Cases also cited
DPP v Denning [1991] 3 All ER 439, [1991] 2 QB 532, DC.
Holden & Co (a firm) v CPS [1990] 1 All ER 368, [1990] 2 QB 261, CA.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087, DC.
Application for judicial review
The Director of Public Prosecutions applied, with the leave of Auld J given on 19 July 1991, for judicial review of the order made by Judge Sanders in the Crown Court at Wood Green on 12 April 1991 in R v Brealey, Aram and Lee that the Crown Prosecution Service pay the whole of the defence costs after committal, and that, failing agreement between the parties as to the amount of such costs, they be at liberty to apply to him for a determination, in accordance with reg 3(3) of the Costs in Criminal Cases (General) Regulations 1986, SI 1986/1335, of the amount of such costs. The relief sought was (i) an order of certiorari to quash the order for costs, (ii) an order of prohibition to prohibit the determination of the amount of the costs to be paid under the order and (iii) an order of mandamus directing Judge Sanders to make a fresh order that the costs wasted as a result of the admitted unnecessary or improper acts or omissions by the Crown Prosecution Service be paid by the Crown Prosecution Service. The facts are set out in the judgment of Mann LJ.
Philip Singer (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Director of Public Prosecutions.
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Neither the respondent nor the defendants appeared.
Cur adv vult
15 October 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
MANN LJ. There is before the court an application for judicial review for which leave to move was given by Auld J on 19 July 1991. The applicant is the Director of Public Prosecutions and the respondent is the Crown Court at Wood Green. The decision impugned is a decision of Judge Sanders made in the Crown Court on 12 April 1991 whereby he ordered the Crown Prosecution Service to pay the whole of the defence costs incurred after committal in R v Brealey, Aram and Lee. He further ordered that failing agreement as to the amount of the costs, any party should have liberty to apply to him for a determination of the amount. The order must be presumed to have been made in the exercise, or purported exercise, of powers conferred by reg 3 of the Costs in Criminal Cases (General) Regulations 1986, SI 1986/1335. The applicant contends that the order made was not within the powers conferred by reg 3 and now seeks certiorari and other orders. The respondent was not represented before us and the three defendants in whose favour the order was made neither appeared nor were represented.
The circumstances from which this application arises commenced on 22 May 1990. On that day Reginald Brealey, Richard Aram and Robert Lee were committed for trial at the Crown Court at Wood Green on various charges relating to their dealing with shares in Titaghur Jute Factory plc. Thereafter, in 1990 and beyond the defence made repeated requests for information from the Crown Prosecution Service (the CPS). These requests were ignored and were succeeded by repeated complaints which were also ignored. Not only did the CPS ignore the defence but they neglected the need properly to prepare the prosecution case. The result was that on the date fixed for trial, which was 8 April 1991, a large number of applications were made on behalf of the defendants. They culminated in an application by all three defendants that the trial be stayed as an abuse of process, that is to say for an order that there should be no trial. Prosecuting counsel said that the matter would be considered overnight and the judge did not rule. The promised consideration was given in consultation with the Director of Public Prosecutions and it was decided that the prosecution would first, offer no evidence and, second, would not resist an order that costs wasted as a consequence of proven acts or omissions of the CPS should be paid to the defendants. This decision was communicated to the defendants. The consequence of this decision was that on the morning of 12 April the defendants were arraigned and pleaded not guilty. The prosecution offered no evidence and the judge ordered the recording of verdicts of ‘not guilty’ in accordance with s 17 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967. He thus had no occasion to rule on the application for a stay.
After the entry of the verdicts there was a discussion about costs. The discussion focused on reg 3 of the Costs in Criminal Cases (General) Regulations 1986. Those regulations were made by the Lord Chancellor in the exercise of the power conferred by s 19 of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985. Regulation 3 provides, so far as is material:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of this regulation, where at any time during criminal proceedings … (b) the Crown Court … is satisfied that costs have been incurred in respect of the proceedings by one of the parties as a result of an unnecessary or improper act or omission by, or on behalf of, another party to the proceedings, the court may, after hearing the parties, order that all or part of the costs so incurred by that party shall be paid to him by the other party …
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(3) An order made under paragraph (1) shall specify the amount of costs to be paid in pursuance of the order …’
The prosecution submitted that the regulation permitted an order only in respect of costs incurred ‘as a result of’ proven improper omissions and accepted that the costs wasted on the hearing in the Crown Court were such costs but their acceptance went no further. The defendants successfully argued for a wide order in the form in which Judge Sanders made the order which is now impugned.
The first question now before the court is whether it has any jurisdiction to grant the relief which is sought. The question arises because s 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 provides:
‘In relation to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment, the High Court shall have all such jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari as the High Court possesses in relation to the jurisdiction of an inferior court.’
The phrase ‘in matters relating to trial on indictment’ is well known for imprecision. The scope of the exclusion which it embodies was considered in Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779–780, [1985] AC 622 at 642–644, where Lord Bridge of Harwich delivered a speech with which the other members of the House expressed their agreement. Lord Bridge said:
‘It is, of course, obvious that the phrase “relating to trial on indictment” in … [s] 29(3) is apt to exclude appeal or judicial review in relation to the verdict given or sentence passed at the conclusion of a trial on indictment, both of which are subject to appeal as provided by the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. I accept the submission of counsel for the respondents that in this context, as in ss 76 and 77 of the 1981 Act, the words “trial on indictment” must include the “trial” of a defendant who pleads guilty on arraignment. Beyond this it is not difficult to discern a sensible legislative purpose in excluding appeal or judicial review of any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment, whether given in the course of the trial or by way of pre-trial directions. In any such case to allow an appellate or review process might, as Shaw LJ pointed out in [R v Crown Court at Sheffield, ex p Brownlow [1980] 2 All ER 444 at 455, [1980] QB 530 at 544–545], seriously delay the trial. If it is the prosecutor who is aggrieved by such a decision, it is in no way surprising that he has no remedy, since prosecutors have never enjoyed rights of appeal or review when unsuccessful in trials on indictment. If, on the other hand, the defendant is so aggrieved, he will have his remedy by way of appeal against conviction under the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 if he has suffered an injustice in consequence of a material irregularity in the course of the trial, which, I apprehend, may well result not only from a decision given during the trial, but equally from a decision given in advance of the trial which affects the conduct of the trial, eg a wrongful refusal to grant him legal aid. I can, however, discover no intelligible legislative purpose which would be served by giving to the words “relating to trial on indictment” a wider operation than indicated in the foregoing paragraph …
It must not be thought that in using the phrase “any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment” I am offering a definition of a phrase which Parliament has chosen not to define. If the statutory language is, as here, imprecise, it may well be impossible to prescribe in the abstract a precise test to determine on which side of the line any case should fall and, therefore, necessary to proceed, as counsel for the appellant submitted that we should, on a case by case basis. But it is obviously desirable that your Lordships’ House should give as clear guidance as the statutory language permits, and I
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hope the criterion I have suggested may provide a helpful pointer to the right answer in most cases.’
In Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194 the scope of the exclusion was again before the House. Again Lord Bridge delivered a speech with which the other members of the House agreed. After referring to his observations in Smalley’s case Lord Bridge said ([1987] 1 All ER 609 at 611–612, [1987] 1 WLR 194 at 196–197):
‘It is in any event clear, I apprehend, that certain orders made at the conclusion of a trial on indictment are excluded from judicial review as “relating to trial on indictment” not because they affect the conduct of the trial, but rather because they are themselves an integral part of the trial process. This is obviously true of the verdict and sentence. It is equally true, according to the provisional view I expressed in Smalley’s case, of certain orders for the payment of costs made under the Costs in Criminal Cases Act 1973 … An order that the prosecutor pay the whole or any part of the costs of an acquitted defendant under s 4(1)(b) [of the 1973 Act] is not appealable, nor is any decision under s 3(1) either to make or to refrain from making an order for payment of costs out of central funds in favour of the prosecution or the defence. The common characteristic of all decisions made by the Crown Court under these provisions is that the court is exercising a discretion in the light of what it has learned in the course of the trial as to the nature of the case, both for the prosecution and the defence, and in the light of the conduct and the outcome of the trial itself: see the guidance given by the Practice Direction [1981] 3 All ER 703, [1981] 1 WLR 1383. It follows that all such decisions are so intimately bound up with the trial process that they must be treated as an integral part of it and thus must be considered as made in the exercise of the Crown Court’s jurisdiction “relating to trial on indictment” and accordingly are not subject to judicial review.’
Since 1987 this court has proceeded on a case by case basis in the light of the guidance given by Lord Bridge. We were referred to the most recent cases in the procession. Thus the court has held that an order granting or refusing a stay on the ground of abuse of process does not affect the conduct of a trial on indictment (see R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54), that an order granting or refusing an application to quash an indictment for want of any jurisdiction does not affect the conduct of such a trial (see R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, [1993] 1 WLR 693) and that an order made in dismissal proceedings under s 6 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 is not made as an integral part of the trial process (see R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Director of Serious Fraud Office [1993] 2 All ER 399). On the other hand, a decision to reinstate a legal aid certificate has been held to be within the exclusion (see R v Crown Court at Isleworth, ex p Willington [1993] 2 All ER 390, [1993] WLR 713).
The order made by Judge Sanders was not a decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment because, assuming there had been such a trial, it had been earlier concluded on the recording of verdicts of not guilty. The question is thus narrowed to an inquiry as to whether the making of the order although posterior was (in Lord Bridge’s phrase) ‘so intimately bound up with the trial process that [it] must be treated as an integral part of it’. The making of an order for costs at the conclusion of a trial is to be treated as an integral part of the trial process, and if it is adverse to the prosecutor, he will have no right of appeal whilst an application for judicial review will be met by the exclusion in s 29(3).
Mr Philip Singer, who appeared for the Director, submitted that the position is entirely different where there has, as in the instant case, been no ‘trial’ with which
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the requisite degree of intimacy can be established. He pointed out that, had the judge had occasion to rule on and grant the application for a stay, then a subsequent order for costs would not have been an integral part of the trial because by hypothesis the stay would have prevented there being any trial (see Ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394 at 403, [1992] 1 WLR 54 at 63). That must be right in this court. The same must now be so where the order follows the quashing of an indictment for want of any jurisdiction (cf R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP).
In the present case the recorded verdicts in favour of the defendants have by virtue of s 17 of the 1967 Act ‘the same effect as if the defendant[s] had been tried and acquitted on the verdict of a jury’. The section confirms the conclusion which is reached by a consideration of whether what here occurred falls within the ordinary meaning of the word ‘trial’ extended as it is in order to cover the process where a defendant pleads guilty on arraignment (see Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 789, [1985] AC 622 at 642 per Lord Bridge). It plainly does not so fall. Accordingly, in my judgment, the order of 12 September is not within the exclusion of s 29(3). It may be thought strange that a precisely similar order made after a trial would be within the exclusion. I recognise the apparent curiosity but it seems an inevitable one in consequence of the established approach to the construction of s 29(3). The status of orders made after the grant of a stay to prevent the continuance of a trial, or after the return of a verdict by direction, will have to be determined as further steps in the incremental process in which this court is employed.
As in my judgment there is no jurisdiction obstacle, I can now turn to the impugned order itself. It was an order as to costs payable between parties, and the only power in the exercise of which it could have been made is that conferred by reg 3(1) of the 1986 regulations. Under para (1) an order can be made (and only made) in respect of costs incurred ‘as a result of’ an unnecessary or improper act or omission. The language requires that a causal relationship between act or omission and incurrence must be established before payment of the costs incurred can be ordered. The learned judge with respect to him, in making the order which he did, either neglected the need for a causal relationship or else assumed that all of the defendants’ costs incurred after committal were incurred as a consequence of the acts or omissions of the CPS. Either approach flaws the order. The first because a causal relationship is essential. The second because there is no room for assumption. The relationship must be either admitted or proved. The CPS admitted the costs of the hearing but no more. There may be more but it was not demonstrated that there was. It is of course to be remembered that the committal was proper and must, I think, have inevitably given rise to costs which were incurred otherwise than in consequence of the acts or omissions of the CPS.
The order which seems to me to be appropriate is an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the judge. This will have the effect of leaving undetermined the applications for costs which were made to him. He will have to rehear and redetermine them and I am sure he will proceed to do so. I regard a coercive order as unnecessary.
I should add two things. First, what order is to be made following a rehearing is entirely a matter for the judge after properly directing himself. Second, I doubt whether the order of 12 April had the specificity required by reg 3(3) and I draw attention to para 1.8 of the Practice Direction given by Lord Lane CJ on 3 May 1991 ([1991] 2 All ER 924 at 925, [1991] 1 WLR 498 at 499).
LEONARD J. I agree.
Application allowed. Order of certiorari granted. Case remitted to judge for rehearing.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Director of Public Prosecutions v Crown Court at Manchester and Ashton and others
[1993] 2 All ER 663
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD ACKNER, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 17 FEBRUARY, 6 MAY 1993
Crown Court – Supervisory jurisdiction of High Court – Trial on indictment – High Court having no supervisory jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment – Order staying criminal proceedings for abuse of process – Crown Court staying criminal proceedings for abuse of process on grounds of delay – Prosecution seeking certiorari to quash stay – Whether High Court having jurisdiction to grant judicial review of Crown Court order staying criminal proceedings – Whether Crown Court order staying criminal proceedings a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29(3).
On 23 November 1990 a number of defendants appeared before magistrates charged with, inter alia, conspiracy to commit riot and conspiracy to commit violent disorder, contrary to s 1(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1977, arising out of alleged violence by football supporters during two football seasons at a variety of locations. Papers leading to committal were served on 7 February 1991 and on 26 April 1991 all but three of the defendants were committed for trial. Two of the other defendants were included in the indictment on 24 June 1991 and the remaining defendant was committed for trial on 16 October 1991. On 4 November 1991, after hearing submissions, the judge ordered that proceedings on the conspiracy counts in the indictment be stayed as an abuse of the process of the court on the grounds that the overall delay, in particular from the inception of the conspiracy alleged to the committal proceedings and from the alleged initial involvement of each defendant to the date of his being interviewed and charged, was substantial and prejudiced a fair trial. The Director of Public Prosecutions applied for judicial review of the judge’s decision and for an order that the conspiracy counts in the indictment be tried. The Divisional Court quashed the judge’s decision on the grounds that it had been shown to be clearly and demonstrably wrong or unreasonable. The defendants appealed to the House of Lords, contending that an order made by the Crown Court that a trial on indictment be stayed as an abuse of process was a decision ‘relating to trial on indictment’ for the purposes of s 29(3)a of the Supreme Court Act 1981 and as such was not amenable to judicial review.
Held – An order made by the Crown Court on an application to stay the whole or part of an indictment as an abuse of process was an order affecting the conduct of the trial and as such was an order ‘relating to trial on indictment’ within s 29(3) of the 1981 Act, irrespective of whether the effect of the order was to stay or not stay the proceedings or whether it was made on the day the trial was due to start or at the beginning of the trial or at an earlier date at a special hearing. It followed that a decision of a judge of the Crown Court that the whole or part of an indictment be stayed as an abuse of process could not be the subject of judicial review. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 665 b to d, p 669 b to f and p 670 g, post).
Dicta of Lord Bridge in Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779–780 and in Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609 at 611 applied.
Page 664 of [1993] 2 All ER 663
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Raymond [1986] 2 All ER 379 approved.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370 and R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394 overruled.
Notes
For the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the Crown Court, see 10 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 710, 717, 870, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 229, 2273–2277.
For the Criminal Law Act 1977, s 1, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 692.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 29, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 990.
Cases referred to in opinions
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Director of Serious Fraud Office [1993] 2 All ER 399, DC.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087, DC.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Raymond [1986] 2 All ER 379, [1986] 1 WLR 710, DC.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Spens (1992) Independent, 1 December, DC.
R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801, DC.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54, DC.
R v Crown Court at Sheffield, ex p Brownlow [1980] 2 All ER 444, [1980] QB 530, [1980] 2 WLR 892, CA.
R v Crown Court at Southwark, ex p Customs and Excise Comrs [1993] 1 WLR 764, DC.
Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194, HL.
Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, [1985] 2 WLR 538, HL.
Appeal
Derek Leslie Beevers, one of 23 defendants charged before magistrates at the Manchester City Magistrates’ Court on 23 November 1990 with conspiracy to commit riot (count 1) and conspiracy to commit violent disorder (count 2), contrary to s 1(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1977, appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 15 October 1992 against the decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Lloyd LJ and Waterhouse J) on 6 April 1992 granting the application of the Director of Public Prosecutions for an order of certiorari to quash the order made by Judge Owen in the Crown Court at Manchester on 4 November, 1991 staying counts 1 and 2 of the indictment preferred against the defendants and mandamus requiring counts 1 and 2 to be tried. The Divisional Court had refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but it certified, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that a point of law of general public importance (set out at p 666 c, post) was involved in the decision. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Slynn.
Anthony Scrivener QC, Campbell Tait and Peter Kelson (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard, agents for Walter Wolfson & Co, Manchester) for the appellants.
Stephen Richards, John Jackson and Nicholas Braslavsky (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Page 665 of [1993] 2 All ER 663
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
6 May 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley, which I have read in draft and with which I agree, I would allow this appeal.
LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley. I agree with it and, for the reasons he gives, I too would allow the appeal.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley. I agree with it and, for the reasons he gives, I too would allow the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have read the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley and I too would allow the appeal for the reasons which he gives.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, this appeal arises out of alleged violence by football supporters during two football seasons at a variety of locations.
Stephen Ashton and other defendants were charged that on divers days between 1 September 1989 and 30 November 1990 they were guilty of conspiracy to commit riot (count 1 of the indictment) and conspiracy to commit violent disorder (count 2 of the indictment), each contrary to s 1(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1977. Certain of the accused were also charged with violent disorder on 23 September 1989 contrary to s 2(1) of the Public Order Act 1986 (count 3), and riot on 3 February 1990 and 24 February 1990 contrary to s 1 of the Public Order Act 1986 (counts 4 and 5 of the indictment).
The defendants were charged before the magistrates on 23 November 1990. Papers leading to committal were served on 7 February 1991 and on 26 April 1991 all but three of the defendants were committed for trial. Two other defendants were included in the indictment by leave of Roch J on 24 June 1991 and the remaining defendant was committed for trial on 16 October 1991.
On 4 November 1991 after hearing submissions for several days, Judge Owen ordered that proceedings on counts 1 and 2 of the indictment be stayed as an abuse of the process of the court against 23 of the accused, those counts having been ordered to lie on the file against the two remaining defendants who had pleaded guilty to count 3. The judge concluded:
‘I am satisfied, in relation to counts 1 and 2, that the overall delay, and in particular that from the inception of the conspiracy alleged to committal proceedings, and the delay between the alleged initial involvement of each defendant and the date of his being interviewed and charged, is substantial.’
He continued:
‘I am persuaded, on a balance of probabilities, that the delay which I find has occurred does give rise to prejudice. I find it impossible to say, in relation to this piecemeal participation over such a period, and with involvement so long ago, that in relation to the continuing offence of conspiracy, there can now be a fair trial on that issue.’
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He reached the contrary conclusion in relation to the substantive offences alleged. The Director of Public Prosecutions applied for judicial review in order to quash the judge’s decision and to require that counts 1 and 2 of the indictment be tried. The Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Lloyd LJ and Waterhouse J) on 6 April 1992 ordered that that decision be quashed. They considered that they had jurisdiction to review the judge’s decision and that, since such decision had been shown to be ‘clearly and demonstrably wrong’ or ‘Wednesbury unreasonable’ (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223), his decision should be set aside. The Divisional Court refused leave to appeal but certified in accordance with s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960 that a point of law of general public importance was involved, namely:
‘Whether a decision of a Crown Court Judge that the whole or part of an indictment should be stayed as an abuse of process can be the subject of judicial review.’
With the leave of your Lordships’ House Ashton and the other appellants now appeal against that decision. It is agreed between the parties that the issue on the appeal is—
‘the correct meaning of the words “relating to trial on indictment” in section 29(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 and whether an Order by the Crown Court that a trial on indictment should be stayed as an abuse of process is a decision “relating to trial on indictment” and therefore not amenable to judicial review.’
Section 29 of the 1981 Act provides:
‘(1) The High Court shall have jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition and certiorari in those classes of cases in which it had power to do so immediately before the commencement of this Act …
(3) In relation to the jurisdiction of the Crown Court, other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment, the High Court shall have all such jurisdiction to make orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari as the High Court possesses in relation to the jurisdiction of an inferior court.’
The phrase ‘other than its jurisdiction in matters relating to trial on indictment’ has already been the subject of consideration by your Lordships’ House in Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, where Lord Bridge of Harwich considered in depth the earlier cases on the subsection. I refer to his speech in that case and do not repeat the detail of the earlier cases. In Smalley the case concerned an order of the Crown Court to estreat a recognisance given as a condition of a grant of bail. Lord Bridge in the leading speech, with which other members of the House agreed, said ([1985] 1 All ER 769 at 779, [1985] AC 622 at 642–643):
‘It is, of course, obvious that the phrase “relating to trial on indictment” in ss 28(2)(a) and 29(3) is apt to exclude appeal or judicial review in relation to the verdict given or sentence passed at the conclusion of a trial on indictment, both of which are subject to appeal as provided by the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. I accept the submission of counsel for the respondents that in this context, as in ss 76 and 77 of the 1981 Act, the words “trial on indictment” must include the “trial” of a defendant who pleads guilty on arraignment. Beyond this it is not difficult to discern a sensible legislative purpose in
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excluding appeal or judicial review of any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment, whether given in the course of the trial or by way of pre-trial directions. In any such case to allow an appellate or review process might, as Shaw LJ pointed out in [R v Crown Court at Sheffield, ex p Brownlow [1980] 2 All ER 444 at 455, [1980] QB 530 at 544–545], seriously delay the trial. If it is the prosecutor who is aggrieved by such a decision, it is in no way surprising that he has no remedy, since prosecutors have never enjoyed rights of appeal or review when unsuccessful in trials on indictment. If, on the other hand, the defendant is so aggrieved, he will have his remedy by way of appeal against conviction under the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 if he has suffered an injustice in consequence of a material irregularity in the course of the trial, which, I apprehend, may well result not only from a decision given during the trial, but equally from a decision given in advance of the trial which affects the conduct of the trial, eg a wrongful refusal to grant him legal aid.’
Lord Bridge continued ([1985] 1 All ER 769 at 780, [1985] AC 622 at 643–644):
‘It must not be thought that in using the phrase “any decision affecting the conduct of a trial on indictment” I am offering a definition of a phrase which Parliament has chosen not to define. If the statutory language is, as here, imprecise, it may well be impossible to prescribe in the abstract a precise test to determine on which side of the line any case should fall and, therefore necessary to proceed, as counsel for the appellant submitted that we should, on a case by case basis. But it is obviously desirable that your Lordships’ House should give as clear guidance as the statutory language permits, and I hope the criterion I have suggested may provide a helpful pointer to the right answer in most cases.’
It is to be noted that in considering the exercise of a discretion to make an order for costs Lord Bridge observed ([1985] 1 All ER 769 at 780, [1985] AC 622 at 644):
‘The exercise of that discretion is intimately related to the conduct of the trial; indeed, it may be said to be an integral part of the trial process.’
In Sampson v Crown Court at Croydon [1987] 1 All ER 609, [1987] 1 WLR 194 it was held by your Lordships’ House that a legal aid contribution order made at the end of a trial on indictment was not subject to judicial review. Lord Bridge stressed, again, that the guidance or ‘helpful pointer’ which he had indicated in Smalley was not a statutory definition. He repeated the phrase which he had used in Smalley and said ([1987] 1 All ER 609 at 611, [1987] 1 WLR 194 at 196):
‘It is in any event clear, I apprehend, that certain orders made at the conclusion of a trial on indictment are excluded from judicial review as “relating to trial on indictment” not because they affect the conduct of the trial, but rather because they are themselves an integral part of the trial process.’
These two decisions of your Lordships’ House have been considered in a number of subsequent cases. Thus in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Raymond [1986] 2 All ER 379, [1986] 1 WLR 710 the Divisional Court (Woolf LJ and Webster J) applying Smalley held that an order that counts of an indictment should lie on the file, not to be proceeded with except with leave of the court, was an order affecting the conduct of the trial. Accordingly, such an order was not subject to judicial review.
Page 668 of [1993] 2 All ER 663
On the other hand, in R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 the Divisional Court (Watkins LJ and Hutchison J) held that a decision on the question whether to hold a trial would be an abuse of the process of the court was subject to judicial review and not a matter relating to trial on indictment. In that case the decision of the Crown Court was that there was no abuse of process and that the trial should proceed. After considering the arguments advanced on behalf of Randle, Watkins LJ continued ([1992] 1 All ER 370 at 379–380, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1096):
‘Having said this, the fact remains that it can undoubtedly be said that an application made before a trial commences for an order in effect to prohibit that trial from taking place does not affect the conduct of the trial and is not an integral part of the trial process. Of course, the application may, as it did in this case, fail, in which case the trial proceeds. Here again, however, the dismissal of the order determines merely that there shall be a trial, not how it shall take place. In that sense the dismissal of the application neither affects the conduct of the trial nor is an integral part of it.’
The Divisional Court drew a distinction between a determination as to whether a trial should take place and a determination as to how it should take place. This was emphasised ([1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1103, cf [1992] 1 All ER 370 at 386):
‘Approaching the matter in the way Lord Bridge indicates, we are inclined to the view that a decision on an application to stay on grounds of abuse of process does not affect the conduct of a trial on indictment, because what is being determined is whether there should ever be a trial.’
Randle’s case was followed and accepted as being correct in R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394, [1992] 1 WLR 54 (Watkins, Farquharson LJJ and Tudor Evans J), where it was held that an order on an application to stay for abuse of process because of delay did not relate to a trial on indictment as explained in Smalley [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622.
The present appellants in their written case contended that the proper meaning of s 29(3) of the 1981 Act is that—
‘where the Court is exercising its jurisdiction “relating to trial on indictment” then judicial review is not available. In other words the words “relating to trial on indictment” describe the nature of the proceedings with respect to which the Crown Court is exercising jurisdiction.’
They submitted that the tests proposed in Smalley and Sampson should be reconsidered and that the House should ‘overrule the same in so far as these cases accept a different interpretation from that proposed’. Alternatively, the appellants contended that ‘a decision relating to abuse of process affects the conduct of the trial and/or was an integral part of the trial process’.
The Director of Public Prosecutions rejected the first contention but accepted that an order to stay for abuse of process was an order affecting the conduct of the trial. Alternatively, the Director contended that an order such as the order in the present case was ‘an integral part of the trial process’. In any event such order was an order in a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ within s 29(3) of the 1981 Act.
It is at first sight curious that the Director, having succeeded on jurisdiction and on the merits before the Divisional Court, should now support the appellants in saying that the Divisional Court had no jurisdiction. This is, however, explicable by the fact that in Randle and Belsham, where the Director contended that there was no jurisdiction, the Director’s argument was rejected but, having
Page 669 of [1993] 2 All ER 663
succeeded in resisting the substantive application for review, it was not open to the Director to appeal. In the present case the Director took the view that on the basis of these two decisions it had to be accepted before the Divisional Court that judicial review was available. It is, however, perfectly open to the Director to adopt the course taken on this appeal to your Lordships’ House.
In my view it is not necessary to reconsider or to depart from the guidance given in Smalley and Sampson. Lord Bridge made it plain in both cases that he was not seeking to substitute a new phrase for the phrase in the statute but was seeking to give ‘a helpful pointer’ as to the way the exclusion should be applied. His expression ‘affecting the conduct of a trial’ is apposite to deal with the situation where an order is made before trial and during the trial; the expression ‘an integral part of the trial process’ includes an order made at the very end of the trial, though it may equally apply to an order made during the trial and even before the trial. In neither case did Lord Bridge draw a distinction between an order as to how and when a trial is to be held and an order which decides whether there shall or shall not be a trial.
In my opinion an order made on an application to stay proceedings for abuse of process is clearly ‘an order affecting the conduct of the trial’ whether the order is that the proceedings shall or shall not be stayed. For that reason it is an order in a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’ within the meaning of s 29(3). It does not in my opinion make any difference for this purpose whether the order is made, as here, on the day the trial is due to start, or at the beginning of the trial, or at an earlier date on a special hearing.
In the present case where the order was made at the very beginning of the trial or even if strictly just before the trial was due to begin, it is no less an order made as ‘an integral part of the trial process’ and therefore within the exclusion provided for in s 29(3).
Even if these two helpful pointers are left on one side I have no doubt that the order in question was in a matter ‘relating to trial on indictment’. The legislative purpose in excluding judicial review of such matters is fully analysed by Lord Bridge and I accept his analysis. He stressed the risk of delay to the trial if applications for judicial review are to be entertained and the extent to which remedies are otherwise available to the parties in criminal proceedings. The defendant, if convicted, can appeal, even if this may not, for a successful appellant, be as speedy or efficacious a remedy as judicial review before trial. That the prosecution would have no right to appeal is consistent with the general policy of the law, save as provided by statute.
I have no doubt that the decision in Ex p Raymond [1986] 2 All ER 379, [1986] 1 WLR 710, that an order that an indictment should lie on the file not to be proceeded with except with the leave of the court, was an order ‘affecting the conduct of the trial’ and an order in a matter ‘relating to a trial on indictment’, was correct.
In Randle and Belsham a distinction was drawn between such an order and a stay on grounds of abuse of process. As it was put in Randle [1992] 1 All ER 370 at 386, [1991] 1 WLR 1087 at 1103:
‘… a stay on grounds of abuse of process contemplates that there never will be a trial whereas an order that the indictment lie on the file marked not to be proceeded with without leave contemplates that there may be.’
There are differences between the two situations but in my opinion they are not material for present purposes and I find the distinction drawn in Randle and followed in Belsham to be artificial. Both types of order are matters relating to a trial on indictment; both affect the conduct of the trial. It would, in my view, be
Page 670 of [1993] 2 All ER 663
very curious if the order for a stay as an abuse of process made in respect of 23 of the defendants should be treated differently from the order that the counts concerned should lie on the file against the two remaining defendants who had pleaded guilty to count 3 of the indictment. In my view they are to be treated alike. It follows that, despite the differences between the two forms of order which were relied on in Randle and Belsham, those two cases were wrongly decided.
The decisions in Randle and Belsham appear to have been followed impliedly or expressly in R v Crown Court at Southwark, ex p Customs and Excise Comrs [1993] 1 WLR 764 and R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Spens (1992) Independent, 1 December. In the former it was held that a decision to list a fraud case before a judge who had not conducted the preparatory hearing was open to judicial review. The court said ([1993] 1 WLR 764 at 770):
‘… the decisions of the Crown Court … are not merely “orders affecting the conduct of the trial” of [the defendants]. They are orders which, if followed, may affect the validity of a hearing before the jury. The result of implementing the decisions complained of might be that there would be no trial at all.’
In Spens, where the judge, at the end of a trial but before verdict, had made an order to stay the prosecution permanently and to leave the matter on the file marked ‘not to be proceeded with’ rather than to enter a verdict of not guilty, Glidewell LJ said (and I read from the transcript):
‘The order of Henry J was intended to, and did, prevent there being any trial of Lord Spens on these charges in future. It was, therefore, in my judgment, not an order which was concerned with the conduct of such a trial. Applying the tests from Smalley and following Randle and Belsham, I conclude that this court does have power to oversee and, if we think right, to quash Henry J’s order to stay.’
In other cases Randle and Belsham have been referred to, eg R v Crown Court at Manchester, ex p DPP [1993] 1 All ER 801 and R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Director of Serious Fraud Office [1993] 2 All ER 399. The decisions there were not, however, based on Randle and Belsham and since the issues were different from the issues arising in the present case it is undesirable to say anything about them. The result in Ex p Customs and Excise Comrs and in Ex p Spens may or may not be justified on other grounds; it was not justified on the basis of the reasoning in Randle and Belsham.
The appeal in my view should be allowed and the question certified be answered on the basis that ‘a decision of a Crown Court judge that the whole or part of an indictment should be stayed as an abuse of process cannot be the subject of judicial review.' The appellants’ costs to be paid out of central funds.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Practice Note
(Admiralty Court practice)
[1993] 2 All ER 671
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (ADMIRALTY COURT)
Lord(s): CLARKE J
Hearing Date(s): 10 MAY 1993
Admiralty – Practice – Admiralty Court practice to harmonise with Commercial Court practice – Interlocutory applications – Listing – Trials – RSC Ords 72, 75.
CLARKE J gave the following direction, signed by himself and the Admiralty Registrar, Mr Registrar Miller, at the sitting of the court.
Preface
1. Practice in the Commercial Court has for some time been governed not only by RSC Ord 72 but also by the Guide to Commercial Court Practice, which is at present set out in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 1, paras 72/A1–72/A31.
2. Many of the actions heard in the Admiralty Court raise similar issues to those heard in the Commercial Court. Many of those who regularly practise in the Admiralty Court also practise in the Commercial Court. Since 1987 there has been an Admiralty and Commercial Registry. In these circumstances it is desirable that there should be as much harmonisation as possible between the practice of the two courts, provided that care is taken to ensure that the two courts remain independent so that each may best serve the interests of those who wish to use it.
3. These aims can best be served by improving the practice of the Admiralty Court in the following areas: the hearing of interlocutory applications by the Admiralty Judge, the listing of actions and the harmonisation of the general practice of the two courts where appropriate.
A. Interlocutory applications
4. With effect from 8 June 1993 most summonses and other interlocutory applications (including motions) which are to be heard by the Admiralty Judge and which are short enough to be heard on ‘summons day’ will ordinarily be listed for hearing on Fridays. The Admiralty Registrar will continue to hear interlocutory applications as before.
B. Trials
5.1 With effect from 8 June 1993 trials will thus be heard on Mondays to Thursdays and, save in exceptional circumstances, will not be heard on Fridays.
5.2 Except where the Admiralty Judge otherwise directs, all actions will be heard by the Admiralty Judge. However, the Admiralty and Commercial Registry will maintain a list of all matters to be heard in the Admiralty and Commercial Courts in order to ensure that the judicial resources of both courts are used to best effect. All such listing will be under the direction of the Admiralty and Commercial Court listing officer.
5.3 This will enable the Admiralty Judge to hear actions in the Commercial Court and it will also enable judges of the Commercial Court to hear actions in the Admiralty Court where the facts of the particular case make that course appropriate.
5.4 It is stressed that the purpose of this change is to make both courts operate as efficiently as possible. Care will be taken to ensure that an Admiralty action which involves questions of navigation or other particular matters of an essentially Admiralty nature will be heard by the Admiralty Judge or (where necessary) by a
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judge nominated by the Admiralty Judge who has experience of such questions or matters.
C. Practice
6.1 With effect from 8 June 1993 the Guide to Commercial Court Practice will govern the practice in the Admiralty Court so far as applications to and hearings before the Admiralty Judge are concerned, save where the provisions of that guide can apply only to commercial actions and save that applications in the Admiralty Court will continue to be heard by the Admiralty Judge or the Admiralty Registrar in accordance with the Rules of the Supreme Court.
6.2 Thus the following sections of the Guide to Commercial Court Practice will apply to proceedings in the Admiralty Court before the Admiralty Judge:
III Ex parte applications
IV Service out of the jurisdiction
V Mareva and Anton Piller injunctions
VI Summonses inter partes
VII Arbitration matters
VIII Security for costs
IX Pleadings
X Amendment of pleadings
XI Discovery and interrogatories
XII The summons for directions (except for paras 12.1 and 12.2)
XIII Preliminary issues
XIV Exchange of evidence: factual witnesses
XV Exchange of evidence: expert witnesses
XVI Documents
XVII Preparation for long trials (save that the reference in para 17.2 to a single judge shall be a reference to the Admiralty Judge unless he otherwise directs)
XVIII Pre-trial check list
XIX The trial.
6.3 The reason that some parts of the Guide to Commercial Court Practice have been omitted is that they do not seem to be appropriate to an Admiralty action having regard to the express terms of RSC Ord 75 and to the fact that RSC Ord 72 does not apply to an Admiralty action. However, suggestions from the Admiralty Court Committee (or indeed from any other user of the Admiralty Court) as to how the practice of the court could be improved in this or any other respect would be welcome.
6.4 Admiralty Practice Direction no 4 (see para 4 of Practice Direction [1973] 3 All ER 446, [1973] 1 WLR 1146, as amended by Practice Direction [1982] 2 All ER 480, [1982] 1 WLR 660), which is at present set out in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 2, para 1326, will cease to have effect.
Conclusion
7.1 This Practice Direction is issued with the consent of the Lord Chief Justice and with the approval of Saville J as judge in charge of the Commercial Court.
7.2 The changes in the practice set out above will come into effect from 8 June 1993, subject to any adjustments which may be necessary as a result of arrangements or orders already made at the date of this Practice Direction.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Tustian and another v Johnston and another
Tustian v Johnston and another
[1993] 2 All ER 673
Categories: AGRICULTURE: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Tenancies: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Arbitration
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): KNOX J
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13 MARCH 1992
Agricultural holding – Arbitration – Compulsory submission to arbitration – Incorporation by statute of model clauses into tenancy agreement – Repairing obligations – Arbitration clause – Claim by tenants for damages for breach and specific performance of landlord’s obligation – Whether claim required to be submitted to arbitration – Whether tenants’ action could be stayed by court – Arbitration Act 1950, s 4 – Agricultural Holdings Act 1986, s 84(1) – Agriculture (Maintenance, Repair and Insurance of Fixed Equipment) Regulations 1973, Sch, para 15.
The plaintiffs, who were or had formerly been the tenants of a farm, brought two actions against the defendant landlords, claiming damages for breach and specific performance of repairing obligations imposed on the landlords by model clauses incorporated into the tenancy under the Agricultural Holdings Act 1986 and para 3a of the schedule to the Agriculture (Maintenance, Repair and Insurance of Fixed Equipment) Regulations 1973. The master granted the defendants a stay of both actions pending compulsory arbitration pursuant to para 15b of the schedule to the 1973 regulations, which provided that ‘any claim, question or difference … between the landlord and the tenant under the foregoing provisions hereof … shall be determined, in default of agreement, by arbitration under the [1986] Act’. Under s 84(1)c of the 1986 Act any such arbitration was to be determined in accordance with that Act and not the Arbitration Act 1950. The plaintiffs appealed against the stay, contending that notwithstanding s 84(1) of the 1986 Act the court retained a discretion under s 4 of the Arbitration Act 1950 with respect to staying court proceedings.
Held – The effect of para 15 of the schedule to the 1973 regulations was to refer to compulsory arbitration under s 84 of the 1986 Act any dispute as to (i) the extent of the repairing obligations of a landlord and a tenant under Pts I and II of the schedule to the 1973 regulations respectively and (ii) the extent to which either the landlord or the tenant was in breach of those obligations. Those questions had to be answered before a claim to either damages or specific performance could succeed. However, since an arbitrator had no power to award specific performance the claimant was then obliged, having obtained a ruling from the arbitrator on the dispute as to the extent or breach of repairing obligations, to resort to the court to obtain a decree of specific performance. In any event, on its true construction s 84(1) of the 1986 Act excluded the whole of the 1950 Act, including s 4, from applying to arbitration under the 1986 Act, with the result that the court had no discretion under the 1950 Act to permit the actions to continue and they had therefore been correctly stayed pending arbitration (see pp 681 d to f, p 682 e to j and p 683 b, post).
Kent v Conniff [1953] 1 All ER 155 distinguished.
Grayless v Watkinson [1990] 1 EGLR 6 considered.
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Notes
For maintenance and repairing obligations under agricultural holdings, see 1(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 319–320, and for a case on the subject, see 2 Digest (Reissue) 13, 28.
For the Arbitration Act 1950, s 4, see 2 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 575.
For the Agricultural Holdings Act 1986, s 84, see 1 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 813.
For the Agriculture (Maintenance, Repair and Insurance of Fixed Equipment) Regulations 1973, Sch, paras 3, 15, see 1 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments 270, 273.
Cases referred to in judgment
Goodman v Winchester and Alton Rly plc [1984] 3 All ER 594, [1985] 1 WLR 141, [1984] ICR 842, CA.
Grayless v Watkinson [1990] 1 EGLR 6, CA.
Hill v Barclay (1810) 16 Ves 402, [1803–13] All ER Rep 379, 33 ER 1037, LC.
Jeune v Queens Cross Properties Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 97, [1974] Ch 97, [1973] 3 WLR 378.
Kent v Conniff [1953] 1 All ER 155, [1953] 1 QB 361, [1953] 2 WLR 41, CA.
Roper v Prudential Assurance Co Ltd [1992] 1 EGLR 5.
Appeals
Oscar Thomas Tustian and James Edgar Tustian, the plaintiffs in an action brought against the defendants, J M Johnston and the personal representative of Major E Robb deceased, and Mark Andrew Tustian, the plaintiff in an action brought against the defendants, James Middlemas Johnston and Anastasia Johnston, the trustees of the Eustace Robb Will Trust, appealed from the orders of Mr R A Bowman sitting as a deputy master of the Chancery Division on 17 September 1991 whereby he stayed all further proceedings in their actions against the defendants for relief in respect of claimed breaches of repairing obligations imposed on the defendants as landlords of Leys Farm, Great Tew, North Oxfordshire, of which the plaintiffs had been or were the tenants. The appeal was heard in chambers but judgment was given by Knox J in open court. The facts are set out in the judgment.
David Neuberger QC and Stephen Rubin (instructed by Burgess Salmon, Bristol) for the plaintiffs.
Guy Fetherstonhaugh (instructed by Hewitson Becke & Shaw, Northampton) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
13 March 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
KNOX J. These are two appeals from orders made by Mr R A Bowman sitting as a deputy master on 17 September 1991 staying two actions brought by successive tenants of Leys Farm, Great Tew, North Oxfordshire against their landlords for relief in respect of claimed breaches by the landlords of their repairing obligations.
I am giving judgment in open court although the hearing was in chambers because a point of some importance has been argued before me and it is a point upon which there is no direct authority.
The factual background is as follows: the first of the two actions arises in respect of a tenancy agreement granted on 28 December 1961 whereby a normal
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agricultural tenancy from year to year of Leys Farm was granted from Michaelmas 1959. That tenancy agreement incorporated the provisions governing the liabilities of landlord and tenant in relation to maintenance, repairs and insurance of fixed equipment contained in the schedule to the Agriculture (Maintenance, Repair and Insurance of Fixed Equipment) Regulations 1948, SI 1948/184. Those regulations were replaced at Michaelmas 1984 by similarly named 1972 regulations (SI 1973/1473), which the statement of claim in the first action claims thereafter governed the parties’ respective repairing and replacement obligations.
There was during the hearing an intimation of an intention to withdraw the statement that the 1973 regulations replaced the 1948 regulations so as to regulate the parties’ repairing liabilities, but no such amendment had yet been applied for. I therefore deal with this matter on the footing that the 1973 regulations are the ones which are to be assumed to govern the matter.
The 1973 regulations were made basically under the Agricultural Holdings Act 1948, subsequently replaced by the similarly named 1986 Act. Paragraph 3 of the schedule to these regulations provides:
‘The provisions set forth in the Schedule hereto relating to the maintenance, repair and insurance of fixed equipment shall be deemed to be incorporated in every contract of tenancy of an agricultural holding, whether made before or after the commencement of the Agricultural Holdings Act 1948, except in so far as they would impose on one of the parties to an agreement in writing a liability which under the agreement is imposed on the other …’
There is a proviso that I need not read because it has no effect on this case.
The schedule is divided into three parts. Part I headed ‘Rights and Liabilities of the Landlord’ defines his liabilities to execute repairs and replacements under para 1 with a very long enumeration of the items of property that it is his obligation to repair. Paragraph 2 governs insurance liability and para 3 a liability ‘to paint or gas-tar, creosote or otherwise effectively treat’ a variety of structures and other items of property.
Paragraph 4 contains in favour of the landlord a right to serve a written notice if the tenant does not comply with his repairing or replacing obligations under subsequent paragraphs of the schedule. There is a scheme set forth for the service of a notice by the landlord specifying the necessary repairs or replacements and calling on the tenant to execute them in default of which the landlord is permitted to enter and execute the repairs or replacements himself and recover the reasonable costs from the tenant forthwith. There is then provision for a counternotice to be served by the tenant if he wishes to contest his liability to execute any repairs or replacements specified in such a notice and requiring the question of liability in respect thereof to be determined by arbitration under the Act. Once such a counternotice is served in due time, the operation of the notice is suspended until determination of the arbitration.
Part II of the schedule contains the rights and liabilities of the tenant and they reflect, but, of course, are mutually exclusive with, the rights and liabilities of the landlord. I need not read the details of the repairing obligations that are imposed. There is a corresponding provision governing failure by a landlord to execute repairs to what I have read from para 4, which, deals with the tenant’s failure to repair. Paragraph 12(1) provides:
‘If the landlord fails to execute repairs which are his liability within three months of receiving from the tenant a written notice specifying the necessary repairs and calling on him to execute them, the tenant may execute such repairs and, except to the extent to which under the terms of Part I hereof the tenant is liable to bear the cost, recover the reasonable cost from the landlord forthwith.’
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Sub-paragraph (2) deals in a somewhat more complex manner with the landlord’s failure to execute any replacements as opposed to repairs. In that case the tenant again is given a power to ‘execute such replacements and … recover the reasonable cost …’; but there is a proviso imposed that the tenant ‘shall not be entitled to recover in respect of the aggregate of the replacements so executed by him in any year of the tenancy any sum in excess of …’ and then there are further figures given. That is a provision which has in fact subsequently been amended, but nothing turns on the precise terms of those amendments.
The landlord in parallel with the situation that governs a tenant’s failure is given a power to contest his liability to execute any repairs or replacements specified in a notice served on him by the tenant by a counternotice and if that requires the question of liability to be determined by arbitration then the operation of the original notice is suspended until the termination of the arbitration in question.
There are then some general provisions in Pt III which are incorporated by reg 3 of the 1973 regulations and one in particular is of great importance to this case and that is para 15, which reads:
‘If any claim, question or difference shall arise between the landlord and the tenant under the foregoing provisions hereof, not being a matter which, otherwise than under the provisions of this paragraph, is required by or by virtue of the Act or section 19 of the Agriculture (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1963 (notice to remedy breach of tenancy agreement) or regulations or orders made thereunder or the foregoing provisions hereof to be determined by arbitration under the Act, such claim, question or difference shall be determined, in default of agreement, by arbitration under the Act.’
The ‘Act’ means the Agricultural Holdings Act 1948. There is thus a general provision for determination by arbitration of any claim, question or difference between the landlord and the tenant under the foregoing provisions, that is to say of the foregoing provisions in Pts I and II and potentially the earlier parts of Pt III of the schedule to the 1973 regulations.
To return to the facts of this case, the reversion on the first tenancy vested in the defendants to both the actions before me who are the personal representatives of a Major Robb in whom the reversion was vested at the date of his death in August 1985. The plaintiffs in the first action (Oscar and James Tustian) gave notice of intention to retire by a notice dated 18 September 1986 to take effect at Michaelmas 1987 with the plaintiff in the second action (Mark Tustian, who is the son of James Tustian, one of the plaintiffs in the first action) as the nominated successor. That right was disputed by the defendants and decided in favour of the plaintiffs by the Agricultural Lands Tribunal, south eastern area, by a decision that was sent to the parties on 8 January 1988. In the course of that decision the tribunal said:
‘It is accepted on behalf of the landlord … that no substantial works of repair have been done by the landlord to the buildings on the holding between the granting of the original tenancy and the present day. This was borne out by our inspection of the holding which revealed the farm buildings to be in a lamentable state of disrepair.’
It goes on to describe some of that disrepair and to mention that the tribunal was informed that the landlord had received insurance moneys in respect of a fire but as was apparent on inspection, the roof (which was the subject of the fire) had not been replaced.
There is therefore strong prima facie evidence of a long period of disregard of the defendants and their predecessors’ repairing obligations in respect of the farm.
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The first action brought by Oscar and James Tustian was started by writ not long after the date of the succession, that is to say on 19 November 1987. The statement of claim was not in fact served until 27 November 1990. Nothing turns on that because it was at any rate for a long period during that period a matter of non-objection. The relief that is sought in the first action is based on the breaches of repairing obligations, both by the late Major Robb and after his death by his personal representatives, of which details are given to which I need not refer. It is pleaded that the plaintiffs have suffered loss and damage and the value of the farm to the plaintiffs has been greatly diminished as a result of those claimed breaches of repairing obligations. In particular, it is claimed that the dilapidated state of the farm made it unnecessarily difficult to run the farming business, that the defendants had failed to carry out maintenance repairs and replacements to the value of £456,021 or thereabouts and that the plaintiffs in that action had been unable to provide accommodation for their herdsman and, therefore, had discontinued with their milk production.
On that the claims of the plaintiffs are limited to damages and interest under s 35A of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
The second action concerns the tenancy agreement that was granted pursuant to the agricultural lands tribunal’s finding regarding succession, by an agreement dated 24 February 1989 in favour of the plaintiff in the second action, Mark Tustian. That is a lengthy form of agricultural tenancy agreement which includes obligations on the tenant and the landlord by reference to the repairing obligations in the 1973 regulations. Clause 33(a) contained a covenant by the tenant—
‘Except where varied by or inconsistent with other provisions hereof to comply with the liabilities of a tenant to maintain, repair and replace the fixed equipment of the holding in accordance with [the 1973 regulations] …’
Similarly, cl 55(a) contains an agreement by the landlord to perform and observe an obligation to comply with the liabilities of a landlord under the 1973 regulations.
Clause 69 contains a separate arbitration provision which reads:
‘Any question difference or dispute which may arise between the Landlord and Tenant hereunder not being a matter compulsorily referred to arbitration under the Agricultural Holdings Act 1986 shall if the parties cannot settle it by agreement be referred to a single arbitrator to be appointed under the Arbitration Acts 1950 and 1979 by the parties or in default of agreement on such appointment by the President for the time being of the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors on the application of the Landlord or Tenant.’
There is set out for convenience in the second schedule to the tenancy agreement Pts I, II and III of the 1973 regulations. The latter, of course, includes para 15, which I have already read in the context of the first tenancy agreement and need not repeat at this stage.
Here again, continuing disrepair is alleged in the statement of claim which was served at the same time as the statement of claim in the first action, the writ having been served in the second action on 21 September 1990. The claim here is not limited to damages, although there is a claim to damages and interest as in the first action, but in the second action there is also a claim to an order ‘that the defendant remedy all the wants of repair and make the replacements set forth in a schedule of landlords wants of repair’. The ‘wants of repair’ are effectively the same as those relied upon in the first action.
In both actions the defendants, who have not, it is accepted, taken a step in the action and therefore have not served a defence, have put in evidence to show that they put in issue the disrepair and also the extent of loss that may have been
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suffered by the respective plaintiffs in respect of any breach by the defendants or their predecessors. It is evident that there may be more doubt about the second, that is to say the loss, than about the existence of a substantial amount of disrepair in respect of which the findings of the agricultural lands tribunal need not be repeated.
A further factual matter which needs recording is that there is positive evidence of considerable impecuniosity on the part of one of the plaintiffs in the first action (James Tustian) and of the plaintiff in the second action. James Tustian bought out Oscar Tustian’s interest in the tenancy in September 1975, so that the other plaintiff in the first action, Oscar Tustian, has no beneficial interest; but since he was a party to the tenancy agreement he has been joined as a party to the action. In relation to James Tustian, who is the effective plaintiff in that action, there is evidence before me that he and his wife have no savings and that their impecuniosity has been caused or contributed to by the defendants’ breaches of their obligations in that the failures to repair have reduced the earning capacity of the farm.
Closely similar evidence is before me regarding Mark Tustian, the son of James Tustian, although it is said there that he has some savings. The actual evidence is that he has savings of no more than £550. In both cases there is evidence that there is no third party support from, in particular, the National Farmers Union to be obtained by either plaintiff. Some details are given of that, but I need not go into that aspect of the matter. There is also evidence that arbitration would, in the particular circumstances of this case, be likely to be expensive. The obvious factor is that arbitrators have to be paid for and so do legal assessors if, as is at least possible, such assistance is needed by the arbitrator. It is not in doubt that there would have to be a substantial hearing to decide the issues, whether it be an arbitration or litigation. The estimate before me is one of three weeks and in that context one is not surprised to find evidence (as there is) of the costs of the hearing on any arbitration alone possibly amounting to some £12,000 to £14,400 for the arbitrator and legal assessor. That, of course, does not include the parties’ own and separate costs.
The defendants issued a summons for stay in both actions and it is the decision of the deputy master granting such a stay on 17 September last that is the basis of this appeal.
It will be convenient to deal with the second action first. The Agricultural Holdings Act 1986, which now governs the position, is the Act that makes provision for what are called model clauses in s 7 and makes the provision for regulations to be made that replaces the earlier provision under the 1948 Act to a similar effect. There are provisions for arbitration in relation to both aspects, that is to say disputes concerning the model clauses’ applicability and in relation to the right that tenants have to a written tenancy agreement. Under s 6 there is provision for the terms of a tenancy to be submitted to arbitration under the Act in case of disagreement. Under s 8 there is provision for reference of the terms of the tenancy to arbitration if either the landlord or the tenant of the holding has requested the other to vary the terms so as to bring them into conformity with the model clauses. No agreement has been reached on that request.
It was pointed out in argument that the ambit of the arbitration and what the arbitrator has to consider is quite closely defined in the provisions of ss 6 and 8. I do not think it is necessary for me to read those sections in detail.
Section 84 of the 1986 Act deals with arbitrations under the Act. Subsection (1) says:
‘Any matter which by or by virtue of this Act or regulations made under this Act is required to be determined by arbitration under the Act shall, notwithstanding any agreement (under a contract of tenancy or otherwise)
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providing for a different method of arbitration, be determined by the arbitration of a single arbitrator in accordance with the provisions of any order under this section, together with the provisions of Schedule 11 to this Act (as for the time being in force); and the Arbitration Act 1950 shall not apply to any such arbitration.’
Although that is an Act which is subsequent to the first tenancy agreement, because of the transitional provisions in s 99 that provision in s 84 is to be treated as operative in relation to both the actions.
Schedule 11 contains (as one would expect) the provisions for the conduct of the arbitrations under the Act.
Section 97 was relied on by the plaintiffs in the action. It provides:
‘Subject to sections 15(5) and 83(1) above in particular, and to any other provision of this Act which otherwise expressly provides, nothing in this Act shall prejudicially affect any power, right or remedy of a landlord, tenant or other person vested in or exercisable by him by virtue of any other Act or law or under any custom of the country or otherwise, in respect of a contract of tenancy or other contract, or of any improvements, deteriorations, waste, emblements, tillages, away-going crops, fixtures, tax, rate, tithe rentcharge, rent or other thing.’
What is insisted upon is the remedy of a tenant as being preserved unless expressly removed by a provision of the 1986 Act.
The question which arises is how far the claims in the second action in particular are the subject of the compulsory arbitration provision which, as a result of s 84(1) of the 1986 Act, para 15 may require to be under the Act rather than under the Arbitration Act 1950. That is the first and principal question upon which there is no helpful authority.
I was referred to Kent v Conniff [1953] 1 All ER 155, [1953] 1 QB 361, which was a case under the 1948 regulations. In that case the tenants had committed breaches of their repairing covenants. The landlords served a schedule of dilapidations and a s 146 notice under the Law of Property Act 1925. The tenants failed to comply. The landlord issued a writ claiming forfeiture and damages and the tenants argued that, by reason of s 57 of the 1948 Act (which is now replaced by s 71 of the 1986 Act) which provides for compensation when a tenant quits the holding, the landlord was limited to that right of compensation on quitting the holding and that, therefore, his claim for damages was premature.
The Court of Appeal held against that argument and Singleton LJ said ([1953] 1 All ER 155 at 157–158, [1953] 1 QB 361 at 371–372):
‘There is nothing in s. 57 which compels a landlord who has a right of action for damages for breaches of covenant in a lease or in a tenancy agreement to resort to arbitration if the breaches of covenant and the right of action arise during the tenancy. Prima facie, he has a right of action in the courts when the breach takes place. It is common ground that he might have a right to an injunction, but it is said on behalf of the tenants that by reason of s. 57 he cannot recover damages in an action in which he is granted an injunction. I do not agree. I draw attention to the fact that this action, in which forfeiture and damages were claimed, was commenced on May 11, 1951, whereas the tenancy continues until March, 1953. The effect of s. 65 is to provide that neither tenant nor landlord can have any other remedy than compensation under the Act in any case for which the provisions of the Act provide for compensation, and it avoids any agreement to the contrary. It does not appear to me to have any bearing on this appeal unless it can be said that s. 57 provides compensation for the breaches of which the landlord complains, breaches which, on the findings of the judge, arose long before
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the termination of the tenancy. And I have expressed my opinion that the landlord’s claim did not arise under s. 57, and certainly he has not exercised the option given to him by sub-s. (3) of that section. If the legislature had thought fit, it would have been simple to say that there should be no right to recover damages for a breach of covenant in any tenancy agreement in relation to an agricultural holding, but that any such claim should be treated as a claim to compensation (and should be postponed until the termination of the tenancy).’
It was accepted by Mr Neuberger QC on behalf of the plaintiffs that that case is distinguishable (as indeed it clearly is) because the regulations there in question, those under the 1948 regulations, did not contain as the 1973 regulations do any provision for arbitration and, in particular, what is now para 15 in the schedule to the 1975 regulations has no counterpart at all in the 1948 regulations. So that all that one finds in the 1948 regulations is provisions which are parallel to, but a good deal simpler and shorter to those in Pts I and II of the 1973 regulations imposing and conferring rights and liabilities on the landlord and the tenant respectively.
For that reason I do not derive any significant assistance from the decision in Kent v Conniff [1953] 1 All ER 155, [1953] 1 QB 361 on the question how far the arbitration provisions, in particular in para 15, exclude resort by either landlord or tenant to the courts.
Even less guidance (if possible) is to be derived from another decision to which I was referred, Roper v Prudential Assurance Co Ltd [1992] 1 EGLR 5, where Mr Edward Evans-Lombe QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division, construed in an action the expression ‘electrical wiring’ in a tenant’s repairing obligations under an agreement in respect of a farming tenancy. There was no suggestion that it was argued there that there was a compulsory submission to arbitration. The point was not raised and it seems a priori at least possible, if not probable, that the parties had actually agreed that the matter should be determined by the court. Certainly there is no assistance to be derived on the question of the extent to which the arbitration provisions in para 15 operate to exclude recourse to the courts by either landlord or tenant.
It was submitted for the tenant that specific performance of a repairing obligation is not a remedy that an arbitrator acting under para 15 can award. That was accepted as a proposition, but the parties drew different conclusions from that state of affairs.
For the tenant it was argued that this effectively concluded the question whether there should be a stay in favour of there not being a stay because, it was argued, that means that there is thus a remedy which is preserved by s 97 of the 1986 Act (which I have read and need not repeat). For the landlord it was argued that the effect is that specific performance is not an available remedy for the tenant who is nevertheless bound by para 15 to submit all questions arising under the regulations imposing repairing obligations to arbitration and that the remedy of specific performance thereby is simply not available. In the alternative it was submitted that at best there would be a two stage operation whereby the questions of extent of liability and breach would be referred to arbitration as a first stage.
I assume for present purposes that the remedy of specific performance is available. This is not an entirely straightforward point. The Landlord and Tenant Act 1985 by s 17 suggests a certain degree of parliamentary doubt as to the general availability of such a remedy. Subsection (1) provides:
‘In proceedings in which a tenant of a dwelling alleges a breach on the part of his landlord of a repairing covenant relating to any part of the premises in which the dwelling is comprised, the court may order specific performance of the covenant whether or not the breach relates to a part of the premises let
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to the tenant and notwithstanding any equitable rule restricting the scope of the remedy, whether on the basis of a lack of mutuality or otherwise.’
That, of course, is not directly in point here because there is not here a letting of a dwelling and equally that provision does not apply to lettings under Pt II of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 because of the specific provisions to that effect in s 32(1) of the 1985 Act.
On the other hand, in Jeune v Queens Cross Properties Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 97, [1974] Ch 97 Pennycuick V-C held that there was power to order a landlord to do specific work under a covenant to repair, notwithstanding an old rule which he treated as established by Lord Eldon LC’s decision in Hill v Barclay (1810) 16 Ves 402, [1803–13] All ER Rep 379 that a landlord cannot obtain a decree for specific performance against a tenant to enforce the tenant’s repairing covenant.
I do not propose to go further into that question of the availability of specific performance to a tenant in an agricultural tenancy, but to assume for the purposes of my judgment that the remedy is one which is at least arguably available to such a tenant.
In my judgment para 15 has at any rate this effect: it refers to compulsory arbitration (a) the extent of a landlord’s and tenant’s repairing obligations under Pts I and II of the schedule to the 1973 regulations respectively, (b) the extent to which either the landlord or the tenant is in breach of those obligations. It seems to me that these are questions which have to be answered before a claim either to damages or to specific performance can succeed. That in my view drives me to the conclusion that the compulsory arbitration provisions apply in relation to those proceedings for either damages or specific performance at any rate up to the stage of establishing (a) obligation and (b) breach of the obligation. It follows from the concession (which in my view was rightly made) that an arbitrator acting under para 15 has no power to award specific performance, that if, as here, the landlords are prepared to fight or, at any rate, to refuse to compromise to the last ditch, there has to be a two stage form or proceedings for an action for specific performance to succeed, the first stage being that of compulsory arbitration, the second stage being resort to the court to obtain a decree of specific performance; and, although this is a somewhat unattractive prospect, it is not an unprecedented one.
An example (to which I was referred) was in Grayless v Watkinson [1990] 1 EGLR 6, where the respondent was the tenant and the appellant was the landlord. The issue was the replacement of a roof which so far as repair was concerned would have been the responsibility of the tenant who had entered into a wide repairing obligation, but was found on the facts not to be in need of repair, but of replacement. The matter went to arbitration when the landlord served a notice on the tenant requiring the tenant to repair the roof and the arbitrator awarded that the barn roof required renewal and that this was not the liability of the tenant. That was accepted by the appellant landlord as being binding on him and that, therefore, the replacement liability was his under the 1973 regulations.
The next stage was that the tenant by a notice required the landlord to renew the barn roof as being incapable of repair and gave notice that if he failed to do so within the prescribed time the tenant would exercise his right under the 1973 regulations to execute the repairs or replacements and recover the reasonable cost thereof. The landlord did not do the work, the tenant did, at a cost of some £7,992 and then brought proceedings in the Barrow-in-Furness County Court to recover the full sum of £7,992 by way of damages for breach of contract and/or statutory duty. The landlord denied liability (which did not arise before the Court of Appeal) but also pleaded a limitation on his liability under the specific provisions in the 1973 regulations, para 12(2) of the schedule to which I have earlier referred to. The tenant’s answer to that in his reply was that the procedures
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under para 12(2) were optional and did not affect his claim for damages. In those circumstances Dillon LJ said ([1990] 1 EGLR 6 at 7):
‘The recorder gave judgment for the respondent for the full amount of £7,992.50 claimed, together with interest. He accepted an argument from counsel for the respondent—foreshadowed, I apprehend in the reply—that, if the landlord has a liability to the tenant under the 1973 regulations to replace the roof of the barn, the tenant has remedies at common law in addition to his option under para 12(2) and so, having himself done the work, can recover the reasonable cost from the landlord at common law, without having to submit to the restriction on the landlord’s liability in the final proviso in para 12(2). One of the troubles about that argument, however, is that it would deprive the final proviso in para 12(2) of all effect, except where the tenant, being ill-advised, chose to agree to the landlord’s liability being limited by the proviso. The true position, as I see it, is that para 12(2) is the sole source of the tenant’s right to recover the cost of replacing the barn roof from the landlord, and the tenant must accept para 12(2) as a whole, including the proviso. The only liability of the appellant as landlord which is available for the respondent as tenant to enforce where the respondent has carried out works after the appellant had failed to do so is a liability qualified by the proviso.’
The Court of Appeal went on to deal with the actual operation of the proviso which is not a matter that is of direct relevance to this case.
That decision in my judgment establishes at least two things: first, that there can very well be situations where one has to start with an arbitration award before bringing an action on the basis of what is found in the award. That is in fact what happened in that case. There is nothing in the decision to indicate that any point was taken in the action, that it should have been the subject of arbitration, so the decision is neutral on that aspect of the matter.
Secondly, the Court of Appeal decision shows that where the regulations (in that case para 12) apply to confer a remedy, there is pro tanto an exclusion of common law remedies that overlap. It is not conclusive in this case as a decision because the remedy of specific performance is admitted not to be available under para 15 and to that extent Grayless v Watkinson [1990] 1 EGLR 6 is clearly distinguishable. Nevertheless, the legislative intention which can in my view be discerned behind the regulations seems to be that there should be compulsory arbitration on the issues of the extent of a repairing obligation and the existence of a breach of those obligations. It would in my view be hopelessly unsatisfactory to allow simultaneous court proceedings for specific performance with arbitration on the question whether the obligation had been breached. For that fundamental reason I have reached the conclusion that the orders staying these actions were correctly made.
It follows that I do not in my view have a discretion under s 4 of the Arbitration Act 1950. I reject the argument that was advanced, that when s 84(1) excludes the 1950 Act it does not exclude s 4 thereof, which deals with arbitration agreements rather than with the mechanics and procedure for arbitration. That seems to me too subtle for me to apprehend. The 1950 Act seems to me to be excluded lock, stock and barrel and, in particular, including s 4.
Had I had a discretion I should (it was agreed) have been entitled to treat as a relevant factor, but no more, the impecuniosity of one plaintiff in the first action and the only plaintiff in the second action which is claimed to have been caused by the defendant’s breach of obligations. Goodman v Winchester and Alton Rly plc [1984] 3 All ER 594, [1985] 1 WLR 141 is the authority for that.
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The situation that I am left with, I freely accept, is not an entirely satisfactory one because there are indications that the defendants have not only blatantly disregarded their repairing obligations in the past, but may well be relying on their financial muscle to avoid consequential liabilities. But that has not been proved before me and, in any event, is a matter for them to consider. I have to administer the law and the law seems to me to impose a compulsory arbitration to the extent to which I have indicated. Whether account has fully been taken of the singular fact produced by the incidence of the legal aid scheme, that litigation is very much cheaper for an impecunious plaintiff than arbitration, is not something with which I am directly concerned. The appeals will be dismissed.
Appeals dismissed.
Paul Magrath Esq Barrister.
Re S (a minor) (abduction)
[1993] 2 All ER 683
Categories: FAMILY; Children
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): GLIDEWELL, BALCOMBE LJJ AND BOREHAM J
Hearing Date(s): 16, 17 JUNE, 7 JULY 1992
Minor – Custody – Rights of custody – Foreign custody rights – Wrongful removal or retention – Discretion of court to refuse to order immediate return of child – Exercise of discretion – Parents entering into separation agreement under which mother and child would live in France and father would have unrestricted access to child – Mother removing child to England – Father applying for return of child to France – Child objecting to return – No evidence that return of child to France would expose her to grave risk of psychological harm – Whether child had attained age and maturity at which it was appropriate to take account of her views – Whether court could refuse to order return of child to France even though return would not expose her to grave risk of psychological harm – Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1,art 13.
The child the subject of the proceedings was born in 1982 in England. Her parents met in Indonesia, married in England and had since lived in Borneo, France and Norway before returning to live in Paris in 1991. The father, who was French, was a petroleum engineer whose work took him to many parts of the world. The mother was English. The child had attended French and English schools in Norway and France but had never lived in England. She had a high IQ but also suffered from slight dyslexia. She had long-standing psychological problems which were manifested in speech difficulties and the advice of psychologists and a speech therapist was that she should be educated in her stronger mother tongue, which was English. In 1991 the parents separated and signed an agreement in Paris, under which the mother and the child would live in the family flat in Paris while the father would live in the family home outside Paris, would provide financial maintenance for the mother and the child and would have unrestricted access to the child. Three weeks later the mother unlawfully removed the child from France and returned to England. The father applied under art 12 of the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (which had the force of law in the United Kingdom by virtue of s 1(2) of the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985 and was set out in Sch 1 thereto) for the immediate return of the child. The judge heard evidence from
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the court welfare officer that, when interviewed, the child had expressed the strong view that she did not wish to go back to France because she felt awkward and out of place at a French school, that being forced to speak French brought on her speech difficulties and that she felt much happier speaking English and more at ease in England. The welfare officer considered that the child was expressing her own views and not those of the mother, and that she was sufficiently intellectually developed to understand the situation. The judge held that the child had attained an age and degree of maturity at which it was appropriate for her views to be taken into account and that in all the circumstances her desire not to return to France was mature, rational and based on genuine and cogent reasons. He dismissed the father’s application. The father appealed, contending, inter alia, that, in exercising its discretion under art 13a to refuse to order the return of a child, the court could only take into account and act on the child’s objections if it was also shown that there was a grave risk that return of the child would expose it to psychological harm or place it in an intolerable situation within art 13(b).
Held – The court could exercise its discretion under art 13 of the 1985 convention to refuse to order the immediate return of a child to the country from which it had been wrongfully removed solely on the basis that the child objected to being returned and had attained an age and degree of maturity at which it was appropriate to take account of its views, without having to decide under art 13(b) whether the return of the child would expose it to physical or psychological harm or otherwise place it in an intolerable situation, since on the true construction of art 13 those two conditions for refusing the return of the child were separate and unconnected. However, the court had to exercise its discretion in the context of the convention, which was that it was in the best interests of children generally that they should be promptly returned to the country from where they had been wrongfully removed, and therefore it was only in exceptional cases that the court should exercise its discretion to refuse to order an immediate return. Whether a child was of sufficient age and maturity for its views to be taken into account and what weight to give to those views were matters for the court to decide, in the light of the circumstances of the case. On the facts, and in the exceptional circumstances of the case, it was clear that the child’s reasons for objecting to being returned to France had substance and were not merely a desire to remain in England with the mother, and that she had attained an age and degree of maturity at which it was appropriate to take account of her views. It followed that the appeal would be dismissed (see p 690 b c g h, p 691 a e f and p 692 d e g h, post).
Notes
For the civil aspects of international child abduction and the return of children wrongfully removed, see 1992 Supplement to 8 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 525A.
For the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, art 13, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 313.
Cases referred to in judgment
A and anor (minors) (abduction: acquiescence), Re [1992] 1 All ER 929, [1992] Fam 106, [1992] 2 WLR 536, CA.
G v G [1985] 2 All ER 225, [1985] 1 WLR 647, HL.
Layfield v Layfield (6 December 1991, unreported), Aust Fam Ct.
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M (minors), Re (25 July 1990, unreported), Fam D.
R (a minor: abduction), Re [1992] 1 FLR 105.
Wilson v Challis (19 March 1992, unreported), Ont Ct (Prov Div).
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A (a minor) (abduction), Re [1988] 1 FLR 365, CA.
C v C (minor: abduction: rights of custody abroad) [1989] 2 All ER 465, [1989] WLR 654, CA.
N (minors) (abduction), Re [1991] 1 FLR 413.
P v P (minors) (child abduction) [1992] 1 FLR 155.
S (a minor) (abduction), Re [1991] 2 FLR 1, CA.
Appeal
The father of a minor appealed against the order of Ewbank J in chambers dated 17 January 1992 dismissing his application under the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985 for an order for the return of the child to France. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Patricia Scotland QC and Henry Setright (instructed by Margaret Bennett) for the father.
Allan Levy QC and Brian Jubb (instructed by Taylor Joynson Garrett, agents for Moore & Blatch, Southampton) for the mother.
Cur adv vult
7 July 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
BALCOMBE LJ. This appeal, from an order of Ewbank J made on 17 January 1992 whereby he dismissed an application under the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33) (the Hague Convention) for the return to France of a nine-year old girl, raises once again a question under art 13 of that convention.
The child, C, was born on 9 August 1982. Her mother is English, aged 48, her father is French, aged 46. The father is a petroleum engineer whose work takes him to many parts of the world. The parents met in Indonesia, where the mother was working as a secretary with the United Nations. They married in England in 1979. When the mother became pregnant with C (their only child) they were living in Borneo.
The mother came back to England for her confinement and spent a few months in England after C’s birth, but then returned with C to the father in Borneo. In September 1984 the family moved to Paris, France. In September 1985 the family moved to Harstad, Norway. In November 1986 the family moved back to Paris and C spent two months in a French school. In February 1987 they moved to Stavanger, Norway. From February to June 1987 C attended a French school in Norway. From September 1987 until they left Norway in March 1991, C attended the Stavanger British School. In March 1991 the family returned to Paris as their home, where they lived in a flat in the Place des Vosges; there is also a house at Maisons-Laffitte, just outside Paris. Apart from the short time after her birth, and for occasional holidays since, C has never lived in England.
Unfortunately C has long-standing psychological problems. These have manifested themselves in speech difficulties—stammering and stuttering—and it was as a result of the advice of a French speech therapist that C should be educated in her stronger mother tongue (English) that C was moved to the British School in Stavanger. This advice has been confirmed by the reports of psychologists,
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both French and English, which were put in evidence by the mother. These reports show that C has a high IQ and the mental age of a child of 12; she also suffers from dyslexia, although the problem is not acute.
On the family’s return to Paris in March 1991, C was sent to the local school near the flat in the Place des Vosges, and she attended that school until the mother brought her to England on 24 November 1991. A letter from the headmistress of that school, addressed to ‘whom it may concern’, was also in evidence, from which it is clear that C’s speech and other problems were very apparent to the headmistress, and that C was also affected by the dissensions between her parents. The marriage had been in difficulty for some years, and by the autumn of 1991 the parents were ready for a divorce. On the advice of their lawyers they entered into a voluntary deed of separation, which provided that the mother should live in the Paris flat with C, while the father should live in the house at Maisons-Laffittes, with an unimpeded right of access to C. The deed made provision for the financial maintenance by the father of the mother and C.
The deed was signed on 7 November 1991, and in accordance with its provisions the father moved out of the Paris flat on Saturday, 9 November 1991. On the same day he gave the mother a cheque for 6,000 French francs, maintaining that a third of the month had already elapsed. Whether or not this was correct, the fact is that the mother had run out of money by 22 November. The father refused to give her more; the mother sold her rings for about £250, and she then decided to leave France with C. This she did on Sunday, 24 November, and she came to England, to the Southampton area where her family lives, to a house forming part of the estate of her deceased mother and which belongs beneficially to her sister and herself. She immediately put C into the local junior school and that position has continued up to the present time.
On 20 December 1991 the father made an application for the return of C under the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, by which (see s 1) the provisions of the Hague Convention are incorporated into our domestic law, and it was that application which came before Ewbank J on 15 January 1992, and which resulted in the order from which the father now appeals.
Before the judge it was common ground (as it was before us) that the mother’s removal of C was wrongful under art 3 of the Hague Convention, and that prima facie the court was bound to order the immediate return of C to France under art 12. The issues before the judge were whether he had a discretion not to order C’s immediate return under art 13 and, if so, whether he should exercise the discretion in favour of allowing her to stay here.
The two grounds under art 13 upon which the mother relied were: (i) under para (b), that there was a grave risk that C’s return would expose her to psychological harm. The judge rejected this ground and, although it was raised again by the mother in her respondent’s notice on the appeal, as well as an alternative ground under para (b) that C’s return would place her in an intolerable situation, these grounds were expressly abandoned before us by the mother’s counsel, Mr Allan Levy QC. Accordingly we do not consider them further. (ii) That C objected to being returned and had attained an age and degree of maturity at which it was appropriate to take account of her views. This was the ground upon which the judge relied in refusing to order C’s return to France.
The mother’s affidavit was largely devoted to C’s psychological problems and her learning and language difficulties, but it included the following passage:
‘On many occasions [C] has indicated to me that she does not wish to return to France … [C] has expressed extremely strong feelings about returning to France, and she has an age and degree of maturity where it would be appropriate to take account of her views.’
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There was no independent evidence of C’s views, but the judge was invited to see C. He took the view that it would not be appropriate for him to do this, but he asked the duty court welfare officer, Mrs Varley, to do so. Mrs Varley had a long interview with C and gave her report orally in evidence to the court. In view of the importance of this report, we set out below the relevant passages from the transcript of Mrs Varley’s evidence:
‘I saw [C], my Lord, in my office on her own and I would say as a preamble that she is a very fluent and sophisticated conversationalist. It was very easy to interview this child, so much so that she would see the drift of my questions and pre-empt them with an answer. I would sum up what she said to me in her own words. She said would I tell the judge really, really strongly that she does not want to go back to France. She does not want to go back to France because she feels great in England, was how she put it.
Ewbank J. She feels great in England? Mrs Varley. Yes. She had obviously had a miserable experience going to school in France, from her own account. She said she felt awkward and like a fish out of water at a French school. She tried to illustrate that by saying that “Two won’t go into seven”. That was her way of illustrating that, that she felt so out of place. She said that being forced to speak French, she thought, brought on her stammer which made her feel bad. She illustrated on how going from France to a holiday in England her stammer had almost miraculously gone at the airport, and she sees that as a sign of how much happier she feels speaking English. She felt under pressure, she said, from her father while she lived in France to, I suppose, do some sort of remedial work to catch up in the French school system and so that was a sad experience for her too. She made a very, very emotional plea that she feels more at ease in England and she feels it is more natural for her to speak English and to be English.’
Then in cross-examination by Mr Setright:
‘Ewbank J. Did you have any feeling that the view she was expressing was an impassioned plea put into her mouth by her mother or was she expressing her own views? Mrs Varley. I certainly did not think they were rehearsed, my Lord. She was able to separate, when I led her that way, the feelings of a parent and as a child. She could appreciate that children are influenced by their parents’ views, but she seemed to feel quite strongly that she was not.
Mr Setright. Did you think that she was mature enough for her feelings to be taken into account by the court? Mrs Varley. Well, she is certainly intellectually mature enough to know what the situation is that she is in. Emotionally she is still a child of that age. She is still emotionally very fragile.
Mr Setright. But would you give weight yourself to her views? Mrs Varley. Yes, I would. I think she feels very strongly a dread of going back to France and she feels more comfortable in England.’
In the light of the arguments that were presented to us by Miss Patricia Scotland QC, on behalf of the father, it will be convenient to record that the mother, in her evidence, accepted that it would be appropriate for C to spend prolonged periods of staying access with the father in France, and also to set out certain passages from the father’s oral evidence. In evidence-in-chief he was asked:
‘Mr Setright. You have heard the oral report of the court welfare officer this morning, have you not? The father. [No audible reply.]
Mr Setright. Is there anything that you want to say about that, having heard it? The father. No. I am happy to know anyway that [C] is happy to be
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in England, this for sure—is happy to be at an English school rather than a French school. If she is doing well, I am happy for her.
Mr Setright. But is it still your wish …
Ewbank J. I do not quite follow what you mean by that—“if she is doing well, I am happy for her”. You do not mean you are happy for her to stay here? The father. No. Because I still think that a father/daughter relationship is much more important than feeling better at school …
Mr Setright. You have already dealt with accommodation. What education would be available to [C]? Where would she go to school? The father. The French school was chosen because it was conveniently 300 metres from the flat. It was where our daughter had been a couple of months before, four years ago.
Mr Setright. The same school that she had been in some years before? The father. That is right. But if she prefers to go to [a] British school, if it is that important, we can always try to find a solution. Paris is a big town and there are possibilities for [C] to go to a fully or partly English-speaking school.
Mr Setright. Have you done any research into that? The father. I have contacted a British school but it is not conveniently located for the flat in Paris or the house in Maisons-Laffitte.
Mr Setright. About how far away is it? The father. I have made investigation and they would be ready to accept our daughter provided they have interview with the parents before.
Mr Setright. How far away from the Place des Vosges is that? The father. I would say it is a good hour and half’s travel one way.
Mr Setright. But there are other English schools which you have not investigated? The father. In Maisons-Laffitte there are schools where there is possibility to follow English even at a small age. There is an Anglican church. There is Brownies. There is quite a small active British community.
Mr Setright. So far as [C’s] future is concerned, what language or languages had you and your wife felt that she should speak? … The father. It is important that she has both British and French, so it is important that she keeps both languages.
Mr Setright. Despite the stuttering difficulty, does she speak French? The father. Yes …
Mr Setright. In your view, and of course it is only your view, knowing [C] and knowing your wife and knowing the living circumstances in France, do you think it would be very distressing and difficult for [C] to come back to France now? The father. I would have said not but I was probably somewhat shaken by the lady’s report this morning.
Mr Setright. If she came back, is there anything you think you could do to reassure her? The father. My daughter?
Mr Setright. Yes. The father. For sure I will tell her that she can count on me, that I love her. If she wants to do something, if she wants to live in Place des Vosges she can live in Place des Vosges. If she wants to live in Maisons-Laffitte, she can live in Maisons-Laffitte. I mean, this is the only daughter that we have. We live for our children and I do not want to do something which can hurt her and … ’
Subsequently the father gave evidence which seemed to indicate that he had not previously appreciated that C’s problems were attributable to her having to speak French and attend a French school. However, when the direct question was put to him, he answered in the following passage:
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‘Mr Setright. But you being a concerned father, as you have made plain to this court, so far as [C] being at a French school in Paris is concerned, you have seen the report from that school. The father. True.
Mr Setright. In that report it shows or indicates that [C] was not very happy? The father. I am ready to try to find a better school. What I would say, I think big city centres are not the proper place to raise children.’
We were also told that, in his final submissions to Ewbank J, Mr Setright offered the following undertakings on behalf of the father if C were returned to France: (1) the father would allow the mother to remain in the flat in the Place des Vosges separate and apart from him and to have care and control of C; (2) C would go to an English-speaking school; (3) the financial arrangements in the deed of separation would continue.
The reasons for the judge’s decision are contained in the following passage from his judgment. After recording the effect of Mrs Varley’s evidence, and mentioning Dr Hales’s assessment of C’s mental age as being about 12, he said:
‘Accordingly, I have to decide whether the age and maturity of [C] make it appropriate that I should take account of her views. To some extent, of course, I have to see what those views are and what they entail. It seems to me that the view she has put forward, looking at the whole circumstances of her life, is a mature and rational view which seems to be based on genuine and cogent reasons. I would go further and say I think it is probably in her best interests. I am not entitled under the Hague Convention to consider the best interests of the child in the ordinary way, but, in deciding whether the views are mature, if they coincide with what seems to me to be the best interests of the child, I am entitled to take that into account in assessing her maturity. In my view the view she has formed is an intelligent and sensible decision. Accordingly, I am in a position where I may refuse to order the return on that ground. Since my own preliminary assessment of the case is that, at any rate, at this stage [C] should remain in England with her mother, I refuse to make the order under the Hague Convention.’
The arguments which were addressed to us fell under three distinct heads, although they were not so conveniently separated in the submissions of counsel. (1) The construction of art 13 so far as it relates to the child’s objection to being returned. For convenience, future references in this judgment to art 13 are to be taken as referring only to that part of the article unless the context otherwise requires. (2) The establishment of the facts necessary to ‘open the door’ under art 13. (3) The factors relevant to the exercise of the discretion under art 13 once the door is opened.
Before we turn to consider these arguments, it will be convenient to set out the relevant provisions of art 13 as set out in Sch 1 to the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985:
‘Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding Article, the judicial or administrative authority of the requested State is not bound to order the return of the child if the person, institution or other body which opposes its return establishes that—(a) the person, institution or other body having the care of the person of the child was not actually exercising the custody rights at the time of removal or retention, or had consented to or subsequently acquiesced in the removal or retention; or (b) there is a grave risk that his or her return would expose the child to physical or psychological harm or otherwise place the child in an intolerable situation.
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The judicial or administrative authority may also refuse to order the return of the child if it finds that the child objects to being returned and has attained an age and degree of maturity at which it is appropriate to take account of its views …’
The construction of art 13
It will be seen that the part of art 13 which relates to the child’s objections to being returned is completely separate from para (b), and we can see no reason to interpret this part of the article, as we were invited to do by Miss Scotland QC, as importing a requirement to establish a grave risk that the return of the child would expose her to psychological harm, or otherwise place her in an intolerable situation. Further, there is no warrant for importing such a gloss on the words of art 13, as did Bracewell J in Re R (a minor: abduction) [1992] 1 FLR 105 at 107–108:
‘The wording of the article is so phrased that I am satisfied that before the court can consider exercising discretion, there must be more than a mere preference expressed by the child. The word “objects” imports a strength of feeling which goes far beyond the usual ascertainment of the wishes of the child in a custody dispute.’
Unfortunately Bracewell J was not referred to the earlier decision of Sir Stephen Brown P in Re M (minors) (25 July 1990, unreported), in which he rightly considered this part of art 13 by reference to its literal words and without giving them any such additional gloss, as did Bracewell J in Re R (a minor) (abduction).
As was also made clear by Sir Stephen Brown P in Re M (minors), the return to which the child objects is that which would otherwise be ordered under art 12, viz an immediate return to the country from which it was wrongfully removed, so that the courts of that country may resolve the merits of any dispute as to where and with whom it should live: see, in particular, art 19. There is nothing in the provisions of art 13 to make it appropriate to consider whether the child objects to returning in any circumstances. Thus, to take the circumstances of the present case, it may be that C would not object to returning to France for staying access with her father if it were established that her home and schooling are in England, but that would not be the return which would be ordered under art 12.
The establishment of the facts necessary to ‘open the door’ under art 13
The questions whether (i) a child objects to being returned and (ii) has attained an age and degree of maturity at which it is appropriate to take account of its views are questions of fact which are peculiarly within the province of the trial judge. Miss Scotland submitted that the child’s views should not be sought, either by the court welfare officer or the judge, until the evidence of the parents has been completed. We know of no justification for this submission. She also asked us to lay down guidelines for the procedure to be adopted in ascertaining the child’s views and degree of maturity. We do not think it is desirable that we should do so. These cases under the Hague Convention come before the very experienced judges of the Family Division, and they can be relied on, in those cases where it may be necessary to ascertain these facts, to devise an appropriate procedure, always bearing in mind that the convention is primarily designed to secure a speedy return of the child to the country from which it has been abducted.
It will usually be necessary for the judge to find out why the child objects to being returned. If the only reason is because it wants to remain with the abducting
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parent, who is also asserting that he or she is unwilling to return, then this will be a highly relevant factor when the judge comes to consider the exercise of discretion.
Article 13 does not seek to lay down any age below which a child is to be considered as not having attained sufficient maturity for its views to be taken into account. Nor should we. In this connection it is material to note that art 12 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (20 November 1989; TS 44 (1992) Cm 1976) (which has been ratified by both France and the United Kingdom and had come into force in both countries before Ewbank J’s judgment in the present case) provides as follows:
‘1. States Parties shall assure to the child who is capable of forming his or her own views the right to express those views freely in all matters affecting the child, the views of the child being given due weight in accordance with the age and maturity of the child.
2. For this purpose, the child shall in particular be provided the opportunity to be heard in any judicial and administrative proceedings affecting the child, either directly, or through a representative or an appropriate body, in a manner consistent with the procedural rules of national law.’
In our judgment, no criticism can be made of the decision by Ewbank J to ascertain C’s views or of the procedure which he adopted for that purpose. There was evidence which entitled him to find that C objected to being returned to France and that she had attained an age and degree of maturity at which it was appropriate to take account of her views. Those are findings with which this court should not interfere.
The exercise of the discretion under art 13
The scheme of the Hague Convention is that in normal circumstances it is considered to be in the best interests of children generally that they should be promptly returned to the country whence they have been wrongfully removed, and that it is only in exceptional cases that the court should have a discretion to refuse to order an immediate return. That discretion must be exercised in the context of the approach of the convention—see Re A and anor (minors) (abduction: acquiescence) [1992] 1 All ER 929 at 942, [1992] Fam 106 at 122 per Lord Donaldson MR.
Thus if the court should come to the conclusion that the child’s views have been influenced by some other person, eg the abducting parent, or that the objection to return is because of a wish to remain with the abducting parent, then it is probable that little or no weight will be given to those views. Any other approach would be to drive a coach and horses through the primary scheme of the Hague Convention. Thus in Layfield v Layfield (6 December 1991, unreported) in the Family Court of Australia Bell J ordered an 11-year-old girl to be returned to the United Kingdom because he found that, although she was of an age and degree of maturity for her wishes to be taken into account, he believed that those wishes were not to remain in Australia per se, but to remain with her mother who had wrongfully removed the girl from the United Kingdom to Australia. On the other hand, where the court finds that the child or children have valid reasons for their objections to being returned, then it may refuse to order the return.
Thus in Re M (minors) (25 July 1990, unreported) the court refused to order the return of three children aged 11, 9 and 8 to America. In the course of his judgment Sir Stephen Brown P said:
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‘I am, however, concerned for the children. I find that they do object to being returned and that each of them has attained an age and a degree of maturity at which it is appropriate to take account of their views. I feel that I must take account of their views. Their views are not, however, determinative of the position and I have to consider how far they should affect me. I feel that I should give effect to their objection in this case in the light of the fact that they give valid reasons, in my judgment, for objecting to going back to America into the case of their father, because of his former conduct. I consider that he has materially admitted this. I do not, therefore, propose to order their return. That is the sole extent of the order that I make. I do not determine custody rights or access rights or any other rights as between the parties. But in the light of the children’s objections to being returned, I decline to order their return under the terms of the convention and the provisions of the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985.’
A similar result was reached in the Canadian case of Wilson v Challis (19 March 1992, unreported), where Foran J, sitting in the Ontario Court (Provincial Division) and following the decision in Re M (minors), refused to order the return of an 11-year-old boy to his father in England for what appeared to be good and valid reasons.
In the present case C objected strongly to being returned to France. Her reasons, as given to Mrs Varley, had substance and were not merely a desire to remain in England with her mother. This court cannot interfere with the judge’s exercise of his discretion unless he took into account some irrelevant factor, left out of account some relevant factor or was plainly wrong—see G v G [1985] 2 All ER 225, [1985] 1 WLR 647. It could not seriously be suggested that Ewbank J took into account an irrelevant factor. However, he did not, in the course of his judgment, mention the father’s undertaking that if C were returned to France she could attend an English-speaking school. Since this undertaking had been offered by Mr Setright on behalf of the father in the course of his final submissions to the judge, it is impossible that the judge was unaware of it. It might have been preferable if he had made express reference to it in his judgment, but we are quite unable to say that he failed to take it into account. The judge may well have found it surprising that the father was unaware of C’s distress at attending a French school until he heard Mrs Varley’s evidence, and he may have considered the father’s proposals to send C to an English-speaking school in Paris somewhat imprecise and by no means fully considered. In these circumstances we are quite unable to say that his decision to return C to France, even having regard to the father’s undertakings, was plainly wrong.
Nothing which we have said in this judgment should detract from the view, which has frequently been expressed and which we repeat, that it is only in exceptional cases under the Hague Convention that the court should refuse to order the immediate return of a child who has been wrongfully removed. This is an exceptional case and accordingly we dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed. No order as to costs.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Re D and another (minors) (conciliation: disclosure of information)
[1993] 2 All ER 693
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, BUTLER-SLOSS AND ROSE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 2, 3, 11 FEBRUARY 1993
Family proceedings – Evidence – Privilege – Negotiations with view to reconciliation – Meetings between parties and clinical psychologist for purpose of conciliation – Admissibility of statements made at meetings in proceedings for residence orders.
The parents were married in 1985 and in 1988 the mother gave birth to twins. The marriage ran into difficulties and in July 1991 the mother started having weekly consultations with a clinical psychologist. Those consultations continued up to March 1992 when the mother petitioned for divorce. Thereafter on three occasions the mother and father jointly attended meetings with the psychologist for the purposes of conciliation, the psychologist acting as conciliator. During the period of the meetings the father applied and the mother cross-applied for residence orders in relation to the children and a hearing was fixed for 9 November 1992. Prior to the hearing the mother filed a statement by the psychologist which was based on the three joint conciliation meetings. The father objected that the statement was inadmissible on the grounds that it disclosed, without his consent, what had passed on a privileged occasion. The judge ruled that the evidence should be excluded. The mother appealed, contending that since the privilege derived from the same privilege accorded to ‘without prejudice’ communications it was subject to the same exceptions and even if an occasion was prima facie privileged that privilege could be set aside in the interests of the children concerned or where the public interest in preserving the confidentiality of such communications was outweighed by the public interest in disclosure.
Held – In proceedings under the Children Act 1989 evidence could not be given of statements made by one or other of the parties in the course of meetings held or communications made for the purpose of conciliation, except in the very unusual case where the statement clearly indicated that the maker had in the past or was likely in the future to cause serious harm to the well-being of a child. Having regard to the growing importance of conciliation of parental or matrimonial disputes in the procedures of family courts it was important to preserve a cloak over all attempts at settlement of disputes over children, and nondisclosure of the contents of such meetings was a discernible thread in all in-court and out-of-court conciliation arrangements. Furthermore, in the exceptional case where disclosure might be allowed, it was nevertheless for the trial judge to decide, in the exercise of his discretion, whether or not to admit the evidence, and he ought only to do so if the public interest in protecting the interests of the child outweighed the public interest in preserving the confidentiality of attempted conciliation. On the facts, the psychologist’s statement did not fall within the narrow exception to the general rule against disclosure and it followed that the statement was not admissible. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 699 b to g and p 700 b, post).
Notes
For privilege for communications with a view to reconciliation, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 869, and for cases on the subject, see 27(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 185–186, 5216–5223.
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For the Children Act 1989, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 387.
Cases referred to in judgment
D v National Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children [1977] 1 All ER 589, [1978] AC 171, [1977] 2 WLR 201, HL; rvsg [1976] 2 All ER 993, [1978] AC 171, [1976] 3 WLR 124, CA.
Henley v Henley (Bligh cited) [1955] 1 All ER 590, [1955] P 202, [1955] 2 WLR 851.
Kitcat v Sharp (1882) 48 LT 64.
McTaggart v McTaggart [1948] 2 All ER 754, [1949] P 94, CA.
Mole v Mole [1950] 2 All ER 328, [1951] P 21, CA.
Pais v Pais [1970] 3 All ER 491, [1971] P 119, [1970] 3 WLR 830.
Pool v Pool [1951] 2 All ER 563, [1951] P 470.
Rush & Tomkins Ltd v Greater London Council [1988] 3 All ER 737, [1989] AC 1280, [1988] 3 WLR 939, HL.
Theodoropoulas v Theodoropoulas [1963] 2 All ER 772, [1964] P 311, [1963] 3 WLR 354.
W v Egdell [1990] 1 All ER 835, [1990] Ch 359, [1990] 2 WLR 471, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A (minors: disclosure of material), Re [1991] 2 FLR 473.
B (a minor) (confidential information), Re [1992] 2 FLR 617, CA.
Birmingham City DC v O [1982] 2 All ER 356, [1982] 1 WLR 679, CA.
Buckinghamshire CC v Moran [1989] 2 All ER 225, [1990] Ch 623, CA.
C (a minor) (evidence: confidential information), Re [1991] 2 FLR 478, CA.
C (a minor: irregularity of practice), Re [1991] 2 FLR 438, CA.
Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93, CA.
Cutts v Head [1984] 1 All ER 597, [1984] Ch 290, CA.
Daintrey, Re, ex p Holt [1893] 2 QB 116, [1891–4] All ER Rep 209, DC.
Grace v Baynton (1877) 21 SJ 631, CA.
H (conciliation: welfare reports), Re [1986] 1 FLR 476.
M (a minor) (disclosure of material), Re [1990] 2 FLR 36.
Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201, HL.
Ramsbottom v Senior (1869) LR 8 Eq 575.
Rogers v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, Gaming Board for GB v Rogers [1972] 2 All ER 1057, [1973] AC 388, HL.
South Shropshire DC v Amos [1987] 1 All ER 340, [1986] 1 WLR 1271, CA.
Interlocutory appeal
The mother of twins aged four appealed with the leave of the deputy judge from the order of Beryl Cooper QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Family Division on 4 January 1993 whereby, on the father objecting to the admissibility of a statement dated 15 October 1992 made by a clinical psychologist, Dr Jennifer Craddock, based on joint meetings she had had with the parties for the purposes of conciliation, on the grounds that it disclosed statements made on a privileged occasion, the deputy judge ordered that the statements should be excluded from the hearing of cross-applications by the parties for residence orders in respect of the children under the Children Act 1989. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
E James Holman QC and Katharine Davidson (instructed by Collyer-Bristow) for the mother.
Nicholas Francis (instructed by Rubinstein Callingham Polden & Gale) for the father.
Cur adv vult
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11 February 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. To what extent, if at all, may evidence be given in proceedings under the Children Act 1989 of statements made by one or other of the parties in the course of meetings held or communications made for the purpose of reconciliation, mediation or conciliation? That is the important question raised by this appeal. The ordinary rule is, as the parties agree, that evidence of such statements may not be given. But the parties do not agree whether the rule is absolute or subject to exceptions; and if it is subject to exceptions they do not agree what those exceptions are. The question derives its importance from the steadily growing role of conciliation (an expression which we use, for convenience, to embrace reconciliation, mediation and conciliation) in resolving disputes of this kind and from the peculiar regard which the law has to the interests of children.
It is notorious that when marriages break down the victims include not only the spouses themselves but also, and particularly, their children, who are swept into the vortex of their parents’ embittered emotions at the cost of much unhappiness and, not infrequently, lasting psychological damage. It is also notorious that, when marriages break down and problems arise affecting the children, resolution of these problems through the ordinary processes of adversarial litigation often leads to exaggerated accusations and counter-accusations with, in consequence, an exacerbation of feelings and a heightening of tension. In the interests of the children there is everything to be gained and nothing lost if the parents can be induced, through the good offices of an intermediary, to compose their differences so as to achieve a working compromise which may be wholly welcome to neither parent but acceptable to each. This interest is shared by the public at large, which not only wishes to spare children unnecessary suffering but also to reduce the great burden of cost and delay which contested litigation of this kind necessarily imposes on an already overloaded legal system.
It is, however, plain that parents will not succeed in composing their differences or achieving a working compromise through the good offices of a third party unless they approach the process of conciliation in an open and unreserved manner, prepared to give as well as to take and to make admissions and conciliatory gestures with a view to reaching an accord. If the parties remain in their entrenched positions no armistice will be reached in no-man’s-land. But it is plain that the parties will not make admissions or conciliatory gestures, or dilute their claims, or venture out of their entrenched positions unless they can be confident that their concessions and admissions cannot be used as weapons against them if conciliation fails and full-blooded litigation follows. To be effective, any attempt at conciliation must be off the record. But it does not follow that this is a rule which permits of no exceptions at all, even where the safety of a child is at stake.
The facts
The parties to this appeal are the mother, who is the appellant, aged 35 and Russian, and the respondent father, who is English and ten years older. They met in Moscow in 1984, married in June 1985 and came to England in July 1986. Twins, a boy and a girl, were born to the mother in June 1988.
The marriage ran into difficulties. In the summer of 1990 there were wardship and non-molestation proceedings, which were settled on the father’s undertaking.
In July 1991 the mother started to consult Dr Craddock, a clinical psychologist, weekly. These consultations continued up to the time when, in March 1992, the mother petitioned for divorce, and after. On three occasions (22 May, 5 June and 19 June 1992) the mother and the father jointly attended meetings with Dr Craddock. These joint meetings lasted, in total, about five hours. It is now
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common ground between the parties that these joint meetings were held for the purposes of conciliation, Dr Craddock acting as conciliator. During the period of these joint meetings the father applied and the mother cross-applied for residence orders in relation to the children. After the third of the joint meetings, pleadings continued in the divorce suit and in the residence applications. In August 1992 the mother applied for ouster and non-molestation injunctions, but these proceedings were compromised. In September a district judge ordered that the children remain in the matrimonial home and that the parents each have care of them for half of the week, vacating during the other parent’s periods of care. The hearing of the application and cross-application for residence orders was fixed for 9 November 1992.
In her affidavits the mother deposed that the father had been guilty of physical violence and extreme verbal abuse. She described occasions on which the father had threatened to kill her and the children. She described him as dominating, intimidating, violent, bullying and aggressive and said she was terrified of him, as on occasion were the children. The father for his part challenged this picture. He had never (he deposed) been violent save on one minor occasion. He had been subjected to intolerable provocation. The mother had been subject to violent changes of mood. It was the mother who had been domineering, intimidating, violent and abusive. According to him, the mother had suffered from a drink problem, an allegation which she denied.
For the purposes of the residence hearing on 9 November 1992 the mother filed a statement by Dr Craddock dated 15 October 1992. This statement (which the court has not seen) was based on the three joint conciliation meetings in May and June 1992. The father objected to this statement as inadmissible, complaining that it disclosed (without his consent) what had passed on a privileged occasion. This issue could not be resolved by the court on 9 November for lack of time. It was eventually decided by Beryl Cooper QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court, on 4 January 1993. She ruled that the evidence should be excluded, giving her reasons in a substantial judgment. She gave the mother leave to appeal, and so the matter comes before this court.
The argument
In the course of a very clear argument for the mother, Mr Holman QC accepted that statements made in the course of conciliation are prima facie entitled to privilege unless both parties choose to waive it. But he argued that this privilege derives from the privilege accorded to communications made ‘without prejudice’ and it is subject to the same exceptions. Thus the privilege only protects communications made in the course of a bona fide attempt to negotiate and cannot be claimed by a party who makes no such bona fide attempt (see Cross on Evidence (7th edn, 1990) p 453; Rush & Tompkins Ltd v Greater London Council [1988] 3 All ER 737 at 740, [1989] AC 1280 at 1299 per Lord Griffiths). It does not exclude evidence of threats (Kitcat v Sharp (1882) 48 LT 64; Rush & Tompkins Ltd v Greater London Council [1988] 3 All ER 737 at 740, [1989] AC 1280 at 1300 per Lord Griffiths). And, even if an occasion is prima facie privileged, such privilege may exceptionally be pierced in the interests of the children concerned or where the public interest in preserving the confidentiality of such communications is outweighed by the public interest in disclosure. If the court were to read Dr Craddock’s statement, as Mr Holman invited it to do, it would be seen that the contents were admissible in the present circumstances.
Mr Francis for the father contended that, whatever its historical origin, the privilege which applies to communications made for the purposes of attempted conciliation is now an independent head of privilege. It is absolute and permits
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no exceptions (other than waiver by both parties). Alternatively, if, contrary to that first and primary submission, the rule is subject to any exceptions, evidence can be given only of (1) admissions made by a party that that party has committed a criminal offence against a child, or (2) statements calling for immediate action to prevent a child being abducted or wrongfully removed from the jurisdiction or subjected to commission of a serious criminal offence.
The law
A substantial and, to our knowledge, unquestioned line of authority establishes that where a third party (whether official or unofficial, professional or lay) receives information in confidence with a view to conciliation the courts will not compel him to disclose what was said without the parties’ agreement: McTaggart v McTaggart [1943] 2 All ER 754, [1949] P 94; Mole v Mole [1950] 2 All ER 328, [1951] P 21; Pool v Pool [1951] 2 All ER 563, [1951] P 470; Henley v Henley [1955] 1 All ER 590, [1955] P 202; Theodoropoulas v Theodoropoulas [1963] 2 All ER 772, [1964] P 311; Pais v Pais [1970] 2 All ER 491, [1971] P 119; D v National Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children [1976] 2 All ER 993 at 1000, [1977] 1 All ER 589 at 601–602, 610, [1978] AC 171 at 191, 226,236.
It is not, in our view, fruitful to debate the relationship of this privilege with the more familiar head of ‘without prejudice’ privilege. That its underlying rationale is similar, and that it developed by way of analogy with ‘without prejudice’ privilege, seems clear. But both Lord Hailsham and Lord Simon in D v National Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children [1977] 1 All ER 589 at 602, 610, [1978] AC 171 at 226, 236 regarded it as having developed into a new category of privilege based on the public interest in the stability of marriage. We respectfully agree, and we can see no reason why rules which have developed in relation to ‘without prejudice’ privilege should necessarily apply to the other. Thus we do not question the familiar rule that a party cannot prevent admission of a communication into evidence by marking it ‘without prejudice’ if it does not in truth contain any offer of or approach towards negotiation. But we do not accept that evidence can be given of statements made by one party at a meeting admittedly held for purposes of conciliation because, in the judgment of the other party or the conciliator, that party has shown no genuine willingness to compromise. Wherever an attempt to conciliate has failed, both parties are likely to attribute the failure to the intransigence of the other. To admit such an exception would reduce the privilege to a misleading shadow. Again, even if Kitcat v Sharp (1882) 48 LT 64 is authority for the proposition that a ‘without prejudice’ marking does not protect evidence of a threat as to what will happen if an offer is not accepted, it does not in our view follow that evidence can be given of threats, even credible threats, made by parties in the course of attempted conciliation. Where deep human emotions are engaged, as they often are in disputes concerning children, such threats are commonplace. To override the privilege in such an event would be to emasculate the privilege and so undermine the whole process of conciliation. To permit evidence to be given of a party’s statements of fact inconsistent with his or her open position would, in our judgment, have the same result: unless parties can speak freely and uninhibitedly, without worries about weakening their position in contested litigation if that becomes necessary, the conciliation will be doomed to fail.
Recent practice
The benefits of resolving disputes about children by conciliation wherever possible have been increasingly recognised in recent years by those professionally concerned in this field. In the last ten years or so schemes have been set up round
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the country both independent of (out-of-court conciliation) and connected with (in-court conciliation) local divorce court centres. One of the first was Bristol which has operated both schemes. Many other county courts, for example, in Newcastle, Birmingham, Mid-Glamorgan and Croydon, have set up court-based conciliation arrangements. In 1982 the Principal Registry of the Family Division at Somerset House set up a pilot scheme referred to in Practice Direction [1982] 3 All ER 988, [1982] 1 WLR 1420. The scheme originally applied only to custody and access cases arising out of matrimonial disputes. But it was extended to wardship and guardianship in 1984 by Practice Direction [1984] 3 All ER 800, [1984] 1 WLR 1326. Under the latest practice direction, Practice Direction [1992] 1 All ER 421, [1992] 1 WLR 147, reflecting the changes brought about by the Children Act 1989, in applications for residence or contact the district judge shall refer the application for conciliation. There has been within the Principal Registry a marked progression from the pilot scheme in 1982 to a mandatory referral in 1992 for conciliation of all contested residence and contact applications. In Practice Direction [1992] 1 All ER 421, [1992] 1 WLR 147 the discussions in the Principal Registry are stated to be privileged.
The concept of conciliation was defined and given approval by the Report of the Committee on One-Parent Families (Cmnd 5629 (1974)) (the Finer Report). The Report of the Inter-departmental Committee on Conciliation (1983) supported the concept of conciliation in disputes over children and recommended the establishment of a Conciliation Project Unit (CPU) to monitor the operation of a number of different types of in-court conciliation schemes. The CPU was initiated by the Lord Chancellor’s Department and based on Newcastle University. The CPU Report entitled The Costs and Effectiveness of Family Conciliation was published in March 1989. Its research indicated that conciliation, particularly of certain categories of dispute, generates important social benefits.
The increasing importance attached to conciliation is also reflected in the thinking of the Booth Committee and the Law Commission. The use of conciliation formed a significant part of the recommendations of the Report of the Matrimonial Causes Procedure Committee (1985) (the Booth Report). They proposed that conciliation should form a recognised part of the legal procedure and should be made available to parties to matrimonial litigation (paras 3.10–3.13).
The Law Commission Family Law: The Ground for Divorce (Law Com no 192 (1990)) considered various types of conciliation in paras 5.29–5.48 and made specific recommendations supporting voluntary conciliation with encouragement from the court in paras 7.24–7.28. The Law Commission recommended at paras 7.29 and 7.30 that there should be a statutory privilege conferred on statements made during conciliation procedures. Statements made during conciliation which indicate a risk of harm to a child should be privileged but not confidential.
The National Association of Probation Officers (NAPO) issued a policy document (see [1990] Fam Law 85). In it they supported voluntary contribution schemes and drew the distinction between their members acting as conciliators and as reporters to the court (see [1990] Fam Law 85 at 86). This followed Practice Direction [1986] 2 FLR 171, setting out a registrar’s direction that, where a court welfare officer has acted as a conciliator, if conciliation fails any report ordered by the court must be undertaken by another court welfare officer, thus preserving the privilege of the attempts at conciliation. NAPO set a limit on confidentiality in respect of suspicion of child abuse.
The National Family Conciliation Council, now renamed the National Association of Family Mediation and Conciliation Services, brings together 56 conciliation services under its umbrella. It issued a code of practice in 1986 which
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emphasised the importance of the meetings being without prejudice, with the reservation of reporting any matter relating to substantial danger to a child.
The practice of conciliation has grown and evolved in various ways over the last ten years, in court and out of court, voluntary or directed, and extends over many parts of the country. Resolution of disputes over children by parents locked in acrimony and controversy has gradually but perceptibly taken over from efforts to preserve the state of the marriage of the parents. Conciliation of parental or matrimonial disputes does not form part of the legal process but as a matter of practice is becoming an important and valuable tool in the procedures of many family courts. This underlines the great importance of the preservation of a cloak over all attempts at settlement of disputes over children. Non-disclosure of the contents of conciliation meetings or correspondence is a thread discernible throughout all in-court and out-of-court conciliation arrangements and proposals.
Conclusion
These practices and expressions of opinion cannot of course be regarded as authoritative statements of the law. But in this field as in others it is undesirable that the law should drift very far away from the best professional practice. The practice described above follows the law in recognising the general inviolability of the privilege protecting statements made in the course of conciliation. But it also recognises the special regard which the law has for the interests of children. In our judgment, the law is that evidence may not be given in proceedings under the Children Act 1989 of statements made by one or other of the parties in the course of meetings held or communications made for the purpose of conciliation save in the very unusual case where a statement is made clearly indicating that the maker has in the past caused or is likely in the future to cause serious harm to the well-being of a child.
We wish in closing to emphasise three points.
(1) Even in the rare case which falls within the narrow exception we have defined, the trial judge will still have to exercise a discretion whether or not to admit the evidence. He will admit it only if, in his judgment, the public interest in protecting the interests of the child outweighs the public interest in preserving the confidentiality of attempted conciliation.
(2) This judgment is concerned only with privilege properly so called, that is with a party’s right to prevent statements or documents being adduced in evidence in court. It has nothing to do with duties of confidence and does not seek to define the circumstances in which a duty of confidence may be superseded by other public interest considerations: cf W v Egdell [1990] 1 All ER 835, [1990] Ch 359.
(3) We have deliberately stated the law in terms appropriate to cover this case and no other. We have not thought it desirable to attempt any more general statement. If and when cases arise not covered by this ruling, they will have to be decided in the light of their own special circumstances.
We cannot indicate whether the appeal is allowed or dismissed until we know and if necessary decide, whether Dr Craddock’s disputed statement falls within the narrow exception to the general rule. We give no ruling on the issues raised by the father’s respondent’s notice, which have not been considered by the judge or argued before us.
The court then heard argument on whether Dr Craddock’s statement should be admitted in evidence.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. We have had the opportunity of considering this matter in the light of counsel’s submissions, for which we are grateful. In the
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result we are quite satisfied that the statement of Dr Craddock is not admissible in these proceedings. Having reached that conclusion, it seems to us undesirable to elaborate any reasons because we could scarcely do so without making an allusion to the contents of the statement, which would in all the circumstances be plainly undesirable.
The consequence is that the appeal is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Re Kumar (a bankrupt), ex parte Lewis v Kumar and another
[1993] 2 All ER 700
Categories: COMPANY; Insolvency
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): FERRIS J
Hearing Date(s): 8, 9, 12, 28 OCTOBER 1992
Insolvency – Transaction at undervalue – Transfer of matrimonial home to wife prior to divorce proceedings – Wife assuming sole liability for mortgage – Husband made bankrupt – Whether transfer of husband’s interest in matrimonial home to wife at undervalue – Whether wife’s assumption of sole liability for mortgage sufficient consideration – Whether consideration provided by wife significantly less than value of husband’s interest in matrimonial home – Insolvency Act 1986, s 339.
The husband and wife were joint tenants of the matrimonial home, which was worth about £140,000 and was mortgaged to a bank. On 11 June 1990 the husband executed a transfer of his interest in the matrimonial home to the wife. The bank consented to the transfer on condition that the mortgage was reduced to £30,000. The wife thereafter became the sole proprietor of the property and assumed sole liability for the mortgage. On 9 July an action brought against the husband by former clients for negligence was compromised and a consent order was made against him for payment of damages of £30,000 and costs by instalments or the immediate payment of £56,000 in default. On 24 July the wife presented a petition for divorce. On 20 December the husband’s solicitors in the negligence action entered a default judgment against him for non-payment of their costs of some £22,500 and on 31 December the former clients signed judgment for £56,000 and costs against him under the consent order, the terms of which he had been unable to satisfy. On 21 January 1991 a decree nisi was granted on the wife’s petition. On 25 March a bankruptcy petition was presented by the husband’s solicitors. On 19 April under a consent order made in the divorce proceedings the wife agreed to her claim for financial provision being dismissed in consideration of the husband’s transfer of his interest in the matrimonial home to her and his agreement to make periodical payments. On
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24 July a bankruptcy order was made against the husband. The trustee in bankruptcy applied to the court for an order under s 339a of the Insolvency Act 1986 reversing the transfer of the husband’s interest in the matrimonial home to the wife on 11 June 1990 on the ground that the transaction had been entered into at an undervalue and was void as against his creditors.
Held - The compromise of a claim to financial provision in matrimonial proceedings was capable of being consideration in money or money’s worth for the purposes of determining whether a transaction had been entered into at an undervalue for the purposes of s 339 of the 1986 Act. However, whether it was relevant consideration depended on the value of the claim for relief which was compromised. Since the husband’s interest in the matrimonial home had already been transferred to the wife by way of gift at the time of the consent order in the divorce proceedings and there was no evidence that the transfer had been executed in return for an agreement by the wife not to seek any further capital provision, as she must have been aware that he had no other assets out of which to make any further capital provision, the purported compromise of the wife’s claim to financial provision in the consent order did not amount to relevant consideration for the purposes of s 339. Furthermore, having regard to the difference in value between the equity of redemption and the amount of the mortgage, the wife’s assumption of sole liability for the mortgage on the matrimonial home was significantly less than the consideration provided by the husband and was not sufficient to prevent the transaction being at an undervalue. The trustee in bankruptcy’s application would therefore be granted (see p 710 d e h j, p 711 h j, p 714 a b, p 715 a b e f h j and p 717 f g, post).
Re Abbott (a bankrupt), ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v Abbott [1982] 3 All ER 181 applied.
Re Windle (a bankrupt), ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v Windle [1975] 3 All ER 987 considered.
Notes
For transactions at an undervalue, see 3(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 643, and for cases on avoidance of settlements, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 148–151, 13463-13486.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 339, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 974.
Cases referred to in judgment
Abbott (a bankrupt), Re, ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v Abbott [1982] 3 All ER 181, [1983] Ch 45, [1982] 3 WLR 86, DC.
Alliance Bank Ltd v Broom (1864) 2 Drew & Sm 289, 62 ER 631.
Fullerton v Provincial Bank of Ireland [1903] AC 309, HL.
Gorman (a bankrupt), Re, ex p the trustee of the bankrupt v The bankrupt [1990] 1 All ER 717, [1990] 1 WLR 616, DC.
Hyman v Hyman [1929] AC 601, [1929] All ER Rep 245, HL.
Pittortou (a bankrupt), Re, ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v The bankrupt [1985] 1 All ER 285, [1985] 1 WLR 58.
Smallman v Smallman [1971] 3 All ER 717, [1972] Fam 25, [1975] 3 WLR 588, CA.
Windle (a bankrupt), Re, ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v Windle [1975] 3 All ER 987, [1975] 1 WLR 1628.
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Cases also cited
Debtor, Re a (No 24 of 1971), ex p Marley v Trustee of the property of the debtor [1976] 2 All ER 1010, [1976] 1 WLR 952, DC.
Harman v Glencross [1986] 1 All ER 545, [1986] Fam 81, CA.
MC Bacon Ltd, Re [1990] BCLC 324.
Pope, Re, ex p Dicksee [1908] 2 KB 169, CA.
Thomas v Thomas (1972) 117 SJ 88, CA.
Application
Barry David Lewis, the trustee in bankruptcy of the first respondent, Kulbhushan Kumar, applied, inter alia, for an order under s 339 of the Insolvency Act 1986 to set aside a transfer made by Mr Kumar on 11 June 1990, by which he transferred to the second respondent, Dr Vijay Lakshmi Gupta, his wife, his entire interest in their matrimonial home, 43 Broadwalk, South Woodford, London E18. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Marcia Shekerdemian (instructed by Isadore Goldman) for the trustee.
The first respondent appeared in person.
Thomas Lowe (instructed by S S Bookatz & Co, Ilford) for Dr Gupta.
Cur adv vult
28 October 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
FERRIS J. On this application, Mr Barry David Lewis, the trustee in bankruptcy of the first respondent, Kulbhushan Kumar, seeks to set aside a transfer made by Mr Kumar on 11 June 1990. By that transfer Mr Kumar transferred to his wife, the second respondent, Dr Vijay Lakshmi Gupta, his entire interest in their matrimonial home, a dwelling house known as 43 Broadwalk, South Woodford, London E18.
Since the date of the transfer Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta have been divorced. During their marriage Mr Kumar was sometimes known as Mr Gupta, but I shall refer to him throughout as Mr Kumar.
Mr Kumar is an architect. At all material times he has been employed by the Home Office as an architect in the prison service. He has also carried on a private practice as an architectural consultant and designer under the name Kumar Associates or, since April 1987 or thereabouts, through a company named K Kumar Ltd of which he and Dr Gupta were the only shareholders and directors until January 1991 when Dr Gupta resigned her directorship.
Dr Gupta is a medical practitioner. At all material times she has been employed in the national health service. Her earnings have always been greater than Mr Kumar’s. At the present time her gross salary appears to be about £24,000 pa, as against about £15,000 pa for Mr Kumar. The ratio between the two salaries appears to have been about the same in earlier years. Mr Kumar has also had some income from his private practice. There was no evidence about the profits, if any, of Kumar Associates. The accounts of the company for the year to 5 April 1988 show directors’ remuneration of £2,000 for Mr Kumar and £750 for Dr Gupta rising to £2,220 and £960 respectively in the year ended 5 April 1990 and staying at the same level for the following year (when Dr Gupta received only a proportion of the full year’s remuneration having regard to her resignation in January 1991). The company made a small profit in two of the four years for which I have seen accounts and made a loss in the other years. As at 5 April 1991 there was an accumulated deficit on profit and loss account of some £2,838. It does not seem,
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therefore, that his private practice provided Mr Kumar with any substantial income.
Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta were married in 1967. They have two children, namely a daughter, Seema, who was born in 1970 or 1971 and was married in December 1990, and a son, Sameer, who was born on 17 December 1972. During their marriage Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta lived successively in various houses which they purchased with the assistance of mortgages. Their last house was 43 Broadwalk, in respect of which this application is made.
No 43 Broadwalk was purchased by Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta in 1983 for £75,000. The transfer in their favour is dated 20 September 1983. It contains a declaration that the survivor of them could give a valid receipt for capital money arising on a disposition. When the transfer was registered the solicitors acting for them informed the Land Registry that they were entitled as beneficial joint tenants. No such restriction as is mentioned in s 58(3) of the Land Registration Act 1925 was entered on the register. Having regard to Re Gorman (a bankrupt), ex p the trustee of the bankrupt v The bankrupt [1990] 1 All ER 717, [1990] 1 WLR 616 these facts constitute conclusive evidence that Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta were indeed beneficial joint tenants. The contrary was not suggested before me.
Immediately after the purchase 43 Broadwalk was subject to a first charge in favour of the Halifax Building Society and a second charge in favour of Norwich Union Life Assurance Co. Both these charges were discharged in 1988 when a new charge, dated 19 February 1988, was executed in favour of Westpac Banking Corp. The amount borrowed from Westpac on the security of this charge was £133,000 of which £66,000 was required to redeem the charges in favour of the Halifax and Norwich Union leaving £67,000 (subject to costs) available for other purposes. I will indicate later how it appears that the greater part of this sum was spent.
In the mortgage application made to Westpac the value of 43 Broadwalk was stated to be £200,000. I do not know whether this was a realistic value for the property in 1988. There was no proper valuation evidence before me, but it was suggested that the current value of 43 Broadwalk is now much less than £200,000, being perhaps of the order of £140,000.
Apart from their successive homes, Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta have also owned other properties. On 15 November 1984 they purchased a freehold property known as 34 Nutfield Road, Leyton, for £29,900. This property was transferred to them jointly. The transfer contained a declaration that the survivor of them could give a valid receipt for capital money, thus indicating conclusively that they were beneficial joint tenants. On 1 May 1990 Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta transferred 34 Nutfield Road by way of gift to their daughter Seema. However, some two weeks after this gift the property was sold to a purchaser named Julie Holdings Ltd for £62,400. The purchase price was received by Messrs Suriya & Douglas, the solicitors for Dr Gupta, who accounted for it to Dr Gupta in a manner which I shall explain later.
On 31 July 1986 Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta purchased another freehold property, known as 19 Sedgwick Road, Leyton, for £42,000. The transfer of this property to them contains no declaration as to the right of the survivor to give a receipt for capital money so it may be that they were beneficial tenants in common. This property was immediately mortgaged to Abbey National Building Society, presumably to secure a loan used for the purchase. On 18 November 1988 Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta transferred 19 Sedgwick Road to Dr Gupta alone. Solicitors acting for them indorsed on the transfer a certificate to the effect that the instrument operated as a voluntary disposition inter vivos for no consideration. The intention seems to have been that Mr Kumar should give his beneficial
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interest in the property to Dr Gupta, the legal estate being vested in Dr Gupta alone. Clearly the transfer achieved the latter purpose and I assume that it also achieved the former purpose as well. The Abbey National Building Society joined in the transfer to Dr Gupta so as to release Mr Kumar from the personal covenants on his part contained in the mortgage. On 11 May 1990 Dr Gupta sold 19 Sedgwick Road to Julie Holdings Ltd for £63,300. Out of this sum £43,202.59 was paid to the Abbey National in order to discharge the mortgage.
A third freehold property, 38 Sedgwick Road, was purchased by Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta for £64,000 on 19 February 1988. This was the same date as the charge of 43 Broadwalk in favour of Westpac and, although there was no evidence before me about it, the inevitable inference is that most of the money borrowed from Westpac which was not required to discharge the previous mortgages on 43 Broadwalk was used to finance the purchase of 38 Sedgwick Road. The transfer to Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta contained a declaration that the survivor of them could give a receipt for capital money, thus indicating that they were beneficial joint tenants. This was, of course, wholly appropriate if, as I infer, the purchase money had been raised on the mortgage of other property, namely 43 Broadwalk, to which they were entitled as beneficial joint tenants.
However, on the very same day as the property was transferred to them as joint purchasers, namely 19 February 1988, Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta executed another transfer by which 38 Sedgwick Road was transferred to Dr Gupta alone. The solicitors acting for them gave a certificate to the same effect as that subsequently given in respect of 19 Sedgwick Road, as I have already mentioned. I infer that the intentions of the parties were the same in relation to 19 Sedgwick Road. I treat the transfer as being effective to implement these intentions. In other words I treat Mr Kumar as giving to Dr Gupta his entire beneficial interest in the property as well as transferring the legal estate into her sole name. On 11 May 1990 Dr Gupta sold 38 Sedgwick Road to Julie Holdings Ltd for £63,300.
There were thus three sales to Julie Holdings Ltd on 11 May 1990. Two of them, namely the sales of 19 and 38 Sedgwick Road, were by Dr Gupta for a gross consideration of £126,600 of which £43,212.59 was applied in satisfaction of the Abbey National charge leaving a balance (subject, no doubt, to the expenses of sale) of some £83,387.41. The third sale, that of 34 Nutfield Road, was made by Seema and, on the face of it, the entire proceeds of sale amounting to £62,400 subject to legal costs were payable to Seema. What happened, however, was that the whole of the proceeds of all three sales was received by Messrs Suriya & Douglas, the solicitors acting in the sales, and credited to a client account in the name of Dr Gupta. Out of this account sums of £82,657.16 and £23,969.29 (making a total of £106,626.45) were paid to Westpac on 11 and 17 May 1990 respectively. A further sum of £87,813.21 was paid to Dr Gupta on 17 May 1990. The balance of the gross proceeds of sale, amounting to no more than a few hundred pounds, was applied in payment of various fees and expenses.
Between 19 February 1988, the date of the charge of 43 Broadwalk in favour of Westpac, and March 1990, the amounts due to Westpac under the charge, being variable monthly sums in respect of interest only, were paid by direct debit out of an account in the name of Mr Kumar at Lloyds Bank, Victoria Street Branch, London. In his first affidavit in these proceedings Mr Kumar claimed that between 1987 and 1990 he made the payments for the mortgage ‘by virtue of extra income from private work’. But in a later affidavit he said that the mortgage payments were out of the rental received from the properties, meaning, it appears, the Nutfield Road and Sedgwick Road houses. In cross-examination Mr Kumar adhered to the latter explanation and said that the Lloyds Bank account, out of
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which the payments were made, was what he described as a ‘cash flow account’ which received the income from the properties, not his personal income. This seems to be correct, although the fact Mr Kumar had said something quite different at an earlier stage constituted, in my mind, an indication of how unreliable Mr Kumar’s evidence could be.
There are two further matters which need to be stated in relation to the Westpac mortgage. First, Westpac itself was entitled to receive only interest on the £133,000 advanced. The repayment of capital was provided for by one or more endowment policies charged as collateral security to Westpac. This policy (or policies, if there were more than one) was kept up by either or both Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta. But there was no satisfactory evidence before me as to the source of the funds used for this purpose. Secondly, it appears that early in November 1988 Mr Kumar sought, through solicitors, the consent of Westpac to the transfer of 43 Broadwalk into the sole name of Dr Gupta. This was refused by Westpac on the ground that Dr Gupta alone would not meet their lending criteria for a loan of £133,000.
In March or early April 1990 Westpac attempted to debit £1,745.62 in respect of the March interest to Mr Kumar’s Lloyds Bank account. But this debit was refused by the bank because there were insufficient funds in the account. When Westpac took the matter up it was informed by Suriya & Douglas early in May 1990 that redemption of the mortgage on 18 May was anticipated. Westpac then quoted a figure for redemption on that date of £135,858.38. In the event the mortgage was not completely redeemed. Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta decided to reduce the loan to £30,000. Westpac accepted this and also agreed in a letter of 14 May 1990 to the transfer of 43 Broadwalk into the sole name of Dr Gupta subject to the mortgage securing the reduced sum. As I have already mentioned the total sum of £106,626.45 was paid to Westpac shortly afterwards. Taking into account the interest payable in respect of the month of April, this reduced the principal sum due to Westpac to exactly £30,000.
After this reduction Suriya & Douglas put in hand the preparation of the instrument necessary to put 43 Broadwalk into the sole name of Dr Gupta. There was a little delay in carrying this out because Westpac was a necessary party. A transfer was, however, in due course executed by Mr Kumar, Dr Gupta and the authorised attorney of Westpac. This is the transfer dated 11 June 1990 with which this application is concerned. By cl 1 Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta as transferors were expressed to transfer 43 Broadwalk to Dr Gupta alone, the transfer being expressed to be in consideration of natural love and affection. By cl 2 Dr Gupta acknowledged that the covenants on her part contained in the Westpac mortgage remained on foot. By cl 3 Westpac released Mr Kumar from the covenants on his part contained in the Westpac mortgage. Suriya & Douglas endorsed the conveyance with a certificate to the effect that the transfer operated by way of a voluntary disposition inter vivos for no consideration. Dr Gupta was in due course on 18 June 1990 registered at the Land Registry as sole proprietor of 43 Broadwalk.
I now turn to another matter. As I have said, Mr Kumar carries on a private practice as an architectural consultant and designer in addition to his employment. In his private capacity in 1986 he carried out some design work in respect of alterations to a property in East London owned by members of a family named Patel. The alterations began in June 1987 and were carried out by a firm of builders named Cobine Builders. Unfortunately in July 1987, while the works were being carried out, a substantial part of the property collapsed. The Patels blamed Mr Kumar and the builders and in 1988 they commenced an action as
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official referees’ business in the Queen’s Bench Division alleging negligence on the part of Mr Kumar. From August 1989 onwards Mr Kumar was represented in that action by a firm of solicitors named Messrs Gulbenkian Harris Andonian, the partner concerned on his behalf being Mr Bernard Andonian. The action was quite vigorously defended on behalf of Mr Kumar who blamed the builders, or the Patels themselves, for what had occurred.
Mr Andonian has sworn an affidavit in these proceedings to which he has exhibited what must represent a substantial part of his file in relation to the action. From this file it appears that until the beginning of July 1990, when the trial of the action began, Mr Andonian and counsel instructed on behalf of Mr Kumar considered that Mr Kumar had a well arguable defence. In particular they considered that, on the expert’s reports produced on behalf of the plaintiffs, the Patels would be unable to prove causation in respect of their claim against Mr Kumar. Nevertheless Mr Andonian, quite understandably and rightly, warned Mr Kumar on a number of occasions of the risks inherent in all litigation and of the serious consequences which would follow if judgment went against him. He suggested making an attempt to compromise or making a payment into court, but Mr Kumar seems to have rejected both these courses. On the evidence before me it seems quite clear that to this day Mr Kumar considers that he was under no liability to the Patels.
The trial of the Patels’ action commenced before an official referee on 2 July 1990. On or about that date a further expert’s report was produced on behalf of the Patels. The admission in evidence of this report was resisted on behalf of Mr Kumar, but the official referee decided to admit it and an immediate appeal to the Court of Appeal against this decision was unsuccessful. It seems that this new report transformed the view of the case taken by Mr Andonian and counsel instructed on behalf of Mr Kumar. They came to the conclusion that Mr Kumar would lose the action. On behalf of Mr Kumar, and, as they understood with his consent and approval, they negotiated a compromise which was recorded in agreed terms signed on 9 July 1990 and subsequently embodied in a consent order dated 16 July 1990. Under these agreed terms Mr Kumar was to pay to the Patels the total sum of £30,000 to be paid as to £5,000 on or before 9 October 1990, as to £15,000 on or before 9 January 1991, and as to the balance by monthly sums of £2,000 on the first day of each month commencing on 1 February 1991. If Mr Kumar defaulted in any payment for more than 14 days the Patels were to be at liberty to enter judgment against him in the sum of £56,000. Mr Kumar also submitted to an order for payment of the Patels’ costs. The builders did not appear at the trial. It seems that proceedings against them had been discontinued.
Before the trial began Mr Andonian wrote a number of letters to Mr Kumar about his own costs. Mr Kumar has paid some of the interim accounts submitted by Mr Andonian’s firm, but he had left others of them unpaid. After first raising the matter in a more general way Mr Andonian asked, early in June 1990, to be put in funds to the extent of £20,000 to cover the trial. Clearly, Mr Kumar was not in a position to pay this sum at that time, but on 13 June or thereabouts he agreed to let Mr Andonian have post-dated cheques for a total sum of £20,000. These cheques were not met when presented for payment and on 22 October 1990 Mr Andonian’s firm took proceedings against Mr Kumar. On 20 December 1990 they obtained a default judgment against Mr Kumar for a total sum including fixed costs of about £22,500 and on 18 January 1991 they served on Mr Kumar a statutory demand based upon that judgment. The statutory demand was not satisfied and on 25 March 1991 a bankruptcy petition was presented in the High Court. A bankruptcy order was made on this petition on 24 July 1991
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and Mr Kumar’s appeal against that order was dismissed when it came before me on 10 December 1991. Prior to that, on 30 September 1991 the applicant, Barry David Lewis, had been appointed trustee of Mr Kumar’s property for the purposes of the bankruptcy.
Apart from failing to meet the post-dated cheques which he had given to his own solicitors, Mr Kumar also failed to pay any of the sums which he had agreed to pay to the Patels. On 31 December 1990, in accordance with the consent order, the Patels signed judgment against him for £56,000 and costs. That judgment remains unsatisfied. According to a statement of affairs as at 24 July 1991 Mr Kumar had debts of some £82,000 and assets which were expected to realise only £500. The debts included some £56,000 due to the Patels, a little under £24,000 due to Gulbenkian Harris Andonian and about £7,500 due to Lloyd’s Bank. It is not suggested that Mr Kumar had any assets beyond those disclosed in the statement of affairs after he had transferred his interest in 43 Broadwalk to Dr Gupta in June 1990. His estate is thus insolvent to the extent of more than £80,000 ignoring costs and fees payable in the bankruptcy.
After getting judgment against Mr Kumar, the Patels obtained a charging order against 43 Broadwalk but they then discovered the transfer dated 11 June 1990 in favour of Dr Gupta. On 7 May 1991, at which date Mr Kumar had not become bankrupt, the Patels issued an originating summons in the Chancery Division claiming to avoid that transfer under s 423 of the Insolvency Act 1986 as being a transaction at an undervalue made by Mr Kumar with the intention of putting an asset of his beyond the reach of the Patels.
After Mr Kumar’s bankruptcy the proceedings were taken over by Mr Lewis as his trustee. They were reconstituted as an originating application made in the bankruptcy. In addition to seeking the relief originally sought by the Patels under s 423, Mr Lewis seeks alternative relief under s 339 (relating to transactions at an undervalue, but in contrast to s 423 requiring no proof of any particular purpose on the part of Mr Kumar) or s 340 (relating to preferences). In the event, the matter has been argued before me exclusively under s 339. Section 340 does not assist the trustee because no one suggests that Dr Gupta was one of Mr Kumar’s creditors or otherwise within s 340(3). Section 423 does not represent a useful alternative to s 339 so far as the trustee is concerned because in order to come within s 423 the trustee would have to establish not only all the elements necessary to success under s 339, but also that Mr Kumar’s purpose was that described in s 423(3).
Some of the facts which I have already set out have come to light only in the course of the proceedings. I must now deal with some other facts which have also come to light since the proceedings were commenced. Immediately after 43 Broadwalk had been transferred into her own name, Dr Gupta applied to Westpac for a further advance of £100,000 on the security of that property. On 18 June 1990 Westpac offered to advance an additional £70,000 and this offer was accepted. In connection with this further advance Dr Gupta signed a declaration that no person other than Mr Kumar resided at the property, and Mr Kumar acknowledged that any rights of his in 43 Broadwalk were postponed to the rights of Westpac under its charge. Dr Gupta effected a policy of insurance on her own life which was assigned to Westpac as further security. The £70,000 appears to have been advanced to Dr Gupta on or about 26 June 1990.
It seems that until about July 1990, or perhaps even later than that, parties having only business dealings with Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta assumed that they were still living together as man and wife. However, in April 1990 Dr Gupta had consulted a firm of solicitors, Messrs Bookatz & Co of Ilford, about divorcing Mr
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Kumar. Both Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta say that their marriage had broken down at the latest by some time in 1988. This was confirmed by the evidence of certain third parties who have given evidence in these proceedings and I accept it. It is clear that during 1990 Mr Kumar was frequently at 43 Broadwalk where Mr Andonian wrote to and telephoned him, but this was because 43 Broadwalk was the registered office of his company and he continued to work in his study or office there. It is also true that Dr Gupta was supportive of Mr Kumar during his litigation with the Patels. She attended various conferences with counsel and was present in court on at least some days of the trial. I find that she did this for the reason which she gives in her evidence, namely to provide support, and not because there had in fact been no breakdown of the marriage.
In July 1990 Dr Gupta went back to Bookatz & Co and instructed them to present a divorce petition on her behalf. A petition was in fact presented in the Ilford County Court on 24 July 1990. It alleged that the marriage had broken down irretrievably and that Mr Kumar had behaved in such a way that Dr Gupta could not reasonably be expected to live with him. Particulars of such conduct were given going back in some cases to 1986 or 1987. Dr Gupta sought the dissolution of the marriage, custody of her son Sameer (then aged about 17½) and the usual ancillary relief including a property adjustment order. On some date in August 1990 Mr Kumar sent to the court an acknowledgment of service in which he stated that he did not intend to defend the petition.
A decree nisi was pronounced upon Dr Gupta’s petition on 21 January 1991. On 25 February in that year Dr Gupta visited her solicitors again. It seems that it was on this occasion that she instructed them to deal with the question of maintenance and property adjustment. At all events, on 4 March 1991 Bookatz & Co wrote to her with a form of consent order. In their covering letter Bookatz & Co said:
‘We do wish to point out that we have not been into your finances in detail nor have you agreed to allow us to investigate Mr Gupta’s [that is to say Mr Kumar’s] finances in any detail and consequently we regret that we cannot say totally that this is the best order for you.’
Dr Gupta signed the consent order and early in April 1991 Mr Kumar did so too. In returning the copies of the order signed by them respectively, Dr Gupta and Mr Kumar both asked Bookatz & Co to treat the matter as urgent. They did not give any particular reason for urgency. However, the statutory demand had been served on Mr Kumar on 18 January and the bankruptcy petition had been served on 25 March. Moreover Mr Andonian, whose firm initiated these actions on its own behalf, had written to Mr Kumar on 16 July 1990, shortly after he had learned of the transfer of 43 Broadwalk, saying that the immediate implication which a trustee in bankruptcy would make from the fact that the transfer was made shortly before the trial was that Mr Kumar had made the transfer with a view to defrauding the Patels if he lost the case. It may be, therefore, that in April 1991 Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta thought that their position would be improved if a court order dealing with maintenance and property was obtained. Whether they did in fact think this appears, however, to be of little importance.
On 19 April 1991 the Ilford County Court made an order in the terms proposed. So far as material this order reads as follows:
‘Upon reading a consent order duly signed by both parties in consideration of a transfer by the respondent to the petitioner of all his legal and equitable estate and interest in the property known as 43 Broadwalk, South Woodford, E18 as the same is registered with title absolute at HM Land Registry under
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title number EGL135096 which transfer was perfected on 18 June 1990, by consent it is ordered that with effect from decree absolute herein: (1) The respondent do pay to the petitioner periodical payments at the rate of £600 per month payable monthly, the first payment to be on 1 August 1990. (2) That all other claims of the petitioner under s 23 and s 24 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973, the Married Women’s Property Act 1882 and any other relevant statutory provision be dismissed. (3) Neither party shall be entitled on the death of the other to apply for an order under s 2 of the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975, the court deeming it just so to order. (4) There be no order for costs.’
After this there was some delay in making the decree absolute but the delay appears to be of no significance. By the time the decree was made absolute the bankruptcy order had been made. Mr Kumar has never paid anything in respect of the agreed order for periodic payments of £600 per month. Even allowing for the fact that he would presumably be able to make those payments out of his gross income before tax, it is difficult to see how he could have met them, amounting as they do to about half his gross salary.
I must now say something about the way in which the sum of £37,813.21 paid to Dr Gupta out of the proceeds of the sale of the Nutfield Road and Sedgwick Road properties and the further sum of £70,000 borrowed from Westpac in June 1990 were expended. The affidavits of the parties are silent about this. Indeed the information about the Nutfield Road and Sedgwick Road properties appears to have reached the trustee only shortly before the trial.
I will not set out in any detail the explanations which were given by Dr Gupta in the witness box. Like the rest of Dr Gupta’s oral evidence they were confused and unparticularised. The substance of them was that about £20,000 had been given by Dr Gupta to a brother who had to undergo heart surgery in America. About £5,000 was spent by her on a new car. The rest, according to Dr Gupta was spent in one way or another on Seema, or in connection with Seema’s marriage which took place in December 1990. It appears that there was a considerable amount of entertainment to be done. A dowry also had to be provided, and as I understand it, some provision was made to assist Seema or her husband to buy a home in India. But Dr Gupta’s evidence about all this was imprecise. No documentary evidence of any kind was produced.
As I have already indicated, on this application the initial relief sought by the trustee is an order under s 339 of the Insolvency Act which in substance reverses the transfer of 11 June 1990 by which Mr Kumar’s interest in 43 Broadwalk was transferred to Dr Gupta. Section 339 of the Insolvency Act 1986 provides as follows:
‘(1) Subject as follows in this section and sections 341 and 342, where an individual is adjudged bankrupt and he has at a relevant time (defined in section 341) entered into a transaction with any person at an undervalue, the trustee of the bankrupt’s estate may apply to the court for an order under this section.
(2) The court shall, on such an application, make such order as it thinks fit for restoring the position to what it would have been if that individual had not entered into that transaction.
(3) For the purposes of this section and sections 341 and 342, an individual enters into a transaction with a person at an undervalue if—(a) he makes a gift to that person or he otherwise enters into a transaction with that person on terms that provide for him to receive no consideration, (b) he enters into a transaction with that person in consideration of marriage, or (c) he enters
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into a transaction with that person for a consideration the value of which, in money or money’s worth, is significantly less than the value, in money or money’s worth, of the consideration provided by the individual.’
By s 341(1)(a) a transaction at an undervalue is entered into at a relevant time if it is entered into at a time in the period of five years ending with the day of the presentation of the bankruptcy petition. In the present case the five-year period expired on 25 March 1991 and the transfer dated 11 June 1990 is squarely within it. Section 342 deals with certain ancillary matters and is not relevant at this stage.
The issue in this case is whether Mr Kumar entered into a transaction with Dr Gupta at an undervalue within one or more of the paragraphs of s 339(3). Clearly para (b) (relating to a transaction in consideration of marriage) has no application. The case for the trustee is that the transfer to Dr Gupta was either a gift within para (a) or a transaction for a consideration whose value was significantly less than the value in money or moneys worth of the consideration provided by Dr Gupta, in which case it was within para (c).
I was at first minded to take the view that the case could not come within para (a) because Dr Gupta had, under the terms of the transfer of 11 June 1990, accepted exclusive liability under the Westpac mortgage in exoneration of Mr Kumar. In the absence of authority I would have thought that this was capable of being consideration in money or money’s worth, so preventing the transaction from being a gift within para (a), although for the purposes of para (c) there would remain a question whether the value of such consideration was significantly less than the value of the consideration provided by Mr Kumar.
Since the conclusion of argument, however, I have read the report of Re Windle (a bankrupt), ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v Windle [1975] 3 All ER 987, [1975] 1 WLR 1628, which was not cited to me, although it is referred to in Re Abbott (a bankrupt), ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v Abbott [1982] 3 All ER 181, [1983] Ch 45, to which I was referred. As I understand the reasoning of Goff J in Re Windle [1975] 3 All ER 987 at 995-996, [1975] 1 WLR 1628 at 1636-1639, he held that, where there is an equity of redemption of significant value (as there was in that case and there clearly was in this case) a mere covenant of indemnity against liability under the mortgage could not be regarded as valuable consideration for the purposes of s 42 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914. Accordingly, in Re Windle itself, where an agreement to give indemnity was the only suggested consideration, the transaction was set aside under s 42. If the same reasoning is applied to s 339 it may lead to the conclusion that the assumption of sole liability under a subsisting mortgage does not, where the security by way of charge is more than adequate, prevent a transfer of a beneficial interest in the equity of redemption being a gift within para (a). But s 42 contained no provision for comparing the respective values of the consideration moving in each direction of the kind which is now involved in the application of para (c). It is arguable, therefore, that the reasoning in Re Windle no longer compels the conclusion that there is no relevant consideration at all in a case where one party indemnifies the other against liability under a mortgage.
In the present case the equity of redemption clearly had a substantial value in June 1990, although the parties are not agreed as to precisely what that value was. It was, I think, not disputed by Mr Lowe on behalf of Dr Gupta that even if her assumption of sole liability under the mortgage constitutes relevant consideration, so leading to a need to evaluate the case under para (c), it would not by itself be enough to prevent there being a significant difference in value for the purposes of para (c). In so far as this was not accepted, I hold it to be the case.
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In these circumstances there would have been no purpose in restoring the case for further argument as to the effect of Re Windle. The substantive question on any view as to the effect of that authority is whether or not there was consideration provided by Dr Gupta other than her assumption of sole liability under the mortgage which substantially matches in value the consideration by Mr Kumar or, to put the matter in terms which are closer to the words in para (c), reduces to insignificance any disparity in value which otherwise exists.
The other consideration which, it was submitted on behalf of Dr Gupta, was provided by her was twofold, namely (1) a release from claims which she might have under ss 23 and 24 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973, or alternatively from claims for capital provision under those sections, and (2) the assumption by Dr Gupta of responsibility for the two children of the marriage by providing a parental home and making provision for the daughter, Seema.
The release which constitutes the first of these two heads requires to be of a somewhat technical kind if it is to be effective. Under s 34 of the 1973 Act a provision in a maintenance agreement which restricts any right to apply to a court for an order containing financial arrangements is void. ‘Financial arrangements’ clearly includes matters which could be the subject of any order under s 23 or s 24 is void. A void release cannot be consideration in money or money’s worth for the purposes of s 339 of the 1986 Act. ‘Maintenance agreement’ is defined in s 34 of the 1973 Act as any agreement in writing which does certain things. It is not suggested that there was any agreement in writing between Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta, but a restriction of the kind mentioned in s 34 which is contained in an oral agreement, cannot, in my view, have any greater validity than a similar restriction contained in a written agreement. Apart from other possible arguments it would, it appears to me, be void on grounds of public policy (see, for example Hyman v Hyman [1929] AC 601, [1929] All ER Rep 245).
Mr Lowe, on behalf of Dr Gupta, was therefore constrained to formulate the release on her part as an agreement in due course to seek an order of the kind which was eventually made by consent on 19 April 1991. If it be said that there was no agreement before April 1991 concerning the £600 per month maintenance provided for by that order, Mr Lowe contended that there was nevertheless an agreement that in respect of capital provision Dr Gupta would, subject to the approval of the court, seek no order. Mr Lowe referred me to a number of authorities including Smallman v Smallman [1971] 3 All ER 717, [1972] Fam 25 in which an agreement of this kind had been held to be effective.
In Re Abbott (a bankrupt) [1982] 3 All ER 181, [1983] Ch 45 it was held that the trustee in bankruptcy of a husband was not entitled to set aside under s 42 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914 a disposition made by way of compromise made before the husband’s bankruptcy of the wife’s claim for a property adjustment order under s 24 of the 1973 Act. This compromise had been embodied in a consent order and had been duly carried into effect. The ground of the decision was that the wife was, in the circumstances, a purchaser in good faith (about which there was no issue) and for valuable consideration. In my judgment, Re Abbott, although it is a decision on s 42 of the 1914 Act, is applicable to s 339 to the extent that it decides that a compromise of a claim to a provision in matrimonial proceedings is capable of being consideration in money or money’s worth.
There remains, however, the question of the value of such consideration. That question arises under s 339(3)(c) but it did not arise under s 42. Moreover, before that question is reached there is, in the present case, the earlier question whether on the facts, consideration of either of the kinds defined by Mr Lowe was provided by Dr Gupta.
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I therefore turn to the evidence which bears upon this earlier question. Much of the affidavit evidence filed on behalf of Dr Gupta and Mr Kumar is directed to rebutting the suggestion made or implicit in the evidence filed while the proceedings were being conducted on behalf of the Patels that any separation between them was a sham. As I have indicated, I accept that serious differences between Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta had existed since before 1988 and that in about the middle of 1988 they ceased to live together as man and wife, although as I have mentioned, Mr Kumar still visited 43 Broadwalk, mainly for business purposes, and sometimes slept in his study there, particularly during the period preceding the trial of the Patels’ action. The more important issue, however, is what, if anything, was agreed in relation to 43 Broadwalk and Dr Gupta’s claim for ancillary relief before the transfer of 11 June 1990.
As to this Dr Gupta said in her first affidavit:
‘It was never in doubt and agreed from the time of separation that I would retain the matrimonial home. I am sure that Indian culture is not unique in placing a moral burden on a husband to ensure the well-being of the wife and children he leaves behind. We had been married since 1967.’
Later on she said that before the transfer of 43 Broadwalk she sought legal advice as to the consequences of dissolving the marriage and that she was advised and believed that she had a good and valid claim for ancillary relief. She then referred to her state of health and to the possibility that she might have to take early retirement which led to a desire on her part to obtain what she described as ‘monetary protection’ as well as the transfer of 43 Broadwalk. She referred to her initial consultation with Mr Bookatz on 3 April 1990 and she then stated:
‘It was in recognition of the inevitable consequences of divorce that my ex-husband transferred the legal title in the property into my name prior to the issue of proceedings. We did agree on the amount of maintenance and ancillary relief, proceedings were not commenced. Finally, terms were agreed and embodied in an order approved by the Ilford County Court on 19 April 1991. If the financial negotiations between my husband and I had not been genuine it would hardly have been necessary to include a provision for maintenance. Indeed, an order would have been obtained much earlier had it not been necessary to reach agreement.’
This last sentence seems to suggest that a concluded agreement was only reached shortly before the date of the consent order and after the transfer of 43 Broadwalk. Moreover there is nothing in Dr Gupta’s affidavit to suggest that there was any agreement on her part to accept the transfer of 43 Broadwalk in satisfaction of her claim for capital provision either by way of a lump sum under s 23 or by way of a property adjustment order under s 24 of the 1973 Act.
Dr Gupta made no reference to the dealings in relation to the Nutfield and Sedgwick Road houses, which were then unknown to the trustee. Accordingly, there is no suggestion in her evidence that these dealings had any connection with the financial provision made on divorce.
Dr Gupta referred in her affidavit to her own interest in 43 Broadwalk and to her payments in respect of outgoings and said that she was advised and believed that even if the consent order had not been made she would have had a strong claim to retain the whole of 43 Broadwalk. The concluding passage of her affidavit is in the following terms:
‘I would respectfully submit that such interest as [Mr Kumar] might have had in 43 Broadwalk was not disposed of at an undervalue but in satisfaction
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of a valid claim. I believe that I was rightfully entitled to the whole of the property from the day that [Mr Kumar] left me. For these reasons I would respectfully invite the honourable court to dismiss the plaintiff’s application.’
Under cross-examination Dr Gupta was, as I have already indicated, an unimpressive witness. She seemed to have little knowledge or recollection of any matters of detail and she corrected one statement at the end of para 11 of her affidavit, relating to contributions to mortgage payments between 1973 and 1986, with the unsatisfactory explanation that she did not have time to read what was said in the affidavit. This leaves me with little or no faith in her evidence. For what it is worth, however, she did say in the witness box that a long time ago, when she and her husband were having difficulties, he told her that if they divorced, the property (meaning 43 Broadwalk) would be hers. When asked what she thought she had given in return for the transfer of 43 Broadwalk she first questioned that it should be necessary for anything to be given in return and then referred to the fact that she was looking after the children and the house. In answer to Mr Lowe she said that she would have been surprised if after the transfer had been made Mr Kumar had said that she could not sue him for money. It would probably be wrong to read too much into this last answer but it seems to me that Dr Gupta’s evidence as a whole contains nothing of substance to support the existence of the compromise which is asserted on her behalf.
In para 4 of his affidavit on 10 October 1991 Mr Kumar said:
‘Mr Whittan [the solicitor acting for the Patels] suggested that our matrimonial home was transferred to [Dr Gupta’s] name as a device to allow myself to evade a possible liability. This is untrue. The transfer was the result of the breakdown of our marriage and the arrangements my former wife and I made even before the formal divorce proceedings were instituted. Irrespective of whether I was involved in other proceedings, under our Indian culture, though not statutory law, it is almost customary for husbands to ensure that the former wife and our children are well protected and secure in every sense of the terms. Further certainly the apportionment of matrimonial property does not necessarily depend upon strict rules of law. It very often depends how the couple decide to divorce each other.’
Later in para 9 of the same affidavit he said:
‘In our culture in a marriage the 50/50 share idea between a husband and wife is non-existent so to say. In fact for the native Indians divorce is still regarded as a matter leaving stigma on the characters of persons and the husband tries to compensate the other party, and particularly the children, as much as possible by material means for the well-bring of the former family.’
He said much the same in para 4 of a later affidavit sworn by him on 3 April 1992 in answer to an affidavit of the trustee, Mr Lewis. In the witness box he said in answer to Mr Lowe that when he and Dr Gupta had difficulties in their marriage and mentioned divorce, which was in 1987 or 1988, they discussed the matter on the basis that the children would stay with her and she would keep 43 Broadwalk and any other property they had. He mentioned specifically 34 Nutfield Road. When asked by Miss Shekerdemian, on behalf of the trustee, what he had got in return for the transfer of 43 Broadwalk he referred to the fact that Dr Gupta had given him their children and kept a home for him for 20 years.
I have already mentioned one respect, relating to the source of the mortgage payments between 1987 and 1990 in which Mr Kumar contradicted what he had said in his first affidavit in a later affidavit and accepted that what he had first said
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was wrong, although he gave no explanation for his error. If the matter depended on credibility I would have felt able to place little reliance on disputed statements made by Mr Kumar. But, even taking his evidence at face value and adding it to that of Dr Gupta, also taken at face value, I find nothing in it which supports the contention that 43 Broadwalk was transferred to Dr Gupta in return for an agreement on her part not to seek further capital provision under s 23 or s 24 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973. I accept that there was an understanding probably reached sometime in 1988, that Dr Gupta was to have 43 Broadwalk. This understanding may have extended to the Sedgwick Road properties as well. But I find nothing to support the contention that Dr Gupta agreed in return that she would not seek further capital provision. There was no need for any such agreement on her part. Mr Kumar accepted, probably for the reasons connected with Indian custom which he stated in his affidavits, that he ought to transfer his property to Dr Gupta. He sought nothing from her in return and in my judgment he received nothing.
Mr Lowe contended that even though there might be no evidence of any express promise on the part of Dr Gupta to refrain from seeking further capital provision, this would not prevent there being a compromise which would constitute a consideration in money or money’s worth. He referred to Fullerton v Provincial Bank of Ireland [1903] AC 309. In that case the customer of a bank, in response from pressure from the bank, agreed to deposit a title deed as security for his overdraft. He did in fact deposit the deed with the bank. In proceedings in which the question was whether the bank had an equitable charge, one of the arguments was that there was no proof of consideration because there was no stipulation for forbearance on the part of the bank for any definite time. Lord Macnaghten said (at 313):
‘My Lords, this point seems to me to be settled by authority. In such a case as this it is not necessary that there should be an arrangement for forbearance for any definite or particular time. It is quite enough if you can infer from the surrounding circumstances that there is an implied request for forbearance for a time, and that forbearance for a reasonable time was in fact extended to the person who asked for it.’
Lord Davey said (at 315-316):
‘Now in the letter of May 18 [the customer] writes to this effect, addressing [the bank manager], “All you require is a little patience and my account will be put on a satisfactory basis.” I think this means, “Exercise patience and some forbearance and I will give you the required security and thus put my account in order”. The bank did exercise patience, and gave some forbearance by not demanding, as they might have done, immediate payment of the debt, and by giving [the customer] the required time to effect the security. I think that such forbearance in fact, although there was no agreement by the bank to forbear suing [the customer] for any definite period, was sufficient consideration to support his promise to give security, on the principle stated by Kindersley V.-C. in Alliance Bank v. Broom ((1864) 2 Drew & Sm 289, 62 ER 631).’
It appears to me that the present case is not at all like that under consideration in Fullerton v Provincial Bank of Ireland. In any event I can find in the evidence no express request on the part of Mr Kumar for forbearance of any kind and nothing from which such a request can be implied. The fact that Dr Gupta did not in the event apply for any more extensive order by way of capital provision is, in my judgment, referable not to any implied agreement on her part, but to the fact
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that she had no need to seek such provision having regard to Mr Kumar’s attitude and to the fact that once he had parted with his interest in 43 Broadwalk he had no further assets out of which he could have made capital provision of any significance.
Accordingly, I find on the evidence that Dr Gupta provided no consideration of the first kind urged on me on her behalf. As to consideration of the second kind, relating to the assumption of responsibility for the children, I reach a similar conclusion. Seema became an adult soon after the marriage broke down and a marriage was arranged for her at about the time of the transfer of 43 Broadwalk. The provision which Dr Gupta says that she made for Seema appears to me to be extraordinarily generous, indeed lavish, although it may have been made in accordance with Indian custom. However that may be, there was no evidence that the making of this provision was part of any bargain between Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta. In my judgment, it was made by Dr Gupta rather than by Mr Kumar only because, after the dispositions of property made between 1988 and 1990 had taken place, Dr Gupta was the only parent who had assets out of which such provision could be made.
As to Sameer, he became an adult in December 1990. He was at that time, and I think still is, a university student. I have no difficulty in accepting that Dr Gupta provides a home for him when he is not at university. But there is no evidence that this was the subject of any bargain between Dr Gupta and Mr Kumar. I find that whatever Dr Gupta does for Sameer is done because of her own parental responsibilities and feelings.
In the result, I find that there was no consideration provided by Dr Gupta beyond her assumption of sole liability in respect of the Westpac mortgage. As that mortgage stood at only £30,000 at the time of the transfer and there was clearly an equity of redemption of very considerable value, the value of such consideration was clearly significantly less than the value of the consideration provided by Mr Kumar. The transfer of Mr Kumar’s interest in 43 Broadwalk to Dr Gupta was, in my judgment, therefore at an undervalue for the purposes of s 339.
I would add that even if I had accepted the argument that there was such a compromise of Dr Gupta’s prospective claim for capital provision as was contended for on her behalf, it appears to me that I would have been driven to substantially the same conclusion. The transfer of Mr Kumar’s interest in 43 Broadwalk was a disposal of his only remaining capital asset of any significance. I cannot believe that any divorce court would have so exercised its jurisdiction under s 24 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 as to require Mr Kumar to transfer to Dr Gupta, who had a superior earning capacity, substantially the whole of his capital, leaving him without the means to contribute from capital to the cost of acquiring a separate home for himself.
In my view, in all the circumstances of this case as I find them, the transfer of his interest in 43 Broadwalk contained a substantial element of bounty on the part of Mr Kumar even if, as I find not to be the case, Dr Gupta had agreed in return not to seek further provision out of capital.
It follows, in my view, that I ought to make an order of the kind mentioned in s 339(2). The precise form of order must depend, it seems to me, upon an analysis of the position which is to be restored pursuant to that subsection. This in turn necessitates a consideration of precisely what was the beneficial interest of Mr Kumar which passed by the transfer of 11 June 1990, what was the effect of the substantial repayment made to Westpac a month or so previously and what ought to be done in relation to the additional £70,000 borrowed from Westpac by Dr Gupta after the date of the transfer.
As to the first of these matters I have already said that at the time of its
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acquisition 43 Broadwalk belonged to Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta as joint tenants beneficially. In my judgment, nothing that was done down to the time of the partial repayment of the Westpac loan in May 1990 displaced or altered the effect of the certificate as to the entitlement of the survivor to give a receipt for capital money and the statement made by the solicitors to the Land Registry.
On behalf of Dr Gupta, Mr Lowe argued that this position changed at the time of the partial repayment to Westpac. This repayment was, he contended, made at the expense of Dr Gupta. He argued that this severed the beneficial joint tenancy and, by reference to the equity of exoneration, it gave Dr Gupta an enlarged beneficial interest. I do not accept this analysis and I do not consider that the equity of exoneration, in relation to which Mr Lowe referred me to Re Pittortou (a bankrupt), ex p the trustee of the property of the bankrupt v The bankrupt [1985] 1 All ER 285, [1985] 1 WLR 58, has any relevance. However, I think that a result which, in financial terms, may not be very different from that contended for by Mr Lowe is to be reached by another route.
It is necessary, in my view, to consider first who was entitled to the money used to repay Westpac. There is no doubt that this money came from the proceeds of sale of the Nutfield and Sedgwick Road houses. On the material before me it appears that 34 Nutfield Road and 38 Sedgwick Road belonged immediately after purchase to Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta as beneficial joint tenants. 19 Sedgwick Road may have belonged to them not as beneficial joint tenants but as tenants in common. Whatever the beneficial interests of Mr Kumar were in these properties he gave them away. He gave his interest in 38 Sedgwick Road to Dr Gupta in February 1988; he gave his interest in 19 Sedgwick Road to Dr Gupta in November 1988; and he gave his interest in 34 Nutfield Road to Seema in May 1990. These gifts may themselves be vulnerable to an attack in the form of an application under s 339 but the present application does not involve such an attack. For present purposes the money paid to Westpac in May 1990 must, in my judgment, be taken to be Dr Gupta’s money or, insofar as it represents the proceeds of sale of 34 Nutfield Road, money of which Dr Gupta was constructive trustee for Seema.
The next question is whether, in making the payment to Westpac, Dr Gupta ought to be taken to be enhancing the value of the equity of redemption for the benefit of both herself and Mr Kumar as beneficial joint tenants, or as making an advance by virtue of which on a sale of 43 Broadwalk she would be entitled to repayment of the amount advanced by her before any distribution of the net proceeds of sale to herself and Mr Kumar in respect of their beneficial joint tenancy.
In my judgment, appraising the matter as between Mr Kumar and Dr Gupta, the latter view is the correct one. Accordingly, what Mr Kumar had to dispose of at the time of the transfer of 43 Broadwalk was an interest as one of two beneficial joint tenants entitled to the property subject to the redemption of the Westpac charge and to the repayment to Dr Gupta of the sum of £106,626.45 paid by her to Westpac in May 1990. Essentially, it appears to me that that is the position which ought to be restored under s 339(2).
What then of the additional £70,000 which Dr Gupta borrowed from Westpac in June 1990? It was argued that this ought in some way to be treated as the joint burden of the trustee in bankruptcy, standing in the shoes of Mr Kumar, and Dr Gupta. I see no justification for this. The money was raised by Dr Gupta for her own purposes. If she had spent it in acquiring assets which remain realisable by her it is impossible to see how any part of the cost of these assets would properly be thrown onto Mr Kumar or his creditors. The fact is, of course, that Dr Gupta
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has spent the money, mainly in making a compassionate gift to her brother and in generous, or even lavish, provision for her daughter. I do not think that the fact that the money has been spent in this way changes the position. In my judgment, as between the trustee in bankruptcy and Dr Gupta, the burden of repaying the £70,000 borrowed from Westpac in June 1990 and any interest on that borrowing must fall upon Dr Gupta. This will not, of course, affect the position of Westpac, which remains entitled to look to the legal estate in 43 Broadwalk as its security and is not concerned with the interests of those entitled to the equity of redemption.
Three ancillary points arise, namely: whether any adjustment ought to be made in respect of the payments made by Dr Gupta by way of interest on the £30,000 due to Westpac at the date of the transfer; who has the benefit of the new endowment policy effected by Dr Gupta at the time of the additional advance made to her in June 1990; and whether when the property is sold any allowance ought to be made to Dr Gupta in respect of notional interest on the sum of about £106,000 to which I hold her to be entitled in priority to the division of the net proceeds of sale between herself and the trustee in bankruptcy. I will not express a concluded view on these points without giving the parties an opportunity to be heard on them if they so desire. My provisional view is, however, that Dr Gupta must bear the interest on the £30,000 so long as she continues to occupy 43 Broadwalk, that subject to the charge in favour of Westpac she will be entitled to the endowment policy which she alone has kept up and that Dr Gupta will not be entitled to notional interest on the £106,000 because it was implicit in the transaction under which she paid this sum that she would not recover it unless and until the property was sold. There may also be a question concerning entitlement to the endowment policy or policies which constituted collateral security for the original Westpac loan, but as I have no evidence about these, or the premiums paid in respect of them, I cannot express even a provisional view on this question.
The remaining matter which I must deal with is the trustee in bankruptcy’s application for an order for the sale of 43 Broadwalk pursuant to s 30 of the Law of Property Act 1925. Although such an order is sought by the trustee’s originating application, I doubt whether the trustee had or has any standing to make it until I make the order which I now propose to make in his favour under s 339(2). If this view is correct I could not make an order under s 30 at this stage. In any event I would not think it right to consider an application for such an order now. On such an application I should have to have regard to the considerations mentioned in s 336(4) of the Insolvency Act 1986, making, in the case of an application made more than one year after the appointment of the trustee in bankruptcy, the assumption referred to in s 336(5).
I find it understandable that Dr Gupta has not, on the present application, filed evidence directed to the statutory considerations and it would be right, in my view, to afford her an opportunity to do so. Accordingly, I will adjourn paras 5 to 11 of the originating application with liberty to the trustee in bankruptcy to restore them for further directions by the registrar and eventually a further hearing in court. The trustee may, of course prefer to issue a fresh originating application in respect of this relief in respect of which there could be no doubt as to the trustee’s standing to make the application or as to the application of s 336(5).
Order accordingly.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
Tesco Stores Ltd v Brent London Borough Council
[1993] 2 All ER 718
Categories: COMMUNICATIONS
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): STAUGHTON LJ AND BUCKLEY J
Hearing Date(s): 8 FEBRUARY 1993
Video recording – Offence – Supply in breach of classification – Supply to person under age – Defence – Video having ‘18’ classification certificate – Supply of video having ‘18’ classification certificate to person under 18 – Defence – Cashier employed by company supplying video to person under 18 – Cashier having reasonable grounds to believe purchaser under 18 – Company charged with offence – Management of company unaware of prohibited sale – Whether company liable when employee having reasonable grounds to believe purchaser under 18 – Video Recordings Act 1984, s 11.
The appellant, a well-known supermarket chain, sold a video film with an ‘18’ classification to a 14-year-old boy who paid for it with a £10 note at a specific cashier’s desk. A trading standards officer preferred an information against the appellant alleging that it had supplied a video recording to a person who had not attained the age specified in the classification certificate, contrary to s 11(1)a of the Video Recordings Act 1984. Under s 11(2)(b) of that Act it was a defence to a charge under s 11(1) that the defendant neither knew nor had reasonable grounds to believe that the person concerned had not attained the relevant age. The justices found that the cashier had reasonable grounds to believe that the video film was supplied to a person under the age of 18 and convicted the appellant. On appeal, the question arose whether, when a company rather than an individual was the person charged under s 11(1), it was the knowledge and information of the company acting through those who managed its affairs which was relevant for the purposes of the defence under s 11(2) or whether it was the knowledge and information of the employee who actually supplied the video recording which was relevant.
Held – On the true construction of s 11(2) of the 1984 Act there was no distinction between a company accused of the offence of supplying a video recording to an under-age person contrary to s 11(1) of that Act and those under its control who physically supplied the video recording. Since it was the employee who sold the video at the check-out point who would have the knowledge or reasonable grounds for belief that the person was under age it was the knowledge and information of the employee through whom the company effected the supply that was relevant to the defence under s 11(2) and it was impracticable to suppose that those in control of a large company would have such knowledge or information about the age of a casual purchaser of a video recording. Since on the evidence the appellant’s cashier had reasonable grounds to believe that the boy purchasing the video film was under the age of 18 it followed that the appellant could not rely on the defence provided by s 11(2). The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 721 f g, p 723 e and p 724 b, post).
Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127 and Camden London BC v Fine Fare Ltd [1987] BTLC 317 distinguished.
Notes
For the supply of video recordings to persons under age, see 45 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1067.
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For the Video Recordings Act 1984, s 11, see 45 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 546.
Cases referred to in judgments
Camden London BC v Fine Fare Ltd [1987] BTLC 317, DC.
Garforth v Esam (1892) 8 TLR 243.
Mousell-Bros Ltd v London and North-Western Rly Co [1917] 2 KB 836, [1916–17] All ER Rep 1101.
R v Maginnis [1987] 1 All ER 907, [1987] AC 303, [1987] 2 WLR 765, HL.
R v P & O European Ferries (Dover) Ltd (1991) 93 Cr App R 72, CCC.
St Helens Metropolitan BC v Hill (1992) 156 JP 602, DC.
Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127, [1972] AC 153, [1971] 2 WLR 1166, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Coppen v Moore (No 2) [1898] 2 QB 306, [1895–9] All ER Rep 926, DC.
London Computator Ltd v Seymour [1944] 2 All ER 11, DC.
Magna Plant Ltd v Mitchell (1966) 110 SJ 349, DC.
R v Carr-Briant [1943] 2 All ER 156, [1943] KB 607, CCA.
Case stated
Tesco Stores Ltd appealed by way of a case stated by the justices acting in and for the petty sessional division of Brent, sitting at Church End Magistrates’ Court on 22 November 1991, in respect of their decision to convict the appellant of supplying an ‘18’ category film entitled ‘Midnight Run’ to Stuart Graham Etheridge, who had not attained the age so specified in the appropriate British Board of Film Classifications certificate, contrary to s 11(1) of the Video Recordings Act 1984. The questions for the opinion of the High Court were: (i) does an officer of a weights and measures authority act lawfully if he makes a test purchase through an agent? (ii) if not, are criminal proceedings based on the unlawful procedure void or do they otherwise fail as a result of the unlawfulness of the purchase? (iii) can a company which contracted to supply a video rely on a defence under s 11(2)(b) of the 1984 Act on the basis that its employee’s state of mind cannot be imputed to itself? The facts are set out in the judgment of Staughton LJ.
Geoffrey Stephenson and Morag Ellis (instructed by Cartwrights, Bristol) for the appellant.
Andrew Hill (instructed by Amanda Kelly, Wembley) for the respondent.
8 February 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
STAUGHTON LJ. In November 1990 Mr Johnnie, a trading standards officer of the Brent London Borough Council, went to a Tesco store at Brent Park in the borough. He took with him, amongst others, a boy aged 14, whom I shall call ‘Stuart’. Mr Johnnie told Stuart to go into the store, choose a video film with an ‘18’ classification certificate from the video display cabinet and pay for it at till number 43 with a £10 note, which Mr Johnnie provided. All that Stuart did. He immediately went outside the store and handed the video film to Mr Johnnie. The cashier at till 43 was Miss Diane Jones.
On those short facts an information was preferred against Tesco Stores Ltd before the Brent justices, alleging an offence against s 11(1) of the Video Recordings Act 1984. That section provides:
‘(1) Where a classification certificate issued in respect of a video work states that no video recording containing that work is to be supplied to any person
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who has not attained the age specified in the certificate, a person who supplies or offers to supply a video recording containing that work to a person who has not attained the age so specified is guilty of an offence unless the supply is, or would if it took place be, an exempted supply.
(2) It is a defence to a charge of committing an offence under this section to prove—(a) that the accused neither knew nor had reasonable grounds to believe that the classification certificate contained the statement concerned, (b) that the accused neither knew nor had reasonable grounds to believe that the person concerned had not attained that age, or (c) that the accused believed on reasonable grounds that the supply was, or would if it took place be, an exempted supply by virtue of section 3(4) or (5) of this Act.’
There is no provision in the 1984 Act that it shall be a defence to show that the person used due diligence to prevent the commission of an offence, or anything of that kind. Nevertheless there was evidence before the justices as to measures taken by Tesco Stores to train their staff, including Miss Jones. There was also evidence of a letter sent by the trading standards department to Tesco Stores at Brent Park 15 days before the offence reminding them of the provisions of the 1984 Act.
All that evidence was, I am afraid, irrelevant. Perhaps there was confusion with another statute. What mattered in terms of s 11(2)(b) was whether the accused (Tesco Stores Ltd) neither knew nor had reasonable grounds to believe that Stuart was under the age of 18. On that topic the justices did find that the video film was supplied to a person clearly under the age of 18 years. We take that to be a finding that Miss Jones did have reasonable grounds to believe that Stuart was under 18. That is accepted, and there has been no argument to the contrary.
The justices made no finding as to who comprised the directing mind and will of Tesco Stores Ltd, or whether those persons neither knew nor had reasonable grounds to believe that Stuart was aged less than 18. The justices regarded those matters as irrelevant. I do not for one moment suppose that those persons had reasonable grounds for believing anything on the topic. If it is the knowledge or information of those persons that is relevant, there was a defence to this charge. That too is accepted.
The main and almost the only question on this appeal is thus whether s 11(2)(b) of the 1984 Act is concerned with the knowledge and information of the employee who supplies the video film or only with the knowledge and information of those who represent the directing mind and will of Tesco Stores Ltd.
Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127, [1972] AC 153 was, as it seems to me, concerned with three topics. The first was the general rule as to criminal liability of a corporate body. In the ordinary way a company is not guilty of a crime unless the criminal conduct and the guilty mind exist not merely in a servant or agent of the company of junior rank but in those who truly manage its affairs. Statutes may and sometimes do provide otherwise. There are offences for which, in derogation of the general rule, a company may incur liability through the behaviour of its servants (see [1971] 2 All ER 127 at 137, [1972] AC 153 at 176 per Lord Morris Borth-y-Gest citing Mousell Bros Ltd v London and North-Western Rly Co [1917] 2 KB 836 at 844).
Secondly, it was evident in Tesco Supermarkets v Nattrass that the offence in question there was one which could be committed by a company through one of its junior employees acting on its behalf. Otherwise there would have been no need to consider whether the company could rely on a defence which the statute provided. The offence section, as I shall call it, in that case was s 11(2) of the Trade Descriptions Act 1968, which reads:
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‘If any person offering to supply any goods gives, by whatever means, any indication likely to be taken as an indication that the goods are being offered at a price less than that at which they are in fact being offered he shall, subject to the provisions of this Act, be guilty of an offence.’
That, it seems, provided for the vicarious liability of the company for an employee. But it was subject to the defence section, s 24(1):
‘In any proceedings for an offence under this Act it shall, subject to subsection (2) of this section, be a defence for the person charged to prove—(a) that the commission of the offence was due to a mistake or to reliance on information supplied to him or to the act or default of another person, an accident or some other cause beyond his control; and (b) that he took all reasonable precautions and exercised all due diligence to avoid the commission of such an offence by himself or any person under his control.’
The third point considered in Tesco Supermarkets v Nattrass, which was critical to the decision, was that s 24 of the 1968 Act was concerned with the conduct of the company itself by those who managed its business. The ‘person charged’ in the section clearly meant the company. The words ‘he’, ‘himself’, and ‘his’ meant the company by its directing mind and will.
The present case is concerned with a different statute, the Video Recordings Act 1984. The offence section here is s 11(1). Mr Stephenson for Tesco Stores Ltd concedes that this section too provides for an offence which may be committed vicariously by an employee acting in the course of his employment. The question then is whether s 11(2), the defence section, is concerned with the knowledge and information of the company, where it is a company that is the accused, by those who manage its affairs, or whether it looks at the knowledge and information of the employee who actually supplies the video film.
In my judgment s 11(2) of the 1984 Act is different both in language and content from s 24 of the 1968 Act. I see no reason why it should necessarily have the same meaning as that laid down in Tesco Supermarkets v Nattrass. The language here draws no distinction between the accused and those under his control. The content is concerned with knowledge and information, not due diligence. It is, as I have already suggested, absurd to suppose that those who manage a vast company would have any knowledge or any information as to the age of a casual purchaser of a video film. It is the employee that sells the film at the check-out point who will have knowledge or reasonable grounds for belief. It is her knowledge or reasonable grounds that are relevant. Were it otherwise, the statute would be wholly ineffective in the case of a large company, unless by the merest chance a youthful purchaser were known to the board of directors. Yet Parliament contemplated that a company might commit the offence (see s 16 of the 1984 Act).
By contrast, the single-handed shopkeeper would be less readily able to rely on the defence section, although he would fare better if he had an assistant serving at the counter while he was in the back of the shop. I cannot believe that Parliament intended the large company to be acquitted but the single-handed shopkeeper convicted.
We were referred to a number of cases which were said to point to a different conclusion. First, in Tesco Supermarkets v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127 at 131, [1972] AC 153 at 169 itself Lord Reid said:
‘So Parliament has found it necessary to devise a method of avoiding this difficulty. But instead of passing a general enactment that it shall always be a
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defence for the accused to prove that he was no party to the offence and had done all he could to prevent it, Parliament has chosen to deal with the problem piecemeal, and has in an increasing number of cases enacted in various forms with regard to particular offences that it shall be a defence to prove various exculpatory circumstances. In my judgment the main object of these provisions must have been to distinguish between those who are in some degree blameworthy and those who are not, and to enable the latter to escape from conviction if they can show that they were in no way to blame.’
It is manifest that Lord Reid was not referring to s 11(2) of the 1984 Act, nor to any section with similar wording.
There is then R v P & O European Ferries (Dover) Ltd (1991) 93 Cr App R 72. That case, as it seems to me, was dealing with the first point considered in Tesco Supermarkets v Nattrass, the general rule for criminal liability of a corporation. It was not concerned with the interpretation of a defence section, the third topic in that case, which only arises when there otherwise is liability.
Much more to the point is the decision of the Divisional Court in Camden London BC v Fine Fare Ltd [1987] BTLC 317. There a company was charged with an offence under s 8(1)(a) of the Food Act 1984, which provided:
‘A person who—(a) sells, or offers or exposes for sale, or has in his possession for the purpose of sale or of preparation for sale … any food intended for, but unfit for, human consumption is guilty of an offence …’
That was held to be an absolute offence, and to have been committed by the company through an employee. But there was a defence section in the Food Act 1984, s 102(1):
‘In any proceedings for an offence under this Act, or any regulations made under this Act, being an offence consisting of selling, or offering, exposing or advertising for sale, or having in possession for the purpose of sale, any article or substance, it is a defence for the defendant to prove—(a) that he purchased it as being an article or substance which could lawfully be sold or otherwise dealt with as mentioned above, or, as the case may be, could lawfully be so sold or dealt with under the name or description or for the purpose under or for which he sold or dealt with it, and with a written warranty to that effect; and (b) that he had no reason to believe at the time of the commission of the alleged offence that it was otherwise; and (c) that it was then in the same state as when he purchased it.’
In his judgment Glidewell LJ, referring to counsel’s submissions for the Camden London Borough Council, said (at 321):
‘Counsel submits that this is not enough. He puts forward the following propositions. Firstly, he contends, as is conceded, that it has to be shown that the store operators had no reason to believe that the food was unfit at the time of sale if they are to succeed in this defence. There is no issue about that. Secondly, he contends that if one is asking the question: did the defendant have reason to believe of a large limited company? the company for this purpose means its controlling mind as distinct from those of its employees, who act under direction of the controlling mind. For most purposes, counsel for the appellants submits, the controlling mind means either the board of directors of the company or one or more senior officers to whom has been specifically delegated by the board the task of being in charge of the particular matter in question, in this case the general oversight of the checking of the
Page 723 of [1993] 2 All ER 718
condition and freshness of food sold in the stores. Counsel bases that proposition on the decision of the House of Lords in the well-known case of Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127, [1972] AC 153, for which he read to us a passage from the speech of Lord Reid. The proposition is undoubtedly correct and was accepted as correct by counsel for the respondents.’
Mr Stephenson, who was counsel for the respondents in that case, relies in the present case not on the concession which he and his opponent made but on its acceptance by the Divisional Court. It seems to me that the defence section in that case did point to the conduct of the company through those who managed its affairs, rather than to any junior employee. The defendant had to prove that he purchased the article, and did so with a warranty. A junior employee could not have done that, so I cannot regard the observations of the Divisional Court as applicable to the different defence section which is relevant in this case.
St Helens Metropolitan BC v Hill (1992) 156 JP 602 was concerned with the sale of cigarettes contrary to s 7 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933. The issue was whether the shopkeeper was guilty of the offence when a sale had been made by an assistant in his absence and without his knowledge. There was a defence provision in the section somewhat similar to s 11(2) of the 1984 Act in the present case. But that was not relied upon, and indeed appears to have been repealed before the offence was committed.
I can find nothing in the authorities to prevent us holding that s 11(2) of the 1984 Act refers to the knowledge and information of the employee through whom the company effects a supply. Accordingly, I consider that the magistrates were right to hold that Tesco Supermarkets v Nattrass, or rather the third and critical point which it decided, had no application to s 11(2).
There was a second point argued by Mr Stephenson without objection by Mr Hill on behalf of the council, although there was no question stated about it by the justices. This was that on the facts the supply here was not to Stuart but to Mr Johnnie. Stuart had no intention of watching the video film. He bought it on instructions and with money provided to him. He immediately handed it to Mr Johnnie outside the store.
Looking at the other side of the transaction, Mr Stephenson in reliance on Garforth v Esam (1892) 8 TLR 243 argues that Miss Jones, the check-out assistant, did not supply the video film. The company did. I am by no means sure about that. It is very arguable that both incurred criminal liability, but we need not decide the point.
There is a definition of ‘supply’ in s 1(4) of the 1984 Act:
‘ “Supply” means supply in any manner, whether or not for reward, and, therefore, includes supply by way of sale, letting on hire, exchange or loan; and references to a supply are to be interpreted accordingly.’
That is of no assistance when the issue is to whom goods are supplied. Nor is there help to be found so far as we can discover, from cases on the supply of drugs such as R v Maginnis [1987] 1 All ER 907, [1987] AC 303.
It is no doubt fairly common for children to arrive in shops and say that they wish to buy cigarettes or alcohol for a parent or some other adult. They may or may not be telling the truth. The same may happen with video recordings. I would doubt whether, even if the child is telling the truth, it should be held that the supply is to the principal in such a case and not to the child. But however that may be, Stuart in the present case said nothing to indicate that he was buying on behalf of Mr Johnnie. In my opinion the supply was made to Stuart.
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It was argued before the justices that the test purchase in this case was not authorised by the 1984 Act and that evidence of it was inadmissible. That argument was not pursued in this court.
In my judgment the appeal fails. Question (c) in the case stated was as follows:
‘Can a company which contracted to supply a video rely on a defence under s 11(2)(b) of the Video Recording Act 1984 on the basis that its employee’s state of mind cannot be imputed to itself?’
I would answer that question in the context of this case No.
BUCKLEY J. I agree.
Appeal dismissed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that the following points of law of general public importance were involved in the decision: (1) whether the knowledge and information of an employee who actually makes the supply is relevant for the purposes of s 11(2) of the Video Recordings Act 1984; and (2) whether the supply to somebody who purchases as a agent for an undisclosed principal is a supply to the agent.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v Gough
[1993] 2 All ER 724
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD ACKNER, LORD MUSTILL, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 27, 28 JANUARY, 20 MAY 1993
Criminal law – Trial – Juror – Bias – Connection between juror and member of defendant’s family – Discovery of connection after verdict given – Whether defendant receiving fair trial – Test of bias – Whether real danger that accused might not have had fair trial.
The appellant and his brother were charged with robbery. At the committal proceedings the brother was discharged and the appellant was indicted on a single count that he had conspired with his brother to commit robbery. At the appellant’s trial the brother was frequently referred to by name, and a photograph of him and the appellant was shown to the jury and his address was contained in a statement read to the jury. One of the jurors was a next door neighbour of the brother but she did not recognise him or connect him with the man referred to in court until he started shouting in court after the appellant had been convicted and sentenced to 15 years’ imprisonment. The appellant appealed on the ground that, applying the test of whether a reasonable and fair-minded person sitting in the court and knowing all the relevant facts would have had a reasonable suspicion that a fair trial of the appellant had not been possible, the presence of the juror on the jury constituted a serious irregularity in the conduct of the trial. The Court of Appeal held that the proper test for determining whether a conviction obtained on a trial on indictment should be quashed on the grounds of possible bias on the part of a juror was whether there was a real danger that the defendant might not have had a fair trial and not whether a reasonable and fair-minded person sitting in court and knowing all the relevant facts would have had a reasonable suspicion
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that a fair trial of the defendant had not been possible. The court held that applying that test, the circumstances of the case were such that there was no danger that the appellant might not have had a fair trial, and dismissed the appeal. The appellant appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – Except where a person acting in a judicial capacity had a direct pecuniary interest in the outcome of the proceedings, when the court would assume bias and automatically disqualify him from adjudication, the test to be applied in all cases of apparent bias, whether concerned with justices, members of other inferior tribunals, jurors or arbitrators, was whether, having regard to the relevant circumstances, there was a real danger of bias on the part of the relevant member of the tribunal in question, in the sense that he might unfairly regard or have unfairly regarded with favour or disfavour the case of a party to the issue under consideration by him. Where the case was concerned with bias on the part of a justices’ clerk, the court should go on to consider whether the clerk had been invited to give the justices advice and, if so, whether it should infer that there was a real danger that the clerk’s bias infected the views of the justices adversely to the applicant. On the facts, the Court of Appeal had applied the correct test and the appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 729 f, p 732 j, p 737 g to p 738 f and p 740 d e j, post).
R v Camborne Justices, ex p Pearce [1954] 2 All ER 850 approved.
Dimes v Grand Junction Canal (1853) 3 HL Cas 759 and dictum of Lord Hewart CJ in R v Sussex Justices, ex p McCarthy [1923] All ER Rep 233 at 234 explained.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1992] 4 All ER 481 affirmed.
Notes
For circumstances in which a juror’s knowledge of facts or interests could lead to inference of bias, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 991, 1390, and 26 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 627, 641, and for cases on the subject, see 30 Digest (2nd reissue) 454–455, 466–467, 4834–4841, 4986–4995.
Cases referred to in opinions
Ardahalian v Unifert International SA, The Elissar [1984] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 84, CA.
Bremer Handelsgesellschaft mbH v Ets Soules & Cie [1985] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 160; affd [1985] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 199, CA.
Dimes v Grand Junction Canal (1853) 3 HL Cas 759, 10 ER 301.
Frome United Breweries Co Ltd v Bath Justices [1926] AC 586, [1926] All ER Rep 576, HL; rvsg sub nom R v Bath Compensation Authority [1925] 1 KB 685, CA.
Hannam v Bradford City Council [1970] 2 All ER 690, [1970] 1 WLR 937, CA.
Metropolitan Properties Co (FGC) Ltd v Lannon [1968] 3 All ER 304, [1969] 1 QB 577, [1968] 3 WLR 694, CA.
R v Altrincham Justices, ex p Pennington [1975] 2 All ER 78, [1975] QB 549, [1975] 2 WLR 450, DC.
R v Barnsley County Borough Licensing Justices, ex p Barnsley and District Licensed Victuallers Association [1960] 2 All ER 703, [1960] 2 QB 167, [1960] 3 WLR 305, CA; affg [1959] 2 All ER 635, [1959] 2 QB 276, [1959] 3 WLR 96, DC.
R v Box [1963] 3 All ER 240, [1963] 1 QB 430, [1963] 3 WLR 696, CCA.
R v Camborne Justices, ex p Pearce [1954] 2 All ER 850, [1955] 1 QB 41, [1954] 3 WLR 415, DC.
R v Huggins, ex p Clancy [1895] 1 QB 563, [1895–9] All ER Rep 914, DC.
R v Liverpool City Justices, ex p Topping [1983] 1 All ER 490, [1983] 1 WLR 119, DC.
R v McLean, ex p Aikens (1974) 139 JP 261, DC.
R v Morris (1991) 93 Cr App R 102, CA.
Page 726 of [1993] 2 All ER 724
R v Nailsworth Licensing Justices, ex p Bird [1953] 2 All ER 652, [1953] 1 WLR 1046, DC.
R v Pennington (1985) 81 Cr App R 217, CA.
R v Putnam (1990) 93 Cr App R 281, CA.
R v Rand (1866) LR 1 QB 230.
R v Sawyer (1980) 71 Cr App R 283, CA.
R v Spencer, R v Smails [1986] 2 All ER 928, [1987] AC 128, [1986] 3 WLR 348, HL.
R v Sunderland Justices [1901] 2 KB 357, CA.
R v Sussex Justices, ex p McCarthy [1924] 1 KB 256, [1923] All ER Rep 233, DC.
R v Uxbridge Justices, ex p Burbridge (1972) Times, 21 June.
Appeal
Robert Brian Gough appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 20 July 1992 against the decision of the Court of Appeal (Farquharson LJ, Alliott and Cazalet J) ([1992] 4 All ER 481) on 22 May 1992 dismissing his appeal against his conviction in the Crown Court at Liverpool before Judge Lynch and a jury on 25 April 1991 of conspiracy to rob contrary to s 1 of the Criminal Law Act 1977. The Court of Appeal had refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but, certified, under s 33(1) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: where a complaint is made after the conclusion of a trial that a juror may have been biased against the defendant, what is the proper test for the Court of Appeal to apply in deciding whether or not to order a retrial? The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Goff.
Benet Hytner QC and David Boulton (instructed by E Rex Makin & Co, Liverpool) for the appellant.
Brian Leveson QC and Andrew G Moran (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
20 May 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. On 25 April 1991 in the Crown Court at Liverpool the appellant, Robert Brian Gough, was convicted on an indictment containing a single count of conspiracy to rob, and was sentenced to a term of 15 years’ imprisonment.
The indictment was based upon the commission of eight robberies in Liverpool between 13 April 1989 and 6 March 1990. The first seven robberies bore features of striking similarity. In all seven cases the premises concerned were a betting shop, the robbery was committed by two masked men, either at the beginning or at the end of the day, the men were armed, one with a shotgun and the other with a knife, and the modus operandi was similar. The prosecution contended that the first seven robberies had been committed by the same two men, the appellant and his brother, David Stephen Gough. There was however insufficient evidence to link this brother with the eighth robbery, and the evidence against him on the other seven was weak. In the result, at the committal proceedings the prosecution applied for David Stephen Gough to be discharged on the ground that there was insufficient evidence against him; and at the trial the appellant was indicted on a single count that between the relevant dates he conspired with David Stephen Gough to commit the robberies.
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On appeal, the appellant claimed that the learned judge should on his own motion have required the prosecution to proceed on an indictment containing eight substantive counts of robbery and not on the conspiracy count. That submission was rejected by the Court of Appeal (see [1992] 4 All ER 481 at 484). There was however another ground of appeal, which is the subject of the present appeal to your Lordships’ House. This was that, by reason of the presence on the jury of a lady who was David Stephen Gough’s next door neighbour, there was a serious irregularity in the conduct of the trial and for that reason the conviction of the appellant should be quashed. That submission was also dismissed by the Court of Appeal, and the appellant now appeals to your Lordships’ House from that part of the decision of the Court of Appeal, with the leave of your Lordships’ House.
It was not until after the trial that it emerged that a member of the jury was David Stephen Gough’s next door neighbour. In opening and in the indictment he was referred to as David Gough; but in closing speeches he was referred to as David Stephen Gough. The defence case was based on the premise that David Stephen Gough was one of the robbers. He had a record of previous convictions, as had the appellant. During the trial, photographs of both brothers had been produced to the jury, and retained by them. Furthermore, the vehicle alleged to have been used in the eighth robbery was owned by Elaine Gough, the wife of David Stephen Gough, and her statement including her address was read to the jury. The car must have been parked outside the juror’s house for a number of months, and at the time at least of the eighth robbery.
After sentence was passed, David Stephen Gough, who was then present in court for the first time, started shouting; and it was at this point that the juror Mrs Smith, recognised him. He in his turn informed the defence that one member of the jury was his next door neighbour. This was drawn to the attention of the judge, but he rightly decided that he was by then functus officio. However, the juror was later interviewed by the police, and subsequently swore an affidavit. The effect of the affidavit was summarised by the Court of Appeal as follows ([1992] 4 All ER 481 at 484–485):
‘1. When she began her service on the jury she did not recognise the name “Gough” as she knew her neighbour as “Steve”. Similarly she knew David’s wife as Elaine during the two years that they had been her next door neighbours. 2. The name David Gough was mentioned on a number of occasions during the course of the trial. 3. She had no recollection of ever seeing the appellant before the trial; and she had no idea that he was the brother of her next door neighbour. 4. On 24th April 1991 during the trial, prosecution counsel read out a statement which contained the address, 3 Buckley Way (Mrs. Smith lives at No. 2) and concerned the Capri motor car. She wondered whether Steve was David Gough but thought it could not be him as he was called Steve. She was confused. 5. The photographs of the appellant and David Gough respectively were shown to the jury during the trial of the appellant. They were police photographs colloquially known as “mug shots”. Mrs Smith did not recognise David. 6. The fact that David Gough was her neighbour did not influence her thinking as a juror and she did not mention the matter to her fellow members of the jury.’
The affidavit was and remains unchallenged.
It was on these facts that the question arose whether the courts should conclude that, by reason of the presence of Mrs Smith on the jury, there was such a possibility of bias on her part against the appellant that his conviction should be quashed. As I have already recorded, that question was answered by the Court of
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Appeal in the negative. The Court of Appeal however identified in the cases two strands of authority, revealing that differing criteria have been applied in the past when considering the question of bias. The two tests have, as will appear, themselves been variously described. The Court of Appeal identified them as being (1) whether there was a real danger of bias on the part of the person concerned or (2) whether a reasonable person might reasonably suspect bias on his part. In the end, the court concluded that the former test was to be applied in cases concerned with jurors, and the latter in those concerned with magistrates or other inferior tribunals. The court therefore applied the real danger test in the present case and, on that basis, held that the appeal must fail, as indeed had been accepted by counsel for the appellant.
In considering the subject of the present appeal, your Lordships have been faced with a series of authorities which are not only large in number, but bewildering in their effect. It is only too clear how great a difficulty courts of first instance, and indeed Divisional Courts and the Court of Appeal, must face in cases which come before them; and there is a compelling need for your Lordships’ House to subject the authorities to examination and analysis in the hope of being able to extract from them some readily understandable and easily applicable principles, thus obviating the necessity of conducting on each occasion a trawl through authorities which are by no means easy to reconcile. It is on that exercise that I now propose to embark.
A layman might well wonder why the function of a court in cases such as these should not simply be to conduct an inquiry into the question whether the tribunal was in fact biased. After all it is alleged that, for example, a justice or a juryman was biased, ie that he was motivated by a desire unfairly to favour one side or to disfavour the other. Why does the court not simply decide whether that was in fact the case? The answer, as always, is that it is more complicated than that. First of all, there are difficulties about exploring the actual state of mind of a justice or juryman. In the case of both, such an inquiry has been thought to be undesirable and, in the case of the juryman in particular, there has long been an inhibition against, so to speak, entering the jury room and finding out what any particular juryman actually thought at the time of decision. But there is also the simple fact that bias is such an insidious thing that, even though a person may in good faith believe that he was acting impartially, his mind may unconsciously be affected by bias—a point stressed by Devlin LJ in R v Barnsley County Borough Licensing Justices, ex p Barnsley and District Licensed Victuallers Association [1960] 2 All ER 703 at 715, [1960] 2 QB 167 at 187. In any event, there is an overriding public interest that there should be confidence in the integrity of the administration of justice, which is always associated with the statement of Lord Hewart CJ in R v Sussex Justices, ex p McCarthy [1924] 1 KB 256 at 259, [1923] All ER Rep 233 at 234 that it is—
‘of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done.’
I shall return to that case in a moment, for one of my tasks is to place the actual decision in that case in its proper context. At all events, the approach of the law has been (save on the very rare occasion where actual bias is proved) to look at the relevant circumstances and to consider whether there is such a degree of possibility of bias that the decision in question should not be allowed to stand.
My initial reaction to the conclusion of the Court of Appeal in the present case was one of surprise that it should be necessary to draw a distinction between cases concerned with justices and those concerned with jurymen, and to conclude that different criteria fell to be applied in investigating allegations of bias in the two categories of case. Evidently, the Court of Appeal was itself unhappy in having to
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reach this conclusion, which it felt bound to reach on the authorities. Of course, there are some distinctions between the two groups of cases. For example, in the case of jurymen there is the inhibition, to which I have already referred, against investigating the state of mind of a juryman when reaching his decision in the privacy of the jury room. There is also the fact that the possibility of bias may come to light in the course of a jury trial—for example a juryman may have unwisely indulged in conversation with a witness, or previous convictions of the accused may have accidentally been revealed to the jury. Situations such as these have to be dealt with by the judge when they arise; and he may be able to deal with the situation on the spot, for example by issuing a warning to the jury, or by discharging the particular juryman involved. And, if a verdict is challenged before the Court of Appeal on the ground of bias, the ultimate principles to be applied are to be found in s 2 of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. But, even taking these matters into account, I am left with the feeling that there should be no reason, in principle, why the test of bias should be different in the two groups of cases—those concerned with justices and those concerned with juries. I shall however, as a matter of convenience, submit the authorities concerning these two categories of case to separate consideration before reaching any final conclusion on this point.
The argument before the Appellate Committee was presented on the basis that there were two rival, alternative tests for bias to be found in the authorities, and that the result in the present case depended on the choice made by your Lordships’ House between them. The first test, favoured by Mr Hytner QC for the appellant, was whether a reasonable and fair-minded person sitting in the court and knowing all the relevant facts would have had a reasonable suspicion that a fair trial by the defendant was not possible. The second test, favoured by Mr Leveson QC for the Crown, was whether there was a real likelihood of bias. I shall for convenience refer to these two tests respectively as the reasonable suspicion test and the real likelihood test. It was recognised by Mr Hytner before the Appellate Committee, as before the Court of Appeal, that, if the real likelihood test is to be preferred, the appeal must fail.
In fact, examination of the authorities reveals that selection of the appropriate test does not simply involve a choice between the two tests formulated by counsel in the present case. Thus, when the appropriate test in cases concerned with juries fell to be considered by your Lordships’ House in R v Spencer, R v Smails [1986] 2 All ER 928, [1987] AC 128, a variant of the real likelihood test, viz whether there was a real danger of bias, was adopted, as it was by the Court of Appeal in the present case. There are also to be found in the authorities variants of the reasonable suspicion test; and sometimes the two tests seems to have been combined. At the heart of the present inquiry lies the need to identify the precise nature of these tests, and to consider what, if any, are the differences between them. For that purpose, I propose to consider first the cases concerned with justices and other inferior tribunals, where the principal problems appear to have arisen, and then to turn to the cases concerned with juries, of which R v Spencer is of great importance.
Before I do so, however, I wish to draw attention to the fact that there are certain cases in which it has been considered that the circumstances are such that they must inevitably shake public confidence in the integrity of the administration of justice if the decision is to be allowed to stand. Such cases attract the full force of Lord Hewart CJ’s requirement that justice must not only be done but must manifestly be seen to be done. These cases arise where a person sitting in a judicial capacity has a pecuniary interest in the outcome of the proceedings. In such a case, as Blackburn J said in R v Rand (1866) LR 1 QB 230 at 232:
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‘… any direct pecuniary interest, however small, in the subject of inquiry, does disqualify a person from acting as a judge in the matter …’
The principle is expressed in the maxim that nobody may be judge in his own cause (nemo judex in sua causa). Perhaps the most famous case in which the principle was applied is Dimes v Grand Junction Canal (1853) 3 HL Cas 759, 10 ER 301, in which decrees affirmed by Lord Cottenham LC in favour of a canal company in which he was a substantial shareholder were set aside by this House, which then proceeded to consider the matter on its merits, and in fact itself affirmed the decrees. Lord Campbell said (3 HL Cas 759 at 793, 10 ER 301 at 315):
‘No one can suppose that Lord Cottenham could be, in the remotest degree, influenced by the interest that he had in this concern; but, my Lords, it is of the last importance that the maxim that no man is to be a judge in his own cause should be held sacred.’
In such a case, therefore, not only is it irrelevant that there was in fact no bias on the part of the tribunal, but there is no question of investigating, from an objective point of view, whether there was any real likelihood of bias, or any reasonable suspicion of bias, on the facts of the particular case. The nature of the interest is such that public confidence in the administration justice requires that the decision should not stand.
I turn next to the broader question of bias on the part of a member of the relevant tribunal. Here it is necessary first to put on one side the very rare case where actual bias is shown to exist. Of course, if actual bias is proved, that is an end of the case: the person concerned must be disqualified. But it is not necessary that actual bias should be proved; and in practice the inquiry is directed to the question whether there was such a degree of possibility of bias on the part of the tribunal that the court will not allow the decision to stand. Such a question may arise in a wide variety of circumstances. These include, but are by no means limited to, cases in which a member of the tribunal has an interest in the outcome of the proceedings which falls short of a direct pecuniary interest. Such interests may vary widely in their nature, in their effect and in their relevance to the subject matter of the proceedings; and there is no rule, as there is in the case of a pecuniary interest, that the possession of such an interest automatically disqualifies the member of the tribunal from sitting. Each case falls to be considered on its own facts.
I turn first to the authorities concerned with justices, with whom I bracket members of other inferior tribunals. Of the authorities cited to the Appellate Committee in the course of argument, the first in point of time was R v Rand (1866) LR 1 QB 230, to which I have already referred, in which Blackburn J stated the law in terms of the real likelihood test. He referred to cases in which there was ‘a real likelihood that the judge would, for kindred or any other cause, have a bias in favour of one of the parties’ in which event ‘it would be very wrong in him to act’ (at 232). That test was later approved by three members of the Appellate Committee of this House in Frome United Breweries Co Ltd v Bath Justices [1926] AC 586 at 591, 607, 610, [1926] All ER Rep 576 at 579, 587, 589 (a case concerned with licensing justices) per Viscount Cave LC, per Lord Atkinson citing R v Sunderland Justices [1901] 2 KB 357 at 364 and per Lord Sumner quoting from the dissenting judgment of Atkin LJ in the Court of Appeal ([1925] 1 KB 685 at 712). Furthermore, Lord Shaw of Dunfermline agreed with Viscount Cave LC; and, although the other member of the Appellate Committee, Lord Carson, spoke simply of ‘a likelihood of bias’ (see [1926] AC 586 at 617, [1926] All ER Rep 576 at 592), there is no reason to suppose that he intended any different test.
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At this stage, however, I must turn to the well-known case of R v Sussex Justices, ex p McCarthy [1924] 1 KB 256, [1923] All ER Rep 233. There the applicant came before magistrates charged with the offence of dangerous driving, which had involved a collision between his vehicle and another vehicle. The solicitor acting as magistrates’ clerk on this occasion was also acting as solicitor for the other driver in civil proceedings against the applicant arising out of the collision. At the conclusion of the evidence before the magistrates, the acting clerk retired with them in case his help should be needed on a point of law; but in fact the magistrates did not consult him, and he himself abstained from referring to the case. The magistrates convicted the applicant, but his conviction was quashed by a Divisional Court. This is of course the case in which Lord Hewart CJ let fall his much-quoted dictum, to which I have already referred. I think it helpful, however, to quote from his judgment in extenso ([1924] 1 KB 256 at 258–259, [1923] All ER Rep 233 at 234):
‘It is said, and, no doubt, truly, that when that gentleman retired in the usual way with the justices, taking with him the notes of the evidence in case the justices might desire to consult him, the justices came to a conclusion without consulting him, and that he scrupulously abstained from referring to the case in any way. But while that is so, a long line of cases shows that it is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done. The question therefore is not whether in this case the deputy clerk made any observation or offered any criticism which he might not properly have made or offered; the question is whether he was so related to the case in its civil aspect as to be unfit to act as clerk to the justices in the criminal matter. The answer to that question depends not upon what actually was done but upon what might appear to be done. Nothing is to be done which creates even a suspicion that there has been an improper interference with the course of justice. Speaking for myself, I accept the statements contained in the justices’ affidavit, but they show very clearly that the deputy clerk was connected with the case in a capacity which made it right that he should scrupulously abstain from referring to the matter in any way, although he retired with the justices; in other words, his one position was such that he could not, if he had been required to do so, discharge the duties which his other position involved. His twofold position was a manifest contradiction. In those circumstances I am satisfied that this conviction must be quashed …’
The case was therefore concerned with the possibility that the acting magistrates’ clerk, who plainly had such an interest in the outcome of the civil proceedings that he might well be biased against the applicant in the proceedings before the magistrates, might influence the decision of the magistrates adversely to the applicant. Lord Hewart CJ clearly thought that the acting magistrates’ clerk’s involvement in the civil proceedings was such that he should never have participated in the hearing before the magistrates, and went so far as to indicate that ‘even a suspicion that there has been an improper interference with the course of justice’ is enough to vitiate the proceedings, an observation which has been invoked as the origin of the reasonable suspicion test. Indeed, following the Sussex Justices case, there developed a tendency for courts to invoke a test requiring no more than a suspicion of bias.
However, in a later case, also concerned with alleged bias on the part of a magistrates’ clerk, R v Camborne Justices, ex p Pearce [1954] 2 All ER 850, [1955] 1
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QB 41, a Divisional Court, having received the assistance of the Solicitor General as amicus curiae, approached the question on the basis that a real likelihood of bias must be established. In that case, the applicant was convicted of an offence under the Food and Drugs Act 1938. The information alleging the offence had been laid by a sampling officer for the Cornwall County Council. The magistrates’ clerk, who in the course of the hearing was invited into the magistrates’ private room in order to advise them, was a member of the county council (though not of the relevant committee of the council, the public health and housing committee). For this reason, the applicant alleged that a reasonable suspicion of bias might arise, and that his conviction should be quashed. The court dismissed the application, holding that in the circumstances there was no real likelihood of bias on the part of the magistrates’ clerk. Moreover the court was at pains to reject any suggestion that mere suspicion of bias was sufficient; and, while indorsing and fully maintaining the integrity of the principle reasserted by Lord Hewart CJ in the Sussex Justices case, nevertheless deplored the principle ‘being urged as a warrant for quashing convictions or invalidating orders upon quite unsubstantial grounds and, indeed, in some cases, upon the flimsiest pretext of bias’ (see [1954] 2 All ER 850 at 855, [1955] 1 QB 41 at 51–52 per curiam).
In the Sussex Justices case it must have been plain that there was a real likelihood of bias on the part of the acting magistrates’ clerk; and the court went on to hold that, despite the fact that there had been no discussion about the case between the magistrates and the clerk, nevertheless the decision of the magistrates must be quashed, because nothing may be done which creates even a suspicion that there has been a wrongful interference with the course of justice. It appears that this decision was later used to suggest that a mere suspicion of bias on the part of a person involved in the process of adjudication is enough to require that the decision should be quashed. That approach was rejected in the Camborne Justices case, in which it was held that, since there was no real likelihood of bias on the part of the magistrates’ clerk, there was no ground for quashing the magistrates’ decision. The cases can therefore be distinguished on the facts. But the question remains whether, in a case involving a magistrates’ clerk, it is enough to show that there was a real likelihood of bias on the part of the clerk, or whether it must also be shown that, by reason of his participating in the decision-making process, there was a real likelihood that ‘he would impose his influence on the justices or give them wrong legal advice’ (see [1955] 1 QB 41 at 46 per the Solicitor General, Sir Reginald Manningham-Buller QC, arguendo as amicus curiae). In my opinion, the latter view is to be preferred. Of course, nowadays a magistrates’ clerk will not withdraw with the justices, but will only join them if invited to advise them on a question of law. If the clerk is not so invited, any bias on his part will ordinarily have no influence on the outcome of the proceedings; though if he has any interest in the outcome it is obviously undesirable that he should be acting at all in the capacity of clerk in relation to those proceedings, in case his advice is called for. If however he is invited to give the magistrates advice, it is open to the court to infer that, having regard to the insidious nature of bias, there is a real likelihood of the clerk’s bias infecting the views of the magistrates adversely to the applicant.
I have had the opportunity of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf, and it follows from what I have said that I am in agreement with his conclusions both about the effect of the Sussex Justices and Camborne Justices cases and that the only special category of case, in which it is unnecessary to inquire whether there was any real likelihood of bias, relates to circumstances where a person acting in a judicial capacity has a direct pecuniary interest in the outcome of the proceedings.
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In R v Barnsley County Borough Licensing Justices, ex p Barnsley and District Licensed Victuallers Association [1960] 2 All ER 703, [1960] 2 QB 167 Devlin LJ also preferred the real likelihood test, considering that the term ‘real likelihood of bias’ is not used to import the principle in the Sussex Justices case, which had been invoked by Salmon J at first instance ([1959] 2 All ER 635 at 641, [1959] 2 QB 276 at 286). It is, I think, desirable that I should quote the relevant passage from the judgment of Devlin LJ in full ([1960] 2 All ER 703 at 714–715, [1960] 2 QB 167 at 186–187):
‘Here is an application by the co-operative society and there is sitting to decide it a bench which is wholly composed of members of the society and one woman whose husband was a member of the society, and the bench is presided over by a chairman who had interested himself actively in the conduct of the affairs of the society or was desirous of doing so. Is there, in those circumstances, a real likelihood of bias? I am not quite sure what test SALMON, J., applied. If he applied the test based on the principle “that justice must not only be done, but should manifestly … be seen to be done”, I think that he came to the right conclusion on that test. I cannot imagine anything more unsatisfactory from the public point of view than applications of this sort being dealt with by a bench which was so composed, and, indeed, it is conceded that steps will have to be taken to rectify the position. But, in my judgment, it is not the test. We have not to inquire what impression might be left on the minds of the present applicants or on the minds of the public generally. We have to satisfy ourselves that there was a real likelihood of bias, and not merely satisfy ourselves that that was the sort of impression which might reasonably get abroad. The term “real likelihood of bias” is not used, in my opinion, to import the principle in R. v. Sussex JJ., Ex p. McCarthy to which SALMON, J., referred. It is used to show that it is not necessary that actual bias should be proved. It is unnecessary and, indeed, might be most undesirable, to investigate the state of mind of each individual justice. “Real likelihood” depends on the impression which the court gets from the circumstances in which the justices were sitting. Do they give rise to a real likelihood that the justices might be biased? The court might come to the conclusion that there was such a likelihood without impugning the affidavit of a justice that he was not in fact biased. Bias is or may be an unconscious thing and a man may honestly say that he was not actually biased and did not allow his interest to affect his mind, although, nevertheless, he may have allowed it unconsciously to do so. The matter must be determined on the probabilities to be inferred from the circumstances in which the justices sit.’
It is plain from this passage that Devlin LJ was concerned to get away from any test founded simply upon suspicion—‘the sort of impression which might reasonably get abroad’—and to focus upon the actual circumstances of the case in order to decide whether there was in those circumstances a real likelihood of bias. His question—do the circumstances give rise to a real likelihood that the justices might be biased?—suggests that he was thinking of likelihood as meaning not probability, but possibility; the noun ‘probability’ is not aptly qualified by the adjective ‘real’, and the verb ‘might’ connotes possibility rather than probability. Such a reading makes the real likelihood test very similar to a test requiring a real danger of bias. It is true that, at the conclusion of the passage which I have quoted Devlin LJ stated that the matter must be determined ‘on the probabilities’. I do not however think that he meant ‘on the balance of probabilities’ but rather that he was emphasising that the question was to be answered by reference to the relevant circumstances.
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However, nine years later, in Metropolitan Properties Co (FGC) Ltd v Lannon [1968] 3 All ER 304, [1969] 1 QB 577, the law took a different turn. The case was concerned with a decision by a rent assessment committee, when determining fair rents for a block of flats in London. The rent so determined was substantially below the rent suggested even by the expert called by the tenants. The landlord sought to quash the decision on the ground that the chairman of the committee was a solicitor who had been concerned with advising tenants of flats in another comparable block of flats. The Court of Appeal, allowing the appeal from a Divisional Court, held that the facts were such as to give rise to an appearance of bias on the part of the chairman, and on that ground it quashed the decision of the committee, even though there was no actual bias on his part. In so holding, the court rejected the argument of counsel for the committee, who invited the court to proceed on the basis of the real likelihood test. Lord Denning MR and Edmund Davies LJ both invoked the much-quoted dictum of Lord Hewart CJ in the Sussex Justices case and declined to follow Devlin LJ’s approach in the Barnsley Licensing Justices case. Lord Denning MR stated the law as follows ([1968] 3 All ER 304 at 309–310, [1969] 1 QB 577 at 599):
‘In R. v. Barnsley County Borough Licensing Justices, Ex p. Barnsley & District Licensed Victuallers’ Assocn., DEVLIN, L.J., appears to have limited that principle considerably, but I would stand by it. It brings home this point; in considering whether there was a real likelihood of bias, the court does not look at the mind of the justice himself or at the mind of the chairman of the tribunal, or whoever it may be, who sits in a judicial capacity. It does not look to see if there was a real likelihood that he would, or did, in fact favour one side at the expense of the other. The court looks at the impression which would be given to other people. Even if he was as impartial as could be, nevertheless, if right-minded persons would think that, in the circumstances, there was a real likelihood of bias on his part, then he should not sit. And if he does sit, his decision cannot stand: see R. v. Huggins ([1895] 1 QB 563); R. v. Sunderland Justices ([1901] 2 KB 357 at 373), per VAUGHAN WILLIAMS, L.J. Nevertheless, there must appear to be a real likelihood of bias. Surmise or conjecture is not enough: see R. v. Camborne Justices, Ex p. Pearce ([1954] 2 All ER 850 at 858, [1955] 1 QB 41 at 48–51); R. v. Nailsworth Licensing Justices, Ex p. Bird ([1953] 2 All ER 652, [1953] 1 WLR 1046). There must be circumstances from which a reasonable man would think it likely or probable that the justice, or chairman, as the case may be, would, or did, favour one side unfairly at the expense of the other. The court will not enquire whether he did, in fact, favour one side unfairly. Suffice it that reasonable people might think he did. The reason is plain enough. Justice must be rooted in confidence; and confidence is destroyed when right-minded people go away thinking: “The judge was biased.” ’
Edmund Davies LJ said that it was enough if ‘there is reasonable suspicion of bias on the part of one or more members of the adjudicating body’ (see [1968] 3 All ER 304 at 314, [1969] 1 QB 577 at 606); and the third member of the court, Danckwerts LJ, appears to have proceeded, despite some doubt, upon a similar basis (see [1968] 3 All ER 304 at 311, [1969] 1 QB 577 at 601–602).
I shall return to this case in a moment, but I have to say that it left a legacy of some confusion behind it. In two cases, R v Uxbridge Justices, ex p Burbridge (1972) Times, 21 June, and R v McLean, ex p Aikens (1974) 139 JP 261, Lord Widgery CJ was prepared to proceed on the basis of the reasonable suspicion test, though in neither case was the choice of test decisive. However, in R v Altrincham Justices, ex
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p Pennington [1975] 2 All ER 78, [1975] QB 549 Lord Widgery CJ did not feel able to decide whether the real likelihood test or the reasonable suspicion test was appropriate. In that case the appellants were convicted of offences of having sold vegetables by weight and having delivered a lesser weight to two county schools. The presiding justice at the trial was a member of the education committee, and was a governor of two schools, though not of those in question. A Divisional Court quashed the convictions on the ground that the presiding justice should have disqualified herself from hearing a case where she had an active interest in the schools which were the victims of the offence. In so holding, Lord Widgery CJ referred to both the real likelihood test and the reasonable suspicion test. However it was not clear to him from Metropolitan Properties Co (FGC) Ltd v Lannon which of those tests fell to be applied. Furthermore, in R v Liverpool City Justices, ex p Topping [1983] 1 All ER 490, [1983] 1 WLR 119, in which justices became aware of other unrelated charges against the defendant whose case they were about to consider, the Divisional Court applied a form of the reasonable suspicion test derived from the judgment of Lord Widgery CJ in Ex p Burbridge; but it prefaced its choice of this test with the observation that, in agreement with a view expressed by Cross LJ in Hannam v Bradford City Council [1970] 2 All ER 690 at 700, [1970] 1 WLR 937 at 949, there was little if any difference between the real likelihood test and the reasonable suspicion test, because if a reasonable person with the relevant knowledge thinks that there might well be bias, then there is in his opinion a real likelihood of bias—a view which appears to assume that real likelihood of bias means no more than a real possibility of bias.
I have already quoted passages from the judgments of Lord Denning MR and Edmund Davies LJ in Metropolitan Properties Co (FGC) Ltd v Lannon [1968] 3 All ER 304 at 309–310, 314, [1969] 1 QB 577 at 599, 606 which show that they did not in fact state the same test, Lord Denning MR’s test being really no more than an adaptation of the real likelihood test, and only Edmund Davies LJ enunciating a test founded upon real suspicion of bias. Furthermore Lord Denning MR, while purporting to differ from Devlin LJ in the Barnsley Licensing Justices case, in fact differed very little from him. Thus, both considered that it was not necessary that actual bias should be proved, the court having therefore to proceed upon an impression derived from the circumstances, and that the question is whether such an impression reveals a real likelihood of bias. The only difference between them seems to have been that, whereas Devlin LJ spoke of the impression which the court gets from the circumstances, Lord Denning MR looked at the circumstances from the point of view of a reasonable man, stating that there must be circumstances from which a reasonable man would think it likely or probable that the justice, or chairman, was biased. Since however the court investigates the actual circumstances, knowledge of such circumstances as are found by the court must be imputed to the reasonable man; and in the result it is difficult to see what difference there is between the impression derived by a reasonable man to whom such knowledge has been imputed and the impression derived by the court, here personifying the reasonable man. It is true that Lord Denning MR expressed the test as being whether a reasonable man would think it ‘likely or probable’ that the justice or chairman was biased. If it is a correct reading of his judgment (and it is by no means clear on the point) that it is necessary to establish bias on a balance of probabilities, I for my part would regard him as having laid down too rigorous a test. In my opinion, if, in the circumstances of the case (as ascertained by the court), it appears that there was a real likelihood, in the sense of a real possibility, of bias on the part of a justice or other member of an inferior tribunal, justice requires that the decision should not be allowed to stand. I am
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by no means persuaded that, in its original form, the real likelihood test required that any more rigorous criterion should be applied. Furthermore, the test as so stated gives sufficient effect, in cases of apparent bias, to the principle that justice must manifestly be seen to be done, and it is unnecessary, in my opinion, to have recourse to a test based on mere suspicion, or even reasonable suspicion, for that purpose. Finally there is, so far as I can see, no practical distinction between the test as I have stated it and a test which requires a real danger of bias, as stated in R v Spencer, R v Smails [1986] 2 All ER 928, [1987] AC 128. In this way, therefore, it may be possible to achieve a reconciliation between the test to be applied in cases concerned with justices and other members of inferior tribunals and cases concerned with jurors.
I turn therefore to the cases concerned with jurors; and here the relevant authorities support the view which I have just expressed. It is true that, after Metropolitan Properties Co (FGC) Ltd v Lannon, there were cases in which the reasonable suspicion test was adopted: see eg R v Pennington (1985) 81 Cr App R 217. However, it is appropriate to turn straight to the leading authority, which is the decision of your Lordships’ House in R v Spencer [1986] 2 All ER 928, [1987] AC 128. In that case the defendants, who were members of the nursing staff at a secure hospital, were convicted in two separate trials of ill-treating patients at the hospital, contrary to s 126 of the Mental Health Act 1959. On appeal, the principle issue was one of corroboration. But in addition a question arose with regard to one of the jurors at the first trial. He had clearly demonstrated in the course of the trial that he was biased against the defendants. At first the judge, having consulted counsel, decided to take no action. However, it then transpired that the juror’s wife worked at another mental hospital which figured in the evidence at the trial. The judge, fearing that the juror might have heard things from his wife which it would be better if he had not heard, decided to discharge him; but, discovering that the juror was in the habit of giving three other members of the jury a lift home, warned the members of the jury that they should not discuss the case further with him. On the following morning, however, defence counsel submitted that the remainder of the jury should be discharged; but the judge decided, in the exercise of his discretion, not to do so. Counsel for the prosecution had submitted that the test which the judge should apply was that the jury should not be discharged unless it could be shown that there was a very high risk that the apparently biased juror had influenced any of his fellow jurors. Lord Ackner (with whom Lord Brandon and Lord Mackay agreed) however held that the correct test was that stated by the Court of Appeal in R v Sawyer (1980) 71 Cr App R 283 at 285, viz whether there was a real danger that the appellant’s position had been prejudiced in the circumstances. This was the test which had in fact been applied by the Court of Appeal, but it had concluded that there was no realistic chance that the three jurors who had travelled in the car had been prejudiced or biased by what they had heard. On this point, however, Lord Ackner found himself unable totally to dismiss that possibility, and he concluded, with the remainder of the Appellate Committee, that the verdict was unsafe and the appeal must be allowed (see [1986] 2 All ER 928 at 940, [1987] AC 128 at 146). Subsequently, the test so established in R v Spencer was applied by the Court of Appeal in R v Putnam (1990) 93 Cr App R 281. I should add that in R v Morris (1991) 93 Cr App R 102, in which the reasonable suspicion test was applied, it appears that R v Spencer was not cited to the court. In the light of the conclusion which I have reached, I do not think that it is necessary for me to consider any more of the earlier cases concerned with allegation of bias on the part of jurors. I only wish to say that R v Box [1963] 3 All ER 240, [1963] 1 QB 430, to which
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some criticism was directed in the course of argument, appears to have been concerned primarily with an allegation of actual bias, and to have reasserted the principle that knowledge by a juror of a defendant’s character or previous convictions is not an automatic disqualification.
There are however two features of jury cases to which I will briefly draw attention. The first is that the possibility of bias on the part of a juror may, as in R v Spencer itself, come to the attention of the judge in the course of the trial. In such circumstances the judge, in deciding whether to exercise his discretion to discharge one or more members of the jury, should apply the same test as falls to be applied on appeal by the Court of Appeal, viz whether there is a real danger of bias affecting the mind of the relevant juror or jurors. Even if the judge decides that it is unnecessary to do more than issue a warning to the jury or to a particular juror, and thereby isolate and neutralise any bias that might otherwise occur, the effect of his warning is not merely to ensure that the jurors do not allow any possible bias to affect their minds, but also to prevent any lack of public confidence in the integrity of the jury. It is unnecessary for me to say any more on this subject, to which no argument was addressed in the present case. Second, if any question of bias on the part of a juror arises on appeal, the Court of Appeal, having applied the real danger test, will then proceed in the light of its conclusion on that test to exercise its powers under s 2 of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, in the normal way, as was done by your Lordships’ House in R v Spencer.
I wish to add that in cases concerned with allegations of bias on the part of an arbitrator, the test adopted, derived from R v Liverpool City Justices, ex p Topping [1983] 1 All ER 490, [1983] 1 WLR 119, has been whether the circumstances were such that a reasonable man would think that there was a real likelihood that the arbitrator would not fairly determine the issue on the basis of the evidence and arguments adduced before him: see Ardahalian v Unifert International SA, The Elissar [1984] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 84 and Bremer Handelsgesellschaft mbH v Ets Soules & Cie [1985] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 160; affd [1985] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 199, CA. Such a test is, subject to the introduction of the reasonable man, consistent with the conclusion which I have reached, provided that the expression ‘real likelihood’ is understood in the sense I have described, ie as meaning that there is a real possibility or, as I would prefer to put it, a real danger of bias. It would appear to have been so understood by Mustill J in the Bremer case [1985] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 160 at 164, where he referred to ‘an evident risk’ of bias.
In conclusion, I wish to express my understanding of the law as follows. I think it possible, and desirable, that the same test should be applicable in all cases of apparent bias, whether concerned with justices or members of other inferior tribunals, or with jurors, or with arbitrators. Likewise, I consider that, in cases concerned with jurors, the same test should be applied by a judge to whose attention the possibility of bias on the part of a juror has been drawn in the course of a trial, and by the Court of Appeal when it considers such a question on appeal. Furthermore, I think it unnecessary, in formulating the appropriate test, to require that the court should look at the matter through the eyes of a reasonable man, because the court in cases such as these personifies the reasonable man; and in any event the court has first to ascertain the relevant circumstances from the available evidence, knowledge of which would not necessarily be available to an observer in court at the relevant time. Finally, for the avoidance of doubt, I prefer to state the test in terms of real danger rather than real likelihood, to ensure that the court is thinking in terms of possibility rather than probability of bias. Accordingly, having ascertained the relevant circumstances, the court should ask itself whether, having regard to those circumstances, there was a real danger of
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bias on the part of the relevant member of the tribunal in question, in the sense that he might unfairly regard (or have unfairly regarded) with favour, or disfavour, the case of a party to the issue under consideration by him; though, in a case concerned with bias on the part of a magistrates’ clerk, the court should go on to consider whether the clerk has been invited to give the magistrates advice and, if so, whether it should infer that there was a real danger of the clerk’s bias having infected the views of the magistrates adversely to the applicant.
It follows from what I have said that the Court of Appeal applied the correct test in the present case. On that test, it was accepted by Mr Hytner that there was no ground for disturbing the jury’s verdict. I would therefore dismiss the appeal.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley and, for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley and, for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley and, for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of Lord Goff of Chieveley and I agree that this appeal should be dismissed for the reasons which he gives. In particular, I agree that the correct test to adopt in deciding whether a decision should be set aside on the grounds of alleged bias is that given by Lord Goff, namely whether there is a real danger of injustice having occurred as a result of the alleged bias.
The test to be applied in each case has as its source the maxim that nobody may be a judge in his own cause. No distinction arises in the application of the test because it is the clerk to the justices rather than the justices themselves who are alleged to be biased. A clerk to the justices is part of the judicial process in the magistrates’ court. This was accepted by Lord Hewart CJ when he said in his judgment in R v Sussex Justices, ex p McCarthy [1924] 1 KB 256 at 259, [1923] All ER Rep 233 at 234 that the clerk’s position ‘was such that he could not, if he had been required to do so, discharge the duties which his other position involved. His twofold position was a manifest contradiction’ (the other position being as a member of the firm of solicitors acting for the other driver who was involved in the accident which gave rise to the prosecution).
This is also made clear in the judgment in R v Camborne Justices, ex p Pearce [1954] 2 All ER 850, [1955] 1 QB 41, where the facts were very similar to those in the Sussex Justices case. The Camborne Justices case also involved a justices’ clerk. The proceedings before the justices were the result of an information under the Food and Drugs Act 1938 laid on behalf of the county council. The clerk to the justices was at the time a member of the council, but not a member of the council’s health committee responsible for laying the information. At the hearing he was sent for to advise the justices on a point of law, but according to the evidence put before the Divisional Court he did not discuss the facts of the case and having given his advice returned to the court. Unlike the Sussex Justices case where the argument appears to have been limited (the applicant was not called upon to address the court) and the judgment was not reserved, in the Camborne
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Justices case the matter was fully argued, the Solicitor General, Sir Reginald Manningham-Buller QC, and J P Ashworth appearing as amici curiae, and a reserved judgment of the court was given by Slade J on behalf of a Divisional Court which was presided over by Lord Goddard CJ. That judgment described the question which the court had to decide, as being ([1954] 2 All ER 850 at 852–853, [1955] 1 QB 41 at 47):
‘What interest in a judicial or quasi-judicial proceeding does the law regard as sufficient to incapacitate a person from adjudicating or assisting in adjudicating on it on the ground of bias or appearance of bias?’
To that question the court gave the answer ([1954] 2 All ER 850 at 855, [1955] 1 QB 41 at 51):
‘… that to disqualify a person from acting in a judicial or quasi-judicial capacity on the ground of interest (other than pecuniary or proprietary) in the subject matter of the proceeding, a real likelihood of bias must be shown.’
As the court concluded on the facts that there was no real likelihood of bias the application was dismissed. However, for present purposes the importance of the case is that the court did not consider they were dealing with a special category of case and applied a test which I regard as being the equivalent of the real danger test.
The problem created by the Sussex Justices case arises because Lord Hewart CJ preceded his celebrated remark ([1924] 1 KB 256 at 259, [1923] All ER Rep 233 at 234):
‘… it is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done’
with the comment ([1924] 1 KB 256 at 258–259, [1923] All ER Rep 233 at 234):
‘It is said, and, no doubt, truly, that when that gentleman retired in the usual way with the justices, taking with him the notes of the evidence in case the justices might desire to consult him, the justices came to a conclusion without consulting him, and that he scrupulously abstained from referring to the case in any way’
and later added, ‘speaking for myself, I accept the statements contained in the justices’ affidavit’. If these passages in his judgment are taken at face value, then they are consistent with the court in the Sussex Justices case coming to the conclusion that there was no risk of actual bias and the court was therefore applying some different test from the real danger test when deciding that the decision had to be quashed. A similar situation arises in relation to the comment of Lord Campbell in Dimes v Grand Junction Canal (1853) 3 HL Cas 759 at 793, 10 ER 301 at 315 when he, alone among the members of the House of Lords, said:
‘No one can suppose that Lord Cottenham could be, in the remotest degree, influenced by the interest that he had in this concern; but, my Lords, it is of the last importance that the maxim that no man is to be a judge in his own cause should be held sacred.’
It could well be that too much attention should not be attached to the remarks made as to the bona fides of the Lord Chancellor in Dimes v Grand Junction Canal and the justices’ clerk in the Sussex Justices case, although, no doubt the Lord Chancellor and the clerk respectively found them comforting. It must be
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remembered that, except in the rare case where actual bias is alleged, the court is not concerned to investigate whether or not bias has been established. Whether it is a judge, a member of the jury, justices or their clerk who is alleged to be biased, the courts do not regard it as being desirable or useful to inquire into the individual’s state of mind. It is not desirable because of the confidential nature of the judicial decision-making process. It is not useful because the courts have long recognised that bias operates in such an insidious manner that the person alleged to be biased may be quite unconscious of its effect.
It is because the court in the majority of cases does not inquire whether actual bias exists that the maxim that justice must not only be done but be seen to be done applies. When considering whether there is a real danger of injustice, the court gives effect to the maxim, but does so by examining all the material available and giving its conclusion on that material. If the court having done so is satisfied there is no danger of the alleged bias having created injustice, then the application to quash the decision should be dismissed. This, therefore, should have been the result in the Sussex Justices case if Lord Hewart CJ’s remarks are to be taken at face value and are to be treated as a finding, and not merely an assumption, that there was no danger of the justices’ decision being contaminated by the possible bias of the clerk.
Dimes v Grand Junction Canal is different because it involved direct pecuniary or proprietary interest on the part of the Lord Chancellor in the subject matter of the proceedings and this creates a special situation, as was pointed out at the beginning of the judgment in the Camborne Justices case [1954] 2 All ER 850 at 853, [1955] 1 QB 41 at 47:
‘… any direct pecuniary or proprietary interest in the subject-matter of a proceeding, however small, operates as an automatic disqualification. In such a case the law assumes bias.’
It was because Lord Hewart CJ’s judgment in the Sussex Justices case [1924] 1 KB 256 at 258–259, [1923] All ER Rep 233 at 234 has created difficulties that in the Camborne Justices case, where exactly the same issue was involved, the court warned against the misuse of Lord Hewart CJ’s judgment since it was being ‘urged as a warrant for quashing convictions or invalidating orders on quite unsubstantial grounds and, indeed, in some cases, upon the flimsiest pretexts of bias’ (see [1954] 2 All ER 850 at 855, [1955] 1 QB 41 at 51–52). As the court pointed out the continued citation of Lord Hewart CJ’s maxim may lead to the erroneous impression that ‘it is more important that justice should appear to be done than that it should in fact be done’.
I therefore suggest that the Sussex Justices case neither creates nor should it be placed in a separate category. The proper test which Lord Goff has identified should have been applied in that case as it was in the Camborne Justices case. There is only one established special category and that exists where the tribunal has a pecuniary or proprietary interest in the subject matter of the proceedings, as in Dimes v Grand Junction Canal. The courts should hesitate long before creating any other special category since this will immediately create uncertainty as to what are the parameters of that category and what is the test to be applied in the case of that category. The real danger test is quite capable of producing the right answer and ensure that the purity of justice is maintained across the range of situations where bias may exist.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Re Rex Williams Leisure plc
[1993] 2 All ER 741
Categories: COMPANY; Directors
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION (COMPANIES COURT)
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12 NOVEMBER, 3 DECEMBER 1992
Company – Director – Disqualification – Disqualification order – Evidence – Form of evidence – Affidavit – Oral evidence – Submission of no case to answer – Defendants wishing to preserve right to make submission of no case to answer – Defendants seeking direction enabling them to give evidence orally at hearing – Whether defendant required to file evidence in affidavit form before hearing – Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, s 16(1) – Insolvent Companies (Disqualification of Unfit Directors) Proceedings Rules 1987, rr 4, 6.
Company – Director – Disqualification – Disqualification order – Evidence – Hearsay evidence – Affidavit filed by official appointed by Secretary of State to obtain information from employees and directors of company – Affidavit based on notes of interviews with directors and employees – Whether information based on notes of interviews with directors and employees inadmissible in evidence as hearsay – Companies Act 1985, ss 431(1), 447.
Company – Director – Disqualification – Disqualification order – Hearing – Postponement – Pending civil proceedings – Whether hearing of application for disqualification order should be postponed pending determination of civil proceedings against director.
In April 1992 an administration order was made in respect of a company which carried on a gaming and amusements business. The statement of affairs showed an estimated deficiency of about £2.6m owing to creditors. On 27 April the Secretary of State applied for disqualification orders under ss 7 and 8 of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 against the two defendants, who had been directors of the company from October 1987 onwards and from November 1987 until October 1989 respectively. Affidavit evidence was filed in support of the application by the Secretary of State to show that it was expedient in the public interest that the orders be made. The principal affidavit filed in support was made by the chief examiner of the investigations division of the Department of Trade and was based on notes he made of interviews with directors and employees of the company when exercising his power under s 447a of the Companies Act 1985 to require a company or person in possession of a company’s documents to produce those documents and to provide an explanation of them. The defendants applied to the court for (1) an order striking out the evidence put forward on behalf of the Secretary of State in support of the disqualification application on the ground that, apart from interviews with the defendants, the
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evidence was hearsay and inadmissible, (2) a direction enabling them to give evidence orally at the hearing should they choose to do so rather than by affidavit since they wished to preserve their right to present no evidence at the hearing and instead submit that there was no case to answer and (3) an order staying the disqualification application pending the determination of a civil action concerning the same issues brought by the company against one of the defendants.
Held – (1) Although s 16(1)b of the 1986 Act gave the defendant to disqualification proceedings the statutory right to ‘call witnesses’ at the hearing of the application for his disqualification, rr 4c and 6d of the Insolvent Companies (Disqualification of Unfit Directors) Proceedings Rules 1987 made it clear that a defendant who wished to oppose the making of a disqualification order was required to file any evidence he wished the court to take into consideration in the form of affidavits within the time specified, that the plaintiff was to have the opportunity to consider and reply to those affidavits before the effective hearing of the application and that once filed the defendant’s evidence could be referred to and relied on by the plaintiff at the hearing. A defendant could still elect to adduce no evidence and make a submission of no case to answer but he had to do so on the basis of the affidavit evidence filed in support of the application and could not postpone his decision to do so until after the close of the plaintiff’s case at the hearing. It followed that the defendants’ application for a direction enabling them to give evidence orally at the hearing would be refused (see p 745 b d e g h, post).
(2) Since Parliament had intended that the Secretary of State would use information or documents obtained under s 447 of the 1985 Act to decide whether to apply for a disqualification order under ss 7 and 8 of the 1986 Act, such material was admissible in evidence notwithstanding that it was hearsay, in the same way that an inspectors’ report under s 431(1)e of the 1985 Act was admissible on a winding-up petition or in support of an application for a disqualification order, since in both cases the officials appointed by the Secretary of State to obtain information under s 431 or s 447 of the 1985 Act were acting in a statutory fact-finding capacity and the information obtained by them was not ordinary hearsay evidence. However, the court would be astute to ensure that a company or a defendant was not prejudiced by the hearsay nature of such evidence. It followed that the court could properly take into account the affidavit filed in support of the application by the chief examiner of the investigations division of the Department of Trade based on his notes of interviews with directors and employees of the company (see p 748 j to p 749 a j to p 750 b d to h and p 751 c, post); Re Armvent Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 441 and Re St Piran Ltd [1981] 3 All ER 270 applied.
(3) It was not an abuse of the process of the court for an application seeking disqualification of a company director to be heard while civil proceedings concerning the same issues were pending since disqualification proceedings were brought by the Secretary of State in the public interest and the protection afforded to the public by a disqualification order should not be postponed until the determination of other claims against a director or depend on the speed at which the parties chose to proceed with those claims (see p 752 h j, post).
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Notes
For disqualification of unfit directors, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 569–584, and for cases on the subject, see 9(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 119–123, 4156–4169.
For the Companies Act 1985, ss 431, 447, see 8 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 503, 516.
For the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, ss 7, 8, 16, see ibid 787, 789, 794.
For the Insolvent Companies (Disqualification of Unfit Directors) Proceedings Rules 1987, rr 4, 6, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1992 reissue) 539, 540.
Cases referred to in judgment
ABC Coupler and Engineering Co Ltd, Re (No 2) [1962] 3 All ER 68, [1962] 1 WLR 1236.
Alexander v Rayson [1936] 1 KB 169, [1935] All ER Rep 185, CA.
Allied Produce Co Ltd, Re [1967] 3 All ER 399, [1967] 1 WLR 1469.
Armvent Ltd, Re [1975] 3 All ER 441, [1975] 1 WLR 1679.
Koscot Interplanetary (UK) Ltd, Re [1972] 3 All ER 829.
Laurie v Raglan Building Co Ltd [1941] 3 All ER 332, [1942] 1 KB 152, CA.
St Piran Ltd, Re [1981] 3 All ER 270, [1981] 1 WLR 1300.
SBA Properties Ltd, Re [1967] 2 All ER 615, [1967] 1 WLR 799.
Travel and Holiday Clubs Ltd, Re [1967] 2 All ER 606, [1967] 1 WLR 711.
Cases also cited
Child, Ex p, re Ottaway (1882) 20 Ch D 126, CA.
Cohen, Re, ex p Trustee [1924] 2 Ch 515, [1924] All ER Rep 434, CA.
Comet Products UK Ltd v Hawkex Plastics Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 1141, [1971] 2 QB 67, CA.
Jefferson Ltd v Bhetcha [1979] 2 All ER 1108, [1979] 1 WLR 898, CA.
Keypak Homecare Ltd, Re [1990] BCLC 440.
Lo-Line Electric Motors Ltd, Re [1988] 2 All ER 692, [1988] Ch 477.
North Australian Territory Co v Goldsborough Mort & Co [1893] 2 Ch 381, CA.
Quartz Hill & Co, Re, ex p Young (1882) 21 Ch D 642, CA.
Savings and Investment Bank Ltd v Gasco Investments (Netherlands) BV [1984] 1 All ER 296, [1984] 1 WLR 271.
Sevenoaks Stationers (Retail) Ltd, Re [1991] 3 All ER 518, [1991] Ch 164, CA.
Smith v Croft [1985] BCLC 207.
Thames Launches Ltd v Corp of the Trinity House of Deptford Strond [1961] 1 All ER 26, [1961] Ch 197.
Young v Rank [1950] 2 All ER 166, [1950] 2 KB 510.
Application
The defendants, Frank John Warren and Peter Allan Sealey, applied to the court for (1) an order that the application by originating summons dated 27 April 1992 issued by the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry that the defendants be disqualified under the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 be struck out on the ground that it was an abuse of the process of the court for the Secretary of State’s application to be heard while civil proceedings concerning the same issues were pending, (2) a declaration that the defendants were entitled pursuant to s 16 of the 1986 Act to appear and call the attention of the court to any matters which seemed to the defendants to be relevant and to themselves give evidence or call witnesses without having served or filed affidavit evidence prior to the
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hearing of the application and (3) an order striking out part of the evidence filed in support of the application on the ground that it was hearsay and inadmissible. The facts are set out in the judgment.
J B W McDonnell QC and C H Jones (instructed by Garstangs, Bolton) for the defendants.
Guy Newey (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Cur adv vult
3 December 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. This appeal raises some points of importance on the procedure affecting applications for company director disqualification orders. An administration order was made in respect of a company, Rex Williams Leisure plc, on 30 April 1990. The company carried on a gaming and amusements business. The statement of affairs showed an estimated deficiency as to creditors of about £2.6m. An originating summons was issued on 27 April 1992 whereby the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry is seeking a disqualification order against two defendants: Mr Frank Warren and Mr Peter Sealey. Mr Warren was a director of the company from October 1987 onwards, and Mr Sealey was a director from November 1987 until October 1989. The disqualification proceedings are being defended. Affidavit evidence was filed in support of the application by the Secretary of State. In the normal course the next step would be for the defendants to file affidavit evidence in answer. Subject to any further evidence filed in reply by the Secretary of State, the case would then be heard and determined, either by the registrar or the judge, after cross-examination of the deponents if necessary.
In the present case that normal course was not followed. Before me is an application by the defendants raising essentially three issues. First, they object to much of the evidence put forward on behalf of the Secretary of State in support of the disqualification application. They say it is hearsay and inadmissible, and they seek to have those parts of the evidence struck out at this stage.
Second, they wish to preserve their right to submit to the court, when this matter comes on for hearing, that on the admissible evidence there is no case for them to answer. To this end they wish to file no affidavit evidence at all at this stage. They want to take that course because they cannot withdraw their evidence once filed. Even if at the hearing they make it plain that they themselves do not wish to present any evidence to the court, the Secretary of State will be entitled to rely on any affidavit evidence already filed on the defendants’ behalf. Further, the defendants and the other deponents can be ordered to attend and be cross-examined on their affidavits even if the defendants do not rely on these affidavits at the hearing. Thus they, the defendants, will effectually lose their right to make a submission of no case to answer if they file evidence before the hearing of the originating summons. They seek now a direction enabling them to give their evidence orally at the hearing should they choose to do so.
The third matter raised concerns the fact that the defendants’ conduct which forms the basis of the disqualification application is also the subject of a pending action brought by the company against one of the two defendants. The defendants seek an order staying the disqualification application until after the action has been disposed of.
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A submission of no case to answer
I shall consider the second of the three issues first. In the ordinary course of a civil action tried without a jury, after the plaintiff has closed his case the defendant may, if he wishes, make a submission that he has no case to answer. In the usual case where the burden of proof rests on the plaintiff, the defendant may submit to the judge that having regard to the evidence adduced by the plaintiff the plaintiff’s case must fail. When such a submission is made to a judge sitting alone, the judge will normally require the defendant to elect to call no evidence before ruling on such a submission (see Alexander v Rayson [1936] 1 KB 169 at 178, [1935] All ER Rep 185 at 189 and Laurie v Raglan Building Co Ltd [1941] 3 All ER 332 at 337, [1942] 1 KB 152 at 155). The reason for this is that the judge should not be called upon to express an opinion on the evidence and its reliability until all the evidence is before him. If the defendant elects to call no evidence, he will then stand or fall with his submission of no case. If the submission fails, he cannot then change his mind and call evidence. But, and this is the important feature for present purposes, this normal method of conducting a trial with oral evidence means that it is not until after the plaintiff’s evidence has been called and tested by cross-examination that the defendant has to decide finally whether to adduce evidence on his own behalf. Until then he can keep his powder dry. This is still so under the modern practice whereby witness statements are served in advance of the trial. If a defendant serves a witness statement but does not call the witness to whose evidence it relates, no other party may put the statement in evidence at the trial (see RSC Ord 38, r 2A(4)).
It is against this background that Mr McDonnell QC on behalf of the defendants called attention to s 16(1) of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, which I shall call ‘the Disqualification Act’ which reads:
‘A person intending to apply for the making of a disqualification order by the court having jurisdiction to wind up a company shall give not less than 10 days’ notice of his intention to the person against whom the order is sought; and on the hearing of the application the last-mentioned person may appear and himself give evidence or call witnesses.’
Mr McDonnell relied on the phrase ‘or call witnesses’. The statute, he submitted, envisages that a defendant may call oral evidence.
The next step in the defendants’ argument was to turn to the Insolvent Companies (Disqualification of Unfit Directors) Proceedings Rules 1987, SI 1987/2023, which I shall call ‘the Disqualification Rules’. These rules cover applications made under ss 7 and 8 of the Disqualification Act. The present case is such an application. Rule 2 provides that applications made in the High Court shall be made by originating summons and that the Rules of the Supreme Court shall apply except where the Disqualification Rules make provision to inconsistent effect. So before considering the Disqualification Rules further, I turn to the Rules of the Supreme Court. RSC Ord 38, r 2(3) provides that in any cause or matter begun by originating summons evidence ‘may’ be given by affidavit unless the rules otherwise provide or the court otherwise directs. RSC Ord 28 is the particular order concerned with originating summons procedure. Order 28, r 1A(4) prescribes the time limit within which a defendant who ‘wishes to adduce affidavit evidence’ must do so. Order 28, r 4(3) obliges the court, at an early stage of the proceedings, to consider:
‘… whether there is or may be a dispute as to fact and whether the just, expeditious and economical disposal of the proceedings can accordingly best
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be secured by hearing the summons on oral evidence or mainly on oral evidence and, if it thinks fit, may order that no further evidence shall be filed and that the summons shall be heard on oral evidence or partly on oral evidence and partly on affidavit evidence, with or without cross-examination of any of the deponents, as it may direct’.
Further, Ord 28, r 8 gives the court power at any stage to direct that the proceedings shall continue as if begun by writ. I pause to note the defendants’ submission that, thus far, the originating summons procedure is not inconsistent with a defendant retaining the opportunity to postpone adducing any evidence until after the plaintiff’s case has been closed in a case where there are disputes of fact. In such a case the court can give directions for oral evidence.
I should also note here an historical feature on which Mr McDonnell placed some reliance. It is that before 1986 the procedure governing disqualification applications was, likewise, not inconsistent with the defendant having the opportunity to postpone adducing evidence until after the plaintiff’s case was closed. Applications for disqualification orders under the Companies Act 1948 were made either by an originating summons in accordance with Ord 102, r 2 or, if the company was being wound up, by a summons under r 68 of the Companies (Winding-up) Rules 1949, SI 1949/330. The latter rule expressly envisaged that on the return of the summons the court would give directions on whether points of claim and defence were to be served, whether the evidence should be taken wholly or in part by affidavit or orally, and whether there should be cross-examination.
I now return to the Disqualification Rules. This is the crucial phase in the defendants’ argument. Rule 3 of the Disqualification Rules regulates the manner in which the case against a defendant shall be presented. Rule 3 prescribes that when the summons is issued the evidence in support of the disqualification application shall be filed in court, and copies shall be served on the defendant. The evidence is to be in the form of affidavits, except that where the application is made by the official receiver it may be in the form of a written report. Rule 6 of the Disqualification Rules deals with the defendant’s evidence and the plaintiff’s evidence in reply, in these terms:
‘(1) The respondent shall, within 28 days from the date of service of the summons, file in court any affidavit evidence in opposition to the application he wishes the court to take into consideration and shall forthwith serve upon the applicant a copy of such evidence.
(2) The applicant shall, within 14 days from receiving the copy of the respondent’s evidence, file in court any further evidence in reply he wishes the court to take into consideration and shall forthwith serve a copy of that evidence upon the respondent.’
Rule 7 governs the hearing of the application. As one would expect, the registrar has a wide discretion to give directions. In particular, under r 7(5)(c)(ii) he may give directions for the filing in court and service of further evidence by the parties, and directions as to—
‘(iii) such other matters as the registrar thinks necessary or expedient with a view to an expeditious disposal of the application.’
Mr McDonnell submitted that, properly construed, r 6 of the disqualification rules does no more than specify a time limit within which, if the defendant wishes to file affidavit evidence, he must do so. The rule does not detract from a defendant’s statutory right to ‘call witnesses’. Further, in giving directions under r 7(5)(c) it would be a wrong exercise by the registrar of his discretion for him to
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order the filing of affidavits if a defendant wishes to postpone adducing evidence until after the plaintiff has closed his case and the defendant has then decided whether he wishes to make a submission of no case to answer.
I am unable to accept these contentions. The one matter which seems to me to shine clearly through all these provisions is that the Disqualification Rules envisage that a defendant who wishes to oppose the making of a disqualification order must present his evidence in the form of affidavits. That is to be the normal procedure on such applications. Rule 6 admits of no other construction. This is confirmed by r 4. Rule 4 sets out details of matters which must be indorsed on the summons by way of information to the defendant. One of the matters of which the defendant must be told at the outset in this way is—
‘(e) that any evidence which the respondent wishes to be taken into consideration by the court must be filed in court in accordance with the time limits imposed under Rule 6 (the provisions of which shall be set out on the summons).’
I recognise that, once filed, a defendant’s affidavit is available to be referred to and relied on by a plaintiff. To that extent a defendant is not so well placed under this procedure as he is with a procedure for oral evidence. I am unable to find in that element of disadvantage for a defendant sufficient justification for reading r 6 of the Disqualification Rules in any other sense than I have just stated. A defendant may still elect to adduce no evidence, and make a submission of no case to answer. But the effect of the rules is that he must make his decision on that when he has seen and considered the plaintiff’s evidence. He cannot postpone his decision until after the close of the plaintiff’s case at the effective hearing of the disqualification application by the registrar or judge.
I recognise also that in this respect the Disqualification Rules may represent a departure from the procedure followed before 1986. However, this is an argument which cuts both ways. The framers of the Disqualification Rules must have had in mind that disputes of fact were likely to arise on disqualification applications. Despite this, and in contrast to the position under the Companies (Winding-up) Rules 1949 and, indeed, under the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925 (see r 7.10), the Disqualification Rules do not countenance service of points of claim and defence and the giving of evidence in chief orally. No doubt there may be exceptional cases where it is appropriate for the court to give a direction that the evidence of a particular witness should be given orally; for example, when a witness sought to be called by one party refuses to make an affidavit and his attendance and evidence have to be procured by subpoena. But exceptional cases apart, the rules require a defendant to adduce his evidence in the form of affidavits which the plaintiff is to have the opportunity to consider and reply to before the effective hearing of the summons.
Mr McDonnell advanced an alternative submission that, if this is their correct interpretation, the Disqualification Rules are ultra vires. On this footing the rules purport to take away from a defendant the right to ‘call witnesses’ expressly given him by s 16 of the Disqualification Act. I do not agree. The rule-making power under the Disqualification Act is to be found in s 21. The effect of that section, for present purposes, is to confer on the Lord Chancellor, with the concurrence of the Secretary of State and after consultation with the insolvency rules committee, the like power of making rules with regard to ss 6 to 10 of the Disqualification Act as is conferred by s 411 of the Insolvency Act 1986. For this purpose those sections are deemed to be incorporated in Pts I to VII of the Insolvency Act. Under s 411 rules may be made for regulating the practice and procedure of any court exercising jurisdiction for the purposes of Pts I to VII of the Insolvency Act on
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matters ‘connected with or arising out of, the insolvency or winding up of companies, being any provision that could be made by rules of court’ (see Insolvency Act 1986, Sch 8, para 2). In my view rr 6 and 7 of the Disqualification Rules fall within the ambit of the power even though, curiously, s 16 of the Disqualification Act is not among the sections specifically mentioned in s 21(2) as deemed included in Pts I to VII of the Insolvency Act for the rule-making purpose. I cannot read the phrase ‘call witnesses’ in s 16 as giving a defendant an overriding right to insist on the evidence of his witnesses being adduced orally. The statute provides that the defendant ‘may appear and himself give evidence or call witnesses’. In my view rules of the court may properly be made regulating the manner in which the evidence of the defendant and his witnesses is to be presented to the court.
Hearsay evidence
The principal affidavit filed in support of the Secretary of State’s application is an affidavit made by a chief examiner of the investigations division of the Department of Trade and Industry. He interviewed nine directors and employees of the company, in exercise of powers conferred on him pursuant to a direction given by the Secretary of State under s 447 of the Companies Act 1985. He has exhibited the notes he made at these interviews. In his affidavit he has made comments and submissions based on what he was told at the interviews.
Mr McDonnell submitted, correctly, that these interview notes are being put forward as evidence of the facts related to the examiner by those interviewed and that as such this is hearsay evidence. He submitted that, save for the interviews with the two defendants themselves, these notes are inadmissible in evidence and that the notes and the comments based thereon should be struck out from the evidence. RSC Ord 41, r 5 provides that, with certain immaterial exceptions, an affidavit ‘may contain only such facts as the deponent is able of his own knowledge to prove’. The general relaxation of this rule for affidavits used in interlocutory proceedings is not applicable here, because this disqualification application is not an interlocutory proceeding. Section 447(8) of the Companies Act itself provides that a statement made by a person in compliance with a requirement to provide an explanation of documents may be used in evidence ‘against him’. This does not apply to the bulk of the statements, which were made by persons other than the two defendants themselves.
Mr Newey’s answer to this attack on behalf of the Secretary of State was to pray in aid by way of analogy the principle the court has developed regarding the admissibility in evidence of the contents of reports made by inspectors appointed to carry out investigations under s 431 of the Companies Act. I was referred to several authorities: Re ABC Coupler and Engineering Co Ltd (No 2) [1962] 3 All ER 68, [1962] 1 WLR 1236, Re Travel and Holiday Clubs Ltd [1967] 2 All ER 606, [1967] 1 WLR 711, Re SBA Properties Ltd [1967] 2 All ER 615, [1967] 1 WLR 799, Re Allied Produce Co Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 399, [1967] 1 WLR 1469, Re Koscot Interplanetary (UK) Ltd [1972] 3 All ER 829, and Re Armvent Ltd [1975] All ER 441, [1975] 1 WLR 1679. These decisions establish that the contents of inspectors’ reports may properly be taken into account by the court when considering a petition for the winding up of a company brought by the Secretary of State in exercise of his powers under what is now s 124A of the Insolvency Act. The rationale of this principle is that an inspectors’ report is not ordinary hearsay evidence because inspectors act in a statutory fact-finding capacity. Further, it would be nonsensical if the court could not take the report into consideration in deciding whether it was just and equitable to wind up the company when the statute envisages that it is from the report itself that the Secretary of State will
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reach his conclusion on whether or not it is expedient in the public interest that the company should be wound up and a petition should be presented accordingly. Dillon J observed in Re St Piran Ltd [1981] 3 All ER 270 at 276, [1981] 1 WLR 1300 at 1306:
‘It would be strange … if Parliament had intended that the Secretary of State should have to rely on entirely fresh evidence and should not be able to present the report to the court and rely on the findings of the inspectors.’
In Re St Piran Ltd [1981] 3 All ER 270 at 276, [1981] 1 WLR 1300 at 1306 Dillon J went further and applied the same approach to a petition presented by a contributory. He held:
‘If inspectors are appointed because there is ground for suspecting that material information has been withheld from shareholders in a company and the inspectors by questioning the directors and examining documents not available to the general body of shareholders establish that this is so and report accordingly, there may well be little public interest involved to make it expedient for the Secretary of State to present a petition. A minority shareholder aggrieved by consistent withholding of material information might none the less wish to petition, and it would to a considerable extent, as it seems to me, defeat the object of having the inspectors’ inquiry if the aggrieved shareholder could not rely on their report. Accordingly I see no valid reason why the inspectors’ report cannot be used to support a contributory’s petition to the same extent that it can be used to support a petition by the Secretary of State.’
In my view the analogy between explanations furnished pursuant to a s 447 direction and a report prepared by inspectors appointed under s 431 is compelling for present purposes. Part XIV of the Companies Act contains a series of powers given to the Secretary of State. They form part of the armoury of powers created by Parliament for the investigation and regulation of companies in the public interest. Under s 431 the Secretary of State may appoint inspectors, with wide powers of investigation. They are required to make reports to the Secretary of State (see s 437). As already noted, Parliament envisaged that one of the consequences of an inspectors’ report is that this may form the trigger for the presentation of a winding-up petition by the Secretary of State. Another consequence Parliament envisaged is that, based on such a report, the Secretary of State may apply for a disqualification order against a person who is or was a director of the company. So far as material, s 8 of the Disqualification Act provides:
‘(1) If it appears to the Secretary of State from a report made by inspectors under section 437 of the Companies Act … or from information or documents obtained under section 447 or 448 of that Act, that it is expedient in the public interest that a disqualification order should be made against any person who is or has been a director or shadow director of any company, he may apply to the court for such an order to be made against that person.
(2) The court may make a disqualification order against a person where, on an application under this section, it is satisfied that his conduct in relation to the company makes him unfit to be concerned in the management of a company.’
In my view the approach adopted by the court to the use of the contents of an inspectors’ report on a winding-up petition is equally applicable on an application for a disqualification order founded on such a report. That is so, because the
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rationale underlying the use of the contents of an inspectors’ report on a winding-up petition is equally applicable to a disqualification application based on the contents of such a report. In the latter case as much as the former Parliament must have intended that the Secretary of State should be able to present a case to the court founded on the information gathered by the inspectors and set out in their report. Indeed, s 441 of the Companies Act as amended now provides expressly that a copy of an inspectors’ report is admissible on applications under s 8 of the Disqualification Act as evidence of any fact stated therein.
What, then, of information garnered under s 447 of the Companies Act? Section 447 is another power conferred upon the Secretary of State by the same part, Pt XIV, of the Companies Act. The Secretary of State may at any time, if he thinks there is good reason to do so, authorise an officer of his or any other competent person to require a company to produce to the officer or other person any documents which he, the officer or other person, may specify (see s 447(3), as amended). This power includes authority, if the documents are produced, to require any person who is a present or past officer or employee of the company to provide an explanation of the documents (see s 447(5)(a)(ii)). Failure to comply with a requirement to produce documents or provide an explanation is a criminal offence.
One then asks oneself: what use is the Secretary of State intended to make of information so obtained? The answer is that Parliament envisaged that similar consequences should flow from information obtained by an authorised person under s 447 as apply in the case of information obtained by inspectors and set out in their report. In the former case as well as in the latter, the Secretary of State may act on this information in deciding to present a winding-up petition on the ground that it is just and equitable to wind up the company (see s 124A(1)(a) of the Insolvency Act). Likewise, as can be seen from s 8(1) of the Disqualification Act quoted above, Parliament envisaged that information or documents obtained under s 447 of the Companies Act may form the basis for a decision by the Secretary of State to apply for a disqualification order on the ground that it appears to him expedient in the public interest that such an order should be made.
I appreciate that a s 447 direction leads to a less formal and less elaborate investigation than the appointment of inspectors under s 431. But under both sections the information is being sought and provided pursuant to statutory powers and obligations. The differences in the two procedures do not dictate that in the one case the court can take into account the information obtained and in the other case it cannot. Rather, in both cases the evidence is admissible but the court should take the differences into account when deciding, having regard to all the evidence and all the circumstances of the particular proceedings, how much importance or weight should be attached to the information in question. The court is well able to do this. The court will have due regard to the source and nature of the information and also the circumstances in which it was provided. The court will be astute to see that a company or a defendant is not prejudiced by the hearsay nature of the information. If the defendant’s evidence raises an issue which needs to be tried, the court will take appropriate steps to ensure that the issue is justly and fairly resolved. Templeman J adverted to this in Re Armvent Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 441 at 446, [1975] 1 WLR 1679 at 1685, in the context of a winding-up petition:
‘… even if the report of the inspectors is challenged nevertheless it ought to be treated as prima facie evidence and that it ought to be left to a judge in any case having read the report and having seen the witnesses to make up his own mind whether it is just and equitable to wind up the company. The whole machinery of the inspectors’ report was evolved in order to enable the
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Secretary of State to present a winding-up petition where the Secretary of State considers the public interest so demands. It would be unfortunate if once the Secretary of State has reached that conclusion on proper grounds based on the inspectors’ detailed report, that the court should be right back to square one and start again as though the inspectors had never come on the scene at all. A great deal may depend on the contents of the report and the evidence set out in the report; but I would hope that a report of this nature would be accepted by the court as being prima facie evidence of the main conclusions drawn by the inspectors. Once evidence is sworn to the contrary then if the Secretary of State fails to support the report by direct evidence which removes any doubt cast on the validity of the inspectors’ conclusions the court would not be slow to dismiss the petition’.
I shall therefore not strike out those passages in the chief examiner’s affidavit concerned with the s 447 interviews.
Nor shall I strike out the passages which consist of comments and submissions based on the exhibited interview notes. In a case such as this it can be helpful in practice for an affidavit to spell out, concisely and lucidly, the inferences and conclusions a party will ask the court to draw from the evidence. Indeed, the Disqualification Rules require that the plaintiff’s affidavits or the official receiver’s report are to include a statement of the matters by reference to which the defendant is alleged to be unfit to be concerned in the management of a company (see r 3(3)). So the plaintiff’s case must be stated clearly in the evidence. The defendant must know what case he has to meet. I do not see how the inclusion of this material in the plaintiff’s evidence can prejudice the defendant. At the hearing the court will have no difficulty, when disputes of fact arise, in identifying which parts of the affidavits or the official receiver’s report are comment as distinct from evidence of fact. That is so in the present case.
A further aspect of the evidence challenged by the defendants concerns documents found in the company’s records or produced pursuant to s 447 of the Companies Act. These have been exhibited to the affidavits. Some of the documents are, or may be, draft documents such as accounts or reports which were never finalised and approved, or draft minutes of meetings which were never circulated or approved, or drafts of letters which were never sent. Here also I do not think I should strike out the criticised material. The Secretary of State must be entitled to put such documents in evidence, for what they may be worth. At the hearing of the summons there may be argument about their evidential significance or even their relevance, but that does not mean they should be struck out from the affidavit evidence at this stage as inadmissible. Those are matters to be looked into properly at the hearing of the disqualification application. Meanwhile, if the accounts or reports were never finalised or approved or the letters never advanced beyond the stage of drafts, the defendants can say so in their evidence and explain the position. This should not give rise to any embarrassment for them in this case. Nor is there any question of this course being oppressive to them because of the volume of the documentation or for any other reason.
I should add one final point before parting from the question of hearsay evidence. I appreciate that, if affidavits containing hearsay evidence may be put before the court in support of a disqualification application, one result is to place on a defendant the onus of responding to hearsay evidence and showing cause why an order should not be made. I do not find this altogether surprising. I am mindful of the grave consequences a disqualification order can have. A disqualification order is a serious interference with the freedom of an individual. I am also mindful that the Secretary of State or the official receiver will not usually
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have firsthand knowledge of the matters on which the disqualification application is founded but, and this is important, a defendant to a disqualification application inevitably will have such knowledge. Many disqualification applications are not defended. When they are, the facts which are seriously in issue may be very limited. It would be absurd, because it would be pointless, for the affidavit evidence-in-chief always to consist exclusively of matters within the personal knowledge of the deponent. Frequently disqualification applications are based on a defendant’s conduct as a director over many months or even years. There is a measure of practical good sense in a procedure whereby the plaintiff has first to set out his case, with sufficient clarity and identification of the evidence being relied on for the defendant to know where he stands. Then the defendant puts in his evidence. The plaintiff can see what factual issues there are, and he can then take steps and incur expense in adducing where necessary firsthand evidence on these issues, before the hearing. In this way the genuine issues can be resolved properly and fairly in the interests of the defendant and in the public interest. This procedure does not prejudice a fair and just trial of the issues.
Staying the disqualification application
I turn to the third question. On 4 September 1990 the company, acting by the administrators, issued a writ against Mr Warren claiming repayment of £200,000 paid by the company in March 1988 to Mr Warren or a company owned by him in connection with a proposed share purchase. A statement of claim was served, followed by an application for summary judgment. Mr Warren made an affidavit explaining why no money was owed to the company even though the proposed share purchase did not proceed. On 9 January 1991 the application for summary judgment was adjourned to the judge. There the matter rests. The action has remained dormant ever since. The application has never been disposed of. Apparently there is a possibility that the company may be relisted on the unlisted securities market. If that happens, it will then be for the new management to decide whether to proceed with the action.
This disqualification application was launched in the following year on 27 April, just within the two-year period prescribed by s 7(2) of the Disqualification Act. In the disqualification application the Secretary of State is relying mainly on the same matters as those in issue in the action. The defendants submitted that those matters should be determined in the action. The action was brought by administrators appointed by the court, and in the action Mr Warren will have the benefit of being able to require that the plaintiff company first prove its case by strictly admissible evidence before he is called upon to adduce any evidence in his own defence. Had it not been for the two-year limit, the Secretary of State would have awaited the outcome of the action before seeking a disqualification order. The court should exercise its discretion against duplication of proceedings.
I am not impressed by these submissions. The proceedings are brought by the Secretary of State in the public interest. There is a public interest in disqualification orders being made in respect of unfit directors of insolvent companies. Section 6(4) of the Disqualification Act prescribes a minimum period of disqualification of two years. It cannot, in general, be right that disqualification proceedings should await the outcome of parallel private litigation. The protection afforded to the public by a disqualification order should not have to wait on the determination of other claims against a director and the speed at which the parties choose to proceed with them. Here there has been no movement in the administrators’ action for almost two years. Mr Warren has taken no step to hasten on those proceedings. I can see no justification for staying the disqualification proceedings because of the existence of this presently dormant action. The disqualification proceedings may prove to be mistaken. The allegations of misconduct against the
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defendants may turn out to be without substance. That is a matter to be determined at the hearing of the disqualification application. The application should proceed to that hearing in the ordinary way.
Conclusion
For these reasons I shall not grant the relief sought in paras 1 to 3 of the defendants’ summons.
Order accordingly.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Redbourne
[1993] 2 All ER 753
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STAUGHTON LJ, McKINNON AND POTTER JJ
Hearing Date(s): 8, 19 JUNE 1992
Drugs – Drug trafficking – Confiscation order – Proceeds of drug trafficking – Assumptions to be made – Assumption that defendant has benefited from drug trafficking – Whether judge required to be satisfied on evidence that defendant has benefited from drug trafficking – Whether judge may make assumption on reasonable suspicion as to proceeds of drug trafficking – Standard of proof – Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986, s 2.
The appellant was found by police to be in possession of about 26 kg of cannabis resin, valued at £50,000, and was charged with possessing a class B controlled drug with intent to supply. He pleaded guilty and was sentenced to two years’ imprisonment and, following an inquiry under the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986, a confiscation order in the sum of £61,886 with two years’ imprisonment in default was made. He appealed against the confiscation order on the grounds (i) that the judge had erred in finding that he had benefited from drug trafficking within the terms of the 1986 Act and in finding that it was appropriate to apply the assumption under s 2(3)a of that Act that property received by him over the six years preceding his conviction was the proceeds of drug trafficking, (ii) that the judge had misdirected himself as to the manner in which that assumption should be applied and (iii) that, even if it was appropriate to make that assumption, he was wrong in holding that the assumption had not been shown to be incorrect in respect of income from other criminal activity not involving drugs.
Held – When deciding whether a defendant had benefited from drug trafficking for the purposes of making a confiscation order under the 1986 Act the judge had to have some reason to suspect that the defendant had benefited from the drug trafficking before making the assumptions contained in s 2(3) of that Act but he was not required to go as far as being satisfied on the evidence that that was so. The decision whether to make the statutory assumptions was an interim decision which could be made at the start of the inquiry or at a later stage and no standard of proof arose when it was being made, since it was neither necessary nor sensible to apply any standard of proof to the question whether there was reason to suspect
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that the defendant had benefited from drug trafficking. The civil standard of proof applied to the defendant when he was rebutting, under s 2(2), assumptions made under s 2(3), but if he failed to rebut an assumption it stood as a fact. Since the judge had properly approached the case in accordance with the requirements of s 2 the confiscation order had accordingly been correctly made. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 758 a b e to h, p 759 b e to g, p 760 e f and p 761 d, post).
R v Dickens [1990] 2 All ER 626 applied.
Notes
For the confiscation of proceeds of drug trafficking, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1305–1310, and for cases on the subject, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 386–388, 21834–21838.2.
For the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986, s 2, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 991.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Dickens [1990] 2 All ER 626, [1990] 2 QB 102, [1990] 2 WLR 1384, CA.
R v Enwezor (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 661, CA.
Thomas (disclosure order), Re [1992] 4 All ER 814, sub nom Re T (restraint order: disclosure of assets) [1992] 1 WLR 949, CA.
Case also cited
R v Comiskey (1990) 12 Cr App R (S) 562, CA.
Appeal against sentence
Clifford Alan Redbourne appealed against a confiscation order in the sum of £61,886 with two years’ imprisonment in default made on 17 May 1991 in the Crown Court at Snaresbrook before Judge Gordon under the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 following his plea of guilty on 22 October 1990 to, inter alia, a charge of possessing a class B controlled drug with intent to supply. He was also sentenced to two years’ imprisonment. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Robert Neill (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Andrew R Mitchell (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Central Confiscation Unit) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
19 June 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
STAUGHTON LJ. This appeal is against a confiscation order under the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986, which followed the report of the Hodgson Committee on The Profits of Crime and their Recovery (1984). We were asked by counsel for the Crown to adjourn it for consideration by a court of five judges. It is said that the operation of the 1986 Act is giving rise to difficulty in the Crown Court, and that points of major importance still need to be resolved even though there are already decisions of this court upon that Act. In this very case the appellant pleaded guilty in August 1990, according to the court record (elsewhere the date is said to be October 1990). But the inquiry under the 1986 Act only started on 29 April 1991, and then it took eight days.
In the event, we declined the prosecution’s invitation to adjourn the appeal.
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The one point upon which it was sought to argue that at least two previous decisions of this court were wrong does not, in the view that we take, need to be decided in this case. In view of what we do decide on other points, the Crown Prosecution Service will have to consider whether it is still necessary to contend that this court has erred in the past; and, if the answer is that it is necessary, they will have to find a case where the point is of crucial importance.
The facts
Clifford Redbourne pleaded guilty in the Crown Court at Snaresbrook before Judge Hicking to an offence of possessing a class B controlled drug with the intent to supply. He was eventually sentenced by Judge Gordon to imprisonment for two years; there was also a confiscation order in the sum of £61,886, with two years’ imprisonment in default. On another indictment Redbourne had pleaded guilty to handling stolen goods. For that he was fined £350, with 14 days concurrent in default. It is only against the confiscation order that he appeals.
The facts concerning the drug offence were that in March 1990 he was stopped by police in Leyton when driving his car, and 26.1 kg of cannabis resin valued at £50,000 were found in the boot. His explanation was that he had been engaged as a courier, on this occasion only, to transport the consignment for a modest reward of perhaps £2,000. He agreed to do so because he owed money. That in turn came about because a quantity of stolen goods which he was handling, and for which the police were on his track, had disappeared from where he had left them in his garden; and the supplier of the stolen goods wanted payment.
Inquiries by Det Con Lewis revealed 11 accounts at banks or building societies in the names of Mr Redbourne or his wife, or both of them, or in former names of Mrs Redbourne. The total of amounts credited to those accounts in the six years preceding the present charge was £233,154.88. There were also two properties which they had purchased, partly on mortgage; and money had been spent on renovation. In her statement Det Con Lewis concluded that in her opinion, after taking into account a number of other matters, Redbourne had benefited from drug trafficking to the extent of £249,547, and that his realisable assets amounted to £149,605.83.
The Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986
This provides:
‘1.—(1) Subject to subsection (7) below, where a person appears before the Crown Court to be sentenced in respect of one or more drug trafficking offences (and has not previously been sentenced or otherwise dealt with in respect of his conviction for the offence or, as the case may be, any of the offences concerned), the court shall act as follows.
(2) The court shall first determine whether he has benefited from drug trafficking.
(3) For the purposes of this Act, a person who has at any time (whether before or after the commencement of this section) received any payment or other reward in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him or another has benefited from drug trafficking …
2.—(1) For the purposes of this Act—(a) any payments or other rewards received by a person at any time (whether before or after the commencement of section 1 of this Act) in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him or another are his proceeds of drug trafficking, and (b) the value of his proceeds of drug trafficking is the aggregate of the values of the payments or other rewards.
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(2) The Court may, for the purpose of determining whether the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking and, if he has, of assessing the value of his proceeds of drug trafficking, make the following assumptions, except to the extent that any of the assumptions are shown to be incorrect in the defendant’s case.
(3) Those assumptions are—(a) that any property appearing to the court—(i) to have been held by him at any time since his conviction, or (ii) to have been transferred to him at any time since the beginning of the period of six years ending when the proceedings were instituted against him, was received by him, at the earliest time at which he appears to the court to have held it, as a payment or reward in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him, (b) that any expenditure of his since the beginning of that period was met out of payments received by him in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him, and (c) that, for the purpose of valuing any property received or assumed to have been received by him at any time as such a reward, he received the property free of any other interests in it …
3.—(1) Where—(a) there is tendered to the Crown Court by the prosecutor a statement as to any matters relevant to the determination whether the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking or to the assessment of the value of his proceeds of drug trafficking, and (b) the defendant accepts to any extent any allegation in the statement, the court may, for the purposes of that determination and assessment, treat his acceptance as conclusive of the matters to which it relates.
(2) Where—(a) a statement is tendered under subsection (1)(a) above, and (b) the court is satisfied that a copy of that statement has been served on the defendant, the court may require the defendant to indicate to what extent he accepts each allegation in the statement and, so far as he does not accept any such allegation, to indicate any matters he proposes to rely on.
(3) If the defendant fails in any respect to comply with a requirement under subsection (2) above he may be treated for the purposes of this section as accepting every allegation in the statement apart from—(a) any allegation in respect of which he has complied with the requirement, and (b) any allegation that he has benefited from drug trafficking or that any payment or other reward was received by him in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him or another …’
The issues that were raised before us were as follows. (a) What is the standard of proof, if any, imposed upon the prosecution by the 1986 Act? (b) How should a judge decide whether to make the assumptions referred to in s 2(3)? (c) What is the effect of the assumptions if they are not rebutted by or on behalf of the defendant? (d) Was the judge entitled to attribute no more than £10,000 of the defendant’s income to his trade, not in drugs, but in selling other counterfeit goods?
(a) The standard of proof
This court decided in R v Dickens [1990] 2 All ER 626, [1990] 2 QB 102 that the criminal standard applies. That was plainly stated by Lord Lane CJ ([1990] 2 All ER 626 at 629, [1990] 2 QB 102 at 106):
‘In our judgment the context of the Act and the nature of the penalties which are likely to be imposed make it clear that the standard of proof required is the criminal standard, namely proof so that the judge feels sure or proof beyond reasonable doubt.’
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In that case the appeal was dismissed, so that the point may not have been critical. But in R v Enwezor (1990) 12 Cr App R (S) 661, before another division of this court, it was critical, because the judge was satisfied on the balance of probabilities but not by the criminal standard. The confiscation order that he made was quashed in part, because the court followed what Lord Lane CJ had said in R v Dickens.
In the present case Mr Mitchell for the prosecution wished to argue that the point was wrongly decided in R v Dickens and that the burden is indeed the balance of probabilities, because the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 is not penal: it is dealing with redress, reparation or unjust enrichment, not penalties. If it were penal, he submitted, the United Kingdom would be in breach of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969). He referred in particular to art 6, which provides:
‘(2). Everyone charged with a criminal offence shall be presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law.
(3). Everyone charged with a criminal offence has the following minimum rights … (d) to examine or have examined witnesses against him …’
and to art 7, which provides:
‘(1) … Nor shall a heavier penalty be imposed than the one that was applicable at the time the criminal offence was committed …’
However, he also suggested that the United Kingdom may have been restored to a position of respecting its international obligations by the United Nations Convention against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (Vienna, 20 December 1988; TS 26 (1992); Cm 1927). That provides in art 5(7):
‘Each Party may consider ensuring that the onus of proof be reversed regarding the lawful origin of alleged proceeds or other property liable to confiscation, to the extent that such action is consistent with the principles of its domestic law and with the nature of the judicial or other proceedings.’
Faced with the unusual situation of counsel for the Crown arguing that, on the construction of the 1986 Act previously adopted by the courts, the United Kingdom was in breach of its international obligations, Mr Neill for the appellant adopted an equally unusual stance. He argued that the statute was penal, that the criminal standard of proof did apply and that any amount of breach of international obligations could not alter that.
We were also referred to Re Thomas (disclosure order) [1992] 4 All ER 814, [1992] 1 WLR 949 as showing that in the view of the Court of Appeal, Civil Division, the 1986 Act is not penal.
As we have already said, we do not find it necessary to decide the point in this case. So far as we are concerned R v Dickens and R v Enwezor state the law on the point, unless and until some court with power to do so decides otherwise. We have set out the argument for the prosecution, to the extent that we allowed it to be developed. But we do not thereby mean to give it credence.
There was an alternative argument for the prosecution, to which the same observations apply. This was that, as s 1(2) requires the court to determine whether the defendant has benefited, there is no burden on either side, or at any rate none on the prosecution; the proceeding is not adversarial but inquisitorial.
It is, we suppose, conceivable that Parliament intended the judge to make his own inquiries and (through court channels or otherwise) to ask banks and building societies if the defendant had any money with them, and to examine
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him (if he were willing or compelled to be examined) as to how that came about. But such a process, although favoured by some other nations, would be so foreign to our law that we would expect Parliament to say so expressly if it were intended. Without any such indication, it seems clear to us that the process must remain adversarial in character. We regard an appropriate test as to where the burden of proof lies as provided by the question: who will lose if no evidence is called? It must, in English procedure, be the prosecution—unless the assumptions provided by the 1986 Act lead to a different result.
(b) How should a judge decide whether to make the assumptions referred to in s 2(3)?
The 1986 Act provides no express answer to this question. Section 2(2) says only that the court ‘may’ make the assumptions. In our view it follows that the judge is not obliged to make them in every case, but must decide whether to make them or not.
Judge Gordon in the present case said that neither his own researches nor those of counsel had yielded any guidance on this point. Nor has any authority upon it been referred to in this appeal. But we cannot believe that a judge is entitled to make the assumptions for no reason, or on capricious grounds. Mr Mitchell argues that the judge has an unfettered discretion, and that we should do nothing to fetter it. He accepts only that the decision must not be one which no reasonable judge could make—in other words, a decision which is irrational in public law terms.
Since these cases are proving troublesome, we think that some further guidance of a limited nature ought to be given. First, it cannot have been the intention of Parliament that the judge must be satisfied on the evidence before him that the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking, before he makes any assumption at all; still less that he must be satisfied as to the value of the proceeds of drug trafficking. If that were the law there would be no point in the elaborate procedure for assumptions; furthermore s 2(2) provides that the assumptions may be made for the purpose of determining whether the defendant has benefited, and if so the value of his proceeds.
In our view the judge must have some reason to suspect that the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking before he makes the assumptions or any of them.
The 1986 Act does not specify the stage of the proceedings at which the assumptions may be made. The concluding words of s 2(2), ‘… except to the extent that any of the assumptions are shown to be incorrect in the defendant’s case’, might be thought to indicate, grammatically, that no assumption may be made until the defendant’s case is concluded. We do not believe that to be the true meaning of the section. A judge’s decision whether or not to make the assumptions is an interim one which falls to be made on his way to reaching his final decision, such final decision involving a full consideration of the defendant’s case and whether (once fully deployed) it is sufficient to negate any assumptions made. In an appropriate case, the judge is entitled to make the assumptions at the start of his inquiry, for example if he has reason to do so from the circumstances of the offence for which the defendant has been convicted. Or the judge may do so at any later stage, up to the time when he makes his final decision.
In the present case Judge Gordon gave careful consideration as to whether he should make any assumptions, and gave his reasons for doing so with his decision. They were briefly as follows: (i) the offence itself, although the defendant did not supply drugs or receive money on this occasion; (ii) the amount and value of the drugs involved; (iii) the ‘unrealistic and incredible’ explanation which the defendant gave as to how he became involved; (iv) the number of different bank and building society accounts, and the sums in them; (v) the fact that his arrest
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‘triggered a high degree of activity, designed specifically to conceal or remove funds in the accounts’; (vi) the apparent lifestyle of the defendant, particularly as it appeared from photographs of his house and ‘objects’ there. According to Det Con Lewis, Mr and Mrs Redbourne had been unemployed and claiming income support for approximately the last 12 years; (vii) the criminal record of a number of his associates, who had convictions for drugs amongst other matters.
Those were in our judgment amply sufficient as reasons to suspect that the defendant had benefited from drug trafficking. In other cases there may be a whole variety of other reasons; these can be no more than examples.
Mr Neill sought to confine the reasons which a judge might act upon to material which specifically showed that money which the defendant had received in the relevant period was received in a drug context, for example evidence which showed that he had been involved in other drug dealing. We do not accept that there is any such limitation.
It was also argued by Mr Neill that a judge should apply the assumptions with caution. Of course any decision of a judge should be made with care. But if the submission is that there is any bias in the 1986 Act against making the assumptions, we do not accept it. It is true that, for reasons which we will explain, the assumptions once made have a drastic effect—some have said draconian. However, that was plainly the intention of Parliament.
For the avoidance of doubt, we add that no question of the standard of proof arises when the judge is deciding whether the assumptions should be made. That is essentially a threshold decision, at whatever stage it is taken. We cannot see that it is necessary or sensible to apply any standard of proof to the question whether there is reason to suspect that the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking.
We reject the argument that Judge Gordon was wrong to make the one assumption that he did make, namely that in s 2(3)(a). The other two assumptions in s 2(3) were not relevant to this case.
(c) What is the effect of the assumptions if they are not rebutted?
An assumption, in this context, is the acceptance of something as true which is not already known or proved, and therefore may or may not be true. If the court is directed or empowered to make an assumption, that means that the court must or may take the assumed fact as true. It matters not for that purpose whether the standard of proof is criminal or civil; whichever standard is appropriate, the assumed fact is still to be treated as true.
The exception in s 2(2) allows the defendant to rebut an assumption, and places on him the burden of doing so. He has only the civil burden, on the balance of probabilities (see R v Dickens [1990] 2 All ER 626 at 629, [1990] 2 QB 102 at 107). If he fails to discharge that burden, the assumption stands as fact.
We have been concerned as to whether two passages in the judgment of Lord Lane CJ in R v Dickens show that reasoning to be incorrect. After referring to the standard of proof as being the criminal standard, he said ([1990] 2 All ER 626 at 629, [1990] 2 QB 102 at 106):
‘What may thus seem at first sight to be a heavy burden on the prosecution is considerably lightened by the provisions of s 2(2) …’
He then referred to the assumptions and the possibility that they might be rebutted, and continued ([1990] 2 All ER 626 at 629–630, [1990] 2 QB 102 at 107):
‘In so far as any of them survive they will, together with any evidence which the judge may accept, assist the judge to decide whether he is satisfied
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so as to feel sure that the prosecution have made out their case. Thus the initial burden on the prosecution is greatly lightened by the potential assumptions.’
We do not believe that Lord Lane CJ intended to say that any fact covered by an assumption which was not rebutted might yet need further evidence to establish it before the burden on the prosecution could be regarded as satisfied. We consider that his words were intended to do no more than acknowledge that unrebutted assumptions might cover only part of the prosecution’s case and that other evidence might well be needed to convince the judge that other aspects of that case—on which assumptions had been rebutted or where facts in issue were never covered by an assumption in the first place—were proved to the criminal standard.
We have also had to consider s 3(1), which provides that in certain circumstances facts in a prosecution statement are to be treated as conclusive against the defendant. That carries the implication that in other circumstances they are not conclusive. Lord Lane CJ said ([1990] 2 All ER 626 at 630, [1990] 2 QB 102 at 107):
‘It is clear from these provisions that, where the prosecution statement is not accepted by the defendant, the prosecution, if they wish to rely on any of its contents, must adduce evidence to establish them.’
Again, we do not read Lord Lane CJ as saying that in those circumstances any assumptions properly made cease to have effect. He was referring to matters which the prosecution might need to prove notwithstanding the availability of assumptions, such as the date and amount of sums received or held by the defendant.
In our judgment the judge properly approached this case by making the assumption referred to in s 2(3)(a). Then he considered what property appeared to the court (i) to have been held by the defendant at any time since his conviction, or (ii) to have been transferred to him in the relevant period of six years. There was little if any dispute about that. Finally the judge considered to what extent the defendant had, by the civil standard, rebutted the assumption that such property had been received by the defendant as a payment or reward in connection with drug trafficking. The judge carried out the last task in careful detail, and arrived at a total sum of £61,886.
(d) Was the judge entitled to attribute no more than £10,000 of the defendant’s income to his trade, not in drugs, but in other counterfeit goods?
The defendant said in evidence that he had earned £40,000 by dealing in counterfeit perfume and clothing and in associated dishonest dealings. A Mr Coles gave evidence that he had been involved in those dealings. Not surprisingly, the judge did not rate the credibility of either as a witness very highly. There were no documents or accounts to support that evidence. What the judge said was:
‘Having heard the evidence, on balance I accept that there was some activity in those areas. I have no reliable evidence at all as to the extent of that activity and I have had to consider whether or not, since I have no such reliable evidence, I should not say that the assumption has not been shown to be incorrect to any specific sum. But it seems to me that, once I accept that there was some activity, it would be wrong to take that view, and would be over-harsh, even though I am dealing with what is said to be draconian legislation. It seems to me that I have to do the best that I can on the material
Page 761 of [1993] 2 All ER 753
before me to come to some form of judgment in order to be fair and even with draconian legislation it is still the overriding duty of the courts to be fair. Well, on Mr Coles’s evidence in relation to perfume he put the period of activity, excluding times when one or the other was not available because he was in custody, at something that I estimate at being 3½ to 4 years. The defendant speaks of eight years and 20,000 bottles. I do not accept that. It seems to me, doing the best that I can, that, in relation to the areas that I have been considering now, his activities at their maximum could only have made a profit after expenditure of an average of £100 a week, from that combination. However, it is likely in my judgment and from what I have said earlier about Mr Redbourne being a “cash man”, that the vast majority of that sum was not only paid in cash, and is part of a cash business, but remained in cash and never featured in any of the accounts at all. I take the view that, from that combination of activities, the very most over the six-year period that would have appeared in any of the accounts is some £10,000. That is the sum in relation to which the assumption—I say with some hesitation—has been shown not to be correct.’
We see no reason whatever to say that the judge was wrong in that conclusion. This appeal must be dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Rose
[1993] 2 All ER 761
Categories: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): WATKINS LJ, LEONARD AND ALLIOTT JJ
Hearing Date(s): 2, 3 NOVEMBER, 22 DECEMBER 1992
Drugs – Drug trafficking – Confiscation order – Proceeds of drug trafficking – Assumptions to be made – Assumption with respect to property ‘appearing to the court’ to have been received as proceeds of drug trafficking – Whether judge may make assumption as to proceeds of drug trafficking on reasonable suspicion – Whether judge required to make assumption on basis of to prima facie evidence – Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986, s 2(3)(a).
On the true construction of s 2(3)a of the Drug Trafficking Act 1986, the assumption which the court may make that any property ‘appearing to the court’ to have been received by the defendant over the six years preceding his conviction is the proceeds of drug trafficking is to be made on the basis of prima facie evidence that property has been held by or transferred to the defendant as a payment or reward in connection with his drug trafficking, and not merely because the court has some reason to suspect that the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking (see p 765 j to p 766 a c, post).
R v Dickens [1990] 2 All ER 626 applied.
Dicta of Staughton LJ in R v Redbourne [1993] 2 All ER 753 at 758, 759 doubted.
Page 762 of [1993] 2 All ER 761
Notes
For confiscation of the proceeds of drug trafficking, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1305–1310, and for cases on the subject see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 386–388, 21834–21838.2.
For the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986, s 2, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 991.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Bragason [1988] Crim LR 778, CA.
R v Dickens [1990] 2 All ER 626, [1990] 2 QB 102, [1990] 2 WLR 1384, CA.
R v Enwezor (1991) 93 Cr App R 233, CA.
R v Hunt [1987] 1 All ER 1, [1987] AC 352, [1986] 3 WLR 1115, HL.
R v Redbourne [1993] 2 All ER 753, [1992] 1 WLR 1182, CA.
R v Walden (30 November 1987, unreported), CA.
Appeal against sentence
James Edward Rose appealed with the leave of the full court against a confiscation order in the sum of £2,304,679.51 imposed by Judge Watling QC on 15 January 1990 under the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 following his plea of guilty on 24 September 1989 in the Crown Court at Chelmsford to a charge of conspiring fraudulently to evade the prohibition on the importation of cannabis resin. He also appealed against his sentence of 12 years’ imprisonment. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court
John Mathew QC and Clare Montgomery (neither of whom appeared below) (instructed by Henry Milner & Co) for the appellant.
Richard Sutton and Linda Dobbs (instructed by the Solicitor for the Customs and Excise) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
22 December 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
ALLIOTT J. On 24 September 1989 in the Crown Court at Chelmsford before Judge Watling QC the appellant James Rose, to whom we gave leave to appeal against sentence, and the applicant Small, whose application therefor we have adjourned, pleaded guilty to conspiring fraudulently to evade a prohibition on importation of a controlled drug (count 1). On that date the appellant’s son, Richard Rose, pleaded guilty to being knowingly concerned in the fraudulent evasion of the prohibition on importation of a controlled drug (count 2).
On 15 December another co-accused named Martin Reeves was convicted of count 2. They were all sentenced on 15 January 1990 as follows: James Rose, 12 years’ imprisonment, confiscation order in the sum of £2,304,679.51 with 10 years’ imprisonment consecutive in default; Small, 10 years’ imprisonment, confiscation order in the sum of £379,835.27 with 5 years’ imprisonment consecutive in default; Richard Rose, 7 years’ imprisonment, confiscation order of £83,794.85 with 2 years’ imprisonment consecutive in default; Martin Reeves, 9 years’ imprisonment.
Richard Rose and Martin Reeves renewed applications for leave to appeal against sentence after refusal by the single judge but subsequently abandoned them. A co-accused, George, was convicted of two offences of arranging the retention or control of the proceeds of drug trafficking (counts 3 and 4) and was sentenced to concurrent terms of nine years’ imprisonment on each count. A
Page 763 of [1993] 2 All ER 761
confiscation order in the sum of £91,237.20 was made, with two years’ imprisonment consecutive in default. Two others, Monehan and John Reeves, were acquitted on counts 1 and 2 and were discharged.
The case involves a large-scale scheme to import cannabis resin (count 1). The principal in the smuggling operation, within the jurisdiction at least, was James Rose and Small was his ‘first lieutenant’. Richard Rose assisted in the final importation (count 2). Reeves, who had acquired some expertise in radio, advised the others on evading police and customs surveillance during the final operation.
Several companies were formed or taken over to act as cover for the importation of large quantities of cannabis resin. The companies, whom we shall call ‘Goldpride’, ‘Taronmore’ and ‘G C & A Williams Ltd’, were controlled by James Rose and Small. The companies were interconnected, with payments into each other’s bank accounts and fictitious names and addresses were used.
Seemingly legitimate cargoes of goods were imported. Concealed within the consignment was cannabis resin, which was removed at a distribution point, before the legitimate cargo was allowed to proceed.
The Crown was able to refer to five major transactions, which are set out in schedule 11. In April 1986 Goldpride imported stearic acid, the weight of which was known to be 16,800 kg. Only 11,517 kg was passed on to legitimate distributors. The Crown deemed the missing 5,283 kg to have been cannabis resin. On 31 July 1986 Goldpride imported a consignment of bleaching powder; 26,400 kg was contained in 528 50-kg drums. Only 468 drums went to the warehouse. The missing 3,000 kg was deemed to have been cannabis resin. On 30 April 1987 mango chutney pickles, whose weight was shown as 19,200 kg, were imported by Taronmore. Disposal for only 14,000 kg was sought. The 5,200 kg weight difference was deemed to have been made up of cannabis resin.
The next two importations failed.
On 2 July 1987 Indian customs authorities seized 4,365 kg of cannabis resin, concealed in a consignment of 20,520 kg of mango chutney. The importer was Taronmore. On 31 March 1988 a consignment of liquorice root, the weight of which was given as 16,800 kg, arrived in England. The importer was G C & A Williams Ltd. Customs officers removed 2,406 kg of cannabis resin and monitored the progress of the liquorice root to a store in south London.
The Crown calculated that full payment to the drug suppliers for the first three importations and part payment for the two unsuccessful ones would have been £4,961,917.
This judgment is concerned only with the confiscation order made against the appellant after a ten day hearing on 15 January 1990. In fairness to the trial judge and counsel then engaged it should be noted that that was at a time when, in the words of the judge, the working of the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 was in its ‘comparative infancy’ and before Lord Lane CJ gave general guidance in R v Dickens [1990] 2 All ER 626 at 628–630, [1990] 2 QB 102 at 105–107. Lord Lane CJ stated in giving the judgment of the court:
‘It is plain that the object of the Act is to ensure, so far as is possible, that the convicted drug trafficker is parted from the proceeds of any drug trafficking which he has carried out. The provisions are intentionally draconian. Since the amount of those proceeds and the size of his realisable assets at the time of conviction are likely to be peculiarly within the defendant’s knowledge, it is not surprising perhaps if evidential burdens are cast on him of a kind which are, to say the least, unusual in the area of the criminal law and this despite the fact that the confiscation order and the penalties for failing to comply with it may be rigorous. The sequence of
Page 764 of [1993] 2 All ER 761
events as appears from the 1986 Act is as follows. (1) The defendant appears before the Crown Court for sentence, having been convicted in respect of a drug trafficking offence. By virtue of s 1(4), to which reference has already been made, the judge must then decide whether or not to pass sentence immediately in the usual way. If it is a case where the defendant may have benefited from drug trafficking, sentence must be postponed until after the necessary inquiries and determinations have been made. These are threefold: (a) whether he has benefited from drug trafficking (s 1(2)); (b) the extent to which he has benefited (s 1(4)); and (c) the amount the defendant shall be ordered to pay under 1(5)(a). (2) The court determines in accordance with s 2 the amount which represents the benefit he has received from drug trafficking. (3) The court determines the amount that the defendant shall be ordered to pay in accordance with s 4 of the Act. Thus the judge has to make preliminary assessment as to whether it is, or is likely to be, a “benefit” case or not. No doubt the evidence from the trial, if there has been one, or from a recital of the facts if there has been a plea, will be enough for him to form such a preliminary assessment. If he decides that it is such a case, then comes the task of deciding the three questions which have just been set out. The investigation is not confined to proceeds accruing from the particular offences on which he stands convicted, again an unusual feature of the Act. Section 1(3) provides: “For the purposes of this Act, a person who has at any time (whether before or after the commencement of this section) received any payment or other reward in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him or another has benefited from drug trafficking.” Section 2(1) provides as follows: “For the purposes of this Act—(a) any payments or other rewards received by a person at any time (whether before or after the commencement of section 1 of this Act) in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him or another are his proceeds of drug trafficking, and (b) the value of his proceeds of drug trafficking is the aggregate of the values of the payments or other rewards.” The prosecution have the task of proving both the fact that the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking and the amount of such benefit. In our judgment the context of the Act and the nature of the penalties which are likely to be imposed make it clear that the standard of proof required is the criminal standard, namely proof so that the judge feels sure or proof beyond reasonable doubt. The evidence on which that judgment is based will come in part from the … statements tendered by the parties to the court under s 3 of the Act (with which we shall deal later in this judgment) and in part from evidence adduced before the court. What may thus seem at first sight to be a heavy burden on the prosecution is considerably lightened by the provisions of s 2(2) and (3), which reads as follows: “(2) The court may, for the purpose of determining whether the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking and, if he has, of assessing the value of his proceeds of drug trafficking, make the following assumptions, except to the extent that any of the assumptions are shown to be incorrect in the defendant’s case. (3) Those assumptions are—(a) that any property appearing to the court—(i) to have been held by him at any time since his conviction, or (ii) to have been transferred to him at any time since the beginning of the period of six years ending when the proceedings were instituted against him, was received by him, at the earliest time at which he appears to the court to have held it, as a payment or reward in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him, (b) that any expenditure of his since the beginning of that period was met out of payments received by him in connection with drug trafficking carried on by him, and (c) that, for the purpose of valuing any property
Page 765 of [1993] 2 All ER 761
received or assumed to have been received by him at any time as such a reward, he received the property free of any other interests in it.” The words “appearing to the court” in our judgment mean that, if there is prima facie evidence that any property has been held by the defendant since his conviction or was transferred to him since the beginning of the relevant period, the judge may make the assumption that it was a payment or reward in connection with his drug trafficking. Likewise with expenditure, once there is prima facie evidence of expenditure by the defendant since the beginning of the relevant period, the judge can assume that it was met out of payments received by him from drug trafficking. Those assumptions can be displaced if they are “shown to be incorrect in the defendant’s case”. In other words, if after the matter has been fully heard the defendant shows on the balance of probabilities that in respect of each item of property and expenditure the assumptions are in his case correct, they can no longer be relied on as evidence that that item of property or expenditure was part of the defendant’s proceeds of drug trafficking. In so far as any of them survive they will, together with any evidence which the judge may accept, assist the judge to decide whether he is satisfied so as to feel sure that the prosecution have made out their case. Thus the initial heavy burden on the prosecution is greatly lightened by the potential assumptions.’
Judge Watling having, in his judgment, applied his mind to the working of the Act generally and to s 2(2) especially, and having cited judicial interpretations of the words ‘appears to the court’ in another context, continued:
‘In other words, “appears to the court” meant an opinion based on the information provided to it. If, therefore, in proceedings under the Drug Trafficking Offences Act the court is of the opinion on the facts placed before it that moneys in issue are the proceeds of drug trafficking, it may in the exercise of its discretion assume that they are indeed such proceeds unless the contrary is proved. Dr Thomas, in his commentary on R v Bragason [1988] Crim LR 778 at 780, writes: “The court can clearly take account of a wide range of material which would not be sufficient to establish guilt if the normal criminal standards applied, and may if it chooses (the assumptions set out in section 2 are [as I have already said] discretionary) effectively reverse the normal onus of proof, requiring the offender to show that the assumption does not apply in his case.” I am satisfied, applying the principles enunciated in R v Hunt [1987] 1 All ER 1, [1987] AC 352, and looking at the plain words of s 2(2), that Parliament, in the actual words that it has used, has expressed the intention as spelt out by the minister in the passages that I have cited. As I go through the cases of each defendant it will become clear that in respect of certain matters I have been satisfied so that I am sure, that in respect of certain other matters I have applied the assumption as I have understood it, and in certain instances I have not applied the assumption.’ (My emphasis.)
As will become plain when we come to the specific grounds of appeal in this case, the judge found that the Crown had discharged the criminal burden of proof in respect of most of the alleged benefits we have been concerned with. We agree that if admissible evidence satisfies a judge so that he is sure that any given sum is a benefit then there is no need for him to proceed by way of s 2(2) at all. But if the procedure under s 2(2) is invoked the guidance in R v Dickens must be strictly observed especially bearing in mind that (a) ‘appearing to the court’ means there must be prima facie evidence which entitles the judge (b) to make the assumptions
Page 766 of [1993] 2 All ER 761
which (c) can be rebutted by evidence called on behalf of the defendant on the balance of probabilities.
Mr Sutton, for the Crown, has referred us to R v Redbourne [1993] 2 All ER 753, [1992] 1 WLR 1182. Giving the judgment of the court Staughton LJ while affirming that Dickens and R v Enwezor (1991) 93 Cr App R 233 state the law on the point continues ([1993] 2 All ER 753 at 758, [1992] 1 WLR 1182 at 1187): ‘In our view the judge must have some reason to suspect that the defendant has benefited from drug trafficking before he makes the assumptions or any of them…’ and ([1993] 2 All ER 753 at 759, [1992] 1 WLR 1182 at 1188): ‘Those were in our judgment amply sufficient as reasons to suspect that the defendant had benefited from drug trafficking.' We feel bound to say with respect that the use of the word ‘suspect’ in those two citations is, in our view, having regard to the definition in R v Dickens of ‘appearing to the court’ as meaning prima facie evidence wrong and potentially misleading. Its use should be avoided.
We now turn to the specific grounds of appeal.
Ground (i) related to items 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 38 in schedule 12. The first five items were deposits accepted by the appellant as held by him; the last was the interest accrued thereon. There were, therefore, no problems about prima facie evidence in respect of these items. It was, therefore, open to the judge to consider making the necessary assumption as they fell comfortably within the six year time limit. Should he have done so as he did in his judgment? At no stage had the Crown suggested active participation in drug trafficking on the part of the appellant before 1986. They had conceded two items in this category (2 and 7) as coming or possibly coming from an innocent source. The appellant himself had denied involvement before 1986 but his evidence was rejected out of hand by the trial judge and this court would, in principle, be very slow indeed to take a contrary view.
However, we have come to the conclusion that upon the whole of the evidence this was an unwarranted assumption. The Crown accepted that the appellant was in some respects a bona fide businessman as exemplified by their concessions on items 2 and 7. Thus it was wrong, in our view, for the judge to make the assumption covering the period before the Crown alleged overt trafficking on the part of the appellant.
Ground (ii) related to items 39, 40, 41 and 42 in schedule 12. All four items were deposits made before 1986 in the bank accounts of two companies, Goldpride and Bilstone, of which it was admitted the appellant had control after 1986. The judge expressed himself as ‘quite satisfied that (these two companies amongst others) were all set up and run by’ the appellant. There was, we think, scant evidence upon which he could be so satisfied and we consider that he was wrong to have held that the criminal burden of proof had been discharged by the Crown. Later control of the companies could have amounted to prima facie evidence of earlier control. So it would have been open to the judge in those circumstances to have made the necessary assumption. However for the reasons that we have given upon the first ground of appeal we do not think he would have been justified in doing so.
Ground (iii) related to items 8, 12, 18 and 51 in schedule 12. The first three items related to payment for the cover commodities within which the first three importations in schedule 11 had been made. The last was the estimated cost of the drugs in no less a sum than £4,961,917. The judge did not resort to the assumption under this head but expressed himself satisfied that the appellant had caused all four items to be paid for. Primarily he relied upon his finding that the appellant was the ringleader of the conspiracy and the admission by the appellant that he caused payment to be made for the liquorice root which was the cover
Page 767 of [1993] 2 All ER 761
commodity in the fifth importation in schedule 11. We do not consider that the available evidence discharged the criminal burden of proof upon the Crown. But the admission that the appellant caused payment to be made for the liquorice root is prima facie evidence of payment for the earlier cover commodities. Accordingly it was, in our view, open to the judge to make the assumption in respect of those payments and we think he should have done so. The appellant denied making the payments but the judge, as we have already said, rejected his evidence as he was entitled to do. By application of the assumption and rejection of the rebuttal evidence the first three items could and should have been held to have been benefits.
We do not consider payment for the liquorice root amounts to prima facie evidence of payment for the drugs. True it was that the appellant was held to have been the ringleader in this country but a man called Adkins, a shadowy figure lurking in Amsterdam, where he was subsequently murdered, may well have been the paymaster for the drugs. Nothing in the accounts of the appellant or companies under his control suggests he had funds on this scale. The courts are perhaps more accustomed to drawing inferences than making assumptions. But the thought processes are very similar and neither exercise can properly be conducted without there being a valid basis upon the evidence for doing so. Suspicion there may be but that does not warrant the assumption being made in respect of payment for the drugs.
Ground (iv) related to items 33, 34 and 49B in schedule 12. They were respectively money transferred in respect of what was called the Adkins bond commission thereon and the increase in value thereof. Once again the judge did not resort to the assumption under this head but in his judgment expressed himself satisfied it was Rose’s money not Adkin’s. He did so on the basis that George had given evidence about it during his trial, to which the appellant was not party having pleaded guilty. This was inadmissible evidence upon the drug trafficking inquiry, a fact which the judge does not appear to have appreciated. He speaks of having listened to evidence for 14 weeks. Only the evidence of the ten day inquiry was admissible against the appellant. The judge also erred in saying: ‘Mr Rose has repeated that in evidence.' The judge was there confusing item 33 with item 36, another sum of approximately £200,000 which it is not in dispute was a benefit.
So, far from there being evidence to discharge the criminal burden of proof in respect of those items, there was not even prima facie evidence to warrant making the assumption. There is no basis, therefore, for finding these items to be the appellant’s benefits.
Happily this finding is likely to be academic. The bond now worth close on £¼m has been disclaimed by the appellant and is in the hands of the Customs and Excise, who will probably be able to realise it one way or another in due course.
It follows from the foregoing that in respect of all the items covered in the four grounds of appeal save items 8, 12 and 18 we differ from the trial judge and hold them not to be the appellant’s benefits from drug trafficking.
In what form should a proper order be? The judge found benefits to the value of £6,852,214.55 and assets of £2,413,434. As the former exceeded the latter he made pursuant to s 4, taking his various findings and assumptions into account, the confiscation order in the latter sum.
In calculating the benefits in accordance with our judgment we take as our starting point the final version of the schedule of benefits which is not in dispute and which was provided to us after we had reserved our judgment. It was prepared by Miss Montgomery, Mr Mathew QC’s junior. A sum of £44,085.15 at item 49A in that schedule increased the admitted sum to £1,349,128.15. To
Page 768 of [1993] 2 All ER 761
that we add the total of items 8, 12 and 18, which is £68,390.12. Thus the overall total is £1,417,518.27.
The judge took his figure for the appellant’s assets from schedule 13 in the sum already indicated. That schedule was amended in October 1992 and now totals £2,306,322.32 on paper although substantial falls in the value of items 21 to 23 seem likely to reduce the amount actually realisable. In any event we reduce it by £248,726.13, the value of the Adkins bond included at item 16b, to £2,057,596.19. Thus upon our findings the assets exceed the value of the benefits. Accordingly we quash the order made by the judge and pursuant to s 4 we make the confiscation order in the sum of the latter, namely £1,417,518.27.
So far as the applicant Small is concerned, we give him leave to appeal against sentence and grant him aid for one counsel only.
We now turn to consider the overall sentence imposed by the learned judge in this case. Mr Mathew urges upon us that it is manifest from his sentencing remarks that the judge sentenced the appellant upon the basis that had he not pleaded guilty he would have received the maximum sentence of 14 years, which the judge proceeded to discount by two years to give him credit for his plea of guilty and therefore arrived at the figure of 12 years.
Mr Mathew submits, and we must accept, that the judge carried out that exercise upon the basis that the appellant was not only the ringleader in this jurisdiction but also the paymaster for the drugs in the very considerable sum mentioned in his judgment upon the confiscation order. Mr Mathew says that in the light of our findings upon the confiscation order that is no longer a valid basis for sentencing.
Mr Mathew can go further, because he points to R v Walden (30 November 1987, unreported), decided in this court, which has a very close parallel with this case. In that case the trial judge had sentenced the apparent ringleader before the court in exactly the same way as Judge Watling did the appellant in the instant case. In R v Walden, there was also someone beyond the jurisdiction who was demonstrated to have been of more seniority in that conspiracy. Applying the reasoning expressed by this court on that earlier occasion, it seems quite plain that we must reduce the sentence in a comparable way. We do that by quashing the sentence of 12 years and imposing instead thereof a sentence of 10 years’ imprisonment.
We have considered the application for costs made by Mr Mathew. The order we make is that the appellant shall have his costs here and below, to be taxed out of central funds. The document placed before us as to the costs of the appeal, which has been agreed with the Customs and Excise, because of course they had to authorise release of the funds, may be placed before the taxing officer, but he is not to be bound by it.
To that extent this appeal against sentence is allowed.
Appeal allowed. Confiscation order in the sum of £2,304,679.51 quashed, and confiscation order in the sum of £1,417,518.27 substituted. Sentence of 12 years’ imprisonment quashed, and sentence of 10 years’ imprisonment substituted.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Steele Ford & Newton (a firm) v Crown Prosecution Service and related appeals
[1993] 2 All ER 769
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13 JANUARY, 26 MAY 1993
Costs – Jurisdiction – Costs of and incidental to all proceedings in Supreme Court – Jurisdiction to order costs out of central funds – Whether jurisdiction limited to cases where public funds provided by Parliament for payment of costs – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 51(1).
The respondent firms of solicitors were ordered to pay the whole or part of the prosecution costs in criminal trials in the Crown Court in which they had represented the defendants. They appealed against the costs orders to the Court of Appeal, Civil Division under s 50 of the Solicitors Act 1974. The court upheld their appeals and ordered that, since it was not appropriate to order the solicitors’ costs of the appeal to be paid by the Crown Prosecution Service because the original orders had been made by a Crown Court judge of his own motion, the solicitors’ costs should be paid out of central funds. The court held that the power vested in the Court of Appeal and the High Court by s 51a of the Supreme Court Act 1981 to ‘determine by whom and to what extent the costs’ of all civil proceedings before it should be paid entitled the court to award costs out of central funds when justice so required. The Lord Chancellor’s Department, as the appropriate government department, appealed, contending that the court had no jurisdiction to order the payment of costs out of central funds in the absence of express statutory authority to do so.
Held – The Court of Appeal, Civil Division had no jurisdiction to order that the costs of a successful appellant against a wasted costs order be paid out of central funds since there was no express statutory authority to that effect and such a jurisdiction could not be implied in the general power conferred on the court by s 51 of the 1981 Act to determine by whom and to what extent the costs of all civil proceedings before it should be paid. It would be contrary to the rules of statutory interpretation to construe s 51 as enabling the Court of Appeal to order a solicitor’s costs on an appeal to be paid out of money provided by Parliament, since s 51 could not have been intended to authorise payment by the Crown of the costs of civil litigation to which the Crown was not a party and, furthermore, such judicial legislation under the guise of statutory interpretation would offend the constitutional convention that Parliament exercised exclusive control over both the levying and the expenditure of the public revenue. It followed that the Court of Appeal had had no jurisdiction to make the orders in question and the appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 770 h, p 772 h, p 774 d and p 780 d to f j to p 781 b d e, post).
Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347 and R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Mirror Group Newspapers Ltd, R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p BBC [1992] 2 All ER 638 overruled.
Decision of the Court of Appeal sub nom Holden & Co (a firm) v CPS (No 2) [1992] 2 All ER 642 reversed.
Page 770 of [1993] 2 All ER 769
Notes
For jurisdiction to award costs, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 713, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 230–233, 4273–4289.
For the Solicitors Act 1974, s 50, see 41 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 62.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 51, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 1019.
As from 1 October 1991 s 51 of the 1981 Act was substituted by s 4(1) of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990.
Cases referred to in opinions
Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeira [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965, [1986] 2 WLR 1051, HL.
Auckland Harbour Board v R [1924] AC 318, PC.
Central Independent Television plc, Re [1991] 1 All ER 347, [1991] 1 WLR 4, CA.
Holden & Co (a firm) v CPS [1990] 1 All ER 368, [1990] 2 QB 261, [1990] 2 WLR 1137, CA.
R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Mirror Group Newspapers Ltd, R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p BBC [1992] 2 All ER 638, [1992] 1 WLR 412, DC.
Thompson v Goold & Co [1910] AC 409, HL.
Vickers Sons & Maxim Ltd v Evans [1910] AC 444, HL.
Appeal
The Lord Chancellor’s Department appealed with leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 15 June 1992 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Lord Lane CJ, Lloyd and Stuart-Smith LJJ) (sub nom Holden & Co (a firm) v CPS (No 2) [1992] 2 All ER 642, [1992] 1 WLR 407) on 30 October 1991 ordering that the costs of the respondents, Steele Ford & Newton (a firm), McGoldrick & Co (a firm), Robin Murray & Co (a firm) and Bradburys (a firm), in their successful appeals in Holden & Co (a firm) v CPS [1990] 1 All ER 368, [1990] 2 QB 261 be paid out of central funds. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bridge.
Duncan Matheson QC and Clare Montgomery (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Lord Chancellor’s Department.
Bruce Speller (instructed by Blake Lapthorn) for the respondents.
David Pannick QC and Gerard Clarke (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown Prosecution Service.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
26 May 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend, Lord Bridge of Harwich. For the reasons he gives I too would allow the appeal.
LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH. My Lords, this appeal raises a question of some constitutional importance. Modern legislation has given authority to the courts, in a variety of well-defined circumstances, to order the costs incurred by a party to criminal proceedings to be paid out of ‘central funds’. This is a convenient shorthand expression which, ever since it was first introduced by the Courts Act 1971, has always had the same definition. This is now found in Sch 1 to the Interpretation Act 1978, which provides:
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‘ “Central funds”, in an enactment providing in relation to England and Wales for the payment of costs out of central funds, means money provided by Parliament.’
The orders here under appeal were made by the Civil Division of the Court of Appeal for the payment of the several respondents’ costs out of central funds in circumstances where no express statutory authority to make such orders could be invoked but in purported exercise of a power to do so which the court held to be implied in s 51(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which, until recently substituted by s 4(1) of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990, provided:
‘Subject to the provisions of this or any other Act and to rules of court, the costs of and incidental to all proceedings in the civil division of the Court of Appeal and in the High Court … shall be in the discretion of the court, and the court shall have full power to determine by whom and to what extent the costs are to be paid.’
The operative language of this provision reproduces in identical terms language which was originally enacted by s 5 of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1890 and which has remained on the statute book ever since. Hence the Court of Appeal’s interpretation of it not only has the far-reaching consequence that a general power in all civil proceedings is conferred on the court to order payment of costs out of central funds whenever a successful litigant cannot recover his costs from any other source; it also leads to the startling conclusion that this power was conferred by Parliament in implied terms many years before a similar power was first conferred in express terms on courts in criminal proceedings, and the power has since remained dormant for a century, its existence unsuspected until now.
The respondent firms of solicitors had all been the subject of orders made by the Crown Court that they pay the whole or part of the prosecution costs in criminal trials in which they had represented the defendants. Their appeals against these orders were heard in November 1989 and were successful (see Holden & Co (a firm) v CPS [1990] 1 All ER 368, [1990] 2 QB 261). At that time such appeals, although arising out of criminal proceedings, lay to the Civil Division of the Court of Appeal under s 50 of the Solicitors Act 1974 and were themselves civil, not criminal, proceedings. The orders against the solicitors had in each case been made by the Crown Court judge of his own motion and the Crown Prosecution Service had not sought to support them. Hence it was not appropriate to order the costs of the successful appellants to be paid by the Crown Prosecution Service. When a question arose as to whether the court had, in the circumstances, jurisdiction to order the solicitors’ costs to be paid out of central funds, the court decided, for reasons of no present importance, to adjourn consideration of that issue. When it was resumed in October 1991 the Lord Chancellor’s Department was permitted to be joined in order to contest the jurisdiction issue. The court’s decision affirming its jurisdiction to order and in fact ordering that the solicitors’ costs should be paid out of central funds is reported sub nom Holden & Co (a firm) v CPS (No 2) [1992] 2 All ER 642, [1992] 1 WLR 407. The Lord Chancellor’s Department now appeals by leave of your Lordships’ House. Consideration of the appeal will also require consideration of two previous reported cases in which the court held itself empowered to award costs out of central funds in the absence of any express statutory authority to do so. The first was the decision of the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division in Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347, [1991] 1 WLR 4, in which costs out of central funds were awarded to the successful appellant under s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 against an order made by the Crown Court under s 4 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981. The
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second was R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Mirror Group Newspapers Ltd [1992] 2 All ER 638, [1992] 1 WLR 412, in which costs out of central funds were awarded to the successful applicants in judicial review proceedings who secured the quashing of an order made by the magistrate under s 4 of the 1981 Act.
In both the Bow Street case and the decision now under appeal primary reliance was placed on the decision of this House in Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeira [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965 in support of the proposition that a power to award costs out of central funds could be implied in s 51 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. That case arose from a tripartite dispute between the owners, charterers and sub-charterers of a ship. A single event in which the ship was damaged led to two separate arbitrations, one between the shipowners and the charterers, the other between the charterers and the sub-charterers. An issue arising in both arbitrations in due course led to two notices of motion in the High Court. Both motions were heard together, both turned upon the decision of the same issue and, in substance, the proceedings were precisely analogous to a single proceeding between plaintiff, defendant and third party. Technically, however, each motion was a separate ‘proceeding’. The question before the House was whether in these circumstances the judge had properly ordered the unsuccessful ship-owners to pay not only the costs of the proceeding on their own motion against the charterers, but also the costs which the charterers were ordered to pay to the sub-charterers, technically incurred in the separate motion by the charterers against the sub-charterers. The House answered this question in the affirmative and declined to follow earlier authority of the Court of Appeal limiting the jurisdiction under s 51(1) of the 1981 Act in the sense that the costs of any ‘proceeding’ could only be ordered to be paid by a person who was a party to the same ‘proceeding’. In a speech, with which the other members of the House concurred, Lord Goff pointed out the absence in the words ‘the court shall have full power to determine by whom … the costs are to be paid’ of any limitation which dictated that result (see [1986] 2 All ER 409 at 413, [1986] AC 965 at 975).
In the Bow Street case [1992] 2 All ER 638 at 640, [1992] 1 WLR 412 at 413 Nolan LJ cites a passage from Lord Goff’s speech and concludes: ‘The speech of Lord Goff makes it clear, therefore, that no restriction is to be implied into s 51(1).' He then proceeds to hold that s 51(1) empowers the court to award costs to be paid out of central funds.
In the instant case Lord Lane CJ says ([1992] 2 All ER 642 at 645, [1992] WLR 407 at 411:
‘Section 51 of the 1981 Act confers jurisdiction on the court to make an order for costs in the broadest terms, subject only to rules of court. Mr Laws [for the Lord Chancellor’s Department] invites us, in effect, to apply a limitation on the statutory jurisdiction so conferred, as a matter of construction. But this was just the error which was exposed by the House of Lords in the Aiden Shipping case. There is no warrant for restricting the wide words of s 51 so as to exclude the power of the court to award costs out of central funds when justice requires.’
My Lords, with all respect, I totally disagree with both these passages. They vividly illustrate the danger of taking a judicial pronouncement out of its context and applying it to a situation far removed from the subject matter to which the original language was addressed.
It is to be remembered, when construing the language of legislation enacted in 1890, that the position of the Crown at that time in relation to the costs of civil litigation was very different from today. At common law the Crown as a party to
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civil litigation neither paid nor recovered costs. Before 1890 this rule had been modified by statute in certain limited categories of proceedings: see, for example, ss 1 and 2 of the Crown Suits Act 1855 (‘An Act for the Payment of Costs in Proceedings instituted on behalf of the Crown in Matters relating to the Revenue …’) and s 5 of the Customs, Inland Revenue and Savings Bank Act 1877 (applying to proceedings by the Crown under the Customs Acts the same rule as to costs as in proceedings between subject and subject). But there was no general reversal of the common law rule until the enactment of s 7 of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, which provides:
‘(1) In any civil proceedings to which the Crown is a party in any court having power to award costs in cases between subjects … the costs of and incidental to the proceedings shall be in the discretion of the court … to be exercised in the same manner and on the same principles as in cases between subjects, and the court … shall have power to make an order for the payment of costs by or to the Crown accordingly …’
Hence the words of s 5 of the 1890 Act ‘the court … shall have full power to determine by whom … [the] costs are to be paid’, while apt to embrace an order for payment of costs by the Crown in those categories of civil proceedings in which the Crown as a party was amenable by statute to such an order, could not have been intended then to apply to the Crown as a party to any other category of proceedings, let alone to authorise payment by the Crown of the costs of civil litigation to which the Crown was not a party. So much is plain and makes still plainer the impossibility of reading into the section a power to order ‘payment of costs out of … money provided by Parliament’ in anticipation of language which the parliamentary draftsman first used many years later, and then only in legislation relating to criminal proceedings. As I have already mentioned, the statutory language is the same in the 1981 Act as it was in the 1890 Act and cannot have acquired any new meaning.
In argument before their Lordships it was submitted that the orders made by the Court of Appeal could be affirmed on two alternative grounds. The first was that an order for costs against the Crown is equivalent to an order for payment of costs out of central funds, and the Crown, in the person of the Lord Chancellor’s Department, having been joined in the appeal, could be ordered to pay the costs as a party to the proceedings under s 7 of the 1933 Act. This circuitous route to the dismissal of the appeal is, in my opinion, quite unacceptable. The Crown sought and obtained leave to be joined, after the solicitors’ appeals against the orders made in the Crown Court had been allowed, for the sole purpose of contesting the Court of Appeal’s jurisdiction to make the orders for costs which it was then proposing to make. If the Crown’s contention on the issue of jurisdiction is otherwise entitled to succeed, it cannot, in my opinion, be proper to affirm the orders for payment of costs out of central funds on the ground that the joinder of the Crown gave the court a quite different jurisdiction to order the Crown, as a party, to pay the costs of the proceedings incurred before the Crown was joined. A decision solely on that basis would, in any event, leave the central issue in the appeal unresolved. That issue is whether the court had jurisdiction to order the payment of costs out of central funds. It is an issue we cannot avoid. If the court had no such jurisdiction, then the orders under appeal cannot stand.
The alternative submission in support of the orders made by the Court of Appeal was that a power to order payment of costs out of central funds was to be implied in s 50 of the 1974 Act. Your Lordships also heard argument as to whether a similar power is to be implied in s 19A of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985. That section, inserted by s 111 of the Courts and Legal Services Act
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1990, did not come into force until 1 May 1991 (by the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 (Commencement No 4) Order 1991, SI 1991/985) and did not, therefore, apply to the appeals brought by the present respondents from the Crown Court orders made against them, but now governs similar appeals. It seems to me right that the House should express its opinion on the construction of that section in relation to the point at issue, even if the opinion will necessarily be obiter. Further, I think it equally appropriate to consider whether the court was entitled to make orders for payment of costs out of central funds in the R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Mirror Group Newspapers Ltd [1992] 2 All ER 638, [1992] 1 WLR 412 and Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347, [1991] 1 WLR 4.
The rule of general application which limits the court’s power to read into legislation words which the draftsman has not used is, even in today’s climate of purposive construction, still an important rule which cannot be disregarded. ‘It is a strong thing to read into an Act of Parliament words which are not there, and in the absence of clear necessity it is a wrong thing to do’: per Lord Mersey in Thompson v Goold & Co [1910] AC 409 at 420. ‘We are not entitled to read words into an Act of Parliament unless clear reason for it is to be found within the four corners of the Act itself’: per Lord Loreburn LC in Vickers Sons & Maxim Ltd v Evans [1910] AC 444 at 445.
But still more important, in the present context, is the special constitutional convention which jealously safeguards the exclusive control exercised by Parliament over both the levying and the expenditure of the public revenue. It is trite law that nothing less than clear, express and unambiguous language is effective to levy a tax. Scarcely less stringent is the requirement of clear statutory authority for public expenditure. As it was put by Viscount Haldane in Auckland Harbour Board v R [1924] AC 318 at 326:
‘It has been a principle of the British Constitution now for more than two centuries … that no money can be taken out of the Consolidated Fund into which the revenues of the state have been paid, excepting under a distinct authorisation from Parliament itself.’
Before considering whether, in spite of these apparent difficulties, an unexpressed power to order payment of costs out of money provided by Parliament can properly be implied in any of the sections in question, it is necessary, if tedious, to consider in some detail the nature, context and provenance of the legislative provisions in which jurisdiction is specifically conferred to award payment of costs out of central funds.
Provision that certain costs of criminal proceedings should be publicly funded has been on the statute book for a very long time. It goes back at least to the Criminal Law Act 1826 and the relevant law on the subject, as amended from time to time, was consolidated in the Costs in Criminal Cases Act 1908 and again in the Costs in Criminal Cases Act 1952. Until the coming into force of the Courts Act 1971 these costs, with one minor exception, were payable out of local funds at the expense of the ratepayers. Thus under s 7(1) of the 1952 Act costs payable out of local funds were to be paid—
‘(a) in the case of offences committed in an administrative county, out of the county fund; (b) in the case of offences committed in a county borough, out of the general rate fund of the county borough.’
The one exception related to offences committed within the Admiralty jurisdiction or tried at the Central Criminal Court, where it was provided that costs paid
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initially out of local funds should be reimbursed out of money provided by Parliament.
Under the 1952 Act the jurisdiction to award costs out of local funds was conferred separately on different courts as follows: assizes and quarter sessions by s 1; the Court of Criminal Appeal by s 3; the House of Lords by s 4; magistrates’ courts by s 5. Each section specified the circumstances arising in the course of criminal proceedings in which such an award might be made and the amount of the costs awarded was to be determined by the court making the order in accordance with more or less detailed rules embodied in the section. By way of illustration only I set out the provisions of s 1(1) to (5), which provided:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of this section, a court of assize or quarter sessions before which any person is prosecuted or tried on indictment or inquisition—(a) may order the payment out of local funds of the costs of the prosecution; (b) may, if the accused is acquitted, order the payment out of local funds of the costs of the defence.
(2) The costs payable out of local funds under the preceding subsection shall be such sums as appear to the court reasonably sufficient to compensate the prosecutor, or as the case may be the accused, for the expenses properly incurred by him in carrying on the prosecution or the defence, and to compensate any witness for the prosecution, or as the case may be for the defence, for the expense, trouble or loss of time properly incurred in or incidental to his attendance and giving evidence.
(3) Notwithstanding that the court makes no order under subsection (1) of this section for the payment out of local funds of the costs of the defence, it may order the payment out of those funds of such sums as appear to the court reasonably sufficient to compensate any witness for the defence for the expense, trouble or loss of time properly incurred in or incidental to his attendance and giving evidence.
(4) Unless the court otherwise directs, no sum shall be payable in pursuance of an order made under this section to or in respect of any witness for the prosecution or defence who is a witness to character only.
(5) The amount of costs ordered to be paid under this section shall be ascertained as soon as practicable by the proper officer of the court.’
A significant change in the law effected between 1952 and 1971 was the abolition by the Criminal Appeal Act 1966 of the Court of Criminal Appeal and the transfer of the jurisdiction of that court to the newly created Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal. The distinction, however, between the jurisdiction of the two divisions was preserved by s 1(5) of the 1966 Act, which provides:
‘Rules of court may provide for the distribution of proceedings in the Court of Appeal between the civil and criminal divisions, but subject to any such rules the civil division shall exercise the whole of the jurisdiction of the court, except any jurisdiction exercisable by the criminal division by virtue of subsection (2) of this section.’
Between 1952 and 1971 certain other enactments provided for the payment of costs out of ‘local funds’, which, in each case, was defined to mean payment out of local rates: see the Betting, Gaming and Lotteries Act 1963, Sch 1, para 23; the Licensing Act 1964, s 25; and the Gaming Act 1968, Sch 2, para 30 and Sch 9, para 14. These provisions were all concerned with appeals to quarter sessions from refusals by the appropriate licensing authorities to grant various forms of licences. They were all similar in character and that character is sufficiently
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indicated by the terms of para 23(1) of Sch 1 to the 1963 Act, which, as originally enacted, provide:
‘Where, in the case of an appeal under paragraph 21 of this Schedule with respect to a betting office licence, the court of quarter sessions—(a) has allowed the appeal; or (b) has awarded the appropriate authority any costs under paragraph 22 of this Schedule and is satisfied that the appropriate authority cannot recover those costs, the court shall order payment out of local funds of such sums as appear to the court sufficient to indemnify the appropriate authority from all costs and charges whatever to which they have been put in consequence of the appellant’s having served notice of appeal.’
If one pauses to consider the position at any time prior to the coming into force of the Courts Act 1971, the jurisdiction to award costs out of local funds conferred, with the exception of the special provisions with respect to licensing authorities, exclusively on courts exercising criminal jurisdiction could not possibly have been transplanted by implication into any ordinary civil jurisdiction, even if only because the definition of ‘local funds’ in the 1952 Act was incapable of application in the context of civil litigation.
The 1971 Act abolished assizes and quarter sessions and established in their place the new Crown Court as the single superior court to exercise jurisdiction over all trials on indictment. This, of course, necessitated extensive amendment of the law previously found in the 1952 Act. But the significant change in the law, for present purposes, was the transfer of the burden of public funding of criminal and licensing proceedings from the local ratepayer to the taxpayer. This was effected by amending the 1952, 1963, 1964 and 1968 Acts to substitute ‘central funds’ for ‘local funds’ in all the relevant legislation and introducing the new definition to give that phrase the general statutory meaning, now enshrined in the 1978 Act, which it has borne ever since. Otherwise the 1971 Act retained the essential structure of the 1952 Act. Indeed, this structure is clearly seen in the next consolidation in the Costs in Criminal Cases Act 1973 and again in the latest legislative code covering the same ground, which is Pt II of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 headed ‘Costs in Criminal Cases’. In the 1985 Act the main provisions authorising the payment of costs out of central funds are collected separately in ss 16 and 17 with respect to defence costs and prosecution costs respectively. Under s 17(1) an order may be made for the payment out of central funds—
‘of such amount as the court considers reasonably sufficient to compensate the prosecutor for any expenses properly incurred by him [(a) in any proceedings in respect of an indictable offence; and (b) in any proceedings before a Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division or the House of Lords in respect of a summary offence].’
But under s 16 jurisdiction to award costs to a defendant out of central funds (in the form of a ‘defendant’s costs order’) is still separately conferred on each court and the circumstances in which such an order may be made are spelled out in great detail. Again by way of illustration I set out the provisions of s 16(4) (as amended by the Criminal Justice Act 1988, s 170(1) and Sch 15, para 103) and s 16(4A) (as added by the Criminal Justice Act 1987, s 15 and Sch 2, paras 14 and 15), which provide:
‘(4) Where the Court of Appeal—(a) allows an appeal under Part I of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 against—(i) conviction; (ii) a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity; or (iii) a finding under section 4 of the Criminal
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Procedure (Insanity) Act 1964 that the appellant is under disability; or (aa) directs under section 8(1B) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 the entry of a judgment and verdict of acquittal; (b) on an appeal under that Part against conviction—(i) substitutes a verdict of guilty of another offence; (ii) in a case where a special verdict has been found, orders a different conclusion on the effect of that verdict to be recorded; or (iii) is of the opinion that the case falls within paragraph (a) or (b) of section 6(1) of that Act (cases where the court substitutes a finding of insanity or unfitness to plead); or (c) on an appeal under that Part against sentence, exercises its powers under s 11(3) of that Act (powers where the court considers that the appellant should be sentenced differently for an offence for which he was dealt with by the court below); the court may make a defendant’s costs order in favour of the accused.
(4A) The court may also make a defendant’s costs order in favour of the accused on an appeal under section 9(11) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (appeals against orders or rulings at preparatory hearings).’
Although it is still primarily for the court making the order to determine the amount of the costs recoverable from central funds, machinery is now provided for taxing costs by Pt III of the Costs in Criminal Cases (General) Regulations 1986, SI 1986/1335, made by the Lord Chancellor under s 20(1) of the 1985 Act.
Thus, throughout the history of the legislation in which jurisdiction has been expressly conferred to order payment of costs out of money provided by Parliament we find that the circumstances in which such an order may be made have been precisely and specifically defined, that, save in the provisions relating to licensing authorities, those circumstances can only arise in criminal proceedings and that, so far as the Court of Appeal is concerned, jurisdiction to make such orders has only been conferred on the Criminal Division of the court.
It is against this background that I turn to the construction of s 50 of the 1974 Act (as amended by the 1981 Act, ss 147 and 152(4) and Sch 7), which provides:
‘(1) Any person duly admitted as a solicitor shall be an officer of the Supreme Court.
(2) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the High Court, the Crown Court and the Court of Appeal respectively, or any division or judge of those courts, may exercise the same jurisdiction in respect of solicitors as any one of the superior courts of law or equity from which the Supreme Court was constituted might have exercised immediately before the passing of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873 in respect of any solicitor, attorney or proctor admitted to practise there.
(3) An appeal shall lie to the Court of Appeal from any order made against a solicitor by the High Court or the Crown Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction in respect of solicitors under subsection (2).’
Save that the reference to the Crown Court in sub-s (2) is new, that subsection simply reproduces a similar provision in the Solicitors Act 1957. Subsection (3), however, was first inserted by s 147 of the 1981 Act. I was at first puzzled by this, since solicitors have always had an unfettered right of appeal from an order made against them by the High Court under sub-s (2). Happily our new freedom to refer to Hansard solves the mystery. The clause which became s 147 of the 1981 Act was introduced as an amendment to the Bill at the instance of the Law Society and the Solicitor General, moving the amendment, explained why, saying (8 HC Official Report (6th series) col 666):
‘The purpose of the amendment is this: it appeared that because these words had been left out in bringing into this statute the wording of a previous
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statute, it might have the unintended effect that a solicitor wishing to pursue the right of appeal given by the new clause would have to get leave to do so. The amendment ensures that that is not so. I shall say no more on the subject because I believe that what we are doing entirely meets the wishes of the Law Society and all Rt. Hon. and Hon. Gentlemen who have spoken on the matter.’
Even without this explanation, I do not see any conceivable basis on which the court can write into the subsection the words:
‘and on any such appeal the Court of Appeal may order the solicitor’s costs to be paid out of money provided by Parliament,’
thereby conferring a jurisdiction otherwise unknown to the Civil Division of the court.
I now turn to s 19A inserted into the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 by s 111 of the 1990 Act and now governing wasted costs orders made against solicitors in criminal proceedings, which provides:
‘(1) In any criminal proceedings—(a) the Court of Appeal; (b) the Crown Court; or (c) a magistrates’ court, may disallow, or (as the case may be) order the legal or other representative concerned to meet, the whole of any wasted costs or such part of them as may be determined in accordance with regulations.
(2) Regulations shall provide that a legal or other representative against whom action is taken by a magistrates’ court under subsection (1) may appeal to the Crown Court and that a legal or other representative against whom action is taken by the Crown Court under subsection (1) may appeal to the Court of Appeal.
(3) In this section—“legal or other representative”, in relation to any proceedings, means a person who is exercising a right of audience, or a right to conduct litigation, on behalf of any party to the proceedings; “regulations” means regulations made by the Lord Chancellor; and “wasted costs” means any costs incurred by a party—(a) as a result of any improper, unreasonable or negligent act or omission on the part of any representative or any employee of a representative; or (b) which, in the light of any such act or omission occurring after they were incurred, the court considers it is unreasonable to expect that party to pay.’
Since this section appears in Pt II of the 1985 Act, an appeal under the regulations made pursuant to s 19A(2) lies to the Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal by virtue of s 21(3). This at least avoids one of the obstacles to the implication of a power to make an order for costs out of central funds. But it encounters another scarcely less formidable. There are no words in sub-s (2) which permit, let alone require, the Lord Chancellor to make regulations authorising awards of costs out of central funds. So here again the court can only make the implication if a clear reason for doing so is to be found within the four corners of the Act itself. This is doubly difficult in Pt II of the 1985 Act where in every other circumstance in which Parliament intended to authorise the payment of costs out of central funds it has done so expressly and the circumstance has been precisely and narrowly defined. Before examining the reasons which are relied on to justify this implication, it will be convenient to look shortly at R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Mirror Group Newspapers Ltd [1992] 2 All ER 638, [1992] 1 WLR 412 and Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347, [1991] 1 WLR 4.
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The Bow Street case was an application to the Divisional Court for judicial review to quash an order restricting reporting of certain criminal proceedings in the magistrates’ court made under s 4 of the 1981 Act. It may be debatable whether these proceedings were civil or criminal, but in either case I can see no possible basis for an award of costs out of central funds. The power of the Divisional Court in criminal proceedings under ss 16 and 17 of the 1985 Act is clearly limited to awarding costs to the defendant and the prosecutor and, as I hope I have already shown, there is certainly no power to award such costs in civil proceedings.
The Central Television case was a successful appeal by the television company against an order made under s 4 of the 1981 Act by the Crown Court restricting reporting by radio or television of a certain criminal trial. Section 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 Act provides the statutory machinery for appeal against such orders to the Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal by leave of that court. On the grant of leave the court is empowered by s 159(3)(b) ‘to give directions as to persons who are to be parties to the appeal or who may be parties to it if they wish and as to service of documents on any person …’ On hearing the appeal the court is empowered by s 159(5)(c) ‘to make such order as to costs as it thinks fit’. This latter provision was no doubt necessary to enable the court to order one party to pay the costs of another in a contested case and was expressed in a very familiar phrase in order to effect that purpose. But here, at least, in contrast with the other cases considered, the statutory language was capable of being construed as extending to include an order for payment of costs out of central funds without the necessity for the court to import those words into the section. But was it right that it should be so construed?
This brings me to the consideration of the reason, and the only reason, which can be relied on as justifying the implication of a term conferring jurisdiction to order costs to be paid out of money provided by Parliament in any case where such a term has not been expressed. It is set out by Lord Lane CJ in Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347 at 351, [1991] 1 WLR 4 at 9:
‘Although there is no express provision empowering us to make an order that the costs should come out of central funds, there is no other possible source for costs and we take the view that such a power must of necessity be implied to make the provision effective. Accordingly, since the appellants have succeeded, we order that they should have their costs and those costs should come from central funds.’
In the instant case Lord Lane CJ said ([1992] 2 All ER 642 at 646, [1992] 1 WLR 407 at 411):
‘Where it is the Crown Prosecution Service that makes the application for a wasted costs order, no doubt the Crown Prosecution Service would be liable for costs in the event of a successful appeal. But, where, as in these four cases, the order was made on the initiative of the judge, there is no other source from which to make an award of costs save out of central funds. It would be unjust that the successful appellants should have to bear their own costs. Accordingly, we will make an order for payment out of central funds in each of the four appeals.’
I share with the Court of Appeal the view, which is no doubt held by every judge brought up in the English system, that it is just for a successful litigant, and perhaps a fortiori a successful appellant, to be able to recover his costs from someone. But unfortunately it is not always so. From 1949 to 1964 unassisted parties who were successful in litigation against assisted parties under the Legal
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Aid Act 1949 could normally recover little, if any, of their costs from the assisted party and nothing from public funds. This was widely felt to be unjust. But it was not until the Legal Aid Act 1964 that the injustice was partially remedied and even under that Act and its current successor, the Legal Aid Act 1988, the successful unassisted party can rarely recover costs incurred at first instance from public funds and his right to do so in respect of appellate costs is strictly controlled and defined by the statute. Again, there are regrettably instances which occur through no fault of either party where costs are incurred of an abortive trial leading to an unopposed appeal and an order for a retrial. Even if the responsibility for these wasted costs is that of the court and no one else, they cannot be recovered from public funds. To take yet another example, it is relatively commonplace for a party who is the victim of a misjudgment by an inferior court or tribunal to have to seek relief by an application for judicial review in circumstances where the Divisional Court cannot hold either another party or the inferior tribunal itself liable in costs and there is no power to award costs from public funds.
I will not multiply examples, but I hope I have said enough to explain why I cannot attribute to the legislature any general willingness to provide the kind of publicly funded safety net which the judiciary would like to see in respect of costs necessarily and properly incurred by a litigant and not otherwise recoverable. It is for this reason that I find it impossible to say that whenever the legislature gives a right of appeal, whether in civil or criminal proceedings, in circumstances where a successful appellant may be unable to recover his costs from any other party, that affords a sufficient ground to imply a term enabling the court to order the costs to be paid out of public funds. The strictly limited range of the legislation expressly authorising payment of costs out of central funds in criminal proceedings no more lends itself to extension by judicial implication than does the equally limited range of legislation authorising payment of costs out of the legal aid fund in civil proceedings. Some general legislative provision authorising public funding of otherwise irrecoverable costs, either in all proceedings or in all appellate proceedings, would no doubt be an admirable step in the right direction which the judiciary would heartily applaud. But this does not, in my opinion, justify the courts in attempting to achieve some similar result by the piecemeal implication of terms giving a power to order payment of costs out of central funds in particular statutes, which can only lead to anomalies.
For example, solicitors who are ordered to pay costs personally by a court acting of its own motion and who appeal against the orders successfully may find themselves without any effective respondent to the appeal from whom costs can be recovered whether the proceedings in which the order is made are civil or criminal. But if, as I think, it is manifestly impossible for them to recover costs out of central funds in a civil appeal under s 50 of the 1974 Act it would be anomalous that they should be able to do so when the appeal lies to the Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal under s 19A of the 1985 Act. Similarly it would be odd if Parliament were held to have conferred on the media by implication a claim to recover costs from central funds when appealing under s 159 of the 1988 Act from an order restricting reporting of a trial in the Crown Court if, as I again think, it is clearly impossible for them to maintain such a claim on an application for judicial review to quash a similar order made by a magistrates’ court.
The courts must always resist the temptation to engage, under the guise of statutory interpretation, in what is really judicial legislation, but this is particularly important in a sensitive constitutional area, such as that with which we are here concerned, where we should be scrupulous to avoid trespassing on parliamentary ground. I would hold that jurisdiction to order payment of costs out of central funds cannot be held to have been conferred by implication on the courts by any
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of the statutory provisions which I have examined. Indeed, I find it difficult to visualise any statutory context in which such a jurisdiction could be conferred by anything less than clear express terms. I would accordingly allow the appeal and set aside the orders made for payment of costs out of central funds. I would also overrule the Bow Street and Central Television cases in so far as they relate to costs.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich. For the reasons he gives I too would allow the appeal.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, my initial view was that it was possible to imply into both of the Acts which provided for a right of appeal by a solicitor ordered to pay the costs of proceedings (the Solicitors Act 1974, s 50(3) and the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s 19A), a term based on what Parliament must have intended in order to make the appeal effective: that the court should have power to order the costs of the appeal to be paid out of central funds.
I have, however, had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich, and I am satisfied that such a term cannot be implied. I too would accordingly allow the appeal for the reasons which he gives.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would allow the appeal.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Naillie
R v Kanesarajah
[1993] 2 All ER 782
Categories: IMMIGRATION
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD LOWRY, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 20 APRIL, 26 MAY 1993
Immigration – Assisting illegal entry into United Kingdom – Illegal entry – Asylum seeker – Asylum seeker using false documents to leave country of origin – Asylum claimed immediately on disembarkation in United Kingdom – False documents not used to gain entry into United Kingdom – Whether asylum seeker ‘illegal entrant’ – Whether person assisting asylum seeker to enter United Kingdom facilitating illegal entry – Immigration Act 1971, ss 3, 11, 25.
The two respondents, N and K, were separately charged with facilitating the illegal entry of others into the United Kingdom contrary to s 25(1)a of the Immigration Act 1971. N arranged for two Somali women and six Somali children to book a flight from Kenya to the United Kingdom using forged Tanzanian passports. N and the Somalis then travelled from Kenya to the United Kingdom on the same flight, in the course of which the aircrew took possession of the women’s passports and handed them to an immigration official on arrival in the United Kingdom. When interviewed by immigration officers the two women claimed political asylum and were given temporary admission. N was meanwhile arrested and charged with facilitating the illegal entry of the Somalis into the United Kingdom. He was convicted. K took his wife’s passport with him to Sri Lanka, where he allowed it to be altered to enable another woman and her child and two other persons to use it to leave Sri Lanka. K, the woman and her child and the other two persons then flew to London using airline tickets purchased in K’s name. During the flight K retrieved his wife’s passport. On disembarkation in the United Kingdom the woman and the other two persons sought political asylum before going through immigration. They were given temporary admittance as asylum seekers. K was arrested in possession of the forged passport and charged with facilitating the illegal entry of the woman and the other two persons into the United Kingdom. He was convicted. Both N and K appealed to the Court of Appeal, which allowed the appeals on the ground that the asylum seekers had not entered clandestinely or by means of deception by proffering forged documents to immigration officers and were not illegal entrants for the purposes of s 25(1) of the 1971 Act. Accordingly, an essential element of the offence with which N and K had been charged had not been made out. The Director of Public Prosecutions appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – Section 3b Of the 1971 Act made a distinction between arrival and entry into the United Kingdom, and a person was only an ‘illegal entrant’ for the purposes of the 1971 Act if he sought to enter the United Kingdom by producing a forged passport or attempting to deceive an immigration officer in a material way. If, however, he presented himself to an immigration officer and asked for political asylum and did not produce a forged document or otherwise seek to deceive or in fact deceive the immigration officer he was not entering or seeking to enter in breach of the immigration laws and so was not an ‘illegal entrant’.
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Furthermore, under s 11c of the 1971 Act a person had not entered the United Kingdom while he was in a place approved for the purposes of awaiting examination or being examined by an immigration officer. Nor did a person enter the United Kingdom when he disembarked, and merely to disembark without a passport or in possession of forged documents used to leave another country did not mean that a person had ipso facto entered illegally. Since none of the travellers with N and K had sought to rely on false documents and had not themselves either practised any fraud or deception on the immigration officers or entered clandestinely, they were not illegal entrants and N and K had not facilitated their illegal entry under s 25 of the 1971 Act. The appeals would therefore be dismissed (see p 783 j to p 784 b, p 787 b c e to j and p 788 a b e f.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1993] 1 All ER 75 affirmed.
Notes
For illegal entry into the United Kingdom, see 4(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 118, and for cases on the subject, see 2 Digest (Reissue) 199–200, 1153–1154.
For the Immigration Act 1971, ss 3, 11, 25, see 31 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 52, 64, 77.
Cases referred to in opinions
Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765, [1984] AC 74, [1983] 2 WLR 321, HL.
Vilvarajah v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1990] Imm AR 457, CA.
Appeals
The Director of Public Prosecutions appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee given on 11 February 1993 against the decision of the Court of Appeal (Watkins LJ, Swinton Thomas and Garland JJ) ([1993] 1 All ER 75, [1992] 1 WLR 1099) on 14 April 1992 allowing the appeals of the respondents, Yabu Hurerali Naillie, who was convicted on 7 August 1991 in the Crown Court at Isleworth before Judge Simon Evans and a jury of facilitating illegal entry into the United Kingdom contrary to s 25(1) of the Immigration Act 1971, for which he was sentenced to 18 months’ imprisonment, and Rajaratnam Kanesarajah, who was convicted on 18 November 1991 in the Crown Court at Croydon before Judge Sir David Hughes-Morgan and a jury of facilitating illegal entry into the United Kingdom contrary to s 25(1) of the Immigration Act 1971, for which he was sentenced to 15 months’ imprisonment. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Slynn.
Brian Barker QC and Martin Griffith (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Alper Riza QC and Michel G A Massih (instructed by Lizzimore Braithwaites) for the respondent Naillie.
Nicholas Blake and Frances Webber (instructed by Krish Ratna & Co, Southall) for the respondent Kanesarajah.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
26 May 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Page 784 of [1993] 2 All ER 782
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley, I would dismiss these appeals and answer the certified question in the negative.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley. I agree with it and for the reasons which he gives I, too, would dismiss these appeals.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have read the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley. For the reasons which he gives, I too would dismiss both appeals.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, the Director of Public Prosecutions on behalf of the Crown Prosecution Service appeals against decisions of the Court of Appeal ([1993] 1 All ER 75, [1992] 1 WLR 1099) that the first and second respondents, Mr Naillie and Mr Kanesarajah, were not guilty of the offence of facilitating the illegal entry of persons into the United Kingdom contrary to s 25 of the Immigration Act 1971. None of the persons involved was a British citizen within the meaning of the Act. That section provides:
‘(1) Any person knowingly concerned in making or carrying out arrangements for securing or facilitating the entry into the United Kingdom of anyone whom he knows or has reasonable cause for believing to be an illegal entrant shall be guilty of an offence …’
The facts in the two cases are quite distinct; the issue, however, is similar. The two cases were heard together both in the Court of Appeal and before your Lordships’ House and the question of law of general public importance raised in each case was certified by the Court of Appeal to be:
‘Whether a person seeking political asylum who disembarks from a ship or aircraft at a port in the United Kingdom without a valid passport or other document satisfactorily establishing his identity and nationality is on disembarkation an illegal entrant for the purposes of the Immigration Act 1971.’
The facts of the two cases in summary are these.
(i) Mr Naillie
On 3 March 1991 two Somali women and six children arrived at London Heathrow from Kenya via Muscat. Their passports were taken from them by aircrew, who handed the documents to an immigration official at Heathrow. The women on interview by an immigration officer claimed political asylum. Each was served with a ‘Notice to Illegal Entrant’ under the 1971 Act but granted temporary admission into the United Kingdom. The passports were forged Tanzanian passports. Inquiries revealed that Mr Naillie had booked tickets for the whole group, relying on the forged Tanzanian passports for that purpose, on 1 March 1991. There was evidence that he had looked after the checking in of the whole group in Nairobi and that on part of the flight the whole group travelled together though Mr Naillie denied this. The jury found him guilty of the offence charged and he was sentenced to 18 months’ imprisonment.
(ii) Mr Kanesarajah
This respondent flew to Sri Lanka on 9 March 1991 taking with him his wife’s passport. He allowed that passport to be forged by the substitution for the original photograph of a photograph of a woman and child. On 25 April 1991 airline
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tickets were purchased for the respondent and three persons who were to travel on the same passport. All four boarded the aircraft and during the flight to London (via Dubai) Mr Kanesarajah took the passport back. The three persons on disembarkation claimed political asylum. They were not asked to produce passports and they did not claim that they or any of them were the persons named in the passport. On arrest Mr Kanesarajah was found to be in possession of his wife’s passport (as forged) and the travel documents issued to the three other travellers. On conviction by a jury he was sentenced to 15 months’ imprisonment.
The Court of Appeal, following the decision of your Lordships’ House in Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765, [1984] AC 74, held that, since there had been no attempt in either case by the other travellers to use forged passports, they could not have been illegal entrants. It was not suggested that the travellers had practised any deception and evidently they had not attempted to enter clandestinely. Accordingly the Court of Appeal held that neither respondent could have facilitated the illegal entry of the persons concerned.
In view of the arguments which have been advanced it is necessary to refer to some of the provisions of the Immigration Act 1971, as amended by s 39(6) of and para 2 of Sch 4 to the British Nationality Act 1981, and of the immigration rules (see Statement of Changes in Immigration Rules (HC Paper (1989–90) no 251). The 1971 Act provides:
‘3.—(1) Except as otherwise provided by or under this Act, where a person is not a British citizen—(a) he shall not enter the United Kingdom unless given leave to do so in accordance with this Act …
(2) The Secretary of State shall … lay before Parliament statements of the rules, or of any changes in the rules, laid down by him as to the practice to be followed in the administration of this Act for regulating the entry into and stay in the United Kingdom of persons required by this Act to have leave to enter …
4.—(1) The power under this Act to give or refuse leave to enter the United Kingdom shall be exercised by immigration officers …
(2) The provisions of Schedule 2 of this Act shall have effect with respect to … (b) the examination of persons arriving in or leaving the United Kingdom by ship or aircraft … and (c) the exercise by immigration officers of their powers in relation to entry into the United Kingdom …
11.—(1) A person arriving in the United Kingdom by ship or aircraft shall for purposes of this Act be deemed not to enter the United Kingdom unless and until he disembarks, and on disembarkation at a port shall further be deemed not to enter the United Kingdom so long as he remains in such area (if any) at the port as may be approved for this purpose by an immigration officer; and a person who has not otherwise entered the United Kingdom shall be deemed not to do so as long as he is detained, or temporarily admitted or released while liable to detention, under the powers conferred by Schedule 2 to this Act …
33.—(1) For purposes of this Act, except in so far as the context otherwise requires … “entrant” means a person entering or seeking to enter the United Kingdom, and “illegal entrant” means a person unlawfully entering or seeking to enter in breach of a deportation order or of the immigration laws, and includes also a person who has so entered …’
By Sch 2:
‘2.—(1) An immigration officer may examine any persons who have arrived in the United Kingdom by ship or aircraft (including transit
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passengers, members of the crew and others not seeking to enter the United Kingdom) for the purpose of determining… (b) whether, if he is not [a British citizen], he may or may not enter the United Kingdom without leave …
4. … (2) A person on his examination under paragraph 2 or 3 above by an immigration officer shall, if so required by the immigration officer—(a) produce either a valid passport with photograph or some other document satisfactorily establishing his identity and nationality or citizenship …’
By the immigration rules made under s 3(2) of the 1971 Act with effect from May 1990:
‘7 A person must, on arrival in the United Kingdom, produce on request by the immigration officer a valid national passport or other document satisfactorily establishing his identity and nationality. Everyone arriving in the United Kingdom is liable to be examined and must furnish the immigration officer with such information as may be required for the purpose of deciding whether he requires leave to enter and, if so, whether and on what terms leave should be given …
Passengers in transit
13 Detailed examination of a passenger whose sole purpose is transit to a country outside the common travel area is unlikely to be required once he has satisfied the immigration officer that he has both the means and the intention of proceeding at once to another country and is assured of entry there. If the immigration officer is not so satisfied, leave to enter is to be refused …
Refugees
21 Where a person is a refugee full account is to be taken of the provisions of the Convention and Protocol relating to the Status of Refugees [Convention and Protocol relating to the Status of Refugees (Geneva, 28 July 1951; TS 39 (1954); Cmd 9171 and New York, 31 January 1967; TS 15 (1969); Cmnd 3906)]. Nothing in these rules is to be construed as requiring action contrary to the United Kingdom’s obligations under these instruments …
75 Special considerations apply where a person seeking entry claims asylum in the United Kingdom, or where it appears to the immigration officer as a result of information given by that person that he may be eligible for asylum in the United Kingdom. Every such case is to be referred by the immigration officer to the Home Office for decision regardless of any grounds set out in any provision of these rules which may appear to justify refusal of leave to enter. The Home Office will then consider the case in accordance with the provisions of the Convention and Protocol relating to the Status of Refugees …’
The appellant’s case is essentially that a person can only be a legal entrant to the United Kingdom if he has a passport or other relevant document. Any person who enters or who seeks to enter the United Kingdom without a passport is an illegal entrant. This, it is said, applies no less to those seeking asylum. If they have a passport and seek to enter asking for political asylum they are legal entrants; if they do not have a passport they are illegal entrants; there is no third status of ‘asylum seekers’. Even if as illegal entrants they may be allowed to stay under the special provisions set out in immigration rules and the 1951 Geneva Convention as amended by the 1967 Protocol, that does not prevent a person from committing an offence under s 25 of the 1971 Act if he makes or carries out arrangements for securing or facilitating their entry into the United Kingdom when he knows or
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has reasonable cause for believing that they are illegal entrants because they have no passports.
It seems to me that when a prosecution is brought under s 25 of the 1971 Act the first question is whether the persons concerned are ‘illegal entrants’, the second is whether the accused knew or had reasonable cause for believing them to be such and the third whether the defendant was knowingly concerned in making or carrying out arrangements for securing or facilitating their entry into the United Kingdom.
As to the first question s 3 of the 1971 Act draws a distinction between arrival and entry. Thus a person shall not enter without leave and the power to give leave to enter is vested in immigration officers who may examine persons arriving in the United Kingdom. By s 11 a person has not entered whilst he is in a place approved for the purposes (semble) of awaiting examination and being examined. Nor has he entered when he is temporarily admitted under powers conferred by Sch 2 to the Act.
By para 2 of Sch 2 a person who has arrived, including transit passengers and persons not seeking to enter, may be examined so that the immigration officer may determine whether such person may or may not enter the United Kingdom without leave.
The pattern of the 1971 Act is thus that a person arriving in the United Kingdom by air must present himself to an immigration officer, and, if so required, be examined, furnish information and produce a valid passport or other document. He can only enter lawfully if he is given leave. He is an illegal entrant if he comes in without such leave or in breach of the immigration laws, eg by deceiving the immigration officer knowingly or otherwise.
A person arriving by air at Heathrow does not enter the United Kingdom when he disembarks. Nor, contrary to the appellant’s argument, has he entered when he proceeds towards immigration control having passed the transit corridor, thereby evincing an intention to go through immigration rather than to seek to go to a foreign destination. It follows that merely to disembark without a passport does not mean that a person has ipso facto entered illegally.
It is said however that ‘illegal entrant’ includes a person seeking to enter in breach of the immigration laws. However, a person in my opinion is not seeking to enter within the meaning of the 1971 Act when he disembarks. He seeks to enter when he presents himself to the immigration officer or when he tries to pass out of the area of immigration control without presenting himself to the immigration officer. Thus if he presents himself to the immigration officer and produces a forged passport or lies in a material way he is seeking to enter in breach of the immigration laws. If he is discovered to have forged documents he is an ‘illegal entrant’ within the definition set out in the Act. If he succeeds and is allowed in on the basis of forged documents he is also an ‘illegal entrant’.
On the other hand, if he presents himself to an immigration officer and asks for political asylum and does not produce a forged document or otherwise seek to deceive or deceive the immigration officer he is not a person entering or seeking to enter in breach of the immigration laws.
He may not succeed in getting political asylum; even after temporary admission he may be refused leave. But he is not an illegal entrant for the purposes of the Act since he has not entered or sought to enter in breach of the immigration laws whether or not he has a passport.
The same is true of a person who on arrival openly goes to the immigration officer and says that he has mislaid his passport and asks whether he can establish his identity in any way without the appropriate document. He may be refused
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and returned whence he came. He is not at that stage, in my view, an illegal entrant. He has not entered or sought to enter in breach of the immigration laws. The test of the legality of his entry is whether leave has been lawfully obtained and not whether a valid passport or other relevant document is in his possession.
The critical feature of the present case is that none of the travellers sought to rely on false documents nor did they themselves practise any fraud or deception on the immigration officers nor did they enter clandestinely. They were not charged with any of the offences of knowingly entering without leave under s 24 of the 1971 Act or of refusing or failing to be examined or producing documents or making false statements or having in their possession any passport which they knew or had reasonable cause to believe to be false within the meaning of s 26 of the Act. The fact that they used forged documents to leave another country (without which, as Donaldson MR pointed out in Vilvarajah v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1990] Imm AR 457 at 459–460, they might not have got out of that country) does not mean automatically that they practised deception to come into the United Kingdom. Here they all declared at once that they were seeking political asylum and they did not seek in any way to rely on the forged passports which in any event they no longer had in their possession. However it must be stressed that in relation to a charge of facilitating illegal entry under s 25 of the 1971 Act the position of a defendant may be very different in a case where the person in reality seeking asylum either (a) relies only on forged documents or (b) relies initially on forged documents but, when the falsity is revealed or the authenticity of the documents challenged, changes tack and seeks to claim political asylum.
However desirable it may be to stop the trafficking in people and documents for the purpose of seeking entry into the United Kingdom, in the present case the Court of Appeal came quite clearly to the correct conclusion and I would dismiss both appeals.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, I have read the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Slynn of Hadley. For the reasons which he gives, I too would dismiss both appeals.
Appeals dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Goodman
[1993] 2 All ER 789
Categories: COMPANY; Directors
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STAUGHTON LJ, McKINNON AND POTTER JJ
Hearing Date(s): 15 JUNE 1992
Company – Director – Disqualification – Conviction of indictable offence – Offence in connection with management of company – In connection with management of company Insider dealing – Chairman of company selling shares through friend three days before his resignation and announcement of poor results – Whether defendant properly disqualified because of insider dealing – Whether insider dealing an offence committed in connection with management of company – Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985, s 1(1) – Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, s 2(1).
The appellant was chairman and a major shareholder of a public company. In 1987 the directors of the company became aware that its forthcoming results were likely to show a loss instead of the previously anticipated profit of some £900,000. There was dispute and contention among the board of directors and the appellant executed what purported to be a deed of gift of his shareholding of 692,000 shares to a friend, who then sold them. Three days later the appellant resigned as chairman. Purchasers of the shares were unaware of the likely results of the company or the appellant’s impending resignation, both of which matters reduced the value of the shares. Subsequently the appellant was convicted of insider dealing contrary to s 1(1)a of the Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment part of which was suspended. He was also disqualified from being a company director for ten years under s 2(1)b of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, under which a disqualification order could be made in respect of a person who had been ‘convicted of an indictable offence … in connection with the … management … of a company’. He appealed against the disqualification order, contending that the court had no power to make the order because the offence of which he had been convicted was not an offence committed in connection with the management of a company.
Held – The correct test to be applied in determining whether an indictable offence was an offence ‘in connection with the … management … of a company’ for the purposes of s 2(1) of the 1986 Act was whether the offence had some relevant factual connection with the management of the company and not whether the offence related to the management of a company, such as keeping accounts or filing returns, or had been committed in the course of managing a company. Since the appellant’s conduct in disposing of his shareholding before he resigned and the results were announced clearly had a relevant factual connection with the management of the company, it was an offence in connection with the management of that company for the purposes of s 2(1). It followed that the appeal would be dismissed (see p 792 f to j and p 793 h, post).
Notes
For disqualification of a person as a company director on conviction of an indictable offence, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 570, and for cases on the subject, see 9(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 122–123, 4167–4169.
Page 790 of [1993] 2 All ER 789
For the Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985, s 1, see 8 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 750.
For the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, s 2, see ibid 783.
Cases referred to in judgment
Lo-Line Electric Motors Ltd, Re [1988] 2 All ER 692, [1988] Ch 477, [1988] 3 WLR 26, CA.
R v Austen (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 214, CA.
R v Corbin (1984) 6 Cr App R (S) 17, CA.
R v Georgiou (1988) 87 Cr App R 207, CA.
Sevenoaks Stationers (Retail) Ltd, Re [1991] 3 All ER 578, [1991] Ch 164, [1990] 3 WLR 1165, CA.
Case also cited
R v Young (1990) 12 Cr App R (S) 262, CA.
Appeal against disqualification order
Ivor Michael Goodman appealed with leave of the full court on 8 November 1991 against the disqualification order made against him under s 2 of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 on 30 April 1991 in the Crown Court at St Albans by Judge Gareth Davies, following his plea of guilty to a charge under s 1 of the Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985. He did not appeal against the sentence of 18 months’ imprisonment, of which nine months were suspended, imposed on him for insider dealing contrary to s 1(1) of the 1985 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
David Martin-Sperry (who did not appear below) (instructed by Michael Freeman & Co) for the appellant.
Tudor Owen (instructed by Solicitor to the Department of Trade and Industry) for the Crown.
15 June 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
STAUGHTON LJ. Ivor Michael Goodman pleaded guilty in the Crown Court at St Albans before Judge Gareth Davies on 30 April 1991 to an offence under the Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985. He was sentenced to 18 months’ imprisonment, of which nine months were to be served and the balance was suspended. He was also ordered to be disqualified from being a company director for a period of ten years.
The facts were that Mr Goodman was the chairman of a public company called Unigroup plc. In September 1987 there were known to the directors aspects of the company’s affairs which were expected to affect the results that were to be announced in October. There were two aspects of those affairs which caused considerable concern. We need not go into the details, but the upshot of it was that instead of announcing a profit of some £900,000 the company was likely to announce a loss. There was some dispute and contention on the board. By 2 October Mr Goodman was minded to resign as chairman. He did indeed write a letter of resignation on 4 October, which was given to another director on the afternoon of the following day. Mr Goodman owned 692,209 shares in the company, which was a very substantial proportion of the equity.
On 2 October he executed what purported to be a deed of gift of those shares to a lady friend. Instructions were given to his bank to sell the shares, presumably for her account. The bank declined to act on those instructions without his
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confirmation, which was given. In consequence the 692,000 shares were sold on the morning of 5 October 1987 at a price of £1.67 per share. Needless to say, the purchasers were not told of the information which Mr Goodman had as to the likely results to be announced in a few days’ time, which would certainly have made the shares a good deal less attractive to a purchaser. Nor were the purchasers told that Mr Goodman had resigned as chairman, which also would have been relevant information. It was on those facts that Mr Goodman eventually pleaded guilty, as we have said, to an offence of insider trading.
Mr Martin-Sperry on behalf of Mr Goodman in this appeal against sentence does not challenge the period of imprisonment (partially suspended) which was passed. What he does do is challenge the period of disqualification on three grounds. First, he says that the court had no power to make a disqualification order for this offence.
We must turn first to the offence to which Mr Goodman pleaded guilty. It is set out in s 1(1) of the 1985 Act:
‘Subject to section 3, an individual who is, or at any time in the preceding 6 months has been, knowingly connected with a company shall not deal on a recognised stock exchange in securities of that company if he has information which—(a) he holds by virtue of being connected with the company, (b) it would be reasonable to expect a person so connected, and in the position by virtue of which he is so connected, not to disclose except for the proper performance of the functions attaching to that position, (c) he knows is unpublished price sensitive information in relation to those securities.’
That prohibition requires the person in question to be connected with the company whose securities he is dealing in. ‘Connected’ is defined in s 9:
‘For purposes of this Act, an individual is connected with a company if, but only if—(a) he is a director of that company or a related company, or (b) he occupies a position as an officer (other than a director) or employee of that company or a related company or a position involving a professional or business relationship between himself (or his employer or a company of which he is a director) and the first company or a related company which in either case may reasonably be expected to give him access to information which, in relation to securities of either company, is unpublished price sensitive information, and which it would be reasonable to expect a person in his position not to disclose except for the proper performance of his functions.’
The disqualification which the judge imposed purported to be pursuant to s 2(1) of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986:
‘The court may make a disqualification order against a person where he is convicted of an indictable offence (whether on indictment or summarily) in connection with the promotion, formation, management or liquidation of a company, or with the receivership or management of a company’s property.’
Mr Goodman was convicted of an indictable offence. Was it an offence in connection with the management of a company? Formation, promotion or liquidation do not arise in this case.
There have been three cases which give some guidance as to those words, ‘connected with the management of the company’. For present purposes it is sufficient to refer to R v Georgiou (1988) 87 Cr App R 207. There the defendant had carried on an insurance business through the company without the authorisation of the Secretary of State under the Insurance Companies Act 1982.
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It was held that that was an offence connected with the management of the company. The court referred first to R v Corbin (1984) 6 Cr App R (S) 17, where the defendant operated a business dealing in yachts through three companies (see 87 Cr App R 207 at 209). He obtained money and yachts by various deceptions. That was held to be an offence in connection with the management of the three companies. The argument the other way was that management meant only the internal affairs of the company, presumably under the Companies Act and such like. That argument was rejected by this court.
Then there was R v Austen (1985) 7 Cr App R (S) 214, also referred to in R v Georgiou (at 209), where the defendant had carried out fraudulent hire-purchase transactions through a number of limited companies. That too was held to be within the section of the 1986 Act.
Mann J, giving the judgment of the court in R v Austen (at 216) said:
‘In our judgment the words of the section when they refer to “the management of the company” refer to the management of the company’s affairs and there is no reason in language for differentiating between internal affairs and external affairs. Indeed as a matter of policy it may be thought appropriate that management should extend to both internal and external affairs. The section should cover activity in relation to the birth, life and death of a company.’
Then O’Connor LJ continued in R v Georgiou (at 210):
‘In our judgment carrying on an insurance business through a limited company is a function of management and if that function is performed unlawfully in any way which makes a person guilty of an indictable offence it can properly be said that that is in connection with the management of the company.’
There are three possible ways of looking at the test to be applied. The first might be to say that the indictable offence referred to in the 1986 Act must be an offence of breaking some rule of law as to what must be done in the management of a company or must not be done. Examples might be keeping accounts or filing returns and such matters. It is clear from the authorities that the section is not limited in that way, although even if there were such a limit it would be arguable that the offence of insider trading, because it requires some connection between the defendant and the company, is an offence of that nature. Another view might be that the indictable offence must be committed in the course of managing the company. That would cover cases such as R v Georgiou, R v Corbin and R v Austen. What the defendants in all those cases were doing was managing the company so that it carried out unlawful transactions.
The third view would be that the indictable offence must have some relevant factual connection with the management of the company. That, in our judgment, is the correct answer. It is perhaps wider than the test applied in the three cases we have mentioned, because in those cases there was no need for the court to go wider than in fact it did. But we can see no ground for supposing that Parliament wished to apply any stricter test. Accordingly, we consider that the conduct of Mr Goodman in this case did amount to an indictable offence in connection with the management of the company. Even on a stricter view that might well be the case, because as chairman it was unquestionably his duty not to use confidential information for his own private benefit. It was arguably conduct in the management of the company when he did that.
We reject the argument that there was no power to make a disqualification order in this case.
The second point raised by Mr Martin-Sperry was that the order here would
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debar the defendant from being a director not only of a public company whose shares are traded on the stock exchange, but also of a private company where that did nor happen. We, for our part, cannot see anything in the 1986 Act which enables a judge to make a disqualification order in relation to one class of company, that is to say those whose shares are publicly traded, but not in relation to another class of company. Mr Martin-Sperry has to acknowledge that he can find nothing in the Act which allows that. It is true that in Re Lo-Line Electric Motors Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 692, [1988] Ch 477 Browne-Wilkinson V-C made an order which excepted the two companies run by a relation of the defendant. That was done under s 295 of the Companies Act 1985. Mr Martin-Sperry is unable to point to a section in the 1986 Act which would enable us to make a general exception of the kind suggested by him, even if we were minded to do so.
We turn to the third argument, which is that the disqualification period was excessive, and indeed that this was a case where no disqualification at all ought to have been ordered. There are some guidelines for the exercise of the jurisdiction in another section of the Act provided by Re Sevenoaks Stationers (Retail) Ltd [1991] 3 All ER 578, [1991] Ch 164; but they are not dealing with criminal proceedings.
Mr Martin-Sperry points out that Mr Goodman committed no offences under the Companies Act. Likewise none of the creditors of the company have lost anything. The purchasers of Mr Goodman’s shares might well have lost a very substantial sum of money. Counsel have not been able to tell us what the position is in that regard. Apparently, the sale was set aside by a judge of the Chancery Division, but whether the purchase price has been paid, and if so whether it has been recovered, is not clear.
Next it is observed that Mr Goodman has a clear record not only in the criminal courts but also in the management of companies. Furthermore he pleaded guilty to this offence. There are substantial medical reports which show that he was under great stress at the time, and was acting very strangely in some respects. We are not sure that much weight should be given to that because, whilst medical mitigation might make his criminal culpability less, it does nothing to increase his suitability to be a company director.
It is finally said that this order has had a devastating effect on Mr Goodman’s life. He is trained as an accountant. Mr Martin-Sperry says that from now on he could be no more than a bookkeeper; that would be an insufficient use of his talents, and he will not be able to exercise them in managing companies. That is as it may be. We are not wholly convinced that he is deprived of all opportunities of employment which are suitable to his talents by any means.
Against that this was a monstrous and scandalous example of insider trading. A very large sum was attempted to be obtained by the chairman of a public company. It is hard to think of a worse case.
In our judgment, the order appealed against should be upheld and the appeal dismissed.
Appeal dismissed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified under s 33(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: whether the commission of an offence under s 1(1) of the Company Securities (Insider Dealing) Act 1985 is capable of being an act ‘in connection with the management of a company’ for the purpose of s 2(1) of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986.
13 October. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Templeman, Lord Griffiths and Lord Browne-Wilkinson) refused leave to appeal.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Marsh v Marsh
[1993] 2 All ER 794
Categories: FAMILY; Ancillary Finance and Property
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR STEPHEN BROWN P, GLIDEWELL AND STAUGHTON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 13 JANUARY, 5 FEBRUARY 1993
Divorce – Appeal – Financial provision – Appeal from district judge to circuit judge – Fresh evidence – Appeal from ancillary relief order made by district judge – Whether appeal by way of rehearing – Whether circuit judge having jurisdiction to admit fresh evidence – Whether circuit judge restricted by Court of Appeal principles on fresh evidence – Whether circuit judge entitled to substitute own discretion for that of district judge – CCR Ord 37, r 6(1) – Family Proceedings Rules 1991, r 8.1.
Following the parties’ divorce the wife applied for ancillary relief. At the hearing of the application, at which the husband was not represented, the district judge ordered the husband to transfer the matrimonial home to the wife subject to a 25% charge in his favour and to make periodical payments to the wife and their child. The husband applied to the judge to vary the district judge’s order and sought to call further evidence as to his financial state and to call further evidence or cross-examine the wife as to her earnings. The judge, faced with conflicting authorities as to how the appeal should be heard, made a preliminary ruling that the appeal was not a rehearing de novo and that fresh evidence was only admissible according to the criteria laid down by the Court of Appeal for the admissibility of fresh evidence. The husband appealed.
Held – Although r 8.1(2)(a)a of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991 provided that an ancillary relief order made by a district judge in county court family proceedings was to be treated as a final order of the judge for the purposes of CCR Ord 37, r 6(1)b, full meaning and effect was to be given to r 8.1(3) of the 1991 rules, which provided that on the hearing of appeals to which r 8.1(2) applied the judge could exercise his own discretion in substitution for that of the district judge. Accordingly, an appeal from a district judge to a county court under r 8.1(2) of the 1991 rules in ancillary relief proceedings was not a hearing de novo with the parties having an unfettered right to begin entirely again or to adduce further evidence. On the other hand, the admissibility of fresh evidence was not restricted by the criteria laid down by the Court of Appeal for the admissibility of fresh evidence and the judge could in his discretion admit such further or oral evidence as he thought relevant on such terms as he thought fit. Furthermore, the judge could exercise his own discretion to reopen matters already determined by the district judge and could give such weight as he thought fit to the manner in which the district judge exercised his discretion. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed and the case remitted to the judge to admit any further evidence that was relevant and credible (see p 801 e to j, post).
G (formerly P) v P (ancillary relief: appeal) [1978] 1 All ER 1099 followed.
Lauerman v Lauerman [1992] 1 WLR 734 and Walters v Walters [1992] 2 FCR 499 approved.
Merritt v Merritt [1992] 2 All ER 504 overruled.
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Notes
For appeals from ancillary relief orders, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1031, 1095, and for cases on the subject, see 27(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 233–234, 10595–10601.
For the admission of fresh evidence in appeals in matrimonial proceedings, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1022.
Cases referred to in judgment
Evans v Bartlam [1937] 2 All ER 646, [1937] AC 473, HL.
G (formerly P) v P (ancillary relief: appeal) [1978] 1 All ER 1099, [1977] 1 WLR 1376, CA.
Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745, [1954] 1 WLR 1489.
Lauerman v Lauerman [1992] 1 WLR 734.
Merritt v Merritt [1992] 2 All ER 504, [1992] 1 WLR 471.
Sansom v Sansom [1966] 2 All ER 396, [1966] P 52, [1966] 2 WLR 1125.
Walters v Walters [1992] 2 FCR 499.
Cases also cited
G v G [1985] 2 All ER 225, [1985] 1 WLR 647, HL.
Martin v Martin [1976] 3 All ER 625, [1978] Fam 12, CA.
Interlocutory appeal
The husband appealed from the decision of Judge Wroath sitting in the Portsmouth County Court on 20 July 1992 whereby, on the hearing of an appeal against an ancillary relief order made on the application of the wife by District Judge Wade on 16 March 1992, the judge ruled on a preliminary issue that the hearing of an appeal from a district judge to a circuit judge was not a hearing de novo but was to be heard in an appellate manner akin to an appeal to the Court of Appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Nicholas Wall QC and Richard Todd (instructed by Donnelly & Elliott, Gosport) for the husband.
Barry Coulter (instructed by Innes & Co, Portsmouth) for the wife.
Cur adv vult
5 February 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR STEPHEN BROWN P. The court has before it an appeal from an interlocutory decision of Judge Wroath made at Portsmouth County Court on 20 July 1992. The learned judge was hearing an appeal from a final order of a district judge made upon a wife’s application for financial ancillary relief following a divorce. A preliminary issue was raised as to the correct way to hear the appeal in the light of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991, SI 1991/1247. The order made by the district judge provided, inter alia, that the husband should transfer to the wife the matrimonial home subject to a charge in his favour of 25%. He further ordered that he should make periodical payments to the wife and for the child of the family. The husband had not been represented before the district judge. The wife had been represented by counsel. In his notice of appeal to the county court judge the husband indicated that he wished to have leave to call further evidence to show, inter alia, that the mortgage debt figure used by the district judge was
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wrong and that he had further debts which were not made known to the district judge at the time of the hearing but which he submitted were relevant and should be taken into account. He also sought to adduce evidence that he had an additional tax liability which had not been disclosed but which nevertheless should be taken into account. He further indicated that he wished to be allowed to call further evidence or to cross-examine further as to the wife’s earnings. Counsel for the wife submitted that the terms of r 8.1(2)(a) of the 1991 rules did not permit the court to embark upon a rehearing de novo of the case or of hearing fresh evidence except upon the same basis as that upon which the Court of Appeal considers the admission of further evidence. In making that submission counsel relied upon the decision of Bracewell J in Merritt v Merritt [1992] 2 All ER 504 at 506, [1992] WLR 471 at 473. In that case the learned judge said:
‘In my judgment the effect of r 8.1 of the 1991 rules is that the appellant has to show in this appeal that the district judge was plainly wrong in his decision on 9 May 1991 and that the appeal is subject to a Court of Appeal test.’
However, in the later case of Lauerman v Lauerman [1992] 1 WLR 734 at 735 Thorpe J declined to follow the decision in Merritt v Merritt and held that:
‘… there should manifestly remain a residual discretion to reinvestigate areas of fact or to admit further evidence if the justice of the case seems to demand it. Above all, it was intended that the judge of the Family Division should not be bound by the strict principles that inhibit the court of review from substituting its discretion for the discretion of the court below.’
Further, in Walters v Walters [1992] 2 FCR 499 at 500 Thorpe J held that:
‘Rule 8.1 of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991 did not confine the Judge to determining an appeal on the basis that the district judge saw and heard the witnesses, reached clear conclusions of fact, and could not be shown to have erred in any way in determining the issue. The judge would ordinarily adopt the evidence before the district judge and his conclusions in relation to that evidence unless there were good reasons for reopening that stage of the investigation. Equally, the Judge would not ordinarily admit additional evidence unless there was good reason to do so. But the Judge was free to substitute his discretion for that of the district judge even if adopting all the district judge’s findings on the evidence below.’
Because of the conflict between the decisions in Merritt v Merritt [1992] 2 All ER 504, [1992] 1 WLR 471 on the one hand and Lauerman v Lauerman [1992] 1 WLR 734 and Walters v Walters [1992] 2 FCR 499 on the other, the judge at Portsmouth County Court was invited by counsel to give a preliminary ruling as to how he proposed to proceed to hear the appeal with a view to taking the matter to the Court of Appeal for an authoritative ruling. The judge acceded to this request. The matter has accordingly come before this court by way of an appeal on a preliminary point. Counsel for the husband and counsel for the wife both invite this court to resolve the uncertainty which has arisen following the conflicting decisions to which I have referred.
Rule 8.1 of the 1991 rules provides:
‘Appeals from district judges.—(1) Except where paragraph (2) applies, any party may appeal from an order or decision made or given by the district judge in family proceedings in a county court to a judge on notice; and in such a case—(a) CCR Order r 3, rule 1(10) (which enables the judge to vary or rescind an order made by the district judge in the course of proceedings), and (b) CCR Order 37, rule 6 (which gives a right of appeal to the judge from
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a judgment or final decision of the district judge), shall not apply to the order or decision.
(2) Any order or decision granting or varying an order (or refusing to do so) (a) on an application for ancillary relief, or (b) in proceedings to which rules 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.6 or 3.8 apply, shall be treated as a final order for the purposes of CCR Order 37, rule 6.
(3) On hearing an appeal to which paragraph (2) above applies, the judge may exercise his own discretion in substitution for that of the district judge.
(4) Unless the court otherwise orders, any notice under this rule must be issued within 14 days of the order or decision appealed against and served not less than 14 days before the day fixed for the hearing of the appeal.
(5) Appeals under this rule shall be heard in chambers unless the judge otherwise directs.
(6) Unless the court otherwise orders, an appeal under this rule shall not operate as a stay of proceedings on the order or decision appealed against.’
CCR Ord 13, r 1(10) and (11) provides:
‘(10) An appeal shall lie to the judge from any order made by the [district judge] on the application and the appeal shall be disposed of in chambers unless the judge otherwise directs.
(11) An appeal under paragraph (10) shall be made on notice, which shall be filed and served on the opposite party within 5 days after the order appealed from or such further time as the judge may allow.’
The note to Ord 13, r 1 in The County Court Practice 1991 p 224 states:
‘Appeal.—As paragraph (11) follows RSC Ord 58, r 1, it would appear that an appeal to the judge in chambers should be dealt with by way of an actual rehearing: the judge would consider the matter unfettered by the district judge’s decision, as if it came before him for the first time, although it would be for the appellant, whether the applicant or respondent before the registrar, to open the appeal …’
The editor’s note to Ord 13, r 1 also states:
‘Scope of rule.—This rule provides generally for the making of interlocutory applications, whether before or after judgment.’
CCR Ord 37, r 6 provides:
‘Appeal from [district judge].—(1) Any party affected by a judgment or final order of the [district judge] may, except where he has consented to the terms thereof, appeal from the judgment or order to the judge, who may, upon such terms as he thinks fit,—(a) set aside or vary the judgment or order or any part thereof, or (b) give any other judgment or make any other order in substitution for the judgment or order appealed from, or (c) remit the action or matter or any question therein to the [district judge] for rehearing or further consideration, or (d) order a new trial to take place before himself or another judge of the court on a day to be fixed.
(2) The appeal shall be made on notice, which shall state the grounds of the appeal and be served within 14 days after the day on which judgment or order appealed from was given or made.’
The editor’s notes to Ord 37, r 6 in The County Court Practice 1991 pp 407–408 include the following commentary:
‘This appeal is more akin to an appeal from the judge to the Court of Appeal. The party appealing must show grounds and the judge has a
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discretion to allow the appeal in such form as is permitted by the above rule but his discretion is an appellate discretion and must be exercised judicially only for good and sufficient reason.’
Since the application which was the subject of appeal to the learned county court judge was an application for ancillary relief, r 8.1(2) of the 1991 rules applied. Accordingly, the decision of the district judge was to be treated as a final order within the provisions of Ord 37, r 6. It did not fall within the ambit of Ord 13, r 1.
In her decision in Merritt v Merritt [1992] 2 All ER 504 at 506, [1992] 1 WLR 471 at 473 Bracewell J said:
‘The limited right of the appellate court to interfere in an appeal from a final order under Ord 37, r 6 contrasts starkly with the procedure for appeal from a district judge in an interlocutory matter under Ord 13, r 1(10) where the judge on appeal hears the matter de novo and makes such decision as he considers just. I find that the notes in The County Court Practice 1991 correctly state the law and procedure for appeals from district judges. In my judgment the effect of r 8.1 of the 1991 rules is that the appellant has to show in this appeal that the district judge was plainly wrong in his decision on 9 May 1991 and that the appeal is subject to a Court of Appeal test. It has been argued that r 8.1(3), which permits the court to exercise a discretion, demonstrates that the previous position has not changed. I am satisfied however, that that particular rule is essentially procedural and once the appellate court is satisfied that the district judge was plainly wrong, then the appellate court may exercise appropriate discretion.’
In the present case Judge Wroath, having referred to the relevant provisions of the county court rules and to the cases to which I have referred, said:
‘In my judgment the words in r 8.1(3) mean that the circuit judge may substitute his discretion for that of the district judge. The discretion of the district judge is that having found the facts in the case he must make such order as he thinks just and reasonable. Therefore in deciding whether the district judge had made a just and reasonable order the circuit judge uses his discretion and not that of the district judge. However he has to apply his discretion to the findings of fact of the district judge. Rule 8.1 does not provide for him to hear new evidence or reach different findings of fact, and it does not exclude the provisions of CCR Ord 37 r 6. In my judgment therefore this appeal is not a rehearing de novo and must be heard in an appellate manner as ruled by Bracewell J in Merritt v Merritt [1992] 2 All ER 504, [1992] 1 WLR 471.’
Prior to 14 October 1991 when the 1991 rules were introduced appeals from district judges (then called registrars) to the county court, or if acting in their High Court jurisdiction to High Court judges in proceedings for ancillary relief, were governed by the Matrimonial Causes Rules 1977, SI 1977/344, r 124:
‘Appeal from registrar in county court proceedings.—(1) C.C.R. Order 13, rule 1(1)(h) (which enables the judge to vary or rescind an order made by the registrar in the course of proceedings), and C.C.R. Order 37, rule 5 (which gives a right of appeal to the judge from a judgment or final decision of the registrar), shall not apply to an order or decision made or given by the registrar in matrimonial proceedings pending in a divorce county court, but any party may appeal from such an order or decision to a judge on notice filed within five days after the order or decision was made or given and
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served not less than two clear days before the day fixed for hearing of the appeal, which shall be heard in chambers unless the judge otherwise orders.
(2) Except so far as may be otherwise ordered, an appeal under paragraph (1) shall not operate as a stay of proceedings on the order or decision appealed against.’
The decision of this court in G (formerly P) v P (ancillary relief: appeal) [1978] 1 All ER 1099, [1977] 1 WLR 1376 stated the practice to be adopted on the hearing of such appeals. The court held in that case in allowing a husband’s appeal from a county court judge—
‘that an appeal from a registrar to a judge in matrimonial proceedings pending in a county court was governed by the Matrimonial Causes Rules 1977 and was by way of a rehearing of the application before the registrar in which the judge should exercise his own discretion without being fettered by the previous exercise of the registrar’s discretion; that the evidence to be considered by the judge was not confined to that which had been placed before the registrar and that, in all the circumstances including the fact that the husband was burdened with onerous mortgage repayments on a flat which he had bought for himself since the divorce, the fair amount of periodical payments for the wife should be £160 a month.’ (See [1977] WLR 1376 at 1377.)
In the course of his judgment Ormrod LJ said ([1978] 1 All ER 1099 at 1102–1103, [1977] 1 WLR 1376 at 1381):
‘The learned judge, taking his stand on CCR Ord 37, r 5 [the precursor to rule 6 in the present rules], gave himself a number of directions which, in my judgment, were wrong. In his actual judgment he said this: “This is not a hearing de novo. I can only vary the registrar if he has made an error, not if I might have given a slightly different figure.” With respect to the learned judge that I think was a clear misdirection. At the end of his judgment he said this: “I am unable to find that the registrar was wrong in principle. I might have given a little more, the registrar thought [the husband] could afford more, including maintaining [the daughter] but justice is met by the order. The appeal on this point is dismissed.” Again the judge in my judgment misdirected himself in setting himself as the standard the question whether the registrar was wrong in principle, whatever that oft-used phrase may mean. Quite clearly the judge in this case should have exercised his discretion de novo in accordance with the principles set out by Sir Jocelyn Simon P in Sansom v Sansom [1966] 2 All ER 396, [1966] P 52.’
Ormrod LJ also said ([1978] 1 All ER 1099 at 1101, [1977] 1 WLR 1376 at 1379):
‘It is equally clear that the practice and the principles applicable to appeals in these cases which are proceeding in the county court cannot differ in principle from the rules and practice which relate to appeals from registrars to judges in the High Court. These are regulated by RSC Ord 58, r 1(1), which reads: “Except as provided by rule 2, an appeal shall lie to a judge in chambers from any judgment, order or decision of a master of the Queen’s Bench Division, the Admiralty Registrar or a registrar of the Family Division.” ’
Later he said ([1978] 1 All ER 1099 at 1103, [1977] 1 WLR 1376 at 1382):
‘The next question which arose in this case was that a further affidavit had been filed by the husband at the request of the wife’s solicitors in which he
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gave a much fuller account of his position. We have read it and, if I may say so, it is a very helpful document. The county court judge unfortunately having directed himself as I have indicated took the view that he ought not to look at that affidavit. The position as I see it is this. If the discretion is at all times the judge’s discretion the parties are entitled to have the judge’s decision on these matters if they choose to appeal. Consequently they must be in a position to introduce before him (subject to any special rules about numbers of affidavits which are filed or may be filed) any evidence which is admissible and relevant. It may well be that the circumstances have changed in some way since the hearing before the registrar so that the evidence requires bringing up to date. It may be that in the course of the hearing before the registrar some problem arose or there was some doubt about some particular point. Clearly therefore either party should be able to clear up these matters when the matter comes before the judge and put before him their cases in full as they wish and without any restriction. Another question which apparently is causing concern in certain quarters is the problem which arises when the registrar has heard oral evidence. Nearly always, and I would hope always, the registrar makes a note of the evidence, and if he does not, counsel and solicitors attending should do so. That note of the evidence is, of course, properly available to the judge. But we are told that on occasions counsel are anxious to re-open the whole enquiry before the judge. It is quite obvious that this will often involve a great waste of time and expense, because so much of the material given in oral evidence in these cases is uncontroversial, and indeed experience shows that conflict of fact is not one of the most important aspects of these hearings. The facts, once they are got at, are usually accepted and the real conflict arises as to how to deal with the facts as they emerge. Speaking for myself I can see no difficulty about this. In the ordinary way no doubt the judge will take the note of the evidence given before the registrar as part of the material on which he has to make up his mind. But there will be cases where some further cross-examination may be desired by one side or the other, or where one side may desire to give further oral evidence to the judge. It seems to me quite impossible and thoroughly undesirable to lay down any constricting rules about this, even if it were competent to do so, which I doubt. It must, in my judgment be left to the learned judge to decide how far repetition of what has taken place before the registrar is necessary or justifiable; and with co-operation between the advocates and judge, there ought not to be any serious difficulty. We are told that in this particular case counsel for the wife was anxious to cross-examine the husband on one or two aspects of his affidavit, and again it would be a matter for him to justify to the judge if he wished to do it. Here of course there was a further affidavit sworn by the husband after the hearing before the registrar so, unquestionably, counsel for the wife must be entitled if he wishes to cross-examine on that later affidavit. I hope that that makes the position reasonably clear, but if it is not, some practice direction may have to be made. But it is right to say that if the Evans v Bartlam [1937] 2 All ER 646, [1937] AC 493 principle is borne in mind it is not easy to see how parties can be restricted by rules or by practice directions from putting their cases reasonably before the judge.’
Mr Wall QC submits that, although by r 8.1(2) of the 1991 rules CCR Ord 37, r 6 is applied to ancillary relief appeals, it must be read in conjunction with r 8.1(3):
‘On hearing an appeal to which paragraph (2) above applies, the judge may exercise his own discretion in substitution for that of the district judge.’
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This is a specific provision, submits Mr Wall, which is the key to the situation. Its effect is to distinguish appeals under this rule from the practice adopted in appeals to the Court of Appeal. Therefore, the note to Ord 37, r 6 in The County Court Practice 1991 pp 407–408 is not apposite to the consideration of appeals under r 8.1 of the 1991 rules. Appeals to which r 8.1(3) applies are clearly not to be considered upon the same basis as appeals to the Court of Appeal. He submits that Thorpe J was correct in his approach in Lauerman v Lauerman [1992] 1 WLR 734. The true meaning and effect of the rule is firstly that the judge may exercise his own discretion but may also give such weight as he thinks fit to the way in which the district judge exercised his discretion, and secondly that no party shall be entitled as of right to adduce further evidence or oral evidence as if the matter were being heard de novo under CCR Ord 13, r 1(10). The construction applied by Bracewell J would render r 8.1(3) otiose. It would also result in an anomalous distinction between ancillary relief appeals from a district judge in the county court to the county court judge, and appeals from a district judge exercising High Court jurisdiction to a High Court judge.
Mr Wall further argues that in this category of case it is particularly important that the judge hearing an appeal from a district judge should not be placed in a ‘straitjacket’, as it were, which would be the result if he merely had a discretion similar to that exercised by the Court of Appeal.
Mr Coulter for the respondent has argued strenuously that the approach of the county court judge was correct and should be upheld. However, he appears to be somewhat unclear as to the precise meaning to be attributed to r 8.1(3). It would seem to follow from his argument that he is committed to contending that it is wholly otiose.
The court is unable to accept this submission. In our view the approach of Thorpe J in Lauerman v Lauerman is correct. Full meaning and effect must be accorded to r 8.1(3). In effect, it indorses the practice explained at length by Ormrod LJ in G (formerly P) v P (ancillary relief: appeal) [1978] 1 All ER 1099, [1977] 1 WLR 1376 thereby ensuring that the hearing is under the full control of the judge. He will exercise his discretion throughout. It follows that (1) the judge should exercise his own discretion but may give such weight as he thinks fit to the manner in which the district judge exercised his discretion and (2) no party shall be entitled as of right to adduce further evidence or oral evidence but the judge may in his discretion admit such further or oral evidence as he thinks relevant and just upon such terms as he thinks fit. Thus in considering an application to admit further evidence a judge is not strictly bound by the rules as expressed in Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745, [1954] 1 WLR 1489. The structure of the 1991 rules also shows that the Rule Committee intended to draw a distinction between appeals under r 8.1(1) and r 8.1(2). No party shall have an unfettered right to begin entirely again de novo with, as it were, a ‘clean sheet’, but shall be subject to the discretion of the judge as to the admission of further evidence and the reopening of matters already determined by the district judge.
We therefore propose to allow this appeal and to remit the matter to the learned judge to proceed with the substantive appeal in the light of our ruling upon this preliminary point. So far as receiving any further evidence is concerned the judge will consider whether it is credible and relevant but will not be constrained by the first of the requirements expressed in Ladd v Marshall.
Appeal allowed. Matter remitted to county court. No order for costs.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
R v Kirkup
[1993] 2 All ER 802
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STAUGHTON LJ, WATERHOUSE AND McCULLOUGH JJ
Hearing Date(s): 13 OCTOBER, 4 NOVEMBER 1992
Criminal law – Soliciting for immoral purposes – Immoral purposes – Sexual activity capable of being immoral – Whether particular purpose capable of being immoral matter for judge – Whether conduct in fact for immoral purpose question for jury to decide – Sexual Offences Act 1956, s 32.
The appellant was observed by police officers in a men’s public lavatory engaged in conduct which, it was alleged, showed tacitly that he was inviting other men to engage in homosexual activity with him. The appellant was charged under s 32a of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 with soliciting for immoral purposes. At his trial the prosecution case was that over a period of 15 minutes in the lavatory he had looked at other men using the urinals and smiled at them and had looked and smiled at one of the officers while masturbating. It was no part of the prosecution case that the appellant intended to engage in homosexual activity in the lavatory. The defendant’s evidence was that he was only in the lavatory for some three minutes and that he had looked at the police officer ‘out of sexual curiosity’. He was convicted. He appealed against his conviction on the ground that the judge, having ruled in his summing up that the purposes referred to in s 32 were those of sexual contact or sexual activity, had effectively withdrawn from the jury the question of whether or not the appellant’s conduct was for immoral purposes.
Held – For the purposes of s 32 of the 1956 Act soliciting for ‘immoral purposes’ was soliciting for some kind of sexual activity; whether a particular purpose was capable of being immoral was a matter for the judge or the justices on the advice of their clerk to rule on and it was then for the jury or the justices as judges of fact to decide whether the conduct in question was in fact for an immoral purpose within the meaning of the section. Although there had been a significant misdirection by the judge it was clear that there was only one conclusion which a jury could have reached if properly directed. Accordingly, applying the proviso to s 2(1) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, the appeal would be dismissed (see p 805 e f and p 808 b e g h, post).
R v Ford [1978] 1 All ER 1129 applied.
Crook v Edmondson [1966] 1 All ER 833 considered.
Notes
For soliciting by a man for immoral purposes, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 395, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 522, 4872–4876.
For the Sexual Offences Act 1956, s 32, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 263.
For the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, s 2, see ibid 388.
Cases referred to in judgment
Crook v Edmondson [1966] 1 All ER 833, [1966] 2 QB 81, [1966] 1 WLR 672, DC.
R v Ford [1978] 1 All ER 1129, [1977] 1 WLR 1082, CA.
R v Goddard (1990) 92 Cr App R 185, CA.
R v Gray (1981) 74 Cr App R 324, CA.
Page 803 of [1993] 2 All ER 802
Appeal
David John Kirkup appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction on 15 October 1990 in the Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall before Judge Goldstein and a jury on a single count of importuning contrary to s 32 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956, for which he was conditionally discharged for two years and ordered to pay £590 towards the costs of the prosecution. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Sandra Pontac (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Godfrey Ashmore (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
4 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
STAUGHTON LJ. David Kirkup was charged in the Crown Court at Middlesex Guildhall before Judge Goldstein and a jury in October 1990 with an offence under s 32 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956. That section provides:
‘It is an offence for a man persistently to solicit or importune in a public place for immoral purposes.’
The offence is triable summarily or on indictment. The section replaced, in much the same words, s 1(1)(b) of the Vagrancy Act 1898; but the other part of s 1 in that Act dealt with living on the earnings of prostitution.
Kirkup was convicted and conditionally discharged for two years. He was also ordered to pay £590 towards the costs of the prosecution. He now appeals against conviction by leave of a single judge.
The question in this appeal is as to who shall decide that something is an immoral purpose. Can one deduce from the statute itself what are immoral purposes? Or is it for the judge to decide in a Crown Court trial, and the magistrates on the advice of their clerk when the offence is tried summarily? Or is it for the jury, or the magistrates as judges of fact, to answer that question? Parliament in 1898 did not say what were to be regarded as immoral purposes; perhaps it regarded the answer as obvious and refrained from spelling it out through feelings of delicacy. Again in 1956 Parliament gave no definition of immoral purposes.
The facts
The prosecution case was that on 30 March 1990 in the men’s public lavatory at Victoria Station the defendant engaged in conduct which showed, tacitly, that he was inviting other men to engage in homosexual activity with him. That was said to have lasted for 15 minutes. Police officers noticed him standing at a urinal for about four minutes but not urinating. He was looking around at other men using the urinals. Then he went to a wash basin to wash his hands and to a dryer to dry them. Next he went to another set of urinals, again not urinating but looking and smiling at other men. Finally he went to a urinal which was one space away from where a police officer was standing, and looked and smiled at the officer while masturbating his own erect penis.
The defendant in evidence said that he was only in the public lavatory for some three minutes. He urinated at one of the urinals and washed and dried his hands. Then he went and stood two or three stalls away from the police officer and looked at him ‘out of sexual curiosity’. He denied the rest of the prosecution account, saying that the public lavatory was well lit and fitted (as he knew) with video cameras.
Page 804 of [1993] 2 All ER 802
If the defendant’s evidence was or might have been true he was entitled to be acquitted, for (as the judge said) he would not have importuned persistently for any purpose. But the jury by their verdict evidently rejected his evidence and accepted that of the police officers. Their conclusion in that respect could not be and was not challenged on this appeal.
We have, however, had argument as to the precise objective for which the defendant was persistently importuning. Miss Pontac, on his behalf, told us that in the police officer’s view the defendant was soliciting for public sexual activity, that is to say to be watched while he masturbated. Mr Ashmore, for the Crown, on the other hand tells us that it was left open for the jury to decide, and was not clear, what the defendant’s precise purpose was; it was no part of the prosecution case that the activity he had in mind was to take place in the public lavatory. The judge, in the passage from the summing up which we shall shortly be quoting, referred to sexual activity either in the public lavatory or consequent upon an invitation to go home. On the verdict of the jury the defendant was plainly importuning persistently for sexual activity with another male. We think it right to assume, since the assumption may be favourable to the defendant, that the sexual activity which he had in mind was to happen not in a public place such as the men’s lavatory but in private at the defendant’s home or elsewhere.
The summing up
At the outset of his direction to the jury the judge said:
‘Ladies and gentlemen, as I shall explain to you in just a moment, how you approach your deliberations in this case is entirely a matter for you. But what I am going to say at the outset to get it out of the way and to clear your minds is the following: it is utterly irrelevant—and I cannot emphasise that enough—your own personal views of this type of crime. It is utterly irrelevant your knowledge of or views about homosexual men or women. It is utterly irrelevant to your personal views about people who seek sexual gratification in the way it is alleged this defendant did. It is utterly irrelevant and a waste of time to go to your room and indulge in higher moral debate about society’s attitude towards the gay community. It is equally irrelevant and a waste of time to try and place this crime in some league table of serious offences that we have to grapple with in these courts. All that—and I say it again—is irrelevant and has got nothing whatsoever to do with your task in this matter: to decide whether or not both in law and in fact Mr Kirkup committed the offences alleged against him on this particular day.’
Later the judge said:
‘ “For immoral purposes”. That means for the purposes of sexual activity—that is all—that sexual activity could take place in the lavatory itself consisting of an act of gross indecency, or it could take place by an invitation to go home. Here I disagree fundamentally with counsel for the defence. It would be persistently importuning for immoral purposes to go around asking men to go home with you and be disabused. As to that, although of course as I suspect many of you know, in certain circumstances sexual acts between consenting males in private no longer is an offence in this country; but to go round our streets or public lavatories inviting consistently or persistently people to come home with you still remains a criminal offence. Again, you do not need to enter into that debate here because that is not what is being alleged against Mr Kirkup in these circumstances. So the immoral purposes are sexual contact, sexual activity. Quite rightly, at the end of the day, you and you alone decide whether it is proved that Mr Kirkup was
Page 805 of [1993] 2 All ER 802
engaging in this sort of importuning and whether that was for an immoral purpose, whether it was some form of sexual congress.’
The word ‘disabused’ in that passage may be an incorrect transcription. There had been no argument as to the law before the judge summed up. When the jury were about to retire Miss Pontac in the presence of the jury drew his attention to a passage in Archbold’s Pleading Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (43rd edn, 1988) p 2161, para 20–430 which included a reference to R v Gray (1981) 74 Cr App R 324, which we shall mention shortly. She submitted that whether homosexual activity was an immoral purpose was for the jury to decide. The judge then said:
‘Thank you. You have heard what counsel has said, members of the jury. Would you like to retire and consider your verdict?’
Mr Ashmore concedes that whether a particular purpose is an immoral purpose within s 32 of the 1956 Act is a matter for the jury to decide. For reasons which will appear, we agree that his concession correctly states the present law, resulting from three decisions of this court which are binding upon us.
However, Mr Ashmore submits that the judge did leave that question to the jury. We disagree. The judgment plainly ruled that any form of sexual contact, sexual activity or sexual congress was an immoral purpose. His concluding remarks, immediately before the jury retired, did nothing to withdraw or amend that direction.
So there was a significant misdirection in this case; and the only issue for us to decide is whether we should apply the proviso to s 2(1) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, on the ground that there was only one conclusion which the jury could have come to if they had been properly directed. But first we must turn to the law.
The cases
The first is Crook v Edmondson [1966] 1 All ER 833, [1966] 2 QB 81 in the Divisional Court. There a man was soliciting prostitutes from his car in a public street—conduct which would now be an offence under s 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1985. Winn LJ, with whom Lord Parker CJ agreed, considered in some detail what was meant by the words ‘immoral purposes’. First he said ([1966] 1 All ER 833 at 835, [1966] 2 QB 81 at 90):
‘Parliament cannot be supposed to have used those words in their general sense, as comprising all wrong conduct, in a statute relating solely to sexual offences … It seems to me to follow that the “immoral purposes” here in question must be immoral in respect of sexual conduct.’
With that Sachs J also agreed, although he dissented in part from the majority view.
It is important to notice that the court was there imposing a limit on the meaning of ‘immoral purposes’, not providing a definition. It did not say that ‘for immoral purposes’ meant for the purpose of any kind of sexual activity. That would have meant that it was an offence for a man persistently to importune his wife in a public place. Such conduct might be regarded as reprehensible, even offensive in certain circumstances. But the statute contains two distinct elements: (i) persistently importuning in a public place, (ii) for immoral purposes. It is, in general, objectionable for members of the public to be persistently importuned for any purpose in a public place. But that is only half the offence. It must also be importuning for an immoral purpose. What the Divisional Court was deciding at that stage was that the immoral purpose must be immoral sexual activity—not
Page 806 of [1993] 2 All ER 802
gambling or drunkenness or racial discrimination or any other non-sexual purpose which some or all people would think immoral.
That part of the decision in Crook v Edmondson remains the law to this day. And if we may say so, it was plainly right; Parliament was not legislating about gambling, drink or racial discrimination in the 1956 Act. But there still remained the question, what kinds of sexual activity were an immoral purpose? The majority in that case considered that the conduct with which it was concerned—soliciting woman in the street for sexual activity—was not within s 32; in other words the sexual activity in question was, as a matter of law, not an immoral purpose under the 1956 Act.
Winn LJ tentatively suggested that s 32 comprehended ‘such immoral purposes as are referred to in this part of the Act of 1956’ (see [1966] 1 All ER 833 at 836, [1966] 2 QB 81 at 92). Sachs J disagreed and said ([1966] 1 All ER 833 at 837, [1966] 2 QB 81 at 93):
‘… it seems to my mind appropriate that the decision as to what is an “immoral purpose” should be the responsibility of the jury of the day or of whoever is entrusted with that decision in lieu of a jury.’
Since that case the Sexual Offences Act 1985 has dealt with conduct of the kind with which it was concerned. But the majority view in the second part of the decision in Crook v Edmondson has not prevailed in this court, and the judgment of Sachs J has been preferred: see R v Goddard (1990) 92 Cr App R 185, to which we will return.
Since Crook v Edmondson there have been three decisions of this court in which it has been held that whether a particular form of sexual activity is an immoral purpose is a question for the jury.
The first was R v Ford [1978] 1 All ER 1129, [1977] 1 WLR 1082, decided after s 1(1) of the Sexual Offences Act 1967 had made homosexual acts between consenting adults in private lawful in certain circumstances. The facts were, for practical purposes, similar to those in the present case. It was argued that since the 1967 Act such conduct was not capable of being an immoral purpose. The Court of Appeal rejected that argument. Lord Widgery CJ said ([1978] 1 All ER 1192 at 1131, [1977] 1 WLR 1082 at 1085):
‘In our judgment, the right way to deal with this case was the way adopted by the judge, that is to say, for him to rule whether the act complained of could amount to an offence, and having correctly ruled in this case that it could, then to leave it to the jury to decide whether the conduct involved immoral purposes. The jury were properly directed, they clearly took the view that it did involve immoral purposes, and so do we.’
Next is R v Gray (1981) 74 Cr App R 324. Again the facts were similar; but on this occasion the judge stopped the appellant’s counsel addressing the jury as to whether homosexual activity was an immoral purpose, and himself ‘as good as told the jury that such purposes were immoral’.
Lord Lane CJ, delivering the judgment of the court, said (at 328) that there had been both a material irregularity (in that counsel for the appellant had been prevented from deploying his argument) and a misdirection. But the court applied the proviso to s 2(1) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 and dismissed the appeal. That must have been on the basis that whether homosexual activity between consenting adults in private was an immoral purpose was a question of fact for the jury to decide, but that the jury would inevitably have concluded that it was.
In examining the legislative history Lord Lane CJ said (at 328–329) that it was—
Page 807 of [1993] 2 All ER 802
‘inconceivable that Parliament in 1967 contemplated that any tribunal whether of fact or law, might have held importuning for the purposes in question here to be outside the section … we are in no doubt that whether in 1896, 1956 or 1967, Parliament, in using the phrase “importuning for immoral purposes” had no intention of excluding importuning by males for the purpose of engaging in homosexual activity.’
Nevertheless, the court did not decide that, as a matter of law, homosexual activity was an immoral purpose. That appears from the way the case was decided, and from the passage which immediately follows (at 329):
‘It is plain from their verdict that the jury rejected the appellants’ evidence and accepted that of the police officer. That being so, we have to ask ourselves whether we think it possible that, having heard Mr. Langstaff’s argument and having been properly directed, they could have done other than convict. In asking ourselves this question we are conscious of the fact that in the field of contemporary morals Judges may not be best fitted to assess the attitudes of the mass of right thinking members of society. But the views of Parliament may be regarded as reflective of such opinion, and taking them into account, as they appear from the history set out above, and making, we hope, due allowance for the passage of the years since 1967, we find strong confirmation of our own belief as to the attitudes of society in general. It is a belief which was also shared by the members of this Court in Ford ([1978] 1 All ER 1129, [1977] 1 WLR 1082) and, more importantly, by every member of the jury who tried that case. For these reasons we have concluded that, once the appellant’s evidence was rejected and that of the officer accepted, the jury would inevitably have convicted. On this aspect of the matter there was nothing unsafe or unsatisfactory about the conviction.’
Finally there is R v Goddard (1990) 92 Cr App R 185. There the appellant on a July afternoon in rural Dorset solicited first an unmarried woman aged 28 and then a girl aged 14 for sexual intercourse. It was argued that the first incident did not involve an immoral purpose; and although the second incident did, there was no persistent importuning. As Hirst J said (at 187) in delivering the judgment of the Court of Appeal, the crux of the argument—
‘was that for a man to invite an adult woman to indulge in consensual sexual relations cannot as a matter of law be an invitation for an immoral purpose, irrespective of the circumstances in which such an invitation is given and however offensive the words or manner in which the invitation is couched.’
Rejecting the majority view in Crook v Edmondson [1966] 1 All ER 833, [1966] 2 QB 81, this court held that soliciting women in public for sexual intercourse was capable of constituting the offence of soliciting for an immoral purpose, contrary to s 32 of the 1956 Act. The judge had correctly directed the jury as follows (92 Cr App R 185 at 190):
‘In deciding whether it was for sexually immoral purposes as a matter of law you should apply the standards of ordinary right-thinking men and women living in England in 1989 and 1990, considering all the circumstances in which the overtures were made and the nature of those overtures.’
Presumably the judge felt that the ‘circumstances’ and ‘nature’ of the overtures might cast light, not on whether they were offensive (which the jury did not have to decide, although they plainly were), but on whether they were for an immoral purpose.
Page 808 of [1993] 2 All ER 802
Conclusion
The law in this court is that an immoral purpose in s 32 must be some kind of sexual activity. Nobody disputes that. But once that hurdle or gateway is passed, it is for the judge to rule whether a particular purpose is capable of being immoral, and for the jury to decide whether it is.
We feel bound to say that this does not seem to us altogether satisfactory. Different juries, and perhaps even different magistrates, may not hold the same view today as to whether sexual intercourse between unmarried persons is immoral. Unless directed with great care, they may be distracted by the offensive nature of the defendant’s conduct instead of concentrating on the morality of the purpose for which he is soliciting.
But given the present law, it is even less satisfactory that judges should fail to leave the question to the jury, and that this court should then be invited to apply the proviso on the ground that there is only one answer which the jury could have reached. As Lord Lane CJ said in R v Gray (1981) 74 Cr App R 324 at 329:
‘In the field of contemporary morals judges may not be best fitted to assess the attitudes of the mass of right thinking members of society.’
Yet that is the task we assume if we say that there was only one answer which the jury could have reached.
We ourselves hold the same view as the members of the court in R v Gray (and in R v Ford [1978] 1 All ER 1129, [1977] 1 WLR 1082 for that matter) that the conduct envisaged in those cases and in this does amount to an immoral purpose within the section. We have, as that court had, the support of the unanimous verdict of the jury in R v Ford 16 years before. We do not know and cannot discover how many juries, if any, have since reached a different conclusion.
Unless the present law is reviewed by a higher court, Parliament might think it right to assume the task of deciding what is immoral in sexual activity; what was unnecessary in 1898 and 1956 may now be desirable. Otherwise, in a time of changing moral views, juries and magistrates may reach different conclusions; and on occasions which we hope will be rare, judges will themselves have to consider an issue of morals, if the jury have not been directed correctly and the proviso is invoked.
We return to the present case. There is, in our judgment, no material which would justify us in taking a different course from that taken by this court in R v Gray despite the lapse of 11 years since that decision. We are bound to follow it unless we can say that the attitudes of right-thinking members of society have changed since then. We have no basis for saying that they have with particular reference to the conduct envisaged in this case. Accordingly, we apply the proviso and dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed. The court gave leave to appeal to the House of Lords and certified, under s 33(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that the following points of law of general public importance were involved in the decision: (1) whether, on proved or admitted primary facts, the question whether the defendant importuned ‘for immoral purposes’, contrary to s 32 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956, is a question of law for the judge or a question of fact for the jury; (2) if the answer to question 1 is that it is a question of fact for the jury, is it nevertheless appropriate for the Court of Appeal to apply the proviso to s 2(1) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 in a case in which it is proved or admitted that the defendant importuned for homosexual purposes which were not unlawful, on the footing that in 1992 a reasonable jury properly directed would undoubtedly have convicted?
On 23 February 1993 the appellant notified the Criminal Appeal Office that he would not be proceeding with the appeal.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Gray (Inspector of Taxes) v Seymour
Garden Centre (Horticulture) (a firm)
[1993] 2 All ER 809
Categories: TAXATION; Income Tax, Capital Allowances
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): VINELOTT J
Hearing Date(s): 10 MARCH, 1 APRIL 1993
Income tax – Capital allowances – Plant – Apparatus used by taxpayer for purpose of business – Planteria – Glasshouse providing environment in which plants from nurseries would remain in good condition until sold – Whether planteria ‘plant’ – Finance Act 1971, s 41(1).
The taxpayers, who carried on the trade of nurserymen, erected a planteria, which was a form of glasshouse which protected growing plants from the weather and also created an environment in which they would grow and maintain their quality of growth until sold. The planteria had a glass roof with panes which could be opened and shut to control ventilation and a specially designed integral irrigation system but no integral heating. It was built on the site of rows of cold frames which formerly provided a similar function and its internal layout allowed customers free passage between the benches on which the plants, which were already in saleable condition when they reached the planteria, were displayed. The taxpayers claimed that expenditure incurred on the construction of the planteria was capital expenditure on the provision of plant within s 41a of the Finance Act 1971 which qualified for a first-year allowance under that Act and the General Commissioners upheld their claim. The Crown appealed.
Held – Although the planteria fulfilled the same function as the cold frames they had replaced, namely the protection of plants between removal from the nursery and sale, that function could be achieved without the use of any permanent structure, and it did not follow that a structure erected to perform that function was plant. On the evidence, the planteria was simply the premises in which the final part of the taxpayers’ trade as nurserymen, ie the display and sale of plants, was carried on, and in concluding that the planteria was plant the commissioners had overlooked the crucial distinction between the business use test and the premises test. Accordingly the planteria was not ‘plant’ for the purposes of s 41 of the 1971 Act and therefore expenditure incurred on its construction did not qualify for a first-year allowance under that Act. The Crown’s appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 814 e to j, post).
Dictum of Hoffmann J in Wimpy International Ltd v Warland (Inspector of Taxes) [1988] STC 149 at 172 applied.
Notes
For the meaning of ‘plant’, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 365, and for cases on the subject, see 28(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 124–130, 3008–3022.
As respects allowances and charges falling to be made for chargeable periods ending after 5 April 1990 s 41 of the Finance Act 1971 was replaced by s 22(1) and (4)(a) of the Capital Allowances Act 1990.
Cases referred to in judgment
IRC v Barclay Curle & Co Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 732, [1969] 1 WLR 675, HL.
Page 810 of [1993] 2 All ER 809
Wimpy International Ltd v Warland (Inspector of Taxes) [1988] STC 149; affd [1989] STC 273, CA.
Cases also cited
Carr (Inspector of Taxes) v Sayer [1992] STC 396.
Cole Bros Ltd v Phillips (Inspector of Taxes) [1982] 2 All ER 247, [1982] 1 WLR 1450, HL.
Jarrold (Inspector of Taxes) v John Good & Sons Ltd [1963] 1 All ER 141, [1963] 1 WLR 214, CA.
St John’s School (Mountford and Knibbs) v Ward (Inspector of Taxes) [1975] STC 7, CA.
Case stated
1. At a meeting of the Commissioners for the general purposes of the income tax for the division of Putney held on 23 March 1989 Seymours Garden Centre (Horticulture), a partnership, appealed against an estimated assessment to income tax for the year 1984–85 under Sch D, Case 1 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 in the sum of £100,000
2. The question for the commissioners’ determination was whether the expenditure of £14,902 incurred in the year ended 30 April 1983 by the partnership on the construction of a planteria was expenditure laid out for the provision of plant or machinery within the meaning of ss 41 and 42 of the Finance Act 1971 so as to qualify for first-year allowances under those sections, or, if not so laid out, whether expenditure on the planteria was expenditure on the construction of buildings partially for agricultural purposes within the provisions of ss 68 and 69 of the Capital Allowances Act 1968 so as to qualify for agricultural buildings allowances under those sections.
3. The inspector of taxes appeared in person. The partnership was represented by Mr D Seymour, one of the partners, who also gave evidence. Mr Bryan Morgan (an employee of the Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries and Food who was in charge of the Agricultural Development Advisory Service for the South of England) also appeared as an expert witness, called by the partnership.
[Paragraph 4 listed the documents admitted or proved before the commissioners.]
5. From the oral and documentary evidence before them the commissioners found the following facts. (a) The expression ‘planteria’ was believed to have originated in the United States of America to describe a structure which housed ornamental plants. Such a structure protected growing plants from the weather but also created an environment in which plants would grow and maintain their quality of growth which could not be achieved in any other structure. It was synonymous with a glasshouse. The roof of this particular planteria was glazed with a special glass for horticultural purposes which allowed maximum light penetration and heat retention. The roof construction allowed panes to be opened and shut to control ventilation. The ventilation system was further controlled by adding or taking away side netting. On the exposed corners added protection from frost was given by hanging up polythene or netting. The planteria was not heated although it was possible to provide heat, if required, by means of paraffin heat boxes (which were not part of the structure). The floor consisted of strong paving slabs and shingle was scattered under each bench to allow drainage. That provided a good environment for plants since it allowed a buoyant atmosphere to reduce the incidence of disease and was considered to be good horticultural practice. (b) The planteria erected in 1983 was built on the site of rows of cold frames with removable dutch light glazed covers which formerly provided a similar function to that of the planteria. The type of plants sold to the public from the cold frames were sold in the planteria situated in the garden centre
Page 811 of [1993] 2 All ER 809
protected space alongside the plant, florist and sundries departments to which the public had access. Plants were already in saleable condition when they reached the planteria. Plants in large pots were watered by hand. Others were stood on benches, each of which had on it absorbent material which was kept wet, the whole being specially designed with an interior irrigation system. The internal layout of the planteria allowed customers (with or without trolleys) free passage between the benches. (c) Certain plants such as bay trees and camellias tended to be in the planteria in question for quite considerable periods. Bay trees in particular for up to eight to ten months. Other plants were purchased from all round the world and required special treatment which could be afforded by the planteria. Winter flowering pansies on the other hand might sell within two weeks of having been placed in the planteria. (d) The planteria erected in 1983 together with a further such structure erected in 1985 occupied an area of approximately 5,200 sq ft and formed part of the site of some ten acres of production nursery land and protected garden centre space which included a florist department which was the shop. (e) The structure was not rated as an agricultural building but formed part of a general rating assessment as shop, office, showground and premises.
The expert witness
The report of Mr Bryan Morgan which he read out to the commissioners was divided into paragraphs headed ‘Reasons for protection’, ‘Research and development results’, ‘Methods of protection’, ‘Benefits of protection’, ‘Links between commercial producer and garden centre’ and ‘Conclusion’.
There was no reference in his report to the particular planteria that was the subject of this appeal, but it was established in evidence that he had visited the planteria.
‘The purpose of a planteria, therefore, is to provide an environment for plant growth which is an extension of plant production. This ensures that plant quality is likely to be maintained to the required market specification on which the plant purchase was first based. Manipulating plant growth by using the planteria to hold back growth or encourage it is an essential feature of good plant management. Holding plants in a planteria may require weeks or several months. In order to maintain plant material in good quality condition good horticultural husbandry is essential. The planteria is, therefore, an extension of horticultural production which requires trained horticultural staff to manage and care for plants. This is important irrespective of whether plants growing in the planteria are hardy, semi-hardy or non-hardy.’
6. It was contended on behalf of the partnership that the planteria in respect of which capital allowances were claimed was a tool in the growing of plants and regarded in the trade as a very good tool.
7. It was contended by the Crown as follows. (a) The planteria was part of the setting in which the partnership’s business was carried on rather than the apparatus with which it was carried on. (b) The function of the planteria was that of a shop to display plants for sale to the public in the context of the garden centre business. (c) The planteria had no function in the activity of growing plants on the cultivated land which itself was not part of the garden centre retail complex. (d) The plants were already grown and ready for sale by the time they were brought to the planteria. (e) It was a structure which provided shelter for customers buying goods and for the goods themselves. (f)The planteria’s special features of design adapted to suit the nature of the goods (growing plants) were not additional functions which converted the premises into plant. (g) The claim for allowances should not be allowed.
8. The following cases were referred to: Benson (Inspector of Taxes) v Yard Arm
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Club Ltd [1979] 2 All ER 336, [1979] 1 WLR 347; Cole Bros Ltd v Phillips (Inspector of Taxes) [1982] 2 All ER 247, [1982] 1 WLR 1450; Cooke (Inspector of Taxes) v Beach Station Caravans Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 159, [1974] 1 WLR 1398; Dixon (Inspector of Taxes) v Fitch’s Garage Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 455, [1976] 1 WLR 215; Hinton (Inspector of Taxes) v Maden & Ireland Ltd [1959] 3 All ER 356, [1959] 1 WLR 875; IRC v Barclay Curle & Co Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 732, [1969] 1 WLR 675; Jarrold (Inspector of Taxes) v John Good & Sons Ltd [1963] 1 All ER 141, [1963] 1 WLR 214; J Lyons & Co Ltd v A-G [1944] 1 All ER 477, [1944] Ch 281; St John’s School (Mountford and Knibbs) v Ward (Inspector of Taxes) [1975] STC 7; Schofield (Inspector of Taxes) v R & H Hall Ltd [1975] STC 353; Thomas (Inspector of Taxes) v Reynolds [1987] STC 135; Yarmouth v France (1887) 19 QBD 647.
9. The commissioners who heard the appeal held that the expenditure of £14,902, incurred in the construction of the planteria was expenditure laid out for the provision of plant within the meaning of ss 41 and 42 of the Finance Act 1971. Accordingly, they did not need to consider the partnership’s claim under ss 68 and 69 of the Capital Allowances Act 1968.
10. The Crown immediately after the determination of the appeal declared its dissatisfaction therewith as being erroneous in point of law and requested the commissioners to state a case for the opinion of the High Court pursuant to s 56 of the Taxes Management Act 1970.
11. The question of law for the opinion of the court was whether on the facts found the commissioners were correct in holding that the partnership was entitled to capital allowances under ss 41 and 42 of the Finance Act 1971.
Timothy Brennan (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue) for the Crown.
Robin Mathew QC (instructed by Badhams Thompson) for the partnership.
Cur adv vult
1 April. The following judgment was delivered.
VINELOTT J. This is an appeal by case stated from a decision of the General Commissioners for the division of Putney. It raises the familiar question whether expenditure, in this case by the respondent partnership Seymours Garden Centre (Horticulture) on the construction of a planteria during the year to 30 April 1983, was expenditure on plant attracting a first-year capital allowance under ss 41 and 42 of the Finance Act 1971. There was a further question before the commissioners: whether if the expenditure was not expenditure on plant within ss 41 and 42 the planteria attracted a writing-down allowance under ss 68 and 69 of the Capital Allowances Act 1968. The commissioners decided that the planteria was plant and accordingly did not decide the further question whether, if it had not been plant, the expenditure would have attracted writing-down allowances.
The commissioners’ decision was simply that the expenditure in question was ‘expenditure laid out for the provision of plant within the meaning of Sections 41 and 42 Finance Act 1971’. They summarise the arguments advanced by the inspector and the partnership but do not say why they accept the one and reject the other. In these circumstances it cannot be said that there was any manifest error in the process of reasoning which led the commissioners to their conclusion. The question is whether on the facts found or admitted before them their conclusion was one which a reasonable tribunal properly instructed as to the law could have reached or whether it contradicted the true and only conclusion from those facts.
In these circumstances I must set out the facts in some detail. The commissioners describe a planteria in these terms:
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‘Such a structure protects growing plants from the weather but also creates an environment in which plants will grow and maintain their quality of growth which could not be achieved in any other structure. It is synonymous with a glasshouse. The roof of this particular planteria is glazed with a special glass for horticultural purposes which allows maximum light penetration and heat retention. The roof construction allows panes to be opened and shut to control ventilation. The ventilation system is further controlled by adding or taking away side netting. On the exposed corners added protection from frost is given by hanging up polythene or netting. The planteria is not heated although it is possible to provide heat, if required, by means of paraffin heat boxes (which are not part of the structure). The floor consists of strong paving slabs and shingle is scattered under each bench to allow drainage. This provides a good environment for plants since it allows a buoyant atmosphere to reduce the incidence of disease and is considered to be good horticultural practice. (b) The planteria erected in 1983 was built on the site of rows of coldframes with removable dutch light glazed covers which formerly provided a similar function to that of the planteria. The type of plants sold to the public from the cold frames were now sold in the planteria situated in the garden centre protected space alongside the plant, florist and sundries departments to which the public have access. Plants are already in saleable condition when they reach the planteria. Plants in large pots were watered by hand. Others were stood on benches, each of which had on it absorbent material which was kept wet, the whole being specially designed with an interior irrigation system. The internal layout of the planteria allowed customers (with or without trolleys) free passage between the benches.’
They then observe that some plants, bay trees and camellias, tend to remain in the planteria before sale for quite considerable periods—in the case of bay trees up to eight to ten months—that other plants are purchased from all round the world and require special treatment which can be afforded by the planteria but that some plants, in particular winter flowering pansies, may sell within two weeks of being placed in the planteria.
The commissioners had before them a written report by a Mr B J W Morgan, who described himself as regional nursery stock specialist. He read his written report, which deals in general terms with the usages and advantages of a planteria. It was not directed specifically to the partnership’s planteria though he had visited it. The commissioners cite his conclusion:
‘The purpose of a planteria, therefore, is to provide an environment for plant growth which is an extension of plant production. This ensures that plant quality is likely to be maintained to the required market specification on which the plant purchase was first based. Manipulating plant growth by using the planteria to hold back growth or encourage it is an essential feature of good plant management. Holding plants in a planteria may require weeks or several months. In order to maintain plant material in good quality condition good horticultural husbandry is essential. The planteria is, therefore, an extension of horticultural production which requires trained horticultural staff to manage and care for plants. This is important irrespective of whether plants growing in the planteria are hardy, semi-hardy or non-hardy.’
This conclusion must be understood in the light of the report as a whole. Mr Morgan starts his report with the introductory remark that—
‘the planteria environment allows the extension of the production nursery environment to take place. Plant survival and saleability to required market specifications is an essential requirement.’
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He then sets out the need for the protection of plants from the effect of cold or strong winds, excessive or deficient moisture, frost and sun scorch. Then he describes various methods of protecting plants—windbreaks, overhead protection to reduce cold and water-logging, thermal blankets laid over plants and the use of straw bales around the sides of container beds.
He describes other means of protection from cold temperatures and winds—overhead cover and netting sides, polythene tunnels, glasshouses with netting sides, and emphasises the need for good ventilation. He then observes:
‘The method of protection to be adopted in garden centres has to be one which considers the need of a wide plant range as plants are obtained from many different sources and have different levels of hardiness so an economically acceptable level of production has to be decided upon.’
He describes the link between the commercial producer and garden centre by saying: ‘Plant protection in a garden centre is an extension of the commercial producer’s growing environment for a wide range of plants.' I have cited at some length from this report because it is to my mind quite clear from it that a planteria is a fixed structure designed to maintain plants of many different kinds moved from nurseries (which may or may not be owned by the person operating the planteria) in an environment in which they will remain in good condition until sale. It is so designed that an appropriate mini-climate can be provided in different parts of the planteria suitable for different varieties of plant and so as to be open to the public, who can walk round the planteria and choose from the plants on offer.
I have reached the clear conclusion that it is impossible on this evidence to conclude that the planteria was ‘plant’. It is simply the structure in which the final part of the partnership’s trade as nurserymen—the display and sale of plants—is carried on. The reasons which led the commissioners to a different conclusion must be a matter of speculation. However, in their description of the planteria, where they say that ‘it is synonymous with a glasshouse’ and in the subsequent comment that it was built on the site of cold frames with removable dutch light glazed covers ‘which formerly provided a similar function’, there are indications that the commissioners overlooked the crucial distinction recently emphasised by Hoffmann J in Wimpy International Ltd v Warland (Inspector of Taxes) [1988] STC 149 at 172 between the business use test and the premises test. It is true that a planteria fulfils the same function, the protection of plants between removal from the nursery and sale, which could be achieved without the use of any permanent structure—by glass and plastic cloches or by the use of straw bales, thermal blankets or, for that matter, bonfires during frosty nights. It does not follow that a structure erected to perform the same function must be plant. It may be that a specialised glasshouse with integral heating, temperature and humidity controls, automatic ventilation, shade screens and other equipment could be considered to be (like the often-cited dry dock apparatus (see IRC v Barclay Curle & Co Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 732, [1969] 1 WLR 675)) apparatus for carrying on a trade and not the premises in which the trade is carried on. This case can be considered when it arises.
In my judgment, on the evidence before the commissioners a planteria falls well on the premises side of the line wherever it may be drawn.
Appeal allowed. Matter remitted to commissioners for determination of the partnership’s claim under ss 68 and 69 of the Capital Allowances Act 1968.
Siew Ling Choo Barrister.
Bugg and another v Director Public Prosecutions
Director of Public Prosecutions v Percy and another
[1993] 2 All ER 815
Categories: CONSTITUTIONAL; Legislatures, Armed Forces
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WOOLF LJ AND PILL J
Hearing Date(s): 15, 16, 17, 20, 21, 31 JULY 1992
Byelaw – Validity – Challenge to validity – Offences of entering protected military area in breach of byelaw – Whether appropriate to challenge byelaws in criminal proceedings – Whether byelaws substantively invalid – Whether byelaws procedurally invalid – Military Lands Act 1892, s 14(1) – RAF Alconbury Byelaws 1985 – HMS Forest Moor and Menwith Hill Station Byelaws 1986.
In two separate appeals the questions arose whether certain byelaws made under s 14(1)a of the Military Lands Act 1892 were valid and whether the validity of subordinate legislation could be challenged in criminal proceedings. In the first case the defendants, who had been conducting a campaign to challenge the legality of the Ministry of Defence’s attempt to exclude members of the public from service bases, were convicted by justices of entering a protected area without authority or permission contrary to byelaw 2(b)b of RAF Alconbury Byelaws 1985 and s 17(2)c of the 1892 Act. Their appeal to the Crown Court having been dismissed, they appealed to the Divisional Court, contending, inter alia, that the byelaws were invalid because the protected area to which the offences related was not sufficiently identified. In the second case the defendants were charged with similar offences in breach of byelaw 2(b)d of the HMS Forest Moor and Menwith Hill Station Byelaws 1986. The stipendiary magistrate dismissed the charges after making a preliminary ruling that once the court had been provided with material which was sufficiently substantial to raise doubts that the byelaw might be invalid it became the prosecutor’s duty to establish beyond reasonable doubt that the minister had complied with the requirements of s 17(1)e of the 1892 Act when promulgating the byelaws. The Director of Public Prosecutions appealed to the Divisional Court.
Held – (1) Byelaws could be invalid either where there was substantive invalidity, ie the byelaw was bad on its face as being beyond the power of the enabling legislation or patently unreasonable, or where there was procedural invalidity because of non-compliance with a procedural requirement in the making of the byelaw, for example a failure to consult (see p 822 d e, post).
(2) In criminal proceedings for the alleged contravention of a byelaw, the court had jurisdiction to determine the issue of substantive invalidity where the defendant sought to challenge the validity of the byelaw by way of a defence, since no evidence was required and the court could decide the issue by reference to the terms of the primary and subordinate legislation. However, the court had
Page 816 of [1993] 2 All ER 815
no jurisdiction to determine an issue of procedural invalidity, since that issue could only be determined on examination of the relevant evidence in civil proceedings to which the body responsible for making the byelaw was a party (see p 823 b c and p 826 g j, post); Plymouth City Council v Quietlynn Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 1040 applied; R v Crown Court at Reading, ex p Hutchinson [1988] 1 All ER 333 distinguished.
(3) In the first case, since the Alconbury byelaws referred to the protected area covered by the byelaw as being marked by an outer perimeter fence, which had since been moved, it would be contrary to the intention of Parliament to prosecute a person for proceeding beyond the boundary of the protected area when the boundary on the ground was substantially different from that defined in the byelaws. It followed that the appellants could not properly be convicted of the offences with which they had been charged and their appeal would therefore be allowed. In the second case, the Forest Moor byelaws were defective on their face and thus substantively invalid since there was no description of the boundary of the protected area contained in the byelaws. In that case therefore the appeal would be dismissed (see p 830 e f j, p 831 b and p 832 h, post).
Per curiam. Subject to any statutory provision to the contrary, it is probably the position that, once a byelaw has been produced in evidence, it is prima facie valid and there will be an evidential burden on a defendant if he wishes to show that on the balance of probability there has been mala fides upon the part of the byelaw maker. Where it is suggested that there has been an abuse of power because of mala fides on the part of the byelaw maker, there may be an issue which a criminal court can determine and in such a case evidence will be required (see p 827 j to p 828 b, post).
Notes
For validity of byelaws generally, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1326–1330, and for cases on the subject, see 13 Digest (Reissue) 259–267, 2314–2404.
For byelaws regulating the use of military lands, see 41 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 116.
For the Military Lands Act 1892, ss 14, 17, see 3 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 1140, 1142.
Cases referred to in judgment
Associated Provincial Picture Houses v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Cannock Chase DC v Kelly [1978] 1 All ER 152, [1978] 1 WLR 1, CA.
DPP v Bugg [1987] Crim LR 625, DC.
DPP v Head [1958] 1 All ER 679, [1959] AC 83, [1958] 2 WLR 617, HL.
DPP v Hutchinson [1990] 2 All ER 836, [1990] 2 AC 783, [1990] 3 WLR 196, HL; rvsg [1989] 1 All ER 1060, [1989] QB 583, [1989] 3 WLR 281, DC.
Hoffmann-La Roche (F) & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128, [1975] AC 295, [1974] 3 WLR 104, HL.
Kruse v Johnson [1898] 2 QB 91, [1895–9] All ER Rep 105, DC.
London and Clydeside Estates Ltd v Aberdeen DC [1979] 3 All ER 876, [1980] 1 WLR 182, HL.
Margate Pier Co v Hannam (1819) 3 B & Ald 266, 106 ER 661.
May v Beattie [1927] 2 KB 353, DC.
O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237, [1982] 3 WLR 1096, HL.
Plymouth City Council v Quietlynn Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 1040, [1988] QB 114, [1987] 3 WLR 189, DC.
R v Brisby (1849) 1 Den 416, 169 ER 305, CCR.
R v Crown Court at Oxford, ex p Smith (1989) 154 JP 422.
Page 817 of [1993] 2 All ER 815
R v Crown Court at Reading, ex p Hutchinson [1988] 1 All ER 333, [1988] QB 384, [1987] 3 WLR 1062, DC.
R v Rose (1855) 19 JP 676, DC.
Smith v East Elloe RDC [1956] 1 All ER 855, [1956] AC 736, [1956] 2 WLR 888, HL.
Wandsworth London BC v Winder [1984] 3 All ER 976, [1985] AC 461, [1984] 3 WLR 1254, HL.
Cases also cited
Akar v A-G of Sierra Leone [1969] 3 All ER 384, [1970] AC 853, PC.
Bentley v Chief Constable of Northumbria [1984] RTR 276, DC.
Bratty v A-G for Northern Ireland [1961] 3 All ER 523, [1963] AC 386, HL.
Brayhead (Ascot) Ltd v Berkshire CC [1964] 1 All ER 149, [1964] 2 QB 303, DC.
Campbell v Wallsend Slipway and Engineering Co Ltd [1978] ICR 1015, DC.
Chertsey UDC v Mixnam’s Properties Ltd [1964] 2 All ER 627, [1965] AC 735, HL; affg [1963] 2 All ER 787, [1964] 1 QB 214, CA.
Commonwealth Shipping Representative v P & O Branch Service [1923] AC 191, [1922] All ER Rep 207, HL.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, HL.
Cullimore v Lyme Regis Corp [1961] 3 All ER 1008, [1962] 1 QB 718.
Dillon v R [1982] 1 All ER 1017, [1982] AC 484, PC.
Johnson v Sargant & Sons [1918] 1 KB 101.
London and North Eastern Rly Co Ltd v Berriman [1946] 1 All ER 255, [1946] AC 278, HL.
Palastanga v Solman (1962) 106 SJ 176, DC.
Powell v May [1946] 1 All ER 444, [1946] KB 330, DC.
R v Ashley (1968) 52 Cr App R 42, CA.
R v Clerkenwell Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p DPP [1984] 2 All ER 193, [1984] QB 821, DC.
R v Downes (1790) 3 Term Rep 560, 100 ER 733.
R v Hunt [1987] 1 All ER 1, [1987] AC 352, HL.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Malhi [1990] 2 All ER 357, [1991] QB 194.
R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd [1989] 2 All ER 692, [1990] 2 AC 85, HL.
R v Sheer Metalcraft Ltd [1954] 1 All ER 542, [1954] 1 QB 586, Assizes.
Royal v Prescott-Clarke [1966] 2 All ER 366, [1966] 1 WLR 788, DC.
Scott v Baker [1968] 2 All ER 993, [1969] 1 QB 659, DC.
Scott v Pilliner [1904] 2 KB 855, DC.
Slattery v Naylor (1888) 13 App Cas 446, PC.
Staden v Tarjanyi (1980) 78 LGR 614, DC.
Streames v Copping [1985] 2 All ER 122, [1985] QB 920, DC.
Strickland v Hayes [1896] 1 QB 290, [1895–9] All ER Rep 201, DC.
Tyrrell v Cole (1919) 83 JP 53, DC.
Waverley BC v Hilden [1988] 1 All ER 807, [1988] 1 WLR 246.
White v Morley [1899] 2 QB 34, DC.
Woolmington v DPP [1935] AC 462, [1935] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Cases stated
Bugg and anor v DPP
John Bugg and Rachel Diana Greaves appealed by way of a case stated by the Crown Court at Peterborough (Judge Astill and two justices) in respect of its adjudication on 2 March 1989 whereby it dismissed their appeals against
Page 818 of [1993] 2 All ER 815
convictions by the justices for the petty sessional division of Peterborough sitting at Huntingdon of entering a protected area without authority or permission given by or on behalf of one of the persons mentioned in byelaw 5(1) of the RAF Alconbury Byelaws 1985, SI 1985/1340, made by the Secretary of State for Defence on 6 September 1985 in exercise of his powers under Pt II of the Military Lands Act 1892, contrary to byelaw 2(b) and s 17(2) of the Military Lands Act 1892, as amended by Sch 3 to the Criminal Justice Act 1982. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
DPP v Percy and anor
The Director of Public Prosecutions appealed by way of a case stated by J E Barry Esq, the stipendiary magistrate acting in and for the petty sessional division of Ripon Liberty, in respect of his adjudication in Ripon Magistrates’ Court between 20 and 24 May 1991 whereby he dismissed informations against the respondents, Lindis Elizabeth Percy and John Bugg, of entering a protected area without authority or permission contrary to Byelaw 2(b) of HMS Forest Moor and Menwith Hill Station Byelaws 1986, SI 1986/481, made by the Secretary of State for Defence on 26 March 1986 in exercise of his powers under Pt II of the Military Lands Act 1892 and s 17(2) Military Lands Act 1892. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Mr Bugg appeared in person.
Martin Wynne Jones (instructed by Robert Milsom, Cambridge) for Miss Greaves.
Simon Readhead (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Huntingdon and York) for the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Kier Starmer (instructed by Craig & Co, Leeds) for Miss Percy.
Mark Bishop and Robin Tam (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amicus curiae.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
WOOLF LJ. There are two appeals by case stated before the court. There is an appeal by Mr John Bugg and Rachel Diana Greaves from the decision of the Crown Court at Peterborough in respect of its adjudication on 2 March 1989, when it dismissed their appeals against their convictions by the magistrates of offences of entering a protected area without authority or permission contrary to the RAF Alconbury Byelaws 1985, SI 1985/1340, and there is an appeal by the Director of Public Prosecutions against the decision of Mr J N Barry, stipendiary magistrate, sitting at Ripon on 22 May 1991, when he dismissed like charges contrary to HMS Forest Moor and Menwith Hill Station Byelaws 1986, SI 1986/481, preferred against Lindis Elizabeth Percy and Mr Bugg.
The appeals raise, in an acute form, a number of points of general importance as to the validity of byelaws and one point of particular importance as to the ability of defendants who are charged with offences created by subordinate legislation to challenge the validity of that legislation in the course of criminal proceedings.
For some years Mr Bugg, Miss Greaves and Miss Percy have been conducting a campaign designed to challenge the legality of the Ministry of Defence’s attempt to exclude members of the public from service bases. Mr Bugg has become a considerable authority on the law relating to byelaws and he has used his knowledge to cause considerable embarrassment to the Ministry of Defence and the Director of Public Prosecutions in legal proceedings. Before this court, he appears in person. He had prepared an extremely full and lucid written argument
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(it would be wholly inappropriate to describe it as a skeleton argument) which was subsequently supplemented by written and oral argument. Unfortunately, Mr Bugg is now suffering from serious ill-health and, therefore, he could only attend part of the hearing and the court was deprived of the opportunity of hearing the full argument which he wished to develop.
However, I am satisfied that with the benefit of the written argument and the assistance of such oral argument as he was able to present, together with the assistance of counsel (all of whom took commendable care to ensure that the court properly understood Mr Bugg’s contentions, with which they were more familiar, no doubt because of other proceedings, than were the court), that the disadvantage of Mr Bugg not being present throughout was reduced to a minimum.
Mr Bugg described the appeals as being ‘friendly actions’. We are happy to be able to accept that description and to commend all the lawyers involved for the helpful way the appeals have been advanced. It was fortunate that this should be the position because Mr Readhead, for the Director of Public Prosecutions, indicated that a number of prosecutions were being held in abeyance pending receiving the guidance of the court on these appeals and issues required to be properly argued.
Before we come to consider those points, we consider that it is right to indicate that, if Mr Bugg has achieved nothing else in consequence of this litigation, he has at least convinced us that over the last 30 years there has been a regrettable decline in the standards adopted by the Ministry of Defence in complying with their obligations in respect of byelaws made on different dates by the department. A quick perusal of those byelaws indicates the extent of the decline. Mr Bugg would have liked us to have examined the various byelaws in detail in court, but time constraints did not permit this. However, we have, with his help and by our own researches, seen enough to satisfy ourselves that there is now an urgent need for the department to reassess its attitude towards the preparation of byelaws. It is not satisfactory that there can be in existence different editions of the same byelaws which refer to plans, which are annexed, which differ to a material extent. It cannot be right that members of the public should have such difficulty in obtaining copies of byelaws when the contravention of those byelaws can amount to an offence.
On the Alconbury byelaw appeal, the Crown Court seeks the opinion of this court on a number of different issues. In the Forest Moor appeal, the second appeal, the court was only asked for its opinion in relation to two related issues. This was because on that appeal Mr Barry made certain preliminary rulings upon legal submissions which were made to him and after he had announced his ruling, the Director offered no evidence so all the charges were dismissed. The ruling Mr Barry made was as to the extent of the burden of proof on the prosecution and the defence when the validity of byelaws is in issue and the prosecution have ‘proved the existence and content of the material byelaws by handing a copy … into the court purporting to be printed for Her Majesty’s Stationery Office’. The Director contended that in those circumstances the defendants had the burden placed upon them of establishing on the balance of probabilities that the byelaws were invalid. The defendants contended that once a clear specific objection was taken to the byelaws, then the prosecution had the burden of establishing beyond reasonable doubt that the byelaws were valid. Mr Barry came to the conclusion that the true position was somewhere in between those contentions. He ruled:
‘… once material is provided to the court which is sufficiently substantial to make the court fear that the bylaw may be invalid, whether—and ideally, of course—by admissible evidence, but in the end even if it is only something
Page 820 of [1993] 2 All ER 815
that makes it more fair in the interests of justice for the court in its discretion to accept suggestions that the Minister may have failed to carry out his duties, then it seems to me that it becomes the Prosecution’s duty to establish to the satisfaction of the Court—in a criminal case I suppose that means to the satisfaction beyond reasonable doubt of the Court—that the Minister has performed his duties …’
The matter having been dealt with in that way, the first issue which Mr Barry raises is:
‘Is it appropriate to state a case for the opinion of the High Court when the Prosecution offered no evidence and I was therefore obliged to dismiss all charges against both defendants, without considering the weight of any evidence or whether any burden of proof had been discharged by either party?’
So far as that issue is concerned, we need say no more than that we can see no objection to the course which was adopted. The situation has similarities with that which exists when a judge makes a ruling in the course of a trial as a result of which a defendant pleads guilty. The defendant is still entitled to appeal notwithstanding he then changed his plea. His appeal against conviction will be entertained and allowed if the ruling was wrong.
Challenging the validity of byelaws in the course of criminal proceedings
Before deciding what burden, if any, is on a defendant to establish the invalidity of a byelaw, it is necessary to consider to what extent, if at all, it is appropriate for magistrates hearing criminal proceedings to inquire into the question of the invalidity of subordinate legislation. The need to consider this subject follows from the developments which have taken place in judicial review over the last 25 years. There are two important developments which are relevant. The first is a movement away from seeking to categorise unlawful administrative action into different compartments, each with their separate label, such as void or voidable or ultra vires or nullity, and instead to emphasise the grounds upon which a court can intervene and to require that intervention before an administrative action will be categorised as invalid. The change was accurately identified by Lord Hailsham LC in London and Clydeside Estates Ltd v Aberdeen DC [1979] 3 All ER 876 at 883, [1980] 1 WLR 182 at 189. Lord Hailsham LC described what has happened by saying:
‘In this appeal we are in the field of the rapidly developing jurisprudence of administrative law, and we are considering the effect of non compliance by a statutory authority with the statutory requirements affecting the discharge of one of its functions. In the reported decisions there is much language presupposing the existence of stark categories such as “mandatory” and “directory”, “void” and “voidable”, a “nullity”, and “purely regulatory”. Such language is useful … But I wish to say that I am not at all clear that the language itself may not be misleading in so far as it may be supposed to present a court with the necessity of fitting a particular case into one or other of mutually exclusive and starkly contrasted compartments, compartments which in some cases (eg “void” and “voidable”) are borrowed from the language of contract or status, and are not easily fitted to the requirements of administrative law. When Parliament lays down a statutory requirement for the exercise of legal authority it expects its authority to be obeyed down to the minutest detail. But what the courts have to decide in a particular case is the legal consequence of non compliance on the rights of the subject viewed in the light of a concrete state of facts and a continuing chain of events. It
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may be that what the courts are faced with is not so much a stark choice of alternatives but a spectrum of possibilities in which one compartment or description fades gradually into another. At one end of the spectrum there may be cases in which a fundamental obligation may have been so outrageously and flagrantly ignored or defied that the subject may safely ignore what has been done and treat it as having no legal consequences on himself. In such a case if the defaulting authority seeks to rely on its action it may be that the subject is entitled to use the defect in procedure simply as a shield or defence without having taken any positive action of his own. At the other end of the spectrum the defect in procedure may be so nugatory or trivial that the authority can safely proceed without remedial action, confident that, if the subject is so misguided as to rely on the fault, the courts will decline to listen to his complaint. But in a very great number of cases, it may be in a majority of them, it may be necessary for a subject, in order to safeguard himself, to go to the court for declaration of his rights, the grant of which may well be discretionary, and by the like token it may be wise for an authority (as it certainly would have been here) to do everything in its power to remedy the fault in its procedure so as not to deprive the subject of his due or themselves of their power to act. In such cases, though language like “mandatory”, “directory”, “void”, “voidable”, “nullity” and so forth may be helpful in argument, it may be misleading in effect if relied on to show that the courts, in deciding the consequences of a defect in the exercise of power, are necessarily bound to fit the facts of a particular case and a developing chain of events into rigid legal categories or to stretch or cramp them on a bed of Procrustes invented by lawyers for the purposes of convenient exposition.’
This approach means that except in the ‘flagrant’ and ‘outrageous’ case a statutory order, such as a byelaw, remains effective until it is quashed. This was recognised by Lord Radcliffe in Smith v East Elloe RDC [1956] 1 All ER 855 at 871, [1956] AC 736 at 769 when he said:
‘An order, even if not made in good faith, is still an act capable of legal consequences. It bears no brand of invalidity on its forehead. Unless the necessary proceedings are taken at law to establish the cause of invalidity and to get it quashed or otherwise upset, it will remain as effective for its ostensible purpose as the most impeccable of orders.’
A similar approach was adopted specifically in relation to subordinate legislation by Lord Diplock in F Hoffmann-La Roche & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128 at 1154, [1975] AC 295 at 366:
‘My Lords, I think it leads to confusion to use such terms as “voidable”, “voidable ab initio”, “void” or “a nullity” as descriptive of the legal status of subordinate legislation alleged to be ultra vires for patent or latent defects, before its validity has been pronounced on by a court of competent jurisdiction. These are concepts developed in the private law of contract which are ill-adapted to the field of public law. All that can usefully be said is that the presumption that subordinate legislation is intra vires prevails in the absence of rebuttal, and that it cannot be rebutted except by a party to legal proceedings in a court of competent jurisdiction who has locus standi to challenge the validity of the subordinate legislation in question.’
I would draw particular attention to the reference by Lord Diplock to a court of ‘competent jurisdiction’.
The other development is the expansion of the circumstances in which the courts will intervene to quash decisions. The principles on which the court can
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intervene can be traced back a great many years but the circumstances in which the courts, particularly on applications for judicial review, will apply those principles to invalidate administrative action in general and byelaws in particular has extended dramatically. We would adopt, with gratitude, the description of the change given by Carl Emery in his article ‘The vires defence—“Ultra vires” as a defence to criminal or civil proceedings’ [1992] CLJ 308 at 309:
‘It might be thought that so basic an issue as the scope of what we may call “the vires defence” would have been long-since clearly settled in law. Indeed, some 25 years ago, the matter would have seemed tolerably plain. But in the last quarter of a century the notion of “ultra vires”, and, indeed, the whole gamut of legal principles governing the jurisdiction of courts to entertain challenges to the validity of official action, have been profoundly developed. One effect of this “renaissance of administrative law” is that it cannot be assumed that the pre-renaissance law on any particular aspect of judicial review remains unchanged.’
These developments are, in our judgment, of importance when considering the proper role of a criminal court where a defendant who is charged with breaching a byelaw seeks to challenge the validity of that byelaw. It is possible to identify at least two different situations in which this will arise. The first is where the byelaw is on its face invalid because either it is outwith the power pursuant to which it was made because, for example, it seeks to deal with matters outside the scope of the enabling legislation, or it is patently unreasonable. This can be described as substantive invalidity.
The second situation is where there is what can be described as procedural invalidity because there has been non-compliance with a procedural requirement with regard to the making of that byelaw. This can be due to the manner in which the byelaw was made, for example, if there was a failure to consult. When the byelaw itself is alleged to be substantively invalid because of Wednesbury unreasonableness (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223), for present purposes what has to be attacked is not the decision to make the byelaw but the byelaw itself. That decision would have to be the subject of judicial review. In the criminal proceeding what has to be established is that the byelaw is unreasonable in the way in which it operates. This aspect of substantive invalidity was illustrated by Lord Russell CJ in Kruse v Johnson [1898] 2 QB 91 at 99–100, [1895–9] All ER Rep 105 at 110 as occurring, for instance, if the byelaws—
‘were found to be partial and unequal in their operation as between different classes; if they were manifestly unjust; if they disclosed bad faith; if they involved such oppressive or gratuitous interference with the rights of those subject to them as could find no justification in the minds of reasonable men …’
That there is a distinction between the two categories of invalidity has long been recognised in relation to the statutory grounds for applying to the High Court for the questioning of ministerial orders under the compulsory purchase and planning legislation, the difference being that in the case of the substantive invalidity an applicant need only show the invalidity whereas in the case of procedural invalidity there is also the need for the applicant to show that he has suffered substantial prejudice.
The distinction which appears clearly in current legislation can be traced back to at least the Local Government Act 1933. Section 162(1) of that Act provides that any person aggrieved by a compulsory purchase order can apply to the High Court and—
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‘if upon any such application the court are satisfied that the order is invalid, and, where the invalidity of the order arises from a failure to comply with any provision governing the procedure for the making or confirmation thereof, are further satisfied that the interests of the applicant have been substantially prejudiced by that failure, the court may quash the order …’
There is another practical difference between the two types of invalidity. In the case of substantive invalidity, it is a matter of law whether, for example, a byelaw is unreasonable in operation, or is outwith the authorising power. No evidence is required; the court can decide the issue by looking at the terms of the primary legislation and the subordinate legislation which is allowed to be invalid. The situation is different with procedural invalidity. Evidence will be required, for example, as to what happened during the course of the making of the byelaw in order to see whether or not it has been validly made.
It has been long established that in criminal proceedings, and formerly in civil proceedings, a defendant can challenge the substantive invalidity of an instrument or order for the breach of which a prosecution or claim is brought. So far as criminal proceedings are concerned, the earliest case to which we were referred where this occurred was R v Rose (1855) 19 JP 676. In that case, the applicant, who had been convicted of an offence under a byelaw, successfully applied for an order of certiorari because the offence created of the byelaw related to neglecting properly to clean and remove all snow rather than just the filthy snow which the Divisional Court regarded as being all that was within the scope of the enabling Act (the Public Health Act 1948). The 1948 Act contained a non-certiorari clause but this did not protect the byelaw since, as Lord Campbell CJ explained (at 677):
‘… we think that if the bye-law was, in fact, in excess of the authority given by the statute, he had not jurisdiction to convict, and therefore the certiorari is not taken away.’
This approach is so clearly established that it is not necessary to cite further authority in support. However, the position is different with regard to procedural invalidity. Counsel has been unable to refer us to any authority where, after argument, it has been held that it is proper for a criminal court to inquire into questions of procedural irregularity. Mr Wynne Jones did refer us to May v Beattie [1927] 2 KB 353 where before the justices it was argued that there was procedural invalidity and a defence based upon this invalidity succeeded before the justices. There was then an appeal by case stated which was successful but this was dealt with on the merits without argument as to whether the issue of procedural invalidity had been raised properly by way of defence.
Mr Wynne Jones also referred us to Margate Pier Co v Hannam (1819) 3 B & Ald 266, 106 ER 661, which involved a civil action for trespass against justices on the basis that they were not validly appointed. However, the court came to the conclusion that, while it was unlawful for the justices to act, their acts were not invalid and I do not regard that case as providing assistance. He also relied upon the decision of the House of Lords in Wandsworth London BC v Winder [1984] 3 All ER 976, [1985] AC 461 as being an example of a public law defence being available in a private law action for possession and he submitted that if this was the position in civil actions, the position should be the same in criminal proceedings.
However, the defence which was relied upon in Winder was a defence of substantive invalidity as to the reasonableness of the resolution of the council to increase the rents generally of council house tenants, the present distinction was not raised in argument and the principal issue in dispute was whether the reliance upon the defence of the invalidity of the resolution was an abuse of process. The
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House of Lords decided it was not. This is a different question from what is being considered here. In any event, we would not accept that because the issue of procedural invalidity can be investigated in civil proceedings, it would mean that a similar investigation could take place in criminal proceedings. Cannock Chase DC v Kelly [1978] 1 All ER 152, [1978] 1 WLR 1 was also a civil case and a decision on its merits and not on the issues with which we are here concerned.
Mr Wynne Jones was able to obtain more assistance from R v Brisby (1849) 1 Den 416, 169 ER 305. However, as appears from the headnote, although it was decided that justices hearing a second application were entitled to inquire into an earlier decision to see whether or not it was valid, in Brisby the earlier order was bad on its face so there was no requirement for the justices to investigate matters of procedural invalidity. As Lord Denman CJ said (1 Den 416 at 431, 169 ER 305 at 313): ‘The first order was clearly void on first principles; it therefore has no operation whatever’. As Patteson J said, it was ‘waste paper’ (see 1 Den 416 at 432, 169 ER 305 at 314).
Turning to more recent authority, DPP v Head [1958] 1 All ER 679, [1959] AC 83 is often cited as being authority for the ability to rely on the invalidity of an order as a defence in criminal proceedings. The offence of which the respondent had been convicted was carnal knowledge of a mental defective contrary to s 56(1) of the Mental Deficiency Act 1913. The majority in the House of Lords (Lord Reid, Lord Tucker and Lord Somerville of Harrow) decided the appeal on the basis that the woman concerned had been illegally detained as appeared from the face of the documents produced and received in evidence (this was in fact conceded by the Attorney General) and while if the document produced had been valid there would have been the presumption of validity, this presumption no longer applied and so the conviction could not stand.
All three of their Lordships had reservations as to the speech of Lord Denning. In his speech, Lord Denning drew a distinction which would no longer be apposite between orders which were void and orders which are voidable (see [1958] 1 All ER 679 at 692, [1959] AC 83 at 111). So far as the latter category is concerned, he took the view that it would be necessary for there to be an application to the High Court for certiorari to quash it before it could be relied upon as a defence. The distinction between orders which are void and voidable is now clearly not part of our law. However, the approach of Lord Denning is interesting because he was drawing a distinction, as we are seeking to do, between different types of invalidity.
The next case to which we should refer is Plymouth City Council v Quietlynn Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 1040, [1988] QB 114. In that case, three different local authorities had brought criminal proceedings against the company for contravention of the legislation dealing with the licensing of sex establishments. The company relied on various procedural irregularities. In some instances the company was successful, in others it was convicted. There was ultimately an appeal to the Divisional Court and it was held by the Divisional Court that under the statutory code for licensing sex establishments, it was for the local authority to determine whether to grant a licence and any question of validity of the local authority’s decision was to be determined by the High Court in proceedings for judicial review and that until this happened, the local authority’s decision was to be presumed to be validly made (unless it was invalid on its face). Accordingly, on a prosecution for an offence, neither the justices nor the Crown Court had any jurisdiction to consider the validity of the decision to refuse a licence. It followed that the finding of the Crown Court that the decision to refuse the licence was invalid had been made without jurisdiction.
In the course of giving the judgment of the court, Webster J said ([1987] 2 All ER 1040 at 1046, [1988] QB 114 at 131):
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‘It has, of course, long been the practice for justices to decide for the purposes of a case immediately before them on the validity of byelaws and, before the Town and Country Planning Act 1971, of enforcement notices. But those practices were established long before applications for judicial review were given statutory recognition in s 31 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The law relating to judicial review has become increasingly more sophisticated in the past few decades, and in our view justices are not to be expected to have to assume the functions of the Divisional Court and consider the validity of decisions made by a local authority under the 1982 Act in the light of what is now a complex body of law. If a bona fide challenge to the validity of the decision in question is raised before them, then the proceedings should be adjourned to enable an application for judicial review to be made and determined. In our view, therefore, except in the case of a decision which is invalid on its face, every decision of the licensing authority under the 1982 Act is to be presumed to have been validly made and to continue in force unless and until it has been struck down by the High Court; and neither the justices nor the Crown Court have power to investigate or decide on its validity.’
We would respectfully agree with this approach.
We now turn to consider R v Crown Court at Reading, ex p Hutchinson [1988] 1 All ER 333, [1988] QB 384. The main judgment was given by Lloyd LJ. It is interesting to note that the other member of the court was Mann J. Mann J and Watkins LJ had been the other members of the court in Quietlynn. Mann J had also given the main judgment in DPP v Bugg [1987] Crim LR 625, where Mr Laws had reserved for the House of Lords the question of whether the validity of byelaws could be explored otherwise than by way of judicial review. In that case Watkins LJ said obiter (and we read from the transcript):
‘I have much sympathy with the justices and their clerk, who had the misfortune to have to listen to a vast range of intricate submissions and to endeavour to comprehend them in the light of a mass of authorities upon the law such as no lay tribunal should be called upon to consider. If ever there was a case which demonstrates the need somehow to prevent challenges to byelaws and the like in a magistrates’ court, I doubt if any better example than this could be found. Mr Laws eschewed the opportunity of arguing whether the validity of byelaws can be explored otherwise than by judicial review. I regretted this although I fully understood his reasons for saying that he would prefer to reserve such an argument for the House of Lords. I feel bound to say, however, that I am not wholly satisfied, despite the existence of the authorities to which [Mann J] has referred, that it is open to a defendant charged with a breach of them to question their validity in a magistrates’ court. Not having looked exhaustively at these authorities, I am left wondering whether the right so to do has ever been challenged. If that be so, it seems to me that such a challenge is overdue.’
In Ex p Hutchinson [1988] 1 All ER 333, [1988] QB 384, the justices had refused to inquire into the question of the validity of byelaws. Lloyd LJ considered that this was clearly wrong. He indicated that ‘until a few years ago the answer to’ the question as to whether or not they could consider that issue ‘would have been regarded as obvious’. He regarded Quietlynn as suggesting—
‘that the long-established practice whereby magistrates have ruled on the validity of byelaws has been overtaken by s 31 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. Magistrates are no longer to be expected “to assume the function of the Divisional Court” and decide difficult questions of law, which can be
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more readily decided on judicial review’. (See [1988] 1 All ER 333 at 335, [1988] QB 384 at 389.)
However, despite this, Lloyd LJ went on to hold that—
‘magistrates have always had jurisdiction to inquire into the validity of a byelaw. They are not only entitled, but bound to do so when the defendant relies on the invalidity of the byelaw by way of defence.’ (See [1988] 1 All ER 333 at 336, [1988] QB 384 at 391.)
Lloyd LJ rejected the suggestion that O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237 could have any bearing on such a case (see [1988] 1 All ER 333 at 336–337, [1988] QB 384 at 391–392). He then went on to say that the decisions in Quietlynn were fully justified on the facts but rejected the reasoning of Webster J (see [1988] 1 All ER 333 at 338, 340, [1988] QB 384 at 394, 396).
Unfortunately, from an examination of the argument before the court in Ex p Hutchinson, it does not appear that any consideration was given to different types of invalidity. Because the magistrates’ court had not inquired into the question of invalidity, the nature of the invalidity involved did not feature in Ex p Hutchinson. Lloyd LJ, in these circumstances, was not made aware of the fact that there was no ‘long-established practice’ of justices investigating matters of what is the procedural invalidity. In fact, as is apparent from what happened in the same case when it ultimately reached the House of Lords as DPP v Hutchinson [1990] 2 All ER 836, [1990] 2 AC 783, having been reconsidered by the lower courts following the Divisional Court’s decision (see [1989] 1 All ER 1060, [1989] QB 583), Ex p Hutchinson did not, in fact, involve substantive invalidity.
In the House of Lords, the present issue was not considered and the House of Lords were not concerned with questions of procedural invalidity. However the way in which Lord Bridge indicated that a court faced with a challenge to validity of byelaws in criminal proceedings should approach its task suggests that he did not have in mind any form of invalidity other than that done to delegated legislation being, on its face, beyond the powers contained in the enabling legislation (the Military Lands Act 1892) under which it purported to be made (see [1990] 2 All ER 836 at 839, [1990] 2 AC 783 at 804).
From this lengthy, we fear too lengthy, examination of the authorities, it appears to us it is open to this court to determine as a matter of principle that it is not for a criminal court to investigate matters of procedural invalidity.
Mr Wynne Jones advanced a forceful argument, which was supported by Mr Stermer and Mr Bugg, for following the approach of Lloyd LJ in the case of a challenge to procedural validity of byelaws on grounds of principle. He drew our attention to the fact that in R v Crown Court at Oxford, ex p Smith (1989) 154 JP 422, Simon Brown J had followed the decision in Ex p Hutchinson. However, in that case again, what appears to have been central to the decision was the issue whether to seek to attack a byelaw in criminal proceedings was an abuse of the process.
In the case of procedural invalidity this is not the reason why the criminal court cannot inquire in the matter. The reason is it is not part of the jurisdiction of the criminal courts to carry out such an investigation and they are not properly equipped to do so. As in this case, until the Ministry of Defence was invited to present argument before this court, the party interested in upholding the byelaws and who is responsible for carrying out the procedures which would be under attack may well not be a party to the proceedings. It is wholly unsatisfactory to review procedural matters of this nature without the body responsible for making the byelaw being a party.
In addition, the evidence before one criminal court could well differ from the evidence before another court on different prosecution. This could result in
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differing outcomes, differing outcomes which could not be resolved on appeal since, in the case of a procedural irregularity, the evidence can be all important. The same problem does not arise with regard to substantive invalidity because there is no need for evidence to establish such validity. What has happened in the present cases in the lower courts is testament for the inappropriateness of trying to investigate issues of this sort.
Mr Wynne Jones’s argument reflected the approach of Sir William Wade in Administrative Law (6th edn, 1988) p 354. There he said:
‘There are grave objections to giving the courts discretion to decide whether governmental action is lawful or unlawful: the citizen is entitled to resist unlawful action, as a matter of right, and to live under the rule of law, not the rule of discretion. “To remit the maintenance of constitutional right to the region of judicial discretion is to shift the foundations of freedom from rock to sand.” The true scope for discretion is in the law of remedies, where it operates within the narrow and recognised limits and is far less objectionable. If the courts were to undermine the principle of ultra vires by making it discretionary, no victim of an excess or abuse of power could be sure that the law would protect him.’
So far as excess or abuse of power properly so-called is concerned, we would not dissent from this eloquent statement. However, we do not categorise procedural invalidity as being properly a question of excess or abuse of power. There is a contrast between defects which are of a substantive nature and defects which are of a procedural nature, as reflected in the legislation to which we have made reference. In the case of procedural invalidity whether or not a defendant is prejudiced is and should be a material consideration. You cannot in respect of non-compliance with the public law duties of public bodies treat individual members of the public in the same way whether or not their private rights or interests have been infringed. They have no private right which entitles them to complain of procedural defects in delegated legislation unless they have been prejudiced by the default.
So far as procedural invalidity is concerned, the proper approach is to regard byelaws and other subordinate legislation as valid until they are set aside by the appropriate court with the jurisdiction to do so. A member of the public is required to comply with byelaws even if he believes they have a procedural defect unless and until the law is held to be invalid by a court of competent jurisdiction. If before this happens he contravenes the byelaw, he commits an offence and can be punished. Where the law is substantively invalid, the position is different. No citizen is required to comply with a law which is bad on its face. If the citizen is satisfied that that is the situation, he is entitled to ignore the law.
The issue as to burden of proof
Having the distinction between substantive and procedural invalidity, the question of burden of proof resolves itself. In the case of substantive invalidity, no issue as to the evidential burden of proof should arise on attack upon the validity of a byelaw. The prosecution has to produce the byelaw in evidence and when this has been done, the byelaw, together with the enabling legislation, will provide a defendant with all that he needs. So far as procedural validity is concerned, the court at a criminal trial is not required to make a determination and so there again is no problem. However, we do accept that there may be cases within a grey area. We have particularly in mind cases where it is suggested that there has been an abuse of power because of mala fides on the part of the byelaw maker. In the case of bad faith, there may be an issue which the criminal court can determine and if so, evidence will be required.
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It may therefore be helpful if we indicate, having considered the detailed arguments that have been advanced before us, that, irrespective of any statutory provision to this effect, but subject to any statutory provision to the contrary, it is probably the position that, once the byelaw has been produced in evidence, it is prima facie valid and there is then an evidential burden upon a defendant to show that on the balance of probability there has been mala fides upon the part of the byelaw maker. It cannot be for a defendant to prove the matter beyond reasonable doubt, nor can it be sufficient for him merely to challenge the validity of the byelaw. The nature of the allegation which has to be made, in our judgment, suggests that this is the position.
Having made those general remarks, it is now necessary to turn to the specific questions which are raised on the appeals.
The legislation and the byelaws
Both sets of byelaws are made by the Secretary of State in the exercise of his power under Pt II of the Military Lands Act 1892. Section 14 of the 1892 Act contains the relevant power authorising the making of the byelaws which are in issue. The section provides:
‘(1) Where any land belonging to a Secretary of State … is for the time being appropriated by or with the consent of a Secretary of State for any military purpose, a Secretary of State may make byelaws for regulating the use of the land for the purposes to which it is appropriated, and for securing the public against danger arising from that use, with power to prohibit all intrusion on the land and all obstruction of the use thereof. Provided that no byelaws promulgated under this section shall authorise the Secretary of State to take away or prejudicially affect any right of common …’
By s 2(3) of the Defence (Transfer of Functions) Act 1964, Pt II of the 1892 Act (which includes s 14) was extended to apply to land under the management of the Secretary of State for, inter alia, naval or air force purposes as if any such purpose were a military purpose within the meaning of Pt II of the 1892 Act. The Secretary of State therefore had the authority to make the byelaws notwithstanding the fact that in the case of the first appeal, they related to RAF Alconbury and in the case of the second appeal, to HMS Forest Moor and Menwith Hill Station.
Section 14(3) defines, for the purposes of the section, ‘land belonging to a Secretary of State’ as meaning land under the management of a Secretary of State. The Secretary of State contends both establishments were under his management.
Section 17 of the 1892 Act, according to its heading, deals with ‘Notice and enforcement of byelaws’. Subsection (1) provides:
‘A Secretary of State, before making any byelaws under this Act, shall cause the proposed byelaws to be made known in the locality, and give an opportunity for objections being made to the same, and shall receive and consider all objections made; and when any such byelaws are made, shall cause the boundaries of the area to which the byelaws apply to be marked, and the byelaws to be published, in such manner as appears to him necessary to make them known to all persons in the locality; and shall provide for copies of the byelaws being sold at the price of [5p] for each copy to any person who desires to obtain the same.’
It should be noted that this subsection begins by setting out the procedure to be followed before the byelaws are made and the second half of the subsection deals with what is to happen after the byelaws are made.
Section 17(3) provides that a byelaw under the 1892 Act is deemed to be a
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regulation ‘within the meaning of the Documentary Evidence Act 1868, and may be proved accordingly’. The 1868 Act sets out a number of methods by which prima facie evidence of the regulation may be given in all courts of justice and in all legal proceedings. One such method is the production of a copy of the regulation ‘purporting to be printed by the Government Printer’ and for this purpose s 2 of the Act provides that a copy of the regulation shall have the same effect if it purports to be printed under the ‘superintendence or authority of Her Majesty’s Stationery Office’. This last provision is of some relevance here since both sets of byelaws state on their back that they are ‘printed for Her Majesty’s Stationery Office’ by a named printer. The RAF Alconbury Byelaws 1985, SI 1985/1340, came into operation on 6 September 1985, and the HMS Forest Moor and Menwith Hill Station Byelaws 1986, SI 1986/481, came into operation on 26 March 1986.
Both sets of byelaws are in a similar form. However, the manner in which the area to which the byelaws are to apply as described in the byelaws is not the same. Thus in the case of the Alconbury byelaws the description is as follows:
‘1. The area to which these byelaws apply consists of lands belonging to the Secretary of State in the parishes of Alconbury and The Stukeleys and Abbots Ripton and Alconbury Weston in the County of Cambridgeshire the boundary of which is marked by and includes the outer perimeter fence and gates of R.A.F. Alconbury and certain other areas, which lands are for convenience of identification, shown by a thick black line on the plan annexed to these byelaws and identified as “Plan of R.A.F. Alconbury” all of which is hereinafter referred to as “the Protected Area”.’
In the case of the Forest Moor byelaws, the description differs in so far as there is no reference to the boundary of the lands as being ‘marked by and includes the outer perimeter fence and gates’. In addition, there is no reference in the Forest Moor byelaws to ‘certain other areas’ as there is in the case of the Alconbury byelaws.
In the case of each set of byelaws, byelaw 3 makes it an offence to contravene the byelaws. In byelaw 5(3) of the Alconbury byelaws it is provided that:
‘If it is proved that an act or omission of any person which would otherwise have been an offence against any of the provisions of byelaw 2 was due to any cause not avoidable by the exercise of reasonable care by that person the act or omission shall be deemed not to be an offence by that person against that byelaw.’
In the Forest Moor byelaws but not in the Alconbury byelaws there is a statement that ‘nothing in these byelaws shall affect the lawful exercise by any person of any public right of way’.
To each set of byelaws there is attached a plan. The plan has the thick black line marked upon it. It was common ground that that black line would represent approximately 60ft on the ground. In addition, the plan in different editions of the Forest Moor byelaws did not correspond with each other.
Are the byelaws sufficiently certain?
Byelaws such as are here under consideration which create offences must clearly state what action is required in order to commit an offence. A person who is subjected to the byelaws is, therefore, entitled to be given the necessary details to enable him to avoid contravening the byelaws. Here, Mr Bugg makes two different criticisms of the byelaws which are related but raise separate issues. His first contention is that both sets of byelaws are uncertain because ‘the Protected Area’ to which the offences relate is insufficiently identified. Secondly, he contends
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that the byelaws are uncertain because the boundary is not marked on the ground as required by s 17 of the 1892 Act. As to the first contention, in the case of the Alconbury byelaws, the major area covered by the byelaws is perfectly properly described by the reference to the boundary ‘which is marked by and includes the outer perimeter fence and gates of R.A.F. Alconbury’.
Assuming when the byelaws were made there was such a fence and gates, then the perimeter is perfectly properly identified. However, in addition to that area, the byelaws apply to ‘certain other areas’. The plan, although it is only ‘for convenience of identification’, does give an approximate idea of the ‘other areas’, but bearing in mind the nature of the prohibited activities under the byelaws, we do not regard the plan as providing the degree of certainty which is required, having regard to the width of the black line on the plan which marks those areas.
In the case of the Forest Moor byelaws, there is no description contained in the byelaws as to the boundary of the protected area. The only reference is to the lands belonging to the Secretary of State. Mr Bishop says this does not matter because of the obligation under s 17(1) of the 1892 Act of the Secretary of State to mark the boundary on the ground. However, if this submission is right, it would mean that the area subject to the byelaws would be dependent upon action being taken by the Secretary of State which he may or may not take and which would enable him to fix the boundary at will as long as he defined that boundary within his own lands.
We do not accept that this can be the situation. In our judgment, before the Secretary of State is entitled to rely on what is marked on the ground, or for that matter on some other document, there must be some reference to the marking on the ground or the other document in the byelaws themselves. This does not occur in the case of Forest Moor. The importance of this being the position is emphasised by what the evidence suggested could have happened to the perimeter fence referred to in the Alconbury byelaws. Since those byelaws were made, the perimeter fence has been moved and the area enclosed substantially extended. I therefore regard the Forest Moor byelaws as being defective on their face in this regard.
So far as the Alconbury byelaws are concerned however, I would take the view that the reference to certain other areas can be struck out as being both textually and substantially severable in accord with the principle identified by Lord Bridge in DPP v Hutchinson [1990] 2 All ER 836 at 839–840, [1990] 2 AC 783 at 804.
We turn to Mr Bugg’s second contention. It is only necessary to consider this contention in respect of the Alconbury byelaws. He submits the duty to mark the boundary under s 17 of the 1892 Act is a continuing obligation. We agree. The fact that the boundary has been altered and in particular altered so as to take in a right of way, Clay Lane, means that that continuing obligation is not being complied with by the Secretary of State. However, it is submitted that changing the position of the perimeter fence cannot affect the validity of the byelaw, albeit that Mr Bugg would be entitled to seek an order of mandamus to have the boundary properly marked.
We accept that failure to mark does not of itself affect the validity of the byelaws. In the case of Alconbury, the Secretary of State was not only under the s 17 duty to mark but has chosen to describe the land subject to the byelaws by reference to the presence, when the byelaw was made, of the perimeter fence and gates. The fence was subsequently moved quite deliberately so as substantially to increase the amount of land within the fencing. In our judgment, it would be contrary to the intention of Parliament to find a person guilty of offences under the byelaws when the boundaries of the relevant area are not marked or, as in this case, the boundaries as defined by the byelaws are substantially different from, and less extensive than, those deliberately marked on the ground on behalf of the
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Secretary of State. The point has more force when the relevant area is defined in the byelaws by reference to a perimeter fence because a person coming to the site might reasonably assume that the fence he observed was in the same position as that mentioned in the byelaws when the byelaw was made. He would have no ready means of checking the areas included within the byelaws. He should be acquitted without having to rely upon the defence under byelaw 5(3).
In these circumstances, the defendants subject of both appeals could not properly be convicted of the offences with which they are charged.
Having regard to the conclusions to which we have already come, it is not therefore strictly necessary for us to deal with the many other points which have been raised by the appeal in relation to the Alconbury byelaws. However, in view of the arguments which were advanced before us and because the questions raised by that appeal are said to be ones where there exists undesirable uncertainty as to the legal position, we will deal with some but not all of the many questions raised. As, however, our comments will be obiter as not being necessary for this judgment, we propose to deal with them shortly.
Lack of consultation
The obligation of the Secretary of State under s 17(1) 1892 Act is to ‘cause the proposed byelaws to be made known in the locality, giving an opportunity for objections being made to the same’. In order to comply with this requirement, the Secretary of State is required to take reasonable steps to publish the fact that he is intending to make byelaws and to indicate where a copy of the proposed byelaws can be inspected in the locality. The sort of action which would fulfil this requirement is the insertion of an appropriate notice in the local paper and the display of a notice on the site in a position where it can be conveniently read by persons in the locality.
In the case of the Alconbury byelaws, Judge Astill found that this requirement had been complied with because correspondence about the proposed byelaws were produced which indicated that there had been communication between the Secretary of State and the Huntingdon District Council as to their effect. Correspondence with the district council of this nature does not establish compliance with the statutory requirement. While the judge was no doubt correct in saying that the correspondence ‘demonstrates that the purport of what he was proposing was published to the district council’, it is not publication to the district council which is required but publication in the locality.
The nature of the byelaws
The byelaws are statutory instruments (see s 1(2) of the Statutory Instruments Act 1946). They were therefore required to be sent to the Queen’s printer and numbered in accordance with the regulations made under the 1946 Act (see s 2(1) of that Act). The byelaws are not, however, in the nature of a public Act but are in the nature of a local and personal private Act, as those terms are used in s 8 of the 1946 Act.
The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 and the codes of practice under that Act
Arising out of the fact that there is a police station on the Alconbury base, it was argued that the Alconbury byelaws were inconsistent with the 1984 Act. There is absolutely no substance in this point. As Mr Readhead pointed out, if it was necessary for the appellant to visit the police station to exercise their rights under the 1984 Act, they had only to seek permission for this purpose which there was no reason to think would be unreasonably refused to as to exercise that right.
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Byelaw 5(3) and the question of mens rea
Byelaw 5(3) of the Alconbury byelaws provides:
‘If it is proved that an act or omission of any person which would otherwise have been an offence against any of the provisions of byelaw 2 was due to any cause not avoidable by the exercise of reasonable care by that person the act or omission shall be deemed not to be an offence by that person against that byelaw.’
The language of byelaw 5(3) clearly places the onus upon a defendant to bring himself within the defence which it provides. This is a strong pointer to the offences which appear under the heading ‘prohibited activities’ in byelaw 2 being absolute offences not requiring mens rea which we consider is usually the position. The nature of the offences points in the same direction except in the case of byelaw 2(j) where the byelaw starts off with the word ‘wilfully’. The use of the word ‘wilfully’ does indicate that there is a requirement of mens rea in case of this offence. What is required is that the defendant should intentionally ‘damage destroy or deface any sign, wall, fence, structure, floor, pavement or other surface with the Protected Area’.
Were the byelaws printed under the superintendence or the authority of HMSO?
The byelaws indicate on their back page that they are ‘Printed for Her Majesty’s Stationery Office by …' Our initial reaction was that this indicated that the byelaws had been printed under the authority of Her Majesty’s Stationery Office which would be sufficient to bring the byelaws within s 2 of the Documentary Evidence Act 1882. However, having heard Mr Bugg’s submissions as to the possible significance of the use of the word ‘for’ as opposed to the words ‘with the authority of’, it would be preferable not to express any view on this subject. We consider the evidence before us does not enable us to resolve this issue.
That brings us to the end of the specific points on which it will be appropriate for us to express our views. As to the remaining issues, we anticipate that the distinction which we have drawn between substantive and procedural validity should prevent magistrates having to cope again in the future with the technicalities of the sort which were canvassed on the Alconbury appeal to the Crown Court. It therefore only remains for us, before setting out the results of the appeals, to draw attention to the fact that caution should be exercised in seeking to rely on judgments given for applications for leave to apply for judicial review. In the case before us, the parties did seek to rely upon judgment given in the Divisional Court, when constituted as present, in an application for leave by Miss Greaves. The court did not have the advantage of full argument before giving that judgment and, in those circumstances, too much reliance should not be placed upon it.
As a result of this judgment, the appeal of the Director of Public Prosecutions in relation to the Forest Moor byelaws will be dismissed.
Mr Bugg’s and Miss Greaves’ appeals in relation to the Alconbury byelaws will be allowed. In view of the history of both appeals, we would not have regarded it as appropriate to remit the case of rehearing.
We thank all counsel and Mr Bugg for their very considerable assistance.
Appeal allowed in Bugg and anor v DPP. Appeal dismissed in DPP v Percy and anor.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v Football Association Ltd, ex parte Football League Ltd
Football Association Ltd v Football League Ltd
[1993] 2 All ER 833
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (CROWN OFFICE LIST)
Lord(s): CHANCERY DIVISION
Hearing Date(s): ROSE J
22, 23, 24, 25, 31 JULY 1991
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Football Association – Decision to set up new football league – Football Association deciding to set up Premier League run by Football Association and not by Football League – Football League seeking judicial review of Football Association’s decision to set up and run new Premier League – Whether Football Association’s decisions susceptible to judicial review.
The Football Association (the FA), which was the governing body and rule-making authority of association football in England, sanctioned various leagues and competitions, the most important of which was the Football League (the League) which was organised into four divisions. All football clubs which wished to be recognised by the FA and to play in an FA sanctioned league had to be affiliated to the FA or one of its affiliated associations. Any such club which intended to resign from a league was required by the FA’s regulations to give notice of that intention at the end of the current season. The League was entitled to nominate nine members of its management committee as shareholders of the FA but the League itself was not a shareholder of the FA. However, the League had entered into a contractual relationship with the FA by virtue of the fact that in accordance with the FA’s rules it applied annually for the FA’s sanction to run the four divisions comprising the League. In 1988 the League adopted a regulation requiring any club which was a member to give three seasons’ notice of its intention to terminate its membership of the League or to indemnify the League if it terminated membership earlier. The FA had notice of that regulation. In 1991 the FA decided to form a Premier League to be run by the FA, not the League, and consisting of the top first division clubs. In order to facilitate the breaking away of those clubs from the League the FA amended its sanction regulations to provide that any rule by which the League purported to require a club to give longer notice of termination than that required by the FA’s regulations was void. The League brought proceedings for, inter alia, judicial review of the FA’s decisions to set up the Premier League and to make the necessary amendments to its rules, contending that the FA was amenable to judicial review because (i) it had a monopoly control over the way the game of association football was played, (ii) its rules although contractual in form were in effect a legislative code for the game and (iii) it regulated an important aspect of national life in circumstances in which if it did not do so the state would have to create a public body to perform its functions.
Held – The FA was not a body susceptible to judicial review either in general or, more particularly, at the instigation of the League with whom it was contractually bound. Despite its virtually monopolistic powers and the importance of its decisions to many members of the public, the FA was a domestic body whose powers arose from and duties existed in private law only. It was not underpinned
Page 834 of [1993] 2 All ER 833
directly or indirectly by any organ or agency of the state or any potential government interest nor was there any evidence that if the FA did not exist the state would intervene to create a public body to perform its functions. It would be inappropriate to apply to the governing body of football, on the basis that it was a public body, principles designed for the control of the abuse of power by government. Accordingly, the application for judicial review would be dismissed (see p 843 j to p 844 b, p 845 f, p 848 h to p 849 a and p 852 h j, post).
Notes
For the scope of judicial review, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 64, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 321–435, 3362–4797.
Cases referred to in judgment
Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union [1971] 1 All ER 1148, [1971] 2 QB 175, [1971] 2 WLR 742, CA.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, [1984] 3 WLR 935, HL.
Enderby Town Football Club Ltd v Football Association Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 215, [1971] 1 Ch 591, [1970] 3 WLR 1021, CA.
Finnigan v New Zealand Rugby Football Union [1985] 2 NZLR 159, NZ CA.
IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93, [1982] AC 617, [1981] 2 WLR 722, HL.
Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302, CA.
McInnes v Onslow-Fane [1978] 3 All ER 211, [1978] 1 WLR 1520.
O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237, [1982] 3 WLR 1096, HL.
R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex p Insurance Service plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169, DC.
R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congregations of GB and the Commonwealth, ex p Wachmann [1993] 2 All ER 249, [1992] 1 WLR 1306.
R v Code of Practice Committee of the Association of the British Pharmaceutical Industry, ex p Professional Counselling Aids Ltd (1990) 10 BMLR 21.
R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864, [1967] 3 WLR 348, DC.
R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Aga Khan (3 July 1991, unreported), DC.
R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207, DC.
R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425, [1985] QB 152, [1984] 3 WLR 818, CA.
R v Football Association of Wales, ex p Flint Town United Football Club (11 July 1990, unreported), DC.
R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225, DC.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 669, CA.
Russian Commercial and Industrial Bank v British Bank for Foreign Trade [1921] 2 AC 438, [1921] All ER Rep 329, HL.
Tower Hamlets London BC v Chetnik Developments Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 961, [1988] AC 858, [1988] 2 WLR 654, HL.
Application for judicial review and originating summons
Football League Ltd (the League) applied in the Queen’s Bench Division, with the leave of Steyn J given on 20 June 1991, for judicial review of decisions of Football Association Ltd (the FA) dated 8 April and 22 May 1991 to institute a Premier
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League with effect from the 1992–93 season, to disallow reg 10 of the League’s regulations and to amend FA sanction reg 24. The relief sought was, inter alia, an order of certiorari to quash the decisions, a declaration that the decisions were ultra vires and unlawful and an injunction to restrain the FA from (a) inducing clubs presently members of the League to join the Premier League or (b) acting on any of the decisions. By an originating summons dated 12 June 1991 issued out of the Chancery Division the FA as plaintiff sought, inter alia, as against the League as defendant (1) a declaration that it was within the FA’s objects and powers to sanction any combination or league of FA member or associate member clubs which it considered would promote the game of association football, (2) a declaration that it was within the FA’s objects and powers to establish and control a Premier League, (3) a declaration that the League was not entitled save with the FA’s consent and approval to bind League members or to enforce against them any rule or regulation which was inconsistent with the FA’s rules and regulations or stated thereby to be void or unenforceable, (4) declarations that it was within the FA’s objects and powers to adopt a regulation declaring void and unenforceable the League’s reg 10 and that such a regulation, if adopted by the FA, should be binding on the League and invalidate and/or render unenforceable the League’s reg 10 and (5) an injunction restraining the League from enforcing or threatening or seeking to enforce against League members giving notice of termination consistent with the FA’s reg 24 penalties for not giving the longer period of notice provided for in the League’s reg 10. The two proceedings were expedited and heard together. The facts are set out in the judgment.
David Oliver QC, David Pannick and John Nicholls (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the League.
John Dyson QC, Nigel Pleming and Robert H T Hildyard (instructed by Freshfields) for the FA.
Cur adv vult
31 July 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
ROSE J. By a process which is, in part, mysterious, but to which neither party objects, there are before me two proceedings which relate to a dispute between Football Association Ltd (the FA) and Football League Ltd (the League) as to the FA’s wish to create a new Premier League for the 1992–93 season.
I stress at the outset, lest any wider audience outside this court should be misled, that it is no part of my job to decide whether the creation of a Premier League will or will not be a good thing for English football, or whether it will or will not help the national team to triumph again in the World Cup as it did 25 years ago this week. What is best for English football can only be decided by those involved in it. My task is to decide whether the FA can lawfully do that which it wants to do. A number of issues are raised which are of interest to lawyers, but they are unlikely to excite the fans at Stamford Bridge or Anfield.
There are three sets of proceedings between the parties. They arise from an originating summons issued in the Chancery Division on 12 June by the FA, a motion in the Crown Office list for judicial review brought with the leave of Steyn J and launched by the League by application dated 14 June, and an action in the Queen’s Bench Division by writ issued by the League on or soon after June.
It is common ground that the legal issues between the parties are the same in all three proceedings and that they require urgent resolution. The Queen’s Bench action is brought in tort and raises factual issues with regard to alleged inducement of breach of contract and interference with business relations. I ruled at the outset
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that it should proceed separately at a normal pace. The expedited Chancery and Crown Office proceedings have been heard together and are for my present determination.
Three broad issues arise. (1) Is the FA a body which is susceptible to judicial review? (2) If it is, should its decisions on 8 April and 22 May 1991 be quashed and consequential relief given? (3) If it is not, or in any event, is the FA entitled to all or any of the four declarations sought in the originating summons?
It is first necessary to describe the character of the FA as it appears from the affidavit evidence and exhibits before me. It was formed in 1863 and incorporated as a company limited by shares in 1903. It is the governing body of association football in England and the guardian of the laws of the game. Directly, or through one of its affiliated associations, it sanctions over 2,000 leagues and competitions and 41,000 football clubs. Half a million people play football, and there are over 2,000 professional players. The League is the most important of the sanctioned leagues. All clubs who wish to be recognised by the FA must be affiliated to an affiliated association.
First and second division clubs are full members who each have a share in the FA and are entitled to vote at its meetings. Third and fourth division clubs are associate members who have no shares but are accorded certain privileges, and there are non-member clubs who are bound by the rules of their affiliated association and by the rules of the FA.
The FA has no jurisdiction over supporters, clubs or spectators, but affiliated clubs are obliged to exercise control over the behaviour of spectators, and clubs can be and have been disciplined by the FA, for example in relation to crowd disturbances and misconduct by players.
The powers and duties of the FA are, prima facie, derived from its memorandum and articles of association and from its contractual relationships in accordance with its rules and regulations.
I must specifically refer to a number of these. Clause 3 of the FA’s memorandum of association provides:
‘The objects for which the Association is established are …
(2) to promote the game of Association Football in every way in which the Association or the Council of the Association shall think proper, and to take all such steps as shall be deemed necessary or advisable for preventing infringements of the Rules and Laws of the Game, or other improper methods or practices in such game, and for protecting it from abuses;
(3) to make, adopt, vary, and publish Rules, Regulations, Bye-Laws and Conditions for the regulation of the said game or otherwise, and to take all such steps as shall be deemed necessary or advisable for enforcing such Rules, Regulations, Bye-Laws and Conditions …
(5) to maintain, continue, or provide for the registration of Association Football Players …
(7) to promote, provide for, regulate and manage in all or any of the required details or arrangements, including any arrangements for the benefit of Associations or Clubs, Football Competitions, Contests and Matches, International or otherwise, and in England or elsewhere …
(11) to provide by Rules, Regulations, and Bye-Laws, or otherwise, for deciding and settling all differences that may arise between Football Associations, Clubs, or Players, or any persons who are Members of or alleged to be Members of or are employed or engaged by any such Associations or Clubs, or any other persons in reference to due compliance with the Laws of the Game, or the Rules, Regulations, or Bye-Laws of the Association, or in reference to contracts, or to any other matter of dispute or difference arising
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between such Associations, Clubs, or persons, or any of them, and whether this Association is concerned in such dispute or difference or not, and to make such provisions for enforcing any award or decision as the Association or the Council shall deem proper …
(14) to adopt and carry out all such Rules and Regulations, Bye-Laws, Agreements and Arrangements of The Football Association as are now in existence, and to comply with or to enforce the due compliance with the same unless and until the same shall have been duly varied in accordance with the terms thereof, or with the Regulations for the time being of the Association …’
Clause 2 of the articles defines ‘affiliated Association’, ‘Division’, ‘the Rules’, ‘the Council’ and ‘Full’, ‘Associate’ and ‘Non-member’ clubs.
Clause 8 of the articles provides:
‘The representation of Divisions, affiliated Associations, The Football League Limited and Member Clubs shall be as follows and they shall be entitled to the following respective shareholdings:—(a) each Division shall be entitled to one (1) share …’
Clause 8(b) makes provisions for shares in relation in affiliated associations and cl 8(g) provides:
‘the Committee of Management of the Football League, Limited, shall be entitled to nominate nine (9) of its Members, who shall be entitled to one (1) share each.’
Clause 11 of the articles provides:
‘(a) Subject to paragraph (d) below no person shall be entitled to be or continue to be a Member of The Association unless he is either an Officer of The Association, a Member of the Council or a Representative of some Division, affiliated Association or Member Club or a Member of the Committee of Management of The Football League, Limited.’
Article 38 provides in part:
‘… The Football League, Limited shall be entitled annually in the month of June, to appoint nine (9) Members of its Management Committee as Representatives to the Council …’
Article 40 provides for the affairs of the FA to be governed by the council. Article 41(b) provides:
‘The President of The Football League, Limited shall be ex-officio an additional Vice-President of The Association …’
The FA rules provide, in the material parts, as follows:
‘1. The Association shall consist of such Clubs and affiliated Associations playing or administering Association Football according to the Laws of the Game (as settled by the International Football Association Board) and the Rules and Regulations of The Association as the Council may approve and as are otherwise qualified hereunder and in conformity with the Statutes and Regulations of the World (F.I.F.A.) and European (U.E.F.A.) Football Authorities. Affiliated Associations may admit to Membership Association Football Clubs within their area, and provide for the proper management and control of such Clubs …’
Rule 4(a) provides, with regard to conditions of affiliation:
Page 838 of [1993] 2 All ER 833
‘All Associations affiliated to The Association shall consist of properly constituted Clubs playing Football according to the Laws of the Game and conforming to the Rules and Regulations of The Association …’
Rule 6 provides:
‘Save as otherwise expressly provided by these Rules, resolutions and decisions of the Council shall be binding upon all affiliated Associations and Clubs and all Members thereof, until they are rescinded or varied.’
Rule 9(a) provides, under the heading ‘Form “D” ’:
‘Associations, Leagues or other Combinations of Clubs, Players or Officials, shall not be formed without the consent of The Association, or of the affiliated Association or Associations concerned. All applications for formation of Leagues and Competitions (other than Charity Competitions) shall be made on the form marked “D” in the Schedule annexed to these Rules, and applications for continuance must be made on this form annually. All Associations, Leagues or other Combinations of Clubs, Players, or Officials shall observe the Rules and Regulations of the Association. Associations or Clubs belonging to this or an affiliated Association shall not play against any Association or Club belonging to any Association, League or Combination of Clubs to which such consent has not been given …’
Form D provides for a certificate that the clubs named on that form are affiliated for the ensuing season to their respective county associations and, by means of that form, application for sanction of what is there described as ‘the competition’ has to be sought.
Rule 10 provides:
‘Any League or other Combination of Clubs may, subject to these Rules, make such regulations between their Clubs and Players as they may deem necessary …’
Rule 12(a) provides:
‘Clubs Players and Officials subject to the jurisdiction of The Association or an affiliated Association shall not be associated with or play with or against any Club which is not a Member of The Association or some other recognised Association … No match between unaffiliated teams shall be played on grounds which are under the jurisdiction of Clubs which are registered with The Association or an affiliated Association.’
Rule 23 provides:
‘Players, Officials and spectators are only allowed to take part in or attend matches on condition that they observe the Rules and Regulations of The Association, and every affiliated Association or Club is required to observe and enforce such Rules and Regulations.’
Rule 35(a), in relation to alteration to rules, provides:
‘The Council may make alterations to these Rules as and when considered necessary, so as to conform to any alterations to the Memorandum or Articles of Association of the Association …’
Rule 35(c), headed ‘Regulations’, provides:
‘The Council shall have the power to make such Rules and Regulations deemed necessary to provide for matters arising from or to implement these
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Rules in so far as any such Rule or Regulation is not in conflict with any Rule of The Association …’
The FA sanction regulations have the following title: ‘Regulations for the sanction and control of leagues and competitions except competitions under the direct jurisdiction and control of the Football Association.' The regulations provide:
‘… 3. Clubs forming a League or Competition consisting of Clubs within the area of more than three (3) County Associations, shall make application for sanction to, and the League or Competition shall be sanctioned by, and be under the jurisdiction of, The Football Association, unless The Association directs that the League or Competition may be sanctioned under Regulation 2. An annual sanction fee will be determined by The Association …
4. A Competition may be used for trade or advertising purposes …
9. Application for sanction of a League or Competition (other than a Charity Competition) shall be made on a form marked “D,” as scheduled to the Rules of The Football Association …
18. A League or Competition is not entitled to alter its Constitution, Rules, or Clubs, without the consent of The Football Association or the affiliated Association or Associations sanctioning the Competition …
20. All Associations sanctioning Leagues and Competitions, and all Leagues and Competitions shall observe the Rules and Regulations of The Football Association.’
Regulation 24 provides, in the form since the 1990–91 season, as follows:
‘A Club may not withdraw from a Competition with which it is in Membership unless it has complied with its obligations to the Competition as provided by the Rules. A League may require a Club to give provisional notice of its possible intention to resign from that League at the end of the current Season. A Club shall not be required to give such notice before 31st December in any year. A Club shall be required to confirm their resignation or withdrawal of the provisional notice by 31st March in any year. It is not required to give such notice of withdrawal before being able to make application for Membership to another League. An Association, League, Club or person may not, without at least seven (7) days’ notice in writing to a League, make an approach to or have contact with a Club still in Membership of that League with regard to the Club becoming a Member of another League.’
The League is also a company limited by shares. Its constitution at present provides that there shall be not more than 44 full member clubs in the League 20 in the first division and 24 in the second. The objects of the League appear from clause 3 of its constitution:
‘The objects of The Football League are to conduct and in every respect control each Season Football Competitions to be called The League Championship, The Rumbelows League Cup, The Leyland DAF Cup and such other Competitions as the Management Committee may from time to time determine and at all times to safeguard the interest of the Full and Associate Members.’
Clause 9 provides:
‘Acceptance of Full or Associate Membership (as the case may be) shall constitute an agreement between the Club concerned and The League to be
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bound by and to comply with these Regulations and the Articles of Association of The League (each as altered, revoked or added to from time to time) …’
Clause 10, in its form since 1988, provides:
‘(1) No Club shall terminate its membership of The League unless it shall have given a minimum of three full Seasons’ prior written notice of its intention to do so.
(2) Any Club which is in breach of the provisions of this Regulation shall on demand indemnify The League …’
Against that background the nature of the present dispute can be shortly stated. Pursuant to the FA’s sanction, applied for and granted annually, the League operates the four divisions, each of the clubs in which has a contractual relationship not only, as I have said, with the FA in accordance with the FA’s rules but also with the League in accordance with the League’s rules.
In August 1988 the League, in order to encourage commercial sponsorship, adopted reg 10, which I have just read, requiring a club to give three full seasons’ notice of its intention to terminate membership. It did not make any application to the FA to alter its rules in this way under FA sanction regulation 18 or otherwise. But, thereafter, in 1989 and 1990, in response to the League’s request on Form D, the FA sanctioned the League. It is common ground that, in consequence, the FA had notice of the new rule.
In August 1988 FA sanction regulation 24 was not in its present form. At that time it said ‘A club should not be required to withdraw its membership of a League before 31st December in any year’ (my emphasis). The word ‘shall’ was substituted for ‘should’ and the passage with regard to giving and confirming provisional notice were introduced for the 1990–91 season.
From December 1990 there were discussions between representatives of certain first division clubs and the chairman and chief executive of the FA with a view to starting a Super League. In consequence, at a special meeting on 8 April 1991, the FA Council decided, first, to establish and run, from the 1992–93 season, a Premier League which it considered to be in the best interests of the game and, secondly, that, in order to facilitate this, the League’s regulation 10 should be expressly disallowed for its incompatibility with FA sanction regulation 24.
On 22 May 1991 the FA Council decided to add to sanction regulation 24 the words ‘any rule by which a League purports to require that a club should give more notice than the notice prescribed in this regulation shall be void’. The present litigation followed.
As I have indicated, the first question is whether the FA is a body which is susceptible to judicial review. For the League Mr Oliver QC submitted that, although under FA’s article of association 8(g) the League can nominate nine members of its management committee as shareholders in the FA, the League itself is not a shareholder or member and not contractually bound by the FA’s memorandum to the FA. FA rule 9, he said, provides de facto monopoly control over the way in which the game is played, and the FA has succeeded in arrogating to itself control of the national game. It is its governing body and the guardian of its laws.
Its importance in national life has been expressly recognised by the Chester report in 1968 (Report of the Committee on Football (chairman D N Chester)), Lord Justice Taylor’s report in 1989 (The Hillsborough Stadium Disaster, 15 April 1989 (Cm 765,962)) and by the Minister of Sport in 1991, and it has achieved a limited degree of statutory recognition in that, by s 4 of the Football Supporters Act 1989, which has not yet been brought into force, it has to be consulted in relation to a national membership scheme.
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The fact that it is constituted by private law meant that it was less obviously subject to judicial review prior to R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, but there had been indications in the authorities (Enderby Town Football Club Ltd v Football Association Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 215, [1971] Ch 591 and Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union [1971] 1 All ER 1148, [1971] 2 QB 175) that what is now judicial review might lie because the FA rules, though in contractual form, are effectively a legislative code (see per Lord Denning MR in the Enderby Town case [1971] 1 All ER 215 at 219, [1971] Ch 591 at 606). The FA’s monopolistic control, Mr Oliver submitted, is greater than that of the Greyhound club. On this basis, and on the basis that the decision was merely a domestic one on the rules, he distinguished Law v National Greyhound Racing Club [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302.
The FA’s powers extend beyond contract to affect the lives of many hundreds of thousands who are not in any contractual relationship, though Mr Oliver accepted that much the same could be said about large public companies. He submitted that, by reason of Datafin, judicial review may now go to a non-statutory body which exists otherwise than as a result of the exercise of the prerogative, and the courts in recent years have shown ‘a clear desire’ to apply judicial review to sporting bodies.
In particular, he relied on the judgment of Simon Brown J in R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225, to which, together with the other recent English authorities, I will come later. Mr Oliver also referred to Finnigan v New Zealand Rugby Football Union Inc [1985] 2 NZLR 159, where the New Zealand Court of Appeal held that the plaintiffs, though not contractually bound to the defendants, had locus standi to challenge a decision by the defendants to send a team to South Africa. It is clear from the judgment of Cooke J (at 179) that the court there was not holding or even discussing whether the decision was the exercise of a statutory power.
Mr Oliver submitted that the FA fulfils the Datafin test, namely it is a body which regulates an important aspect of national life and does so with the support of the state in that, but for its existence, the state would create a public body to perform its functions. Accordingly, he said, it is amenable to judicial review in certain respects at least.
He distinguished R v Football Association of Wales, ex p Flint Town United Football Club (11 July 1990, unreported), in which Farquharson LJ and Nolan J held that the Football Association of Wales was not subject to judicial review on the ground that, in that case, there was a contractual relationship between the club and the association, and the case had not been argued by reference to regulatory powers and functions. Alternatively, he submitted, Law, R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207 and Flint were all purely domestic decisions on the rules in the particular case.
It is clearly of great importance whether the League is in a contractual relationship with the FA. This goes to the source of the FA’s powers and the nature of their duties. I accept Mr Oliver’s submission that by reason of ss 14 and 22 of the Companies Act 1985, although members of the League’s committee of management are shareholders, the League itself is not a shareholder and member of the FA and, therefore, despite the close interrelationship between the FA and the League arising, for example, from FA articles 8(g), 38 and 41(b), which I have quoted, the League may not be contractually bound to the FA by the FA’s memorandum and articles.
But, as Mr Oliver eventually accepted, the League has been bound contractually to the FA in accordance with its rules by the annual application for sanction, and it seems to me that it is bound not merely to the end of the playing season, which was at the beginning of June, but at least to the end of the close season in mid-
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July, and probably until 31 July, a new application for sanction being anticipated on 1 August.
On any view, it seems to me that the FA and League were contractually bound both at the time the challenged decisions were made and at the time proceedings were started.
For the FA, Mr Dyson QC submitted that the FA is a private body deriving its authority to make binding decisions from contract and the consent of its members. The source of its power is in its memorandum, articles, rules and regulations. It has no authority, save by contract. Its position is indistinguishable from the other sporting bodies whom the courts have held not to be susceptible to judicial review, save that the Jockey Club seeks to exercise power directly over the public by warning off. Accordingly this court is bound to hold that judicial review is not available.
Prior to Datafin, said Mr Dyson, a body only attracted public law intervention if it was empowered to act by statute, delegated authority, prerogative power and, possibly, royal charter, and the decision complained of must have been made in the body’s public law capacity so as to affect the public law rights, obligations or expectations of the persons subject to the exercise of power.
He relied on the judgment of Lord Parker CJ in R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 777–778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 881–882 and to the references by Lord Diplock in O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124 at 1128, 1130, [1983] 2 AC 237 at 277, 279 to authority ‘not derived from contract only’, and to ‘authority conferred by legislation’ and in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 at 949, [1985] AC 374 at 409 to the decision maker being ‘empowered by public law and not merely, as in arbitration, by agreement between private parties’. He submitted that, unless it is first shown that the body is a public law body, the question of the susceptibility of any of its decisions to review does not arise. Therefore the nature of the particular decision cannot afford any basis for determining the character of the body.
Datafin, submitted Mr Dyson, filled the gap between those cases where the source of power is statutorily or prerogative based and where it is solely contractual. With regard to the latter category, all members of the court reasserted the principle that bodies ‘whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction’ are not amenable to judicial review (see [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, 583, 585, [1987] QB 815 at 838, 847, 850 per Donaldson MR, Lloyd and Nicholls LJJ). Accordingly Datafin does not support the proposition that the FA is amenable to judicial review. Its sole source of authority is contractual; and there is a complete absence of state underpinning. Decisions since Datafin, particular Flint United, bind this court to hold that the FA is not susceptible to judicial review.
In the light of these submissions, I turn for a closer look at the authorities. In my judgment, Enderby and Breen are no more than examples of the courts injecting principles of natural justice into the decision-making processes of domestic bodies which could not be controlled by prerogative writ (see Breen [1971] 1 All ER 1148 at 1154, [1971] 2 QB 175 at 190 per Lord Denning MR). In both cases it appears that the plaintiff was contractually bound in accordance with the defendant’s rules.
In McInnes v Onslow-Fane [1978] 3 All ER 211 at 218, [1978] 1 WLR 1520 at 1528 there was no contract or statute, but Megarry V-C approved counsel’s concession that the court was entitled to intervene to enforce natural justice and fairness. I do not regard these authorities as lending any support to the view that
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the FA, trade unions or the British Boxing Board of Control should be regarded as public bodies carrying out public law functions susceptible to judicial review.
In my judgment, public bodies must comply with the requirements of natural justice, but so, in many cases, must private bodies. A requirement so to comply does not of itself characterise a body as public or private. Furthermore, as R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425, [1985] QB 152 shows, a public body may have a duty to comply with natural justice which is not susceptible to judicial review when that duty exists in the private law field.
In Law the Court of Appeal held that the National Greyhound Racing Club stewards derived their authority to suspend the plaintiff’s licence from a contract between him and the club whereby he had voluntarily submitted to the stewards’ jurisdiction in a domestic tribunal. Judicial review was refused. Lawton LJ said that there was no public element in the jurisdiction, but its exercise was likely to have consequences for the public (see [1983] 3 All ER 300 at 303, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1307). Fox LJ said that the stewards’ authority was derived wholly from contract and there was nothing to suggest that the defendants had rights or duties to members of the public as such (see [1983] 3 All ER 300 at 305, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1309). Slade LJ said the defendants’ status was essentially domestic, not public, albeit that its decisions ‘may be of public concern’ (see [1983] 3 All ER 300 at 307–308, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1312). The club had the monopoly of greyhound racing south of Bedford and operated non-monopolistically north of Bedford, but there is no reference to monopoly in the judgments, which proceed on a wider basis.
The court also held that s 31 of Supreme Court Act 1981 and RSC Ord 53 do not enlarge the field of jurisdiction of prerogative writs.
In Ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425 at 430, [1985] QB 152 at 164 Donaldson MR said that he could not find ‘any warrant for equating public law with the interest of the public’, which is a precise reflection of the passages in the judgments in Law which I have quoted.
In my judgment, the authorities before Datafin provide no support for the League’s argument that the FA is or should be subject to judicial review. Although in R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882 Lord Parker CJ said:
‘… the exact limits of the ancient remedy by way of certiorari have never been, and ought not to be, specifically defined. They have varied from time to time, being extended to meet changing conditions’,
he also said:
‘Private or domestic tribunals have always been outside the scope of certiorari since their authority is derived solely from contract …’
he went on:
‘… the ambit of certiorari can be said to cover every case in which a body of persons of a public as opposed to a purely private or domestic character has to determine matters affecting subjects provided always that it has a duty to act judicially.’
He concluded by stressing that the board, having been set up by the Home Secretary, could hardly be in a different position from that of the Home Secretary himself if he had decided what compensation should be paid.
The influence of Lord Diplock on the law of judicial review has been profound, but in his judgment in Ex p Lain and in his speeches in IRC v National Federation
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of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93, [1982] AC 617, O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1985] 2 AC 237 and Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374 I find no sign that he contemplated that such a body as the Football Association might be regarded as a public authority or an instrument of executive action, or otherwise subject to judicial review.
Accordingly, it seems to me that, at least at Divisional Court level, the League’s argument on the authorities prior to Datafin is unsustainable in the light of Law’s case.
I will deal later with Mr Oliver’s submission about what he called the Law question as distinct from the Datafin question.
I turn to Datafin. The Court of Appeal held that there was jurisdiction to review the Take-over Panel’s decisions. The character of the panel is important. It is described by Donaldson MR as follows ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 574–575, [1987] QB 815 at 835–836):
‘As an act of government it was decided that, in relation to take-overs, there should be a central self-regulatory body which would be supported and sustained by a periphery of statutory powers and penalties wherever non-statutory powers and penalties were insufficient or non-existent or where EEC requirements called for statutory provisions. No one could have been in the least surprised if the panel had been instituted and operated under the direct authority of statute law, since it operates wholly in the public domain. Its jurisdiction extends throughout the United Kingdom. Its code and rulings apply equally to all who wish to make take-over bids or promote mergers, whether or not they are members of bodies represented on the panel. Its lack of a direct statutory base is a complete anomaly, judged by the experience of other comparable markets world wide. The explanation is that it is an historical “happenstance”, to borrow a happy term from across the Atlantic. Prior to the years leading up to the “Big Bang”, the City of London prided itself upon being a village community, albeit of an unique kind, which could regulate itself by pressure of professional opinion. As government increasingly accepted the necessity for intervention to prevent fraud, it built on City institutions and mores, supplementing and reinforcing them as appeared necessary. It is a process which is likely to continue, but the position has already been reached in which central government has incorporated the panel into its own regulatory network built up under the Prevention of Fraud (Investments) Act 1958 and allied statutes, such as the Banking Act 1979.’
Lloyd LJ said ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 585, [1987] QB 815 at 849):
‘Having regard to the way in which the panel came to be established, the fact that the Governor of the Bank of England appoints both the chairman and the deputy chairman, and the other matters to which Sir John Donaldson MR has referred, I am persuaded that the panel was established “under authority of [the] government”, to use the language of Diplock LJ in Lain’s case. If in addition to looking at the source of the power we are entitled to look at the nature of the power, as I believe we are, then the case is all the stronger.’
Nicholls LJ said ([1987] All ER 564 at 586, [1987] QB 815 at 850):
‘The panel is an unincorporated association. Its members comprise a chairman and a deputy chairman appointed by the Governor of the Bank of England, and representatives of the 12 bodies mentioned by Sir John
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Donaldson MR at the beginning of his judgment. On a day-to-day basis the panel works through its executive, headed by the director general. He also is appointed by the Governor of the Bank of England, and so is the chairman of an appeal committee which hears appeals against rules given by the executive.’
As to the factors to be considered, Donaldson MR said ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, [1987] QB 815 at 838):
‘In all the reports it is possible to find enumerations of factors giving rise to the jurisdiction, but it is a fatal error to regard the presence of all those factors as essential or as being exclusive of other factors. Possibly the only essential elements are what can be described as a public element, which can take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
Lloyd LJ said ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 584, [1987] QB 815 at 848):
‘So I would reject counsel for the panel’s argument that the sole test whether a body is subject to judicial review is the source of its power.’
He went on ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 585, [1987] QB 815 at 849):
‘But suppose I am wrong … I would accept … that the source of the power in the present case is indeed governmental, at least in part.’
It is to be noted that Law, although not referred to in the judgments, was cited in argument by both sides in Datafin. It cannot, therefore, have been overlooked or regarded as inconsistent by the Court of Appeal.
I accept Mr Oliver’s submission that Datafin extends judicial review to a non-statutory body which exists otherwise than as the result of the exercise of the prerogative and that the ratio of the decision is that a body may be subject to judicial review if it regulates an important aspect of national life and does so with the support of the state in that, but for its existence, the state would create a public body to perform its functions. But Datafin does not, in my judgment, impinge on the decision in Law which I have earlier sought to summarise. It is common ground that both Law and Datafin are binding on me.
I turn to the seven Divisional Court decisions since Datafin to which I have been referred. In R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex p Insurance Services plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169 Glidewell LJ and Tucker J held that decisions of the Advertising Standards Authority are subject to judicial review. The authority is a company limited by guarantee whose first object, by its memorandum of association, is to promote and enforce the highest standards of advertising, having regard, inter alia, to the British Code of Advertising Practice. The system of control is part of a wider legal framework which includes an EEC directive. After considering Datafin, Glidewell LJ said (at 177):
‘The characteristics of the Advertising Standards Authority are in many ways similar to those of the take-over panel. The authority has no powers granted to it by statute or at common law, nor does it have any contractual relationship with the advertisers whom it controls. Nevertheless, it is clearly exercising a public law function which, if the authority did not exist, would no doubt be exercised by the Director General of Fair Trading.’
In R v Code of Practice Committee of the Association of the British Pharmaceutical Industry, ex p Professional Counselling Aids Ltd (1990) 10 BMLR 21 Popplewell J, with conspicuous reluctance, concluded that the committee is a body subject to judicial review. There seems in that case to have been a significant element of
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statutory underpinning because the Department of Health and Social Security had an input into the code which, in part, reflected regulations made pursuant to statute. This does not seem to have impressed Popplewell J but he felt obliged to follow Datafin on the basis that some public duty was involved.
In R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207 Neill LJ and Roch J held that the Jockey Club is not susceptible to judicial review. They found no distinction between the status of the stewards of the Jockey Club and the stewards of the National Greyhound Racing Club and followed Law’s case. They did so with different degrees of lack of enthusiasm. Neill LJ said (at 219):
‘In the present case I am not persuaded that the source of the powers of the Jockey Club can properly be regarded as derived from the prerogative even though it has been set up under royal charter. On the other hand an examination of the charter and of the powers conferred on the Jockey Club strongly suggest that in some aspects of its work it operates in the public domain and that its functions are at least in part public or quasi-public functions. Accordingly, if the matter were free from authority I might have been disposed to conclude that some decisions at any rate of the Jockey Club were capable of being reviewed by the process of judicial review. Before reaching such a conclusion, however, in any future case it would be necessary to bear in mind that owners, trainers and riders of horses as well as executives of the various racecourses have a contractual relationship with the Jockey Club and have agreed to be bound by the Rules of Racing.’
Roch J referred to the various factors to be considered, the source of the existence of the body concerned, the nature and source of its powers, the nature of the role to be filled by the body, whether of major national importance or monopolistic, whether there is any other effective remedy and the nature of the particular function being performed. He reached the conclusion (at 222) that if the matter were free of authority, the Jockey Club is a body susceptible to judicial review. He stressed that it holds a position of major national importance and ‘near monopolistic powers in an area in which the public generally have an interest and in which many persons earn their livelihoods’.
He also referred to the powers having been conferred by royal charter and persons with a legitimate interest in a Jockey Club decision having no effective remedy because he ‘would be unable to demonstrate a contractual relationship with the Jockey Club’ (at 223).
In R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225 judicial review was again sought of decisions of the Jockey Club. A Divisional Court consisting of Stuart-Smith LJ and Simon Brown J dismissed the application on the merits but also went on to consider jurisdiction. Stuart-Smith LJ concluded that he was bound by the authority of Massingberd-Mundy to hold, albeit reluctantly, that there was no jurisdiction. Simon Brown J, in what Mr Oliver rightly describes as a strong judgment, in part questioned the correctness of Massingberd-Mundy, distinguished Law’s case and concluded that but for Massingberd-Mundy he would have held that the Jockey Club was subject to review.
In the course of his judgment, he said (at 246), with reference to Datafin, that it was a landmark decision and ‘all earlier cases now need to be re-examined in its light’. He went on to list a number of cases, including Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union [1971] 1 All ER 1148, [1971] 2 QB 175 and McInnes v Onslow-Fane [1978] 3 All ER 211, [1978] 1 WLR 1520, which, he said—
‘had they arisen today and not some years ago, would have found a natural
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home in judicial review proceedings. As it was, considerations of public policy forced the courts to devise a new private law creature: a right in certain circumstances to declaratory judgments without any underlying cause of action. But clear recognition of the true, essentially public law, nature of these cases is to be found in the judgment of Lord Denning MR in Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union itself … (See [1993] 2 All ER 225 at 248.)’
Simon Brown J has great experience and expertise in the field of judicial review, but I have the misfortune to differ from these comments in several respects. First, although Datafin is a landmark decision, it has not appeared as the only guide in an otherwise barren landscape. Law’s case seems to me to be a more pertinent guide, at least for a judge at first instance, in relation to a body whose powers are, prima facie, derived from contract. Secondly, Lord Denning MR’s judgment in Breen seems to me to state expressly the opposite of that which is attributed to him. He said, in terms ([1971] 1 All ER 1148 at 1154, [1971] 2 QB 175 at 190): ‘The courts cannot grant the prerogative writs … against domestic bodies …’, though he held that the trade union must act in accordance with natural justice. I, for my part, am unable to construe this as supporting the proposition that trade unions should be susceptible to judicial review as public bodies. Thirdly, it follows that I do not agree that all pre-Datafin decisions must be re-examined.
In R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Aga Khan (3 July 1991, unreported)a Woolf LJ and Leonard J followed Massingberd-Mundy and RAM Racecourses and held that there is no jurisdiction in relation to the Jockey Club. Woolf LJ referred to the monopolistic position of the Jockey Club and the public interest in and the public importance of the exercise of its very considerable powers in relation to racing. He also referred to the considerable caution the courts have shown in becoming involved in the area of sporting activities. He agreed with the court in RAM Racecourses that it was not possible to say that Massingberd-Mundy was wrong.
In R v Football Association of Wales, ex p Flint Town United Football Club (11 July 1990, unreported), Farquharson LJ and Nolan J held that the Football Association of Wales is not subject to judicial review. Farquharson LJ referred to Law’s case, Datafin and RAM Racecourses and pointed out that in RAM Racecourses there was no contractual relationship between the applicant and the Jockey Club but, where a contractual relationship exists, the Divisional Court is bound by Law’s case. He said:
‘Accordingly, in the light of the authorities I have cited, and indeed in the light of the historical nature of certiorari, the remedy does not lie against a domestic tribunal of this nature and, accordingly, the applicant has no case here in public law.’
Finally, in R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congregation of GB and the Commonwealth, ex p Wachmann [1993] 2 All ER 249, [1992] 1 WLR 1036 Simon Brown J held that the Chief Rabbi in exercising disciplinary functions is not amenable to judicial review. He said ([1993] 2 All ER 249 at 254, [1992] 1 WLR 1036 at 1041):
‘To say of decisions of a given body that they are public law decisions with public law consequences means something more than that they are decisions which may be of great interest or concern to the public or, indeed, which may have consequences for the public. To attract the court’s supervisory
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jurisdiction there must be not merely a public but potentially a governmental interest in the decision-making power in question … where non-governmental bodies have hitherto been held reviewable, they have generally been operating as an integral part of a regulatory system which, although itself non-statutory, is nevertheless supported by statutory powers and penalties clearly indicative of government concern … it is a feature of all these cases that, were there no self-regulatory body in existence, Parliament would almost inevitably intervene to control the activity in question.’
I respectfully agree.
Mr Oliver, in an ingenious reply on the recent authorities, invited me to conclude that none stands in the way of judicial review of the FA or its decisions which are the subject of challenge. His argument was that, whereas in Law the question was whether the particular decision had a public law impact, in Datafin the question was whether the particular body was open to judicial review. Successive Divisional Courts have, he said, confused these two separate questions. In particular, Neill LJ in Massingberd-Mundy [1993] 2 All ER 207 at 218–220 posed in the first issue a Datafin question but gave a Law answer. Roch J (at 220–224) posed and answered a Law question.
In RAM Racecourses [1993] 2 All ER 225 at 240–244 Stuart-Smith LJ posed an ambiguous question which was either Law, Datafin or both, misled himself by failing to appreciate that Neill LJ in Massingberd-Mundy had not given a Datafin answer and wrongly treated Massingberd-Mundy as a case where there was no contractual relationship between the applicant and the Jockey Club. Simon Brown J (at 244–248) posed and answered a Law question, as did Farquharson LJ in Flint, which, said Mr Oliver, is a straightforward application of Law’s case. Accordingly, submitted Mr Oliver, provided I give a Datafin answer to a Datafin question or a Law answer to a Law question, no authority stands in my way in quashing the FA’s decision.
I accept that the authorities sometimes refer to the decision and sometimes to the body making the decision, and it is trite law that not every decision of a reviewable body will be reviewable. But I do not accept that a decision stands in a vacuum separately from the body which makes it. Accordingly, I reject Mr Oliver’s premise. In my judgment, the ratio of Law was that the decision could not be struck down by judicial review because the decision-making body was a domestic body. I am strengthened in this conclusion because in Ex p Aga Khan Woolf LJ, who analysed Neill LJ’s judgment in Massingberd-Mundy, does not appear to have found the answer given by Neill LJ on the first issue either inappropriate or confusing. I see no basis for distinguishing the Jockey Club cases, still less the Flint United case. It follows that I am bound not only by Law and Datafin but by these cases as well.
I have crossed a great deal of ground in order to reach what, on the authorities, is the clear and inescapable conclusion for me that the FA is not a body susceptible to judicial review either in general or, more particularly, at the instigation of the League, with whom it is contractually bound. Despite its virtually monopolistic powers and the importance of its decisions to many members of the public who are not contractually bound to it, it is, in my judgment, a domestic body whose powers arise from and duties exist in private law only. I find no sign of underpinning directly or indirectly by any organ or agency of the state or any potential government interest, as Simon Brown J put it in Wachmann, nor is there any evidence to suggest that if the FA did not exist the state would intervene to create a public body to perform its functions. On the contrary, the evidence of commercial interest in the professional game is such as to suggest that a far more likely intervener to run football would be a television or similar company rooted
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in the entertainment business or a commercial company seeking advertising benefits such as presently provides sponsorship in one form or another.
I do not find this conclusion unwelcome. Although thousands play and millions watch football, although it excites passions and divides families, and although millions of pounds are spent by spectators, sponsors, television companies and also clubs on salaries, wages, transfer fees and the maintenance of grounds, much the same can also be said in relation to cricket, golf, tennis, racing and other sports. But they are all essentially forms of popular recreation and entertainment and they are all susceptible to control by the courts in a variety of ways. This does not, of itself, exempt their governing bodies from control by judicial review. Each case will turn on the particular circumstances.
But, for my part, to apply to the governing body of football, on the basis that it is a public body, principles honed for the control of the abuse of power by government and its creatures would involve what, in today’s fashionable parlance, would be called a quantum leap. It would also, in my view, for what it is worth, be a misapplication of increasingly scarce judicial resources. It will become impossible to provide a swift remedy, which is one of the conspicuous hallmarks of judicial review, if the courts become even more swamped with such applications than they are already. This is not, of course, a jurisprudential reason for refusing judicial review, but it will be cold comfort to the seven or eight other substantive applicants and the many more ex parte applicants who have had to be displaced from the court’s lists in order to accommodate the present litigation to learn that, though they may have a remedy for their complaints about the arbitrary abuse of executive power, it cannot be granted to them yet.
If I am wrong and the FA’s decisions in April and May are susceptible to challenge by judicial review, the next question is whether they should be quashed. I deal with the matter in deference to the arguments addressed to me and conscious that this case is likely to go further.
For the League, Mr Oliver did not allege irrationality or procedural unfairness but confined his attack to the potential conflict of interest which he says will arise if the FA, as a regulating body, descends into the arena which it regulates. It is, he said, obliged to act impartially and independently and cannot do so, or at least cannot maintain the appearance of doing so, if it enters into commercial competition with the League by running its own league, for it would be difficult in such circumstances to decide if the motive behind any regulatory action were self-interest and, if so, whether to a permissible degree.
He drew an analogy with the role of a trustee, who must not put himself in a position where duty and interest conflict. He relied on Tower Hamlets London BC v Chetnik Developments Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 961 at 966, [1988] AC 858 at 872 where Lord Bridge quotes Professor Sir William Wade QC in Administrative Law (5th edn, 1982) p 355: ‘… unfettered governmental discretion is a contradiction in terms’. This, submitted Mr Oliver, emphasises the trust nature of the FA’s power. The fact that the FA run the Challenge Cup, he submitted, involves no conflict of interest because the cup is open to all whereas the League is, in its nature, exclusive.
In order to run a Premier League, the FA would have to persuade clubs to join and remain. The title of the FA’s sanction regulations shows that the FA did not have and was not intended to have any function running a league. Clause 3(7) of its memorandum contains no reference to leagues. Rule 9(a) and Form D presuppose that the FA could not run its own league without putting its regulatory duties at risk, for the idea of seeking your own consent would be absurd. The FA’s evidence accepts that the purpose of altering the rules is to facilitate the setting up of the Premier League and, therefore, the decisions to alter the rules should be struck down as an abuse of power.
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Furthermore, he submitted, attempted alteration of the rules reflects the FA’s recognition that it would be inducing breach of contract by disaffected first division clubs joining a Premier League on less than three seasons’ notice.
There are subsidiary complaints in the first affidavit of Mr Sandford, the chief executive of the League, about conflict of interest in relation to appeals, international matters and misconduct, but these were not pursued by Mr Oliver in argument.
For the FA, Mr Dyson submitted that the evidence shows that the FA has been in the commercial arena for years, generating revenue from television and elsewhere, and this is recognised both by the League’s presentation in October 1990 (‘One game, one league, one voice’) and by the League’s evidence.
The evidence also shows that the FA’s role is not merely supervisory. It is involved in coaching, education and medical programmes, manages and promotes the national teams and runs other competitions apart from the FA Cup at all levels of the game. Like FIFA, UEFA and the governing body of football in Germany, it runs, without anomaly, competitions which it also regulates.
The only conflict which could be said to arise, submitted Mr Dyson, is between the FA’s present roles in regulating the game and running the FA Cup. The power to run a league is provided by the wide and general words of the memorandum at cl 3(2). The title of the sanction regulations is merely a reflection of historical fact and cannot, in any event, be used to construe the memorandum of association. The FA Cup has its own rules, and so would the Premier League, to which neither Form D nor the sanction regulations would apply. The lack of any reference to leagues in the memorandum of association proves nothing, first, because no one suggests that the FA is not empowered to regulate leagues, secondly, because the word ‘competition’ which does appear in cl 3(7) includes leagues and, thirdly, because, if cl 3(2) gives the power, as it must, to regulate leagues, a fortiori it gives the power to run them.
Significantly there are many instances in both the League’s memorandum (cll 3(2) and 3(7)) which are identical to the FA’s cll 3(2) and 3(7)) and regulations where the word ‘competition’ is used as synonymous with league. Indeed, the League’s regulation 3 refers to ‘football competitions to be called the League championship’, and Form 9, used to apply for league sanction, refers to ‘competition’. Furthermore, submitted Mr Dyson, there is already direct competition between the FA Cup and the League Cup.
I have no hesitation in preferring Mr Dyson’s submissions. In public law, just as with a statutory body one looks first to the enabling instrument, so here it seems to me one must start not by analogy with trustees in private law but with the memorandum of association. On its face, cl 3(2) gives the power to promote football in every way the FA thinks proper. It seems to me quite impossible to construe the setting up of a Premier League for the purposes indicated by the evidence as frustrating the policy of the enabling instrument or being contrary to its true intent and meaning (per Lord Bridge in the Chetnik case [1988] 1 All ER 961 at 966, [1988] AC 858 at 872–873).
Accordingly, if the FA’s decisions to set up a Premier League and to make necessary amendments to its rules were susceptible to challenge by judicial review, the challenge mounted would, in my view, fail.
I turn to the relief sought by way of declaration in the Chancery action. It is apparent from my conclusions in relation to the judicial review proceedings that the League has, in my view, at all material times, been contractually bound to the FA. There is a tripartite arrangement because, as I have already said, the clubs are also bound to the League and the FA. The question which now falls for closer examination is: on what terms are the parties bound?
Page 851 of [1993] 2 All ER 833
Mr Dyson submitted, and I did not understand Mr Oliver to disagree, that rules made pursuant to the FA’s memorandum cl 3, in particular sub-cll (7), (11) and (14), together with its regulations, constitute the rules by which all members and affiliates, the latter including the League, are bound. By seeking and obtaining sanction under rule 9, the League has hitherto undertaken to observe them and has not sought, by way of the arbitration procedures contained in rule 38 or otherwise, to challenge them. Accordingly, submitted Mr Dyson, the League’s regulation 10 has never been consistent with the FA’s sanction regulation 24.
A requirement for three seasons’ notice is inconsistent with annual sanctioning. Clubs cannot play for a league or against a club which is not sanctioned, and a club’s contractual commitment to the League cannot be for longer than the annual sanction period. Being bound by rule 9 and sanction regulation 20, the League cannot enforce its regulation 10 against the clubs because to do so would be to force the clubs to accept a later contract inconsistent with their contracts with the FA and to bind clubs beyond the annual sanction period. The fact that, for three years, the FA sanctioned the League despite the inconsistency of regulation 10, does not prevent the FA from insisting on compliance with its rules for the forthcoming season. Rule 35 enables the FA to change its rules from time to time provided such changes are in conformity with the memorandum and articles. The clarificatory amendment proposed in May can properly be made so as to render regulation 10 void and unenforceable by the League against the clubs.
In the alternative, Mr Dyson submitted that a necessary term must be implied in all the contracts that the League will not act in breach of its rules and regulations, as from time to time constituted, or seek to enforce against the clubs any obligation inconsistent with the obligations by which both the League and the clubs are bound to the FA.
Mr Oliver sought to answer this argument first by painting a picture of the complexities of such an implied term as Mr Dyson suggests. It would, said Mr Oliver, have to be implied not merely that FA rules took precedence and not merely that inconsistent League rules are void and unenforceable, but also that there should not be any action between the clubs and the League despite the fact that they are contractually bound.
In my judgment, this argument founders, first, because FA rule 9 and sanction regulation 20 expressly give the FA rules precedence, hence the evidential common ground that the FA is the governing body and, secondly, because the proposed implied term would not prevent action between contractually bound parties; it would simply limit such action to the enforcement of those terms which are not in conflict with those of the FA rules. I find nothing unreasonable or absurd in this. Indeed, the tripartite nature of the relationship, in my judgment, requires, for business efficacy, the implication of such a term as Mr Dyson suggests.
Next Mr Oliver submitted that sanction regulation 24 was not in mandatory form when the League introduced rule 10 and, having accepted the League’s new rule 10 in and since 1988, the FA is estopped from seeking to apply to the League any inconsistent and subsequently-introduced FA rules.
It seems to me that the difficulty with this submission is that there is no evidence at all that the League has altered its position in reliance on the FA’s silence in the face of League rule 10. In particular, although Mr Sandford says that a three-year period is better for sponsorship, there is no evidence that the League has in fact entered into three-year sponsorship contracts without a break clause. In any event, for the future, there is, as it seems to me, nothing to prevent the FA from saying, if and when the League seeks sanction in August, that
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sanction will not be granted unless the League bring regulation 10 into line with FA sanction regulation 24. Such power lies in FA rule 9 and sanction regulation 20.
Mr Oliver’s third submission was that, as a statute will not readily be construed as interfering with existing contractual relations, or retrospectively interfering with them, a fortiori the FA rules, which contain no unambiguous unequivocal term that, in the event of inconsistency, the League’s rules shall be void and enforceable, should not be so construed.
For my part, I doubt the validity of the a fortiori argument from statute to contract but, in any event, the answer again lies, as it seems to me, in the primacy of the FA rules resulting from FA rule 9 and sanction regulation 20.
Finally, Mr Oliver submitted that Form D, by its terms, seeks sanction only for the competition, that is the League. That is so, but sanctioning, for the reasons already given, is only granted in accordance with the FA’s rules, and the argument returns to the terms on which it is open to the FA to sanction the 1991–92 league.
The proceedings for judicial review having failed, and there being nothing before me to suggest that the FA, in seeking to promote a Premier League, is acting other than in accordance with the wide power in cl 3(2) of its memorandum to promote football in every way which the FA thinks proper, it follows, in my judgment, that the FA is, prima facie, entitled to the declarations it seeks. I say ‘prima facie’ because, by virtue of RSC Ord 15, r 16, such relief is discretionary.
Mr Oliver submitted that the originating summons had the character of testing a preliminary point in the Queen’s Bench action, and that this is not an appropriate ground for granting declaratory relief in the light of the decision of the House of Lords in Russian Commercial and Industrial Bank v British Bank for Foreign Trading [1921] 2 AC 438, [1921] All ER Rep 329. The majority of the House there expressed serious reservations about making a declaration in that case.
If this point has any validity, it is surprising that it was not raised at the outset when submissions were made to me in relation to whether or not the Queen’s Bench action should be tried with the other two matters. It was not then suggested that it would be abortive or sterile to proceed with the originating summons prior to the Queen’s Bench action. But I am satisfied that the point has no validity. I accept Mr Dyson’s submission that the plaintiffs in the Russian Bank case were playing procedural games. They brought an action in the Commercial Court, picking out such parts of an action of redemption as were in their favour so as to avoid the adverse consequences of proceedings in the Chancery Division, which would have been the natural home for the litigation. It was this picking and choosing which their Lordships found unacceptable.
In the present litigation, it is common ground between the parties that an urgent decision is necessary as to the FA’s ability in public or private law to make the challenged decisions. I see no reason to exercise my discretion against granting declaratory relief pending such resolution as there may be in the Queen’s Bench action of factual issues which cannot affect the legal questions in issue between the parties.
Accordingly, for the reasons given, the League’s application for judicial review must be dismissed. On the originating summons, the FA is entitled to the declarations it seeks in the form sought. Nothing before me suggests that injunctive relief is presently appropriate.
Application for judicial review dismissed. Declarations sought in originating summons granted.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex parte Aga Khan
[1993] 2 All ER 853
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, FARQUHARSON AND HOFFMANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 25, 26 NOVEMBER, 4 DECEMBER 1992
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Jockey Club – Disqualification of racehorse found to be doped – Owner and trainer not found to be at fault – Owner seeking judicial review of decision to disqualify horse – Whether Jockey Club’s decisions susceptible to judicial review – Whether Jockey Club’s decisions within sphere of public law.
The Jockey Club controlled and regulated horse racing in Great Britain by virtue of the fact that all race meetings had to be licensed by the Jockey Club and run under the Rules of Racing and persons connected with racing had to be licensed by or registered with the Club. The applicant was the head of a large religious sect and a major racehorse owner and breeder. As an owner wishing to race horses the applicant had to register with the Jockey Club and enter into a contractual relationship with the Club by which he expressly submitted to the Rules of Racing and acknowledged that he was governed by the disciplinary powers of the Club. In 1989 one of the applicant’s horses won a major race, but a routine sample of its urine taken after the race was found to contain camphor, which was a prohibited substance under the Rules of Racing. After an inquiry by the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club the horse was disqualified and the trainer was fined £200. The source of the camphor was never identified and it was never alleged that either the applicant or the trainer had caused or connived at the doping of the horse or that its performance had been affected in any way. The applicant, who was deprived of the prize money for the race, claimed that the decision was damaging to his standing as a religious leader and to his reputation as a major racehorse owner and breeder, and that the value of the horse for breeding purposes had been greatly depreciated. The applicant sought judicial review of the disciplinary committee’s decision. On the trial of a preliminary issue the Divisional Court held that the committee’s decision was not susceptible to judicial review. The applicant appealed, contending that, although the Jockey Club was in form a private club, its decisions were susceptible to judicial review because, as the body which controlled and regulated horse racing in Great Britain, it exercised a public function in the de facto control of a major national industry and its decisions were an exercise of power which was public in character and of serious consequence to the applicant. The Jockey Club contended that it was a private and domestic body independent of government in origin, constitution and function and forming no part of any governmental system of regulation, that its relationship with persons such as the applicant who agreed to be bound by the Rules of Racing was a private law relationship based on contract and that the only remedies available to the applicant were private law remedies.
Held – Although the Jockey Club effectively regulated a significant national activity, exercising in the interest of the public powers which affected the public and although (per Sir Thomas Bingham MR) if it did not regulate that activity the government would probably be driven to create a public body to do so, the Jockey Club was not in its origin, its history, its constitution or its membership a public body and its powers were in no sense governmental. Furthermore, the
Page 854 of [1993] 2 All ER 853
powers which the Jockey Club exercised over those who like the applicant agreed to be bound by the Rules of Racing derived from the agreement of the parties and gave rise to private rights on which effective action for private law remedies such as a declaration, an injunction and damages could be based without resort to judicial review. In those circumstances the disciplinary committee’s decision to disqualify the applicant’s horse was not susceptible to judicial review. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 866 j to p 867 f, p 872 g to p 873 b d e and p 876 a to c, post).
Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300 applied.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 distinguished.
Quaere. Whether all decisions of the Jockey Club are immune from judicial review (see p 867 f, p 873 c d, p 875 h to p 876 a, post).
Notes
For the Jockey Club, see 4(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 82.
For the scope of judicial review, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 64, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 321–435, 3362–4797.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bank of Scotland v Investment Management Regulatory Organisation Ltd 1989 SLT 432, Ct of Sess.
Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union [1971] 1 All ER 1148, [1971] 2 QB 175, [1971] 2 WLR 742, CA.
Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 573, [1979] 2 WLR 755, PC.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, [1984] 3 WLR 1174, HL.
Eastham v Newcastle United Football Club Ltd [1963] 3 All ER 139, [1964] Ch 413, [1963] 3 WLR 574.
Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112, [1985] 3 WLR 830, HL.
Heatley v Tasmanian Racing and Gaming Commission (1977) 137 CLR 487, Aust HC.
Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302, CA.
Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633, [1966] 2 WLR 1027, CA.
O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237, [1982] 3 WLR 1096, HL.
R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex p Insurance Services plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169, DC.
R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congregations of GB and the Commonwealth, ex p Wachmann [1993] 2 All ER 249, [1992] 1 WLR 1306.
R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864, [1967] 3 WLR 348, DC.
R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207, DC.
R v Disputes Committee of the National Joint Council for the Craft of Dental Technicians, ex p Neate [1953] 1 All ER 327, [1953] 1 QB 704.
R v Football Association Ltd, ex p Football League Ltd (1991) [1993] 2 All ER 833.
R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225, DC.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA [1977] 3 All ER 803, [1979] AC 210, [1977] 3 WLR 532, HL.
Page 855 of [1993] 2 All ER 853
Swain v Law Society [1982] 2 All ER 827, [1983] 1 AC 598, [1982] 3 WLR 261, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Currie v Barton [1988] CA Transcript 430.
Davis v Carew-Pole [1956] 2 All ER 524, [1956] 1 WLR 833.
Ellesmere (Earl) v Wallace [1929] 2 Ch 1, CA.
Enderby Town Football Club Ltd v Football Association Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 215, [1971] Ch 591, CA.
Forbes v New South Wales Trotting Club Ltd (1979) 143 CLR 242, Aust HC.
McInnes v Onslow Fane [1978] 3 All ER 211, [1978] 1 WLR 1520.
R v BBC, ex p Lavelle [1983] 1 All ER 241, [1983] 1 WLR 23.
R v Benchers of Lincoln’s Inn (1825) 4 B & C 855, 107 ER 1277.
R v Code of Practice Committee of the Association of the British Pharmaceutical Industry, ex p Professional Counselling Aids Ltd (1990) 10 BMLR 21.
R v Derbyshire CC, ex p Noble [1990] ICR 808, CA.
R v East Berkshire Health Authority, ex p Walsh [1984] 3 All ER 425, [1985] QB 152, CA.
R v Football Association of Wales, ex p Flint Town United Football Club (11 July 1990, unreported), DC.
R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212, DC.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Guinness plc [1989] 1 All ER 509, [1990] 1 QB 146, CA.
R v Post Office, ex p Byrne [1975] ICR 221, DC.
Roy v Kensington and Chelsea and Westminster Family Practitioner Committee [1992] 1 All ER 705, [1992] 1 AC 624, HL.
Satanita, The [1895] P 248, CA.
Singer v Jockey Club (28 June 1990, unreported), Ch D.
Watson v Pragar [1991] 3 All ER 487, [1991] 1 WLR 726.
Appeal
His Highness the Aga Khan appealed from the decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Woolf LJ and Leonard J) on 3 July 1991 ruling on a preliminary issue ordered to be tried by the master of the Crown Office that the court had no jurisdiction to entertain the applicant’s motion for judicial review of the decision of the Jockey Club to disqualify his horse Aliysa after it had won the 1989 Oaks when a test of the horse’s urine after the race showed traces of a prohibited substance, namely camphor. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
Sydney Kentridge QC, Anthony Boswood QC and Derrick Dale (instructed by Matthew McCloy & Partners, Newbury) for the Aga Khan.
Patrick Milmo QC and Richard Spearman (instructed by Charles Russell) for the Jockey Club.
Cur adv vult
4 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. On 10 June 1989 the filly Aliysa, owned by His Highness the Aga Khan, won the Oaks at Epsom. In a routine examination
Page 856 of [1993] 2 All ER 853
after the race, a metabolite of camphor was said to be found in a sample of the filly’s urine. Under the Jockey Club’s Rules of Racing camphor was a prohibited substance and the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club held an inquiry. On 20 November 1990 the committee ruled that the urine contained a metabolite of camphor, that the source of the metabolite was camphor, that the filly should be disqualified for the race in question and that the filly’s trainer should be fined £200.
The Aga Khan sought leave to move for judicial review of the committee’s decision. In granting leave Macpherson J suggested trial of a preliminary issue whether the committee’s decision was susceptible to judicial review. This suggestion was adopted, and on 3 July 1991 a Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Woolf LJ and Leonard J) ruled against the Aga Khan on this issue. In reaching that conclusion the court was much influenced by earlier authority, from which it held it should not depart.
The Aga Khan (hereafter the applicant) challenges that conclusion. The issue squarely raised before this court is whether the Jockey Club’s decision here in issue can be challenged by judicial review.
The substance of the complaint, which is that the committee’s proceedings were vitiated by fundamental unfairness, is not germane to this jurisdictional issue. Nor are the underlying facts. It should, however, be recorded that neither the applicant nor the trainer were said to have caused or connived at the doping of the filly. No source of camphor was identified. The filly’s performance was not said to have been affected. The case rested on the presence of the metabolite, held to derive from camphor (a prohibited substance), in the urine. But the applicant deposes that the decision was damaging to his standing as a religious leader. It was plainly damaging to his reputation as a very major horse-owner and breeder. It deprived him of the prize money for this classic race. And it greatly depreciated the value of the filly for breeding purposes.
The facts
For purposes of this appeal I must attempt to describe, necessarily in very general terms, the salient features of the British racing industry and the role of the Jockey Club within it.
The evidence before the court makes plain that racing is aptly described as an industry. There are 59 active racecourses in Great Britain which in 1990 attracted nearly five million racegoers to over 1,000 meetings with some 7,000 races, 69,000 runners and prize money of nearly £48m.
The turnover of off-course betting subject to the levy on horserace betting in 1989–90 was some £4bn. In the same period general betting duty (not all derived from bets on horse racing) yielded revenue of some £327m. It has been estimated that over 100,000 people depend for their livelihood on racing and betting. There were (at the end of 1990) some 19,000 owners, 6,500 stable lads, 550 trainers and 1,000 jockeys registered with or licensed by the Jockey Club.
In a recent memorandum to the Home Affairs Committee of the House of Commons, the Jockey Club accurately described itself as ‘officially responsible for the proper organisation, administration and control of all horse racing, race meetings and racehorse training in the United Kingdom (excluding Northern Ireland …).’
It is, as the Royal Commission on Gambling reported in 1978 (Cmnd 7200), the ‘supreme authority in British racing’. The Royal Commission succinctly summarised the historical origins and present standing of the Jockey Club:
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‘9.24 The Jockey Club acquired its position as the governing body of racing in the 18th century because the organisers of race meetings submitted themselves to its jurisdiction. The fact that racing was being conducted under Jockey Club rules was some assurance of integrity. As a result, the Jockey Club came to be voluntarily accepted as the rule making and disciplinary authority in all matters concerned with racing.
9.25 Racing over fences did not develop until the late 18th century. In 1863 two members of the Jockey Club (and one other) formed the Grand National Hunt Steeplechase Committee (afterwards simply the National Hunt Committee) to act as the governing body for jumping races. In 1970 the National Hunt Committee merged with the Jockey Club.
9.26 In 1970 the Jockey Club was incorporated by Royal Charter. The objects for which the Club exists are stated in the Charter to include undertaking responsibility for the “proper conduct and due encouragement” of horse racing and encouraging and fostering the breeding of bloodstock. The Royal Charter does not of course give the Jockey Club any authority which it did not have before.
9.27 The racing industry makes heavy demands upon the Club, which is today far more than a law-making and disciplinary authority for the sport. Its unpaid stewards have the responsibility of directing what amounts to an extremely complicated multi-million pound business. Among its numerous activities it licenses trainers, jockeys, officials and racecourses, employs its own officials to attend and supervise all race meetings, administers discipline and, perhaps most important of all, decides how many race meetings there will be, where they will be held and what kind of races each meeting may include.
9.28 The Jockey Club’s control of the fixture list affects the whole racing industry. The extent to which a race course makes a profit or not can depend on how many meetings it is allowed to hold, the importance of the races to be run and whether they are on days when the public are likely to attend. The efforts of the breeders are directed towards supplying the kind of horses likely to win the race to which the Jockey Club attaches the most prize money and prestige. Since 1967, these have been the Pattern Races which are a series of races designed to provide tests for the best horses over appropriate distances according to their ages. The number of fixtures also has a direct effect upon the financial commitments of the Levy Board, which has to provide the necessary technical and security services for each meeting, contribute to the prize money and frequently to subsidise the racecourse.’
The Royal Commission concluded (at para 9.30):
‘Largely due to the efforts of the Club, British racing is considered to be as fair and honest as any in the world.’
The powers which the Jockey Club exercised in the present case (to order the taking of samples, to fine and to disqualify) are among those assumed by the Jockey Club to safeguard the integrity of British racing. Under its Rules of Racing, the finding of a prohibited substance obliges the Jockey Club to fine the trainer (unless the administration of the substance is shown to be accidental) and to disqualify the horse for the race in question. The applicant has not criticised the stringency of these rules. There is no ground for doing so. For a variety of reasons, including the large sums of money which stand to be won or lost on the outcome of a single race, horse racing is an activity peculiarly prone to criminality, cheating
Page 858 of [1993] 2 All ER 853
and chicanery of many kinds. Experience no doubt shows that strong measures of control and close vigilance are necessary pre-conditions of fair and honest competition.
The royal charter granted to the Jockey Club included among its objects:
‘(ii) to take over the activities connected with the control and regulation of horse-racing throughout Our United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland heretofore carried on by the Old Club and to undertake all such responsibilities and activities as may be necessary or convenient for the proper conduct and due encouragement of horse-racing howsoever carried on and whether or not of a kind heretofore controlled or regulated by the Old Club.’
The governing rules of the Jockey Club were set out in a schedule and were capable of alteration only with Privy Council approval. Among these rules was r 11, defining the role of the stewards as the main officials of the Jockey Club:
‘(1) The Stewards shall publish or cause to be published on behalf of the Club such Rules (hereinafter called “the Rules of Racing”) regulations, orders and directions as they may think necessary for the proper conduct of horseracing, race meetings and racehorse training.
(2) The Stewards shall have power on behalf of the Club to issue licences and permits in relation to horseracing, race meetings or racehorse training …’
The Rules of Racing are a skilfully drafted, comprehensive and far-reaching code of rules through which the Jockey Club exercises its control over racing in this country. So far as relevant for present purposes, the effect of the rules is broadly speaking as follows.
(1) The stewards have power to licence racecourses and allocate fixtures. Any meeting not held at a licensed racecourse is unrecognised.
(2) The stewards have power to license clerks of the course, jockeys, trainers and others and issue permits to trainers, amateur riders and others.
(3) No one may act as a clerk of the course, trainer or jockey under the rules unless he holds an appropriate licence or permit.
(4) A horse may not (subject to certain exceptions) be entered for a race by any owner whose name is not registered with the Jockey Club.
(5) A horse is not qualified to run in any race if it has run at any unrecognised meeting.
(6) A trainer may not employ any person whose name has not been registered with the Jockey Club and may not employ any person to work in his stable who has previously been employed in a training stable without referring to the last trainer to employ him and receiving a reply. A person thus prevented from obtaining employment has a right of appeal to the stewards.
(7) Where any person subject to the Rules of Racing has committed a breach thereof the stewards have power (among other penalties) to declare him a disqualified person.
(8) A person reported by the Committee of Tattersalls is a disqualified person or subject to exclusion from any premises owned, licensed or controlled by the Jockey Club. A person disqualified by a sister authority abroad is a disqualified person here unless the stewards decide otherwise.
(9) Any person who owns, trains or rides a horse at an unrecognised meeting in Great Britain or Ireland or who acts in any official capacity in connection with such a meeting is liable to be declared a disqualified person.
(10) A disqualified person may not act as a steward or official at any recognised meeting, enter, run, train, or ride a horse in any race at any recognised meeting,
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enter any racecourse, stand, enclosure or other premises owned, used, or controlled by the stewards of any meeting, be employed (without the permission of the stewards) in any racing stable, or deal in any capacity with a racehorse. Any person (whether subject to the rules or not) may be excluded from any premises owned, licensed or controlled by the stewards.
The Jockey Club brings these rules to bear in two main ways. First, and most importantly, it does so by contracts entered into with racecourse managements, owners, trainers and jockeys. The present case illustrates the routine practice. Thus the applicant when applying for registration as an owner (and, probably, when entering the filly for the race) and the trainer when seeking renewal of his trainer’s licence each agreed to be bound in all respects by the Rules of Racing. All those seeking any licence or permit from the Jockey Club, on being registered with it, become similarly bound.
The Jockey Club cannot, of course, impose contractual conditions on those who do not seek any licence or permit from it and therefore do not enter into any contract with it. This is a class which includes members of the general public and also racecourse owners, owners, trainers and jockeys who, for whatever reason, do not choose to act under the Jockey Club rules. The Jockey Club’s sanction here lies not in contract but in its domination of the market. While unrecognised meetings do occur in some parts of the country, they are insignificant. No serious racecourse management, owner, trainer or jockey can survive without the recognition or licence of the Jockey Club. There is in effect no alternative market in which those not accepted by the Jockey Club can find a place or to which racegoers may resort. Thus by means of the rules and its market domination the Jockey Club can effectively control not only those who agree to abide by its rules but also those—such as disqualified or excluded persons seeking to participate in racing activities in any capacity—who do not. For practical purposes the Jockey Club’s writ runs in the British racing world, to the acknowledged benefit of British racing.
The arguments
The arguments on both sides have been so clearly and well put that they can, I hope, be briefly summarised.
The central thrust of the applicant’s case is this. The Jockey Club is the effective de facto controller of a significant national activity. Its functions are essentially public. Its powers are of a nature and scope which affect the public. It matters not that it is a private body: that is an accident of history. What matters is that if it or some other private body did not perform the functions it does the government would be obliged to create a body to perform those functions. It makes no difference that it exerts control in the main by contract, since those who contract with it have no effective alternative to accepting the obligations thus imposed and authority is effectively exerted over those not bound by contract. Although in the past what were apparently private law remedies have been held to be available against the Jockey Club to a trainer not in contractual relations with it (in Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633), that case lacked a clear foundation in principle and would now result in the grant of a public law remedy. It is wrong to seize on any single feature or test to determine whether a body or a decision is susceptible to judicial review. That is a question to be determined in the light of all the circumstances. The decision here in question was an exercise of power public in character and of serious consequence to the applicant and is as such susceptible to judicial review, by which means alone he can obtain the decision he wants, an order that the decision be quashed.
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The Jockey Club takes radical issue with this argument. On its argument, it is a private body independent of government in origin, constitution and function and forming no part of any governmental system of regulation. Its relationship with those who, like the applicant, agree to be bound by the Rules of Racing is an essentially private law relationship based on contract. A duty to conduct any inquiry fairly would be implied into this contract and if the applicant could establish a breach of that duty he could recover appropriate private law remedies by way of declaration, injunction and damages. Remedies developed to curb abuses and excesses of power by government and public tribunals cannot appropriately be applied to a private body exercising a domestic jurisdiction pursuant to contract. Even in Nagle v Feilden, where the plaintiff could rely on no contract, the remedy given lay in private and not public law.
Authority
We were referred to a considerable body of authority relied on as relevant in determining the scope of judicial review and identifying the bodies and decisions which are susceptible to judicial review. I shall confine my citation to the authorities which seem to me most pertinent.
In R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864 Lord Parker CJ, an acknowledged master of this field, made certain general observations which have been much quoted since and are of undoubted authority. He said ([1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882):
‘The position as I see it is that the exact limits of the ancient remedy by way of certiorari have never been, and ought not to be, specifically defined. They have varied from time to time, being extended to meet changing conditions. At one time the writ only went to an inferior court. Later its ambit was extended to statutory tribunals determining a lis inter partes. Later again it extended to cases where there was no lis in the strict sense of the word, but where immediate or subsequent rights of a citizen were affected. The only constant limits throughout were that the body concerned was under a duty to act judicially and that it was performing a public duty. Private or domestic tribunals have always been outside the scope of certiorari since their authority is derived solely from contract, that is from the agreement of the parties concerned … We have, as it seems to me, reached the position when the ambit of certiorari can be said to cover every case in which a body of persons, of a public as opposed to a purely private or domestic character, has to determine matters affecting subjects provided always that it has a duty to act judicially. Looked at in this way the board in my judgment comes fairly and squarely within the jurisdiction of this court. The board are, as counsel for the board said, “a servant of the Crown charged by the Crown, by executive instruction, with the duty of distributing the bounty of the Crown”. The board are clearly, therefore, performing public duties.’
Diplock LJ pointed out that the board’s performance of quasi-judicial functions as an inferior tribunal—
‘is not derived from any agreement between Crown and applicants but from instructions by the executive government, that is, by prerogative act of the Crown. The appointment of the board and the conferring on the board of jurisdiction to entertain and determine applications, and of authority to make payments in accordance with such determinations, are acts of government, done without statutory authority but nonetheless lawful for that.’ (See [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 779, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 883.)
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Thus the court declined to set firm bounds to the grant of public law remedies, but did not extend them beyond acts of government performed by a creature of executive government.
In Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 the plaintiff was a trainer whose licence had been suspended because he had had charge of a greyhound which had been found on examination to have prohibited substances in its tissues. He had issued an originating summons seeking a declaration that the stewards’ decision was void and ultra vires because reached in breach of an implied duty of fairness and an injunction or damages. The National Greyhound Racing Club (the NGRC) moved to strike out the plaintiff’s action on the ground that he should have sought judicial review under s 31 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. This contention was rejected by Walton J at first instance and by the Court of Appeal (Lawton, Fox and Slade LJJ).
The crux of Lawton LJ’s judgment is to be found in this passage ([1983] 3 All ER 300 at 303, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1307):
‘In my judgment, such powers as the stewards had to suspend the plaintiff’s licence were derived from a contract between him and the defendants. This was so for all who took part in greyhound racing in stadiums licensed by the defendants. A stewards’ inquiry under the defendants’ rules of racing concerned only those who voluntarily submitted themselves to the stewards’ jurisdiction. There was no public element in the jurisdiction itself. Its exercise, however, could have consequences from which the public benefited, as for example by the stamping out of malpractices, and from which individuals might have their rights restricted by, for example, being prevented from employing a trainer whose licence has been suspended. Consequences affecting the public generally can flow from the decisions of many domestic tribunals. In the past the courts have always refused to use the orders of certiorari to review the decisions of domestic tribunals.’
He then quoted from Lord Parker’s judgment in Ex p Lain and held that s 31 had regulated the court’s procedure in judicial review and not extended its scope.
Fox LJ expressed the rationale of his concurring judgment ([1983] 3 All ER 300 at 305, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1309):
‘Accordingly, in my view, the authority of the stewards to suspend the licence of the plaintiff derives wholly from a contract between him and the defendants. I see nothing to suggest that the defendants have rights or duties relating to members of the public as such. What the defendants do in relation to the control of greyhound racing may affect the public, or a section of it, but the defendants’ powers in relation to the matters with which this case is concerned are contractual.’
Slade LJ referred to the NGRC’s concern about the increased incidence of doping and continued ([1983] 3 All ER 300 at 307–308, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1311–1312):
‘I do not doubt the genuineness of this concern or the importance to the general public of the activities which the NGRC performs, not least its disciplinary functions. Furthermore, it is easy to understand why the NGRC would prefer that any person who seeks to challenge the exercise of its disciplinary functions should be compelled to do so, if at all, by way of an application for judicial review. In this manner the NGRC would enjoy the benefit of what Lord Diplock in O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124 at
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1131, [1983] 2 AC 237 at 282, described as “the safeguards imposed in the public interest against groundless, unmeritorious or tardy attacks on the validity of decisions made by public authorities in the field of public law.” Notwithstanding recent procedural changes, these safeguards are still real and substantial. Leave is required to bring proceedings. Terms may be imposed as to costs and the giving of security. There is a time-bar of three months, though the court has power for sufficient reason to extend this. The court retains firm control over discovery and cross-examination (see generally O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 680 at 698–699, [1983] 2 AC 237 at 263 per Ackner LJ). The difficulty, to my mind insuperable, which has faced counsel for the defendants in contending that the process of judicial review is a procedure, and indeed the only procedure, available to the plaintiff in the present case is that, as he frankly accepted, the rules of racing of the NGRC and its decision to suspend the plaintiff in purported compliance with those rules have not been made in the field of public law. Furthermore, its authority to perform judicial or quasi-judicial functions in respect of persons holding licences from it is not derived from statute or statutory instrument or from the Crown. It is derived solely from contract. Rule 2 of the NGRC’s rules of racing provides that every person who is the holder of a licence shall be deemed to have read the rules and to submit himself to them and to the jurisdiction of the NGRC. The relief, by way of declaration and injunction, sought by the plaintiff in his originating summons is correspondingly based primarily and explicitly on alleged breach of contract. Thus, this is a claim against a body of persons whose status is essentially that of a domestic, as opposed to a public, tribunal, albeit one whose decisions may be of public concern.’
The parallel between the Jockey Club and the NGRC is not exact. The former is incorporated by royal charter, the latter is a company limited by guarantee. The NGRC’s effective monopoly is territorially more limited than that of the Jockey Club. Its history is shorter and less glamorous. The industry it regulates is smaller and, some would feel, more dispensable. But the two bodies, within their respective spheres, exercise much the same powers in much the same way. The NGRC’s rules of racing plainly owe much to those of the Jockey Club. If the NGRC’s contentions were rightly rejected in Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd for the reasons given, the applicant’s contentions could not without anomaly be upheld on this appeal, unless the bounds of judicial review have been significantly extended in the years since that case was decided.
In arguing that such extension has indeed occurred, the applicant relies principally on R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815. In that case the Court of Appeal (Donaldson MR, Lloyd and Nicholls LJJ) held that the panel was in principle amenable to judicial review. The decision was novel, because the panel was not created by statute or by any exercise of prerogative or governmental power. But there was evidence that the Department of Trade and Industry had decided not to regulate take-overs by statutory instrument and to rely instead on the panel’s enforcement of the City Code on Take-overs and Mergers. As Donaldson MR put it ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 574–575, [1987] QB 815 at 835):
‘The picture which emerges is clear. As an act of government it was decided that, in relation to take-overs, there should be a central self-regulatory body which would be supported and sustained by a periphery of statutory powers and penalties wherever non-statutory powers and penalties were
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insufficient or non-existent or where EEC requirements called for statutory provisions. No one could have been in the least surprised if the panel had been instituted and operated under the direct authority of statute law, since it operates wholly in the public domain. Its jurisdiction extends throughout the United Kingdom. Its code and rulings apply equally to all who wish to make take-over bids or promote mergers, whether or not they are members of bodies represented on the panel. Its lack of a direct statutory base is a complete anomaly, judged by the experience of other comparable markets world wide. The explanation is that it is an historical “happenstance”, to borrow a happy term from across the Atlantic. Prior to the years leading up to the “Big Bang”, the City of London prided itself upon being a village community, albeit of an unique kind, which could regulate itself by pressure of professional opinion. As government increasingly accepted the necessity for intervention to prevent fraud, it built on City institutions and mores, supplementing and reinforcing them as appeared necessary. It is a process which is likely to continue, but the position has already been reached in which central government has incorporated the panel into its own regulatory network built up under the Prevention of Fraud (Investments) Act 1958 and allied statutes, such as the Banking Act 1979.’
Donaldson MR cited at length from Ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864, and came to the core of his decision ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 576–577, [1987] QB 815 at 838):
‘The Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, in the form which it then took, was an administrative novelty. Accordingly it would have been impossible to find a precedent for the exercise of the supervisory jurisdiction of the court which fitted the facts. Nevertheless, the court not only asserted its jurisdiction, but further asserted that it was a jurisdiction which was adaptable thereafter. This process has since been taken further in O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237 by deleting any requirement that the body should have a duty to act judicially, in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374 by extending it to a person exercising purely prerogative power, and in Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402 at 405, 415–416, [1986] AC 112 at 163, 177–178, where Lord Fraser and Lord Scarman expressed the view obiter that judicial review would extend to guidance circulars issued by a department of state without any specific authority. In all the reports it is possible to find enumerations of factors giving rise to the jurisdiction, but it is a fatal error to regard the presence of all those factors as essential or as being exclusive of other factors. Possibly the only essential elements are what can be described as a public element, which can take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
Lloyd LJ pointed out that ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 582, [1987] QB 815 at 846):
‘The City is not a club which one can join or not at will. In that sense, the word “self-regulation” may be misleading. The panel regulates not only itself, but all others who have no alternative but to come to the market in a case to which the code applies.’
Having referred to Lord Diplock’s pronouncement in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 at 949–950, [1985] AC 374 at
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409 that a decision-maker whose decisions are susceptible to judicial review must be empowered by public law, and to an argument advanced on behalf of the panel, Lloyd LJ said ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 583, [1987] QB 815 at 847):
‘I do not agree that the source of the power is the sole test whether a body is subject to judicial review, nor do I so read Lord Diplock’s speech. Of course the source of the power will often, perhaps usually, be decisive. If the source of power is a statute, or subordinate legislation under a statute, then clearly the body in question will be subject to judicial review. If, at the other end of the scale, the source of power is contractual, as in the case of private arbitration, then clearly the arbitrator is not subject to judicial review: see R v Disputes Committee of the National Joint Council for the Craft of Dental Technicians, ex p Neate [1953] 1 All ER 327, [1953] 1 QB 704. But in between these extremes there is an area in which it is helpful to look not just at the source of the power but at the nature of the power. If the body in question is exercising public law functions, or if the exercise of its functions have public law consequences, then that may, as counsel for the applicants submitted, be sufficient to bring the body within the reach of judicial review. It may be said that to refer to “public law” in this context is to beg the question. But I do not think it does. The essential distinction, which runs through all the cases to which we [were] referred, is between a domestic or private tribunal on the one hand and a body of persons who are under some public duty on the other.’
In his view, what mattered was not just the source of the power but also the nature of the duty (see [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 584, [1987] QB 815 at 848).
Nicholls LJ expressed his conclusion as follows ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 587, [1987] QB 815 at 852):
‘In my view, and quite apart from any other factors which point in the same direction, given the leading and continuing role played by the Bank of England in the affairs of the panel, the statutory source of the powers and duties of the Council of the Stock Exchange, the wide-ranging nature and importance of the matters covered by the code, and the public law consequences of non-compliance, the panel is performing a public duty in prescribing and operating the code (including ruling on complaints).’
The effect of this decision was to extend judicial review to a body whose birth and constitution owed nothing to any exercise of governmental power but which had been woven into the fabric of public regulation in the field of take-overs and mergers. R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex p Insurance Service plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169 appears to me to be a precise application of the principle thus established to analogous facts.
Mention should be made of two cases, both in the Divisional Court and both involving the Jockey Club. The earlier of the two was R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207. In this case the applicant sought judicial review of a decision that his name be removed from the list of those qualified to act as chairman of a panel of local stewards. The Jockey Club challenged the jurisdiction of the court to grant judicial review. Neill LJ observed that if the matter were free from authority he might have been disposed to conclude that some decisions at any rate of the Jockey Club were capable of being judicially reviewed, but found it impossible to distinguish the binding authority of Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302. Roch J, with some difference of emphasis, reached the
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same decision. The case may be distinguished from the present on two grounds. First, it does not appear (although this may not be entirely clear) that there was any contract between the applicant and the Jockey Club. Secondly, the question whether the applicant or some other local steward should act as chairman may fairly be seen as a domestic question lacking public significance and involving no exercise of power which could be seen as affecting the public.
The later decision was R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225. In that case the applicant for judicial review was a racecourse management which sought to challenge the Jockey Club’s allocation of racing fixtures. The Jockey Club again challenged the court’s jurisdiction to grant judicial review. On this issue Stuart-Smith LJ, being unconvinced that the court’s decision in Ex p Massingberd-Mundy was wrong, felt bound to follow it although adding that he would but for that authority have held that the Jockey Club were amenable to judicial review. Simon Brown J held himself similarly bound to follow Ex p Massingberd-Mundy, but in doing so expressed some criticism of the wider grounds of that decision. He thought it possible to distinguish Law, in which the applicant had been bound to the club by contract, particularly in the light of Datafin. In the course of his judgment he said (at 247):
‘I find myself, I confess, much attracted by [counsel for the applicant’s] submissions that the nature of the power being exercised by the Jockey Club in discharging its functions of regulating racecourses and allocating fixtures is strikingly akin to the exercise of a statutory licensing power. I have no difficulty in regarding this function as one of a public law body, giving rise to public law consequences. On any view it seems to have strikingly close affinities with those sorts of decision-making that commonly are accepted as reviewable by the courts. And at the same time I certainly cannot identify this particular exercise of power with that of an arbitrator or other domestic body such as would clearly be outside the supervisory jurisdiction.’ (My emphasis.)
But he concluded (at 248):
‘Plainly the Jockey Club for the most part take decisions which affect only—or at least essentially—those voluntarily and willingly subscribing to their rules and procedures. The wider public have no interest in all this, certainly not sufficient to make such decisions reviewable. But just occasionally, as when exercising the quasi-licensing power here under challenge, I for my part would regard the Jockey Club as subject to review.’
In that case, as in Ex p Massingberd-Mundy, but unlike Law and the present case, there was no contract between the applicant and the club.
In R v Football Association Ltd, ex p Football League Ltd [1993] 2 All ER 833 Rose J had to consider the susceptibility of the Football Association to judicial review. Having reviewed the authorities (including some not touched on here) at some length, the learned judge gave reasons based both on principle and pragmatism for rejecting the application (at 848–849):
‘I have crossed a great deal of ground in order to reach what, on the authorities, is the clear and inescapable conclusion for me that the FA is not a body susceptible to judicial review either in general or, more particularly, at the instigation of the League, with whom it is contractually bound. Despite its virtually monopolistic powers and the importance of its decisions to many members of the public who are not contractually bound to it, it is, in my judgment, a domestic body whose powers arise from and duties exist in
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private law only. I find no sign of underpinning directly or indirectly by any organ or agency of the state or any potential government interest, as Simon Brown J put it in [R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congregations of GB and the Commonwealth, ex p Wachmann [1993] 2 All ER 249, [1992] 1 WLR 1306], nor is there any evidence to suggest that if the FA did not exist the state … would intervene to create a public body to perform its functions. On the contrary, the evidence of commercial interest in the professional game is such as to suggest that a far more likely intervener to run football would be a television or similar company rooted in the entertainment business or a commercial company seeking advertising benefits such as presently provides sponsorship in one form or another. I do not find this conclusion unwelcome. Although thousands play and millions watch football, although it excites passions and divides families, and although millions of pounds are spent by spectators, sponsors, television companies and also clubs on salaries, wages, transfer fees and the maintenance of grounds, much the same can also be said in relation to cricket, golf, tennis, racing and other sports. But they are all essentially forms of popular recreation and entertainment and they are all susceptible to control by the courts in a variety of ways. This does not, of itself, exempt their governing bodies from control by judicial review. Each case will turn on the particular circumstances. But, for my part, to apply to the governing body of football, on the basis that it is a public body, principles honed for the control of the abuse of power by government and its creatures would involve what, in today’s fashionable parlance, would be called a quantum leap. It would also, in my view, for what it is worth, be a misapplication of increasingly scarce judicial resources. It will become impossible to provide a swift remedy, which is one of the conspicuous hallmarks of judicial review, if the courts become even more swamped with such applications than they are already. This is not, of course, a jurisprudential reason for refusing judicial review, but it will be cold comfort to the seven or eight other substantive applicants and the many more ex parte applicants who have had to be displaced from the court’s lists in order to accommodate the present litigation to learn that, though they may have a remedy for their complaints about the arbitrary abuse of executive power, it cannot be granted to them yet.’
No case directly raising the issue whether a sporting regulatory body is susceptible to judicial review, and if so in what circumstances, has yet reached the House of Lords. But our attention was drawn to Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 573, a Privy Council case in which an owner challenged a disciplinary ruling of the Australian Jockey Club. He proceeded by writ in the ordinary way, there was no argument on procedure and the hearing preceded O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237, which had the effect of directing professional attention to these jurisdictional issues. To that extent this authority must be viewed with caution. It is nonetheless evident that their Lordships regarded the disciplinary hearing as ‘an essentially domestic proceeding’ in which all who took part had accepted the Rules of Racing (see [1979] 2 All ER 440 at 451, [1980] AC 573 at 597).
Conclusions
I have little hesitation in accepting the applicant’s contention that the Jockey Club effectively regulates a significant national activity, exercising powers which affect the public and are exercised in the interest of the public. I am willing to accept that if the Jockey Club did not regulate this activity the government would probably be driven to create a public body to do so.
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But the Jockey Club is not in its origin, its history, its constitution or (least of all) its membership a public body. While the grant of a royal charter was no doubt a mark of official approval, this did not in any way alter its essential nature, functions or standing. Statute provides for its representation on the Horseracing Betting Levy Board, no doubt as a body with an obvious interest in racing, but it has otherwise escaped mention in the statute book. It has not been woven into any system of governmental control of horse racing, perhaps because it has itself controlled horse racing so successfully that there has been no need for any such governmental system and such does not therefore exist. This has the result that while the Jockey Club’s powers may be described as, in many ways, public they are in no sense governmental. The discretion conferred by s 31(6) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 to refuse the grant of leave or relief where the applicant has been guilty of delay which would be prejudicial to good administration can scarcely have been envisaged as applicable in a case such as this.
I would accept that those who agree to be bound by the Rules of Racing have no effective alternative to doing so if they want to take part in racing in this country. It also seems likely to me that if, instead of Rules of Racing administered by the Jockey Club, there were a statutory code administered by a public body, the rights and obligations conferred and imposed by the code would probably approximate to those conferred and imposed by the Rules of Racing. But this does not, as it seems to me, alter the fact, however anomalous it may be, that the powers which the Jockey Club exercises over those who (like the applicant) agree to be bound by the Rules of Racing derive from the agreement of the parties and give rise to private rights on which effective action for a declaration, an injunction and damages can be based without resort to judicial review. It would in my opinion be contrary to sound and long-standing principle to extend the remedy of judicial review to such a case.
It is unnecessary for purposes of this appeal to decide whether decisions of the Jockey Club may ever in any circumstances be challenged by judicial review and I do not do so. Cases where the applicant or plaintiff has no contract on which to rely may raise different considerations and the existence or non-existence of alternative remedies may then be material. I think it better that this court should defer detailed consideration of such a case until it arises. I am, however, satisfied that on the facts of this case the appeal should be dismissed.
FARQUHARSON LJ. This appeal constitutes another attempt to extend the frontiers of judicial review. The Aga Khan is an owner of racehorses and is registered as such with the Jockey Club.
In 1989 he owned a filly called Aliysa which he entered for the Oaks in 1989. She won the race and a routine sample of her urine was taken from her. Upon analysis at the Horseracing Forensic Laboratory it was discovered that the sample contained 3-hydroxycamphor (3-HC) which is a metabolite of camphor. The origin of the 3-HC was and remains unknown, but camphor is under the Rules of Racing a prohibited substance.
In 1990 an inquiry was held which Mr Stoute, the filly’s trainer, was required to attend. On 20 November the disciplinary committee concluded that while 3-HC is a metabolite of other substances besides camphor it was satisfied that camphor was the source of the 3-HC found in the sample. By that finding Aliysa was automatically disqualified under r 180(2) of the Rules of Racing. Mr Stoute was fined £200 under the provisions of r 53(1). While the committee’s findings imputed no blame to the owner, the Aga Khan considered that they reflected on
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his position as head of a large religious group as well as on his reputation as an owner and breeder of racehorses.
It was for these reasons that he resolved to bring proceedings against the Jockey Club on the basis of a number of allegations with which this court is not presently concerned. The Aga Khan elected not to proceed by writ but instead sought leave to apply for judicial review of the decisions of the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club. Leave to apply was granted by Macpherson J, who warned the applicant that his ‘first hurdle’ would be to establish that the decision of the committee was susceptible to judicial review.
On 30 May 1991 the Crown Office master made an order that the question of jurisdiction raised by Macpherson J should be tried as a preliminary issue. The motion came before the Divisional Court (Woolf LJ and Leonard J) on 3 July 1991, which held that on the authorities the court did not have jurisdiction to entertain a motion for judicial review of a decision of the Jockey Club. The present appeal is therefore confined to the issue of whether that ruling was correct.
The remaining facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR. I respectfully adopt his analysis of the status, function and rules of the Jockey Club.
Historically, an order of certiorari was never granted to review the decision of a domestic tribunal. This was made clear in R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864. At that time the Board had been newly set up by the prerogative act of the Crown. The court had to consider whether in those circumstances certiorari would issue against the Board.
In describing the remedy Lord Parker CJ said ([1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882):
‘The position as I see it is that the exact limits of the ancient remedy by way of certiorari have never been, and ought not to be specifically defined. They have varied from time to time, being extended to meet changing conditions. At one time the writ only went to an inferior court. Later its ambit was extended to statutory tribunals determining a lis inter partes. Later again it extended to cases where there was no lis in the strict sense of the word, but where immediate or subsequent rights of a citizen were affected. The only constant limits throughout were that the body concerned was under a duty to act judicially and that it was performing a public duty. Private or domestic tribunals have always been outside the scope of certiorari since their authority is derived solely from contract, that is from the agreement of the parties concerned … We have, as it seems to me, reached the position when the ambit of certiorari can be said to cover every case in which a body of persons, of a public as opposed to a purely private or domestic character, has to determine matters affecting subjects provided always that it has a duty to act judicially. Looked at in this way the board in my judgment comes fairly and squarely within the jurisdiction of this court. The board are, as counsel for the board said, “a servant of the Crown charged by the Crown, by executive instruction, with the duty of distributing the bounty of the Crown”. The board are clearly, therefore, performing public duties.’
This dichotomy was recognised by this court in Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302, which on its facts bears some similarity to the present appeal. The defendants, a company limited by guarantee, acted as a judicial body for the conduct and discipline of greyhound racing in England, Wales and Scotland. They administered a code of rules to
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achieve an orderly conduct of the sport. All who wished to take part in greyhound racing in stadiums licensed by the defendants were deemed to have read the rules of racing and submitted to them and to the jurisdiction of the defendants. A greyhound in the plaintiff’s charge was proved to have prohibited substances in its tissues which would affect its performance. There was a disciplinary hearing at which the plaintiff was present and the stewards who conducted the hearing suspended the plaintiff’s trainer’s licence for a period of six months. The plaintiff brought proceedings for a declaration that the decision was void by way of an originating summons. The defendants sought to have the proceedings struck out on the grounds that the plaintiff should have made an application for judicial review.
Lawton LJ said ([1983] 3 All ER 300 at 303, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 at 1307):
‘In my judgment, such powers as the stewards had to suspend the plaintiffs licence were derived from a contract between him and the defendants. This was so for all who took part in greyhound racing in stadiums licensed by the defendants. A stewards’ inquiry under the defendants’ rules of racing concerned only those who voluntarily submitted themselves to the stewards’ jurisdiction. There was no public element in the jurisdiction itself. Its exercise, however, could have consequences from which the public benefited, as for example by the stamping out of malpractices, and from which individuals might have their rights restricted by, for example, being prevented from employing a trainer whose licence has been suspended. Consequences affecting the public generally can flow from the decisions of many domestic tribunals. In the past the courts have always refused to use the orders of certiorari to review the decisions of domestic tribunals.’
More recently in a Divisional Court decision, R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225 at 244, Stuart-Smith LJ said:
‘Quite clearly the majority of cases, involving disciplinary disputes or adjudications between participants in the sport, will be of an entirely domestic character and based upon the contractual relationship between the parties. Such disputes have never been amenable to judicial review.’
The last citation I make in this context is by Rose J in R v Football Association Ltd, ex p Football League Ltd (1991) [1993] 2 All ER 833 at 848, where, in referring to the position of the Football Association, he said:
‘Despite its virtually monopolistic powers and the importance of its decisions to many members of the public who are not contractually bound to it, it is, in my judgment, a domestic body whose powers arise from and duties exist in private law only. I find no sign of underpinning directly or indirectly by any organ or agency of the state or any potential government interest …’
The learned judge accordingly found that the Football Association was not susceptible to judicial review.
The references to underpinning by the state and potential governmental interest derive from the decision of this court in R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815. Up till that time a remedy in public law was only available against a body if it derived its authority from statute, prerogative power or other delegated authority. The take-over panel did not come within any of those categories but was described by Donaldson MR in this way ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 574, [1987] QB 815 at 835):
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‘As an act of government it was decided that, in relation to take-overs, there should be a central self-regulatory body which would be supported and sustained by a periphery of statutory powers and penalties wherever non-statutory powers and penalties were insufficient or non-existent or where EEC requirements called for statutory provisions … Its jurisdiction extends throughout the United Kingdom. Its code and rulings apply equally to all who wish to make take-over bids or promote mergers, whether or not they are members of bodies represented on the panel.’
Both the chairman and deputy chairman of the take-over panel are appointed by the Governor of the Bank of England. The panel was and is in its function a unique body, but the court found that it was an integral part of a system which performed public law duties. In so deciding the court rejected the argument that the sole test of whether such a body was susceptible to judicial review was its source of power, and held it was entitled to consider such factors as the nature of the power. Donaldson MR said ([1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, [1987] QB 815 at 838):
‘In all the reports it is possible to find enumerations of factors giving rise to the jurisdiction, but it is a fatal error to regard the presence of all those factors as essential or as being exclusive of other factors. Possibly the only essential elements are what can be described as a public element, which can take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
Understandably the decision in Datafin involved some development of the law relating to judicial review but, bearing in mind the concluding words of the citation just made, the court did not question the decision in Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd, which was cited to it in argument.
There have been two attempts to bring proceedings for judicial review against the Jockey Club since the decision in Datafin. In the first, R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Massingberd-Mundy (1989) [1993] 2 All ER 207, the applicant sought to challenge a decision of the Jockey Club to remove him as chairman of the panel of local stewards. There was no contractual relationship between the parties in regard to the appointment. The Divisional Court held that it was bound by the decision in Law’s case to refuse the application, although both judges indicated that if the matter had been free from authority they would have been disposed to say that at any rate some of the decisions of the Jockey Club were amenable to judicial review.
The second case, already referred to, is R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225. The applicant’s complaint was that the Jockey Club had allocated an insufficient number of meetings to their racecourse. Here again there was no contractual relationship, and the allocation of meetings was exclusively a matter for the Club. Although dismissing the application on its merits the Divisional Court went on to consider the question of jurisdiction. Both Stuart-Smith LJ and Simon Brown J considered themselves bound by the decision in Ex p Massingberd-Mundy, but both said that if they had not been they would have held the Jockey Club susceptible to judicial review.
In argument Mr Kentridge QC for the applicant has said that it is not necessary for him to assert that Law’s case was wrongly decided, but he submits that in the light of Datafin the decision was on too narrow a basis. Furthermore he seeks to distinguish the two cases on their facts.
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In the light of the authorities already referred to in this judgment the issue in this appeal is whether on the one hand the Jockey Club is a domestic body which exercises its powers consensually or whether on the other there are public elements in the discharge of its functions which render it amenable to judicial review.
It is well known that all the major sports in this country are controlled by bodies whose task it is to ensure that the rules are properly observed and so far as possible to maintain proper standards and ensure fair play. It may well be that the Jockey Club is the most powerful of them all. Although it is now governed by a charter it has exercised control over horse racing for over 200 years. Its licensing and disciplinary powers are so extensive that nobody can play any significant part in the sport, whether as owner, trainer, jockey or racecourse owner without the approval of the Jockey Club. Racing is now so popular and widespread that it takes on the character of an industry, with a huge turnover of money in the betting which depends on it. It is with this general background that Mr Kentridge submits that the Jockey Club cannot realistically be described as a domestic body and that there are elements in its make-up and duties which make it properly susceptible to public law remedies. He accepts that it is not part of any government scheme of regulation, nor backed by any statutory sanctions, but argues that: (1) although its jurisdiction is nominally consensual the Jockey Club powers go far beyond the consent of a particular person; (2) it is in fact supported by extensive powers in its overall control of racing; (3) by its rules it exercises powers over persons who have never submitted to those rules, as when those who are deemed to be undesirable are warned off racecourses under the Jockey Club’s control; (4) the Jockey Club’s activities and functions are carried out not, or perhaps not only, in the interest of its members but also for the benefit of the public, in particular those who go racing or bet on horses; (5) the position of the Jockey Club, as the controller of racing, is recognised by Parliament by its association with the betting levy duty, which is applied in the interests of racing; (6) unlike most clubs incorporated under royal charter it has imposed upon it both powers and duties; and (7) if there was no voluntary body like the Jockey Club to exercise disciplinary control over the sport, Parliament would be likely to create a body with similar powers to the Jockey Club.
It is conceded that there is or at all events was a contractual relationship between the Jockey Club and the applicant, both when he applied to be and was accepted as a registered owner and when he entered Aliysa for the Oaks. There was in all probability also a contract between the applicant and those responsible for Epsom racecourse. By entering into those agreements the applicant was expressly submitting to the Rules of Racing and acknowledging that he was governed by the disciplinary powers of the Jockey Club. Mr Kentridge has referred to the lack of reality of describing such a relationship as consensual. The fact is that if the applicant wished to race his horses in this country he had no choice but to submit to the Jockey Club’s jurisdiction. This may be true but nobody is obliged to race his horses in this country and it does not destroy the element of consensuality.
Mr Kentridge criticises the decision in Law’s case in that the court concentrated particularly on the source of the power of the Greyhound Racing Association. That power was of course consensual. As a result of Datafin the source of power is only one element to consider in deciding whether there was a sufficient public element to make the activity of the body concerned amenable to public law.
Mr Kentridge also seeks to distinguish Law’s case from the present one on its facts. He asserts that the Greyhound Racing Association is not in the same powerful position with regard to its sport as the Jockey Club. If there was no
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Greyhound Racing Association the government would not step in to control the sport as it is not of the same importance.
Moreover he claims that the decision is authority only for the propositions that (a) a domestic tribunal whose powers are derived solely from contract is not subject to judicial review and (b) the provisions of s 31 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 are purely procedural.
Mr Milmo QC submits that the Jockey Club is not amenable to judicial review on the grounds that the exercise of its functions is consensual and there was no public element in the making of the decision. He emphasises that the particular decision under review concerns the disqualification of one horse in one race. However, Mr Milmo goes much further and asserts that the overall control which the Jockey Club exercises over racing is a comprehensive structure so that one cannot isolate one rule. Either all or none of the Jockey Club’s decisions are susceptible to judicial review. In the present case the Jockey Club’s power to enforce the rules is grounded solely in contract, and there is no statutory input. The fact that their powers are consensual is demonstrated by the fact that the same duty is owed by the Jockey Club to all the other participants in the race. Mr Milmo rejects the criticism of Law’s case which he submits is good law.
There was no effective distinction between the functions of the Greyhound Racing Association and the Jockey Club. The rules of the two bodies are similar, and so in consequence are their powers. The fact that the Jockey Club was granted a charter while the Greyhound Racing Association is incorporated makes no real difference. Put shortly, Mr Milmo’s argument is that, if the jurisdiction is based solely on consent, it matters not if there is a public law element. The feature of consent provides the private right and in those circumstances one never gets to what might be called the Datafin stage.
For my part I cannot find that Datafin affects the ratio of the decision in Law’s case. I bear in mind Lord Parker CJ’s observations that there should be an element of flexibility in the use of certiorari so that it can be adapted to changing situations but there has never been any doubt that public law remedies do not lie against domestic bodies, as they derive solely from the consent of the parties. In Law’s case the court was applying well-established principles. The question remains whether the Jockey Club, or this particular decision of it, can properly be described as a domestic body acting by consent.
In principle it is difficult to see any distinction between the Greyhound Racing Association (or its corporate equivalent) and the Jockey Club. The only apparent factual difference lies in the extent of its jurisdiction. For that matter the other governing bodies of the major sports come in the same category unless some distinction can be found in the rules. Neither do I find any public element in the Jockey Club’s position and powers within the meaning of that term as explained in Datafin. No doubt, as Lawton LJ observed in Law’s case, many of the decisions of the Jockey Club through its committees will affect members of the public who have no connection with it, but there is a difference between what may affect the public and what amounts to a public duty. It is difficult to see that the disqualification of this particular filly—important though the race was—could transform the role of the Jockey Club from a domestic to a public one. The courts have always been reluctant to interfere with the control of sporting bodies over their own sports and I do not detect in the material available to us any grounds for supposing that, if the Jockey Club was dissolved, any governmental body would assume control of racing. Neither in its framework or its rules or its function does the Jockey Club fulfil a governmental role.
I understand the criticism made by Mr Kentridge of the reality of the consent
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to the authority of the Jockey Club. The invitation to consent is very much on a take it or leave it basis. But I do not consider that this undermines the reality of the consent. Nearly all sports are subject to a body of rules to which an entrant must subscribe. These are necessary, as already observed, for the control and integrity of the sport concerned. In such a large industry as racing has become, I would suspect that all those actively and honestly engaged in it welcome the control of licensing and discipline exerted by the Jockey Club.
For these reasons I would hold that the decision of the disciplinary committee of the Jockey Club to disqualify Aliysa from the 1989 Oaks is not susceptible to judicial review.
As to Mr Milmo’s assertion that the question of the Jockey Club’s susceptibility to judicial review must be answered on an all or nothing basis, I can only say as at present advised that I do not agree. In R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd [1993] 2 All ER 225 at 248 Simon Brown J had similar reservations. In both that case and Ex p Massingberd-Mundy [1993] 2 All ER 207 the applicants had no contractual relationship with the Jockey Club. While I do not say that particular circumstances would give a right to judicial review I do not discount the possibility that in some special circumstances the remedy might lie. If for example the Jockey Club failed to fulfil its obligations under the charter by making discriminatory rules, it may be that those affected would have a remedy in public law.
In the present appeal there is no hardship to the applicant in his being denied judicial review. If his complaint that the disciplinary committee acted unfairly is well founded there is no reason why he should not proceed by writ seeking a declaration and an injunction. Having regard to the issues involved it may be a more convenient process.
I would dismiss the appeal.
HOFFMANN LJ. The Jockey Club is an exclusive private club incorporated by royal charter which controls the racing industry. It does so by tradition, widespread acceptance and the contractual consent of almost all active participants in racing to the Jockey Club’s Rules of Racing and the jurisdiction of its disciplinary committee. This control gives the Jockey Club considerable power over a section of the economy which is not only important in itself but supports another important economic activity, namely horse race betting. The question in this appeal is whether the power exercised by the Jockey Club brings its decisions into the realm of public law, so that they are amenable to judicial review. In my view it does not. However impressive its powers may be, the Jockey Club operates entirely in the private sector and its activities are governed by private law.
There is no reason why a private club should not also exercise public powers. The Law Society is essentially a club, incorporated by royal charter perhaps less exclusive than the Jockey Club, but private nonetheless. Not all solicitors choose to belong. But the Law Society also exercises public powers, conferred by statute in the public interest. In exercising these powers, the Law Society operates in the realm of public law (Swain v Law Society [1982] 2 All ER 827, [1983] 1 AC 598). In the case of the Jockey Club, however, there is no public source for any of its powers. It operates directly or indirectly by consent. The power is direct against those who have agreed to be bound by the Rules of Racing and indirect against those who have not. So for example, the Jockey Club has power under r 2(iv) to exclude persons not bound by the Rules of Racing from premises which it licenses such as racecourses or training stables, and the power can be effectively exercised
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because the occupiers of those premises have agreed not to admit anyone whom the Jockey Club has decided to exclude.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815 shows that the absence of a formal public source of power, such as statute or prerogative, is not conclusive. Governmental power may be exercised de facto as well as de jure. But the power needs to be identified as governmental in nature. In Datafin [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 574–575, [1987] QB 815 at 835 Donaldson MR explained how in 1986 the panel had come to occupy the position it did:
‘As an act of government it was decided that, in relation to take-overs, there should be a central self-regulatory body which would be supported and sustained by a periphery of statutory powers and penalties wherever non-statutory powers and penalties were insufficient or non existent or where EEC requirements called for statutory provisions. No one could have been in the least surprised if the panel had been instituted and operated under the direct authority of statute law, since it operates wholly in the public domain … Prior to the years leading up to the “Big Bang”, the City of London prided itself upon being a village community, albeit of an unique kind, which could regulate itself by pressure of professional opinion. As government increasingly accepted the necessity for intervention to prevent fraud, it built on City institutions and mores, supplementing and reinforcing them as appeared necessary. It is a process which is likely to continue, but the position has already been reached in which central government has incorporated the panel into its own regulatory network built up under the Prevention of Fraud (Investments) Act 1958 and allied statutes, such as the Banking Act 1979.’
What one has here is a privatisation of the business of government itself. The same has been held to be true of the Advertising Standards Authority (R v Advertising Standards Authority Ltd, ex p Insurance Service plc (1989) 9 Tr LR 169 and the Investment Management Regulatory Organisation (IMRO) (Bank of Scotland v Investment Management Regulatory Organisation Ltd 1989 SLT 432). Both are private bodies established by the industry but integrated into a system of statutory regulation. There is in my judgment nothing comparable in the position of the Jockey Club. It is true that it has been incorporated by royal charter, but this seems to me simply a mark of royal favour to racing. The Jockey Club nominates three members of the Horserace Betting Levy Board, but this is to represent the disparate private interests of the racing industry, which enjoys the benefit of the levy. There is nothing to suggest that, if the Jockey Club had not voluntarily assumed the regulation of racing, the government would feel obliged or inclined to set up a statutory body for the purpose. The reactions of successive governments to the proposals of, among others, the 1978 Royal Commission on Gambling (Cmnd 7200) and the 1991 Fourth Report of the House of Commons Home Affairs Committee on the Levy on Horserace Betting suggest a determination to leave racing firmly in the private sector.
In Law v National Greyhound Racing Club Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 300, [1983] 1 WLR 1302 this court decided that the National Greyhound Racing Club was not amenable to judicial review notwithstanding that it controlled the greater part of the dog racing business in much the same way as the Jockey Club controls horse racing. The club was held to be a purely domestic tribunal because the source of its power lay in contract and nothing else. The case was decided before Datafin and did not consider whether, notwithstanding the lack of any public source for its powers, the club might de facto be a surrogate organ of government. I would
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accept that, if this were the case, there might be a conflict between the principle laid down in Datafin and the actual decision in Law’s case which required a re-examination of whether Law’s case still governed the present case. I would also accept that a body such as the Take-over Panel or IMRO which exercises governmental powers is not any the less amenable to public law because it has contractual relations with its members. In my view, however, neither the National Greyhound Racing Club nor the Jockey Club is exercising governmental powers and therefore the decision in Law remains binding in this case.
It is true that in some countries there are statutory bodies which exercise at least some control over racing. It appears from Heatley v Tasmanian Racing and Gaming Commission (1977) 137 CLR 487 that this is the position in Tasmania and we were told that it was also true of certain states in the United States. But different countries draw the line between public and private regulation in different places. The fact that certain functions of the Jockey Club could be exercised by a statutory body and that they are so exercised in some other countries does not make them governmental functions in England. The attitude of the English legislator to racing is much more akin to his attitude to religion (see R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congrations of GB and the Commonwealth, ex p Wachmann [1993] 2 All ER 249, [1992] 1 WLR 1306): it is something to be encouraged but not the business of government.
All this leaves is the fact that the Jockey Club has power. But the mere fact of power, even over a substantial area of economic activity, is not enough. In a mixed economy, power may be private as well as public. Private power may affect the public interest and the livelihoods of many individuals. But that does not subject it to the rules of public law. If control is needed, it must be found in the law of contract, the doctrine of restraint of trade, the Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1976, arts 85 and 86 of EEC Treaty and all the other instruments available in law for curbing the excesses of private power.
It may be that in some cases the remedies available in private law are inadequate. For example, in cases in which power is exercised unfairly against persons who have no contractual relationship with the private decision-making body, the court may not find it easy to fashion a cause of action to provide a remedy. In Nagle v Feilden [1966] 1 All ER 689, [1966] 2 QB 633, for example, this court had to consider the Jockey Club’s refusal on grounds of sex to grant a trainer’s licence to a woman. She had no contract with the Jockey Club or (at that time) any other recognised cause of action, but this court said that it was arguable that she could still obtain a declaration and injunction. There is an improvisatory air about this solution and the possibility of obtaining an injunction has probably not survived Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA [1977] 3 All ER 803, [1979] AC 210.
It was recognition that there might be gaps in the private law that led Simon Brown J in R v Jockey Club, ex p RAM Racecourses Ltd (1990) [1993] 2 All ER 225 at 247–248 to suggest that cases like Nagle v Feilden, as well as certain others involving domestic bodies like the Football Association in Eastham v Newcastle United Football Club Ltd [1963] 3 All ER 139, [1964] Ch 413 and a trade union in Breen v Amalgamated Engineering Union [1971] 1 All ER 1148, [1971] 2 QB 175, ‘had they arisen today and not some years ago, would have found a natural home in judicial review proceedings’. For my part, I must respectfully doubt whether this would be true. Trade unions have now had obligations of fairness imposed upon them by legislation, but I doubt whether, if this had not happened, the courts would have tried to fill the gap by subjecting them to public law. The decision of Rose J in R v Football Association Ltd, ex p Football League Ltd (1991) [1993] 2 All ER 833, which I found highly persuasive, shows that the same is
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probably true of the Football Association. I do not think that one should try to patch up the remedies available against domestic bodies by pretending that they are organs of government.
In the present case, however, the remedies in private law available to the Aga Khan seem to me entirely adequate. He has a contract with the Jockey Club, both as a registered owner and by virtue of having entered his horse in the Oaks. The Club has an implied obligation under the contract to conduct its disciplinary proceedings fairly. If it has not done so, the Aga Khan can obtain a declaration that the decision was ineffective (I avoid the slippery word void) and, if necessary, an injunction to restrain the Jockey Club from doing anything to implement it. No injustice is therefore likely to be caused in the present case by the denial of a public law remedy.
I would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
R v Visitors to the Inns of Court, ex parte Calder
R v Visitors to the Inns of Court, ex parte Persaud
[1993] 2 All ER 876
Categories: PROFESSIONS; Lawyers
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): MANN LJ AND BROOKE J
Hearing Date(s): 13, 14 FEBRUARY, 12 MARCH 1992
COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C, STUART-SMITH AND STAUGHTON LJJ
30 NOVEMBER, 1, 2, 3, 14 DECEMBER 1992, 21 JANUARY 1993
Counsel – Disciplinary jurisdiction – Judges as visitors to Inns of Court – Judicial review – Whether decisions of judges sitting as visitors to Inns of Court in disciplinary matters susceptible to judicial review – Supreme Court Act 1981, ss 19(2)(b), 44.
The two applicants were barristers who had separately been found guilty of professional misconduct by a disciplinary tribunal of the Council of the Inns of Court and been suspended for five years in one case and disbarred in the other. Their respective appeals against the tribunal’s findings were dismissed by three High Court judges sitting as visitors to the Inns of Court. They sought judicial review of the visitors’ decisions. The Divisional Court held that the court had no jurisdiction to entertain the applications for judicial review because High Court judges exercising their jurisdiction as visitors to the Inns of Court in disciplinary matters sat as the High Court exercising its jurisdiction relating to the administration of justice in regard to the fitness of persons to become or remain barristers, and were not in the same position as visitors to a charitable or academic foundation. The appellants appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – High Court judges exercising their jurisdiction as visitors to the Inns of Court in disciplinary matters were not acting as judges of the High Court but sat, as they traditionally had, as a domestic forum of the voluntary societies which
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controlled the affairs of the barristers’ profession. Furthermore, when the High Court was created in 1873 by the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873 the domestic jurisdiction formerly exercised by the twelve judges of the courts of King’s Bench, Common Pleas and Exchequer in respect of the Inns of Court was not transferred to the High Court by s 16a of the 1873 Act or subsequently by s 19(2)(b) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, since in exercising that jurisdiction the judges were not ‘acting as Judges or a Judge’ or as a court of law but as a domestic forum. Moreover, under s 12b of the 1873 Act and subsequently under s 44 of the 1981 Act the domestic jurisdiction exercised by the twelve judges in respect of the Inns of Court, being ‘not incident to the administration of justice in any Court’, could thereafter be exercised by any judge of the High Court as part of the extraordinary duties of the judges of former courts. Accordingly, decisions of judges sitting as visitors to the Inns of Court in disciplinary matters were susceptible to judicial review but only on the limited grounds available in the case of visitors to charitable corporations, namely that the visitor had acted outside his jurisdiction (in the narrow sense of acting outside his power to enter into an adjudication of the dispute) or had abused his powers or acted in breach of the rules of natural justice. On the facts, C’s appeal would be allowed and the decision of the visitors quashed because the visitors may have misapprehended that their function was not to act as a review body but as an appellate tribunal and therefore C had not had the benefit, to which she was entitled, of the visitors considering whether the charge, to the requisite standard of proof, had been made out to their satisfaction. Mandamus would issue directing the visitors to exercise their full jurisdiction and hear and determine the appeal. P’s appeal would also be allowed but in the absence of any facts before the Court of Appeal the case would be remitted to the Divisional Court to determine his application for judicial review (see p 896 j to p 897 c h to p 898 c, p 902 a to b h, p 903 f to j, p 905 d to h, p 909 f g, p 911 b, p 912 h j, p 922 g to p 923 b, p 925 f g j to p 926 c g and p 928 c, post).
Page v Hull University Visitor [1993] 1 All ER 97 considered.
Notes
For appeals to the visitors to the Inns of Court, see 3(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 511–513.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, ss 19, 44, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 986, 1011.
Cases referred to in judgments
A-G of the Gambia v N’Jie [1961] 2 All ER 504, [1961] AC 617, [1961] 2 WLR 845, PC.
Abse v Smith [1986] 1 All ER 350, [1986] QB 536, [1986] 2 WLR 322, CA.
Anon (1741) 2 Atk 173, 26 ER 508.
Antigua Justices, Re (1830) 1 Knapp 267, 12 ER 321, PC.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Booreman’s Case (1641) March 177 pl 235, 82 ER 464.
Bremer Handelsgesellschaft mbh v Ets Soules & Cie [1985] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 160; affd [1985] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 199, CA.
Cunningham v Wegg (1787) 2 Bro CC 241, 29 ER 134.
Doe d Bennett v Hale (1850) 15 QB 171, 117 ER 423.
Fletcher, Re (1984) Times, 12 June, CA.
Gee v General Medical Council [1987] 2 All ER 193, [1987] 1 WLR 564, HL.
Page 878 of [1993] 2 All ER 876
Inner Temple v Ince (1677) 3 Keb 835, 84 ER 1041.
Levinz v Randolph (1700) 1 Ld Raym 594, 91 ER 1298.
Lincoln v Daniels [1961] 3 All ER 740, [1962] 1 QB 237, [1961] 3 WLR 866, CA.
Lloyd v McMahon [1987] 1 All ER 1118, [1987] AC 625, [1987] 2 WLR 821, CA and HL.
Mahon v Air New Zealand Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 201, [1984] AC 808, [1984] 3 WLR 884, PC.
Manisty v Kenealy (1876) 24 WR 918.
Neate v Denman (1874) LR 18 Eq 127.
Page v Hull University Visitor [1993] 1 All ER 97, [1992] 3 WLR 1112, HL; affg [1991] 4 All ER 747, [1991] 1 WLR 1277, CA.
Philips v Bury (1694) Holt KB 715, 2 Term Rep 346, [1558–1774] All ER Rep 53, 90 ER 1294.
Powell v Streatham Manor Nursing Home [1935] AC 243, [1935] All ER Rep 58, HL.
R v Barnard’s Inn (1836) 5 AD & El 17, 111 ER 1073.
R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Spens (1992) Independent, 1 December, DC.
R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congregations of GB and the Commonwealth, ex p Wachmann [1993] 2 All ER 249, [1992] 1 WLR 1036.
R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770, [1967] 2 QB 864, [1967] 3 WLR 348, DC.
R v Crown Court at Bristol, ex p Cooper [1990] 2 All ER 193, [1990] 1 WLR 1031, CA.
R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212, [1990] 3 WLR 323, DC.
R v Gray’s Inn (1780) 1 Doug 353, 99 ER 227.
R v Lincoln’s Inn Benchers (1825) 4 B & C 855, 107 ER 1277.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, [1987] 2 WLR 699, CA.
Racal Communications Ltd, Re [1980] 2 All ER 634, [1981] AC 374, [1980] 3 WLR 181, HL.
Rakestraw v Brewer (1728) 2 P Wms 511, 24 ER 839; affd (1729) Mos 189, LC.
S (a barrister), Re [1969] 1 All ER 949, [1970] 1 QB 160, [1969] 2 WLR 708.
S (a barrister), Re [1981] 2 All ER 952, [1981] QB 683, [1981] 3 WLR 129.
Savage’s Case (1776) cited in 1 Doug KB at 355, 99 ER 228.
Serjeants at Law, Report of proceedings in relation to warrant for suppression of antient privileges of (1840, reported by Serjeant Manning), PC.
Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, [1985] 2 WLR 538, HL.
T (a barrister), Re [1981] 2 All ER 1105, [1982] QB 430, [1981] 3 WLR 653.
Thomas v University of Bradford [1987] 1 All ER 834, [1987] AC 795, [1987] 2 WLR 677, HL.
Watt v Thomas [1947] 1 All ER 582, [1947] AC 484, HL.
X (a student), Re (11 November 1991, unreported), Visitor of Lincoln’s Inn.
Yuill v Yuill [1945] 1 All ER 183, [1945] P 15, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Adamson, Ex p, re Collie (1878) 8 Ch D 807, CA.
Calvin v Carr [1979] 2 All ER 440, [1980] AC 574, PC.
Cannan v Reynolds (1855) 5 E & B 301, 119 ER 493.
Chief Adjudication Officer v Foster [1991] 3 All ER 846, [1992] QB 31, CA.
Corrigan v Irish Land Commission [1977] IR 317, Ir SC.
Cottle v Cottle [1939] 2 All ER 535, DC.
Page 879 of [1993] 2 All ER 876
Donisthorpe and Manchester Sheffield and Lincolnshire Rly Co, Re [1897] 1 QB 671, CA.
Edwards (Inspector of Taxes) v Bairstow [1955] 3 All ER 48, [1956] AC 14, HL.
Emery v Webster (1853) 9 Exch 242, 156 ER 103.
Gee v General Medical Council [1987] 2 All ER 193, [1987] 1 WLR 564, HL.
IRC v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93, [1982] AC 617, HL.
Kaprow (S) & Co Ltd v Maclelland & Co Ltd [1948] 1 All ER 264, [1948] 1 KB 618, CA.
Liverpool Borough Bank v Turner (1860) 2 De GF & J 502, 45 ER 715, LC.
London and Clydeside Estates Ltd v Aberdeen DC [1979] 3 All ER 876, [1980] 1 WLR 182, HL.
McPherson v McPherson [1936] AC 177, [1935] All ER Rep 105, PC.
Matthews v Smallwood [1910] 1 Ch 777, [1908–10] All ER Rep 536.
Mayes v Mayes [1971] 2 All ER 397, [1971] 1 WLR 679, DC.
Meng Leong Development Pte Ltd v Jip Hong Trading Co Pte Ltd [1985] 1 All ER 120, [1985] AC 511, PC.
Montreal Street Rly Co v Normandin [1917] AC 170, PC.
Pioneer Shipping Ltd v BTP Tioxide Ltd, The Nema [1981] 2 All ER 1030, [1982] AC 724, HL.
Pyx Granite Co Ltd v Ministry of Housing and Local Government [1959] 3 All ER 1, [1960] AC 260, HL.
R v Camborne Justices, ex p Pearce [1954] 2 All ER 850, [1955] 1 QB 41, DC.
R (Donoghue) v Cork Justices [1910] 2 IR 271, Ir DC.
R v Disciplinary Committee of the Jockey Club, ex p Aga Khan [1993] 2 All ER 853, CA.
R v Industrial Injuries Comr, ex p Amalgamated Engineering Union [1966] 1 All ER 97, [1966] 2 QB 21, CA.
R v Statutory Committee of Pharmaceutical Society of GB, ex p Pharmaceutical Society of GB [1981] 2 All ER 805, [1981] 1 WLR 886, DC.
R v University of London Visitor, ex p Vijayatunga [1989] 2 All ER 843, [1990] 2 QB 444, CA.
Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Solicitor, Re a [1992] 2 All ER 335, [1993] QB 69, DC.
Applications for judicial review
R v Visitors to the Inns of Court, ex p Calder
Renée Joyce Calder applied, with the leave of Auld J given on 7 June 1991, for judicial review of the decision by the Visitors to the Inns of Court (Kennedy, Judge and Rose JJ) on 6 March 1991 to uphold the finding by a disciplinary tribunal of the Council of the Inns of Court that the applicant was guilty of professional misconduct and should be disbarred. The visitors, while upholding the finding of professional misconduct, reduced the penalty to five years’ suspension from practice. The relief sought was (1) an order of certiorari to quash the finding by the visitors, (2) a declaration that the applicant had not committed any professional misconduct and (3) an order of mandamus compelling the visitors to quash the decision of the disciplinary tribunal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ (see pp 913–917, post).
R v Visitors to the Inns of Court, ex p Persaud
Norman Persaud applied, with the leave of Rose J given on 17 December 1991, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the
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Visitors to the Inns of Court (Vinelott, Ewbank and Jowitt JJ) on 31 July 1991 to uphold the finding by a disciplinary tribunal of the Council of the Inns of Court that the applicant was guilty of professional misconduct and should be disbarred. In giving the applicant leave Rose J directed that a preliminary issue be determined whether the High Court had jurisdiction to hear an application for judicial review of a decision of the visitors.
Michael Beloff QC and Joanne Wicks (instructed by B C Mascarenhas) for Miss Calder.
Mr Persaud appeared in person.
Stephen Sedley QC and Anthony Bradley (instructed by Allison & Humphreys) for the Bar Council.
Stephen Richards (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amicus curiae.
Cur adv vult
12 March 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
MANN LJ. Brooke J is unable to be present today. He has prepared, at my request, the judgment which I am about to read as the judgment of the court.
In these two cases we have been invited to determine, as preliminary issues, the capacity in which judges of the High Court are acting when they sit as visitors to the Inns of Court to determine appeals against orders by which barristers are to be disbarred or suspended from practice by their Inns. This is the first time this question has arisen for decision by any court since the enactment of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873. By the end of the hearing before us it was agreed between the parties that our interpretation of the language of that Act in the particular context of the disciplinary jurisdiction of the visitors would be determinative of the matter. But first it is necessary to describe how the question has arisen.
The first applicant, Miss Calder, was called to the Bar by Lincoln’s Inn in November 1978. On 8 October 1990 she was found guilty of professional misconduct by a disciplinary tribunal of the Council of the Inns of Court, which directed that she be disbarred. On 6 March 1991 her appeal against the tribunal’s findings was dismissed by three High Court judges sitting as visitors to the Inns of Court but they altered her sentence to one of five years’ suspension. On 7 June 1991 Auld J granted her leave to apply for judicial review and directed that the suspension be stayed pending the determination of the judicial review proceedings.
The second applicant, Mr Persaud, was called to the Bar by Lincoln’s Inn in November 1980. On 22 May 1990 he was found guilty of professional misconduct by a disciplinary tribunal of the Council of the Inns of Court, which directed that he, too, should be disbarred. On 31 July 1991 his appeal against the tribunal’s findings and sentence was dismissed by three High Court judges sitting as visitors to the Inns of Court. On 17 December 1991 Rose J granted him leave to apply for judicial review and directed that a preliminary issue be determined whether the High Court has any jurisdiction to hear an application for judicial review of a decision of visitors to the Inns of Court.
The parties to Miss Calder’s application agreed that this issue should be decided as a preliminary issue in her case as well and that we should decide the two issues at the same time. It is unnecessary to say anything about the reason why leave to apply for judicial review was granted except to say that the whole or part of the reasons in each case went to a complaint that the particular composition of the disciplinary tribunal gave rise to an appearance of bias.
Mr Beloff QC, who appeared for Miss Calder, submitted that when the courts are concerned today to determine the reach of judicial review, the absence of
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precedent is not a compelling argument. The jurisdiction of the High Court is an expanding one: in recent years, for example, it has embraced the supervision of the Take-over Panel (see R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815), the visitors of universities (see Thomas v University of Bradford [1987] 1 All ER 834, [1987] AC 795 and R v Hull University Visitor, ex p Page [1991] 4 All ER 747, [1991] 1 WLR 1277) and the internal decisions of committees of professional associations exercising statutory powers (see Gee v General Medical Council [1987] 2 All ER 193, [1987] 1 WLR 564).
He submitted that in determining whether judicial review will lie the courts today will examine the function which is being performed by the body which is to be reviewed rather than its identity or the source of its powers. He cited in this context the judgment of Donaldson MR in the Datafin case [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 574–577, [1987] QB 815 at 834–839 as illustrative of the modern approach. He reminded us that this court had recently held that decisions of the Professional Conduct Committee of the Bar Council were susceptible to judicial review (see R v General Council of the Bar, ex p Percival [1990] 3 All ER 137, [1991] 1 QB 212) and submitted that when High Court judges sit as visitors of the Inns of Court on disciplinary appeals they are merely acting as the final tier in the same disciplinary process. The ‘public’ aspect of the functions they perform is, he submitted, self-evident.
The status of barrister provides a qualification for various public appointments (see 3(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 435–440, subject now to the provisions of s 71 of and Sch 10 to the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990; see too Lincoln v Daniels [1961] 3 All ER 740 at 748, [1962] 1 QB 237 at 255 and Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 958–959, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 174).
Mr Beloff submitted that, since the visitors of charitable or academic foundations were amenable to judicial review on all ordinary grounds (see Thomas v University of Bradford [1987] 1 All ER 834 at 850, [1987] AC 834 at 825 and R v Hull University Visitor, ex p Page [1991] 4 All ER 747 at 752–753, [1991] 1 WLR 1277 at 1283–1284), in principle the position of High Court judges qua visitors to the Inns of Court should be no different. He referred us to a dictum of Simon Brown J in R v Chief Rabbi of the United Hebrew Congregations of GB and the Commonwealth, ex p Wachmann [1993] 2 All ER 249 at 253–254, [1992] 1 WLR 1036 at 1040, which is to the following effect:
‘I prefer Mr Carus’s submission [for the applicant] that an Orthodox rabbi is pursuing a vocation and has no choice but to accept the Chief Rabbi’s disciplinary decisions. I can see no distinction in this regard between rabbis and, for instance, members of the Bar or members of a university. So far as the Bar and universities are concerned, once the exclusive visitorial jurisdiction has been invoked and exhausted, the court can review the visitor’s decision …’
Simon Brown J cited no authority for this dictum, so far as it related to the possibility of supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the visitors of the Inns of Court, but it was cited to us as an example of a suggested parallel with the supervisory jurisdiction which the High Court undoubtedly exercises in other contexts which in some respects may be thought to be comparable.
Apart from the correctness of the analogy drawn by Simon Brown J in the Chief Rabbi case and the suggestion that the visitors of the Inns of Court may be amenable to judicial review, there was no dispute about the correctness of any of these submissions. Nor was there any dispute that in certain circumstances the High Court may have a supervisory jurisdiction over decisions of the judges of the High Court (see Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769 at 778, [1985] AC 622 at 641–642) or indeed Law Lords (see Ex p Page [1991] 4 All ER
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747 at 753, [1991] 1 WLR 1277 at 1284). In the latter case Lord Donaldson MR referred to the ‘wholly mistaken notion as that it is somehow demeaning for the most senior judges to have their decisions examined and passed upon by those who are judicially their juniors’. He added:
‘This is to ignore the fact that in the administration of justice in this country, the authority of any judicial pronouncement depends not upon the personal authority of the judge concerned, but upon the capacity in which he gives a decision or expresses an opinion.’
All parties called in their aid in this context a dictum of Lord Diplock in Re Racal Communications Ltd [1980] 2 All ER 634 at 639–640, [1981] AC 374 at 384, to which we will return in this judgment, when he said:
‘There is in my view, however, also an obvious distinction between jurisdiction conferred by a statute on a court of law of limited jurisdiction to decide a defined question finally and conclusively or unappealably, and a similar jurisdiction conferred on the High Court or a judge of the High Court acting in his judicial capacity … Mistakes of law made by judges of the High Court acting in their judicial capacity as such can be corrected only by means of appeal to an appellate court; and if, as in the instant case, the statute provides that the judge’s decision shall not be appealable, they cannot be corrected at all.’
It was because the parties had all analysed the nature of the problem we had to decide in the same way that it was agreed at the outset of the hearing before us that the central question we had to answer was: in what capacity are High Court judges sitting when they sit as visitors to the Inns of Court in disciplinary cases? If they are sitting in their capacity as judges of the High Court, performing functions as such, it was common ground that judicial review of their decisions would not lie. If on the other hand they are not sitting in that capacity, it was agreed that they are performing functions in the public domain, and judicial review would in principle be available.
Two subordinate questions also arose. The first was the extent, if at all, to which the provisions of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 had altered the position, so far as the visitorial functions relating to disbarment were concerned. The second was whether, on the proper construction of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873, the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925 and the Supreme Court Act 1981, a hitherto undetected right of appeal against decisions of visitors of the Inns of Court lies to the Court of Appeal.
It was common ground that when High Court judges sit as visitors to the Inns of Court they are not sitting as a court of law (see Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 951, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 166 and Re S (a barrister) [1981] 2 All ER 952 at 953, [1981] QB 683 at 685). In R v Gray’s Inn (1780) 1 Doug 353 at 354, 99 ER 227 at 227–228 Lord Mansfield CJ said.
‘From the first traces of their existence to this day, no example can be found of an interposition by the Courts of Westminster Hall proceeding according to the general law of the land; but the Judges have acted as in a domestic forum.’
At the end of his judgment he said that mandamus would not lie to direct the benchers of Gray’s Inn to compel them to call the applicant, who was a student member of the Inn, to the degree of a barrister at law and added that, if there was a ground for mandamus, the party must take the ancient course of applying to the 12 judges (see 1 Doug 353 at 356, 99 ER 227 at 228–229). By this he was
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referring to the Chief Justices and three judges of the Court of Common Pleas and the Court of King’s Bench and the Chief Baron and three barons of the Court of Exchequer, being the three courts of common law.
When the modern High Court of Justice was constituted as a superior court of record by the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873, by s 16 of that Act the jurisdiction of a large number of existing courts, which are listed by name, was transferred to and vested in the new High Court. The section continues:
‘The jurisdiction by this Act transferred to the High Court of Justice shall include (subject to the exceptions herein-after contained) the jurisdiction which, at the commencement of this Act, was vested in, or capable of being exercised by, all or any one or more of the Judges of the said Courts, respectively, sitting in Court or Chambers, or elsewhere, when acting as Judges or a Judge, in pursuance of any statute, law, or custom, and all powers given to any such Court, or to any such Judges or Judge, by any statute; and also all ministerial powers, duties, and authorities, incident to any and every part of the jurisdictions so transferred.’
It was common ground that, if the pre-1873 jurisdiction of the judges as visitors to the Inns of Court in disciplinary appeals was a jurisdiction exercised by them sitting elsewhere than in court or chambers, when acting as judges in pursuance of any statute, law or custom, then the jurisdiction was vested in the High Court and exercised by judges of that court sitting as such and was not amenable to judicial review.
If, on the other hand, this jurisdiction was not so transferred and vested in the High Court, then it was equally common ground that it would have been preserved by s 12 of the 1873 Act, which reads, so far as is relevant:
‘If, in any case not expressly provided for by this Act, a liability to any duty, or any authority or power, not incident to the administration of justice in any Court, whose jurisdiction is transferred by this Act to the High Court of Justice, shall have been imposed or conferred by any statute, law, or custom upon the Judges or any Judge of any of such Courts, save as herein-after mentioned, every Judge of the said High Court shall be capable of performing and exercising, and shall be liable to perform and empowered to exercise every such duty, authority, and power, in the same manner as if this Act had not passed, and as if he had been duly appointed the successor of a Judge liable to such duty, or possessing such authority or power, before the passing of this Act …’
If this was the source of the visitors’ continuing jurisdiction in disciplinary appeals, then it was accepted that they would be amenable to judicial review, their situation being in certain respects comparable to that of a visitor to a university or college who holds that position by virtue of his office (cf the Queen as visitor of the University of Hull: see Ex p Page [1991] 4 All ER 747 at 749, [1991] 1 WLR 1277 at 1279).
We should add by way of completeness that the provisions of ss 16 and 12 of the 1873 Act have been carried forward to the modern day in more or less identical language, mutatis mutandis, to ss 18(3) and 34(1) of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925 and then, in more cursory language, to ss 10(1)(b) and 44(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
What, then, was the nature of the visitors’ jurisdiction in disciplinary appeals before 1873?
The judgments of the visitors in Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949, [1970] 1 QB 160 and of Donaldson MR in Abse v Smith [1986] 1 All ER 350, [1986] QB 536
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throw valuable light on the processes by which the authority of the judges evolved in questions relating to rights of audience and the fitness of advocates to plead before them in their courts. The serjeants at law, who had the exclusive privilege of practising, pleading and audience in the Court of Common Pleas from time immemorial until their exclusive privileges were abolished by Act of Parliament in 1846, had always fallen into a special category. And before the events of 1292, to which reference is made in Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 953–954, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 168, Parliament had introduced an elementary form of disciplinary control over serjeants and pleaders in the Statute of Westminster the First (3 Edw 1 c 29) (1275), which provided, in the event of attainder for deceit or collusion in the King’s Court, for a term of imprisonment and for disqualification for life from ‘pleading in that court for any man’. This procedure, which was known as silencing, was referred to in Anon (1741) 2 Atk 173, 26 ER 508 and was not finally repealed as spent or unnecessary till 1948 (Statute Law Revision Act 8, s 1, Sch 1).
In 1292 King Edward I—
‘did especially appoint … the Lord Chief Justice of the Court of Common Pleas and the rest of his fellow Justices … that they, according to their discretions, should provide and ordain, from every County, certain Attorneys and Lawyers, of the best and most apt for their learning and skill, who might do service to his Court and people; And that those, so chosen onely, and no other, should follow his Court, and transact the affairs therein; the said King and his council then deeming the number of seven score to be sufficient for that imployment; but it was left to the discretion of the said Justices, to add to that number or diminish, as they should see fit.’
(See Dugdale’s Origines Juridiciales (2nd edn, 1671) c 55.)
In an article entitled ‘Two problems in legal history’ (1908) 24 LQR 392 W C Bolland has pointed out that this was not only an order of the Sovereign but an Act by the Parliament, since it is in the Parliament Rolls and under the authority of Parliament. He has also observed that an immediate cause of the creation of this new duty of the judges was the royal mandate which ordered the Court of Common Pleas to remain stationary at Westminster instead of perambulating the country in attendance on the King, and the subsequent disinclination of the serjeants, even if they had been sufficient in number, to absent themselves from the Court of Common Pleas at Westminster in order to attend the King’s Court during its perambulatory travels.
Be that as it may, the judges assumed this duty in 1292 and there are dicta from time to time in the succeeding centuries that it is one they have no power to give up. Of course, if and in so far as the power was derived from the Crown as the fountain of justice (see, in a different context, Lincoln v Daniels [1961] 3 All ER 740 at 747, [1962] 1 QB 237 at 254 per Devlin LJ) the Crown itself cannot now deprive them of that power (see Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 955–956, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 171 and Abse v Smith [1986] 1 All ER 350 at 356, [1986] QB 536 at 549): this right is vested now in Parliament alone.
The way in which the judges exercise their duty varied. Donaldson MR has described in Abse v Smith how the judges of every court had inherent power to regulate the practices of their court, which included the identification of those they were willing to hear plead before them, and it was not in dispute before us that these powers, until they were removed by s 27 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990, were exercised by High Court judges sitting as such.
However, when one comes to the duty to provide and ordain suitable trained attorneys and lawyers to equip the courts, the judges’ performance of that duty,
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in so far as it related to the provision of trained advocates, was executed through the relationship they developed with the Inns of Court.
These were private voluntary societies subject to the jurisdiction of the judges. This jurisdiction took a number of different forms and was exercised in different ways. In our judgment it is this feature of the later history that has led to understandable confusion. The jurisdiction existed as an appellate jurisdiction if an uncalled member of an Inn (who used to be called an ‘inner barrister’ from the position he occupied on the forms or barrae in the halls of his Inn: see Bolland 24 LQR 392 at 399) was aggrieved when his Inn refused to permit him to be called to the ‘utter bar’ (see R v Gray’s Inn (1780) 1 Doug 353, 99 ER 227); or when a barrister member of the Inn wished to appeal against his expulsion from the Inn and consequent disbarment (Booreman’s Case (1641) March 177 pl 235, 82 ER 464: see Manisty v Keneally (1876) 24 WR 918). Their appellate jurisdiction was also extended, presumably by agreement between the Inns and the judges, to issues relating to disputes over property within the Inns (see Rakestraw v Brewer (1728) 2 P Wms 511, 24 ER 839) or over elections in the Inns (see Inner Temple v Ince (1677) 1 Keb 835, 84 ER 1041) or over debts due to the Inns (see Levinz v Randolph (1700) 1 Ld Raym 594, 91 ER 1298), which could not by any stretch of the imagination relate to the duties of judges in relation to the administration of justice in their courts.
The judges also exercised an original jurisdiction to give orders to the Inns of the type that are described in the judgment of the visitors in Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 954, 959, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 169, 175. In 1559 their relationship with the Inns is illustrated by an order which is recorded in the Middle Temple Records, Minutes of Parliament (C H Hopwood (ed), 1904) p 124:
‘Ordered by mandate of the justices that Masters of “le Utter Barre” practising or hereafter desiring to practise, shall not plead at any bar before they are of 12 years’ continuance, without leave of the Masters of the Bench, on pain of expulsion. They may, however, for the whole of this term, advise their clients and go to the bar for them for matters begun.’
We have been shown a large number of the judges’ orders which are reproduced in Dugdale’s Origines Juridiciales (3rd edn, 1680) cc 70–72. These orders relate partly to training, partly to rights of audience in different courts, and partly to matters peculiar to the internal regulation of the Inns and the dress, appearance and deportment of their members. On occasion, as Bolland observes (24 LQR 392 at 396–397) the benchers rebelled because they felt the judges were exceeding their jurisdiction; an example is given in 1559 when the benchers of Lincoln’s Inn considered that the judges had no power to dictate the length of beards worn by members of the Inn.
It is quite clear that in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries and, indeed, up to the enactment of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873 the courts, and in particular the Court of King’s Bench, consistently declined to exercise any jurisdiction over any matters in which a right of appeal lay from the benchers of an Inn to the judges sitting as a domestic tribunal. In R v Gray’s Inn (1780) 1 Doug 353 at 355, 99 ER 227 at 228 Lord Mansfield CJ explained that the true ground why no mandamus will lie to the Inns of Court is ‘that they are voluntary societies submitting to government, and the ancient and usual way of redress is by appeal to the Judges’. Nearly a hundred years later, in Neate v Denman (1874) LR 18 Eq 127 at 136, Hall V-C referred to the jurisdiction over the Inns of the judges of the superior courts of England as a peculiar jurisdiction which has always been recognised. He added:
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‘They have the power of deciding such questions as the present. If the Plaintiff had no remedy by an appeal to the Judges, he might, and probably would have, a right to apply to the Court of Queen’s Bench for a mandamus. That, however, would be because he had no other remedy.’
We do not accept the submission by Mr Sedley QC, who appeared for the Bar Council, that there was any conscious distinction made between the occasions when this jurisdiction of the judges, however it was exercised, went to matters related to the administration of justice, such as the equipping of the courts with advocates who were fit to appear before them there, and the occasions when it went simply to matters relating to the administration of the Inns and their property. Everyone accepted that the jurisdiction existed in both cases, and there was never any necessity until the present day to distinguish between the two types of jurisdiction. However, now that it is necessary to identify the functions the judges are performing when they sit as visitors in cases which are concerned with the question whether people are fit and proper persons to become or remain barristers, we must for the first time examine their function in that context alone.
Re Antigua Justices (1830) 1 Knapp 267, 12 ER 321, which came to the Privy Council just before the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council was created provides a valuable illustration of the fact that in the absence of such arrangements as were made between the Inns of Court and the judges in this country, the power of judges to determine who were fit and proper persons to practise before them, where it existed, was regarded as essential for the due administration of justice. Lord Wynford said (1 Knapp 267 at 268, 12 ER 321):
‘In England the Courts of Justice are relieved from the unpleasant duty of dis-barring advocates in consequence of the power of calling to the Bar and dis-barring having been in very remote times delegated to the Inns of Court. In the colonies there are no Inns of Court, but it is essential for the due administration of justice that some persons should have authority to determine, who are fit persons to practise as advocates and attornies there. Now advocates and attornies have always been admitted in the Colonial Courts by the Judges, and the Judges only. The power of suspending from practice must, we think, be incidental to that of admitting to practice, as is the case in England with regard to attornies.’
In A-G of the Gambia v N’Jie [1961] 2 All ER 504 at 508, [1961] AC 617 at 630 Lord Denning said:
‘By the common law of England, the judges have the right to determine who shall be admitted to practise as barristers and solicitors, and, as incidental thereto, the judges have the right to suspend or prohibit from practice. In England, this power has for a very long time been delegated, so far as barristers are concerned, to the Inns of Court; and, for a much shorter time, so far as solicitors are concerned, to the Law Society. In the colonies, the judges have retained the power in their own hands, at any rate, in those colonies where the profession is “fused”.’
In Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 955, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 170 the visitors observed that Lord Denning was not using the word ‘delegate’ in the narrow sense in which it is sometimes used today any more than Lord Mansfield CJ had when he used the same word in a similar context in R v Gray’s Inn (1780) Doug 353 at 354, 99 ER 227. Paull J said:
‘Both were using it in the sense that, in regard to the Inns, the judges over a long period, from time to time, had concurred in the Inns performing the duty of selecting those persons who were fit and proper persons to be called
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to the Bar and to be entitled to a right of audience in the courts and the duty of suspending or prohibiting such persons from practice. The exercise of these duties has been at all times, and remains, subject to the visitorial jurisdiction of the judges. Further, the judges, in relation to their judicial duties as to who should have the right of audience, have never divested themselves of those duties, nor could they ever do so.’
Both Mr Beloff and Mr Richards, who appeared as amicus curiae, sought to extract from this passage, and from a comparable passage in this judgment (see [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 959, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 175), a proposition that the judicial duty to ensure that only fit and proper persons appear before them as barristers (which they perform through the machinery of the arrangements they have made, at their direction, with the Inns of Court) is somehow different in kind from the judicial duty, which existed until it was taken away by Parliament in 1990, of determining who had the right of audience in different courts (for which see Abse v Smith [1986] 1 All ER 350, [1986] QB 536, passim). We do not accept this contention. In each case it was a duty which was imposed on the judges in their capacity as judges of the superior courts and related to the administration of justice in those courts. It was only the machinery by which they performed their duties which was different.
The Attorney General, Sir John Campbell QC, set out the true position correctly, in our judgment, in his oral submissions to the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in relation to the Warrant for the Suppression of the Antient Privileges of the Serjeants at Law (1840, reported by Serjeant Manning). He said (at 139–140):
‘The judges of the Common Pleas are supposed to join with the other judges, in calling students to the bar. The benchers of the inns of court, are only the agents of the judges in calling to the bar. It is a power committed to them by the judges, a power which the judges may resume. There is an appeal from the opinion of the benchers to the judges. Upon that appeal, the judges of the Common Please sit, just as well as the judges of the Exchequer and the King’s Bench; and they sit there, because they are supposed to have called the party to the bar … The inns of court are mere voluntary societies … The judges deputed to the benchers of the societies the task of giving lectures, and examining into the sufficiency of the candidates, and of calling them to the bar, but they are still mere voluntary societies; and they act by the authority which the judges have delegated to them. When there is an appeal from the decision of the benchers, the judges of the Common Pleas join in sitting upon that appeal; and if the candidate be called to the bar, I say, he is called to the bar—by the judges of the Common Pleas. When a person was called to the bar … he was not allowed to practise in the Court of Common Pleas in banco, but he was allowed to practise in the other courts in Westminster Hall …’
This passage illustrates in a vivid way the fact that the arrangements the judges have made with the Inns are merely the machinery through which the judges perform what remains a judicial duty (and also how decisions on rights of audience are different from decisions on call to the Bar). Before the judgment of the visitors in Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949, [1970] 1 QB 160 had clarified the meaning of the word ‘delegate’ in the present context this was the concept which Sellers LJ had in mind in Lincoln v Daniels [1961] 3 All ER 740 at 745, [1962] 1 QB 237 at 250:
‘If the Inns of Court had not controlled the professional conduct of the Bar the judges themselves would have had to do so. The judges themselves, deriving their authority from the Crown, were minded in the distant past to
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delegate, and the undisputed view in Lord Mansfield’s time was that the judges had delegated, their disciplinary power over the Bar to the Inns of Court.’
In his judgment in the same case Devlin LJ explained how the jurisdiction of the benchers of an Inn is derived from the judges and exercised under their superintendence. Without hearing the depth of argument which was available to the visitors in Re S (a barrister), and to us in this court, he imagined that the judges must have assumed jurisdiction by virtue of their inherent power to determine who may and who may not plead at the Bar before them. He explained how the judges were using a power derived from the Crown as the fountain of justice when they conferred authority on the benchers of the Inns of Court to act as their delegates in maintaining the discipline of the Bar (see [1961] 3 All ER 740 at 747, [1962] 1 QB 237 at 253–254).
In her closing submissions on behalf of Miss Calder Miss Wicks placed reliance on the fact that the power of an Inn to call a person to the Bar is the power of the Inn alone. She also suggested that Mr Sedley, in his argument on behalf of the Bar Council, had failed to explain how the Inns could discipline someone, for example by reprimand or fine, without disbarring them. The first part of this submission is answered by the arguments of Sir John Campbell to which we have referred. Although the call to the Bar is an exercise of power by the individual Inn it is an exercise of power permitted by the judges and exercised under their supervision. The second part of the submission is conclusively answered by cl 15 of the Constitution of the Council of the Inns of Court, which Brooke J cited in his judgment as a visitor of Lincoln’s Inn in Re X (a student) (11 November 1991, unreported). This shows that in 1986 the judges, with the concurrence of the Inns, resolved and confirmed that from 1987 disciplinary powers over barristers should be exercised in accordance with the provisions of that constitution and that no alteration might be made to the power or composition of disciplinary tribunals without the consent of the Lord Chief Justice. It is through the implementation of this agreed machinery that disciplinary tribunals and the Inns themselves, with the consent of the Lord Chief Justice, are now able to exercise extended powers of control over the professional conduct of barristers, with a wider range of penalties, but subject always, in the case of decisions by tribunals, to a right of appeal to the visitors (Disciplinary Tribunals Regulations 1990, regs 22, 30).
Finally, on this part of the case, Miss Wicks drew our attention to the fact that in Re S (a barrister) [1981] 2 All ER 952 at 956–957, [1981] QB 683 at 688, 690 the visitors expressed doubts whether they had power to hold the findings of a disciplinary tribunal to be invalid.
The context in which these comments were made was an unusual one. They related to the constitutional arrangements which existed between 1974 and the end of 1986 whereby the General Council of the Bar had become part of the new Senate of the Inns of Court of the Bar (the Senate) and had ceased to exist as a separate entity, although the constitution of the Senate contained provisions designed to ensure that the Bar Council would remain an autonomous body for the purpose of its separate powers and functions.
The judges, with the concurrence of the Inns of Court, resolved when these arrangements were created that disciplinary powers over barristers should be exercised in accordance with the regulations governing the new Senate, and by those regulations a committee of the Senate, known as the disciplinary tribunal, exercised those powers.
The points which concerned the visitors in Re S (a barrister) [1981] 2 All ER 952, [1981] QB 683 were whether (a) the fact that the Bar Council, which was the
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accusatorial body, formed part of the Senate, which was the judicial body, meant that fair-minded people would regard the proceedings of the Senate’s disciplinary tribunal as tainted with the appearance of bias and (b) the fact that members of the same profession were both the accusers and the majority of the disciplinary tribunal could give rise to the same objection.
In the event the visitors explained why they considered that both points were without merit. There was therefore no need for them to decide whether and by what powers they could have handled the matter if they had thought that there was any merit in either of them. They said that the question had not been argued before them and they expressed no opinion on it.
It appears to us that the point is a thoroughly esoteric one because it postulates that the judges had consented to arrangements for the Inns to exercise disciplinary powers over barristers, subject to their supervision, which infringed some fairly elementary rules of natural justice. However, given the history of the relationship between the Inns and the judges which we have recited in this judgment we can see nothing conceptually difficult about the judges, as visitors, telling the Inns that they now perceived that their particular disciplinary procedures were unfair and needed rectification, even though they had concurred, in principle, in the creation of those procedures. The judges would, in effect, be saying that they were not willing to sanction the disbarment of a barrister pursuant to unfair procedures, and would be insisting that the matter should be handled again more appropriately.
Brooke J had to deal with a similar point in a different context in Re X (a student) to which we have referred. In that case there could have been no just criticism of Lincoln’s Inn in the way it had adjudicated on the application of a student applying for admission to the Inn who had had serious criminal convictions between 1956 and 1974. Brooke J was not satisfied, however, as to the appropriateness of the relevant regulation of the Consolidated Regulations of the Inns of Court in modern times and he remitted the case to the Inn for reconsideration in the light of his judgment. Since then the language of that regulation is in the course of being changed. We can see no merit in repeating here the reasons he gave for that decision since he pronounced his findings in that case in public, pursuant to r 11(2) of the Hearings before the Visitors Rules 1991, and the reasons were complex. Suffice it to say that, after referring to the ‘extraordinary, and perhaps unique, jurisdiction of the Visitors of the Inns of Court’, he found that the judges possessed a residual jurisdiction by which, in an exceptional case, they might remit a matter to an Inn and direct it to reconsider, with the Inns’ Council and the Bar Council, what ought to be the criteria by which they should judge the question before it determined the application afresh. Brooke J observed that if such a residual jurisdiction did not exist, then the judges would be left with a duty to perform but without the power to perform it in a way which they considered in all cases to be just.
We should add, as a caveat, that, if the point which Brooke J decided in Re X (a student) ever arose again in the same context, it would be necessary to consider the effect of the judgment of this court in R v Lincoln’s Inn Benchers (1825) 4 B & C 855, 107 ER 1277, which was followed in R v Barnard’s Inn (1836) 5 Ad & El 17, 111 ER 1073. These cases show that the courts in the early nineteenth century were willing to hold that the Inns, as private voluntary societies, had a power to refuse entry to would-be members which was not subject to the jurisdiction of the courts or the visitors, even though barristers of the Inns possessed certain monopoly rights in the courts. In the event, the four Inns agreed in 1837, following the Sixth Report of the Commissioners on Courts of Common Law (C (1st series) 263 (1834)), that they would in future allow a person refused admission to appeal to the judges and that they would be bound by their decision (see 12
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Holdsworth’s History of English Law (1938) p 32). It is obvious that if the point in Re X (a student) arose again, a more sophisticated analysis of what happened in 1837 would be required although we are far from convinced that the result would be very different and the history of that case has shown that it is a useful residual power for the judges to possess in exceptional circumstances.
Most of the submissions which were addressed to us by Mr Persaud took matters no further. However, he did call in his aid the fact that the Disciplinary Tribunals Regulations of the Inns’ Council permit evidence to be adduced which would not ordinarily be admissible in a court of law. This is undoubtedly correct but in our judgment it does not assist us in what we have to decide. There are plenty of occasions when the High Court exercises a supervisory jurisdiction over tribunals or bodies whose procedures allow for a more relaxed approach to the rules of evidence, but this does not detract from the fact that the High Court is performing the functions of the High Court when it exercises this jurisdiction.
We should add that after the hearing was completed we received a letter from Mr Persaud inviting us to reopen the hearing to allow him to address additional points to us which he had not mentioned at all in his opening submissions to us or in his reply. We considered that he ought to have taken these points during the hearing itself and, in so far as they were of a technical procedural nature, he had waived his right to advance them because he was content to allow the full two-day hearing to take place without complaining at the outset that he had been prejudiced by short notice of the hearing or by any procedural irregularity in the way the preliminary issue had been brought before the court.
This analysis of the history of the visitors’ jurisdiction before 1873 makes it quite clear, in our judgment, that when the judges were sitting as visitors of the Inns of Court to hear appeals by barristers who had been ordered to be suspended or disbarred they were acting as judges and performing judicial duties which were an essential part of the administration of justice in their courts. By custom they sat in private and not in court, and they were referred to as a domestic tribunal whatever part of their visitorial functions they were performing. But their role in this capacity was totally different from the role of visitors to universities and colleges. In the absence of a written constitution the power and duty of the judges to control the quality of the administration of justice in the courts of this country were derived largely from ancient custom subject to express mandates from time to time by the Crown, as in 1292, and the way in which they superintended the disciplinary processes of the Inns of Court was an important feature of the way in which they performed that duty and exercised that power.
It therefore follows, in our judgment, that although this has gone unnoticed for 119 years, the jurisdiction of the judges as visitors, in so far as it relates to questions as to the fitness of persons to become or remain barristers, is a jurisdiction which in 1873 was vested in the judges of the three common law courts, sitting elsewhere than in court or chambers, when acting as judges, in pursuance of custom. Since it is a jurisdiction which is central to the administration of justice in the courts of this country, it was accordingly not ‘a liability to any duty, or any authority or power, not incident to the administration of justice in any Court’, which was preserved under the new arrangements in 1873 by s 12 of the 1873 Act without forming part of the new jurisdiction of the High Court. We find the reference in s 12 to duties etc ‘not incident to the administration of justice in any Court’ particularly compelling as a pointer to the conclusion that the disciplinary jurisdiction of the visitors was transferred to the High Court pursuant to s 16.
Accordingly, the jurisdiction of the visitors in these matters was a jurisdiction which was transferred to the High Court in 1873 and retained there by s 18(3) of the 1925 Act and s 10(1)(b) of the 1981 Act.
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Since the argument ended Mr Beloff has been good enough to send us, by agreement with the other parties to Miss Calder’s application, extracts from the works of two legal historians who venture to express opinions on the legal position after 1873. Both were written before 1981.
12 Holdsworth’s History of English Law (1938) p 30 perplexingly says in a footnote that the judges still possessed the jurisdiction referred to by Hall V-C in Neate v Denman (1874) LR 18 Eq 127 by virtue of s 12 of the 1873 Act, replaced by s 18(3) of the 1925 Act. Professor J H Baker in Legal Profession and the Common Law (1986) opts for s 34 of the 1925 Act, which is the lineal successor of s 12 of the 1873 Act. It is probable that this is the section of the 1925 Act to which Sir William Holdsworth meant to refer since in each case the later section is the mirror image of the earlier section.
We are very willing to accept that those parts of the judges’ visitorial jurisdiction which were not incident to the administration of justice in the courts passed down through the routes suggested by Sir William and Professor Baker, but in the context of the present case, where the court has for the first time to inquire into the particular function which is being performed, we are not satisfied that the whole of the visitatorial jurisdiction passed by this route. The editor of 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 1011 appears also to have expressed the position too widely when he ascribed the survival of the whole of this jurisdiction to what is now s 44(1)(b) of the 1981 Act.
We return to Re Racal Communications Ltd [1980] 2 All ER 634, [1981] AC 374. Since we are satisfied that by the operation of the 1873 Act and its successor statutes High Court judges are sitting as the High Court when they exercise their jurisdiction as visitors of the Inns of Court in disciplinary matters, there is nothing in Lord Diplock’s speech in that case which derogates from the proposition that they are not susceptible to judicial review, which is available, as Lord Diplock says, as a remedy for mistakes of law made by inferior courts and tribunals only, and not for mistakes of law made by the High Court itself (see [1980] 2 All ER 634 at 640, [1981] AC 374 at 384).
We turn now to the question whether there is anything in the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 which has altered the position. In Re X (a student) Brooke J explained why that Act had had no effect on the jurisdiction of the Inns, subject to the supervision of the judges, to decide who were fit and proper persons to be admitted to the Inns for training. He expressed his reasons in this way:
‘… although in the 1990 Act Parliament introduced a new statutory machinery for supervising and regulating the rules for education and conduct for those who are to have rights of audience in the courts it decided not to interfere expressly with the jurisdiction of the Inns, under the supervision of the judges, to decide who were fit and proper persons to be admitted to the Inns for training or their liberty to decide the criteria which should dictate their admissions policy. By s 27(9) of the 1990 Act the “qualification regulations” of an “authorised body”, which the advisory committee has the duty to approve, mean only the regulations (however they may be described) as to the education and training which members of that body must receive in order to be entitled to any right of audience granted by it; and in the same way “rules of conduct”, which it has a duty to approve, mean only the rules (however they may be described) as to the conduct required of members of that body in exercising any such right of audience. The 1990 Act is silent about the criteria for admission to membership.’
For much the same reasons we are quite satisfied that there is nothing in the 1990 Act which affects in any way the processes by which decisions as to
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suspension and disbarment and so on are to be taken and promulgated through the machinery created by the Inns in 1986 with the concurrence of the judges subject always to the visitorial jurisdiction of the judges. The 1990 Act distinguished clearly between ‘rules of conduct’, which are to be scrutinised and approved within the new statutory machinery, in which the ‘designated judges’ (see s 119(1)) each have a crucially important role to play (see Sch 4, paras 5(10), 11(10) and 16(4)), and ‘mechanism for enforcing the rules of conduct’ (see s 17(3)(b)).
So far as the mechanisms for enforcing the rules of conduct are concerned s 18(2) of the 1990 Act requires that any person who is exercising any of the functions conferred by Pt II of that Act with respect to any of the matters described in s 18(1) (the granting of rights or audience etc) must act in accordance with the general principle mentioned in s 17(3). This principle includes the need to see whether the professional or other body under scrutiny not only has rules of conduct (which will be thoroughly scrutinised within the statutory machinery) but also has an effective mechanism for enforcing the rules of conduct and is likely to enforce them. However, provided that the enforcement mechanism is there, Parliament has made no requirement that changes in the disciplinary regulations should be scrutinised by the statutory machinery or that existing disciplinary regulations (including any appellate jurisdiction) shall be so scrutinised. This is evident not only from the fact that the jurisdiction of the Legal Services Ombudsman under ss 21 to 26 of the 1990 Act stops at the moment when a complaint enters into the jurisdiction of a disciplinary tribunal (s 22(7)) but also from the fact that in s 27(3) Parliament refers to the process by which a barrister may be disbarred or temporarily suspended from practice by order of an Inn of Court without any hint that it disapproves or wishes to alter in any way the manner in which for centuries the Inns have made orders for disbarment subject to the visitorial jurisdiction of the judges.
For these reasons we are satisfied that the 1990 Act does not affect the situation in any way.
Finally, although this is not one of the matters which we have to decide, an appeal lies to the Court of Appeal from a judgment or order of the High Court pursuant to s 16(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. Miss Calder and Mr Persaud will therefore not be without remedy if they wish to pursue the avenue of appeal to the Court of Appeal and if they can persuade that court to grant them leave to appeal out of time against the relevant decision of the visitors.
It is obvious that if the present decision is undisturbed attention must be paid to the quite new arrangements prescribed by s 19(3) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which provides, so far as is relevant, that any jurisdiction of the High Court shall be exercised only by a single judge of that court, except in so far as it is, by or by virtue of rules of court or any other statutory provision, required to be exercised by a Divisional Court. But that, again, is not a matter for this court.
For all these reasons, therefore we would hold that this court has no jurisdiction to entertain an application for judicial review in either of the cases which are before it.
Applications dismissed.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Appeals
The appellants appealed.
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Michael Beloff QC and Joanne Wicks (instructed by B C Mascarenhas) for Miss Calder.
Mr Persaud appeared in person.
Andrew Collins QC, Timothy Horgan and Anthony Bradley (instructed by Allison & Humphreys) for the Bar Council.
Robert Carnwath QC and Ian Burnett (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amici curiae.
Cur adv vult
21 January 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. Barristers are members of one of the four Inns of Court: they are called to the Bar by their Inn. For centuries the Inns have exercised control over the professional conduct of their members. They can be disbarred, or suspended from practising as barristers, or subjected to less severe disciplinary penalties. For at least two centuries a barrister who has felt aggrieved by a disciplinary decision has been able to appeal to ‘the judges’. The question raised by these two cases is whether a decision of ‘the judges’ on such an appeal can itself be challenged in the courts: do the courts have any jurisdiction to review, or to hear an appeal from, a decision of ‘the judges’?
Miss Calder’s case
Before us are two cases. They both raise the same issue regarding jurisdiction. The first case concerns Miss Renee Joyce Calder. She was called to the Bar by Lincoln’s Inn in November 1978. On 8 October 1990 she was found guilty of professional misconduct by a disciplinary tribunal of the Council of the Inns of Court, which directed that she should be disbarred. Her appeal against the findings of the tribunal was dismissed by three High Court judges (Kennedy, Judge and Rose JJ) sitting as visitors to the Inns of Court on 6 March 1991. They changed the sentence to one of five years’ suspension. On 7 June 1991 Auld J gave Miss Calder leave to apply for judicial review, and he directed that the suspension be stayed pending the determination of the judicial review proceedings.
Mr Persaud’s case
The second case concerns Mr Norman Persaud. He was called to the Bar, also by Lincoln’s Inn, in November 1980. On 12 July 1990 he was found guilty of a charge of professional misconduct by a disciplinary tribunal of the Council of the Inns of Court, which directed he should be disbarred. On 31 July 1991 his appeal against the tribunal’s findings and sentence was dismissed by three High Court judges (Vinelott, Ewbank and Jowitt JJ) sitting as visitors to the Inns of Court. On 17 December 1991 Rose J granted him leave to apply for judicial review and directed that a preliminary issue be determined whether the High Court has any jurisdiction to hear an application for judicial review of a decision of visitors to the Inns of Court.
The decision of the High Court
The two applications for judicial review came on together before Mann LJ and Brooke J. They heard argument on the jurisdiction point, and on 12 March 1992 they decided the court has no jurisdiction to entertain an application for judicial review from decisions of the visitors of the Inns of Court. They did not hold, however, that the visitors’ decision was final. In the course of an exceedingly
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erudite judgment the Divisional Court decided that although this had gone unnoticed for 119 years, the jurisdiction of the judges as visitors, so far as it relates to questions of the fitness of persons to become or remain barristers, is a jurisdiction which was transferred to the High Court by s 16 of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873. That jurisdiction has remained in the High Court ever since. Thus judicial review does not lie, since the decision is a decision of the High Court. Instead the remedy available is the remedy prescribed by statute for appeals from decisions of the High Court, viz by way of an appeal to the Court of Appeal.
From this ruling of the Divisional Court Mr Persaud appealed. For her part Miss Calder was not unhappy with the decision of the Divisional Court, for two reasons: the jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal as an appellate tribunal would be wider than that of the High Court exercising a supervisory jurisdiction when undertaking judicial review and, further, the reasoning of the Divisional Court gave Miss Calder scope to contend that the decision of the three judges as visitors was a nullity and that therefore she still remained entitled to a hearing by the High Court (viz by a single judge sitting as a judge of the High Court), with an appeal thereafter to the Court of Appeal. The General Council of the Bar’s attitude was, likewise, that the decision of the Divisional Court should be upheld for the reasons given by that court.
However, all counsel recognised that since the issue is one of jurisdiction, this court is concerned to satisfy itself on the issue. We heard comprehensive and helpful arguments from counsel, including counsel instructed as amici curiae by the Attorney General, and Mr Persaud acting in person. Between them the arguments covered all the various possible alternatives.
The ancient visitorial jurisdiction
The primary question on these appeals concerns the proper interpretation of two sections in the 1873 Act. Before turning to that Act I must set the scene. I must identify the nature of the jurisdiction, as generally understood in 1873, exercised by the judges when sitting on appeal from decisions of the benchers of the four Inns of Court. I introduce the qualification ‘as generally understood in 1873’, because in interpreting the 1873 legislation the court is seeking to elucidate what Parliament is to be taken to have intended when the Act was passed. The court should therefore have at least some regard to how the role of the judges, when exercising this jurisdiction, was perceived and understood at the time.
The jurisdiction of the judges in respect of the Inns of Court is very ancient and well established. We were taken on an interesting historical journey, starting in the thirteenth century. Having made this journey, I am left in no doubt that by the end of the eighteenth century, if not earlier, the function and role of the judges when exercising this jurisdiction had become settled and clear. Thus it is not necessary to travel further back in time, it is not necessary to delve into the historical origins. The case which, using the fashionable terminology, was the seminal decision was R v Gray’s Inn (1780) 1 Doug 353, 99 ER 227. William Hart applied for a mandamus to be directed to the benchers of Gray’s Inn compelling them to call him to the degree of barrister at law. He urged that it would be highly inconvenient to permit such a body as the benchers of an Inn of Court to exercise a jurisdiction in such matters uncontrollable by a court of law. The court rejected the application. Lord Mansfield CJ said (1 Doug 353 at 354–355, 99 ER 227 at 227–228):
‘We have consulted the other Judges on the subject of this application, and I am prepared to state the result. The original institution of the Inns of Court
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no where precisely appears, but it is certain that they are not corporations, and have no constitution by charters from the Crown. They are voluntary societies, which, for ages, have submitted to government analogous to that of other seminaries of learning. But all the power they have concerning the admission to the bar, is delegated to them from the Judges, and, in every instance, their conduct is subject to their control as visitors. This will appear from a great variety of instances of orders made at different periods, for the regulation of those societies … From the first traces of their existence to this day, no example can be found of an interposition by the Courts of Westminster Hall proceeding according to the general law of the land; but the Judges have acted as in a domestic forum.’ (My emphasis.)
Hart’s application was accordingly dismissed. Lord Mansfield CJ added that, if there was ground for it, Hart must take ‘the ancient course of applying to the twelve Judges’ (see 1 Doug 353 at 357, 99 ER 227 at 229). The twelve judges, it seems, was a reference to the judges of the Courts of King’s Bench and Common Pleas and the Barons of the Court of Exchequer, including the Chief Justices of those courts, even though the number was not always twelve: see the valuable article by Professor J H Baker ‘Judicial review of the judges as visitors to the Inns of Court’ [1992] PL 411.
So far as can be seen, this decision was accepted as an authoritative statement of the remedy available for a barrister aggrieved by decisions of the benchers of an Inn. Thus in 1787 a member of Gray’s Inn filed a bill in the Court of Chancery seeking an order that the benchers renew his tenancy of chambers within the Inn: see Cunningham v Wegg (1787) 2 Bro CC 241, 29 ER 134. The benchers argued that Gray’s Inn, like the three other Inns, was a voluntary society governed by benchers who make rules regulating the society and its property subject to an appeal, in case of disputes, to ‘the Lord Chancellor and the twelve Judges’. The Attorney General, likewise, submitted that the benchers were not liable to account to the court, and that there was no instance of any of the courts interfering, either with respect to call to the Bar or the internal government of the society. Lord Thurlow LC accepted these submissions. A century later the same approach was adopted by Hall V-C in dismissing a bill filed by a barrister of Lincoln’s Inn seeking an injunction to restrain the Inn from enforcing a bond given when he was called to the Bar: see Neate v Denman (1874) LR 18 Eq 127.
As Professor Baker has pointed out, there may be grounds for doubting the historical accuracy of Lord Mansfield CJ’s statement that the Inn’s powers to call to the Bar were delegated to them from the judges. There has also been some discussion of what Lord Mansfield CJ meant by ‘delegated’ in this context: see Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949, [1970] 1 QB 160. Be that as it may, until the present case it seems to have been universally accepted that, when hearing an appeal against a decision of the benchers of an Inn, the judges were not sitting as a court of law: they were sitting as visitors in a domestic forum, controlling the affairs of ‘voluntary’ societies.
The 1873 Act
Against this background I turn to consider the 1873 Act. Before this Act was passed there was a multiplicity of courts, dealing with different subject matters or giving different remedies. These courts included the High Court of Chancery, the Court of Queen’s Bench, the Court of Common Pleas at Westminster, the Court of Exchequer, the High Court of Admiralty, the Court of Probate, the Court for Divorce and Matrimonial Causes, and the London Court of Bankruptcy. The 1873 Act united and consolidated these eight courts to constitute one
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Supreme Court of Judicature in England. The Supreme Court was to have two permanent divisions: a High Court of Justice and a Court of Appeal. The first judges of the High Court were to be the Lord Chancellor, the Lord Chief Justice of England, the Master of the Rolls, the Lord Chief Justice of the Common Pleas, the Lord Chief Baron of the Exchequer, the Vice-Chancellors of the High Court of Chancery, the judge of the Court of Probate and of the Court for Divorce and Matrimonial Causes, the puisne justices of the Courts of Queen’s Bench and Common Pleas, the Junior Barons of the Court of Exchequer and the judge of the High Court of Admiralty.
Section 12 made provision for what were described in the sidenote to the section as ‘extraordinary duties of Judges of the former Courts’. These duties were to devolve on the judges of the new High Court of Justice. Section 12 provided:
‘If, in any case not expressly provided for by this Act, a liability to any duty, or any authority or power, not incident to the administration of justice in any Court, whose jurisdiction is transferred by this Act to the High Court of Justice, shall have been imposed or conferred by any statute, law, or custom upon the Judges or any Judge of any of such Courts, save as herein-after mentioned, every Judge of the said High Court shall be capable of performing and exercising, and shall be liable to perform and empowered to exercise every such duty, authority, and power, in the same manner as if this Act had not passed, and as if he had been duly appointed the successor of a Judge liable to such duty, or possessing such authority or power, before the passing of this Act …’
Section 16 stated what was to be the jurisdiction of the new High Court of Justice. The Act transferred to and vested in the High Court the jurisdiction then vested in, or capable of being exercised by, the eight courts mentioned above together with a further three courts I need not name. Section 16 further provided, in short, that the jurisdiction transferred to the new High Court was to include the jurisdiction then vested in or capable of being exercised by all or any of the judges of the courts whose jurisdiction was transferred to the High Court. The material part of s 16 read:
‘… The jurisdiction by this Act transferred to the High Court of Justice shall include … the jurisdiction which, at the commencement of this Act, was vested in, or capable of being exercised by, all or any one or more of the Judges of the said Courts, respectively, sitting in Court or Chambers, or elsewhere, when acting as Judges or a Judge, in pursuance of any statute, law, or custom, and all powers given to any such Court, or to any such Judges or Judge, by any statute …’
The 1873 Act has been repealed but the effect of s 12 survives, via s 18(3) of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925, in s 44 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. Likewise, s 16 of the 1873 Act survives, via s 34(1) of the 1925 Act, in s 19(2)(b) of the 1981 Act.
Section 16
In my view it is clear that the jurisdiction exercised by the judges over the Inns of Court was not transferred to the High Court by s 16. Read in context, the phrase ‘when acting as Judges or a Judge’ must mean, when acting as judges or a judge of the courts whose jurisdiction was transferred to the High Court by the 1873 Act. But, so read, the section does not apply to the jurisdiction vested in and exercised by the judges over the Inns of Court. When exercising that jurisdiction
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the judges were not acting as judges. They were not sitting as a court of law. They were not sitting as judges of the Court of Queen’s Bench or of the Court of Common Pleas or the Court of Exchequer. They were sitting in a domestic forum, as visitors to the Inns of Court. The analogy with visitors to a charitable foundation may be imperfect. The Inns are not corporations having a founder who nominated a visitor to interpret and apply the statutes and decide internal disputes. But what matters more for present purposes is that when exercising their jurisdiction over the Inns the judges were exercising a jurisdiction different from that exercised when sitting as judges of their respective courts. True, the judges derived their jurisdiction over the Inns from their office as judges of the three courts in question: they possessed that jurisdiction by virtue of their office as judges. But, here again, that does not bring this jurisdiction within s 16: ‘when acting as Judges’ is looking to the nature of the jurisdiction being exercised, rather than its source. The Vice-Chancellor of the Supreme Court is, by virtue of his office, the visitor of Clare Hall, Cambridge, but when exercising that jurisdiction he is not acting as Vice-Chancellor: he is acting as a visitor.
The contrary interpretation of s 16 would produce a surprising result. It would mean that an existing jurisdiction, which before 1873 the courts had declared repeatedly was not a jurisdiction possessed by any of the courts, either of common law or of equity, became part of the jurisdiction of the new court set up by the 1873 Act in place of the existing courts. For the future aggrieved barristers would have a right of appeal, not informally to the twelve judges, but formally to the High Court as such, with all the procedural consequences attendant upon High Court proceedings. One would expect clear language if such a change were being made and the new court were to have a jurisdiction not possessed by any of the courts it was replacing.
Section 12
If I am right so far, and s 16 did not apply to the jurisdiction exercised by the judges over the Inns of Court, what happened to that jurisdiction when the courts of the twelve judges were abolished by the 1873 Act? Section 12 provides the answer. As already noted, this section vested in the judges of the new High Court the powers and duties of the judges of the courts whose jurisdiction was being transferred to the High Court so far as ‘not incident to the administration of justice in any Court, whose jurisdiction is transferred by this Act to the High Court of Justice’. This phrase, which prescribed a negative qualifying condition, is not free from ambiguity. The expression ‘not incident to’ is imprecise, as also is the expression ‘the administration of justice in any Court’. Nor can one gain assistance from looking at other instances to which s 12 applies, because counsel were unable to suggest any.
Despite these difficulties I am satisfied that the jurisdiction of the judges over the Inns of Court fulfils the s 12 qualifying condition. This jurisdiction of the judges extended to appeals from all decisions of the benchers relating to the conduct of an Inn’s affairs. As already noted, it included appeals against decisions on property matters such as the letting of chambers within the Inn and the dues payable to the Inn by its members. Jurisdiction to hear appeals on such matters cannot sensibly be described as a jurisdiction ‘incident to the administration of justice in any Court’. The judges’ jurisdiction also included jurisdiction to hear appeals against disciplinary decisions, such as disbarment for professional misconduct. Authority to hear appeals against disciplinary decisions approaches much more closely to being an incident to the administration of justice in a court, because of the judges’ role in controlling the professional standards of those with
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rights of audience in the courts. But authority to hear appeals against disciplinary decisions was not a separate and discrete part of the jurisdiction exercised by judges over the Inns: it was a part, albeit a very important part, of one single and entire jurisdiction. That jurisdiction, considered as a whole, and including as it does jurisdiction to hear appeals against Inn decisions having no connection with who may appear in court as barristers or with their professional standards, cannot have been intended by Parliament to be excluded from s 12 as a jurisdiction ‘incident to the administration of justice in any Court’. On the contrary, when exercising their visitorial jurisdiction the judges were acting, in Lord Mansfield CJ’s words, ‘as in a domestic forum’. As such the judges’ jurisdiction to regulate on appeal the affairs of the Inns of Court irrespective of the precise nature of the dispute can aptly and properly be described as ‘not incident to the administration of justice in any Court’.
The later history
I am greatly fortified in these conclusions by noting how the visitorial jurisdiction of the judges has been exercised since 1873. The effect of the 1873 Act was raised almost at once, in Manisty v Kenealy (1876) 24 WR 918. There the defendant was one of the trustees of the property of Gray’s Inn. He also held a set of chambers assigned to him as a bencher. He was disbenched and disbarred, and the Inn sought an order for possession of the set of chambers and an order that he join in a conveyance of the Inn’s property to new trustees. The defendant contended that in disbenching and disbarring him the Inn had been actuated by malice, that he had not been given an opportunity to be heard, and that in law he was still a bencher and member of the Inn. The Inn contended that even if the defendant had been improperly disbenched and disbarred the court had no jurisdiction to interfere. Counsel submitted that the decision of the benchers was final unless reversed on appeal to the judges, and that ‘the various courts now consolidated into the High Court of Justice had no jurisdiction in respect of such matters’. Hall V-C accepted this submission. Clearly he did not consider that the jurisdiction had been transferred from the judges to the new High Court by the recent Act. He said (at 920):
‘The undisputed facts are that the benchers have disbenched and disbarred the defendant, but he disputes the validity of their proceedings … he asks me to try that question; but I am not competent to do so, as I must have regard to former decisions applicable to the case before me, and it appears to me perfectly clear that, as regards the admission to the bar and the expulsion of members of an Inn of Court, the jurisdiction has been held by competent authority to be with the benchers, subject only to an appeal to the judges. With the question as to whether that is a proper mode or not I have nothing to do … It is said, too, that the judges have not the same facilities for getting at the truth of the matter as this court, but if the law be wrong it can be improved by legislation, and I am not authorised to assume a jurisdiction which I do not possess on that account.’
Thereafter from time to time the judges have taken steps to regulate the procedure to be followed on appeals to them. I shall mention only two examples, one from an early date, and the other a very recent one. The records of a meeting of the Council of Judges held on 24 November 1886 include this item:
‘It was resolved that the jurisdiction as to appeals from decisions of the Benchers of the several Inns of Court is now vested in the Judges of the High
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Court. It was further agreed that the first sitting in the particular case, in relation to the Middle Temple, now pending, should be taken in the Royal Courts of Justice after the rising of the Courts on a day to be arranged: the general opinion being, that such of the Judges as are members of the Middle Temple should not be present, and that not less than five Judges should take part in the sitting.’ (My emphasis).
This practice continued for many years.
Most recently, the currently applicable rules, the Hearings before the Visitors Rules 1991, were made on 20 December 1990. They commence:
‘We, the Judges of Her Majesty’s High Court of Justice, in the exercise of our powers as Visitors to the Inns of Court, hereby make the following Rules for the purpose of appeals to the Visitors from Disciplinary Tribunals of the Council of the Inns of the Court and certain other appeals to the Visitors …’
The rules were signed, ‘On behalf of the Judges of Her Majesty’s High Court of Justice’ by the Lord Chancellor, the Lord Chief Justice, the President and the Vice-Chancellor. The rules deal with matters such as service of documents, the time within which notice of appeal must be given (21 days), the contents of a petition of appeal, and the conduct of the hearing of the appeal. The appeal is to be heard by a single judge nominated by the Lord Chief Justice, save that where the appeal relates to an order for disbarment, or is from a tribunal presided over by a High Court judge, the appeal is heard by three judges. Hearings are normally to take place in private. Fresh evidence is not admissible save in exceptional circumstances and with the consent of the visitors. Counsel may appear at a hearing without the intervention of a solicitor.
If the judges’ jurisdiction had passed to the High Court of 1873, these rules and their predecessors were misguided, and the practice followed consistently on the conduct of appeals to the visitors over the last century has been wrong so far as it departed from the practice applicable to proceedings in the High Court under successive Judicature Acts and the Rules of the Supreme Court. In particular, the proceedings ought to have been conducted as proceedings of the High Court, the hearings ought to have been in public, the High Court as a court of record should have kept a record of the proceedings, and the proceedings should have been heard by only a single judge (see s 19(3) of the 1981 Act, s 40 of the 1873 Act, and s 60 of the 1925 Act). Moreover there was an unperceived right of appeal to the Court of Appeal and thence, with leave, to the House of Lords. Throughout the judges would have been mistaken in their understanding of the capacity in which they were sitting when exercising their jurisdiction over the Inns of Court. Two explicit examples of this will suffice. First, the judgment of Danckwerts LJ in Lincoln v Daniels [1961] 3 All ER 740 at 754, [1962] 1 QB 237 at 265:
‘In all matters concerning disciplinary measures the Benchers are outside the jurisdiction of the ordinary courts, but their decisions are subject to an appeal to the Lord Chancellor and the judges of the High Court of Justice sitting as a domestic tribunal.’
Second, in the decision of the three judges (Vinelott, McNeill and Anthony Lincoln JJ) sitting as visitors on the appeal reported as Re S (a barrister) [1981] 2 All ER 952 at 953, [1981] QB 683 at 685:
‘In this appeal we sit not as a court of law but as visitors of the Inns of Court. The Lord Chancellor and all the judges of the High Court of Justice
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are visitors of the Inns of Court and as visitors it is their duty to hear appeals by barristers who have been found guilty of professional misconduct …’
I am reassured to find that the construction of ss 12 and 16 of the 1873 Act stated above does not give rise to these unattractive consequences, but accords with the seemingly universal understanding of what has been the legal position since 1873.
I add, by way of footnotes to this part of the case, that the appeals with which we are concerned are from decisions of disciplinary tribunals of the Inns of Court, not from decisions of the benchers of Lincoln’s Inn. Nothing turns on this. The history of the setting up of these tribunals was considered in Re S (a barrister) [1981] 2 All ER 952, [1981] QB 683, and I need say no more about this modern procedural development. Nor need I consider the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990. It was common ground before us that nothing in that Act affects the issues before us.
Judicial review: Page’s case
Thus far I have concluded that the jurisdiction of the twelve judges as visitors of an Inn of Court became vested in all the judges of the new High Court under the 1873 Act. I turn next to consider whether a barrister has any remedy available to him in respect of decisions of the judges sitting in exercise of this visitorial jurisdiction. Miss Calder and Mr Persaud contended that, if the effect of the 1873 Act were as just stated, the judges’ visitorial decisions are susceptible to judicial review. Judicial review is notoriously an expanding jurisdiction, and there is a sufficient public element in these decisions on disciplinary matters for them to be subject to the supervisory jurisdiction of the courts.
On this part of the case we have the benefit of the very recent decision of the House of Lords in Page v Hull University Visitor [1993] 1 All ER 97, [1992] 3 WLR 1112. Mr Page, a lecturer in the department of philosophy in the University of Hull, was dismissed on the grounds of redundancy. He claimed that the statutes of the university gave him security of tenure, terminable only for good cause. Good cause did not exist in his case. Mr Page petitioned the visitor for a declaration that his purported dismissal was ultra vires and of no effect. The visitor to the university was the Queen, and the petition was considered by the Lord President of the Council on behalf of Her Majesty. He sought advice from Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle, who advised that on the proper interpretation of the statutes the dismissal was intra vires and valid. On that advice the petition was dismissed by the visitor. Mr Page applied for judicial review of that decision. By a majority their Lordships held that the court had no jurisdiction to entertain the application for judicial review of the visitor’s decision in that case. All their Lordships were of the view that, in any event, Lord Jauncey’s advice was correct.
The leading speech, with which Lord Keith of Kinkel and Lord Griffiths agreed, was delivered by Lord Browne-Wilkinson. He observed that the fundamental principle of judicial review is that the courts will intervene to ensure that the powers of public decision-making bodies are exercised lawfully. This intervention is based on the proposition that the decision-maker has been given these powers on the underlying assumption that they are to be exercised only within the jurisdiction conferred, in accordance with fair procedures and, in a Wednesbury sense, reasonable (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223). Further, since Parliament was to be taken to have conferred the decision-making power on the footing that it was to be exercised on the correct legal basis, a misdirection in law in making
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the decision will render the decision ultra vires. Accordingly, in general any error of law made by an administrative tribunal or inferior court in reaching its decision can be set aside (quashed) for error of law.
That is the underlying principle. Lord Browne-Wilkinson then explained why the general rule, on setting aside decisions affected by errors of law, does not apply in the case of visitors. There are two reasons. First, the visitor applies not the general law of the land, but ‘a peculiar domestic law of which he is the sole arbiter and of which the courts have no cognisance’. He said ([1993] 1 All ER 97 at 108, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1124):
‘If the visitor has power under the regulating documents to enter into the adjudication of the dispute (ie is acting within his jurisdiction in the narrow sense) he cannot err in law in reaching this decision since the general law is not the applicable law. Therefore he cannot be acting ultra vires and unlawfully by applying his view of the domestic law in reaching his decision. The court has no jurisdiction either to say that he erred in his application of the general law (since the general law is not applicable to the decision) or to reach a contrary view as to the effect of the domestic law (since the visitor is the sole judge of such domestic law).’
The second reason, closely allied to the first, is that statute may provide for the decision of an inferior court to be final and conclusive, thereby excluding the jurisdiction of the High Court to review it. Lord Browne-Wilkinson said ([1993] All ER 97 at 109, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1124–1125):
‘… if there were a statutory provision that the decision of a visitor on the law applicable to internal disputes of a charity was to be “final and conclusive”, courts would have no jurisdiction to review the visitor’s decision on the grounds of error of law made by the visitor within his jurisdiction (in the narrow sense) … I can see no relevant distinction between a case where a statute has conferred such final and conclusive jurisdiction and the case where the common law has for 300 years recognised that the visitor’s decision on questions of fact and law are final and conclusive and are not to be reviewed by the courts. Accordingly, unless this House is prepared to sweep away long-established law, there is no jurisdiction in the court to review a visitor’s decision for error of law committed within his jurisdiction.’
Lord Browne-Wilkinson then gave reasons why the House should not sweep away the long-established law, even though the position of visitors was anomalous ([1993] 1 All ER 97 at 109, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1125):
‘It is not only modern universities which have visitors: there are a substantial number of other long-established educational, ecclesiastical and eleemosynary bodies which have visitors. The advantages of having an informal system which produces a speedy, cheap and final answer to internal disputes has been repeatedly emphasised in the authorities … If it were to be held that judicial review for error of law lay against the visitor I fear that, as in the present case, finality would be lost not only in cases raising pure questions of law but also in cases where it would be urged in accordance with the Wednesbury principle that the visitor had failed to take into account relevant matters or taken into account irrelevant matters or had reached an irrational conclusion. Although the visitor’s position is anomalous, it provides a valuable machinery for resolving internal disputes which should not be lost.’
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Lord Griffiths’s speech was to the same effect. He observed that to admit challenges to the visitor’s decision, by way of judicial review, on the grounds of error of law ‘will in practice prove to be the introduction of an appeal by another name’ (see [1993] 1 All ER 97 at 101, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1116).
In my view the principle enunciated by the House of Lords regarding the finality of the visitorial jurisdiction is applicable to visitors of the Inns of Court. I have already noted that an Inn of Court is not a corporation, it does not have statutes, nor does it have a founder who nominated a visitor to hear and determine internal disputes. Nevertheless, the first of Lord Browne-Wilkinson’s two reasons is as applicable to the Inns of Court as it is to the statutes of a charitable corporation. Lord Mansfield CJ, in the extract from his judgment set out above, made the point that when acting as visitors the judges do not proceed ‘according to the general law of the land’: they act ‘as in a domestic forum’. When sitting now as visitors on disciplinary matters, the judges are interpreting and applying the Bar’s Code of Conduct.
Having said this, I hasten to add that I find the distinction between a peculiar domestic law and the general law artificial and unattractive. So did Lord Browne-Wilkinson. But on this what matters for present purposes is that, in so far as this first reason can still be regarded as having any validity, it is not a ground for distinguishing the Inns of Court from charitable corporations.
As to Lord Browne-Wilkinson’s second reason, as with visitors in general, so with visitors to the Inns of Court, the courts have never exercised a supervisory control over their decisions, on questions of fact or law, on issues which fall for determination within their jurisdiction. I recognise that, unlike with visitors in general, in the case of visitors to the Inns of Court the point has never come before the court for determination. The reported decisions were concerned with whether the courts had any jurisdiction over matters which had been the subject of decision by benchers of the Inns. As already noted the long-established law is that the remedy is by way of appeal to the judges sitting as visitors. Whether the courts have any jurisdiction to exercise control over decisions of the judges as visitors is not a matter which seems ever to have been raised. I think it is fair to draw the inference that for long it has been assumed on all sides that decisions of the judges as visitors were final. Occasionally this assumption was stated expressly. For instance in Re S (a barrister) [1969] 1 All ER 949 at 952, [1970] 1 QB 160 at 166 Paull J observed that the decision on an appeal to the judges as visitors ‘has always been the final determination of such matter’. I suspect the reason for this assumption is probably connected with the identity of the decision-making body. The idea that the court should have a right to review a decision of all ‘the judges’ seems, at first sight, to be something of a nonsense. This is a point to which I shall have to return. For the moment it is sufficient to note that the courts never have exercised a supervisory jurisdiction over decisions of the visitors of the Inns.
That being so, and given further that the reason why the House of Lords was unwilling to sweep away the established law relating to visitors generally applies equally to visitors to the Inns of Court, in my view the decision in Page’s case is applicable here despite the differences between charitable corporations and the Inns of Court.
Counsel were united in urging us that the restrictive approach adopted in Page’s case was anomalous, and that the ambit of the decision should not be extended. We were referred to ss 41 and 42 of the Administration of Justice Act 1985 as amended, whereunder the Bar’s disciplinary code is given statutory force in relation to legal aid complaints. Fees otherwise payable to a barrister may be reduced or cancelled, and a barrister may be excluded from legal aid work.
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Further, the Bar’s Code of Conduct has become part of the statutory system of control of rights of audience, under the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990. Thus the disciplinary code in relation to barristers has public functions, not present in the case of the statutes and ordinances of universities or other charitable corporations.
I do not find in these arguments a sound reason for distinguishing the decision in Page’s case. A university professor or lecturer who loses his job and his professional reputation has only the limited recourse to the courts marked out by the House of Lords in Page’s case. I can see no compelling reason why the law should look more tenderly on a disciplined barrister. .University staff and barristers alike have a right of appeal, by the long-established route, to the respective visitors. In the case of barristers, the visitors are persons holding high judicial office. The House of Lords has held that present day conditions do not require that a professor or lecturer should have the right to challenge through the courts a decision made on a question of law by a visitor acting within his jurisdiction. I do not see how present day conditions can be said to require otherwise in the case of a barrister.
Judicial review: the limits of Page’s case
Although judicial review does not lie to impeach a decision of a visitor taken within his jurisdiction, that does not mean visitors’ decisions are in all circumstances immune from judicial review. For instance, if a visitor purports to hear a dispute which does not fall within his jurisdiction he may be restrained from proceeding: the court will make an order of prohibition. If a visitor declines to exercise his jurisdiction, the court will make an order of mandamus requiring him to proceed. In Page’s case [1993] 1 All ER 97 at 109, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1125 Lord Browne-Wilkinson summarised the position in this way:
‘Judicial review does lie to the visitor in cases where he has acted outside his jurisdiction (in the narrow sense) or abused his powers or acted in breach of the rules of natural justice.’
So the next question I must address is whether this limited judicial review jurisdiction, as I shall call it, is applicable to the judges as visitors to the Inns of Court. In my view it is. But for the fact that the visitors are judges of the High Court there really could be no room for doubt. The reasons which result in the limited judicial review jurisdiction being available in respect of visitors generally must be equally applicable to visitors to the Inns of Court. Further, the mere fact that the visitors are judges does not point to a different conclusion. There is no reason in principle why a High Court judge should not make an order against another judge, from the Lord Chancellor downwards, in respect of decisions made when not acting in a judicial capacity. I have already been at pains to stress that when sitting as visitors to the Inns of Court the judges are not sitting as judges. They are exercising a different jurisdiction; they are sitting as visitors. It is for that very reason that the visitorial jurisdiction did not pass to the High Court in 1873. But, on that footing, the fact that the Inns’ visitors are judges is neither here nor there. The decisions sought to be judicially reviewed are not decisions of judges as such, even though it is by virtue of their judicial office that they hold office as visitors.
Thus far there is no particular difficulty. But in one material respect the judges’ visitorial jurisdiction in relation to the Inns of Court is remarkable and unique: the visitors comprise all the judges of the High Court. Hence the question: how can one judge, sitting as a Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division, make
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an order against all the judges, of whom he is one, compelling them to proceed, or prohibiting them from dealing with a matter outside their jurisdiction?
I am reluctant to find that there is here a problem which excludes the limited judicial review jurisdiction if otherwise it would be available. I am not attracted by a conclusion which would leave a member of an Inn of Court worse off in terms of remedies because the visitors are all the judges than he or she would be if the visitors were a more restricted class of persons. In my view there is more than one answer to this point. First, on a somewhat technical level, as a matter of law the jurisdiction of a High Court judge can be exercised by persons who are not currently puisne judges of the High Court. The persons who may act in this way include judges of the Court of Appeal, former puisne judges of the High Court and of the Court of Appeal, circuit judges and recorders (see s 9(1) of the 1981 Act). Further, the Lord Chancellor may, as a temporary measure, appoint a person qualified for appointment as a puisne judge of the High Court to be a deputy judge of the High Court (s 9(2)). So, if necessary, means exist for the judicial review application to be heard by a judge other than one who, by virtue of his office as a judge of the High Court, is himself a visitor of the Inns of Court.
Secondly, and in my view more fundamentally and importantly, the difficulty is more theoretical than real. The procedure of appeals to the visitors is governed now by rules made by the visitors, currently the Hearings before the Visitors Rules 1991. These rules make provision for the service of a petition of appeal and other documents on the Lord Chief Justice, and for an appeal to be heard by a judge or judges to be nominated by him. Thus in practice an application invoking the limited judicial review jurisdiction can and will be made against the particular judges who are hearing or have heard the appeal or who have been nominated to hear it. If the complaint lies in the failure of the Lord Chief Justice to nominate a judge or judges, the application will be made against the Lord Chief Justice. If relief is called for, the orders will be made against those judges, not the whole body of judges of the High Court.
The final point I must note is that hitherto the courts have never exercised even the limited judicial review jurisdiction over decisions of visitors of the Inns of Court. To that extent the conclusion I have expressed breaks fresh ground. However, I do not think this consideration should deter the court from upholding the existence of this jurisdiction, given that it exists in the case of visitors generally. Novelty is not ground the courts should fear to tread, in this or any other appropriate case.
Conclusion: Miss Calder’s case
I turn to apply these principles regarding jurisdiction to the two cases before us. The background facts concerning Miss Calder’s appeal are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ. Miss Calder has advanced four grounds of appeal. By the first two she asserts that she did not have a fair hearing (natural justice) before the disciplinary tribunal. By reason of the professional closeness of the chairman to the complainant, himself a principal witness, the chairman was disqualified from sitting on the disciplinary tribunal, and Miss Calder cannot be taken to have waived her right to object on this ground having regard to observations made by the chairman at the outset. In my view these two grounds of appeal do not fall within the limited judicial review jurisdiction. Whether Miss Calder had a fair hearing before the disciplinary tribunal was an issue within the visitors’ jurisdiction. They addressed this issue and decided it. The correctness of their decision is not amenable to judicial review.
For the same reason Miss Calder’s third ground of appeal must fail. Whether
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there was any evidence, worthy of the name, before the disciplinary tribunal of an intention by Miss Calder to deceive the court or the witness or anyone else was, again, an issue within the visitors’ jurisdiction. The court has no jurisdiction to review the correctness of the visitors’ decision on this point.
There remains Miss Calder’s fourth ground of appeal: that the visitors misunderstood their role. She contends that the visitors were sitting as an appellate tribunal, not (as they seem to have thought) as a reviewing tribunal, and hence they failed fully and properly to carry out their duties as visitors. As to this, first, I can see no reason to doubt that an appeal to the judges as visitors is precisely that: an appeal. It is so described in the authorities. In Lincoln v Daniels [1961] 3 All ER 740 at 748, [1962] 1 QB 237 at 256 Devlin LJ referred to it as ‘a re-hearing on appeal’. Thus the visitors will look afresh at the matters in dispute and form their own views. The procedure followed in the conduct of such an appeal is a matter for the visitors. The current visitors’ rules provide that fresh evidence will be admissible only in exceptional circumstances. In the absence of fresh evidence the appeal will be comparable to an appeal in the Civil Division of the Court of Appeal. Regarding sentence, it will be for the visitors to exercise their own discretion and judgment.
Second, I am in no doubt that if visitors conduct, not an appeal of this nature, but a review of the disciplinary tribunal’s findings and decision comparable to that undertaken by the court by way of judicial review of decisions of inferior courts or tribunals, then the visitors’ decision is amenable to judicial review. In that event the visitors’ decision falls within the limited judicial review jurisdiction retained by the court over decisions of visitors. In that event the visitors have seriously misapprehended their function. The appellant has not had the benefit, to which she is entitled, of the visitors considering whether the charge, to the requisite standard of proof, has been made out to their satisfaction.
Did the visitors misapprehend their function in this case? Having read and reread their decision I think there are some indications that they did. I think they may well have been led astray, unwittingly, by the form of the submissions made to them (‘the evidence did not support the findings made by the tribunal’, ‘the tribunal was not entitled to draw the inference of dishonesty’). Accordingly, I would allow the appeal in Miss Calder’s case, and quash the decision of the visitors.
Conclusion: Mr Persaud’s case
In Mr Persaud’s case the facts were not investigated before us. His application for judicial review was rejected by the Divisional Court on the preliminary point concerning jurisdiction. I would allow his appeal, and remit the proceedings to the Divisional Court to proceed to hear and determine his judicial review application in accordance with the principles set out in the judgments of this court.
STUART-SMITH LJ. The question raised in these appeals is whether any, and if so what, appeal or review lies from the judges of the High Court sitting as visitors of the Inns of Court on matters of discipline of members of the Bar. There are three alternatives. First, that an appeal lies to the Court of Appeal; that was the decision of the Divisional Court and it is supported in this court by Mr Collins QC for the Bar Council and, subject to one qualification, by Mr Beloff QC for Miss Calder. Secondly, that the visitors are amenable to judicial review; that is the submission made by Mr Carnwath QC as amicus curiae; it is the submission of Mr Persaud and is the alternative submission made on behalf of Miss Calder.
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Thirdly, that the decision of the visitors is neither appealable nor amenable to judicial review.
The answer to the question depends upon the proper construction of ss 12 and 16 of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873; but before turning to those sections, it is necessary to consider the nature of the judges’ jurisdiction as visitors before the passing of that Act. The Divisional Court, after a scholarly review of the earlier authorities, held that although it had gone unnoticed for 119 years the jurisdiction of the judges as visitors, in so far as it related to the fitness of persons to become or remain barristers, was a jurisdiction which before 1873 was vested in the judges of the three common law courts, sitting elsewhere than in court or chambers, when acting as judges, in pursuance of custom; this was their inherent jurisdiction as judges of those courts to decide who was a fit and proper person to appear before them. .
The Inns of Court are voluntary-societies, free to choose who their members should be. Those members whom the benchers of the Inn considered properly qualified were in due course called to the Bar of the Inn. For many centuries the judges recognised those who had been so called as fit and proper persons to appear before them in the courts. This did not apply to the Court of Common Pleas, before whom only serjeants could appear. From time to time disputes arose between members of the Inn and the benchers; these might relate to property, manners or fitness to be called to or remain at the Bar. These disputes were referred to the judges to resolve. On appointment to the Bench the common law judges had to leave their Inns; they became serjeants and were sometimes known as judges of the coif, because of the distinctive headgear of the serjeants. The disputes were referred to the judges of the House, that is to say, those who had been members of the Inn prior to their appointment. They dealt with the matter internally, somewhat in the manner of arbitrators.
By the beginning of the eighteenth century they not infrequently consulted with their brethren who had been members of other Inns, probably for the sake of uniformity. In Rakestraw v Brewer (1728) 2 P Wms 511, 24 ER 839, a case involving a property dispute relating to chambers in Gray’s Inn, Sir Phillip Yorke A-G, who later became Lord Hardwicke, said that the plaintiff should apply to the Bench, and if not redressed there, then to the judges of the society; that is to say the judges who had previously been members of Gray’s Inn.
The first recorded case of a disciplinary appeal direct to all the common law judges is Savage’s Case (1776 cited in 1 Doug KB at 355, 99 ER 228). In R v Gray’s Inn (1780) 1 Doug 353 at 354–355, 99 ER 227 at 227–228 Lord Mansfield CJ stated the law as follows:
‘We have consulted the other Judges on the subject of this application, and I am prepared to state the result. The original institution of the Inns of Court no where precisely appears, but it is certain that they are not corporations, and have no constitution by charters from the Crown. They are voluntary societies, which, for ages, have submitted to government analogous to that of other seminaries of learning. But all the power they have concerning the admission to the bar, is delegated to them from the Judges, and, in every instance, their conduct is subject to their control as visitors … From the first traces of their existence to this day, no example can be found of an interposition by the courts of Westminster Hall proceeding according to the general law of the land; but the Judges have acted as in a domestic forum they [the Inns] are voluntary societies submitting to government, and the ancient and usual way of redress [for any grievance in the Inns of Court] is by appeal to the Judges.’
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Professor Baker, to whom I am much indebted for his interesting article, ‘Judicial review of the judges as visitors to the Inns of Court’ [1992] PL 411, doubts whether Lord Mansfield CJ was correct in stating that the power was delegated to the Inns by the judges. There is certainly no trace as to how, when and where this delegation took place, if it did; and it does not seem consistent with the role of the judges of the House acting as visitors.
Cunningham v Wegg (1787) 2 Bro CC 241, 29 ER 134 was a dispute concerning property within Gray’s Inn; no distinction was drawn between the visitorial jurisdiction of the judges in relation to discipline as opposed to property. In his short judgment Lord Thurlow LC said (2 Bro CC 241 at 242, 29 ER 134 at 135):
‘There is no instance of a suit, either relative to the discipline, or the property of chambers, in an Inn of Court. The defendants say … they are liable to the jurisdiction of the Judges. It is a claim among persons having privilege; therefore, this is not the proper jurisdiction.’
In R v Lincoln’s Inn Benchers (1825) 4 B & C 855, 107 ER 1277 it was held that the judges as visitors had jurisdiction over admitted members of the Inns, but not those seeking admission. Manisty v Kenealy (1876) 24 WR 918 is an important case because it is the first decision after the coming into force of the 1873 Act. The benchers of Gray’s Inn brought an action against the defendant, who had been a bencher of the Inn and a trustee of its land, but who had been disbarred and disbenched, to compel him to reconvey the land to new trustees. By his defence the defendant claimed that the benchers in disbarring and disbenching him had been activated by malice, and what they had done was without legal effect. The plaintiffs demurred to this defence. Counsel on their behalf submitted that—
‘the Inns of Court were private voluntary societies, and that the decisions of their respective governing bodies in all matters relating to the admission, disbenching, disbarring and expulsion of members were final and conclusive, unless reversed on appeal to the Lord Chancellor and other judges of the Supreme Court as visitors, and the various courts now consolidated into the High Court of Justice had no jurisdiction in respect of such matters.’ (See at 919.)
This submission was accepted by Hall V-C, who held he was not competent to try the issue raised in the defence.
If the purpose of the visitorial function had been to control admission to practice by the judges acting as such, one would expect that the judges of the Common Pleas would have been excluded as visitors, since barristers had no right of audience in that court. Conversely the senior judges of the Chancery Court might have been included, since barristers appeared before them; but they were not. The Attorney General, Sir John Campbell QC, in Report of proceedings in relation to warrant for suppression of antient privileges of Serjeants at Law (1840, reported by Serjeant Manning) argued that barristers had a right of audience in the Court of Common Pleas and this was not confined to serjeants. He submitted (at 139):
‘The judges of the Common Pleas are supposed to join with the other judges, in calling students to the bar. The benchers of the inns of court, are only the agents of the judges in calling to the bar. It is a power committed to them by the judges, a power which the judges may resume. There is an appeal from the opinion of the benchers to the judges. Upon that appeal, the
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judges of the Common Pleas sit, just as well as the judges of the Exchequer and the King’s Bench; and they sit there, because they are supposed to have called the party to the bar.’
Lord Abinger’s comment was that the judges might equally well sit upon the regulation of the benchers as visitors. Sir John Campbell submitted that they were not in the nature of visitors. The Divisional Court relied upon Sir John Campbell’s opinion; but it was not accepted by the Privy Council, and it appears to me to be the only dissenting voice in a long line of authority.
By the 1873 Act a number of named courts, including the Court of Queen’s Bench, the Court of Common Pleas at Westminster and the Court of Exchequer, whose judges had sat as visitors to the Inns of Court, were united and consolidated together to form the Supreme Court of Judicature, which was to consist of two divisions, the High Court of Justice and the Court of Appeal (ss 1 and 2). By s 16 there was ‘transferred to and vested in the said High Court of Justice the jurisdiction which, at the commencement of this Act, was vested in, or capable of being exercised by, all or any of’ eleven named courts, including those to which I have just referred.
The crucial part of s 16 is as follows:
‘… The jurisdiction by this Act transferred to the High Court of Justice shall include (subject to the exceptions herein-after contained) the jurisdiction which, at the commencement of this Act, was vested in, or capable of being exercised by, all or any one or more of the Judges of the said Courts, respectively, sitting in Court or Chambers, or elsewhere, when acting as Judges or a Judge, in pursuance of any statute, law, or custom, and all powers given to any such Court, or to any such Judges or Judge, by any statute; and also all ministerial powers, duties, and authorities, incident to any and every part of the jurisdictions so transferred.’
It was submitted by Mr Collins and accepted by the Divisional Court that when sitting as visitors the judges were sitting elsewhere than in court or chambers and acting pursuant to custom. I do not agree. It is the jurisdiction of the named courts that is transferred to the High Court and the jurisdiction of the judges of those courts acting as such, no matter where they are sitting. The reference to custom is a reference to customary law, which is part of the law of England. All the cases to which I have referred draw a distinction between the judges acting as a court or as judges acting as visitors in a purely domestic tribunal applying the domestic rules of the profession in which they are expert. This distinction has been adverted to in the more recent cases: see for example per Danckwerts LJ in Lincoln v Daniels [1961] 3 All ER 740 at 754, [1962] 1 QB 237 at 265:
‘In all matters concerning disciplinary measures the Benchers are outside the jurisdiction of the ordinary courts, but their decisions are subject to an appeal to the Lord Chancellor and the judges of the High Court of Justice sitting as a domestic tribunal.’
Again in Re S (a barrister) [1981] 2 All ER 952 at 953, [1981] QB 683 at 685 Vinelott, McNeill and Anthony Lincoln JJ sitting as visitors emphasised that they were not sitting as a court of law.
In my judgment s 12 of the 1873 Act is the appropriate section by which the exercise of the visitorial powers formerly exercised by the judges of the common law courts was transferred to the judges of the High Court. It provides as follows:
‘If, in any case not expressly provided for by this Act, a liability to any duty, or any authority or power, not incident to the administration of justice
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in any Court, whose jurisdiction is transferred by this Act to the High Court of Justice, shall have been imposed or conferred by any statute, law, or custom upon the Judges or any Judge of any of such Courts, save as herein-after mentioned, every Judge of the said High Court shall be capable of performing and exercising, and shall be liable to perform and empowered to exercise every such duty, authority, and power, in the same manner as if this Act had not passed, and as if he had been duly appointed the successor of a Judge liable to such duty, or possessing such authority or power, before the passing of this Act …’
The Divisional Court considered that since the judges were effectively exercising their own power to decide who should appear before them in any court, the phrase, ‘not incident to the administration of justice in any Court, whose jurisdiction is transferred by this Act to the High Court’, could not refer to such power. In my opinion this is to give too wide a meaning to this phrase; but in any event if the jurisdiction of the visitors is correctly understood as being that of a domestic tribunal, the phrase is entirely apt to apply to it.
The effect of ss 12 and 16 of the 1873 Act were effectively re-enacted in ss 18(3) and 34(1) of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925 and ss 44 and 19(2)(b) of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
If the decision of the Divisional Court was correct it would have some startling consequences. Thus the Hearings before the Visitors Rules 1991 would have been inappropriate; decisions of the visitors should have been governed by the Rules of the Supreme Court: see RSC Ord 1, r 2. Since the Supreme Court Act 1981, if not earlier, hearings before three judges rather than one were a nullity: s 19(3) and Re Fletcher (1984) Times, 12 June. Hearings should have been in public: s 67 of the 1981 Act. There was a hitherto undiscovered right of appeal to the Court of Appeal and with leave to the House of Lords: s 16 of the 1981 Act. Proceedings before the visitors should have been conducted as hearings of the High Court as a court of record: s 19(1). In practice the only record has been a letter to the benchers of the Inn of Court and now to the Council of the Inns of Court.
These anomalies show, in my judgment, that it has been the common understanding of the legislature, the judges and the profession that in exercising their visitorial functions the judges are not acting as judges of the High Court, but as a domestic tribunal of the profession.
Is the decision of the judges acting as visitors judicially reviewable? Statements of the principle are to be found in the judgment of Lord Parker CJ in R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p Lain [1967] 2 All ER 770 at 778, [1967] 2 QB 864 at 882. Referring to the scope of the prerogative writs he said:
‘They have varied from time to time, being extended to meet changing conditions. At one time the writ only went to an inferior court. Later its ambit was extended to statutory tribunals determining a lis inter partes. Later again it extended to cases where there was no lis in the strict sense of the word, but where immediate or subsequent rights of a citizen were affected. The only constant limits throughout were that … it was performing a public duty. Private or domestic tribunals have always been outside the scope of certiorari since their authority is derived solely from contract, that is from the agreement of the parties concerned … We have, as it seems to me, reached the position when the ambit of certiorari can be said to cover every case in which a body of persons, of a public as opposed to a purely private or domestic character, has to determine matters affecting subjects provided always that it has a duty to act judicially. Looked at in this way the board in my judgment comes fairly and squarely within the jurisdiction of this court.
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The board are, as counsel for the board said, “a servant of the Crown charged by the Crown, by executive instruction, with the duty of distributing the bounty of the Crown”. The board are clearly, therefore, performing public duties.’
In R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564 at 577, [1987] QB 815 at 838 Donaldson MR said:
‘In all the reports it is possible to find enumerations of factors giving rise to the jurisdiction, but it is a fatal error to regard the presence of all those factors as essential or as being exclusive of other factors. Possibly the only essential elements are what can be described as a public element, which can take many different forms, and the exclusion from the jurisdiction of bodies whose sole source of power is a consensual submission to its jurisdiction.’
Although in my judgment the Code of Conduct of the Bar can properly be described as domestic law, inasmuch as it applies only to members of that profession and not the general public, it is not based on contract and it clearly has a sufficient public element. In addition it has statutory recognition; thus for example the disciplinary code is given statutory force in relation to legal aid complaints by ss 40 to 42 of the Administration of Justice Act 1985 (inserted by s 33 of the Legal Aid Act 1988). Under the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 the code becomes part of the statutory system of control of rights of audience (see for example s 17—criteria for rights of audience; s 27—rights of audience depend upon rights granted by an ‘appropriate authorised body’ whose ‘qualification regulations’ and ‘rules of conduct’ have been approved; s 31—the General Council of the Bar is ‘deemed to have in force’ qualification regulations and rules of conduct which have been properly approved). This forms a system of statutory underpinning of the code.
The fact that the tribunal consists of one or more High Court judges does not prevent its decisions being judicially reviewable, so long as they are not acting as such: see Smalley v Crown Court at Warwick [1985] 1 All ER 769, [1985] AC 622, a case of a High Court judge sitting in the Crown Court, and R v Central Criminal Court, ex p Spens (1992) Independent, 1 December.
A theoretical difficulty exists in the fact that at any rate from the late eighteenth century until 1873 the jurisdiction of the visitors was said to be exercised by the twelve judges of the common law courts; it is difficult to see therefore how the Court of King’s Bench could have issued prerogative writs against themselves and the judges of the Common Pleas and Barons of the Exchequer. But in my opinion we should not be bound by historical precedent, which in any event only arose during the eighteenth century. Judicial review has greatly extended its scope in the past 40 years; since 1873 the visitorial jurisdiction had not been exercised by all the judges, the number varying from time to time from seven to five to three. I can see no reason in principle why the decisions of the judges as visitors should not be judicially reviewable, and the recent decision of the House of Lords in Page v Hull University Visitor [1993] 1 All ER 97, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 shows that decisions of visitors are amenable to this jurisdiction.
But what is the scope of this review? In Page’s case the majority of their Lordships held that it was a limited jurisdiction and did not extend to errors of law committed by the visitor within his jurisdiction. All counsel before us urged that we should distinguish Page’s case and not restrict the scope of judicial review of the judges acting as visitors in a similar way. I have not found the point at all easy. The context of Page’s case is that the visitor was to the University of Hull,
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which is an eleemosynary corporation, that is to say a charitable institution; such institutions are founded by a benefactor who appoints a visitor to resolve domestic disputes involving the institution and its members and the decision of the visitor on fact and law within his jurisdiction is final. The Inns of Court are not eleemosynary corporations: they are voluntary societies some of whose activities, such as education, are charitable; but some are not, including call to the Bar and disciplining of barristers. Despite this difference I have found it difficult to distinguish the position of judges as visitors from that of visitors to such corporations.
In Page’s case [1993] 1 All ER 97 at 100, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1115–1116 Lord Griffiths said:
‘The common law has ever since the decision in Philips v Bury (1694) Holt KB 715, 90 ER 1294 recognised that the visitor acting as a judge has exclusive jurisdiction and that his decision is final in all matters within his jurisdiction. The common law courts have through three centuries consistently resisted all attempts to appeal decisions of the visitor. The courts have however been prepared to confine the visitor to his proper role as a judge of the internal affairs of the foundation by the use of the writs of prohibition and mandamus … For three centuries the common law courts have recognised the value of the visitor acting as the judge of the internal laws of the foundation and have refused to trespass upon his territory. I do not believe that it would be right to reverse this long line of authority and declare that certiorari should now lie to reverse the decision of a visitor on a question of law. The value of the visitorial jurisdiction is that it is swift, cheap and final. These benefits will be largely dissipated if the visitor’s decision can be challenged by way of judicial review.’
Lord Browne-Wilkinson, with whose speech Lord Keith of Kinkel agreed, after reviewing the authorities said ([1993] 1 All ER 97 at 104, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1119):
‘The decision of Holt CJ in Philips v Bury is the locus classicus of the law of visitors. It has been repeatedly applied for the last 300 years, most recently in Thomas v University of Bradford [1987] 1 All ER 834, [1987] AC 795. For present purposes it is important for three reasons. (1) It shows that the court can and will inquire whether the visitor has jurisdiction to determine the question, ie to enter into the matter. (2) If the visitor has such jurisdiction, the court has no power to ignore it or review it by way of mandamus or in any other way. (3) The reason for such lack of jurisdiction to review in the court is that an eleemosynary corporation is governed by a system of private law which is not of “the common known laws of the kingdom” but the particular laws and constitutions assigned by the founder.’
Lord Browne-Wilkinson gives the reason why the courts will not intervene. He said ([1993] 1 All ER 97 at 106, 108, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1121–1122, 1124):
‘This inability of the court to intervene is founded on the fact that the applicable law is not the common law of England but a peculiar or domestic law of which the visitor is the sole judge. This special status of a visitor springs from the common law recognising the right of the founder to lay down such a special law subject to adjudication only by a special judge, the visitor … But the position of decisions made by a visitor is different. As the authorities which I have cited demonstrate, the visitor is applying not the
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general law of the land but a peculiar, domestic law of which he is the sole arbiter and of which the courts have no cognisance. If the visitor has power under the regulating documents to enter into the adjudication of the dispute (ie is acting within his jurisdiction in the narrow sense) he cannot err in law in reaching this decision since the general law is not the applicable law. Therefore he cannot be acting ultra vires and unlawfully by applying his view of the domestic law in reaching his decision. The court has no jurisdiction either to say that he erred in his application of the general law (since the general law is not applicable to the decision) or to reach a contrary view as to the effect of the domestic law (since the visitor is the sole judge of such domestic law).’
It was submitted to us by counsel that the judges when exercising their visitorial jurisdiction were not applying domestic law, but the general law. I do not agree. In my judgment it is one of the important reasons why their jurisdiction did not pass under s 16 of the 1873 Act, but rather under s 12, that they are not exercising the general law applicable to all subjects, but the special domestic law applicable only to barristers. However the mere fact that the tribunal is applying domestic law in this sense cannot be enough. If it was, then any tribunal applying a code which only applied to certain persons, for example the Take-over Code, would fall within this category. The other essential element, in my judgment, is that the visitor is expressly or impliedly to be the sole judge of fact and law within his jurisdiction. In the case of a visitor appointed by the founder of an eleemosynary corporation this is so, whether or not the statutes expressly say so.
I can see no difference in principle where the judges are acting as visitors; it has been assumed for centuries that the appeal to the judges on fact and law was final. Nor can I see any considerations of policy which should cause us to take a different view and strain to distinguish Page’s case, even though Lord Browne-Wilkinson recognised that in this respect the position of a visitor was anomalous (see [1993] 1 All ER 97 at 109, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1125). It would, as Mr Carnwath recognised in his original submissions, be somewhat anomalous for a single judge (or perhaps two or three) to review the decision of three on points of law within their jurisdiction. While it is true that the consequences of disbarment may be much more serious than the loss of a particular employment by a university or other corporation, the system of trial and appeal for a member of the Bar is at least as comprehensive as that applicable to those charged with serious criminal offences, subject only to the limited right of appeal in such cases to the House of Lords. I say at least as comprehensive since although it is not trial by jury, the disciplinary tribunal consists of five members, including a lay member, and for reasons which I shall later develop there is an appeal by way of rehearing before the visitors, both tribunals applying the criminal standard of proof.
Accordingly, in my judgment the scope of judicial review of the judges acting as visitors is limited in the way described by the majority of their Lordships in Page’s case.
All counsel submitted that if we concluded that the decision of the visitors was amenable to judicial review, this court should determine Miss Calder’s application on its merits, though Mr Beloff’s primary submission was that we should remit the case to the Divisional Court for that purpose. I can see neither need nor advantage in remitting the case to the Divisional Court. They decided they had no jurisdiction to hear the application on its merits, it was therefore not necessary for them to do so; but the decision as a whole, and not just the jurisdictional
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point, is the subject of appeal to this court. It would be an intolerable burden in time and expense to remit the case to that court when we are fully seised of the arguments on the merits, which were addressed to us on the basis that Miss Calder enjoyed a right of appeal from the visitor’s decision. However, in the light of the conclusion that the scope of such review is limited, it is necessary to consider not only the merits of the grounds, but whether those grounds fall within that limited scope.
There were four grounds advanced in support of the application for judicial review. (1) There was a breach of natural justice by the disciplinary tribunal in that the chairman was a colleague of the complainant and main prosecution witness. (2) The appellant and her counsel had not waived this breach of natural justice. (3) There was no evidence (a) that Miss Calder had misled the court or (b) that she had had an intention to do so. In relation to each of these matters it is said that the visitors erred in law in failing to uphold the appellant’s contentions. (4) The visitors misdirected themselves as to the nature of their jurisdiction in that they treated the matter as one of review and not appeal by way of rehearing on the merits.
Before dealing with these grounds it is necessary to set out in some detail the factual background to the prosecution. Miss Calder was instructed by solicitors called Miles Griffiths Piercey & Co, through their managing clerk, Mr Smith, as counsel on behalf of the plaintiff, Mrs Greenlaw, in an action in the Clerkenwell County Court. The defendant was a Miss Hardy; her counsel was Mr Catchpole. The parties had previously been friends, but had fallen out. The dispute related to a car which had belonged to Mrs Greenlaw. Her case was that she was intending to retire and live in Spain and had agreed to sell a half share in the car to Miss Hardy for £800, to be paid when the latter sold her own car. It was a term of the agreement that Mrs Greenlaw should have exclusive use of the car during such time as she might be in England. She claimed that Miss Hardy had repudiated the agreement by taking the car into her exclusive possession in February 1988 and by not paying the £800. Miss Hardy’s case was that it was an outright sale in pursuance of which the car had been delivered to her and registered in her name and that the price of £800 was set off against money owed for secretarial and other services. It was common ground that the agreement was oral.
At the time this dispute arose in February 1988 Miss Hardy made a complaint to the police in an endeavour to persuade them that the car was hers and not Mrs Greenlaw’s. As a result of that complaint Mrs Greenlaw had been asked to attend the police station, which she did accompanied by Mr Smith and Miss Calder. Miss Calder was present by chance, since she was accompanying Mrs Greenlaw and Mr Smith back from some other court in which they had appeared in connection with some quite different case. In the course of the interview Pc Hopper, who had received Miss Hardy’s complaint, produced a photostat copy of what purported to be a receipt signed by Mrs Greenlaw. It was a remarkable document. It was a slip of paper about 8 in × 2 in and was in these terms:
‘I hope this will facilitate establishment of usage. Received in respect of work carried out the sum of £800 for Honda Civic DLX 998Y.
Yours faithfully,
[Mrs Greenlaw’s signature]
Mrs. K. Greenlaw
5/11/87.’
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Mrs Greenlaw, when she saw it, said it was a forgery. It certainly looked like it. The police would not surrender the copy. Pc Hopper said that Miss Hardy had retained the original. Mr Smith made a note of the contents of the document and Miss Calder looked at it. She too thought it was a forgery.
The case came on for trial on 3 April 1989 before Mr Platt sitting as an assistant recorder at Shoreditch County Court. There had been discovery and inspection, but the original ‘receipt’ had not been disclosed by Miss Hardy or her solicitors. The case was adjourned to 5 April. By the end of that day the plaintiff’s case was closed. It was adjourned to 17 April. Meanwhile efforts had been made by the plaintiff’s solicitors to trace Pc Hopper and the photostat copy of the receipt. Pc Hopper had left the police and was in Wales and the copy could not be traced. Mr Smith had not been present at court on 3 and 5 April, however he had a conference with Miss Calder on about 13 April and reminded her that he had a note of the contents of the receipt. By 16 April it was clear that neither Pc Hopper nor the photostat could be at court the next day. Miss Calder was extremely anxious to cross-examine Miss Hardy about the receipt. If Miss Hardy had tried to put forward a bogus receipt, it would clearly have a very damaging effect on her credibility and since there was a total absence of documentary evidence and no witnesses, this was of crucial importance. Miss Calder decided that in order to facilitate her cross-examination it would be more effective to show Miss Hardy a copy of the receipt which contained the peculiar language in which it was couched. Accordingly she typed out on a sheet of paper the words of the receipt and the date, though she omitted to include Mrs Greenlaw’s name. Next day at court Mrs Greenlaw saw the document and signed it. However, according to Miss Calder some milk was spilt on it and partly for this reason and partly because she wanted copies to be available to the judge and defence, she asked Mr Smith to make some photostat copies of it, which he did. The photostats were on A4 sheets, with the writing in the top left-hand corner.
The time came for Miss Calder to cross-examine. She first obtained an admission from Miss Hardy that she had not obtained a receipt for the £800 or services in lieu. She then produced a copy of the document she had made; it was shown briefly to Mr Catchpole and then handed to the witness. It was referred to in the disciplinary proceedings as ‘document A’. Miss Calder asked her, ‘Have you ever seen anything like this before?' The precise language is important. The defendant immediately admitted that she had. Her explanation was that Mrs Greenlaw had signed a blank piece of paper and told her to type in the words of the receipt, which she had duly done. She expressed surprise at document A, saying that on the original the typing was not all bunched up at the top of the page and that the original was not an A4 sheet but just a small slip. It is plain that in answer to cross-examination by Miss Calder she admitted that she had taken the original receipt to Holloway Police Station during the course of police inquiries about the alleged theft of the car and that the police had taken a photocopy, she retaining the original. She was asked about the extraordinary phrase ‘I hope this will facilitate establishment of usage’; and it was put to her that the original receipt was a forgery, which she denied. She said that she had given the original receipt to her solicitors and that they still had it. She said that she had been told by her solicitor that it was of no evidential value because Mrs Greenlaw had signed a blank sheet of paper.
The original receipt was then produced from the defendant’s solicitor’s file. It became known as ‘document B’. The representative of Miss Hardy’s solicitors was interposed to give evidence. He confirmed what he had told Miss Hardy about the evidential value of document B, giving that as the reason for its non-disclosure.
It is quite plain that he was wrong not to have disclosed it.
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It seems that at this stage the assistant recorder asked Miss Calder about the provenance of document A. She said that a photostat of the original receipt (document B) had been shown to her and Mr Smith when they attended the police station. She did not at that stage explain that document A was a copy she herself had made. From this moment onward document A played no further part in the trial for the obvious reason that the original document B had been produced. So it is that the assistant recorder never saw document A at all.
The case was not completed on 17 April and was adjourned to 21 April. During the adjourned period a number of things happened. First, Mrs Greenlaw traced a letter which she had written to the Haringey Borough Council about a planning matter; the letter had been typed by Miss Hardy. The last line of the letter, above Mrs Greenlaw’s signature was, ‘I hope this will facilitate establishment of usage.' Secondly, Miss Calder and Mr Smith were anxious if they could to have a handwriting expert examine the signature on document B, so they tried to get hold of it. They went to the defendant’s solicitors and spoke to the managing clerk; he did not have it; he was asked for a photocopy; he asked, did they not have a photocopy?; whereupon Miss Calder explained that document A was a copy made by her. They were given a photocopy.
The plaintiff’s advisers wanted to obtain an adjournment, so that the signature on document B could be tested. Miss Calder telephoned Mr Catchpole to tell him of this; she also asked him if he had the original of document B, he did not. She then explained to him that they had been to see the defendant’s solicitors, who had evidently thought document A was a photostat of document B. She explained to Mr Catchpole that it was not; it was a copy made by her. The plaintiff’s advisers did not succeed in getting hold of document B because it was on the file in the possession of the assistant recorder.
When the case came on again on 21 April Miss Calder’s application for an adjournment was refused. She then explained to the assistant recorder that document A had been made by her in the circumstances I have described. She did so because she thought he might have been under the same misapprehension as the defendant’s solicitor and Mr Catchpole; it seems that he had been. The case was concluded that day. The assistant recorder was not impressed by the attack on Miss Hardy’s credibility based on document B; he gave judgment for the defendant.
On 25 April 1989 he wrote a letter to the Professional Conduct Committee of the Bar Council, making a complaint of professional misconduct against Miss Calder. The nub of his complaint was that as a result of what had taken place on 17 April he was—
‘left with the clear impression at the end of that day’s hearing that the piece of paper Document “A” which Miss Calder had shown to the witness was either the original photocopy taken by the police or a further photocopy of that document.’
The matter was investigated; written accounts were obtained from Mr Platt (in addition to his full account in the letter of 25 April), Mr Catchpole, Mr Smith and Miss Calder. In due course she was charged with two offences of professional misconduct contrary to paras 3.2(c) and 3.3 of the Code of Conduct of the Bar of England and Wales.
The particulars of charge 1 were:
‘… on the 17th day of April, 1989, whilst instructed as Counsel for the Plaintiff in the matter of Greenlaw v. Hardy, at the Clerkenwell County Court, used in her cross-examination of the Defendant a document, which
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purported to be a photocopy of an original receipt, whereas in fact the said photocopy had been manufactured by her, and failed to explain properly or at all to the Court the true provenance of the said photocopy, thereby misleading the Court which said conduct was prejudicial to the administration of justice and is a serious failure to comply with the duties set out in Paragraph 3.2(c) of the Code of Conduct for the Bar of England and Wales in force at the material time.’
Although the charge as framed does not contain the words ‘dishonestly or knowingly misleading the court’, it was common ground at all stages of the proceedings that this was a necessary ingredient, thereby reflecting the duty set out in para 13.4.1(f) of the code, which provides:
‘A barrister is bound … to assist the Court in the fair administration of justice, and not knowingly to deceive or mislead the Court.’
The second charge was dismissed by the disciplinary tribunal and we are not concerned with it.
The case came on for hearing before the disciplinary tribunal on 8 October 1990. The chairman was Judge Goldstein. Miss Calder was represented by Mrs Grindrod QC; by this time Mr Platt had become Mr Registrar Platt.
The first two grounds of the application, namely those concerned with the matter of natural justice, relate to what occurred at the outset of the proceedings and are recorded in the transcript, and in a statement from Mrs Grindrod which is before us, as it was before the visitors. In that statement she explained what happened immediately before the tribunal came into the room:
‘… Mr Peter Guest, prosecuting Counsel, told me, in the hearing of Miss Calder that he had just learned that Her Honour Judge Goldstein, the Chairman of the Tribunal, knew Mr Registrar Platt an important witness in the case. Mr Guest said he was worried about it; I expressed considerable concern.’
The tribunal then came in and what took place is set out in the transcript:
‘Chairman. Mrs Grindrod, I must tell you this. We, the tribunal, did not have the remotest idea that Mr Registrar Platt was going to attend as a witness. I have to declare, of course, that I am a regular attender at the Bow County Court, where I sit as the judge, although it is right to say that my knowledge of Mr Registrar Platt is limited to a purely professional one. Mrs Grindrod. We have just been told this in the last few minutes in fact; it does cause me some anxiety. It was known at a very early stage that we would be requiring Mr Registrar Platt.
Chairman. I see, it was the defence that asked for him. Mrs Grindrod. Yes, indeed. It was at the first of the preliminary hearings that it was made clear that there are issues of fact.
Chairman. We were wondering amongst ourselves how far at the end of the day the evidence of Mr Registrar Platt, although important, any knowledge I may have of him is going to affect that, but you must be the judge of that. Mrs Grindrod. There will be matters which I shall have to put to Mr Registrar Platt as to …’
Chairman. Do not worry about that. Mrs Grindrod. … whether this happened or that happened or whether he was properly paying attention to what was happening, which can only be seen as some sort of criticism.
Chairman. Again, you need not worry at all because my colleagues and I
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have our own views about the whole hearing in itself. Obviously if you do object we will have to consider it seriously and of course the consequences … Mrs Grindrod. Are rather horrendous.
Chairman. Yes. Mrs Grindrod. Rather worse than a British Rail breakdown. May I have a minute to talk to Miss Calder?
Chairman. Yes.’
The tribunal then withdrew so that Miss Calder could discuss with Mrs Grindrod whether she should ask for a different tribunal. I refer again to Mrs Grindrod’s statement. She says she understood that when the chairman spoke of ‘the whole hearing’, he was referring to the hearing that was about to begin. A careful analysis of what was said shows that she must have been mistaken in this, it must have been a reference to the hearing in the county court.
Mrs Grindrod’s statement continues:
‘As we left the room Mr Guest remarked “That looks like an indication”. I agreed with him. Miss Calder also agreed and we decided not to seek the fresh tribunal to which we would, in my view, have been entitled. I understood the judge’s words to mean that the judge and his colleagues had formed a view which was not unfavourable to Miss Calder. By this I do not mean that I understood they had necessarily decided to acquit altogether, but that at the very least they were not taking a very serious view of the matter. In the light of the result and the sentence of disbarment, I consider that we were misled by the judge’s remarks. Had he not spoken as he did we would have sought a different tribunal … I should add that I was influenced by my understanding of the judge’s remarks to the extent that I remained confident until a very late stage that the tribunal was not taking a very serious view of the matter and my conduct of the case may well have reflected this.’
The tribunal returned and Mrs Grindrod said that they were content to proceed.
The circumstances in which an adjudicator is disqualified from sitting to determine an issue were set out in the judgment of Bingham LJ in R v Crown Court at Bristol, ex p Cooper [1990] 2 All ER 193 at 200, [1990] 1 WLR 1031 at 1039 as follows:
‘… where (1) he is affected by actual bias that is he is for any reason incapable of approaching the issue with the impartiality which his office demands, or (2) he is affected by imputing bias, that is the relationship between the adjudicator and the applicant or between the adjudicator and the subject matter of the dispute is such as to create an evident risk that the adjudicator has been, or will in the future be, incapable of acting impartially (see Bremer Handelsgesellschaft mbh v Ets Soules & Cie [1985] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 160 at 164; affd [1985] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 199 at 201, CA), or (3) although the case does not fall within (1) or (2), the adjudicator himself feels that his relationship with the applicant or the subject matter of the dispute might prejudice his ability to approach the issue with proper impartiality, or (4) a reasonable and fair-minded person sitting in court and knowing all the facts could have a reasonable suspicion that the adjudicator would not be able to give the applicant a fair hearing.’
There is no suggestion here of actual bias. But Mr Beloff submits that the case falls squarely within Bingham LJ’s categories (3) and (4).
Mr Horgan for the Bar Council submits that the case does not fall within (3). He says that the chairman was only telling the parties the facts and that by so
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doing he was not indicating that he felt the relationship might prejudice his ability to approach the case with proper impartiality, but merely that if Miss Calder took objection, the tribunal would have to consider whether it was proper to continue. And in effect Mr Horgan submits that there was nothing in the relationship as described by the chairman to disqualify him.
Mr Horgan submits that the case does not come under the fourth category described by Bingham LJ. He points out that close friends often appear against each other as counsel and very frequently one of the counsel in a case is well known to the judge.
I cannot accept either of these submissions. The relationship between one of relatively few registrars and judges of a county court, albeit only professional, is a close one. In this case Mr Platt was not only the principal witness but the complainant. One of the crucial issues in the case, as I shall shortly discuss, was whether he was misled by what Miss Calder did or was under a misapprehension of his own making. Mr Horgan accepted, rightly in my judgment, that Judge Goldstein would not have dreamt of sitting as a judge in a civil case in which Mr Platt was a party. That is reflected in CCR Ord 4, r 7(1), which provides that if the judge or registrar (now district judge) is a party to an action, it shall be commenced not in the court where he sits, but in the nearest convenient court. But Mr Horgan sought to draw a distinction between a party to a civil action who has something to gain and a witness in a criminal prosecution who is not interested in the outcome of the proceedings. I do not agree that that is a valid distinction where the witness is the complainant on whose account the whole prosecution is based. It is idle to pretend that the complainant in a criminal trial is uninterested in the result. It may be expected that a judicial officer who is a complainant in a professional conduct prosecution will be more detached, but he would be less than human if he was totally unconcerned.
So the question is whether Miss Calder waived what was otherwise a breach of natural justice. Mr Beloff accepted that there could be a waiver here, though he wished to reserve for argument in a higher court the question whether it was possible to waive a right of natural justice. He submits however that there was no true waiver because Miss Calder and Mrs Grindrod were misled by what the chairman said into thinking that the tribunal were favourably disposed to Miss Calder.
The visitors rejected this submission. They did so because they held that Mrs Grindrod’s construction of what the chairman said as referring to the hearing that was about to begin was unreasonable and that it was clear that the chairman was saying no more than that the tribunal would not be surprised if there were some criticisms of the assistant recorder which had to be elicited during the course of the hearing, particularly in relation to the conduct of the county court proceedings.
While I accept that on careful analysis of the transcript the reference to ‘the whole hearing’ must be to the county court hearing, I do not think this was necessarily so apparent to anyone merely hearing it, or that it can be said that Mrs Grindrod’s interpretation was so unreasonable that she was not entitled to entertain it, which she says she did. Moreover it does not seem to me to matter whether the reference was to the county court proceedings or the hearing about to begin. For my part, I think it is far from clear that the chairman was merely saying that the tribunal would not be surprised if some criticisms of the assistant recorder had to be elicited in the course of the hearing, if for no other reason than that it is inconsistent with the visitors’ construction that the reference was only to the county court proceedings.
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In my judgment, the chairman’s remarks are at best ambiguous. I consider that many experienced counsel would take them to be an indication favourable to Miss Calder as to the preliminary view which the tribunal had formed of the strength of the case against her. That is how both Mr Guest and Mrs Grindrod took them; and for my part, so would I. Having regard to the strength of the case against her, to which I shall shortly come, it is not a view which could possibly be described as unreasonable.
Accordingly I respectfully disagree with the views of the visitors on this point. But is this ground one upon which the visitors’ decision can be reviewed? If the breach of natural justice is on the part of the visitors, then there is no doubt that their decision is reviewable: see per Lord Browne-Wilkinson in Page’s case [1993] 1 All ER 97 at 109, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1125. But here the breach of natural justice was on the part of the tribunal. The visitors, in my judgment, erred in law in declining to hold that there was such a breach, but such an error of law appears to me to fall within their jurisdiction. However in some cases a breach of natural justice at the trial stage will vitiate the appellate stage. But in Lloyd v McMahon [1987] 1 All ER 1118, [1987] AC 625 their Lordships, albeit obiter, said that where there is a full appeal by way of rehearing on the merits, that will normally cure procedural error in the tribunal appealed from. In that case there was a statutory appeal to the High Court from the decision of the district auditor. Lord Keith of Kinkel said ([1987] 1 All ER 1118 at 1157, [1987] AC 625 at 697):
‘The relevant rules of court enable a rehearing of the broadest possible scope to take place. Evidence may be given on oath, which is not possible before the auditor, and there is no limit to the further material which may be introduced so as to enable the whole merits to be fully examined. There is no question of the court being confined to a review of the evidence which was available to the auditor. In the circumstances, it would be quite unreasonable and not in accordance with the intendment of the enactment to hold that the court, where an issue is raised as to the fairness of the procedure adopted by the auditor, is confined to a judicial review species of jurisdiction so as to have power only to quash or affirm the auditor’s certificate without entering on its own examination of the merits of the case. No doubt there may be cases where the procedural defect is so gross, and the prejudice suffered by the appellant so extreme, that it would be appropriate to quash the auditor’s decision on that ground. But in my opinion the court has a discretion, where it considers that justice can properly be done by its own investigation of the merits, to follow that course.’
If the appeal to them was by way of a review only, as opposed to an appeal by way of rehearing, in my judgment the visitors should have quashed the decision of the disciplinary tribunal on this ground.
In this case apparent bias vitiated the decision of the tribunal, but it did not I think prevent the appellant or her counsel fully and properly adducing the evidence they wished or cross-examining the prosecution witnesses. My only reservation is based upon the last sentence of Mrs Grindrod’s statement, which I have quoted, to the effect that her conduct of the case may have been influenced by what the chairman said. But Mr Beloff has not submitted to us that there was some other matter which might have been explored or that the evidence was not fully before the visitors. For reasons to which I shall later refer, in my opinion an appeal to the visitors is or should be a full rehearing on the merits and as such it should cure any procedural defect or breach of natural justice on the part of the tribunal, unless it can be said that the evidence was for that reason not fully before
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them, in which case, under the 1991 rules they have power to ‘order a re-hearing on such terms as they may deem appropriate’ (see r 11(3)).
I turn then to the third ground relied upon by Mr Beloff, namely that there was no evidence that Miss Calder had (a) misled the court (the actus reus) or (b) that she had any intention to do so (the mens rea). In my judgment the relevant facts can be summarised as follows. (1) Miss Hardy was not and could not have been misled into thinking that document A was a photostat of document B. The typing of document A was amateurish and the size of the paper was quite different, and she was bound to recognise that it was not a facsimile of her document. (2) When shown document A she was immediately reminded of document B, but pointed out the differences to which I have referred. (3) A comparison of the two documents would show at a glance that A was not a photocopy of B. (4) The assistant recorder never looked at document A on 17 April. He said that he did not do so because the witness had denied it and it was not in evidence. This, it seems to me, can only be a reference to the points made by Miss Hardy referred to in (1), since she immediately made reference to the original receipt document B. (5) Mr Catchpole did not compare documents A and B, he merely had a brief look at document A as it was handed to the witness; his solicitor does not seem to have seen it at all. But there was nothing to prevent them seeing it, or indeed asking for a copy. (6) Once document B was produced, document A was of no more interest or materiality, since the best evidence was now available. For this reason neither the assistant recorder nor Mr Catchpole had any occasion to look at document B. (7) As soon as Miss Calder appreciated that there might be a misapprehension as to the precise nature of document A, that it was a photocopy and not a copy made by her, she told first the solicitors, then Mr Catchpole and then the assistant recorder at the first opportunity she had, what the position was. (8) That the assistant recorder was under the misapprehension that document A was a photostat of document B (or a photostat of a photostat) is clear.
A person may be under a misapprehension because they have been misled by others or because they have come to the wrong conclusion on the material before them. The assistant recorder could not have been misled by document A because he never looked at it; had he done so he would immediately have realised that his impression was mistaken. It is said that he was misled by Miss Calder’s conduct and the gist of the charge is her alleged failure to explain properly or at all to the court the true provenance of the document. This can only mean that she failed to say there and then when she produced document A, that it was a copy made by her and not a photostat. It might have been better if she had done so. But her failure can only be criticised if she was under a duty to do so. She could only be under such a duty if she realised that the assistant recorder was under a misapprehension. Why should she appreciate this? Quite apart from the fact that she said in evidence that she did not, I cannot see any reason why she should. Miss Hardy had pointed out the features of difference, which the assistant recorder himself described as denying the document. Once document B was produced there was no longer any occasion to pay the slightest attention to document A, and why the assistant recorder troubled to do so I do not find easy to follow. It may well be because he thought that Miss Calder should not have used any sort of copy, photostat or otherwise, for the purpose of cross-examination. He seems to have thought that the only proper way of dealing with the matter was to apply for the original by way of specific discovery. If that is what he thought, he was plainly wrong. Document B should have been disclosed; Miss Calder was entitled to assume that because it was not, the solicitors did not have it and it might well
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have been destroyed by Miss Hardy. In these circumstances it was a perfectly legitimate tactic to cross-examine on the basis of a copy, photostat or other. In my judgment the court was not misled by what Miss Calder did and there is no evidence that it was. The assistant recorder unfortunately jumped to the wrong conclusion about a matter which was of no materiality once document B was produced.
Equally in my judgment there is no evidence that Miss Calder intended to mislead the court. It is argued by Mr Horgan that such an intention can be inferred from the fact that she typed out document A instead of making it in longhand; that she put the text at the top of the paper in a similar way to the original; that she got it signed by Mrs Greenlaw and she then had photocopies made. But these acts are equally consistent with the absence of any intention to mislead. It would only be proper to draw an inference of intention to mislead if it could be said that there was a duty or obligation to say at the time of production of document A that it was a copy prepared by her.
In his letter to the Council of the Inns of Court announcing the tribunal’s decision the chairman said that they ‘unanimously concluded that the defendant had been deliberately dishonest and furthermore had been a most unsatisfactory witness’. For the reasons I have given there was in my judgment no evidence upon which the tribunal could properly have found deliberate dishonesty. It is easy to see how the tribunal reached the conclusion that Miss Calder was an unsatisfactory witness. She completely failed to answer questions succinctly and to the point. Her answers were often rambling and full of irrelevancies. But that is not to say that she was an unreliable witness as to the accuracy of her recollection. There was in truth very little dispute as to the facts; still less that she was a dishonest witness. The case should have been stopped at the conclusion of the prosecution evidence when Mrs Grindrod made a submission that there was no case to answer on either charge.
In my judgment therefore, assuming that the visitors were correctly approaching the matter as one of review, they should have quashed the conviction on this ground. In fact they took the view that it was open to the tribunal to find as it did on the facts and they referred to the fact that they had described Miss Calder as an unreliable witness, observing that having read the transcript it was possible to see how the tribunal might well have reached that conclusion. For the reasons I have given, I am of the opinion the visitors were in error.
Mr Beloff submitted that where there was no evidence to support the conclusion of a tribunal, that undermined the tribunal’s jurisdiction; accordingly he submitted both the tribunal in making a finding adverse to Miss Calder and the visitors in upholding it, exceeded their jurisdiction with the result that the visitors’ decision is reviewable within the narrow limits of Page’s case. He relied on a dictum of Lord Diplock in Mahon v Air New Zealand Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 201 at 210, [1984] AC 808 at 820–821. In relation to the rules of natural justice he said:
‘The first rule is that the person making a finding in the exercise of such a jurisdiction must base his decision on evidence that has some probative value in the sense described below. The second rule is that he must listen fairly to any relevant evidence conflicting with the finding and any rational argument against the finding that a person represented at the inquiry, whose interests (including in that term career or reputation) may be adversely affected by it, may wish to place before him or would have so wished if he had been aware of the risk of the finding being made. The technical rules of evidence
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applicable to civil or criminal litigation form no part of the rules of natural justice. What is required by the first rule is that the decision to make the finding must be based on some material that tends logically to show the existence of facts consistent with the finding and that the reasoning supportive of the finding, if it be disclosed, is not logically self-contradictory.’ (Lord Diplock’s emphasis.)
But in my view it is plain from the speech of Lord Browne-Wilkinson in Page’s case that the concepts of jurisdiction and natural justice in this context should be narrowly defined. It seems to me that the failure of the visitors to rule that there was no evidence before the tribunal was not so much an error which undermined their jurisdiction as an error of law within the jurisdiction of the visitors, just as a failure of a Crown Court judge to rule that there is no evidence to go to the jury is an error of law within his jurisdiction.
I come then to the final ground of appeal, namely that the visitors misdirected themselves as to the nature of their jurisdiction in that they treated the matter as one of review rather than appeal by way of rehearing on the merits. It was not contested before us that the proper approach was that of an appellate court rehearing the case on its merits, such as is the position of the Court of Appeal on appeal in a civil case from the decision of a judge alone. Although the point has never fallen to be decided, I agree that this is the correct approach. All the cases dealing with the judges’ jurisdiction as visitors refer to it as an appeal to the visitors. There is no warrant for thinking that they limited themselves to the circumstances in which the prerogative writs of prohibition, mandamus or certiorari would lie, that being the foundation of the judicial review jurisdiction. The language of the Hearings before the Visitors Rules 1991 is appropriate for an appeal and not a review only. Thus the appellant is referred to as such and not as an applicant (r 2(2)). The grounds of appeal are against the finding and the petition should refer to the evidence relied upon (rr 5 and 7(2)(e)). The visitors may either allow the appeal or order a rehearing (r 11(3)). They are not limited to quashing the order. Like any other appellate court, the visitors do not as a rule hear evidence from witnesses unless they give leave under r 10(6) and (7). Accordingly they should adopt the same approach to findings of fact made by the tribunal as the Court of Appeal do to findings of the trial judge: see Yuill v Yuill [1945] 1 All ER 183, [1945] P 15, Watt v Thomas [1947] 1 All ER 582, [1947] AC 484 and Powell v Streatham Manor Nursing Home [1935] AC 243, [1935] All ER Rep 58.
Mr Beloff submits that the visitors did not adopt this approach, but treated the case as one of review. I have no doubt that this submission is correct. The key passage in the judgment of the visitors comes where after summarising the submission of both Sir William Goodhart QC for Miss Calder and Mr Horgan for the Bar Council Kennedy J said:
‘It will be clear from this somewhat lengthy decision that we have anxiously considered the whole of the facts of this matter and it seems to us that it was plainly open to the tribunal to find as it did on the facts.’
This is the language of review, not appeal. Moreover although the visitors reminded themselves that the tribunal had to adopt the criminal standard of proof, they nowhere directed themselves that they had to adopt the same standard, which such experienced judges would almost certainly have done if they thought the appeal was a rehearing. The fact that there were submissions made on the grounds that the tribunal’s decision was in breach of natural justice may have
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misled the visitors into thinking that the whole appeal should have been by way of review only. Unless the breach of natural justice in some way affected the evidence that was adduced, as opposed to the decision, it had little to do with the visitors’ appellate jurisdiction.
In the result the visitors failed to exercise their full jurisdiction, but instead exercised only a restricted one. That is a matter which a court exercising the limited scope of judicial review should correct by an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the visitors and an order of mandamus directed to them to exercise their full jurisdiction and hear and determine the appeal.
STAUGHTON LJ. Each of the two issues of law which arise in these appeals concerns the nature of the rules which govern the conduct of barristers. Are they part of the common law of England which may be declared—but not changed—by the courts? Or a private and domestic system of rules, made and changed from time to time, initially by the benchers of the Inns of Court and later by the Bar, through (since 1883) the Bar Committee and the General Council of the Bar (1894), under the control of the judges as visitors?
In order to illustrate the problem, I list some examples of rules which have been in force for all or part of the time since 1908. (i) A barrister is under an obligation to accept a brief in the courts in which he professes to practice at a proper professional fee, unless there are special circumstances which justify his refusal to accept a particular brief (2 Halsbury’s Laws (1st edn) para 659; cf Boulton Conduct and Etiquette at the Bar (6th edn, 1978) p 22). (ii) The practice of a barrister is a purely personal one, and does not admit of anything in the least degree resembling partnership (Halsbury’s Laws para 617; Boulton p 6). (iii) A bargain that fees shall be paid to counsel according to the event of a suit is illegal, and exposes both the parties to the penalties of maintenance (Halsbury’s Laws para 656). (iv) It is contrary to professional etiquette for a barrister to do, or allow to be done, anything for the purpose of touting or with the primary motive of personal advertisement (Boulton p 55). (v) King’s Counsel, except when appearing for a plaintiff in forma pauperis, cannot hold a brief for the plaintiff on the trial of a civil cause without a junior, and in most other cases a King’s Counsel must have a junior briefed with him (Halsbury’s Laws para 651; Boulton p 64). (vi) Where the costs of two counsel are allowed, the brief fees of the leader and junior generally stand to one another in the proportion of three to two or five to three (Halsbury’s Laws para 711). What later became the two-thirds rule was abolished in 1966 (Boulton p 53). (vii) A barrister who is specially retained, or who ‘goes special’ on a circuit which is not his own, must have a special fee, and must have some member of the circuit briefed with him (Halsbury’s Laws para 613; Boulton p 82).
Many of the rules in that sample are not in force today. To modern eyes some have the appearance of restrictive practices for the benefit of the profession, and not to be at all concerned with the public interest or the proper administration of justice; but it may once have been thought otherwise. On the other hand my first example, the so-called ‘cab rank’ rule, has a different complexion.
One rule that I have not listed so far has attracted particular attention; that is the rule as to barristers receiving instructions from a solicitor rather than directly from a client. In Doe d Bennett v Hale (1850) 15 QB 171 at 182–183, 186, 117 ER 423 at 427–429 Lord Campbell CJ, delivering the judgment of the court, said:
‘There certainly has been an understanding in the profession that a barrister ought not to accept a brief in a civil suit, except from an attorney; and I believe that it is for the benefit of the suitors, and for the satisfactory administration of justice, that this understanding should be generally acted
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upon. But we are of opinion that there is no rule of law by which it can be enforced … This being a matter of procedure, the Judges of their own authority might, according to their view of what was fit, have laid down a general rule determining under what conditions and restrictions barristers should be permitted to plead before them, and have pre-audience: but no such rule is to be found.’
Later he said that barristers—
‘are at liberty, under the control of the Courts, to lay down conditions upon which, for the public good, their services are to be obtained.’
Later developments in this context are recorded in Re T (a barrister) [1981] 2 All ER 1105 at 1108–1110, [1982] QB 430 at 434–436. In 1888 the Attorney General, Sir Richard Webster QC, had expressed the view, in a letter which was published in the Law Times, that in contentious business a barrister should not act or advise without the intervention of a solicitor; but he did not consider that there was any such rule generally for non-contentious business. But in 1955 a subsequent Attorney General, Sir Reginald Manningham-Buller QC, said at the Annual General Meeting that it was wrong for a barrister to do non-contentious work for fees in the course of his profession without instructions (sc from a solicitor), subject to some exceptions.
Delivering the reasons of the visitors in Re T (a barrister) Whitford J said ([1981] 2 All ER 1105 at 1109, [1982] QB 430 at 436):
‘… we consider that the rules of professional conduct of the Bar (as of most other professions) are rules which are, and are properly, determined by the profession itself in the light of tradition and experience, changing and developing over the years as circumstances change. If any rule acceptable to the Bar were held by the judges (in whatever capacity) to be contrary to public policy or to be liable to undermine the proper administration of justice, that rule would of course be ineffective, but subject to that the responsibility for formulating rules of professional conduct rests with the Bar through its appropriate procedure. Rules so formulated do not require the imprimatur of the judges as a condition of their validity.’
Whitford J then cited the second passage from the judgment of Lord Campbell CJ which I have already set out.
When that case was heard the Bar had recently adopted a code of conduct, on 15 July 1980. The code professed to be, and at that stage largely was, a restatement of existing rules. It provided in para 2:
‘Amendments and additions to this Code may be made by the Bar in General Meeting or alternatively by resolution of the Bar Council, which shall be operative forthwith but may be revoked or amended by the Bar in General Meeting.’
That too was codification, representing the previous practice by which the Bar Council made rulings from time to time and these were included in the annual statement, which was approved or amended at the annual general meeting. The 1990 edition of the Code of Conduct of the Bar vests legislative power in the Bar Council alone.
From this history I draw the following conclusions. (1) The rules governing the profession of barrister are, with some possible exceptions, not part of the general law of England and Wales. They can be and are changed from time to time. For example, direct access to counsel, without the intervention of a solicitor,
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is now permitted in certain circumstances. (2) Since at least 1850 the power to change those rules has lain with the authority from time to time recognised as such by barristers—the Attorney General as leader of the Bar, the Bar Committee the Bar Council or a general meeting of the Bar. (3) However, that power is subject to the control of the judges as visitors. In that capacity the judges may, if they think it proper, decline to enforce a rule; and it may be that they have power to enforce a rule which the Bar has not adopted. (4) The rules of conduct thus emerging form a private or domestic system of law for the purposes under consideration in these appeals.
More recently, there has been statutory recognition of the Bar’s disciplinary system on two occasions. Sections 41 to 42 of the Administration of Justice Act 1985 (inserted in 1988) provide that a disciplinary tribunal, or the judges as visitors, can hear and determine legal aid complaints; and that a disciplinary tribunal may cancel or reduce fees otherwise payable under legal aid. When exercising those powers, a tribunal is administering the law declared by Parliament. But I would regard that as an exceptional case; it does not lead to the conclusion that disciplinary tribunals, or the visitors, are no longer administering a private or domestic system.
The Courts and Legal Services Act 1990, Sch 4 provides that the rules of conduct of an authorised body (which includes the General Council of the Bar) must be approved by the Lord Chancellor and the designated judges, before it can confer a right of audience on its members, and by s 31 the General Council of the Bar is deemed to have had in force rules of conduct which had been properly approved, at the commencement date for s 27. That too does not, in my judgment, convert the Code of Conduct of the Bar into general law, as opposed to a private or domestic system. It merely makes the approval of the code by the Lord Chancellor and designated judges an essential condition which must be fulfilled before barristers have a right of audience.
The Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873
Against that background, I agree with Sir Donald Nicholls V-C and Stuart-Smith LJ that the jurisdiction of the judges as visitors came within s 12 and not s 16 of the 1873 Act; and that a similar result followed under the 1925 and 1981 Acts. Although the two sections used different wording, it seems to me that they were intended to be mutually exclusive. In s 12, ‘any duty, or any authority or power, not incident to the administration of justice in any Court’ is to be contrasted with the subject matter of s 16:
‘… the jurisdiction which, at the commencement of this Act, was vested in, or capable of being exercised by, all or any one or more of the Judges of the said Courts, respectively, sitting in Court or Chambers, or elsewhere, when acting as Judges or a Judge, in pursuance of any statute, law, or custom, and all powers given to any such Court, or to any such Judges or Judge, by any statute; and also all ministerial powers, duties, and authorities, incident to any and every part of the jurisdictions so transferred.’
Section 12 conferred on every judge of the High Court the ‘Extraordinary duties of Judges of the former Courts’, as the sidenote says. Section 16, by contrast, conferred on the High Court the jurisdiction, powers, duties and authorities with which it dealt.
For the reasons given by Sir Donald Nicholls V-C and Stuart-Smith LJ, I consider that the jurisdiction of the judges as visitors was within s 12; it was not ‘incident to the administration of justice in any court’, but rather a part of the administration
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of the Inns of Court and the profession of barrister. This jurisdiction was not, in terms of s 16, exercised ‘when sitting as judges or a judge’, but in an extra-judicial capacity, although it is a necessary qualification of the visitors that they must be judges.
It follows that I cannot agree with the decision of the Divisional Court, when it held that a decision of the visitors was not subject to judicial review but could be brought on appeal to the Court of Appeal.
Page v Hull University Visitor
I also agree that decisions of the judges as visitors may be challenged by way of judicial review, but only on the limited grounds available in the case of visitors to charitable corporations. The law ought not to extend to barristers any more favourable treatment than is given to university lecturers. And the statutes of the [University of Hull are, to say the very least, no more private or domestic than the Code of Conduct of the Bar.
The limited grounds that are available are those referred to in the speech of Lord Browne-Wilkinson in Page v Hull University Visitor [1993] 1 All ER 97 at 109, [1992] 3 WLR 1112 at 1125:
‘Judicial review does lie to the visitor in cases where he has acted outside his jurisdiction (in the narrow sense) or abused his powers or acted in breach of the rules of natural justice.’
Mr Persaud’s case
In this instance there was an order for a preliminary issue, which the Divisional Court decided against Mr Persaud by holding that the High Court had no jurisdiction to hear an application for judicial review of a decision of the judges as visitors to the Inns of Court. In my opinion that conclusion was wrong, and the case should be remitted to the Divisional Court to hear and determine the application. We have not ourselves heard anything of the facts, and are in no position to express any view of the merits.
Miss Calder’s case
Here we heard full argument on the merits; and as the Divisional Court dismissed Miss Calder’s application instead of merely deciding a preliminary issue, we are entitled to consider what other order should have been made.
I wholly and gratefully adopt the account of the facts given by Stuart-Smith LJ. I also agree with his conclusion, but wish to add a few words on two points.
The first charge against Miss Calder was of a breach of para 3.2(c) of the Code of Conduct, which obliges a barrister not to engage in conduct ‘which is prejudicial to the administration of justice; which is dishonest or otherwise discreditable to a barrister …' The particulars were that she had used in cross-examination a document which purported to be a copy of an original receipt, but which was manufactured by her, ‘thereby misleading the court.’
The charge might have been laid under para 13.4.1, which provides that a barrister is bound ‘not knowingly to deceive or mislead the Court’. If that was the true complaint, surely it would have been simpler to say so. The tribunal would then have been in no doubt as to the issue which it had to try.
However, when one turns to the transcript of proceedings before the disciplinary tribunal, it is by no means clear that the prosecution case was limited to knowingly misleading the court. Counsel concluded his submissions with these words:
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‘In my respectful submission, it follows from that that at the very best, and I choose that expression, one employed here tactics which are not acceptable, but the tribunal, in my submission, could find that the deception was intended to go substantially further. That is, in my submission, a view, an inference, which could reasonably be formed when one looks at the face of document A, and if, indeed, Miss Hardy had not produced document B, as was expected, in my submission, then one goes on to ask the question, what inference does one draw from the typing and from the signature? That is all I wish to say.’
Evidently the answer to counsel’s question, which he invited the tribunal to draw, was that Miss Calder intended to put document A before the assistant recorder as a photocopy of the original receipt, and to make submissions on it.
The tribunal accepted that suggestion. The chairman said:
‘… I am afraid that unanimously we feel that Mr Guest’s second point rather than the first, as to the motive behind this, is the one that we are quite satisfied is the way we shall approach it. We think this was a very blatant piece of fabrication in order to deceive.’
I find that aspect of the case unsatisfactory, for a number of reasons. First, it was never put to Miss Calder in plain terms in cross-examination that she intended to rely on document A as a genuine photocopy of the original, and would have done so if the original receipt had not been produced. The nearest that counsel came to it was:
‘Q. Do you accept that a reasonable tribunal might reasonably infer that the document you handed up was a copy of the original receipt; it was intended to be, was it not? A. The thing is I did not hand it up …’
Secondly, I have considerable doubt as to whether the tribunal could, on the evidence and in the circumstances, be satisfied so that it was sure that Miss Calder intended to rely on document A as a genuine photocopy.
Thirdly, if the charge was to be based on what Miss Calder intended to do, rather than what she actually did, it should have said so. ‘Thereby misleading the court’ in the particulars did not suggest that there was also an intention, if the original was not produced, to mislead the court further by relying upon document A as a genuine photocopy.
But, fourthly, it is open to question whether a wicked intention is by itself an infringement of the Code of Conduct. The code does not expressly deal with inchoate offences such as attempt and conspiracy; it may be that they can be found there by implication, or under another name. But it is going a good deal further to say that under this private and domestic law sanctions can be imposed for a mere intention to act dishonestly.
That aspect of the case is, as I have said, unsatisfactory. But I need not consider it further, as I agree with Stuart-Smith LJ that there was no evidence on which the tribunal could convict Miss Calder on the charge which she actually faced, of dishonesty which misled the court.
The second point concerns the effect of a breach of the rules of natural justice by the disciplinary tribunal, and whether that was cured by the appeal to the visitors, which was (or rather should have been) a rehearing on the record. In Lloyd v McMahon [1987] 1 All ER 1118, [1987] AC 625 it was said that a full appeal by way of rehearing on the merits will normally cure procedural error in the tribunal appealed from. I have some hesitation in accepting that the error was
Page 928 of [1993] 2 All ER 876
cured in the present case. An appellate tribunal which does not rehear the evidence will inevitably attach some weight to the conclusions of the tribunal appealed from. If that tribunal was affected by bias—whether actual, apparent or imputed—the defect is only cured if there is a full, careful and independent review of the evidence by an appellate tribunal, followed by its own findings of fact. If that does not happen, it seems to me arguable that the breach of the rules of natural justice remains effective; and is a ground for judicial review. But then there is the question whether it is within the more limited grounds of judicial review in the case of visitors under Page v Hull University Visitor. There has been no suggestion of any breach of the rules of natural justice by the visitors in this case. Was their decision infected by the breach before the disciplinary tribunal? And if so, is that a ground of judicial review within Page’s case?
I need not express a concluded view on those questions, as I agree with Sir Donald Nicholls V-C and Stuart-Smith LJ that the decision of the visitors must in any event be quashed on the ground that they misunderstood the scope of their task.
Greenlaw v Hardy occupied four days in the county court, which seems an inordinate length of time for determining a simple issue as to the terms of an oral agreement. There may well have been undue prolixity and failure to concentrate on the material points, so as to make the assistant recorder’s task very difficult. But I do not consider that there was professional misconduct.
Appeals allowed.
8 June. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Templeman, Lord Goff of Chieveley and Lord Slynn of Hadley) refused Mr Persaud leave to appeal.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court, ex parte Shacklady
R v Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court, ex parte Pender
[1993] 2 All ER 929
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Legal Aid and Advice
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): BELDAM LJ AND TUDOR EVANS J
Hearing Date(s): 29 OCTOBER, 27 NOVEMBER 1992
Legal aid – Criminal cases – Revocation of legal aid for non-payment of contributions Refusal by clerk to justices of fresh application for legal aid – Whether clerk to justices having power to grant fresh application following revocation of legal aid – Whether person wishing to reapply for legal aid must do so to court at trial – Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (General) Regulations 1989, regs 10, 11, Pts II, IV.
A defendant in criminal proceedings whose grant of legal aid has been revoked for non-payment of contributions cannot make a fresh application to the clerk of the justices under reg 11(1)a of the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (General) Regulations 1989 to renew his legal aid but must reapply for legal aid to the trial court under reg 10b thereof, which vests a general power in the court or a judge to make a legal aid order in favour of an applicant notwithstanding that an earlier legal aid order has been revoked. There is a clear distinction in the 1989 regulations between renewal of an application for legal aid after refusal under Pt II thereof and a fresh application following revocation or withdrawal of a legal aid order under Pt IV (see p 934 g to p 935 c h, post).
Notes
For applications for legal aid in criminal cases and withdrawal or revocation of legal aid orders, see Supplement to 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 982–983.
For the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (General) Regulations 1989, reg 10, Pt II (regs 11–22), Pt IV (regs 40–43), see 11 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1991 reissue) 82, 83, 91.
Applications for judicial review
R v Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court, ex p Shacklady
Andrew Shacklady applied, with the leave of the Divisional Court (Mann LJ and French J) given on 5 June 1992, for judicial review by way of an order of mandamus requiring (i) the clerk to the Liverpool justices to reconsider an application for legal aid submitted by the applicant on 6 January 1992 and (ii) the Liverpool deputy stipendiary magistrate to reconsider his refusal, on 10 January 1992, of the applicant’s request that the trial of proceedings against him be adjourned in order that he could make further representations as to legal aid and thereafter obtain legal representation and an order of certiorari to quash the applicant’s conviction or to order that the case be reheard. The facts are set out in the judgment of Beldam LJ.
R v Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court, ex p Pender
Kevin Michael Pender applied, with the leave of Popplewell J given on 3 September
Page 930 of [1993] 2 All ER 929
1992, for judicial review by way of (i) an order of certiorari quashing the decision of the Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court made on 1 July 1992 refusing to entertain his application for legal aid and (ii) an order of mandamus requiring the Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court to entertain and determine his application for legal aid in accordance with the Legal Aid Act 1988 and the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (General) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/344. The facts are set out in the judgment of Beldam LJ.
Paul Epstein (instructed by E Rex Makin & Co, Liverpool) for the applicant Shacklady.
Stephen Knapp (instructed by R M Broudie & Co, Liverpool) for the applicant Pender.
Ian Burnett (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
27 November 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
BELDAM LJ. The two applicants seek judicial review of decisions of the clerk to the Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court refusing to grant them legal aid for representation in proceedings in that court. In both cases an earlier order granting them representation had been revoked for non-payment of contributions. After refusal, the applicant Shacklady appeared before the court on 10 January 1992 unrepresented to answer three charges of assault on the police. He pleaded not guilty but was convicted and fined. In his case, he asks the court in addition to quash those convictions. Both cases raise the question of the application of the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (General) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/344, in such circumstances, so they were heard together. In Shacklady’s case, if the court considers that the decision of the clerk to the justices was wrong, it must then consider whether to quash the convictions.
Andrew Shacklady, the first applicant, was charged with assaulting the police on 11 May 1991. He applied for legal aid on 6 June 1991 and on 12 June appeared before the Liverpool justices. He pleaded not guilty. The trial of the informations was then fixed for 10 January 1992. On 13 June the clerk to the justices granted his application for legal aid for representation before the City Magistrates’ Court in those proceedings. It was a condition of the legal aid order that the applicant should pay £104 towards the costs at the rate of £4 weekly from 18 June. The applicant failed to keep up payment of the instalments and by 30 July was £12 in arrears. Some time in September the applicant was admitted to hospital where he stayed for a week. On release he went to stay with a relative and was not at his normal address. He did not keep in contact with his solicitors. On 30 July 1991 he was sent the appropriate warning notice by the clerk to the justices that if he did not pay the arrears within seven days, the court would consider revoking his legal aid. A copy was sent to his solicitor.
By 24 October 1991 the arrears had mounted to £40 and a further notice was sent to him and to his solicitor. On 11 November his solicitors, then aware of his address, wrote asking him to contact them. The following day, the clerk to the justices sent the required letter telling the applicant that because he had failed to keep up his payment of contributions, the matter would be considered by the justices on 27 November. He was invited to submit a fresh statement of means if his circumstances had changed. He did not do so and on 27 November 1991, was notified that the order granting him legal aid for the proceedings due to be heard
Page 931 of [1993] 2 All ER 929
on 10 January 1992 by the Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court had been withdrawn because he had failed to pay the sums under the contribution order.
On 6 January 1992 he completed a fresh statement of means which his solicitors sent to the clerk to the justices. It was treated as a fresh application for legal aid but the clerk to the justices wrote on 9 January 1992:
‘As your client has already had the benefit of Legal Aid in these proceedings I am not aware of any power that would enable me to grant what in effect would be a second order in these proceedings. Indeed regulation 42(2) Legal Aid in Criminal Care Proceedings (General) Regulations 1989, states any second order would be of no effect.’
The following day was the day fixed for trial. The applicant’s solicitor applied that morning to the deputy stipendiary magistrate to adjourn the case which was due to be heard before a different bench. The applicant’s solicitor made it clear that he was not applying to the court for legal aid but for an adjournment of the case so that he could apply for judicial review of the decision by the clerk of the court not to grant legal aid. The deputy stipendiary magistrate dealt with the application on that basis, taking into account the fact that the date for trial had been set six months previously that the next available date for a hearing was six months later and that the application was being made on the morning fixed for trial, although the court had notified the applicant of the withdrawal of legal aid on 27 November; he refused to grant an adjournment.
The trial went ahead and the applicant was convicted. He did not appeal to the Crown Court or seek legal aid for such an appeal.
The second applicant, Kevin Pender, was, prior to October 1991, charged with offences under ss 221 and 222 of the Companies Act 1985 and with obtaining by deception and falsifying documents contrary to the Theft Act 1968. On 21 October 1991 this applicant was granted legal aid for representation in the proceedings which were to be heard in the Liverpool City Magistrates’ Court. It was a condition of the grant that he should pay a sum of £442 at the rate of £17 per week from 21 October 1991.
On 4 November 1991, this applicant’s solicitors wrote to the clerk to the magistrates to say that circumstances had changed and that they wished the applicant’s contribution to be reassessed. The clerk to the justices replied saying that the court could only reconsider the applicant’s means if a fresh statement of means was completed. In fact, no contributions at all were paid by the applicant and on 2 December the appropriate notice was sent to him and his solicitor. A further notice was sent on 18 December 1991 warning the applicant that unless he paid the arrears within seven days, the court would consider withdrawing his legal aid. No payment was made and on 16 January 1992 the Liverpool Magistrates’ Court revoked the order granting legal aid on the ground that he had failed to pay sums due under the contribution order. On 3 February 1992, his solicitors sent a fresh statement of means to the court stating that the applicant had been unemployed for six weeks, was not in receipt of any income nor even drawing income support. The court was requested to ‘re-issue the legal aid order with a nil contribution’.
On 12 February a fresh application was submitted and on 21 February the clerk to the justices replied to the applicant’s solicitors:
‘REGULATION 41(2) LEGAL AID IN CRIMINAL AND CARE PROCEEDINGS (GENERAL) REGULATIONS 1989.
I refer to your letter of 12th February 1992. Were I to adopt the course of action you propose the above regulation would operate to render the order to
Page 932 of [1993] 2 All ER 929
be of no effect, it being the second order in these proceedings. It would seem inappropriate, therefore, to entertain the application.’
The charges against the applicant have yet to be heard. No decision has yet been reached on the mode of trial pending this application.
The two applications for judicial review of the decisions to refuse legal aid by the clerk to the Liverpool city magistrates raise the common question whether, under the terms of the 1989 regulations, an accused whose grant of legal aid has been revoked for non-payment of contributions can make a fresh application to the clerk to the justices under reg 11(1) of Pt II of the 1989 regulations, or whether in such a case an accused must apply under the provisions of reg 10 to the court at the trial. Before setting out the appropriate statutory provisions, it may be helpful to summarise the arguments of the applicants and the respondent respectively.
For the applicants it was contended that both the Legal Aid Act 1988 and the 1989 regulations contemplate and make provision for more than one application for legal aid in the same proceedings and that the provision in reg 41(2) of the regulations on which the clerk to the justices principally relied that a second legal aid order in respect of the same proceedings should be deemed to be of no effect was intended to cover cases in which two legal aid orders had been made in respect of the same proceedings and were in force at the same time. It was not intended to apply where a legal aid order had been withdrawn and a second one issued. Thirdly, that it was Parliament’s intention under the 1988 Act that persons unable to provide for their own representation should be granted legal aid where it appears to be desirable in the interests of justice and where the criteria contained in s 22 of the 1988 Act are fulfilled.
For the respondent, Mr Burnett accepted that provision is made in the 1988 Act and 1989 regulations for an application for legal aid, if refused, to be renewed, or for a fresh application to be made in the same proceedings. Such applications are made under Pt II of the regulations and may be made to the justices’ clerk or orally to the court. He relied on the express provisions for revocation under reg 36 and the consequences of such revocation. He pointed to those consequences as making it unlikely that Parliament intended that a fresh application under Pt II could be made to the clerk of the court after revocation. It was not the case that an accused, whose grant of legal aid had been revoked for non-payment of contributions, would inevitably be left without representation in a case in which the court had already determined that it was in the interests of justice that he should be represented. There was general power under reg 10 to grant legal aid to an applicant whose legal aid order had been revoked under s 24(2) of the 1988 Act. This power was unaffected by the provisions of reg 36 of the 1989 regulations.
So I come to the relevant provisions of the 1988 Act and 1989 regulations. Section 20(2) and (8) of the 1988 Act confers power on a magistrates’ court to grant representation in summary proceedings before that court or when a person applies for representation after arrest for an offence.
Sections 21(2) and 22(2) set out the principles and the criteria on which representation is to be available. By s 34:
‘(1) The Lord Chancellor may make such regulations as appear to him necessary or desirable for giving effect to this Act or for preventing abuses of it.
(2) … any such regulations may … (c) regulate the availability of … representation … and the making of contributions towards its provision by reference to the financial resources or, in prescribed cases, the aggregate financial resources, of persons … (d) provide for the cases in which a person
Page 933 of [1993] 2 All ER 929
may be refused advice, assistance or representation or have the grant of it withdrawn or revoked by reason of his conduct when seeking or receiving advice, assistance or representation …’
The 1989 regulations were made pursuant to this section. Part I of the regulations containing general provisions also includes in reg 10 a general power to grant legal aid. It reads:
‘Subject to the provisions of section 21(2), (3) and (5) of the Act and to regulation 23, nothing in Part II or in regulation 36 shall affect the power of a court, a judge of the court or of the registrar to make a legal aid order, whether an application has been made for legal aid or not, or the right of an applicant whose application has been refused or whose legal aid order has been revoked under section 24(2) to apply to the court at trial or in other proceedings.’
Part II of the 1989 regulations makes provision for applications for legal aid and regs 11 to 17 refer to proceedings in magistrates’ courts. By reg 11(1) an application for a legal aid order in respect of proceedings in a magistrates’ court shall be made—
‘(a) to the justices’ clerk in Form 1, or (b) orally to the court, and the justices’ clerk or the court may grant or refuse the application.’
Where an application is refused, reg 12 requires the court or the justices’ clerk to notify an applicant that the applicant has been refused on one or both of the following grounds:
‘… (a) it does not appear to the court or the justices’ clerk desirable to make an order in the interests of justice; or (b) it appears to the court or the justices’ clerk that the applicant’s disposable income and disposable capital are such that, in accordance with regulation 26(1), he is ineligible for legal aid, and shall inform him of the circumstances in which he may renew his application or apply to an area committee for the decision to be reviewed.’
There follow in regs 13, 14 and 15 detailed provisions for the renewal of the application or, where the circumstances are appropriate, for review. Similar provision is made in regs 18 to 21 for grant and renewal of application where the original application has been made for representation in proceedings in the Crown Court.
Returning to the 1988 Act, s 23 provides for the reimbursement of public funds by contributions from assisted persons. It is to be noted that where representation is granted to a person whose financial resources are such as to make him liable to make a contribution, the court granting representation shall order him to pay a contribution in respect of the costs of his being represented. Subsections 24(2) and 24(3) deal expressly with the failure of a legally assisted person to pay any relevant contribution. Under s 24(2) the court has power to revoke the grant but by sub-s (3) it is not to exercise the power—
‘unless, after affording the legally assisted person an opportunity of making representations in such manner as may be prescribed, it is satisfied—(a) that he was able to pay the relevant contribution when it was due; and (b) that he is able to pay the whole or part of it but has failed or refused to do so.’
Contributions from assisted persons are assessed in accordance with a statement of means made under Pt III of the 1989 regulations which also provides rules for the payment of contributions. The determination of the amount of contributions
Page 934 of [1993] 2 All ER 929
is made under the reg 26. There is an obligation upon the legally assisted person to disclose any change in his financial circumstances which occurs after the submission of the statement of means and an obligation on the court to redetermine the amount payable where further information as to means becomes available.
Regulation 36 deals expressly with refusal to pay contributions. It gives power to the court to revoke a grant of representation but consistently with s 24(3) of the 1988 Act only after considering representations by the legally assisted person and if it is satisfied that the person was able to pay but has failed or refused to do so.
The interests of the legally assisted person are protected by requiring notice to be served on him to comply with the terms of the contribution order and by giving him seven days to pay any sums due and if after this reminder he fails to do so, by requiring notice to him giving him the opportunity to tell the court why he cannot comply with the contribution order. These two notices are required to be served both upon him and on his legal representative. If, therefore, the assisted person’s ability to pay has been affected by increased demands on his resources or reduction in those resources due to redundancy, unemployment or other circumstances, the court must consider those factors before deciding to revoke the grant of representation.
The effect of withdrawal and revocation of legal aid orders is to be found in Pt IV of the 1989 regulations. Under reg 41(5), if the court revokes the grant of representation, the provisions of reg 41 apply with any necessary modifications. This no doubt led the clerk to the Liverpool justices to refer to reg 41(2) which provides that where two legal aid orders are made in respect of the same proceedings the second order made shall be deemed to be of no effect and shall be withdrawn as if the legally assisted person had made a request under para (1). It is to be noted that there is no provision in Pt IV for renewal of an application after revocation.
On revocation, the assisted person’s legal representatives remain entitled to remuneration for work done before the date of revocation. Further, after revocation, the provisions of Sch 3 to the 1988 Act apply (see s 24(6) of the 1988 Act). Under that schedule enforcement proceedings for recovery of the contribution which the assisted person has failed to pay may be taken. By para 6 of Sch 3 the sum due under the contribution order becomes recoverable and the payment can be enforced on the revocation of the relevant grant of representation.
The provisions in the regulations providing for renewal of an application which has been refused under Pt II are clearly distinct from the ability of an applicant after revocation to apply to the court under reg 10 of the 1989 regulations. Renewal occurs before the fund has incurred any liability to legal representatives. Revocation may occur when the fund has already incurred liability to legal representatives who remain entitled to payment. The application under reg 11, which can be made either to the justices’ clerk or orally to the court, may be renewed under reg 14 if the refusal is on one or both of the grounds set out in reg 12. However, where representation has been granted, the justices’ clerk or the court will already have determined that it is desirable to make an order in the interests of justice and that having regard to his means, the applicant is entitled to legal aid. Further, under reg 13 the court or the justices’ clerk will already have determined the applicant’s means and the amount of any contribution he should be called up to pay.
After revocation there can be no application to be ‘renewed’. There is no basis upon which the court could follow the procedure in reg 14 of the 1989 regulations, but the court will already have followed a similar procedure before
Page 935 of [1993] 2 All ER 929
revocation under reg 36. Thus Parliament has drawn a clear distinction between application for legal aid under Pt II of the 1989 regulations which may be renewed and revocation in which no provision has been made under Pt II or IV of the regulations for a fresh application to be made after revocation. Consistently with its intention that legal aid in criminal cases should be available to accused persons where the interests of justice require his representation, the regulations contain in reg 10 the general power to grant legal aid vested in a court or judge to make a legal aid order in favour of an applicant notwithstanding that an earlier legal aid order has been revoked.
It seems to me that the form and wording of the provisions in the 1988 Act and regulations are only consistent with the legislative intention that a person who wishes to reapply for legal aid after revocation of a grant of representation must do so under reg 10 and cannot reapply under Pt II of the 1989 regulations.
We were pressed by Mr Burnett on the respondent’s behalf to consider the administrative nightmare which might ensue if after revocation a person could reapply to the clerk to the justices who was busily engaged in trying to enforce payment under the provision of Sch 3 to the 1988 Act. I would prefer myself to base any support for my interpretation of the regulations and the 1988 Act upon the apparently pointless nature of an exercise of determining all over again and on the basis of the same information the criteria for the grant of legal aid and the imposition of a contribution order which the applicant has failed to honour. Whilst I lean heavily against the imposition of additional administrative burdens on those already overburdened, Mr Burnett’s argument imputes to Parliament and its draftsmen a sensitivity not always apparent in legislation.
For these reasons I would hold that the respondent’s decision that, as clerk to the justices, he could not entertain a fresh application under reg 11 of Pt II of the regulations was correct.
The applicant Pender may still apply to the court for a grant of representation under reg 10. I would accordingly dismiss both applications for judicial review of the decisions of the clerk to the justices. The order of certiorari sought by the applicant Shacklady to quash his conviction, or to order that his cases should be reheard is based on the refusal of the deputy stipendiary magistrate to adjourn the proceedings. However, the magistrate was asked expressly to consider, and did consider, the application on the basis that the court was not being asked to grant legal aid. No application was made under reg 10 to him or the magistrates’ court at trial and consequently I can see no ground for reviewing the order of the magistrate or quashing the conviction before the justices. The applicant did not appeal against his conviction and although this court always approaches with sympathy any case in which an accused person has not had representation when on the face of it, it was a case in which the magistrates originally thought he ought to have representation, none the less I would reject the application for judicial review of this applicant’s convictions.
TUDOR EVANS J. I agree.
Applications dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Clark and another v Chief Land Registrar and another
[1993] 2 All ER 936
Categories: LAND; Land Registration
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): FERRIS J
Hearing Date(s): 21, 22, 23, 24, 27 JULY, 28 AUGUST 1992
Land registration – Charging order – Protection on register – Caution – Failure to disclose caution – Plaintiffs obtaining charging order over property and registering caution at Land Registry to protect charge – Second defendant obtaining charge over same property – Land Registry registering second defendant’s charge without notice to plaintiffs – Proceeds of sale of property insufficient to satisfy both plaintiffs’ and second defendant’s charges – Whether plaintiffs entitled to indemnity from registrar – Whether charging order giving plaintiffs charge over proceeds of sale or over legal estate – Whether plaintiffs’ charging order having priority over second defendant’s charge – Whether plaintiffs only entitled to rectification of register -Land Registration Act 1925, ss 20(1), 83(2) – Charging Orders Act 1979, s 2(1)(a)(i)(ii)(b)(iii).
The plaintiffs obtained judgment against the judgment debtors, who were the owners of a freehold property which was mortgaged to a bank. When the judgment remained unsatisfied the plaintiffs obtained a charging order charging the judgment debtors’ interest in the property with the amount due under the judgment and registered at the Land Registry a caution to protect the charging order. Subsequently the second defendant made a loan of £92,000 to the judgment debtors, who executed a legal charge over the property to secure the loan. The charge was presented to the Land Registry for registration but, instead of giving notice of the charge to the plaintiffs as required by s 55 of the Land Registration Act 1925 and r 218 of the Land Registration Rules 1925 so that the plaintiffs could object to the registration, the Land Registry registered the charge without giving such notice, thereby giving the charge on the face of the register priority over any equitable charge created in favour of the plaintiffs by their charging order. The plaintiffs later discovered the existence of the second defendant’s charge when they attempted to sell the property to satisfy the judgment in their favour. The Land Registry, while accepting its mistake in failing to give the plaintiffs notice of the second defendant’s charge when it was presented for registration, refused to accept that the plaintiffs had suffered any loss. The property was subsequently sold by the bank, the balance of the proceeds after the bank’s mortgage was paid off being insufficient to satisfy both the plaintiffs’ and the second defendant’s charges. The plaintiffs sought as against the Chief Land Registrar and the second defendant a declaration that they were entitled to an indemnity from the registrar under s 83(2)a of the 1925 Act, which provided for an indemnity for any person suffering loss by reason of an error or omission in the register which was not rectified, in respect of their loss suffered by reason of the denial of the priority over the second defendant as a result of the Land Registry’s failure to serve notice pursuant to the caution. The registrar contended (i) that the plaintiffs’ charging order only gave the plaintiffs a charge over the beneficial interest of the judgment debtors in the property and not a charge over their legal interest and therefore it did not take priority over the second defendant’s charge, (ii) that the plaintiffs had not suffered any loss as the result of
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the failure to give them notice pursuant to their caution because by remaining on the register the caution had the effect that the second defendant had to satisfy the interests of the plaintiffs as the cautioners before he was entitled to satisfy his own charge and (iii) that if they had suffered loss the plaintiffs’ proper remedy was to seek rectification of the register so as to obtain priority over the second defendant’s charge, and not seek an indemnity from the registrar.
Held – (1) Where there was a trust, including a statutory trust of the kind which existed when land was vested in joint proprietors, the court had no jurisdiction to make a charging order over the trust property by virtue of para (a)(i) of s 2(1)b of the Charging Orders Act 1979. However, if the relevant conditions were satisfied, the court had jurisdiction to grant a charging order over the trust property by virtue of para (b) of s 2(1); if they were not satisfied, the only charging order that could be made was an order over the beneficial interest of a debtor pursuant to para (a)(ii). The charging order made by the court in favour of the plaintiffs had been intended to, and did, charge the judgment debtors’ property as such and not merely their interest in the proceeds of sale of the property, notwithstanding some non-compliance with the relevant procedures when the order was made which in any event was not serious and could have been amended under the slip rule. It followed that the charging order charged the land under s 2(1)(b)(iii) of the 1979 Act (see p 943 f; p 945 d e and p 946 c to e, post); Irani Finance Ltd v Singh [1970] 3 All ER 199 and National Westminster Bank Ltd v Allen [1971] 3 All ER 201 considered.
(2) A caution was an ‘entry’ on the register for the purpose of s 20(1)c of the 1925 Act, under which the conveyance of an absolute title for valuable consideration conferred on the grantee the legal estate subject to ‘the incumbrances and other entries... appearing on the register’. Accordingly, the second defendant’s charge was ‘subject to’ the plaintiffs’ caution. However, a caution was essentially a procedure enabling a cautioner to object to the registration of subsequent charges, not an interest in land, and, although the second defendant was technically subject to that procedure until his charge was overreached by the sale effected by the bank, what the caution could not and did not do was to make his charge subject to the plaintiffs’ charging order. Accordingly, the plaintiffs’ interest in the land did not have priority over the second defendant’s charge (see p 951 c d, post); Barclays Bank Ltd v Taylor [1973] 1 All ER 752 applied; Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 930 considered.
(3) On the facts, rectification of the register was not an appropriate remedy for the loss suffered by the plaintiffs as the result of the Land Registry’s failure to give them notice of the second defendant’s charge because rectification would merely substitute the second defendant as the claimant for an indemnity from the registrar instead of the plaintiffs. Accordingly, the plaintiffs would be granted the declaration sought, namely that they were entitled to an indemnity from the registrar under s 83(2) of the 1925 Act (see p 954 d e h j, post); Freer v Unwins Ltd [1976] 1 All ER 634 considered.
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Notes
For the right to indemnity, see 26 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1061–1074,and for cases on the subject, see 39(1) Digest (Reissue) 158, 1645–1647.
For cautions against dealings, see 26 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1346–1366, and for cases on the subject, see 39(1) Digest (Reissue) 173–176, 1695–1707.
For priorities in registered conveyancing, see 26 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 922, and for a case on the subject, see 39(1) Digest (Reissue) 172, 1693.
For rectification of the register, see 26 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1054–1060, and for cases on the subject, see 39(1) Digest (Reissue) 155–158, 1629–1644.
For the Land Registration Act 1925, ss 20, 55, 83, see 37 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 538, 565, 590.
For the Charging Orders Act 1979, s 2, see 22 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 374.
For the Land Registration Rules 1925, r 218, see 16 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments 279.
Cases referred to in judgment
Barclays Bank Ltd v Taylor [1973] 1 All ER 752, [1974 ]Ch 137, [1973] 2 WLR 293, CA.
Freer v Unwins Ltd [1976] 1 All ER 634, [1976] Ch 288, [1976] 2 WLR 609.
Irani Finance Ltd v Singh [1970] 3 All ER 199, [1971] Ch 59, [1970] 3 WLR 330, CA.
National Westminster Bank Ltd v Allen [1971] 3 All ER 201, [1971] 2 QB 718, [1971] 3 WLR 495.
Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 930, [1970] Ch 101, [1969] 2 WLR 1134.
Sea View Gardens, Re, Claridge v Tingey [1966] 3 All ER 935, [1967] 1 WLR 134.
Originating summons
By an originating summons dated 28 November 1991, as amended on 8 April 1992 by leave of Master Gower given by consent on 30 March 1992, the plaintiffs, Richard Clark and June Erica Clark, sought as against the defendants, the Chief Land Registrar and Peter Edward Jones, (1) a declaration pursuant to s 2(1) of the Land Registration and Land Charges Act 1971 that the plaintiffs were entitled to an indemnity under s 83 of the Land Registration Act 1925 in connection with the property known as Spinners Corner, 10 Blyton Close, Beaconsfield, Buckinghamshire, registered under title no BM 52804 at HM Land Registry, of a sum to be determined by the court to be paid by the first defendant, (2) that it be determined whether the plaintiffs as chargees under a charging order nisi made on 3 August 1990 and a charging order absolute made on 21 November 1990 over the property by virtue of cautions against dealings registered on 16 August and 29 November 1990 respectively had priority over the interest of the second defendant as proprietor of a legal charge dated 7 December 1990 which was entered on the register on 11 December 1990. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Edward Nugee QC and T Jock Craven (instructed by Hunters) for the plaintiffs.
Peter Crampin (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Chief Land Registrar.
Anthony Allston (instructed by Hobson & Arditti) for Mr Jones.
Cur adv vult
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28 August 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
FERRIS J. This litigation arises out of a mistake admitted to have been made by the Land Registry. Fortunately such mistakes are a rare occurrence. When they do happen they can give rise to difficult questions, as has happened here.
The facts, which are not in dispute, are as follows. In 1976 Mr and Mrs Jarvis purchased a freehold property known as Spinners Corner, 10 Blyton Close, Beaconsfield, Buckinghamshire, to which I shall refer as ‘Spinners Corner’. Shortly afterwards they were registered at the Land Registry as the proprietors of Spinners Corner with absolute title under title no BM 52804. The charge certificate contains no restriction in Form 62 concerning dispositions by the survivor of joint proprietors, which indicates that at the time of registration the Land Registry must have been informed that Mr and Mrs Jarvis were joint tenants beneficially. That they were indeed such joint tenants has been confirmed during the course of the proceedings by the production of a copy of the conveyance to them.
In June 1990 Mr and Mrs Jarvis were still the proprietors of Spinners Corner, subject to a charge in favour of Barclays Bank registered in 1987 and subject also to certain restrictive covenants (which have no relevance to these proceedings), but otherwise free from incumbrances. On 5 June 1990, in proceedings in the Queen’s Bench Division, a Mr and Mrs Clark, who are the plaintiffs in this action, obtained judgment against Mr and Mrs Jarvis for the sum of £200,000 plus £14,444 66 interest and £227.75 costs, making a total of just under £215,000. When this judgment remained unsatisfied the Clarks applied for and were granted a charging order nisi charging Mr and Mrs Jarvis’s interest in Spinners Corner with the amount due under the judgment in their favour. On 16 August 1990 Mr and Mrs Clark registered at the Land Registry a caution in order to protect this charging order. On 21 November 1990 the charging order in favour of the Clarks was made absolute and on 29 November a further caution was registered in respect of the charging order absolute.
On about 25 June 1990 Mr Peter Edward Jones, who has been joined a second defendant since the proceedings were commenced, advanced a sum of about £92,000 to Mr and Mrs Jarvis. On 19 November 1990 he issued a writ against Mr and Mrs Jarvis claiming relief intended to establish that the advance made by him was secured by a legal charge of Spinners Corner which was said to have been lost. That action was compromised on 7 December 1990 when Mr and Mrs Jarvis executed a legal charge of Spinners Corner in favour of Mr Jones to secure the advance which he had made and interest thereon. That legal charge was presented for registration at the Land Registry by Mr Jones’s solicitors on 11 December 1990.
It was then that the mistake on the part of the Land Registry occurred. What should have happened was that, on presentation of Mr Jones’s charge for registration, the Land Registry ought to have given notice to the Clarks under s 55 of the Land Registration Act 1925 and r 218 of the Land Registration Rules 1925, SR & O 1925/1093. On receipt of that notice the Clarks would have had an opportunity to object to the registration of the charge in favour of Mr Jones. Nobody doubts that they would have availed themselves of that opportunity. The Clarks maintain that they could and would have objected to the registration of the charge in favour of Mr Jones unless the charging order nisi which they had obtained before the date of Mr Jones’s charge was given priority over Mr Jones’s charge by the registration of a notice in respect of it pursuant to ss 48 and 49 of the 1925 Act. The Clarks contend that if they had taken this course they would have been given priority by this means, but this is disputed by the Chief Land
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Registrar on grounds which I shall come to. However, this matter was never put to the test. Unfortunately the Land Registry failed to serve the requisite notice on the Clarks, with the result that they remained in ignorance of the charge in favour of Mr Jones. That charge was duly registered, the registration being effective on 11 December 1990, the date when it was lodged for registration. On the face of the register Mr Jones’s charge has effect subject only to the charge in favour of Barclays Bank and has priority over any equitable charge created in favour of the Clarks by the charging order absolute obtained by them. However this question of priority is also disputed by the registrar.
In August 1991, thinking that they had a charge over Spinners Corner which had effect subject only to the charge in favour of Barclays Bank, the Clarks took steps to sell Spinners Corner. They did not get so far as to obtain an order for sale, but they did obtain an offer of £355,000, which they desired to accept. This amount would have been sufficient to discharge the amount due to Barclays Bank (including a contingent liability due to the bank) and leave a significant sum available towards satisfaction of the judgment obtained by the Clarks. In connection with the intended sale the solicitors for the Clarks obtained an office copy of the entries on the register. They then discovered that the charge in favour of Mr Jones had been registered and apparently had priority. The Land Registry immediately accepted that a mistake had been made, for which it apologised. But it contended that, for reasons which I shall have to consider, the Clarks had suffered no loss.
In order to obtain the benefit of what was considered to be the advantageous offer secured by the Clarks, Barclays Bank took over the sale as first mortgagee and duly completed it. The bank has satisfied the debt which is unconditionally due to it and has retained a further sum in respect of its contingent claim. A significant balance remains, which has been placed in an account in the joint names of the solicitors to the parties. It is clear, however, that the proceeds of sale will be insufficient to satisfy the amounts due to all three chargees. If Mr Jones’s charge has priority over the charging order in favour of the Clarks and the contingent debt due to the bank has to be paid the Clarks’ debt may remain wholly unsatisfied. On any view either Mr Jones or the Clarks will suffer a substantial deficiency, the burden of such deficiency falling most heavily on whichever of them does not have priority over the other.
In these circumstances the Clarks seek, in these proceedings, a declaration that they are entitled to an indemnity under s 83 of the Land Registration Act 1925 in respect of the loss they have suffered by reason of the denial of the priority over Mr Jones which, they say, they have lost as a result of the Land Registry’s failure to serve notice pursuant to the caution. The claim to an indemnity is made under s 83(2) of the Land Registration Act 1925, which provides:
‘Where an error or omission has occurred in the register, but the register is not rectified, any person suffering loss by reason of such error or omission, shall, subject to the provisions of this Act, be entitled to be indemnified.’
The error or omission which has occurred, about which there is no dispute, is the registration of Mr Jones’s charge without the requisite notice having been served on the Clarks. The register has not been rectified, in that Mr Jones’s charge remains on the register without any entry having been made which accords priority to the Clarks’ charging order.
In response the registrar has disputed this claim on three grounds, which can be identified as (1) the charging order point, (2) the caution point and (3) the rectification point. I will explain these three grounds in more detail as I consider them. As the caution point affected the interests of Mr Jones, the originating
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summons was amended by adding Mr Jones as second defendant and claiming a declaration as to the priorities inter se of the charging order and Mr Jones’s charge.
(1) THE CHARGING ORDER POINT
There can be no question of the Clarks’ charging order having priority over Mr Jones’s charge unless the effect of that order was to give the Clarks a charge over the legal estate in Spinners Corner, as distinct from a charge over the beneficial interests of Mr and Mrs Jarvis in the proceeds of sale of Spinners Corner. The registrar contends that the order had only the latter effect; the Clarks contend that it had the former.
In order to evaluate these rival contentions it is necessary to consider the terms of s 2(1) of the Charging Orders Act 1979, under which the charging order obtained by the Clarks was made. It will also be necessary to consider the predecessor of that Act and some of the decisions made under it.
Section 2(1) of the 1979 Act provides, so far as material, as follows:
‘Subject to subsection (3) below, a charge may be imposed by a charging order only on—(a) any interest held by the debtor beneficially—(i) in any asset of a kind mentioned in subsection (2) below, or (ii) under any trust; or (b) any interest held by a person as trustee of a trust (“the trust”), if the interest is in such an asset or is an interest under another trust and … (ii) the whole beneficial interest under the trust is held by the debtor unencumbered and for his own benefit, or (iii) in a case where there are two or more debtors all of whom are liable to the creditor for the same debt, they together hold the whole beneficial interest under the trust unencumbered and for their own benefit.’
Subsection (2) provides that the assets referred to in sub-s (1) are, inter alia, land. Subsection (3) has no relevance to this case. For the sake of simplicity I will, in referring to the 1979 Act, omit references to s 2(1) and describe the material provisions as paras (a)(i) and (ii) or (b)(ii) and (iii) respectively.
The registrar contends that the order obtained by the Clarks was made under para (a)(ii) and that, as it charges only the Jarvises’ interests under the statutory trust for sale arising by virtue of their joint ownership of Spinners Corner, it creates no interest in land capable of being protected on the register by a notice or other entry which would give it priority over the charge in favour of Mr Jones, which is undeniably a charge over the legal estate. The argument for the Clarks is that the charging order was made either under para (a)(i) or under para (b)(iii) and that on either basis it gives rise to a charge over the land, as distinct from the proceeds of sale. It is accepted on their behalf that the charge was equivalent to an equitable, not a legal, charge because that is what s 3(4) of the 1979 Act provides. But at the stage at which the Clarks ought to have been given notice pursuant to the caution they had registered Mr Jones’s charge took effect in equity only (see s 106(4) of the 1925 Act), because it had not yet been registered. Accordingly the contest at that stage would have been between two charges which fell to be treated as equitable charges and the Clarks’ charge, being first in time, ought to have been accorded priority. The latter part of the argument for the Clarks is accepted by all parties. The dispute is concentrated on the first part. In essence there are two separate questions, namely: (a) whether, in a case where land is vested in joint proprietors and is thus held on a statutory trust for sale, a charging order on the land can be made under para (a)(i); and (b) if a charging order could not be made under para (a)(i) in such a case, ought the charging order which was obtained by the Clarks to be regarded as made under para (a)(ii) or para (b)(iii)?
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(a) Can a charging order on land held by joint proprietors be made under para (a)(i)?
The predecessor of the Charging Orders Act 1979 was s 35 of the Administration of Justice Act 1956. This section empowered the court for certain purposes ‘by order [to] impose on any such land or interest in land of the debtor as may be specified in the order a charge for securing the payment of any moneys …’
In Irani Finance Ltd v Singh [1970] 3 All ER 199, [1971] Ch 59 registered land was conveyed to the two defendants as legal and equitable joint tenants. Subsequently, on an application by the plaintiff, the court purported to make an order charging the first defendant’s interest in the land with the amount due under a judgment obtained against him; and on a subsequent date the court purported to make a similar order charging the second defendant’s interest in the land with the amount due under a separate judgment for a different debt obtained against him. On the status of the plaintiff under the charging orders being called into question it was held that the defendants individually had no interest in land capable of being made the subject of a charging order under s 35. All that each of them had was an interest in the proceeds of sale of the land, which was not enough to satisfy the words of the section.
A similar point came before the court in National Westminster Bank Ltd v Allen [1971] 3 All ER 201, [1971] 2 QB 718. That case was like Irani Finance Ltd v Singh in that land was vested in the defendants as joint tenants legally and beneficially; but the judgment obtained by the plaintiff was a single judgment obtained against the defendants jointly in respect of a debt for which they were jointly liable. Waller J was able to distinguish the Irani Finance case on the ground that, on the facts of that case, the charging orders could have effect, if at all, only as charges upon the interests of the defendants in the proceeds of sale, whereas in the case before him a charging order was sought on the land itself, the legal estate in which was vested in the defendants jointly on behalf of themselves beneficially, and was to secure a judgment debt for which the defendants were jointly liable.
The 1979 Act was passed in order to give effect to the recommendations of the Law Commission embodied in its Report on Charging Orders (Law Com no 74). In that report the Law Commission generally expressed approval of National Westminster Bank v Allen and recommended that the power to grant charges should be extended in a number of respects. These include giving power to charge beneficial interests under trusts in the cases which now fall within para (a)(ii) (which would include a case of the Irani Finance Ltd v Singh type) and power to charge the trust property itself in the cases which fall within para (b).
On behalf of the Clarks Mr Nugee QC contended that, before the 1979 Act was passed, a charging order on Spinners Corner could properly have been made under s 35 of the 1956 Act, because the case would have been indistinguishable from National Westminster Bank Ltd v Allen. He argued that s 35 of the 1956 Act has been substantially re-enacted as para (a)(i). Paragraph (a)(ii) and para (b) give effect to the extended powers which the Law Commission thought that the court should have, but the Clarks had no need to invoke these powers and have not done so. The order which they have obtained should be treated as creating a charge on the land, as in National Westminster Bank Ltd v Allen, by virtue of para (a)(i). In particular it would have been necessary for the Clarks to resort to para (b)(iii) only if a charge had been sought over trust property vested in trustees who were not themselves the judgment debtors.
Against this Mr Crampin, on behalf of the registrar, contended that the 1979 Act has, in enlarging the powers of the court, adopted a different scheme from that of s 35. Paragraph (a) now deals with charges over property which is vested in a person beneficially, including a beneficial interest under a trust by virtue of
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para (a)(ii). Paragraph (b) deals with cases where there is trust property and the charge is sought over that property, as distinct from being sought over a beneficial interest in that property. He relied on the fact that para (a) extends only to ‘any interest held by the debtor beneficially’. The word ‘beneficially’ had no equivalent in s 35 and, said Mr Crampin, confined para (a) to property to which the debtor is entitled in the eye of equity. The Jarvises did indeed have such property, namely their beneficial interests under the trust for sale, but these come within para (a)(ii), not within para (a)(i). This view of the two paragraphs was, he said, consistent with the language of para (b)(ii) and (iii), under which a charge can be created over trust property only where the interest of the debtor is unencumbered. If Mr Nugee were right a charge could be created over trust property under para (a)(i) in a case of the present kind even where the beneficial interest of the debtors are encumbered. The legislature cannot have intended that this should be so merely because the beneficiaries and the trustees happen to be the same persons (so equating the circumstances to those of National Westminster Bank Ltd v Allen) when, in a case where they are different persons, para (b)(iii) would not enable it to be done. Mr Crampin emphasised that his argument did not in any way mean that the legislature has superseded National Westminster Bank Ltd v Allen. The jurisdiction which was there exercised is continued, in extended form, in para (b)(iii) (although Mr Crampin went on to say that this jurisdiction had not been invoked by the Clarks).
Mr Crampin argued that the word ‘debtor’ in para (a) means debtor in the singular, the general rule to the contrary in the Interpretation Act 1978 being excluded by the context. I do not feel able to accept this part of Mr Crampin’s submissions. I do not see why, in a case where there is no express or implied trust (eg where government stock is vested in joint debtors jointly), there should be no jurisdiction to grant a charging order under para (a)(i). But I accept the rest of Mr Crampin’s submissions. In my judgment, in a case where there is a trust, including a statutory trust of the kind which exists when land is vested in joint proprietors, the court has no jurisdiction to make a charging order over the trust property by virtue of para (a)(i). If the relevant conditions are satisfied, it has jurisdiction to grant a charging order over the trust property by virtue of para (b). If the relevant conditions are-not satisfied, the only charging order that can be made is one over the beneficial interest of a debtor pursuant to para (a)(ii).
(b) Ought the charging order that was obtained by the Clarks to be regarded as made under para (a)(ii) or para (b)(iii)?
It is not disputed by the registrar that, on the facts of this case, there was jurisdiction to make a charging order under para (b)(iii) at the time when the Clarks’ application for a charging order came before the master. It was also accepted that a charging order on the land under para (b)(iii) would have been much more beneficial to the Clarks than a charging order on the respective interests of the Jarvises in the proceeds of sale under para (a)(ii). It was, however, contended on behalf of the registrar that what the Clarks obtained was the second, not the first. In order to evaluate this contention it is necessary to consider the terms of the Clarks’ application and of the orders which they obtained.
The application for a charging order was, in accordance with the rules, made ex parte, without there being a summons or other initiating document. The application was founded upon an affidavit sworn by a Mr Merrick, a trainee solicitor with the firm representing the Clarks. In that affidavit Mr Merrick referred to the judgment obtained by the Clarks and stated that: ‘It is sought to impose a charge on the freehold land known as Spinners Corner ...’ He gave
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particulars of the registered title and said that he was informed and verily believed that the Jarvises ‘are the beneficial freehold owners of the said property’. He mentioned certain creditors of the Jarvises of whom he was aware and concluded by asking that ‘an order may be made imposing a charge on the said property of the Defendants’.
The order, which was made on 3 August 1990, referred to the affidavit of Mr Merrick, from which it appeared that the Clarks had an unsatisfied judgment and that the Jarvises had ‘a beneficial interest in the asset specified in the Schedule hereto’. It was then directed that, until a further hearing fixed for 21 November 1990, ‘the Defendants’ interest in the said asset’ should stand charged with the payment of the amount due under the judgment, with interest and costs. In the schedule to the order the asset was described as ‘Spinners Corner … registered at H.M. Land Registry under title no. BM 52804’.
On 21 November 1990 the matter came before the court again. It seems that no one sought to show cause why the charging order should not be made absolute. It was then ordered that ‘the interests of the Defendants in the assets specified in the schedule hereto’ should stand charged with the amount due under the judgment and interest and costs. The schedule to this order was in the same terms as the schedule to the order of 3 August.
On behalf of the Clarks Mr Nugee argued that it was manifest that what had been charged was the land known as Spinners Corner, not merely the Jarvises’ beneficial interests in the proceeds of sale of that land. Mr Merrick had, in his affidavit, asked for a charging order ‘on the freehold land’ and he had said (albeit on the basis of information from an unidentified source) that the Jarvises were the beneficial freehold owners of such land. The masters who had made first the order nisi and then the order absolute must have intended to make the orders asked for and the orders which they had made were appropriate for this purpose. Although both orders are expressed in terms of charging the Jarvises’ interest (or, in the case of the order absolute, interests) in the asset described in the schedule, that follows from the language of s 2 of the 1979 Act, for both para (a) and para (b) empower the court to grant a charging order only upon an ‘interest’ of a particular kind. Moreover this language accords with that of RSC App A, Forms 75 and 76, the use of which is made mandatory for charging orders nisi and absolute respectively by Ord 50, rr 1(2) and 3(2).
Against this Mr Crampin, on behalf of the registrar, pointed out that once it has been established, as I have held, that a charging order could not have been made under para (a)(i), Ord 50 lays down special requirements. The scheme of Ord 50 is, by rr 1(2), 2 and 3, to lay down the procedure applicable to the making of a charging order in respect of a judgment debtor’s beneficial interest (ie under para (a) of s 2(1)). Where a charging order is sought in respect of an interest held by a trustee (ie under para (b)) r 4 applies. Under this rule the procedure applicable to beneficial interest cases is modified. In particular, instead of verifying the judgment debtor’s beneficial ownership of the interest to be charged, the affidavit in support of the application is to state the ground on which the application is based and is to verify the material facts; on making the order nisi the court is to give directions for service of the order and affidavit in support on such of the trustees and beneficiaries as may be appropriate; and Forms 75 and 76 are to be modified so as to indicate that the interest to be charged is held by the debtor as trustee or, as the case may be, that it is held by a trustee (to be named in the order) on trust for the debtor beneficially. Moreover, the note to the schedule to Form 75 (which applies also to the schedule to Form 76) directs that there shall be described therein, with full particulars, the relevant ‘land securities fund or trust’.
The result of these requirements, according to Mr Crampin, is that a charging
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order on Spinners Corner could only have been made under para (b)(iii) if (a) the court had before it evidence to satisfy it that the Jarvises together held the whole beneficial interest in Spinners Corner unencumbered and for their own benefit, (b) Mr Merrick’s affidavit had contained a statement that the application was made on the ground specified in para (b)(iii) and had verified the material facts, (c) the master had at least considered whether to require the order nisi and affidavit in support to be served on the trustees and beneficiaries, (d) the order had been expressed in a way which indicated that the interest charged was held by trustees named in the order and (e) the schedule to the order had described with full particulars the relevant trust.
As none of these requirements was properly satisfied the order, it was submitted, cannot have been made under para (b)(iii) and must have been made under para (a)(ii). But on that basis it can only have been an order charging the interest of the Jarvises in the proceeds of sale of Spinners Corner.
While I see the force of Mr Crampin’s submissions I am unable to accept them for three reasons. First, I have no doubt that what was applied for on behalf of the Clarks and what the masters who made the orders intended to do was to charge Spinners Corner as such, not to charge interest in the proceeds of sale of Spinners Corner. To allow this manifest intention to be defeated by reason of some noncompliance with the relevant procedures would not, in my judgment, represent a proper approach to an exercise which, in essence, is one of construing the court’s own orders. Had I felt greater doubt about the matter I would have given an opportunity for an application to be made to amend the orders under the slip rule, but in my judgment this is not necessary.
Secondly, any failure to comply with the requisite procedure was not, in my view, of any great seriousness. While Mr Merrick’s affidavit was not, I think, prepared with the requirements of para (b)(iii) in mind, it does, it seems to me satisfy the substance of those requirements. Where a trust arises by virtue of the impact of statute upon co-ownership it is difficult to see what more could be said about the trust than is said or is implicit in Mr Merrick’s affidavit. While Mr Merrick’s affidavit does not refer to para (b)(iii), it does, I think verify all the material facts save possibly that the interests of the Jarvises were free from incumbrances. But a party seeking a charging order will seldom have affirmative evidence about this and a statement in the affidavit to the effect that the deponent is not aware of any encumbrance on the beneficial interests is likely to be all that is to be expected. I see nothing wrong in the court acting on such a statement unless and until the contrary appears. To do otherwise might stultify para (b)(iii), because an applicant would be unable in many cases to show that his application comes within it. But if this is right I cannot think that the absence of such a statement in the affidavit in support amounts to a reason for treating the order as being different in its effect from what I would otherwise have supposed. Moreover it may be said to be implicit in Mr Merrick’s statement that he believed the Jarvises to be the beneficial freehold owners and that he believed them to be the only persons having beneficial interests under the relevant trust, to the exclusion of any incumbrances. As to service on the trustees and beneficiaries, service on the Jarvises was in any event required by Ord 50, r 2(1)(a) (applied to a trustee case by virtue of r 4(1)) and the master would not have directed the order or affidavit to be served on anyone else even if his attention had been drawn to r 4(3). In respect of the last two requirements identified by Mr Crampin, neither order identifies the Jarvises as trustees or describes the relevant trust as such, but the essential information from which the nature of the trust can be ascertained is, it seems to me, contained in the order.
Thirdly, it must be borne in mind that the procedural points to which
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Mr Crampin drew attention are relied upon not for the purpose of supporting an argument that the orders were invalid but in support of an argument that they must be regarded as made under para (a)(ii) in respect of interests in the proceeds of sale only. But the orders as drawn are not strictly in conformity with the requirements for orders under para (a)(ii), for in order to comply with the note to Form 75 the relevant trust ought to have been identified in the schedule to each order. It is not therefore a case where it can be said that all problems are avoided by regarding the orders as affecting only the interests of the Jarvises in the proceeds of sale of Spinners Corner.
In my view the probability is that, so far as they addressed their minds to the point, those representing the Clarks and the masters from whom they obtained the orders thought that they were proceeding under para (a)(i). That was not, on the view which I take of s 2(1) of the 1979 Act, something which could be done in the circumstances of this case. But, if I am right in supposing that that was the basis on which the orders were made, it is clear that the intention was to charge the land, not the proceeds of sale, and it is not surprising that the orders were expressed in terms which, to my mind, create a charge over the land. There was, in fact, power to charge the land under para (b)(iii). In order for this power to be exercised certain additional formalities ought to have been observed, but it cannot, in my judgment, be suggested that compliance with them would have presented any difficulty or given rise to anything more than minor changes in the affidavit in support or in the orders which were in fact made. In my view it is more natural to treat the orders as having the effect which it seems to me that they were intended to have than to treat them as having a different effect.
(2) THE CAUTION POINT
On the footing that, as I have now held, the charging order obtained by the Clarks charges the land, the registrar contends that the Clarks have nevertheless suffered no loss as the result of the failure to give notice pursuant to their caution. (By ‘their caution’ I mean the caution lodged on 29 November 1990 in respect of their charging order absolute. Although the caution in respect of the charging order nisi remained on the register for some time it had no substantive effect after 29 November 1990.) The caution remains on the register and it is said that it has the effect that, if Mr Jones were to obtain the surplus proceeds of sale not required to satisfy the charge in favour of Barclays Bank, he would have to satisfy the interests of the Clarks as cautioners before he could take anything in satisfaction of his own charge. This contention, if it were right, would be advantageous to the Clarks, who would not then need to seek an indemnity from the registrar. The Clarks do not, however, support it. On their behalf Mr Nugee submits that it is manifestly wrong.
The material statutory provisions in respect of cautions are as follows. By s 54(1) of the Land Registration Act 1925 it is provided:
‘Any person interested under any unregistered instrument, or interested as a judgment creditor, or otherwise howsoever, in any land or charge registered in the name of any other person, may lodge a caution with the registrar to the effect that no dealing with such land or charge on the part of the proprietor is to be registered until notice has been served on the cautioner …’
The effect of a caution is stated in s 55, which is in the following terms:
55. Effect of cautions against dealings.—(1) After any such caution against dealings has been lodged in respect of any registered land or charge, the
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registrar shall not, without the consent of the cautioner, register any dealing or make any entry on the register for protecting the rights acquired under a deposit of a land or charge certificate or other dealing by the proprietor with such land or charge until he has served notice on the cautioner, warning him that his caution will cease to have any effect after the expiration of the prescribed number of days next following the date at which such notice is served; and after the expiration of such time as aforesaid the caution shall cease unless an order to the contrary is made by the registrar, and upon the caution so ceasing the registered land or charge may be dealt with in the same manner as if no caution had been lodged.
(2) If before the expiration of the said period the cautioner, or some person on his behalf, appears before the registrar, and where so required by the registrar gives sufficient security to indemnify every party against any damage that may be sustained by reason of any dealing with the registered land or charge, or the making of any such entry as aforesaid, being delayed, the registrar may thereupon, if he thinks fit to do so, delay registering any dealing with the land or charge or making any such entry for such period as he thinks just.’
By s 56(2) it is provided:
‘A caution lodged in pursuance of this Act shall not prejudice the claim or title of any person and shall have no effect whatever except as in this Act mentioned.’
For some time after the Administration of Justice Act 1956 was passed it appears to have been thought that the only means of protecting a charging order in respect of registered land made under s 35 of that Act was to lodge a caution. In Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 930 at 935, [1970] Ch 101 at 110 Plowman J said that ‘the appropriate form of protection for a charging order is a caution’.
However, s 3(3) of the Charging Orders Act 1979 amended s 49 of the Land Registration Act 1925 by providing that charging orders made under the 1979 Act which in the case of unregistered land might be protected by registration under the Land Charges Act 1972 should be capable of protection by notice, and so have the effect mentioned in s 48 of the 1925 Act. It appears that for some time, even before the 1979 Act was passed, the registrar had, in exercise of his discretion, allowed charging orders under the 1956 Act to be protected by registration of a notice where this was practicable (see Ruoff and Roper Registered Conveyancing (1991) para 35–32).
Protection of a charging order by notice is very effective, because under the joint operation of ss 48 and 49 of the 1925 Act every proprietor of registered land and the persons deriving title under him are deemed to have notice of the charging order. However, protection by notice is not often practicable, for a notice cannot be registered unless the land or charge certificate is lodged in the Land Registry and in the usual case in which a charging order is obtained the degree of co-operation necessary to bring this about is absent. But if a charging order is protected by a caution it may well be practicable to register a notice at the stage when the cautioner shows cause in response to a warning notice. By this means a party entitled to the benefit of a charging order may be able to establish priority over a party taking under a subsequent dealing. It is this that the Clarks would have sought to do in the present case if they had been served with the requisite notice pursuant to their caution.
The effect of a caution was considered by the Court of Appeal in Barclays Bank
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Ltd v Taylor [1973] 1 All ER 752, [1974] Ch 137. In that case the land certificate of registered land had been deposited with the bank by way of security and the bank had registered at the Land Registry a notice of deposit which, under the rules, had effect as a caution under s 54. Subsequently the bank was granted a legal mortgage but before this had been registered the registered proprietors entered into a contract to sell the land to purchasers who lodged a caution to protect their interest as purchasers under the contract. The bank subsequently took steps to register its legal charge and notice of this application was given to the purchasers as cautioners. The purchasers claimed that the bank’s charge should be registered only subject to their contract. The Court of Appeal held that the bank’s unregistered mortgage and the purchasers’ contract were both minor interests which took effect in equity only and that the priority between them was governed by the normal rules, the interest which was first in time having priority. In giving the judgment of the court, Russell LJ made a number of observations which bear upon the effect of a caution ([1973] 1 All ER 752 at 757, [1974] Ch 37 at 147):
‘The caution lodged on behalf of the [purchasers] had no effect whatever by itself on priorities: it simply conferred on the [purchasers] the right to be given notice of any dealing proposed to be registered … so that they might have the opportunity of contending that it would be a dealing which would infringe their rights and to which the applicants for the registration were not as against them entitled … the [purchasers’] caution did not and could not confer on their equitable entitlement or interest any priority over the bank’s equitable charge … counsel for the [purchasers] was quite unable to point to any provision in the statute which stated that their caution as such gave them priority in respect of their equitable interest over the earlier equitable interest of the bank under its mortgage. If such had been the intention of the legislature, it would not have been difficult for the statute to have so provided: see the express provision in s 29 on priorities between registered charges …’
The argument on behalf of the Clarks was that the registrar’s contention concerning the Clarks’ caution seeks to give to that caution precisely the effect on priorities which the Court of Appeal said that a caution does not and cannot have. Moreover the suggestion that the Clarks have priority over Mr Jones is contrary to s 29 of the 1925 Act under which:
‘Subject to any entry to the contrary on the register, registered charges on the same land shall as between themselves rank according to the order in which they are entered on the register, and not according to the order in which they are created.’
Looking at the register immediately after Mr Jones’s charge was registered, that charge ranked, it is said, subject only to the prior charge of Barclays Bank. It cannot rank subject to the Clarks’ charging order, because that charging order has not been entered on the register.
The registrar’s answer to this argument is based upon s 59 of the 1925 Act and Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 930, [1970] Ch 101. Section 59(1) provides:
‘A writ, order, deed of arrangement, pending action, or other interest which in the case of unregistered land may be protected by registration under the Land Charges Act, 1925, shall, where the land affected or the charge
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securing the debt affected is registered, be protected only by lodging a creditor’s notice, a bankruptcy inhibition or a caution against dealings with the land or the charge.’
As I have mentioned, s 3(3) of the Charging Orders Act 1979 now expressly permits a charging order to be protected by a notice and even before that Act was passed the registrar allowed this as a matter of discretion. However these facts do not affect the submission of the registrar, which was based on s 59(6), which provides that, subject to certain immaterial exceptions—
‘a purchaser acquiring title under a registered disposition, shall not be concerned with any … order … or other document, matter, or claim (not being an overriding interest) which is not protected by a caution or other entry on the register, whether he has or has not notice thereof, express, implied, or constructive.’
The argument is that where a charging order is protected by a caution or other entry on the register a purchaser is ‘affected by it’ and that, in the context, ‘affected by it’ means that he takes subject to it. It was submitted that this had been held to be so in Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd [1969] 1 All ER 930, [1970] Ch 101, and that this view was indorsed by a note in Megarry and Wade’s Law of Real Property (5th edn, 1984) p 213 (see footnote 88).
In Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd the defendant obtained a charging order on registered land which it protected by lodging a caution. The plaintiff entered into a contract to purchase the land and his solicitors obtained an official search, which by an error, did not disclose the caution. The plaintiff then completed his purchase and executed a legal charge over the property. When the transfer in favour of the plaintiff and the charge executed by him were presented for registration notice was given to the defendant as cautioner. The defendant objected to these instruments being registered until its charge had been redeemed. The registrar in accordance with the rules, ordered that the following questions be referred to the court: (a) whether the caution should continue to have effect or be cancelled and (b) if the caution was to continue to have effect the order of priority in which the charging order to Irani, the transfer to the plaintiff and the charge to the plaintiff’s mortgagee should be entered on the register.
The report of the argument (see [1970] Ch 101 at 104–108) shows that it was accepted on behalf of the plaintiff that, unless there was something to give priority to the transfer in his favour (which at that stage took effect in equity only by virtue of s 106 of the 1925 Act), the prior equity of Irani must prevail. It was contended that the plaintiff’s transfer should have priority because the plaintiff had no notice of the interest protected by the caution and, if it were not for the caution, would have become a purchaser for value without notice. The main argument for Irani was that the ordinary doctrine of notice had no application to registered land. If it were applicable it would be in conflict with s 59. The plaintiff’s mortgagee supported the plaintiff’s argument and raised other arguments which do not matter for present purposes.
Plowman J rejected the plaintiff’s argument based on the absence of notice. In doing so he referred to s 59(6) and said ([1969] 1 All ER 930 at 935, [1970] Ch 101 at 110):
‘It is true, as was stressed in the argument before me, that what the subsection says is that a purchaser is not affected by notice, express, implied or constructive, of matters capable of protection by a caution and not so protected and that (unlike the case of a notice of lease under s 48(1) of the
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Act) it does not say in terms that a purchaser is affected by a notice of matters capable of protection by caution, which are so protected, but that, in my judgment, is implicit in the scheme of the Act and in the subsection.’ (Plowman J’s emphasis.)
He went on to hold first that the appropriate form of protection for a charging order is a caution (this may, it seems, have been before the registrar began to allow protection by notice), secondly that once the caution is registered the cautioner could only lose his protection in various specific ways which were not applicable to that case and thirdly—
‘that therefore he does not lose it merely because a purchaser of the property does not know of its existence, even if the purchaser’s ignorance is the result of a mistake in the Land Registry, short of a failure to act on an application to register the caution in the first place.’ (See [1969] 1 All ER 930 at 935 [1970] Ch 101 at 111.)
His ultimate conclusion was that—
‘Irani’s caution should continue to have effect and that it takes priority over the transfer of 10th August 1967, and the charge of the same date.’ (See [1969] 1 All ER 930 at 936, [1970] Ch 101 at 112.)
I have thought it necessary to summarise Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd in some detail because Mr Nugee contended, on behalf of the Clarks that, although the reasoning of Plowman J might appear to support the registrar’s argument, this was not in fact the case. Mr Nugee supported that part of the reasoning which rejected the argument that the principles of notice applicable to unregistered land were also applicable to registered land, in so far as this reasoning did not depend on s 59(6). That was all that was necessary to decide the case. The plaintiff could not establish that he was a purchaser of a legal estate because, at the time when the matter came before the court, he did not have the legal estate. Accordingly, the contest was between two equitable interests and, in accordance with the principles subsequently applied in Barclays Bank Ltd v Taylor [1973] 1 All ER 752, [1974] Ch 137, the interest of Irani prevailed because it was first in time. When, at the end of his judgment, Plowman J said that Irani’s caution took priority over the transfer in favour of the plaintiff and the charge executed by him, he should be taken as meaning that the charging order protected by the caution took priority. That was, in substance, the answer to the second question which had been referred to the court by the registrar. I note that Mr Crampin sought instructions as to what entries had been made in the register pursuant to the order of Plowman J, but the answer was unhelpful as it appears that the registrar indemnified Irani and cancelled the caution, so leaving the field open for registration of the plaintiff and his mortgagee.
Mr Nugee contended that the observations of Plowman J on s 59(6) were unnecessary to his decision and, in so far as they suggest that a caution has, in some respects at least, an effect similar to that of a notice, they were inconsistent with s 56(2) and with the emphatic statements of the Court of Appeal in Barclays Bank Ltd v Taylor and ought not to be followed. Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd was cited in argument in Barclays Bank Ltd v Taylor but was not commented upon in the judgment.
In my judgment Mr Nugee’s submissions concerning Parkash v Irani Finance Ltd are correct. I doubt whether Plowman J intended to suggest that a caution had much the same effect as a notice. In so far as his language may suggest otherwise I must, I think, decline to apply it. If I were to do so I would, it appears to me, ignore the binding reasoning of Barclays Bank Ltd v Taylor.
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There is one other argument on this part of the case which I ought to deal with. Mr Nugee on behalf of the Clarks and Mr Allston on behalf of Mr Jones referred to s 20(1) of the 1925 Act, under which a disposition of a legal estate in land registered with an absolute title for valuable consideration shall, when registered, confer on the grantee the legal estate expressed to be created in the land dealt with, subject to ‘the incumbrances and other entries, if any, appearing on the register’ and to overriding interests ‘but free from all other estates and interests whatsoever’. It was submitted that this had the effect that Mr Jones’s charge took effect subject only to the restrictive covenants noted on the register and to the charge in favour of Barclays Bank. Against this, Mr Crampin, on behalf of the registrar, relied upon the words ‘subject ... to the ... other entries, if any, appearing on the register’ and contended that the caution was such an entry. I have no difficulty in accepting that a caution is an entry on the register for this purpose and that Mr Jones’s charge is ‘subject to’ the caution. But in order to see what this means it is necessary to analyse the effect of a caution, which takes one back to the matters I have already considered. In my judgment a caution is essentially a procedure (namely the procedure prescribed by s 55 of the 1925 Act and rr 218 to 221 of the 1925 rules), not an interest in land. Hence, until Mr Jones’s charge was overreached by the sale effected by Barclays Bank, Mr Jones was technically subject to that procedure (although in practice it would have had no impact upon him, because the caution applied only in relation to dealings on the part of ‘the proprietor’, namely the Jarvises, and not to dealings by Mr Jones as chargee). What the caution could not and did not do, in my judgment, was to make Mr Jones’s charge subject to the Clarks’ charging order.
(3) THE RECTIFICATION POINT
Shortly before the hearing of the originating summons the registrar raised the further point that if, as I have held, the Clarks have an interest in the land and that interest does not already have priority over Mr Jones’s charge, then the proper remedy of the Clarks is to seek rectification of the register so as to obtain such priority, not to seek an indemnity from the registrar.
Two preliminary points call for mention in relation to this argument. First, at a very early stage after the problems first came to light the Clarks did ask for the register to be rectified, but the registrar refused to do this. He was, of course, contending that the Clarks had no interest capable of being protected by notice and rectification would have been inconsistent with this contention. Secondly, there is at present no application for rectification before the court. If it were appropriate leave could be given for the originating summons to be amended in such a way as to include a claim by the Clarks for rectification, but it would not be appropriate for this to be done without a substantial adjournment. Although all the primary facts in relation to the jurisdiction to rectify are before the court and are undisputed, Mr Jones may well have evidence material to the exercise of the court’s discretion to rectify which he ought to have an opportunity to deploy and which the Clarks may wish to answer. In Re Sea View Gardens, Claridge v Tingey [1966] 3 All ER 935, [1967] 1 WLR 134 Pennycuick J expressed unwillingness to exercise his discretion without relevant evidence being before the court and adjourned the case before him to enable this to be done. Clearly if it came to the point I ought to take a similar course. It is, however, submitted on behalf of the Clarks and Mr Jones that it is unnecessary to do this because it can be seen either that there is no jurisdiction to rectify or that rectification is out of the question.
The jurisdiction to rectify the register is conferred by s 82(1) of the 1925 Act in various specified cases, including:
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‘(h) In any other case where, by reason of any error or omission in the register, or by reason of any entry made under a mistake, it may be deemed just to rectify the register.’
All parties accept that there has been an error or entry made under a mistake within this paragraph, in that Mr Jones’s charge has been registered without the machinery prescribed by s 55 of the 1925 Act and rr 218 to 221 of the 1925 rules being operated. Mr Nugee argued that nevertheless there is now no jurisdiction to rectify the register. He pointed out that the register is a register of title to land, which means, he said, a register of the present title to land and of the incidents affecting that title. When the transfer by Barclays Bank to the purchaser was registered the cautions lodged to protect the charging order obtained by the Clarks were quite properly cancelled pursuant to s 34(4) of the 1925 Act, as were the entries relating to Mr Jones’s charge. So far as the Clarks and Mr Jones are concerned the present entries on the register are quite correct. Moreover, on the registration as proprietors of the purchasers from Barclays Bank the registrar closed the old register of the title to Spinners Corner and made a new edition of it containing only the subsisting entries relating to it. This he was perfectly entitled to do by r 17 of the 1925 rules. The subsisting entries do not include any of the incumbrances (other than restrictive covenants) which affected Spinners Corner during its ownership by the Jarvises. Accordingly the charges in favour of Barclays Bank and Mr Jones do not now appear, even as cancelled entries, in the current register of Spinners Corner. The record of them is, of course, preserved in some form at the Land Registry. But Mr Nugee submitted that there is no jurisdiction in the court to rectify a cleared and closed register.
Mr Allston, on behalf of Mr Jones, supported Mr Nugee’s general conclusion, although he put the matter somewhat differently. He relied upon the fact that the only form of rectification which would assist the Clarks is retrospective rectification, which has effect from a time immediately before the registration of Mr Jones’s charge. In the case of rectification in accordance with equitable principles rectification usually, if not always, operates retrospectively. But this is not necessarily the case with rectification under s 82 of the 1925 Act.
Mr Allston drew my attention to the decision of Walton J in Freer v Unwins Ltd [1976] 1 All ER 634, [1976] Ch 288. In that case the plaintiff claimed to have the benefit of a covenant preventing the defendant from carrying on a particular trade on the property which it owned and brought an action to restrain breach of this covenant. The covenant had been imposed at a time when the title to the property was unregistered and, by an error, it was not noted on the register at the time of first registration. The defendant had in 1974 acquired the residue of an unregistered leasehold term granted in 1969, after the title was registered. Although the defendant as leaseholder was, in principle, bound by covenants affecting the freehold, it had taken the precaution of examining the freehold title before purchasing the lease and had discovered no mention of the covenant. Accordingly, it had a complete defence to the action. The plaintiff’s solicitors then complained of the error to the Land Registry, which rectified the register by opening a new edition which contained in the charges register a note of the covenant which was expressed to have been registered on 28 April 1975. This was treated as an effective entry on the register, although the judge clearly had doubts whether it ought to have been made. The plaintiff then launched a new motion for an injunction, on the footing that the covenant had become binding on the defendant by virtue of the rectification. The hearing of the motion was treated as the trial of the action and no point was taken on the fact that the plaintiff’s cause
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of action did not exist at the date of the writ. The question was what was the effect of the registration of notice of the covenant on 28 April 1975, which was some six years after defendants acquired the lease of the property bound by the covenant. Walton J said ([1976] 1 All ER 634 at 637–638, [1976] Ch 288 at 296):
‘… one of the odd things about rectification is that there is no provision in s 82, which is the section which deals with rectification, which states in terms or by implication what date is to be inserted against any entry which is inserted pursuant to rectification. One would perhaps have expected to have found some guidance as to the date, but no guidance whatsoever is given at all. It merely says, “The register may be rectified”, and then, apart from setting out the provision, the circumstances under which it may be rectified and making certain qualifications as to when it may be and when it shall not be rectified, it does not, I think, tell one anything more about the date as from which the restriction takes effect. Of course, if one were dealing with the ordinary sort of rectification with which courts of equity are accustomed to deal in relation to documents, that always relates back to the date when the document was itself executed; but, of course, correspondingly, the rights of all parties, who have in the meantime gained interests on the faith of the unrectified document for value without notice, are strenuously protected. So that I do not think that one can, having regard to the rather different provisions of the Land Registration Act 1925, really equate a rectification in equity with rectification under the Act.’
He then considered certain provisions of the 1925 Act from which he concluded that, in order to discover whether the covenant was binding on the defendant, he had to consider the position at the date of the lease in 1969. At that date there was no notice of the covenant on the register. The earliest date at which notice of the covenant could be regarded as having been entered on the register was 28 April 1975, but notice entered at that date could not affect the defendant, who had taken under a disposition made before that date.
Freer v Unwins Ltd [1976] 1 All ER 634, [1976] Ch 288 was not, of course, a case in which the court itself was asked to rectify the register, still less to decide the date from which the rectification should have effect. The observations of Walton J do, however, indicate a doubt on his part whether rectification can be made retrospective under the 1925 Act.
For my part, I do not think that Mr Nugee is right in so far as he submitted that any jurisdiction to rectify the register in relation to an incident affecting the Jarvises’ ownership of the land was destroyed once the Jarvises ceased to be proprietors by virtue of the sale effected by Barclays Bank. Suppose a case in which land is subject to three charges, but there is a claim that, as a result of an error in the Land Registry, the second and third charges have been registered in the wrong order, so giving rise to the wrong priority pursuant to s 29. This may lead to a claim for rectification of the register by the second chargee. I cannot accept that this claim for rectification could be defeated, for want of jurisdiction, merely on the ground that while it is pending (or perhaps even before it has been initiated) the first chargee has perfectly lawfully sold the land pursuant to his powers as mortgagee. But in such a case rectification at the instance of the disappointed chargee would not necessarily raise any question as to the time at which such rectification is to have effect. Rectification effective at the date of the order would, it seems to me, be sufficient to restore the priority which is assumed to have been reversed by the error.
In the present case it is not clear what form of rectification would be appropriate
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to deal with the position. Three possibilities were canvassed in argument, namely (i) deletion of the entries relating to Mr Jones’s charge, without any new entry being made, (ii) registration of a notice of the Clarks’ charging order and (iii) as in (ii), but with the addition of a note which states that Mr Jones’s charge is subject to the charging order, albeit that the notice of the charging order will only have been entered at a later date.
The first of these possibilities measures up to the error, in that what has gone wrong is that Mr Jones’s charge has been registered without the requisite notice being served on the Clarks. To cancel the registration would therefore restore the position to what it was in December 1990. But it can hardly be suggested that it ought to be left there. What ought to have happened then was the service of notice on the Clarks, followed by them objecting to registration of Mr Jones’s charge except after prior registration of a notice in respect of their charging order. It does not seem to me to be realistic to follow this course now. Moreover it is not clear to me how this would be done, bearing in mind that none of this will be appropriate to be shown in the current land or charge certificate of Spinners Corner. In addition, to take this course would, it seems to me, merely substitute Mr Jones for the Clarks as a claimant for an indemnity, albeit that his claim would be under s 83(1), as a person suffering loss by reason of the rectification of the register, not under s 83(2) as in the case of the Clarks.
As to the second possibility, it appears to me that merely to require the entry of a notice, without more, would achieve nothing and could not therefore be the appropriate remedy. Such a notice would, prima facie, be entered on the date when it is actually placed on the register, or at any rate on a date not earlier than the order of the court. It would give the Clarks priority only if the court could and did order that it be entered on the register immediately before the entry relating to Mr Jones’s charge and be deemed to have been registered immediately before that charge. Bearing in mind the observations of Walton J in Freer v Unwins Ltd [1976] 1 All ER 634, [1976] Ch 288 I doubt whether the court has power to do this. Certainly there is no express power. But even if the court has the power I consider that it would not be right to exercise it in this way in the circumstances of this case, particularly when this too would merely substitute Mr Jones for the Clarks as a claimant to an indemnity.
As to the third course, it appears to me that the court has no power to rectify the register by including in the charges register a note that a registered charge takes subject to the interest protected by a notice to which that charge would not otherwise be subject.
In the result, although I prefer to base my decision on discretion rather than want of jurisdiction, except as to the point just mentioned, I consider that the registrar cannot defeat what appears to me to be an otherwise well-founded claim to an indemnity by saying that the Clarks ought to be left to pursue a claim for rectification which would, at the best, be fraught with difficulty. I do not, therefore, propose to adjourn this-application so as to enable a claim for rectification to be made.
Subject to the submissions of counsel as to the precise form of order it appears to me that I should grant the declaration sought by para 1 of the originating summons and answer the question asked by para 2 by saying that the Clarks’ charging order does not have priority over Mr Jones’s charge.
Declaration accordingly.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
R v Rook
[1993] 2 All ER 955
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LLOYD LJ, POTTER AND BUCKLEY JJ
Hearing Date(s): 15, 29 JANUARY 1993
Criminal law – Murder – Accessory before the fact – Intention – Secondary party not present at commission of crime – Secondary party lending assistance or encouragement before commission of crime – Whether secondary party liable for principal’s acts – Whether necessary for prosecution to show he intended victim should be killed or suffer serious injury – Whether sufficient that he should have foreseen killing as real or substantial risk – Whether a defence that he did not intend victim to be killed or suffer serious harm.
Criminal law – Accessory before the fact – Withdrawal of secondary party before commission of crime – Effective withdrawal – Failure to communicate intention to withdraw – Whether being absent from scene of crime sufficient – Whether unequivocal communication to other party of withdrawal from crime necessary.
Three men, the appellant, A and L, agreed with a fourth man, MA, to kill MA’s wife for £20,000. The four men met the evening before the killing to discuss arrangements and it was decided that the next day MA would pick up the three men and drive them to a lake and that when they were ready he would bring his wife to the lake in his car. The appellant did not turn up the next day as arranged and the killing was carried out by the other two men. All four men were jointly charged with the murder of MA’s wife. A and L pleaded guilty but the appellant and MA stood trial. The appellant’s defence was that he had never intended the woman to be killed, that he hoped to get some money ‘up front’ from MA and then disappear, that he had never intended to go through with the killing himself and that he had deliberately absented himself on the day of the killing because he thought that if he were not there the other two would not go ahead with the crime. The appellant was convicted. He appealed on the grounds that the judge had wrongly directed the jury on the mens rea necessary for his conviction for murder and had applied the wrong test as to what would have made the appellant’s withdrawal from the crime effective.
Held – The appeal would be dismissed for the following reasons—
(1) In a case of joint enterprise which resulted in the unlawful killing of the victim, it was well established that where the secondary party was present at the scene of the crime it was not necessary for the prosecution to show that he intended that the victim should be killed or suffer serious injury but it was sufficient that he should have foreseen the event as a real or substantial risk, and in such a case the secondary party was liable for the unintended consequences of the principal’s acts provided the principal did not go outside the scope of the joint enterprise. There was no reason why that principle should not also apply where the secondary party had lent assistance or encouragement before the commission of the crime. It followed that it was no defence for a secondary party to say that he did not intend the victim to be killed or to suffer serious harm if he contemplated or foresaw the killing as a real or serious risk. Accordingly the judge had not misdirected the jury on the issue of mens rea (see p 959 j to p 960 b e f h and p 961 d, post); dicta of Lowry LCJ and Lord Scarman in DPP for Northern Ireland v Maxwell [1978] 3 All ER 1140 at 1162, 1151 applied.
(2) A person who changed his mind about participating in the commission of an offence but who failed to communicate his intention to the other persons
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engaged in the offence did not thereby effectively withdraw from the commission of the offence and was liable as a secondary party. In order to escape liability for the commission of the crime, the secondary party had at least unequivocally to communicate his withdrawal to the other party. The fact that the appellant absented himself on the day of the murder did not amount to unequivocal communication of his withdrawal from the murder and therefore he had been properly convicted (see p 962 g h and p 964 a b, post); dictum of Dunn LJ in R v Whitefield (1983) 79 Cr App R 36 at 39–40 applied.
Notes
For criminal liability in joint enterprise in murder, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 435, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 108–110, 857–867.
For secondary parties and mental element, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 46, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 129–130, 1035–1036.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1975) [1975] 2 All ER 684, [1975] QB 773, [1975] 3 WLR 11, CA.
Blakely v DPP [1991] RTR 405, DC.
Chan Wing-siu v R [1984] 3 All ER 877, [1985] AC 168, [1984] 3 WLR 677, PC.
DPP for Northern Ireland v Maxwell [1978] 3 All ER 1140, [1978] 1 WLR 1350, NI CA and HL.
Eldredge v US (1932) 62 F 2d 449, US Cir Ct of Apps (10th Cir).
Ferguson v Weaving [1951] 1 All ER 412, [1951] 1 KB 814, DC.
Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112, [1985] 3 WLR 830, HL.
Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] 1 AC 34, [1991] 3 WLR 495, PC.
Lynch v DPP for Northern Ireland [1975] 1 All ER 913, [1975] AC 653, [1975] 2 WLR 641, HL.
R v Becerra (1975) 62 Cr App R 212, CA.
R v Croft [1944] 2 All ER 483, [1944] KB 295, CCA.
R v Howe [1987] 1 All ER 771, [1987] AC 417, [1987] 2 WLR 568, HL.
R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892, [1991] 1 QB 134, [1990] 3 WLR 1115, CA.
R v Whitefield (1983) 79 Cr App R 36, CA.
R v Whitehouse [1941] 1 WWR 112, BC CA.
Case also cited
R v Roberts [1993] 1 All ER 583, CA.
Appeal against conviction
Adrian Rook appealed, with the leave of the single judge, against his conviction on 13 July 1990 in the Crown Court at Nottingham before Turner J and a jury of murder, for which he was sentenced to imprisonment for life. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Stephen Hockman QC (who did not appear below) and Louis French (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Richard Maxwell QC (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Nottingham) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
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29 January 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LLOYD LJ. On 13 July 1990 in the Crown Court at Nottingham, before Turner J, the appellant, Adrian Rook, was convicted of murder. He was sentenced to be detained for life. There were three co-accused, Mohammed Afsar, Andrew Armstrong and Mark Leivers. Armstrong and Leivers pleaded guilty. Afsar was convicted. He has not appealed. Rook appeals by leave of the single judge.
The case concerns a so-called contract killing. Afsar was a taxi driver in Nottingham. He wished to be rid of his wife, Shaheen. On Tuesday, 19 December 1989 he met the appellant, Armstrong, and a man called Barker, when they hired his taxi. During the journey there was some conversation. Afsar asked whether the appellant wanted to earn some money. A friend of his, said Afsar, wanted to have a woman beaten up. As the conversation continued, it became clear that the ‘friend’ wanted the woman murdered. There was some discussion between the appellant, Afsar and Armstrong about money. The appellant named a price of £20,000. The price agreed was £15,000 cash, and £5,000 worth of jewellery which the woman would be wearing. Afsar said it was to be a murder on credit. In the event he paid no more than £50.
Barker said he wanted nothing to do with it; so the following day, Wednesday, 20 December 1989, the appellant recruited Leivers. He said to Leivers: ‘Look Mark, it’s a murder.’ Leivers replied: ‘Yea, it’s all right. I’ll be there.’ It was arranged that Afsar would pick up the other three at about 4.30 pm. They drove to Colwick Park, by the side of the lake. There was some discussion between all four as to how the murder should be committed. Afsar said that when they were ready he would bring the woman in his car. It was agreed that the murder would take place the following day.
On the evening of Wednesday, 20 December there was a further discussion between the appellant, Armstrong and Leivers about the method of killing. They decided to use a knife and a piece of wood. Armstrong said that he wanted some money ‘up front’. The appellant said that they would need money in order to buy new clothes after the murder.
On Thursday, 21 December 1989 Afsar drove Armstrong and Leivers to Colwick Park, and dropped them as arranged. The appellant could not be found. Afsar went back to collect Shaheen. When he returned, Armstrong and Leivers dragged her from the car and killed her most brutally. Her body was found in the lake the next day.
The appellant was interviewed and made certain admissions. He also gave evidence at the trial. His defence was that he never intended the woman to be killed. He hoped to get some money from Afsar ‘up front’, and then disappear. At first he ‘tagged along’ to see how serious the others were. He was not sure whether they would go through with it or not. Then he tried to stall them, because he never intended to go through with it himself. Finally, on the Thursday, he deliberately absented himself. He said he thought that, if he were not there, Armstrong and Leivers would not go ahead without him.
We quote some answers from his examination-in-chief to illustrate his state of mind. After describing the drive to Colwick Park on Wednesday, 20 December 1989 he was asked:
‘Q. Was any agreement come to at the end of that journey? A. Mark and Andrew agreed to do it the next night so I towed the line and said I would.
Q. Why? A. In the hope that there would be some money up front on the Thursday.’
Turning to the Thursday, he was asked:
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‘Q. Did you see Afsar on Thursday or not? A. Yes, in the morning.
Q. Time? A. Between 10.15 am and 10.30 am …
Q. Who was with you? A. Leivers, Armstrong, Afsar and myself.
Q. Who said what? A. Afsar had asked us if we was going to go through with it that night and Armstrong and Leivers agreed. To stall them again I asked if there was any chance of getting a gun.
Q. Why? A. Purely to stall him because I never had any intentions of going through.
Q. You have told us you were waiting for money up front? A. Yes.
Q. Was there any? A. No …
Q. What did you decide? A. At that stage I knew that there would be no hope of getting any money up front, and I made it quite clear to myself that I didn’t want to be there on the day they was going to go down to Colwick Park …
Q. What did you believe as to whether or not the others would be willing to go? A. I wasn’t quite sure whether they’d go down.
Q. Did you believe they would go down without you or not? A. No … I thought that if I was not there Andrew and Mark would not go without me.
Q. Did you believe they would have gone with you? A. Yes.
Q. Did you believe they would do it? A. No.
Q. Had you ever any intention of doing it yourself? A. No, never.
Q. Did you ever intend having anything to do with the killing of this lady? A. No, never intended for this female to be murdered.’
Then in cross-examination he was asked:
‘Q. At some point there was a discussion where all three of you are appearing to each other to be genuine, that is you at least are regarding the others as genuine? A. When we was in the car and not in the dormitory.
Q. Now as far as you could tell the others were treating you as serious in your intention, were they not? A. Yes.
Q. … did you regard yourself as the brains? The person who was setting up this plan? A. No, because as I said earlier I took all of it. I said I planned all of it to help my friends but it was discussion between me Armstrong and Afsar.
Q. You believed they were going to do it. They wanted to do it? A. With me there, yes …
Q. There was no indication from either of them that they were wavering, that they would not do it, was there? A. No.
Q. So you were, were you simply hoping that if you didn’t turn up they might not do it? A. Yes.
Q. But every indication was that they wanted to do it, wasn’t it? A. Yes.’
So the position, on his own evidence, was that he took a leading part in the planning of the murder. He foresaw that the murder would, or at least might, take place. For a time he stalled the others. But he did nothing to stop them, and apart from his absence on the Thursday, he did nothing to indicate to them that he had changed his mind.
In those circumstances, two main questions have been canvassed in argument. First, what is the mental element which the prosecution must prove in the case of a secondary party who is not present at the scene of the crime? If a person gives assistance and encouragement to the principal parties, knowing or foreseeing that a crime may well take place, and it does, is it a defence that he did not intend the crime to be committed?
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Secondly, if a person gives assistance and encouragement, such as would make him liable as a secondary party, and he then changes his mind, what must he do to make his withdrawal effective? Must he neutralise the assistance he has already given (to use the term adopted by Smith and Hogan Criminal Law (7th edn, 1992) p 154 and by Glanville Williams Criminal Law: The General Part (2nd edn, 1961) para 127)? Must he at least have done his best to prevent the commission of the crime, by communicating his withdrawal to the other parties, or in some other way? Or is it enough that he should have absented himself on the day?
Before attempting to answer these questions, so far as is necessary to dispose of the instant appeal, we should first mention the way in which the prosecution put the case against each of the two defendants. Against Afsar it was put on the basis that he had procured the murder, or alternatively that he had assisted the others in the commission of the murder. The judge directed the jury that in either event the prosecution must prove against Afsar that he intended to bring about the result. This may have been too favourable to Afsar, certainly so far as assistance is concerned. As for the mental element required to establish the procuring of the crime, we were referred to Ferguson v Weaving [1951] 1 All ER 412 at 413–414, [1951] 1 KB 814 at 819, A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1975) [1975] 2 All ER 684, [1975] QB 773 and Blakely v DPP [1991] RTR 405.
Against the appellant, the case was put differently. It was not suggested that he had procured the murder, only that he had assisted, encouraged or counselled the commission of the crime. We use the terms assistance and encouragement, rather than the statutory aiding and abetting, so as to include assistance given before the crime.
In his summing up the judge said:
‘You will remember that I have stressed to you that so far as Afsar is concerned, it is important that it should have been his intention throughout that Shaheen should be killed. So far as Rook is concerned, he need never have formed an intention to take active part in her killing. The case against him is that he did certain things which assisted and encouraged Armstrong and Leivers to commit the murder which he knew would probably be committed on his own admissions to the police.’
With respect to the learned judge, the reference to ‘taking an active part in the killing’ blurs the distinction which he was seeking to draw. The question was whether he ever intended her to be killed, not whether he ever intended to take an active part in the killing. We think, however, that this is how the jury would have understood the distinction which the judge was drawing. For in another passage later on in the summing up, he summarises the various matters relied on by the prosecution to show that the appellant had assisted and encouraged the others, and then said:
‘If you are satisfied that Rook did any of those things intending to assist Armstrong and Leivers to commit a rnurder which he knew would probably be committed, then subject to what I shall say in a moment, you would be entitled to find him guilty of murder.’
The first question is whether the sentence just quoted is a misdirection. Mr Hockman QC for the appellant submits that it is. It is necessary, he says, that the appellant should have intended the victim to be killed, when giving assistance, otherwise the mens rea required for a secondary party would be less culpable than that required for the principal.
We cannot accept that argument. It is now well established that in a case of joint enterprise, where the parties are both present at the scene of the crime, it is
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not necessary for the prosecution to show that the secondary party intended the victim to be killed, or to suffer serious injury. It is enough that he should have foreseen the event, as a real or substantial risk: see Chan Wing-siu v R [1984] 3 All ER 877, [1985] AC 168, R v Hyde [1990] 3 All ER 892, [1991] 1 QB 134 and Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] 1 AC 34. Thus, a secondary party may be liable for the unintended consequences of the principal’s acts, provided the principal does not go outside the scope of the joint enterprise.
We see no reason why the same reasoning should not apply in the case of a secondary party who lends assistance or encouragement before the commission of the crime. Indeed Lowry LCJ in the Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland drew this very analogy in DPP for Northern Ireland v Maxwell [1978] 3 All ER 1140 at 1151, [1978] 1 WLR 1350 at 1363. That was a case where the defendant was charged, in effect, with aiding and abetting:
‘His guilt springs from the fact that he contemplates the commission of one (or more) of a number of crimes by the principal and he intentionally lends his assistance in order that such a crime will be committed.’ (See [1978] 3 All ER 1140 at 1162, [1978] 1 WLR 1350 at 1374 per Lowry LCJ.)
Lord Scarman, in the House of Lords, approved Lowry LCJ’s formulation ([1978] 3 All ER 1140 at 1151, [1978] 1 WLR 1350 at 1362–1363):
‘The principle thus formulated has great merit. It directs attention to the state of mind of the accused: not what he ought to have in contemplation, but what he did have. It avoids definition and classification, while ensuring that a man will not be convicted of aiding and abetting any offence his principal may commit, but only one which is within his contemplation.’
It follows that it is no defence to a secondary party to say that he did not intend the victim to be killed, or to suffer serious harm, if he contemplated or foresaw the event as a real or serious risk. In Lynch v DPP for Northern Ireland [1975] 1 All ER 913, [1975] AC 653, overruled on another point in R v Howe [1987] 1 All ER 771, [1987] AC 417, the accomplice drove the principal to a place where he knew the principal intended to kill a policeman. Lord Morris said that the intentional driving of the car was enough to render the accomplice liable for aiding and abetting the murder, even though he regretted the plan, and indeed was horrified by it (see [1975] 1 All ER 913 at 924, [1975] AC 653 at 678). In Smith and Hogan p 133 the mens rea for a secondary party is stated as follows:
‘It must be proved that D intended to do the acts which he knew to be capable of assisting or encouraging the commission of the crime.’
If that is right, as we believe it to be, then there was no misdirection in the passage we have quoted, except that the reference to the appellant knowing that a murder would probably be committed is too favourable to the appellant, if it means more probably than not.
We should add that we have not considered how, if at all, the position has been affected by Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112, on which we heard no argument.
Mr Hockman put forward an alternative argument that the case against the appellant could have been put on the basis that he had procured the commission of the crime, in which case it would have been necessary, he submitted, for the prosecution to prove that he intended the crime to be committed. It would be an odd consequence of s 8 of the Accessories and Abettors Act 1861 that procuring alone of the four modes of complicity enshrined in that section should require proof of intention that the crime be committed, although that is no doubt the
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natural and ordinary meaning of the word ‘procure’ as Lord Widgery CJ pointed out in A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1975) [1975] 2 All ER 684 at 686, [1975] QB 773 at 779. But we need not concern ourselves further with the point, since although the prosecution might have put the case against the appellant on the basis of procuring, in so far as he recruited Leivers for the purpose of murdering the victim, that was not how the case was put.
Before leaving the first question, we should mention the written direction which was handed to the jury. The direction was agreed after much discussion between the judge and counsel. It is as follows:
‘Q.1 Has the prosecution proved that Rook did an act which, at the time he knew was capable of assisting or encouraging the commission of the murder in the belief that murder would probably be committed? In this context, by “probably” is meant the existence of a substantial or real risk that the murder would be committed and was not something which could be dismissed as negligible. If No, not guilty.’
This direction is cumbersome at first reading. But with one exception it is accurate. There is no reference to Rook’s intention to do an act which he knew was capable of assisting etc. But there was never any issue that the acts which the appellant did were intentional, in the sense that he intended to do those acts. So the omission is immaterial, and is not relied on by Mr Hockman. For the reasons given, we would answer the first question adversely to the appellant.
We now come to the second part of the case, which raises, potentially at least, more difficult questions. Mr Maxwell QC submits that where a person has given assistance, for example by providing a gun, in circumstances which would render him liable as a secondary party if he does not withdraw, then in order to escape liability he must ‘neutralise’ his assistance. He must, so it was said, break the chain of causation between his act of assistance, and the subsequent crime, by recovering the gun, or by warning the victim to stay away, or by going to the police. Mr Hockman submits, on the other hand, that the Crown must prove that the defendant continued ready to help until the moment the crime is committed and if there is doubt as to the defendant’s state of mind on the day in question, or his willingness to provide further help if required, then the jury must acquit.
As between these two extreme views, we have no hesitation in rejecting the latter. In R v Croft [1944] 2 All ER 483, [1944] KB 295 the surviving party of a suicide pact was held to be guilty of murder. Lawrence J, giving the judgment of the court, said ([1944] KB 295 at 298, cf [1944] 2 All ER 483 at 485):
‘The authorities, however, such as they are, show, in our opinion, that the appellant, to escape being held guilty as an accessory before the fact must establish that he expressly countermanded or revoked the advising, counselling, procuring or abetting which he had previously given.’
In R v Whitehouse [1941]1 WWR 112 at 115 Sloan JA said:
‘Can it be said on the facts of this case that a mere change of mental intention and a quitting of the scene of the crime just immediately prior to the striking of the fatal blow will absolve those who participate in the commission of the crime by overt acts up to that moment from all the consequences of its accomplishment by the one who strikes in ignorance of his companions’ change of heart? I think not. After a crime has been committed and before a prior abandonment of the common enterprise may be found by a jury there must be, in my view, in the absence of exceptional circumstances, something more than a mere mental change of intention and
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physical change of place by those associates who wish to dissociate themselves from the consequences attendant upon their willing assistance up to the moment of the actual commission of that crime. I would not attempt to define too closely what must be done in criminal matters involving participation in a common unlawful purpose to break the chain of causation and responsibility. That must depend upon the circumstances of each case but it seems to me that one essential element ought to be established in a case of this kind: Where practicable and reasonable there must be timely communication of the intention to abandon the common purpose from those who wish to dissociate themselves from the contemplated crime to those who desire to continue in it. What is “timely communication” must be determined by the facts of each case but where practicable and reasonable it ought to be such communication, verbal or otherwise, that will serve unequivocal notice upon the other party to the common unlawful cause that if he proceeds upon it he does so without the further aid and assistance of those who withdraw. The unlawful purpose of him who continues alone is then his own and not one in common with those who are no longer parties to it nor liable to its full and final consequences.’
In R v Becerra (1975) 62 Cr App R 212 this court approved that passage as a correct statement of the law. The facts of R v Becerra were that the victim was killed in the course of a burglary. The appellant had provided the knife shortly before the murder. The court held that the appellant’s sudden departure from the scene of the crime with the words ‘Come on let’s go’ was an insufficient communication of withdrawal. So the appellant’s conviction as a secondary party to the murder was upheld. In R v Whitefield (1983) 79 Cr App R 36 at 39–40 Dunn LJ stated the law as follows:
‘If a person has counselled another to commit a crime, he may escape liability by withdrawal before the crime is committed, but it is not sufficient that he should merely repent or change his mind. If his participation is confined to advice or encouragement, he must at least communicate his change of mind to the other, and the communication must be such as “will serve unequivocal notice upon the other party to the common unlawful cause that if he proceeds upon it he does so without the aid and assistance of those who withdraw”.’
In the present case the appellant never told the others that he was not going ahead with the crime. His absence on the day could not possibly amount to ‘unequivocal communication’ of his withdrawal. In his evidence-in-chief, in a passage already quoted, he said that he made it quite clear to himself that he did not want to be there on the day. But he did not make it clear to the others. So the minimum necessary for withdrawal from the crime was not established on the facts. In these circumstances, as in R v Becerra, it is unnecessary for us to consider whether communication of his withdrawal would have been enough, or whether he would have had to take steps to ‘neutralise’ the assistance he had already given.
Mr Maxwell rightly drew our attention to a sentence in the judgment of Sloan JA, already quoted, where he refers to the service of notice on the other party that if he proceeds he does so without further aid from those who withdraw. This may suggest that aid already afforded need not be neutralised. We agree with Mr Maxwell that this attaches too much importance to a single word. But that is as far as we are prepared to go in this case. We are not prepared, as at present advised, to give our approval to his proposition in its extreme form. In Criminal Law: The General Part (2nd edn, 1961), para 127, Glanville Williams quotes a
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graphic phrase from an American authority (Eldredge v US (1932) 62 F 2d 449 per McDermott J): ‘A declared intent to withdraw from a conspiracy to dynamite a building is not enough, if the fuse has been set; he must step on the fuse.' It may be that this goes too far. It may be that it is enough that he should have done his best to step on the fuse. Since this is as much a question of policy as a question of law, and since it does not arise on the facts of the present case, we say no more about it.
We turn last to the summing up on the second part of the case. What the judge said was as follows:
‘The law has however always recognised that a person who has embarked on a criminal enterprise may withdraw from it and save himself from a criminal liability in respect of it. In general terms, however, more than mere inactivity is required to destroy the criminal liability which flows from the earlier acts, in this case of encouragement or advice, to lead to a verdict in your case of not guilty. The law sometimes is expressed in terms of causation … If, by absenting himself on the Thursday afternoon, it rendered unlikely the commission of the murder, and it was the intention of Rook that the murder should not be committed, why then even though you may have been satisfied that he did the acts of assistance and advice or encouragement that I have outlined to you then you would find him not guilty of the offence of murder.’
In other words, if by absenting himself, the appellant rendered the murder unlikely, and intended that it should not take place, then find him not guilty. Although this does not follow the approach in R v Becerra, it is certainly not too favourable to the prosecution. For it does not require any positive action by the appellant to break the chain of causation. If the summing up had been confined to the oral directions given by the judge, the appellant would have had little to complain about. But the judge went on to put his directions in writing. The written directions went through many versions, and bear the imprint of many minds. Simplicity and clarity have suffered in the process. The directions are as follows:
‘Q.2 If the answer to Q.1 is Yes, then has the prosecution proved that Rook’s absence alone from the enterprise was not capable of neutralising and did not in fact neutralise the assistance and/or encouragement he had previously given. If Yes, then guilty of murder. If No, then go to Q.3.
Q.3 If the answer to Q.2 is No, has the prosecution proved that by that absence he did not intend to neutralise the effect of what he had previously said and done. If Yes, then guilty of murder. If No, then not guilty.’
It is to be borne in mind that the above directions in their final form were agreed by counsel for the defence (not counsel appearing before us), as well as counsel for the prosecution. So the judge should not bear the whole responsibility for the form the directions ultimately took. Nor are we suggesting that written directions should not have been given. But these directions were at best confusing and at worst misleading. In particular, question 3, if we have understood it correctly, is unfortunate since it invites the jury to convict if the appellant did not intend to neutralise the effect of what he had said and done, even though, by his absence, he may in fact have done so. Mr Maxwell seeks to defend the direction on the grounds that the jury would never have proceeded beyond question 2. But we do not regard this as satisfactory. We are driven to the conclusion that questions 2 and 3 are a misdirection.
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But, having said that, a clearer case for the application of the proviso would be hard to conceive. If the jury had been properly directed in accordance with the law stated in R v Becerra there can be no doubt whatever that the verdict would have been the same, for there was never any suggestion that the appellant had communicated his intention to the other parties, so as to make his withdrawal effective. Accordingly we would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 33(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: if a person knowing or foreseeing that a crime may well be committed gives encouragement or assistance to the principal parties, but is not present when the crime is thereafter committed, is it a defence that he did not intend the crime to be committed?
25 March. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Griffiths and Lord Slynn of Hadley) refused leave to appeal.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
The Bazias 3, The Bazias 4
[1993] 2 All ER 964
Categories: SHIPPING: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Courts
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LLOYD, RALPH GIBSON AND BUTLER-SLOSS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 7, 8 OCTOBER 1992
Admiralty -Jurisdiction – Action in rem – Arrest of ship – Plaintiff invoking jurisdiction to obtain security for award in arbitration proceedings – Charterparty subject to arbitration clause – Ship arrested to obtain security for claim in arbitration – Whether court having discretion to release ship without provision of sufficient security to cover amount of claim – Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982, s 26.
The defendant owners chartered two vessels under bareboat charters to the plaintiffs, who in turn time-chartered the vessels to a third party (the freighters), who employed them on a cross-channel ferry service. Subsequently the defendants withdrew both vessels on the ground of non-payment of hire and other breaches of the bareboat charters and the freighters gave notice terminating the time charters on the grounds that the plaintiffs were no longer able to perform their obligations under the time charters. The defendants then commenced arbitration proceedings against the plaintiffs, claiming unpaid hire and damages. The plaintiffs served a defence and counterclaim in the arbitration, claiming, inter alia, a total of $US5.6m damages for loss of profits over the unexpired period of the bareboat charters. Meanwhile, the defendants entered into fresh bareboat charters with the freighters for a period of five years and the vessels continued to be employed on the cross-channel ferry service. The plaintiffs issued proceedings in rem against the vessels, having given due warning that they intended to arrest the vessels in order to obtain security amounting to $US10.7m for their counterclaim in the arbitration, and the vessels were arrested and taken into the custody of the Admiralty Marshal. The defendants issued a motion for a stay of the action in rem under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 and for the warrant of arrest to be set aside. The judge, without dealing with the application under s 1
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of the 1975 Act, made an interim order that the vessels were to remain under arrest, but were to be permitted to continue to be employed on the cross-channel service, against certain undertakings given by the defendants and the freighters. That order was subsequently varied by another judge, who ordered that the vessels return to, or remain in, the jurisdiction of the court pending a full hearing of the defendants’ motion. The defendants and the freighters appealed against both the interim order and the variation of it.
Held – A vessel could not remain within the custody of the Admiralty Marshal and yet be allowed to trade outside the jurisdiction. Furthermore, on its true construction the effect of s 26a of the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982 was to assimilate in rem proceedings in the Admiralty Court with arbitration claims, so that the discretion to release an arrested vessel was the same in both cases and the court no longer had a wider discretion when the claim was subject to an arbitration clause to release the vessel without requiring equivalent security, depending on whether the defendant was likely to be able to meet any arbitration award in the plaintiff’s favour. Accordingly, on an application under RSC Ord 75, r 13 for the release of a vessel held as security for a claim in arbitration, the court would, in accordance with the usual practice, only exercise its discretion to release the vessel on the provision of sufficient security to cover the amount of the claim, plus interest and costs, on the basis of the plaintiff’s reasonably arguable best case. The fact that there might be no question of the defendants’ ability to meet any award that might be made against them or that they might have difficulty in finding sufficient cash in time to put up the security or that the arrest might cause great inconvenience were not good reasons for departing from the usual practice of requiring sufficient security to cover the amount of the claim. Furthermore, the court would not exercise its power under s 26(2) of the 1975 Act to order the plaintiffs to give a cross-undertaking in damages in case their claim in the arbitration failed in toto and the arrest turned out to have been unjustified, since that had never been the practice in Admiralty actions. It followed that the appeal from the variation of the original order would be dismissed, a stay of the action would be granted under s 1 of the 1975 Act and the two vessels would remain under arrest pending further order (see p 967 f j and p 969 h to p 970 j, post).
The Moschanthy [1971] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 37 applied.
Notes
For the jurisdiction in rem, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 305, 311, 360, and for cases on the subject, see 1(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 312–318, 2095–2110.
For the Arbitration Act 1975, s 1, see 2 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 644.
For the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982, s 26, see 1 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 24.
Cases referred to in judgments
Andria, The [1984] 1 All ER 1126, [1984] QB 477, [1984] 2 WLR 570, CA.
Golden Trader, The, Danemar Scheepvaart Maatschappij BV v Golden Trader (owners) [1974] 2 All ER 686, [1975] QB 348, [1974] 3 WLR 16.
Moschanthy, The [1971] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 37.
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Rena K, The [1979] 1 All ER 397, [1979] QB 377, [1978] 3 WLR 431.
Tuyuti, The [1984] 2 All ER 545, [1984] QB 838, [1984] 3 WLR 231, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Allonah Pty Ltd v Amanda N (1989) 90 ALR 391, Aust Fed Ct.
APJ Shalin, The [1991] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 62.
Cap Bon, The [1967] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 543.
Nordglimt, The [1988] 2 All ER 531, [1988] QB 183.
Spiliada Maritime Corp v Cansulex Ltd, The Spiliada [1986] 3 All ER 843, [1987] AC 460, HL.
Walter D Wallet, The [1893] p 202.
Interlocutory appeals
The defendants, Romline Shipping Co, the owners of the vessels Bazias 3 and Bazias 4, which the defendants had chartered to the plaintiffs, Greenmar Navigation Ltd, who had sub-chartered them to the interveners, Sally Line Ltd, appealed with the leave of the judge from the order of Saville J made on 29 September 1992 whereby he ordered, on the defendants’ motion for a stay under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 of the action in rem brought by the plaintiffs against the vessels for loss of profit arising out of the defendants’ withdrawal of the vessels from service with the plaintiffs and for the warrant of arrest issued against the vessels to be set aside, that the vessels should remain under arrest but that the interveners should be permitted to operate the vessels out of the jurisdiction. The interveners also appealed against Saville J’s order. The defendants and the interveners further appealed from the order of Sheen J made on 5 October 1992 whereby he varied the order of Saville J by ordering that the vessels return to, or remain in, the jurisdiction of the court pending a full hearing of the the defendants’ motion. The facts are set out in the judgment of Lloyd LJ.
Stephen Males (instructed by Sinclair Roche & Temperley) for the defendants.
Stewart Boyd QC and Julian Flaux (instructed by Stephenson Harwood) for the interveners.
Belinda Bucknall QC and Charles Haddon-Cave (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the plaintiffs.
8 October 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
LLOYD LJ. The defendants, Romline Shipping Co, are a state trading organisation situated in Constanza, Romania. They are the owners of two vessels known as the Bazias 3 and the Bazias 4. By two bareboat charters dated 17 October 1990 they were chartered to the plaintiffs, Greenmar Navigation Ltd, for a period of five years from November 1990. The charters were in identical terms; both contained an arbitration clause.
In May 1991 the plaintiffs time-chartered the vessels to Sally Line Ltd. They were employed on a cross-channel ferry service between Ramsgate and Ostend. On 12 May 1992 the defendants withdrew both vessels on the ground of non-payment of hire and other breaches of the bareboat charters. On 13 May Sally Line gave notice that, as the plaintiffs were no longer able to perform under the time charters, those charters were at an end.
On 8 June the defendants commenced arbitration proceedings against the plaintiffs, claiming unpaid hire and damages. On 25 August the plaintiffs served defence and counterclaim in the arbitration, claiming, inter alia, a total of $US5.6m damages for loss of profit over the unexpired period of the bareboat charters. Meanwhile, on 12 June 1992 the defendants entered into fresh bareboat
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charters with Sally Line for a period of five years. So the vessels were able to continue to be employed on the cross-channel service. There were provisions in the substitute bareboat charters which expressly recognised the possibility—one might even say probability—that the vessels would be arrested pursuant to claims against the defendants.
On 24 September the plaintiffs issued proceedings in rem against the vessels, having given due warning that they intended to arrest the vessels in order to obtain security for their counterclaim in the arbitration. The amount of security sought, including interest, amounted to $US10.7m although that, of course, far exceeds the value of the two vessels. On 28 September the vessels were arrested and taken into the custody of the Admiralty Marshal. It is not disputed that the plaintiffs’ claims fall within the jurisdiction of the Admiralty Court in rem and that the jurisdiction was properly invoked.
On 29 September the case came before Saville J, as vacation judge in Admiralty on the defendants’ motion for a stay under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 and for the warrant of arrest to be set aside. There was an application by Sally Line to intervene. The matter was dealt with in a great hurry. The plaintiffs’ counsel was given only 20 minutes’ notice of the hearing. Saville J read the affidavits prepared on behalf of the defendants and Sally Line in his room. There was no time for the plaintiffs to file any evidence themselves and scarcely any time for their counsel to make submissions. Saville J made an order that the vessels should remain under arrest, but allowed them to return to their employment on their cross-channel service against certain undertakings given by the defendants and by Sally Line. He describes this as a sensible, short-term commercial solution. He did not deal with the application under s 1 of the 1975 Act. Regrettably, he gave no judgment, formal or informal. He did not identify the source of his discretion or explain why he was exercising it in the way he did. It is now common ground that the order made by the judge was a contradiction in terms. There is no way in which the vessels could remain within the custody of the Admiralty Marshal, as required by the judge, and yet be allowed to trade outside the jurisdiction.
On Monday, 5 October Sheen J made an order regularising the position. He varied the order of Saville J by ordering that the vessels return to, or remain in, the jurisdiction of the court pending a full hearing on 9 October. But on 6 October the defendants and Sally Line obtained leave to appeal from the order of Sheen J. Later the same day they obtained leave to appeal from the order of Saville J. On that occasion Saville J said:
‘According to my recollection the question whether the vessels should be released was touched on but in view of the urgency of the application before me nobody at that stage considered that this question was more than a technical point. No one suggested that the question whether the vessels should be released made any practical difference. 1 do not blame anyone for that, in view of the serious time constraints.’
Saville J then emphasised that his order of 29 September was only ever intended as an immediate short-term and temporary commercial solution, balancing the interests of all the parties as best he could. Accordingly, he gave leave without reluctance to all the parties to appeal against his order.
It is agreed on all sides that the defendants are entitled to a mandatory stay under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 and I propose to proceed on the assumption that a stay had been granted, as it should have been.
The important question of principle which has been debated before us is the extent of the discretion under s 26 of the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act
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1982 and the effect of that section on the pre-existing practice of the Admiralty Court. Mr Males, on behalf of the defendants, and Mr Boyd QC, on behalf of Sally Line, argue that the pre-existing practice is preserved by s 26 so that, when a claim is subject to an arbitration clause, the court has a discretion to release the vessel without requiring equivalent security, depending on whether the defendant is likely to be able to meet any arbitration award in the plaintiff’s favour.
Miss Bucknall QC, for the plaintiffs, argues that the effect of s 26 was to assimilate claims in arbitration with in rem proceedings in the Admiralty Court, so that the discretion is now the same in both classes of case.
Saville J did not consider s 26, and his decision both to release the vessel and not to release the vessel, shows that he did not in reality exercise a discretion under RSC Ord 75, r 13. There being no relevant exercise of a discretion in the court below, save on the temporary basis which the judge indicated, we are bound to exercise the discretion afresh ourselves.
I turn then to the central question. Section 26 of the 1982 Act came into force on 1 November 1984. As to the pre-existing law, I start with a passage from the judgment of Robert Goff LJ in The Andria [1984] 1 All ER 1126 at 1135, [1984] QB 477 at 490:
‘However, on the law as it stands at present, the court’s jurisdiction to arrest a ship in an action in rem should not be exercised for the purpose of providing security for an award which may be made in arbitration proceedings. That is simply because the purpose of the exercise of the jurisdiction is to provide security in respect of the action in rem, and not to provide security in some other proceedings, eg arbitration proceedings.’
But on that statement of general principle another principle was grafted, usually known as the principle in The Rena K [1979] 1 All ER 397, [1979] QB 377. I take the statement of The Rena K principle from the judgment of Brandon J in that case (see [1979] 1 All ER 397 at 415, [1979] QB 377 at 404–405) which was quoted with approval by the Court of Appeal in a judgment of Robert Goff LJ in TheTuyuti [1984] 2 All ER 545 at 551, [1984] QB 838 at 846–847:
‘There is nothing in s 1(1) of the [Arbitration Act 1975] which obliges the court, whenever it grants a stay of an action in rem in which security has been obtained, to make an order for the unconditional release of such security. Nor did s 4(2) of the [Arbitration Act 1950], now repealed, impose any such obligation. That being so, I think that it is a matter for the discretion of the court, acting under the rule referred to above, what order it should make with regard to such security, and that the way in which it exercises that discretion must depend on the circumstances of each particular case. If, on the one hand, the case is one where in all probability the stay will be final and there will therefore never be any judgment in the action to be satisfied, the court should exercise its discretion by releasing the security unconditionally, as was done in The Golden Trader [1974] 2 All ER 686, [1975] QB 348. If, on the other hand, the case is one where the stay may well not be final and there may well therefore still be a judgment in the action to be satisfied, the court should exercise its discretion either by refusing to release the security at all, or by only releasing it subject to a term that the defendants shall provide alternative security for payment of any award in the arbitration. On this view of the law it is necessary to consider, in relation to the facts of this particular case, whether in all probability the stay will be final and there will therefore never be any judgment in the action to be satisfied or whether the
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stay may well not be final and there may well therefore still be a judgment in the action to be satisfied.’
The decision in The Rena K was very welcome at the time and the principle was, as I understand it, frequently applied. But it was in a sense a compromise and, although the solution found by Brandon J was ingenious, it was overcumbersome. In particular it had this disadvantage that much time was taken up at the early stages of every dispute, where a vessel had been arrested and where the claim was subject to arbitration, in determining on affidavit evidence whether an award was likely to be met or not. It was to deal with those disadvantages, as well as to bring proceedings in arbitration in line with proceedings in foreign courts, that Parliament enacted s 26 of the 1982 Act. That section provides as follows:
‘(1) Where in England and Wales or Northern Ireland a court stays or dismisses Admiralty proceedings on the ground that the dispute in question should be submitted to arbitration or to the determination of the courts of another part of the United Kingdom or of an overseas country, the court may, if in those proceedings property has been arrested or bail or other security has been given to prevent or obtain release from arrest—(a) order that the property arrested be retained as security for the satisfaction of any award or judgment which—(i) is given in respect of the dispute in the arbitration or legal proceedings in favour of which those proceedings are stayed or dismissed; and (ii) is enforceable in England and Wales or, as the case may be, in Northern Ireland; or (b) order that the stay or dismissal of those proceedings be conditional on the provision of equivalent security for the satisfaction of any such award or judgment.
(2) Where a court makes an order under subsection (1), it may attach such conditions to the order as it thinks fit, in particular conditions with respect to the institution or prosecution of the relevant arbitration or legal proceedings.
(3) Subject to any provision made by rules of court and to any necessary modifications, the same law and practice shall apply in relation to property retained in pursuance of an order made by a court under subsection (1) as would apply if it were held for the purposes of proceedings in that court.’
The burden of the argument on this part of the case fell largely on Mr Boyd. His first argument was that the section does not in terms confine the court to one or other of the two alternatives. The court is not bound to make an order under sub-s (1)(a) or (b). It may take a third course: it may make an order releasing the vessel without equivalent security. I agree with Mr Boyd’s first submission, which was not seriously disputed by Miss Bucknall.
The real question turns on what I would call the ‘width’ of the residual discretion. Mr Boyd argues that s 26 preserves the pre-existing discretion in arbitration cases, and the way it was exercised, since there is nothing in the section to take it away. The section enables the court to order the vessel to be retained as security to enforce the arbitration award, or the foreign judgment, which could not be done before, but it does not affect the circumstances in which such an order will be made. It is at this point that I part company from Mr Boyd.
The reason for the wider discretion in arbitration cases was, as I see it, an inevitable consequence of the security afforded by in rem proceedings not being available to enforce an award and only being available in respect of the in rem proceedings. Once that discretion had gone—as it did with the advent of s 26—
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the need and the occasion for the wider discretion disappeared. It seems to me that Miss Bucknall is right in her essential submission that the purpose of s 26 was to assimilate the three classes of claim in all respects and that there is nothing in the language of s 26, or in the cases decided immediately before the section came into effect, namely The Andria and The Tuyuti, to which I have already referred, which is inconsistent with that submission. If that is right, then it is accepted by Mr Boyd and by Mr Males, on behalf of the defendants, that on an application for release under Ord 75, r 13 the usual practice has always been that the vessel will only be released on the provision of sufficient security to cover the amount of the claim, plus interest and costs, on the basis of the plaintiffs’ reasonably arguable best case. The authority for that is The Moschanthy [1971] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 37 at 44.
None of the matters relied on by the defendants and in particular, of course, their ability to meet any award that may be made against them, takes this out of the usual run of cases, or justifies anything other than the usual order.
Mr Males further argues that it is quite simply impossible for the defendants to find liquid resources in time to enable them to put up security. In that connection he relies on para 16 of an affidavit sworn by Mr Stockwood, and on a further affidavit, which we allowed to be put before us, in which he explains in greater detail the financial position of the defendant company. I regret that the difficulties which the defendants say they have in finding the necessary liquid resources and the inconvenience to Sally Line and its passengers are not grounds which persuade me to depart in this case from making the usual order.
Mr Boyd argued that we should exercise our power under s 26(2) of the 1982 Act to order the plaintiffs to give a cross-undertaking in damages in case the arrest turns out to have been unjustified—by which he means if the plaintiffs’ counterclaim in the arbitration fails in toto. He put forward reasons why we should make that order in the present case. But, as he accepts, this has never been the practice in Admiralty actions and I do not regard this case as being one in which we can introduce so far reaching a change in the practice for the first time.
I would, therefore, in conclusion, grant a stay of the action pursuant to s 1 of the 1975 Act, being the assumption on which I have so far proceeded. I would vary the order made by Saville J and dismiss the appeal from the decision of Sheen J, the effect of that being that the two vessels will remain under arrest until further order of the Admiralty Court.
RALPH GIBSON LJ. Saville J on 29 September 1992, in circumstances of great urgency, devised an order as a temporary solution which appeared to be a short-term commercial arrangement and which gave substantial protection to the plaintiffs’ position. It seemed to me that there was, and is, much to be said for that solution upon the facts of this case in fairness to all parties. It has, however, become clear to me that, without departing from established practice, that solution was not open to the learned judge.
I agree, for the reasons given by Lloyd LJ, that it has not been established in this case that the court would be justified in departing from that practice. I agree with the order proposed by Lloyd LJ.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. I also agree.
Order of Saville J varied. Appeal from decision of Sheen J dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Raina Levy Barrister.
Ex parte Telegraph plc and other appeals
[1993] 2 All ER 971
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Contempt of Court
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, AULD AND CURTIS JJ
Hearing Date(s): 26 JANUARY, 12 MARCH 1993
Contempt of court – Publications concerning legal proceedings – Postponement of publication – Prohibition of report of proceedings – Substantial risk of prejudice to administration of justice – Separate trials of 11 defendants jointly charged with importation, manufacture and supply of prohibited drug – Trial judge deciding at start of first trial that publication of proceedings referring to defendants in later trials should be postponed – Media applicants appealing against judge’s order – Whether postponement of publication justified – Whether order should be varied – Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 4(2).
Eleven defendants were charged with the importation, manufacture and supply of a class A drug having a total value of over £7m. The prosecution case against all the defendants depended almost entirely on the evidence and credibility of an alleged accomplice, V, a person of some notoriety whose evidence would attract much public interest. The trial judge ordered separate trials of groups of the defendants because he considered that a single trial would be too onerous for a jury and, on the application of the defendants in the later trials, made a further order in the first trial under s 4(2)a of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 postponing publication of certain parts of the proceedings in that trial, including publication of any proceedings in the absence of the jury, the names of the defendants in the later trials and any material which might identify them, the name of V and any material which might identify him, counsel’s closing speeches, the judge’s summing up and any questions by the jury thereafter. The applicants, two newspapers, the BBC and five of the defendants, appealed against the order under s 159b of the Criminal Justice Act 1988, the media applicants and two of the defendants contending that the order was too restrictive and the other three defendants contending that publication of all proceedings in the first trial should be postponed until after the conclusion of the later trials.
Held – In making an order under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act the court had to balance the competing interests of ensuring a fair trial and open justice and was accordingly required to determine first that there would be ‘a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice’ and then that postponement of publication appeared to be necessary to avoid that risk. On the facts, the judge had failed to determine whether an order postponing publication was necessary to avoid the risk of prejudice to the administration of justice. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the judge’s order varied by restricting the postponement of publication only to the names of defendants in the later trials and any material
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which might identify them, since that was the only material the publication of which would lead to a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the later trials. Any question of postponing publication of any proceedings in the absence of the jury ought to be considered as it arose (see p 975 b e to g, p 976 d, p 977 b d e and p 979 b to g, post).
Dictum of Farquharson LJ in R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER at 177 at 180 applied.
Dicta of Lawton J in R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App R 412 at 415, of Lord Denning MR in R v Horsham Justices, ex p Farquharson [1982] 2 All ER 269 at 286, of Donaldson MR in A-G v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 833 at 842 and of Lord Lane CJ in Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347 at 350 considered.
Per curiam. The function of the Court of Appeal on an appeal under s 159 of the 1988 Act is not simply to review the judge’s ruling but to form its own view on the material put before it (see p 977 c, post).
Notes
For the reporting of criminal proceedings, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 13.
For the Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 4, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 188.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1988, s 159, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1218.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G v Guardian Newspapers (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, [1988] 2 WLR 805, CA; affd [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, [1988] 3 WLR 776, HL.
A-G v Leveller Magazines Ltd [1979] 1 All ER 745, [1979] AC 440, [1979] 2 WLR 247, HL.
A-G v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 833, [1987] QB 1, [1986] 3 WLR 365, CA.
Central Independent Television plc, Re [1991] 1 All ER 347, [1991] 1 WLR 4, CA.
R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 177, CA.
R v Brooks (31 July 1992, unreported), CCC.
R v Horsham Justices, ex p Farquharson [1982] 2 All ER 269, [1982] QB 762, [1982] 2 WLR 430, CA.
R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App R 412, CCC.
R v Saunders (5 February 1990, unreported), CCC.
Cases also cited
Lipkin Gorman (a firm) v Karpnale Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 409, [1989] 1 WLR 1340, CA; rvsd in part [1992] 4 All ER 512, [1991] 2 AC 548, HL.
R v Felixstowe Justices, ex p Leigh [1987] 1 All ER 551, [1987] QB 582, DC.
Sunday Times v UK (No 2) (1991) 14 EHRR 229, E Ct HR.
Application for leave to appeal
Telegraph plc, the British Broadcasting Corp and Newspaper Publishing plc applied for leave to appeal under s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 against an order made by Judge Mitchell QC on 15 January 1983 at the Central Criminal Court under s 4(2) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 prohibiting publication of the following parts of the criminal proceedings in respect of an indictment containing 13 counts charging Thomas Slater, four defendants referred to as C, H, M, P, and six other defendants with various offences concerning the
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importation, manufacture and supply of a class A controlled drug known as ‘Ecstasy’: (1) any legal submissions, rulings and evidence heard or given in the absence of the jury; (2) the names of each of the four defendants, M, C, P and H, who were to be tried in later trials, and any material calculated to identify them; (3) the name of the Crown witness, Peter Vukmirovic, and any material calculated to identify him, in particular his addresses and his background, including his criminal past; and (4) counsel’s speeches, the judge’s summing up and any questions asked by the jury thereafter. The grounds of appeal were: (1) the applicants having conceded that the defendants (C, H, M and P) in the later trial or trials should not be identified in the reports of the first trial, the judge was wrong to find that there was any substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the later trials if a wider order under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act were not made as there was no justification for a finding that the reporting of counsels’ speeches, the summing up and material calculated to identify Peter Vukmirovic would give rise to such a risk; (2) even if (contrary to the applicants’ contention) reporting of proceedings in the first trial would give rise to a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the later trials, the judge should have considered whether in all the circumstances it was necessary to make an order under s 4(2), and he should have found that it was not necessary to make an order, for example because the date of the later trial or trials could have been postponed for a sufficient period to allow the memories of the first trial to fade; (3) having found that an order was necessary to avoid a substantial risk of prejudice, the judge should have considered as a separate step whether, in the exercise of his discretion, he should make an order under s 4(2) and in particular, he should have weighed the public interest in full and free reporting of the first trial against the risk of prejudice which he had identified, and should have considered whether, in all the circumstances, it was right to make any order, and instead of exercising that discretion, whether properly or at all, he had merely repeated the factors which he had already canvassed in considering what restrictions should be placed upon reporting in order to avoid a substantial risk of prejudice; (4) the judge, in imposing an order prohibiting the publication of material calculated to identify Peter Vukmirovic by reference in particular to his addresses and background, failed to give any or any proper weight to the effect which that order would have on the ability of the press and media to report the first trial: in particular (i) the first trial would focus largely on the personality, background, antecedents and credibility of Vukmirovic, and that part of the judge’s order would prevent the press and media from reporting a very substantial part of the evidence and (ii) it would be very difficult for the press and media to be sure what material could safely be published. The defendants Slater, C, H, M and P also applied for leave to appeal under s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 against the order. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Charles Gray QC and Richard Parkes (instructed by Simon Olswang & Co) for Telegraph plc, British Broadcasting Corp and Newspaper Publishing plc.
David Bate (instructed by Booth Bennett, Uxbridge) for C.
Rudi Fortson (instructed by Magrath & Co) for H.
Wendy Joseph and Peter Grieves-Smith (instructed by Russell Jones & Walker) for M.
Michel G A Massih and Brian O’Neill (instructed by Christian Fisher & Co) for P.
Ronald Thwaites QC and Richard Parkes (instructed by Simon Olswang & Co) for Slater.
Andrew R Mitchell (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Inner London) for the Crown.
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At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the judge’s order would be varied for reasons to be given later.
12 March 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 26 January 1993 the applicants sought leave from this court to appeal to it under s 159 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 against an order made by Judge Mitchell QC on 15 January 1993 in a trial about to start at the Central Criminal Court postponing, under s 4(2) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981, the publication of certain parts of the proceedings in that trial. This court granted the applications, heard the appeals and, pursuant to s 159(5)(b) of the 1988 Act, varied the judge’s order. The court now gives its reasons for that variation.
There are eight applicants. The first three are Telegraph plc, Newspaper Publishing plc and the British Broadcasting Corp. They sought to narrow the judge’s order. The remaining five were five of the eleven defendants jointly charged in the criminal proceedings in which the judge made the order. Two of them, H and Thomas Slater, joined with the media applicants in complaining that the order was too wide. Slater did so for an additional reason. The other three, namely C, M and P, sought to widen the judge’s order.
The indictment before the judge contained 13 counts charging Slater, C, H, M, P and other defendants with various offences concerning the importation manufacture and supply of large quantities of a class A controlled drug commonly known as ‘Ecstasy’. The total value of the drugs involved was over £7m. The prosecution case against all the defendants depended almost entirely upon the evidence and credibility of an alleged accomplice, Peter Vukmirovic. He had earlier pleaded guilty to a charge of conspiracy unlawfully to produce the drugs involved in the case, and awaits sentence for that offence. He has a substantial criminal record of unlawful production and importation of drugs, and was said to be a colourful character whose evidence would attract much public interest.
On 12 January 1993 the judge ordered separate trials of certain counts in the indictment. He did so because he considered that a single trial of all 11 defendants would be too onerous for a jury, not because he thought that it would be prejudicial to any of them if they were all tried together. The effect of his order was to split the trial into three. Seven of the defendants, including Slater but not including C, H, M and P, were to be tried first in what would be the most important and newsworthy of the three trials. Then C and M were to be tried together, and finally P and H were to be tried together.
C, M and P then applied to the judge for an order under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act to postpone reporting of any of the proceedings in the first trial until the conclusion of their respective trials. The three media applicants opposed the making of so wide an order, arguing that it would be sufficient to order postponement of publication of the names of those defendants and of any material likely to identify them.
The judge made an order between those two positions. He ordered postponement until the conclusion of the last of the three trials of any report of the following parts of the proceedings in the first trial:
‘(1) Any legal submissions, rulings and evidence heard or given in the absence of the jury; (2) the names of each of the four defendants that is to say [C, H, M and P], who are to be tried in the later trials, and any material calculated to identify them; (3) the name of the Crown witness, Vukmirovic,
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and any material calculated to identify him, in particular by reference to his addresses and his background, including his criminal past; (4) counsel’s [closing] speeches, summing up and any questions by the jury thereafter.’
On 26 January 1993 this court varied the judge’s order so as to delete the restrictions in paras (1), (3) and (4), but, as to (1), indicated that the judge should consider any such question as it arises.
Section 4(2) of the 1981 Act under which the judge made the order provides, so far as material:
‘... the court may, where it appears to be necessary for avoiding a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in … any … proceedings pending or imminent, order that the publication of any report of the proceedings, or any part of the proceedings, be postponed for such period as the court thinks necessary for that purpose.’
The subsection contains two requirements for the making of a postponement order, first, that publication would create ‘a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice’ and, second, that postponement of publication ‘appears to be necessary for avoiding’ that risk.
It has been said that there is a third requirement, derived from the word ‘may’ at the beginning of the subsection, namely that a court, in the exercise of its discretion, having regard to the competing public interests of ensuring a fair trial and of open justice, considers it appropriate to make an order: see R v Horsham Justices, ex p Farquharson [1982] 2 All ER 269 at 283, [1982] QB 762 at 789 per Lord Denning MR, R v Saunders (5 February 1990, unreported) per Henry J and R v Brooks (31 July 1992, unreported) per Buckley J. It seems to us the discretion indicated by the use of the word ‘may’ in the provision is catered for by the second requirement that the court may only make an order where it appears to it to be ‘necessary for avoiding’ the substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice that it perceives. In forming a view whether it is necessary to make an order for avoiding such a risk a court will inevitably have regard to the competing public considerations of ensuring a fair trial and of open justice. It is noteworthy that whether the element of discretion is to be regarded as part of the ‘necessary’ test or as a third requirement, the courts as a matter or practice have tended to merge the requirement of necessity and the exercise of discretion: see eg R v Saunders per Henry J, R v Brooks per Buckley J, Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347 at 350, [1991] 1 WLR 4 at 8 per Lord Lane CJ and R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 177 at 180–182 per Farquharson LJ.
As to the first of the two requirements, it should be noted that the risk of prejudice to the administration of justice must be ‘substantial’.
As to the second of the requirements, the necessity for an order, it is a statutory recognition of the principle of open justice. There is an abundance of authority emphasising the importance of this principle in this context, and it is sufficient simply to mention some of the more important authorities in which it is expressed, namely A-G v Leveller Magazines Ltd [1979] 1 All ER 745 at 749–750, [1979] AC 440 at 449–450 per Lord Diplock, R v Horsham Justices, ex p Farquharson [1982] 2 All ER 269 at 286–288, [1982] QB 762 at 793–795 per Lord Denning MR, A-G v Guardian Newspapers (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545 at 600, [1990] 1 AC 109 at 183 per Donaldson MR and Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347 at 350, [1991] 1 WLR 4 at 8 per Lord Lane CJ.
It was agreed by all the parties to these appeals that there would be a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the subsequent trials of C, M,
Page 976 of [1993] 2 All ER 971
P and H if there were to be any reporting of proceedings in the first trial in the absence of the jury or of material identifying them. There were two other matters in issue.
The first, the subject of para (3) of the judge’s order, was whether the publication of material identifying Vukmirovic would create such a risk of prejudice. The judge found that it would, in the event of there being guilty verdicts in the first trial, because wide publicity given to such verdicts in accounts identifying him as the principal prosecution witness could improperly enhance his credibility when he comes to give evidence in the subsequent trials.
The second matter in issue, the subject of para (4) of the judge’s order, was whether the verdicts in the first trial should be reported before the conclusion of the later trials. The judge was of the view that they could be reported contemporaneously without risk of prejudice to the subsequent proceedings, but that the reporting of counsel’s closing speeches and of his summing up could cause prejudice in the inevitable references to Vukmirovic’s status as an accomplice and to his credibility which such speeches and summing up would contain.
The judge, having found that there would be a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in those four respects, should have proceeded to the second requirement of s 4(2), namely whether it was ‘necessary’ to make an order for avoiding such a risk. He did not do that. His approach was to investigate how the risk could be eliminated. He said in his ruling:
‘I now turn to the question whether, given the conclusion I have reached there is any other course which I can take which would have the effect of eliminating the substantial nature of the risk of prejudice which I have identified.’
His answer to the question was that the risk could not be avoided by adopting other solutions, such as arranging for the subsequent trials to take place at another court, or by delaying them to give time for the publicity of the first trial to fade, or to reverse his decision as to separate trials. After considering and rejecting all of those options he returned to the question how, not whether, the risk of prejudice he had identified should be dealt with by way of an order under s 4(2). He said:
‘… I am persuaded that the only and necessary way to avoid the substantial risk of prejudice which I have identified is by making an order in the terms sought, by making, in other words, a blanket prohibition. In my judgment the substantial risk of prejudice, which I have identified, can only be avoided by the making of an order, but a very much less draconian order than that sought …’
He then identified the four categories of restriction that he went on to order prefacing his order by the following reference to the competing public interests of securing a fair trial and of open justice:
‘How then, reverting once more to the principles, should I exercise my discretion in balancing the two competing public interests which I have already identified? The vital importance of each is accepted and requires no further emphasis from me. It seems to me that I should first try to find a workable solution which caters in substance for each of these public interests. Neither should be sacrificed in favour of the other unless no other course is open. The solution which I have identified during the course of this ruling appears to me to cater effectively for each of the public interests.’
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The above summary of, and extracts from, the judge’s ruling show that, with the best intentions, he failed to keep distinct the two main requirements of s 4(2). Having satisfied himself that there would be a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in the respects that he identified, he appears to have assumed the necessity to avoid it and to have searched for a solution by tailoring the order to a form which he considered would eliminate the risk. Having identified the risk there would be, unless certain restrictions were imposed, he should then have considered whether in the light of the competing public interests to which he referred it was necessary for avoiding that risk to make the order, whether in his discretion he should make it and, if so, with all or only some of the restrictions sought. In our view, his failure to adopt this approach led him into error.
The function of this court on an appeal under s 159 of the 1988 Act is not simply to review the judge’s ruling but to form its own view of the material put before it. Section 159(5)(b) gives the court power to confirm, reverse or vary the order of which complaint is made: see R v Beck, ex p Daily Telegraph plc [1993] 2 All ER 177 at 180–181 per Farquharson LJ.
As we have indicated, it is common ground between all the parties that there should be an order postponing publication of the names of C, H, M and P and of any material likely to identify them (para (2) of the judge’s order).
As to postponement of publication of the name of Vukmirovic and of any material likely to identify him (para (3) of the judge’s order), the media applicants, the defendants H and Slater and counsel for the prosecution submitted first that such publication would not create a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice and that, even if it would do so, it was not necessary for avoiding such prejudice to make an order postponing its publication.
On the first question they submitted that there would be no substantial risk of prejudice flowing from the publication of material identifying Vukmirovic’s involvement as a witness in the first trial because (1) the judge at each of the subsequent trials will direct the jury (a) to consider the case of each defendant separately and only on the evidence before them, (b) not to be influenced by what they may have learnt about the previous proceedings and (c) of the danger of convicting on the uncorroborated evidence of Vukmirovic as an accomplice, and (2) the court should assume that any reports of the first trial will be fair and accurate and will not identify any of the four defendants in the subsequent trials, the applicants C, H, M and P.
The defendant Slater was to be tried in the first trial, and was said by the prosecution to be the principal defendant in the case. He supported the submissions of the media applicants but for an additional reason of his own. He objected to that part of the judge’s order postponing contemporaneous reporting to Vukmirovic’s name or of any material likely to identify him. He submitted that such an order would prejudice him because he needed the assistance of the media to encourage persons to come forward with information which could undermine Vukmirovic’s credibility. He cited an instance of one volunteer who had given him useful information of that sort and said that he hoped for more if sufficient publicity were given to the case and to Vukmirovic’s role in it.
The defendants C and M argued that the judge should have postponed all reporting of the first trial because otherwise there was a high risk of prejudice to them. They stressed the overlap in the first and second trials and the consequent scope for prejudice to the second trial from publicity of the proceedings and of the verdicts, if guilty, in the first trial. In support of their argument they mentioned the following matters: (1) the prosecution case against all the
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defendants depended upon the acceptance of the evidence of Vukmirovic; (2) he was an alleged accomplice of each of them; and (3) he would give evidence in each trial of events common to all three trials.
They were concerned in particular with the risk of being implicated in the earlier proceedings even though their names were not mentioned and with the enhancement of Vukmirovic’s credibility if there were well publicised verdicts of guilty in the first trial. Counsel for M suggested that the latter would enable Vukmirovic to begin his evidence in the second trial with ‘a feather in his cap’.
The defendant P also argued that the judge’s order had not gone far enough. However, he did not seek postponement of all reporting of the trials before his. He sought, in addition to the matters already covered by the judge’s order, postponement of reporting of prosecuting counsel’s opening speech and of the verdicts in each of the two trials before his.
In determining whether publication of matter would cause a substantial risk of prejudice to a future trial, a court should credit the jury with the will and ability to abide by the judge’s direction to decide the case only on the evidence before them. The court should also bear in mind that the staying power and detail of publicity, even in cases of notoriety, are limited and that the nature of a trial is to focus the jury’s minds on the evidence put before them rather than on matters outside the courtroom: see R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App R 412 at 415–416 per Lawton J, R v Horsham Justices, ex p Farquharson [1982] 2 All ER 269 at 287, [1982] QB 762 at 794 per Lord Denning MR, A-G v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 833 at 842, [1987] QB 1 at 16 per Donaldson MR and Re Central Independent Television plc [1991] 1 All ER 347 at 350, [1991] 1 WLR 4 at 8 per Lord Lane CJ.
In this case we should also approach the matter on the basis that in each trial the judge will direct the jury clearly and firmly about the danger of convicting on Vukmirovic’s evidence if uncorroborated, that there will be no public reporting of the names of C, H, M or P or of any material likely to identify them, and that, in compliance with s 4(1) of the 1981 Act, each of the trials will be reported fairly and accurately.
Having regard to all those considerations, we are of the view that there is only slight potential for prejudice flowing from such publicity as may be given to Vukmirovic’s role and the verdicts in the first trial. Much of the evidence relating to him is likely to be to his discredit rather than credit, and is likely to be repeated and to form the subject of cross-examination of him in the subsequent trials. If, but for the judge’s concern to simplify the jury’s task, all 11 defendants had been tried together, the jury trying C, H, M and P would have heard Vukmirovic’s evidence against the other seven defendants, the cross-examination of him and all the speeches and the summing up relating to them. It is likely too that the jury would have considered the verdicts against the major participants first. The judge having ordered separate trials, the only scope for prejudice is that, if there are guilty verdicts in the first trial, the juries in the second and third trials might improperly consider such verdicts as indicators of Vukmirovic’s credibility. For the reasons that we have given as to the likely conduct of the subsequent trials, we do not consider the risk of prejudice in that respect to be substantial.
On the second question, of necessity, the media applicants submitted that Vukmirovic’s role was so central to the matters charged against all defendants, that it would cause them great difficulty in reporting the first trial at all if they were prohibited from publishing any material likely to identify him, for example as to his background and criminal past.
The defendant applicants, save for Slater, argued that as a matter of balance the public interest that they should have a fair trial should prevail over the public’s
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interest in contemporaneous full reporting of the first trial. Counsel for P reminded us that it was merely a matter of postponement, not a permanent ban, of the full reporting of the first trial. However, that is an argument of limited value since it applies to every postponement order made under s 4(2) of the 1981 Act. The provision prohibits a court from postponing the reporting of proceedings unless it is ‘necessary’, in the circumstances specified, to deprive the public of information about the proceedings as they take place.
Even if, which we reject, there were a substantial risk of prejudice in the contemporaneous reporting of material likely to identify Vukmirovic and/or of the verdicts, the arguments of the media applicants on this issue are, in our view well founded. The case is of importance and one in which there is a considerable and legitimate public interest because of the nature and quantity of the drug involved. It is the first major trial concerned with Ecstasy. Vukmirovic is alleged to have played a central role in the important events founding the prosecution against all the defendants. Any prohibition of contemporaneous reporting of material likely to identify him and his role in the case would make it almost impossible to report. It would also be very difficult for the media to identify what could properly be reported. Accordingly, it is a case in which the public interest in open trial would, in any event, outweigh any possible risk, substantial or not, of prejudice that might result from publication of Vukmirovic’s role.
As to the judge’s postponement of reporting of closing speeches, the summing up and jury questions (para (4) of the judge’s order), its purpose was to remove possible prejudice from such publicity to the clarity and effect of directions as to corroboration in the later trials. In our view, this part of the order is equally unjustified, designed as it was to support para (3) of the order postponing publicity of any matter identifying Vukmirovic. In the event, it is likely that much of the defendants’ counsel’s speeches, and possibly of the prosecution speech and of the judge’s summing up, will not reflect well on Vukmirovic. Also, it is odd that the judge, in his concern in this respect, did not include in the postponement order prosecuting counsel’s opening speech.
In addition, the possibility of directions as to corroboration in the later trials being ‘marred or tainted’, as the judge put it, by some recollection of what counsel or the judge says in the closing stages of the first trial is, in our view, remote, and would not amount to a substantial risk of prejudice. In any event, even if the prohibition in principle could have been justified, its inclusion of all matters in the closing speeches, summing up and jury questions was far wider than was necessary for the purpose.
For these reasons we have varied the judge’s order as indicated.
Order varied.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Re Seagull Manufacturing Co Ltd (in liq)
[1993] 2 All ER 980
Categories: COMPANY; Insolvency
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LLOYD, HIRST LJJ AND PETER GIBSON J
Hearing Date(s): 1, 2, 3 FEBRUARY 1993
Insolvency – Service – Service out of jurisdiction – Company in compulsory liquidation – Public examination of officer of company – British person resident abroad – Whether court having jurisdiction to direct public examination of officer resident abroad and to order service of process out of jurisdiction – Whether power to order public examination limited to persons in England at relevant time – Insolvency Act 1986, s 133.
On 4 April 1990, following an inquiry under s 147 of the Companies Act 1985, a compulsory winding-up order was made in respect of an English company. The appellant, a director of the company from January 1986 to July 1988, was a British subject but had been resident out of the jurisdiction since 1979, first in the Isle of Man and then, since 1986, in Alderney. The winding-up petition alleged, inter alia, that the appellant had obstructed the inquiry and had failed to produce books of accounts and that the company’s principal asset had been assigned first to the appellant and then to another company with no record of any consideration being paid to the company. On 17 July 1990 the Official Receiver applied ex parte to a registrar for an order under s 133a of the Insolvency Act 1986 for the public examination of the appellant at the High Court. The registrar made the order, giving the Official Receiver leave to serve the appellant at his address in Alderney. On 25 September the order was set aside by another registrar but on appeal by the Official Receiver the judge reinstated the order. The appellant appealed to the Court of Appeal, contending that the court had no jurisdiction to order the public examination of an officer of a company who was outside the jurisdiction.
Held – On its true construction s 133 of the 1986 Act was not limited by any territoriality principle and applied to the class of persons set out in s 133(1) namely persons who had concerned themselves in the affairs of the company being wound up in the specified capacities of officer, liquidator, administrator, receiver, manager or participant in the promotion, formation or management of the company, irrespective of whether or not they were British subjects or within the jurisdiction of the court at the relevant time. Where a company had come to a calamitous end and had been wound up by the court, the purpose of s 133 was that those responsible for the company’s state of affairs should be liable to be subjected to public examination and Parliament could not have intended that a person who had that responsibility could escape liability by not being within the jurisdiction. Furthermore s 133 was to be construed in the light of the circumstances prevailing when the legislation was enacted, namely that it was possible for persons to manage companies using modern technology without ever setting foot in the jurisdiction. Moreover, there was no requirement that an officer of an English company had to live in England. Accordingly, the court had jurisdiction under s 133 of the 1986 Act to order the public examination of the appellant. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 984 f; p 985 c to f; p 986 h j, p 989 a b and p 990 c d h j, post).
Dictum of Lord Scarman in Clark (Inspector of Taxes) v Oceanic Contractors Inc [1983] 1 All ER 133 at 139 applied.
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Re Tucker (a bankrupt), ex p Tucker [1988] 1 All ER 603 distinguished.
Decision of Mummery J [1991] 4 All ER 257 affirmed.
Notes
For service out of the jurisdiction in insolvency proceedings, see 3(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 782.
For public examination of officers of a company being wound up, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1535–1544.
For the Companies Act 1985, s 447, see 8 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 516.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 133, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 814.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1, [1992] 2 WLR 991, CA.
Clark (Inspector of Taxes) v Oceanic Contractors Inc [1983] 1 All ER 133, [1983] 2 AC 130, [1983] 2 WLR 94, HL.
Paramount Airways Ltd, Re [1992] 3 All ER 1, [1993] Ch 223, [1992] 3 WLR 690, CA.
Sawers, Re, ex p Blain (1879) 12 Ch D 522, [1874–80] All LR Rep 708, CA.
Theophile v Solicitor General [1950] 1 All ER 405, [1950] AC 186, HL.
Tucker (a bankrupt) Re, ex p Tucker [1988] 1 All ER 603, [1990] Ch 148, [1988] 2 WLR 748, CA; rvsg [1987] 2 All ER 23, [1987] 1 WLR 928.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Anglo-African Steamship Co, Re (1886) 32 Ch D 348, CA.
British and Commonwealth Holdings plc (joint administrators) v Spicer & Oppenheim (a firm) [1992] 4 All ER 876, [1992] 3 WLR 853, HL.
Cooke v Charles A Vogeler Co [1901] AC 102, [1900–3] All ER Rep 660, HL.
International Westminster Bank plc v Okeanos Maritime Corp [1987] 3 All ER 137, [1988]Ch 210.
Jogia (a bankrupt), Re, ex p the trustee v D Pennellier & Co Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 328, [1988] 1 WLR 484.
Mackinnon v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Securities Corp [1986] 1 All ER 653, [1986] Ch 482.
Pearson, Re, ex p Pearson [1892] 2 QB 263, CA.
Rover International Ltd v Cannon Film Sales Ltd [1987] 3 All ER 986, [1987] 1 WLR 1597.
Sherlock’s application, Re, Deposit and Investment Co Ltd (receiver appointed) (1991) 9 ACLC 1029.
Tejani v Official Receiver [1963] 1 All ER 429, [1963] 1 WLR 59, PC.
Tucker (a bankrupt), Re (a bankrupt) (No 2), ex p the trustee v Langton Investment SA [1988] 2 All ER 339, [1988] 1 WLR 497.
Wendt, Re, ex p Official Receiver (1889) 22 QBD 733, CA.
Appeal
Colin John Slinn, a director of Seagull Manufacturing Co Ltd (in compulsory liquidation), appealed from the decision of Mummery J on 30 April 1991 ([1991] 4 All ER 257, [1992] Ch 128) whereby he restored the orders of Mr Registrar Buckley dated 17 July 1990, on the application of the Official Receiver, requiring the appellant to attend court for the purpose of being publicly examined and for service of a copy of the order on him in Alderney, Channel Islands, which orders had been set aside by Mr Registrar Pimm on 25 September 1990. The facts are set out in the judgment of Peter Gibson J.
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Paul Teverson (instructed by Rose & Birn) for Mr Slinn.
Nigel Davis QC (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Official Receiver.
3 February 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
PETER GIBSON J (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Lloyd LJ). This appeal raises a point of some importance in the compulsory winding-up of companies. On the true construction of s 133 of the Insolvency Act 1986, does the court have jurisdiction to order the public examination of an officer of the company when that officer is outside the jurisdiction of the court?
The company in question is Seagull Manufacturing Co Ltd (Seagull). It was incorporated in England as a private company on 17 March 1983. Its business was that of a computer utility organisation and it had its registered office in Dorchester.
The appellant, Mr Colin Slinn, was a director of Seagull from 27 January 1986 to 3 July 1988. He is a British subject but has since 1979 been resident out of the jurisdiction, first in the Isle of Man and, since July 1986, in Alderney in the Channel Islands.
On 30 May 1989 the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry instigated an inquiry under s 447 of the Companies Act 1985 into Seagull, following which he presented a petition under s 440 of that Act for the winding up of Seagull on the ground that that was expedient in the public interest.
In the petition it was alleged, amongst other things, that Mr Slinn had been obstructive in the s 447 inquiry, failing to produce books of accounts and financial records of Seagull, that Seagull was insolvent and unable to pay its debts, that Seagull’s principal asset had been assigned first to himself and then to another company and that there was no record of any proper consideration being paid to Seagull, that there was no information on the payment and application of substantial funds subscribed and paid to Seagull by another company controlled by Mr Slinn, and no audited accounts had been filed by the company since those for the period ended 31 March 1986, which revealed a net loss of nearly half a million pounds.
On 4 April 1990 a compulsory winding-up order was made on the petition which was unopposed. On 11 April 1990, on the application of the Official Receiver an order was made by the Companies Court under s 426 of the Insolvency Act 1986, requesting the Insolvency Court in Alderney to act in aid by seizing documents of Seagull in the possession of Mr Slinn and by examining Mr Slinn. On 25 April of that year the Alderney court acting on that request ordered such seizure and the order was executed on 27 April. On 3 May 1990 the Alderney court in further compliance with the request made to it appointed an examiner. Mr Slinn appealed against both orders of the Alderney court but that appeal was dismissed by the Royal Courts of Guernsey on 8 November 1990 and a further appeal to the Court of Appeal in Guernsey was dismissed on 5 August 1991.
In the meantime, on 17 July 1990 the Official Receiver applied ex parte to Mr Registrar Buckley under s 133 of the 1986 Act for an order for the public examination of Mr Slinn at the Royal Courts of Justice. The registrar made that order and gave the Official Receiver leave to serve Mr Slinn at his address in Alderney. But on 25 September 1990 at an inter partes hearing Mr Registrar Pimm on Mr Slinn’s application set aside those ex parte orders. The Official Receiver appealed and his appeal was allowed by Mummery J who restored the orders made by Mr Registrar Buckley. Before Mummery J there was affidavit evidence from the Official Receiver that creditors’ claims against Seagull exceeded £2m, that Mr Slinn had not co-operated with the Official Receiver and that, despite being required by the Official Receiver to produce a statement of affairs for Seagull, no statement of affairs had been produced. The Official Receiver said
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that in the circumstances he wanted Mr Slinn examined in public where creditors and contributories could question Mr Slinn.
Mr Slinn now appeals to this court from the decision of Mummery J. The only other fact which I need mention is that in January 1992 there was a private examination of Mr Slinn by the examiner appointed by the Alderney court.
I turn now to the statutory provisions. The Insolvency Act 1986 consolidates with amendments both the enactments relating to company insolvency and winding-up and those relating to the insolvency and bankruptcy of individuals. It largely implemented the recommendations made in the Report of the Review Committee on Insolvency Law and Practice (Cmnd 8558) (June 1982) of which the chairman was the late Sir Kenneth Cork. It is obvious, not only from the report but also from the Act itself, that the intention was to harmonise the two systems as far as possible.
Part IV of the Act relates to the winding up of companies registered under the Companies Acts. Chapter VI in that Part relates to winding up by the court and s 133 is in that Chapter. But under Pt V of the Act the court has jurisdiction to wind up not only companies registered in England and Wales but also unregistered companies, which include overseas companies, and Ch VI of Pt IV also applies to those companies (see s 221(1)). But the jurisprudence of the court has limited the exercise of the jurisdiction over overseas companies to companies which have a sufficient connection with England and Wales and where there is a reasonable possibility of benefit for the creditors from a winding up (see Re Paramount Airways Ltd [1992]3 All ER 1 at 12, [1993] Ch 223 at 240).
Section 133 is one of a number of sections headed ‘Investigation procedures’ and is in the following form:
‘Public examination of officers.—(1) Where a company is being wound up by the court, the official receiver or, in Scotland, the liquidator may at any time before the dissolution of the company apply to the court for the public examination of any person who—(a) is or has been an officer of the company; or (b) has acted as liquidator or administrator of the company or as receiver or manager or, in Scotland, receiver of its property; or (c) not being a person falling within paragraph (a) or (b), is or has been concerned, or has taken part, in the promotion, formation or management of the company.
(2) Unless the court otherwise orders, the official receiver or, in Scotland, the liquidator shall make an application under subsection (1) if he is requested in accordance with the rules to do so by—(a) one-half, in value, of the company’s creditors; or (b) three-quarters, in value, of the company’s contributories.
(3) On an application under subsection (1), the court shall direct that a public examination of the person to whom the application relates shall be held on a day appointed by the court; and that person shall attend on that day and be publicly examined as to the promotion, formation or management of the company or as to the conduct of its business and affairs, or his conduct or dealings in relation to the company.
(4) The following may take part in the public examination of a person under this section and may question that person concerning the matters mentioned in subsection (3), namely—(a) the official receiver, (b) the liquidator of the company; (c) any person who has been appointed as special manager of the company’s property or business; (d) any creditor of the company who has tendered a proof or, in Scotland, submitted a claim in the winding up; (e) any contributory of the company.’
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Section 134 relates to the enforcement of s 133. Amongst other things it provides:
‘(1) If a person without reasonable excuse fails at any time to attend his public examination … he is guilty of a contempt of court and liable to be punished accordingly …’
Various points are to be noted on s 133. First, in the case of an English winding up, as distinct from one in Scotland, the Official Receiver, and only the Official Receiver, has a discretion whether to apply to the court for the public examination of a person falling within the three categories mentioned in sub-s (1); and if he does so the court is required to direct a public examination. But where a substantial part of the creditors or contributories, that is to say one-half in value of the company’s creditors or three quarters in value of its contributories so request, the Official Receiver must make the application, unless the court exercises its discretion to order otherwise.
Second, the class of persons who may be examined is a limited class of officers and other persons who, in the words of Mummery J—
‘have voluntarily concerned themselves in a specified capacity in the affairs of the company which is being wound up, ie as officer, liquidator, administrator, receiver or manager, or as participant in the promotion, formation or management of the company.’ (See [1991] 4 All ER 257 at 264, [1992]Ch 128 at 139.)
Third, the topics on which the examinee can be examined are limited to the promotion, formation or management of the company or the conduct of its business and affairs or the examinee’s conduct or dealings in relation to the company.
Fourth, the persons who may take part in the public examination comprise those who might be expected to be most affected by the company being wound up by the court, including creditors and contributories.
On the face of s 133 it contains no territorial limitation. It is expressed to apply to ‘any person’ who comes within any of the three categories in sub-s (1). But there is a well-established rule of construction that English legislation is territorial in effect in the sense that, in the absence of express enactment or plain implication, it is only to apply to British subjects or to foreigners within the jurisdiction (see Re Sawers, ex p Blain (1879) 12 Ch D 522, [1874–80] All ER Rep 708). For a recent statement of the rule I refer to Clark (Inspector of Taxes) v Oceanic Contractors Inc [1983] 1 All ER 133 at 139, [1983] 2 AC 133 at 145 where Lord Scarman described the general principle as being—
‘that, unless the contrary is expressly enacted or so plainly implied that the courts must give effect to it, United Kingdom legislation is applicable only to British subjects or to foreigners who by coming to the United Kingdom, whether for a short or a long time, have made themselves subject to British jurisdiction.’
That rule of construction is not of course entirely helpful to Mr Slinn as a British subject, but it exemplifies what might be thought to be a proper reluctance of the court to construe English legislation in such a way as to enable it to assert jurisdiction over those subject to another jurisdiction by their presence in that other jurisdiction, unless compelled to do so by the language of the legislation. The case before Mummery J and this court has been argued on the broad question whether the absence from the jurisdiction of a person otherwise within s 133(1)
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prevents the application of the section to that person; and that is a question of construction.
In the Clark case [1983] 1 All ER 133 at 144, [1983] 2 AC 130 at 152, which raised a question as to the liability to English tax of a non-resident corporation, Lord Wilberforce considered the rule of construction laid down in Re Sawers, ex p Blain and said:
‘[It] requires an inquiry to be made as to the person with respect to whom Parliament is presumed, in the particular case, to be legislating. Who, it is to be asked, is within the legislative grasp, or intendment, of the statute under consideration? The contention being that, as regards companies, the statute cannot have been intended to apply to them if they are non-resident, one asks immediately: why not?’
In considering Lord Wilberforce’s question as to who comes within the legislative grasp of the section, one must look to the policy of the legislature in enacting the section in question.
Where a company has come to a calamitous end and has been wound up by the court, the obvious intention of this section was that those responsible for the company’s state of affairs should be liable to be subjected to a process of investigation and that investigation should be in public. Parliament could not have intended that a person who had that responsibility could escape liability to investigation simply by not being within the jurisdiction. Indeed, if the section were to be construed as leaving out of its grasp anyone not within the jurisdiction, deliberate evasion by removing oneself out of the jurisdiction would suffice. That seems to me to be a wholly improbable intention to attribute to Parliament. Further, s 133 must be construed in the light of circumstances existing in the mid-1980s when the legislation was enacted. By use of the telephone, telex and fax machines English companies can be managed perfectly well by persons who need not set foot within the jurisdiction. There is no requirement that an officer of an English company must live in England, nor of course need an officer of an overseas company which may be wound up by the court. Such a company is very likely to have officers not within the jurisdiction.
I would emphasise that the question before this court is one of the scope of the Act and we are not concerned with whether the order for public examination can be effectively enforced against a person out of the jurisdiction (cf Theophile v Solicitor General [1950]1 All ER 405 at 407, [1950] AC 186 at 195).
When Parliament enacted s 133 it is very likely that it did so against the background of what Dillon LJ in Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856 at 871, [1993] Ch 1 at 24 described as the ‘public worry and concern over company failures on a large scale and the need to safeguard the public against such failures’.
Both public and private examinations have a significant role to play in the investigation of a company failure. The particular purposes that can be served by public examination were instructively set out in the Cork Committee’s report. After referring to the restricted scope of the then operative provisions for public examination (which required the Official Receiver to express an opinion that there had been fraud in relation to the company) and to the fact that the provisions for public examination were no longer being used, the report continues at para 654:
‘We believe that this approach to the public examination requires to be reviewed. If, as we recommend, the whole purpose of a Compulsory Winding
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Up Order is to deal with cases which are of sufficient gravity to justify a full investigation, then, we believe, a public examination has a role to play in the proceedings. We attach-importance to a public examination for individual debtors in the event of a Bankruptcy Order being made and we consider that it would be undesirable if a similar provision was not available in the Compulsory Winding Up of an insolvent company, for use where the Court felt it to be appropriate.
655. A public examination during the course of Compulsory Winding Up proceedings should, as in Bankruptcy, be intended to serve three principal purposes: (a) to form the basis of reports which the Official Receiver may have to submit to the Department concerning the affairs of the company; for example, concerning possible offences by officers of the company and others; (b) to obtain material information for the administration of the estate which cannot as well be obtained privately; and (c) to give publicity, for the information of creditors and the community at large, to the salient facts and unusual features connected with the company’s failure.
656. We believe, as did the Jenkins Committee, that the revival of the public examination as a factor to be reckoned with in winding up proceedings is desirable. By exposing serious misconduct, it will help to promote higher standards of commercial and business morality and will also serve as a form of sanction against former officers of a failed company who have not adequately assisted the Official Receiver and the liquidator in the course of their respective investigations and administration of the company’s affairs.’
There is every reason to think that the provisions for public examination, now enacted in s 133 of the 1986 Act, were intended by Parliament to serve those purposes. Moreover, the legislative intention, that there should be a proper and effective investigation through public and private examination, has been held to be so clear that even in the absence of express words this court has been able to hold in the Bishopsgate case that an examinee is not entitled to invoke the privilege against self-incrimination.
In answer to Lord Wilberforce’s questions, Mr Teverson, appearing for Mr Slinn, would seek to give a number of reasons why s 133 of the 1986 Act should not be construed to apply to those outside the jurisdiction. First, he submits that express words would be needed to make those not within the jurisdiction liable to public examination. He relied on the general practice of international law that courts of a country only have power to summon before them persons who accept service or who are present within the territory of that country when served with the appropriate process. Further, he submitted, the very fact that the court can wind up foreign companies means that without express words it could not have been Parliament’s intention that s 133 did apply to any foreign officer of a company.
I am not persuaded by these contentions. I can see no reasons of comity which would prevent those who voluntarily were officers or otherwise participated in the formation or running of an English company to be capable of being summoned by the English court for the purposes of public examination. The fact that Parliament has provided for the compulsory winding up of foreign companies, knowing that those companies would only be wound up when there was a sufficient connection with the jurisdiction, and the fact that Parliament provided that s 133 should apply in such a case, seem to me to indicate that the officers of such companies who may well not be within the jurisdiction should be examinable publicly.
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Secondly, Mr Teverson based an elaborate argument on the judgment of this court in Re Tucker (a bankrupt), ex p Tucker [1988] 1 All ER 603, [1990] Ch 148. That was a decision on the construction of s 25 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914 relating to private examination as applied to a British subject resident in Belgium who was the brother of the debtor. Section 25(1) read:
‘The court may, on the application of the official receiver or trustee, at any time after a receiving order has been made against a debtor, summon before it the debtor or his wife, or any person known or suspected to have in his possession any of the estate or effects belonging to the debtor, or supposed to be indebted to the debtor, or any person whom the court may deem capable of giving information respecting the debtor, his dealings or property, and the court may require any such person to produce any documents in his custody or power relating to the debtor, his dealings or property.’
I should also read s 25(6) of the 1914 Act:
‘The court may, if it thinks fit, order that any person who if in England would be liable to be brought before it under this section shall be examined in Scotland or Ireland, or in any other place out of England.’
Dillon LJ, with whom Lloyd LJ and Browne-Wilkinson V-C agreed, placed particular reliance on the presence of that subsection in s 25, saying ([1988]1 All ER 603 at 609, [1990] Ch 148 at 158):
‘Finally, and to my mind conclusively, by sub-s (6) of s 25 the court is given a power … to order the examination out of England of “any person who if in England would be liable to be brought before it under this section”. This wording carries inevitably, in my judgment, the connotation that if the person is not in England he is not liable to be brought before the English court under the section.’
Mr Teverson points to the fact that the provisions for the private examination of a bankrupt are now contained in ss 366 and 367 of the 1986 Act, and that sub-s (3) of s 367 is in a form very similar to s 25(6) of the 1914 Act. The next stage of his argument is that by parity of reasoning, those private examination provisions are subject to the same territorial limitation as s 25 of the 1914 Act.
Next he draws attention to the fact that ss 236 and 237 of the 1986 Act contain provisions for private examination in relation to companies in similar form to the provisions in the 1986 Act for the private examination of a bankrupt and that sub-s (3) of s 237 is in terms substantially similar to s 367(3). So, he submits, the same territorial limitation applies to private examination in company cases.
The final stage of his argument is that there would be a surprising anomaly between public and private examinations relating to companies if a territorial limitation were not implicit in s 133 of the 1986 Act, given what he calls the substantial overlap between the persons expressed to be within s 133(1) on the one hand and s 236(2) of the 1986 Act on the other.
Mummery J was not convinced by this argument and neither am I. In my judgment the argument breaks down at a number of points. First, Re Tucker was a decision on a wholly different statutory provision, s 25 of the 1914 Act. It related to the private examination not of the debtor but of a person who came within the wide words ‘any person whom the court may deem capable of giving information respecting the debtor, his dealings or property’. Under s 1(2) of the 1914 Act a debtor was defined as including any person who—
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’(c) was carrying on business in England, personally, or by means of an agent or manager; or (d) was a member of a firm or partnership which carried on business in England.’
It is not disputed by Mr Teverson that a foreign resident out of the jurisdiction can be a debtor for the purposes of the 1914 Act and as such could be served with a bankruptcy notice. That being so, it seems to me that a debtor out of the jurisdiction could be examined privately under s 25 of the 1914 Act or publicly under s 15 of that Act. Certainly Re Tucker does not decide the contrary.
Secondly, the class of persons who could, in the phrase of Dillon LJ, be hauled before the court under s 25 of the 1914 Act was notably wider than the three categories of s 133 of the 1986 Act. In particular it was not limited to the debtor but included anyone whom the court suspected might have relevant property or information. In contrast the class of persons in s 133 is limited to those who might be said to have had responsibility for the company.
Third, if it be right (i) that ss 366 and 367 of the 1986 Act should be construed as subject to the same territorial limitation as s 25 of the 1914 Act and (ii) that ss 236 and 237 of the 1986 Act should be similarly construed by reason of the inclusion of the subsection corresponding to s 25(6) (ie sub-s (3) of s 237) (and Mr Davis, appearing for the Official Receiver, whilst recognising the force of an argument to that effect, does not concede that the relevant section should be so construed), s 133 of the 1986 Act is plainly distinguishable by reason of the absence from it, or s 134 of that Act, of any provision corresponding to that in s 25(6) of the 1914 Act, which was held to be so determinative in Re Tucker.
Fourth, in any event I do not accept that a territorial limitation inferred from the presence of a statutory provision in the form of s 25(6) of the 1914 Act in relation to a private examination must be inferred in a section relating to a public examination without such a statutory provision. Whilst there is some overlap between the classes of persons to whom ss 133(1) and 236(2) of the 1986 Act respectively apply, there are several important differences, in particular in relation to the wide classes of person referred to in s 236(2)(b) and (c) as compared with s 133(1)(b) and (c). Those classes comprise:
‘(b) any person known or suspected to have in his possession any property of the company or supposed to be indebted to the company, or (c) any person whom the court thinks capable of giving information concerning the promotion, formation, business, dealings, affairs or property of the company.’
For my part I agree with Mummery J in holding that it is more appropriate to compare the public examination provisions in the case of companies in s 133 of the 1986 Act with the public examination provisions relating to individual debtors. As will have been seen from the passage I have cited from the Cork Committee report, that committee considered that it would be undesirable if a provision similar to that available in connection with the public examination of individual debtors was not available in a compulsory winding up of an insolvent company. When one compares s 133 with the provisions of s 290 of the 1986 Act relating to the public examination of a bankrupt, the similarity of language is such that, as Stuart-Smith LJ said in Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd v Maxwell [1992]2 All ER 856 at 888, [1993] Ch 1 at 46:
‘The effect of the change brought about in s 133 of the 1986 Act is to assimilate public examination of officers under that section with public examination of a bankrupt.’
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In other words those within s 133(1) are the persons in a company context equivalent to the bankrupt. Section 265 of the 1986 Act, containing provisions corresponding to those in s 1(2) of the 1914 Act, in my view makes it impossible to contend that a bankrupt who is out of the jurisdiction cannot be made subject to public examination. It would be a surprising anomaly if those within s 133(1) excluded persons out of the jurisdiction.
Mr Teverson’s third submission was based on the fact that the 1986 Act provides an alternative procedure by means of orders in aid under s 426 which can be used to cause the examination of persons in certain other jurisdictions. The 1914 Act had a provision for orders in aid and this was a point mentioned in Re Tucker [1988] 1 All ER 603 at 609, [1990]Ch 148 at 158 by Dillon LJ where he said:
‘This procedure, while taking advantage of the jurisdictions of those other courts, also respects those jurisdictions.’
In the present case the Official Receiver has in fact been able to make use of the in aid procedure to procure the private examination of Mr Slinn in Alderney. That the 1986 Act now provides for an in aid procedure in relation to company proceedings, whilst a factor to be taken into account in construing s 133, seems to me to be one only of slight weight. I cannot see that realistically Parliament could have intended that procedure to be an adequate substitute for an ability to require an officer of a company who is abroad to be subject to public examination particularly when the procedure is available in respect of persons present in so very few jurisdictions outside the United Kingdom.
Then Mr Teverson drew attention to the absence of any provision which dealt with administrative details affecting the public examination of someone abroad, such as the costs of attendance and travel arrangements, and he submitted that it should be inferred therefrom that Parliament did not intend that such a person should be summoned from abroad. I am not prepared to draw any such inference. It may be presumed that Parliament treated persons so summoned to be under a duty to attend the examination at their own expense.
Finally, Mr Teverson relied on r 4.211(1) of the lnsolvency Rules 1986, SI 1989/1925, which requires service forthwith of a copy of the court’s order for the public examination of a person. This, he submitted, showed that s 133 of the 1986 Act was not intended by Parliament to apply to persons outside the jurisdiction who could not be served forthwith. In my judgment there is nothing in this point either. It is impermissible to construe the 1986 Act by reference to the rules made under it, and in any event ‘forthwith’ means no more than ‘as soon as is reasonably practicable’.
Mr Teverson also submitted there was an inconsistency between r 4.211 with its mandatory requirement of service forthwith and r 12.12(3) relating to service out of the jurisdiction of any process or order or other documents in insolvency proceedings. By that rule the court may order service to be effected ‘within such time, on such person, at such place and in such manner as it thinks fit’. That rule applies to all insolvency proceedings, not just to public examination. I see no difficulty in construing the rule so as to leave the court with a discretion as to matters such as the place and the manner in which service is to be effected whilst at the same time not affecting the requirement that there should be service on such person because of s 133 and r 4.211.
For the sake of completeness I should mention two other matters. First Mr Teverson sought leave to rely on the Charter granted by Queen Elizabeth I to the residents of Guernsey, Alderney and Sark, granting immunity to such residents from process from English courts concerning any matter in controversy
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arising in those islands. This was not a point taken below even though a letter from Mr Slinn to the Official Receiver on 25 June 1990 shows that Mr Slinn was aware of the point then. We refused leave to raise the point, which would have required evidence of Alderney law as well as evidence relating to whether matters in controversy did arise in the islands.
Second, Mr Davis by a respondent’s notice sought to support the decision of the learned judge on a further point based on the fact that Mr Slinn is a British subject and so, Mr Davis would have submitted, in any event s 133 applies to him. In the circumstances we did not find it necessary to call upon Mr Davis to argue the point.
For the reasons that I have given, it seems to me plain that s 133 does apply to a person such as Mr Slinn, notwithstanding his absence outside the jurisdiction. As Mr Davis submitted, the learned judge reached the right decision for the right reasons.
For my part I would dismiss this appeal.
HIRST LJ. I agree that the appeal should be dismissed for the reasons given by Peter Gibson J and I only wish to add a few words of my own.
In my judgment the key to this appeal lies in the determination of the question ‘who … is within the legislative grasp, or intendment, of [s 133 of the Insolvency Act 1986]?’: per Lord Wilberforce in Clark (lnspector of Taxes) v Oceanic Contractors Inc [1983] 1 All ER 133 at 144, [1983] 2 AC 130 at 152. Section 133 is headed ‘Public examination of officers’ and each class of persons referred to in s 133(1)(a) to (d) is or has been personally involved in that capacity in the direction or management of the company in liquidation.
The purpose of the public examination is to enable the Official Receiver in the fulfilment of his duty under s 132 of the 1986 Act to investigate inter alia the causes of failure of the company, and its business dealings and affairs, for which the officer in question is or may have been wholly or partly responsible, and therefore personally and directly accountable for what has gone wrong. The efficient and thorough conduct of such investigation by the Official Receiver is of great public importance, as several recent notorious cases have demonstrated. This process would be frustrated if, for example, a director, who had with the aid of modern methods of communication run the company entirely from abroad, was immune from public examination, as he or she would be if Mr Teverson’s submissions were correct. The same applies to a director who has defrauded the company in England and then absconded abroad shortly before the liquidation. These are by no means fanciful illustrations in the world of the 1980s and 1990s, and many similar ones could be given.
It follows that, in my judgment, all officers as described in s 133(1)(a) to (d), whether inside or outside the jurisdiction, are within the legislative grasp and intendment of s 133, which on its proper construction has no territorial limits.
I would add that I find no difficulty in distinguishing Re Tucker (a bankrupt), ex p Tucker [1988] 1 All ER 603, [1990] Ch 148 for the reasons given by Peter Gibson J.
LLOYD LJ. I agree with both judgments.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Raina Levy Barrister.
Re a debtor (No 32/SD/91)
[1993] 2 All ER 991
Categories: BANKRUPTCY
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MILLETT J
Hearing Date(s): 16 OCTOBER 1992
Insolvency – Statutory demand – Setting aside statutory demand – Dismissal of application to set aside statutory demand – Jurisdiction to review, rescind or vary order dismissing application to set aside statutory demand – Nature and extent of court’s jurisdiction – Admissibility of fresh evidence – Whether court having jurisdiction to review, rescind or vary order dismissing application to set aside statutory demand – Whether fresh evidence admissible on application – Nature of fresh evidence which is admissible – Insolvency Act 1986 , ss 267(2), 375(1).
The court has jurisdiction under s 375(1)a of the Insolvency Act 1986 to review, rescind or vary an order dismissing an application made under r 6.5 of the Insolvency Rules 1986 to set aside a statutory demand which thereby removes the statutory stay under s 267(2)b on the presentation of a bankruptcy petition. The jurisdiction to review, rescind or vary an order dismissing an application to set aside a statutory demand ought however to be rarely exercised and the applicant for the review, rescission or variation must put forward cogent evidence to show either that there was no debt or that for some other reason the statutory demand ought to have been set aside, eg because the debt is proved to have been paid or to be no longer owing, or never to have arisen or is bona fide disputed on substantial grounds. Fresh evidence is admissible on the hearing of the application to review, rescind or vary an order dismissing an application to set aside a statutory demand whether or not such evidence could with due diligence have been obtained in time for the original hearing, since, unlike an appeal, the admission of fresh evidence on an application to the original tribunal is a matter of discretion. However, in the rare case where the court will entertain an application to review, rescind or vary an order dismissing an application to set aside a statutory demand any fresh evidence must be cogent evidence that the debt is bona fide disputed. Where credible, it need not be incontrovertible but it must be such that if unanswered it would undoubtedly lead to the setting aside of the statutory demand if made at the appropriate time (see p 995 b to d f to h and p 996 g to j, post).
Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745 and Re a debtor (No 12 of 1970), ex p Official Receiver v The debtor [1971] 2 All ER 1494 distinguished.
Notes
For appeals and reviews of court orders in bankruptcy proceedings, see 3(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 723–734, and for cases on the subject, see 5(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 363–381, 15749–15960.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, ss 267, 375, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 910, 1007.
For the Insolvency Rules 1986, r 6.5, see 3 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1991 reissue) 376.
Cases referred to in judgment
Blunt v Blunt [1943] 2 All ER 76, [1943] AC 517, HL.
Cohen (a bankrupt), Re, ex p the bankrupt v IRC [1950] 2 All ER 36, CA.
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Debtor, Re a (No 12 of 1970), ex p Official Receiver v The debtor [1971] 2 All ER 1494, [1971] 1 WLR 1212, CA; affg [1971] 1 All ER 504, [1971] 1 WLR 261, DC.
Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745, [1954] 1 WLR 1489, CA.
Appeal
The debtor appealed from the decision of the district judge sitting in the Hertford County Court on 3 June 1992 dismissing his application seeking a review, rescission or variation of the district judge’s decision of 12 March 1992 dismissing his application made on 26 September 1991 to set aside the statutory demand issued by the petitioning creditor on 9 September 1991 for payment of £30,552. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Thomas Graham (instructed by Wright-Morris & Co) for the debtor.
David Holland (instructed by Beveridge Ross & Prevezers) for the respondent creditor.
16 October 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
MILLETT J. This case raises questions concerning the nature and extent of the bankruptcy court’s jurisdiction to review, rescind or vary any order made by it in the exercise of its bankruptcy jurisdiction. It is an appeal by the debtor from the dismissal by the district judge in the Hertford County Court of his application to rescind or vary a previous decision of her own to dismiss his application to set aside a statutory demand.
The debtor is a trader in a small way of business. He engaged the petitioning creditor, a firm of accountants, in early 1989 to investigate his affairs, to prepare accounts, to report to the Inland Revenue inquiry branch, and to negotiate with the Inland Revenue the extent of his tax liabilities for a number of past years. There was no agreement as to the rate to be charged, rate for the work, or as to the amount of work which needed to be done. In due course the petitioning creditor submitted three invoices, each for £2,000 or a little under. These were all paid in full by the debtor during 1989 or early 1990. In August 1990 the petitioning creditor submitted a further substantial bill for just under £24,000. The debtor immediately challenged the amount of the bill and paid a sum of £8,000 on account in October 1990. In March 1991 the petitioning creditor submitted a further bill for over £19,000. Once again the debtor challenged the amount of the bill and paid a further £8,000 on account. In May 1991 the petitioning creditor wrote to the debtor estimating his outstanding tax liability, excluding penalties, at approximately £102,000 and stating that he could not estimate what further tax charges he might be exposed to but pointing out that he might be liable to penalties at the rate of 100% as well as interest. The total sum, he reported, could come to more than £220,000.
In July 1991, not having been paid the amount of the outstanding invoices the petitioning creditor ceased to act for the debtor. On 9 September he issued a statutory demand. It was served on 16 September. It demanded payment of a sum of £30,552, being the total of the outstanding invoices, after giving credit for amounts paid, together with interest of £1,800-odd. On 26 September, well within time, the debtor applied to set aside the statutory demand.
The hearing of the debtor’s application took place on 12 March 1992, that is to say almost six months after the service of the statutory demand. At the hearing before the district judge there was one affidavit from the petitioning creditor and three affidavits sworn by the debtor’s solicitors. These affidavits disputed the amount of the petitioning creditor’s charges and claimed that the advice given by
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the petitioning creditor was negligent. They deposed to the fact that the debtor had negotiated in person with the Inland Revenue after the petitioning creditor had ceased to act, and that he had reached an agreement with the Inland Revenue as to the amount outstanding. He had succeeded in avoiding any substantial claim for penalties and had settled for much less tax liability than the petitioning creditor had advised. He had paid the Revenue a sum of £30,000, although at the hearing it was not clear whether that was the full amount agreed with the Inland Revenue as the amount of liability or a payment on account.
The debtor’s application to set aside the statutory demand was dismissed. An appeal was lodged but was withdrawn and instead application was made to the county court to review the order dismissing the application. That came before the district judge on 2 June. The application was accompanied by an affidavit sworn by a Mr Mulfakis. It was sworn only on 2 June and the petitioning creditor had no opportunity to deal with the allegations which it contained. Mr Mulfakis, a partner in a firm of accountants, had been instructed by the debtor’s solicitors to review the petitioning creditor’s charges. He had not had an opportunity to examine the petitioning creditor’s working papers and accordingly had to make a number of assumptions. However, his conclusion, after making a number of assumptions in favour of the petitioning creditor—some of them according to him, very generous assumptions—was that the amount charged by the petitioning creditor was grossly excessive. He deposed, for example:
‘It would appear to me from the petitioning creditor’s evidence that a total of 477 hours have been spent on simply the tax enquiry work, excluding the account preparation work. In my view this is out of all proportion to the size of the case or the amount of work that could possibly have been required. I cannot see on any interpretation that this work, if properly done, could justify the time and cost being claimed … I would also consider whether the advice given to the debtor was correct. The petitioning creditor advised the debtor by letter dated 31 May 1991, by which time his firm had spent 977 hours on the matter, that the debtor’s tax liability was likely to be in the region of £102,200. He further advised that there could be a penalty of up to £75,000 plus specific penalties for late submissions of returns. Interest was advised at £44,200. The total liability therefore as advised by the petitioning creditor could be as much as £222,200 plus specific penalties. I consider this advice to be questionable in view of the fact that the debtor eventually settled the case himself by paying £51,580.80 tax and National Insurance contributions plus £24,443.53 by way of interest and penalties. [I interpose to say that the debtor had paid the Inland Revenue moneys on account and that the figure of £51,000 was the total sum paid inclusive of earlier payments.] This covers the seven tax years ending 1987/88 and is less than one third of the liability advised by the petitioning creditor. [I interpose to say that even if penalties and interest are excluded the amount of the total tax liability appears to be something of the order of half that advised by the petitioning creditor.] The petitioning creditor has charged a total of £48,902.36 for his services. The debtor has paid £20,159. It would be my professional view that the debtor has paid enough and should not pay any more without first a full investigation into the petitioning creditor’s assertions and full disclosure of his working papers. It is further my professional view, based on the information I have seen, that the debtor is being substantially overcharged and should not be liable to pay the balance of these claims without the reasonableness of those charges being tested.’
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That affidavit was submitted only on the day of the hearing and the petitioning creditor had no opportunity to deal with it. It is possible that the assumptions made by Mr Mulfakis, in the absence of any opportunity to see the petitioning creditor’s working papers, were misconceived. Clearly the district judge would not have acceded to the application without allowing the petitioning creditor an adjournment. However, the hearing on 3 June lasted only five minutes or so. Counsel have agreed a note of the hearing, which the learned district judge has not approved. She has appended a note of her own. In order to give the flavour of what occurred I propose to read both notes in full. The note agreed by counsel is as follows:
‘(1) The learned district judge told counsel for the debtor prior to the making of any submission that she was not prepared to review her order of 12 March 1992. (2) The learned district judge was asked by counsel for the debtor whether she had read the affidavit evidence of Mr Mulfakis filed since the hearing of 12 March 1992. The learned district judge said that she had flipped through it. The learned district judge further stated that there had been a plethora of affidavits filed on behalf of the debtor for the hearing on 12 March 1992 and that the affidavit of Mr Mulfakis could have been adduced then. (3) The learned district judge stated that simply because the debtor was aggrieved by the order of 12 March 1992 that was not a ground for a review of that order and that the debtor could appeal such order if he so wished. (4) The learned district judge did not give a reasoned judgment.’
The district judge has commented:
‘I do not agree that I did not give a ruling on the reasons for refusing a review. I do not approve this note. From memory I said that the reasons for refusing a review were that the application had been fully argued with affidavit evidence from both parties, both of whom were represented by counsel. There were full submissions by counsel and a judgment given. Thus the proper way forward was appeal.’
Although there is a discrepancy between those two accounts I do not think that there is much doubt as to what happened or what the views of the learned district judge were. She clearly considered that there was no ground for seeking a review of the order, that Mr Mulfakis’s evidence should have been obtained in time for the hearing on 12 March, and that accordingly it was not material upon which an application for review could be founded. She does not seem to have recognised the distinction between a review and an appeal or that the affidavit evidence of Mr Mulfakis could not be admitted on appeal because of the doctrine laid down in the well-known case of Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745, [1954] 1 WLR 1489.
The first question I have to decide is whether the court has jurisdiction to review, rescind or vary an order dismissing an application to set aside a statutory demand. Section 375(1) of the Insolvency Act 1986 is in these terms: ‘Every court having jurisdiction for the purposes of the Parts in this Group may review, rescind or vary any order made by it in the exercise of that jurisdiction.' The order dismissing the application to set aside the statutory demand was made under r 6.5 of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925, and the effect of making the order was to remove the statutory stay on the presentation of a bankruptcy petition which follows from s 267(2)(d) of the Insolvency Act 1986. That subsection provides:
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‘Subject to the next three sections, a creditor’s petition may be presented to the court in respect of a debt or debts only if, at the time the petition is presented … (d) there is no outstanding application to set aside a statutory demand served (under section 268 below) in respect of the debt or any of the debts.’
It follows, in my judgment, that there is jurisdiction in the court to review and rescind or vary an order dismissing an application to set aside a statutory demand, and the contrary was not contended before me. As a matter of discretion I have no doubt that the jurisdiction ought to be rarely exercised, since the effect of doing so would be to allow what would amount to a renewed application to set aside a statutory demand after the period limited for making the application. It is clear from the time limit for making the application that Parliament envisaged that such applications should be made speedily, and any attack upon the validity of the debt on which the petitioning creditor intends to proceed should either be made within 18 days by the adoption of the statutory procedure or should be raised at the hearing of the bankruptcy petition. Counsel submitted that great caution must be exercised in dealing with applications of the present kind, since the result would be to lead to an absence of finality, and he drew an alarming picture of the floodgates which would be opened if I were to allow this appeal. I will deal with the floodgates argument in a moment.
The second question is whether fresh evidence is admissible upon an application under s 375, that is to say evidence which could with due diligence have been obtained in time for the original hearing. In my judgment there is a significant distinction between an application under s 375 of the Insolvency Act 1986 and an appeal. When an appeal is brought from the making of an order the appellant must persuade the appellate court that the original order should not have been made on the material then before it or upon fresh material adduced in the appellate court in accordance with the rule in Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745, [1954] 1 WLR 1489. Where an application is made to the original tribunal to review, rescind or vary an order of its own, however, the question is not whether the original order ought to have been made upon the material then before it but whether that order ought to remain in force in the light either of changed circumstances or in the light of fresh evidence, whether or not it might have been obtained at the time of the original hearing. The matter is one of discretion, and where the evidence might and should have been obtained at the original hearing that will be a factor for the court to take into account; but the rationale for the rule in Ladd v Marshall that there should be an end to litigation and that a litigant is not to be deprived of the fruits of a judgment except on substantial grounds has no bearing in the bankruptcy jurisdiction. The very existence of s 375 is inconsistent with such a rationale. Fresh evidence of this kind was admitted by the registrar in Re Cohen (a bankrupt), ex p the bankrupt v IRC [1950] 2 All ER 36 and the Court of Appeal acted upon the evidence which was admitted below notwithstanding that it could easily have been tendered at the original hearing. There was a concession in that case that the court, in arriving at its decision, was not bound exclusively by the material which was before the court at the original hearing, but Asquith LJ who gave a concurring judgment, expressed the view that it was open to the registrar in deciding whether or not to rescind his earlier order to take into account the additional evidence which had been tendered after the date of the original hearing. In that case the fresh evidence was tendered by the petitioning creditor in order to support the making of the original order and not in order to support the application to rescind it. In my judgment, however, that is a distinction without a difference.
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The next question, which has been argued at some length before me, is whether exceptional circumstances must be shown before the court’s jurisdiction under s 375 can be invoked. Counsel for the petitioning creditor relied very strongly on the decision of the Court of Appeal in Re a debtor (No 12 of 1970), ex p Official Receiver v The debtor [1971] 2 All ER 1494, [1971] 1 WLR 1212. In that case there was an application to rescind a receiving order. The Court of Appeal held that exceptional circumstances which justified the exercise of a power to rescind a receiving order must be closely analogous to a scheme of arrangement or to circumstances which enabled an adjudication to be annulled. No such circumstances existed in that case.
Section 375(1) re-enacts in almost identical terms the wording of s 108(1) of the Bankruptcy Act 1914, which was the section considered by the Court of Appeal in Re a debtor. The reason for the Court of Appeal’s decision appears clearly where Russell LJ, giving the judgment of the court (see [1971] 2 All ER 1494 at 1495, [1971] 1 WLR 1212 at 1214), approved as correct in law the statement by Stamp J in the Divisional Court below in the same case ([1971] 1 All ER 504 at 508, [1971] 1 WLR 261 at 266):
‘A scheme of arrangement or composition and annulment of the adjudication being two of the ways of getting rid of the consequences of bankruptcy singled out by the legislature, the court in exercising its discretion to rescind a receiving order has adopted a similar approach. In my judgment the single result of all the cases is that the court does not, except in very exceptional circumstances, exercise its discretion to rescind a receiving order, except where it would have annulled an adjudication on an application for annulment under s 29(1).’
Accordingly, that case was authority for proposition that the court would not rescind a receiving order except where the debtor could show that the order should not have been made or that since the date of the receiving order all his debts had been paid or compounded for. But, as Stamp J pointed out below ([1971] 1 All ER 504 at 507, [1971] 1 WLR 261 at 265):
‘Extending, as it does, over a wide field, different considerations must apply to the exercise of the discretion thereby conferred on the court according to the character of the order sought to be rescinded or varied.’
In my judgment, the decision in Re a debtor has no bearing on the present case, which raises the question: what grounds should exist to invoke the jurisdiction to rescind or vary an order dismissing an application to set aside a statutory demand? In my judgment, what is needed is evidence to show either that there was no debt or for some other reason the statutory demand ought to have been set aside. The statutory demand ought to have been set aside either where the debt is proved to have been paid or to be no longer owing, or never to have arisen or where the debt is bona fide disputed on substantial grounds. It follows that in the rare case where the court would entertain an application to rescind an order dismissing an application to set aside a statutory demand any fresh evidence must be cogent evidence that the debt is bona fide disputed. Where credible, it obviously need not be incontrovertible; it must be such that if unanswered it would undoubtedly lead to the setting aside of the statutory demand if made at the appropriate time.
I turn to deal with the floodgates argument. It seems to me that problem can safely be left to the discretion of the district judges who have great experience of debtors who make excuses for non-payment and take every advantage of the rules to delay the day of judgment. I do not believe that by confirming the existence
Page 997 of [1993] 2 All ER 991
of this jurisdiction and the admissibility of fresh evidence upon an application under s 375, notwithstanding that it could have been made available at the initial hearing, will lead to chaos in the county court.
I turn then to the question whether the district judge exercised her discretion, for if she did it would not be right for an appellate court to interfere with it unless satisfied that the exercise of her discretion was plainly wrong. In my judgment she did not exercise her discretion at all or, if she did, she exercised it on the wrong basis. She did not consider whether the fresh evidence was admissible. She gave no consideration to its cogency or whether it was sufficient, if unanswered, to show that any outstanding liability was disputed. She does not appear to have recognised the difference between the appeal and review procedures and she seems to have considered that because the case had been previously investigated the only proper course now was to appeal it.
In Blunt v Blunt [1943] 2 All ER 76 at 79, [1943] AC 517 at 526 it was held that it is the duty of an appellate court to substitute its own discretion or to remit the case where it is satisfied that the court below has not exercised its discretion on the proper basis.
I will allow the appeal and remit the case to a district judge in order to consider whether or not to review the order dismissing the debtor’s application to set aside the statutory demand and to vary it by substituting an order setting it aside. It will be for the petitioning creditor to consider whether to adduce evidence in answer to that of Mr Mulfakis and, if so, no doubt the district judge who hears the application will consider it. I express the view that the application ought to be heard by a different district judge.
Appeal allowed. Case remitted to county court.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
R v Clinton
[1993] 2 All ER 998
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STEYN LJ, GARLAND AND ROUGIER JJ
Hearing Date(s): 24, 25 FEBRUARY, 9 MARCH 1993
Criminal law – Trial – Counsel’s conduct of client’s case – Counsel making wrong decision in conduct of case – Counsel deciding not to call defendant or witnesses to rebut identification evidence – Discrepancies in prosecution evidence not put before jury – Whether counsel’s incompetence a material irregularity – Whether counsel’s decision not to call defendant rendering verdict unsafe or unsatisfactory – Criminal Appeal Act 1968, s 2(1)(a).
The appellant was charged with the kidnapping and indecent assault of a 28-year-old woman who was abducted as she was about to get into her car, made to drive around for over an hour and subjected to various sexual assaults. In a statement to the police made the same day the complainant described her assailant as being 5 ft 8 in tall and having acne marks on his face, particularly on the cheeks, but no scars or tattoos. Some 14 months later the complainant thought she recognised the appellant and he was arrested. At his trial the case against the appellant depended almost entirely on the complainant’s identification of him and the main issue was whether that identification was correct. In evidence the complainant described her assailant as being pock-marked but in fact the appellant had never had acne and was not pock-marked. Other discrepancies between the complainant’s description of her attacker and the appellant were that the appellant was 6 ft tall, not 5 ft 8 in, and had tattoo marks on the knuckles of all the fingers of both hands and a scar on his right hand. His defence counsel asked him whether he wished to give evidence and when he stated that he did not no further discussion took place on the matter. The appellant was not called to give evidence, nor was he advised to do so, and no evidence was called on his behalf to rebut the prosecution evidence, with the result that the differences between the appellant’s appearance and physical characteristics and the descriptions given by the complainant were never put before the jury and the trial judge was unable to give a full direction as to the discrepancies or to answer properly questions asked by the jury. The appellant was convicted. He appealed on the ground that the failure of counsel to advise him to give evidence had led to his conviction on misleading evidence.
Held – The circumstances in which the court was entitled to overturn the jury’s verdict in a criminal trial when the grounds of appeal consisted wholly or substantially of criticism of defence counsel’s conduct of the trial would of necessity be extremely rare. Where defence counsel made decisions regarding the conduct of the trial, particularly whether or not to call the defendant, in good faith after proper consideration of the competing arguments and, where appropriate, after due discussion with his client, his decisions could not render a guilty verdict unsafe or unsatisfactory nor could allegations of incompetence on counsel’s part amount to a material irregularity. Conversely, and exceptionally, where it was shown that defence counsel’s decision whether or not to call the defendant was taken either in defiance of or without proper instructions, or when all the promptings of reason and good sense pointed the other way, it was open to the appellate court to set aside the verdict of the jury under s 2(1)(a)a of the
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Criminal Appeal Act 1968 if counsel’s conduct of the trial rendered the verdict unsafe or unsatisfactory. In such a case the court would not attempt to assess the qualitative value of counsel’s alleged incompetence but would seek to assess its effect on the trial and the verdict. On the facts, the appellant had a strong positive case which had never been presented to the jury as a result of the conduct of his counsel and those advising him before the trial and of the prosecution, and that conduct rendered the conviction unsafe and unsatisfactory. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed and the conviction quashed (see p 1003 g h and p 1004 c j to p 1005 b e, post).
Notes
For the authority of counsel to conduct a case, see 3(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 518 and for cases on the subject, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 765, 4640–4646.
For the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, s 2, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 388.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Ensor [1989] 2 All ER 586, [1989] 1 WLR 497, CA.
R v Gautam [1988] Crim LR 109, CA.
R v Irwin [1987] 2 All ER 1085, [1987] 1 WLR 902, CA.
R v Swain (note) [1988] Crim LR 109, CA.
R v Wellings (20 December 1991, unreported), CA.
Appeal
Dean Clinton appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction on 4 January 1991 in the Crown Court at Birmingham before Judge Shand and a jury on charges of kidnapping and indecent assault. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
J F M Maxwell (who did not appear below) (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Christopher Hodson (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, West Midlands) for the Crown.
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the appeal would be allowed for reasons to be given later.
9 March 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
ROUGIER J. On 4 January 1991 in the Crown Court at Birmingham the appellant was convicted of kidnapping and indecent assault and was sentenced to six years’ imprisonment concurrently on each count. On 25 February 1993 this court indicated that the conviction would be quashed. We now give our reasons.
The facts which gave rise to the matter were that in April 1989 the complainant, a 28-year-old market supervisor, was abducted as she was about to get into her car. She was made to drive around for over an hour and subjected to various unpleasant sexual assaults. In all she was in the company of her assailant for something in the region of an hour and a quarter. That same day, badly shaken, she made a statement to the police during which she described her attacker in the following terms:
‘A white male, 20 to 25 years, 5'8" tall, medium build, 11½ to 12 stone, no fat stomach, dark brown curly, messy hair, no style. He was grubby looking, had acne marks on his face, particularly on the cheeks, and he had red marks
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by his right temple, maybe where he had made some spots bleed. No moustache or beard, slim face with slightly drawn cheeks. I think he may have had a chipped front tooth, parted lips, no marks, scars or tattoos, or jewellery that I can remember. I am unsure of his clothing but I think he had a dark collarless shirt.’
During the course of the subsequent investigation she was shown no fewer than 150 photographs of various potential suspects, none of which was she able to recognise. Time passed until in June 1990, 14 months after her ordeal, she was at her work in the Bull Ring market in Birmingham when she saw the appellant and immediately recognised him, so she said, as her attacker. The sight of the appellant threw her into a state of extreme shock and agitation. The appellant was stopped by two market policemen and went to the police station in the company of the two officers. When they arrived at the station one of the market police officers stayed with the appellant in the reception room whilst the other went into the next room to recount to the station officer what had occurred. While this was being done the other asked the appellant if he knew why he had been arrested, to which the appellant replied: ‘Is it anything to do with an attack?' The appellant was interviewed, during the course of which he denied owning a dark collarless shirt and maintained his innocence throughout. At the end of the interview he was duly charged.
It will, therefore, be seen from these facts that the case against the appellant depended almost entirely on the correctness of the complainant’s identification with all its attendant dangers and with the addition of two further points: first, his remarks quoted above; secondly, arising from the fact that when his room was searched a blue collarless shirt was discovered.
When the complainant gave evidence she stated in terms that the appellant had a bit missing from a front tooth and went so far as to identify the site as the right incisor. She further stated that her assailant’s face had been pitted and pockmarked. She accepted that she had seen her assailant’s hands since he was not wearing gloves. Pc Heard, the officer responsible for being in charge of the appellant after his arrest, stated that the appellant was 5 ft 10 in and also that he had pock-marks rather than acne and that his teeth were irregular rather than chipped.
In point of fact the reality of the appellant’s appearance and physical characteristics differed from the descriptions given in a number of important respects. Some of these have formed the basis of agreement between counsel for the appellant and Crown respectively. We have also been privileged to take a close look at the appellant in person. Additionally, there are with the court papers photographs of him taken at a function in November 1988 and on his arrest. The salient points of difference are these. (1) The appellant is in fact six feet in height. A mere four inches by itself may not sound much but in our judgment it does mark the difference between a man who had been described as medium size and one who would be described as tall in most people’s estimation. (2) The appellant had tattoos in the form of grey spots on the knuckles of all the fingers of both hands. It is agreed that these had been done for many years before this incident occurred and that he had them as early as 1981. (3) The appellant has a scar on his right hand. This also, it is agreed, antedated the incident. (4) The appellant’s teeth were not chipped. However, dental records which have subsequently been produced show that his front teeth were in fact misaligned. This point, therefore, is not of particular significance since it is possible that the misalignment might have been mistaken for a chip. (5) The appellant never had acne. However, the appellant did admit that occasionally he had spots and this point too is of little
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significance since many people unscientifically refer to all facial spots as acne. (6) Of more significance however is that the appellant does not and never has had any pock-marks. Unlike spots pock-marks are not transient.
Mr Maxwell who, needless to say did not represent the appellant at his trial and who has clearly left no stone unturned on behalf of his client, puts these factors as the first and principal ground of the appeal, in that these important differences were never put before the jury save in the most incomplete and perfunctory form. This is not a criticism of the learned judge. Rather it stems from the fact that the appellant was never called to give evidence, nor advised to do so, nor was any evidence called on his behalf. There is an unfortunate dispute between the appellant and counsel who represented him at the trial as to whether a conference on this subject took place during the trial and if so, whether the appellant expressed a strong wish not to give evidence. In our judgment, however, it is not necessary to resolve that issue. We are firmly of the view that the appellant should have been advised in the strongest possible terms that it was highly desirable that he should give evidence in order to underline the discrepancies outlined above. This was all the more important because at the trial there was not available to counsel, through no fault of his since he took over the case at a late stage, any of the supporting evidence which has been made available in an agreed form to this court to describe the appellant’s appearance back in the spring of 1989. Such evidence has come from members of his family and has formed the subject of agreement so that it has been unnecessary for it to be called before us.
On behalf of the Crown, Mr Hodson has suggested that the appellant cannot rely upon this ground because he has made it clear that he was at all times adamantly opposed to going into the witness box. Our attention has been drawn to his application for bail pending this appeal wherein, in describing a conference with counsel who was first instructed, he stated:
‘We talk about the case and Miss Rachel told me I wouldn’t have to go into the witness box if I didn’t want to ‘cause she could tell that I was a shy person. So I told her about my witnesses and why I didn’t really want them there and why they couldn’t make it anyway.’
But later on in the same document he further states:
‘I have never been to a trial before. I didn’t realise how important my witnesses were and how important it was for me to go into the witness box and I wasn’t told ever.’
Additionally, we learn from the further opinion written by Mr Maxwell that the appellant’s recollection of the events immediately before his trial began was that he saw his then counsel who asked him if he wanted to give evidence and the appellant simply replied that he did not but that no further discussion took place.
From this it seems to us that the correct view of the appellant’s attitude is that, though reluctant to give evidence for the reasons stated, he was not in such a state of mind that he would have disregarded appropriate advice from his counsel supported by cogent reasons. His counsel, in a written statement in answer to a complaint which had been made to the Professional Conduct Committee of the Bar Council, has accepted that he did nothing to try and wean the appellant from his reluctance to testify. Unhappily, in the view of this court, this, in combination with the absence of any supporting evidence on the appellant’s behalf, must be stigmatised as a grave error. The very nature of the prosecution evidence rendered the arguments in favour of direct rebuttal overwhelming. At the very least, as already mentioned, evidence from others who could have dealt with these matters should have been made available.
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The result of this was that the learned judge was unable to give to the jury anything but the sketchiest description of the differences so important to the defence. Again we emphasise that there is no criticism to be made of the learned judge in this respect; the material simply was not before him. At the end of the day all the jury were told on the subject was that the appellant was measured as 5 ft 10 in (this being in fact incorrect), that he had irregular teeth, misaligned but not chipped, and that there were tattoos on his knuckles and a scar on his right hand at the time of arrest.
That the question of the correctness or otherwise of the identifying features recited by the complainant was causing the jury concern is amply demonstrated by a note containing four questions which they sent to the learned judge after retiring. The second of the questions was: ‘Is there a photograph of Clinton that we can look at to check teeth and complexion?’ and the third read: ‘When were his tattoos done and how prominent are they?' There was no photograph, although, as already observed, one could have been made available, and the learned judge was unable to give any answer to the last of the questions. It is bound to strike one as a distinct possibility that had the true position been revealed to the jury it might have tipped the balance in the appellant’s favour.
The failure of the appellant to give evidence had another unfortunate result, this time connected with the alleged remark at the police station. The appellant’s proof is before us and from that it will be seen that his account of the matter was that he had been in the market on the day of his arrest in fact to do a little quiet shoplifting. Shortly before being seen by the complainant he had, in fact, stuffed some ornament in the front of his jacket but had been forced to give it back after a minor scuffle with the female shopowner. He maintained that, when he overheard bits of what the market police officer was outlining to the station officer, including mention of a woman’s name, he assumed that he had been arrested because of what had just taken place. Consequently he was maintaining, when asked if he knew why he had been arrested, his reply was: ‘What am I supposed to have done, jumped on a woman?' At no time, he stated, did he use the word ‘attack’.
This version was never put to the jury for them to consider. Indeed the prosecution evidence on this aspect was not even challenged. The reason for this is it seems that counsel was under the impression that the point no longer threatened his client because it had been conceded by one of the police officers that the conversation detailing the reason for the arrest could have been overheard by someone in the appellant’s position. That this was a misapprehension is illustrated by that part of the learned judge’s summing up where he reminded the jury of the evidence concerning what happened at the police station. After a recital of the evidence which had been given, he put the matter in this way:
‘Members of the jury, you will consider this evidence. If you are satisfied so that you are sure that nobody had told the defendant of the nature of the allegation against him that it was an attack, and if you are satisfied so that you are sure that the defendant did not and could not, being with Mr Rashid [that is the second market police officer], hear what Butler [one of the complainant’s colleagues] was saying to the police, then the prosecution make the point, and you will want to consider it very carefully: what is the significance of his volunteering the question “Is it anything to do with an attack?” Why should he say that if he knew nothing about this incident? Members of the jury, it is entirely a matter for you; it is something that you will want, again, to weigh in the balance of the totality of the evidence.’
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This failure on the part of counsel for the appellant at the trial to counter this part of the prosecution case forms the second ground of appeal.
The learned judge is criticised for not underlining to the jury that, being in shock upon seeing the appellant, the complainant’s identification was thereby rendered fallible. In our judgment this criticism is not justified. The learned judge reminded the jury that the complainant was in a state of shock and they were perfectly capable of drawing that inference themselves, if they thought it valid.
The fourth ground of appeal is that the agreed summary of the interviews conducted by the police gave a misleading picture in that it was unfair to the appellant in several respects. Again this is not a criticism of counsel who inherited the situation at a late stage and had not had the opportunity to listen to the tapes himself. Nevertheless, whoever had previously acted for the appellant had had that opportunity and had agreed the summary which was put before the court. The particular aspects of which complaint is made are these. (1) Dealing with the first interview the summary states: ‘The description of the offender was outlined. Clinton agreed it fitted him.' But in fact the officer omitted that part of the description that the attacker had no tattoos or scars that the complainant could remember. (2) The entire point concerning the appellant’s shirt was encapsulated in the terse sentence: ‘He denied having a round-necked shirt.' This represents a considerable distortion of what actually passed between the appellant and the interviewing officer, the relevant parts of which are that the officer, referring to the complainant said: ‘She says a dark collarless shirt. Have you got one of them?' The appellant said: ‘What colour did you say it was?' To which the officer replied: ‘She says dark.' The appellant thereupon said: ‘I don’t think I’ve ever had one without collars.’
At the third and final interview when confronted with the collarless shirt which the officers had found in his bedroom, the appellant instantly admitted that it was his but when the officer said: ‘So you have got one then?’ the appellant’s reply was: ‘Yes, but that isn’t dark is it?' He then attempted to say more but was twice interrupted by the officer saying: ‘I asked you if you’ve got a round necked shirt’, and thereby omitting all reference to the fact that he had also said that it was supposed to be dark. It will, therefore, be seen that the bald statement of a denial of having a round-necked shirt with no reference to the tone of it gave a far stronger impression of lying than that conveyed by the full transcript.
In summary, therefore, these are all matters which have caused this court grave concern. It seems clear that the appellant had a far from feeble positive case which, for a variety of reasons, was never presented to the jury.
At the same time we are acutely aware that the circumstances in which a court is entitled to overset a jury’s verdict when the grounds advanced consist wholly or substantially of criticisms of defence counsel’s conduct of the trial, must of necessity be extremely rare. This recently has been emphasised by other divisions of this court in several cases. In R v Irwin [1987] 2 All ER 1085, [1987] 1 WLR 902 the facts were wholly exceptional. At his first trial the defendant had served notice of alibi and had called two witnesses in support. The jury disagreed and on a retrial his counsel decided, without informing him, not to call the alibi witnesses and closed the case. The court decided that, in the absence of instructions or any conference with the client, this amounted to a material irregularity in the second trial. They further added that the convictions were unsatisfactory.
Subsequently it has been doubted whether counsel’s conduct of the trial could ever be categorised as a material irregularity—see R v Gautam [1988] Crim LR 109. Archbold’s Pleading Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (44th edn, 1992)
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para 7–107 suggests that if the conduct of counsel is ever to be made the basis of a successful appeal then the only way this can be done, consistently with the legislation and the authorities, is by bringing the case within s 2(1)(a) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 which provides as follows:
‘Except as provided by this Act, the Court of Appeal shall allow an appeal against the conviction if they think—(a) that the conviction should be set aside on the ground that under all the circumstances of the case it is unsafe, or unsatisfactory …’
We too would respectfully suggest that this is the correct approach and that to speak in terms of material irregularity in such cases is likely to be misleading. Subsequent decisions have emphasised that cases where the conduct of counsel can afford a basis for appeal must be regarded as wholly exceptional.
With that we are in full agreement. During the course of any criminal trial counsel for the defence is called upon to make a number of tactical decisions not the least of which is whether or not to call his client to give evidence. Some of these decisions turn out well, others less happily. In R v Gautam this court concisely explained why such decisions could not generally afford valid grounds of appeal. They held that, provided counsel had properly discussed the case with his client the court would not permit the defendant to have another opportunity to run an alternative defence which had not been run at his trial. In R v Ensor [1989] 2 All ER 586, [1989] 1 WLR 497 the court considered both R v Irwin and R v Gautam and expressly approved the approach in the latter case subject only to the qualification which had been inserted in an intervening case called R v Swain (note) [1988] Crim LR 109 that if the court had any lurking doubt that the defendant might have suffered some injustice as the result of flagrantly incompetent advocacy by his counsel, then it would quash the convictions. In the case before them they decided that what was described as ‘counsel’s carefully considered decision’, even if erroneous, could not possibly be described as incompetent let alone flagrantly incompetent advocacy.
Most recently R v Wellings (20 December 1991, unreported), heard in another division of this court, repeated the principle. Giving the judgment of the court Lord Lane CJ said:
‘The fact that counsel may appear to have made at trial a mistaken decision, or has indeed made a decision which in retrospect has been shown to have been mistaken, is seldom a proper ground of appeal. Generally speaking it is only when counsel’s conduct of the case can be described as flagrantly incompetent advocacy that this court will be minded to intervene.’
We would, however, draw attention to the fact that in both R v Gautam and R v Wellings the principle was stated in general rather than restrictive, inflexible terms. In our judgment the court was not thereby intending to derogate from the plain wording of s 2(1)(a) of the 1968 Act. Mr Maxwell has, rightly we think, urged upon us that it is basically to the wording of the subsection itself that the court must look. We think that the proper interpretation of the cases to which we have referred is that the court was doing no more than providing general guidelines as to the correct approach. The court was rightly concerned to emphasise that where counsel had made decisions in good faith after proper consideration of the competing arguments, and, where appropriate after due discussion with his client, such decisions could not possibly be said to render a subsequent verdict unsafe or unsatisfactory. Particularly does this apply to the decision as to whether or not to call the defendant. Conversely and, we stress,
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exceptionally, where it is shown that the decision was taken either in defiance of or without proper instructions, or when all the promptings of reason and good sense pointed the other way, it may be open to an appellate court to set aside the verdict by reason of the terms of s 2(1)(a) of the 1968 Act. It is probably less helpful to approach the problem via the somewhat semantic exercise of trying to assess the qualitative value of counsel’s alleged ineptitude, but rather to seek to assess its effect on the trial and the verdict according to the terms of the subsection.
In the present case we have come to the conclusion that the criticisms which we have endeavoured to outline—criticisms which it should again be stressed are not confined to counsel who conducted the case at the trial, but extend to those who advised the appellant at an earlier stage—have rendered this conviction both unsafe and unsatisfactory.
Finally, our decision is fortified by the reflection that not all of the criticism can be laid entirely at the door of those who had the conduct of the defence. Mr Maxwell has rightly drawn our attention to the fact, now agreed, that the police had had in their possession for many years evidence as to the appellant’s correct height and to the existence of his tattoo marks. Sad to relate the appellant has a long history of arrests for minor offences whereat his personal details were recorded. As early as 1983 such records included the fact that he had both tattoo dots and a scar on his hand. He was measured as six feet in height many years before this incident occurred. The blame for failing to put these relevant facts before the jury must therefore be shared, to say the least. Furthermore, it is to be noted that, although, as already stated, the defence had opportunity to consider and check it, the summary of the transcript of the interviews was one prepared solely by the prosecution.
It was in these circumstances that we decided that this conviction could no longer be sustained and must be quashed.
Appeal allowed. Conviction quashed.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Ward-Lee v Linehan
[1993] 2 All ER 1006
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Tenancies
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, McCOWAN AND HIRST LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 25, 26 JANUARY, 9 FEBRUARY 1993
County court – Practice – Service of documents relating to application for new tenancy of business premises – Failure to serve documents within prescribed time limit – Failure to apply for extension within currency of time limit – Jurisdiction to extend time – Exercise of discretion to extend time where jurisdiction – CCR Ord 7, r 20, Ord 13, r 4, Ord 43, r 6(3).
Landlord and tenant – Business premises – Application for new tenancy – County court procedure – Failure to serve documents relating to application within prescribed time limit – Jurisdiction to enlarge time for service – Exercise of discretion to enlarge time where jurisdiction – CCR Ord 7, r 20, Ord 13, r 4, Ord 43, r 6(3).
In April 1991 the tenant of business premises under a seven-year lease which was due to expire on 31 March 1992 served on the landlord a request for a new tenancy under s 26(1)a of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, proposing a tenancy for 12 years at an annual rent of £2,750. In May 1991 the land lord replied, stating that she had no objection to the grant of a new tenancy but suggesting instead a rent of £7,500. On 4 July 1991 the tenant issued an originating application in the county court under Pt II of the 1954 Act for a new tenancy of the premises. By CCR Ord 7, r 20b as applied by Ord 43, r 6(3) to landlord and tenant applications the application was required to be served on the landlord within two months of the date of issue. However, unknown to the tenant, the county court failed to serve the proceedings on the landlord as it was required to do by Ord 7, r 10(1)(b). On 30 September the landlord wrote to the tenant inquiring whether the tenant had issued proceedings for a renewal of the tenancy or intended to vacate the premises at the end of the lease. On 1 October the tenant replied that proceedings had been issued on 4 July and expressed surprise that the landlord had not heard from the court. On 29 November the landlord wrote again stating that since she had not received the originating application, the tenant was out of time and had lost her right of statutory renewal. The tenant applied for leave to serve the originating application out of time. The landlord opposed the application on the ground that her financial and personal circumstances had changed substantially since May 1991 and she now required the property herself and would be prejudiced if the tenant’s application were allowed. The district judge refused the tenant’s application and the judge dismissed the tenant’s appeal on the grounds inter alia, of prejudice to the landlord. The tenant appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – Where a tenant of business premises issued an originating application in the county court for a new tenancy under Pt II of the 1954 Act but the application was not served on the landlord within two months of the date of issue as required by CCR Ord 7, r 20 and Ord 43, r 6(3), and no application to extend the time for service was made under Ord 7, r 20(2) within four months of that date, the county
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court could nevertheless exercise its general discretion under Ord 13, r 4c to extend time limits by extending the time for service and treating the failure to extend and serve as an irregularity and could then order the action to proceed under Ord 37, r 5d. However, that discretion was to be exercised sparingly and only where the tenant showed good reason for its exercise and gave a satisfactory explanation for the failure to apply for an extension before the validity of the proceedings expired. Since the tenant had taken the correct steps to issue her originating application in good time and it was entirely the fault of the county court that the proceedings were not served, her failure to apply for an extension before the validity of the proceedings expired was satisfactorily explained and there was good reason for the exercise of the discretion to extend the time for service. Furthermore, on the facts, the delay in service had not of itself prejudiced the landlord since her change of circumstances would have occurred even if she had been served in time and was not caused by the tenant’s delay. It followed the appeal would be allowed and the tenant would be granted such extension as she required to effect service of the proceedings on the landlord (see p 1011 h, p 1014 c d f h j and p 1015 b to d, post).
Lewis v Wolking Properties Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 427, Robert Baxendale Ltd v Darstone (Holdings) Ltd, Carobene v John Collier Menswear Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 496 and Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 289 considered.
Bernstein v Jackson [1982] 2 All ER 806 not followed.
Notes
For the county court procedure on an application for a new tenancy of business premises, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 493, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 354, 11259–11260.
For the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, s 26, see 23 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 151.
Cases referred to in judgment
Baxendale (Robert) Ltd v Davstone (Holdings) Ltd, Carobene v John Collier Menswear Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 496, [1982] 1 WLR 1385, CA.
Bernstein v Jackson [1982] 2 All ER 806, [1982] 1 WLR 1082, CA.
Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 289, [1987] AC 597, [1987] 2 WLR 1053, HL.
Leal v Dunlop Bio-Processes International Ltd [1984] 2 All ER 207, [1984] 1 WLR 874, CA.
Lewis v Wolking Properties Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 427, [1978] 1 WLR 403, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Ali v Knight (1983) 272 EG 1165, CA.
Barrie (John) Ltd v GUS Property Management Ltd (1981) 259 EG 628, CA.
Carmel Exporters (Sales) Ltd v Sea-Land Services Inc [1981] 1 All ER 984, [1981] 1 WLR 1068.
Doble v Haymills (Contractors) Ltd (1988) 132 SJ 1063, CA.
Evans Construction Co Ltd v Charrington & Co Ltd [1983] 1 All ER 310, [1982] QB 810, CA.
Golden Ocean Assurance Ltd v Martin, The Golden Mariner [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 215, CA.
Heaven v Road and Rail Wagons Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 409, [1965] 2 QB 355.
Page 1008 of [1993] 2 All ER 1006
Jones v Jones [1970] 3 All ER 47, [1970] 2 QB 576, CA.
Metroinvest Ansalt v Commercial Union Assurance Co plc [1985] 2 All ER 318, [1985] 1 WLR 513, CA.
Unitramp SA v Jensen & Nicholson (S) Pte Ltd, The Baiona [1992] 1 All ER 346, [1992] 1 WLR 862.
Vita, The [1990] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 528.
Wadden v Whitecroft-Scovill Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 996, [1988] 1 WLR 309, HL.
Interlocutory appeal
The plaintiff, Beryl Elizabeth Louise Ward-Lee, the tenant of business premises known as The Treasures, Four Elms, Edenbridge, Kent, let to her by the defendant, Collette Linehan (the landlord), appealed with the leave of Staughton LJ granted on 18 May 1992 from the order of Judge Lovegrove QC made on 26 February 1992 in the East Grinstead County Court dismissing her appeal from the decision of the district judge made on 21 January 1992 and refusing her application to extend the period for service of the originating application for a new tenancy of the premises issued by her under Pt II of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Timothy Fancourt (instructed by Stephens & Scown, Truro) for the tenant.
Ben Patten (instructed by Lufflum & Ainsworth, Sutton) for the landlord.
Cur adv vult
9 February 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. This appeal raises a question of some practical importance on the powers of the county court to extend time for the service of proceedings.
The appellant was the tenant of ground floor premises at Edenbridge in Kent where she ran an antique shop. She held the premises under a seven-year lease which was due to expire on 31 March 1992. The respondent was her landlord. We shall refer to the parties as ‘the tenant’ and ‘the landlord’.
On 22 April 1991 the tenant made to the landlord a request in writing for a new tenancy under s 26 of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954. She proposed a term of 12 years and an annual rent of £2,750 with four-yearly reviews.
On 15 May 1991 the landlord’s solicitors acknowledged receipt of this notice. They stated that the landlord had no objection to the grant of a new tenancy but they suggested a rent of £7,500.
On 4 July 1991 the tenant’s solicitors sent a form of originating application for a new tenancy under Pt II of the 1954 Act to the East Grinstead County Court, with a copy for the landlord and a request for the issue of a summons. The county court stamped one copy of the originating application, assigned a cause number to the proceedings and returned a stamped copy to the tenant’s solicitors. The county court also issued, stamped, numbered and sent to the tenant’s solicitors a summons addressed to the landlord, although in accordance with usual practice no date for a hearing was fixed. All this was done on 5 July 1991.
The tenant’s solicitors did not indicate any wish that they or the tenant should serve the summons or the originating application on the landlord personally. It was accordingly the duty of the county court to serve the proceedings on the landlord by first-class post at the address stated in the request for the summons (CCR Ord 7, r 10(1)(b)(2)). The county court did not serve the proceedings on the landlord by post or in any other way. Nor, in sending the stamped, dated and
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numbered documents to the tenant’s solicitors, did the county court indicate that the landlord had not been served. The natural inference was that the county court had served the landlord in accordance with the rules. That was what the tenant’s solicitors assumed.
Under the County Court Rules, an answer to the tenant’s application should have been filed by the landlord within 14 days of service (CGR Ord 43, r 2(1), Ord 9, r 18(3)). In this case no answer was forthcoming because the landlord had not been served. The absence of an answer might have alerted the tenant’s solicitors to the fact that the landlord had not been served. It did not do so. This was not at all surprising in the circumstances. The existing tenancy still had some eight months or so to go. The landlord had not objected to the grant of a new tenancy or to any of the proposed terms save the rent. There was nothing to suggest that agreement could not be reached on rent, as it usually is. The tenant was obliged to make application to the court in order to preserve her right to claim a new tenancy (1954 Act, ss 24(1), 29(3)). But if matters followed their usual course the application would never come to a hearing, and lack of activity on the landlord’s part would not have appeared at all significant. The tenant’s solicitors were not at fault in failing to suspect that the landlord had not been served and it was not argued that they were.
The silence was broken on 30 September 1991 when the landlord’s solicitors wrote to the tenant’s solicitors as follows:
‘Further to our correspondence last May we enquire whether your client has issued proceedings for renewal of her Tenancy alternatively whether it is her intention to vacate the property next April. Please let us know either way as our client wishes to make her arrangements for re-letting if applicable. If you have issued proceedings please effect service upon us as [the landlord’s] solicitors.’
The tenant’s solicitors were clearly somewhat surprised to receive this letter. They replied by return of post in a letter of October:
‘We thank you for your letter of the 30th ultimo. Proceedings were issued on the 4th July last and we quoted your Client’s name c/o your office as the name and address of the Respondent. A sealed copy of the application was received from the East Grinstead County Court on the 9th July. We are surprised that you have not heard from the court because we sent them a copy of the Originating Application for service. The Case Number allocated by the Court is 9101767.’
The tenant’s solicitors received no answer to that letter for nearly two months, during which they neither wrote again nor made inquiry of the landlord’s solicitors or the county court to discover what (if anything) had happened. But on 29 November the landlord’s solicitors wrote again:
‘In reply to your letter of 1 October last we did not receive the Originating Application and nor were we authorised to do so. In consequence we believe that your client is now out of time and that she has lost her right of statutory renewal. Our authority to accept service dated 30th September last is hereby revoked.’
At this point the tenant’s solicitors did make inquiry of the county court. They were told that a note in the court records suggested that the summons and application had been sent to them for service, but this had not been done and they did not (until now) know that the court’s understanding was otherwise. In early December 1991 the tenant’s solicitors, following a suggestion made by the
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court, asked the landlord’s solicitors to consent to late service, but the landlord’s solicitors declined to do so.
On 9 January 1992 the tenant’s solicitors issued an application seeking leave to serve the originating application out of time. The landlord opposed. In an affidavit sworn on her behalf her solicitor said that her financial and personal circumstances had changed substantially since May 1991 when she had given her counter-notice: she now sought the property for herself and would be prejudiced if the tenant’s application were allowed. The district judge dismissed the application on 21 January 1992. The tenant appealed. For purposes of the appeal the landlord made an affidavit in which she deposed:
‘Since giving the Landlord’s Counter Notice my financial position has deteriorated due to the loss of my husband’s financial support. He has been in a Psychiatric Hospital as a result of an attempted suicide. He is now in a Rehabilitation Centre but I do not know whether he will be fit for employment again or whether we will resume cohabitation. I have a 16 year old daughter who is studying for G.C.S.E. who I am supporting. In the circumstances I need to obtain the maximum income possible from the said shop and I believe this will be achieved as a business proprietor rather than as a Landlord.’
Judge Lovegrove QC dismissed the tenant’s appeal on 26 February 1992. In the course of his judgment the learned judge accepted that he had a discretion to extend time and that he had to balance the parties’ competing interests, but decided that he should not grant an extension because of the prejudice to the landlord and (it would seem) the two month delay of the tenant in pursuing the question of service after the landlord’s solicitors’ letter of 30 September 1991.
Against that judgment the tenant now appeals with leave granted by this court. The issues are whether the county court had a discretion to extend time and, if so, whether it was a discretion which could and should have been exercised on the facts of this case. Before the judge the existence of some discretion appears to have been assumed. On appeal to this court the existence of such a discretion was at first challenged. But in argument counsel for the landlord did not contend that there was no discretion, only that the court’s discretion could not properly have been exercised in the tenant’s favour on the facts here.
It is first necessary to review the relevant County Court Rules. In doing so we make reference to the corresponding Rules of the Supreme Court since it is not suggested that there is intended, in any relevant respect, to be a dichotomy of practice between the two courts.
CCR Ord 7, r 20 provides:
‘(1) The time within which a summons may be served shall, unless extended under the following provisions of this rule, be limited—(a) where leave to serve the summons out of England and Wales is required under Ord. 8, r. 2, to a period of 6 months; (b) in any other case to a period of 4 months, beginning with the date of issue of the summons.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the court may extend the period of service for a summons from time to time for such period, not exceeding 4 months at any one time, beginning with the day next following that on which it would otherwise expire, as the court may specify, if an application for extension is made before that day or such later day (if any) as the court may allow.
(3) Where the court is satisfied on an application under paragraph (2) that, despite the making of all reasonable efforts, it may not be possible to serve
Page 1011 of [1993] 2 All ER 1006
the summons within 4 months, the court may, if it thinks fit, extend the period for service for such period, not exceeding 12 months, as the court may specify.’
CCR Ord 43, r 6(3) substitutes a period of two months for the periods of four months and six months in the case of originating applications under s 24 of the 1954 Act. These rules correspond with RSC Ord 6, r 8 and Ord 97, r 6(3). On the facts here the two month period for service expired on 4 September 1991, at which time the tenant and her solicitors did not appreciate that the county court had fallen down on its duty to serve the proceedings on the landlord.
CCR Ord 13, r 4 provides:
‘(1) Except as otherwise provided, the period within which a person is required or authorised by these rules or by any judgment, order or direction to do any act in any proceedings may be extended or abridged by consent of all the parties or by the court on the application of any party.
(2) Any such period may be extended by the court although the application for extension is not made until after the expiration of the period.’
This corresponds in effect to RSC Ord 3, r 5.
Lastly, we should refer to CCR Ord 37, r 5, which, so far as relevant, provides:
‘(1) Where there has been a failure to comply with any requirement of these rules, the failure shall be treated as an irregularity and shall not nullify the proceedings, but the court may set aside the proceedings wholly or in part or exercise its powers under these rules to allow any such amendments and to give such directions as it thinks fit.
(2) No application to set aside any proceedings for irregularity shall be granted unless made within a reasonable time, nor if the party applying has taken any step in the proceedings after knowledge of the irregularity …’
This broadly corresponds to RSC Ord 2, r 1.
The effect of RSC Ord 6, r 8 has recently been the subject of authoritative exposition by the House of Lords in Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 289, [1987] AC 597. It was there held that RSC Ord 6, r 8(2) should be read as subject to an implied term that the power to extend the validity of a writ should only be exercised for good reason, a somewhat less stringent test than that of ‘exceptional circumstances’ previously favoured. Where the application for extension is made after a writ has ceased to be valid and after the relevant limitation period has expired, an applicant has not only to show good reason for the court to exercise its power to extend but also to give a satisfactory explanation for his failure to apply for extension before the validity of the writ expired. We have no doubt that this reasoning should be applied by analogy to CCR Ord 7, r 20.
This rule does not, however, solve the tenant’s problems, for even if she were able to show good reason and give a satisfactory explanation, the court’s power to extend in a case under s 24 of the 1954 Act is limited to a period not exceeding two months. The primary two month period expired on 4 September 1991 . An extension of two months under CCR Ord 7, r 20(2) would only have carried her to 3 November 1991. By that date she had neither served the landlord nor applied to the court.
A somewhat similar case came before this court in Lewis v Wolking Properties Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 427, [1978] 1 WLR 403. At that time the period provided both for service and for renewal of an originating application of this kind was one
Page 1012 of [1993] 2 All ER 1006
month. The tenants applied to the county court on 23 August 1976. The court tried to serve the landlords but could not do so because the landlords had left the address given for service. The tenants’ solicitors accordingly asked the landlords’ solicitors for the landlords’ correct address. The landlords’ solicitors replied on 17 September, six days before expiry of the one month period allowed for service, giving no address for the landlords but agreeing to accept service if the summons had been timeously issued. The tenants’ solicitors did not accept that invitation to serve the landlords’ solicitors. Instead, they repeated their request for the landlords’ address on 21 September. The address was given on 29 September, by which time the month had expired. On 11 October 1976 the landlords’ solicitors took the point that service was out of time unless application for an extension had already been made. At that stage the tenants’ solicitors applied to the county court for an extension which was granted and, as the Court of Appeal held, rightly granted.
At the time of that case the County Court Rules were somewhat different. The rule which then corresponded to what is now Ord 7, r 20 contained two provisions which have now disappeared. First, the paragraph which permitted extensions to be granted was subject to the proviso: ‘That the time shall not be extended for any period unless the application is made within the currency of the last preceding period.' Secondly, the rule provided: ‘Where the summons has not been served within the time allowed for service by this rule, the action shall be struck out.’
The landlords in Lewis’s case accepted that if there was a discretion to extend time on application made after expiry of the initial one month period the case was a proper one for exercise of the discretion in the tenants’ favour, but they argued that if service was not effected and application for extension not made within the initial one month period, the court had no choice but to strike out the action.
The Court of Appeal did not accept that argument. It construed the rule which then corresponded to CCR Ord 13, r 4 as giving a broader power to extend than the then equivalent of Ord 7, r 20. There was accordingly a discretion to extend time, although a discretion to be sparingly exercised. Under the rules as they then stood, Ord 13, r 5 (now Ord 13, r 4) opened with the words ‘Subject to the provisions of these rules …' The court held that that qualification was intended to apply to rules (of which an example was given) where words plainly inconsistent with Ord 13, r 5 were used, and the rule in question used no such inconsistent words. The present Ord 13, r 4 opens ‘Except as otherwise provided …’ but that does not in our view mean anything different from ‘Subject to the provisions of these rules’, unless it makes even clearer the need for specific inconsistency.
The tenant in the present case naturally relies very strongly on this authority. If the court was there able to save the tenants’ proceedings, although their solicitors knew of the failure to serve within the period for service and could have served the landlords’ solicitors in time, she argues that the same result should follow here.
In Robert Baxendale Ltd v Davstone (Holdings) Ltd, Carobene v John Collier Menswear Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 496, [1982] 1 WLR 1385 there were two cases before the Court of Appeal. In each the tenants had failed, within the period allowed for service (by this time two months), either to serve or to apply for an extension of time to serve. In one case the tenants had obtained an order extending time, in the other not. The rule corresponding to CCR Ord 7, r 20 was in the same form as in Lewis v Wolking Properties Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 427, [1978] 1 WLR 403 and the Court of Appeal relied on that authority in holding that, while a discretion to extend time existed, it was a discretion to be sparingly exercised and not to be exercised where no justification could be shown for failing to serve in time.
Page 1013 of [1993] 2 All ER 1006
The authority on which the landlord principally relies is Bernstein v Jackson [1982] 2 All ER 806, [1982] 1 WLR 1082. In that case a district registrar made an order for substituted service of a writ the validity of which had expired over two years before, which had never been renewed and which he did not renew. On the defendant’s application to set aside a default judgment entered against her the judge held that the writ was not valid for service since it had not been renewed under RSC Ord 6, r 8 but that this was an irregularity which could (and should) be cured under RSC Ord 2, r 1. The Court of Appeal took a different view. Dunn LJ said ([1982] 2 All ER 806 at 812, [1982] 1 WLR 1082 at 1089):
‘I do not think that the judge could have extended the writ under Ord 6, r 8 and, that being the case, I think that there is great force in the submission that Ord 6, r 8 provides a compendious code for extension and renewal of writs, and that it is not the type of irregularity which it was envisaged could be dealt with by the provisions of Ord 2, r 1. But, assuming that it could, in my view this was such a fundamental defect in the proceedings that the judge should not have exercised his discretion to make an order under Ord 2, r 1.’
Slade LJ agreed ([1982] 2 All ER 806 at 812, [1982] 1 WLR 1082 at 1089–1090):
‘If a specific application to renew the writ had been before [the judge], I do not think that he could have properly extended its validity for the reasons already given by Dunn LJ. Correspondingly, I do not think that the plaintiffs can be in a better position than they would have been if such a specific application had been before the judge.’
This reasoning suggests, on our understanding, that retrospective renewal for the necessary period was not permissible under Ord 6, r 8 and that the failure to renew was not a defect which could be cured under Ord 2, r 1. It is, however, noteworthy that no reference was apparently made to RSC Ord 3, r 5 and Lewis v Wolking Properties Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 427, [1978] 1 WLR 403 was not cited.
The Court of Appeal had occasion to reconsider Bernstein v Jackson in Leal v Dunlop Bio-Processes International Ltd [1984] 2 All ER 207, [1984] 1 WLR 874. In that case the plaintiff suffered personal injuries on 27 May 1978. He issued a writ at the end of the relevant limitation period on 20 May 1981. On 18 May 1982, the penultimate day of the writ’s validity, without the leave of the court and without any order of renewal, the writ was served on the defendants out of the jurisdiction. The defendants applied to set aside service and dismiss the action on 10 June 1982. The plaintiff applied on 19 July 1982 for renewal of the writ under RSC Ord 6, r 8 and for leave to serve out of the jurisdiction. Before the district registrar the plaintiff in effect succeeded. But he failed on the defendants’ appeal to Neill J, who held (applying Bernstein v Jackson) that he could not and in any event should not grant the plaintiff the relief he sought.
The Court of Appeal upheld Neill J’s exercise of discretion but differed on the question of jurisdiction. In a leading judgment with which May LJ and, subject to one reservation, Slade LJ agreed, Stephenson LJ said of the court’s judgment in Bernstein v Jackson ([1984] 2 All ER 207 at 210, [1984] 1 WLR 874 at 879):
‘If Dunn LJ meant to say that the judge had no power to extend the validity of the writ under Ord 6, r 8(2), even if an application to extend had been made, I respectfully consider that he was ignoring the terms of Ord 6, r 8(2); if he meant to say that the judge had no power to treat the failure to extend
Page 1014 of [1993] 2 All ER 1006
the writ as an irregularity under Ord 2, r 1, again I have to disagree with him …’
Slade LJ expressly agreed that RSC Ord 2, r 1 gave the court jurisdiction to treat the failure to extend the writ as an irregularity and to waive it accordingly (see [1984] 2 All ER 207 at 215, [1984] 1 WLR 834 at 884). Emphasis was, however, laid on the special circumstances needed to justify renewal after expiry of a limitation period and it was largely for that reason that the judge’s exercise of discretion was upheld.
In this case also it does not appear that Lewis v Wolking Properties Ltd was cited or reference made to RSC Ord 3, r 5. Such reference could only have strengthened the conclusion which the court reached on the jurisdictional question.
This review of the authorities and the rules leads us to conclude that, even where an originating application of this type is not served within two months of the date of issue and application to extend is not made within four months of the date of issue, the county court has jurisdiction on proper grounds being shown (i) to extend the time for service under CCR Ord 13, r 4 and (ii) to treat the failure to extend and serve as an irregularity and order the action to proceed under Ord 37, r 5.
Counsel for the landlord did not press a contrary argument. Although the opening words of CCR Ord 13, r 4 differ from those considered in Lewis’s case, we have already indicated that in our view the difference, if significant at all, strengthens the tenant’s argument.
It was argued for the landlord that although the court had a discretion to extend time in this case it was one which could only properly be exercised by refusing an extension. This was because CCR Ord 7, r 20, like RSC Ord 6, r 8 (and Ord 11, r 1), were of a special character such that it was impermissible to override them. We prefer to say nothing about Ord 11, r 1, which is not in issue here and raises special questions. So far as Ord 7, r 20 and Ord 6, r 8 are concerned, the submission is in our judgment unsound. It is not consistent with Lewis v Wolking Properties Ltd, Robert Baxendale Ltd v Davstone (Holdings) Ltd, Carobene v John Collier Menswear Ltd, or Leal v Dunlop Bio-Processes International Ltd, and it is not supported by Bernstein v Jackson as explained in Leal. It is not supported by the wide terms of RSC Ord 2, r 1 and Ord 3, r 5 and CCR Ord 13, r 4 and Ord 37, r 5. And it is not in our view consonant with the requirements of justice in some cases. It is one thing to say that good grounds must be shown to justify a certain exercise of discretion; it is quite another to emasculate a discretion by holding that it can only be exercised one way.
We have already accepted that a party (such as the tenant) seeking an extension of time for service after the validity of the proceedings has expired and after expiry of any relevant limitation period must show good reason for the court to exercise its power to extend and also give a satisfactory explanation for the failure to apply for extension before the validity of the proceedings expired. We have no doubt the tenant discharged these burdens. She took the correct steps to issue her originating application in good time. It was entirely the fault of the county court that the proceedings were not served. She was reasonably unaware of this until after 4 September 1991 when the period for service expired. It would be most unjust if she paid the penalty for the court’s error.
That conclusion, we think, opens the door to consideration of more general matters relevant to the exercise of discretion. The landlord’s solicitors were, at best, remiss in failing to respond to the tenant’s solicitors’ letter of 1 October until 29 November, but those solicitors were even more remiss in failing to pursue the question of service during that period, and even when they learnt the facts from
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the county court in early December they did not apply to the court until a month later. Time limits such as these are intended to be short; it is incumbent on parties to comply with them; and if extensions were granted at all readily the time limits would very quickly become a dead letter. That is why the discretion to extend must be sparingly exercised.
It is, on the other hand, relevant (i) that the landlord until January 1992 raised no objection to a new tenancy, (ii) that the difference over rent was unlikely to prove an insuperable stumbling block, (iii) that but for the court’s error the application would have been duly served, (iv) that the tenant did not learn of the error in time to cure it and (v) that the delay in service has of itself caused the landlord no prejudice, since her change of circumstances would have occurred even if she had been served in time.
In these circumstances there were in our opinion strong grounds for granting the extension sought.
This conclusion would not entitle this court to substitute its exercise of discretion for that of the judge unless it were satisfied that the judge’s exercise of discretion was demonstrably wrong. We think it was. He appears to have given little or no weight to considerations (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) above; and he held that there was prejudice to the landlord without recognising that this was not caused by the tenant’s delay.
We therefore allow the appeal, set aside the judge’s order and grant the tenant such extension as she requires to effect service of the proceedings.
Appeal allowed; no order as to costs before the judge or the district judge below.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Deloitte Haskins & Sells v National Mutual Life Nominees Ltd
[1993] 2 All ER 1015
Categories: TORTS; Negligence, Statutory Duty
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 20, 21, 22, 26, 27 APRIL, 10 JUNE 1993
Negligence – Information or advice – Knowledge that third party might rely on information – Auditor – Auditor of deposit-taking company – Report to trustee of unsecured depositors – Auditor under statutory duty to report to trustee if he became aware of any matter that ‘in his opinion’ was relevant to exercise or performance of trustee’s powers or duties – Auditor notifying trustee of company’s probable insolvency some time after prudent auditor would have formed opinion that company insolvent – Trustee required to indemnify unsecured depositors – Whether auditor under common law duty of care to notify trustee of company’s probable insolvency when prudent auditor would have done so – Whether auditor merely under statutory duty to report when he subjectively formed opinion that company insolvent – Whether any breach of duty by auditor had caused trustee loss – Securities Act 1978 (NZ), s 50(2).
The defendants were the auditors of a New Zealand company which received unsecured deposits from the public. Under s 33(2)a of the New Zealand Securities
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Act 1978 the company was required to enter into a trust deed appointing a trustee corporation or an approved person to act as trustee of the unsecured depositors. The trustee could apply to the court for directions if at any time it was of the opinion that the company was unlikely to be able to pay all money owing in respect of the securities when it became due. The company duly appointed the plaintiff as the trustee under a trust deed which required the company to deliver to the trustee within two months of the end of each financial year and half year an auditor’s report as to whether he had become aware of any breaches of the trust deed and whether his audit had disclosed any matter (and, if so, particulars thereof) calling in his opinion for further investigation by the trustee in the interests of the depositors. The auditor was also under a statutory duty, by virtue of s 50(2)b of the 1978 Act, to notify the trustee whenever, in the performance of his duties as auditor, he became aware of any matter that ‘in his opinion’ was relevant to the exercise or performance of the powers or duties of the trustee. In early 1986, while preparing the audit for the company for the year ending 31 December 1985, the defendants became concerned about the collectability of certain associated company loans and after further inquiries they made a report to the plaintiff under s 50(2) of the 1978 Act on 15 May 1986. However the company continued to trade and on 11 August 1986 the defendants as auditor of an associated company issued a further report under s 50(2) which resulted in the plaintiff putting that company into receivership with the consequential liquidation of the company on 30 August 1986. As a result of the liquidation the plaintiff incurred a liability to the company’s depositors which was settled for $6.75m. The plaintiff then brought an action against, inter alios, the defendants seeking to recover the $6.75m, alleging breach of a common law duty in relation to the obligation to report under s 50(2) of the 1978 Act. The judge found as a fact that the company was insolvent as at 31 December 1985 and remained insolvent throughout 1986 and held that the defendants were in breach of their common law duty of care to the plaintiff by failing to report the company’s probable insolvency by mid-March 1986, being the date when a prudent auditor would have formed an opinion and reported under s 50(2). He apportioned blame for the plaintiff’s loss as to 65% to the plaintiff and as to 35% to the directors the company and the defendants. On appeal, the Court of Appeal affirmed his judgment. The defendants appealed to the Privy Council, contending (i) that they did not owe a common law duty of care to the plaintiffs and (ii) if they did, their breach of that duty had not caused the plaintiffs any loss.
Held – The appeal would be allowed for the following reasons—
(1) By reason of s 50 of the 1978 Act there was created a relationship of proximity between the defendants and the plaintiff so that, if the defendants sent a report to the company and the plaintiff under s 50(2), they were under a duty to exercise reasonable care in the preparation thereof, knowing that it would be received and relied upon by the plaintiff. However, s 50(2) only required the auditor to report when, incidental to the performance of his duties as auditor, he subjectively formed an opinion that the company was insolvent and did not impose on him any duty to be consistently on watch. Furthermore, there was no common law duty of greater scope superimposed on the statutory duty contained in s 50(2) requiring him to notify the trustee of the company’s probable insolvency when a prudent auditor would have done so. Since the defendants had not formed an opinion by mid-March that the company was insolvent they were not at that date under a duty to make a report under s 50(2) to the plaintiffs (see p 1022 g to
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p 1023 a c f g, post); dictum of Lord Keith in Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705 at 713 applied.
(2) However, even if the defendants had reported to the plaintiff in mid-March that the company was probably insolvent the only realistic course of action open to the plaintiff at that time would have been to suspend the operations of the company, which would inevitably have caused a run on the company by depositors with the consequent emergence of the plaintiff’s obligations under the trust deed. If the defendants had reported in mid-March 1986 the plaintiff would still have been liable for $6.75m to the depositors and would still have incurred a loss of $6.75m. In those circumstances, the plaintiff could not show that any breach of duty by the defendants caused it a loss which it would otherwise not have suffered (see p 1024 b d to g, post).
Notes
For auditor’s duties and auditor’s reports, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 905, 912–914, and for cases on the subject, see 9 Digest (Reissue) 601–607, 3593–3614.
For negligence in relation statements by professional persons, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 53, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (Reissue) 49–50, 149–158.
Cases referred to in judgment
Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465, [1963] 3 WLR 101, HL.
Smith v Eric S Bush (a firm), Harris v Wyre Forest DC [1989] 2 All ER 514, [1990] 1 AC 831, [1989] 2 WLR 790, HL.
Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175, [1987] 3 WLR 776, PC.
Appeal
Deloitte Haskins & Sells appealed with leave granted by the Court of Appeal of New Zealand on 28 February 1992 from the decision of that court (Casey, Gault and McGechan JJ) given on 14 November 1991 3 NZBLC 102,259) dismissing their appeal from the decision of Henry J given on 30 April 1990 (sub nom Fletcher v National Mutual Life Nominees Ltd) ([1990] 3 NZLR 641) giving judgment for the respondents National Mutual Life Nominees Ltd (NMLN), for damages in the sum of $NZ2,476,110 together with interest in an action brought by a depositor of Australasia Investment Co Securities Ltd (AICS) against the respondents when AICS went into voluntary liquidation and was unable to meet its liabilities to unsecured depositors. The action against NMLN alleged breaches of NMLN’s duties as trustee for the unsecured depositors and NMLN joined the appellants, who were the auditors of AICS, as third party. NMLN later settled the proceedings against it for $6.75m and sought to recover that amount from the appellants on the basis of breach of a common law duty of care. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Peter Goldsmith QC, Anthony Lusk QC and Brian Latimer (both of the New Zealand Bar) with him, (instructed by Barlow Lyde & Gilbert) for the appellants.
Sydney Kentridge QC, Rhys Harrison and John Turner (both of the New Zealand Bar) with him, (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the respondents.
Page 1018 of [1993] 2 All ER 1015
10 June 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. This appeal relates to the duties owed by auditors of a money market operating company to another company acting as trustee for unsecured depositors. Before looking at the relevant facts it is instructive to examine the statutory background against which issuers of securities which by definition include takers of deposits, operate in New Zealand.
Statutory background
The relevant statutory provisions are the Securities Act 1978, as amended, and the Securities Regulations 1983. Part II of the 1978 Act, which is entitled ‘Restrictions on Offer and Allotment of Securities to the Public’, contains a number of relevant provisions. Section 33(2) provides:
‘No debt security shall be offered to the public for subscription, by or on behalf of an issuer, unless—(a) The issuer of the security has appointed a person as a trustee in respect of the security and both the issuer and that person have signed a trust deed relating to the security; and (b) A copy of the trust deed has been registered by the Registrar pursuant to section 46 of this Act …’
In terms of s 45 every trust deed must ‘contain all information and other matters that are required to be included therein by regulations’ and ‘shall be deemed to contain all clauses that are prescribed in regulations made under this Act as clauses that are deemed to be contained in a trust deed …' Section 48 provides that only a trustee corporation or person approved by the Securities Commission may act as a trustee and s 49(1) provides:
‘Where at any time after due inquiry, a trustee or statutory supervisor of securities is of the opinion that—(a) The issuer and any guarantor of the securities are unlikely to be able to pay all money owing in respect of the securities when it becomes due; or (b) The provisions of any deed relating to the securities are no longer adequate to give proper protection to the security holders—the trustee or statutory supervisor may, in its absolute discretion, apply to the Court for an order or orders under this section.’
It is unnecessary to condescend in detail upon the powers given by this section. Suffice it to say that they enable the court to make a wide range of possible orders. Section 50, which is critical for the purposes of this appeal, must be set out in full:
‘Duty of auditor to report to trustee or statutory supervisor.—(1) Whenever the auditor of an issuer of debt securities or participatory securities offered to the public furnishes to the issuer or its members or the security holders any report, statement of accounts, certificate, or other document that is required by any Act or by any deed relating to the securities to be so furnished, he shall forthwith send a copy thereof to the trustee or statutory supervisor of the securities.
(2) Whenever, in the performance of his duties as auditor, the auditor of an issuer of debt securities or participatory securities offered to the public becomes aware of any matter that in his opinion is relevant to the exercise or performance of the powers or duties of the trustee or statutory supervisor of the securities, he shall, within 7 business days of becoming so aware, send—(a) To the issuer, a report in writing on the matter; and (b) To the trustee or statutory supervisor, as the case may be, a copy of that report.
Page 1019 of [1993] 2 All ER 1015
(3) The auditor of an issuer of debt securities or participatory securities offered to the public shall from time to time, at the request of the trustee or statutory supervisor, furnish to the trustee or statutory supervisor such information or particulars relating to the issuer as are requested and are within his knowledge and are in his opinion relevant to the exercise or performance of the powers or duties of the trustee or statutory supervisor.
(4) Nothing in this section shall affect the duties or liability of any trustee or statutory supervisor.’
Finally in the 1978 Act s 60(1)(d) provides that every person who acts in contravention of or fails to comply in any respect with any provision of, inter alia, s 50 or any requirement imposed pursuant thereto commits an offence for which he is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000.
Regulation 24 of the 1983 regulations provides that the clauses set out in Sch 5 thereto shall be deemed to be contained in every trust deed required by the 1978 Act. Schedule 5 contains three clauses, of which the first two are in the following terms:
‘1. Duties of trustee.—(1) The trustee shall exercise reasonable diligence to ascertain whether or not any breach of the terms of the deed or of the terms of the offer of the debt securities has occurred and, except where it is satisfied that the breach will not materially prejudice the security (if any) of the debt securities or the interests of the holders thereof, shall do all such things as it is empowered to do to cause any breach of those terms to be remedied.
(2) The trustee shall exercise reasonable diligence to ascertain whether or not the assets of the borrowing group that are or may be available, whether by way of security or otherwise, are sufficient or likely to be sufficient to discharge the amounts of the debt securities as they become due.
2. Right of trustee to obtain information.—(1) The trustee shall be entitled to receive all notices of and other communications relating to any general meeting of the issuer which any member of the issuer is entitled to receive.
(2) Any representative of the trustee, being a person authorised to act for the purposes of this clause by resolution of the directors or other governing body of the trustee, shall be entitled to attend any general meeting of the issuer, and to be heard at any such meeting which he attends on any part of the business of the meeting which concerns the trustee as such or the holders of debt securities for whom it is trustee.
(3) The issuer shall from time to time—(a) At the request in writing of the trustee, make available for its inspection the whole of the accounting and other records of the issuer; (b) Give to the trustee such information as it requires with respect to all matters relating to such records.’
The third clause empowers the trustee and certain other persons to requisition a meeting of securities holders for various purposes.
The facts
Australasia Investment Co Securities Ltd (AICS) was part of the Australasia Investment Co (AIC) group and acted as group treasurer. As such it made advances to other members of the group as well as receiving deposits from the public on an unsecured basis. The receipt of these deposits brought AICS within the ambit of the 1978 Act and on 5 March 1985 it entered into a trust deed with National Mutual Life Nominees Ltd (NMLN), AIC Corp Ltd also being a party as guarantor. In terms of that deed AICS was required to render monthly a report certified as
Page 1020 of [1993] 2 All ER 1015
true and correct by two directors as to certain matters specified in the second schedule and a quarterly report by two directors covering the matters required in the monthly reports as well as any other matters which had in their opinion occurred to affect adversely the interests of the depositors. In relation to the quarterly reports cl 3.5.3 of the trust deed provided:
‘The company shall ensure that at the same time as each Directors’ Report required under Clause 3.5.2 is delivered there shall be delivered to the Trustee a separate report by the Auditor stating that he has received the Directors’ Report given under paragraph 3.5.2 preceding and that so far as matters which he has observed in the performance of their half yearly audit duties are concerned they have no reason to believe that the statements made in such report are not correct. The Auditor shall not however be required to comment on any estimates or opinions that the Directors may give or the future operations of the Covenanting Group or any member thereof.’
Clause 3.5.4 required AICS to deliver to the trustee within two months or such longer period as the trustee might agree after the end of each financial year and half-year copies of the balance sheets and profit and loss accounts of AICS and of all its subsidiaries for that year or half year together with certain other financial information. Clause 3.5.5 provided:
‘The Company shall ensure that within two (2) months (or such longer period as the Trustee agrees to in any particular case) after each financial year or half year of the Company, there is delivered to the Trustee a report by the Auditor stating, as at the end of that financial year or half year …’
There then followed a number of matters upon which the auditor was required to report, but for the purposes of this appeal it is necessary only to set out the terms of paras (e) and (f):
‘(e) whether or not in the performance of his duties he has become aware that any member of the Covenanting Group has done or omitted any act which in their opinion contravenes or may contravene this Deed and if so giving particulars thereof.
(f) whether or not his audit has disclosed any matter (and if so particulars thereof) calling in his opinion for further investigation by the Trustee in the interests of the Depositors.’
By cl 3.2.2(c) AICS undertook that it would not without the prior consent of the trustee—
‘Enter into any transaction with any Associate Company other than on a basis which is at least as favourable and secure as in the case of an arms length transaction and on terms and within limits which the Directors have approved as being satisfactory and prudent having regard to the interests of the Depositors …’
The rights and obligations of NMLN which are relevant to this appeal were contained first in cl 3.6.3, which provided:
‘The Company shall, as soon as reasonably practicable after a written request to do so is received from the Trustee, give to the Trustee such oral or written information, report, or records, relating to the business and affairs of the Company and its subsidiaries, as the Trustee requests, except that the Company shall not be bound to disclose any trade secret, process or trade information which it is forbidden by contract or otherwise to disclose.’
Page 1021 of [1993] 2 All ER 1015
And secondly in cll 6.4.1 and 6.4.2, which provided:
‘6.4.1 The Trustee shall exercise reasonable diligence to ascertain whether or not any breach of the terms of this Deed or the terms upon which Deposits have been made with the Company has occurred and, except where it is satisfied that the breach will not materially prejudice the interests of the Depositors, shall do all such things as it is empowered to do to cause any breach of those terms to be remedied.
6.4.2 The Trustee shall exercise reasonable diligence to ascertain whether or not the assets of the Company that are or may be available whether by way of security or otherwise are sufficient or likely to be sufficient to discharge the amounts of the Deposits as they become due.’
On 5 November 1985 Deloitte Haskins & Sells (Deloitte) were appointed auditors of AICS and other companies in the group. In early 1986 while preparing the audit for AICS for the year ending 31 December 1985 they became concerned about the collectability of certain associated company loans, particularly those to New Zealand Heritage Park Ltd and certain Australian companies. After further inquiries they made a report under s 50(2) of the 1978 Act on 15 May 1986. AICS however continued to trade and on 11 August 1986 Deloitte as auditor of AIC Merchant Finance issued a further report under s 50(2) which resulted in NMLN, which was also trustee under the AIC Merchant Finance deed, putting that company into receivership with the consequential liquidation of AICS on 30 August 1986. As a result of the liquidation NMLN incurred a liability to AICS depositors which was settled in December 1988 for $6.75m.
NMLN then raised the present action against the directors of AICS and Deloitte seeking to recover the $6.75m. This appeal is concerned solely with the action against Deloitte in which breach of a common law duty in relation to the obligation to report under s 50(2) of the 1978 Act remains the only live basis of claim. After a trial lasting 26 days Henry J found that Deloitte were in breach of their common law duty of care to NMLN by failing to report AICS’s probable insolvency by mid-March 1986 (see [1990] 3 NZLR 641). He apportioned blame for NMLN’s loss as to 65% to NMLN and as to 35% to the directors and Deloitte. The Court of Appeal affirmed the judgment of Henry J (see (1991) 3 NZBLC 102,259). Before this Board two issues arose, namely (1) whether Deloitte were in breach of a common law duty of care owed to NMLN and (2) if so, whether such breach caused NMLN’s loss.
Duty of care
Henry J concluded that Deloitte were in breach of their duty of care to NMLN in failing by mid-March 1986 to issue a report under s 50(2) drawing express attention to certain matters which bore directly upon the probable insolvency at that time of AICS. He found that the only duty owed by Deloitte was in respect of their reporting obligations under s 50(2) (see [1990] 3 NZLR 641 at 677). He further concluded that the report of 15 May 1986 failed to draw attention to certain matters, including such probable insolvency, but treated it as an ineffective remedy for the failure to report by mid-March 1986 rather than as having the effect of a further breach to be considered independently of the earlier one (at 678). In reaching these conclusions he held that on the facts which he found proved a prudent auditor would, in knowledge of these facts, have formed an opinion and reported under s 50(2) no later than mid-March 1986 (see at 679). Deloitte’s fault lay in not forming the opinion on the information available rather than in failing to report having formed an opinion. He had previously expressed the view that an omission to report might well have a significance as great as
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reporting or careless reporting and that the principle that there was no liability for an omission had no application because a positive duty to act was undertaken (at 675). Henry J rejected a suggestion that Deloitte were in breach of statutory duty under s 50(2) on the ground that the statute required a report to be made when an opinion on certain matters had been reached, whereas Deloitte had not by the relevant dates formed such an opinion (at 673). Breach of statutory duty has not been pursued and given that a breach of that section amounts to a criminal offence their Lordships do not find the acceptance of Henry J’s construction to be surprising.
In the Court of Appeal Henry J’s conclusion as to the information available to Deloitte was affirmed, and Casey J said (3 NZBLC 102,259 at 102,273):
‘… I agree with the Judge that by early March Mr Sumpter [of Deloitte] had ample information to justify the formation of an opinion relevant to the exercise of the trustee’s powers; and that having regard to the clear purpose of sec 50 and the nature of that information, a reasonable and prudent auditor would have formed that opinion then, rather than at any later time, and have sent a report accordingly.’
Given that the duty under s 50(2) only arose when the auditor had formed an opinion, the effect of the decisions in the courts below was to impose upon the auditor a common law duty more extensive than that imposed by the 1978 Act.
Henry J concluded, rightly in their Lordships’ opinion, that NMLN were in a position of primary responsibility towards the depositors (see [1990] 3 NZLR 641 at 691). Not only did they have power to apply to the court under s 49 of the 1978 Act but they had continuing duties to exercise reasonable diligence to ascertain whether or not (i) any breach of the terms of the trust deed had occurred and (ii) the assets of the borrower were likely to be sufficient to repay the deposits as they became due, as well as the right to obtain information from AICS as issuer. By contrast Deloitte’s only powers and duties under the securities legislation were those in s 50. These relative positions must be borne in mind when considering whether or not Deloitte owed NMLN the common law duty found to exist by Henry J and the Court of Appeal.
There is no doubt that, by reason of the provisions of s 50 of the 1978 Act, there was created a relationship of proximity between Deloitte and NMLN. If Deloitte sent a report to AICS and NMLN under s 50(2), they were under a duty to exercise reasonable care in the preparation thereof, knowing that it would be received and relied upon by NMLN (see Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465 and Smith v Eric S Bush (a firm), Harris v Wyre Forest DC [1989] 2 All ER 514, [1990] 1 AC 831). The issue in this appeal, however, is not whether there was such a relationship of proximity but how far any duties arising out of that relationship extended.
Although s 50(2) creates no statutory duty to form an opinion, is a common law duty so to do nevertheless superimposed thereon? An analysis of the phraseology of sub-s (2) suggests that the auditor’s awareness and formation of an opinion thereon are incidental to the performance of his duties as auditor, whether these duties are to be treated solely as those arising under the Companies Act 1955 in relation to the annual accounts of the issuer company or whether they include any reports which he may make in response to the issuer company’s demands under the trust deed. In neither event does the subsection require the auditor to be consistently on watch, rather is that the function of the trustee. Furthermore the inclusion of the words ‘in his opinion’ suggests that it is a subjective rather than an objective test which has to be applied. Had the intention been to apply the test of the reasonably careful auditor these words would have been out of
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place. This analysis affords no support for the view that the legislature intended the subsection to impose any duty on an auditor other than to report when he had formed the relevant opinion.
In Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705 at 713, [1988] AC 175 at 195 Lord Keith of Kinkel delivering the judgment of the Board said:
‘In these circumstances their Lordships are unable to discern any intention on the part of the legislature that in considering whether to register or deregister a company the commissioner should owe any statutory duty to potential depositors. It would be strange that a common law duty of care should be superimposed upon such a statutory framework.’
In the present appeal it would be even stranger that a common law duty of greater scope should be superimposed upon the statutory duty contained in the subsection. Their Lordships can see no justification for such a course.
The position under s 50(2) is very different from that prevailing under s 166(1) of the Companies Act 1955, where the auditors are required to make a report to the members of the company on the accounts examined by them, which report—
‘shall state … (b) Whether, in their opinion, proper accounting records have been kept by the company, so far as appears from their examination of those records: (c) Whether, in their opinion, according to the best of their information and the explanations given to them and as shown by the books of the company,—(i) The balance sheet is properly drawn up …’
Under the latter section a positive duty is imposed on auditors to make a report in which they express an opinion, from which it follows that a failure to form an opinion could constitute a breach of common law duty owed to the members. However under the former section the only positive duty imposed upon an auditor is to send timeously a report after he has become aware of a particular matter and has formed an opinion that it is relevant to the exercise of the powers or duties of a trustee. The duty to report is accordingly contingent and the only omission by the auditor which can at common law give rise to a breach of duty is failure to exercise reasonable care in the preparation of such report when the circumstances requiring its making have arisen.
In their Lordships’ view Henry J was in error in stating that the principle that there was no liability for omission had no application because a positive duty to act had been undertaken (see [1990] 3 NZLR 641 at 675). On his own findings the circumstances which would have given rise to the positive duty to report had not yet arisen. For the foregoing reasons their Lordships conclude that the appeal must be allowed.
Causation
Henry J found as a fact that as at 31 December 1985 AICS was insolvent on the balance sheet test and remained insolvent throughout 1986 (see [1990] 3 NZLR 641 at 655). However in concluding that Deloitte’s breach of duty was a cause of NMLN’s loss of $6.75m he concentrated solely on NMLN’s obligations to depositors existing as at 30 August 1986. He said (at 687):
‘… the question is whether the giving of an adequate timely report by Deloitte would have avoided National Mutual’s liability for the $6.75 million loss suffered by the 30 August 1986 depositors. It is that loss and that loss alone which is under consideration … I am satisfied that had Deloitte issued an adequate and timely report under s 50(2) National Mutual would have been alerted to the serious position in which AIC Securities then was and
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taken consequential steps which would have avoided its legal liability to the 30 August depositors.’
This approach was indorsed by the Court of Appeal. However in their Lordships’ view this was an erroneous approach. The question to be answered is not whether NMLN would, on receipt of an earlier report, have avoided liability to those depositors existing at 30 August 1986 but whether, by Deloitte’s failure to report, NMLN suffered a loss which they would not have suffered if Deloitte had reported by mid-March 1986. This necessitates consideration of NMLN’s position at both dates. As McGechan J pointed out (3 NZBLC 102,259 at 102,292):
‘I accept NMLN would have acted and probably by the end of March 1986 in some appropriate way. How would NMLN have acted? Predicting corporate conduct, in difficult situations, always has its uncertainties. However, I consider a reasonable conclusion is that NMLN, after inquiries and advice, would have acted to freeze the situation, preventing it worsening. The obvious method would be a voluntary or forced receivership or liquidation, fixing assets and preventing further detrimental inter company lending and increased liability through additional deposits.’
Their Lordships agree that this is the most likely conclusion to be drawn and indeed do not see that NMLN would have had any realistic alternative, consistent with their statutory and fiduciary obligations, but to suspend in some way the operations of AICS. Such suspension would inevitably have caused a run on AICS by depositors with consequent emergence of NMLN’s obligations under the trust deed. McGechan J also referred to the unchallenged evidence of Mr Fuller, the New Zealand manager of NMLN, to the effect that if AICS had been closed at 31 March 1986 NMLN would still have been liable for $6.75m to the depositors. There were other passages in the evidence of Mr Fuller which supported McGechan J’s conclusion as to what NMLN would have done had they received a report in mid-March 1986.
It was for NMLN to establish that any breach of duty by Deloitte caused them a loss which they would otherwise not have suffered; in short, that, if Deloitte had reported in mid-March 1986, they would have incurred no loss or one less than $6.75m. Given the prevailing state of insolvency of AICS and the evidence of Mr Fuller they have wholly failed to prove this. Accordingly, for this reason also, their Lordships will humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal ought to be allowed and that the respondents ought to pay the appellants’ costs before the Court of Appeal. The respondents must also pay the appellants’ costs before their Lordships’ Board.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Volume 3
Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd v Provincial Insurance plc
[1993] 3 All ER 1
Categories: INSURANCE
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD ACKNER, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 17, 18 MARCH, 24 MAY 1993
Insurance – Liability insurance – Contribution between insurers of same risk – Liability to contribute – Co-insurers statutorily liable for third party risk – Whether contribution between co-insurers to be determined in accordance with extent of respective liabilities to person insured for loss under separate contracts of insurance – Whether contribution to be determined in accordance with respective statutory liabilities – Road Traffic Act (Bahamas), s 12.
The plaintiff was injured in the Bahamas as the result of negligent driving by the defendant, who at the time was driving a car lent to him by a car repairer. The plaintiff obtained judgment against the defendant for $109,067 and costs of $30,491. When the defendant failed to meet that judgment the plaintiff brought proceedings against both the defendant’s and the repairer’s insurers. The defendant’s insurers had cancelled the policy taken out by the defendant before the accident but had failed to take steps to obtain its surrender and therefore remained statutorily liable for third party risks under s 12a of the Bahamas Road Traffic Act. The repairer’s insurers would have been able to avoid liability to the defendant if he had made a claim on them because they had not been given notice of the accident within the time specified in the policy. At the trial the defendant’s insurers contended that they were entitled to be indemnified by the repairer’s insurers because they had cancelled their policy before the accident and therefore only the repairer’s insurers were on risk at the time of the accident. The repairer’s insurers contended that they were entitled to a 50% contribution from the defendant’s insurers. The trial judge decided that there was only one policy in existence at the time of the accident, namely that of the repairer’s insurers, and that therefore they were liable to indemnify the defendant’s insurers in respect of any amount paid by them to the plaintiff. The repairer’s insurers appealed to the Court of Appeal of the Bahamas, which allowed their appeal and held that they were entitled to 50% contribution from the defendant’s insurers, on the grounds that since both insurers were equally liable to the plaintiff both as judgment debtors and as statutory insurers and their obligation was in respect of the same loss they were to be regarded as statutory co-insurers for the purpose of contribution and that since neither was under the statute primarily liable each was required to contribute one-half of the amount awarded to the plaintiff. The defendant’s insurers appealed to the Privy Council.
Held – Where two insurers were under a statutory liability for the same third party risk the question of contribution between the two was to be determined in
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accordance with the extent of their respective liabilities to the person insured for the loss under the separate contracts of insurance rather than in accordance with their respective statutory liabilities, since the extent of their respective liabilities to the person insured indicated the scale of the double insurance. If both insurers were under no contractual liability to the person who was insured, then they shared the statutory liability for loss equally irrespective of the date upon which they repudiated liability. On the facts, both insurers were in the same position in that they were both under a statutory liability in relation to the claim of the third party (the plaintiff) but they both would have been entitled to repudiate liability to the insured person (the defendant). Accordingly, there was no distinction in relation to their respective positions and they were each required to contribute equally to the amount payable to the plaintiff. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 8 c to f and p 9 b c, post).
Monksfield v Vehicle and General Insurance Co Ltd [1971] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 139 approved.
Legal and General Assurance Society Ltd v Drake Insurance Co Ltd [1992] 1 All ER 283 doubted.
Notes
For the right of contribution between co-insurers, see 25 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 538–539, and for cases on the subject, see 29 Digest (Reissue) 547, 641, 4893–4894, 5483.
Cases referred to in judgment
Albion Insurance Co Ltd v Government Insurance Office of New South Wales (1969) 121 CLR 342, Aust HC.
American Surety Co of New York v Wrightson (1910) 103 LT 663.
Legal and General Assurance Society Ltd v Drake Insurance Co Ltd [1992] 1 All ER 283, [1992] QB 887, [1992] 2 WLR 157, CA; rvsg [1989] 3 All ER 923.
Monksfield v Vehicle and General Insurance Co Ltd [1971] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 139, Mayor’s Ct.
Weddell v Road Transport and General Insurance Co Ltd [1932] 2 KB 563, [1931] All ER Rep 609.
Appeal
Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd (Eagle Star) appealed with final leave to appeal given by the Court of Appeal in the Commonwealth of the Bahamas on 25 October 1991 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Henry P and Campbell JA (Melville JA dissenting)) given on 26 June 1991 allowing the appeal of the respondent, Provincial Insurance plc (Provincial), from the judgment of Thorne J sitting in the Supreme Court of the Commonwealth of the Bahamas on 27 July 1990 whereby he awarded the plaintiff in the action, Brian Simms, the sum of $109,067·25 and costs which were subsequently taxed at $30,491·11 against Eagle Star and Provincial and further ordered that Provincial should indemnify Eagle Star against any amount paid by Eagle Star in satisfaction of the judgment. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Colin Mackay QC and Colin Edelman (instructed by Davies Arnold Cooper) for Eagle Star.
Page 3 of [1993] 3 All ER 1
Edward Davidson and Michael Scott (of the Bahamian Bar) (instructed by Constant & Constant) for Provincial.
24 May 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD WOOLF. This appeal is from a decision of the Court of Appeal of the Bahamas. It concerns the rights to contribution between two insurance companies where both companies, having issued a certificate of insurance, are under a statutory liability to meet an injured person’s claim when the driver responsible fails to do so.
The injured person was Brian Simms. He suffered his injuries on 9 March 1986 as a result of the negligent driving of Michael O’Reilly. The car he was driving had been lent to him by Strachan’s Auto Repairs Ltd (the repairers). On 20 February 1989 Mr Simms obtained judgment against Mr O’Reilly for damages which on 14 July 1989 were assessed at $109,067·25 and costs which were subsequently taxed at $30,491·11. Mr O’Reilly did not meet that judgment. Mr Simms therefore brought proceedings against Mr O’Reilly’s insurers, Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd (Eagle Star), and the repairers’ insurers, Provincial Insurance plc (Provincial), under s 12 of the Road Traffic Act, Ch 204. The principal issue in Mr Simms’s proceedings against the two insurance companies was whether Mr O’Reilly had been authorised to drive by the repairers. If he was not, then Provincial would be under no liability to Mr Simms. The trial judge decided that Mr O’Reilly was an authorised driver and as a result on 27 July 1990 Mr Simms obtained judgment for the full amount of his claim against both insurance companies.
At the trial Eagle Star contended that it was entitled to be indemnified by Provincial because it had cancelled its policy before the accident and therefore only Provincial was on risk at the time of the accident. Provincial contested these claims and contended that it was entitled to a 50% contribution from Eagle Star.
The trial judge, Thorne J, decided that, by the time of the accident, Eagle Star had cancelled its policy, that therefore there was only one policy in existence at the time of the accident, that of Provincial, and so Provincial was liable to indemnify Eagle Star in respect of any amount paid by Eagle Star to Mr Simms. The judge dismissed Provincial’s counterclaim for contribution against Eagle Star.
Provincial appealed and the Court of Appeal of the Bahamas allowed the appeal, by a majority, Melville JA dissenting, and held that Provincial was entitled to 50% contribution from Eagle Star. Eagle Star now seeks to have the judgment of Thorne J restored.
The statutory requirements as to the insurance of motor vehicles in the Bahamas and the United Kingdom are similar. The relevant statutory provisions are contained in Pt III of the Road Traffic Act, which is entitled ‘Protection of third parties against risks arising out of the use of motor vehicles’. Section 8 creates an offence of using, causing or permitting any other person to use a motor vehicle on the road unless there is in force in relation to the user of the vehicle a policy of insurance which complies with that part of the Act. Section 10 contains general requirements in respect of such motor policies. However it is the provisions of ss 11 and 12 which are important for the present purposes.
Section 11 provides:
‘Any condition in any policy issued or given for the purposes of this Part of this Act, providing that no liability shall arise under the policy, or that any liability so arising shall cease, in the event of some specified thing being done or omitted to be done after the happening of the event giving rise to a claim under the policy, shall be of no effect in connection with such claims as are mentioned in paragraph (b) or paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of section 10 of this Act:
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Provided that nothing in this section shall be taken to render void any provision in a policy requiring the person insured to repay to the insurer any sums which the insurer may have become liable to pay under the policy and which have been applied to the satisfaction of the claims of third parties.’
The terms of s 12 are:
‘(1) If, after a certificate of insurance has been issued under subsection (4) of section 10 of this Act to the person by whom a policy has been effected, judgment in respect of any such liability as is required to be covered by a policy under paragraph (b) or paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of section 10 of this Act (being a liability covered by the terms of the policy) is obtained against any person insured by the policy, then, notwithstanding that the insurer may be entitled to avoid or cancel, or may have avoided or cancelled the policy, the insurer shall, subject to the provisions of this section, pay to the persons entitled to the benefit of the judgment any sum payable thereunder in respect of the liability, including any amount payable in respect of costs and any sum payable in respect of interest on that sum by virtue of any enactment relating to interest on judgments.
(2) No sum shall be payable by an insurer under the provisions of subsection (1) of this section—(a) in respect of any judgment, unless before or within twenty-one days after the commencement of the proceedings in which the judgment was given, the insurer had notice of the bringing of the proceedings; or (b) in respect of any judgment, so long as execution thereon is stayed pending an appeal; or (c) in connection with any liability, if before the happening of the event which was the cause of the death or bodily injury or damage to property giving rise to the liability, the policy was cancelled by mutual consent or by virtue of any provision contained therein, and either—(i) before the happening of the said event the certificate was surrendered to the insurer, or the person to whom the certificate was delivered made a written declaration before a magistrate stating that the certificate had been lost or destroyed; or (ii) after the happening of the said event but before the expiration of a period of fourteen days from the taking effect of the cancellation of the policy, the certificate was surrendered to the insurer, or the person to whom the certificate was delivered made such a written declaration before a magistrate as aforesaid; or (iii) either before or after the happening of the said event, but within the said period of fourteen days the insurer has commenced proceedings under this Act in respect of the failure to surrender the certificate.
(3) No sum shall be payable by an insurer under the foregoing provisions of this section if, in an action commenced before, or within three months after, the commencement of the proceedings in which the judgment was given, he has obtained a declaration that, apart from any provision contained in the policy, he is entitled to avoid the policy on the ground that it was obtained by the non-disclosure of a material fact, or by a representation of fact which was false in some material particular, or, if he has avoided the policy on that ground, that he was entitled so to do apart from any provision contained in it ...
(4) If the amount which an insurer becomes liable under this section to pay in respect of a liability of a person insured by a policy exceeds the amount for which he would, apart from the provisions of this section, be liable under the policy in respect of that liability, he shall be entitled to recover the excess from that person.
(5) In this section ... (b) the expression “liability covered by the terms of the policy” means a liability which is covered by the policy or which would be
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covered but for the fact that the insurer is entitled to avoid or cancel, or has avoided or cancelled, the policy.’
Section 16 requires that, where a certificate of insurance has been delivered and the policy is cancelled either by mutual consent or by virtue of any provision of the policy, both the insurer and the person to whom the certificate was delivered shall, prior to the taking effect of the cancellation, report the cancellation to the Controller of Road Traffic and that if this is not done the failure to do so shall be an offence.
Condition 7 of the Eagle Star policy entitled Eagle Star to cancel a policy upon sending 30 days’ notice by a registered letter to Mr O’Reilly at his last known address. Prior to the accident on 22 December 1985 Eagle Star had cancelled the policy in accordance with condition 7 but had failed to comply with the requirements of s 12(2)(c) due to an administrative error. Eagle Star therefore remained liable to Mr Simms under the Act. Eagle Star had however given credit in relation to the premium paid for the unexpired period of the policy.
Both the policy issued by Eagle Star and the policy issued by Provincial contained a condition under which the company was not liable to pay or contribute more than its rateable proportion of any loss, damage or expense and a condition that the company should not be liable if the person insured was entitled to an indemnity under any other policy.
Thorne J, having come to the conclusion that, although Eagle Star was not in a position to avoid statutory liability, it had cancelled its contractual liability to Mr O’Reilly, explained clearly the basis of his decision in the following passage of his judgment:
‘... where there are two enforceable policies covering the same risk, if each policy contains an exception relieving the insurer of liability where the claimant is entitled to indemnity under another policy, then each policy is liable for its rateable proportion of the loss. So both insurers would be liable. In my view, it is clear that the prerequisite for invoking the rateable proportion clause in this case is the existence of two enforceable policies containing the same condition, and under which each insured is entitled to be indemnified. As was said in Albion Insurance Co Ltd v Government Insurance Office of New South Wales (1969) 121 CLR 342 at 346: “There is no double insurance unless each insurer is liable under his policy to indemnify the insured in whole or in part against the happening which has given rise to the insured’s loss or liability.” Having come to the conclusion, as I have, that there was only one valid policy of insurance covering the loss and that there was no double insurance, it follows that Provincial was the only company liable to indemnify its insured in respect of the loss. I hold, therefore, that Provincial is not entitled to contribution as claimed and the counterclaim against Eagle Star is dismissed.’
The approach of the majority of the Court of Appeal (Henry P and Campbell JA) is indicated in a passage from the judgment of Henry P which is in these terms:
‘In the present case the appellant and the respondent are equally liable to Mr Simms both as judgment debtors and as statutory insurers and their obligation is in respect of the same loss. In my view they can properly be regarded as statutory co-insurers for the purpose of the application of the principle of contribution, and since neither is under the statute primarily liable, each ought to contribute one-half of the amounts awarded to Mr Simms.’
In his dissenting judgment, Melville JA followed the decision of the majority of the Court of Appeal in England in Legal and General Assurance Society Ltd v Drake Insurance Co Ltd [1992] 1 All ER 283, [1992] QB 887 and concluded that Eagle Star was
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entitled to be indemnified by Provincial because Eagle Star had cancelled the policy prior to the occurrence of the collision.
A contention of Provincial, of importance before the Board and which, although raised in the courts below, was only treated as of marginal importance and referred to in the judgment of Melville JA, is that, under the Provincial policy, the company was not liable to indemnify any person unless that person observed, fulfilled and was subject to the terms of the policy, in so far as they could apply. One of those terms was that notice should be given as soon as possible to the company with full particulars of any occurrence which might give rise to a claim. Provincial contended that neither Mr O’Reilly nor the repairers had given them details of the accident. The fact that Provincial was relying upon this contention was not made clear in their pleadings. However, as the pleading point was not taken before the trial judge nor the Court of Appeal, it could not be relied upon before the Board. Mr Mackay QC did however, with some justification criticise the quality of the evidence relied upon by Provincial to establish the failure of the repairers or Mr O’Reilly to report the accident. However, having examined the documents and transcripts which constitute the record of the proceedings in the courts below, their Lordships are satisfied that they contain sufficient material to establish a strong probability that the accident was never reported to Provincial and accordingly the outcome of this appeal has to be determined on the basis that Provincial were entitled to repudiate liability.
As was pointed out by Lloyd LJ at the beginning of his judgment in the Legal and General case [1992] 1 All ER 283 at 285, [1992] QB 887 at 891, in general ‘the principles on which one insurer is entitled to recover from another in a case of double insurance have been settled since Lord Mansfield’s day’. As Kitto J stated in Albion Insurance Co Ltd v Government Insurance Office of New South Wales (1969) 121 CLR 342 at 349–350: ‘… a principle applicable at law no less than in equity, is that persons who are under co-ordinate liabilities to make good the one loss (e.g. sureties liable to make good a failure to pay the one debt) must share the burden pro rata’, the object being, as Hamilton J stated in American Surety Co of New York v Wrightson (1910) 103 LT 663 at 667—
‘to put people who have commonly guaranteed or commonly insured in the same position as if the principal creditor or the assured had pursued his remedies rateably among them instead of doing as he is entitled to do, exhausting them to suit himself against one or other of them.’
The distinguishing feature of the present case, to which these principles have not previously been directly applied, was that in this case it was not the insured who was seeking an indemnity but a third party with whom neither insurance company had any contractual relationship. Instead of the liability arising under contract, it arose under statute. However, this distinction in the source of the liability does not by itself justify any departure from the normal approach. If the position of the two insurers was otherwise identical, that is to say, they were both equally under a contractual obligation to indemnify Mr O’Reilly or were both equally under no such contractual liability, then it would be fair, and this was accepted by both insurers, that the approach of the majority in the Court of Appeal should be adopted so that the insurers, as between themselves, would have to share equally the liability to Mr Simms.
In order to avoid this being the result of this case, Mr Mackay, in his very clear submissions, made two points. First, he contended that, though Eagle Star could not rely on this as against the claim based on the statute by Mr Simms, before the accident Eagle Star had cancelled the insurance so that, except for the purposes of
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the statute, it was no longer liable to indemnify Mr O’Reilly. Secondly, he contended that, if, contrary to his first submission (as their Lordships have found), Provincial would have been able to avoid its liability to Mr O’Reilly, if he had made a claim, because of the failure to give notice, that did not alter the fact that at the time of the accident Mr O’Reilly was insured by Provincial. This he submitted meant that Provincial was in a critically different position from that of Eagle Star in relation to a claim for contribution.
As to Mr Mackay’s first contention, there is no dispute on the facts. It is whether the second contention is correct which is determinative of the outcome of this appeal.
It is argued on behalf of Provincial that, as Provincial was entitled to reject a claim from Mr O’Reilly, the person whom it insured, this is a situation where, both under the terms of the respective policies and in accordance with s 12(4) of the Act, both insurers were in an identical position and would have been entitled to recover from Mr O’Reilly.
In support of his contentions, Mr Mackay claimed that he was entitled to rely on the decision of the majority in the Legal and General case. In that case the Legal and General had insured a driver who injured a third party and when the third party brought proceedings Legal and General settled the third party’s claim. Legal and General then discovered that Drake Insurance had also insured the driver, so Legal and General claimed a 50% contribution from the co-insurers. On an appeal from the decision at first instance that Legal and General were entitled to 50% contribution (see [1989] 3 All ER 923), the Court of Appeal (by a majority of Lloyd and Nourse LJJ, Ralph Gibson LJ dissenting) held that, where an assured had effected insurance with two different insurers to cover the same loss, the right of one insurer to contribution from a second insurer as to the costs of meeting a claim accrued at the time of the loss. Therefore, even if Drake Insurance were entitled to establish that their cover had lapsed because of late notification, the cover would not have lapsed until after the loss, and accordingly the right of Legal and General to contribution was not affected.
The reasoning of Lloyd LJ for coming to this conclusion appears from the following passage of his judgment ([1992] 1 All ER 283 at 286–287, [1992] QB 887 at 893):
‘But, when I say potentially liable, there is a sharp distinction between steps required to enforce a valid claim under a policy in force at the time of the loss, and a claim which never was valid, and never could be enforced. Thus if B has a good defence to the assured’s claim on the basis of misrepresentation or non-disclosure, there is no double insurance. Since the effect of the defence is that the contract is avoided ab initio, it is as if B had never been on risk at all. So also where the assured is in breach of condition, or has repudiated the contract, prior to the loss, even if (though this is not so clear) the repudiation is only accepted thereafter. It may be said that the distinction between breach of condition prior to the loss and breach of condition subsequent to the loss is a narrow one. So it may be. But the difference is crucial. For it is at the date of the loss that the co-insurer’s right to contribution, if any, accrues.’ (Lloyd LJ’s emphasis.)
As to Lloyd LJ’s reference to misrepresentation or non-disclosure, it has to be remembered that, until the insurer takes the step of avoiding the contract, it remains in existence. Therefore, while there remains a distinction between a situation where an insurer repudiates liability on the ground of misrepresentation or non-disclosure after a loss has been incurred and the position where the insurer takes the same action on the grounds of delay in notifying the claim, the difference is marginal
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where the policy (as in the case of the Provincial policy), in accordance with the usual practice, makes due notification a condition precedent to liability.
In the paragraph following that which has been cited, Lloyd LJ acknowledges that ‘it is often said that, though the right to contribution is founded in equity, yet it may be varied or excluded by contract’. Lloyd LJ then accepted that for the purpose of contribution the assured and the insurer by contract can limit the amount of the insurer’s liability or provide that the insurer should not be liable beyond his rateable proportion. However Lloyd LJ distinguishes a provision requiring the assured to give notice of a claim because it does not ‘modify or exclude the equitable right to contribution in the same sense’ (see [1992] 1 All ER 283 at 287, [1992] QB 887 at 893).
Approaching the issue as a matter of principle, in a case such as the present, where both insurers are required to indemnify a third party by statute, there can only from a practical point of view be two solutions to the question of contribution: either the insurers should contribute in accordance with their respective statutory liabilities so that, if they are statutorily equally liable, they will so share the loss; or contribution is determined in accordance with the extent of their respective liabilities to the person insured under the separate contracts of insurance. Of these two alternatives, the contractual approach is the more appropriate since the extent of their respective liabilities to the person insured will indicate the scale of the double insurance.
If the contractual approach is adopted, then there can be no justification for departing from the contractual position by creating for the purposes of contribution between the co-insurers a special cut-off point which requires the position to be judged at the date of the loss. Having such a cut-off point could produce results which do not reflect the contractual situation so far as liability to the insured is concerned. Looking at the issue from the insurer’s and insured’s standpoint, it makes no difference if an insurer defeats a claim by relying on action taken before or after the loss has occurred. If both insurers would be under no liability to the person who would be insured, then they should share the statutory liability for loss equally irrespective of the date upon which they repudiated liability. If both insurers are liable at least in part to the person insured, then they should contribute to their statutory liability in accordance with their respective liability to the person insured for the loss. While this could have the result that the action of a person insured in relation to one insurer can affect the rights of contribution of the other insurer, this is an inevitable consequence of one insurer being able to take advantage of any limitation of his contractual liabilities on the question of contribution. However, before suggesting this could be unfair it has to be remembered that it is unlikely that the existence of the other insurer would have been known at the time that the contract of insurance was made.
So far as other authorities are concerned, Ralph Gibson LJ was correct in his analysis of Weddell v Road Transport and General Insurance Co Ltd [1932] 2 KB 563, [1931] All ER Rep 609 and that case in fact provides no support for the majority view of the Court of Appeal. Weddell v Road Transport was not dealing with any principle of contribution but a question of construction as to the liability of insurers when there are two policies, each of which excludes liability where there is another policy covering the same loss. Rowlatt J decided that the respective clauses in each policy cancelled each other. The only case which had a direct bearing on the issue now being considered is the decision of Judge Rogers in the Mayor’s and City of London Court in Monksfield v Vehicle and General Insurance Co Ltd [1971] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 139. That case was disapproved of by the majority in the Court of Appeal because it did not accord with their conclusion that the date of the loss was the cut-off point at which contribution had to be decided. However, far from that decision being wrong, it is correctly decided and properly regarded in 25 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 539
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as being support for the third of the conditions which Halsbury accurately states must be satisfied before a right of contribution can arise. That condition is that:
‘Each policy must be in force at the time of the loss. There is no contribution if one of the policies has already become void or the risk under it has not yet attached; the insurer from whom contribution is claimed can repudiate liability under his policy on the ground that the assured has broken a condition.’
In this case therefore both insurers are in the same position. They were both under a statutory liability in relation to the claim of the third party but they both would have been entitled to repudiate liability to the insured person. No distinction should be made in relation to their respective positions and accordingly they should each contribute equally to the amount payable to Mr Simms.
For these reasons their Lordships will humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal should be dismissed. The appellant must pay the respondent’s costs before their Lordships’ Board.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Wilkinson and another v Kenny and another
[1993] 3 All ER 9
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Courts
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, ROSE AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 9 FEBRUARY 1993
Court of Appeal – Jurisdiction – Appeal from order for costs – Order that solicitor be personally liable for costs – Solicitors ordered to pay costs of litigation personally and to pay part of costs of application for order – Whether order that they pay part of costs of application an order ‘relating only to costs’ – Whether appeal lying to Court of Appeal without leave of trial judge – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 18(1)(f).
In June 1990 the plaintiff landlords brought an action against the defendant tenants for possession of a flat because of unpaid rent. The tenants resisted the order for possession, challenged the arrears and counterclaimed for damages for the landlords’ failure to keep the premises in good repair. At the hearing of the claim and counterclaim the recorder gave judgment for the plaintiffs for recovery of possession of the flat and the sum of £3,200 and by consent an order was made giving judgment for the defendants on their counterclaim for £1,500. The plaintiffs then applied for an order for costs against the defendants’ solicitors personally on the grounds that the solicitors had, inter alia, failed to make discovery of the defendants’ bank statements, failed to verify answers to interrogatories by affidavit, failed to pay money into court after serving notices of payment into court on two occasions, and failed to disclose deceptive conduct by the defendants to the Legal Aid Board. After a further hearing the county court judge ordered the defendants’ solicitors to pay the costs of the application to compel verification on oath of the interrogatories and the costs resulting from the defective notices of payment into court. The judge further ordered that the defendants’ solicitors pay four-fifths of the costs of the application for costs, to be taxed on county court scale 2. The defendants’ solicitors appealed
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without leave against the order that they pay four-fifths of the costs of the application for costs.
Held – The Court of Appeal had no jurisdiction to interfere in an award made by the trial judge that a party’s solicitors personally pay the costs of an application for costs, since such an award related ‘only to costs which are by law left to the discretion of the court or tribunal’ and therefore fell within the exclusive discretion of the judge under s 18(1)(f)a of the Supreme Court Act 1981. Accordingly, unless the judge had failed to exercise her discretion at all or did not exercise it judicially, the Court of Appeal had no jurisdiction to entertain an appeal. On the facts, the judge’s exercise of her discretion could not be challenged on either basis and therefore the appeal would be dismissed (see p 18 e f, p 19 h j and p 20 c to e, post).
Scherer v Counting Instruments Ltd (1977) [1986] 2 All ER 529 applied.
Thompson v Fraser [1985] 3 All ER 511 and Re Land and Property Trust Co plc [1991] 3 All ER 409 distinguished.
Notes
For appeals as to costs only, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 724, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 271–275, 4548–4565.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 18, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 983.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bankamerica Finance Ltd v Nock [1988] 1 All ER 81, [1988] AC 1002, [1987] 3 WLR 1191, HL.
Davy-Chiesman v Davy-Chiesman [1984] 1 All ER 321, [1984] Fam 48, [1984] 2 WLR 291, CA.
Land and Property Trust Co plc, Re [1991] 3 All ER 409, [1991] 1 WLR 601, CA.
Scherer v Counting Instruments Ltd (1977) [1986] 2 All ER 529, [1986] 1 WLR 615, CA.
Sinclair-Jones v Kay [1988] 2 All ER 611, [1989] 1 WLR 114, CA.
Thompson v Fraser [1985] 3 All ER 511, [1986] 1 WLR 17, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965, HL.
Alltrans Express Ltd v CVA Holdings Ltd [1984] 1 All ER 685, [1984] 1 WLR 394, CA.
Anglo-Cyprian Trade Agencies Ltd v Paphos Wine Industries Ltd [1951] 1 All ER 873.
Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93, CA
Currie & Co v Law Society [1976] 3 All ER 832, [1977] QB 990.
Cutts v Head [1984] 1 All ER 597, [1984] Ch 290, CA
Elgindata Ltd, Re (No 2) [1992] 1 WLR 1207, CA.
Gupta v Comer [1991] 1 All ER 289, [1991] 1 QB 629, CA.
Jones v McKie and Mersey Docks and Harbour Board [1964] 2 All ER 842, [1964] 1 WLR 960, CA.
Lipkin Gorman v Karpnale Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 409, [1989] 1 WLR 1340, CA; rvsd in part [1992] 4 All ER 512, [1991] 2 AC 548, HL.
Marshall v Levine [1985] 2 All ER 177, [1985] 1 WLR 814, CA.
Myers v Elman [1939] 4 All ER 484, [1940] AC 282, HL.
Orchard v South Eastern Electricity Board [1987] 1 All ER 95, [1987] QB 565, CA.
Smiths Ltd v Middleton (No 2) [1986] 2 All ER 539, [1986] 1 WLR 598, CA.
Page 11 of [1993] 3 All ER 9
Appeal
Atkinson Cave & Stuart, a firm of solicitors who represented the defendants, Paul Kenny and Carol Blackburn, in an action arising out of a claim by the plaintiffs, Jean Wilkinson and Helen Crossley, for possession of a flat of which they were the landlords and the defendants the tenants, appealed without leave of the judge against the order of Judge Holt made in the Blackpool County Court on 31 July 1991 whereby she ordered the solicitors to pay four-fifths of the costs of the plaintiffs’ application made on 3 June 1991 for an order that the solicitors should personally pay the costs of certain items in the litigation. The defendants took no part in the proceedings. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
Linda Pearce (instructed by Atkinson Cave & Stuart, Blackpool) for the solicitors.
David Ritchie (instructed by Cuddy Woods & Cochrane, Blackpool) for the plaintiffs.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. This is an appeal against a decision of Judge Holt, given in the Blackpool County Court sitting at Preston on 31 July 1991, when she ordered that the defendants’ solicitors should pay the costs of the application to compel verification on oath of certain interrogatories and costs resulting from the defective notices of payment into court, and further ordered that the defendants’ solicitors should pay four-fifths of the costs of the application before her, to be taxed on the new county court scale 2.
I should emphasise at the outset that this is an appeal by solicitors personally and the appeal relates not to the first part of that order to which I have just referred, namely that they should pay the costs of certain items in the litigation in which they were acting, but against the second part of the order that they should pay four-fifths of the costs of the application then before the judge.
The application came at the end or nearly the end of a long story of litigation which has filled me, on reading the documents, with increasing gloom. Day by day we read in the newspapers of the inordinate cost of litigation, of the congestion to which the courts are subject and, in the very recent weeks, of proposals to cut back the legal aid budget because the costs of legal aid are spiralling out of control, those increases in legal aid expenditure being apparently due not to an increase in the number of litigants who are assisted but to the greatly increased costs of the actions in which they are supported.
This particular action involves a claim by landlords of a first floor flat against tenants to whom they let the flat for possession, on the grounds that there were several hundred pounds of arrears of rent. The tenants resisted the order for possession, challenged the arrears and counterclaimed for damages for the landlords’ failure to keep the premises in good repair. It was in essence the sort of action which county courts were established to deal with, and do deal with, on an almost daily basis involving no complex principles of law, no complex issues; a simple straightforward dispute crying out for summary determination. This particular action is a very good example of the manner in which such a simple action can get out of hand. We shall see, when we come very briefly to summarise the chronology, applications being made for this, applications being made for that, various orders for this, orders for that, hearings in relation to this, hearings in relation to that, all of them of course increasing the costs. It is no part of this court’s role and it has no material on which it could possibly attribute or apportion any responsibility or blame for this unhappy state of affairs, and I therefore point the finger at no one. But it is, to my mind, an extremely sad thing when one finds an action of this kind becoming a cause célèbre, or treated as such, when it ought to be
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a simple and straightforward matter, inexpensively disposed of in the interests of both the landlord and the tenant.
The story begins in October 1988 when the landlords received from the tenants a sum of some £320 as a deposit against future rent and liability for repairs or breakages. A tenancy agreement was signed on 19 November and a rent book was issued. It was expressed to be a shorthold tenancy for one year. Just under a year later on 3 November 1989 notice of termination of the tenancy was given and in May 1990 notice was given to quit. The tenants did not surrender possession and particulars of claim were issued in the Blackpool County Court on 21 June 1990. There was a defence and counterclaim in August and on 15 November 1990 a notice of payment into court was given on behalf of the defendants but accompanied by no payment. On 12 December 1990 interrogatories were served on the defendants to be answered by them; but already by then a second notice of payment into court had been given on behalf of the defendants, again accompanied by no payment. The defendants towards the end of January supplied answers to the interrogatories but they were unsworn. Accordingly, the plaintiffs applied that the interrogatories should be sworn, and in early February sworn interrogatories were served.
I omit various stages in the history and therefore do not attempt a full summary of the complex interlocutory history of this action, but go on to February 1991 when the plaintiffs applied for a Mareva injunction. There were other pleadings. In March 1991 the plaintiffs applied for discovery. In May 1991 they applied again for specific discovery. Then finally and, having omitted, as I have indicated, a large number of interlocutory stages, the matter came before Mr Assistant Recorder Holman on 3 June 1991 when he made an order that the plaintiffs should recover possession of the flat on 1 July 1991 and that there be judgment for the plaintiffs in the sum of £3,200. In addition to those orders there was a consent order, first of all suspending enforcement of the order for possession until 1 July, second giving judgment for the defendants on their counterclaim for £1,500 and third ordering payment out to the plaintiffs of the sums in court.
On that hearing the plaintiffs applied to the learned assistant recorder for an order for costs against the defendants’ solicitors personally or, in the alternative, the Legal Aid Board, and 23 July 1991 was fixed as the date on which that application would be heard, its estimated length being one day. The application against the Legal Aid Board was misconceived and accordingly the application was essentially against the defendants’ solicitors personally alone.
The grounds of that application were outlined in an affidavit sworn by Mr Sinclair, the solicitor acting for the plaintiffs, an affidavit of 12 June 1991. That was answered in an affidavit sworn by Dr Ramsden, a housing practitioner in the employ of the defendants’ solicitors, which was of substantial length, running to some 33 pages and which was sworn on 19 July 1991, a mere four days or so before the hearing was due to take place.
The hearing of the plaintiffs’ application against the defendants’ solicitors began on 23 July 1991, when it occupied some three and a half hours which was spent by Mr Sinclair on behalf of the plaintiffs outlining the grounds upon which his application was made. The hearing was adjourned until the following day, 24 July 1991, when there appears to have been a delayed start. We are told by counsel on behalf of the plaintiffs in this court that, according to his instructions, the hearing was fixed for 11 am. Counsel for the defendants’ solicitors was not present and accordingly the hearing did not get under way until 3.20 pm when counsel did arrive. Counsel for the defendants’ solicitors, however, has told us that, according to her recollection and according also to her chambers diary, the hearing on that day was not fixed for 11 am but at 2 pm and that she was delayed as a result of a mishap in a
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train connection at Preston. It is not possible or appropriate for us to attempt to resolve this dispute of recollection, although I have for my part no reason to doubt that what counsel tells us and what is apparently confirmed by her chambers diary is correct. It is, however, the case that the hearing on the second day was abbreviated. It appears that some ten minutes or so was spent by Mr Sinclair finishing his opening of the plaintiffs’ application and then something over an hour was spent by counsel for the defendants’ solicitors on her case.
On the third day, 25 July, the hearing got off to an earlier start at 10.30 am, and four and a half hours were devoted to the issue on that day which was occupied by counsel for the defendants’ solicitors putting her case. The matter was then adjourned to 31 July when Mr Sinclair briefly replied on behalf of the plaintiffs, taking about 15 minutes or so, and the learned judge then gave judgment and gave a ruling on costs. The order that she made is that which I began this judgment by reciting.
It is important to summarise briefly the basis upon which the application was made. The learned judge in the course of her judgment accurately summarises the complaints which Mr Sinclair on behalf of the plaintiffs was advancing. These related to discovery, to documentation in relation to pleadings and answers to interrogatories, to proceedings relating to the injunction that I have mentioned and to a complaint about non-disclosure of the tenants’ misleading instructions to the Legal Aid Board. The learned judge recounted at some length in the course of her judgment the various complaints and the answers that were given to them. When she came to deal with the complaint about discovery she said:
‘In my judgment the bank statements were relevant and should have been discovered. In their defence the defendants pleaded that even if the plaintiffs proved their case on rent arrears it was not reasonable to make the order and Miss Pearce [counsel for the defendants’ solicitors] conceded that on the question of reasonableness the dissipation of the housing benefit was relevant even though the burden of proving reasonableness was on the defendants. In any event the issue in the action was rent and whether the defendants not only owed the money but had the means to pay through the housing benefit was something the plaintiffs were entitled to have revealed. In my judgment Mr Ramsden was naive in the extreme to accept his clients’ story that there were no bank statements and not to check with the bank whether there were bank statements and to fail to get his clients to produce from the bank a statement of the exact amount in the bank account. Even the best of clients can be wrong on figures. Costs were wasted as a result in that the plaintiffs had to make two applications and defend an appeal but to put the matter at its highest in my judgment it was no more than an error of judgment on Mr Ramsden’s part, or those of his superiors. I am not prepared to hold that there was any failure to conduct the proceedings with reasonable competence or that there was negligence on the part of the defendants’ solicitors. I would point out that the plaintiffs themselves failed to disclose certain documents (it is fairly common in these courts). Losing a case does not necessarily involve conduct which is so serious as to merit reproof which I think is necessary to bring the case within RSC Ord 62, r 11. Mistake or error of judgment is not enough to make a solicitor pay the costs personally. On these applications the plaintiffs in my judgment can recover only the usual order for costs not to be enforced without leave.’
That therefore was the first complaint with which the learned judge dealt and, although she was critical of the conduct of the defendants’ solicitors, certainly of Dr
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Ramsden’s conduct, she did not feel that it merited an order against the defendants’ solicitors personally.
She turned then to the second complaint, of which she said:
‘However as regards the answers to interrogatories I take a totally different view. The failure to verify the answers to interrogatories by affidavit in my judgment can only have occurred through negligence or incompetence. The rules are perfectly clear. Where costs are wasted by negligence of the solicitors it is quite wrong that the client should pay the costs and it is equally wrong that a legally aided client should be in a different position. RSC Ord 62, r 11 covers the point and wasted costs are defined in the new s 51 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 as any costs incurred as a result of any improper, unreasonable or negligent act or omission on the part of any legal or other representative or any employee of such representative. In my judgment the defendants’ solicitors unnecessarily wasted costs because it was not unreasonable for the plaintiffs’ solicitor after waiting 28 days for the answer and then fixing a time limit to take out a summons to compel them to be verified and so enforce compliance with the rules. I rely on Sinclair Jones v Kay [1988] 2 All ER 611, [1989] 1 WLR 114. The failure to pay money into court after serving notices of payment in on two occasions can only be described as negligence and in so far as the plaintiffs’ solicitors incurred any costs as a result in my judgment they will have to be paid by the defendants’ solicitors personally.’
It is therefore apparent that in relation to that second complaint the learned judge was not only critical of the defendants’ solicitors but thought it appropriate that they should pay the costs attributable to that particular default.
She then turned to the third complaint which related to the failure to disclose the deceptive conduct of the tenants to the Legal Aid Board and in relation to that she said:
‘As to the alleged failure to inform the Legal Aid Board when the bank statements showed that housing benefit was not being saved but was being dissipated and that housing benefit did pre-date the tenancy and when the bogus rent book appeared to have been used to get housing benefit I was assured by Miss Pearce that a two-page letter was written to the Legal Aid Board. I was never given the letter but I expressed surprise that the solicitors continued to act for the defendants. There is a duty upon solicitors acting for a legally aided client to inform the Legal Aid Board of any change in the circumstances of the litigation—Davy-Chiesman v Davy-Chiesman [1984] 1 All ER 321, [1984] Fam 48. I should have thought it was extremely relevant to the grant of legal aid that the committee should be aware that the defendants were receiving housing benefit and receiving legal aid while at the same time not applying the money to rent but dissipating it, even though they are apparently entitled to do so. However Mr Ramsden did write a two-page letter to the Law Society and I am not prepared to hold he did not notify them without having seen the letter.’
The judge was accordingly not willing on that complaint to hold the defendants’ solicitors personally responsible for the costs incurred although, as is noted, she did express surprise and was in the curious position of not being shown the letter upon which reliance was placed. Finally, she turned to the injunction and of that she said:
‘Finally as regards the injunction I cannot accept that the defendants’ solicitors acted dishonourably or in such a way as meriting reproof by being ordered to pay the costs personally in instructing repairs to be done while the
Page 15 of [1993] 3 All ER 9
injunction application was pending. It is not usual for solicitors to allow action to be taken whilst an application for an injunction is pending but I also do not think any costs were unnecessarily incurred as a result. The applications included other relief and the work done was very small.’
In that respect, therefore, she did not conclude that any significant costs were involved and did not think that an order against the defendants’ solicitors was justified.
At the conclusion of the judgment Miss Pearce for the defendants’ solicitors asked for the costs of the application against the plaintiffs or Mr Sinclair, the burden of her submission being that, although the plaintiffs had succeeded on two minor allegations, the bulk of the criticisms which had occupied the court’s time for a number of days had failed. The judge made it plain that she did not propose that Mr Sinclair personally should be ordered to pay the costs in any event, and referred to the amount of time and preparation which the case had involved. The judge also made reference to two-thirds of one day being lost through the late arrival of Miss Pearce which, according to the note which is before us, Miss Pearce accepted, although she went on to say that three full days had been occupied on major allegations of misconduct.
At the end of several exchanges with Miss Pearce the learned judge indicated that she did not consider it appropriate to order the plaintiffs to pay the costs of the application, and at that point Mr Sinclair, representing the plaintiffs, asked that the defendants’ solicitors should pay the costs of the application personally since the plaintiffs had succeeded and costs should follow the event. He referred to the late delivery of Dr Ramsden’s affidavit on the eve of the hearing and to the very late revelation by the defendants’ solicitors of the letter which they said had been written to the Legal Aid Board disclosing the deceptive behaviour of the tenants. Mr Sinclair complained that Dr Ramsden’s affidavit, far from referring to any such letter, had given the impression to the reader that he had not thought it right to draw such behaviour to the attention of the Legal Aid Board. The judge then made the order which is challenged on this appeal to the effect that the defendants’ solicitors should pay four-fifths of the costs of the application. Miss Pearce challenged that order, which she suggested was inappropriate in all the circumstances, and she asked that a lower proportion should be substituted. But the learned judge declined to alter the order. She accepted that the solicitors had sent a letter to the Legal Aid Board but she said that they could have produced it, or made its existence known earlier, and chose not to do so, and they did not refer to it in their affidavit. She was unwilling to reduce the four-fifths proportion and that was the order that she made.
It is against that background that it is necessary to consider the statutory provisions which are relevant to this appeal. I start with s 51(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which provides:
‘Subject to the provisions of this or any other enactment and to rules of court, the costs of and incidental to all proceedings in—(a) the civil division of the Court of Appeal; (b) the High Court; and (c) any county court shall be in the discretion of the court.’
Section 51(6) provides:
‘In any proceedings mentioned in subsection (1), the court may disallow, or (as the case may be) order the legal or other representative concerned to meet, the whole of any wasted costs or such part of them as may be determined in accordance with rules of court.’
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RSC Ord 62, r 2(4) provides:
‘The powers and discretion of the Court under section 51 of the Act (which provides that the costs of and incidental to proceedings of the Supreme Court shall be in the discretion of the Court and that the Court shall have full power to determine by whom and to what extent the costs are to be paid) and under the enactments relating to the costs of criminal proceedings to which this Order applies shall be exercised subject to and in accordance with this Order.'
Order 62, r 3 provides:
‘(1) This rule shall have effect subject only to the following provisions of this Order.
(2) No party to any proceedings shall be entitled to recover any of the costs of those proceedings from any other party to those proceedings except under an order of the Court.
(3) If the Court in the exercise of its discretion sees fit to make any order as to the costs of any proceedings, the Court shall order the costs to follow the event, except when it appears to the Court that in the circumstances of the case some other order should be made as to the whole or any part of the costs.’
I should also draw attention to Ord 62, r 11(1), which provides:
‘(a) Where the Court decides to make an order under section 51(6) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 disallowing wasted costs or ordering a legal representative to meet such costs or part of them, it shall, subject to paragraph (4), specify in the order the costs which are to be so disallowed or met, and may make such other order as it thinks fit; (b) before proceeding under sub-paragraph (a), the Court may direct a taxing officer to inquire into the matter and report to the Court.’
That latter procedure was one which was not of course followed in this case.
In the county court the relevant rule is CCR Ord 38, r 1(2) which provides, echoing the Rules of the Supreme Court, that costs of and incidental to all proceedings in a county court shall be in the discretion of the court and it goes on to provide in r 1(3):
‘Save where provision is otherwise made by these rules, the provisions of Part II of RSC Order 62 relating to entitlement to costs (except such of those provisions as refer to the Official Solicitor or court fees) shall apply in relation to the costs of and incidental to any proceedings in a county court as they apply in relation to the costs of any like proceedings to which that Order applies.’
The effect accordingly is that the High Court rule that the costs are in the discretion of the court, deriving from s 51 of the 1981 Act, is reproduced in the County Court Rules but they are, save in the event of express inconsistency, subject to the Rules of the Supreme Court and, accordingly, Ord 62, r 11 has effect.
It is finally necessary only that I should refer to s 18(1) of the 1981 Act which is of direct significance in this case. It provides:
‘No appeal shall lie to the Court of Appeal … (f) without the leave of the court or tribunal in question, from any order of the High Court or any other court or tribunal made with the consent of the parties or relating only to costs which are by law left to the discretion of the court or tribunal …’
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In this case the county court judge was asked for leave to appeal against her order for costs and she refused it. We have heard competing submissions as to whether s 18(1)(f) of the 1981 Act applies in the present circumstances or not.
Mr Ritchie, who appears for the plaintiffs before us, submits that s 18(1)(f) does apply. He acknowledges that entirely different considerations would arise if the defendants’ solicitors were appealing against the order that they should pay the costs of the interrogatories and the defective notices of payment into court, but he submits that the part of the learned judge’s order against which the solicitors appeal—namely the order that they pay four-fifths of the costs of this application—is within s 18(1)(f) an order relating only to costs which are by law left to the discretion of the court. Accordingly, he submits that the order which the learned judge made is one which, subject to one exception to which I will come, this court has no jurisdiction to entertain.
For the defendants’ solicitors Miss Pearce advances a different argument. She says that these proceedings involve a punitive as well as a compensatory element so far as the defendants’ solicitors are concerned and that that is so not only of the order that they should pay for the interrogatories and the defective notices of payment into court but also of the order that they should pay the costs of the application before the learned judge.
In support of that submission she refers us, first of all, to the authority of Thompson v Fraser [1985] 3 All ER 511, [1986] 1 WLR 17. That was a case in which a judge had ordered a solicitor to pay the entire costs of a possession action. The solicitor appealed and the question before this court was whether that appeal by the solicitor was one that related only to costs. Donaldson MR, giving the judgment of the court, ruled that the appeal did not relate only, or indeed primarily, to costs. It related to the conduct of the solicitor and in those circumstances s 18(1)(f) had no application. Speaking for myself, I have no doubt whatever that that decision was correct. It is in any event binding upon us, but the substance of the solicitor’s appeal in that case was against the order that he should personally pay the costs thrown away in the possession action and the attention of the court was not specifically directed to the costs of the hearing at which that order was made. While therefore I entirely concur in the decision which the judge reached on that occasion, it does not seem to me to assist Miss Pearce’s argument before us.
She also referred us to Re Land and Property Trust Co plc [1991] 3 All ER 409, [1991] 1 WLR 601. That was a case in which the directors sought to appeal against an order that they personally should pay the costs incurred by one of the company’s creditors in opposing the company’s petition, and again the question arose as to whether s 18(1)(f) barred such an appeal. In a judgment with which Lord Donaldson MR agreed, Nicholls LJ said ([1991] 3 All ER 409 at 412, [1991] 1 WLR 601 at 604):
‘Clearly, and as the judge had in mind, the circumstances in which it will be just to make a costs order against a person who is not a party to the proceedings will be exceptional. In the nature of things it will very seldom be right to order a person who is not a party to proceedings to pay the costs of the proceedings. To my mind, the making of a costs order against a non-party is such an unusual and far reaching departure from the normal course of events to be expected in litigation that I cannot believe Parliament had this type of case in mind at all when enacting s 18(1)(f) or the corresponding section in the preceding Acts. It would indeed be remarkable if a “stranger” to proceedings could be ordered to pay the costs of a party to those proceedings and have no right of appeal against that order in any circumstances unless the judge who made the order saw fit to give leave to appeal. Parliament cannot have intended that such a person should have no right of appeal at all whatever the circumstances and however
Page 18 of [1993] 3 All ER 9
severe or draconian the effect of the order might be. In my view, s 18(1)(f) is to be understood and read as applying only to orders for costs made against persons who were parties to the proceedings in which the costs in question were incurred. Costs orders against persons who were not parties to the relevant proceedings are not orders which relate “only to costs” within the meaning of that expression in the paragraph. Such orders necessarily relate to matters other than merely the outcome of the proceedings. There has to be something more, some conduct by the non-party which makes it just that he should bear the costs of the litigation to which he was not a party.’
Again and speaking for myself, I have no doubt that the views which Nicholls LJ was advancing were correct, but they do not, in my judgment, assist Miss Pearce in her argument on this appeal. It is, of course, true that in the substantive action in the county court—namely the claim by the landlords against the tenants for possession and arrears of rent—the parties were the landlords and the tenants. But, following the learned judge’s order on 3 June, there was an issue ordered to be tried in which the applicants or claimants were the plaintiffs and the defendants or respondents were the defendants’ solicitors against whom a claim was being made. I do not consider that for the purposes of the hearing before the judge in July the defendants’ solicitors were in any sense non-parties to the action. They were indeed the only parties to the only action that there was, namely the claim against them. Accordingly, it seems to me that this authority does not assist Miss Pearce’s argument and that the solicitors were in truth parties to the action against whom an order was being sought.
Coming back, therefore, to s 18(1)(f), it appears to me that Mr Ritchie for the plaintiffs is correct in submitting that the order which it is sought to challenge on this appeal is an order relating only to costs which are by law left to the discretion of the court.
That, however, is not the end of the matter because, despite the apparently comprehensive language of s 18(1)(f), it has been held that circumstances can exist in which, even where leave has not been given by the trial judge, a challenge to an order for costs can be properly entertained in this court. The circumstances in which such an appeal may be entertained were classically laid down by the Court of Appeal in Scherer v Counting Instruments Ltd (1977) [1986] 2 All ER 529 at 536, [1986] 1 WLR 615 at 621 by Buckley LJ and those principles, subject to immaterial exceptions, were approved by the House of Lords in Bankamerica Finance Ltd v Nock [1988] 1 All ER 81 at 86, [1988] AC 1002 at 1010. The principles, omitting principle 8, were these:
‘(1) The normal rule is that costs follow the event. That party who turns out to have unjustifiably either brought another party before the court or given another party cause to have recourse to the court to obtain his rights is required to recompense that other party in costs. But, (2) the judge has under s 50 of the [Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925] an unlimited discretion to make what order as to costs he considers that the justice of the case requires. (3) Consequently, a successful party has a reasonable expectation of obtaining an order for his costs to be paid by the opposing party but has no right to such an order, for it depends on the exercise of the court’s discretion. (4) This discretion is not one to be exercised arbitrarily: it must be exercised judicially, that is to say in accordance with established principles and in relation to the facts of the case. (5) The discretion cannot be well exercised unless there are relevant grounds for its exercise, for its exercise without grounds cannot be a proper exercise of the judge’s function. (6) The grounds must be connected with the case. This may extend to any matter relating to the litigation and the parties’
Page 19 of [1993] 3 All ER 9
conduct in it, and also to the circumstances leading to the litigation, but no further. (7) If no such ground exists for departing from the normal rule, or if, although such grounds exist, the judge is known to have acted not on any such ground but on some extraneous ground, there has effectively been no exercise of the discretion … (9) If a judge, having relevant grounds on which to do so, has on those grounds, or some of them, made an order as to costs in the exercise of his discretion, his decision is final unless he gives leave to a dissatisfied party to appeal. (10) If, however, he has made his order having no relevant grounds available or having in fact acted on extraneous grounds, this court can entertain an appeal without leave and can make what order it thinks fit.’
Accordingly, the Court of Appeal has jurisdiction to interfere if it can be shown that there has been no exercise of discretion or that the discretion has been exercised unjudicially, in particular if it has been exercised on extraneous grounds.
Miss Pearce criticises the learned judge’s exercise of discretion in this case. She argues that the plaintiffs succeeded on only one, or perhaps if one sub-divides it, two of the complaints which they advanced. She says, although this is in issue, that in financial terms the sum involved is only some £200 or so and she draws attention to the fact that the costs of the action as a whole, that is excluding the costs of the application against the defendants’ solicitors, amounted to some £6,500, and she suggests that the plaintiffs were in effect seeking recovery of all those costs against the defendants’ solicitors. Accordingly, she says that to order the defendants’ solicitors to pay four-fifths of the costs of the application was quite unreasonable, so unreasonable as to be an unjudicial exercise of the discretion.
Not surprisingly, Mr Ritchie for the plaintiffs challenges that approach. He points out that, although the plaintiffs did not win on certain of the complaints which they made, they did win on others, and even those on which they did not win were not complaints which the learned judge held to have been in any way improperly made. Indeed, she appears to have had a good deal of sympathy with them. Mr Ritchie submits that costs should follow the event, which in essence involves identifying what the event is and deciding who is the effective winner. He urges that the judge was fully entitled to view the plaintiffs as the effective winner, since they have had to come to court to get any contribution towards their costs and had indeed got such a contribution. He challenges the suggestion that the plaintiffs were seeking all the costs of the action and draws attention to Mr Sinclair’s affidavit in which he makes plain that he seeks a contribution towards the costs that have been incurred through, as Mr Sinclair suggested, the defendants’ solicitors’ incompetent or unreasonable handling of the action. At the same time Mr Ritchie draws attention to the fact that the learned judge did not treat the plaintiffs as the outright winners. If she had done, she would have given them 100% of the costs of the application and, as it was, she only gave them 80%, deducting 20% to mark the extent of their failure. Mr Ritchie acknowledges that other decisions on costs could have been made and, if made, would in all probability have been unchallengeable. But he submits that, in so far as the Court of Appeal has jurisdiction to consider the matter at all, this was an exercise of discretion and not an unjudicial one since it fell plainly within the area of the discretion accorded to the trial judge.
Accordingly, and bearing in mind my conclusion that this is an application to which s 18(1)(f) applies, he submits that it is a case in which the Court of Appeal has no jurisdiction to interfere. I agree and would accordingly dismiss the appeal.
ROSE LJ. I agree. I share Sir Thomas Bingham MR’s concern as to the way in which this litigation has mushroomed out of all proportion to the issues initially involved. When it takes two and a half days to resolve who should pay the costs of a county
Page 20 of [1993] 3 All ER 9
court action for possession and arrears of rent with a counterclaim for disrepair which was disposed of by consent without a trial and when the plaintiffs’ costs alone are said to amount to £6,500, something is seriously amiss.
The judge’s decision on the plaintiffs’ application that the defendants’ solicitors should personally pay part of the plaintiffs’ costs was, as it seems to me, susceptible to challenge by way of appeal without the leave of the judge for it did not relate in the terms of s 18(1)(f) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 ‘only to costs’: see Thompson v Fraser [1985] 3 All ER 511, [1986] 1 WLR 19 and Re Land and Property Trust Co plc [1991] 3 All ER 409, [1991] 1 WLR 601.
But the solicitors have not appealed against that decision. What they seek to challenge, the judge having refused leave to appeal, is the judge’s order in relation to the costs of that application. This, as it seems to me, is an appeal relating ‘only to costs’. The two authorities to which I have referred are therefore distinguishable. Accordingly, it follows that this court’s powers of appellate intervention are circumscribed. It must be shown either that the judge failed to exercise her discretion at all or that she did not exercise it judicially: see per Lord Brandon in Bankamerica Finance Ltd v Nock [1988] 1 All ER 81 at 84, [1988] AC 1002 at 1007. I see no adequate foundation here for effective challenge on either basis. I agree with Sir Thomas Bingham MR’s reasons. I too would dismiss this appeal.
WAITE LJ. I agree that the appeal should be dismissed for the reasons given by Sir Thomas Bingham MR and Rose LJ to which I do not think it necessary for me to add anything.
Appeal dismissed.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Madurasinghe v Penguin Electronics (a firm)
[1993] 3 All ER 20
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NOURSE, MCCOWAN AND HIRST LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 18 NOVEMBER 1992
Costs – Taxation – Review of taxation – Judge’s discretion – District judge reconsidering taxation of solicitor’s bill of costs – Application to judge for review of district judge’s decision – Whether judge bound by district judge’s decision – Whether judge having discretion of reconsider application afresh – CCR Ord 38, r 24(4).
On an application under CCR Ord 38, r 24(4)a for a review by the judge of a district judge’s decision on a reconsideration of the taxation of a solicitor’s bill of costs, the judge has discretion to reconsider the taxation afresh and is not fettered by the manner in which the district judge exercised his discretion and is therefore not limited to reviewing the taxation only on the grounds that the district judge took into account an irrelevant matter or failed to take into account something which ought to have taken into account or that his opinion was clearly wrong (see p 23 h j and p 25 d, post).
Page 21 of [1993] 3 All ER 20
Dictum of Cumming-Bruce LJ in Hart v Aga Khan Foundation (UK) [1984] 2 All ER 439 at 444–446 distinguished.
Notes
For taxation of a solicitor’s detailed bill, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 754–757, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 327–344, 4928–4980.
Cases referred to in judgments
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Hart v Aga Khan Foundation (UK) [1984] 2 All ER 439, [1984] 1 WLR 994, CA.
Cases referred to in skeleton argument
Evans v Bartlam [1937] AC 473, [1937] 2 All ER 646, HL.
Van Stillevoldt (C M) BV v El Carriers Inc [1983] 1 All ER 699, [1983] 1 WLR 207.
Appeal
Don & Co, a firm of solicitors formerly acting for the respondent, Herbert Madurasinghe, in litigation brought by him, appealed with the leave of the judge given on 10 December 1991 from the order of Judge Marcus Edwards sitting with District Judge Rees and District Judge Gerlis as assessors made on 26 September 1991 in the Brentford County Court dismissing their application under CCR Ord 38, r 24(4) for a review of the taxation by Mr M A Roberts sitting as a deputy district judge on 1 March 1991 of their costs in the matter. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCowan LJ.
Abraham Verghese (instructed by Don & Co) for the appellants.
The respondent appeared in person.
McCOWAN LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Nourse LJ). This is an appeal, with the leave of the learned judge, from the order of Judge Marcus Edwards sitting with two assessors, made on 26 September 1991. The appellants are solicitors who acted for the plaintiff in litigation concerning a defective video camera which the plaintiff had purchased from the defendants. The appellants submitted two bills of costs to the plaintiff—a gross sum bill on 15 May 1990 and thereafter a detailed bill—in circumstances which I shall describe.
On 13 September 1990 the appellants applied for the detailed bill to be taxed under s 74 of the Solicitors Act 1974 and CCR Ord 38, r 21. The bill was taxed by Mr M A Roberts sitting as a deputy district judge on 1 March 1991. The appellants were dissatisfied with that taxation and requested that the deputy district judge reconsider it. However, he upheld his taxation. The appellants were still dissatisfied and applied for a review of the taxation by a judge under Ord 38, r 24. The learned judge dismissed the appellants’ application and upheld the taxation. It is from that order of the judge that the appellants appeal. The appellants have been represented on the appeal by counsel. The respondent, the plaintiff in the litigation, appears in person.
I turn to summarise the facts of the matter. In August 1989 the appellants were instructed by the respondent to act on his behalf. A default judgment was obtained by the appellants against the defendants in the action. The defendants applied to set aside that default judgment, but judgment was again entered in favour of the respondent on 24 April 1990. On 14 May the appellants wrote to the respondent in order to obtain instructions regarding the enforcement of the judgment. The next day the respondent’s wife telephoned the appellants and informed them that she and
Page 22 of [1993] 3 All ER 20
her husband were dissatisfied with the appellants’ performance and that they were no longer instructed to act for them. Having received that telephone call, the appellants wrote to the respondent on 15 May sending a gross sum bill in the sum of £528 inclusive of value added tax. By a letter of 16 May the respondent required the appellants to produce a detailed bill of costs and for those costs to be taxed. Pursuant to the respondent’s request, the appellants submitted their file to professional costs draftsmen, who produced a detailed bill amounting in total to £981·44 inclusive of value added tax. That detailed bill was delivered to the respondent. On 13 September the bill was lodged at the court and an application was made for taxation.
The first ground of appeal reads as follows:
‘The learned Judge erred in law in holding that on a review of taxation under Order 38 rule 24(4) of the County Court Rules 1981 the Court can only reject the opinion of taxing officer if he had regard to irrelevant considerations or failed to take into account relevant considerations or if his opinion was clearly wrong. The learned Judge ought to have held that on a review of taxation under Order 38 rule 24(4) of the County Court Rules 1981 the Court may hear the taxation afresh.’
On that aspect of the case the judge’s judgment reads as follows:
‘We have had the benefit of argument from experienced counsel. Nevertheless we dismiss the appeal. Our decision is based on the Wednesbury principle [Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223]: see Hart v Aga Khan Foundation (UK) [1984] 2 All ER 439 at 445–446, [1984] 1 WLR 994 at 1006. On this principle a court can reject the opinion of the taxing master only if he had regard to irrelevant considerations or failed to take into account relevant considerations or if his opinion was clearly wrong.’
I omit at this stage the following paragraph, which deals with another aspect. In the third paragraph of the judgment the judge said:
‘We are satisfied that he took into account what should have been taken into account, that he did not take into account irrelevant considerations and that his opinion was not wrong.’
I turn to look at Hart v Aga Khan Foundation (UK) [1984] 2 All ER 439, [1984] 1 WLR 994. That case concerned the taxation of a litigant in person’s bill of costs under the Litigants in Person (Costs and Expenses) Act 1975 and RSC Ord 62, r 28A. Rule 28A(2) provided:
‘The amount allowed in respect of any item shall be such sum as the taxing officer thinks fit not exceeding, except in the case of a disbursement, two-thirds of the sum which in the opinion of the taxing officer would have been allowed in respect of that item if the litigant had been represented by a solicitor.’
This paragraph, it can fairly be said, required the taxing officer to have regard to a hypothetical bill of costs. Cumming-Bruce LJ, giving the first judgment, with which Bush J agreed, said ([1984] 2 All ER 439 at 444–446, [1984] 1 WLR 994 at 1005–1006):
‘The exercise which is therein imposed on the taxing master is to apply his mind to all the problems which the preparation for the action, including in this case the preparation for the interlocutory injunction, would have imposed on a conscientious solicitor who is notionally regarded as doing the work. The work actually done by the litigant in person, to a greater or lesser degree, may afford some guidance as to the work which a solicitor would have done. That would
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depend upon the degree to which the litigant in person correctly appreciated the business involved. In many cases it is likely that the work actually done by a litigant in person will be of negligible assistance to the taxing master when considering what work a solicitor would have done on the case, but it is of course necessary for the taxing master to go carefully through the business involved in preparation for every stage of the trial … As a matter of construction r 28A(2) proceeds on the basis that it is for the taxing master to form an opinion on what would have been allowed. On a review, where a judge is sitting with assessors, it is in my view clearly open to the court sitting with such assessors, on review of the opinion of the taxing master, to vary the opinion of the taxing master either as to the number of hours that a notional solicitor would have taken or as to the fee that a notional solicitor would have obtained on taxation. But it is clear from the terms of the judgment that there was in the opinion of the court, sitting with assessors, no sufficient ground shown for substituting a different opinion for the opinion of the taxing master. The approach, in my view, is the approach which is relevant whenever legislation confides to a court the determination of fact or opinion to a specified body. It is open to a court on review to reject the opinion of the taxing master only if it is shown on Wednesbury principles (Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223) that the taxing master had regard to irrelevant considerations, or failed to take into account relevant considerations, or if the court is satisfied that the opinion of the taxing master on the facts was clearly wrong.’
With regard to this authority, the appellants submit that it has no relevance to the taxation of a solicitor’s bill of costs and is confined to the determination of costs payable to a litigant in person. The appellants draw the court’s attention to CCR Ord 38, rr 24(4) and (6). Rule 24(4) reads:
‘Any party who is dissatisfied with the registrar’s [district judge’s] decision on the reconsideration may, within 14 days, after being notified of it, apply to the judge to review the taxation as to the item or items to which it relates.’
Rule 24(6) reads:
‘Unless the judge otherwise directs, no further evidence shall be received on the hearing of an application under paragraph (4), and no ground of objection shall be raised which has not been raised in the applicant’s notice, but, save as aforesaid, on the hearing of the application the judge may exercise all such powers and discretion as are vested in the registrar [district judge] in relation to the subject matter of the application.’
The vital words are ‘all such powers and discretion as are vested in the [district judge] in relation to the subject matter of the application’. In my judgment, since the district judge and the judge have the same powers and discretion in relation to the subject matter of the application the judge’s discretion cannot be fettered by the manner in which the district judge exercised his discretion. It follows that I consider the judge was plainly wrong in believing himself to be bound by Hart v Aga Khan Foundation only to interfere if he thought that the registrar or district judge had not taken into account something he ought to have taken into account or had taken into account an irrelevant matter or that his opinion was clearly wrong.
In fairness to the learned judge, it should be said that the attention of the court has been drawn to a letter from counsel who settled the skeleton argument on behalf of the appellants, which reads as follows:
Page 24 of [1993] 3 All ER 20
‘At the application for leave, I undertook to Judge Edwards that I would inform the Court of Appeal that he had not been taken to the relevant provisions in the County Court Rules (Ord 38 Rule 24(6)) or to a report of the case of Hart v Aga Khan, which he cited in his judgment, at the review hearing. I did not appear at the review hearing but I suspect that the learned judge and his assessors relied on a passage in the County Court Practice, in the “Costs and Fees” section under the title “review of taxation”.’
That passage must, we think, be the following, which is to be found in The County Court Practice 1992 p 1967:
‘There has been some doubt as to the true nature of a review—is the judge conducting a rehearing of the taxation as is normally the case in an interlocutory appeal from a district judge or is it a true appeal in which he can only interfere with the registrar’s decision if demonstrably wrong? It would appear from the decision in Hart v Aga Khan Foundation (UK) [1984] 2 All ER 439, [1984] 1 WLR 994, CA that the latter position is the correct one.’
Then there is a quotation from Cumming-Bruce LJ’s judgment.
In my view, in so far as this passage in The County Court Practice 1992 purports to be of general application, it is wrong. I would only add this in relation to the decision of this court in Hart v Aga Khan Foundation. As I have indicated, it is clearly distinguishable from the present case. But, in my judgment, that case may require reconsideration on some future occasion if it becomes directly in point, since it is open to question whether the court on that occasion took account of RSC Ord 62, r 35(4), which stipulates that a judge, on a review of taxation, ‘may exercise all such powers and discretion as are vested in the taxing officer’. It is also noteworthy that in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 1 the notes to Ord 62, r 18, which is the rule now dealing with the taxation of the costs of litigants in person, cite Hart’s case, but not in relation to the point before this court.
I turn to consider the remaining grounds of appeal. Grounds 2, 3 and 4 read:
‘2. The learned Judge erred in holding that the taxing officer was entitled to have regard to the said former solicitors’ gross sum bill of costs. The learned Judge ought to have held that the said gross sum bill of costs was of no effect.
3. The decision of the learned Judge that the taxing officer had had regard to both the said second bill of costs and the said gross sum bill of costs was against the weight of the evidence. The learned Judge ought to have found that the taxing officer had had regard only to the said gross sum bill of costs.
4. Further or alternatively the learned Judge ought to have held that the taxing officer had taxed not the said second bill but the said gross sum bill.’
Counsel appearing for the appellants before this court has properly drawn our attention to s 64(2) of the Solicitors Act 1974. It reads:
‘The party chargeable with a gross sum bill may at any time—(a) before he is served with a writ or other originating process for the recovery of costs included in the bill, and (b) before the expiration of three months from the date on which the bill was delivered to him, require the solicitor to deliver, in lieu of that bill, a bill containing detailed items; and on such a requirement being made the gross sum bill shall be of no effect.’
What is submitted on behalf of the appellants is that far from treating the gross sum bill as being of no effect the deputy district judge in fact proceeded to tax the gross sum bill. In support of that argument our attention has been drawn to the deputy
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district judge’s letter of 2 April 1991 in which he gave his decision. At the bottom of the first page of that letter he said:
‘I considered the complaints made by Mr. Madurasinghe as set out in his letter to the Court dated the 25th February 1991 and the explanations put forward by the representative of Messrs, Don & Co. and concluded that the correct approach bearing in mind the nature of the case, the steps taken in the case and the fact that Counsel had been employed was to allow the amount of the original bill of costs submitted with the following alterations …’
He then set out some alterations, and continued: ‘The result of the above variations was to allow on taxation a total figure of £554-25.' It is unnecessary, in my judgment, to read more of the letter. It is apparent from the passage that I have read that the deputy district judge was in fact purporting to tax the gross sum bill. It is plain from s 64(2) of the 1974 Act, which I have read, that this he ought not to have done. Accordingly, in my judgment, grounds 2, 3 and 4 are also made out.
I would therefore allow the appeal and direct that the bill be returned for a district judge to tax it afresh.
HIRST LJ. I agree.
NOURSE LJ. I also agree.
Appeal allowed. Case remitted to a district judge to be dealt with afresh.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Seaboard Offshore Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport
The Safe Carrier
[1993] 3 All ER 25
Categories: EMPLOYMENT; Industrial Relations
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): STAUGHTON LJ AND BUCKLEY J
Hearing Date(s): 2 FEBRUARY 1993
Criminal law – Statutory offence – Absolute liability – Failing to operate ship in safe manner – Company chartering ship – Engine failure on ship – Failure due to fault by someone in company – Offence of failing to operate ship in safe manner – Whether offence of strict liability – Whether company vicariously liable for all acts of its employees – Merchant Shipping Act 1988, s 31.
Shipping – Offence – Failing to operate ship in safe manner – Absolute liability – Company chartering ship – Engine failure on ship – Failure due to fault by someone in company – Offence of failing to operate ship in safe manner – Whether offence of strict liability – Whether company vicariously liable for all acts of its employees – Merchant Shipping Act 1988, s 31.
The defendant company, the charterers of a vessel, was charged with failing to take all reasonable steps to secure that the vessel was operated in a safe manner. The
Page 26 of [1993] 3 All ER 25
vessel’s engine had broken down three times within a period of 24 hours, contrary to under s 31a of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 , leaving her drifting at sea. The justices found that the chief engineer, who was responsible for the mechanical running of the ship, had boarded the vessel for the first time less than three hours before the vessel had set sail when the minimum time necessary for him to familiarise himself with the machinery was three days. Having concluded that somebody in the company was at fault, and that failure by anybody in the company to take all reasonable steps to secure that the vessel was operated in a safe manner amounted to an offence by the company under s 31, the justices convicted the company, which appealed by case stated. The question arose whether s 31 of the 1988 Act imposed vicarious liability for all the employees of a shipowner.
Held – (1) Assuming that s 31 of the 1988 Act created an absolute offence, because the section was aimed at the protection of life and property at sea which was of such importance that Parliament might well have thought it necessary to impose sanctions even on persons who were ignorant or forgetful, and assuming therefore, in the absence of express mention of any criminal state of mind, that failing ‘to take all reasonable steps to secure that the ship is operated in a safe manner’ did not require the implication of a criminal state of mind, the wording of s 31 defined all that needed to be proved (see p 29 j to p 30 b e f and p 35 d e, post); Sweet v Parsley [1969] 1 All ER 347 and Gammon (Hong Kong) Ltd v A-G of Hong Kong [1984] 2 All ER 503 applied.
(2) However, notwithstanding the existence of strict liability, it did not automatically follow that the shipowners were vicariously liable for the actions of all their employees for the purposes of an offence under s 31 of the 1988 Act, since vicarious liability would only arise if that clearly appeared to have been the intention of Parliament. On the true construction of s 31 there was no imposition of vicarious liability for the defaults of every employee of the shipowner, however lowly his status, since the range of persons whose omissions could constitute a failure to take all reasonable steps to secure that a ship was operated in a safe manner was so wide that Parliament could not have intended to impose criminal liability on the owner in the case of an omission by any of his employees however junior in rank. Furthermore, the 1988 Act distinguished between defaults for which the owner, as opposed to the master and seamen, was liable and in that context it was unlikely that the owner was required to assume vicarious liability for everything done in operating the ship, whether on shore or on board and at sea. It followed that s 31 was aimed at fixing the owner with liability only in respect of such steps as it was reasonable for him to take in the circumstances and required more to be proved than merely that some employee of the company had failed to take all reasonable steps to secure that the vessel did not set to sea with an ill-informed chief engineer. Since the justices had not investigated how the company was managed and who might have been at fault, it followed that the charge against the company had not been made out. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 33 e f j, p 34 c j to p 35 h, post); Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127 applied.
Notes
For criminal liability for the acts of others, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 52–56, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 147–153, 1199–1250.
Page 27 of [1993] 3 All ER 25
Cases referred to in judgments
Barker v Levinson [1950] 2 All ER 825, [1951] 1 KB 342, DC.
Gammon (Hong Kong) Ltd v A-G of Hong Kong [1984] 2 All ER 503, [1985] AC 1, [1984] 3 WLR 437, PC.
Griffiths v Studebakers Ltd [1924] 1 KB 102, DC.
Linnett v Metropolitan Police Comr [1946] 1 All ER 380, [1946] KB 290, DC.
Mousell Bros Ltd v London and North-Western Rly Co [1917] 2 KB 836, [1916–17] All ER Rep 1101, DC.
R v Winson [1968] 1 All ER 197, [1969] 1 QB 371, [1968] 2 WLR 113, CA.
Sweet v Parsley [1969] 1 All ER 347, [1970] AC 132, [1969] 2 WLR 470, HL.
Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127, [1972] AC 153, [1971] 2 WLR 1166, HL.
Cases also cited
Alphacell Ltd v Woodward [1972] 2 All ER 475, [1972] AC 824, HL.
Bradshaw v Ewart-James [1983] 1 All ER 12, [1983] QB 671, DC.
Sherras v De Rutzen [1895] 1 QB 918, [1895–9] All ER Rep 1167, DC.
Case stated
Seaboard Offshore Ltd appealed by way of a case stated by the justices for Newcastle upon Tyne sitting at Market Street on 20 August and 18 September 1991, whereby on an information laid by the respondent, the Secretary of State for Transport, they convicted the appellant, the charterers of the mv Safe Carrier, of failing to take all reasonable steps to secure that the vessel was operated in a safe manner whilst sailing from the Tyne for Aberdeen on 6 September 1990, contrary to s 31 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988. The facts are set out in the judgment of Staughton LJ.
Nicholas Saunders (instructed by Richmonds, Newcastle upon Tyne) for the appellant.
Clare Montgomery (instructed by Eversheds Ingledew Wright, Newcastle upon Tyne) for the Secretary of State.
STAUGHTON LJ. On 6 September 1990 an offshore standby safety vessel, the mv Safe Carrier, left the River Tyne for Aberdeen at 7.50 p m. The chief engineer was Mr Carrigan. He had first boarded the vessel at 5.00 p m that day, and so had only 2 hours 50 minutes in which to familiarise himself with the machinery. During the next 24 hours the engines broke down on three occasions leaving the vessel drifting at sea.
At 11.00 am on 8 September she was taken in tow and brought back to the River Tyne. Seaboard Offshore Ltd were charged as charterers of the vessel. The case does not find that they were charterers, but it does find that they were managers. They were charged before the justices for the City of Newcastle upon Tyne in August 1991 with an offence under s 31 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988. That provides:
‘(1) It shall be the duty of the owner of a ship to which this section applies to take all reasonable steps to secure that the ship is operated in a safe manner …
(3) If the owner of a ship to which this section applies fails to discharge the duty imposed on him by subsection (1), he shall be guilty of an offence …’
The justices convicted Seaboard Offshore Ltd, but stated a case for the opinion of the High Court on the following questions:
‘(a) Does the principle of law governing the criminal responsibility of corporations confirmed by the House of Lords in Tesco Supermarkets Limited v
Page 28 of [1993] 3 All ER 25
Nattrass ([1971] 2 All ER 127, [1972] AC 153) apply to S. 31 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988?
(b) Was there any or sufficient evidence before the Magistrates to support a finding by them that there was some particular step that it was reasonable to expect the Appellant company to have taken in the circumstances of the case to secure that the Ship was operated in a safe manner that the company failed to take?
(c) Was such a finding one that a reasonable Magistrates’ Court could have made?’
The facts found by the justices were as follows in para 2 of the case:
‘(a) At 19.50 hours on 6th September 1990, M.V. Safe Carrier, which had recently been converted under Department of Transport supervision to an offshore standby safety vessel and was managed by Seaboard Offshore Limited, set sail for Aberdeen from the River Tyne, under the command of Captain Russell, an officer with 45 years’ experience at sea including 26 years as a Master of which 9 years had been as Master of standby and supply vessels. The ship was fully certificated by the Department of Transport and Germanischer Lloyd. (b) Mr. Carrigan, the Chief Engineer responsible for the operational mechanical running of the ship and the holder of a Class I Marine Engineer Officer Combined Certificate for 27 years had boarded the vessel for the first time 2 hours 50 minutes beforehand at 1700 hours. He was on duty for 7 hours between joining the ship and retiring to bed. (c) Early the next morning both main engines and generators stopped working, leaving the Ship in total blackout. The engine room emergency lighting did not come on. (d) On realising that the engine service tanks were empty Mr. Carrigan pumped by hand fuel from the settling tanks into the service tanks and managed to restart the engines at 07.05 hours. (e) The service tanks had run dry because the fuel oil purifier throughput was inadequate to meet the engine demand. This was caused by an incorrect gravity feed disc, which had been fitted to the purifier. (f) At 11.30 hours the engines and generators stopped working again for the same reason but at 15.00 hours were restarted a second time by hand pumping fuel into the service tanks. (g) Mr. Carrigan then thought that the settling and service tanks were almost empty, but remembered being told by the outgoing Chief Engineer that the centre bunker tank contained 60 tons of fuel. (h) He found that none of the valves on the three tanks were marked but relying on what he had been told opened the centre tank valve to release its contents directly into the starboard service tank. This was an error of judgment on his part because it is bad marine practice, when transferring fuel to the service tank, not to take it via the settling tank. (i) Unfortunately that action resulted in water flooding the engines and once again the ship [came] to a halt. It lay drifting until at 11.00 hours on 8th September 1990 it was towed back into the River Tyne. (j) It was accepted that at no time was the ship in any danger. (k) The Master was not pressurized by the Appellant company to proceed to sea. (l) It is not the policy of the Appellant company to pressurize its Masters to proceed to sea. (m) The Chief Engineer knew that he was responsible to the Master for the safe mechanical operation of the ship, and that he owed a duty to the Master to inform him if he considered it unsafe to put to sea. (n) The Chief Engineer was content for the ship to put to sea when she did and considered that it was safe to do so, although he was aware it was not the best practice. (o) The minimum time necessary for a Chief Engineer to familiarize himself with a converted ship is 3 days.’
Page 29 of [1993] 3 All ER 25
After reciting the contentions of the parties, in para 6, the justices stated their opinion as follows:
‘1. The principle of law governing the criminal responsibility of corporations confirmed by the House of Lords in Tesco Supermarkets Limited v Nattrass ([1971] 2 All ER 127, [1972] AC 153) was overridden by S. 31 Merchant Shipping Act 1988 which places a duty on the “owner” to take all reasonable steps to secure that a ship was operated in a safe manner.
2. “Owner” under S. 31(4) includes Charterer of a Ship.
3. For a limited company to be convicted of an offence under S. 31 it is necessary for the prosecution to prove beyond reasonable doubt that there was some particular step that it was reasonable to expect the Company to have taken in the circumstances.
4. In this case, we found the Company had caused the ship to be operated in an unsafe manner by only allowing the Chief Engineer two hours fifty minutes in which to familiarise himself with the Ship before sailing, and were therefore unanimously and firmly of the opinion that the information was proved.’
What the case does not find is who decided that the vessel should go to sea before the chief engineer had had sufficient time to become familiar with the engines. Evidently the justices found that somebody decided that the ship should go to sea. That must have been the case, but they do not say who reached that conclusion. It may be that there was no evidence upon which they could do so. Nor are there findings for example, as to what instructions should be given by a shipowner to his subordinates in order to prevent that happening, nor as to whether any such instructions were given.
Miss Montgomery for the respondent, the Secretary of the State for Transport, submits that one can infer from the justices’ conclusion in para 6(4) of the case that the owners had not given an instruction that none of their ships should go to sea before the officers had had time to familiarise themselves with the equipment. Therefore, Miss Montgomery submits, if this is an offence of absolute liability, or perhaps even if it is not, the conviction should stand.
I am afraid that I cannot draw that inference from para 6(4) of the case. The justices had been at pains to say in para 6(1) that the Tesco principle did not apply. I am not able to draw the inference that in para 6(4) they were making a finding which would justify conviction even if the Tesco principle did apply. To my mind they concluded that there was fault by somebody in the company, and that a failure by anybody in the company to take all reasonable steps to secure that the vessel was operated in a safe manner gave rise to an offence by the company under s 31 of the 1988 Act.
There are, as it seems to me, two separate points to consider in connection with the interpretation of s 31. First, does it provide for strict or absolute liability? Or is this a case where the general rule applies that prohibited conduct does not amount to a crime unless there is also a criminal state of mind? Secondly, is there vicarious liability under the section on the part of an owner if any of his employees fails to comply with the requirements of the section, or is there a crime only if the owner himself or someone whose omission is to be attributed to him fails to comply?
As to the first question, strict liability, I am prepared to assume, without deciding, that the section creates an absolute offence and that no criminal state of mind need be proved. I say that for two reasons. First, there is the nature of the offence described, which is failing to take all reasonable steps to secure that the ship is operated in a safe manner. That seems to me to define all that needs to be proved. Of course, as has been said in the past, very often a section does not expressly
Page 30 of [1993] 3 All ER 25
mention any criminal state of mind, but nevertheless the law implies that a criminal state of mind must be proved. However, in this case failing to take all reasonable steps seems to me rather less likely to require that implication. Secondly, and perhaps this is of greater significance, the section is aimed at the protection of life and property at sea, which is of such importance that Parliament may well have thought it necessary to impose sanctions even on those who are merely ignorant or forgetful. In Sweet v Parsley [1969] 1 All ER 347 at 362, [1970] AC 132 at 163 Lord Diplock said:
‘But where the subject-matter of a statute is the regulation of a particular activity involving potential danger to public health, safety or morals, in which citizens have a choice as to whether they participate or not, the court may feel driven to infer an intention of Parliament to impose, by penal sanctions, a higher duty of care on those who choose to participate and to place on them an obligation to take whatever measures may be necessary to prevent the prohibited act, without regard to those considerations of cost or business practicability which play a part in the determination of what would be required of them in order to fulfil the ordinary common law duty of care.’
Similarly, in Gammon (Hong Kong) Ltd v A-G of Hong Kong [1984] 2 All ER 503 at 508, [1985] AC 1 at 14 Lord Scarman delivering the advice of the Judicial Committee said:
‘… the only situation in which the presumption can be displaced is where the statute is concerned with an issue of social concern; public safety is such an issue …’
So, as I have said, I am prepared to assume that this section imposes a duty of strict or absolute liability. Furthermore, s 32 of the 1988 Act inserts a new section in the Merchant Shipping Act 1970 which deals with the criminal liability of masters and seamen. That section in turn in sub-s (3) imposes a requirement either that ‘the act or omission was deliberate or amounted to a breach or neglect of duty’, or that ‘the master or seaman in question was under the influence of drink or a drug at the time of the act or omission’. So there is provision there as to the state of mind of the offender. There is none such in s 31.
The second question is whether the section provides for vicarious liability of an owner for his employees. There is some difference in the authorities as to whether in all cases where an offence of absolute liability is created by statute it follows that there is also vicarious liability. I shall refer to the authorities in a moment. Miss Montgomery was not prepared to go as far as that. She does not say that the creation of an absolute duty by statute necessarily leads to vicarious liability. She accepts that they are separate concepts, and she also accepts the statement of principle ostensibly from Mousell Bros Ltd v London and North-Western Rly Co [1917] 2 KB 836, [1916–17] All ER Rep 1101: see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 54, n 1. I shall refer to that also. But she does say that it follows almost as the night the day that if there is absolute liability there must also be vicarious liability.
I must look at the authorities on that point. I start with 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws para 35:
‘… Criminal liability of a corporation arises where an offence is committed in the course of the corporation’s business by a person in control of its affairs to such a degree that it may fairly be said to think and act through him so that his actions and intent are the actions and intent of the corporation. It is not enough that the person whose conduct it is sought to impute to the corporation is a manager or responsible agent or high executive; whether persons are the “directing mind and will” of the corporation, so that their conduct in its affairs
Page 31 of [1993] 3 All ER 25
becomes the conduct of the corporation, must depend on all the circumstances … A corporation is vicariously liable for a crime committed by its servant or agent in the course of his employment or agency in the same circumstances as an employer or principal who is a natural person.’
That refers one forward to later paragraphs. Paragraph 52 provides:
‘Vicarious liability; the general rule. In general a master or principal is not criminally liable for an offence committed by his servant or agent even though it is committed in the course of the employment or agency. There is no presumption that a crime committed by a servant or agent in the course of his duties has been authorised by the master or principal. To this general rule, however, there are exceptions both at common law and under statute.’
Paragraph 54 deals with vicarious liability in relation to statutory offences. It provides:
‘… Criminal liability may be imposed by statute on a master or principal for the acts or omissions of his servant or agent either expressly or by implication. The implication may arise either because a person has delegated to another the performance of his own statutory duties or because the acts of another may be in law his own acts. Such liability may arise where the offence is one requiring mens rea or one imposing strict liability.’
Footnote 1 reads:
‘To determine whether a statute impliedly imposes vicarious liability, regard must be had to “the object of the statute, the words used, the nature of the duty laid down, the person upon whom it is imposed, the person by whom it would in ordinary circumstances be performed, and the person upon whom the penalty is imposed”: Mousell Bros Ltd v London and North-Western Rly Co ([1917] 2 KB 836 at 845, [1916–17] All ER Rep 1101 at 1106) per Atkin J …’
That sentence is something of an elision of what Atkin J said in Mousell, as I shall show. Paragraph 55 deals with vicarious liability in the case of statutory offences which do involve a criminal state of mind. I need not read that in the light of the assumption I have made. I turn to para 56:
‘Statutory offences of strict liability. Even where an offence is one of strict liability, vicarious liability can arise only where this appears clearly to have been the intention of the legislature. Where the offence is so defined as to impose a strict duty upon a person, that person may be liable in respect of the performance of that duty by his servant or agent, whether there has been delegation or not, if to hold otherwise would be to render the statutory provision ineffective …’
There are two footnotes in particular to that paragraph, but we were told that they deal for the most part with licensing cases, which are perhaps a special category.
If the law is correctly stated in Halsbury’s Laws, even in the case of an offence of strict liability there will not be vicarious liability unless that clearly appears to have been the intention of the legislature. There are observations in some of the cases which suggest that the law goes further than that. First of all, there is Mousell itself, where Lord Reading CJ said([1917] 2 KB 836 at 843, [1916–17] All ER Rep 1101 at 1105):
‘It follows that where the act forbidden is one of the character described by Channell J. the principal is liable for the doing of the forbidden act by his
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servant; and the question before us is whether the acts forbidden by s. 99 [of the Railway Clauses Consolidation Act 1845] are such that if done by a servant or agent the principal is so made liable.’
Atkin J said ([1917] 2 KB 836 at 845, [1916–17] All ER Rep 1101 at 1106):
‘I think that the authorities cited by my Lord make it plain that while prima facie a principal is not to be made criminally responsible for the acts of his servants, yet the Legislature may prohibit an act or enforce a duty in such words as to make the prohibition or the duty absolute; in which case the principal is liable if the act is in fact done by his servants.’
That is the passage which I said was somewhat elided in the footnote in Halsbury’s Laws.
Then there is Griffiths v Studebakers Ltd [1924] 1 KB 102 at 105 where Lord Hewart CJ cited with apparent approval the passage from the judgment of Atkin J in the Mousell case which I have just read. Later he said (at 106):
‘… it would defeat the scheme of this legislation if it were open to an employer, whether a company, a firm, or an individual, to say that although the car was being used under the limited licence in contravention of the conditions upon which it was granted: “My hand was not the hand that drove the car.”’
Vicarious liability was upheld in that case. Sankey J too evidently held that the fact the offence was one of strict liability was relevant. It is however right to observe that that was a case on the prohibition of driving a car under certain circumstances, and it was not to be supposed that the owners who had the licence, the company, would themselves be driving the car, but rather that their employees would be.
In Barker v Levinson [1950] 2 All ER 825 at 827, [1951] 1 KB 342 at 344–345 Lord Goddard CJ said:
‘The principle underlying the cases which deal with the criminal responsibility of a master for the act of his servant can be stated in this way. The master is responsible for a criminal act of the servant if the act is done within the general scope of the servant’s employment. In other words, if a master chooses to delegate the conduct of his business to a servant, then, if the servant, in the course of conducting the business, does an act which is absolutely prohibited, the master is liable …’
Lord Goddard CJ went on to refer to Linnett v Metropolitan Police Comr [1946] 1 All ER 380, [1946] KB 290, which was a licensing case; and it may be that the doctrine of delegation is somewhat different from the general question of vicarious liability.
Finally on this topic there is R v Winson [1968] 1 All ER 197, [1969] 1 QB 371. There the licensee of a public house was charged with knowingly selling intoxicating liquor to somebody who was not qualified to be served as a member of a club. The licensee himself had not sold to anybody because he was not on the premises, but he had delegated control of the premises to a manager. He was convicted. Lord Parker CJ, after referring to the doctrine of delegation, said ([1968] 1 All ER 197 at 202, [1969] 1 QB 371 at 382):
‘It is, therefore, necessary to look a little further back into the inception of this doctrine. It is to be observed in the first instance that this doctrine is something quite independent of the principles which come into play when Parliament has created an absolute offence. When an absolute offence has been created by Parliament, then the person on whom a duty is thrown is responsible, whether he has delegated or whether he has acted through a servant; he is absolutely
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liable regardless of any intent or knowledge or mens rea. The principle of delegation comes into play, and only comes into play, in cases where, although the statute uses words which import knowledge or intent such as in this case “knowingly” or in some other cases “permitting” or “suffering” and the like, cases to which knowledge is inherent, nevertheless it has been held that a man cannot get out of the responsibilities which have been put on him by delegating those responsibilities to another.’
Those are powerful observations; but nevertheless it seems to me that one cannot decide this quetion without looking at the statute with which one is concerned. Indeed, as I have said, Miss Montgomery says that it does not follow automatically, although she is not prepared to concede much more than that. In my judgment, there are cases, as para 56 of Halsbury’s Laws acknowledges, where, despite the existence of strict liability, one has to look at the statute to see whether vicarious liability was intended. So to that I now turn.
There is a very wide range of omissions which would constitute failure to take all reasonable steps to secure that a ship is operated in a safe manner. There is also a very wide range of persons whose omissions would have that effect. Starting at the top, the managing director of a company may fail to arrange for repairs when he knows that the ship is leaking. At the other end of the scale, the second officer may steer the ship so that she goes on the rocks or runs aground, and may do so carelessly. The second engineer may carelessly allow the engines to overheat and be damaged. The bosun or even the cabin steward may fail to close the port-holes. It is that wide range of persons who may be involved which leads me to doubt whether Parliament intended to impose criminal liability upon the owner in the case of an omission by any of his employees however junior in rank. If Parliament had intended that, I would have expected the section to say so in plain terms. Instead, it provides that the owner of the ship shall ‘take all reasonable steps to secure that the ship is operated in a safe manner’. If there had been a different intention it would have been simpler to say ‘the owner of the ship shall take all reasonable steps to operate the ship in a safe manner’.
Furthermore, there are in the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 three consecutive sections which touch on this topic, albeit in significantly different terms. Two of them are derived from sections in earlier legislation; s 31, on the other hand, is new. Nevertheless one must consider these three sections together. Section 30 provides that the master and owner of a ship shall be guilty of an offence if by reason of any of the matters mentioned in sub-s (3) she is not fit to go to sea without serious danger to human life. The matters in sub-s (3) are the condition, or the unsuitability of the ship, or its machinery, or any part of it, or undermanning, or overloading or unsafe or improper loading, or any other matter relevant to the safety of the ship. So there the master and owners face criminal liability in the case of a ship which is not fit to go to sea.
Section 31 then deals with the operation of the ship, but it does not deal with it directly. It says that the owner is ‘to take all reasonable steps to secure that the ship is operated in a safe manner’. Section 32 deals with liability of the master and seamen for doing any act which causes or is likely to cause the loss or destruction or serious damage to the ship, and so forth, or omitting to do anything required to preserve the ship or its machinery etc.
In that context it does not seem to me that the owner was to assume vicarious liability for everything that was done in operating the ship, whether on shore or on board and at sea. There is a further pointer in that direction in s 31(4). This provides:
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‘Where any such ship—(a) is chartered by demise, or (b) is managed, either wholly or in part, by a person other than the owner under the terms of a management agreement within the meaning of section 30, any reference to the owner of the ship in subsection (1) or (3) above shall be construed as including a reference—(i) to the charterer under the charter by demise, or (ii) to any such manager as is referred to in paragraph (b), or (iii) (if the ship is both chartered and managed as mentioned above) to both the charterer and any such manager, and accordingly the reference in subsection (1) to the taking of all reasonable steps shall, in relation to the owner, the charterer or any such manager, be construed as a reference to the taking of all such steps as it is reasonable for him to take in the circumstances of the case.’
That, it seems to me, points towards the duty being a personal duty upon the owner or charterer or manager, as the case may be, and not a duty the breach of which can arise by means of vicarious liability.
Then the question arises for whose faults is an owner liable under the section. If the ship is owned by a natural person, it is he on whom the duty is imposed. If, instead of managing his shipowning business himself, he entrusts the management to others, it may be that he is liable if the duty is not performed. Alternatively, if the managers are such as are defined in s 30, it would be their liability; but the problem of where the owner is a natural person does not arise in this case.
Where the owner is a limited company, the duty must be performed by those who manage the shipowning business of the company. A number of metaphors have been used to illustrate this concept in considering the liability of a company. They can be found in the Tesco Supermarkets case—the brain, the nerve centre, the directing mind and will, the alter ego, the very ego and centre of the personality of the corporation. In that case Lord Diplock said ([1971] 2 All ER 127 at 155, [1972] AC 153 at 199–200):
‘In my view, therefore, the question: what natural persons are to be treated in law as being the company for the purpose of acts done in the course of its business, including the taking of precautions and the exercise of due diligence to avoid the commission of a criminal offence, is to be found by identifying those natural persons who by the memorandum and articles of association or as a result of action taken by the directors, or by the company in general meeting pursuant to the articles, are entrusted with the exercise of the powers of the company.’
We do not need to consider precisely what persons’ failure to take all reasonable steps would involve criminal liability on the part of Seaboard Offshore Ltd in the present case. Indeed we cannot do so for we have neither the evidence nor the findings of the justices which would show how the company was managed and would enable us to undertake that task. The reasoning of the justices was that somebody must have failed to take all reasonable steps to secure that the vessel did not set to sea with an ill-informed chief engineer, and that somebody must have been an employee of the company.
I can readily understand and accept both those conclusions, but, in my judgment, notwithstanding the importance of safety of life at sea, s 31 requires more to be proved than that before criminal liability is imposed on the owner. Parliament did not, as I think, impose liability for the defaults of every employee of the owner however lowly this status. In this case it may have been the fault of the master that the ship went to sea before the chief engineer had had a proper opportunity to familiarise himself with the machinery. It may have been the fault of the chief engineer, it may have been the fault of the marine superintendent or the engineering
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superintendent, or it may have been the fault of the managing director himself in failing to lay down proper regulations. We cannot tell.
I would hold that the charge against the company was not made out in this case.
As to the justices’ questions, in my opinion s 31 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 does not impose vicarious liability for all the employees of a shipowner, and in consequence the principle of the Tesco Supermarkets case applies. That is question (a). With regard to question (b), ‘Was there any or sufficient evidence before the magistrates to support a finding by them that there was some particular step that it was reasonable to expect the appellant company to have taken …’, they did not in terms make a finding of some particular step which the appellant company should have taken. They merely found that somebody had allowed the chief engineer only 2 hours and 50 minutes with which to familiarise himself with the ship before sailing. It is not proved that that somebody was one who engages the liability of the company.
In those circumstances, there is no need to answer question (c), ‘Was such a finding one that a reasonable magistrates’ court could have made?’
BUCKLEY J. I agree with Staughton LJ. I add very few words, only out of deference to counsel’s argument and a recognition that the point at issue here is of no little importance.
As is apparent from a consideration of the facts found in this case, which Staughton LJ has recited, it is clear that there was no investigation into the delegation or possible delegation by Seaboard Offshore Ltd of its duty to take all reasonable steps to secure the safe operation of this ship. It seems to me that it is therefore not possible to support this conviction on the basis that Seaboard delegated a duty to someone who failed to carry it out. In those circumstances the only basis for a conviction would be if s 31 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 on its true construction provides that the owner, or, in this case, manager, is criminally liable for acts or omissions of its servants or agents generally.
For the reasons given by Staughton LJ, I too have little hesitation in answering that question in the negative. I believe, in particular, that assistance is gained from the last four lines of sub-s (4) of s 31 which, if I read them correctly, are aimed at fixing the owner, charterer or manager respectively with liability only in respect of such steps as it is reasonable for him to take in the circumstances of the case. Thus, if an owner or charterer has entered into a perfectly proper management contract, whilst there may still be a failure by him, he would not be automatically criminally liable for failings by the manager.
It seems to me that the spirit of those four lines strongly supports the conclusion that Staughton LJ has reached and with which I wholly agree.
Appeal allowed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that the following points of law of general public importance were involved in the decision: (i) whether s 31 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 creates an offence of strict liability and (ii) whether a manager is or may be vicari-ously liable for a breach of duty under s 31 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 which arises from any act or omission by any of the manager’s servants or agents.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Re S (a minor) (independent representation)
[1993] 3 All ER 36
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, ROSE AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 16, 17, 26 FEBRUARY 1993
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Parties to proceedings – Guardian ad litem – Application by minor to conduct proceedings without guardian ad litem – Mother and father contesting applications for residence and contact orders – Child made party to proceedings and Official Solicitor appointed guardian ad litem – Child applying for leave to conduct proceedings without guardian ad litem and for removal of Official Solicitor as guardian ad litem – Whether parents entitled to be heard on child’s application – Whether leave should be granted to minor to conduct proceedings without guardian ad litem – Family Proceedings Rules 1991, r 9.2A(4)(6).
The appellant, S, was an 11-year-old boy whose mother obtained a decree nisi of divorce in 1985. Since then S had lived with his mother but had seen his father frequently and regularly. Every detail of his care and upbringing had been the subject of continuous, acrimonious and persistent litigation between the parents, whose views about his future differed radically and irreconcilably, culminating in unresolved and strongly contested applications before the court under s 8 of the Children Act 1989 to determine whether S should continue to live with his mother or with his father and what contact S should have with the other parent. By an order made on 17 September 1992 S became a party to the proceedings and the Official Solicitor was appointed to act as his guardian ad litem. The Official Solicitor’s recommendation in his reports to the court was that S should continue to live with his mother but have less contact with his father. The father, supported by S, challenged that recommendation and contended that S should live with him. At the outset of the hearing to determine the issues of residence and contact, S, who was represented by solicitors and counsel, applied to the judge under r 9.2A(4)a of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991 for leave to conduct the remaining stages of the proceedings without a guardian ad litem and for the removal of the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem. Rule 9.2A(6) of the 1991 rules required the judge to grant such leave if he considered that S had ‘sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings ... without a ... guardian ad litem’. The judge held that the mother and father (in addition to S and the Official Solicitor) were entitled to be heard on S’s application and then, having heard all the parties, refused the application. S appealed, contending that the judge should not have heard his parents on the application and should not have refused it.
Held – (1) Although the 1991 rules did not expressly confer any right on S’s parents to be heard on his application and could not be construed as doing so implicitly, nevertheless a judge always had a discretion to hear any party whom he thought it necessary or desirable to hear in the interests of justice. Since both the mother’s and the father’s submissions on whether S had sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings were of obvious importance and relevance, the judge had been right to regard the parents as parties whom he should hear (see p 46 g h, post).
(2) In determining for the purposes of r 9.2A(6) of 1991 rules whether a child had sufficient understanding to participate as a party in proceedings without a guardian
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ad litem the court had to assess the understanding of the child in the context of the proceedings in which he or she sought to participate and relative to the issues in those proceedings. The appropriate test was the attainment by the child of an age of sufficient discretion to enable him or her to exercise a wise choice in his or her own interests, but where any sound judgment on the issues in the proceedings called for insight and imagination which only maturity and experience could bring, the court would be slow to conclude that the child’s understanding was sufficient. The proceedings between S’s parents as to his residence and contact were emotionally complex and highly fraught and would require the application of an objective, experienced judgment such as the Official Solicitor and those whom he consulted were peculiarly well fitted to supply. Accordingly, the judge had been right to conclude that in the circumstances S lacked sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings without a guardian ad litem. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 43 j to p 44 a, p 46 j to p 47 e, post); dictum of Lord Scarman in Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402 at 423 applied.
Per curiam. The provisions of r 9.2A(4) and (6) of the 1991 rules with respect to applying for or granting leave and removing the next friend or guardian ad litem are to be read conjunctively, so that if the court grants leave under para (4) it must also remove the next friend or guardian ad litem (see p 44 g, post).
Notes
For contact and other orders with respect to children in family proceedings, see 5(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 770–780.
For the Children Act 1989, s 8, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 400.
Cases referred to in judgment
A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385, [1982] AC 363, [1981] 2 WLR 948, HL.
Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112, [1985] 3 WLR 830, HL.
H (a minor) (care proceedings), Re [1992] 2 FCR 330.
H and anor (minors), Re [1992] CA Transcript 769.
T (a minor), Re (28 January 1993, unreported), Fam D.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A and ors (minors) (residence order), Re [1992] 3 All ER 872, [1992] Fam 182, CA.
AD (a minor), Re [1993] Fam Law 43.
Coulson v Disborough [1894] 2 QB 316, CA.
Enoch and Zaretzky Bock & Co’s Arbitration, Re [1910] 1 KB 327, [1908–10] All ER Rep 625, CA.
F v S (adoption: ward) [1973] 1 All ER 722, [1973] Fam 203, CA.
F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1, HL.
Fallon v Calvert [1960] 1 All ER 281, [1960] 2 QB 201, CA.
G (a minor) (wardship: costs) [1982] 2 All ER 32, [1982] 1 WLR 438, CA.
G (minor: care order), Re (1992) Times, 19 November.
Gaskill v Gaskill [1921] P 425, [1921] All ER Rep 365.
Harbin v Masterman [1896] 1 Ch 351, [1895–9] All ER Rep 695, CA.
Keyes v Keyes and Gray [1921] P 204.
Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201, HL.
Owen v Fenwick (22 October 1984, unreported), Ch D.
Page 38 of [1993] 3 All ER 36
Practice Direction [1992] 1 All ER 421, [1992] 1 WLR 147.
R v B—— CC, ex p P [1991] 2 All ER 65, [1991] 1 WLR 221, CA.
R v D [1984] 2 All ER 449, [1984] AC 778, HL.
Tomlinson v Tomlinson [1980] 1 All ER 593, [1980] 1 WLR 332, DC.
W (a minor) (medical treatment), Re [1992] 4 All ER 627, [1993] Fam 64, CA.
Whittall, Re, Whittall v Faulkner [1973] 3 All ER 35, [1973] 1 WLR 1027.
Interlocutory appeal
By notice of appeal dated 15 February 1993 S, a boy aged 11, appealed from (1) the order of Judge Callman sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Family Division dated 8 February 1993 whereby he held that S’s father and mother had a right to be heard on the merits of an application by S under r 9.2A(4) of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991, SI 1991/1247, for leave to defend without a guardian ad litem the remaining stages of proceedings brought by the father for residence and contact orders, to which he had by order of District Judge White dated 17 September 1992 been made a party, and for the removal of the Official Solicitor, who had been appointed as his guardian ad litem, and (2) the order of Judge Callman dated 10 February 1993 refusing the application. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Roderic Wood (instructed by Mishcon de Reya) for S.
Richard Bond (instructed by the Official Solicitor) for the guardian ad litem.
Patricia Scotland QC and Kharin Cox (instructed by Hornby & Levy) for the mother.
The father did not appear.
Cur adv vult
26 February 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. The appellant in this case is a boy whom we shall call ‘S’. He is 111 /4, having been born on 20 November 1981. His parents were married in January 1979. In October 1984 his mother petitioned for divorce and in June 1985 a decree nisi was granted. Since his parents separated S has lived with his mother. He has seen his father frequently and regularly and has visited his father’s family in North America. But every detail of his care and upbringing has been the subject of continuous, acrimonious and persistent litigation between his parents, whose views about his future differ radically and irreconcilably.
There are now before the court unresolved and strongly contested applications to determine whether S should continue to live with his mother or whether he should move to live with his father; and to decide what contact S should have with the parent with whom he does not live. The outcome of these applications will determine where he should go to school. Under an order made on 17 September 1992 S became a party to the proceedings and the Official Solicitor has made two reports to the court, dated 19 January and 5 February 1993 respectively. He has also presented a lengthy report and two supplementary reports by a consultant child psychiatrist.
The Official Solicitor’s recommendation to the court, supported by the consultant psychiatrist, is that S should continue to live with his mother but should continue to have contact with his father, although less often than at present. The father challenges that recommendation and contends that S should live with him. In this he is supported by S. It is this divergence of view between S and the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem which gives rise to the present appeal.
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On 8 February 1993 Judge Callman, who has dealt with the parents’ litigation over a number of years, was due to embark on a hearing to determine these issues about residence and contact. But at the outset of the hearing S, who was represented by solicitors and counsel, applied to the judge for leave to prosecute the remaining stages of the proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem and for the removal of the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem.
The judge had first to decide whether the mother and the father (in addition to S and the Official Solicitor) were entitled to be heard on that application by S. It was argued for S that under the Family Proceedings Rules 1991, SI 1991/1247, his parents were not entitled to be heard. The judge did not agree. He said in his judgment on that point:
‘I take the view that there are overriding considerations of natural justice which require those who are concerned with the welfare of a child to be present, and for that reason I will allow both the parents to be present and represented during the preliminary application for reasons of overriding natural justice. I think the parents must inevitably hear the outcome of this application and I can therefore see no reason why they should not be present during it, and contribute such relevant matters which are strictly relevant to the issue.’
That ruling is challenged by S on this appeal. The judge also ruled that S himself should not be present in court when his application for leave to act without a guardian ad litem and to remove the Official Solicitor was heard. That ruling has not been challenged.
The judge then went on to hear S’s application, made by counsel on his behalf. The Official Solicitor opposed the application, calling as a witness the consultant psychiatrist whose reports were before the court. The mother, who was represented by counsel, supported the Official Solicitor. The father, who appeared in person, supported S. The judge refused S’s application. He alluded to the possibility, expressly raised by the consultant psychiatrist, that S’s expressed wishes might be the product of influence exerted by his father and concluded: ‘If ever a case in my judgment cries out for a guardian ad litem this case does.' He shared the view of the consultant psychiatrist that ‘S should be shielded from being pro-active before a court either by himself or through a mouthpiece’. S now appeals against the judge’s refusal of his application. The Official Solicitor and the mother support the judge’s decision. The father has not attended the hearing of the appeal, although he made a written statement to this court of which we have taken note.
The proposition that a boy of 11 should be accorded the full rights of a litigant to intervene in a dispute between his parents about the arrangements best suited to promote his welfare (including his emotional, psychological, intellectual and social development) may be surprising to some. But it is said to be justified by the reforms made by the Children Act 1989 in the law and practice relating to children. It is accordingly helpful to look briefly at those reforms in a general way before considering the detailed provisions in issue here.
THE BACKGROUND TO THE LEGISLATION
The Children Act 1989 was a statute with many purposes. A complete code was to be provided for social work intervention in the care of children, incorporating the lessons learned from the Cleveland inquiry (Report of the Inquiry into Child Abuse in Cleveland 1987 (Cm 412)) and other cases which had attracted national concern. The extent to which that would be subject to supervision and control by the courts would be prescribed in detail, thus putting an end to the tensions created by coexistence of statutory powers vested in local authorities with prerogative powers
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of the sovereign parens patriae vested in the judges of the High Court (see A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385, [1982] AC 363). The opportunity would be taken at the same time of codifying in one statute the numerous enactments into which child care law had become confusingly fragmented.
The purposes of the 1989 Act were not, however, solely legislative. They were in part declaratory of the attitudes and purposes that were to inform and direct the courts and other agencies in dealing with children. The child’s welfare was to be treated uniformly as the paramount consideration. Delay was to be avoided. Basic freedoms were to be emphasised and officiousness discouraged, through application of the rubric that no order should be made in respect of a child unless the court considered that to do so would be better for the child than making no order at all. Every opportunity was to be afforded for the child’s own views to be communicated and, where appropriate, explained through independent representation.
The objectives are evident not only from the terms of the 1989 Act itself, but also from the public statements which preceded its enactment. We have, in addition, been helpfully referred by counsel to a number of antecedent and subsequent publications, including the Law Commission’s report on Family Law: Review of Child Law: Custody (working paper no 96 (1986)) and final report Family Law: Review of Child Law: Guardianship and Custody (Law Com no 172 (1988)), the Department of Health’s publications An Introduction to the Children Act 1989 (1989), The Children Act 1989: Guidance and Regulations (1991) and Manual of Practice Guidance for Guardians ad litem and Reporting Officers (1992) and the Family Law publication The Child as Client (1992).
The rule which prohibits a minor from bringing or defending proceedings otherwise than through a next friend or guardian ad litem (now embodied in RSC Ord 80, r 2) is of long standing. Advantage was taken of it in the wardship jurisdiction to enable the ward’s best interests to be examined independently of the competing claims or arguments of the main parties. It became common practice, in cases where the court required an independent investigation, or a medical or other opinion to be obtained, or where it was thought that the child’s views should be presented to the court through an independent source, for the ward to be joined as a party and represented by a guardian ad litem who would perform those functions. Throughout the present century that duty has invariably been carried out by the Official Solicitor. It was a multiple function, for he acted not only as the child’s solicitor and spokesman but also as an officer of the court with an independent brief to investigate issues of fact or divergent expert opinion and address the court as to the requirements of the best interests of the child. Instances would be bound to occur when the reconciliation of all those functions would prove impossible, and the guardian ad litem would be forced into a position of having to advocate a course of action which conflicted directly with the views and instructions of his child client.
Before the enactment of the 1989 Act a parallel, though more limited, procedure was available to the magistrates’ courts under the Children and Young Persons Act 1969, which empowered the court in cases of conflict of interest between a child and its parents to appoint a guardian ad litem for the child.
The 1989 Act and the rules of court passed under it have made radical changes in this respect. An exception is introduced to the general law of disability, in that a minor is permitted in family proceedings to conduct a case in person or to instruct his own solicitor in certain prescribed circumstances. Those circumstances vary, however, according to the nature of the proceedings. Thus (as explained in more detail below) in cases in the public field where a local authority is applying for a care order s 41 of the 1989 Act makes it mandatory for a guardian ad litem to be appointed unless the court is satisfied that such an appointment is unnecessary. There is no
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equivalent provision in the case of ordinary family proceedings between parents. This tacit recognition that the requirements for a child’s representation may be different as between the two regimes of public and private law is matched in the subsidiary legislation, where there are striking differences between the procedures laid down by Pt IV of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991 in the case of care proceedings and those applicable to private law cases under Pt IX. In the former case, for example, it is possible for circumstances to arise in which a child may be both represented by a solicitor and also have in court a separate person acting independently as his guardian ad litem. There is no corresponding possibility where the contest lies only between parents: the child in that case (if not given leave to act in person) can be represented by a guardian ad litem or by a solicitor but cannot be represented by both. Similarly, a child who is the subject of care proceedings has no right to apply to discharge his guardian ad litem: that advantage is reserved (by the rule which it is sought to enforce in this appeal) only to a minor in private law cases.
THE 1989 ACT AND THE 1991 RULES
The parents’ applications relating to residence and contact are made under s 8 of the 1989 Act. Section 10(8) contemplates that a child may with the leave of the court apply for a s 8 order, but the court may only grant leave if it is satisfied that the child has sufficient understanding to make the proposed application. There is no application by S in this case.
In the absence of a contrary indication, Pt IV of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991 governs applications for s 8 orders whether, as here, in the High Court or in the county court (see r 4.1(2)(a)).
Part IX of the 1991 rules applies to persons under disability, an expression defined to include minors (r 9.1(1)). Rule 9.1(3) provides that r 9.2A shall apply only to proceedings under the 1989 Act or the inherent jurisdiction of the High Court with respect to minors. Rule 9.2(1) provides:
‘Except where rule 9.2A or any other rule otherwise provides, a person under disability may begin and prosecute any family proceedings only by his next friend and may defend any such proceedings only by his guardian ad litem and, except as otherwise provided by this rule, it shall not be necessary for a guardian ad litem to be appointed by the court.’
Rule 9.2A was inserted into the 1991 rules by amendment in 1992 (see the Family Proceedings (Amendment) Rules 1992, SI 1992/456). It is central to this appeal. We set out its terms in full:
‘Certain minors may sue without next friend etc.
9.2A—(1) Where a person entitled to begin, prosecute or defend any proceedings to which this rule applies, is a minor to whom this Part applies, he may, subject to paragraph (4), begin, prosecute or defend, as the case may be, such proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem—(a) where he has obtained the leave of the court for that purpose; or (b) where a solicitor—(i) considers that the minor is able, having regard to his understanding, to give instructions in relation to the proceedings; and (ii) has accepted instructions from the minor to act for him in the proceedings and, where the proceedings have begun, is so acting.
(2) A minor shall be entitled to apply for the leave of the court under paragraph (1)(a) without a next friend or guardian ad litem either—(a) by filing a written request for leave setting out the reasons for the application, or (b) by making an oral request for leave at any hearing in the proceedings.
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(3) On considering a request for leave filed under paragraph (2)(a), the court shall either—(a) grant the request, whereupon the proper officer shall communicate the decision to the minor and, where the leave relates to the prosecution or defence of existing proceedings, to the other parties to those proceedings, or (b) direct that the request be heard ex parte, whereupon the proper officer shall fix a date for such a hearing and give to the minor making the request such notice of the date so fixed as the court may direct.
(4) Where a minor has a next friend or guardian ad litem in proceedings and the minor wishes to prosecute or defend the remaining stages of the proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem, the minor may apply to the court for leave for that purpose and for the removal of the next friend or guardian ad litem; and paragraph (2) shall apply to the application as if it were an application under paragraph (1)(a).
(5) On considering a request filed under paragraph (2) by virtue of paragraph (4), the court shall either—(a) grant the request, whereupon the proper officer shall communicate the decision to the minor and next friend or guardian ad litem concerned and to all other parties to the proceedings, or (b) direct that the request be heard, whereupon the proper officer shall fix a date for such a hearing and give to the minor and next friend or guardian ad litem concerned such notice of the date so fixed as the court may direct; provided that the court may act under sub-paragraph (a) only if it is satisfied that the next friend or guardian ad litem does not oppose the request.
(6) Where the court is considering whether to (a) grant leave under paragraph (1)(a), or (b) grant leave under paragraph (4) and remove a next friend or guardian ad litem, it shall grant the leave sought and, as the case may be, remove the next friend or guardian ad litem if it considers that the minor concerned has sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings concerned or proposed without a next friend or guardian ad litem.
(7) Where a request for leave is granted at a hearing fixed under paragraph (3)(b) (in relation to the prosecution or defence of proceedings already begun) or (5)(b), the proper officer shall forthwith communicate the decision to the other parties to the proceedings.
(8) The court may revoke any leave granted under paragraph (1)(a) where it considers that the child does not have sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings concerned without a next friend or guardian ad litem.
(9) Without prejudice to any requirement of CCR Order 50, rule 5 or RSC Order 67, where a solicitor is acting for a minor in proceedings which the minor is prosecuting or defending without a next friend or guardian ad litem by virtue of paragraph (1)(b) and either of the conditions specified in paragraph (1)(b)(i) and (ii) cease to be fulfilled, he shall forthwith so inform the court.
(10) Where—(a) the court revokes any leave under paragraph (8), or (b) either of the conditions specified in paragraph (1)(b)(i) and (ii) is no longer fulfilled, the court may, if it considers it necessary in order to protect the interests of the minor concerned, order that some proper person be appointed his next friend or guardian ad litem.
(11) Where a minor is of sufficient understanding to begin, prosecute or defend proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem—(a) he may nevertheless begin, prosecute or defend them by his next friend or guardian ad litem; and (b) where he is prosecuting or defending proceedings by his next friend or guardian ad litem, the respective powers and duties of the minor and next friend or guardian ad litem, except those conferred or imposed by this rule,
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shall not be affected by the minor’s ability to dispense with a next friend or guardian ad litem under the provisions of this rule.’
This rule plainly distinguishes between two situations. The first is where the minor wishes to begin or prosecute proceedings without a next friend or to defend proceedings without a guardian ad litem, having never had one. The other is where the minor has had a next friend or guardian ad litem but wishes to continue without.
In the first of these situations the minor has two routes open to him. The first route is to make a written or oral request for the leave of the court to act on his own. The court is required to grant leave if it considers that the minor concerned has sufficient understanding to participate in the proceedings concerned or proposed without a next friend or guardian ad litem. The second route open to the minor is to instruct a solicitor. But the solicitor must consider that the minor is able, having regard to his understanding, to give instructions in relation to the proceedings and must have accepted the minor’s instructions to act for him in the proceedings and (if the proceedings are in train) have begun to act.
In the second situation the minor has only one route open to him: to make a written or oral request for the leave of the court to prosecute or defend the remaining stages of the proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem and for the removal of the existing next friend or guardian ad litem. In this situation also the court is required to grant leave if it considers that the minor concerned has sufficient understanding to participate in the proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem. It was this route which S sought unsuccessfully to follow when he asked, through counsel, for leave to continue the proceedings on his own and for removal of the Official Solicitor as his guardian ad litem. It is convenient to comment on this rule at this stage.
(1) Although most of the rule refers to ‘minors’, para (8) refers to ‘the child’, as does r 9.5. It does not appear, and has not been argued, that any meaningful distinction is intended.
(2) Whereas a solicitor must consider, before accepting instructions under para (1)(b), that the child is able, having regard to his understanding, to give instructions in relation to the proceedings, the court must consider, before giving leave under para (1)(a) or (4), that the child has sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem. Some difference of language is explicable by the difference in the two situations. The solicitor’s concern will naturally be whether the child on his own has sufficient understanding to give coherent instructions. The court’s concern is whether the child has sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings without a next friend or guardian ad litem or, perhaps, any legal adviser. But it would seem that the difference is more apparent than real; save in a relatively straightforward matter or in the case of an older child, the court would be unlikely (in the absence of consent by any existing next friend or guardian ad litem) to grant leave unless the child proposed to be legally represented, and in that event the real issue would again be whether the child had sufficient understanding to give coherent instructions.
(3) The tests in paras (1)(b)(i) and (6) are framed with reference to the child’s understanding, not his age. In the ordinary way it is no doubt true (at least of children) that understanding increases with the passage of time. But the rule eschews any arbitrary line of demarcation based on age, and wisely so. Different children have differing levels of understanding at the same age. And understanding is not absolute. It has to be assessed relatively to the issues in the proceedings. Where any sound judgment on these issues calls for insight and imagination which
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only maturity and experience can bring, both the court and the solicitor will be slow to conclude that the child’s understanding is sufficient.
(4) Paragraph (8) makes clear that the court may revoke leave granted under para (1)(a) where it considers that the child’s understanding is insufficient to justify the grant of leave. It may then, if it considers it necessary to do so to protect the interests of the child, order that a next friend or guardian ad litem be appointed. It may take the same action where either of the conditions in para (1)(b)(i) and (ii) is no longer fulfilled, a fact of which a solicitor acting for a child by virtue of para (1)(b) is obliged to tell the court. The rule does not, however, provide what is to happen if the court, having made an order under para (4), thereafter considers that the child lacks the understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings concerned without a next friend or guardian ad litem. In the case of a guardian ad litem, the answer would seem to lie in the court’s general power to appoint under rr 4.12(2)(d) and 9.5(1). Perhaps more importantly, the rule does not at all clearly provide what is to happen if a solicitor accepts instructions from a child, considering para (1)(b)(i) to be satisfied, when the court takes a different view. It is argued for S that under para (1)(b) the question is one for the judgment of the solicitor alone. We would certainly agree that any solicitor accepting instructions from a child in this situation must exercise a scrupulous, conscientious and responsible judgment. We have no doubt that solicitors do so. But, if a court were to consider, even in the absence of information by the solicitor under para (9), that para (1)(b)(i) was not satisfied, it would in our opinion be entitled to act under para (10). This would not, of itself, terminate the solicitor’s retainer, but it would be likely to lead to withdrawal of the child’s legal aid.
(5) The question was raised in argument whether the references in paras (4) and (6) to applying for or granting leave and removing the next friend or guardian ad litem were to be read conjunctively (so that the court would have to do both or neither) or disjunctively (so that the court could grant leave but not necessarily remove the next friend or guardian ad litem). It would seem a little strange that a child should be represented by a guardian ad litem and also by a solicitor receiving instructions from the child, but that is the situation expressly provided for in specified proceedings by r 4.12. Rule 9.2A, however, contains no provisions comparable with r 4.12(1), which we would have expected to find had the same result been intended. We are of opinion, which we understood counsel to share, that the provisions should be read conjunctively: if the court grants leave under para (4) it must also remove the next friend or guardian ad litem.
(6) Where the child’s request for leave is made in writing under para (2)(a) before any next friend or guardian ad litem has been appointed, para (3) does not expressly contemplate that other parties will be heard. If the request is granted, that decision will be communicated (after the event, it would seem) to the child and to the other parties if there are any. If the request is not at once granted, the request will be heard ex parte and only the child will be notified of the hearing date. The rule prescribes no procedure for ruling on an oral request, but since such an application may be made at any hearing in the proceedings it may be assumed that any other parties will know of it and hear the result. There is no provision that the application should in this event be heard ex parte, but it is odd if the other parties were to enjoy rights in this situation which they would not enjoy in the other. Where a next friend or guardian ad litem has been appointed, and the request for leave is made (whether in writing or orally) under paras (2) and (4), the procedure is prescribed by para (5). If the request is granted (which will require at least the acquiescence of the next friend or guardian ad litem), that decision is notified to the child, the next friend or guardian ad litem who is to be removed and all other parties. If the request is not at
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once granted, a hearing will be fixed. The rule only provides that notice of the fixture shall be given to the child and the next friend or guardian ad litem. In this case, no distinction is drawn between written and oral requests but again there is no provision that parties other than the child and the next friend or guardian ad litem shall be notified of any hearing or given any opportunity to be heard. It is for this reason that S argued before the judge and on this appeal that his parents should not be heard on his application.
PUBLIC LAW CASES
Since reliance was placed in argument on the child’s position in public law cases, we should briefly review the relevant provisions.
The regime for the representation of a child in ‘specified proceedings’, that is public law cases involving care or supervision orders, is set out in s 41 of the 1989 Act and rr 4.10, 4.11 and 4.12 of the 1991 rules. In essence a guardian has to be appointed by the court as soon as is practicable unless the court considers that such an appointment is not necessary to safeguard the interests of the child (s 41(1) and (2) and r 4.10). The guardian is under a duty to safeguard the interests of the child (s 41(2)(b)) and must, unless he is the Official Solicitor, appoint a solicitor to represent and advise the child (r 4.11(2) and (2A)). The guardian must inform the court if it appears to him that the child is instructing his solicitor direct or intends to and is capable of conducting the proceedings on his own behalf (r 4.11(3)). Thereafter the guardian must perform such duties and take such part in the proceedings as the court directs; and he may, with leave, have legal representation (r 4.11(3)). The guardian, unless excused, has to attend court (r 4.11(4)) and to advise the court in relation to a number of matters including whether the child is of sufficient understanding for any purpose, the child’s wishes and the options available to the court (r 4.11(4)).
Where there is no guardian ad litem and the child wishes and has sufficient understanding to instruct a solicitor, the court may appoint a solicitor to act for him (s 41(3) and (4)). A solicitor, whether appointed by the guardian ad litem or by the court, must act in accordance with the instructions given by a child of sufficient understanding if these conflict with the guardian’s instructions (r 4.12(1)). In default of instructions from the guardian or the child, the solicitor must act in furtherance of the best interests of the child (r 4.12(1)(c)). A child (r 4.12(3)) and a guardian (r 4.12(4)) can each apply to the court for termination of the appointment of a solicitor.
It is apparent, therefore, that the regime in relation to public law cases contemplates that (i) there will normally be a guardian, (ii) guardian and child may be separately legally represented, (iii) the submissions made on behalf of the guardian must be directed to the child’s best interests and may, in consequence, be different from those on behalf of the child and (iv) the child’s welfare will continue to be protected by the guardian.
No doubt, as counsel for the mother submits, the court has a greater need of assistance from a guardian ad litem in public law cases where there is the possibility of state intervention and severance of the parent/child relationship than in private law cases which proceed on the premise that the parents can care for the child appropriately. We accept her submission that the 1989 Act and the 1991 rules establish different regimes, and caution is necessary in applying analogies based on the public law regime to that of the private law.
AUTHORITIES
We accept that what has come to be known as ‘Gillick competence’ is the appropriate test in relation to the sufficiency of a child’s understanding under the 1989 Act and 1991 rules. This was expressed by Lord Scarman in Gillick v West
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Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402 at 423, [1986] AC 112 at 188 as ‘the attainment by a child of an age of sufficient discretion to enable him or her to exercise a wise choice in his or her own interests’.
We have been referred to three recent authorities which illustrate the way in which the courts have approached the matter.
In Re H and anor (minors) [1992] CA Transcript 769, a case concerning children aged ten and seven, Butler-Sloss LJ, in a judgment with which Kennedy LJ agreed, said: ‘I would expect that r 9.2A would be extremely valuable for the older teenager and is most unlikely to be used in regard to younger children.’
In Re T (a minor) (28 January 1993, unreported) Thorpe J commented, in proceedings launched under 9.2A by a 13-year-old without a guardian:
‘I am bound to say that, in an issue of this great complexity, and with a child of only 13 years of age, I doubt whether, on an application for leave, I would have been persuaded that she had sufficient understanding to participate without the aid of a guardian. In a case of this sort, which is referred to the High Court with much complexity and delicacy, I would certainly have regarded the Official Solicitor as the appropriate guardian ad litem . . .’
In Re H (a minor) (care proceedings) [1992] 2 FCR 330 at 339 Thorpe J rejected a submission that almost any child of 15 years and 8 months must be taken to have sufficient understanding to instruct a solicitor: emotional disturbance may be of such a level ‘as to remove the necessary degree of rationality that leads to coherent and consistent instruction’. He went on to say (at 340):
‘If there is any real question as to whether the child’s emotional disturbance is so intense as to destroy the capacity to give coherent and consistent instructions, then I think that question should be the subject of specific expert opinion …’
With each of the comments in these three cases we agree. They lay down no principle, but they give a valuable insight into how the courts are in practice applying these provisions.
CONCLUSIONS
The first issue
As already noted, the rules do not expressly confer any right on the parents to be heard on S’s application and they cannot in our judgment be construed as doing so implicitly. But a judge always has a discretion to hear any party whom he thinks it necessary or desirable to hear in the interests of justice. In the present case the judge was plainly right to regard the parents as parties whom he should hear. The mother’s submission on whether S had sufficient understanding to participate as a party in the proceedings was of obvious importance and relevance. So also was the father’s. If he was to hear one it was right to hear the other. In the event both played a full part in the hearing. In exercising a discretion not conferred by the 1991 rules the judge in no way laid himself open to criticism. We would expect any judge similarly placed to act in the same way.
The second issue
The 1989 Act enables and requires a judicious balance to be struck between two considerations. First is the principle, to be honoured and respected, that children are human beings in their own right with individual minds and wills, views and emotions, which should command serious attention. A child’s wishes are not to be discounted or dismissed simply because he is a child. He should be free to express them and decision-makers should listen. Second is the fact that a child is, after all, a
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child. The reason why the law is particularly solicitous in protecting the interests of children is because they are liable to be vulnerable and impressionable, lacking the maturity to weigh the longer term against the shorter, lacking the insight to know how they will react and the imagination to know how others will react in certain situations, lacking the experience to measure the probable against the possible. Everything of course depends on the individual child in his actual situation. For purposes of the 1989 Act, a babe in arms and a sturdy teenager on the verge of adulthood are both children, but their positions are quite different: for one the second consideration will be dominant, for the other the first principle will come into its own. The process of growing up is, as Lord Scarman pointed out in Gillick’s case [1985] 3 All ER 402 at 421, [1986] AC 112 at 186, a continuous one. The judge has to do his best, on the evidence before him, to assess the understanding of the individual child in the context of the proceedings in which he seeks to participate.
In the present case the judge reached a very clear view that S should continue to be represented by the Official Solicitor. That was not only a proper conclusion but in our judgment an inevitable one. Any other would have bordered on the perverse. The case does indeed cry out for the application of an objective, experienced judgment such as the Official Solicitor and those whom he consults are peculiarly well fitted to supply. Had the judge, surprisingly, decided to grant S’s request, he would undoubtedly have sought the continuing assistance of the Official Solicitor as an amicus, so the gain to S might in any event have been small. As it is, the Official Solicitor is duty bound to bring S’s views fully and fairly to the notice of the court, as both he and the consultant psychiatrist have conscientiously done. But the judge’s conclusion that this 11-year-old boy lacks sufficient understanding to participate as a party in these emotionally complex and highly fraught proceedings is impregnable.
We dismiss the appeal on both issues.
Appeal dismissed. No order for costs.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Morley and another v United Friendly Insurance plc
[1993] 3 All ER 47
Categories: INSURANCE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL AND BELDAM LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 14, 29 JANUARY 1993
Insurance – Accident insurance – Exception clause – Exclusion of liability if it resulted from wilful exposure to needless peril – Deceased jumping onto bumper of stationary or barely moving car – Driver driving off in zig-zag fashion at 15 to 20 mph – Deceased thrown off car and sustaining fatal injuries – Whether deceased wilfully exposing himself to needless peril – Whether exclusion clause applying to exclude liability.
The deceased was insured with the defendant insurance company under a personal accident insurance policy which provided, inter alia, that no benefit was payable under the policy if death or injury resulted directly or indirectly from ‘wilful exposure to needless peril’. The deceased had got out of a car in which he was a
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passenger in order to relieve himself. When he returned to the car the driver, in order to hurry him, slowly began to drive away. The deceased then jumped or stepped onto the rear bumper of the car, which was barely moving at the time. The driver accelerated slightly and drove off in a zig-zag fashion at 15 to 20 mph causing the deceased to be thrown off and suffer injuries from which he later died. The plaintiffs, who were the administrators of the deceased’s estate, claimed under the insurance policy but the defendants, relying on the exclusion clause, refused to pay. The plaintiffs brought an action against the defendants but the judge dismissed their claim on the ground that by stepping onto the moving car the deceased had wilfully and deliberately exposed himself to a substantial risk of injury within the exclusion clause. The plaintiffs appealed.
Held – In determining whether the deceased had wilfully exposed himself to needless peril so that the exclusion clause in the policy applied to exclude payment under the policy, it was necessary for the defendants to show that the exposure to risk had been wilful and not merely negligent. That required (per Neill LJ) the court to consider the circumstances, including the likelihood of the insured injury being incurred if the risk was taken and the opportunity for reflection before the risk if taken or (per Beldam LJ) that at the time of his actions the deceased was mindful of a real risk of the kind of injury for which benefit was provided by the policy and that he either intended to run that risk or exposed himself to it not caring whether he sustained such injury or not. On the facts, the deceased had not ‘wilfully’ exposed himself to unnecesary peril but had merely engaged in a momentary act of stupidity and accordingly the plaintiffs were entitled to recover under the ploicy. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 52 c g j to p 53 a, p 55 f to p 56 a, post).
Dictum of Lord Loreburn LC in Johnson v Marshall Sons & Co Ltd [1906] AC 409 at 411 applied.
Notes
For policies insuring against accidental injury, see 25 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 594–600, and for cases on the subject, see 29 Digest (Reissue) 470–471, 484–488, 3982–3985, 4102–4121.
Cases referred to in judgments
Beller (Marcel) Ltd v Hayden [1978] 3 All ER 111, [1978] 1 QB 694, [1978] 2 WLR 845.
Candler v London and Lancashire Guarantee and Accident Co of Canada (1963) 40 DLR (2d) 408, Ont HC.
Forder v Great Western Rly Co [1905] 2 KB 532, DC.
Glenlight Shipping Ltd v Excess Insurance Co Ltd 1982 SC 42 , Ct of Sess.
Graham v Belfast and Northern Counties Rly Co [1901] 2 IR I3, Ir QBD.
Johnson v Marshall Sons and Co Ltd [1906] AC 409, HL.
Lewis v Great Western Rly Co (1877) 3 QBD 195, CA.
R v Sheppard [1980] 3 All ER 899, [1981] AC 394, [1980] 3 WLR 960, HL.
Case also cited
Oei v Foster and Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd [1982] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 170.
Appeal
The plaintiffs, William Morley and Eva Morley, the administrators of Philip William Morley deceased, appealed from the judgment of his Honour J D Walker sitting as a deputy circuit judge in the Kingston upon Hull County Court on 4 March 1991 dismissing their action against the defendants, United Friendly Insurance plc (the
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insurance company), for £3,000 alleged to be payable under an insurance policy dated 11 September 1978 insuring the deceased against personal injury and death. The facts are set out in the judgment of Neill LJ.
Bernard Gateshill (instructed by Philip Hamer & Co, Hull) for the appellants.
Frank Burton (instructed by Barlow Lyde & Gilbert) for the insurance company.
Cur adv vult
29 January 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
NEILL LJ. This is an appeal by Mr William Morley and Mrs Eva Morley from the order of his Honour J D Walker sitting as a deputy circuit judge on 4 March 1991 dismissing the appellants’ claim against United Friendly Insurance plc (the insurance company) for £3,000 alleged to be payable under an insurance policy. The claim was brought by the appellants’ as administrators of Philip William Morley deceased. The action was tried in the Kingston upon Hull County Court. No oral evidence was called by either side other than the formal evidence of Mr William Morley.
By a contract of insurance dated 11 September 1978 the insurance company insured the deceased against the perils and contingencies set out in the policy of insurance. Clause 2 of the policy of insurance provided (so far as is material) as follows:
‘2 If the Insured shall within the United Kingdom sustain bodily injury caused by violent accidental external and visible means which injury shall solely and independently of any other cause result within seven days in his/her death or within twelve months in the loss of one or more of his/her limbs (amputated above the wrist or ankle) or the total and permanent loss of sight in one or both of his/her eyes or the break of fracture of his/her Humerus, Ulna, Radius, Femur, Tibia or Fibula or in his/her being totally and continuously incapacitated from attending to employment or business of any kind and (in the case of a female) her household duties the Company will upon production of reasonable proof of such injury pay to the Insured or in the event of death to his/her legal personal representatives the appropriate accident benefit … ’
By an indorsement to the policy dated 21 October 1985 the deceased increased the amount payable on death to £3,000.
The policy provided that it was subject to the conditions therein contained. Paragraph 1 of the conditions set out special exclusions and provided, inter alia, as follows:
‘… No accident benefit shall be payable if death injury or incapacity shall result directly or indirectly from or be accelerated by any of the following causes … (iii) Wilful exposure to needless peril (except in an attempt to save human life) …’
On 25 July 1986 the deceased was injured in an accident. On 31 July 1986 he died as a result of those injuries. It is first necessary to examine the circumstances in which those injuries were sustained.
The deceased was the son of the appellants. On Friday, 25 July 1986 the deceased, who was then aged 24, went out for the evening with his fiancée, Miss Alison Norrie, and two other friends. At about 9.50 pm the deceased and the two friends were passengers in a Ford Escort car being driven by Miss Norrie along Station Road, in Hessle, North Humberside. They were on their way to a public house called the Ferry Boat Inn. The deceased had had about four to six pints of beer to drink earlier
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in the evening and had agreed that Miss Norrie should drive the car. She had had very little to drink and was described by the judge as ‘totally sober’. In order to reach the Ferry Boat Inn at Hessle Haven it was necessary to travel to the west from Station Road to Woodfield Lane, then cross the railway line by a road bridge and travel eastwards again along Redcliffe Road and Livingstone Road. For pedestrians, however, there was a shortcut from Station Road by an iron footbridge to Livingstone Road. As the car reached the bridge on the north side of the railway line the deceased asked Miss Norrie to stop so that he could relieve himself. It was arranged that he would rejoin the party on the other side of the footbridge and in the meantime they would cross the railway by the road bridge in Woodfield Lane.
Having relieved himself the deceased crossed the railway by means of the footbridge. By then the car was in Livingstone Road at the south end of the footbridge. As the deceased approached Miss Norrie started to move. According to her statement to the police she started to move in order to make the deceased hurry up because they had to reach the Ferry Boat Inn by 10 pm. As she moved off, however, the deceased jumped or stepped onto the rear bumper of the car. It seems clear that Miss Norrie realised what had happened but instead of stopping the car she accelerated slightly and began to steer in a ‘zig-zag fashion’. The judge, basing himself on the evidence given at the coroner’s inquest and on the statements made to the police, gave this account in his judgment of what happened in Livingstone Road:
‘Arthur Barley [an independent witness] puts the speed of the car at “15/20 mph certainly no less” and Alison was steering the car in a zig-zag fashion along the empty road. Philip at this time, having stepped onto the rear bumper of the slowly moving car, was becoming more and more insecure and his shouted “Whoa” heard by Mr Barley is consistent with his alarm at what was happening and fear for his safety. What had started as innocent horseplay was rapidly turning into a situation fraught with danger. Although the last thing the girl wanted to do was to hurt her boyfriend I am forced to the conclusion that in a moment of thoughtlessness, coupled with excitement and perhaps a little irritation—“the silly sod, what’s he messing about at”—her driving was the factor that caused Philip’s fall and ultimately his death. The bumper gave him a very insecure foothold and, although at the time he stepped onto it the car was hardly moving, had he suffered an insured injury at that precise time it would have been hard to argue that he had not wilfully exposed himself to needless peril. The situation, however, quickly changed when Alison started to drive as she did. That was a risk which he had no cause to anticipate. The girl was, after all, a competent driver, sober, engaged to him and already sharing their home with him. She clearly loved him. I find that he had no means of knowing, and did not know, the extent of the risk to which he was to be so quickly subjected.’
A little later in his judgment the judge considered the effect of the relevant exclusion provision in the policy. He continued:
‘What has to be decided is whether he wilfully exposed himself to (any) needless peril. The word “any” does not appear in the policy but peril means substantial risk to life or limb. In the present situation therefore, although, as I have found, Philip did not appreciate and accept the risk of being killed, there was clearly some danger to limb in stepping onto the rounded surface of a moving car, with no handholds, in darkness. That was a “wilful” act, a deliberate act, it exposed him to a substantial risk of injury and it falls within the exclusion clause in the policy; it was without doubt “needless”.’
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It seems clear from these passages in the judgment that the judge reached the following conclusions: (a) that at the time the deceased stepped onto the rear bumper of the car it was hardly moving. It is also to be noted that according to the evidence the car was at all times in first gear; (b) that the rear bumper gave the deceased a very insecure foothold. We have seen a photograph of the rear of the car and this conclusion was clearly fully justified; (c) that at the time he stepped onto the rear bumper the deceased had no reason to anticipate that his fiancée would accelerate and then steer the car in a zig-zag manner. Accordingly at that time the deceased could not have foreseen the possibility that he might be killed; (d) that nevertheless, at the moment when he stepped onto the bumper there was some danger that the deceased would suffer an injury to one of his limbs; (e) that stepping onto the rear bumper was a deliberate and therefore a wilful act by the deceased which exposed him to a substantial risk of injury. This risk was needless.
In his careful argument in support of the appeal counsel for the appellants accepted that the judge was right to concentrate on the extent of the risk at the moment when the deceased stepped onto the bumper. He further accepted that on any issue of causation the appellants could not place reliance on the fact that Miss Norrie changed her mode of driving after the deceased stepped onto the bumper, because the exclusion applied if death resulted either ‘directly or indirectly’ from any of the specified causes. It is therefore necessary to consider whether at the moment when he stepped onto the rear bumper the deceased wilfully exposed himself to an unnecessary peril within the meaning of the policy.
It is common ground that the ‘peril’ referred to in the exclusion clause means a risk of suffering one or more of the injuries which the policy of insurance was designed to cover. In the context of the present case the relevant peril was a risk of breaking or fracturing the ‘Humerus, Ulna, Radius, Femur, Tibia or Fibula’.
The case for the insurance company was put very succinctly. By stepping onto the rounded surface of the bumper of a moving car in the dark and when there were no handholds available the deceased exposed himself to the wholly unnecessary risk of a broken bone. The exposure was wilful because the deceased either knew the risk and accepted it or, if he did not consider the risk, was reckless. The risk of a broken or fractured bone was an obvious risk in the circumstances.
In the course of the argument we were referred to several authorities, including Marcel Beller Ltd v Hayden [1978] 3 All ER 111, [1978] 1 QB 694, Glenlight Shipping Ltd v Excess Insurance Co Ltd 1982 SC 42 and R v Sheppard [1980] 3 All ER 899, [1981] AC 394. These authorities, however, and other cases to which I have referred since the conclusion of the argument, merely demonstrate that the precise connotation of the word ‘wilful’ (which for the purposes of this appeal is the most important word in the exclusion clause) depends on the context.
It is true that in the Glenlight case the Court of Session was concerned with an exclusion clause in almost identical terms to the present clause in that it was there provided that the insurers should not be liable for any claim which was the consequence of the insured ‘wilfully exposing himself to needless peril (except in an attempt to save human life)’. The facts in the Glenlight case, however, were markedly different from those in the present case because the trial judge held that the deceased, who had driven over the end of a ramp of a ferry boat and toppled into the sea, was unaware of any risk. He did not know that there was a gap of sea between the end of the ramp and the pier. It was accepted that the deceased was probably under the mistaken impression that the ferry boat had arrived at the pier.
How then is the phrase ‘wilful exposure to needless peril’ in this policy to be interpreted? It is clear, and indeed was accepted by counsel for the insurance company, that the words cannot be construed too strictly. Thus they cannot be
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construed so as to remove insurance cover from an insured who engages in contact sports such as football. On the other hand, at the other end of the scale, the words would seem more than apt to cover the circumstances considered in the Canadian case of Candler v London and Lancashire Guarantee and Accident Co of Canada (1963) 40 DLR (2d) 408, where the deceased, in order to demonstrate to a friend that he had not lost his nerve balanced himself on the coping of a hotel patio thirteen floors above the street and fell to his death. The trial judge held that the event was not an accident within the meaning of the policy, but it is clear that in addition it would certainly have involved ‘wilful exposure to needless peril’.
In my judgment the ‘wilfulness’ has to be directed to the ‘exposure to peril’. It is not enough to show an intentional act which results in peril. There must be a conscious act of volition, which can include recklessness, directed to the running of the risk. Accordingly, in order to determine where in the spectrum a particular case falls it is necessary to have regard to all the circumstances including (a) the likelihood of the insured injury being incurred if the risk is taken and (b) the opportunity for reflection before the risk if taken.
If one applies the first of these criteria one can draw a clear distinction between Formula 1 motor racing and hang gliding on the one hand and golf and football on the other hand. I regard the second criterion also as being of importance.
In addition it is necessary to take account of the commercial purpose of the policy. It was intended to insure the deceased against the risk of suffering some serious injury. It is common ground that the cover includes injuries caused by the insured’s own negligence. The insurance company say, however, that the actions of the deceased were not merely negligent but were foolhardy and reckless.
In this case unusually this court is in no worse position than the trial judge in making an evaluation of the facts. The judge saw no relevant witnesses. Though we must treat the judge’s decision with the utmost respect we are free in the circumstances to look at the matter afresh.
No one has sought to disturb the judge’s conclusion that at the moment when the deceased stepped onto the bumper ‘the car was hardly moving’. It seems to me therefore that at that moment there was a risk that the deceased might fall off and cut or bruise himself. He might well have sprained his wrist or twisted his ankle. But the risk at that stage of a fracture of a bone, though a real risk as opposed to a fanciful risk, was to my mind not very great. This modest risk has then to be linked with the opportunity for, and presumed extent of, the appreciation of the risk. I agree with the judge’s assessment of what happened as being ‘a foolish bit of horseplay which went dramatically wrong’. I respectfully differ from the judge, however, with his description of the horseplay as ‘reckless’ if in the context he equated recklessness with wilful exposure to peril.
On the meaning of the word ‘wilful’ in this clause I have derived assistance from the speech of Lord Loreburn LC in Johnson v Marshall Sons & Co Ltd [1906] AC 409 at 411, where he said that the words ‘wilful misconduct’ in the Workmen’s Compensation Act 1897 imported that ‘the misconduct was deliberate’ and not ‘merely a thoughtless act on the spur of the moment’. The deceased’s action in this case was a momentary act of stupidity. The speed of the vehicle is to be judged by the fact that the judge referred to the deceased as ‘stepping onto the bumper’. The peril was clearly ‘unnecessary’ and the contrary has not been argued. But having given anxious consideration to this case I have come to the clear conclusion that in the circumstances the deceased did not wilfully expose himself to unnecessary peril. The exclusion clause should be reserved to deal with cases where either the occurrence of an insured injury is more likely or where the appreciation of the peril can be more clearly demonstrated.
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For these reasons I would allow the appeal.
BELDAM LJ. The appellants’ are the parents and administrators of Philip Morley, who died in a most unfortunate accident on the evening of Friday, 25 July 1986. The deceased was entitled to the benefit of a personal accident policy written by the respondents. It covered him against perils and contingencies which included:
‘2 If the Insured shall within the United Kingdom sustain bodily injury caused by violent accidental external and visible means which injury shall solely and independently of any other cause result within seven days in his/her death or within twelve months in the loss of one or more of his/her limbs (amputated above the wrist or ankle) or the total and permanent loss of sight in one or both of his/her eyes or the break or fracture of his/her Humerus, Ulna, Radius, Femur, Tibia or Fibular or in his/her being totally and continuously incapacitated from attending to employment or business of any kind …’
The amount payable on death was £3,000.
The deceased died from a head injury when he fell from the back of a car driven by his fiancée, Miss Norrie, in Livingstone Road, Hessle, North Humberside. The deceased and his fiancée, with two friends, had been for a drink to a public house and were proposing to go to a disco at the Ferry Boat Inn. On the way the deceased got out of the car to relieve himself, arranging to walk over a bridge and to meet the others in the car on the opposite side. Miss Norrie drove to the appointed place and when she saw the deceased approaching from behind for a joke started to move slowly forwards. Seeing this, he ran after the car and stepped onto the rear bumper as it slowly moved forward steadying himself with his hands on the roof. At the time he stepped onto the car it was hardly moving, but Miss Norrie, not realising the danger and carrying on the practical joke, started to accelerate until the car reached a speed of 10–15 mph and in the same spirit she did not drive in a straight course but steered from one side of the road to the other. At some time, but after the deceased had hung on for some seconds, he shouted ‘Whoa’ clearly becoming alarmed. Shortly after he fell off and most unfortunately he struck his head and suffered the injury which led to his death. As the judge said, what had started as innocent horseplay had rapidly turned into a situation fraught with danger. He said Miss Norrie’s driving, taking place in a moment of thoughtlessness coupled with excitement and perhaps a little irritation, was the factor which caused the deceased’s fall and ultimately his death.
In due course the appellants put forward a claim for the death benefit payable under the policy. The respondent insurers relied upon an exclusion contained in the policy in these terms:
‘No accident benefit shall be payable if death injury or incapacity shall result directly or indirectly from or be accelerated by … (iii) wilful exposure to needless peril (except in an attempt to save human life) …’
The question which the judge had to determine was whether, in the circumstances in which he held the accident to have occurred, the deceased had wilfully exposed himself to needless peril. It was accepted by the respondents that in the context of this policy the peril referred to in the exclusion clause was a substantial risk of sustaining bodily injury of a kind which could give rise to a claim under the policy. The judge held that the deceased had wilfully exposed himself to such a risk and rejected the appellants’ claim; they now appeal to this court.
To decide whether the respondents had discharged the burden of showing that the deceased had wilfully exposed himself to needless peril, it is necessary to have
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regard to other findings of the learned judge. Of the change from innocent horseplay to a situation fraught with danger the judge said:
‘That was a risk which [the deceased] had no cause to anticipate. The girl was, after all, a competent driver, sober, engaged to him and already sharing their home with him. She clearly loved him. I find that he had no means of knowing, and did not know, the extent of the risk to which he was to be so quickly subjected.’
He also said, as was obvious, that the bumper of the car gave him a very insecure foothold and that he had no proper handhold. He expressed his decision in the following terms:
‘In the present situation, therefore, although, as I have found, [the deceased] did not appreciate and accept the risk of being killed, there was clearly some danger to limb in stepping onto the rounded surface of a moving car with no handholds, in darkness. That was a “wilful” act, a deliberate act, it exposed him to a substantial risk of injury and it falls within the exclusion clause in the policy; it was without doubt “needless”.’
In this passage I believe the judge fell into the error of concluding that because the actions of the deceased were deliberate, ie intentional, and because there was a substantial risk of injury, the deceased must have intentionally or wilfully exposed himself to that risk.
An exclusion clause in a policy of insurance has to be construed in a manner consistent with and not repugnant to the purpose of the policy. To construe the words ‘wilful exposure to needless peril’ so as to deprive the insured of benefit under the policy whenever it could be shown that his intentional acts had exposed him to a substantial risk would severely restrict the scope of the indemnity against accidental bodily injury. To avoid liability insurers must show that the exposure to needless peril was wilful, not merely that intentional acts done by the insured resulted in his being exposed to such peril. The word ‘wilful’ used in similar contexts has been the subject of judicial interpretation for over 100 years. In conjunction with the word ‘misconduct’ it was construed in contracts of carriage by rail where, for example, the company had excluded liability except for wilful misconduct of its servants.
In Lewis v Great Western Rly Co (1877) 3 QBD 195 at 206 Bramwell LJ expressed the matter thus:
‘“Wilful misconduct” means misconduct to which the will is a party, something opposed to accident or negligence; the misconduct, not the conduct, must be wilful.’ (Bramwell LJ’s emphasis.)
Brett LJ said (at 211):
‘Care must be taken to ascertain that it is not only misconduct but wilful misconduct, and I think that those two terms together import a knowledge of wrong on the part of the person who is supposed to be guilty of the act of omission.’
And Cotton LJ said (at 213):
‘Now, I do not think there can be any doubt at all that wilful misconduct is something entirely different from negligence, and far beyond it, whether the negligence be culpable, or gross, or howsoever denominated. There must be the doing of something which the person doing it knows will cause risk or injury, or the doing of an unusual thing with reference to the matter in hand,
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either in spite of warning or without care, regardless whether it will or will not cause injury to the goods carried … ’
So also in a similar case Forder v Great Western Rly Co [1905] 2 KB 532 at 535–536, Lord Alverstone CJ said of the phrase ‘wilful misconduct’:
‘I am quite prepared to adopt, with one slight addition, the definition of wilful misconduct given by Johnson J. in Graham v. Belfast and Northern Counties Ry. Co. ([1901] 2 IR 13 at 19), where he says: “Wilful misconduct in such a special condition means misconduct to which the will is party as contradistinguished from accident, and is far beyond any negligence, even gross or culpable negligence, and involves that a person wilfully misconducts himself who knows and appreciates that it is wrong conduct on his part in the existing circumstances to do, or to fail or omit to do (as the case may be), a particular thing …” The addition which I would suggest is, “or acts with reckless carelessness, not caring what the results of his carelessness may be”.’
The words ‘serious and wilful misconduct’ were used in the proviso to s 1(1)(b) of the Workmen’s Compensation Act 1925, where they denoted conduct which disentitled a workman to benefit for injury caused by accident at work. They were judicially construed in Johnson v Marshall Sons & Co Ltd [1906] AC 409 at 411 by Lord Loreburn LC, who said:
‘… the word “wilful”, I think, imports that the misconduct was deliberate, not merely a thoughtless act on the spur of the moment.’
The interpretation of the word ‘wilful’ in one context may be no guide to its meaning in another; but I consider that there is sufficient similarity in the context in which the word is used in this accident policy for guidance to be obtained from the instances quoted to be persuasive. Thus the meaning to be given to ‘wilful exposure to needless peril’ in the clause excluding liability under the policy requires that the conduct relied on must go beyond negligent exposure to needless peril. It must be shown that at the time of his actions the insured was mindful of a real risk of the kind of injury for which benefit was provided by the policy and that he either intended to run that risk or exposed himself to it not caring whether he sustained such injury or not.
Unless the operation of the exclusion clause is confined in this way, it would in my view unwarrantably diminish the indemnity which it was the purpose of the policy to afford. So I would hold that, on the facts of this case, the respondent did not make good the contention that the deceased wilfully exposed himself to needless peril. Although the bumper bar did not give him a proper foothold and he had no handhold other than steadying himself with his hands on the roof of the car, it was not in my view a reasonable inference from such a thoughtless act on the spur of the moment that he appreciated that he was exposing himself to the risk at least of fracture of one of the major bones of the body or that he embarked on that conduct not caring whether he sustained such injury or not.
I would not characterise his impulsive response to a practical joke as wilful exposure to needless peril. In quality and degree his actions fell short of deliberate
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risk taking or recklessness of injury of which he was mindful. Accordingly I would allow the appeal.
Appeal allowed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Inland Revenue Commissioners v Herd
[1993] 3 All ER 56
Categories: TAXATION; Income Tax, Emoluments from Office Or Employment
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD MACKAY OF CLASHFERN LC, LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 15, 16 FEBRUARY, 17 JUNE 1993
Income tax – Emoluments from office or employment – Deduction of tax – Failure to deduct tax – Appointment by parent company of taxpayer as executive director of subsidiary – Terms of appointment enabling taxpayer to acquire shares in subsidiary – Shares resold to parent company for consideration in excess of then market value – Whether consideration ‘emoluments’ – Whether parent company an ‘employer’ – Whether parent company liable to account for tax – Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970, s 204 – Finance Act 1972, s 79 – Finance Act 1976, s 67 – Income Tax (Employments) Regulations 1973, reg 2.
On 25 March 1980 the taxpayer was appointed executive director of a wholly-owned subsidiary of the parent company of a group of companies and on the same day the parent company sold to him 10,000 ordinary shares in the subsidiary for £1, being their then market value. The sale took place solely as the result of the taxpayer’s acceptance of his appointment as executive director of the subsidiary. On 4 May 1983 the taxpayer sold the shares back to the parent company for £380,000, their market value at that date being £211,300. The inspector of taxes raised an additional assessment to income tax on the taxpayer under Sch E on the amount received on the sale of the shares on the basis that £211,299 (the excess of the market value on disposal over the market value on acquisition) was assessable under s 79a of the Finance Act 1972 and £168,700 (the excess of the disposal consideration over the market value) was assessable under s 67b of the Finance Act 1976. On appeal the special commissioner reduced the assessment to nil on the ground that as the taxpayer himself had stipulated the terms on which he had acquired the shares he
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had acquired them neither (a) in pursuance of an opportunity ‘offered’ to him as an employee within s 79(1) of the 1972 Act nor (b) in consequence of a right or opportunity ‘available’ to him by reason of his employment within s 67(1) of the 1976 Act. On appeal by the Crown the Inner House of the Court of Session rejected the special commissioner’s approach to the construction of s 79 of the 1972 Act and s 67 of the 1976 Act but dismissed the appeal on the ground that the payments which constituted the consideration were ‘emoluments’ chargeable to income tax under Sch E from which the parent company as the ‘employer’,within reg 2c of the Income Tax (Employments) Regulations 1973, should have deducted and accounted for tax. The Crown appealed to the House of Lords, contending that the consideration paid by the parent company for the shares was not a payment of income assessable to income tax under Sch E and the parent company was not therefore liable to deduct the tax therefrom. It was not in dispute before the House that the conditions for liability to income tax under s 79 of the 1972 Act and s 67 of the 1976 Act were satisfied.
Held – An employee could not be held liable for tax which the employer ought to have deducted, whether or not he had actually done so, unless the Revenue had exercised powers which would enable a charge to be made against the employee in respect of sums which the employer should have deducted. An employer’s obligation under s 204d of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 to deduct tax from an employee’s emoluments arose on the ‘making of any payment of, or on account of, any income assessable to income tax under’ Sch E but there was no obligation under the 1970 Act or the 1973 regulations on a payer to deduct tax from a payment of which only part was assessable to income tax under Sch E. However, the liability under both s 79 of the 1972 Act and s 67 of the 1976 Act to tax under Sch E had arisen on only part of the consideration paid and the charging mechanism in neither section treated the whole payment as an emolument and then preserved a right to claim a deduction by way of allowance; instead, the payment of the consideration was subject to two different sections which provided for two different charges under Sch E on sums which were in total less than the total of the payment. Accordingly, the consideration paid by parent company for the shares was not a payment of income assessable to income tax under Sch E and the company was not liable to account for the tax thereon. The Crown’s appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 61 j to p 62 a, p 63 b to g j and p 64 e to j, post).
Notes
For share option schemes, see 5(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 201.
For the taxation under Sch E of employee shareholdings held by employees earning £8,500 or more and directors, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 746, 748.
For the scope of the PAYE system, see ibid para 767, and for cases on the subject, see 28(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 12–13, 2451–2454.
In relation to tax for the year 1988–89 and subsequent years of assessment ss 67(1), 79(1) and 204 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 were replaced by ss 162(1), 138(1) and 203, respectively, of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988. Section 138 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988 was repealed in relation to acquisitions on and after 26 October 1987 by ss 88(1) and 148 of and Pt VI of Sch 14 to the Finance Act 1988, Ch II (ss 77–89) of which makes
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new provision with respect to unapproved employee share schemes. For ss 138, 162 and 203 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, see 44 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 201, 237, 291. For Ch II of the Finance Act 1988, see 42 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 942.
For the Income Tax (Employments) Regulations 1973, reg 2, see 19 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1992 reissue) 58.
As from 6 April 1993 reg 2 of the 1973 regulations was replaced by reg 2 of the Income Tax (Employments) Regulations 1993, SI 1993/744.
Cases referred to in opinions
Booth v Mirror Group Newspapers plc [1992] STC 615.
R v Walton General Comrs, ex p Wilson [1983] STC 464, CA.
Appeal
The Commissioners of Inland Revenue appealed against a decision of the Inner House of the Court of Session (Lord McCluskey and Lord Coulsfield (Lord Sutherland dissenting)) of 14 February 1992 ([1992] STC 264) affirming (on different grounds) a decision of the Commissioner for the Special Purposes of the Income Tax Acts that the taxpayer, Charles Anderson Peden Herd, was not liable to pay income tax on profits realised by him on the disposal of a shareholding he had acquired on his appointment as an executive director of Cruden Building and Civil Engineering Ltd. It was not in dispute before the House of Lords that the conditions for liability under s 79 of the Finance Act 1972 and s 67 of the Finance Act 1976 were satisfied. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Mackay LC.
W A Nimmo Smith QC (of the Scottish Bar), Launcelot Henderson and Richard S Keen (of the Scottish Bar) (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue, agent for the Solicitor for Inland Revenue for Scotland, Edinburgh) for the Crown.
J E Drummond Young QC and Colin Tyre (both of the Scottish Bar) (instructed by Dyson Bell Martin, agents for Shepherd & Wedderburn WS, Edinburgh) for the taxpayer.
Their Lordships took time for consideration
17 June 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD MACKAY OF CLASHFERN LC. My Lords, this is an appeal by the Crown from a decision of an Extra Division of the Inner House of the Court of Session (Lord McCluskey, Lord Coulsfield and Lord Sutherland) ([1992] STC 264) which by a majority, Lord Sutherland dissenting, found against the Crown on a question of law stated by the Special Commissioner in an appeal by the taxpayer against an additional assessment to income tax under Sch E on the taxpayer for the year to April 1984 in respect of the sale of shares. The question is whether on a true construction of s 79 of the Finance Act 1972 and s 67 of the Finance Act 1976, the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 and the Income Tax (Employments) Regulations 1973, SI 1973/334, the liability to account for any tax payable on the assessment under appeal fell wholly on the taxpayer.
The facts on which this question arises may be summarised as follows, and I am grateful to the parties for their agreement on the statement of facts, which I have largely followed. The taxpayer was appointed an executive director of Cruden Building and Civil Engineering Ltd (CBCE) on 25 March 1980. At that date, CBCE was a wholly-owned subsidiary of Cruden Investments Ltd (Investments). Later in 1980 the taxpayer was appointed a director of Investments and he retained that
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directorship and his directorship of CBCE until 1987. Apart from the taxpayer’s shareholding referred to below, CBCE remained a wholly-owned subsidiary of Investments at all material times. On 25 March 1980 Investments sold to the taxpayer 10,000 ordinary shares in CBCE, which represented 10% of the issued capital of that company. The consideration paid by the taxpayer for those shares was £1. That was the market value of the shares as at 25 March 1980. Investments agreed to the sale of the shares solely because of the taxpayer’s acceptance of appointment as an executive director of CBCE. The 10,000 ordinary shares in CBCE were acquired by the taxpayer in such circumstances as are set out in s 79(1) of the 1972 Act. The shares were not acquired at an undervalue but otherwise were acquired by the taxpayer in such circumstances as are set out in s 67(1) of the 1976 Act.
On 4 May 1983 the taxpayer sold his 10,000 ordinary shares in CBCE back to Investments for the sum of £380,000. The market value of the shares at that date is agreed to have been £211,300. Investments paid the taxpayer £250,000 at once and the balance on 30 November 1984. In terms of s 79 of the 1972 Act and s 67 of the 1976 Act a charge to income tax under Sch E fell to be made since as a result of the sale of shares on 4 May 1983 the taxpayer ceased to have any beneficial interest in them.
The inspector of taxes made an additional assessment under Sch E on the taxpayer for the year to April 1984 in the figure of £379,999 that is to say £380,000 minus £1 in respect of the sale of the shares. The assessment was made as to £211,299 under s 79 of the 1972 Act and as to £168,700 under s 67 of the 1976 Act.
The taxpayer appealed against the additional assessment to the Special Commissioner, who reduced the assessment to nil. The Crown appealed to the Inner House of the Court of Session. There a number of matters were discussed but the only issue which arises before your Lordships is that which I have stated at the beginning of this speech.
Section 181 of the 1970 Act imposes a charge to tax under Sch E and provides in sub-s (1):
‘1. Tax under this Schedule shall be charged in respect of any office or employment on emoluments therefrom which fall under one, or more than one, of the following Cases …’
Section 183(1) of the 1970 Act provides that the expression ‘emoluments’ shall include all salaries, fees, wages, perquisites and profits whatsoever.
Section 204 of the 1970 Act (as amended by the Finance Act 1971) makes provision for the assessment and recovery of income tax under Sch E and provides:
‘(1) On the making of any payment of, or on account of, any income assessable to income tax under Schedule E, income tax shall, subject to and in accordance with regulations made by the Board [of Inland Revenue] under this section, be deducted or repaid by the person making the payment, notwithstanding that when the payment is made no assessment has been made in respect of the income and notwithstanding that the income is in whole or in part income for some year of assessment other than the year during which the payment is made.
(2) The Board shall make regulations with respect to the assessment, charge, collection and recovery of income tax in respect of all income assessable thereto under Schedule E, and those regulations may, in particular, include provision—(a) for requiring any person making any payment of, or on account of, any such income, when he makes the payment, to make a deduction or repayment of income tax calculated by reference to tax tables prepared by the Board, and for rendering persons who are required to make any such deduction
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or repayment accountable to, or, as the case may be, entitled to repayment from, the Board, (b) for the production to and inspection by persons authorised by the Board of wages sheets and other documents and records for the purpose of satisfying themselves that income tax has been and is being deducted, repaid and accounted for in accordance with the regulations, (c) for the collection and recovery, whether by deduction from any such income paid in any later year or otherwise, of income tax in respect of any such income which has not been deducted or otherwise recovered during the year, (d) for the assessment and charge of income tax by the inspector in respect of income to which this section applies, and (e) for appeals with respect to matters arising under the regulations which would not otherwise be the subject of an appeal, and any such regulations shall have effect notwithstanding anything in the Income Tax Acts …
(3) The said tax tables shall be constructed with a view to securing that, so far as possible—(a) the total income tax payable in respect of any income assessable under Schedule E for any year of assessment is deducted from such income paid during that year, and (b) the income tax deductible or repayable on the occasion of any payment of, or on account of, any such income is such that the total net income tax deducted since the beginning of the year of assessment bears to the total income tax payable for the year the same proportion that the part of the year which ends with the date of the payment bears to the whole year. In this subsection references to the total income tax payable for the year shall be construed as references to the total income tax estimated to be payable for the year in respect of the income in question, subject to a provisional deduction for allowances and reliefs, and subject also, if necessary, to an adjustment for amounts overpaid or remaining unpaid on account of income tax in respect of income assessable under Schedule E for any previous year. For the purpose of estimating the total income tax payable as aforesaid, it may be assumed in relation to any payment of, or on account of, income assessable under Schedule E that the income paid in the part of the year of assessment which ends with the making of the payment will bear to the income for the whole of that year the same proportion as that part of the year bears to the whole year …’
The regulations made under that power in force at the material time for the purposes of this appeal are the 1973 regulations as amended up to 1983. Regulation 2(1) of these regulations includes the provision:
‘In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires … “emoluments” means the full amount of any income to be taken into account in assessing liability under Schedule E after the deduction of allowable superannuation contributions and references to payments of emoluments include references to payments on account of emoluments … “employee” means any person in receipt of emoluments; “employer” means any person paying emoluments …’
The critical regulation is reg 6(1), which provides:
‘Every employer, on making any payment of emoluments during any year to any employee in respect of whom a code authorisation has been issued to him for that year by the Inspector, shall—(a) if he has not already done so, prepare a deductions working sheet for that employee, and (b) deduct or repay tax in accordance with these Regulations by reference to the appropriate code, which shall be specified on the code authorisation.’
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The details of these arrangements are contained in later provisions of the regulations, to many of which it is not necessary to refer. Some, however, must be referred to as they have a bearing on the argument addressed to your Lordships on the appeal.
Regulation 26 provides:
‘… (3) If the amount which the employer is liable to pay to the Collector under paragraph (1) of this Regulation exceeds the amount actually deducted by him from emoluments paid during the relevant income tax month, the Collector, on being satisfied by the employer that he took reasonable care to comply with the provisions of these Regulations and that the under-deduction was due to an error made in good faith, may direct that the amount of the excess shall be recovered from the employee, and where the Collector so directs the employer shall not be liable to pay the amount of the said excess to the Collector.
(4) If the amount which the employer is liable to pay to the Collector under paragraph (1) of this Regulation exceeds the amount actually deducted by him from emoluments paid during the relevant income tax month, and the Commissioners of Inland Revenue are of the opinion that an employee has received his emoluments knowing that the employer has wilfully failed to deduct therefrom the amount of tax which he was liable to deduct under these Regulations, the said Commissioners may direct that the amount of the excess shall be recovered from the employee, and where they so direct the employer shall not be liable to pay the amount of the said excess to the Collector …’
No direction was made under either of these powers in the present case.
Regulation 48 provides for assessment and appeals. Regulation 49 makes provision with regard to a situation where the amount deducted is less or more than the total due under an assessment under Sch E for the year in question. Regulation 49 provides:
‘… (2) If the tax payable under the assessment exceeds the total net tax deducted from the employee’s emoluments during the year, the Inspector may require the person assessed to pay the excess to the Collector instead of taking it into account in determining the appropriate code for a subsequent year, and where the Inspector so requires the person assessed shall pay the excess accordingly.
(3) For the purpose of determining the amount of any difference or excess as aforesaid, any necessary adjustment shall be made to the aforesaid total net tax in respect of—(a) any tax which the employer was liable to deduct from the employee’s emoluments but failed so to deduct, having regard to whether the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or the Collector have or have not directed that that tax shall be recovered from the employee; and (b) any tax overpaid or remaining unpaid for any year … but any such difference resulting from an adjustment under sub-paragraph (a) of this paragraph shall be disregarded for the purpose of paragraph (1) above and of computing any tax overpaid under sub-paragraph (b) of this paragraph …’
It follows from the provision I have just quoted that, unless the commissioners or the collector have exercised powers which would enable a charge to be made against the employee in respect of sums which the employer should have deducted, the employee cannot be held liable for amounts which the employer ought to have deducted whether or not he has actually done so—in other words, apart from the powers to which I have referred, the Commissioners of Inland Revenue do not have
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power to claim from the employee tax which the employer was liable to deduct and pay to the commissioners whether or not he has done so.
The scope of the general scheme in respect of Sch E and the regulations to which I have referred is illustrated by the decision of Hobhouse J in Booth v Mirror Group Newspapers plc [1992] STC 615, which was cited in argument but has no particular bearing on the problem arising in the present appeal.
It is common ground between the parties to this appeal that wide as the provisions are for deduction of tax from payments they can apply only in respect of payments by the employer to the employee and therefore where benefits in kind not involving payments by an employer are in question they are not directly applicable. On the other hand in considering the coding the Revenue are entitled to take into account benefits in kind which are taxable under Sch E although not the subject of specific deduction of tax under the regulations (see R v Walton General Comrs, ex p Wilson [1983] STC 464).
It is to be noted, however, at this stage, that the provisions for deduction apply only to a payment of emoluments or a payment on account of emoluments.
I turn now to examine the specific provisions under which tax under Sch E is agreed to be chargeable either on the taxpayer or on Investments in this appeal.
First of all s 79(4) of the 1972 Act:
‘Where this subsection applies and the market value of the shares at the end of the period mentioned in subsection (6) below exceeds their market value at the time of the acquisition the person making the acquisition shall be chargeable to tax under Schedule E for the year of assessment in which that period ends on an amount equal, except as provided by subsection (5) below, to the excess (or, if his interest is less than the full beneficial ownership, such part of that amount as corresponds to his interest); and the amount so chargeable shall be treated as earned income, whether or not it would otherwise fall to be so treated.’
The period referred to in sub-s (6) below is a period which may well come to an end without any payment. In this case, however, it came to an end when the taxpayer ceased to have any beneficial interest in the shares in question and following on that payments were made to him by Investments. If these payments were payments of emoluments or a payment on account of emoluments, I would conclude that the requirement to deduct tax applied even if in other situations sub-s (4) might be triggered where no such payment occurred.
The other provision founded on to create liability under Sch E is s 67 of the 1976 Act, which in sub-s (7) provides:
‘Where after 6th April 1976 shares are acquired, whether or not at an under-value but otherwise as mentioned in subsection (1) above, and—(a) the shares are subsequently disposed of by surrender or otherwise so that neither the employee nor any person connected with him any longer has a beneficial interest in them; and (b) the disposal is for a consideration which exceeds the then market value of the shares, then for the year in which the disposal is effected the amount of the excess is treated as emoluments of the employee’s employment and accordingly chargeable to income tax under Schedule E.’
It was pointed out by the Crown that in relation to both of these provisions the taxpayer’s argument might involve a person who was an ‘employer’ only for the purposes of the income tax regulations because he made the payment in question, but that he might have no knowledge of the circumstances which gave rise to tax liability. On the other hand counsel for the taxpayer argued strongly that such
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circumstances were likely to be extremely limited and pointed to the exception to which I have referred for payments in good faith by an employer in the 1973 regulations. I am of opinion that your Lordships have not material on which to form a very accurate view of the number of different circumstances in which these provisions apply and in particular the extent to which any third party acquirer of the shares might be ignorant of the circumstances which give rise to liability. I therefore prefer to rest my view on a narrower ground.
In both of the statutory provisions relied on as creating liability, the liability to tax under Sch E is not attracted by the amount paid but as in this case to part only of the amount paid. The charging mechanism is not one which treats the whole payment made in this case as an emolument and then preserves a right to claim a deduction by way of allowance. Indeed in this case each payment is subject to two different sections, which provide the basis for two different charges under Sch E on sums which in total are less than the total of the payments. It is true that the deduction in this case is small but the ascertainment of its amount involving as it does questions of the market value of shares which are not publicly quoted could involve considerable calculation and perhaps even more important substantial judgments on matters of opinion. Neither the empowering provisions of the 1970 Act nor the 1973 regulations themselves include an obligation on the payer to deduct tax from a payment only part of which is assessable to income tax under Sch E. Indeed, this is emphasised by the provision that the obligation to deduct arises on the making of any payment of, or on account of, any income assessable to income tax under Sch E. Where the provision is as detailed as that, if the intention had been to impose an obligation to make a deduction from a payment which was in part to be treated as income under Sch E, I would have expected this to have been expressly provided for and, even more important, some machinery set up for distinguishing in the single payment between the amount to be subject to deduction and the balance.
This does not mean that by making one payment of two separate amounts each of which can be determined precisely at the time the payment is made one could avoid the obligation to make a deduction but I think it is significant, and in support of the view which I have taken, that s 60 of the 1976 Act treats the expenses there in question as emoluments of the employment and accordingly chargeable to income tax under Sch E, preserving in sub-s (2) a claim for deductions under the appropriate sections of the 1970 Act. So, for example, where remuneration and expenses are paid together the total payment is a payment of emoluments within the provision requiring the payer to make the appropriate deduction of income tax on making the payment.
Although it is true that there is no finding of fact in this case that any difficulty was found in arriving at the appropriate market values, it is obvious that the determination of these values could give rise to substantial disputes.
Although I found the argument for the taxpayer attractive and cogently argued, I have reached the conclusion ultimately that to give effect to it would be to extend the scope of the provisions for deduction of tax under Sch E to situations for which they were not intended and in respect of which there is no machinery for determining in respect of a single payment at the time the payment is made the amount of it which is to be subject to the deduction arrangements.
The taxpayer points to the provisions of reg 26(3) of the 1973 regulations. I think it is noteworthy and supportive of the view which I have formed that the regulation speaks about under-deduction due to an error made in good faith and does not appear to me to deal with the situation where the amount of emoluments paid is in question. There is no provision that I have been able to find which contemplates a question about the amounts of emoluments involved in any particular payment;
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rather the whole scheme appears to me to proceed on the assumption that all the payments in question are payments of emoluments and that any deductions are in respect of allowances to be made in computing the tax liability consequent on the payments. I conclude therefore that when the Crown submits that the decision of the Court of Session should be reversed ‘BECAUSE the consideration paid by Investments for the shares was not a payment of income assessable to income tax under Schedule E’ it is correct.
The contention advanced by the taxpayer in this case was said by the Crown to be novel and, in my view, on a proper reading of the statutory provisions in question it falls to be rejected, but it is right that I should emphasise that my view applies only where a particular payment is treated only in part as assessable to income tax under Sch E. It would not prevent a payer being under an obligation to deduct tax where it was clear that there were two or more payments made together some of which were emoluments under Sch E while others were not.
The reasons which I have given differ considerably from the reasons given by Lord Sutherland in the Court of Session for reaching the same view and I would not be prepared to affirm his analysis of the transaction into a capital transaction completed at the time of payment followed by a statutory treatment of certain parts of the payment as income for tax purposes. The reasoning of the majority only takes one the distance of saying that part of the payment was to be treated as emoluments of the taxpayer’s employment under Sch E but for the reasons I have given this does not appear to me to be sufficient to sustain the taxpayer’s argument and to have obliged the employers to deduct income tax under the 1973 regulations on making the payment which even on the majority’s view was in part only so assessable.
For the reasons I have given I would allow the appeal and hold that the second question of law posed by the Special Commissioner should be answered in the affirmative.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, I agree that this appeal should be allowed for the reasons set out in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Mackay LC.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Mackay LC. For the reasons which he gives I agree that the appeal should be allowed.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Mackay LC. For the reasons which he gives I agree that the appeal should be allowed.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Mackay LC. For the reasons he gives I too would allow the appeal.
Appeal allowed.
Susan J Murphy Barrister.
Tinsley v Milligan
[1993] 3 All ER 65
Categories: TRUSTS
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD LOWRY AND LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON
Hearing Date(s): 25, 26, 30 NOVEMBER 1992, 24 JUNE 1993
Trust and trustee – Constructive trust – Unmarried couple – House acquired by joint efforts for joint benefit – Claim for beneficial interest in house – Defence of illegality – House purchased jointly but registered in plaintiff’s sole name to facilitate defendant’s fraudulent claims for social security benefit – Plaintiff moving out leaving defendant in occupation – Plaintiff claiming possession and asserting ownership of house – Defendant counterclaiming for beneficial interest – Plaintiff raising defence of illegality to counterclaim – Whether defendant entitled to beneficial interest notwithstanding fraudulent purpose of registration of ownership – Whether plaintiff entitled to succeed under resulting trust – Whether evidence of illegal purpose for registration in plaintiff’s sole name rebutting presumption of resulting trust.
T and M, who were lovers, jointly purchased a house which was registered in the name of T as the sole legal owner. The house was used as a lodging house which was run as a joint business venture and provided most of the parties’ income. Both parties accepted that the house was owned jointly but, as M accepted, it was registered in the sole name of T to enable M, with the knowledge and assent of T, to make false claims to the Department of Social Security for benefits. The money so obtained was shared although it did not form a substantial part of the parties’ income. After some years M told the department what she had done, and thereafter continued to draw benefit lawfully without prosecution. Subsequently, T and M quarrelled and T moved out, M remaining in occupation. T brought an action claiming possession of the house and asserting ownership of it. M counterclaimed for an order for sale and a declaration that the house was held by T on trust for the parties in equal shares. T contended in regard to the counterclaim (i) that, applying the common law maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio, M was barred from denying T’s ownership of the house because the purpose of the arrangement whereby the house had been registered in the sole name of T had been to facilitate the fraud on the Department of Social Security and therefore her claim to joint ownership was tainted by illegality and (ii) that, applying the equitable principle that he who came to equity had to come with clean hands, the court ought to leave the estate to lie where it fell since the property had been conveyed into the name of one party for a fraudulent purpose which had then been carried out and in those circumstances the court ought not to enforce a trust in favour of the other party. The judge dismissed T’s claim and gave judgment for M on her counterclaim. T appealed to the Court of Appeal, which dismissed the appeal, holding that when confronted with the defence of illegality the court should adopt a flexible and pragmatic approach in applying the maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio and the equitable principle of clean hands and should determine whether enforcement of the claim with its attendant illegality would be an affront to the public conscience and that, since both parties had collaborated in the fraud and both their claims were tainted with illegality and it would be a disproportionate penalty to deprive M of her share of the house, it would be an affront to the public conscience not to grant her relief. T appealed to the House of Lords.
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Held (Lord Keith and Lord Goff dissenting) – Where property interests were acquired as a result of an illegal transaction a party to the illegality could recover by virtue of a legal or equitable property interest if, but only if, he could establish his title without relying on his own illegality even if it emerged that the title on which he relied was acquired in the course of carrying through an illegal transaction. Where the presumption of advancement applied, the plaintiff was faced with the presumption of gift and therefore could not claim under a resulting trust unless and until he rebutted the presumption of gift, in which case he had to rely on the underlying illegality and would therefore fail. However, where the presumption of a resulting trust applied, the plaintiff would not have to rely on the illegality because, if he proved that the property was vested in the defendant alone but that he had provided part of the purchase money or voluntarily transferred the property to the defendant, he would establish his claim under a resulting trust unless either the contrary presumption of advancement displaced the presumption of resulting trust or the defendant led evidence to rebut the presumption of resulting trust. Therefore, in cases where the presumption of advancement did not apply, the plaintiff could establish his equitable interest in the property without relying in any way on the underlying illegal transaction. On the facts, M had established a resulting trust by showing that she had contributed to the purchase price of the house and that there was a common understanding between her and T that they owned the house equally. M had no need to allege or prove why the house was conveyed into the name of T alone since that fact was irrelevant to her claim, and, on the facts, M had raised a presumption of resulting trust which was not rebutted by any evidence to the contrary. In those circumstances M was entitled to succeed in her counterclaim. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 82 f to j, p 83 d to g, p 84 c d f to h, p 85 j to p 86 b, p 87 c to h, p 90 c to e, p 91 f to h and p 92 a to c, post).
Feret v Hill [1843–60] All ER Rep 924, Taylor v Chester [1861–73] All ER Rep 154, Alexander v Rayson [1935] All ER Rep 185, Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali [1960] 1 All ER 269, Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494 and Gorog v Kiss (1977) 78 DLR (3d) 690 applied.
Muckleston v Brown [1775–1802] All ER Rep 501 and Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739 considered.
Per curiam. The consequences of being a party to an illegal transaction cannot depend on such an imponderable factor as the extent to which the public conscience would be affronted by recognising rights created by illegal transactions (see p 68 g, p 80 b c, p 83 e f and p 84 j, post); Saunders v Edwards [1987] 2 All ER 651, Euro-Diam Ltd v Bathurst [1988] 2 All ER 23 and Howard v Shirlstar Container Transport Ltd [1990] 3 All ER 366 doubted.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1992] 2 All ER 391 affirmed on other grounds.
Notes
For the maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1136, and for cases on the subject, see 1(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 57–58, 469–475.
For the maxim ‘he who comes to equity must come with clean hands’, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 751, and for cases on the subject, see 20 Digest (Reissue) 683–684, 5062–5071.
For the recovery of property transferred in pursuance of a contract tainted by illegality, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 433–439, and for cases on the subject, see 12(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 544–555, 4244–4338.
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Cases referred to in opinions
Alexander v Rayson [1936] 1 KB 169, [1935] All ER Rep 185, CA.
Ayerst v Jenkins (1873) LR 16 Eq 275, LC.
Birch v Blagrave (1755) Amb 264, 27 ER 176, LC.
Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65, CA.
Burns v Edman [1970] 1 All ER 886, [1970] 2 QB 541, [1970] 2 WLR 1005.
Cantor v Cox (1975) 239 EG 121.
Cecil v Butcher (1821) 2 Jac & W 565, 37 ER 744.
Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494, [1962] AC 294, [1962] 2 WLR 548, PC.
Chetty v Servai (1908) LR 35 Ind App 78, PC.
Childers v Childers (1857) 3 K & J 310, 69 ER 1126, V-C; on appeal 1 De G & J 482, 44 ER 810, LJJ.
Cottington v Fletcher (1740) 2 Atk 155, 26 ER 498, LC.
Crichton v Crichton (1895) 13 R 770, Ch D.
Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739, 31 ER 1285, LC.
Dering v Earl of Winchelsea (1787) 1 Cox Eq Cas 318, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 140, 29 ER 1184.
Dewar v Dewar [1975] 2 All ER 728, [1975] 1 WLR 1532.
Emery’s Investments’ Trusts, Re, Emery v Emery [1959] 1 All ER 577, [1959] Ch 410, [1959] 2 WLR 461.
Euro-Diam Ltd v Bathurst [1988] 2 All ER 23, [1990] 1 QB 1, [1988] 2 WLR 517, CA; affg [1987] 2 All ER 113, [1990] 1 QB 1, [1987] 2 WLR 1368.
Feret v Hill (1854) 15 CB 207, [1843–60] All ER Rep 924, 139 ER 400.
Gascoigne v Gascoigne [1918] 1 KB 223, DC.
Geismar v Sun Alliance and London Insurance Ltd [1977] 3 All ER 570, [1978] QB 383, [1977] 2 WLR 38.
Gissing v Gissing [1970] 2 All ER 780, [1971] AC 886, [1970] 3 WLR 255, HL.
Gorog v Kiss (1977) 78 DLR (3d) 690, Ont CA.
Grant v Edwards [1986] 2 All ER 426, [1986] Ch 638, [1986] 3 WLR 114, CA.
Great Berlin Steamboat Co, Re(1884) 26 Ch D 616, CA.
Groves v Groves (1828) 3 Y & J 163, 148 ER 1136.
Haigh v Kaye (1872) LR 7 Ch App 469, LJJ.
Holman v Johnson (1775) 1 Cowp 341, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 98, 98 ER 1120.
Howard v Shirlstar Container Transport Ltd [1990] 3 All ER 366, [1990] 1 WLR 1292, CA.
Lloyds Bank plc v Rosset [1990] 1 All ER 1111, [1991] 1 AC 107, [1990] 2 WLR 867, HL
McEvoy v Belfast Banking Co Ltd [1934] NI 67, NI CA; affd [1935] AC 24, [1934] All ER Rep 800, HL.
Muckleston v Brown (1801) 6 Ves 52, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 501, 31 ER 934, LC.
Murphy v Culhane [1976] 3 All ER 533, [1977] QB 94, [1976] 3 WLR 458, CA.
Pearce v Brooks (1866) LR 1 Exch 213, [1861–73] All ER Rep 102.
Perpetual Executors and Trustees Association of Australia Ltd v Wright (1917) 23 CLR 185, Aust HC.
Platamone v Staple (1815) Coop G 250, 35 ER 548, V-C.
Preston v Preston [1960] NZLR 385, NZ SC and CA.
Rider v Kidder (1805) 10 Ves 360, 32 ER 884, LC.
Roberts v Roberts (1818) Dan 143, 159 ER 862.
St John Shipping Corp v Joseph Rank Ltd [1956] 3 All ER 683, [1957] 1 QB 267, [1956] 3 WLR 870.
Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali [1960] 1 All ER 269, [1960] AC 167, [1960] 2 WLR 180, PC.
Saunders v Edwards [1987] 2 All ER 651, [1987] 1 WLR 1116, CA.
Page 68 of [1993] 3 All ER 65
Scarfe v Morgan (1838) 4 M & W 270, [1835–42] All ER Rep 43, 150 ER 1430.
Scott v Brown Doering McNab & Co [1892] 2 QB 724, [1891–4] All ER Rep 654, CA.
Shelley v Paddock [1980] 1 All ER 1009, [1980] QB 348, [1980] 2 WLR 647, CA.
Shephard v Cartwright [1954] 3 All ER 649, [1955] AC 431, [1954] 3 WLR 967, HL.
Standing v Bowring (1885) 31 Ch D 282, [1881–85] All ER Rep 702, CA.
Symes v Hughes (1870) LR 9 Eq 475.
Taylor v Bowers (1876) 1 QBD 291, [1874–80] All ER Rep 405, CA.
Taylor v Chester (1869) LR 4 QB 309, [1861–73] All ER Rep 154.
Thackwell v Barclays Bank plc [1986] 1 All ER 676.
Tinker v Tinker [1970] 1 All ER 540, [1970] P 136, [1970] 2 WLR 331, CA.
Yallop, Ex p (1808) 15 Ves 60, 33 ER 677, LC.
Appeal
The plaintiff, Stella Ruth Tinsley, appealed with leave granted by the Court of Appeal from the judgment of that court (Lloyd and Nicholls LJJ (Ralph Gibson LJ dissenting)) ([1992] 2 All ER 391, [1992] Ch 310) given on 30 July 1991 dismissing her appeal from the judgment of Judge ap Robert sitting in the Caerphilly County Court on 26 July 1990 whereby he refused her claim for possession of the property situate at 141 Thomas Street, Abertridwr, Mid-Glamorgan, which was occupied by the defendant, Kathleen Milligan, declared that the plaintiff held the premises on trust for the plaintiff and the defendant in equal shares and that the defendant was an equitable tenant-in-common of the premises, made an order for the sale of the property and declared that the defendant was entitled to a half share in the proceeds subject to repayment of the mortgage and other outgoings and costs. The facts are set out in the opnion of Lord Goff.
James Munby QC and Alexander Hill-Smith (instructed by Blake Lapthorn, agents for Bowen-Rees-Jones, Risca) for the plaintiff.
Vernon Pugh QC and Philip Davies (instructed by Belmont & Lowe, agents for Hugh James Jones & Jenkins, Cardiff) for the defendant.
24 June 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, I agree with the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley, which I have had the advantage of reading in draft. I would therefore allow this appeal.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, there is before your Lordships an appeal by the appellant, Stella Ruth Tinsley, from an order by the Court of Appeal ([1992] 2 All ER 391, [1992] Ch 310) whereby the court by a majority (Lloyd and Nicholls LJJ (Ralph Gibson LJ dissenting)) dismissed the appellant’s appeal from an order of Judge ap Robert, sitting in the Caerphilly County Court, ordering, inter alia, that the appellant’s claim for possession of 141 Thomas Street, Abertridwr, Mid-Glamorgan, be dismissed, and declaring that the appellant holds 141 Thomas Street on trust for the respondent, Kathleen Milligan, and herself in equal shares.
The appeal, which is brought by leave of the Court of Appeal, raises the question whether the claim of the respondent to an interest in the property in question is defeated by reason of frauds practised on the Department of Social Security. The facts of the case can be encapsulated in a few brief sentences.
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However it is desirable to obtain the full flavour of the case; and for that reason I propose to adopt the account given by Nicholls LJ in the Court of Appeal ([1992] 2 All ER 391 at 394–396, [1992] Ch 310 at 315–317), which for convenience of reference I propose to set out in full:
‘The house in question is 141 Thomas Street, Abertridwr, Mid-Glamorgan. It is registered in the name of the plaintiff, Miss Stella Tinsley. She is the sole legal owner. She and the defendant, Miss Kathleen Milligan, were, to use the judge’s expression, lovers for about four years, from 1984 to 1988. In the discussions they had during the course of their relationship, both the plaintiff and the defendant expressly recognised they were running a lodging house first at 9 Fitzhamon Embankment, Cardiff, and subsequently at Thomas Street, as a joint business venture and that the ownership of the respective houses was also on a joint basis. The parties are intelligent and articulate. They met in 1984. The plaintiff was then aged 19, and the defendant aged 38. The defendant was the dominant character, but not such as to be able to impose her will on the plaintiff. The defendant was living at 9 Fitzhamon Embankment, which belonged to a Mr Slater. She was running a bed-and-breakfast business. In 1983 a Miss Llewellyn began living in the house, and after a while she was treated as being the housekeeper in place of the defendant. The housekeeper was the person to whom the Department of Social Security turned for verification that those to whom it was paying benefits were indeed resident there. In December 1984 the plaintiff moved in and Miss Llewellyn moved out. After a month or two the plaintiff took her place as the nominal housekeeper, although most of the physical work and much of the managerial work were done by the defendant. The bank and building society accounts used by the parties were put in the plaintiff’s sole name, but they were regarded as joint property. Through these accounts the parties conducted most of their financial affairs: nearly all their money went into them, and nearly everything they spent was paid from them. In July 1986 the Fitzhamon Embankment property was purchased in the plaintiff’s name. The price was £29,000. A bank provided £24,000 by way of a mortgage loan to the plaintiff alone. The balance was provided principally from the sale proceeds of a car which belonged to them jointly. Two years later this house was sold for £33,000, and the mortgage repaid. The property at 141 Thomas Street was bought for £19,000, again in the sole name of the plaintiff. That was in August 1988. £12,000 was provided by a bank loan to the plaintiff alone, and the balance came from the proceeds of sale of 9 Fitzhamon Embankment. In this way all the money provided by the parties for 141 Thomas Street came ultimately from their joint business. Shortly thereafter the parties quarrelled. The plaintiff moved out and the defendant remained in occupation. The plaintiff divided the money in her building society account between them in roughly equal shares. In February 1989 she gave the defendant notice to quit. Six months later she brought this action, claiming possession and asserting ownership of the whole of the house. The defendant was willing that the house should be sold. Indeed she counterclaimed for an order for sale. She also sought a declaration that the property was held by the plaintiff upon trust for the two of them in equal shares. I can now turn to the illegality. Over a period of years the defendant, with the knowledge and assent of the plaintiff, made false claims to the Department of Social Security for benefits of one kind or another. The money paid by the department in response to those claims was paid into the bank or building society accounts which I have mentioned. The defendant
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was not alone in perpetrating frauds upon the department. The plaintiff also did so. She was prosecuted, convicted and fined, and had to make some repayments to the department. As to 141 Thomas Street, the judge shied away from holding that the reason why the transfer of this house was in the plaintiff’s sole name was to assist in a fraud on the Department of Social Security. Having the property in the plaintiff’s sole name assisted with the fraud in the sense that it assisted in the concealment of the defendant’s fraud. On the claim forms the defendant answered “No” to the question, “Do you own your own home?” and she named the plaintiff as her landlady, to whom she said she was paying rent. If the department, having received such claims, had made further inquiries, the falsity of the defendant’s answers would be more likely to remain concealed with the title deeds in the plaintiff’s sole name. The judge considered it was a great oversimplification to regard fraud as the sole or even main objective of the defendant in rendering herself invisible not only as to the legal title to the house but also as to the bank account and the accounts for electricity, gas, rates and so forth. He seems to have regarded this as a “psychological quirk”. I do not think this conclusion can stand. At the outset of her cross-examination the defendant frankly accepted that the reason why the business and 9 Fitzhamon Embankment and 141 Thomas Street were in the plaintiff’s sole name was so that she, the defendant, could misrepresent to the Department of Social Security that she had no stake in the business or the properties and that she was simply a lodger. The defendant did not suggest any other reason for either property being put in the plaintiff’s sole name. The case was fought on that footing. It should be decided on the same footing. Two further features are to be noted. First, the money obtained from the Department of Social Security helped the two of them meet their bills, but it was not a substantial part of their income. Their income consisted mostly of rent from their lodgers. The fraud perpetrated by them both on the department played only a small financial part in the acquisition of the equity in the house which is now in dispute. Secondly, there is no continuing illegality. Late in 1988 the defendant made her peace with the Department of Social Security. She told the department what she had done. Thereafter she continued to draw benefit, but on a lawful basis. Apparently the department did not regard the situation with any alarm. The judge observed that no doubt this was because it had become enured by daily experience of much worse forms of fraud being practised upon it than any which could be laid at the door of these two women.’
Before the Court of Appeal it was the submission of the appellant that there was a principle of law, binding on the Court of Appeal, that the court will not give effect to an equitable interest arising from a transaction which is unlawful by reason of a claimant’s unlawful purpose; and that accordingly the respondent was unable to establish any equitable interest in 141 Thomas Street, or to defeat the appellant’s claim to possession. This principle was said to be well recognised in a number of authorities; but reliance was placed in particular on Gascoigne v Gascoigne [1918] 1 KB 223 and Tinker v Tinker [1970] 1 All ER 540, [1970] P 136, the former a decision of a Divisional Court and the latter a decision of the Court of Appeal. It was this line of authority which ultimately persuaded Ralph Gibson LJ, in his dissenting judgment, that the appellant’s appeal should be allowed. But Nicholls LJ was not so persuaded. He first invoked a group of recent Court of Appeal decisions, which point to a more flexible approach than has been adopted
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in the past in cases of illegality under which, according to Nicholls LJ ([1992] 2 All ER 391 at 398, [1992] Ch 310 at 319):
‘... the underlying principle is the so-called public conscience test. The court must weigh, or balance, the adverse consequences of granting relief against the adverse consequences of refusing relief. The ultimate decision calls for a value judgment.’
On that approach he concluded that ‘far from it being an affront to the public conscience to grant relief in this case, it would be an affront to the public conscience not to do so’ (see [1992] 2 All ER 391 at 399, [1992] Ch 310 at 321). Furthermore, Nicholls LJ rejected the inflexible approach embodied in the earlier authorities as according ill ‘with the underlying considerations of public policy the court is seeking to discern and apply in this field’; the approach would, he considered, also mean that equity was taking a less flexible attitude to illegality than the common law, which would constitute a remarkable reversal of the traditional functions of law and equity (see [1992] 2 All ER 391 at 401, [1992] Ch 310 at 323). He accordingly sought to rationalise the older authorities in which relief was denied as cases in which, in particular circumstances, the court considered that to have granted relief would have been an affront to the public conscience. In answer to the proposition that the legal estate must lie where it falls, Nicholls LJ regarded the proposition as being as apt to equitable estates as it is to legal estates. Lloyd LJ, while agreeing with Nicholls LJ that the appellant’s claim must fail, adopted a rather different approach. First he considered that in the present case it was the appellant, and not the respondent, who was pleading illegality; and that the illegality did not taint the respondent’s claim, but was purely collateral and incidental to it. Accordingly, the principle embodied in the maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio did not operate to bar the respondent’s claim. Nor did he consider that the court should refuse to bar her claim on grounds of public policy, since (on the test recently applied in the Court of Appeal, which Lloyd LJ with some reluctance held to be binding on him) it would not shock the ordinary citizen that the respondent should recover her half share in the property. Finally, Lloyd LJ rejected the argument, founded on the line of cases culminating in Gascoigne v Gascoigne [1918] 1 KB 223 and Tinker v Tinker [1970] 1 All ER 540, [1970] P 136, that the court would not assist a claimant such as the respondent who was seeking the aid of equity, because she did not come to equity with clean hands; he distinguished these authorities as cases in which the equitable balance came down against the plaintiff, whereas in the present case it came down firmly in favour of the respondent who was seeking the assistance of equity.
This brief summary of the judgments in the Court of Appeal reveals a considerable difference of opinion among the members of the court. Faced with this variety of reasoning it is, I consider, essential for your Lordships to return to first principles and, having identified the applicable principles of law, to consider to what extent the opinions expressed by the members of the Court of Appeal are consistent with them. If not, it will be necessary to consider whether it was open to them and if not open to them, whether it is now open to your Lordships’ House, to develop those principles along the lines now suggested, and, if so, whether it is desirable to do so.
I turn then to the established principles; and I wish at once to express my indebtedness to the scholarly argument of Mr Munby QC, who appeared for the appellant in your Lordships’ House. The basic principle was stated long ago by
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Lord Mansfield CJ in Holman v Johnson (1775) 1 Cowp 341 at 343, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 98 at 99 in the context of the law of contract, when he said:
‘The objection, that a contract is immoral or illegal as between plaintiff and defendant, sounds at all times very ill in the mouth of the defendant. It is not for his sake, however, that the objection is ever allowed; but it is founded in general principles of policy, which the defendant has the advantage of, contrary to the real justice, as between him and the plaintiff, by accident, if I may so say. The principle of public policy is this; ex dolo malo non oritur actio. No court will lend its aid to a man who founds his cause of action upon an immoral or an illegal act. If, from the plaintiff’s own stating or otherwise, the cause of action appears to arise ex turpi causå, or the transgression of a positive law of this country, there the court says he has no right to be assisted. It is upon that ground the court goes; not for the sake of the defendant, but because they will not lend their aid to such a plaintiff. So if the plaintiff and defendant were to change sides, and the defendant was to bring his action against the plaintiff, the latter would then have the advantage of it; for where both are equally in fault, potior est conditio defendentis.’
That principle has been applied again and again, for over two hundred years. It is applicable in courts of equity as well as courts of law: see eg the notes to Roberts v Roberts (1818) Dan 143 at 150–151, 159 ER 862 at 864–865 and Ayerst v Jenkins (1873) LR 16 Eq 275 at 283 per Lord Selborne LC. In 1869 Mellor J said that the maxim in pari delicto potior est conditio possidentis ‘is as thoroughly settled as any proposition of law can be’: see Taylor v Chester LR 4 QB 309 at 313, [1861–73] All ER Rep 154 at 155. It is important to observe that, as Lord Mansfield CJ made clear, the principle is not a principle of justice: it is a principle of policy, whose application is indiscriminate and so can lead to unfair consequences as between the parties to litigation. Moreover the principle allows no room for the exercise of any discretion by the court in favour of one party or the other.
Even so, the mere fact that a transaction is illegal does not have the effect of preventing property, whether general or special, from passing under it. In Scarfe v Morgan (1838) 4 M & W 270 at 281, 150 ER 1430 at 1434 Parke B said that ‘if the [illegal] contract is executed, and a property either special or general has passed thereby, the property must remain ...' This principle has been applied on numerous occasions. Notable examples are to be found in Taylor v Chester (1869) LR 4 QB 309, [1861–73] All ER Rep 154, Alexander v Rayson [1936] 1 KB 169, [1935] All ER Rep 185 and Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali [1960] 1 All ER 269, [1960] AC 167. In Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali [1960] 1 All ER 269 at 272–273, [1960] AC 167 at 176–177 the principle was explained by Lord Denning in the following passage:
‘There are many cases which show that, when two persons agree together in a conspiracy to effect a fraudulent or illegal purpose—and one of them transfers property to the other in pursuance of the conspiracy—then, so soon as the contract is executed and the fraudulent or illegal purpose is achieved, the property (be it absolute or special) which has been transferred by the one to the other remains vested in the transferee, notwithstanding its illegal origin ... The reason is because the transferor, having fully achieved his unworthy end, cannot be allowed to turn round and repudiate the means by which he did it—he cannot throw over the transfer. And the transferee, having got the property, can assert his title to it against all the world, not because he has any merit of his own, but because there is no one who can assert a better title to it. The court does not confiscate the property because
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of the illegality— it has no power to do so— so it says, in the words of LORD ELDON, L.C.: “Let the estate lie where it falls”; see Muckleston v. Brown ((1801) 6 Ves 52 at 69, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 501 at 506).’
Likewise a court of equity will not, at the instance of the settlor or his personal representative, set aside a settlement which has been made for an illegal consideration: see Ayerst v Jenkins (1873) LR 16 Eq 275. The effect in that case was that the legal estate remained absolutely vested in the trustees and (implicitly) that the beneficial interest vested in the beneficiary. (There was however in that case no contest between the trustees and the beneficiary; and in any event the case was not one in which (as in the present case) A puts his property in the name of B in order to conceal his (A’s) interest in it for a fraudulent purpose. In such a case, it is most unlikely that A will have constituted B an express trustee of the property.)
From these two principles there is to be derived the principle invoked by the appellant in the present case, viz that, if A puts property in the name of B intending to conceal his (A’s) interest in the property for a fraudulent or illegal purpose, neither law nor equity will allow A to recover the property, and equity will not assist him in asserting an equitable interest in it. This principle applies whether the transaction takes the form of a transfer of property by A to B, or the purchase by A of property in the name of B.
The principle appears first to have been recognised by Lord Hardwicke LC in two cases decided before Holman v Johnson (1775) 1 Cowp 341, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 98, viz Cottington v Fletcher (1740) 2 Atk 155, 26 ER 498 and Birch v Blagrave (1755) Amb 264, 27 ER 176. But the case which has for nearly two hundred years been regarded as the authoritative source of the principle is Muckleston v Brown (1801) 6 Ves 52 at 68–69, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 501 at 506, in which Lord Eldon LC said in a much-quoted passage:
‘... the Plaintiff stating, he had been guilty of a fraud upon the law, to evade, to disappoint, the provision of the Legislature, to which he is bound to submit, and coming to equity to be relieved against his own act, and the defence being dishonest, between the two species of dishonesty the Court would not act; but would say “Let the estate lie, where it falls.”’
There followed a consistent line of authority in which the principle has been applied. The cases include Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739, 31 ER 1285, Ex p Yallop (1808) 15 Ves 60, 33 ER 677, Roberts v Roberts (1818) Dan 143, 159 ER 862, Groves v Groves (1828) 3 Y & J 163, 148 ER 1136, Childers v Childers (1857) 3 K & J 310, 69 ER 1126, Re Great Berlin Steamboat Co(1884) 26 Ch D 616, Crichton v Crichton (1895) 13 R 770, Gascoigne v Gascoigne [1918] 1 KB 223, McEvoy v Belfast Banking Co Ltd [1934] NI 67, Re Emery’s Investments’ Trusts, Emery v Emery [1959] 1 All ER 577, [1959] Ch 410, Preston v Preston [1960] NZLR 385, Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494, [1962] AC 294, Tinker v Tinker [1970] 1 All ER 540, [1970] P 136 and Cantor v Cox (1975) 239 EG 121.
Furthermore, the existence of the principle has been recognised on numerous occasions, even where it has not been given effect to on the facts of the case in question. In particular, an exception to the principle is to be found in cases in which the illegal purpose has not been carried into effect; but all those cases in which that exception has been recognised have proceeded on the basis that, absent those exceptional circumstances, the principle would have applied. It is not necessary to examine the nature of this exception for present purposes. It is often said to derive from Taylor v Bowers (1876) 1 QBD 291, [1874–80] All ER Rep 405, which was in fact a case at law. However, the exception was foreshadowed in
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a number of earlier cases in equity, notably Platamone v Staple (1815) Coop G 250, 35 ER 548, Cecil v Butcher (1821) 2 Jac & W 565, 37 ER 744 and Symes v Hughes (1870) LR 9 Eq 475; and it has since been applied in, for example, Chetty v Servai (1908) LR 35 Ind App 78 and Perpetual Executors and Trustees Association of Australia Ltd v Wright (1917) 23 CLR 185. Likewise Haigh v Kaye (1872) LR 7 Ch App 469, in which the defendant failed successfully to invoke the in pari delicto principle because he did not specify the illegality in plain terms (he ‘must clearly put forward his own scoundrelism if he means to reap the benefit of it’ per James LJ (at 473)), proceeded on the assumption that, if the defendant had done so, it would have been possible for him to succeed.
The reason why the court of equity will not assist the claimant to recover his property or to assert his interest in it has been variously stated. It is sometimes said that it is because he has not come to equity with clean hands. This was the reason given by Alexander CB in Groves v Groves (1828) 3 Y & J 163 at 174, 148 ER 1136 at 1141 and by Salmon LJ (with whom Cross LJ agreed) in Tinker v Tinker [1970] 1 All ER 540 at 543, [1970] P 136 at 143. Sometimes it is said that the claimant cannot be heard or allowed to assert his claim to an equitable interest, as in Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739 at 746, 31 ER 1285 at 1288 per Lord Eldon LC, Childers v Childers (1857) 3 K & J 310 at 315, 69 ER 1126 at 1129 per Page Wood V-C and Cantor v Cox (1976) 239 EG 121 at 122 per Plowman V-C. But this is, as I see it, another way of saying that the claimant must fail because he has not come to the court with clean hands. It follows that in these cases the requirements necessary to give rise to an equitable interest are present; it is simply that the claimant is precluded from asserting them. This explains why, in cases where the unlawful purpose has not been carried into effect, the court is able to hold that, despite the illegality, there is an equitable interest to which the claimant is entitled.
Another conclusion follows from the identification of the basis upon which equity refuses its assistance in these cases. This is that the circumstances in which the court refuses to assist the claimant in asserting his equitable interest are not limited to cases in which there is a presumption of advancement in favour of the transferee. If that was the case, the principle could be said to be limited to those cases in which the transferor has to rely upon the illegal transaction in order to rebut the presumption; in other words the cases could be said to fall within what is sometimes called the Bowmaker rule, under which a claimant’s claim is unenforceable when he has either to found his claim on an illegal transaction or to plead its illegality in order to support his claim: see Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65. Of course, in a number of cases of this kind, especially in modern times, the presumption of advancement does apply, because many cases are concerned with a man hiding away his assets in order to escape his creditors, or for some other similar purpose, by transferring them to his wife or to one of his children. But there are cases in which the principle has been applied, or has been recognised, where there was no presumption of advancement. Examples are Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739, 31 ER 1285, Ex p Yallop (1808) 15 Ves 60, 33 ER 677, Roberts v Roberts (1818) Dan 143, 159 ER 862, Groves v Groves (1828) 3 Y & J 163, 148 ER 1136, Haigh v Kaye (1872) LR 7 Ch App 469, Re Great Berlin Steamboat Co (1884) 26 Ch D 616 and Cantor v Cox (1975) 239 EG 121. Of course, where the presumption of advancement does apply, and the illegality is not established from another source, for example by the defendant, the claimant will be in the particular difficulty that, in order to rebut the presumption, he will have to rely upon the underlying transaction and so will of necessity have to disclose his own illegality. This is what happened in Chettiar
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v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494, [1962] AC 294, where the property in question had been transferred by the claimant to his son, who, having fallen ill, took no part in the hearing and so himself gave no evidence of the illegality; even so, the father’s claim failed because he was unable to rebut the presumption of advancement without relying upon the illegal transaction. But the case does not decide that the principle only applies where it is necessary to rebut the presumption of advancement; and, as I have already stated, there are many cases in which the principle has been recognised or applied where there was no such presumption. Furthermore, if for example the defendant proves that the property was transferred to him for a fraudulent or illegal purpose, a court of equity will refuse to assist the claimant when asserting his interest in it, even though the claimant’s case can be, and was, advanced, without reference to the underlying legal purpose, for example on the simple basis that the transfer of the property to the defendant was without consideration. This conclusion follows inevitably from the nature of the principle, and the grounds upon which equity refuses its assistance; it is at least implicit in a number of cases, such as Platamone v Staple (1815) Coop G 250, 35 ER 548, Groves v Groves (1828) 3 Y & J 163, 148 ER 1136 and Haigh v Kaye (1872) LR 7 Ch App 469. It follows that the so-called Bowmaker rule does not apply in cases concerned with the principle under discussion, because, once it comes to the attention of a court of equity that the claimant has not come to the court with clean hands, the court will refuse to assist the claimant, even though the claimant can prima facie establish his claim without recourse to the underlying fraudulent or illegal purpose. This is a point to which I will return when I come to consider the judgment of Lloyd LJ in the present case.
It is against the background of these established principles that I turn to consider the judgments of the majority of the Court of Appeal. As I have recorded, Nicholls LJ in particular invoked a line of recent cases, largely developed in the Court of Appeal, from which he deduced the proposition that, in cases of illegality, the underlying principle is the so-called public conscience test, under which the court must weigh, or balance, the adverse consequences of respectively granting or refusing relief. This is little different, if at all, from stating that the court has a discretion whether to grant or refuse relief. It is very difficult to reconcile such a test with the principle of policy stated by Lord Mansfield CJ in Holman v Johnson (1775) 1 Cowp 341 at 343, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 98 at 99, or with the established principles to which I have referred. It is necessary therefore to examine with some care the authorities relied upon by Nicholls LJ in support of his statement of the applicable law.
The first case is Thackwell v Barclays Bank plc [1986] 1 All ER 676. In that case the plaintiff claimed damages from the defendant bank for negligence and conversion of a cheque by the bank. The point was taken that the cheque formed part of a fraudulent financing scheme, to which the plaintiff was a party; and the bank (whose defence under s 4 of the Cheques Act 1957 failed, because the judge, Hutchison J, held that the bank ought to have been put on inquiry) pleaded that the plaintiff’s claim must fail by reason of the maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio. It was conceded on behalf of the plaintiff that, if he knew at the time that there was such a scheme, his claim must fail. Hutchison J held that the plaintiff knew from the outset that the scheme was fraudulent and willingly participated in it. Accordingly the plaintiff’s claim failed. However, the defendant had advanced an alternative argument on the basis of which he submitted that, even if the plaintiff was innocent, his claim should fail. The judge accepted this alternative argument, and indicated that, even if he had held the plaintiff to be
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innocent, he would have denied him recovery. In this argument, we find the origin of the so-called public conscience test, which involved—
‘the court looking at the quality of the illegality relied on by the defendant and all the surrounding circumstances, without fine distinctions, and seeking to answer two questions: first, whether there had been illegality of which the court should take notice and, second, whether in all the circumstances it would be an affront to the public conscience if by affording him the relief sought the court was seen to be indirectly assisting or encouraging the plaintiff in his criminal act.’ (See [1986] 1 All ER 676 at 687.)
It is to be observed that the test is not stated as a general principle, but as a limited principle under which the court may deny relief in certain specific circumstances, even though the claimant is not implicated in the illegality. Furthermore, the test does not as stated involve any balancing exercise of the kind described by Nicholls LJ in the present case. It is unnecessary for your Lordships’ House to consider for present purposes whether the test accepted by Hutchison J is good law or not. I wish only to refer to the fact that of the four cases relied upon as providing support for it, the first (Burns v Edman [1970] 1 All ER 886, [1970] 2 QB 541) was concerned with a claim under the Fatal Accidents Acts founded upon the income from the deceased as a burglar, the second (Murphy v Culhane [1976] 3 All ER 533, [1977] QB 94) was concerned with a claim for damages by the deceased’s widow, the deceased having been killed by the defendant during a criminal affray initiated by the deceased), the third (Shelley v Paddock [1980] 1 All ER 1009, [1980] QB 348) was concerned with a claim for damages for fraud, where the defendant had swindled the plaintiff out of the price paid by her for property in Spain, the plaintiff having innocently paid the money in breach of the Exchange Control Act 1947, and the fourth (Geismar v Sun Alliance and London Insurance Ltd [1977] 3 All ER 570, [1978] QB 383) was a case in which the plaintiff’s claim to an indemnity under a contract of insurance, in respect of the loss of jewellery deliberately imported in breach of the Customs and Excise Act 1952, failed because recovery of such an indemnity would indirectly enable the plaintiff to profit from his deliberate breach of the law. It is by no means easy to see how any broadly applicable public conscience test could be derived from these authorities.
However, in three subsequent cases the principle so accepted by Hutchison J was adopted and expanded by the Court of Appeal. The first was Saunders v Edwards [1987] 2 All ER 651, [1987] 1 WLR 1116. The case was concerned with a claim by the purchasers of the lease of a flat against the vendor for damages for fraudulently misrepresenting that the flat included a roof terrace. In answer, the defendant pleaded illegality, on the ground that the respective values of the flat and certain chattels in it had been distorted in the contract at the suggestion of the plaintiffs by exaggerating the value of the chattels and so diminishing the value of the flat, in order to reduce the stamp duty payable on the transaction. The plaintiffs succeeded in their claim, having an unassailable claim for damages for fraud which did not involve any reliance on the contract of sale itself; but reference was made to Hutchison J’s judgment in Thackwell v Barclays Bank plc [1986] 1 All ER 676, and Nicholls LJ in particular adopted and applied the public conscience test as being applicable in a case concerned with a claim in tort arising out of fraudulent activities.
A further step was taken by the Court of Appeal in Euro-Diam Ltd v Bathurst [1988] 2 All ER 23, [1990] 1 QB 1, a case concerned with a claim under an insurance policy in respect of a consignment of precious stones exported to West
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Germany which was stolen from a German company’s warehouse. The defendant raised an issue of illegality, which was rejected both at first instance and by the Court of Appeal. It is enough for present purposes to record that Kerr LJ, citing Saunders v Edwards, stated the principles relating to illegality in a series of numbered paragraphs, in the first of which he stated that—
‘the ex turpi causa defence ... applies if in all the circumstances it would be an affront to the public conscience to grant the plaintiff the relief which he seeks because the court would thereby appear to assist or encourage the plaintiff in his illegal conduct or to encourage others in similar acts ...’ (See [1988] 2 All ER 23 at 28–29, [1990] 1 QB 1 at 35.)
This broad general statement appears to have been qualified in a later paragraph in Kerr LJ’s statement of the law; even so, we can here see the limited principle accepted by Hutchison J being given a new and wider role, apparently with the purpose of softening the rigour of the principle of policy established in the older authorities.
A more decisive step was taken in the third case, Howard v Shirlstar Container Transport Ltd [1990] 3 All ER 366, [1990] 1 WLR 1292. The case was concerned with a contract for the recovery from Nigeria of an aircraft owned by the defendants which was being detained by the Nigerian authorities at Lagos. Under the contract, the plaintiff was entitled to recover a fee of £25,000 if he ‘successfully’ removed the aircraft from Nigerian airspace. He succeeded in so doing, in so far as he, at some risk to his life, flew the aircraft out of Lagos as far as the Ivory Coast, where however the aircraft was impounded by the authorities and returned by them to Nigeria. The plaintiff’s claim for the balance of his fee was met by the defence of illegality, on the ground that he took off without obtaining the necessary clearance in breach of air traffic control regulations at Lagos; in fact he had left in a hurry, without obtaining clearance, because he had been warned that his and his wireless operator’s lives were in danger and that he would not be given permission to take off. The Court of Appeal, deciding that the defence of illegality failed, relied explicitly on the public conscience test, holding that the conscience of the court would not be affronted by enforcing the plaintiff’s claim under the contract for the balance of his fee. This appears to have been a case concerned not so much with an illegal contract as such, but with illegality committed in the perform-ance of the contract. In normal circumstances, one would have expected it to be decided on the principle stated by Devlin J in St John Shipping Corp v Joseph Rank Ltd [1956] 3 All ER 683, [1957] 1 QB 267. In any event, there was evidence that the plaintiff’s and his companion’s lives were in danger, and that this might well have provided a defence to the alleged breach of Nigerian law—a point left open by the Court of Appeal.
Finally there came the explicit reliance on the public conscience test by Nicholls LJ in the present case, in the manner I have described.
I feel driven to say that what appears to have happened is that a principle, developed by counsel for the defendant bank in Thackwell v Barclays Bank plc [1986] 1 All ER 676 for a limited purpose in the context of a claim in tort, has been allowed to expand, both in its terms and in its range of application, so that it is now suggested that it operates as a broad qualifying principle, modifying and indeed transforming the long-established principles applicable in cases of illegality, and in particular in relation to the principle established as applicable in cases such as the present. Furthermore, this development has been allowed to occur without addressing the questions (1) whether the test is consistent with earlier authority, (2) if it was not so consistent, whether such a development could
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take place consistently with the doctrine of precedent as applied in the Court of Appeal, or (3) whether the resulting change in the law, if permissible, was desirable. It is unnecessary for your Lordships to decide whether any such test is applicable in the limited context in which it originally emerged before Hutchison J. It is sufficient for present purposes to say, with the greatest respect, that to apply the public conscience test as qualifying the principle established for nearly two hundred years as applicable in cases such as the present is, for reasons I have already stated, inconsistent with numerous authorities binding on the Court of Appeal. In expressing this opinion, I wish to stress that, as can so often happen, your Lordships have had the benefit of a far fuller citation of authority than was available to the Court of Appeal, which has revealed that (contrary to the view expressed by Nicholls LJ ([1992] 2 All ER 391 at 400, [1992] Ch 310 at 322)) the decision in Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739, 31 ER 1285 was not followed by ‘a surprising dearth of authority, for over a century’. On the contrary, there were numerous cases decided during that period, many of which I have already cited, in which the principle was recognised or applied. Nor in my opinion can it be said (as stated by Nicholls LJ ([1992] 2 All ER 391 at 401, [1992] Ch 310 at 324)) that the authorities in this line in which equity refuses its assistance can properly be regarded as examples of cases in which, in particular circumstances, the court considered that to have granted relief would have been ‘an affront to the public conscience’, or (as suggested by Lloyd LJ ([1992] 2 All ER 391 at 416, [1992] Ch 310 at 341)) as cases ‘where the equitable balance came down against the plaintiff’. There is no trace of any such principle forming part of the decisions in any of the cases in question. It follows that in my opinion, on the authorities, it was not open to the majority of the Court of Appeal to dismiss the appellant’s claim on the basis of the public conscience test invoked by Nicholls LJ, or indeed on the basis of the flexible approach adopted by Lloyd LJ, to whose judgment I now turn.
Lloyd LJ held that it was not the respondent, but the appellant, who had relied on the illegality in the present case; and that accordingly, on the Bowmaker rule (see Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65), the respondent was entitled to succeed in her claim for an equitable interest in the house. This theme is developed in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson, who has discerned a development in the law since the late nineteenth century which supports this approach.
For reasons which I have already given, I have been unable to discover any such development in the law. As I read the authorities, they reveal a consistent application of the principle, subject only to the recognition of a locus poenitentiae for the claimant where the illegal purpose has not been carried into effect. Furthermore, the invocation by Lloyd LJ of the Bowmaker rule is, as I have already indicated, inconsistent with principle and authority. This conclusion flows from the nature of the principle itself, which is that a court of equity will not assist a claimant who does not come to equity with clean hands. This equitable maxim is more broadly based than the Bowmaker rule. It is founded on the principle that he who has committed iniquity shall not have equity; and what is required to invoke the maxim is no more than that the alleged misconduct has ‘an immediate and necessary relation to the equity sued for’: see Dering v Earl of Winchelsea (1787) 1 Cox Eq Cas 318 at 319–320, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 140 at 142, and Snell’s Equity (29th edn, 1990) p 32.
I have already expressed my respectful disagreement with the view expressed by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson that the law has already developed at least in the direction of the conclusion which he favours. I have nevertheless considered whether your Lordships’ House should in the present
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case develop the law, with a view to qualifying the principle by the application to it of the Bowmaker rule. I can see the temptation of doing so, if one focuses only on the facts of the present case, in which it seems particularly harsh not to assist the respondent to establish her equitable interest in the house where not only was the appellant implicated in precisely the same fraud on the Department of Social Security, but the fraud in question can be regarded as relatively minor and indeed all too prevalent, and the respondent has readily confessed her wrongdoing to the department and has made amends to them. Furthermore, it is probable that, if the appeal should be allowed, the effect will be that she will lose all her capital. But it is not to be forgotten that other cases in this category will not evoke the same sympathy on the part of the court. There may be cases in which the fraud is far more serious than that in the present case, and is uncovered not as a result of a confession but only after a lengthy police investigation and a prolonged criminal trial. Again there may be cases in which a group of terrorists, or armed robbers, secure a base for their criminal activities by buying a house in the name of a third party not directly implicated in those activities. In cases such as these there will almost certainly be no presumption of advancement. Is it really to be said that criminals such as these, or their personal representatives, are entitled to invoke the assistance of a court of equity in order to establish an equitable interest in property? It may be said that these are extreme cases; but I find it difficult to see how, in this context at least, it is possible to distinguish between degrees of iniquity. At all events, I cannot think that the harsh consequences which will arise from the application of the established principle in a case such as the present provide a satisfactory basis for developing the law in a manner which will open the door to far more unmeritorious cases, especially as the proposed development in the law appears to me to be contrary to the established principle underlying the authorities.
Finally, I wish to revert to the public conscience test favoured by Nicholls LJ in the Court of Appeal. Despite the fact that I have concluded that on the authorities it was not open to the Court of Appeal to apply the public conscience test to a case such as the present, I have considered whether it is open to your Lordships’ House to do so and, if so, whether it would be desirable to take this course. Among the authorities cited to your Lordships, there was no decision of this House; technically, therefore, it may be said that this House is free to depart from the line of authority to which I have referred. But the fact remains that the principle invoked by the appellant has been consistently applied for about two centuries. Furthermore the adoption of the public conscience test, as stated by Nicholls LJ, would constitute a revolution in this branch of the law, under which what is in effect a discretion would become vested in the court to deal with the matter by the process of a balancing operation, in place of a system of rules, ultimately derived from the principle of public policy enunciated by Lord Mansfield CJ in Holman v Johnson (1775) 1 Cowp 341, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 98, which lies at the root of the law relating to claims which are, in one way or another, tainted by illegality. Furthermore, the principle of public policy so stated by Lord Mansfield CJ cannot be disregarded as having no basis in principle. In his dissenting judgment in the present case Ralph Gibson LJ pointed out ([1992] 2 All ER 391 at 410, [1992] Ch 310 at 334):
‘In so far as the basis of the ex turpi causa defence, as founded on public policy, is directed at deterrence it seems to me that the force of the deterrent effect is in the existence of the known rule and in its stern application. Lawyers have long known of the rule and must have advised many people of its existence. It does not stop people making arrangements to defraud
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creditors, or the Revenue, or the [Department of Social Security]. Such arrangements as are under consideration in this case are usually made between married couples, as in Tinker v Tinker, or between unmarried lovers, as in this case or in Cantor v Cox. If they do not fall out, no one will know. If they do fall out, one side may reveal the fraud. It is an ugly situation when that is done. I think that the law has upheld the principle on the simple ground that, ugly though its working may be, it is better than permitting the fraudulent an avenue of escape if the fraud is revealed.’
I recognise, of course, the hardship which the application of the present law imposes upon the respondent in this case; and I do not disguise my own unhappiness at the result. But, bearing in mind the passage from the judgment of Ralph Gibson LJ which I have just quoted, I have to say that it is by no means self-evident that the public conscience text is preferable to the present strict rules. Certainly, I do not feel able to say that it would be appropriate for your Lordships House, in the face of a long line of unbroken authority stretching back over two hundred years, now by judicial decision to replace the principles established in those authorities by a wholly different discretionary system.
In saying this, I have well in mind the reform introduced in New Zealand by the New Zealand Illegal Contracts Act 1970, which in s 6 provides that ‘... every illegal contract shall be of no effect and no person shall become entitled to any property under a disposition made by or pursuant to any such contract ...’; and in s 7 confers on the court the power to grant relief ‘by way of restitution, compensation, variation of the contract, validation of the contract in whole or part or for any particular purpose, or otherwise howsoever as the court in its discretion thinks just’. These provisions of the Act demonstrate how sweeping a reform was considered necessary by the New Zealand legislature in order to substitute a system of discretionary relief for the present system of rules founded upon the in pari delicto principle; and even then the Act is restricted to cases concerned with illegal contracts. Your Lordships have no means of ascertaining how successful the Act has proved to be in practice; or whether, for example, it is considered that the scope of the Act should be extended to embrace other types of illegality. In truth, everything points to the conclusion that, if there is to be a reform aimed at substituting a system of discretionary relief for the present rules, the reform is one which should only be instituted by the legislature, after a full inquiry into the matter by the Law Commission, such inquiry to embrace not only the perceived advantages and disadvantages of the present law, but also the likely advantages and disadvantages of a system of discretionary relief, no doubt with particular reference to the New Zealand experience. The real criticism of the present rules is not that they are unprincipled, but rather that they are indiscriminate in their effect, and are capable therefore of producing injustice. It is this effect which no doubt prompted the reform of the law in New Zealand, embodied in the 1970 Act; and it prompts me to say that, speaking for myself, I would welcome an investigation by the Law Commission, if this is considered desirable and practicable by the authorities concerned; and that I would be more than happy if a new system could be evolved which was both satisfactory in its effect and capable of avoiding the kind of result which flows from the established rules of law in cases such as the present.
For these reasons, which are substantially the same as those expressed by Ralph Gibson LJ in his dissenting judgment in the Court of Appeal, I would allow the appeal.
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LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, the parties to this appeal lived together for some years in a house in Mid-Glamorgan which they ran as a lodging-house. The purchase price of the house was provided by a mortgage loan from the bank and a sum of money which was provided jointly by the parties. It was, however, agreed between them that the title should be taken in the sole name of the appellant in order to facilitate the making by the respondent of false claims upon the Department of Social Security. In 1988 the parties fell out and the appellant moved out of the house. She subsequently raised the present action claiming possession of the property and the respondent counterclaimed for a declaration to the effect that the appellant held the property on trust for the respondent and the appellant in equal shares. The county court judge dismissed the claim and found for the defendant on the counterclaim and the Court of Appeal by a majority (Ralph Gibson LJ dissenting) dismissed the appellant’s appeal (see [1992] 2 All ER 391, [1992] Ch 310). The issues in the courts below and before this House revolved round the illegal purpose of taking the title of the house in the name of the appellant alone.
Had the case been heard by Lord Eldon in the early years of the nineteenth century there could be no doubt as to what the results would have been. In Muckleston v Brown (1801) 6 Ves 52 at 69, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 501 at 506 Lord Eldon LC said:
‘... the Plaintiff stating, he had been guilty of a fraud upon the law, to evade, to disappoint, the provision of the Legislature, to which he is bound to submit, and coming to equity to be relieved against his own act, and the defence being dishonest, between the two species of dishonesty the Court would not act; but would say “Let the estate lie, where it falls.”’
In the following year, in Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739, 31 ER 1285, Lord Eldon LC had to consider whether a deceased member of Parliament could have claimed an equitable interest in a ship which had been registered in the sole name of his partner in order to evade a statutory provision which would have imposed penalties on the member of Parliament had the ship been employed in the service of the government while he was a member. It appears to have been argued, inter alia, that there was an implied trust by operation of law since the purchase had been made of joint property. The Lord Chancellor rejected this argument saying that as between the two partners, Chiswell, the member of Parliament, could not be heard to say that he had any interest in the ship. He went on the say (6 Ves 739 at 744, 31 ER 1285 at 1288):
‘The reason for waiving any right Chiswell had in consequence of the manner, in which Nantes made this purchase, the object of keeping the ships registered in the name of Nantes, was, that a profit might be made by the employment of them in contracts with Government; and Chiswell was a Member of Parliament; who, the law says , shall not be a contractor. The moment the purpose to defeat the policy of the law by fraudulently concealing, that this was his property, is admitted, it is very clear, he ought not to be heard in this Court to say, that is his property.’
Curtis v Perry was commented on by Lord Eldon LC in Ex p Yallop (1808) 15 Ves 60, 33 ER 677, in which it was held that the registry of a ship was conclusive evidence of ownership. Lord Eldon LC, after referring to Chiswell’s conduct, said (15 Ves 60 at 70, 33 ER 677 at 681):
‘Two principles therefore stood in his way: first, that he had broken in upon the policy of the Act of Parliament; and could not be permitted to say,
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he had property of this nature, not subject to the regulations of the Act; and farther, that he had done so for the purpose of defeating another law; meaning to hold himself out not to be owner of those ships; as they were bound by contracts, of which he, being a Member of Parliament, could not have the benefit. Under those circumstances it could not possibly be contended, that he had that character of owner, which for his own private and fraudulent purpose he had disclaimed.’
The Act of Parliament was of course the Act providing for registration of ownership of ships. I do not understand Lord Eldon LC to be there saying that Chiswell’s claim to an equitable interest was defeated only because of a combination of two grounds but rather that it would have been defeated on either ground. It seems probable that the second ground would have been decisive of the present appeal. The question in 1993 is whether the law remains the same or whether in the intervening 180 or more years the very broad principles enunciated by Lord Eldon LC have been to any extent modified.
At the outset it seems to me to be important to distinguish between the enforcement of executory provisions arising under an illegal contract or other transaction and the enforcement of rights already acquired under the completed provisions of such a contract or transaction. Your Lordships were referred to a very considerable number of authorities, both ancient and modern, from which certain propositions may be derived.
First: it is trite law that the court will not give its assistance to the enforcement of executory provisions of an unlawful contract whether the illegality is apparent ex facie the document or whether the illegality of purpose of what would otherwise be a lawful contract emerges during the course of the trial (see Holman v Johnson (1775) 1 Cowp 341 at 343, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 98 at 99 per Lord Mansfield CJ, Pearce v Brooks (1866) LR 1 Exch 213 at 217–218, [1861–73] All ER Rep 102 at 103 per Pollock CB, Alexander v Rayson [1936] 1 KB 169 at 182, [1935] All ER Rep 185 at 191 and Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579 at 582, [1945] KB 65 at 70).
Second: it is well established that a party is not entitled to rely on his own fraud or illegality in order to assist a claim or rebut a presumption. Thus when money or property has been transferred by a man to his wife or children for the purpose of defrauding creditors and the transferee resists his claim for recovery he cannot be heard to rely on his illegal purpose in order to rebut the presumption of advancement (see Gascoigne v Gascoigne [1918] 1 KB 223 at 226, Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494 at 498, [1962] AC 294 at 302 and Tinker v Tinker [1970] 1 All ER 540 at 543, [1970] P 136 at 143 per Salmon LJ).
Third: it has, however, for some years been recognised that a completely executed transfer of property or of an interest in property made in pursuance of an unlawful agreement is valid and the court will assist the transferee in the protection of his interest provided that he does not require to found on the unlawful agreement (see Ayerst v Jenkins (1873) LR 16 Eq 275 at 283, Alexander v Rayson [1936] 1 KB 169 at 184–185, [1935] All ER Rep 185 at 191, Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65, Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali [1960] 1 All ER 269 at 272–273, [1960] AC 167 at 176). To the extent, at least, of his third proposition it would appear that there has been some modification over the years of Lord Eldon LC’s principles.
The ultimate question in this appeal is, in my view, whether the respondent in claiming the existence of a resulting trust in her favour is seeking to enforce unperformed provisions of an unlawful transaction or whether she is simply relying on an equitable proprietary interest that she has already acquired under
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such a transaction. The nature of a resulting trust was described by Lord Diplock in Gissing v Gissing [1970] 2 All ER 780 at 790, [1971] AC 886 at 905 as follows:
‘A resulting, implied or constructive trust—and it is unnecessary for present purposes to distinguish between these three classes of trust—is created by a transaction between the trustee and the cestui que trust in connection with the acquisition by the trustee of a legal estate in land, whenever the trustee has so conducted himself that it would be inequitable to allow him to deny to the cestui que trust a beneficial interest in the land acquired. And he will be held so to have conducted himself if by his words or conduct he has induced the cestui que trust to act to his own detriment in the reasonable belief that by so acting he was acquiring a beneficial interest in the land.’
I find this a very narrow question but I have come to the conclusion that the transaction whereby the claimed resulting trust in favour of the respondent was created was the agreement between the parties that, although funds were to be provided by both of them, nevertheless the title to the house was to be in the sole name of the appellant for the unlawful purpose of defrauding the Department of Social Security. So long as that agreement remained unperformed neither party could have enforced it against the other. However, as soon as the agreement was implemented by the sale to the appellant alone she became trustee for the respondent who can now rely on the equitable proprietary interest which has thereby been presumed to have been created in her favour and has no need to rely on the illegal transaction which led to its creation.
My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree with it and for the reasons contained therein as well as for the reasons in this speech I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches prepared by your Lordships and find myself in agreement with the conclusions reached by my noble and learned friends Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle and Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I acknowledge the persuasive force which has informed both the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley and the judgment of Ralph Gibson LJ in the Court of Appeal, but I am unable to accept and act upon Lord Eldon LC’s wide principle despite its eminent authorship and its impressive antiquity.
The advancement cases belong to a class in relation to which the rule seems to me to conform with equitable principles. The ostensible donor makes a gift with a fraudulent purpose in view; when he tries to assert his equitable title, he is obliged to rely on his own fraud in order to rebut the presumption of advancement. Equity, through the mouth of the court, then says, ‘We will not assist you to recover your property, because you have to give evidence of your own wrongdoing in order to succeed.' On the other hand, under the wide principle, someone in the position of Miss Milligan, who has only to show a trust, resulting from the fact (which he must prove or which may be admitted) that the property was acquired wholly or partly by the use of his money, is said to be defeated by the maxim that he who comes into equity must come with clean hands, on the ground that the original transaction was undertaken for a fraudulent purpose. But in the latter case the claimant is not relying on his own fraud in order to
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succeed and is merely said to be defeated by a rule of policy, despite the fact that he already has an equitable interest, as the locus poenitentiae rule confirms.
In Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739, 31 ER 1285, as to which I happily adopt the analysis of my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey, Lord Eldon LC gave two reasons for defeating the creditors of Chiswell’s estate, but much the more important and just reason to my mind, as I think the report of the judgment indicates, was the fact that Nantes had registered the ships in his name under the relevant Acts and that both he and Chiswell had led the trading world to believe that they were Nantes’s sole property. Of course, as my noble and learned friend Lord Goff has illustrated, Curtis v Perry is by no means a unique example of the application of Lord Eldon LC’s wide principle to cases in which there was no presumption of advancement, but even a plurality of examples does not in my opinion endow the wide principle with validity.
The rule of policy which is said to justify the wide principle should be closely examined. A and B buy property in equal shares and by agreement B acquires the legal title. A, either by himself or in conspiracy with B (who may or may not stand to benefit from the fraud), plans to obtain a financial advantage by falsely pretending that he owns no property: if A goes through with the scheme, the wide principle applies, although, in order to assert his rights against B, A does not need to rely on his own fraud. Indeed, where the presumption of advancement does not apply, it is B who will have to rely on the fraud (to which in some cases he has been privy) as a defence. If, on the other hand, the property has been innocently acquired and A later takes advantage of his lack of a legal title to make the same false pretence, his claim against B on foot of a resulting trust cannot be defeated. The criminal sanction against A is the same in either case.
I am not impressed by the argument that the wide principle acts as a deterrent to persons in A’s position. In the first place, they may not be aware of the principle and are unlikely to consult a reputable solicitor. Secondly, if they commit a fraud, they will not have been deterred by the possibility of being found out and prosecuted. Furthermore, the wide principle could be a positive encouragement to B, if he is aware of the principle, because by means of his complicity he may become not only the legal owner but the beneficial owner.
For A to take proceedings in order to vindicate his equitable rights as sole or joint beneficial owner is not an example of the maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio because his equitable title and his cause of action do not arise out of his illegal or immoral act. It is B who must rely on the turpis causa as a defence.
The foregoing considerations render me all the more convinced that the right view is that a party cannot rely on his own illegality in order to prove his equitable right, and not that a party cannot recover if his illegality is proved as a defence to his claim. I consider that the wide principle is not well founded and, since it is not binding on your Lordships, that your Lordships should not follow it.
While the Bowmaker rule (see Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65) could not unaided overturn a sound and established principle of equity, I find it satisfactory that the course preferred by my noble and learned friends Lord Jauncey and Lord Browne-Wilkinson will promote harmony between equity and the common law. Accordingly, for the reasons which they have given, and also for the further reasons which I have mentioned, I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I agree with the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley that the consequences of being a party to an illegal transaction cannot depend, as the majority in the Court of Appeal
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held, on such an imponderable factor as the extent to which the public conscience would be affronted by recognising rights created by illegal transactions. However, I have the misfortune to disagree with him as to the correct principle to be applied in a case where equitable property rights are acquired as a result of an illegal transaction.
Neither at law nor in equity will the court enforce an illegal contract which has been partially, but not fully, performed. However, it does not follow that all acts done under a partially performed contract are of no effect. In particular it is now clearly established that at law (as opposed to in equity) property in goods or land can pass under, or pursuant to, such a contract. If so, the rights of the owner of the legal title thereby acquired will be enforced, provided that the plaintiff can establish such title without pleading or leading evidence of the illegality. It is said that the property lies where it falls, even though legal title to the property was acquired as a result of the property passing under the illegal contract itself. I will first consider the modern authorities laying down the circumstances under which a legal proprietary interest acquired under an illegal transaction will be enforced by the courts. I will then consider whether the courts adopt a different attitude to equitable proprietary interests so acquired.
The position at law is well illustrated by the decision in Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65. In that case Barnet acquired three parcels of machine tools which had previously belonged to Smith. The transaction was carried through by three hire-purchase agreements under which Smith sold the goods to Bowmakers, who then hired them to Barnet. All three agreements were unlawful as being in breach of defence regulations: it is important to note that in the case of at least two of the parcels the illegality lay in the contract under which Bowmakers acquired the machine tools from Smith (see [1944] 2 All ER 579 at 581, [1945] KB 65 at 69). Bowmakers succeeded in an action for conversion against Barnet. Even though it appeared from the pleadings and the evidence that the contract under which Bowmakers acquired the goods was illegal, such contract was effective to pass the property in the goods to Bowmakers, who could therefore found their claim on the property right so acquired.
The position at law is further illustrated by Feret v Hill (1854) 15 CB 207, [1843–60] All ER Rep 924, where A, with intent to use premises as a brothel, took a lease from B. B, having discovered that the premises were being used as a brothel, ejected A. A was held entitled to maintain ejectment against B notwithstanding that A entered into the lease for an illegal purpose.
In Taylor v Chester (1869) LR 4 QB 309, [1861–73] All ER Rep 154 the plaintiff had deposited with the defendant half a £50 note as security for payment due under an illegal contract with the defendant. The plaintiff was held unable to recover the half note as a special property in it (ie the security interest) had passed to the defendant.
In Alexander v Rayson [1936] 1 KB 169, [1935] All ER Rep 185 the plaintiff had leased a property to the defendant. For the purpose of defrauding the rating authorities, the plaintiff had carried through the transaction by two documents, one a lease which expressed a low rent the other a service agreement providing for additional payments sufficient to bring up the annual payment to the actual rent agreed. The plaintiff failed in an action to recover rent due under the agreements but the Court of Appeal said that, if the plaintiff had let the flat to be used for an illegal purpose, the leasehold interest in the flat would have vested in the defendant, who would have been entitled to remain in possession of the flat
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until and unless the plaintiff could eject her without relying on the unlawful agreement (see [1936] 1 KB 169 at 186, [1935] All ER Rep 185 at 193).
From these authorities the following propositions emerge.
(1) Property in chattels and land can pass under a contract which is illegal and therefore would have been unenforceable as a contract.
(2) A plaintiff can at law enforce property rights so acquired provided that he does not need to rely on the illegal contract for any purpose other than providing the basis of his claim to a property right.
(3) It is irrelevant that the illegality of the underlying agreement was either pleaded or emerged in evidence: if the plaintiff has acquired legal title under the illegal contract that is enough.
I have stressed the common law rules as to the impact of illegality on the acquisition and enforcement of property rights because it is the appellant’s contention that different principles apply in equity. In particular it is said that equity will not aid the respondent to assert, establish or enforce an equitable, as opposed to a legal, proprietary interest since she was a party to the fraud on the Department of Social Security. The house was put in the name of the appellant alone (instead of joint names) to facilitate the fraud. Therefore, it is said, the respondent does not come to equity with clean hands: consequently, equity will not aid her.
Most authorities to which we were referred deal with enforcing proprietary rights under a trust; I will deal with them in due course. But before turning to them, I must point out that, if the appellant’s argument is correct, the results would be far reaching and, I suggest, very surprising. There are many proprietary rights, apart from trusts, which are only enforceable in equity. For example, an agreement for a lease under which the tenant has entered is normally said to be as good as a lease, since under such an agreement equity treats the lease as having been granted and the ‘lessee’ as having a proprietary interest enforceable against the whole world except the bona fide purchaser for value without notice. Would the result in Feret v Hill (1854) 15 CB 207, [1843–60] All ER Rep 924 have been different if there had only been an agreement for a lease? Say that in Taylor v Chester (1869) LR 4 QB 309, [1861–73] All ER Rep 154 the plaintiff had deposited by way of security share certificates instead of half a bank note (thereby producing only an equitable security): would the outcome have been different? Similarly, if the plaintiff were relying on an assignment of a chose in action: would he succeed if the assignment was a legal assignment but fail if it were equitable?
In my judgment to draw such distinctions between property rights enforceable at law and those which require the intervention of equity would be surprising. More than 100 years has elapsed since the fusion of the administration of law and equity. The reality of the matter is that, in 1993, English law has one single law of property made up of legal and equitable interests. Although for historical reasons legal estates and equitable estates have differing incidents, the person owning either type of estate has a right of property, a right in rem not merely a right in personam. If the law is that a party is entitled to enforce a property right acquired under an illegal transaction, in my judgment the same rule ought to apply to any property right so acquired, whether such right is legal or equitable.
In the present case, the respondent claims under a resulting or implied trust. The courts below have found, and it is not now disputed, that apart from the question of illegality the respondent would have been entitled in equity to a half share in the house in accordance with the principles exemplified in Gissing v Gissing [1970] 2 All ER 780, [1971] AC 886, Grant v Edwards [1986] 2 All ER 426, [1986] Ch 638 and Lloyds Bank plc v Rosset [1990] 1 All ER 1111, [1991] 1 AC 107.
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The creation of such an equitable interest does not depend upon a contractual obligation but on a common intention acted upon by the parties to their detriment. It is a development of the old law of resulting trust under which, where two parties have provided the purchase money to buy a property which is conveyed into the name of one of them alone, the latter is presumed to hold the property on a resulting trust for both parties in shares proportionate to their contributions to the purchase price. In argument, no distinction was drawn between strict resulting trusts and a Gissing v Gissing type of trust.
A presumption of resulting trust also arises in equity when A transfers personalty or money to B: see Snell’s Equity (29th edn, 1990) pp 183–184, Standing v Bowring (1885) 31 Ch D 282 at 287, [1881–85] All ER Rep 702 at 704 per Cotton LJ and Dewar v Dewar [1975] 2 All ER 728 at 732, [1975] 1 WLR 1532 at 1537. Before 1925 there was also a presumption of resulting trust when land was voluntarily transferred by A to B; it is arguable, however, that the position has been altered by the 1925 property legislation: see Snell (29th edn) p 182. The presumption of a resulting trust is, in my view, crucial in considering the authorities. On that presumption (and on the contrary presumption of advancement) hinges the answer to the crucial question: does a plaintiff claiming under a resulting trust have to rely on the underlying illegality? Where the presumption of resulting trust applies, the plaintiff does not have to rely on the illegality. If he proves that the property is vested in the defendant alone but that the plaintiff provided part of the purchase money, or voluntarily transferred the property to the defendant, the plaintiff establishes his claim under a resulting trust unless either the contrary presumption of advancement displaces the presumption of resulting trust or the defendant leads evidence to rebut the presumption of resulting trust. Therefore, in cases where the presumption of advancement does not apply, a plaintiff can establish his equitable interest in the property without relying in any way on the underlying illegal transaction. In this case the respondent as defendant simply pleaded the common intention that the property should belong to both of them and that she contributed to the purchase price: she claimed that in consequence the property belonged to them equally. To the same effect was her evidence-in-chief. Therefore the respondent was not forced to rely on the illegality to prove her equitable interest. Only in the reply and the course of the respondent’s cross-examination did such illegality emerge: it was the appellant who had to rely on that illegality.
Although the presumption of advancement does not directly arise for consideration in this case, it is important when considering the decided cases to understand its operation. On a transfer from a man to his wife, children or others to whom he stands in loco parentis, equity presumes an intention to make a gift. Therefore in such a case, unlike the case where the presumption of resulting trust applies, in order to establish any claim the plaintiff has himself to lead evidence sufficient to rebut the presumption of gift and in so doing will normally have to plead, and give evidence of, the underlying illegal purpose.
Against this background, I turn to consider the authorities dealing with the position in equity where A transferred property to B for an illegal purpose. The earlier authorities, primarily Lord Eldon, support the appellant’s proposition that equity will not aid a plaintiff who has transferred property to another for an illegal purpose. In Cottington v Fletcher (1740) 2 Atk 155, 26 ER 498 a Roman Catholic had assigned an advowson to the defendant for a term of 99 years for the purpose of avoiding a statutory prohibition. On subsequently becoming a Protestant, he sought to recover the advowson from the defendant. The defendant pleaded the Statute of Frauds (1677) but also admitted that the
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advowson was assigned to him as trustee. On what appears to have been an interlocutory hearing, Lord Hardwicke LC held that, in view of the admission of trust, the plea of the Statute of Frauds was bad. However he said that as the assignment was done in fraud of statute ‘I doubt at the hearing whether the plaintiff could be relieved, such fraudulent conveyances being made absolute against the grantor’ (see 2 Atk 155 at 156, 26 ER 498).
In Muckleston v Brown (1801) 6 Ves 52 at 68–69, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 501 at 506 (a case concerning secret trusts) Lord Eldon LC cast doubt on Lord Hardwicke LC’s view, possibly misunderstanding that Lord Hardwicke LC was dealing with the question whether the Statute of Frauds provided a defence and not directly with the question of illegality. Lord Eldon LC said:
‘Lord Hardwicke means to say, that if the Defendant admits the trust, though against the policy of the law, he would relieve: but if he does not admit the trust, but demurs, he would do, what does not apply in the least to this case; the Plaintiff stating, he had been guilty of a fraud upon the law, to evade, to disappoint, the provision of the Legislature, to which he is bound to submit, and coming to equity to be relieved against his own act, and the defence being dishonest, between the two species of dishonesty the Court would not act; but would say “Let the estate lie, where it falls.”’
Those remarks were obiter. But in Curtis v Perry (1802) 6 Ves 739, 31 ER 1285 Lord Eldon LC founded his decision on the same principle. In that case Nantes and Chiswell (who was a member of Parliament) were partners. Ships had been purchased by Nantes out of partnership assets but registered in the sole name of Nantes. When Chiswell discovered the position, the ships were shown in the partnership books as being partnership property. However, with Chiswell’s connivance the ships remained registered in the sole name of Nantes so as to evade a statutory prohibition against the ships being used for government contracts if owned by a member of Parliament. In a dispute between the partnership creditors and Nantes’s separate creditors, Lord Eldon LC held in flavour of the latter. He said (6 Ves 739 at 747, 31 ER 1285 at 1288–1289):
‘The moment the purpose to defeat the policy of the law by fraudulently concealing, that this was his property, is admitted, it is very clear, he ought not to be heard in this Court to say, that is his property. In the case of a bill filed to have a reconveyance of a qualification given by the Plaintiff to his son to enable him to sit in Parliament, the purpose being answered, the bill was very properly dismissed by Lord Kenyon with costs.’
See also Ex p Yallop (1808) 15 Ves 60, 33 ER 677.
The same broad principle was applied by the Exchequer Chamber in equity in Groves v Groves (1828) 3 Y & J 163, 148 ER 1136. In that case the plaintiff had purchased land in the name of his brother so as to give the brother a necessary qualification to vote. The plaintiff claimed to recover the land under a resulting trust. His claim was dismissed on the grounds, inter alia, ‘… that the illegal purpose for which this conveyance was made bars that equity’ (see 3 Y & J 163 at 172, 148 ER 1136 at 1141). There are many other cases in the first half of the nineteenth century where the same principle was applied.
However, in my view, the law was not so firmly established as at first sight it appears to have been. The law on the effect of illegality was developing throughout the nineteenth century. In particular, if Lord Eldon LC’s principle were to apply in its full vigour it would apply as much to claims by a guilty party to enforce an express trust as to enforce an implied or resulting trust: equity would
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not aid the plaintiff to enforce equitable claims against the holder of the legal estate. Yet in Ayerst v Jenkins (1873) LR 16 Eq 275 Lord Selborne LC apparently treated a party to the illegality as being entitled to enforce express trusts against trustees. In that case, the settlor transferred investments to trustees and executed a settlement for the sole benefit of the defendant, with whom he was about to go through a ceremony of marriage which, to the knowledge of both, was illegal, ie the settlement was made in contemplation of unlawful cohabitation. After the death of the settlor, his personal representative sought to recover the investments from the trustees, claiming that the express trusts were invalid and that there was therefore a resulting trust to the settlor. The claim failed, partly on the ground that there was no equity in the settlor to recover from the trustees in whom the legal title was vested, but also on the ground that there was a fully executed trust vesting in the defendant ‘the immediate and absolute beneficial interest’ (see LR 16 Eq 275 at 284–285 for the explanation of Rider v Kidder (1805) 10 Ves 360 at 366, 32 ER 884 at 886). The whole case proceeded on the footing that the defendant, even if a party to the illegality, was entitled to enforce against the trustees her equitable rights as beneficiary under the express trusts. This view would be quite inconsistent with a general rule such as that propounded by Lord Eldon LC that a court of equity will never enforce equitable proprietary interests as the suit of a party to an illegality.
The law was developing in another direction during the nineteenth century. There was originally a difference of view as to whether a transaction entered into for an illegal purpose would be enforced at law or in equity if the party had repented of his illegal purpose before it had been put into operation, ie the doctrine of locus poenitentiae. It was eventually recognised both at law and in equity that, if the plaintiff had repented before the illegal purpose was carried through, he could recover his property: see Taylor v Bowers (1876) 1 QBD 291, [1874–80] All ER Rep 405, Symes v Hughes (1870) LR 9 Eq 475. The principle of locus poenitentiae is in my judgment irreconcilable with any rule that where property is transferred for an illegal purpose no equitable proprietary right exists. The equitable right, if any, must arise at the time at which the property was voluntarily transferred to the third party or purchased in the name of the third party. The existence of the equitable interest cannot depend upon events occurring after that date. Therefore if, under the principle of locus poenitentiae, the courts recognise that an equitable interest did arise out of the underlying transaction, the same must be true where the illegal purpose was carried through. The carrying out of the illegal purpose cannot, by itself, destroy the pre-existing equitable interest. The doctrine of locus poenitentiae therefore demonstrates that the effect of illegality is not to prevent a proprietary interest in equity from arising or to produce a forfeiture of such right: the effect is to render the equitable interest unenforceable in certain circumstances. The effect of illegality is not substantive but procedural. The question therefore is: in what circumstances will equity refuse to enforce equitable rights which undoubtedly exist?
It is against this background that one has to assess the more recent law. Although in the cases decided during the last one hundred years there are frequent references to Lord Eldon LC’s wide principle, with one exception (Cantor v Cox (1975) 239 EG 121) none of the English decisions are decided by simply applying that principle. They are all cases where the unsuccessful party was held to be precluded from leading evidence of an illegal situation in order to rebut the presumption of advancement. Lord Eldon LC’s rule would have provided a complete answer whether the transfer was made to a wife or child (where the presumption of advancement would apply) or to a stanger. Yet with
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one exception none of the cases in this century has been decided on that simple basis.
The majority of cases have been those in which the presumption of advancement applied: in those authorities the rule has been stated as being that a plaintiff cannot rely on evidence of his own illegality to rebut the presumption applicable in such cases that the plaintiff intended to make a gift of the property to the transferee. Thus in Gascoigne v Gascoigne [1918] 1 KB 223, McEvoy v Belfast Banking Co Ltd [1934] NI 67, Re Emery’s Investments’ Trusts, Emery v Emery [1959] 1 All ER 577, [1959] Ch 410, Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494, [1962] AC 294 and Tinker v Tinker [1970] 1 All ER 540 at 542–543, [1970] P 136 at 141–142 the crucial point was said to be the inability of the plaintiff to lead evidence rebutting the presumption of advancement. In each case the plaintiff was claiming to recover property voluntarily transferred to, or purchased in the name of, a wife or child, for an illegal purpose. Although reference was made to Lord Eldon LC’s principle, none of those cases was decided on the simple ground (if it were good law) that equity would not in any circumstances enforce a resulting trust in such circumstances. On the contrary in each case the rule was stated to be that the plaintiff could not recover because he had to rely on the illegality to rebut the presumption of advancement.
In my judgment, the explanation for this departure from Lord Eldon LC’s absolute rule is that the fusion of the administration of law and equity has led the courts to adopt a single rule (applicable both at law and in equity) as to the circumstances in which the court will enforce property interests acquired in pursuance of an illegal transaction, viz the Bowmaker rule (see Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65). A party to an illegality can recover by virtue of a legal or equitable property interest if, but only if, he can establish his title without relying on his own illegality. In cases where the presumption of advancement applies, the plaintiff is faced with the presumption of gift and therefore cannot claim under a resulting trust unless and until he has rebutted that presumption of gift: for those purposes the plaintiff does have to rely on the underlying illegality and therefore fails.
The position is well illustrated by two decisions in the Privy Council. In the first, Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali [1960] 1 All ER 269, [1960] AC 167 a plaintiff who had acquired legal title to a lorry under an illegal transaction was held entitled to succeed against the other party to the illegality in detinue and trespass. The Board approved the Bowmaker test. Two years later in Chettiar v Chettiar [1962] 1 All ER 494, [1962] AC 294 the Board had to consider the case where a father, who had transferred land to his son for an illegal purpose,sought to recover it under a resulting trust. It was held that he could not, since he had to rely on his illegal purpose in order to rebut the presumption of advancement. The Board distinguished the decision in Haigh v Kaye (1872) LR 7 Ch 469 on the following grounds ([1962] 1 All ER 494 at 497, [1962] AC 294 at 301):
‘It appears to their Lordships, however, that there is a clear distinction between Haigh v. Kaye and the present case. In Haigh v. Kaye the plaintiff conveyed a freehold estate to the defendant. In the conveyance it was stated that a sum of £850 had been paid by the defendant for it. The plaintiff proved that no such sum was paid and claimed that the defendant was a trustee for him. Now in that case the plaintiff had no reason to disclose any illegality and did not do so. It was the defendant who suggested that the transaction was entered into for a fraudulent purpose. He sought to drag it in without pleading it distinctly and he was not allowed to do so. In the present case, however, the father had of necessity to disclose his own illegality to the court and for this reason: He had not only to get over the fact that the transfer stated that the son paid $7,000 for the land. He had also to get over
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the presumption of advancement: for whenever a father transfers property to his son, there is a presumption that he intended it as a gift to his son: and if he wishes to rebut that presumption and to say that his son took as trustee for him, he must prove the trust clearly and distinctly, by evidence properly admissible for the purpose, and not leave it to be inferred from slight circumstances; see Shephard v. Cartwright ([1954] 3 All ER 649 at 652, [1955] AC 431 at 445).’
Further, the Board distinguished Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali. It was pointed out that in Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali the plaintiff founded his claim on a right of property in the lorry and his possession of it. The Board continued ([1962] 1 All ER 494 at 498, [1962] AC 294 at 303):
‘[The plaintiff] did not have to found his cause of action on an immoral or illegal act. He was held entitled to recover. In the present case the father has of necessity to put forward, and indeed, assert, his own fraudulent purpose, which he has fully achieved. He is met therefore by the principle stated long ago by LORD MANSFIELD: “No court will lend its aid to a man who founds his cause of action upon an immoral or an illegal act” (see Holman v. Johnson ((1775) 1 Cowp 341 at 343, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 98 at 99)).’
In my judgment these two cases show that the Privy Council was applying exactly the same principle in both cases although in one case the plaintiff’s claim rested on a legal title and in the other on an equitable title. The claim based on the equitable title did not fail simply because the plaintiff was a party to the illegal transaction; it only failed because the plaintiff was bound to disclose and rely upon his own illegal purpose in order to rebut the presumption of advancement. The Privy Council was plainly treating the principle applicable both at law and in equity as being that a man can recover property provided that he is not forced to rely on his own illegality.
I therefore reach the conclusion that, although there is no case overruling the wide principle stated by Lord Eldon LC, as the law has developed the equitable principle has become elided into the common law rule. In my judgment the time has come to decide clearly that the rule is the same whether a plaintiff founds himself on a legal or equitable title: he is entitled to recover if he is not forced to plead or rely on the illegality, even if it emerges that the title on which he relied was acquired in the course of carrying through an illegal transaction.
As applied in the present case, that principle would operate as follows. The respondent established a resulting trust by showing that she had contributed to the purchase price of the house and that there was a common understanding between her and the appellant that they owned the house equally. She had no need to allege or prove why the house was conveyed into the name of the appellant alone, since that fact was irrelevant to her claim: it was enough to show that the house was in fact vested in the appellant alone. The illegality only emerged at all because the appellant sought to raise it. Having proved these facts, the respondent had raised a presumption of resulting trust. There was no evidence to rebut that presumption. Therefore the respondent should succeed. This is exactly the process of reasoning adopted by the Ontario Court of Appeal in Gorog v Kiss (1977) 78 DLR (3d) 690, which in my judgment was rightly decided.
Finally, I should mention a further point which was relied on by the appellant. It is said that, once the illegality of the transaction emerges, the court must refuse to enforce the transaction and all claims under it whether pleaded or not: see Scott v Brown Doering McNab & Co [1892] 2 QB 724, [1891–4] All ER Rep 654. Therefore, it is said, it does not matter whether a plaintiff relies on or gives evidence of the
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illegality: the court will not enforce the plaintiff’s rights. In my judgment, this submission is plainly ill-founded. There are many cases where a plaintiff has succeeded, notwithstanding that the illegality of the transaction under which she acquired the property has emerged: see, for example, Bowmakers Ltd v Barnet Instruments Ltd [1944] 2 All ER 579, [1945] KB 65 and Sajan Singh v Sardara Ali [1960] 1 All ER 269, [1960] AC 167. In my judgment the court is only entitled and bound to dismiss a claim on the basis that it is founded on an illegality in those cases where the illegality is of a kind which would have provided a good defence if raised by the defendant. In a case where the plaintiff is not seeking to enforce an unlawful contract but founds his case on collateral rights acquired under the contract (such as a right of property) the court is neither bound nor entitled to reject the claim unless the illegality of necessity forms part of the plaintiff’s case.
I would therefore dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Doody v Secretary of State for the Home Department
and other appeals
[1993] 3 All ER 92
Categories: PRISONS: CRIMINAL; Sentencing
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD LANE, LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 10, 11, 15, 16, 17 MARCH, 24 JUNE 1993
Prison – Release on licence – Life sentence – Mandatory life sentence – Tariff period – Procedure for fixing tariff period – Judiciary invited to advise on period that should be served for purposes of retribution and deterrence – Secretary of State taking account of judicial recommendation in reaching decision on appropriate tariff – Whether Secretary of State entitled to set tariff period differing from that recommended by judiciary – Whether Secretary of State required to adopt judicial view of tariff – Criminal Justice Act 1991, s 35.
Prison – Release on licence – Life sentence – Mandatory or discretionary life sentence – Tariff period – Principles of natural justice – Secretary of State deciding tariff period – Date for first review of prisoner’s sentence set according to tariff period – Whether mandatory life prisoner entitled to make representations to Secretary of State before tariff period set – Whether Secretary of State required to inform prisoner of tariff period recommended by judiciary and other opinions expressed by judiciary relevant to decision on tariff – Whether Secretary of State required to give reasons if he departs from judicial view of tariff – Criminal Justice Act 1991, ss 34, 35.
The four applicants were separately convicted of murder and received mandatory sentences of life imprisonment. Under s 35a of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 the Secretary of State had a discretion to refer the case of a mandatory life prisoner to the Parole Board and it was only if he chose to refer the case to the Parole
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Board, the board recommended release and he had consulted the trial judge (if available) and the Lord Chief Justice that he then had power to release the prisoner, but he was not bound to exercise that power. On the other hand, in the case of discretionary life sentences imposed under s 34b of the 1991 Act the trial judge had power to make an order specifying the penal element of the sentence and the Secretary of State, if he had not already done so of his own accord, could be required by the prisoner to refer his case to the Parole Board once the penal element had expired. The board then considered whether it was necessary for the protection of the public that the prisoner should remain confined and, if it was not so necessary, the board could direct that the prisoner be released, whereupon the Secretary of State was under a duty to release him. Successive Secretaries of State adopted a policy and practice laid down in 1983 that in relation to mandatory life prisoners the Secretary of State would, after consulting the judges ‘on the requirements of retribution and deterrence’ (the penal element of the sentence), himself determine the penal element of the sentence as well as the risk to the public which the prisoner’s release posed and would set the date for the first review of the sentence by the Parole Board accordingly. The prisoner was then informed of the date of the first review and was provided in advance with all papers to be considered by the Parole Board for the review of his case (subject to public interest immunity) and with the reasons for the Parole Board recommendations and ministerial decisions regarding release but he was not told what recommendation the judiciary had made. The applicants considered that in their cases Home Office ministers had increased the penal element of the sentence recommended by the judiciary, thereby delaying the date of their review. They applied for judicial review of the procedure adopted by the Home Office for the release of mandatory life prisoners on licence, seeking declarations (i) that the Secretary of State was required to adopt the judicial view of the penal element of the sentence, (ii) that the prisoner had the right to make representations before the Secretary of State set the date for the first review and, for that purpose, the right to be told of any information on which the Secretary of State would make his decision and (iii) that the prisoner was entitled to be told the judicial view of the penal element of his sentence, the reasons for the recommendation by the judiciary and for any departure by the Secretary of State from that recommendation. The Divisional Court refused to grant the relief sought. The applicants appealed to the Court of Appeal, which allowed the appeal in part, holding that, although the Secretary of State was, as a matter of law, entitled to fix a penal element of the sentence different from that recommended by the judiciary, a mandatory life prisoner had the right to make representations in writing to the Secretary of State as to the period he should serve before his first review and the right to know the period recommended by the judiciary as the penal element of his sentence and any other opinion expressed by the judiciary relevant to the Secretary of State’s decision but he was not entitled to be given the
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Secretary of State’s reasons for departing from the judicial recommendation as to the penal element of his sentence. The Secretary of State appealed. The applicants cross-appealed against the decision that a mandatory life prisoner was not entitled to be given the reasons for any departure by the Secretary of State from the judicial view as to the penal element of his sentence.
Held – (1) The policy adopted by the Secretary of State whereby murder was treated as an offence so grave that the proper penal element of the sentence was invariably detention for life subject to mitigation by release on licence at the Secretary of State’s discretion as a measure of leniency was inconsistent with the practice adopted by successive Secretaries of State that a mandatory life sentence included a fixed period of years for the penal element to reflect the requirements of deterrence and retribution. On the basis that the correct policy was that a mandatory life sentence included a fixed period of years for the penal element, a mandatory life prisoner was not in the mercy of the Secretary of State and without any rights to know how the remainder of his sentence was to be determined but instead knew that once he had served the penal element of his sentence the penal consequences of his crime had been exhausted and he was then entitled to the rights which fairness demanded in the assessment of the remainder of his sentence (see p 96 e to h, p 101 h j and p 103 d to g, post).
(2) The Secretary of State was not obliged to adopt the judicial view of the period to be served for retribution and deterrence by a prisoner serving a mandatory life sentence, since there was no statutory basis for the judges to have any role, even as advisers, at the time when the penal element of a mandatory sentence was fixed. It was the Secretary of State, not the judges, who was entrusted with the task of deciding on the prisoner’s release and he was entitled to depart from the judges’ advice and to have regard to broader considerations of a public character than those which applied to an ordinary sentencing function (see p 96 e to h, p 104 c and p 105 b to e, post); R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Handscomb (1987) 86 Cr App R 59 disapproved.
(3) However, having regard to the rights which discretionary life prisoners had, mandatory life prisoners were entitled in fairness to have the following rights in respect of the decision made by the Secretary of State when fixing the penal element in a mandatory life sentence: (a) the right, accepted by the Secretary of State, to put to him reasons for fixing a lower rather than a higher penal term, (b) the right to know what factors the Secretary of State would take into account in deciding on the penal element of his sentence and (c) the right to be given the reasons for any departure by the Secretary of State from the judges’ recommendation as to the penal element of his sentence. The information to which a prisoner was entitled included the substance of the judges’ advice, comprising not only the term of years which they had recommended as the penal element but also their reasons, but he was only entitled to know the gist of what the judges had said and the Secretary of State was not required to disclose in their entirety the document or documents in which the judges had stated their opinion. It followed that the appeal would be dismissed and the cross-appeal allowed to the extent that a further declaration would be granted that the Secretary of State was obliged to give reasons for departing from the period recommended by the judiciary as the period which a prisoner should serve for the purposes of retribution and deterrence (see p 96 e to h, p 107 d to f, p 108 g to p 110 b d e j to p 111 d, p 112 h to p 113 a, post); R v Civil Service Appeal Board, ex p Cunningham [1991] 4 All ER 310 applied; Payne v Lord Harris of Greenwich [1981] 2 All ER 842 overruled.
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Per curiam. A decision required to be taken by the Secretary of State on the period which a life sentence prisoner should serve for the purposes of retribution and deterrence may be taken by a minister of state at the Home Office on his behalf. On the other hand, any advice given by the Lord Chief Justice must be given by the holder of that office as his function cannot be delegated (see p 96 e to h, p 111 j to p 112 d, post).
Decision of the Court of Appeal sub nom R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Doody [1993] 1 All ER 151 affirmed.
Notes
For the powers of the Secretary of State to release on licence prisoners serving life sentences, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1190, and for a case on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 406, 5341.
Cases referred to in opinions
Findlay v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1984] 3 All ER 801, [1985] AC 318, [1984] 3 WLR 1159, HL.
Kanda v Government of Malaya [1962] AC 322, [1962] 2 WLR 1153, PC.
Payne v Lord Harris of Greenwich [1981] 2 All ER 842, [1981] 1 WLR 754, CA.
R v Civil Service Appeal Board, ex p Cunningham [1991] 4 All ER 310, CA.
R v Hodgson (1967) 52 Cr App R 113, CA.
R v Parole Board, ex p Wilson [1992] 2 All ER 576, [1992] QB 740, [1992] 2 WLR 707, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Handscomb (1987) 86 Cr App R 59, DC.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Oladehinde [1990] 2 All ER 367, [1991] 1 AC 254, [1990] 2 WLR 1195, CA; affd sub nom Oladehinde v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1990] 3 All ER 393, [1991] 1 AC 254, [1990] 3 WLR 797, HL.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Walsh (1991) Independent, 17 December, DC.
R v Wilkinson (1983) 5 Cr App R (S) 105, CA.
Thynne, Wilson and Gunnell v UK (1990) 13 EHRR 666, E Comm HR and E Ct HR.
Appeal and cross-appeal
The Secretary of State appealed with leave granted by the Court of Appeal from the decision of that court (Glidewell, Staughton and Farquharson LJJ) ([1993] 1 All ER 151, [1993] QB 157) given on 6 May 1992 allowing the appeal of the respondents, Stephen Doody, Kenneth Stephen Pegg, John David Pierson and Elfred Wayne Smart, from the decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Mann LJ and Macpherson J) given on 18 January 1991 refusing their applications for judicial review of decisions of the Secretary of State for the Home Department as to the length of the tariff period each should remain in prison as punishment for the offence of murder and consequently the dates on which their cases should first be reviewed for release on licence by the Parole Board on the principal grounds that the Divisional Court had erred in rejecting their submissions that the Secretary of State was bound to adopt the judicial view of the tariff period to be served and that the nature of the decision called for the application of the principles of natural justice to enable the prisoner to make informed representations on the factual basis which the Secretary of State proposed to adopt in fixing the tariff. The Court of Appeal held that decisions leading to the release of a life prisoner on licence could properly and lawfully be made by a junior minister in the Home Office but that the decisions made by the Secretary of State as to the length of the tariff for each of the applicants would be
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quashed and the decisions would be referred back to the Secretary of State for reconsideration. Mr Doody cross-appealed with leave of the Appeal Committee granted on 3 November 1992. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Mustill.
David Pannick QC and Robert Jay (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Edward Fitzgerald (instructed by B M Birnberg & Co) for the respondent Doody.
Michael Beloff QC and Richard Gordon (instructed by Bindman & Partners) for the respondent Pegg.
Geoffrey Robertson QC and Edward Fitzgerald (instructed by Graham Withers & Co, Shrewsbury) for the respondent Pierson.
Geoffrey Nice QC and Gregory Treverton-Jones (instructed by Cartwrights Adams & Black, Cardiff) for the respondent Smart.
24 June 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill, which I have read in draft and with which I agree, I would dismiss the appeal and the cross-appeal save as to issue 3, which I would allow and make the declarations he proposes.
LORD LANE. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill. I agree with his reasoning and conclusions. I would accordingly dismiss the appeal and cross-appeal, save that I would allow the cross-appeal on issue 3 as defined by Lord Mustill and make the declarations which he proposes.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill I would dismiss the appeal and cross-appeal, save that I would allow the cross-appeal on issue 3 defined by Lord Mustill and make the declarations he proposes.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill I would dismiss the appeal and dismiss the cross-appeal save as to issue 3, which I would allow and make the declarations which are proposed by Lord Mustill.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, the sentencing of a convicted murderer according to English law is a unique formality. Although it is a very grave occasion it is a formality in this sense, that the task of the judge is entirely mechanical. Once a verdict of guilty is returned the outcome is preordained. No matter what the opinion of the judge on the moral quality of the act, no matter what circumstances there may be of mitigation or aggravation, there is only one course for him to take, namely to pass a sentence of life imprisonment.
This purely formal character of the sentencing process is unique in more than one respect. Thus, whilst it is true that there are other, comparatively unimportant, offences where a particular sentence, or component of a sentence, is prescribed by law, there is in practice no other offence besides murder for which a custodial sentence is mandatory. This singularity is not to be accounted for by the fact that the crime has resulted in the death of the victim, since although the
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offence of manslaughter carries a maximum penalty of life imprisonment the sentence is discretionary and the maximum is rarely imposed; and other offences in which the death of the victim is an element are subject to maximum fixed terms. Nor can the uniqueness of the mandatory sentence of murder be ascribed to the uniquely wicked quality of the intent which accompanies the fatal act, since as every law student knows, although many who speak in public on the subject appear to overlook, it is possible to commit murder without intending to kill, and many of those convicted of murder have intended to do no more than commit grievous bodily harm. In truth the mandatory life sentence for murder is symbolic.
The sentence of life imprisonment is also unique in that the words which the judge is required to pronounce do not mean what they say. Whilst in a very small minority of cases the prisoner is in the event confined for the rest of his natural life, this is not the usual or the intended effect of a sentence of life imprisonment, as a judge faced with a hard case will take pains to explain to the offender before sentence is passed. But although everyone knows what the words do not mean, nobody knows what they do mean, since the duration of the prisoner’s detention depends on a series of recommendations to, and executive decisions by, the Home Secretary, some made at an early stage and others much later, none of which can be accurately forecast at the time when the offender is sent to prison.
There is, however, another form of life sentence, of which the philosophy, statutory framework and executive practice are quite different even though the words pronounced by the judge are the same. This is the discretionary life sentence. The imposition of this sentence is severely constrained by s 2(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1991, read with s 1(2), and by decisions of the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, notably R v Hodgson (1967) 52 Cr App R 113 and R v Wilkinson (1983) 5 Cr App R (S) 105. Where the criteria so established are satisfied the judge has a choice between two very different procedures. He may decide to focus on the offence, passing a sentence appropriate to its gravity by the familiar process of identifying the range of sentences established through decisions of the Court of Appeal as being in general apposite to an offence of the kind in question, and then placing the individual offence within (or exceptionally, outside) the range by reference to circumstances of mitigation or aggravation. The judge may however think it right to adopt a different approach, and to concentrate on the offender rather than the offence, imposing a sentence of life imprisonment to reflect his appraisal that even a long fixed term of years may not adequately protect the public against the risk that when the term has been served the prisoner will continue to be a danger to the public. Such a sentence ensures that the prisoner will be kept in custody until it is thought safe to release him.
The discretionary life sentence may thus be regarded as the sum of two sentences, to be served consecutively. First, a determinate number of years appropriate to the nature and gravity of the offence. This is often called the ‘tariff’ element of the sentence. For my part, although I recognise that this is not inappropriate in the context of a discretionary life sentence, I consider that for reasons which I will later develop it is illogical and misleading when the usage is transferred to a mandatory sentence. I therefore prefer to avoid this terminology and will instead call the first component of the life sentence the ‘penal element’. The second component is an indeterminate period, which the offender begins to serve when the penal element is exhausted. I will call this the ‘risk element’.
In the past there was no need for the sentencer to give separate attention to these two components. Having once decided that a determinate sentence at the general level suggested by the nature of the offence would not adequately reflect
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the degree of risk, he would proceed directly to the imposition of a life sentence, and would have no reason to identify with precision, or to publish, the fixed term which he would have passed if he had chosen the alternative course. As will appear, the law and practice have more recently developed in a way which attaches great importance to the composite nature of the discretionary life sentence, and now requires that in the great majority of cases the judge will quantify and announce the penal element and will thereby fix directly the minimum period in custody which the offender must serve, before the question whether it is safe to release him becomes decisive. Although it is a comparative novelty this regime conforms very well with the rationale of the discretionary life sentence and, as it appears to me, is fair, practical in operation and easy to comprehend.
The same cannot I believe be said of the situation created by the ministerial decision, some ten years ago, to import the concept of a penal element into the theory and practice governing the release on licence of prisoners serving mandatory life sentences for murder. I must develop this later. For the present it is sufficient to state that the current practice, established by executive changes of policy rather than by Act of Parliament, now requires the division of the sentence into penal and risk elements, and entails that the ascertainment by the Home Secretary of the penal element fixes, at one remove, the minimum period for which the convicted murderer will be detained. It is to this element that the present appeal is directed.
The respondents to the appeal, S Doody, J D Pierson, E W Smart and K Pegg, were each convicted of murder and sentenced to life imprisonment on various occasions between 1985 and 1987. It is possible to deduce from the dates fixed by the Home Secretary for the first review of their cases by the Parole Board (and in the case of Pierson from correspondence with the Home Office) that the penal elements of these life sentences fixed by Home Secretary were respectively 15 years, not more than 20 years, 12 years and 11 years. So much each prisoner knows, but what he does not know is why the particular term was selected, and he is now trying to find out, partly from an obvious human desire to be told the reason for a decision so gravely affecting his future and partly because he hopes that once the information is obtained he may be able to point out errors of fact or reasoning and thereby persuade the Home Secretary to change his mind, or if he fails in this to challenge the decision in the courts. Since the Home Secretary has declined to furnish the information the respondents have set out to obtain it by applications for judicial review. The relief claimed is not the same in each case, but the applications have sufficient in common to enable the parties to identify six issues for decision. In the Court of Appeal the respondents succeeded on the first two issues, on which the Home Secretary now appeals. The respondents failed, and cross-appeal, on the remaining four issues. As the argument developed it came to appear that the issues as agreed were not entirely in focus, but they form a useful framework for decision and I will set them out. First however it is essential to describe not only the current law and practice, but also the steps by which they reached their present form.
I. HISTORY
A. Chronology
(1) Until the enactment of the Homicide Act 1957 the mandatory sentence for murder was death. This was mitigated by an executive power to commute the sentence to one of penal servitude (later imprisonment) for life, which in turn was subject to an executive power to release the prisoner on licence. There was a
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long-established practice whereby the trial judge wrote privately to the Home Secretary drawing attention to any features of the case which he considered relevant to the anxious decision on whether or not to commute.
(2) When the 1957 Act created the category of non-capital murder it prescribed a mandatory sentence of imprisonment for life. Eight years later, at the time when the abolition of the death penalty for murder was before Parliament it was proposed that the previous mandatory sentences of death and life imprisonment should be replaced by a discretionary sentence of life imprisonment, but Parliament did not agree and a sentence of life imprisonment was made mandatory for all murders: see the Murder (Abolition of Death Penalty) Act 1965, s 1(1). At the same time two statutory concessions were made to those who feared excessive leniency by the Executive in the treatment of convicted murderers. First, by s 1(2) the trial judge was given power to recommend to the Home Secretary the minimum period which should elapse before the release of the prisoner under the statutory power to release on licence which had been created by the Prison Act 1952. Second, it was stipulated that no person convicted of murder would be released on licence unless the Home Secretary had previously consulted the Lord Chief Justice and the trial judge, if available: s 2.
(3) Two years later, the Parole Board was created by the Criminal Justice Act 1967. As part of the new scheme the provision for consultation with the Lord Chief Justice and the trial judge was repealed and replaced by a similar requirement, on this occasion made applicable to discretionary as well as mandatory life sentences, and coupled with a condition that the Home Secretary should not release the prisoner unless he was recommended to do so by the Parole Board. In practice the advice of the Parole Board was not obtained (in the absence of exceptional mitigating circumstances) until the board conducted a first review of the prisoner’s sentence after seven years of custody; and the opinion of the Lord Chief Justice and the trial judge (whom I will hereafter call ‘the judges’) was not at this stage sought unless a recommendation by the board for release was seriously in prospect.
(4) Because it was found that in the majority of cases a first review after seven years was too early to set a release date, a new procedure was devised in 1973 whereby a joint working group of the Parole Board and the Home Office scrutinised the case of each life prisoner after the first three years in order to recommend a date of the first review by the Parole Board. We see here the origins of the crucial practical distinction between setting a date for release and setting a date of the first consideration of release. Throughout this period trial judges continued to write privately to the Home Secretary expressing their opinions on the offence and the offender, although the practice of making recommendations as to minimum sentence, permitted by s 1(2) of the 1965 Act steadily diminished.
(5) So matters continued until 1983, when in response to pressure of public opinion the Home Secretary (the Rt Hon Leon Brittan QC) announced a series of radical changes in the existing policies relating to the release of prisoners on parole and licence (see 49 HC Official Report (6th series) written answers cols 505–508). These included the creation of a completely new philosophy and practice for the release of life prisoners on licence, some aspects of which had been discussed with the Lord Chief Justice, and which had been foreshadowed in a speech to the Conservative Party conference. This practice was to have the following features: (i) the joint Home Office/Parole Board committee, which had been established to recommend the date for the first review by the Parole Board was disbanded; (ii) instead, the Home Secretary would himself, after consulting the judges ‘on the requirements of retribution and deterrence’, fix the date for the
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first review; (iii) the review would normally take place three years before the expiry of the ‘period necessary to meet the requirements of retribution and deterrence’. This would give sufficient time for preparations for release, if the Parole Board were to recommend it; (iv) subject to exceptional circumstances the first review would in fact take place on the date so fixed; (v) meanwhile the progress of the prisoner would be kept under regular review by the Home Office; (vi) the consultation with the judges required by s 61 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 would take place when release was an actual possibility; (vii) in the case of certain types of murder the prisoner would not normally be released until 20 years or even longer had been served.
Equally important were the changes in philosophy underlying the new practice. The first was tacit, but obvious. Whereas at the outset the power of the trial judge to recommend a minimum term, and the duty of the Home Secretary to consult the judges before release had been a protection against a foreseen risk of excessive leniency by the Executive, the new regime was intended to forestall excessive leniency by the judges, or the Parole Board, or both. The second change in philosophy was made explicit in the following passage from the Home Secretary’s announcement (col 507):
‘These new procedures will separate consideration of the requirements of retribution and deterrence from consideration of risk to the public, which always has been, and will continue to be, the pre-eminent factor determining release ... They will enable the prison and other staff responsible for considering and reporting on life sentence cases, the local review committees and the Parole Board, to concentrate on risk. The judiciary will properly advise on retribution and deterrence. But the ultimate discretion whether to release will remain with me.’
Thenceforth the separation between risk to the public and the penal element, applied to mandatory and discretionary life sentences alike (see 480 HL Official Report (5th series) written answers col 904) was firmly embedded in the theory and practice of the release of life prisoners. The advice of the judges, previously expressed in the round by reference to all the features of the offence and the offender which the judges considered to be relevant, was now to be confined to the penal element.
(6) This regime was soon modified. In the first place, special provision was made for prisoners the penal element of whose sentences exceeded 20 years. Here, the first Parole Board review was to take place, not three years before the expiry of the penal element, but after 17 years in custody. The second modification was prompted by the decision of the Divisional Court in R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Handscomb (1987) 86 Cr App R 59, to the effect that the Home Secretary was acting unlawfully by delaying until three years after sentencing his consultation with the judiciary for the purpose of fixing the first review date, and also that he was bound to set the first review date strictly in accordance with the penal element recommended by the judges. In response to this decision the Home Secretary (the Rt Hon Douglas Hurd), in agreement with the Lord Chief Justice, decided (120 HC Official Report (6th series) written answers cols 347–349) that in future the trial judge’s view on the penal element of a discretionary life sentence should be obtained (through the Lord Chief Justice) as soon as practicable after the imposition of sentence, and that the first Parole Board review would be fixed in accordance with the judicial view. As regards mandatory life sentences the practice would also be changed so as to eliminate
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the waiting period of three years, but the Home Secretary went on to add (col 349):
‘In cases of prisoners serving life sentences for murder, where the sentence is not at the discretion of the court, the question of the notional equivalent determinate sentence does not arise. I shall continue to take into account the view of the judiciary on the requirements of retribution and deterrence in such cases as a factor amongst others (including the need to maintain public confidence in the system of justice) to be weighed in the balance in setting the first review date. I shall ensure that the timing of the first formal review in such cases is fixed in accordance with my overall policy for ensuring that the time served by prisoners serving life sentences for the worst offences of violence fully reflects public concern about violent crime.’
(7) The next development was the judgment of the European Court of Human Rights in Thynne, Wilson and Gunnell v UK (1990) 13 EHRR 666 concerning discretionary life sentences. Here, the court recognised the theoretical distinction between mandatory and discretionary sentences, and went on to hold, inter alia, that in the case of a discretionary sentence once the penal element had been served the prisoner was entitled to ‘judicial control’ of his continued detention.
(8) Just as it had reacted to criticisms in Handscomb the government responded to the Thynne, Wilson and Gunnell decision with a modification of the existing practice governing discretionary life sentences, which was subsequently embodied in s 34 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991. The gist of the new statutory regime is that the judge has power to make an order specifying the penal element of the sentence and at the same time to order that s 34 shall apply to the prisoner as soon as he has served that element. Where the section does apply the Home Secretary, if he has not already done so of his own accord, can be required by the prisoner to refer his case to the Parole Board once the penal element has expired. The board then considers whether it is any longer necessary for the protection of the public that the prisoner should be confined, and if it answers in the negative it has power to direct the prisoner’s release, whereupon is the duty of the Home Secretary to release him. This section came into force on 1 October 1992 (after the decision of the Court of Appeal in the present case), and the Lord Chief Justice has subsequently directed that save in the very exceptional case the judge should make an order under s 34: Practice Note [1993] 1 All ER 747, [1993] 1 WLR 223. The trial judge will also, as in the past, make a written report to the Home Secretary, through the Lord Chief Justice.
(9) At the time when the Criminal Justice Bill was under consideration it was proposed in the House of Lords that similar provision should be made in the case of mandatory life sentences, but this view was rejected. The Minister of State (the Hon Angela Rumbold) stated (195 HC Official Report (6th series) cols 309–310):
‘Mandatory life sentence cases, however, raise quite different issues and the Government do not agree that it is appropriate to extend a similar procedure to these cases. In a discretionary case, the decision on release is based purely on whether the offender continues to be a risk to the public. The presumption is that once the period that is appropriate to punishment has passed, the prisoner should be released if it is safe to do so. The nature of the mandatory sentence is different. The element of risk is not the decisive factor in handing down a life sentence. According to the judicial process, the offender has committed a crime of such gravity that he forfeits his liberty to the state for the rest of his days—if necessary, he can be detained for life
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without the necessity for subsequent judicial intervention. The presumption is, therefore, that the offender should remain in custody until and unless the Home Secretary concludes that the public interest would be better served by the prisoner’s release than by his continued detention. In exercising his continued discretion in that respect, the Home Secretary must take account, not just of the question of risk, but of how society as a whole would view the prisoner’s release at that juncture. The Home Secretary takes account of the judicial recommendation, but the final decision is his.’
(10) Reflecting this policy, the Criminal Justice Act 1991 provides differently in s 35 for mandatory life prisoners from the new regime established by s 34 for discretionary life prisoners. Under s 35 the discretion to refer the case to the Parole Board is left with the Home Secretary. It is only if (a) the Home Secretary has chosen to refer, (b) the Parole Board has recommended release and (c) the Home Secretary has consulted the judges, that he has power to release the prisoner; but this is not a power which he is bound to exercise. The existing practice whereby the Home Secretary fixes the date of first review by reference to the penal element, after consultation with the judges, remains in place.
(11) Most recently, there have been important developments in the practice governing the review by the Parole Board. It appears that by the time the minister of state made her announcement on 16 July 1991 the government had already decided that a discretionary life prisoner should be entitled to full disclosure of the materials to be placed before the board. Indeed, before this practice was put into effect it was held by the Court of Appeal in R v Parole Board, ex p Wilson [1992] 2 All ER 576, [1992] QB 740 that this is what the law required. Subsequently, on 16 December 1992 the Home Secretary has announced that the practice for mandatory life prisoners will be brought into line with these changes, so that the prisoner will now be provided in advance with all papers to be considered by the Parole Board for the review of his case (subject to public interest immunity), and afterwards with the reasons for the Parole Board recommendations and ministerial decisions regarding release (see 216 HC Official Report (6th series) written answers cols 218–219).
B. The current law and practice
My Lords, I believe that this summary has shown how, in contrast with the position as regards discretionary life sentences, the theory and the practice for convicted murderers are out of tune. The theory—and it is the only theory which can justify the retention of the mandatory life sentence—was restated by Mrs Rumbold less than two years ago. It posits that murder is an offence so grave that the proper ‘tariff’ sentence is invariably detention for life, although as a measure of leniency it may be mitigated by release on licence. Yet the practice established by Mr Brittan in 1983 and still in force founds on the proposition that there is concealed within the life term a fixed period of years, apt to reflect not only the requirements of deterrence, but also the moral quality of the individual act (retribution). These two philosophies of sentencing are inconsistent. Either may be defensible, but they cannot both be applied at the same time.
I make this point, not to argue for one regime rather than another, nor to suggest that each of them is unsatisfactory. This is a question for Parliament and we must take the law as it stands. The importance of the inconsistency for present purposes is that the choice of the theory goes a long way towards determining the requirements of fairness with which the practice should conform. The judgment of Shaw LJ in Payne v Lord Harris of Greenwich [1981] 2 All ER 842, [1981] 1 WLR 754, a case on the right of a mandatory life prisoner to
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know the Parole Board’s reasons for declining to recommend his release, illustrates this well. In a crucial passage, concerned with the grant of parole in general but particularly germane in the present context, Shaw LJ stated ([1981] 2 All ER 842 at 850, [1981] 1 WLR 754 at 763):
‘A person sentenced to imprisonment could not expect to be released before the expiry of his sentence. Since the introduction of parole he may hope that part of his sentence may be served outside prison. If his offence was of a heinous kind, even that hope will be a frail one.’ (Shaw LJ’s emphasis.)
If the matter is approached in this way the Home Secretary can be regarded as exercising a very broad general discretion, in which all the relevant factors are weighed together when deciding whether the public interest permits release, in very much the same way as the discretion had been exercised before the Parole Board came on the scene; and from this it is not a long step to hold that since the prisoner is essentially in mercy there was no ground to ascribe to him the rights which fairness might otherwise demand. This reasoning is however much weakened now that the indeterminate sentence is at a very early stage formally broken down into penal and risk elements. The prisoner no longer has to hope for mercy but instead knows that once he has served the ‘tariff’ the penal consequences of his crime have been exhausted. Even if the Home Secretary still retains his controlling discretion as regards the assessment of culpability the fixing of the penal element begins to look much more like an orthodox sentencing exercise, and less like a general power exercised completely at large.
For this reason I believe it impossible to proceed any distance towards determining the present appeal without deciding which of the two competing philosophies is to form the starting point. As it seems to me, the only possible choice is the regime installed by Mr Brittan, as later modified. This is the regime by which successive Home Secretaries have chosen to exercise the wide powers conferred by Parliament, and the arguments have throughout assumed that the regime is firmly in place, and that the task of the courts is to decide what the elements of fairness demand as to the working out of that regime, in the light of the sentencing philosophy which is expressed to underlie it. This being so, I think it essential not to cloud the discussion by introducing the inconsistent theory enunciated by the Minister of State, and I shall leave this entirely out of account.
In this long introduction I have anticipated much of what needs to be said about the six individual issues identified by the parties. For reasons which I will shortly explain, it is convenient to deal with these in a different order from that chosen by the parties, but I will first set them out.
II. THE ISSUES
(1) Is a prisoner serving a life sentence entitled to make written representations before his tariff is set by the Secretary of State?
(2) Is the Secretary of State required to tell the prisoner what period the judiciary have recommended he should serve for the purposes of retribution and deterrence, and of any other opinion expressed or reasons given by the judiciary which are or may be relevant to the Secretary of State’s decision as to the appropriate period to be served for these purposes?
(3) If a prisoner is to be told the judicial view of his tariff, is the Secretary of State obliged to give reasons for departing from it if he does so?
(4) Is the Secretary of State obliged to adopt the judicial view of the period to be served for retribution and deterrence by a prisoner serving a mandatory life sentence?
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(5) Is the Secretary of State obliged to make the decision on the period which a life sentence prisoner should serve for the purposes of retribution and deterrence personally, or may this task be performed by a minister of state of the Home Office on his behalf?
(6) In relation to Mr Pegg only, did the Secretary of State fail to take into account the contents of his petition dated 24 January 1989.
III. ISSUE 4: THE EFFECT OF THE JUDGES’ ADVICE
Although the fourth of these questions arises under the cross-appeals, logically it comes first. All the judges of the Divisional Court and the Court of Appeal have returned a negative answer, and I have no doubt that they are right.
Under the current practice the opinion of the trial judge on the penal element plays a very different part in the two regimes. For the discretionary sentence an order under s 34 is decisive. The opinion of the Lord Chief Justice is not required, and the Home Secretary has no choice but to initiate a Parole Board review once the term fixed by the judge has expired. With a mandatory sentence the trial judge and the Lord Chief Justice are no more than advisers. Not only have successive ministers made it plain to Parliament that they regard themselves as free to depart from the advice but they have put their words into practice, for statistics furnished to the Select Committee on Murder and Life Imprisonment showed that during specimen periods of six months between 1984 and 1988 the Home Secretary fixed the penal element at a longer term than recommended by the trial judge in between 30% and 60% of the cases. The respondents maintain that this practice is unlawful. They put their argument in two ways.
First, they assert that the judges are uniquely skilled and experienced in matching punishment to the needs of retribution and deterrence, and in the establishment and operation of tariffs for particular types of offence. This being so, the Home Secretary who ex hypothesi is less well equipped cannot sensibly reject the advice of the judges, so that any fixing of the penal element otherwise in an accordance with their opinions (or, presumably, of the Lord Chief Justice if the judges differ) must necessarily be irrational. In support, the respondents rely on the decision of the Divisional Court in R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Handscomb (1987) 86 Cr App R 59. In the judgments now under appeal much attention was given to identifying the ratio decidendi of this case, in the light of pronouncements by the Divisional Court and by Lloyd LJ in R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Walsh (1991) Independent, 17 December. I believe that your Lordships are free to pass by this dispute and to tackle the question afresh. So doing, I would reject the respondents’ argument on two grounds. In the first place, I question the proposition that the judges are specially qualified to assess the penal element of a mandatory life sentence; I emphasise mandatory, because there are grounds for saying that in fixing the penal element of the discretionary sentence (with which Ex p Handscomb was concerned) the judge is simply pronouncing the tariff sentence which he would have imposed but for the element of risk, and that this is the kind of function in which the judiciary has unrivalled experience. But the position as to mandatory sentences is very different. Until Mr Brittan completely changed the rules in 1983 the idea of a separate determinate penal element coexisting with the life sentence would have been meaningless. It is true that for the past ten years the judges have been asked to advise upon it, and it may be that some consistent judicial practice now exists. Nevertheless, it is the Home Secretary who decides, and who has developed (with his predecessors) his own ministerial ideas on what the public interest demands. I can see no reason why the anomalous task of fixing a ‘tariff’ penal element for an offence in respect of which the true tariff sentence is life imprisonment is one
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for which the Home Secretary and his junior ministers, informed by his officials about the existing departmental practice, are any less experienced and capable than are the judges.
In any event, however, even if the respondents’ argument is correct so far, it must in my opinion fail because Parliament has not by statute conferred on the judges any role, even as advisers, at the time when the penal element of a mandatory sentence is fixed. But for the fact that the Home Secretary decided, when formulating the new scheme, to retain in a modified shape the existing practice of inviting the opinion of the judges, they would never enter the picture at all. The Secretary of State is compelled, or at least entitled, to have regard to broader considerations of a public character than those which apply to an ordinary sentencing function. It is he, and not the judges, who is entrusted with the task of deciding upon the prisoner’s release, and it is he who has decided, within the general powers conferred upon him by the statute, to divide his task into two stages. It is not, and could not be, suggested that he acted unlawfully in this respect and I can see no ground whatever for suggesting that by doing so he deprived himself entirely of his discretion at the first stage, and delivered it into the hands of the judges. If the decision in Ex p Handscomb is to a contrary effect, then, with due respect to a very experienced court, I must disagree.
The respondents’ second argument is an appeal to symmetry. Mandatory and discretionary sentences are now each divided into the two elements. Under both regimes the judges play a part in fixing the penal element, and the Parole Board in fixing the risk element. At the stage of the Parole Board review the practice as to the disclosure of materials and reasons is now the same under the two regimes. Given that the post-Handscomb practice, embodied in s 34 of the 1991 Act, now gives a direct effect to the trial judge’s opinion, it is irrational (so the argument runs) for the Home Secretary not to have brought into alignment the two methods of fixing the penal element.
Whilst there is an important grain of truth in this argument, I believe it to be overstated. The discretionary and mandatory life sentences, having in the past grown apart, may now be converging. Nevertheless, on the statutory framework, the underlying theory and the current practice there remains a substantial gap between them. It may be—I express no opinion—that the time is approaching when the effect of the two types of life sentence should be further assimilated. But this is a task for Parliament, and I think it quite impossible for the courts to introduce a fundamental change in the relationship between the convicted murderer and the state, through the medium of judicial review.
IV. ISSUES 1, 2 AND 3: REPRESENTATIONS BY THE PRISONER; THE JUDGE’S TARIFF; THE HOME SECRETARY’S REASONS
I take these issues together, partly because they lie at the heart of the appeal, and partly because if they are considered individually attention may be distracted from the real point of the case. Naturally enough, in the light of Ex p Handscomb, the judicial opinion on the penal element has loomed large in these proceedings, for if the court were to adopt in relation to mandatory life sentences the same approach as in Ex p Handscomb the prisoner would achieve a large part of what he seeks. But once it is concluded that the judicial opinion is not conclusive, and that it is the decision of the Home Secretary that matters, the opinion of the judges becomes no more than a component of the entire body of material in the light of which that decision is made.
Thus, although it is tempting to approach the question of disclosure and reasons as if it were the judges’ opinions to which the applications for judicial review are directed this is mistaken. It is the decision of the Home Secretary
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which vitally affects the future of the prisoner, and it is the openness of this decision which is essentially in dispute. Although the shape of the arguments presented in the courts below led those courts to begin the inquiry with the judges’ opinions, and hence to progress to the reasons for those opinions, and finally to a consideration of whether the reasons of the Home Secretary for departing from the judges’ opinions should be disclosed, I prefer to go directly to the opposite end of the process to consider the prisoner’s rights in relation to the decision by the Home Secretary. I emphasise once again that the court is not being asked to review and could not with any hope of success be asked to review this scheme in its entirety, the more so since the judges have themselves being playing an important part in it for the past ten years. Nor of course is it the task of the court to say how it would choose to operate the scheme if given a free hand. The only issue is whether the way in which the scheme is administered falls below the minimum standard of fairness.
What does fairness require in the present case? My Lords, I think it unnecessary to refer by name or to quote from, any of the often-cited authorities in which the courts have explained what is essentially an intuitive judgment. They are far too well known. From them, I derive the following. (1) Where an Act of Parliament confers an administrative power there is a presumption that it will be exercised in a manner which is fair in all the circumstances. (2) The standards of fairness are not immutable. They may change with the passage of time, both in the general and in their application to decisions of a particular type. (3) The principles of fairness are not to be applied by rote identically in every situation. What fairness demands is dependent on the context of the decision, and this is to be taken into account in all its aspects. (4) An essential feature of the context is the statute which creates the discretion, as regards both its language and the shape of the legal and administrative system within which the decision is taken. (5) Fairness will very often require that a person who may be adversely affected by the decision will have an opportunity to make representations on his own behalf either before the decision is taken with a view to producing a favourable result, or after it is taken, with a view to procuring its modification, or both. (6) Since the person affected usually cannot make worthwhile representations without knowing what factors may weigh against his interests fairness will very often require that he is informed of the gist of the case which he has to answer.
My Lords, the Secretary of State properly accepts that whatever the position may have been in the past these principles apply in their generality to prisoners, including persons serving life sentences for murder, although their particular situation and the particular statutory regime under which they are detained may require the principles to be applied in a special way. Conversely, the respondents acknowledge that it is not enough for them to persuade the court that some procedure other than the one adopted by the decision-maker would be better or more fair. Rather, they must show that the procedure is actually unfair. The court must constantly bear in mind that it is to the decision-maker, not the court, that Parliament has entrusted not only the making of the decision but also the choice as to how the decision is made.
I return to the three issues, and to my suggestion that they concentrate attention too much on the judges’ opinion on the penal element at the expense of the Home Secretary’s decision upon it. The third issue illustrates this well, for the premise of the respondent’s argument is that the decision of the Home Secretary which attracts the demands of fairness and which is potentially the subject of review is a decision to depart from the opinion of the judges. This is
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not so. The decision is simply to fix the penal element. On occasions this will involve a divergence from the judges; on others, not. In each case the requirements of fairness and rationality will be the same. So also are the familiar requirements that the decision-maker should take into account all relevant considerations, amongst which are the opinions of the judges; that he should not take into account irrelevant considerations; and that his decision should be rational. A departure from the opinion of the judges may be relevant as tending to show either that the Home Secretary has failed to take their opinion into account, or that the discrepancy is so wide as to suggest that the decision may have been irrational—although of course the court would not make the mistake of assuming that the judges were necessarily ‘right’, and that accordingly the Home Secretary must necessarily be ‘wrong’, and so wrong that the court can properly interfere.
Accordingly, I prefer to begin by looking at the question in the round, and inquiring what requirements of fairness, germane to the present appeal, attach to the Home Secretary’s fixing of the penal element. As general background to this task, I find in the more recent cases on judicial review a perceptible trend towards an insistence on greater openness, or if one prefers the contemporary jargon ‘transparency’, in the making of administrative decisions. This tendency has been accompanied by an increasing recognition, both in the requirements of statute (cf s 1(4) of the 1991 Act) and in the decisions of the Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal, that a convicted offender should be aware what the court has in mind for his disposal. Whilst the current law and practice concerning discretionary life sentences conform entirely with this trend, the regime for mandatory life prisoners conspicuously does not. Should this distinction be maintained in its entirety? Contending on behalf of the Secretary of State that matters should be left as they are, Mr Pannick QC first points to the creation by Parliament of express statutory rights, similar to those which might otherwise have come into existence through an implied obligation of fairness, and maintains that these leave no room to imply any further rights. Thus, the prisoner was entitled under s 59 of the 1967 Act (now obsolete and repealed) to make representations to the Parole Board in relation to his release on parole, either orally through the medium of an interview with a member of the local review board or in writing. Furthermore, in relation to his recall from licence the prisoner is still enabled to make representations and to know the reasons for the revocation of his licence: see s 39(3) of the 1991 Act, re-enacting provisions of the 1967 Act.
The logic of this argument appears to demand that the prisoner’s right to make representations is excluded in all cases except those just mentioned, an extravagant proposition for which the Secretary of State does not contend. But in any event I find it impossible to accept that these limited and fragmentary statutory rights demonstrate a Parliamentary intention to exclude all other aspects of fair treatment, the more so since the provisions originate in an Act passed 16 years before the formal separation of the penal and risk elements, and the ascription to the former of such a decisive influence on the future of the prisoner.
A similar argument is advanced on the broader ground that since Parliament has by s 34 established a regime which assures discretionary life prisoners of important rights, whilst leaving untouched the Home Secretary’s much more general powers in relation to mandatory prisoners, no new rights in this field should be created by judicial implication. The Secretary of State calls up the decision of the House of Lords in Findlay v Secretary of State for the Home Dept
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[1984] 3 All ER 801, [1985] AC 318, which was concerned with another aspect of Mr Brittan’s change in policy, to emphasise how careful the courts must be not to impose on a statutory general discretion constraints which Parliament has chosen not to create. Whilst I bear this warning carefully in mind, I cannot accept the argument. Even in relation to discretionary life prisoners, s 34 does not exhaust the rights stemming from the general principle of fairness, as witness R v Parole Board, ex p Wilson [1992] 2 All ER 576, [1992] QB 740 the reasoning of which I adopt in full.
One further argument for the Secretary of State must be mentioned, namely that since the prisoner already knows all the circumstances of his offence, in the light of which the trial judge made his recommendation on the penal element, he can deduce without the need for any more information both the factual basis of the Secretary of State’s decision, and the intellectual reasons why the penal element was fixed at a particular term of years. Although something akin to this argument has found favour in other cases, I am quite unable to accept it here. The prisoner does indeed know what primary materials were before the court, but he does not know what the judge and the Home Secretary made of them, nor does he know what other materials, not brought out at the trial, may have formed an element in the decision. That the choice of the penal element is not self-evident appears quite clearly from the number of occasions on which the Home Secretary’s appraisal differs from that of the judges. Either there is something in the material before the Home Secretary which was not known to the judges, or the Home Secretary approaches his task in a way which is different from that adopted by the judiciary when passing sentence. In either event, the missing factor is hidden from view, and the prisoner can do no more than guess what it might be.
My Lords, thus to reject the arguments advanced by the Secretary of State does not in itself mean that the respondents are entitled to succeed on the first three issues: it merely leaves the ground clear to consider what fairness demands. Starting with the first issue, we encounter no problems. It would be impossible nowadays to imagine that a prisoner has no right to address to the Home Secretary reasons why the penal term should be fixed at a lower rather than a higher level, and it is now accepted that the prisoner does have this right. Indeed, the Secretary of State has gone further, by very properly undertaking through counsel that a statement of this effect will be included in the next edition of ‘Life Sentence: Your Questions Answered’, the excellent booklet issued to persons serving life sentences. The only issue is whether the court should make a declaration to this effect. The Secretary of State may be technically right in saying that the point has never been in dispute, and is therefore inapt for a formal ruling. But this controversy is arid. I am unable to understand what objection the Secretary of State could have to the grant of relief, so long as it is made clear (as I have just made clear) that he has not unworthily argued against an obvious right. In a rapidly developing area of the law I think it useful for each new area to be formally marked out, even if in the event it proves uncontroversial. I would therefore uphold the decision of the Court of Appeal on the first issue.
My Lords, I consider that the second and third issues are both aspects of the same question, and that the focus of both is too narrow. The central question is whether the prisoner is entitled to know what materials the Secretary of State will found upon when making his decision and (after the event) how that decision was arrived at. The opinion of the judges and the reasons for the opinion are important, not because they have any direct effect but because they form part of the corpus of material on which the Home Secretary bases his decision. Similarly,
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if there is a divergence between the opinion of the judges and the decision of the Secretary of State, the reasons for this divergence are no more than part of the entire reasons which led the Home Secretary to fix a particular term as the penal element.
Approaching the matter in this way, it must be asked whether the prisoner is entitled to be informed of that part of the material before the Home Secretary which consists of the judges’ opinion and their reasons for it. It has frequently been stated that the right to make representations is of little value unless the maker has knowledge in advance of the considerations which, unless effectively challenged, will or may lead to an adverse decision. The opinion of the Privy Council in Kanda v Government of Malaya [1962] AC 322 at 337 is often quoted to this effect. This proposition of common sense will in many instances require an explicit disclosure of the substance of the matters on which the decision-maker intends to proceed. Whether such a duty exists, how far it goes and how it should be performed depend so entirely on the circumstances of the individual case that I prefer not to reason from any general proposition on the subject. Rather, I would simply ask whether a life prisoner whose future depends vitally on the decision of the Home Secretary as to the penal element and who has a right to make representations upon it should know what factors the Home Secretary will take into account. In my view he does possess this right, for without it there is a risk that some supposed fact which he could controvert, some opinion which he could challenge, some policy which he could argue against, might wrongly go unanswered.
In the present instance, the opinion of the judges (or opinions, if the Lord Chief Justice differs from the charge judge) are weighed in the balance when the Secretary of State makes his decision. Beyond the fact that the opinion is not invariably decisive (as witness the statistics previously cited) there is no means of knowing how it figures in the Home Secretary’s reasoning. That it does so figure is quite plain from the statements by successive ministers from which I have quoted. This being so, I think it clear that the prisoner needs to know the substance of the judges’ advice, comprising not only the term of years which they recommended as the penal element, but also their reasons: for the prisoner cannot rationalise his objections to the penal element without knowing how it was rationalised by the judges themselves.
This does not mean that the document(s) in which the judges state their opinion need be disclosed in their entirety. Those parts of the judges’ opinions which are concerned with matters other than the penal element (for example any observation by the judges on risk) need not be disclosed in any form, and even in respect of the relevant material the requirement is only that the prisoner shall learn the gist of what the judges have said. This will not necessarily involve verbatim quotation from the advice, although this may often be convenient. If the Home Secretary’s duty is approached in this way I doubt whether the fact that in the past the advice has been given in documents intended to be confidential will often prove to be troublesome; and in the few cases where problems do arise it may well be that, upon request, the judges are prepared to waive the confidentiality of the documents.
In these circumstances I agree with the Court of Appeal on the second as well as the first of the issues. I do, however, have the misfortune to differ on the third.
I accept without hesitation, and mention it only to avoid misunderstanding, that the law does not at present recognise a general duty to give reasons for an administrative decision. Nevertheless, it is equally beyond question that such a duty may in appropriate circumstances be implied, and I agree with the analyses
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by the Court of Appeal in R v Civil Service Appeal Board, ex p Cunningham [1991] 4 All ER 310 of the factors which will often be material to such an implication.
Turning to the present dispute I doubt the wisdom of discussing the problem in the contemporary vocabulary of ‘prisoner’s rights’, given that as a result of his own act the position of the prisoner is so forcibly distanced from that of the ordinary citizen, nor is it very helpful to say that the Home Secretary should out of simple humanity provide reasons for the prisoner, since any society which operates a penal system is bound to treat some of its citizens in a way which would, in the general, be thought inhumane. I prefer simply to assert that within the inevitable constraints imposed by the statutory framework, the general shape of the administrative regime which ministers have lawfully built around it, and the imperatives of the public interest, the Secretary of State ought to implement the scheme as fairly as he can. The giving of reasons may be inconvenient, but I can see no ground at all why it should be against the public interest: indeed, rather the reverse. This being so, I would ask simply: is a refusal to give reasons fair? I would answer without hesitation that it is not. As soon as the jury returns its verdict the offender knows that he will be locked up for a very long time. For just how long immediately becomes the most important thing in the prisoner’s life. When looking at statistics it is easy to fall into the way of thinking that there is not really very much difference between one extremely long sentence and another: and there may not be, in percentage terms. But the percentage reflects a difference of a year or years: a long time for anybody, and longer still for a prisoner. Where a defendant is convicted of, say, several armed robberies he knows that he faces a stiff sentence: he can be advised by reference to a public tariff of the range of sentences he must expect; he hears counsel address the judge on the relationship between his offences and the tariff; he will often hear the judge give an indication during exchanges with counsel of how his mind is working; and when sentence is pronounced he will always be told the reasons for it. So also when a discretionary life sentence is imposed, coupled with an order under s 34. Contrast this with the position of the prisoner sentenced for murder. He never sees the Home Secretary; he has no dialogue with him: he cannot fathom how his mind is working. There is no true tariff, or at least no tariff exposed to public view which might give the prisoner an idea of what to expect. The announcement of his first review date arrives out of thin air, wholly without explanation. The distant oracle has spoken, and that is that.
My Lords, I am not aware that there still exists anywhere else in the penal system a procedure remotely resembling this. The beginnings of an explanation for its unique character might perhaps be found if the Executive had still been putting into practice the theory that the tariff sentence for murder is confinement for life, subject only to a wholly discretionary release on licence: although even in such a case I doubt whether in the modern climate of administrative law such an entirely secret process could be justified. As I hope to have shown, however, this is no longer the practice, and can hardly be sustained any longer as the theory. I therefore simply ask, is it fair that the mandatory life prisoner should be wholly deprived of the information which all other prisoners receive as a matter of course. I am clearly of the opinion that it is not.
My Lords, I can moreover arrive at the same conclusion by a different and more familiar route, of which Ex p Cunningham [1991] 4 All ER 310 provides a recent example. It is not, as I understand it, questioned that the decision of the Home Secretary on the penal element is susceptible to judicial review. To mount an effective attack on the decision, given no more material than the facts of the offence and the length of the penal element, the prisoner has virtually no means
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of ascertaining whether this is an instance where the decision-making process has gone astray. I think it important that there should be an effective means of detecting the kind of error which would entitle the court to intervene, and in practice I regard it as necessary for this purpose that the reasoning of the Home Secretary should be disclosed. If there is any difference between the penal element recommended by the judges and actually imposed by the Home Secretary, this reasoning is bound to include, either explicitly or implicitly, a reason why the Home Secretary has taken a different view. Accordingly, I consider that the respondents are entitled to an affirmative answer on the third issue.
It remains to comment briefly on the decision of the Court of Appeal in Payne v Lord Harris of Greenwich [1981] 2 All ER 842, [1981] 1 WLR 754, on the duties of disclosure in relation to the recommendations of the Parole Board. In practical terms this is obsolete, having been overtaken by the changes in law and practice of recent years. The decision is also distinguishable, since it was not, and could not have been, concerned with the penal element. Nevertheless, the reasoning remains intact. With proper respect, I would depart from it for three reasons. First, and most important, because the case was decided before the Home Secretary created a wholly new explanation of the life sentence. The traditional theory, exemplified in the passage already quoted from the judgment of Shaw LJ, no longer corresponds with the practice. Second, because even in such a short time as 13 years the perception of society’s obligation towards persons serving prison sentences has perceptibly changed. Finally, because of the continuing momentum in administrative law towards openness of decision-making. Sound as it may well have been at the time, the reasoning of Payne v Lord Harris of Greenwich cannot be sustained today.
Before leaving this question, I wish to make it absolutely clear that if your Lordships are in agreement with this conclusion this will not be a signal for a flood of successful applications for judicial review. I repeat for the last time that Parliament has left the discretion on release with the Home Secretary, and that he has done nothing to yield it up. So long as this remains the case, prisoners should not deceive themselves into believing that they can obtain leave to move for judicial review simply by pointing to a difference between the opinion of the judges and the decision of the Home Secretary. Only if it can be shown that the decision may have been arrived at through a faulty process, in one of the ways now so familiar to practitioners of judicial review, will they have any serious prospect of persuading the court to grant relief.
V. ISSUE 5: DISCRETION
On this I have little to add to the judgment of Staughton LJ, the reasoning of which I adopt. That the question whether statutory discretion is capable of delegation, and if so to what degree, principally depends upon the interpretation of the statute is beyond question. Whether there is another constraint as regards the degree of delegation, in the shape of a possible exposure to attack on the ground of irrationality, as suggested by the Court of Appeal in R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Oladehinde [1990] 2 All ER 367, [1991] 1 AC 254, need not be examined here, since it is obvious that if delegation is possible at all, the power to fix the penal element can properly be entrusted to a junior minister. On the question whether the statute contemplates that the Home Secretary, with all his multifarious public duties, is required to exercise his particular discretion personally in every case, I agree with the reasons given by Staughton LJ, and wish to add nothing.
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There is one further point. The statutory powers and the administrative regime contemplate that the Lord Chief Justice as well as the Home Secretary has a part to play. It may safely be assumed that in the past the Lord Chief Justice has always considered that he is obliged to act in person. It might be asked why the position of the Home Secretary should be different. In my judgment this argument is out of place. Throughout the statute book there are innumerable instances where powers are conferred on a minister, and where it is perfectly obvious that Parliament contemplated a delegation. By contrast, there are very few instances in which a statute, or delegated legislation, refers to the Lord Chief Justice and in these instances it is equally obvious that the office-holder alone is to act. The two terms are therefore drawn from quite different vocabularies, and I find nothing inconsistent in holding that the one office-holder may delegate, whereas the other may not.
VI. ISSUE 6: MR PEGG’S SPECIAL QUESTION
Mr Pegg pursues through counsel an appeal advanced on very narrow grounds particular to his own case. It involves no question of general principle and is therefore inapt for decision by this House. I will only say that on the material presently before the House I can see no ground for holding either that the Home Secretary misdirected himself as to the nature and purpose of the representations made to him on behalf of Mr Pegg, or that his decision not to accede to them was irrational. Whether when Mr Pegg obtains the reasons for the Home Secretary’s decision in fixing and maintaining the tariff at the level which he did he may appear to have some ground for complaint which might call for the intervention of the court is not a matter on which your Lordships can at present express any opinion.
My Lords, as will have appeared I have adopted an approach to the problems of this case rather wider than the issues identified for argument, and set out above, would suggest. Logically, this should lead to declarations expressed in equally broad terms. The appellants have not however sought relief in such terms, and I suggest it would be inappropriate for your Lordships now to make orders which have never been claimed. Accordingly, I propose that your Lordships should simply uphold the two declarations already made by the Court of Appeal and add a third, to reflect the decision in favour of the appellants on the third issue. This will result in an order in the following form:
‘It is declared that: (1) The Secretary of State is required to afford to a prisoner serving a mandatory life sentence the opportunity to submit in writing representations as to the period he should serve for the purposes of retribution and deterrence before the Secretary of State sets the date of the first review of the prisoner’s sentence. (2) Before giving the prisoner the opportunity to make such representations, the Secretary of State is required to inform him of the period recommended by the judiciary as the period he should serve for the purposes of retribution and deterrence, and of any other opinion expressed by the judiciary which is relevant to the Secretary of State’s decision as to the appropriate period to be served for these purposes.
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(3) Secretary of State is obliged to give reasons for departing from the period recommended by the judiciary as the period which he should serve for the purposes of retribution and deterrence.’
It is however imperative that these declarations should be read in the context of the reasons for them which I have endeavoured to express.
Appeal dismissed. Cross-appeal allowed in part and further declaration granted.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex parte London Waste Regulation Authority and others
Berkshire County Council v Scott and another
[1993] 3 All ER 113
Categories: HEALTH; Public Health
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WATKINS LJ, AULD AND LAWS JJ
Hearing Date(s): 25 NOVEMBER, 21 DECEMBER 1992
Public health – Waste disposal – Prohibition on unlicensed disposal of waste – Controlled waste – Waste temporarily deposited on unlicensed site pending removal elsewhere – Whether offence of depositing controlled waste committed – Control of Pollution Act 1974, s 3.
In two separate proceedings, the question arose whether the offence of depositing controlled waste on any land, or using any plant or equipment for the disposal of such waste, contrary to s 3(1)a of the Control of Pollution Act 1974, was committed where waste had been temporarily deposited pending its removal elsewhere. In the first case, the local waste authority laid informations against the defendants alleging they were operating a waste transfer station ‘for the purpose of disposing of controlled waste’ for which they had no licence contrary to s 3(1)(b) of the 1974 Act. At the committal proceedings the examining magistrate refused to commit the defendants for trial on the grounds that since the materials brought onto the site were not to be left there permanently but were due to be moved elsewhere, the defendants’ activities were not capable of amounting to an offence under s 3(1)(b). The local authority applied for judicial review of the magistrate’s decision. The defendants contended, inter alia, that ‘disposing of’ in s 3(1) imported a final disposal. In the second case, the local authority served a notice on the respondents under s 16 of the 1974 Act requiring them to remove waste at the site of their skip hire business. The respondents appealed to the magistrates’ court, which allowed the appeal on the grounds that the waste on the site had not been ‘deposited’ within the meaning of s 3(1)(a) because it was to be moved elsewhere. The local authority appealed by way of case stated.
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Held – On the true construction of s 3(1) of the 1974 Act the offence created by the ‘deposit [of] controlled waste on any land’ was committed where waste was taken to a place from which it would later be transferred and was not restricted to final deposits or disposals, since the purpose of the 1974 Act was to protect the environment from the consequences of dumping waste and it would unnecessarily erode the efficacy of the Act were it to be held that offences under s 3 could only be charged once the waste had reached its final place of deposit. Furthermore, on its ordinary meaning, ‘disposal of’ in the context of s 3(1)(b) implied ‘getting rid of something’ and did not import a final disposal, since an article could be regarded as being disposed of if it was destroyed or if it was passed on from one person to another. It followed that the judicial review application would be granted and the appeal by way of case stated would be allowed (see p 118 f to h, p 120 h to p 121 b h j and p 122 c to 113, post).
Notes
For disposal of waste, see, 38 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 127, 129.
For the Control of Pollution Act 1974, s 3, see 35 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 487.
Cases referred to in judgment
Leigh Land Reclamation Ltd v Walsall Metropolitan BC (15 October 1990, unreported), DC.
R v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, ex p Calveley [1986] 1 All ER 257, [1986] QB 424, [1986] 2 WLR 144, CA.
R v Epping and Harlow General Comrs, ex p Goldstraw [1983] 3 All ER 257,CA.
R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] 1 QB 67, [1984] 3 WLR 643, DC.
Cases also cited
British Amusements Catering Trades Association v Westminster CC [1988] 1 All ER 740, [1989] AC 147, HL.
Glasgow Navigation Co v Iron Ore Co [1910] AC 293, HL.
Hanlon v Law Society [1980] 3 All ER 199, [1981] AC 124, HL.
Harvey v Meadon (4 December 1985, unreported), DC.
Kent CC v Rackham (5 February 1991, unreported), DC.
Ministère public v Traen Joined cases 372 to 374/85 [1987] ECR 2141.
Vaughan v Biggs [1960] 2 All ER 473, [1960] 1 WLR 622, DC.
Application for judicial review and case stated
R v Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p London Waste Regulation _Authority and ors
The London Waste Regulation Authority applied, with the leave of Hutchison J given on 14 January 1992, for judicial review by way of (i) an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the metropolitan stipendiary magistrate, Miss Audrey Jennings, sitting at Wells Street Magistrates’ Court on 25 October 1991 as an examining magistrate, whereby she decided not to commit the defendants, Baseswift Ltd and David Andrew Taylor, to stand trial in respect of alleged offences under s 3(1)(b) of the Control of Pollution Act 1974 and (ii) a declaration that the stipendiary magistrate was wrong in law to find that for the purposes of s 3(1)(b) of the Act a ‘disposal of controlled waste’ was only made when there had
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been a final act of disposing of, once and for all, the controlled waste, at its final resting place. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Berkshire County Council v Scott and anor
Berkshire County Council appealed by way of case stated by the justices for the petty sessional division of Forest sitting at Bracknell, Berkshire on 25 June and 2 July 1991, whereby they allowed the appeal of the respondents, Reginald James Scott and Alan Scott, and quashed a notice served on them by the appellant under s 16 of the Control of Pollution Act 1974. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Anthony Scrivener QC and James Findlay (instructed by S J F Starling) for the waste regulation authority.
Lord Hooson QC and Graham Brodie (instructed by Grant Saw & Sons) for Mr Taylor.
Simon Readhead (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard) for the Berkshire County Council.
Baseswift Ltd was not represented.
The Scotts did not appear.
Cur adv vult
21 December 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
WATKINS LJ. Before the court are an application for judicial review and an appeal by way of case stated. They were argued before us together, since they raise the same question as to the true construction of s 3 of the Control of Pollution Act 1974. There is a separate point in the appeal, concerning the validity of a notice served under s 16 of the 1974 Act.
The applicant in the judicial review was the prosecutor in proceedings brought initially in the Greenwich Magistrates’ Court against Baseswift Ltd and David Taylor (whom we shall call ‘the defendants’) upon 60 informations alleging offences of disposing of controlled waste contrary to s 3(1)(b) of the 1974 Act. Thirty were laid against the corporate defendant, and an identical 30 against the individual defendant. The defendants elected trial and the matter was transferred to the Wells Street Magistrates’ Court for committal proceedings to be heard on 25 October 1991. No oral evidence was given before the stipendiary magistrate on that day. A bundle of witness statements was handed to the court. It seems that prosecuting counsel read some extract or extracts from this to the court, but, perhaps at the instigation of the learned magistrate, there was legal argument at an early stage as a result of which she decided not to commit the defendants and dismissed the charges.
The facts which the prosecution proposed to allege were in essence that the defendants were operating a waste transfer station at a site in Hoskins Street, Greenwich. They had no licence under the 1974 Act, to whose provisions we shall shortly refer. The nature of their activities was such that the materials brought onto the site were not permanently left there, but in due course moved elsewhere. The majority of the statements to which we have referred were made by Mr Peter Ord, a waste control officer employed by the prosecutor. He visited the site on several occasions. On 11 October 1990 he says he saw a large pile of skip-type waste at the premises, including rubble, soil, and wood etc in one corner of the yard. Other waste was elsewhere, and there was also a scrap metal pile. Outside the main gate was a sign reading ‘Scrap Metal Wanted’. Mr Ord describes
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a series of activities including the loading of waste materials onto a Volvo lorry and the dumping of further waste from a skip. The magistrate held that the defendants’ activities were not capable of amounting to any offence under s 3(1)(b), because the waste was not to remain on the site but was to be removed elsewhere. The application for judicial review is directed to the magistrate’s refusal to commit for trial.
The relief sought by the applicant authority is certiorari to quash the magistrate’s refusal; and an order that the matter go back to her to continue the committal proceedings, alternatively, a declaration of the law as stated by this court.
The appeal by way of case stated is from a decision of justices for the petty sessional division of Forest in Berkshire. The respondents are father and son. The justices found that in 1989 they had been refused planning permission to use part of their land at Buckhurst Moors, Bracknell as a waste transfer station (their appeal to the Secretary of State was subsequently dismissed in August 1991). They operated a skip hire business at the premises, and materials were processed and recycled on the site. There was waste at the site, but most materials brought there left the land after processing. There were photographs of the land before the justices. We have seen them. One of them shows an enormous pile of rubbish of different kinds. The respondents enjoyed no disposal licence under the Act (nor could they, without planning permission: s 5(2)).
The county council, as the waste regulation authority, served a notice on the respondents dated 12 March 1991 under s 16 of the 1974 Act. The preamble to the notice states that the council was satisfied that controlled waste had been deposited on a site at Bracknell in contravention of s 3(1), and the notice required the respondents as occupiers of the land to remove the waste. They exercised their right of appeal against the notice to the magistrates’ court under s 16(2). On 2 July 1991 the justices allowed that appeal. Their primary holding was that the waste on the site had not been ‘deposited’ within the meaning of the 1974 Act because, as in the judicial review case, it was to be moved elsewhere. They also held that the notice under s 16 was too vague and that this constituted a ‘material defect’ within the meaning of s 16(2)(c). They asked this court the following questions:
‘(a) Were we correct in law in applying to the word “deposit” in Section 16 of the Control of Pollution Act 1974 the definition of that word as being “final resting place” as set out in the Leigh Land case [Leigh Land Reclamation Ltd v Walsall Metropolitan BC (15 October 1990, unreported)].
(b) Whether on the evidence we were justified in holding that the Respondents had proved on the balance of probabilities that the waste had not been “deposited” on the land.
(c) Were we correct in law in holding that because the Notice was too vague there was a material defect under s 16(2)(c) of the Control of Pollution Act 1974.
(d) Whether in all the circumstances we were justified in allowing the appeal against the Notice and making our Order to quash it.’
Both these cases, therefore, raise the question whether s 3(1) of the 1974 Act has any application in a case where the acts complained of relate to waste which is not ‘in its final resting place’ (the significance of that phrase will appear shortly), but is for one reason or another to be transferred to another site. In holding that the section does not apply in such circumstances, both magistrates’ courts founded on the decision of this court in Leigh Land Reclamation Ltd v
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Walsall Metropolitan BC (15 October 1990, unreported). We have to say that, in our view, the judgments in that case necessarily require this court to decide whether the case was correctly decided.
Part I of the 1974 Act created a regime for the control and disposal of waste. Most of it concerns ‘controlled waste’, that is household, industrial and commercial waste or any such waste (see the interpretation provisions in s 30(1)). Within that regime, the following provisions are important for the purposes of the present case.
Section 3 provides in part as follows:
‘(1) Except in prescribed cases, a person shall not —(a) deposit controlled waste on any land or cause or knowingly permit controlled waste to be deposited on any land; or (b) use any plant or equipment, or cause or knowingly permit any plant or equipment to be used, for the purpose of disposing of controlled waste or of dealing in a prescribed manner with controlled waste, unless the land on which the waste is deposited or, as the case may be, which forms the site of the plant or equipment is occupied by the holder of a licence issued in pursuance of section 5 of this Act (in this Part of this Act referred to as a “disposal licence”) which authorises the deposit or use in question and the deposit or use is in accordance with the conditions, if any, specified in the licence.
(2) Except in a case falling within the following subsection, a person who contravenes any of the provisions of the preceding subsection shall, subject to subsection (4) of this section, be guilty of an offence …’
Section 3(4) creates a series of statutory defences which, very broadly, deploy concepts of ignorance and reasonable care.
Section 4 is cross-headed ‘Provisions supplementary to s 3’. Section 4(3) provides in part:
‘It shall be the duty of the Secretary of State, in exercising the power conferred on him by subsection (1) of the preceding section to prescribe excepted cases, to have regard in particular to the expediency of excluding from the controls imposed by virtue of that section—(a) any deposits which are small enough to be properly excluded from those controls or are of such a temporary nature that they may be so excluded …’
Section 5 makes provision in relation to licences for the disposal of waste; we have mentioned s 5(2), which prohibits the issue of a licence for a use for which planning permission is required unless such permission is in force. Sections 6 to 10 fill out the machinery as regards licences. Section 16 provides in part as follows:
‘(1) If any controlled waste is deposited on any land in the area of a disposal authority or a collection authority in contravention of section 3(1) of this Act, the authority may serve a notice on the occupier of the land requiring him—(a) to remove the waste from the land within a period specified in the notice, which shall not be less than twenty-one days beginning with the date of service of the notice; or (b) to take within such a period such steps as are so specified with a view to eliminating or reducing the consequences of the deposit of the waste, or requiring him both to remove the waste as mentioned in paragraph (a) of this subsection and to take such steps as are mentioned in paragraph (b) of this subsection within such a period as aforesaid.
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(2) A person served with a notice in pursuance of the preceding subsection may within the twenty-one days aforesaid appeal to a magistrates’ court against the notice; and on any such appeal the court shall quash the notice if it is satisfied that—(a) the appellant neither deposited nor caused nor knowingly permitted the deposit of the waste on the land; or (b) service of the notice on the appellant was not authorised by the preceding subsection; or (c) there is a material defect in the notice; and in any other case shall either modify the notice or dismiss the appeal.’
Section 16(3) suspends the effect of a notice pending the determination of an appeal, and sub-s (4) criminalises failure to comply with a notice, and empowers the authority to do what the notice required of its recipient.
It will be seen that an effective notice under s 16 requires, as a condition precedent for its lawful use, that it be the fact that controlled waste has been deposited on land in contravention of s 3(1). The drafting is slightly loose, because only para (a) of s 3(1) prohibits the deposit of controlled waste on land; para (b) creates two further and distinct offences: (i) the use of plant or equipment (or causing or knowingly permitting its use) for the purpose of disposing of controlled waste; (ii) the like use of plant or equipment for the purpose of dealing in a prescribed manner with controlled waste. Clearly, in our judgment, a notice under s 16 is only effective (and thus its breach will only be criminalised) if an offence has been committed under para (a) of s 3(1). This means that, for the purpose of the case stated appeal, the justices were right to strike down the notice if the words in para (a) ‘deposit controlled waste on any land’ describe only what may be called a permanent deposit, that is, not one where the facts are that the waste is going to be moved elsewhere. That issue directly engages the Leigh case.
The decision in the case is engaged, though perhaps rather more indirectly, in the judicial review application. There, the defendants were not charged under s 3(1)(a) nor served with a notice under s 16. They were charged with using plant or equipment for the purpose of disposing of controlled waste under the first arm of s 3(1)(b). Now, the section is careful to limit all uses of the word ‘deposit’ and its cognates to the application of para (a) of s 3(1) only. Thus in our judgment there is no requirement, for proof of an offence under either arm of para (b), that it be shown that controlled waste has been deposited on land within para (a); and we reject Mr Scrivener QC’s submission that ‘deposit’ bears the same meaning as ‘dispose of’. No doubt in reality, however, activities of a kind caught by the first arm of para (b), disposing of controlled waste, are almost bound to involve doing some acts involving waste which has in fact been deposited on the land in question. In any event it must, we think, at first blush be plain that if para (a) is confined to circumstances where the waste is finally deposited, and not merely taken to a place from which it is later to be removed, the first arm of para (b) must be likewise confined: no rational purpose could be divined in a construction of the section which meant that while temporary ‘disposals’ were prohibited, temporary ’deposits’ were not. We must return to this point in dealing with Lord Hooson QC’s submissions for the respondents. If our preliminary view is right, the judicial review requires consideration of the decision in the Leigh case as surely as does the appeal by case stated.
The Leigh case founds the basis of the applicant and appellant authorities’ primary submission in this court. It was an appeal by case stated. Three defendants had been convicted of 12 offences under the 1974 Act after a three-day hearing in the magistrates’ court. The informations all alleged offences contrary to s 3(1)(a). The leading judgment was given by Bingham LJ. The facts concerned
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the operation of a landfill site in the West Midlands. Leigh Land Reclamation Ltd (unlike the respondents and defendants in the cases before us) enjoyed the benefit of a licence under the 1974 Act in respect of the site. The questions asked by the justices in that case were refined so that in the event there were only two issues before Bingham LJ and Waterhouse J. Only the second of those issues is material to the cases before us, and upon which the magistrates’ courts in both these cases, based their decisions.
The relevant facts set out in the case stated in the Leigh case included the fact that the waste in question—
‘had not reached its final resting place and had yet to be bladed into the workface. This afforded a further opportunity to inspect the waste and the machine operators were under general instruction to move aside any material there seemed to be a problem with and seek management advice.’
That finding related to one of the relevant informations; in relation to the other the justices found, again, that the waste, contained in drums, was removed to another position so that ‘there was a second opportunity to inspect the waste when it was dealt with by the machine.’
Bingham LJ recorded the submission for the appellants as being to the effect that on the facts there had been no deposit; the argument was that a deposit only occurred when the waste reached ‘its final resting place’. Reliance was placed on reg 14 of the Control of Pollution (Special Waste) Regulations 1980, SI 1980/1709. Bingham LJ said:
‘I would, for my part, entirely agree that the meaning of “deposit” takes it colour from the context in which the word is used. This statute is concerned, primarily at least, with the manner in which waste is disposed of. Its provisions, and the conditions in the licence, are directed towards the mode of final disposal and not to the intermediate processes. For the purposes of this Act, waste is, in my view, to be regarded as deposited when it is dumped on the site with no realistic prospect of further examination or inspection to reject goods of which deposit is not allowed under the licence.’
Accordingly he decided that on the facts, the offences alleged under s 3(1)(a) were not capable of being established. Waterhouse J agreed with his judgment, so that it represents the decision of the court.
There are two submissions with which we should deal before we address the reasoning in the Leigh case. First, it was submitted by Mr Readhead for the appellant authority in the case stated appeal, in his very careful and thorough written argument, that the Leigh case could be distinguished on its facts because there the company had a licence under the statute; here there was no licence. But this submission would require the court to adopt differential constructions of the words in s 3(1)(a) ‘deposit controlled waste on any land’ according to whether the case being made was that there was no licence, or was that there was a breach of condition in the licence. In our judgment that is an impossible contention. We cannot believe that Parliament meant two different things in the single use of one expression; even if there might be a case where such a result could properly be arrived at (which we greatly doubt), it would only arise where the court felt driven to adopt an apparently Gilbertian construction because any other interpretation of the statute in question produced wholly unacceptable consequences which could not possibly have been intended by the legislature. That is not the case here.
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The other preliminary submission with which we must deal is that made by Lord Hooson for the respondents in the judicial review, to the effect that we should refuse relief because the prosecutor had another remedy against the magistrate’s refusal to commit, of which it has not availed itself, namely the right to apply to a High Court judge for a voluntary bill of indictment. He cited two well-known authorities: R v Epping and Harlow General Comrs, ex p Goldstraw [1983] 3 All ER 257 and R v Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, ex p Calveley [1986] 1 All ER 257, [1986] QB 424. We mean no disrespect in dealing with this submission briefly. The cases show that judicial review is a remedy of last resort in the sense that where an applicant invokes this jurisdiction without having sought to deploy another remedy which is available to him, he is likely to find that, in the exercise of the court’s discretion, he will be refused relief here. A typical case is where an applicant seeks review of an immigration decision against which he had a right of appeal on the merits (and on the law) to the statutory appellate authority. But, as has often been acknowledged, it is a matter of discretion; and it follows that the court is entitled to take into account the convenience of the other remedy and the common sense of the situation. Here, the voluntary bill procedure does not allow for reasoned argument to be put before the judge on an inter partes basis, save perhaps very exceptionally. If a voluntary bill had been granted in this case and a trial ensued, it would have been open to the defendants to take the same point before the trial judge which was canvassed before us and upon which we heard full argument and, if convicted, before the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division. That would be undesirable from every standpoint and would most certainly not, in our view, lead as would be desirable to a convenient and relatively economical resolution of the point in question. Therefore we reject Lord Hooson’s submission on this point.
Returning to the Leigh case, in our judgment the passage which we have cited from Bingham LJ’s judgment amounts to the ratio decidendi of the case on the point in question, and is couched in general terms such that, if it is correct, it concludes the issue in both of the proceedings before us in favour of the respondents. It has not been contended that we are bound to follow it, but out of respect to Bingham LJ we obviously must indicate the basis on which we feel we would be entitled to depart from it if that is what we are minded to do. That appears from the decision of this court in R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240 [1985] QB 67, and is that the court must be convinced that the previous decision was wrong. Thus, strictly speaking, there is no rule of stare decisis as between decisions of the Divisional Court, because such a rule must mean that the later court has not the jurisdiction to depart from the previous decision, whatever it thinks of its correctness; but, of course, it is clear that this court must be firmly satisfied that one of its previous decisions is erroneous before it departs from it.
We have no doubt that the policy of the 1974 Act is to regulate operations having substantial consequences for the local environment, nor that a case for the application of s 3(1)(a) arises where waste is being permanently deposited. But we cannot see why that case should be the only case. Suppose a situation where a substantial quantity of waste is dumped on an area of land with the firm intention that it be removed elsewhere after a period of days or weeks; that there is no licence in force; and that the activity in question does not fall foul of any provision in Sch 5 to the Collection and Disposal of Waste Regulations 1988, SI 1988/819 (were it otherwise, an offence under the second arm of s 3(1)(b) would be committed). We cannot escape the conclusion that on Bingham LJ’s reasoning there would be no offence under s 3(1)(a), and if that is right, we cannot discern
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any basis on which the court should hold that Parliament intended to create such a lacuna in the environmental protection afforded by the statute.
In the judicial review, Lord Hooson submitted in effect that whatever might be said of the use of the word ‘deposit’ in s 3(1)(a), the term ‘dispose of’ in s 3(1)(b) imports a final disposal. Why should that be so? An article may be regarded as disposed of if it is destroyed or if it is passed on from one person to another; the ordinary sense of the term, certainly in a context such as that of this Act, rests in the notion of getting rid of something. It has, in our judgment, no more to do with finding a ‘final resting place’ than has the word ‘deposit’ in s 3(1)(a). Therefore, we reject Lord Hooson‘s submission on this point too.
In the course of Bingham LJ’s judgment there is no reference to s 4(3) of the 1974 Act. It may be that no reliance was placed on it in argument before him. But it seems to us to add a further, and conclusive, obstacle to the respondents’ submissions. Section 4(3)(a), which has been read, necessarily contemplates in our judgment that ‘deposits … of … a temporary nature’ would not be excluded from the s 3(1)(a) prohibition absent a provision in regulations made by the Secretary of State providing for such an exclusion.
We do not consider that reg 14 of the Control of Pollution and (Special Waste) Regulations 1980, cited to the court in the Leigh case, offers any basis for concluding that s 3 is only concerned with permanent deposits or disposals. ‘Special waste’ is defined to mean waste of various types of dangerous waste, and reg 14 requires, in short, that a record be kept of where it is deposited. Clearly the regulation primarily contemplates the case of a permanent or long-term deposit. Anyhow we would not regard this regulation as offering any illumination upon the correct construction of s 3(1).
We now turn to the second arm of s 3(1)(b), which prohibits dealing ‘in a prescribed manner’, that is, prescribed by regulations made by the Secretary of State, with controlled waste. Insofar as the regulations offer any legitimate aid to the construction of the statute, which is questionable, it is clear from the very provisions cited by Lord Hooson, namely reg 8 of and item 2 of Sch 5 to the Control and Disposal of Waste Regulations 1988, that the subordinate legislator has prescribed activities which relate to waste held on a temporary basis. Schedule 5 sets out the manner of dealing with controlled waste which are prescribed for the purposes of s 3(1)(b). Item 2 is: ‘Processing or holding waste at a site designed or adapted for the reception of waste with a view to its being disposed of elsewhere’. Thus the second arm of s 3(1)(b), at any rate as it has been given content by the Secretary of State’s regulations, contemplates means of dealing with waste which, expressly, is to be transferred elsewhere.
For all these reasons, we feel compelled to conclude in principle that s 3(1) is not concerned only with final deposits or disposals. To hold otherwise would, we think, involve an unnecessary erosion of the efficacy of the Act which, in our judgment, is as much concerned with the environmental damage that may be caused by a waste transfer station as with the effects created on or by a site where the waste reaches its ‘final resting place’. Since we cannot escape the conclusion that the decision in the Leigh case was to the contrary, we are driven to hold, with respect, that it was wrongly decided. This result does not, in our view, widen the application of the Act to any unacceptable extent; on the contrary, we think it vindicates its purpose. Lord Hooson made a point, by reference to s 13, to the effect that if the Leigh case were overturned, a householder depositing rubbish in his domestic dustbin might be guilty of an offence under s 3(1)(a). It is enough to say that the terms of s 13 itself, which we will not read, demonstrate that such an
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activity is not a ‘deposit’ within s 3(1)(a). There is in our judgment no question of such a consequence as that arising.
As for Mr Readhead’s separate point as to the validity of the s 16 notice, his submission was that the justices had been wrong to hold that the notice should have specified the waste to which it applied, and the part of the land from which it ought to have been removed. We agree. Given the photographs as an accompaniment to the oral evidence, we cannot think there was any doubt what the notice required the respondents to do. The council could not sensibly in our view be expected, in effect, to make an inventory of the waste which they intended should be removed. Anyway, it was obvious for all passing by to see.
In the result, both the judicial review and the appeal by case stated must, in our judgment, succeed in principle. Thus, there will be a declaration that the magistrate was wrong in law to find that for the purposes of s 3(1)(b) of the Control of Pollution Act 1974, a disposal of controlled waste is only made when there has been a final act of disposing of, once and for all, the controlled waste at the final resting place.
And we answer all questions asked of us in the case stated in the negative.
Orders accordingly.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Pauls Agriculture Ltd v Smith and others
[1993] 3 All ER 122
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): JUDGE PETER CRAWFORD QC SITTING AS A JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 17 JANUARY 1992
Costs – Taxation – Delay in submitting bill of costs – Power of taxing master to disallow whole or part of costs – Interest – Disallowing interest – Taxing master disallowing interest on costs because of delay before taxed costs assessed – Taxing master finding that delay in lodging bill bordering on inordinate, but not inexcusable – Whether taxing master having power to deprive party of statutory right to interest – Whether order disallowing interest on costs appropriate when delay not inordinate or inexcusable – RSC Ord 62, r 28(4)(b)(ii).
Following the trial and appeal of an action the successful defendants were awarded costs against the plaintiffs. There was then a delay of over ten months before they lodged their bill for taxation. The chief taxing master, purporting to exercise his power under RSC Ord 62, r 28(4)(b)(ii)a to disallow part of a successful party’s costs where, inter alia, prejudice had been suffered by another party as a result of delay in lodging a bill of costs for taxation, disallowed interest on the defendants’ bill for the 10-month period on the grounds that the delay, although not inexcusable, ‘bordered on the inordinate’, and thereby deprived the defendants of some £12,000. The defendants appealed, contending that the master had no jurisdiction to disallow interest on the defendants’ bill since Ord 62, r 28 (4)(b)(ii) did not permit him to deprive a successful party of the statutory
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entitlement to interest on assessed costs under s 17 of the Judgments Act 1838, and his decision amounted to an excessive and unjustifiable penalty.
Held – (1) Although on the true construction of RSC Ord 62, r 28 (4)(b)(ii) the taxing master was only empowered to disallow the whole or part of a successful party’s costs where he delayed lodging his bill for taxation and could not in terms disallow interest, that was merely a technical distinction since the master, having taken additional interest payable into account, could disallow part of the costs calculated by reference to some or all the interest that was payable. However, before doing so the court had to be aware of the taxed costs on which that interest was accruing, otherwise the final result could not be known and the final sum could be either excessive or insufficient. Since the master had made his determination when the proceedings had reached the stage where although he had given his decision on various points of principle arising on the bill of costs he had not yet applied those principles to the amounts in the bill, he could not have been aware of the final figures involved in the bill and could not therefore have been aware of the precise implications of the order (see p 124 h j and p 125 f to j, post).
(2) The taxing master had jurisdiction to ‘fine’ a successful party by disallowing costs under RSC Ord 62, r 28(4)(b)(ii) where the delay in lodging a bill for taxation had been inordinate or inexcusable or had been shown to be prejudicial to the unsuccessful party in the action but where neither of those conditions was fulfilled it was inappropriate for the court to exercise its punitive power to disallow costs. Since the master had held that the defendants’ delay in lodging their bill merely ‘bordered on the inordinate’ and was not inexcusable, it followed that the defendants were not guilty of inordinate or inexcusable delay, and in any event the plaintiffs had not in any way been prejudiced by the delay. Accordingly, it was an inappropriate exercise of the power under r 28(4)(b)(ii) to deprive the successful defendants of a significant measure of their costs. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 126 e f h to p 127 a, post).
Notes
For costs arising from misconduct or neglect, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 718, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue), 268, 4518-1523.
For the Judgments Act 1838, s 17, see 22 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 309.
Cases referred to in judgment
K (a minor), Re (1988) 138 NLJ 262; affd [1989] CA Transcript 1198.
Papathanassiou v Dutch Communication Co Ltd (9 May 1985, unreported), Ch D.
Appeal
The plaintiffs, Pauls Agriculture Ltd, brought an action for damages for breach of contract arising out of the failure of oilseed rape crops from seed ordered by the plaintiffs from the first defendants, Anthony Charles Lockhart Smith and Angela Trevor Smith, trading as Ellingham Grain Store, who in turn placed the order with the second defendants, Dunns (Cambridge) Ltd (formerly Shelford Corn Co Ltd), which was the third party in the action. The plaintiffs succeeded in their claim at the trial, but the defendants’ appeal against the judgment against them was successful. On 4 November 1991 on the taxation of the first defendants’ bill of costs, the chief taxing master, Master Hurst, disallowed part of costs of the action pursuant to his powers under RSC Ord 62, r 28(4)(b)(ii) by directing that
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interest on the first defendants’ bill should not be charged for the period from 29 March 1990 to 11 January 1991. The first defendants appealed to the judge in chambers against the decision of the chief taxing master. The appeal was heard and judgment was given in chambers. The case is reported by permission of Judge Peter Crawford QC . The facts are set out in the judgment.
Amanda Grant (instructed by Russell Jones & Walker) for the plaintiffs.
M Bacon, costs draftsman, of Guillaume & Sons, Weybridge, for the first defendants.
The second defendants were not represented.
JUDGE PETER CRAWFORD QC. In this case the successful defendants in an action brought against them by the plaintiffs appeal from a judgment of the chief taxing master, Master Hurst, in relation to a determination made by him to disallow part of the costs of the action pursuant to his powers under RSC Ord 62, r 28(4).
The circumstances are that the defendants were initially unsuccessful after a trial which lasted some 50 days and occupied a great many witnesses. There was then an appeal. In the appeal the defendants were successful. Accordingly, they obtained an order for costs against the plaintiffs of the trial and of the appeal. There was then a delay of 101 /2 months before the bill was lodged for taxation.
Upon taxation the taxing master purported to exercise his power under Ord 62, r 28(4)(b)(ii) to disallow part of the successful defendants’ costs. The form in which he did so was to direct that interest on the defendants’ bill should not be chargeable for the period from 29 March 1990 until 11 January 1991. The bill was a substantial one. The effect of that finding was to disallow £12,147·71.
From that finding the defendants appeal. They appeal on two grounds, the first relating to jurisdiction and the second relating to merits. As to jurisdiction, it is said the master had no power to frame his order in those terms. In order to determine that point it is necessary to look at the terms of the rule. This provides (omitting irrelevant matter):
‘Where a party entitled to costs … (b) delays lodging a bill of costs for taxation, the taxing office may … (ii) after taking into account all the circumstances (including any prejudice suffered by any other party as a result of such … delay… and any additional interest payable under section 17 of the Judgments Act 1838 because of the … delay), allow the party so entitled less than the amount he would otherwise have allowed on taxation of the bill or wholly disallow the costs.’
The point is made on behalf of the defendants that the entitlement to interest under s 17 of the 1838 Act is a statutory entitlement, and that the rule as drafted does not permit the taxing master to deprive a successful party of that interest. What it does do is to permit the taxing master, having taken additional interest payable into account, to allow the party entitled to costs less than the amount that it would otherwise have been allowed.
Strictly, the objection taken is a good one in my judgment. What the master has power to do is to disallow part of the costs or disallow the whole amount of the costs. What he may not do in terms is to disallow part of the interest. Nevertheless the distinction is a highly technical one, because what the master may do is to disallow part of the costs calculated by reference to some or all the interest that was payable. Further, the master in this case was alive to the technicality because, at the conclusion of his judgment, he said:
Page 125 of [1993] 3 All ER 122
‘If that [ie the disallowance of interest] gives rise to difficulty I will disallow a figure. I do not propose to make any alteration to the taxing fee or to the costs of taxation. By adjusting the interest in this way I consider that the Plaintiffs can be no worse off than they would have been had there been no delay.’
I think that, if correctly noted, is a slightly unfortunate way of putting it because in fact the master did not state the precise figure that he was disallowing. The intention is, however, clear enough, and if that were the only objection taken to his finding the appeal would fail.
The appeal is, however, advanced on another basis as well, namely as to the merits. It is said in summary that the decision of the master amounted to an excessive and unjustifiable penalty.
It is true, as I have been reminded, that it is incumbent on parties to litigation in the courts at all stages to comply with the rules. The master himself referred to the decision of Anthony Lincoln J in the decision of Re K (a minor) (1988) 138 NLJ 262 where he said that it is the duty of the court to ensure that civil proceedings must proceed at a sensible pace and the court must ensure that the parties uphold time limits.
It is also true that some latitude is allowed by the court from time to time in cases of difficulty or complexity so as to permit the reasonable conduct of litigation. In this context I was referred to the decision of Walton J in Papathanassiou v Dutch Communication Co Ltd (9 May 1985, unreported) where he made the point (admittedly in connection with rules the terms of which have since been altered) that the stated period of three months from beginning proceedings for the taxation of costs was one which of necessity fell to be treated with a certain amount of elasticity. In making that observation, he observed that he had the authority of his assessors, namely one of the masters of the taxing office, and a solicitor who was sitting as an assessor with him.
In this case it is submitted on behalf of the successful party that, first, ‘all the circumstances [to take the phrase from r 28(4)(b)(ii)] do not justify any or any substantial penalty’. Second, that the master himself did not have in mind the full or all relevant circumstances. First, I take the latter point. At the date of the master’s determination of this issue the proceedings had reached the stage where submissions had been addressed to the master on various points of principle arising on the bill, and the master had given his decision thereon. The application of those points of principle to the figures in the bill had not been done. That was done later by the parties in the usual way, and figures were put before the master again on a subsequent occasion. It is submitted on behalf of the defendants that therefore at the time when the master made his decision he was unaware of the final figures involved in the bill and could not therefore have been aware of the precise implications of the order in the terms in which he made it.
In my judgment that is a sound submission, and it seems to me that before expressing an opinion framed in terms of a period of interest, it is essential for the court to be aware of the principal sum upon which that interest is accruing, otherwise the final result cannot be known and the final sum may be excessive or, on the other hand, insufficient. It seems to me that if it is not possible to determine the sum in some other way decisions framed by reference to periods of interest or amounts of interest would better await the determination of the capital sum.
I now proceed to what is perhaps the most substantial issue in this case, and that is the merits. This was, as I have indicated, a heavy action. Obviously some time was required to prepare and lodge a bill. There was correspondence very
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soon after the judgment. By a letter dated 25 April 1988, ie shortly after the judgment at first instance, the plaintiffs’ solicitors, then the successful party, wrote to the defendants’ solicitors in these terms:
‘Subject to the outstanding issue of the appeal, we are arranging for a bill of costs to be drawn up and lodged for taxation. Due to the volume of papers in this matter we anticipate that we will require more than the time allowed under the rules for lodging the bill, and we will be grateful if we may therefore have your confirmation that time for our client to lodge a bill may be extended to the end of the summer vacation’,
a period of four or five months. This was accepted without comment by the defendants’ solicitors, who replied on 3 May 1988 that they had no objection to lodgement of the bill being extended to the end of the summer vacation.
In an affidavit filed on behalf of the plaintiffs, it is said that their letter of 25 April was written by reference to the outstanding appeal; but the terms of the letter suggest otherwise. That tends to show that the lodging of the bill of costs was not regarded by the plaintiffs, at that stage of the proceedings the successful party, to be a matter of urgency. Subsequently, of course, the tables have turned and on appeal the defendants became the successful party. In their case no formal application for an extension was made, but I have been reminded of Practice Direction [1986] 3 All ER 724, [1986] 1 WLR 1054, which permits the parties to proceed without any formal application and permits the point to be raised on the subsequent hearing for taxation, which was in fact done in this case. In his decision the master observed that the delay in this case bordered on the inordinate but was not inexcusable. The observation that the delay ‘bordered on’ the inordinate constituted, in my judgment, a finding that it was not inordinate. It may have become close to it, but it was not. The phrase ‘inordinate and inexcusable delay’ used by the master is, of course, one which has been borrowed from other jurisdictions of the court and is in common use. The master held that it is necessary to show inordinate or inexcusable delay before disallowing part of a successful party’s costs.
A submission was advanced to me by counsel for the plaintiffs that in so holding the master was wrong. It seems to me, however, that that observation of his went to matters of taxation practice which it would ill behove me sitting in this jurisdiction to disagree with. It seems to me consistent with practice in other divisions of the court, and it does not surprise me in the least that it should be the practice in the taxing office. If it is the practice in the taxing office that there should be inordinate or inexcusable delay before a party is deprived of costs then none was found in this case. Nor was this a case in which any prejudice was shown on the part of the plaintiffs. Indeed none was asserted.
It follows that this is a case where the plaintiffs were not prejudiced and the defendants were not guilty of inordinate or inexcusable delay. What the defendants were guilty of was a breach of the rules; but a breach of the rules which the master found in terms to be excusable. In those circumstances it appears to me to be an inappropriate exercise of the jurisdiction under Ord 62, r 28(4)(b)(ii) to deprive the successful party of any significant measure of his costs. The jurisdiction, as it were, to fine may be appropriate where the delay has been inordinate or inexcusable. Indeed the jurisdiction permits the taxing master to deprive a successful party of the whole of his costs if the circumstances justify it; or, alternatively, a party may be deprived of part or all of his costs if the delay has been shown to be prejudicial to the unsuccessful party in the action. Where
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neither of those conditions is fulfilled it seems to me inappropriate for the court to exercise a punitive power.
Accordingly, in my judgment, this appeal succeeds.
Appeal allowed.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Note
Re T and others (minors) (international child abduction: access)
[1993] 3 All ER 127
Categories: FAMILY; Children
Court: FAMILY DIVISION
Lord(s): BRACEWELL J
Hearing Date(s): 17 FEBRUARY, 17 MARCH 1993
Minor – Custody – Access – Foreign right of access – Enforcement of foreign right of access – Application to make arrangements for organising or securing effective exercise of rights – Application for residence, contact or other order with respect to child – Duty of central authority – Provision of English solicitors to act on behalf of applicant – Consideration to be given to commencing proceedings in High Court – Invitation to Official Solicitor to act on behalf of children – Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, art 21 – Children Act 1989, s 8.
Notes
For exercising rights of access in international child abduction cases, see 5(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 995.
For contact and other orders with respect to children in family proceedings, see ibid paras 770–780.
For the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, art 21, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 315.
For the Children Act 1989, s 8, see ibid 400.
Application
After having given judgment in chambers on an application by the father for an order under art 21a of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction that the mother take all necessary steps to facilitate access to their three children, Bracewell J was requested by the parties to give guidance as to the
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appropriate procedure to be followed in cases where one of the parties applied for a contact or other order under s 8(1)b of the Children Act 1989 in respect of the children. Bracewell J reserved the matter and subsequently gave her decision thereon in chambers in the following judgment, which is reported with permission of the judge.
Henry Setright and Leonora Klein (instructed by Bindman & Partners) for the father.
David Hershman (instructed by Irwin Mitchell, Birmingham) for the mother.
Cur adv vult
BRACEWELL J. I am satisfied that it is not correct procedure for the central authority to issue an originating summons in the circumstances of the present case. Since art 21 of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33), which is set out in Sch 1 to the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, confers no jurisdiction on a court to determine matters relating to access or to recognise and enforce foreign access orders, the role of the central authority is limited to one of executive co-operation.
Accordingly, the duty of the central authority on receiving an application to make arrangements for organising or securing the effective exercise of access rights under art 21 is to make appropriate arrangements to provide English solicitors to act on behalf of the applicant for the purpose of instituting an application under s 8 of the Children Act 1989.
By reason of the international element and the complexity which is usually involved in such proceedings, serious consideration should be given to commencing proceedings in the High Court even if the case does not strictly fall within the direction of the President of the Family Division dated 5 June 1992 (Practice Direction [1992] 2 All ER 151, [1992] 1 WLR 586).
Since April 1992 the Official Solicitor has taken over responsibility on behalf of the Lord Chancellor’s Department for the child abduction unit. In some cases it may be appropriate to invite the Official Solicitor to consent to act on behalf of the children in Children Act proceedings where difficult matters arise.
Application dismissed. Application for certificate under s 12 of the Administration of Jus-tice Act 1960 for leave to appeal directly to the House of Lords refused.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
R v Croydon Justices, ex parte Dean
[1993] 3 All ER 129
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): STAUGHTON LJ AND BUCKLEY J
Hearing Date(s): 17, 18, 19 FEBRUARY 1993
Criminal law – Trial – Stay of proceedings – Abuse of process – Police investigating murder – Applicant assisting in destroying victim’s car – Applicant interviewed by police – Applicant making statements containing evidence against person charged with the murder – Applicant admitting offence of doing acts with intent to impede the apprehension of another – Applicant receiving promise from police that he would not be prosecuted – Applicant agreeing to be prosecution witness – Crown Prosecution Service deciding to prosecute applicant – Whether decision to prosecute reviewable – Whether prosecution capable of being an abuse of process.
The applicant, together with two other men, was arrested on suspicion of murdering a man who had been stabbed and killed in woodland. The applicant did not take part in the actual killing but after it had taken place he went to the scene of the crime with the other two men and assisted in destroying the victim’s car. He was subsequently interviewed by the police and made statements containing potentially important evidence against the principal offender who was subsequently charged with murder. The applicant agreed to be a prosecution witness and was then released. By the time he left the police station he had in effect admitted doing acts with intent to impede the apprehension of the other defendants but he was nevertheless not charged at that stage. In a subsequent interview the police officers interviewing him stated that he was a prosecution witness and had the protection of the police. He later went to the scene of the crime with the police and described how the victim’s car had been destroyed. After a conference with the police the Crown Prosecution Service decided that the applicant should be charged under s 4(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1967 with assisting in the destruction of the victim’s car, knowing it was evidence, with intent to impede the apprehension or the prosecution of the other defendants knowing or believing that they were guilty of murder or some other arrestable offence. However, before he was charged he made further statements to the police identifying articles belonging to the other defendants which he had seen on the floor of the victim’s car. He was then charged and committed for trial. He applied for judicial review to quash his committal to the Crown Court.
Held – The prosecution of a person who had received a promise, undertaking or representation from the police that he would not be prosecuted was capable of being an abuse of process and his committal to the Crown Court to stand trial in breach of such a promise, undertaking or representation could be quashed in judicial review proceedings in exceptional circumstances, for example where on the undisputed facts of the case there had been an abuse of process. However, ordinarily an application to quash a committal ought to be made to the Crown Court before the start of a trial. Since the defendant had clearly been given the impression, for a period of over five weeks, that he was not going to be prosecuted for the offence with which he was charged, it was clearly an abuse of process for him to be prosecuted subsequently (see p 135d and 137bc, g to j, post).
Page 130 of [1993] 3 All ER 129
NotesFor the scope of certiorari, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 111.
For the Criminal Law Act 1967, s 4, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 330.
Cases referred to in judgmentsA-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169, [1992] 1 QB 630, [1992] 3 WLR 9, CA.
Chu Piu-wing v A-G [1984] HKLR 411, HK CA.
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, [1964] 2 WLR 1145, HL.
Hunter v Chief Constable of West Midlands [1981] 3 All ER 727, [1982] AC 529, [1981] 3 WLR 906, HL.
Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464, NZ CA.
R v Barnet Magistrates, ex p Wood [1993] Crim LR 78, DC.
R v Betesh (1976) 30 CCC (2d) 233, General Sessions of the Peace, Judicial District of York, Ont.
R v Crneck, Bradley and Shelley (1980) 55 CCC (2d) 1, Ont HC.
R v Derby Crown Court, ex p Brooks (1985) 80 Cr App R 164, DC.
R v Georgiadis [1984] VR 1030, Vict SC.
R v Milnes and Green (1983) 33 SASR 211, S Aust SC.
R v Redbridge Justices, ex p Whitehouse (1992) 94 Cr App R 332, DC.
R v Rotherham Justices, ex p Brough (1991) Crim LR 522, DC.
R v Telford Justices ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, [1991] 2 WLR 866, DC.
Cases also citedDPP v Brown (23 June 1975, unreported), HL.
DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, HL.
Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] 1 AC 34, PC.
McDonald v R (1983) 77 Cr App R 196, PC.
Metropolitan Bank Ltd v Pooley (1885) 10 App Cas 210, [1881–5] All ER Rep 949, HL.
R v Abitibi Paper Co Ltd & The Queen (1979) 47 CCC (2d) 487, Ont CA.
R v Ashton-under-Lyne Magistrates’ Court, ex p Potts (1984) Times, 29 March.
R v Bolton Magistrates’ Court, ex p Scally [1991] 2 All ER 619, [1991] 1 QB 537, DC.
R v Crown Court at Norwich, ex p Belsham [1992] 1 All ER 394.
R v Heston-Francois [1984] 1 All ER 795, [1984] 1 QB 278, CA.
R v Maguire [1992] 2 All ER 433, CA.
R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402, HL.
R v Turner (1975) 61 Cr App R 67, CA.
R v Canterbury and St Augustine Justices, ex p Turner (1983) 147 JP 193, DC.
Application for judicial reviewGeorge Dean applied, with the leave of Brooke J given on 26 October 1992, for judicial review by way of an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the Croydon justices on 9 July 1992 to refuse an application that they should not proceed as examining justices to inquire into an allegation that the applicant committed the offence of doing acts with intent to impede the apprehension or prosecution of another contrary to s 4(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1967 and the
Page 131 of [1993] 3 All ER 129
applicant’s subsequent committal for trial to the Crown Court on 14 July 1992 for the said offence. The facts are set out in the judgment of Staughton LJ.
James Wadsworth QC and Robert Good (instructed by Bernstein Garcia) for the applicant.
Andrew Collins QC and Charles Miskin (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Croydon) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
19 February 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
STAUGHTON LJ. Late in the evening of Friday, 13 March 1992 a man called Ronald Eades was stabbed and killed in woodland near Croydon. The principal offenders were, as it subsequently turned out, Kevin Gallagher and Justin Benham. Gallagher was convicted of murder and sentenced to life imprisonment; Benham pleaded guilty to manslaughter and is awaiting sentence.
The present applicant, George Dean, has been committed for trial at the Central Criminal Court on a charge of doing acts with intent to impede the apprehension of another, contrary to s 4(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1967. The particulars are that he assisted in the destruction of a Ford Granada Scorpio car, knowing it was evidence, with intent to impede the apprehension or the prosecution of Gallagher and Benham, and knowing or believing that they were guilty of murder or some other arrestable offence. The prosecution case is that the car was being driven on the night of the killing by Eades, who was a chauffeur; Gallagher and Benham subsequently drove it away, and left Gallagher’s Fiat Panda near the scene of the crime. Later Dean assisted them to remove the Panda, and to destroy the Scorpio by setting it on fire.
At the committal proceedings before the Croydon justices in July 1992, counsel for Dean submitted that there was an abuse of process of the court because Dean had received an undertaking from the police that he would not be prosecuted in connection with the killing; alternatively counsel applied for an adjournment so that he could make an application to the Divisional Court for a stay of the proceedings. Both applications were refused by the justices.
Dean then sought leave to apply for judicial review of the decision of the Croydon justices to inquire into the alleged offence under s 4(1) of the 1967 Act, and also for an order quashing his committal to the Crown Court for that offence. He had in addition been committed, with Gallagher and Benham, on a charge of robbing William Holland on a separate occasion, that is to say on 1 March 1992. No remedy is sought in respect of that committal. Dean and Benham have both pleaded guilty to that offence and await sentence.
Leave to apply for judicial review was granted by Brooke J on 26 October. A subsequent application by the Director of Public Prosecutions to set aside that leave was dismissed.
Undisputed evidence
The following is an outline of the course of the police investigation, so far as it concerned Dean (who was aged 17 at the time). For the present I omit from this account anything that is disputed.
On Tuesday, 17 March 1992, four days after the killing, Gallagher, Benham and Dean were each arrested on suspicion of murdering Ronald Eades. Dean’s parents and a representative of his solicitors attended at the police station. On Wednesday, 18 March, from 1.10 am to 1.49 am and from 1.56 am to 2.25 am,
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there was a tape recorded interview of Dean under caution in the presence of his solicitor’s representative. In the first part of the interview Dean said very little of significance, but in the second part he was somewhat more forthcoming, and admitted taking part in the destruction of the Scorpio car.
Later in the day Dean was again interviewed under caution, from 1.19 pm to 2.03 pm, from 2.21 pm to 3.06 pm, from 3.15 pm to 3.45 pm, and from 4.29 pm to 4.51 pm, in the presence of a representative of his solicitors. Some of what he said was untrue. That was put to him on more than one occasion, and he acknowledged that he had not told the truth. He still did not tell the whole truth; what he did say was potentially important evidence against Gallagher, but was of less significance as to the part played by Benham.
Dean was then released from arrest and made a witness statement, which again contained important evidence against Gallagher. It concluded: ‘I am willing to assist police in whatever way I can with regard to this matter.’
In the custody record at the police station there are these concluding remarks:
‘As a result of enquiries into a murder in Shirley Hills (ZN section) this prisoner was arrested as a possible accomplice. He has been interviewed by ZN officers regarding this and has subsequently been eliminated as a suspect and has provided a statement to act as a prosecution witness … No further action was taken regarding the murder enquiry and he was bailed until 15/4/92 at 3 pm. Form 60 served.’
By the time that he left the police station Dean had in effect admitted the offence with which he is now charged. He was nevertheless not charged but released. Gallagher and Benham were charged with murder that evening.
Five days later, on Monday, 23 March Dean again went to the police station with his solicitor’s representative, and there were three further periods of interview. He was told at the start that he was not under arrest and was free to leave at any stage. There are a number of important features in the interview that day. First, the officers told him on a number of occasions that they did not think that he was telling the truth, but was telling lies, or at any rate not the whole truth. Secondly, he certainly told a lie in one important respect. He was asked this:
‘Q. You were aware that there was this thing of rolling homosexuals up at Shirley Hills, did you play a part in that? A. Yeah, I’ve gone up there before …
Q. Did you think it was a game, profit making? A. No, it wasn’t. It was more like boredom just sitting around and he used to drive up there once in a while, we’d never actually done anything when I was there, we’d just drive up there, get out walk around and get in the car and end up driving off.’
He now admits, by his plea of guilty to robbery of Holland on 1 March 1992, that he had taken some part in the sort of conduct which he there denied.
Thirdly, there were a number of passages in which the police officers spoke of his role as a witness:
‘Q. … what we are after from you is detail, we want to know what parts you did, we can’t make any promises to you, understand that, what we can say is that if your part in this offence is such that it doesn’t make you an accessory to it and you understand what I mean, you’re nodding your head, you know what an accessory is? A. Not to the full, no.
Q. I mean what we’re saying is that if you played a part in the murder of the men or the disposal of his body, or the movement of cars, or other things, we need to know about that now, it’s no good us finding out later, it dispels your credibility we’re trying to treat you as a credible witness, we need to do
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that now rather than later, hear what I’m saying and understand it, we’re not saying you’re telling lies, we’re saying you’re not telling the whole truth …
Q. … we’re not saying you’re a liar, we’re saying you’re not telling the truth. We want you to realise how important it is for your own benefit, because we hope that you are going to assist the prosecution. Do you understand that? A. Yeah.
Q. I don’t know whether you understand the complexities of the law, a little bit? A. Yeah.
Q. You should have nothing to fear, we are here representing the victim and the victim’s family …
Q. … we want you to help us, you’re going to be a prosecution witness at this stage; we believe. If you have done anything which you think is out of order, let us decide …’
At the end of the interview Det Con Appleby explains to Dean that he is a prosecution witness and has protection of the police.
On the following day, Tuesday, 24 March, Dean prepared a statement with his solicitor, which formed the basis of a further witness statement which he made to the police that day. In it he admitted for the first time that on the night of the murder Gallagher and Benham had driven him to the scene of the crime and shown him the body. He then drove Gallagher’s Panda away from where it was nearby.
On Wednesday, 1 April, at the invitation of the police, Dean went to the scene of the crime with his solicitor’s representative and a video film was made. He says:
‘… I was introduced to Detective Superintendent Bassett whom I understood was the senior officer in overall charge of the murder inquiry. I am introduced on the video in his presence by D.C. Peacock as a prosecution witness. It was not under caution or arrest. I answered all the questions that were put to me and showed them everything I could, including what I had been told and shown, and where I had driven Kevin Gallagher’s own car from in the nearby car park. I was personally thanked by D.S. Bassett for my help and he spoke to me about my being a witness.’
That is not denied in the affidavit of Det Supt Bassett.
On Tuesday, 9 April two police officers arrived at Dean’s house and asked him to go with them and show them the route to where the Scorpio was set on fire, which he did. On the same day he made a third witness statement, about the route and the destruction of the car.
On Tuesday, 14 April Mrs Hyde of the Crown Prosecution Service had a conference with the police, and decided that Dean should be charged with robbery of Holland, with Benham and Gallagher, on 1 March, and should also be charged with the offence with which we are now concerned. Dean knew none of that at the time.
On Tuesday, 21 April Dean made two further witness statements to the police, in which he identified a knife belonging to Gallagher, and a watch (belonging to Eades) which he had seen on the floor of the Scorpio. He was not cautioned, or offered legal advice, or told that he was to be charged. The explanation offered is that Det Supt Bassett was awaiting instructions in writing from Mrs Hyde to charge Dean, and had forgotten that when he sent the two officers who took the additional statements.
On Monday, 27 April Dean was charged with the offence under s 4(1) of the 1967 Act. That was over five weeks after he first in effect admitted the offence;
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throughout that period he had been treated as a prosecution witness; and he had been helping the police with their inquiries to a substantial extent, although he did not at times tell them the truth or the whole truth.
Disputed evidence
There are affidavits from Dean, his father, his solicitor and the solicitor’s representative. These describe occasions when rather more specific assurances are said to have been given by the police, that Dean would not be prosecuted in connection with the murder. They occurred either when the tape recorder was switched off, or when there was no occasion for tape recording. They are denied in affidavits from the police officers.
There is, however, this important passage in the affidavit of Mrs Hyde, in connection with her decision, taken after a conference with Det Supt Bassett and Det Insp Newton, that Dean should be charged:
‘In issuing instructions to charge and giving the Director’s consent to that charge, I was aware of the actions the Police had taken, and I was informed of the contents of the video recording referred to in paragraph 24 of the applicant’s affidavit dated the 7th October 1992. I had read the statements of evidence and records of interviews and I knew that the police wished to use the applicant as a prosecution witness and had stated to him that he would not be prosecuted for offences associated with the murder of Ronald Eades. I saw the video recording a few days later when the police brought a copy to my office.’
Are judicial review proceedings appropriate?
In the ordinary way an application to quash a committal, particularly if an indictment has been signed (as it has in this case), should be made to the Crown Court before the start of the trial. That is even more appropriate if there is disputed evidence to consider. It is true that in R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78 this court held that it was appropriate to make an order prohibiting the justices from continuing committal proceedings. That was a case of very substantial delay, and the prosecution was held to be an abuse of the process of the court. In answer to a suggestion that a more appropriate remedy was for the Crown Court to hear a plea in bar, Mann LJ said in delivering the judgment of the court ([1991] 2 All ER 854 at 862, [1991] 2 QB 78 at 90):
‘We disagree. We think that a plea of abuse should be open to the accused subject at the earliest opportunity.’
However, there is also the decision of the Court of Appeal in A-G’s Reference (No 1 of 1990) [1992] 3 All ER 169, [1992] 1 QB 630, another case of delay. The opinion of the court was delivered by Lord Lane CJ, who said ([1992] 3 All ER 169 at 175, [1992] 1 QB 630 at 642):
‘We would like to add to that statement of principle by stressing a point which is sometimes overlooked, namely that the trial process itself is equipped to deal with the bulk of complaints which have in recent Divisional Court cases founded applications for a stay.’
No doubt many of the complaints which Lord Lane CJ there referred to related to the admission or rejection of evidence and similar matters. But I do not regard his ruling as limited in that way. The case itself was, as I have said, concerned with delay.
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Lord Lane CJ said later ([1992] 3 All ER 169 at 176, [1992] 1 QB 630 at 643):
‘Stays imposed on the grounds of delay or for any other reason should only be employed in exceptional circumstances.’
I accept and follow those principles without question, as we are bound to do. Indeed I consider that the application in the present case should almost certainly have been made to the Crown Court at trial, rather than by way of judicial review. In addition to the cases already cited, there is support for that view in R v Barnet Magistrates, ex p Wood [1993] Crim LR 78, where it was said that only in exceptional cases should committal proceedings be quashed once an indictment has been signed and the defendant arraigned. (Dean has not yet been arraigned on the s 4(1) of the 1967 Act charge in the present case.) I do not overlook the fact that the application to set aside leave to apply for judicial review in these proceedings was dismissed. But that did not occur until 13 November 1992, by which time the judicial review process was well under way.
If it is necessary for the disputed issues of fact in this case to be resolved by oral evidence, I consider that we should decline to deal with it by way of judicial review, and should leave it to the Crown Court to decide whether there is abuse of process. It is only if we can decide the point on the undisputed facts, together with any other facts that we feel bound to accept as true, that we should undertake the task. But if that is indeed the situation, I consider that quite exceptionally we ought to reach a decision. Otherwise there will be an unnecessary inquiry, probably lasting several days, in the Crown Court and yet further delay. That may well be combined with or followed by a similar enquiry as to how much of Dean’s statements should be treated as inadmissible by reason of the provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984.
Abuse of process
It is submitted on behalf of the Crown Prosecution Service that they alone are entitled, and bound, to decide who shall be prosecuted, at any rate in this category of case; and that the police had no authority and no right to tell Dean that he would not be prosecuted for any offence in connection with the murder: see the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s 3(2). I can readily accept that. I also accept that the point is one of constitutional importance. But I cannot accept the submission of Mr Collins that, in consequence, no such conduct by the police can ever give rise to an abuse of process. The effect on George Dean, or for that matter on his father, of an undertaking or promise or representation by the police was likely to have been the same in this case whether it was or was not authorised by the Crown Prosecution Service. It is true that they might have asked their solicitor whether an undertaking, promise or representation by the police was binding; and he might have asked the Crown Prosecution Service whether it was made with their authority. But it seems unreasonable to expect that in this case. If the Crown Prosecution Service find that their powers are being usurped by the police, the remedy must surely be a greater degree of liaison at an early stage.
We were referred to three cases which suggest that abuse of process in this context can only exist where there is (i) delay or (ii) manipulation or misuse of the rules of procedure: see R v Crown Court at Derby, ex p Brooks (1985) 80 Cr App R 164 at 168, R v Rotherham Justices, ex p Brough [1991] Crim LR 522 and R v Redbridge Justices, ex p Whitehouse (1992) 94 Cr App R 332 at 336. But there is high authority that the concept is wider than that. In Hunter v Chief Constable of West Midlands [1981] 3 All ER 727 at 729, [1982] AC 529 at 536 Lord Diplock spoke of—
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‘the inherent power which any court of justice must possess to prevent misuse of its procedure in a way which, although not inconsistent with the literal application of its procedural rules, would nevertheless be manifestly unfair to a party to litigation before it, or would otherwise bring the administration of justice into disrepute among right-thinking people. The circumstances in which abuse of process can arise are very varied.’
In Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401 at 442, [1964] AC 1254 at 1354, Lord Devlin said:
‘Are the courts to rely on the executive to protect their process from abuse? Have they not themselves an inescapable duty to secure fair treatment for those who come or are brought before them? To questions of this sort there is only one possible answer.’
Against that there is the decision of the New Zealand Court of Appeal in Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464. There it was held that a magistrate had no jurisdiction to examine the exercise of the decision to prosecute, for an immigration offence. Richardson J said (at 482):
‘The justification for staying a prosecution is that the Court is obliged to take that extreme step in order to protect its own processes from abuse. It does so in order to prevent the criminal processes from being used for purposes alien to the administration of criminal justice under law. It may intervene in this way if it concludes from the conduct of the prosecutor in relation to the prosecution that the Court processes are being employed for ulterior purposes or in such a way (for example, through multiple or successive proceedings) as to cause improper vexation and oppression. The yardstick is not simply fairness to the particular accused. It is not whether the initiation and continuation of the particular process seems in the circumstances to be unfair to him. That may be an important consideration. But the focus is on the misuse of the Court process by those responsible for law enforcement. It is whether the continuation of the prosecution is inconsistent with the recognised purposes of the administration of criminal justice and so constitutes an abuse of the process of the Court.’
Other Commonwealth cases have considered whether there should be a stay when the defendant has been promised immunity or something of that sort. In R v Milnes and Green (1983) 33 SASR 211 the Supreme Court of South Australia held that a stay would not be granted, because an implied condition of the promise of a pardon, that the defendant would give truthful information, had been broken. But Cox J, whose judgment was approved on appeal, accepted (at 225–226) that there should be a stay when the grounds for one were clearly made out.
In the Supreme Court of Victoria Ormiston J was apparently disposed to grant a stay in R v Georgiadis [1984] VR 1030. In R v Betesh (1976) 30 CCC (3d) 233 a stay was granted by a county court judge in Ontario. In R v Crneck, Bradley and Shelley (1980) 55 CCC (2d) 1 Krever J granted a stay to one defendant, but refused a stay to another.
Most significant, to my mind, is Chu Piu-wing v A-G [1984] HKLR 411. There the Hong Kong Court of Appeal set aside a subpoena to a witness, as an abuse of process, and the consequent conviction of the witness for contempt of court. The ground was that the witness had been assured by the Independent Commission Against Corruption that he would not be required to give evidence, although the
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subpoena was in the event obtained by the police. Both were held to be ‘arms of the Executive in its investigation function’. McMullen V-P said (at 417–418):
‘… there is a clear public interest to be observed in holding officials of the State to promises made by them in full understanding of what is entailed by the bargain.’
In my judgment the prosecution of a person who had received a promise, undertaking or representation from the police that he will not be prosecuted is capable of being an abuse of process. Mr Collins was eventually disposed to concede as much, provided (i) that the promisor had power to decide, and (ii) that the case was one of bad faith or something akin to that. I do not accept either of those requirements as essential.
Conclusion
The undisputed evidence shows that George Dean was given to understand, over a considerable period, that he was to be a prosecution witness, from which it almost certainly followed that he was not himself to be prosecuted for any offence in connection with the murder. But the undisputed evidence does not show that he received any express promise, undertaking or offer of immunity.
It is at this point that I must return to the affidavit of Mrs Hyde of the Crown Prosecution Service. After her conference with police officers, she knew—
‘that the police wished to use the applicant as a prosecution witness and had stated to him that he would not be prosecuted for offences associated with the murder of Ronald Eades.’
In my judgment, we are entitled to treat that evidence as true and should do so. We should disregard the evidence of the police officers to the contrary.
It is then necessary to see how far the disputed evidence on behalf of the applicant supports Mrs Hyde’s statement. Perhaps the high point is in the affidavit of Dean’s father. He says that, in the early evening of 18 March, Pc O’Brien told him—
‘that George would be released later on after he had made a voluntary statement concerning the matter, and that he was not going to be charged with anything because he was going to be their main prosecution witness.’
Dean himself says in this statement that on that day he was told, ‘We’re definitely going to have you on our side.’
It is those passages which I think we are entitled to treat as truthful in the light of Mrs Hyde’s affidavit. In my judgment, particularly having regard to the fact that Dean was only 17 at the time (although not, as he has since admitted, a stranger to crime), it was clearly an abuse of process for him to be prosecuted subsequently. The impression created was not dispelled for over five weeks, during which period he gave repeated assistance to the police. This case can, I think, be regarded as quite exceptional. The justices were bound to treat it as one of abuse of process.
I would quash the committal of George Dean for the s 4(1) of the 1967 Act offence.
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BUCKLEY J. I agree.
Application allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Bennett v Horseferry Road Magistrates’ Court and another
[1993] 3 All ER 138
Categories: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD OLIVER OF AYLMERTON, LORD LOWRY AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 3, 4, 8, 9 MARCH, 24 JUNE 1993
Extradition – Disguised extradition – Deportation to United Kingdom – Applicant arrested in South Africa and put on aircraft bound for England – Applicant arrested on arrival in England and charged – Applicant alleging that he was brought within jurisdiction by improper collusion between South African authorities and English police – Whether alleged collusion between South African authorities and English police amounting to abuse of process of court – Whether court having power to inquire into circumstances in which applicant brought within jurisdiction.
Criminal law – Committal – Preliminary hearing before justices – Abuse of process – Power of justices – Justices having power to refuse to commit for trial on grounds of abuse of process in matters directly affecting fairness of trial – Extent of power – Whether appropriate for justices to decide questions involving deliberate abuse of extradition procedures – Whether proper court to decide such matters is Divisional Court.
The appellant, a New Zealand citizen, was alleged to have purchased a helicopter in England in 1989 by a series of false pretences and then to have taken it to South Africa. In November 1990 he was arrested in South Africa. The English police, who wished to arrest him, were informed but in the absence of an extradition treaty between the United Kingdom and South Africa no proceedings for the appellant’s extradition were ever initiated. Instead, the appellant was put on an aircraft bound for London by the South African police and when he arrived in England on 28 January 1991 he was arrested. He was subsequently brought before magistrates who committed him to the Crown Court for trial. The appellant sought judicial review of the magistrates’ decision to commit him for trial, claiming that he had been forcibly returned to England against his will and brought within the jurisdiction as a result of disguised extradition or kidnapping. He alleged that the South African police had indicated that he would be repatriated to New Zealand but had then arranged with the English police that he would travel via England to enable him to be arrested and tried in England. He contended that the subterfuge and complicity between the English police and the South African police to obtain his presence within the jurisdiction to enable him to be arrested amounted to an abuse of the process of the court and that it would be wrong and improper for him to be tried in England. The Divisional Court held that, even if there was evidence of collusion between the English police and the
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South African police in kidnapping the appellant and securing his enforced illegal removal from South Africa, the court had no jurisdiction to inquire into the circumstances by which he came to be within the jurisdiction and accordingly dismissed his application for judicial review. The appellant appealed to the House of Lords.
Held (Lord Oliver dissenting) – The maintenance of the rule of law prevailed over the public interest in the prosecution and punishment of crime where the prosecuting authority had secured the prisoner’s presence within the territorial jurisdiction of the court by forcibly abducting him or having him abducted from within the jurisdiction of some other state in violation of international law, the laws of the state from which he had been abducted and his rights under the laws of that state and in disregard of available procedures to secure his lawful extradition to the jurisdiction of the court from the state where he was residing. It was an abuse of process for a person to be forcibly brought within the jurisdiction in disregard of extradition procedures available for the return of an accused person to the United Kingdom and the High Court had power, in the exercise of its supervisory jurisdiction, to inquire into the circumstances by which a person was brought within the jurisdiction and if satisfied that it was in disregard of extradition procedures by a process to which the police, prosecuting or other executive authorities in the United Kingdom were a knowing party the court could stay the prosecution and order the release of the accused. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the case remitted to the Divisional Court for further consideration (see p 150e to h, p 151cd, p 152hj, p 155e to p 156a, p 160h, p 162e, p 162j to p 163a, p 163g, p 164h and p 169ghj, post).
R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199, dictum of Woodhouse J in Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464 at 475–476, R v Bow Street Magistrates, ex p Mackeson (1982) 75 Cr App R 24, S v Ebrahim 1991 (2) SA 553 and dictum of Stevens J in US v Alvarez-Machain (1992) 119 L Ed 2d 441 at 466–467 applied.
R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681 overruled.
Per curiam. Justices, whether sitting as examining magistrates or exercising their summary jurisdiction, have power to exercise control over their proceedings through an abuse of process jurisdiction in relation to matters directly affecting the fairness of the trial of the particular accused with whom they are dealing, such as delay or unfair manipulation of court procedures. In the case of the deliberate abuse of extradition procedures the proper forum is the Divisional Court and if a serious question as to such a matter arises justices should allow an adjournment so that an application can be made to the Divisional Court (see p 152e to h, p 156a, p 160g, p 166e and p 169ghj, post).
Decision of the Divisional Court [1993] 2 All ER 474 reversed.
NotesFor seizure of persons in violation of international law, see 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1534.
For committal proceedings generally, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 824–827, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 139–142, 12772–12802.1.
Cases referred to in opinionsAtkinson v US Government [1969] 3 All ER 1317, [1971] AC 197, [1969] 3 WLR 1074, HL.
Brown v Lizars (1905) 2 CLR 837, Aust HC.
Page 140 of [1993] 3 All ER 138
Chu Piu-wing v A-G [1984] HKLR 411, HK CA.
Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254, [1964] 2 WLR 1145, HL.
DPP v Crown Court at Manchester and Ashton [1993] 2 All ER 663, [1993] 2 WLR 846, HL.
DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, [1976] 2 WLR 857, HL.
Frisbie v Collins (1952) 342 US 519, US SC.
Grassby v R (1989) 168 CLR 1, Aust HC.
Ker v Illinois (1886) 119 US 436, US SC.
Lam Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 172, [1991] 2 AC 212, [1991] 2 WLR 1082, PC.
McC v Mullan [1984] 3 All ER 908, [1985] AC 528, [1984] 3 WLR 1227, HL.
Mills v Cooper [1967] 2 All ER 100, [1967] 2 QB 459, [1967] 2 WLR 1343, DC.
Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464, NZ CA.
R v Bow Street Magistrates, ex p Mackeson (1981) 75 Cr App R 24, DC.
R v Brentford Justices, ex p Wong [1981] 1 All ER 884, [1981] QB 445, [1981] 2 WLR 203, DC.
R v Canterbury and St Augustine’s Justices, ex p Klisiak [1981] 2 All ER 129, [1982] QB 398, [1981] 3 WLR 60, DC.
R v Crown Court at Derby, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164, DC.
R v Croydon Justices, ex p Dean [1993] 3 All ER 129, DC.
R v Forbes, ex p Bevan (1972) 127 CLR 1, Aust HC.
R v Grays Justices, ex p Graham [1982] 3 All ER 653, [1982] QB 1239, [1982] 3 WLR 596, DC.
R v Grays Justices, ex p Low [1988] 3 All ER 834, [1990] 1 QB 54, [1989] 2 WLR 948, DC.
R v Guildford Magistrates’ Court, ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108, DC.
R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199, NZ CA.
R v Horsham Justices, ex p Reeves (1980) 75 Cr App R 236, DC.
R v Lee Kun [1916] 1 KB 337, [1914-15] All ER Rep 603, CCA.
R (Martin) v Mahony [1910] 2 IR 695.
R v Nat Bell Liquors Ltd [1922] 2 AC 128, [1922] All ER Rep 335, PC
R v Northumberland Compensation Appeal Tribunal, ex p Shaw [1952] 1 All ER 122, [1952] 1 KB 338, CA.
R v O/C Depot Battalion RASC Colchester, ex p Elliott [1949] 1 All ER 373, DC.
R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Smith (1982) 75 Cr App R 200, DC.
R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95, [1985] 3 WLR 689, DC.
R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402, [1979] 3 WLR 263, HL.
R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, [1991] 2 WLR 866, DC.
R v Walton (1905) 10 CCC 269.
R v Watford Justices, ex p Outrim [1983] RTR 26, DC.
R v West London Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Anderson (1984) 80 Cr App R 143, DC.
R v Whiteside (1904) 8 CCC 478.
Rourke v R [1978] 1 SCR 1021, Can SC.
S v Ebrahim 1991 (2) SA 553, SA App Div.
Scott, Ex p (1829) 9 B & C 446, 109 ER 166.
Sinclair v DPP [1991] 2 All ER 366, [1991] 2 AC 64, [1991] 2 WLR 1028, HL.
Sinclair v HM Advocate (1890) 17 R (J) 38, HC of Just.
US v Alvarez-Machain (1992) 112 S Ct 2188, US SC.
US v Sobell (1956) 142 F Supp 515, US DC SD NY ; affd (1957) 244 F 2d 520, US Ct of Apps (2nd Cir); cert denied 355 US 873, US SC.
US v Toscanino (1974) 500 F 2d 267, US Ct of Apps (2nd Cir).
Page 141 of [1993] 3 All ER 138
Appeal Paul James Bennett appealed, with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 3 December 1992, from the decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division ([1993] 2 All ER 474) given on 31 July 1992 refusing the appellant’s application for judicial review by way of (1) an order of certiorari to quash the criminal proceedings preferred against him by the Crown Prosecution Service in the Horseferry Road Magistrates’ Court on 22 May 1991 and (2) an order of certiorari to quash the order of the Horseferry Road Magistrates’ Court made on 22 May 1991 committing the appellant for trial in the Crown Court at Southwark on those criminal charges. The Divisional Court had refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but it certified, under s 1(2) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, that a point of law of general public importance (set out at p 143bc, post) was involved in the decision. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Griffiths.
Alan Newman QC and Brian Jubb (instructed by Hallinan Blackburn Gittings & Nott) for the appellant.
Colin Nicholls QC and Robert Fischel (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the respondents.
24 June 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, the appellant is a New Zealand citizen who is wanted for criminal offences which it is alleged he committed in connection with the purchase of a helicopter in this country in 1989. The essence of the case against him is that he raised the finance to purchase the helicopter by a series of false pretences and has defaulted on the repayments.
The English police eventually traced the appellant and the helicopter to South Africa. The police, after consulting with the Crown Prosecution Service, decided not to request the return of the appellant through the extradition process. The affidavit of Det Sgt Martin Davies of the Metropolitan Police, New Scotland Yard, deposes as follows:
‘I originally considered seeking the extradition of the [appellant] from South Africa. I conferred with the Crown Prosecution Service, and it was decided that this course of action should not be pursued. There are no formal extradition provisions in force between the United Kingdom and the Republic of South Africa and any extradition would have to be by way of special extradition arrangements under section 15 of the Extradition Act 1989. No proceedings for the [appellant’s] extradition were ever initiated.’
It is the appellant’s case that, having taken the decision not to employ the extradition process, the English police colluded with the South African police to have the appellant arrested in South Africa and forcibly returned to this country against his will. The appellant deposes that he was arrested by two South African detectives on 28 January 1991 at Lanseria, South Africa, who fixed a civil restraint order on the helicopter on behalf of the UK finance company and told the appellant that he was wanted by Scotland Yard and he was being taken to England. Thereafter he was held in police custody until he was placed on an aeroplane in Johannesburg ostensibly to be deported to New Zealand via Taipei. At Taipei when he attempted to disembark he was restrained by two men who
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identified themselves as South African police and said that they had orders to return him to South Africa and then to the United Kingdom and hand him over to Scotland Yard. He was returned to South Africa and held in custody until he was placed, handcuffed to the seat, on a flight from Johannesburg on 21 February arriving at Heathrow on the morning of 22 February, when he was immediately arrested by three police officers including Det Sgt Davies. He further deposes that he was placed on this flight in defiance of an order of the Supreme Court of South Africa obtained by a lawyer on his behalf on the afternoon of 21 February.
The English police through Det Sgt Davies deny that they were in any way involved with the South African police in returning the appellant to this country. They say that they had been informed that there were a number of warrants for the appellant’s arrest in existence in Australia and New Zealand and that they requested the South African police to deport the appellant to either Australia or New Zealand and it was only on 20 February that the English police were informed by the South African police that the appellant was to be repatriated to New Zealand by being placed on a flight to Heathrow from whence he would then fly on to New Zealand. Det Sgt Davies does, however, depose in a second affidavit as follows:
‘1. Further to my affidavit sworn in the above mentioned proceedings on 29 November 1991, my earliest communications with the South African authorities following the [appellant’s] arrest were with the South African police with a view to his repatriation to New Zealand or deportation to Australia and his subsequent extradition from one of those countries to England. I discussed with the South African police the question as to whether the [appellant] would be returned via the United Kingdom and I was informed by them that he might be returned via London. I sought advice from the Crown Prosecution Service and from the Special Branch of the Metropolitan Police as to what the position would be if he were so returned. I informed the South African police by telephone that if the [appellant] were returned via London he would be arrested on arrival. Subsequently I was informed by the South African police that the [appellant] could not be repatriated to New Zealand via Heathrow …
4. I now recollect that it was on 20 February and not on 21 February as I stated in my previous affidavit, that the South African police informed me on the telephone that the [appellant] was to be returned to New Zealand via Heathrow. On the same day I consulted the Crown Prosecution Service and it was decided that the English police would arrest the [appellant] on his arrival at Heathrow.’
It is not for your Lordships to pass judgment on where truth lies at this stage of the proceedings, but for the purpose of testing the submission of the respondents that a court has no jurisdiction to inquire into such matters it must be assumed that the English police took a deliberate decision not to pursue extradition procedures but to persuade the South African police to arrest and forcibly return the appellant to this country, under the pretext of deporting him to New Zealand via Heathrow so that he could be arrested at Heathrow and tried for the offences of dishonesty he is alleged to have committed in 1989. I shall also assume that the Crown Prosecution Service were consulted and approved of the behaviour of the police.
On 22 May 1991 the appellant was brought before a stipendiary magistrate for the purpose of committal proceedings. Counsel for the appellant requested an adjournment to permit him to challenge the jurisdiction of the magistrates’
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court. The application was refused and the appellant was committed for trial to the Crown Court at Southwark on five offences of dishonesty. The appellant obtained leave to bring proceedings for judicial review to challenge the decision of the magistrate. On 22 July 1992 the Divisional Court ruled that as a preliminary issue the court would consider whether there was jurisdiction vested in the Divisional Court to inquire into the circumstances by which the appellant had come to be within the jurisdiction of the courts of England and Wales.
On 31 July 1992 the Divisional Court ([1993] 2 All ER 474) held that even if the evidence showed collusion between the Metropolitan Police and the South African police in kidnapping the appellant and securing his enforced illegal removal from the Republic of South Africa there was no jurisdiction vested in the court to inquire into the circumstances by which the appellant came to be within the jurisdiction and accordingly dismissed the application for judicial review. The Divisional Court has certified the following question of law:
‘Whether in the exercise of its supervisory jurisdiction the court has power to inquire into the circumstances by which a person has been brought within the jurisdiction and if so what remedy is available if any to prevent his trial where that person has been lawfully arrested within the jurisdiction for a crime committed within the jurisdiction.’
The Divisional Court in this case was faced with conflicting decisions of the Divisional Court in earlier cases. In R v Bow Street Magistrates, ex p Mackeson (1981) 75 Cr App R 24 the facts were as follows. The applicant was a British citizen who had left this country at the end of 1977 and in 1979 was working as a schoolteacher in Zimbabwe-Rhodesia. In May 1979 he was wanted by the Metropolitan Police for offences of fraud that he was alleged to have committed before he left this country. The Metropolitan Police were aware that no extradition was lawfully possible at that time because the Zimbabwe-Rhodesia government was in rebellion against the Crown. The Metropolitan Police therefore told the authorities in Zimbabwe-Rhodesia that the applicant was wanted in England in connection with fraud charges, with the result that he was arrested and a deportation order made against him. The applicant brought proceedings in Zimbabwe-Rhodesia for the deportation order to be set aside which succeeded at first instance but the decision was set aside on appeal. No attempt was made to use the extradition process to secure the return of the applicant when Zimbabwe-Rhodesia returned to direct rule under the Crown in December 1979. On 17 April 1980 the applicant was placed on a plane by the police in Zimbabwe-Rhodesia and arrested on his arrival at Gatwick by the Metropolitan Police on 17 April 1980. No evidence was offered in respect of the fraud charges but further charges were alleged against him under the Theft Acts. The applicant applied for an order of prohibition to prevent the hearing of committal proceedings against him in the magistrates court on those charges.
On these facts Lord Lane CJ, giving the judgment of the Divisional Court, held, on the authority of R v O/C Depot Battalion RASC Colchester, ex p Elliott [1949] 1 All ER 373, that the court had jurisdiction to try the applicant. He said (75 Cr App R 24 at 32):
‘Whatever the reason for the applicant being at Gatwick Airport on the tarmac, whether his arrival there had been obtained by fraud or illegal means, he was there. He was subject to arrest by the police force of this country. Consequently the mere fact that his arrival there may have been
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procured by illegality did not in any way oust the jurisdiction of the Court. That aspect of the matter is simple.’
On the question of whether the court could or would exercise a discretion in favour of the applicant to order his release from custody Lord Lane CJ relied upon a passage in the judgment of Woodhouse J in R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199, a decision of the New Zealand Court of Appeal. In that case the New Zealand police had obtained the return of a man named Bennett from Australia to New Zealand, where he was wanted on a charge of murder, merely by telephoning to the Australian police and asking them to arrest Bennett and put him on an aeroplane back to New Zealand, which they had done. Lord Lane CJ cited (75 Cr App R 24 at 32–33) the following extract from the judgment of Woodhouse J ([1978] 2 NZLR 199 at 216–217):
‘There are explicit statutory directions that surround the extradition procedure. The procedure is widely known. It is frequently used by the police in the performance of their duty. For the protection of the public the statute rightly demands the sanction of recognised Court processes before any person who is thought to be a fugitive offender can properly be surrendered from one country to another. And in our opinion there can be no possible question here of the Court turning a blind eye to action of the New Zealand police which has deliberately ignored those imperative requirements of the statute. Some may say that in the present case a New Zealand citizen attempted to avoid a criminal responsibility by leaving the country: that his subsequent conviction has demonstrated the utility of the short cut adopted by the police to have him brought back. But this must never become an area where it will be sufficient to consider that the end has justified the means. The issues raised by this affair are basic to the whole concept of freedom in society. On the basis of reciprocity for similar favours earlier received are police officers here in New Zealand to feel free, or even obliged, at the request of their counterparts overseas to spirit New Zealand or other citizens out of the country on the basis of mere suspicion, conveyed perhaps by telephone, that some crime has been committed elsewhere? In the High Court of Australia Griffith CJ referred to extradition as a “great prerogative power, supposed to be an incident of sovereignty” and then rejected any suggestion that it “could be put in motion by any constable who thought he knew the law of a foreign country, and thought it desirable that a person whom he suspected of having offended against that law should be surrendered to that country to be punished”: Brown v Lizars ((1905) 2 CLR 837 at 852). The reasons are obvious. We have said that if the issue in the present case is to be considered merely in terms of jurisdiction then Bennett, being in New Zealand, could certainly be brought to trial and dealt with by the Courts of this country. But we are equally satisfied that the means which were adopted to make that trial possible are so much at variance with the statute, and so much in conflict with one of the most important principles of the rule of law, that if application had been made at the trial on this ground, after the facts had been established by the evidence on the voir dire, the Judge would probably have been justified in exercising his discretion under s 347(3) [of the Crimes Act 1961] or under the inherent jurisdiction to direct that the accused by discharged.’
Lord Lane CJ followed that passage and exercised the court’s discretion to order prohibition against the magistrates’ court and to discharge the applicant.
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Ex p Mackeson was followed by the Divisional Court in R v Guildford Magistrates’ Court, ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108.
In R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95 a differently constituted Divisional Court, after hearing argument containing more elaborate citation of authority, declined to follow Ex p Mackeson and held that the court had no power to inquire into the circumstance in which a person was found within the jurisdiction for the purpose of refusing to try him.
The Divisional Court regarded the law as settled by a trilogy of cases: Ex p Scott (1829) 9 B & C 446, 109 ER 166, Sinclair v HM Advocate (1890) 17 R (J) 38 and R v O/C Depot Battalion RASC Colchester, ex p Elliott [1949] 1 All ER 373. These cases undoubtedly show that at the time they were decided the judges were not prepared to inquire into the circumstances in which a person came within the jurisdiction. In Ex p Scott Lord Tenterden CJ granted a warrant for the apprehension of Scott so that she might appear and plead to a bill of indictment charging her with perjury. Ruthven, the police officer to whom the warrant was directed, arrested Scott in Brussels. She applied to the British ambassador for assistance but he refused to interfere and Ruthven brought her to Ostend and then to England. A rule nisi was obtained for a habeas corpus to bring up Scott in order that she might be discharged. In giving judgment Lord Tenterden CJ said (9 B & C 446 at 448, 109 ER 166 at 167):
‘The question, therefore, is this, whether if a person charged with a crime is found in this country, it is the duty of the Court to take care that such a party shall be amenable to justice, or whether we are to consider the circumstances under which she was brought here. I thought, and still continue to think, that we cannot inquire into them.’
In Sinclair v HM Advocate (1890) 17 R (J) 38 the sheriff substitute of Lanarkshire granted a warrant to a Glasgow sheriff officer to arrest Sinclair for breach of trust and embezzlement and to receive him into custody from the government of Spain. The accused was brought before the sheriff substitute on this warrant and committed to prison to await his trial. He brought a bill of suspension and liberation in which he alleged that he had been arrested and imprisoned in Portugal by the Portuguese authorities without a warrant, that he had been put by them on board an English ship in the Tagus and there had been taken into custody by a Glasgow detective officer without the production of a warrant, but during the voyage to London the vessel had been in the port of Vigo, in Spain, for several hours, that the complainer had demanded to be allowed to land there but had been prevented by the officer, that on arriving in London he was not taken before a magistrate, nor was the warrant indorsed, but he was brought direct to Scotland, and there committed to prison, and no warrant was ever produced or exhibited to him. It was held that these allegations did not set forth any facts to affect the validity of the commitment by the sheriff substitute, which proceeded upon a proper warrant.
In the course of his judgment the Lord Justice Clerk (Macdonald) said (at 40–42):
‘There are three stages of procedure in this case—first, there are the proceedings abroad where the complainer was arrested; second, there are the proceedings on the journey to this country; and third, the proceedings here. As regards the proceedings abroad and where the complainer was arrested, they may or may not have been regular, formal, and in accordance with the laws of Portugal and Spain, but we know nothing about them. What we do know is that two friendly powers agreed to give assistance to
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this country so as to bring to justice a person properly charged by the authorities in this country with a crime. If the Government of Portugal or of Spain has done anything illegal or irregular in arresting and delivering over the complainer his remedy is to proceed against these Governments. That is not a matter for our consideration at all, and we cannot be the judges of the regularity of such proceedings. In point of fact the complainer was put on board a British vessel which was at that time in the roads at the mouth of the Tagus, and given into the custody of a person who held a warrant to receive him, and who did so receive him. This warrant was perfectly regular, as also his commitment to stand his trial on a charge of embezzlement. If there was any irregularity in the granting or execution of these warrants the person committing such irregularity would be liable in an action of damages if any damage was caused. But that cannot affect the proceedings of a public authority here. The public authority here did nothing wrong. The warrants given to the officer to detain the prisoner were quite formal, and it is not said that he did anything wrong. It is said that the Government of Portugal did something wrong, and that the authorities in this country are not to be entitled to obtain any advantage from this alleged wrongdoing. As I have said, we cannot be the judges of the wrongdoing of the Government of Portugal. What we have here is that a person has been delivered to a properly authorised officer of this country, and is now to be tried on a charge of embezzlement in this country. He is therefore properly before the Court of a competent jurisdiction on a proper warrant. I do not think we can go behind this. There has been no improper dealing with the complainer by the authorities in this country, or by their officer, to induce him to put himself in the position of being arrested, as was the case in two of the cases cited. They were civil cases in which the procedure was at the instance of a private party for his own private ends, and the Court very properly held that a person could not take advantage of his own wrongdoing. But that is not the case here … No irregularity, then, involving suspension can be said to have taken place on his arrival in London and on his journey here. But even if the proceedings here were irregular I am of opinion that where a Court of competent jurisdiction has a prisoner before it upon a competent complaint they must proceed to try him, no matter what happened before, even although he may have been harshly treated by a foreign Government, and irregularly dealt with by a subordinate officer.’
Lord M‘Laren stated his view in the following terms (at 43–44):
‘With regard to the competency of the proceedings in Portugal, I think this is a matter with which we really have nothing to do. The extradition of a fugitive is an act of sovereignty on the part of the state who surrenders him. Each country has its own ideas and its own rules in such matters. Generally it is done under treaty arrangements, but if a state refuses to bind itself by treaty, and prefers to deal with each case on its merits, we must be content to receive the fugitive on these conditions, and we have neither title nor interest to inquire as to the regularity of proceedings under which he is apprehended and given over to the official sent out to receive him into custody … I am of opinion with your Lordships that, when a fugitive is brought before a magistrate in Scotland on a proper warrant, the magistrate has jurisdiction, and is bound to exercise it without any consideration of the means which have been used to bring him from the foreign country into the jurisdiction. In a case of substantial infringement of right this Court will
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always give redress, but the public interest in the punishment of crime is not to be prejudiced by irregularities on the part of inferior officers of the law in relation to the prisoner’s apprehension and detention.’
In R v O/C Depot Battalion RASC Colchester, ex p Elliott [1949] 1 All ER 373 a deserter from the RASC was arrested in Belgium by British officers accompanied by two Belgian police officers. He was brought to this country, where he was charged with desertion and detained in Colchester barracks. He applied for a writ of habeas corpus, which was issued, and on the return of the writ he submitted that his arrest was illegal because the British authorities had no power to arrest him in Belgium and his arrest was contrary to Belgian law. Dealing with this submission Lord Goddard CJ said (at 376):
‘The point with regard to the arrest in Belgium is entirely false. If a person is arrested abroad and he is brought before a court in this country charged with an offence which that court has jurisdiction to hear, it is no answer for him to say, he being then in lawful custody in this country: “I was arrested contrary to the laws of the State of A or the State of B where I was actually arrested.” He is in custody before the court which has jurisdiction to try him. What is it suggested that the court can do? The court cannot dismiss the charge at once without its being heard. He is charged with an offence against English law, the law applicable to the case. If he has been arrested in a foreign country and detained improperly from the time that he was first arrested until the time he lands in this country, he may have a remedy against the persons who arrested and detained him, but that does not entitle him to be discharged, though it may influence the court if they think there was something irregular or improper in the arrest.’
Lord Goddard CJ then reviewed the decisions in Ex p Scott and Sinclair v HM Advocate and after citing the first part of the passage in the speech of Lord M‘Laren which I have already cited Lord Goddard CJ continued (at 377–378):
‘That, again, is a perfectly clear and unambiguous statement of the law administered in Scotland. It shows that the law of both countries is exactly the same on this point and that we have no power to go into the question, once a prisoner is in lawful custody in this country, of the circumstances in which he may have been brought here. The circumstances in which the applicant may have been arrested in Belgium are no concern of this court.’
There were also cited to the Divisional Court a number of authorities from the United States which showed that United States courts have not regarded the constitutional right to ‘due process’ as preventing a court in the United States from trying an accused who has been kidnapped in a foreign country and forcibly abducted into the United States (see Ker v Illinois (1886) 119 US 436 and US v Sobell (1956) 142 F Supp 515; affd (1957) 244 F 2d 520).
Relying on this line of authority the Divisional Court declined to follow Ex p Mackeson (1982) 75 Cr App R 24 and held that it had no power to inquire into the circumstances in which the applicant was brought within the jurisdiction.
In the present case the Divisional Court approved the decision in R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95 and in giving the leading judgment of the court Woolf LJ said ([1993] 2 All ER 474 at 479):
‘However, quite apart from authority, I am bound to say it seems to me that the approach of Stephen Brown LJ [in Ex p Driver ], in general, must be correct. The power which the court is exercising, and the power which the
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court was purporting to exercise, in Ex p Mackeson is one which is based upon the inherent power of the court to protect itself against the abuse of its own process. If the matters which are being relied upon have nothing to do with that process but only explain how a person comes to be within the jurisdiction so that that process can commence, it seems to me difficult to see how the process of the court (and I emphasise the word “court”) can be abused by the fact that a person may or may not have been brought to this country improperly.’
However, in a later passage Woolf LJ drew a distinction between improper behaviour by the police and the prosecution itself. He said ([1993] 2 All ER 474 at 479–480):
‘Speaking for myself, I am not satisfied there could not be some form of residual discretion which in limited circumstances would enable a court to intervene, not on the basis of an abuse of process but on some other basis which in the appropriate circumstances could avail a person in a situation where he contends that the prosecution are involved in improper conduct.’
Your Lordships have been urged by the respondents to uphold the decision of the Divisional Court and the nub of its submission is that the role of the judge is confined to the forensic process. The judge, it is said, is concerned to see that the accused has a fair trial and that the process of the court is not manipulated to his disadvantage so that the trial itself is unfair; but the wider issues of the rule of law and the behaviour of those charged with its enforcement, be they police or prosecuting authority, are not the concern of the judiciary unless they impinge directly on the trial process. In support of this submission your Lordships have been referred to R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222 esp at 1230, 1245–1246, [1980] AC 402 esp at 436–437, 454–455 where Lord Diplock and Lord Scarman emphasise that the role of the judge is confined to the forensic process and that it is no part of the judge’s function to exercise disciplinary powers over the police or the prosecution.
The respondents have also relied upon the United States authorities in which the Supreme Court has consistently refused to regard forcible abduction from a foreign country as a violation of the right to trial by due process of law guaranteed by the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution: see in particular the majority opinion in US v Alvarez-Machain (1992) 112 S Ct 2188 reasserting the Ker-Frisbie rule (see Ker v Illinois (1886) 119 US 436 and Frisbie v Collins (1952) 342 US 519). I do not, however, find these decisions particularly helpful because they deal with the issue of whether or not an accused acquires a constitutional defence to the jurisdiction of the United States courts and not to the question whether, assuming the court has jurisdiction, it has a discretion to refuse to try the accused (see Ker v Illinois 119 US 436 at 444).
The respondents also cited two Canadian cases decided at the turn of the century, R v Whiteside (1904) 8 CCC 478 and R v Walton (1905) 10 CCC 269 which show that the Canadian courts followed the English and American courts accepting jurisdiction in criminal cases regardless of the circumstances in which the accused was brought within the jurisdiction of the Canadian court. We have also had our attention brought to the New Zealand decision in Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464, in which Richmond P expressed reservations about the correctness of his view that the prosecution in R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199 was an abuse of the process of the court and Woodhouse J reaffirmed his view to that effect.
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The appellant contends for a wider interpretation of the court’s jurisdiction to prevent an abuse of process and relies particularly upon the judgment of Woodhouse J in R v Hartley, the powerful dissent of the minority in US v Alvarez-Machain (1992) 112 S Ct 2188 and the decision of the South African Court of Appeal in S v Ebrahim 1991 (2) SA 553, the headnote of which reads:
‘The appellant, a member of the military wing of the African National Congress who had fled South Africa while under a restriction order, had been abducted from his home in Mbabane, Swaziland, by persons acting as agents of the South African State, and taken back to South Africa, where he was handed over to the police and detained in terms of security legislation. He was subsequently charged with treason in a Circuit Local Division, which convicted and sentenced him to 20 years’ imprisonment. The appellant had prior to pleading launched an application for an order to the effect that the Court lacked jurisdiction to try the case inasmuch as his abduction was in breach of international law and thus unlawful. The application was dismissed and the trial continued. The Court, on appeal against the dismissal of the above application, held, after a thorough investigation of the relevant South African and common law, that the issue as to the effect of the abduction on the jurisdiction of the trial Court was still governed by the Roman and Roman-Dutch common law which regarded the removal of a person from an area of jurisdiction in which he had been illegally arrested to another area as tantamount to abduction and thus constituted a serious injustice. A court before which such a person was brought also lacked jurisdiction to try him, even where such a person had been abducted by agents of the authority governing the area of jurisdiction of the said court. The Court further held that the above rules embodied several fundamental legal principles, viz those that maintained and promoted human rights, good relations between States and the sound administration of justice: the individual had to be protected against unlawful detention and against abduction, the limits of territorial jurisdiction and the sovereignty of States had to be respected, the fairness of the legal process guaranteed and the abuse thereof prevented so as to protect and promote the dignity and integrity of the judicial system. The State was bound by these rules and had to come to Court with clean hands, as it were, when it was itself a party to proceedings and this requirement was clearly not satisfied when the state was involved in the abduction of persons across the country’s borders. It was accordingly held that the Court a quo had lacked jurisdiction to try the appellant and his application should therefore have succeeded. As the appellant should never have been tried by the Court a quo, the consequences of the trial had to be undone and the appeal disposed of as one against conviction and sentence. Both the conviction and sentence were accordingly set aside.’
In answer to the respondent’s reliance upon R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402 the appellant points to s 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, which enlarges a judge’s discretion to exclude evidence obtained by unfair means.
As one would hope, the number of reported cases in which a court has had to exercise a jurisdiction to prevent abuse of process are comparatively rare. They are usually confined to cases in which the conduct of the prosecution has been such as to prevent a fair trial of the accused. In R v Crown Court at Derby, ex p Brooks (1984) 80 Cr App R 164 at 168–169 Sir Roger Ormrod said:
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‘The power to stop a prosecution arises only when it is an abuse of the process of the court. It may be an abuse of process if either (a) the prosecution have manipulated or misused the process of the court so as to deprive the defendant of a protection provided by the law or to take unfair advantage of a technicality, or (b) on the balance of probability the defendant has been, or will be, prejudiced in the preparation or conduct of his defence by delay on the part of the prosecution which is unjustifiable … The ultimate objective of this discretionary power is to ensure that there should be a fair trial according to law, which involves fairness to both the defendant and the prosecution …’
There have, however, also been cases in which although the fairness of the trial itself was not in question the courts have regarded it as so unfair to try the accused for the offence that it amounted to an abuse of process. In Chu Piu-wing v A-G [1984] HKLR 411 the Hong Kong Court of Appeal allowed an appeal against a conviction for contempt of court for refusing to obey a subpoena ad testificandum on the ground that the witness had been assured by the Independent Commission Against Corruption that he would not be required to give evidence. McMullin V-P said (at 417–418):
‘there is a clear public interest to be observed in holding officials of the State to promises made by them in full understanding of what is entailed by the bargain.’
And in a recent decision of the Divisional Court in R v Croydon Justices, ex p Dean [1993] 3 All ER 129 the committal of the accused on a charge of doing acts to impede the apprehension of another contrary to s 4(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1967 was quashed on the ground that he had been assured by the police that he would not be prosecuted for any offence connected with their murder investigation and in the circumstances it was an abuse of process to prosecute him in breach of that promise.
Your Lordships are now invited to extend the concept of abuse of process a stage further. In the present case there is no suggestion that the appellant cannot have a fair trial, nor could it be suggested that it would have been unfair to try him if he had been returned to this country through extradition procedures. If the court is to have the power to interfere with the prosecution in the present circumstances it must be because the judiciary accept a responsibility for the maintenance of the rule of law that embraces a willingness to oversee executive action and to refuse to countenance behaviour that threatens either basic human rights or the rule of law.
My Lords, I have no doubt that the judiciary should accept this responsibility in the field of criminal law. The great growth of administrative law during the latter half of this century has occurred because of the recognition by the judiciary and Parliament alike that it is the function of the High Court to ensure that executive action is exercised responsibly and as Parliament intended. So also should it be in the field of criminal law and if it comes to the attention of the court that there has been a serious abuse of power it should, in my view, express its disapproval by refusing to act upon it.
Let us consider the position in the context of extradition. Extradition procedures are designed not only to ensure that criminals are returned from one country to another but also to protect the rights of those who are accused of crimes by the requesting country. Thus sufficient evidence has to be produced to show a prima facie case against the accused and the rule of speciality protects the accused from being tried for any crime other than that for which he was
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extradited. If a practice developed in which the police or prosecuting authorities of this country ignored extradition procedures and secured the return of an accused by a mere request to police colleagues in another country they would be flouting the extradition procedures and depriving the accused of the safeguards built into the extradition process for his benefit. It is to my mind unthinkable that in such circumstances the court should declare itself to be powerless and stand idly by; I echo the words of Lord Devlin in Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401 at 442, [1964] AC 1254 at 1354:
‘The courts cannot contemplate for a moment the transference to the executive of the responsibility for seeing that the process of law is not abused.’
The courts, of course, have no power to apply direct discipline to the police or the prosecuting authorities, but they can refuse to allow them to take advantage of abuse of power by regarding their behaviour as an abuse of process and thus preventing a prosecution.
In my view your Lordships should now declare that where process of law is available to return an accused to this country through extradition procedures our courts will refuse to try him if he has been forcibly brought within our jurisdiction in disregard of those procedures by a process to which our own police, prosecuting or other executive authorities have been a knowing party.
If extradition is not available very different considerations will arise on which I express no opinion.
The question then arises as to the appropriate court to exercise this aspect of the abuse of process of jurisdiction. It was submitted on behalf of the respondents that examining magistrates have no power to stay proceedings on the ground of abuse of process and reliance was placed on the decisions of this House in Sinclair v DPP [1991] 2 All ER 366, [1991] 2 AC 64 and Atkinson v US Government [1969] 3 All ER 1317, [1971] AC 197, which established that in extradition proceedings a magistrate has no power to refuse to commit an accused on the grounds of abuse of process. But the reason underlying those decisions is that the Secretary of State has the power to refuse to surrender the accused if it would be unjust or oppressive to do so; and now under the Extradition Act 1989 an express power to this effect has been conferred upon the High Court.
Your Lordships have not previously had to consider whether justices, and in particular committing justices, have the power to refuse to try or commit a case upon the grounds that it would be an abuse of process to do so. Although doubts were expressed by Viscount Dilhorne as to the existence of such a power in DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497 at 510–511, [1977] AC 1 at 26, there is a formidable body of authority that recognises this power in the justices.
In Mills v Cooper [1967] 2 All ER 100 at 104, [1967] 2 QB 459 at 467 Lord Parker CJ, hearing an appeal from justices who had dismissed an information on the grounds that the proceedings were oppressive and an abuse of the process of the court, said:
‘So far as the ground upon which they did dismiss the information was concerned, every court has undoubtedly a right in its discretion to decline to hear proceedings on the ground that they are oppressive and an abuse of the process of the court.’
Diplock LJ expressed his agreement with this view (see [1967] 2 All ER 100 at 105, [1967] 2 QB 459 at 470).
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In R v Canterbury and St Augustine’s Justices, ex p Klisiak [1981] 2 All ER 129 at 136, [1982] QB 398 at 411 Lord Lane CJ was prepared to assume such a jurisdiction. In R v West London Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Anderson (1984) 80 Cr App R 143 at 149 Robert Goff LJ, reviewing the position at that date, said:
‘There was at one time some doubt whether magistrates had jurisdiction to decline to allow a criminal prosecution to proceed on the ground that it amounted to an abuse of the process of the court: see D.P.P. v. HUMPHRYS ([1976] 2 All ER 497 at 504–505, [1977] AC 1 at 19) per Viscount Dilhorne. However, a line of authority which has developed since that case has clearly established that magistrates do indeed have such a jurisdiction: see in particular BRENTFORD JUSTICES, Ex parte WONG ([1981] 1 All ER 884 at 888, [1981] QB 445); WATFORD JUSTICES, Ex parte OUTRIM ([1983] RTR 26); GRAYS JUSTICES, Ex parte GRAHAM ([1982] 3 All ER 653, [1982] QB 1239). The power has, however, been described by the Lord Chief Justice as being “very strictly confined”: see OXFORD CITY JUSTICES, Ex parte SMITH ((1982) 75 Cr App R 200 at 204).’
The power has recently and most comprehensively been considered and affirmed by the Divisional Court by R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854 at 862, [1991] 2 QB 78 at 89.
Provided it is appreciated by magistrates that this is a power to be most sparingly exercised, of which they have received more than sufficient judicial warning (see, for example, Lord Lane CJ in R v Oxford City Justices, ex p Smith (1982) 75 Cr App R 200 and Ackner LJ in R v Horsham Justices, ex p Reeves (1980) 75 Cr App R 236), it appears to me to be a beneficial development and I am unpersuaded that there are any sufficient reasons to overrule a long line of authority developed by successive Lord Chief Justices and judges in the Divisional Court, who are daily in much closer touch with the work in the magistrates’ court than your Lordships. Nor do I see any force in an argument developed by the respondents which sought to equate abuse of process with contempt of court. I would accordingly affirm the power of the magistrates, whether sitting as committing justices or exercising their summary jurisdiction, to exercise control over their proceedings through an abuse of process jurisdiction. However, in the case of magistrates this power should be strictly confined to matters directly affecting the fairness of the trial of the particular accused with whom they are dealing, such as delay or unfair manipulation of court procedures. Although it may be convenient to label the wider supervisory jurisdiction with which we are concerned in this appeal under the head of abuse of process, it is in fact a horse of a very different colour from the narrower issues that arise when considering domestic criminal trial procedures. I adhere to the view I expressed in R v Guildford Magistrates’ Court, ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108 that this wider responsibility for upholding the rule of law must be that of the High Court and that if a serious question arises as to the deliberate abuse of extradition procedures a magistrate should allow an adjournment so that an application can be made to the Divisional Court, which I regard as the proper forum in which such a decision should be taken.
I would answer the certified question as follows. The High Court in the exercise of its supervisory jurisdiction has power to inquire into the circumstances by which a person has been brought within the jurisdiction and if satisfied that it was in disregard of extradition procedures it may stay the prosecution and order the release of the accused.
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Accordingly, I would allow this appeal and remit the case to the Divisional Court for further consideration.
LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH. My Lords, this appeal raises an important question of principle. When a person is arrested and charged with a criminal offence, is it a valid ground of objection to the exercise of the court’s jurisdiction to try him that the prosecuting authority secured the prisoner’s presence within the territorial jurisdiction of the court by forcibly abducting him from within the jurisdiction of some other state, in violation of international law, in violation of the laws of the state from which he was abducted, in violation of whatever rights he enjoyed under the laws of that state and in disregard of available procedures to secure his lawful extradition to this country from the state where he was residing? This is to state the issue very starkly, perhaps some may think tendentiously. But, because this appeal has to be determined on the basis of assumed facts, your Lordships, as it seems to me, cannot avoid grappling with the issue in this stark form.
In this country and in Scotland the mainstream of authority, as the careful review in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths shows, appears to give a negative answer to the question posed, holding that the courts have no power to examine the circumstances in which a prisoner was brought within the jurisdiction. I fully recognise the cogency of the arguments which can be adduced in support of this view, sustained as they are by the public interest in the prosecution and punishment of crime. But none of the previous authorities is binding on your Lordships’ House and, if there is another important principle of law which ought to influence the answer to the question posed, then your Lordships are at liberty, indeed under a duty, to examine it and, if it transpires that this is an area where two valid principles of law come into conflict, it must, in my opinion, be for your Lordships to decide as a matter of principle which of the two conflicting principles of law ought to prevail.
When we look to see how other jurisdictions have answered a question analogous to that before the House in terms of their own legal systems, the most striking example of an affirmative answer is the decision of the South African Court of Appeal in S v Ebrahim 1991 (2) SA 553 allowing an appeal against his conviction for treason by a member of the African National Congress on the sole ground that he had been abducted from Swaziland, outside the jurisdiction of the South African court, by persons acting as agents of the South African state. This decision, as the summary in the headnote shows, resulted from the application of—
‘several fundamental legal principles, viz those that maintained and promoted human rights, good relations between States and the sound administration of justice: the individual had to be protected against unlawful detention and against abduction, the limits of territorial jurisdiction and the sovereignty of States had to be respected, the fairness of the legal process guaranteed and the abuse thereof prevented so as to protect and promote the dignity and integrity of the judicial system. The State was bound by these rules and had to come to Court with clean hands, as it were, when it was itself a party to proceedings and this requirement was clearly not satisfied when the State was involved in the abduction of persons across the country’s borders.’
In the United States, the authorities reveal a conflict of judicial opinion. The doctrine established by Supreme Court decisions in 1886 of Ker v Illinois 119 US
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436 and in 1952 of Frisbie v Collins 342 US 519 accords substantially in its effect with the doctrine of the early English authorities. But more recently this doctrine has been powerfully challenged. In US v Toscanino (1974) 500 F 2d 267 at 268 the defendant, an Italian citizen, who had been convicted in the New York District Court of a drug conspiracy, alleged that the court had ‘acquired jurisdiction over him unlawfully through the conduct of American agents who kidnapped him in Uruguay … tortured him and abducted him to the United States for the purpose of prosecuting him’ there. The lower court having held that these allegations were immaterial to the exercise of its jurisdiction to try him, provided he was physically present at the time of trial, he appealed to the United States Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit. The effect of the court’s decision is sufficiently summarised in the headnote. The court held:
‘ … that federal district court’s criminal process would be abused or degraded if it was executed against defendant Italian citizen, who alleged that he was brought into the United States from Uruguay after being kidnapped, and such abuse could not be tolerated without debasing the processes of justice, so that defendant was entitled to a hearing on his allegations … Government should be denied the right to exploit its own illegal conduct, and when an accused is kidnapped and forcibly brought within the jurisdiction, court’s acquisition of power over his person represents the fruits of the Government’s exploitation of its own misconduct.’
The most recent decision of the United States Supreme Court in US v Alvarez-Machain (1992) 112 S Ct 2188 concerned a Mexican citizen indicted for the murder of an agent of the Drug Enforcement Administration (the DEA). The district court had held that other DEA agents had been responsible for the defendant’s abduction from Mexico, that this had been in violation of the extradition treaty between Mexico and the United States and that the accused should be discharged and repatriated to Mexico. This decision was affirmed by the United States Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit but reversed by the Supreme Court by a majority of 6 to 3. The opinions related primarily to the question whether the abduction was a breach of the treaty. The majority held that the abduction, although ‘shocking’, involved no breach of the treaty and relied on the earlier decisions in Ker v Illinois 119 US 436 and Frisbie v Collins 342 US 519 for the view that the abduction was irrelevant to the exercise of the court’s criminal jurisdiction. The dissenting opinion of Stevens J, in which Blackmun and O’Connor JJ joined, held that the abduction was both in breach of the treaty and in violation of general principles of international law and distinguished the earlier authorities as having no application to a case where the abduction in violation of international law was carried out on the authority of the executive branch of the United States government. The minority opinion was that this was an infringement of the rule of law which it was the court’s duty to uphold. After referring to the South African decision in S v Ebrahim, Stevens J writes in the final paragraph of his opinion (at 2206):
‘The Court of Appeal of South Africa—indeed, I suspect most courts throughout the civilized world—will be deeply disturbed by the “monstrous” decision the Court announces today. For every Nation that has an interest in preserving the Rule of Law is affected, directly or indirectly, by a decision of this character.’
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In the common law jurisdiction closest to our own, the opinion expressed by Woodhouse J in the New Zealand case of R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199, in which he describes the issue as ‘basic to the whole concept of freedom in society’, has already been cited by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths and I need not repeat it. In the later case of Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464 at 475–476 Woodhouse J cited the relevant passage from his own judgment in R v Hartley and added:
‘It is not always easy to decide whether some injustice involves the further consequence that a prosecution associated with it should be regarded as an abuse of process. And in this regard the Courts have been careful to avoid confusing their own role with the executive responsibility for deciding upon a prosecution. In the Connelly case [Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401 at 442, [1964] AC 1254 at 1353] Lord Devlin referred to those matters and then, as I have said, he went on to speak of the importance of the Courts accepting what he described as their “inescapable duty to secure fair treatment for those who come or are brought before them”. He said that “the courts cannot contemplate for a moment the transference to the Executive of the responsibility for seeing that the process of law is not abused” … Those remarks involve an important statement of constitutional principle. They assert the independent strength of the judiciary to protect the law by protecting its own purposes and function. It is essential to keep in mind that it is “the process of law”, to use Lord Devlin’s phrase, that is the issue. It is not something limited to the conventional practices or procedures of the Court system. It is the function and purpose of the Courts as a separate part of the constitutional machinery that must be protected from abuse rather than the particular processes that are used within the machine. It may be that the shorthand phrase “abuse of process” by itself does not give sufficient emphasis to the principle that in this context the Court must react not so much against an abuse of the procedure that has been built up to enable the determination of a criminal charge as against the much wider and more serious abuse of the criminal jurisdiction in general. It is for reasons of this kind that I remain of the opinion that the trial Judge would have been entirely justified in the Hartley case in stopping the prosecution against the man Bennett.’
Whatever differences there may be between the legal systems of South Africa, the United States, New Zealand and this country, many of the basic principles to which they seek to give effect stem from common roots. There is, I think, no principle more basic to any proper system of law than the maintenance of the rule of law itself. When it is shown that the law enforcement agency responsible for bringing a prosecution has only been enabled to do so by participating in violations of international law and of the laws of another state in order to secure the presence of the accused within the territorial jurisdiction of the court, I think that respect for the rule of law demands that the court take cognisance of that circumstance. To hold that the court may turn a blind eye to executive lawlessness beyond the frontiers of its own jurisdiction is, to my mind, an insular and unacceptable view. Having then taken cognisance of the lawlessness it would again appear to me to be a wholly inadequate response for the court to hold that the only remedy lies in civil proceedings at the suit of the defendant or in disciplinary or criminal proceedings against the individual officers of the law enforcement agency who were concerned in the illegal action taken. Since the prosecution could never have been brought if the defendant had not been illegally
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abducted, the whole proceeding is tainted. If a resident in another country is properly extradited here, the time when the prosecution commences is the time when the authorities here set the extradition process in motion. By parity of reasoning, if the authorities, instead of proceeding by way of extradition, have resorted to abduction, that is the effective commencement of the prosecution process and is the illegal foundation on which it rests. It is apt, in my view, to describe these circumstances, in the language used by Woodhouse J in Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464 at 476, as an ‘abuse of the criminal jurisdiction in general’ or indeed, in the language of Mansfield J in US v Toscanino (1974) 500 F 2d 267 at 276, as a ‘degradation’ of the court’s criminal process. To hold that in these circumstances the court may decline to exercise its jurisdiction on the ground that its process has been abused may be an extension of the doctrine of abuse of process but is, in my view, a wholly proper and necessary one.
For these reasons and for the reasons given in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths, with which I fully agree, I would allow the appeal.
LORD OLIVER OF AYLMERTON. My Lords, a citizen whose rights have been infringed by unlawful or overenthusiastic action on the part of an executive functionary has a remedy by way of recourse to the courts in civil proceedings. It may not be an ideal remedy. It may not always be a remedy which is easily available to the person injured. It may not even, certainly in his estimation, be an adequate remedy. But it is the remedy which the law provides to the citizen who chooses to invoke it. The question raised by this appeal is whether, in addition to such remedies as may be available in civil proceedings, the court should assume the duty of overseeing, controlling and punishing an abuse of executive power leading up to properly instituted criminal proceedings not by means of the conventional remedies invoked at the instance of the person claiming to have been injured by such abuse but by restraining the further prosecution of those proceedings. The results of the assumption of such a jurisdiction are threefold; and they are surprising. First, the trial put in train by a charge which has been properly laid will not take place and the person charged (if guilty) will escape a just punishment; secondly, the civil remedies available to that person will remain enforceable; and, thirdly, the public interest in the prosecution and punishment of crime will have been defeated not by a necessary process of penalising those responsible for executive abuse but simply for the purpose of manifesting judicial disapproval.
It is, of course, axiomatic that a person charged with having committed a criminal offence should receive a fair trial and that, if he cannot be tried fairly for that offence, he should not be tried for it at all. But it is also axiomatic that there is a strong public interest in the prosecution and punishment of crime. Absent any suggestion of unfairness or oppression in the trial process, an application to the court charged with the trial of a criminal offence (to which it may be convenient to refer by the shorthand expression ‘a criminal court’), whether that application be made at the trial or at earlier committal proceedings, to order the discontinuance of the prosecution and the discharge of the accused on the ground of some anterior executive activity in which the court is in no way implicated requires to be justified by some very cogent reason.
Making, as I do, every assumption in favour of the appellant as regards the veracity of the evidence which he has adduced and the implications sought to be drawn from it, I discern no such cogent reason in the instant case. I do not consider that, either as a matter of established law or as a matter of principle, a criminal court should be concerned to entertain questions as to the propriety of
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anterior executive acts of the law enforcement agencies which have no bearing upon the fairness or propriety of the trial process or the ability of the accused to defend himself against charges properly brought against him.
I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths and I gratefully acknowledge and adopt his recitation of the relevant authorities and the conflict of judicial opinion which arises from them. Your Lordships have, in addition, been referred in the course of argument to a number of reports of civil cases of respectable antiquity in which persons originally unlawfully detained have been released from custody in the exercise of the court’s undoubted jurisdiction to prevent abuses of its own process. But those were cases in which parties to civil proceedings had sought to take advantage of their own wrong in securing the unlawful detention of another party by serving proceedings for civil arrest upon him whilst unlawfully detained. In the case of a person charged with the commission of a criminal offence following an allegedly irregular initial detention, there was, until R v Bow Street Magistrates, ex p Mackeson (1981) 75 Cr App R 24, an unbroken line of authority in the United Kingdom dating from the early nineteenth century for the proposition perhaps most pithily expressed by Lord Goddard CJ in R v O/C Depot Battalion RASC Colchester, ex p Elliott [1949] 1 All ER 373 that once a person is in lawful custody in this country the court has no power and is not concerned to inquire into the circumstances in which he may have been brought here. Ex p Mackeson and R v Guildford Magistrates’ Court, ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108, which impliedly followed it, were to the contrary effect, but in a reserved judgment of the Divisional Court delivered by Stephen Brown LJ in R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95, in which all the relevant authorities were fully reviewed, that court followed the earlier line of authority and rejected the decision in Ex p Mackeson as having been decided per incuriam. Ex p Driver was followed by the Divisional Court in the instant case in rejecting the appellant’s claim that the criminal court had jurisdiction to consider and pass judgment upon the circumstances in which he had been brought within the jurisdiction.
The appellant invites this House now to say that the decision in Ex p Mackeson is to be preferred and that a criminal court’s undoubted jurisdiction to prevent abuses of its own process should be extended, if indeed it does not already extend, to embrace a much wider jurisdiction to oversee what is referred to generally as ‘the administration of justice’, in the broadest sense of the term, including the executive acts of law-enforcement agencies occurring before the process of the court has been invoked at all and having no bearing whatever upon the fairness of the trial.
I have to say that I am firmly of the opinion that, whether such a course be properly described as legislation or merely as pushing forward the frontiers of the common law, the invitation is one which ought to be resisted. For my part, I see neither any inexorable logic calling for such an extension nor any social need for it; and it seems to me to be a course which will be productive of a good deal of inconvenience and uncertainty.
I can, perhaps, best explain my reluctance to embark upon such a course by postulating and seeking to answer two questions. First, does a criminal court have, or should it have, any general duty or any power to investigate and oversee executive abuses on the part of law-enforcement officers not affecting either the fairness of the trial process or the bona fides of the charge which it is called upon to try and occurring prior to the institution of the criminal proceedings and to order the discontinuance of such proceedings and the discharge of the accused if
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it is satisfied that such abuses have taken place? Secondly, if there is no such general jurisdiction and if the executive abuse alleged consists of the repatriation of the accused from a foreign country through acts which are unlawful in the country in which they occurred, is there some special quality in this form of executive abuse which gives rise to or which calls for the creation of such a jurisdiction in this particular case?
So far as the first question is concerned, I know of no authority for the existence of any such general supervisory jurisdiction in a criminal court. It is not, of course, in dispute that the court has power to prevent the abuse of its own process and that must, I would accept, include power to investigate the bona fides of the charge which it is called upon to try and to decline to entertain a charge instituted in bad faith or oppressively—for instance if the accused’s co-operation in the investigation of a crime has been secured by an executive undertaking that no prosecution will take place. Thus, I would not for a moment wish to suggest any doubt as to the correctness of a decision such as that in the recent case of R v Croydon Justices, ex p Dean [1993] 3 All ER 129, where the court quashed committal proceedings instituted after an undertaking given to the accused by police officers that he would not be prosecuted. In such a case doubt is cast both upon the bona fides of the prosecution and on the fairness of the process to an accused who has been invited to prejudice his own position on the faith of the undertaking. Where, however, there is no suggestion that the charge is other than bona fide or that there is any unfairness in the trial process, the duty of the criminal court is simply to try the case and I can see no ground upon which it can claim a discretion, or upon which it ought properly to be invited, to discontinue the proceedings and discharge an accused who is properly charged simply because of some alleged anterior excess or unlawful act on the part of the executive officers concerned with his apprehension and detention. That is not for a moment to suggest that such abuses, if they occur, are unimportant or are to be lightly accepted; but they are acts for which, if they are unlawful, the accused has the same remedies as those available to any other citizen whose legal rights have been infringed. If they are not only unlawful but are criminal as well, they are themselves remediable by criminal prosecution. That a judge may disapprove of or even be rightly outraged by the manner in which an accused has been apprehended or by his treatment whilst in custody cannot, however, provide a ground for declining to perform the public duty of insuring that, once properly charged, he is tried fairly according to law.
In R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222 at 1245, [1980] AC 402 at 454 Lord Scarman observed:
‘Judges are not responsible for the bringing or abandonment of prosecutions; nor have they the right to adjudicate in a way which indirectly usurps the functions of the legislature or jury.’
Those words were used in the context of a suggested discretion to prevent a prosecution because of judicial disapproval of the way in which admissible evidence had been obtained, but they are equally applicable to other executive acts which may incur judicial disapprobation. Experience shows that allegations of abusive use of executive power in the apprehension of those accused of criminal offences are far from rare. They may take the form of allegations of illegal entry on private premises, of damage to property, of the use of excessive force or even of ill-treatment or violence whilst in custody. So far as there is substance in such allegations, such abuses are disgraceful and regrettable and they may, no doubt, be said to reflect very ill on the administration of justice in
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the broadest sense of that term. But they provide no justification nor, so far as I am aware, is there any authority for the proposition that wrongful treatment of an accused, having no bearing upon the fairness of the trial process, entitles him to demand that he be not tried for an offence with which he has been properly charged. Indeed, any such general jurisdiction of a criminal court to investigate and adjudicate upon antecedent executive acts would be productive of hopeless uncertainty. It clearly cannot be the case that every excessive use of executive power entitles the accused to be exonerated. But then at what point and at what degree of outrage is the criminal court to undertake an inquiry and, if satisfied, to take upon itself the responsibility of refusing further to try the case?
If, then, it be right, as I believe that it is, that there neither is nor should be any general discretion in a criminal court to inquire into the conduct of executive officers before and leading up to the institution of criminal proceedings, the second question which I have ventured to postulate arises. Where, with the connivance or at the instigation of executive officers in this country, an accused person who has taken refuge in a foreign country is brought as a result of activity unlawful in that country within the jurisdiction of an English court and is then lawfully detained and charged, is there some special quality attaching to the unlawful and abusive activity abroad which confers or ought to confer on the criminal court a discretion which it would not otherwise possess?
The matter can, perhaps, best be illustrated by a hypothetical example of two terrorists, A and B, who, having detonated a bomb in London, make their way to Dover with a view to escaping abroad. A, as a result of a quarrel with a ticket inspector, is wrongfully detained by the railway police and whilst still in wrongful custody is duly arrested for the terrorist offence and subsequently charged. B, having successfully boarded a Channel ferry, is recognised as he steps ashore in Calais by two off-duty constables returning from holiday who seize him on the quayside and take him back on board keeping him under restraint until the ferry returns to Dover where he is arrested and charged. Now nobody would, I think, suggest for a moment that the trial of A should not proceed, simply because, as a result of a wrongful arrest and detention, he has been prevented from making good his escape, although he has in fact been put in the position of being charged and brought to trial only by reason of an unlawful abuse of executive power. What, then, distinguishes the case of B and confers on the criminal court in his case a discretion to stay his trial and discharge him which the court which does not possess in the case of A? I can see only two possible justifications for the suggestion that the court ought, in B’s case, to have such a discretion. First, it may be argued that, as a matter of international comity, an English court ought to signify its disapproval of the invasion of the protective rights of a foreign state over those who come within its jurisdiction by declining to try a person who has been wrongfully removed from the protection of that state through the instrumentality of persons for whose actions the authorities of this country are responsible. I do not find this argument persuasive. An English criminal court is not concerned nor is it in a position to investigate the legality under foreign law of acts committed on foreign soil and in any event any complaint of an invasion of the sovereignty of a foreign state is, as it seems to me, a matter which can only properly be pursued on a diplomatic level between the government of the United Kingdom and the government of that state.
Secondly, it may be argued that the unlawful activity of which complaint is made, because it results in the accused being brought within a jurisdiction from which he would otherwise have escaped, is invested with a special character because it infringes some ‘right’ of the accused in English law to be repatriated
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only through a process of extradition by the state under whose protection he has succeeded in placing himself. Now it is, of course, perfectly true that the Extradition Act 1989 contains, in s 6(4), an inhibition upon extradition from the United Kingdom unless provision is made by the receiving state that the person extradited will not, without the consent of the Secretary of State, be dealt with for (in broad terms) offences other than those in respect of which his extradition has been ordered. That provision is mirrored in s 18 of the Act, which provides that the person extradited to the United Kingdom from a foreign state will not be triable for (again in board terms) offences other than those for which he has been extradited unless he has first had an opportunity of leaving the United Kingdom. Thus a person who is returned only as a result of extradition proceedings enjoys, as a result of this statutory inhibition, an advantage over one who elects to return voluntarily or who is otherwise induced to return within the jurisdiction. But these are provisions inserted in the Act for the purpose of giving effect to reciprocal treaty arrangements for extradition. I cannot, for my part, regard them as conferring upon a person who is fortunate enough successfully to flee the jurisdiction some ‘right’ in English law which is invaded if he is brought or induced to come back within the jurisdiction otherwise than by an extradition process, much less a right the invasion of which a criminal court is entitled or bound to treat as vitiating the process commenced by a charge properly brought. It is not suggested for a moment that if, as a result of perhaps unlawful police action abroad—for instance in securing the deportation of the accused without proper authority—in which officers of the United Kingdom authorities are in no way involved, an accused person is found here and duly charged, the illegality of what may have occurred abroad entitles the criminal court here to discontinue the prosecution and discharge the accused. Yet in such a case the advantage in which the accused might have derived from the extradition process is likewise destroyed. No ‘right’ of his in English law has been infringed, though he may well have some remedy in the foreign court against those responsible for his wrongful deportation. What is said to make the critical difference is the prior involvement of officers of the executive authorities of the United Kingdom. But the arrest and detention of the accused are not part of the trial process upon which the criminal court has the duty to embark. Of course, executive officers are subject to the jurisdiction of the courts. If they act unlawfully, they may and should be civilly liable. If they act criminally, they may and should be prosecuted. But I can see no reason why the antecedent activities, whatever the degree of outrage or affront they may occasion, should be thought to justify the assumption by a criminal court of a jurisdiction to terminate a properly instituted criminal process which it is its duty to try.
I would only add that if, contrary to my opinion, such an extended jurisdiction over executive abuse does exist, I entirely concur with what has fallen from my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths with regard to the appropriate court to exercise such jurisdiction. I would dismiss the appeal and answer the certified question in the negative.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, having had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches of your Lordships, I accept the conclusion of my noble and learned friends Lord Griffiths and Lord Bridge of Harwich that the court has a discretion to stay as an abuse of process criminal proceedings brought against an accused person who has been brought before the court by abduction in a foreign country participated in or encouraged by British authorities. Recognising, however, the
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clear and forceful reasoning of my noble and learned friend Lord Oliver of Aylmerton to the contrary, I venture to contribute some observations of my own.
The first essential is to define abuse of process, which in my opinion must mean abuse of the process of the court which is to try the accused. Archbold’s Pleading Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (44th edn, 1992) p 430, para 4.44 calls it ‘a misuse or improper manipulation of the process of the court’. In Rourke v R [1978] 1 SCR 1021 at 1038 Laskin CJC said: ‘[The court] is entitled to protect its process from abuse’ and also referred to ‘the danger of generalizing the application of the doctrine of abuse of process’ (at 1041). In Moevao v Dept of Labour [1980] 1 NZLR 464 at 476 Woodhouse J spoke approvingly of ‘the much wider and more serious abuse of the criminal jurisdiction in general’, whereas Richmond P (at 471), giving expression to reservations about the view in which he had concurred in R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199, referred to the need to establish ‘that the process of the Court is itself being wrongly made use of’. I think that the words used by Woodhouse J involve a danger that the doctrine of abuse of process will be too widely applied and I prefer the narrower definition adopted by Richmond P. The question still remains: what circumstances antecedent to the trial will produce a situation in which the process of the court of trial will have been abused if the trial proceeds?
Whether the proposed trial will be an unfair trial is not the only test of abuse of process. The proof of a previous conviction or acquittal on the same charge means that it will be unfair to try the accused but not that he is about to receive an unfair trial. Again, in R v Grays Justices, ex p Low [1988] 3 All ER 834, [1990] 1 QB 54 it was held to be an abuse of process to prosecute a summons where the accused had already been bound over and the summons had been withdrawn, while in R v Horsham Justices, ex p Reeves (1980) 75 Cr App R 236 it was held to be an abuse of process to pursue charges when the magistrates had already found ‘no case to answer’. It would, I submit, be generally conceded that for the Crown to go back on a promise of immunity given to an accomplice who is willing to give evidence against his confederates would be unacceptable to the proposed court of trial, although the trial itself could be fairly conducted. And to proceed in respect of a non-extraditable offence against an accused who has with the connivance of our authorities been unlawfully brought within the jurisdiction from a country with which we have an extradition treaty need not involve an unfair trial, but this consideration would not in my opinion be an answer to an application to stay the proceedings on the ground of abuse of process.
This last example, though admittedly not based on authority, foreshadows my conclusion that a court would have power to stay the present proceedings against the appellant, assuming the facts alleged to be proved, because I consider that a court has a discretion to stay any criminal proceedings on the ground that to try those proceedings will amount to an abuse of its own process either (1) because it will be impossible (usually by reason of delay) to give the accused a fair trial or (2) because it offends the court’s sense of justice and propriety to be asked to try the accused in the circumstances of a particular case. I agree that prima facie it is the duty of a court to try a person who is charged before it with an offence which the court has power to try and therefore that the jurisdiction to stay must be exercised carefully and sparingly and only for very compelling reasons. The discretion to stay is not a disciplinary jurisdiction and ought not to be exercised in order to express the court’s disapproval of official conduct. Accordingly, if the prosecuting authorities have been guilty of culpable delay but the prospect of a fair trial has not been prejudiced, the court ought not to stay the proceedings merely ‘pour encourager les autres’.
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Your Lordships have comprehensively reviewed the authorities and therefore I will be content to highlight the features which have led me to conclude in favour of the appellant. The court in R v Bow Street Magistrates, ex p Mackeson (1981) 75 Cr App R 24, while quite clear that there was jurisdiction to try the applicant, relied on R v Hartley [1978] 2 NZLR 199 for the existence of a discretion to make an order of prohibition. Woodhouse J in R v Hartley (at 217) had also recognised the jurisdiction to try the accused Bennett, but expressed the court’s conclusion that to do so in the circumstances offended against ‘one of the most important principles of the rule of law’. The court’s decision in R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95 to the contrary effect was influenced by Ex p Scott (1829) 9 B & C 446, 109 ER 166, Sinclair v HM Advocate (1890) 17 R (J) 38 and R v O/C Depot Battalion RASC Colchester, ex p Elliott [1949] 1 All ER 373. Ex p Scott and Sinclair v HM Advocate were decisions on jurisdiction and formed the basis of the decision in Ex p Elliott, in which there was an application for a writ of habeas corpus, based on the allegation that the applicant was not subject to military law and that he was wrongfully held in custody. My noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths has described the argument advanced by the applicant and the manner in which Lord Goddard CJ dealt with that argument in the court’s judgment by reference to Ex p Scott and Sinclair v HM Advocate. Then, having disposed of an argument based on provisions of the Army Act … relating to arrest, Lord Goddard CJ came to ‘The only point in which there was any substance … whether there has been such delay that this court ought to interfere’ (see [1949] 1 All ER 373 at 379). Neither in the discussion and rejection of this point nor anywhere else in the judgment does the question of abuse of process arise and, as the judgment put it (at 379):
‘What we were asked to do in the present case, and the most we could have been asked to do, was to admit the prisoner to bail until the court was ready to try him.’
This brief review strengthens my inclination to prefer Ex p Mackeson to Ex p Driver and to the Divisional Court’s judgment on the main point in the present case, since I consider that the true guidance is to be found not in the jurisdictional cases but in R v Hartley. My noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths has already pointed out that the United States authorities, in which opinion is divided, have involved a discussion of jurisdiction and the interpretation of the Fourteenth Amendment.
While on the subject of due process, I might take note of a subsidiary argument by the respondents: the use by the prosecution of evidence which has been unlawfully or dishonestly obtained is regarded in the United States as a violation of due process (‘the fruit of the poisoned tree’), but the preponderant American view is in favour of trying accused persons even when their presence in court has been unlawfully obtained; therefore a fortiori the view in this jurisdiction ought to favour trying such accused persons, having regard to the more tolerant common law attitude here to unlawfully obtained evidence, as shown by R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402. My answer is that I would consider it a dangerous and question-begging process to rely on this chain of reasoning, particularly where the constitutional meaning of ‘due process’ is one of the factors. As your Lordships have noted, the respondents also relied on R v Sang directly in order to support the argument that it does not matter whether the accused comes to be within the jurisdiction by fair means or foul.
The philosophy which inspires the proposition that a court may stay proceedings brought against a person who has been unlawfully abducted in a
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foreign country is expressed, so far as existing authority is concerned, in the passages cited by my noble and learned friend Lord Bridge of Harwich. The view there expressed is that the court, in order to protect its own process from being degraded and misused, must have the power to stay proceedings which have come before it and have only been made possible by acts which offend the court’s conscience as being contrary to the rule of law. Those acts by providing a morally unacceptable foundation for the exercise of jurisdiction over the suspect taint the proposed trial and, if tolerated, will mean that the court’s process has been abused. Therefore, although the power of the court is rightly confined to its inherent power to protect itself against the abuse of its own process, I respectfully cannot agree that the facts relied on in cases such as the present case (as alleged) ‘have nothing to do with that process’ just because they are not part of the process. They are the indispensable foundation for the holding of the trial.
The implications for international law, as represented by extradition treaties, are significant. If a suspect is extradited from a foreign country to this country he cannot be tried for an offence which is different from that specified in the warrant and, subject always to the treaty’s express provisions, cannot be tried for a political offence. But, if he is kidnapped in the foreign country and brought here, he may be charged with any offence, including a political offence. If British officialdom at any level has participated in or encouraged the kidnapping, it seems to represent a grave contravention of international law, the comity of nations and the rule of law generally if our courts allow themselves to be used by the executive to try an offence which the courts would not be dealing with if the rule of law had prevailed.
It may be said that a guilty accused finding himself in the circumstances predicated is not deserving of much sympathy, but the principle involved goes beyond the scope of such a pragmatic observation and even beyond the rights of those victims who are or may be innocent. It affects the proper administration of justice according to the rule of law and with respect to international law. For a comparison of public and private interests in the criminal arena I refer to an observation of Lord Reading CJ in a different context in R v Lee Kun [1916] 1 KB 337 at 341, [1914-15] All ER Rep 603 at 605:
‘… the trial of a person for a criminal offence is not a contest of private interests in which the rights of parties can be waived at pleasure. The prosecution of criminals and the administration of the criminal law are matters which concern the State.’
If proceedings are stayed when wrongful conduct is proved, the result will not only be a sign of judicial disapproval but will discourage similar conduct in future and thus will tend to maintain the purity of the stream of justice. No ‘floodgates’ argument applies because the executive can stop the flood at source by refraining from impropriety.
I regard it as essential to the rule of law that the court should not have to make available its process and thereby indorse (on what I am confident will be a very few occasions) unworthy conduct when it is proved against the executive or its agents, however humble in rank. And, remembering that it is not jurisdiction which is in issue but the exercise of a discretion to stay proceedings, while speaking of ‘unworthy conduct’, I would not expect a court to stay the proceedings of every trial which has been preceded by a venial irregularity. If it be objected that my preferred solution replaces certainty by uncertainty, the latter quality is inseparable from judicial discretion. And, if the principles are clear and, as I trust, the cases few, the prospect is not really daunting. Nor do I consider that
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your Lordships ought to be deterred from deciding in favour of discretion by the difficulty, which may sometimes arise, of proving the necessary facts.
I would now pose and try to answer three questions.
(1) What is the position if without intervention by the British authorities a ‘wanted man’ is wrongfully transported from a foreign country to this jurisdiction? The court here is not concerned with irregularities abroad in which our executive (at any level) was not involved and the question of staying criminal proceedings, as proposed in a case like the present, does not arise. It seems to me, however, that in practice the transporting of a wanted man to the United Kingdom from elsewhere (by whatever method) will nearly always take place in consequence of a request by the executive here.
(2) Why should the court not stay for abuse of process if the accused has been wrongfully arrested in the United Kingdom (which is not alleged to have happened in the instant case)? A person wrongfully arrested here can seek release by applying for a writ of habeas corpus but, once released, can be lawfully arrested, charged and brought to trial. His earlier wrongful arrest is not essentially connected with his proposed trial and the proceedings against him will not be stayed as an abuse of process.
(3) If at common law the rule in R v Sang applies to let in admissible evidence obtained by wrongful conduct on the part of the executive, why does similar reasoning not prevail where the presence of the accused has been procured by wrongful conduct in which the executive is involved? R v Sang exemplifies a common law rule of evidence, as explained by the speeches in that case, which applied to all admissible evidence except confessions and certain evidence produced by confessions (as to which see Lam Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 172, [1991] 2 AC 212). The abuse of process which brings into play the discretion to stay proceedings arises from wrongful conduct by the executive in an international context. Secondly, although there is no discretion at common law to exclude evidence (except confession evidence) by reason of wrongful conduct, there is discretion to stay proceedings as an abuse of process (see Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254) and the alleged facts of the instant case are but one example of the need for that discretion.
It has been suggested that, since the executive conduct complained of invades the rights of other countries and of persons under their protection and detracts from international comity, the remedy lies not with the courts but in the field of diplomacy. I would answer that the court must jealously protect its own process from misuse by the executive and that this necessity gives particular point to the observation of Lord Devlin (which my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths has already noted) in Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401 at 442, [1964] AC 1254 at 1354:
‘The courts cannot contemplate for a moment the transference to the executive of the responsibility for seeing that the process of law is not abused.’
I now turn to the question of procedure. The appellant, having been committed for trial, applied for an order of certiorari to quash the order for committal on the ground that the magistrates refused to adjourn the committal proceedings ‘to enable the point of abuse of process to be argued’, presumably in the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division. Although I feel obliged to consider the procedure which was followed in this case and that which must follow from the conclusion of the majority of your Lordships, I preface my remarks by saying that I agree with the answer to the certified question, and also with the order, which my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths has proposed.
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In Ex p Mackeson (1981) 75 Cr App R 24 the applicant applied to the Divisional Court before the day fixed for the committal proceedings for an order of certiorari quashing the charges against him and prohibiting the magistrates from proceeding with the committal proceedings. The Divisional Court, having held that there was jurisdiction to stay the proceedings as an abuse of process, granted prohibition. In R v Guildford Magistrates’ Court, ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108, another case of alleged ‘disguised extradition’, the single lay justice hearing the committal proceedings was invited to decide the abuse of process point and to stay the proceedings. After a five-day hearing she decided the point against the accused, who then applied for an order of certiorari. I have difficulty in seeing how the magistrate’s decision on a question of fact could have been attacked by certiorari but in any event the Divisional Court rejected the application on the merits. So the committal stood. In his judgment Griffiths LJ, as my noble and learned friend then was, said (at 111–112):
‘This court considers that it was wrong to invite a single lay justice to consider a matter such as this. Whether or not there has been an abuse of process of the sort raised in these proceedings is a matter far more fitting to be inquired into by the Queen’s Bench Divisional Court than by a single justice. If a point such as this is to be taken in future it should be taken in the form in which it was in Reg. v. Bow Street Magistrates, Ex parte Mackeson; that is, there should be an objection to the justice hearing the committal and the matter should be pursued before the Divisional Court by way of an application for judicial review seeking an order of prohibition. That is not to say that we have any criticism whatsoever of the way in which the justice approached her task in this case. Both the defence and the prosecution asked her to decide the question; she clearly went into it with the greatest care and we are quite unable to find any fault or criticism with any of the conclusions of fact at which she arrived. In the opinion of this court, having been asked to undertake a task which we do not think was appropriate for a single lay justice, she discharged her duties quite admirably … Accordingly, I have come to the conclusion that there is no merit or substance in this application and it will be refused. As I say, if this question is to be raised in further cases the proper procedure is to use that in Reg. v. Bow Street Magistrates, Ex parte Mackeson, so that the Divisional Court may be seised of the matter, and not bring it up before a lay justice on committal proceedings. However, we anticipate that cases of this nature are likely to be very rare.’
McCullough J, concurring, said (at 113):
‘Whether this was an application properly made to the justice or whether it was one that should properly have been made in the first place to the Divisional Court, I am in no doubt that no order of certiorari should go. Despite the admirable way in which this justice dealt with the matter, I share the concern of Griffiths L.J. that a single lay justice should be asked to grapple with questions of this kind. It is better I think that the question should be dealt with as in Reg. v. Bow Street Magistrates, Ex parte Mackeson, even although such a course may leave one wondering precisely how a justice in such circumstances can be said to have acted in excess of jurisdiction or made an error of law.’
In R v Plymouth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95 the applicant sought prohibition in accordance with the Mackeson procedure, as
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recommended in Ex p Healy, but the order sought was refused on the ground that there was no jurisdiction to stay for the reasons relied on.
The Driver doctrine therefore held sway when the present case came before the magistrates with a view to committal. Accordingly, it is understandable that the magistrates rejected the request of the accused to adjourn while he made a Mackeson application and instead proceeded to commit him for trial.
My Lords, I am satisfied that, on the facts found in Ex p Mackeson, it was both lawful and appropriate to make an order of prohibition directed to the magistrates’ court. While that court had jurisdiction to entertain committal proceedings, the High Court decided that to permit the criminal proceedings against the accused to continue would be an abuse of process of the court (of trial); it would therefore be equally an abuse of process to permit proceedings in the magistrates’ court to be conducted (or, once embarked on, continued) with a view to committing the accused to the Crown Court for trial, which would be oppressive to the accused and a waste of the court’s time. A parallel is found in the order made in R v Telford Justices, ex p Badhan [1991] 2 All ER 854, [1991] 2 QB 78, where the Divisional Court prohibited the magistrates from further hearing committal proceedings on the ground that, by reason of the prejudice caused by delay, to proceed against the accused would amount to an abuse of process. In my view the fact that the decision and order are made by the High Court, although the Crown Court is the proposed court of trial, makes no difference. It is the function of the High Court to exercise supervisory jurisdiction over inferior courts, including the magistrates’ court. It is, moreover noteworthy that the function of directing or giving consent to preferment of a ‘voluntary’ bill of indictment can only be performed by a High Court judge in England and Wales (or by the direction of the Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal): see the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, s 2(2), which continues in force unamended since the transfer of criminal jurisdiction on indictment to the Crown Court in 1971. What I have said is not of course intended to detract from the power of the court of trial itself, as the primary forum, to stay proceedings as an abuse of process, but the convenience of staying the proceedings at an earlier stage is obvious, when that can properly be done.
Short of allowing the proceedings to reach the Crown Court, the merit of having the case considered by the High Court in preference to the examining magistrate or magistrates is clear. In any event, notwithstanding dicta to the contrary, I would, on the authority of Grassby v R (1989) 168 CLR 1, a decision of the High Court of Australia, and of cases there cited (to which I shall presently refer), not be easily persuaded that examining magistrates have jurisdiction to stay committal proceedings for abuse of process. (I say nothing about the power of magistrates when sitting to try a case as a court of summary jurisdiction, as in Mills v Cooper [1967] 2 All ER 100, [1967] 2 QB 459.)
My Lords, as I have said, the remedy sought is an order of certiorari. I prefer to consider that remedy according to the conventional, perhaps now ‘old-fashioned’, principles enunciated in R (Martin) v Mahony [1910] 2 IR 695, R v Nat Bell Liquors Ltd [1922] 2 AC 128, [1922] All ER Rep 335 and R v Northumberland Compensation Appeal Tribunal, ex p Shaw [1952] 1 All ER 122, [1952] 1 KB 338, without seeking to justify the making of an order in this case by reference to more recent views, including views based on dicta uttered in this House. As I see it, the magistrates here, understandably but erroneously relying on Ex p Driver [1985] 2 All ER 681, [1986] QB 95, acted prematurely and therefore without jurisdiction when they proceeded to hear and determine the committal proceedings without first allowing the appellant to make to the Divisional Court an application which
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(subject to Ex p Driver) was on its face at least worthy of consideration. Having, however innocently, neglected an essential preliminary step (namely the adjournment decreed by Ex p Healy [1983] 1 WLR 108), the magistrates incurred the liability to have their order of committal quashed. For an example of proceedings in which a condition precedent to jurisdiction was omitted I refer to McC v Mullan [1984] 3 All ER 908, [1985] AC 528. I would be in favour of remitting the case to the Divisional Court to reconsider it in the light of your Lordships’ opinions, since one alternative would be to refuse an order of certiorari because an application to stay the proceedings can perfectly well be made to the court of trial, and the decision (relating to trial on indictment) would not, it seems, be reviewable: DPP v Crown Court at Manchester and Ashton [1993] 2 All ER 663, [1993] 2 WLR 846. The other, and perhaps more convenient, course would be for the Divisional Court now to hear the application for a stay. If that were decided in favour of the appellant, the court could make an order of certiorari and such other order, if any, as might be needed to prevent the proceedings in the magistrates’ court from going ahead. It seems to me that, by analogy with proceedings which are terminated by reason of irregular extradition procedures, the appellant, if he succeeds, would have to be given an opportunity to ‘escape’ but, subject to that, I can see nothing to prevent him from being properly pursued in the future, for example by ad hoc extradition under s 15.
Since the resolution of the point is not essential to your Lordships’ decision of the appeal, I shall be brief in my discussion of whether the examining magistrates can stay committal proceedings as an abuse of process.
In Grassby v R (1989) 168 CLR 1 the accused was charged with criminal defamation and the examining magistrate stayed the committal proceedings on the ground of abuse of process. The Crown appealed to the Court of Criminal Appeal of New South Wales, which set aside the stay. The accused sought special leave to appeal from that decision. The High Court granted special leave but dismissed the appeal (which involved another point, namely the refusal of a member of the Court of Criminal Appeal to disqualify himself). Dawson J delivered the leading judgment, holding that a committing magistrate has no power to stay the proceedings as an abuse of process. All the other members of the court, presided over by Mason CJ, agreed except Deane J, who considered that, if the magistrate concluded (in the words of the Justices Act 1902 (NSW)) that ‘a jury would not be likely to convict’ because the trial court was likely to stay the proceedings for abuse of process, he should then discharge the accused. The judge, however, agreed in the result on the facts and his dissent was based only on his interpretation of s 41(6) of the Justices Act.
Dawson J said that the magistrate’s power to stay for abuse of process ‘has been denied upon the highest authority in the United Kingdom’ (see 168 CLR 1 at 10). He referred to Connelly v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 401, [1964] AC 1254 and continued:
‘See also Mills v. Cooper ([1967] 2 All ER 100 at 104, [1967] 2 QB 459 at 467), per Lord Parker C.J. Whether such comments were correct in relation to inferior courts exercising ordinary judicial functions has been doubted (see Reg. v. Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1), per Viscount Dilhorne, per Lord Salmon; to the contrary Reg. v. West London Stipendiary Magistrate; Ex parte Anderson ((1984) 80 Cr App R 143 at 149), but it is clear that they do not extend to a magistrate hearing committal proceedings. In Atkinson v. Government of the United States of America [1969] 3 All ER 1317 at 1321–1322, [1971] AC 197 at 231–232 Lord Reid (with whom Lords MacDermott and Guest agreed) said: “The question is whether, if there is evidence sufficient to justify committal, the magistrate can refuse to commit on any other
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ground such as that committal would be oppressive or contrary to natural justice. The appellant argues that every court in England has power to refuse to allow a criminal case to proceed if it appears that justice so requires. 'The appellant argues that this was established, if it had been in doubt, by the decision of this House in Connelly v. Director of Public Prosecutions … Whatever may be the proper interpretation of the speeches in Connelly’s case with regard to the extent of the power of a trial judge to stop a case, I cannot regard this case as any authority for the proposition that magistrates have power to refuse to commit an accused for trial on the ground that it would be unjust or oppressive to require him to be tried. And that proposition has no support in practice or in principle. In my view once a magistrate decides that there is sufficient evidence to justify committal he must commit the accused for trial.” ’
In Sinclair v DPP [1991] 2 All ER 366 at 375, [1991] 2 AC 64 at 78, another extradition case, Lord Ackner in his illuminating speech pointed out that Lord Reid’s view of the magistrate’s power to refuse to commit for trial by reason of abuse of process was obiter. None the less a view expressed by such a high authority commends respect, and Lord Reid was making his point as an integral link in his argument, to show that in extradition proceedings a magistrate has no such power.
Dawson J observed that it has been consistently held that committal proceedings do not constitute a judicial inquiry but are conducted in the exercise of a judicial or ministerial function. Citing seven Australian cases, he continued (168 CLR 1 at 11–12):
‘The explanation is largely to be found in history. A magistrate in conducting committal proceedings is exercising the powers of a justice of the peace. Justices originally acted, in the absence of an organised police force, in the apprehension and arrest of suspected offenders. Following the Statutes of Philip and Mary of 1554 and 1555 [1 & 2 Ph & M c 13, 2 & 3 Ph & M c 10], they were required to act upon information and to examine both the accused and the witnesses against him. The inquiry was conducted in secret and one of its main purposes was to obtain evidence to present to a grand jury. The role of the justices was thus inquisitorial and of a purely administrative nature. It was the grand jury, not the justices, who determined whether the accused should stand trial. With the establishment of an organized police force in England in 1829, the role of the justices underwent change. The most significant factor in this change was in The Indictable Offences Act 1848 (U.K.) [11 & 12 Vict c 42], “Sir John Jervis’ Act”, which provided for witnesses appearing before the justices to be examined in the presence of the accused and to be cross-examined by the accused or his counsel.’
After an interesting and valuable historical review the judge said (at 15–16):
‘The fact that a magistrate sits as a court and is under a duty to act fairly does not, however, carry with it any inherent power. Indeed, in my view, the nature of a magistrate’s court is such that it has no powers which might properly be described as inherent even when it is exercising judicial functions. A fortiori that must be the case when its functions are of an administrative character. In Reg. v. Forbes; Ex parte Bevan((1972) 127 CLR 1 at 7), Menzies J. pointed out that: “ ‘Inherent jurisdiction’ is the power which a court has simply because it is a court of a particular description. Thus the
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Courts of Common Law without the aid of any authorizing provision had inherent jurisdiction to prevent abuse of their process and to punish for contempt. Inherent jurisdiction is not something derived by implication from statutory provisions conferring particular jurisdiction; if such a provision is to be considered as conferring more than is actually expressed that further jurisdiction is conferred by implication according to accepted standards of statutory construction and it would be inaccurate to describe it as ‘inherent jurisdiction’, which, as the name indicates, requires no authorizing provision. Courts of unlimited jurisdiction have ‘inherent jurisdiction’.” ‘
Then, having emphasised the distinction between inherent jurisdiction and jurisdiction by implication, Dawson J observed (at 17–18):
‘The fact that in the conduct of committal proceedings a magistrate is performing a ministerial or administrative function is, of course, no bar to the existence of implied powers, if such are necessary for the effective exercise of the powers which are expressly conferred upon him. The latter are now to be found in s. 41 of the Justices Act. But the scheme of that section, far from requiring the implication of a general power to stay proceedings, is such as to impose an obligation upon the magistrate to dispose of the information which brings the defendant before him by discharging the defendant as to it or by committing him for trial.’
Having referred to s 41 of the Justices Act, Dawson J then said (at 18):
‘There is no room in the face of these statutory obligations, couched as they are in mandatory terms, for the implication of a discretionary power to terminate the proceedings in a manner other than that provided. Nor is this surprising. True it is that a person committed for trial is exposed to trial in a way in which he would otherwise not be, but the ultimate determination whether he does in fact stand trial does not rest with the magistrate. The power to order a stay where there is an abuse of the process of the trial court is not to be found in the committing magistrate and the considerations which would guide the exercise of that power have little relevance to the function which the magistrate is required to perform.’
It would, of course, be convenient (as well as correct, in my view) if the examining magistrates could not stay for abuse of process, because judicial review of a decision to stay would be a most inadequate remedy if the real ground of review was simply that the magistrates had erred in their exercise of discretion. Moreover, their decision would not bind the court of trial if the Attorney General were to prefer a voluntary bill.
For the reasons already mentioned and also for the reasons given by my noble and learned friends I would allow the appeal.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches prepared by my noble and learned friends Lord Griffiths, Lord Bridge of Harwich and Lord Oliver of Aylmerton. Despite the powerful reasons adverted to by Lord Oliver of Aylmerton I agree with Lord Griffiths that the question should be answered in the way he proposes. It does not seem to me to be right in principle that, when a person is brought within the jurisdiction in the way alleged in this case (which for present purposes must be assumed to be true) and charged, the court should not be competent to investigate the illegality
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alleged, and if satisfied as to the illegality to refuse to proceed to trial. I would accordingly allow the appeal.
Appeal allowed. Case remitted to Divisional Court for further consideration.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Ealing District Health Authority, ex parte Fox
[1993] 3 All ER 170
Categories: HEALTH; Mental Health
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (CROWN OFFICE LIST)
Lord(s): OTTON J
Hearing Date(s): 2 APRIL, 11 JUNE 1992
Mental health – Mental health review tribunal – Discharge of restricted patient – Discharge – Decision directing conditional discharge of restricted patient – Direction subject to arrangements being made for support of patient – District health authority declining to supply psychiatric supervision for patient – Whether health authority under duty to supply psychiatric supervision for patient if released into community – Mental Health Act 1983, s 117.
In 1988 the applicant was ordered to be detained at a secure hospital pursuant to ss 37 and 41 of the Mental Health Act 1983 following his conviction for inflicting grievous bodily harm and possession of a firearm. In July 1991 a mental health review tribunal directed that the applicant be conditionally discharged, the discharge to be deferred until the tribunal was satisfied that certain conditions could be met, including the provision of appropriate after-care services and supervision by a responsible medical officer. The respondent district health authority, which was under a duty under s 117a of the Mental Health Act 1983 to provide after-care services for the applicant if he was released, was unable to designate a responsible medical officer for the applicant because both the head of the authority’s regional secure unit and the authority’s consultant psychiatrist declined to accept the responsibility. Both doctors considered that the applicant’s condition had deteriorated since the tribunal’s decision and were pessimistic about the extent to which he was capable of progress outside the hospital and one of the doctors expressed the view that if the applicant became an outpatient there was a substantial risk of his committing a violent offence. In those circumstances the authority declined to appoint a responsible medical officer and the applicant was forced to remain in the secure hospital. He applied for judicial review of the authority’s refusal to provide psychiatric supervision in the community for him.
Held – A district health authority was under a mandatory duty under s 117 of the 1983 Act to provide after-care services for any person to whom the section applied and was therefore under a duty to make practical arrangements for after-care prior to a patient’s discharge from hospital where such arrangements were required by a mental health review tribunal in order to enable the patient to be conditionally discharged from hospital. Since s 117 clearly applied to the
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applicant, as he was a person admitted to a hospital pursuant to an order made under s 37 and therefore fell within s 117(1), the respondent district health authority owed a specific duty to the applicant to provide him with after-care services until he was no longer in need of such services. Such a duty could also be spelt out from the general statutory framework which require district health authorities to provide a comprehensive range of hospital and community psychiatric services, including appropriate services to meet the needs of mentally disordered offenders. The mere acceptance by the health authority of its doctors’ opinions was not of itself a sufficient discharge of the authority’s obligations to give effect to the arrangements specified and required by the mental health review tribunal, since if the authority’s doctors did not agree with the conditions imposed by the tribunal and were disinclined to make the necessary arrangements to supervise the applicant on his release, the authority remained under a continuing obligation to make further endeavours to provide arrangements within its own resources or to obtain them from other health authorities which provided such services or, if such arrangements still could not be made, to refer the matter to the Secretary of State to enable him to exercise his power to refer the case back to the mental health review tribunal. The respondent authority had erred in law in that it had not fulfilled its obligations, it was in breach of its duty arising from the decision of the mental health review tribunal and its decision not to take further steps was unreasonable. The application for judicial review would therefore be granted (see p 181g to p 182a, cd, f to h, p 183cd, g to j, post).
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Oxford Regional Mental Health Review Tribunal [1987] 3 All ER 8 considered.
NotesFor the discharge from hospital of restricted patients, see Supplement to 30 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1201A.
For the Mental Health Act 1983, s 117, see 28 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 752.
Cases referred to in judgmentSecretary of State for the Home Dept v Oxford Regional Mental Health Review Tribunal [1987] 3 All ER 8, [1988] AC 120, [1987] 3 WLR 522, HL.
Southwark London Borough v Williams [1971] 2 All ER 175, [1971] Ch 734, [1971] 2 WLR 467, CA.
Wyatt v Hillingdon London BC (1978) 76 LGR 727, CA.
Application for judicial reviewColin Arthur Fox applied, with the leave of Brooke J given on 18 February 1992, for judicial review by way of, inter alia, (i) a declaration that the Ealing District Health Authority had erred in law in refusing to provide psychiatric supervision in the community for the applicant following his conditional discharge by the Oxford Mental Health Review Tribunal on 18 July 1991 from detention in Broadmoor Hospital, (ii) an order of certiorari to quash the health authority’s decision not to provide psychiatric supervision and (iii) an order of mandamus to compel the authority to provide psychiatric supervision. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Richard Gordon (instructed by Lucy Scott-Moncrief, Brighton) for the applicant.
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Nicholas Vineall (instructed by Merriman White, Guildford) for the health authority.
Cur adv vult
11 June 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
OTTON J. This is an application for judicial review of the decision of the Ealing District Health Authority contained in a letter dated 13 November 1991, refusing to supply psychiatric supervision in the community for the applicant. The applicant, Colin Arthur Fox, is a patient detained at Broadmoor Hospital, Crowthorne, Berkshire, pursuant to ss 37 and 41 of the Mental Health Act 1983.
The applicant’s situation was reviewed by the Oxford Mental Health Review Tribunal (the tribunal) on 18 July 1991. Their decision was as follows:
‘The Tribunal ... directs that the patient be conditionally discharged, but that such discharge be deferred until the Tribunal is satisfied that [certain] conditions can be met.’
The tribunal in reaching its decision expressly stated that they considered that any delay in discharging the applicant would cause greater problems in his rehabilitation. However, when the matter was considered by the Ealing District Health Authority (the respondent) it concluded in its decision letter that instead the applicant should be supervised for at least 18 months in a regional secure unit rather than in the community following the conditional discharge by the tribunal. In the event, the appellant is still in Broadmoor against his will.
The case therefore raises a question of principle, namely where a patient who is detained in Broadmoor and the mental health review tribunal is prepared to grant a conditional discharge but the relevant health authority is unable or unwilling to make available care in the community for reasons other than lack of resources, whether the patient is obliged to remain under maximum security.
History
On 21 October 1988 the applicant appeared at the Central Criminal Court where he was convicted of inflicting grievous bodily harm with intent, contrary to s 18 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861, and possession of a firearm with intent to commit an indictable offence. These offences arose out of a single incident when he shot the ex-husband of his girlfriend. When sentencing, the learned judge, on being satisfied that he was suffering from mental illness and psychopathic disorder, made a hospital order specifying Broadmoor under s 37 of the Mental Health Act 1983 and a restriction order without limit of time under s 41 of the same Act.
In April 1990 the applicant’s case was considered by the tribunal. Their conclusion was that Mr Fox was not well enough to be discharged or recommended for transfer but note was made of the progress he had made in the preceding months, and the opinion was expressed that it would be ‘realistic to consider transfer to an RSU [a regional secure unit] in the foreseeable future’.
The North West Thames Regional Health Authority Forensic Psychiatry Service runs a regional secure unit at the St Bernard’s wing of Ealing Hospital providing psychiatric care in the Ealing area for which the respondent district health authority is the responsible body. The applicant’s home is in Acton, London W3. Accordingly, his solicitor in late 1990 approached Dr Dolan, a consultant forensic psychiatrist and head of the regional secure unit. Dr Dolan
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visited Mr Fox on 19 November in Broadmoor and subsequently prepared a report dated 5 December 1990 in which he stated as follows:
‘In summary, I was impressed by the improvement he has made in Broadmoor over the last eighteen months. He is fully compliant with treatment, is beginning to benefit from it and has been involved in quite a wide range of activities ... I would, at present, be prepared to consider his transfer to the Regional Secure Unit at St. Bernard’s Hospital under my care for a period of trial leave, and given his present enthusiasm for involvement in a programme of activities, both psychotherapeutic and practical, I would expect that he would be able to cope without too much difficulty with the move.’
On 21 March 1991 Dr Hamilton, the consultant forensic psychiatrist and superintendent at Broadmoor Hospital, also reported and concluded:
‘If Mr. Fox can regain the level of stability which he was showing in the latter months of 1990, perhaps aided by his contributing to this new group therapeutic undertaking on the ward, the anticipated request for Home Office and SHSA agreement for a period of trial leave at Dr. Dolan’s Unit may then reasonably be expected to follow.’
The Oxford Mental Health Review Tribunal were to consider Mr Fox’s case on 18 July 1991. In final preparation Dr Dolan visited Mr Fox at Broadmoor on 12 July 1991 and prepared a further report for Mr Fox’s solicitors on 16 July. However, in this report Dr Dolan expressed the view that he felt much less optimistic about Mr Fox. He said as follows:
‘[I] feel much less optimistic about him than I had then in my earlier report. He seemed, if anything, less insightful than he had previously been and, given any opportunity, I could see him bringing about a repetition of the entangled web of relationships which had proved so stressful for him in the past ... I found it more difficult to see what benefit there might be in transferring him to the Regional Secure Unit where a programme of rehabilitation might prove to be even more difficult to implement. I wondered if, perhaps, I had previously underestimated the extent to which his mental handicap contributes to his difficulties and would very much like to seek the opinion of my colleague ... before making a further decision about things at this stage.’
On 18 July, two days later, Miss Lucy Scott-Moncrieff, a solicitor instructed on behalf of the applicant, appeared before the mental health review tribunal. She did not place either of Dr Dolan’s reports before the tribunal. As she states in her affidavit:
‘If I had attempted to put the report before the Tribunal they would have adjourned to give the Home Office an opportunity to comment. As Dr. Dolan’s views on discharge were the same as Dr. Hamilton’s there seemed little point in adjourning the proceedings for Home Office comment. I did not put the earlier report of 5th December before the Tribunal because it would have been inappropriate to put an earlier report in when the views expressed in that report had altered ... Although I did not place the reports before the Tribunal I did inform the Tribunal of the views expressed by Dr. Dolan both in his earlier and in his later reports. The Tribunal were aware that there was no prospect of Mr. Fox being offered a place at the RSU in the
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foreseeable future and their decision to order a deferred conditional discharge was made in that knowledge.’
I of course accept what Miss Scott-Moncrieff has deposed to. One can only speculate, however, what the tribunal’s decision would have been had they seen Dr Dolan’s two reports and any observations the Home Office might have made had they been made aware of the change in Dr Dolan’s views.
In the event, the relevant part of the decision of the tribunal was expressed as follows:
‘Part II. The Tribunal has considered the application relating to the above-named and hereby directs that the patient be conditionally discharged, but that such discharge be deferred until the Tribunal is satisfied that the following conditions can be met. 1. That the patient lives with his wife and family in the family home at 3 Lister Close, Leamington Park, Acton, London W3, unless and until Social Services determine that another address is more appropriate. 2. That there be put into effect a good network of support from the Social Services and that a named social worker be assigned to the patient. 3. That the patient shall refrain from the taking of illicit drugs and submit to regular tests ... The RMO [responsible medical officer] to decide on the frequency and occasions of the administration of such tests. 4. That he attends the designated hospital as and when required for the purposes of seeing the RMO as and when required. 5. The patient shall comply with the instructions of the RMO as to the taking of any medication.
Part III. The reasons for the decision of the Tribunal are as follows: The Tribunal is satisfied that the patient is not now suffering from mental illness and psychopathic disorder of a nature or degree which makes it appropriate for him to be liable to be detained in a hospital for medical treatment, either for his own health and safety or for the protection of other persons, but that it is appropriate that he should remain liable to recall. The Tribunal is satisfied about these reasons because: The patient has made good progress and the Tribunal takes the view that the time has arrived for the patient’s rehabilitation subject to considerable and close support from social services. The Tribunal takes the view that any delay in discharging this patient will cause problems in his rehabilitation.’
Thus the order could have no effect until the conditions are met. In order to comply with the conditions, the applicant would require the services of a responsible medical officer. The tribunal did not seek to obtain the views or agreement of any doctor who might become the responsible medical officer to the course of action which the tribunal contemplated. If they had, and in the light of subsequent events, it is to be doubted whether they would have taken the course that they did or on the date that they did.
There were two possible situations in which a responsible medical officer could become responsible for the applicant. First, if he became an out-patient at the regional secure unit or, second, if he became the responsibility of the consultant psychiatrist in the area in which he was to reside.
Following the decision of the tribunal, Dr Dolan was asked by Dr Hamilton at Broadmoor to consider whether or not he would be willing to supervise Mr Fox. Dr Dolan declined to do so and the reasons for his decision are set out in his letter of 13 September 1991 in which he concluded:
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‘I remain ... pessimistic about the extent to which he is capable of progress outside hospital. I can only properly agree to accept the role of medical supervisor in cases where I feel the patient is amenable to continuing supervision. In Mr. Fox’s case, I do not have this confidence and it would be wrong of me to give the appearance that I have and accept the responsibility of supervising him when I feel it to be impossible.’
Dr Dolan’s colleagues at the regional secure unit, namely, Dr Treasaden and Dr Cordess, were of the same view. Thus the first of the responsible medical officer alternatives was closed.
Dr Ahmed Farah is the consultant psychiatrist for the area in which it was the applicant’s intention to live. In his affidavit he states:
‘In ... October 1991 I was approached by Dr. Ian Treasaden ... who asked me to consider whether I would supervise Mr. Fox as an out-patient. I was given a copy of the decision of the Oxford Mental Health Tribunal’s decision ... I first saw Mr. Fox at Broadmoor on 13 November 1991 and subsequently prepared a report on 18 November ... It is important to note that at no time prior to being requested to make the report was I consulted by the Oxford Mental Health Review Tribunal as to my views on taking responsibility for the applicant. Furthermore at no time prior to the Tribunal hearing of July last year was I requested to visit the applicant in Broadmoor to make any assessment. ...
4. In reaching my conclusions I bore in mind and gave considerable weight to the decision of the Mental Health Review Tribunal. I also gave weight to the report of Dr. Dolan dated 16 July 1991 which I am informed had not been before the MHRT ... When making my report I had complete access to all files, notes, and reports which were in the possession of Broadmoor Hospital …
6. I formed the view that if Mr. Fox were to move directly from Broadmoor to be under my supervision as an outpatient there would be a substantial risk of his committing a violent offence. I stress that I formed the view that there was a substantial risk, not a mere possibility, that he would commit a violent offence. I appreciate that I did not express that fear explicitly in the report: I was not explicit because I considered that it would be unhelpful if Mr. Fox were to discover that that was the view I had formed.
7. In the light of the view I had formed of Mr. Fox’s psychiatric condition my conclusion was that it would be wholly inappropriate for me to offer my services as Responsible Medical Officer for Mr. Fox if he were to return to his home. I consider that in deciding whether to accept responsibility for a patient such as Mr. Fox I must consider both the best interests of that patient and the interests of the whole of the community in which he would be supervised. In my view the interests of neither would have been served by my offering to supervise Mr. Fox.’
Dr Farah immediately conveyed his views to Miss Pauline Forde, the general manager of Ealing District Health Authority, who, on 13 November 1991, wrote to Dr Hamilton as follows:
‘Dr. Farah attended Broadmoor Hospital today to see Colin Fox. On his return to Ealing Mental Health Unit Dr. Farah has indicated his agreement with Dr. Dolan that Mr. Fox is very likely to re-offend if not carefully supervised on his return to the community. Dr. Farah was of the opinion that Mr. Fox could not be supervised in the community service at the
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moment. However he does feel that if Mr. Fox received reasonable secure unit provision and supervision for at least 18 months his prediction would be that the RMO for Acton would be able to undertake his care in the community. If however RSU supervision was not possible, Dr. Farah felt that Mr. Fox should remain at Broadmoor for the time being ... Dr. Farah’s full medical report will be sent to you shortly.’
Thus the second route was closed to the applicant. It is against this decision that the applicant seeks judicial review.
The rest of the events can be stated briefly. The doctors were pressed to change their mind. Miss Forde frankly states:
‘I, in my capacity as General Manager, was conscious of the fact that if no supervision was made available for Mr. Fox by the respondent Health Authority then he would be unable to comply with the terms upon which his conditional discharge depended. Dr. Dolan was pressed by Dr P Jefferys, then Consultant in Priority Services for North West Thames Regional Health Authority, to see whether he might not change his mind and supervise Mr. Fox.’
As is apparent from the exchange of correspondence, Dr Dolan was still not prepared to supervise Mr Fox. Dr Treasaden remained of the same view.
However, Dr Hamilton had not given up hope. In a letter dated 16 December 1991 he stated:
‘It is thus my impression that Mr Fox has overall made sufficient progress in Broadmoor to make the possibility of his transfer from conditions of maximum security both realistic and appropriate, and that he is unlikely to make much further progress beyond this point. He may well in due course re-offend in some way but the probability of responding to crisis with a repetition of the degree of violence of his index offence is, I feel, now low. In contrast there is an inevitability about the demands he will continue to make on psychiatric services, probably with his presenting with depressive and anxiety symptoms and threats of self-harm in a setting of relationship difficulties. At such times his conduct as an outpatient with a psychiatrist who knows him and can offer reassurance, support, and possibly brief pharmacological treatment or crisis admission would be of value. He is, in this sense, in my view, amenable to supervision in the community ... I continue to hold the view that a period spent in a Regional Secure Unit could have a valuable buffer function in helping Mr. Fox to reacquaint himself gradually with his family life and with the community ... the most appropriate next step for him at this point would still, in my view, be his transfer to conditions of lesser security. If this avenue is not open to him, I can conclude only that efforts must continue to bring about his psychiatric supervision in the community in conjunction with as much social services involvement as he and his family can be offered. Such a network of support would, I am sure, be essential to minimise the risk of an early crisis developing, and his absolute discharge from his present sections of the [Mental Health Act] is not recommended.’
Dr O V Briscoe is a consultant psychiatrist at Kings College Hospital, London. He was instructed on the applicant’s behalf by Miss Scott-Moncrieff. He interviewed Mr Fox at Broadmoor Hospital on 17 February 1992. He diagnosed
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that the applicant is still suffering from a psychopathic disorder, but that there are no signs of mental illness. Under the heading ‘Out-patient Supervision’ he stated:
‘While I would not recommend him to be discharged home immediately, I would be willing to see him as an out-patient privately but I would not be able to take responsibility for how the supervision might turn out. First of all he and his wife will live in the Acton area which is the other side of London and across the river from where I would be seeing Mr. Fox in my rooms. So that any sudden psychiatric or criminal breakdown would have to be dealt with by someone else near where Mr. Fox was living. When the time came for Mr. Fox to be supervised as an out-patient, I think the following steps would have to be taken prior to the out-patient supervision starting.’
He then sets them out. Later, under the heading ‘Recommendations’, he states:
‘I think that further such careful thought has to be given before Mr. Fox is discharged, even conditionally, into the community. It is generally agreed, I think, by those to whom I have talked that he does not require to be in Broadmoor at the present time. That is not to say he does not seem likely to benefit from some interim measure which need not be very long perhaps, not more than 6 months, before he is discharged home.’
Having referred to the conditions and difficulties, he goes on to say:
‘If the psychiatrist concerned, lived and worked on the other side of London he could do little to intervene immediately in any practical way so that local arrangements would have to be made of the kind outlined above. I am not seeking to put difficulties in the way of out-patient supervision. I am willing to do what I can to help but I think the limitations must be understood and I think it will be more effective if it were preceded by some interim hospital admission.’
The mental health review tribunal was due to reconsider Mr Fox’s case on 12 March 1992. For reasons not entirely clear, Mr Fox (or his solicitors) cancelled the hearing. I am bound to say that if ever there was a case where a meeting or consultation between all interested parties, including the Home Office, might have resolved the impasse, it was this. Instead, the applicant applied for leave to move for judicial review which was granted on 18 February 1992.
The statutory background
The Mental Health Act 1983 contains a statutory regime for the detention of mentally disordered patients.
The court, when sentencing, exercised its power to detain under s 37 and to restrict discharge from hospital under s 41 (which I need not set out). The discharge of such patients is vested either in the Secretary of State or the mental health review tribunal. Section 42 sets out the powers of the Secretary of State in respect of patients subject to restriction orders. It provides:
‘(1) If the Secretary of State is satisfied that in the case of any patient a restriction order is no longer required for the protection of the public from serious harm, he may direct that the patient shall cease to be subject to the special restrictions set out in section 41(3) above; and where the Secretary of
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State so directs, the restriction order shall cease to have effect, and section 41(5) above shall apply accordingly.
(2) At any time while a restriction order is in force in respect of a patient, the Secretary of State may, if he thinks fit, by warrant discharge the patient from hospital, either absolutely or subject to conditions; and where a person is absolutely discharged under this subsection, he shall thereupon cease to be liable to be detained by virtue of the relevant hospital order, and the restriction order shall cease to have effect accordingly …’
Section 71 concerns references by the Secretary of State of restricted patients. Subsection (1) provides: ‘The Secretary of State may at any time refer the case of a restricted patient to a Mental Health Review Tribunal …' The rest of the section is not relevant.
Section 72 is concerned with the powers of tribunals in relation to discharge of patients. Subsection (1) provides:
‘Where application is made to a Mental Health Review Tribunal by or in respect of a patient who is liable to be detained under this Act, the tribunal may in any case direct that the patient be discharged, and—(a) the tribunal shall direct the discharge of a patient liable to be detained under section 2 above if they are satisfied—(i) that he is not then suffering from mental disorder or from mental disorder of a nature or degree which warrants his detention in a hospital for assessment (or for assessment followed by medical treatment) for at least a limited period; or (ii) that his detention as aforesaid is not justified in the interests of his own health or safety or with a view to the protection of other persons; (b) the tribunal shall direct the discharge of a patient liable to be detained otherwise than under section 2 above if they are satisfied ...’
The tribunal treated this as a s 72(1)(a) case. Section 73 further concerns the power to discharge restricted patients. It provides:
‘(1) Where an application to a Mental Health Review Tribunal is made by a restricted patient who is subject to a restriction order, or where the case of such a patient is referred to such a tribunal, the tribunal shall direct the absolute discharge of the patient if satisfied—(a) as to the matters mentioned in paragraph (b)(i) or (ii) of section 72(1) above; and (b) that it is not appropriate for the patient to remain liable to be recalled to hospital for further treatment.
(2) Where in the case of any such patient as is mentioned in subsection (1) above the tribunal are satisfied as to the matters referred to in paragraph (a) of that subsection but not as to the matter referred to in paragraph (b) of that subsection the tribunal shall direct the conditional discharge of the patient …’
Pausing there, from the facts that I have recited this was a s 73(2) case. The rest of the section need not be cited, save for sub-s (7), which provides:
‘A tribunal may defer a direction for the conditional discharge of a patient until such arrangements as appear to the tribunal to be necessary for that purpose have been made to their satisfaction; and where by virtue of any such deferment no direction has been given on an application or reference before the time when the patient’s case comes before the tribunal on a subsequent application or reference, the previous application or reference shall be treated as one on which no direction under this section can be given.’
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Finally, s 117 concerns after-care:
‘(1) This section applies to persons who are detained under section 3 above, or admitted to a hospital in pursuance of a hospital order made under section 37 above, or transferred to a hospital in pursuance of a transfer direction made under section 47 or 48 above, and then cease to be detained and leave hospital.
(2) It shall be the duty of the District Health Authority and of the local social services authority to provide, in co-operation with relevant voluntary agencies, after-care services for any person to whom this section applies until such time as the District Health Authority and the local social services authority are satisfied that the person concerned is no longer in need of such services …’
By these proceedings, the applicant seeks a declaration that the respondent health authority erred in law in refusing to supply psychiatric supervision in the community for the applicant; further, or in the alternative, an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the health authority not to provide psychiatric supervision in the community for the applicant and, finally, an order of mandamus to compel the health authority to provide psychiatric supervision in the community for the applicant.
The applicant’s case
In a well-presented argument and carefully crafted skeleton argument, Mr Gordon on behalf of the applicant submits that by their decision the health authority has in effect refused to refer the applicant to a responsible medical officer, the co-operation of whom is a prerequisite of the fulfilment of the applicant of conditions 3, 5 and 6 of his conditional discharge. The applicant has a home to go to and a social worker who is willing to supervise him. He is thus being prevented from obtaining his conditional discharge by the decision of the health authority. He contends that the potential responsible medical officer (either Dr Dolan or Dr Farah) is not entitled to substitute his clinical judgment for that of the mental health review tribunal. This is clearly contrary to the statutory intent of the 1983 Act, that the mental health review tribunal and the Secretary of State should, where empowered, adjudicate on discharge. If a responsible medical officer can undermine the powers of the mental health review tribunal, this in turn frustrates: (1) the order of the court; (2) the manifest rationale of s 73(7) of the 1983 Act; (3) the conceptual basis of the statutory after-care provision of s 117.
Counsel advances the following propositions. (1) The statutory scheme precludes the substitution of clinical judgment by a responsible medical officer for that of the mental health review tribunal. (2) The permitting, by the authority, of its responsible medical officer to substitute his clinical judgment for that of the mental health review tribunal undermines the after-care provisions in s 117 and is a breach of the authority’s obligations in public law. (3) On the facts, the authority’s decision is manifestly irrational.
The health authority’s case
Mr Vineall on behalf of the health authority, in an equally attractive and carefully prepared argument, submitted that neither the decision of Dr Dolan nor that of Dr Farah can be criticised as an exercise of clinical judgment. A mental health review tribunal has no express statutory power nor implied power to direct a district health authority to provide any type of health care. If the duty
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contended for by the applicant is correct, it would impose on a district health authority such a duty, however serious a deterioration in the patient’s condition had occurred since the mental health review tribunal’s decision. There would be no need for the deferral procedure unless there was a possibility that a district health authority might lawfully decline to provide the services contemplated by the mental health review tribunal. He further submits that the effect of a deferred discharge is simply to require the district health authority to ascertain whether the conditions can be complied with and, when the mental health review tribunal are so satisfied, the discharge then takes effect. The duty on a district health authority does not extend beyond s 3(1)(e) of the National Health Service Act 1977 to provide such facilities as the district health authority considers appropriate. The district health authority is not in breach of its statutory obligation. In the alternative, the facility is provided but it is not a reasonable requirement to make that facility available to Mr Fox. Even if the district health authority is in breach of its statutory duty under the 1977 Act, the remedy is provided by s 85 of that Act, namely, by intervention by the Secretary of State, and accordingly judicial review is not the appropriate remedy. In support of this latter proposition he cited Wyatt v Hillingdon London BC (1978) 76 LGR 727 and Southwark London Borough v Williams [1971] 2 All ER 175 at 178, [1971] Ch 734 at 742. Finally, he submits that the district health authority is not, in respect of this applicant, under any duty by virtue of s 117. This section is not yet triggered because Mr Fox has not yet left hospital.
Conclusions
In reaching my conclusions it is first necessary to assess what a deferred conditional discharge is. In Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Oxford Regional Mental Health Review Tribunal [1987] 3 All ER 8, [1988] AC 120 the House of Lords considered in depth the provisions of s 73(2) and (7). They held that the provisions of sub-s (2) were mandatory, and once the tribunal were satisfied that a patient should be conditionally discharged, they were obliged to make the order which was final, and they could only defer it under sub-s (7) for the necessary arrangements for the patient’s discharge to be made. Accordingly, mental health review tribunals had no power to reconsider their decision. In particular, Lord Bridge said ([1987] 3 All ER 8 at 11-12, [1988] AC 120 at 127):
‘I turn now to the question of the true construction of s 73 which your Lordships have to decide. The first issue which a mental health review tribunal must address on an application falling for determination under s 73 is whether they are satisfied as to one or other of the matters referred to in para (a) of sub-s (1). If they are so satisfied and also satisfied that the patient need not remain liable to recall it is mandatory under sub-s (1) that they shall direct his absolute discharge.
If the tribunal think the patient should remain liable to recall, they can only contemplate a conditional discharge under sub-s (2). Here the tribunal’s satisfaction or lack of satisfaction as to one or other of the para (a) matters will, I think, inevitably be coloured by the conditions they have in mind to impose. Thus the answers to the questions arising out of para (a)(i), whether or not the patient’s disorder is ‘of a nature or degree which makes it appropriate for him to be liable to be detained in hospital for medical treatment’, or sub-para (a)(ii), whether or not it is necessary for his own health or safety or for the protection of others ‘that he should receive such treatment’, which must here mean treatment under detention, may be vitally influenced by the conditions which are to be imposed to regulate his life style on release into the community. To take obvious examples
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suggested by the decision of the tribunal in this case, the tribunal may perfectly properly be satisfied that hospital detention is no longer necessary provided that the patient can be placed in a suitable hostel and required to submit to treatment as an out-patient by a suitable psychiatrist. These are matters to be secured by imposing appropriate conditions.
Once satisfied under sub-s (2) as to one or other of the matters referred to in para (a) of sub-s (1), it is mandatory that the tribunal ‘shall direct the conditional discharge of the patient’. But if the tribunal are only able to be so satisfied by the imposition of conditions to which the patient will be subject on release, it is obvious that in many, perhaps most, cases some time must elapse between the decision that conditional discharge is appropriate and the effective order directing discharge of the patient, for the purpose of making the necessary practical arrangements to enable the patient to comply with the conditions, eg securing a suitable hostel placement for him and finding a suitable psychiatrist who is prepared to undertake his treatment as an out-patient. This seems to me to be the common sense of the matter and it is, I think, precisely for this purpose that the tribunal, being satisfied as required by sub-s (2), are given the option either to direct the immediate discharge of the patient under sub-s (2) or to defer that direction under sub-s (7).’
Thus, a conditional discharge must not be confused with conditions in the order. Accordingly, in this case, once the tribunal were satisfied that the applicant should be conditionally discharged, they were obliged to make and did make the order. This was a final order and once made the tribunal had no power to revoke the order. The effect of sub-s (7) is to enable the tribunal to defer the order for the necessary arrangements to be made to fulfil the conditions of the order. This is precisely what the tribunal did to enable those responsible for him on his discharge to comply with the conditions which the tribunal had already decided to impose.
It is fundamental to this decision to emphasise that this is not an application for judicial review of the decision of the mental health review tribunal. It is difficult to see how there could be any such challenge. The tribunal had considered the applicant’s application in 1990 and in 1991 when their results of their deliberations were communicated to the applicant. He was no doubt looking forward towards his discharge. In 1991 the tribunal knew that no regional secure unit was available, but they were nevertheless entitled to consider that fact and yet to decide that conditional discharge was appropriate. Their decision was not flawed procedurally. There was evidence before them which entitled them to come to the conclusion and make the order they did. Even when the Ealing Health Authority realised the difficulty of the situation, they did not take the initiative and seek to impugn the decision of the mental health review tribunal by way of judicial review.
The next question which arises is to determine the nature of the duty or obligation (if any) attaching to a health authority when an order of conditional discharge has been made by a tribunal. Counsel for the respondent authority suggested in argument that there was no express or implied duty at all and even if there was, the health authority could only assume any such duty if it consented. It may be true that there is no express statutory power to direct a district health authority to provide any particular type of health care to any particular person at any particular time. However, I am satisfied that the district health authority had fulfilled its obligations under s 3(1)(e) to provide facilities as it considered appropriate by the establishment of a regional secure unit at a hospital in Ealing.
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It does not follow that they were not in breach by refusing to treat Mr Fox within or under its aegis. I consider s 117(2) as mandatory. It shall be the duty of the district health authority to provide after-care services for any person to whom the section applies. The section clearly will apply to the applicant as he falls within sub-s (1). Thus, the duty is not only a general duty but a specific duty owed to the applicant to provide him with after-care services until such time as the district health authority and local social services authority are satisfied that he is no longer in need of such services. I reject the submission that this duty only comes into existence when the applicant is discharged from Broadmoor. I consider a proper interpretation of this section to be that it is a continuing duty in respect of any patient who may be discharged and falls within s 117, although the duty to any particular patient is only triggered at the moment of discharge.
If I am wrong in that interpretation, I am satisfied that such a duty can be spelt out from the general statutory framework which requires district health authorities to provide a comprehensive range of hospital and community psychiatric services, including appropriate services to meet the needs of mentally disordered offenders (see s 3(1) of the National Health Service Act 1977 and also reg 5 of and Sch 1 to the National Health Service Functions (Directions to Authorities and Administration Arrangements) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/51).
I now move to consider whether the respondent authority, through its administrators and doctors, has discharged its duty to this applicant. Clearly, if the district health authority simply ignored the deferred direction for conditional discharge, this omission could be challenged by way of judicial review. Dr Dolan and Dr Farah, acting on behalf of the district health authority, have undoubtedly examined the patient with a view to implementing the recommendation of Dr Hamilton and the conditions imposed in the deferred direction for conditional discharge. As consultants, in my judgment, they are perfectly free and untrammelled in reaching their opinions and recommendations. It is not suggested that either doctor has acted in bad faith or in order to extricate the health authority from its obligations. I have come to the conclusion that the mere acceptance by the health authority of the doctors’ opinions is not of itself a sufficient discharge of their obligations to proceed with reasonable expedition and diligence and to give effect to the arrangements specified and required by the mental health review tribunal. I reject the respondent authority’s argument that the effect of the mental health review tribunal’s decision is that it is merely an enquiry of the relevant authority to determine whether it is prepared to satisfy the conditions so as to enable the discharge to take place. Firstly, as I have already indicated, the mental health review tribunal decision is a final decision. Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Oxford Regional Mental Health Review Tribunal [1987] 3 All ER 8, [1988] AC 120 is clear authority for the proposition that the mental health review tribunal cannot reopen the issues either whether the patient should be conditionally discharged or its conditions. The deferred direction is to allow time for the district health authority concerned to give effect to the conditions that the mental health review tribunal have already determined.
In my judgment, if the district health authority’s doctors do not agree with the conditions imposed by the mental health review tribunal and are disinclined to make the necessary arrangements to supervise the applicant on his release, the district health authority cannot let the matter rest there. The district health authority is under a continuing obligation to make further endeavours to provide arrangements within its own resources or to obtain them from other health authorities who provide such services so as to put in place practical arrangements for enabling the applicant to comply with the conditions imposed by the mental
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health review tribunal or, at the very least, to make inquiry of other providers of such services. If the arrangements still cannot be made then the district health authority should not permit an impasse to continue but refer the matter to the Secretary of State to enable him to consider exercising his power to refer the case back to the mental health review tribunal under s 71(1).
Furthermore, it is not open to the district health authority to contend that because there has been an intervening deterioration in the patient’s condition that their obligations are at an end. This situation is met by informing the Secretary of State of the deterioration and to invite the Secretary of State to refer the case back to the mental health review tribunal under s 71. In Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Oxford Regional Mental Health Review Tribunal [1987] 3 All ER 8 at 13, [1988] AC 120 at 128 Lord Bridge, having considered the effect of sub-s (7), continued:
‘I think this provision, so interpreted, also meets the point ... that if, the tribunal having deferred a direction under sub-s (7) have no power to reopen the issue under sub-s (2), they may be compelled to discharge a patient whose condition has deteriorated since the tribunal first considered the matter and made a deferred direction for conditional discharge. It may well be, I think, that the second part of sub-s (7) is designed to meet this very contingency. But, whether that is so or not, it certainly enables the Secretary of State, when a deterioration in the condition of the patient is brought to his attention, to forestall the patient’s discharge by exercising his power under s 71 of the 1983 Act to refer the patient’s case to the tribunal afresh.’
I see no reason in principle or in practice why a district health authority faced with the dilemma such as Pthis cannot of its own initiative inform the Secretary of State of the deterioration, send him their medical reports and request him to refer the case back to the mental health review tribunal afresh.
In summary, therefore, I am satisfied that the respondent authority has erred in law in that it has not fulfilled its obligations. The fact that it is not prepared to take any steps other than to obtain the views of its doctors means that it is still in breach of its duty arising from the decision of the mental health review tribunal. I also consider its stance not to take further steps unreasonable. It follows that in principal, the application for judicial review should be granted.
I turn to consider the relief sought. On my analysis of the situation, I consider that the applicant is entitled to and it is appropriate to make an order of certiorari to quash the decision of the health authority not to provide psychiatric supervision in the community for the applicant. However, I agree with the persuasive submission made on behalf of the respondent authority by Mr Vineall that it would not be appropriate to make an order of mandamus to compel the health authority at this stage to provide psychiatric supervision in the community for the applicant. I accept his contention that such an order would in effect compel a doctor to supervise a patient against the doctor’s will where the doctor’s refusal arises from an honestly held clinical judgment that the treatment is not in the patient’s best interests or is not in the best interests of the community in which the supervision would take place.
However, in order to assist the respondent authority and indeed the applicant, and any other similar bodies who may be in a similar position, I consider it appropriate to make a declaration in the following terms: (1) that the respondent authority has erred in law in not attempting with all reasonable expedition and diligence to make arrangements so as to enable the applicant to comply with the conditions imposed by the mental health review tribunal; (2) that a district health
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authority is under a duty under s 117 of the Mental Health Act 1983 to provide after-care services when a patient leaves hospital, and acts unlawfully in failing to seek to make practical arrangements for after-care prior to that patient’s discharge from hospital where such arrangements are required by a mental health review tribunal in order to enable the patient to be conditionally discharged from hospital.
The application therefore succeeds, and I invite the district health authority to reconsider the case in the light of this decision.
Order accordingly.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Fitzwilliam v Inland Revenue Commissioners
and related appeals
[1993] 3 All ER 184
Categories: TAXATION; Other Taxation
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD ACKNER, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 1–4, 8–10 MARCH, 1 JULY 1993
Capital transfer tax – Composite transaction to take advantage of exemptions and reliefs – Preordained series of transactions – Discretionary trust under will – Appointment of residue – Scheme to take advantage of surviving spouse, mutual transfer and reverter to settlor exemptions – Scheme not preordained until after first step taken – Whether preordained single composite transaction – Whether appointment of residue subject to capital transfer tax.
Capital transfer tax – Exemptions and reliefs – Reverter to settlor exemption – Settlor – Beneficiary using funds derived from testator’s estate to create settlement – Settlement fund reverting to beneficiary on specified date – Whether beneficiary only settlor of settlement – Whether testator also a settlor – Whether testator providing funds ‘directly or indirectly for the purpose of or in connection with’ settlement – Whether reverter to settlor exemption applying – Finance Act 1975, Sch 5, para 1(6).
The testator died in September 1979 leaving residuary estate worth about £11m and no issue. Under his will the testator directed his trustees to hold his residuary estate on trust for a period not exceeding 23 months from the date of his death with power to appoint capital or income in favour of a class of beneficiaries which included his widow Lady F then aged 81, her daughter Lady H, and her daughter’s son. At the end of the 23-month period and subject to any exercise of the power of appointment, the trustees were directed to pay the income to Lady F during her life, with power to pay her capital at their discretion, with an ultimate trust in favour of Lady H absolutely, contingently on her surviving the testator by one month. By virtue of s 47(1A) of the Finance Act 1975 the effect of there being a discretionary trust before Lady F’s life interest took effect was that if any part of the estate was appointed to Lady F under the exercise of the power of appointment so as to give her an interest in possession that part would escape capital transfer tax both on the testator’s death and on the exercise of the power and further, if Lady F survived the 23 month period any part of the residuary estate in which she then took an interest in possession would escape tax both on the testator’s death and on the coming into being of her life interest on the termination of the discretionary trust. On the other hand, if Lady F died within the 23-month period without any appointment having been made the residuary estate would attract capital transfer tax as the result of the testator’s death at the rate of 75% and if an interest in possession were to be appointed to Lady F the tax on her death would be charged at about the same rate. Accordingly, having regard to Lady F’s age, the trustees, acting on counsel’s advice, put into effect a scheme for the avoidance of capital transfer tax consisting of five steps: under step 1, on 20 December 1979 the trustees appointed part of the residuary estate to the value of £4m to be held in trust as to both capital and income for Lady F absolutely; under step 2, on 9 January 1980 Lady F made a gift of £2m to her daughter Lady H, that sum having been borrowed by the trustees and then paid to her on account of the £4m appointment; under step 3, on 14 January the trustees appointed part
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of the residuary estate to the value of £3·8m to be held on trust to pay the income to Lady F until 15 February 1980 or the date of her death, whichever was the earlier, and subject thereto one moiety (the vested moiety) was to be held in trust for Lady H absolutely and the other moiety (the contingent moiety) was to be held in trust for Lady H contingently on her being alive at the date of the determination of Lady F’s income interest and subject thereto in trust for Lady F’s son absolutely; under step 4, on 31 January Lady F, in consideration of £2m paid to her by Lady H, assigned her interest in the income of the contingent moiety to Lady H for her own use and benefit absolutely; under step 5, by a settlement dated 7 February 1980 Lady H settled her absolute reversionary interest in the vested moiety on trust to pay the income thereof to Lady F until her death or until 15 March 1980, whichever was the earlier, and subject thereto on trust as to both capital and income for Lady H absolutely. Lady H was separately advised by different counsel in relation to steps 4 and 5. If each of the steps was effective Lady F would have received £4m and Lady H £3·8m without incurring any liability to capital transfer tax, since no tax was payable either on the initial appointment of £4m to Lady F under step 1 or on the appointment under step 3 giving Lady F an interest in possession in the £3.8m because of the surviving spouse exemption in para 1(1) of Sch 6 to the 1975 Act, having regard to s 47(1A), or on Lady F’s gift to Lady H of £2m under step 2 because it was returned to her under step 4 and was therefore exempt from tax under ss 86 and 87 of the Finance Act 1976, or on the transfer of Lady F’s interest in the contingent moiety (worth £1·9m) to Lady H under step 4 because Lady F received consideration of £2m for it and therefore the transfer was exempt from tax under para 4(4) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act, or in regard to the vested moiety on 15 March 1980 because on that date it reverted to Lady H as the settlor and was exempt under para 4(5) of Sch 5. In 1986 the Revenue served notice on Lady F, Lady H and the trustees of the estate that capital transfer tax was payable on the £3·8m received by Lady H on the basis that steps 1 to 5 of the tax saving scheme constituted a single composite transaction which had the same effect as if the trustees had appointed £4m to Lady F and £3.8m to Lady H absolutely, so that in relation to the £3·8m a charge to capital transfer tax arose on the testator’s estate under s 47(1A) of the 1975 Act. The taxpayers appealed to the Special Commissioners who upheld the Revenue’s contention and dismissed the appeal. The taxpayers appealed to the judge who allowed the appeal and on appeal by the Revenue the Court of Appeal affirmed his decision. The Revenue appealed to the House of Lords, contending that although step 1 did not form part of any preordained single composite transaction steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 taken together constituted a preordained single composite transaction commencing with a conditional gift of £2m from Lady F to Lady H, leading to charges to tax under para 4(2) of Sch 5 on 31 January 1980 in respect of the contingent moiety and on 15 March 1980 in respect of the vested moiety. The Revenue further contended in relation to the vested moiety that Lady H was not the settlor or not the only settlor because the testator had ‘provided funds directly or indirectly for the purpose of or in connection with’ Lady H’s settlement and was therefore also a settlor under para 1(6)a of Sch 5, so that the reverter to settlor exemption was not applicable.
Held (Lord Templeman dissenting) – The appeal would be dismissed for the following reasons—
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(1) (per Lord Keith, Lord Ackner and Lord Mustill) The correct approach to a consideration of steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the tax saving plan by which Lady H received the £3.8m from the testator’s estate was to ask whether realistically they constituted a single and indivisible whole in which one or more steps was simply an element without independent effect and whether it was intellectually possible for them to be so treated. Since steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 each had the fiscal effect of giving rise to a charge to income tax on Lady H or on Lady F for a period of time, and there was a potential charge to capital transfer tax if either had died while in enjoyment of the income, they could not rationally be treated as effective for the purpose of creating a charge to tax under para 4(2) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act but at the same time ineffective for the purpose of attracting the exemptions in para 4(4) and para 4(5) as having been introduced for fiscal purposes only and as having no independent effect for those purposes. Furthermore, in applying the preordained single composite transaction principle it was not permissible for the Revenue to alter the character of a particular transaction in a series or to pick bits out of it for the purposes of the principle and reject other bits. Accordingly, the Special Commissioners having found that all the transactions were genuine it was not open to the Revenue to argue that certain steps, such as the gift of the £2m from Lady F to Lady H in step 1 or the assignment in step 4, had a different character, namely that the gift was conditional rather than unconditional or that the assignment was gratuitous rather than for consideration. Although steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 were preordained in the sense that they all formed part of a pre-planned tax avoidance scheme and there was no reasonable possibility that they would not all be carried out, the series of transactions was not capable of being construed in a manner inconsistent with the application of the exemptions from liability to tax which the series was intended to create and the fact of preordainment was not sufficient in itself to negative the application of the exemptions (see p 197b, p 197g to 198d, p 198g to p 199c, p 220c and p 222b, post); Craven (Inspector of Taxes) v White [1988] 3 All ER 495 applied; Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 and W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865 distinguished.
(2) (Per Lord Keith, Lord Ackner and Lord Mustill) In relation to the vested moiety it could not be said, by applying the rule that the exercise of a power of appointment was to be written into the instrument creating the power, that for the purposes of para 1(6) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act the testator had provided the property to Lady H directly or indirectly for the purpose of or in connection with the settlement which Lady H later made under step 5, since there had at least to be a conscious association of the provider of the funds with the settlement in question and it was not sufficient that the settled funds had historically been derived from the provider of them for that rule to apply. On the facts, it was clear that there could not possibly have been any conscious association of the testator with Lady H’s settlement and therefore it could not be argued that the reverter to settlor exemption did not apply on the grounds that Lady H was not the only settlor (see p 199f to j, p 220c and p 222b, post); Muir v Muir [1943] AC 468 and Pilkington v IRC [1962] 3 All ER 622 distinguished.
(3) (per Lord Browne-Wilkinson) When considering whether a tax avoidance scheme was to be struck down under the preordained single composite transaction principle the Special Commissioners or the court had to identify the real transaction carried out by the taxpayer and, if that real transaction was carried through by a series of artificial steps, apply the words of the taxing provisions to the real transaction, disregarding for fiscal purposes the steps artificially inserted. However, all the steps in the real transaction had to be looked
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at to determine whether there was a preordained single composite transaction. The real transaction engaged in by the trustees was the distribution out of the testator’s estate of £4m to Lady F and £3.8m to Lady H without attracting capital transfer tax on the latter but since that transaction could only be carried through by all of steps 1 to 5 and if, as the Revenue conceded, step 1 was not preordained but only steps 2 to 5 were preordained after step 1 had been taken, the real transaction could not be said to have been carried out by a preordained single composite transaction, since step 1 was a critical step in the real transaction (see p 220d to p 221c, post).
NotesFor the tax consequences of a preordained series of transactions, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 25.
As from 1 January 1985 s 47(1A) of and paras 1(6) and 4(2), (4) and (5) of Sch 5 and para 1(1) of Sch 6 to the Finance Act 1975 and ss 86 and 87 of the Finance Act 1976 were replaced by ss 144, 44(1), 52(1) and (2), 53(3) and (5), 18(1), 148 and 149 of the Capital Transfer Tax Act 1984. For ss 18, 44, 52, 53 and 144 of the 1984 Act (now known as the Inheritance Act 1984), see 42 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 624, 652, 657, 658, 729. With effect where the donee’s transfer was made on or after 18 March 1986 ss 148 and 149 of the 1984 Act were repealed by ss 101(1) and (3) and 114(6) of and para 25 of Sch 19 and Pt X of Sch 23 to the Finance Act 1986.
Cases referred to in opinionsAberdeen Construction Group Ltd v IRC [1978] 1 All ER 962, [1978] AC 885, [1978] 2 WLR 648, HL.
Black Nominees Ltd v Nicol (Inspector of Taxes) [1975] STC 372.
Chinn v Collins (Inspector of Taxes) [1981] 1 All ER 189, [1981] AC 533, [1981] 2 WLR 14, HL
Craven (Inspector of Taxes) v White [1988] 3 All ER 495, [1989] AC 398, [1988] 3 WLR 423, HL.
Ensign Tankers (Leasing) Ltd v Stokes (Inspector of Taxes) [1992] 2 All ER 275, [1992] 1 AC 655, [1992] 2 WLR 469, HL.
FA & AB Ltd v Lupton (Inspector of Taxes) [1971] 3 All ER 948, [1972] AC 634, [1971] 3 WLR 670, HL.
Floor v Davis (Inspector of Taxes) [1978] 2 All ER 1079, [1978] Ch 295, [1978] 3 WLR 360, CA; rvsd [1979] 2 All ER 677, [1980] AC 695, [1979] 2 WLR 830, HL.
Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474, [1984] 2 WLR 226, HL.
IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30, HL.
IRC v Duke of Westminster [1936] AC 1, [1935] All ER Rep 259, HL.
IR Comr v Challenge Corp Ltd [1986] STC 548, [1987] AC 155, [1987] 2 WLR 24, PC.
Moodie v IRC [1993] 2 All ER 49, [1993] 1 WLR 266, HL.
Muir v Muir [1943] AC 468, HL.
Pilkington v IRC [1962] 3 All ER 622, [1964] AC 612, [1962] 3 WLR 1051, HL.
Ramsay (W T) Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300, [1981] 2 WLR 449, HL
AppealThe Crown appealed with leave of the Appeal Committee from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Nourse, Staughton LJJ and Sir Christopher Slade) ([1992] STC 185) given on 19 February 1992 dismissing the Crown’s appeal from the decision of Vinelott J ([1990] STC 65) given on 9 November 1990 allowing the appeal by way of
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case stated (set out at [1990] STC 67–93) of the executors and/or trustees of the estate of the late William Thomas George, the tenth Earl Fitzwilliam, and the trustees of an ad hoc settlement made by Elizabeth-Anne Marie Gabrielle Hastings (Lady Hastings) from the decision of the Commissioners for the Special Purposes of the Income Tax Acts upholding a determination by the Inland Revenue Commissioners that capital transfer tax was payable in relation to transactions affecting the tenth earl’s estate entered into by the executors and/or trustees following his death. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Keith.
Christopher McCall QC and Launcelot Henderson (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue) for the Crown.
Edward Nugee QC and Mark Herbert (instructed by Currey & Co) for the taxpayers.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
1 July 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, the tenth Earl Fitzwilliam died unexpectedly on 21 September 1979 at the age of 75, leaving no issue. He was survived by his widow, Lady Fitzwilliam, then aged 81, and by her daughter by a previous marriage Elizabeth-Anne, then Mrs Hastings but who later became Lady Hastings through a knighthood having been conferred on her husband. Lady Hastings had a son by a previous marriage, Mr Philip Naylor-Leyland. By his will dated 13 December 1977 Earl Fitzwilliam directed his trustees, who were Lady Fitzwilliam, Lady Hastings, a Mr Sporborg and a Mr Ross, inter alia, to hold his net residuary estate on trust during a period which could not exceed 23 months from the date of his death with power to appoint capital or income in favour of a class of beneficiaries which included Lady Fitzwilliam, Lady Hastings and Mr Philip Naylor-Leyland. The trustees were given a further power during the same period to accumulate income, subject to which there was a discretionary trust to distribute income among the beneficiaries. At the end of the 23-month period and subject to any exercise of the power of appointment, the trustees were directed to pay the income to Lady Fitzwilliam during her life, with power for them (other than Lady Fitzwilliam herself) to pay her capital at their discretion, with an ultimate trust in favour of Lady Hastings absolutely, contingently on her surviving Earl Fitzwilliam by one month.
As explained by Vinelott J (see [1990] STC 65 at 94) who dealt with the case at first instance, the purpose of interposing the discretionary trust before Lady Fitzwilliam’s life interest was to take advantage of s 47(1A) of the Finance Act 1975 (introduced by s 121(1) of the Finance Act 1976) together with the surviving spouse exemption from capital transfer tax in para 1(1) of Sch 6 to the 1975 Act. The effect of these provisions would be that if the power of appointment were exercised so as to give Lady Fitzwilliam an interest in possession in any part of the estate that part would escape capital transfer tax both on Earl Fitzwilliam’s death and on the exercise of the power. Further, if Lady Fitzwilliam survived the 23 month period any part of the residuary estate in which she then took an interest in possession would escape the tax both on Earl Fitzwilliam’s death and by reference to the termination of the discretionary trust and the arising of her life interest.
The trustees thus had the opportunity to review the capital transfer tax position following the death of the earl. Probate was, in fact, obtained on the basis of paying capital transfer tax only in respect of certain legacies, on the footing that Lady Fitzwilliam would in due course take either an absolute interest or a life interest in
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the residue. The situation was, however, complicated by the fact that Lady Fitzwilliam, though normally in reasonably good health for her age of 81, had suffered a severe blow by the death of her husband and by that of her sister, which followed two weeks later, so that the possibility of her early demise had to be contemplated. If she died within the 23-month period without the trustees having done anything the residuary estate, which amounted to about £11m, would attract capital transfer tax on Earl Fitzwilliam’s death at the top rate of 75%. If an interest in possession had been appointed to Lady Fitzwilliam tax on the earl’s death would have been saved but tax on Lady Fitzwilliam’s death would have been charged at much the same rate.
In these circumstances the trustees instructed their solicitors, Currey & Co, in October 1979, to explore urgently ways and means of reducing liability to capital transfer tax. Currey & Co instructed Mr Robert Walker of counsel to advise them in the matter. A considerable number of communications passed between Mr Powell, the partner in Currey & Co dealing with the matter, and Mr Walker during the months following, and a number of conferences took place at which various proposals were considered. These are described in the judgment of Vinelott J (see [1990] STC 65 at 102–106). Eventually in the course of a telephone conversation with Mr Powell on 3 January 1980, Mr Walker put forward the scheme which was in due course put into effect. The course which it took is thus summarised in the judgment of Nourse LJ in the Court Appeal (see [1992] STC 185 at 191–192). It is to be noted that the first of the steps there described took place before Mr Walker had finalised the details of the scheme; and that before entering into steps 4 and 5 Lady Hastings was separately advised by Mr Smith, a partner in Currey & Co previously unconnected with the matter, and by Mr Mark Herbert of counsel:
‘Step 1
By a deed of appointment dated 20 December 1979 the trustees appointed that a part of the residuary estate to the amount or value of £4m should thenceforth be held in trust as to both capital and income for Lady Fitzwilliam absolutely. The deed further provided that the trustees should as soon as conveniently practicable make an appropriation in order to give effect to the appointment.
Step 2
On 7 January 1980 Lady Fitzwilliam drew a cheque for £2m, post-dated to 9 January, in favour of Lady Hastings. The £2m was raised by the trustees on loan from Hambros Bank and appropriated towards Lady Fitzwilliam’s £4m appointment. On the same day Lady Fitzwilliam signed a letter addressed to Lady Hastings, also post-dated to 9 January, in which she stated that the £2m was an outright gift and that she intended it to be net of capital transfer tax, which would be paid by her. The cheque and the letter were handed to Lady Hastings by Currey & Co on 9 January, the cheque being subsequently cleared and its proceeds credited to a deposit account of hers.
Step 3
By a deed of appointment (the £3·8m appointment) dated 14 January 1980 the trustees appointed that a part of the balance of the residuary estate to the amount or value of £3·8m should be held on trust to pay the income to Lady Fitzwilliam until whichever was the earlier of 15 February 1980 and the date of her death; subject thereto as to one moiety (the vested moiety) in trust for Lady Hastings absolutely and as to the other moiety (the contingent moiety) in trust for Lady Hastings contingently on her being alive at the date of the determination of Lady Fitzwilliam’s income interest; and subject thereto in trust for Mr Philip Naylor-Leyland absolutely.
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Step 4
By a deed of assignment (the first assignment) dated 31 January 1980 and made between Lady Fitzwilliam of the one part and Lady Hastings of the other part Lady Fitzwilliam, by her attorney and in consideration of the sum of £2m then paid by Lady Hastings to Lady Fitzwilliam, assigned to Lady Hastings for her own use and benefit absolutely her interest in the income of the contingent moiety.
Step 5
By a settlement (Lady Hastings’ settlement) dated 5 February 1980 and made between Lady Hastings of the one part and two trustees of the other part Lady Hastings settled a sum of £1,000 on trust to pay the income thereof to Lady Fitzwilliam until her death or until 15 March 1980 (whichever should first occur) and subject thereto on trust as to both capital and income for Lady Hastings absolutely. By a deed of assignment (the second assignment) dated 7 February 1980 and made between Lady Hastings of the one part and the trustees of Lady Hastings’ settlement of the other part Lady Hastings assigned to those trustees her absolute reversionary interest in the vested moiety to be held by them as an addition to the funds of Lady Hastings’ settlement.’
On 8 October 1986 the Commissioners of Inland Revenue made a determination for capital transfer tax purposes addressed to Lady Fitzwilliam and maintaining that the whole of steps 1 to 5 constituted a single composite transaction which had the same effect as if the trustees of Earl Fitzwilliam had appointed £4m to Lady Fitzwilliam and £3·8m to Lady Hastings absolutely, so that in relation to the £3·8m a charge to capital transfer tax arose on the estate of the earl under s 47(1A) of the 1975 Act as amended. It was maintained in the alternative that if there was no single composite transaction such as to result in a charge to tax on the earl’s estate capital transfer tax was chargeable on the vested moiety and the contingent moiety on the basis (a) as to the vested moiety that a beneficial interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam determined either on 15 February 1980 or on 15 March 1980 so as to attract a charge to tax under para of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act and (b) as to the contingent moiety that a beneficial interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam was determined by the first assignment. As regards the vested moiety it was said that Lady Hastings was not the settlor of it or not the only settlor, so that the exemption in para 4(5) of Sch 5 (reverter to settlor) did not apply, and as regards the contingent moiety that Lady Fitzwilliam’s gift to Lady Hastings of £2m, and Lady Hastings’ payment of that sum in consideration of the assignment of Lady Fitzwilliam’s interest in that moiety were self-cancelling transactions, so that the exemption under para 4(4) of Sch 5 (disposal of an interest in settled property for money or money’s worth) did not apply.
At this point it is convenient to introduce a brief account of the manner in which the scheme was intended to operate from the point of view of the particular provisions of the capital transfer tax legislation of which it was designed to take advantage. In the first place, the appointment made under step 3, which gave Lady Fitzwilliam an interest in possession, gave rise to no charge to tax because of the surviving spouse exemption in para 1(1) of Sch 6 to the 1975 Act and s 47(1A) of the same Act, referred to above. As regards the contingent moiety, the termination as a result of step 4 of Lady Fitzwilliam’s short-term interest in possession would, prima facie, by virtue of para 4(2) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act, have fallen to be treated as a transfer of value equal to the value of the contingent moiety (£1·9m) so as to attract a charge to tax accordingly. However, para 4(4) provided:
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‘If the interest comes to an end by being disposed of by the person beneficially entitled thereto and the disposal is for a consideration in money or money’s worth, tax shall be chargeable under this paragraph as if the value of the property in which the interest subsisted were reduced by the amount of the consideration …’
The consideration of £2m exceeded the value of the property comprised in the contingent moiety by £100,000, so no charge arose on the termination of Lady Fitzwilliam’s interest in possession. Lady Fitzwilliam’s gift of £2m to Lady Hastings, however, was liable as a lifetime transfer of value to capital transfer tax payable at the end of the sixth month after it. But ss 86 and 87 of the Finance Act 1976 introduced an exemption from tax where the donee of a gift returned it within a certain limited period. By virtue of s 87(1) and (3) Lady Fitzwilliam could claim that the value of her transfer should be treated as cancelled by Lady Hastings’ transfer to the extent that the value transferred by her after deduction of tax was equal to the value restored to her by Lady Hastings’ transfer. Further, by virtue of s 86(1) and (2) Lady Hastings could claim that the transfer by her should not fall to be treated as a gift by her to the extent that her own estate had been increased by Lady Fitzwilliam’s transfer. These provisions would, however, have been of no avail but for s 69(7) of the Finance Act 1978. By virtue of para 3(1) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act Lady Fitzwilliam, as having an interest in possession in the contingent moiety, fell to be treated as beneficially entitled to the property comprised in it, namely £1·9m. In that state of affairs the value returned to Lady Fitzwilliam by Lady Hastings would have been only £100,000, the difference between the £2m which she paid and the value of the property comprised in the contingent moiety. So £1·9m of Lady Fitzwilliam’s gift would have remained uncancelled. But s 69(7) of the 1978 Act provided:
‘Where a person becomes entitled to an interest … in settled property as a result of a disposition for a consideration in money or money’s worth, any question whether and to what extent the giving of the consideration is a transfer of value or chargeable transfer shall be determined without regard to paragraph 3(1) of … Schedule 5.’
The result of this provision, considering that the value of Lady Fitzwilliam’s short-term interest in possession was minimal, was that almost the whole of Lady Hastings’ payment of £2m fell to be treated as a gift and set against the net gift of £2m made to her by Lady Fitzwilliam, through the application of s 87(3). Thus it will be seen that Lady Hastings’ payment of £2m, as observed by Staughton LJ in the course of his judgment in the Court of Appeal, was intended to do double duty by negating the application of two different charging provisions (see [1992] STC 185 at 204).
Then as regards the vested moiety, para 4(2) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act provided that on the coming to an end of an interest in possession in settled property during the lifetime of the person entitled thereto tax should be charged as if he had made a transfer of value of an amount equal to the value of the property in which the interest subsisted. However, para 4(5) provided:
‘If the interest comes to an end during the settlor’s life and on the same occasion the property in which the interest subsisted reverts to the settlor, tax shall not be chargeable under this paragraph unless the settlor had acquired a reversionary interest in the property for a consideration in money or money’s worth.’
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The reasoning which invokes this provision is that the interest in possession in the vested moiety until 15 February 1980 which was given to Lady Fitzwilliam under step 3 was continued until 15 March 1980 by virtue of Lady Hastings’ settlement and the assignment contained in step 5, and that on 15 March 1980 the property in which the interest subsisted reverted to Lady Hastings as settlor of it.
The taxpayers appealed to the Commissioners for the Special Purposes of the Income Tax Acts against the determination of liability to capital transfer tax. The Crown did not contest that each of steps 1 to 5, considered in isolation, had the effect claimed by the taxpayers, subject only to the argument that Lady Hastings was not the settlor or the only settlor of the vested moiety. The Crown’s contention was that all five steps constituted one composite transaction such as to attract application of the principle laid down in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300. The Special Commissioners dismissed the appeal, and at the request of the taxpayers stated a case for the opinion of the High Court. In para 14 of the case the commissioners stated ([1990] STC 65 at 90):
‘Our conclusion on the facts is, therefore, that steps 1 to 5 were the essential steps taken to implement the CTT avoidance scheme and that they satisfy the conditions of the Ramsay principle. Everything else that was done was subsidiary to those steps and changes such as the substitution of cash for assets by means of the Hambros loan and the change in the order of events advised by Mr Herbert were, in our judgment, mere changes of detail which did not break the sequence of the pre-ordained steps. At the time when the £4m appointment was made all the essential features of the subsequent steps had been determined either personally or through their advisers by persons all of whom had the firm intention, and for all practical purposes the ability, to procure their implementation. We, therefore, confirm para 2 of each of the notices of determination as amended during the course of the hearing. In other words we find, in so far as it is a matter of fact, and hold, in so far as it is a matter of law, that (a) the operations comprised in steps 1 to 5 effected a composite transaction whereby out of the estate of the Tenth Earl Lady Fitzwilliam received the sum of £4m and Lady Hastings the sum of £3·8m; (b) the said operations were introduced into the composite transaction for no purpose apart from the avoidance of CTT which would have been payable had the trustees effected the said transaction without the undertaking of such operations; and (c) accordingly CTT is chargeable on the estate of the Tenth Earl in accordance with s 47(1A) of the 1975 Act (as amended) as if such operations had not been undertaken and the trustees had appointed such sums to Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings in each case absolutely.’
The taxpayers’ appeal was heard by Vinelott J in the Chancery Division, and on 9 November 1989 he delivered judgment allowing it (see [1990] STC 65). An appeal by the Crown was dismissed by the Court of Appeal (Nourse and Staughton LJJ and Sir Christopher Slade) on 19 February 1992 (see [1992] STC 185). The Crown now appeals, with leave given here, to your Lordships’ House.
The essential problem facing Earl Fitzwilliam’s trustees was how to save capital transfer tax on the death of Lady Fitzwilliam. Tax on Earl Fitzwilliam’s death could be avoided quite simply and effectively, thanks to the surviving spouse exemption, by appointing the residue to Lady Fitzwilliam either absolutely or for life with remainder over. As it has turned out, changes in the law since 1979 have very substantially reduced the burden of capital transfer tax, which has been superseded by inheritance tax. Agricultural property, which comprised a very large proportion
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of the residue, is entitled to 100% relief, the top rate of tax has been reduced to 40% and lifetime transfers made over seven years before death are exempt. Lady Fitzwilliam, as it happens, is still living. However, all that was not capable of being foreseen, although consideration was given, particularly by Lady Hastings whose husband was a member of Parliament, to the prospect that some amelioration might be introduced in the March 1980 Budget by the Conservative administration which had taken office in 1979 on an election manifesto which contained a commitment to review this field of law. But as mentioned above, the state of health of Lady Fitzwilliam gave some cause for concern, so it was natural for the trustees to consider whether any steps might usefully be taken without delay such as could reduce the incidence of tax on her death by way of what might be not improperly described as strategic tax planning. Steps of that character had been undertaken, in a vast number of cases, under the estate duty regime which came to an end with the introduction of capital transfer tax in 1975, by way of arrangements approved by the court, under the Variation of Trust Act 1958, on behalf of minor and unascertained beneficiaries of a settlement.
The Crown seeks to establish that this case is caught by the principle of W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300 as extended by Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474. It does not support the decision of the Special Commissioners that the sum of £3·8m is liable to capital transfer tax in respect of the death of Earl Fitzwilliam. Further, it accepts that step 1 (the appointment of £4m to Lady Fitzwilliam) did not form part of any preordained single composite transaction, and it no longer argues (as it did before the Court of Appeal) that steps 2 and 4 formed an independent preordained single composite transaction, or that steps 3 and 5 did so. The Crown’s argument is that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 constituted a preordained single composite transaction, and it adheres to the argument that in relation to the vested moiety Lady Hastings was not the settlor, or not the only settlor, so that the reverter to settlor exemption is not applicable.
In W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC and the companion case of Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling each of the taxpayers had made substantial chargeable gains and in order to avoid tax on these gains had purchased from tax avoidance advisers a scheme designed to produce allowable losses capable of being set against them. Moneys borrowed by the taxpayer from a finance house or a company controlled by the advisers went round in a circle through a complicated series of transactions designed to secure for the taxpayers a capital gain which was not chargeable to tax and a loss which was allowable for tax purposes. At the end of the day the borrowed money was repaid and the taxpayer was no worse off financially than it had been before the scheme was entered into, apart from the fee paid for it. It was held in this House that neither taxpayer had incurred, within the meaning of the relevant legislation, such a loss as was capable of being allowed against the pre-existing chargeable gains. Lord Wilberforce, after referring, inter alia, to the principle to be derived from IRC v Duke of Westminster [1936] AC 1, [1935] All ER Rep 259, said ([1981] 1 All ER 865 at 873, [1982] AC 300 at 326):
‘I have a full respect for the principles which have been stated but I do not consider that they should exclude the approach for which the Crown contends. That does not introduce a new principle: it would be to apply to new and sophisticated legal devices the undoubted power and duty of the courts to determine their nature in law and to relate them to existing legislation. While the techniques of tax avoidance progress and are technically improved, the courts are not obliged to stand still. Such immobility must result either in loss of tax, to the prejudice of other taxpayers, or to
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Parliamentary congestion or (most likely) to both. To force the courts to adopt, in relation to closely integrated situations, a step by step, dissecting, approach which the parties themselves may have negated, would be a denial rather than an affirmation of the true judicial process. In each case the facts must be established, and a legal analysis made; legislation cannot be required or even be desirable to enable the courts to arrive at a conclusion which corresponds with the parties’ own intention. The capital gains tax was created to operate in the real world, not that of make-belief. As I said in Aberdeen Construction Group Ltd v Inland Revenue Comrs [1978] 1 All ER 962 at 996, [1978] AC 885 at 893, [1978] STC 127 at 131, it is a tax on gains (or I might have added, gains less losses), it is not a tax on arithmetical differences. To say that a loss (or gain) which appears to arise at one stage in an indivisible process, and which is intended to be and is cancelled out by a later stage, so that at the end of what was bought as, and planned as, a single continuous operation, there is not such a loss (or gain) as the legislation is dealing with, is in my opinion well, and indeed essentially, within the judicial function.’
A similar result was arrived at in IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30, where the taxpayer company had sought to transform a bad debt, which could not be made the subject of an allowable loss, into share capital which could be. This was done by a series of book entries backed by a completely circular series of payments. Lord Diplock said (at 32):
‘It would be disingenuous to suggest, and dangerous on the part of those who advise on elaborate tax avoidance schemes to assume, that Ramsay’s case did not mark a significant change in the approach adopted by this House in its judicial role to a pre-ordained series of transactions (whether or not they include the achievement of a legitimate commercial end) into which there are inserted steps that have no commercial purpose apart from the avoidance of a liability to tax which in the absence of those particular steps would have been payable. The difference is in approach.’
The reference to a ‘pre-ordained’ series of transactions recognises that the directors of the taxpayer company had formulated the scheme and then carried it through to completion in accordance with a decision made at the outset. The reference to the insertion of steps which have no commercial purpose apart from the avoidance of liability to tax indicates that this is a feature which demonstrates the artificiality of the interrelated transactions as a whole.
Neither in Ramsay’s case nor in the Burmah Oil case did the series of transactions include the achievement of any commercial end at all. In each case the series of transactions was circular and self-cancelling and aimed solely at the achievement of a fiscally beneficial purpose. That was also so in Ensign Tankers (Leasing) Ltd v Stokes (Inspector of Taxes) [1992] 2 All ER 275, [1992] 1 AC 655, as to the bulk of the expenditure claimed for capital allowance purposes, and in Moodie v IRC [1993] 2 All ER 49, [1993] 1 WLR 266. The position was different in Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474. The taxpayers (the Dawsons) owned all the shares in two family companies. They reached an informal agreement to sell the shares at an agreed price to a purchaser (Wood Bastow). On 16 December 1971 the Dawsons incorporated a company (Greenjacket) in the Isle of Man, and draft agreements were made for the purchase by Greenjacket of the shares in the family companies in exchange for the issue to the Dawsons of 151,500 shares of 1p each in Greenjacket at a premium of 99p and for the sale of the family company shares by Greenjacket to Wood Bastow at the price of £151,500. On 20 December 1971 the share transfer and the sale to Wood Bastow took place. The object of the exercise
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was to postpone any charge to capital gains tax until such time as the Dawsons disposed of their shares in Greenjacket. This would be achieved if Greenjacket, in exchange for the issue of its shares to the Dawsons, obtained control of the family companies, that being the effect of paras 4(2) and 6(1) of Sch 7 to the Finance Act 1965. It was held by this House that the Dawsons were liable to capital gains tax as if they had sold the shares in the family companies to Wood Bastow directly in consideration of the price of £151,500 paid to Greenjacket. The intermediate transfer of the shares to Greenjacket, since it had no business purpose apart from the deferment of capital gains tax, fell to be disregarded for fiscal purposes, so that Greenjacket never acquired control of the family companies. Lord Brightman, who delivered the leading speech, said ([1984] 1 All ER 530 at 542–543, [1984] AC 474 at 526–527):
‘My Lords, in my opinion the rationale of the new approach is this. In a preplanned tax-saving scheme, no distinction is to be drawn for fiscal purposes, because none exists in reality, between (i) a series of steps which are followed through by virtue of an arrangement which falls short of a binding contract, and (ii) a like series of steps which are followed through because the participants are contractually bound to take each step seriatim. In a contractual case the fiscal consequences will naturally fall to be assessed in the light of the contractually agreed results. For example, equitable interests may pass when the contract for sale is signed. In many cases equity will regard that as done which is contracted to be done. Ramsay says that the fiscal result is to be no different if the several steps are preordained rather than precontracted. For example, in the instant case tax will, on the Ramsay principle, fall to be assessed on the basis that there was a tripartite contract between the Dawsons, Greenjacket and Wood Bastow under which the Dawsons contracted to transfer their shares in the operating companies to Greenjacket in return for an allotment of shares in Greenjacket, and under which Greenjacket simultaneously contracted to transfer the same shares to Wood Bastow for a sum in cash. Under such a tripartite contract the Dawsons would clearly have disposed of the shares in the operating companies in favour of Wood Bastow in consideration of a sum of money paid by Wood Bastow with the concurrence of the Dawsons to Greenjacket. Tax would be assessed, and the base value of the Greenjacket shares calculated, accordingly. Ramsay says that this fiscal result cannot be avoided because the preordained series of steps are to be found in an informal arrangement instead of in a binding contract. The day is not saved for the taxpayer because the arrangement is unsigned or contains the magic words “this is not a binding contract”.’
The significance of this passage, which contains the essential ratio decidendi of the case, is that it demonstrates the intellectual basis on which the House was able to reach the conclusion that the fiscal consequences which would ordinarily have resulted from a transfer to Greenjacket in exchange for shares in the latter followed by a sale by Greenjacket to Wood Bastow for cash were not attracted. All the parties involved had informally agreed on what was to happen but were not formally bound to bring that about. The Ramsay principle made it possible to hold that the final result for fiscal purposes was the same as it would have been if the parties had been so formally bound.
In Craven (Inspector of Taxes) v White [1988] 3 All ER 495, [1989] AC 398 this House decisively rejected the argument for the Crown that any transaction entered into for the purpose of avoiding tax on some later transaction was on that ground alone to be disregarded for fiscal purposes. There were three cases involved, of which Craven
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v White itself bore a close resemblance on the facts to Furniss v Dawson . The difference was that at the time when the shares which the taxpayers proposed to sell were transferred to the intermediate company no agreement, however informal, had yet been reached with the ultimate purchaser. Negotiations were in progress, but it was uncertain whether agreement would be reached or what the terms of any agreement would be. Agreement was reached some 21 days after the intermediate transfer. It was held by a majority that the intermediate transfer could not be disregarded for fiscal purposes, so that the relevant provisions of Sch 7 to the Finance Act 1965 applied to the effect of deferring any charge to capital gains tax.
Lord Oliver, in the course of a closely reasoned speech agreed with by myself and Lord Jauncey, said ([1988] 3 All ER 495 at 515, [1989] AC 398 at 498), after referring to the passage from Lord Brightman’s speech in Furniss v Dawson quoted above:
‘The transactions which are before your Lordships in these three appeals all display the same basic pattern as the Furniss v Dawson [1988] STC 476, [1989] AC 398 transactions in the sense that there has been an ultimate purchase of property originally in the beneficial ownership of the taxpayer which, before the completion of the purchase, has been vested in an intermediate company or companies controlled by the taxpayer or, in the IRC v Bowater Property Developments Ltd appeal, by the parent company of the taxpayer. In each case, however, one or more of the salient features present in the Dawson transactions is missing. In particular the transactions which, in each appeal, the Revenue seek now to reconstruct into a single direct disposal from the taxpayer to an ultimate purchaser were not contemporaneous. Nor were they preordained or composite in the sense that it could be predicated with any certainty at the date of the intermediate transfer what the ultimate destination of the property would be, what would be the terms of any ultimate transfer or even whether an ultimate transfer would take place at all. In none of the three appeals therefore do the facts match with the criteria set out in Lord Brightman’s speech.’
Later Lord Oliver said ([1988] 3 All ER 495 at 523, [1989] AC 398 at 509):
‘My Lords, for my part I find myself unable to accept that Dawson either established or can properly be used to support a general proposition that any transaction which is effected for the purpose of avoiding tax on a contemplated subsequent transaction and is therefore “planned” is, for that reason, necessarily to be treated as one with that subsequent transaction and as having no independent effect even where that is realistically and logically impossible. The particular question which fell to be determined in Dawson was, as it is in the present appeals, whether an intermediate transfer was, at the time when it was effected, so closely interconnected with the ultimate disposition that it was properly to be described as not, in itself, a real transaction at all but merely an element in some different and larger whole without independent effect. That is, I think, necessarily a question of fact but it has to be approached within the bounds of what is logically defensible.’
In dealing with the Crown’s argument which he regarded as involving the proposition that any transaction effected for the sole purpose of saving tax payable on another transaction is to be treated fiscally as indivisible from that other transaction, Lord Oliver said ([1988] 3 All ER 495 at 525, [1989] AC 398 at 512):
‘This result follows from standing the decision in Ramsay on its head and concentrating on the tax saving purpose as the key element rather than, as Ramsay teaches, on looking at the transactions as a whole and asking whether
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realistically they constitute a single and indivisible whole and whether it is intellectually possible so to treat them. It does not appear to me to be either a rational or a permissible approach because it involves substituting a determination to prevent the avoidance of tax for which there is no statutory, moral or logical basis for a rational, factual and intellectually possible appraisal of what is the reality of the position at the time when the relevant transaction is undertaken. I cannot, for my part, derive this from Dawson and I am quite sure that this House was not seeking to construct so irrational a doctrine.’
In the present case, therefore, the correct approach to a consideration of the four steps in the tax saving plan which the Crown says were ineffective for the purpose is to ask whether realistically they constituted a single and indivisible whole in which one or more of them was simply an element without independent effect and whether it is intellectually possible so to treat them.
Step 2 was the gift on 9 January 1980 by Lady Fitzwilliam to Lady Hastings of £2m net of capital transfer tax. The commissioners found that Lady Hastings accepted this as a genuine unconditional and irrevocable gift by her mother. Lady Hastings became entitled to and received the income from this sum until under step 4 she paid £2m to Lady Fitzwilliam on 31 January 1980. She was liable for income tax on that income and may be presumed to have paid it. Under step 3 the trustees appointed £3·8m on trust to pay the income to Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980 or her earlier death, and subject thereto in trust as to the vested moiety for Lady Hastings absolutely and as to the contingent moiety contingently on her being alive at the date of determination of Lady Fitzwilliam’s income interest, with a gift over to Mr Philip Naylor-Leyland. Lady Fitzwilliam became entitled to and received the income of the contingent moiety, and no doubt paid tax on it, until 31 January 1980 when under step 4 she assigned her income interest in it to Lady Hastings in consideration of £2m paid to her by Lady Hastings. Lady Hastings became absolutely entitled to the contingent moiety on 15 February 1980. Under step 5 Lady Hastings on 7 February 1980 settled her reversionary interest in the vested moiety on trust to pay the income therefrom to Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 March 1980 or until her earlier death, and subject thereto upon trust as to both capital income for herself absolutely. Lady Fitzwilliam thus became entitled to and received the income of the vested moiety from 15 February until 15 March 1980, and would have been liable for tax on it but for s 446 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970, which made Lady Hastings liable for the tax, since she retained an interest in the settled property.
The case for the Crown on the Ramsay principle is that the contingent moiety became liable to capital transfer tax, under para 4(2) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act, when Lady Fitzwilliam’s income interest in that moiety terminated, by virtue of step 4, on 31 January 1980, and that the vested moiety became similarly liable when her income interest in it terminated, by virtue of step 5, on 15 March 1980. This involves an acceptance that step 3 was wholly effective in giving Lady Fitzwilliam an income interest in the whole £3·8m until 15 February 1980 and in giving Lady Hastings a vested and a contingent interest respectively in the capital of each of the two moieties. It also involves an acceptance that by step 4 Lady Fitzwilliam effectively assigned to Lady Hastings her limited income interest in the contingent moiety, and that by step 5 Lady Hastings effectively conferred on Lady Fitzwilliam an income interest in the vested moiety until 15 March 1980. The argument then seeks to assimilate the situation to that which would have existed had there been a contract between Earl Fitzwilliam’s trustees, Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings under the terms of which Lady Hastings agreed to accept the £2m from Lady Fitzwilliam on condition that she would return it after the appointment by the
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trustees under step 3 which the trustees under the contract agreed to make, so that in effect Lady Hastings gave no consideration for Lady Fitzwilliam’s assignment to her of the latter’s limited income interest in the contingent moiety and thus could not take advantage of para 4(4) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act. As regards the vested moiety the postulated contractual terms were that on condition of the trustees creating the reversionary interest in her favour under step 3 Lady Hastings agreed to settle that interest on the trusts of step 5. Thus Lady Hastings did no more than comply with the condition on which the reversionary interest was conferred on her.
In my opinion this cannot be regarded as a realistic or intellectually possible view of the matter. It does not depend on disregarding for fiscal purposes any one or more of the transactions involved in steps 2 to 5, as having been introduced for fiscal purposes only and as having no independent effect for those purposes, nor on treating the whole series of steps as having no such effect. Each of the steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 had the fiscal effect of giving rise to a charge to income tax on Lady Hastings or on Lady Fitzwilliam for a period of time, and there was a potential charge to capital transfer tax if either had died while in enjoyment of the income. Although the commissioners found as a fact that Lady Hastings accepted the £2m as a genuine unconditional gift from her mother, the Crown’s case seeks to make it a conditional gift. Further, although all the transactions were accepted by the commissioners as genuine, the Crown’s case seeks to make out that step 4 was not an assignment for a consideration but a gratuitous assignment. No case applying the Ramsay principle has yet held it to be legitimate to alter the character of a particular transaction in a series or to pick bits out of it and reject other bits. In Furniss v Dawson the transfer to the intermediary company Greenjacket was disregarded for fiscal purposes because of the pre-existing informal agreement and of the manner in which the two transactions were carried out, which made it intellectually possible to hold that Greenjacket never had control of the operating companies within the meaning of the statute. No comparable exercise is possible here.
As regards the concept of preordainment, the expression ‘preordained’ was first used by Lord Diplock in the course of his speech in the Burmah Oil case ([1982] STC 30 at 32), the relevant passage being quoted above. That was in the context of a self-cancelling series of transactions, designed to produce a loss which turned out not be a true loss within the meaning of the statute. In Furniss v Dawson Lord Brightman picked up the expression and applied it to a situation which involved not a self-cancelling series of transactions but two transactions which had a definite business purpose. By treating ‘preordained’ as equivalent to ‘precontracted’ he was able to reach the conclusion that the true effect of the two transactions was that of a single tripartite contract, so that the intermediate company never obtained control of the family companies within the meaning of the relevant legislation. In the present case I would accept that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 were preordained in the sense that they all formed part of a preplanned tax avoidance scheme and that there was no reasonable possibility that they would not all be carried out, notwithstanding the pause while Lady Hastings as an individual took independent legal advice. But the fact of preordainment in this sense is not sufficient in itself, in my opinion, to negative the application of an exemption from liability to tax which the series of transactions is intended to create, unless the series is capable of being construed in a manner inconsistent with the application of the exemption. The series in Furniss v Dawson was capable of being so construed, for the reasons explained by Lord Brightman. In my opinion the series in the present case cannot be. The problem for the Crown is that as regards the contingent moiety it has to rely on step 3 as creating an income interest in Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980 and on
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step 4 as terminating that interest. As regards the vested moiety it relies on step 3 as creating an income interest in Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980 and on step 5 as prolonging that interest to 15 March 1980 and then terminating it. There is no question of running any two or more transactions together, as in Furniss v Dawson, or of disregarding any one or more of them. I am unable to perceive any rational basis on which steps 2, 3 and 4 can be treated as effective for the purpose of creating a charge to tax under para 4(2) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act but ineffective for the purpose of attracting the exemption in para 4(4) and that in para 4(5).
I conclude that the case does not fall within the Ramsay principle as extended by Furniss v Dawson and I do not consider that any of the findings of the commissioners preclude that conclusion. The commissioners regarded the whole of steps 1 to 5 as one composite transaction leading to a charge to capital transfer tax in respect of the death of Earl Fitzwilliam, a result which is not now supported by the Crown. More importantly, they did not have the benefit of the decision of this House in Craven v White the majority speeches in which, particularly that of Lord Oliver, shed important light on the rationale and scope of the Ramsay principle, in particular by emphasising the necessity from the construction point of view of it being possible realistically and intellectually to treat a series of transactions as one composite whole, which is essentially a question of law.
There remains to be considered the Crown’s contention, in relation to step 5 and the vested moiety, that the exemption from tax contained in para 4(5) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act was not available because Lady Hastings was not the settlor, or not the only settlor, of the property comprised in the vested moiety, so that when Lady Fitzwilliam’s income interest in that property came to an end on 15 March 1980 a charge to tax arose under para 4(2).
Paragraph 1(6) of Sch 5 defines ‘settlor’ as follows:
‘“Settlor”, in relation to a settlement, includes any person by whom the settlement was made directly or indirectly, and in particular (but without prejudice to the generality of the preceding words) includes any person who has provided funds directly or indirectly for the purpose of or in connection with the settlement or has made with any other person a reciprocal arrangement for that other person to make the settlement.’
The argument for the Crown is that by virtue of the appointment contained in step 3 property was provided to Lady Hastings directly or indirectly for the purpose of or in connection with the settlement which Lady Hastings later made under step 5. The person who provided that property is said to be Earl Fitzwilliam, because the appointment by the trustees falls to be read back into his will, under the principle of Muir v Muir [1943] AC 468 and Pilkington v IRC [1962] 3 All ER 622, [1964] AC 612. These cases decided that for the purposes of the Scottish rule against successive life rents and the English rule against perpetuities the exercise of a power of appointment must be written into the instrument creating the power. Earl Fitzwilliam is therefore to be treated as the settlor so far as concerns the trust purposes contained in the appointment made by his trustees under step 3, but he cannot reasonably be regarded as having provided property directly or indirectly for the purpose of or in connection with the settlement made by Lady Hastings under step 5. The words ‘for the purpose or in connection with’ connote that there must at least be a conscious association of the provider of the funds with the settlement in question. It is clearly not sufficient that the settled funds should historically have been derived from the provider of them. If it were otherwise anyone who gave funds unconditionally to another which that other later settled would fall to be treated as the settlor or as a settlor of the funds. It is clear that in the present
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situation there cannot possibly have been any conscious association of Earl Fitzwilliam with Lady Hastings’ settlement.
My Lords, for these reasons I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, immediately before 31 January 1980 a trust fund of £1·9m known in these proceedings as ‘the contingent moiety’ was held in trust to pay the income to Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980 and subject thereto in trust as to capital and income for her daughter Lady Hastings if she survived that date. By an assignment dated 14 January 1980 Lady Fitzwilliam assigned her interest in the contingent moiety to Lady Hastings. The question is whether that assignment was made for a consideration of £2m or whether the assignment was gratuitous.
By an appointment dated 14 January 1980 a trust fund of £1·9m known in these proceedings as ‘the vested moiety’ was appointed by the trustees on trust to pay the income of the vested moiety to Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980 and subject thereto in trust as to capital and income for Lady Hastings absolutely. By a settlement dated 7 February 1980 Lady Hastings settled the vested moiety on trust to pay the income of the vested moiety to Lady Fitzwilliam from 15 February 1980 until 15 March 1980. The question is whether on 15 March 1980 the vested moiety reverted to Lady Hastings as settlor.
This appeal concerns a tax avoidance scheme which involves two separate devices. The first device consists of self-cancelling payments. When a trust fund is settled on a person (the life tenant) for a life or less interest in possession, capital transfer tax is charged on the capital of the trust fund when that interest comes to an end. To avoid double taxation the legislation provides that any consideration received by a life tenant if his interest comes to an end by surrender to the remainderman shall, for the purposes of the tax, be deducted from the value of the trust fund. The trust fund in the present case known in the scheme as the contingent moiety was worth £1·9m. The scheme provided for £2m to be given by the life tenant to the taxpayer remainderman and then for £2m to be paid by the taxpayer to the life tenant on the surrender of the interest in possession of the life tenant. The object of the scheme was to avoid capital transfer tax on the contingent moiety on the surrender without the life tenant receiving or the taxpayer suffering any consideration as an overall result of the scheme. The two payments cancelled each other out. In W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300 self-cancelling payments were held by this House to be ineffective.
The second device consists of carrying out one transaction by means of two transactions. To avoid double taxation the legislation provides that when a trust fund belonging to a settlor is settled by him on a life tenant with remainder to the settlor then if the interest of the life tenant comes to an end in the lifetime of the settlor, tax is not payable when the trust fund reverts to the settlor. The trust fund in the present case known as the vested moiety, also valued at £1·9m, was held on trusts whereunder the trustees had power to appoint to the life tenant an interest in possession until 15 March 1980 with remainder to the taxpayer absolutely. The scheme divided such an appointment into two. Trustees appointed to the life tenant an interest until 15 February 1980 with remainder to the taxpayer. The taxpayer then settled the trust fund on trust for the life tenant between 15 February 1980 and 15 March 1980 and contended that on 15 March 1980 the trust funds reverted to ‘the settlor’. In Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474 transactions divided into two were held by this House to be ineffective; for the purpose of the tax sought to be avoided, the two transactions are
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to be regarded as one single transaction carried out by the person who possessed power to effect that one single transaction.
The taxpayer in the present case sought to distinguish Ramsay and Furniss v Dawson and other authorities to the same effect on the grounds that on the advice of counsel who drafted and recommended the scheme, no explanation was given to the taxpayer by her legal advisors until after the scheme had been partly implemented. An explanation and advice were then tendered by a second counsel who had not been concerned in the authorship of the scheme. The taxpayer decided to complete and did complete the scheme. The Special Commissioners were not impressed by these suggested distinctions which, however, found favour with Vinelott J ([1990] STC 65) and the Court of Appeal (Nourse, Staughton LJJ and Sir Christopher Slade) ([1992] STC 185). The Crown now appeals.
By his will dated 13 December 1977 the tenth and last Earl Fitzwilliam gave his residuary estate to his four trustees, Mr Sporborg and Mr Ross, the earl’s widow Lady Fitzwilliam, and her daughter Lady Hastings, on discretionary and accumulation trusts for 23 months after his death and subject thereto on trust for Lady Fitzwilliam for life with power to pay her capital, and with remainder to Lady Hastings absolutely. The beneficiaries during the 23 months discretionary period included Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings. The discretionary trusts included power for the trustees to appoint income or capital to Lady Fitzwilliam or Lady Hastings. The earl died on 21 September 1979 leaving a residuary estate worth over £11m.
Section 19(1) of the Finance Act 1975 directs that capital transfer tax shall be charged on the value transferred by a chargeable transfer. By s 20 a chargeable transfer is any transfer of value other than an exempt transfer and a transfer of value is any disposition made by a person as a result of which the value of his estate immediately after the disposition is less than it would be but for the disposition; the amount by which it is less is the value transferred by the transfer. By s 20(4) a disposition is not a transfer of value if it is shown that it was not intended, and was not made in a transaction intended, to confer any gratuitous benefit on any person. A gift is a typical transfer of value.
By s 22(1), on the death of any person—
‘tax shall be charged as if, immediately before his death, he had made a transfer of value and the value transferred by it had been equal to the value of his estate immediately before his death …’
Thus the residuary estate of the earl became charged with capital transfer tax on his death. By para 1(1) of Sch 6 to the 1975 Act a transfer of value is an exempt transfer to the extent that the value of the estate of the transferor’s spouse is increased.
By s 47(1A) of the 1975 Act, as inserted by s 121 of the Finance Act 1976, where property comprised in a person’s estate is settled by his will and within the period of two years after his death and before any interest in possession has subsisted in the property, a distribution is made out of the property, then the provisions of the Act relating to capital transfer tax shall operate as if the will had provided that on the testator’s death the property should be applied or held as it is applied by the distribution payment or held after the happening of the event. If therefore the trustees of the will of the earl made appointments in favour of Lady Fitzwilliam, the surviving spouse of the earl, the spouse exemption would apply as if the terms of the appointment had been included in the will.
By para 3(1) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act, a person beneficially entitled to an interest in possession in settled property shall be treated as beneficially entitled to the property in which the interest subsists. By para 4(2) where, at any time during the
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life of a person beneficially entitled to an interest in possession in any property comprised in a settlement, his interest comes to an end, tax shall be charged, as if at that time he had made a transfer of value and the value transferred had been equal to the value of the property in which his interest subsisted.
In the result, if the trustees appointed capital to Lady Fitzwilliam out of the residuary estate of the earl, then capital transfer tax would cease to be payable by reference to the death of the earl but would be payable if and to the extent that Lady Fitzwilliam either gave away that capital in her lifetime or was possessed of that capital at her death. If the trustees appointed a life or less interest in possession to Lady Fitzwilliam, then capital transfer tax would cease to be payable by reference to the death of the earl but would be payable when the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end on her death or in her lifetime.
By para 4(4) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act, if an interest in settled property comes to an end—
‘by being disposed of by the person beneficially entitled thereto and the disposal is for a consideration in money or money’s worth, tax shall be chargeable under this paragraph as if the value of the property in which the interest subsisted were reduced by the amount of the consideration …’
So if a life or less interest in possession were appointed to Lady Fitzwilliam with remainder to Lady Hastings and if Lady Fitzwilliam then sold and assigned her interest in possession to Lady Hastings for a consideration then, provided the consideration was equal in value to the capital of the trust fund, no capital transfer tax would be payable on the coming to an end of Lady Fitzwilliam’s interest in possession. The object of this provision is to prevent double taxation.
By para 4(5) of Sch 5, if an interest in possession in settled property comes an end and ‘on the same occasion the property in which the interest subsisted reverts to the settlor’ tax shall not be chargeable. The object of this provision also is to prevent double taxation.
By s 86 of the 1976 Act, where a person (the donor) makes a ‘chargeable transfer’ which increases the estate of another person (the donee) and the donee subsequently makes ‘a transfer of value’ which increases the value of the estate of the donor, the value transferred by the donee’s transfer shall be an exempt transfer to the extent that the value of the donee’s transfer does not exceed the amount by which his estate was increased by the donor’s transfer. By s 87 the donor may claim that ‘the value transferred by the donor’s transfer shall be treated as cancelled by the donee’s transfer to the extent of … the value restored’ by the donee’s transfer. In the result if Lady Fitzwilliam made a transfer of value by giving £2m to Lady Hastings, capital transfer tax would be payable by reason of the gift. If, however, subsequently Lady Hastings made a transfer of value by giving £2m to Lady Fitzwilliam, capital transfer tax on the gift by Lady Fitzwilliam would be cancelled and if that tax had been paid it could be recovered. The object of this provision is to prevent double taxation.
In 1979 Lady Fitzwilliam was 81. Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings and the independent trustees were aware that a burden of tax hung over the estate of the earl. If any part of the estate were appointed to Lady Fitzwilliam so as to give her an absolute interest or an interest in possession then capital transfer tax would cease to be chargeable by reason of the death of the earl but would be charged not later than the death of Lady Fitzwilliam.
The trustees were liable to pay capital transfer tax out of the estate of the earl, but were not personally liable beyond the value of the assets. Capital transfer tax would be payable out of the estate before Lady Hastings came into her inheritance. The
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rate was 75%. Lady Fitzwilliam, Lady Hastings and the independent trustees hoped that their solicitors Currey and Co would find some way in which Lady Hastings could inherit the estate but avoid the payment of tax. Curreys consulted Mr Robert Walker, now a Queen’s Counsel practising at the Chancery Bar and specialising in trusts and tax avoidance, to see if he could find a way.
Curreys first consulted Mr Walker on 11 October 1979 with a proposal for a tax avoidance scheme. Counsel amended the scheme from time to time and finally advised the implementation of the scheme by steps to be taken in accordance with an arranged timetable. The scheme was accepted by Curreys and was carried out between 20 December 1979 and 7 February 1980 by the following steps.
Step 1. By an appointment dated 20 December 1979 the trustees appointed £4m out of the estate of the earl to Lady Fitzwilliam absolutely.
Step 2. On 9 January 1980 Lady Fitzwilliam gave £2m to Lady Hastings and undertook ‘to pay all capital transfer tax in respect of the gift’. Step 2 was a chargeable transfer and tax became payable on £2m at the rate of 75%, namely £1,500,000, on 31 July 1980. If Lady Fitzwilliam fulfilled her undertaking, which was not binding in law, she would have to pay tax on £2m grossed up to over £5m. This would have about exhausted her resources and if the trustees provided money out of the estate of the earl, that estate would of course be correspondingly depleted.
Step 3. By an appointment dated 14 January 1980 the trustees appointed £3·8m which was settled in two moieties. The contingent moiety of £1·9m was settled on Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980 with remainder to Lady Hastings if she survived that date. A further £1·9m, the vested moiety, was settled on Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980 with remainder to Lady Hastings absolutely. This appointment was not a chargeable transfer but conferred on Lady Fitzwilliam an interest in possession in the contingent moiety and the vested moiety. On 15 February 1980 when that interest came to an end as a result of the trusts declared by the appointment, capital transfer tax would be charged on the aggregate value of the contingent moiety and the vested moiety. The tax would amount to £2,850,000.
Step 4. By an assignment dated 31 January 1980 Lady Fitzwilliam assigned her interest in the contingent moiety to Lady Hastings. The assignment was expressed to be in consideration of £2m and Lady Hastings paid that sum to her mother. Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings later claimed and the Crown conceded that the £2m paid on 31 January 1980 was a ‘restoration’ of the gift made by Lady Fitzwilliam at step 2 within s 87 of the 1976 Act. In these proceedings Lady Hastings claims that the £2m paid on 31 January 1980 also constituted ‘consideration’ for the purposes of para 4(4) of Sch 5 to the 1975 Act. Thus step 4, it was claimed, put an end to the capital transfer tax charged on the gift at step 2 and put an end to the capital transfer tax which would otherwise have been chargeable on the contingent moiety when the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end.
Step 5. By a settlement dated 7 February 1980 Lady Hastings settled the vested moiety in trust for Lady Fitzwilliam from 15 February until 15 March 1980. On behalf of Lady Hastings it is claimed this settlement put an end to the charge for capital transfer tax on the vested moiety which pursuant to the appointment in step 3 would have been charged when the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end. It is also claimed that when the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end on 15 March 1980 no capital transfer tax became payable because when the settled property reverted to Lady Hastings she was the settlor for the purposes of para 4(5) of Sch 5.
The Crown contends that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 constituted a preordained series of transactions. Steps 2 and 4 were inserted solely for the avoidance of a liability to
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capital transfer tax which would otherwise have been paid in respect of the contingent moiety. Steps 2 and 4 on the authority of decisions binding on this House must be disregarded for that purpose and for that purpose alone with the result that capital transfer tax became payable on 31 January 1980 at step 4 when the life interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end. The Crown also contends that step 5 was inserted solely for the avoidance of a liability to capital transfer tax which would otherwise have been payable in respect of the vested moiety and must be treated for the purpose of capital transfer tax as part of an appointment by the trustees until 15 March 1980 with the result that capital transfer tax became payable on 15 March 1980 when the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end.
In my opinion, so far as the contingent moiety is concerned, the relevant effects of Mr Walker’s scheme and their consequences for capital transfer tax were as follows.
(1) On 9 January 1980 at step 2 Lady Fitzwilliam made a gift of £2m to Lady Hastings. Capital transfer tax became charged on the gift and was payable on 31 August 1980 unless in the meantime Lady Hastings restored the gift of £2m to her mother.
(2) On 31 January 1980 at step 4 Lady Hastings paid £2m to Lady Fitzwilliam and the interest in possession conferred on Lady Fitzwilliam in the contingent moiety by step 3 came to an end.
(3) Although the assignment dated 31 January 1980 asserted that the £2m paid at step 4 was paid in consideration of the assignment, Lady Hastings and Lady Fitzwilliam subsequently claimed, as they were always intended to claim by the scheme, and the Crown accepted, that the £2m had been paid by way of ‘restoration’ of the gift at step 2.
(4) On 31 January 1980 at step 4 capital transfer tax became charged on the contingent moiety as the result of the coming to an end of the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam. The assignment was inaccurate when it asserted that the £2m had been paid ‘in consideration’ of the assignment. The £2m had been paid in restoration of the gift at step 2.
The sum of £2m paid by Lady Hastings to Lady Fitzwilliam on 31 January 1980, unlike the loaves and fishes, could only serve one purpose. If Lady Hastings had wished to restore the gift of £2m and to pay £2m by way of consideration for the assignment, she would have been obliged to raise and pay £4m. The deed of assignment said that the £2m had served one purpose; Lady Hastings, Lady Fitzwilliam and the Crown agreed that the £2m had served another purpose. The same sum of £2m could not serve two purposes. On 31 January 1980 Lady Fitzwilliam received no consideration let alone £2m, for the assignment of her trivial entitlement to the income of the contingent moiety during the next fortnight. The answer to the first question raised by this appeal is that the assignment was gratuitous.
So far as the vested moiety is concerned the relevant effect of Mr Walker’s scheme was to confer on Lady Fitzwilliam an interest in possession which came to an end on 15 March 1980. Capital transfer tax then became payable. The vested moiety did not revert to Lady Hastings as settlor because Mr Walker provided by the scheme that the vested moiety should be vested in Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 March 1980 by steps 3 and 5. As Curreys later pointed out to Mr Walker:
‘We have seen no very easy way of answering the question why, if property is to be transferred to Lady Hastings, the transfer is not made by an exercise of the trustees’ discretionary powers rather than via Lady Fitzwilliam.’
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The honest answer to the question posed by Curreys is that the settlement by Lady Hastings was only interposed for the purpose of avoiding capital transfer tax which would otherwise be payable. The answer to the second question raised by this appeal is that the vested moiety never reverted to Lady Hastings as settlor.
The evolution of Mr Walker’s scheme after 11 October 1979 when Curreys proposed the scheme in outline was as follows. On 5 November 1979 Curreys wrote to Mr Walker saying with reference to step 2:
‘… there is a real risk of an attack on the basis that Lady Fitzwilliam’s so called net gift is a sham if the gift is so large that she could not in reality pay the tax on it … The conclusion is that Lady Fitzwilliam’s gift should be expressed as a net gift but be sufficiently small to prevent the sham argument succeeding.’
Curreys then suggested a net gift of £2m and proposed that the gift—
‘might be done without the subsequent steps having been explained to Lady Fitzwilliam or Mrs Hastings or to the trustees.’
They also suggested that steps 1, 2 and 3 should be followed ‘after a respectable interval’ by step 5 and said that in the result Lady Hastings would become entitled to £3·8m of assets free of capital transfer tax.
On 23 November Curreys informed Mr Walker that at a trustees’ meeting they had in furtherance of step 1—
‘put forward the suggestion that they might resolve to release £4 million to Lady Fitzwilliam and the trustees are prepared to do this if you think it appropriate.’
In discussing steps 1 and 2 Curreys commented:
‘It is desirable that a release to Lady Fitzwilliam should take place as soon as possible partly for capital gains tax reasons and partly because there could then be an interval, albeit a short one, before Lady Fitzwilliam’s gift is made … You will have gathered that we are trying to dissociate the release to Lady Fitzwilliam from the gift she may make to Mrs Hastings. This is because we have seen no very easy way of answering the question why, if property is to be transferred to Mrs Hastings, the transfer is not made by an exercise of the trustees’ discretionary powers rather than via Lady Fitzwilliam, bearing in mind that an appointment by the trustees would avoid ad valorem stamp duty.’
This revealing comment shows that steps in the scheme must be considered as a whole and that the scheme involved inserted steps.
On 28 December 1979, after step 1 had been completed but no other step had been taken, Curreys informed Mr Walker that Lady Fitzwilliam had decided to go to Africa for about five weeks leaving on 15 January. Counsel slightly revised the scheme and on 3 January 1980 commented that one advantage of the scheme as revised was: ‘It would help in demonstrating that Mrs Hastings had not been advised of the settlement at step 3b for her mother to have been absent for a period.' Step 3b became step 5.
On 3 January 1980 counsel discussed the revised scheme over the telephone with Curreys and their notes recorded a suggestion that step 5 should not be discussed with Lady Hastings before her mother’s departure from England and should be made on ‘independent advice’. The net result of the scheme should be that Lady Fitzwilliam ‘is absolutely entitled to a £4 million fund … that Mrs Hastings is absolutely entitled to a £3·8 million fund … and that the residue of Lord
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Fitzwilliam’s estate continues to be held by the will trustees on trust for Lady Fitzwilliam for life with remainder to Mrs Hastings.' In my opinion this statement makes it quite clear that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 constituted a preordained series of transactions to be implemented for the sole purpose of avoiding capital transfer tax which would otherwise be payable.
On 18 January 1980, after step 3, Mr Mark Herbert of counsel was asked by Curreys to advise Lady Hastings. Mr Herbert was a member of Mr Walker’s chambers. Mr Herbert was given the following instructions:
‘Counsel is asked to read the note which outlines a problem of some magnitude. He will appreciate that any proposals aimed at mitigating the serious capital transfer tax position which already exists will have to be implemented swiftly … Counsel is asked … to … advise only on [steps 4 and 5 and to discuss the matter with Mr Walker].’
Counsel was furnished with the documents which recorded steps 1, 2 and 3 and was informed:
‘Instructing solicitors are particularly concerned over the CTT consequences of the £2 million gift to Mrs Hastings which appears to have triggered a tax liability of nearly £5 million. Although this liability is prima facie payable by Lady Fitzwilliam the consequences for Mrs Hastings and her son could be very serious as they expect to be the principal beneficiaries under Lady Fitzwilliam’s will. Mrs Hastings should also perhaps bear in mind that in the event of Lady Fitzwilliam refusing to meet the liability Mrs Hastings might be assessed …’
The ‘serious capital transfer tax position’ had of course been deliberately generated by steps 2 and 3.
After step 5, as I have already recounted, Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings asserted and the Crown accepted that the £2m paid by Lady Hastings to Lady Fitzwilliam at step 4 was a transfer of value which pursuant to ss 86 and 87 of the 1976 Act cancelled the capital transfer tax payable in respect of the gift of £2m at step 2. Lady Hastings now claims that the £2m paid at step 4 was also consideration for the assignment at step 4. The Crown having conceded that the £2m at step 4 was a gift which cancelled the gift at step 2 now resist the claim by Lady Hastings that the same payment consisted of consideration for the assignment at step 4.
The Special Commissioners heard oral evidence including the testimony of Lady Fitzwilliam, Lady Hastings, Mr Powell, who was a partner in Curreys and dealt with the Fitzwilliam family, and Mr Smith who was a partner in Curreys and advised Lady Hastings after step 3. The Special Commissioners made the following material findings. First ([1990] STC 65 at 76–77):
‘Mr Powell did not at any stage intend to and did not in fact, disclose the details of any plan, developed or otherwise, to any member of the family … Non-disclosure of the circumstances in which each of the five steps was taken was, we find, an essential tactic adopted in an endeavour to secure the successful implementation of the overall tax saving plan.’
Second (at 77):
‘The evidence as a whole … leads us irresistibly to the conclusion, and we so find, that Lady Hastings was at all relevant times aware that Mr Powell was putting into effect a tax saving scheme and that she did not know what form that scheme took because she did not at any time inquire.’
Third (at 77):
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‘[Lady Fitzwilliam] had little idea what it was all about. She relied fully on her solicitors and was content to leave them to do whatever was necessary.’
Fourth (at 88):
‘We find that so far as Lady Fitzwilliam is concerned each of the steps taken was part of a preordained series of transactions the essential features of which, ie the five steps, had all been determined, by the time when the first transaction (the £4m appointment) was effected, by Lady Fitzwilliam through her solicitors and her attorneys to whom she had delegated all necessary and unfettered authority.’
Fifth (at 89):
‘We find that all the steps taken up to and including the execution of the £3·8m appointment were steps taken in pursuance of the CTT scheme for which instructions had been given by or on behalf of Lady Hastings and her co-trustees with her knowledge and that in the circumstances which we have recited there must be attributed to her a full understanding of the scheme and the purpose of each step within it as and when it was taken. The intention of Mr Powell and other members of his firm to implement the scheme and the state of their knowledge at each step must, we find, be attributed to Lady Hastings …’
Sixth (at 89–90):
‘We then come to the meeting between Lady Hastings and Mr Smith on 22 January 1980 … Nobody was seriously considering unscrambling the steps so far taken. The scheme was then well under way. It was well understood that the CTT problem arising out of the £2m payment needed to be dealt with as a matter of urgency in view of the then state of Lady Fitzwilliam’s health and the steps, which Mr Smith felt he could recommend to Lady Hastings for dealing with it, had been set up and received the approval of Mr Walker. The approval of Mr Herbert, which could not be seriously in doubt, was awaited. The political questions were undoubtedly a topic for discussion … They did not, however, offer any realistic prospect of a solution and furthermore there was, in the circumstances, no realistic prospect of Lady Hastings calling a halt on their account to the final implementation of the scheme. Instead, having disposed of the political aspects of the discussion, Lady Hastings, who had at the time a thorough understanding of what remained to be done, readily gave instructions to Mr Smith to go ahead subject to his receiving the support of Mr Herbert who had already been instructed. Mr Herbert, as was expected, gave his approval … We, therefore, find that nothing that happened at the meeting of 22 January, or thereafter, did anything to sever the steps then taken from the steps previously taken. They were all part of an indivisible process in a preordained series of transactions.’
Seventh (at 82):
‘On 31 January 1980 there was a meeting with Lady Hastings at which … Mr Smith and Mr Powell were present. Lady Hastings was informed of Mr Herbert’s favourable opinion and proceeded to execute the deed of assignment to her of Lady Fitzwilliam’s interest in the contingent moiety fully understanding that she was paying £2m for an interest of very little value in the hope that she would thereby solve the CTT problem created by the £2m net payment.’
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Eighth (at 90):
‘… we find, in so far as it is a matter of fact, and hold, in so far as it is a matter of law, that (a) the operations comprised in steps 1 to 5 effected a composite transaction whereby out of the estate of the Tenth Earl Lady Fitzwilliam received the sum of £4m and Lady Hastings the sum of £3·8m; (b) the said operations were introduced into the composite transaction for no purpose apart from the avoidance of CTT which would have been payable had the trustees effected the said transaction without the undertaking of such operations; and (c) accordingly CTT is chargeable on the estate of the Tenth Earl in accordance with s 47(1A) of the 1975 Act (as amended) as if such operations had not been undertaken and the trustees had appointed such sums to Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings in each case absolutely.’
Mr Nugee QC on behalf of Lady Hastings and the other respondents (the taxpayers) submitted that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 were separate transactions. Step 1 had no capital transfer tax repercussions. The gift at step 2 created a capital transfer tax charge but that step was avoided by step 4. Step 3 created a capital transfer tax charge on the contingent moiety on 15 February 1980 but that charge was avoided by step 4. Step 3 also created a capital transfer tax charge on the vested moiety on 15 February 1980 but that charge was avoided by step 5.
The Crown contends that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 contain a preordained series of transactions which must be considered as a whole. Steps 2 and 4 were inserted in the scheme for the purpose of avoiding tax on the contingent moiety and must be disregarded for that purpose and that purpose only. The payments of £2m at steps 2 and 4 simply cancelled one another out. The Crown also claims that step 5 was inserted into the scheme for the purpose of avoiding capital transfer tax on the vested moiety and must be disregarded for that purpose; an appointment until 15 February 1980 was divided into two.
Mr Nugee submitted that the findings of the Special Commissioners should be ignored because the Special Commissioners held that there was a preordained series of transactions consisting of steps 1 to 5 whereas the Crown now concedes that step 1 was a separate transaction. In my opinion this concession did not prevent the Crown arguing and succeeding in this House on the basis that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 were not separate transactions but were parts of a preordained series of transactions to which the principles laid down by this House apply. Step 1 is a separate transaction because the appointment of £4m to Lady Fitzwilliam did not make step 2 inevitable and involved no tax consequences. Step 2 was not a separate transaction because the gift of £2m to Lady Hastings created a tax burden which could only be avoided by Lady Hastings restoring £2m to Lady Fitzwilliam. The scheme provided that this restoration should be made by means of steps 3 and 4 with the object of avoiding tax on the contingent moiety. There was no practical possibility that step 2 would not be followed by steps 3, 4 and 5.
The principles applicable to a preordained series of transactions have been laid down by this House as follows. First:
‘It is the task of the court to assess the legal nature of any transactions to which it is sought to attach a tax or tax consequence and if that emerges from a series or combination of transactions, intended to operate as such, it is that series or combination which may be regarded.’ (W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865 at 871, [1982] AC 300 at 323 per Lord Wilberforce.)
Second:
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‘It would be disingenuous to suggest, and dangerous on the part of those who advise on elaborate tax avoidance schemes to assume, that Ramsay’s case did not mark a significant change in the approach adopted by this House in its judicial role to a preordained series of transactions (whether or not they include the achievement of a legitimate commercial end) into which there are inserted steps that have no commercial purpose apart from the avoidance of a liability to tax which in the absence of those particular steps would have been payable.’ (IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30 at 32 per Lord Diplock.)
Third:
‘The true principle of the decision in Ramsay was that the fiscal consequences of a preordained series of transactions, intended to operate as such, are generally to be ascertained by considering the result of the series as a whole, and not by dissecting the scheme and considering each individual transaction separately.’ (Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 532, [1984] AC 474 at 512 per Lord Fraser.)
Fourth:
‘… there must be a preordained series of transactions or, if one likes, one single composite transaction. This composite transaction may or may not include the achievement of a legitimate commercial (ie business) end … Second, there must be steps inserted which have no commercial (business) purpose apart from the avoidance of a liability to tax, not “no business effect”. If those two ingredients exist, the inserted steps are to be disregarded for fiscal purposes. The court must then look at the end result. Precisely how the end result will be taxed will depend on the terms of the taxing statute sought to be applied …’ (Furniss v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 543, [1984] AC 474 at 527 per Lord Brightman; Lord Brightman’s emphasis.)
Fifth:
‘… the court must first construe the relevant enactment in order to ascertain its meaning; it must then analyse the series of transactions in question, regarded as a whole, so as to ascertain its true effect in law; and finally it must apply the enactment as construed to the true effect of the series of transactions and so decide whether or not the enactment was intended to cover it. The most important feature of the principle is that the series of transactions is to be regarded as a whole.’ (Craven v White [1988] 3 All ER 495 at 500, [1989] AC 398 at 479 per Lord Keith.)
In Ramsay the taxpayer made a contrived deductible loss matched by a contrived non-chargeable gain. Overall he made no real loss and therefore no fiscal loss. For the purposes of capital gains tax, the gain and the loss were self-cancelling. In Furniss v Dawson the taxpayer exchanged British shares with a foreign company, Greenjacket, and then procured the sale of the British shares to the purchaser. The two transactions were treated as one transaction for the purposes of capital gains tax.
The Ramsay principle requires three features. (1) A preordained series of transactions. (2) Steps inserted into that series of transaction. (3) The inserted steps must have no commercial purpose apart from the avoidance of a liability to tax which in the absence of the particular steps would have been payable.
In Craven v White [1988] 3 All ER 495 at 500, [1989] AC 398 at 479 Lord Keith said:
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‘In ascertaining the true legal effect of the series it is relevant to take into account, if it be the case, that all the steps in it were contractually agreed in advance or had been determined on in advance by a guiding will which was in a position, for all practical purposes, to secure that all of them were carried through to completion. It is also relevant to take into account, if it be the case, that one or more of the steps was introduced into the series with no business purpose other than the avoidance of tax.’
In the present case the Crown contends and I agree that all the steps had been determined in advance by a guiding will (Lady Hastings) who was in a position, for all practical purposes, to secure that all the transactions were carried into operation. Lady Hastings was the taxpayer who would suffer if capital transfer tax was paid out of the contingent moiety or the vested moiety. Lady Hastings was the taxpayer who benefited from the transactions at the end of the day. Lady Hastings is the only person who has a direct financial interest in the outcome of this appeal. Lady Hastings was in a position to secure that all the steps in the series of transactions were completed because the only other participants, Lady Fitzwilliam and the independent trustees, were at all times prepared to follow the advice of Curreys which was in turn based on the advice of Mr Walker. There is no doubt that Curreys, quite properly, secured and were always able to secure the participation of Lady Fitzwilliam and the other trustees.
The earl had selected Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings both as beneficiaries and as trustees. In 1980 no distribution of income could take place and no appointment of capital could be made unless both Lady Fitzwilliam and Lady Hastings consented. In default of appointment the capital and income of the residuary estate of the earl, including any accumulated income, would from 21 August 1981 be held in trust for Lady Fitzwilliam for life with remainder to Lady Hastings absolutely. The other trustees, Mr Sporborg and Mr Ross, were entitled to give effect to any tax avoidance scheme and to concur in any exercise of the trustees’ power of appointment over the residuary estate which was necessary to give effect to a scheme designed to vest £3·8m in Lady Hastings free of capital transfer tax. The advice of Mr Walker that such a scheme could properly be implemented for the purpose of avoiding capital transfer tax for the benefit of Lady Hastings was a complete protection for all the trustees.
Mr Nugee submitted that the series of transactions was not preordained because Lady Hastings was kept in ignorance of the scheme until after step 3 and Lady Hastings took ‘separate advice’ after step 3 before she decided to implement steps 4 and 5. The ignorance of Lady Fitzwilliam is irrelevant; she quite properly followed and was always prepared to follow the advice of Curreys. It is significant, however, that if step 2 had been a separate step and not part of a preordained series of transactions, Lady Fitzwilliam could never have been advised to make a gift of £2m at step 2 and to enter into an undertaking which would involve her in the payment of capital transfer tax on 31 August 1980 on a capital sum of £5m. If step 3 had been a separate step and not part of a preordained series of transactions, Lady Fitzwilliam could not have been advised to join in making an appointment which conferred on her a derisory interest in possession for a period of four weeks and involved a charge of capital transfer tax amounting to £2,850,000 on 15 February 1980. Curreys advised Lady Fitzwilliam to make the gift of £2m and to enter into the undertaking at step 2 and to join in making the appointment at step 3 because these steps were preordained steps in a series of transactions and were designed without benefit to Lady Fitzwilliam to avoid a capital transfer tax liability which would otherwise be payable.
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Lady Hastings was content to accept the gift of £2m at step 2 and the undertaking from her mother and she was content to enter into the appointment at step 3 with its eccentric interest conferred on her mother on the advice of her own solicitors Curreys.
Mr Nugee submitted that the scheme was not a preordained series of transactions because Lady Hastings was ‘separately advised’ after step 3. As part of the scheme conceived by Mr Walker, Lady Hastings consulted another counsel, Mr Herbert, after step 3 and the scheme was then explained to her and she then decided to implement steps 4 and 5. The position of Lady Hastings was no different from that of a taxpayer who embarks on a scheme involving five transactions on the advice of one counsel and then after step 3 consults another counsel and, receiving confirmatory advice, proceeds with and duly completes the scheme. The ‘separate advice’ given to Lady Hastings as part of Mr Walker’s scheme did not convert steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 from a preordained series of transactions into separate transactions.
In my opinion a solicitor owes his client a duty not to embroil the client in a tax avoidance scheme or any other substantial transaction without full prior explanation and express instructions. A taxpayer who is kept in ignorance by his own solicitors when taking part in transactions which when completed form a preordained series of transactions for his benefit cannot thereafter claim that the transaction did not constitute a preordained series of transactions because of his initial ignorance. A preordained series of transactions is not converted into separate transactions because at some stage the taxpayer who is able to procure completion of the scheme hesitates and takes advice before deciding to complete the series. If Curreys had given an explanation and obtained instructions from their clients, Lady Fitzwilliam, Lady Hastings, Mr Sporborg and Mr Ross, on 3 January 1980, the meeting would have been recorded roughly on the following lines:
‘(1) Mr Powell said that the estate of the earl was liable to capital transfer tax at the rate of 75% payable when Lady Hastings inherited the estate from her mother. Counsel had drafted a scheme to avoid liability on £3·8m part of the estate.
(2) Lady Fitzwilliam would make the gift of £2m which she intended to make to Lady Hastings and would undertake to pay the capital transfer tax in respect of that gift. The trustees would appoint £3·8m to Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 February 1980.
(3) Lady Hastings would then take an assignment of the interest appointed to Lady Fitzwilliam in £1·9m. That assignment would be expressed to be in consideration of £2m but no money would be required other than the £2m gift which would be restored to Lady Fitzwilliam. Lady Hastings would settle the other appointed £1·9 million on Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 March 1980. Counsel advised that if the scheme were completed, capital transfer tax on £3·8m would be avoided and no tax would be payable on the gift of £2m which would be restored to Lady Fitzwilliam.
(4) There was one other ingredient of the scheme. After the appointment by the trustees, Lady Hastings must seek the advice of another counsel before deciding to complete the scheme. Lady Hastings asked what would happen if she decided not to complete the scheme. Mr Powell said that in that case the gift of £2m must still be restored or capital transfer tax amounting to £1·5m paid on 31 August 1980. Capital transfer tax would be charged on the capital of £3·8m on 15 February 1980 unless counsel was able to suggest some new scheme which could be completed before 15 February 1980.
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(5) It was unanimously agreed that the scheme be undertaken and Mr Powell was instructed accordingly.’
The Special Commissioners with ample material, found as a fact that ‘Lady Hastings was at all relevant times aware that Mr Powell was putting into effect a tax-saving scheme and that she did not know what form that scheme took because she did not at any time inquire’ (see [1990] STC 675 at 77). I find it hard to believe that all the participants in the scheme did not have a good idea that each of steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 was part of a scheme to avoid the capital transer tax threat which was known to exist.
A preordained series of transactions can be identified by the fact that the first transaction is bound to be followed by the other transactions (see Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling decided together with Ramsay [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300 and Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474. In Craven (Inspector of Taxes) v White [1988] 3 All ER 495, [1989] AC 398 the majority held that there was no preordained series of transactions precisely because at the time of the first transaction it was not certain that the purchaser who was a necessary participant in the second transaction would be willing to participate.
Curreys were at all times acting for Lady Hastings when Curreys procured steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 to be taken. Immediately before step 2 it was quite certain that Lady Fitzwilliam would participate in steps 2, 3 and 4 on the advice of Curreys. Immediately before step 2 it was quite certain that the independent trustees would participate in step 3 on the advice of Curreys. Immediately before step 2 it was quite certain that Lady Hastings would participate in steps 2 and 3 on the advice of Curreys.
After step 3 there was no practical possibility that Lady Hastings would not take part in step 4. The gift of £2m must be restored to prevent capital transfer tax of at least £1·5m being payable within six months thereafter. If the return of the £2m gift was expressed to be paid in consideration of the assignment at step 4, then Mr Walker believed and Curreys believed and Mr Herbert believed and some other tax avoidance practitioners believed, before the decision in Ramsay, that the restoration payment of £2m would also avoid the liability to capital transfer tax on the contingent moiety which in the absence of step 4 would be payable.
After step 3 there was no practical possibility that Lady Hastings would not take part in step 5. That step would cost nothing, and Mr Walker believed, Curreys believed, Mr Herbert believed and some other tax avoidance practitioners believed, before the decision in Ramsay, that step 5 would avoid and was the only means of avoiding the liability to capital transfer tax on the vested moiety which in the absence of step 5 would be payable.
If Lady Hastings had for any reason or for no reason decided not to implement step 4 there would have been no completed scheme affecting the contingent moiety and if she had decided not to implement step 5 there would have been no completed scheme affecting the vested moiety. But, having decided to complete and having completed the scheme, Lady Hastings cannot now assert that there was no scheme or that the scheme consequences, real and fiscal, are different from the consequences which would have followed if she had understood and authorised the scheme before step 2.
Steps 2, 4 and 5 had no purpose other than the avoidance of tax on the contingent moiety and the vested moiety which would otherwise be payable; they are only explicable by the fact that they form part of a preordained series of transactions for the purpose of avoiding tax. In the real world, a donor does not give an undertaking to pay tax he cannot afford, a lady of 81 is not appointed an interest in possession in funds amounting in the aggregate to £3·8m for a period of four weeks; a purchaser
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does not pay £2m as consideration for the acquisition of the income of a fund of £1·9m for a period of two weeks; a daughter does not settle £1·9m on her mother for a period of four weeks.
Mr Nugee submitted that there were no inserted steps within the Ramsay principle. The descriptions of the Ramsay principle by Lord Wilberforce in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865 at 871, [1982] AC 300 at 323 and by Lord Fraser in Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 532, [1984] AC 474 at 512 do not require any inserted steps. In a preordained series of transactions all that is necessary is to ascertain the real results of the series as a whole and then apply the taxing statute.
Applying the formulation of the Ramsay principle from the statements made by Lord Diplock in IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30 at 32, and by Lord Brightman in Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 543, [1984] AC 474 at 527 inserted steps are steps which have no commercial purpose apart from the avoidance of a liability to tax which in the absence of those particular steps would have been payable.
Steps 2 and 4 were inserted steps because they had no purpose other than the avoidance of a liability to capital transfer tax which in the absence of steps 2 and 4 would have been payable on the contingent moiety when the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end.
Although inserted steps have no commercial purpose other than the avoidance of a particular tax, inserted steps may have ‘enduring legal consequences’. Those enduring legal consequences and their fiscal consequences are not to be disregarded (see Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 541, [1984] AC 474 at 525 per Lord Brightman).
In Furniss v Dawson the inserted step was the exchange by the taxpayer of the English shares for the shares in Greenjacket. That inserted step had enduring legal consequences. Greenjacket became entitled to the English shares and became entitled to the purchase price paid by the purchaser. The taxpayer became entitled to the Greenjacket shares and to any dividends and other rights attached to those shares. These enduring legal consequences involved fiscal consequences including, for example, income tax on any dividends received by the purchaser. The argument that Ramsay did not apply to an inserted step which had enduring legal consequences had been developed by Vinelott J and by the Court of Appeal (Oliver, Kerr and Slade LJJ) and was decisively rejected. The argument of Oliver LJ that the Ramsay principle involved double taxation was also rejected. The courts below were warned not to emasculate the Ramsay principle (see [1984] 1 All ER 530 at 533, 542, [1984] AC 474 at 514–515, 525–526). The rejected arguments have been revived in this case.
In the present case steps 2 and 4 had enduring legal consequences. But that did not prevent them from being inserted steps for the purposes of the Ramsay principle. As a result of step 2 Lady Hastings enjoyed income from £2m until step 4. After step 4 Lady Fitzwilliam ceased to be entitled and Lady Hastings became entitled to the income of the contingent moiety. These legal consequences had fiscal consequences. But it was made quite clear in Furniss v Dawson that the fact that an inserted step had legal consequences and fiscal consequences does not mean that it is not an inserted step for the purpose of the principle in Ramsay. In the present case, although steps 2 and 4 had enduring legal and fiscal consequences they were inserted for no purpose apart from avoiding a liability to capital transfer tax on the contingent moiety which in the absence of steps 2 and 4 would have been payable. Steps 2 and 4 must be disregarded for that purpose and so disregarded Lady Fitzwilliam received no consideration for the assignment of her interest in
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possession in the contingent moiety. The payments are disregarded because they are self-cancelling.
Step 5 was also an inserted step. Step 5 had no purpose except for the avoidance of a liability to capital transfer tax which in the absence of step 5 would have been payable on the vested moiety. Step 5 had enduring legal consequences in that Lady Fitzwilliam became and Lady Hastings ceased to be entitled to the income of the vested moiety between 15 February 1980 and 15 March 1980 and those enduring legal consequences had fiscal consequences. But step 5 must be disregarded for the purpose and only for the purpose of the liability to capital transfer tax which would otherwise be charged when the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam came to an end. That interest came to an end on 15 March 1980 and capital transfer tax then became payable on the vested moiety. Step 3 so far as it dealt with the vested moiety and step 5 were two parts of a single appointment just as the two steps in Furniss v Dawson were two parts of a single disposition.
The Ramsay principle has been applied to two types of tax avoidance scheme. In the first type of scheme the inserted steps involve payments of money made in the course of the scheme which are self-cancelling or circular.
In Ramsay the inserted steps consisted of transactions of sale and purchase by the taxpayer. If each transaction was considered separately and each payment was considered separately the taxpayer made a non-chargeable gain and a deductible loss and avoided a liability to capital gains tax which would have been payable in respect of transactions which were not included in the scheme. If the scheme transactions were considered as a whole, the inserted scheme payments cancelled one another out and fell to be disregarded, no real loss was sustained and no fiscal loss was deductible.
Eilbeck v Rawling was decided together with Ramsay. In that case—
‘The scheme was, briefly, to split a reversion into two parts so that one would be disposed of at a profit but would fall under the exemption and the other would be disposed of at a loss but could be covered by the exception. Thus there would be an allowable loss but a non-chargeable gain …’ (See [1981] 1 All ER 865 at 876, [1982] AC 300 at 330 per Lord Wilberforce.)
The inserted steps involved payments made in the course of transactions of borrowing and sale between the taxpayer and other participants in the scheme. If each scheme transaction was considered separately and if each scheme payment was considered separately, the taxpayer made a non-chargeable gain and a deductible loss and avoided or postponed a liability to capital gains tax which would in the absence of the inserted payments be payable on real gains which he had made in transactions not involved in the scheme. If the scheme transactions were considered as a whole, the payments cancelled one another out, no real loss was sustained and no fiscal loss was deductible.
In IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30 at 38–39 Lord Fraser said:
‘The result was that although Burmah apparently suffered the loss of almost the whole price that it had paid … it suffered no real loss because it got back all the money … If the argument for Burmah is right, this would be one more case in which the taxpayer had achieved the apparently magic result of creating a tax loss that was not a real loss. In my opinion they have not achieved that result because in the same way as in Ramsay’s case, when the scheme was carried through to completion there was here no real loss and no loss in the sense contemplated by the legislation.’
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In Moodie v IRC [1993] 2 All ER 49, [1993] 1 WLR 266 payments were made in the course of a series of transactions between the taxpayer and his scheme associates. If each transaction was considered separately and if each payment was considered separately the taxpayer made payments of an annuity and thereby reduced his liability to income tax in the amount which would have been charged in the absence of the payment. If the transactions were considered as a whole the payments cancelled each other out and fell to be disregarded, no real payments were made and no annuity was paid in the sense contemplated by the legislation.
In the present case the inserted steps with regard to the contingent moiety were steps 2 and 4. The payments thereunder were made in the course of a series of transactions. If each transaction is considered separately and if each payment is considered separately, Lady Hastings paid £2m in consideration of the assignment by Lady Fitzwilliam of the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam in the contingent moiety. The payment of capital transfer tax which would, in the absence of the payments, be payable on the contingent moiety by reason of the coming to an end of the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam would be avoided. If the transactions are considered as a whole, the payments of £2m at step 2 and step 4 cancel one another out, they fall to be disregarded, no real consideration was paid and there was no consideration in the sense contemplated by the legislation. In the Ramsay type scheme of tax avoidance there lurks a pretence. In Ramsay and Burmah the taxpayer pretended to have made a loss. In Moodie the taxpayer pretended to have paid an annuity. In the present case the taxpayer pretends to have paid consideration for the assignment of the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam in the contingent moiety.
The second type of tax avoidance scheme to which the Ramsay principle applies is a scheme in which one single transaction is carried into effect by two or more transactions for no business purpose other than the avoidance or postponement of a liability to tax which otherwise would be payable. The scheme transactions are considered as a whole and the real result dictates the fiscal result.
In Furniss v Dawson the single transaction was a disposition of English shares by the taxpayer to the purchaser which was liable to capital gains tax. The transaction was carried out by two transactions for no business purpose other than the postponement of a liability to capital gains tax which would otherwise be payable. The two transactions consisted of the exchange by the taxpayer of the English shares for shares in Greenjacket and the sale by Greenjacket of the English shares to the purchaser. If the two transactions were considered as a whole the real result was that one single transaction had been carried out by the taxpayer who alone had power to dispose to the purchaser and capital gains tax became payable accordingly. The taxpayer pretends that there are two transactions when in fact there is only one.
In the present case there was one single transaction dealing with the vested moiety, namely the appointment by the trustees to Lady Fitzwilliam of an interest in possession in the vested moiety until 15 March 1980. That single transaction was carried into effect by two transactions, namely an appointment by the trustees of an interest until 15 February 1980 and the settlement by Lady Hastings which extended that interest until 15 March 1980. There was no purpose in carrying out this single transaction by means of the appointment and the settlement other than the avoidance of capital transfer tax which would be paid on the vested moiety if the single transaction were carried out by a single appointment.
I have read a draft of the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Keith. I am unable to follow his reasoning or to agree with his conclusions.
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Lord Keith refers to ‘strategic tax planning’. This expression takes no account of the distinction between tax mitigation and tax avoidance explained in IR Comr v Challenge Corp Ltd [1986] STC 548, [1987] AC 155. In confirming this distinction Lord Goff in Ensign Tankers (Leasing) Ltd v Stokes (Inspector of Taxes) [1992] 2 All ER 275 at 295, [1992] 1 AC 655 at 681 said:
‘Unacceptable tax avoidance typically involves the creation of complex artificial structures by which, as though by the wave of a magic wand, the taxpayer conjures out of the air a loss, or a gain, or expenditure, or whatever it may be, which otherwise would never have existed. These structures are designed to achieve an adventitious tax benefit for the taxpayer, and in truth are no more than raids on the public funds at the expense of the general body of taxpayers, and as such are unacceptable.’
In the present case the scheme conjured out of the air ‘consideration’ where there was no real consideration, and a ‘reverter’ to a settlor who was not the real settlor.
The Variation of Trusts Act 1958 mentioned by Lord Keith is irrelevant. Since Ramsay in 1982 it would be improper and ineffective for an arrangement under the 1958 Act to be approved if the arrangement broke the Ramsay principle.
The application of the Ramsay principle to the present case does not revive the Crown’s argument that any transaction entered into for the purpose of avoiding tax on some later transaction was ineffective on that ground alone. That argument was rejected in Craven v White by all five members of the Appellate Committee. The facts in the present case involve a straightforward application of Ramsay so far as the contingent moiety is concerned and a straightforward application of Furniss v Dawson so far as the vested moiety is concerned.
The Crown’s arguments in the present case do not involve asserting that steps 2, 4 or 5 were not genuine, unconditional and irrevocable and do not require all the real fiscal consequences of those steps to be ignored. The gift at step 2 was genuine and irrevocable and all the subsequent steps were genuine and irrevocable. Each step produced real and fiscal consequences. At step 2 Lady Hastings became entitled to invest the £2m gift and to enjoy the income subject to tax. At step 4 Lady Hastings became entitled to the income of the contingent moiety subject to tax. But step 2 and step 4 were inserted steps which had no purpose because the £2m paid at step 2 was always intended to be cancelled by the £2m paid at step 4. The only purpose of steps 2 and 4 was to avoid liability to capital transfer tax which otherwise would have been payable. Ramsay requires that steps 2 and 4 must be disregarded for this purpose and for no other purpose. Step 5 was an inserted step, the settlement of income for the period of one month serving no purpose. The only purpose of step 5 was to avoid capital transfer tax which would otherwise have been payable. Furniss v Dawson requires that step 5 must be ignored for this purpose and for no other purpose.
Throughout his speech Lord Keith treats steps 2, 4 and 5 as separate transactions. The correspondence and the findings of the Special Commissioners show that the only realistic and intellectually possible view of the matter is that steps 2, 3, 4 and 5 were a preordained series of transactions which must be considered as a whole.
It is not clear to me whether Lord Keith’s conclusions would have been different if the scheme had been explained to Lady Hastings before step 2 or before step 3 or had never been explained to her until after step 5. It is not clear to me whether Lord Keith’s conclusions would have been different if Lady Hastings had taken ‘separate advice’ before step 2 or before step 3 or had not taken separate advice at all. The initial ignorance of the taxpayer Lady Hastings and the provision for separate advice
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were both ingredients in the scheme devised by Mr Walker but these ingredients cannot prevent the scheme being considered as a whole and it was in fact implemented and completed for the benefit of Lady Hastings and nobody else. In any event the position was ‘cut and dried’ after steps 2 and 3. The gift at step 2 must be restored and step 4 was drafted to effect that restoration. The appointment at step 3 on 14 January 1980 created a capital transfer tax charge of £2,850,000 on 15 February 1980. The only way that tax could be avoided was by the planned steps 4 and 5.
I cannot agree that Mr Powell is properly to be regarded as the hand of the trustees and Lady Fitzwilliam. Mr Powell, on behalf of Curreys, had four clients. The independent trustees had no interest in avoiding tax. They were willing and anxious to assist Lady Hastings to avoid tax. Lady Fitzwilliam had no interest in avoiding tax. She was willing and anxious to assist her daughter to avoid tax. The only person who had an interest in avoiding tax was Lady Hastings and on her behalf Mr Powell sought, obtained and implemented a scheme for enabling her to avoid capital transfer tax.
The material points on which I differ from Lord Keith are six in number as follows.
(1) People should be judged by the results of their actions and not by the language of documents intended to mislead. Lord Keith assumes that £2m was paid in consideration for the assignment because the deed of assignment asserted that it was so paid. But when all the facts are considered it transpires clearly that the one sum of £2m was paid by Lady Hastings, received by Lady Fitzwilliam and accepted by the Crown as being in restoration of the gift of £2m at step 2 and not in consideration for the assignment at step 4.
(2) An appellate judge is bound by the findings of fact of the Special Commissioners. These findings show clearly that Mr Walker’s scheme employed the very devices which proved ineffective in Ramsay and Furniss v Dawson. Lord Keith dismisses the findings of the Special Commissioners on the grounds that they did not enjoy the benefit of the speeches of the majority in Craven v White. But in Craven v White there was no initial scheme and the co-operation of the purchaser could not be guaranteed. In the present case the scheme existed from the very beginning and Lady Fitzwilliam and the trustees were at all times ready, willing and able to execute any document drafted by Mr Walker.
(3) Legal advisors should not conceal their activities from their clients in the hope of deceiving the Revenue. A client who subsequently adopts, ratifies and claims the benefit of the actions of his solicitors cannot deny the real consequences or avoid the fiscal consequences on the grounds of personal ignorance. Lord Keith does not condemn the concealment practised by Curreys with the approval of Mr Walker and does not even acknowledge that Lady Hastings was the client of Curreys and Mr Walker although the scheme was planned, concealed, implemented and completed for the benefit of Lady Hastings and nobody else.
(4) ‘Separate advice’ is only necessary when different clients have conflicts of interest . There was no conflict in the present case. A taxpayer who implements and completes a tax avoidance scheme does not escape the principles of Ramsay or Furniss v Dawson by arguing that he might have been advised not to complete the scheme and might have decided not to complete the scheme. The ‘separate advice’ was planned as part of the scheme, was deliberately withheld until after step 3, and was supported by instructions to Mr Herbert which were disingenuous. By the time Mr Herbert was instructed, the gift at step 2 had triggered a tax liability of at least £1·5m and the appointment at step 3 had triggered a further tax liability of £2·85m. The only advice which Mr Herbert or any other counsel could give was
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that step 4 would restore the gift and eliminate tax on the gift and that it was at least possible that steps 4 and 5 would avoid tax on the appointment. This advice was a foregone conclusion.
(5) The Special Commissioners found and I agree that after step 3 there was no practical possibility that Lady Hastings would not take steps 4 and 5 which could not do her any harm and which, so she was bound to be advised by Mr Walker and Mr Herbert, would avoid capital transfer tax on the contingent moiety and the vested moiety. Lord Keith suggests that Lady Hastings might have restored the gift of £2m and settled the vested moiety and the contingent moiety while repudiating Mr Walker’s scheme. Of course she would not have done anything of the sort. If she had not completed steps 4 and 5 she would at worst have caused an immediate claim for capital transfer tax and at best would only have succeeded in postponing the charge to capital transfer tax until the death of Lady Fitzwilliam who, as Lord Keith himself points out, was not expected to live for very long. It is inconceivable that Lady Hastings would have decided against steps 4 and 5 and in any event the facts are that she adopted and completed Mr Walker’s scheme which must therefore be considered as a whole.
(6) Mr Walker’s scheme which trembled on the brink of a sham employed the devices which proved ineffective in Ramsay and Furniss v Dawson. Lord Keith does not provide any satisfactory reason for distinguishing the present case from the precedents which bind this House. Lord Keith does not explain how the same sum of £2m could at one and the same time restore a gift and constitute consideration for an assignment. Lord Keith, insisting on treating each transaction as though it were a separate transaction, despite the evidence afforded by the correspondence between Curreys and Mr Walker, does not consider whether, if Mr Walker’s scheme is considered as a whole, the contingent moiety reverted to Lady Hastings as settlor.
I have read in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. It is true that the Crown originally claimed that capital transfer tax was chargeable on a distribution of £3·8m out of the estate of the earl. But the Crown have always contended in the alternative that capital transfer tax was chargeable on the contingent moiety because the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam in the contingent moiety came to an end on 31 January 1980 and that capital transfer tax was chargeable on the vested moiety because the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam in the vested moiety came to an end on 15 March 1980. The Crown submitted and I agree that the Ramsay principle as explained in Furniss v Dawson and applied in other cases requires the court to ascertain the real (and not pretended) actions of the taxpayer and his associates, the real consequences of those actions and the fiscal consequences which ensue. The real actions of the participants in Mr Walker’s scheme, the real consequences of those actions and the fiscal consequences so far as capital transfer tax is concerned are as follows.
(1) On 20 December 1979 the trustees appointed £4m out of the estate of the earl to Lady Fitzwilliam (step 1). There were no capital transfer tax consequences.
(2) On 9 January 1980 Lady Fitzwilliam gave £2m to Lady Hastings (step 2). The capital transfer tax consequence was that tax became charged on the gift and was payable on 31 July 1980.
(3) On 14 January 1980 the trustees conferred on Lady Fitzwilliam interests in possession in the contingent moiety and the vested moiety with remainder to Lady Hastings (step 3). There were no immediate capital transfer tax consequences but tax would be charged when the interest in possession came to an end.
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(4) On 31 January 1980 Lady Hastings paid £2m to Lady Fitzwilliam (step 4). This payment cancelled and restored the gift at step 2 and eliminated the charge for capital transfer tax incurred by step 2.
(5) On 31 January 1980 Lady Fitzwilliam assigned her interest in possession in the contingent moiety to Lady Hastings and that interest came to an end (step 4). Capital transfer tax became charged on the contingent moiety. The statement in the deed of assignment that the £2m paid at step 4 was consideration for the assignment is an inaccurate pretence. Lady Hastings and Lady Fitzwilliam claimed, the Crown accepted, and the application of the Ramsay principle confirmed, that the £2m paid at step 4 cancelled out the £2m paid at step 2. The one sum of £2m could not also constitute consideration for the assignment.
(6) On 7 February 1980 the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam in the vested moiety was, pursuant to Mr Walker’s scheme, extended from 15 February to 15 March 1980 (step 5). The settlement at step 5 had no business purpose other than the avoidance of capital transfer tax which would otherwise be payable. The settlement must be disregarded for the purposes of capital transfer tax save for its enduring result, namely the extension of the interest in possession of Lady Fitzwilliam until 15 March 1980. If step 5 is thus disregarded there was no reverter to settlor; steps 3 and 5 were only two parts of one transaction namely the conferment on Lady Fitzwilliam of an interest in possession which came to an end on 15 March 1980. Capital transfer tax therefore became charged on the vested moiety on 15 March 1980.
The earliest case in which a tax avoidance scheme appears to have been considered as a whole and held to be ineffective for the purpose of the tax sought to be avoided was FA & AB Ltd v Lupton (Inspector of Taxes) [1971] 3 All ER 948, [1972] AC 634. That was a dividend stripping device.
Since the dividend stripping cases there have been several cases in which a tax avoidance scheme has been considered as a whole and in which the device of self-cancelling or circulating payments has been held to be ineffective for the purpose of the tax sought to be avoided. These cases are Black Nominees Ltd v Nicol (Inspector of Taxes) [1975] STC 372, W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300, IRC v Burmah Oil Co Ltd [1982] STC 30 and Moodie v IRC [1993] 2 All ER 49, [1993] 1 WLR 266. The scheme in the present case with regard to the contingent moiety provides another example.
There have been several cases in which a tax avoidance scheme has been considered as a whole and in which the device of dividing one transaction into two or more has been held to be ineffective for the purpose of the tax sought to be avoided. These cases are Floor v Davis (Inspector of Taxes) [1978] 2 All ER 1079, [1978] Ch 295 (per the dissenting judgment of Eveleigh LJ subsequently approved by this House in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865 at 872, 882, [1982] AC 300 at 324, 339), Chinn v Collins (Inspector of Taxes) [1981] 1 All ER 189, [1981] AC 533, Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474 and Ensign Tankers (Leasing) Ltd v Stokes (Inspector of Taxes) [1992] 2 All ER 275, [1992] 1 AC 655.
The scheme in the present case with regard to the vested moiety provides another example. Lord Keith was a party to the decisions in Ensign Tankers (Leasing) Ltd v Stokes (Inspector of Taxes) and Moodie v IRC.
All decisions of this House are founded on justice, principle and precedent. If an individual taxpayer employs a device to avoid tax the result is unjust because the Revenue are deprived of money intended by Parliament to be available for the common good. A decision in favour of the taxpayer Lady Hastings in this case would enable an individual taxpayer to drive a coach and horses through any
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Revenue legislation by ingenious drafting and nothing else. On principle, transactions such as tax avoidance schemes which are intended to operate as a whole must be judged by the results of those transactions considered as a whole, not by the language of each transaction considered separately. Decisions of this House dealing with tax avoidance schemes are decisive of the present appeal.
In common with my predecessors I regard tax avoidance schemes of the kind invented and implemented in the present case as no better than attempts to cheat the Revenue. Applying principle and precedent to produce a just result I would allow the appeal.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Keith. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches to be delivered by my noble and learned friends Lord Keith and Lord Templeman which set out fully the relevant facts and statutory provisions.
I have reached the conclusion that this appeal should be dismissed for one reason which can be shortly stated. Whatever the exact scope of the principles laid down in W T Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300 as developed and elucidated in Furniss (Inspector of Taxes) v Dawson [1984] 1 All ER 530, [1984] AC 474 and Craven (Inspector of Taxes) v White [1988] 3 All ER 495, [1989] AC 398, the basic principle cannot be in doubt. The commissioners or the court must identify the real transaction carried out by the taxpayers and, if this real transaction is carried through by a series of artificial steps, apply the words of the taxing provisions to the real transaction, disregarding for fiscal purposes the steps artificially inserted. The provision of the taxing statute is to be construed as applying to the actual transaction the parties were effecting in the real world, not to the artificial forms in which the parties chose to clothe it in the surrealist world of tax advisers.
In the present case there is no doubt what the real transaction was: it was to distribute out of the estate of Earl Fitzwilliam £4m to Lady Fitzwilliam and £3·8m to Lady Hastings without attracting capital transfer tax on the latter. On the advice of lawyers, this transaction was carried through, not by making appointments direct to the two ladies, but by a series of artificial transactions, steps 1 to 5. If the other requirements for the application of the Ramsay principle had been satisfied, I would have held that the real transaction included a distribution of £3·8m to Lady Hastings out of the estate thereby giving rise to a charge to capital transfer tax under s 47(1A) of the Finance Act 1975. This result could only have been achieved by disregarding, for the purposes of construing the statutory provision in question, steps 1 to 5 as being mere artificial devices.
That was the primary basis on which the Crown sought to establish the claim before the commissioners in the present case and which the commissioners upheld. However, on appeal Vinelott J held that such a case could not be established because, on the facts, the whole scheme was not preordained until after step 1 was taken. Therefore one of the essential Ramsay requirements was not satisfied. The Crown did not appeal that decision. Instead, the Crown have sought to extract tax on the basis of a ‘mini-Ramsay’, ie that steps 2 to 5 (omitting step 1) constituted a preordained series of transactions, the scheme having become cut and dried before step 2 was taken.
It is at this point that I am unable to accept that the Ramsay doctrine has any application. If, on the facts of a particular case, the real transaction which the
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parties were effecting was a distribution to Lady Hastings out of the estate, step 1 was a critical step. It was at step 1 that there was extracted from the estate the £2m given to Lady Hastings at step 2 and used by her to finance step 4. The fact that the Crown was unable to demonstrate the requirements necessary, under Ramsay, to make step 1 part of the preordained series of transactions, does not alter the nature of the real transaction which the parties were engaged on: that transaction remained a scheme to transfer assets from the estate to Lady Hastings and can only legitimately be taxed as such.
The Crown, by seeking to set up a ‘mini-Ramsay’ are attempting to attach fiscal consequences to all or some of steps 2 to 5 which are, on their true analysis and as found by the commissioners, artificial devices designed to achieve the transfer of assets from the estate to Lady Hastings. As artificial devices, they are to be disregarded for fiscal purposes. In my view it is not legitimate to attach fiscal consequences to artificial transactions designed to carry out the real transaction in question just because an attempt to demonstrate that steps 1 to 5 constituted one transaction failed for some extraneous reason, ie that they were not preordained prior to step 1. On this short ground I would dismiss the appeal.
However, I should add that if, contrary to my view, it is legitimate to approach steps 2 to 5 (or some combination of them) as ‘mini-Ramsays’, I would agree with Lord Templeman that they were preordained. I agree with Lord Templeman that the device of keeping clients in the dark as to the totality of the scheme (adopted by Mr Powell on the advice of counsel) is ineffective for tax purposes. Lady Hastings, as trustee, had instructed Mr Powell to prepare a scheme to mitigate tax. Mr Powell’s knowledge acquired in the course of preparing and carrying through such scheme is Lady Hastings’ knowledge: she cannot be heard to say that she was ignorant of what was proposed and agreed by Mr Powell.
Nor do I think that the mere fact that Lady Hastings was only separately advised after step 3 prevents the steps from having been preordained prior to step 2. Lady Hastings, in her capacity as trustee, had given instructions for the scheme to be prepared thereby indicating that she wished some tax-saving scheme to be implemented. By the time she was separately advised after step 3 the only practical way of carrying through any such scheme was to proceed to steps 4 and 5. Lady Hastings could have called the whole scheme off: but that was not her wish or intention. Having caused the scheme to be prepared she had no real option but to carry it through, as the speech of Lord Templeman demonstrates. In my judgment, it is not possible to achieve the result that a scheme is not preordained just by inserting an occasion on which one party is to be separately advised when the only advice that can be tendered in such circumstances is to pursue the scheme or abandon it. If the scheme is carried through, that scheme was preordained.
Finally, I must mention a point which I wish to reserve. The capital transfer tax legislation (unlike the capital gains tax legislation considered in Ramsay and the other cases) contains provisions which render taxable dispositions effected by ‘associated operations’ (see s 51(1) of the Finance Act 1975). ‘Associated operations’ are defined by s 44(1)(b) to include—
‘any two operations of which one is effected with reference to the other, or with a view to enabling the other to be effected or facilitating its being effected, and any further operation having a like relation to any of those two, and so on.’
This amounts to a statutory statement, in much wider terms, of the Ramsay principle which deals with transactions carried through by two or more operations which are interrelated. In the present case, the Revenue originally claimed tax in reliance on the statutory associated operations provisions. The Ramsay principle is
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essentially based on the construction of statutory taxing provisions. It can therefore be argued that there is no room for the court to adopt the Ramsay approach in construing an Act which expressly provides for the circumstances and occasions on which transfers carried through by ‘associated operations’ are to be taxed. It is not necessary in the present case to express any concluded view on this point.
For these reasons, I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Keith. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Susan J Murphy Barrister.
Practice Note
(Sterilisation: Minors and mental health patients)
[1993] 3 All ER 222
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court:
Lord(s): Sterilisation – Child – Consent – Consent of High Court – Procedure – Application in Family Division – Form of order to be sought – Inherent jurisdiction – Specific issue order – Parties – Official Solicitor – Next friend or guardian ad litem – Summons for directions – Purpose of proceedings – Medical, psychological and social evaluations of child – Children Act 1989, s 8(1).
Hearing Date(s): Sterilisation – Mentally handicapped person – Consent – Consent of High Court – Procedure – Originating summons issued out of Family Division – Form of order to be sought – Parties – Official Solicitor – Next friend or guardian ad litem – Summons for directions – Purpose of proceedings – Medical, psychological and social evaluations of patient.
The Official Solicitor has issued the following Practice Note relating to the procedure to be followed in applications for the sanction of the High Court in cases where the sterilisation of a minor or mentally incompetent adult is sought. The note replaces the Practice Notes of 19 September 1989 and 7 September 1990 ([1989] 2 FLR 447, [1990] 2 FLR 530).
1. The sterilisation of a minor or a mentally incompetent adult (the patient) will in virtually all cases require the prior sanction of a High Court judge: Re B (a minor) (wardship: sterilisation) [1987] 2 All ER 206, [1988] AC 199; F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1; Re HG (specific issue order: sterilisation) [1993] 1 FLR 587.
2. Applications in respect of a minor should be made in the Family Division of the High Court, within proceedings either under the inherent jurisdiction or s 8(1) (specific issue order) of the Children Act 1989. In the Official Solicitor’s view, the procedural and administrative difficulties attaching to applications under s 8 of the 1989 Act are such that the preferred course is to apply within the inherent jurisdiction.
Within the inherent jurisdiction, applicants should seek an order in the following or a broadly similar form:
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‘It is ordered that there be leave to perform an operation of sterilisation on the minor X [if it is desired to specify the precise method of carrying out the operation add, eg, by the occlusion of her fallopian tubes] and to carry out such post-operative treatment and care as may be necessary in her best interests.’
Within proceedings under s 8 of the 1989 Act, applicants should seek an order in the following or a broadly similar form:
‘THE COURT ORDERS, in determining the specific question which has arisen in connection with the exercise of parental responsibility by A and B in respect of the minor X as to whether it is in the minor’s best interests to perform an operation of sterilisation on her [if it is desired to specify the precise method of carrying out the operation add, eg. by the occlusion of her fallopian tubes], THAT such an operation is in her best interests and can lawfully be performed on her [AND that A and B can give a valid consent thereto].’
3. Applications in respect of an adult should be by way of originating summons issuing out of the Family Division of the High Court for an order in the following or a broadly similar form:
‘It is declared that the operation of sterilisation proposed to be performed on X [if it is desired to specify the precise method of carrying out the operation add, eg, by the occlusion of her fallopian tubes] being in the existing circumstances in her best interests can lawfully be performed on her despite her inability to consent to it.
It is ordered that in the event of a material change in the existing circumstances occurring before the said operation has been performed any party shall have liberty to apply for such further or other declaration or order as may be just.’
4. The plaintiff or applicant should normally be a parent or one of those responsible for the care of the patient or those intending to carry out the proposed operation. The patient must always be a party and should normally be a defendant or respondent. In cases in which the patient is a defendant or respondent the patient’s guardian ad litem should normally be the Official Solicitor. In any case in which the Official Solicitor is not either the next friend or the guardian ad litem of the patient or a plaintiff or applicant he shall be a defendant or respondent.
5. Prior to the substantive hearing of the application there will in every case be a summons for directions which will be heard by a High Court judge. The Principal Registry will fix a date for directions before a judge of the Family Division on the first open date after the passage of eight weeks when asked to do so at the issue of the originating summons.
6. The purpose of the proceedings is to establish whether or not the proposed sterilisation is in the best interests of the patient. The judge will require to be satisfied that those proposing sterilisation are seeking it in good faith and that their paramount concern is for the best interests of the patient rather than their own or the public’s convenience. The proceedings will normally involve a thorough adversarial investigation of all possible viewpoints and any possible alternatives to sterilisation. Nevertheless, straightforward cases proceeding without dissent may be disposed of at the hearing for directions without oral evidence.
7. The Official Solicitor will act as either an independent and disinterested guardian representing the interests of the patient, or as an ex-officio defendant. In whichever capacity he acts, he will carry out his own investigations, call his own witnesses and take whatever other steps appear to him to be necessary in order to ensure that all relevant matters are thoroughly aired before the judge, including
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cross-examining the expert and other witnesses called in support of the proposed operation and presenting all reasonable arguments against sterilisation. The Official Solicitor will require to meet and interview the patient in private in all cases where he or she is able to express any views (however limited) about the legal proceedings, the prospect of sterilisation, parenthood, other means of contraception or other relevant matters.
8. The Official Solicitor anticipates that the judge will expect to receive comprehensive medical, psychological and social evaluations of the patient from appropriately qualified experts. Without in any way attempting either to define or to limit the factors which may require to be taken into account in any particular case the Official Solicitor anticipates that the judge will normally require evidence clearly establishing: (1) that (a) the patient is incapable of making his or her own decision about sterilisation and (b) the patient is unlikely to develop sufficiently to make an informed judgment about sterilisation in the foreseeable future (in this connection it must be borne in mind (i) that the fact that a person is legally incompetent for some purposes does not mean that he or she necessarily lacks the capacity to make a decision about sterilisation and (ii) that in the case of a minor his or her youth and potential for development may make it difficult or impossible to make the relevant finding of incapacity); (2) that the condition which it is sought to avoid will in fact occur, eg in the case of a contraceptive sterilisation that there is a need for contraception because (a) the patient is physically capable of procreation and (b) the patient is likely to engage in sexual activity, at the present or in the near future, under circumstances where there is a real danger as opposed to mere chance that pregnancy is likely to result; (3) that the patient will experience substantial trauma or psychological damage if the condition which it is sought to avoid should arise, eg in the case of a contraceptive sterilisation that (a) the patient (if a woman) is likely if she becomes pregnant or gives birth to experience substantial trauma or psychological damage greater than that resulting from the sterilisation itself and (b) the patient is permanently incapable of caring for a child even with reasonable assistance, eg from a future spouse in a case where the patient has or may have the capacity to marry; (4) that there is no practicable less intrusive alternative means of solving the anticipated problem than immediate sterilisation, in other words that (a) sterilisation is advisable at the time of the application rather than in the future, (b) the proposed method of sterilisation entails the least invasion of the patient’s body, (c) sterilisation will not itself cause physical or psychological damage greater than the intended beneficial effects, (d) the current state of scientific and medical knowledge does not suggest either (i) that a reversible sterilisation procedure or other less drastic solutions to the problem sought to be avoided, eg some other contraceptive method, will shortly be available or (ii) that science is on the threshold of an advance in the treatment of the patient’s disability and (e) in the case of a contraceptive sterilisation all less drastic contraceptive methods, including supervision, education and training, have proved unworkable or inapplicable.
H D S VENABLES Official Solicitor.
May 1993
R v Sharp
[1993] 3 All ER 225
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure, Criminal Evidence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STUART-SMITH LJ, WARD AND MAY JJ
Hearing Date(s): 21, 29 JANUARY 1993
Criminal law – Trial – Direction to jury – Lies – Defendant’s lies – Direction on significance of lies – Effect of lies on credibility of defendant – Defendant’s statements to police containing lies – Judge not directing jury to consider whether there might be innocent explanation for defendant’s lies – Whether judge ought to have directed jury that defendant’s lies were not to be taken as evidence of guilt.
Criminal evidence – Character of accused – Good character – Credibility and propensity to dishonesty – Effect of defendant’s good character on credibility and propensity to dishonesty – Direction to jury – Defendant’s statements to police containing lies – Defendant having no previous convictions – Whether judge ought to have directed jury as to relevance of good character to credibility and propensity to dishonesty.
Criminal law – Appeal – Conduct of trial judge – Judge’s demeanour prejudicing defence – Judge making unnecessary interruptions and unjustified criticisms during defence counsel’s cross-examination – Judge distracting counsel and jury during closing speech by audible expressions of disapproval – Whether material irregularity.
The appellant carried on business as a waste paper merchant but was made bankrupt when the business failed. However, he continued to trade after B put up £10,000 to finance the business and acted as a front man for the appellant. When the finances of the business became shaky another man, L, was persuaded to put in a further £10,000. The appellant was charged with obtaining money by deception from L in that he falsely represented that he was the sole proprietor of the business, that he was willing to sell 40% of the business, that the business owned assets worth £7,300 and that it had sales of £6,600 per week. When interviewed by the police the appellant denied that he had received a cheque for £10,000 from L. At his trial the appellant did not give evidence but maintained that the representations made by him were true and that L went into the venture with his eyes open. He admitted through counsel that he had lied to the police in respect of the cheque for £10,000 from L when interviewed. The judge directed the jury that they had a discretion as to the weight to be given to the fact that the appellant had lied in his interview with the police and also whether it was material that the appellant had no previous convictions. The appellant was convicted. He appealed on the grounds, inter alia, that the judge (a) had failed to direct the jury properly in relation to the significance of the appellant’s lies or to explain that they were not per se evidence of guilt, and had wrongly decided that the appellant’s lies were sufficient reason not to give the usual direction as to good character, (b) had undermined and deflected the defence by the nature and frequency of his interruptions during counsel’s cross-examination of prosecution witnesses and (c) had made clear from his interruptions and demeanour during defence counsel’s closing speech his disapproval of counsel’s submissions.
Held – (1) Except where lies were relied on as corroboration or as confirmation of identification evidence, it was not as a matter of law incumbent on a judge to give the usual direction as to the significance of lies told by the defendant, to the effect (a) that the jury were entitled to ask themselves why the defendant had lied
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to the police, (b) that the mere fact that the defendant had lied was not to be taken as evidence of guilt (since it depended on the motive for the lie), (b) that the jury ought to ignore the lies if they thought there was or might be some innocent explanation for them, but (d) that the lies were evidence going to proof of guilt if the jury were sure that they were relevant to the allegation made against the defendant and were not prompted by any innocent motive. However, if the judge failed to give the usual direction he ought not to suggest that dishonesty either to the police or in court was tantamount to establishing the element of dishonesty which had to be proved in the case. Furthermore, the fact that the defendant did not give evidence did not by itself obviate the need for the usual direction, since the jury were entitled to consider any possible innocent explanation proffered by defence counsel, bearing in mind it was only a suggestion and not supported by evidence. On the facts, it would have been better if the judge had explained to the jury the significance of the appellant’s lies to the police at the interview (see p 230 g to p 231 c e f, post).
(2) In directing the jury as to character when the defendant had no previous convictions but had been dishonest in connection with the case and had not given evidence the judge should first give the usual direction about the defendant’s failure to give evidence, then deal with the effect of statements to the police by, if necessary and desirable, pointing out the distinction between the weight to be attached to admissions as opposed to exculpatory statements, and then give the standard direction as to the effect of good character relating to credibility (pointing out that it was only exculpatory statements to the police that had to be considered so far as credibility was concerned). The judge should then if appropriate also give the propensity direction, ie that a person who had had a good character for many years was less likely to commit an offence of dishonesty, and the standard direction as to credibility in relation to lies told by the defendant in interviews with the police. On the facts, the effect of the judge’s direction was substantially to negative any benefit from the appellant’s good character and in the circumstances it would have been better if the judge had given a fuller direction as to character (see p 232 f to j, post); R v Kabariti (1990) 92 Cr App R 362 and R v Buzalek and Schiffer [1991] Crim LR 116 considered.
(3) In general, when a cross-examination was being conducted by competent counsel a judge should not intervene, save to clarify matters he did not understand or thought the jury might not have understood. If the judge wished to ask questions about matters that had not been touched on in cross-examination it was generally better for him to wait until the end of the cross-examination. If the nature and frequency of the interruptions were such that defence counsel was seriously hampered in the way he properly wished to conduct the cross-examination the judge’s conduct amounted to a material irregularity. On the facts, the judge had made unnecessary interruptions and unjustified criticisms and shown his impatience during a proper and responsible cross-examination by defence counsel and had distracted counsel and the jury during counsel’s closing speech by audible expressions of disapproval. The cumulative effect of the judge’s failure to direct the jury properly as to the effect of the appellant’s lies and his previous good character and the judge’s demeanour during defence counsel’s cross-examination and closing speech was such that the appellant’s conviction was not safe and satisfactory. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the conviction quashed (see p 235 g to h, p 236 f, 237 h to p 238 a j, p 239 d j and p 240 d e h j, post); R v Matthews (1984) 78 Cr App R 23 applied.
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NotesFor the judge’s summing up in criminal trials, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1014, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 417–444, 15846–16147.
For character generally, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1070, for good character of the accused, see ibid para 1073, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 556–558, 17451–17484.
For the judge’s duty to ensure that the defence is put fairly to the jury and for unfair conduct of a trial amounting to a material irregularity, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1016, 1390, and for cases on the subject, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 492–493, 23186–23214.
Cases referred to in judgmentR v Buzalek and Schiffer [1991] Crim LR 116, CA.
R v Francis [1991] 1 All ER 225, [1990] 1 WLR 1264, CA.
R v Kabariti (1990) 92 Cr App R 362, CA.
R v Lucas [1981] 2 All ER 1008, [1981] QB 720, [1981] 3 WLR 120, CA.
R v Matthews (1984) 78 Cr App R 23, CA.
R v Penman (1985) 82 Cr App R 44, CA.
R v Thanki (1990) 93 Cr App R 12, CA.
R v Watson (19 February 1990, unreported), CA.
Appeal against convictionFrank Sharp appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction on 6 June 1991 in the Crown Court at Stoke-on-Trent before Judge Allardice and a jury on one count of obtaining property by deception for which he was sentenced to six weeks’ imprisonment. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Simon Tonking (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Rex Tedd (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Newcastle upon Tyne) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
29 January 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ. On 6 June 1991 in the Crown Court at Stoke-on-Trent the appellant was convicted of obtaining property by deception. He now appeals against conviction by leave of the single judge.
The Crown’s case was as follows. The appellant was at all material times an undischarged bankrupt. He had been involved in the waste paper business (FS Waste Paper) but was made bankrupt in October 1987. He kept his customers and, after a man called Brodie had put in £10,000, he then started trading as Stoke-on-Trent Waste Paper. Brodie traded under that name but in effect he was fronting it because the appellant was a bankrupt. The financial side was run by the appellant. No proper business records were kept and the business was in a parlous state.
More investment was sought and Lees was approached. Lees put in £1,000 and then £9,000. The question for the jury was whether that money was obtained by deception. The deceptions charged were that the appellant falsely represented: (1) that he was the sole proprietor of Stoke-on-Trent Waste Paper; (2) that he would sell a 40% share in the business; (3) that the business owned assets, namely
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two vans, baling machines, metal cages and stock; (4) that the value of the assets was £7,300; and (5) that the business had sales to the value of £6,600 per week.
The appellant, Lees and Brodie were all ex-professional football players known to each other. The appellant, hearing that Lees wanted to get involved in business, told him that he was involved in the waste paper reclamation business. The appellant told him that he was doing so well that he wanted new premises and a partner to help finance expansion. The appellant wanted him to put in £10,000 for which he would get a 40% stake. The appellant produced a draft report of the business assets and said that the weekly turnover could give a net return of £3,000 per week.
Lees and the appellant started trading on 1 August 1988. Brodie was working there and it transpired that it was Brodie who was trading as Stoke-on-Trent Waste Paper, not the appellant, having taken over from the appellant in 1987. The appellant told Lees that Brodie was fronting it as he, the appellant, had been made bankrupt in October 1987. The appellant was in fact running it. Lees maintained that he had been unaware that the appellant was bankrupt. In October 1988 Brodie and Lees pulled out, setting up as Stoke-on-Trent Waste Paper Co Ltd on 1 February 1989. Lees maintained that he received nothing in return for his £10,000. Brodie said that he had been approached by the appellant in October 1987 who said that he had been made bankrupt by his company known as FS Waste Paper. However, he had kept his customers and the business could keep going if Brodie put in £10,000. Brodie agreed to this. The financial side was run by the appellant, who would be given, on request, signed blank cheques by Brodie. No proper records were kept, the business was in debt and there was a substantial overdraft. There were no assets; everything was borrowed or leased.
The Crown relied upon two documents in the appellant’s handwriting which together formed exhibit 1. It was plain that they were written at different times. Lees said that he had been shown both by the appellant within the space of a few days before he invested his money. The two documents were quite inconsistent. The first two pages purported to show an estimated turnover of £1,500 per week and a profit of £500 and assets consisting of two vehicles, a baling machine and thirty cages valued £4,000 in all. The second showed a turnover of £3,000 or £3,600 (or as the Crown alleged £6,600 since they contended the figures should be added together) and total assets of £7,300. There is also a reference to a limited company—new business SOT (Stoke-on-Trent) Waste Paper Ltd—and Lees having 40% and the appellant 60%.
It was on the second of these documents that the Crown relied for several of the misrepresentations. Lees’s evidence was indeed remarkable in relation to these documents; although the second was so different from the first, he alleged that he believed merely that the proposition that was put to him in the second was more attractive than the first and therefore more acceptable.
The appellant did not give evidence. His case was that such representations that he made were true; he accepted that he had given Lees the first document in exhibit 1 before Lees invested the money but the second document came at a much later stage when it was contemplated that a limited company would be set up. He was not dishonest, and above all Lees went into the venture with his eyes open; in particular he knew that the appellant was bankrupt, and this was common knowledge at the club where Lees and Brodie were members, and that Brodie had taken part in the discussions which led Lees putting up the money and Lees knew perfectly well Brodie’s interest.
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The appellant had been interviewed in the presence of his solicitor. In the course of the interview he said:
‘Let me tell you exactly what the position is. After I had gone bankrupt John Brodie virtually rescued me and set the business up as Stoke-on-Trent Waste Paper solely in his name. He put £10,000 into it, and my mother loaned the business £7,000 to enable me to keep the job, and I got a weekly wage. John Brodie had no experience in waste paper and he agreed that I should do most of the transactions, mainly buying and selling on his behalf. Brodie did the bookwork. He was an accountant’s clerk. Some months later Terry Lees was involved in wanting to buy the Richmond Centre. He discussed it with Brodie and I. He had to find a lot of money to go into the Richmond Centre. We said we were looking for someone and that is how it kicked off. Sometime later he got in touch with us and said he was interested because the Richmond deal had fallen through. He wanted to know some facts and figures, and Brodie and I got together and John asked me to draw something up in relation to the turnover of the business. Furthermore, Terry knew I was bankrupt and had no part in the business other than as an employee. The piece of paper you showed me [I think that is a reference to exhibit 1] is the one I drew up. It is accurate and has not been altered. At that stage, Terry Lees made a definite commitment that he would come into the business. He did spend quite a number of days at the business premises and he worked Sundays as well. He was quite well aware of the tonnage and the way the business was run and very keen to come in. He said he had no future at Richmond. He decided that he was going to get £10,000, and at every meeting he attended John Brodie was also present. It is to my knowledge that John Brodie and Lees had meetings without me being there. The situation dragged on for so long that I said to Brodie, “Lees is just messing me about”. The agreement was that he should get £175 a week. He said he was on legal aid; he wanted £100 through the books and the rest in cash. He said he did not want to sign anything in connection with the business. Brodie agreed to this. Brodie knew all along about his legal aid. I was only informed of it at the last minute. The two cheques, one for £1,000, were paid a couple of weeks before the commitment to come into the business. I am not sure who the cheques were made out to. Neither were made out to me. I did not receive any cash as a result of the cheque being paid. I carried on working as before.’
He denied that he had had the two cheques from Lees and when he was asked what had happened to the £10,000 from Lees he said that he did not know and the police should ask Brodie.
It was accepted on behalf of the appellant that he had lied in relation to these last two matters. His fingerprints were on the cheques; what had happened was that in the case of the £1,000 cheque this was made payable to Lees and he indorsed it to Goodwin who handed over cash; the second for £9,000 was payable to Goodwin; he gave cash in exchange, deducting £3,000 owed to him by Brodie and the appellant. It was the appellant’s case that the £9,000 did not go for his private benefit: it was used to pay the debts of the business. It was also the appellant’s case that the reason why the cheques were dealt with in that way, as everyone including Lees knew, was because if they were cashed through the bank the money would simply go to reduce the overdraft.
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Both Goodwin and Brodie gave evidence. In the course of cross-examination Goodwin confirmed a good deal of the defence’s case; so also did Brodie, although he was reluctant to do so.
The first ground of appeal alleges two misdirections or non-directions of law. They can conveniently be considered together. It is contended as follows:
‘(a) The learned judge did not give the jury any direction about the significance of lies told by the defendant. In particular he failed to direct them that the mere fact that a defendant tells a lie is not in itself evidence of guilt and failed to explain that a defendant may lie for various reasons; (b) The learned judge misdirected the jury on the effect of the defendant’s lack of previous convictions, so as to render his good character of no effect. Having directed the jury, in effect, that good character was usually a matter which the judge could direct the jury to take in the defendant’s favour when considering his account of the matter, whether given in evidence or in interview, the judge distinguished this case by saying that it was admitted that the defendant had told lies and not told the whole story in interview and that that “is dishonesty”. He went on to say that “it is still up to you whether no previous convictions is something to put in the scales or not” but by this stage it is submitted that the damage had been done.’
The judge dealt with these matters in two passages:
‘The interview, which is the defendant’s first reaction, may provide you first of all with that reaction and if there are parts of it which you think may be true and help him then you may put them in his favour. I will say more later when we consider it but the very unusual situation has arisen in this case where he was in the presence of his solicitor and took advice in the middle of the interview from the solicitor, and he did tell lies in the interview, lies which he has not explained but which have been admitted by those defending him and they have given an explanation which they are entitled to give but you have to consider the weight of the explanation.’
He continued:
‘Telling lies and not telling the whole story is dishonesty, so it is still up to you whether no previous convictions is something to put in the scales or not. It is a matter for your discretion.’
Save in those cases where lies are relied upon as corroboration (R v Lucas [1981] 2 All ER 1008, [1981] QB 720) or as confirmation of identification evidence (R v Penman (1985) 82 Cr App R 44 and R v Francis [1991] 1 All ER 225, [1990] 1 WLR 1264), it is not as a matter of law incumbent upon a judge to give a direction as to the significance of lies told by the accused. Such a direction is however now commonly given and a specimen direction appears in the Judicial Studies Board guidance. The effect of such a direction is this: that the defendant has admitted that he told lies to the police and the jury are entitled to ask themselves why he did so. The mere fact that a defendant lies should not be taken as evidence of guilt: it depends on the motive for the lie. A defendant may lie for various reasons, for example to protect someone else, to save himself embarrassment, or out of panic or confusion, or other matters of that kind. If the jury think that there is, or may be, some innocent explanation for the lies, then they should pay no attention to them. But if they are sure that the lies were relevant to the allegation made against him but were not prompted by any innocent motive of that kind, then those lies would be evidence going in proof of his guilt.
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Mr Tonking on behalf of the appellant does not submit that such a direction is necessary in every case, or indeed in every case in which dishonesty is an ingredient of the offence, and we are certainly not prepared to hold that it is. What he does submit is that, if such a direction is not given, the judge has to be careful not to suggest that dishonesty, either to the police or in court, is tantamount to establishing the element of dishonesty which has to be proved in the case. He submits that in the passages cited the judge fails to make this clear. Thus, although it is accepted that the lies were deliberate and material, the explanation may have been that the appellant was over-egging his defence, which really was that Lees knew very well what the situation was, by trying to distance himself from the cheque and the proceeds of it, or alternatively that he was reacting over-strenuously to the suggestion from the police that he had used the proceeds of the cheques for his own ends as opposed to the business. He also submits that the effect of the first passage cited was to suggest to the jury that the lies in relation to the cheques and proceeds effectively robbed the rest of his explanation to the police of credibility.
We think there is some force in these submissions. It would in our view undoubtedly have been better if the judge had explained to the jury the significance of lies told at interview. Mr Tedd on behalf of the Crown has submitted that the jury cannot have thought that dishonesty in interview was proof of dishonesty in the appellant’s dealings with Lees. He points out that the judge said:
‘The prosecution have to satisfy you that the defendant was in his dealings with Lees on this matter acting dishonestly. I do not have to explain to you what dishonesty is.’
In the later passages cited he is referring to the interviews. But we do not think that it is as clear-cut as that, and it is far from clear what is meant by the earlier passage where he talks about telling lies and not telling the whole story or what the jury were supposed to make of it. He also submitted that by not giving evidence the appellant gave no explanation for the lies for the jury to consider. If a defendant has given an explanation, that is the one the jury has to consider. But it does not follow that the direction should only be given where he has given evidence. The jury should consider any possible innocent explanation proffered by counsel, bearing in mind it is only a suggestion and not supported by evidence.
As to the judge’s direction on good character, Mr Tonking made these submissions. First this was a case where it would have been appropriate for the judge to have given the direction to the effect that a man who has had a good character for 42 years is less likely to commit an offence of dishonesty. One can describe this as the propensity direction. It is, however, now clearly established by authority that such a direction is not obligatory; it is a matter for the discretion of the judge (R v Thanki (1990) 93 Cr App R 12). All that can be said is that this is a case where the judge might well have seen fit to have given such a direction, and had he done so it might have gone some way to mitigate other criticisms of the summing up.
Mr Tonking’s second submission is that the effect of what the judge did say was totally to negate any benefit to the appellant from his good character. He submitted that the usual direction, that it should be taken into consideration when judging his credibility, is just as important when the jury are considering his exculpatory account to the police where he does not give evidence as it is in relation to an accused’s evidence where he gives it. He relied on a passage in the
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judgment of Watkins LJ in R v Kabariti (1990) 92 Cr App R 362 at 367. After referring to R v Watson (19 February 1990, unreported) he said:
‘The judgment went on in a way to which we should refer because, it is said, it may give the impression that in a case where a man of good character has told lies previously it may not be necessary to give the conventional direction. If that is how the judgment is to be read then we feel bound to say that we do not agree with it. It may be, however, that the words used in the judgment were not intended to convey that impression. It clearly is necessary for a court, when giving the character direction called for, to give it despite the fact that a defendant, having a previous good character, has told lies to the police or to anyone else before the trial.’
That was a case where the accused gave evidence and the jury had to determine the credibility of his evidence despite a differing and admittedly lying account given to the police. A judge is undoubtedly faced with a difficulty when an accused person has no convictions but has been dishonest in connection with the case. The problem was dealt with in R v Buzalek and Schiffer [1991] Crim LR 116. Taylor LJ, giving the judgment of the court of which Mars-Jones and Ward JJ were members, said (and we read from the transcript):
‘By directing the jury in that manner the learned judge did on two occasions remind the jury of the appellants’ lack of previous convictions and also as to other positive elements in their records which was in their favour. Those reminders of the absence of previous convictions could only be in the appellants’ favour. He did not, it is true, go on in the context of credibility to point out, as counsel claim he should have done, that they had not been previously convicted and that was a matter which went to credibility and should be put in the scales in their favour.’
That was a case where the dishonesty related to the offence itself; the appellants were contending that though they had done some dishonest acts they were not guilty of this offence.
What then is a judge to do in a situation like this? It seems to us that he should give the usual direction about the accused’s failure to give evidence. He should then deal with the effect of statements to the police, if necessary and he considers it desirable pointing out the distinction between the weight to be attached to admissions as opposed to exculpatory statements. He should then give the standard direction as to the effect of good character relating to credibility, pointing out that in this case it is only the exculpatory statements to the police that have to be considered so far as his credibility is concerned, and in an appropriate case he should also give the propensity direction. He should then refer to the lies admittedly made in interview, saying that such lies may in the jury’s view affect his credibility in relation to the rest of the interview but explain to them in the terms of the standard direction that lies may be said for different and innocent reasons.
All this is something of a mouthful. We have considerable sympathy with the judge who adopted what we might call the Buzalek approach; but the effect of his direction was substantially to negative any benefit from the appellant’s good character. In the particular circumstances of this case, if this point had stood alone we certainly would not have considered that the conviction was unsafe or unsatisfactory, although we consider for the reasons which we have given that the judge would have been better advised to have given a fuller direction on the lines we have indicated.
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The next ground of appeal is that in summing up the evidence the judge failed adequately to sum up the significant contradictions between the evidence given by Mr Brodie and by Mr Lees. These were crucial to the defence case. The only reference that the judge made to conflicts of evidence was this:
‘Primarily you are invited to decide the case on evidence on oath and you decide which witnesses can be relied on as telling the truth in whole or in part. The three witnesses whose evidence is under scrutiny are Goodwin, Brodie and Lees, and I think you will find that there are bigger conflicts between the evidence of Goodwin and the perhaps unfortunate Brodie than there are between Goodwin and Lees, but that is a matter for you to decide.’
We have transcripts of Mr Tonking’s examination of the witnesses Brodie and Lees; it is clear that he made considerable inroads into the prosecution case, as he did also with the evidence of Goodwin. There were four important contradictions of Lees’s evidence to be found in the cross-examination of Brodie: (a) Lees denied that Brodie had been involved in discussing with Lees the business of Stoke-on-Trent Waste Paper and the possibility of Lees becoming involved in that business before Lees provided the cheques, contradicted by Brodie; (b) Lees denied that Brodie had told him that Brodie was a partner in the business, contradicted by Brodie; (c) Lees denied that before he had provided the cheques he had asked that his name should not appear on any of the firm’s books, contradicted by Brodie; (d) Lees denied that it was a condition of his joining the business that no debts which existed at that time would attach to his name, contradicted by Brodie.
The judge does not refer to these contradictions at all. In fact he made no attempt to analyse the evidence; he simply reminded the jury of each witness’ evidence in turn. Although it was not a complex case and the case was essentially only concerned with the three prosecution witnesses and the appellant’s interview, in our judgment the jury would have been assisted by such an analysis and the appellant was entitled to expect it. It was particularly important where a defendant had not given evidence that the judge should try and draw to the jury’s attention those parts of the evidence that came from the prosecution witnesses which wholly supported the defence case.
This was all the more desirable in this case because the judge dealt with the defendant’s case in succinct, not to say terse, terms. The judge summarises it as follows:
‘As we will see gradually various defences are raised but that is not one of them. It is alleged in general terms (1) that the defendant was never dishonest; (2) that such representations as he made were true; and (3) that in fact his representations did not affect Mr Lees. Lees knew it all himself.’
Then he said:
‘Mr Tonking has very thoroughly and in detail put forward the defendant’s case and I think you will have in mind his final speech. As is necessary for defending counsel, particularly when his client does not give evidence, he emphasised the burden of proof and the defendant’s justification in not giving evidence. As I say, he agreed the lies in the interview and suggested it was because he, the defendant, drew a distinction between being charged with the cheques and charged with an offence including receiving the money, which you do not need reminding is not part of the charge, so the approach of the prosecution has changed on that detail. Mr Tonking defined the first issue on the deceptions when he passed the cheque for £1,000 was
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he still under the impression that Sharp was the sole owner of the business? That is perfectly true; or did he realise that the other man, Brodie, had an interest then? Ditto as to the £9,000, then there are the various points to be taken to and fro on the documents. They have been analysed carefully by both counsel. I would suggest, incidentally, that you also do not forget exhibit 6, the letter from the defendant which indicates one way or the other, which you have got to assess, his attitude to the situation as time went on. Mr Tonking took you carefully into exhibit 1, suggesting that the internal evidence on the documents is that they were produced for different purposes and would have been produced at vastly different times. I will not repeat the question of the evidence on that matter. In the end, as he put it, have any representations or, as you may prefer to put it, any deceptions been made which the prosecution have proved to your satisfaction to have been acted on by Lees before he paid out the money, and the general submission is that such deceptions have not been proved and the issue therefore of guilt or innocence is one for you, members of the jury, to decide.’
The next ground of appeal is that before summarising the evidence of Mr Goodwin and Mr Brodie the judge remarked:
‘I will say that both as to Goodwin and to Brodie, with greater or lesser excuse but you might think both might have been in some peril of being involved in some sort of dishonest conspiracy.’
It is clear from this remark and other observations the judge made in the course of the evidence that he had formed the clear view that the appellant was not the only person who should have been in the dock. He may have had some grounds for thinking this, but it was a most unfortunate remark because Goodwin and Brodie could only have been involved in a dishonest conspiracy if the charges against the appellant were proven, which was the very thing the jury had to decide. Moreover it ignored the fact that Brodie and Goodwin, had they been charged, might also have run the defence that Lees was not deceived; he went into the venture with his eyes open and was not so naive as he made out and that there was no dishonesty. In our judgment it was a material irregularity for the judge to have said this in unqualified terms.
The last ground of appeal relates to the judge’s conduct of the trial, and it falls into two parts: the first relates to the judge’s interruptions during cross-examination of the prosecution witnesses; the second, the judge’s behaviour during defence counsel’s closing speech to the jury. Criticisms of this sort are always difficult for counsel to make, particularly in relation to a very experienced judge. Mr Tonking has made these criticisms with marked restraint and moderation.
It is contended as follows, that:
‘(a) During the cross-examination of Mr Goodwin, Mr Brodie and Mr Lees, who were the main prosecution witnesses, the learned judge intervened on several occasions. In particular, he deflected defence counsel from taking his own course in cross-examining Mr Brodie and Mr Lees, although no objection was ever taken by prosecuting counsel to the cross-examination. By his intervention the judge showed hostility to the defence case and undermined the cross-examination. In particular …’
There were a very considerable number of interruptions by the judge in the course of the cross-examination of Mr Brodie and Mr Lees, but Mr Tonking has concentrated our attention on seven in particular. The law on this matter was
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stated by Purchas LJ in R v Matthews (1984) 78 Cr App R 23 at 32–33 where after reviewing the authorities he said:
‘To summarise these authorities the following propositions appear to emerge: (1) Whilst a large number of interruptions must put this court on notice of the possibility of a denial of justice, mere statistics are not of themselves decisive; (2) The critical aspect of the investigation is the quality of the interventions as they relate to the attitude of the judge as might be observed by the jury and the effect that the interventions have either upon the orderly, proper and lucid deployment of the case for the defendant by his advocate or upon the efficacy of the attack to be made on the defendant’s behalf upon vital prosecution witnesses by cross-examination administered by his advocate on his behalf; (3) In analysing the overall effect of the interventions, quantity and quality cannot be considered in isolation, but will react the one upon the other; but the question which is posed ultimately for this court is “Might the case for the defendant as presented to the jury over the trial as a whole, including the adducing and testing of evidence, the submissions of counsel and the summing up of the judge, be such that the jury’s verdict might be unsafe?” In the presence of conditions in which this Court has been alerted in the manner to which we have referred, it appears to us that if there is a possibility of a denial of justice then this Court ought to intervene.’ (Purchas LJ’s emphasis.)
When a judge intervenes in the course of examination, or particularly cross-examination, a number of problems can arise depending on the frequency and manner of the interruptions. First the judge may be in danger of seeming to enter the arena in the sense that he may appear partial to one side or the other. This may arise from the hostile tone of questioning or implied criticism of counsel who is conducting the examination or cross-examination, or if the judge is impressed by a witness, perhaps suggesting excuses or explanations for a witness’ conduct which is open to attack by counsel for the opposite party.
Quite apart from this, frequent interruptions may so disrupt the thread of cross-examination that counsel’s task may be seriously hampered. In a case of any complexity cross-examination of the principal witnesses is something that calls for careful preparation and planning. It is the most important part of the advocate’s art, because a competent cross-examination is designed to weaken or destroy the opponent’s case and to gain support for the client’s case. But it is easier said than done. If the judge intervenes at a crucial point where the witness is being constrained to make an important admission, it can have an adverse effect on the trial.
In general, when a cross-examination is being conducted by competent counsel a judge should not intervene, save to clarify matters he does not understand or thinks the jury may not understand. If he wishes to ask questions about matters that have not been touched upon it is generally better to wait until the end of the examination or cross-examination. This is no doubt a counsel of perfection and a judge should not be criticised for occasional transgressions; still less can it be said in such cases that there is any irregularity in the conduct of the trial or that the verdict is unsafe or unsatisfactory. But there may come a time, depending on the nature and frequency of the interruptions that a reviewing court is of the opinion that defence counsel was so hampered in the way he properly wished to conduct the cross-examination that the judge’s conduct amounts to a material irregularity.
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I must now return to the matters in respect of which complaint is made. First, in the course of Mr Brodie’s cross-examination, Mr Tonking was seeking to show that there had been a significant change in the account of this witness from his witness statement to his evidence and that in the former he was seeking to distance himself from any involvement in the business of obtaining Lees’s investment. This passage runs:
‘Judge Allardice. Before we do all that, is he not really agreeing merely with everything you say now? I do not know whether we have got to go through the statement. I mean, you are not charged with any criminal offence and I cannot see how you could be, but you knew Lees was putting his money into a very dicky business, did you not? A. Yes.
Judge Allardice. Do you really need a lot more than that? Have we got to go through all the statements?
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, I think I can take it quite shortly but I am afraid … I am conscious of the fact that this is a case rather more complex than average. I am trying not to go into unnecessary detail.
Judge Allardice. It seems to me that he is being pretty honest to us when he says he knew Lees was putting his money into a dicky business.
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, Yes. Mr Brodie, perhaps we can take it in this way. When you made your first statement to the police you did not tell them anything about the meeting at the Richmond? A. No.
Mr Tonking. Would you like to check the statement? I do not want you to agree with me …
Judge Allardice. I think he agrees, does he not? I would not bother to check it.
Mr Tonking. As your Honour pleases. I do not want to be unfair to the witness. You did not say anything about that, did you? A. Not that I know of, no.’
In our judgment it is unfortunate that the judge should have made a comment on the honesty of the witness at this stage. It was important that Mr Tonking should have been allowed to develop his cross-examination, so that the jury should see plainly the change of front. To say the least, this was an unnecessary interruption of a perfectly responsible cross-examination. While it is true that the judge is to a considerable extent commending the effect of the cross-examination, he is also beginning to show signs of impatience with counsel which in our view was not justified.
A somewhat similar situation arose later while Mr Tonking was asking about a most important meeting which on the defence case was attended by Brodie, Sharp and Lees. Brodie had agreed, but it was contrary to his police statement. The judge intervenes and says:
‘Judge Allardice. Will you agree that with the police … It sounds as though you have told us a pretty true story now; I do not know what more the defence want, but with the police you were being economical with the truth, were you not? A. Yes.
Judge Allardice. There you are, he was being economical with the truth.
Mr Tonking. I am very grateful. Why? A. Because I was being asked the question and I gave them the answer.’
Then a little later the judge intervenes again. This is a prelude to the judge’s comment in the summing up to which we have already referred. Although in this passage again the judge commends the cross-examination, it would in our view
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have been much better if the judge had not intervened. From the defence point of view this witness was of great importance and the appellant needed to rely on much of what emerged in the cross-examination; for this reason Mr Tonking needed to explore the change of tack and show that his evidence was reliable, and that what he had said earlier which led to the prosecution was not.
In the course of the cross-examination of Mr Lees there were a number of prolonged interruptions. It had been the evidence of both Brodie and Goodwin that it was common knowledge in the club of which they were members that the appellant was bankrupt. Lees denied this; he was being asked about it when the judge interrupted:
‘Judge Allardice. If you put it like that it sounds as though you have got evidence that he knew, does it not? [That is to say that Sharp was bankrupt.]
Mr Tonking. No.
Judge Allardice. Well it does sound as though you have got … To me, it sounds, if you put it like that …
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, the reason I put it like that is because of the situation in which Mr Lees was and which he has just told your Honour and the jury about.
Judge Allardice. I just want to know. You are not suggesting any actual knowledge? You are not going further than presumed knowledge?
Mr Tonking. I am suggesting to him that he was bound to know. That is the way I put it.
Judge Allardice. You have not got any evidence, you say, that he did know other than he was at a place where he might have known. All you can put to him is that he might well have known.
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, I hope the court will forgive me …
Judge Allardice. You appear to be suggesting he is lying when he said he did not know, but you do not have any actual evidence that he did know.
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, I put to him strongly that he knew full well, I think were my words, and that was based on the fact that we have heard evidence from I think two witnesses already that it was common knowledge in the Richmond Club, at which this witness was the gymnasium manager; it was common knowledge that Frank Sharp was bankrupt. I think based on that evidence …
Judge Allardice. I do not think that is enough on which to base an allegation that somebody is lying, but I mean it does not particularly matter, I suppose.
Mr Tonking. Your Honour and the jury have heard those two witnesses. They said it was common knowledge. I have put to this witness that it was common knowledge. He says it was not.
Judge Allardice. There we are.
Mr Tonking. You knew John Brodie too, did you not? A. As well as I knew Frank Sharp.’
This was in our view a completely unnecessary intervention. Counsel’s line of cross-examination was perfectly proper and the judge’s criticism unjustified. This passage is linked to a passage in the summing up where the judge says that Mr Tonking was not suggesting that Lees was lying. We do not understand how the judge thought this; it is plain that this was the whole drift of the cross-examination.
Mr Tonking had been suggesting that the question of Sharp’s bankruptcy had been discussed before Lees put the money into the business and this was why Sharp was merely treated as an employee. The judge interrupted to have a
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discussion with counsel about the position of partners in bankruptcy. All we can say is that the interruption seems to have been quite unnecessary at this stage, which was an important part of the cross-examination and may well have thrown Mr Tonking off his stride.
Later Mr Tonking was cross-examining on the differences which were apparent between the first two pages of exhibit 1 and the second two pages. The differences were manifest, as we have already pointed out. It was crucial to the defence to show if they could that no sensible person would have thought they were describing the same business at the same time. That was the drift of Mr Tonking’s cross-examination. The judge intervened as follows:
‘Judge Allardice. Can we not have how the defendant puts it? They are his documents? What is the point in going back to what he said this morning? Surely the logical thing is we now want to hear what the defendant’s case is about when he took them. We are talking about three years ago. Would you please put what the defendant’s case is about when the documents were put to him?
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, certainly I shall put that, but I wonder … I have spent a deal of time preparing my cross-examination.
Judge Allardice. Well you go on … I do not mind if you have. You can go on confusing people about what happened years ago but if somebody does remember you might as well put it and see if it is agreed with. It may be agreed with. There must be some explanation.
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, I hope it is not suggested that I am trying to confuse people. It certainly is not my intention.
Judge Allardice. I think I can put … Please put directly what your client’s case is about exhibit 1.
Mr Tonking. The first sheet of exhibit 1, Mr Lees, is dated 10 June, is it not? It was at about that time that you received that document? A. Yes. Q. That is correct, is it not? A. About that time, yes. Q. At that time, you say, your case is that you were going to go into a partnership with Mr Sharp, yes? A. Correct. Q. Not a limited company, a partnership? A. At that time I had not discussed the exact detail. It was an idea which Sharp came to me with. Q. The company was not to be limited, was it? A. I am not aware of that; I do not know. Q. I do not want to confuse you and I do want this to be clear because this is very important. I would like you please to refresh your memory from the statement you made. Have you still got that statement, the one I asked you to look at a little earlier?
Judge Allardice. For goodness sake, put what your client’s case is. I really cannot keep going back to people’s statements at this stage. We want to know before we adjourn today what your client’s case is on exhibit 1, so please do it. I want to know whether he agrees with what you put or not.’
The intervention carries on for another half a page.
Again, in our judgment, that intervention was not called for; this was not a case where the cross-examination could be conducted simply on the basis of putting the defendant’s case. It was very important that Mr Tonking should have been allowed to develop this important line of cross-examination. The judge’s suggestion that counsel was seeking to confuse the witness or jury was quite unjustified and should have been withdrawn. The passage undoubtedly shows impatience with counsel which was not called for; though whether impatience in itself had an adverse effect on the appellant’s case may be more debatable.
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Later Mr Tonking was cross-examining with a view to showing that Mr Lees was not just a naive ex-professional footballer who was deceived by his friend. Again it was an important part of the defence case. At this point the judge intervened as follows:
‘Judge Allardice. As between you and Mr Sharp, whom would you find the more experienced businessman? A. I had not business experience. I believed Frank Sharp was the businessman.
Mr Tonking. When you were an insurance agent, did you have to fill figures into the forms? A. Yes. Q. Were you paid on commission? A. Yes.
Judge Allardice. How long did you work for the insurance company? A. Weeks. Q. Were you any good at it? A. Not particularly, no. Q. How many customers did you persuade? A. Not a great deal, that is why I finished. Q. How many, about? A. A dozen, that was it. Q. You had about a dozen customers, right. Do you really want to cross-examine him about that?
Mr Tonking. Only to this extent …’
The intervention was uncalled for; it seems to have been with a view to discounting the effect of the cross-examination and minimising any sort of business experience Mr Lees had.
The final criticism related to where Mr Tonking was cross-examining with a view to showing that Mr Lees knew much more about the part Mr Goodwin played as a moneylender to the business and had met him before he handed over any cheques. There appears this passage:
‘Judge Allardice. Are you suggesting that he knew Goodwin was a money lender who was owed £3,000 and going to take it out of his £10,000?
Mr Tonking. I am not suggesting that he knew Goodwin
Judge Allardice. I mean, the issues are perfectly plain then between him and your client. He has been cross-examined now for something more than three hours, has he not? I would have thought you had made every conceivable issue plain. If he did not know that Goodwin was a money lender owed £3,000 I cannot see that there is any point cross-examining any more about Goodwin.
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, this is a matter which goes to credit.
Judge Allardice. Well if you think anything Mr Goodwin says is going to ruin anybody else’s credit I should have thought you have got another thing coming.
Mr Tonking. Your Honour, with respect, that is a matter of comment. It is a matter for the jury and not for your Honour as to whether they rely on Mr Goodwin’s evidence.
Judge Allardice. There comes a time when cross-examination just becomes oppressive both to the witness and to the judge and to the jury.
Mr Tonking. As your Honour wishes, I will not pursue that point, being directed not to.’
He then goes on to another topic.
Again the intervention is unfortunate. Mr Tonking was not making the suggestion the judge attributed to him. Mr Goodwin was an important witness from the defence point of view since much of what he said supported the defence case and contradicted Mr Lees. The judge should not have commented on the credibility of his evidence in these derogatory terms; and in our judgment the criticism of the cross-examination as being oppressive was not justified. It had
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taken longer than it should have done in no small part because of the judge’s interventions.
The final ground of appeal is as follows:
‘The learned judge punctuated defence counsel’s closing speech with audible sighs and noises of disapproval and at one point interrupted the speech to rebuke counsel for saying that Mr Brodie had “told” Mr Lees that he was a partner in Stoke-on-Trent Waste Paper when his evidence was that he had “made Mr Lees aware” that he was a partner. This intervention was unnecessary and served only to underline the judge’s disapproval and to distract the jury and counsel from the content of the speech.’
Mr Tedd has confirmed what is here factually alleged. This was a small court and both counsel and the judge were in close proximity to the jury. We are told by Mr Tedd as well as Mr Tonking that the jury were not infrequently distracted by the judge’s audible expressions of what can only have been taken as disapproval. Whatever the judge may think of counsels’ submissions he should not distract the jury’s concentration upon them. This was all the more important in the present case since the appellant had not given evidence and it was the only occasion when his case was presented to the jury; moreover Mr Tonking’s submission lasted no more than 30 minutes, which can hardly be described as prolix or time wasting. The distinction between ‘telling’ somebody something, and ‘making them aware’ hardly seems to have merited the importance the judge seems to have attached to it.
As we have already pointed out the judge dealt summarily with the defence case, telling the jury that Mr Tonking had dealt with it very thoroughly and thereby perhaps suggesting that there was less need for him to do so. But if the judge had by his conduct shown such marked disapproval of Mr Tonking’s submissions, we can only conclude that the jury may not have had a fair opportunity to consider them. In his skeleton argument in support of the appeal Mr Tonking said that the judge’s attitude, as demonstrated throughout the cross-examination, was a significant factor in determining the appellant not to give evidence. If this is so, it was very unfortunate. In the light of what we have seen we accept that it may have been so.
In relation to the representations alleged to have been made with regard to the assets of the business the Crown had a strong case; but in relation to the other representations the cross-examination must have seriously affected the prosecution case. Moreover everything turned on the credibility of Lees; there was a good deal of material available to damage it. Although Mr Tonking did his best to deploy this in cross-examination we think that the judge’s interventions must have weakened the impact of this attack, and we think that the judge’s interventions during counsel’s final speech can only have added to the process.
In our judgment the appellant may well have a justifiable feeling that he did not have a fair trial. We have come to the conclusion that the cumulative effect of all
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the grounds of appeal are such that we are persuaded the conviction is not safe and satisfactory and must be quashed.
Appeal allowed. Conviction quashed.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
R v Vye
R v Wise
R v Stephenson
[1993] 3 All ER 241
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, JUDGE AND HIDDEN JJ
Hearing Date(s): 2, 18 FEBRUARY 1993
Criminal evidence – Character of accused – Good character – Credibility and propensity to commit offence – Effect of defendant’s good character on credibility and propensity to commit offence – Direction to jury – Direction to jury as to relevance of good character to credibility where defendant does not give evidence but has made exculpatory statements to police on which he relies at trial – Direction to jury as to relevance of good character to propensity to commit offence – Direction where defendant of good character jointly tried with defendant of bad character.
Where the credibility or propensity to commit an offence of a defendant of good character, ie with no previous convictions, is in issue in a criminal trial the trial judge should give a direction as to the relevance of his good character to his credibility or likelihood of having committed the offence charged, whether or not he has testified or made pre-trial answers or statements at trial which he relies on. It is for the trial judge in each case to decide how directions as to character are to be tailored to the particular circumstances. The judge may for example, as is commonly done, indicate to the jury that good character cannot amount to a defence and, provided that he indicates the two respects in which good character might be relevant, ie going to credibility and propensity to commit an offence, the Court of Appeal will be slow to criticise any qualifying remarks based on the facts of the case (see p 244 j to p 245 a f g, p 246 h to p 247b and p 248 g h, post).
A defendant of good character is entitled to have the judge direct the jury on character where he is jointly tried with a co-accused of bad character. In relation to the co-accused of bad character the judge may, depending on the circumstances, eg how great an issue has been made of character during the evidence and speeches, think it best to direct the jury that they must try the case on the evidence, that there was no evidence about the co-accused’s character, and that they must not speculate and must not take the absence of information as to the co-accused’s character as any evidence against him. Alternatively, the judge may think it best to say nothing about the absence of evidence as to the co-accused’s character (see p 248 c to e h, post); R v Gibson (1991) 93 Cr App R 9 not followed.
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NotesFor character generally, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1070; for good character of accused, see ibid para 1073, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 556–558, 17451–17484.
Cases referred to in judgmentR v Aberg [1948] 1 All ER 601, [1948] 2 KB 173, CCA.
R v Ackers (23 July 1992, unreported), CA.
R v Anderson [1990] Crim LR 862, CA
R v Bainbridge (1991) 93 Cr App 32, CA.
R v Bellis [1966] 1 All ER 552, [1966] 1 WLR 234, CCA.
R v Berrada (1989) 91 Cr App R 131, CA.
R v Boyson [1991] Crim LR 274, CA.
R v Bravery [1991] Crim LR 443, CA.
R v Briley [1991] Crim LR 444, CA.
R v Bryant [1978] 2 All ER 689, [1979] QB 108, [1978] 2 WLR 589, CA.
R v Cohen (1990) 91 Cr App R 125, CA.
R v Duncan (1981) 73 Cr App R 359, CA.
R v Field (1992) Times, 22 December, CA.
R v Gibson (1991) 93 Cr App R 9, CA.
R v Handbridge (26 November 1992, unreported), CA.
R v Kabariti (1990) 92 Cr App R 362, CA.
R v Kennealy (29 March 1990, unreported), CA.
R v Marr (1989) 90 Cr App R 154, CA.
R v Mason (18 September 1992, unreported), CA.
R v Mendez (9 June 1989, unreported), CA.
R v Richens (1992) Times, 25 November, CA.
R v Sharp [1993] 3 All ER 225, CA.
R v Shaw (1992) Times, 31 December, CA.
R v Smith [1971] Crim LR 531, CA.
R v Stannard (1837) 7 C & P 673, 173 ER 295.
R v Thanki (1990) 93 Cr App R 12, CA.
R v Wills (1990) 92 Cr App 297, CA.
Cases also citedR v Brown (6 August 1991, unreported), CA.
R v Buzalek [1991] Crim LR 116, CA.
R v Chapman [1989] Crim LR 60, CA.
R v Garland (10 March 1992, unreported), CA.
R v Kennett (1992) Times, 3 March, CA.
R v Timson [1993] Crim LR 58, CA.
Appeals against convictionR v Vye
John Arthur Vye appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction, by a majority of ten to two on 17 October 1991 in the Crown Court at Winchester before French J and a jury, of rape for which he was sentenced to four and a half years’ imprisonment. The ground of appeal was that the judge’s direction to the jury on good character was inadequate. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
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R v Wise
Peter Frederick James Wise appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction on 6 December 1991 in the Crown Court at Croydon before Judge Pullinger and a jury of handling stolen goods (count 1) and obtaining property by deception (count 2), for which he was sentenced to concurrent terms of six months’ imprisonment suspended for two years. He was also fined £650 on count 2 and ordered to pay £876 prosecution costs. The grounds of appeal were: (1) the judge was wrong in law in failing to direct the jury that the appellant’s good character was a matter they could treat as making it less likely that he was guilty of the offence with which he was charged; (2) further or alternatively the judge wrongly exercised his discretion in failing to give such a direction, the judge took into account matters which he should not have taken into consideration in reaching his decision not to give such a direction, namely the simplicity and straightforwardness of the case, and he did not take into consideration the relevance of the direction to the particular case; and (3) the convictions were accordingly unsafe and unsatisfactory. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Stephenson
Malcolm John Stephenson appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction on 18 April 1991 in the Crown Court at Aylesbury before Judge Slack and a jury of conspiracy to supply a controlled drug (cannabis resin). On 22 April 1991 he was sentenced to nine years’ imprisonment. The ground of appeal was that, by emphasising the good character of the co-accused, the judge highlighted the bad character of the appellant, which had a prejudicial effect and rendered his conviction unsafe. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Christopher H Clark QC and Paul Garlick (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant Vye.
Martin Wilson QC and James Bullen (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown in Vye’s appeal.
Christopher H Clark QC and Peter Digney (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant Wise.
Martin Wilson QC and John Coveney (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown in Wise’s appeal.
Michael Wolkind (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant Stephenson.
Martin Wilson QC and Nicholas Browne (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown in Stephenson’s appeal.
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the appeal of Vye would be allowed for reasons to be given at a later date and that judgment in the appeals of Wise and Stephenson would be reserved.
18 February 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
The three appeals were heard together by consent.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ delivered the following judgment of the court. These three appeals are all based upon criticisms of the learned judges’ directions in regard to good character. At one time these issues would not have been regarded even as arguable in this court.
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The trial judge was understood to have a broad discretion to comment on the defendant’s good character or not as he thought fit. The principle applied by this court was that the judge had no obligation to give directions on good character or even to remind the jury of it (see R v Aberg [1948] 1 All ER 601, [1948] 2 KB 173 and R v Smith [1971] Crim LR 531).
Since about 1989, however, there has been a dramatic change. This court has been inundated with appeals based upon the judge’s alleged misdirection or failure to give any direction to the jury about good character. Save in one respect, clear principles have not emerged and Mr Martin Wilson QC on behalf of the Crown in these appeals described the present situation as ‘something of a lottery’. After drawing our attention to all the relevant authorities, reported and unreported, since 1989 Mr Wilson submitted that this court should now give clear guidance as to the relevant principles.
Before considering the authorities, it is helpful to say something of the historical background. The defendant was entitled to adduce evidence of his good character long before the law treated him as a competent witness in his own defence. Such evidence was allowed—
‘to be submitted to the jury, to induce them to say whether they think it likely that a person with such a character would have committed the offence.’ (See R v Stannard (1837) 7 C & P 673 at 675, 173 ER 295 at 296.)
Once the defendant became able to give evidence, a further consideration in regard to good character was introduced. Thus in R v Bellis [1966] 1 All ER 552, [1966] 1 WLR 234 at 236 that consideration was encapsulated by Widgery J as follows:
‘Although there is ... no formal or standard direction in these terms, this court does take the view that possession of a good character is primarily a matter which goes to credibility …’
In R v Bryant [1978] 2 All ER 689, [1979] QB 108 the defendant, a man of good character, elected not to give evidence. In his direction to the jury the judge appeared to suggest that good character was relevant only to credibility. In this court that approach was said to be ‘too restrictive’. Good character was relevant ‘primarily to the issue of credibility’. Nevertheless, juries ‘should’ be directed that it was capable of general significance of the kind suggested in the passage quoted from R v Stannard. However, notwithstanding the omission of a Stannard direction, the verdict was found neither unsafe nor unsatisfactory.
In February 1989 in R v Berrada (1989) 91 Cr App R 131 this court considered, amongst other grounds, an alleged misdirection about good character. The defendant had given evidence. Waterhouse J, giving the judgment of the court, said (at 134):
‘In the judgment of this Court, the appellant was entitled to have put to the jury from the judge herself a correct direction about the relevance of his previous good character to his credibility. This is a conventional direction and it is regrettable that it did not appear in the summing-up in this case. It would have been proper also (but was not obligatory) for the judge to refer to the fact that the previous good character of the appellant might be thought by them to be one relevant factor when they were considering whether he was the kind of man who was likely to have behaved in the way that the prosecution alleged ... We have no doubt, however, that the modern practice is that, if good character is raised by a defendant, it should be dealt with in the summing-up. Moreover, when it is dealt with, the direction should be
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fair and balanced, stressing its relevance primarily to a defendant’s credibility.’
That decision, therefore, confirmed that, whatever the position may have been previously, it is now an established principle that, where the defendant of good character has given evidence, it is no longer sufficient for the judge to comment in general terms. He is required to direct the jury about the relevance of good character to the credibility of the defendant. Conventionally this has come to be described as the ‘first limb’ of a character direction. The passage quoted also stated that the judge was entitled, but not obliged, to refer to the possible relevance of good character to the question whether the defendant was likely to have behaved as alleged by the Crown. That (in effect the Stannard direction) is the ‘second limb’.
Leaving aside cases involving more than one defendant where one is of good character and one is not, virtually all the numerous decisions since R v Berrada have reiterated that the first limb direction is necessary whenever the defendant has given evidence. This has been held to be so even when, on his own admission, he has told lies in interview with the police (see R v Kabariti (1990) 92 Cr App R 362).
Accordingly, we turn to the three problems which seem presently to be unresolved on the authorities. They are (a) whether a ‘first limb’ direction needs to be given in a case where the defendant does not give evidence but has made statements to the police or others, (b) whether the ‘second limb’ direction should now be regarded as discretionary or obligatory and (c) what course the judge should take in a joint trial where one defendant is of good character but another is not.
(a) Defendant of good character not giving evidence
There are authorities suggesting there is a discretion whether a ‘first limb’ direction should be given in relation to answers to the police in interview which are relied upon in support of the defence (eg R v Ackers (23 July 1992, unreported)). In R v Handbridge (26 November 1992, unreported) it was held that ‘good practice’ suggested the direction should be given. In R v Field (1992) Times, 22 December it was accepted that absence of previous convictions ‘may go to the credibility of a defendant who does not go into the witness box but who answers questions from the police’.
In our judgment, when the defendant has not given evidence at trial but relies on exculpatory statements made to the police or others, the judge should direct the jury to have regard to the defendant’s good character when considering the credibility of those statements. He will, of course, be entitled to make observations about the way the jury should approach such exculpatory statements in contrast to evidence given on oath (see R v Duncan (1981) 73 Cr App R 359), but when the jury is considering the truthfulness of any such statements, it would be logical for them to take good character into account, just as they would in regard to a defendant’s evidence.
Clearly, if a defendant of good character does not give evidence and has given no pre-trial answers or statements, no issue as to his credibility arises and a first limb direction is not required.
(b) The ‘second limb’ direction
The relevant authorities as to the judge’s duty with regard to the ‘second limb’ are confusing. On a number of occasions it has been said that the second limb direction is ‘discretionary’ or ‘not obligatory’. This was expressly stated in the
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passage quoted from R v Berrada and also appears in R v Thanki (1990) 93 Cr App R 12 and R v Bainbridge (1991) 93 Cr App 32.
Nevertheless, despite these repeated statements, in a number of recent cases this court has held omission of such a direction to be inappropriate. We do not propose to give long citations from all the cases. A few examples will suffice. In R v Marr (1989) 90 Cr App R 154 at 157, which concerned a relatively minor indecent assault on a woman in a public street in daylight, such a direction ‘should have [been] mentioned’. In R v Cohen (1990) 91 Cr App R 125 at 131, a case concerning serious dishonesty by a defendant aged over 60, this court said such a direction was ‘not vital’ but was ‘in a case of this nature ... appropriate’.
In R v Kennealy (29 March 1990, unreported), where police officers were alleged to have committed a relatively trifling crime risking ruin of their careers and condign punishment, such a direction was said to be ‘usual’ and ‘in this case it was incumbent to direct the jury’. In R v Bravery [1991] Crim LR 443, minor indecent assaults on a boy of 15 by a man of 51, the court held ‘that direction should have been given in a case such as this’. In R v Anderson [1990] Crim LR 862 a police officer was charged with rape whilst on duty and admitted sexual intercourse with the woman. This court held that a direction on the second limb was ‘very important’. In R v Wills (1990) 92 Cr App 297 at 302, a case of dishonesty, this court said that, although the directions were not appropriate to every crime, ‘generally it is a point that should be made’. In R v Richens (1992) Times, 25 November although the direction was said to be a matter of discretion, it was also said it might have been ‘preferable’ for it to have been given notwithstanding that the appellant admitted an unlawful killing and the only issue was murder or manslaughter. Most recently, in R v Sharp [1993] 3 All ER 225 at 232 Stuart-Smith LJ, having referred to the obligatory first limb direction, went on: ‘… in an appropriate case he should also give the propensity direction.’
Having considered those cases, we have been unable to discern any principle or consistent pattern as to when a second limb direction should be given and when it need not. Neither the nature of the crime, its gravity, the age of the defendant, whether he is merely of no previous convictions or of positively good character nor the nature of the defence would seem to have provided clear guidance as to whether the court would regard a second limb direction as entirely discretionary, desirable, important or necessary.
We have considered the whole spectrum of the situations likely to face the trial judge. At one extreme there is the case of an employee who has been entrusted with large sums of money over many years by his employer and, having carried out his duties impeccably, is finally charged with stealing from the till. There a second limb direction is obviously relevant and necessary. At the other extreme is a case such as R v Richens where the defendant, charged with murder, admits manslaughter. It might be thought that in such a case a second limb direction would be little help to the jury. The defendant’s argument that he has never stooped to murder before would be countered by the fact that he had never stooped to manslaughter before either. Nevertheless, there might well be a residual argument that what was in issue was intent and he had never shown any intent to use murderous violence in the past.
We have reached the conclusion that the time has come to give some clear guidance to trial judges as to how they should approach this matter. It cannot be satisfactory for uncertainty to persist so that judges do not know whether this court, proceeding on a case by case basis, will hold that a ‘second limb’ direction should or need not have been given. Our conclusion is that such a direction should be given where a defendant is of good character.
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Does the need for a second limb direction still exist when the defendant has not given evidence? According to R v Bryant it does. However, more recent cases, in which R v Bryant has not always been cited, are not wholly consistent (see eg R v Mendez (9 June 1989, unreported), R v Boyson [1991] Crim LR 274, R v Briley [1991] Crim LR 444 and R v Handbridge (26 November 1992, unreported)).
We can see no logical ground for distinguishing in regard to a ‘second limb’ direction between cases where the defendant has given evidence and cases where he has not.
Having stated the general rule, however, we recognise it must be for the trial judge in each case to decide how he tailors his direction to the particular circumstances. He would probably wish to indicate, as is commonly done, that good character cannot amount to a defence. In cases such as that of the long serving employee exemplified above, he may wish to emphasise the ‘second limb’ direction more than in the average case. By contrast, he may wish in a case such as the murder/manslaughter example given above, to stress the very limited help the jury may feel they can get from the absence of any propensity to violence in the defendant’s history. Provided that the judge indicates to the jury the two respects in which good character may be relevant, ie credibility and propensity, this court will be slow to criticise any qualifying remarks he may make based on the facts of the individual case.
(c) Two or more defendants of good and bad character
This situation clearly creates difficulties for the trial judge in summing up. Lord Lane CJ in R v Gibson (1991) 93 Cr App R 9 at 11–12 put the matter thus:
‘There may be very difficult problems facing a judge in dealing with cases of character where one of the participants in this sort of offence is of good character and the other is not, because by stressing the good character of the one he may be doing two things: first of all highlighting the bad character of the other and secondly, by reason of highlighting the bad character of the other, reflecting that bad character on to the good character of the first offender.’
Lord Lane CJ then ventured to suggest a possible solution. He said (at 12):
‘It may be that when there are two defendants, one of good character and the other not of good character, it will be advisable for the judge to say very little, if anything, about the character of the defendant who has no previous convictions. If that is the judge’s view, it will be prudent for him, in the absence of the jury, to indicate to counsel that that is what is in his mind, namely to make no reference about character at all, and to explain to counsel the reasons for it. That will enable counsel not only to address the judge on the point but also, if necessary, to make such reference to character as counsel may think fit in the case of his individual client in the course of his speech to the jury. It seems to us that that is the proper way in circumstances such as these, which may provide very great difficulty for the judge to balance fairness in respect of each of the defendants.’
It is right to say that what was suggested in that passage amounted only to a possible solution to a difficult problem. It did not lay down a firm rule of practice, still less a rule of law.
The suggestion that the good character of one defendant should be dealt with by his counsel rather than by the judge and that the judge should say nothing about it is in the passage above expressed to be for the judge to decide. However,
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there have been more recent cases in which this court has suggested that if counsel for the defendant is unwilling to accept the proposed mode of procedure, he would be entitled to insist on the judge giving a full direction (see R v Mason (18 September 1992, unreported) and R v Shaw (1992) Times, 31 December).
As Mr Wilson has pointed out, the suggestion in R v Gibson, as qualified in R v Mason and R v Shaw, involves a number of undesirable features and possible results. First, a defendant is entitled, as we have seen from the authorities, to a direction from the judge in regard to his good character. For the direction to be left to counsel without indorsement by the judge would be to devalue that factor in the eyes of the jury. Secondly, it cannot be desirable for the content of the summing up to be determined by whether counsel insists on a particular direction or not. It should be for the judge to decide what directions to give. Further, should the jury seek directions from the judge about the good character of one defendant or ask a question about the character of the other defendant, the judge could not abstain from assisting them even if there had been some compact about the original content of his summing up. Again, it would seem undesirable that there should be negotiation between the judge and counsel over the content of the summing up with, perhaps, the impression that counsel was being pressed to a solution.
For these reasons we conclude that the solution suggested in R v Gibson is not satisfactory and ought not to be followed. In our judgment a defendant A of good character is entitled to have the judge direct the jury even if he is jointly tried with a defendant B of bad character. This leaves the question as to what, if anything, the judge should say about the latter. In some cases the judge may think it best to grasp the nettle in his summing up and tell the jury that they must try the case on the evidence, that there has been no evidence about B’s character, that they must not speculate and must not take the absence of information as to B’s character as any evidence against B. In other cases the judge may, however, think it best to say nothing about the absence of evidence as to B’s character. What course he takes must depend upon the circumstances of the individual case, for example how great an issue has been made of character during the evidence and speeches.
The question has been raised (eg in R v Shaw) whether defendants of disparate characters might require separate trials. However, in our judgment, the possibility of separate trials is a matter for the judge and is to be decided in accordance with well-established principles. Problems such as statements of one defendant being inadmissible against another, the possibility of cross-examination of one defendant adversely on behalf of another and disparate characters are to be considered and weighed on a case by case basis. There can certainly be no rule in favour of separate trials for defendants of good and bad character. Generally, those jointly indicted should be jointly tried.
To summarise, in our judgment the following principles are to be applied. (1) A direction as to the relevance of his good character to a defendant’s credibility is to be given where he has testified or made pre-trial answers or statements. (2) A direction as to the relevance of his good character to the likelihood of his having committed the offence charged is to be given, whether or not he has testified, or made pre-trial answers or statements. (3) Where defendant A of good character is jointly tried with defendant B of bad character, (1) and (2) still apply.
R v Vye
The appellant was convicted of rape on 17 October 1991 by a majority verdict of ten to two in the Crown Court at Winchester and was sentenced to four years
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and six months’ imprisonment. He appeals against conviction by leave of the single judge.
The appellant knew the complainant. She was a single mother, who lived above the appellant’s daughter-in-law and was her baby-sitter. He had telephoned her several times. He had taken her to public houses and afterwards he had tried to kiss her.
On the evening in question he was sitting with her in her flat. He said he had been watching her for a year, that he fancied her and he made other remarks to like effect. According to the complainant, he began to undo her clothes. She tried to push him off telling him to leave her alone. Eventually he pulled off her pants and jeans together. He opened and raised her legs and then penetrated her. She said she kept shouting but she was not heard downstairs. She explained this by saying she did not wish to wake her daughter in the next room by shouting too loud. After the appellant ejaculated he got off her. Next day she told her sister. The day after she told the police.
The appellant was seen but declined to answer questions in interview. A doctor found the complainant suffering from vaginal soreness. There was a tear in the vagina in a position which supported her account of how intercourse took place.
The appellant gave evidence. He was a man of 50 years and of previous good character. He said that on the night in question there had been no arrangement for him to visit the complainant. He had popped in as he had done on previous occasions. They had tea and played cards. He started to kiss her and she responded. He asked her if it was ‘alright’ and she said, ‘Yes, but I am not on the pill.' She lifted herself up and took her jeans off. He then had intercourse with her and ejaculated. She said she hoped she was not pregnant. Afterwards they sat and smoked until the complainant said she ought to go to bed. They then kissed goodnight and said, ‘See you later.' The appellant maintained that the complainant fully agreed to all that happened and was now alleging rape because of her fear of pregnancy.
The learned judge summed up the case but made no reference to the appellant’s good character. The jury retired at 11.32 am. Sixteen minutes later the learned judge said to counsel he had failed to remind the jury of the appellant’s clean record. The jury was brought back, whereupon the learned judge said:
‘It occurred to me after you had gone to your retiring room that I had not reminded you of the evidence that the accused man was a man of clean record. I should have done so and it is my fault that I did not. It is something of course which cannot be conclusive one way or the other, but none the less, it is something which in fairness you could have in mind when considering the evidence. Thank you very much.’
The jury then retired again at 11.50 am. At 2.34 pm they asked to be reminded of the medical evidence and the doctor’s testimony was reiterated. A majority direction was given. Finally the jury returned at 3.07 pm with a majority verdict of guilty by ten to two.
The sole ground of appeal is that the learned judge, even when he brought the jury back from retirement to deal with good character, failed to give a proper and sufficient direction. He did not mention the relevance of good character to credibility. Nor did he mention its relevance in a man of 50 years to the likelihood of his having committed the offence.
Mr Wilson, on behalf of the Crown, concedes that he cannot resist the appeal. In this case the question of consent or no turned essentially upon the credibility
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of the appellant on the one hand and the complainant on the other. It was therefore of the first importance that the character direction should have been related to credibility. Likewise, the appellant’s age and crime free record were clearly matters to be considered by the jury in regard to propensity. In these circumstances there could be no question of applying the proviso in the present case. The appeal will therefore be allowed.
R v Wise
The appellant was convicted and sentenced on 6 December 1991 in the Crown Court at Croydon as follows: on count 1, for handling stolen goods, six months’ imprisonment; on count 2, for obtaining property by deception, six months’ imprisonment concurrent. Those two sentences were both suspended for a period of two years. The appellant was fined £650 on count 2 and ordered to pay £876 prosecution costs. He now appeals against conviction by leave of the single judge.
The appellant is a car repairer and salesman and had worked in the secondhand car trade for over eight years. His salvage and repair business was based at Swanley in Kent. On 1 April 1991 he bought a blue Ford Fiesta insurance ‘write-off’, registration C148 JHK for £300. The vehicle was extensively damaged.
A Mrs McGareth bought a new blue Ford Fiesta, registration D367 AGU in April 1987 for approximately £4,700. Her car was stolen on the night of 27 April 1991 from a street in Chislehurst.
On 5 May 1991 Mrs Aldridge bought a ‘C’ registration Ford Fiesta from the appellant for £1,600. That vehicle was examined on 2 June 1991 by police officers. They testified that the floor pan number of the vehicle had been chiselled along its whole length. The chassis plate number had been taken off and rivetted back again. The security mark appeared as a double image indicating it might have been overstamped. The engine number showed signs of having been ground down and restamped. The police suspected this vehicle was the Ford Fiesta stolen from Mrs McGareth. Accordingly, she was asked to examine the car and was able to confirm by certain distinguishing features that it was hers.
The appellant was charged with dishonestly receiving the vehicle. His workshop and house were searched but nothing incriminating was found. He told the police he did not know the car had been stolen or that it had been ringed. He had given the ‘write-off’ Fiesta to a man named Terry to repair. Terry returned it after two weeks and the appellant had no cause to suspect it was a different vehicle. He subsequently reimbursed Mrs McGareth the purchase price when he learnt what had taken place. The police searched Terry’s workshop and found the chassis plate from the stolen Fiesta.
The appellant’s evidence expanded the account he had given to the police. After he bought the ‘write-off’, the man named Terry, whom he knew by sight, offered to repair it for £700. This seemed reasonable to the appellant who allowed him to take the car but retained the car’s documents. Two weeks later Terry brought what the appellant believed was the repaired ‘C’ registration Fiesta and the appellant paid him £700. His case was that Terry had substituted the stolen car for the ‘write-off’ and he, the appellant, was wholly unaware of it.
The learned judge in summing up did make reference to the appellant being a man of previous good character. He said:
‘He has no previous convictions against him so we would term him in law a person of good character and that is something that is relevant to his
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believability. He is entitled to ask you to take that record into account when assessing him as a witness.’
At the end of the summing up, after the jury had retired, counsel for the prosecution raised with the judge the question of giving a ‘second limb’ direction as to character. The following exchange took place:
‘Counsel for the Crown. Your Honour directed the jury as to the defendant’s good character in respect of his credit. Did your Honour intend to say anything as to propensity?
Judge Pullinger. No, that is an optional matter. No need in this case.
Counsel for the defence. I simply say the way the defence was put, your Honour may think that it was appropriate in this case but your Honour has taken that view and I simply say that I think it is an appropriate case where propensity might have been mentioned.
Judge Pullinger. It is a perfectly straightforward matter. I do not think there is any need for us to go any further. As I say that is a matter that is optional.
Counsel for the defence. I accept that.’
We think it fair to the judge to say that, having regard to the various authorities cited earlier, his observation that a ‘second limb’ direction was ‘optional’ is readily understandable.
However, the sole ground of appeal in this case is that such a direction ought to have been given. It follows from what we have said earlier that in our judgment that submission is correct. Moreover, this was a case in which a direction concerning propensity was particularly appropriate. The appellant was a man of 35 who had worked in the secondhand car trade for some eight years and had not fallen foul of the law.
Accordingly, although we sympathise with the judge, we consider the direction here was defective. Bearing in mind the nature of the prosecution evidence and the defence, we are unable to say the jury would necessarily have reached the same verdict had they had a full direction. Accordingly this appeal must be allowed.
R v Stephenson
The appellant was convicted on 18 April 1991 in the Crown Court at Aylesbury of conspiracy to supply cannabis resin (count 1) and on 22 April he was sentenced to nine years’ imprisonment. The prosecution having elected to proceed on count 1 only, a formal verdict of not guilty was entered on count 2, possession of a controlled drug with intent to supply. The appellant now appeals against conviction by leave of the single judge.
There were two co-accused. Gary Hughes, a man of previous good character save for one ‘peccadillo’ at the age of 16, was acquitted. Stephen Reid pleaded guilty on rearraignment to count 2 and was sentenced to seven years’ imprisonment, a confiscation order being made in the sum of £758·26.
It was the Crown’s case that the co-accused Reid transported a large quantity of cannabis resin on 2 May 1990 with the intention of supplying it as evidenced by his plea of guilty. The appellant and co-accused Hughes were alleged to have conspired with Reid and to have played differing roles: Hughes as a chauffeur and the appellant as a general overseer. Each drove a different vehicle on the relevant day. The appellant was in a gold Cavalier, Hughes in a white Orion and Reid in a red Astra. The appellant and Reid were both members of Lime Trees Golf and Social Club during 1989 and 1990. They knew each other and drank together on occasions.
Page 252 of [1993] 3 All ER 241
Mr Blizzard, a farmer at Chalfont St Giles, had hired a shed to Reid and when the shed suffered storm damage had allowed Reid to use two large storage containers on his farm. About March 1990 the appellant deposited a caravan near the containers, telling Mr Blizzard he was leaving it there pending an insurance assessment.
There was evidence of telephone calls made and received on mobile telephones registered to the appellant and his co-accused, proving communication between them over a considerable period leading up to 2 May.
On that day at 9.40 am the appellant’s gold Cavalier motor car drove into a car park halfway between Gerrard’s Cross and Beaconsfield and drove out again. About 9.50 am a white transit van driven by an undercover police officer arrived at the car park together with the white Orion driven by Hughes, Reid having transferred into it from his own red Astra. Reid approached the white transit van and spoke to the officer inside who was unknown to him. Shortly afterwards Reid drove off in the van followed by Hughes in the Orion. About 15 minutes later the van arrived at Mr Blizzard’s farm and was seen backed up against one of the containers. The appellant was present at the same time having arrived in the gold Cavalier. The Crown said the appellant was keeping guard or otherwise assisting at the loading.
At about 10.20 am the white van left the farm driven by Reid. It was followed a minute later by the appellant in the gold Cavalier. The appellant was arrested at 10.30 am in Chalfont St Giles. His mobile telephone was in the ‘switched on’ position. Hughes was arrested nearby in the white Orion and Reid was arrested in the white van, which was found to be carrying 13 cardboard boxes each containing slabs of cannabis resin totalling 267 kg. A search of the containers at the farm revealed, inter alia, tools, bags, a number of rolls of adhesive tapes and cardboard boxes containing in total 2,310 kg of cannabis resin.
The Mercury page number and identification number of the appellant’s pager were found in Reid’s red Astra in coded form. On 4 May police officers found the number plate of the gold Cavalier motor car in the red Astra, concealed between the flat surface of the estate car and the back seat.
In interview the appellant made no comment. He did not give evidence at his trial, nor did he call any witnesses for the defence.
The sole ground of appeal is that the learned judge in summing up the case referred to the good character of the co-accused Hughes. The appellant was a man of bad character, having a number of previous convictions for burglary and possession of drugs. It was submitted on the appellant’s behalf that the learned judge had emphasised the good character of Hughes and thereby highlighted the bad character of the appellant. What he said was:
‘In looking at the evidence, therefore, in relation to Mr. Hughes, you will bear in mind, of course, that he prays in aid what is tantamount, in fact, to a good character, save for that one, we will say “peccadillo” at the age of 16. Generally speaking the principal relevance of good character—I will call it that for this purpose—goes to the credibility of the person as a witness. He had not given evidence in this case, but there is a second consideration, and that is this, of course, as a matter of common sense, you are entitled to ask yourselves whether a person possessed of that character would be likely to be knowingly involved in this type of offence. It is not an insurance against guilt, but it is a factor which you are entitled to take into consideration in assessing whether the Crown have proved the case or not against Mr. Hughes.’
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In our judgment that passage said, in relation to Hughes, no more than Hughes was entitled to have the judge say in regard to his case. We should add that the evidence against this appellant was overwhelming. Accordingly this appeal must be dismissed.
Appeal in R v Vye and R v Wise allowed; convictions quashed. Appeal in R v Stephenson dismissed.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
R v Bey
[1993] 3 All ER 253
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STEYN LJ, ROUGIER AND LAWS JJ
Hearing Date(s): 12 MARCH 1993
Criminal law – Trial – Direction to jury – Lies – Defendant’s lies – Direction on significance of lies – Effect of lies on credibility of defendant – Defendant’s statements to police containing lies – Prosecution suggesting lies showing guilt – Judge not directing jury to consider whether defendant’s lies having innocent explanation – Whether judge having duty or discretion to direct jury on lies.
The appellant and his brother went to the house where their sister was living with the victim. When the victim returned home from work he was chased out the house by the brother, who had a knife. The appellant followed. The victim was subsequently stabbed and he died. The appellant’s brother escaped out of the jurisdiction but the appellant was arrested and charged with murder. At his trial the Crown alleged joint enterprise on the part of the appellant and his brother and put in evidence interviews with the police in which the appellant stated that he had not seen his brother brandishing the knife before the stabbing took place, which, it was suggested, showed that was lying. In his summing up, the judge, after referring to the allegation of lying, stated that any comment from him would be unhelpful. The appellant was convicted. He appealed, contending that the judge ought to have directed the jury to consider whether there might be an innocent explanation for the appellant’s lies and that, if so, the lies added nothing to the prosecution case.
Held – Where the defendant’s lies were relevant to an issue in a criminal trial, apart from where the question arose whether his lies amounted to corroboration or were evidence supporting identification, when a direction on lies was mandatory, the trial judge had a discretion, but not a duty, whenever fairness demanded to direct the jury that the mere fact that the defendant had told a lie to the police was not of itself evidence of guilt and that the burden remained on the Crown to prove the defendant’s guilt. The greater the importance of lies in the case, the stronger would be the case for giving such a direction. It followed that since the appellant’s lies were of great importance and had played an important part in the deliberations of the jury, the judge ought to have given a direction on lies in the interests of fairness. The appeal would therefore be allowed, the conviction quashed and a retrial ordered (see p 257 f and p 258 e to j, post).
R v Sharp [1993] 3 All ER 225 considered.
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NotesFor the judge’s summing up in criminal trials, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1014, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 417–444, 15846–16147.
Cases referred to in judgmentBroadhurst v R [1964] 1 All ER 111, [1964] AC 441, [1964] 2 WLR 38, PC.
R v Francis [1991] 1 All ER 225, [1990] 1 WLR 1264, CA.
R v Lucas [1981] 2 All ER 1008, [1981] QB 720, [1981] 3 WLR 120, CA.
R v Penman (1985) 82 Cr App R 44, CA.
R v Sharp [1993] 3 All ER 225, CA.
Appeal Mehment Bey appealed with the leave of the single judge against his conviction on 22 February 1991 in the Central Criminal Court before the Recorder of London, Judge Verney, and a jury of a single count of murder for which he was sentenced to life imprisonment. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Martin Thomas QC (who did not appear below) and Julian Nutter (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Nigel Sweeney (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Central Criminal Court section) for the Crown.
STEYN LJ delivered the following judgment of the court. On 22 February 1991 after a five-day trial in the Central Criminal Court the appellant was convicted by a majority of 11 to 1 of murder and he was sentenced to life imprisonment. He now appeals with the leave of the single judge.
On Tuesday, 10 April 1990 and in a street near 19 Gloucester Drive, London N4, Mustapha Mehmet was stabbed by Denktas with a knife. The wound entered his heart. He died shortly afterwards. On any view the appellant was very near Denktas and the deceased when the wound was inflicted. Eventually the appellant explained to the police that he was trying to restrain Denktas from stabbing the deceased. In any event Denktas made his escape and returned to the Turkish part of Cyprus. Only the appellant stood trial for the murder of the deceased. The prosecution case against the appellant was that he was involved with Denktas in a joint enterprise to kill the deceased or to cause him really serious injury or, alternatively, that the appellant aided and abetted the murder.
The appellant, who was aged 21 at the time, is a Turkish Cypriot. Denktas, who was aged 27, is his brother. Melek who is aged 29 is their sister. Melek had a daughter and a son, Erkan, from a marriage which ended in late 1987. In February 1988 Melek started a sexual relationship with the deceased, a married man aged 35. Melek was divorced in autumn 1988. She was granted care and control of Erkan.
In 1989 the deceased left his wife but his wife refused him a divorce at that stage. Although the appellant was aware of Melek’s affair with the deceased, the relationship of the appellant and Melek was, according to Melek’s evidence, apparently cordial at this stage.
In July 1989 Melek and the deceased travelled to Cyprus to seek her father’s approval of their relationship. Her father refused to give his approval. During the course of this visit the appellant was in Cyprus. He apparently was a student at the time and lived with his father. It may be that the inference was open to the
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jury that during that period the appellant became aware of his father’s disapproval.
On 31 December 1989 the appellant left Cyprus and arrived in London. It was his first visit to London. His brother, Denktas, was already living in London with his wife. The appellant lived mostly with Denktas and his wife. After their ill-fated visit to Cyprus Melek and the deceased returned to London. In London Denktas threatened to kill the deceased if he did not break up the relationship.
For a very short time they did split up but then they got together and lived together. Despite the opposition of her father Melek therefore continued the relationship with the deceased. They lived at various addresses in London. They kept those addresses secret from Melek’s family including the appellant.
On 22 March 1990 Melek and the deceased moved into a room at 19 Gloucester Drive, London N4. On 8 or 9 April 1990 Melek spoke to her sister, Senay, and her sister’s husband, Cemal. She told them that she and the deceased had been living together for some eight months. Unwisely she also divulged the address where she and the deceased were living to her sister and her husband.
In the early evening of Tuesday, 10 April, Denktas, the appellant, Senay and Cemal met at Senay’s house. Senay and Cemal told Denktas and the appellant the news about how the relationship between the deceased and Melek was continuing and divulged the address where they were living to Denktas and the appellant. Thereafter Denktas and the appellant made their way to 19 Gloucester Drive.
The rest of the prosecution case that unfolded before the jury can be sketched as follows. Denktas and the appellant went into their sister’s room. It was clear that Denktas was in an extremely hostile mood. He put on a rubber glove which he had with him. Melek and Erkan were terrified. The appellant said to his brother to go as the police might be called. Subsequently the appellant was to tell the police that he was not aware of any knife in the possession of Denktas at this stage. He was to say that his role was to attempt to comfort Erkan.
The prosecution case was that the appellant only intervened minimally between Denktas and Melek. The appellant said that he was trying to comfort Melek and this was supported by Erkan. However, a neighbour from room 6 in that block said that Erkan had gone to her door and would not go to the appellant when he was called. The same neighbour went into room 4, Melek’s room, and saw Denktas but she did not see any knife at that stage. The appellant said in interview that at one stage he was aware that there was a knife on the bed.
The deceased then returned from work. Erkan saw him arriving and on the prosecution case it was open to the jury to conclude that the defendant was in a position to see the deceased arriving. Denktas emerged from the room and ran after the deceased. The appellant followed him. Melek’s evidence was that at that stage Denktas was carrying a knife. The appellant was in due course to say that he did not see any knife in Denktas’s hand.
Then we turn to the evidence of some neighbours along the road. Miss Walters was in number 21 and she said that she saw two men walking quickly but clearly together. She was sufficiently interested to look down the street where she saw three men, one with his back to the houses (apparently the deceased) was being held by the hair by a man who must have been Denktas who was also holding to the back of his neck what appeared to be a knife. The third man, she said, was a few feet beyond the other two standing like a goal keeper with his hands out and appearing very agitated. There we pause to say that the jury may have concluded that that movement was one made in order to prevent the deceased from escaping from Denktas. This was taking place outside number 29, the fourth house away.
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In interview the appellant confirmed that Denktas was holding the deceased by the hair but said that he did not see the knife. He said that he was then trying to separate the two men.
Another important witness was Mrs Maria Chrysostomou. She lived in a ground floor room at 23 Gloucester Drive. She said that she had a clear view, that being a matter that the defence did not accept. She said she saw the deceased pursued by two men. It is not necessary to describe her evidence in detail but the gist of it, and she repeated this on a number of occasions, was that the two men appeared to be fighting with the third man.
That is the substance of the prosecution case regarding the events immediately before the stabbing. After the stabbing took place the appellant left Gloucester Drive. The evidence was that the sister was there in a car and that her husband Cemal was there in a van and the appellant travelled away in the van. Denktas made his escape.
In due course the appellant was arrested. When the police approached him he tried to run away. That may have been explicable on the basis that he said that he was an overstayer at the time. When apprehended it also turned out that he had turned his jacket inside out in order to avoid detection.
Finally, the prosecution case involved placing before the jury very lengthy interviews which had taken place with the appellant with the aid of an interpreter. The appellant’s version was that he accompanied his brother intending to exercise a moderating influence on him. In other words he went along in order to prevent anything awful happening. His evidence was that he did not know until after the stabbing that Denktas had armed himself with a knife. He said that he had played no part in the killing at all. That concluded the prosecution case.
At the end of the prosecution case there was no submission made on behalf of the defence that there was not a case to go before the jury. The appellant who was of good character chose not to give evidence.
The judge summed up. The jury retired at 10.41 am.
They returned with a question at 12.15 pm: ‘Please clarify the lawful situation if the appellant was aware that Denktas had a knife.' The judge then directed the jury again and the jury retired. They were given a majority direction at 2.34 pm and the jury returned with a majority verdict of guilty at 3.02 pm.
Against this background Mr Thomas QC, who did not appear for the appellant at the trial, put in the forefront of his submissions that the judge failed to direct the jury upon the effect of a conclusion that the appellant had lied when he told the police that he had not seen Denktas brandishing a knife before the stabbing took place. He also addressed us on the strength of the prosecution case. It was not contended at trial, or in the grounds of appeal, that the judge should have withdrawn the case from the jury. We add that the appellant was represented at the trial by most experienced leading counsel. Mr Sweeney, who was the junior counsel for the prosecution at the trial, demonstrated in an admirably fair and incisive speech, the jigsaw pieces of evidence upon which the prosecution case was based. We do not propose to discuss the relative strength of the prosecution case except to say that the judge was plainly right to leave the case to the jury.
The appellant’s principal ground of appeal must now be examined in some detail. There was ample evidence upon which the jury could have taken the view that the appellant had repeatedly lied in police interviews when he said that he only saw the knife in Denktas’s hand after the stabbing. It was a most implausible story. But if it was true, or may have been true, the appellant was entitled to be
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acquitted. After dealing with the burden of proof the judge directed the jury as follows:
‘You may think that it is essential to decide whether or not the defendant knew that Denktas was carrying a knife when he pursued Mustapha and caught up with him before the fatal blow was struck. Unless the defendant possessed that knowledge he cannot be convicted either of murder or manslaughter. If he did possess that knowledge and he possessed it before the fatal blow was struck, it does not follow that he must be convicted of something. But it would be open to you, according to your assessment of the facts, to convict of murder, to convict of manslaughter or to acquit.’
There can be no possible criticism of this direction.
Later in his summing up the judge turned to what the appellant said in the lengthy police interviews. An edited version of those interviews had been read to the jury in open court. Interviews were exhibits in the case and in due course the jury was allowed to take the interviews with them into the jury room. The judge’s only comment was as follows:
‘His answers to the questions are relied on both by the prosecution and by the defence. The prosecution suggests that they contain inconsistencies which amount to lies. The defence asserts that they foreshadow all that has been asked on his behalf in the trial and display a consistency of account. Any comment from me would be unhelpful.’
The argument is that the judge ought to have directed the jury to consider whether there may be an innocent explanation for the appellant’s lies and that if there may be an innocent explanation, the lies add nothing to the prosecution case. Specifically, Mr Thomas referred us to the specimen direction recommended by the Judicial Studies Board. So far as relevant it reads as follows:
‘The prosecution has alleged that the defendant lied to the police. If you are sure that he did, you must consider why he lied. The mere fact that a defendant tells a lie is not itself evidence of guilt. A defendant may lie for many reasons, for example: to bolster a true defence, to protect someone else, to conceal disgraceful conduct of his, short of the commission of the offence, or out of panic or confusion. If you think that there is, or may be, some innocent explanation for his lies then you should take no notice of them. But if you are sure that he did not lie for some such or other innocent reason, then his lies can be evidence going to prove guilt.’
Mr Thomas submits that the judge was under a duty to give a direction along these lines. Mr Thomas acknowledges that in recent case law it has been held that such a direction must be given in cases where the question arises whether (a) lies amount to corroboration or (b) lies can amount to evidence supporting identification. The most important cases in this line of authority appear to be R v Lucas [1981] 2 All ER 1008, [1981] QB 720, R v Penman (1985) 82 Cr App R 44, R v Francis [1991] 1 All ER 225, [1990] 1 WLR 1264 and R v Sharp [1993] 3 All ER 225. This line of authority at the very least assumes that there is no mandatory rule requiring a judge to give such a direction except in the two specific instances which we have described. And these cases undoubtedly reveal a clear judicial reluctance to extend the categories in which a direction on lies ought to be given.
Mr Thomas has argued that the two instances where a direction about lies is mandatory are merely illustrations of a much broader principle imposing the duty of a judge to give directions on lies. He relies on a dictum in Broadhurst v R
Page 258 of [1993] 3 All ER 253
[1964] 1 All ER 111 at 119–120, [1964] AC 441 at 457. Giving the opinion of the Privy Council Lord Devlin stated:
‘It is very important that a jury should be carefully directed upon the effect of a conclusion, if they reach it, that the accused is lying. There is a natural tendency for a jury to think that if an accused is lying, it must be because he is guilty, and accordingly to convict him without more ado. It is the duty of the judge to make it clear to them that this is not so. Save in one respect, a case in which an accused gives untruthful evidence is no different from one in which he gives no evidence at all. In either case the burden remains on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused. But if on the proved facts two inferences may be drawn about the accused’s conduct or state of mind, his untruthfulness is a factor which the jury can properly take into account as strengthening the inference of guilt. What strength it adds depends, of course, on all the circumstances and especially on whether there are reasons other than guilt that might account for the untruthfulness. This is the sort of direction which it is at least desirable to give to a jury.’ (Our emphasis.)
The other members of the Board were Viscount Radcliffe and Lord Morton of Henryton. It will be observed that Lord Devlin spoke about a duty placed on the judge. He did not restrict the duty to cases of corroboration and identification, and the case before the Privy Council did not involve corroboration or identification. Curiously this important dictum was not cited in any of the leading cases decided in this court. Indeed, as far as we have been able to ascertain it has not been mentioned in any subsequent case. But Mr Thomas has now unearthed it. It is an important dictum which cannot be dismissed simply on the basis that the opinion of the Privy Council is not binding on this court.
Mr Thomas has invited us to rule that there is a general duty on trial judges in all cases where lies are relevant or, alternatively, where lies are an important part of the prosecution case, to give a direction of the type recommended by the Judicial Studies Board. We do not propose to accede to this invitation. The point is a matter of great importance. It requires more comprehensive research, analysis and argument than has been placed before us in this case. Even the criminal law has a capacity for growth. Any development in this important corner of the law, which affects thousands of cases up and down the country, can only take place after the most rigorous examination of competing arguments. We would hope, however, that it will be possible for this important point to be fully considered in the near future.
But we do rule that, outside the two recognised categories, a trial judge has at least a discretion whether to caution a jury about lies. Discretions vary greatly in nature. At one end of the spectrum one has a completely open textured discretion. At the other end one has a discretion heavily constrained by established principles. The discretion in the present case falls between these extremes. It is to be exercised when fairness demands it. And it is self-evident that the greater the importance of lies in a particular case the stronger is the case for an exercise of the discretion in favour of a direction on lies. Finally, it is inherent in the existence of a discretion that its exercise is reviewable by the Court of Appeal if the exercise of the discretion was flawed.
That brings us back to the facts of this case. The lies were of great importance. Rightly Mr Thomas reminded us of the question asked by the jury. It was as follows: ‘Please clarify the lawful situation if [the appellant] was aware that Denktas had a knife.’
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Clearly the lies played an important part in the jury’s deliberations. But the jury had not had the benefit of any directions on lies. If, as we have held, there is a discretion to give a direction on lies, it is difficult to imagine when such a direction would be appropriate if it was not appropriate in the present case. In all other respects the summing up was impeccable. But we take view that fairness required a direction on lies in this case. There was a risk, as Lord Devlin explained in Broadhurst v R, that the jury might think that if the defendant is lying he must be guilty. In the result we hold that there was a material failure to direct the jury properly. The conviction is quashed.
We now turn to the question of whether a retrial ought to be ordered. Murder is a grave crime. There is a prosecution case to be placed before the jury. A retrial is possible on the information presently placed before us. In our judgment the interests of justice require a retrial. We order a retrial. The defendant is remanded in custody and we add only this. We have proceeded on the basis that the material witnesses will still be available to the Crown. We accept of course that the Crown is under a continuing duty to monitor the fairness of the continuance of any criminal proceedings in the light of the available evidence.
Appeal allowed. Conviction quashed. Retrial ordered.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Re C (a minor) (adopted child: contact)
[1993] 3 All ER 259
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: FAMILY DIVISION AT WINCHESTER
Lord(s): THORPE J
Hearing Date(s): 17, 18 FEBRUARY 1993
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Application for order – Leave – Adopted child – Application for leave to apply for contact order in respect of adopted child – Natural mother seeking to reopen litigation after adoption – Whether mother requiring leave – Whether leave should be granted – Adoption Act 1976, s 12(6) – Children Act 1989, s 8(1) – Family Proceedings Rules 1991, r 4.3.
In January 1993 the mother of a child who had been adopted in 1990 applied for leave to apply for contact and specific issue orders in respect of the child under s 8(1)a of the Children Act 1989. No access condition had been attached pursuant to s 12(6)b of the Adoption Act 1976 when the adoption order was made. The
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application stated that the mother wished to have indirect contact by way of an annual progress report and photograph of the child and disclosure of the name and address of the adopters. At the hearing of the application, the mother contended, inter alia, that her application should be considered liberally in the light of recent research which showed that society was moving towards a recognition of the importance of the biological family and that the 1989 Act, by inserting into the 1976 Act machinery for a contact register to which natural parents could apply to be joined on the adoption of their child or at any time thereafter, had recognised the importance of enabling adopted children to re-establish contact with their roots.
Held – An application by a natural parent for indirect contact with the child after adoption could only be made by way of a condition attached to the adoption order pursuant to s 12(6) of the 1976 Act prior to perfection of the order and could not be made at any time thereafter, since adoption orders were intended to be permanent and final and a fundamental question such as contact, even if confined to indirect contact, ought not to be subsequently reopened unless there was some fundamental change in circumstances. Furthermore, notwithstanding any changes in society’s understanding of what ought best be done for children whose parenting was through adoption, in the absence of statutory reform principles determining such applications had to be drawn from current law and practice. Since there was no evidence of any fundamental change in the circumstances surrounding the case, the application for leave to apply would be dismissed (see p 264 f to j and p 265 a, post).
Re O (a minor) (wardship: adopted child) [1978] 2 All ER 27 and Re C (a minor) (adoption: conditions) [1988] 1 All ER 705 applied.
Observations on the appropriate procedure in applications for leave to apply for contact and specific issue orders under s 8 of the 1989 Act pursuant to r 4.3(1)c of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991 (see p 262 j to 263 d and p 264 j to p 265 a, post).
NotesFor the effect of adoption orders on the parental rights of natural parents, see 5(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1058.
For applications for leave to apply for contact and specific issues orders, see ibid para 772.
For the Adoption Act 1976, s 12, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 230.
For the Children Act 1989, s 8, see ibid 400.
Cases referred to in judgmentA and W (minors) (residence orders: leave to apply), Re [1992] 2 FLR 154.
C (a minor) (adoption: conditions), Re [1988] 1 All ER 705, [1989] AC 1, [1988] 2 WLR 474 HL.
O (a minor) (wardship: adopted child), Re [1978] 2 All ER 27, [1978] Fam 196, [1977] 3 WLR 725, CA.
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Application By an application dated 11 January 1993 the mother sought leave to apply in the county court for a contact order under s 8 of the Children Act 1989 that she should have indirect contact to an adopted child who was adopted on 7 June 1990 and for a specific issue order that the local authority in the adoption proceedings should disclose the name and address of the adoptive parents to the court and her solicitor. On 14 January 1993 the designated judge of the court ordered that the application be transferred to the High Court and the Official Solicitor be invited to act as amicus curiae. On 25 January 1993 at the directions hearing, the application was listed for hearing at the High Court centre. The application was heard in chambers in Winchester but judgment was given by Thorpe J in open court in London. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Rodger Hayward Smith QC (instructed by Coffin Mew & Clover, Cosham) for the applicant.
Robin Spon-Smith (instructed by the Official Solicitor) as amicus curiae.
THORPE J. This is an application for leave to issue a contact and specific issue order application brought by a natural mother in respect of a child who has been adopted in law.
The relevant chronology is as follows. The child (who I shall refer to as A) was born on 20 August 1988. On 21 September he was removed into care under the authority of a place of safety order. Six days later an interim care order was made. On 24 October he became a ward of court. On 16 December a full care order was made and he was dewarded. His mother saw him last in July 1989, the month in which he was placed with the family who have subsequently adopted him.
Notice of termination of access was given to the mother on 17 August 1989. Against that notice she appealed, but the appeal was adjourned to await the outcome of an adoption application which had by then been initiated in the county court. That application was resolved at a two-day contested hearing before the judge of the county court, who at the conclusion dispensed with the mother’s consent and made the adoption order sought. No condition of access was made under s 12(6) of the Adoption Act 1976, and there is uncertainty as to whether or not the mother applied for such access at that contested hearing. There is now no evidence that she did, but Mr Spon-Smith accepts that the possibility that she applied cannot be excluded.
On 11 January 1993 she applied in the same county court for leave to apply for a contact order to A, and in accordance with the requirements of the rule she supported that application with a draft of the application which she sought to issue. The draft makes plain that in addition to a contact order she sought leave to apply also for a specific issue order. The box on the court form at p 6 is in these terms:
‘I wish the Court to order that an indirect contact order be made in my case in respect of my son [A], that a direction be given that the County Council be a respondent, that a specific issue order be made that the County Council disclose the name and address of the adoptive parents to the court and my solicitors.’
The court officer receiving that application for leave perceived at once that it was unusual and referred it immediately to the designated judge of the court.
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He fixed a hearing for 14 January, and at that hearing the mother was represented by counsel. The order that resulted was: ‘1 That this application be transferred to the High Court. 2 The Official Solicitor be invited to act as amicus curiae.’
After the transfer on 25 January this court issued a notice directing that the hearing should take place on 17 February at the relevant High Court centre. Yesterday I heard the application for leave persuasively advanced by Mr Hayward Smith QC and I heard the carefully prepared submissions of Mr Spon-Smith on behalf of the Official Solicitor as amicus curiae.
The first point taken by Mr Hayward Smith was that the application issued by his instructing solicitor on 11 January was misconceived. Mr Hayward Smith submitted that under the provisions of s 10 of the Children Act 1989 the mother did not require preliminary leave since she was a parent within the meaning of sub-s (4)(a). In response Mr Spon-Smith says that she is not a parent within the terms of s 10(4)(a) of the 1989 Act, since the effect of the adoption order made on 7 June 1990 was to constitute the adoptive parents the parents for the purposes of s 10(4)(a). He supports that submission by referring to s 39(2) of the 1976 Act, which says:
‘An adopted child shall … be treated in law as if he were not the child of any person other than the adopters or adopter.’
Section 39(6)(a) of the 1976 Act provides:
‘… this section—(a) applies for the construction of enactments or instruments passed or made before the adoption or later …’
I am quite clear that Mr Spon-Smith is correct in this submission. It would, in my judgment, be manifestly undesirable if applications of this sort could be advanced without prior screening by means of the determination of applications for prior leave.
The application for leave of 11 January being fundamental to the mother’s desire to reopen issues in relation to A, I consider first the procedural steps that were taken after its filing on 11 January. The procedure is governed by r 4.3 of the Family Proceedings Rules 1991, SI 1991/1247. Rule 4.3(1)(a) requires an applicant to file a written request for leave and r 4.3(1)(b) requires that request to be accompanied by a draft of the application proposed. Those two requirements were manifestly satisfied by the mother’s solicitor on 11 January. The subsequent procedure is governed by r 4.3(2):
‘On considering a request for leave filed under paragraph (1), the court shall—(a) grant the request … or (b) direct that a date be fixed for the hearing of the request … ’
That provision was in this case satisfied when the designated judge of the court considered the papers on the day of filing and determined not to grant the request but to fix a date for hearing, namely 14 January. It seems to me that at that hearing the judge made entirely appropriate directions, namely the transfer of the application to this court and the direction or request that the Official Solicitor enter as amicus. He plainly had power to do so under the terms of r 4.3(2)(b), which says that the proper officer shall fix such a date and give such notice as the court directs to the person making the request and such other persons as the court requires to be notified of the date so fixed. The notice issued by this court on 28 January was to the effect that directions would be
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heard on 17 February. I think that that must be interpreted as meaning the application for leave including any relevant directions.
Questions have been raised by Mr Spon-Smith in argument as to the appropriate procedure in applications of this sort. Manifestly if leave is granted the parties who must be made respondents are expressly defined by other provisions within the 1991 rules, but who should be notified of an application for leave under r 4.3 is not specifically defined. Mr Spon-Smith’s submission is that in most, if not all, cases it would be appropriate for the Official Solicitor to be brought in, not just as amicus, but as respondent to the application. That seems to me appropriate. He further submits that notice should also be given to the local authority which was a party to the adoption proceedings, either having made the placement or having been given notice of the adoption application under the provisions of the Adoption Rules 1984, SI 1984/265. Again I think that in the generality of cases that would also be appropriate. The local authority might well be in a position to contribute to the determination of the application for leave. It would not be obliged to do so if it felt that it had no relevant contribution to make. Mr Spon-Smith further submits that notice should not be given to the adoptive parents in any ordinary circumstances and certainly not at an early stage in the development of the application for leave. In the vast majority of cases, submits Mr Spon-Smith, applications of this character will fail. It would be undesirable if adoptive parents were exposed to unnecessary anxiety by being notified of applications destined to fail without any contribution from them. Only if, having heard from the applicant and having heard from the Official Solicitor and/or the local authority, the court were satisfied that the mother had a prima facie case for leave should notice be given to the adoptive parents. For, says Mr Spon-Smith, although manifestly an application can safely be refused without their involvement, no application for leave should be granted without their having an opportunity to oppose it. I think all those submissions are wise.
Returning to the present application, I am satisfied that the provisions of the court rules have been appropriately applied and that I am in a position to determine the application for leave on the material before me and without notice to any other party. The test that I have to apply in determining the application is provided in s 10(9) of the 1989 Act, which says the court shall in deciding whether or not to grant leave have particular regard to—
‘(a) the nature of the proposed application for the section 8 order; (b) the applicant’s connection with the child; (c) any risk there might be of that proposed application disrupting the child’s life to such an extent that he would be harmed by it …’
This subsection has been considered by the Court of Appeal in Re A and W (minors) (residence orders: leave to apply) [1992] 2 FLR 154, and that authority makes plain that welfare is not the paramount consideration but that the discretionary decision is particularly determined by the relevant considerations set out in s 10(9) of the 1989 Act.
In a powerful submission Mr Hayward Smith says that this is an applicant who has never abandoned this child. She did not accept the termination of access, she did not consent to the adoption application and at a relatively early stage she had exercised a new right which Mr Hayward Smith submits is granted to her by the provisions of the 1989 Act. Furthermore, he says that as a society we are moving towards a recognition of the importance of the biological family even after
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adoption orders without conditions. He refers to, in particular, the work of a researcher, Mr Murray Ryburn, whose latest conclusion is expressed in a book Adoption in the 1990s (1992). He refers also to the Department of Health’s publication Patterns and Outcomes in Child Placement (1991). He urges the court not to be bound by what he calls conventional wisdom but to look at the mother’s application liberally and with proper regard to the other research to which I have referred. He emphasises that this mother seeks no more than to be kept informed of the development of her child by the receipt of an annual progress report accompanied by an annual photograph. He stresses that the application for a specific issue order is not intended to lead to any search for A but only so that the adopters may be joined as respondents to the application for contact. Mr Hayward Smith says that he would be quite satisfied that that information should be confined to the mother’s lawyers only. Mr Hayward Smith points to the fact the 1989 Act has had the effect of inserting into the 1976 Act a new section, s 51A, which provides machinery for a contact register to which those who have been adopted may apply to be joined on attaining majority and to which natural parents may apply to be joined on the adoption of their child or at any time thereafter. This, says Mr Hayward Smith, is a recognition of the importance of enabling adopted children to re-establish contact with their roots and, if a relationship is to develop after such renewed contact, how much easier, says Mr Hayward Smith, if the natural parent had been able to follow and appreciate the evolution of the child through the long years of development from placement to majority.
Mr Spon-Smith advances all the arguments which Mr Hayward Smith classifies as conventional wisdom. He submits that the 1989 Act has not introduced any new right in this field. Prior to its enactment the courts had formulated clear principles governing applications by natural parents to reopen litigation post-adoption. He refers in particular to the decision in Re O (a minor) (wardship: adopted child) [1978] 2 All ER 27, [1978] Fam 196. He says that if there are shifts in policy, the product of modern research, they will be reflected in the current review of the law of adoption, which is understood to be the prelude to statutory reform. Finally, any benefit that might be gained by the opportunity for the natural parent to survey the evolution of the child from afar would be greatly outweighed by the risk of insecurity and disruption within the newly constituted family. If such a family is operating normally there will be no secrets between the legal parents and the child as to communication of information to the biological parent. If there were such secrets, what would be the effect on the child were the child to discover in later years that such communications had been passing secretly? Finally, says Mr Spon-Smith, any question as to whether an adoption order should be open is to be decided at the proceedings that result in the making of the adoption order. Here the mother either applied or, if she did not, she might have applied for indirect contact post-adoption as a condition to be made under s 12(6) of the 1976 Act. Such an application can only be made prior to the perfection of the adoption order and not at any time thereafter. An application so made falls to be determined in accordance with the principles stated in the speeches in Re C (a minor) (adoption: conditions) [1988] 1 All ER 705, [1989] AC 1. Those principles applied to this case would have resulted in the refusal of such an application had it been made.
Those then are the rival submissions, and I have come to the clear conclusion that Mr Spon-Smith’s submission must be preferred. It may be that in this society changes are in progress in our understanding of what best should be done for children whose parenting is through the route of adoption, but such
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changes can only be expressed through statutory reform. Principles that determine this application must be drawn from current law and practice. It seems to me that the Official Solicitor is right to emphasise that adoption orders are intended to be permanent and final. A fundamental question such as contact, even if confined to the indirect, should not be subsequently reopened unless there is some fundamental change in circumstances. There is no evidence of any such change in the present application.
I also support the suggestion that, in those rare cases where a judge is satisfied that there is sufficient case demonstrated to necessitate a notice to the adoptive parents, that notice should not be served through the court but should be left to the Official Solicitor to communicate. All such applications for leave should be transferred to the Family Division of the High Court.
For all those reasons the application is dismissed.
Application dismissed. No order for costs.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
Jackson and another v Chief Adjudication Officer
[1993] 3 All ER 265
(Joined cases C-63/91 and C-64/91)
Categories: CONSTITUTIONAL; Civil Rights And Liberties: SOCIAL SECURITY
Court: COURT OF JUSTICE OF THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITIES
Lord(s): JUDGES DUE (PRESIDENT), JOLIET, SCHOCKWEILER (PRESIDENTS OF CHAMBERS), MANCINI, KAKOURIS, RODRÍGUEZ IGLESIAS, DÍEZ DE VELASCO, MURRAY AND EDWARD
Hearing Date(s): ADVOCATE GENERAL VAN GERVEN
13 MARCH, 15 MAY, 16 JULY 1992
European Economic Community – Equality of treatment of men and women – Social security – Exclusion from scope of equal treatment directive – Supplementary allowance or income support – Sole mother – Child minding expenses – Refusal to deduct child minding expenses from income when determining entitlement to benefit affecting ability to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment – Whether supplementary allowance and income support within scope of equal treatment directive – Whether equal treatment directive only applying to benefits granted to persons suffering from sickness, invalidity, old age, accidents at work and occupational diseases, or unemployment – Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 – Council Directive (EEC) 79/7, art 3.
The first appellant was an unmarried mother with a small child who was unemployed and in receipt of supplementary allowance. In 1986 she started a vocational training course, for which she received a weekly allowance. The adjudication officer took account of that income and withdrew her entitlement to supplementary allowance while refusing her the right to deduct from her income the child minding expenses which she incurred in respect of her child during her period of training. The second appellant was a divorced mother responsible for two young children who was unemployed and in receipt of income support. When she took up part-time employment for less than 24 hours a week the adjudication officer took account of her income from that job and reduced her income support but refused to deduct from her income the expenses for minding her two children. In the course of proceedings brought by the appellants against the adjudication officers in which they alleged that the refusal to take account of their child minding expenses in determining their actual income amounted to discrimination against them on the grounds of sex, the Court of Appeal referred to the Court of Justice of the European
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Communities for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty the questions (i) whether supplementary allowance or income support was within the scope of art 3a of Council Directive (EEC) 79/7 on the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security, (ii) whether the answer to question (i) depended on whether a person was suffering from one of the risks listed in art 3 and (iii) whether the conditions of entitlement for receipt of supplementary allowance or income support were capable of falling within Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 on the implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, vocational training and promotion, and as regards working conditions where the conditions of entitlement to the benefit related solely to access to supplementary allowance or income support but the effect of their application could be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to part-time employment or vocational training.
Held – (1) Since the object of Directive 79/7 was the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment of men and women in matters of social security, it followed that in order to fall within its scope a benefit had to constitute the whole or part of a statutory scheme providing protection against one of the risks specified in the directive, viz sickness, invalidity, old age, accidents at work and occupational diseases, or unemployment, and to social assistance in so far as it was intended to supplement or replace those schemes. Although the mode of payment was not decisive as regards the identification of a benefit as one which fell within the scope of the directive, it was nevertheless necessary that the benefit was directly and effectively linked to the protection provided against one of the specified risks. Accordingly, exclusion from the scope of the directive was justified where the law set the amount of the theoretical needs of the persons concerned independently of any consideration relating to the existence of any of the specified risks. Furthermore, the fact that in situations such as those in which the appellants found themselves the national scheme at issue exempted claimants from the obligation to be available for work showed that the benefits in question could not be regarded as being directly and effectively linked to protection against the risk of unemployment. Article 3(1) of Directive 79/7 was therefore to be interpreted as not applying to a benefit, such as supplementary allowance or income support, which might be granted in a variety of personal situations to persons whose means were insufficient to meet their needs as defined by statute, irrespective of whether the claimant was suffering from one of the risks listed in art 3 (see p 298 e to h, p 299 a to d and p 300 e f, post); Drake v Chief Adjudication Officer Case 150/85 [1986] 3 All ER 65 and R v Secretary of State for Social Services, ex p Smithson Case C-243/90 [1992] ECR I-467 applied.
(2) Although Directive 76/207 was not intended to apply in social security matters, the court had made it clear that because of the fundamental importance of the principle of equal treatment that exception to the scope of the directive was to be interpreted strictly. Therefore, because of the risk of detracting from the objective of the directive, a scheme of benefits could not be excluded from its scope solely because it was formally part of the national social security scheme, although to fall within the directive’s scope it was still necessary that the scheme’s subject matter was access to employment, including vocational training and promotion, or working conditions. Since supplementary
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allowance or income support was intended for persons with insufficient means to meet their needs, the fact that the method of calculating a claimant’s actual earnings, which were used as the basis for determining the amount of the benefits, might affect a sole mother’s ability to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment was not sufficient to bring the scheme within the scope of the directive. Accordingly, Directive 76/207 was to be interpreted as not applying to a social security scheme, such as supplementary allowance or income support, simply because the conditions of entitlement for receipt of the benefits might be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment (see p 299 h to p 300 c f g, post); Newstead v Dept of Transport Case 192/85 [1988] 1 All ER 129 and Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584 applied.
NotesFor the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security, see 52 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 21·14.
For the EEC Treaty, art 177, see 50 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 325.
Cases citedAmministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629.
Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344, [1991] 2 WLR 72, [1990] ECR I-1889, CJEC.
Beets-Proper v F Van Lanschot Bankiers NV Case 262/84 [1986] ECR 773.
Bilka-Kaufhaus GmbH v Weber von Harz Case 170/84 [1986] ECR 1607.
Borrie Clarke v Chief Adjudication Officer Case 384/85 [1987] ECR 2865.
Caisse d’assurances sociales pour travailleurs indépendants ‘Integrity’ v Rouvroy Case C-373/89 [1990] ECR I-4243.
Defrenne v SA Belge de Navigation Aérienne Sabena Case 149/77 [1978] ECR 1365.
Dekker v Stichting Vormingscentrum voor Jong Volwassenen (VJV-Centrum) Plus Case C-177/88 [1990] ECR I-3941.
Drake v Chief Adjudication Officer Case 150/85 [1986] 3 All ER 65, [1987] QB 166, [1986] 3 WLR 1005, [1986] ECR 1995, CJEC.
EC Commission v Belgium Case C-229/89 [1991] ECR I-2205.
EC Commission v France Case 312/86 [1988] ECR 6315.
EC Commission v Germany Case 248/83 [1985] ECR 1459.
Flli Pardini SpA v Ministero del commercio con l’estero Case 338/85 [1988] ECR 2041.
Foster v British Gas plc Case C-188/89 [1990] 3 All ER 897, [1991] 1 QB 405, [1991] 2 WLR 258, [1990] ECR I-3313, CJEC; subsequent proceedings [1991] 2 All ER 705, [1991] 2 AC 306, [1991] 2 WLR 1075, HL.
Francovich and Bonifaci v Italy Joined cases C-6/90 and C-9/90 [1991] ECR I-5357.
Hoeckx v Openbaar Centrum voor Maatschappelijk Welzijn, Kalmthout Case 249/83 [1985] ECR 973.
Hofmann v Barmer Ersatzkasse Case 184/83 [1984] ECR 3047.
Jenkins v Kingsgate (Clothing Productions) Ltd Case 96/80 [1981] 1 WLR 972, [1981] ECR 911, CJEC; subsequent proceedings [1981] 1 WLR 1485, EAT.
Johnson v Chief Adjudication Officer Case C-31/90 [1992] 2 All ER 705, [1993] QB 252, [1993] 2 WLR 192, [1991] ECR I-3723, CJEC.
Johnston v Chief Constable of the Royal Ulster Constabulary Case 222/84 [1986] 3 All ER 135, [1987] QB 129, [1986] 3 WLR 1038, [1986] ECR 1651, CJEC.
Kowalska v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-33/89 [1990] ECR I-2591.
Page 268 of [1993] 3 All ER 265
McDermott and Cotter v Minister for Social Welfare and A-G Case 286/85 [1987] ECR 1453.
Marleasing SA v Comercial Internacional de Alimentación Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135.
Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584, [1986] QB 401, [1986] 2 WLR 780, [1986] ECR 723, CJEC.
Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority Case C-271/91 (pending), CJEC.
Murphy v Bord Telecom Eireann Case 157/86 [1988] ECR 673.
Netherlands v Federatie Nederlandse Vakbeweging Case 71/85 [1986] ECR 3855.
Newstead v Dept of Transport Case 192/85 [1988] 1 All ER 129, [1988] 1 WLR 612, [1987] ECR 4753, CJEC.
Nimz v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-184/89 [1991] ECR I-297.
Pretore di Salò v Persons unknown Case 14/86 [1987] ECR 2545.
R v Secretary of State for Social Services, ex p Smithson Case C-243/90 [1992] ECR I-467.
Razzouk and Beydoun v EC Commission Joined cases 75 and 117/82 [1984] ECR 1509.
Rinner-Kühn v FWW Spezial-Gebäudereinigung GmbH & Co KG Case 171/88 [1989] ECR 2743.
Roberts v Tate & Lyle Industries Ltd Case 151/84 [1986] 2 All ER 602, [1986] ECR 703, CJEC.
Ruzius-Wilbrink v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor Overheidsdiensten Case C-102/88 [1989] ECR 4311.
Scrivner and Cole v Centre public d’aide sociale de Chastre Case 122/84 [1985] ECR 1027.
Stoeckel v Ministère public Case C-345/89 [1991] ECR I-4047.
Teuling v Bedrijfsvereniging voor de Chemische Industrie Case 30/85 [1987] ECR 2497.
von Colson and Kamann v Land Nordrhein-Westfalen Case 14/83 [1984] ECR 1891.
X v Ministère public Case C-373/90 [1992] ECR I-131.
ReferenceBy orders dated 21 December 1990 the Court of Appeal referred to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty a number of questions (set out at p 278 d to j, post) on the interpretation of Council Directive (EEC) 79/7 on the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security and Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 on the implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, vocational training and promotion, and working conditions. The questions were raised in proceedings between the appellants in the main proceedings, Sonia Jackson and Patricia Cresswell, and the Chief Adjudication Officer relating to the appellants’ right to deduct child minding expenses from their incomes for the purposes of the determination of the amount of benefit granted to them in the United Kingdom in order to make up the insufficiency in their incomes. The appellants, the United Kingdom and the EC Commission submitted written observations to the court. Oral argument was presented to the court by Richard Drabble (instructed by Penny Wood) on behalf of the appellants, by Richard Plender QC and David Pannick (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) on behalf of the United Kingdom and by Karen Banks, a
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member of the EC Commission’s legal department on behalf of the Commission. The language of the case was English. The facts are set out in the report for the hearing presented by the Judge Rapporteur.
I—FACTS AND WRITTEN PROCEDURE
1. In the United Kingdom the Supplementary Benefits Act 1976 provided for the payment of a benefit to persons whose resources were insufficient to meet their requirements. Persons aged between 16 and pensionable age were entitled to claim a supplementary allowance the amount of which corresponded to the insufficiency of their means compared with their needs. Persons over pensionable age were entitled to a supplementary pension.
Pursuant to reg 6 of the Supplementary Benefit (Conditions of Entitlement) Regulations 1981, SI 1981/1526, a lone father or mother was not subject to the requirement of registration and availability for employment which anybody wishing to claim supplementary allowance normally has to fulfil.
For the calculation of resources, reg 10 of the Supplementary Benefit (Resources) Regulations 1981, SI 1981/1527, provided for the deduction from earnings derived from employment of the expenses reasonably incurred without reimbursement in respect of the making of reasonable provision for another member of the ‘assessment unit’ because of his own necessary absence from home to carry out his duties in connection with that employment.
Pursuant to reg 11 of the latter regulations an allowance paid pursuant to arrangements made by the Manpower Services Commission, a statutory body charged with arrangements for vocational training, for the maintenance of an applicant or his family was regarded as being earnings. Child minding expenses could be deducted from income derived from employment but not from income in the form of a training grant.
2. As from April 1988 the Supplementary Benefits Act 1976 has been replaced by the Social Security Act 1986. The new Act provides for income support which is paid to everyone aged at least 18 whose income does not exceed a specified amount and who is not engaged in remunerative employment.
Like the 1981 regulations, reg 8 of the Income Support (General) Regulations 1987, SI 1987/1967, exempts a sole parent responsible for a child who is a member of his household from the requirement of being available for work which recipients of income support normally have to fulfil. Pursuant to reg 5, persons working less than 24 hours a week are not regarded as being engaged in remunerative employment.
By contrast with the 1976 system, the 1986 regulations do not allow child minding expenses to be deducted from earnings derived from part-time employment.
3. At the time of the events giving rise to the reference in Case C-63/91, Sonia Jackson, an unmarried mother with a child aged four, was unemployed and for several years had been receiving income support. In September 1986 she commenced a training course organised by the Manpower Services Commission and accordingly received a weekly allowance.
On the ground that Ms Jackson’s financial resources then exceeded her requirements, the competent authority—the adjudication officer—decided that she was not entitled to receive income support and at the same time refused to
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take account of the expenses incurred in having her child looked after while she attended the training course.
4. At the time of the events giving rise to the reference in Case C-64/91, Patricia Cresswell, a divorced mother with sole charge of two children aged five and two, was unemployed and received income support. Since she had taken a part-time job of less than 24 hours a week, the adjudication officer reduced the amount of her income support without taking account of the child minding expenses incurred by her.
5. Contending that the failure to take account of child minding expenses constituted discrimination on grounds of sex, contrary to the applicable Community legislation, Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell brought the matter before the Social Security Appeal Tribunal and then the Social Security Commissioner, both of which dismissed their appeals, and then appealed to the Court of Appeal of England and Wales.
6. Considering that the disputes involved the interpretation of Council Directive (EEC) 79/7 of 19 December 1978 on the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security and of Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 of 9 February 1976 on the implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, vocational training and promotion, and working conditions, the Court of Appeal of England and Wales, by two orders of 21 December 1990, stayed the proceedings before it and referred the following questions to the Court of Justice for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty:
‘1. Is supplementary allowance [in Case C-63/91, or income support, in Case C-64/91]—which was [or, in the case of income support, is] a benefit available in a variety of personal circumstances to persons whose means were [or, in the case of income support, are] insufficient to meet their statutory requirements and who may or may not have suffered from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7—within the scope of Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
2. Is the answer to question 1 the same in all cases or does it depend on whether a person is suffering from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
3. Are the conditions of entitlement for receipt of supplementary allowance [in Case C-63/91, or income support, in Case C-64/91] capable of falling within Directive 76/207 where those conditions relate solely to access to supplementary allowance [or income support] but the effect of application of those conditions may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training [or part-time employment]?’
7. In its orders for reference, the Court of Appeal invites the Court of Justice, if it finds in favour of the appellants in the main proceedings, to furnish guidance on the way in which any infringement of their rights should be corrected. The Court of Appeal observes in that respect that it must consider not whether the legislation at issue is unjust but whether the fact that more women than men suffer injustice is justified. In that context, it points out that the elimination of discrimination on grounds of sex against women will create discrimination against men.
8. The orders from the Court of Appeal of England and Wales were received at the Court Registry on 14 February 1991.
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9. Pursuant to art 20 of the Protocol on the Statute of the Court of Justice, written observations were lodged on 27 May 1991 by Sonia Jackson and Patricia Cresswell, the appellants in the main proceedings in Cases C-63/91 and C-64/91 respectively, represented by Penny Wood, solicitor, on 9 August 1991 by the United Kingdom, represented by J E Collins, Treasury Solicitor’s Department, and on 23 May 1991 and 1 September 1991 by the Commission of the European Communities, represented by Karen Banks, a member of its legal department, acting as agent.
10. On 27 November 1991 the President of the court decided, pursuant to art 43 of the Rules of Procedure, to join Cases C-63/91 and C-64/91 for the purposes of the oral procedure and judgment.
11. Upon hearing the report of the Judge Rapporteur and the views of the Advocate General, the court decided to open the oral procedure without any preparatory inquiry.
II—WRITTEN OBSERVATIONS SUBMITTED TO THE COURT
1. Sonia Jackson and Patricia Cresswell, the appellants in the main proceedings, state with respect to the first question, that supplementary allowance and income supplement are intended to provide protection against the risks enumerated in art 3(1) of Directive 79/7.
Ms Jackson states that the benefit created by the Supplementary Benefits Act 1976 is divided into two: the ‘supplementary pension’ for people over the age of 60 is manifestly within art 3; the supplementary allowance for people aged between 16 and 60 is also a statutory scheme providing protection against the risks listed in art 3(1) which materialise before pension age.
According to Ms Cresswell, the income supplement scheme contains a number of premiums addressed specifically to the risks listed in art 3(1), namely the pensioner premium, the higher pensioner premium, the disability premium and the severe disability premium. Many people affected by one of the risks listed in art 3(1) also receive income support, which proves that the latter scheme is inseparable from the specific benefit schemes referred to by that provision.
According to both the plaintiffs in the main proceedings, that aim of providing protection against the risks listed in art 3(1) would be achieved not only if reference were made to the decisive criterion of the role played by those benefits in practice but also if regard were had to the role that those benefits were intended to play as a matter of design. In its judgment in Drake v Chief Adjudication Officer Case 150/85 [1986] 3 All ER 65, [1987] QB 166 the court advocated a broad interpretation of Directive 79/7. It is not possible therefore to limit the scope of that directive to the classic contributory schemes and leave aside the more general means-tested schemes. Furthermore, benefits of a type as general as those at issue before the national court do not come within the specific exclusions envisaged in art 3(2).
The scope of art 3 of Directive 79/7 cannot be determined by reference to that of Council Regulation (EEC) 1408/71 of 14 June 1971 on the application of social security schemes to employed persons and their families moving within the Community; the fundamental problem raised by that regulation is whether a benefit is to be regarded as exportable, which accounts for the more restrictive interpretation adopted by the court of the concept of social security benefits contained in art 4 of that regulation. However, the court has had an opportunity to condemn discrimination by a member state within its territory by relying on the concept of social advantage within the meaning of art 7(2) of Council Regulation (EEC) 1612/68 of 15 October 1968 on freedom of movement for
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workers within the Community. However, in the case of the directives prohibiting discrimination on grounds of sex, there is no fall-back position. Reference to art 45 of Regulation 1408/71 is no longer relevant since it applies only to old-age and sickness benefits. Nor can it be contended that Directive 79/7 is only one step in the progressive programme for the implementation of the principle of equal treatment; an analysis of that programme, as it stands at present, shows that none of the directives included in the programme will cover discrimination of the kind at issue in the two cases before the national court.
In those circumstances, the plaintiffs in the main proceedings propose that the first question be answered in the affirmative.
With respect to the second question, they state that the answer to the first question is the same in all cases and does not depend on whether the applicant is affected by any of the risks listed in art 3(1) of Directive 79/7.
As regards the third question, Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell observe that the United Kingdom schemes at issue are also contrary to Directive 76/207, in so far as they create an obstacle to equal access for men and women to vocational training and employment. Directive 76/207 prohibits all discrimination within the financial arrangements made by a member state for support during vocational training or with a view to obtaining employment. The fact that art 1(1) of Directive 76/207 refers, with respect to the achievement of equal treatment in matters of social security, to para (2), which speaks of progressive implementation, merely means that ‘pure’ social security lies outside the scope of the directive; discrimination within a social security system, which has the result of preventing equal access to vocational training or employment, nevertheless comes within the scope of the directive. It would in fact be absurd to exclude from the scope of Directive 76/207 financial provisions giving rise to such discrimination merely because they relate to social security and at the same time to leave within the scope of the directive similar financial provisions relating to other systems of allowances. The judgment in Newstead v Dept of Transport Case 192/85 [1988] 1 All ER 129, [1988] 1 WLR 612 related to a social security system requiring higher contributions by men than by women, but did not relate to pay or other working conditions; the present cases, on the other hand, are concerned with equality of access either to vocational training or to employment and are specifically within the scope of Directive 76/207.
2. The United Kingdom states in the first place that there can be no question of indirect discrimination on grounds of sex unless the existence or the lack of a provision has a clear adverse impact on one sex or the other. No arguments on that matter were advanced before the Court of Appeal and the question whether it is appropriate to look at either the proportion or the number of women disadvantaged was not raised. Since the national court has not asked for guidance on the matter of discrimination the United Kingdom states that it does not propose to address that issue.
With regard to the first question, the United Kingdom states that Directive 79/7 is only the first stage in the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment in social security matters. The scope of the directive is defined by art 3 thereof: para (1)(a) lists certain risks covered, para (1)(b) refers to social assistance in so far as it is intended to supplement or replace the schemes referred to in para (1)(a) and para (2) excludes certain benefits. In Drake’s case the court made it clear that, in order to fall within the scope of Directive 79/7, a benefit must constitute the whole or part of a statutory scheme providing protection against one of the specified risks or a form of social assistance having the same objective.
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The allowances in question are designed to protect persons against the risk of poverty and are not within the scope of Directive 79/7. Entitlement to the allowances depend essentially on a person’s income and not upon the occurrence of one of the risks specified in art 3(1); in particular, no link can be established between the allowances and the risk of unemployment: on the one hand, many unemployed people do not meet the prescribed conditions and, on the other, people in paid employment, in particular part-time employment, receive such allowances. As regards protection against poverty, it is natural for many who receive income support to have suffered risks listed in art 3(1).
The United Kingdom states that the classification of the allowances in question as social security or as social assistance is irrelevant. In Hoeckx v Openbaar Centrum vor Maatsch appelijk Welzijn, Kalmthout Case 249/83 [1985] ECR 973 and Scrivner and Cole v Centre public d’aide sociale de Chastre Case 122/84 [1985] ECR 1027, the court concluded that the Belgian ‘minimex’ did not fall within art 4(1) of Regulation 1408/71 since it was a general benefit. The United Kingdom allowances at issue are similarly a general benefit.
The United Kingdom suggests that the first question be answered as follows:
‘Income support and supplementary allowance are not within the scope of Directive 79/7.’
As regards the second question, the United Kingdom states that the application of art 3 depends on the nature of the scheme in question, not on the characteristics of the applicant for benefit and that, accordingly, the answer to the first question is the same in all cases.
With respect to the third question, the United Kingdom submits that the conditions for entitlement to supplementary allowance and income support are not capable of falling within Directive 76/207. Article 1(2) of that directive expressly excludes the field of social security by referring to subsequent instruments. The court confirmed, in Newstead v Dept of Transport, that the directive does not apply to social security matters. In Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584, [1986] QB 401 the court may indeed have recognised that, with respect to discriminatory retirement ages adopted by employers, art 1(2) of Directive 76/207 must be interpreted strictly. However, the cases pending before the national court display certain analogies with Newstead’s case in so far as they relate directly to the content of the social security system.
With regard to Case C-64/91, the United Kingdom states that income support is not intended to guarantee a person who meets the prescribed conditions to have access to teaching or training.
It therefore proposes that the answer to the third question should be:
‘The conditions of entitlement for receipt of supplementary allowance or income support are not capable of falling within Directive 76/207 where those conditions relate solely to access to supplementary allowance or income support but the effect of the application of those conditions may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment.’
3. The Commission observes, first, that the two United Kingdom schemes raise a problem of equal treatment between men and women since, in all probability, single parents of young children will more frequently be women than men and it is essentially that category of persons who suffer a disadvantage under the schemes in question.
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With respect to certain issues raised by the Court of Appeal, the Commission considers that it is not a question of proving that women are more affected by the provisions at issue than men but rather of deciding whether those provisions are necessary for the pursuit of a legitimate objective. As regards the risk of new discrimination against men, the Commission observes that such a result would also be contrary to the requirement of equal treatment and that a discriminatory provision may not be applied to anyone.
However, the question of the discriminatory character of the rules concerned and the justifiability thereof is not a matter for the Court of Justice, which was why the Court of Appeal confined itself to questions on the scope of Directives 79/7 and 76/207.
As regards the first and second questions, concerning Directive 79/7, the Commission first considers whether any difference exists between the statutory schemes and social assistance. To the extent to which a social assistance scheme is found in a statute, it constitutes a statutory scheme. Although art 3(1)(a) does not specifically refer to social security schemes, it seems reasonable to regard it as covering such schemes and art 3(1)(b) as covering schemes of social assistance which cannot be considered to come within the notion of ‘social security’. It is probable that the use of the expression ‘statutory schemes’ was intended to cover social security schemes in the broadest sense of the word and that sub-para (b) was added simply to make it clear that certain elements of social assistance were within the scope of the directive, although even a broad approach to the concept of social security would, in principle, have excluded them. It is therefore unnecessary to inquire whether a system belongs to the category of social security or that of social assistance: it should be enough that it covers one of the relevant risks referred to in art 3.
The Commission notes a difference between the terms used in sub-paras (a) and (b) of art 3(1): whereas art 3(1)(a) seems to cover statutory schemes which, as a matter of fact, provide protection against one of the enumerated risks, sub-para (b) refers to social assistance which is intended to supplement or replace a relevant statutory scheme referred to in sub-para (a). A literal approach to that text, at least in its English version, would lead to the inclusion of social assistance schemes only where they specifically aimed at the risks enumerated in the directive. In that regard, the Commission considers that supplementary allowance and income support provide protection against the risk of unemployment. If the benefits in question are to be regarded as social assistance, a formal approach would lead to their exclusion from the scope of the directive since, according to the English version, they are not ‘intended’ to supplement or replace a relevant social security scheme. The Commission considers, however, that if all the language versions of the directive are examined it becomes apparent that what matters is that, as a matter of fact, a social assistance scheme does supplement or replace a social security scheme, as it does in the present case. The Commission also observes that art 3(1)(b) allows a member state to cover a given risk either by a social security scheme or by social assistance.
To maintain that the United Kingdom schemes are not covered by the directive, on the ground that they are not specifically intended to provide protection against the risks listed in art 3, leaves open the possibility of an uneven effect of the directive in the Community, depending on the extent to which a given member state opts for schemes providing specific protection against individual risks or chooses to rely on a broad system which, as a matter of fact, covers the different risks enumerated in the directive, as well as various
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others. In Drake’s case [1986] 3 All ER 65 at 73, [1987] QB 166 at 177 (para 23) the court emphasised the need ‘to ensure that the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment [was] carried out in a harmonious manner throughout the Community’.
In those circumstances, the Commission proposes that the first two questions be answered as follows:
‘A state allowance which is available in a variety of personal circumstances to persons whose means are insufficient to meet their statutory requirements is within the scope of art 3 of Commission Directive (EEC) 79/7 on the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security, as regards a person who is suffering from one of the risks listed in that article.’
As regards the third question, the Commission recognises that Directive 76/207 cannot be relied on as a basis for equal treatment in social security matters as such; that does not mean, however, that a provision affecting one of the matters covered by the directive, in particular access to vocational training or employment, is excluded from the directive solely because it is a provision of social security law. That approach would allow the member states to practise discrimination by choosing to adopt its measures under the social security system. Furthermore, in his opinion in Teuling v Bedrijfsvereniging voor de Chemische Industrie Case 30/85 [1987] ECR 2497 Mr Advocate General Mancini expressed the view that the relevant criterion was the effect produced by the rules in question, regardless of whether they formed part of a social security system.
In Newstead v Dept of Transport Case 192/85 [1988] 1 All ER 129, [1988] 1 WLR 612 the court may have accepted that an obligation to contribute to a widows’ fund, as part of an occupational social security scheme, was a matter not within Directive 76/207; however, if the provisions concerning social security fell within the scope of Directive 76/207 whenever they caused discrimination in relation to one of the matters covered by the directive, one might consider that the rule at issue in Newstead’s case would have to be examined and justified in the context of that directive.
However, account must be taken of the development of the case law, particularly since the judgment in Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344, in which the court recognised that pensions under a private occupational scheme are pay within the meaning of art 119 of the EEC Treaty, which implies that all occupational social security matters are covered by that article and only state schemes must still be examined in the context of Directive 76/207. It is perhaps possible to argue that conditions concerning social security matters are not also working conditions, in the sense that they form part not of the relationship between employer and employee but of that between the worker and the state. It could, however, be argued against that approach that even state social security schemes affect workers in their capacity as workers and concern one of the conditions under which they work. The Commission concludes that at least some of the conditions governing state social security may be regarded as working conditions within the meaning of Directive 76/207. This does not mean, however, that questions of social security as such fall within the scope of the directive.
Rather than distinguishing between the conditions governing social security schemes and working conditions, the Commission proposes that a social
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security provision should be included within the scope of Directive 76/207 if, beyond its own terms, it raises a problem of discrimination in the fields of access to employment, promotion, vocational training or working conditions. The United Kingdom rules at issue, apart from constituting discrimination in the sphere of social security, cause women to be placed at a disadvantage with regard to access to vocational training and employment. The Commission points out, in that connection, that in Marshall’s case the court stated that the exclusion from the scope of Directive 76/207 must be interpreted strictly.
In those circumstances, the Commission proposes that the third question be answered as follows:
‘The conditions of entitlement to such an allowance are capable of falling within the scope of Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 on the implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, vocational training and promotion and working conditions, where those conditions relate solely to access to the allowance in question but the effect of their application may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment.’
15 May 1992. The Advocate General (W Van Gerven) delivered the following opinionb.
Mr President, Members of the Court,
1. The two cases under consideration are the result of a request made for a preliminary ruling by the Court of Appeal of England and Wales on the scope of Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 of 9 February 1976 on the implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, vocational training and promotion, and working conditions, and of Council Directive (EEC) 79/7 of 19 December 1978 on the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security. The questions referred to the court arose in proceedings between Ms Sonia Jackson and Ms Patricia Cresswell, the appellants in the main proceedings, and the Chief Adjudication Officer concerning the compatibility with Community law of two British benefit schemes in so far as they take no account of child minding expenses when calculating the benefit.
Facts and relevant legislation
2. The two benefit schemes can be summarised as follows.
The Supplementary Benefits Act 1976, which is in issue in Case C-63/91 (Jackson), introduced supplementary benefit for persons of at least 16 years of age whose resources were insufficient to meet their requirements. This benefit was available to persons of pensionable age in the form of a supplementary pension. The amount of the benefit was the amount by which the person’s resources fell short of his requirements (listed in the Act). In contrast, persons under pensionable age had as a general rule to be available for employment in order to be entitled to a supplementary allowance (see s 5(1)(a)). However, under the Supplementary Benefit (Conditions of Entitlement) Regulations 1981, SI 1981/1526, implementing the 1976 Act, that requirement did not apply to a lone person who had a dependent child living with him (see reg 6(a)).
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In addition, the Supplementary Benefit (Resources) Regulations 1981, SI 1981/1527, stipulated that, in calculating the claimant’s means, reasonable child minding expenses were to be deducted from his earnings from employment. Regulation 10(4) provided:
‘In calculating the amount of a person’s earnings, there shall be deducted from the earnings which he derives from any employment … (c) expenses reasonably incurred by him without reimbursement in respect of … (ii) the making of reasonable provision for the care of another member of the assessment unit because of his own necessary absence from home to carry out his duties in connexion with that employment …’
A training allowance payable pursuant to arrangements made by the Manpower Services Commission, a statutory body responsible for vocational training, was to be treated as income for the purposes of calculating benefit (see reg 11(2)(h)). Nevertheless, family costs, including child minding expenses, were not deductible from the training allowance, which was treated as income, with a view to calculating the claimant’s means. Neither could child minding expenses be taken into account by being added to the list of requirements. The implementing rules governing the composition of that list, the Supplementary Benefit (Requirements) Regulations 1983, SI 1983/1399, only allowed an expense incurred for the performance of an ‘ordinary domestic task’ to be counted as a ‘requirement’ where the adult members of the family in question were unable to carry out the task themselves ‘by reason of old age, ill health, disability or heavy family responsibilities’. (In a similar case to that of Ms Jackson it is reported that a social security commissioner held that a person with only one dependent child could not be regarded as having ‘heavy family responsibilities’ and that her family responsibilities did not become ‘heavy’ as a result of her decision to undertake a training course.)
3. As from April 1988, the 1976 Act has been replaced by the Social Security Act 1986, which is central to Case C-64/91 (Cresswell). The new Act replaces supplementary benefit by ‘income support’, which is granted to anyone aged at least 18 whose income is insufficient to meet his requirements, who ‘is not engaged in remunerative work’ or whose partner is not so engaged and who, except in certain circumstances, is available for employment (see s 20(3)). Under the Income Support (General) Regulations 1987, SI 1987/1967, a lone parent responsible for a child who is a member of his household is not required to be available for work (see reg 8 in conjunction with Sch 1, para 1). They also define the expression ‘remunerative work’ as work averaging not less than 24 hours a week (see reg 5(1)). By contrast with the 1976 Act, the 1986 Act does not allow child minding expenses to be deducted from earnings from part-time work. Neither may such costs be added when calculating a person’s financial requirements.
4. At the time of the events giving rise to Case C-63/91, Ms Jackson was 23 years old. She was unmarried, unemployed and the mother of a four-year-old child. She received various benefits (child benefit and one-parent benefit) and, as from March 1982, also supplementary allowance under the 1976 Act. In September 1986 she started a training course arranged by the Manpower Services Commission. On that account she received a weekly training allowance. On the ground that her financial income then exceeded her requirements, the competent authority, the adjudication officer, withdrew her entitlement to supplementary allowance. At the same time, he refused to take
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account of child minding expenses incurred while she attended the training course.
At the time of the events giving rise to Case C-64/91, Ms Cresswell was 30 years old. She was a divorced mother with sole charge of two children aged five and two. For some time she was fully unemployed, until September 1988 when she was employed part-time (22 hours a week during the academic year, that is to say on average less than 24 hours a week) as a graphic designer for Exeter University. Until then, she, like Ms Jackson, had received child benefit and one-parent benefit. In addition, she had for some time received income support under the 1986 Act. With effect from the time she took up employment, the adjudication officer reduced her income support without deducting from her weekly income the child minding expenses which she incurred.
5. Both Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell maintain that the failure to take account of child minding expenses constitutes discrimination on grounds of sex, contrary to the applicable Community legislation.
After appealing unsuccessfully to the Social Security Appeal Tribunal and the Social Security Commissioner, they appealed to the Court of Appeal. The Court of Appeal held that both cases necessitated the interpretation of Directives 79/7 and 76/207 and, by two orders of 21 December 1990, referred a number of questions to the Court of Justice for a preliminary ruling.
The questions referred in Case C-63/91 (Jackson) read as follows:
‘1. Is supplementary allowance—which was a benefit available in a variety of personal circumstances to persons whose means were insufficient to meet their statutory requirements and who may or may not have suffered from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7—within the scope of Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
2. Is the answer to question 1 the same in all cases or does it depend on whether a person is suffering from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
3. Are the conditions of entitlement for receipt of supplementary allowance capable of falling within Directive 76/207 where those conditions relate solely to access to supplementary allowance but the effect of application of those conditions may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training?’
The same questions have been referred in Case C-64/91 (Cresswell), but there they are directed to income support and to Ms Cresswell’s situation:
‘1. Is income support—which is a benefit available in a variety of personal circumstances to persons whose means are insufficient to meet their needs as defined by statute and who may or may not have suffered from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7—within the scope of Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
2. Is the answer to question 1 the same in all cases or does it depend on whether a person is suffering from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
3. Are the conditions of entitlement for receipt of income support capable of falling within Directive 76/207 where those conditions relate solely to access to income support but the effect of the application of those conditions may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up part-time employment?’
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In addition, in the judgment of the same date which accompanies the two orders for reference (judgment of 21 December 1990), the Court of Appeal asks the court, if it holds that the two directives are applicable, to furnish guidance on the way in which any infringement of Ms Jackson’s and Ms Cresswell’s rights should be corrected.
6. Before I start my discussion of the cases I would dwell on that request. The Commission considers that it is not self-evident that the court should comply with it. It argues in its supplementary observations that the Court of Appeal has no need of an answer on those points, since it has at this stage of the proceedings only to reach a decision as to the applicability of Directives 79/7 and 76/207. The question as to the remedy will not arise until a later stage before another court, namely a ‘fact-finding body’, to which—if it is held that the two benefit systems fall within the scope of one or other or both of the directives—the cases will be referred and which will have to examine whether or not the systems are discriminatory and whether they are justified. The Commission infers from the judgment in Flli Pardini SpA v Ministero del commercio con l’estero Case 338/85 [1988] ECR 2041 at 2075 (para 11) that the court has jurisdiction to give a preliminary ruling pursuant to art 177 of the EEC Treaty only where the national court which asks for the ruling needs it for the purpose of resolving a dispute pending before it.
I do not agree with that view. The court has consistently held that the national court’s discretion to refer a question for a preliminary ruling should be interpreted broadly. (The case law is summarised in the judgment in Pretore di Salò v Persons unknown Case 14/86 [1987] ECR 2545. In my view, the judgment in the Pardini case in no way detracts from that case law but, on the contrary, is consistent with it.) The determining factor is the assessment of the national court itself. The national court in this case expressly states that the question of a remedy for Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell constitutes a question of principle, of general importance, as to the manner in which it should approach the task of giving effect to the directives, which it would like to see answered in case it holds that they apply in this case. Moreover, the Court of Appeal points, absolutely rightly, to the fact that the two proceedings have already been before the courts for a long time (more than five years now) and to the need, in the context of adequate legal protection, to save the time and costs which would inevitably be entailed by a further request for a preliminary ruling made at a later stage in the same cases by a lower court, or possibly also by the Court of Appeal itself in the event of an appeal against the lower court’s judgment.
7. In my discussion I shall first consider the question whether the benefits at issue fall within the scope of Directive 79/7 and whether that depends on whether the persons concerned were suffering from one of the risks referred to in that directive. I shall then consider whether the two schemes fall within Directive 76/207. In so far is it appears that the benefits fall within the scope of one or other or both of the directives, I shall examine in the case of each directive whether discrimination on grounds of sex contrary to the relevant directive is involved and under what circumstances such discrimination may be justified. I shall deal with the question of the remedy at the end.
Scope of Directive 79/7
8. Directive 79/7 aims at the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security (to which I shall refer as ‘the principle of equal treatment’). Its progressive character is clear from the title (see para 1 above), the preamble (reference to art 1(2) of Directive 76/207 and the recital stating that the principle of equal treatment should be
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implemented ‘in the first place’ in the areas covered by the directive (see first and second recitals in the preamble to Directive 79/7) and the wording of art 1.
Article 1 mentions that the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment is intended to take place ‘in the field of social security and other elements of social protection’. What is meant is more closely specified in art 3(1), which provides as follows:
‘This Directive shall apply to: (a) statutory schemes which provide protection against the following risks: —sickness, —invalidity, —old age, —accidents at work and occupational diseases, —unemployment; (b) social assistance, in so far as it is intended to supplement or replace the schemes referred to in (a).’
It appears from these provisions that the Community legislature sought to give priority to implementing the principle of equal treatment in the sphere of schemes providing protection against the ‘classical’ risks: sickness, invalidity, old age, accidents at work, occupational diseases and unemployment. (Historically, too, those risks were the first to be covered by forms of social security: cf J Van Langendonck Handboek sociaal zekerheidsrecht (1991) p 7; J J Dupeyroux Droit de la Sécurité Sociale (10th edn, 1986) p 38ff.) Survivors’ benefits and family benefits are expressly excluded from the scope of Directive 79/7 (art 3(2)) (except that family benefits granted by way of increases in benefits due in respect of the risks referred to in art 3(1)(a) are covered by the directive (art 3(2)).
9. As is to be expected, the interpretation of art 3(1) is the subject of discussion between the parties to the main proceedings. On the basis of the judgment in Drake v Chief Adjudication Officer Case 150/85 [1986] 3 All ER 65, [1987] QB 166 the United Kingdom argues that neither supplementary allowance nor income support falls within the scope of Directive 79/7. In its view, the benefits in question are intended to protect their recipients against the risk of poverty and not against one of the risks listed in art 3(1). The United Kingdom goes on to argue that entitlement to supplementary allowance depended, and entitlement to income support depends, upon a person’s resources and not upon the occurrence of one of the risks specified in art 3(1). In other words, the fact that a person suffered from one of the risks specified in art 3(1) did not entitle him automatically to supplementary allowance and the same is now true of income support; on the other hand, there are many people who, although not suffering from one or more of the specified risks, nevertheless qualified or qualify for benefit.
For their part, Ms Jackson, Ms Cresswell and the Commission consider that both benefits fall under Directive 79/7. According to Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell, the benefits do fall under the directive, because they were intended to provide protection against the risks listed in art 3(1). They maintain that the decisive criterion is the role which the benefits play in practice. Even if one had to stick to the aim with which the benefits were designed, according to the judgment in Drake’s case a broad interpretation must be given to the scope of the directive. Its scope may not be restricted to classic contributory schemes, which would result in more general means-tested schemes being left on one side. Lastly, the Commission argues that in order for Directive 79/7 to apply it is sufficient that the benefit schemes do, as a matter of fact, cover one of the risks listed in art 3(1).
10. As the Court of Appeal rightly observes, the question is not whether supplementary allowance and income support must be regarded as a statutory scheme or social assistance within the meaning of art 3(1). I shall therefore not
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discuss that difference. The central question here is whether, in order to fall within Directive 79/7, a scheme must be intended by the legislature to constitute protection against risks listed in art 3(1)(a) or whether it is sufficient that it does in fact afford protection against such risks. Two judgments of the court seem to me to be crucially relevant to that question: Drake’s case and R v Secretary of State for Social Security, ex p Smithson Case C-243/90 [1992] ECR I-467.
11. The judgment in Drake’s case was concerned, inter alia, with whether an invalid care allowance provided for under British legislation was to be regarded as being a benefit granted under a statutory scheme providing protection against invalidity, to which Directive 79/7 applies as a result of art 3(1)(a) thereof.
The court answered that question in the affirmative. It pointed out that invalidity was one of the risks referred to in art 3(1)(a). It considered that:
‘In order to fall within the scope of the directive … a benefit must constitute the whole or part of a statutory scheme providing protection against one of the specified risks or a form of social assistance having the same objective.’ (See [1986] 3 All ER 65 at 73, [1987] QB 166 at 176 (para 21).)
The court also took account of the fact that member states protect against the risk of invalidity in different ways. Thus, the United Kingdom, unlike other member states, provides for two separate allowances, one payable to the disabled person himself and the other payable to a person who provides care. However, such technical differences are irrelevant and the court held ([1986] 3 All ER 65 at 73, [1987] QB 166 at 177 (para 23)):
‘In order … to ensure that the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment referred to in art 1 of Directive 79/7 and defined in art 4 is carried out in a harmonious manner throughout the Community, art 3(1) must be interpreted as including any benefit which in a broad sense forms part of one of the statutory schemes referred to or a social assistance provision intended to supplement or replace such a scheme.’
In addition, the court observed ([1986] 3 All ER 65 at 74, [1987] QB 166 at 177 (para 24)):
‘… the payment of the benefit to a person who provides care still depends on the existence of a situation of invalidity inasmuch as such a situation is a condition sine qua non for its payment, as the adjudication officer admitted during the oral procedure. It must also be emphasised that there is a clear economic link between the benefit and the disabled person, since the disabled person derives an advantage from the fact that an allowance is paid to the person caring for him.’
Cf judgment in Smithson’s case [1992] ECR I-467 (para 13).
The upshot was that the benefit in question fell within the scope of Directive 79/7; otherwise, the court held, it would be possible, by making formal changes to existing benefits covered by the directive, to remove them from its scope (see [1986] 3 All ER 65 at 74, [1987] QB 166 at 177 (para 25)).
12. The very recent judgment in Smithson’s case starts out from the reasoning in Drake’s case but adds a number of important explanations. That case was concerned with the British scheme of housing benefit for persons of low income. Entitlement to housing benefit and the amount thereof are calculated on the basis of the relationship between the claimant’s income and a notional
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income known as the ‘applicable amount’. One of the elements which may be taken into account in order to determine that applicable amount is the ‘higher pensioner premium’, which is applicable, inter alia, to persons aged between 60 and 80 who live alone and are in receipt of one or more other social security benefits, including, in particular, an invalidity pension. Anyone who has retired (the retirement age in the United Kingdom is 60 for women and 65 for men) but not yet reached the age of 65 (for women) or 70 (for men) may elect to withdraw from the pension scheme in order to obtain an invalidity pension.
Ms Smithson ceased at the age of 60 to draw the invalidity pension which she had been receiving for some years. Although she was entitled at that time to opt for an invalidity pension, she did not do so and received thereafter an ordinary pension. Later, in connection with the housing benefit which she was granted, she was refused the benefit of higher pensioner premium because she did not fulfil the supplementary condition of being in receipt of an invalidity pension. She was not entitled to fulfil the condition by switching from a pension to an invalidity pension since she had by that time reached the age of 67.
It was argued that the fact that a women—unlike a man—could not elect between the ages of 65 and 70 to switch from a pension to an invalidity pension constituted discrimination within the meaning of art 4 of Directive 79/7. It was claimed that housing benefit was (part of) a statutory scheme providing protection against three of the risks listed in art 3(1)(a) of the directive, namely invalidity, old age and unemployment.
The court reformulated the question put by the national court (also the Court of Appeal of England and Wales), which referred to art 4 of Directive 79/7, so as to ask whether art 3(1) of Directive 79/7 applies to a scheme for housing benefit the amount of which is calculated by reference to a notional income if criteria concerning protection against certain risks covered by the directive, such as sickness or invalidity, are applied in order to determine the amount of that notional income (see Smithson’s case [1992] ECR I-467 (para 10)).
After citing the first and third passages quoted above from Drake’s case the court went on to state as follows:
‘14. It is therefore clear that although the mode of payment is not decisive as regards the identification of a benefit as one which falls within the scope of Directive 79/7, in order to be so identified the benefit must be directly and effectively linked to the protection provided against one of the risks specified in Article 3(1) of the directive.
15. However, Article 3(1)(a) of Directive 79/7 does not refer to statutory schemes which are intended to guarantee any person whose real income is lower than a notional income calculated on the basis of certain criteria a special allowance enabling that person to meet housing costs.’
The court further observed that age and invalidity are only two of the criteria applied in order to determine the beneficiary’s financial need for such an allowance. The fact that those criteria are decisive as regards eligibility for the higher pensioner premium is not sufficient to bring that benefit within the scope of Directive 79/7 (see Smithson’s case [1992] ECR I-467 (para 16); the terminology used in the French version of the judgment is not completely clear: ‘allocation majorée’, it appears from para 3 of the judgment, should read ‘prime majorée’). Such a premium is simply—
‘an inseparable part of the whole benefit which is intended to compensate for the fact that the beneficiary’s income is insufficient to meet housing
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costs, and cannot be characterized as an autonomous scheme intended to provide protection against one of the risks listed in Article 3(1) of Directive 79/7.’ (See [1992] ECR I-467 (para 17).)
13. The judgment in Smithson’s case needs some interpretation. I understand it in the following way: the fact that a risk covered by Directive 79/7 (such as invalidity in Ms Smithson’s case) must be taken into account in calculating a notional income which in turn is the condition for the grant of a benefit which (like Ms Smithson’s housing benefit) does not itself afford protection against one of the risks referred to in Directive 79/7 cannot bring that benefit within the scope of Directive 79/7. In other words, the mere fact that criteria are used which are related to a risk covered by the directive cannot bring within the scope of the directive a benefit which itself affords no protection against one of the risks in question. In Smithson’s case the relationship between the risks referred to in Directive 79/7 and housing benefit was in fact only indirect: invalidity is only a criterion for the grant of an invalidity pension, the grant of which is a precondition for receipt of a higher pension premium; in turn the latter is taken into account (along with other factors) in order to calculate the notional income of the person claiming housing benefit.
14. For the purposes of our inquiry in the present cases the judgments in the Drake and Smithson cases should be read together. The decisive criterion resulting from that exercise is that, in order to fall within art 3(1) of Directive 79/7, a benefit must be granted pursuant to an autonomous statutory scheme or a form of social assistance affording protection which is directly and effectively linked (see the judgment in Smithson’s case) to one of the risks specified in that provision. That is certainly the case where under the scheme—like the one at issue in Drake’s case—the grant of a benefit depends, as a condition sine qua non, on the existence of one of the risks referred to in art 3(1)(a). This is not affected by the fact that the benefit is paid to a third party, provided that the economic advantage accrues to the person covered against that risk. Nevertheless, the mode of payment (according to Smithson’s case) is not the decisive test for whether there is a direct and effective link. But, again according to Smithson’s case, the link between the scheme and the protection provided against one of the risks specified in art 3(1)(a) of the directive may not be completely indirect (as it was in Smithson’s case).
However that may be, in any case it is necessary, according to the judgment in Drake’s case, to take a teleological approach to the scope of art 3(1) of the directive. As the court emphasised in that case (see para 11 above) the principal of equal treatment defined in the directive must be carried out in a harmonious manner throughout the Community. As a result, all benefits granted in a broad sense pursuant to a statutory scheme or scheme of social assistance which is intended to provide protection against one or more of the relevant risks are covered. In his opinion in Drake’s case [1986] 3 All ER 65 at 70, [1987] QB 166 at 171 (para 5) Mr Advocate General Mancini rightly observed:
‘… the effectiveness of the directive would be seriously compromised if the limits of its application were defined by the way in which a benefit was paid. It is clear that if that were the case a member state would need only to make a few slight amendments to its legislation in order to exclude numerous sectors of its social security system from the application of the principle of equal treatment.’
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Consequently, the court’s approach in the judgment in Drake’s case dovetails perfectly with a continuous line of judgments in equal treatment cases in which the effectiveness of the relevant Community rules is appealed to as a matter of prime importance with a view to achieving the aims of the EEC Treaty or of Community legislation amid the tangle of national systems and rules. (See, inter alia, the case law on the application of art 119 of the EEC Treaty and the prohibition of discrimination contained in Directive 76/207. As far as art 119 is concerned, see the judgment in Murphy v Bord Telecom Eireann Case 157/86 [1988] ECR 673 at 690 (para 10); the judgment in Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660 at 702, [1991] 1 QB 344 at 402 (para 34). For cases where effectiveness is prayed in aid in connection with the interpretation of Directive 76/207, see the judgments in Foster v British Gas plc Case C-188/89 [1990] 3 All ER 897 at 921, [1991] 1 QB 405 at 427 (para 16) and in Dekker v Stichting Vormingscentrum voor Jong Volwassenen (VJV-Centrum) Plus Case C-177/88 [1990] ECR I-3941 at 3976 (para 24).)
15. This analysis of the recent case law leads me to give the following answer to the question whether, in order to ascertain whether a scheme falls within Directive 79/7, the legislative intention or the practical result, namely actual protection against one of the risks specified in the directive, is the decisive factor.
As I have already stated (in para 9 above), the United Kingdom supports the first, narrow view. It maintains that neither supplementary allowance nor income support falls within the scope of Directive 79/7, because the schemes are not inextricably linked to the risk of unemployment (or old age). On the contrary, they are intended to protect recipients against the risk of poverty, a risk not specified in art 3(1)(a) of the directive. Evidence of the absence of such an inextricable link is moreover provided by the fact that none of the risks specified in art 3(1) operates as a condition sine qua non for the payment of supplementary allowance or income support in the sense that it guarantees the beneficiary an automatic entitlement to supplementary allowance or income support. On the contrary, the United Kingdom maintains that there were many people who were not afflicted by one of the risks specified in art 3(1) yet were still eligible for supplementary allowance or income support.
16. I cannot agree with that view. As far as the so-called aim of protection against poverty is concerned, it is correct to say that that situation is not mentioned as such in art 3(1) of Directive 79/7. Nevertheless, protection against the risks specified in that provision ultimately boils down to protection against loss of income or poverty resulting from the occurrence of one of those risks. Moreover, the fact that legislation gears the amount of protection provided against one of the risks specified in art 3(1) to financial need does not prevent the relevant scheme from being in the nature of protection against one of those risks.
I also disagree with the United Kingdom with regard to the question whether the scheme is inextricably linked to one of the risks specified in Directive 79/7, as evidenced, in its view, by the conditions laid down in the scheme for entitlement to benefit being in the nature of a condition sine qua non. To my mind, the requirement of effectiveness and the need to carry out the directive harmoniously and without formal differences throughout the Community mean than one cannot have regard solely to the—explicit or not so explicit—aims which a national legislature has assigned to a particular scheme. When considering whether a scheme falls within Directive 79/7, attention must also be paid to the effect of the scheme, that is to say whether it affords actual protection to its beneficiaries—also in the light of other schemes existing within
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the social security system—against one of the risks specified in art 3(1) of the directive.
The requirement for there to be a direct and effective link between the scheme and one of the risks mentioned in art 3(1) may therefore not be construed as meaning that the risk in question must be a condition sine qua non for the grant of the allowance or support. That is not required by Directive 79/7 or by the case law of the court: such an exclusive link, the judgment in Drake’s case informs us, is, it is true, an important, but not a necessary, factor in assessing whether a benefit forms part of a statutory scheme or scheme of social assistance for the provision of protection against a risk specified in Directive 79/7. Moreover, the expression ‘condition sine qua non’ was used in that judgment in connection with the grant of benefit to a person caring for an invalid (see para 11 above). Like the economic advantage which the invalid obtained from the benefit, the exclusive link was regarded in that case as evidence that a benefit given to a third party also afforded protection to the invalid himself. In any event, as the judgment in Smithson’s case expressly states, the decisive factor is not the mode of payment laid down in the scheme but the direct and effective link between the benefit and the protection provided against one of the risks specified in art 3(1)(a).
17. In expressing this view, I also disagree with the view taken by the United Kingdom with regard to the social assistance schemes referred to in art 3(1). The United Kingdom argues that, even if supplementary allowance and income support had to be regarded as being social assistance schemes within the meaning of Directive 79/7, they nevertheless fall outside the scope of the directive because they were ‘not intended’ to replace or supplement any of the statutory schemes to which reference is made in art 3(1)(a). In the United Kingdom’s view, two judgments in cases arising under Council Regulation (EEC) 1408/71 on the application of social security schemes to employed persons, to self-employed persons and to members of their families moving within the Community (for the most recent consolidated version of this regulation, see OJ 1983 L230, p 8) afford guidance, namely Hoeckx v Openbaar Centrum voor Maatschappelijk Welzijn, Kalmthout Case 249/83 [1985] ECR 973 and Scrivner and Cole v Centre public d’aide sociale de Chastre Case 122/84 [1985] ECR 1027, where the court held that the Belgian ‘minimex’ (minimum means of subsistence) did not fall within art 4(1) of Regulation 1408/71 since it was a general benefit. The same is true of supplementary allowance and income support vis-à-vis Directive 79/7.
Those arguments are not convincing. In the first place, the United Kingdom wrongly takes advantage of a disparity between the various language versions of Directive 79/7. Whereas other versions of art 3(1)(b) speak of schemes which supplement or replace statutory schemes referred to in art 3(1)(a), the English version refers to schemes which are ‘intended’ to do so. In view of the need to confer effectiveness on the provisions of the directive, such an ‘intentional’ interpretation is, however, clearly wrong. Furthermore, the question arises as to whether the aforementioned judgments given in cases arising under Regulation 1408/71 have any value as precedents in this connection: unlike in the case of Directive 79/7, social assistance schemes are expressly excluded from the scope of Regulation 1408/71 (art 4(4)).
18. If the court agrees with my view that regard must be had, not only to the (express or implied) aim, but also to the practical effect of a national scheme in the context of relevant member state’s social security system taken as a whole, it is for the national court—which is best acquainted with its own national
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system—to assess whether supplementary allowance and income support are to be regarded in reality as providing protection against one or more of the risks specified in Directive 79/7. With that assessment in view, I would focus on two circumstances which the national court itself submits for consideration.
First, the Court of Appeal points out that in the United Kingdom after a certain time (312 days, not including Sundays, it was stated at the hearing) the unemployed cease to receive unemployment benefit. The following remark concerns supplementary benefit but according to the reasoning set out later it is also true of income support:
‘The long-term unemployed exhaust their unemployment benefit after a certain time and have to fall back on supplementary benefit. It is impossible to describe the scheme which protects against unemployment without taking supplementary benefit into account.’
Secondly, the Court of Appeal observes that under the supplementary allowance scheme (see para 2 above; from para 3 it appears that this is also true of income support) claimants must as a general rule be available for employment. The Court of Appeal considers that this is ‘a recognition that the scheme has a recognisable role in providing protection against the risk of unemployment’.
The national court could gather from those or other circumstances whether the schemes at issue are in fact directly and effectively linked to protection against one of the risks referred to in art 3(1), namely (in the case of claimants who are not pensioners) unemployment, and whether, in view of the absence or insufficient provision of other social security schemes affording protection against that risk, they constitute an integral part of the social security protection provided against that risk. In reply to the Court of Appeal’s second question in each of the cases (see para 5 above), I would add that the assessment does not depend on the actual situation of the appellants in the main proceedings—although their situation may well be illustrative of the target group which is protected by the relevant national schemes. What it does depend on is whether the relevant national scheme, viewed globally, directly and effectively affords protection against unemployment (in the case of non-retired, wholly or partly unemployed persons as here) or against old age (in the case of pensioners). I would add that, in my view, the link between the scheme and protection against the risk of unemployment which the national court assumes to exist is a much closer link than that which was involved in Smithson’s case. I would recall that that case (as is described in para 13 above) was concerned with taking into account a risk specified in art 3(1) as a criterion for granting an invalidity pension where the grant of an invalidity pension constituted a supplementary condition for obtaining a higher pension premium, which in turn was taken into account in calculating the notional income taken into consideration for the purposes of housing benefit.
Discrimination within the meaning of Directive 79/7
19. In so far as the national court considers in the light of the criteria set out above that the situation of Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell falls within Directive 79/7, it must be considered whether discrimination on grounds of sex within the meaning of the directive occurs under the supplementary allowance or income support scheme.
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The prohibition of discrimination on grounds of sex is contained in art 4(1) of the directive:
‘The principle of equal treatment means that there shall be no discrimination whatsoever on ground of sex either directly, or indirectly by reference in particular to marital or family status, in particular as concerns: —the scope of the schemes and the conditions of access thereto, —the obligation to contribute and the calculation of contributions, —the calculation of benefits including increases due in respect of a spouse and for dependants and the conditions governing the duration and retention of entitlement to benefits.’
The failure to take account of child minding expenses when determining or calculating a claimant’s financial requirements plainly relates to the calculation of benefits (last indent). There is no direct discrimination in the methods of determination or calculation since no explicit distinction is made between men and women. Neither is express reference made to factors such as marital or family status. The discriminatory treatment alleged by the appellants in the main proceedings seems instead to stem from the fact that the rules in question fail to take a sociological phenomenon into account or take it into account to an insufficient degree, that is to say the fact that there is in present-day western society a large and, reportedly, steadily growing number of single parents, the majority of whom are, it would seem, women. (Reference should be made to the statistics in Childcare and Equality of Opportunity: Consolidated Report to the European Commission (April 1988) p 45ff.) Where such parents, from a situation of unemployment, venture to take vocational training or start part-time work, child minding becomes necessary. Generally speaking, the only solution is to have recourse to paid child minding services. In so far as such costs cannot be taken into account in order to secure continuing receipt of certain benefits (at the same level), lone parents, mainly women, suffer de facto unequal treatment compared with married parents or parents otherwise living together.
20. Is indirect discrimination contrary to Directive 79/7 involved here? Guidance seems to me to be forthcoming from the judgment in Teuling v Bedrijfsvereniging voor de Chemische Industrie Case 30/85 [1987] ECR 2497. What was at issue in that case was a Netherlands statutory benefit payable in respect of incapacity for work the amount of which depended, inter alia, on marital status and on the income from employment of the claimant’s spouse. Because account was taken of her husband’s income, Mrs Teuling did not qualify for benefit supplements. She argued that the system of benefit supplements, which took account of income arising from or in connection with the work of a spouse, constituted indirect discrimination against women and was therefore incompatible with art 4(1) of Directive 79/7. The court ruled (at 2521 (para 13)):
‘… a system of benefits in which … supplements are provided for which are not directly based on the sex of the beneficiaries but take account of their marital status or family situation and in respect of which it emerges that a considerably smaller proportion of women than of men are entitled to such supplements is contrary to Article 4(1) of the directive if that system of benefits cannot be justified by reasons which exclude discrimination on grounds of sex.’
In that case, the court did not decide that the system in question was contrary to art 4(1) but provided the national court with data in order to assess whether it was justified in the light of the aim (explained by the Netherlands government)
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of the deliberate supplements in the context of Netherlands social policy (see also para 21 below).
The passage cited from Teuling’s case constitutes a logical continuation of the case law which the court has developed in connection with art 119 of the EEC Treaty in cases in which a considerably higher number of women than men are affected by a particular scheme. As long ago as in Jenkins v Kingsgate (Clothing Productions) Ltd Case 96/80 [1981] 1 WLR 972 the court was called upon to rule on a system operating in a British company under which a lower hourly rate was paid for part-time than for full-time work and the vast majority of the part-time workers were, apparently, women. The court held that such a system did not offend against the principle of equal pay laid down in art 119 in so far as the difference in pay was attributable to factors which were objectively justified and in no way related to any discrimination based on sex. However, the court went on to state as follows (at 983 (para 13)):
‘By contrast, if it is established that a considerably smaller percentage of women than of men perform the minimum number of weekly working hours required in order to be able to claim full-time hourly rate of pay, the inequality in pay will be contrary to article 119 of the Treaty where, regard being had to the difficulties encountered by women in arranging to work that minimum number of hours per week, the pay policy of the undertaking in question cannot be explained by factors other than discrimination based on sex.’
There the court did in fact take account of an inequality stemming from a sociological phenomenon, namely the difficulty experienced by women in managing to do full-time work (a 40-hour week in that case). That reasoning was extended in Bilka-Kaufhaus GmbH v Weber von Harz Case 170/84 [1986] ECR 1607, a case concerning an occupational pension scheme operated by a German department store company under which only full-time employees were eligible for a pension. In considering whether that constituted indirect discrimination against women, the court, referring to Jenkins’s case, held (at 1627 (para 31)):
‘… Article 119 of the EEC Treaty is infringed by a department store company which excludes part-time employees from its occupational pension scheme, where that exclusion affects a far greater number of women than men, unless the undertaking shows that the exclusion is based on objectively justified factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex.’
The court stated that, in assessing those factors, account had to be taken of the difficulties encountered by women in working full time (at 1627 (para 29)).
Later on, that approach was confirmed in the judgment in Kowalska v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-33/89 [1990] ECR I-2591, in which the point at issue was whether a clause in a civil service employees’ collective agreement was compatible with art 119. The court held that such a clause, under which employers might exclude part-time employees from the payment of a severance grant on termination of their employment, was contrary to art 119—
‘when in fact a considerably lower percentage of men than of women work part time, unless the employer shows that the exclusion is based on objectively justified factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex.’ (At 2612 (para 16).)
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In EC Commission v Belgium Case C-229/89 [1991] ECR I-2205 at 2227 (para 13), in which reference was made to Kowalska’s case, it was confirmed that that case law applies in its full vigour to the prohibition of discrimination applied by art 4(1) of Directive 79/7:
‘… in accordance with settled case-law, Article 4(1) of Directive 79/7 precludes less favourable treatment from being accorded to a social group when it is shown to be made up of a much greater number of persons of one or the other sex, unless the provision in question is “based on objectively justified factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex” …’
21. In the event that the national court considers that Directive 79/7 should be applied (see para 18 above) and, having found that the schemes at issue affect a higher percentage of women than of men, holds that the schemes embody indirect discrimination within the meaning of art 4(1), the roles will be reversed. It will then be for the British authorities to prove that there are objectively justified factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex for not taking child minding costs into account when calculating a person’s means by deducting them from a training grant where application is made for supplementary allowance or by making allowance for them when calculating the means of a claimant for income support.
It is clear from the judgments in Rinner-Kühn v FWW Spezial-Gebäudereinigung GmbH & Co KG Case 171/88 [1989] ECR 2743 at 2761 (para 14) and Nimz v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-184/89 [1991] ECR I-297 at 319 (para 14) that the British authorities may not confine themselves to generalisations. Only if they can show that the means chosen meet a necessary aim of their social policy and that those means are suitable and requisite for attaining that aim will the fact that the provision affects a much greater number of women than men not be regarded as constituting an infringement of art 119 (see Rinner-Kühn’s case (para 14); see also EC Commission v Belgium [1991] ECR I-2205 at 2228 (para 19)). In assessing the principles and aims pursued by the public authorities allowance must, however, be made for the reasonable discretion which, under Community law as it at present stands, each member state enjoys with regard to social protection measures and the detailed arrangements for their implementation (see Hofmann v Barmer Ersatzkasse Case 184/83 [1984] ECR 3047 at 3075–3076 (para 27), EC Commission v Belgium (at 2229 (para 22)).
22. I would add one final observation in this connection. Some people would perhaps be inclined to designate the attitude taken here as a measure of ‘positive discrimination’ (or, to use the expression current in the United States, ‘affirmative action’) in the sense that by this means legal corrective action is being taken with respect to a group of the population which is disadvantaged by sociological circumstances, namely women in this case. (A good example of cases in which Community law expressly authorises such positive discrimination on the part of the member states is afforded by art 2(3) of Directive 76/207 and art 4(2) of Directive 79/7. According to those provisions, the directives are without prejudice to provisions concerning the protection of women, particularly as regards pregnancy and maternity (Directive 76/207) and on the grounds of maternity (Directive 79/7). As far as the aim of the relevant provision of Directive 76/207 is concerned, see the judgment in Hofmann [1984] ECR 3047 esp at 3075 (para 25); see also the very brief statement in Johnston v Chief Constable of the Royal Ulster Constabulary Case 222/84 [1986] 3 All ER 135 at 159, [1987] QB 129 at 152 (para 44), EC Commission v France Case 312/86 [1988] ECR 6315 at 6336 (para 13) and Stoeckel v Ministère public Case C-345/89 [1991]
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ECR I-4047 (para 13).) To my mind that would be incorrect. The development of objective criteria in the legislation which take account of the family costs of a lone parent does not disadvantage the male population. Such an arrangement is equally useful to lone male parents with dependent children.
Having regard to the doubts expressed by the Court of Appeal in this connection, I would expressly add that a rule laid down by the national (legislative, administrative or even judicial) authorities under which child minding costs were deductible only in calculating women’s means in connection with the British schemes of supplementary allowance or income support would on the contrary constitute direct discrimination on the grounds of sex (against men) contrary to Directive 79/7. In that regard I need refer only to the judgment in Caisse d’assurances sociales pour travailleurs indépendants ‘Integrity’ v Rouvroy Case C-373/89 [1990] ECR I-4243 at 4262 (para 15), in which the court held that art 4(1) of Directive 79/7 precludes—
‘national legislation which reserves to married women, widows and students the possibility of being assimilated to persons not liable to pay any social security contributions without granting the same possibility of exemption from liability to pay contributions to married men or widowers who for the rest satisfy the same conditions.’ (My emphasis; see also the opinion of Mr Advocate General Jacobs, in which he reached the same conclusion (esp at 4254 (para 13).)
The scope of Directive 76/207
23. The Court of Appeal’s third question in each of the cases is concerned with the applicability of Directive 76/207 to the conditions of entitlement for receipt of supplementary benefit or income support.
Directive 76/207 was one of the first directives implementing the principle of equal treatment. (That directive was preceded by Council Directive (EEC) 75/117 of 10 February 1975 on the approximation of the laws of the member states relating to the application of the principle of equal pay for men and women. The structure of Directive 76/207 is the same as that of Directive 75/117: cf the judgment in EC Commission v Germany Case 248/83 [1985] ECR 1459 at 1477 (para 7).) Article 1 of Directive 76/207 defines its scope in the following terms:
‘1. The purpose of this Directive is to put into effect in the Member States the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, including promotion, and to vocational training and as regards working conditions and, on the conditions referred to in paragraph 2, social security. This principle is hereinafter referred to as “the principle of equal treatment”.
2. With a view to ensuring the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment in matters of social security, the Council, acting on a proposal from the Commission, will adopt provisions defining its substance, its scope and the arrangements for its application.’
24. The United Kingdom argues that neither supplementary allowance nor income support fall within the scope of Directive 76/207. It argues that it follows from the wording of art 1(2) that social security provisions are not within the scope of the directive. It is expressly stated in the preamble to the directive that the definition and progressive implementation of equal treatment in matters of social security should be ensured by means of subsequent
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instruments (see the last recital in the preamble). It maintains that the court’s judgment in Newstead v Dept of Transport Case 192/85 [1988] 1 All ER 129, [1988] 1 WLR 612 confirms that Directive 76/207 does not apply to social security provisions. Although in Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584, [1986] QB 401 the court held that the exclusion contained in art 1(2) must be interpreted strictly, the United Kingdom maintains that the present cases have more in common with Newstead’s case in so far as they directly relate to the content of the social security system.
Ms Cresswell’s and Ms Jackson’s interpretation of Directive 76/207 and of the court’s case law is completely different. They argue that the directive prohibits any discrimination within the financial arrangements made by a member state for support during a period of vocational training or in access to employment. The exclusion set out in art 1(2) applies only to ‘pure’ social security. In contrast, where discrimination within a social security system has the effect of preventing equal access to vocational training or employment, it is caught by Directive 76/207. They argue that the court’s judgment in Newstead’s case was concerned with a social security system under which men had to pay higher contributions than women, not with pay or other working conditions. In contrast, the two cases now before the court fall specifically within the directive since they turn on equal access to vocational training or employment.
The Commission, for its part, agrees with the appellants in the main proceedings in so far as it takes the view that a social security matter falls within the scope of Directive 76/207 if it has a discriminatory effect in relation to access to work, promotion, vocational training or working conditions. There was such discrimination in the present cases in so far as the British benefit schemes at issue discourage women from taking up vocational training or employment. The Commission infers from the court’s judgment in Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344 that some conditions governing state social security may be regarded as working conditions within the meaning of Directive 76/207.
25. It is true that in Newstead’s case [1988] 1 All ER 129 at 151, [1988] 1 WLR 612 at 617 (para 24) the court indorsed the view taken by the United Kingdom and the Commission that Directive 76/207 is not intended to apply in social security matters. However, contrary to the United Kingdom’s contention, it does not follow that social security schemes as a general rule fall outside the scope of that directive.
In my opinion, an initial argument against that view is contained in the actual wording of art 1 of Directive 76/207. Rather than excluding social security, art 1(1) provides on the contrary that social security does fall within the scope of the directive, albeit on the conditions referred to in art 1(2). Article 1(2) refers to further action by the Council in the field of social security with a view to defining the substance of the principle of equal treatment, its scope and the arrangements for its application in that (extensive) area. To date, two directives have been adopted pursuant thereto, namely Directive 79/7 (statutory schemes) and Council Directive (EEC) 86/378 of 24 July 1986 on the implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in occupational social security schemes. If it was the aim of the Community legislature to exclude social security completely from the scope of Directive 76/207, I cannot understand why art 1(1) nevertheless brings it within its scope in general terms.
In addition, the court has reaffirmed on numerous occasions that the exclusion set out in art 1(2) must be interpreted strictly in view of the
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fundamental importance of the principle of equality in the Community legal order (see Roberts v Tate & Lyle Industries Ltd Case 151/84 [1986] 2 All ER 602 at 611–612 (para 35), Beets-Proper v F Van Lanschot Bankiers NV Case 262/84 [1986] ECR 773 at 792 (para 38), Marshall’s case [1986] 2 All ER 584 at 601, [1986] QB 401 at 422–423 (para 54); the court has expressly stated on numerous occasions that the principle of equal treatment is one of the fundamental rights which form part of the Community legal order: see Defrenne v Sabena Case 149/77 [1978] ECR 1365 at 1378 (paras 26–27) and Razzouk and Beydoun v EC Commission Joined cases 75 and 117/82 [1984] ECR 1509 at 1530 (para 16)).
If those two elements are combined, it seems to me that art 1 as a whole must be interpreted as meaning that the provisions of Directive 76/207 must likewise be intended to apply in matters relating to social security—as Community law stands at present, those matters which are covered by Directives 79/7 and 86/378—which have been the subject of an implementation of the principle of equal treatment. In practical terms, this means that the arrangements in question are subject, not only to the prohibition of discrimination formulated in the said ‘social security directives’, but also to the prohibition set out in Directive 76/207 of discrimination as regards access to employment (including promotion) and to vocational training and as regards working conditions and conditions governing dismissal.
This does justice both to the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment in matters of social security and to the effectiveness of Directive 76/207. I also consider that this obviates the danger of a unilateral reduction of the scope of Directive 76/207, as illustrated in the form of an example by the Commission and the appellants in the main proceedings. If social security fell completely outside the scope of Directive 76/207—the reasoning runs—a member state which granted educational grants for a training course on discriminatory terms would be caught by the directive, yet a member state which achieved the same end by means of discriminatory social security benefits would not. In so far as such a social security benefit falls within Directive 79/7—which can, however, only be the case if there is a direct and effective link with protection against the risk of unemployment (see para 14 above)—it can also be reviewed in the light of Directive 76/207.
26. Contrary to the view taken by the United Kingdom, I consider that that view is implicitly confirmed by Newstead’s case. That case was concerned with a British ‘contracted-out’ scheme under which unmarried male civil servants were obliged to contribute 1·5% of their gross salary to a widows’ pension fund. The contributions were returned to such a civil servant upon his leaving the civil service or, should he die before, were paid to his estate. Newstead, who was unmarried, argued inter alia, that this was contrary to the prohibition of discrimination as regards working conditions contained in Directive 76/207. In discussing that point the court considered whether the Council had already adopted directives on survivors’ pensions (including widows’ pensions) pursuant to art 1(2) of Directive 76/207. In doing so, it examined in detail whether the directives which had already been adopted (Directives 79/7 and 86/378) covered such benefits. The court held that they did not, and decided ([1988] 1 All ER 129 at 152, [1988] 1 WLR 612 at 618 (para 28)):
‘In the absence of more specific directives extending the application of the principle of equal treatment to benefits for surviving spouses, whether these are provided under a statutory social security scheme or under an occupational scheme, and having regard to the fact that the difference in
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treatment affecting Mr Newstead as regards the immediate enjoyment of all his net pay is the direct consequence of a difference in treatment in the occupational scheme in question with regard to this type of benefit, it must be concluded that the case before the Employment Appeal Tribunal falls within the exception to the application of the principle of equal treatment provided for in art 1(2) of Directive 76/207.’
If the court had taken the view that an occupational scheme for widows’ pensions was a social security scheme and for that reason only did not fall within Directive 76/207, all that inquiry would have been unnecessary. In contrast, the court’s approach strengthens my conviction that a social security scheme which was already caught by a directive adopted to implement the principle of equal treatment in the field of social security would also fall within the scope of Directive 76/207.
27. I therefore consider that, in so far as it is decided that supplementary allowance and income support fall within the scope of Directive 79/7, there is nothing to prevent those schemes also falling within Directive 76/207 and, in particular as regards the real effect of their conditions of operation, there is nothing to prevent its being considered whether they are compatible with the provisions of Directive 76/207.
Again that task falls to the national court: it is for that court to consider whether the conditions of entitlement to benefit under the two schemes—namely the fact that child minding costs may not be set against income from vocational training or from employment—affects the possibility for a lone parent to undergo vocational training or take up part-time work. In other words, the national court must inquire into the real impact of those conditions of entitlement in the fields covered by Directive 76/207, namely access to vocational training (art 4) and to employment (art 3). It is precisely here that the added value lies of the applicability of that directive to social security schemes which were already subject to the principle of equal treatment as a result of Directive 79/7: whereas Directive 79/7 applies that principle to the actual detailed rules of the schemes at issue (art 4), Directive 76/207 makes it possible to examine whether or not those detailed rules have a discriminatory effect in areas lying outside the field of social security which are within its scope, namely access to employment, including promotion, and to vocational training and working conditions, including conditions governing dismissal.
Discrimination within the meaning of Directive 76/207
28. Whether the British benefit schemes embody discrimination contrary to Directive 76/207 is quite another question. Article 2(1) of that directive provides as follows:
‘For the purposes of the following provisions, the principle of equal treatment shall mean that there shall be no discrimination whatsoever on grounds of sex either directly or indirectly by reference in particular to marital or family status.’
The following provisions impose specific obligations on the member states with regard to the application of the principle so defined with regard to conditions of access to employment (art 3), access to vocational guidance and vocational training (art 4) and conditions of employment and conditions governing dismissal (art 5).
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The considerations set down (paras 20 to 22 above) with regard to discrimination within the meaning of Directive 79/7 also apply here: in order for there to be indirect discrimination within the meaning of art 2(1) of Directive 76/207 it is sufficient that an ostensibly neutral measure should in fact affect for the most part employees of one of the sexes and it is unnecessary to prove intention to discriminate. That requirement would be met it if were established that the non-deductibility of child minding expenses from a vocational training allowance or from income from a part-time job in practice mainly affected women.
It is irrelevant in this connection that the contested scheme did not place an insurmountable obstacle in the way of lone mothers’ access to vocational training or employment or that that was not the legislature’s intention: a real impact on the possibility to engage in vocational training or take up a job is sufficient.
The remedy open to the appellants in the main proceedings
29. It remains for me to consider the Court of Appeal’s request for guidance on the way in which the appellants’ rights should be corrected in the event that it should appear that Directive 79/7 or Directive 76/207 or both are applicable, there is found to have been indirect discrimination and the British authorities provide no objective justification. It is certainly clear that both prohibitions of discrimination have direct effect, since each of them—
‘standing by itself, and in the light of the objective and contents of the directive … is sufficiently precise to be relied upon in legal proceedings and applied by a court …’ (See Borrie Clarke v Chief Adjudication Officer Case 384/85 [1987] ECR 2865 at 2880 (para 9); see also Netherlands v Federatie Nederlandse Vakbeweging Case 71/85 [1986] ECR 3855 at 3876 (para 21), McDermott and Cotter v Minister for Social Welfare and A-G Case 286/85 [1987] ECR 1453 at 1467 (para 14) and Johnson v Chief Adjudication Officer Case C-31/90 [1992] 2 All ER 705 at 725, [1993] QB 252 at 276 (para 34).)
This means that, as from the date for the implementation of the two directives, individuals can rely on the prohibitions of discrimination which they embody in order to preclude the application of any national provision which is inconsistent with them (see with regard to Directive 79/7 McDermott and Cotter’s case (at 1467 (para 16)), Borrie Clark’s case (at 2881 (para 12)), Johnson’s case ([1992] 2 All ER 705 at 725–726, [1993] QB 252 at 276 (para 35)).
The court has consistently held that the national court may not apply the provision which is contrary to Community law (see, in particular, Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629; cf the express reference to this line of cases in Nimz v Freie und Hansestadt Hamburg Case C-184/89 [1991] ECR I-297 at 321 (para 19)). Yet the problem in the situation in question is that the frame of reference which the Court of Justice offers the national court in equal treatment cases with regard to remedies for individuals does not provide a solution here. In the event that discrimination is established, the court requires the national court invariably to apply the same rules to the members of the group placed at a disadvantage, be they men or women, as are applied to members of the other group (Netherlands v Federatie Nederlandse Vakbeweging (at 3876–3877 (para 23)), McDermott and Cotter’s case (at 1468 (para 18)), Borrie Clark’s case (at 2881 (para 12)), Johnson’s case (para 36), Ruzius-Wilbrink v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor Overheidsdiensten Case C-102/88 [1989] ECR 4311 (at 4333 (para 20)), Kowalska’s
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case (at 2613 (para 20)), Nimz’s case (at 320 (para 18))). That approach affords no comfort to the appellants in the main proceedings: even in the case of lone fathers, child minding expenses are not deductible from income from vocational training (supplementary allowance) or from income from work (income support).
Neither does the doctrine of applying the national legislation consistently with the directive, which the court has developed since von Colson and Kamann’s case, seem to me to afford a solution (see [1984] ECR 1891 at 1909 (para 26). This has since become established case law: see recently in particular Marleasing v La Comercial Internactonal de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135 at 4159 (para 8), X v Ministère public Case C-373/90 [1992] ECR I-131). That case law was devised for bringing provisions of national law into line with provisions of directives which do not have direct effect, whilst here (assuming that unjustified discrimination is present) it is a case of national law conflicting with a provision of a directive which does have direct effect. Moreover, as the case law stands at present, it is not yet clear whether the obligation to apply legislation consistently with the relevant directive extends to a national rule which is clear and, as such, not susceptible of differing interpretations, which would seem to be true of the rule under the two benefit schemes at issue that child minding costs are not deductible. The court will shortly have an opportunity to clarify the matter (I am referring to the second Marshall case (Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority C-271/91), in which the maximum compensation payable under the British Sex Discrimination Act 1975 to victims of sex discrimination is at issue. In that case the House of Lords has referred the following question to the court for a preliminary ruling: (i) where a member state’s legislation provides for such statutory maximum compensation, does that make the member state guilty of a failure to implement art 6 of Directive 76/207; (ii) is it required by that article that the compensation paid may not be less than the amount of the loss found to have been sustained by reason of the discrimination, plus interest; and (iii) if so, can an individual rely as against a public authority on art 6 as overriding the statutory limit on the amount of compensation recoverable? I would point out that the court held in von Colson and Kamann’s case (at 1909 (para 27)) that art 6 does not have direct effect.
30. However, under both directives (Directive 79/7, art 5 and Directive 76/207, art 3(2) (access to employment) and art 4(2) (access to vocational training)), the member states undertook to take the measures necessary to ensure that any laws, regulations and administrative provisions contrary to the principle of equal treatment were abolished.
Consequently, as Community law stands at present, the most realistic solution seems to me for the national court to decide, where appropriate, at the request of the appellants in the main proceedings that, having regard to the criteria developed in this connection, the British authorities have not complied with their obligations under Directives 76/207 and 79/7, and to declare them liable to pay compensation to Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell on the basis of the rules specified in the court’s case law, in particular in the recent judgment in Francovich and Bonifaci v Italy Joined cases C-6/90 and C-9/90 [1991] ECR I-5357 (para 40).
Decision
31. In conclusion, I propose that the court should answer the questions referred by the national court as follows:
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‘1. A social security scheme falls within the scope of art 3(1) of Council Directive (EEC) 79/7 in so far as, in the national court’s assessment, it is established that in a broad sense it forms part of an autonomous statutory scheme or form of social assistance providing protection which is directly and effectively linked to one of the risks specified in art 3(1)(a).
2. If the national court comes to the conclusion that a social security scheme falls within the scope of Directive 79/7 and that, on the basis of proof that the relevant scheme affects a greater percentage of women than of men, there is indirect discrimination within the meaning of art 4(1) of that directive, it will be for the competent authority to prove that the rule giving rise to the discrimination is based on objectively justified factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex.
3. The conditions of operation of a social security scheme fall within the scope of Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 in so far as the scheme comes within the field of application of a Community measure for the implementation of the principle of equal treatment of men and women in matters of social security and the national court establishes that the said conditions of operation had or have an impact on one of the fields covered by that directive, including access to vocational training and to employment.
4. If the national court reaches the conclusion that the conditions of operation of a scheme fall within the scope of Directive 76/207 and that, on the basis of proof that the relevant scheme affects a greater percentage of women than of men, there is indirect discrimination within the meaning of art 2(1) of that directive, it will be for the competent authority to prove that the rule giving rise to the discrimination is based on objectively justified factors unrelated to any discrimination on grounds of sex.
5. If it appears that the legislation of a member state infringes the prohibition of discrimination contained in Directives 79/7 and 76/207 and it is not a solution to apply to the members of the group placed under a disadvantage the rules applying to other persons entitled to benefit, it is, as Community law stands at present, for the national court where appropriate—acting at the request of the parties and applying the rules specified in the court’s case law—to declare the member state liable for the damage caused by that infringement.’
16 July 1992. THE COURT OF JUSTICE delivered the following judgment.
1. By orders dated 21 December 1990, which were received at the court on 14 February 1991, the Court of Appeal of England and Wales referred to the court for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty three questions on the interpretation of Council Directive (EEC) 79/7 of 19 December 1978 on the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women in matters of social security and Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 of 9 February 1976 on the implementation of the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, vocational training and promotion, and working conditions.
2. The questions were raised in proceedings between Sonia Jackson (Case C-63/91) and Patricia Cresswell (Case C-64/91), on the one hand, and the Chief Adjudication Officer, on the other, relating to Ms Jackson’s and Ms Cresswell’s right to deduct child minding expenses from their incomes for the purposes of
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the determination of the amount of benefit granted to them in the United Kingdom in order to make up the insufficiency in their incomes.
3. It appears from the case file that in the United Kingdom the Supplementary Benefits Act 1976 introduced for persons whose means were insufficient to meet their needs a benefit known as ’supplementary allowance’ for persons between 16 years of age and pensionable age and as ‘supplementary pension’ for persons over pensionable age.
4. Whereas under the regulations implementing the 1976 Act child minding expenses were in principle deductible from earnings from employment, they were not deductible from allowances paid during vocational training organised by the Manpower Services Commission, a British statutory body responsible for vocational training.
5. The Social Security Act 1986, which replaced the Supplementary Benefits Act 1976 as from April 1988, introduced ’income support’, which is granted to anyone aged at least 18 whose income does not exceed a specified amount and who is not engaged in remunerative work.
6. Like the regulations implementing the 1976 Act, those implementing the 1986 Act exempt a sole parent responsible for a child who is a member of his household from the requirement of being available for work which recipients of the benefit in question normally have to fulfil.
7. It should be noted in addition that under the regulations implementing the 1986 Act persons working less than 24 hours a week are not regarded as being in remunerative work and child minding expenses are not deductible from earnings from part-time work.
8. At the time of the events giving rise to the main proceedings, Sonia Jackson, an unmarried mother with a small child, was unemployed and in receipt of supplementary allowance. In 1986 she started a vocational training course arranged by the Manpower Services Commission, in respect of which she received a weekly allowance. The adjudication officer took account of that income and withdrew her entitlement to supplementary allowance while refusing her the right to deduct from her income the child minding expenses which she incurred in respect of her child during her period in training.
9. At the time of the events giving rise to the main proceedings, Patricia Cresswell, a divorced mother responsible for two young children, was unemployed and in receipt of income support; she then took up part-time employment for less than 24 hours a week. The adjudication officer, taking account of her income from her part-time job, reduced her income support but refused to deduct from her income the expenses for minding her two children.
10. In proceedings brought by Ms Jackson and Ms Cresswell against the United Kingdom authorities’ refusal to take account of their child minding expenses in determining their actual income, the Court of Appeal of England and Wales stayed the appeals pending a preliminary ruling by the Court of Justice on the following questions:
‘1. Is supplementary allowance [in Case C-63/91, or income support, in Case C-64/91]—which was [or, in the case of income support, is] a benefit available in a variety of personal circumstances to persons whose means were [or, in the case of income support, are] insufficient to meet their statutory requirements and who may or may not have suffered from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7—within the scope of Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
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2. Is the answer to question 1 the same in all cases or does it depend on whether a person is suffering from one of the risks listed in Article 3 of Directive 79/7?
3. Are the conditions of entitlement for receipt of supplementary allowance [in Case C-63/91, or income support, in Case C-64/91] capable of falling within Directive 76/207 where those conditions relate solely to access to supplementary allowance [or income support] but the effect of application of those conditions may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training [or part-time employment]?’
11. Reference is made to the report for the hearing for a fuller account of the facts, the course of the procedure and the written observations submitted to the court, which are mentioned or discussed hereinafter only in so far as is necessary for the reasoning of the court.
Directive 79/7
12. In its first two questions the Court of Appeal seeks essentially to establish whether art 3(1) of Directive 79/7 is to be interpreted as applying to a benefit, such as supplementary allowance or income support, which may be granted in a variety of personal situations to persons whose means are insufficient to meet their needs as defined by statute, and whether the answer to that question depends on whether the claimant is suffering from one of the risks listed in art 3 of the directive.
13. In order to answer the questions concerning the scope of Directive 79/7 it should be noted first that, according to the first and second recitals in its preamble, the object of the directive is the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment of men and women in matters of social security.
14. According to the wording of art 3(1), the directive applies to statutory schemes which provide protection against the risks of sickness, invalidity, old age, accidents at work and occupational diseases, or unemployment, and to social assistance in so far as it is intended to supplement or replace those schemes.
15. As the court has already held, a benefit, if it is to fall within the scope of Directive 79/7, must constitute the whole or part of a statutory scheme providing protection against one of the specified risks or a form of social assistance having the same objective (Drake v Chief Adjudication Officer Case 150/85 [1986] 3 All ER 65 at 73, [1987] QB 166 at 176 (para 21), R v Secretary of State for Social Security, ex p Smithson Case C-243/90 [1992] ECR I-467 (para 12)).
16. The court stated that, although the mode of payment is not decisive as regards the identification of a benefit as one which falls within the scope of Directive 79/7, nevertheless in order to fall within the scope of the directive the benefit must be directly and effectively linked to the protection provided against one of the risks specified in art 3(1) (see Smithson’s case (para 14)).
17. However, art 3(1)(a) of Directive 79/7 does not refer to a statutory scheme which, on certain conditions, provides persons with means below a legally defined limit with a special benefit designed to enable them to meet their needs.
18. That finding is not affected by the circumstances that the recipient of the benefit is in fact in one of the situations covered by art 3(1) of the directive.
19. Indeed, in the judgment in Smithson’s case the court held with regard to a housing benefit that the fact that some of the risks listed in art 3(1) of Directive
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79/7 were taken into account in order to grant a higher benefit was not sufficient to bring that benefit as such within the scope of the directive.
20. Consequently, exclusion from the scope of Directive 79/7 is justified a fortiori where, as in the cases at issue in the main proceedings, the law sets the amount of the theoretical needs of the persons concerned, used to determine the benefit in question, independently of any consideration relating to the existence of any of the risks listed in art 3(1) of the directive.
21. Moreover, in certain situations, in particular those of the appellants in the main proceedings, the national schemes at issue exempt claimants from the obligation to be available for work. That shows that the benefits in question cannot be regarded as being directly and effectively linked to protection against the risk of unemployment.
22. Accordingly, the answer to the first and second questions referred by the Court of Appeal of England and Wales must be that art 3(1) of Directive 79/7 is to be interpreted as not applying to a benefit, such as supplementary allowance or income support, which may be granted in a variety of personal situations to persons whose means are insufficient to meet their needs as defined by statute; that answer does not depend on whether the claimant is suffering from one of the risks listed in art 3 of the directive.
Directive 76/207
23. In its third question the Court of Appeal of England and Wales essentially seeks to establish whether Directive 76/207 should be interpreted as applying to a social security scheme, such as supplementary allowance or income support, simply because the conditions of entitlement for receipt of the benefits may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment.
24. In order to answer that question on the scope of Directive 76/207 it should be noted that, according to the wording of art 1(1) of the directive, its purpose is to put into effect in the member states the principle of equal treatment for men and women as regards access to employment, including promotion, and to vocational training and as regards working conditions and, on the conditions referred to in art 1(2), social security. Article 1(2) provides that, with a view to ensuring the progressive implementation of the principle of equal treatment in matters of social security, the Council, acting on a proposal from the Commission, will adopt provisions defining its substance, its scope and the arrangements for its application.
25. In this connection, it should be noted that the court has interpreted that provision as meaning that Directive 76/207 was not intended to apply in social security matters (see Newstead v Dept of Transport Case 192/85 [1988] 1 All ER 129 at 151, [1988] 1 WLR 612 at 617 (para 24)).
26. Nevertheless, in view of the fundamental importance of the principle of equality of treatment, the court has made it clear that that exception to the scope of the directive must be interpreted strictly (see Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584 at 599, [1986] QB 401 at 420 (para 36)).
27. It follows that, because of the risk of detracting from the objective of Directive 76/207, a scheme of benefits cannot be excluded from the scope of the directive solely because, formally, it is part of a national social security system.
28. Nevertheless, such a scheme will fall within the scope of that directive only if its subject matter is access to employment, including vocational training and promotion, or working conditions.
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29. However, as has already been stated in answering the first question, national benefit schemes such as those at issue in the main proceedings are intended to provide income support for persons with insufficient means to meet their needs.
30. Consequently, the assertion that the method of calculating claimants’ actual earnings, which are used as the basis for determining the amount of the benefits, might affect sole mothers’ ability to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment is not sufficient to bring such schemes within the scope of Directive 76/207.
31. Accordingly, the answer to the third question must be that Directive 76/207 is to be interpreted as not applying to a social security scheme, such as supplementary allowance or income support, simply because the conditions of entitlement for receipt of the benefits may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment.
Costs
32. The costs incurred by the United Kingdom and the Commission of the European Communities, which have submitted observations to the court, are not recoverable. Since these proceedings are, in so far as the parties to the main proceedings are concerned, in the nature of a step in the proceedings pending before the national court, the decision on costs is a matter for that court.
On those grounds, the court, in reply to the questions referred to it for a preliminary ruling by the Court of Appeal of England and Wales by order of 21 December 1990, hereby rules: (1) art 3(1) of Council Directive (EEC) 79/7 is to be interpreted as not applying to a benefit, such as supplementary allowance or income support, which may be granted in a variety of personal situations to persons whose means are insufficient to meet their needs as defined by statute; that answer does not depend on whether the claimant is suffering from one of the risks listed in art 3 of the directive; (2) Council Directive (EEC) 76/207 is to be interpreted as not applying to a social security scheme, such as supplementary allowance or income support, simply because the conditions of entitlement for receipt of the benefits may be such as to affect the ability of a single parent to take up access to vocational training or part-time employment.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
United Dominions Trust Ltd v Shellpoint Trustees Ltd
[1993] 3 All ER 301
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Land Registration
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): DAVID NEUBERGER QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 14, 15 MAY, 19 JUNE 1992
Landlord and tenant – Relief against forfeiture – Underlessee – Mortgaged lease – Tenant failing to pay costs of action for service charges – Lessor repossessing flat for failure to pay costs – Plaintiff mortgagee failing to apply for relief against forfeiture within six months of repossession – Whether restrictions on lessee applying for relief against forfeiture applying to mortgagee – Whether plaintiff as mortgagee entitled to apply for relief against forfeiture – Common Law Procedure Act 1852, s 210 – County Courts Act 1984, s 138.
In 1978 the defendant lessor’s predecessors in title granted a lease of a flat for a term of 99 years at a rent of £30 per year. The lease contained provisions for the payment of service charges and forfeiture for non-payment of the charges. In 1987 the flat was assigned to the tenant for a substantial premium, of which some £61,000 was advanced by the plaintiff mortgagee. Subsequently the lessor issued proceedings in the county court against the tenant for arrears of service charges and sought possession of the flat. The plaintiff was given notice of the proceedings but took no part in them. An order was made against the tenant that unless the arrears and costs were paid by a specified date the lessor would be entitled to take possession of the flat. The tenant paid the service charge arrears but not the costs of £362 and on 28 February 1990, without giving notice to the plaintiff, the lessor repossessed the flat. The lessor subsequently assigned the reversion of the lease to the defendant, which then continued in possession of the flat. The plaintiff failed to apply to the county court under s 138(9C)a of the County Courts Act 1984 for relief from forfeiture as it was entitled to do within six months of the date on which the lessor recovered possession and it therefore issued proceedings in the High Court for relief from forfeiture. The defendant applied to strike out the proceedings but the master dismissed the application. The defendant appealed, contending (i) that the court had no jurisdiction to entertain the plaintiff’s application for relief from forfeiture because the plaintiff, as mortgagee, was a ‘lessee’ within s 140b of the 1984 Act as a person ‘deriving title under a lessee’ and, not having sought relief in the county court within six months of the repossession, it was barred from all relief from forfeiture under s 138(7) of that Act, or (ii) alternatively, that the plaintiff was ‘barred and foreclosed from all relief or remedy in law or equity’ by virtue of s 210c of the Common Law Procedure Act 1852 because the judgment obtained by the defendant’s predecessor in title in 1988 was in respect of more than half a year’s rent and more than six months had expired since the judgment.
Held – (1) Notwithstanding the wide definition of ‘lessee’ in s 140 of the 1984 Act and the fact that the plaintiff as mortgagee was within the concept of an underlessee, for the purposes of s 138(7) of that Act a ‘lessee’ was to be strictly
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construed as a reference to the tenant who held under the lease and did not extend to a mortgagee under a lease the subject of a forfeiture, since to construe the section otherwise would be unduly harsh on a mortgagee who had not brought about the forfeiture, was not normally a party to the proceedings and might even be unaware of the repossession and who even if he applied for relief from forfeiture would still be dependent on the discretion of the court. Accordingly, s 138 did not prevent the plaintiff from claiming relief from forfeiture against the defendant in the High Court (see p 307 e to g and p 309 b, post); dicta of Donovan and Pearson LJJ in Matthews v Dobbins [1963] 1 All ER 417 at 230–231 applied.
(2) A mortgagee who was not a party to a claim for possession brought by a lessor against a tenant was not a person who was barred from seeking relief from forfeiture under s 210 of the 1852 Act, because, on its true construction, s 210 was not intended to apply to a mortgagee who had not been a party to the proceedings. Accordingly s 210 only barred an application for relief by the person against whom the order for possession was made, ie the tenant. It followed that the plaintiff was not barred by s 210 of the 1852 Act from seeking relief. The defendant’s appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 310 e f j, p 311 g and p 313 a to c, post).
NotesFor relief from forfeiture for non-payment of rent, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 442, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 174–180, 10178–10209.
For the Common Law Procedure Act 1852, s 210, see 23 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 37.
For the County Courts Act 1984, ss 138, 140, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 702, 705.
Cases referred to in judgmentDi Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 676, [1986] Ch 150, [1985] 3 WLR 207, CA.
Grand Junction Co Ltd v Bates [1954] 2 All ER 385, [1954] 2 QB 160, [1954] 3 WLR 45.
Matthews v Dobbins [1963] 1 All ER 417, [1963] 1 WLR 227, CA.
Roe d West v Davis (1806) 7 East 363, 103 ER 140.
Standard Pattern Co Ltd v Ivey [1962] 1 All ER 452, [1962] Ch 432, [1962] 2 WLR 656.
Cases also citedBelgravia Insurance Co Ltd v Meah [1963] 3 All ER 828, [1964] 1 QB 436, CA.
Billson v Residential Apartments Ltd [1991] 3 All ER 265, [1992] 1 AC 494, CA; rvsd [1992] 1 All ER 141, [1991] 1 AC 494, HL.
Doe d Hitchens v Lewis (1751) 1 Burr 614, 97 ER 475.
Doe d Harris v Masters (1824) 2 B & C 490, 107 ER 466.
Doe d Egremont (Earl) v Pulman (1842) 3 QB 622, 114 ER 645.
Gray v Bonsall [1904] 1 KB 601, CA.
Moore v Smee and Cornish [1907] 2 KB 8, CA.
Phillips v Mobil Oil Ltd (1989) Times 26 May, CA.
Page 303 of [1993] 3 All ER 301
AppealThe defendant, Shellpoint Trustees Ltd, appealed from the decision of Master Barrett on 18 October 1991 dismissing its summons dated 10 September 1991 to strike out the application by the plaintiff, United Dominions Trust Ltd, by summons dated 25 February 1991 claiming against the defendant relief from forfeiture of the lease of a flat at 22 West Kensington Court, London W14, which Newcom Ltd as the lessor and defendant’s predecessor in title had repossessed from the tenant, Karimi Nik, who had mortgaged his estate and interest to the plaintiff. The defendant’s summons was treated as an application to determine a preliminary issue whether the court had jurisdiction to entertain the plaintiff’s application for relief from forfeiture. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Simon Berry QC and Andrew Goodman (instructed by Hill Bailey, Bromley) for the plaintiff.
Wayne Clark (instructed by Binks Stern) for the defendant.
Cur adv vult
19 June 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
The Judge Rapporteur (Fernand Schockweiler) presented the following report for the hearing.
DAVID NEUBERGER QC. The question at issue is whether the plaintiff, as the mortgagee of a long lease at a low rent, is entitled to claim relief in forfeiture. This question requires consideration of two statutory provisions: one comparatively recent, s 138 of the County Courts Act 1984, and the other of more antiquity, s 210 of the Common Law Procedure Act 1852.
The relevant facts are as follows. On 2 December 1983 the defendant’s predecessor in title, Newcom Ltd, granted a lease of a flat, 22 West Kensington Court, London W14, for a term of 99 years less 28 days from 24 June 1978 at a low rent of £30 a year. The lease contained a provision for payment of service charges and a proviso for forfeiture for non-payment of the rental service charges. It was assigned to a Mr Karimi Nik in August 1987 for a substantial premium of which £61,000 was advanced by the plaintiff, to whom Mr Nik granted a charge over the lease. Thereafter, Mr Nik was registered as proprietor of the lease at the Land Registry and the plaintiff was registered as the first chargee.
Newcom Ltd issued proceedings in the West London County Court for arrears of service charges and possession of the flat against Mr Nik. There were alleged to be arrears of service charges under the lease amounting to £2,146·92. Pursuant to CCR Ord 6, r 3(1)(f) the plaintiff was specifically identified in the particulars of claim as a person ‘who is entitled to claim relief against forfeiture’ and was given notice of the proceedings.
The claim for possession came before the county court on 17 March 1988 when judgment was given in favour of Newcom Ltd against Mr Nik for arrears of service charges in the sum of £2,146·92 together with costs on scale 2. It was further ordered that, unless the arrears of £2,146·92 were paid by 14 April 1988 and the costs paid within 14 days of taxation, Mr Nik should give up possession of the flat. The arrears of £2,146·92 were duly paid shortly thereafter.
The costs of Newcom Ltd in relation to the county court proceedings were taxed in the sum of £362·15. On 28 June 1988 notice of that fact was given to Mr Nik in the appropriate form, which specifically stated that the sum of £362·15 should be paid into court within 14 days. No money was paid to Newcom Ltd or into court in respect of these costs.
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Pursuant to the judgment obtained on 17 March 1988 and the failure of Mr Nik to pay the costs, Newcom Ltd executed the judgment by taking possession of the flat through the bailiff on 28 February 1990. Since that date Newcom Ltd and, since the transfer of the reversion of the lease to it, the defendant have been in possession of the flat.
On 25 February 1991 the plaintiff issued the instant proceedings in the High Court against the defendant for relief from forfeiture of the lease. It did so in its capacity as mortgagee. On 10 September 1991 the defendant took out a summons applying to strike out the plaintiff’s application. That summons came on for hearing before Master Barrett, who dismissed it on 18 October 1991. The defendant appealed against that decision.
When the appeal came before me, both parties very sensibly agreed that it would be far more satisfactory from the point of view of the parties and of the court to treat the defendant’s summons as an application to determine a preliminary point, namely whether the court had jurisdiction to entertain the plaintiff’s application for relief from forfeiture.
Mr Clark for the defendant contends that the court does not have jurisdiction to grant the plaintiff relief from forfeiture in view of s 138(7) of the County Courts Act 1984. If that is not correct, he contends in the alternative that the court does not have jurisdiction to grant relief from forfeiture in view of the provisions of s 210 of the Common Law Procedure Act 1852. Mr Berry QC for the plaintiff contends that neither the 1984 Act nor the 1852 Act prevents the court from granting the plaintiff relief from forfeiture.
I turn first to the provisions of s 138 of the 1984 Act. In its current form it reads as follows:
‘Provisions as to forfeiture for non-payment of rent.—(1) This section has effect where a lessor is proceeding by action in a county court (being an action in which the county court has jurisdiction) to enforce against a lessee a right of re-entry or forfeiture in respect of any land for non-payment of rent.
(2) If the lessee pays into court not less than 5 clear days before the return day all the rent in arrear and the costs of the action, the action shall cease, and the lessee shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease.
(3) If—(a) the action does not cease under subsection (2); and (b) the court at the trial is satisfied that the lessor is entitled to enforce the right of re-entry or forfeiture, the court shall order possession of the land to be given to the lessor at the expiration of such period, not being less than 4 weeks from the date of the order, as the court thinks fit, unless within that period the lessee pays into court all the rent in arrear and the costs of the action.
(4) The court may extend the period specified under subsection (3) at any time before possession of the land is recovered in pursuance of the order under that subsection.
(5) If—(a) within the period specified in the order; or (b) within that period as extended under subsection (4), the lessee pays into court—(i) all the rent in arrear; and (ii) the costs of the action, he shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease.
(6) Subsection (2) shall not apply where the lessor is proceeding in the same action to enforce a right of re-entry or forfeiture on any other ground as well as for non-payment of rent, or to enforce any other claim as well as the right of re-entry or forfeiture and the claim for arrears of rent.
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(7) If the lessee does not—(a) within the period specified in the order; or (b) within that period as extended under subsection (4), pay into court—(i) all the rent in arrear; and (ii) the costs of the action, the order shall be enforceable in the prescribed manner and so long as the order remains unreversed the lessee shall, subject to subsections (8) and (9A), be barred from all relief.
(8) The extension under subsection (4) of a period fixed by a court shall not be treated as relief from which the lessee is barred by subsection (7) if he fails to pay into court all the rent in arrear and the costs of the action within that period.
(9) Where the court extends a period under subsection (4) at a time when—(a) that period has expired; and (b) a warrant has been issued for the possession of the land, the court shall suspend the warrant for the extended period; and, if, before the expiration of the extended period, the lessee pays into court all the rent in arrear and all the costs of the action, the court shall cancel the warrant.
(9A) Where the lessor recovers possession of the land at any time after the making of the order under subsection (3) (whether as a result of the enforcement of the order or otherwise) the lessee may, at any time within six months from the date on which the lessor recovers possession, apply to the court for relief; and on any such application the court may, if it thinks fit, grant to the lessee such relief, subject to such terms and conditions, as it thinks fit.
(9B) Where the lessee is granted relief on an application under subsection (9A) he shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease.
(9C) An application under subsection (9A) may be made by a person with an interest under a lease of the land derived (whether immediately or otherwise) from the lessee’s interest therein in like manner as if he were the lessee; and on any such application the court may make an order which (subject to such terms and conditions as the court thinks fit) vests the land in such a person, as lessee of the lessor, for the remainder of the term of the lease under which he has any such interest as aforesaid, or for any lesser term. In this subsection any reference to the land includes a reference to a part of the land.
(10) Nothing in this section or section 139 shall be taken to affect—(a) the power of the court to make any order which it would otherwise have power to make as respects a right of re-entry or forfeiture on any ground other than non-payment of rent; or (b) section 146(4) of the Law of Property Act 1925 (relief against forfeiture).’
Subsections (9A), (9B) and (9C) were added by s 55 of the Administration of Justice Act 1985, following the decision of the Court of Appeal in Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 676, [1986] Ch 150, to which I shall refer, and certain other small amendments were added by the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 which are not material to these proceedings.
It is right to refer to s 140 of the 1984 Act, which contains certain definitions which apply to s 138. It provides as follows:
‘For the purposes of sections 138 and 139—“lease” includes—(a) an original or derivative under-lease; (b) an agreement for a lease where the lessee has become entitled to have his lease granted; and (c) a grant at a fee farm rent, or under a grant securing a rent by condition; “lessee” includes—(a) an original or derivative under-lessee; (b) the persons deriving title
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under a lessee; (c) a grantee under a grant at a fee farm rent, or under a grant securing a rent by condition; and (d) the persons deriving title under such a grantee; “lessor” includes—(a) an original or derivative under-lessor; (b) the persons deriving title under a lessor; (c) a person making a grant at a fee farm rent, or a grant securing a rent by condition; and (d) the persons deriving title under such a grantor; “under-lease” includes an agreement for an under-lease where the under-lessee has become entitled to have his under-lease granted; and “under-lessee” includes any person deriving title under an under-lessee.’
It is clear that it would have been open to the plaintiff to apply for relief from forfeiture in the county court under s 138(9C) of the 1984 Act within six months of the date on which the defendant recovered possession. However, by the time the plaintiff made its application for relief from forfeiture, namely by the originating summons in the current proceedings, the six month time limit had long since expired, and it was and is too late for the plaintiff to seek relief from forfeiture in the county court. It is for this reason that the plaintiff seeks relief from forfeiture in the High Court.
Mr Clark fastens on the provisions of s 138(7) of the 1984 Act and in particular the provision that, if the arrears of rent and service charges and costs are not paid into court within the time specified by the order, then ‘the lessee shall, subject to subsections (8) and (9A), be barred from all relief’.
Although it is true that s 138(7) of the 1984 Act refers to ‘the lessee’ as being barred from all relief, Mr Clark relies on the definition of ‘lessee’ in s 140 as including ‘an original or derivative under-lessee’ or ‘the persons deriving title under a lessee’. In this connection it is common ground that the plaintiff as mortgagee is within the concept of an underlessee (see, for instance, Grand Junction Co Ltd v Bates [1954] 2 All ER 385, [1954] 2 QB 160). If that contention is correct, then Mr Clarke’s submission that the plaintiff would in those circumstances be barred from applying to the High Court for relief from forfeiture, whether pursuant to s 210 of the 1852 Act or pursuant to the inherent jurisdiction of the court, is based on Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 676, [1986] Ch 150.
That case involved an application for relief from forfeiture in the High Court by a tenant whose lease had been forfeited for non-payment of service charges in the county court. As in this case, the landlord had re-entered pursuant to the court order and opposed the application for relief on the grounds that the High Court had no jurisdiction because s 191 of the County Courts Act 1959, the statutory predecessor of s 138, excluded not only the jurisdiction of the county court to grant relief from forfeiture but also the jurisdiction of the High Court. Section 191 of the 1959 Act provided that, once the landlord had executed an order for possession for non-payment of rent made in the county court, the tenant was ‘barred from all relief’. Lawton LJ, who gave the leading and only reasoned judgment in the case, referring to the words ‘barred from all relief’, said ([1985] 2 All ER 676 at 680, [1986] Ch 150 at 161):
‘… on the plain meaning of the words used … Parliament intended that a tenant who did not do the acts specified should not later be able to apply to the High Court for relief from forfeiture.’
Mr Berry argued that the decision of the Court of Appeal on this point no longer applied and that the words ‘barred from all relief’ applied only to relief in the county court. I cannot accept that. In the first place, the jurisdiction of the county court is statutory and not inherent and there would seem to be no
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power, outside the provisions of s 138, to grant relief in the county court. Accordingly, on Mr Berry’s argument, the words ‘barred from all relief’ would be otiose. Secondly, I would be very reluctant to accede to the argument when, subsequent to the decision in Di Palma, Parliament has amended the 1984 Act in such a way as to keep in unqualified form the words construed in that case, namely ‘barred from all relief’, and has also sought to mitigate the effect of the decision in Di Palma by adding sub-ss (9A) to (9C) in s 138 of the 1984 Act.
In these circumstances it seems to me that the plaintiff’s argument on the first point essentially rests on whether the reference to the lessee being barred from all relief in s 138(7) of the 1984 Act extends to the plaintiff as a mortgagee under the lease the subject of the forfeiture. There is undoubtedly a powerful argument in favour of the defendant’s contention. Section 138 envisages the tenant under the lease concerned as having six months following the landlord taking possession within which to seek relief from forfeiture, whereupon the landlord knows that his property is free of the tenant’s right to apply for relief from forfeiture. Given that the county court rules require any mortgagee known to the landlord to be notified of any forfeiture proceedings (see CCR Ord 6, r 3(1)(f)), that any sensible mortgagee would therefore ensure that the landlord was informed of the mortgage as soon as it was granted, that the mortgagee would therefore have the right to apply to be added in the proceedings, and given also that the mortgagee’s right to apply for relief from forfeiture effectively mirrors the tenant’s rights by virtue of s 138(9C), one can see the practical force of the contention that the mortgagee should be treated as being in the same position as the tenant so far as s 138(7) is concerned.
Against that, the consequences of construing s 138(7) of the 1984 Act in such a way as to debar the mortgagee from any right whatever to seek relief from forfeiture could be said to be somewhat draconian. First, it is not the default of the mortgagee which has brought about the forfeiture, but that of the tenant under the lease. Secondly, it is not as if the mortgagee is normally a party to the proceedings. As here, the mortgagee may even be unaware of the fact that possession has been executed against the premises. Thirdly, if it is open to the mortgagee to apply for relief from forfeiture, that does not mean to say that he will automatically obtain such relief. It would be a matter for the court’s discretion.
In the end, of course, one is thrown back on the language of the section. Despite the wide definition of ‘lessee’ in s 140 of the 1984 Act, it seems to me that the reference to ‘the lessee’ in s 138(5) must be a reference to the tenant who holds under the lease. Thus it seems to me that, if, for instance, an under-tenant paid the rent and the costs in accordance with s 138(5), it cannot have been intended that he, the under-tenant, would ‘hold the land according to the lease without any new lease’. I think that view finds some support from observations, albeit obiter, in Matthews v Dobbins [1963] 1 All ER 417, [1963] 1 WLR 227, where the Court of Appeal was considering the statutory predecessor of s 138, namely s 191 of the 1959 Act. In particular, Pearson LJ said ([1963] 1 All ER 417 at 419, [1963] 1 WLR 227 at 231):
‘If the section operated on payment into court, the action would cease and the lessee would hold the land according to the lease without any new lease. It is difficult to see how that can operate except as between the owner of the land and the original lessee, or somebody deriving title under him, that is to say, some person holding the lease.’ (My emphasis.)
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It is right to say that Pearson LJ did not appear to decide that point in terms. It is also right to refer to the earlier judgment of Donovan LJ where he said ([1963] 1 All ER 417 at 419, [1963] 1 WLR 227 at 230):
‘I think that it is impossible to hold that a payment into court by a stranger satisfies s. 191(1)(a). When a lessee pays in the rent and costs, the subsection provides that “the lessee shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease …”. There is a similar provision in para. (c) of s. 191(1), and they lead me to the conclusion that there must be identity between the person sued, the lessee, and the person who pays in the arrears of rent. Moreover, the actual words of s. 191(1)(a) are: “if the lessee pays into court … all the rent in arrears.” How can a person with no privity of contract with the landlord and in no property relationship with him pay in rent? He may pay money, but the Act uses the expression “rent”.’ (Donovan LJ’s emphasis.)
Sections 191(1)(a) and (c) of the 1959 Act are substantially re-enacted as s 138(2) and (5) of the 1984 Act.
It is true that there are observations in Matthews v Dobbins which could be said inferentially to support the contention that a sub-tenant is within the concept of ‘lessee’ in s 191 of the 1959 Act and, therefore, s 138 of the 1984 Act. In particular, at the end of his judgment, which is the leading judgment, Ormerod LJ said ([1963] 1 All ER 417 at 419, [1963] 1 WLR 227 at 230):
‘There [are] a number of other valid reasons why such a state of affairs cannot arise unless the arrears of rent and costs are paid in by the lessee or by a person proved to be deriving title under the lessee who has possession.’
However, immediately before that, he said:
‘Counsel for the plaintiffs submits that the lessee in para. (a) must refer to the lessee who is sued by the lessor and is referred to in the earlier part of the sub-section. That, I think, must be right.’
In my judgment, the observations which I have quoted from the judgments of Pearson and Donovan LJJ do touch directly on the point with which I am concerned and support the way in which I would have read s 138(5) free of authority. The observations of Ormerod LJ are more equivocal but, to put the point at its highest in favour of the defendant in this case, I do not consider the conclusion that I have reached is inconsistent with his reasoning. If ‘lessee’ in s 138(5) is restricted to the tenant in whom the lease is or was vested and who is the defendant in the relevant proceedings, then I think the same restrictive construction of ‘lessee’ must apply to s 138(7) as a matter of ordinary language and construction.
Accordingly, I do not consider that the plaintiff is ‘barred from all relief’ due to its failure to apply for relief from forfeiture under s 138(9C) of the 1984 Act.
In reaching this conclusion I have not overlooked the definition of ‘lessee’ in s 140 of the 1984 Act. In my judgment, the extension of the expressions ‘lease’ and ‘lessee’ to include, for instance, original underlease and original underlessee, is to emphasise that, if the lease that is the subject of the forfeiture proceedings is an underlease, then s 138 applies as much to the underlessee in whom the underlease is or was vested as it does to a headlease vested in a head-lessee. I draw support for this conclusion from consideration of s 146(5) of the Law of Property Act 1925 which contains similar definitions of ‘lease’ and ‘lessee’. I should add that my view appears to be the same as that taken by the
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legislature when it added sub-ss (9A) to (9C) to s 138 of the 1984 Act. If the reference to ‘the lessee’ in s 138(9A) extends to an underlessee and mortgagee, then s 138(9C) would seem to be otiose.
In the absence of s 138(7) applying to the plaintiff it was not suggested by Mr Clark there was anything else in s 138 of the 1984 Act which bars the present application. Accordingly, so far as the provisions of the 1984 Act are concerned, I determine the preliminary point in favour of the plaintiff and hold there is nothing in that Act which removes the jurisdiction of the High Court from granting relief from forfeiture for the plaintiff.
I turn then to the second aspect, which involves consideration of s 210 of the 1852 Act. I must set out that difficult section in full. With a view to simplifying matters I shall divide s 210 into eight parts although in the statute it is set out in a single, undivided paragraph. It provides as follows:
‘[1] In all cases between landlord and tenant, as often as it shall happen that one half year’s rent shall be in arrear, and the landlord or lessor, to whom the same is due, hath right by law to re-enter for the non-payment thereof, [2] such landlord or lessor shall and may, without any formal demand or re-entry, serve a writ in ejectment for the recovery of the demised premises, … which service … shall stand in the place and stead of a demand and re-entry; [3] and in case of judgment against the defendant for nonappearance, if it shall be made [to] appear to the court where the said action is depending, by affidavit, or be proved upon the trial in case the defendant appears, that half a year’s rent was due before the said writ was served, and that no sufficient distress was to be found on the demised premises, countervailing the arrears then due, and that the lessor had power to re-enter, [4] then and in every such case the lessor shall recover judgment and execution, in the same manner as if the rent in arrear had been legally demanded, and a re-entry made; [5] and in case the lessee or his assignee, or other person claiming or deriving under the said lease, shall permit and suffer judgment to be had and recovered on such trial in ejectment, and execution to be executed thereon, without paying the rent and arrears, together with full costs, and without proceeding for relief in equity within six months after such execution executed, [6] then and in such case the said lessee, his assignee, and all other persons claiming and deriving under the said lease, shall be barred and foreclosed from all relief or remedy in law or equity, other than by bringing error for reversal of such judgment, in case the same shall be erroneous, [7] and the said landlord or lessor shall from thenceforth hold the said demised premises discharged from such lease; … [8] provided that nothing herein contained shall extend to bar the right of any mortgagee of such lease, or any part thereof, who shall not be in possession, so as such mortgagee shall and do, within six months after such judgment obtained and execution executed, pay all rent in arrear, and all costs and damages sustained by such lessor or person entitled to the remainder or reversion as aforesaid, and perform all the covenants and agreements which, on the part and behalf of the first lessee, are and ought to be performed.’
The omitted words were repealed by the Statute Law Revision Act 1892.
On behalf of the defendant it is contended that the judgment obtained by the defendant’s predecessor on 17 March 1988 was in respect of more than one half year’s rent and that, accordingly, after the expiry of six months following the execution of the judgment which occurred on 20 February 1990 the plaintiff
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became ‘barred and foreclosed from all relief or remedy in law or equity’ by virtue of what I have called part (6) of s 210 of the 1852 Act. In this connection it is common ground that the arrears of service charges did amount to more than six months arrears of rent and, accordingly, the present claim for possession falls within what I have called part (1) of s 210.
It is, correctly in my view, common ground between the parties that, if the judgment in the county court in the instant matter is a case falling within what I have called part (6) of s 210, then the plaintiff’s claim for relief from forfeiture cannot succeed. That is because of the words ‘shall be barred and foreclosed from all relief or remedy in law or equity’, similarly wide words to those found in s 138(7) of the 1984 Act. Further, again rightly in my view, it is common ground between the parties that, if the judgment in the county court in the instant matter is not a case falling within part (6) of s 210 of the 1852 Act, then the plaintiff’s application for relief from forfeiture is not debarred from succeeding in principle. That is because s 210 does not wholly replace the general equitable jurisdiction to grant relief from forfeiture.
On behalf of the plaintiff it is contended that the present application for relief from forfeiture is not by a person barred by part (6) of s 210 of the 1852 Act and, if that is not right, then, secondly, the possession order executed by the defendant was not an order falling within part (5) of s 210.
So far as the first point is concerned, the plaintiff contends that the application which is barred by what I have called part (6) of s 210 of the 1852 Act is an application by the person against whom the order for possession was made. In this case, it applies to an application by Mr Nik, the tenant, and not to an application by the plaintiff, the mortgagee.
If one reads part (6) in isolation, that would seem to be a bad point because not only is the lessee referred to as being barred but so is ‘his assignee, and all other persons claiming and deriving under the said lease’. However, there are, in my judgment, a number of pointers in the section to the effect that the plaintiff’s contention is correct.
First, part (6) only comes into effect—
‘in case the lessee or his assignee, or other person claiming or deriving [title] under the said lease, shall permit and suffer judgment to be had and recovered on such trial in ejectment …’
(See part (5) of s 210.)
At the time the section was enacted it was not necessary to join the mortgagee as a party to a forfeiture action, and that remains the case. Nor was it then necessary to notify him that proceedings were brought. That has been changed. That remains the position, however, at common law. There was therefore at least a substantial probability that the mortgagee would not know anything about the proceedings for possession, the judgment for possession or the execution of the order for possession. I find it difficult in these circumstances to see how, as a matter of ordinary language, such a mortgagee could be said to have permitted or suffered judgment to be had and execution to be executed. This seems to me to be a strong indication that the words ‘the lessee or his assignee, or other person claiming or deriving under the said lease’ were not intended to apply to a mortgagee who has not been a party to the proceedings.
I should add that neither party has invited me to approach the construction of the section on the footing that whether a mortgagee has permitted or suffered judgment and execution is a question of fact depending on the circumstances of each case, and I have not so approached it.
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Secondly, it is difficult on any view to make much sense of part (8). If, however, the persons who are barred by part (6) are not the same as those who are sued in part (5), then part (8) has no ascertainable meaning. Any mortgagee will automatically be within part (6). If, on the other hand, the only person who is barred under part (6) is the person against whom judgment is given under part (5), then part (8) specifically provides for the position relating to mortgagees, or at least those mortgagees who were not parties to the proceedings.
Thirdly, it seems to me that the sense of parts (5) and (6) is that the persons referred to in part (6) were intended to be such of the persons referred to in part (5) against whom judgment was given. It is fair to point out that, whilst the persons in part (5) are linked by the word ‘or’, those in part (6) are linked by the word ‘and’. This gives rise to an argument that a difference between the two classes was intended, the latter class being intended to comprise all possible applicants for relief. In my judgment, however, that is attributing too great an importance to the difference in conjunctions. My view is reinforced by the reflection that, once there has been an assignment, the original tenant cannot any longer apply for relief. If, therefore, part (6) was intended to refer to different persons, then three separate references to the said lessee and his assignee are hard to understand. If, on the other hand, part (6) is merely a reference back to part (5), then the separate references are explicable on the basis that there may have been an assignment and the person against whom the judgment has been obtained may be an assignee and not the original tenant.
Fourthly, the bar does not operate to prevent the bringing of ‘error for reversal’ of the judgment. Whilst it may be that a mortgagee who is not a party to the proceedings can apply to set aside the judgment, none the less this provision is more consistent with the persons who are barred being those against whom the judgment has been given.
Fifthly, the defendant’s construction would be penal in circumstances where the mortgagee had, through no fault of his own, no notice of judgment until the expiry of the six month time limit. I find it hard to attribute such an intention to Parliament in the absence of clearer words than have been used in the section.
Accordingly, I consider that the plaintiff is correct in the contention that, because it was not a party to the claim for possession brought by the defendant’s predecessor in the county court and therefore does not fall within part (5) of s 210 of the 1852 Act, the plaintiff is not a person who is barred from seeking relief under part (6) of s 210.
In view of that conclusion it is not strictly necessary to consider the second point which was argued on behalf of the plaintiff, namely that the possession order obtained in the county court was not within the expression ‘such case’ in part (6) of s 210 of the 1852 Act because it had not been established that there was insufficient distress on the premises within part (3) of s 210. As this point has been fully argued, it would be wrong for me not to express a view on it.
The plaintiff contended that, in order to be a forfeiture within s 210 of the 1852 Act at all, it must be established not only that there was at least half a year’s rent in arrear, which in this case is conceded, but also that insufficient distress could be found on the premises. In Standard Pattern Co Ltd v Ivey [1962] 1 All ER 452, [1962] Ch 432 Wilberforce J had to consider the effect of s 212 of the 1852 Act. So far as relevant that section is in the following terms:
‘If the tenant or his assignee do or shall, at any time before the trial in such ejectment, pay or tender to the lessor … all the rent and arrears, together with the costs, then and in such case all further proceedings on the said ejectment shall cease and be discontinued …’
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Wilberforce J, after considering ss 210 to 212 of the 1852 Act, said ([1962] 1 All ER 452 at 455, [1962] Ch 432 at 438):
‘There is thus a series of sections which brings into existence a scheme under which, on the one hand, a landlord is given certain rights other than those which formerly existed in ejectment against a tenant in the case of arrears of rent and, on the other hand the tenant is given the right, by satisfying the landlord through payment, to have those ejectment proceedings stopped or discontinued. It seems to me perfectly clear that, whether one is considering the landlord’s rights or the tenant’s rights, they only come into existence and s. 212 only applies in cases where one half year’s rent shall be in arrear and not in other cases.’
He then considered whether there was any authority to the contrary and decided there was not.
Although Mr Berry, on behalf of the plaintiff, relied on that decision it does not deal with the question of whether or not, in order for a judgment to be within parts (5) and (6) of s 210, it must be established that there was insufficient distress on the premises. With some force the plaintiff argues that the words ‘such trial in ejectment’ in part (5) refer back to ‘every such case’ in part (4), which in turn refers back to part (3) which deals with the case of a judgment where, inter alia, it is established that there was insufficient distress on the premises. On the other hand, it was argued on behalf of the defendant that, while accepting that one goes back from part (5) to part (4), the reference to ‘every such case’ in part (4) is wide and refers back to part (1), which requires there to be a half year’s rent in arrear, but does not require there to be sufficient distress on the premises. On the plaintiff’s construction, it is argued that no real meaning is given to the words ‘and in every such case’.
Each argument appears to me to be consistent with the decision of Wilberforce J in Standard Pattern Co Ltd v Ivey. I consider the plaintiff’s argument is rather stronger as a matter of the language used in s 210. Against that, there is considerable force in the view that the defendant’s argument seems to be more consistent with the purpose of the statute.
However, the point is not free of authority. I was referred to a number of cases and books of some antiquity. Of particular relevance is the decision in Roe d West v Davis (1806) 7 East 363, 103 ER 140. The main point in that case was whether a court of law, as opposed to a court of Chancery, could grant relief from forfeiture after trial notwithstanding that the statutory power to grant relief from forfeiture vested in a court of law under the statutory predecessor of s 212 of the 1852 Act, namely s 4 of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1730, was restricted to granting relief from forfeiture before trial. However, it appears clear from the report of counsel’s argument (at 365) that, perceiving the court was against him on this point, counsel for the tenant sought to argue that s 212 did not apply ‘where no sufficient distress was to be found upon the premises’. In the first part of his judgment Lord Ellenborough CJ appears clearly to reject that argument, fastening on the wide words ‘then, and in every such case,’ found in part (4) of s 210, and holding that, in effect, they refer back to what I have called part (1) of s 210 and not part (3).
I was also referred to Adams on the Principles and Practice of the Action of Ejectment (1846) p 124 where he considers the point in relation to the 1730 Act and, relying on the observations of Lord Ellenborough, comes to the same conclusion.
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In those circumstances, I would not accept the contention on behalf of the plaintiff that this case would fall outside what I would call part (6) of s 210 of the 1852 Act, because there was no evidence of the absence of any sufficient distress on the premises at the time the order for possession was made in the county court. However, for a different reason, namely that the judgment in the county court was not obtained against the plaintiff in these proceedings, I have reached the conclusion that the provisions of s 210 do not bar the plaintiff from seeking relief from forfeiture.
In these circumstances I find in favour of the plaintiff on the preliminary issue and hold that it is open to the court to grant relief from forfeiture for the plaintiff on the originating summons.
Order accordingly. Leave to appeal granted.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Re C and anor (minors) (parent: residence order)
[1993] 3 All ER 313
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL, BUTLER-SLOSS AND HOFFMANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 5, 13 NOVEMBER 1992
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Residence order – Leave to apply – Natural unmarried father – Whether natural father without parental responsibility entitled as of right to apply for residence order – Whether natural father entitled to apply for order as of right after order made freeing child for adoption – Children Act 1989, s 10(4)(a).
The term ‘parent’ in the Children Act 1989 has a wider meaning than ‘parent with parental responsibility’ and therefore ordinarily a putative father without parental responsibility is entitled as a ‘parent’ to apply under s 10(4)(a)a of the 1989 Act as of right for a residence order in respect of his child, even though under s 4 he can only acquire parental responsibility either by a parental responsibility
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order or by agreement with the mother. However, when a child is freed for adoption by an order made under s 18(1)(b)b of the Adoption Act 1976 dispensing with the father’s consent, the effect of the freeing order is to deprive the natural unmarried father of all effective control over the child (save for the limited right to apply for revocation of the freeing order) and to change his status to that akin to his status after the adoption order is made, namely a ‘former parent’, who ceases to be a ‘parent’ for the purpose of s 10(4)(a) of the 1989 Act and thus ceases to be entitled to apply as of right for a residence order in respect of the child. Instead, he must obtain the court’s leave to apply for a residence order under s 10(1) and the court, as required by s 10(9)(c), will have regard to the risk of disruption to the child’s life which the proposed application may cause when deciding whether to grant leave (see p 316 j, p 317 a b h j, p 318 f g, p 319 e to j, p 320 f to h, post).
Re H and anor (minors) (adoption: putative father’s rights) (No 3) [1991] 2 All ER 185 considered.
NotesFor the effect of adoption orders on the parental rights of natural parents, see 5(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1058.
For applications for leave to apply for residence orders and the conditions to be met before the court can make such an order, see ibid paras 771–772.
For the Adoption Act 1976, s 18, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 237.
For the Children Act 1989, s 10, see ibid 403.
Case referred to in judgmentH and anor (minors) (adoption: putative father’s rights), Re (No 3) [1991] 2 All ER 185, [1991] Fam 151, [1991] 2 WLR 763, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton argument M (an infant), Re [1955] 2 All ER 911, [1955] 2 QB 479, CA.
M v H [1988] 3 All ER 5, [1990] 1 AC 686, [1988] 3 WLR 485, HL.
Interlocutory appealThe father of two children, V and N, appealed from the judgment of Johnson J given on 14 April 1992 that the father required the leave of the court to apply under s 10 of the Children Act 1989 for residence orders under s 8 of that Act in respect of the two children. The grounds of appeal were that the judge erred in law in holding that the father required the court’s leave to apply for the residence orders and ought instead to have held that the father as the parent of the children was entitled as of right to apply for residence orders under s 8 of the 1989 Act in respect of the children by virtue of s 10(4)(a) of that Act. The respondents to the appeal were the local authority, the mother and the guardian ad litem of the children. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Duncan Matheson QC and D Peter Hunt (instructed by Chambers & Co, Brighouse) for the father.
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Joanne Fielding (instructed by Michael Ellison, Halifax) for the local authority.
L J Kushner QC and S Singleton (instructed by Barlow Rowland, Accrington) for the guardian ad litem.
The mother did not appear.
Cur adv vult
13 November 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. This is an appeal on a preliminary issue with the leave of the judge from the decision of Johnson J on 14 April 1992.
The appellant is the father of two little girls of 8 and 6. The first respondent is the local authority which is the adoption agency, the second respondent is the mother who has played no part in these proceedings, and the third respondent is the guardian ad litem of the two children.
The father and mother were not married but they lived together as a family until the mother left home in May 1987, leaving both children in the care of the father. V, the younger child, was soon afterwards admitted to hospital as failing to thrive and care orders were made in respect of both children on 12 October 1987. V was placed with foster parents and the elder child, N, returned to live with her father on a trial basis. On 2 November 1987 the father obtained a custody order in respect of both children under the provisions of the Guardianship of Minors Act 1971 and the Guardianship Act 1973 but V remained with foster parents. On 19 May 1989 the father was arrested on charges of rape and N was removed by the social workers and placed with foster parents. There has been no further contact between the father and the two children. On 8 March 1990 the father was convicted on three counts of rape and sentenced to a total of six years’ imprisonment. On 19 June 1990 an order freeing both children for adoption was made by Judge Bush in the Halifax County Court. Adoption applications are pending, but have been adjourned until after a decision on the preliminary issue.
On 31 January 1992 the father applied for a residence order under s 8 of the Children Act 1989 in respect of both children. Section 8(1) defines a residence order as follows:
‘In this Act … “a residence order” means an order settling the arrangements to be made as to the person with whom a child is to live …’
Section 10 specifies that the court may make a residence or other order under s 8 if the application for the order has been made by a person who is entitled to apply for the order or who has obtained the leave of the court to make such an application (or the court of its own motion makes the order: s 10(1)).
Persons specifically entitled as of right to apply for a residence order are set out in s 10(4) and (5) and include in s 10(4)(a) ‘any parent or guardian of the child’. Anyone else may do so only with the leave of the court. This requirement of locus standi is necessary because an application under the 1989 Act is not like ordinary litigation in which a party is making a claim of right. The paramount consideration on a substantive application is always the welfare of the child. It could be very disruptive for the child’s welfare if a person having little connection with a child could make an application affecting that child’s life and be entitled as of right to have such application fully investigated on its merits. On the other hand, the court’s jurisdiction to grant leave permits complete flexibility to deal with the unusual case in which an application by someone falling outside the normal categories is desirable in the interests of the child. The risk that the
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application may disrupt the child’s life is one of the matters which the 1989 Act requires the court to have regard in deciding whether to grant leave: s 10(9)(c).
On the father making his application for a residence order the district judge held a directions appointment and decided that a preliminary issue should be tried. The issue was formulated as follows:
‘Whether the applicant as the parent of a child who has been freed for adoption by an order of the Halifax County Court dated 19th June 1990 is entitled to bring an application under section 10 of the Children Act 1989, for an order under section 8 thereof requesting a residence order.’
On the hearing of the preliminary issue the judge held that the word ‘parent’ in s 10(4) of the Children Act 1989 meant a ‘parent with parental responsibility’ as defined in that Act. The father did not have parental responsibility because, although it had been conferred on him by the combined effect of the custody order made in 1987 and the saving provisions of para 6(2) of Sch 14 to the 1989 Act, it had been extinguished by the freeing order: see ss 18(5) and 12(3)(a) of the Adoption Act 1976. The judge held that the father, therefore, required the leave of the court to make a s 8 application.
Two issues arise from the decision of the judge. (1) Was the judge right in holding that the term ‘parent’ in s 10(4) of the 1989 Act applied only to ‘parents with parental responsibility’? If so, leave to apply for s 8 orders is required not only by parents whose children have been freed for adoption, but by all parents who do not have parental responsibility and in particular by putative fathers who have not acquired parental responsibility under s 4 of the 1989 Act. (2) If the judge construed ‘parent’ too narrowly, does it nevertheless exclude the natural parents of a child who has been freed for adoption?
We think that, apart from the question of parental responsibility, a putative father would undoubtedly be a parent within the meaning of s 10(4). A putative father has no rights at common law. It is only in recent years that his position has improved. For present purposes two changes may be noted. The first change, provided by s 14 of the Guardianship of Minors Act 1971, entitled him as of right to apply for custody or access in respect of his illegitimate child. The second more significant change is to be found in the Family Law Reform Act 1987 which largely nullified the adverse consequences of illegitimacy. Section 1(1) states:
‘In this Act and enactments passed and instruments made after the coming into force of this section, references (however expressed) to any relationship between two persons shall, unless the contrary intention appears, be construed without regard to whether or not the father and mother of either of them, or the father and mother of any person through whom the relationship is deduced, have or had been married to each other at any time.’
(See also Sch 1 to the Interpretation Act 1978, as amended by the Family Law Reform Act 1987.)
‘Parent’ is a word signifying a relationship, since one must be the parent of someone. We therefore think that in s 10(4) of the 1989 Act it prima facie includes a putative father. But the putative father lacks parental responsibility, which s 3(1) defines as:
‘… all the rights, duties, powers, responsibilities and authority which by law a parent of a child has in relation to the child and his property.’
Section 2(2)(b) says that where the parents are not married to each other, the father—
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‘shall not have parental responsibility for the child, unless he acquires it in accordance with the provisions of this Act.’
Under s 4 a putative father may acquire parental responsibility by agreement with the mother or an order of the court. It follows that, if the judge’s construction of s 10(4) is right, putative fathers will be excluded if, but only if, they have not acquired parental responsibility.
Mr Matheson QC for the father submitted that this was wrong. He drew attention to the distinction drawn in various parts of the 1989 Act between a ‘parent’ and a ‘parent with parental responsibility’. For example s 1(3)(f) requires the court in considering the welfare checklist to have regard to ‘how capable each of his parents … is of meeting his needs’.
The court in such a case may have to consider whether a father ought to be given parental responsibility which at that time he did not possess. Section 5(1)(a) provides that a court may appoint a guardian if ‘the child has no parent with parental responsibility for him’. This clearly contemplates that a child may have a parent who does not have parental responsibility and that accordingly the 1989 Act uses the term ‘parent’ to signify a class of which parents with parental responsibility are a sub-set.
Miss Kushner QC argued that the judge was right in saying that a parent in s 10(4) meant a ‘parent with parental responsibility’ with the consequence that, unless a putative father was also applying for a parental responsibility order, he would require leave to make a s 8 application. But we do not think that ‘parent’ in the 1989 Act can be given such a narrow meaning. Mr Matheson has demonstrated to our satisfaction that both in the 1989 Act itself and in the amendments to other statutes made in the schedules to the 1989 Act, the term ‘parent’ has a wider meaning than ‘parent with parental responsibility’.
The case for such a wider meaning is particularly strong when one examines the position of the putative father who has not already acquired parental responsibility. A requirement that he should have to seek the leave of the court before applying for a s 8 order would seem to us a retrograde step. As we have said, before the passing of the 1989 Act he had a right to apply for a custody or access order. Balcombe LJ in Re H and anor (minors) (adoption: putative father’s rights) (No 3) [1991] 2 All ER 185 at 188–189, [1991] Fam 151 at 157–158 considered the changing rights over the years of the putative father and looked forward to the effect of the 1989 Act. He did not consider that the 1989 Act was more rather than less restrictive towards putative fathers. It is of interest to see that the Law Commission’s report Family Law: Review of Child Law: Guardianship and Custody (Law Com no 172) (1988) para 8.54 recommended that three categories of people should always be able to apply for any order without leave of the court. One such category was ‘parents (with or without parental responsibility)’. In repealing the Guardianship of Minors Act 1971 in its entirety and replacing it with the 1989 Act we do not believe it was the intention of Parliament to cut down the existing rights of putative fathers. In our judgment the term ‘parent’ in s 10(4) will ordinarily include a putative father without parental responsibility.
It follows that we respectfully disagree with the way the learned judge decided the issue. The term ‘parent’ must be given its natural and ordinary meaning. It does not follow, however, that that meaning will always include the natural parents. The natural and ordinary meaning of a word is not fixed but changes according to the context in which a word is used. Thus the meaning of ‘parent’ in a school prospectus will include a person with de facto parental responsibility even if not a natural parent, but exclude a natural parent who has no contact with the child. On the other hand, the meaning of ‘parent’ in a work on genetics will
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be the biological parents, including a father who has no more connection than the initial act of fertilisation. The question is therefore whether the natural and ordinary meaning of a ‘parent’ in the Children Act 1989 can include a natural parent whose child has been freed for adoption.
The Adoption Act 1976 (as amended by the 1989 Act), together with the Adoption Rules 1984, SI 1984/265, governs the statutory framework of adoption. An adoption order is defined in s 12(1) of the 1976 Act as an order ‘giving parental responsibility for a child to the adopters’. By s 12(3)(a) the making of the adoption order operates—
‘to extinguish … the parental responsibility which any person has for the child immediately before the making of the order …’
The adoption order is final and irrevocable (subject to s 52 of the 1976 Act). The effect of the order on the child’s status is put beyond doubt by s 39(2) which provides in general terms:
‘An adopted child shall … be treated in law as if he were not the child of any person other than the adopters or adopter.’
This provision makes it clear that after an adoption order, the natural parent is not in law a parent for any purposes, including s 10(4) of the Children Act 1989. But, even without the express provisions of s 39 of the 1976 Act, in our view, the effect of an adoption order as set out in s 12 of that Act is such as radically to change the legal status of the biological parents. It would not, for example, make any sense to regard them as ‘parents’ within the meaning of s 1(3)(f) of the 1989 Act, because they are no longer the persons who would prima facie be expected to meet the child’s needs. Nor are they the persons who would prima facie be expected to have parental responsibility as is contemplated by s 5(1)(a), (3) and (7)(a) of the 1989 Act, because they have been expressly deprived of the parental responsibility. In our judgment, therefore, the irrevocable nature of adoption together with the provisions of s 12 of the 1976 Act would be enough to require one to construe ‘parents’ in the 1989 Act as excluding the natural parents after the making of an adoption order.
The question to be decided in this appeal is whether a freeing order under s 18 of the 1976 Act has the same effect. The concept of freeing for adoption created by the Children Act 1975 was re-enacted in the 1976 Act and provides for a procedure to obtain the consent of a parent or a judicial decision that the agreement of a parent has been unreasonably withheld to be taken at a stage earlier than the adoption proceedings and without the involvement of the prospective adopters, or even their identification as potential adopters. Section 18(3) of the 1976 Act requires the court to be satisfied that the child has already been placed for adoption or that it is likely that he will be placed for adoption. The local authority is the adoption agency (s 18(2A)) and is the applicant for a freeing for adoption order. In this case the father, despite the children being illegitimate, had acquired parental responsibility and was a necessary party to the ‘freeing’ application. Section 18(1) requires:
‘Where, on an application by an adoption agency, an authorised court is satisfied in the case of each parent or guardian of the child that—(a) [he has consented], or (b) his agreement to the making of an adoption order should be dispensed with on a ground specified in section 16(2), the court shall make an order declaring the child free for adoption.’
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Section 16(2) sets out the grounds on which an adoption order can be made. The relevant ground in this appeal is that contained in s 16(2)(b), namely that the parent is withholding his agreement unreasonably. The judge on the freeing application dispensed with the agreement of the father on 19 June 1990. There has been no appeal against that order.
The consequences of the order dispensing with the agreement of the parent and freeing the child for adoption is to place the child in a sort of adoptive limbo with parental responsibilities for him assumed by the adoption agency until either he is adopted or an application is made to revoke the ‘freeing’ order. The local authority cares for the child in the guise of the adoption agency, having been granted parental responsibility by s 18(5), and ‘subsections (2) to (4) of section 12 apply as if the order were an adoption order and the agency were the adopters.' Section 12(2) refers to parental responsibility relating to any period before the making of the order. Section 12(3) states:
‘The making of an adoption order operates to extinguish—(a) the parental responsibility which any person has for the child immediately before the making of the order; (aa) any order under the Children Act 1989; and (b) any duty arising by virtue of an agreement or the order of a court to make payments, so far as the payments are in respect of a child’s maintenance …’
Section 12(4) does not appear to be relevant.
The parent becomes by virtue of ss 18(5) and 19 a ‘former parent’. The use of this expression, first introduced by the equivalent sections of the Children Act 1975, is itself significant. ‘Parent’ was not defined in the 1975 Act. It bore its natural and ordinary meaning. So the use of the term ‘former parent’ is an indication that Parliament did not think that after a freeing order the natural parents would be ‘parents’ in the ordinary sense of that word as used in the context of legislation such as this. A ‘former parent’ has limited rights by s 19 of the 1976 Act to be informed whether an adoption order has been made and, if not, whether the child has been placed with an adoptive family. Section 20 gives the ‘former parent’ the right to apply to revoke the freeing order after the expiry of 12 months if an adoption order has not been made and the child does not have his home with the prospective adopters. Under the 1976 Act this father, now the ‘former parent’, has no other rights and in particular he loses the fundamental right of the opportunity to be heard on the adoption application, the hearing of which he is not even entitled to attend. In this respect the putative father is in no better and no worse a position than the natural mother or parents who are married to each other. After a freeing order has been made all parents are in the same position. The effect of a freeing order is to deprive the natural parents of parental responsibility in the same way as after an adoption order. The former parent’s right to apply to revoke under s 20 is contingent upon circumstances over which he has no control and he has no say in the future arrangements for the child other than under s 20. The lack of rights of a natural parent after a freeing order bears a close resemblance to the position of a natural parent after adoption, although the door is not finally shut until the child is adopted.
Mr Matheson argued that the meaning of ‘parent’ in s 10(4) of the 1989 Act was not affected by the 1976 Act. The 1976 Act (s 72) defines a ‘parent’ as ‘any parent who has parental responsibility for the child under the Children Act 1989’.
Since the term ‘parent’ was wider than ‘parent with parental responsibility’ it included parents who had lost their parental responsibility by virtue of a freeing order. Although, for the reasons already set out in this judgment, we agree that the meaning of ‘parent’ in the 1989 Act is wider than in the 1976 Act, it does not
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follow that the meaning encompasses all natural parents. We have already seen that it does not include a biological parent whose child has been adopted. The inability of the natural parent to control any of the events after a freeing order and the narrow limits of his right to apply for revocation contained in s 20 of the 1976 Act create, in our view, a change of status akin to, although not identical with, the status of the parent after adoption. If there is no application to revoke, the prospects of success for the father in an application for residence are, as Mr Matheson candidly recognises, nil and the application itself appears to confer no advantage on these children nor would it seem to be in the children’s best interests to make it. There is a special requirement in s 18(7) of the 1976 Act to protect the position of the putative father. The court has to be satisfied before making a freeing order, in relation to any person claiming to be a father, that either he has no intention of applying for a parental responsibility order or residence order or that if he did such application would be likely to be refused. This subsection was in force before, and has been amended by, the 1989 Act. If, after a freeing order has been made, a putative father has a right to make a s 8 application under the 1989 Act, or a custody or access application under the earlier legislation at any time until an adoption order is made, it seems extraordinary that s 18(7) was ever included in the 1976 Act and even more extraordinary that it has been preserved in its amended form by the 1989 Act.
The Law Commission in para 2.11 of their report considered that parents should not lose their parental responsibility even after court orders have been made, even though its exercise might have to be modified or curtailed and in some cases where the children were in care the parents might be left with very little scope to carry out their responsibilities. They added:
‘But the parents should not be deprived of their very parenthood unless and until the child is adopted or freed for adoption.’
We think this lends support to our view that a freeing order is just as effective as an adoption order to deprive natural parents of ‘their very parenthood’ for the purposes of the 1989 Act.
If one looks at the policy of the locus standi requirement in s 10, it seems most improbable that Parliament intended a natural parent to be treated as a ‘parent’ after the making of a freeing order. One of the matters which has to be taken into account by the judge making the order is whether it would be in the child’s interest to have any further contact with its natural parents. On an application to dispense with the agreement of the natural parent, this will be a vital consideration. For a natural parent to be entitled as of right to apply for a s 8 order after the freeing order has been made is likely to be even more disruptive for the child than such an application by a total stranger. This consequence might have to be accepted if there were other provisions in the 1989 Act which used the word ‘parent’ in a sense which could appropriately include natural parents after a freeing order. In our judgment, however, there are none. It follows that, although we have not reached our conclusion by the simple route taken by the learned judge, we agree with him that the father in this case was not entitled to apply for a residence order.
We dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Wendy Shockett Barrister.
Giles v Thompson
and related appeals
[1993] 3 All ER 321
Categories: TORTS; Negligence: CONSUMER; Consumer Credit, Other Consumer
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, RALPH GIBSON AND STEYN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 8–11 DECEMBER 1992, 11 JANUARY 1993
HOUSE OF LORDS
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD ACKNER, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD LOWRY AND LORD MUSTILL
22–25 FEBRUARY, 26 MAY 1993
Maintenance of action – Champerty – Provision of hire car to victim of non-fault accident – Car hire reimbursed out of damages recovered by plaintiff – Plaintiff motorist involved in motor vehicle accident caused by negligence of defendant motorist – Plaintiff entering into agreement for hire of car while own car repaired – Plaintiff under no obligation to pay hire charges until damages awarded for cost of car hire – Whether agreement champertous – Whether plaintiff suffering loss – Whether plaintiff entitled to interest on award of damages for cost of car hire.
The plaintiffs in two separate appeals were involved in motor vehicle accidents in which their cars were damaged and were off the road while repairs were undertaken. Following their accidents the plaintiffs entered into ‘non-fault accident’ agreements with car hire companies for the hire of a replacement car while the plaintiff’s car was off the road, on the basis that although the plaintiff was liable under the agreement for the car hire charges the car hire company would be reimbursed out of the damages recovered by the plaintiff for loss of use of his car and until then the plaintiff had the use of the hire car on credit and was under no obligation to pay the hire charges. Legal assistance was also provided under the agreement on the same basis. A potential plaintiff would only be accepted by the car hire company for free car hire if the accident was not considered to be his or her fault, there were reasonably good prospects of establishing liability against the third party and the third party was insured. In the first appeal the agreement provided for the proceedings to be conducted by the plaintiff’s own solicitor while in the second appeal the plaintiff agreed that her claim would be handled by solicitors and counsel nominated by the car hire company. Having provided the car hire, the car hire companies then sought to recover the charges for the hire in the plaintiffs’ actions against the insured defendants. When the plaintiffs, supported by their car hire companies, brought actions in the county court, the insurance companies standing behind the nominal defendants denied the recoverability of the car hire on the grounds that the agreements between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies were champertous and the plaintiffs had not in fact suffered any loss because they had in effect been provided with replacement vehicles by the car hire companies free of charge. In both appeals the damages awarded to the plaintiff included the cost of the car hire and in the first appeal interest was awarded on the cost of the car hire. The defendants appealed to the Court of Appeal against the award of the car hire charges on the grounds that the plaintiffs’ claims were defeated by the defences of champerty and no loss. The Court of Appeal held that the schemes were not champertous. The defendants appealed to the House of Lords.
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Held – (1) An agreement between a car hire company and a potential plaintiff whose car needed repairs as the result of a motor accident for which he was not to blame and in respect of which the negligent defendant was insured, whereby the potential plaintiff received free car hire in return for agreeing that the car hire company could bring an action for damages, including the car hire company’s charges, in the plaintiff’s name against the insured defendant was not illegal as being champertous. It could not be said that the car hire company had intermeddled in the dispute between the plaintiff and the defendant with a view to dividing the spoils, since (a) the car hire company possessed no rights in respect of the amount recovered by the plaintiff from the defendant, (b) the car hire company made its profit from the hiring rather than the litigation, (c) the plaintiff remained personally liable for the hire charges on the conclusion of the proceedings, and (d) even where the proceedings were conducted by solicitors and counsel nominated by the car hire company they would, having regard to the size of the respective claims, be obliged to act in accordance with the instructions of the plaintiff even if the plaintiff’s and the car hire company’s interests diverged. Accordingly, the plaintiff retained control of the proceedings and there was no risk to the administration of justice or the plaintiff’s interests caused by the car hire company’s intervention (see p 350 f to h, p 356 j to p 357 b d e g to p 358 h, p 359 b to f, p 360 g h and p 361 c d h j, post); dictum of Fletcher Moulton LJ in British Cash and Parcel Conveyors Ltd v Lamson Store Service Co Ltd [1908] 1 KB 1006 at 1014 applied.
(2) The plaintiffs had not been provided with replacement vehicles by the car hire companies free of charge while their own vehicles were being repaired notwithstanding that the hire charges were not paid until a judgment in the plaintiffs’ favour provided the necessary funds, since the plaintiffs remained liable for the cost of the hire and the amount of that liability represented the loss suffered by the plaintiffs (see p 350 f to h and p 362 d to g, post).
(3) Since under the agreement the plaintiff in the first appeal did not become liable for the hire charges until judgment and the award of damages, which provided the necessary funds to pay the charges, she had not been kept out of any money while her claim was being litigated and was therefore not entitled to interest on the award of damages for the car hire. To that extent the first appeal would be allowed but otherwise both appeals would be dismissed (see p 350 f to h, p 363 j to p 364 a f and p 365 c, post).
Notes
For agreements involving maintenance or champerty, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 400–404, and for cases on the subject, see 8(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 30, 218–219, 127, 1022.
Cases referred to in judgments and opinions
British Cash and Parcel Conveyors Ltd v Lamson Store Service Co Ltd [1908] 1 KB 1006, [1908–10] All ER Rep 146, CA.
Brownton Ltd v Edward Moore Inbucon Ltd [1985] 3 All ER 499, CA.
Cosemar SA v Marimarna Shipping Co Ltd, The Mathew [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 323.
Cousins (H ) & Co Ltd v D & C Carriers Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 55, [1971] 2 QB 230, [1971] 2 WLR 85, CA.
Danzey v Metropolitan Bank of England and Wales (1912) 28 TLR 327.
Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, [1974] QB 454, [1973] 3 WLR 514, CA.
Elborough v Ayres (1870) LR 10 Eq 367.
Grant v Thompson (1895) 72 LT 264, [1895–9] All ER Rep 1026, DC.
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Harbutt’s Plasticine Ltd v Wayne Tank and Pump Co Ltd [1970] 1 All ER 225, [1970] 1 QB 447, [1970] 2 WLR 198, CA.
Harlow & Jones Ltd v Panex (International) Ltd [1967] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 509.
Haseldine v Hosken [1933] 1 KB 822, [1933] All ER Rep 1, CA.
Hill v Archbold [1967] 3 All ER 110, [1968] 1 QB 686, [1967] 3 WLR 1218, CA.
Jefford v Gee [1970] 1 All ER 1202, [1970] 2 QB 130, [1970] 2 WLR 702, CA.
Laurent v Sale & Co (a firm) [1963] 2 All ER 63, [1963] 1 QB 232, [1964] 3 WLR 829.
Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929, [1965] 1 QB 232, [1964] 3 WLR 573, CA.
McAll v Brooks [1984] RTR 99, CA.
Martell v Consett Iron Ltd [1955] 1 All ER 481, [1955] Ch 363, [1955] 2 WLR 463, CA; affg [1954] 3 All ER 339, [1955] Ch 363, [1954] 3 WLR 648.
Picton Jones & Co v Arcadia Developments Ltd [1989] 1 EGLR 43.
Read v Brown (1888) 22 QBD 128, CA.
Rodriguez v Speyer Bros [1919] AC 59, [1918–19] All ER Rep 884, HL.
Savill Bros Ltd v Langman (1898) 79 LT 44, CA.
Singh v Observer Ltd [1989] 3 All ER 777, CA; rvsg [1989] 3 All ER 777.
Skelton v Baxter [1916] 1 KB 321, CA.
Solicitor, Re a, ex p Law Society [1912] 1 KB 302, [1911–13] All ER Rep 202, DC.
Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1981] 3 All ER 520, [1982] AC 679, [1981] 3 WLR 766, HL; affg [1980] 3 All ER 721, [1980] QB 629, [1980] 3 WLR 367, CA.
Trepca Mines Ltd, Re (Application of Radomir Nicola Pachitch (Pasic)) [1962] 3 All ER 351, [1963] Ch 199, [1962] 3 WLR 955, CA.
Wild v Simpson [1919] 2 KB 544, [1918–19] All ER Rep 682, CA.
Wilkinson v Osborne (1915) 21 CLR 89, Aust HC.
Appeals
Sanders v Templer
The plaintiff, Matthew Sanders, appealed from the decision of Judge Hugh Jones sitting in the Cardiff County Court on 10 March 1992 dismissing his application to strike out the defences of champerty and no loss raised by the defendant, Marion Templar, by way of defence to the plaintiff’s claim for damages of £783·73 for the hire of a car from 3 Arrows Car Hire while the plaintiff’s car was being repaired following an accident with the defendant’s car on 26 July 1991. The facts are set out in the judgment of Steyn LJ.
Giles v Thompson
The defendant, Vanessa Thompson, appealed from the decision of Judge Nicholl, sitting in the Coventry County Court on 26 June 1992 giving judgment for the plaintiff for damages of £3,172·91, including £540·31 and interest of £40·52 for the hire of a car from Forward Hire Ltd while the plaintiff’s car was being repaired following an accident with the defendant’s car on 22 August 1991. The appeal related only to the sum awarded for the car hire. The facts are set out in the judgment of Steyn LJ.
Devlin v Baslington
The defendant, Roy Baslington, appealed from the decision of Judge Hardy, sitting in the Manchester County Court on 6 October 1992 giving judgment for the plaintiff for damages of £7,984·11, including £652·05 and interest for the hire of a car from 1st AutoMotive Car Hire while the plaintiff’s car was being repaired following an accident with the defendant’s car on 17 April 1990.
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The appeal related only to the sum awarded for the car hire. The facts are set out in the judgment of Steyn LJ.
G W Wingate-Saul QC and Stephen Stewart (instructed by Dolmans, Cardiff) for the appellant Sanders.
Vernon Pugh QC and Christopher Moger QC (instructed by Hugh James Jones & Jenkins, Cardiff) for the respondent Templar.
Edwin Glasgow QC, C D L Du Cann and Charles Cory-Wright (instructed by Edward Lewis & Co) for the appellant Thompson.
Hilary Heilbron QC and Michael Swainston (instructed by Abson Hall, Manchester) for the respondent Giles.
Simon Goldblatt QC and Stuart Catchpole (instructed by Edward Lewis & Co) for the appellant Baslington.
Graham Platts (instructed by Eden & Co, Manchester) for the respondent Devlin.
Cur adv vult
11 January 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
STEYN LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Thomas Bingham MR).
The real dispute
Stripped of their forensic trappings these three appeals involve a dispute between car hire companies and insurance companies. It may be useful at the outset to give a bare and necessarily imprecise outline of the origin and nature of the dispute. Recently, car hire companies introduced schemes designed to enable them to make a profit out of providing replacement cars under hire agreements to potential plaintiffs whose cars were damaged and needed repair. Typically, the car hire firm targets cases where (a) the plaintiff is very likely to succeed in establishing that the defendant was liable and that he was not in any way contributorily negligent and (b) that the defendant is insured. In cases where these criteria are considered to be satisfied the car hire company offers ‘free car hire’ to the plaintiff. That involves the supply of a car to the potential plaintiff while the plaintiff’s damaged car is being repaired. The car hire company does not seek to recover any hire from the plaintiff. Instead the car hire company seeks to recover the car hire in an action in the plaintiff’s name against the insured defendant. The plaintiff is afforded free legal assistance at the expense of the car hire company for the recovery of damages for personal injury (if any), which go to the plaintiff, and the car rental, which the plaintiff must pay over to the car hire company. The car hire company refers the potential plaintiff to a solicitor nominated by the car hire company. The plaintiff is obliged to co-operate in the prosecution of the action. The action is financed by the car hire company but conducted by solicitors and counsel in the usual way.
In three county court actions, which are the subject matter of the three appeals, the insurance companies, through the nominal defendants, deny the recoverability of the car hire on two grounds. First, they argue that the agreements between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies are champertous and that this fact affords a defence to the claim for recovery of the car hire charges. Secondly, the insurance companies argue that the plaintiffs are not entitled to recover the car hire charges since the plaintiffs in fact suffered no loss. The three judgments under appeal dealt with these issues in various ways. These are the principal issues which arise on the appeals.
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Counsel told us that the three appeals are in the nature of test cases. Counsel said that the three appeals have been selected as representative of the spectrum of issues which could arise between the car hire companies and the insurance companies. The same issues will apparently arise in thousands of cases. And many such cases are presently awaiting hearing. On the other hand, it seems right to emphasise that our judgments will only be relevant to other cases which share the distinctive features of the three appeals before us. In the absence of a formal agreement between the hire companies who operate in the field and insurance companies generally, I would prefer to regard the appeals in the selected actions as lead cases. Subject to an appeal to the House of Lords, the judgments on these appeals will probably dispose of most cases but will not necessarily, as a matter of law, dispose of all cases.
The forensic shape of the case
For the sake of completeness I must sketch the forensic shape of the case. There are three appeals, namely Sanders v Templer, Giles v Thompson and Devlin v Baslington. In each the facts follow the typical pattern which I have already set out. On the other hand, different car hire companies are involved, namely 3 Arrows Car Hire in Sanders v Templer, Forward Hire Ltd in Giles v Thompson and 1st AutoMotive Car Rental in Devlin v Baslington. The insurance companies who stand behind the nominal defendants are Commercial Union Assurance Co Ltd in Sanders v Templer, Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd in Giles v Thompson and Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd in Devlin v Baslington. There are also differences between the way in which the three cases were decided at first instance. In Sanders v Templer the issues to be decided arose in the context of an application by the plaintiff, supported by the car hire firm, to strike out the defences of champerty and no loss raised by the nominal defendant. Judge Hugh Jones decided that the issues raised were arguable and dismissed the application to strike out. This is therefore an appeal by the plaintiff. In Giles v Thompson the defences of champerty and no loss were rejected after a trial. Judgment allowing recovery of the car rental was given. Judge Nicholl gave a careful and detailed judgment, which I have found of considerable assistance. This is an appeal by the defendant. In Devlin v Baslington the issues were decided after a trial. In this case Judge Hardy rejected the defences of champerty and no loss. The judge took the pragmatic and perfectly understandable view that he should follow earlier county court judgments and he did not give a substantive judgment. However, there has been no decision on the quantum of the car rental, which was in issue as to reasonableness. In this case a subsidiary issue arises, namely whether interest is recoverable on that part of the damages which cover the car hire. That is an aspect to which I will turn towards the end of this judgment.
The relationship between the car hire companies and the plaintiffs
So far I have sketched the relationships between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies in general terms. It is necessary to examine that relationship in more detail. The three schemes involved in the appeals before us are in very similar terms. Our attention has been drawn to some differences. Nobody has suggested that any of these differences are material distinctions which could lead to different results in respect of the issues arising on these appeals. In my view the differences are immaterial. In these circumstances it is only necessary to describe the details of one scheme. I will take the scheme in Giles v Thompson as an example. The car hire company involved was Forward Hire Ltd (Forward).
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The scheme operated by Forward involves three corporate entities, namely Forward Hire Ltd (the car hire company), Financial and Legal Group plc (the entity controlling promotion of the scheme) and Ainsworth Claims Bureau Ltd (the entity screening plaintiffs and referring them to solicitors). The same interests are apparently involved in the three corporate interests. But nobody has contended that the involvement of three separate corporate entities, and the demarcation of functions between them, is relevant to any issue in the case. In the narrative the separate roles of the three entities can therefore be ignored.
The Forward scheme was promoted by an advertising brochure sent to motor vehicle repairers and insurance brokers. It reads as follows:
‘In the event of a non fault accident you may qualify for FREE CAR HIRE PLUS MANY OTHER BENEFITS o Legal advice o Recovery of policy excess o Compensation for personal injury o Loss of earnings & damage to personal property.’
A more elaborate advertising leaflet was sent to insurance brokers. This leaflet is headed ‘Free Car Hire and Legal Assistance Scheme’.
After some puffery of the credentials of operators of the scheme, the leaflet explains the nature of the scheme as follows:
‘WHO MAY QUALIFY? Any client whose vehicle is off the road as a result of an accident which is not considered their fault. PROVIDED: * There are reasonably good prospects of establishing liability against the third party * That the third party is insured * That the third party’s insurance details are known i.e. Name, Address, Insurance Company and policy number. PRACTICAL HELP Generally the car will be delivered within 24 hours on receipt of the fully completed claim form: * To their home * Place of work * Garage where their vehicle is being repaired. Similarly, at the end of the hire period, collection from a location convenient to the client will be arranged. FREE LEGAL ASSISTANCE A member of our Legal Panel will act on behalf of your client to recover any uninsured losses including: * Policy Excess * Personal Injury * Loss of earnings * Car Hire It is essential that a member of our Legal Panel handles the claim in its entirety. As you are aware an Insurance Company will not allow two Solicitors to deal with the same claim.’
Mrs Giles was involved in a road traffic accident. She suffered a whiplash injury and her car was damaged. She was introduced to Forward. Her case fulfilled their criteria. Having been accepted as a qualifying client, she was asked to sign the standard form documents of Forward. She signed a vehicle hire agreement. The front page of the agreement sets out the names of the parties and it identifies the car. Particulars of the period of hire, and the hire charges, were completed some nine days later when repairs to Mrs Giles’s damaged car had been completed and she no longer needed the hired car. The terms of agreement are set out on the reverse of the document. The relevant terms are as follows:
‘1. Where the hire is consequent upon the hirer’s own vehicle being unroadworthy as a result of a road traffic accident the company will allow the hirer credit on the hire charges until such time as damages, and statutory interest, have been recovered from the party (hereinafter called the third party) that the hirer alleges is liable for damages, arising out of the said accident, subject only to condition (4) hereunder.
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2. The Company shall have the right to appoint its own solicitor to pursue an action in the hirer’s name against the third party.
3. The Company’s solicitor shall have the right to pursue such action through the County Court and the hirer must co-operate in the conduct of the action and, if required by the Company’s solicitor, attend any hearing that the Court appoints.
4. If, and only if, the hirer is in default of condition (3) then the credit allowed by the Company to the hirer shall be terminated and the hire charges will be due from the hirer to the Company 28 days from the Company giving notice thereof to the hirer by reference to this condition (4).’
These terms must be read with a form of authority which Mrs Giles was asked to sign. This document provides as follows:
‘I confirm that you may appoint a Solicitor/Legal Agent on my behalf to act in the recovery of the uninsured losses from the Third Party … They will also act on my behalf for the recovery of damages for any personal injury or other losses involved. They have my authority to commence proceedings, if necessary, for recovery of the Car Hire charges and other losses and to apply for any Medical evidence they may deem it necessary to obtain on my behalf for the purpose of a personal injury claim. I confirm that I have not instructed any other solicitors to act on my behalf, nor do I have a Solicitor whom I would wish to instruct in this matter.’
Mrs Giles did not expressly assign any rights to the car hire firm and it was common ground that there was no implied assignment.
Mrs Giles’s claim for damages (including the claim in respect of car hire while her own car was being repaired) was duly notified to the defendant’s insurer. The claim was not admitted. Mrs Giles was then referred to a firm of solicitors on the car hire company’s panel of solicitors. The solicitors instructed counsel to act on behalf of the plaintiffs. An action was instituted in the name of Mrs Giles, and the action proceeded in the usual way. Mrs Giles was represented by counsel and solicitors at the hearing in the county court. Liability was admitted. At that hearing her claims for loss of earnings, excess on her insurance policy and for pain, suffering and loss of amenities were admitted. Only the claim in respect of car hire in the sum of £540·21 was disputed. The recoverability of this head of loss was challenged on the ground that the vehicle hire agreement was champertous and that Mrs Giles suffered no loss. The judge ruled in favour of Mrs Giles on both issues, and this part of Mrs Giles’s claim also succeeded.
The issues
Under the heading of champerty two issues arise. First, there is an issue as to whether the agreements between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies are champertous. This is an important and complex question which will require detailed analysis. The second issue is whether the agreements between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies, if they are champertous, were capable of affording defences to the defendants, behind whom the insurance companies stand. This is an important issue but in my judgment the answer to it is clear and it can be dealt with quite shortly. The third issue is whether the plaintiffs, who receive free replacement cars, have suffered loss which is recoverable in the proceedings. This issue is raised by way of an alternative defence. Finally, in Devlin v Baslington the subsidiary issue arises whether a plaintiff who recovers damages in respect of the hire of a replacement car can recover interest on the sum in question.
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Are the agreements champertous?
Counsel on all sides were agreed that the question is whether the agreements are champertous and contrary to public policy. But it was clear that in argument the concept of public policy was used in different senses. Decisions governing disparate heads of public policy were sometimes cited without any allowance for material distinctions underlying the heads of public policy. It is wrong to proceed from the a priori assumption that the heads of public policy which may render contracts illegal all have common characteristics and consequences. There are material differences depending on the interests sought to be protected. The point can be illustrated quite simply. The criterion of public policy or public interest in the restraint of trade field is based on an economic view of the needs of society. Other contracts may be held illegal on the ground that they endanger fundamental moral values of our society, such as certain agreements in restraint of marriage. A third head of public policy serves to protect the integrity of institutions of government in the broad sense of the word. And the public policy which renders champertous agreements illegal clearly fall in this third category. It will be seen that this head of public policy rests on the perceived need to protect the integrity of public justice.
If there is a controversy about the scope of a legal rule, or of a head of public policy, a good starting point is to inquire into the historical origin of it. Legal history can help to illuminate the present law. In modern idiom maintenance is the support of litigation by a stranger without just cause. Champerty is an aggravated form of maintenance. The distinguishing feature of champerty is the support of litigation by a stranger in return for a share of the proceeds. The evolution of maintenance is rooted in mediaeval history. In Martell v Consett Iron Ltd [1955] 1 All ER 481, [1955] Ch 363 Danckwerts J stated that the English law of maintenance was the product of particular abuses which arose in the conditions of English mediaeval society. The judgment of Danckwerts J, which has long been regarded as the locus classicus in the field, contains a valuable review of the early reported case law. But it is in an article by Professor Winfield, the great Cambridge legal scholar, that a detailed explanation of the origin of maintenance and champerty is given: see ‘The history of maintenance and champerty’ (1919) 35 LQR 50. At the risk of oversimplifying the results of Professor Winfield’s research, it seems that one of the abuses which afflicted the administration of justice was the practice of assigning doubtful or fraudulent claims to royal officials, nobles or other persons of wealth and influence, who could in those times be expected to receive a very sympathetic hearing in the court proceedings. The agreement often was that the assignee would maintain the action at his own expense, and share the proceeds of a favourable outcome with the assignor. Often these disputes involved a claim to the possession of land, and the subsequent sharing of land if the action was successful. Two factors contributed to the growth of these abuses. First, detachment and disinterestedness was not the hallmark of the mediaeval judiciary. There was in truth no independent judiciary. Secondly, the civil justice system was not yet developed, and it was not capable of exposing abuses of legal procedure and giving effective redress. In these conditions a patchwork of statutes created the offences of maintenance and champerty as well as the torts of maintenance and champerty. And there was apparently a parallel common law development in respect of maintenance and champerty.
Gradually the conditions which led to the emergence of maintenance and champerty disappeared. Jeremy Bentham Works (Bowring (ed), 1843) vol 3, pp 19–20 argued:
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‘A mischief, in those times it seems but too common, though a mischief not to be cured by such laws, was, that a man would buy a weak claim, in hopes that power might convert it into a strong one, and that the sword of a baron, stalking into court with a rabble of retainers at his heels, might strike terror into the eyes of a judge upon the bench. At present, what cares an English judge for the swords of a hundred barons? Neither fearing nor hoping, hating nor loving, the judge of our days is ready with equal phlegm to administer, upon all occasions, that system, whatever it be, of justice or injustice, which the law has put into his hands.’
By the beginning of the nineteenth century England had an independent judiciary. What Edmund Burke called the cold neutrality of the impartial judge became the established convention. And after the great procedural reforms of the nineteenth century there was an effective civil justice system.
Nevertheless the offences and torts of maintenance and champerty lingered on in atrophied form for more than a century after any public interest in maintaining them had disappeared. On 25 October 1966 the Law Commission published Proposals for Reform of the Law relating to Maintenance and Champerty (Law Com no 7). The Law Commission observed that there were no records of any prosecution for maintenance and champerty for many years. As crimes maintenance and champerty were a dead letter. The Law Commission pointed out that in respect of the torts of maintenance and champerty the factor of damage was almost impossible of proof. The Law Commission concluded that the action for damages for maintenance was an ‘empty shell’. The Law Commission said that the ‘ancient and unused misdemeanours’ and the ‘virtually useless torts’ should be consigned to ‘the museum of legal history’. These recommendations resulted in the abolition of the offences and torts of maintenance and champerty by ss 13(1) and 14(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1967.
But the Law Commission also dealt with an issue germane to the present case, namely the illegality of champertous agreements. Under the heading ‘Public Policy and Champerty’ the report stated:
‘16. There is, however, one field in which that particular species of maintenance—champerty—plays an effective role. There is a substantial body of case law to the effect that champertous agreements (including in this context “contingency fee” agreements) are unlawful as contrary to public policy; see, e.g. Laurent v. Sale & Co ([1963] 2 All ER 63, [1963] 1 QB 232). This rule has an important bearing upon the practice of solicitors. For instance, section 65 of the Solicitors Act 1957 reflects the rule when it declares that nothing in the Act is to be treated as giving validity to “(a) any purchase by a solicitor of the interest, or any part of the interest, of his client in any action, suit or other contentious proceeding; or (b) an agreement by which a solicitor retained or employed to prosecute any action, suit or other contentious proceeding stipulates for payment only in the event of success in that action, suit or proceeding.” And it is clear that a client can apply pursuant to section 61 of the Act to set aside a champertous agreement made with his solicitor for the conduct of litigation.
17. This rule of public policy has many implications for solicitors. The following are important:—‘(i) “Contingency fee” agreements are unlawful: see, e.g. In re a Solicitor ([1912] 1 KB 302, [1911–13] All ER Rep 202). (ii) A solicitor cannot recover from professional indemnity insurers loss arising from his having entered into an agreement in fact champertous: Haseldine v. Hosken ([1933] 1 KB 822, [1933] All ER Rep 1). (iii) A solicitor who has made,
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or knowingly participates in the furtherance of, a champertous agreement is not entitled to enforce a claim for costs: re Trepca Mines Ltd (No. 2) ([1962] 3 All ER 351, [1963] Ch 199)—in which the earlier authorities are referred to. This aspect is important to an English solicitor asked to act for parties resident in a jurisdiction where litigation on a contingency fee basis is lawful—e.g. the United States of America or some of the Common Market countries. (iv) A solicitor who is conducting his client’s litigation on a champertous basis may find himself ordered by the court to pay the other side’s costs: Danzey v. Metropolitan Bank of England and Wales ((1912) 28 TLR 327).’
The report stated that the question whether solicitors should be permitted to enter into contingency fee agreements (involving payment to the solicitor of an agreed percentage of compensation recovered) required further study. The public policy condemning contingency fee agreements became a matter of public debate. But s 14(2) of the Criminal Law Act 1967 preserved the status quo. It provided:
‘The abolition of criminal and civil liability under the law of England and Wales for maintenance and champerty shall not affect any rule of that law as to the cases in which a contract is to be treated as contrary to public policy or otherwise illegal.’
The debate was, however, not closed.
In January 1989 Her Majesty’s government published a Green Paper on Contingency Fees (Cm 571). It announced that the government believed that it was appropriate to consider further alternative proposals, namely—(a) the introduction in England and Wales of speculative actions on the Scottish model, that is on a ‘no win, no fees’ basis; (b) the validation of agreements for an uplift in percentage terms in the costs, payable to encourage lawyers to undertake speculative actions, such uplift being unrelated to the amount of the damages or property recovered; (c) the validation of agreements allowing lawyers to recover small prescribed percentages of the amount of damages; (d) the validation of a restricted form of contingency fee going beyond (c) and approximating to the United States model of contingency fees. As a result of the consultation process the government abandoned proposals (c) and (d) but decided to proceed with proposals (a) and (b). In July 1989 the government published a White Paper on Legal Services: A Framework for the Future (Cm 740). It explained the government’s revised position as follows:
‘14.3 The Government accordingly proposes to remove the existing prohibitions to enable clients to agree with any or all of their lawyers payment of a conditional fee on the speculative basis already permitted in Scotland. This relaxation will not, however, extend to criminal and family (matrimonial, care, and wardship) proceedings which the Government believes are inappropriate for conditional funding.
14.4 The Government also accepts that it would be reasonable for a lawyer who represents a client on this basis to balance the risk of losing the case and ending up with no costs by charging at a higher rate than would have been appropriate but for the conditional factor. It therefore proposes that power be given to the Lord Chancellor to prescribe by subordinate legislation, after consultation with the profession, the maximum amount by which a lawyer’s costs can be increased when he is working for a conditional fee. That increase will be expressed as a moderate percentage of the normal costs. The
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legislation will recognise that different levels of increase may be appropriate for different classes of case. The lawyer and his client will be free to agree any lower percentage. The ability to agree this increased fee will not affect the amount to be paid by the losing opponent. There will be no change in the existing rule that costs should follow the event. The Lord Chancellor intends to consult further on the level of the prescribed percentage.’
These proposals led to the enactment of s 58 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990. It permits speculative actions in accordance with the Scottish practice. But it also renders enforceable, subject to certain conditions, a conditional fee agreement. Section 58(2) provides:
‘Where a conditional fee agreement provides for the amount of any fee to which it applies to be increased, in specified circumstances, above the amount which would be payable if it were not a conditional fee agreement, it shall specify the percentage by which that amount is to be increased.’
Section 58(5) provides that the Lord Chancellor will regulate the uplift by statutory instrument. To date no order has been made. An order may only be made after a process of consultation has been completed. The relevance of s 58 is that Parliament has, subject to the requirements of the section, empowered the Lord Chancellor to validate by order agreements for a percentage uplift in the costs in the event of success. The ability to recover fees beyond what was otherwise reasonable was intended to be ‘an incentive to lawyers to undertake speculative actions’. Such agreements were, and in the absence of an order still are, unlawful as being contrary to public policy. The rationale of the common law rule is that such agreements allowed the duty and interest of solicitors to conflict with a resultant risk of abuse of legal procedure. Section 58 evidences a proposed modification in relation to an important species of champerty. It represents at least a concession to the view that the abuses associated with champerty are not the inevitable result of all variants of contingency fee agreements. And there is, of course, no more cogent evidence of a change of public policy than the expression of the will of Parliament.
It will now be necessary to examine the scope of this head of public policy. From the classic judgment of Danckwerts J in Martell v Consett Iron Co Ltd [1954] 3 All ER 339, [1955] Ch 363 to the decision of the House of Lords in Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1981] 3 All ER 520, [1982] AC 679 the cases are harmonious on one point, namely that the purpose of this head of public policy is to protect the integrity of public civil justice. The specific fears underlying the doctrine were described by Lord Denning MR in Re Trepca Mines Ltd [1962] 3 All ER 351 at 355, [1963] Ch 199 at 219–220, as follows:
‘The reason why the common law condemns champerty is because of the abuses to which it may give rise. The common law fears that the champertous maintainer might be tempted, for his own personal gain, to inflame the damages, to suppress evidence, or even to suborn witnesses. These fears may be exaggerated; but, be that so or not, the law for centuries has declared champerty to be unlawful, and we cannot do otherwise than enforce the law; and I may observe that it has received statutory support, in the case of solicitors, in s. 65(1)(a) and (b) of the Solicitors Act, 1957.’
The doctrine of champerty evolved to protect from injustice not the maintained party but the other party, who will usually be the defendant but may be a plaintiff.
The head of public policy, which condemns champerty, has only done so in the context of civil litigation: see Grant v Thompson (1895) 72 LT 264, [1895–9] All ER
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Rep 1026, Savill Bros Ltd v Langman (1898) 79 LT 44 at 47–48, Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1981] 3 All ER 520 at 524, 530, [1982] AC 679 at 694, 702 and Picton Jones v Arcadia Developments Ltd [1989] 1 EGLR 43. It would involve a radical new step to extend the doctrine to private consensual arbitration. Yet the court is involved in the arbitral system inasmuch as the court’s coercive power to enforce awards is regularly invoked. While I need not express a firm view on the point, it seems that the boundaries of the doctrine may exclude arbitration and are drawn rather narrowly and possibly even anomalously.
The doctrine is further limited in application to the extent that it only applies to agreements governing English litigation: see Re Trepca Mines Ltd [1962] 3 All ER 351 at 354–355, [1963] Ch 199 at 218. An agreement of a champertous nature made in England is valid if it relates to litigation in a country where champerty is lawful. This illustrates that one is not dealing with an overriding public policy, which applies wherever the agreement is made or to be performed, such as an agreement to pay a bribe abroad. It is designed to protect the integrity of the English judicial system.
Contingency fee agreements are nowadays perhaps the most important species of champerty. Such agreements are still unlawful. Yet an English solicitor may share in a contingency fee earned in foreign litigation: see r 8 (contingency fees) of the Solicitors’ Practice Rules 1990. This reinforces the point that the doctrine of champerty serves to protect only the integrity of English public justice. It is based not on grounds of morality but on a concern to protect the administration of civil justice in this country.
The developments to which I have referred have not led to the withering away of champerty in so far as it affects the legality of agreements. On the other hand, the scope of the doctrine has been shrunk greatly. In Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1981] 3 All ER 520 at 530, [1982] AC 679 at 702 Lord Roskill explained:
‘My Lords, it is clear, when one looks at the cases on maintenance in this century and indeed towards the end of the last, that the courts have adopted an infinitely more liberal attitude towards the supporting of litigation by a third party than had previously been the case. One has only to read the classic judgment of Danckwerts J, affirmed by the Court of Appeal, in Martell v Consett Iron Company Ltd [1954] 3 All ER 339, [1955] Ch 363; [1955] 1 All ER 481, [1955] Ch 363 to see how this branch of the law has developed …’
In Martell v Consett Iron Co Ltd [1954] 3 All ER 339 at 347, [1955] Ch 363 at 382 Danckwerts J (as he then was) observed that ‘unless the law of maintenance is capable of keeping up with modern thought, it must die in a lingering and discredited old age’. In Hill v Archbold [1967] 3 All ER 110 at 114, [1968] 1 QB 686, at 697 Danckwerts LJ explained why that process of adaptation is possible:
‘... the law of maintenance depends on the question of public policy, and public policy ... is not a fixed and immutable matter. It is a conception which, if it has any sense at all, must be alterable by the passage of time.’
It is possible that a crystallised policy evolved in relation to contingency fees and the assignment of personal rights of action for tortious damage: see Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1980] 3 All ER 721 at 748–749, [1980] QB 629 at 663 per Oliver LJ. But generally, and certainly in novel situations, the question is whether on examination the agreement shares the distinctive characteristics of a champertous agreement, ie an agreement between the maintainer and the maintained for the division of the proceeds of the suit, and is contrary to public policy. In other words, the answer to the question whether the agreements
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between the car hire companies and the plaintiffs are legal depends, quite apart from justification, not exclusively on a crystallised and fixed rule of law. The present case may fall within what Viscount Haldane in Rodriguez v Speyer Bros [1919] AC 59 at 81, [1918–19] All ER Rep 884 at 895–896 described as ‘the intermediate class’, namely—
‘instances in which public policy has partially precipitated itself into recognised rules which belong to law properly so called, but where these rules have remained subject to the moulding influence of the real reasons of public policy from which they proceeded.’
Ultimately, it is necessary to consider the questions posed in this case in the light of contemporary public policy.
The correct approach is not to ask whether, in accordance with contemporary public policy, the agreement has in fact caused the corruption of public justice. The court must consider the tendency of the agreement. The question is whether the agreement has the tendency to corrupt public justice. And this question requires the closest attention to the nature and surrounding circumstances of a particular agreement. That is illustrated by the well-known decision of the House of Lords in Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1981] 3 All ER 520, [1982] AC 679. The House of Lords was prepared to accept that Crédit Suisse’s interest validated the cause of action. The real difficulty was created by the Swiss agreement, which contemplated Crédit Suisse selling the cause of action. That seemed to be speculation in litigation. Lord Wilberforce described the assignment to a third party with no commercial interest as ‘trafficking in litigation’ (see [1981] 3 All ER 520 at 524, [1982] AC 679 at 694). Lord Roskill, with whom three of their Lordships agreed, laid particular stress on the fact that the bank paid $800,000 for the claim and sold it for $1,100,000 to the third party. He emphasised the element of profiteering. Presumably, the reasoning was that the profiteering element increased the risk of the mischiefs which champerty seeks to prevent. The present case is, however, very different from Trendtex as will become clear in an examination of the distinctive features of the agreements between the car hire companies and the plaintiffs.
The question whether the agreements in the present case are unlawful as being contrary to public policy must now be directly addressed. On behalf of the car hire companies it was argued that they have a genuine commercial interest in the agreements which by itself would render the agreements, if otherwise held to be champertous, legal by reason of a valid justification or excuse. The relevant interest of the car hire companies is in recovering in the actions the car hire for the replacement cars which they provide. The difficulty is that the interest always arises from the very agreement which is alleged to be champertous. As a matter of established precedent it is in my judgment clear that an interest in order to qualify as a justification or excuse must arise independently of the alleged champertous agreement. That is how Oliver LJ approached the matter in Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1980] 3 All ER 721 at 752–753, [1980] QB 629 at 668–669. And on appeal Lord Roskill took the same view (see [1981] 3 All ER 520 at 531, [1982] AC 679 at 703); see also Martell v Consett Iron Co Ltd [1955] 1 All ER 481 at 498–499, [1955] Ch 363 at 415–416 per Jenkins LJ and Re Trepca Mines Ltd [1962] 3 All ER 351 at 359, [1963] Ch 199 at 225 per Pearson LJ. Conceptually, it also seems to me that, if the law was that the interest could be created by the very agreement which is challenged as champertous, the exception would swallow up the rule. I would therefore reject this particular way of answering the allegation of champerty.
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The real issue is not whether there is a justification or excuse but whether the agreement falls foul of the general principle rendering unlawful champertous agreements. The element of support by a stranger to the litigation is present: the car hire companies finance the litigation to which they are strangers. But in the classic champerty case the champertor by agreement shares in the proceeds of the litigation. Here the position is rather different. The car hire companies provide the replacement cars. In return the car hire companies receive the sum recovered in respect of the car hire. In economic terms the sums recovered represent the cost of the supply of the replacement cars and a profit element. The car hire companies do not receive money which in any real sense is due to the plaintiffs. It is therefore not a case in which the car hire companies share in the ‘spoils’ of litigation. On this ground alone this is a very different case from Trendtex. Indeed it is a novel case requiring close analysis. I would not decide the issue on this ground alone. But I regard this qualitative difference between the classic champertous agreement and the agreements in the present case as significant.
The question must now be posed whether the agreements have the tendency to corrupt public justice. Subornation of witnesses and dishonest inflation of claims is an ever present risk in litigation. Do these agreements have a tendency to corrupt public justice in this way? In my judgment they do not pose any special risk of this type. It is an essential part of the schemes that the car hire firms select only cases which they consider will probably succeed. A solicitor deposed that in 500 such cases in which he was instructed all succeeded. The schemes do not in my view create an incentive to corrupt public justice. Moreover, it is clear that in all cases where quantum is in issue the car hire agreements must be produced on discovery. It follows that the car hire rental can be critically examined by requests for further and better particulars, discovery, interrogatories, and cross-examination. Furthermore, between the car hire companies and the plaintiffs there are interposed, when litigation commences, independent solicitors and counsel. (This proposition apparently requires qualification in relation to very small claims where in-house lawyers of the car hire companies present the claim. The qualification is not relevant to the present case. Moreover this difference would not by itself affect my ultimate view of this case.) The solicitors and counsel are bound to act in accordance with their codes of professional conduct. Subject to their duties to the court, they must at all times act in the interests of the plaintiffs. Cumulatively, these factors tend to show that the agreements do not have the tendency to corrupt public justice.
A common feature of the submissions of counsel for the insurance companies was the complaint that often their clients only become aware of the involvement of the car hire company when discovery takes place. I think that this point was exaggerated. But, if there is merit in it, the point can be considered by the County Court Rules Committee, which would have the power to require particulars of claim to give details of any relevant car hire agreement and to annex the agreement. That would not be very different from the extra particularity required in mortgage actions. But the point cannot help to show that the agreements are contrary to public policy.
Counsel for the insurance companies urged on us a large number of features of the scheme which they described as undesirable in the interests of the plaintiffs. At times the analysis appeared to get lost in particulars. But I will do my best to deal with the points which counsel regarded as particularly important. They suggested that under the contractual arrangements the plaintiffs had a residual liability in respect of the car hire charges. Since that was not an issue in any of the cases it is not necessary or even desirable to express a final view on the point. I
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would, however, be surprised if such a claim by the car hire company, if open on the contractual terms, could not in most cases be defeated by a plea of rectification, collateral agreement or an estoppel. Similarly counsel on behalf of the insurance companies pointed out that the agreements do not spell out who, as between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies, would be responsible for the disbursements and costs of the plaintiffs’ solicitors if the actions fail. Again, this was not an issue in any of the cases. I regard it as far from clear, as between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies, or even between the plaintiffs and the solicitors in the event of the insolvency of the car hire company, that the plaintiffs would be held liable for those disbursements and costs. But on behalf of the insurance companies counsel also pointed out that the agreements contain no express provision dealing with the defendants’ costs in the event of the actions failing. That may conceivably expose the plaintiffs to a risk of the defendants obtaining costs orders against them, and if the car hire companies become insolvent the plaintiffs may have no effective right of redress. That seems right. Counsel for the insurance companies argued that the plaintiffs are ‘locked in’ to solicitors who were selected by the car hire firms. They conceded, however, that plaintiffs may always revoke their solicitors’ authority. If that happens the plaintiffs may have to pay the car hire charges but the plaintiffs ought then to be able to recover those items of loss if the actions succeed. Counsel for the insurance companies also argued that the activities of the car hire companies are entirely unregulated by statute, and contrasted the regulatory framework of s 58(1) of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990. It is not correct to say that the ‘free car hire’ schemes fall beyond the scope of statutory regulation. I can see no valid reason why the business practices of the car hire companies should in principle be immune from references under Pt II of the Fair Trading Act 1973.
Let me assume that there are features of the agreements which are undesirable in as much as the plaintiffs’ interests are not sufficiently protected. About all these matters a fair amount of hyperbole was deployed by counsel for the insurance companies. And when counsel for the insurance companies dwelt on the risks of the plaintiffs being undercompensated that was more than a mere curiosity. It was an argument, seductively presented, which was calculated to divert the judicial eye from following the ball. In my view the features relied on could not individually or collectively establish any head of public policy of which courts of law are entitled to take note. It is worth exploring what may amount to a head of public policy. The private notions of judges as to what is good or inexpedient policy are irrelevant. Still less is it relevant what judges consider the policy in an ideal community should be. A great deal more cogent material is required to establish a head of public policy. No all-embracing definition is possible but a distinguished Australian judge gave as useful guidance as is attainable in this intractable field. In Wilkinson v Osborne (1915) 21 CLR 89 at 97 Isaacs J said:
‘In my opinion, the “public policy” which a Court is entitled to apply as a test of validity to a contract is in relation to some definite and governing principle which the community as a whole has already adopted either formally by law or tacitly by its general course of corporate life, and which the Courts of the country can therefore recognize and enforce. The Court is not a legislator: it cannot initiate the principle; it can only state or formulate it if it already exists. The rule of law as to contracts against public policy is constant—namely, that every bargain contrary to such a social governing
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principle is regarded as prejudicial to the State ... and the State by its tribunals refuses to enforce it.’
But in the present case I would go further. The relevant head of public policy exists to protect public justice and courts have always focused on the protection of the party confronted with maintained litigation: Wild v Simpson [1919] 2 KB 544 at 563, [1918–19] All ER Rep 682 at 691. In the context of the present cases that head of public policy does not exist to protect the plaintiffs. It exists to protect the interests of the defendants. The undesirable features which are alleged to operate against the interests of plaintiffs are outside the scope of the existing head of public policy which condemns champerty. And we cannot now be asked to arrest the modern shift towards liberalisation of this head of public policy, and to extend it or to invent a new one. In any event, judged on their merits, none of the features put forward on behalf of the insurance companies are in my view sufficient to tilt the balance in this case.
It is right also to take into account factors militating against the striking down of the agreements. Our law recognises individual liberty as an important value. In our European democracy it is the first imperative of enlightened government in the broad sense that individual liberty ought not to be constrained unless there are clear, present and compelling reasons to do so in the interests of the collective welfare. If we strike down the agreements we would be interfering with the liberty of action of the individual users and potential users of the free car hire schemes. A ruling that the agreements are contrary to public policy may deprive thousands of individuals who have meritorious claims from effective access to civil justice and from hiring replacement cars when they reasonably need to do so. In my judgment the relevant head of public policy does not compel such a result.
In argument counsel for the insurance companies repeatedly said that the court was being asked to place its stamp of approval on the agreements. I do not assent to that way of approaching the matter. The schemes may conceivably call for further statutory regulation but that is a policy matter for others to consider. But I am persuaded that the agreements are not champertous and illegal. While the words ‘or otherwise illegal’ which appear in s 14(2) of the Criminal Law Act 1967 found a refrain in skeleton arguments, counsel for the insurance companies presented no argument at the oral hearing that the agreements could be illegal for any other reason. In my judgment the agreements are legal.
If the agreements are champertous, does that afford a defence?
If it is assumed, contrary to my conclusion, that the agreements are champertous, the question arises whether this fact affords a defence to the claim of the plaintiffs. During oral argument it became clear that the governing principle was not in dispute. It decrees that, if the champertous agreement forms part of a plaintiff’s cause of action, the defendant can raise champerty as a defence. Thus, if the plaintiff is a mere assignee of the claim sued on, and the assignment is a part of a champertous bargain with the assignor, the defendant can raise champerty as a defence: Laurent v Sale & Co (a firm) [1963] 2 All ER 63, [1963] 1 WLR 829. On the other hand, if the champertous agreement does not form part of the plaintiff’s cause of action, but is merely linked with it in a collateral sense, champerty cannot be pleaded as a defence to the action: see Wild v Simpson [1919] 2 KB 544 at 563–564, [1918–19] All ER Rep 682 at 692, Skelton v Baxter [1916] 1 KB 321 at 326, Martell v Consett Iron Co Ltd [1955] 1 All ER 481 at 502, 506–507, [1955] Ch 363 at 421, 428–429 and Re Trepca Mines Ltd [1962] 3 All ER
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351 at 362–363, [1963] Ch 199 at 231. So far the propositions of law relevant to this issue are common ground.
The critical question is therefore whether the agreements between the car hire companies and the plaintiffs form part of the plaintiffs’ cause of action. What is a cause of action? In Read v Brown (1889) 22 QBD 128 at 131 Lord Esher MR explained that a cause of action is—
‘every fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if traversed, in order to support his right to the judgment of the Court. It does not comprise every piece of evidence which is necessary to prove each fact, but every fact which is necessary to be proved.’
See also Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929 at 934–935, [1965] 1 QB 232 at 242–243.
On behalf of the insurance companies it was not submitted that the concept of a cause of action bears a different meaning in the present context. Certainly no attempt was made to define any alternative meaning of a cause of action. In my view it bears the meaning assigned to it in Read v Brown.
The law must now be applied to the facts. The plaintiffs did not assign their claims, or any part of their claims, to the car hire companies. The plaintiffs claim compensation for damage to their cars arising from motor car accidents. Subject to the ‘no loss’ issue, the plaintiffs have valid causes of action to recover damages for personal injuries and for loss incurred in hiring replacement cars while their cars were being repaired. It is common ground that the plaintiffs’ solicitors had the necessary authority to bring the actions. The actions were validly constituted. If the agreements were a necessary element of the plaintiffs’ causes of action, the particulars of claim ought to have alleged that fact. The particulars of claim contain no such allegations. It was not necessary to make such allegations. It is plain that the agreements do not constitute a necessary element in the plaintiffs’ cause of action in the relevant sense as explained in Read v Brown. The highest that it can be put is that the agreements are evidence on which the plaintiffs will have to rely to prove the car hire charges. That is not enough to enable the insurance companies to cause the alleged champertous nature of the agreements to be put forward as defences in the actions. That in my judgment is the simple and obvious answer to the champerty defence.
For this further reason I conclude that the defence of champerty must fail.
The no loss issue
Two issues arose under this heading. (a) Did the plaintiffs have a reasonable need for replacement cars during the period while their cars were repaired? (b) If so, did the plaintiffs avoid their prima facie loss by virtue of accepting free replacement cars? For my part I readily accept that a plaintiff must show a reasonable need for a replacement car in order to recover special damages. If it turns out that a plaintiff hired the car for a period when he always intended to be abroad, and was abroad, leaving the car idle in his garage, he will not be able to recover special damages for the hire for that period. It is therefore right to say that a plaintiff must show a reasonable need for a replacement car. On the other hand, it seems to me that in the cases under consideration, where the plaintiffs owned cars which were damaged and therefore unavailable, the burden of showing reasonable need is relatively easily discharged. The need must be assessed in the light of the fact that the particular plaintiff previously had a car available, which was during the repair period not available. It is clearly not necessary in such a case to prove that it was essential for a plaintiff to hire a replacement car. It is sufficient to show that he acted reasonably. And he will be assisted by the commonsense
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inference that a person who regularly uses a car, which is then damaged, does not act unreasonably in hiring a car of the same type for the period during which he is deprived of his own car.
Issue (a) does not arise in Giles v Thompson. It does arise in Devlin v Baslington. I am satisfied that the plaintiff established a reasonable need for a replacement car during the relevant period. In Sanders v Templer the point arises on an application to strike out the relevant part of the defence. This involves an issue of pure fact. If the plaintiff’s case about the use of the replacement car is established, it is difficult to see how the defendant can avoid a ruling that the plaintiff reasonably needed the car. Bearing in mind, however, that this involves an application to strike out, I would accept that it would be wrong to rule against the defendant on this issue of fact.
That brings me to issue (b). On behalf of the insurance companies the argument is that, although as a matter of law the plaintiffs sustained a prima facie loss, they successfully mitigated or avoided their loss by entering into agreements for free car hire. This point arises in all three appeals. It does not seem to me that this case calls for a review of the circumstances in which a plaintiff who suffered a prima facie loss has to give credit for benefits received. In my judgment it turns on its own special facts. There are three parties involved. If the plaintiffs recover damages in respect of replacement car hire charges it will be on the basis that these charges were reasonably incurred and were reasonable as to amount. The fact that the plaintiffs will have to pay that part of the damages to the car hire companies ought not to make a difference: see Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, [1974] QB 454 and McAll v Brooks [1984] RTR 99. The car hire companies will simply be compensated in circumstances where the charges were reasonably incurred, and were reasonable as to amount. The insurance companies would enjoy a windfall if the law compelled the court to rule that the plaintiffs had suffered no loss because they had fully mitigated or avoided their loss. It would be surprising if the common law compelled such an unreasonable result. In my view the insurance companies’ submission is unsound.
Interest
This ground of appeal only arises in Devlin v Baslington. Mr Goldblatt QC submitted on behalf of the insurance company that the judge erred in awarding interest on the car hire part of the damages. He said that in circumstances where the plaintiff had not lost any money as a result of the defendant’s failure to pay damages earlier, no award of interest should have been made earlier. In a lucid and incisive speech Mr Platts persuaded me that this approach is wrong. The plaintiff’s loss was incurred when she was deprived of the use of her car after the accident. It became a head of special damages when she hired a car. Given that she was entitled to recover the rental for the replacement car, as I have held, she has been kept out of her money. Rightly, Mr Platts emphasised that if the court hearing had taken place the day after the car hire ended, the claim for special damages in respect of car hire charges would have been exactly the same as it was at the date of trial. It follows therefore that the plaintiff was kept out of her money. And that is the principle upon which interest ought to be awarded: see Jefford v Gee [1970] 1 All ER 1202 at 1207–1208, [1970] 2 QB 130 at 145–146. I would therefore reject this ground of appeal.
Conclusion
Subject to the observations of counsel on the form of the orders to be made, I would propose the following orders: (a) in Sanders v Templer (i) the appeal is
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allowed, (ii) the order made by Judge Hugh Jones on 10 March 1992 is set aside and (iii) para 4 of the defence dated 30 October 1991 is struck out; (b) in Giles v Thompson the appeal is dismissed; and (c) in Devlin v Baslington (i) leave to appeal out of time is granted and (ii) the appeal is dismissed.
RALPH GIBSON LJ. Steyn LJ has given an account of the three cases under appeal and of the issues in them. I agree with the orders which he has proposed. I agree that the ground of appeal in Devlin v Baslington upon the issue of interest on the award of damages in respect of the car hire fails for the reasons given by Steyn LJ.
The submissions made by Mr Glasgow QC in Giles v Thompson were applicable on the main issues to all these cases and were in summary, as follows. (i) The case must be seen as one example of a new or recent phenomenon which has been described as ‘free car hire’ or ‘credit hire’. The relevant characteristics of the circumstances in which the agreements in all such cases are made, and of the agreements themselves, are: (a) the car hire company satisfies itself that the plaintiff will be able to show that he was not in any way to blame for the accident, and that the defendant who was to blame for the accident is insured; (b) the car hire company then offers ‘free car hire’, ie it makes no charge against the plaintiff but sets out to recover ‘the cost’ by making a claim in the plaintiff’s name; and (c) the contract, therefore, provides that the car hire company may bring the action for damages, including its charges, in the plaintiff’s name, that it may appoint its own solicitors to pursue the action, that the plaintiff must co-operate in the action and that, so long as he does, he will not be charged for the hire. (ii) The hire agreement is champertous under English law because the object and effect of the agreement were to give to the car hire company control over an action and a financial interest in its outcome. The interest of the car hire company is not legitimate, such as to justify the role of the company in the litigation, because it did not exist before the agreement was made but was created by the agreement itself. (iii) The basis of the rule of public policy against champertous agreements, ie agreements by which the person maintaining the legal proceedings of another stipulates for a share of the proceeds, is because of the abuses to which such an agreement may give rise, such as the inflaming of damages, the suppression of evidence, or the suborning of witnesses. It matters not whether any such abuse has in fact occurred. (iv) Since the car hire agreement is champertous and, as such, contrary to public policy and illegal, the claim for recovery for hire charges is itself tainted by champerty and the court should, on grounds of public policy, refuse to enforce the claim. (v) Further, since the plaintiff was never liable to pay the hire charges he has suffered no loss or no relevant loss.
‘No loss’
The first question for decision, as it seems to me, is whether the contention of ‘no loss’ is correct. If any plaintiff who has taken a car on hire under the terms of one of these agreements has suffered no recoverable loss then the other issues about maintenance and champerty, and whether the making of such a champertous agreement provides a defence to an action for compensation for negligent damage to the plaintiff’s car, do not arise. In my judgment the argument fails.
The plaintiff claims damages for the wrong done to her by the negligent damage to her motor car. She is entitled to damages measured by the cost of replacing her motor car if it was reasonable to hire a replacement while her car was repaired and for as long as was reasonably necessary and at reasonable
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charges. To that extent, the hire charges under the hiring agreement may be taken as a fair and accurate indication of the cost of replacement because the plaintiff gave consideration for the supply to her of the replacement car on those terms by her entry into the agreement. I do not regard it as decisive that there was, as I think, a residual liability upon the plaintiff under the terms of the agreement, as the judge found in Giles v Thompson, in that she would be liable to the car hire company if she failed to comply with her promise to co-operate by, for example, failing, if necessary, to attend court to give evidence in support of her claim against the defendant. There was not, therefore, free hire but it was credit hire. The fact that the plaintiff had not paid to the car hire company the amount of the hire charges is no more fatal to her claim against the defendant than would be that fact if she had obtained the replacement car on ordinary commercial terms from a car hire company which had been persuaded to provide a car on credit, with or without security.
Whether champerty a defence?
The next issue is whether, assuming the plaintiff to have a valid claim to the proper amount in respect of the hiring charges for the replacement car, the fact that the hiring agreement is held to be champertous would afford a defence to the defendants.
Two main arguments were advanced for the defendants. Firstly, it was said that the plaintiff is seeking to enforce a claim which depends upon a champertous agreement, and, secondly, that it is offensive to public policy to assist the champertor in achieving her object: reference was made to Haseldine v Hosken [1933] 1 KB 822, [1933] All ER 1, Laurent v Sale & Co (a firm) [1963] 2 All ER 63, [1963] 1 QB 232 and Re Trepca Mines Ltd [1962] 3 All ER 351, [1963] Ch 199.
Full submissions for the plaintiff on this point were put forward by Miss Heilbron QC. It was acknowledged that if, as in Laurent v Sale & Co, the plaintiff must rely upon the champertous agreement to prove her title to sue, then the defendant will have a defence if the agreement is void; but it was argued that, if the plaintiff has a good cause of action against the defendant otherwise than under the agreement, the fact that the plaintiff is maintained under the champertous agreement affords no defence to the claim, and the same principle applies in reverse in respect of a defendant who is improperly maintained in defending an action: reliance was placed upon authorities including Elborough v Ayres (1870) LR 10 Eq 367, Skelton v Baxter [1916] 1 KB 321, Martell v Consett Iron Co [1955] 1 All ER 481 at 502–503, 505–506, [1955] Ch 363 at 422, 427 and Re Trepca Mines Ltd [1962] 3 All ER 351 at 362–363, [1963] Ch 199 at 231 per Pearson LJ. For my part, I accept this argument, subject to one matter mentioned below, and it follows, as Miss Heilbron submitted, that a defendant has no remedy against an improperly maintained plaintiff unless the plaintiff has to rely upon the illegal agreement to found her action. The court, however, has power to order that a person not a party to the action should pay costs: see Singh v Observer Ltd [1989] 2 All ER 751.
The matter to be mentioned arises when, as in this case, the plaintiff has not paid the sum in issue in the sense that she claims damages for loss of use of her car but has not paid the hire charges for the replacement. If the hire charges arise under a void contract, which the car hire company could not enforce against the plaintiff, can the plaintiff recover the damages against the defendant although not in law bound to pass them on to the car hire company? If I am right on the remaining issue, in holding that the car hire agreement was in fact not champertous, there is no need to decide whether the plaintiff could recover if it
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was. It is my view, however, that the plaintiff could in law recover on that assumption on the ground that if the plaintiff has a valid cause of action, the law is not concerned with what she will do, or can be required to do, with the sum recovered: McAll v Brooks [1984] RTR 99.
Maintenance and champerty
The remaining question is whether the car hire agreements are illegal or void on the ground of maintenance or champerty. For the reasons which follow, in none of the cases before the court has the defendant, in my judgment, made out any basis upon which the hire agreement should be held to be illegal or void.
Oliver LJ in Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1980] 3 All ER 721 at 749, [1980] QB 629 at 663 said:
‘[Maintenance] may be defined as the rendering by one person, improperly, of assistance to another in prosecuting or defending proceedings in which the person so rendering assistance has no legitimate interest. Champerty was merely an aggravated form of maintenance and was constituted by an agreement between the maintainer and the maintained for the division of the proceeds of the suit.’
It is clear that that which might serve as sufficient interest to cause the mere rendering of assistance to be legitimate may well not be sufficient when there is agreement for the division of the proceeds.
So far as concerns maintenance there is, in my judgment, no good reason for this court to condemn the role of the car hire company, in the pursuit of the plaintiff’s action, as improper on the ground that the company has no legitimate interest in the action or on any other ground. I accept that, as was submitted for the plaintiffs, the nature of the relationship between the car hire company and the plaintiff for this purpose may be described in the following terms. The plaintiff, having lost the use of her own car through the apparent fault of the defendant, wishes to hire a replacement car from the company because the company is willing to provide the car on credit and, so far as provided by the agreement, on the security of the plaintiff’s claim against the defendant. In the Trendtex case [1981] 3 All ER 520, [1982] AC 679 Trendtex owed money to Crédit Suisse and had difficulty in financing the litigation necessary to recover damages from the Central Bank of Nigeria (CBN) from which to repay Crédit Suisse. It was seen as perfectly legitimate by the House of Lords for Crédit Suisse to guarantee the costs of Trendtex in the CBN case, to take an assignment of all Trendtex’s claims against CBN until the claims of Crédit Suisse were covered, and to be given power to bring actions in the name of Trendtex.
The fact that, in these cases, the interest of the car hire company did not exist before the agreement was made, does not, I think, require the court to hold that the interest is not ‘legitimate’. The creation of the interest was contemporaneous with the taking of control over the action, to the extent provided by the hire agreement, because the need for the replacement car was created by the defendant’s fault in damaging the plaintiff’s car; but that fact should not be decisive. The legitimacy of the interest in the litigation for this purpose may, in my judgment, properly be tested by seeing whether the interest is genuine in the sense that it is the outcome of a commercial or financial relationship sufficiently independent of the litigation and the contemplated proceeds of the litigation, such as a debt due in consideration of the supply of goods or services. The supply of the car in each of these cases was a genuine commercial relationship and, despite the connection with the litigation arising from the fact that the plaintiff’s
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claim against the defendant constituted the plaintiff’s credit, was, in my judgment, sufficiently independent of the litigation. The law has no reason to deny to the plaintiff the ability to use in this way her right of action against the defendant, which right may be her only immediately available form of credit.
Next, as to champerty, the decisions of this court in Re Trepca Mines Ltd and Laurent v Sale & Co were applied by the House of Lords in Trendtex as sound in law. In Trendtex, by the agreement of 4 January 1978 Crédit Suisse, who had been given a security interest in the litigation of Trendtex against CBN by earlier agreements, obtained a surrender of Trendtex’s residual interest. Crédit Suisse, of course, as mentioned above, had obtained the power to bring proceedings either in the name of Trendtex or in its own name. The agreement of 4 January 1978 was held to be champertous, in so far as concerned any assignment of the cause of action purported to be made thereby, because of the introduction of the third party, that is to say it appeared—
‘from the face of the agreement not as an obligation, but as a contemplated possibility, that the cause of action against CBN might be sold by Crédit Suisse to a third party, for a sum of $800,000. This manifestly involved the possibility, and indeed the likelihood of a profit being made, either by the third party or possibly also by Crédit Suisse, out of the cause of action ... this manifestly “savours of champerty”, since it involves trafficking in litigation, a type of transaction which, under English law, is contrary to public policy.’ (See [1981] 3 All ER 520 at 524, [1982] AC 679 at 694 per Lord Wilberforce.)
In Re Trepca Mines Ltd [1962] 3 All ER 351 at 355, [1963] Ch 199 at 216 the relevant characteristics of the agreement there held to be clearly champertous were, I think, the fact that the claim of Mr Pasic in the liquidation to a sum of £2·6m was described as of ‘the most shadowy nature’ and, seeking to appeal the rejection of his claim, Mr Pasic agreed that Mr Teyssou should alone have the right to conduct the proceedings and to have 25% of any sums recovered in return for the provision by him of £4,000 as the costs of Mr Pearlman, the English solicitor instructed to conduct the appeal. It was in that case that the explanation for the condemnation by the common law of champerty was stated to be because of the abuse to which it may give rise:
‘The common law fears that the champertous maintainer might be tempted, for his own personal gain, to inflame the damages, to suppress evidence, or even to suborn witnesses. These fears may be exaggerated; but, be that so or not, the law for centuries has declared champerty to be unlawful, and we cannot do otherwise than enforce the law ...’ (See [1962] 3 All ER 351 at 355, [1963] Ch 199 at 219–220 per Lord Denning MR.)
Next, in Laurent v Sale & Co (a firm) [1963] 2 All ER 63, [1963] 1 QB 232 there was an assignment to Laurent of debts due from a finance house in the knowledge and with the intention that legal proceedings would be necessary to recover the sum said to be due and, as it was the intention of Laurent to conduct such litigation at his own risk and expense, paying for the benefit that he would get if he succeeded a proportion of the amount he in fact recovered, the assignment was held by Megaw J to be champertous.
In my judgment we are not constrained by authority to hold that the car hire agreements in these cases were champertous or illegal or contrary to public policy. The assignment by Trendtex of their English cause of action to Crédit Suisse was held to be void under English law because of the purpose for which the assignment was made, namely that a profit was to be made out of the cause of
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action of Trendtex against CBN by Crédit Suisse upon their assignment to the unnamed third party and/or by that third party on the compromise of the action against CBN. If that was not the purpose it was nevertheless contemplated by the parties as the likely outcome. It was that dealing in the cause of action for profit which was called ‘trafficking in litigation’. There is no such purpose or likelihood proved in any of these cases.
The car hire company lets its cars out to the plaintiffs for profit but the profit is to be made out of the hiring charges and not out of trafficking in the plaintiffs' causes of action. The car hire company will recover at most the hire charges, plus any interest properly allowed, subject to proof that the amount of the charges and period of hire were reasonable. It was never suggested, and could not I think have been suggested, that the intended profit element in the interest charges made by Crédit Suisse against Trendtex in the financial assistance provided, and included in the amounts for which security was taken by Crédit Suisse over the proceeds of Trendtex’s cause of action, would alone have caused Crédit Suisse to be trafficking in litigation.
The submissions for the defendants included reference to some aspects of these cases, which submissions were designed to demonstrate that the risk of abuse by car hire firms under such agreements is sufficiently grave to cause the court to hold the agreements to be champertous. It was not alleged that the persons concerned for the car hire companies in these cases, or their solicitors, have in fact acted improperly in any way although there may have been inaccuracies and some breaches of the rules of the county court. The matters referred to were, in my judgment, properly drawn to the court’s attention and do provide some grounds for concern. They were, however, not such as to require or justify acceptance by the court of the main contentions put forward for the defendants.
Complaint was made, in effect, that there will be an unwarranted increase in litigation and in the costs of disposing of accidental damage to motor cars. I have no doubt that the making available of car hire on the terms of these agreements has the tendency to cause more motorists whose cars have been damaged, to hire replacement cars; and to cause such motorists to be unconcerned, or less concerned, at the cost of such hire; and to cause proceedings for the recovery of the hire charges, together with any other claims which are joined therewith in a particular case, to be commenced more readily than might otherwise have happened. The insurers, who are responsible for any damages awarded against the defendants, are reasonably concerned at those consequences and there is occasion for some public concern as well. It is not, in my view, in the public interest that the handling of claims for compensation for negligent damage to property should be increased by the addition of unnecessary and avoidable legal costs: such additional costs must be borne by the premiums of all motorists who will pay for the perceived risk of such extra costs.
Next, it was said that those acting for defendants are put in difficulty in recognising cases where the claim in respect of loss of use and for replacement charges is a ‘credit hire’ case. If it is such a case it is more likely, in the view of the defendants’ insurers, that the plaintiff did not really ‘need’ to hire a replacement car and it would thus be more worthwhile to risk costs in putting the plaintiff to proof; but the ordinary form of the particulars of claim in such proceedings is not required to reveal the full terms of the hiring agreement and whether the plaintiff has in fact paid any part of the charges.
It was further submitted on behalf of the defendants that any plaintiff is, under the type of agreement in question, exposed to risks of different sorts. For example, the car hire firm is given control over the plaintiff’s litigation, which
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may include other claims, such as the plaintiff’s uninsured loss in respect of the cost of repairs to her car and personal injury to the plaintiff. The car hire company may be tempted to prefer the advancement of the claim in which the company alone is interested and may be put in a position where the company’s interest will conflict with that of the plaintiff, for example if a payment into court, or an offer of settlement is made, in respect of the different causes of action. Further, the plaintiff is exposed to risk in costs if the action should unexpectedly fail and if the car hire company should be insolvent. The agreements, moreover, do not expressly impose upon the car hire company an obligation to pay all costs incurred.
I have not listed every point made. I have given, I think, a sufficient indication of the nature of the argument. In my judgment it does not assist the defendants. Firstly, the argument is based on what appears to me to be a misconception. In Re Trepca Mines Ltd Lord Denning MR did not say that whenever there is ground for the common law to fear that a person interested in litigation may inflame the damages, or suppress evidence, or suborn witnesses, the court may more readily find maintenance or champerty. Lord Denning MR said that the explanation for the ancient law of maintenance and champerty, which the court was bound to enforce in its present terms, was because of the abuses to which champerty may give rise. The law is alive to the risk of abuses of the kind cited by Lord Denning MR, in all forms of litigation, with or without maintenance, and the existence of a genuine and legitimate interest, which may justify the giving of assistance by a person to another in prosecuting or defending proceedings, does not remove the risk of abuse. It means that, in the interests of justice, the risk must be endured and combated as in all litigation. One of the ways of combating that risk is, of course, by the imposition, and I add in general the willing acceptance, of rules regulating the conduct of solicitors and barristers. Nothing was said in Re Trepca Mines Ltd, or in Trendtex, or in any other case cited to us, to the effect that it is open to the court because of the risk of abuse to develop the concept of maintenance and champerty by narrowing the type of interest which the law regards as justifying maintenance by one man of another’s action; and, on the contrary, Oliver LJ spoke in Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1980] 3 All ER 721 at 749, [1980] QB 629 at 664 of the two visible streams of development in the law:
‘… first, the extension of the type of interest which the law regards as justifying the maintenance by one man of another’s action and, second, the broadening of the category of interests which are treated by the law as capable of assignment ...’
Next, the court has, I think, no power to extend the concept of unlawful contracts, which the law must decline to enforce, simply by reference to some commercial development in which the court can perceive undesirable or unfortunate features. The increase in the litigation of claims for loss of use, and of the cost of settling damage claims, may reasonably be seen as objectionable by the insurers of the defendants but they may be seen as justifiable, and indeed welcome, by the car hire companies and their customers. Action with reference to such matters, which requires a judgment upon the competing interests of different parts of the community, is a matter for legislation and not creative invention by the court. The concept of public policy upon which the court may act is, in my judgment, the concept of some principle upon which the court can say that all right-thinking members of the community would be agreed.
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Further, the concern of the common law which led to the formulation of the rules of maintenance and champerty was directed to the protection of the administration of justice and not to the protection of the customer of a trading company with reference to the terms of trading. Apart from the ordinary rules of contract, legislation has been directed to the concept of consumer protection, eg in Pt II of the Fair Trading Act 1973 and in Pt III of the Consumer Protection Act 1987. The concept of maintenance and champerty is, in my judgment, not apt to be developed for the purposes of the protection of the customer of a car hire company with reference to the terms of the contract for the hiring of a car. The customer may, of course, expect to receive from the court all such protection as has always been given by means of the strict construction of the terms of standard contracts against the party who has prepared the document and put it forward for acceptance. I see no ground, however, in any of the matters put forward with reference to the risks of prejudice to the hirer from the car hire agreement to justify this court in holding that the car hire company had no legitimate interest in the plaintiff’s action or that the taking of the interest obtained by the car hire company amounted to trafficking in litigation.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgments prepared by Steyn and Ralph Gibson LJJ. I am in complete agreement with these, and with the orders proposed. I add some general observations of my own because the issues raised in these appeals are of more than ordinarily far-reaching public importance, and also because of the diversity of judicial opinion which the issues have up to now provoked.
The defendants in these three actions are all admittedly liable to the plaintiffs for damage caused to the plaintiffs by the defendants’ negligent driving. To be recoverable, damages must satisfy the familiar rules governing causation and remoteness in negligence actions. Such damages will ordinarily include compensation for personal injuries, loss of earnings and the reasonable cost of repairs to the plaintiff’s car (or the uninsured excess payable by the insured). It is a common feature of such actions that the plaintiff’s car is unavailable for his use during a period when it is awaiting and undergoing repairs. The cost of hiring a substitute car for use during such a period is in principle a legitimate component of such a claim, provided only that the plaintiff acted reasonably in hiring the substitute car which he did and incurred no more than reasonable charges in doing so.
In the past, claims by plaintiffs for the cost of hiring a substitute car have featured in such actions relatively infrequently, no doubt because plaintiffs hired substitute cars relatively infrequently. This is understandable. Many car-owners can, at a pinch and at the price of some inconvenience, manage without a car for a limited period; and many owners will be reluctant to incur substantial immediate liabilities to car hire companies when they do not know whether, or when, or to what extent they will be able to recoup their outlay from the other driver and his insurers. The result has probably been that innocent owners have chosen to forgo claims which they could have sustained for the cost of hiring substitute cars, and the insurers of drivers responsible for causing collision damage have escaped liability for claims which, if advanced, they would have had to meet.
This situation gave rise to a commercial opportunity which car hire companies such as those involved in these appeals recognised and exploited. They did so by making substitute cars available to injured owners while their own cars were off the road on terms that the owners would not have to pay the hiring charges until
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recovery, or the conclusion of any claim, against the insurers of the guilty driver. The three schemes involved in these appeals are substantially the same and have been described in detail by Steyn LJ. It is plain that the commercial risks inherent in the schemes were acceptable to the car hire companies only on the basis (a) that they could be fairly sure of accepting as customers only innocent parties, whose claims could not be effectively challenged on liability, and (b) that the guilty drivers were insured. On this basis, and subject to any issue of reasonableness or quantum, the car hire companies could be sure that their customers’ claims could be successfully pressed home against the insurers of the guilty driver in the end, by action if no acceptable offer were forthcoming. As compared with an ordinary hire contract, the car hire companies would have to wait longer to be paid but could be reasonably sure of ultimate recovery against a solvent debtor. The innocent owner would gain the use of a substitute car without cost and without risk, provided that he co-operated with the car hire company in any action to recover the charges and provided (as on the evidence it seems to me safe to assume) the car hire companies did not look to him if, contrary to their expectation, the claim was successfully resisted. The losers in the short term would be the insurers of the guilty driver, who would have to meet claims which, but for the intervention of the car hire companies, would not in many cases have been advanced. But this must, as counsel correctly suggested, be regarded as a short term effect, since in the longer term premiums would inevitably be raised to meet the increased level of claims. What is economically beneficial to the car hire companies, and also to owners who, but for the credit offered by the car hire companies, would be unable or unwilling to hire substitute cars and claim for the cost, is economically disadvantageous to the general body of insured drivers, which must bear the cost of increased premiums.
The first major issue argued in this court was whether (as counsel for the insurance companies argued) the agreements between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies were champertous, contrary to public policy and unlawful. Much of the background to this issue is, I think, clear. Champerty is an aggravated form of maintenance. Both of these evolved, with forgery, perjury and embracery, as offences which aimed at perversion of the machinery of justice (Holdsworth History of English Law vol 3 (1923) pp 394–395). While both remained crimes and independent torts until abolished by the Criminal Law Act 1967, their domain has steadily shrunk over the centuries. Conduct which would once have been objectionable would not now raise an eyebrow. With the growth over time of developed legal institutions and a specialised legal profession, the requirements of public policy in this field have been radically transformed.
In British Cash and Parcel Conveyors Ltd v Lamson Store Service Co Ltd [1908] 1 KB 1006 at 1014, [1908–10] All ER Rep 146 at 150 Fletcher Moulton LJ, although disclaiming any attempt to define maintenance, gave an excellent working description of the mischief against which it is directed:
‘It is directed against wanton and officious intermeddling with the disputes of others in which the [maintainer] has no interest whatever, and where the assistance he renders to the one or the other party is without justification or excuse.’
Champerty has the same features, but takes a more specific form; the intermeddler finances the litigation of another in return for a share of the proceeds.
Since the essence of both maintenance and champerty is an officious, wanton intermeddling in the litigation of another without justification or excuse, the
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decided cases have naturally centred on questions such as: what sort of interest must the maintainer show to justify his intervention? What will provide him with justification or excuse? In answer to these questions various judicial tests have been propounded. In Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1980] 3 All ER 721 at 742, [1980] QB 629 at 655 Lord Denning MR spoke of ‘a legitimate and genuine interest’. When the same case reached the House of Lords Lord Roskill spoke of ‘a genuine commercial interest’ (see [1981] 3 All ER 520 at 531, [1982] AC 679 at 703). In Brownton Ltd v Edward Moore Inbucon Ltd [1985] 3 All ER 499 at 509 Lloyd LJ spoke of a ‘genuine pre-existing commercial interest’. It is, however, important, as Lloyd LJ warned in the Brownton case (at 510), not to miss the wood for the trees. All these expressions concentrate attention on the relevant area of inquiry, but they should not divert attention from the crucial question in any given case, which is whether the alleged maintainer or champertor was officiously and wantonly intermeddling in the affairs of another or whether he had good reason, usually in the form of a legitimate business interest which he was seeking to promote, for doing so.
Ordinarily, an alleged maintainer or champertor cannot rely on the agreement alleged to be unlawful as giving him his legitimate business interest. An outsider will very probably become involved in the litigation by virtue of some agreement, and if such an agreement were held to confer a sufficient interest the exception would consume the rule. Hence the repeated reference in the cases to a pre-existing interest, and hence the House of Lords’ decision in Trendtex that assignment of a bare right to litigate remains unlawful. It is plain that where an outsider has no legitimate business interest beyond such as he derives from the agreement whose validity is in question, he is merely trafficking in litigation, an activity which English law continues to regard as contrary to public policy.
In the present cases the car hire companies agreed to finance the plaintiffs' actions, if action proved necessary, on terms that they would receive their hire charges out of any damages recovered by action or settlement. Some elements at least of a champertous arrangement were thus present. But the cases have certain special features. (1) The car hire companies have a genuine business of hiring out cars for reward. (2) Since the car hire companies accept as credit-hire customers only drivers whose claims are regarded as open and shut, litigation of these cases cannot be regarded as inevitable. The expectation must be that the great majority at least will be settled. Far from litigation being in the car hire companies’ interest, it must be disadvantageous to them to incur costs in litigation which will not be wholly recovered on taxation. (3) The car hire companies are not financing actions (where action is necessary) in return for a share of the proceeds but to recover charges (reduced in so far as they exceed a reasonable rate) for services actually rendered to plaintiffs.
These considerations suggest to me that the car hire companies are not trafficking in litigation but in the hire of cars and that they are not wantonly and officiously intermeddling in the disputes of others in which they have no interest whatever and where they lack any justification or excuse. It seems to me that they have a legitimate business interest in recovering a reasonable reward for services which they actually render.
Champerty is, however, closely associated with public policy and the defendants' insurers rely on public policy considerations to show that credit-hire agreements of the kind in issue here are contrary to the public interest. One of the arguments advanced can, I think, be briefly dismissed. Attention was drawn to the handling of certain litigious processes by unqualified agents not entitled to handle them. It appears that this has happened. The fault may have been
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rectified. But in any event there are clear and enforceable rules governing what unqualified agents may, and may not, do.
It was also submitted that there were dangers in the control of their litigation which plaintiffs under these agreements yielded to the car hire companies. The car hire companies, whose sole interest was to recover their charges and costs, would be almost bound (it was said) to prefer their interests to the plaintiffs’ interests. The solicitors whom they instructed, almost always from a panel of solicitors regularly instructed, would face a risk of serious conflict between their duty to the plaintiff as their one-off client and their duty to the car hire company as their paymaster and a long-standing source of business. This is a more formidable argument. But there can be no doubt that the solicitor’s client is, and is only, the individual plaintiff. A temptation to put the interest of the car hire company before that of the plaintiff may no doubt arise, but that is what professional integrity is all about and professional rules exist to govern just that situation. I am not persuaded that these schemes pose problems greater than those which already exist in other areas of professional practice without causing disquiet, and expressions of concern about the interests of plaintiffs, coming from the insurance companies, must be received with a measure of reserve.
It was submitted, thirdly, that claims made by plaintiffs supported by car hire companies under the schemes raised peculiar difficulties for insurance companies. They had no way, before discovery, of recognising the claims. Thus they were not alerted to the need to investigate whether a plaintiff really needed a substitute car, such investigation being unnecessary in the ordinary case where the plaintiff’s hire of a substitute car of itself raised a fairly safe inference that he or she genuinely required one. Nor were they alerted to the risk that the car hire charges might be inflated to take account of the interest charges and litigation costs which the car hire companies were bearing under these schemes. I have no reason to think that these difficulties are imaginary, but I strongly suspect they are exaggerated. If, as the insurance companies complain, the hire companies’ work is concentrated in the hands of particular solicitors, claims by those solicitors will raise a question (which can be asked) whether a car hire company is involved. For a car owner to show that it was reasonable for him to hire a substitute car when his own, through no fault of his, is out of action is in my view much easier than the insurance companies suggest. If they are in doubt they can ask appropriate questions. As for hire rates, it should not be hard for insurance companies to keep themselves informed of the going rate for different models of car in different areas.
On the other side of the public policy argument is a consideration which seems to me of greater weight: the general desirability of allowing people to do what they want in the absence of a demonstrable risk of harm to others or society at large. If the written terms of the car hire companies’ agreements are open to criticism (as they may well be) and if there is evidence of abusive practices (as there appears to be), means exist to impose appropriate regulation. It is in my view unnecessary and undesirable for the courts to seek to outlaw such schemes altogether. In current conditions, the denial of access to justice for want of financial resources may fairly be regarded as a more potent threat to the well-being of society than the risks of perverting the administration of justice which rightly exercised our mediaeval forebears.
I conclude that the agreements between the plaintiffs and the car hire companies were not champertous, contrary to public policy and unlawful.
The second major issue argued before us was whether, if these agreements were (contrary to my opinion) champertous, contrary to public policy and
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unlawful, they provide the defendants with a defence to these actions. I do not understand the governing principle to be seriously controversial: the fact that a plaintiff is unlawfully maintained by a third party in bringing an action affords the defendant no defence to the action, unless the plaintiff is obliged to rely on the unlawful agreement to found his claim. This exception reflects the principle that the courts will not assist a plaintiff whose action is founded on an illegal contract. The difference between the parties to these appeals is whether the exception applies. The insurance companies argue that while a plaintiff could, without relying on the agreement with the car hire company, establish a claim for general damages for loss of use of his car, he cannot establish his claim for a quantified sum for car hire as special damages without relying on the agreement and so falling foul of the rule.
It seems plain that a plaintiff can show that it was reasonable for him to hire a substitute car without relying, and certainly without founding his claim, on the agreement with the car hire company. That agreement will, at most, add colour to the claim, and in the case of credit-hire not very much. To establish the specific rate the plaintiff would, I think, be obliged to put the car hire agreement in evidence. But he would not be founding his claim on the agreement. The case is quite unlike that in which a plaintiff can show no title to sue without relying on a champertous assignment. In these cases the hirer is the plaintiff and no cause of action is assigned. It is not furthermore suggested, as I understand, that the existence of the champertous car hire agreement invalidates any other claim (for personal injuries, for instance, or loss of earnings) which may also feature in the action which is champertously maintained. The defendants are, I think, driven to this strange position because in truth the plaintiff’s cause of action derives only from the accident which gave rise to the claims and not from the champertous agreement, which accordingly gives no defence.
The third major issue was whether the plaintiffs in these actions had suffered any loss. Since the plaintiffs had actually paid nothing to the car hire companies, and would never become liable to pay them unless judgment were obtained against the defendants, it was argued by the insurance companies that the plaintiffs had suffered no loss which could be recovered in the actions.
As a general principle it is of course true that a plaintiff’s claim for special damage can only succeed to the extent of losses he has actually sustained and liabilities he has actually incurred. But the rule is not absolute: the proceeds of private insurance and charitable benevolence are, for differing reasons, disregarded. Nor, in my view, does it relieve the defendant of liability if the plaintiff’s liability to pay charges to a third party is contingent on his recovery against the defendant: that is the effect of Harlow & Jones Ltd v Panex (International) Ltd [1967] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 509 at 531 and Cosemar SA v Marimarna Shipping Co Ltd, The Mathew [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 323 at 327–328. I further understand Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, [1974] QB 454 and McAll v Brooks [1984] RTR 99 to concentrate attention on the question whether the plaintiff has suffered a loss and away from the question what he will do with any money he may recover. The issue may be tested by asking whether, if these plaintiffs recover reasonable charges reasonably incurred, they will be overcompensated. They will not. Nor will the car hire companies. Neither will enjoy double recovery, or any windfall. The only windfall would be enjoyed by the insurance companies if the plaintiffs did not recover. I regard the insurance companies’ submission on this point as unsound.
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On the individual appeals I have nothing to add to what Steyn LJ has said.
Appeal in Sanders v Templer allowed; leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused. Appeal in Giles v Thompson dismissed; leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused. Appeal in Devlin v Baslington dismissed; leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
3 February. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords gave leave to appeal in Giles v Thompson and Devlin v Baslington.
Mary Rose Plummer Barrister.
Appeals
The defendants in Giles v Thompson and Devlin v Baslington appealed.
Edwin Glasgow QC, Charles Cory-Wright and Stuart Catchpole (instructed by Edward Lewis & Co) for the appellants.
Hilary Heilbron QC and Michael Swainston (instructed by Abson Hall, Manchester) for the respondent Giles.
Brian Leveson QC, Stephen Stewart and Graham Platts (instructed by Eden & Co, Manchester) for the respondent Devlin.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
26 May 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill, which I have read in draft and with which I agree, I would dismiss these appeals.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss these appeals.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss these appeals.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Mustill. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss these appeals and make the order which he proposes.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, the crimes of maintenance and champerty are so old that their origins can no longer be traced, but their importance in medieval times is quite clear. The mechanisms of justice lacked the internal strength to resist the oppression of private individuals through suits fomented and sustained by unscrupulous men of power. Champerty was particularly vicious, since the purchase of a share in litigation presented an obvious temptation to the suborning of justices and witnesses and the exploitation of worthless claims which the defendant lacked the resources and influence to withstand. The fact that such conduct was treated as both criminal and tortious provided an
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invaluable external discipline to which, as the records show, recourse was often required.
As the centuries passed the courts became stronger, their mechanisms more consistent and their participants more self-reliant. Abuses could be more easily detected and forestalled, and litigation more easily determined in accordance with the demands of justice, without recourse to separate proceedings against those who trafficked in litigation. In the most recent decades of the present century maintenance and champerty have become almost invisible in both their criminal and tortious manifestations. In practice, they have maintained a living presence in only two respects. First, as the source of the rule, now in the course of attenuation, which forbids a solicitor from accepting payment for professional services on behalf of a plaintiff calculated as a proportion of the sum recovered from the defendant. Secondly, as the ground for denying recognition to the assignment of a ‘bare right of action’. The former survives nowadays, so far as it survives at all, largely as a rule of professional conduct, and the latter is in my opinion best treated as having achieved an independent life of its own.
It therefore came as no surprise when Parliament, acting on the recommendation of the Law Commission (Proposals for Reform of the Law relating to Maintenance and Champerty (1966) (Law Com no 7)), abolished the crimes and torts of maintenance and champerty: s 14 of the Criminal Law Act 1967. After this, it might be supposed that the ancient crimes and torts would have disappeared from general view, of interest only to any legal historian who might aspire to build on the foundations laid by Sir Percy Winfield and Sir William Holdsworth. Remarkably, this has proved not to be the case, and we find that 25 years after the 1967 Act they are being ascribed a vigorous new life, in a context as far away from the local oppressions practised by overweening magnates in the fifteenth century as one could imagine: namely, the temporary provision of substitute private cars to motorists whose own vehicles have been put out of commission by road accidents. The possibility of contending that a recovery of a particular head of damage in the most everyday running down case is barred by this ancient doctrine has been opened up by the qualifying words in s 14(2) of the 1967 Act—which stipulated that the abolition of civil and criminal liability ‘shall not affect any rule of [the law of England and Wales] as to the cases in which a contract is to be treated as contrary to public policy or otherwise illegal’.
The question has arisen in this way. A substantial proportion of motor accidents take place in circumstances where there is little room for doubt that one party is exclusively to blame: typically, where the car of one driver (hereafter ‘the motorist’) is stationary, for example at a traffic light, and where a car driven by another person (the defendant) is carelessly driven into the back of it. There are two types of damages which may be awarded to the motorist in any resulting litigation. First, there are damages for any personal injury which the motorist may have suffered. These will usually comprise general damages for pain, suffering and loss of amenity, and special damages for past and future loss of earnings. Secondly, there are damages related to the loss of or damage to the motorist’s vehicle. These will or may have two elements: a figure representing the diminution in value of the motorist’s vehicle, and another figure representing the financial loss suffered by the motorist because he or she cannot use the vehicle whilst it is either being replaced (if written off) or undergoing repairs. In practice these various elements are dealt with in various ways. The damage to the car itself is settled between insurers, apart from the excess on the motorist’s policy, which he may not trouble to pursue except as an appendage to a larger claim. The motorist’s claims for personal injuries may be substantial in amount, and will be
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made the subject of an action, if the motorist can finance the action either from his own resources, or from some form of insurance, or (if he is of very limited means) by legal aid.
There remains the claim for loss of use of the car. In principle, if such a claim is made it will often be quantified by reference to the cost of hiring a substitute vehicle, and will be recoverable upon proof that the motorist needed a replacement car whilst his own was off the road. I say ‘if such a claim is made’ for two reasons. First, because the loss of use is not recoverable under a comprehensive policy, so that there are no subrogated insurers to stand behind the claim, and in situations where there is no personal injury claim and where the damage to the motorist’s vehicle is dealt with as between insurers there are few motorists who will have the time, energy and resources to go to law solely to recover the cost of a substitute vehicle. Secondly, because there are many motorists who lack the inclination or the ready cash to hire a substitute on the chance of recovering reimbursement from the defendant’s insurers. Thus, there exists in practical terms a gap in the remedies available to the motorist, from which the errant driver, and hence his insurers, frequently profit.
In recent years a number of commercial concerns (hereafter ‘the car hire companies’) have identified this gap and have sought to fill it in a manner advantageous alike to motorists and to themselves, by offering to motorists with apparently solid claims against the other parties to collisions the opportunity to make use of the car hire companies’ cars whilst their own are off the road. The terms on which this opportunity is given are said to be, in broad outline, as follows. (1) The car hire company makes a car available to the motorist whilst the damaged car is under repair. (2) The car hire company pursues a claim against the defendant, at its own expense and employing solicitors of its choice, in the name of the motorist for loss of use of the motorist’s car. (3) The car hire company makes a charge for the loan of the replacement car, which is reimbursed from that part of the damages recovered by the motorist from the defendant or his insurers which reflects the loss of use of the motorist’s car. (4) Until this happens the motorist is under no obligation to pay for the use of the replacement car. (5) These arrangements are conditional on the co-operation of the motorist in pursuing the claim and any resulting legal proceedings. (6) The car hire companies aim to confine the scheme to cases where the motorist is very likely to succeed in establishing the defendant’s liability, without any contributory negligence on the part of the motorist.
Transactions on these general lines have been entered into in large numbers, to the discomfort of the defendants’ insurers, who have been faced with claims of which an element reflects the cost of a replacement vehicle which would not have been hired but for the existence of the scheme. The insurers have counter-attacked by alleging that the hiring agreements are champertous and accordingly unlawful, or otherwise contrary to public policy. Whilst no longer contending that actions which include an element of damages referable to the charges made, or said to be made, by the car hire companies are an abuse of the process of the court, and should therefore be struck out in their entirety, the insurers say that damages cannot be awarded for the hiring charges, since to do so would enable the motorist to rely on an unlawful contract.
The consequence has been a large number of contests in the county court which have understandably led to differing outcomes in the various jurisdictions. A substantial body of unreported and inconsistent precedent has been built up, creating a degree of uncertainty which all concerned have been anxious to avoid. The very sensible decision has been taken to obtain guidance on the topic which
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it is hoped will eliminate the uncertainties; and the size of the problem is shown by the fact that two ‘lead’ cases have been taken as far as your Lordships’ House. They are lead cases, rather than test cases, because there is no agreement, formal or otherwise, that the parties to other disputes will be bound by the outcome of the appeals. Nevertheless, it is hoped that these appeals will in practice enable most of the outstanding cases in the county courts to be settled without further proceedings.
Unfortunately, this sensible plan has to some extent miscarried, for two reasons. First, because, as will be seen, one of the two appeals (Devlin v Baslington) is not typical of the disputes of which these proceedings are intended to dispose, and which are described in the agreed statement of facts and issues prepared for the House. Secondly, because the arguments in the Court of Appeal proceeded on the basis that certain publicity brochures issued by the car hire company in one of the cases (Giles v Thompson) had some contractual relevance, whereas it is now accepted that the brochure was never seen either by the motorist or anyone who could be regarded as her agent, so that it is immaterial to the issues before the House. Perhaps in other cases there may be grounds for saying the document did have some effect as part of the contract between the car hire company and the motorist, or as estopping the car hire company from asserting against the motorist certain liabilities which the wording of the contracts might otherwise have created. In such an event, the legal position might be different; but upon this hypothetical question the House can express no opinion.
The position is further confused by the difficulty of interpreting the standard forms of contract imposed by the two car hire companies, and by the disconformity between what appear to be the rights and duties which these forms create as between motorist and car hire company and what (according to the agreed facts) actually happens in practice. These problems arise from the fact that those who framed the contract terms plainly concentrated on situations where: (a) the action against the defendant was bound to succeed; (b) there was no claim (or at least no disputed claim) of any substance against the defendant other than the claim for hiring a substitute car from the car hire companies; (c) the claim for the cost of hiring was certain to succeed in full. No doubt these assumptions are justified as regards many of the situations in which car hire companies operate schemes such as the present. There will, however, be situations where these assumptions will be falsified. As in the present cases the motorist may have additional claims about which there may be a dispute. The litigation will not always run smoothly, and issues may arise about (for example) the responsibility of the motorist for unrecovered hiring charges, for the conduct of the proceedings and any incidental negotiations, and for the costs of the action. Unfortunately, it is plain that the draftsmen of the two sets of terms did not envisage these complications, and to several questions, of importance to a discussion of champerty, the contracts provide at best an incomplete and uncertain answer. Furthermore, (a) there may be other forms of contract currently in use in this trade which yield different results, and (b) what actually happens in practice may not conform with the agreements.
For this reason, although your Lordships would wish to provide a clear-cut answer, applicable without qualification to all schemes of this general type, to the question whether the hiring agreements are lawful, I believe this to be impracticable, and that the only proper course is to take each agreement in turn, endeavour to understand it, and see how it fares in the context of a modern law of champerty.
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I THE TWO APPEALS
(1) Devlin v Baslington
The defendant drove into the back of the motorist’s car in circumstances which left no doubt as to liability. The motorist sustained typical whiplash injuries, and her car was damaged. For three weeks whilst the car was under repair a replacement vehicle was made available by 1st AutoMotive Car Rental (1st AutoMotive). This company conducted its scheme under standard terms which the motorist signed. The material provisions were:
‘2. Lessor agrees to rent and the Hirer agrees to take the vehicle described overleaf on the conditions as set out in this agreement …
5. Where the hire is consequent upon the Hirer’s own vehicle being unroadworthy as a result of a road traffic accident: (i) The Lessor will allow the Hirer credit on the hire charges until such time as a claim for damages has been concluded against the party (hereinafter called the third party) that the Hirer alleges is liable for damages, arising out of the said accident, subject only to condition (6) hereunder. (ii) The Lessor shall have the right to pursue an action in the Hirer’s name against the third party. (iii) The Lessor shall have the right to pursue such action through the County Court and/or High Court and the Hirer must co-operate in the conduct of the action and, if required by the Lessor, attend any hearing that the Court appoints. (iv) PROVIDED THAT notwithstanding the credit facility referred to above the hirer will discharge any indebtedness as soon as reasonably practicable, and shall take such action as is necessary to obtain interlocutory judgement or an interim payment of damages for the purpose of discharging the said indebtedness.
6. If, and only if, the Hirer is in default of condition (5iii) then the credit allowed by the Lessor to the hirer shall be terminated and the hire charges will be due from the Hirer to the Lessor 28 days from the Lessor giving notice thereof to the Hirer by reference to this condition (6) …
8. Except where condition (5) applies, the Hirer will pay to the Lessor on demand all charges due under this agreement, plus Value Added Tax at the rate appropriate at the time of the hire …
18. This agreement may be terminated by either party giving 24 hours notice of termination and the vehicle being returned to the Lessor.’
In addition there was a duplicated ‘Form of authority’, in two parts. The first made provision for the company to appoint a solicitor to act on the motorist’s behalf in connection with the accident, and went on to state: ‘I understand I am at liberty to appoint any solicitor to act on my behalf. I have no particular solicitor I wish to instruct.' This part of the form was crossed through. The second part read:
‘I hereby authorise you, the Third Party Insurers in this matter, to release to my Solicitors a separate cheque to be made payable to 1st AutoMotive Car Rental in respect of hire charges.’
This part of the form was signed by the motorist.
In due course the motorist commenced proceedings in the county court. The solicitor who acted on her behalf was the one whom she had originally consulted, and who had suggested that she approach 1st AutoMotive. It was accepted in argument, although the point does not seem to have emerged in the Court of
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Appeal, that (consistently with the deletion of the first part of the form of authority), the solicitor was not chosen by 1st AutoMotive.
As the action progressed the defendant admitted liability, and the matter went to trial on quantum only. Two issues were raised. First as to the amount of general damages for personal injury. This aspect of the case proceeded in a perfectly conventional way, with oral evidence from two consultants and submissions on the amount of the award, based on the amounts award in previous cases. The trial judge fixed the figure at £4,500. The second issue related to a charge of £652·05 in respect of the use of the car, a charge which the motorist had not yet paid when judgment was given in her favour. In addition to the challenge to this item of claim on the ground that the agreement was champertous, the defendant also sought to challenge the amount by showing that the motorist had no need for a replacement vehicle, at least for part of the time in question. The judge rejected this contention, and awarded the full amount of the claim.
Although the agreed facts do not say so, I assume that: (1) the defendant’s insurers have paid the amount of the personal injuries award; (2) they have not paid the amount of the claim for the car hire; (3) 1st AutoMotive has not sought to recover the amount of the hire (pending this appeal) notwithstanding that the award in respect of personal injuries has put the motorist in funds. It was stated in argument that although the motorist instructed her own solicitor the cost was borne in the first place by 1st AutoMotive.
(2) Giles v Thompson
The accident took place on 22 August 1991. The motorist sustained a whiplash injury. Her vehicle was damaged and needed repairs. After a week a replacement was provided by Forward Hire Ltd (Forward Hire) under a written contract, which read in part:
‘1. Where the hire is consequent upon the hirer’s own vehicle being unroadworthy as a result of a road traffic accident the company will allow the hirer credit on the hire charges until such time as damages, and statutory interest, have been recovered from the party (hereinafter called the third party) that the hirer alleges is liable for damages, arising out of the said accident, subject only to condition (4) hereunder.
2. The Company shall have the right to appoint its own solicitor to pursue an action in the hirer’s name against the third party.
3. The Company’s solicitor shall have the right to pursue such action through the County Court and the hirer must co-operate in the conduct of the action and, if required by the Company’s Solicitor, attend any hearing that the Court appoints.
4. If, and only if, the hirer is in default of condition (3) then the credit allowed by the Company to the hirer shall be terminated and the hire charges will be due from the hirer to the Company 28 days from the Company giving notice thereof to the hirer by reference to this condition (4) …’
The motorist also signed a document addressed to Forward Hire in the following terms:
‘I confirm that you may appoint a Solicitor/Legal Agent on my behalf to act in the recovery of the uninsured losses from the Third Party Insurers. They will also act on my behalf for the recovery of damages for any personal injury or other losses involved. They have my authority to commence
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proceedings, if necessary, for recovery of the Car Hire charges and other losses and to apply for any medical evidence they may deem it necessary to obtain on my behalf for the purpose of a personal injury claim. I confirm that I have not instructed any other solicitors to act on my behalf, nor do I have a Solicitor whom I would wish to instruct in this matter.’
Five months later proceedings were commenced by the motorist in the county court, through the medium of solicitors instructed by Forward Hire. The damages claimed were for personal injury, loss of earnings, and the excess of her own insurance cover on the damaged vehicle. None of this was in dispute, and general damages were agreed at £2,500. The defendant did, however, challenge an additional claim for £540·31 in respect of hire charges. It was not alleged that the charge was unreasonable, but the claim was denied in principle on the grounds, first, that the hiring agreement was champertous, and, second, that the motorist had suffered no loss from the immobilisation of her car, since she had the use of the substitute vehicle provided by Forward Hire. After argument, the judge awarded the sum claimed, together with interest.
These two decisions, together with another which raised similar questions, were taken to the Court of Appeal, where all three appeals were unanimously dismissed. The defendants in the two above-named cases (but not the third) now appeal to this House.
II THE ISSUES
On these facts and documents the following issues arise.
A. As regards both appeals: (1) Are the agreements, or either of them, champertous and hence unlawful? It is unnecessary to consider the question whether the relationship between the car hire companies and the actions is such as to amount to unlawful maintenance, since the defendants concede that in the absence of a champertous element maintenance would not be sufficient to provide the defendant with a defence to an action by the motorist, whatever might be the problem as regards a claim brought by the motorist against the car hire company, or vice versa. (2) If so, does the unlawfulness furnish an answer to that part of the claim which relates to the hiring charges? (3) In any event, have the motorists suffered a recoverable loss, given that they have not yet paid the hiring charges?
B. As regards the Devlin appeal: (4) Has the motorist proved a sufficient need for a replacement car to justify an award of the cost of the replacement? (5) Is the motorist entitled to recover interest on the sum awarded in respect of hire charges?
III ARE THE CONTRACTS UNLAWFUL?
(1) Devlin v Baslington
Although the arguments before the Court of Appeal, and initially before the House, proceeded on the footing that the two appeals were the same, it is I believe clear that there are significant differences between them, and that they call for separate consideration. I will begin with Devlin v Baslington. An essential preliminary is to answer certain questions concerning the rights and liabilities created by the hiring agreement. Since, however, I believe that the resolution of this particular appeal admits of no doubt I will deal with these questions quite briefly.
The first is this: what rights does the car hire company possess in the sums recovered by the motorist from the defendant? The answer is plainly none.
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Neither the contract nor the form of authority purported to create a charge over the proceeds of the claim, either as regards the hiring charges, or the damages for personal injuries, or any other item. Clause 5(iv) merely required the motorist to press ahead with the recovery of sufficient funds to discharge her indebtedness to the car hire company. Equally, there was no assignment of the proceeds of the action or of the cause of action itself. As for the second part of the form of authority, even if this was irrevocable (which I doubt) it was no more than a mechanism designed to ensure that, once the motorist was put in funds by the successful actions, the appropriate part of them reached the car hire company.
The next question is whether the motorist incurs a personal liability to the car hire company for the hiring charges. The defendant contends for a negative answer, maintaining that what is dressed up as a hiring on credit is not a hiring at all, but is a free loan of the substitute car, for the cost of which the car hire company looks to recovery solely against the fruits of the action. I can see that this might be the position under some forms of contract; and indeed this is how the scheme appears to be described in the car hire company’s brochure. But we must look to the terms of the contract alone. Although these are defective, they are sufficient to answer the question. The motorist does retain a ‘residual liability’ (as it was called in argument) for the hire charges, and this will become enforceable, not only in the special circumstances contemplated by condition 6, but also under condition 5(i) when ‘a claim for damages has been concluded’ (my emphasis). Naturally, the draftsman had in mind an occasion when the claim would be concluded by the recovery in full of the hiring charges, since this is the hypothesis on which the entire scheme is founded; but there are numerous other ways in which the motorist’s claim, in its various elements, may be concluded, and in all of these condition 5(i) will terminate the period of credit and give the car hire company the right to look to the motorist for any unpaid balance of the charges.
At this stage I must mention one further question, namely whether the contract gave the car hire company the right to exercise control over the conduct of the claim against the defendant. This will require closer scrutiny in relation to the second appeal, but for immediate purposes need not be pursued, since the deletion of the first part of the printed form coupled with the appointment by the motorist of her own solicitor made it clear that she was in charge of her own claim.
My Lords, on these simple facts it appears to me to make no difference how precisely one expresses what is left of the law of champerty, for the answer must inevitably be the same. It is sufficient to adopt the description of the policy underlying the former criminal and civil sanctions, expressed by Fletcher Moulton LJ in British Cash and Parcel Conveyors Ltd v Lamson Store Service Co Ltd [1908] 1 KB 1006 at 1014, [1908–10] All ER Rep 146 at 150:
‘It is directed against wanton and officious intermeddling with the disputes of others in which the [maintainer] has no interest whatever, and where the assistance he renders to one or the other party is without justification or excuse.’
This was a description of maintenance. For champerty there must be added the notion of a division of the spoils.
In my opinion it is perfectly clear that this description does not fit the facts which I have summarised. One may take it by stages, imagining first the case where the motorist simply hires a replacement car on credit. Obviously there is nothing objectionable in this. Change the facts a little, so that the motorist
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explains to a garage owner that she needs a replacement, but cannot pay until her claim against the colliding car has been recovered. The garage owner, needing the business and confident of his customer’s honesty, grants her credit. It is equally obvious that the transaction is harmless. Now take the case where the garage owner sensibly requires an undertaking that if the claim succeeds the motorist will procure a cheque directly in his favour. Again, no harm. Finally, add the ingredient that the garage owner agrees to finance the action, which he believes certain to succeed, leaving the motorist to employ her own lawyers at his expense. This may not often happen, but if it does happen (as here) I am quite unable to see how it could be said that the car rental agreement is champertous. There is no ‘wanton and officious intermeddling’ in the dispute between the motorist and the defendant. The car hire company does not meddle at all, but allows the motorist to get on with the claim, and merely awaits a favourable result. True, the car hire company makes a profit, but this comes from the hiring, not from the litigation. For my part, I think it quite plain, without the need to go into any details of the law, that this transaction is neither champertous nor invasive of any requirement of public policy.
(2) Giles v Thompson
As in Devlin v Baslington an essential preliminary is to ascertain the rights and obligations created by the hiring agreement. First, one must see whether the car hire companies obtain any direct rights over the fruits of the claim for the element of damages representing the hire charges. Here, the answer is just as clear as it was before. The car hire companies have no interest, whether by charge or assignment, which give them any claim to the proceeds which they can enforce against the defendant. Nor is any part of the recovery shared with the motorist, in the sense (for example) that they have a preferential claim to it against the other creditors of the motorist. The position is simply that the success of this part of the claim will equip the motorist with extra money, from which the hire charges can be satisfied.
Next, it must be asked whether the hiring agreement creates a residual liability for the hiring charges. The point is the same as before, although the wording of the agreement is different. Now, by virtue of condition 1, the credit is to continue ‘until such time as damages, and statutory interest, have been recovered from the party _ that the hirer alleges is liable for damages _' As before, it is probable that the draftsman of the agreement has not envisaged that the proceedings would embrace claims other than those for hire, or that they might not succeed in full, or indeed at all. Nevertheless, one must go by the words of the agreement, and these make it clear, as in Devlin v Baslington, that on the conclusion of the proceedings the motorist becomes liable to pay the charge, with the difference that in Giles v Thompson liability does not arise until there is a recovery of damages, whether or not complete, and whether or not related to car hire.
I turn now to a question on which great stress was laid by the defendants, namely the degree of control exercised by the car hire companies over the conduct of the litigation. Here, the position is different from that which existed in Devlin v Baslington, since the action was conducted by solicitors chosen by the car hire companies. Although we have no details, it is reasonable to assume that the motorist did what the solicitors asked: and, of course, fared very well in consequence. Nevertheless it is necessary to consider briefly what would have happened if the interests of the parties had diverged. I say ‘briefly’ because it is not the function of the House to investigate in depth all the situations, for which the agreement makes no express provision, which might arise in circumstances
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absent from the present appeals. This would be a complex and difficult enterprise, requiring in particular a consideration of the possible analogy with cases of partial subrogation under contracts of insurance, not opened up in argument; and it would in all probability be wasted effort, since if the car hire companies are well advised they will quickly work out their schemes more fully and express them in a more adequate form of words.
This being so, I need deal only briefly with three situations. The first exists where the only claim in contention relates to the hiring charges. Here, the ultimate control rests with the motorist, in the sense that he or she is free, if disapproving of the way in which the claim is being handled, to give instructions to the solicitor which contradict those of the car hire company; but the result under cl 4 of the conditions is to make the hiring charge immediately payable.
The second situation is one in which there is a dispute about the personal injury element of the claim. Here, there is nothing which gives the car hire company any control, for cll 2 and 3 are clearly addressed to the hiring charges alone. Even if appointed by the car hire company, the solicitor will be obliged to act in accordance with the instructions of the motorist.
Finally, there is the case of the mixed claim, where an unappropriated offer or payment into court is made in respect of both the personal injury and similar claims, and the claim for hiring costs. In theory this could present difficult questions of law, as to which party is dominus litis; and of legal ethics, concerning the duties of a solicitor faced with conflicting duties towards clients with differing interests. But only in theory, for the minimal likelihood that a solicitor handling two claims, in one of which (for a few hundred pounds) the car hire company is interested and in the other of which (for some thousands of pounds) only the motorist is concerned, will so prefer the smaller to the larger as to put the motorist’s interests at risk is a quite insufficient basis, to my mind, for a general judgment on the unlawfulness of the arrangement as a whole.
There remains one further aspect of the relationship, namely the responsibility for the cost of the litigation. Again the agreement is silent. In the simplest case, where only the hiring charge is the subject of claim, there is no problem. Since the action is brought at the car hire company’s request there is clearly an implied obligation not only to finance it, but also to cover the motorist’s liability to the defendant in the event of failure. The position will be, at least in theory, less straightforward where there is a mixed claim, for personal injury as well as hiring charges, and where the action wholly or partially fails. It may be that in practice the car hire company will bear all the costs involved, but the agreement does not say so, and in the event of dispute some difficult questions may arise. These may perhaps be solved by recourse to the analogy with subrogation, and if so the authorities collected in Clarke Law of Insurance Contracts (1989) para 31-6B3 may be germane. The point was not, however, explored in argument, and I do not think it profitable to do more than suggest that under this particular form of contract the motorist cannot be confident of a complete cover in respect of costs.
Against this background I turn to the defendants’ submission that the agreement is unlawful. This posits an inquiry in three stages. At the first the agreement is analysed to see whether the car hire company, a stranger to the dispute between the motorist and the defendant, agrees to involve itself in the litigation in a way which yields a financial benefit from a successful outcome. If so, the agreement is champertous and prima facie unlawful. At the second stage it is considered whether the third party has an interest in the transaction which legitimates what would otherwise be unlawful. Finally, it is asked whether, aside
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from special rules concerning champerty, the relationship has features which make it contrary to public policy, and hence unenforceable.
For my part I prefer to approach the question more directly. I accept that, as Steyn LJ expressed it in the course of his valuable historical analysis, there have evolved crystallised policies in relation to solicitors’ contingent fees and the assignment of bare rights of action for tortious wrongs. I also accept that in relation to these aspects of the law of champerty it is necessary first to consider whether the transaction bears the marks of unlawful champerty, and then inquire whether it is validated by the existence of a legitimate interest in the person supporting the action distinct from the benefit which he seeks to derive from it. For this purpose close regard must be paid to Trendtex Trading Corp v Crédit Suisse [1981] 3 All ER 520, [1982] AC 679 and to the considerations which led to a difference of analysis between the members of the Court of Appeal in the present case. But the tests there laid down were addressed to transactions of the kind then before the House; they are not to be understood as if they had statutory force; and I see no reason to impose the procedure thus evolved on situations which are entirely different. As Steyn LJ has demonstrated, the law on maintenance and champerty has not stood still, but has accommodated itself to changing times: as indeed it must if it is to retain any useful purpose: see per Danckwerts J in his important judgment in Martell v Consett Iron Ltd [1954] 3 All ER 339 at 347, [1955] Ch 363 at 382. It is possible, although I believe rather unlikely, that new areas of law will crystallise, with their own fixed rules which are invariably to be applied to any case falling within them. Meanwhile, I believe that the law on maintenance and champerty can best be kept in forward motion by looking to its origins as a principle of public policy designed to protect the purity of justice and the interests of vulnerable litigants. For this purpose the issue should not be broken down into steps. Rather, all the aspects of the transaction should be taken together for the purpose of considering the single question whether, in the terms expressed by Fletcher Moulton LJ in the passage already quoted from in British Cash and Parcel Conveyors Ltd v Lamson Store Service Co Ltd [1908] 1 KB 1006 at 1014, [1908–10] All ER Rep 146 at 150, there is wanton and officious intermeddling with the disputes of others in where the meddler has no interest whatever, and where the assistance he renders to one or the other party is without justification or excuse.
My Lords, for my part I am unable, any more than in the case of Devlin v Baslington, to accept that there was anything officious or wanton about the intervention of the car hire company in the motorist’s litigation. The question must be looked at first in terms of the harmfulness of this intervention, which in turn calls for separate consideration of the risks to the administration of justice and to the interests of the motorist. Is there any realistic possibility that the administration of justice may suffer, in the way in which it undoubtedly suffered centuries ago? None, so far as I can see, or at any rate none with which the skills and coercive powers of the contemporary judge are unable to grapple. Only two areas of the litigation might be regarded as imperilled. First, the witnesses. It is said that those called for the motorist may be encouraged to try too hard. Frankly speaking, this idea seems to me fanciful. On the merits of the claim, in the minority of cases which are undisputed, the county court judge is uniquely well equipped to weigh the performance of the motorist and the defendant. And can it seriously be said that because the claim is backed by a garage the medical evidence will be seriously in danger of exaggeration?
The other danger to the administration of justice, of which the defendants and their insurers urge the court to beware, is that the existence of the scheme will
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encourage motorists to hire cars which they do not really require, at inflated rates, which have to be paid for by the insurers. As to rates of hire, shrewd and experienced insurers will be well equipped with information about local tariffs for the hire of cars of the same type as the motorists’ damaged vehicles, with which they can expose any exaggeration. And as to the possibility that the scheme will encourage motorists to hire cars which they do not need, at the ultimate expense of the insurers, I am confident that resourceful lawyers are well able to press by interlocutory measures for a candid exposure of the motorist’s true requirements, and, if all else fails, to fight the issue at an oral hearing, as happened in the present case. If the motorists are found to have been tempted by the car hire companies into the unnecessary hiring of substitute vehicles, the claims will fail pro tanto, with consequent orders for costs which will impose a healthy discipline upon the companies.
In these circumstances I find the perils to the proper administration of justice much exaggerated.
A second argument is deployed, namely that the schemes put at risk, not the defendants and their insurers, but the motorists who hire the cars. Even if sound, this argument could not lead to the application of the law of champerty, and can be relied upon only in relation to broader considerations of public policy. The solicitude of the defendants and their insurers for the interests of their potential opponents may fairly merit a measured, if not sceptical, regard. Nevertheless, the point is there and must be faced. Do the standard terms of Forward Hire create such an imbalance of rights, such a risk of exploitation, that the courts ought to treat the hiring contract as outlawed, incapable of creating any rights as between the motorist and the car hire company? That there is some possibility of muddle, that the motorist may fall out with the car hire company and be left with a liability for the hiring charges, and perhaps for costs as well, may be plain from the sketch which I have given of this unsatisfactory form of agreement. But these are reflections of the fact that the agreement is, to my way of thinking, a real hiring and not a sham. Is it then so wholly outrageous that the law should turn its back on it? I cannot say so. On the contrary, the balance of advantage is overwhelmingly in favour of those who receive professional and financial assistance to recover a valid claim which would otherwise go unsatisfied. Moreover, although as I shall briefly suggest at a later stage, the publicity material of the two car hire companies leaves a good deal to be desired, any potential abuse which may exist is much better tackled through the consumer protection legislation than by employing the law of champerty to give a windfall, not to the exploited motorist, but to the defendant’s insurers.
Accordingly, if one looks at the agreement in terms of persons other than the car hire company it appears unobjectionable. Returning to the car hire company, is it wantonly or officiously interfering in the litigation; is it doing so in order to share in the profits? I think not. The car hire company makes its profits from the hiring, not from the litigation. It does not divide the spoils, but relies upon the fruits of the litigation as a source from which the motorist can satisfy his or her liability for the provision of a genuine service, external to the litigation. I can see no convincing reason for saying that, as between the parties to the hiring agreement, the whole transaction is so unbalanced, or so fraught with risk, that it ought to be stamped out. The agreement is one which in my opinion the law should recognise and enforce.
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IV UNLAWFULNESS AS A DEFENCE
In the light of the conclusions so far expressed it is unnecessary to explore the question whether, if the hiring agreements had been champertous or otherwise unlawful, the effect would have been to deprive the motorists of any recovery for loss of use, whether based on the agreement or on a reasonable rate of hire, and since this question, which is by no means easy, may be of some general importance, I prefer to reserve it for decision as and when it arises.
V HAVE THE MOTORISTS SUFFERED LOSS?
I now turn to the wholly distinct question whether the motorists have proved that they have suffered a recoverable loss through the unavailability of their own cars pending repairs. The defendants say that they have not, because the cars were replaced by substitute vehicles which the motorists were able to use free of charge. In essence, it is said that the motorists have mitigated what would otherwise have been a valid claim for general damages reflecting their loss of the opportunity to make use of their own vehicles.
On the opinion which I have formed of the obligations created by the obscure and incomplete terms of the two agreements this contention admits of a very short answer. In my judgment the motorists do not obtain the replacing vehicle free of charge. If the motorist had simply persuaded a garage to hire her a substitute on credit, without any of the superstructure of the present transaction, it would be no answer to a claim for damages equivalent to the sums due to the garage that these sums would not in practice be paid until a judgment in the motorist’s favour had provided the necessary funds: for the amount of the outstanding liability represents the loss suffered by the motorist, and the question whether the motorist intends to apply the damages recovered in satisfaction of the debt, or in some wholly different way, cannot affect his right of recovery.
To distinguish that case from the present the defendants are forced to contend that the consideration for the provision of the cars consisted solely of a right to recoup themselves from the damages for loss of use. As will have appeared, I do not accept this interpretation. The hiring company has no direct right to the damages. The car hire company is not an assignee or chargee of the cause of action or its fruits, although it expects that the damages for loss of use will form part of the assets from which the motorist will in due course pay for the substitute. The liability for the car hire, although suspended as regards enforcement, rests upon the motorist throughout. It is a real liability, the incurring of which constitutes a real loss to the motorist. Whatever the publicity material may have conveyed, the provision of the substitute cars was not ‘free’.
In the light of this conclusion I find it unnecessary to discuss the question, by no means easy, what the position would have been if the use of the substitute car really had been free; as, for example, if it had been lent by a kindly friend. To do so would require a reconciliation of cases such as Harlow & Jones Ltd v Panex (International) Ltd [1967] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 509, Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, [1974] QB 454, McAll v Brooks [1984] RTR 99 and Cosemar SA v Marimarna Shipping Co Ltd, The Mathew [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 323. This question, which is of much general importance, is in my view far better left for decision when it actually arises, rather than as a by-product of two schemes which have not, as I suggest, been fully worked out.
VI. PROOF OF NEED
In the Devlin v Baslington appeal it has been questioned whether, even if all the issues of law are decided in favour of the motorists, there is sufficient proof that
Page 363 of [1993] 3 All ER 321
the motorist acted reasonably in hiring a replacement vehicle to justify an award in full of the company’s hire charges—or, indeed, it would seem any award at all. The question is before the House because the county court judge held:
‘As a matter of principle … if you deprive me of an article of use to me, you have no complaint whatever if I hire another to replace it … If I have a car simply for my own pleasure, I regard it, in principle, [as] wrong that I should be required, before being able to hire a car and charge it to the wrongdoer, to prove that I need it as opposed to merely desire the use of it.’
Whilst I have sympathy with this point of view I think it too broad. The need for a replacement car is not self-proving. The motorist may have been in hospital through the accident for longer than his vehicle was off the road; or he may have been planning to go abroad for a holiday leaving his car behind; and so on. Thus, although I agree with the judgments in the Court of Appeal that it is not hard to infer that a motorist who incurs the considerable expense of running a private car does so because he has a need for it, and consequently has a need to replace it if, as the result of a wrongful act, it is put out of commission, there remains ample scope for the defendant in an individual case to displace the inference which might otherwise arise.
Further than this I am not prepared to go. It is not the function of your Lordships’ House to retry an issue of fact on the judge’s notes. It may be, although I do not say that it is, that the award in Devlin v Baslington was too generous. Against the perspective of the amounts involved in the numerous cases now coming before the county courts the sum is trifling. What matters is that the judges should look carefully at claims for hiring, both as to their duration and as to their rate. This will do much to avoid the inflated claims of which the defendants’ insurers are understandably apprehensive, and will also discourage the promotion of over-optimistic claims by motorists, who if the present forms of agreement are enforced in accordance with their terms may be left with residual liabilities for hiring charges. The discipline imposed by judges who have the acumen and experience to detect greed and slapdash claims procedures will in my opinion do much more to forestall abuse than a dusting-down of the old law of champerty.
VII INTEREST
In Devlin v Baslington the judge awarded interest on the amount of damages referable to the hire charges. This decision was upheld on appeal. In this respect alone I must differ from the Court of Appeal.
The argument for the motorist proceeds on the basis that the motorist’s cause of action against the defendant, and the financial loss resulting from it, came into existence at the moment of the accident, and was later quantified as special damage when the hiring period came to an end. At this time, so the argument runs, the defendant should have recompensed the motorist for her loss. Thereafter, she was ‘kept out of her money’, a detriment for which she should be recompensed by an award of interest.
Although this argument seems logical at first sight, it ignores the fact that the power to award interest is discretionary, and that the exercise of this power should correspond with reality. In the present case, although the motorist incurred a genuine liability for the hire charges day by day, it was not a liability capable of immediate enforcement by the car hire company. In both practical and equal terms the financial position of the motorist was wholly unaffected by the defendant’s failure to make immediate payment, since the terms of the contract
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meant that until judgment was given she was not obliged to pay the hiring charges and also that as soon as the claim was ‘concluded’ and the period of credit came to an end the damages provided the necessary funds. In reality she was not ‘kept out of’ any money of her own whilst the claim was being assessed and litigated.
It is, however, contended that this is an over-simplification, because the motorist was from the outset under a duty to pay to the car hire company interest on the amount of the hiring charges for which she was receiving credit. I find this argument quite unsustainable. There is no provision in the contractual terms requiring the motorist to pay interest on money which he or she does not presently owe and may never owe; and the idea that such a provision may be implied runs counter to the central feature of the scheme, as presented to the House, which is that if all goes well the motorist will have the use of the substitute car without reaching for his or her credit card.
I should mention one further point for the sake of completeness. If the agreement had, expressly or by implication, given the car hire company a direct right against the proceeds of the claim, the position of the hiring company might have begun to resemble that of a subrogated insurer. It would then be necessary to examine H Cousins & Co Ltd v D & C Carriers Ltd [1971] 1 All ER 55, [1971] 2 QB 230 and Harbutt’s Plasticine Ltd v Wayne Tank and Pump Co Ltd [1970] 1 All ER 225, [1970] 1 QB 447, the outcome of which is that if the relationship between the insured and his insurer creates an obligation on the insured to account to the insurer for any interest recovered as well as for the capital sum, the court has a discretion to award interest to the insured on any damages which he recovers against a third party, in order to avoid a windfall to the third party and hardship to the insurer. These cases, which were not explored in argument, bear a superficial resemblance to the present; but in my view only superficial, because a subrogated insurer does have an interest in the insured’s cause of action and in its fruits of a kind which the hiring companies do not possess.
Thus, although an award of interest is always discretionary, I am unable to detect any grounds on which, in the circumstances of the present case, the discretion could properly be exercised in favour of the motorist. To this extent, therefore, I would allow the appeal in Devlin v Baslington. I must, however, emphasise the qualification ‘in the circumstances of the present case’. If the effect of the hiring agreement, or the general shape of events, were on some other occasion to be different from those now before the House it is possible that the exercise of the discretion might be less straightforward. But this is a hypothetical question upon which the House cannot enter.
VIII. CONSUMER PROTECTION
Finally, I must return briefly to the publicity material issued by the two companies. This is wholly irrelevant to the outcome of the appeals, since it did not form part of either contract, and there is no reason to believe that the benefits which the motorist actually received were any different from those which the brochures had promised. Nevertheless, there is in each case a conspicuous discrepancy between the brochure and the conditions of contract. This ought to be put right. For example, one of the brochures refers to ‘free’ car hire, whereas it is plain that the hire is not free: as indeed the car hire company asserted in order to make good its case on champerty. Similarly, in the case of the other car hire company, the motorist is told that ‘at no time are you out-of-pocket’, whereas the existence of a residual liability for hire shows that in law this may not be so, whatever may be the features of the scheme as actually practised.
My Lords, it may well be that there is nothing sinister about these discrepancies, but that they are simply another consequence of a failure by the
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promoters to give sufficient thought to the details of their schemes. Nevertheless, unless the words of the contract, the words of the publicity material and the actual practices of the companies are brought into conformity there is scope for the customers to be misled. Whether in such circumstances the authorities responsible for the operation of the consumer protection laws will think it appropriate to intervene is not a matter upon which the House can express any opinion. Nevertheless, I believe that if there is any abuse this will be the proper means for putting it right, rather than an invocation of the law relating to champerty.
IX CONCLUSION
In the result I would dismiss both appeals, save only that in Devlin v Baslington I would allow the appeal in respect of interest.
Appeal in Devlin v Baslington allowed in respect of interest; appeals otherwise dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Williams and another v Director of Public Prosecutions
[1993] 3 All ER 365
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence, Police
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): FARQUHARSON LJ AND WRIGHT J
Hearing Date(s): 1 MARCH 1993
Criminal evidence – Exclusion of evidence – Adverse effect on fairness of proceedings – Police leaving unattended van containing dummy cartons of cigarettes – Appellants taking cartons from van – Whether police officers acting as agents provocateurs – Whether police evidence resulting in unfairness to appellants – Police and Criminal Evidence 1984, s 78(1).
In the course of a crime initiative plan plain clothes police officers parked an insecure and unattended van in a busy street. The van contained an apparently valuable load of cartons of cigarettes, which were in fact dummy cartons, partly visible in the back of the van. The officers observed the appellants walking around the van and then removing cartons from the van. The appellants were arrested and charged with interfering with a motor vehicle or something carried in it with intent to commit theft, contrary to s 9(1) of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981. At their trial the justices found, inter alia, that the police operation was not directed at any specific individual, that the appellants had approached the van voluntarily and that they had intended to steal cigarettes knowing that they were acting dishonestly. The justices concluded that the appellants had incriminated themselves by their own dishonesty and not through any trick by the police acting as agents provocateurs and accordingly the admission of the police evidence of the theft would not have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings
Page 366 of [1993] 3 All ER 365
that it ought to be excluded under s 78(1)a of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 or at common law. The appellants were convicted. They appealed, contending that the police evidence was inadmissible because the appellants had been unfairly incited, induced or provoked into committing an offence which they would not otherwise have committed by police officers acting in effect as agents provocateurs by leaving an irresistible temptation in their path.
Held – The police had done nothing to force, persuade, encourage or coerce the appellants and therefore had not acted as agents provocateurs by participating in, procuring or counselling the commission of any crime. The appellants had voluntarily taken the goods in the absence of any pressure from the police and with full understanding of their dishonesty. In those circumstances, the admission of the evidence would not have an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings within s 78(1) of the 1984 Act and accordingly the appeal would be dismissed (see p 369 a to d and p 370 j to p 371 j, post).
DPP v Marshall [1988] 3 All ER 683 and R v Christou [1992] 4 All ER 559 followed.
Notes
For the discretion to exclude relevant prosecution evidence, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1060, and for a case on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 520, 17097.
For official collaboration in crime, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 48, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 137-138 1112-1116.
For the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s 78, see 17 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 228.
Cases referred to in judgments
DPP v Marshall [1988] 3 All ER 683, DC.
R v Christou [1992] 4 All ER 559, [1992] 3 WLR 228, CA.
R v Mason [1987] 3 All ER 481, [1988] 1 WLR 139, CA.
R v Payne [1963] 1 All ER 848, [1963] 1 WLR 637, CCA.
R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402, [1979] 3 WLR 263, HL.
Case stated
Gary John Williams and Edward Martin O’Hare appealed by way of a case stated by the justices sitting as a magistrates’ court at Barkingside, Ilford, Essex, in respect of their decision on 26 August and 2 September 1992 to convict them on charges that on 15 April 1992 at Claremont Grove, Woodford, acting together, they interfered with the contents of a motor vehicle with the intention that an offence specified in s 9(2) of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 be committed contrary to s 9 of that Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of Wright J.
Robert Meikle (instructed by Kennards) for the appellants.
Page 367 of [1993] 3 All ER 365
Keith Hadrill (instructed by Crown Prosecution Service, Stratford) for the prosecutor.
WRIGHT J (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Farquharson LJ). This is an appeal by way of case stated by the justices for the petty sessional division of Redbridge in the Northeast London commission area in respect of an adjudication made by them on hearing an information on 26 August and 2 September 1992. That information alleges that on 15 April 1992 the appellants, acting in concert, interfered with a motor vehicle, or with something carried on it, with intent to commit theft contrary to s 9(1) of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981.
The circumstances underlying this prosecution are conveniently contained in a chronology which has been provided for us by counsel for the appellants, to whom we are obliged both for the materials that have been provided to us and for the clarity and cogency of his submissions.
Taking the matters from that chronology, the background facts are as follows. On 15 April 1992, plain clothes police officers in the course of a Metropolitan Police motor vehicle crime initiative called ‘Operation Rover’ left an insecure and unattended Ford Transit van with an apparently valuable load of cartons of cigarettes, but which were in fact dummy cartons, visible through the partlyopened roller shutter at the rear of the vehicle. The vehicle was left in a busy shopping area which was an area of high motor vehicle crime. The van had the appearance of an ordinary commercial vehicle parked in a very busy through route and shopping area in Claremont Grove in Woodford in Essex with its rear facing a junction with a road known as Snakes Lane East, which was also a busy thoroughfare.
The van remained under the control and indeed under the observation of concealed police officers and its appearance did not give anyone reason to suppose that it had been abandoned. Police officers maintained observation on the van starting at 11.30 am, and the arrest of these two appellants occurred at 12.51 pm, about an hour and a half later. Between 11.30 am and 12.30 pm, a large number of people were logged and observed walking or passing by the vehicle, the vast majority of whom showed no interest in it whatsoever. It is right that we should record that two small boys aged about eight did apparently take some interest in the rear of the van, removing one dummy pack of cigarettes. They were intercepted and reprimanded by the police.
At 12.39 pm the two appellants accompanied by two women appeared on the scene and began to take an interest in the van. Over the course of the next ten minutes, both singly and together, they walked around the van and up and down the adjoining streets, plainly, it would appear, engaged in reconnoitring and assessing the situation. Finally, at 12.51 pm they went to the rear of the van and removed cartons from the cargo. Police officers then intervened. There was a struggle, but both were arrested. Both were subsequently interviewed and made full admissions of what they had been doing, namely, intending to steal from the vehicle, but both attributed their conduct, in anticipation of Mr Meikle’s submission to this court, to the temptation put in their way by the police. Mr Williams indeed admitted that he had half expected or suspected that the vehicle was part of what he called a ‘police set-up’.
The facts found by the justices, in addition to the foregoing history, included the following matters. During the course of the police operation police officers did not communicate with either of the appellants, either directly or indirectly through any third party, in order to obtain evidence. The police operation was not directed at any specific individual and the police had no idea of any specific
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individual, including the two appellants in this case, who would or might be in the area. No evidence was obtained as a result of the appellants being directly misled about any specific issue. There was no active negotiation or participation with either of the appellants or the world at large. No physical or mental force was applied, either in general to any individual or in particular to either of the two appellants to approach the van and take any of its contents. There was merely an expectation or hope that somebody, no particular individual, might act dishonestly and be apprehended. The police operation was not set up to gather evidence in respect of any specific crime which had already been committed.
The justices also found that the appellants approached the van entirely voluntarily without any verbal or physical compulsion. The appellants were tempted to take some of the contents of the van and participated in an opportunist crime which they had not set out that day to commit.
In the particular circumstances of this case an ordinary honest person would not be tempted to take, or take, some of the contents of the van, but both appellants intended to steal cigarettes, were acting dishonestly and knew that what they were doing was wrong. The appellants therefore incriminated themselves, not through any trick but by their own dishonesty. The final finding by the justices, which is the essential finding which is in dispute in this appeal, is that the conduct of the police was not innately unfair.
It is contended by Mr Meikle for the appellants that the whole of the evidence of the activities of the two appellants on that day, as observed by the watching police officers, and therefore the entire sum of the prosecution evidence for practical purposes, should be declared inadmissible on the grounds that the appellants were unfairly incited, induced or provoked into committing an offence which they would not otherwise have committed by police officers acting in effect as agents provocateurs by leaving irresistible temptations in their path.
This contention is based either upon the general principles of the common law, at least so far as any admissions made by the appellants are concerned, or more particularly upon the specific provision of s 78(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 with reference to the evidence of the appellants’ behaviour generally. The justices came to the conclusion, as I have indicated, that the police officers were not acting as agents provocateurs within the meaning of that term whether as described in the Report of the Royal Commission on Police Powers, which was produced in 1928, nor in the sense described by Lord Salmon in R v Sang [1979] 2 All ER 1222, [1980] AC 402. The police did not incite, counsel or procure the commission of any offence, nor did they direct their operation at any particular individual and certainly not at the appellants.
In my judgment, these findings by the justices were plainly fully justified on the evidence. The justices accordingly came to the conclusion that in all the circumstances the admission of this evidence would not have such an adverse effect upon the fairness of the proceedings that they should exclude it, and it is this decision which is the subject of this appeal. The questions therefore that are posed for the opinion of this court are threefold: (1) whether the police officers on the admitted evidence of entrapment were acting as agents provocateurs; (2) whether the justices were right in law not to exclude the evidence of the police acting as agents provocateurs; and (3) whether the justices failed properly to exercise their discretion under the common law and under s 78 of the 1984 Act to exclude the evidence which any reasonable bench of magistrates properly directing themselves as to the facts would have done.
It is apparent from the justices’ findings that counsel then appearing for the prosecution was prepared to concede that the circumstances in which the police
Page 369 of [1993] 3 All ER 365
were able to obtain this eye witness evidence against these appellants amounted to entrapment. For myself, I am far from satisfied that this was a concession properly made. But, given that the defence of entrapment is not one known to the law of England, in the event the concession may be of little consequence. The essential question for the justices, whether looked at from the common law standpoint or from that of s 78(1) of the 1984 Act, is whether the admission of the evidence would so prejudice a fair trial that it ought not to be admitted. The criterion of unfairness to be applied is the same in either case (see R v Christou [1992] 4 All ER 559, [1992] 3 WLR 228).
It is, in my judgment, clear from the justices’ findings that the police officers were not acting as agents provocateurs. In no sense were they participating in or inciting, procuring or counselling the commission of any crime. That phraseology is taken from the Home Office circular 97/1969 in which that phraseology is used, in my judgment rightly, to describe the essential characteristics of an agent provocateur. The police officers did nothing to force, persuade, encourage or coerce the appellants to do what they did. The appellants did the acts complained of voluntarily, of their own free will, in the absence of any pressure and with full understanding of their own dishonesty.
In one sense it may be said that the appellants were tricked into providing evidence against themselves by interfering with the van which they thought had been genuinely left unattended when in fact it was being kept under observation all the time by the police. But the true view of such a situation was neatly put by Lord Taylor CJ in Christou. That was a case where an undercover police operation in London was set up in Tottenham in a shop which purported to buy and sell jewellery commercially and which was understood to be open for business to deal in stolen property. A situation very akin to the present arose at the trial of a number of people who had been detected as participating in either burglary or handling stolen goods as a result of the activities of undercover police officers in that shop. A very similar submission as to the admissibility of the evidence thus gleaned was mounted before the trial judge at the Crown Court at Wood Green and thereafter before this court.
The learned trial judge, Judge McMullan, in his ruling said ([1992] 4 All ER 559 at 564, [1992] 3 WLR 228 at 235):
‘They were not tricked into doing what they would not otherwise have done, they were tricked into doing what they wanted to do in that place and before witnesses and devices who can now speak of what happened. I do not think that is unfair or leads to an unfairness in the trial.’
With reference to that part of the ruling by the learned trial judge, Lord Taylor CJ said ([1992] 4 All ER 559 at 564, [1992] 3 WLR 228 at 235):
‘Putting it in different words, the trick was not applied to the appellants: they voluntarily applied themselves to the trick. It is not every trick producing evidence against an accused which results in unfairness. There are, in criminal investigations, a number of situations in which the police adopt ruses or tricks in the public interest to obtain evidence. For example, to trap a blackmailer the victim may be used as an agent of the police to arrange an appointment and false or marked money may be laid as bait to catch the offender. A trick, certainly; in a sense too, a trick which results in a form of selfincrimination; but not one which could reasonably be thought to involve unfairness.’
Page 370 of [1993] 3 All ER 365
Lord Taylor CJ went on to draw the obvious distinction between that situation and that which arose in such well known cases as R v Payne [1963] 1 All ER 848, [1963] l WLR 637 and R v Mason [1987] 3 All ER 481, [1988] l WLR 139, which are plainly cases which are very different.
Mr Meikle seeks to draw the distinction that in Christou what the police officers were doing was not seeking to induce or incite the commission of fresh offences but to obtain evidence of offences which had already and previously been committed by the customers of this bogus trading establishment.
That, as it seems to me, is to some extent a distinction without a difference and I am reinforced in that view by the similarity that, as it seems to me, arises between what happened in this case and what happens in other cases of a not dissimilar nature, as was mentioned in argument, where in an attempt to track down a molester of women, as from time to time occurs, a young policewoman who is usually not lacking in courage is dressed in plain clothes and set to walk about in the areas, usually at night, where the molester is thought to be operating in the hope that he will attack the young policewoman who is under the observation of her colleagues and will as a result be caught.
If Mr Meikle’s submissions are soundly based, any evidence gathered as a result of such an exercise would have to be excluded on the grounds of unfairness, notwithstanding the fact that the attack upon the young police woman would itself constitute an offence which would no doubt give rise to prosecution. Such a conclusion does not, I have to say, immediately appeal to common sense.
Further support, in my judgment, is provided by the views expressed by this court in DPP v Marshall [1988] 3 All ER 683, another case which in all significant respects, as it seems to me, bears a close similarity to the situation that obtained in this case. Marshall is a decision of this court consisting of Woolf LJ and Hutchison J. I will read the headnote:
‘Police officers in plain clothes purchased four cans of lager and a bottle of wine from the respondents’ shop. The respondents were licensed to sell liquor by the case but not to sell individual cans or bottles of liquor. The respondents were charged with having sold the lager and the wine without having the requisite justices’ licence, contrary to s 160 of the Licensing Act 1964. At the hearing before the magistrates the respondents contended that the police officers’ evidence should be excluded under s 78(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 as having ‘an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings’ since it had been unfairly obtained because the officers had not at the time of the purchase revealed the fact that they were police officers. The magistrates accepted that contention and the prosecution was unable to proceed. The Director of Public Prosecutions appealed by way of case stated against the magistrates’ decision …’
This court held that the evidence of the police officers had been wrongly excluded by the magistrates since it had not been shown that the evidence of police officers who made test purchases in plain clothes would have an adverse effect upon the fairness of the proceedings.
In the course of his judgment Woolf LJ pointed out that the police officers had made those purchases in plain clothes, without revealing that they were police officers, presumably for the obvious reason that if they had revealed the fact that they were police officers they would not have been able to make the purchases that they did and thus establish the basis for the laying of the information. He went on to point out that, if the justices were entitled to exclude evidence on the basis which the justices in this case decided to exclude the evidence, that could
Page 371 of [1993] 3 All ER 365
have widereaching implications on the methods adopted of obtaining evidence in a large range of criminal offences of this sort. He then went on to say (at 685):
‘Perhaps unfairly, I invited counsel for the respondents to indicate how it could be said that the admission of the evidence of the police officers in this case would have an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings. Counsel for the respondents was unable to give an indication as to why it would have any adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings and was candid enough to accept that it is difficult to see, if those words of the section are focused on, how the evidence in question could have an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings.’
Equally unfairly, I fear, I asked Mr Meikle the same question. He struggled manfully to answer the question, but, with all respect to him, I have to say that he was able to give me no more satisfactory answer than counsel in Marshall’s case was able to give to Woolf LJ. Also the respondent in Marshall’s case committed the offence in question under the eyes of and, in one sense, at the invitation of the police officers who tricked him into thinking that they were ordinary customers, but this court took the view, unhesitatingly, that there was no sufficient adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings as would lead the court not to admit it. In our judgment, entirely the same question can be asked and exactly the same answer can be given and should be given in the facts and circumstances of this case.
In the circumstances, in my view, the answers to questions (2) and (3) of those posed by the justices for the opinion of this court were that the justices were right not to exclude the evidence of the police, whether under common law or by virtue of the provisions of s 78(1) of the 1984 Act. In the circumstances, in my judgment, the appeal should be dismissed.
FARQUHARSON LJ. I agree. The appellants in this case were plainly tempted to steal the cigarettes by the condition in which the vehicle and its contents had been left. They were so tempted but not persuaded by any words or pressure on the part of the police. In these circumstances I would for my part doubt whether the police or any one of them could accurately be described as agents provocateurs by reason of having parked the van in the state they did. The reason why the appellants stole the contents, or attempted to steal the contents, was not because the van was parked in the way it was but because of their own criminal instincts. However, whether the police are properly described as agents provocateurs is not perhaps of prime importance.
The real point in the case is whether in all the circumstances the admission of the evidence relating to the van could have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that it ought to have been excluded. I find it impossible to think that, applying that test, any magistrate, or indeed any reasonable member of the public, would consider it other than fair that the evidence should be before the court.
In my judgment, it is an entirely legitimate enterprise on the part of the police and of a permissible character for the detection of crime. I would agree that in essence this point was already covered by the decision in R v Christou [1992] 4 All ER 559, [1992] 3 WLR 228, which has been referred to in the judgment of Wright J. The appeal will accordingly be dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Electricity Supply Nominees Ltd v IAF Group plc
[1993] 3 All ER 372
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Rent
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (COMMERCIAL COURT)
Lord(s): ADRIAN HAMILTON QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 22 OCTOBER, 18 NOVEMBER 1992
Landlord and tenant – Covenant – Payment of rent and service charge without deduction or set-off – Action by landlord for non-payment of service charge and late payment of rent – Tenant seeking set-off for breaches of landlord’s repairing covenant – Whether anti-set-off covenant an unfair contract term – Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977, Sch 1.
The landlords brought an action against the tenant for non-payment of service charges and interest on late payment of rent under the terms of two underleases dated 1989. The terms of the lease included a covenant by the tenant ‘to pay the rent and all other sums payable under this lease _ without any deduction or set-off whatsoever’. The tenant’s defence relied on a counterclaim and set-off for alleged breaches of the repairing covenant. On the landlord’s application for summary judgment under RSC Ord 14 the tenant contended that, notwithstanding the exemption of contracts relating to ‘the creation _ of an interest in land’, s 3 of the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 precluded the landlord from relying on the anti-set-off provisions in the clause providing for payment of rent and other sums in the lease since the covenant to pay rent and other sums and the repairing covenant did not relate to the creation of the interest in land, but to rights and duties which arose after the creation of that interest.
Held – Where a lease was made in consideration of the payment of rent and of the tenant’s covenants, the reservation of rent and the covenants to pay rent, additional rent and other sums were an integral part of the creation of that interest in land and as such related to ‘the creation _ of an interest in land’ within para 1(b) of Sch 1 to the 1977 Act and were thus exempt from the provisions of s 3 of the Act. Furthermore, on its true construction, para 1(b) of Sch 1 was amply wide enough to cover both the covenant to pay rent and other sums together with the anti-set-off provision and also the repairing covenant. It followed that s 3 of the 1977 Act did not apply to the anti-set-off clause in the lease and the landlord was entitled to judgment under RSC Ord 14 (see p 375 e, p 376 e to g h to p 377 a, post).
Micklefield v SAC Technology Ltd [1991] 1 All ER 275 applied.
Notes
For contracting out from the right to deduct or abate, see 42 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 418, 428, and for set off between landlord and tenant, see ibid paras 462–463, and for cases on the subject, see 41 Digest (Reissue) 45–46, 447–449.
For the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977, s 1, Sch 1, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 221, 235.
Cases referred to in judgment
Blatherwick (Services) Ltd v King [1991] 2 All ER 874, [1991] Ch 218, [1991] 2 WLR 848, CA.
Page 373 of [1993] 3 All ER 372
Gill (Stewart) Ltd v Horatio Myer & Co Ltd [1992] 2 All ER 257, [1992] QB 600, [1992] 2 WLR 721, CA.
Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corp v Kloeckner & Co AG [1989] 3 All ER 513, [1990] 2 QB 514, [1990] 3 WLR 634.
Micklefield v SAC Technology Ltd [1991] 1 All ER 275, [1990] 1 WLR 1002.
Application
The plaintiffs, Electricity Supply Nominees Ltd, brought an action by writ issued against the defendants, IAF Group plc, claiming unpaid service charges and interest on the late payment of rent and applied under RSC Ord 14 for summary judgment against the defendants. The defendants sought to set the plaintiffs’ claim against their counterclaim for damages for breach of repairing covenant under the term of the lease between the parties. The application, which originally came to a master of the Queen’s Bench Division, was adjourned to a judge and was heard in chambers, but the judgment was delivered in open court. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Vivian Chapman (instructed by Jaques & Lewis) for the plaintiffs.
Mark West (instructed by Willmett & Co, Reading) for the defendant.
Cur adv vult
18 November 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
ADRIAN HAMILTON QC.
Preliminary
The plaintiffs, Electricity Supply Nominees Ltd (the landlord), sue the defendants, IAF Group plc (the tenant), for service charges and interest on late payment of rent, under two underleases, each dated 12 June 1989 and for a term of 24 years, one demising the third floor, and the other the fourth floor, of the building known as Milestone House, 107 Cannon Street, London EC4. The terms of each underlease are in all material respects identical. I shall hereafter refer to the underlease (the lease) of the third floor, but the citations from and the conclusions based on, the lease are equally applicable to the other underlease.
The lease provides for payment of rent and other sums without any deduction or set-off whatsoever. The tenant’s defence relies on a counterclaim and set-off, for alleged breaches of the repairing covenant.
The landlord has issued two summonses, one for summary judgment under RSC Ord 14, the other for an interim payment.
The evidence before me proves: (1) that the amounts claimed are due, subject to the set-off claimed; (2) that, although the landlord contests the allegations of breaches of the repairing covenant, the tenant has an arguable case that it has a counterclaim at least equal to the landlord’s claim.
An important issue has arisen whether the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 arguably precludes the landlord from relying on the anti-set-off provisions in the clause providing for payment of rent and other sums in the lease.
Both parties invite me to deliver judgment in open court, in view of the importance of the issue.
The terms of the lease
The relevant terms of the lease are as follows:
‘DEMISE
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2. IN consideration of the Rent and of the covenants on the part of the Tenant hereinafter contained the Landlord HEREBY DEMISES unto the Tenant ALL THAT the Demised Premises … unto the Tenant for the Term (subject to determination as hereinafter provided) YIELDING AND PAYING therefor during the Term FIRST yearly and proportionately for any part of a year Rent which shall … be payable by equal quarterly payments in advance on the Quarter Days the first of such payments or a proportionate part thereof to be due on the Rent Commencement Date and to be in respect of the period mentioned in the Particulars SECONDLY by way of additional rent all sums covenanted to be paid pursuant to Clause 3.5 hereof … FOURTHLY interest payable to Clause 3.2 hereof on the Rent and the additional rents hereby reserved
COVENANTS BY THE TENANT
3. The Tenant HEREBY COVENANTS with the Landlord as follows: To pay the Rent and other sums 3.1 To pay the Rent and all other sums payable under this Lease at the time and in the manner herein provided without any deduction or set off whatsoever … To pay interest 3.2 Without prejudice to any other right remedy or power herein contained or otherwise available to the Landlord if the Rent or any additional rents hereby reserved or any part thereof or any other sums payable to the Landlord pursuant to this Lease shall have become due and shall remain unpaid as to the Rent or any additional rents hereby reserved for seven days or as to the said other sums for fourteen days after in each case the due date for payment to pay to the Landlord on demand Stipulated Interest thereon … To pay service charge 3.5 At all times during the Term to pay to the Landlord or as the Landlord may direct by way of additional rent the amounts payable pursuant to the provisions of the Sixth Schedule hereto at the times and in the manner provided for in the said Sixth Schedule …
COVENANTS BY THE LANDLORD
4. The Landlord HEREBY COVENANTS with the Tenant as follows … To keep the Building in repair 4.4 Subject as hereinafter provided and to the receipt by the Landlord from the Tenant of all moneys payable by the Tenant pursuant to this Lease the Landlord will use its reasonable endeavours to maintain and repair the exterior and structure of the Building (excluding those parts of the Building the repair of which is the responsibility of the Tenant or any other tenant) and the Conduits (except those which exclusively serve the Demised Premises) …
PROVISOS
5. PROVIDED ALWAYS AND IT IS HEREBY AGREED that Re-entry 5.1.1 if the Rent or the other moneys hereby reserved or any part thereof or any other sum payable by the Tenant pursuant to any provision contained in this Lease or any part thereof shall at any time be in arrear and unpaid for twenty-one days after the same shall have become due (whether or not any formal or legal demand therefor shall have been made) or … Suspension of the Rent 5.2 If Demised Premises or any part thereof at any time during the Term is damaged or destroyed by any of the Insured Risks so as to be rendered unfit for use then (unless the policy moneys become irrecoverable in whole or in part through any act default or omission of the Tenant or other occupiers of the Demised Premises or their respective servants or agents and subject as hereinafter provided in this Clause) the Rent or a fair proportion thereof according to the nature and extent of the damage sustained shall be
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suspended until the Demised Premises and means of access thereto shall again be fit for use …’
Schedule 6 defines services to include the central heating system.
Position apart from the 1977 Act
It was common ground that: (1) prima facie a tenant is entitled to set-off damages for breach of a repairing covenant, against a claim for rent, service charges or interest; (2) the parties can contract out of a right of set-off: see eg Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corp v Kloeckner & Co AG [1989] 3 All ER 513 at 519, [1990] 2 QB 514 at 521.
The 1977 Act
The landlord accepts, for the purposes of this application, that the tenant would have an arguable case that the anti-set-off provision is caught by s 3 read with s 13 of the 1977 Act, if those sections are applicable.
By s 1(2) of the 1977 Act: ‘_ the operation of sections 2 to 4 _ is subject to the exceptions made by Schedule 1.’
Schedule 1 provides:
‘1. Sections 2 to 4 of this Act do not extend to—(a) any contract of insurance … (b) any contract so far as it relates to the creation or transfer of an interest in land, or to the termination of such an interest, whether by extinction, merger, surrender, forfeiture or otherwise …’
Construction
Mr Chapman, counsel for the landlord, submits that a lease is a contract which relates to the creation of an interest in land, and that the landlord’s right to rent and the various sums payable by way of additional rent and interest is part of the bundle of rights making up the lease. Accordingly the anti-set-off provision contained in the covenant to pay rent and other sums (cl 3.1) is excluded from the operation of, inter alia, s 3 of the 1977 Act. Mr Chapman argues that the words ‘so far as’ are intended to cover the situation of a composite contract, including, say, both a lease and a contract for the sale of goods, where only the terms of the lease would be exempted.
Mr West, counsel on behalf of the tenant, says that para 1(b) of Sch 1 only excludes from the operation of ss 2 to 4 of the 1977 Act that part of the lease which creates the interest in land, ie the demise itself; and that it does not exclude provisions relating to the rights and duties of the parties during the term which has been created by the lease. Accordingly, argues Mr West, the covenant to pay rent and other sums and the repairing covenant do not relate to the creation of the interest in land. They relate to the rights and duties which arise after the creation of that interest.
There is no direct authority on the point.
As the extract from Sch 1 which I have cited demonstrates, the types of contract excluded from ss 2 to 4 fall into two categories. (i) Any contract of a particular class, like insurance. (ii) Any contract ‘so far as it relates to’ transactions of a particular class.
In Micklefield v SAC Technology Ltd [1991] 1 All ER 275 at 281, [1990] 1 WLR 1002 at 1008 Mr John Mowbray QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court, considered the effect of para 1(e) of Sch 1, which provided that ss 2 to 4 of the 1977 Act do not extend to: ‘any contract so far as it relates to the creation or
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transfer of securities or of any right or interest in securities.' In that case the plaintiff’s contract of employment contained an option to subscribe for shares. The judge decided: ‘_ so far as the plaintiff’s contract of employment related to his option to acquire shares, it is excluded from the Act by para 1(e) of the schedule.’
I regard that decision (with which I respectfully agree) as consistent with both arguments, although more in line with the landlord’s case than the tenant’s case.
In Stewart Gill Ltd v Horatio Myer & Co Ltd [1992] 2 All ER 257, [1992] QB 600 the Court of Appeal decided that s 13(1)(b) of the 1977 Act extended the scope of s 3 of that Act, to apply to any contract term which excluded or restricted any right or remedy in respect of any liability the exclusion or restriction of which was prevented by s 3, and that a restriction of a right of set-off fell within that extension (see [1992] 2 All ER 257 at 261, 262, [1992] QB 600 at 606, 607–608 per Lord Donaldson MR and per Stuart-Smith LJ).
This is helpful to the tenant’s case if the 1977 Act applies, and the obscurity of s 13(1)(b) to which the Court of Appeal refers may explain the absence of authority on the enforceability of anti-set-off clauses such as this. Nevertheless it does not help me on the construction of para 1(b) of Sch 1.
I was referred to an extract from the Law Commission report on Exemption Clauses (1975) (Law Com no 69), which led up to the 1977 Act, on the basis that it can be considered to determine the mischief which that Act was designed to remedy. The recommendation as to leases was, however: ‘_ the Law Commission therefore sees no reason why leases should be excluded from the scope of the proposed control.' Parliament did not adopt that detail of the recommendation, so I am not assisted by the report.
I was also referred to extract from Emmet on Title (19th edn) and Hill & Redman’s Law of Landlord & Tenant (18th edn) but the general statements in those works were of limited assistance in the present context.
I must therefore apply my own construction of para 1(b) of Sch 1, to the present facts. I conclude that the landlord’s arguments are to be preferred.
The demise is made in consideration of the payment of rent and of the tenant’s covenants. The reservation of rent in this demise, and the covenants to pay rent, additional rent and other sums are an integral part of the creation of the interest in land by the demise. The repairing covenant is also an integral part of the contract for creation of the interest in land.
The words ‘relates to the creation _ of an interest in land’ are, in my judgment, amply wide enough to cover both the covenant to pay rent and other sums including the anti-set-off provision, and the repairing covenant.
Mr Chapman referred me to the construction put by the Court of Appeal on the words ‘relating to’ in a different context in Blatherwick (Services) Ltd v King [1991] 2 All ER 874 at 879, [1991] Ch 218 at 226 where Nourse LJ said : ‘In order that one thing may ‘relate to’ another it is unnecessary for them to be directly connected.’
I do not consider that para 1(b) of Sch 1 should be restricted as narrowly as Mr West submits. Indeed, on this construction it is difficult to identify the purpose of para 1(b) of Sch 1, as it is hard to think of a term in the demise itself, on which ss 2 to 4 could bite.
In my judgment all the covenants that are integral to the lease which creates the interest in the land ‘relate to’ the creation of that interest in land. What is taken out of the exemption provided by para 1(b) would be provisions which are
Page 377 of [1993] 3 All ER 372
not integral to the lease, but constitute a transaction of a different kind, included in the same document as the lease.
Conclusion
Accordingly I conclude that s 3 of the 1977 Act as extended by s 13 does not apply to the anti-set-off clause in cl 3.1 of the lease.
Therefore the defence of set-off is not in the circumstances available to the tenant, and the landlord is entitled to judgment under RSC Ord 14 for the sum claimed in the writ.
The tenant is, of course, entitled to proceed with his counterclaim.
Order accordingly.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Schnieder and others v Mills and another
[1993] 3 All ER 377
Categories: SUCCESSION; Wills: TAXATION; Inheritance Tax
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): ROBERT WALKER QC SITTING AS A JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 6 MAY 1993
Deed – Rectification – Deed of variation – Deed varying terms of will in order to reduce liability to inheritance tax – Clause in deed rendering legacy therein ineffective if read literally – Deed expressing intention to benefit testator’s wife – Making of mistake and nature thereof apparent – Whether deed ambiguous – Whether court should order rectification – Whether court entitled to take judicial notice of fact that deeds of variation not retrospective for tax purposes – Whether necessary for court to formulate precisely what words were omitted.
By cl 9 of his will the testator left the residue of his estate, in the events which happened, to his three sons absolutely. Since the residuary estate and the potential liability to inheritance tax were substantial, a deed varying the terms of the will was executed by the plaintiffs (the testator’s wife and executrix, and the testator’s three sons) and the defendants (the other two executors) within two years of the testator’s death in order to reduce the amount of inheritance tax payable on the testator’s death. The purpose of the deed, which recited an intention to benefit the testator’s wife, was to reduce the amount of inheritance tax payable on the testator’s death by increasing the part of the estate which attracted the surviving spouse’s exemption. Accordingly under cl 3(a) of the deed a pecuniary legacy of some £900,000 was to be held as to income for the testator’s wife for life and thereafter to the three sons absolutely. However, cl 7 provided that income from assets, money or property subject to the deed was to devolve as if the deed had not been executed. Because of the possibility that cl 7 might render the deed ineffective, the plaintiffs sought the court’s determination, inter alia, (i) whether the deed of variation was effective to vary the terms of the will, (ii) if so, whether the income arising during the lifetime of the testator’s wife and after the date of execution of the deed from the pecuniary legacy referred to in the deed was held on trust for the testator’s wife during her life and (iii) if not, whether the deed might be rectified.
Page 378 of [1993] 3 All ER 377
Held – It was clear that one of the purposes of the benefit which the deed conferred on the testator’s wife was to reduce the amount of inheritance tax payable on the testator’s death by increasing the part of the estate which attracted the surviving spouse’s exemption. However, if cl 7 was construed literally, all that was left of the elaborate deed of variation was a free-standing power over the capital of the new settled legacy and certain relatively minor administrative changes, of which the only significant one was a power for the trustees of the will to act by a majority. Such an effect was totally contrary to the apparent intention of the parties, since no rational parties, rationally advised, would have executed such an elaborate deed containing apparently carefully drafted clauses of which only about two sub-clauses had any significant effect. Although extrinsic evidence as to the effect of a deed was generally inadmissible if the deed was, on its face, free from ambiguity and a sensible meaning could be collected from the four corners of the deed as a whole, the deed varying the terms of the will was not free from ambiguity as there was a blatant contradiction between cls 3(a) and 7. Taking judicial notice of the fact that deeds of variation were not retrospective for income tax purposes but not of any esoteric or specialised parts of tax law, it was apparent that a mistake had been made, namely that the reference to income in cl 7 of the deed was to be taken as referring to income for the period between the testator’s death and the date of the deed. A declaration would be made accordingly (see p 379 j to p 380 a h j, p 382 c to e and p 383 b to f, post).
Blausten v IRC [1972] 1 All ER 41 and IRC v Cookson [1977] 2 All ER 331 considered.
Notes
For the correction of errors in deeds and non-testamentary instruments, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1502–1505, and for cases on the subject, see 17 Digest (Reissue) 399–408, 1627–1718.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bacharach’s Will Trusts, Re, Minden v Bacharach [1958] 3 All ER 618, [1959] Ch 245, [1959] 2 WLR 1.
Blausten v IRC [1972] 1 All ER 41, [1972] Ch 256, [1972] 2 WLR 376, CA.
Fitzgerald v Masters (1956) 95 CLR 420, Aust HC.
Follett (decd), Re, Barclays Bank Ltd v Dovell [1955] 2 All ER 22, [1955] 1 WLR 429, CA.
IRC v Cookson [1977] 2 All ER 331, [1977] 1 WLR 962, CA.
Tsang Chuen v Li Po Kwai [1932] AC 715, PC.
Whitrick (decd), Re, Sutcliffe v Sutcliffe [1957] 2 All ER 467, [1957] 1 WLR 884, CA.
Wolverhampton and Dudley Breweries plc v Trusthouse Forte Catering Ltd (1984) 272 EG 1072.
Originating summons
The plaintiffs, the testator’s wife, Edna Ann Hunnable Schnieder (Mrs Hunnable), and the testator’s sons, Martyn Thomas Hunnable, Christopher William Hunnable and Julian Scott Hunnable, served an originating summons dated 30 July 1992 on the defendants, Richard Morrell Mills and Robert William Russell Smith, who together with the testator’s wife were the executors of the will dated 16 April 1981 of the testator, Thomas Frederick Hunnable, deceased. By the summons the plaintiffs sought, inter alia, the determination of the court on (i) whether the deed of variation (the deed) dated 9 July 1987 and made
Page 379 of [1993] 3 All ER 377
between the plaintiffs and the defendants was effective to vary the terms of the testator’s will, if so (ii) whether on the true construction of the will and the deed the income arising after 9 July 1987 of the additional pecuniary legacy referred to in the deed was held on trust to pay the same to the testator’s wife for life, and if not (iii) whether the deed might be rectified. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Mark Studer (instructed by H J Smith & Co, Braintree) for the plaintiffs.
Michael Jefferis (instructed by H J Smith & Co, Braintree) for the defendants.
ROBERT WALKER QC. Thomas Hunnable (the testator) died on 3 August 1985 survived by his widow, who is now aged 55, and three children, all sons. The youngest son, Julian, attained full age soon after his father’s death. The testator’s widow has recently remarried, but it will be convenient to refer to her as Mrs Hunnable as she is so named in all the relevant documents.
The originating summons raises a short question as to the construction of a deed of variation executed on 9 July 1987 (the deed), shortly before the second anniversary of the testator’s death. The parties to the deed were the testator’s three sons, Mrs Hunnable, who is one of the testator’s executors, and the other two executors, who are professional men, Mr Mills and Mr Smith. The plaintiffs to the originating summons are Mrs Hunnable and her three sons. The defendants are Mr Mills and Mr Smith.
Although the question of construction is a short one, it takes a little time to explain how it arises. The testator owned Dynes Hall and its surrounding estate at Great Maplestead in Essex, other land in Essex, shares in his own family companies, and other assets, to a total value, as revised, of approximately £7·2m.
Because certain specific devises and bequests were adeemed, the only effective gifts, apart from chattels and other pecuniary legacies of relatively small value in an estate of this size, were as follows: cl 4(a), a pecuniary legacy of £200,000 to Mrs Hunnable absolutely; cl 7, a further pecuniary legacy of £2·3m, which was settled on Mrs Hunnable for life, with a power for the trustees to distribute capital to her (that is in cl 12) and subject to that, in the events which have happened, for the testator’s three sons in equal shares absolutely; by cl 9 of the will, residue was left (again, in the events which have happened) to the testator’s three sons absolutely.
It will be apparent from those few facts that the residuary estate, which is subject to inheritance tax, was under the initial dispositions substantial, and inheritance tax would also be substantial even after agricultural and business assets relief.
The effect of the deed (stated shortly, and ignoring for the present the effect of cl 7, which is the controversial clause) was that a new settled legacy, in addition to the settled legacy left by cl 7 of the will, was to be treated as having been given by the will, the amount of the legacy being computed by a complicated formula which will, in the events which have happened, produce a value of between £3m and £3·5m, leaving residue under the will and the deed together of about £900,000 subject to inheritance tax. These figures are not accurate, but they give a general idea of the sums involved and the effect of the deed.
It does not call for any esoteric or specialised knowledge of inheritance tax to see that one of the purposes of the benefit which the deed conferred on Mrs Hunnable (and the intention to benefit her was recited in recital 2 of the deed)
Page 380 of [1993] 3 All ER 377
was to reduce the amount of inheritance tax payable on the testator’s death by increasing the part of the estate which attracted the surviving spouse’s exemption.
I now describe the deed in a little more detail. Clause 1 contains definitions which are self-explanatory. Clause 2 provides:
‘THE WILL shall be read and construed as if in addition to the legacies for which it provided it had also contained the following additional pecuniary legacy namely a legacy of an amount in cash equal to [£900,000] less than [and there follows a formula describing the full unreduced value of the part of the estate not included in specific or pecuniary bequests, that part being net of debts and testamentary expenses but before inheritance tax] and the said pecuniary legacy of an amount determined in accordance with this Clause shall be held upon the trusts and subject to the powers and provisions hereinafter declared or applied in relation to the same by Clause 3 hereof as if the Will had so provided.’
Clause 3(a) created a life interest for Mrs Hunnable and subject thereto for the three sons of herself and the testator in equal shares absolutely. Clause 3(b) created a free-standing power for the trustees during the lifetime of Mrs Hunnable to distribute capital of the new settled legacy to her or apply such capital for her benefit. Clause 3(c) contained a power for the trustees at any time or times during Mrs Hunnable’s life to revoke wholly or in part her interest in possession under cl 3(a), which I have just summarised. Clause 3(d) provided for certain administrative powers and provisions to apply to the new settled legacy. Clause 3(e) contained a new provision of general application permitting the trustees to act by a majority. Clauses 4 and 5 of the deed in effect substituted new provisions affecting the testator’s residuary estate, but their substantial effect is barely different from that of the original residuary dispositions. Clause 6 provided as follows: ‘SUBJECT to the terms and provisions of this Deed the Will and all its provisions shall continue in full force and effect.' Clause 7, on which the question of construction arises, is in these terms:
‘NOTWITHSTANDING the terms of this Deed income of and from assets money or property the subject hereof shall devolve as if this Deed had not been executed.’
Clause 8 contains elections familiar to those who practice in this area of the law under s 142 of the Inheritance Tax Act 1984 and s 49(7) of the Capital Gains Tax Act 1979.
As soon as the implications of cl 7 have sunk in, it becomes apparent that the clause, if literally construed, has an extraordinary effect. One’s strong first reaction is that something has gone wrong. As Mr Studer for the plaintiffs puts it, and indeed Mr Jefferis for the defendants does not dissent from this, cl 7 is subversive of cl 3(a) which, it will be recalled, gives Mrs Hunnable a first life interest in the new settled legacy; and indeed not only of cl 3(a) but of virtually all of the deed. If cl 7 is literally construed and relentlessly given effect, all that is left of the elaborate deed of variation appears to be a free-standing power over the capital of the new settled legacy contained in cl 3(b) of the deed and certain relatively minor administrative changes, of which the only significant one seems to be the power for trustees of the will to act by a majority.
Such an effect would appear totally contrary to the apparent intention of the parties. No rational parties, rationally advised, could possibly execute a deed
Page 381 of [1993] 3 All ER 377
running to some eight apparently carefully drafted clauses of which, in the end, only about two sub-clauses are found to have any significant effect.
The question is, therefore, whether cl 7 should be interpreted otherwise than wholly literally. Mr Studer for the plaintiffs has argued that it can be and should be. Mr Jefferis has, for my assistance, put the arguments the other way: both arguments which have, as I am told, been raised in correspondence by the Capital Taxes Office, and such other arguments as have spontaneously occurred to Mr Jefferis himself. Such assistance from counsel for the defendants is essential since it is not, and never has been, the practice of the Chancery Division to decide a question of construction on a trust instrument without hearing argument from both sides.
The right approach to the construction of a trust instrument where something seems to have gone wrong is conveniently summarised in 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1502. Mr Studer took me through the whole of this paragraph and I draw particular attention to the passage which, having dealt with the omission of words, continues—
‘… words may be supplied, though more sparingly, when it is clear from the instrument itself that they have been omitted by inadvertence, and words and clauses may be transposed. Words will only be supplied or transposed so as to give effect to the clear intentions of the parties; it must therefore be clear not only that a mistake of omission or transposition has been made but also what correction is required in order to carry out the intentions of the parties.’
The authorities cited for these propositions include three comparatively recent cases on wills: Re Follett (decd), Barclays Bank Ltd v Dovell [1955] 2 All ER 22, [1955] 1 WLR 429, Re Whitrick (decd), Sutcliffe v Sutcliffe [1957] 2 All ER 467, [1957] 1 WLR 884 and Re Bacharach’s Will Trusts, Minden v Bacharach [1958] 3 All ER 618, [1959] Ch 245.
Mr Studer submits that this is a case falling within the principle that it is clear that an omission has been made and also what it is that has been omitted. He has referred me to two authorities, Fitzgerald v Masters (1956) 95 CLR 420 and Wolverhampton and Dudley Breweries plc v Trusthouse Forte Catering Ltd (1984) 272 EG 1072. Both cases are interesting as illustrations of the principle, but the second is of particular interest since it shows that the court may feel able to come to a definite conclusion as to what has been omitted even though it has heard two plausible and inconsistent arguments as to the nature of the omission.
Mr Studer says that in this case there is really no plausible alternative argument to the suggestion that words should be read in qualifying the reference to income in cl 7 to income arising during the period between the testator’s death and the date of the deed. He contends that of the various points in time that could possibly have been intended, that is the testator’s death, the date of the deed and the date of termination of Mrs Hunnable’s interest, whether by revocation or by her death, the only one that makes sense as a practical matter is the period from the testator’s death until the date of the deed.
Mr Jefferis, reflecting to some extent the views expressed by the Capital Taxes Office, largely accepts that these are the only relevant dates and periods, although he points to the possibility that the qualification should relate to income arising between the date of the deed and the date of termination of Mrs Hunnable’s interest. He has also drawn attention to the point made by the Capital Taxes Office that any date more than two years after the testator’s death
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would also have had significant fiscal consequences. That is true, but I can see no possible argument for the arbitrary selection of a date of that sort.
Mr Jefferis, who has most capably and responsibly performed his task of putting all possible arguments against Mr Studer, has, in the first place, cited to me a decision of the Privy Council in Tsang Chuen v Li Po Kwai [1932] AC 715. That was a case whose facts were very different from the instant case, and I am inclined to agree with Mr Studer that the principle in the case does, if anything, support his, Mr Studer’s, submission. The whole point of that Privy Council case was that the respondent was seeking, by extrinsic evidence, to deny and give a different effect to a deed as a whole. That approach was rejected, and properly rejected, as being an inadmissible approach if the deed itself was, on the face of it, free from ambiguity. The Privy Council said, as has been said in so many other cases, that if a sensible meaning can be collected from the four corners of the deed as a whole, then extrinsic evidence is not generally admissible.
However, it is important to my mind to remember that it is the four corners of the deed and not just one corner of the deed which are to be regarded for this purpose. In this case there is, on the face of it, a blatant contradiction between cl 3(a) and cl 7. It is not therefore possible, looking at the four corners of the deed, to say that it is free from ambiguity.
Mr Jefferis also drew my attention to the quotation in the Wolverhampton Brewery case (1984) 272 EG 1072 at 1073 from Re Whitrick (decd) [1957] 2 All ER 467 at 469, [1957] 1 WLR 884 at 887 per Jenkins LJ. I fully accept that that is a correct statement of a most important principle, that is that the court must be satisfied not only that something has gone wrong but also must be able, as Jenkins LJ put it, to ‘collect with sufficient precision the nature of the omission’.
Mr Jefferis also, very properly, drew my attention to two decisions of the Court of Appeal, that is Blausten v IRC [1972] 1 All ER 41, [1972] Ch 256 and IRC v Cookson [1977] 2 All ER 331, [1977] 1 WLR 962. Those cases are of relevance because of a superficial difference of approach between them on the question how far the court is entitled to assume that a person who executes a deed and/or his legal advisers are aware of its fiscal consequences and to construe the deed in the light of the fiscal background and apparent purpose of the deed.
I think that any conflict must be more apparent than real because Blausten v IRC was cited to the Court of Appeal in IRC v Cookson by Mr Vinelott QC, who was counsel in both cases. Stamp LJ, who delivered the only full judgment in IRC v Cookson, explained why there was no conflict between them. Stamp LJ described Blausten v IRC as a special case in that there was internal evidence of the fiscal result intended and that that could be taken account of as internal evidence (see [1977] 2 All ER 331 at 337, [1977] 1 WLR 962 at 968).
Mr Studer points out that from the deed itself, the relevant parts of which are quoted in the report, it does not appear that there was any reference to the fiscal purpose of the deed which arose from s 22 of the Finance Act 1958. Mr Studer points out that in the instant case, by contrast, there are express references to inheritance tax and capital gains tax and, indeed, to particular provisions of the inheritance tax and capital gains tax legislation in the deed.
I do not think, as I have said, that there is any real conflict between Blausten v IRC and IRC v Cookson. I think that Blausten v IRC is a case where the whole purpose of the deed was, in effect, the fiscal purpose and that it was sufficiently apparent so that the court had no difficulty in taking account of it. In IRC v Cookson, by contrast, the disposition made by a relatively young life tenant in giving up his life interest but, as the Court of Appeal held, preserving a power
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under which the trustees could distribute capital to him, was an entirely rational transaction which made sense, apart from fiscal considerations. It required a comparatively specialised knowledge of income tax law to see that there was any trap or improbability about it. The transaction in IRC v Cookson was not, to anyone other than a tax specialist, in any way a whimsical or pointless exercise.
The same cannot be said of the transaction embodied in the deed if cl 7 is to be given a completely literal effect. Not only would I regard this case as much closer to Blausten v IRC than to IRC v Cookson, but I would regard it as in fact much stronger on the facts than Blausten v IRC, both because of the total irrationality (not only to a tax specialist but to any sane person) of the transaction embodied in the deed if cl 7 is quite literally construed but also because there are, as Mr Studer has pointed out, express references in the deed to taxing statutes.
As I have already said, at least once, this is really a very short point. I feel no doubt about it at all. I feel quite satisfied both that a mistake was made and as to what that mistake was. That is that the reference to income in cl 7 of the deed must be taken as referring to income of the period between the testator’s death and the date of the deed. It is not, of course, necessary to formulate precisely the words that have been omitted for purposes of construction any more than it would be for purposes of rectification. It is the substance of what must be read in as qualifying income which is important.
In reaching this conclusion, I am not taking judicial notice of any esoteric or specialised parts of tax law. I think I am entitled to take judicial notice of the fact, well known to private client practitioners, that deeds of variation are not retrospective for income tax purposes. There is no statutory provision to that effect, and the Revenue naturally enough do not concede it.
Even if it were not right to have regard to that simple and comparatively well known point, it is still, it seems to me, the most natural thing in the world to state expressly in a deed of this sort that it is to have no retrospective effect as regards past income. It is the most natural thing in the world to say that in a deed of this sort because a deed of this sort does, of course, have retrospective effect by force of statute for both inheritance tax and capital gains tax purposes, if the requisite election is made.
Clause 7 of the deed to be construed with implication therein of the words ‘which has arisen prior to the date hereof’ after the word ‘income’. Application for rectification stayed. Costs to be paid out of the fund on an indemnity basis.
Susan J Murphy Barrister.
Scher and others v Policyholders Protection Board and others
Ackman and others v Policyholders Protection Board and others
[1993] 3 All ER 384
Categories: INSURANCE: CONSUMER; Consumer Protection
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD DONALDSON OF LYMINGTON MR, RUSSELL AND LEGGATT LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 16–19 JUNE, 9 JULY 1992
HOUSE OF LORDS
LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD ACKNER, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY AND LORD MUSTILL
22–25, 29, 30 MARCH, 15 JULY 1993
Insurance – Protection of policyholders – United Kingdom policy – Liquidation of insurer – Payment of claims overseas – Plaintiffs taking out professional liability policies in United States and Canada with authorised United Kingdom insurers – Insurers going into liquidation and unable to meet plaintiffs’ claims – Plaintiffs claiming indemnity from Policyholders Protection Board – Whether policies issued to plaintiffs United Kingdom policies – Whether plaintiffs entitled to indemnity from board – Policyholders Protection Act 1975, ss 4, 8(2).
The plaintiffs were lawyers, doctors and accountants practising in the United States and Canada who had taken out professional liability policies with four insurance companies which were authorised under the Insurance Companies Act 1982 to carry on insurance business in the United Kingdom. The plaintiffs were either individuals in private practice or individual partners and professional corporation partners of a legal partnership and the shareholders in the corporation partners. In 1990 the insurers became insolvent, petitioned for their winding up and stopped paying claims under the policies taken out by the plaintiffs. The question arose in the insurers’ liquidation whether the Policyholders Protection Board was under a duty to indemnify the plaintiffs in consequence of the insurers’ failure to meet the plaintiffs’ claims. The board was established pursuant to the Policyholders Protection Act 1975 for the purpose of assisting or protecting policyholders who had been or might be prejudiced as the result of the inability of authorised insurance companies carrying on business in the United Kingdom to meet liabilities under policies issued by them. Claims paid by the board were met by levies on the insurance industry. Under s 4(1)a of the 1975 Act the assistance or protection of the board was confined to a policy of insurance which was ‘a United Kingdom policy’, and under s 4(2) a policy was ‘a United Kingdom policy’ at any time when ‘the performance by the insurer of any of his obligations under the contract evidenced by the policy would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom’. Moreover, under s 8(2)b the board owed a duty only in respect of ‘any liability of a company in liquidation towards a private policyholder’. The plaintiffs sought declarations that the board was liable to indemnify them in
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respect of the insurers’ failure to meet their claims, contending that in paying professional liability claims in the United States and Canada the insurers were nevertheless ‘carrying on _ insurance business’ in the United Kingdom. The board and two insurance companies representing United Kingdom insurers subject to the levy imposed by the board contended, inter alia, that paying claims in the United States and Canada could not constitute carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom. The judge held, inter alia, (a) that a United Kingdom policy was one in respect of which, at the material time, the outstanding obligations of the insurance company would be performed in the United Kingdom, if the insurance company had not gone or been about to go into liquidation, in the sense that outstanding or unperformed obligations, including the doing of all things necessary for that purpose or ancillary thereto, would be carried out or carried through to completion in the United Kingdom, (b) that professional corporation partners and persons in partnership with them were not private policyholders and (c) that an insurer’s liability under s 8(2) and hence the board’s duty was limited to an amount due to a policyholder under the terms of the policy at the commencement of the liquidation and did not include liability for claims which had not been made or settled. The plaintiffs appealed and the defendants cross-appealed. The Court of Appeal allowed the appeals and the cross-appeals in part, holding, inter alia, (a) that a policy was a United Kingdom policy at any time when as part of the insurance business which the insurer was authorised to carry out in the United Kingdom it would have performed an obligation under the contract evidenced by the policy, whether or not it would have been performed in the United Kingdom, and that accordingly payment of a claim under a policy of insurance effected in the United Kingdom constituted the carrying on of insurance business within the United Kingdom, regardless of where the claim was paid, (b) that partners who were individuals were prevented from recovering from the board if the partnership included professional corporation partners and (c) that a person could not become a ‘policyholder’ and therefore entitled to claim against the board after the commencement of the liquidation. On appeal to the House of Lords the issue whether a policy was ‘a United Kingdom policy’ if payment of claims under the policy were made overseas was considered by the House separately and prior to consideration of the other issues.
Held – An insurance policy was a United Kingdom policy for the purposes of s 4 of the 1975 Act if, had any of the obligations under the contract evidenced by the policy been performed at the relevant time, such performance would have formed part of an insurance business which the insurer was authorised to carry on in the United Kingdom, whether or not such obligation would have been performed in the United Kingdom. The policy underlying s 4 was not so much the protection of the domestic consumer as the protection of assureds who obtained cover on the London market against the insolvency of insurers, the wider range of protection being matched with a wider range for the imposition of the levy. Accordingly, if claims under policies the performance of which was required to be authorised under the 1982 Act were to be paid in the United States or Canada, the performance nevertheless constituted the carrying on by the insurers of insurance business in the United Kingdom and the policies in question were United Kingdom policies, thereby giving rise to claims for an indemnity by the Policyholders Protection Board if the insurers were unable to meet a claim under the policies. The defendants’ appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 408 d to e, p 414 h to p 415 a and p 416 d to g, post).
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Notes
For policyholders protection, see 25 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 912–921.
For the Policyholders Protection Act 1975, ss 4, 8, see 22 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 84, 87.
For the Insurance Companies Act 1982, see ibid 161.
Cases referred to in judgments and opinions
Bedford Insurance Co Ltd v Instituto de Resseguros do Brasil [1984] 3 All ER 766, [1985] QB 966, [1984] 3 WLR 726.
Bradley v Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 961, [1989] AC 957, [1989] 2 WLR 568, HL.
Hasselblad (GB) Ltd v Orbinson [1985] 1 All ER 173, [1985] QB 475, [1985] 2 WLR 1, CA.
Law Car and General Insurance Corp, Re [1913] 2 Ch 103, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1024, CA.
Phoenix General Insurance Co of Greece SA v Halvanon Insurance Co Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 152, [1988] QB 216, [1987] 2 WLR 512, CA.
Post Office v Norwich Union Fire Insurance Society Ltd [1967] 1 All ER 577, [1967] 2 QB 363, [1967] 2 WLR 709, CA.
Sovereign Life Assurance Co, Re (1889) 42 Ch D 540.
Transit Casualty Co v Policyholders Protection Board [1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 358.
United General Commercial Insurance Corp Ltd, Re [1927] 2 Ch 51, [1927] All ER Rep 380, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments and parties’ cases
Adams v Adams (A-G intervening) [1970] 3 All ER 572, [1971] P 188, DC.
Adams v Cape Industries plc [1991] 1 All ER 929, [1990] Ch 433, Ch D and CA.
Art Reproduction Co Ltd, Re [1951] 2 All ER 984, [1952] Ch 89.
Ayerst (Inspector of Taxes) v C & K (Construction) Ltd [1975] 2 All ER 537, [1976] AC 167, HL.
Barty-King v Ministry of Defence [1979] 2 All ER 80.
Blakemore, Ex p, Re Blakemore (1877) 5 Ch D 372, CA.
British Equitable Bond and Mortgage Corp Ltd, Re [1910] 1 Ch 574.
Capital Annuities Ltd, Re [1978] 3 All ER 704, [1979] 1 WLR 170.
Cases of Taffs Well Ltd, Re [1992] BCLC 11, [1992] Ch 179.
City Life Assurance Co Ltd, Re [1926] Ch 191, [1925] All ER Rep 453, CA.
Comdel Commodities Ltd v Siporex Trade SA (No 2) [1988] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 590; affd in part [1990] 1 All ER 216, CA; affd [1990] 2 All ER 552, [1991] 1 AC 148, HL.
Dodds, Re, ex p Vaughan’s Exors (1890) 25 QBD 529.
Dynamics Corp of America, Re (No 2) [1976] 2 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 757.
Edwards v Society of Graphical and Allied Trades [1970] 1 All ER 905, [1970] 1 WLR 379.
Ellis & Co’s Trustee v Dixon-Johnson [1924] 1 Ch 342; affd [1924] 2 Ch 451, CA; affd [1925] AC 489, [1925] All ER Rep 715, HL.
F v West Berkshire Health Authority (Mental Health Act Commission intervening) [1989] 2 All ER 545, [1990] 2 AC 1, HL.
Federal Building Assurance Co Ltd, Re (1934) 34 SR (NSW) 499, NSW SC.
General Rolling Stock Co, Re (1872) LR 7 Ch App 646, [1861–73] All ER Rep 434, CA.
Hardy v Fothergill (1888) 13 App Cas 351, [1886–90] All ER Rep 597, HL.
Humber Ironworks and Shipbuilding Co, Re (1869) LR 4 Ch App 643
International Tin Council, Re [1987] 1 All ER 890, [1987] Ch 419; affd [1988] 3 All ER 257, [1989] Ch 309, CA.
Page 387 of [1993] 3 All ER 384
Johnston v Great Western Rly Co [1904] 2 KB 250, CA.
Life and Health Assurance Association Ltd, Re, Berry’s claim [1913] 2 Ch 137.
Lines Brothers Ltd, Re [1982] 2 All ER 183, [1983] Ch 1.
Maxwell v Price (Halford, third party) [1960] SR (NSW) 676, NSW SC (Full Ct); affd sub nom Halford v Price (1960) 105 CLR 23, Aust HC.
National Benefit Assurance Co Ltd, Re [1924] 2 Ch 339, [1924] All ER Rep 426.
Neal, Ex p, Re Batey (1880) 14 Ch D 579, CA.
Northern Counties of England Fire Insurance Co, Re, Macfarlane’s claim (1880) 17 Ch D 337.
Overmark Smith Warden Ltd, Re [1982] 3 All ER 513, [1982] 1 WLR 1195.
Parity Insurance Co Ltd (liquidators), Ex p 1966 (1) SA 463, Witwatersrand LD.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
R v Federal Steam Navigation Co Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 97, [1974] 1 WLR 505, HL.
Rafidain Bank, Re [1992] BCLC 301.
Roberts Petroleum Ltd v Bernard Kenny Ltd [1983] 1 All ER 564, [1983] 2 AC 192, HL.
Rummens v Hare (1876) 1 Ex D 169.
Stewart v Oriental Fire and Marine Insurance Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 777, [1985] QB 988.
Sweeting v Pearce (1861) 9 CBNS 534, 142 ER 210, Ex Ch.
United London and Scottish Insurance Co, Re, Newport Navigation Co [1915] 2 Ch 12, CA.
Varty (Inspector of Taxes) v Lynes [1976] 3 All ER 447, [1976] 1 WLR 1091.
Winter v IRC [1961] 3 All ER 855, [1963] AC 235, HL.
Appeals and cross-appeals
The plaintiffs in the first action, Jonathan Scher, Robert Spencer Siffert and Reza Khatib, and the plaintiffs in the second action, Milton R Ackman and 321 other plaintiffs, of whom 68 were partners in Fried Frank Harris Shriver & Jacobson and 234 were partners in Ernst & Young (formerly known as Clarkson Gordon), appealed from the decision of Webster J ([1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321 at 323) on 1 April 1992 granting the plaintiffs declaratory relief on the plaintiffs’ originating summons against the first defendants, the Policyholders Protection Board, and the second and third defendants, Royal Insurance (UK) Ltd and New Hampshire Insurance Co Ltd, who were joined as defendants to both actions in their own behalf and as representing the class of persons authorised to carry on insurance business in the United Kingdom on whom the board might impose or seek to impose a general business levy under the Policyholders Protection Act 1975. The defendants each cross-appealed from the judge’s order. The relief granted by the judge was, inter alia, that: (1) on the true construction of s 4(2) of the 1975 Act (i) a United Kingdom policy was one in respect of which, at the material time, the outstanding obligations of the insurance company would be performed in the United Kingdom, if the insurance company had not gone or been about to go into liquidation, (ii) the word ‘performed’ meaning carrying out or carrying through to completion those outstanding or unperformed obligations, including the doing of all things necessary for that purpose or ancillary to it, and not meaning only the final performance of those things in a real sense or including the mere performance in the United Kingdom, other than as part of some wider acts of performance there, of purely formal acts or other acts which could properly be regarded as de minimis; (2) on the true construction of s 6(7) of the 1975 Act and of s 96 of the Insurance Companies Act 1982 (i) a public company could not be a private policyholder, (ii) the words ‘legal holder’ as used in the definition of policyholder in s 96 meant a person with legal possession of an actual policy
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document evidencing a contract of insurance under which he was insured, or a person having the immediate right to possession of such a policy document, (iii) a person ‘to whom _ a sum is due’ as those words were used in s 96 meant in the case of a professional indemnity policy a person whose liability to an injured third party had become crystallised by a settlement, award or judgment so that he had a vested right to sue the insurance company for an amount due under the policy or to require the insurance company to indemnify him against his liability to the third party, (iv) an individual meant a single person and excluded any body of persons, (v) a professional corporation established under the Business Corporation Law of New York or the District of Columbia Professional Corporation Act consisting of two shareholders or more could not constitute or be regarded as an individual, (vi) a professional corporation consisting of one shareholder was not to be regarded as an individual, (vii) a person who was a director or a shareholder of a professional corporation who was sued personally and made liable under the policy, either by a bona fide settlement, award or judgment, was an individual; (3) those professional persons who were disqualified from protection as members of a partnership because one of the partners was a professional corporation were not protected under the 1975 Act in their capacity as individual members of the partnership, except that such a person and a person who was a shareholder or director of a professional corporation who was personally sued and made liable under a policy was an individual for the purposes of the 1975 Act provided that he was a person to whom under the policy a sum was due; and (4) on the true construction of s 8(2) of the 1975 Act the words ‘any liability of a company in liquidation _ under the terms of any policy’ meant, in the case of a professional indemnity policy, liability of the company for a sum due to the policyholder under the terms of a policy at the beginning of the liquidation, as defined in the 1975 Act, and did not include liability for the value of a policy to the policyholder when at the beginning of the liquidation either no claim had been made or a claim had been made but had not by then been determined by judgment, award or settlement. The Secretary of State for Trade and Industry was given leave by the Court of Appeal to intervene in the appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Lord Donaldson MR.
Anthony Grabiner QC, Michael Crystal QC and Geoffrey Vos (instructed by Wilde Sapte) for the plaintiffs in the first action.
Gordon Pollock QC, Mark Phillips and Lloyd Tamlyn (instructed by Freshfields) for the plaintiffs in the second action.
Peter Scott QC and Rory Phillips (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the Policyholders Protection Board.
S A Stamler QC and Alan Griffiths (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the Royal Insurance.
Nicholas Legh-Jones QC (instructed by Kennedys) for New Hampshire Insurance.
Elizabeth Gloster QC (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Cur adv vult
9 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
LORD DONALDSON OF LYMINGTON MR.
Introduction
This is an appeal from a judgment of Webster J ([1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321 at 323) on 1 April 1992 in two consolidated originating summonses which raise questions as to the true construction and effect of the Policyholders Protection Act 1975
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read with the Insurance Companies Act 1982. The Policyholders Protection Board is a statutory corporation created by the 1975 Act, having the duty to make payments to policyholders in circumstances defined in and by the 1975 Act. It defrays its expenditure by means of a levy on authorised insurers. The Royal Insurance (UK) Ltd (Royal) and the New Hampshire Insurance Co Ltd (New Hampshire) are parties to the proceedings on their own behalf and as representing all insurers upon whom the board may impose or seek to impose a general business levy pursuant to the Act.
At the beginning of the hearing a direction was made under RSC Ord 59, r 8 enabling the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry to intervene in the appeal, notwithstanding that he had neither been, nor sought to be, a party to the proceedings in the court below. Such a direction is very rarely made in circumstances in which there does not exist ‘a question or issue arising out of or relating to or connected with any relief or remedy claimed in the cause or matter’ (Ord 15, r 6(2)(b)(ii)). Indeed I know of only one previous instance, namely Hasselblad (GB) Ltd v Orbinson [1985] 1 All ER 173, [1985] QB 475. However under the 1982 Act the Secretary of State is the regulator of insurance companies carrying on business in the United Kingdom and in addition he has specific duties under the 1975 Act (see ss 28 and 30). In these circumstances it seemed to us that he or his department might have a wider perspective of the practical effects of particular constructions of the 1975 Act than could be expected of the parties, other than possibly the board, and that submissions based upon that perspective might in some eventualities assist us in our task of answering the questions which arise in this appeal.
The appeal is that of two groups of plaintiffs. The ‘Ackman group’ consists of 303 plaintiffs who were either partners in Fried Frank, a partnership of lawyers practising in the United States, or partners in Clarkson Gordon, a partnership of accountants practising in Canada. The ‘Scher group’ consists of three plaintiffs who are physicians. They are said to be representative of some 5,000 doctors practising in New York. The interest of the plaintiffs arises out of professional liability insurance policies subscribed by four insurance companies which at the material time were authorised United Kingdom insurers under the 1982 Act. Those companies, together known by the acronym ‘KELM’, are Kingscroft Insurance Co Ltd, El Paso Insurance Co Ltd, Lime Street Insurance Co Ltd and Mutual Reinsurance Co Ltd.
The KELM companies stopped paying claims in March 1990 and in August 1990 petitioned the court for their winding up. Those petitions have been adjourned to enable the companies to prepare schemes of arrangement pursuant to s 425 of the Companies Act 1985. On 5 March 1992 partners of Cork Gully were appointed provisional liquidators of each of the KELM companies. The urgency of this matter stems from the fact that the success of any scheme of arrangement is crucially dependent upon the board being able to assist the companies pursuant to s 16 of the 1975 Act and that the propriety of such action is dependent upon how the questions in issue in the appeal are answered. No progress can therefore be made pending the result of this appeal.
These questions are by no means easy and in answering them we have had the assistance of seven Queen’s Counsel and five juniors representing six parties, all of whose approaches differ to a greater or lesser extent. It is of great credit to them and demonstrates the advantages of a system involving the delivery of skeleton arguments followed, in this case, by two days of prereading by the judges, that oral argument, which is so expensive for the parties, lasted only three and a half days. Even taking the fullest account of increased expense consequent
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upon the need to prepare skeleton arguments, this has been a cost-effective modernisation of the court’s procedures. What it does not achieve in the same measure is an increase in the court’s disposal rate for appeals. This is because some, and sometimes much, of the time which would otherwise be spent by the judges in court has now to be spent in their rooms reading papers in advance of the hearing and, after the hearing, discussing and digesting the combined effect of both the oral and the written arguments. The ‘post hearing’ process in this case lasted for four days. Even so, there will be cases when there will be significant saving of time because, for example, prereading has produced the tentative conclusion that some alternative or subsidiary issues are unlikely to arise and need be addressed only if and when they do arise.
The scheme of the 1975 Act
The general purpose of the 1975 Act, so far as relevant to this appeal, is stated in the long title in the following terms:
‘An Act to make provision for indemnifying (in whole or in part) or otherwise assisting or protecting policyholders and others who have been or may be prejudiced in consequence of the inability of authorised insurance companies carrying on business in the United Kingdom to meet their liabilities under policies issued or securities given by them, and for imposing levies on the insurance industry for the purpose …’
Section 1, which in sub-s (2) confirms this purpose, and s 2 of the 1975 Act establish the board and enable the Secretary of State to give the board written guidance.
Sections 3 and 4 define the general scope of the board’s functions. Section 3 limits this scope to action in relation to policyholders and others who have been or may be prejudiced by the inability of authorised insurance companies to meet their liabilities under the policies issued by them. The authorisation referred to is granted by the Secretary of State under s 3 of the 1982 Act ‘to carry on insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom’. Section 4 of the 1975 Act further limits the scope of the board’s functions by confining it to ‘United Kingdom policies’ as therein defined.
Sections 6 to 12 prescribe the duties of the board in the case of authorised insurance companies which are in liquidation. By contrast ss 16 and 17 empower the board to take steps with a view to protecting policyholders if authorised insurance companies, although not in liquidation, are in ‘financial difficulties’ as therein defined.
Sections 18 to 21 make provision for the board to recoup its expenditure by levies on some insurance intermediaries (ss 19 and 20) and upon authorised insurance companies (s 21). The levy on intermediaries is only in respect of ‘long term business’ as defined in s 1 of and Sch 1 to the 1982 Act, such as life and annuity policies. There are separate levies on authorised insurance companies in respect of long term business and of ‘general business’ as defined in s 1 of and Sch 2 to the 1982 Act. These appeals are concerned with general liability insurances the effecting and carrying out of which are within class 13 of Pt I of Sch 2 and thus constitute ‘general business’. The duties of the board under ss 6 to 12 differ according to whether the insurances concerned are compulsory insurance policies and securities (s 6), other general policies (s 8) or long term policies (ss 10 to 12). The board also has a duty in relation to the rights of third parties against insurance companies in road traffic cases (s 7).
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The questions
Although the questions asked by the originating summonses were related to the circumstances of the plaintiffs, they have in some measure become generalised in recognition of the fact that the proceedings have something of the character of a test action designed, inter alia, to give guidance to the board. So generalised they may be formulated as follows. (1) What is a ‘United Kingdom policy’ within the meaning of s 4 of the 1975 Act? (2) What is a ‘private policyholder’ within the meaning of s 6(7) of the 1975 Act, read with s 96 of the 1982 Act? (3) What is meant by ‘the amount of any liability of a company in liquidation towards a private policyholder under the terms of [any general policy other than a compulsory policy] which was a United Kingdom policy at the beginning of the liquidation’ in s 8(2) of the 1975 Act?
The answers
All three members of the court have collaborated in the drafting of the formal declaratory answers to these questions. Those answers are, for convenience, set out only in this judgment, but are to be regarded as included in and affirmed by the judgments of Russell and Leggatt LJJ.
‘United Kingdom policy’
Section 4 of the 1975 Act is in the following terms:
‘Protection confined to United Kingdom policies.—(1) A policyholder is eligible for the assistance or protection of the Board in accordance with any provision of sections 6 to 16 below only in respect of a policy of insurance which was a United Kingdom policy for the purposes of this Act at the material time for the purposes of the provision in question.
(2) A policy of insurance is a United Kingdom policy for the purposes of this Act at any time when the performance by the insurer of any of his obligations under the contract evidenced by the policy would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom.’
There is more than one potentially material time in the context of the plaintiffs’ policies, namely the beginning of the insurers’ liquidation if, hereafter, the insurers are wound up and the plaintiffs are seeking payment under s 8(2) of the Act or, if the board is minded to act under s 16 of the Act with a view to safeguarding policyholders, one of the relevant times specified in s 16(6), namely the times when the provisional liquidator was appointed, when the winding-up petition was presented or when application was made under s 425 of the Companies Act 1985. In addition there must have been another material time, now passed, when a decision had to be made as to whether the plaintiffs’ policies were United Kingdom policies for the purpose of calculating the net premium income of each insurer in the context of the general business levy under s 21(3) of the 1975 Act.
The essential question posed by sub-s (2) is whether, looking at the matter at the relevant time, the performance by the insurer of his outstanding obligations under the contract would constitute the carrying on by him of insurance business in the United Kingdom. Since the insurer will usually be in liquidation at the material time, the question is necessarily hypothetical. One other point needs to be made. This is that the test turns upon the insurer’s obligations under the contract, not his obligations under, for example, the 1982 Act nor his obligation to his shareholders to investigate claims fully before paying them.
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It is against this background that battle has been joined. The two representative insurance companies point out, rightly, that at the material time it is likely, but not inevitable, that the only outstanding obligation under the contract will be to make payment to or for the benefit of the policyholder. In the case of the plaintiffs’ policies it is inherently likely that such payment would be made in North America, since that was where the policyholders practised. Paying claims in North America cannot, they submit, constitute carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom.
The plaintiffs for their part submit that the place where payment would have been made may not even be determinable at the time of the liquidation and, if it be said that the payment of claims outside the United Kingdom cannot constitute the carrying on of insurance business within the United Kingdom, where is the business carried on? The alternatives seem to be ‘nowhere’ or ‘in North America’. The first answer is absurd and the second leads inevitably to the conclusion that a North American insurer without any place of business in the United Kingdom who pays a claim in the United Kingdom will be held to be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom and require authorisation under the 1982 Act if he is not to commit a criminal offence.
Webster J’s answer to this question was ([1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321 at 342):
‘Upon a true construction of s. 4 of the Policyholders Protection Act, 1975: (1) A United Kingdom policy is one in respect of which, at the material time, the outstanding obligations of the insurance company would be performed in the United Kingdom, if the insurance company had not gone or was not about to go into liquidation. (2) The word “Performed” in par. 1(1) of this declaration:—(a) means carrying out or carrying through to completion those outstanding or unperformed obligations, including the doing of all things necessary for that purpose or ancillary to it, and (b) does not mean only the final performance of those obligations in a real sense, and (c) does not include the mere performance in the United Kingdom, other than as part of some wider acts of performance there, of purely formal acts or other acts which can properly be regarded as de minimis.’
I think that this means that for the purpose of determining whether a policy is a United Kingdom policy whilst one ignores any outstanding obligations of the insurer which, but for the liquidation, he would have performed outside the United Kingdom, eg payment to or on behalf of the policyholder, regard is nevertheless to be had to actions which would have been taken by the insurer within the United Kingdom preparatory to and in furtherance of that performance.
Central to the construction of s 4(2) is the concept of ‘the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom’. This is something which is prohibited by s 2 of the 1982 Act in the absence of authorisation. Both under the 1982 Act and under its predecessor, the Insurance Companies Act 1974, carrying on insurance business is constituted by ‘the effecting and carrying out of contracts of insurance’.
In the instant cases the risk is primarily a foreign one because the professionals concerned were based in North America, although they could travel to and commit acts of professional negligence in the United Kingdom. Re United General Commercial Insurance Corp Ltd [1927] 2 Ch 51, [1927] All ER Rep 380 is authority for the proposition that this factor does not lead to the conclusion that the insurer is carrying on insurance business outside the United Kingdom. There the issue was whether the policyholder could claim against a deposit made pursuant to s 2
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of the Assurance Companies Act 1909 or whether he was an ordinary creditor. The policy which insured against employers’ liabilities had been issued in England, was expressed in English terms and was subject to English law. The premiums had been paid in sterling in England. However, the risk was foreign, being in respect of workmen employed by the policyholder in France and Belgium. The relevant statutory provision was s 33(1)(i) of the 1909 Act, which provided:
‘If the company carries on employers’ liability insurance business outside the United Kingdom, that business shall not be treated as part of the employers’ liability insurance business carried on by the company for the purposes of this Act.’
This court (Lord Hanworth MR, Sargant and Lawrence LJJ) held that the insurers were ‘carrying on’ or ‘transacting’ insurance business within the United Kingdom, notwithstanding that the risks were ‘foreign business’. Although it is of no relevance, it is not without interest that, as I understand it, authorised insurers have to make returns to the Department of Trade and Industry under the heading of ‘Home’, ‘Home-Foreign’ and ‘Foreign’. The risk being ‘Foreign’ and the business ‘Home’, this was an instance of ‘Home-Foreign’ business.
In Bedford Insurance Co Ltd v Instituto de Resseguros do Brasil [1984] 3 All ER 766, [1985] QB 966 Parker J held that the statutory prohibition under the 1974 Act applied equally to effecting contracts of insurance as to carrying them out. Quite apart from the fact that this conclusion received the obiter approval of this court in Phoenix General Insurance Co of Greece SA v Halvanon Insurance Co Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 152, [1988] QB 216, I have no doubt that it is right. However, his view was based upon the transitional provisions of s 11(4) of the 1974 Act and it would I think be a mistake to infer that Parliament necessarily intended or even contemplated that authority might be needed for effecting contracts of insurance but not for carrying them out, or vice versa, save in such circumstances or perhaps if there was an assignment of a contract of insurance by an overseas insurer to one carrying on insurance business within the United Kingdom. Insurance business is normally indivisible. The insurer who effects the contract carries it out. This is his business and if he carries on that business in the United Kingdom he is required by s 2 of the 1982 Act to be authorised.
Section 4(1) of the 1975 Act requires the question of whether a policyholder is eligible for the assistance or protection of the board to be determined if and when that issue arises. That issue arises if, and only if, at that time there are any obligations under the contract which the insurer has not yet performed. If there are, the board has to ask itself two questions. The first arises under s 3 and is: is the insurer an authorised insurer? If the answer is No, the board need look no further. If the answer is Yes, the board must ask itself the second question. This is: would the performance of these obligations by the insurer constitute the carrying on by him of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom? It is not: would the performance of these obligations by itself or viewed in isolation constitute the carrying on by him of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom? An insurer can, of course, be authorised to carry on business in the United Kingdom without in fact doing so. This should always be the case initially, because he cannot lawfully start the business without authorisation. It could also be the case, and will often be so, at the moment when the board is called upon to intervene, because the classic case for intervention is that the insurer has ceased to carry on his business by performing his contracts of insurance. Hence the conditional ‘would’ in s 4(2).
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In a word the test is whether the authorised insurer has been carrying on insurance business within the United Kingdom and whether, if he were to perform his unperformed obligations under the contract in question, this performance would form part of that business. I fully accept that investigating claims is not an obligation under the contract of insurance, but is a duty owed by the insurer to himself or to his shareholders. Obligations under the contract of insurance can take a variety of forms, but for present purposes it is convenient to concentrate upon the classic obligation of payment.
Payment of claims under a policy of insurance effected in the United Kingdom will always constitute the carrying on of insurance business within the United Kingdom wherever the claims are paid, because payment under such a policy is part and parcel of carrying on insurance business within the United Kingdom. The position where the policy is effected outside the United Kingdom, but claims are paid within it, is a little more difficult. It can also rarely arise for consideration by the board. It does not arise if the insurer is unauthorised, as would usually be the case. It does not arise if the insurer does not carry on business in the United Kingdom, as in agreement with the approach of Parker J (who was considering the earlier legislation) in Bedford Insurance Co Ltd v Instituto de Resseguros do Brasil [1984] 3 All ER 766 at 772, [1985] QB 966 at 982 I consider that the mere payment by an overseas insurance company of claims in this country is not prohibited by the 1982 Act. Any contrary conclusion would be absurd. The only difficulty which can arise is where an authorised insurer carries on insurance business both in this country and abroad in the sense of effecting policies. The 1982 Act is not, I think, intended to prevent United Kingdom insurance companies from carrying on insurance business overseas without authorisation and it must follow that an authorised United Kingdom insurance company could have a separate and distinct overseas insurance business, whose policyholders would have no claim to the board’s assistance or protection. Whether any particular contract of insurance was effected as, or its performance would constitute, part of the authorised insurers’ United Kingdom business or of their overseas business would be a question of fact, but would probably be determined by the place where the policy was effected.
I would emphasise that a contract of insurance will not be any the less ‘effected’ in the United Kingdom in a case in which it has been ‘sold’ by an overseas agent or broker, if the insurer’s only place of business is in the United Kingdom. All that is then happening is that the insurer’s United Kingdom business has an export as well as a home market element. Engaging in the export trade is not the same thing as setting up an overseas business. It is those (or some of them) who ‘buy British’ that the 1975 Act is concerned to protect.
Declaration (United Kingdom policy)
‘A policy is a United Kingdom policy at any time when as part of the insurance business which the insurer is authorised to carry out in the United Kingdom he would have performed an obligation under the contract evidenced by the policy, whether or not it would have been performed in the United Kingdom.’
Private policyholder
This question resolves itself into two questions, namely (a) who is a policyholder and (b) who falls within the more restricted category of being a ‘private’ policyholder? Those who are interested in contracts of insurance fall into at least five categories: (i) the insurer; (ii) the other parties to the contract of
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insurance; (iii) persons indemnified under the policy who were not parties to the contract, eg someone driving a motor car with the consent of the insured owner of the vehicle or employees of an employer who is a party to the contract; (iv) payees under the policy who are not parties to the contract of insurance; and (v) those with an equitable interest in sums payable under the contract of insurance, eg a bank with whom the policy has been deposited as security for a loan.
‘Policyholder’ is defined in s 96(1) of the 1982 Act and that definition is applied to the 1975 Act by s 32, as amended. It is in the following terms:
‘“policy holder” means the person who for the time being is the legal holder of the policy for securing the contract with the insurance company or, in relation to capital redemption business, means the person who for the time being is the legal holder of the policy, bond, certificate, receipt or other instrument evidencing the contract with the company, and—(a) in relation to such ordinary long-term insurance business or industrial assurance business as consists in the granting of annuities upon human life, includes an annuitant; and (b) in relation to insurance business of any kind other than such as is mentioned in the foregoing paragraph or capital redemption business, includes a person to whom, under a policy, a sum is due or a periodic payment is payable.’
The parentage of the first part of the definition down to the words ‘insurance company’ can be traced from s 2 of the Life Assurance Companies Act 1870 and s 29 of the Assurance Companies Act 1909. That of the concluding words referring to a person to whom, under a policy, a sum is due can be traced to s 32(f) of the 1909 Act. The two strands united in s 33 of the Insurance Companies Act 1958, which added lettered paragraphs which are the origin of the lettered paragraphs of s 96 of the 1982 Act and came to that Act via s 85(1) of the Insurance Companies Act 1974.
Manifestly the insurer cannot be a policyholder and the inclusion of the word ‘legal’ as a qualification of ‘holder’ eliminates a person who has only an equitable interest in the policy or in the sums payable thereunder. This leaves categories (ii), (iii) and (iv) as potential ‘policyholders’.
Webster J accepted the insurance companies’ submission that ‘the legal holder of the policy’ is confined to those who have possession of the policy document or an immediate right to its possession. He reached this, to me, surprising conclusion because of the immediately preceding words ‘the person _ for the time being’ and, in the context of capital redemption business, of the addition to ‘policy’ of ‘bonds, certificates, receipts or other interests’. He also considered that it was supported by the distinction between a contract and a policy which, he thought, was made in ss 4(2), 8(4), 10(1) and 23 of the 1975 Act.
This approach has the surprising consequence that an insured under a block policy, such as is customarily effected by building societies, travel agents and others for the benefit of mortgagees and customers, would not be a policyholder unless he had a legal right to possession of the block policy, which is a somewhat unlikely eventuality. Yet, upon paying a proportionate part of the premium and being included in the schedule to the policy, such a person undoubtedly becomes a party to the contract of insurance. It would have the even more surprising result that someone who had undoubtedly been a policyholder would lose that status if he took a loan from the insurer secured by the deposit of the policy with the insurer, even if he could still claim under the extension as someone to whom sums were due under the policy.
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For my part I am quite unable to accept the learned judge’s view. There has never been any magic in the policy document in non-marine insurance, save that its production reduces or eliminates disputes as to the contract terms and save that, particularly in the case of life policies, its production gives insurers some protection from claims by equitable mortgagees to the benefit of the contract. It is otherwise in the case of marine insurance where the contract can be assigned by the indorsement of the policy or ‘in other customary manner’ (see s 50(3) of the Marine Insurance Act 1906). A policy of insurance need not be in any particular form and it is no more than the written contract or written evidence of that contract. Sections 4(2), 8(4) and 10(1) of the 1975 Act refer to policies as evidencing contracts of insurance, which they do, but so does a policy which is the contract of insurance. Section 23(1) covers the case where no policy has been issued and gives the board a discretionary power to treat the insured as if he were a policyholder. This would be applicable if the insurer went into liquidation after receiving the premium but before issuing the policy. The reference to ‘the person _ for the time being’ is to be expected given the fact that the 1975 Act is throughout concerned with the position of people at particular and potentially differing times. We are also not concerned with the particular case of capital redemption business.
The judge’s construction is also contrary to the view of Chitty J in Re Sovereign Life Assurance Co (1889) 42 Ch D 540 at 548 that trustees who had a covenant from the insurance company guaranteeing the deficiency in a fund were policyholders under the Life Assurance Companies Act 1870 although they did not have a policy, the definition of ‘policyholder’ being ‘the person who for the time being is the legal holder of the policy for securing the life assurance, endowment, annuity, or other contract with the company _’
There remains the extended meaning which includes ‘a person to whom, under a policy, a sum is due or a periodic payment is payable’. The plaintiffs contend that this wording is apt to bring within the definition of ‘policyholder’ someone who is not a party to the contract, but has a contingent claim to payment under the policy which, accordingly, would rank for payment in the liquidation. This I do not accept. The wording is clear. If a person would not otherwise be a policyholder, his claim under the policy must have become due before the liquidation if he is to claim as a policyholder.
Returning to my categories of persons interested in a contract of insurance, other than long term insurance and capital redemption business, with which we are not concerned, in my judgment only those who are parties to the contract otherwise than as insurers are within the primary definition of ‘policyholder’ and the extended meaning is limited to those who, whether as payees under the policy or as persons entitled to claim indemnity under the policy, are claimants whose claims are due and are no longer in any respect contingent at the date of the liquidation. ‘Due’ in this context is not the same as ‘due and payable’. A typical example of the distinction is a claim which reasonably requires investigation by the insurer. The investigation establishes that the claim is, and was when made, ‘due’. However an insurer is impliedly entitled to a reasonable time in which to satisfy himself of the validity of such a claim and the claim, although due, is not payable until the expiration of that time.
Declaration (policyholder)
‘(1) “The legal holder of the policy for securing the contract with the insurance company” means the person or persons who is or are parties to the
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contract contained in or evidenced by the policy other than the insurance company.
(2) A person who is not the legal holder of the policy may, nevertheless, be a policyholder if a sum is due to him under the policy before the beginning of the liquidation (as that phrase is defined in s 5(5) of the 1975 Act). A sum (not being a periodic payment) is due to him if all the pre-conditions to the liability of the insurance company have been satisfied even if it is not yet payable.’
I now turn to the more limited class of policyholder with which the 1975 Act and the board are concerned, namely the ‘private’ policyholder. This is defined in s 6(7) of the Act and is relevant to the plaintiffs’ claim to be entitled to the benefit of s 8(2) because of the provisions of s 8(3). Section 6(7) provides as follows:
‘… “private policyholder” means a policyholder who is either—(a) an individual; or (b) a partnership or other unincorporated body of persons all of whom are individuals.’
The Fried Frank partnership included professional corporations or ‘PCs’. It is now common ground that these (usually one-man) corporations are juridical persons in their own right, separate from their shareholder or shareholders and enjoy limited liability. Clearly they do not have any claim to be ‘private policyholders’, but the question is whether the other individual members of the partnership can claim to be such.
The fundamental problem is that the 1975 Act appears to treat ‘a partnership or unincorporated body of persons’ as if it were a juridical person in its own right, which it is not. A partnership is no more than a congeries of natural and/or juridical persons who have mutually contracted to be jointly and severally liable for each other’s liabilities in addition to sharing profits and losses. Yet effect must be given to the legislative intention. Mr Pollock QC submitted that this can be done by holding that partners who are individuals, ie natural persons, are private policyholders under a policy insuring the partnership, but only in so far as their rights or liabilities are several and not joint. Thus they would not be private policyholders under a policy insuring partnership property, but would be private policyholders to the extent of any several liabilities to third parties.
I find this ingenious, but unconvincing. In my judgment the legislative intention is that any partnership or other unincorporated body is to be treated as if it were a corporate body and neither it nor its members are as such private policyholders. This does not exclude the possibility that the parties to some contracts of insurance may be the firm (including the members of the firm in their capacity as such) and the individuals who happen to be members of the firm, but any such contract would require to be evidenced by a policy expressed in clear terms. It would also be necessary to bear in mind that the mere fact that the indemnity afforded under the contract extended to the individuals who were members of the firm would not be conclusive, for they might, like employees or former partners, be entitled to such an indemnity without being contracting parties.
Declaration (private policyholder)
‘(a) A professional corporation (PC) is not an individual, ie a natural person, and cannot be a private policyholder. (b) No partnership, one or more of whose partners is a PC, can be a private policyholder nor can any
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individual in his capacity as a partner in such a partnership. (c) Being in partnership with a PC does not disqualify an individual from being a private policyholder (i) if he contracts with the insurance company in a capacity other than as a partner or (ii) if under the terms of the contract of insurance contained in or evidenced by the policy a sum (not being a periodic payment) is due to him (other than in his capacity as a partner) from the insurance company before the beginning of the liquidation (as that phrase is defined in s 5(5) of the 1975 Act), even if it is not yet payable.’
The s 8(2) question
If the 1975 Act is applicable to the plaintiffs it is by virtue of s 8(2), which is in the following terms:
‘Subject to sections 9, 13 and 14 below, it shall be the duty of the Board to secure that a sum equal to ninety per cent. of the amount of any liability of a company in liquidation towards a private policyholder under the terms of any policy to which this section applies which was a United Kingdom policy at the beginning of the liquidation is paid to the policyholder as soon as reasonably practicable after the beginning of the liquidation.’
Nothing turns for the purposes of this appeal on the sections referred to and the issue is simply as to what, in principle, is ‘the amount of any liability of a company in liquidation towards a private policyholder under the terms of any policy’.
We are concerned with third party liability policies. The risk insured against under such a policy is usually defined in part by reference to an event occurring during the policy period from which the liability stems. Thus the risk may be limited to liability stemming from an act of professional negligence (a) committed during the policy period, (b) notified to the insurer during that period, (c) giving rise to a claim against the insured during that period or (d) leading to a settlement, award or judgment during that period. There could be other scenarios, but these will suffice for present purposes. There are also two distinct types of private policyholder under a United Kingdom policy, namely one who is a party to the contract of insurance and one who is such a policyholder solely because his right to indemnity has accrued due before the date of the liquidation.
Webster J held that whatever the type of policyholder and whatever the triggering event, ie the event which gave rise to an actual or contingent liability under the policy, s 8(2) only applied in the context of professional indemnity policies to the ‘liability of the company for sums which have fallen due to a policyholder under the terms of a policy’ before the date of the liquidation (see [1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321 at 341). This issue was raised by the judge himself and, prior to the hearing, had not troubled the parties in the sense that, as I suspect, it had never occurred to any of them that the subsection could be so construed. The issue having been raised and adopted by the parties, it was clearly the judge’s duty to decide it and it is now our duty to consider whether his decision was right.
The consequences of this view of the law are startling in the extreme and of themselves cast doubt upon it. The legislative intention is quite clearly to give all private policyholders of United Kingdom policies 90% protection. Yet liquidation of an insurance company is not usually caused by its insolvency in terms of claims already due under policies issued by it, but in terms of its total exposure to such claims when added to a much larger number of contingent claims. Indeed in many cases the company would not be insolvent if regard had only to be had to claims which were due. If the judge is right only those policyholders with such
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claims would qualify for protection by the board. It was this consideration which stimulated the Secretary of State to intervene.
The 90% liability of the board is based upon the liability of the company in liquidation towards a policyholder under the terms of the policy. That liability falls to be determined in accordance with the general insolvency rules and the special scheme contained in r 6 of and Sch 1 to the Insurance Companies (Winding-Up) Rules 1985, SI 1985/95. At the time when the 1975 Act came into force that liability fell to be determined under s 17(2) of and Sch 3 to the Insurance Companies Act 1958, but that is immaterial since s 8(2) is concerned with the company’s liability at the moment of winding up, which incidentally has not yet occurred in the case of the KELM companies.
In Transit Casualty Co v Policyholders Protection Board [1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 358 Hoffmann J examined the history and current law on the winding up of insurance companies. I gratefully adopt his reasoning and conclusions and only add labels. He divided claims in the winding up into four categories: (a) claims which had fallen due for payment before, but had not been paid by, the date of the liquidation (‘overdue claims’); (b) claims which had become due, because all the ingredients of a valid claim were present, but were not payable until after the date of the liquidation (‘mature claims’); (3) claims based upon insured events which have occurred, but which have yet to mature by reason of future events (‘contingent claims’), for example there has been an act of professional negligence within the policy period which under the terms of the policy constitutes a triggering event, but no claim has as yet been notified; (d) claims based upon the loss of the protection of the policy for the period between the date of the liquidation and the date when the policy period would have expired (‘unexpired period claims’).
Using this classification and adopting the reasoning and conclusions of Hoffmann J, overdue claims are the subject of proof in the winding up under the general insolvency rules. Mature claims, contingent claims and unexpired period claims are valued in accordance with r 6 of and Sch 1 to the Insurance Companies (Winding-Up) Rules 1985.
But whilst a liability of the insurance company in liquidation is a prerequisite to the board’s duty to make payment under s 8(2) and all four categories of claim constitute such liabilities, two other conditions must also be satisfied, namely (a) that the liability can properly be described as a ‘liability _ under the terms of the policy’ and (b) that someone claiming to be a person to whom that duty is owed should be a private policyholder and that the policy concerned should be a United Kingdom policy. I have already expressed views on the restrictions which this imposes in terms of a policyholder being a private policyholder and in terms of the policy concerned being a United Kingdom policy. What is crucial for present purposes is whether he is a policyholder at all.
In the case of overdue claims the claimant will always be a policyholder either because he was a party to the contract of insurance or because he was a person ‘to whom, under a policy, a sum is due’.
In the case of unexpired period claims, the claimant may or may not be a policyholder, but his claim will be ineligible because it is not in respect of a liability ‘under the terms of any policy’. It arises precisely because the policy has been cancelled and the terms no longer have any application.
This leaves mature claims and contingent claims. If the claimant was a party to the contract of insurance, he will be a policyholder and, so far as that is concerned, a person to whom the board owes a duty under s 8(2). Whether his claim is a mature or a contingent claim, it is in cases in which the claimant was not a party to the contract of insurance that a distinction has to be made. In the case
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of mature claims a sum was due at the date of liquidation, albeit it was not payable until a later date. This suffices to make the claimant a policyholder. By contrast a claimant in respect of a contingent claim cannot assert that at the time of liquidation anything was due and, if he was not a party to the contract of insurance, cannot claim to be a policyholder.
I have already drawn attention to the important distinction between a claim being ‘due’ and being ‘due and payable’. In the context of claimants who are policyholders only if their claims have become ‘due’, it becomes necessary to define what is meant by ‘due’.
In reliance upon Bradley v Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 961, [1989] AC 957 it was argued that ‘mature’, as distinct from ‘overdue’, claims could not be regarded as constituting ‘sums due’ before the beginning of the liquidation, which would give claimants the status of policyholders, notwithstanding that they were not parties to the contract of insurance. In my judgment this involved a misreading of that decision.
The plaintiff in Bradley v Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd was claiming pre-action discovery, the contemplated action being one by her against her erstwhile employers’ employment liability insurers. Her claim thus depended upon her ability to bring such an action under the terms of the Third Parties (Rights against Insurers) Act 1930. Meanwhile her employers, who were a company, had been dissolved. What Bradley v Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd decides, and all that it decides, is that—
‘the insured person [the employer] cannot sue for an indemnity from the insurers unless and until the existence and amount of his liability to a third party has been established by action, arbitration or agreement …’ (See [1989] 1 All ER 961 at 965, [1989] AC 957 at 966.)
This is the precondition to the existence of an ‘overdue’ claim, but not to the existence of a ‘mature’ claim. Mrs Bradley’s claim was not payable unless and until liability and its amount became the subject of a binding determination. Any such determination had become impossible. What this submission confuses is (a) the existence of facts which give rise to a claim being due and (b) being able to establish the existence of those facts in a manner which bound the ‘deceased’ employer, thus rendering the sum not only due but payable.
I have considered this aspect in the context of the primary liability to indemnify the claimant against his liability to the third party. The principles are the same, but the application different, if the claim is to be indemnified against the cost of resisting the third party’s claim.
Declaration (s 8(2))
‘On their true construction, the words “any liability … under the terms of any policy” (a) mean a liability, whether actual or contingent, consequent upon an event which (i) is designated by the policy as giving rise, or as being capable of giving rise, whether alone or in conjunction with any other event, to a liability on the part of the insurance company and (ii) occurred during the currency of the policy and before the beginning of the liquidation (as that phrase is defined in s 5(5) of the 1975 Act), (b) do not include a liability consequent upon the cessation of future cover due to the occurrence of the liquidation.’
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The Ackman declaration
In the Ackman case Webster J was asked to give a declaration that the policies were United Kingdom policies, but declined to do so. The same request was included in the skeleton argument in this court. When the oral hearing began we expressed the view that such a declaration was inappropriate and Mr Pollock withdrew the request to the extent that he agreed to await the terms of our judgment on those issues with which we have dealt. Subject to anything further which Mr Pollock may wish to say, and I do not encourage him to say it, I remain of the view that such a declaration would be inappropriate. It is for the board to make up its own mind whether the plaintiffs’ policies are United Kingdom policies and until we had ruled on the applicable criteria it could not do so. It is entitled to time to consider whether or not to agree that they are such. If it does not so agree, the Ackman plaintiffs may well wish to litigate the matter further, but that will be a new dispute and will not arise in the limited proceedings in respect of which these appeals have been brought.
RUSSELL LJ. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgments of Lord Donaldson MR and Leggatt LJ, and agree both with their reasoning and conclusions. As Lord Donaldson MR has indicated in his judgment, I have also collaborated in the drafting of the formal declarations. In the light of the detailed analysis of the legislation to be found in the judgments of Lord Donaldson MR and Leggatt LJ, I do not think that any useful purpose would be served by my embarking upon a similar exercise, and there is nothing therefore that I wish to add.
LEGGATT LJ.
A United Kingdom policy
The purpose of the Policyholders Protection Act 1975 is to provide protection against the consequences of failure of insurance companies authorised to carry on business here; it is not concerned with whether the policyholders were domiciled, resident or entitled to receive payment in this country. Only the policyholders of authorised insurance companies are eligible for protection.
Against this background s 4(2) of the 1975 Act provides:
‘A policy of insurance is a United Kingdom policy for the purposes of this Act at any time when the performance by the insurer of any of his obligations under the contract evidenced by the policy would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom.’
The judge held ([1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321 at 342):
‘A United Kingdom policy is one in respect of which, at the material time, the outstanding obligations of the insurance company would be performed in the United Kingdom, if the insurance company had not gone or was not about to go into liquidation … “Performed” … (a) means carrying out or carrying through to completion those outstanding or unperformed obligations, including the doing of all things necessary for that purpose or ancillary to it, and (b) does not mean only the final performance of those obligations in a real sense, and (c) does not include the mere performance in the United Kingdom, other than as part of some wider acts of performance there, of purely formal acts or other acts which can properly be regarded as de minimis.’
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In that passage the first sentence is not warranted by the words of the statute. In relation to claims there is force in the submission that the only obligation to be performed by the insurer is the payment of them. ‘The doing of all things necessary for that purpose or ancillary to it’ plays no part in the insurer’s obligation. It does not help the board to describe performance as ‘final’ or as ‘mere’.
For the board Mr Scott QC submitted that a United Kingdom policy is one in respect of which at the material time there is an outstanding obligation of an authorised insurer under the contract of insurance which would fall to be performed in the United Kingdom and where performance of that obligation would be sufficient to constitute carrying on by the insurer of insurance business in the United Kingdom. He also submitted that performance of an obligation under the contract of insurance in s 4 of the 1975 Act means the discharge of that obligation. Accordingly he contends that once a claim has been intimated the insurance company’s only remaining obligation under the contract evidenced by the policy is to pay the claim. Performance by the insurer of that obligation by paying the claim abroad would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business not in the United Kingdom but in whichever foreign country the payment was made. The question in my judgment is whether in performing his contractual obligations the insurer is carrying out insurance business of the class which he is authorised to effect and carry out in the United Kingdom. The carrying on by the insurer of insurance business in the United Kingdom includes an obligation to pay claims to policyholders, wherever they may be. That is one of the insurer’s obligations under the contract evidenced by the policy. The performance of that obligation would therefore constitute the carrying on of insurance business in the United Kingdom, and the policy evidencing the contract under which the obligation arises is a United Kingdom policy. Mr Stamler QC for the Royal supported Mr Scott’s argument by contending that ‘constitute’ in the phrase ‘the performance by the insurer of any of his obligations _ would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business’ means ‘make up, form, compose’ or ‘amount to’. It seems to me, however, that in context it means ‘be constitutive of’ or ‘form a part or element of’.
The legal holder of the policy
The board’s duty under s 8(2) of the 1975 Act to secure the payment of a sum equal to 90% of the amount of any liability for a company in liquidation under a United Kingdom policy is owed to ‘a private policyholder’. By virtue of s 32(2)(a) the meaning of ‘policyholder’ is to be derived from s 96(1) of the Insurance Companies Act 1982. That subsection provides the following definition:
‘“policy holder” means the person who for the time being is the legal holder of the policy for securing the contract with the insurance company or, in relation to capital redemption business, means the person who for the time being is the legal holder of the policy, bond, certificate, receipt or other instrument evidencing the contract with the company, and—(a) in relation to such ordinary long-term insurance business or industrial assurance business as consists in the granting of annuities upon human life, includes an annuitant; and (b) in relation to insurance business of any kind other than such as is mentioned in the foregoing paragraph or capital redemption business, includes a person to whom, under a policy, a sum is due or a periodic payment is payable.’
For the policyholders in the Ackman action Mr Pollock QC argues that the reference to the ‘legal holder’ of the policy means no more than the person who
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by the terms of the contract is the assured under it. The reason why reference is made to a ‘legal holder’ is to distinguish between that holder and an equitable holder, ie someone to whom the policy is charged or assigned in equity by way of security. With the latter proposition Mr Scott agrees. But he seeks to uphold the judge’s conclusion that ‘legal holder’ means a person with legal possession of an actual policy document evidencing a contract of insurance under which he is insured, or a person having the immediate right to the possession of such a policy document. Mr Scott remarks that the definition applies to long-term as well as general policies, and that it is linked to the requirement under s 13(4) of the 1975 Act that a person paid must assign all his rights under his policy to the board. But that is not inconsistent with an intention to refer to the person who is party to the contract evidenced by the policy. He also submits that the argument for treating the legal holder of a policy as one in possession of it or entitled to call for immediate possession of it is strengthened by the fact that the definition of policyholder also applies to three categories of persons who do not have to be holders, namely annuitants, persons to whom a sum is due and persons to whom periodic payments are payable. But that argument too seems to me to be two-edged. The fact that physical possession of a document is unnecessary in three cases for the purpose of constituting a person a policyholder is no warrant for saying that in the fourth case it is necessary. But this does not appear to me to represent the true contrast between different classes of policyholder.
Mr Legh-Jones QC contends on behalf of New Hampshire that Mr Pollock’s submission that the legal holder of a policy of insurance is the person who is an assured with a right of suit on it cannot be correct because it would make the provisions of s 23 of the 1975 Act otiose. That section makes special provision for persons insured under contracts of insurance not evidenced by policies. But the fact that ‘the legal holder of the policy’ means ‘the person insured under the policy’ does not avoid the need for proof that a person is so insured. Provision has therefore to be made, as by the section it is, for the board to recognise the person as being the insured notwithstanding the absence of the policy document. For his submission that the policy of which the person concerned must be the legal holder is the document for securing the contract with the insurance company Mr Stamler relies on various references in the 1975 Act to ‘the contract evidenced by the policy’ (in s 4(2)) and to ‘any policy evidencing a contract’ (in s 8(4)). These are undoubtedly examples of the word ‘policy’ being used to mean policy document. It is common ground that the term ‘legal’ holder is used in contradistinction to an equitable holder. But there is, as Mr Pollock submitted, no such thing as equitable possession. Physical possession of a policy document is of no consequence except for purposes of proof. Re Sovereign Life Assurance Co (1889) 42 Ch D 540 was a case in which trustees had a covenant from insurers to make good any deficiencies in an annuity fund. ‘Policy holder’ was defined by s 2 of the Life Assurance Companies Act 1870 as meaning the ‘person who for the time being is the legal holder of the policy for securing the _ annuity, or other contract with the company’. Chitty J held that the trustees were legal holders of such a policy because they had as covenantees the legal right to sue on the covenant, which was a contract for securing annuities. Notwithstanding that there may have been no reference in the 1870 Act to a policy as an instrument, I have come to the conclusion that there is no warrant for treating it as such in the relevant part of the definition in s 96(1) of the 1982 Act, especially since by force of the same definition a policyholder includes a ‘person to whom, under a policy, a sum is due’ without the need for possession of any document. I have accordingly come to the conclusion that the judge’s interpretation of ‘legal holder’ was wrong.
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Private policyholder
The board’s duty under s 8(2) of the 1975 Act is, however, owed only to ‘a private policyholder’, which by sub-s (3) has the same meaning as in s 6(6) of the 1975 Act. Section 6(7) of the 1975 Act provides:
‘In subsection (6) above “private policyholder” means a policy holder who is either—(a) an individual; or (b) a partnership or other unincorporated body of persons all of whom are individuals.’
Mr Pollock submits that this definition is not apt to exclude the liability of the individual members of a partnership for a partner who is practising through a professional corporation (PC), provided that, as occurred here, each of the partners is individually liable for a claim made against the firm. In the Ackman case the assured included ‘the FIRM’, which was defined as meaning ‘the persons carrying on business under the [firm] name’. The term also included each of ‘the partners of the FIRM and any other person or persons who may at any time and from time to time be a partner in the FIRM’. So Mr Pollock argues that the individual partners are policyholders, because each of them is a contracting party to the policy and each is liable in respect of the claim.
The judge held that ‘an individual’ in s 6(7) of the 1975 Act means a single individual and excludes any body of persons, that a PC consisting of one shareholder is not to be regarded as an individual and nor is—
‘A professional person, who is disqualified from protection as a member of a partnership because one of the partners is a PC, protected under the 1975 Act in his capacity as an individual member of the partnership, except that such a person, and a person who is a director/shareholder of a PC, who is personally sued and made liable under a policy (either by bona fide settlement award or judgment) is an individual for the purposes of the 1975 Act provided that he is a person to whom under the policy a sum is due.’ ([See [1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321 at 342.)
It is arguable that each of the partners who were individuals was severally insured, that each was an individual, and as such a private policyholder, and that it is immaterial that, because not all its partners were individuals, the firm of Fried Frank itself was not a policyholder. Similarly, the physicians under the Scher policy each had an ‘Additional Insured Endorsement’, which referred to the physician as, and constituted him, the insured, and under which the insurers agreed with the insured—
‘To pay on behalf of the insured all sums which the insured shall become legally obligated to pay as damages because of injury or death resulting from rendering or failure to render, during the policy period, professional services by the insured …’
Thus it may be argued that each physician also was a private policyholder. But it is not for the court to resolve these questions of construction in the first instance: that is for the board.
A sum is due
Even if any of the plaintiffs was not the legal holder of the policy, he may yet be within the definition of ‘policyholder’ in s 96(1) of the 1982 Act. The judge also held ([1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321 at 340):
‘that a person to whom “a sum is due” means, in the case of a professional indemnity policy, a person whose liability to an injured third party has
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become crystallized by settlement, award or judgment so that he has a vested right to sue the insurance company for an amount due under the policy or to require the company to indemnify him against his liability to that third party …’
In arriving at this conclusion the judge started by relating the phrase ‘a sum is due’ to long term policies as well as general business policies, whereas that reference is excluded by the language of the definition itself. The relevant sum has to be due, not from the board, but from the insurance company. The cases to which the judge referred of Bradley v Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 961, [1989] AC 957 and Post Office v Norwich Union Fire Insurance Society Ltd [1967] 1 All ER 577, [1967] 2 QB 363 afford no assistance. The issue in the former case was when a right to be indemnified by an insurer arises, so as to be transferred under the Third Party (Rights against Insurers) Act 1930 to a third party to whom the insolvent insured has incurred a liability. The judge treated the latter case as an example of what happens under that Act when the insurance company becomes insolvent, whereas that Act is concerned with what happens when the insured himself becomes insolvent.
Mr Pollock argues that on the making of a winding-up order, or the passing of a resolution to wind up an insurance company, the insured’s rights in contract to enforce his claims under his policy are terminated. They become rights to participate in the statutory scheme by which the assets of the insurance company have to be realised and distributed to the creditors of the insurance company. As a matter of law, there is deemed to be an immediate realisation of the company’s assets and a distribution of those assets to those creditors with admissible claims in the winding up. The right to payment under the scheme is a right to payment at the beginning of the winding up.
Mr Pollock further argues, with the support (for the medical policyholders) of Mr Grabiner QC, that, as a consequence of the operation of the applicable winding-up rules on the company’s liabilities, at the beginning of the liquidation a sum is due to every person insured by the company under a general business policy who has an admissible claim in the winding up. Even though the quantification of the amount payable and the means of payment are determined under the applicable winding-up rules, the sum in question is due under the policy. Accordingly, an insured with an admissible claim in the winding up is necessarily a ‘policyholder’.
In my judgment, however, although a sum would be due to the claimant in the winding up, it cannot by any natural use of language be said to be due ‘under the policy’. The provision that ‘a sum is due’ to a person under a policy has a connotation of having become due by virtue of, or (as Mr Grabiner puts it) in right of, the policy. Under the policy a liability may accrue; it is not the policy, but the occurrence of the liquidation, that renders the sum due. I prefer to interpret the phrase ‘sum is due’ as does Miss Gloster QC. According to her approach, there is no reason to construe ‘a person’ in para (b) of the definition of ‘policyholder’ in s 96(1) of the 1982 Act as limited to a person to whom, at the beginning of the liquidation, a sum is due. The whole definition is governed by the phrase ‘for the time being’. So, provided that the event giving rise to the liability to make a payment occurred before the beginning of the liquidation, a person to whom a sum fell due only after that date would none the less be able to prove in the winding up as a holder of a general policy in the same way as would a person to whom the sum fell due before that date. This feature of the definition is also relevant in the context of s 8(2) of the 1975 Act.
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Contingent liabilities
That subsection requires the board to make payments by reference to ‘the amount of any liability of a company in liquidation towards a private policyholder under the terms of any policy’. There can be no doubt that this will include liabilities which are correlative to claims that Lord Donaldson MR has termed ‘overdue’ and ‘mature’. The question is whether the phrase does, or does not, include contingent liabilities. In the insolvency of an insurance company most of the claims will be contingent. Unless contingent creditors could claim in the liquidation of such a company, it would usually not be insolvent. That contingent creditors who are policyholders have a right to prove is clear. In Transit Casualty Co v Policyholders Protection Board [1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 358 Hoffmann J held that, save in relation to amounts which have fallen due for payment prior to the winding-up order, r 6 of and Sch 1 to the Insurance Companies (Winding-Up) Rules 1985, SI 1985/95, are a complete and exhaustive code for the valuation of admissible claims under general business policies in the liquidation of an insurance company. In relation to the valuation of such policies r 6 of the 1985 rules provides:
‘Except in relation to amounts which have fallen due for payment before the date of the winding-up order, the holder of a general business policy shall be admitted as a creditor in relation to his policy without proof for an amount equal to the value of the policy and for this purpose the value of a policy shall be determined in accordance with Schedule 1.’
In Sch 1, para 1 relates to periodic payments. Paragraph 2(1) ‘applies in relation to liabilities under a general business policy not dealt with by paragraph 1’. Paragraph 2(2) stipulates that the value to be attributed to those liabilities shall (a) with respect to repayment of premium be as there prescribed and ‘(b) in any other case, be a just estimate of that value’.
Webster J held that the relevant phrase in s 8(2) of the 1975 Act means, in the case of a professional indemnity policy, liability of the company for a sum due to a policyholder under the terms of a policy at the beginning of the liquidation (as defined in the 1975 Act) and does not include liability for the value of a policy to the policyholder when at the beginning of the liquidation (i) no claim has been made or (ii) a claim has been made but not by then determined by judgment, award or settlement. He came to the conclusion that the liability of a company under a professional indemnity policy does not extend to contingent claims for three reasons: first, because s 8(2) is confined to the value of or attributable to a policy; secondly, because ‘future benefit’ in s 11(1) (meaning ‘any benefit provided for under the policy which has not fallen due to be paid by the company before the beginning of the liquidation’) is to be contrasted with the wording of s 10(2), which is the same as s 8(2) and probably relates to liability for ‘a sum which has fallen due to be paid’; and thirdly, because the duties of the board to pay the full amount (or 90% of it) in various circumstances presupposes a precise amount.
The point of the distinction between ‘the value of a liability under a policy’ and ‘the value of a policy’ is that the liability embraced by the former is not only for sums ‘fallen due’ under the policy before the liquidation but also for sums arising out of actuating events which occurred before the liquidation, that is mature claims. For they too give rise to liabilities under the terms of the policy.
The second of the judge’s reasons has been advanced in this court by Mr Stamler and Mr Legh-Jones. They contended that Parliament did not necessarily intend the board to fund all the liabilities of the insurance company. The words of s 10(2) are almost exactly the same as those of s 8(2) of the 1975 Act. Section 10(2) does not apply to liabilities under long term policies which have not fallen
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due for payment at the beginning of the winding up. Since s 11 sets time limits for valuation and payment of claims that have not fallen due for payment, such contingent claims cannot be within s 10(2), and so are not within s 8(2).
In my judgment s 11 is probably directed at liabilities that arose out of relevant events that had not occurred before the beginning of the liquidation. That is why if the board fails to secure continuity of insurance it is obliged to pay 90% of the value attributed to the policy for the purposes of any claim in respect of it, as contrasted with ‘the amount of any liability’, which is the subject of s 10(2). I indorse Miss Gloster’s submission that in the context of s 11(1) the words ‘not fallen due to be paid’ are referring to something that is not a liability because the relevant event has not occurred before the beginning of the liquidation. They are not directed to whether the amount was payable before the liquidation. It is therefore not necessary to explore her alternative submission that, even if the phrase ‘future benefit’ includes liabilities arising out of relevant events which occurred before the beginning of the liquidation, the phrase ‘any liability’ in s 10 as well as in s 8 does not have to be construed as excluding all claims that are not payable before the liquidation.
Standing on its own the judge’s third reason for adopting the construction of s 8(2) that he did, namely that a duty to pay 90% of the amount of any liability contemplates a sum certain, was insufficient to support his conclusion.
In my judgment the phrase ‘any liability _ under the terms of any policy’ applies to any claim arising out of an event which actuates that liability, and which occurred before, though not after, the beginning of the liquidation. I adopt Miss Gloster’s argument that r 6 of the 1985 rules requires the policyholder to treat any current policy as having terminated on the date of the winding-up order and, where no relevant event has occurred prior to the beginning of the liquidation, to prove only for the return of premium for the unexpired period of the policy. In such a case the claim is what Lord Donaldson MR calls an ‘unexpired period’ claim, and is for ‘the value of the policy’, not ‘the amount of any liability under the terms of any policy’: see Re Law Car and General Insurance Corp [1913] 2 Ch 103, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1024. Because it is not ‘under the terms of any policy’, it is not a relevant liability for purposes of s 8(2) of the 1975 Act. Proof under para 2(2)(b) of the Sch 1 to the 1985 rules for liabilities unascertained at the date of the winding-up order, but arising out of relevant events which occurred before that date, does relate to liabilities ‘under the terms of any policy’, and is therefore within the scope of the protection which the board is required to afford, provided that the claimant is a policyholder. That he will only be if he is the legal holder of a policy, since ex hypothesi no sum will yet be due to him.
Conclusion
I therefore agree that the appeal should be allowed and that declarations should be made in the form proposed by Lord Donaldson MR, to which I too subscribe.
Appeals and cross-appeals allowed in part. Declarations accordingly. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
24 November. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords gave leave to appeal.
Francis Rustin Barrister.
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Appeals and cross-appeals
The plaintiffs appealed and the second defendants cross-appealed in both actions.
Anthony Grabiner QC and Geoffrey Vos (instructed by Wilde Sapte) for the plaintiffs in the first action.
Gordon Pollock QC and Mark Phillips (instructed by Freshfields) for the plaintiffs in the second action.
Sir Patrick Neill QC and Alan Griffiths (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the Royal Insurance.
Nicholas Legh-Jones QC (instructed by Kennedys) for New Hampshire Insurance.
Rory Phillips (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the Policyholders Protection Board.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
15 July 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. For the reasons given by him, I would dismiss this appeal.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. For the reasons given by him, I, too, would dismiss this appeal.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. For the reasons he gives I, too, would dismiss this appeal.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, these appeals are concerned with insurance, and in particular with the circumstances in which a body called the Policyholders Protection Board is responsible for assisting or protecting policyholders. The board was established pursuant to the Policyholders Protection Act 1975. It will be necessary in due course to set out the most relevant provisions of the Act, and to analyse certain of them in some detail. At this stage it is enough to state that, under the Act, the functions of the board are to take certain measures for the purpose of indemnifying or otherwise assisting or protecting policyholders and others who have been or may be prejudiced in consequence of the inability of insurance companies carrying on business in the United Kingdom to meet their liabilities: see the title and s 1(2)(a) of the 1975 Act. To meet its liabilities under the Act, the board has power to raise a levy on authorised insurance companies carrying on business in the United Kingdom: see ss 1(2)(b) and 21).
The actions which are the subject of the present appeals were brought by two groups of assureds who are seeking to establish the liability of the board to indemnify them following the insolvency of certain insurance companies, viz Kingscroft Insurance Co Ltd, El Paso Insurance Co Ltd, Lime Street Insurance Co Ltd and Mutual Reinsurance Co Ltd. These insurance companies have been collectively referred to as ‘the KELM companies’. The two groups of assureds have been referred to respectively on the appeals as the Ackman plaintiffs and the Scher plaintiffs. The Ackman plaintiffs are (1) the individual partners, the professional corporation (PC) partners and the shareholders in the PC partners in Fried Frank, a partnership of lawyers with offices in the United States and in
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London, and (2) the partners in Clarkson Gordon, a partnership of accountants practising in Canada. The Scher plaintiffs are all physicians with private practices in New York. The defendants to the action were the board itself, and two representative insurance companies—the Royal Insurance (UK) Ltd (the Royal) and New Hampshire Insurance Co Ltd (New Hampshire)—representative of all insurers upon whom the board may impose or seek to impose a levy under the 1975 Act.
Both groups of plaintiffs were insured against professional liabilities under policies subscribed in several proportions by (among others) the KELM companies. Following the insolvency of the KELM companies, the plaintiffs sought declarations as to the liability of the board to indemnify them in respect of claims made against them in the United States and in Canada. However both Webster J ([1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 321) at first instance, and the Court of Appeal (p 388, ante) declined to make any declarations as to the right of the plaintiffs to be so indemnified, but instead made declarations as to the meaning and effect of certain provisions of the 1975 Act. I must confess to feeling some unhappiness at this method of proceeding, preferring as I do to consider matters of this kind in the context of the relevant provisions of the applicable contracts, together with the specific facts upon which the relevant claims are alleged to arise. However, the courts below having proceeded as they have done, there appears to be no practical alternative to your Lordships’ House proceeding in the same manner in respect of those issues which fall to be decided by this House.
Of the issues which were the subject of consideration by the courts below, not all have been pursued before your Lordships’ House. Moreover, of those which were the subject of argument before your Lordships’ House, one, which arose on the Royal’s appeal, is of particular importance, both because it affects all claims against the board (including, of course, those of the Ackman plaintiffs and the Scher plaintiffs) and because, so your Lordships were informed, its financial implications are very great. That issue arises under s 4(2) of the 1975 Act. Sections 3 and 4 are concerned with the general scope of the board’s functions under the Act. From these sections it appears that the board’s functions are exercisable only where the insurance companies in question are authorised insurance companies as defined in s 3(2), in respect of a policy of insurance which is a United Kingdom policy as defined in s 4(2). The issue is concerned with the meaning of the definition of United Kingdom policy in s 4(2). The argument on this issue advanced by the Royal before your Lordships’ House was supported by New Hampshire in the courts below. The argument was, however, rejected by Webster J and the Court of Appeal.
The remaining issues arose on the appeals of the Ackman plaintiffs and the Scher plaintiffs. Not only are these issues narrower in their effect, but, as they came under close scrutiny by your Lordships following the close of argument, considerable anxiety came to be felt that some of these remaining issues, though the subject of abstract declarations in the courts below, might be of no practical relevance in the context of the present litigation. In these circumstances I understand that all your Lordships have reached the conclusion (with which I agree) that further inquiries should be made of the parties directed to the question of the relevance of the remaining issues, but that in the meantime, having regard to the great importance and obvious relevance of the first issue, the members of the Appellate Committee should now make their report to the House on that issue alone, so that a decision can be made upon it at this stage rather than await the results of inquiries made of the parties regarding the remainder.
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I accordingly now proceed to address the first issue, which, as I have said, is concerned with the definition of the expression ‘United Kingdom policy’ in s 4(2). This issue, like the other issues in this case, has to be placed in its statutory context. The immediate statutory context is to be found in the relevant provisions of the 1975 Act. These provisions cannot, however, be considered in isolation. There is a long history of statutory regulation of insurance in this country, stretching back to the middle of the nineteenth century, and culminating in the Insurance Companies Act 1974, a consolidating Act which was in force at the time when the 1975 Act was enacted, and now the Insurance Companies Act 1982, a later consolidating Act which replaced the 1974 Act. In the 1975 Act as enacted, there were certain specific references to provisions of the 1974 Act —notably, in the present context, for the meaning of the expression ‘authorised insurance company’ in s 3(2) of the 1975 Act, and for the expression ‘policyholder’ used elsewhere in the same Act. After the 1982 Act was enacted, these references were replaced (though without altering their effect) by the appropriate provisions of the 1982 Act. It is an important function of the 1982 Act, as it was of the 1974 Act which it replaced, to restrict the carrying on of insurance business in the United Kingdom, subject to certain specific exceptions, to bodies authorised by the Secretary of State to carry on any one or more of certain classes of insurance business. (In the 1974 Act, the restriction related to the carrying on of insurance business in Great Britain.) Furthermore, it is provided that any person who carries on business in contravention of these provisions will be guilty of an offence. Another important function of the legislation is to make provision for the regulation of insurance companies in a number of respects, designed ultimately for the protection of policyholders. These provisions relate, in particular, to the accounts and statements of insurance companies, to assets and liabilities attributable to long term business, and to financial resources, notably a requirement that each insurance company shall maintain a margin of solvency. Powers of intervention are conferred on the Secretary of State for the protection of policyholders. Provision is also made for the transfer of long term business, with the sanction of the court, and of general business, with the approval of the Secretary of State, and for winding up. It was against the background of this regulatory legislation, as then embodied in the 1974 Act, that the 1975 Act was enacted, drawing in certain specific respects upon provisions of the 1974 Act. Reference will have to be made as necessary to this earlier legislation when considering the specific issues which fall for determination on these appeals.
Returning to the first issue, it is desirable that I should now set out the full terms of s 3, as amended, and s 4 of the 1975 Act, which are concerned with the general scope of the board’s functions under the Act:
‘3. Authorised insurance companies.—(1) The functions of the Board under this Act shall be exercisable in relation to policyholders and others who have been or may be prejudiced in consequence of the inability of insurance companies to meet their liabilities under policies issued or securities given by them only in cases where the insurance companies in question are authorised insurance companies.
(2) An insurance company is an authorised insurance company for the purposes of this Act if it is authorised under section 3 or 4 of the Insurance Companies Act 1982 to carry on insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom.
4. Protection confined to United Kingdom policies.—(1) A policyholder is eligible for the assistance or protection of the Board in accordance with any provision of sections 6 to 16 below only in respect of a policy of insurance
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which was a United Kingdom policy for the purposes of this Act at the material time for the purposes of the provision in question.
(2) A policy of insurance is a United Kingdom policy for the purposes of this Act at any time when the performance by the insurer of any of his obligations under the contract evidenced by the policy would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom.’
Sections 3 and 4 of the 1975 Act therefore impose two distinct criteria which must be fulfilled if protection under the Act is to be available to any particular assured. Section 3(1) provides that the functions of the board shall be exercisable only where the insurance companies in question are authorised insurance companies. Section 4(1) imposes a second requirement, viz that the relevant policy of insurance was a United Kingdom policy at the material time.
Section 4(1) so provides expressly in relation to the assistance or protection of the board in accordance with provisions of ss 6 to 16 of the Act. These include the important provisions in ss 6 and 8 under which the board is required to secure payment to a policyholder (ie in practice to pay him), the material time for the purpose of such provisions being the time of the beginning of the liquidation of the insurance company in question. There are, however, other provisions of the Act under which it is relevant to inquire whether a policy is a United Kingdom policy. In particular, it is necessary to do so in relation to the imposition of levies under s 21. Under s 21(3) and (4) the levy is to be calculated with reference to the net premium income of the company for the specified year in respect of policies which were United Kingdom policies at the relevant time, and by virtue of s 21(5) the relevant time for that purpose is the time when the amounts were recorded in the company’s accounts during that year as paid or due. It follows that, in considering the true meaning of the definition of United Kingdom policy in s 4(2) of the Act, that meaning has to be tested as applicable not only at the time of the beginning of the liquidation, but also at the time of the recording of net premium income.
Section 4 is introduced by the words ‘Protection confined to United Kingdom policies’. This is presumably because it is not enough merely to establish that the insurance company in question is an authorised insurance company: it is necessary also to show that, at the material time, the policy in question is a United Kingdom policy. As I have already recorded, under the 1974 Act (in force at the date when the 1975 Act was enacted), as under the 1982 Act now in force, a body corporate was forbidden to carry on in Great Britain (now the United Kingdom) insurance business of certain classes unless authorised to do so by the Secretary of State. Furthermore, insurance business of each such class is defined as meaning the business of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance of that class: see s 83 of the 1974 Act and Schs 1 and 2 to the 1982 Act. It is plain that the definition of a United Kingdom policy in s 4(2) is directed not to the effecting of the relevant policy, but to carrying it out, since, under it, it is necessary to inquire whether at the material time performance under the policy would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom.
In Bedford Insurance Co Ltd v Instituto de Resseguros do Brasil [1984] 3 All ER 766, [1985] QB 966 Parker J held that both the business of effecting certain contracts of insurance and the business of carrying them out were prohibited by the 1974 and 1982 Acts in the absence of authorisation. His conclusion on this point was approved by the Court of Appeal in Phoenix General Insurance Co of Greece SA v Halvanon Insurance Co Ltd [1987] 2 All ER 152, [1988] QB 216. He also considered
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that the mere payment of claims would in the absence of authorisation fall within the prohibition, provided that such payments were made by a person carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom. This proviso was necessary because what requires authorisation is carrying on the business of effecting or carrying out certain contracts of insurance. In the present case Lord Donaldson MR expressed the opinion that it would be a mistake to infer that Parliament necessarily intended or even contemplated that authority might be needed for effecting contracts of insurance but not for carrying them out, or vice versa, save in circumstances arising under a transitional provision in s 11(4) of the 1974 Act (concerned with carrying on business for the purpose of discharging liabilities lawfully assumed before 27 July 1967), or where there was an assignment of a contract of insurance by an overseas insurer to one carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom (see p 393, ante). I am inclined to agree with that opinion. Indeed, I suspect that the origin of the requirement that the business of carrying out certain contracts of insurance of itself requires authorisation lies in the possibility of transfer of insurance liabilities with the sanction of the court under s 14 of the Life Assurance Companies Act 1870, though the transitional provision in s 11(4) of the 1974 Act provides another occasion where such authorisation might be relevant. These cases must be exceptional. In the vast majority of circumstances, the same insurance company will both effect the contract of insurance and carry it out (ie perform the obligations under it, in particular the obligation to pay claims).
It is against this background that it is necessary to consider the rival contentions as to the true meaning of the definition in s 4(2). The conclusion of the Court of Appeal was encapsulated in the following declaration (see p 394, ante):
‘A policy is a United Kingdom policy at any time when as part of the insurance business which the insurer is authorised to carry out in the United Kingdom he would have performed an obligation under the contract evidenced by the policy, whether or not it would have been performed in the United Kingdom.’
In reaching that conclusion, the Court of Appeal considered that the question to be asked in each case was whether, at the relevant time, there remained to be performed by the insurer obligations under the policy the performance of which would constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class within the United Kingdom. In answering that question, it was in its view not appropriate to inquire whether the performance of those obligations by itself or viewed in isolation constituted the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom. The true test, it considered, is whether the authorised insurer has been carrying on insurance business within the United Kingdom and whether, if he were to perform his unperformed obligations under the contract in question, this performance would form part of that business (see pp 394, 402, ante, per Lord Donaldson MR and Leggatt LJ). In particular, therefore, payment of claims under a policy of insurance effected in the United Kingdom will constitute the carrying on of insurance business within the United Kingdom wherever the claim is paid.
The effect of this construction of the definition of a United Kingdom policy in s 4(2) is that, provided that a policy is effected in the United Kingdom, protection has to be provided by the board under the 1975 Act at the expense of the authorised insurance companies subject to the levy, in the case of home-overseas business as well as home business. In truth, at the heart of this issue there lies
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the question of the policy which underlies the 1975 Act. Is that policy to protect what may broadly be described as domestic policyholders from the impact of insolvency of insurance companies authorised to carry on insurance business in the United Kingdom? Or does the policy extend to protect policyholders elsewhere in the world from the impact of such insolvency? It was, of course, open to Parliament to select either policy; but, whereas the former policy would be designed to protect the domestic consumer, the latter would have a wider effect and would operate to underpin the London insurance market, providing protection for consumers overseas as well as in this country. From events which have happened since the passing of the 1975 Act, it is now apparent (as your Lordships were informed) that the adoption of the latter policy (if that is what Parliament chose to do) has led to the addition of an enormous extra financial burden upon the board, and through the levy upon solvent authorised insurers carrying on business in this country, by reason very largely of claims under liability policies issued to policyholders in the United States. No doubt, however, the extent of this possible burden was not appreciated in 1975; and the question whether Parliament did indeed, as the Court of Appeal held, adopt the wider policy must depend upon the true meaning of the definition in s 4(2) of the 1975 Act, considered in its statutory context.
The construction urged upon your Lordships by Sir Patrick Neill QC on behalf of the Royal was that, under the definition, the inquiry to be made by the board was whether, at the material time, the performance by the insurer of any of his obligations under the policy would constitute, ie would of itself amount to, the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business in the United Kingdom, and that accordingly the relevant inquiry was whether any such obligation, eg the payment of claims, would under the terms of the policy require to be performed in the United Kingdom. If for example (as under the Ackman and Scher plaintiffs’ policies) claims were required to be paid in the United States, the performance would not constitute the carrying on by the insurers of insurance business in the United Kingdom, and so the policies in question would not be United Kingdom policies.
Sir Patrick submitted that the construction for which he contended should be preferred for the following principal reasons, which may be briefly summarised as follows. First, at the time when the 1975 Act was drafted, the expression ‘carrying on insurance business’ was defined as ‘effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance’ of certain classes; and, of the two branches of this definition (the ‘contract-making activity’ and the ‘performance activity’) the draftsman of the 1975 Act had chosen the performance activity, and rejected the contract-making activity, as the relevant criterion for the purposes of s 4. This was inconsistent with the approach of the Court of Appeal, and in particular that of Lord Donaldson MR, on whose construction the place where the contract was effected became, in practice, the dominant factor. Second, it was plain that the function of s 4(2) was to place a limit on the range of protection afforded by the scheme. By choosing the performance activity, this objective was achieved, in that only where one of the outstanding obligations under the contract (eg payment of claims) was to be performed in the United Kingdom would the protection be available. This had the effect, in practice, of confining the protection to domestic consumers in the United Kingdom, which was the policy underlying s 4. Third, the construction preferred by the Court of Appeal involved a substantial rewriting of s 4(2), and failed to provide any sensible explanation of the time element in the subsection (reflected elsewhere in the Act) introduced by the words ‘at any time when’.
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I was at first impressed by Sir Patrick’s argument, particularly as developed by him in his reply. But on reflection I find myself unable to accept it.
First, if it be right that the function of s 4 is to restrict protection to domestic consumers in this country, the definition in s 4(2) seems to be a roundabout and imperfect way of achieving that result. I would expect to find rather an explicit affirmation of that objective, coupled with a criterion which linked the assured to this country, such as for example residence in this country at the time which the contract was effected. I recognise that, in seeking to establish such a link, no criterion is likely to prove perfectly apt in all circumstances. But there is no indication in s 4(2) that the requirement there imposed is directed to achieving any such purpose; and examples were posited in the course of argument which showed that s 4(2), as interpreted in accordance with Sir Patrick’s submission, could lead to capricious results (as, for example, where a domestic policyholder of a life insurance policy retired overseas, and sums payable under the policy were thereafter no longer payable in this country).
Second, and more fundamentally, a construction of s 4(2) which chooses as a criterion the place where any of the obligations of the insurer under the policy will be performed seems to me to reveal an incomplete understanding of the circumstances in which performance may constitute the carrying on by the insurer of insurance business in the United Kingdom. For, as Parker J stated in Bedford Insurance Co Ltd v Instituto de Resseguros do Brasil [1984] 3 All ER 766 at 772, [1985] QB 966 at 982, the performance of an obligation of the insurer under the policy (for example to pay a claim) in this country is not of itself enough, in the absence of authorisation, to attract the prohibition in the 1974 or 1982 Act. This is because the prohibition is against the unauthorised carrying on of insurance business in this country, whether by effecting or by carrying out contracts of insurance which fall outside the classes of insurance business which the insurer is authorised to carry on. Accordingly, only if the insurer without authorisation effects or carries out a contract of insurance as part of an insurance business in this country will such effecting or carrying out be prohibited. It follows that the mere discharge of a payment obligation cannot ‘of itself’ amount to the carrying on of an insurance business in this country without taking into account the business activities of the insurer. Indeed, if this were not so, an insurer who carried on business only in, for example, New York, but discharged an obligation under a contract of insurance effected in New York by payment of a claim to a person in this country, would be committing an offence under the United Kingdom legislation. For this reason, I do not consider that the construction of s 4(2) favoured by the Court of Appeal leads, as Sir Patrick suggested, to a rewriting of the subsection. On the contrary, it seems to me to give full effect to the words ‘carrying on by the insurer of insurance business of any class in the United Kingdom’. Furthermore, on this construction the function of s 4 is to confine protection to those circumstances in which the insurer would require authorisation under the 1974 Act (now the 1982 Act) to perform his obligations under the policy. In other words, it is not enough for the insurer in question to be an authorised insurer: the policy in question must be one the performance of which requires authorisation under the Act. Only in such a case will the insurer be subject to the imposition of a levy under s 21, or the protection be available to the assured under, for example, s 6 or s 8. Consistently with that construction, the policy underlying s 4 is revealed to be not so much the policy of protecting the domestic consumer, but the equally intelligible policy of providing an assured who obtains cover on the London market with the benefit of protection against
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the insolvency of his insurer, the wider range of protection being matched with a wider range for the imposition of the levy.
I wish to add that (although the point does not arise for decision in the present case) I for my part doubt whether the concept of carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom by effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance of any particular class requires that any such contract of insurance should be made (in the technical legal sense) in the United Kingdom, any more than it requires that any particular obligation under such a contract of insurance should be discharged in the United Kingdom. What it refers to is the carrying on in the United Kingdom of any of the specified classes of insurance business, ie the business of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance of one or more of the relevant classes. If, however, an insurance company, carrying on business in the United Kingdom, effects a contract of insurance by exchange of documents which, under English law, has the effect that the contract is in law made in some other country (eg by the assured posting a document in France), I cannot for my part see how this prevents the insurance company from having been in this respect carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom. It is not to be forgotten that such an event may occur not only with home-foreign business, where the assured is resident overseas, but also where an English resident happens to execute the material document when he is abroad on business or on holiday. In the same way, if an insurance company carrying on business in London performs its obligation to pay a claim under a policy by sending a cheque to the assured overseas, then, whether the assured is resident overseas or happens to be on holiday there, the payment will still form part of the insurance company’s business in this country.
Fourth, Sir Patrick’s construction does not appear to me adequately to address the application of the definition in s 4 to the imposition of the levy under s 21. If Sir Patrick’s approach is right, it will be necessary to inquire in the case of each policy where the insurer’s obligations are to be performed. This inquiry will have to be carried out with reference to the time when the premium income in respect of the policy for the year in question was recorded as paid or due. Moreover, the place of payment of claims may not then be agreed; even if it is then agreed, it may subsequently be changed by agreement, as for example where the assured moves his residence from one country to another. If the relevant obligation relates to the defence of claims against the assured, such defence may have to be undertaken in more than one alternative jurisdiction. With considerations such as these in mind, the place of performance of the insurer’s obligations seems scarcely to be an apt criterion for classifying the policy as a United Kingdom policy for the purposes of s 21.
I turn, fifthly, to Sir Patrick’s submission that the construction favoured by the Court of Appeal did not give any weight to the time element introduced by the words ‘at any time when’ in s 4(2). This raises the question why Parliament selected the carrying out of the contract, rather than the effecting of the contract, as the relevant event for the purposes of the subsection. I can only assume that this was because there may be circumstances in which an insurer, carrying on an insurance business in this country, is under an obligation to carry out a contract of insurance although he did not effect the contract in the first place. This could happen where there has been a transfer of liabilities sanctioned by the court or approved by the Secretary of State. In such a case, it would no doubt have been thought right that the assured should be protected against the insolvency of the insurer liable to him after the transfer, in place of the original insurer. Of course, in the vast majority of cases, the insurer responsible for carrying out the contract of insurance will also have effected the policy in the first place; but a criterion
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based upon the carrying out of the contract, rather than effecting it, has the virtue of embracing all relevant categories. At all events, once that criterion was accepted as appropriate, it became necessary to relate the criterion to the material time for the purposes of s 4. The application of the criterion at the material time will be equally apt for the purposes of the provision relating to raising the levy under s 21, as it would be for those relating to the protection of the assured under ss 6 and 8. The choice of this criterion does have the effect that a policy may change from not being a United Kingdom policy when effected to being a United Kingdom policy when performed, and vice versa. The former event could occur in the case of a transfer of liabilities under a contract of insurance effected by an insurer who was not carrying on business in the United Kingdom to one who was; the latter could occur if the contract was effected by an insurer carrying on business in the United Kingdom who then transferred the relevant part of his business outside the United Kingdom before the beginning of his liquidation. Neither of these eventualities is, however, very likely to occur.
Finally I should record the fact that both Sir Patrick for the Royal and Mr Grabiner QC for the Scher plaintiffs invoked passages from Hansard in support of their submissions on this issue. However, speaking for myself, I did not find the passages in question of assistance, and I have not therefore placed any reliance upon them.
For these reasons, I find myself to be in agreement with the conclusion of the Court of Appeal on the first issue, and I would therefore dismiss the Royal’s appeal. Mr Grabiner proposed that the declaration made by the Court of Appeal on this issue should be slightly varied in order to make plain the hypothesis upon which it was based. His proposed form of declaration would read:
‘A policy is a United Kingdom policy if, had any of the obligations under the contract evidenced by the policy been performed at the relevant time, such performance would have formed part of an insurance business which the insurer was authorised to carry on in the United Kingdom, whether or not such obligation(s) would have been performed in the United Kingdom.’
I agree that a declaration in this form would be more appropriate, and speaking myself I would be content to adopt it, while recognising that it does not affect the substance of the conclusion on this issue reached by the Court of Appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley. For the reasons given by him, I too would dismiss this appeal.
Appeals dismissed, but orders of Court of Appeal varied.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Linden Gardens Trust Ltd v Lenesta Sludge Disposals Ltd and others
and another appeal
[1993] 3 All ER 417
Categories: CONSTRUCTION: CONTRACT
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD ACKNER AND LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON
Hearing Date(s): 8–11 FEBRUARY, 22 JULY 1993
Building contract – Assignment – Right to damages – Prohibition on assignment without consent – Effect of failure to obtain consent – Building contract containing prohibition on assignment without consent – Employer assigning contract and rights of action under it without obtaining contractor’s consent to assignment – Damage occurring before and after assignment – Whether assignee having right to sue in respect of damage occurring before or after assignment – Whether if assignment invalid assignor having right to sue in respect of damage – JCT Standard Form of Building Contract (Private Edition with Approximate Quantities, 1975), cl 17.
In two separate appeals the questions arose as to the effect of a contractual provision prohibiting a party from assigning the benefit of a contract and whether a building owner could recover substantial damages for breach of a building contract if he had parted with the property and had no proprietary interest in the works at the time when the breach occurred.
In the first appeal the leaseholder of certain premises entered into a building contract with the second defendants in the JCT Standard Form of Building Contract (Private Edition with Approximate Quantities, 1975) for the removal of asbestos from the premises. Under cl 17a of the contract neither the employer nor the contractor could ‘assign [the] contract’ without the written consent of the other. Five years after the work was completed more asbestos was found on the premises and the leaseholder entered into a contract with another contractor for the removal of asbestos and issued a writ claiming damages from, inter alia, the second defendants for breach of contract in failing to remove all the asbestos from the premises. Before the work was completed the leaseholder assigned part of its interest in the property to the plaintiff and later assigned the remainder of its interest to the plaintiff. The leaseholder also assigned its rights of action to the plaintiff. The second defendants’ consent to the assignment was neither sought nor obtained under cl 17. Subsequently, yet more asbestos was found on the premises and the plaintiff employed a third firm of contractors to remove it. The plaintiff continued the action begun by the leaseholder to claim damages against, inter alios, the second defendants. The judge held that the assignment of the action to the plaintiff was ineffective and that the plaintiff could not recover the cost of work executed after the date of the assignment. On appeal the Court of Appeal held that the assignment was effective to transfer to the plaintiff the causes of action for subsisting breaches of contract by the defendants and that the plaintiff could recover such damages as the leaseholder could have recovered had there been no assignment. The second defendants appealed to the House of Lords.
In the second appeal the first plaintiff entered into a building contract with the defendants in the JCT form for the development of a site by the construction of
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shops, offices and flats. While the development was being carried out the first plaintiff’s interest in the property was assigned for tax reasons to the second plaintiff, an associated company owned by the same controlling body. The defendants’ consent to the assignment was neither sought nor obtained under cl 17. After the development was completed part of it was found to be leaking and remedial works costing some £800,000 were carried out. The plaintiffs sued the defendants for breach of contract. The judge held that the assignment to the second plaintiff was ineffective and that the first plaintiff was only entitled to nominal damages. On appeal the Court of Appeal held that the assignment was invalid because at the date of the assignment there were no accrued causes of action which could be assigned. The court further held that the first plaintiff was entitled to substantial damages. The defendants appealed and the second plaintiff cross-appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – The appeal in the first appeal would be allowed and the appeal and cross-appeal in the second appeal would be dismissed for the following reasons—
(1) Clause 17 of the JCT form of building contract prohibited the assignment of any benefit of the contract, including not only the assignment of the right to future performance but also the assignment of accrued rights of action, and an attempted assignment of contractual rights in breach of the contractual prohibition in cl 17 was ineffective to transfer any such contractual rights to the assignee. The prohibition on the assignment of accrued rights of action was not void as being contrary to public policy since a party to a building contract could have a genuine commercial interest in seeking to ensure that he was in contractual relations only with a person whom he had selected as the other party to the contract and there was no public need for the law to support a market in choses in action. It followed that the plaintiff’s claim in the first appeal and the second plaintiff’s claim as assignee in the second appeal failed. However, the first plaintiff in the second appeal was entitled to substantial damages from the defendant contractor since the parties were to be treated as having entered into the contract on the footing that the first plaintiff would be entitled to enforce contractual rights for the benefit of those who suffered from defective performance but who, under the terms of the contract, could not acquire any right to hold the defendants liable for breach. In that respect the situation which arose in the second appeal was an exception to the general rule that a plaintiff could only recover damages for his own loss and that a plaintiff who had parted with ownership of property at the date of the breach was not entitled to damages or was entitled to nominal damages at most (see p 420 g h, p 421 b to d, p 423 e f, p 427 f to h, p 429 a to c g to j, p 430 f to j, p 431 j, p 432 d, p 435 b, p 436 j to p 437 b g and p 438 a to c g to j, post); The Albazero, Albacruz (cargo owners) v Albazero (owners) [1976] 3 All ER 129 applied.
(2) (Per Lord Griffiths) Where a contract was for work, labour and the supply of materials, the recovery of damages for breach of contract was not dependent or conditional on the plaintiff having a proprietary interest in the subject matter of the contract at the date of breach. Furthermore, it was irrelevant who actually paid for the repairs, and where a tortfeasor’s liability was temporarily discharged by payment by a third party on the plaintiff’s behalf the plaintiff ought not to prevented from suing the tortfeasor for damages (see p 421 e f h j, p 422 b to h and p 423 c d, post).
Notes
For JCT forms of building contract, see 4(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 302.
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For the assignment of rights under a building contract, see ibid paras 353–359, and for cases on the subject, see 7 Digest (Reissue) 422–426, 2525–2535.
Cases referred to in opinions
Albazero, The, Albacruz (cargo owners) v Albazero (owners) [1976] 3 All ER 129, [1977] AC 774, [1976] 3 WLR 419, HL.
Brandt & Co v Liverpool Brazil and River Plate Steam Navigation Co Ltd [1924] 1 KB 575, [1923] All ER Rep 656, CA.
Colonial Bank v European Grain and Shipping Ltd, The Dominique [1988] 3 All ER 233, [1989] AC 1056, [1989] 2 WLR 440, CA, rvsd sub nom Bank of Boston Connecticut v European Grain and Shipping Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 545, [1989] AC 1056, [1989] 2 WLR 440, HL.
Dunlop v Lambert (1839) 6 Cl & F 600, 7 ER 824, HL.
East Ham BC v Bernard Sunley & Sons Ltd [1965] 3 All ER 619, [1966] AC 406, [1965] 3 WLR 1096, HL.
Endeavour, The (1890) 62 LT 840.
GUS Property Management Ltd v Littlewoods Mail Order Stores Ltd 1982 SC (HL) 157, HL.
Helstan Securities Ltd v Hertfordshire CC [1978] 3 All ER 262.
Hadley v Baxendale (1854) 9 Exch 341, [1843–60] All ER Rep 461, 156 ER 145.
Jackson v Horizon Holidays Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 92, [1975] 1 WLR 1468, CA.
Jones v Stroud DC [1988] 1 All ER 5, [1986] 1 WLR 1141, CA.
Livingstone v Rawyards Coal Co (1880) 5 App Cas 25, HL.
Modern Engineering (Bristol) Ltd v Gilbert-Ash (Northern) Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 195, [1974] AC 689, [1973] 3 WLR 421, HL.
Mondel v Steel (1841) 8 M & W 858, [1835–42] All ER Rep 511, 151 ER 1288.
Newton Abbot Development Co Ltd v Stockman Bros (1931) 47 TLR 616.
Nokes v Doncaster Amalgamated Collieries Ltd [1940] 3 All ER 549, [1940] AC 1014, HL.
Obestain Inc v National Mineral Development Corp Ltd, The Sanix Ace [1987] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 465.
Old Grovebury Manor Farm Ltd v W Seymour Plant Sales & Hire Ltd (No 2) [1979] 3 All ER 504, [1979] 1 WLR 1397, CA.
Paiges v van Ryn Goldmines Estates Ltd [1920] AD 600, SA SC App Div.
Portland (Duke) v Baird & Co (1865) 4 M 10, Ct of Sess.
Reed Publishing Holdings Ltd v King’s Reach Investments [1983] CA Transcript 121.
Shaw & Co v Moss Empires Ltd (1908) 25 TLR 190.
Slater v Hoyle & Smith Ltd [1920] 2 KB 11, [1918–19] All ER Rep 654, CA.
Turcan, Re (1888) 40 Ch D 5, CA.
Williams v Earle (1868) LR 3 QB 739.
Williams Bros v E T Agius Ltd [1914] AC 510, HL.
Winkfield, The [1902] P 42, [1900–3] All ER Rep 346, CA.
Woodar Investment Development Ltd v Wimpey Construction UK Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 571, [1980] 1 WLR 277, HL.
Appeal
Linden Gardens Trust Ltd v Lenesta Sludge Disposals Ltd and ors
The second defendants, McLaughlin & Harvey plc, appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal against the decision of the Court of Appeal (Nourse, Staughton LJJ and Sir Michael Kerr) ((1992) 30 Con LR 1) delivered on 17 June 1992 allowing the appeal of the plaintiffs, Linden Gardens Trust Ltd, from the decision of Judge John Loyd QC ((1990) 25 Con LR 28) hearing official referees’ business on 9 October 1990 whereby on the trial of preliminary issues he dismissed the plaintiffs’
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claim against the second defendants for the cost of certain remedial works in 1985 amounting to £22,205·02 and against the second defendants and the third defendants, Ashwell Construction Co Ltd, for the cost of certain remedial works in 1987 and 1988 amounting to about £236,000. The first defendants, Lenesta Sludge Disposals Ltd, took no part in the proceedings. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Browne-Wilkinson.
St Martins Property Corp Ltd and anor v Sir Robert McAlpine & Sons Ltd
The defendants, Sir Robert McAlpine & Sons Ltd, appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal against the decision of the Court of Appeal (Nourse LJ and Sir Michael Kerr (Staughton LJ dissenting)) ((1992) 30 Con LR 1) delivered on 17 June 1992 allowing the appeal of the second plaintiffs, St Martins Property Corp Ltd, from the decision of Judge Peter Bowsher QC ((1991) 25 Con LR 51) hearing official referees’ business on 29 January 1991 whereby he ordered on the trial of preliminary issues that the second plaintiffs’ action against the defendants for the cost of certain remedial works amounting to about £800,000 be stayed. The first plaintiffs, St Martins Property Investments Ltd, cross-appealed against the decision of the Court of Appeal (Nourse and Staughton LJJ and Sir Michael Kerr) dismissing its appeal from the decision of the judge dismissing its claim against the defendants. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Browne-Wilkinson.
Sydney Kentridge QC and Justin Fenwick (instructed by Masons) for McLaughlin & Harvey.
John Dyson QC and Anthony Speaight (instructed by Jaques & Lewis) for Linden Gardens.
Richard Fernyhough QC and Marcus Taverner (instructed by Glovers) for McAlpines.
Humphrey Lloyd QC and David Westcott (instructed by Stephenson Harwood) for St Martins.
Ashwell Construction were not represented.
23 July 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson, and also that prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths.
I agree entirely with the reasoning which leads Lord Browne-Wilkinson to the conclusion that the appeal in the Linden Gardens case must be allowed, and the cross-appeal by St Martins Property Investments Ltd dismissed.
As regards the appeal by McAlpines in which St Martins Property Corp Ltd are respondents I would dismiss that for the reasons given by Lord Browne-Wilkinson, and not upon the broader grounds favoured by Lord Griffiths. I have much sympathy with the view that where a building contractor is in breach of his contract he should not be relieved of liability to pay substantial damages for his breach merely by reason that the other contracting party had no proprietary interest in the works at the time when the breach occurred. There is much force in the analysis that the party who contracted for the works to be done has suffered loss because he did not receive the performance he had bargained for and in order to remedy that has been required to pay for the defects to be put right by another builder. However, the matter was not fully explored in argument before your Lordships, and the possible effects upon other forms of commercial contract
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remain uncertain. While in some future case the view expressed by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths may well prevail, the present case can be disposed of in favour of the respondents without the necessity of deciding upon its correctness.
LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson I would allow the appeal in the Linden Gardens case and dismiss both the appeal and the cross-appeal in the St Martins case. I would also answer the questions raised by the preliminary issues in each case in the terms proposed by my noble and learned friend and make the orders for costs which he proposes.
In the McAlpine appeal I am much attracted by the broad principle favoured by my noble and learned friend Lord Griffiths, but am content from the purpose of the present proceedings to adopt the narrower ground for dismissal of the appeal on which Lord Browne-Wilkinson rests his decision.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading the speech of Lord Browne-Wilkinson and agree that for the reasons he gives the first appeal should be allowed. In the second appeal I agree that for the reasons given by Lord Browne-Wilkinson St Martins Property Investments Ltd (Investments) have no claim against Sir Robert McAlpine & Sons Ltd (McAlpines). I also agree that, for reasons which I can state quite shortly, St Martins Property Corp Ltd (Corporation) are entitled to recover substantial damages from McAlpines. Accordingly the appeal in the Linden Gardens case must be allowed and the cross-appeal by St Martins Property Investments Ltd dismissed.
McAlpines have successfully resisted Corporation’s claim to have assigned the benefit of the contract to Investments. It follows that throughout the performance of the contract McAlpines owed to Corporation a contractual duty to build the podium deck of sound materials and with all reasonable skill and care. Upon the assumption that McAlpines broke this contractual duty the normal measure of damages in such circumstances is the cost of remedying the defect in the building: see East Ham BC v Bernard Sunley & Sons Ltd [1965] 3 All ER 619, [1966] AC 406. If the cost of remedying the defect in the podium deck was £800,000 Corporation would in my opinion be entitled to recover that sum from McAlpines.
It is however submitted that two factors prevent this normal and just result of McAlpines’ breach of contract. The first ground upon which McAlpines resist the claim is that Corporation had transferred their building lease to Investments before the podium deck was built and thus had no proprietary interest in the property when the breach occurred. The second is that for financial reasons beneficial to Corporation and Investment, Investment reimbursed Corporation for the money that they paid for the repairs to the podium deck.
In my view neither of these considerations provide McAlpines with a defence to Corporation’s claim. I cannot accept that in a contract of this nature, namely for work, labour and the supply of materials, the recovery of more than nominal damages for breach of contract is dependent upon the plaintiff having a proprietary interest in the subject matter of the contract at the date of breach. In everyday life contracts for work and labour are constantly being placed by those who have no proprietary interest in the subject matter of the contract. To take a common example, the matrimonial home is owned by the wife and the couple’s remaining assets are owned by the husband and he is the sole earner. The house requires a new roof and the husband places a contract with a builder to carry out the work. The husband is not acting as agent for his wife, he makes the contract as principal because only he can pay for it. The builder fails to replace the roof
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properly and the husband has to call in and pay another builder to complete the work. Is it to be said that the husband has suffered no damage because he does not own the property? Such a result would in my view be absurd and the answer is that the husband has suffered loss because he did not receive the bargain for which he had contracted with the first builder and the measure of damages is the cost of securing the performance of that bargain by completing the roof repairs properly by the second builder. To put this simple example closer to the facts of this appeal—at the time the husband employs the builder he owns the house but just after the builder starts work the couple are advised to divide their assets so the husband transfers the house to his wife. This is no concern of the builder whose bargain is with the husband. If the roof turns out to be defective the husband can recover from the builder the cost of putting it right and thus obtain the benefit of the bargain that the builder had promised to deliver. It was suggested in argument that the answer to the example I have given is that the husband could assign the benefit of the contract to the wife. But what if, as in this case, the builder has a clause in the contract forbidding assignment without his consent and refuses to give consent as McAlpines have done? It is then said that neither husband nor wife can recover damages; this seems to me to be so unjust a result that the law cannot tolerate it.
The principal authority relied upon by McAlpines in support of the proposition that the contracting party suffers no loss if they did not have a proprietary interest in the property at the time of the breach was The Albazero, Albacruz (cargo owners) v Albazero (owners) [1976] 3 All ER 129, [1977] AC 774. The situation in that case was however wholly different from the present. The Albazero was not concerned with money being paid to enable the bargain, ie the contract of carriage, to be fulfilled. The damages sought in The Albazero were claimed for the loss of the cargo, and as at the date of the breach the property in the cargo was vested in another with a right to sue it is readily understandable that the law should deny to the original party to the contract a right to recover damages for a loss of the cargo which had caused him no financial loss. In cases such as the present the person who places the contract has suffered financial loss because he has to spend money to give him the benefit of the bargain which the defendant had promised but failed to deliver. I therefore cannot accept that it is a condition of recovery in such cases that the plaintiff has a proprietary right in the subject matter of the contract at the date of breach.
The second ground upon which the recovery of damages is resisted is that Investments in fact reimbursed Corporation for the money they spent on the repairs. But here again in my view who actually pays for the repairs is no concern of the defendant who broke the contract. The court will of course wish to be satisfied that the repairs have been or are likely to be carried out but if they are carried out the cost of doing them must fall upon the defendant who broke his contract. Authority for this is to be found in Jones v Stroud DC [1988] 1 All ER 5, [1986] 1 WLR 1141. The case in fact was one in tort and not contract but the principle of whether or not it is a defence if someone else has paid for work for which the defendant would otherwise be liable must apply to both tort and contract. The claim was for damages to a building which had suffered damage as a result of the defendant’s negligence. In giving judgment Neill LJ said ([1988] 1 All ER 5 at 13–14, [1986] 1 WLR 1141 at 1150):
‘The plaintiffs failed to provide any documents relating to the work (of repairs) carried out by Marlothian Ltd and there is no evidence that the plaintiffs have paid or are liable to pay any sum to Marlothian in respect of that work. It was submitted on behalf of the plaintiffs, however, that if the repairs were necessary and were carried out it was not to the point that the
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plaintiffs had not proved that they had paid for the repairs themselves. Our attention was drawn to The Endeavour (1890) 62 LT 840, where repairs to the vessel were carried out but before paying for them the plaintiff had gone bankrupt. It was there argued that the plaintiff could not claim the cost of the repairs because the sums recovered would only go to swell the creditors’ funds. This argument was rejected and it was said (at 841): “If somebody out of kindness were to repair the injury and make no charge for it, the wrongdoer would not be entitled to refuse to pay as part of the damages the cost of the repairs to the owner.” In my judgment, on the facts of this case this submission is correct.’
There are many cases where a tortfeasor’s liability has been temporarily discharged by payment by a third party on behalf of the plaintiff. A very common example occurs in personal injury cases where the cost of medical treatment is borne by a relative; but that has never been seen as a reason why that sum should not ultimately be paid by the defendant if he is found liable for the injuries. The law regards who actually paid for the work necessary as a result of the defendant’s breach of contract as a matter which is raised inter alios acta so far as the defendant is concerned.
It will be seen that my reasons for holding that Corporation can recover damages are essentially those canvassed in the speech of Lord Browne-Wilkinson in the introduction to that part of his speech dealing with Corporation’s claim for damages. Whilst I always welcome and find the views of academic writers most helpful, I am prepared even without the benefit of their views to adopt the direct route to the award of damages to Corporation.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson I would allow the appeal in the Linden Gardens case and dismiss both the appeal and the cross-appeal in the St Martins case. I would also answer the questions raised by the preliminary issues in each case in the terms proposed by my noble and learned friend and make the orders for costs which he proposes.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, these appeals and the cross-appeal arise in two separate actions which raise similar issues. In broad terms, those issues are, first, what is the effect of a contractual provision which prohibits a party from assigning the benefit of a contract and, second, can a building owner recover substantial damages for breach of a building contract if he has parted with the property. The appeals relate to preliminary issues directed to be tried in both actions. As the cases have proceeded, certain of those issues have become irrelevant. I propose therefore to state shortly the facts of each case, then deal with the matters which fall for decision by this House and, at the end, indicate the answers which should in my view be given to the questions posed by the preliminary issues which have been directed.
THE FACTS IN THE LINDEN GARDENS CASE
In 1979 Stock Conversion and Investment Trust plc (Stock Conversion) were the owners of a leasehold interest in the third to sixth floors inclusive of 130 Jermyn St, London SW1. On 19 June 1979 Stock Conversion entered into a building contract with the second defendants, McLaughlin & Harvey plc (M & H) under which M & H were to remove blue asbestos from the property.
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The contract was in the JCT form (Joint Contracts Tribunal Standard Form of Building Contract, Private Edition with Approximate Quantities (1975) with amendments). Clause 17 of the contract provided as follows:
‘(1) The Employer shall not without the written consent of the Contractor assign this Contract. (2) The Contractor shall not without the written consent of the Employer assign this Contract, and shall not without the written consent of the Architect (which consent shall not be unreasonably withheld to the prejudice of the Contractor) sub-let any portion of the Works. Provided that it shall be a condition in any sub-letting which may occur that the employment of the sub-contractor under the sub-contract shall determine immediately upon the determination (for any reason) of the Contractor’s employment under this Contract.’
Lenesta Sludge Disposals Ltd, the first defendants, were the nominated sub-contractors for the removal of the asbestos. They are of no significance in these appeals and I mention them only to explain their presence in the title to the action.
Practical completion of the works to be carried out by M & H took place on 25 March 1980. Subsequently, more asbestos which should have been removed by M & H was found in the premises. In February 1985 Stock Conversion entered into a contract with Ashwell Construction Co Ltd (the third defendant) for the removal of such asbestos: such contract also contained a covenant against assignment. Practical completion of the second contract took place in August 1985, and the cost was borne by Stock Conversion.
Meanwhile, on 1 April 1985 Stock Conversion assigned to Linden Gardens Trust Ltd (Linden Gardens) its leasehold interest in the third, fifth and sixth floors of the property, subject to a licence back under which Stock Conversion continued to occupy the third floor. In December 1986 Stock Conversion surrendered its licence of the third floor and assigned its leasehold interest in the fourth floor to Linden Gardens. It is not suggested that Stock Conversion received anything less than the full market value of its leasehold interest or that any allowance was made in the price for the possibility that there might still be asbestos in the building.
This action was started on 3 July 1985 when Stock Conversion (which then still had an interest in the building) issued a writ against Lenesta Sludge as sole defendant.
Following the disposal by Stock Conversion of its whole interest in the property to Linden Gardens, on 14 January 1987 Stock Conversion executed a deed of assignment in favour of Linden Gardens. The deed of assignment recited that Stock Conversion had agreed with Linden Gardens to assign to them Stock Conversion’s rights of action as pleaded in the High Court proceedings and incidental to the leasehold interest in the premises in consideration of £1 and provided as follows:
‘In pursuance of the said agreement and in consideration of the sum of One pound (£1) (the receipt of which sum the Assignors hereby acknowledge) the Assignors hereby assign to the Assignees, (a) all their rights of action as pleaded in the said proceedings or otherwise against Lenesta Sludge Disposal Limited; (b) all other rights of action currently vested in the Assignors which are or were incidental to their leasehold in the said premises.’
M & H did not, as was required by cl 17(1) of the building contract, consent to such assignment: it is this lack of consent which is the basis of the problems which arise.
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In 1987 and 1988 yet more asbestos was found in the premises. Further work was undertaken to remove this asbestos, the cost of which was borne by Linden Gardens. It is not asserted that Stock Conversion is under any liability to Linden Gardens to bear any part of these costs.
By a series of amendments, the action has been reconstituted: Linden Gardens has been substituted for Stock Conversion as the plaintiff; Lenesta Sludge remains as first defendant; M & H have been joined as second defendant; Ashwell Construction is the third defendant.
In the action as now constituted, Linden Gardens, as assignee, claims damages for breach by each of the defendants of their respective building contracts. The crucial points to be noticed are these. First, Stock Conversion which was the only party in a direct contractual relationship with each of the defendants is not a party to the action. Second, the purported assignment of the benefit of the building contract by Stock Conversion to Linden Gardens was made without the consent of the defendants. Third, any breach of contract by M & H occurred before Stock Conversion parted with its interest in the premises. Fourth, since Stock Conversion obtained from Linden Gardens the full market price for its interest in the premises on the assumption that the asbestos had been eradicated, Stock Conversion was not out of pocket by reason of the breaches save to the extent that it paid for the further works done in 1985.
The preliminary issues in this action were therefore directed to two questions. First, were Stock Conversion’s rights under the contracts effectively assigned to Linden Gardens despite the fact that assignment of the building contracts by Stock Conversion was prohibited by the terms of those contracts? If so, second, could Linden Gardens as assignee recover damages for the cost of removing the asbestos after the date of the assignment, which cost was incurred not by Stock Conversion but by Linden Gardens?
Judge John Loyd QC held that the assignment to Linden Gardens was ineffective and that, in any event, Linden Gardens could not recover for the cost of work executed after the date of the assignment (see (1990) 25 Con LR 28). The Court of Appeal (Nourse, Staughton LJJ and Sir Michael Kerr) reversed the judge on both points (see (1992) 30 Con LR 1). The Court of Appeal held that the assignment was effective to transfer to Linden Gardens the causes of action for subsisting breaches of contract by M & H and Ashwell Construction and that the assignee could recover such damages as Stock Conversion could have recovered had there been no assignment. M & H appeal to this House. Ashwell Construction have not appealed.
THE FACTS IN THE ST MARTINS CASE
In 1968 the first plaintiffs, St Martins Property Corp Ltd (Corporation), began to develop a site at King Street, Hammersmith, London. The development was to include shops, offices, and flats. On 17 May 1968 Corporation entered into a written agreement with the local authority whereby, upon completion of the development, Corporation would be entitled to the grant of a 150 year lease of the site.
On 29 October 1974 Corporation entered into a building contract with Sir Robert McAlpine & Sons Ltd (McAlpines) which incorporated the JCT form (Joint Contracts Tribunal, Standard Form of Building Contract, Private Edition with Quantities (1972)). Clause 17 of such contract was, for all practical purposes, in terms identical to those in cl 17 in the Linden Gardens case.
Corporation is a wholly-owned subsidiary of St Martins Holdings Ltd, which is itself wholly owned by the state of Kuwait. In the mid-1970s a scheme was implemented for tax reasons whereunder all the property interests of the state of
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Kuwait were to be vested in another wholly-owned subsidiary of St Martins Holdings Ltd, the second plaintiff, St Martins Property Investments Ltd (Investments). Pursuant to that scheme a deed of assignment dated 25 March 1976 was executed under which Corporation for full value assigned to Investments all Corporation’s interests in the property under the agreement with the local authority of 17 May 1968. It further purported to assign to Investments—
‘the full benefit of all contracts and engagements whatsoever entered into by the Assignor and existing at the date hereof for the construction of and completion of the Development.’
As in the Linden Gardens case, the consent of McAlpines to the assignment of the benefit of the building contract was neither sought nor given. No notice of the assignment was given to McAlpines until 10 years later on 3 March 1986.
At the time of the assignment there were no subsisting relevant breaches of the building contract. In November 1976 Investments appointed Corporation to be its agent to manage the property and the development. Practical completion of the works took place in 1980.
In 1981 part of the development, the podium deck, was found to be leaking. It is alleged that this is due to breaches of contract by McAlpines occurring after the date of assignment to Investment. Remedial works have been carried out at a cost of some £800,000 plus value added tax which, although originally paid by Corporation, has been recovered by Corporation from Investments.
In the action Corporation and Investments sue McAlpines for breach of contract. The following points should be noted. First, as in the Linden Gardens case, no consent to the assignment was obtained. Second, unlike the Linden Gardens case the breaches of contract all took place after the date of the assignment, that is to say at a time when Corporation had no interest in the property. Third, unlike the Linden Gardens case, the original contracting party, Corporation, is a party to the action and is claiming substantial damages notwithstanding that Corporation is not out of pocket as a result of McAlpines’ breaches.
Therefore the main issues which arise in this case are first, whether notwithstanding cl 17 of the building contract the assignment to Investments was effective. Second, whether Corporation is entitled to substantial damages for breach of contract. Judge Peter Bowsher QC held that the assignment to Investments was ineffective and that Corporation was only entitled to nominal damages (see (1991) 25 Con LR 51). The appeal to the Court of Appeal was heard at the same time as the appeal in the Linden Gardens case. The Court of Appeal held by a majority (Staughton LJ dissenting) that the assignment was invalid, the case differing from the Linden Gardens case in that, at the date of the assignment, there were no accrued causes of action which could be assigned (see (1992) 30 Con LR 1). However, the Court of Appeal held unanimously that Corporation was entitled to substantial damages. McAlpines appeal and Investments cross-appeal to this House.
THE ISSUES
The two cases therefore raise, or potentially raise, the following issues.
(1) Does cl 17(1) of the building contracts prohibit the purported assignment of the benefit of the building contracts?
(2) Does cl 17(1) prohibit the assignment of causes of action for breaches of contract subsisting at the date of the assignments?
(3) Is a prohibition on assignment void as being contrary to public policy?
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(4) Even if the assignments were validly prohibited, were they effective to vest causes of action in the assignees?
(5) If so, what is the measure of damages recoverable by the assignees?
(6) If the assignments are ineffective, can the original contracting party recover substantial damages?
I will deal with these issues in turn, save that on the view I take of the case issue (5) does not arise since the assignments were invalid and ineffective to vest any cause of action in the assignees.
(1) Does cl 17 prohibit the assignment of the benefit of building contracts?
Staughton LJ (dissenting on this point) held that on its true construction cl 17 did not prohibit the assignment by the employer of the benefit of the building contract. It was urged before your Lordships on behalf of Linden Gardens and Investments that his views were correct.
The argument runs as follows. On any basis, cl 17 is unhappily drafted in that it refers to an assignment of ‘the contract’. It is trite law that it is, in any event, impossible to assign ‘the contract’ as a whole, ie including both burden and benefit. The burden of a contract can never be assigned without the consent of the other party to the contract in which event such consent will give rise to a novation. Therefore one has to discover what the parties meant by this inelegant phrase. It is said that the intention of the parties in using the words ‘assign this contract’ is demonstrated by cl 17(2) which prohibits both the assignment of the contract by the contractor without the employer’s consent and the subletting of any portion of the works without the consent of the architect. In cl 17(2), the contractor is only expressly prevented from sub-letting ‘any portion of the works’. Yet it must have been the party’s intention to limit the contractor’s rights to sublet the whole of the works. Accordingly, the words in cl 17(2) ‘assign this contract’ have to be read as meaning ‘sublet the whole of the works’. If that is the meaning of the words ‘assign this contract’ in cl 17(2) they must bear the same meaning in cl 17(1), which accordingly only prohibits the employer from giving substitute performance and does not prohibit the assignment of the benefit of the contract.
Like the majority of the Court of Appeal, I am unable to accept this argument. Although it is true that the phrase ‘assign this contract’ is not strictly accurate, lawyers frequently use those words inaccurately to describe an assignment of the benefit of a contract since every lawyer knows that the burden of a contract cannot be assigned: see eg Nokes v Doncaster Amalgamated Collieries Ltd [1940] 3 All ER 549 at 551–552, [1940] AC 1014 at 1019–1020. The prohibition in cl 17(2) against subletting ‘any portion of the works’ necessarily produces a prohibition against the subletting of the whole of the works: any sub-letting of the whole will necessarily include a subletting of a portion and is therefore prohibited. Therefore there is no ground for reading the words ‘assign this contract’ in cl 17(1) as referring only to subletting the whole. Decisively, both cl 17(1) and (2) clearly distinguish between ‘assignment’ and ‘sub-letting’: it is therefore impossible to read the word ‘assign’ as meaning ‘sub-let’. Finally, I find it difficult to comprehend the concept of an employer ‘subletting’ the performance of his contractual duties which consist primarily of providing access to the site and paying for the works.
Accordingly, in my view cl 17(1) of the contract prohibited the assignment by the employer of the benefit of the contract. This, by itself, is fatal to the claim by Investments (as assignee) in the St Martins case.
(2) Does cl 17(1) prohibit the assignment of accrued rights of action?
The majority in the Court of Appeal drew a distinction between an assignment of the right to require future performance of a contract by the other party on the
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one hand and an assignment of the benefits arising under the contract (eg to receive payment due under it or to enforce accrued rights of action) on the other hand. They held that cl 17 only prohibited the assignment of the right to future performance and did not prohibit the assignment of the benefits arising under the contract, in particular accrued causes of action. Therefore, in the Linden Gardens case, where all the relevant breaches of contract by the contractors pre-dated the assignment, an assignment to Linden Gardens of the accrued rights of action for breach was not prohibited. In contrast, in the St Martins case, where all the breaches of contract occurred after the date of the assignment, the majority of the Court of Appeal held that it was a breach of cl 17 to seek to transfer the right to future performance.
This distinction between assigning the right to future performance of a contract and assigning the benefits arising under a contract was largely founded on a note by Professor Goode ‘Inalienble Rights’ (1979) 42 MLR 553 on Helstan Securities Ltd v Hertfordshire CC [1978] 3 All ER 262. In that case a contract contained a clause prohibiting the contractor from assigning the contract ‘or any benefit therein or thereunder’. The contractors assigned to the plaintiffs the right to a liquidated sum of money then alleged to be due to the contractors under the contract. Croom-Johnson J held that the plaintiffs, as assignees, could not sue the employers to recover the sum of money.
In his note Professor Goode rightly pointed out that where a contract between A and B prohibits assignment of contractual rights by A, the effect of such a prohibition is a question of the construction of the contract. There are at least four possible interpretations, viz: (1) that the term does not invalidate a purported assignment by A to C but gives rise only to a claim by B against A for damages for breach of the prohibition; (2) that the term precludes or invalidates any assignment by A to C (so as to entitle B to pay the debt to A) but not so as to preclude A from agreeing, as between himself and C, that he will account to C for what A receives from B: Re Turcan (1888) 40 Ch D 5; (3) that A is precluded not only from effectively assigning the contractual rights to C, but also from agreeing to account to C for the fruits of the contract when received by A from B; (4) that a purported assignment by A to C constitutes a repudiatory breach of condition entitling B not merely to refuse to pay C but also to refuse to pay A.
Professor Goode then expressed the view that construction (2) (being the Helstan case itself) was permissible and effective but that construction (3) to the extent that it purported to render void not only the assignment as between B and C but also as between A and C was contrary to law.
I am content to accept Professor Goode’s classification and conclusions, though I am bound to say that I think cases within categories (1) and (4) are very unlikely to occur. But Professor Goode’s classification provides no warrant for the view taken by the majority of the Court of Appeal in the present case: he does not discuss or envisage a case where a contractual prohibition against assignment is to be construed as prohibiting an assignment by A to C of rights of future performance but does not prohibit the assignment by A to C of ‘the fruits of performance’ eg accrued rights of action or debts. Professor Goode only draws a distinction between the assignment of rights to performance and the assignment of rights under the contract in two connections: first in dealing with the effect of a prohibited assignment as between the assignor and the assignee (in categories (2) and (3)); secondly, in dealing with contracts for personal services. In the latter, he rightly points out that, although an author who has contracted to write a book for a fee cannot perform the contract by supplying a book written by a third party, if he writes the book himself he can assign the right to the fee—the fruits of
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performance. He expressly mentions that such right to assign the fruits of performance can be prohibited by the express terms of the contract.
However, although I do not think that Professor Goode’s article throws any light on the true construction of cl 17, I accept that it is at least hypothetically possible that there might be a case in which the contractual prohibitory term is so expressed as to render invalid the assignment of rights to future performance but not so as to render invalid assignments of the fruits of performance. The question in each case must turn on the terms of the contract in question.
The question is to what extent does cl 17 on its true construction restrict rights of assignment which would otherwise exist? In the context of a complicated building contract, I find it impossible to construe cl 17 as prohibiting only the assignment of rights to future performance, leaving each party free to assign the fruits of the contract. The reason for including the contractual prohibition viewed from the contractor’s point of view must be that the contractor wishes to ensure that he deals, and deals only, with the particular employer with whom he has chosen to enter into a contract. Building contracts are pregnant with disputes: some employers are much more reasonable than others in dealing with such disputes. The disputes frequently arise in the context of the contractor suing for the price and being met by a claim for abatement of the price or cross-claims founded on an allegation that the performance of the contract has been defective. Say that, before the final instalment of the price has been paid, the employer has assigned the benefits under the contract to a third party, there being at the time existing rights of action for defective work. On the Court of Appeal’s view, those rights of action would have vested in the assignee. Would the original employer be entitled to an abatement of the price, even though the cross-claims would be vested in the assignee? If so, would the assignee be a necessary party to any settlement or litigation of the claims for defective work, thereby requiring the contractor to deal with two parties (one not of his choice) in order to recover the price for the works from the employer? I cannot believe that the parties ever intended to permit such a confused position to arise.
Again, say that before completion of the works the employers assigned the land, together with the existing causes of action against the contractor, to a third party and shortly thereafter the contractor committed a repudiatory breach? On the construction preferred by the Court of Appeal, the right to insist on further performance, being unassignable, would have remained with the original employers whereas the other causes of action and the land would belong to the assignee. Who could decide whether to accept the repudiation, the assignor or the assignee?
These possibilities of confusion (and many others which could be postulated) persuade me that parties who have specifically contracted to prohibit the assignment of the contract cannot have intended to draw a distinction between the right to performance of the contract and the right to the fruits of the contract. In my view they cannot have contemplated a position in which the right to future performance and the right to benefits accrued under the contract should become vested in two separate people. I say again that that result could have been achieved by careful and intricate drafting, spelling out the parties’ intentions if they had them. But in the absence of such a clearly expressed intention, it would be wrong to attribute such a perverse intention to the parties. In my judgment, cl 17 clearly prohibits the assignment of any benefit of or under the contract.
It follows that the purported assignment to Linden Gardens without the consent of the contractors constituted a breach of cl 17. The claim of Linden Gardens as assignee must therefore fail unless it can show that the prohibition in cl 17 was either void as being contrary to public policy or, notwithstanding the
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breach of cl 17, the assignment was effective to assign the chose in action to Linden Gardens.
(3) Is a prohibition on assignment void as being contrary to public policy?
It was submitted that it is normally unlawful as being contrary to public policy to seek to render property inalienable. Since contractual rights are a species of property, it is said that a prohibition against assigning such rights is void as being illegal.
This submission faces formidable difficulties both on authority and in principle. As to the authorities, in Re Turcan (1888) 40 Ch D 5 a man effected an insurance policy which contained a term that it should not be assignable in any case whatever. He had previously covenanted with trustees to settle after-acquired property. The Court of Appeal held that although he could not assign the benefit of the policy so as to give the trustees the power to recover the money from the insurance company, he could validly make a declaration of trust of the proceeds which required him to hand over such proceeds to the trustees. This case proceeded, therefore, on the footing that the contractual restriction on assignment was valid. In Helstan Securities Ltd v Hertfordshire CC [1978] 3 All ER 262 Croom-Johnson J enforced such a prohibition. In Reed Publishing Holdings Ltd v King’s Reach Investments [1983] CA Transcript 121, the Court of Appeal had to consider an application to join as a party to an action an assignee of the benefit of a contract which contained a prohibition on such assignment. One of their grounds for refusing the application was that by reason of the prohibition the assignment was of no effect.
In none of these cases was the public policy argument advanced. But they indicate a long-term acceptance of the validity of such a prohibition which is accepted as part of the law in Chitty on Contracts (26th edn, 1989) vol 1, p 883, para 1413. We were referred to a decision of the Supreme Court of South Africa, Paiges v van Ryn Goldmines Estates Ltd [1920] AD 600 in which it was expressly decided that a term prohibiting a workman from assigning his wages was not contrary to public policy. In Scotland a covenant against assigning a lease of minerals (which was treated simply as a contract) was held not to infringe public policy: Duke of Portland v Baird & Co (1865) 4 M 10. We were referred to certain cases in the United States, but they give no unequivocal guidance.
In the face of this authority, the House is being invited to change the law by holding that such a prohibition is void as contrary to public policy. For myself I can see no good reason for so doing. Nothing was urged in argument as showing that such a prohibition was contrary to the public interest beyond the fact that such prohibition renders the chose in action inalienable. Certainly in the context of rights over land the law does not favour restrictions on alienability. But even in relation to land law a prohibition against the assignment of a lease is valid. We were not referred to any English case in which the courts have had to consider restrictions on the alienation of tangible personal property, probably because there are few cases in which there would be any desire to restrict such alienation. In the case of real property there is a defined and limited supply of the commodity and it has been held contrary to public policy to restrict the free market. But no such reason can apply to contractual rights: there is no public need for a market in choses in action. A party to a building contract, as I have sought to explain, can have a genuine commercial interest in seeking to ensure that he is in contractual relations only with a person whom he has selected as the other party to the contract. In the circumstances, I can see no policy reason why a contractual prohibition on assignment of contractual rights should be held contrary to public policy.
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To avoid doubt, I must make it clear that I have been considering only the validity of a restriction which prohibits assignments which have the effect of bringing the assignee into direct contractual relations with the other party to the contract. I have not been considering Professor Goode’s category (3), ie an attempt by contractual term to prevent one party making over the fruits of the contract to a third party. Professor Goode expresses the view that if the prohibition seeks to prevent the assignor from binding himself to pay over such fruits to the assignee, such prohibition is pro tanto void. I express no view on that point.
(4) Are the assignments (although prohibited) effective to transfer the causes of action to the assignees?
It was submitted that, even though the assignments were in breach of cl 17, they were effective to vest the causes of action in the assignees, ie Professor Goode’s category (1). This argument was founded on two bases: first, the decision in Shaw & Co v Moss Empires Ltd (1908) 25 TLR 190; second, the fact that an assignment of a leasehold term in breach of a covenant against assignment is effective to vest the term in the assignee.
In the Shaw case an actor, B, was engaged by Moss Empires under a contract which prohibited the assignment of his salary. B assigned 10% of his salary to his agent, Tom Shaw. Tom Shaw sued Moss Empires for 10% of the salary joining B as second defendant. Moss Empires agreed to pay the 10% of the salary to Tom Shaw or B as the court might decide, ie in effect it interpleaded. Darling J held (at 191) that the prohibition on assignment was ineffective: it could ‘no more operate to invalidate the assignment than it could to interfere with the laws of gravitation’. He gave judgment for the plaintiffs against both B and Moss Empires, ordering B to pay the costs but making no order for costs against Moss Empires.
The case is inadequately reported and it is hard to discover exactly what it decides. Given that both B and Moss Empires were parties and Moss Empires was in effect interpleading, it may be that the words I have quoted merely indicate that as between the assignor, B, and the assignee Tom Shaw, the prohibition contained in the contract between B and Moss Empires could not invalidate B’s liability to account to Tom Shaw for the moneys when received and that, since B was a party, payment direct to Tom Shaw was ordered. This view is supported by the fact that no order for costs was made against Moss Empires. If this is the right view of the case, it is unexceptionable: a prohibition on assignment normally only invalidates the assignment as against the other party to the contract so as to prevent a transfer of the chose in action: in the absence of the clearest words it cannot operate to invalidate the contract as between the assignor and the assignee and even then it may be ineffective on the grounds of public policy. If on the other hand Darling J purported to hold that the contractual prohibition was ineffective to prevent B’s contractual rights against Moss Empires being transferred to Tom Shaw, it is inconsistent with authority and was wrongly decided.
In the Helstan Securities case Croom-Johnson J did not follow the Shaw case and held that the purported assignment in breach of the contractual provision was ineffective to vest the cause of action in the assignee. That decision was followed and applied by the Court of Appeal in the Reed Publishing Holdings case: see also Re Turcan 40 Ch D 5.
Therefore the existing authorities establish that an attempted assignment of contractual rights in breach of a contractual prohibition is ineffective to transfer such contractual rights. I regard the law as being satisfactorily settled in that sense. If the law were otherwise, it would defeat the legitimate commercial reason for
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inserting the contractual prohibition, viz, to ensure that the original parties to the contract are not brought into direct contractual relations with third parties.
As to the analogy with leases, I was originally impressed by the fact that an assignment of the term in breach of covenant is effective to vest the term in the assignee: Williams v Earle (1868) LR 3 QB 739 at 750; Old Grovebury Manor Farm Ltd v W Seymour Plant Sales & Hire Ltd (No 2) [1979] 3 All ER 504, [1979] 1 WLR 1397. However, Mr Kentridge QC in his reply satisfied me that the analogy is a false one. A lease is a hybrid, part contract, part property. So far as rights of alienation are concerned a lease has been treated as a species of property. Historically the law treated interests in land, both freehold and leasehold, as being capable of disposition and looked askance at any attempt to render them inalienable. However, by the time of Coke covenants against the assignment of leases had been held to be good, because the lessor had a continuing interest in the identity of the person who was his tenant: Holdsworth History of English Law (2nd edn) vol 3, p 85, vol 7, p 281. The law became settled that an assignment in breach of covenant gave rise to a forfeiture, but pending forfeiture the term was vested in the assignee. In contrast, the development of the law affecting the assignment of contractual rights was wholly different. It started from exactly the opposite position, viz contractual rights were personal and not assignable. Only gradually did the law permitting assignment develop: Holdsworth vol 7, pp 520–521 and 531ff. It is therefore not surprising if the law applicable to assignment of contractual rights differs from that applicable to the assignment of leases.
Therefore in my judgment an assignment of contractual rights in breach of a prohibition against such assignment is ineffective to vest the contractual rights in the assignee. It follows that the claim by Linden Gardens fails and the Linden Gardens action must be dismissed.
(5) What is the measure of damages recoverable by the assignee?
In view of my decision on the earlier issues, this issue does not arise for determination. I mention it only to explain that the Court of Appeal considered that the assignee was entitled to recover what the assignor could have recovered had there been no assignment. On that basis Staughton LJ (who had held that the assignees in both actions could sue) had to consider what the assignors could have recovered.
(6) What is the measure of damages in the claim by Corporation?
McAlpines accept that, since the attempted assignment by Corporation of its rights under the contract to Investments was ineffective, Corporation has retained those rights and is entitled to judgment against McAlpines for any breach of contract. But, McAlpines submit, Corporation is only entitled to nominal damages. Corporation has suffered no loss: it had parted with its interest in the property (and therefore with the works when completed) before any breach of the building contract; moreover Corporation received full value for that interest on its disposal to Investments. Therefore, it is said, neither of the plaintiffs has any right to substantial damages: Investments has incurred damage (being the cost of rectifying the faulty work) but has no cause of action; Corporation has a cause of action but has suffered no loss. If this is right, in the words of Lord Keith of Kinkel in GUS Property Management Ltd v Littlewoods Mail Order Stores Ltd 1982 SC (HL) 157 at 177, ‘the claim to damages would disappear ... into some legal black hole, so that the wrongdoer escaped scot-free’.
The Court of Appeal was able to avoid this result by reason of the continuing liability on Corporation to indemnify Investments against the cost of remedying the defects. McAlpines accepted, and still accept, that Corporation is liable to
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Investments in damages for Corporation’s breach of contract in failing to obtain the consent of McAlpines to the assignment of the benefit of the building contract. The measure of the damages payable by Corporation to Investments for such breach would be the cost of remedying the defects since, if the assignment had been valid, Investments could have recovered such cost from McAlpines. Therefore, the Court of Appeal held, Corporation has suffered substantial loss by reason of McAlpines’ breach, such loss being the liability to indemnify Investments.
Attractive as this argument is, Mr Fernyhough QC for McAlpines has satisfied me that it is erroneous because the damage being claimed is too remote. The loss so identified as having been suffered by Corporation flows from the attempt by Corporation to assign the benefit of the building contract in breach of cl 17 of the contract. However the rule in Hadley v Baxendale (1854) 9 Exch 341, [1843–60] All ER Rep 461 is formulated, in my judgment it is impossible to say that such damage arose naturally according to the usual course of things, or was in the contemplation of, or foreseeable by, McAlpines, or that McAlpines ought to have realised that such damage was ‘not unlikely’. The contract for the breach of which damages are sought expressly prohibited Corporation from making such assignment. One party to a contract cannot be liable for damages flowing from the doing of an act by the other party which the contract itself expressly forbids.
It is therefore necessary to consider Mr Fernyhough’s principle argument in some detail. He starts from the well known proposition that the measure of damages is generally ‘that sum of money which will put the party who has been injured, or who has suffered, in the same position he would have been in if he had not sustained the wrong for which he is now getting his compensation or reparation’: per Lord Blackburn in Livingstone v Rawyards Coal Co (1880) 5 App Cas 25 at 39. Since, before the date of any breach of contract by McAlpines, Corporation had disposed of all its interest in the property on which the building works were carried out, Corporation has suffered no loss. Corporation received the full value of the property from Investments. The measure of damages for defective performance of a building contract is the diminution in value of the plaintiff’s property, which diminution is usually properly reflected by the cost of carrying out the repairs necessary to effect reinstatement: East Ham BC v Bernard Sunley & Sons Ltd [1965] 3 All ER 619, [1966] AC 406. Since at the date of breach Corporation did not own the property, Corporation suffered no loss by any diminution in its value nor could Corporation carry out any works of reinstatement. Therefore, it is said, Corporation has suffered no loss.
Mr Fernyhough accepted that central to his argument is the fact that at the date of breach Corporation no longer owned the property. He distinguished the decision in Newton Abbot Development Co Ltd v Stockman Bros (1931) 47 TLR 616 on that ground. In that case the plaintiffs, as developers, had contracted with the defendants as contractors for the construction of a number of houses. After completion of the works, the plaintiffs had sold the houses to individual purchasers at a profit. Thereafter defects due to faulty construction by the defendants appeared in the houses. The plaintiffs, although under no legal liability to do so, had remedied these defects. They were held entitled to recover from the defendants not the cost of effecting the remedial work but the difference between the value of the houses as they ought to have been completed and their actual value as in fact completed. Mr Fernyhough explains this case on the basis that, although in fact the plaintiff suffered no commercial loss, they were the owners of the houses at the date of breach and therefore entitled to the diminution in value of that property, the sale on by the plaintiffs being irrelevant as res inter alios acta. In support of the proposition that only nominal damages are recoverable by a
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plaintiff who has parted with ownership of the property at the date of breach, Mr Fernyhough further relied on two cases concerned with breach of contract for the carriage of goods, The Albazero [1976] 3 All ER 129, [1977] AC 774 and Obestain Inc v National Mineral Development Corp Ltd, The Sanix Ace [1987] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 465.
This is a formidable, if unmeritorious, argument since it is apparently soundly based on principle and is supported by authority. In The Albazero the plaintiffs chartered the defendant’s vessel for the carriage of oil. The carriage was covered by a bill of lading which named the plaintiffs as consignees. In the course of the voyage the vessel and cargo became a total loss. However, on the day before that loss, the plaintiffs endorsed the bill of lading to a third party: the property in the goods and the right to sue the defendants were thereby vested in the third party. The plaintiffs, although having no property in the goods at the date of breach of the contract of carriage, sued the defendants for the full value of the goods. This House held that the plaintiffs were not entitled to substantial damages. Lord Diplock treated the general rule as being clear: a party who has no property in the goods at the date of breach has suffered no loss. However, he recognised that there were exceptions to this general rule and I will consider those exceptions later.
Notwithstanding the apparent logic of Mr Fernyhough’s submission, I have considerable doubts whether it is correct. A contract for the supply of goods or of work, labour and materials (a supply contract) is not the same as a contract for the carriage of goods. A breach of a supply contract involves a failure to provide the very goods or services which the defendant had contracted to supply and for which the plaintiff has paid or agreed to pay. If the breach is discovered before payment of the contract price, the price is abated by the cost of making good the defects: see, as to the sale of goods, Mondel v Steel (1841) 8 M & W 858, [1835–42] All ER Rep 511 and the Sale of Goods Act 1979, s 53(1), as to building contracts, Modern Engineering (Bristol) Ltd v Gilbert-Ash (Northern) Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 195, [1974] AC 689. Mr Fernyhough accepted that this right to abatement of the price does not depend on ownership by the plaintiff of the goods and it would be odd if the plaintiff’s rights arising from breach varied according to whether the breach was discovered before or after the payment of the price. No such similar principle of abatement applies to freight charges: the freight charges have to be paid in full leaving the consignor to bring a separate action for damages for breach of the contract of carriage: Colonial Bank v European Grain and Shipping Ltd, The Dominique [1988] 3 All ER 233 at 240–241, [1989] AC 1056 at 1067–1068.
In contracts for the sale of goods, the purchaser is entitled to damages for delivery of defective goods assessed by reference to the difference between the contract price and the market price of the defective goods, irrespective of whether he has managed to sell on the goods to a third party without loss: Slater v Hoyle & Smith Ltd [1920] 2 KB 11, [1918–19] All ER Rep 654; see also as to non-delivery Williams Bros v E T Agius Ltd [1914] AC 510. In those cases the judgments contained no consideration of the person in whom the property in the goods was vested although it appears that some of the sub-contracts had been made prior to the breach of contract.
If the law were to be established that damages for breach of a supply contract were not quantifiable by reference to the beneficial ownership of goods or enjoyment of the services contracted for but by reference to the difference in value between that which was contracted for and that which is in fact supplied, it might also provide a satisfactory answer to the problems raised where a man contracts and pays for a supply to others, eg a man contracts with a restaurant for a meal for himself and his guests or with a travel company for a holiday for his family. It is apparently established that, if a defective meal or holiday is supplied, the contracting party can recover damages not only for his own bad meal or unhappy
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holiday but also for that of his guests or family: see Jackson v Horizon Holidays Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 92, [1975] 1 WLR 1468 as explained in Woodar Investment Development Ltd v Wimpey Construction UK Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 571 at 576, 585, 588, 591, [1980] 1 WLR 277 at 283–284, 293–294, 297, 300–301.
There is therefore much to be said for drawing a distinction between cases where the ownership of goods or property is relevant to prove that the plaintiff has suffered loss through the breach of a contract other than a contract to supply those goods or property and the measure of damages in a supply contract where the contractual obligation itself requires the provision of those goods or services. I am reluctant to express a concluded view on this point since it may have profound effects on commercial contracts which effects were not fully explored in argument. In my view the point merits exposure to academic consideration before it is decided by this House. Nor do I find it necessary to decide the point since, on any view, the facts of this case bring it within the class of exceptions to the general rule to which Lord Diplock referred in The Albazero. In The Albazero [1976] 3 All ER 129 at 136–137, [1977] AC 774 at 846 Lord Diplock said:
‘Nevertheless, although it is exceptional at common law that a plaintiff in an action for breach of contract, though he himself has not suffered any loss, should be entitled to recover damages on behalf of some third person who is not a party to the action for a loss which that third person has sustained, the notion that there may be circumstances in which he is entitled to do so was not entirely unfamiliar to the common law and particularly to that part of it which, under the influence of Lord Mansfield and his successors, Lord Ellenborough and Lord Tenterden, had been appropriated from the law merchant. I have already mentioned the right of the bailee, which has been recognised from the earliest period of our law, to sue in detinue or trespass for loss or damage to his bailor’s goods although he cannot be compelled by his bailor to do so and is not himself liable to the bailor for the loss or damage: The Winkfield [1902] P 42, [1900–3] All ER Rep 346. Nevertheless, he becomes accountable to his bailor for the proceeds of the judgment in an action by his bailor for money had and received. So too the doctrine of subrogation in the case of insurers, which was adopted from the law merchant by the common law in the 18th century, involved the concept of the nominal party to an action at common law suing for a loss which he had not himself sustained and being accountable to his insurer for the proceeds to the extent that he had been indemnified against the loss by the insurer. In this instance of a plaintiff being able to recover as damages for breach of contract for the benefit of a third person a loss which that person has sustained and he has not, the insurer is entitled to compel an assured to whom he has paid a total or partial indemnity to bring the action. A third example, once again in the field of mercantile law, is the right of an assured to recover in an action on a policy of insurance on goods the full amount of loss or damage to them, on behalf of anyone who may be entitled to an interest in the goods at the time when the loss or damage occurs, provided that it appears from the terms of the policy that he intended to cover their interests.’
In addition, the decision in The Albazero itself established a further exception. This House was concerned with the status of a long-established principle based on the decision in Dunlop v Lambert (1839) 6 Cl & F 600, 7 ER 824 that a consignor of goods who had parted with the property in the goods before the date of breach could even so recover substantial damages for the failure to deliver the goods. Lord Diplock identified the rationale of that rule as being—
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‘The only way in which I find it possible to rationalise the rule in Dunlop v Lambert so that it may fit into the pattern of the English law is to treat it as an application of the principle, accepted also in relation to policies of insurance on goods, that in a commercial contract concerning goods where it is in the contemplation of the parties that the proprietary interests in the goods may be transferred from one owner to another after the contract has been entered into and before the breach which causes loss or damage to the goods, an original party to the contract, if such be the intention of them both, is to be treated in law as having entered into the contract for the benefit of all persons who have or may acquire an interest in the goods before they are lost or damaged, and is entitled to recover by way of damages for breach of contract the actual loss sustained by those for whose benefit the contract is entered into.’ (See [1976] 3 All ER 129 at 137, [1977] AC 774 at 847.)
In The Albazero it was held that the principle in Dunlop v Lambert no longer applied to goods consigned under a bill of lading because both the property in the goods and the cause of action for breach of the contract of carriage passes to the consignee or indorsee by reason of the consignment or indorsement; therefore, since the consignee or indorsee will in any event be entitled to enforce the contract direct there is no ground on which one can impute to the parties an intention that the consignor is entering into the contract for the benefit of others who will acquire the property in the goods but no right of action for breach of contract.
However, this House was careful to limit its decision to cases of carriage by sea under a bill of lading, leaving in force the principle in Dunlop v Lambert in relation to other contracts for the carriage of goods where such automatic assignment of the rights of action for breach does not take place. Lord Diplock, after the passage referring to the exceptions which I have already quoted, said ([1976] 3 All ER 129 at 137, [1977] AC 774 at 846–847):
‘My Lords, in the light of these other exceptions, particularly in the field of mercantile law, to the general rule of English law that apart from nominal damages a plaintiff can only recover in an action for breach of contract the actual loss he has himself sustained, I do not think that the fact that the rule which it is generally accepted was laid down by this House in Dunlop v Lambert would add one more exception would justify your Lordships in declaring the rule to be no longer law. Nor do I think that the almost complete absence of reliance on the rule by litigants in actions between 1839 and 1961 provides a sufficient reason for abolishing it entirely. The development of the law of negligence since 1839 does not provide a complete substituted remedy for some types of loss caused by breach of a contract of carriage. Late delivery is the most obvious example of these. The Bills of Lading Act 1855 and the subsequent development of the doctrine laid down in Brandt v Liverpool, Brazil and River Plate Steam Navigation Co Ltd [1924] 1 KB 575, [1923] All ER Rep 565 have reduced the scope and utility of the rule in Dunlop v Lambert where goods are carried under a bill of lading. But the rule extends to all forms of carriage including carriage by sea itself where no bill of lading has been issued, and there may still be occasional cases in which the rule would provide a remedy where no other would be available to a person sustaining loss which under a rational legal system ought to be compensated by the person who has caused it. For my part, I am not persuaded that your Lordships ought to go out of your way to jettison the rule.’
In my judgment the present case falls within the rationale of the exceptions to the general rule that a plaintiff can only recover damages for his own loss. The contract was for a large development of property which, to the knowledge of both
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Corporation and McAlpines, was going to be occupied, and possibly purchased, by third parties and not by Corporation itself. Therefore it could be foreseen that damage caused by a breach would cause loss to a later owner and not merely to the original contracting party, Corporation. As in contracts for the carriage of goods by land, there would be no automatic vesting in the occupier or owners of the property for the time being who sustained the loss of any right of suit against McAlpines. On the contrary, McAlpines had specifically contracted that the rights of action under the building contract could not without McAlpines’ consent be transferred to third parties who became owners or occupiers and might suffer loss. In such a case, it seems to me proper, as in the case of the carriage of goods by land, to treat the parties as having entered into the contract on the footing that Corporation would be entitled to enforce contractual rights for the benefit of those who suffered from defective performance but who, under the terms of the contract, could not acquire any right to hold McAlpines liable for breach. It is truly a case in which the rule provides ‘a remedy where no other would be available to a person sustaining loss which under a rational legal system ought to be compensated by the person who has caused it’.
Mr Fernyhough submitted that it would be wrong to distort the law in order to meet what he described as being an exceptional case. He said that this was a one-off or exceptional case since the development was sold before any breach of contract had occurred and there was an express contractual prohibition on assignment. He submitted that to give Corporation a right to substantial damages in this case would produce chaos when applied to other cases where the contractors have entered into direct warranties with the ultimate purchasers of the individual parts of a development. I am not impressed by these submissions. I am far from satisfied that this is a one-off or exceptional case. We are concerned with standard forms of building contracts which prohibit the assignment of the benefit of building contracts to the ultimate purchasers. In the prolonged period of recession in the property market which this country has experienced many developments have had to be sold off before completion, thereby producing the risk that the ownership of the property may have become divided from the right to sue on the building contract at a date before any breach occurs. As to the warranties given by contractors to subsequent purchasers, they will not, in my judgment, give rise to difficulty. If, pursuant to the terms of the original building contract, the contractors have undertaken liability to the ultimate purchasers to remedy defects appearing after they acquired the property, it is manifest the case will not fall within the rationale of Dunlop v Lambert. If the ultimate purchaser is given a direct cause of action against the contractor (as is the consignee or indorsee under a bill of lading) the case falls outside the rationale of the rule. The original building owner will not be entitled to recover damages for loss suffered by others who can themselves sue for such loss. I would therefore hold that Corporation is entitled to substantial damages for any breach by McAlpines of the building contract.
THE ANSWER TO THE PRLIMINARY ISSUES
The Linden Gardens case
The preliminary issues directed were as follows:
‘(1) Are the Plaintiffs entitled by virtue of the Deed of Assignment pleaded at paragraph 1F of the Amended Statement of Claim to recover damages against the Defendants in respect of the various causes of action and heads of loss pleaded (a) where the loss was incurred by Stock Conversion prior to the said Deed of Assignment, (b) where the loss was incurred by the Plaintiffs subsequent thereto?
(2) Were Stock Conversion precluded from lawfully assigning rights of action to the Plaintiffs against Second Defendants by clause 17(1) of Contract dated 19th July 1979 made between Stock Conversion and the Second Defendants?’
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Logically these questions should be posed in the opposite order. If, as I would hold, the benefit to the rights of action were not effectively assigned to Stock Conversion at all, there can be no question of the defendants being liable to Stock Conversion for any loss whenever the breach occurred. I would therefore answer question (2) ‘Yes’ and question (1) ‘Does not arise’.
I would accordingly allow this appeal with costs both here and below.
The St Martins case
The issues in this case are rather more complex and I will so far as necessary explain each issue.
‘(1) Was the benefit of the contract dated 29th October 1974 between the First Plaintiff [Corporation] and the Defendant [McAlpines] validly assigned by the First Plaintiff to the Second Plaintiff [Investments]?’
This is straightforward: the answer is No.
‘(2) Was there an implied term in the deed of assignment dated 25th March 1976 and in the Agency Agreement dated 1976 and 1983 as pleaded in paragraph 7 and 7A of Amended Statement of Claim?’
The statement of claim alleges that there were implied terms under which Corporation undertook to obtain McAlpines’ consent to the assignment (para 7) or to enforce the building contract for the benefit of Investments (para 7A). Since these points would only be relevant if, contrary to my view, Corporation could claim damages by reference to obligations undertaken in the deed of assignment by Corporation to Investment, I would answer this issue ‘Does not arise’.
‘(3) On the assumption that the matters pleaded in paragraph 8 of the Statement of Claim are correct then:— (a) Does the Second Plaintiff [Investments] have a valid claim against the Defendant for damages other than nominal damages, for breach of the contract dated 29th October 1974 as pleaded in paragraph 10 of the Statement of Claim? (b) Does the First Plaintiff [Corporation] have a valid claim against the Defendant for damages other than nominal damages for breach of the contract dated 29th October 1974 as pleaded in paragraph 11 of the Statement of Claim? (c) Does the First Plaintiff [Corporation] have a valid claim against the Defendant for damages other than nominal damages for breach of the contract dated 29th October 1974 as pleaded in paragraph 12 of the Statement of Claim?’
Questions (a) and (b) are self-explanatory. I would answer them (a) No, (b) Yes. Question (c) raises the question whether Corporation can claim damages as constructive trustee for Investments or because of Corporation’s liability to Investment under terms implied in the deed of assignment. Since in my judgment Corporation is entitled to substantial damages in any event, I would answer question (c) ‘Does not arise’, although, as I have explained, I would if necessary have answered it No.
I would therefore dismiss the appeal by McAlpines and the cross-appeal by Investments, save that the order of the Court of Appeal be varied by substituting the answers to the issues which I have indicated. McAlpines must pay the costs of the appeal to this House and Investments the costs of its own cross-appeal.
Appeal in Linden Gardens case allowed. Appeal and cross-appeal in St Martins case dis-missed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Secretary of State for the Environment, ex parte Tower Hamlets London Borough Council
[1993] 3 All ER 439
Categories: HOUSING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, STUART-SMITH AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 29 MARCH, 7 APRIL 1993
Housing – Homeless person – Duty of housing authority to provide accommodation – Immigrant applicant for housing – Code of guidance issued by Department of Environment providing that everyone admitted to United Kingdom entitled to equal treatment under the law and having rights to accommodation no different from those of any other person – Whether duty extending to illegal immigrant – Whether housing authority entitled to investigate and decide whether applicant illegal immigrant – Whether code of guidance misleading and wrong in law – Housing Act 1985, Pt III, s 71 – Immigration Act 1971, ss 26(1)(c), 33 – Code of Guidance to Local Authorities on Homelessness (3rd edn, 1991), para 4.11.
Under Pt III of the Housing Act 1985 local authorities had duties in respect of housing homeless persons who applied for housing and assistance. In the exercise of their functions local authorities were required to have regard to, but were not bound by, the Code of Guidance to Local Authorities on Homelessness issued by the Department of Environment under s 71 of the 1985 Act. Paragraph 4.11a of the code provided that everyone admitted to the United Kingdom was entitled to equal treatment under the law, their rights under Pt III of the 1985 Act were no different from those of any other person and local authorities should treat information received on an applicant’s immigration status as confidential. In proceedings for judicial review the applicant local authority applied for a declaration that para 4.11 was ultra vires of the Secretary of State on the grounds that it was misleading and wrong in law as far as illegal immigrants were concerned. The local authority contended that it was entitled in the course of investigating the entitlement of an immigrant applicant for housing to decide whether in breach of paras 1 and 50 of the Immigration Rules (HC Paper (1989–90) no 251) and s 26(1)(c)b of the Immigration Act 1971 the applicant had, in order to obtain leave to enter the United Kingdom, made a false representation to immigration officials that adequate accommodation was available for the applicant and his or her dependants without recourse to public funds, and therefore leave to enter had been obtained by deception and the applicant was an ‘illegal entrant’ within s 33(1)c of the 1971 Act to whom no duty was owed under Pt III of the 1985 Act. It was common ground that the local authority owed no duty to an applicant under Pt III of the 1985 Act if the immigration authorities had decided that he was
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an illegal entrant. The Divisional Court dismissed the application. The local authority appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – A person who, not being a British citizen, obtained leave to enter the United Kingdom by deceit thereby committing an offence under s 26(1) of the 1971 Act was an illegal entrant from the moment leave was obtained, whether or not the true facts were known to the immigration authorities or they had taken action against him. Section 33(1) of the 1971 Act did not define an illegal entrant as a person deemed to be so by the Secretary of State and there was nothing in the 1971 Act or the Immigration Rules suggesting that they were enforceable only by the immigration authorities. From a practical point of view it was a local authority, not the immigration authorities, which would most probably discover deception by an immigrant as to adequate accommodation for him and his dependants and it ought not be necessary for the local authority to refer the case for decision to the immigration authorities with the consequent delay involved. It followed that the local authority was entitled to decide whether the applicant was an illegal immigrant in the sense that leave to enter had been obtained by deception and accordingly para 4.11 of the Code of Guidance to Local Authorities on Homelessness in so far as it purported to include illegal immigrants of whatever category was wrong in law. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 443 g to p 444 a, p 445 j to p 446 b and p 448 a, post).
Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765 considered.
Per curiam. A local authority can seek to evict an applicant if it decides after inquiry that he is an illegal immigrant, but it should not do so if an application for judicial review by the applicant is pending, and the local authority may be restrained from evicting the applicant if leave to apply for judicial review has been granted (see p 446 e f and p 448 a, post).
Notes For accommodation for homeless persons and priority need for accommodation, see 22 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 509–510, and for cases on the subject, see 26 Digest (1981 reissue) 797–801, 5325–5338.
For criminal offences in respect of illegal entry into the United Kingdom, see 4(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (1992 reissue) paras 141–144, and for cases on the subject, see 2 Digest 199–200, 1153–1154.
For the Housing Act 1985, s 71, see 21 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 110.
For the Immigration Act 1971, ss 26, 33, see 31 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 80, 84.
Cases referred to in judgmentsKhawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765, [1984] AC 74, [1983] 2 WLR 321, HL.
R v Cardiff City Council, ex p Barry (1989) 22 HLR 261, CA.
R v Hillingdon BC, ex p Streeting [1980] 3 All ER 413, [1980] 1 WLR 1425, CA.
Zamir v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1980] 2 All ER 768, [1980] AC 930, [1980] 3 WLR 249, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
De Falco v Crawley BC [1980] 1 All ER 913, [1980] QB 460, CA.
Gillick v West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority [1985] 3 All ER 402, [1986] AC 112, HL.
Mokuolu v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1989] Imm AR 51, CA.
Page 441 of [1993] 3 All ER 439
Appeal Tower Hamlets London Borough Council appealed from the decision of the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division (Lloyd LJ and Waterhouse J) given on 9 April 1992 dismissing the council’s application for judicial review of the Code of Guidance to Local Authorities on Homelessness (3rd edn, 1991) issued by the Department of the Environment under s 71 of the Housing Act 1985 by way of declarations (a) that the council was entitled to investigate the immigration status of applicants for housing under Pt III of the 1985 Act and their dependants to ascertain whether they had a right of recourse to public funds, including requesting the Home Office to supply any information any relevant person had given to it, (b) that the council was entitled to reject applications made under Pt II of the 1985 Act where the dependants relied on to give the applicant priority need had entered the country on the basis that they would not have recourse to public funds, and (c) that any provisions of the code of guidance to the contrary were published ultra vires. The facts are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ.
Ashley Underwood and Lisa Giovannetti (instructed by James E Marlowe) for the council.
David Pannick QC (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Cur adv vult
7 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Thomas Bingham MR). This is an appeal from a decision of the Divisional Court given on 9 April 1992 in which that court refused the relief sought by the appellant, the London Borough of Tower Hamlets (Tower Hamlets), by way of judicial review in relation to certain paragraphs of the latest edition (3rd edn, 1991) of the Code of Guidance for Local Authorities on Homelessness (the code) issued by the Department of the Environment under s 71 of the Housing Act 1985. Part III of that Act imposes duties and obligations on local authorities, including Tower Hamlets, in respect of housing homeless persons who apply for housing and assistance.
The paragraphs of the code in question are 4.11 and 4.12 which were introduced for the first time in the 1991 edition of the code. They read as follows:
‘4.11 Authorities cannot refuse to rehouse a family because they are immigrants. Everyone admitted to this country is entitled to equal treatment under the law; their rights under Part III of the Act are no different from those of any other person. Authorities should remember to treat as confidential information received on an applicant’s immigration status. In seeking to establish an applicant’s identity authorities should use passports if produced voluntarily as one of a number of possible forms of identification, or where there is no other form of identification.
4.12 Authorities should however be aware that people in the UK with limited leave to remain (apart from refugees and asylum seekers) may prejudice their immigration status if they have recourse to public funds (including accommodation provided under Part II of the Act). If it therefore comes to light in the course of investigations that an applicant may only have limited leave to remain in the UK the housing officer should inform the applicant that s/he may be jeopardising his/her status and advise him/her to contact the Home Office or an independent advice agency for help. If, in this
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instance, the applicant wishes to maintain his/her application the authority must continue to investigate the case in the ordinary way.’
Tower Hamlets contends that that guidance is misleading and contrary to the true legal position in certain respects and consequently ultra vires.
In common with some other local housing authorities throughout the country, Tower Hamlets has a large immigrant population. The problem arises in the discharge of its duties under the 1985 Act in relation to illegal immigrants, that is to say, those who are not lawfully in this country. All persons who are not British citizens require leave to enter the United Kingdom in accordance with the Immigration Act 1971 (see s 3(1)). By s 33(1) of the 1971 Act ‘entrant’ is defined as meaning a person entering or seeking to enter the United Kingdom and ‘illegal entrant’ means a person unlawfully entering or seeking to enter in breach of a deportation order or of the immigration laws, and includes a person who has so entered. By s 26(1)(c) of the 1971 Act it is an offence for a person to make to an immigration officer a statement or representation which he knows to be false or does not believe to be true. In Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765, [1984] AC 74 it was held that a person who obtains leave to enter by deception which amounts to an offence contrary to s 26(1)(c) of the 1971 Act is an ‘illegal entrant’.
By para 50 of the Statement of Changes in Immigration Rules (HC Paper (1989–90) no 251) (the rules), made under the powers conferred by s 3(2) of the 1971 Act, a person seeking admission as a spouse of a person who is present and settled must hold a current entry clearance, which will be refused unless the entry clearance officer is satisfied that there will be adequate accommodation for the parties and their dependants without recourse to public funds, in accommodation of their own, or which they occupy themselves. Similar provisions apply to fiancees and other relatives (paras 47, 52 and 53); to visitors (para 22); students and their dependants (paras 26 and 31); businessmen and self-employed persons (para 42); persons of independent means (para 44); and writers and artists (para 45). By para 1 of the rules ‘public funds’ includes housing under Pt III of the 1985 Act. A relative of a person seeking entry may be asked to give an undertaking in writing to be responsible for that person’s accommodation (para 20).
The effect of these provisions is that there are broadly two classes of illegal immigrants with which a local housing authority may be concerned. First, those who enter the country clandestinely, without going through immigration control; they obtain no sort of leave to enter. It is common ground that no duty is owed to such persons by the housing authority under the 1985 Act. It is not suggested that the paragraphs of the code which are in question relate to such persons. Secondly, there are those who obtain leave to enter as a result of false and deceitful statements about the availability of accommodation in this country. A typical example occurs in the case of a man who is settled here, but is living in one room; he wishes his wife and children, who are frequently numerous, to join him. They will only be granted leave to enter on the faith of a representation that there is adequate accommodation available provided by the husband. On arrival here it is plain that the accommodation is hopelessly inadequate and the family is homeless; because there are young children they are in priority need. If the housing authority are under a duty to them, then they must secure that suitable accommodation is made available to them.
Here too there is a measure of agreement between the parties. First, it is clear that if the immigration authorities have decided that such a person is an illegal entrant, then subject to any review of this decision by the courts, the local housing authority owes no duty to him or her under Pt III of the 1985 Act. Secondly, not only is there nothing in either of the Acts or rules to prevent the housing authority
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making inquiries as to what statements, representations or undertakings were given in relation to accommodation by or on behalf of the applicant, but it is its duty to do so. These inquiries may include inquiries of the Home Office. Thirdly, if as a result of these inquiries the housing authority suspect that the applicant is an illegal entrant not only is there nothing to prevent the authority from informing the immigration authorities of its suspicion and the grounds for it, but it would be its duty to do so. So much is common ground and it is not now, if it ever was, suggested that the guidance in para 4.11 of the code which advises the authority to treat as confidential information received on the applicant’s immigration status, in any way precludes such action.
The area of dispute is a narrow one, but nevertheless it is of considerable importance to a housing authority in the position of the appellant. Mr Underwood, on its behalf, submits that not only is Tower Hamlets entitled to investigate whether or not the applicant obtained leave to enter by deceit relating to housing accommodation, but is also entitled to decide that question in the light of its investigation. If it decides that question adversely to the applicant, it has no duty under the Act. If that is the correct view, Mr Underwood submits that the second sentence of para 4.11 of the code is at best far from clear and at worst misleading.
Mr Pannick QC for the Secretary of State submits that that is not the correct view. He contends that it is for the immigration authorities alone and not the housing authority to decide whether an applicant is an illegal entrant in the sense that he has obtained leave to enter by deception. He bases the submission on the following passage from the speech of Lord Bridge of Harwich in the Khawaja case where he says ([1983] 1 All ER 765 at 788, [1984] AC 74 at 119):
‘Next, I would point out that the process of reasoning which I have suggested as justifying the conclusion that a person who obtains leave to enter by fraud is an illegal entrant avoids the necessity to characterise the leave to enter itself as a nullity. It is for the immigration authorities to decide whether or not to seek to secure the summary removal of an illegal entrant by invoking their powers under Sch 2. If they do not do so, the leave to enter stands.’
The Divisional Court accepted Mr Pannick’s submission; but I do not agree with it. There is nothing in the language of s 33(1) and the definition of illegal entrant which imports into it the opinion of the immigration authorities or the Secretary of State. There is nothing in the 1971 Act or rules which suggest that it is only enforceable by the immigration authorities. Section 24 of the 1971 Act creates ordinary criminal offences, including that of knowingly entering the United Kingdom without leave; there is no requirement that certification by the Secretary of State to this effect has to be obtained as a precondition of prosecution. By s 25(2) a person who knowingly harbours anyone whom he knows or has reasonable cause for believing to be either an illegal entrant or a person who has committed an offence under s 24(1)(b) or (c) is guilty of an offence. Mr Pannick submitted that before a defendant could be guilty of harbouring an illegal entrant who obtains leave to enter by deceit it was necessary for the immigration authorities to have decided that the entrant had done so, and presumably also that the alleged harbourer was aware of this fact. I cannot accept this construction. No such implication is warranted and it would plainly emasculate the section. In my judgment a person, not being a British citizen, who obtains leave to enter by deceit which amounts to an offence under s 26(1)(c) is an illegal entrant from the moment he so obtains leave. That is so whether or not the true facts are known to the immigration authorities and whether or not they have taken any action against
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him. A person who steals my purse is a thief, whether or not he is prosecuted, convicted or sentenced. So it is with an illegal entrant. In my judgment this view is entirely supported by the reasoning of their Lordships in the Khawaja case. Lord Fraser of Tullybelton said ([1983] 1 All ER 765 at 772, [1984] AC 74 at 97):
‘On this question I agree with my noble and learned friends Lord Scarman and Lord Bridge that an immigration officer is only entitled to order the detention and removal of a person who has entered the country by virtue of an ex facie valid permission if the person is an illegal entrant. That is a “precedent fact” which has to be established. It is not enough that the immigration officer reasonably believes him to be an illegal entrant if the evidence does not justify his belief.’ (Lord Fraser’s emphasis.)
That passage shows that the question whether or not a person is an illegal entrant is a question of fact and has nothing to do with the opinion of the immigration officer.
Lord Wilberforce said ([1983] 1 All ER 765 at 773, [1984] AC 74 at 98):
‘... fraud or deception vitiated permission to enter so that the person concerned could be treated as an illegal entrant.’
Later he said ([1983] 1 All ER 765 at 777, [1984] AC 74 at 105):
‘(2) Any person whom the Secretary of State proposes to remove as an illegal entrant, and who is detained, may apply for a writ of habeas corpus or for judicial review. On such an application the Secretary of State or the immigration authorities if they seek to support the detention or removal (the burden being on them) should depose to the grounds on which the decision to detain or remove was made, setting out essential factual evidence taken into account and exhibiting documents sufficiently fully to enable the courts to carry out their function of review. (3) The court’s investigation of the facts is of a supervisory character and not by way of appeal … It should appraise the quality of the evidence and decide whether that justifies the conclusion reached, eg whether it justifies a conclusion that the applicant obtained permission to enter by fraud or deceit.’
The kernel of Lord Bridge’s reasoning is to be found where he said ([1983] 1 All ER 765 at 787, [1984] AC 74 at 118):
‘My Lords, in my opinion, the question whether a person who has obtained leave to enter by fraud “has entered in breach of the Act” is purely one of construction. If the fraud was a contravention of s 26(1)(c) of the Act, the provisions of which I have already quoted, and if that fraud was the effective means of obtaining leave to enter, in other words if, but for the fraud, leave to enter would not have been granted, then the contravention of the Act and the obtaining of leave to enter were the two inseparable elements of the single process of entry and it must inevitably follow that the entry itself was “in breach of the Act”. It is on this simple ground and subject to the limitations that it implies that I would rest my conclusion that those who obtain leave to enter fraudulently have rightly been treated as illegal entrants.’
Lord Templeman agreed with Lord Bridge (see [1983] 1 All ER 765 at 793, [1984] AC 74 at 126).
In my judgment the passage from the speech of Lord Bridge, which I have previously quoted, and which Mr Pannick made the foundation for his submission, does not bear the weight he seeks to put upon it. In that passage Lord Bridge was saying two things. He was reverting again to the argument which had been
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advanced by the appellant’s counsel that the effect of deception was to make the leave to enter voidable and not void or a nullity. This argument he already dismissed as having no application to this aspect of public law (see [1983] 1 All ER 765 at 787, [1984] AC 74 at 118). Secondly, he is pointing out the practical consequences so far as the immigrant and immigration authorities are concerned. He is not concerned with the position of a housing authority at all. Quite clearly if the immigration authorities never learn of the deception, the entrant will remain here and to that extent the leave has been effective. If they do learn of the deception they have a choice; they may seek to invoke their summary powers of removal under Sch 2; or they may be content to allow him to remain, perhaps for compassionate or other reasons; in which case either the original leave is validated because the fraud no longer operates or the entrant should be treated as having been granted leave to remain in the United Kingdom (see s 3(1)(b)).
This conclusion is consistent with the views of the Court of Appeal expressed obiter in R v Hillingdon BC, ex p Streeting [1980] 3 All ER 413, [1980] 1 WLR 1425. The actual decision in that case was to the effect that a housing authority owed the duties imposed under the Housing (Homeless Persons) Act 1977, which was the precursor of Pt III of the 1985 Act, to persons who were lawfully in this country irrespective of whether such person had any local connection with any housing area in Great Britain. Lord Denning MR said ([1980] 3 All ER 413 at 420, [1981] 1 WLR 1425 at 1434):
‘Of course if he is an illegal entrant, if he enters unlawfully without leave, or if he overstays his leave and remains here unlawfully, the housing authority are under no duty whatever to him. Even though he is homeless here, even though he has no home elsewhere, nevertheless he cannot take any advantage of the 1977 Act. As soon as any such illegality appears, the housing authority can turn him down, and report his case to the immigration authorities. This will exclude many foreigners.’
Dunn LJ said ([1980] 3 All ER 413 at 422–423, [1981] 1 WLR 1425 at 1437):
‘I start by taking the words of s 1(1) according to their natural and ordinary meaning which leads me to the conclusion that a “homeless person” as defined by the subsection is any person who has no accommodation in Great Britain. The only limitation to the word “person” is that he should be a person who is lawfully here, that is to say, a person who does not require leave to enter, either because he is a citizen of the United Kingdom and Colonies not subject to immigration control, or because he has come from some other part of the Common Travel Area comprising in addition to the United Kingdom the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man and the Irish Republic. Persons lawfully here also include persons who have been granted leave to enter by the immigration control either for a limited period or for settlement. Such persons, including prospective workers from EEC countries, will generally have had to satisfy immigration control that they can maintain and accommodate themselves and their dependants without recourse to public funds. So illegal immigrants are not persons within the meaning of s 1(1).’
It is true that that case was decided before the decision of the House of Lords in Khawaja [1983] 1 All ER 765, [1984] AC 74 and also shortly before the decision of the House of Lords in Zamir v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1980] 2 All ER 768, [1980] AC 930 and it may well be that the members of the court only had in mind an illegal entrant who came in clandestinely without any form of leave. But I can see no reason in principle why different considerations should apply to the different classes of illegal entrant.
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Moreover from a practical point of view Mr Underwood’s submission has much to commend it. It is the housing authority rather than the immigration authority who will most probably discover that there has been deception by the immigrant in relation to availability of accommodation, since it will be to it that an application will be made, which in the absence of any change of circumstances, belies the representation. It should not be necessary for it to refer the case for decision to the immigration authorities with the consequent delay involved. Though I would expect it to report its decision and the grounds upon which it was taken to those authorities. Any decision taken by it that an applicant is an illegal entrant to whom it has no duty under the 1985 Act can, if challenged, be tested in the court by judicial review, in which the same stringent approach to proof of that fact as was adopted in the Khawaja case will apply. Alternatively, the applicant may apply to the Secretary of State to grant him leave to remain or to validate the leave to enter, notwithstanding the deceit, on some strong compassionate or other grounds.
Where the housing authority reports its decision to the immigration authorities that an applicant is an illegal entrant, the latter authorities will have to decide what action to take, namely whether to remove or deport the applicant or permit him to remain. If they adopt the latter course, I would expect both the applicant and the housing authority to be told that the applicant has been granted leave to remain or the original leave to enter validated, in which case the applicant could no longer be treated as an illegal entrant and must be treated as lawfully here.
If the local housing authority has reason to believe that an applicant may be homeless and has a priority need, as for example if he has young children, it must secure that accommodation is available pending the result of its inquiries (see s 63(1) of the 1985 Act). If as a result of those inquiries it decides that the applicant is an illegal immigrant to whom it owed no duty, it will no doubt seek to evict the applicant from the temporary accommodation. But if its decision is challengeable by way of judicial review, it should not take steps to evict the applicant if he applies for judicial review until his application is dismissed; if he is given leave to move, then the authority can be restrained from evicting him until the application has been determined (R v Cardiff City Council, ex p Barry (1989) 22 HLR 261).
No criticism is now made of para 4.12 of the code; but for the reasons I have given the second two sentences of para 4.11 are misleading and wrong in law in so far as it purports to include illegal entrants of whatever category.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ, with which I fully agree. I add observations of my own since we are differing from the Divisional Court, whose persuasive judgment initially seemed to me to be correct.
The provisions of Pt III of the Housing Act 1985, like those in the Housing (Homeless Persons) Act 1977, contain no reference to the special position of immigrants. There is no reason to think that this attracted the draftsman’s attention.
The provisions of the Immigration Act 1971 contain no reference to homelessness. But the Immigration Rules do. They contain the clearest indication that persons seeking entry to this country should not become a charge on public funds, which are expressed to include housing under Pt III of the 1985 Act. It defeats the intention of the rules if persons obtain entry to the country by representing that they will not be dependent on public housing and then become so dependent.
Immigration decisions are, plainly, decisions for the immigration authorities. As Lord Bridge pointed out in Khawaja v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1983] 1 All ER 765 at 788, [1984] AC 74 at 119, it is for them to decide whether or not to
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seek the summary removal of an entrant who has obtained entry by illegal deception and the entrant’s leave to enter stands unless they do. But there was in that case no reason to explore the impact of illegal entry on other administrative decisions, and just as immigration decisions are for the immigration authorities so housing decisions are for the housing authorities. The benevolent objects underlying Pt III of the 1985 Act should not conceal the difficulty of administering that legislation, nor the considerable financial burden it imposes on those who must bear the cost. It is on the whole desirable that responsibility for deciding who should be publicly housed and who should not should rest with the housing authorities to whom administration of the legislation is entrusted. They must of course (if challenged) be ready to defend or justify their decisions.
It is common ground that housing authorities owe no duty to house those, homeless or not, priority need or not, who require leave to enter and illegally enter without any leave. I agree with this view. It would be an affront to common sense if those who steal into the country by unlawful subterfuge were then to be housed at public expense. But what is the legal rationale of this agreed rule? It cannot be derived by any process of construction from the 1985 Act or the 1971 Act. It can only, I think, be the inference, derived from common sense and fortified by the Immigration Rules and R v Hillingdon BC, ex p Streeting [1980] 3 All ER 413, [1980] 1 WLR 1425, that Parliament cannot have intended to require housing authorities to house those who enter the country unlawfully.
If this is the correct rationale of the agreed rule, I cannot see why the position of those who enter unlawfully by fraudulently obtaining leave to enter should be differentiated from the position of those who enter unlawfully by evading the requirement to obtain leave to enter altogether. The ruling of Lord Bridge in Khawaja [1983] 1 All ER 765 at 788, [1984] AC 74 at 119 cannot safely be applied to support this distinction in a situation which he cannot have had in mind at all. There is nothing in the legislation or the rules to support the suggestion that an illegal entrant is one whom the Secretary of State or the immigration authorities deem to be such. I do not think s 25(2) of the 1971 Act would be workable on that basis. The Hillingdon case [1980] 3 All ER 413, [1980] 1 WLR 1425 gives no support to this distinction. I see no reason why the initial decision of the local housing authority should be dependent on what may be a long-delayed decision by a department of the central government.
An immigrant denied housing by the housing authority will not be defenceless. The authority’s decision will be susceptible to challenge by judicial review and if leave to move is granted it will be required to defend its decision. As Stuart-Smith LJ points out, the immigrant may enjoy interim protection by virtue of s 63(1) of the 1985 Act and the decision in R v Cardiff City Council, ex p Barry (1989) 22 HLR 261. Once the immigration authorities make clear, by words or conduct, that they do not intend to seek the removal of an immigrant whether he be an illegal entrant or not, the housing authority may no longer rely on entry by deception to refuse public housing: at that point the immigrant forms part of the country’s long-term, resident population, having the same rights as any other person.
I accordingly agree that the second and third sentences of para 4.11 of the code, being stated in unqualified terms, are incorrect in law. Housing authorities are not bound by this code but they are required to have regard to it in the exercise of their functions. The Secretary of State did not rely on the non-binding nature of the code to argue that judicial review should be refused even if we concluded that the code mis-stated the law. That seems to me a correct and responsible position. I would therefore invite counsel to propose the terms of an appropriate declaration.
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WAITE LJ. I agree that the appeal should be allowed for the reasons given by Stuart-Smith LJ and by Sir Thomas Bingham MR, to which I do not feel it necessary to add anything.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister
Topp v London Country Bus (South West) Ltd
[1993] 3 All ER 448
Categories: TORTS; Negligence
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): MAY J
Hearing Date(s): 29, 30 OCTOBER, 8 NOVEMBER 1991
COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
DILLON, ROSE LJJ AND PETER GIBSON J
29 JANUARY 1993
Negligence – Duty to take care – Act of third party – Duty to highway user in respect of third party’s criminal act – Defendant’s carelessness providing opportunity for third party’s criminal act – Plaintiff’s wife killed when run over by defendants’ minibus stolen by unknown third party – Minibus stolen by criminal driver after being left unlocked with ignition keys in it for nine hours – Whether foreseeable that bus would be stolen and driven negligently – Whether bus constituting an allurement – Whether defendants owing duty of care to plaintiff’s wife.
The defendant bus company operated a shift system for their buses in the course of which at the end of a shift the driver would leave the bus parked at one of the regular change-over points, unlocked and with the ignition keys in it. It was the defendants’ and others’ common practice to leave buses unlocked in bus garages or depots and on the road and, although thefts of buses sometimes occurred, they were relatively infrequent. On 25 April 1988, because of a driver’s failure to report for duty and general staff shortages, one of the defendants’ minibuses was left unattended and unlocked for nine hours with the ignition keys in it at a bus stop situated outside a public house which was used as a change-over point for the defendants’ drivers. If the defendants’ schedule had run to time there would have been only an eight minute interval between shifts during which the bus would have been unattended. At 11.15 pm the minibus was stolen, and five minutes later the plaintiff’s wife, who was cycling home from work, was hit by the minibus and killed. The driver did not stop after the accident and was never identified. The plaintiff brought an action for damages against the defendants, contending that they were negligent in leaving an unlocked bus unattended for up to nine hours outside a public house, so that it constituted a source of danger to other lawful highway users in the form of an allurement on the highway to wrongdoers, thereby foreseeably resulting in the death of the plaintiff’s wife. The judge held that the parked minibus did not fall within the limited category of special cases where a defendant was liable for negligently causing or permitting a source of danger to be created in circumstances where it was reasonably foreseeable that a third party might interfere with it and set off the danger, since a parked minibus was no more a source of danger which could be set off than any other vehicle on
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the road and that it would not be fair, just or reasonable to impose a duty under the general principles of negligence because it was impracticable to assess the relative allurements of different types of vehicles, the locations in which they were parked or the length of time for which they were left unattended, and to impose a duty in favour of the plaintiff would be to extend an affirmative duty to prevent the wrongdoings of third parties to large numbers of private motorists in very many different circumstances. The judge accordingly dismissed the action. The plaintiff appealed.
Held – The defendants owed no duty of care to the plaintiff’s wife because the parked minibus did not fall within a special category of risk as a source of danger on the highway, since the acts of the wrongdoer were to be regarded as a novus actus interveniens which broke the chain of causation. Nor (per Rose LJ and Peter Gibson J) was there sufficient proximity between the plaintiff’s wife and the defendants such as to give rise to a duty of care. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 466 f g j to p 467 b, post).
NotesFor the duty of care in relation to highways and public places, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 42–52, and for cases on the duty of care in relation to neighbours and in relation to vehicles driven by persons other than the owner, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 212–218, 288–292, 1523–1541, 2237–2259.
Cases referred to in judgmentsAnns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
Coward v Comex Houlder Diving Ltd [1988] CA Transcript 622, referred to in Kemp and Kemp The Quantum of Damages vol 3, para M2-017.
Davies v Hawes (9 May 1990, unreported), referred to in Kemp and Kemp The Quantum of Damages vol 3, para M2-032.
Denton v United Counties Omnibus Co (1986) Times, 6 May, [1986] CA Transcript 421.
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 568, [1932] All ER 1, HL.
Harris v Empress Motors Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 561, [1984] 1 WLR 212, CA.
Hayman v London Transport Executive [1982] CA Transcript 74.
Haynes v Harwood [1935] 1 KB 146, [1934] All ER Rep 103, CA.
Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004, [1970] 2 WLR 1140, HL.
Hughes v Lord Advocate [1963] 1 All ER 705, [1963] AC 837, [1963] 2 WLR 779, HL.
Khan v Duncan (9 March 1989, unreported), referred to in Kemp and Kemp The Quantum of Damages vol 3, para M-071.
Lynch v Nurdin (1841) 1 QB 29, [1835–42] All ER 167, 113 ER 1041, CA.
Mehmet v Perry [1977] 2 All ER 529, DC.
Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] AC 398, [1990] 3 WLR 414, HL.
Perl (P) (Exporters) Ltd v Camden London BC [1983] 3 All ER 161, [1984] QB 342, [1983] 3 WLR 769, CA.
Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd (Chief Constable, Fife Constabulary, third party) [1987] 1 All ER 710, [1987] AC 241, [1987] 2 WLR 840, HL.
Stanley v Saddique [1991] 1 All ER 529, [1992] QB 1, [1991] 2 WLR 459, CA.
Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424, Aust HC.
Weld-Blundell v Stephens [1920] AC 956, [1920] All ER Rep 32, HL.
Page 450 of [1993] 3 All ER 448
Action By writ dated 11 April 1991 the plaintiff, David Topp, as the administrator of the estate of his wife, Jacqueline Monica Topp deceased, claimed damages from the defendants, London Country Bus (South West) Ltd, in respect of his bereavement and on behalf of the dependants of the deceased following the death of his wife on 25 April 1988 when she was knocked down by an Austin Freight Rover minibus owned by the defendants and driven by a person unknown who had wrongfully entered the vehicle, driven it away without consent and subsequently run off immediately after the accident without being identified. The plaintiff alleged that the accident was caused by the negligence of the defendants, their servants or agents. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Tim Owen (instructed by Howell-Jones & Partners, Walton-on-Thames) for the plaintiff.
Andrew Phillips (instructed by Cripps Harries Hall, Tunbridge Wells) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
8 November 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
MAY J. Mrs Jacqueline Topp, the plaintiff’s wife, was killed at about 11.15 pm on 25 April 1988. She was cycling home from work in Dorking Road, Epsom, when she was run over by one of the defendants’ buses which had been hijacked from a bus stop in a lay-by up the road a few minutes earlier. The driver did not stop. The bus was later found abandoned in nearby Wells Road. The driver has never been identified.
In these tragic and appalling circumstances, David Topp claims damages against the defendants for negligence for his bereavement and on behalf of himself and their now nine-year-old daughter, Joanna, as dependants. He has been made to bring these proceedings by the Motor Insurers’ Bureau for which purpose he has been granted legal aid. The essence of the alleged negligence by the defendants is that they left their unlocked bus with its ignition key in the switch for nine hours in a lay-by outside a public house so that it was an allurement constituting a source of danger on the highway which foreseeably resulted in Mrs Topp’s death.
I have tried the action on agreed facts supplemented by evidence called on behalf of the defendants. Much of the quantum of damage is agreed between the parties subject to liability. I am asked to determine those quantum points in issue whatever my decision on liability.
The bus was an Austin Freight Rover minibus described in evidence as a Leyland Sherpa van. It was based at the defendants’ Leatherhead depot and its last journey before the accident was on route E1, which went from Epsom District Hospital, through the centre of Epsom and then out in the direction of Tattenham Corner and eventually back to the Epsom District Hospital. The bus stop from which the bus was hijacked was outside the White Horse public house and directly opposite the District Hospital. It was the changeover point for drivers. The defendants’ system was for a driver who ended his or her shift to leave the bus parked at the bus stop unlocked with the ignition keys in it. If the schedule ran precisely to time, there was an eight minute interval between shifts during which the bus was unattended. The particular bus stop was a convenient place to change drivers, not least because the defendants had an arrangement with the hospital for drivers to be able to spend their rest period there having a cup of tea.
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On 25 April 1988 Mr Green, a bus driver employed by the defendants, ended a shift driving the bus on route E1 at about 2.35 pm. He left the bus at the bus stop unlocked with its ignition keys in it to begin a 40 minute rest period before resuming his duties driving a different bus. Such rest periods are required by statute. The next driver, Mr McFadyen, was supposed to pick up the bus at about 2.43 pm, but he did not do so. He had been scheduled to work non-compulsory overtime from 2.43 pm until about 4.50 pm, but he had been involved in a minor accident on a preceding shift during the morning and had been shaken up. And so he did not report for his overtime. The evidence was inconclusive about whether he told the depot that he was not going to turn up. He may have done so when he handed in the money from his morning shift or he may have telephoned. But neither he nor the controller at the depot who was then on duty gave evidence, and no written record enables me to reach a firm conclusion. Mr Green was working the same route during the afternoon with a different bus. He saw the bus where he had left it outside the pub. He was concerned because its absence meant that he was picking up a double load of doubtless angry passengers. So he telephoned the controller and told him that the vehicle was there. This, he said, was between 4 pm and 5 pm when he was busy with school children. By that time, therefore, at the latest those at the depot knew that the bus was abandoned at the bus stop. Mr Green said that, when he telephoned, he got the impression from what was said that those at the depot already knew. The defendants took no steps to recover the bus before it was stolen.
At about 11.10 pm Mrs Lydia Fay, who lived in a house opposite the bus stop, heard the sound of an engine revving up. She saw the bus in the bus stop moving forwards and backwards. She heard the sound of crashing gears and then saw the bus move erratically into the middle of the road. Its headlights were not then on. It then drove west along Dorking Road. By the time it had travelled some 350 metres its headlights were on. It drove about 50 metres past Woodcote Side and then suddenly the nearside wheel mounted the pavement before it careered out towards the middle of the road and then pulled in again. In the course of this manoeuvre, the bus struck Mrs Topp’s bicycle, causing her to be dragged along before her body fell at the side of the road. The bus carried on without stopping and eventually turned right into Wells Road. Mrs Topp’s bicycle was dragged along by the bus and was later found severely damaged on the west kerbway of Wells Road. Some 30 metres further along Wells Road the bus was found abandoned off the road across the grass verge, with the engine running and damage to its front nearside wing. Moments earlier three youths had been seen running very fast from the place where the bus was abandoned and one of them appeared to be very worried. The criminal driver of the bus has never been identified. Despite first aid, Mrs Topp was certified dead soon after she arrived at Epsom District Hospital. There is no evidence to establish the possibility that the youths, assuming that they were the hijackers of the bus with one of them its driver, had been drinking in the White Horse public house.
It is surprisingly the fact that throughout the country buses are habitually left unlocked both in bus garages or depots and on the road. Those with electrically operated passenger doors may have these isolated if the driver is away, and Mr Green was confident that he had isolated the doors on this bus on the day in question. Some buses have ignition keys, but many of the larger ones do not, or, if they do, they may have unsophisticated keys which can easily be improvised. Older Routemaster double-decker buses are simply started by a push button beside the driver’s seat. Such buses are habitually left unattended between shifts in, for instance, Aldwych. I heard a good deal of evidence about this general practice. But it is not necessary to rehearse it in detail because the plaintiff does not contend that
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such a general system was negligent. Suffice it to say that I am satisfied on the evidence that there are good reasons for its adoption. Two important reasons in summary are that scheduling requires that any driver can take over and operate any bus at any time; and in garages and depots, if there is a fire, buses may have to be moved very quickly. The evidence also establishes that, although buses are from time to time stolen, this does not happen all that often. Mr Latham, the Leatherhead service manager, said that, in addition to the bus with which this action is concerned, a bus from the depot had been taken before he arrived there in about 1983 or 1984 and that one was taken from Epsom High Street some time around 1988. In 1983 there were about 60 buses operating from the depot. By 1988 this had been reduced to between 35 and 40.
The minibus with which this case is concerned had a conventional ignition key. It was, in effect, a converted small commercial van such as any motorist with an ordinary driving licence could hire and drive.
The plaintiff does not, as I say, contend that it was negligent for the defendants to schedule an eight minute period during which the bus was unattended at this bus stop, nor for the bus to be unlocked with its ignition key in the switch during this period. What is contended is that it was negligent to leave the bus there for nine hours up to 11 pm. On this narrow point the clear evidence from witnesses called by the defendants was that it was normal and obvious practice to take steps to recover stranded buses as quickly as possible, and that nine hours was a very long time to leave this bus where it was. Among other things, since the bus was fully operational, it was a complete waste of a usable bus. Mr Latham, the Leatherhead service manager, agreed that it should have been recovered.
In 1988 at the defendants’ Leatherhead depot, there was a controller on duty for all but two hours in the early morning of each 24 hours. The controller on the afternoon shift overlapped the controller on the evening shift between 6 pm and 8 pm. The identity of the controller on the afternoon shift on 25 April cannot now be recalled. The controller on the evening shift was Mr Higgs, who gave evidence. He came on duty at 6 pm and his shift ran to 2 am. He did not have a clear recollection of this particular shift. One of his first main tasks was to collect money from incoming drivers. He would then habitually discuss problems of the day with his colleague from the afternoon shift. He knew throughout the evening that there was a minibus out. He did not know why it was not collected. He thought that he had been informed that another vehicle had broken down during the afternoon which had diverted attention, but he was not sure. They were, he said, short of staff and there was no spare driver. In the evening there were engineers only. There was nothing that he could do except inform the engineers. They had their own supervisor and it was their job to recover the bus when they were able. He had a telephone call at about 10.30 pm, saying that the bus was still out, and he again spoke to the engineers. He did not know what action they took.
Accordingly, those at the depot potentially available to recover stranded buses were a standby driver, if he was available, or engineers. Recovering a bus needs at least two people, a driver and someone to take the driver to the bus. It is likely that the standby driver was not available on 25 April 1988 since it is recorded that four drivers reported sick that day (presumably in addition to Mr McFadyen) and that two duties were cut. In the evening there were only two engineers on duty.
Mr Latham accepted the obvious point that a bus is more likely to be taken at night. Mr Franks, who had worked as an inspector in Kent and who gave evidence about what happens there, said that, if a bus is stranded, it would be taken back to the depot as soon as possible. There was a risk of it being stolen. Joyriding does happen and, if a large bus is taken, it normally ends up smashed up somewhere because joyriders cannot drive big vehicles. Recovering a bus may be held up by
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shortage of staff. But it should be given high priority, especially late at night. You do not want to offer temptation.
On these facts, Mr Owen for the plaintiff submits that, although the defendants did not owe Mrs Topp a general duty of care to prevent a third party from causing her damage by the third party’s own deliberate wrongdoing, the plaintiff’s claim did fall within a narrower duty of care whereby the defendants may be held liable in negligence. It is submitted that, in operating a bus service for the benefit of the public, the defendants owed Mrs Topp, as a lawful user of the highway, a duty to take reasonable care for her safety. Specifically, the defendants were under a duty to ensure that they did not create a source of danger in the form of an allurement on the public highway and in this instance the duty included a duty to take precautions against the wrongdoings of third parties. If the duty is established, it is argued, the chain of causation is not broken since the wrongful act of the third party is the very thing that the duty obliges the defendants to guard against.
Mr Owen’s argument in support of the duty of care necessary for the plaintiff to succeed relies principally on Haynes v Harwood [1935] 1 KB 146, [1934] All ER Rep 103, Hughes v Lord Advocate [1963] 1 All ER 857, [1963] AC 837 and Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd (Chief Constable, Fife Constabulary, third party) [1987] 1 All ER 710, [1987] AC 241, especially the opinion of Lord Goff. He seeks to distinguish P Perl (Exporters) Ltd v Camden London BC [1983] 3 All ER 161, [1984] QB 342 and Denton v United Counties Omnibus Co (1986) Times, 6 May.
In Haynes v Harwood [1935] 1 KB 146, [1934] All ER Rep 103 a policeman was injured when he tried to stop the defendants’ runaway horses on the highway. The Court of Appeal held that the defendants’ servant was negligent in leaving the horses unattended on a busy highway; that the defendants ought to have contemplated that someone might try to stop the horses to prevent them causing injury; that the plaintiff had a general duty so to do, and that his injuries were the natural and probable cause of the defendants’ negligence. Greer LJ said ([1935] 1 KB 146 at 152–153, [1934] All ER Rep 103 at 105–106):
‘What is meant by negligence? Negligence in the air will not do; negligence, in order to give a cause of action, must be the neglect of some duty owed to the person who makes the claim. In this case, if the duty was owed to, among others, the plaintiff—if he is one of a class affected by the want of care or the negligence of the defendants, that is negligence of which the plaintiff can avail himself as a cause of action. What is the negligence complained of here? Mr. Hilbery rightly described it as a failure to use reasonable care for the safety of those who were lawfully using the highway in which this van with the two horses attached was left unattended ... Of course it does not follow that in all circumstances it is negligence to leave horses unattended in a highway; each case with all its circumstances has to be considered; but the circumstances which make it quite clear that the defendants’ servant was guilty of a want of reasonable care in leaving his horses unattended are that this was a crowded street in which many people, including children, were likely to be at the time when the horses were left and before the defendants’ servant could get back to them. The defendants’ servant had been frequently in the neighbourhood; he had often delivered goods at Quiney’s wharf; and he must be taken to know something of the character of the neighbourhood, although he denied any knowledge of schools being there. To leave horses unattended, even for such a short time as three minutes, in a place where mischievous children may be about, where something may be done which may result in the horses running away, seems to me to be negligent—having regard to the proved circumstances.’
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Maugham LJ considered that the defendants’ servant was negligent in leaving the horses and cart unattended ‘in this particular street at the time in question’. Roche LJ quoted from the judgment of Denman CJ in Lynch v Nurdin (1841) 1 QB 29 at 38, [1835–42] All ER Rep 167 at 170 to the effect that in such a case negligence was ‘strictly within the province of a jury deciding on the circumstances of each case’ (see [1935] 1 KB 146 at 165, [1934] All ER Rep 103 at 111).
Greer LJ referred to earlier authorities where plaintiffs had recovered for injury caused by runaway vehicles which had been set in motion by the intervention of third parties. In Haynes v Harwood itself intervention by a third party does not appear to have been established, although it was clearly a material factor that there were mischievous children about who might have disturbed the horses.
Mr Owen relies on Haynes v Harwood to show firstly that those who bring a source of danger on to the highway may be liable for resulting injury and, secondly, that whether there is such a liability depends on all the circumstances of a particular case. There is a line to be drawn above which the court should find a duty of care. In parenthesis, the modern law does not, as will appear from authorities referred to later in this judgment, regard the existence of a duty of care as a pure question of fact as it were for a jury, but as a mixed question of fact and law. I do not understand Mr Owen to argue otherwise.
In Hughes v Lord Advocate [1963] 1 All ER 705, [1963] AC 837, an opened manhole in an Edinburgh street covered with a tent was left unguarded by workmen in the evening but surrounded by warning paraffin lamps. An eight year old boy entered the tent and knocked or lowered one of the lamps into the hole. This caused an explosion and the boy fell into the hole and was severely burned. The House of Lords held that the workmen were in breach of a duty of care to safeguard the boy against this type of occurrence which, arising from a known source of danger, the lamp, was reasonably foreseeable, although the source of danger acted in an unpredictable way. Much of their Lordships’ opinions concern whether the explosion which in fact happened was reasonably foreseeable. Lord Jenkins said ([1963] 1 All ER 705 at 709, [1963] AC 837 at 848):
‘In a word, the Post Office had brought upon the public highway apparatus capable of constituting a source of danger to passers-by and in particular to small, and almost certainly inquisitive, children. It was therefore their duty to see that such passers-by, “neighbours” in the language of Donoghue v Stevenson, were, so far as reasonably practicable, protected from the various obstacles, or (to children) allurements, which the workmen had brought to the site. It is clear that the safety precautions taken by the Post Office did not in this instance measure up to LORD ATKIN’S test.’
Lord Pearce said ([1963] 1 All ER 705 at 715, [1963] AC 837 at 848):
‘The dangerous allurement was left unguarded in a public highway in the heart of Edinburgh. It was for the respondent to show by evidence that, although this was a public street, the presence of children there was so little to be expected that a reasonable man might leave the allurement unguarded. But, in my opinion, their evidence fell short of that, and the Lord Ordinary rightly so decided.’
It is clear from these two authorities that there can be circumstances where people who bring a source of danger on to the highway owe a duty of care to those who may be injured by that source of danger. Neither case on its facts had to grapple directly with the wrongful intervention of a third party, although cases cited in Haynes v Harwood had done so. It is for consideration whether unattended
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horses or paraffin lamps next to a hole in the ground were sources of danger which can be equated with an unattended stationary minibus.
Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd (Chief Constable, Fife Constabulary, third party) [1987] 1 All ER 710, [1987] AC 241 was a case where third parties intervened. Children or teenagers started a fire in the defenders’ empty and unattended cinema and adjacent buildings belonging to the pursuers were seriously damaged. The pursuers’ claim alleged that the damage was caused by the defenders’ negligence. The House of Lords held that whether an occupier of property owed a duty of care to adjoining occupiers for acts of trespass on his property resulting in damage to the adjoining properties depended on all the circumstances of the case and on socially accepted standards of behaviour; that cases in which such a duty would exist were likely to be rare; and that, since the defenders had not known of previous acts of vandalism in their cinema involving fire, and since the cinema had not otherwise presented an obvious fire risk, the defenders had not been under any duty to the pursuers to anticipate the possibility of the cinema being set on fire by vandals by keeping the premises lockfast or otherwise taking steps to prevent their entry.
Lord Mackay said that it was plain from the authorities that the fact that the damage upon which a claim is founded was caused by a human agent, quite independent of the persons against whom a claim in negligence is made, does not of itself preclude success of the claim (see [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 720, [1987] AC 241 at 259). He cites Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004 as an example of such a claim. He then discusses the degree of probability that a particular result will ensue which may be necessary to establish the necessary duty. Expressions considered are ‘likely’, ‘very likely’ and ‘probable’ (see [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 720–721, [1987] AC 241 at 260–261). He said ([1987] 1 All ER 710 at 721, [1987] AC 241 at 261):
‘The result of this consideration, in my opinion, is that, where the only possible source of the type of damage or injury which is in question is agency of a human being for whom the person against whom the claim is made has no responsibility, it may not be easy to find that as a reasonable person he was bound to anticipate that type of damage as a consequence of his act or omission … Unless the needle that measures the probability of a particular result flowing from the conduct of a human agent is near the top of the scale it may be hard to conclude that it has risen sufficiently from the bottom to create the duty reasonably to foresee it. In summary I conclude, in agreement with both counsel, that what the reasonable man is bound to foresee in a case involving injury or damage by independent human agency, just as in cases where such agency plays no part, is the probable consequences of his own act or omission, but that, in such a case a clear basis will be required on which to assert that the injury or damage is more than a mere possibility.’
Lord Mackay then again takes the Dorset Yacht case as an illustration. Mr Owen suggests that these passages are to be read as applicable to cases such as those where one property owner is said to owe a duty of care to an adjoining owner and not to sources of danger on the highway. For my part, I read Lord Mackay’s observations as of general application. The entirety of the passages to which I have referred are obiter (see [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 720, [1987] AC 241 at 259).
Mr Owen also referred me to large parts of the opinion of Lord Goff. Lord Goff observes that there is no general duty of care to prevent third parties from causing damage to a plaintiff or his property. Any affirmative duty to prevent deliberate wrongdoing by third parties, if recognised in English law, is likely to be strictly limited. Any such liability cannot be founded simply upon foreseeability and we
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have to identify the circumstances where such liability may be imposed. He refers to cases to indicate that circumstances do undoubtedly exist where the law recognises such liability and refers to them as ‘special cases’ (see [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 728–730, [1987] AC 241 at 270–272). He then continues ([1987] 1 All ER 710 at 730, [1987] AC 241 at 272):
‘But there is a more general circumstance in which a defender may be held liable in negligence to the pursuer, although the immediate cause of the damage suffered by the pursuer is the deliberate wrongdoing of another. This may occur where the defender negligently causes or permits to be created a source of danger, and it is reasonably foreseeable that third parties may interfere with it and, sparking off the danger, thereby cause damage to persons in the position of the pursuer. The classic example of such a case is, perhaps, Haynes v Harwood [1935] 1 KB 146, [1934] All ER Rep 103 ...’
Lord Goff then considers sources of danger on a defender’s land and says ([1987] 1 All ER 710 at 731, [1987] AC 241 at 274):
‘… liability should only be imposed under this principle in cases where the defender has negligently caused or permitted the creation of a source of danger on his land, and where it is foreseeable that third parties may trespass on his land and spark it off, thereby damaging the pursuer or his property.’
Later in his opinion, Lord Goff again emphasises that the problem in these cases cannot be solved simply through the mechanism of foreseeability. He also considers whether P Perl (Exporters) Ltd v Camden London BC [1983] 3 All ER 161, [1984] QB 342, a case relied upon before me by the defendants, was correctly decided. He concludes that it was, saying ([1987] 1 All ER 710 at 735–736, [1987] AC 241 at 279):
‘to impose a general duty on occupiers to take reasonable care to prevent others from entering their property would impose an unreasonable burden on ordinary householders and an unreasonable curb upon the ordinary enjoyment of their property; and I am also of the opinion that to do so would be contrary to principle. It is very tempting to try to solve all problems of negligence by reference to an all-embracing criterion of foreseeability, thereby effectively reducing all decisions in this field to questions of fact. But this comfortable solution is, alas, not open to us. The law has to accommodate the untidy complexity of life; and there are circumstances where considerations of practical justice impel us to reject a general imposition of liability for foreseeable damage.’
Mr Owen submits that Lord Goff recognises as a more general circumstance where a duty of care exists cases where a person causes or permits a source of danger to be created on the highway and where the danger is sparked off by the interference of a third party causing injury to a plaintiff or damage to his property. He submits that, whatever may in other cases be the necessary reading on Lord Mackay’s swingometer, the degree of foreseeability which this kind of duty requires is no greater than that the interference by the third party and the subsequent damage may be reasonably foreseeable. He submits that these conditions are fulfilled by the facts of this case.
In P Perl (Exporters) Ltd v Camden London BC the defendants’ premises had a broken front-door lock and intruders entered and knocked a hole through a dividing wall into the plaintiff’s basement and stole garments belonging to the plaintiffs. The Court of Appeal held that the defendants did not owe the plaintiffs a duty of care. There is no general duty to control third parties and, although there
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are exceptional cases where there may be such a duty, there has to be a high degree of foreseeability that damage would occur as a result of the act or omission of the defendant.
Mr Owen has to distinguish the Court of Appeal decision Denton v United Counties Omnibus Co (1986) Times, 6 May. There the plaintiff claimed damages against a bus company for damage to his car caused by collision with a bus owned by the defendants which had been unlawfully taken from their bus station in the early hours of a morning by a person whose identity had never been discovered. The bus station was open at either end so that there were no doors or gates of any kind and at night some 35 buses of the defendants were garaged there. The fundamental issue was whether the defendants owed the plaintiff any duty to guard against the unauthorised act of a third party over whom the defendants had no control. The county court judge had held that there was no duty, basing his decision on P Perl (Exporters) Ltd v Camden BC. The plaintiff relied on an earlier unreported decision of the Court of Appeal in Hayman v London Transport Executive [1982] CA Transcript 74. It was submitted on behalf of the plaintiff that the duty of care was based on foreseeability. The judgment of Stephen Brown LJ in the Denton case cites at some length from the judgment of Goff LJ in the Perl case and then turns to Hayman v London Transport Executive which he described in these terms (I have been provided with a full transcript, but it is sufficient to quote from the Denton case):
‘The plaintiff owned a motor car. He lived in W11 in London and had parked his car in the road adjacent to his house. In that road it appears that the London Transport Executive maintained what is called a bus stand, that is, a bay capable of taking perhaps two buses on the highway where they could be parked for varying periods during the day when not in actual service. On the afternoon of 4 October 1978 a bus which had been left at that stand was taken by what May LJ in his judgment described as “some mischievous third party” who started it up and drove it along the road, and drove it so negligently as to collide with the plaintiff’s motor car causing damage to the extent of £562. The deputy county court judge heard evidence that persons living nearby had complained to London Transport Executive that unauthorised youths and others were entering buses parked in this way and on occasions were starting them up and driving them away. In those circumstances it was successfully contended on the part of the plaintiff that the defendants were under a duty to take reasonable steps, by securing or isolating the ignition of these buses, to prevent persons behaving in this way. On the particular facts of that case the judge found that the defendants had failed to take reasonable care, having regard to what was actually happening at their bus stand and about which they knew or ought to have known, and that in the result they owed a duty to the plaintiff to take that form of precaution, even though he was a stranger to them and injury was caused by somebody over whom they had no control.’
Stephen Brown LJ then considers the judgments in the Court of Appeal and concludes that the question of duty was not specifically considered in that case: ‘It may have been impliedly conceded—perhaps improperly—on the part of the defendants.' Accordingly, ‘Hayman is not an authority for the specific point of the existence of a duty. It appears to have been decided on very special facts ...' Stephen Brown LJ then said that the judge in the Denton case had correctly applied the Perl case and that in any event negligence was not proved. Nourse and Balcombe LJJ held that the case was governed by Perl and that Hayman was not a case which addressed the question whether a duty of care existed. Accordingly, the
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Court of Appeal held that the defendant bus company in the Denton case owed no duty of care sufficient for the plaintiff’s case.
Mr Owen seeks to distinguish the Denton case on the basis that the bus in that case was stolen from private property (to which fact Perl is more apt) and he also says that Denton antedates Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd so that the Court of Appeal did not have the benefit of what Lord Goff said in that case.
Mr Phillips for the defendants starts with Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 573, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 616 and cites the passage from the opinion of Lord Bridge. Having considered Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004, Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728 and a number of other decisions of the House of Lords or Privy Council which move away from Anns, he said ([1990] 1 All ER 568 at 573–574, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 617):
‘What emerges is that, in addition to the foreseeability of damage, necessary ingredients in any situation giving rise to a duty of care are that there should exist between the party owing the duty and the party to whom it is owed a relationship characterised by the law as one of “proximity” or “neighbourhood” and that the situation should be one in which the court considers it fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose a duty of a given scope upon the one party for the benefit of the other. But it is implicit in the passages referred to that the concepts of proximity and fairness embodied in these additional ingredients are not susceptible of any such precise definition as would be necessary to give them utility as practical tests, but amount in effect to little more than convenient labels to attach to the features of different specific situations which, on a detailed examination of all the circumstances, the law recognises pragmatically as giving rise to a duty of care of a given scope. Whilst recognising, of course, the importance of the underlying general principles common to the whole field of negligence, I think the law has now moved in the direction of attaching greater significance to the more traditional categorisation of distinct and recognisable situations as guides to the existence, the scope and the limits of the varied duties of care which the law imposes. We must now, I think, recognise the wisdom of the words of Brennan J in the High Court of Australia in Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424 at 481, where he said: “It is preferable, in my view, that the law should develop novel categories of negligence incrementally and by analogy with established categories, rather than by a massive extension of a prima facie duty of care restrained only by indefinable ‘considerations which ought to negative, or to reduce or limit the scope of the duty or the class of person to whom it is owed’.” ’
Mr Phillips also refers to Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908 at 914, [1991] AC 398 at 460 for adoption of the incremental approach to novel categories of negligence. He argues that it would not be fair, just or reasonable to impose liability on the defendants in this case. He contends in particular that, if the defendants were held to owe Mrs Topp a duty of care in this case, it would be unacceptably difficult to draw a line which would exclude from liability many other potential defendants whom he contends obviously should be excluded. Is every motorist who leaves a vehicle unattended and unlocked and with the ignition keys in the switch on any highway under a duty of care to people who may suffer personal injury or damage to their property by the incompetent driving of anyone who hijacks the vehicle? And, if not, where do you draw the line? By the identity of the defendant? Or the make, colour or size of the vehicle? Or the nature
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of the place where it is left? Or the length of time during which it is left? Or the time of day or of the year? Or what combination of these or other circumstances? Mr Phillips gave numerous examples of these possibilities. He submitted that there was no logical basis for finding a duty of care in this case without lettng in a lot of other cases which would impose a wholly unacceptable burden on the private motorist.
Mr Phillips, of course, relies on the Denton case and argues that P Perl (Exporters) Ltd v Camden London BC [1983] 3 All ER 161, [1984] QB 342 is a case of general application not confined to adjacent property owners. He further argues that the necessary duty of care has to contemplate not only that the vehicle may be stolen, but also that it may be driven negligently. He suggests that, although this may all be a foreseeable possibility, it is no more than that and is not sufficiently likely to pass the test in Perl of Lord Mackay’s test in Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd. This was not the kind of large bus to which Mr Franks’ evidence referred, but an ordinary minibus with conventional controls which any properly qualified private motorist should be able to drive properly. Further, this minibus was not a source of danger in the sense that the unattended horses in Haynes v Harwood were a source of danger. It was not a danger that could be ‘sparked off’, to use Lord Goff’s words, but required positive and intentional independent human intervention. The court should not impose a duty of care without special circumstances or a special relationship. The decision in Denton shows that there was no special relationship and what, asks Mr Phillips, are the special circumstances in this case which sufficiently distinguish it from Denton? Mr Phillips finally argues that on the facts, even if there were a duty, it has not been shown that the defendants were careless. He suggests that the evidence adequately explains that the defendants were short staffed and that there was simply no one available to recover the bus before it was stolen.
I first consider whether Mr Owen is correct to say that the facts of this case fall within a category of situations which the law already recognises as giving rise to a duty of care of the scope contended for, viz, such as is referred to by Lord Goff in Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd (Chief Constable, Fife Constabulary, third party) [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 730, [1987] AC 241 at 272. In my judgment, it does not. A startled horse or a spilt paraffin lamp or a substantial quantity of fireworks stored in an unlocked garden shed (such as Lord Goff refers to ([1987] 1 All ER 710 at 731, [1987] AC 241 at 273)) are an obvious source of danger. A parked minibus is no more a source of danger than every other vehicle on the road. Nor can you readily say that a parked minibus can be ‘sparked off’, and, although by itself this is no more than a manner of speaking, the expression does, in my view, help to describe and limit the category of situations in question.
The next question is whether the law, operating incrementally, should recognise the situation exemplified by this case as one of a category where the defendants owe a duty of care to Mrs Topp. In my judgment, it was reasonably foreseeable that this abandoned bus might be stolen and it was also foreseeable as a possibility (but no more) that the thief might so carelessly drive it as to injure other road users, including Mrs Topp. But foreseeability alone is not enough. It is therefore, in my judgment, appropriate to look at the labels alluded to by Lord Bridge in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 574, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 618. It is right to say that Caparo and many, but not all, of the cases considered by the House of Lords in it were cases where the defendants were alleged to owe the plaintiff a duty of care to guard against economic loss. Where a plaintiff has suffered personal injury or damage to property directly inflicted by the defendant it is often not necessary to look beyond the principles in Donoghue v Stevenson
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[1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1 to analyse and discover a duty of care. Here Mrs Topp was killed, but not by the defendants. In these circumstances, in my view, a more sophisticated analysis is needed and, even though the loss was not pure economic loss, the Caparo considerations are to be considered.
Elusive though the concept of proximity is, I consider that such a label could be attached to the relationship between Mrs Topp and the defendants. However, for the reasons which I shall in a moment express, I do not consider that it would be fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose on the defendants the duty contended for in this case, and it may be that some of those reasons could be taken to negative the necessary proximity.
In my judgment, where the question is whether the law, operating incrementally, should recognise the situation exemplified by this case as one of a category where the defendants owed a duty of care to Mrs Topp, a consideration of what is fair, just and reasonable raises questions of policy. The plaintiff may contend that the facts of his own particular case are sufficient to sustain a duty of care and disclaim, as Mr Owen did in argument, the extension of such a duty to other closely related potential circumstances. He argued, for instance, that no duty would have arisen had this bus been left somewhere in the quiet countryside where the possibility of it being hijacked was, he said, more remote. But the court, in my view, has to be alive to the consequences of a decision that one particular set of facts gives rise to a duty of care and to consider carefully whether there is a line to be drawn beyond which a duty of care is recognised and, if so, where to draw the line. Floodgates arguments are not always attractive where they imply that the court is unable to express itself with sufficient precision, but the nature of the subject matter sometimes means that you cannot include one plaintiff’s case without also encompassing many others.
I have reached the conclusion that it would not be fair, just and reasonable to recognise the duty of care contended for here for these reasons.
(a) I note the observation of Lord Goff in Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 730, [1987] AC 241 at 271 that any affirmative duty to prevent deliberate wrongdoing by third parties, if recognised by English law, is likely to be strictly limited.
(b) It is, in my view, clear that the law should not impose such a duty on what may compendiously be called the private motorist. There could be very many different circumstances in which a private car, standing unlocked and with its ignition key in the switch, might be stolen and then driven negligently so as to cause injury or damage. The motorist may or may not have been careless for his own property, but he should not be held responsible for the wrongdoing of criminal hijackers.
(c) I am quite unconvinced on the subject of allurement, and would find it impossible to assess the relative allurements of (say) a blue Volvo estate, a Ford GTi, an unmarked private minibus, a minibus marked with the name of a bus company, a minibus marked with the name of a plumber, a minibus marked with the name of a football club, a double-decker Routemaster bus, a JCB digger or a pink VW Beetle, to mention but a few.
(d) Similar problems would arise with the length of time during which the vehicle was left unattended and the place where and the circumstances in which this occurs. Is it material or crucial if the vehicle is left outside a public house? And what if a car is left for several weeks in an airport long-term car park?
(e) Denton’s case, which is binding on me, held that there was no duty on the bus company in that case. This shows at least that there is no duty simply because the vehicle is a bus or that the defendants are a bus company. But the facts of the
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Denton case are quite close to those in this case and, although there are points of factual distinction, I am not convinced that they are material. Mr Owen stresses the difference that, whereas in Denton the bus was on private property, in this case the minibus was on the highway. But I do not read Lord Goff’s opinion in Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd as elevating the mere fact that the object in question happens to be on the highway into a single point of crucial distinction. In my judgment, it is not.
(f) I do not consider that the likelihood of an unlocked and unattended minibus with its keys in the ignition being both stolen and so negligently driven as to cause injury is sufficiently strong to compel the law to impose a duty of care on the owners of the minibus.
(g) I am persuaded that, if there were a duty of care in this case, such a duty would also have to be placed on a large number of other owners of vehicles upon whom, as a matter of policy, the law ought not, other than by statute, to impose the duty.
For these reasons, I hold that the plaintiff does not establish the necessary duty of care and that the claim fails. It is, in my judgment, a case such as is referred to by Lord Goff in Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 736, [1987] AC 241 at 280 ‘where considerations of practical justice impel us to reject a general imposition of liability for foreseeable damage’.
Had I found the necessary duty of care, I should have held on the facts that the defendants were careless. They may have been short-staffed, but the evidence of why this minibus was not recovered for nine hours was not satisfactory, and I reach the same conclusion as some of the witnesses that it should have been recovered earlier.
Quantum
As I have said, I am asked to determine those quantum points which are in issue whatever my decision on liability. The points at issue are: (1) how should the recoverable loss of Mrs Topp’s earnings be calculated? (2) how should the loss of her household services be calculated? (3) what sum should be awarded to Joanna for loss of her mother’s care and advice? (4) what sum should be awarded to Mr Topp for loss of his wife’s individual care and attention?
It is agreed that I am bound by the Court of Appeal decision of Stanley v Saddique [1991] 1 All ER 529, [1992] QB 1 to ignore the effect of Mr Topp’s possible remarriage, but Mr Phillips reserves the defendants’ right to argue this point in a higher court. I am asked, if I consider it factually appropriate, to find two different figures on issue (4), one which ignores the effect and the other which does not.
The evidence upon which I have to decide these points may be briefly stated. Mr Topp is now aged 40, being born on 26 April 1951. His wife was born on 28 June 1954 and was 33 when she was killed. Joanna, their only child, was born on 11 September 1982 so that she is now aged nine and was about five and a half when her mother was killed. In April 1988 Mr Topp was earning £127 net per week as a foreman and his wife’s net weekly contribution to the family income was £53. This she earned by part time work four evenings a week at Sainsbury’s and from three hours’ domestic cleaning. The fixed weekly family expenditure on rent, gas, electricity, telephone, insurance and television and video rental was about £70. There was also a dog to feed. Out of their combined income of £180 per week there remained around £110 for food, clothing and other variable expenditure.
They did not go out much, perhaps once a month. Mr Topp went out on his own account perhaps once a week. His wife went out on her own less frequently than that. She did not smoke and did not spend abnormal amounts on herself.
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Their holidays were paid for by Mrs Topp’s parents. They were able to save very modest sums which were put in a building society and that was used for emergencies or for exceptional things such as Christmas presents. The building society account never amounted to more than about £200. Theirs was accordingly a frugal family with little money to spare.
Mr Topp said that he and his wife had decided to restrict their family to one child, Joanna, effectively because they could not afford to give more than one child a reasonable life style. They had discussed this about a year after Joanna had been born and he said that his wife would not have changed her mind about this. I accept this evidence.
After his wife’s death Mr Topp has had the problem of looking after Joanna by himself. He initially reduced his own hours of work and then gave up his employment as a foreman. He now works as a hospital laboratory assistant from 9 am to 1 pm, working 20 hours a week in all and earning £66·50 per week net. He takes Joanna to school and collects her in the afternoon. She will be able to go to and from school alone when she is 14, and Mr Topp then intends to return to full-time work. He has meanwhile become interested in carpentry and joinery and he agreed that he might have become interested in becoming a self-employed joiner anyway if his wife had not been killed and that she might have helped him run such a small business from home.
Mr Topp said that his wife planned to go back to full-time employment as soon as Joanna was old enough for that to be possible. They had not discussed this in great detail, but Mr Topp had assumed that she would return to work. I find that in all probability she would have returned to full-time work when Joanna was 14. It is speculative what she would have done. Before their marriage she worked in the instant printing trade. It seems to me likely that she would only have helped her husband at home if it would have been financially beneficial to the family to do so, so that any assessment can properly assume that she would have returned to ordinary employment.
Mr Topp now has a girlfriend, the second since his wife’s death. He does not want to spend the future living on his own. In so far as it might be necessary for other purposes, I find that he is as likely to remarry as anyone else of his age in his circumstances.
Mr Topp reckoned that the weekly amount which his wife spent exclusively on herself was around £25 to £30. This evidence, although obviously honestly given and not, taken at face value, necessarily inaccurate, was unconvincing because it was backed by no attempt at calculation or details and so was unsubstantiated bald assertion. I take this evidence into account, but am not inclined to accept it uncritically.
Loss of Mrs Topp’s earnings
It is agreed that the correct multiplier is either 14 or 15 years if Stanley v Saddique [1991] 1 All ER 529, [1992] QB 1 is to be followed and that otherwise the multiplier should be eight. In my judgment, the right multiplier on the first hypothesis is 15.
Mr Owen for the plaintiff argues that the annual dependency should be taken at £1,378 for the first eight years and thereafter at an increased amount of £2,000. £1,378 pa is half of Mrs Topp’s net earnings of £53 per week, which Mr Owen says is justified on the evidence that Mrs Topp spent little on herself and on Mr Topp’s assessment to which I have referred. The increase after eight years is on the basis that, when Joanna became 14, Mrs Topp would have returned to full-time employment. £2,000 is an assessment.
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Mr Phillips for the defendants argues that the proper calculation is that to be derived from the conventional rule of thumb expressed by O’Connor LJ in Harris v Empress Motors Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 561, [1984] 1 WLR 212 and Coward v Comex Houlder Diving Ltd [1988] CA Transcript 622, referred to in Kemp and Kemp The Quantum of Damages vol 3, para M2-017 and as illustrated in Davies v Hawes (9 May 1990, unreported), referred to in Kemp and Kemp vol 3, para M2-032. The calculation takes a conventional 25% of the family pot (£45·14 per week) as Mrs Topp’s exclusive expenditure, deducts it from her net earnings of £53 per week to produce a resulting dependency of £7·86 per week or £409 pa. Mr Phillips does not argue against the principle of an increase for the years after Joanna becomes 14, if the primary findings of fact warrant such an increase, but he argues that it should be an increase from £409 pa and not from £1,378 pa and in proportion to the lower starting point.
In Harris v Empress Motors Ltd [1983] 3 All ER 561 at 565, [1984] 1 WLR 212 at 217 O’Connor LJ said:
‘The percentages have become conventional in the sense that they are used unless there is striking evidence to make the conventional figure inappropriate because there is no departure from the principle that each case must be decided upon its own facts.’
In my judgment, a rule of thumb assessment which concluded that in this frugal family Mrs Topp habitually spent nearly 90% of her own earnings exclusively on herself cannot be right. There was no more than £110 per week for the whole family’s food, clothing and other variable expenditure and there is no shred of evidence that Mrs Topp was in any way personally extravagant. If one third of that sum were attributed to her, that would be little more than £35 per week, and it is, in my view, highly likely that, when she went shopping, she spent more on her daughter and her husband than she did on herself. There is therefore, in my judgment, striking evidence making the conventional figure inappropriate and, although, as I have said, Mr Topp’s own assessment was by itself bald and unconvincing, I do not think that it can be far out. In my judgment, the right figure to take for Mrs Topp’s exclusive expenditure is £30 per week. That leaves £23 per week as the dependency, which is £1,196 pa. That would run for eight years and after that I assess it at the increased figure of £1,800 pa, having concluded that Mrs Topp would probably have returned to full-time employment when Joanna was 14.
Loss of household services
This is claimed as Mr Topp’s loss of earnings because he gave up full-time work in order to look after Joanna and will not return to full-time work until she is 14. The defendants agree the principle of this claim. They agree that the loss of earnings to date is £14,224·94 and that the continuing annual loss is £4,397·12. What is not agreed is the mathematical period for future loss. The plaintiff claims the full period from now until September 1996. The defendants say that this takes no account of the fact that the plaintiff will receive the money now rather than up to 1996 nor of such contingencies as impinge upon the claim. They say that an appropriate multiplier should be taken from the date of death to cover these points for an eight and a half year total period and that the appropriate multiplier is six, leaving two and a half years after the agreed loss to date is accounted for. The plaintiff advanced no cogent argument against the defendants’ approach in principle, which I find to be correct. I have no precise actuarial evidence, but find as a matter of assessment that an appropriate multiplier is seven, so that in addition
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to the agreed £14,224·94 there should be three and a half years of the agreed continuing loss figure.
Loss to Joanna of her mother’s care and advice; loss to Mr Topp of his wife’s individual care and attention
The defendants accept the principle of these two claims. I have to determine the quantum. Joanna’s loss is claimed at £5,000; Mr Topp’s at £3,000. They derive from Mehmet v Perry [1977] 2 All ER 529 where five children were awarded a total of £1,500 and the widower husband £1,000. It is pointed out that, in Khan v Duncan (9 March 1989, unreported), referred to in Kemp and Kemp vol 3, para M3-071) there was an award of £1,500 for what is claimed in this case as £8,000. In truth, this is a general assessment of the incalculable. In my judgment, it would be right to award Joanna £2,500 and Mr Topp £2,000 if his prospect of remarriage is disregarded, otherwise £1,000.
I trust that these findings would enable the parties to agree quantum, apportionment and interest, if the occasion arises.
Judgment for defendants.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
AppealThe plaintiff appealed.
Roger Hetherington (instructed by Howell-Jones & Partners, Walton-on-Thames) for the plaintiff.
Andrew Phillips (instructed by Cripps Harries Hall, Tunbridge Wells) for the defendants.
DILLON LJ. This is an appeal by the plaintiff in the action, Mr David Topp, from the decision of May J given after the trial of the action on 8 November 1991 whereby it was adjudged that the plaintiff’s claim again the defendants, the London Country Bus (South West) Ltd, be dismissed.
The claim is a claim for damages arising out of the death of the plaintiff’s wife, Mrs Jacqueline Topp, on 25 April 1988. The basic facts are not in dispute and are clearly set out in the judgment of the learned judge. The defendant company runs a bus service in the region of Epsom, and one of its buses was hijacked by a third party (who has never been identified) at about 11 pm on the night of 25 April. Very shortly afterwards the bus, driven by the hijacker, knocked down and killed Mrs Topp as she was cycling home from work in Dorking Road, Epsom.
The bus in question is what is called a minibus. We have a photograph of it in a Metropolitan Police notice appealing for assistance after the accident. It is a fairly familiar type of small bus. It was described in evidence as a Leyland Sherpa van. It was based at the defendants’ Leatherhead Depot. Its last journey before the accident was on route E1 from Epsom District Hospital, through the centre of Epsom, out in the direction of Tattenham Corner, and eventually back to the Epsom District Hospital. It was then, in accordance with the usual practice of the defendants, parked in a lay-by by the bus stop directly opposite the Epsom District Hospital and outside the White Horse public house, as can be seen from the photograph in the police appeal for assistance.
In accordance with usual practice the driver, Mr Green, left the bus in that lay-by at the bus stop at about 2.35 pm on 24 April 1988. He left it unlocked, with the
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ignition key in it. He had then a 40 minute rest period before resuming his duties, driving a different bus. There was an arrangement under which the drivers could spend their rest period in the hospital. The expectation was that another driver, about eight minutes after Mr Green had left the bus in the lay-by, would pick the bus up and drive the same route. But the other driver, who should have picked the bus up at about 2.43 pm, did not do so because he was feeling unwell. His shift would have been non-compulsory overtime, and he did not report for his overtime. The bus therefore remained in the lay-by. Mr Green saw it there later and reported that it was still standing there. Therefore, there is no doubt that the depot knew that the bus was there. But, possibly because of shortage of drivers or available staff, nothing was done to pick the bus up that evening. It was taken by somebody who has never been traced just before 11.15 at night, driven for a relatively short distance until the point where Mrs Topp was knocked down and killed, and it was abandoned round the corner from there.
In these circumstances, the plaintiff’s claim is founded in negligence on the basis that the bus company, knowing that there must be a threat that a bus left ready to be driven away might be stolen and that whoever stole it, a joyrider, might drive dangerously and kill or injure someone else or damage property, was in breach of duty in failing to collect the bus or see that it was locked, without an ignition key and not capable of being driven away.
Mr Hetherington has submitted that there was a particular danger because the lay-by was outside or near to a public house. I do not think he suggests that its proximity to the hospital added any particular danger. He puts his case in three ways. Firstly, that the bus was in a special category of risk, as a source of danger on the highway. Secondly, that even if it was not in a special category as a source of danger, there was a sufficiently high risk to attract a duty of care. Thirdly, that the judge, in seeking to apply the tests laid down in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605 drew too rigid a line, instead of dealing with the case simply on its own facts and his reasons were flawed. But Mr Hetherington has to accept the general proposition which is to be found in the speech of Lord Goff of Chieveley in Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd (Chief Constable, Fife Constabulary, third party) [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 729–730, [1987] AC 241 at 272, quoting from the observation of Lord Sumner in Weld-Blundell v Stephens [1920] AC 956 at 986, [1920] All ER Rep 32 at 47, that, ‘even though A. is in fault, he is not responsible for injury to C. which B., a stranger to him, deliberately chooses to do’. Lord Goff said that that may be read ‘as expressing the general idea that the voluntary act of another, independent of the defender’s fault, is regarded as a novus actus interveniens which, to use the old metaphor, “breaks the chain of causation”.’
In so far as the case is put on the basis that to leave the bus unlocked and with the key in the ignition on the highway near a public house is to create a special risk in a special category, it is pertinent to refer to a passage in the judgment of Robert Goff LJ in P Perl (Exporters) Ltd v Camden London BC [1983] 3 All ER 161 at 172, [1984] QB 342 at 359 where he said:
‘In particular, I have in mind certain cases where the defendant presents the wrongdoer with the means to commit the wrong, in circumstances where it is obvious or very likely that he will do so, eg where he hands over a car to be driven by a person who is drunk, or plainly incompetent, who then runs over the plaintiff ...’
But the sort of cases to which Robert Goff LJ was there referring are far different from the present case. It may be added that there is no evidence that the
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malefactor had been frequenting the public house that is shown in the picture; we do not know who he was, nor is there any evidence or presumption that persons who do frequent that particular public house are particularly likely to steal vehicles and engage in joyriding. As for the second way in which Mr Hetherington puts his case, it seems to me, as it did to May J, that there is no valid distinction between the present case and a decision of another division of this court, comprising Stephen Brown, Nourse and Balcombe LJJ, in Denton v United Counties Omnibus Co (1986) Times, 6 May. In that case an omnibus owned by the defendant was unlawfully taken, by some person whose identity had never been discovered, in the early hours of the morning from the defendants’ bus station in the centre of Northampton. It was driven about a mile from the bus station and it collided with the plaintiff’s motor car, which he had parked in a road near to his dwelling house, causing substantial damage to the car. Fortunately for the plaintiff in that case, the consequences of the unlawful taking of the bus were not so grave as in the present case. The bus station from which the bus was taken was in the centre of Northampton. It was open at either end, so that there were no doors or gates of any kind, at night, some 35 buses were garaged there in a condition that any one of them could be driven away, and without any attendant present to see that none was driven away without authority. It was held by this court that the bus company owed no duty of care to the plaintiff and that the plaintiff’s claim for damages must therefore be dismissed. All these cases in a certain sense depend on their on facts, but it is inevitable that there should be careful consideration of what, if any, valid distinctions there may be between cases which it is said should be decided differently.
I cannot see any valid distinction between the present case and Denton’s case. I do not think it matters that the bus station was private property, whereas the lay-by was part of the public highway. In each occasion the obvious presence of buses which could be easily found to be readily capable of being driven away was as much an allurement to an ill-minded person. I do not regard Denton’s case as validly distinguishable from the present case.
Then it is said that the judge laid down too rigid a line and that his reasoning was flawed. I do not think he was laying down a rigid line to bind all future cases. He was applying the usual judicial process of deciding, according to principle and in the light of Denton’s case, the particular case that was before him. I note that in Smith v Littlewoods Organisation Ltd [1987] 1 All ER 710 at 719, [1987] AC 241 at 258 Lord Mackay of Clashfern pointed out that the determination of the question whether there was a duty of care to protect against the wrongful acts of third parties was a matter for the judges of fact to determine. He then said: ‘Once it has been determined on the correct basis, an appeal court should be slow to interfere with the determination ...' I see no basis for interfering with the determination by May J, with which I agree, and I would dismiss this appeal.
ROSE LJ. I agree. I doubt whether, for my part, I would have found, as the judge did, that there was in the circumstances of this case a relationship of proximity between the defendants and Mrs Topp. But I entirely agree with the learned judge that no duty of care is shown either in principle or having regard to the authority of this court in Denton v United Counties Omnibus Co (1986) Times, 6 May, which seems to me, for the reasons given by Dillon LJ, to be indistinguishable from the present case.
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PETER GIBSON J. I also agree, and I share with Rose LJ, the doubt as to whether the learned judge was right in finding that the label of proximity could be attached to the relationship between Mrs Topp and the defendants.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Lancashire and Cheshire Association of Baptist Churches Inc v Howard & Seddon Partnership (a firm)
[1993] 3 All ER 467
Categories: TORTS; Negligence: PROFESSIONS; Other Professions
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION AT MANCHESTER (OFFICIAL REFEREES’ BUSINESS)
Lord(s): JUDGE MICHAEL KERSHAW QC
Hearing Date(s): 10, 11 DECEMBER 1990, 5 MARCH 1993
Negligence – Duty to take care – Existence of duty – Parties in contractual relationship – Plaintiffs engaging defendant architects to design and act as contractor for church – Building unsatisfactory – Plaintiffs issuing writ outside limitation period for contract – Plaintiffs suing in negligence – Whether duty of care actionable in negligence existing when parties in contractual professional relationship – Whether limitation period for contract applying to action in tort.
Negligence – Duty to take care – Architect – Inadequate design for building – Liability for defects in building – Plaintiffs engaging defendant architects to design and act as contractor for church – Architects submitting plans to plaintiffs for approval – Whether inadequate plans amounting to negligent misstatements made without care – Whether cost of putting right defects purely economic loss – Whether defendants owing duty of care to prevent loss sustained by plaintiffs as building owners.
The plaintiffs wished to build a new sanctuary for their church and entered into a contractual relationship with the defendant firm of architects through a third party under which the defendants not only designed the new sanctuary but also were for all practical purposes the contractor with all the power of supervision and control available to an employer of building workers engaged on the work. The plaintiffs were dissatisfied with the completed sanctuary because of alleged defects in design in relation to ventilation and the avoidance of condensation. The plaintiffs issued a writ against the defendants claiming damages for breach of contract and negligence. At the time the writ was issued the plaintiffs’ claim in contract was statute-barred but the plaintiffs claimed that the damage had occurred within the limitation period for actions in tort. The defendants contended that where there was a contract between the parties, or at least where there was a contract for professional services, there could not, as a matter of law, be a duty in tort.
Held – (1) There could in law be a duty of care actionable in the tort of negligence where the parties were in a contractual professional relationship. It would be illogical if a negligent act performed on or for a person who was by contract a
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patient or client was not actionable when words spoken or written negligently to someone who was a client gave rise to an action in negligence. Furthermore, the principle that where the parties chose to regulate their rights by contract tort could not alter those rights applied only to rights created by the terms of the contract and not to rights resulting from the application of a limitation period; and if limitation was relevant to whether there was a duty in tort that simply showed that it was just and reasonable that there should be such a duty, limited in its extent by the express and implied terms of the contract. Accordingly, there could be a duty in tort despite the existence of a contract for professional services, albeit that the implied as well as the express terms of a contract would regulate the extent of that duty (see p 474 j, p 475 c to g j and p 476 a, post); Midland Bank Trust Co Ltd v Hett Stubbs & Kemp (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 571 followed; dicta of Lord Denning MR in Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Mardon [1976] 2 All ER 5 at 15 and of Lord Scarman in Tai Hing Cotton Mill Ltd v Liu Chong Hing Bank Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 947 at 957 considered.
(2) However, when the defendants submitted designs they did so for the purpose of enabling the plaintiffs to consider the accommodation and appearance of the proposed building, and without making any express staement as to its technical qualities. It would be artificial to treat the submission of the designs as a representation as to the building’s technical adequacy made without care on which the plaintiffs had relied. Moreover, in the absence of actual damage to the person or to property, any loss sustained by the plaintiffs as the owners of the building, ie the cost of putting right the defects, was purely economic and the defendants owed no duty of care to prevent such loss. It followed that the defendants owed no duty of care to the plaintiffs in tort (see p 477 e to g, p 479 d and p 480 a b j, post); Junior Books Ltd v Veitchi Co Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 201, D & F Estates Ltd v Church Comrs for England [1988] 2 All ER 992, Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 and Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908 considered.
NotesFor negligence in relation to statements by professional persons, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 12, 53, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 77–79, 429–442.
Cases referred to in judgmentAnns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Batty v Metropolitan Property Realizations Ltd [1978] 2 All ER 445, [1978] QB 554, [1978] 2 WLR 500, CA.
Boorman v Brown (1842) 3 QB 511, 114 ER 603, Ex Ch; affd (1844) 11 Cl & Fin 1, 8 ER 1003, HL.
Cann v Willson (1888) 39 Ch D 39.
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
D & F Estates Ltd v Church Comrs for England [1988] 2 All ER 992, [1989] AC 177, [1988] 3 WLR 368, HL.
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Dutton v Bognor Regis United Building Co Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 462, sub nom Dutton v Bognor Regis UDC [1972] 1 QB 373, [1972] 2 WLR 299, CA.
Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Mardon [1976] 2 All ER 5, [1976] QB 801, [1976] 2 WLR 583, CA.
Forster v Outred & Co [1982] 2 All ER 753, [1982] 1 WLR 86, CA.
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Groom v Crocker [1938] 2 All ER 394, [1939] 1 KB 194, CA.
Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465, [1963] 3 WLR 101, HL.
Junior Books Ltd v Veitchi Co Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 201, [1983] 1 AC 520, [1982] 3 WLR 477, HL.
Le Lievre v Gould [1893] 1 QB 491, CA.
Lister v Romford Ice and Cold Storage Co Ltd [1957] 1 All ER 125, [1957] AC 555, [1957] 2 WLR 158, HL.
Matthews v Kuwait Bechtel Corp [1959] 2 All ER 345, [1959] 2 QB 57, [1959] 2 WLR 702.
Midland Bank Trust Co Ltd v Hett Stubbs & Kemp (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 571, [1979] Ch 384, [1978] 3 WLR 167.
Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398, [1990] 3 WLR 414, HL.
Nocton v Lord Ashburton [1914] AC 932, [1914–15] All ER Rep 45, HL.
Pirelli General Cable Works Ltd v Oscar Faber & Partners (a firm) [1983] 1 All ER 65, [1983] 2 AC 1, [1983] 2 WLR 6, HL.
Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424, Aust HC.
Tai Hing Cotton Mill Ltd v Liu Chong Hing Bank Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 947, [1986] AC 80, [1985] 3 WLR 317, PC.
Wilkinson v Ancliff (BLT) Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 427, [1986] 1 WLR 1352, CA.
Preliminary issueBy a writ issued 11 December 1986 the plaintiffs, the Lancashire and Cheshire Association of Baptist Churches Inc, brought an action against the defendants, Howard & Seddon Partnership, a firm of architects, claiming damages for breach of contract and professional negligence while acting as architects to the plaintiffs in the design, supervision and construction of, and generally advising on, the erection of church buildings at Greenfield Baptist Church, Primrose Avenue, Urmston, Manchester in 1979–80. On 31 January 1990 Judge Franks ordered the trial of two preliminary issues, namely (1) whether the plaintiffs’ claim in contract was statute-barred and (2) whether the defendants owed to the plaintiffs a concurrent duty in tort? At the trial of the preliminary issues only the second issue was argued, the plaintiffs conceding that their claim in contract was statute-barred. The facts are set out in the judgment.
D M Harris QC and Scott Donovan (instructed by Maxwell Entwistle & Byrne, Formby) for the plaintiffs.
Augustus Ullstein (instructed by Bray Walker) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
5 March 1991. The following judgment was delivered.
JUDGE MICHAEL KERSHAW QC. The plaintiffs wanted a new sanctuary for their church at Urmston.
I shall describe briefly what usually happens when someone wants a new building. I do so in order to accentuate the difference between what usually happens and what happened in this case. The usual procedure is to retain an architect to provide a professional service. This will include the preparation of drawings, obtaining tenders from contractors and advising the client upon them. A contract is then made with a building contractor under the terms of which the architect has certain powers.
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The plaintiffs could not afford to obtain a sanctuary in that way. They came into contact with the defendants, who are architects. At that time the Manpower Services Commission (the MSC) operated the Special Temporary Employment Programme (STEP). The procedure under this programme was for an agreement to be made between the MSC and a sponsor whereby the sponsor agreed to carry out an agreed scheme using workers proposed by the MSC or associated government agencies. The sponsor became the employer of the workers. In return, the MSC would reimburse the sponsor in respect of agreed expenditure.
The defendants introduced the plaintiffs to STEP. The defendants prepared a design and obtained approval for a STEP scheme. It was the defendants, not the plaintiffs, who became the sponsor and thus the employer of the workmen. In this way the plaintiffs obtained a sanctuary which they could not otherwise have afforded, the defendants obtained fees which they would not otherwise have received and men obtained jobs which would not otherwise have existed.
In due course it appeared to the plaintiffs that the new building was ‘unsatisfactory’. (I use that word on purpose at this stage in my judgment because the word ‘defective’ has been used almost as a legal term of art in cases which I shall later have to consider.) The nature of the complaints, which I assume for the purpose of the preliminary issues to be correct, can be seen in the amended statement of claim. They are, in substance, complaints about design in relation to ventilation and the avoidance of condensation. It is alleged that there is condensation within roof voids and a total lack of ventilation in the church building. The traditional role of an architect is not to supervise the work, for that is the function of the contractor’s supervisory staff, but rather to exercise care to see that the rights of the employer (ie building owner) under the building contract to have bad work put right are exercised and to ensure that the employer does not pay for unsatisfactory work and materials. In the unusual context of the STEP project the defendants did not have, or at least were not limited to, that traditional role: the defendants were for all practical purposes the contractor with all the power of supervision and control which is available to an employer (in the master and servant sense) of building workers engaged on the work.
A writ was issued on 11 December 1986 claiming damages for breach of contract and negligence. Pleadings were served and by their defence the defendants pleaded that any claim is statute-barred. On 31 January 1990 Judge Franks ordered the trial of two preliminary issues: (1) Is the plaintiffs’ claim in contract statute-barred? (2) Did the defendants owe to the plaintiffs a concurrent duty in tort?
At the trial of the preliminary issues it was accepted that the plaintiffs’ claim in contract is statute-barred. Only the second issue remained.
For the purposes of the Limitation Act 1980 the limitation period does not start to run until a cause of action has accrued. One analysis of the tort of negligence used to be that it has three ingredients: (1) a duty of care, which exists where the defendant can foresee that if he is careless the plaintiff will suffer harm; (2) breach of that duty; and (3) recoverable damage resulting from the breach. In the context of limitation this means that the limitation period does not start to run until a plaintiff has suffered recoverable damage. The case for the plaintiffs in this action is that damage did not occur until 1983 at the earliest. If that is right, the writ was clearly issued within the limitation period.
I had a small amount of evidence upon which I shall in due course make such findings of fact as are necessary for the preliminary issue. The submissions of counsel lasted far longer. They were directed to two main points. (1) The ‘duty
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of care’ point: can there be a duty of care where the parties are in a contractual relationship? (2) The ‘economic loss’ point.
These points may seem to correspond with numbers (1) and (3) in the analysis of the ingredients of the tort of negligence which I have summarised above, but by giving a structure to their submissions counsel were not necessarily accepting that analysis or accepting that these two points are separate.
The duty of care point
In para 4 of the amended statement of claim the plaintiffs allege that further or alternatively to their contractual duties the defendants owed a duty of care to the plaintiffs. That paragraph is admitted in the defence but of course the plaintiffs do not seek to hold the defendants to an admission of that nature.
For the plaintiffs Mr Harris QC submitted: (1) that there can be a duty of care breach of which is actionable in the tort of negligence on proof of damage despite the existence of a contract (in future I shall use the legal shorthand phrase ‘duty in tort’); (2) that the test of whether there is such a duty in a particular case is: (a) to see whether such a duty has been excluded by the contract; (b) if not, then to follow the approach which would apply if there were no contract, as it has emerged from recent cases which he analysed and to which I shall return; (3) that when the law is applied to the facts of the present case there was a duty of care.
Mr Ullstein for the defendants submitted that where there is a contract between the parties, or at least where there is a contract for professional services, there cannot as a matter of law be a duty in tort.
The argument for the plaintiffs starts with a proposition which Mr Ullstein accepts: that prior to Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Mardon [1976] 2 All ER 5, [1976] QB 801 there was authority, such as Groom v Crocker [1938] 2 All ER 394, [1939] 1 KB 194, for the proposition that a professional person in a contractual relationship with a client does not owe a duty in tort to that client. In the Esso case the proposition that a professional person does not owe a duty in tort was used by counsel for Esso in support of an argument that no claim can be made in tort on the Hedley Byrne principle if the allegedly negligent misstatement results in a contract between the representor and the representee (see Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465). In a passage which I shall quote at the end of this section of my judgment Lord Denning MR pointed to authorities which were contrary to what I may call the Groom v Crocker principle.
Anything said in the Esso case about whether there can be a claim in tort in respect of what is done or omitted in the performance of a contract is necessarily obiter because the law relating to the consequences of what is said by the parties before a contract is made between them is not necessarily the same as the law applicable to what is said, done or omitted in the course of performing a contract. If there is any distinction between professional people and others in relation to whether there can be a claim in tort in respect of what is said, done or omitted in the performance of a contract, anything said in the Esso case might also be said to be obiter on the basis that Esso was not a professional person. However, in Midland Bank Trust Co Ltd v Hett Stubbs & Kemp (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 571, [1979] Ch 384 the question was central to the case. As in the present action, the defendant alleged that the plaintiff’s claim in contract was statute-barred (though that limitation defence in the end failed) and the plaintiff sought to establish a duty in tort. Oliver J analysed the authorities and reached the conclusion that there was a duty in tort upon the professional defendant (see [1978] 3 All ER 571 at 585–610, [1979] Ch 384 at 405–433).
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Mr Harris submitted that the Midland Bank case, though a decision at first instance and therefore not binding on me, should be followed. In support of the weight of that authority he cited several cases decided after the Midland Bank case in which it was accepted or conceded that there was a duty in tort. For example in Forster v Outred & Co [1982] 2 All ER 753 at 764, [1982] 1 WLR 86 at 99, although the argument proceeded on the basis that an action lies in tort as well as in contract, so that anything said on the point was obiter, Dunn LJ described the reasoning of Oliver J in the Midland Bank case as ‘wholly convincing’.
On that line of cases Mr Ullstein made two submissions. The first was that the persuasive weight of the Midland Bank case is reduced because Oliver J derived support for the view which he reached, inter alia, from Dutton v Bognor Regis United Building Co Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 462, [1972] 1 QB 373 and from the well-known passage in the speech of Lord Wilberforce in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492 at 498, [1978] AC 728 at 751–752. Dutton’s case has now been overruled by the House of Lords in Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398. Murphy’s case is also the latest, and strongest, of several cases including Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605 (others are referred to by Lord Keith of Kinkel in his speech in Murphy’s case [1990] 2 All ER 908 at 914–915, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 461) subject to which Lord Wilberforce’s speech in Anns’s case must be read.
Mr Ullstein’s second submission was based on Tai Hing Cotton Mill Ltd v Liu Chong Hing Bank Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 947, [1986] AC 80. Giving the advice of the Privy Council Lord Scarman said ([1985] 2 All ER 947 at 957, [1986] AC 80 at 107):
‘Their Lordships do not believe that there is anything to the advantage of the law’s development in searching for a liability in tort where the parties are in a contractual relationship. This is particularly so in a commercial relationship. Though it is possible as a matter of legal semantics to conduct an analysis of the rights and duties inherent in some contractual relationships including that of banker and customer either as a matter of contract law when the question will be what, if any, terms are to be implied or as a matter of tort law when the task will be to identify a duty arising from the proximity and character of the relationship between the parties, their Lordships believe it to be correct in principle and necessary for the avoidance of confusion in the law to adhere to the contractual analysis: on principle because it is a relationship in which the parties have, subject to a few exceptions, the right to determine their obligations to each other, and for the avoidance of confusion because different consequences do follow according to whether liability arises from contract or tort, eg in the limitation of action.’
After citing a passage from the dissenting speech of Lord Radcliffe in Lister v Romford Ice and Cold Storage Co Ltd [1957] 1 All ER 125 at 139, [1957] AC 555 at 587 Lord Scarman continued:
‘Their Lordships do not, therefore, embark on an investigation whether in the relationship of banker and customer it is possible to identify tort as well as contract as a source of the obligations owed by the one to the other. Their Lordships do not, however, accept that the parties’ mutual obligations in tort can be any greater than those to be found expressly or by necessary implication in their contract.’
Mr Ullstein submitted that this passage further reduces the persuasive effect of the Midland Bank case and later dicta and he relied upon it as strong persuasive
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authority for his proposition that there can be no duty in tort where there is a contract.
Tai Hing is not binding on me, since it is a decision of the Privy Council, but if it deals with the question which I have to decide I must, of course, regard it as of very strong persuasive authority. In Tai Hing the immediate question was not whether there could be a claim in tort where a claim in contract was statute-barred but whether in tort a customer owed a duty to a bank wider than had been laid down in various authorities as the implied terms of the contract between them. The answer was said to be No.
When submitting that the Midland Bank case is still good law Mr Harris accepted that where the parties to a contract expressly define their rights and obligations by that contract the law will not impose a higher duty in tort. He submits, and I agree, that in the present case the allegations of negligence do not go beyond what would have been breaches of the defendants’ duties under express (or, indeed, implied) terms of their contract with the plaintiffs.
The latter part of the passage which I have quoted from the Tai Hing case shows that anything said on the wider question of whether there is any duty in tort where there is a contract, as opposed to whether there can be a wider duty in tort than under a contract, was and was intended to be obiter. However, the Privy Council clearly thought it unattractive that there should be parallel duties because the consequences of parallel duties could be different. Lord Scarman had in mind the very point which arises in this case: the difference in the law of limitation. Mr Ullstein urged me not to allow my decision upon what is a matter of pure law to be swayed by sympathy for these plaintiffs—if, indeed, the plaintiffs deserve sympathy when they could so easily have issued a writ within the contractual limitation period. I agree with him that I need not consider whether these plaintiffs deserve sympathy since I do, of course, decide the question of law without regard to whether a particular plaintiff merits sympathy. I agree with Mr Ullstein’s submissions at least to this extent: that the Midland Bank case and obiter dicta in later cases must now be looked at with care.
Occasionally there will be other reasons why it matters whether a plaintiff who has a contract with the defendant can sue in tort. For example in Batty v Metropolitan Property Realizations Ltd [1978] 2 All ER 445, [1978] QB 554 the importance lay in the defendant’s insurance cover. Normally, however, the reason why such a plaintiff will want to sue in tort will lie in limitation. The contractual limitation period starts to run when the breach occurs; in tort it does not start to run until there is damage, which may (especially in cases involving buildings) be later. Mr Ullstein accepted the elementary proposition that though ss 2 and 5 of the Limitation Act 1980 say, as did their statutory predecessors, ‘An action … shall not be brought …’, the true position is that an action may be brought after the prescribed period and will (subject to the merits) succeed unless the defendant relies upon the defence of limitation. Indeed he did not merely accept that proposition; he founded his argument upon it. He submitted that the defendant has what has been described, for example by Slade LJ in Wilkinson v Ancliff (BLT) Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 427 at 436, [1986] 1 WLR 1352 at 1361, as a right: a right to plead and rely upon the limitation defence. Starting with Mr Harris’s concession that where the parties expressly define their rights and obligations by a contract the law will not impose a higher duty in tort he argued that the same qualification should apply where the parties have not defined their rights and obligations expressly but their contractual rights and liabilities are defined by terms which are implied, and that if a defendant who has made a contract cannot rely upon the limitation defence if sued more than six years after he broke it, merely because he
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is sued in tort, then he is deprived of a right. It makes no difference, he submitted, whether what is implied is imported by statute (he instanced as a comparison the terms implied by the Sale of Goods Act 1979) or is implied by the operation of the common law (such as the ‘business efficacy’ or ‘officious bystander’ tests).
I find myself having to choose between following the Midland Bank case (subject to any restriction upon the extent of the duty in tort which I may find to exist when I come to the economic loss point) and following what I might describe as a considered, as opposed to a casual, obiter dictum in the Tai Hing case. In performing this difficult task I am helped by a passage in the speech of Lord Bridge of Harwich in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 574–575, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 619. By way of introduction to the question which arose for decision in that case, the liability of auditors to those with whom they had no contractual relationship, he said:
‘The damage which may be caused by the negligently spoken or written word will normally be confined to economic loss sustained by those who rely on the accuracy of the information or advice they receive as a basis for action. The question what, if any, duty is owed by the maker of a statement to exercise due care to ensure its accuracy arises typically in relation to statements made by a person in the exercise of his calling or profession. In advising the client who employs him the professional man owes a duty to exercise that standard of skill and care appropriate to his professional status and will be liable both in contract and in tort for all losses which his client may suffer by reason of any breach of that duty. But the possibility of any duty of care being owed to third parties with whom the professional man was in no contractual relationship was for long denied because of the wrong turning taken by the law in Le Lievre v Gould [1893] 1 QB 491 in overruling Cann v Willson (1888) 39 Ch D 39.’
I have emphasised the words upon which Mr Harris relies.
I appreciate that Lord Bridge was here dealing with ‘advising’ a client in the context of economic loss caused by the negligently spoken word. The possible situations are (or perhaps it would be safer to say that they include): (1) the word which is spoken or written negligently to someone who is not a client but whom the author knows to be relying upon him—the Hedley Byrne situation. Clearly this is not what Lord Bridge was referring to when he said: ‘In advising the client who employs him the professional man … will be liable both in contract and in tort’; (2) the word which is spoken or written negligently to someone who is a client. This is what Lord Bridge dealt with expressly; (3) the act which is performed negligently upon or for a person who is not by contract a patient or client, eg by a doctor who treats the victim of an accident at the roadside. Here no authority is needed for the proposition that there is a duty of care; (4) the act which is performed negligently upon or for a person who is by contract a patient or client.
I have reached the conclusion that in law there can be a duty of care actionable in the tort of negligence where the parties are in a contractual professional relationship. I see no reason why the same should not be so of contractual relationships which are not for professional services, but that is not a necessary conclusion for the purpose of this action. My reasoning is as follows.
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(1) Logic
I accept that what applies to statements does not necessarily apply to acts and omissions. Lord Oliver of Aylmerton said in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 587, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 635:
‘… it is, I think, permissible to regard negligent statements or advice as a separate category displaying common features from which it is possible to find at least guidelines by which a test for the existence of the relationship which is essential to ground liability can be deduced. The damage which may be occasioned by the spoken or written word is not inherent. It lies always in the reliance by somebody on the accuracy of that which the word communicates and the loss or damage consequential on that person having adopted a course of action on the faith of it.’
I appreciate that logic is not an infallible guide, but unless compelled to do so by authority I should be reluctant to say that something which is illogical is nevertheless the law. I can see no logic in a rule of law whereby a duty in tort exists in the second but not in the fourth of the possibilities which I have listed. I do not regard the Tai Hing case as authority which drives me to such a conclusion.
(2) Limitation
I reject Mr Ullstein’s submission that there cannot be a duty in tort because to hold otherwise would be to deprive a defendant of a right. I agree with him that the benefit to a defendant of a limitation defence can fairly be described as a right. I see no reason why the extent of a duty in tort, if there is one, should not be limited as much by the implied terms of a contract between the parties which ‘go without saying’ as by what has been expressly said, and I find support for that proposition in the Tai Hing case. In my judgment the flaw in Mr Ullstein’s reasoning is to treat the right given to a defendant by the Limitation Act 1980 as a right derived from a contract, whether from express or from implied terms of the contract. It is not. It is derived from the 1980 Act. That Act does not imply a term into a contract. On the contrary, it has rightly been said that the successive statutes of limitation merely bar a plaintiff’s remedy, and not his cause of action. In my judgment the principle that where the parties choose to regulate their rights by contract tort cannot alter those rights applies only to rights created by the terms of the contract, and not to rights resulting from the application of the 1980 Act.
I should, however, also consider whether to take the effect of the 1980 Act into account in the broader context of its relevance to whether it is just and reasonable that a plaintiff should be able to sue in tort where he has a contract and would only want to sue in tort in order to gain some advantage which is not available to him by suing in contract—an advantage which is likely in most cases to be a longer limitation period. It seems to me that there is at least as likely to be delay between the negligence and the damage in situation (2) as in situation (4), so that in cases of the type which Lord Bridge expressly dealt with there is at least as likely to be a limitation advantage to having a cause of action in tort as there would be in situation (4). Further, the effect of the contractual limitation period is that a plaintiff’s claim can be statute-barred before he knows, or could know, that there is anything to complain about. If limitation is relevant to whether there is a duty in tort, I consider that this helps to show that it is just and reasonable that there should be such a duty, limited as I have said in its extent by the express and implied terms of the contract.
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(3) Authority
I am influenced by the fact that the Midland Bank case has not been overruled or disapproved, as one might have expected in the recent mass of reported cases on this branch of the law if it was wrongly decided.
I consider that the passage from the judgment of Lord Denning MR in Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Mardon [1976] 2 All ER 5 at 15, [1976] QB 801 at 819 which I promised to quote at the end of this section of my judgment accurately sets out the law. He said:
‘… in the case of a professional man, the duty to use reasonable care arises not only in contract but … also … in tort. It is comparable to the duty of reasonable care which is owed by a master to his servant, or vice versa. It can be put either in contract or in tort: see Lister v Romford Ice & Cold Storage Co Ltd [1957] 1 All ER 125 at 139, [1957] AC 555 at 558 by Lord Radcliffe, and Matthews v Kuwait Bechtel Corp [1959] 2 All ER 345, [1959] 2 QB 57. The position was stated by Tindal CJ, delivering the judgment of the Court of Exchequer Chamber, in Boorman v Brown (1842) 3 QB 511 at 525–526, 114 ER 603 at 608: “… there is a large class of cases in which the foundation of the action springs out of privity of contract between the parties, but in which, nevertheless, the remedy for the breach, or non-performance, is indifferently either assumpsit or case upon tort … Such are actions against attorneys, surgeons, and other professional men, for want of competent skill or proper care in the service they undertake to render … The principle in all these cases would seem to be that the contract creates a duty, and the neglect to perform that duty, or the nonfeasance, is a ground of action upon a tort.” That decision was affirmed in the House of Lords, when Lord Campbell, giving the one speech, said ((1844) 11 Cl & Fin 1 at 44, 8 ER 1003 at 1018–1019): “… wherever there is a contract, and something to be done in the course of the employment which is the subject of that contract, if there is a breach of a duty in the course of that employment, the plaintiff may either recover in tort or in contract.” To this there is to be added the high authority of Viscount Haldane LC in Nocton v Lord Ashburton [1914] AC 932 at 956, [1914–15] All ER Rep 45 at 54: “… the solicitor contracts with his client to be skilful and careful. For failure to perform his obligation he may be made liable at law in contract or even in tort, for negligence in breach of a duty imposed on him.”’
(4) Jurisprudential approach
In Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424 at 481 Brennan J said:
‘It is preferable, in my view, that the law should develop novel categories of negligence incrementally and by analogy with established categories, rather than by a massive extension of a prima facie duty of care restrained only by indefinable “considerations which ought to negative, or to reduce or limit the scope of the duty or the class of person to whom it is owed”.’
That passage has been approved on several occasions, for example by Lord Keith of Kinkel in Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908 at 915, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 461. I consider that the same approach of caution and respect for tradition can usefully be applied not just to the development of novel categories of negligence but to the present problem, which is jurisprudentially similar: to consider the boundaries of the law of negligence and in particular whether the existence of a duty of care is precluded by the existence of a contract. It can
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scarcely be denied that in the absence of any express provision in a contract of employment there is an implied term that an employer will take reasonable care for the safety of his employee in such matters as equipment provided for the employee to use. It may be true that the law of negligence is developing, but if I am right is thinking that there is no difference between a contract for professional services and any other contract I cannot believe that the law has developed so far that the practice of generations of pleaders who have pleaded the cause of action of injured employees in negligence is now wrong and that the only available cause of action is now breach of contract.
Mr Harris made a further submission which applies to both the ‘duty of care’ and the ‘economic loss’ points. It is that by submitting designs to the plaintiffs the defendants were representing that they were adequate from a technical point of view, ie that the defendants were, by implication if not expressly, making a statement which was made without care and upon which the plaintiffs relied, ie that the plaintiffs’ case can be put under Hedley Byrne.
The basis of the Hedley Byrne case is that there can be liability in tort (and, moreover, liability for economic loss) where the defendant says something in the knowledge that the plaintiff will rely upon what he says, the plaintiff does so rely and the plaintiff suffers loss. In this case the plaintiffs relied upon the defendants to produce designs which were technically sound, but the plaintiffs decided to place that reliance upon the defendants when deciding to retain the defendants as their architects and, no doubt, because the defendants are a firm of professionally qualified people. When the defendants submitted designs it was so that the plaintiffs could consider them in the light of the accommodation which the proposed building would offer and its appearance both aesthetically and from the devotional point of view. Upon the evidence put before me I find as a fact that when submitting designs the defendants did not make any express statement about the technical qualities of the proposed building, whether in relation to ventilation or any other technical aspect; and it would, in my judgment, be artificial to treat the submission of drawings and designs by an architect to his client as some form of implied statement as to the technical adequacy of the proposed building. Further, I find as a fact that when the plaintiffs approved the defendants’ design the plaintiffs were not at that stage relying upon the design in the context of technical adequacy because the reliance upon the defendants to prepare designs which were technically sound had been established at an earlier stage.
In his speech in the Caparo case [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 588, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 637 Lord Oliver said:
‘… it is not easy to cull from the speeches in the Hedley Byrne case any clear attempt to define or classify the circumstances which give rise to the relationship of proximity on which the action depends …’
And he expressed his agreement with Lord Hodson and Lord Devlin that it is not possible to catalogue the special features which must be found to exist before the duty of care will be found to exist in a given case. I do not propose to embark upon an attempt to define when Hedley Byrne liability does exist; suffice it to say that I reject Mr Harris’s submission that this is such a case.
I stress, however, that thus far I have only reached the conclusion that there can be a duty in tort despite the existence of a contract for professional services, albeit that the implied as well as the express terms of a contract will regulate the extent of that duty. For reasons which will emerge when I turn to the second point, it
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cannot be said that there is a duty in tort in all cases where the parties are in a contractual relationship.
The economic loss point
It is clear that over the years the policy of the law has been against the concept that ‘I have suffered loss or damage so if someone was at fault he must pay’. Various distinctions have been drawn in order to carry this policy into effect: loss is or is not too remote; loss is or is not of a kind which is foreseeable; the cause of a loss may be on the one hand an act (or failure to act where action was required) or on the other hand a statement; the person to whom a statement is made may as a result conclude a contract with the maker of the statement or he may do something else (such as to conclude a contract with a third party); the consequence of the act or omission complained of may be on the one hand personal injury or damage to property or on the other hand something which has been called ‘economic’ or ‘pure economic’ loss.
Recent decisions of the House of Lords have not merely affirmed that as a general rule there is no liability in tort for ‘economic loss’ but have also clarified the jurisprudential basis of that general rule—at least in the tort of negligence. We must not say that economic loss is not a recoverable head of damages; we say that there is no duty of care to prevent economic loss. I do not think it necessary to illustrate this point by extensive citation from D & F Estates Ltd v Church Comrs for England [1988] 2 All ER 992, [1989] AC 177, Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605 or Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398. Two examples will suffice. In the D & F Estates case Lord Bridge, with whose speech the other members of the House agreed, cited with approval passages from the dissenting speech of Lord Brandon of Oakbrook in Junior Books Ltd v Veitchi Co Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 201, [1983] 1 AC 520. He said, and I think that it is now generally accepted, that the decision of the majority in that case must be treated at best as being based upon what he described as ‘the unique, albeit non-contractual, relationship between the pursuer and the defender … and the unique scope of the duty of care owed by the defender to the pursuer arising from that relationship’ and that the law was accurately stated in the speech of Lord Brandon (see [1988] 2 All ER 992 at 1003, [1989] AC 177 at 202). In the Junior Books case Lord Brandon considered the two-stage test for the existence of a duty of care propounded by Lord Wilberforce in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492 at 498, [1978] AC 728 at 751–752. At the second stage Lord Wilberforce posed the question ‘whether there are any considerations which ought to limit the scope of the duty’. Lord Brandon said ([1982] 3 All ER 201 at 217, [1983] 1 AC 520 at 551): ‘To that second question I would answer that there are two important considerations which ought to limit the scope of the duty of care …' Thus it is clear that Lord Brandon in the Junior Books case and the House of Lords in the D & F Estates case were making clear what I have just described as the jurisprudential basis. In Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908 at 934, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 486 Lord Oliver expressed doubt whether the categorisation of damage as ‘material’, ‘physical’, ‘pecuniary’ or ‘economic’ provides a particularly useful contribution but went on:
‘Where it does, I think, serve a useful purpose is in identifying those cases in which it is necessary to search for and find something more than the mere reasonable foreseeability of damage which has occurred as providing the degree of “proximity” necessary to support the action.’
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What is ‘economic’ loss for this purpose? In D & F Estates Ltd v Church Comrs for England [1988] 2 All ER 992 at 1003, [1989] AC 177 at 201 Lord Bridge said that the previous authorities yielded no clear and conclusive answer to the question of whether on whether the cost of making good plaster which was defective but not (yet) dangerous was economic loss and that he would therefore examine the issue in the light of first principles. I need not, therefore, go behind the D & F Estates case. The facts of that case are so well known that I need not summarise them. It was held by the House of Lords that the builder of a building is liable at common law for negligence only where actual damage to person or to property results from carelessness in the course of construction, and that if a defect is discovered before any such damage occurs the loss sustained by the owner of the building—the cost of putting right the defect—is purely economic. Lord Bridge used the phrase ‘complex structure’ in the context of what was no more than a possible exception to this rule. I have not been asked to consider whether there can be such an exception; indeed to do so would almost certainly require detailed expert evidence which could not properly be dealt with in a preliminary issue.
I can see no distinction between the type of damage in the D & F Estates case and the type of damage in the present case. Thus it follows that unless this case is an exception to the general rule the defendants did not owe to the plaintiffs a duty of care to prevent the loss about which the plaintiffs complain.
Is this case an exception? There are two ways in which it can be argued that it is. The first is that the plaintiffs’ relationship with the defendants can be described, like the relationship between the pursuers and the defenders in Junior Books Ltd v Veitchi Co Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 201, [1983] 1 AC 520 as ‘unique’ (perhaps ‘exceptional’ would be a better word). In the Junior Books case [1982] 3 All ER 201 at 211, [1983] 1 AC 520 at 542 Lord Roskill said:
‘… the respondents … though not in direct contractual relationship with the appellants, were as nominated sub-contractors in almost as close a commercial relationship with the appellants as it is possible to envisage short of privity of contract …’
The defenders in the Junior Books case were clearly specialist sub-contractors, but it does not appear to me from the statement of facts in the opinion of the Lord Ordinary (set out at [1983] 1 AC 522–523) that they were nominated sub-contractors. I am bound to say that in official referees’ work there is nothing ‘unique’ (or ‘exceptional’) about the relationship between a building owner and a specialist sub-contractor, whether nominated or not; nor did Lord Roskill himself regard the relationship as ‘unique’. It must be remembered that the D & F Estates case preceded Murphy’s case, that it was not until Murphy’s case that the House of Lords was asked to, and did, depart from the Anns case and that when the D & F Estates case was being argued in the House of Lords the House was not being asked to depart from either Anns’s case or the Junior Books case. It may be that the ‘unique relationship’ was put forward as little more that a theoretical possibility and that it will in practice avail a plaintiff as seldom as the ‘complex structure’ argument. It is fair to say that in Murphy’s case Lord Bridge used words about the Junior Books case which echoed his choice of language in the D & F Estates case. Lord Keith, on the other hand, treated the Junior Books case as falling within the principle of the Hedley Byrne case.
In the present case the defendants were, as I have said, the employers of the workmen who carried out the work. It is indeed exceptional for an architect to be the contractor (though it is common for the contractor also to be responsible for design and a large contractor may well number qualified architects among its
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employees). However, as I have also said, the plaintiffs’ real complaint in this case is about design, not workmanship. I see nothing in the relationship between the plaintiffs and the defendants in relation to design which could possibly described as ‘unique’ or ‘exceptional’ such that if the Junior Books case was rightly decided and the basis of that decision was as suggested by Lord Bridge in the D & F Estates and Murphy cases the present case can be classified as an exception so as to impose upon the defendants a duty of care in tort not to cause economic loss by lack of care in design.
I have already foreshadowed the second way in which it might be argued that this case is an exception. It lies in what Lord Keith said in Murphy’s case [1990] 2 All ER 908 at 919, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 466:
‘It would seem that in a case such as the Pirelli General Cable Works case [Pirelli General Cable Works Ltd v Oscar Faber & Partners (a firm) [1983] 1 All ER 65, [1983] 2 AC 1], where the tortious liability arose out of a contractual relationship with professional people, the duty extended to take reasonable care not to cause economic loss to the client by the advice given. The plaintiffs built the chimney as they did in reliance on that advice. The case would accordingly fall within the principle of Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465. I regard Junior Books Ltd v Veitchi Co Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 201, [1983] 1 AC 520 as being an application of that principle.’
In the Pirelli case there was physical damage. It is true that the damage was to the very thing which the defendants had designed, but the issue was not over economic loss but over the date when the cause of action accrued: was it, at the latest, when cracks occurred (in which event the claim was statute-barred) or was it a later date when the cracks ought with reasonable diligence to have been discovered? In the Junior Books case [1982] 3 All ER 201 at 205, [1983] 1 AC 520 at 535 Lord Keith said:
‘As formulated in Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, the duty extended to the avoidance of acts or omissions which might reasonably have been anticipated as likely to cause physical injury to persons or property. The scope of the duty has, however, been developed so as to cover the situation where pure economic loss is to be foreseen as likely to be suffered by one standing in the requisite degree of proximity (see Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465).’
Lord Roskill used words to the same effect (see [1982] 3 All ER 201 at 209, [1983] 1 AC 520 at 540).
The later cases in the House of Lords which I have already analysed establish, as I have said, that the Hedley Byrne case did not extend the duty to a duty not to cause economic loss. In my judgment I am entitled to treat the Junior Books case as a decision on fact only and to treat what was said about it in later cases as providing an explanation for the result in the Junior Books case rather than as stating doctrines of law to be derived from or supported by the Junior Books case.
I do not consider that the Hedley Byrne case is authority for more than the proposition that there can be a duty on A to take care not to cause economic loss when making a statement to B if A should foresee that B is likely to rely on the accuracy of the statement and to suffer economic loss if the statement is inaccurate. In my judgment the inadequate plans in the present case did not amount to negligent misstatements within the Hedley Byrne case.
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It therefore follows that I decide the preliminary issue in favour of the defendants. It was agreed that the costs should follow the event, so I order the plaintiffs to pay the costs, to be taxed on the standard basis if not agreed.
Order accordingly.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
White and another v Jones and others
[1993] 3 All ER 481
Categories: PROFESSIONS; Lawyers: TORTS; Negligence: SUCCESSION; Wills
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C, FARQUHARSON AND STEYN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 8, 9, 10 FEBRUARY, 3 MARCH 1993
Solicitor – Negligence – Will – Duty of care – Instructions to draw up will conferring benefit on identified beneficiary – Solicitor failing to draw up will – Testator dying before will prepared or executed – Whether solicitor owing duty of care to intended beneficiary.
In February 1986 the testator, who had quarrelled with the plaintiffs, his two daughters, instructed the first defendant, who was managing clerk to the second defendant, a firm of solicitors, to draw up a will cutting both of his daughters out of his estate. The will was executed on 4 March 1986. In June the testator and the plaintiffs were reconciled and the testator sent a letter to the solicitors giving instructions that a new will should be prepared to include gifts of £9,000 each to the plaintiffs. The solicitors received the letter on 17 July but nothing was done to give effect to those instructions for a month. On 16 August the first defendant asked the firm’s probate department to draw up a will or codicil incorporating the new dispositions. The following day the first defendant went on holiday and on his return to work a fortnight later he made arrangements to visit the testator on 17 September. The testator died on 14 September before the new dispositions to the plaintiffs were put into effect. The plaintiffs brought an action against the defendants for damages for negligence. The judge held that the defendants owed no duty of care to the plaintiffs and dismissed the action. The plaintiffs appealed.
Held – A solicitor who was instructed to prepare a will for a client and, in breach of his professional duty, failed to do so was liable in damages to a disappointed prospective beneficiary if the client died before the will had been prepared or executed. The liability arose because in those circumstances (1) it was foreseeable that the disappointed beneficiary would suffer financial loss, (2) there was a sufficient degree of proximity between the solicitor and the intended beneficiary and (3) it was fair, just and reasonable that liability should be imposed in negligence on the solicitor to compensate the intended beneficiary in circumstances where the solicitor was in breach of his professional duty but there was no remedy in contract and the client’s estate had no effective remedy for the client’s purpose being thwarted by the solicitor’s failure to carry out the instructions properly. It followed that each plaintiff was entitled to damages of £9,000. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 497 c h j to p 498 j, p 499 f h j, p 500 c, p 502 b c h j and p 504 a, post).
Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580 approved.
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Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 and Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908 considered.
Notes For a solicitor’s liability for negligence, see 44 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 135–138, and for cases on the subject, see 44 Digest (Reissue) 132–171, 1306-1731.
Cases referred to in judgments
Al-Kandari v J R Brown & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 833, [1988] QB 665, [1988] 2 WLR 671, CA.
Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Beswick v Beswick [1967] 2 All ER 1197, [1968] AC 58, [1967] 3 WLR 932, HL.
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
Clarke v Bruce Lance & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 364, [1988] 1 WLR 881, CA.
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Gartside v Sheffield Young & Ellis [1983] NZLR 37, NZ CA.
Gran Gelato Ltd v Richcliff (Group) Ltd [1992] 1 All ER 865, [1992] Ch 560, [1992] 2 WLR 867.
Groom v Crocker [1938] 2 All ER 394, [1939] 1 KB 194, CA.
Hawkins v Clayton (1988) 164 CLR 539, Aust HC.
Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465, [1963] 3 WLR 101, HL.
Lee v Thompson [1989] 40 EG 89, CA.
Leigh & Sillavan Ltd v Aliakmon Shipping Co Ltd, The Aliakmon [1986] 2 All ER 145, [1986] AC 785, [1986] 2 WLR 902, HL; affg. [1985] 2 All ER 44, [1985] QB 350, [1985] 2 WLR 289, CA.
Midland Bank Trust Co Ltd v Hett Stubbs & Kemp (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 571, [1979] Ch 384, [1978] 3 WLR 167.
Ministry of Housing and Local Government v Sharp [1970] 1 All ER 1009, [1970] 2 QB 223, [1970] 2 WLR 802, CA.
Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398, [1990] 3 WLR 414, HL.
Robertson v Fleming (1861) 4 Macq 167, HL.
Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580, [1980] Ch 297, [1979] 3 WLR 605.
Seale v Perry [1982] VR 193, Vict SC.
Simaan General Contracting Co v Pilkington Glass Ltd (No 2) [1988] 1 All ER 791, [1988] QB 758, [1988] 2 WLR 761, CA.
Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424, Aust HC.
Tai Hing Cotton Mill Ltd v Liu Chong Hing Bank Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 947, [1986] AC 80, [1985] 3 WLR 317, PC.
Watts v Public Trustee for Western Australia [1980] WAR 97, W Aust SC.
Weir v J M Hodge & Son 1990 SLT 266, Ct of Sess.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Bell v Peter Browne & Co (a firm) [1990] 3 All ER 124, [1990] 2 QB 495, CA.
Blackpool and Fylde Aero Club Ltd v Blackpool BC [1990] 3 All ER 25, [1990] 1 WLR 1195, CA.
Business Computers International Ltd v Registrar of Companies [1987] 3 All ER 465, [1988] Ch 229.
Cattle v Stockton Waterworks Co (1875) LR 10 QB 453, [1874–80] All ER Rep 220, DC.
Cook v S [1967] 1 All ER 299, [1967] 1 WLR 457, CA.
D & F Estates Ltd v Church Comrs for England [1988] 2 All ER 992, [1989] AC 177, HL.
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Dutton v Bognor Regis United Building Co Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 462, sub nom Dutton v Bognor Regis UDC [1972] 1 QB 373, CA.
Forster v Outred & Co (a firm) [1982] 2 All ER 753, [1982] 1 WLR 86, CA.
Heywood v Wellers (a firm) [1976] 1 All ER 300, [1976] QB 446, CA.
Kecskemeti v Rubens Rubin & Co (16 November 1992, unreported), QBD.
McNaughton (James) Papers Group Ltd v Hicks Anderson & Co (a firm) [1991] 1 All ER 134, [1991] 2 QB 113, CA.
Mathew v Maughold Life Assurance Co Ltd (1987) Times, 19 February, CA.
Meek v Fleming [1961] 3 All ER 148, [1961] 2 QB 366, CA.
Midland Silicones Ltd v Scruttons Ltd [1960] 2 All ER 737, [1961] 1 QB 106, CA; affd [1962] 1 All ER 1, [1962] AC 446, HL.
Moore (D W) & Co Ltd v Ferrier [1988] 1 All ER 400, [1988] 1 WLR 267, CA.
Morrison Steamship Co Ltd v Greystoke Castle (cargo owners) [1946] 2 All ER 696, [1947] AC 265, HL.
Parker v Clark [1960] 1 All ER 93, [1960] 1 WLR 286, Assizes.
Punjab National Bank v de Boinville [1992] 3 All ER 104, [1992] 1 WLR 1138, CA.
Richter v Ffooks Barlett (12 November 1991, unreported), QBD.
Smith v Eric S Bush (a firm), Harris v Wyre Forest DC [1989] 2 All ER 514, [1990] 1 AC 831, HL.
AppealThe plaintiffs, Carol Brenda White and Pauline Elizabeth Heath, appealed from the judgment of Turner J given on 18 October 1990 whereby he dismissed the plaintiffs’ claim against the defendants, John Brynmor Jones and Philip Baker King & Co, a firm of solicitors, for damages for negligence. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Donald Nicholls V-C.
John Mitting QC and James Quirke (instructed by Rosenberg & Co, Birmingham) for the plaintiffs.
Duncan Matheson QC and Rosen Peacocke (instructed by Pinsent & Co, Birmingham) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
3 March 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. A solicitor accepts instructions to prepare a will for a client. In breach of his professional duty to his client he is dilatory, and the client dies before the will has been prepared or signed. Can the solicitor be liable in damages to the disappointed prospective beneficiary? In Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580, [1980] Ch 297 Megarry V-C decided that he can. The issue on this appeal is whether that case is still good law since the House of Lords decision in Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398. The point is not easy. Even before Murphy v Brentwood DC, courts in other jurisdictions had reached opposite conclusions. In Gartside v Sheffield Young & Ellis [1983] NZLR 37 the New Zealand Court of Appeal, presided over by Cooke J, applied Ross v Caunters. The contrary course was taken by the Supreme Court of Victoria in Seale v Perry [1982] VR 193 and in Scotland by Lord Weir in Weir v J M Hodge & Son 1990 SLT 266. In this country the subject is being considered by the Law Commission as part of the wider topic of the law relating to contracts for the benefit of third parties: see the Law Commission’s Consultation Paper no 121, Privity of Contract: Contracts for the Benefit of Third Parties (1991) paras 3.12 to 3.17 and 5.40 to 5.44.
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The history
The action arises out of an unfortunate family rift. Mr Arthur Barratt and his wife lived at 84 Whitecroft Road, Sheldon, Birmingham. They had two children, Carol and Pauline. Carol married twice, first to Peter Gould, and later to David White. She lived next door at 82 Whitecroft Road. She moved there to be close to her parents after her father had a stroke in 1983. Carol had three girls: Mandy and Maxine by her first marriage, Karen by her second. Pauline, the other daughter, also lived nearby, three or four minutes walk away. She was married to John Heath, and they had two boys, Stephen and Andrew.
Mrs Barratt died on 23 January 1986. There was then a family row between Mr Barratt and Pauline (Mrs Heath) about the removal of a money box belonging to Mrs Barratt. Carol (Mrs White) sided with her sister. Mr Barratt felt so strongly that he made a will cutting both of his daughters out of his estate. There was no evidence that he had previously made a will. The will, executed on 4 March 1986, was prepared by the defendant firm of solicitors, Messrs Philip Baker King & Co. The first defendant, Mr John Jones, was a legal executive employed by the firm. He had known Mr Barratt for some years.
Mr Barratt’s estate consisted principally of a house worth £27,000, about £1,000 in a building society and insurances totalling some £1,000. By his will Mr Barratt appointed his former son-in-law Peter Gould, his granddaughter Mandy and Mr Jones to be his executors. He gave £100 each to two of his grandchildren, Karen and Andrew. Apart from these small legacies he left his estate equally between Peter Gould, Mandy and Maxine. He left nothing to either daughter.
Happily, the estrangement between Mr Barratt and his daughters did not continue for long. By mid-June 1986 they were reconciled. Mr Barratt became concerned at the terms of the will he had made. He told his daughters what he had done and what he wished to happen. He told Mr Jones on the telephone that he wanted to change his will. Carol White also spoke to Mr Jones on the telephone about her father’s wishes. Mr Jones suggested that Mr Barratt should jot down what he wanted and he, Mr Jones, would deal with it. Mr Barratt destroyed his copy of the March 1986 will.
Mr Heath was in the habit of writing letters for Mr Barratt. In the middle of July he wrote out a letter addressed to Mr Jones setting forth instructions for the new will: Carol and Pauline were to have £9,000 each, the five grandchildren £1,600 each, Carol and Pauline were to be responsible for the legal costs, and they were to dispose of the contents of the house. The letter said: ‘I have destroyed the original will … I trust the above is as required.' The letter was signed by Mr Barratt. It was posted to the solicitors and received by them on 17 July.
Regrettably, nothing was done by Mr Jones to give effect to these instructions for a month. Appointments were made for Mr Jones to call round to see Mr Barratt on three successive Thursdays but Mr Jones did not keep them. Then on 16 August he dictated an internal memorandum to a member of the firm’s probate department, which read:
‘Re: Arthur Thomas Barrett—New Will
Keith Amos drew up a Will which is filed away under reference 30C. Please see Mr Barrett’s instructions in his letter received on the 17th July. I have considered the matter and feel possibly a new Will should be drawn up if an addendum cannot be made. Would you be kind enough to do it as soon as possible and let me know the amount of your costs. Mr Barrett is a friend of mine and I [will] pop along to his house to witness the Will and obtain costs. I have an appointment to see Mr Barrett on [blank] and if at all possible could you let me have the Will by that date.’
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On the following day Mr Jones went away on holiday. A week later, on 23 August, Mr Barratt went off to Weston-super-Mare for a fortnight’s holiday. Mr Jones returned to the office on Monday, 1 September, and Carol arranged an appointment for him to call and see Mr Barratt on 17 September. That was the first available date after Mr Barratt’s return from holiday. Meanwhile nothing further had been done within the firm regarding Mr Barratt’s will. Indeed, the memo dictated by Mr Jones on 16 August was not even transcribed until 5 September, four days after Mr Jones came back from holiday.
While on holiday Mr Barratt, who was aged 78, fell and hit his head. He returned home on 6 or 7 September. At the weekend he suffered a heart attack, and he died on 14 September.
In due course the will executed in March 1986 was admitted to probate. So there were the two documents: the will and the letter of instructions for a new will. The letter was not witnessed as required by the Wills Act 1837, so it could not itself stand and take effect as a will. The family were unable to agree on how the estate should be divided. The daughters took the view that Mr Jones’s inexcusable delay was the cause of their not having received £18,000 from their father’s estate. Had Mr Jones done what he should have done, the March 1986 will would have been revoked and replaced with a new will benefiting them. So they brought an action for damages for negligence.
Turner J dismissed the action. He held that, in straightforward professional terms, Mr Jones had committed a serious wrong towards his client which might well have resulted in a denial to the plaintiffs of financial benefit which there was evidence to suppose Mr Barratt had intended. But the judge also held that the solicitors did not owe any legal duty to save the plaintiffs from financial harm. In Ross v Caunters the solicitor was at fault in failing to warn the testator that the will should not be witnessed by the husband of the residuary legatee. Megarry V-C held that the solicitor’s contemplation of the legatee was actual, nominate and direct; it was contemplation by contract, though the contract was with a third party, the testator (see [1979] 3 All ER 580 at 587, [1980] Ch 297 at 308). Turner J declined to apply that case to the failure to draw up a will for execution. He said that in such a case, as possibly distinct from the execution of a will, an intending testator does not intend to create a legal relationship between the solicitor who is taking the instructions and those who may benefit in consequence of the will so that the solicitor should have those persons in mind as actual, nominate and direct. The judge held, moreover, that the damage was too speculative and uncertain in extent to be recoverable. He reached his conclusion with reluctance.
The liability question
I start with some preliminary observations. First, the present case concerns the consequences in law of a solicitor’s failure to prepare a will. In my view there is no distinction in principle between this case and a case, such as Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580, [1980] Ch 297, where the solicitor’s failure lies in not warning the client about formal witnessing requirements. On this I cannot agree with the judge. There is a difference of degree in that with the latter case the proposal to benefit the beneficiary has proceeded further. In the latter case the will has been drawn up by the solicitor and signed by the testator with the beneficiary named therein. In the former case the matter has not proceeded beyond the stage of the solicitor accepting instructions. It is possible the client might have changed his mind before executing the will. I do not think this can be a crucial difference when considering whether a liability in negligence exists, although it may be very material when considering whether a beneficiary has proved he has suffered loss through the solicitor’s negligence. In both cases the solicitor is in breach of his
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professional duty in carrying out his client’s instructions for the preparation and execution of a will, in the one case by doing nothing, in the other case by doing his work badly or incompletely. Hereafter I shall draw no distinction between these two cases, and for convenience I shall refer to the question whether in such cases a solicitor can be liable to an intended beneficiary as ‘the liability question’.
Knowledge of the testator’s intentions
Second, in the present case the prospective beneficiaries played some part in the steps taken by the testator towards the preparation of a new will. They were aware of his wishes, they were aware of his instructions to the solicitors and they even acted as a channel of communication between him and Mr Jones. Those features are strictly irrelevant when considering the liability question. Let me explain why. There may be cases when a prospective beneficiary can show reliance on a solicitor’s advice in circumstances where a liability in negligence will clearly follow, on classic Hedley Byrne principles (see Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465), for example if a prospective beneficiary is present when the will is being signed and in response to a question the solicitor assures him, it is in order for the prospective beneficiary’s wife to be a witness.
That is not this case. Here there is no question of any reliance of that nature. So I put ‘reliance’ cases on one side. Where reliance is present the law is not in doubt. Short of reliance, in my view awareness by an intended beneficiary of what the testator is doing cannot itself make the solicitor liable to the beneficiary if otherwise he would not be liable. Similarly in respect of assistance given by a prospective beneficiary to the testator in instructing the solicitor. It cannot be that if there are two intended beneficiaries, one of whom knows of the testator’s plans and his instructions to the solicitor and the other of whom does not, the negligent solicitor is liable to the former beneficiary but not the latter. That cannot be the touchstone of liability. The two cases must stand or fall together. Absent reliance as already mentioned, the solicitor must be liable in both cases or neither. In other words, the answer to the liability question must be applicable alike to the case where a prospective beneficiary is not even aware of his would-be benefactor’s intentions as to a case where he is.
Robertson v Fleming
Third, Mr Matheson QC submitted that we are bound, by the House of Lords decision in Robertson v Fleming (1861) 4 Macq 167, to answer the liability question in favour of the solicitors. I do not agree. In that case all their Lordships stated, or implicitly accepted, that in the absence of a contract between them a solicitor was not liable to an intended beneficiary. In rejecting the contrary view Lord Campbell LC expressed himself forthrightly (at 177):
‘If this were law a disappointed legatee might sue the solicitor employed by a testator to make a will in favour of a stranger, whom the solicitor never saw or before heard of, if the will were void for not being properly signed and attested. I am clearly of opinion that this is not the law of Scotland, nor of England, and it can hardly be the law of any country where jurisprudence has been cultivated as a science.’
Lord Cranworth made an observation to the same effect (at 184–185).
I need hardly note that the law has moved on since 1861. This case was decided before Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, before the Hedley Byrne case [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465, and before Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398. These twentieth century decisions of the
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House of Lords establish that there can be a liability in negligence in circumstances where the contrary view was regarded as axiomatic in the nineteenth century. In this regard Robertson v Fleming does no more than apply the then established law on negligence to the particular case of a claim by a third party against a solicitor. What it does not do and cannot do is throw any light upon the answer to be given to the liability question by an application of the principles which, in Donoghue v Stevenson, have subsequently become part of the bedrock of the English law of negligence.
An open question
Fourth, neither in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605 nor in Murphy v Brentwood DC did the House of Lords expressly or implicitly doubt the correctness of Ross v Caunters. In the Caparo case [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 588, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 636 Lord Oliver of Aylmerton noted that it gave rise to certain difficulties of analysis. However, in Murphy’s case [1990] 2 All ER 908 at 934, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 486 he expressly left open the possibility that outside the reliance cases there may be cases, such as Ross v Caunters, where there is a duty to take reasonable care to avoid pecuniary loss. In my view the position is simply that the House of Lords has left open the correctness of Ross v Caunters: their Lordships have expressed neither approval nor disapproval.
The effect of the defendant’s argument
Fifth, in considering the liability question it is of the utmost importance to keep in mind that if there is no liability the result, as pointed out by Megarry V-C in Ross v Caunters [1979] 3 All ER 580 at 583, [1980] Ch 297 at 303, is striking: the only person who has a valid claim against the solicitor has suffered no loss, and the only person who has suffered a loss has no valid claim. The executors can sue the solicitor for damages for professional negligence, but they can recover only nominal damages because the estate has suffered no loss. All that has happened is that, by reason of the negligence, on the testator’s death the estate passes to a different beneficiary. The intended beneficiary suffers a loss, but he has no right of recourse against the solicitor for the professional negligence which caused his loss. It would be a sorry reflection on English law if, indeed, that is the position today.
Foreseeability
The House of Lords decision in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman established that, for there to be a duty to take reasonable care to avoid causing damage of a particular type to a particular person or class of persons, three factors must coalesce: foreseeability of damage; a close and direct relationship characterised by the law as ‘proximity’ or ‘neighbourhood’; and the situation must be one where it is fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose the duty of the given scope upon the one party for the benefit of the other. In the present case there is no difficulty over the first of the three headings. A solicitor must foresee that if he fails to prepare a will as instructed by his client, and arrange for it to be duly executed, the disappointed beneficiaries will suffer financial loss. After the client’s death nothing can be done to remedy the solicitor’s negligence. The estate will pass to those entitled under any valid unrevoked will and, subject thereto, to those entitled on an intestacy. In the nature of things it will then be too late for the solicitor to prepare a will. Furthermore the solicitor must foresee that the payment of damages to his deceased client’s estate would achieve nothing. This would not provide a means of recompensing the client for the solicitor’s professional negligence. Any money paid to the estate would simply pass under the very testamentary dispositions which fail to carry out the testator’s
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instructions. Money paid to the estate would not go to the disappointed beneficiaries.
A special relationship
I turn next to consider whether there is between a solicitor and intended beneficiary a relationship of proximity and whether it is fair, just and reasonable that there should be a liability imposed on the solicitor to compensate the intended beneficiary. I shall consider these two headings together, because there is no real demarcation line between them. They shade into each other. Both involve value judgments. Under the third heading the court makes its assessment of the requirements of fairness, justice and reasonableness. Likewise, although less obviously, built into the concept of proximity or neighbourhood is an assessment by the court that in a given relationship there ‘ought’ to be liability for negligence. These two headings are no more than two labels under which the court examines the pros and cons of imposing liability in negligence in a particular type of case. This is well illustrated in the instant case, where some of the points which fall for consideration could happily be considered under either heading.
Mr Matheson submitted the authorities establish that, in cases of pure economic loss, there is no liability for damages in negligence unless there is actual and foreseeable reliance by the plaintiff on the defendants. Reliance is a prerequisite to the existence of the necessary close and direct relationship. I do not agree. As I read the speeches in the recent House of Lords decisions, their Lordships have emphasised the importance of reliance in pure economic loss cases. But I do not find in those speeches any indication, still less express statement, that in all cases reliance is a prerequisite to the existence of liability. Indeed, the thrust of the speeches in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman and Murphy v Brentwood DC is against any attempt to lay down hard and fast boundary lines.
I can take, as one example of a case where there was no reliance, the decision of the Court of Appeal in Ministry of Housing and Local Government v Sharp [1970] 1 All ER 1009, [1970] 2 QB 223. There the local authority’s officer negligently issued a clear official search certificate to a would-be buyer of land. The buyer completed his purchase on the strength of the certificate. In consequence the ministry lost the benefit of a charge for repayment of compensation previously registered by it in the local land charges register. There was no question of the ministry relying on anything done by the local authority or the officer. Nevertheless the court held the local authority liable in damages to the ministry for the negligence of its official. I see no difficulty with this decision. A buyer is entitled to rely on the accuracy of a search certificate. A duty of care is owed to him. He has a remedy against those concerned if he suffers loss by an error in a carelessly prepared certificate. It would be remarkable if, when the local authority’s duties are carried out negligently, a buyer has a remedy but an incumbrancer does not.
Nor is there an analogy between the shareholders and future investors in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman and intended beneficiaries in the instant case. In the Caparo case the House of Lords decided there was no reason in policy or in principle why the necessary close relationship should be held to exist either between the auditors and future investors or between the auditors and existing shareholders in respect of future purchases of shares. The statutory duties of auditors were not imposed by Parliament for the protection of investors in the market, and as a buyer of further shares an existing shareholder stands in no different position from any other investing member of the public (see [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 578, 581, 592, 598, 601, 607, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 623, 627, 642, 649–650, 653, 662 per Lord Bridge of Harwich, Lord Oliver of Aylmerton and Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle). The present case is quite different. The very purpose of the employment of the solicitor is to
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carry out the client’s wish to confer a particular testamentary benefit on the intended beneficiary. There is no other purpose. If the solicitor negligently fails to achieve that purpose, justice requires that there should be some remedy available.
A further point taken by Mr Matheson was that, since the testator is under no duty to confer a gratuitous benefit on his intended beneficiaries, there is no reason to impose on the testator’s professional adviser a duty which goes further than that on the testator. A testator does not owe a duty of care to his beneficiaries. If he fails to make a will, or if he makes a will but carelessly fails to have it properly witnessed, the disappointed beneficiaries cannot sue the testator for damages for breach of a duty of care. So, runs the argument, why should the disappointed beneficiaries be able to sue the testator’s solicitor when they cannot sue the testator himself, however careless he may have been?
In my view there is here a feature of fundamental importance in this case. In general, and always leaving reliance cases on one side, a solicitor owes a professional duty of care to his client and no one else. He is subject to professional rules and standards, and he owes duties to the court as one of its officers. But within that framework it is to his client alone that he owes a duty to exercise the standard of skill and care appropriate to his status as a solicitor. Thus, in general, when acting for a seller of land a solicitor does not himself owe a duty of care to the buyer: see Gran Gelato Ltd v Richcliff (Group) Ltd [1992] 1 All ER 865, [1992] Ch 560. In the ordinary course of adversarial litigation a solicitor does not owe a duty of care to his client’s opponent: see Al-Kandari v J R Brown & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 833 at 835–836, 838, [1988] QB 665 at 672, 675 per Lord Donaldson MR and Bingham LJ. Further, and a little closer to the present case, when advising a client about a proposed dealing with his property in his lifetime, a solicitor does not owe a duty of care to a prospective beneficiary under the client’s will who may be prejudiced by the dealing: see Clarke v Bruce Lance & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 364, [1988] 1 WLR 881. I observe, in passing, that the lifetime dealing there did not have as its object the benefit of the plaintiff to whom the property had been specifically given under an existing will.
So one asks oneself: is the position different regarding instructions for the preparation and execution of a will? If so, why? After all, such instructions are no more than one particular type of instructions given by clients to a solicitor. Why should a solicitor be liable to a third party in such a case but not in others? These are pertinent questions. Before attempting to answer them I must mention another point also urged by Mr Matheson. He submitted that it would not be fair or reasonable to impose liability on the solicitor in favour of the intended beneficiary, because that would be to give the beneficiary the benefit of a claim for professional negligence for services under a contract not made by him and in respect of which he has made no payment.
I think it must be frankly recognised that, if the court holds a solicitor liable to an intended beneficiary, what the court is doing is fashioning an effective remedy for the solicitor’s breach of his professional duty to his client. I do not shrink from this. If this sounds heretical to some, I pray in aid the observation of Deane J in the High Court of Australia in Hawkins v Clayton (1988) 164 CLR 539 at 584, in a case concerned with a solicitor’s liability to make reasonable efforts to locate the executor named in a will held by him in safe custody when he learns of the testator’s death:
‘The law of contract and the law of tort are, in a modern context, properly to be seen as but two of a number of imprecise divisions, for the purpose of
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classification, of a general body of rules constituting one coherent system of law.’
Here, a coherent system of law demands that there should be an effective remedy against the solicitor. The law of contract is unable to provide the remedy. In some cases, where the purpose of a contract is to confer a benefit on a third party, the purpose can be achieved, in the event of breach, by the court making an order compelling the party in breach specifically to perform his obligation to make a payment or confer some other benefit on a third party: see Beswick v Beswick [1967] 2 All ER 1197, [1968] AC 58. That route is not available here. The solicitor did not agree to confer a benefit on the intended beneficiary. He agreed to take steps to enable his client to do so. Specific performance of that agreement is no longer possible once the client has died. I have, indeed, considered whether a remedy for breach of contract could be shaped whereby, the client having lost the opportunity to make a gift to the intended beneficiary, (1) his estate should be regarded as having lost a sum equal to the amount of the intended gift and (2) the executors should hold that sum, when recovered from the solicitor, upon trust for the intended beneficiary.
In the end I can see no need for the law to grapple with the difficulties raised by this and other possibilities when there is to hand a simple remedy in negligence. Instructions to prepare a will are different from other instructions to a solicitor. The failure to carry them out properly results in the client’s purpose being thwarted but leaves the client’s estate with no effective remedy. There is good reason why the solicitor should be liable to a third party in this very special situation. If the mistake, such as faulty witnessing, is discovered in the client’s lifetime and corrected, the third party will suffer no loss. The cost of preparing and signing a new will would be recoverable by the client from the solicitor. But it is different if the client dies at a time when, because of a breach of the solicitor’s professional duty, the will for whose preparation the solicitor was responsible has not been duly prepared and signed. Then it is eminently fair, just and reasonable that the solicitor should be liable in damages to the intended beneficiary. Otherwise there is no sanction in respect of the solicitor’s breach of his professional duty. Thus there is a special relationship between the solicitor and intended beneficiary which should attract a liability if the solicitor is negligent.
It is true that the effect of holding the solicitor liable to the intended beneficiary will be to enable the latter to take advantage of the professional duty owed by the solicitor to the client. But, if the solicitor was not so liable, he would go scot-free. He could commit a breach of his professional duty with impunity. That cannot be right. That cannot accord with the objectives the law seeks to attain when imposing upon solicitors and other professional advisers a duty to exercise due professional skill and care. The resources of the law must be sufficient to fill what otherwise would be a serious lacuna. As Bingham LJ observed in Simaan General Contracting Co v Pilkington Glass Ltd (No 2) [1988] 1 All ER 791 at 804, [1988] QB 758 at 782:
‘Just as equity remedied the inadequacies of the common law, so has the law of torts filled gaps left by other causes of action where the interests of justice so required.’
Other objections
Mr Matheson raised several further points which, he submitted, showed that the liability question cannot be answered in favour of the intended beneficiaries
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without giving rise to unacceptable distortions in the law. He contended the anomalies would be such that the remedy would be capricious in operation. He submitted, first, that to impose liability on the solicitor would be effectively to double the size of the client’s estate. This is incorrect. The damages are payable to the disappointed intended beneficiary, not to the deceased’s estate. Those entitled to the deceased’s estate receive a windfall in the sense that the deceased did not intend the estate should go to them. But that does not assist the solicitor’s case. That is the direct and foreseeable consequence of the solicitor’s breach of his duty to his client. Because of his negligence the client’s money did not reach the right pockets. The law is requiring him to put that right in the only way it can be done.
A further objection concerned the effect of an agreement between the solicitor and client releasing the solicitor from liability for negligence or limiting the extent of his liability. It was said that, if a duty of care to an intended beneficiary exists, this duty is independent of the solicitor’s duty to his client. Accordingly, an agreement of this nature between solicitor and client would not affect the solicitor’s duty to the intended beneficiary. This would be an unfair result. I agree that, unless the duty to the beneficiary is correspondingly limited, the result would be unfair. However, I can see no overriding reason why the duty should not be limited in this way. Nor did Robert Goff LJ in Leigh & Sillavan Ltd v Aliakmon Shipping Co Ltd, The Aliakmon [1985] 2 All ER 44 at 77, [1985] 1 QB 350 at 399, where he outlined a principle of transferred loss. This approach did not altogether find favour with Lord Brandon of Oakbrook when the case reached the House of Lords (see [1986] 2 All ER 145 at 157, [1986] AC 785 at 819–820). So this is an important subject which would call for careful examination if, which seems unlikely, it were ever to arise in practice in this field. It can be safely left until then.
Another objection concerned conflicting interests of potential beneficiaries. There is no difficulty here. The preparation by a solicitor of a second will in favour of different beneficiaries is not a breach of any duty owed by the same solicitor to the prospective beneficiaries under an earlier will also prepared by him. The duty of the solicitor to prospective beneficiaries is to exercise professional skill and care in carrying out the testator’s instructions, giving him all necessary and appropriate advice. The duty goes no further than that. When the first will has been duly prepared and executed, the solicitor has fully discharged his duties and obligations to the beneficiaries under that will. He owes no obligation to them which would inhibit him from subsequently accepting and carrying out instructions from his client to draw up a new will with different legacies.
Once it is appreciated that the solicitor’s duty goes as far as I have shortly stated but not further, I do not see any scope for difficulties over conflicts of interest. The making of a new will and its terms may well affect the existing potential beneficiaries differently: the proposed changes may be advantageous to one, prejudicial to another and neutral so far as a third is concerned. The solicitor’s duty throughout remains as I have stated. The fact that this duty is also owed to an intended beneficiary does not alter its nature.
Mr Matheson raised the spectre of the solicitor being liable to an indeterminate class. The intended beneficiaries might include persons unborn at the date of the testator’s death; and their interests might not vest finally for many years. I do not agree. Liability is not to an indeterminate class. Liability is to the particular beneficiary or beneficiaries whom the client intended to benefit through the particular will. If a case of negligence should ever occur where an intended beneficiary was not born when the client died, for example the intended beneficiaries might embrace all the testator’s grandchildren whenever born, any
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difficulties this may cause can then be faced and resolved. This factor, of possible difficulties in imagined and unusual cases, cannot weigh heavily in the scales when set against the ordinary case in which the intended beneficiaries are a small number of identified people. The development of the law should be principled and coherent, but there must be room for special cases in which some loose ends, or even jagged edges, may be inevitable.
In this regard it is sensible to remember that Ross v Caunters was decided in 1979. In practice the decision does not seem to have given rise to problems. Furthermore, the decision has generally been welcomed, or at least not made the subject of criticism, by the leading commentators: see, for example, Atiyah Introduction to the Law of Contract (4th edn, 1989) p 395, Fleming Law of Torts (7th edn, 1987) p 167, Salmond and Heuston on the Law of Torts (20th edn, 1992) pp 215, 217, Treitel Law of Contract (8th edn, 1991) p 539 and Winfield and Jolowicz on Tort (13th edn, 1989) pp 88, 96, 106.
Finally, it was said, there are insurmountable difficulties over periods of limitation. If an intended beneficiary has a cause of action against a negligent solicitor, time would run either from the date when the will was made or ought to have been made or from the date of death. The first of these possibilities would be unsatisfactory: a beneficiary intended to take under a will can hardly be said to suffer loss during the testator’s lifetime. The second would be unsatisfactory, because it would mean that time might not begin to run indefinitely, subject only to the 15-year longstop under s 14B of the Limitation Act 1980. Again these are points best left to be resolved in a case in which they call for decision. If there are problems here, this would not be the first instance of difficulties over limitation in the field of negligence. Even if there are difficulties, as to which I express no view, this does not militate significantly against the existence of a liability in negligence in this type of case.
In my view Ross v Caunters is still good law. I venture to echo Megarry V-C’s prophecy that, wherever the bounds of negligence become finally drawn, they will be wide enough to give an affirmative answer to the liability question (see [1979] 3 All ER 580 at 598, [1980] Ch 297 at 321).
The solicitor’s liability to his client
For completeness I mention that some argument was addressed to us in support of the proposition that a solicitor’s liability to his client lies only in contract; he is not also liable in tort. It was submitted that the decision of Oliver J to the contrary in Midland Bank Trust Co Ltd v Hett Stubbs & Kemp (a firm) [1978] 3 All ER 571, [1979] Ch 384 was wrong. The decision of the Court of Appeal in Groom v Crocker [1938] 2 All ER 394, [1939] 1 KB 194 has never been overruled (see Lee v Thompson [1989] 40 EG 89), and it derives more recent support from the approach of Lord Scarman in Tai Hing Cotton Mill Ltd v Liu Chong Hing Bank Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 947 at 957, [1986] AC 80 at 107. It is not necessary to pursue this point. The conclusion on the liability question must be the same whether the solicitor is liable to his client in contract alone or in both contract and tort.
Inter vivos gifts
I have confined my observations to intended testamentary benefits. In Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580 at 599–600, [1980] Ch 297 at 322–323 Megarry V-C summarised his conclusions in terms equally applicable to a case where the solicitor is instructed to carry through a transaction of gift to a third party during the client’s lifetime. I see no reason to doubt that a similar principle applies to such
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case, because the same difficulty arises after the client’s death. However, that is not a matter I need pursue on this appeal.
Breach of duty
During the hearing of the appeal the defendants applied for leave to adduce further evidence with a view to seeking a retrial. We refused that application, for the reason set out in the judgment of Farquharson LJ.
As already mentioned, the judge concluded that Mr Jones and his firm were in breach of their professional duty in not exercising due diligence in the preparation of Mr Barrett’s will. A month elapsed from 17 July, when Mr Jones received the written instructions he had asked for, until he left the office for his holiday. Thereafter a fifth week passed before Mr Barrett went away on holiday. There was no evidence before the judge on the firm’s usual practice when carrying out instructions to prepare a will. Mr Jones’s explanation for the delay in preparation of what was, after all, a very simple will was that when he received the letter of instructions he was suspicious and did not believe the letter truly set out Mr Barrett’s wishes. When he received the letter he telephoned Mr Barrett, who, in effect, confirmed this and said that he still wanted to leave something to his former son-in-law Peter Gould. According to Mr Jones, he told his client he was shortly to go on holiday; he was heavily committed and would be unable to see Mr Barrett until after his return.
The judge rejected this explanation. This is hardly surprising, having regard to the terms of Mr Jones’s internal memorandum of 16 August. There is nothing in the memorandum to suggest that Mr Jones had any thought that Mr Barrett might have been subject to undue influence. The judge concluded that if the reason for inaction was not idleness, it was concern on Mr Jones’s part that his (Mr Jones’s) friend, Peter Gould, would end up with nothing if the will were changed. He acquitted Mr Jones of deliberate dishonesty in his evidence, although his conduct at the time invited censure.
Given these findings I can see no ground which would justify this court interfering with the judge’s overall conclusion that there was a breach of professional duty by the defendant firm in carrying out Mr Barrett’s instructions. The letter of instructions was incomplete to the extent that it did not set out who were to be the executors, nor did it contain residuary gifts. But I think the judge was entitled to conclude that Mr Jones effectually convicted himself out of his own mouth. By feeling obliged to put forward specious justifications for his delay, Mr Jones recognised implicitly that Mr Barrett had not received the professional service to which he was reasonably entitled.
Damages
I can see no reason to doubt that, if Mr Jones and the probate department had got on with the matter as they should have done, a new will under which each plaintiff would have benefited, at least to the extent of the £9,000, would have been signed by Mr Barrett before he went on holiday. The firm already had in its files the details of Mr Barrett’s estate obtained for the March 1986 will. The respects in which the new instructions were incomplete were largely formal, and a brief meeting at most would have sufficed to deal with them. Mr Barrett was anxious to put right without delay what he perceived as a wrong done by him to his daughters.
In expressing the contrary view the judge relied heavily on the evidence of Mrs Ducros, who used to live at 86 Whitecroft Road, as demonstrating that there was an element of uncertainty about Mr Barrett’s precise intentions. I am unable to
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agree there was any relevant uncertainty. Mrs Ducros’s evidence was that at Maxine’s wedding on 16 August Mr Barrett wanted to unburden himself. He told her that ‘the girls’, meaning his two daughters, would be all right, that the house would be sold and divided between them and that the grandchildren would have about £200 each from the building society. This, of course, does not tally neatly with the letter of instructions. But the factor common to both is that the girls were to be far and away the major beneficiaries. The discrepancies do not suggest either that Mr Barrett was in such a state of indecision that he might not have made a new will at all or that under his new will the daughters might not have received at least the sum of £9,000 whether by way of pecuniary legacies or as residuary legatees or as specific legatees of the house. On this point the judge was drawing an inference from primary facts found by him. I have to part company from him on the proper inference.
Accordingly I would allow this appeal, set aside the judge’s order, and enter judgment for each plaintiff in the sum of £9,000.
FARQUHARSON LJ. Arthur Thomas Barrett (the testator) of Sheldon, Birmingham was the father of two daughters, Mrs White and Mrs Heath, who are the plaintiffs in this action. Mrs White was formerly married to a Mr Peter Gould, by whom she had two daughters, Maxine and Mandy. She had another daughter, Karen, by her second marriage. The second plaintiff had two sons, Stephen and Andrew, by her marriage to Mr Heath. Thus the testator had five grandchildren.
On 23 January 1986 the testator’s wife died. There was an unhappy sequel in that the testator quarrelled with his two daughters because he suspected that they had taken away his wife’s cash box. As a result neither plaintiff entered his house for some months. A further consequence was that the testator decided to make a will under which neither plaintiff received any benefit. On 12 February 1986 he gave instructions to draw up a will to the first defendant, who is a managing clerk to the second defendant, a firm of solicitors. It is of some significance that the will was executed three weeks later on 4 March 1986. By the terms of the will he gave £100 each to two of his grandchildren, Karen White and Andrew Heath, and left the residue to be shared in equal thirds by Mr Gould, with whom he was very friendly, Maxine and Mandy. The principal asset was the house in which he lived. The probable value of the estate was some £30,000.
By May 1986 relations between the testator and the plaintiffs had improved and whether by their prompting or on his own initiative he decided to make a new will. Some telephone calls were made to the first defendant by the first plaintiff asking him to visit her father for the purpose of taking his instructions, but she was not clear about the dates. What is beyond doubt is that the first defendant received instructions in writing on 17 July 1986. Those instructions were written in the hand of Mr Heath, who frequently wrote the business correspondence of the family, but signed by the testator. The latter directed that the plaintiffs should each receive the sum of £9,000 and the five grandchildren £1,600 each. The instructions were incomplete in that executors were not named and no provision was made for the residue. There was some suggestion at the trial that the first defendant suspected the testator may have been the subject of undue influence on the part of the plaintiffs in giving his fresh instructions, but, if he did so suspect, he did nothing about it.
Although more than one telephone call was made to the first defendant when the first plaintiff was trying to make an appointment for him to see her father, he never in fact did so before he went on holiday on 17 August 1986. On the previous day the first defendant had left a memorandum to the probate department of his
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employer’s firm asking them to draw up a will or codicil, as they may advise, incorporating the new dispositions. On his return to work a fortnight later the first defendant made arrangements through the plaintiffs to visit the testator on 17 September 1986. This further delay was due to the fact that the testator had himself gone on holiday on his own on 23 August. While he was away the testator had fallen and injured his head. He returned home about 6 September 1986 but a few days later he suffered a stroke and died in hospital on 14 September.
It was in these circumstances that the plaintiffs who stood to benefit substantially if the second will had been executed brought the present claim in negligence against the defendants.
Immediately after the testator’s death the plaintiffs consulted another firm of solicitors, Messrs David Acton & Co. The employee of the firm who dealt with them was a Mrs Tracey Stoakes. The latter telephoned the first defendant on 17 September 1986 to discuss her clients’ position. According to the terms of an attendance note she prepared afterwards, the first defendant was ‘happy to accept’ that the plaintiffs should each receive the sum of £9,000 from the estate. This assertion was repeated in a letter confirming the telephone call dated 18 September 1986. In reply the first defendant contested that he had made the admissions or conclusions attributed to him by Mrs Stoakes. There were other areas of dispute in the evidence given by them at the trial but it is not necessary to refer to the details.
The learned judge was markedly impressed with Mrs Stoakes and at the conclusion of her evidence he congratulated her on ‘the apparently methodical way’ in which she carried out her work. In his judgment he said:
‘I have no hesitation in preferring the evidence of Tracey Stoakes to that of the first defendant at every point at which they were in conflict. In particular I accept Tracey Stoakes’s account of the telephone conversation between the first defendant and herself on 17 September and that it was substantially in the form recorded [in the attendance note].’
In 1990 Mrs Stoakes’s employer, Mr Acton, was prosecuted in the Crown Court at Warwick for a number of offences of dishonestly obtaining money from the legal aid fund under the ‘green form’ scheme. One of the witnesses who gave evidence against him was Mrs Stoakes and she produced a number of highly incriminating internal memoranda, which were later described by the Court of Appeal as devastating to Mr Acton’s case. He was duly convicted and sentenced to a term of imprisonment. Subsequently inquiries were made by Mr Acton’s solicitors which revealed that the documents produced by Mrs Stoakes were forgeries. In giving the judgment of the Court of Appeal Watkins LJ said:
‘In short the fresh evidence reveals Mrs Stoakes to have been, at least for the purposes of this appeal, a scheming liar and a forger.’
Mr Acton’s conviction was quashed.
The defendants in the present case applied during the course of the appeal to adduce fresh evidence directed to these matters. It was submitted to us that the forgeries committed by Mrs Stoakes relating to her employer were committed over the same period of time as the preparation of the attendance notes in the present case. It was further contended that if the learned judge had known of the conduct of Mrs Stoakes in the Acton case, the evidence of the first defendant may well have appeared in a different light and reliance would not have been placed on Mrs Stoakes when producing other documents as well as the attendance notes.
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The court rejected this application on the basis that the disputed evidence could not have affected the issues before it. Whether the first defendant made any concessions about the plaintiffs’ entitlement to a substantial part of the testator’s estate could make no difference to the position in law or whether he was in breach of duty. While it is true that the judge’s assessment of a witness may affect his response to the whole of the evidence, there were no sufficient grounds to justify the court hearing this material.
The learned judge identified three issues for decision. (1) Did the defendants owe a duty of care to the plaintiffs? If so, (2) were they in breach of that duty? And, if so, (3) did the plaintiffs suffer damage as a result of that breach?
In the result he found no duty of care to exist; had there been such a duty he would have held that it was breached, but that any resultant damage was too speculative and uncertain in extent to be recoverable. The plaintiffs now appeal against the first and last of those findings.
Whether the plaintiffs are successful in establishing a duty of care owing to them by the defendants on these facts depends on whether Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580, [1980] Ch 297 was correctly decided.
The facts of that case were that solicitors acting for a testator prepared a will on his instructions and sent it to him for execution. While advising him that a beneficiary could not sign the will they failed to warn him that the same rule applied to the spouse of a beneficiary. When the will was executed the husband of one of the beneficiaries was a witness. As a result the gift to the beneficiary failed and she sued the solicitors for damages. While the solicitors admitted their negligence they denied that they owed any duty of care to the beneficiary and asserted that their only duty was to their client. Megarry V-C held that the solicitors did owe a duty to the beneficiary in these circumstances and held them liable in negligence.
In the present case the learned judge distinguished Ross v Caunters saying that there was a—
‘great factual divide between the position of the plaintiff in Ross v Caunters from that of the plaintiffs in the present. What had operated to frustrate the formally expressed intentions of the testator in Ross v Caunters was a mere defect of form in relation to execution which was directly attributed to the failure of the solicitor to ensure that the execution was validly performed if the named beneficiary was to inherit.’
It is perfectly true that the failure of the solicitor in the present appeal could not be described as a mere defect of form, and the facts in Ross v Caunters are much stronger. Yet for my part I can see no distinction in principle, and the decisions in the two cases must stand or fall together.
The solicitor’s primary duty is to his client and to act in the client’s best interest. That may involve him acting in a way which is prejudicial to the beneficiary, but so long as the solicitor is acting in his client’s best interest the beneficiary can have no claim: see Clarke v Bruce Lance & Co (a firm) [1988] 1 All ER 364, [1988] 1 WLR 881. The duty to the testator and, if any, to the potential beneficiary is distinct and was described by Megarry V-C in Ross v Caunters [1979] 3 All ER 580 at 599, [1980] Ch 297 at 322 in this way:
‘In broad terms, a solicitor’s duty to his client is to do for him all that he properly can, with, of course, proper care and attention. Subject to giving due weight to the adverb “properly”, that duty is a paramount duty. The solicitor owes no such duty to those who are not his clients. He is no guardian of their interests. What he does for his client may be hostile and injurious to their interests; and sometimes the greater the injuries the better he will have served
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his client. The duty owed by a solicitor to a third party is entirely different. There is no trace of a wide and general duty to do all that properly can be done for him. Instead, in a case such as the present, there is merely a duty, owed to him as well as the client, to use proper care in carrying out the client’s instructions for conferring the benefit on the third party. If it is to be held that there is a duty that is wider than that, that will have to be determined in some other case. The duty that I hold to exist in the present case, far from diluting the solicitor’s duty to his client, marches with it, and, if anything, strengthens it.’
If that be right, the defendants’ duty to the plaintiffs in the present case, as in Ross v Caunters itself, is ‘to use proper care in carrying out the client’s instructions for conferring the benefit on the third party’.
The existence of such a duty is challenged by the defendants on a number of grounds, and they contend of course that Ross v Caunters was wrongly decided. The case was decided in 1979, just two years after the decision of the House of Lords in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728.
In the more recent case of Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398 the House reversed the decision in Anns’s case and all cases subsequent thereto which were decided in reliance on it. The present defendants claim that Ross v Caunters was decided on the basis of Anns’s case and therefore should now be regarded as impliedly overruled.
I would reject that submission.
In the first place Ross v Caunters was referred to in Murphy’s case [1990] 2 All ER 908 at 934, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 486 in the speech of Lord Oliver without disapproval.
Secondly, while Megarry V-C undoubtedly examined the decision in Anns’s case and held that the facts in Ross v Caunters passed the ‘two stage’ test posed by Lord Wilberforce in Anns’s case, it is clear that he based his decision on the reasoning of the House of Lords in Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1. Indeed in the summary of his conclusions there is no reference to Anns’s case and Megarry V-C held that the basis of the solicitor’s liability to others is either an extension of the principle in Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465 or more probably a direct application of the principle in Donoghue v Stevenson (see [1979] 3 All ER 580 at 599–600, [1980] Ch 297 at 322–323).
The reference to the Hedley Byrne case derives from the fact that in both Ross v Caunters and the present case the loss sustained by the beneficiaries is economic. Such a loss is generally allowed only in the reliance cases, of which the Hedley Byrne case was the prime example. In the present case there was of course no reliance by the beneficiaries on any representation made by the defendants, and the position is the same in Ross v Caunters.
If Ross v Caunters is to be upheld it must be regarded in this respect as being in a category on its own, as Lord Oliver suggested in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 587, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 635. This appears to me to be the correct approach because in truth Ross v Caunters was a policy decision in the sense that the circumstances were such that the law ought to grant a remedy. This was the approach of Cooke J in Gartside v Sheffield Young & Ellis [1983] NZLR 37 at 43 when he says:
‘To deny an effective remedy in a plain case would seem to imply a refusal to acknowledge the solicitor’s professional role in the community. In practice the public relies on solicitors … to prepare effective wills. It would be a failure of the legal system not to insist on some practical responsibility.’
The facts of both cases otherwise satisfy the conditions which are necessary to found a duty of care. The persons who suffer loss if the solicitor has failed in his
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duty to his client are both restricted and easily identified. If the solicitor drafts a will and pauses to consider who would suffer loss in the event of the draft proving defective, he would at once identify the luckless beneficiaries. The same considerations would apply if he was pondering his own dilatoriness. There can in my judgment be no doubt that the negligent solicitor would readily foresee who would suffer from his own breach of duty.
The more difficult problem is whether there was a sufficient degree of proximity or neighbourhood between the negligent solicitor and the beneficiaries, and that it is fair, just and reasonable that a duty of care should lie. There are of course many objections to such a duty being found in these circumstances and they have been identified in detail in the judgment of Murphy J in the Australian case of Seale v Perry [1982] VR 193. Yet there are still a number of reasons why the duty should exist.
First, there is the anomalous position of the solicitor if such a duty did not lie. After the testator’s death he would have no liability to his client, save perhaps to the executors of the estate for purely nominal damages. The beneficiaries who would be the real losers would have no claims. This was emphasised by Megarry V-C at the very outset of his judgment in Ross v Caunters [1979] 3 All ER 580 at 583, [1980] Ch 297 at 303 when he said:
‘If this is right, the result is striking. The only person who has a valid claim has suffered no loss, and the only person who has suffered a loss has no valid claim. However grave the negligence, and however great the loss, the solicitors would be under no liability to pay substantial damages to anyone.’
If this is truly the position in law it would be very unsatisfactory.
Secondly, there are the social reasons referred to by Cooke J in the passage already cited. It is plainly in the public interest that professional people should discharge their duties with proper care and that they can be relied upon to show due diligence on their clients’ behalf. In Ross v Caunters and the present appeal this aspect is of particular importance as the beneficiaries are readily identified as being likely to suffer loss in the absence of the solicitor acting with due care. In this context the solicitor is in a unique category.
Thirdly, on the facts of these two cases no conflict of interest arises between the testator and the beneficiaries. Indeed it was the express wish respectively of the two testators that Mrs Ross should benefit in the earlier case and the plaintiffs in the present one. The several duties of the solicitor to the testator on the one hand and the beneficiaries on the other readily complement each other. In discharging his obligations to his client the solicitor is at the same time fulfilling his duty to the beneficiaries since the one comprehends the other.
Fourthly, the incremental approach to the establishment of further categories of negligence as described by Brennan J in Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 157 CLR 424 at 481, which was approved by the House of Lords in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, is apt to Ross v Caunters and the present case. To find a duty of care in these circumstances involves no very dramatic extension of the law.
I would hold that Ross v Caunters was correctly decided and that a duty of care was owing in the present case by the defendants to the plaintiffs.
There was very little material to assist the judge in deciding whether, supposing a duty of care was owing to the plaintiffs, the defendants were by reason of their negligence in breach of that duty.
The learned judge took a very adverse view of the first defendant, expressly rejecting his evidence save insofar as it was supported by documentary evidence or the testimony of other witnesses accepted by the judge. He said:
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‘I have been left in no doubt that on 17 September 1986 the first defendant was embarrassed by the fact that he knew and had known for at least two months that the deceased had wished to change his will in important respects and that he had done nothing effectively to comply with his former client’s instructions while there was still time to have done so.’
At the very end of his judgment the learned judge refers to the fact that, if he had found a duty of care to exist, it had been broken.
This court had some difficulty in discovering what the first defendant’s defence was to the charge of negligence, but it was, apparently, that he was under pressure of work. His instructions to prepare the new will were received, as already observed, on 17 July 1986. Once the testator had gone on holiday it was not possible for the first defendant to proceed; so the period which has to be considered in this context was from 17 July to 23 August, that is to say a day short of five weeks. The first defendant can hardly rely on the time he was himself on holiday as an excuse for inactivity. So the question the judge had to decide was whether a delay of five weeks in attending to the testator’s instructions was negligent on the part of the first defendant. No evidence was called about the size of the second defendant’s practice, the number of staff, the amount of work which had to be dealt with and the general capacity of the office. All the judge had to assist him on this part of the case was the time span of five weeks, the comparative simplicity of the terms of the new will and the fact that in February 1986 the first will had been drawn and attested much more quickly.
The learned judge did not specifically deal with these features in the context of whether a breach of duty had been proved nor did he identify which of them he relied upon. In these circumstances the only question which this court has to decide is whether there was in fact sufficient evidence to support the judge’s finding. In my judgment there was.
I find myself unable to agree with the learned judge that the damage sustained by the plaintiffs as a result of the defendants’ negligence was too speculative to be recoverable. In the concluding words of his judgment he said that the first defendant committed a serious wrong towards his client ‘which may well have resulted’ in a denial of financial benefit to the plaintiffs which there was evidence to suppose he had intended. Perhaps the learned judge was distinguishing between what may well have resulted and what probably would have resulted. Although the testator had suffered a stroke in March 1983 and was at the time of his death in his seventies, there was no reason to suppose in July 1986 that his health would fail. He evidently wished for the first defendant to come and see him as quickly as possible as he was regularly asking the first plaintiff to telephone and arrange it. Furthermore, if the first defendant had not been in breach of his duty, the will would have been executed some time in early to mid-August before he went on holiday. If that had happened, as but for the defendants’ breach it would, the plaintiffs would both have benefited under the new will. In my judgment, it was more than probable that the plaintiffs would each have received the sum of £9,000 as the testator intended.
I would accordingly allow the appeal and enter judgment for each of the plaintiffs in that sum.
STEYN LJ. I agree that this appeal ought to be allowed for the reasons given by Sir Donald Nicholls V-C and Farquharson LJ. In view of the importance of the question whether Ross v Caunters (a firm) [1979] 3 All ER 580, [1980] Ch 297 is good law, I add a few observations of my own.
The question decided in Ross v Caunters was a difficult one. It lies at the interface of what has traditionally been regarded as the separate domains of contract and
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tort. It is therefore not altogether surprising that the appeal in the present case lasted three days, and that we were referred to about forty decisions of English and foreign courts. Pages and pages were read from some of the judgments. But we were not referred to a single piece of academic writing on Ross v Caunters. Counsel are not to blame: traditionally counsel make very little use of academic materials other than standard textbooks. In a difficult case it is helpful to consider academic comment on the point. Often such writings examine the history of the problem, the framework into which a decision must fit and countervailing policy considerations in greater depth than is usually possible in judgments prepared by judges who are faced with a remorseless treadmill of cases that cannot wait. And it is arguments that influence decisions rather than the reading of pages upon pages from judgments. I am not suggesting that to the already extremely lengthy appellate process there should be added the reading of lengthy passages from textbooks and articles. But such material, properly used, can sometimes help to give one a better insight into the substantive arguments. I acknowledge that in preparing this short judgment the arguments for and against the ruling in Ross v Caunters were clarified for me by academic writings.
The defendants’ submission that binding authority compels us to rule that Ross v Caunters was wrongly decided is unrealistic. The exhumation of the obscure decision in Robertson v Fleming (1861) 4 Macq 167 was not a fruitful exercise. This case was decided when the law of negligence was wholly undeveloped. The decision was founded on the privity of contract fallacy, ie the theory that because there is no liability in contract there can be no liability in tort. That fallacy was authoritatively laid to rest 70 years later in Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 572, [1932] All ER Rep 1, which was the foundation of the modern law of negligence. The basis of the reasoning in Robertson v Fleming has disappeared. In my view it is no longer useful to cite this case on questions of English law. The submission that Ross v Caunters was impliedly overruled by the decision of the House of Lords in Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398 and Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605 is equally implausible. It was not submitted in Murphy’s case or the Caparo case that Ross v Caunters was wrongly decided. Their Lordships did not invite arguments on the point, and studiously refrained from commenting on the correctness of Ross v Caunters. That is understandable because on any view Ross v Caunters raises considerations which were absent in the Murphy and Caparo cases. There is therefore nothing inconsistent between Ross v Caunters and the Murphy and Caparo cases.
Since we are unconstrained by binding authority, the decision in this case must depend on an assessment of the competing arguments regarding principle and policy. The starting point must be that prima facie a loss must lie where it falls. Sound and cogent reasons must be demonstrated for the common law to intervene by decreeing that the loss is to be borne by another person. And judges must take into account the fact that in a practical world the common law cannot spread its protection too widely. Mindful of these considerations, I turn to what I regard as the critical point in the case.
If Ross v Caunters is overruled, the stark conclusion is that there is no effective remedy for a solicitor’s negligence in carrying out the instructions of his client as to the execution of a will except in the necessarily rare case where a disappointed beneficiary is able to establish reliance on the solicitor’s conduct. The will takes effect upon the testator’s death. The testator cannot sue. The executor cannot sue because the estate is not diminished by the negligence: it is only the distribution of the estate that is altered. The disappointed beneficiary suffered loss as a result of the solicitor’s negligence but he cannot sue because the solicitor owed him no duty. The man on the underground might regard this as a surprising result, and his
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surprise would not evaporate on the assurance that the solicitor did indeed owe a duty of care to the testator but that the breach of it will result in an award of nominal damages in the sum of £1. Despite the fact that the solicitor is held out by his profession as competent and careful, and that the solicitor receives an adequate fee for his services, he effectively incurs no liability for frustrating the testator’s testamentary wishes. And that is so notwithstanding the fact that the solicitor would by the very nature of his instructions almost invariably know the extent of the financial detriment that the carelessness would inflict on the beneficiary. Moreover, we were told in argument that for mere negligence of this kind the solicitor could not even be censured in disciplinary proceedings. The tortfeasor goes scot-free. That seems contrary to a basic aim of the law of tort. Prima facie therefore it seems just and reasonable that the law should provide a remedy unless there are doctrinal problems which cannot be overcome or policy considerations which militate against the recognition of a duty of care.
Counsel for the defendants argued that privity of contract would be undermined by the recognition of a duty owed by the solicitor to the beneficiary. That is simply an echo of the long buried notion that because there is no liability in contract there can also be none in tort. In other legal systems the Ross v Caunters problem is solved by allowing the disappointed beneficiary a remedy in contract against the negligent solicitor on the analogy of a contract for the benefit of a third party. That is a solution adopted in Germany and in the United States: see Markesinis German Law of Torts (2nd edn) pp 231–239 and Professor Lorenz ‘Some thoughts about contract and tort’ in Wallington and Merkin (eds) Essays in Memory of Professor F H Lawson (1986) p 86ff. Professor Markesinis has convincingly argued that a contractual as opposed to a tortious solution is the preferable one. It avoids some of the potential problems created by the recognition of a duty in tort: see ‘An expanding tort law—the price of a rigid contract law’ (1987) 103 LQR 354. There is still important work to be done in this field in England, as is shown in the Law Commission’s Consultation Paper no 121, Privity of Contract: Contracts for the Benefit of Third Parties (1991). But as the law stands binding precedent prevents us from adopting a contractual solution. There is either a remedy in tort or there is no remedy.
Counsel for the defendants also argued that, even if the Murphy and Caparo cases did not impliedly overrule Ross v Caunters, the ‘philosophy’ of the decisions of the House of Lords is inimical to the recognition of a solicitor’s liability for loss negligently caused to a beneficiary. If the submission is right, the result is curious. The Murphy and Caparo cases signalled the retreat from high principle and the resurgence of pragmatism. It is therefore something of an irony to call in aid the Murphy and Caparo cases for the proposition that Ross v Caunters does not fit in with a general theory. And it is important to bear in mind that Ross v Caunters was based not on the analogy of Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465, which in the context of liability for negligent misrepresentations requires reliance, but on the general law of negligence, which was first coherently expounded in Donoghue v Stevenson.
It was also argued that a disappointed beneficiary has no legitimate interest to be protected at the time of the solicitor’s carelessness. This is a point which loomed large in the decision of the Supreme Court of Victoria in Seale v Perry [1982] VR 193. In that case the court refused to follow Ross v Caunters, and departed from the decision of the Supreme Court of Western Australia in Watts v Public Trustee for Western Australia [1980] WAR 97. The argument was that the beneficiary’s interest was a mere spes successionis. The subsequent decision of the High Court of Australia in Hawkins v Clayton (1988) 164 CLR 539, where the majority upheld the claim of an executor against a solicitor who carelessly failed to notify the executor
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of the existence of a will, is not directly in point but dicta suggest that Seale v Perry is not the last word on the subject in Australia. While in England we have much to learn from the imaginative legal developments in Australia in contract and tort, the categorisation of the beneficiary’s interest as a mere spes successionis seems to me not to advance the substantive arguments. The negligent solicitor assumes a responsibility to give effect to his client’s testamentary wishes. The solicitor knows all along that the product of his professional services—the will—can speak only at the death of the testator. The solicitor further knows that upon the death of the testator the beneficiary’s interest crystallises and that the mere expectation ought then to become an entitlement to the legacy. Due to the solicitor’s negligence the beneficiary’s interest never becomes an entitlement. That seems a principled basis on which to impose liability in tort. There are undoubtedly other arguments to be considered. But it seems to me that by attaching the label spes successionis to the beneficiary’s initial interest one is not saying anything of any substantive value about the question whether a solicitor should or should not be immune from liability for negligence in a case of this kind.
The fact that the beneficiary’s claim is based on a loss of expectation is, however, relevant for another reason. Traditionally, the protection of losses of expectation is the exclusive domain of the law of contract. The decision in Ross v Caunters can, however, be justified because it enables the solicitor’s contractual duty of care to be effectively enforced. After all, the testator’s purpose in consulting the solicitor, a skilled professional man, was to secure the benefit for the plaintiff: see Cane ‘Negligent solicitors and disappointed beneficiaries’ (1980) 96 LQR 185 and Atiyah Introduction to the Law of Contract (4th edn, 1989) p 396. Ross v Caunters can be fitted into the law of tort but only on the ground of special considerations.
It is true that in the present case the solicitor’s negligence consisted of a failure to act. The law of tort is generally reluctant to impose duties in cases of pure omission. In a contemporary note on Ross v Caunters, Cane argued that the solicitor’s culpable failure to draft a will is no more a pure omission than a driver’s failure to keep a proper look-out. Cane added (96 LQR 184):
‘A second, and, it is suggested, an illuminating way of looking at the matter is to treat the continuing professional relationship between the solicitor and his client, or alternatively the solicitor’s professional status, as imposing on him a positive duty to act when this is necessary for the careful performance of the functions which he was engaged to perform.’
I respectfully agree. While as a matter of fact negligence in failing to act may often be more difficult to establish than negligence in the drafting or executing of a will, there ought in principle to be no distinction between commission and omission in this particular field.
In my judgment there are no insuperable doctrinal difficulties in the recognition of a duty in tort. And there are cogent arguments which favour the recognition of a duty. The element of a close and direct relationship is present and satisfies the requirement of ‘proximity’ or ‘neighbourhood’ as explained in the Murphy and Caparo cases. The real question is whether it is fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose a duty. An attempt was made to invoke a type of floodgates argument. The submission was unrealistic: the type of liability would be narrow in scope. The scope of the potential liability under the Ross v Caunters rubric is to be contrasted with the concerns expressed in Murphy’s case. In a speech which had the approval of all their Lordships, Lord Keith said ([1990] 2 All ER 908 at 922, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 471):
‘In my opinion it is clear that Anns did not proceed on any basis of established principle, but introduced a new species of liability governed by a
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principle indeterminate in character but having the potentiality of covering a wide range of situations, involving chattels as well as real property, in which it had never hitherto been thought that the law of negligence had any proper place.’
Another concern in Murphy’s case was the practicality of obtaining adequate liability insurance in view of the wide-ranging potential liability. In the present case it became clear in argument that solicitors have experienced no difficulty since Ross v Caunters in obtaining adequate insurance cover. In practice solicitors are held covered in respect of such risks under ordinary professional indemnity policies. But I come back to the critical point that a coherent law of obligations ought not to render a solicitor’s undoubted responsibility to his client wholly ineffectual. And there is a broader consideration which has been well expressed by Cooke J in Gartside v Sheffield Young & Ellis [1983] NZLR 36 at 43. He stated:
‘To deny an effective remedy in a plain case would seem to imply a refusal to acknowledge the solicitor’s professional role in the community. In practice the public relies on solicitors (or statutory officers with similar functions) to prepare effective wills. It would be a failure of the legal system not to insist on some practical responsibility.’
Cumulatively, these factors suggest that prima facie the case for the recognition of a duty of care is made out.
But it was argued that a recognition of a duty will enmesh this branch of the law in intractable problems. The suggestion is that if a duty of care is recognised in this case it will prove an unmanageable principle. The law’s province is practical affairs, and it would be wrong to recognise a duty if it would prove impossible to confine it to acceptable limits. On this part of the argument I find myself in complete agreement with the judgment of Cooke J in Gartside v Sheffield Young & Ellis; see also Dugdale ‘The solicitor’s liability to third parties: the disappointed beneficiary’ [1984] NZLJ 316. I can therefore confine my observations to a few salient points. The possibility of a conflict between a testator and a proposed beneficiary was emphasised. It could arise. The answer must be that a solicitor could never owe to an intended beneficiary a duty which was inconsistent with his duty to his client. There would be no liability in such a case. The question was posed of the effect of a disclaimer of liability, or a limitation of liability, as between testator and solicitor. On any view such cases will rarely occur. But, if they occur, it seems to me unavoidable that the duty will have to be limited in the way suggested by Robert Goff LJ in Leigh & Sillavan Ltd v Aliakmon Shipping Co Ltd, The Aliakmon [1985] 2 All ER 44 at 77, [1985] QB 350 at 399. It was said that there could be difficult problems of limitation. It is undeniable that limitation gives rise to difficult legal problems in many fields. The predicted problems will have to be addressed if and when they occur.
While I recognise that there may be difficult problems to be considered in future, it does not seem to me that Ross v Caunters created an uncontrollable principle. In my view the requirements of foreseeability, proximity and justice, which are needed to establish a duty, together with the concepts of breach, causation, loss and remoteness, are adequate to contain liability of the Ross v Caunters type within acceptable limits. And in my judgment the recognition of a duty of care in such a case, which involves very special considerations, will not
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assist arguments on the recoverability of other heads of economic loss. I would rule that Ross v Caunters was correctly decided.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
19 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords gave leave to appeal on terms as to costs.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Governor of Pentonville Prison and another, ex parte Lee
R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex parte Lee
[1993] 3 All ER 504
Categories: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WATKINS LJ AND OGNALL J
Hearing Date(s): 1, 4 FEBRUARY 1993
Extradition – Committal – Evidence – Evidence to be considered by magistrate – Duty of prosecution to provide unused material to defendant – Applicant seeking adjournment of committal proceedings to obtain statements allegedly throwing doubt on evidence by witnesses – Whether prosecution under duty to provide unused material – Whether magistrate under duty to take into account statements throwing doubt on evidence of prosecution witnesses – Extradition Act 1989, s 9(8).
Extradition – Restrictions on surrender – Trial for different offence on return – Applicant awaiting extradition to Hong Kong on charges of kidnapping, false imprisonment and blackmail – Corresponding legislation in Hong Kong and United Kingdom providing that fugitive not to be tried for offence other than that for which extradition made – No arrangement between United Kingdom and China – Victim of offence likely to be presumed dead – Possibility of prosecution in Hong Kong for murder on resumption of sovereignty by China – Whether magistrate entitled to take into account effect of change of sovereignty on applicant’s right to be tried only for offences for which extradition made – Extradition Act 1989, s 6(4).
The applicant was committed to custody by a magistrate to await extradition to Hong Kong in respect of charges of kidnapping, false imprisonment and blackmail. At the committal hearing the magistrate refused the applicant’s request for an adjournment in order, inter alia, to obtain documents in Hong Kong which he alleged threw doubt on the credibility of statements by two accomplices which were before the magistrate, and to call expert evidence as to the effect on the applicant, if he was in custody in Hong Kong when China resumed sovereignty over the colony in 1997. The applicant applied for a writ of habeas corpus and judicial review of the magistrate’s decision, for which a single judge had refused leave, contending that (a) where the principal evidence on which committal was sought was inherently suspect it was unfair to deny the applicant the opportunity
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to place such material before the court, which was then under a duty to take it into account, since in domestic criminal courts the prosecution was obliged to furnish the defence with all unused material and, furthermore, the requesting state should be under a duty in an appropriate case to furnish the magistrate with such unused material so that he could take it into account, and (b) since the victim of the kidnapping had not been seen since his abduction and was almost certainly dead, once the applicant was under Chinese jurisdiction he could be prosecuted for murder, which carried the death penalty, and would thereby lose the benefit of s 6(4)a of the Extradition Act 1989.
Held – (1) In extradition proceedings a magistrate had a limited function requiring him to examine the evidence before him and he was not required to embark on an inquiry as to the nature of any other suggested evidence. Since extradition proceedings were entirely the creature of statute and there was no express power in the 1989 Act, nor any principle of comity, affording the court any right to request further material from a requesting state as a condition precedent to committal for extradition, it followed that the requesting state was the sole arbiter of the material it chose to put before the court in support of its application. Further, (a) pursuant to s 9(2), a committal under the 1989 Act was akin to a domestic committal for trial, at which stage the prosecution had no duty to furnish the defence with unused material, (b) courts had consistently resisted attempts to import domestic criminal procedure into extradition proceedings in which it was assumed that the government would not have bound itself by treaty to such process if the requesting state would not act in good faith and the fugitive would receive a fair trial in the courts of the requesting state; accordingly, fairness was not a relevant criterion to the function of the committing court if there had been compliance with the terms of the 1989 Act, and (c) there was nothing warranting the conclusion that unused material existed. It followed that the magistrate had correctly declined the request for an adjournment to secure unused material (see p 508 e to g j to p 509 a j to p 510 b, post); Kindler v Canada (Minister of Justice) (1991) 84 DLR (4th) 438 adopted.
(2) The magistrate had to consider the specialty protection given under s 6(4) of the 1989 Act at the time the request was made and was not entitled to look into the future as that would destroy the principle of comity and reciprocity underlying the basis of extradition and would require the court to go outside the clear terms of s 6(4) of the 1989 Act. The applications for a writ of habeas corpus and judicial review would therefore be refused (see p 510 j to p 511 b h and p 512 g h, post); R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 3) [1992] 1 All ER 122 followed.
NotesFor evidence in committal proceedings for extradition, see 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 224-228 and for cases on the subject, see 24 Digest (1980 reissue) 1137–1140, 12055–12116.
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For restrictions on surrender in committal proceedings for extradition, see 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 218.
For the Extradition Act 1989, s 9(2), see 17 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 565, 572.
Cases referred to in judgmentsAlves v DPP [1992] 4 All ER 787, [1993] AC 284, [1992] 3 WLR 844, HL.
Kindler v Canada (Minister of Justice) (1991) 84 DLR (4th) 438, Can SC.
R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 3) [1992] 1 All ER 122, [1992] 1 WLR 36, DC.
R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577, [1993] 1 WLR 619, CA.
Thong Chai Sanguan Dikul v Government of United States (1992) 26 May, unreported, HK SC.
Cases also citedBeese v Governor of Ashford Remand Centre [1973] 3 All ER 689, [1973] 1 WLR 1426, HL.
Flickinger v Crown Colony of Hong Kong [1990] 3 NZLR 372, NZ HC; affd [1991] 1 NZLR 439, NZ CA.
R v Governor of Pentonville Prison, ex p Tarling [1979] 1 All ER 981, [1979] 1 WLR 1417, DC.
Application for habeas corpusWai-kit Lee applied by a notice of motion for a writ of habeas corpus ad subjiciendum directed to the governor of HM Prison Pentonville whereto he had been committed to custody pursuant to an order made on 18 May 1992 under the Extradition Act 1989 by Mr J G Connor, a metropolitan stipendiary magistrate sitting at Bow Street Magistrates’ Court, to await the direction of the Secretary of State for the Home Department on a request by the government of Hong Kong for his return. The applicant also applied by way of a renewed application for leave to apply for judicial review of the decision of the stipendiary magistrate refusing his application for an adjournment of the committal proceedings for inquiries to be made and/or for documents to be obtained and further and alternatively the refusal by the stipendiary magistrate to call expert evidence as to Chinese law following the refusal of his application by Rose J on 11 June 1992. The facts are set out in the judgment of Ognall J.
Michael Mansfield QC and James Montgomery (instructed by Whitelock & Storr) for the applicant.
Kevin De Haan (instructed by Macfarlanes) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
4 February 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
OGNALL J (delivering the first judgment at the invitation of Watkins LJ). This matter comes before us in two forms: first, by way of application for a writ of habeas corpus under the Extradition Act 1989; second, by way of a renewed application to apply for leave to seek judicial review after refusal by Rose J. Both applications stand or fall together.
On 18 May 1992 Mr J G Connor, a metropolitan stipendiary magistrate, committed the applicant in custody to await the decision of the Secretary of State in respect of three charges of kidnapping, false imprisonment and blackmail,
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allegedly committed by the applicant in Hong Kong. At the outset of those proceedings, the magistrate was requested to adjourn the proceedings for three purposes: (a) to enable lawyers in Hong Kong acting for the applicant to cross-examine the two accomplices who formed the substance of the prosecution case against the applicant: those accomplices are by name Hui Sui-hung (Hung) and Yan Sui-hing (Hing); (b) to enable documents to be sought and obtained in Hong Kong which the applicant’s advisers believed might be relevant to the credibility of those accomplices; (c) to enable the applicant to call expert evidence as to the effect on the applicant, if by then in custody in Hong Kong, of the resumption of sovereignty by China on 1 July 1997. This is the so-called ‘China point’.
The learned magistrate refused the request. He also rejected a submission that the evidence laid before him was insufficient in any event to warrant the applicant’s committal on the charge of blackmail. All those matters form the basis of the applications now before us. We will deal with them in the order in which they were advanced.
Mr Mansfield, on the applicant’s behalf, did not pursue the criticism that the magistrate should have granted an adjournment so as to afford an opportunity to the applicant’s lawyers to cross-examine the accomplices in Hong Kong. It is, therefore, unnecessary to say more about that point, save perhaps that its abandonment was no more than a realistic appraisal of its hopelessness.
We turn to the submission that the court should have allowed an adjournment to enable efforts to be made to obtain any documents throwing doubt on the accomplices’ evidence.
Each of the accomplices made written affirmations before a magistrate in Hong Kong on 8 October 1990. They were before the magistrate here. Mr Mansfield submits that in both cases it is probable, if not certain, that other documents exist which may throw light on the reliability and truthfulness of the affirmations. Either Hung and Hing have made other statements, or there will be records of interviews with the police. If such documents do exist, and if their effect was destructive of the evidence contained in the affirmations implicating the applicant, then the magistrate had a duty to receive such evidence, and to take it into account before deciding whether to commit the applicant.
Mr Mansfield has been unable to draw to our attention any authority in support of his submissions. He acknowledges that he could not maintain this argument as a matter of general applicability to all extradition hearings. But he submits that where the principal evidence upon which committal is sought is inherently suspect, then the magistrate is under a duty to take into account material of the kind for which the adjournment was sought in this case.
Essentially, he develops his argument on the basis of the duty of the prosecution in our courts to furnish the defence with all unused material. That is, of course, a principle of long standing in our domestic criminal courts. It was given emphasis in the Practice Note [1982] 1 All ER 734. It has received its most recent and wide-ranging exposition in the case of R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577, [1993] 1 WLR 619.
Section 9(8) of the Extradition Act 1989 requires a court to be satisfied that ‘the evidence would be sufficient to warrant his trial if the extradition crime had taken place within the jurisdiction of the court’. It is submitted that to deny the applicant the opportunity to place material of that character before the court is inherently unfair. It is unfair, because it deprives the magistrate of the capacity to do that which is his duty, namely, to consider whether there is sufficient evidence. If he deprives himself of the opportunity to receive such material which might render the affirmations evidentially worthless, then it is submitted that he is no
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longer judicially assessing the sufficiency of the evidence. He is (to use Mr Mansfield’s phrase) no more than a ‘rubber stamp’ of the extradition request and the Secretary of State’s authority to proceed under s 7 of the Act.
Mr Mansfield further submits that, in any event, it should be the duty of the requesting state in an appropriate case to furnish the magistrate upon request and in an appropriate case with the unused material so that he or she may take it into account.
We note that on 22 February 1991 the applicant’s solicitors wrote to the solicitors acting for the government of Hong Kong requesting copies of any other statements made by Hung or Hing. By reply, dated 10 April 1992, they were told:
‘As soon as Lee Wai Kit is returned to Hong Kong … we will supply you with all of the material to which you are entitled by law.’
Mr De Haan (on behalf of the respondents) has told us that the 1982 Practice Note is applied in the criminal jurisdiction of Hong Kong, and argument has proceeded before us upon the basis that the letter to which we have referred means that, if and when the applicant is extradited to Hong Kong, the prosecution will comply with those guidelines as part of the trial process. We mention this as a matter of record, though it has to be said that whether or not that is the case has not dictated our conclusions.
It is important to remember that the conduct of extradition proceedings is entirely the creature of statute. This has a number of consequences.
(1) The requesting state must be the sole arbiter of such material as it chooses to place before the court in support of its application and in purported compliance with the relevant domestic extradition legislation. It alone will decide what material in support of its allegations it places before the Secretary and the court under ss 7 and 9 of the 1989 Act. If it furnishes inadequate evidence, then it takes the risk that its request will be refused; in which event, it will be up to the requesting state to determine whether it starts fresh proceedings or not. Neither principles of comity nor the express terms of the Act afford the court in this country any right, still less power, to request further material from the requesting state as a condition precedent to committal. For that reason, the submission that the magistrate should, at the very least, have requested of the Hong Kong government a sight of any unused material is of no substance, and we reject it.
(2) Committal under the Extradition Act 1989 is in no sense part of this court’s trial process. Section 9(2) of the 1989 Act reads:
‘For the purposes of proceedings under this section a court of committal in England and Wales shall have the like jurisdiction and powers, as nearly as may be, including power to remand in custody or on bail, as a magistrates’ court acting as examining justices.’
No authority has been cited to us which affords a defendant charged with offences in this country right of access to unused material at the committal stage. It has generally been understood as a duty of the Crown to furnish such material pre-trial. But whether or not that is correct, it is clear from the words of s 9(2) that a committal under the Extradition Act is only akin to a domestic committal for trial ‘as nearly as may be’. Those words must be taken to mean as nearly as may be consistent with the terms and purpose of the extradition legislation. Proper regard must also be had to the limited function of the magistrate in extradition proceedings. That function is defined in s 9(8)(a) of the Act. That requires the magistrate to be satisfied ‘that the evidence would be sufficient to warrant his trial if the extradition crime had taken place within the jurisdiction of the court’. In our judgment, and for reasons which will appear hereafter, those words must be taken
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to require the magistrate to examine the evidence presently before him, and not to embark upon enquiries as to the nature of any other suggested evidence which might be before him in other circumstances.
A number of cases both here and abroad have remarked upon the distinction to be drawn between the character of the court exercising its extradition function as opposed to its function in the domestic proceedings forming part of our trial process.
Mr De Haan has reminded us that in all but the rarest of cases the court acting in extradition proceedings considers the evidence on paper. To suggest that even if available the court should weigh paper against paper of itself demonstrates the inherent unsoundness of the applicant’s argument. We were referred to Alves v DPP [1992] 4 All ER 787, [1993] AC 284 in which the House of Lords gave its reasons on 29 October 1992. There, it is quite clear that their Lordships were of the opinion that, even where the author of an affirmation before the committing magistrate later gave oral evidence before him repudiating the contents of his affirmation, the magistrate was still justified in committing the applicant on the basis of the affirmation. If that is so, the respondent submits, that demonstrates the fallacy in the applicant’s argument as to the unused material.
It may be that that argument by the respondent of itself affords a sufficient, albeit narrow, basis for rejecting this application. But there is highly persuasive authority to be found in the decision of Kaplan J in Thong Chai Sanguan Dikul v Government of United States (1992) 26 May, unreported. It is highly persuasive because the judgment was a subject of a petition for special leave to appeal to the Privy Council. It was heard by the Judicial Committee on 21 January of this year, and refused. It was founded on facts very closely analogous to those in the present case, and was the precursor of Mr Mansfield’s present arguments on unused material, most especially unfairness. Kaplan J referred with approval to the majority judgment of the Supreme Court of Canada in Kindler v Canada (Minister of Justice) (1991) 84 DLR (4th) 438. In the course of giving that judgment McLachlin J said (at 488):
‘While the extradition process is an important part of our system of criminal justice, it would be wrong to equate it to the criminal trial process. It differs from the criminal process in purpose and procedure and, most importantly, in the factors which render it fair. Extradition procedure, unlike the criminal procedure, is founded on the concepts of reciprocity, comity and respect for differences in other jurisdictions.
Subsequently, in his judgment Kaplan J said (of this and other observations to like effect):
‘This passage is helpful in that it underscores the very special nature of extradition proceedings having its roots in international comity. To supplement the local legislation, which give effect to treaty obligations by imposing doctrines of fairness applicable to domestic proceedings is to run a real risk of interfering with such treaty obligations.’
Before the Judicial Committee, Lord Griffiths observed to counsel for the applicant, in the course of argument, that although the duty to disclose unused material was a well-settled part of domestic criminal proceedings, extradition was ‘very different indeed’. We respectfully agree. It is of course right to observe that the law of extradition proceeds upon the fundamental assumption that the requesting state is acting in good faith and that the fugitive will receive a fair trial in the courts of the requesting state. If it were otherwise, one may assume that our government would not bind itself by treaty to such process. But that is not to say
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that it is the duty of our courts to enquire into the adequacy or otherwise of the procedural safeguard afforded to a defendant before those courts. Our courts have consistently resisted attempts to import the requirements of domestic criminal procedure into extradition proceedings. Provided that there has been a compliance with the terms of the 1989 Act, fairness is not a criterion relevant to the function of the committing court.
For this reason alone we consider that the magistrate was correct to decline the request for an adjournment to secure unused material. But there is a second reason and it is this. There is really no material in this case which would warrant us in concluding that unused material of the kind spoken to exists. No doubt Hung and Hing were interviewed. We know also that Hung was seen by an officer of the Hong Kong police on one occasion, when he identified a photograph of the applicant as one of those involved in these crimes. We also know, incidentally, that Hung gave evidence for the Crown at the trial of two accomplices named Chung and Mak who were convicted at a trial in late 1991 in Hong Kong. But nothing has been placed before us which demonstrated that either man has ever said anything to anybody in authority or otherwise which would tend to erode their credibility or reliability in implicating this applicant. Therefore, the purpose of the adjournment was in any event designed to afford no more than a ‘fishing expedition’ on behalf of the applicant. On that pragmatic basis alone, any refusal to grant an adjournment was fully justified. It was assuredly not unreasonable.
We turn to the next basis on which an adjournment was requested and refused. That was to enable the applicant to call expert evidence ‘concerning the peculiar position of Hong Kong in international law and Chinese sovereignty’ after 1 July 1997 (the so-called ‘China point’). The magistrate rejected it, on the basis that such evidence was irrelevant to the proceedings before him.
The applicant‘s argument here runs as follows. That, if extradited for these offences, he would be in custody in Hong Kong on 1 July 1997, when China resumes sovereignty over what will then be known as the Special Administrative Region of Hong Kong. That the agreement between Her Majesty’s government and China is silent on the question of the continuing rights of the applicant under the terms of the undertaking given by the government of Hong Kong in this case. That undertaking is dated 11 March 1992. It complies precisely with the undertakings required of a requesting state by virtue of s 6(4) of the Extradition Act 1989. But it is submitted that in this case the applicant may well not enjoy the protection of that undertaking once China resumes sovereignty. The victim of this kidnap has not been seen since his abduction in April 1990. He is almost certainly dead. He will in any event be presumed dead under Hong Kong law by April 1997. Therefore, there is no reason why, once the applicant is under Chinese jurisdiction, he should not be prosecuted for, and convicted of, murder. In China, we are told, the penalty for murder is death and the sentence is invariably carried out. Effectively, it is therefore submitted that the so-called specialty protection that would otherwise be enjoyed by the applicant may well be forfeit, and with the direst consequences.
In order to persuade the magistrate (or now this court) that the laws of China and its treaty position was relevant to the application of the specialty protection, Mr Mansfield would have to demonstrate that s 6(4) of the Act, or any other part of the Act, entitled the court to focus not solely upon the time that the request was made and the undertaking given, but into the future. In our judgment, he clearly fails to achieve that purpose, however certain that future (as he would contend) may be.
There are two reasons that lead us to that conclusion. First, it would drive a coach and horses through the principle of comity and reciprocity which underlies
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the basis of extradition. As the respondent correctly, in our judgment, put it in their skeleton argument, ‘all such arrangements are written in sand’. Specialty protection must be seen in the light of the possibility of change in the complexion of the requesting sovereign power, whether democratic or otherwise. But that cannot mean that the court is entitled to look outside the framework of the protection undertaken at the time of the request. To do so would be to act in defiance of the treaty with the requesting state. Secondly, and equally importantly, it would require the court to go outside the clear terms of s 6(4).
In R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 3) [1992] 1 All ER 122, [1992] 1 WLR 36 this point was raised and dealt with. The point there taken in an application for writ of habeas corpus was essentially the ‘China point’ taken by the applicant here. Giving the judgment of the court, Russell LJ said this ([1992] 1 All ER 122 at 131, [1992] 1 WLR 36 at 45):
‘Mr Nicolls and Miss Montgomery then made submissions upon the proper construction of s 6(4). Fundamental to those submissions is the proposition that the section deals with two existing juridical countries. In this case Hong Kong, through its government, is the requesting country for extradition, and the United Kingdom, through its government is the requested country. The section is not concerned with any other governments or with territories in a geographical sense. The 1989 Act contains reciprocal provisions binding upon the United Kingdom government in the event of a person being returned to the United Kingdom (see ss 18 and 19). Thus, it is submitted, the statute is very much geared to situations which prevail not in the future but at the time when the reciprocal provisions bear upon the requests as between the existing governments for extradition. Section 6(4) requires of a requesting state that there should be a specialty protection in that state. No state can give an undertaking beyond its own sovereign powers nor can the United Kingdom require a state to give an undertaking to bind a different state. The section cannot and does not contemplate anything more than a specialty protection such as was offered in this case by the Hong Kong government in respect of the colony of Hong Kong. Giving the words their natural meaning, ‘be dealt with there’ in sub-s (4) must mean ‘be dealt with in the colony and by the colony’.
In our judgment the construction submitted on behalf of the Hong Kong government and the prison governor is right. In order to give effect to s 6(4) it is not necessary, in our view, to look beyond the requesting state, and indeed we take the view that to do so would not only be unnecessary but would be to embark upon an exercise which would be wholly inappropriate when the court is construing the 1989 Act.’
For the reasons we have indicated, we would of our own motion have interpreted s 6(4) in this way. But, in any event, the decision in Ex p Osman (No 3) is binding upon us, and it is clear that it is fatal to this submission on behalf of the applicant.
It should be remembered that the magistrate commits the applicant to await the decision of the Secretary of State. It may very well be that the ‘China point’ has a political dimension to it which deserves the attention of the Secretary of State. But the magistrate was correct to treat it as irrelevant to his decision.
We can deal with the two remaining points quite shortly. Mr Mansfield submits that the specialty protection afforded by the government’s undertaking in this case, whilst a compliance with that required by s 6(4) of the Act, is less generous than that afforded under the like provision in Hong Kong. Rule 14(2) of the Fugitive Offenders (Hong Kong) Order 1967, SI 1967/1911 reads:
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‘A person to whom this section applies shall not, during the period described in subsection (3) of this section, be dealt with in Hong Kong for or in respect of any offence committed before he was returned to Hong Kong other than: … (b) any lesser offence proved by the facts proved for the purposes of securing his return.’
Mr Mansfield contrasts ‘lesser offence’ with the equivalent provision in s 6(4) of the 1989 Act, which does not include the adjective ‘lesser’. He therefore characterises the relevant English legislation as being less generous in the undertaking required of the requesting state than that required by Hong Kong’s own domestic legislation. He submits that it is unfair for our courts to accept an undertaking which is less generous that the undertaking required by Hong Kong’s own ordinance.
There is nothing in this point. The governing provision is s 6(4). Providing its minimum requirements have been complied with, then the court not only need not, but cannot, look further. These requirements have been complied with; there is a conclusive certificate to that effect under s 6(7) of the Act.
Lastly, it is submitted that the magistrate was wrong to commit the applicant for the offence of blackmail. It is submitted that even though there may be a prima facie case that the applicant lent himself to the kidnapping and false imprisonment, there was no prima facie evidence that the applicant knew that the purpose of the kidnap was to raise ransom, as opposed to some other (unspecified) purpose.
The victim was said to be the thirteenth richest man in Hong Kong. There was in fact a ransom demand for $US 60m, half of which was paid. The evidence before the magistrate cast the applicant in the central role of quartermaster or armourer to those effecting the kidnap. The magistrate gave a carefully reasoned judgment where, in effect, he concluded that although there was no evidence directly linking the applicant with the subsequent ransom demands, his central position in the kidnapping raised a clear prima facie inference that he was a party to it for the purpose which subsequently emerged, namely ransom.
We cannot fault his reasoning. In this context we are not a court of appeal. Our task is to ask ourselves whether the magistrate acting reasonably and directing himself properly as to the relevant law could have arrived at this conclusion. In our judgment, the magistrate clearly was justified in drawing the inferences that he did, and in committing the applicant in custody for this offence among others.
It follows that the Secretary of State may proceed to issue his warrant under s 12 of the Extradition Act 1989. The application for a writ of habeas corpus is refused, as are the renewed applications for judicial review.
WATKINS LJ. I agree.
Applications for writ of habeas corpus and for leave to apply for judicial review refused.
22 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Templeman and Lord Griffiths) refused leave to appeal.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v Bailey and another
[1993] 3 All ER 513
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIMON BROWN LJ, POPPLEWELL AND RATTEE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 18 FEBRUARY, 11 MARCH 1993
Criminal evidence – Admissions and confessions – Admission obtained in secretly recorded conversation with co-accused – Tape recording obtained by police subterfuge – Police bugging remand cell – Tape recording obtained after accused had been charged and had excercised right to silence – Whether evidence of admissions in tape recording admissible – Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s 78(1).
The appellants were arrested and charged with robbery. When interviewed by the police they exercised their right to silence. The next day they appeared before magistrates and were remanded in police custody so that they could be put up on identification parades. In the meantime the officer in charge of the case obtained permission to install listening equipment in one of the remand cells at the police station and when they were returned to the police station from the magistrates’ court the investigating officers, in order to avoid arousing their suspicions, pretended that they had been forced to place the appellants together in the bugged cell by an unco-operative custody officer. While in the cell together the appellants made damaging admissions in conversation which were recorded. At their trial the appellants submitted that the judge should exercise his discretion under s 78(1)a of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 to exclude the taped cell conversations but the judge ruled that they were admissible. The appellants were convicted. They appealed on the ground, inter alia, that the evidence of the taped conversations had been wrongly admitted.
Held – The evidence of the secretly taped conversations between the two appellants who had been placed in the same cell while on remand as the result of a police subterfuge was admissible at their trial, since the obtaining of evidence in such a way was not contrary to the Code of Practice for the Detention, Treatment and Questioning of Persons by Police Officers under the 1984 Act, notwithstanding that the police were not entitled to question them further because they had been charged. The police were under no duty to protect them from having the opportuntity to speak indiscriminately to each other if they chose to do so and there was nothing in the 1984 Act or the Code of Practice which prohibited the police from bugging a cell, even after an accused person had been charged and had exercised his right to silence. Accordingly, the judge had been entitled in the exercise of his discretion under s 78(1) of the 1984 Act to admit the evidence of the taped conversations. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 522 h to p 523 e g j to p 524 a, post).
Notes For the admissibility in evidence of tape and video recordings, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1157.
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For the discretion to exclude relevant prosecution evidence, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1060.
For the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s 78, see 17 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 228.
Cases referred to in judgmentR v Ali (Shaukat) (1991) Times, 19 February, CA.
R v Buchan [1964] 1 All ER 502, [1964] 1 WLR 365, CCA.
R v Christou [1992] 4 All ER 559, [1992] 1 QB 979, [1992] 3 WLR 228, CA.
R v H [1987] Crim LR 47, Crown Ct.
R v Jelen, R v Katz (1989) 90 Cr App R 456, CA.
R v Keeton (1970) 54 Cr App R 267, CA.
R v Maqsud Ali, R v Ashiq Hussain [1965] 2 All ER 464, [1966] 1 QB 688, [1965] 3 WLR 229, CCA.
R v Mason [1987] 3 All ER 481, [1988] 1 WLR 139, CA.
R v Mills, R v Rose [1962] 3 All ER 298, [1962] 1 WLR 1152, CA.
R v Stewart [1970] 1 All ER 689, [1970] 1 WLR 907, CA.
Appeals against convictionJason Gregory Bailey and Steven Simon Smith appealed with the leave of the single judge against their convictions on 3 July 1991 in the Crown Court at Nottingham before Judge Astill and a jury of three counts and one count of robbery respectively for which Bailey was sentenced to concurrent terms of seven years’ detention at a young offender institution and Smith to four years’ imprisonment. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Gavin Merrylees (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Bailey.
James Wood (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Smith.
Peter Joyce QC (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Nottingham) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
11 March 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIMON BROWN LJ. On 3 July 1991 after a 12-day trial before Judge Astill and a jury in the Crown Court at Nottingham, these two appellants were convicted and sentenced as follows: Bailey, on each of three counts of robbery, seven years’ detention in a young offender institution concurrent inter se and concurrent also with a term already being served for grievous bodily harm; Smith, on a single count of robbery, four years’ imprisonment. A third man, named Samuels, also stood trial on one of the robbery counts but was acquitted.
Against those convictions both appellants now appeal by leave of the single judge. The appeal concerns the admissibility in evidence of a number of highly incriminating remarks, tantamount to admissions of guilt, made and tape recorded during the course of conversations between these appellants whilst they were sharing a bugged cell at a police station after being arrested, charged and remanded into police custody. That being the sole point at issue it is unnecessary to indicate much as to the detailed circumstances of the robberies or the evidence (over and above the taped cell conversations) against these men. The following suffices.
The first robbery, of which both appellants were convicted, took place on 29 May 1990 at the Sun Valley Amusement Arcade in Nottingham. The arcade was
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raided by four men, identifiable only as black and by their clothing, who threatened the employees with an axe and cosh, handcuffed them, locked them in the lavatory, rifled the safe and gaming machines, and eventually, when the police arrived, fled with over £3,000 in cash (another £3,500 being left behind in a holdall), three of the men in a stolen car, the fourth, the appellant Smith, on foot to a nearby outhouse where he then hid. The other two robberies of which Bailey was convicted took place within quarter of an hour of each other on 4 June 1990. Each involved a second, unidentified man as well as Bailey. In each the shopkeeper was threatened, in one case with an imitation firearm, in the other the shopkeeper herself being kicked and her son punched in the face. Each involved money being stolen from the till, £150 from the first shop, nearly £4,000 from the second. Later that same night Bailey and Samuels were arrested when police officers stopped an Alfa Romeo motor car. An imitation firearm was later found in its boot. The following day, 5 June, Smith was arrested.
Apart from the contested tapes, there was a good deal of evidence against Bailey, evidence of various kinds including not least his identification by the shopkeeper involved in the second robbery. So far as Smith was concerned, the most direct evidence against him was the finding of his fingerprint together with items of clothing jettisoned after the amusement arcade robbery in the outhouse nearby. But there was other evidence against him too. That then brings us to the circumstances in which the disputed evidence, the covertly taped admissions, came to be obtained.
As stated, Bailey was arrested late on 4 June, Smith early on 5 June. On 5 and 6 June both were interviewed at length (Bailey on no fewer than five occasions) in the presence of their solicitors. Both exercised their right to silence. On the evening of 6 June both appellants (and Samuels too) were charged with conspiracy to commit robberies in the Nottingham area between 1 January and 5 June 1990: there were apparently some 12 robberies of which they and three other suspects then in custody were suspected. On the following day, 7 June, the officer in charge of the investigation, Det Chief Insp Warburton, sought and obtained from the deputy chief constable permission to install listening equipment in one of the remand cells. As Mr Warburton frankly stated in evidence on the voire dire: ‘I needed more evidence if possible.’
On 8 June the equipment was installed. The same day the appellants and Samuels appeared at the magistrates’ court. The police asked the Crown Prosecution Service to apply to the court for a remand in police custody, the stated object being to put these three men up on identification parades. It was hoped to begin these parades at 2 pm that day and, indeed, numerous arrangements were made for the purpose. In the event, however, this proved impossible: Bailey only got back to the police station at 6.40 pm, Smith at 7.30 pm; it was by then too late. Although upon the voire dire it was suggested that the real reason for seeking the men’s remand into police custody was to place them together in the bugged cell, and that the identification parades were merely a pretext, the judge found as a fact that the principal reason, indeed the overwhelming reason, was that given. There can be no challenge to that finding of fact and, indeed, none is advanced. We are, however, urged to note the judge’s further finding that the desire to use the recording equipment in the cell was at least an additional reason, if only a subsidiary one, for the request. Of this additional reason the magistrates were, of course, told nothing. The order was duly made under s 128(8) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 to which we shall return.
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Continuing with the story, upon the appellants’ arrival back at the police station on the evening of 8 June, the police were intent upon putting them into the same cell and, understandably, intent too upon allaying any suspicions they might have about the cell being bugged. To this end they acted out a scene (‘a charade’ as the trial judge called it) whereby they pretended that, so far from the investigating officers being anxious to put both men into the same cell, this was in fact quite contrary to their wishes and instead forced upon them by an unco-operative custody officer. There can be no doubt that this scheme (charade, trick, device, deceit, subterfuge, call it what one will) worked. Although it emerged from the taped conversations that Smith’s solicitor had actually warned him that the police would put the men together, make it look like an argument, and then listen, that ‘nothing is off the record when you do armed robberies’, Smith’s very first words to Bailey when they found themselves together in the cell indicated that he had in fact been entirely reassured (fooled) by the police officers’ play acting. Lulled as they thus were into a false sense of security the two accused then embarked upon a series of conversations which, all now agree, contained a number of most damning admissions.
Although at trial counsel sought to minimise the impact of these taped conversations, it is hardly surprising that the jury convicted as they did, particularly since neither appellant chose to give evidence. Bailey contented himself with a notice of alibi stating that he was not present at the robberies although he was unable to remember where in fact he was; Smith called alibi evidence which proved unimpressive, not least because it directly clashed with evidence given by another witness sufficiently friendly to the defence to be treated as hostile.
All that said, however, this is not a case where on any view it would be appropriate to apply the proviso. If, as the appellants submitted below, and now submit afresh, the evidence of the taped cell conversations was not properly admissible before the jury, then these men go free. The mere fact that the appeal is wholly without merit, in the sense that no one pretends these appellants to be other than guilty of the robberies of which they were convicted, does not prevent the point of law raised being one of substance which, if made good, entitles them to succeed. That indeed was the position in R v Mason [1987] 3 All ER 481, [1988] 1 WLR 139, one of the authorities to which we shall shortly come. Before turning to the detailed argument it is convenient first to summarise the points taken and then indicate how matters presently stand upon the authorities, one of which in particular, the decision of this court in R v Ali (Shaukat) (1991) Times 19 February, is closely in point and a substantial obstacle in the appellants’ path.
The arguments advanced upon the appeal fall essentially under two main heads.
First it is contended that the men’s remand into police custody and subsequent detention at the police station were themselves unlawful in a number of respects, being in particular contrary to various specific provisions of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, the Police and Criminal Evidence 1984 and the Codes of Practice thereunder.
Second it is said that the stratagem here adopted, even if not directly contrary to any express legislative provisions or the Codes of Practice, nevertheless undermined those provisions and more particularly the accused’s right to silence and so ought not to provide the Crown with admissible evidence. The matters canvassed under the first of those heads have not hitherto been considered by the courts with regard to admitting evidence of this sort; there are, however, a
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number of authorities bearing in varying degrees upon the second head of argument.
We turn now to the authorities, dealing quite shortly with the earlier ones but necessarily at somewhat greater length with the more recent cases.
In each of the first five cases put before us, we note that the evidence in dispute was admitted at trial and held by this court to have been rightly so admitted.
In R v Mills, R v Rose [1962] 3 All ER 298, [1962] 1 WLR 1152 the two appellants and two other prisoners, in separate cells divided by a corridor, spoke in voices loud enough to be heard by a police constable outside. The constable having set up a tape recorder in a neighbouring empty cell was allowed at trial to use the record of the tapes to refresh his memory. As the court observed ([1962] 3 All ER 298 at 302, [1962] 1 WLR 1152 at 1157):
‘These appellants brought on themselves what they suffered by being so fatuous as to shout incriminating observations across a corridor to one another.’
In R v Buchan [1964] 1 All ER 502, [1964] 1 WLR 365 the appellant while being questioned by the investigating officer had admitted offences in the belief that nothing was being written down. In fact, another officer in the room next door was making a contemporaneous note. It was plain on the evidence that, had the appellant known that, he would have remained silent. He failed in his argument that the evidence should be excluded as having been obtained by a trick. In R v Maqsud Ali, R v Ashiq Hussain [1965] 2 All ER 464, [1966] 1 QB 688 the appellants went voluntarily at the request of the police, before ever being arrested or questioned, to a bugged room where they incriminated themselves in conversation together. The court said ([1965] 2 All ER 464 at 469, [1966] 1 QB 688 at 702):
‘There is no question here of being in custody and subject to any Judge’s Rules. The criminal does not act according to Queensberry Rules. The method of the informer and of the eavesdropper is commonly used in the detection of crime. The only difference here was that a mechanical device was the eavesdropper. If, in such circumstances and at such a point in the investigations, the appellants by incautious talk provided evidence against themselves, then in the view of this court it would not be unfair to use it against them. The method of taking the recording cannot affect admissibility as a matter of law although it must remain very much a matter for the discretion of the judge.’
R v Stewart [1970] 1 All ER 689, [1970] 1 WLR 907 again concerned prisoners conversing together in police cells. On this occasion a detective constable, dressed to look like a fellow prisoner, placed himself in an adjoining cell and noted down the incriminating conversation. Again the evidence was admitted. There was clearly in R v Stewart an element of deceit lacking in R v Mills, R v Rose: the officer had disguised himself as a prisoner to lull the men into a false sense of security and put them off their guard. It made no difference. R v Keeton (1970) 54 Cr App R 267 involved an appellant who having been given permission to telephone his wife had his incriminating call noted down by an officer listening in at the switchboard. The court held that there was nothing oppressive or unfair about that (at 273):
‘There was no question of the police inviting him to make the call with any kind of undertaking express or implied that his call would not be overheard.
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He made the telephone call from the police station in circumstances involving an obvious risk that the conversation might be overheard.’
Today, we are asked to note, that practice would offend para 5.7 of the Code of Practice for the Detention, Treatment and Questioning of Persons by Police Officers (Code C of the Codes of Practice issued under the 1984 Act, s 66), which, so far as relevant, provides that, before a telephone call is made, the person shall be informed that what he says during it may be listened to and given in evidence.
We turn now to the group of four more recent cases.
It is convenient to take first R v Mason [1987] 3 All ER 481, [1988] 1 WLR 139, the one decision put before us in which this court allowed the appeal on the footing that the disputed evidence should have been excluded. In that case, following the appellant’s arrest for arson, and at a time when the police had no evidence whatever against him, they tricked him and his solicitor by untruthfully saying that his fingerprints had been found on part of a bottle used to start the fire. He was thereupon advised by his solicitor to answer the police’s questions and explain his involvement in the incident. A full admission promptly followed. This court (presided over by Watkins LJ, as in both the last two cases to which we shall come) allowed the appeal on the footing that the trial judge would have been bound to rule out the confession had he taken account of the deceit practised upon the appellant’s solicitor and exercised his discretion correctly. This was said ([1987] 3 All ER 481 at 484, [1988] 1 WLR 139 at 144):
‘It is obvious from the undisputed evidence that the police practised a deceit not only on the appellant, which is bad enough, but also on the solicitor whose duty it was to advise him. In effect, they hoodwinked both solicitor and client. That was a most reprehensible thing to do … This is not the place to discipline the police. That has been made clear here on a number of previous occasions … Before parting with this case, despite what I have said about the role of the court in relation to disciplining the police, we think we ought to say that we hope never again to hear of deceit such as this being practised on an accused person, and more particularly possibly on a solicitor whose duty it is to advise him, unfettered by false information from the police.’
Next R v H [1987] Crim LR 47, a first instance decision by Gatehouse J in the Crown Court at Winchester, the brief report of which is in these terms:
‘The defendant was accused of raping his girlfriend; he was arrested and interviewed under caution during which he asserted that intercourse had taken place with the woman’s consent. He was released pending further enquiries. The police installed tape recording equipment on the woman’s telephone with her consent. She then instigated a series of telephone conversations with the defendant … The court held that the tapes were a trap and would have an adverse effect on the proceedings, and that in all the circumstances, including the circumstances in which they were obtained, the court should exclude the evidence under section 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984.’
Next R v Jelen, R v Katz (1989) 90 Cr App R 456. Here the applicant, Jelen, complained of confession evidence obtained against him by a witness who, charged with conspiracy (the same conspiracy as Jelen was later charged with and ultimately convicted of) and bailed, then at the police’s request arranged tape recorded telephone conversations with him. His renewed application for leave to
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appeal failed. Giving the judgment of the court (again presided over by Watkins LJ) Auld J said (at 463–465):
‘It is argued on their behalf that the evidence was obtained by a trick and that the judge should therefore have excluded it as being unfair under the discretion to do so given to him by section 78(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. Counsel submitted that it was unfair for the following reasons: first, that Dempsey lied to Jelen when he told him that he had said nothing to the police; second, that it was a confidential discussion; third, that Dempsey was acting as the agent of the police and that they had, by the device of using him, avoided complying with the Code of Practice governing the questioning of persons by police officers. In support of these submissions, counsel relied upon H ([1987] Crim LR 47) … The judge distinguished H on the grounds, inter alia, that there the defendant had been arrested. He had been interviewed under caution. He had asserted his innocence and had then been released pending further enquiries, and there had then been a series of recorded telephone conversations, all instigated by the complainant. It is true, as submitted by counsel for Katz and Jelen, that this case went beyond the deliberate overhearing of a defendant in conversation. It involved the instigation by Dempsey of a recorded discussion with Jelen in which he deceived Jelen. There was undoubtedly an element of entrapment. But did that make it unfair so as to require the judge, in the exercise of his discretion, to exclude the evidence? He took the view that it was not unfair, and we can see no reason to disagree with him … As to the suggestion that the police were using Dempsey in this way to avoid the requirements of the Code of Practice governing them if they had chosen to question Jelen at that stage, the judge pertinently observed that Jelen had not been arrested. The provisions of the Code governing the detention, treatment and questioning of persons by police officers are for the protection of those who are vulnerable because they are in the custody of the police. [That sentence, we may note, was recently qualified in R v Christou [1992] 4 All ER 559 at 565, [1992] 1 QB 979 at 990, when Lord Taylor CJ pointed out that the code is not exclusively concerned with those in custody.] They are not intended to confine police investigation of crime to conduct which might be regarded as sporting to those under investigation. As to the reliance by counsel for Katz and Jelen upon H, we observe first that the decision of a judge whether or not to exclude evidence under section 78 of the 984 Act is made as a result of the exercise by him of a discretion based upon the particular circumstances of the case and upon his assessment of the adverse effect, if any, it would have on the fairness of the proceedings. The circumstances of each case are almost always different, and judges may well take different views in the proper exercise of their discretion even where the circumstances are similar. This is not an apt field for hard case law and well-founded distinctions between cases. As it happens, there were here a number of important differences between H and this case upon which the judge relied, most importantly, that the police here were at an early stage of their enquiry into Jelen’s alleged involvement and had not even interviewed him. However, it is sufficient for us to say that we see no reason why the judge need have felt constrained to exclude this evidence because of the contrary and cursorily reported decision of Gatehouse J. in H involving quite different facts.’
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Finally we come to R v Ali (Shaukat) (1991) Times, 19 February, an appeal against a conviction for murder. The central issue there, as here, concerned the admissibility in evidence of transcripts of covertly tape recorded conversations, in that case between the appellant and members of his family in the interview room at the police station the day after being charged. The argument there, as here, was that the confessions had been ‘blatantly obtained by the police by entrapment and deceit’, and, so it was contended, in breach of the Codes of Practice under the 1984 Act. What had happened, counsel submitted, ‘was so grossly obnoxious and unfair to an accused person that the court ought to be astute to ensure that ordinary fairness demanded that evidence gathered in that way should not be allowed to go before the jury’. The court rejected those arguments, holding first that (and we read from the transcript):
‘The circumstances in which the interview room was bugged, and the conversations which the appellant had with his family were recorded, are not comparable to any of the circumstances, so it seems to us, envisaged in these various provisions of the code which [counsel] … seeks heavily to rely upon … The code is absolutely silent as to a circumstance such as this, and it does not provide that there should be any kind of warning to an accused at a police station as to the fact that it might be possible that a police officer or police officers would in certain circumstances eavesdrop upon conversations that an accused person might be having with someone else at a police station, for example, with a fellow prisoner or with someone else with whom he was having an audible conversation about the matter in respect of which he was being kept in custody and in respect of which he may by that time have been charged. There is nothing in the code which prohibits, so it seems to us, inferentially or directly, what was done by the police here in bugging the interview room.’
Second, and more broadly, the court concluded from the decided cases:
‘… that recordings of conversations taken in an interview room which the police have bugged is admissible in law in court. The remaining question is always, therefore, whether a trial judge, having regard to the provisions of s 78 of the 1984 Act, should in the exercise of his discretion, having regard to the way in which the evidence has been gathered, admit it and, therefore, allow it to be heard by the jury … We are very firmly of the view that the police in the most serious circumstances of the investigations being conducted, whatever views some may have against eavesdropping by bugging and so on, did not act unlawfully, although the appellant by that time had been charged. There was clearly no oppression of him and no questioning at all. Even if we had formed a contrary view, we would not rule that the learned judge’s exercise of discretion was wrong. There is a very broad discretion given to the court under s 78, even to the extent of recognising that the method used was to gather evidence contrary to the code.’
By that last sentence we understand Watkins LJ to mean that, even had the disputed evidence been obtained in breach of some provision of the code, it still fell within the trial judge’s discretion under s 78 to admit it in evidence.
How then do the appellants seek to overcome the substantial obstacle presented by that body of authority, the decision in R v Ali (Shaukat) not least? First, as indicated, by contending that the disputed evidence in the present case resulted from, or was at the very least facilitated by, various breaches of specific
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statutory provisions, so that, the argument runs, it would be quite inappropriate to admit it. Before identifying the specific statutory breaches contended for, we may observe that only the first of these was raised below; the others first saw the light of day in perfected grounds delivered by Mr Wood, counsel freshly instructed on behalf of the appellant Smith, on the very eve of the appeal hearing. The arguments are these.
First Mr Wood reiterates an argument advanced at trial on behalf of Samuels that on the particular facts of this case the magistrates had no power to remand these accused into police custody. The argument requires consideration of s 128(7) and (8) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980:
‘(7) A magistrates’ court having power to remand a person in custody may, if the remand is for a period not exceeding 3 clear days, commit him to [detention at a police station].
(8) There a person is committed to detention at a police station under subsection (7) above—(a) he shall not be kept in such detention unless there is a need for him to be so detained for the purposes of inquiries into other offences …’
The argument turns upon the scope of the words ‘other offences’ within s 128(8)(a). These words, Mr Wood submits, are to be construed restrictively, to extend only to offences wholly unrelated to those already charged. Where, as here, the accused are already charged with an offence, conspiracy to rob, which is itself apt to encompass a number of individual robberies, then those individual robberies cannot properly be regarded as ‘other offences’ within the meaning of the section. We disagree. Suffice to say that in our judgment it is not merely unnecessary but would be quite artificial to construe the provision in the way contended for.
Next counsel argues that the court, and indeed the accused’s lawyers, were misled by the police having given one reason only for requesting a remand into police custody, namely their intention to hold identification parades, without making reference also to their subsidiary reason, their desire to put the men together in a bugged cell. This, says Mr Wood, using the cliché of the day, was being at the very least economical with the truth. Indeed, he submits, the case involves graver police misconduct even than in R v Mason [1987] 3 All ER 481, [1988] 1 WLR 139. Again we disagree. It is hardly necessary first to point out that to have announced this subsidiary reason would have been to destroy it. But put that thought aside. The short answer to the submission is that s 128(8)(a) of the 1980 Act in our judgment requires no more than that the magistrates be told whatever is directly pertinent to the question whether a need exists for the accused to be detained at a police station for the purposes of inquiries into other offences.
In the particular circumstances of this case, it was accordingly neither necessary nor appropriate to have indicated to the magistrates more than the police’s desire to hold identification parades to see whether these men could be identified in relation to specific robberies. Nor was there any question of misleading the accused’s solicitors: the police were under no positive duty to inform them of their plan to bug the accused’s cell and, unlike the position in R v Mason, they were given no false information. Ironically, indeed, Smith’s solicitors were actually alive to the possibility of the police using this stratagem.
Next Mr Wood submits that there was here a breach of s 36(5) of the 1984 Act, a provision clearly in play following the accused’s remand into police custody by the combined effect of s 128(8)(c) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 and s 39 of
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Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (neither of which we need cite). Section 36(5) provides so far as relevant:
‘None of the functions of a custody officer in relation to a person shall be performed by an officer who at the time when the function falls to be performed is involved in the investigation of an offence for which that person is in police detention at that time.’
The submission here is that by participating in the charade which allayed these men’s suspicions when they were put together into the bugged cell, the custody officer in effect surrendered his supervisory function to the investigating officers; his own impartiality was undermined; it was in reality the investigating officers who determined into which cell the accused should be placed and who thereafter had them in their custody. And, submits counsel in a related argument, there was also a breach of para 8.1 of Code C, which provides that: ‘So far as is practicable, not more than one person shall be detained in each cell.' Certainly so far as the custody officer was concerned, there were ample cells available for these accused to be detained separately.
Vigorously although these arguments too were urged upon us, we find no force in any of them. It seems to us wholly unreal to regard the custody officer as statutorily debarred from co-operating in the way he did with the investigating officers: he did not thereby allow them to usurp his functions. Nor do we accept that there was any breach of para 8.1 of Code C: given that it was not otherwise unlawful to use this stratagem, the men clearly had to be placed in the same cell; it was accordingly not practicable to detain them separately. Even, however, if this view be wrong, we would not regard so venial a breach of the code, a breach not even suggested to the trial judge, as a sufficient basis for impeaching the exercise of his discretion or for ourselves allowing this appeal on broad grounds of unfairness. None of Mr Wood’s arguments, therefore, persuade us that there are relevant dimensions to this case beyond those contemplated by the various authorities to which we have referred.
We turn accordingly to the second main head of argument, Mr Merrylees’ submissions that the practice followed here undermined the spirit of the code and in particular the appellants’ right to silence, submissions which in addition seek to distinguish R v Ali (Shaukat) on its facts.
Mr Merrylees’ argument runs essentially as follows. These appellants had chosen to remain silent at interview. They had been charged. By virtue of para 16.5 of Code C the police were precluded from questioning them further. Yet by placing them together in a bugged cell and making them believe they could not be overheard, they were being tricked into speaking, and indeed, because their cell was bugged, speaking to the police. For the same reason, it is submitted, these admissions cannot properly be regarded as voluntary.
This argument we cannot accept. Of course these accused at the relevant time could not properly have been subject to further police questioning. But that is not to say that they had to be protected from any opportunity to speak incriminatingly to each other if they chose to do so. Mr Merrylees’ argument in our judgment breaks down at the point where it seeks to equate voluntarily talking to each other with making involuntary statements to the police—statements made, it is said, through their co-accused acting as the police’s agent or instrument, an echo here of the arguments which failed in R v Jelen, R v Katz (1989) 90 Cr App R 456.
With regard to R v Ali (Shaukat), a decision of course binding upon us, Mr Merrylees submits that it is distinguishable first because the accused there had
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himself requested the visit from his family and had not needed to be tricked into believing their conversation together was entirely private; second because he had not exercised his right to silence but rather had lied at interview preparatory to setting up a bogus alibi defence.
In our judgment, however, neither of these factual differences provides any true basis for distinguishing R v Ali (Shaukat) or for following any different approach to the admissibility of the taped conversations. True it is that in R v Ali (Shaukat) the police did not need to resort to deceit beyond that involved in surreptitiously bugging the interview room in the first place: there was no charade required to allay the accused’s suspicions that he might be overheard. But in our judgment that is merely a detail. There was, after all, in R v Stewart [1970] 1 All ER 689, [1970] 1 WLR 907 trickery of a comparable kind to that used here: what difference in principle can there be between deceiving two accused into speaking freely together because they are tricked (a) by a police officer’s disguise into believing him to be a fellow prisoner who will not inform on them (R v Stewart) and (b) by the police’s play acting into believing that the cell is not bugged? To our minds, none.
As for the second suggested basis of distinction, we entirely share the view expressed by the trial judge in his admirably reasoned ruling that it would be nonsense to have a rule whereby the police are justified in bugging accused whom they believe to have lied at interview but not those who have chosen to remain silent. Nor do we find any logic in Mr Merrylees’ related suggestion that the police are entitled covertly to obtain evidence in rebuttal of an alibi (the Ali (Shaukat) case), but not for the less specific object of advancing the overall strength of their own case.
We recognise that R v Ali (Shaukat) itself is perhaps the first case which holds that evidence of this nature is admissible even though obtained after the accused has been charged—a significantly later point in the investigative process than had been reached, for instance, in both R v Maqsud Ali, R v Ashiq Hussain [1965] 2 All ER 464, [1966] 1 QB 688 and R v Jelen, R v Katz (1989) 90 Cr App R 456 where, as was stressed, the accused had never even been arrested or questioned. We recognise too that the present case involves an additional measure of trickery beyond that employed in R v Ali (Shaukat) itself, the play acting which was here required to allay the accuseds’ suspicions. We recognise finally that some may well think it odd and perhaps even unsatisfactory that alongside a rigorously controlled legislative regime governing the detention, treatment and questioning of those in police custody, parallel covert investigations of this nature can legitimately continue. But all that said, we not merely believe ourselves bound here by the principles enunciated in R v Ali (Shaukat) but see no reason to decry the police’s conduct in the present case nor to doubt the essential fairness of this evidence having been held admissible.
We regard as mere rhetoric Mr Wood’s submission that deceitful conduct of this sort drives a coach and horses through the code to the point where the police will in future not bother even to interview suspects. Manifestly this is not a stratagem to be used with any frequency: nothing would be more obviously self-defeating; it should be used only in grave cases. And manifestly nothing should be done oppressively or so as to render unreliable any admissions made—grounds in either case for objection under s 76 of the 1984 Act. But where, as here, very serious crimes have been committed, and committed by men who have not themselves shrunk from trickery and a good deal worse, and where there has never been the least suggestion that their covertly taped confessions were oppressively obtained or other than wholly reliable, it seems to us hardly
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surprising that the trial judge exercised his undoubted discretion in the way he did. If, contrary to our view, evidence of this sort is generally to be regarded as undesirable and inadmissible, then in our judgment it is for the codes to be extended accordingly. As the legislation and codes presently stand, we do not think it unlawful to have obtained, nor unfair to have admitted, these taped conversations. These appeals are therefore dismissed.
Appeals dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Re B and another (minors) (termination of contact: paramount consideration)
[1993] 3 All ER 524
Categories: FAMILY; Children
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BUTLER-SLOSS AND KENNEDY LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 9, 10, 17 DECEMBER 1992
Child – Care – Parental contact – Refusal to allow contact – Mother having regular unsupervised access to children – Local authority applying for order authorising it to refuse to allow contact – Local authority seeking to place children with prospective adopters – Whether children’s welfare ‘paramount consideration’ – Whether court required to have regard to local authority’s plans for children’s future – Children Act 1989, ss 1, 34(4).
In February 1991 the local authority was granted care orders in respect of two little girls, born in 1988 and 1990. They were placed with foster parents while plans were made for their adoption. The mother had been placed on probation for abandoning the girls and subsequently she kept in touch with them only erratically. Following the birth of a third child in 1992 the mother and baby moved into a residential home and after a period of assessment she was able to set up home with the baby on her own. From March 1992 the mother saw the two girls regularly and had frequent unsupervised contact with them in her new home, caring for them successfully. There was evidence that the girls enjoyed the visits. The local authority applied under s 34(4)a of the Children Act 1989 for an order authorising them to refuse to allow contact between the girls and the mother in order to enable them to place the girls with prospective adopters. The mother, who hoped that the continuing contact with the girls might lead to rehabilitation and their return to her, opposed the application. The judge granted the application, taking the view that he had no power to interfere with the plans put forward by the local authority for the adoption of the two girls. The mother appealed.
Held – On an application by a local authority under s 34(4) of the 1989 Act for an order authorising them to refuse contact between a child in their care and its parent, the court had a duty to consider and apply s 1b of the 1989 Act, which
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provided that when a court determined any question relating to the upbringing of a child, the child’s welfare should be the court’s paramount consideration. Accordingly the court was not precluded from reviewing a local authority’s long-term plans for a child, notwithstanding that it would only be in most unusual cases that a parent would be able to convince the court that there had been such a change of circumstances as to require further investigation and reconsideration of the local authority plans. It followed that the judge had erred in not appreciating that he was able, if he thought it right, to consider the mother as a possible future carer. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 532 d f g j to p 533 a c d g to j, post).
A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385, W v Hertfordshire CC [1985] 2 All ER 301, Re S (a minor) (access application) [1991] 1 FLR 161 and Re A and ors (minors) (residence order) [1992] 3 All ER 872 distinguished.
Dictum of Rattee J in West Glamorgan CC v P (No 2) [1992] 2 FCR 406 at 419 disapproved.
NotesFor parental contact with children in care, see 5(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 790–791.
For the Children Act 1989, ss 1, 34, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 392, 437.
Cases referred to in judgmentsA v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385, [1982] AC 363, [1981] 2 WLR 948, HL.
A and ors (minors) (residence order), Re [1992] 3 All ER 872, [1992] Fam 182, [1992] 3 WLR 422, CA.
S (a minor) (access application), Re [1991] 1 FLR 161, CA.
W v Hertfordshire CC [1985] 2 All ER 301, [1985] AC 791, [1985] 2 WLR 892, HL.
West Glamorgan CC v P (No 2) [1992] 2 FCR 406.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments Adams v Adams [1984] FLR 768, CA.
C v C (minors: custody) [1988] 2 FLR 291, CA.
C (a minor) (care order), Re [1992] 2 FCR 401.
Cheshire CC v B [1992] 2 FCR 572.
Cossey v Cossey (1981) 11 Fam Law 56, CA.
G v G [1985] 2 All ER 225, [1985] 1 WLR 647, HL.
Hereford and Worcester CC v EH [1985] FLR 975.
KD (a minor) (ward: termination of access), Re [1988] 1 All ER 577, [1988] AC 806, HL.
Kent CC v C [1993] 1 All ER 719, [1993] Fam 57.
M v H [1988] 3 All ER 5, [1990] 1 AC 686, HL.
Interlocutory appealThe guardian ad litem of two children appealed from the decision of Judge Gosling sitting in the Birmingham County Court on 18 September 1992 whereby he made an order authorising the local authority to refuse to allow contact between the children and their mother. The guardian ad litem’s appeal was supported by the children’s mother. The facts are set out in the judgment of Butler-Sloss LJ.
James Munby QC and Mhairi McNab (instructed by Young & Lee, Birmingham) for the guardian ad litem.
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Joanna Hall (instructed by Hall-Wright & Birks, Birmingham) for the mother.
Peter Horrocks (instructed by Stewart Dobson, Birmingham) for the local authority.
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the appeal would be allowed for reasons to be given later.
17 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. This is an appeal from the decision of Judge Gosling in the Birmingham County Court on 18 September 1992 to authorise the local authority to refuse to allow contact between two children and their mother. The appellant is the guardian ad litem of the two children and of their younger half-brother. The guardian ad litem is supported on this appeal by the natural mother of the three children. The local authority, who have a care order in respect of the three children, oppose the appeal.
The children are two little girls, L, born on 16 December 1988, who is four years of age, and K, born on 3 July 1990, who is two and a half, and a little boy, S, born on 4 March 1992, aged nine months. Neither the father of the girls nor the father of the boy took any part in this appeal. The mother is now aged 23. As a child she spent several years in care. She lived for some time with the father of the two girls and their relationship was volatile and violent. Against this background the two girls were born into a life of chronic instability, with frequent changes of address, parental disputes, lack of proper care for either child, and L in particular was placed in and out of temporary care or with friends or relatives. This very unsatisfactory period culminated, on 17 August 1990, in the children being left unattended in a twelfth-floor flat. They were made the subjects of place of safety orders and, on 23 August 1990, interim care orders. They returned to their mother in October but, in November, she left them again unattended. The children were again placed with foster parents, and the mother was arrested for abandoning them. On 3 December 1990 the children were placed with their present short-term foster mother, with whom they have remained for the last two years. The juvenile court made the care orders on 4 February 1991. Plans were made in May 1991 to arrange for the adoption of the two girls which were approved by the adoption panel in October. The mother, in the meantime, pleaded guilty to abandoning her children and was placed on probation. She kept in touch with the two girls, although erratically. She also wrote to the foster mother in November saying that she did not want any more contact with the girls for their sakes. She was pregnant at the time, unsettled in her plans and remorseful about her treatment of the children. After the birth of S the local authority arranged for her to go with the baby into a residential home run by the National Children’s Home. This decision was a considerable commitment of social work resources. Although the plan got off to a bad start, after the making of an interim care order on S, the mother eventually co-operated with the social workers and the staff at the home and, after one or two further problems, completed her period of assessment. The staff at the home clearly put a great deal of effort into helping the mother, with remarkably encouraging results. In the home her care of S was excellent. She needed reminding and support, but she was able to leave the home with S and set up home with him on her own; at the time of the hearing it had only been for a period of three weeks. The social worker in charge, according to the judge, said: ‘She has looked after [S] much better than we anticipated. She has made a very good job of [S].’
There remained concerns about her ability to care for S and she continued to need a high degree of support. We have been told, without any details, that since
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the hearing her care of S has been adequate and there are no plans to remove him from her, or, however, to discharge the care order.
From about March the mother was seeing the two girls regularly and has had frequent unsupervised contact with them, collecting them from their foster mother and taking them to her flat in the home. She has shown in the last few months determination and commitment to these contact visits, which has not been easy with two little girls on two buses across a big city. She has cared for them on these visits very successfully; the girls have enjoyed them and the contact with their baby brother. Since the hearing before the judge the twice weekly contact has continued at the mothers home.
At the hearing before the judge there were three applications. The first, by the local authority, was for a care order in respect of S. It was agreed by everyone, including the guardian ad litem, that there should be a care order but that he should continue to live with his mother. The second application was made by the mother to discharge the care order in respect of the two girls. There was no realistic chance of the girls going immediately to their mother and the application to discharge was dismissed, despite the request of the guardian to have it adjourned. The third application was by the local authority to authorise them to refuse to allow contact between the two girls and their mother under s 34(4) of the Children Act 1989 in order to be able to place them with prospective adopters. The mother opposed that application and asked for the contact to continue and to be increased. The underlying reason for the continuing contact was the hope of the mother that it might lead to rehabilitation and the return of the girls to her. The contact already taking place was incompatible with placing the children with prospective adopters. The local authority accepted that they had never attempted to assess the mothers ability to care for three children. Their view was, and is, that the mother has made significant strides in her ability to care for S but to expect her to care for three children is too much and will probably lead to the breakdown of all three placements, including the placement for S. They were concerned about the length of time the girls had lived with the short-term foster mother and the delay in placing them permanently. They considered that the children would not miss the contact with their mother, which the judge found to be true since their primary carer remains the foster mother. But they accepted that the contact visits had been successful and enjoyable for the children. The local authority had identified particularly suitable potential adopters who were, like the children, of mixed race and who would not be willing to accept continuing contact with the mother.
The guardian ad litem has been in the unusually valuable position of having been appointed at an early stage in the care proceedings and who had come back into the case for the purpose of these applications. In 1991 she approved of the plans to adopt the two elder children and saw no prospect of rehabilitation with the mother. She has, however, since the mother’s marked improvement during this year totally changed her view. A combination of the mothers increased maturity and demonstration of her ability to care for S, together with the very slow implementation of the adoption plan formulated as long ago as May 1991, has led the guardian to reconsider the possibility of the mother as a parent for all three children. She was very concerned that the mother has never been assessed on that basis and consequently she supported the mothers case before the judge and is the appellant in this court.
The main criticism of the decision of this very experienced judge by Mr Munby QC for the guardian ad litem is that he misapplied the provisions and powers of the new Children Act 1989. Passages in the transcript of evidence, as well as in the judgment, demonstrate that he was seeking the help of counsel as to the
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changes in the legislation and how those changes affected his jurisdiction. I think it would be fair to say that he did not get much help from counsel in his quest. I have great sympathy with the judge in his efforts to do his best for the children within the scope of this new statutory framework not yet fully explored and with very little in the way of decisions on its effect.
This case first came to the juvenile court under the previous legislation and orders were made in accordance with the provisions of s 1 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1969, but the current applications are made under the Children Act 1989. The new Act is a major piece of reforming legislation repealing most of the previous child care statutes and regulations. The Act provides its own statutory framework, which, together with the relevant rules, is comprehensive and self-sufficient. It marks a fresh start in this area of the law. Balcombe LJ in Re A and ors (minors) (residence order) [1992] 3 All ER 872, [1992] Fam 182 referred to the substantial changes created by the Act. I have my doubts as to the extent to which it will be helpful to pray in aid many of the earlier decisions of the appellate courts based on differently worded sections of now repealed legislation. The problems have not, of course, changed but there are marked differences in the statutory approach to many of them.
One major difference between the present and the former legislation is the entry into care. At the time of the 1991 care orders there were several different routes into care: in the juvenile court by an order under s 1 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1969, an order under the exceptional jurisdiction in the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 or the Domestic Proceedings and Magistrates Courts Act 1978, in wardship under the provisions of s 7(2) of the Family Law Reform Act 1969, admission to voluntary care, or a parental resolution by the local authority under the Children and Young Persons Act 1948. Now there is one route only into care, which is by a court order, and all courts exercise the same jurisdiction under Pt IV of the Children Act 1989.
Contact is another example. Once a child was in care, by whatever route, before the Children Act 1989 the decision as to continuing contact between the parent and the child in care was an administrative decision for the local authority which, before January 1984, a parent had no right to challenge. By the amendment to s 12 of the Child Care Act 1980 taking effect in 1984 a parent had the right to challenge a termination of access by a local authority after service of notice upon him. He had no right to challenge a reduction in access even to minimal levels. There is a dramatic shift in the philosophy of the legislation. By s 34(1) of the 1989 Act:
‘Where a child is in the care of a local authority, the authority shall (subject to the provisions of this section) allow the child reasonable contact with—(a) his parents …’
There is a presumption of continuing reasonable contact between the parent and the child in care unless or until a court order under s 34(4):
‘On an application made by the authority or the child, the court may make an order authorising the authority to refuse to allow contact between the child and any person who is mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (d) of subsection (1) and named in the order.’
The only power over contact left to the local authority in the absence of a court order is the emergency refusal of contact for a maximum of seven days (see s 34(6)). Even on the making of an emergency protection order (see s 44) there is a presumption of continuing contact (see s 44(13)).
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There is another important difference of which the judge was well aware and which had a marked effect upon his approach to this case. Before the implementation of the Children Act 1989 the powers of the magistrates’ court to make care orders did not extend beyond the making of the order. Thereafter the local authority took over the care of the child and was not subject to judicial control or monitoring other than by the limited remedy of judicial review (see A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385, [1982] AC 363, W v Hertfordshire CC [1985] 2 All ER 301, [1985] AC 791). By contrast, when a child was committed to care by a judge exercising the wardship jurisdiction in the High Court, or a Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 care order in the High Court or the county court, the judge was able to make directions and require the case to return for further consideration by the court. This monitoring by the court of a child in care has been specifically excluded by the 1989 Act. The earlier provisions have all been repealed. Section 100 of the 1989 Act excludes the wardship jurisdiction and the inherent jurisdiction of the High Court in respect of children to be placed in care or who are in care. Consequently, once a care order has been made, the court can no longer monitor the administrative arrangements for the child and has no say in those arrangements, unless there is an application before the court.
Towards the end of the evidence, the judge said:
‘This is a new Act. It is a new procedure, very largely. We are not dealing with matters in the way we used to and the philosophy of this Act is that if you make a care order you have handed the child over and the court steps back; it does not keep on doing what it thinks is best. That is it, you have cut the painter. That is why you have to be very careful about making care orders.’
In so far as the judge was drawing the distinction between the wardship power to monitor and the present legislation, he was entirely accurate in his assessment. In his judgment he said:
‘In my judgment, however, there is a further and an important difficulty in the way of the mothers approach and the guardian’s approach. This is that there are care orders in existence and no application is pursued to revoke them. The local authority’s powers and duties are set out in s 33 of the Act. Since it is not suggested that the court should revoke the orders it does not seem to me that it is right for the court to seek directly or indirectly to force the local authority’s hand and to influence them and put pressure on them to rehabilitate the girls with the mother. My view is that I should consider the application for leave to refuse contact with the mother in the context of the local authority’s plan to place the children for adoption, which I accept on the evidence that they will put into operation in the near future. In that context the issue must be whether the welfare of the children requires that contact should be refused.’
If the local authority’s plan to place for adoption is not capable of reconsideration, the judge was clearly right in his decision that contact was not possible in this case. The question arises as to the interplay between the plans of the local authority and the jurisdiction of the court and the proper exercise of its discretion under the wider range of orders available under the new Act.
Mr Horrocks for the local authority submitted that the principle in A v Liverpool City Council [1981] 2 All ER 385, [1982] AC 363 still inhibits the court from any interference with the adoption plans made for these two children and the judges approach was entirely correct. A v Liverpool City Council is still, in my respectful opinion, of the greatest relevance beyond the confines of child care law and the
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principle set out by Lord Wilberforce is equally applicable today, that the court has no reviewing power over the exercise of the local authority’s discretionary decisions in carrying out its statutory role. He said ([1981] 2 All ER 385 at 388, [1982] AC 363 at 373):
‘In my opinion Parliament has marked out an area in which, subject to the enacted limitations and safeguards, decisions for the childs welfare are removed from the parents and from supervision by the courts.’
In that case wardship proceedings were instituted in an attempt to obtain access leading to care and control, at a time when the natural parent had no right to access after a care order had been made. In W v Hertfordshire CC [1985] 2 All ER 301 at 303, [1985] AC 791 at 795, another unsuccessful attempt to invoke the wardship jurisdiction to review a decision of a local authority, Lord Scarman said:
‘The ground of decision in A v Liverpool City Council was nothing to do with judicial discretion but was an application in this field of the profoundly important rule that where Parliament has by statute entrusted to a public authority an administrative power subject to safeguards which, however, contain no provision that the High Court is to be required to review the merits of decisions taken pursuant to the power, the High Court has no right to intervene.’
The remedy for an abuse of power is judicial review, not the exercise of the wardship jurisdiction. As I have already indicated, the prohibition on the use of wardship is now given a statutory basis by s 100. I do not, however, believe that the important principle set out in A v Liverpool City Council and W v Hertfordshire CC applies to the intervention of the court in response to an application which is properly made, or fetters the exercise of the judicial discretion in an application under the 1989 Act.
Mr Horrocks further submitted that s 34(1) should be read as if to include that a court ought not to make a contact order if the effect was to undermine or thwart the long-term plans of the local authority charged with the responsibility for the care of the child. He relied upon a decision of this court in Re S (a minor) (access application) [1991] 1 FLR 161, where we held that a juvenile court had the jurisdiction to make an order which was incompatible with the local authoritys plans for the child, but it should not, without good reason, exercise its discretion in such a way as to inhibit or frustrate those long-term plans. The appeal was heard at a time when s 12 of the Child Care Act 1980 was in force; the 1989 Act was on the statute book but not yet implemented. My judgment recognised the imminence of the new legislation and stated the application of the law as it then stood prior to a statutory presumption of continuing contact. In West Glamorgan CC v P (No 2) [1992] 2 FCR 406, decided after the Children Act 1989 came into force, Rattee J followed our decision in Re S and applied an even more stringent test. He did not consider for the purpose of the principle in Re S that there was any significant difference between the effect of the pre-Children Act 1989 law and the law as it is now. He said (at 419):
‘Given that the legislature has plainly enacted that only the local authority shall have the duty and power to decide whether a child in the child’s situation shall be placed for adoption, and given that the legislature has disabled the court from taking any part in that decision, it seems to me that in exercising such other powers as the court is given in relation to a child in that situation the court must start from the premiss that, unless somehow the local authority’s decision on the child’s long-term care can be attacked as
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being invalid on some such ground as being capricious (as contemplated by the Court of Appeal in Re S (a minor) (access application), that decision will stand and the court, in exercising its other powers, ought not to exercise them in a manner incompatible with that long-term decision of the local authority, unless satisfied by the most cogent evidence that for some reason the particular child’s welfare requires an exercise of the court’s powers in such a manner.’
I respectfully agree with his decision on the facts of that case but, in the light of the new child care legislation, I disagree with his formulation of the test to be applied. A s 34 application is clearly a substantive application in which the court is determining a question with respect to the upbringing of the child. The test applied by Rattee J requires to be read into s 34 restrictions which Parliament had the opportunity to insert and did not do so, unlike s 10(9)(d). This court drew the distinction in Re A and ors (minors) (residence order) [1992] 3 All ER 872, [1992] Fam 182 between an application for leave to apply for a s 8 order and a substantive application. On an application for leave, unlike a substantive application, it held that welfare is not the paramount consideration. By s 10(9)(d), on an application for leave to make an application for a s 8 order, the court shall have particular regard to the authority’s plans for the child’s future, if he is being looked after by the local authority. There is no such statutory requirement in s 34.
Decisions based on s 22 of the Child Care Act 1980, which has been repealed and not re-enacted, may not be equally applicable to applications under s 34 since the approach of the 1989 Act to contact is entirely different from the previous legislation. Consequently, the decision of this court in Re S, and particularly my judgment, must be read with considerable caution. I do not consider that my judgment adapts felicitously into the philosophy of the 1989 Act. The decision of this court in Re S would not, however, have been likely to be any different on the facts.
My understanding of the 1989 Act is that it aims to incorporate the best of the wardship jurisdiction within the statutory framework without any of the perceived disadvantages of judicial monitoring of administrative plans. It provides for the court a wide range of options and the possibility of its own motion to set in train a line of investigation not contemplated or asked for by the parties. Like wardship, however, these wide powers are to be sparingly used.
The present position of a child whose welfare is being considered under Pt IV of the 1989 Act appears to me to be that he will not be placed in care unless a court has been satisfied that the threshold conditions in s 31 have been met and that it is better to make a care order than not to do so. After the care order is made, the court has no continuing role in the future welfare of the child. The local authority has parental responsibility for the child by s 33(3). However, issues relating to the child may come before the court, for instance on applications for contact or leave to refuse contact, to discharge the care order or by an application for a s 8 residence order. The making of a residence order discharges the care order (see s 91(1)).
At the moment that an application comes before the court, at whichever tier, the court has a duty to apply s 1, which states:
‘(1) When a court determines any question with respect to—(a) the upbringing of a child … the child’s welfare shall be the court’s paramount consideration …’
The court has to have regard to the prejudicial effect of delay, to the checklist including the range of orders available to the court and whether to make an order.
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On a s 34 application, therefore, the court has a duty to consider and apply the welfare section.
Contact applications generally fall into two main categories, those which ask for contact as such and those which are attempts to set aside the care order itself. In the first category, there is no suggestion that the applicant wishes to take over the care of the child and the issue of contact often depends on whether contact would frustrate long-term plans for the child in a substitute home, such as adoption where continuing contact may not be for the long-term welfare of the child. The presumption of contact, which has to be for the benefit of the child, has always to be balanced against the long-term welfare of the child and particularly where he will live in the future. Contact must not be allowed to destabilise or endanger the arrangements for the child and in many cases the plans for the child will be decisive of the contact application. There may also be cases where the parent is having satisfactory contact with the child and there are no long-term plans or those plans do not appear to the court to preclude some future contact. The proposals of the local authority, based on their appreciation of the best interests of the child, must command the greatest respect and consideration from the court, but Parliament has given to the court, and not to the local authority, the duty to decide on contact between the child and those named in s 34(1). Consequently the court may have the task of requiring the local authority to justify their long-term plans to the extent only that those plans exclude contact between parent and child.
In the second category contact applications may be made by parents by way of another attempt to obtain the return of the children. In such a case the court is obviously entitled to take into account the failure to apply to discharge the care order and in the majority of cases the court will have little difficulty in coming to the conclusion that the applicant cannot demonstrate that contact with a view to rehabilitation with the parent is a viable proposition at that stage, particularly if it had already been rejected at the earlier hearing when the child was placed in care. The task for the parents will be too great and the court would be entitled to assume that the plans of the local authority to terminate contact are for the welfare of the child and are not to be frustrated by inappropriate contact with a view to the remote possibility, at some future date, of rehabilitation. But in all cases the welfare section has to be considered, and the local authority have the task of justifying the cessation of contact. There may also be unusual cases where either the local authority have not made effective plans or there has been considerable delay in implementing them and a parent, who had previously been found by a court unable or unwilling to care for the child so that a care order had been made, comes back upon the scene as a possible future primary caretaker. If the local authority with a care order decide not to consider that parent on the new facts, Mr Munby argued that it is for the court, with the enhanced jurisdiction of the 1989 Act, to consider whether even at this late stage there should be some investigation of the proposals of the parent, with the possibility of reconsidering the local authority plans. Mr Horrocks argued that the court cannot go behind the long-term plans of the local authority unless they were acting capriciously or were otherwise open to scrutiny by way of judicial review. I unhesitatingly reject the local authority argument. As I have already said, their plan has to be given the greatest possible consideration by the court and it is only in the unusual case that a parent will be able to convince the court, the onus being firmly on the parent, that there has been such a change of circumstances as to require further investigation and reconsideration of the local authority plan. If, however, a court was unable to intervene, it would make a nonsense of the paramountcy of the
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welfare of the child, which is the bedrock of the 1989 Act, and would subordinate it to the administrative decision of the local authority in a situation where the court is seised of the contact issue. That cannot be right.
But I would emphasise that this is not an open door to courts reviewing the plans of local authorities. Generally, where parties choose not to pursue applications, they are well advised not to do so. But there is now a flexibility in the approach of the court to the problems of the child before it, and occasionally the court may wish to invoke s 10(1)(b) of the 1989 Act, which provides that a court may, in any family proceedings, which includes care proceedings, make a s 8 order with respect to a child if the court considers that the order should be made, even though no application has been made. A court may also make a contact or an interim contact order and impose such conditions as it considers appropriate (see s 34(7)).
In my view the judge was in error in not appreciating that he was able, if he thought it right, to have another look at the mother as a possible future carer and give appropriate directions for assessments to be made. He did not look at the relevant issues of possible rehabilitation and delay and came to conclusions adverse to the mother. But those decisions are very much influenced by his belief that he had no right to interfere in any way with the plans put forward by the local authority. His conclusion that his hands were tied, in my view, vitiated his exercise of discretion and his decision cannot stand.
This court, therefore, has to decide whether the mother should be assessed as the potential carer of all three children. There is a large question mark over the wisdom of straining the placement for S by the possibility of putting all three children together in the care of a relatively untried mother. But the guardian ad litem and the social worker saw a real possibility that she might become an adequate mother for all three children. The decision requires consideration of the competing factors that on the one side there is the prospect that the mother may come up trumps and, if so, the enormous advantage for these three children to be brought up together by their own mother in preference to a substitute family, however suitable. On the other side there is the real danger that the problems would be too great, that the assessment would be disappointing and, most worrying of all, the danger that this attempt might imperil the relationship between the mother and S, who would be devastated by losing his mother at this stage. We must add to those factors the need to settle these children and the fragility of their present placement, from which they will have to move in any event, and the question of delay is very important. However, I have come to the clear conclusion that the mother’s potential must be investigated and not to do so would be unfair to the children and, if the prospective adoption application were to be made, might create a serious obstacle on the special facts of this case.
Since there is some urgency to have these matters looked at as soon as possible, we allowed the appeal last week, for reasons which we are now giving, and invited counsel to agree an order.
The appeal will be allowed on the terms of the order handed in.
KENNEDY LJ. I agree.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Note
Tustian and another v Johnston and another
Tustian v Johnston and another
[1993] 3 All ER 534
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Other Landlord And Tenant: AGRICULTURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): RUSSELL, EVANS AND HOFFMANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 25 MAY 1993
Agricultural holding – Arbitration – Compulsory submission to arbitration – Incorporation by statute of model clauses into tenancy agreement – Repairing obligations – Arbitration clause – Claim by tenants for damages for breach and specific performance of landlord’s obligation – Action stayed pending submission to arbitration – Stay lifted to allow application for summary judgment – RSC Ord 14 – Agriculture (Maintenance, Repair and Insurance of Fixed Equipment) Regulations 1973, Sch, para 15.
NotesFor the resolution by arbitration of claims and disputes between landlords and tenants of agricultural holdings, see 1(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 450, and for cases on the subject, see 2 Digest (Reissue) 55–59, 248–268.
For summary judgment under RSC Ord 14, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 410–419, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 29–47, 3101–3226.
For the Agriculture (Maintenance, Repair and Insurance of Fixed Equipment) Regulations 1973, Sch, para 15, see 1 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments 273.
Case referred to in judgmentsHayter v Nelson [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 265.
Interlocutory appeal Oscar Thomas Tustian and James Edgar Tustian, the plaintiffs in an action brought against the defendants, J M Johnston and the personal representative of Major E Robb deceased, and Mark Andrew Tustian, the plaintiff in an action brought against the defendants, James Middlemas Johnston and Anastasia Johnston, the trustees of the Eustace Robb Will Trust, appealed with the leave of the judge from the order of Knox J ([1993] 2 All ER 673) made on 13 March 1992 affirming the order of Mr R A Bowman sitting as a deputy master of the Chancery Division dated 17 September 1991 staying all further proceedings in their actions against the defendants for relief in respect of claimed breaches of repairing obligations imposed on the defendants as landlords of Leys Farm, Great Tew, North Oxfordshire, of which the plaintiffs had been or were the tenants. In view of the fact that the Court of Appeal allowed the appeal to the extent of lifting the stay for the purpose only of allowing the plaintiffs to apply for summary judgment in the actions under RSC Ord 14 and that the decision of Knox J was not questioned on the merits the decision of the Court of Appeal does not call for a full report. The facts are set out in the judgment of Evans LJ.
David Neuberger QC and Stephen Rubin (instructed by Burges Salmon, Bristol) for the plaintiffs.
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Edward Cole (instructed by Hewitson Becke & Shaw, Northampton) for the defendants.
EVANS LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Russell LJ). This is an appeal by the plaintiffs in two actions from a judgment given by Knox J on 13 March 1992 (see [1993] 2 All ER 673). It is sufficient to say that the learned judge decided that both actions should be stayed pursuant to the provisions of an arbitration clause in terms which are found in para 15 of the schedule to the Agriculture (Maintenance, Repair and Insurance of Fixed Equipment) Regulations 1973, SI 1973/1473, made under the Agricultural Holdings Act 1948, since replaced by the similarly named 1986 Act. The material words of para 15 are these:
‘If any claim, question or difference shall arise between the landlord and the tenant under the foregoing provisions hereof … such claim, question or difference shall be determined, in default of agreement, by arbitration under the Act.’
The claims in both actions arise from allegations that the defendant landlords are and have been in breach of their covenants to repair in leases of the plaintiffs’ farm property. The plaintiffs’ evidence includes a schedule of dilapidations and the findings of the Agricultural Lands Tribunal, south eastern area (chairman Mr Edward Evans-Lombe QC) of 8 January 1988. It should be emphasised that those proceedings, as well as being some years ago, were concerned with a different issue from the question of repairs. However, in the course of the tribunal’s reasons and findings there was reference to the farm having fallen into ‘a lamentable state of disrepair’ (see [1993] 2 All ER 673 at 676).
The defendants’ only response to the plaintiffs’ evidence was, in effect, to make no admission with regard to the allegation that there had been a breach of the covenant to repair, although they made it quite clear that there is a substantial issue as to the extent of any such breach or, conversely, as to the extent to which such repairs are now required. Paragraph 7 of the affidavit of Mr Dixon, the defendants’ solicitor, reads as follows:
‘In this action the Plaintiff alleges that the Defendants are in breach of their obligations to repair and that as a result the Plaintiff has suffered loss in his farming enterprise. The Defendants put in issue the allegations of disrepair, and the losses alleged by the Plaintiff. Moreover the Defendants deny that the state of repair of the buildings on the farm has caused or contributed to any losses alleged by the Plaintiff.’
The judgment of Knox J distinguishes between what may be called ‘the fact of disrepair’ and the extent of any such dilapidations. He said ([1993] 2 All ER 673 at 677–678):
‘In both actions the defendants, who have not, it is accepted, taken a step in the action and therefore have not served a defence, have put in evidence to show that they put in issue the disrepair and also the extent of loss that may have been suffered by the respective plaintiffs in respect of any breach by the defendants or their predecessors. It is evident that there may be more doubt about the second, that is to say the loss, than about the existence of a substantial amount of disrepair in respect of which the findings of the agricultural lands tribunal need not be repeated.’
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The primary issue in the present appeals is whether the issues that arise in the action must be referred to arbitration. But a preliminary question has arisen in this way, that it is necessary to identify what those issues are. So far as liability is concerned, as distinct from the amount of any loss, there is merely the non-admission which I have already quoted. That, it may be assumed, is not enough to disclose the existence of a triable issue for the purposes of an application for summary judgment under RSC Ord 14. No such application is before the court, but recent authorities have shown that the question which arises on an Ord 14 application (ie whether a triable issue is shown to exist or not, and putting on one side the related question whether for some other reason a trial might be ordered) is essentially the same as that which may arise on an application for a stay pursuant to an arbitration clause (ie whether there is a dispute or difference as required by the clause which is capable of being and is required to be referred to arbitration). Those authorities have recently been reviewed by Saville J in Hayter v Nelson [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 265 at 269–271. There is, as I observed, no Ord 14 application in the present case, nor has there been one. Strictly it is not necessary for the plaintiffs to make such an application, and it might be said that it was for the defendants on the present application to produce their evidence showing, if they so contend, that there is a triable issue with regard to liability as well as amount.
In the course of the appeal this morning, discussion has shown that this case is not without its complications so far as liability is concerned, not because of the absence of anything more than a mere non-admission or denial, but because the nature of the claims is such that there is considerable scope for discussion as to whether one, or more than one, cause of action is involved and, if more than one, how many causes of action upon which the plaintiffs may seek judgment. In these circumstances, and in the light of the amended notices of appeal for which leave has been given this afternoon, it seems to me that far the best course in the interests of both parties is to permit an Ord 14 application to be made in both these actions, and that we should therefore allow this appeal to the extent of lifting the stay for that purpose only. In the light of the outcome of the Ord 14 applications, it will then be possible for the parties to reconsider the position and, if necessary, to restore the appeal for further hearing or for such order as may seem appropriate in that new situation.
For those reasons I would allow this appeal to the extent that I have indicated.
HOFFMANN LJ. I agree.
RUSSELL LJ. I also agree.
Appeal allowed in part. Costs reserved.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
M v Home Office and another
[1993] 3 All ER 537
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Contempt Of Court: CONSTITUTIONAL; Courts
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 10–13, 17–19 MAY, 27 JULY 1993
Contempt of court – Crown – Jurisdiction over Crown and ministers – Minister taking no action to comply with mandatory order pending hearing of application to discharge order – Whether Crown and government departments subject to contempt jurisdiction – Whether ministers and civil servants personally subject to contempt jurisdiction in respect of acts or omissions by them – Whether breach of undertaking given to court by or on behalf of minister or civil servant a contempt – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 31 – RSC Ord 53, r 3(10).
The applicant, a citizen of Zaire, arrived in the United Kingdom on 23 September 1990 and immediately claimed political asylum. That claim was rejected by the Secretary of State and a direction was made for his removal from the United Kingdom to Zaire at 6.30 pm on 1 May 1991. At 5.25 pm that day application for leave to move for judicial review was made to the judge in chambers. At about 5.50 pm the judge indicated that he thought that there might be an arguable point arising out of the application and that he wished the applicant to remain in the United Kingdom so that an application could be made the following day to a nominated judge. Counsel for the Secretary of State then gave what the judge took to be an undertaking to the court that the applicant would not, pending further hearing, be removed from the United Kingdom to Zaire. Counsel had no instructions to give such an undertaking and did not intend to do so but the order made in relation to the hearing recited that the hearing had been adjourned on an undertaking being given by counsel for the Home Office that the applicant would not be removed from the United Kingdom to Zaire. The judge’s wish that the applicant should not be removed, but not the fact that an undertaking had been given, was communicated to the Home Office but nevertheless the applicant was placed on board a flight to Zaire via Paris which took off at 6.47 pm. During the flight to Paris the Home Office became aware of the judge’s wish that the applicant’s removal be deferred but the view was taken that it would not be appropriate to intervene in Paris. The judge was not informed of the situation. Later that evening while the applicant was en route to Zaire from Paris the judge issued a mandatory order at 11.20 pm that the Home Secretary procure the return of the applicant to the jurisdiction of the court. That order was immediately faxed to the Home Office but by then the flight to Zaire had left Paris and the next day, after taking legal advice from Treasury Counsel, the Secretary of State decided to challenge the order and to withhold action to return the applicant from Zaire in the meantime. At a hearing of an application by the Secretary of State to discharge the judge’s mandatory order the judge, after hearing argument, held that he had had no jurisdiction to make the order and he therefore discharged it. However, he stated that in making the order in the first place he was not granting a mandatory injunction against the Crown but was seeking to compel obedience to an undertaking freely given to the court and which appeared to the court to have been breached. Proceedings were then brought on behalf of the applicant against the Secretary of State for contempt of court in failing to comply with the undertaking and the judge’s order while it was in force. At first instance the judge dismissed the proceedings on the ground that the court had no
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jurisdiction over the Crown or a government department or officer of the Crown acting as such in respect of contempt of court since orders made against the Crown and undertakings given on behalf of the Crown were not enforceable against the Crown by any process of compulsion. On appeal, the Court of Appeal held that the Home Office could not be held guilty of contempt because the Crown as an entity and government departments were not subject to the contempt jurisdiction of the courts, but ministers of the Crown and civil servants were subject to the jurisdiction and the Secretary of State was guilty of serious contempt in withholding action to return the applicant from Zaire. The Secretary of State appealed.
Held – Having regard to the unqualified language of s 31a of the Supreme Court Act 1981 the court had jurisdiction under s 31 to make coercive orders, such as injunctions, in judicial review proceedings against ministers of the Crown acting in their official capacity, and under RSC Ord 53, r 3(10)b the court could grant interim injunctions against ministers. Furthermore, if a minister acted in disregard of an injunction made against him in his official capacity the court had jurisdiction to make a finding of contempt against him or his government department. Although contempt proceedings against a government department or a minister in an official capacity would not be either personal or punitive, a finding of contempt would demonstrate that a government department had interfered with the administration of justice and an order for costs could be made to underline the significance of the contempt. It would then be for Parliament to determine the consequences of that finding. On the facts, the judge in chambers hearing the application for judicial review made on behalf of the applicant had had jurisdiction to grant an injunction against the Secretary of State requiring him to procure the return of the applicant to the jurisdiction of the court, notwithstanding that the order was made before he had given the applicant leave to apply for judicial review. The Secretary of State, albeit in his official capacity, had properly been found to be in contempt in failing to comply with that order, in failing to keep the judge informed of the situation and in failing to protect the applicant’s position pending an application to the court to discharge the order. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 540 d, p 541 a to e, p 564 f g, p 567 a to h and p 569 b, post).
Dictum of Lord Bridge in Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692 at 708 doubted.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1992] 4 All ER 97 affirmed.
NotesFor contempt by disobedience of a court order or breach of an undertaking, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 69, 75, and for cases on the subject, see 16 Digest (Reissue) 81–84, 796–815.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 31, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 991.
Cases referred to in opinionsAdams v Naylor [1946] 2 All ER 241, [1946] AC 543, HL.
A-G v Times Newspapers Ltd [1991] 2 All ER 398, [1992] 1 AC 191, [1991] 2 WLR 994, HL.
Page 539 of [1993] 3 All ER 537
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, [1984] 3 WLR 1174, HL.
Dyson v A-G [1911] 1 KB 410, CA.
Ellis v Earl Grey (1833) 6 Sim 214, 58 ER 574.
Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692, [1990] 2 AC 85, [1989] 2 WLR 997, HL.
Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport (No 2) Case C-213/89 [1991] 1 All ER 70, [1991] 1 AC 603, [1990] 3 WLR 818, CJEC and HL.
Feather v R (1865) 6 B & S 257, 122 ER 1191.
Harper v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (1954) Times, 18 December; rvsd [1955] 1 All ER 331, [1955] Ch 238, [1955] 2 WLR 316, CA.
Hutton v Secretary of State for War (1926) 43 TLR 106.
Isaacs v Robertson [1984] 3 All ER 140, [1985] AC 97, [1984] 3 WLR 705, PC.
Merricks v Heathcoat-Amory [1955] 2 All ER 453, [1955] Ch 567, [1955] 2 WLR 56.
Padfield v Minister of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997, [1968] 2 WLR 924, HL.
R v Customs and Excise Comrs, ex p Cooke and Stevenson [1970] 1 All ER 1068, [1970] 1 WLR 450.
R v HM Treasury, ex p Smedley [1985] 1 All ER 589, [1985] QB 657, [1985] 2 WLR 576, CA.
R v Income Tax Special Purpose Comrs (1888) 21 QBD 313, [1886–90] All ER Rep 1139, CA.
R v Income Tax Special Purposes Comrs, ex p Dr Barnado’s Homes National Incorporated Assn [1920] 1 KB 26; rvsd [1920] 1 KB 468, CA; affd [1921] 2 AC 1, HL.
R v Kensington and Chelsea Royal London BC, ex p Hammell [1989] 1 All ER 1202, [1989] QB 518, [1989] 2 WLR 90, CA.
R v Licensing Authority, ex p Smith Kline French Laboratories Ltd (No 2) [1989] 2 All ER 113, [1990] 1 QB 574, [1989] 2 WLR 378, CA.
R v Powell (1841) 1 QB 352, 113 ER 1166.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Herbage [1986] 3 All ER 209, [1987] QB 872, [1986] 3 WLR 504.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Phanksopkar [1975] 3 All ER 497, [1976] QB 606, DC and CA.
R v Treasury Lords Comrs (1872) LR 7 QB 387.
R v Woods, Forests, Land Revenues, Works and Buildings Comrs, ex p Budge (1850) 15 QB 761, 117 ER 646.
Racal Communications Ltd, Re [1980] 2 All ER 634, [1981] AC 374, [1980] 3 WLR 181, HL.
Raleigh v Goschen [1898] 1 Ch 73.
Thompson, Re (1889) 5 TLR 565.
Tobin v R (1864) 16 CBNS 310, 143 ER 1148.
Town Investments Ltd v Dept of the Environment [1977] 1 All ER 813, [1978] AC 359, [1977] 2 WLR 450, HL.
Appeal and cross-appeal Kenneth Baker, the Secretary of State for the Home Department on 1 May 1991, appealed with the leave of the Court of Appeal from the decision of that court (Lord Donaldson MR and Nolan LJ (McCowan LJ dissenting)) ([1992] 4 All ER 97, [1992] 1 QB 270) delivered on 29 November 1991 allowing the appeal of the applicant, M, from the decision of Simon Brown J ([1992] 4 All ER 97) delivered on 26 July 1991 dismissing M’s motion dated 14 May 1991 to commit, inter alios, the Home Office and the Secretary of State for contempt of court in (1) causing
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or permitting M to be removed from the United Kingdom to Zaire in breach of an undertaking given by counsel for the Home Office to Garland J on 1 May 1991 that he would not be so removed pending an adjourned application for leave to move for judicial review of the decision of the Secretary of State refusing him leave to enter the United Kingdom on the ground of political asylum, and/or (2) failing to procure the return of M on 2 or 3 May 1991 in breach of the order of Garland J made on 2 May requiring such return. The Court of Appeal found Mr Baker, as Secretary of State, was in contempt of court by reason of his personal decision on 2 May 1991 to cancel the return flight of M to the United Kingdom. M cross-appealed. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Woolf.
Stephen Richards, Richard Gordon and Stuart Catchpole (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Home Secretary.
Sydney Kentridge QC, Richard Scannell and Anthony Bradley (instructed by Winstanley-Burgess) for M.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
27 July 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf. I agree with it, and for the reasons he gives would dismiss the appeal, while substituting the Secretary of State for Home Affairs for Mr Baker personally as the subject of the finding of contempt.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. Parliament makes the law, the executive carry the law into effect and the judiciary enforce the law. The expression ‘the Crown’ has two meanings, namely the monarch and the executive. In the seventeenth century Parliament established its supremacy over the Crown as monarch, over the executive and over the judiciary. Parliamentary supremacy over the Crown as monarch stems from the fact that the monarch must accept the advice of a Prime Minister who is supported by a majority of Parliament. Parliamentary supremacy over the Crown as executive stems from the fact that Parliament maintains in office the Prime Minister, who appoints the ministers in charge of the executive. Parliamentary supremacy over the judiciary is only exercisable by statute. The judiciary enforce the law against individuals, against institutions and against the executive. The judges cannot enforce the law against the Crown as monarch because the Crown as monarch can do no wrong but judges enforce the law against the Crown as executive and against the individuals who from time to time represent the Crown. A litigant complaining of a breach of the law by the executive can sue the Crown as executive bringing his action against the minister who is responsible for the department of state involved, in the present case the Secretary of State for Home Affairs. To enforce the law the courts have power to grant remedies including injunctions against a minister in his official capacity. If the minister has personally broken the law, the litigant can sue the minister, in this case Mr Kenneth Baker, in his personal capacity. For the purpose of enforcing the law against all persons and institutions, including ministers in their official capacity and in their personal capacity, the courts are armed with coercive powers exercisable in proceedings for contempt of court.
In the present case, counsel for the Secretary of State argued that the judge could not enforce the law by injunction or contempt proceedings against the
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minister in his official capacity. Counsel also argued that in his personal capacity Mr Baker the Secretary of State for Home Affairs had not been guilty of contempt.
My Lords, the argument that there is no power to enforce the law by injunction or contempt proceedings against a minister in his official capacity would, if upheld, establish the proposition that the executive obey the law as a matter of grace and not as a matter of necessity, a proposition which would reverse the result of the Civil War. For the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf and on principle, I am satisfied that injunctions and contempt proceedings may be brought against the minister in his official capacity and that in the present case the Home Office for which the Secretary of State was responsible was in contempt. I am also satisfied that Mr Baker was throughout acting in his official capacity, on advice which he was entitled to accept and under a mistaken view as to the law. In these circumstances I do not consider that Mr Baker personally was guilty of contempt. I would therefore dismiss this appeal substituting the Secretary of State for Home Affairs as being the person against whom the finding of contempt was made.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf. I agree with it, and for the reasons he gives would dismiss the appeal, while substituting the Secretary of State for Home Affairs for Mr Baker personally as the subject of the finding of contempt.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf I agree that this appeal should be dismissed, while substituting the Secretary of State for Home Affairs for Mr Baker personally as the subject of the finding of contempt.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, this appeal gives rise to issues of constitutional importance. It is an appeal from a decision of the Court of Appeal ([1992] 4 All ER 97, [1992] 1 QB 270) which by a majority (Lord Donaldson MR and Nolan LJ (McCowan LJ dissenting)) reversed a judgment of Simon Brown J ([1992] 4 All ER 97) and decided that Mr Kenneth Baker, when acting as Home Secretary, had been guilty of contempt of court.
This was the first time that a minister of the Crown had been found to be in contempt by a court. The finding of contempt was made for not complying with an injunction granted by Garland J ordering M, who had made a claim for asylum, which was rejected by the Home Office, to be returned to this country. The Court of Appeal did not regard the contempt as requiring any punishment of Mr Baker other than that he pay the costs of the appeal and, in so far as they related to the proceedings brought against him, in the court below. The Court of Appeal did not allow the appeal of M against the dismissal of his application that other respondents, including the Home Office, should also be found guilty of contempt. Mr Kentridge QC, in his argument on behalf of M, made it clear that he would only seek to rely on a cross-appeal against the decision as to the Home Office if, contrary to his primary contention, the decision of the majority of the Court of Appeal was wrong in relation to the responsibility of Mr Baker.
Mr Richards submits on behalf of the Home Office and on behalf of Mr Baker that neither the Crown in general, nor a department of state, nor a minister of the Crown, acting in his capacity as such, are amenable to proceedings in contempt. It is a necessary part of that submission that the courts also have no power to grant injunctions directed to such bodies and that the order which was made by
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Garland J, which it was held by Simon Brown J as well as the Court of Appeal that Mr Baker had contravened, was made without jurisdiction.
When advancing these submissions Mr Richards stressed that it was no part of his case that the Crown or ministers are above the law or that ministers are able to rely on their office so as to evade liability for wrongdoing. He argued that this was not a consequence of his submissions and he accepted that the Crown has a duty to obey the law as declared by the courts. He accepted that if a minister acted in disregard of the law as declared by the courts, or otherwise was engaged in wrongdoing, he would be acting outside his authority as a minister and so would expose himself to a personal liability for his wrongdoing.
The fact that these issues have only now arisen for decision by the courts is confirmation that in ordinary circumstances ministers of the Crown and government departments invariably scrupulously observe decisions of the courts. Because of this, it is normally unnecessary for the courts to make an executory order against a minister or a government department since they will comply with any declaratory judgment made by the courts and pending the decision of the courts will not take any precipitous action. Mr Richards submits that the circumstances which have given rise to the present proceedings are highly unusual and that the fact that Garland J felt it necessary to grant an injunction was due to a series of mishaps and misunderstandings. Mr Richards also submits that, irrespective of the answers to the legal issues, this is not a case in which it was appropriate to make a finding of contempt, since there was no question of Mr Baker seeking to act in defiance of the court, nor was there any intention to interfere with or impede the administration of justice. Support for these submissions is provided by two comments of Lord Donaldson of Lymington MR in his judgment in the Court of Appeal, the first being made at the outset of his judgment when he said ([1992] 4 All ER 97 at 121, [1992] 1 QB 270 at 284): ‘This case is remarkable for the chapter of accidents, mistakes and misunderstandings which has occurred.’
The second comment is part of the explanation which Lord Donaldson MR gave for concluding that, in the highly unusual circumstances of this case, Mr Baker’s responsibility for contempt fell at the lower end of the scale. The second comment is that Mr Baker ‘has disavowed any intention to act in defiance of an order of the court or to hold himself above the law, a disavowal which I fully accept’ (see [1992] 4 All ER 97 at 139, [1992] 1 QB 270 at 306).
The sequence of events which led to the majority of the Court of Appeal coming to the conclusion that Mr Baker was guilty of contempt are set out fully in the judgments of Simon Brown J and Lord Donaldson MR in the Court of Appeal. Although I will therefore summarise them as shortly as possible, I am afraid it is still necessary, especially in view of Mr Richards’ suggestion that it was unjust to find Mr Baker guilty of contempt, to set out the events in some detail.
The sequence of events
M is a citizen of Zaire. He arrived in the United Kingdom on 23 September 1990 and immediately claimed asylum. The claim was based on an allegation that he was a refugee within the meaning of the Convention relating to the Status of Refugees (Geneva, 28 July 1951; TS 39 (1954); Cmd 9171). He was interviewed and he was informed that the Home Secretary was minded to refuse his claim to asylum by a letter of 16 November 1990 which explained the basis upon which this preliminary decision had been reached.
M was then re-interviewed on 2 December 1990 and given an opportunity to comment upon the letter of 16 November 1990. His position was then reconsidered by the Asylum Division of the Home Office and on 17 December
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1990 a letter was written to M setting out that, his further comments having been considered, it was still not considered that he qualified for asylum under the terms of the convention.
The contents of the two letters make it reasonably clear that the decision to refuse asylum was due to the Home Office not accepting M’s accounts of events which resulted in his seeking asylum. This account involved him claiming that he was a teacher in Zaire who had encouraged other teachers to take strike action which resulted in demonstrations by students at his school; that he was arrested for having organised the strike and detained for three days during which time he was whipped and beaten; and that a guard, who he believed had been bribed by his father, had then smuggled him into an aircraft bound for Lagos where he acquired a false Nigerian passport and a ticket for a flight to London.
An application was then made for leave to apply for judicial review and as a result the directions which had been made for his removal by the Home Office, which had been set for 17 January 1991, were cancelled. The basis of the application for leave was that the Secretary of State had failed to consider certain facts. On 20 March 1991 the application was refused by Kennedy J. The removal directions were then scheduled for 28 March 1991. M then promptly applied to renew his application for leave before the Court of Appeal, but his solicitors failed to file the appropriate documents and so the application was not listed.
On 11 April 1991 M was examined by a doctor from the Medical Foundation for the Care of Victims of Torture and he prepared a report dated 12 April 1991 which set out his opinion as follows:
‘I found nothing in his history or its presentation to suggest that it was in any way unreliable. His description of prison conditions has been confirmed innumerable times by other people who have experienced them. The scars he bears are entirely compatible with the causes he ascribes to them. He is suffering a degree of deafness and spinal trouble quite likely to have arisen from his mistreatment. Psychologically he describes symptoms very likely to arise from the experiences he described. He shows some evidence of depression and his continued detention can only aggravate these symptoms and he could easily become a serious suicide risk.’
Regrettably the report was not sent to the Home Office until 30 April 1991, the day before the latest time which had been set for M’s removal, which was 6.30 pm on 1 May 1991. The Court of Appeal heard M’s application by interrupting its normal work for that day during the afternoon of 1 May and at about 4.55 pm Lord Donaldson MR, sitting with Nicholls and Farquharson LJJ, delivered a five page judgment giving the Court of Appeal’s reasons for unanimously refusing the application. Unbeknown to the Court of Appeal, arrangements were already being made for M to change his solicitors from those who had represented him up to that time, including in the Court of Appeal, on the basis that his case was not being fully deployed by his existing legal advisors. Outside the Court of Appeal the new solicitors for M and the counsel then instructed informed counsel for the Home Office and his instructing solicitor (Mr David Palmer) that a fresh application for leave to apply for judicial review was to be made on M’s behalf to Garland J, the judge in chambers, as it was outside normal court hours and there was no nominated Crown Office list judge available. It was indicated that the fresh grounds relied upon would include the availability of the medical report and the unreasonable reliance by the Home Office upon M’s failure to apply for asylum in Nigeria.
At about 5.25 pm on 1 May 1991 the hearing before Garland J commenced. At that stage it was appreciated that M’s aircraft was about to take off from
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Heathrow at 6 or 6.30 pm. Having heard part of the argument, Garland J not unnaturally took the view that the judge in chambers was not the proper tribunal to give leave to move for judicial review and that the obvious course was to adjourn the matter so that an application could be made the following day to a nominated judge. When it became apparent that Garland J wished M’s departure to be postponed Mr Palmer telephoned the Home Office to convey the judge’s wishes and told a senior executive officer at the Home Office that the judge had expressed the wish that M should not be removed from the United Kingdom and asked him to do his best to insure the removal did not take place. This was at approximately 5.50 pm.
In the absence of Mr Palmer a misunderstanding took place between counsel who was representing the Home Office and Garland J. Garland J understood that he had been given an undertaking by counsel on behalf of the Home Office that M would not be removed pending the making of an application the following morning. On that basis Garland J refrained from granting leave and adjourned the application. However, counsel for the Home Office did not intend to give an undertaking and did not believe that he had done so. However, the order which was made in relation to the hearing recited the fact that—
‘the application for leave to move for judicial review be adjourned on the undertaking by counsel for the Home Office … that the applicant would not be removed from the United Kingdom to Zaire.’
Unfortunately, through no one’s fault, the steps which Mr Palmer had set in motion to prevent M’s removal were unsuccessful and at 6.30 pm the aircraft carrying M commenced its departure for Zaire via Paris. The aircraft landed in Paris at 7.45 pm. The plane on which M was to continue his flight was not due to leave until 10.20 pm.
Prior to M’s departure from Paris, numerous discussions took place between officials of the Home Office, a member of Parliament who was intervening on M’s behalf, his new solicitor and subsequently Mr Peter Lloyd, the Parliamentary Under Secretary of State to the Home Office (the minister). The conversation which took place revealed a considerable confusion as to what was the precise situation. The Home Office officials and the minister were under the impression that the judge, whose identity they did not know, wanted M to be returned. The view was taken that it would not be appropriate to intervene in Paris, but it was decided that the judge should be informed about the situation. The Home Office officials were not able to contact a representative of the Treasury Solicitor and in fact although, subsequently, the identity of the judge was ascertained together with his telephone number, no one contacted him on behalf of the Home Office.
No action was taken by the Home Office to prevent M leaving Paris and at 10.40 pm the aircraft carrying M and his escort departed from Paris. It is accepted that at that time the minister was ignorant of any undertaking, as opposed to an informal request, being given by the Home Office until it was too late to have secured M’s return from Paris.
At about 11.20 pm M’s solicitor telephoned Garland J at his home and informed him what had happened and that, on M’s case, he would be exposed to a grave risk of persecution on his arrival in Zaire. Garland J then made a mandatory order on the telephone requiring the Home Secretary to return M to this country. The solicitor later at about 12.30 am visited Garland J at his home where the judge wrote out an order in the following terms:
‘Whereas at 1755 hours on Wednesday 1st May 1991, on an application to the Judge in Chambers for leave to move for judicial review of the determination that [M] was not entitled to the status of refugee, Counsel for
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the Home Office [Mr Richard Gordon] on instructions undertook to the Court that [M] would not be removed from the United Kingdom to Zaire pending an adjourned application for leave to move for judicial review so soon as possible on Thursday 2nd May 1991; And whereas the said undertaking was embodied in the order of the Court adjourning the said application; and whereas it appears to the Court that the said undertaking has been breached by the removal of [M]; Upon hearing Mr David Burgess, Solicitor, on behalf of the said [M] It is ordered that the Secretary of State for the Home Department by himself, his servants or agents do forthwith procure that
1. The said [M] be returned within the jurisdiction of this court, and further that:—
2. Pending the return of the said [M] he be kept in the care of the servants or agents of the Secretary of State and/or of the servants or agents of Her Majesty’s Government in Zaire until further order herein.
3. That the Secretary of State be at liberty to apply to vary or discharge this order at 10.30 a.m. on Thursday 2nd May 1991 …’
Having obtained the order the solicitor first informed the Home Office of its contents on the telephone and subsequently faxed a copy to the chief immigration officer. At about 1.40 am the minister’s private secretary, who was by then aware of the terms of the order and had spoken to a representative of the Treasury Solicitor, contacted the resident clerk of the Foreign and Commonwealth Office and asked him to contact Kinshasha immediately and arrange for M to be met on arrival by officials from the British Embassy, who should look after him and help him to return provided that he wanted to do so. However, it was not possible to contact the British Embassy until 7 am the following morning. In the meantime the minister had been informed of what had been arranged.
When the plane carrying M arrived at the airport at Kinshasa he was not met and was presented by his escort to the Zaire immigration authorities. Shortly afterwards he was seen by an official of the embassy. He told the official that he wished to return to London and he was booked on a flight due to leave Kinshasa at 9 pm that evening. His travel documents were taken for a return visa to be endorsed on them.
No application was made to Garland J at 10.30 am on 2 May in accordance with the terms of the order, though a message was left with his clerk that the Home Office wished to make an application and would be in touch again as soon as possible.
During the morning discussions took place between the minister and his officials but he concluded that the case raised issues of such importance that the instructions of the Secretary of State, Mr Baker, should be sought. A meeting with Mr Baker was arranged for 4 pm that afternoon which, having regard to his other commitments, was the earliest opportunity. At the beginning of the meeting Mr Baker knew nothing about the case. What happened at the meeting is set out in a note which was taken by Mr Baker’s private secretary for which public interest immunity was exceptionally waived. The meeting was attended by the minister, an assistant under-secretary of the Immigration Department, a member of the Legal Department of the Home Office and the respective private secretaries. The note describes what happened as follows:
‘The Home Secretary discussed the case of [M] with Mr Lloyd, Mr Platt, Mr Osborne and Ms Spencer this afternoon. 2 Having read the facts of the case, as set out in your briefing note of 2 May, the Home Secretary asked the
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grounds on which officials proposed that the court order should be opposed. Mr Osborne explained that Mr Justice Garland had exceeded his powers in making an Order that [M] should be returned directly from Zaire: it was a mandatory Order against the Crown and was outside our jurisdiction. Treasury Solicitors were expected to confirm later this afternoon that the Home Office should appeal against the Order and that [M] should not be returned to Britain. Mr Platt explained that, because [M] would require a visa or some form of entry clearance to re-enter Britain, it would be extremely difficult to remove him if, as expected, we won the case. Mr Lloyd was confident that the reasons for [M’s] removal still held good. The political difficulty was that the Home Office could be accused of having been dilatory in giving effect to the undertaking given by counsel to the judge. However, the undertaking had been that we would “do our best” to delay [M’s] removal, and the chronology of events clearly demonstrated that we had fulfilled this undertaking. 3 The Home Secretary fully supported the action taken and, subject to Treasury Solicitors’ [sic] advice, agreed in the present circumstances that [M] should not be returned to Britain.’
In an affidavit prepared for the hearing in the Court of Appeal, Mr Baker described how he came to his decision as follows:
‘... two factors operated on my mind in particular:—(1) The assurance which I received from Mr Lloyd [Peter Lloyd MP, Parliamentary Under Secretary of State at the Home Office, the minister responsible for immigration matters] that the underlying asylum decision in relation to [M] was the right one; and (2) legal advice (subsequently confirmed by Treasury Counsel) was to the effect that the Order of Mr Justice Garland was made without jurisdiction and that an application to set aside his Order would be made at the first opportunity ... I have to say that it was never suggested to me that my decision constituted contempt of Court and my whole understanding was that in the circumstances it was perfectly in order for the Home Office to apply to set aside the Order of Mr Justice Garland provided such application was prompt. I am sure that I never had it in contemplation to act in defiance of an Order of the Court, much less to hold myself above the law. If I am wrong in any of these conclusions or if the legal advice on which I acted was wrong, then it is a matter of sincere regret to me and I unreservedly apologise to the Court.’
The note is probably in error in para 3 in referring to the ‘Treasury Solicitors’ advice’. What was probably intended was to refer to the advice of ‘Treasury counsel’ with whom a conference took place at 5.15 pm. At the conference counsel advised that, as the liberty to apply granted by the judge (although spent) itself indicated, the Home Office should have an opportunity to challenge the order made late the night before but that the Home Office should take that opportunity at the earliest practicable time; in the meantime the Home Office might reasonably hold its hand. As a result the booking for M’s return flight was cancelled and arrangements were made for an application to be made to Garland J at 9 am on the following morning, 3 May. In the meantime M was seen at Kinshasha airport by officials and informed that there was no urgent need for him to attend court proceedings in the United Kingdom. He was asked to remain in touch with the embassy. He wrote down two addresses which he gave to the officials as to where he could be contacted. Nothing was done to protect him in the meantime.
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In accordance with the arrangements which had been made, on 3 May the application was made to Garland J to discharge the order that he had made. Though that application was opposed, Garland J came to the conclusion that he had had no jurisdiction to make the order, but indicated that he had made the order—
‘on the basis not that I was granting a mandatory injunction against the Crown, which clearly I could not do, on authority, but that I was seeking to compel obedience of an undertaking freely given to the court and which to the court appeared to have been breached.’
Later the same day a further conference took place with counsel. As a result of that conference in the light of Garland J’s holding that an undertaking had been received, a decision was taken by the minister to effect M’s return to the United Kingdom. It proved impossible to contact M at the addresses which he had given. He did eventually contact his solicitors from Nigeria and, although arrangements were made for his return from Nigeria, by the time those arrangements were made contact had been lost again and his whereabouts are now unknown.
On 7 May 1991 proceedings were commenced on behalf of M seeking to have the Home Office fined and Mr Peter Lloyd MP committed to prison or fined for contempt of court in failing to comply with the order made on 2 May. The notice of motion was subsequently amended, to include a number of other claims including a claim against Mr Baker. At the commencement of the hearing before Simon Brown J on 9 July, the only charges which were maintained were those against the Home Office and Mr Baker. Simon Brown J came to the conclusion that he had no power to make a finding that either the Home Office or the Home Secretary were guilty of contempt. He indicated that, if he had had such power, he would have found the Home Office in contempt in failing to prevent M being put on the plane in Paris when they had had notice that an undertaking had been given to the court and of its terms. With regard to Mr Baker, Simon Brown J said ([1992] 4 All ER 97 at 120):
‘Not without considerable hesitation, I have finally come to accept Mr Laws’s submission that, jurisdiction apart, it would be wrong to find the Secretary of State in contempt in the particular circumstances of this case. It is just not proved beyond reasonable doubt that he had a reasonable opportunity to decide to seek, and then in fact to seek, discharge prior to 9 00 am on 3 May. It is not sufficient for the applicant to establish merely that in an ideal world things would have been ordered differently. A respondent to contempt proceedings is entitled to a reasonably benevolent construction of his actions and decisions following receipt of a mandatory order made apparently without jurisdiction, not least when, as here, these actions and decisions are being guided at every step by responsible legal advisers.’
Before Simon Brown J, Mr Laws who was appearing for the Home Office and Mr Baker, but who had not appeared before Garland J when the alleged undertaking had been given, ‘did not feel it proper’ to dispute that the undertaking had in fact been given. As to this aspect of the case in the Court of Appeal Lord Donaldson MR said ([1992] 4 All ER 97 at 132–133, [1992] 1 QB 270 at 298):
‘Whilst I understand and respect Mr Laws’s attitude, I do not think that it would be right for the court to shut its eyes to the wholly exceptional circumstances of this case. In any ordinary circumstances if a party, or solicitors or counsel on his behalf, so act as to convey to the court the firm
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conviction that an undertaking is being given, that party will be bound and it will be no answer that he did not think that he was giving it or that he was misunderstood. Here, however, the circumstances were extraordinary and the pressures of time overwhelming. It was a situation in which a misunderstanding was waiting to happen. If, as I think, it would not be right to regard the Home Office or the Home Secretary as being bound by an undertaking at a time when all concerned left court at the conclusion of the hearing before Garland J, this position could not be altered by Mr Burgess [M’s solicitor] informing Mr George [the chief immigration officer] that an undertaking had been given. I do not, therefore, think that any question of contempt arises in this context. This is very far from saying that the Home Office can escape serious criticism. On any view the judge was informed that the Home Office would seek to prevent M leaving the United Kingdom and I should have thought that it was implicit in this that, if this proved impossible, any other practicable means of preventing his reaching Zaire would be adopted. This was why Mr Palmer left the court in order to telephone to the Home Office before the proceedings had been concluded. Given greater efficiency and determination, I have no doubt that M could probably have been prevented from leaving Heathrow and certainly he could have been returned to the United Kingdom from Paris. He was not unwilling and he was in the custody of the Home Office or its agents throughout the whole period ending with his arrival in Zaire.’ (Lord Donaldson’s emphasis.)
There is no reason for disagreeing with those criticisms. What does appear to me to be clear from the events which occurred on 1 and 2 May 1991 is that, if there is no power in a court to make an order to prevent the Home Office moving a person in any circumstances, this would be a highly unsatisfactory situation. The facts of this case illustrate that circumstances can occur where it is in the interests both of a person who is subject to the powers of government and of the government itself that the courts should be in a position to make an order which clearly sets out either what should or what should not be done by the government. If there had been no confusion in this case as to the extent of the court’s power, I have little doubt that Mr Baker would not find himself in his present position where he has been found guilty of contempt.
Lord Donaldson MR described Mr Baker’s contempt as ‘a very serious one’ because he had taken—
‘a deliberate decision which has the effect of ensuring that an order of the court, to whomsoever addressed, is not complied with, particularly when non-compliance could have had irremediable and even fatal consequences for M, for whose protection the order was made.’ (See [1992] 4 All ER 97 at 138, [1992] 1 QB 270 at 305.)
He however added ([1992] 4 All ER 97 at 138–139, [1992] 1 QB 270 at 305–306):
‘Any contempt of court is a matter of the utmost seriousness, but the culpability of the contemnor can vary enormously. In the highly unusual circumstances of this case, Mr Baker’s culpability falls at the lower end of the scale for the following reasons. (1) He had no advance knowledge of M’s case or of the court’s order before 4 pm on 2 May. (2) He had very little time in which to decide upon his course of action. (3) He was advised, wrongly, that the court’s order was made without jurisdiction and may have got the impression that it could be treated as a nullity. (4) Whether or not his advisers intended it, I think that he was left with the impression that he could
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properly delay action in compliance with the order until after the judge had decided whether or not to rescind it and that the cancellation of the return flight should be viewed as part of a decision by Mr Baker to postpone action rather than to decline to take it. (5) His decision was expressly made subject to any advice which might be given by Treasury counsel. (6) He has disavowed any intention to act in defiance of an order of the court or to hold himself above the law, a disavowal which I fully accept. (7) He has expressed sincere regret if he acted wrongly, as undoubtedly he did.’
Nolan LJ regarded Mr Baker as being in contempt because he—
‘interfered with the administration of justice by completing the removal from the court’s jurisdiction and protection of a litigant who was bringing proceedings against him.’ (See [1992] 4 All ER 97 at 146, [1992] 1 QB 270 at 314.)
Injunctions and the Crown
Mr Kentridge placed at the forefront of his argument the issue as to whether the courts have jurisdiction to make coercive orders against the Crown or ministers of the Crown. It was appropriate for him to do so for at least two reasons. First, and more importantly, because whether the courts have or do not have such a coercive jurisdiction would be a strong indicator as to whether the courts had the jurisdiction to make a finding of contempt. If there were no power to make coercive orders, then the need to rely on the law of contempt for the purpose of enforcing the orders would rarely arise. The second reason is that, on the facts of this case, the issue is highly significant in determining the status of the order which Garland J made and which it is alleged Mr Baker breached. If that order was made without jurisdiction, then Mr Richards would rely on this in support of his contention that Mr Baker should not have been found guilty of contempt. As Mr Richards admitted, the issue is of constitutional importance since it goes to the heart of the relationship between the executive and the courts. Is the relationship based, as he submits, on trust and cooperation or ultimately on coercion?
Mr Richards submits that the answer to this question is provided by the decision of Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692, [1990] 2 AC 85 and in particular by the reasoning of Lord Bridge of Harwich who made the only speech in that case. This speech was highly influential in causing Simon Brown J and McCowan LJ to take a different view from the majority of the Court of Appeal as to the outcome of the present proceedings. That case was not, however, primarily concerned with the question as to whether injunctive relief was available against the Crown or its officers. It involved the allegedly discriminatory effect of the requirement of British ownership and the other requirements of Pt II of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 and the associated regulations, which prevented fishing vessels which were owned by Spanish nationals or managed in Spain being registered under the legislation. This it was said contravened Community law. It was an issue of difficulty which had accordingly been referred to the European Court under art 177 of the EEC Treaty. The question then arose as to whether the applicants were entitled to interim relief pending the outcome of the reference. The primary contention of the applicants was that it was in the circumstances a requirement of Community law that interim relief should be available. This was an additional point as to which Community law was unclear so your Lordships’ House decided that that issue should also not be determined until after a reference under art 177. This meant
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that pending the outcome of the second reference your Lordships had to determine whether interim relief should be granted under domestic law.
In deciding whether under domestic law interim relief should be granted Lord Bridge initially examined the position without reference to the involvement of a minister. He concluded that no relief could be granted since English law unassisted by Community law treated legislation as fully effective until it was set aside. Lord Bridge described the position in these words ([1989] 2 All ER 692 at 703, [1990] 2 AC 85 at 142–143):
‘But an order granting the applicants the interim relief which they seek will only serve their purpose if it declares that which Parliament had enacted to be the law from 1 December 1988, and to take effect in relation to vessels previously registered under the [Merchant Shipping Act] 1894 from 31 March 1989, not to be the law until some uncertain future date. Effective relief can only be given if it requires the Secretary of State to treat the applicants’ vessels as entitled to registration under Pt II of the 1988 Act in direct contravention of its provisions. Any such order, unlike any form of order for interim relief known to the law, would irreversibly determine in the applicants’ favour for a period of some two years rights which are necessarily uncertain until the preliminary ruling of the European Court has been given. If the applicants fail to establish the rights they claim before the European Court, the effect of the interim relief granted would be to have conferred on them rights directly contrary to Parliament’s sovereign will and correspondingly to have deprived British fishing vessels, as defined by Parliament, of the enjoyment of a substantial proportion of the United Kingdom quota of stocks of fish protected by the common fisheries policy. I am clearly of the opinion that, as a matter of English law, the court has no power to make an order which has these consequences.’
Pending the outcome of the second reference this conclusion was in itself sufficient to determine the applicants’ appeal. However, Lord Bridge went on to give a second reason for his decision which is directly relevant to the present appeal. The second reason is that injunctive relief is not available against the Crown or an officer of the Crown, when acting as such, in judicial review proceedings. When determining this aspect of the appeal the House had the advantage of full argument on behalf of the Crown from junior counsel, Mr Laws (see [1990] 2 AC 85 at 119–126), as to why relief was not available, but judging by the report the House did not have the benefit of the very extensive argument in favour of the contrary view based on the historical development of proceedings against the Crown on which Mr Kentridge relied at the hearing of this appeal. In saying this I make no criticism whatsoever of counsel for the applicants in Factortame. It is clear that what for the Crown was a question of the greatest importance was for the applicants a sideshow. The Crown was anxious to have reconsidered the dicta in two cases which indicated that in judicial review proceedings injunctive relief could be granted against officers of the Crown. The first case was R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Herbage [1986] 3 All ER 209, [1987] QB 872. The second was R v Licensing Authority, ex p Smith Kline French Laboratories Ltd (No 2) [1989] 2 All ER 113, [1990] 1 QB 574, where the majority of the Court of Appeal approved the judgment of Hodgson J in Herbage. In both those cases the Crown had been unable to appeal as it had been successful and so the Factortame case proved an ideal opportunity in which to vindicate its view that the dicta were wrong. Since the decision in Factortame there has also been the important development that the European Court has determined the second reference against the Crown (see Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport
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(No 2) Case C-213/89 [1991] 1 All ER 70, [1991] 1 AC 603) so that the unhappy situation now exists that while a citizen is entitled to obtain injunctive relief (including interim relief) against the Crown or an officer of the Crown to protect his interests under Community law he cannot do so in respect of his other interests which may be just as important.
Before examining the second reason that Lord Bridge gave for his conclusion I should point out that I was a party to the judgment of the majority in the Smith Kline case. In my judgment in that case I indicated that injunctive relief was available in judicial review proceedings not only against an officer of the Crown but also against the Crown. Although in reality the distinction between the Crown and an officer of the Crown is of no practical significance in judicial review proceedings, in the theory which clouds this subject the distinction is of the greatest importance. My judgment in the earlier case may have caused some confusion in Factortame by obscuring the important fact that, as was the position prior to the introduction of judicial review, while prerogative orders are made regularly against ministers in their official capacity, they are never made against the Crown.
Lord Bridge in determining the second issue acknowledged the importance of the relevant history in determining this issue and it is necessary for me to set out my understanding of that history.
In support of their respective submissions as to the correct answer to this issue, Mr Richards and Mr Kentridge relied on principles which had been repeatedly reiterated down the centuries since medieval times. The principles on which Mr Richards founded his argument are that the King can do no wrong and that the King cannot be sued in his own courts. Mr Kentridge on the other hand relied on the equally historic principle which is intimately linked with the name of Professor Dicey that—
‘when we speak of the “rule of law” as a characteristic of our country, [we mean] not only that with us no man is above the law, but (what is a different thing) that here every man, whatever be his rank or condition, is subject to the ordinary law of the realm and amenable to the jurisdiction of the ordinary tribunals. In England the idea of legal equality, or the universal subjection of all classes to one law administered by the ordinary courts, has been pushed to its utmost limit. With us every official, from Prime Minister down to a constable or a collector of taxes, is under the same responsibility for every act done without legal justification as any other citizen. The reports abound with cases in which officials have been brought before the courts, and made, in their personal capacity, liable to punishment, or to the payment of damages, for acts done in their official character but in excess of their lawful authority. A colonial governor, a secretary of state, a military officer, and all subordinates, though carrying out the commands of their official superiors, are as responsible for any act which the law does not authorise as is any private and unofficial person.’ (See Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (10th edn, 1965) pp 193–194.)
In the course of argument we were referred to numerous authorities which supported these principles. However, in the present proceedings what is in dispute is not the validity of the principles but the manner in which in practice they were reconciled by the courts. The fact that the Sovereign could do no wrong did not mean that a servant of the Crown could do no wrong. Prior to the Crown Proceedings Act 1947 it was long established that what would now be described as private law rights could be established against the Crown either by bringing a petition of right or, in the case of an action in tort, when a petition of
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right was not available (Tobin v R (1864) 16 CBNS 310, 143 ER 1148), by bringing an action for damages against the servant of the Crown responsible for the tort in his own name. Such an action was possible since, as was pointed out by Cockburn CJ in Feather v R (1865) 6 B & S 257 at 296, 122 ER 1191 at 1205:
‘As the Sovereign cannot authorise wrong to be done, the authority of the Crown would afford no defence to an action brought for an illegal act committed by an officer of the Crown.’
However, difficulties did exist in relation to an action against an officer or servant of the Crown in an action for a tort. The officer or servant had to be identified. There could be no vicarious liability placed personally on an officer for the acts of other officers or servants of the Crown since the ‘employer’ was the Crown. Only a servant who committed or authorised the commission of the wrong could be responsible.
The position was accurately described by Romer J in Raleigh v Goschen [1898] 1 Ch 73 at 79. In that case the plaintiffs commenced an action against the Lords Commissioners of the Admiralty with the object of establishing that they were not entitled to enter or acquire by way of compulsory purchase land belonging to the plaintiffs and in order to obtain damages for trespass and an injunction to restrain any further trespass. It was held that while the plaintiffs could not sue any of the defendants as an official body they could sue the defendants individually for trespass committed or threatened by them personally. As the action was a claim against the defendants in their official capacity Romer J decided that it was misconceived and that the action did not lie. In the course of his judgment he said (at 79–80):
‘So, if any of the defendants had themselves ordered or directed the alleged trespass now complained of by the plaintiffs, and it was in consequence of such order or direction that the alleged trespass took place, or if any of the defendants threatened to order or direct further trespass, then they could be sued. But in this case they could be sued not because, but in despite of the fact that they occupied official positions or acted as officials. In other words ... the plaintiffs, in respect of the matters they are now complaining of, could sue any of the defendants individually for trespasses committed or threatened by them, but they could not sue the defendants officially or as an official body. The question ... narrows itself down to this: Is the present action one against the defendants as an official body, or is it an action against them as individuals?’
Having come to the conclusion that the action was against the defendants in their official capacity, Romer J considered whether he should give leave to amend. In explaining his decision not to give leave to amend, he stated (at 81) that to have done so would have amounted to changing ‘one action into another of a substantially different character’. He added that this was illustrated by the fact that—
‘an action against the defendants in their official capacity, supposing it to lie, would differ in most material respects from an action against them as individuals, as will be seen when consideration is paid to questions of discovery, and to the form of any interlocutory injunction or final judgment that could be obtained by the plaintiffs, and as to how and against whom such injunction or judgment could be enforced.’
When dismissing the action Romer J was careful to do so ‘without prejudice to any claim the plaintiffs’ might have ‘against any of the defendants individually, in
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respect of any trespass committed or threatened’ (at 82). In identifying the nature of the action, he did not confine himself merely to looking at the title: he examined the substance of the claim as it was disclosed in the pleadings.
The authorities on which the plaintiffs relied in Raleigh v Goschen for seeking an injunction against the Lords Commissioners of the Admiralty included Ellis v Earl Grey (1833) 6 Sim 214, 58 ER 574. The reasoning of Shadwell V-C for granting the relief claimed in that case is not entirely satisfactory. However, the argument of counsel expressed the position correctly when he concluded his submission in support of the bill, which included a claim for an order restraining the Lords of the Treasury from making certain payments in their official capacity, by saying of the Lords of the Treasury, that they—
‘are not made parties to the bill as public functionaries, but as mere stakeholders of the fund; and, in that character there can be no objection to their being restrained from making the payment as they have hitherto done, until the rights of the opposing claimants have been determined.’ (See 6 Sim 214 at 222, 58 ER 574 at 577)
The Vice-Chancellor presumably accepted this argument since he described the Lords of the Treasury as being ‘mere ministerial conduit-pipes for payment ... to the Parties entitled’ and overruled the claim of demurrer.
Raleigh v Goschen was applied in Hutton v Secretary of State for War (1926) 43 TLR 106 by Tomlin J. It is interesting to note that in the latter case the Attorney-General’s submission, which was accepted by the judge, made it clear that for the alleged breach of statutory duty the only remedy was ‘by petition of right unless the existing Secretary of State had acted wrongfully, and then he could be sued personally, but not as Secretary of State’.
The position so far as civil wrongs are concerned, prior to the 1947 Act, can be summarised, therefore, by saying that as long as the plaintiffs sued the actual wrongdoer or the person who ordered the wrongdoing he could bring an action against officials personally, in particular as to torts committed by them and they were not able to hide behind the immunity of the Crown. This was the position even though at the time they committed the alleged tort they were acting in their official capacity. In those proceedings an injunction, including, if appropriate, an interlocutory injunction, could be granted. The problem which existed in seeking a remedy against the Crown was not confined to injunctions. It applied to any form of proceedings and where proceedings were possible by suing the wrongdoer personally then an injunction would be available in the same circumstances as other remedies. If such a position required reconciling with the historic maxim as to the Crown doing no wrong, then this could be achieved by an approach, which Mr Richards endorsed in the course of argument, by saying that, as the Crown could do no wrong, the Crown could not be considered to have authorised the doing of wrong, so the tortfeasor was not acting with the authority of the Crown. (In this summary I put on one side the position with regard to a claim for immunity on the basis of act of state. This is not relevant for present purposes.)
The difficulty which a plaintiff might have in identifying the appropriate servant of the Crown who was the tortfeasor in practice was overcome by the Crown nominating the individual responsible for the damage and the lack of resources of the defendant did not cause problems since the Treasury would make an ex gratia payment of compensation if it was a case where, but for Crown immunity, the Crown would be vicariously liable. In such proceedings, if it was appropriate for an injunction to be granted, there was no reason why this should not be done.
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It was the criticisms in Adams v Naylor [1946] 2 All ER 241, [1946] AC 543, and the cases which applied those criticisms, of the practice of the Crown nominating a defendant who might not have been personally guilty of any tort which were the catalysts for the changes which were brought about by the 1947 Act.
However, before referring to that Act it is necessary to draw attention to one additional development in bringing proceedings against the Crown. This involved the grant of declaratory relief against the Crown. In Dyson v A-G [1911] 1 KB 410 it was decided that it was unnecessary to have a cause of action in order to obtain declaratory relief. This opened the door to proceedings for a declaration against the Crown, at least where the estate of the Crown was not involved (at 421), without the necessity of proceeding by petition of right. In such proceedings there would be no question of obtaining an injunction.
So far as civil proceedings were concerned the position was transformed by the 1947 Act. Section 1 enabled the Crown to be sued directly in those situations where prior to the Act a claim might have been enforced by petition of right. Section 2 in general permitted actions to be brought against the Crown in respect of torts committed by its servants or agents for any breach of its duties which gave rise to a tortious liability (including a breach of statutory duty where the breach created a cause of action). Section 2 did not remove the right to sue the actual tortfeasor.
Part II of the 1947 Act deals with ‘Jurisdiction and Procedure’. Section 17 provides for the Minister for the Civil Service to publish a list of authorised government departments for the purposes of the Act and requires civil proceedings against the Crown to be instituted against the appropriate authorised government department or, if there is no appropriate authorised department or where there is reasonable doubt as to the identity of the appropriate department, against the Attorney General. An examination of the current list indicates that some of the authorised departments are in fact the descriptions of the official names of individuals or collections of individuals who head the departments. Thus proceedings can be brought against a number of different Director Generals and bodies such as the Customs and Excise Commissioners or the Inland Revenue. However, there are other authorised departments which are not linked with the name of the head of the department, so, to take a typical example, the Home Office and not the Home Secretary is listed.
Lord Bridge in Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692 at 705–707, [1990] 2 AC 85 at 146–149 attaches importance to s 21 of the Act. Its terms are:
‘Nature of relief—(1) In any civil proceedings by or against the Crown the court shall, subject to the provisions of this Act, have power to make all such orders as it has power to make in proceedings between subjects, and otherwise to give such appropriate relief as the case may require: Provided that: (a) where in any proceedings against the Crown any such relief is sought as might in proceedings between subjects be granted by way of injunction or specific performance, the court shall not grant an injunction or make an order for specific performance, but may in lieu thereof make an order declaratory of the rights of the parties; and (b) in any proceedings against the Crown for the recovery of land or other property the court shall not make an order for the recovery of the land or the delivery of the property, but may in lieu thereof make an order declaring that the plaintiff is entitled as against the Crown to the land or property or to the possession thereof.
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(2) The court shall not in any civil proceedings grant any injunction or make any order against an officer of the Crown if the effect of granting the injunction or making the order would be to give any relief against the Crown which could not have been obtained in proceedings against the Crown.’
Before considering the provisions of s 21 in greater detail, it is convenient to refer to the relevant provisions of s 23(2) which limits the scope of Pt II of the Act, including s 21. The terms of that subsection are:
‘Subject to the provisions of this section, any reference in this Part of this Act to civil proceedings against the Crown shall be construed as a reference to the following proceedings only: (a) proceedings for the enforcement or vindication of any right or the obtaining of any relief which, if this Act had not been passed, might have been enforced or vindicated or obtained by any such proceedings as are mentioned in paragraph 2 of Schedule 1 to this Act; (b) proceedings for the enforcement or vindication of any right or the obtaining of any relief which, if this Act had not been passed, might have been enforced or vindicated or obtained by an action against the Attorney-General, any government department, or any officer of the Crown as such; and (c) all such proceedings as any person is entitled to bring against the Crown by virtue of this Act; and the expression “civil proceedings by or against the Crown” shall be construed accordingly.’
Section 23(2)(a) refers to petitions of right, (b) refers, inter alia, to proceedings for a declaration and (c) refers, inter alia, to proceedings in tort. The language of s 23 makes it clear that Pt II of the Act does not generally apply to all proceedings which can take place in the High Court. In particular, it does not apply to the proceedings which at that time would have been brought for prerogative orders. If there is any doubt about this, that doubt is removed by the general interpretation provisions of the Act contained in s 38, s 38(2) providing:
‘In this Act, except in so far as the context otherwise requires or it is otherwise expressly provided, the following expressions have the meanings hereby respectively assigned to them, that is to say ... “Civil proceedings” includes proceedings in the High Court or the county court for the recovery of fines or penalties, but does not include proceedings on the Crown side of the [Queen’s] Bench Division ...’
Proceedings for the prerogative orders were brought on the Crown side.
Returning to s 21, what is clear is that in relation to proceedings to which provisos (a) and (b) of s 21(1) apply, no injunction can be granted against the Crown. In addition there is the further restriction on granting an injunction against an officer of the Crown under s 21(2). That subsection is restricted in its application to situations where the effect of the grant of an injunction or an order against an officer of the Crown will be to give any relief against the Crown which could not have been obtained in proceedings against the Crown prior to the Act. Applying those words literally, their effect is reasonably obvious. Where, prior to 1947, an injunction could be obtained against an officer of the Crown, because he had personally committed or authorised a tort, an injunction could still be granted on precisely the same basis as previously since, as already explained, to grant an injunction could not affect the Crown because of the assumption that the Crown could do no wrong. The proceedings would, however, have to be brought against the tortfeasor personally in the same manner as they would have been brought prior to the 1947 Act. If, on the other hand, the officer was being sued in a representative capacity, whether as an authorised government
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department, for example, one of the named Directors General or as Attorney General, no injunction could be granted because in such a situation the effect would be to give relief against the Crown. The position would be the same in those situations where proceedings would previously have been brought by petition of right or for a declaration but could now be brought against the authorised department.
There appears to be no reason in principle why, if a statute places a duty on a specified minister or other official which creates a cause of action, an action cannot not be brought for breach of statutory duty claiming damages or for an injunction, in the limited circumstances where injunctive relief would be appropriate, against the specified minister personally by any person entitled to the benefit of the cause of action. If, on the other hand, the duty is placed on the Crown in general, then s 21(2) would appear to prevent injunctive relief being granted, but as Professor Sir William Wade QC has pointed out (‘Injunction relief against the Crown and ministers’ (1991) 107 LQR 4) there are likely to be few situations when there will be statutory duties which place a duty on the Crown in general instead of on a named minister. In broad terms therefore the effect of the Act can be summarised by saying that it is only in those situations where prior to the Act no injunctive relief could be obtained that s 21 prevents an injunction being granted. In other words it restricts the effect of the procedural reforms that it implemented so that they did not extend the power of the courts to grant injunctions. This is the least that can be expected from legislation intended to make it easier for proceedings to be brought against the Crown.
It is now necessary refer to Merricks v Heathcoat-Amory [1955] 2 All ER 453, [1955] Ch 567, a case which requires careful consideration because of the importance attached to it, as we shall see later, by Lord Bridge in Factortame.
In Merricks the plaintiff sought a mandatory injunction against the Minister of Agriculture, Fisheries and Food both in his personal capacity and in his capacity as minister, a corporation sole constituted by statute. The injunction required the minister to withdraw the draft of a statutory scheme regulating the marketing of potatoes which had been laid by the minister before Parliament for approval when acting in his capacity as minister and also restraining him from seeking approval of the scheme by Parliament. An application was made on behalf of the minister to strike out the proceedings as being misconceived. It was argued by the law officers on behalf of the minister that, in so far as the proceedings were brought against the minister in his official capacity , there was no jurisdiction to grant an injunction against a minister and, in so far as the proceedings were brought against the minister in his personal capacity, he could not and did not purport to lay the scheme in his personal capacity. It was also submitted that the minister owed no duty to the plaintiff and that, if he acted in a personal capacity, he acted as a member of Parliament, which involved parliamentary privilege. Not surprisingly Upjohn J acceded to the application. Even today on an application for judicial review it could be difficult to persuade a court to intervene on similar facts to those in the Merricks case, though in view of the decision in R v HM Treasury, ex p Smedley [1985] 1 All ER 589, [1985] QB 657 I do not go so far as to say it would be impossible to do so. However, the Merricks case was brought by what today can be described as private law proceedings and the plaintiff, most certainly in those proceedings was not entitled to seek any, and in particular injunctive, relief. He was not seeking to enforce any legal or equitable right to which he was entitled. He would as the law had so far developed lack the necessary standing to bring the proceedings. However, Upjohn J came to the conclusion that the minister ‘from start to finish ... was acting in his capacity as an officer
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representing the Crown’ and went on to say that as this was the position it was conceded that no injunction could be obtained against him and therefore the motion failed in limine (see [1955] 2 All ER 453 at 456, [1955] Ch 567 at 575). He added that he could not see how there could be the three categories of situation for which the plaintiff argued, the first being when the minister was representing the Crown, the third where he was acting in a purely individual capacity and the second, which he considered created the difficulty, involving a person designated in an official capacity but not representing the Crown. As to the second category, Upjohn J said ([1955] 2 All ER 453 at 457, [1955] Ch 567 at 575–576):
‘It is possible that there may be special Acts where named persons have special duties to perform which would not be duties normally fulfilled by them in their official capacity; but in the ordinary case where the relevant or appropriate Minister is directed to carry out the function or policy of some Act, it seems to me he is either acting in his capacity as a Minister of the Crown representing the Crown, or is acting in his personal capacity, usually the former. I find it very difficult to conceive of a middle classification.’
I do not find the scope of this statement clear. If Upjohn J was intending to suggest that it was not possible for a minister to be under a personal liability and subject to injunctive relief for wrongs committed by him in his official capacity then it is inconsistent with the authorities cited earlier. The approach indicated by those authorities was relied on by the plaintiff in Merricks [1955] 2 All ER 453 at 455, [1955] Ch 567 at 571 who cited in support the first-instance decision of Roxburgh J in Harper v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (1954) Times, 18 December. However, that was a case heard ex parte and Upjohn J did not in those circumstances attach importance to it. The case went to the Court of Appeal (see [1955] 1 All ER 331, [1955] Ch 238), where, without finally committing himself, Evershed MR in fact described the position accurately when he said ([1955] 1 All ER 331 at 339–340, [1955] Ch 238 at 254):
‘I return at the end of my judgment to the point which I mentioned earlier and on which I would say one final word, viz., the question of the defendant to this action. I have said that the defendant is “the Secretary of State for the Home Department”—sued, that is to say, by his official title as a Minister of the Crown. It is said by counsel for the plaintiffs that, since the report [of the Boundary Commissioners] disregarded the rules in the Act of 1949, therefore it is not a report within the meaning of the Act, and that the Secretary of State has neither the duty to the House or to anyone else nor the power or authority to take this proposed Order in Council to Her Majesty. I am not myself satisfied that counsel for the plaintiffs is not in this respect on the horns of a dilemma. If the whole thing is a nullity and all he seeks to do is to restrain a particular individual, who happens at the moment to be the Secretary of State, I am not satisfied that he ought not to sue him in his personal capacity as for an ordinary wrong—though, in that case, it would not be clear to me what breach of duty to the plaintiffs he was engaged on committing. On the other hand, if he does sue him, and rightly sues him, in his capacity as Secretary of State, then I am not satisfied, though I express no final view on it, as we have not heard full argument, that the case is one which, having regard to the terms of the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947, will lie. Moreover, I am not satisfied, having regard to s. 21 of that Act, that on this alternative the plaintiff could in any event obtain an injunction ...’
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(See also Merricks v Heathcoat-Amory [1955] 2 All ER 453 at 456, [1955] Ch 567 at 574.)
Upjohn J’s approach appears to treat a duty placed upon a named minister as being placed upon the government as a whole. This could be said to be in accord with the approach of Lord Diplock and Lord Simon in Town Investments Ltd v Dept of the Environment [1977] 1 All ER 813, [1978] AC 359. However, in that case your Lordships’ House was dealing with a very different situation, namely the consequence of a grant of a lease to a named department of government which can make the Crown and not the department the tenant. It is not appropriate to apply that approach to actions in tort, including actions for breach of statutory duty, since this would mean that the 1947 Act had the surprising effect of treating the wrongful act of a named minister as being that of the Crown so that the minister could no longer be sued personally in tort or for injunctive relief. Thus while the outcome of the Merricks case was correct, the reasoning of Upjohn J was incorrect, if and in so far, by his remarks which have been cited, he was seeking to suggest that a minister when acting in his official capacity could not be sued personally and an injunction granted. In any event his remarks could have no application to proceedings for the prerogative orders or judicial review which he was not considering.
I now turn to the historical development of relief against the Crown in prerogative proceedings. I do so because the historical development of the two sets of proceedings have been on different lines.
Prior to the introduction of judicial review, the principal remedies which were available were certiorari, mandamus, prohibition and habeas corpus. As we are primarily concerned with the possible availability of injunction, I will focus on mandamus and prohibition since they are indistinguishable in their effect from final injunctions. However, it should not be forgotten that, at least indirectly, the other remedies are capable of having a coercive effect. In addition, as in private law proceedings, once the Crown or a body representing the Crown is a party to proceedings, unless some express restriction exists, the Crown, like any other litigant, is liable to have interlocutory orders made against it with which it is required to comply, such as an order for discovery. Historically the result of issuing the writ of certiorari was to require proceedings of inferior bodies to be brought before the courts of chancery and common law so that they could be supervised by those courts and if necessary quashed. Habeas corpus similarly required the bringing before the courts of the body of the person concerned. As Re Thompson (1889) 5 TLR 565 vividly makes clear, the non-compliance with the writ of habeas corpus was a matter which at that time a Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division found no difficulty in treating as contempt by a captain of one of Her Majesty’s ships.
The prerogative remedies could not be obtained against the Crown directly as was explained by Lord Denman CJ in R v Powell (1841) 1 QB 352 at 361, 113 ER 1166 at 1170:
‘... both because there would be an incongruity in the Queen commanding herself to do an act, and also because the disobedience to a writ of mandamus is to be enforced by attachment.’
Originally this difficulty could not be avoided by bringing the proceedings against named ministers of the Crown (R v Lords Comrs of the Treasury (1872) LR 7 QB 387). But, where a duty was imposed by statute for the benefit of the public upon a particular minister, so that he was under a duty to perform that duty in his official capacity, then orders of prohibition and mandamus were granted
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regularly against the minister. The proceedings were brought against the minister in his official name and, according to the title of the proceedings, by the Crown. The title of the proceedings would be R v Minister, ex p the applicant (as is still the position today), so that unless the minister was treated as being distinct from the Crown the title of the proceedings would disclose the ‘incongruity’ of the Crown suing the Crown. This did not mean that the minister was treated as acting other than in his official capacity and the order was made against him in his official name. In accordance with this practice there have been numerous cases where prerogative orders, including orders of prohibition and mandamus, have been made against ministers. This was accepted by Mr Richards as being the position prior to the introduction of judicial review and I will merely refer to one authority, R v Customs and Excise Comrs, ex p Cooke and Stevenson [1970] 1 All ER 1068, [1970] 1 WLR 450 (which was not cited in Factortame ) to illustrate the position. Lord Parker CJ described the then situation of which he had great experience. He said ([1970] 1 All ER 1068 at 1072, [1970] 1 WLR 450 at 455):
‘Accordingly ... one approaches this case on the basis, and I confess for my part an alarming basis, that the word of the Minister is outweighing the law of the land. However, having said that, one moves on to the far more difficult question whether mandamus will lie. It is sometimes said as a general proposition that mandamus will not lie against the Crown or an officer or servant of the Crown. I think we all know in this day and age that that as a general proposition is quite untrue. There have been many cases, of which the most recent is Padfield v Minister of Agriculture, Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997, in which a mandamus was issued to a Minister. Indeed that has always been the case, as can be seen since as long ago as 1850 in R v Woods, Forests, Land Revenues, Works and Buildings Comrs, ex parte Budge (1850) 15 QB 761 at 768, 117 ER 646 at 649 Sir Frederick Thesiger expressed the proposition in argument in this form: “Whenever a person, whether filling an office under the Crown or not, has a statutory duty towards another person, a mandamus will lie to compel him to perform it.” Those words of Sir Frederick Thesiger were in fact adopted by Sir Alexander Cockburn CJ. There are, of course, cases in which it has been held that a servant or officer of the Crown may have as his only duty a duty towards the Crown. That, indeed, was the deciding factor in R v Treasury Lords Comrs (1872) LR 7 QB 387; but equally there are other cases, for example, R v Income Tax Special Purposes Comrs, ex parte Dr Barnado’s Homes National Incorporated Association [1920] 1 KB 26, and the well-known case of R v Income Tax Special Purpose Comrs (1888) 21 QBD 313, [1886–90] All ER Rep 1139, which show quite clearly that where by statute an officer or servant of the Crown has also a duty towards a member of the public, then provided that member of the public has a sufficient interest, mandamus will lie.’
It is interesting to note the comment by Lord Parker about mandamus not being available since similar comments were sometimes made about injunctions in private law proceedings. Nonetheless, there were limits at that time, as Lord Parker indicates, to the availability of mandamus. It was necessary that there should be a duty which was owed to the applicant as a member of the public. The duty which was required was not a private duty which would give rise to a right to damages in the event of a breach, but a public duty. In addition the duty had to be placed on a named minister. As already indicated, in most situations today statutory duties are conferred on ministers in their own name and not upon the Crown in general: see Professor Sir William Wade QC ‘Injunctive relief against
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the Crown and ministers’ (1991) 107 LQR 4. Furthermore, by the time of the introduction of the remedy of judicial review the position had developed so that the prerogative orders, including prohibition and mandamus, were being granted regularly against ministers without any investigation of whether a statutory duty, which had not been complied with, was placed upon the minister or some one else in the department for which the minister was responsible. Thus the Immigration Act 1971 places some duties on immigration officers and others on the Home Secretary, but even where it is the immigration officer who has not complied with the statutory duty it is the practice to make an order of mandamus against the minister (an example is provided by R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Phanksopkar [1975] 3 All ER 497, [1976] QB 606). As a result of even more recent developments, illustrated by the decision in the Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, a distinction probably no longer has to be drawn between duties which have a statutory and those which have a prerogative source.
After the introduction of judicial review in 1977 it was therefore not necessary to draw any distinction between an officer of the Crown ‘acting as such’ and an officer acting in some other capacity in public law proceedings.
The changes made in procedure introduced in 1977 by RCS Ord 53 for judicial review were first given statutory authority by primary legislation in s 31 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The relevant provisions of that section, which do not differ materially from the corresponding provisions of Ord 53, are:
‘Application for judicial review—(1) An application to the High Court for one or more of the following forms of relief, namely—(a) an order of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari; (b) a declaration or injunction under subsection (2); or (c) an injunction under section 30 restraining a person not entitled to do so from acting in an office to which that section applies, shall be made in accordance with rules of court by a procedure to be known as an application for judicial review.
(2) A declaration may be made or an injunction granted under this subsection in any case where an application for judicial review, seeking that relief, has been made and the High Court considers that, having regard to—(a) the nature of the matters in respect of which relief may be granted by orders of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari; (b) the nature of the persons and bodies against whom relief may be granted by such orders; and (c) all the circumstances of the case, it would be just and convenient for the declaration to be made or the injunction to be granted, as the case may be.
(3) No application for judicial review shall be made unless the leave of the High Court has been obtained in accordance with rules of court; and the court shall not grant leave to make such an application unless it considers that the applicant has a sufficient interest in the matter to which the application relates.
(4) On an application for judicial review the High Court may award damages to the applicant if—(a) he has joined with his application a claim for damages arising from any matter to which the application relates; and (b) the court is satisfied that, if the claim had been made in an action begun by the applicant at the time of making his application, he would have been awarded damages ...’
In s 31 the jurisdiction to grant declarations and injunctions is directly linked to that which already existed in relation to the prerogative orders. The jurisdiction to award damages by contrast is restricted to those situations where
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damages are recoverable in an action begun by writ. It has never been suggested that a declaration is not available in proceedings against a minister in his official capacity and if Ord 53 and s 31 apply to a minister in the case of declarations then, applying ordinary rules of construction, one would expect the position to be precisely the same in the case of injunctions. As an examination of the position prior to the introduction of judicial review indicates, because of the scope of the remedies of mandamus and prohibition the availability of injunctions against ministers would only be of any significance in situations where it would be appropriate to grant interim relief. Even here the significance of the change was reduced by the power of the court to grant a stay under Ord 53, r 3(10). Furthermore, in practice an injunction against a minister would be no more than a peremptory declaration because of the limitations on execution contained in Ord 77, r 15 which because of the definition of ‘order against the Crown’ in Ord 77, r 1(2) applies to judicial review and proceedings against an officer of the Crown as such.
Lord Bridge in Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692 at 703, [1990] 2 AC 85 at 143 acknowledged ‘the question at issue depends, first, on the true construction of s 31 ...' Lord Bridge also accepted that if s 31 ‘were to be construed in isolation’ there would be ‘great force in the reasoning’ that s 31 did enable injunctions to be granted for the first time against ministers of the Crown in judicial review proceedings (see [1989] 2 All ER 692 at 708, [1990] 2 AC 85 at 149). Why then did Lord Bridge come to the conclusion that an injunction could not be granted against a minister in proceedings for judicial review?
A primary cause for Lord Bridge’s taking this view was that he concluded that it would be a dramatic departure from what was the position prior to the introduction of judicial review for an injunction to be available against the Crown or a minister of the Crown, so that the change was one which could be expected to be made only by express legislation. His conclusion was not, however, based on as comprehensive an argument of the history of both civil and prerogative proceedings as was available to your Lordships. In particular he did not have an account of the developments which had taken place in the granting of prerogative orders against ministers, which meant that in practical terms the only consequence of treating s 31 as enabling injunctions to be granted against ministers acting in their official capacity would be to provide an alternative in name only to the orders of prohibition and mandamus which were already available and to allow interim relief other than a stay for the first time.
A secondary cause was his reliance upon Upjohn J’s judgment in Merricks v Heathcoat-Amory [1955] 2 All ER 453, [1955] Ch 567, a judgment which, as already indicated, should be approached with caution. Lord Bridge was also influenced by the fact that the new Ord 53 was introduced following the Law Commission’s Report on Remedies in Administrative Law (Law Com no 73) (1976) and that that report drew attention to the problem created by the lack of jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions against the Crown and recommended that the problem should be remedied by amending s 21 of the 1947 Act. The report included a draft of the legislation proposed. This proposal of the Law Commission was never implemented. Instead the decision was taken following the Law Commission’s report to proceed by amendment of the Rules of the Supreme Court rather than by primary legislation. Lord Bridge in his speech explains why, in his view, this meant that s 31 of the 1981 Act should be given a restricted interpretation ([1989] 2 All ER 692 at 708, [1990] 2 AC 85 at 149–150):
‘First, s 31(2) and Ord 53, r 1(1) being in identical terms, the subsection and the paragraph must have the same meaning and the paragraph, if it
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purported to extend jurisdiction, would have been ultra vires. Second, if Parliament had intended to confer on the court jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions against the Crown, it is inconceivable, in the light of the Law Commission’s recommendation in para 51 of its report, that this would not have been done in express terms either in the form of the proposed cl 3(2) of the Law Commission’s draft Bill or by an enactment to some similar effect. There is no escape from the conclusion that this recommendation was never intended to be implemented. Third, it is apparent from s 31(3) that the relief to which s 31(2) applies is final, as opposed to interlocutory, relief. By s 31(2) a declaration may be made or an injunction granted “where an application for judicial review ... has been made ...” But by s 31(3) “no application for judicial review shall be made unless the leave of the High Court has been obtained in accordance with rules of court ...” Under the rules there are two stages in the procedure: first, the grant of leave to apply for judicial review on ex parte application under Ord 53, r 3, and, second, the making of the application for judicial review which by r 5 is required to be by originating motion or summons duly served on all parties directly affected. Section 31(2) is thus in terms addressed to the second stage, not the first, and is in sharp contrast with the language of Ord 53, r 3(10), which by its terms enables appropriate interim relief to be granted by the court at the same time as it grants leave to apply for judicial review. This point appeared to me at first blush to be one of some technicality. But on reflection I am satisfied that it conclusively refutes the views that s 31(2) was intended to provide a solution to the problem of the lack of jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions against the Crown. The form of final relief available against the Crown has never presented any problem. A declaration of right made in proceedings against the Crown is invariably respected and no injunction is required. If the legislature intended to give the court jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions against the Crown, it is difficult to think of any reason why the jurisdiction should be available only in judicial review proceedings and not in civil proceedings as defined in the 1947 Act. Hence, an enactment which in turn applies only to forms of final relief available in judicial review proceedings cannot possibly have been so intended.’ (Lord Bridge’s emphasis.)
This is a very closely and carefully argued justification for adopting a narrow approach to the effect of s 31 of the 1981 Act. It deserves very careful attention coming, as it does, from a judge who is acknowledged to have made an outstanding contribution to this area of the law. Nonetheless, I do not regard it as justifying limiting the natural interpretation of s 31 so as to exclude the jurisdiction to grant injunctions, including interim injunctions, on applications for judicial review against ministers of the Crown. I will try to explain why.
First of all it is unsafe to draw any inference from the fact that judicial review was not first introduced by primary legislation. Primary legislation could have led to delay. As it happens, in Northern Ireland, when judicial review was introduced, the primary legislation, the Judicature (Northern Ireland) Act 1978, came first and was followed by a subsequent amendment of the Rules of the Supreme Court (Northern Ireland) involving a new Ord 53 which came into operation on 1 January 1981.
The fact that in England and Wales it was decided that an amendment to the Rules of the Supreme Court should precede primary legislation did mean that it was inevitable that the recommendation of the Law Commission that s 21 of the 1947 Act should be amended had to be abandoned. However, this decision not to
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amend s 21 is not really surprising bearing in mind that the exercise in hand related to public law proceedings while s 21 dealt with private or ‘civil’ law proceedings. Not having dealt with s 21 at the outset it was natural that, as s 31 was merely confirmatory of the changes already made, it should not deal with s 21 either.
Order 53 undoubtedly extended the circumstances in which a declaration could be granted against the appropriate representative of the Crown. Prior to the change no remedy whatsoever in the nature of a declaration could be obtained in prerogative proceedings. Furthermore, there are situations where no declaration could be obtained in private law proceedings against the Crown without the assistance of the Attorney General in circumstances in which it is now available on judicial review. It is not suggested that Ord 53 was ultra vires in allowing declarations against ministers and in my view if it was not ultra vires in relation to declarations there is no reason why it should be regarded as being ultra vires in relation to injunctions, albeit that the effect is that an injunction cannot be obtained against a minister of the Crown where previously only an order of mandamus or prohibition could be obtained. However, if Ord 53 were to be regarded as being open to challenge on this ground, this would explain why the unusual course was taken, a change having been introduced by an amendment to the Rules of the Supreme Court, of confirming the amendment a substantial period later by the 1981 Act. As a matter of construction it is difficult to treat the provisions as to injunctions in Ord 53 and s 31 as not applying to ministers, but as doing so in the case of the other remedies. This difficulty is underlined in the case of Northern Ireland since the interpretation section, s 118(1), of the 1978 Act expressly provides that it should bind the Crown, but in a restricted manner ‘as respects civil proceedings to which the Act of 1947 applies’. It would therefore bind the Crown as to injunctions in non-‘civil proceedings’, that is judicial review. Section 19 of that Act also gives the court a wide discretion to grant such interim relief as it considers appropriate. It would, therefore, seem to be difficult to say that there is no power to grant interim injunctions against ministers in Northern Ireland.
If this is the effect of the Northern Ireland legislation the position is likely to be the same in England and Wales, though the position is different in Scotland. In Factortame no reference was made to the Northern Ireland Act.
RSC Ord 53, r 3(10) deals with the grant of interim relief on an application for judicial review. It provides:
‘Where leave to apply for judicial review is granted, then—(a) if the relief sought is an order of a prohibition or certiorari and the court so directs, the grant shall operate as a stay of the proceedings to which the application relates until the determination of the application or until the court otherwise orders; (b) if any other relief is sought, the court may at any time grant in the proceedings such interim relief as could be granted in an action begun by writ.’
So far as respondents other than ministers are concerned, the provisions of Ord 53, r 3(10)(b) have always been treated as giving the court jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions. This is confirmed to be the position by the decision of the Court of Appeal in R v Kensington and Chelsea Royal London BC, ex p Hammell [1989] 1 All ER 1202, [1989] QB 518. The power of the court to grant interim injunctions is linked to the power of the court to grant final injunctions. If the court has the power to grant a final injunction against a minister it must surely have the power
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to grant an interim injunction and vice versa. This is confirmed by s 37(1) of the 1981 Act, which provides:
‘The High Court may by order (whether interlocutory or final) grant an injunction ... in all cases which it appears to the court to be just and convenient to do so.’
As to the ‘technical’ point referred to by Lord Bridge, Ord 53, r 3(10) is similarly linked to Ord 53, r 1(2) and the almost identically worded provisions of s 31(2). While it is correct that an application for judicial review cannot be made until leave is granted, this does not mean that s 31(2) restricts the court’s jurisdiction to grant interim or final injunctions until after leave has been given and this has been followed by lodging the formal application with the court. This would be quite out of accord with practice which has always been followed on judicial review and would involve the expense and delay of two hearings when at present there is usually one. The clear intent of Ord 53, r 3(10) is that the court where it considers an application for leave at an oral hearing should deal with questions of interim relief if it is appropriate to do so. During the course of the hearing Mr Richards was asked whether he could provide any justification for Lord Bridge regarding the language of s 31(2) and s 31(3) together with Ord 53, r 3(10) as ‘conclusively [refuting] the view that s 31(2) was intended to provide a solution to the problem of the lack of jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions against the Crown’ but he was not able to do so. Prior to the introduction of Ord 53 there was the same problem of the inability to grant interim injunctions against bodies which had no connection with the Crown. The changes which are reflected in ss 31(2) and (3) and Ord 53, r 3(10) provided a solution in relation to those bodies and it must surely follow that if s 31(2) gives the court jurisdiction to grant final injunctions against ministers it must also provide the jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions. Counsel for the applicants in Factortame did not reply to the Crown’s submissions on this aspect of the case and I expect this explains why in Factortame the position was misunderstood.
I am, therefore, of the opinion that, the language of s 31 being unqualified in its terms, there is no warrant for restricting its application so that in respect of ministers and other officers of the Crown alone the remedy of an injunction, including an interim injunction, is not available. In my view the history of prerogative proceedings against officers of the Crown supports such a conclusion. So far as interim relief is concerned, which is the practical change which has been made, there is no justification for adopting a different approach to officers of the Crown from that adopted in relation to other respondents in the absence of clear language such as that contained in s 21(2) of the 1947 Act. The fact that in any event a stay could be granted against the Crown under Ord 53, r 3(10) emphasises the limits of the change in the situation which is involved. It would be most regrettable if an approach which is inconsistent with that which exists in Community law should be allowed to persist if this is not strictly necessary. The restriction provided for in s 21(2) of the 1947 Act does, however, remain in relation to civil proceedings.
The fact that, in my view, the court should be regarded as having jurisdiction to grant interim and final injunctions against officers of the Crown does not mean that that jurisdiction should be exercised except in the most limited circumstances. In the majority of situations, so far as final relief is concerned, a declaration will continue to be the appropriate remedy on an application for judicial review involving officers of the Crown. As has been the position in the past, the Crown can be relied upon to co-operate fully with such declarations. To
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avoid having to grant interim injunctions against officers of the Crown, I can see advantages in the courts being able to grant interim declarations. However, it is obviously not desirable to deal with this topic, if it is not necessary to do so, until the views of the Law Commission are known.
The validity of the injunction granted by Garland J
What has been said so far does not mean that Garland J was necessarily in order in granting the injunction. The injunction was granted before he had given the applicant leave to apply for judicial review. However, in a case of real urgency, which this was, the fact that leave had not been granted is a mere technicality. It would be undesirable if, in the situation with which Garland J was faced, he had been compelled to grant leave because he regarded the case as an appropriate one for an interim injunction. In the case of civil proceedings, there is recognition of the jurisdiction of the court to grant interim injunctions before the issue of a writ, etc (see Ord 29, r 1(3)) and in an appropriate case there should be taken to be a similar jurisdiction to grant interim injunctions now under Ord 53. The position is accurately set out in The Supreme Court Practice 1993, para 53/1-14/24, where it is stated:
‘Where the case is so urgent as to justify it, [the judge] could grant an interlocutory injunction or other interim relief pending the hearing of the application for leave to move for judicial review. But, if the judge has refused leave to move for judicial review he is functus officio and has no jurisdiction to grant any form of interim relief. The application for an interlocutory injunction or other interim relief could, however, be renewed before the Court of Appeal along with the renewal of the application for leave to move for judicial review.’
There having been jurisdiction for Garland J to make the order which he did, it cannot be suggested that it was inappropriate for him to have made the order. On the view of the law which I now take, Garland J was therefore not required to set aside the order though his decision to do so was inevitable having regard to the state of the authorities at that time.
The effect of the advice received by Mr Baker
Having come to the conclusion that Garland J’s order was properly made, the next question which has to be considered is the effect of the advice which was understandably given to Mr Baker that the order was made without jurisdiction. Here there are two important considerations. The first is that the order was made by the High Court and therefore has to be treated as a perfectly valid order and one which has to be obeyed until it is set aside: see the speeches of Lord Diplock in Re Racal Communications Ltd [1980] 2 All ER 634 at 639–640, [1981] AC 374 at 384 and Isaacs v Robertson [1984] 3 All ER 140 at 143, [1985] AC 97 at 102. The second consideration is that it is undesirable to talk in the terms of technical contempt. The courts only make a finding of contempt if there is conduct by the person or body concerned which can, with justification, be categorised as contempt. If, therefore, there is a situation in which the view is properly taken (and usually this will only be possible when the action is taken in accordance with legal advice) that it is reasonable to defer complying with an order of the court until application is made to the court for further guidance then it will not be contempt to defer complying with the order until an application has been made to the court to discharge the order. However, this course can only be justified if the application is made at the first practicable opportunity and in the meantime all appropriate
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steps have been taken to ensure that the person in whose favour the order was made will not be disadvantaged pending the hearing of the application.
Mr Baker’s difficulties in this case are that, while it was understandable that there should be delay before he could give the matter personal attention, Garland J was not kept informed of what was happening and totally inadequate steps were taken to protect the position of M pending the application to the court. In addition Mr Baker has the problem that this House will not normally interfere with the assessment of the facts which was made by the Court of Appeal unless it can be shown that the assessment is flawed by some error of law.
Jurisdiction to make a finding of contempt
The Court of Appeal were of the opinion that a finding of contempt could not be made against the Crown, a government department or a minister of the Crown in his official capacity. Although it is to be expected that it will be rare indeed that the circumstances will exist in which such a finding would be justified, I do not believe there is any impediment to a court making such a finding, when it is appropriate to do so, not against the Crown directly, but against a government department or a minister of the Crown in his official capacity. Lord Donaldson MR considered that a problem was created in making a finding of contempt because the Crown lacked a legal personality. However, at least for some purposes, the Crown has a legal personality. It can be appropriately described as a corporation sole or a corporation aggregate (per Lord Diplock and Lord Simon of Glaisdale respectively in Town Investments Ltd v Dept of the Environment [1977] 1 All ER 813, [1978] AC 359). The Crown can hold property and enter into contracts. On the other hand, even after the Crown Proceedings Act 1947, it cannot conduct litigation except in the name of an authorised government department or, in the case of judicial review, in the name of a minister. In any event it is not in relation to the Crown that I differ from Lord Donaldson MR, but as to a government department or a minister.
Nolan LJ considered that the fact that proceedings for contempt are ‘essentially personal and punitive’ meant that it was not open to a court, as a matter of law, to make a finding of contempt against the Home Office or the Home Secretary (see [1992] 4 All ER 97 at 144, [1992] 1 QB 270 at 311). While contempt proceedings usually have these characteristics and contempt proceedings against a government department or a minister in an official capacity would not be either personal or punitive (it would clearly not be appropriate to fine or sequest the assets of the Crown or a government department or an officer of the Crown acting in his official capacity), this does not mean that a finding of contempt against a government department or minister would be pointless. The very fact of making such a finding would vindicate the requirements of justice. In addition an order for costs could be made to underline the significance of a contempt. A purpose of the courts’ powers to make findings of contempt is to ensure the orders of the court are obeyed. This jurisdiction is required to be co-extensive with the courts’ jurisdiction to make the orders which need the protection which the jurisdiction to make findings of contempt provides. In civil proceedings the court can now make orders (other than injunctions or for specific performance) against authorised government departments or the Attorney General. On applications for judicial review orders can be made against ministers. In consequence of the developments identified already such orders must be taken not to offend the theory that the Crown can supposedly do no wrong. Equally, if such orders are made and not obeyed, the body against whom the orders were
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made can be found guilty of contempt without offending that theory, which would be the only justifiable impediment against making a finding of contempt.
In cases not involving a government department or a minister the ability to punish for contempt may be necessary. However, as is reflected in the restrictions on execution against the Crown, the Crown’s relationship with the courts does not depend on coercion and in the exceptional situation when a government department’s conduct justifies this, a finding of contempt should suffice. In that exceptional situation, the ability of the court to make a finding of contempt is of great importance. It would demonstrate that a government department has interfered with the administration of justice. It will then be for Parliament to determine what should be the consequences of that finding. In accord with tradition the finding should not be made against the ‘Crown’ by name but in the name of the authorised department (or the Attorney General) or the minister so as to accord with body against whom the order was made. If the order was made in civil proceedings against an authorised department, the department will be held to be in contempt. On judicial review the order will be against the minister and so normally should be any finding of contempt in respect of the order.
However, the finding under appeal is one made against Mr Baker personally in respect of an injunction addressed to him in his official capacity as the Secretary of State for the Home Department. It was appropriate to direct the injunction to the Secretary of State in his official capacity since, as previously indicated, remedies on an application for judicial review which involve the Crown are made against the appropriate officer in his official capacity. This does not mean that it cannot be appropriate to make a finding of contempt against a minister personally rather than against him in his official capacity provided that the contempt relates to his own default. Normally it will be more appropriate to make the order against the office which a minister holds where the order which has been breached has been made against that office since members of the department concerned will almost certainly be involved and investigation as to the part played by individuals is likely to be at least extremely difficult, if not impossible, unless privilege is waived (as commendably happened in this case). In addition the object of the exercise is not so much to punish an individual as to vindicate the rule of law by a finding of contempt. This can be achieved equally by a declaratory finding of the court as to the contempt against the minister as representing the department. By making the finding against the minister in his official capacity the court will be indicating that it is the department for which the minister is responsible which has been guilty of contempt. The minister himself may or may not have been personally guilty of contempt. The position so far as he is personally concerned would be the equivalent of that which needs to exist for the court to give relief against the minister in proceedings for judicial review. There would need to be default by the department for which the minister is responsible.
In addition Mr Richards argued that for a finding of contempt against Mr Baker personally it would not suffice to establish contempt to show that Mr Baker was aware of the order and had not complied with it. It would also be necessary to show an intention to interfere with or impede the administration of justice. If such an intent was shown to exist, then Mr Richards conceded that the conduct of the minister would fall outside his authority as a minister; it would be a personal act not the act of the Crown; and it would expose him to a personal liability for contempt. In support of the distinction which he relied upon, Mr Richards referred to the speech of Lord Oliver of Aylmerton in A-G v Times
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Newspapers Ltd [1991] 2 All ER 398 at 414–415, [1992] 1 AC 191 at 217–218, where Lord Oliver stated:
‘A distinction (which has been variously described as “unhelpful” or “largely meaningless”) is sometimes drawn between what is described as “civil contempt”, that is to say contempt by a party to proceedings in a matter of procedure, and “criminal contempt”. One particular form of contempt by a party to proceedings is that constituted by an intentional act which is in breach of the order of a competent court. Where this occurs as a result of the act of a party who is bound by the order or of others acting at his direction or on his instigation, it constitutes a civil contempt by him which is punishable by the court at the instance of the party for whose benefit the order was made and can be waived by him. The intention with which the act was done will, of course, be of the highest relevance in the determination of the penalty (if any) to be imposed by the court, but the liability here is a strict one in the sense that all that requires to be proved is service of the order and the subsequent doing by the party bound of that which is prohibited. When, however, the prohibited act is done not by the party bound himself but by a third party, a stranger to the litigation, that person may also be liable for contempt. There is, however, this essential distinction that his liability is for criminal contempt and arises not because the contemnor is himself affected by the prohibition contained in the order but because his act constitutes a wilful interference with the administration of justice by the court in the proceedings in which the order was made. Here the liability is not strict in the sense referred to, for there has to be shown not only knowledge of the order but an intention to interfere with or impede the administration of justice—an intention which can of course be inferred from the circumstances.’
I happily adopt the approach of Lord Oliver. It reflects the distinction which I have drawn between the finding of contempt and the punishment of the contempt. I also accept the distinction which Lord Oliver draws between the position of a person who is subject to an order and a third party. I also recognise the force of Mr Richards’ submission that if Mr Baker was not under a strict liability to comply with the order it would not be possible to establish that he had the necessary intention to interfere with or impede the administration of justice to make him guilty of contempt as a third party. However, although the injunction was granted by Garland J against Mr Baker in his official capacity this does not mean that he is in the same position as a third party. To draw a distinction between his two personalities would be unduly technical. While he was Home Secretary the order was one binding upon him personally and one for the compliance with which he as the head of the department was personally responsible. He was, therefore, under a strict liability to comply with the order. However, on the facts of this case I have little doubt that if the Court of Appeal had appreciated that they could make a finding against Mr Baker in his official capacity this is what the court would have done. The conduct complained of in this case which justified the bringing of contempt proceedings was not that of Mr Baker alone and he was acting on advice. His error was understandable and I accept that there is an element of unfairness in the finding against him personally.
In addition, there are technical differences between the two findings because of the provisions of RSC Ord 77, r 1 which define an ‘order against the Crown’ in a broad sense to include an order against the government department or against an officer of the Crown as such. Unlike the definition of ‘civil proceedings by the Crown’, this definition expressly applies to proceedings ‘on the Crown side of the
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Queen’s Bench Division’. This means that the provisions of Ords 45 to 52 (which deal with execution and satisfaction of orders of the court) would not apply to an order against the Home Secretary while they would do so in the case of an order against Mr Baker personally.
It is for these reasons that I would dismiss this appeal with costs save for substituting the Secretary of State for the Home Department as being the person against whom the finding of contempt was made. This was the alternative decision which was the subject of the cross-appeal, except that there the order was sought against the Home Office rather than the Home Secretary.
Order of Court of Appeal varied by substituting ‘Secretary of State for Home Affairs’ in place of ‘Kenneth William Baker’; otherwise appeal and cross-appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Morris Angel & Son Ltd v Hollande and another
[1993] 3 All ER 569
Categories: COMPETITION: EMPLOYMENT; Transfer Of Undertakings
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON AND BINGHAM LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 18, 21 AUGUST 1992
Restraint of trade by agreement – Employer and employee – Transfer of trade, business or undertaking – Continuity of employment – Employee employed by transferor immediately before transfer – Transferee of business dismissing employee and seeking to enforce restraint of trade clause in employee’s contract of employment – Whether transferee can enforce restraint of trade clause in contract of employment made between transferor and employee – Whether restraint of trade clause only applying to transferee’s business and not to business transferred – Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 1981, reg 5(1) – Council Directive (EEC) 77/187.
The first defendant was employed as managing director of a company under a contract of employment dated July 1990. The contract contained a clause restraining him from doing business with customers of the company within one year of his ceasing to be employed by the company. In April 1992 the plaintiff purchased the company, immediately dismissed the first defendant and subsequently issued a writ to enforce the restraint of trade clause and applied for an interim injunction against the first defendant. The judge held that, although the first defendant’s employment had been transferred to the plaintiff under reg 5(1)a of the Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 1981, so that after the transfer he was an employee of the plaintiffs, the restraint of trade clause could not be enforced by the plaintiff against the first defendant because the effect of reg 5(1) on the clause was that the first defendant was prevented from soliciting or undertaking business for persons who had done business with the plaintiff, not persons who had done business with the company, and since the first defendant was not seeking to do business with persons who had done business with the plaintiff, but only with the persons who had done business with the company, there was no covenant available to the plaintiff under which injunctive relief could be granted. The 1981 regulations were enacted to give
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effect to Council Directive (EEC) 77/187, which related to the safeguarding of employees’ rights on transfer of undertakings and businesses, and reg 5(1) provided that a ‘relevant transfer shall not operate so as to terminate the contract of employment of any person employed by the transferor in the undertaking ... but any such contract which would otherwise have been terminated by the transfer shall have effect after the transfer as if originally made between the person so employed and the transferee’. The plaintiff appealed.
Held – If legislation was enacted to give effect to the United Kingdom’s obligations under an EEC directive a purposive construction conforming with those obligations would be applied by the court even if it departed from the strict and literal application of the words of the legislation. The object of Directive 77/187 was that on the transfer of a business from one employer to another the benefit and burden of contracts of employment with workers should devolve on the new employer and if the restraint of trade clause was construed in accordance with a literal application of reg 5(1) of the 1981 regulations as referring to customers of the plaintiff and not the company it would impose a different and possibly wider obligation on the first defendant than the obligation binding him before the transfer. Instead reg 5(1) was to be read as referring to the transferee as the owner of the undertaking transferred or in respect of the undertaking transferred and therefore the restraint of trade clause could be enforced by the plaintiff if the first defendant within the period specified did business with persons who in the previous year had done business with the undertaking transferred of which the plaintiff was deemed as a result of the transfer retrospectively to have been the owner. It followed that under reg 5(1) the plaintiff could enforce the restraint of trade clause if the first defendant solicited or did business with persons who had done business with the company in the previous year. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 574 d to f, p 574 j to p 575 e and p 576 f to h, post).
Litster v Forth Dry Dock and Engineering Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 1134 applied.
Quaere. Whether a managing director of a company can be an ‘employee’ for the purposes of reg 5 of the 1981 regulations (see p 576 d e, post).
Notes
For the effect on contracts of employment of the transfer of an employer’s business to another employer, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 251.
For employees’ rights in European Community law on transfers of undertakings, see 52 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 21·20.
For the Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 1981, reg 5, see 7 Halsbury’s Statutory Insutruments 167.
Cases referred to in judgments
Home Counties Dairies Ltd v Skilton [1970] 1 All ER 1227, [1970] 1 WLR 526, CA.
Litster v Forth Dry Dock and Engineering Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 1134, [1990] 1 AC 546, [1989] 2 WLR 634, HL.
Case also citedBriggs v Oates [1991] 1 All ER 407.
Interlocutory appeal and cross-appealThe plaintiff, Morris Angel & Son Ltd, appealed from the decision of Judge Laurie sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 15 June 1992 dismissing the plaintiff’s application for an injunction restraining the first
Page 571 of [1993] 3 All ER 569
defendant, Laurence Patrick Hollande, on his own behalf or behalf of any person, firm or company, directly or indirectly, from seeking to procure orders from or to do business with any person, firm or company who had at any time during one year immediately preceding the termination of Mr Hollande’s employment done business with his former employer. By a respondent’s notice dated 29 July 1992 Mr Hollande contended that Judge Laurie’s decision to refuse to grant an injunction should be affirmed on other grounds and by a further respondent’s notice dated 30 July 1992 he appealed from the judge’s order for costs. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Peter McMaster (instructed by Barnett Alexander Chart) for the plaintiff.
Peter Birts QC and Malcolm Chapple (instructed by Abbott King & Troen) for Mr Hollande.
Cur adv vult
21 August 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ. This is an appeal by the plaintiff in the action, Morris Angel & Son Ltd, against an order of Judge Laurie sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 15 June 1992. By that order the judge on an inter partes hearing dismissed an application by the plaintiff for an interlocutory injunction against the first defendant, Mr Hollande. The injunction sought was to enforce a restrictive agreement in Mr Hollande’s service agreement.
That was a service agreement to which the plaintiff was not a party. It was an agreement with a previous employer and the plaintiff claims to be entitled to the benefit of it by virtue of the plaintiff’s acquisition of the undertaking of the previous employer and by virtue of the effect of reg 5(1) of the Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 1981, SI 1981/1794, to which I shall have to come.
The service agreement itself is dated 13 July 1990 and it is made between a company called Altolight Ltd, which is called ‘the Company’, of the one part and Mr Hollande, who is called ‘the Executive’, of the other part. Altolight Ltd subsequently took the name of Bermans International Ltd. In this judgment I shall refer to it throughout as ‘the company’.
The service agreement contained various definitions, including one of ‘the Group’ as meaning the company and all its subsidiaries and one of ‘the Board’ as meaning the board of directors for the time being of the company.
By cl 2 Mr Hollande was appointed and agreed to serve the company as managing director of the group. Subject to certain provisions for earlier termination, which in the events which have happened do not apply, his employment was to continue for three years unless terminated within that period by either party giving to the other not less than three months’ notice in writing.
The particular restriction which the plaintiff seeks to enforce against Mr Hollande is contained in cl 15 of the service agreement. That clause is headed ‘Post Termination Obligations of Executive’. The relevant part of cl 15 is sub-cl (1), which provides so far as material:
‘The Executive covenants with the Company that he will not for the period of one (1) year after ceasing to be employed under this Agreement (without the prior written consent of the Board) on his own behalf or on behalf of any person firm or company directly or indirectly seek to procure orders from or do business with any person firm or company who had at any time during
Page 572 of [1993] 3 All ER 569
the one (1) year immediately preceding such cesser done business with the Group …’
There are other restrictions in the agreement which the plaintiff does not claim to enforce by this appeal and which I therefore need not read.
Since the point has been stressed in argument by counsel for Mr Hollande I should underline that cl 15(1) is a two-way restriction: it prevents Mr Hollande approaching those who have done business with the group in the relevant year with a view to doing business with them, and it also prevents him doing business with them if they happen to approach him first. That is not unusual in such clauses. The business of the company is that of costumiers and in particular suppliers of costumes for theatre and television.
I can pass over the other terms of the service agreement for the present, although I shall have to mention certain of them later. At the same time that the service agreement was entered into there was a shareholders’ agreement of the same date made between a company called Heytesbury (UK) Ltd (Heytesbury) of the first part, Mr Hollande of the second part and the company of the third part. What was being done was that two companies which carried on business as costumiers, one wholly controlled by Heytesbury and the other wholly controlled by Mr Hollande, were merged by their share capitals being transferred to the company, acquired ad hoc for the purpose, in consideration of the company issuing its own shares to Heytesbury and Mr Hollande in appropriate proportions.
Clause 2.1.10 of the shareholders’ agreement provided that on completion Mr Hollande would enter into the service agreement, the draft of which was set out in schedule 1 to the shareholders’ agreement. Clauses 5.1 and 5.1.1 of the shareholders’ agreement provided:
‘The Shareholders shall exercise all voting rights and other powers of control available to them in relation to the Company so as to procure (insofar as they are able by the exercise of such rights and powers) that neither the Company nor any Subsidiary of the Company shall without the prior written consent of both Shareholders:
5.1.1 sell transfer assign or otherwise dispose of a material part of the undertaking property and/or assets of the Company or any such Subsidiary (or any interest therein) or contract so to do otherwise than in the ordinary and proper course of the Business.’
Recital (F) set out:
‘The Company has agreed with Heytesbury and Hollande that it will comply with the terms and conditions of this Agreement insofar as they relate to the Company.’
Clause 11.1 provided:
‘The Company undertakes with each of the Shareholders to be bound by and comply with the terms and conditions of this Agreement insofar as the same relate to the Company and to act in all respects as contemplated by this Agreement.’
There are other mutual agreements designed to ensure the smooth running of the company.
By an agreement dated 29 April 1992, described as an ‘Agreement for Sale of Assets of a Business’ and made between the company as vendor of the one part and the plaintiff as purchaser of the other part, the plaintiff agreed to buy the
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business of the company (with immaterial exceptions) from the company. That agreement was completed on the same day.
The background to that was that Heytesbury wanted the business of the company to be sold. Mr Hollande sought to buy it but the plaintiff made a higher offer and so Mr Hollande’s offer was not acceptable to Heytesbury. There is no express or written consent by Mr Hollande to the sale to the plaintiff. Indeed, on 27 April 1992 he obtained an ex parte injunction from Harman J to restrain any sale, but he consented to the discharge of that injunction before the sale agreement was entered into on 29 April. He has stated in an affidavit in these proceedings:
‘The Chancery order was discharged quite quickly after it was granted because of my concern regarding the cross-undertaking for damages and for no other reason.’
On the same date as the sale agreement, 29 April 1992, Mr Hollande was dismissed from his employment by the plaintiff following the completion of the sale agreement. The grounds of dismissal are for present purposes irrelevant.
The plaintiff now claims to enforce against Mr Hollande the restrictive agreement in cl 15(1) of his service agreement.
If the plaintiff is entitled to enforce that restrictive agreement and the agreement is valid, the year of the restriction will run to 27 April 1993. The year preceding the cesser of Mr Hollande’s employment will be the year to 27 April 1992 during which the business was carried on by the company and not by the plaintiff, and the persons whom Mr Hollande would be restrained from soliciting or doing business with would be the persons who did business with the company or group during that year, not the persons who did business during that year with the plaintiffs.
The writ in this action was issued on 15 May 1992. On 1 May the plaintiff applied ex parte to Turner J for injunctive relief. This was an opposed ex parte application in that informal notice had been given to Mr Hollande’s advisers. The judge granted certain relief in no way relevant to this appeal but, in relation to cl 15 of the service agreement, he held that, though reg 5(1) of the 1981 regulations had the effect of continuing Mr Hollande’s employment after the transfer of the undertaking so that after that transfer he was an employee of the plaintiffs, it did not, on its true construction, have the effect of enabling the plaintiffs to enforce cl 15(1) against Mr Hollande in respect of his soliciting or doing business with people who had previously done business with the company within the relevant year. This point has been referred to as the construction point.
The application for injunctive relief was adjourned to a date to be fixed and it came on for further hearing inter partes before Judge Laurie on 15 June. So far as cl 15(1) of the service agreement is concerned, he considered—properly in his circumstances—that he ought simply to follow the views of Turner J on the construction point. Both parties then asked him to express his views on how he would have exercised his discretion if he had decided the construction point the other way. He did so and held that he would on that hypothesis have granted the plaintiff interlocutory relief under cl 15(1) until 27 April 1993 or judgment in the action if earlier or other order in the meantime.
Consequently, the plaintiff now appeals to this court on the construction point. Mr Hollande cross-appeals by respondent’s notice against Judge Laurie’s view that, had he answered the construction point the other way, he would have granted an injunction. That is the basis of the presentation of the arguments in this court.
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There is also by cross-appeal a challenge by Mr Hollande to the order made by Judge Laurie as to the costs before Turner J. Argument on that is deferred until after this judgment.
I turn therefore to reg 5 of the 1981 regulations. So far as material it reads as follows:
‘(1) A relevant transfer shall not operate so as to terminate the contract of employment of any person employed by the transferor in the undertaking or part transferred but any such contract which would otherwise have been terminated by the transfer shall have effect after the transfer as if originally made between the person so employed and the transferee.
(2) Without prejudice to paragraph (1) above, on the completion of a relevant transfer—(a) all the transferor’s rights, powers, duties and liabilities under or in connection with any such contract shall be transferred by virtue of this Regulation to the transferee …’
The regulations, which were laid before Parliament and have statutory force, were made to give effect to Council Directive (EEC) 77/187 on the approximation of the laws of the member states relating to the safeguarding of employees’ rights in the event of transfer of undertakings, businesses or parts of businesses.
There is no doubt that the protection of employees’ rights was the primary objective but any contract of employment is a complex of rights and obligations on each side, and in Litster v Forth Dry Dock Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 1134 at 1137, [1990] 1 AC 546 at 555 Lord Templeman summed up the effect of the EEC directive as being that, upon the transfer of a business from one employer to another, the benefit and burden of a contract of employment between the transferor and a worker in the business should devolve on the transferee. In the same case Lord Oliver stated that, if primary or subordinate legislation enacted to give effect to the United Kingdom’s obligations under the EEC Treaty can reasonably be construed so as to conform with those obligations, a purposive construction will be applied even though perhaps it may involve some departure from the strict and literal application of the words which the legislature has elected to use (see [1989] 1 All ER 1134 at 1140, [1990] 1 AC 546 at 559).
The key words in reg 5(1) are the words: ‘... the transfer shall have effect after the transfer as if originally made between the person so employed and the transferee’. It does have in a sense retrospective effect. Turner J considered that the service agreement was therefore to be read ab initio as if made between the plaintiff rather than the company and Mr Hollande. Clause 15(1) was therefore to be read as an agreement by Mr Hollande not in the relevant year to solicit or undertake business for persons who in the previous year—on the facts of this case the year to 27 April 1992—had done business with the plaintiff, not the persons who in that year had done business with the company or its subsidiaries—the group. It followed that, as Mr Hollande was not seeking to do business with persons who in the previous year had done business with the plaintiff, but only with the persons who had done business with the company, there was no covenant available to the plaintiff under which injunctive relief could be granted. Turner J said:
‘It does not seem to me that the (now) plaintiffs have come within measurable distance of being able to assert a valid right which they can enforce under the provisions of cl 15(1) or (2) of the contract of employment.’
The difficulty about that approach to my mind is that it turns the obligation on the employee under cl 15(1) into a quite different and possibly much wider obligation than the obligation which bound him before the transfer, that is to say
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an obligation not to do business etc with the persons who had done business in the relevant year with the plaintiff not the company. Such an obligation was not remotely in contemplation when the service agreement was entered into and I can see no reason why the regulation should have sought to change the burden on the employee. As Lord Templeman pointed out, the object was that the benefit and burden should devolve on the new employer. That would mean in the present context that the transferee should be able to enforce the same restriction.
The more reasonable construction is in my judgment that the words ‘the transfer shall have effect’ are to be read as referring to the transferee as the owner of the undertaking transferred or in respect of the undertaking transferred. The effect therefore is that cl 15(1) can be enforced by the plaintiff if Mr Hollande within the year after 27 April 1992 does business with persons who in the previous year had done business with the undertaking transferred of which the plaintiff is deemed as a result of the transfer retrospectively to have been the owner. The plaintiff is thus given locus standi to enforce the restriction.
I therefore respectfully differ from Turner J on the construction point and I would hold so far as that point is concerned that reg 5(1) entitles the plaintiff to enforce cl 15(1) as against Mr Hollande if he solicits or does business with those who have done business with the company in the previous year. Regulation 5 thus operates as simply in relation to cl 15(1) as it does in relation to cl 7(1) of the service agreement, which is concerned with Mr Hollande’s company car, or cl 11(1), which is concerned with Mr Hollande’s participation during the continuance of his employment in a competing business.
I turn therefore to the respondent’s notice. It is urged that cl 15(1) is unenforceable because it is too wide: it is not limited in area and does not precisely limit the type of business which Mr Hollande may not do with those who have done business with the company. But there is nothing, in my judgment, in those points in the light of the approach of this court to such covenants in Home Counties Dairies Ltd v Skilton [1970] 1 All ER 1227, [1970] 1 WLR 526.
It is further urged that Judge Laurie himself did not direct his mind, when explaining how he would have exercised his discretion, to the possibility of directing a speedy trial of the action. It is said, alternatively, that the plaintiff’s advisers were at fault in not directing the judge’s attention to that possibility. It is said that, if Judge Laurie had considered directing a speedy trial, he would have realised that a trial could have been achieved at a much earlier date than is now possible and that the time until trial could have been very short. In my judgment there is nothing in that. Judge Laurie applied orthodox principles and was under no obligation to speculate on whether there would be a speedy trial well within and indeed at an early stage of the year of the restriction. There would only be such a trial effectively if the plaintiff had first appealed successfully against Judge Laurie’s adoption of Turner J’s ruling on the construction point.
Finally, a point of law is taken which does not seem to have been considered in the court below. It is said that the sale of the undertaking to the plaintiff without Mr Hollande’s consent was a breach by the company of the company’s obligations to Mr Hollande under the shareholders’ agreement and that, as the shareholders’ agreement and the service agreement were so closely interlinked, that breach operated to discharge Mr Hollande’s obligations to the company or its successor under the service agreement. Alternatively, it is suggested that because of that breach the court ought in its discretion to refuse the plaintiff any relief under cl 15(1).
This point depends, however, in my judgment, on Mr Hollande establishing that the entry by the company into the sale agreement with the plaintiff on 26 April 1992 was a repudiation by the company of Mr Hollande’s service
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agreement. There is a case fit to be tried that it was, but it may equally be that, in the circumstances as they appear on full evidence, the consent by Mr Hollande to the discharge of the injunction granted by Harman J whatever his reason for giving that consent, is to be regarded as an implied, even if reluctant, consent to the making and completion of the sale agreement. That is a matter for the trial and it therefore does not bear on the interim grant of an injunction and the reasons which Judge Laurie gave for his conclusion that such an injunction would have been granted if the construction point had been decided the other way. As the judge was well aware, the plaintiff will be giving the usual cross-undertaking in damages.
There is the further point in relation to this question of the entry into the sale agreement operating as a repudiation of the service agreement that the mandatory wording in reg 5(1), ‘A relevant transfer shall not operate so as to terminate the contract of employment of any person employed by the transferor in the undertaking’ may preclude Mr Hollande from taking this point as to the effect of the absence of his consent to the sale.
I should mention one further point merely to indicate that it is not a point which has been raised or argued before us. It is this. The employment of Mr Hollande under the service agreement was to be employment as managing director of the group. A managing director has to be a director. But it does not appear that there ever was any question of Mr Hollande becoming a director of the plaintiff, which, for all that we know, may have had its own group managing director. Query whether it would be possible to argue that, because of the somewhat unique position of a managing director of a company, employment in that capacity is incapable of being covered by reg 5 of the 1981 regulations. But the point has not been in issue before us and I say no more.
In the circumstances and for the reasons I have given, I would allow this appeal and grant an interlocutory injunction.
BINGHAM LJ. I agree. The issue which has caused me the greatest concern is the last, whether in all the circumstances it is fair to grant the plaintiff an injunction restraining the defendant when the defendant had earlier stipulated that there should be no transfer of the business to a party such as the plaintiff without his consent, which he says he never gave. This point does not turn on the cleanliness of the plaintiff’s hands, since I do not understand the plaintiff to have procured or connived at any breach of agreement by the transferor. It turns, if at all, on the fairness of the ultimate outcome. The facts are not, however, at this stage by any means clear. The defendant did not persist in his opposition to the transfer to the plaintiff and it seems that the sale of the business had been in the air for some time.
On balance, therefore, I agree that an injunction should be granted as proposed by Dillon LJ, subject of course to the plaintiff’s undertaking in damages which should protect the defendant if it should ultimately turn out that an injunction should not have been granted.
Appeal allowed and cross-appeal dismissed. Interlocutory injunction granted. Order for speedy trial.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Seven Seas Properties Ltd v Al-Essa and another (No 2)
[1993] 3 All ER 577
Categories: LAND; Sale Of Land: CONTRACT
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): GAVIN LIGHTMAN QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 23, 24, 25, 26 NOVEMBER 1992
Sale of land – Damages for breach of contract – Loss of bargain – Vendors agreeing to sell property to purchasers– Purchasers entering sub-contract with third party to resell property at profit – Vendors unaware of sub-contract at time of entering into contract with purchasers – Vendors refusing to complete when learning of resale – Purchasers unable to complete resale and selling at loss – Whether purchasers entitled to damages for loss on resale caused by vendors’ breach of contract.
The defendants owned two leasehold properties which were offered for sale at £1·5m. The plaintiffs were interested in purchasing the properties for the purpose of a quick resale at a profit and found a sub-purchaser willing to purchase for £1,635,000 but kept to themselves their intention to sell on and it was only after the contracts for sale between the plaintiffs and the defendants and between the plaintiffs and the sub-purchaser had been signed that the defendants learnt of the resale contract. The defendants believed they had been underpaid by the difference in the amounts payable under the two contracts and refused to complete, with the result that the plaintiffs were unable to complete the resale contract. The sub-purchaser considered that it was discharged from further performance of its contract by the plaintiffs’ breach in failing to complete and brought an action claiming damages from the plaintiffs, who in turn brought an action against the defendants for specific performance. An order was made in the plaintiffs’ action for specific performance and an inquiry as to damages was directed. The sale by the defendants to the plaintiffs was then completed and on the same day the plaintiffs sold the property to the sub-purchaser for £1,375,000. On the inquiry as to damages the plaintiffs claimed, inter alia, both their loss of profit of £135,000 (less certain deductions) under the original contract for resale and the loss of £125,000 made under the contract for resale as finally concluded.
Held – A plaintiff was entitled to recover all damages for a breach of contract which at the date of the contract the defaulting party was on notice might be occasioned by the breach and which was a liability for which he could fairly be held, in entering into the contract, to have accepted the risk. However, the defaulting party would only be held to have accepted the risk if he was on notice of the purpose and intent of the plaintiff in entering into the contract with him and the consequent exposure of the plaintiff to the risk of damage of the character in question in the event of the defaulting party’s breach. A plaintiff claiming to recover from the defaulting party losses arising under a sub-contract had to establish that the defendant was on notice of the existence, at the date of the contract, of the plaintiff’s purpose and intent to enter into a further contract which was dependent for its fulfilment on the due performance by the defendant of the first contract. It was not sufficient for the plaintiff to establish that the conclusion of a sub-contract was an available option. In order for the defendants to be liable to the plaintiffs for the loss incurred by the plaintiffs it was necessary for the defendants to have been aware of the plaintiffs’ contract to sell the property at a profit. Since the plaintiffs had deliberately withheld from the
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defendants the fact that they intended to sell on, the loss suffered by the plaintiffs in respect of the contract for resale was not within the contemplation of the parties. The plaintiffs’ claim for damages arising out of the resale would therefore be dismissed (see p 582 c to p 583 e and p 584 b, post).
Hadley v Baxendale [1843–60] All ER Rep 461 and dictum of Lord Upjohn in The Heron II, Koufos v C Czarnikow Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 686 at 715 applied.
NotesFor the measure of damages in contract, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1174 et seq.
Cases referred to in judgmentBain v Fothergill (1874) LR 7 HL 158, [1874–80] All ER Rep 83.
Biggin Co Ltd v Permanite Ltd [1951] 2 All ER 191, [1951] 2 KB 314, CA.
Brading v F McNeill & Co Ltd [1946] Ch 145.
Diamond v Campbell-Jones [1960] 1 All ER 583, [1961] Ch 22, [1960] 2 WLR 568.
Finlay (James) & Co Ltd v NV Kwik Hoo Tong HM [1929] 1 KB 400, [1928] All ER Rep 110, CA.
Hadley v Baxendale (1854) 9 Exch 341, [1843–60] All ER Rep 461, 156 ER 145.
Heron II, The, Koufos v C Czarnikow Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 686, [1969] 1 AC 350, [1967] 3 WLR 1491, HL.
Household Machines Ltd v Cosmos Exporters Ltd [1946] 2 All ER 622, [1947] KB 217.
Sharneyford Supplies Ltd v Edge (Barrington Black Austin & Co (a firm), third party) [1987] 1 All ER 588, [1987] Ch 305, [1987] 2 WLR 363, CA.
Transworld Oil Ltd v North Bay Shipping Corp, The Rio Claro [1987] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 173.
Cases also citedCottrill v Steyning and Littlehampton Building Society [1966] 2 All ER 295, [1966] 1 WLR 753.
Jones v Gardiner [1902] 1 Ch 191.
Phillips v Lamdin [1949] 1 All ER 770, [1949] 2 KB 33.
Raineri v Miles (Wiejski and anor, third parties) [1980] 2 All ER 145, [1981] AC 1050, CA.
Royal Bristol Permanent Building Society v Bomasch (1887) 35 Ch D 390.
Victoria Laundry (Windsor) Ltd v Newman Industries Ltd (Coulson & Co Ltd, third party) [1949] 1 All ER 997, [1949] 2 KB 528, CA.
Woodar Investment Development Ltd v Wimpey Construction UK Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 571, [1980] 1 WLR 277, HL.
Inquiry as to damagesThe plaintiffs, Seven Seas Properties Ltd, issued a writ against the defendants, Fatima Al-Essa and Sheika Sabaha Al Sabah, claiming (1) specific performance of a contract in writing dated 26 June 1987 made between the defendants as vendors and the plaintiffs as purchasers for the sale by the defendants to the plaintiffs of the leasehold property known as 27 and 29 Sloane Gardens, London SW1 and (2) further or alternatively, damages for breach of contract including damages caused by delay leading to breach by the plaintiffs of their contract of sub-sale. On 17 February 1988 Master Cholmondeley Clarke ordered that the contract of sale be specifically performed, that an inquiry be made as to damages sustained by the plaintiffs by reason of the defendants’ breach of contract in failing to complete the contract on the due date for completion and that the sum of £650,000 be retained
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out of the purchase price under the contract of £1·5m to abide the determination of all issues between the parties. On 27 May 1988 Hoffmann J ([1989] 1 All ER 164, [1988] 1 WLR 1272) varied Master Cholmondeley Clarke’s order by reducing the sum to be retained to £275,000. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Richard G Fawls (instructed by Reid Minty & Co) for the plaintiffs.
Ernest H Scamell (instructed by Jepson Goff) for the defendants.
GAVIN LIGHTMAN QC. I have before me an inquiry as to damages directed by Master Cholmondeley Clarke on 17 February 1988 which raises a question of law of some interest. The defendants were the owners of two leasehold properties known as 27 and 29 Sloane Gardens, London SWI. The properties comprised two adjoining houses which had been converted into a number of self-contained flats. In 1987 all the flats, save one occupied by the first defendant, were vacant. The properties themselves required renovation or refurbishment to achieve a proper return, whether in the form of lettings or a sale of the flats on long leases. The defendants retained Messrs William Willetts, estate agents (whom I shall call ‘Willetts’) to offer the properties for sale at the price of £1·5m and after full extensive marketing, including an advertisement in the Estates Gazette on 30 May 1987, Willetts found the plaintiffs as prospective purchasers. Mr Sharram Sabagi and Mr Basham Danishand of the plaintiffs were interested in purchasing for the purpose of a quick resale at a profit. They could not afford the cost of the purchase out of their own pockets, let alone the costs of refurbishment and renovation. Nonetheless, they kept their intentions to themselves and told Willetts that they intended to refurbish and then sell the refurbished flats and discussed with the agents the probable prices obtainable for the refurbished flats on such sale. They naturally kept to themselves any hopes for a quick return, for any such intimation might have put the defendants on notice of the potential availability of a purchaser at a higher price, and indeed it is clear that, if the defendants had received any such intimation, the defendants would not have sold to the plaintiffs.
The plaintiffs found such a sub-purchaser in a company called Grangeville Marketing Inc (which I shall refer to as ‘Grangeville’) who were willing to buy for £1,635,000. In the course of the arrangements made for such sub-sale Mr Sabagi and Mr Danishand agreed that one-third of any profit of such resale should be paid by the plaintiffs to a Mr Ismael Gandoor. The contract for sale by the plaintiffs to the defendants (which I shall call ‘the plaintiffs’ contract’) and the contract for resale (which I shall call ‘the first Grangeville contract’) were both signed on 26 June 1987. Thereafter the defendants learned of the first Grangeville contract and because they considered that they were being underpaid the difference between the prices payable under the two contracts they refused to proceed or complete.
On 22 October 1987 the plaintiffs served notice to complete the plaintiffs’ contract and Grangeville served notice to complete the first Grangeville contract, both notices expiring on 13 November 1987. Since the defendants persisted in their refusal to proceed and the plaintiffs were unable to complete the first Grangeville contract, on 13 November 1987 Grangeville accepted the failure of the plaintiffs to complete as a breach discharging them from further performance of that contract.
On 16 November 1987 Grangeville wrote an open letter to the plaintiffs threatening proceedings for damages for loss of bargain totalling some £700,000, and in a without prejudice letter of the same date offered in settlement of all
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claims against the plaintiffs to enter into a new contract of sub-purchase at the price of £1,325,000. This offer was not accepted. On 1 December 1987 Grangeville commenced proceedings against the plaintiffs claiming damages along the lines intimated in the open letter and on 2 December 1987 the plaintiffs commenced proceedings against the defendants for specific performance of the plaintiffs’ contract. On 17 February 1988 in the plaintiffs’ action Master Cholmondeley Clarke made an order for specific performance of the plaintiffs’ contract, directed this inquiry as to damages and ordered a retention of £650,000 from the purchase price pending the outcome of this inquiry. On 29 March 1988 Master Cholmondeley Clarke fixed the completion date for 12 April 1988, and the sale by the defendants to the plaintiffs subject to the retention was in fact completed on 21 April 1988.
On the same day, pursuant to a contract made in March (which I shall refer to as ‘the second Grangeville contract’), the plaintiffs completed a sale to Grangeville for £1,375,000. The sale at this price contained no provision precluding enforcement of the claims by Grangeville against the plaintiffs for breach of the first Grangeville contract.
On 27 May 1988 an appeal came before Hoffmann J ([1989] 1 All ER 164, [1988] 1 WLR 1272) against the order of Master Cholmondeley Clarke so far as he ordered a retention of £650,000. Hoffmann J made clear his view that, so far as the retention was intended to protect the plaintiffs against any entitlement on the part of the plaintiffs to an indemnity in respect of any claim by Grangeville for damages for breach of the first Grangeville contract, the ordered retention was far too high because any claim by Grangeville must, in view of the rule in Bain v Fothergill (1874) LR 7 HL 158, [1874–80] All ER Rep 83, be limited to wasted conveyancing expenses and costs and possibly wasted bank facility charges, architects’ and surveyors’ costs. He reduced the figure to £275,000.
On 28 June 1989 Master Cholmondeley Clarke ordered a trial as a preliminary issue whether the rule in Bain v Fothergill applied to limit Grangeville’s claim against the plaintiffs to such wasted costs and expenses.
Meanwhile, on 27 September 1989 s 3 of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989 came into law abolishing the rule in Bain v Fothergill in respect of contracts made after that date but not before.
On 28 February 1990 the preliminary issue was determined by Hirst J, who held that the rule applied. He granted a certificate under s 12 of the Administration of Justice Act 1969 enabling an application to be made to the House of Lords for a leapfrog appeal to the House of Lords. On 23 March 1990 Grangeville petitioned the House of Lords for leave to appeal and this petition was dismissed on 20 June 1990. Baulked by that decision, in July 1990 Grangeville served notice of appeal to the Court of Appeal intending to reach the House of Lords by this alternative route. On 31 January 1991 the appeal and the Grangeville action were compromised on terms providing for repayment of £60,000 to Grangeville within 28 days after determination of this, the plaintiffs’ action.
On this inquiry as to damages the plaintiffs claim as follows. They claim, first of all, £135,000 as loss of profits under the first Grangeville contract. This figure has however in the course of the hearing been reduced. First of all, it is agreed that the sum of £5,000 must be deducted from this sum to reflect certain legal costs and the net figure is to be reduced by a further one-third to reflect the entitlement of Mr Ismael Gandoor to one-third of the total net profit. Secondly, there was a claim for £125,000 as loss arising under the sale under the second Grangeville contract. Thirdly, there is a claim for £60,000 as a sum agreed to be paid to Grangeville in the compromise of its claims. Fourthly, there is a sum of
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£5,750 as the costs paid to their solicitors in respect of the defence of the Grangeville action. It is to be observed that all these claims represent losses arising by reason of the inability of the plaintiffs to complete the first Grangeville contract, an inability entirely attributable to the defendants’ breach of their contract with the plaintiffs.
The decision on this application whether these claims should be upheld turns on the application to the facts of this case of the rule in Hadley v Baxendale (1854) 9 Exch 341, [1843–60] All ER Rep 461. The two branches of this rule were stated by Lord Upjohn in The Heron II, Koufos v C Czarnikow Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 686 at 715, [1969] 1 AC 350 at 421 as follows:
‘1. Damages should be such as may naturally and usually arise from the breach, or 2. Damages should be such as in the special circumstances of the case known to both parties may be reasonably supposed to have been in the contemplation of the parties, as the result of a breach, assuming the parties to have applied their minds to the contingency of there being such a breach.’
The plaintiffs do not in their pleadings claim that the damages sought fall within the first branch. Indeed, I invited Mr Fawls, if he so wished, to apply to amend to invoke this head but he declined. He has, no doubt quite properly, nailed his flag to the second branch. Mr Fawls does not contend that at the date of the plaintiffs’ contract the defendants actually knew of any intention on the part of the plaintiffs to enter into a contract of resale, but he contends that in the special circumstances of this case known to the defendants there may reasonably be supposed to have been in their contemplation that the plaintiffs would or might enter into such a contract and that if they did so the result of the defendants’ breach of contract was liable, indeed likely, to put the plaintiffs in breach of such contract of resale and would occasion to the plaintiffs such damages as were indeed occasioned in this case. The special circumstances relied on are, first of all, the character of the premises, namely a block of flats ripe for refurbishment; secondly, the character of likely interested purchasers who have been called by at least one witness ‘property professionals’, persons who may be expected to buy in order to turn the property to account as opportunity might arise and to resell quickly if the price available was right; thirdly, the buoyant state of the property market for this kind of property at the time of the contract with both rising property prices and in many cases rapid returns and resales.
I accept that the evidence establishes these special circumstances. Indeed, they are not materially, if at all, in dispute. A more contentious issue relates to the probability or likely quick return or resale by the purchasers of this property after the marketing by Willetts at the price of £1·5m. It was common ground that the purchaser should be expected to purchase for the purpose of refurbishment and subsequent sale of the flats after refurbishment. Mr Duncan, the plaintiffs’ expert, expressed the view that nonetheless there was a chance, which he estimated at 10%, that such a purchaser might yet seek and achieve such a quick return as the plaintiffs in fact achieved. On the other hand, the defendants’ expert, Mr Hutchinson, firmly expressed the view that after the extensive marketing by Willetts and the achievement of the optimum price a resale by the plaintiffs within the ten week completion period was highly unlikely and the shortest period within which a resale could reasonably be expected was six to nine months. Mr Fawls, in his address to me, cautioned me about accepting Mr Duncan’s (his own expert’s) opinion on the percentage chance as a spot assessment off the cuff in his oral evidence rather than a careful, considered judgment. His purpose was to persuade me to treat his expert’s assessment as too
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low. Mr Duncan on at least two occasions in his oral evidence gave this percentage assessment and I cannot see how in particular in the light of the careful and considered evidence of Mr Hutchinson, who plainly thought the assessment of 10% was over-generous, I can evaluate the odds above 10%. Indeed, in the light of the caution with which perhaps I should view Mr Duncan’s spot assessment and the unequivocal considered views of Mr Hutchinson, I think I should conclude that a reasonable assessment of the prospects of an early resale contract, and certainly prior to the contractual completion date, were somewhat below 10%.
I turn now to the law. The relevant legal principles appear to me to be as follows. First of all, under the first head of the rule in Hadley v Baxendale a plaintiff is entitled to recover all damages which may fairly and reasonably be considered as arising naturally, ie according to the usual course of things, from the breach of contract. In the case of a breach by a vendor under a contract for sale, losses occasioned to the purchaser under and by reason of the existence of a sub-contract entered into by him will not without more fall within this head. The court will not take into account the existence of such sub-contract whether to increase or decrease the award of damages and the same principle applies whether the contract is for the sale of goods or the sale of land: see Brading v McNeill [1946] Ch 145. No doubt it is for this reason that the plaintiffs in this case quite properly disavow any reliance on the first head and rely solely on the second head of the rule.
Secondly, a plaintiff is entitled to recover by way of damages all loss which at the date of contract the defaulting party was on notice might be occasioned by the breach such that he may fairly be held, in entering into his contract, to have accepted the risk. A party for this purpose is on notice of facts (i) which were actually known by him, (ii) which were known by his agent and which it was his agent’s duty to communicate to him, and (iii) which he should reasonably have deduced from (i) and (ii). He will only be held to have accepted the risk if he was on notice of the purpose and intent of the plaintiff in entering into the contract with him and the consequent exposure of the plaintiff to the risk of damage of the character in question in the event of the defendant’s breach: see Treitel on Contract (8th edn, 1991) pp 860–862 and the cases cited and in particular Finlay & Co Ltd v NV Kwik Hoo Tong HM [1929] 1 KB 400, [1928] All ER Rep 110. This is only just, for a party to a contract should not be exposed to risks of liability going beyond the first branch of the rule but arising out of the special susceptibility to damage of the plaintiff unless he has had the opportunity to make an informed decision whether or not by entering into the contract to accept such risk, and whether to negotiate some exclusion from such liability.
Third, applying these principles to a claim by a plaintiff to recover from a defendant vendor losses arising under a sub-contract, the plaintiff must establish that the defendant was on notice of the existence at the date of the contract of the purpose and intent on the part of the vendor to enter into the sub-contract and that its fulfilment depended on the performance by the defendant of his contractual obligations to the plaintiff. It is not sufficient for the plaintiff to establish that the conclusion of a sub-contract was an available option: consider Diamond v Campbell-Jones [1960] 1 All ER 583, [1961] Ch 22. He must show that he or the circumstances ‘signalised’ (in the language of Cheshire and Fifoot on Contract (11th edn, 1986) p 588) such to be his purpose or intent in entering into the contract with the defendant. If such notice or acceptance of risk is established, the plaintiff is entitled to recover loss of profit in respect of such
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sub-contract and an indemnity in respect of liabilities arising from breach: see Household Machines Ltd v Cosmos Exporters Ltd [1946] 2 All ER 622, [1947] KB 217.
Applying those principles to the facts of this case, it is quite clear that neither the defendants nor their agent knew of any intention on the part of the plaintiffs to enter into any such contract as the first Grangeville contract. Indeed, quite deliberately the plaintiffs kept this from them and encouraged their naturally held view that their intent was refurbishment. Nor can I see how the special circumstances relied on signalised any such intent or purpose. At best such circumstances indicated that such an early sale was a possibility, but even then only a somewhat remote possibility, a possibility not greater than, and in my view, probably somewhat short of 10%.
In these circumstances the plaintiffs’ claim based on the second limb of Hadley v Baxendale must fail. The defendants were not on notice of the first Grangeville contract and accordingly any loss in respect of such contract arising from the defendants’ default under the plaintiffs’ contract was not within their contemplation as required by the second limb. I should add that even if, contrary to my view, it was not necessary for the plaintiffs to establish that the defendants were on notice and it was sufficient that objectively the losses in question were liable to occur, the likelihood of such occurrence on the facts of this case were very limited indeed and certainly beyond any reasonable contemplation of the defendants: consider Transworld Oil Ltd v North Bay Shipping Corp, The Rio Claro [1987] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 173. Reaching this conclusion, as Mr Fawls conceded in argument, all his claims must fail. I should perhaps add that if I had held that the first Grangeville contract fell within the contemplation of the defendants at the date of the plaintiffs’ contract, whilst I would have awarded the plaintiffs the sum claimed for loss of profit I would have awarded nothing more. The alleged losses on resale would have been irrecoverable in the absence of any allegation in the pleadings and evidence that the price on resale was the best price reasonably obtainable. Indeed, there are reasons to doubt whether this was the case and whether the sale at this price may have been designed to appease Grangeville. The sum claimed in respect of the compromise likewise I would have rejected, for it is neither pleaded nor proved that the settlement was a reasonable one to enter into. The onus was on the plaintiffs to do this if they were to seek to recover this sum from the defendants: see Biggin Co Ltd v Permanite Ltd [1951] 2 All ER 191, [1951] 2 KB 314. It is not sufficient for the plaintiffs merely to plead the compromise without any explanation as to how the figure was made up or arrived at or any evidence as to how or why or on what advice it was entered into. The settlement appears to me on its face to place far too high a premium on the possible claim by Grangeville for damages for loss of bargain, a claim which could only succeed if the House of Lords were persuaded to overrule the rule in Bain v Fothergill. Whatever the prospects at the time of the case of Sharneyford Supplies Ltd v Edge (Barrington Black Austin & Co (a firm), third party) [1987] 1 All ER 588, [1987] Ch 305, that is to say 14 October 1986, when the Court of Appeal attacked the injustice of the rule and gave leave to appeal to the House of Lords to enable the House of Lords to review that decision, the situation had critically changed after the passing of the 1989 Act. The possibility that the House of Lords would grant leave to appeal after the new legislation, which is deliberately not retrospective, and after the refusal of leave to appeal on the leap-frog application, appear to me to have been remote indeed. My doubts about the compromise are reinforced by the apparent deliberate choice not to involve the defendants in the decision despite the apparent intent to claim an indemnity from them. As to the claim for recovery of the legal costs, assuming that it could be established that the
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costs of defending the Grangeville action were paid, I would have felt the need for evidence explaining the course taken in respect of that action and in particular the advice (if any) taken regarding whether there should be a payment into court. In respect of the compromise, involving as it did the plaintiffs forgoing any prospect of recovery of the costs of the action, I would wish to have known how much was due in reimbursement to the plaintiffs under orders for costs against Grangeville (for example in respect of the hearing before Hirst J). I am given no details. I cannot think that a bare claim to have paid a figure in respect of costs is enough to found any claim.
For the reasons which I have given, I hold therefore that the claims made by the plaintiffs should be dismissed and I so direct.
Appeal dismissed.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis v Locker
[1993] 3 All ER 584
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: EMPLOYMENT APPEAL TRIBUNAL
Lord(s): KNOX J, MISS C HOLROYD AND MR P SMITH
Hearing Date(s): 28 OCTOBER 1992, 22 JANUARY, 10 MARCH 1993
Discovery – Privilege – Production contrary to public interest – Class of documents – Police grievance procedure – Statements and records compiled during police grievance procedure interviews – Woman police officer complaining of sex and racial discrimination in non-selection for police post – Applicant also initiating internal police grievance procedure – Whether records and statements compiled during police grievance procedure should be produced to industrial tribunal – Whether records and documents privileged and immune from production.
The applicant, a Muslim woman of Turkish origins who had been an officer of the Metropolitan Police since March 1980, made two complaints to an industrial tribunal complaining firstly of unfair treatment in selection for a post as a CID officer and racial and sexual discrimination under the Sex Discrimination Act 1975 or the Race Relations Act 1976 in relation to her application for such a posting, and secondly of victimisation after her first application. At about the same time the applicant initiated an internal grievance procedure which had been set up under Special Police Order 10/87 to deal with complaints of unlawful discrimination under the 1975 Act or the 1976 Act in the Metropolitan Police and to ensure the promotion of equality of opportunity and treatment within the force. In the course of the grievance procedure the applicant had interviews with senior officers the records of which she wished to have produced at the hearing of her complaints by the industrial tribunal. The Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis objected to their disclosure but the chairman of the tribunal ordered their disclosure on the ground that public interest immunity did not attach to such documents. The commissioner appealed against that decision, contending that although statements taken in the course of the grievance procedure might be relevant they were not necessary for the disposal of the applicant’s complaints by
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the industrial tribunal and moreover they were immune from disclosure on grounds of public policy because their disclosure would impede the implementation of the statutory objective for which they had been brought into existence and ought to be immune and protected from disclosure in the same way as statements taken in police disciplinary and complaints procedures.
Held – Public interest immunity did not attach to statements made during the course of a Metropolitan Police grievance procedure initiated by a police officer alleging either racial or sex discrimination under the 1975 Act or the 1976 Act and therefore such statements had to be disclosed by the commissioner on the hearing by an industrial tribunal of a complaint of discrimination made by an officer. The difference between the grievance procedure and the complaints and disciplinary procedure was that in regard to discipline the police were in a special position and the disciplinary procedures were statutory processes intended to punish and deter wrongdoers and to preserve the exceptionally important public interest of honesty and propriety in dealings between the police force and the public whereas the grievance procedure was a purely internal procedure set up to promote non-discriminatory practices and to secure remedies for victims of such discriminatory practices rather than to punish offenders. Accordingly, in relation to discrimination the police were in no different position than any other employer. Since part of the applicant’s complaints was that the grievance procedure had not been properly pursued and the grievance procedure might have produced statements that would tend to prove a background of discriminatory treatment which would, if proved, clearly be admissible material from which inferences could be drawn of discrimination on racial grounds, the statements in the grievance procedure were not only relevant but necessary for the disposal of the applicant’s complaints. The commissioner’s appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 588 e to j, p 589 f g, p 593 j to p 594 f and p 595 j, post).
Neilson v Laugharne [1981] 1 All ER 829 and Halford v Sharples [1992] 3 All ER 624 distinguished.
Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 3 All ER 617 considered.
Per curiam. The question of the existence of public interest immunity has to be answered by considering whether the class of documents is by virtue of the nature of the procedure in which it was generated of a type to which the class protection attaches and the fact that there has been an intimation of disclosure by those involved in an investigation will be irrelevant because the decision of the court on the claim of immunity from disclosure has to be founded on a consideration of the nature and status of the procedure in question when properly carried out, and if that leads to the conclusion that the public interest immunity should attach, then the court will treat as erroneous and disregard the intimation of those involved in the investigation that no immunity would be claimed (see p 593 f g, post); dictum of Bingham LJ in Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 3 All ER 617 at 622 applied.
NotesFor withholding production of documents on the ground of public interest immunity, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 86, and for cases on the subject, see 18 Digest (2nd reissue) 203–219, 1822–1879.
For the Sex Discrimination Act 1975, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 753.
For the Race Relations Act 1976, see ibid (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 828.
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Cases referred to in judgmentBurmah Oil Co Ltd v Bank of England [1979] 3 All ER 700, [1980] AC 1090, [1979] 3 WLR 722, HL.
Campbell v Tameside Metropolitan BC [1982] 2 All ER 791, [1982] QB 1065, [1982] 3 WLR 74, CA.
Chattopadhyay v Headmaster of Holloway School [1982] ICR 132, EAT.
Conway v Rimmer [1968] 1 All ER 874, [1968] AC 910, [1968] 2 WLR 978, HL.
Dolling-Baker v Merrett [1991] 2 All ER 890, [1990] 1 WLR 1205, CA.
Duncan v Cammell Laird & Co Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 587, [1942] AC 624, HL.
Halford v Sharples [1992] 3 All ER 624, [1992] 1 WLR 736, CA.
Hehir v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1982] 2 All ER 335, [1982] 1 WLR 715, CA.
Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 3 All ER 617, CA.
Neilson v Laugharne [1981] 1 All ER 829, [1981] QB 736, [1981] 2 WLR 537, CA.
Rogers v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1972] 2 All ER 1057, [1973] AC 388, [1972] 2 WLR 279, HL.
Science Research Council v Nassé [1979] 3 All ER 673, [1980] AC 1028, [1979] 3 WLR 726, HL.
AppealThe Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis appealed against the decision of the chairman of the industrial tribunal, London (South), made on 9 April 1992 and notified on 6 July 1992, requiring the commissioner to produce statements made during the course of police grievance proceedings initiated by the applicant, Sarah Locker, at the hearing of complaints made by the applicant to the tribunal on 27 August 1991 and 12 March 1992 that she had been discriminated and victimised, contrary to the Sex Discrimination Act 1975 and the Race Relations Act 1976, while she was a woman police officer in the Metropolitan Police. The facts are set out in the judgment of the tribunal.
Paul Goulding (instructed by the Solicitor, Metropolitan Police) for the commissioner.
Vivienne Gay (instructed by Deighton Guedalla) for the applicant.
Cur adv vult
10 March 1993. The following judgment was delivered by Wood J on behalf of Knox J.
KNOX J. The principal issue in this appeal is whether public interest immunity attaches itself to statements made during the course of Metropolitan Police grievance procedure initiated by the applicant, Mrs Sarah Locker. The chairman of the industrial tribunal at London (South) ordered discovery of such statements after a hearing on 9 April 1992 by a decision sent to the parties on 6 July, on the basis that public interest immunity did not attach to such documents. The Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis appeals against that decision.
The background facts are that Mrs Locker, a Muslim woman of Turkish origins, has been an officer of the Metropolitan Police since March 1980 and has presented two originating applications against the commissioner. The first (the discrimination application) was presented on 27 August 1991, and complained of unfair treatment in selection for a post as a CID officer and racial and sexual discrimination in relation to her application for such a posting. The second originating application (the victimisation application) was presented on 12 March
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1992 and complained of victimisation after her application in the discrimination application mentioned above.
At almost the same time as she presented the discrimination application Mrs Locker initiated an internal grievance procedure on 21 August 1991. This procedure was established by Special Police Order 10/87 and is specifically designed to cover grievances of discrimination which is unlawful either under the Sex Discrimination Act 1975 or the Race Relations Act 1976.
Mrs Locker herself had three interviews with Cdr Comben, the investigating officer, in the course of the grievance procedure on 25 September and 1 and 21 October 1991. The records of those interviews either have been or will be disclosed and no outstanding issue arose regarding them in the appeal before us. It is with regard to other interviews conducted in the course of the grievance procedure that the issues arise.
Special Police Order 10/87 establishing the grievance procedure contained the following provisions. The purpose was stated as follows:
‘This grievance procedure exists to ensure that individuals who feel they have a complaint under the Sex Discrimination Act and the Race Relations Act are dealt with justly and in a manner which complies with legal requirements, in order to assist in the promotion of equality of opportunity and treatment within the force. This is also intended to minimise the risk of the Metropolitan Police being taken to an Industrial Tribunal.’
It was also stated that contravention of any section of the 1975 Act or the 1976 Act, in addition to being unlawful, might amount to a breach of the disciplinary code. Paragraph 9 of the Discipline Code (a code of offences set out in Sch 1 to the Police (Discipline) Regulations 1985, SI 1985/518, made pursuant to s 33 of the Police Act 1964 and s 101 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984), creates an offence of—
‘Racially discriminatory behaviour, which offence is committed (without prejudice to the commission of any other offence) when a member of a police force—(a) while on duty, on the grounds of another person’s colour, race, nationality or ethnic origins, acts towards that other person in any such way as is mentioned in paragraph 8 (abuse of authority); or (b) in any other way, on any of those grounds, treats improperly a person with whom he may be brought into contact while on duty.’
The grievance procedure provides for a grievance to be taken by a complainant through five stages, if he or she so wishes, the first stage being to the first line manager of the complainant and the fifth to the assistant commissioner, personnel and training. It also contains this provision by way of comment on stage three, complaint to area or departmental deputy assistant commissioner:
‘Chief superintendents and [deputy assistant commissioners] should bear in mind that if it appears that an individual officer has contravened the Sex Discrimination Act or the Race Relations Act there may also be contravention of the discipline code and it may be considered necessary to appoint an investigating officer. Clearly chief superintendents and DACs will have to exercise discretion on the need for an investigating officer, but if the decision is to appoint one, then the accused officer must be notified immediately and told that any statement he or she makes under this grievance procedure cannot be treated as privileged.’
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A statement on similar lines was made by Cdr Comben at her first interview under the grievance procedure which he opened by saying:
‘I have been appointed by the deputy assistant commissioner to investigate certain grievances that have been made by you under the grievance procedure and to report my findings. I should first make it clear to you that the interview is strictly for the purpose of grievance procedure. The questions I ask and any answers you choose to give will not be used in the course of any future criminal or disciplinary investigation. However, any statements or documents prepared for the grievance procedure can be disclosed in the course of industrial tribunal proceedings.’
There are specific provisions in s 17 of the 1975 Act and s 16 of the 1976 Act requiring the holding of the office of constable to be treated as employment by the chief officer of police and by the police authority as respects acts done by him or them. It is almost a truism that it is important for the well-being not only of the Metropolitan Police but of the inhabitants of London that the Metropolitan Police should be free of unlawful racial and sex discrimination both in its relations with the public and internally. Great stress was laid upon this by Mr Goulding for the commissioner. No one contends the contrary. We would add that it is also important in our view that it should be seen to be free of such practices.
For documents to be subject to discovery and inspection it is common ground they must be shown to be relevant and necessary for the fair disposal of the proceedings: see Dolling-Baker v Merrett [1991] 2 All ER 890, [1990] 1 WLR 1205, a decision on the Rules of the Supreme Court, but accepted as authoritative upon the corresponding County Court Rules which are the ones to which the industrial tribunal rules of procedure refer. Relevance was conceded before the industrial tribunal and it was not sought to go back on the concession before us. Necessity for fairly disposing of the proceedings was not conceded before the industrial tribunal and was strongly challenged before us. The point was shortly dealt with by the industrial tribunal although the need for both relevance and necessity was identified. So far as the victimisation application is concerned, reliance was placed by Mr Goulding on the date filled in in the originating application in answer to the question: ‘If your complaint is not about dismissal, please give the date when the action you are complaining about took place (or the date when you first knew about it).' That date was 23 September 1991 which is one of several dates mentioned in the next box headed: ‘Please give full details of your complaint.' There can in our view be no sound basis for limiting the issues in the victimisation application to events of 23 September 1991. We accept Miss Gay’s submission that part of Mrs Locker’s complaint in the victimisation application is that the grievance procedure was not properly pursued and that Mrs Locker was asked irrelevant questions which may have been prompted by interviews in the grievance procedure. Mr Goulding described the argument as a fishing expedition. We are not satisfied that this is a justified criticism. Assuming that the relevant questions were indeed asked as alleged by Mrs Locker, as for present purposes we are bound to do, we are of opinion that the product of grievance procedure interviews is a legitimate subject for inspection to identify their genesis.
This situation is less plain in relation to the discrimination application which is concerned with Mrs Locker’s non-selection for a CID posting at an interview on 9 August 1991 which antedates the grievance procedure. The argument was concerned with the extent to which evidence later in point of time than the act of discrimination complained of was capable of being relevant and admissible before
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an industrial tribunal hearing an originating application claiming unlawful racial discrimination. We were referred to Chattopadhyay v Headmaster of Holloway School [1982] ICR 132 where the critical event occurred on 12 March 1979 and an issue arose whether subsequent events claimed to show malevolence and victimisation were admissible. Browne-Wilkinson J said (at 137):
‘It seems to us to be clear, following that principle, that if in this case the applicant had been able to lead evidence that a person who attended the meeting on March 12, 1979, had before March 12, 1979, treated the applicant with hostility, that evidence of hostility would be admissible as showing circumstances consistent with a racialist attitude exhibited by that person, even though at the end of the day there might be another, innocent explanation for such hostility. The industrial tribunal accepted correctly that evidence of events subsequent to the alleged discrimination was admissible if logically probative of a relevant fact. We can see no relevant distinction between hostility before the event and hostility after the event; the evidence of such hostility is admitted with a view to showing that the person involved was treating the applicant differently from other people, whether he was animated by racial considerations or not. In either case it seems to call for an answer.’
A little later (at 138) he pointed out that the question was not whether the evidence, if admitted, would be decisive but whether it might tend to prove the case. In the present case, as Mr Goulding pointed out, what is in issue is the inspection of statements about events which may themselves have been anterior in date to the discriminatory conduct complained of and not evidence of later acts which might show differential treatment as in Chattopadhyay’s case. Mr Goulding submitted that the statements were not intrinsically logically probative in that a different officer conducted the CID interview, the subject of the discriminatory application, from the officer who conducted the grievance procedure. On balance we have reached the conclusion that the allegations in the discrimination application do go significantly wider than the conduct of the interview when Mrs Locker was not selected for a CID post and, as frequently happens, she relies upon a background of discriminatory treatment which in our view would, if proved, clearly be admissible material from which inferences could, if the industrial tribunal thought it appropriate to do so, be drawn of discrimination on racial grounds. On that basis it does seem to us that Mrs Locker’s grievance procedure may well have produced statements that would tend to prove such background facts. We therefore agree with the decision of the industrial tribunal that the statements are not only relevant but necessary.
That means that the question of public interest immunity has to be dealt with. Miss Gay accepted that the decision in Neilson v Laugharne [1981] 1 All ER 829, [1981] QB 736 was binding upon this tribunal. The documents involved in that case were generated in the course of a complaints procedure under s 49 of the Police Act 1964 initiated by the plaintiff. The issue regarding public interest immunity arose in an action against the Chief Constable of Lancashire for (inter alia) trespass, false arrest and false imprisonment. Oliver LJ, having rejected a claim to legal professional privilege, said this of public interest immunity ([1981] 1 All ER 829 at 838, [1981] QB 736 at 751):
‘What, as it seems to me, one has to look at is the likely consequence of a general right to disclosure in civil litigation in the context of the statutory purpose sought to be achieved by the section and to ask, first, whether these likely consequences support the contention that such disclosure would be
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contrary to the public interest and, secondly, if so, whether that interest is a consideration of such importance as to outweigh the public interest in disclosure. Every case of this kind depends ultimately on balancing the public interest in the administration of justice, which demands the disclosure of all relevant material, against a competing public interest in withholding that material. Immunity from disclosure, as Lord Salmon observed in Rogers v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1972] 2 All ER 1057 at 1071, [1973] AC 388 at 412, is not lightly to be extended to classes of documents other than those always recognised by the courts as entitled to immunity, but the boundaries of immunity are not to be regarded as immutably fixed. He said: ‘‘The principle is that whenever it is clearly contrary to the public interest for a document or information to be disclosed, then it is in law immune from disclosure. If a new class comes into existence to which this principle applies, then that class enjoys the same immunity”.’
Of the police complaints procedure he said ([1981] 1 All ER 829 at 839, [1981] QB 736 at 752–753):
‘The statements are volunteered for a particular purpose, namely, the statutory inquiry. No doubt the consequence is accepted, as it must be, that the inquiry may lead to a prosecution or to a disciplinary inquiry in which the maker of the statement may be called to give evidence of some or all of the matters contained in his statement and that the statement may, therefore, to this extent fall to be used if such proceedings ensue. But I do not think it follows from that that disclosure of the statements for the quite alien purpose of civil litigation would not inhibit those whose co-operation is required if the inquiry is to be sensibly and usefully conducted. And it is this which, as it seems to me, is the crucial test.’
He identified as the true test whether the production of the documents in issue was likely to impede the carrying out of the public statutory purpose for which they were brought into existence. He answered that in the affirmative, saying ([1981] 1 All ER 829 at 839, [1981] QB 736 at 752–753):
‘The question therefore, as it seems to me, must be this—will liability to disclosure in civil proceedings of statements taken in the course of such inquiry adversely affect the attainment of the legislature’s purpose? It seems to me that it will in a number of ways. Take first the position of police officers who are asked to co-operate on the inquiry. They may themselves be potential defendants and, if they are, would clearly be disinclined to provide statements which might subsequently be used to found civil claims against them. They may be called upon to provide information about the activities of superior officers under whose command they are going to have to continue to serve in future. They may be willing, in the performance of their duty to do this, and to accept that they may be called upon to give evidence if a prosecution or disciplinary proceedings follow. But the complaints which have to be investigated under the [1964] Act are not restricted to those which may lead to prosecution or disciplinary proceedings. They cover things as trivial as minor incivility and as serious as assault. Will officers freely co-operate in assisting inquiries into the conduct of their superiors if they know that, quite regardless of whether a prosecution or disciplinary proceedings ensue, not only the fact that they have participated in the inquiry but the very statements which they have made are likely to come to the knowledge of the officer whose conduct is
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under investigation and under whom they may have to continue to serve by disclosure as a result of discovery in civil proceedings. Statements may have to be taken from relatives or associates or neighbours of the complainant, statements which may well, in the event, be adverse to the claim which he seeks to assert and which may result in a decision that disciplinary proceedings or prosecution shall not be instituted. Are such persons likely to be willing to offer free and truthful co-operation in investigations under the section if they know that any statements which they make are liable to be disclosed to the complainant in any civil proceedings which he may he minded to commence?’
Mr Goulding submitted that the process of reasoning there adopted applied with equal force to the grievance procedure with which this appeal is concerned.
We can at this stage dispose of two submissions made by Miss Gay. The first was that Neilson v Laugharne was an illustration of a bad case making bad law and that its ratio should not be extended. It is a decision of the Court of Appeal binding upon us and we see no basis upon which we should adopt any such wholesale condemnation of a decision by a superior court. Secondly, she submitted that the candour doctrine had become discredited and should not be relied upon. The candour doctrine is a convenient shorthand for the principle which accords immunity on the ground that if it is refused classes of persons will be less candid than they would be if the documents were immune from disclosure. This again is much too sweeping a statement for us to use it as a useful guide. There have been judicial criticisms of the candour doctrine, eg by Lord Salmon in Science Research Council v Nassé [1979] 3 All ER 673 at 683, [1980] AC 1028 at 1070 and by O’Connor LJ in Campbell v Tameside Metropolitan BC [1982] 2 All ER 791 at 799–800, [1982] QB 1065 at 1079. But equally there are authoritative statements that it survives: see eg Lord Wilberforce’s reference to an excessive dose of cold water in Burmah Oil Co Ltd v Bank of England [1979] 3 All ER 700 at 707, [1980] AC 1090 at 1112. What matters most for our purposes is that in Neilson v Laugharne Oliver LJ plainly considered it to be a significant factor and that decision is binding upon us. Much of course depends upon the status of the person whose candour is under investigation. Cabinet ministers are made of sterner stuff than police informers to take two extremes. It would clearly be inappropriate as a matter of principle for us to reject all arguments based on the effect of disclosure on candour.
Neilson v Laugharne was concerned with the statutory police complaints procedure. That decision was applied in that regard in Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 3 All ER 617 where it was also held that statements used as evidence in police disciplinary hearings and transcripts of such hearings were similarly the subject of public interest immunity. Bingham LJ analysed the choice facing the Court of Appeal in Neilson v Laugharne, mentioned that the wisdom of the choice had been doubted in Hehir v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1982] 2 All ER 335, [1982] 1 WLR 715 and held that the Court of Appeal must apply the ratio of Neilson’s case to any case not distinguishable from it in principle (see [1992] 3 All ER 617 at 622). A fortiori this tribunal must do likewise. Bingham LJ stated the view which prevailed in Neilson v Laugharne in the following terms ([1992] 3 All ER 617 at 622):
‘The competing view was that in the public interest, statements made for purposes of a s 49 investigation should be available for use to further those purposes (whether disciplinary and private, or criminal and public) but no other. The underlying public interest asserted was (one infers) in the
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maintenance of an honourable, disciplined, law-abiding and uncorrupt police force. The protection of that public interest required that allegations of improper or criminal conduct by police officers should be investigated and appropriate action taken. To that end it was necessary that members of the public or other police officers should be encouraged to give any relevant information they had to the appropriate authority without fear of harassment, intimidation or use of any statement in any other proceedings. It was therefore desirable in the public interest that statements made to the appropriate authority investigating a complaint against a police officer should not be liable to be produced or disclosed or referred to in any proceedings save disciplinary or criminal proceedings officially brought against the police officer in question. To hold otherwise would frustrate the statutory purpose of an investigation under the [1964] Act.’
The central issue before this tribunal is therefore whether the grievance procedure differs in principle from the police disciplinary and complaints procedures. Before examining that issue mention should be made of the other authority relied upon by Mr Goulding in support of the argument that public interest immunity should be held to attach to the grievance procedure documentation and that is Halford v Sharples [1992] 3 All ER 624, [1992] 1 WLR 736 where there was an appeal against a decision of this tribunal that public interest immunity attached to police complaints and disciplinary files. Butler-Sloss LJ held that the Court of Appeal was bound by the decisions in Neilson v Laugharne and Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis, unless factors could be shown distinguishing those cases. Of one argument adduced to achieve that end, namely that what was in issue in Halford v Sharples was neither witness statements nor transcripts and that the principle in Neilson v Laugharne did not cover entire complaint and discipline files, Butler-Sloss LJ said ([1992] 3 All ER 624 at 657, [1992] 1 WLR 736 at 771–772):
‘This argument does not recognise the underlying unity of the files which are concerned with complaints, disciplinary incidents and relationships between police officers throughout their careers … If the principle enunciated in the judgments of Oliver and Bingham LJJ is to be followed, all documents which depend upon, refer to, or relate to complaints and discipline, whether reports, correspondence, memoranda or notes between police officers, as well as statements or other evidence, have to be protected and consequently excluded. To use or produce the file in civil litigation is to deviate from the purpose as explained by Oliver LJ.’
These statements were aimed at an argument which sought to distinguish between different categories of documents generated by police complaints and disciplinary procedures and rejected the distinction. Halford v Sharples was not concerned with the quite separate issue which the appeal before us raises, namely whether the grievance procedure is distinguishable in principle from the police complaints and disciplinary procedures. That does not seem to us to be touched by the proposition that the same protection should extend in the complaints and disciplinary field, not only to statements and transcripts but also to entire files because of the underlying unity of the files. It does not therefore seem to us that the decision in Halford v Sharples does more than emphasise the already firmly established proposition that at any rate in the Court of Appeal and this tribunal the decision in Neilson v Laugharne is binding unless it can be distinguished in principle.
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Before turning to the critical question whether there is such a distinction between the grievance procedure on the one hand and the complaints and disciplinary procedures on the other, it will be convenient to dispose of a feature which weighed heavily in the industrial tribunal decision under appeal. That is that because of the statement that Cdr Comben made to Mrs Locker and the comment in Special Police Order 10/87 which established the grievance procedure, those dealing with grievance procedures were aware that statements made could be used in industrial tribunal proceedings. We do not find that to be of any great weight because the question to be answered is whether the class of documents is by virtue of the nature of the procedure in which they were generated of a type to which class protection attaches. Foreseeability of disclosure is not critical to that issue which turns on the intrinsic nature of the relevant procedure. A somewhat similar argument was identified by Bingham LJ in Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 3 All ER 617 at 622 when he stated the competing view which did not gain acceptance by the Court of Appeal in Neilson v Laugharne:
‘One view, urged by the plaintiff in that action, was that any statement made for the purposes of a s 49 investigation might be used either in disciplinary proceedings or in a criminal prosecution against a police officer and so its contents might become known to the police officer, other witnesses and members of the public at large in the ordinary course of events. Since these consequences would be foreseeable from the outset such statements could not be regarded as confidential and would not be appropriate subjects for public interest immunity.’
The rejection of that view involves, among other things, a rejection of foreseeability of publication as a fatal objection to the existence of public interest immunity if the status of the process which generates the documents in question is such that the court is satisfied that public interest immunity should apply. If the court does so decide, then the intimation to those involved in it that there will be no immunity from disclosure is erroneous and has to be disregarded. To treat such an intimation as governing the question whether public interest immunity attaches to the procedure would in our view be to allow the tail to wag the dog. The decision of the court on a class claim has to be founded on a study of the nature and status of the procedure in question when properly carried out, and if that leads to the conclusion that public interest immunity should attach, the proper carrying out of the procedure would not include a warning that statements were liable to be disclosed. We turn therefore to the central question whether the grievance procedure differs from the disciplinary and complaints procedures sufficiently to make the decision in Neilson v Laugharne distinguishable. We have reached the conclusion that it does.
The first, and in our view the principal, difference between the grievance procedure on the one hand and the complaints and disciplinary procedure on the other hand is that the latter procedures are statutory processes intended to punish and deter wrongdoers whereas the grievance procedure is a purely internal procedure, set up with the approval of such bodies as the Equal Opportunities Commission and the Commission for Racial Equality. Its purpose has been set out earlier in this judgement and is more concerned with promoting non-discriminatory practices and securing remedies for victims of such discriminatory practices than with punishing offenders. In addition the grievance procedure has parallels in other organisations where exactly the same laudable
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objects of providing remedies for victims of discriminatory practices are pursued without there being questions of public interest immunity.
The special position of the police seems to us to reside in the exceptional importance of honesty and propriety in the dealings between the police force and the public. Bingham LJ described the public interest as the maintenance of an honourable, disciplined, law-abiding and uncorrupt police force. No one would suggest that a dishonourable, undisciplined, law-flouting and corrupt organisation of any sort was in the public interest but those requisites are particularly important in connection with the police, hence the much more stringent codes imposed upon the police by Parliament than those imposed upon other public services such as the health service and the fire service. There is however no such higher requirement or more stringent code of conduct imposed upon the police in matters of sex and racial discrimination. In those fields the police are treated in much the same way as other employers. The special provisions in s 17 of the 1975 Act and s 16 of the 1976 Act are only necessary because without them there could well be doubt whether there was such an employment relationship as to cause Pt II of the 1975 Act and of the 1976 Act to apply at all. Although it is very important that unlawful discrimination should not be practised within the police force, so it is elsewhere in our society and the special position which the police occupy and the special statutory provisions made with the intention of reflecting that provision are in our view centred on the need for discipline and integrity rather than on any particular need to eradicate discrimination. We appreciate that there is a link between the disciplinary code and discrimination but that does not in our view have the effect of converting the measures against discrimination into part of the police disciplinary code. Equally we appreciate that there will often be a degree of overlap between documents in disciplinary files and therefore covered by public interest immunity and the same documents in a grievance procedure which in our view will not. This is not an unprecedented state of affairs in that public interest immunity for a class of documents will not infrequently embrace documents which are in fact in the public domain.
We do not consider that arguments based on the extent to which disclosure requirements might be abused carry any significant weight. Oliver LJ discounted such arguments in Neilson v Laugharne and conversely we attach little, if any, importance to the fact that there may well be less possibility of abuse in the disclosure of documents generated in the course of a grievance procedure, which can only be set in motion by members of the force, than of those generated in the complaints and disciplinary procedures, which can be set in force by any member of the public whether or not disaffected. We have earlier dealt with the argument based on the warnings that were given of possible disclosure in industrial tribunal proceedings.
We do not regard industrial tribunal proceedings as ‘alien proceedings’ in the context of the grievance procedure, in the sense in which Oliver LJ used that expression in Neilson v Laugharne and Butler-Sloss LJ interpreted the phrase in Halford v Sharples [1992] 3 All ER 624 at 567, [1992] 1 WLR 736 at 772, in assessing the interrelation between disciplinary and complaints procedure on the one hand and civil proceedings such as an action for damages for trespass and false imprisonment in Neilson v Laugharne and industrial tribunal proceedings in Halford v Sharples on the other hand. There is a much smaller gulf set between the grievance procedure and industrial tribunal proceedings such as the present proceedings if only because the whole scheme of the grievance procedure is set up with an eye to industrial tribunal proceedings and in contemplation of their
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availability to a complainant. It is at this point that the intimation that statements might be used in industrial tribunal proceedings fits in with what we perceive to be the underlying thrust of the grievance procedure and to that rather limited extent we regard it as consistent with the view we take of the purpose of the grievance procedure rather than a justification in itself for holding that public interest immunity does not attach.
Finally, the question arises whether the balance struck by the industrial tribunal between the public interest in the administration of justice in securing that all relevant material is before the tribunal and the public interest in the proper functioning of the police service was vitiated by an error of law. The problem was addressed in para 11 of the industrial tribunal decision, which reads as follows:
‘A further submission made on behalf of the respondents is that public confidence in the police force will be undermined if these documents are disclosed because it is important that the public have confidence that the police will not tolerate sexual or racial discrimination. It is equally important that the public have confidence that industrial tribunals are able to have before them all matters that are relevant and necessary when a person is alleging racial or sexual discrimination. I stated earlier it is important for a tribunal to know that a grievance procedure has been properly carried out. If it has not the tribunal will ask itself why. If it has been properly carried out that will assist the tribunal in deciding whether any inference of discrimination can be drawn. If these documents are not disclosed I find the tribunal will be hampered in their public duty. Balancing that duty against the public interest in the functioning of the police service, which interest is that they, the public, maintain confidence in that service, I find that the disclosure of these documents will not affect the public functions of the police service. Although the class of documents which are protected by public interest immunity cannot be closed it should not be enlarged unless essential in the interest of the public and “necessary for the proper functioning of the public service”. I find that in these applications it is not essential in the interest of the public but it is essential for the proper functioning of the tribunal that they are disclosed. Neither is it necessary for the proper functioning of the police service that they are withheld. I therefore reject the respondent’s submissions and order the disclosure of statements made during the course of Mrs Locker’s grievance procedure.’
The quotation ‘necessary for the proper functioning of the public service’ derives from Duncan v Cammell Laird & Co Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 587 at 595, [1942] AC 624 at 642 and Conway v Rimmer [1968] 1 All ER 874 at 888, [1968] AC 910 at 952 and is in our view the correct test. The only point upon which we have differed from the view taken by the industrial tribunal is on the significance of the warning that statements made by officers in the course of the grievance procedure would not be protected by privilege but liable to disclosure in industrial tribunal proceedings. We do not consider that the weight attached in the industrial tribunal to that aspect of the matter vitiates the balance struck in the paragraph last quoted above which is not affected by the existence of those warnings. Upon that basis we see no error of law in the balance struck and we therefore dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Re F (a minor) (blood tests: parental rights)
[1993] 3 All ER 596
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BALCOMBE, NOLAN AND KENNEDY LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 17, 18 DECEMBER 1992, 5 FEBRUARY 1993
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Parental responsibility order and contact order – Application by putative father – Proof of paternity – Blood test – Child conceived at time when mother having sexual relationship with both her husband and putative father – Relationship between mother and putative father ending before child born – Child brought up since birth as child of mother and her husband – Putative father applying for order that blood tests be taken to determine paternity of child – Mother opposing application – No realistic prospect of putative father’s applications for parental responsibility and contact orders succeeding – Child’s welfare for foreseeable future depending on relationship with mother’s family – Whether order for blood tests should be made – Family Law Reform Act 1967, s 20(1).
The appellant, B, who believed himself to be the natural father of a child, E, applied under s 20(1)a of the Family Law Reform Act 1969 in proceedings brought by him for a parental responsibility order and a contact order under ss 4(1)(a) and 10 of the Children Act 1989 for blood tests to be taken to determine the paternity of E. At the time of E’s conception E’s mother was having sexual relations with both her husband and B. The relationship between the mother and B ended before the birth of E. Since E’s birth she had been brought up as a child of the family of the mother and her husband and had had no contact with B. The mother opposed the application. The judge dismissed B’s application for blood tests to be taken. He appealed.
Held – The judge had properly exercised his discretion under s 20(1) of the 1969 Act to refuse B’s application for blood tests to be taken because (a) the probable outcome of his application for parental responsibility and contact orders would be that the application would be refused whether or not blood tests showed him to be the natural father, since parental responsibility and contact orders could not possibly benefit the child E as she had been born and brought up in the family unit of the mother and her husband and thought of the husband as her father, (b) the decisive factor was the child’s interests and a blood test was likely to be detrimental to E’s welfare which depended for the foreseeable future on her relationship in the family unit, the stability of which might be disturbed by a blood test, and (c) the court would not order a blood test to be carried out against the will of the parent who had since birth had sole parental responsibility for the child vis-à-vis the appellant. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 600 h to p 601 a d e j to p 602 a d e, post).
S v S, W v Official Solicitor [1970] 3 All ER 107 applied.
Notes For proof of parentage by blood test sampling, see 5(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras
714–719, and for cases on the subject, see 27(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 101–102, 4494–4501.
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For the Family Law Reform Act 1969, s 20, see 17 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 192.
Cases referred to in judgment
C and anor (minors), Re [1992] 2 All ER 86, CA.
G v G [1985] 2 All ER 225, [1985] 1 WLR 647, HL.
Hadmor Productions Ltd v Hamilton [1982] 1 All ER 1042, [1983] 1 AC 191, [1982] 2 WLR 322, HL.
Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745, [1954] 1 WLR 1489, CA.
McVeigh v Beattie [1988] 2 All ER 500, [1988] Fam 69, [1988] 2 WLR 992.
R v R (blood test: jurisdiction) [1973] 3 All ER 933, [1973] 1 WLR 1115.
S v S, W v Official Solicitor [1970] 3 All ER 107, [1972] AC 24, [1970] 3 WLR 366, HL.
SM (a minor) (natural father: access), Re [1991] 2 FLR 333.
W (a minor) (access), Re [1989] 1 FLR 163.
Case also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Hodgkiss v Hodgkiss [1984] FLR 563, CA.
Interlocutory appealThe applicant, Mr B, appealed against the order of Judge Callman sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Family Division on 6 July 1992 dismissing his application that blood tests should be taken for the purposes of determining whether he was or was not the father of E, a child whose mother was the respondent, Mrs F. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Mr B appeared in person.
Michael Sternberg (instructed by Argles & Court, Maidstone) for Mrs F.
5 February 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the appeal would be dismissed for reasons to be given later.
BALCOMBE LJ. On 18 December 1992 we dismissed an appeal from an order made on 6 July 1992 by Judge Callman sitting as a judge of the High Court, saying that we would give our reasons later.
On 14 November 1991 the respondent (Mrs F) gave birth to a female child (E). At the time of E’s conception Mrs F was having sexual relations with both her husband (Mr F) and the appellant (Mr B). The relationship between Mrs F and Mr B ended before the birth of E. Since E’s birth she has been brought up as a child of the family of Mr and Mrs F and has had no contact with Mr B.
On 31 March 1992 Mr B applied to the magistrates’ court for a parental responsibility order (under s 4(1)(a) of the Children Act 1989) and for a contact order (under s 10 of the 1989 Act) in respect of E, stating in each case that he believed himself to be the natural father of E.
On 11 May 1992 there was a directions appointment before the magistrates at which both Mr B and Mrs F were legally represented. No evidence was given, but the magistrates transferred the applications to the Family Division of the High Court for the following expressed reasons:
‘1. At the time of conception, Mrs. [F] was having sexual relations with both her husband and the applicant, and maintains that the child is her husband’s. 2. She opposes any application for a direction for D.N.A. tests on
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the ground that the court is being asked to make findings to disturb the presumption of legitimacy. 3. It is not in the best interests of the child for that presumption to be disturbed. 4. The case is a complex one involving a hearing possibly over four days. These days, furthermore, may possibly not be consecutive due to the probability of consideration of skeleton arguments, as well as matters of fact and law. 5. It is desirable that any case involving opposition to blood tests be heard by the High Court in the first instance (R v R (blood test: jurisdiction) [1973] 3 All ER 933, [1973] 1 WLR 1115).’
On 17 June 1992 District Judge Conn, sitting in the Principal Registry of the Family Division, at the hearing at which the parties were again both legally represented, made the following directions:
‘The matter be and is hereby referred to a High Court judge for determination of the question of whether or not blood tests should be taken for the purposes of determining whether the applicant [Mr B] is or is not the father of the said child; and for the said judge to give such further directions and make such further orders as are considered appropriate.’
This was how the matter came before Judge Callman. It is relevant to note the following. (1) Mr B never made a formal written application for a blood test to be taken. Nevertheless the matter had been raised on his behalf at the directions hearing before District Judge Conn, and at the hearing before Judge Callman counsel for Mr B accepted that the judge had before him an application by Mr B. Accordingly there is no substance in the point taken by Mr B that he had not made an application for a blood test to be taken. (2) No evidence was given at any stage in the proceedings and there was no statement of agreed facts. This has led to a complaint by Mr B that certain facts stated by the judge in his judgment were incorrect. Fortunately the basic facts as recorded earlier in this judgment are accepted as accurate by both parties. However, we consider it regrettable that there should be any dispute as to the relevant facts, and we are firmly of the view that if no evidence is given then there should be a written statement of agreed facts, signed by or on behalf of the parties, so that there can be no dispute as to what is, and what is not, agreed.
Judge Callman dismissed with costs what he described as Mr B’s application for blood tests to be taken for the purpose of determining whether he was or was not the father of E. From that order Mr B has appealed to this court. He appeared before us in person and he conducted his appeal with ability and courtesy.
The power of the court to require the use of blood tests is conferred by s 20(1) of the Family Law Reform Act 1969, which provides as follows:
‘In any civil proceedings in which the paternity of any person falls to be determined by the court hearing the proceedings, the court may, on an application by any party to the proceedings, give a direction for the use of blood tests to ascertain whether such tests show that a party to the proceedings is or is not thereby excluded from being the father of that person and for the taking, within a period to be specified in the direction, of blood samples from that person, the mother of that person and any party alleged to be the father of that person or from any, or any two, of those persons …’
The amendment to this section introduced by s 23(1) of the Family Law Reform Act 1987 has not yet been brought into force, but nothing turns on that for the purposes of this appeal.
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As will be apparent from the words ‘may … give a direction for the use of blood tests’ in the subsection, the court has a judicial discretion whether or not to order that blood tests be taken to seek to determine paternity, and this was confirmed by the decision of the House of Lords in S v S, W v Official Solicitor [1970] 3 All ER 107, [1972] AC 24. The discretion has to be exercised on principles settled by the superior courts (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 113, [1972] AC 24 at 45 per Lord Reid) but provided those principles are observed an appellate court should not interfere with the exercise by the judge of his discretion save within well-established limits: see generally Hadmor Productions Ltd v Hamilton [1982] 1 All ER 1042, [1983] 1 AC 191 and G v G [1985] 2 All ER 225, [1985] 1 WLR 647. So our task is to determine whether the judge’s decision to decline to order blood tests in the present case was exercised in accordance with principles settled by the superior courts.
The leading case is S v S, W v Official Solicitor [1970] 3 All ER 107, [1972] AC 24. There two appeals were heard together; in each case a child had been born within wedlock; in each case the husband of the child’s mother denied paternity; in each case the question of paternity arose in the context of divorce proceedings between husband and wife; in each case the parent in control of the child consented to the taking of a blood test; and in each case the House of Lords ordered that blood tests should be taken. From the speeches in the House of Lords the following principles can be derived.
(1) The presumption of legitimacy merely determines the onus of proof (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 109, 120, [1972] AC 24 at 41, 54 per Lord Reid and Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest).
(2) Public policy no longer requires that special protection should be given by the law to the status of legitimacy (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 111, 121, 123, [1972] AC 24 at 43, 55, 57 per Lord Reid, Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest and Lord Hodson).
(3) The interests of justice will normally require that available evidence be not suppressed and that the truth be ascertained whenever possible (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 112, 121, [1972] AC 24 at 44, 55 per Lord Reid and Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest). In many cases the interests of the child are also best served if the truth is ascertained (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 122, 123–124, [1972] AC 24 at 56, 57, 59 per Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest and Lord Hodson).
(4) However, the interests of justice may conflict with the interests of the child. In general the court ought to permit a blood test of a young child to be taken unless satisfied that that would be against the child’s interests; it does not need first to be satisfied that the outcome of the test will be for the benefit of the child (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 113, 118, 124, [1972] AC 24 at 45, 51, 58 per Lord Reid, Lord MacDermott and Lord Hodson).
(5) ‘… it is not really protecting the child to ban a blood test on some vague and shadowy conjecture that it may turn out to be to its disadvantage; it may equally well turn out to be for its advantage or at least to do it no harm’ (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 113, [1972] AC 24 at 45 per Lord Reid).
(6) A blood sample may not be taken from a person under the age of 16 years without the consent of the person having his or her care and control—see sub-ss (1) and (3) of s 21 of the Family Law Reform Act 1969. Without such consent it may not be proper for the court to order that a blood test of the child be taken (see [1970] 3 All ER 107 at 112, [1972] AC 24 at 44 per Lord Reid).
The judge considered carefully the principles to be derived from S v S, W v Official Solicitor. He made the valid point that since that case was decided scientific progress—in particular the use of DNA profiling—has made blood tests a more accurate (although not conclusive) way of establishing parentage. He then referred to two cases at first instance, Re W (a minor) (access) [1989] 1 FLR 163 and
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Re SM (a minor) (natural father: access) [1991] 2 FLR 333, where in each case the natural father of a young illegitimate child was refused access in circumstances where the father had no relationship with the child, and the mother had established a new family unit into which the child had settled. He also made reference to the principles of sub-ss (1) and (3)(c) of the Children Act 1989 which are relevant to Mr B’s applications for parental responsibility for, and contact with, E. He set out the facts distinguishing the instant case from S v S, W v Official Solicitor and although in certain details—eg the precise point of time at which the relationship between Mr B and Mrs F terminated—Mr B contests the facts of this case as stated by the judge, the relevant differences are correctly identified.
The judge explained the exercise of his discretion in the following terms:
‘Where a child is conceived and brought up in an existing marriage as a child of the family, and the association of the mother with a man who claims to be the putative father has terminated well before the birth of the child, and such association co-existed with sexual relations with the husband, a court should decline to exercise its discretion to order a blood test for DNA profiling under s 20(1) of the Family Law Reform Act 1969, as I hereby do. The desire to establish his possible paternity by [Mr B], the alleged putative father, should not just stand as an object of an abstract theoretical declaration by a court. Given the present emphasis on the interests of children under the 1989 Act and the welfare check-list imposed for s 8 applications thereunder, as well as the recently cited authorities of the courts on parental rights of putative fathers, whose associations with the natural mother terminated well before the birth of the child, this court must note that any successful application by [Mr B] for a parental rights or contact order in respect of [E] is a remote and unlikely prospect. Against this, the court must consider it unfair to expose this infant to the risk of losing the presumption of legitimacy that she has up to now enjoyed. Further, this court will not order a blood test by way of DNA profiling or fingerprinting to be carried out against the will of a parent who has since birth had sole parental responsibility and residence of the child, at the behest of a stranger to the marriage, during which the child was conceived and born, to satisfy his own desire to know the truth about the consequences of a relationship with the mother that has terminated well before the birth. This would be so even if the object were to regulate his conduct as to whether to seek parental responsibilities or contact with such child, as it would be counterbalanced by the interests of the child not to be disturbed in its present status or its position as a child of, or residence in, the family of [Mr and Mrs F] in the particular circumstances of this case.’
Mr B criticised the judge’s decision on a number of grounds. He submitted that the judge was wrong to base his decision—at least in part—on the probable outcome of Mr B’s applications for parental responsibility and contact; that in any event the interests of justice and E’s own welfare required that her true paternity be established. In our judgment that submission is fundamentally misconceived. As is apparent from the provisions of s 20(1) of the Family Law Reform Act 1969, the power to direct the use of blood tests to determine parentage only arises in ‘civil proceedings in which the paternity of any person falls to be determined’. If the probable outcome of those proceedings will be the same whoever may be the natural father of E, then there can be no point in exposing E to the possible disadvantages of a blood test. We agree with the judge that in the circumstances of this case there is no realistic prospect of Mr B succeeding at the present time in
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his applications for parental responsibility and contact since we do not see how such orders could benefit E. On this aspect of the case Mr B referred us also to the decision of this court in Re C and anor (minors) [1992] 2 All ER 86, but we do not find that that case is of assistance in the present case. It was concerned with an application for a parental rights order by the father of two illegitimate children, where the father had played a part in the life of the elder child and some small part in the life of the younger child. This court held that the fact that the parental rights order might not presently be enforceable was not of itself sufficient to preclude the making of such an order. In this case E was born into, and has remained in, the family unit of Mr and Mrs F, and Mr F is the only man whom E has looked upon as her father, whether or not he is her biological father. We find no error in the approach adopted by the judge when he considered the question of whether to order a blood test in the context of the prospects of Mr B succeeding in his applications for parental responsibility and contact.
On the issue whether it was in E’s interests to have the identity of her natural father determined with such degree of certainty as scientific tests can provide, Mr B submitted that it must inevitably be in E’s interests to know the truth about her parentage; her interests should not be subordinated to those of Mr and Mrs F. This may well be true, but now and for the first few years of her life E’s physical and emotional welfare are inextricably bound up with the welfare of the family unit of which she forms part: any harm to the welfare of that unit, as might be caused by an order for the taking of blood tests, would inevitably be damaging to E. Mr B also raised the possibility that unless E knows her true father there is the risk that she may become attracted to, and even marry, someone within the prohibited degrees of relationship; there was also the possibility that she could develop some medical condition—eg glaucoma—for which a knowledge of her genetic make-up might be relevant. (On this last point Mr B, at the commencement of the appeal, sought leave to put in an affidavit by a consultant paediatrician. We refused leave because the conditions laid down in Ladd v Marshall [1954] 3 All ER 745, [1954] 1 WLR 1489 were not satisfied, but indicated that we were prepared to take judicial notice of the fact that knowledge of a person’s genetic make-up might be relevant for the possible diagnosis, prevention, mitigation or cure of some medical disorder.) These are undoubtedly possible risks, but the chance that they might operate so as to harm E’s interests are infinitesimal when brought into balance against the harm that might be caused to her if Mr B were able to proceed with his applications. Mr B also referred us to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (New York, 20 November 1989; TS 44 (1992); Cm 1976), which has been ratified by the United Kingdom, and in particular to art 7, which provides that a child shall have, ‘as far as possible, the right to know and be cared for by his or her parents’. Mr B submitted that E’s welfare included her rights under this article. Whether or not Mr B is included in this definition of a parent within the meaning of this article, it is not in fact possible for E to be cared for by both her parents (if Mr B is such). No family unit exists, or has ever existed, between Mr B and Mrs F, and if Mr B were able to assert his claims to have a share in E’s upbringing it would inevitably risk damaging her right to be cared for by her mother, Mrs F.
Although the judge did not deal with all the aspects of E’s welfare in the same detail as we have done above—possibly because the case was not argued before him in the same way as it was before us—we can find no error in his general approach to this issue.
As the judge rightly said, the court will not order a blood test to be carried out against the will of the parent who has since birth had sole parental responsibility
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for the child. Mr B endeavoured to meet this difficulty by referring us to McVeigh v Beattie [1988] 2 All ER 500, [1988] Fam 69 where Wood J held that, in the absence of a reasonable explanation, evidence of a putative father’s failure to comply with a magistrate’s direction to submit to a blood test was ‘other evidence’ capable of constituting corroboration of the complainant mother’s case in affiliation proceedings. He submitted that Mrs F’s refusal to allow a blood test to be taken of E could equally amount to corroboration of his claim to be E’s father. So it might, but this would be very slim grounds for the court to direct a blood test, and we bear in mind Lord Reid’s doubt whether, without the consent of the parent having care and control (ie Mrs F, whether or not Mr F can be counted for this purpose) it would be proper for the court to order a blood test.
Mr B also criticised the judge’s reference to exposing E ‘to the risk of losing the presumption of legitimacy that she has up to now enjoyed’. In the light of what was said about the presumption of legitimacy in S v S, W v Official Solicitor it may be that the judge gave more weight to this factor than is appropriate in modern circumstances, but this does not detract from the main thrust of his judgment. E’s welfare depends for the foreseeable future primarily upon her relationship with her mother: Mr B expressly conceded that he did not dispute the right of Mrs F to have E living with her. Anything that may disturb that relationship or the stability of the family unit within which E has lived since her birth is likely to be detrimental to E’s welfare, and unless that detriment is shown to be counterbalanced by other positive advantages to her which an order for the taking of blood tests could confer, then the judge’s refusal to order blood tests was not merely an exercise of his discretion with which we cannot interfere, but one with which in the circumstances of this case we agree.
Mr B made a number of other points by way of criticism of the judgment below, including the point that the public interest, as well as E’s own personal interest, requires that the truth about her paternity be ascertained if possible. However, in the last resort it is clear that E’s interests must be the decisive factor; where, as here, the judge was satisfied that it would be against E’s interests to order blood tests to be taken—a decision with which we agree—then it was both his duty and his right to refuse the application. It was for these reasons that we dismissed this appeal.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Crowden and another v Aldridge and others
[1993] 3 All ER 603
Categories: SUCCESSION; Administration Of Estates
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): JONATHAN SUMPTION QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 11–13, 20 NOVEMBER 1992
Administration of estates – Distribution of estate – Direction by legatees varying distribution of estate – Memoranda signed by all residuary legatees directing executors of estate to increase legacy payable to one legatee – Memoranda contemplating execution of formal deed – Some legatees refusing to sign deed – Whether memoranda effective to vary distribution of estate.
The deceased died in 1987 leaving an estate worth approximately £90,000. By his will he left £100 to Mrs P, his housekeeper, £20 each to his two executors and the residue to 16 first cousins. Mrs P had been employed by the deceased’s family since 1935 and had been housekeeper to and cared for the deceased since 1970. She received a nominal wage and paid a nominal rent for a bungalow owned by the deceased. The resdiuary beneficiaries considered that the provision in the will for Mrs P was inadequate and signed short memoranda agreeing to vary the will so as to grant her a legacy of £5,000, the deceased’s personal chattels and the freehold of the bungalow. Each memoranda stated that the signatory was ‘prepared to enter into a deed to formalise this gift’. A deed was prepared but four of the resdiuary beneficiaries, the first to fourth defendants, changed their minds and refused to sign it. The executors sought the determination of the court whether the memoranda were effective to vary the devolution of the deceased’s estate. The first to fourth defendants contended (a) that the memoranda were merely intended to record an intention to enter into a legally binding document in the future or were evidence of an inchoate gift, or (b) that if the memoranda were legally binding, they were not intended to have legal effect or should be set aside for non-disclosure of material facts by the executors.
Held – The memoranda were intended to be effective immediately and amounted to a direction by the residuary beneficiaries to the executors varying the terms on which the executors were to deal with the estate. A unanimous direction by residuary legatees to an executor was effective to vary the executor’s obligations to administer the estate. Further, the residuary legatees had a right enforceable in equity to compel the executor to carry out his obligations, even though they had no beneficial interest in the estate. It followed that the memoranda were effective to vary the terms on which the estate was to be administered. There were no grounds for holding that the residuary legatees did not intend the memoranda to have legal effect or that material facts had not been disclosed to them by the executors. The question raised by the executors’ summons would be answered accordingly (see p 607 h to p 608 a h to p 609 a h to p 610 b d to h, p 611 b to j and p 612 b d to h, post).
NotesFor devolution of property under testamentary dispositions, see 50 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 215.
Cases referred to in judgmentChrimes, Re, Locovich v Chrimes [1917] 1 Ch 30.
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Comr of Stamp Duties v Livingston [1964] 3 All ER 692, [1965] AC 694, [1964] 3 WLR 963, PC.
Grey v IRC [1959] 3 All ER 603, [1960] AC 1, [1959] 3 WLR 759, HL, affg [1958] 2 All ER 428, [1958] Ch 690, [1958] 3 WLR 45, CA, rvsg [1958] 1 All ER 246, [1958] Ch 375, [1958] 3 WLR 45.
Marsden, Re, Bowden v Layland (1884) 26 Ch D 783, [1881–85] All ER Rep 993.
Saunders v Anglia Building Society [1970] 3 All ER 961, [1971] AC 1004, [1970] 3 WLR 1078, HL.
Storer v Manchester City Council [1974] 3 All ER 824, [1974] 1 WLR 1403, CA.
Tierney v Wood (1854) 19 Beav 330, 52 ER 377.
Von Hatzfeldt-Wildenburg v Alexander [1912] 1 Ch 284, [1911–13] All ER Rep 148.
Wale (decd), Re [1956] 3 All ER 280, [1956] 1 WLR 1346.
Cases also citedBeswick v Beswick [1967] 2 All ER 1197, [1968] AC 58, HL.
Bolton v Madden (1873) LR 9 QB 55.
Bonnewell v Jenkins (1878) 8 Ch D 70, Fry J and CA.
Cotteen v Missing (1815) 1 Madd 176, 56 ER 66, V-C.
Greenwood v Greenwood (1863) 2 De G & Sm 28, 46 ER 285, LJJ.
Groves v Perkins (1834) 6 Sim 576, 58 ER 710.
Holt’s Settlement, Re [1968] 1 All ER 470, [1969] 1 Ch 100.
Milroy v Lord (1862) 4 De G F & J 264, [1861–73] All ER Rep 783, 45 ER 1185, LJJ.
Norton, Re [1932] 1 Ch 505.
Oughtred v IRC [1959] 3 All ER 623, [1960] AC 206, HL.
Vandervell v IRC [1965] 2 All ER 37, [1966] Ch 261.
Originating summonsBy an originating summons dated 8 August 1990 the plaintiffs, John Reginald Crowden and Dale Abblitt, the personal representatives of Maurice Henry Farrington (the deceased), sought (1) directions authorising the plaintiffs as personal representatives to sell property situated at and known as The Grove, 24 Manor Road, Folksworth, Cambridgeshire, and (2) determination of the question whether devolution of the estate of the deceased had been varied by the resdiuary beneficiaries to the effect that the deceased’s personal chattels and freehold bungalow situated at 27 Washingly Road, Folksworth, devolved upon Violet Peppercorn free of tax together with a tax-free legacy of £5,000 to Violet and Arthur Peppercorn. The defendants to the summons were the resdiuary beneficiaries, Audrey Evelyn Aldridge, Freda Joan Smart, Muriel Betty Toulmin, Beryl Gladwin, Joyce Abblitt, Peter Clark, Jean Emma Crisp, Brenda Edwards, Bertha Emily Green, Muriel Ellen Jinks, Judith Ellen King, Ruby Ivy Marie Parsons, Agnes Dorothy Jane Partridge, Arthur Richard Saunders, Cyril Stanley Saunders, Alma Florence Thompson, Arthur Peppercorn and Violet Peppercorn. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Thomas Dumont (instructed by Greenwoods, Peterborough) for the plaintiffs.
Anthony Mann QC (instructed by Ironsides Ray & Vials, Northampton) for the first and second defendants.
Stephen Lloyd (instructed by Elsey & Hodson, Peterborough) for the third and fourth defendants.
Jonathan Arkush (instructed by Hunt & Coombs, Peterborough) for Mr and Mrs Peppercorn.
The fifth to sixteenth defendants did not appear.
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JONATHAN SUMPTION QC. This is a sad story of good intentions and subsequent recriminations.
Maurice Farrington died at the age of about 68 on 3 August 1987. He left a modest estate consisting of two houses and a small building society deposit, which was proved at £90,309·50 gross. By his will, which had been made some 21 years before, he left a legacy of £100 to Mrs Violet Peppercorn and £20 to each of his two executors. The residue he directed to be converted into cash and divided equally between all his first cousins living at the date of his death. At the date of his death there were 16 first cousins living.
Something more needs to be said about Mrs Peppercorn. She was first employed by Maurice Farrington’s parents in 1935, when she was 16 years old. The Farringtons were farmers who lived in those days in a large farmhouse at Morbourn. Mrs Peppercorn was employed about the house and on the farm. One of her duties was to look after Maurice, who was a little slow mentally and had difficulty in looking after himself. In 1959, Maurice Farrington’s father died. His mother gave up the farm and moved, with Maurice, to a smaller house in Folksworth. Mrs Peppercorn continued to work for them there and, a little later, in 1962, a small bungalow was bought for her and her husband to occupy. It was understood between Mrs Farrington and Mrs Peppercorn that when Mrs Farrington died Mrs Peppercorn would continue to act as housekeeper and to look after Maurice. Mrs Farrington died after a long illness in 1970 and Maurice stayed in the house at Folksworth. Mrs Peppercorn ran the house for him, cooking and shopping, maintaining and tidying the house, redecorating it once a year and attending to all of Maurice Farrington’s needs. When he died she had worked for him and his family for the whole of her adult life, 52 years. At the end of that period she was receiving for her services £2·50 per week and paying rent of £1·50 per week inclusive of rates for her bungalow.
One of the executors appointed by the will was Mr Crowden, a retired chartered surveyor who had known the family for a long time. At the funeral, which took place on 10 August 1987, he gathered together the 12 first cousins who were present. He told them that he had been appointed as one of Maurice Farrington’s executors, and although he did not read out or produce the will, he explained its terms. He told them that he was very concerned that Mrs Peppercorn had received a legacy of only £100, which seemed a poor reward for all her services. He suggested that the will should be varied so as to give her an increased pecuniary legacy (he suggested £1,000) and that she should have the freehold of the bungalow in which she and her husband lived. Mr Arthur Sanders, one of the cousins, said that £1,000 was not enough. She should have £5,000 and the bungalow. He was expressly supported by his sister, Mrs Gladwin. Everyone else agreed to this proposal. At some stage during the meeting Mr Crowden produced copies of a form of memorandum which he had drafted. It read:
‘I agree that the terms of the late Mr. Farrington’s last will be varied so as to give Mrs. Violet Peppercorn all of Mr. Farrington’s personal chattels together with the freehold bungalow at 27 Washingly Road, Folksworth, of which she is currently tenant (tax-free) and to give a tax-free legacy of £5,000·00 to Mr. and Mrs. Arthur Peppercorn. I am prepared to enter into a deed to formalise this gift.’
There were then spaces marked ‘signed’, ‘address’, and ‘date’.
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Each of those present then signed and dated one copy of the memorandum and returned it to Mr Crowden. Someone suggested that Mrs Peppercorn (who was in the garden) should be invited in and told what had been done. But Mr Crowden said that he would tell her himself. Later in the afternoon Mrs Gladwin (one of the cousins) went into the garden and told Mrs Peppercorn: ‘You’ll be all right, Violet; we have looked after you.' Another cousin, Mrs Aldridge, came out and told her that the bungalow would be hers, and the personal chattels, and that she would receive a legacy of £5,000.
Four of the 16 cousins were absent from the meeting after the funeral. One of them was Mrs Aldridge’s sister, Mrs Smart. Mrs Aldridge told the meeting that she would make herself responsible for obtaining her signature. Mrs Smart duly received the form by post from Mrs Aldridge. She signed it five days after the funeral and returned it to Mr Crowden. The three remaining cousins signed their copies of the memorandum either on the day of the funeral or within a few days afterwards.
In the latter part of 1987, these generous sentiments faded. Four of the cousins had second thoughts. They were Mrs Aldridge and Mrs Gladwin, Mrs Toulmin and Mrs Smart, the first four defendants. As the second sentence of the memorandum envisaged, a deed was prepared embodying in more formal language the arrangements set out in the memorandum except that it referred only to Mrs Peppercorn and not to her husband as well. Mr Crowden had the deed presented to the cousins for signature but the first four defendants refused to sign it. The remaining 12 cousins all signed the deed and some of them have sworn affidavits in these proceedings saying that they would like the arrangements embodied in the memorandum to be carried into effect.
I am not concerned with the moral claims which Mrs Peppercorn may have on account of her long years of service, nor with the rights and wrongs of the dissentients’ changing their minds if that is what they were in law entitled to do. But it is right that I should record that all four dissentients have said, either in their affidavits or through their counsel, that they are content in principle that Mrs Peppercorn should remain in occupation of her bungalow irrespective of the outcome of these proceedings. Their concern is that Mrs Peppercorn should not acquire an interest in the bungalow which would pass to her heirs, people who might have no connection with the family; and, more generally, that Mr Farrington’s wishes should be carried into effect unaltered. As Mrs Toulmin put it in her affidavit, ‘a will is a sacred document to be respected’.
These proceedings were begun by the executors in January 1989. Their object is to seek a determination from the court of the question whether the devolution of Mr Farrington’s estate has been varied by the memoranda signed separately by all the residuary legatees on the day of the funeral or shortly thereafter. Of the 16 residuary legatees, the four dissentients are the first four defendants. They have been represented before me. The fifth to sixteenth defendants have acknowledged service and have said that they do not wish to contest the proceedings, adding a note to the effect that they agree with the ‘executors’ proposal’. They have not been represented. Mr and Mrs Peppercorn were added as seventeenth and eighteenth defendants by order of Warner J, apparently without their knowledge, on 17 July 1990. They have taken no active part in these proceedings other than to swear affidavits setting out in neutral terms the facts about their relationship with the Farrington family and to instruct Mr Arkush to appear on the first day of the hearing before me. He explained that they were concerned about the danger of incurring costs beyond their limited means and that Mrs Peppercorn was embarrassed and distressed at the thought of being
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drawn into a dispute within a family which she had served for so long. Mr Arkush’s instructions were therefore to make no submissions on behalf of his clients. They were content that the matter should be determined upon argument between the executors and the residuary legatees. At the outset of the hearing Mr Mann and Mr Lloyd, who appeared for the four dissentients, invited me to refuse to hear any submissions from counsel for the executors as far as they sought to suggest grounds for giving effect to the memoranda of August 1987. This would have had the effect that while the executors were free to ask the question framed in their originating summons, only the dissentients’ answer to it would be heard. I rejected that application.
The dissentients’ case, in summary, is that the memoranda are without legal effect either because they recorded only a willingness to enter into a legally binding document in future or because they were simply evidence of an inchoate gift revocable at any time before the transfer was actually made to Mr and Mrs Peppercorn. But if, contrary to their contentions, the memoranda were otherwise legally effective documents, then they say that in the circumstances of the funeral and its immediate aftermath they had no intention by signing it to produce any legal effect whether or not the document was on its face apt to do so. Alternatively they seek to set it aside on the ground of non-disclosure of certain facts by the executors.
The starting point is to consider what the legal effect of the memoranda was, on the assumption that everyone who signed it meant what they said. The first point which is made is that the reference to a deed in the second sentence of the memoranda means that there will be no legal consequences until that deed has been executed. In Von Hatzfeldt-Wildenburg v Alexander [1912] 1 Ch 284 at 288–289, [1911–13] All ER Rep 148 at 151 Parker J said:
‘It appears to be well settled by the authorities that if the documents or letters relied on as constituting a contract contemplate the execution of a further contract between the parties, it is a question of construction whether the execution of the further contract is a condition or term of the bargain or whether it is a mere expression of the desire of the parties as to the manner in which the transaction already agreed to will in fact go through. In the former case there is no enforceable contract either because the condition is unfulfilled or because the law does not recognize a contract to enter into a contract. In the latter case there is a binding contract and the reference to the more formal document may be ignored.’
The instrument which Parker J was considering was a preliminary contract. But he was doing no more than state the alternative possibilities which arise whenever a document otherwise capable of having legal effect refers to the execution of a further document. On their face, the memoranda of August 1987 were intended to be immediately effective documents. They begin with the words: ‘I agree that the terms of the late Mr Farrington’s last will be varied …' That is the language of present agreement. When the signatory says in the second sentence that he ‘is prepared’ to enter into a deed to formalise the gift, he is not postponing the legal effect of the document or reserving his final view, but merely saying what he would be willing if necessary to do, ie to record in more formal terms that which he has already agreed in less formal ones. If the memoranda did, on their face, have immediate legal effect, then what was that effect? There are at least three possibilities: (1) that the memoranda were contracts to dispose of the interests of the signatories in the estate to the extent of £5,000 and the house and chattels; (2) that they recorded a gift of the interest of
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the signatories to that extent; and (3) that they are a direction to the executors varying their obligations in the administration and distribution of the estate. All three possibilities have been canvassed before me with varying degrees of enthusiasm. In my judgment the third is the correct one.
The nature of a residuary legatee’s interest in an unadministered estate has been considered a number of times. The leading modern authority is Comr of Stamp Duties v Livingston [1964] 3 All ER 692, [1965] AC 694, a decision of the Privy Council in which the advice of the Board was delivered by Lord Radcliffe. He said ([1964] 3 All ER 692 at 696, [1965] AC 694 at 707):
‘When Mrs. Coulson died she had the interest of a residuary legatee in his testator’s unadministered estate. The nature of that interest has been conclusively defined by decisions of long established authority, and its definition no doubt depends on the peculiar status which the law accorded to an executor for the purposes of carrying out his duties of administration. There were special rules which long prevailed about the devolution of freehold land and its liability for the debts of a deceased, but subject to the working of these rules whatever property came to the executor virtute officii came to him in full ownership, without distinction between legal and equitable interests. The whole property was his. He held it for the purpose of carrying out the functions and duties of administration, not for his own benefit; and these duties would be enforced on him by the Court of Chancery, if application had to be made for that purpose by a creditor or beneficiary interested in the estate. Certainly, therefore, he was in a fiduciary position with regard to the assets that came to him in the right of his office, and for certain purposes and in some aspects he was treated by the court as a trustee. KAY, J., in Re Marsden, Bowden v. Layland, Gibbs v. Layland (1884) 26 Ch D 783 at 789, [1881–85] All ER Rep 993 at 996, said: “An executor is personally liable in equity for all breaches of the ordinary trusts which, in courts of equity, are considered to arise from his office.” He is a trustee “in this sense”. It may not be possible to state exhaustively what those trusts are at any one moment. Essentially, they are trusts to preserve the assets, to deal properly with them, and to apply them in a due course of administration for the benefit of those interested according to that course, creditors, the death duty authorities, legatees of various sorts, and the residuary beneficiaries. They might just as well have been termed “duties in respect of the assets” as trusts. What equity did not do was to recognise or create for residuary legatees a beneficial interest in the assets in the executor’s hands during the course of administration.’
At the time when the memoranda were signed, none of the signatories had any beneficial interest in the estate. But they did have a right, enforceable in a court of equity, to compel the executors to do their duty.
It is not in doubt that a will (or more properly the obligations of executors in administering an estate assigned to it) may be varied by a direction given by all the relevant legatees. It is conceded that the deed would have had this effect if all the residuary legatees had executed it in this case. The exact juridical analysis of the transaction is obscure, but in my judgment it operates in the same way as a unanimous direction to trustees by all the relevant beneficiaries under a trust. Such a direction can in law create an interest in a third party enforceable directly by him against the trustees (see Re Chrimes, Locovich v Chrimes [1917] 1 Ch 30 at 36–37; Re Wale (decd) [1956] 3 All ER 280 at 283–284, [1956] 1 WLR 1346 at 1350–1351).
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This is sometimes described as an assignment of the interest of the directing beneficiaries to the third party, but it is in fact simply an alteration of the trusts on which the property is held. This was decided by Upjohn J and the Court of Appeal in Grey v IRC [1958] 1 All ER 246, [1958] Ch 375. In that case the legal owner of certain securities was orally directed by the sole beneficial owner to hold them on trust for third parties. The question at issue was whether this was a ‘disposition of an equitable interest or trust’ which was required to be in writing by s 53(1)(c) of the Law of Property Act 1925. Upjohn J held that it was not a disposition because the direction was not an assignment. He said ([1958] 1 All ER 246 at 250–251, [1958] Ch 375 at 381–382):
‘In my judgment a direction to trustees to hold trust property on trust for a donee operates as a transfer of the equitable interest to the donee by way of trust and not by way of assignment. In the first place the element of assignment, i.e., of direct passing of the equitable interest from donor to donee by appropriate words of assignment or gift, is lacking. Secondly, the only person who can effectively declare new trusts concerning the equitable interest is the donor himself: Tierney v. Wood ((1854) 19 Beav 330, 52 ER 377). For myself, I can see no real distinction between the two cases that may be put: (i) the donor says “I declare myself a trustee of my equitable interest for the donee”; the legal effect of that is that the trustees become trustees of the equitable interest for the donee and the donor disappears from the picture; and (ii) the donor says ‘I direct you the trustees to hold on trust for the donee’. Both seem to me to be really indistinguishable methods of operating to transfer the equitable title by way of declaration of trust in contrast to doing so by way of assignment. By giving directions to trustees as to new trusts, it seems to me that the donor has deliberately chosen the path of declaring new trusts rather than the path of assignment.’
When the matter came to the Court of Appeal the majority held that the transaction was a ‘disposition’ whether it was an assignment or not. But all three members of the court analysed the transaction in the same way as Upjohn J had done (see [1958] 2 All ER 428 at 433–434, 440, [1958] Ch 690 at 709–710, 719 per Lord Evershed MR and Morris LJ respectively, and implicitly, [1958] 2 All ER 428 at 442–443 per Ormerod LJ). The House of Lords affirmed the decision of the Court of Appeal (see [1959] 3 All ER 603, [1960] AC 1). Although Lord Radcliffe ruminated on the question whether the transaction operated by way of assignment or declaration of trust, none of the committee answered the question because they were agreed that it was a disposition in either case.
I do not doubt that it would have been possible for the residuary legatees to transfer their right to Mrs Peppercorn by assignment, notwithstanding that they did not yet have equitable interests in the estate. However, that is not what the memoranda seeks to achieve. The memoranda are not contracts. They are not addressed to Mr and Mrs Peppercorn, and they were in fact delivered after signature to the executors. Their opening words show that the intention was to benefit Mr and Mrs Peppercorn by varying the terms on which the executors were to deal with his estate. The result was that the residuary legatees never would acquire any proprietary interest in that part of the estate which the executors were being directed to pass to Mr and Mrs Peppercorn.
A number of consequences follow from this analysis, assuming that the memoranda can be applied according to their terms. The memoranda took immediate legal effect as soon as all 16 of them were communicated to the executors, just as a declaration of trust by the residuary legatees in respect of their
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interest would have taken effect at once. The transaction did not depend for its efficacy on being communicated to Mr and Mrs Peppercorn. For the same reason it was not revocable as an inchoate gift. Nor did it need to be effective as a contract or supported by consideration. All of this assumes that the memoranda are to be applied according to their terms. I therefore turn to the grounds on which the dissentients say that it should not be.
The first and, I think, the main point which they take is that whether or not the memoranda are apt to produce legal consequences on their face, the circumstances in which they were signed show that they were not intended to have legal effect. All four dissentients have sworn affidavits saying that they did not realise that they were signing a document which would have legal effect. Although they put it in a variety of different ways, what it amounts to is that the memoranda were signed on an informal family occasion after a liberal amount of sherry had been distributed; the participants were distressed about Maurice’s death and their minds were on other things; there was no warning that this matter was going to be discussed and no time to properly consider either the executor’s proposal or document which he produced, or to take legal advice.
In my judgment none of these considerations are relevant. The question with which I am dealing now is not whether the transaction is liable to be set aside, but whether it was ever effectively entered into at all. No one has suggested that the dissentients are entitled to plead non est factum in this case, and with good reason for the facts alleged, even if taken at face value, would not support such a plea. As Lord Reid said in Saunders v Anglia Building Society [1970] 3 All ER 961 at 963, [1971] AC 1004 at 1016:
‘The plea cannot be available to anyone who was content to sign without taking the trouble to try to find out at least the general effect of the document. Many people do frequently sign documents put before them for signature by their solicitor or other trusted advisers without making any enquiry as to their purpose or effect. But the essence of the plea non est factum is that the person signing believed that the document he signed had one character or one effect whereas in fact its character or effect was quite different. He could not have such a belief unless he had taken steps or been given information which gave him some grounds for his belief. The amount of information he must have and the sufficiency of the particularity of his belief must depend on the circumstances of each case. Further the plea cannot be available to a person whose mistake was really a mistake as to the legal effect of the document, whether that was his own mistake or that of his adviser. That has always been the law and in this branch of the law at least I see no reason for any change.’
In the absence of a sustainable plea of non est factum, the question whether an instrument executed by a person was intended by him to produce legal results can only be answered by reading the document itself and construing it. In Storer v Manchester City Council [1974] 3 All ER 824 at 828, [1974] 1 WLR 1403 at 1408 Lord Denning MR said of a similar point:
‘The final point was this. Counsel for the corporation said that the town clerk did not intend to be bound by the letter of 9th March 1971. He intended that the corporation should not be bound except on exchange. There is nothing in this point. In contracts you do not look into the actual intent in a man’s mind. You look at what he said and did. A contract is formed when there is, to all outward appearances, a contract. A man cannot get out of a contract by saying: “I did not intend to contract”, if by his words he has done
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so. His intention is to be found only in the outward expression which his letters convey. If they show a concluded contract that is enough.’
It does not seem to me that the test can be any different when the instrument in question is not a contract but a unilateral document such as the memoranda with which I am concerned. Of course, such instruments have to be construed having regard to the surrounding circumstances in which they were made. The words must be treated has having the meaning which would reasonably have been put to them by someone in the particular situation in which the signatories were placed. It does not follow from that that their subjective intentions and misunderstandings can determine the effect of the document or lack of it.
However, I would not have accepted this particular contention of the dissentients even if I had been persuaded that their state of mind was relevant. It is true that the meeting after the funeral was an informal family occasion and that those present took little time to consider Mr Crowden’s proposal and did not take legal advice about it. There is, however, no evidence that they were hindered from taking more time or consulting lawyers had they wished to. Moreover, I reject the suggestion that they did not know what they were doing. All four dissentients are intelligent and determined ladies as their affidavits show. It is not suggested by any of them that they had drunk so much that their minds were clouded. Mr Crowden’s proposal was extremely simple, and it cannot have taxed anyone’s understanding very hard. Mr Crowden told them what the will said. It was a short and straightforward document. He suggested that a bequest of £100 to Mrs Peppercorn was inadequate given the services which she had performed. That must have been well understood by those present. The proposal was discussed among them and as a result of that discussion was altered so as to increase the pecuniary legacy for Mrs Peppercorn from £1,000 to £5,000. Mrs Gladwin, one of the dissentients, took part in that discussion and agreed with the change. It was perfectly plain that if the dispositions in Maurice Farrington’s will were varied so as to increase Mrs Peppercorn’s legacy, that would reduce what was available for the cousins, and indeed Mrs Aldridge records that Mr Crowden pointed the fact out to her. ‘You are not giving anything away’, he is quoted as saying when he invited her to sign the memorandum, ‘only getting less than something you never expected’. The residuary legatees were being invited to sign a document, an act which itself imported a measure of formality to the transaction, and every one of them did so. The document was short. It was written in plain, clear English. Indeed it was a good deal plainer and more comprehensible than the deed which was prepared by lawyers some months later. In Mrs Aldridge’s case, she not only signed the document herself but arranged to obtain the signature of Mrs Smart after the meeting. The cousins must have appreciated that they had made a decision there and then. If they had not appreciated that, then they would hardly have suggested at the meeting that Mrs Peppercorn should be invited in and told about it. Nor, I imagine, would Mrs Gladwin and Mrs Aldridge have gone out into the garden in order to tell Mrs Peppercorn what they had done before even Mr Crowden could tell her. None of the fifth to sixteenth defendants who have sworn affidavits have suggested that they had any difficulty in understanding the situation. In short the four dissentients understood exactly what they were doing but subsequently changed their minds.
It was urged upon me that when, several months later, the executors had the deed drawn up, their solicitors prepared a letter to be shown to each signatory before they executed it which drew attention to their right to obtain legal advice. It is common ground that this letter was in fact shown to most, if not all, of the
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signatories. It was said to be implicit in it that the executors believed that the memoranda were not binding because there would be no point in taking legal advice if the signatories were already bound by an earlier document. I do not think that any inference can be drawn about the executors’ beliefs from the invitation to take legal advice which, if it had been taken, would no doubt have been to the effect that the deed only formalised a transaction which had already occurred. But in any event, I cannot see what relevance the beliefs of the executors several months after the memoranda were signed can have to the question of their enforceability.
That leaves, as the only remaining point advanced by the dissentients, the suggestion that the memoranda should be set aside on the basis of a failure to disclose all material facts. This argument was supported by reference to authorities about family arrangements which are contracts uberrimae fidei. They are conveniently summarised in 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 315. This, however, was not a family arrangement, nor a contract of any kind and the executors, although they proposed it, were not parties to it. The circumstances were not, in my judgment, such as to call for complete disclosure. However, the ground on which I reject the submission is that there is no foundation for it in fact. As I have pointed out, there were not many facts which the signatories of the memoranda needed to know in order to decide what to do, and those facts were either disclosed or obvious. It is not suggested that Mr Crowden’s summary of the straightforward terms of Maurice Farrington’s will was in any way incomplete or misleading. It is suggested that the residuary legatees had no information about the value of the estate, but there is no suggestion that at this stage the executors knew any more than anyone else. There is a complaint that Mr Crowden failed to disclose to the assembled company the fact that 14 years earlier Maurice Farrington had prepared a will which did leave the bungalow to Mrs Peppercorn and had executed it before one witness only but then declined to execute it properly because he had second thoughts. It is true that Mr Crowden did not tell them this, but the only material fact about Mr Farrington’s testamentary intentions was that the will which he actually made expressed a desire that Mrs Peppercorn should have £100 and no more. All of the facts said to have been withheld were in my judgment irrelevant to the decision which the residuary legatees made in August 1987. They were presented with the simple fact that Maurice Farrington had made a provision for Mrs Peppercorn which was derisory and they considered that her claim to greater recognition was overwhelming.
I shall therefore answer the question raised by the originating summons by declaring that the devolution of the estate of Maurice Henry Farrington deceased has been varied by the residuary beneficiaries to the effect that the deceased’s personal chattels and freehold bungalow situated at 27 Washingly Road, Folksworth devolve upon Violet Peppercorn free of tax together with a tax-free legacy of £5,000 to Violet Peppercorn and her husband Arthur.
Order accordingly.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Anderson v Alnwick District Council
[1993] 3 All ER 613
Categories: LOCAL GOVERNMENT: ENVIRONMENTAL: FISHERIES
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): EVANS LJ AND MACPHERSON J
Hearing Date(s): 10, 11, 21 DECEMBER 1992
Byelaw – Interpetation – Text of byelaw prohibiting digging for bait on beach above low water line – Map attached to byelaw showing restriced area as above low water mean meridian tides (LWMMT) – Secretary of State attaching map to byelaw when signed – Appellant digging for bait between low water line and LWMMT – Whether appellant guilty of offence – Whether byelaw to be interpreted by reference to map.
Foreshore – Low water line – Text of byelaw prohibiting digging for bait on beach above low water line – Meaning of ‘low water line’.
Fish – Fishing rights – Public right to fish – Ancillary rights – Digging for worms on foreshore as bait for fishing – Whether digging for bait permitted as ancillary to right to fish – Purposes for which digging for bait on foreshore permitted.
Due to disruption caused by individuals digging on a beach for lugworms to be used as fishing bait, the local council passed a byelaw to prevent persons from digging for bait within ‘such parts of the [beach] as lie above the low water line’. Attached to the byelaw was a reproduction of the Ordnance Survey map of the area which showed a hatched area corresponding with the beach from the high-water mark down to a line described as the ‘low water mean meridian tides’ (LWMMT). The LWMMT line was, by definition, closer to the shore than the low water mark during spring tides so that during such periods there was an area of exposed beach below the LWMMT line and therefore outside the hatched area on the map. Before approving the byelaw the Secretary of State had requested a map of the area, the map with the hatched area on it had been supplied and the byelaw had been signed and returned to the council with the map stapled to it. The appellant was charged with an offence contrary to the byelaw in respect of digging for bait on the exposed part of the beach outside the hatched area on the map. He was convicted by the justices. The Crown Court dismissed his appeal, holding that the map did not define the restricted area for the purposes of the byelaw. He appealed to the High Court by way of case stated, contending inter alia (a) that the byelaw was not effective outside the hatched area shown on the map, (b) that the low water line was, as a matter of law, the LWMMT and (c) that the public right of sea fishing included the ancillary right to take bait from the foreshore.
Held – The byelaw could only be interpreted with the map as the Secretary of State had approved the byelaw with the map, and accordingly it could only create an offence consistent with the map. The restricted area had not been depicted on the map for descriptive purposes only as the edge of the area was labelled ‘LWMMT’, which could be applied as a formula to identify the restricted area. It followed that the byelaw was not effective outside the hatched area on the map. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 617 g to p 618 d, post).
Per curiam. (1) Although there is no general rule as to the meaning of ‘low water line’ or ‘low water mark’ which should apply regardless of context, a court should be slow to accept, even in respect of legislation, that it was not the low water mark from time to time (see p 620 g to p 621 a, post).
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(2) A public right to take worms from the foreshore is recognised by common law as ancillary to the right to fish provided the taking of the worms is directly related to an actual or intended exercise of that right. Whether or not bait is so taken is a question of fact and degree for the magistrates to decide (see p 623 j to p 624 g, post).
NotesFor rights to the foreshore, see 8 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1418–1419 and 49 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 292, 301–318, and for cases on the subject, see 49 Digest (Reissue) 118–119, 126–131, 502–517, 592–653.
For the Public Health Acts Amendment Act 1907, s 82, see 35 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 96.
Cases referred to in judgmentA-G v Chambers (1854) 4 De G M & G 206, [1843–60] All ER Rep 941, 43 ER 486, LC.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Bagott v Orr (1801) 2 B & P 472, 126 ER 1391.
Beckett (Alfred F) Ltd v Lyons [1967] 1 All ER 833, [1967] Ch 449, [1967] 2 WLR 421, CA.
Blackpool Pier Co & South Blackpool Jetty v Fylde Union Assessment Committee (1877) 46 LJMC 189.
Blundell v Catterall (1821) 5 B & Ald 268, 106 ER 1190.
Brinckman v Matley [1904] 2 Ch 313, [1904–7] All ER Rep 941, CA.
Constable’s (Sir Henry) Case (1601) 5 Co Rep 106a, 77 ER 218.
Gann v Free Fisheries of Whitstable (1865) 11 HL Cas 192, 11 ER 1305.
Government of the State of Penang v Beng Hong Oon [1971] 3 All ER 1163, [1972] AC 465, [1972] 2 WLR 1, PC.
Kruse v Johnson [1898] 2 QB 91, [1895–9] All ER Rep 105, DC.
Le Strange v Rowe (1866) 4 F & F 1048, 176 ER 903.
Loose v Castleton (1978) 41 P & CR 19, CA.
Mellor v Walmesley [1905] 2 Ch 164, CA.
R v Musson (1858) 8 E & B 900, 120 ER 336.
Tarr v Tarr [1972] 2 All ER 295, [1973] AC 254, [1972] 2 WLR 1068, HL.
Truro Corp v Rowe [1902] 2 KB 709, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments A-G for Canada v A-G for Quebec [1921] 1 AC 413, PC.
DPP v Hutchinson [1990] 2 All ER 836, [1990] 2 AC 783, HL
Fitzhardinge (Lord) v Purcell [1908] 2 Ch 139.
London Passenger Transport Board v Sumner (1935) 154 LT 108, [1935] All ER Rep 778, DC.
Malcolmson v O’Dea (1863) 10 HL Cas 593, 11 ER 1155.
Mercer v Denne [1905] 2 Ch 538, [1904–7] All ER Rep 80, CA.
Murphy v Ryan (1868) IR 2 CL 143, Ir HC.
Neill v Duke of Devonshire (1882) 8 App Cas 135, HL.
Newcastle Breweries Ltd v R [1920] 1 KB 854.
Powell v May [1946] 1 All ER 444, [1946] KB 330, DC.
R v Crown Court at Reading, ex p Hutchinson [1988] 1 All ER 333, [1988] QB 384, DC.
Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129, [1977] Ch 106.
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Case stated
Anthony Ernest Anderson appealed from the dismissal of his appeal on 14–16 May 1991 in the Crown Court at Newcastle (Judge Brian Capstick QC and justices) by way of case stated by justices sitting at Alnwick in respect of their decision on 26 November 1990 to convict him of a charge that on 10 February 1990 at Boulmer Haven seashore, near Alnwick, without lawful right and authority and within the restricted area identified in the byelaws relating to Boulmer Haven sealed by the Alnwick District Council on 18 June 1985, he dug for ragworm and other forms of fishing bait contrary to byelaw (ii) of the byelaws made under s 82 of the Public Health Acts Amendment Act 1907. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
D R Wood (instructed by Monkhouse Pollard, Blyth) for the appellant.
Alun Alesbury (instructed by Adams, Newcastle upon Tyne) for the respondent.
Cur adv vult
21 December 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
EVANS LJ. The beach at Boulmer Haven in Northumberland lies within the area of Alnwick District Council (the council). There is a lifeboat station as well as a local fishing community and in addition the beach is popular with sea anglers as a source of lugworms which they use as bait. Local individuals must have been digging there for bait from time immemorial, for the evidence does not show otherwise, without interference or complaint from the Duke of Northumberland who is, we were told, the owner of the foreshore, or, until 1985 or thereabouts, from the council.
In 1983–84, however, there was a new development. Northumberland coal miners were on strike. They brought mechanical diggers and other equipment to the beach and dug large quantities of bait which they took away for sale or other purposes which were not limited to their own personal use. This caused much disruption of the beach. The council responded by passing with the Secretary of State’s approval a byelaw dated 18 June 1985 which came into effect on 18 April 1986 (the byelaw). This reads as follows:
‘ALNWICK DISTRICT COUNCIL
Bye-laws made under Section 82 of the Public Health Acts (Amendment) Act 1907 for the prevention of danger, obstruction or annoyance to persons using the seashore. (i) In these bye-laws the expression “restricted areas” means such parts of the Boulmer Haven as lie above the low water line. (ii) Without lawful right or authority no person shall in any part of the restricted area dig for rag worms or for any form of fishing bait. (iii) No person shall on the seashore intentionally obstruct or disturb any officer of the Council in the proper discharge of his duties or any person employed by the Council in the proper execution of any work connected with the improvement, maintenance or regulation of the seashore. (iv) Any person offending against any of the foregoing bye-laws shall be liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding £100.’
The council published the byelaws, in the general sense that they sent copies to local organisations, including clubs for sea-anglers, and provided copies to members of the public on request, in a form which included a reproduction of the Ordnance Survey map of the area. Shown on the map was a hatched area corresponding with the beach from high water mark or other coastline (as to
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which no point arises) down to a line described as LWMMT meaning ‘low water mean meridian tides’. This legend was published on the map and it commonly appears, we were informed, on Ordnance Survey maps of coastal areas. The line is, by definition, closer inshore than the low water mark during periods of spring tides when the height of low water is below the mean meridian figure. It follows that during such periods of low water there is an area of exposed beach which lies beyond the LWMMT line and therefore outside the hatched area on the plan.
On 10 February 1990 Mr Anderson, the appellant, was digging for bait at a spot which the Crown Court found was in that exposed part of the beach and outside the hatched area on the plan. He was charged with an offence contrary to the byelaw and was convicted by the Alnwick Justices on 26 November 1990. His appeal to the Crown Court was dismissed on 16 May 1991.
He now appeals by way of case stated. We should record that both the judgment of the Crown Court (Judge Brian Capstick QC) and the case stated are comprehensive and clear as to the facts found and the issues raised for decision. We have found them extremely helpful during the appeal.
The case stated lists eight questions on which the opinion of this court is sought, but it will be more convenient at this stage of our judgment to state in general terms the four major issues with which we have been concerned. These are: (1) What is the area covered by the byelaw: does it extend to cover the spot where Mr Anderson was digging for bait? The question here is whether the byelaw extends beyond the hatched area shown on the map. (2) What is the area covered by the byelaw, apart from the map? This involves the true construction of the byelaw itself. The words used are ‘seashore … “restricted area” … such parts of the Boulmer Haven as lie above the low water line’. (3) Was Mr Anderson acting ‘without lawful right or authority’; was he doing no more than exercise and enjoy the public right to fish in the sea and tidal waters (where the fishing is not reserved to any private individual)? (4) If the byelaw does apply to the spot in question, are they valid as a matter of law so as to create the criminal offence with which Mr Anderson was charged?
At the conclusion of the hearing before us on 11 December we indicated that we accepted the submissions made by Mr Wood on behalf of the appellant in relation to the first of these issues: in other words, that the byelaw is not effective, in our judgment, outside the hatched area shown on the map. It followed that the appeal was allowed on that ground alone. We now give our reasons for the decision. The remaining issues are of some general interest and importance and they were fully argued before us. We will therefore state our conclusions on those issues also.
(1) The map
The matter came before the Crown Court on the basis set out in the case:
‘The consent of the Secretary of State for Transport for the said Bye-law was obtained on the 18th of March 1986. Prior to that date the Respondents had sent to the Secretary of State a draft of the Bye-law approved by Alnwick District Council and a map (not necessarily at the same time) purporting to show the area to which the Bye-law applied. The Bye-law and the said map were subsequently published by the Respondents and made available to the general public. A copy of the said Bye-law and map is annexed hereto.’
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The copy which was in evidence (though not, apparently, the copy annexed to the case: the former was produced, without objection, before us) was certified in the following terms:
‘The map shown herewith is not referred to in the Bye-laws, but a copy of the same Ordnance Survey Base, similarly marked, was attached to the original copy of the bye-laws forwarded to the Secretaries of State for confirmation and consent.’
On this basis, the Crown Court found that the map did not form part of the byelaw and they proceeded to consider the scope of the byelaw without reference to the map. Question (1) in the case is:
‘Was the Crown Court entitled on the facts found by it to go behind the Bye-law and Map submitted to the Secretary of State and subsequently published by the Respondents and find as a fact that the Map did not form part of the Bye-law?’
The judgment was critical of the council for publishing the map as though it was definitive of the area covered by the byelaw, when as a matter of law, as the court held, it was not. The council had ‘created confusion by the production of the map as attached to the byelaw, to anyone minded to inquire’ and had brought on itself the problem caused by persons such as Mr Anderson, who were taking bait outside the hatched area shown on the map. ‘The matter has been bedevilled by the inclusion of the map.’
Of course, if the map did form part of the byelaw, or if, perhaps more accurately, the byelaw has to be interpreted by reference to the map, then these criticisms are unfounded and they fall away. In that event, the council acted properly in publishing the map so as to enable all interested members of the public to know what the geographical scope of the byelaw was.
Before us, some crucial additional facts were agreed. It appears that the Under-Secretary of State, before approving the byelaw, asked for a map of the area. A copy of the extract from the Ordnance Survey map including the hatched area was sent to him. The byelaw was then signed and returned to the council with the copy map stapled to it. The effect of these additional facts is that the case has to be read as if it stated that a map was ‘supplied later at the Secretary of State’s request’ and that thereafter the byelaw was returned ‘duly signed and with the map stapled to it’.
In our judgment, this makes it impossible to hold, as a matter of commonsense or of law, that the byelaw should be interpreted without reference to the map. The council understandably published the map together with the byelaw, in the form which we have seen. There is no basis for saying that the Secretary of State approved the byelaw except by reference to the map. The council never published it, except in conjunction with the map. It cannot be said that the byelaw should be interpreted so as to create a criminal offence in a way which is inconsistent with the map.
The matter does not rest there, however, because there might be some reservation in the map itself, such as ‘for descriptive purposes only’, or a similar qualification might be implicit from the nature of the map, eg if it was not drawn to scale and clearly was not intended to be precise. There is no express qualification in this map. If on the other hand the edge of the hatched area, corresponding with the ‘low water line’ referred to in para (i) of the byelaw, was not otherwise labelled or described, then there could be force in a submission that that part of the map, at least, was intended to be descriptive only. This is for two
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particular reasons. Firstly, any graphic representation of the ‘low water line’ must be approximate only, because the line itself is never precise and it changes from tide to tide. Secondly, even a mean line changes from year to year, though the annual differences may be small.
However, in this case the edge of the hatched area was expressly labelled ‘LWMMT’. This is an artificial line which is unlikely ever to correspond exactly with the actual water’s edge. But it is an artificial line which can be drawn on a map and applied, if necessary, to the shore, as it was by the finding of primary fact in the present case. The variation from year to year will be small, but at any particular time the formula can be applied with sufficient accuracy for the purpose of defining the restricted area.
In these circumstances, ‘low water line’ in the byelaw when read in conjunction with express reference to and depiction of the ‘LWMMT’ on the map can only be interpreted, in our judgment, as a reference to the low water line at that state of the tides. Accordingly, question (1) must be amended to take account of the additional facts placed, by agreement, before us and the amended question must be answered in the negative. The appeal therefore succeeds on this ground alone.
(2) ‘Low water line … seashore’
There has been much authority from earliest times concerned with the legal definition of the high water mark, which also represents the boundary between land, which is private property, and the foreshore, which is owned by the Crown, subject to any private grant. That question effectively was settled by A-G v Chambers (1854) 4 De G M & G 206, [1843–60] All ER Rep 941, and the law is stated in 8 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1418 as follows:
‘… foreshore, or land between high and low water mark, the right being limited landwards to the medium line of high tide between spring and neap tides.’
It is clear from these authorities that the common law rule is derived from practical considerations which have no application at the low water mark. There, both the foreshore and the seabed beyond it are owned, subject to private grant, by the Crown, and so the need to establish a clear boundary does not, except in special circumstances, arise. Moreover, it is established that a several (privately owned) sea fishery can extend into waters over the seabed and therefore beyond the foreshore: Gann v Free Fisheries of Whitstable (1865) 11 HL Cas 192, 11 ER 1305 approved in Loose v Castleton (1978) 41 P & CR 19 at 32. Even as regards jurisdiction there is an overlap between the territorial jurisdiction which includes the foreshore and the admiralty jurisdiction which may extend as far as the high water mark. But there have been occasions when it has been necessary to define the foreshore, and authorities concerned with the high water mark have included some references to the low water mark also. It is common ground that there is no decision as to the low water mark which is directly in point, and so the authorities on this issue are confined to obiter dicta in the reported cases and the expressions of view by text-book writers.
There is, moreover, some ambivalence in the authorities with regard to the seawards extent of the foreshore: does it extend only to the line of ‘ordinary’ low tides, or does it mean ‘the whole of the shore that is from time to time exposed by the receding tide’ (Loose v Castleton ((1978) 41 P & CR 19 at 34 per Bridge LJ)? The latter is, Bridge LJ held, the ordinary, everyday connotation of the word ‘foreshore’, and the same view was expressed by the Crown Court in the present case:
Page 619 of [1993] 3 All ER 613
‘The Magistrates and I have, each of us, asked ourselves what, were we free from authority, we would think to be the seashore, and we have all answered in the same way; down to the water line, wherever it was.’
Thus 49 Halsbury (4th edn) para 287 expresses a less definite view as to the seawards extent of the foreshore, than the passage from vol 8 quoted above:
‘Extent of the seashore. The seashore, foreshore or sea beach (for in legal parlance these are generally synonymous terms) is that portion of the realm of England which lies between the high-water mark of medium high tide and low water-mark, but … it has been held on special facts that “foreshore” means the whole of the shore that is from time to time exposed by the receding tide.’ (Citing Loose v Castleton (1978) 41 P & CR 19.)
Mr Wood, for the appellant, submits that ‘low water line’ is equivalent to the seawards extent of the foreshores and that it is, as a matter of law, the mean low water mark for ‘ordinary’ tides; effectively, the LWMMT. Alternatively, he submits that its meaning is uncertain and that it should be construed narrowly in the context of the byelaw, which creates a criminal offence.
Some of the reported cases were concerned with the boundary between the foreshore and the bed of the sea, but in none of them was the line of the boundary decided as a matter of principle. In R v Musson (1858) 8 E & B 900, 120 ER 336 the question was whether the owner of the Great Yarmouth Wellington Pier was liable for rates in respect of the portion between high water mark and low water mark. The court held he was not, because there was no evidence to displace the presumption that the foreshore was owned by the Crown and therefore was not within the parish where rates could be levied. There are references both in the arguments and in the judgment to ‘ordinary’ low water mark, and references to a plan, but there is no other indication as to how the position of the mark was established.
A similar question arose with regard to Blackpool pier (Blackpool Pier Co & South Blackpool Jetty v Fylde Union Assessment Committee (1877) 46 LJMC 189). The owning company acquired land ‘beyond low water mark into the sea by purchase, grant or otherwise from the Crown’ and was held not liable for local rates in respect of that part of the pier. Precise measurements are given and there are references to ‘ordinary’ high water and low water marks, but again, there is no further definition which might be of assistance in the present case.
Two authorities concerned with high water mark are Mellor v Walmesley [1905] 2 Ch 164 and Government of the State of Penang v Beng Hong Oon [1971] 3 All ER 1163, [1972] AC 465. They reflect the clear rule that the landwards boundary of the foreshore is the line of median high tides, and there are references to a corresponding seawards limit. Similarly, Blundell v Catterall (1821) 5 B & Ald 268, 106 ER 1190 and Brinckman v Matley [1904] 2 Ch 313, [1904–7] All ER Rep 20 were concerned with the public’s rights over the foreshore, the court holding that there is no public right to bathe or to cross the foreshore for that purpose.
Special mention should be made of two textbooks. Moore’s History of the Foreshore and the Law Relating Thereto (3rd edn, 1888) includes commentaries by Lord Hale and the editor’s comments in Hall’s Essay on the Rights of the Crown and the Priveleges of the Subject in the Sea-Shores of the Realm. This work includes references to cases decided in Elizabethan times, including Sir Henry Constable’s Case (1601) 5 Co Rep 106a, 77 ER 218, where it was said in Moore (p 236) that ‘the county went to the ebb mark of low water springs’ and the author comments that that ‘was clearly the law as understood at this period’. Later, however, he refers
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(p 674) to A-G v Chambers (1854) 4 De G M & G 206, [1843–60] All ER Rep 941 as authority for the proposition that—
‘that portion only of the land adjacent to the sea, which is alternately covered and left dry by the ordinary flux and reflux of the tides is, in legal intendment, the sea-shore; although the word shore has often, in common parlance, a somewhat more extensive meaning …’
The second textbook is Coulson & Forbes on Waters and Land Drainage (6th edn, 1952) from which two extracts may be quoted (p 22):
‘The Foreshore. The sea shore or foreshore may be defined as that portion of the land which is alternately covered and left dry by the ordinary flux and reflux of the tides.’
That is followed by an indorsement of the passage from Moore (p 24):
‘The low water limit of the sea shore or foreshore has not been brought directly in issue as has been the case with the high water mark. In modern practice it has been considered to be the low water mark of the ordinary tides. If this is the correct view, and the seaward line of the foreshore is the limit of the kingdom on the coast, then the land left bare below the low water mark of ordinary tides is not part of the kingdom or within the jurisdiction of the county, and crimes committed there would be committed on the high sea.’
The judgments of Alderson B and the Cranworth LC in A-G v Chambers (1854) 4 De G M & G 206, [1843–60] All ER Rep 941 are clearly decisive of the common law as to the high water mark. They also demonstrate a considerable knowledge of the problems involved in defining ‘ordinary’ tides and an awareness of the practical difficulty of establishing a boundary by reference to the behaviour of the tides. Thus, ‘ordinary’ may be contrasted with ‘extraordinary’ or quite exceptional tides; in this sense, adopted by the civil law, ordinary can mean the ‘highest natural tides’. But for practical reasons the common law rule is that the line of ‘median tides’ must be adopted. These practical reasons were concerned with the high-water mark only ((1854) 4 De GM & G 206 at 218, [1843–60] All ER Rep 941 at 945):
‘That principle I take to be that it is land not capable of ordinary cultivation or occupation, and so is in the nature of unappropriated soil … the Crown’s right is limited to land which is for the most part not dry or manoriable.’
In our judgment, there is no established rule of law that the low-water mark is necessarily the line of median low water, and the principle which identifies the landwards boundary of the foreshore at the line of median high water depends upon factors which have no application at the seaward low water mark. Nor is there any general rule as to the meaning of ‘low-water line’ or ‘low-water mark’ which should apply as a matter of law, regardless of context, although we should be slow to accept that the common and natural meaning of ‘foreshore’ or ‘seashore’ recognised by Bridge LJ in Loose v Castleton and by the Crown Court in this case should not be applied, even in a statute or statutory instrument, unless the context clearly demands otherwise. It is also important, in our judgment, to recognize that in some contexts it may be necessary to establish a fixed mark or line, even an artificial line, for example, as a base line for measurements offshore (cf s 17(1) of the Local Government (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1976, to which Mr Alesbury referred in argument); but there may be other circumstances where
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the foreshore is referred to as an area, regardless of its precise boundaries, and where the low water mark, or line, is relevant only as the definition of that area.
These considerations lead inevitably to the conclusion that the text of the byelaw is correctly interpreted as meaning the area of the seashore from time to time, and the low water line means the seawards boundary of that area, in other words, the low water mark from time to time. In the absence of the map, the restricted area defined by the byelaw would have included the spot where Mr Anderson dug for bait.
(3) The public right to fish
The historical background can be shortly stated. Before Magna Carta, the Crown made grants of ‘several fisheries’ (private fishing rights) in areas of tidal waters, but this was regarded as an abuse which Magna Carta ended in 1215. Thereafter, a private right could only be justified by reference to an earlier royal grant, but proof of long usage could mitigate this rule in favour of private owners by giving rise to a presumption of a lost pre-1215 grant. Subject only to this, the public right to fish in tidal waters is beyond doubt. The existence of such a right at Boulmer Haven is not challenged, notwithstanding that the foreshore is, as we were told, in the private ownership of the Dukes of Northumberland.
We have no evidence of the nature or scientific status of ragworms, but the parties appear to agree that ‘ragworm’ and ‘lugworm’ are alternative names for the same species; that it is found only in the sand of the foreshore and therefore to this extent it is a marine creature; but it is not a fish.
The right to fish includes ancillary rights, one of which is to cross the foreshore in order to exercise the right. The question in the present case is whether there is also an ancillary right to dig for lugworms, for use as bait. This question has never arisen for decision in any reported case.
The right to fish is closely linked with the public’s right to navigate on the seas. A sea fisherman who does so from a boat exercises both rights. There have been suggestions that the right to land and to cross the foreshore as an incidental to the right to navigate is limited to occasions of emergency (see eg per Harman LJ in Alfred F Beckett Ltd v Lyons [1967] 1 All ER 833 at 842, [1967] Ch 449 at 469) but it is not suggested that any such limitation applies to the right to fish.
In the absence of direct authority, and because it is clear that the law does give ancillary rights in addition to the public right to fish, it might be possible simply to regard this as a question of fact: Is bait-digging in fact ancillary to the right to fish? The answer to this question in general terms must be ‘Yes’. No other use for lugworm is suggested, and no other reason for taking them from the sand. But the answer is more debatable if ancillary means ‘necessarily ancillary’; it is not impossible to fish without first digging lugworms as bait, but on the other hand, it is necessary to use some bait, and lugworms from the foreshore are a natural choice.
The authorities therefore are relevant and helpful to the extent that they indicate the scope of the public right to fish and what reasons have been given for its existence.
The headnote to the report of Bagott v Orr 2 B & P 472, 126 ER 1391 reads as follows:
‘Prima facie every subject has a right to take fish found upon the sea-shore between high and low water-mark; but such general right may be abridged by the existence of an exclusive right in some individual. Quaere. If there be a prima facie right in the subject to take fish-shells found on the sea-shore between high and low water mark?’
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The judgment as reported was very short and it is possible that the ruling was to the effect that the claim in respect of shellfish should be allowed to proceed, rather than a final ruling that it was correct in law. The allegation was that the defendant had entered upon the plaintiff’s several fishery and taken shellfish and shells, in the following terms ((1801) 2 B & P 472 at 472–473, 126 ER 1391 at 1391):
‘… and with Defendant’s feet and the feet of his servants in walking, treading up, trampling upon, subverting and spoiling Plaintiff’s soil, earth, and sand, and with the feet of cattle and with the wheels of carriages and the keels of boats treading up, trampling, &c and Plaintiff’s shell-fish and shells, breaking, crushing, and destroying, and with spades, shovels, mattocks, pickaxes and other instruments, digging and making holes and pits, and … digging up, raising up, and getting up divers large quantities of Plaintiff’s shell-fish and shells, and carrying away the same and converting and disposing thereof to Defendant’s own use. There were several other counts …’
The plea was permitted to stand, as regards shellfish. Even after allowing for prolixity and exaggeration, the activities described clearly included taking cockles or other shellfish found buried in the sand, and the disruption allegedly caused to the foreshore was substantially greater than would result from the digging of bait by a sea fisherman for use as such, as distinct from a commercial purpose such as sale.
In Blundell v Catterall (1821) 5 B & Ald 268, 106 ER 1190 the court rejected a claim of public right to pass with carriages across a part of the foreshore which was privately owned and where the owner had the exclusive right of fishing with stake-nets. Although the arguments and judgments contain references to the extent of the public’s right of access, these were not directed to the present issue. Indeed, Bagott v Orr (1801) 2 B & P 472, 126 ER 1391was expressly distinguished.
Blundell v Catterall was followed by the Court of Appeal in Brinckman v Matley [1904] 2 Ch 313, [1904–7] All ER Rep 941 nearly a century later. The headnote states that the public has no common law right to use the foreshore or to pass and repass thereon for the purpose of bathing in the sea. Cozens-Hardy LJ said ([1904] 2 Ch 313 at 327, [1904–7] All ER Rep 941 at 945):
‘One word about Bagott v. Orr, which was much relied on for the appellant. Whether Bagott v. Orr is or is not good law, it is not necessary for us now to decide—certainly I do not desire to attack it; but it only proceeds on the footing that the common law right of fishing on the foreshore enjoyed by the public includes the right to get shellfish when the foreshore is dry; it in nowise supports the right of the public to go on the foreshore for the purpose of bathing, or for the purpose of recreation.’
Hall’s Essay on the Rights of the Crown and the Priveleges of the Subject in the Sea-Shores of the Realm (2nd edn, 1875) stated the law as follows. Having described (p 42) the ‘public or general right of fishing in the sea’ as ‘a beneficial privilege enjoyed by British subjects, time out of mind’ it asserted (p 46) that the right extends ‘also, as it would seem, over and upon the sea-shore itself, for such kinds of fish as are usually caught upon the rocks, and sands of, the cost’, citing Bagott v Orr. The author continued (pp 48–49):
‘As the public right of fishery cannot be enjoyed without making use of the sea-shore for egress and regress, and for other essential conveniences which the fishery requires in order to be carried on with effect, the use of the
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sea-shore, for all purposes essential to the enjoyment of the right of fishery, necessarily accompanies such right.’
Finally (pp 191–192):
‘… the catching of shell-fish on the sea-shore … would seem to constitute an integral part of the public [right] … The fishery for lobsters, crabs, prawns, shrimps, oysters, and various other shell-fish … is carried on in every fishing village on the coast, and is one very useful and valuable branch of the fishing trade. The catch of these fish is, therefore, part of the public [right] … ’
and reference is made to certain American authorities, as well as to Bagott v Orr.
Mr Alesbury drew our attention to the relevant passages in the current edition of 49 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn). The soil of the foreshore is owned prima facie by the Crown (para 292) and there is no public right of passing along the foreshore ‘except in the exercise of the rights of navigation or fishery’ (para 301). The public has no right to shoot birds (para 307) or to excavate or remove materials (para 310), not event to take seaweed (para 317). As regards shellfish, Halsbury states (para 318):
‘There is certainly no right to take shellfish there, such as mussels attached to rocks on the shore, for these belong to the owner of the shore.’
The authority listed for this last proposition is Le Strange v Rowe (1866) 4 F & F 1048, 176 ER 903. That case, like Loose v Castleton (1978) 41 P & CR 19, was concerned with the right to take mussels from a part of the Norfolk coast. It seems to us that the plaintiff asserted the rights of the owner of a several (private) fishery, and that the case, as reported, does not exclude the public right to take shellfish from the sand of the foreshore, in the absence of any private right. In Truro Corp v Rowe [1902] 2 KB 709 at 714–716 the jury found that the storage of oysters on the foreshore, after they had been dredged by the defendant in the exercise of public ‘rights of fishing over the foreshore covered with water’ was incidental to the fishing for oysters. The court held that the defendant had no right to appropriate a section of the foreshore for his own purpose but declared that the right to fish included ‘oysters and other shell-fish’.
Mr Alesbury submits that digging for bait interferes with the soil of the foreshore to an extent which could only be justified as a profit à prendre and that a public right to take lugworms, which have some commercial value, would be quite unlike any other public right. There is no question of Mr Anderson acquiring this or any other profit à prendre as a member of the general public (cf Alfred F Beckett Ltd v Lyons [1967] 1 All ER 833, [1967] Ch 449) and he submits that there is no authority to support the claim. A public right has never been acknowledged, and never claimed, and the fact that bait-digging may have been tolerated over many centuries should not give rise to an inference that the right exists.
We return to the issue raised in the present case. Does the public right of sea-fishing include the ancillary right to take lugworms from the foreshore for bait? If it does not, then some narrow distinctions arise. The sea-fisherman may take a small fish from a sea-water pool on the foreshore and use it as bait for a larger fish; if the authorities referred to above are good law, he may take and use small crabs for the same purpose; but, if the council is correct, he may not take or use a single lugworm, without permission, express or implied.
We accept that past tolerance by foreshore owners does not establish the existence of a right, but we do not consider that this undoubted factor can be
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totally ignored. The authorities we have been referred to go back to Elizabethan times. There was no need to claim a right unless the activity was challenged, and we can see no indication that it ever was challenged. The most likely explanation is that no one doubted that the right to take fish from the sea included the right to dig worms from the foreshore as bait. We find it difficult to envisage either private owners of the foreshore or representatives of the Crown in previous centuries attempting to interfere in the operation of ‘every fishing village on the coast’ in this way.
We base our decision, however, on wider grounds. Many of the authorities show that the underlying reasons for the public rights to navigate and to fish were economic. Sea fishing from boats or from the land was a vital source of food for many coastal communities. The public right to take fish from the sea and tidal waters was jealously guarded from Magna Carta onwards. To restrict the use of worms as bait, which themselves were only to be found in the sand of the foreshore and therefore beneath the surface of the water when the foreshore was covered by the tide, would itself have been a restriction on the right. We hold therefore that a public right to take worms from the foreshore is recognised by the common law and may properly be described as ancillary to the public right to fish.
But it does not follow that the right is unrestricted or that it may be exercised by any member of the public at any time or place. Mr Wood does not contend for a right to take for commercial or other purposes. It is ancillary to the right to fish. This means, in our judgment, that the taking of worms must be directly related to an actual or intended exercise of the public right to fish. Taking for commercial purposes such as sale clearly is not justified in this way. At the other extreme, digging for bait by an individual fisherman for his own use on the occasion in question clearly is justified. Intermediate cases include one which is demonstrated by the facts of the present case: Mr Anderson was digging for his own use, but at a different place and on the following day, during a competition (which he won). Another case is where the worms are taken for use, not by the digger, but by another person who might be a companion or who might be, for example, a paying customer on a commercial sea-angling venture.
It seems to us that these are essentially questions of fact and degree, which are for the magistrates to decide. The distinction between commercial and private use is fairly straightforward. Digging bait for one’s own use for sea fishing on a particular occasion, even in the future, is unlikely to present much difficulty. If the present appeal had turned on this issue, it might have been necessary to remit the case for a further finding of fact, but it does not. The rule, as we would state it, is that bait-digging on the foreshore is justified by the public right to take fish, when the bait is taken by or on behalf of persons who require it for use in the exercise of that right.
We add a footnote of our own. The dictionary definitions of ‘lugworm’ and ‘ragworm’ show that each is of a distinct genus (arenicola and nereis, respectively) and that it is the lugworm which buries in the sand and is much used for bait. The ragworm tends rather to be found in pools or near the surface in sand or mud. Clearly, the arguments were more concerned with the lugworm and it is a fitting conclusion to this particular case that the byelaw refers expressly only to ‘ragworm or any form of fishing bait’.
(4) Validity of the byelaw
Two further arguments raised by the appellant remain for our consideration.
It is said that the byelaw is unlawful or beyond the local authority’s powers because it is prohibitory, or because it purports to prohibit an activity which the statute allows only to be regulated.
Section 82 of the Public Health Acts Amendment Act 1907 empowers the local authority to make byelaws to ‘generally regulate the user of the seashore for such purposes as shall be prescribed by such byelaws’.
Mr Wood’s argument is succinct. He says that Alnwick byelaws are repugnant to that section, and that although there could be regulations to restrict the area or
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extent of digging the Alnwick byelaws prohibit all digging, and are prohibitory and not regulatory.
It appears that the fishing community proposed a regulated but narrow access or lane to the sea for boats upon which limited area no bait digging would be allowed. Alternatively, Mr Wood accepts that some measured restriction or regulation of implements to be used, or of commercial bait digging itself, could be lawful. But he argues that the Alnwick byelaw prohibits a lawful activity entirely in the whole area to which the byelaw applies.
In support of his argument Mr Wood referred us in particular to Tarr v Tarr [1972] 2 All ER 295, [1972] AC 254. This was, however, a matrimonial case in which the order sought would have wholly prohibited a husband from exercising his right to occupy the property in question.
We are not impressed by this argument. We agree with Mr Alesbury who points out that in fact the byelaw bans one specific activity only, namely the digging of worms. Furthermore, while the restricted area is said to cover all of Boulmer Haven it is in fact a limited area, and only a small part of the foreshore within the local authority’s area, and an even smaller part of the Northumbrian foreshore. It can thus be said to be a regulatory byelaw, making a rule in respect of an area larger than fishermen would like, but still not as such to prohibit them obtaining worms reasonably close by, should their other main arguments prevail.
We reject this argument of the appellant.
Finally the appellant submits that the byelaw is unreasonable, or that it should be held to be unenforceable on what have come to called Wednesbury grounds (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223).
We are not attracted by this argument. It could only prevail should we be persuaded that the local authority had acted to the point of perversity in its approach and in its decision to pass the byelaw.
In determining the validity of byelaws it was held long ago in Kruse v Johnson [1898] 2 QB 91 at 99–100, [1895–9] All ER Rep 105 at 110 that the court ought to be slow to hold that a byelaw is void for unreasonableness. And such a finding would only be made if the relevant byelaws—
‘were found to be partial and unequal in their operation as between different classes; if they were manifestly unjust; if they disclosed bad faith; if they involved such aggressive or gratuitous interference with the rights of those subject to them as could find no justification in the minds of reasonable men …’
The more modern doctrine of Wednesbury unreasonableness is in our judgment closely allied to those principles. And in any event a challenge to the decision to
make those byelaws on Wednesbury grounds would be much better dealt with in formal judicial review proceedings, since the local authority would then be able to defend its decision from attack upon these particular grounds.
This final argument of the appellant thus fails.
Appeal allowed. Leave to apply to the House of Lords refused.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Downsview Nominees Ltd and another v First City Corp Ltd and another
[1993] 3 All ER 626
Categories: COMPANY; Insolvency
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD LANE, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 15–17 JUNE, 19–21 OCTOBER, 19 NOVEMBER 1992
Company – Receiver – Duty – Duty to subsequent incumbrancer – Receiver appointed under debenture acting to prevent enforcement of second debenture – Receiver stripping out assets available to repay second debenture – Whether receiver owing duty of care to subsequent incumbrancers – Whether receiver acting in breach of duty owed to subsequent incumbrancer to act in good faith.
In 1975 the mortgagor company issued a debenture to a bank to secure a loan of $NZ230,000 and in 1986 issued a second debenture to the first plaintiff for moneys lent and owing. Each debenture entitled the debenture holder to appoint a receiver and manager. The company traded at a loss and on 10 March 1987, when the moneys secured by the second debenture became due and payable, the first plaintiff appointed receivers of the company who formed the provisional view that a sale of assets would be necessary. However, on 23 March the first debenture was assigned to the first defendant, a company controlled by the second defendant who was appointed receiver and manager under that debenture. The first plaintiff’s receivers withdrew and the first plaintiff wrote to the first defendant offering to purchase the first defendant’s debenture for the amount then owing or to sell its own debenture to the first defendant for the amount then owing, which was the $721,621. Both offers were rejected and instead the company issued a third debenture in favour of the first defendant to secure a loan of $100,000 which was said to be ‘receiver’s borrowings’ having preference to all other claims in the receivership, including the claims of the first plaintiff. On 13 August the first plaintiff called on the first defendant to assign the first debenture to the first plaintiff as a subsequent chargeholder but the defendants refused. Instead, the defendants arranged for company assets to be sold and the proceeds to be received by a subsidiary incorporated by the second defendant, stripped out the value of the first debenture by means of an inter-company loan when ordered by the court to assign the first debenture to the first plaintiff and then assigned it on payment of $130,000 by the first plaintiff as ordered by the court but refused to relinquish control of the company unless the first plaintiff paid a further $329,000 cash, and when ordered by the court to cease acting as receiver and to transfer the company’s assets to the first plaintiff’s receivers instead paid off the
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defendants’ debentures, removed over $300,000 worth of the company’s assets and gave notice that the second defendant had ceased to act as receiver. The first plaintiff and the second plaintiff, to whom the first plaintiff had assigned its rights under the second debenture, brought an action against the defendants for damages alleging that the defendants as the prior debenture holder and the receiver were under a duty to exercise their powers for proper purposes, honestly and in good faith and to exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence and instead had acted, or omitted to act, fraudulently, recklessly or negligently in breach of those duties. The judge found that the second defendant had acted as receiver and manager not for the purpose of enforcing the security under the first debenture but for the purpose of preventing the enforcement by the plaintiffs of the second debenture and that the first defendant had acted in bad faith and not as a prudent debenture holder would act. The judge awarded the plaintiffs damages of $554,566 being the difference between the loss that would have been incurred had the first receivership been allowed to proceed unimpeded and the loss actually incurred following the second receivership. The defendants appealed to the New Zealand Court of Appeal which dismissed the second defendant’s appeal on the ground that he acted in breach of the duty of care which a receiver and manager who elected to carry on the business of the company and to trade it out of receivership owed to subsequent debenture holders to take reasonable care in dealing with the assets of the company. However, the court held that the first defendant was not in breach of that duty and allowed its appeal. The defendants appealed against the dismissal of the second defendant’s appeal and the plaintiffs cross-appealed.
Held – A mortgagee, whether under a legal or equitable mortgage created by a charge on property or under a debenture issued by a company for its debts, owed a duty to the mortgagor and to all subsequent incumbrancers of the mortgaged property to act in good faith for the special purpose of enabling the assets comprised in the security for the debt to be preserved and realised for the purpose of obtaining repayment of the debt. That duty was owed both to the mortgagor and to any subsequent incumbrancers because if a mortgagee committed a breach of his duties to the mortgagor, the damage inflicted by that breach of duty would be suffered by any subsequent incumbrancers and the mortgagor, depending on the extent of the damage and the amount of each security. However, provided a receiver and manager appointed under a debenture acted in good faith for the purpose of enabling the assets comprised in the debenture holder’s security to be preserved and realised for the benefit of the debenture holder his decisions could not be impeached even if they were disadvantageous to the company or other incumbrancers, and he was subject to no further or greater liability: in particular, he owed no general duty of care in negligence since if such a duty were to be imposed that would be inconsistent with the specific duties which the courts, applying equitable principles, had imposed on a mortgagee and which permitted him to manage the company without risk of suit instead of merely selling the assets as quickly as possible to repay the mortgage debt. On the facts, both defendants had acted in breach of the duty of good faith, the second defendant in carrying out his receivership for improper purposes and in bad faith ultimately verging on fraud and the first defendant in failing to transfer the first debenture to the first plaintiff at the end of March 1987 when the first plaintiff offered to purchase it. Accordingly, the defendants’ appeal would be dismissed and the plaintiffs’ cross-appeal allowed (see p 633 h to p 634 d g to j, p 635 b to d, p 636 d to g, p 637 a to e g to j, p 638 d to f, p 639 a to p 640 e, post).
Page 628 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
Tomlin v Luce (1889) 43 Ch D 191 and dictum of Jenkins LJ in Re B Johnson & Co (Builders) Ltd [1955] 2 All ER 775 at 790–791 applied.
NotesFor a receiver’s duties, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1694.
Cases referred to in judgmentCBS Songs Ltd v Amstrad Consumer Electronics plc [1988] 2 All ER 484, [1988] AC 1013, [1988] 2 WLR 1191, HL.
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
Cuckmere Brick Co Ltd v Mutual Finance Ltd [1971] 2 All ER 633, [1971] Ch 949, [1971] 2 WLR 1207, CA.
Johnson (B) & Co (Builders) Ltd, Re [1955] 2 All ER 775, [1955] Ch 634, [1955] 3 WLR 269, CA.
Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398, [1990] 3 WLR 414, HL.
Tomlin v Luce (1889) 43 Ch D 191, CA.
AppealThe defendants, Downsview Nominees Ltd and J G Russell, appealed with leave of the New Zealand Court of Appeal from the judgment of the Court of Appeal (Cooke P, Richardson and Casey JJ) ([1990] 3 NZLR 265) given on 12 March 1990 dismissing the second defendant’s appeal against the judgment of Gault J given on 4 August 1989 in the High Court ([1989] 3 NZLR 710) giving judgment for the plaintiffs, First City Corp Ltd and First City Finance Ltd, against the defendants for $554,566·33 for breach of duty while acting as receivers of Glen Eden Motors Ltd which had issued a debenture in favour of the first plaintiffs. The plaintiffs cross-appealed from that part of the Court of Appeal’s judgment allowing the defendants’ appeal in part against the decision of Gault J and quashing Gault J’s order in so far as it related to the judge’s finding that the first defendant was in breach of duty to the plaintiffs. The facts are stated in the judgment of the Board.
Gary Judd and Robert Chambers QC (appointed QC during the hearing) (both of the New Zealand Bar) (instructed by Alan Taylor & Co, agents for Cairns Slane, Auckland) for the defendants.
Rhys Harrison and Ralph Simpson (both of the New Zealand Bar) (instructed by Wray Smith & Co, agents for Brandon Brookfield, Auckland) for the plaintiffs.
10 November 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
The Board took time for consideration.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. This appeal requires consideration of the duties, if any, which a first debenture holder and a receiver and manager appointed by a first debenture holder owe to a second debenture holder.
The mortgagor company, Glen Eden Motors Ltd (formerly Glen Eden Fiat Centre (1975) Ltd and hereafter called ‘GEM’), carried on business as new and used motor vehicle dealers and held Fiat and Mazda franchises for the sale of their vehicles and spare parts. The principal shareholder and manager of the company was Mr Pedersen.
Page 629 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
On 11 August 1975 GEM issued a first debenture (the Westpac debenture) which eventually secured the principal sum of $NZ230,000 in priority to a second debenture. That second debenture dated 18 September 1986 was made in favour of the first respondent, the First City Corp Ltd (FCC). Each debenture created a fixed charge over certain assets of the company and a floating charge over the remainder. Each debenture contained power for the debenture holder to appoint a receiver and manager, who was to be deemed to be the agent of the company and was authorised to perform any acts which the company could perform.
For the six months’ period to 30 September 1986 GEM traded at a loss. On 10 March 1987 the moneys secured by the second debenture having become due and payable, FCC appointed two chartered accountants, Messrs Chilcott and Chatfield, experienced in receiverships to be receivers and managers of GEM. The FCC receivers formed the provisional view that a sale of the assets of GEM would be necessary. They removed Mr Pedersen from his position as manager of GEM.
Mr Pedersen consulted the appellant, Mr Russell, who controlled the appellant company, Downsview Nominees Ltd (Downsview). On 23 March 1987 the Westpac debenture was assigned to Downsview and Mr Russell was appointed receiver and manager under that debenture. Mr Russell took over the assets and management of GEM from the receivers and managers appointed by FCC and restored Mr Pedersen to the management of GEM. On 25 March 1987 Mr Russell announced that it was his intention to trade the company out of its financial difficulties subject to a review in three months’ time. On 27 March 1987 the solicitors for FCC wrote to the directors of Downsview. The letter contained the following:
‘Our client informs us that you as first debenture holder have now appointed a receiver of [GEM]. As a consequence our client’s receivers Messrs. Chilcott & Chatfield have temporarily withdrawn to permit your receiver Mr Russell to take control of the company until such time as your debenture can be repaid in full. Our client informs us that it is your receiver’s intention to attempt to trade the company out of its present difficulties. Our client considers that any such attempt is extremely unlikely to improve the situation and indeed is highly likely to result in damage to the shareholders of the company and to itself as subsequent debenture holder. To prevent any dispute developing our clients have instructed us to write to you and make the following offer on their behalf: our client will purchase your debenture at a price equivalent to all amounts outstanding and secured under your debenture at the date of settlement; or alternatively our client will sell to you its debenture for a price equivalent to all amounts secured and outstanding under its debenture at the date of settlement.’
The letter added that $721,621·69 were then outstanding under the FCC debenture.
On 4 April 1987 GEM issued a third debenture in favour of Downsview and on 6 May 1987 Downsview advanced $100,000 to the company. Mr Russell claimed that the moneys raised by the third debenture were ‘receiver’s borrowings’ having preference to all other claims in the receivership, including the claims of FCC. GEM continued to trade but paid no interest, let alone principal, due under the Westpac debenture or the FCC debenture. At the end of three months Mr Russell had prepared no past accounts or future budgets but was aware that the company was trading at a loss. On 13 July 1987 Mazda (New Zealand) Ltd gave notice to determine the company’s Mazda franchise dealership. About the same
Page 630 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
time Mr Russell caused to be incorporated Gemco Motors Ltd (Gemco) as a subsidiary of GEM.
By a letter dated 13 August 1987 the solicitors for FCC called upon Downsview to assign the Westpac debenture to FCC as a subsequent chargeholder. Mr Russell on behalf of Downsview refused, notwithstanding that Downsview would have been paid all the moneys secured by the Westpac debenture. These proceedings were instituted on 8 September 1987 and by an interlocutory application FCC sought an order directing Downsview to assign the Westpac debenture to FCC.
From 1 October 1987 proceeds of vehicles sold by the company were received by Gemco, which acknowledged a borrowing from GEM to the extent of the value of the vehicles sold.
On 24 November 1987 Thorp J heard the application by FCC for an order directing Downsview to transfer the Westpac debenture to FCC. On 5 December 1987 Gemco issued a debenture in favour of Downsview. On 23 December 1987 Mr Russell swore in an affidavit that the amount required to discharge the debt owing to Downsview, and the amount required to discharge the liabilities and charges of the receiver, amounted to $825,727. He subsequently increased this figure. On 11 January 1988 Thorp J ordered the Westpac debenture to be assigned by Downsview to FCC on terms. Downsview and Mr Russell appealed and sought a stay of execution of the order for assignment. On 2 March 1988 Thorp J refused a stay on terms.
On 9 March 1988 Mr Russell borrowed from one of his other companies the sum of $272,000 and paid to Downsview the sum of $271,665·39 by way of repayment of the moneys secured by the Westpac debenture, so as to leave a balance outstanding of $1,000. FCC, in ignorance of these manoeuvres, complied with the conditions imposed by Thorp J which obliged FCC to pay $130,000 to Downsview and to pay a further $170,000 into court before receiving an assignment of the Westpac debenture. Downsview assigned the Westpac debenture to FCC but Mr Russell refused to relinquish control of GEM without a further payment to himself of $329,000 in cash. On 21 April 1988 Smellie J ordered Mr Russell to cease forthwith to act as receiver of GEM and to transfer GEM’s assets to receivers appointed by FCC. He directed that the order was not to be sealed until FCC had deposited an additional $20,000 in court and had appointed receivers under its debentures. On the same day Mr Russell effected an assignment of a debenture issued by Gemco in favour of Downsview to another of his companies, Terocon Press Ltd. The following day Terocon Press Ltd made an advance under the debenture to Gemco of $190,000. This sum was immediately transferred from Gemco to GEM by way of reduction of the intercompany indebtedness. On the same morning Mr Russell as receiver of GEM paid to his company Corporate Enterprises Ltd the sum of $224,000 by way of reduction of his receiver’s borrowings. Also on the same day Mr Russell caused certain new and used vehicles valued at $303,543 to be removed from the premises of GEM and Gemco and stored in a warehouse. On the same day Mr Russell caused Terocon Press Ltd, the holder of the debenture from Gemco, to make demand upon Gemco for repayment upon one hour and twenty-five minutes notice of the amount owing under that debenture said to be $245,129. Mr Russell also wrote cheques on behalf of Gemco for sums in excess of $100,000 in favour of creditors of Gemco. He then gave notice to the registrar that he had ceased to act as the receiver of GEM at noon on 22 April 1988. FCC on 26 April appointed Messrs Chilcott and Chatfield, their original receivers, to be again the receivers and managers of GEM.
Page 631 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
On 30 September 1988 FCC assigned to the second respondent, First City Finance Ltd (FCF), the FCC debenture together with all its rights, titles and interests in the moneys payable thereunder and all rights, powers and remedies thereunder.
These proceedings were continued by FCC and by FCF. The action came before Gault J ([1989] 3 NZLR 710) who on 4 August 1989 delivered judgment. He summarised the relevant parts of the statement of claim as follows (at 739):
‘The plaintiffs, in the statement of claim, alleged that Downsview and Mr Russell, as prior debenture holder and receiver respectively, owed duties to [FCC] and/or [FCF] to: “1. Exercise their powers for proper purposes. 2. Act honestly and in good faith. 3. Exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence. 4. Discharge the Westpac debenture immediately they were in a position to do so. 5. Pay over or surrender to [FCC] the surplus assets of [GEM] after satisfaction of the Westpac debenture.” They allege that Downsview and Mr Russell acted, or omitted to act, in a fraudulent, reckless or negligent manner in breach of these duties. The alleged breaches are particularised at length in the fourth amended statement of claim and may be summarised under three headings: (a) Acquiring the Westpac debenture and carrying out the receivership thereunder for the improper purpose of preventing the plaintiffs enforcing their security. (b) Conducting the receivership in a reckless or negligent manner. (c) Failing to accept the plaintiffs’ offer to discharge the obligations under the Westpac debenture and to assign the Westpac debenture to the plaintiffs.’
The learned judge recorded the following allegations by FCC and FCF:
‘… that Downsview in the course of events I have described, acted in bad faith and other than as a prudent debenture holder would act in the exercise of its power by knowingly, and without any real intention of enforcing the security under the Westpac debenture, preventing enforcement of the plaintiff’s security.—This was effected by purchasing the Westpac debenture and appointing Mr Russell knowingly to act as he did as receiver and manager of [GEM].’ (See [1989] 3 NZLR 710 at 747–748.)
Gault J made the following findings (at 749–753):
‘Mr Russell said he took the view his responsibility was to the company to do the best possible job he could and that this would have been ultimately to the benefit of everyone, including [FCC]. I do not accept that that was his approach at the time. He resolved to acquire the debenture, appoint himself receiver and permit the company to trade on under the same management, without taking the time to fully investigate the financial affairs of the company, the competence of its management or the basis upon which [FCC] was seeking to enforce its security. In my judgment his true motive was to involve himself in the affairs of [GEM] for the benefit of himself and his company while undertaking to assist Mr Pedersen and to “save” [GEM]. His own brief of evidence reads: “170. It is perfectly lawful for anyone to purchase a debenture. Downsview is in the business of acting as a nominee in the lending of money. The Westpac debenture was a good investment because it was a first charge over a long established company. There was no doubt that it would get its money back plus interest. Therefore, from Downsview’s point of view, there was no downside risk in acquiring the debenture. 171. From my point of view, I saw it as a good and interesting job as receiver, for which I expected to be well paid. 172. It was an
Page 632 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
interesting job, because I saw the opportunity of preserving the company for the benefit of its unsecured creditors and shareholders, as well as for the secured creditors. Saving the company, in circumstances where it had been struck a severe blow by the appointment of the first receivers, was a challenge which I was happy to take up.” In pursuit of his own objectives Mr Russell embarked upon a course, having as its first objective disruption of the receivership under the [FCC] debenture. His intention in urgently acquiring the Westpac debenture and accepting appointment as receiver was not for the purpose of enforcing the security under the Westpac debenture but for the purpose of preventing the enforcement by the plaintiffs of the [FCC] debenture. Further … in conducting the correspondence with the solicitors for [FCC] in the months immediately following his appointment as receiver, he had no genuine intention of either agreeing to assign the Westpac debenture to [FCC], or of acquiring the [FCC] debenture. During that period, had he so wished, he could have facilitated the speedy acquisition of the Westpac debenture by [FCC] in a manner similar to its acquisition by Downsview. Subsequently his resistance to prompt assignment of the Westpac debenture, even in the face of a direction from the Court, was prompted in part by his anxiety to secure any outstanding fees and liabilities and in part to secure the interests of his companies. I consider he was also motivated to a considerable degree by a determination simply to retain control of the business affairs of [GEM] to frustrate the enforcement by the plaintiffs of the security under the [FCC] debenture … The decision to acquire the Westpac debenture and assume the office of receiver of [GEM] is interrelated with the determination by Mr Russell that the company should continue to trade … In the circumstances I consider that Mr Russell and Downsview employed the powers under the Westpac debenture for their own purposes and not for their proper purposes. To use these powers as they did constituted a clear breach of each of their respective duties to the subsequent debenture holder … I have no difficulty in reaching the conclusion that, taking office for the purposes he did and conducting his receivership in the manner I have outlined, constituted breach by Mr Russell of his duty to the holder of the [FCC] debenture. While I consider his conduct fell below the required standard, even in the initial period, I find that after July 1987 his conduct can be described only as reckless … The plaintiff’s claim for failure by Downsview to assign the Westpac debenture had two separate bases. The first was on the refusal by Downsview to accept [FCC’s] offer to purchase the Westpac debenture when first made four days after Downsview acquired the debenture. It follows from the finding I have made already, that had Downsview acquired the debenture and exercised the powers under it for their proper purposes, the offer made on behalf of [FCC] would have been responded to … The response by Mr Russell (for Downsview and I believe for himself) simply underscores the finding I have already made, that both defendants employed the powers under the Westpac debenture in breach of the duty they had to the subsequent debenture holder.’
The learned judge held that FCC and FCF were entitled to damages on the basis of the—
‘difference between the loss that would have been incurred had the first receivership of Messrs Chilcott and Chatfield been allowed to proceed unimpeded, and the loss actually incurred as it has emerged following the
Page 633 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
second receivership by those two accountants.’ (See [1989] 3 NZLR 710 at 758–759.)
In the result judgment was entered in favour of FCC and FCF against Downsview and Mr Russell for $554,566·33. In addition Mr Russell was prohibited under s 189 of the Companies Act without the leave of the court from being a director or promoter of or being concerned in or taking part in the management of any company for a period of five years from the date of judgment. Downsview and Mr Russell appealed asserting over thirty grounds.
The Court of Appeal (Cooke P, Richardson and Casey JJ) ([1990] 3 NZLR 265) in the judgment of the court delivered by Richardson J on 12 March 1990 accepted—
‘that on the application of negligence principles a receiver and manager who elects to carry on the business of the company and to trade it out of receivership owes a duty of care to subsequent debenture holders to take reasonable care in dealing with the assets of the company.’ (See [1990] 3 NZLR 265 at 273.)
The Court of Appeal held that Mr Russell was in breach of the duty of care to FCC, that Downsview were not in breach and that the court had no jurisdiction under s 189 of the Companies Act 1955 to prohibit Mr Russell from being a director or promoter or from being concerned with the management of a company.
Mr Russell appealed against the decision of the Court of Appeal against him; FCC and FCF cross-appealed against Mr Russell and Downsview for the reinstatement of the orders made by Gault J.
When the appeal and cross-appeal came before the Board, it was apparent that the judgments of the courts below raised fundamental questions concerning the nature and extent of any liability by a mortgagee and by a receiver and manager to the mortgagor company or to a subsequent debenture holder for his actions. The statement of claim pleaded that Downsview and Mr Russell were in breach of a duty to exercise their powers for proper purposes, in breach of a duty to act honestly and in good faith and in breach of a duty to exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence. Gault J held that—
‘the proposition that a receiver will not be liable in negligence so long as he acts honestly and in good faith no longer represents the law of New Zealand … The authorities clearly indicate that on an application of negligence principles, a receiver owes a duty to the debenture holders to take reasonable care in dealing with the assets of the company.’ (See [1989] 3 NZLR 710 at 742–744.)
In the Court of Appeal it was accepted by the court without any argument to the contrary by counsel that Gault J was correct in his conclusion ‘that, if there were any duties on the part of Downsview and Mr Russell as receiver to a subsequent debenture holder, they would have to be based in negligence’. The appellants’ case and the respondents’ case as presented to the Board did not challenge these conclusions. The Board, however, were considerably troubled by the approach of the courts below and on terms gave leave to the respondents to raise the whole question of the foundation and extent of the duties owed by a first debenture holder and his receiver and manager to a subsequent debenture holder. An adjournment was granted so that both sides could reconsider the whole question and submit supplemental cases and arguments.
Page 634 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
The first submission made on behalf of Downsview and Mr Russell is that they owed no duty to FCC because FCC was only a debenture holder and not a mortgagee. This submission is untenable.
A mortgage, whether legal or equitable, is security for repayment of a debt. The security may be constituted by a conveyance, assignment or demise or by a charge on any interest in real or personal property. An equitable mortgage is a contract which creates a charge on property but does not pass a legal estate to the creditor. Its operation is that of an executory assurance, which, as between the parties, and so far as equitable rights and remedies are concerned, is equivalent to an actual assurance, and is enforceable under the equitable jurisdiction of the court. All this is well settled law and is to be found in more detail in the textbooks on the subject and also in 32 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 401ff. The security for a debt incurred by a company may take the form of a fixed charge on property or the form of a floating charge which becomes a fixed charge on the assets comprised in the security when the debt becomes due and payable. A security issued by a company is called a debenture but for present purposes there is no material difference between a mortgage, a charge and a debenture. Each creates a security for the repayment of a debt.
The second argument put forward on behalf of Mr Russell and Downsview is that though a mortgagee owes certain duties to the mortgagor, he owes no duty to any subsequent incumbrancer; so Downsview and Mr Russell owed no duty to FCC. This argument also is untenable. The owner of property entering into a mortgage does not by entering into that mortgage cease to be the owner of that property any further than is necessary to give effect to the security he has created. The mortgagor can mortgage the property again and again. A second or subsequent mortgage is a complete security on the mortgagor’s interests subject only to the rights of prior incumbrancers. If a first mortgagee commits a breach of his duties to the mortgagor, the damage inflicted by that breach of duty will be suffered by the second mortgagee, subsequent incumbrancers and the mortgagor, depending on the extent of the damage and the amount of each security. Thus if a first mortgagee in breach of duty sells property worth £500,000 for £300,000, he is liable at the suit of any subsequent incumbrancer or the mortgagor. Damages of £200,000 will be ordered to be taken into the accounts of the first mortgagee or paid into court or to the second mortgagee who, after satisfying, as far as he can, the amount of any debt outstanding under his mortgage, will pay over any balance remaining to the next incumbrancer—or to the mortgagor if there is no subsequent incumbrancer. In practice the incumbrancer who first suffers from the breach of duty by the first mortgagee and needs the damages payable by the first mortgagee to obtain repayment of his own debt will sue the first mortgagee. If the incumbrancers do not suffer because they have been able to obtain repayment of their debts without recourse to the damages, then it will be the mortgagor who will sue. In Tomlin v Luce (1889) 43 Ch D 191 the Court of Appeal held that the first mortgagees were answerable to the second mortgagees for the loss caused by a misstatement made by the auctioneer appointed by the first mortgagees to sell the property comprised in their security. The court directed that there should be an enquiry as to damages and that the first mortgagees should be allowed in their accounts the amount of their debt less the actual proceeds of sale from the property and the amount of the damages.
The next submission on behalf of Mr Russell and Downsview is that, even if a mortgagee owes certain duties to subsequent incumbrancers, a receiver and manager appointed by a mortgagee is not under any such duty where, as in the
Page 635 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
present case, the receiver and manager is deemed to act as agent for the mortgagor. The fallacy in the argument is the failure to appreciate that, when a receiver and manager exercises the powers of sale and management conferred on him by the mortgage, he is dealing with the security; he is not merely selling or dealing with the interests of the mortgagor. He is exercising the power of selling and dealing with the mortgaged property for the purpose of securing repayment of the debt owing to his mortgagee and must exercise his powers in good faith and for the purpose of obtaining repayment of the debt owing to his mortgagee. The receiver and manager owes these duties to the mortgagor and to all subsequent incumbrancers in whose favour the mortgaged property has been charged.
The next question is the nature and extent of the duties owed by a mortgagee and a receiver and manager respectively to subsequent incumbrancers and the mortgagor.
Several centuries ago equity evolved principles for the enforcement of mortgages and the protection of borrowers. The most basic principles were, first, that a mortgage is security for the repayment of a debt and, secondly, that a security for repayment of a debt is only a mortgage. From these principles flowed two rules, first, that powers conferred on a mortgagee must be exercised in good faith for the purpose of obtaining repayment and secondly that, subject to the first rule, powers conferred on a mortgagee may be exercised although the consequences may be disadvantageous to the borrower. These principles and rules apply also to a receiver and manager appointed by the mortgagee.
It does not follow that a receiver and manager must immediately upon appointment seize all the cash in the coffers of the company and sell all the company’s assets or so much of the assets as he chooses and considers sufficient to complete the redemption of the mortgage. He is entitled, but not bound, to allow the company’s business to be continued by himself or by the existing or other executives. The decisions of the receiver and manager whether to continue the business or close down the business and sell assets chosen by him cannot be impeached if those decisions are taken in good faith while protecting the interests of the debenture holder in recovering the moneys due under the debenture, even though the decisions of the receiver and manager may be disadvantageous for the company.
The nature of the duties owed by a receiver and manager appointed by a debenture holder were authoritatively defined by Jenkins LJ in a characteristically learned and comprehensive judgment in Re B Johnson & Co (Builders) Ltd [1955] 2 All ER 775 at 790–791, [1955] Ch 634 at 661–663:
‘… the phrase “manager of the company”, prima facie, according to the ordinary meaning of the words, connotes a person holding, whether de jure or de facto, a post in or with the company of a nature charging him with the duty of managing the affairs of the company for the company’s benefit; whereas a receiver and manager for debenture-holders is a person appointed by the debenture-holders to whom the company has given powers of management pursuant to the contract of loan constituted by the debenture and as a condition of obtaining the loan, to enable him to preserve and realise the assets comprised in the security for the benefit of the debenture-holders. The company gets the loan on terms that the lenders shall be entitled, for the purpose of making their security effective, to appoint a receiver with powers of sale and of management pending sale, and with full discretion as to the exercise and mode of exercising those powers. The primary duty of the receiver is to the debenture-holders and not to the company. He is receiver and manager of the property of the company for the debenture-holders, not
Page 636 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
manager of the company. The company is entitled to any surplus of assets remaining after the debenture debt has been discharged, and is entitled to proper accounts. The whole purpose of the receiver and manager’s appointment would obviously be stultified if the company could claim that a receiver and manager owes it any duty comparable to the duty owed to a company by its own directors or managers. In determining whether a receiver and manager for the debenture-holders of a company has broken any duty owed by him to the company, regard must be had to the fact that he is a receiver and manager—i.e., a receiver, with ancillary powers of management—for the debenture-holders, and not simply a person appointed to manage the company’s affairs for the benefit of the company … The duties of a receiver and manager for debenture-holders are widely different from those of a manager of the company. He is under no obligation to carry on the company’s business at the expense of the debenture-holders. Therefore he commits no breach of duty to the company by refusing to do so, even though his discontinuance of the business may be detrimental from the company’s point of view. Again, his power of sale is, in effect, that of a mortgagee, and he therefore commits no breach of duty to the company by a bona fide sale, even though he might have obtained a higher price and even though, from the point of view of the company, as distinct from the debenture-holders, the terms might be regarded as disadvantageous. In a word, in the absence of fraud or mala fides … the company cannot complain of any act or omission of the receiver and manager, provided that he does nothing that he is not empowered to do, and omits nothing that he is enjoined to do by the terms of his appointment. If the company conceives that it has any claim against the receiver and manager for breach of some duty owed by him to the company, the issue is not whether the receiver and manager has done or omitted to do anything which it would be wrongful in a manager of a company to do or omit, but whether he has exceeded or abused or wrongfully omitted to use the special powers and discretions vested in him pursuant to the contract of loan constituted by the debenture for the special purpose of enabling the assets comprised in the debenture-holders’ security to be preserved and realised.’
The duties owed by a receiver and manager do not compel him to adopt any particular course of action, by selling the whole or part of the mortgaged property or by carrying on the business of the company or by exercising any other powers and discretions vested in him. But since a mortgage is only security for a debt, a receiver and manager commits a breach of his duty if he abuses his powers by exercising them otherwise than ‘for the special purpose of enabling the assets comprised in the debenture holders’ security to be preserved and realised’ for the benefit of the debenture holder. In the present case the evidence of Mr Russell himself and the clear emphatic findings of Gault J, which have already been cited, show that Mr Russell accepted appointment and acted as receiver and manager—
‘not for the purpose of enforcing the security under the Westpac debenture but for the purpose of preventing the enforcement by the plaintiffs of the FCC debenture.’
This and other findings to similar effect establish that, ab initio and throughout his receivership, Mr Russell did not exercise his powers for proper purposes. He was at all times in breach of the duty, which was pleaded against him, to exercise his powers in good faith for proper purposes.
Page 637 of [1993] 3 All ER 626
Gault J rested his judgment not on breach of a duty to act in good faith for proper purposes but on negligence. He said([1989] 3 NZLR 710 at 744–747):
‘… on an application of negligence principles, a receiver owes a duty to the debenture holders to take reasonable care in dealing with the assets of the company … Downsview’s position is merely a specific example of the duty a mortgagee has to subsequent charge holders to exercise its powers with reasonable care …’
Richardson J, delivering the judgment of the Court of Appeal, agreed that duties of care in negligence as defined by Gault J were owed by Mr Russell as receiver and manager and by Downsview as first debenture holder to FCC and FCF as second debenture holders. Richardson J agreed that Mr Russell was in breach of his duty but, differing from Gault J, held that Downsview had committed no breach.
The general duty of care said to be owed by a mortgagee to subsequent incumbrancers and the mortgagor in negligence is inconsistent with the right of the mortgagee and the duties which the courts applying equitable principles have imposed on the mortgagee. If a mortgagee enters into possession he is liable to account for rent on the basis of wilful default; he must keep mortgage premises in repair; he is liable for waste. Those duties were imposed to ensure that a mortgagee is diligent in discharging his mortgage and returning the property to the mortgagor. If a mortgagee exercises his power of sale in good faith for the purpose of protecting his security, he is not liable to the mortgagor even though he might have obtained a higher price and even though the terms might be regarded as disadvantageous to the mortgagor. Cuckmere Brick Co Ltd v Mutual Finance Ltd [1971] 2 All ER 633, [1971] Ch 949 is Court of Appeal authority for the proposition that, if the mortgagee decides to sell, he must take reasonable care to obtain a proper price but is no authority for any wider proposition. A receiver exercising his power of sale also owes the same specific duties as the mortgagee. But that apart, the general duty of a receiver and manager appointed by a debenture holder, as defined by Jenkins LJ in Re B Johnson & Co (Builders) Ltd [1955] 2 All ER 775 at 790–791, [1955] Ch 634 at 661–663, leaves no room for the imposition of a general duty to use reasonable care in dealing with the assets of the company. The duties imposed by equity on a mortgagee and on a receiver and manager would be quite unnecessary if there existed a general duty in negligence to take reasonable care in the exercise of powers and to take reasonable care in dealing with the assets of the mortgagor company.
Richardson J appreciated the contradictions and inconsistencies between the duties of a receiver and manager as set forth by Jenkins LJ based on historical equitable principles and the suggested additional or alternative duty of care based on negligence. Richardson J said ([1990] 3 NZLR 265 at 276):
‘The existence, nature and extent of the receiver’s duty of care must be measured in relation to the primary objective of the receivership which is to enforce the security by recouping the moneys which it secures from the income or assets of the company subject to the security, and for that purpose by exercising incidental powers of management, and when recoupment is complete to hand the remaining property back to the control of the company.’
Their Lordships consider that it is not possible to measure a duty of care in relation to a primary objective which is quite inconsistent with that duty of care.
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There is a great difference between managing a company for the benefit of a debenture holder and managing a company for the benefit of shareholders. If the debenture holder is dissatisfied with the policy or performance of his appointed receiver and manager, the appointment can be revoked. A dissatisfied second debenture holder may require the prior debenture to be assigned to him or may put the company into liquidation. A dissatisfied company may raise the money to pay off a debenture holder or put the company into liquidation. But if a receiver and manager decides at his discretion to manage and is allowed to manage and does manage in good faith with the object of preserving and realising the assets for the benefit of the debenture holder, he is subject to no further or greater liability.
In the United Kingdom the possible harsh consequences to a company of a receivership may be averted by an administration order under the Insolvency Act 1986. Such an order may be made if the company is or is likely to become insolvent and if the order will be likely to achieve, inter alia, the survival of the company or any part of its undertaking as a going concern. A petition for an administration order may be presented by the company or the directors or by a creditor. The order appoints an administrator to manage the affairs of the company with powers of sale and automatically prevents a receiver from acting and prevents a creditor from enforcing any security without the consent of the administrator or the leave of the court. The administrator may be removed if the company’s affairs are managed by him ‘in a way which is unfairly prejudicial to the interests’ of the company’s creditors or members. Similar legislation is in force in the United States. In the absence of any such legislation, the only limitations on the exercise of power by a receiver and manager are the requirements to act in good faith for the purpose of preserving and realising the assets for the benefit of the debenture holder.
The House of Lords has warned against the danger of extending the ambit of negligence so as to supplant or supplement other torts, contractual obligations, statutory duties or equitable rules in relation to every kind of damage including economic loss: see CBS Songs Ltd v Amstrad Consumer Electronics plc [1988] 2 All ER 484 at 497, [1988] AC 1013 at 1059, Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605 and Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398. If the defined equitable duties attaching to mortgagees and to receivers and managers appointed by debenture holders are replaced or supplemented by a liability in negligence the result will be confusion and injustice. A receiver and manager liable in negligence will be tempted to sell assets as speedily as possible for the purpose of repaying the mortgage debt, a decision which, whether negligent or not, does not expose him to a suit for damages but may be disadvantageous to the company. A receiver who is brave enough to manage will run the risk of being sued if the financial position of the company deteriorates, whether that deterioration be due to imperfect knowledge or bad advice or insufficient time or other circumstances. There will always be expert witnesses ready to testify with the benefit of hindsight that they would have acted differently and fared better.
A receiver and manager is appointed when the mortgagor company is in financial difficulties. He may know nothing of the trade carried on by the mortgagor company and nothing about the individual affairs of the company. He is dependent on information furnished by the directors and managers who must bear some responsibility for the financial difficulties of the company. Richardson J in the present case, in discussing the ambit of s 189 of the Companies Act 1955, said ([1990] NZLR 265 at 284):
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‘There is a further justification for maintaining that clear distinction between the acts of the manager of the company and the acts of the receiver and manager of its property. The company has vicarious responsibility for the acts of the manager and in the exercise of those functions as manager the manager is not personally liable to other parties except for misfeasance. In contrast the receiver is personally liable on any contract entered into by him in the performance of his functions, except insofar as the contract otherwise provides (s 345(2)). In policy terms it may be considered entirely appropriate to confine the external sanction under s 189(1)(c) to officers of the company, leaving errant receivers and managers to their personal liability in respect of contracts, and recognising too that in the ordinary course poorly performing receivers are not likely to be given further assignments by debenture holders of other companies.’
Similar considerations apply to Downsview. A mortgagee owes a general duty to subsequent incumbrancers and to the mortgagor to use his powers for the sole purpose of securing repayment of the moneys owing under his mortgage and a duty to act in good faith. He also owes the specific duties which equity has imposed on him in the exercise of his powers to go into possession and his powers of sale. It may well be that a mortgagee who appoints a receiver and manager, knowing that the receiver and manager intends to exercise his powers for the purpose of frustrating the activities of the second mortgagee or for some other improper purpose or who fails to revoke the appointment of a receiver and manager when the mortgagee knows that the receiver and manager is abusing his powers, may himself be guilty of bad faith but in the present case this possibility need not be explored.
The liability of Mr Russell in the present case is firmly based not on negligence but on the breach of duty. There was overwhelming evidence that the receivership of Mr Russell was inspired by him for improper purposes and carried on in bad faith, ultimately verging on fraud. The liability of Downsview does not arise under negligence but as a result of Downsview’s breach of duty in failing to transfer the Westpac debenture to FCC at the end of March 1987. It is well settled that the mortgagor and all persons having any interest in the property subject to the mortgage or liable to pay the mortgage debt can redeem. It is now conceded that FCC were entitled to require Downsview to assign the Westpac debenture to FCC on payment of all moneys due to Downsview under the Westpac debenture. On 27 March 1987 FCC offered to purchase the Westpac debenture and to pay Downsview all that was owing to them. It was faintly argued that Downsview were entitled to refuse the offer because at a later stage they reasonably believed, so it was said, albeit wrongly, that the FCC debenture was void for non-registration. There is nothing in this point. The reason given by Mr Russell on behalf of Downsview for the refusal of Downsview to assign the Westpac debenture to FCC as a subsequent charge holder was that ‘we do not know of any right of assignment which subsequent charge holders have in respect of an earlier charge’. Mr Russell is now older and Downsview are now wiser.
Downsview were from the end of March 1987 in breach of their duty to assign the Westpac debenture to FCC. If that debenture had been assigned, Mr Russell would have ceased to be the receiver and manager and none of the avoidable losses caused by Mr Russell would have been sustained.
Gault J decided that the damages payable by Mr Russell and Downsview were—
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‘the difference between the loss that would have been incurred had the first receivership of Messrs Chilcott and Chatfield been allowed to proceed unimpeded, and the loss actually incurred as it has emerged following the second receivership by those two accountants.’ (See [1989] 3 NZLR 710 at 758–759.)
Gault J found that Mr Russell accepted appointment as a receiver and manager for an improper purpose, namely the purpose of disrupting the receivership under the FCC debenture and for the purpose of preventing the enforcement of the FCC debenture. He was therefore in breach of his duty from 23 March 1987 onwards. The measure of damages decided by Gault J applies to this breach of duty just as it would have applied if Mr Russell had been liable in negligence. The breach of duty of Downsview in refusing to assign the Westpac debenture following the letter dated 27 March 1987 can be dated from the end of March. There was no difference in the position of the company between 23 March 1987 when Mr Russell was appointed receiver and manager and the date when Downsview received the letter dated 27 March and should have agreed to assign the Westpac debenture and withdraw Mr Russell. Accordingly, Downsview, by committing a breach of duty in not accepting the offer of FCC to take an assignment of the Westpac debenture, are liable with Mr Russell for the difference between the loss that would have been incurred, had the first receivership of Messrs Chilcott and Chatfield been allowed to proceed unimpeded, and the loss actually incurred as it emerged following the second receivership by those two accountants. FCC accepted that if the first receivership had continued it would not have been possible to get in all the assets of the company until 31 August 1987. Gault J, after hearing expert evidence, concluded that 31 August 1987 was ‘the date by which substantially all funds available from the disposal of assets would have been paid over to FCC, the debenture holder’. Gault J also found that $898,461 was the amount that would have been recovered by the FCC debenture holder at 31 August 1987. After making adjustments for interest, the amounts received by FCC and other matters not in dispute, judgment was entered for $554,566·33.
The Court of Appeal held that Gault J lacked jurisdiction under s 189 to prohibit Mr Russell from acting as a director or promoter or being concerned in the management of the company. Their Lordships agree for the reasons given by Richardson J.
In the result their Lordships are of the opinion that the appeal ought to be dismissed and the cross-appeal allowed and that the orders made by Gault J against Mr Russell and Downsview should be restored, save that the order against Mr Russell under s 189 of the Companies Act should be quashed. The costs of FCC and FCF in the courts below and the costs of the appeal and cross-appeal before the Board should be paid by Mr Russell and Downsview subject to the conditions imposed by the Board and accepted by FCC and FCF when, on 17 June 1992, the Board granted leave for arguments to be advanced which had not been raised before the Court of Appeal. Those conditions were set forth in a letter dated 18 June 1992 addressed to the parties by the Registrar of the Judicial Committee. Their Lordships will humbly advise Her Majesty to order accordingly.
Appeal dismissed. Cross-appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Lockheed-Arabia Corp v Owen
[1993] 3 All ER 641
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): RALPH GIBSON, MANN AND NOLAN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 12 MARCH, 1 APRIL 1993
Document – Disputed writing – Comparison – Lost original – Cheque – Photocopy of original available to expert for comparison of signature – Whether expert opinion based on comparison with photocopy admissible in evidence – Criminal Procedure Act 1865, s 8.
The plaintiff claimed damages for the wrongful conversion of a cheque. The defendant did not admit to having signed or indorsed the cheque and denied that he had received the proceeds. The cheque was stolen while in the safekeeping of the plaintiff’s solicitors, who had however photocopied it. At the outset of the trial of the action the judge was asked to rule whether the opinions of handwriting experts based on a comparison of the defendant’s signature with the signature on the photocopies of the cheque were admissible in evidence. The defendant contended that under s 8a of the Criminal Procedure Act 1865, which provided that ‘comparison of a disputed writing with any writing proved to the satisfaction of the judge to be genuine shall be permitted’, only a comparison with the disputed document itself was admissible and not a comparison by reference to a photocopy of the document. The judge held that the experts’ opinions based on a comparison with the photocopy could not be admitted. The plaintiff appealed.
Held – The opinion of a handwriting expert who had not seen the original document but only a photocopy of it and had used the photocopy to make his comparison was admissible evidence under s 8 of the 1865 Act. On its true construction, s 8 was an enabling provision whose purpose was to permit a comparison by reference to a facsimile of the original of a lost document to be admissible evidence of the opinion of a handwriting expert. Accordingly, the experts’ opinion evidence was admissible; it was for the judge to assess its weight having regard to the fact that the comparison had been made with the photocopy and not the original. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 646 g to p 647 f, post).
Hartzell v US (1934) 72 F 2d 569 adopted.
Arbon v Fussell (1862) 3 F & F 152 distinguished.
McCullough v Munn [1908] 2 IR 194 explained.
NotesFor the admissibility of photographs as documentary evidence, see 17 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 224.
For proof of handwriting, see 17 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 124, and for cases on the subject, see 22(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 289–296, 3477–3579.
For the Criminal Procedure Act 1865, s 8, see 17 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 110.
Cases referred to in judgmentsArbon v Fussell (1862) 3 F & F 152, 176 ER 68.
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Brookes v Tichborne (1850) 5 Ex 929, 155 ER 405.
Doe d Mudd v Suckermore (1836) 5 Ad & El 703, 111 ER 1331.
Hartzell v US (1934) 72 F 2d 569, US Ct of Apps (8th Cir).
Lucas v Williams & Sons [1892] 2 QB 113, CA.
McCullough v Munn [1908] 2 IR 194, Ir DC.
Case also citedR v Government of Pentonville Prison, ex p Osman [1989] 3 All ER 701, [1990] 1 WLR 277, DC.
AppealThe plaintiff, Lockheed-Arabia Corp, appealed from the ruling of Judge Gareth Edwards QC given on 5 August 1992 in the Warrington County Court in the course of the hearing of the plaintiff’s action against the defendant, Barry James Owen, for damages for the conversion of a cheque, whereby the judge ruled that expert handwriting evidence was inadmissible in respect of a signature on a cheque alleged to have been drawn by the defendant when the experts had not seen the original but had made their comparison from a photocopy. The facts are set out in the judgment of Mann LJ.
Edward Cohen (instructed by Phillipsohn Neumann) for the appellant.
Peter S M Cowan (instructed by Robert Davies & Co, Warrington) for the respondent.
Cur adv vult
1 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
MANN LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Ralph Gibson LJ). This is a plaintiff’s appeal against a ruling made Judge Gareth Edwards QC in the Warrington County Court on 5 August 1992 at an early stage of the plaintiff’s action. The appeal is by leave of the judge and the hearing of the action is adjourned pending our determination.
The plaintiff is Lockheed-Arabia, which is a body corporate (the appellant), and the defendant is Barry James Owen (the respondent). The respondent was employed by the appellant in Saudi Arabia as an accountant. For the purpose of his employment he had a limited authority to sign cheques on an account of the appellant at the Saudi Investment Bank. On 11 March 1990 the respondent was made redundant and the notice of redundancy expired on 28 March 1990. The appellant contends the respondent’s authority to draw cheques ceased on 11 March 1990 yet that on 12 March he drew a cheque for 61,581 Saudi rials. It was payable ‘to the order of B J Owen’ and the appellant alleges that it was both signed and indorsed by the respondent. The appellant claims the proceeds of the cheque. The respondent does not admit he signed the cheque and denies both that he indorsed it and that he received its proceeds. No more need be said about the issues in the action.
The appellant received the cheque amongst other honoured cheques returned to it by the Saudi Investment Bank. The appellant gave the cheque to its solicitors who took a photocopy both of front and back before placing the original in a safe. The safe and its contents were subsequently stolen and neither has yet been recovered.
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The appellant’s solicitors submitted the photocopy and some genuine samples of the respondent’s signature to a forensic scientist and asked his opinion upon whether there was a correspondence in signature. He gave an opinion. The respondent also sought the opinion of a forensic scientist. She advised that an opinion on correspondence could not be formed by reference to a photocopy.
The action came for trial on 4 August 1992. After counsel’s opening speech the appellant’s solicitor gave evidence of having received the cheque, that the photocopy was a copy of the original and that the original had been stolen. The judge was then asked to rule (according to his note) on—
‘Whether I may receive the evidence of handwriting experts in respect of a signature on a cheque when the experts have not seen the original, but have been compelled by the circumstances to make comparison from a photocopy.’
The judge ruled on 5 August. He thought himself compelled to hold that the opinion could not be admitted although his preference would have been to receive it and to assess its weight with due regard to the comparison having had to be made with the photocopy of the cheque. The ruling is the subject of this appeal.
At common law the opinion of a witness as to handwriting, whether expert or not, was admissible as evidence in certain cases. The cases were those where the witness had seen the person write and those where the witness had acquired some previous familiarity with the person’s handwriting in another way. The common law judges in the early nineteenth century agonised over the admissibility of an opinion based upon a comparison formed for the purposes of trial. In Doe d Mudd v Suckermore (1836) 5 Ad & El 703, 111 ER 1331 the King’s Bench was equally divided upon admissibility and consequently upheld Vaughan J’s ruling that the opinion was not admissible. The competing arguments are rehearsed in the judgments and the history leading to the difference of opinion is in Holdsworth A History of English Law (3rd edn, 1944) vol 9, pp 212–214 and Wigmore Evidence (3rd edn, 1940) vol 7, pp 178 et seq. A contemporary reader will find the division of opinion to have been a nicely refined division. I need not rehearse it.
Section 27 of the Common Law Procedure Act 1854 allowed the giving of comparison evidence as to handwriting. The section was repealed and then replaced by s 8 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1865. That Act was ineptly titled by the Short Titles Act 1896. Most of its sections, and in particular s 8, apply to civil proceedings. Section 8 is in these terms:
‘Comparison of a disputed Writing with any Writing proved to the Satisfaction of the Judge to be genuine shall be permitted to be made by Witnesses; and such Writings, and the Evidence of Witnesses respecting the same, may be submitted to the Court and Jury as evidence of the Genuineness or otherwise of the Writing in dispute.’
Counsel for the appellant told us that he had examined the parliamentary history of the Bills for the 1854 and 1865 Acts and that his examination had been fruitless as to the legislative intent. In my view the legislative intent is clear. It was an intention to resolve the difference of judgments in Doe d Mudd v Suckermore in favour of the admissibility of an opinion as to handwriting based upon a comparison.
The respondent does not challenge the admission of the photocopy of the cheques as evidence of the contents of the cheque. He could not do so once it had
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been proved that the copy was of an original which had been lost. The admissibility of secondary evidence in that circumstance was established well before the commencement of the nineteenth century.
The issue before the court is whether an opinion is admissible under s 8 if it is formed after an examination of a facsimile of the disputed writing. The judge was referred to a passage in Phipson Evidence (14th edn, 1990) p 369 and to the cases there cited. The passage reads:
‘Both the disputed and the genuine writings must be produced in court and the former, if lost, cannot be compared, either from memory or from a photographic copy, with the latter.’
The references in support are to Arbon v Fussell (1862) 3 F & F 152, 176 ER 68 and McCullough v Munn [1908] 2 IR 194. There is also a reference for comparison to Lucas v Williams & Sons [1892] 2 QB 113. The judge thought that the Irish case ‘clearly’ supported the proposition in Phipson and found the reasoning in it to be highly persuasive. The decision seems to have compelled him to rule as he did.
Lucas v Williams is a decision of this court in a different context (the production of a copy of a picture to prove infringement of copyright in the original picture). Neither counsel suggested the decision was helpful and I find it unnecessary to pause on it.
Arbon v Fussell was an action in the Exchequer before Wilde B and a jury. The plaintiff brought an action for breach of a contract in writing for the hire of a pair of horses alleging that the defendant had terminated the contract without giving the three months’ notice for which the agreement provided. The defendant denied the agreement contained a notice provision. The plaintiff had lost his copy of the agreement and secondary evidence of it was not admissible because the original had not been stamped. The plaintiff optimistically sought to prove that the lost document had the defendant’s signature by comparing his recollection of her signature upon it with an admittedly genuine letter of hers which was produced to the court. The report is terse (3 F & F 152 at 153, 176 ER 68 at 69):
‘… on the part of the defendant [it was contended], that this comparison could not be instituted in respect of a document not produced in Court; and Wilde, B., so held.’
There was not a reference to s 8 and importantly, there was neither the best nor any secondary evidence of the disputed writing before the court. In that circumstance it is hard to see how s 8 could apply. I do not regard the case as supportive of the passage in Phipson.
McCullough v Munn was an action for a libel contained in a letter written by the defendant to a third party. The original letter was lost but a photograph had been taken of it and its envelope and the envelope had been preserved. The defendant denied writing the letter. The case was opened before Palles CB and a jury. Counsel produced the photograph and the envelope which were both examined by the jury in comparison with other writings. It appeared that the original letter had been lost. Palles CB ruled that although the photograph was evidence of the contents of the letter it could not be used for comparison of handwriting with genuine letters of the defendant. The jury returned a verdict for the plaintiff. A Divisional Court of the King’s Bench by a majority directed a new trial. Wright J referred to s 8 and said ([1908] 2 IR 194 at 196):
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‘The Lord Chief Baron ruled—and I am clearly of the opinion that he was right—that, upon the loss of the original letter, the photograph was admissible to prove the contents of the letter, but that the photograph could not be used for purposes of comparison with the genuine documents. I have only to refer to section 30 of the Common Law Procedure Act, 1856, re-enacted in section 8 of the statute 28 and 29 Vict. c.18: ‘‘Comparison of a disputed writing with any writing proved to the satisfaction of the Judge to be genuine, shall be permitted to be made by witnesses; and such writings, and the evidence of witnesses respecting the same, may be submitted to the Court and jury as evidence of genuineness, or otherwise, of the writing in dispute.’' Now, I am of opinion that the genuine letter of the 10th July could not be compared with this photograph. I do not think a photograph is anything more than a copy. The photograph is not, for purposes of comparison, equivalent to an original.’
Boyd J dissented and said (at 197):
‘… assuming that the photograph was not admissible for the purpose of comparison, I am clear that no substantial wrong or miscarriage has been occasioned by what occurred at the trial, and I think that the verdict should stand.’
Madden J said (at 197): ‘The copy which was produced at the trial was not ‘‘the disputed writing”.’
I observe the majority conclusion is not reasoned but is stated as being self-evident.
The action was tried a second time by Gibson J and a jury. The plaintiff curiously and under a misapprehension as to the Divisional Court decision, did not put in the photograph but relied on the envelope, on a plain copy of the letter, on witnesses who had seen the letter before it was lost and who were acquainted with the defendant’s handwriting, on allegedly inimitable phrases in the letter and on references to private matters of which the defendant had an opportunity to know. The jury returned a verdict for the defendant. A Divisional Court of the King’s Bench by a majority refused to direct a third trial. The plaintiff appealed both that refusal and the first order directing a new trial.
The Court of Appeal dismissed the appeals. The appeal against the first order was dismissed because the plaintiff acquiesced in it and took his chance before a second jury. The appeal against the subsequent refusal was dismissed (FitzGibbon LJ dissenting) because the jury’s verdict was not perverse. These grounds are not relevant, but there are observations concerning photographs and comparisons under s 8. Sir Samuel Walker LC remarked of the second trial (at 202):
‘The plaintiff would have been justified in putting in the photograph as evidence of the contents of the libel, and apparently it was the only legal evidence by way of copy of its contents; and I think they might also, on the authority of the decision in Brookes v Tichborne ((1850) 5 Ex 929, 155 ER 405), have used it for the purpose of calling attention to peculiarities of spelling and use of capital letters and punctuation; but they deliberately elected for greater safety to exclude the photograph.’
However, he reserved his position beyond that because he said (at 203):
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‘… I desire to add that I express no opinion as to how far a photograph may be used in evidence, beyond what I have already stated to be clearly its legitimate use.’
FitzGibbon LJ opined that the plaintiff had been so disadvantaged by the failure to put in the photograph at the second trial that a third trial should be ordered albeit on terms as to costs. He said (at 205):
‘What is the law? The Common Law Procedure Act has nothing to do with the case. It merely provided that genuine writings might be put in evidence for comparison with ‘‘a disputed writing’’ … with which ‘‘genuine writings’’ could be compared under the statute, Brookes v Tichborne decided that other writings are admissible to prove a peculiar mode of spelling a word …’ (FitzGibbon LJ’s emphasis.)
Holmes LJ, having concluded that no appeal lay from the first order, said (at 211):
‘I express neither directly nor indirectly, personal approval of the first order, or of the grounds on which it was made.’
A simple analysis of McCullough v Munn shows that the direction of Palles CB and the judgments of Wright and Madden JJ do support the passage in Phipson. However, the persuasive authority of their unreasoned view is diminished by the expressed reservations of the Sir Samuel Walker LC and Holmes LJ. This court has now to determine what was left open by the Court of Appeal in Ireland 85 years ago.
Mr Cohen for the appellant based his submissions primarily upon the need for a purposive construction of s 8 but he also relied upon a construction in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978.
The argument upon the 1978 Act can shortly be dismissed. The combined effect of s 5 of and Sch 1 to, and s 22(1) of and para 4(1)(b) of Sch 2 to, that Act is that the word ‘writing’ in s 8—
‘includes typing, printing, lithography, photography and other modes of representing or reproducing words in a visible form.’
This provision does not assist on the problem. It is a provision which enlarges the category of ‘writings’ which can be disputed writings in regard to which comparison evidence can be admitted.
Mr Cowan for the respondent argued that an opinion formed after consideration of a photocopy was not admissible under s 8. He referred us to the deficiencies of a photocopy as a comparison source. Thus, a photocopy will not reveal pressure marks, overwritten words or pen lifts. I acknowledge the force of those points but they relate to the credibility of an opinion. They are not persuasive against admissibility. The legislators in 1854 knew of the daguerreotype and their successors in 1865 knew of photography. Neither could have foreseen the facsimile reproductions which now we both suffer and enjoy and which doubtless will be the subject of yet further improvement. The legislative language can accommodate an expression of opinion based upon a facsimile of a disputed writing and I think there is no reason why the court should hold such an opinion to be inadmissible. An ongoing statute ought to be read so as to accommodate technological change (see Bennion Statutory Interpretation (2nd edn, 1992) p 627). In the United States the Circuit Court of Appeals (8th Circuit) held as long ago as Hartzell v US (1934) 72 F 2d 569 that an opinion based
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upon a photograph was an admissible opinion. Circuit Judge Gardner said (at 583):
‘There is no doubt but that formerly courts held that comparing photographic copies of handwriting with original specimens was not to be permitted, as it was feared that certainty could not be assured because there was the hazard that there might be errors or differences in copying. As pointed out by Professor Wigmore, whether because of a development in the art, or a change in judicial approach to the question, or both, this is not now the law. He says: ‘‘A photographic copy of handwriting may be used instead of the original so far as the accuracy of the medium is concerned.’’ (Wigmore, p 797).’
This opinion corresponds with my own thought. I would allow the appeal. The opinion evidence is in my view admissible but the judge will have to decide upon its cogency.
I should add this. During argument counsel were asked whether they wished to refer to any material other than Phipson and the cases cited at 369. They said they did not but agreed that the court could conduct its own investigation into the matter. It will have appeared from the works and authorities cited in this judgment that I have conducted an investigation of my own.
NOLAN LJ. I would allow the appeal for the reasons given by Mann LJ.
RALPH GIBSON LJ. I agree that this appeal must be allowed for the reasons given by Mann LJ. The language of s 8 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1865, in my judgment, does not reveal any intention of Parliament to restrict ‘a disputed writing’ in this context to the original piece of paper with the disputed writing upon it. It was an enabling provision. The purpose of the provision was to permit the giving of opinion evidence as to handwriting based upon comparison. A photocopy of writing is not in fact writing in the sense that the lines reproduced were not written by hand; but that which is reproduced is writing as contrasted with print or typescript. The signature reproduced in the photocopy of the cheque is, in my judgment, ‘a disputed writing’ within the meaning of s 8. How much weight can be given to any expert evidence based upon the photocopy will be a matter for the judge.
Appeal allowed.
6 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Lowry and Lord Woolf) refused leave to appeal.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
Lonsdale & Thompson Ltd v Black Arrow Group plc and another
[1993] 3 All ER 648
Categories: INSURANCE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): JONATHAN SUMPTION QC SITTING AS A DEPUTY JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 18, 19 NOVEMBER, 3 DECEMBER 1992
Insurance – Fire insurance – Insurable interest – Landlord and tenant – Landlord covenanting to insure premises up to full reinstatement value against all specified risks including fire – Tenant covenanting to pay additional rent to cover premiums – Landlord covenanting in case of destruction or damage to premises to apply insurance money in reinstating premises – Contract for sale for property – Premises destroyed by fire between date of contract for sale and completion date – Sale completed without regard to fire damage – Landlord receiving full purchase price without abatement for fire damage – Insurers refusing to reinstate premises at tenant’s request – Whether landlord’s liability limited to injury to reversion – Whether insurers liable for cost of full reinstatement of premises.
The first defendants were the freehold owners of a warehouse which was leased to the plaintiff tenants for 25 years. The lease contained covenants by the landlord to insure the premises for not less than the full reinstatement value against specified risks, including fire, and by the tenant to pay an additional rent to cover the premium. The landlords insured the premises with the second defendant, the insurers. During the term of the lease the landlords contracted to sell the freehold, subject to the lease in favour of the tenants. However, between the signing of the contract and the date of completion the warehouse was destroyed by fire. Nevertheless, completion proceeded and the purchaser paid the contract price for the freehold in accordance with the terms of the contract without regard to the fire damage. The tenants served notice on the insurers requiring them to reinstate the premises, but the insurers refused on the ground that they did not have any liability to their assured, the landlords, as they had parted with their interest in the property and had received the purchase price in full without any abatement on account of the fire and therefore the insurers had no liability to the tenants. The tenants sought the court’s determination as to the insurers’ liability, if any, to the tenants.
Held – Where a lessor insured premises for the full reinstatement value against specified risks, including fire, the question whether the measure of the insurer’s liability was limited to the injury done to the lessor’s reversion depended on the terms of the policy, which was prima facie to be construed as a contract of indemnity. On the facts, since the premises had been insured for their full reinstatement value and not simply that proportion representing the landlord’s reversion and since it was expressly provided in the terms of the lease that on receipt of the insurance proceeds the landlord had an obligation to reinstate the premises for the tenant’s benefit, the subsequent receipt of the purchase price did not diminish the landlord’s loss and the insurers were therefore liable for the cost of the full reinstatement of the premises (see p648 j, p 653 c to h, p 655 f to j and p 656 b to g, post).
Waters v Monarch Fire and Life Assurance Co [1843–60] All ER Rep 654, London and North West Rly Co v Glyn (1859) 1 E & E 652 and Hepburn v A Tomlinson (Hauliers) Ltd [1966] 1 All ER 418 applied.
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NotesFor the application of insurance money received under insurance pursuant to a covenant to insure, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 349, and for cases on the subject, see 31(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 377, 7633–7636.
Cases referred to in judgment Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493, CA.
Collingridge v Royal Exchange Assurance Corp (1877) 3 QBD 173.
Hepburn v A Tomlinson (Hauliers) Ltd [1966] 1 All ER 418, [1966] AC 451, [1966] 2 WLR 453, HL.
London and North West Rly Co v Glyn (1859) 1 E & E 652, 120 ER 1054.
Maurice v Goldsborough Mort & Co Ltd [1939] 3 All ER 63, [1939] AC 452, HL.
Powles v Innes (1843) 11 M & W 10, 152 ER 695.
Prudential Staff Union v Hall [1947] KB 685.
Rayner v Preston (1881) 18 Ch D 1, CA.
Rowlands (Mark) Ltd v Berni Inns Ltd [1985] 3 All ER 473, [1986] QB 211, [1985] 3 WLR 964, CA.
Waters v Monarch Fire and Life Assurance Co (1856) 5 E & B 870, [1843–60] All ER Rep 654, 119 ER 705.
Cases also citedBritish Traders’ Insurance Co Ltd v Mouson (1964) 111 CLR 86, Aust HC.
Kern Corp Ltd v Walter Reid Trading Property Ltd (1987) 163 CLR 164, Aust HC.
Mumford Hotels Ltd v Wheler [1963] 3 All ER 250, [1964] Ch 117.
Ziel Nominees Pty Ltd v VACC Insurance Co (1975) 7 ALR 667, Aust HC.
SummonsBy a summons dated 3 October 1991 the plaintiff, Lonsdale & Thompson Ltd (the lessees), sought determination of certain questions of law or the construction of a lease of the premises known as 66 Long Lane, Aintree, Liverpool, Merseyside, dated 21 February 1980 made between the first defendant, Black Arrow Group plc (the landlord), and the plaintiff, and of the policy of insurance effected by the landlord with the second defendant, American International Underwriters (UK) Ltd (the insurer), dated 27 February 1986 in respect of the premises, which suffered damage as a result of a fire on 8 February 1990. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Hazel Williamson QC (instructed by Simmons & Simmons) for the plaintiffs.
Michael Hart QC and William George (instructed by Harrison Drury & Co, Preston) for the defendants.
JONATHAN SUMPTION QC. This is a summons under RSC Ord 14A to determine a question which is rather more difficult than at first sight appears. If a lessor insures, in his own name, the entire interest in the property the subject of the lease, what is the measure of the insurer’s obligation? Is it limited to the injury done to the value of the lessor’s reversion? Or may he recover the whole damage to the property, including that suffered by the tenant’s interest, accounting to him for the balance? The point is of some wider interest, because the problem is certainly not confined to the insurance of real property by lessors. It is quite common for people to insure in their own name the property or liabilities of others with whom they have some business or other connection.
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This gives rise to no difficulty if the assured can be treated as contracting on their behalf. But what if he cannot?
The facts of this case are relatively straightforward and, in the respects which matter, undisputed. Black Arrow plc, the first defendant, was the freehold owner of a warehouse in Liverpool. By a lease dated 21 February 1980, they let it to the plaintiffs for 25 years with effect from 4 December 1978. By cl 3(2) of the lease the landlord covenanted that he would cause the premises to be insured in a sum not less than the full reinstatement value against specified risks including fire. Clauses 1 and 2(2) provided that the tenant should pay by way of additional rent a sum corresponding to the premium.
Several clauses dealt with the reinstatement of the premises if they were damaged. Clause 2(4) was a general provision requiring the tenant to ‘repair, maintain, and keep and where necessary rebuild and replace the demised premises’. But the lease also provided, by cl 3(2), that it should be the duty of the landlord—
‘in case of destruction or damage to the demised premises by any insured risk … to ensure … that all moneys payable under or by virtue of any such policy of insurance as aforesaid (except for insurance moneys received in respect of loss of rent) shall with all convenient speed … be laid out and applied in rebuilding, repairing or otherwise reinstating the demised premises.’
By cl 2(14)(d), if the premises were damaged or destroyed by an insured peril and the insurance moneys were irrecoverable on account of an act or default of the tenant, then the tenant should be required to pay the landlord the full costs of rebuilding and reinstatement.
It necessarily follows from the scheme of the lease that although the tenant has the general obligation to reinstate, he cannot be required to do so if the damage requiring reinstatement has arisen from an insured peril and the landlord has recovered the reinstatement cost from the insurer. This is implicit in (i) cl 2(14)(d) of the lease, which makes little sense on any other basis, (ii) the fact that the landlord is required (not only entitled) to insure and to lay out loss payments in reinstatement, and (iii) the obligation of the tenant indirectly to pay the premium (see Mark Rowlands Ltd v Berni Inns Ltd [1985] 3 All ER 473, [1986] QB 211). The landlord insured with the second defendants, American International Underwriters (UK) Ltd. The insurance covered all risks of physical loss or damage to the premises, subject to irrelevant exclusions. Clause 13 of section A provided:
‘It is hereby agreed that in the event of the property insured being destroyed or damaged the basis upon which the amount payable under … the policy is to be calculated shall be the reinstatement of the property destroyed or damaged …’
There were provisions which envisaged that the premises were, or at least might be let. But it is common ground, and in any event plain, that the landlord and its associated and subsidiary companies were the only assureds. The tenant was not a co-assured.
On 21 December 1989 the landlord contracted to sell the freehold, subject to the lease in favour of the tenant. Completion occurred on 22 March 1990. Between these two dates, on 8 February 1990, the warehouse was destroyed by fire. However, completion proceeded and the price of the freehold was paid in accordance with the terms of the contract without regard to the fire damage.
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Under s 83 of the Fire Prevention Metropolis Act 1774 the lessee was entitled to require the insurers to discharge such liability as they might have to their assured under the policy by reinstating the premises. A notice has been duly served on the insurers under the 1774 Act, but the insurers have declined to comply with it, on the ground that they do not have any contractual liability to their assured and cannot therefore have any statutory liability to the lessee. They say that they are not obliged to do more than indemnify the assured in respect of injury to his freehold interest, because it is only in respect of that interest that he can have suffered any loss. The result of the contract of sale was that at the time of the fire the assured had parted with his entire beneficial interest in the property, retaining no other interest than his vendor’s lien for the price. When, upon completion, the assured received the price in full without any abatement on account of the fire, he was completely indemnified for his loss. As for the assured’s liability to lay out the insurance proceeds in reinstatement, that arises only if and when they are received. It follows, the insurers say, that nothing is payable by them. The question on this application is whether they are right. In my judgment they are not.
The foundation of the insurer’s case is the decision of the Court of Appeal in Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493. That case had some points in common with the present one. A vendor contracted to sell property, but the buildings on it were destroyed by fire between contract and completion. The vendor was insured and the insurers paid him the full amount of the damage before completion. The vendor then received, upon completion, the full purchase price. It had been held in previous litigation between the vendor and the purchaser that the vendor was not accountable to the purchaser for the insurance proceeds, there being no provision to that effect in the contract of sale: Rayner v Preston (1881) 18 Ch D 1. In these circumstances the insurers sued the vendor as their assured for a sum corresponding to what they had paid him on account of the loss. The ground of their claim was not that they had never been liable under the policy. It was that the subsequent recovery of an undiminished purchase price had made good the assured’s loss. The question at issue was whether the insurers were subrogated to the right of the assured to receive an undiminished price under the contract of sale. The Court of Appeal held that they were, overruling Chitty J who had held that the claims to which the insurers were subrogated were confined to those connected with the circumstances of the loss. The ground of the Court of Appeal’s decision was that because property insurance was prima facie a contract of indemnity, the insurer’s right of subrogation must be extensive enough to ensure that no more than an indemnity was recovered. The insurer was therefore subrogated to every right of the assured whose exercise would diminish his loss. That included the right to receive the proceeds of his contract of sale without abatement for fire damage.
Brett LJ delivering the leading judgment said ((1883) 11 QBD 380 at 390, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 496):
‘… there was a right in the defendants to have the contract of sale fulfilled by the purchasers notwithstanding the loss, and it was fulfilled. The assured have had the advantage therefore of that right, and by that right, not by a gift which the purchasers could have declined to make, the assured have recovered, notwithstanding the loss, from the purchasers, the very sum of money which they were to obtain whether this building was burnt or not. In that sense I cannot conceive that a right, by virtue of which the assured has his loss diminished, is not a right which, as has been said, affects the loss.
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This right … affects the loss by enabling the assured, the vendors, to get the same money which they would have got if the loss had not happened.’
Cotton LJ said (11 QBD 380 at 396, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 499):
‘Here the purchasers have paid the money in full, and as the property was valued between the vendors and the purchasers at £3,100, the vendors got that sum in respect of that which had been burned, but which had not been burned at the time when the contract was entered into. They had fixed that to be the value, and then any money which they get from the purchasers, and which together with £330, the sum paid by the office, exceeds the value of the property as fixed by them under the contract to sell, must diminish, and in fact entirely extinguishes the loss occasioned to the vendors of the property by the fire. Therefore, though it cannot, to my mind, be said that the insurers are entitled, because the purchase is completed, to get back the money which they have paid, yet they are entitled to take into account the money subsequently received under a contract for the sale of the property existing at the time of the loss, in order to see what the ultimate loss was against which they gave their contract of indemnity.’
Bowen LJ said (11 QBD 380 at 401–402, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 at 500):
‘What is really the interest of the vendors, the assured? … Their interest … is that at law they are the legal owners, but their beneficial interest is that of vendors with a lien for the unpaid purchase-money; they would get ultimately all the purchase-money provided the matter did not go off owing to defective title. Such persons in the first instance can obviously recover from the insurance company the entire amount of the purchase-money. That was decided in the case of Collingridge v. Royal Exchange Assurance Corp (1877) 3 QBD 173; but can they keep the whole, having lost only half? Surely it would be monstrous to say that they could keep the whole, having lost only half … They would be getting a windfall by the fire, their contract of insurance would not be a contract against loss, it would be a speculation for gain. Then what is the principle which must be applied? It is a corollary of the great law of indemnity, and is to the following effect:—That a person who wishes to recover for and is paid by the insurers as for a total loss, cannot take with both hands. If he has a means of diminishing the loss, the result of the use of those means belongs to the underwriters. If he does diminish the loss, he must account for the diminution to the underwriters.’
The problem about the submission which Mr Hart, on behalf of the insurers, seeks to base on this decision is that it elides two distinct questions. The first is whether the vendor’s recovery from the insurer is confined to the loss which he has suffered in respect of his own limited interest in the property at the time of the fire. This question is directed to determining what the vendor’s initial loss is and what, therefore, would be payable to the vendor if the claim were adjusted and settled immediately after the fire and before completion. The second question is the one with which Castellain v Preston was concerned, namely whether the subsequent receipt by the vendor of the full purchase price agreed before the fire goes to diminish that loss.
The starting point in considering the first question is that the landlord unquestionably had an insurable interest in the premises up to the full reinstatement cost. I am inclined to think that it would be enough to give him that interest that he was liable to lay out the insurance proceeds on reinstatement, even though that liability would arise only after he had received
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them. The whole law as to what amounts to an insurable interest and when it is required, is derived from the statutory avoidance of wagering contracts, and it is hard to see how an assured who was obliged to spend the proceeds on reinstatement could be said to wager on the occurrence of a fire. But this is a difficult issue which I do not need to decide. The landlord owed an obligation under the lease to insure for the full reinstatement value. He therefore had an insurable interest up to that value because if he did not insure and the premises were damaged, he would be liable to the tenant. The full reinstatement value of the premises, which ought on that footing to have been recoverable from the insurer, would be the measure of his liability (see Maurice v Goldsborough Mort & Co Ltd [1939] 3 All ER 63 at 68–69, [1939] AC 452 at 462).
The question whether the measure of the insurer’s liability is limited to the injury done to the landlord’s reversion therefore depends, not on any overriding principle of law but on the terms of the policy. Insurances on property are prima facie to be construed as contracts of indemnity. Subject to the express terms of the policy the measure of the indemnity is the diminution in the value of the thing insured as a result of the operation of the insured peril. The parties may agree that the damage suffered by the thing insured will be assessed on some agreed basis. There may, for example, be an agreed undamaged value. There may be a provision (such as the one found in this case) that the cost of reinstatement, which would otherwise be no more than evidence of the diminution in value of the property, shall be the measure of the insurer’s liability. But provisions such as these do not prevent the contract from being one of indemnity. They merely require the value of the indemnity to be calculated on conventional facts. It remains necessary to look at the particular position of the assured to see whether in the circumstances he would, by recovering the contractual measure, obtain more than an indemnity.
If the assured has only a limited interest in the property, being, for example, a tenant or reversioner, a trustee, a mortgagee or a bailee, the value of his own interest may have diminished by much less than the value of the property or the cost of its reinstatement. But it does not necessarily follow that if the assured recovers the whole diminution in the value of the property or the whole cost of reinstatement he will be getting more than an indemnity. That must depend on what his legal obligations are as to the use of the insurance proceeds when he has got them. If he is accountable for the proceeds to the owners of the other interests, then he will not be receiving more than an indemnity if the insurer pays the full amount for which the property was insured. This will be so, whether the assured is accountable to the owners of the other interests as a trustee of the proceeds of the insurance or simply on the basis that he owes them a contractual obligation to pay those proceeds over to them or to employ them in reinstatement. None of this means that a party with a limited interest who insures the entire interest in the property is insuring on behalf of the others as well as for himself. All that it means is that his obligations as to the use of the insurance moneys once they have been paid are relevant in determining whether he will recover more than an indemnity by getting the measure of loss provided for in that policy.
The clearest illustration of the operation of these principles is the case of a trustee. There has never been any doubt that a trustee may insure the whole beneficial interest in property of which he holds only the legal estate, and that he may recover from the insurers the entire diminution of its value notwithstanding that the beneficial owners were not co-assureds. The reason is not that a trustee is personally liable to beneficiaries for damage done by insurable risks
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irrespective of whether he has received the insurance proceeds, for he will usually not be. The reason must be that he is accountable to the beneficiaries for such insurance proceeds as he may receive. Being accountable to them on that basis, the payment to him of those proceeds cannot give him more than an indemnity even though they exceed the value of his personal interest.
That this is the correct analysis of the position is demonstrated by a series of decisions about insurances effected by bailees on property belonging to their bailors. The leading case is Waters v Monarch Fire and Life Assurance Co (1856) 5 E & B 870, [1843–60] All ER Rep 654.
In that case it was held that a bailee who insured the entire interest in goods in his custody could recover their entire value, notwithstanding that he has himself suffered no loss. Lord Campbell CJ said (5 E & B 870 at 881, [1843–60] All ER Rep 654 at 655–656):
‘The last point that arises is, to what extent does the policy protect those goods. The defendants say that it was only the plaintiffs’ personal interest. But the policies are in terms contracts to make good “all such damage and loss as may happen by fire to the property hereinbefore mentioned.” That is a valid contract; and, as the property is wholly destroyed, the value of the whole must be made good, not merely the particular interest of the plaintiffs. They will be entitled to apply so much to cover their own interest, and will be trustees for the owners as to the rest. The authorities are clear that an assurance made without orders may be ratified by the owners of the property, and then the assurers become trustees for them.’
Wightman J said (5 E & B 870 at 882, [1843–60] All ER Rep 654 at 656):
‘Can the plaintiffs recover their value? It seems to me that they may, unless there be something making it illegal to insure more than the plaintiffs’ own interest. Mr. Lush does not contend that any statute applies. It has been decided that, if no statute applies, a person insured may recover the amount contracted for: and, that being so, I think the plaintiffs entitled to recover the whole value.’
Crompton J delivered a concurring judgment.
The effect of this famous decision was summarised by Crompton J (who had sat in it) in London and North West Rly Co v Glyn (1859) 1 E & E 652 at 663, 120 ER 1054 at 1059 as follows:
‘Mr. Lloyd said that the questions were, Who are the assured? and What is their loss? I answer, first, the assured are the plaintiffs, both as trustees and as carriers; secondly, the loss is the loss of the property as trust property, that is to say as property in which the plaintiffs are beneficially interested to the extent of their lien, and as to the residue of which they are trustees for the true owners.’
These decisions were approved by the House of Lords in Hepburn v A Tomlinson (Hauliers) Ltd [1966] 1 All ER 418, [1966] AC 451. There is a succinct statement of the principle in the speech of Lord Reid ([1966] 1 All ER 418 at 421–422, [1966] AC 451 at 467–468):
‘A bailee can if he chooses merely insure to cover his own loss or personal liability to the owner of the goods either at common law or under contract, and if he does that he can recover no more under the policy than sufficient to make good his own personal loss or liability. Equally he can, if he chooses, insure up to his full insurable interest—up to the full value of the goods
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entrusted to him; and if he does that he can recover the value of the goods, though he has suffered no personal loss at all. In that case, however, the law will require him to account to the owner of the goods who has suffered the loss or, as LORD CAMPBELL said, he will be trustee for the owners. I need not consider whether this is a trust in the strict sense or precisely on what ground the owner can sue the bailee for the money which he has recovered from the insurer … The fact that a bailee has an insurable interest beyond his own personal loss if the goods are destroyed has never been regarded as in any way inconsistent with the overriding principle that insurance of goods is a contract of indemnity.’
It is true that a bailee has a rather special status in English law, having in many respects the rights of an owner as against third parties. But the decisions in Waters v Monarch Fire and Life Assurance Co, London and North West Rly Co v Glyn and Hepburn v A Tomlinson (Hauliers) Ltd do not turn on any principle peculiar to the law of bailment. Similar principles apply to insurances in quite different fields. I have already given trustees as one example. Another is the case of a trade union which insures the property of its members against burglary. It may recover the value of the stolen property, accounting for it to its members: Prudential Staff Union v Hall [1947] KB 685. A third is the case of the shipowner who sells his ship but undertakes to keep the insurance on foot and assigns the benefit of it to the purchaser. The law might have been that if a loss subsequently occurs, the insurer is not liable because his assured has not suffered any and the assignee can have no better right than he had. But there is good authority that the insurer must pay: Powles v Innes (1843) 11 M & W 10, 152 ER 695 per Parke B and Arnould’s Law of Marine Insurance and Average (16th edn, 1981) vol 1, p 173. It is implicit in Rayner v Preston (1881) 18 Ch D 1 that the same would be true if real property were sold on those terms, even apart from s 47 of the Law of Property Act 1925 (see, in particular, Brett LJ (at 12)).
The authors of these judgments regarded them as turning on two critical factors. The first was that in each case the subject matter of the insurance was the whole interest in the property insured and not simply the assured’s interest. That was treated as a question of construction: see, in particular, Lord Reid in Hepburn v A Tomlinson (Hauliers) Ltd [1966] 1 All ER 418 at 422–423, [1966] AC 451 at 469. It is usually enough that when construed on ordinary principles the policy covers the whole value of the subject matter and not only the value of some partial interest in it. The second factor was that so far as the assured was thereby enabled to recover in excess of the value of his own interest, it had to be shown that he would be accountable for that excess, either by virtue of his own distinct legal obligations to the holders of the other interests or by virtue of a trust which the courts were (at least in some cases) prepared to construct for the occasion.
Both of these are features of the present case. By virtue of section A, cl 13, the subject matter of the insurance is damage to the premises up to their full reinstatement value, and not simply that proportion of it which may relate to the assured’s reversion. Although the assured has no general obligation under the lease to reinstate the premises after a fire irrespective of receipt of the insurance proceeds, it is expressly provided that upon receipt of insurance proceeds he has an obligation to lay them out in reinstatement, for the benefit of the tenant.
Once that point is reached, it can be seen that the decision of the Court of Appeal in Castellain v Preston (1883) 11 QBD 380, [1881–5] All ER Rep 493 is irrelevant. In Castellain v Preston the only other person, apart from the assured, who had any interest in the property was the purchaser, and it had already been held that the assured was not accountable to him. It followed that the assured
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would be receiving more than an indemnity if he were allowed to keep the insurance proceeds without accounting to the insurer. In the present case the assured is certainly no more accountable to the purchaser than Mr Preston was, but there is a lessee and the assured is accountable to him. Moreover the assured continues to owe that obligation to the lessee for it cannot be affected either by the lessor’s contract to sell the freehold to a third party or by its conveyance to the purchaser in due course.
Suppose that on the day after the fire the insurer had been required to meet his obligations to the assured. Even if there had been no lease, it would have been no defence for the insurer at that stage to say that in due course the assured would be entitled to receive an undiminished purchase price on completion. Without express agreement to that effect, a person who has contracted to indemnify another can never refuse on the ground that an indemnity can be obtained from someone else: Collingridge v Royal Exchange Assurance Corp (1877) 3 QBD 173. If then the insurers duly paid the reinstatement cost to the assured before completion, as was done in Castellain v Preston, would they have been entitled by virtue of their subrogation rights to recover an equivalent amount out of the purchase price once it was paid six weeks later? Of course not. The reason is that the assured, having received the insurance moneys, would have become liable to the tenant to lay them out in reinstatement of the premises. The subsequent receipt of the purchase price would not, in these circumstances, in the least diminish the loss.
The summons asks me three questions:
‘1. Whether any sum is payable under or by virtue of the insurance policy in respect of such damage as the demised premises may have suffered as a result of the fire which occurred at the demised premises on 8th February 1990.
2. Whether, if the Answer to 1, above is yes, that sum is (a) the sum necessary fully to reinstate the demised premises in respect of such damage as may have been suffered and/or (b) some other sum and, if so, what sum.
3. If the answer to 1 or 2(a) is no, whether the First Defendant is in breach of its obligation contained in Clause 3(2) of the lease namely to insure the demised premises in the full reinstatement value thereof.’
The answers to questions (1) and (2)(a) are Yes in each case. It follows that questions (2)(b) and (3) do not arise.
Order accordingly.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Re G (a minor) (enforcement of access abroad)
[1993] 3 All ER 657
Categories: FAMILY; Children
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, BUTLER-SLOSS AND HOFFMANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 18 NOVEMBER, 9 DECEMBER 1992
Minor – Custody – Access – Foreign right of access – Enforcement of foreign right of access – Contracting state – Ontario court giving mother custody of child and father specific access – Mother and child returning to England with consent of Ontario court – Father applying to enforce access rights in Ontario under Ontario order – Mother refusing access – Judge granting father limited access in England pending future access in Ontario – Whether Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction applying where child habitually resident in contracting state other than state where access rights arose – Whether provisions of convention relating to access creating rights in private law – Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, arts 4, 21 – Children Act 1989, ss 1(1), 8.
The parties married in 1985 in England and settled in Canada. In 1990 the mother left the family home in Ontario and, without informing the father, took their child to England where she instituted divorce proceedings in England and obtained interim custody of the child. The father obtained an order under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (which was incorporated into English law by s 1(2) of the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985 and was set out in Sch 1 to that Act) and the child was returned by the mother to Ontario where the court made a consent order granting custody of the child to the mother either in Ontario or England with detailed access to the father in Ontario. The mother chose to return to England and the child became habitually resident in England. The father remained in Ontario and kept in weekly telephone contact with the child but only saw her infrequently. In April 1992 the father notified the mother of his intention to exercise his access rights in Canada but the mother refused. The father applied to the Lord Chancellor’s Department, as the designated central authority referred to in art 21a of the convention, for his rights of access to be protected and implemented in accordance with the Ontario consent order. The father was granted legal aid and an application was made on his behalf for an order that arrangements be made for organising and securing the effective exercise of his rights of access pursuant to the Ontario order. The judge held that the welfare of the child required that the implementation of the Ontario order be deferred to enable the relationship between the father and child to be re-established and that the father should have limited access in England in 1992 followed by access in Canada in 1993. The father appealed against the direction that access should take place in England rather than Ontario, contending that the convention applied notwithstanding that the child’s habitual residence, which was in Canada at the time of the making of the consent order, had changed with leave of the Canadian court to that of England prior to the breach of access rights, and that the judge in England was obliged to enforce the consent order of the Canadian court.
Held – (1) In art 4b of the convention ‘contracting state’ was not confined to the state under whose law the rights of access existed. The convention applied to a
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child who was habitually resident in a contracting state at the time when access rights arose but had become habitually resident in another contracting state at the time the parent refused to comply with those rights. Accordingly, art 21 of the convention applied to the father’s claim to enforce his access rights under Canadian law and he was therefore entitled to seek the assistance of the Lord Chancellor’s Department, as the designated central authority referred to in art 21, in putting his claim before the English court (see p 663 a e, p 666 c to p 669 c and p 669 a, post); B v B (minors: enforcement of access abroad) [1988] 1 All ER 652 overruled.
(2) However, art 21 of the convention merely imposed executive duties on the Lord Chancellor’s Department to initiate or assist in the institution of proceedings with a view to protecting rights of access under foreign access orders and did not create any rights in private law which a parent could directly enforce in respect of a child nor did it impose any duties on the judicial authorities of a contracting state in regard to such recognition. Accordingly, the father’s rights under art 21 were exhausted once the father, with the assistance of legal aid provided by the Lord Chancellor’s Department, reached court. Since art 21 provided no independent source of jurisdiction the father’s application was incorrect in apparently seeking compliance by the court with a duty imposed by art 21 on the central authority. The father should instead have applied under s 8c of the Children Act 1989 for a contact order to secure the effective exercise of his rights of access and since an application under s 8 was governed by the provisions of s 1(1)d of the 1989 Act, the welfare of the child was paramount and the court’s exercise of its discretion was not fettered by the convention (see p 664 b, p 667 f g and p 669 b, post).
(3) The judge had exercised his discretion properly since he had recognised the importance of the order of the Canadian court and upheld the spirit of the order but had deferred its implementation for a limited period in the interests of the welfare of the child. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 663 j to p 664 a, p 667 d e g and p 669 b, post).
Per curiam. Article 21 of the convention, in so far as it creates any rights at all, creates no rights in private law which a parent can directly enforce in respect of a child but merely a right in public law in respect of the central authority’s duty to comply with its obligations under art 21 to promote the peaceful enjoyment of access rights, to remove, so far as possible, all obstacles to the exercise of such rights and if it so considers, to initiate or assist in the institution of proceedings with a view to organising or protecting these rights. The remedy for any failure by the central authority to comply with its obligation is judicial review (see p 663 j to p 664 b c, p 667 e f and p 669 b, post).
Cases referred to in judgments B v B (minors: enforcement of access abroad) [1988] 1 All ER 652, [1988] 1 WLR 526.
C (a minor), Re (8 September 1992, unreported), Fam D.
C v C (minors) (child abduction) [1992] 1 FLR 163.
F (a minor) (child abduction), Re [1992] 1 FLR 548, CA.
McKee v McKee [1951] 1 All ER 942, [1951] AC 352, PC.
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Case referred to in skeleton argument G v G [1985] 2 All ER 225, [1985] 1 WLR 64, HL.
Notes For the return of children wrongfully removed, see Supplement to 8 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 525A.
For the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, arts 4, 21, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 310, 315.
For the Children Act 1989, ss 1, 8, see ibid 392, 400.
Appeal The father appealed with leave from the order of Cazalet J made on 30 July 1992 and perfected on 14 August 1992 whereby the judge ordered that the father’s right of access to the child of the family in Canada pursuant to a consent order made on 22 November 1991 by Judge Nevins in the Ontario Court (Provincial Division) was not to be implemented until the end of 1993 and that in the meantime the father was to be afforded access in England on a more limited scale than set out in the Ontario order. The facts are set out in the judgment of Butler-Sloss LJ.
James Turner (instructed by Mishcon de Reya) for the father.
Andrew McFarlane (instructed by Salmons, Newcastle-under-Lyme) for the mother.
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the appeal would be dismissed for reasons to be given later.
9 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Thomas Bingham MR). This appeal by the appellant father from the decision of Cazalet J on 30 July 1992 raises for consideration a little-used area of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33; Cmnd 8281) (the Hague Convention) on rights of access of the non-custodial parent.
The father is a Kenyan Asian and the mother is English. They met and married in England in 1985. They set up their first home in Nairobi. But in August 1989 they followed other members of the father’s family to Canada and went to live in Ontario. Their daughter, Tamara, was born in Ontario on 30 October 1989. In September 1990, after an incident involving violence between the parents, the mother left and went to a women’s refuge. She made allegations of violence against the father, who was arrested, and Tamara was handed over to her mother. The mother then took Tamara to England without informing the father. On arrival in England she instituted divorce proceedings and obtained an interim custody order and an injunction restraining the father from removing the child from England. The father instituted proceedings under the convention on the ground that the mother had wrongfully removed Tamara from the State of Ontario. The application came before Hollis J on 20 June 1991 who found that the mother had wrongfully removed Tamara and ordered her immediate return to Ontario. The mother returned with the little girl. On 22 November 1991 in the Ontario court, provincial division, sitting in Toronto, Judge Nevins made a consent order that gave the custody of Tamara to her mother. The mother was given the option to live either in Ontario or in England and there were detailed access arrangements for Tamara with her father in Ontario from 1992 onwards to include three weeks in July/August and two weeks in December/January. At the
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time of this order she was two years old. The mother has settled in England with Tamara and they are living with the maternal grandparents. The father has had weekly contact by telephone with Tamara and has sent her cards and presents, but since the parting in September 1990 he has seen her infrequently and not at all between December 1991 and the hearing before the judge on 30 July 1992.
In April 1992 the father wrote to the mother giving notice of his intention to exercise his rights of staying access with Tamara in Canada. The mother’s solicitors in their reply made it clear that she would not comply with the arrangements for the reasons set out in their letter. In July the father again initiated proceedings under the convention. The central authority on his behalf made the application, the subject of this appeal, that the father’s rights of access be protected and implemented in accordance with the consent order of 19 December 1991.
Cazalet J held that in considering the access provisions in the convention the court must have regard to the welfare of the child. He gave weight to the consent order made by Judge Nevins but decided that on the facts of this case the welfare of the child required the Canadian order to be deferred for the relationship between Tamara and her father to be re-established. He held that it was premature to send Tamara to Canada at this stage, even with her mother accompanying her. He directed that there should be access in England during the summer holidays and the Christmas holidays and that the child should go to Canada in the summer 1993 for two weeks instead of three.
The father remained in England and stayed with the maternal grandparents in order to exercise the access ordered by the judge. The access was monitored to some extent and the court has received a report from the court welfare officer who supervised on two occasions.
The father appeals to this court and asks that the access over Christmas should take place in Canada. Mr Turner for the father accepted that the court has a degree of discretion in the enforcing of the Ontario order, but argued that it was limited to significant and unforeseen changes of circumstance and without such changes the judge in England was obliged to enforce the order of the Canadian court which had been made only seven months or so before. The order he said was by consent and had been hammered out before the judge sitting in the primary jurisdiction (at that time). Not only was it a consent order but the access arrangements formed part of the agreement to allow the mother to bring Tamara to live in England, and without access in Canada the arrangement to allow the child to be brought up in England would not have been likely to have received the blessing of the Canadian judge nor the agreement of the father. It followed therefore, said Mr Turner, that both international comity and justice required the English judge to implement the Canadian order as it stood, since there were no unforeseen changes of circumstance.
Three issues arise. (1) Does the convention apply at all to the application of the father or should he apply for a contact order in accordance with the provisions of s 8 of the Children Act 1989? (2) If the convention does apply, what is the extent of the discretion of the English judge to consider the welfare of the child on such an access application? (3) Did the judge err in the exercise of his discretion?
Issue 1
The first issue as to whether the convention applies to the facts of this appeal was not argued to the judge and it appears that the proceedings continued on the assumption that the convention applied. The issue is, however, fundamental to the question of jurisdiction. Mr Turner has argued to this court that the
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convention does apply. It was incorporated into English law by Sch 1 to the Child Abduction and Child Custody Act 1985. Article 1 of the convention is not included in Sch 1 but sets the scene for the philosophy of the convention:
‘(a) to secure the prompt return of children wrongfully removed to or retained in any Contracting State, and (b) to ensure that rights of custody and of access under the law of one Contracting State are effectively respected in the other Contracting States.’
Article 3 is the article most used in the convention, forming as it does the basis for the jurisdiction of the courts of the contracting states to return to the contracting state of the child’s habitual residence a child who has been wrongfully removed or retained.
Article 21 is the relevant article under which this application is brought. It provides as follows:
‘An application to make arrangements for organising or securing the effective exercise of rights of access may be presented to the Central Authorities of the Contracting States in the same way as an application for the return of a child. The Central Authorities are bound by the obligations of co-operation which are set forth in Article 7 to promote the peaceful enjoyment of access rights and the fulfilment of any conditions to which the exercise of those rights may be subject. The Central Authorities shall take steps to remove, as far as possible, all obstacles to the exercise of such rights. The Central Authorities, either directly or through intermediaries, may initiate or assist in the institution of proceedings with a view to organising or protecting these rights and securing respect for the conditions to which the exercise of these rights may be subject.’
Article 7 states:
‘Central Authorities shall co-operate with each other and promote co-operation among the competent authorities in their respective States to secure the prompt return of children and to achieve the other objects of this Convention …’
Article 4 governs applications under the convention:
‘The Convention shall apply to any child who was habitually resident in a Contracting State immediately before any breach of custody or access rights.’
At the time that the father instituted the first convention proceedings to return Tamara to Ontario, she was habitually resident in Ontario immediately prior to being wrongfully removed by her mother. After the consent order of the Canadian judge she was permitted to live in England and left the jurisdiction of the Ontario court. Mr Turner accepted and there can be no doubt that she acquired an habitual residence in England during 1992 and well before the hearing in July 1992. Habitual residence of a child is not fixed but may change according to the circumstances of the parent or other principal carer with whom the child lives and who is lawfully exercising rights of custody. It may change within months or even weeks (see Re F (a minor) (child abduction) [1992] 1 FLR 548). When her mother came to England and was allowed to bring Tamara with her, Tamara’s habitual residence changed to that of her mother and consequently she became habitually resident in this jurisdiction before the potential breach of access rights was known. If Tamara was in the future to be wrongfully removed from England an application to the contracting state to which she was taken would be to return her to England as the state in which she was habitually resident
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before the wrongful removal. Canada would not be the country to which she would be returned. Equally on an application in respect of rights of access the relevant jurisdiction under art 4 is the English court and not the Canadian court. The effect of the order of Judge Nevins is to transfer the primary control by a court over the child from Ontario to England and to put the English court in the driving seat.
The question then arises whether the convention applies at all when the child is habitually resident in England and the father wishes to enforce an order made by the court of a contracting state other than England. We are grateful to Mr Turner and to the Lord Chancellor’s Department for the research carried out by them. It appears that the issue of access has only rarely arisen in the courts of other contracting states and the decisions so far made do not assist us, save that the law applied in several other contracting states appears to have been the internal law of that state. There is no previous decision of this court on this point. The only reported occasion upon which it has been considered in depth is in the judgment of Waterhouse J in B v B (minors: enforcement of access abroad) [1988] 1 All ER 652, [1988] 1 WLR 526. The Canadian father in that case had an access order from the Ontario court prior to the implementation of the convention in Ontario, but he argued that art 4 was in wide terms and that the habitual residence of his children in England being another contracting state was sufficient to make the convention operative if a breach of the access order could be shown after implementation in Canada. Waterhouse J said ([1988] 1 All ER 652 at 657, [1988] 1 WLR 526 at 532):
‘This is an attractive alternative line of argument but, in my view, it imputes too broad a scope to the 1985 Act. I am driven back to consideration of the object defined in art 1(b) of the convention … In the light of that object, the reference in art 4 to habitual residence in a contracting state immediately before any breach of access rights occurred must be interpreted as meaning habitual residence in a contracting state in which the access rights relied on then existed, because (1) it is those rights upon which the application is intended to be based and (2) the rationale of co-operation in enforcement of the rights is that habitual residence in the contracting state in which they existed was a sufficient foundation for that state’s jurisdiction without further argument or inquiry. The alternative wider interpretation relied on by the father is, in my view, unacceptable because it would give almost limitless operation to legislation enacted for specific limited purposes. It would also lead to arguments about the respective jurisdictions of the courts in Ontario and England in 1986 to make binding orders in respect of the children in order to determine what rights of access, if any, had been breached, whereas an object of the convention is to avoid or at least to minimise the scope for such arguments.’
I was disposed on reading the judgment of Waterhouse J to agree with this interpretation of art 4. The alternative approach opens up considerable difficulties. If the rights of access ordered by another contracting state are to be enforced in the state of habitual residence, one could see a situation where a Canadian order would still apply as the primary order although not only the mother and child but also the father were living in England. Mr Turner’s reply was that the aggrieved parent would then have a choice whether to enforce the Canadian order or to apply under the law of the country of both parties, in this case under the provisions of the Children Act 1989. In my view the convention focuses both upon the co-operation between central authorities and the enforcement of the return of a child wrongfully removed or retained outside the
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state of the child’s habitual residence. I do not consider that the convention visualised that orders from a state which was not the state of habitual residence would continue to govern the affairs and welfare of a child living permanently elsewhere. I am, however, persuaded by the judgment of Hoffmann LJ, which I have read in draft, that the construction of art 4 adopted by Waterhouse J in B v B (minors: enforcement of access abroad) [1988] 1 All ER 652, [1988] 1 WLR 526 is too narrow. I respectfully agree with and adopt the reasoning of Hoffmann LJ upon which I could not improve.
There have been a number of access decisions made in the High Court by consent. In C v C (minors) (child abduction) [1992] 1 FLR 163 Bracewell J held that the scope of the convention does not limit the territorial jurisdiction of the English court to make appropriate arrangements for access. In the recent decision of Re C (a minor) (8 September 1992, unreported) Eastham J held that art 21 applied but the court is left with a discretion to consider the welfare of the child. He held in his judgment:
‘In considering whether or not it is in the best interests of the child for the order to be implemented, the court must pay regard to the decision of the foreign court. It must pay regard to how recently the court has seen fit to make the order, and it must bear in mind that, having regard to the doctrine of comity of nations, unless it is clear that the enforcement of the order is contrary to the welfare of the child, which is the paramount consideration, that the court should respect the order of the court in the requesting jurisdiction.’
I agree therefore that art 21 applies to this appeal. It is not entirely easy with the paucity of information about the actual working of art 21 to be clear how it is to be effective. The approach of the convention to rights of access is undoubtedly more flexible than the approach to wrongful removal or retention (compare art 21 and art 12).
Dr John Eekelaar in para 2.6 of his Explanatory Documentation prepared for the Commonwealth Jurisdictions in February 1981 commented on art 21. He explained that art 21 allowed a party resident outside the contracting state to present to that state’s central authority an application for making arrangements for organising or securing the effective exercise of rights of access. Central authorities are not placed under mandatory duties with respect to such applications other than generally to promote co-operation on these questions, and he went on to say that in practice this can be achieved by passing the matter on to a local lawyer. The lawyer may either negotiate agreement between the parties or institute whatever proceedings may be necessary in the local court on behalf of the party living abroad. An article by Professor A E Anton ‘The Hague Convention on International Child Abduction’ (1981) 30 ICLQ 537 gives some support to the view of Dr Eekelaar. Professor Anton said that it was obviously uncertain what impact these provisions were likely to have but that art 21 could be seen as promoting a useful degree of co-operation between the contracting states in the resolution of international problems of custody and access which may not be connected with child abduction.
This approach of Dr Eekelaar, with which I entirely agree, draws the distinction between the duties of the central authority and the jurisdiction of the court. Article 21 applies at the administrative level to bring the application to the attention of the central authority of the contracting state. On receiving an application the central authority, the Lord Chancellor’s Department, complies with its obligation under art 21 by making appropriate arrangements for the
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applicant and, in this case, by providing for legal aid and instructing English lawyers to act on behalf of the applicant. This in effect exhausts the direct applicability of the convention. There is no provision in the 1985 Act, which made the convention part of English law, for enforcing any failure by the Lord Chancellor’s Department to carry out its obligations under the convention. The only remedy of a dissatisfied parent would be to apply for judicial review.
In a case where the child is habitually resident in the contracting state, being England, before the breach, the convention does not directly affect the jurisdiction of the English court. The appellant father’s lawyers applied to the High Court but were in error in requiring an order to enforce compliance with the convention. There are no teeth to be found in art 21 and its provisions have no part to play in the decision to be made by the judge. The lawyers should have applied on his behalf for a s 8 order under the Children Act 1989 which is the appropriate way to secure the effective exercise of rights of access.
Issue 2
Mr Turner argued that in a convention case the exercise of discretion was limited to significant and unforeseen changes of circumstance. The concept of a change in the circumstances of a child is to be found in Sch 2 to the 1985 Act which incorporates the European Convention on Recognition and Enforcement of Decisions Concerning Custody of Children and on the Restoration of Custody of Children (Luxembourg, 20 May 1980; Misc 6 (1981); Cmnd 8155) into English law. Article 11 enforces decisions as to rights of access in the same way as enforcing decisions relating to custody and in each case art 10 allows a court to refuse to recognise or enforce the order on the basis of change of circumstances. Those provisions are not contained within the Hague Convention and their omission appears to be deliberate. The report of Special Commission No 110 made by Mlle Elisa Pérez-Vera on the draft convention in 1980 considered the European Draft Convention (see para 18 of the report). The report explained that the European Convention would not serve as a basis for the work of the special commission and that, on the contrary, it remained devoted to the idea that other approaches to the question of the international removal of children were possible. The report pointed out that the draft convention did not deal with the factual problem of the recognition and enforcement of custody decisions. The basis of the Hague Convention was in essence different from the European Convention and equally so in respect of rights of access as rights of custody. There would therefore be no reason to import the suggested restriction into the exercise of a judge’s discretion in a right of access case.
Since, in any event, the application to the court is under s 8 of the 1989 Act, it is governed by the provisions of s (1) and the welfare of the child is paramount. I agree therefore with Waterhouse J in B v B (minors: enforcement of access abroad) [1988] 1 All ER 652, [1988] 1 WLR 526 that the exercise of the discretion of the court is not fettered by the convention. Cazalet J was entirely correct to follow his view in the judgment under appeal.
The existence of an order of the court where the child was then habitually residing is, however, of crucial importance and is a factor to be given the greatest possible weight consistent with the overriding consideration that the welfare of the child is paramount. I agree with Eastham J in Re C (a minor) (8 September 1992, unreported) in the passage to which I have already referred.
Issue 3
The exercise of the judge’s discretion in this case was, in my view, impeccable. He carefully took into account the order of the Ontario court. He recognised its
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importance and upheld the spirit of the order. All he has done is to defer its implementation for a limited period in the light of the evidence as to the likely effect upon the child of visits to Canada beginning too soon. He considered the probability that a premature start to the Canadian holidays might be a failure and with the child’s welfare as the paramount consideration deferred the Canadian part of the access for a limited period. The father would be well advised to reflect upon the consequences of a premature visit to Canada ending in failure. Such failure could have a long-term adverse effect upon the entire future relationship of the father and child to the detriment of both of them.
I would dismiss the appeal.
HOFFMANN LJ. The facts in this appeal have been stated by Butler-Sloss LJ and I gratefully adopt what she has said. I confine my observations to the effect of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33; Cmnd 8281) (the Hague Convention). The convention declares in art 1 that it has two objects. The first is to secure the prompt return of children wrongfully removed to or retained in any contracting state. The second is ‘(b) to ensure that rights of custody and of access under the law of one Contracting State are effectively respected in other Contracting States.' The provisions dealing with rights of access are contained in chapter IV, which consists of a single article:
‘Article 21. An application to make arrangements for organising or securing the effective exercise of rights of access may be presented to the Central Authorities of the Contracting States in the same way as an application for the return of a child. The Central Authorities are bound by the obligations of co-operation which are set forth in Article 7 to promote the peaceful enjoyment of access rights and the fulfilment of any conditions to which the exercise of those rights may be subject. The Central Authorities shall take steps to remove, as far as possible, all obstacles to the exercise of such rights. The Central Authorities, either directly or through intermediaries, may initiate or assist in the institution of proceedings with a view to organising or protecting these rights and securing respect for the conditions to which the exercise of these rights may be subject.’
The plaintiff’s originating summons echoes the language of the opening paragraph of this article by asking for an order that—
‘Arrangements be made for organising and securing the effective exercise of the Plaintiff’s rights of access pursuant to the Order of the Ontario Court (Provincial Division) dated 19th December 1991.’
The first question of general importance is whether the convention has any application to a child such as Tamara, who was habitually resident in Canada at the time when the access order was made but had (with the leave of the Canadian court) become habitually resident in England by the time the mother refused to comply with it. At first I thought that art 4 provided a negative answer to this question. It says that the convention—
‘shall apply to any child who was habitually resident in a Contracting State immediately before any breach of custody or access rights.’
It seemed to me that in this article the ‘Contracting State’ must mean the state under whose law the rights of access existed. This was the view of Waterhouse J
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in B v B (minors: enforcement of access abroad) [1988] 1 All ER 652 at 657, [1988] 1 WLR 526 at 532. He said:
‘I am driven back to consideration of the object defined in art 1(b) of the convention … In the light of that object, the reference in art 4 to habitual residence in a contracting state immediately before any breach of access rights occurred must be interpreted as meaning habitual residence in a contracting state in which the access rights relied on then existed, because (1) it is those rights on which the application is intended to be based; and (2) the rationale of co-operation in enforcement of the rights is that habitual residence in the contracting state in which they existed was a sufficient foundation for that state’s jurisdiction without further argument or inquiry.’
If this is right, then the convention can have no application in this case. The right of access existed under the law of Canada, but the contracting state in which Tamara was habitually resident immediately before the breach of that right was England. On reflection, however, I have come to the conclusion that this construction of art 4 is too narrow. First, it involves reading words into the convention. Tamara was habitually resident in a contracting state, namely England. The article does not say that it must be the state under which the right of access arose.
Secondly, while it is true that the provisions for the return of children are intended to protect rights of custody under the law of the contracting state in which the child is habitually resident, this is expressly spelled out in art 3. It does not require in addition a narrow interpretation of art 4.
Thirdly, rights of access normally have to be enforced in the country in which the child is habitually resident. It is unusual for a breach of access rights to occur when the child is away from home. It follows that, if art 21 did not apply to the enforcement of a foreign access right in the country of the child’s habitual residence, it would seldom achieve its object of ensuring that ‘rights of … access under the law of one Contracting State are effectively respected in the other Contracting States’. ‘Access rights’ are defined in art 5 to include ‘the right to take a child for a limited period of time to a place other than the child’s habitual residence’. If there is a breach of such an access right, it will almost invariably be incapable of enforcement except in the contracting state in which the child is habitually resident. On the narrow construction of art 4, however, art 21 can apply only to rights existing under the lex fori. This is an odd result in an international convention. It may be of some assistance to foreign resident parents but has nothing to do with access rights under the law of one state being respected in another.
Fourthly, a restrictive interpretation of art 4 is not needed to prevent the convention from applying to cases which are purely domestic. The Child Abduction and Child Custody Act 1985 was passed to give effect to our obligations in international law assumed under the convention. I see no difficulty in construing art 21 as confined to cases which give effect to the relevant purpose of the convention, namely to ensure that foreign access rights are respected.
Fifthly, it is not true in the case of access rights that, as Waterhouse J put it:
‘… the rationale of co-operation in enforcement of the rights is that habitual residence in the contracting state in which they existed was a sufficient foundation for that state’s jurisdiction without further argument or inquiry.’ (See [1981] 1 All ER 652 at 657, [1988] 1 WLR 526 at 532.)
It is certainly part of the rationale of the child abduction provisions of the convention that the foreign custody right should be enforced to the extent of
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returning the child to the jurisdiction from which it has been abducted without regard to the merits. But this is not true of access rights. As Professor Anton, chairman of the conference which drafted the convention, wrote afterwards ((1981) 30 ICLQ 537 at 554–555):
‘The Convention contains no mandatory provisions for the support of access rights comparable with those of its provisions which protect breaches of rights of custody. This applies even in the extreme case where a child is taken to another country by the parent with custody rights and is so taken deliberately with a view to render the further enjoyment of access rights impossible. It was felt not only that mandatory rules in the fluid field of access rights would be difficult to devise but, perhaps more importantly, that the effective exercise of access rights depends in the long run more upon the goodwill, or at least the restraint, of the parties than the existence of formal rules. Article 21, therefore, establishes open-textured rules for assisting parties to secure the effective exercise of access rights by seeking the intervention of central authorities.’
For these reasons I consider that art 21 did apply to the plaintiff’s claim to enforce his access rights under Canadian law. But the next question is what effect this should have had upon the question which the judge had to decide. The convention imposes certain obligations upon the central authority which under art 6 each contracting state has to designate. The duties imposed upon the central authority are of an executive rather than judicial nature and in England the designated central authority is the Lord Chancellor’s Department. Other obligations are imposed upon the ‘judicial authorities’ of the contracting state. When the convention was enacted as part of English law by the 1985 Act, the obligations imposed upon the English judicial authorities created rights in private law, directly enforceable by parents in English courts. But the same is not true of the obligations imposed upon the central authorities. So far as these were enforceable by individuals at all, these created rights in public law for which the appropriate remedy would be judicial review.
So, for example, art 12 provides that, if a child has been wrongfully removed or retained and proceedings are commenced less than a year later before the judicial authority, that authority ‘shall order the return of the child forthwith’. The article confers a right in private law which is directly enforceable in an English court. But art 21 imposes no duties whatever upon the judicial authorities. It says that the central authority is bound ‘to promote the peaceful enjoyment of access rights’. It ‘shall take steps to remove, so far as possible, all obstacles to the exercise of such rights’. It may ‘initiate or assist in the institution of proceedings with a view to organising or protecting these rights …' These provisions create no rights in private law which a parent can directly enforce in respect of a child. They may even be too vague or permissive to create any rights at all. But so far as they do, the rights exist in public law and the remedy for the central authority’s failure to comply with its obligations is judicial review.
The Hague Convention is in this respect very different from the European Convention on Recognition and Enforcement of Decisions Concerning Custody of Children and on the Restoration of Custody of Children (Luxembourg, 20 May 1980; Misc 6 (1981); Cmnd 8155), which was also given effect by the 1985 Act. The latter, as its name indicates, provides for the reciprocal enforcement of custody orders, which are defined to include orders giving rights of access. Article 7 of the European Convention says:
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‘A decision relating to custody given in a Contracting State shall be recognised and, where it is enforceable in the State of origin, made enforceable in every other Contracting State.’
Rights of access under orders made in another contracting state are thus directly enforceable as a matter of private law. But the Hague Convention did not follow this model. Instead, it left untouched the law of recognition of foreign access orders in the several contracting states and merely provided for executive co-operation in the enforcement of such recognition as the national law allowed.
In this case there is no complaint that the central authority has failed to comply with art 21. It has provided the plaintiff with legal aid to pursue his claim to enforce his Canadian access rights. In my judgment, therefore, the provisions of art 21 were exhausted once the plaintiff got to court. They had no part to play in the decision which had to be made by the judge. The convention provided no independent source of jurisdiction and the originating summons was wrong in apparently seeking compliance by the court with a duty imposed by art 21 upon the central authority. Instead, the application should have been framed as an ordinary application for a contact order under the Children Act 1989. In such an application, the Canadian access order is entitled, as Lord Simonds said in McKee v McKee [1951] 1 All ER 942 at 948, [1951] AC 352 at 365, to ‘grave consideration’, but the paramount consideration is the welfare of the child.
This was the basis on which Cazalet J dealt with the Canadian order and in my judgment no criticism can be made of the way in which he exercised his discretion. I therefore agree that the appeal should be dismissed.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. I also agree that this appeal should be dismissed.
If these were ordinary English access proceedings, the order made by Cazalet J would be unappealable. He held that the prospect of establishing an enduring relationship between father and daughter would be enhanced if their rapprochement were more gradual and progressive than originally agreed and ordered. That is a view which is certainly defensible, and in my view right.
But the father, relying on art 21 of the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33; Cmnd 8281) (the Hague Convention), says these are not ordinary English access proceedings. This raises an important point, since art 21 enjoins international co-operation in enforcing rights of access, and in applying an international convention municipal courts must strive to give effect to the international consensus on which the convention is based.
The starting point is to inquire whether this child is one to whom this convention applies. Article 4 provides:
‘The Convention shall apply to any child who was habitually resident in a Contracting State immediately before any breach of custody or access rights …’
So attention is focused on a moment of time, immediately before the breach of (in this case) access rights. That occurred here when the mother indicated her intention to depart from the strict terms of the Canadian order. By that time the child was habitually resident with her mother in England.
Do those facts bring the child within the convention? Article 4 provides no wholly unambiguous answer, since both Canada and the United Kingdom are contracting states and the child was habitually resident in a contracting state immediately before the breach. The question is whether art 4 is to be read as if it said:
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‘The Convention shall apply to any child who was habitually resident in a Contracting State immediately before any breach of custody or access rights [under the law of that Contracting State] …’
This construction is open to the objection that words should not be interpolated in an agreed text unless it is quite clear they reflect the draftsman’s intention.
I was at first inclined to think, despite this objection, that that represented the correct construction of the article, as Waterhouse J in effect thought it to be in B v B (minors: enforcement of access abroad) [1988] 1 All ER 652, [1988] 1 WLR 526. I am, however, persuaded on reading the judgment of Hoffmann LJ that a wider construction is more consistent both with the terms of the convention and with its overall intention.
It seems plain that art 21 is not intended, like the European Convention, to provide for the mutual recognition and enforcement of access orders, and further that it imposes no direct obligation on judicial authorities. But equally plainly it is intended to have some effect, and I agree that its effect is as described by Butler-Sloss and Hoffmann LJJ.
The judge did not treat the Canadian order as binding, but he did not treat it as by any means irrelevant. He recognised it as an important part of the history that the child was in England pursuant to that order agreed by the father and that the terms of access to the father were agreed by the mother. To ignore that agreement would, without doubt, exacerbate relations between the parents to the detriment of the child. Wisely, the judge did not ignore the agreement. He sought to give effect to it while allowing some postponement of its operation. In that way, as I think, he honoured the spirit of the convention.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
27 July 1993. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Templeman, Lord Lowry and Lord Browne-Wilkinson) refused leave to appeal.
Frances Rustin Barrister.
Khorasandjian v Bush
[1993] 3 All ER 669
Categories: TORTS; Other Torts
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, ROSE LJJ AND PETER GIBSON J
Hearing Date(s): 26, 27 JANUARY, 16 FEBRUARY 1993
Tort – Harassment – Injunction – Jurisdiction – Defendant harassing plaintiff by unwanted telephone calls – Interference with ordinary use and enjoyment of premises – Order restraining defendant from using violence to, harassing, pestering or communicating with plaintiff in any way – Whether court having jurisdiction in private nuisance to restrain harassment by unwanted telephone calls – Whether jurisdiction can be exercised if no relationship between parties and recipient having no proprietary interest in premises where calls received – Whether injunction should be expressed in words which person restrained could readily understand.
The plaintiff, who was aged 18, met the defendant, who was aged 23, in 1990. They became friends but never cohabited and never married. In 1991 the plaintiff
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told the defendant that she wanted nothing more to do with him but the defendant was unable to accept that and started harassing the plaintiff. He assaulted her, threatened violence towards her, behaved aggressively when he saw her, followed her around shouting abuse, and pestered her with telephone calls to her at her parents’ and grandmother’s homes to such an extent that the telephone numbers had to be changed. In March 1992 he was arrested for threats and abusive behaviour towards the plaintiff and was given a conditional discharge. In May he was sentenced to a short term of imprisonment for threatening to kill the plaintiff. The plaintiff applied for an interlocutory injunction against the defendant complaining that his aggressive behaviour, pestering and harassment had continued, with persecution by telephone calls directed not only against the plaintiff but also her mother, her current boyfriend and his mother and that the defendant had maliciously damaged her car. On 10 July the county court judge granted the plaintiff an interlocutory injunction restraining the defendant from using violence to, harassing, pestering or communicating with the plaintiff in any way. The defendant appealed, contending that the judge had no jurisdiction to restrain the defendant from ‘harassing, pestering or communicating with’ the plaintiff because those words did not reflect any tort known to the law and an interlocutory injunction could only be granted to protect a legal right of the plaintiff.
Held (Peter Gibson J dissenting) – The court had jurisdiction in private nuisance to grant an injunction restraining persistent harassment by unwanted telephone calls. The jurisdiction could be exercised notwithstanding that the parties were not married and had never cohabited or that the recipient of the calls had no proprietary interest, either freehold or leasehold, in the premises where the calls were received. Moreover, the inconvenience and annoyance to the recipient caused by such calls constituted an actionable interference with the ordinary and reasonable use and enjoyment of property and could be restrained quia timet without further proof or damage. Since there was an obvious risk that the cumulative effect of continued and unrestrained further harassment would cause the plaintiff to suffer from physical or psychiatric illness the court was entitled to look at the defendant’s conduct as a whole and restrain, on a quia timet basis also, those aspects of his campaign of harassment which could not strictly be classified as threats. It followed that the judge was justified in granting the injunction. Furthermore, since it was desirable that an injunction should be expressed in words which the person restrained could readily understand the judge had been entitled to omit the word ‘molesting’ and to express the injunction in words which the defendant would readily understand and since the choice of words was a matter for the judge’s discretion, the court would not vary or qualify them. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 675 b c h to p 676 c, p 677 b to d, p 679 a b d to h and p 680 b, post).
Janvier v Sweeney [1918–19] All ER Rep 1056 applied.
Burnett v George [1992] 1 FLR 525 considered.
NotesFor the principles governing the grant of interlocutory injunctions, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 953–956, and for cases on the subject, see 28(4) Digest (2nd reissue) 156–160, 4993–5025.
For private nuisance, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 307.
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Cases referred to in judgmentsAmerican Cyanamid Co v Ethicon Ltd [1975] 1 All ER 504, [1975] AC 396, [1975] 2 WLR 316, HL.
Burnett v George (1986) [1992] 1 FLR 525, CA.
Dyson Holdings Ltd v Fox [1975] 3 All ER 1030, [1976] QB 503, [1975] 3 WLR 744, CA.
Foster v Warblington UDC [1906] 1 KB 648, CA.
Fresh Fruit Wales Ltd v Halbert [1991] CA Transcript 18.
Horner v Horner [1982] 2 All ER 495, [1982] Fam 90, [1982] 2 WLR 914, CA.
Janvier v Sweeney [1919] 2 KB 316, [1918–19] All ER Rep 1056, CA.
Johnson v Walton [1990] 1 FLR 350, CA.
Kaye v Robertson [1991] FSR 62, CA.
Lyons (J) & Sons Ltd v Wilkins [1896] 1 Ch 811, CA; subsequent proceedings [1899] 1 Ch 255, CA.
McLoughin v O’Brian [1982] 2 All ER 298, [1983] 1 AC 410, [1982] 2 WLR 982, HL.
Malone v Laskey [1907] 2 KB 141, CA.
Metropolitan Properties Ltd v Jones [1939] 2 All ER 202.
Motherwell v Motherwell (1976) 73 DLR (3d) 62, Alberta SC.
Newcastle-under-Lyme Corp v Wolstanton Ltd [1946] 2 All ER 447, [1947] Ch 92.
News Group Newspapers Ltd v Society of Graphical and Allied Trades 1982 (No 2) [1987] ICR 181.
Nunn v Parkes & Co (1924) 59 L Jo 806, DC.
Patel v Patel [1988] 2 FLR 179, CA.
Pidduck v Molloy [1992] CA Transcript 155.
Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129, [1964] 2 WLR 269, HL.
Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803, [1979] AC 210, [1977] 3 WLR 818, HL.
Thomas v National Union of Mineworkers (South Wales Area) [1985] 2 All ER 1, [1986] Ch 20, [1985] 2 WLR 1081.
Wilkinson v Downton [1897] 2 QB 57, [1895–9] All ER Rep 267.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Alcock v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire Police [1991] 4 All ER 907, [1992] AC 310, HL.
Attia v British Gas plc [1987] 3 All ER 455, [1988] QB 304, CA.
Bedfordshire CC v Central Electricity Generating Board [1985] JPL 43, CA.
Beddow v Beddow (1878) 9 Ch D 89.
Bernstein of Leigh (Lord) v Skyviews & General Ltd [1977] 2 All ER 902, [1978] QB 479.
British Movietonews Ltd v London and District Cinemas Ltd [1951] 2 All ER 617, [1952] AC 166, HL.
Davis v Johnson [1978] 1 All ER 1132, [1979] AC 264, HL.
Elan Digital Systems Ltd v Elan Computers Ltd [1984] FSR 373, CA.
Fender v Mildmay [1937] 3 All ER 402, [1938] AC 1, HL.
Hubbard v Pitt [1975] 3 All ER 1, [1976] QB 142, CA.
Mead’s Case (1823) 1 Lew CC 184, 168 ER 1006, NP.
Redland Bricks Ltd v Morris [1969] 2 All ER 576, [1970] AC 652, HL.
Richards v Richards [1983] 2 All ER 807, [1984] AC 174, HL.
Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callaghan [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880, HL.
Stephens v Myers (1830) 4 C & P 349, 172 ER 735, NP.
Stoakes v Brydges [1957] Qd R 9, Qld SC.
Thompson-Schwab v Costaki [1956] 1 All ER 652, [1956] 1 WLR 335, CA.
Transcontainer Express Ltd v Custodian Security Ltd [1988] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 128, CA.
Page 672 of [1993] 3 All ER 669
Tubervelle v Savage (1669) 1 Mod Rep 3, 86 ER 684.
Vaughn v Halifax Dartmouth Bridge Commission (1961) 29 DLR (2d) 523, NS SC.
Vint v Hudspith (1885) 29 Ch D 322, CA.
Ward Lock & Co Ltd v Operative Printers Assistance Society (1906) 22 TLR 327, CA.
AppealThe defendant, Garry Alan Bush, appealed against the order of Judge Eric Stockdale made on 10 July 1992 in the Barnet County Court granting the plaintiff, Claire Elliott Khorasandjian, an interlocutory injunction forbidding the defendant from using violence, harassing, pestering or communicating with the plaintiff until trial or further order. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Caroline Harry Thomas (instructed by Cordell Tibber & Co) for the defendant.
Philip Turl (instructed by G Dubow) for the plaintiff.
Cur adv vult
16 February 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ. The court has before it an appeal by the defendant in this action against an interlocutory order made by Judge Eric Stockdale in the Barnet County Court on 10 July 1992. By the relevant part of that order it was ordered that the defendant be forbidden from using violence to, harassing, pestering or communicating with the plaintiff in any way until the trial of this action or further order.
The matter came before Judge Stockdale on 10 July on an application by the plaintiff to commit the defendant to prison for breach of an injunction granted by an earlier order made in the county court on 19 May 1992. By that order of 19 May the defendant had been restrained, until the trial of the action or further order, from (1) molesting, harassing or otherwise interfering with the plaintiff and (2) from entering or coming within 200 yards of 69 Halliwick Road, London N10 (the home of the plaintiff’s parents) or any other address at which the plaintiff may reside.
On 10 July Judge Stockdale refused the application for the defendant’s committal (and his reasons for refusing it are immaterial to this appeal). He also granted the new injunction which I have indicated in his order of 10 July in place of the injunctions in the order of 19 May. His reasons for changing the injunctions seem—conjecturally—to have been firstly that to grant an injunction in the terms of para (2) of the order of 19 May was contrary to the decision of this court in Patel v Patel [1988] 2 FLR 179, to which I shall have to refer, and, secondly, that the wording of his order ‘using violence to, harassing, pestering or communicating with’ the plaintiff would be simpler, and more readily intelligible to the defendant, than the wording in the order of 19 May ‘molesting harassing or otherwise interfering with’ the plaintiff. The choice of words is an aspect of the case which we have to consider.
The substantive point of the appeal is, however, that it is said for the defendant that Judge Stockdale had no jurisdiction to restrain the defendant from ‘harassing pestering or communicating with’ the plaintiff because those words did not reflect any tort known to the law and an interlocutory injunction could only be granted to protect a legal right of the plaintiff. On this point we have been referred to a substantial number of recent decisions, several of them as yet unreported, in a developing field of law. Many of the decisions are not easy to reconcile with each other. It is accepted, however, by Miss Harry Thomas for the
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defendant that an injunction to restrain the defendant from assaulting or attempting to assault the plaintiff—or, if preferred, from using violence to her—would be justifiable in law because trespass to the person is a recognised tort.
There is also before the court an appeal by the defendant against an order of Mr Assistant Recorder Ansell made in the Barnet County Court on 29 October 1992 whereby he refused an application by the defendant to vary or discharge the order of Judge Stockdale for excess of jurisdiction. The assistant recorder took the view, with which I have every sympathy considering the importance and difficulty of the issues involved, that the application was better directed to this court and it was not for him to interfere with Judge Stockdale’s order. We have not heard argument on the appeal from the assistant recorder because that appeal is academic whichever way we decide the appeal against Judge Stockdale’s order, and because also of difficulties of listing which have limited the time available for argument.
The defendant was born on 13 August 1969 and thus is now a young man of 23. The plaintiff was born on 28 March 1974 and is thus now a girl of 18. They are not, and have never been, married to each other and they have never cohabited with each other. Thus there is no jurisdiction in this case to grant an injunction against ‘molestation’ under s 1 of the Domestic Violence and Matrimonial Proceedings Act 1976, nor has the plaintiff sought to invoke that Act.
The power of the county courts to grant injunctions, whether interlocutory or final, in cases where the county court has jurisdiction, is the same as the power of the High Court. The statutory authority is now s 37(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which provides that the High Court may by order (whether interlocutory or final) grant an injunction ‘in all cases in which it appears to the court to be just and convenient to do so’. It is well understood, however, despite the apparent width of those words, that, as Lord Diplock put it in relation to the predecessor of s 37(1) in Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803 at 823, [1979] AC 210 at 245:
‘That subsection, speaking as it does of interlocutory orders, presupposes the existence of an action, actual or potential, claiming substantive relief which the High Court has jurisdiction to grant and to which the interlocutory orders referred to are but ancillary.’
Therefore it is necessary to consider what claims for substantive relief, or causes of action, the plaintiff has against the defendant. I say ‘has’ against the defendant rather than ‘is asserting against the defendant by her pleadings’ because it is conceded on behalf of the defendant that at this stage in this particular case the plaintiff should not be limited to her actual particulars of claim, which are in informal language and were issued in a hurry when the first application to the county court for an injunction was made. The pleadings can be amended, or if technically necessary a further action can be started and the two can be consolidated. It is therefore appropriate to consider the whole of the plaintiff’s evidence, to determine what causes of action she appears to have on that evidence, and to consider what interlocutory injunctions the court has power to grant on that evidence. It is fair to the defendant to say that he has sworn affidavits disputing the plaintiff’s account of events, but the immediate question is what causes of action the plaintiff has if she is right as to what has happened.
It is, of course, not in dispute that an interlocutory injunction can, in an appropriate case, be granted quia timet before an actual tort has been committed against a plaintiff. It is also clear that the form of an interlocutory injunction does not have to follow slavishly the form of the substantive relief which would be
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likely to be granted at the trial if the plaintiff succeeds. In Fresh Fruit Wales Ltd v Halbert [1991] CA Transcript 18 Parker LJ said:
‘… if the situation which arises at the date when the interlocutory order is sought is such that the interest of the parties can in justice best be guarded by some order which would not be appropriate at the end of the trial, there is no reason whatever why the judge should not do so.’
Instances which spring to mind are orders for the preservation of some property in safe custody until trial, and orders to preserve the status quo until trial, when on American Cyanamid principles (see American Cyanamid Co v Ethicon Ltd [1975] 1 All ER 504, [1975] AC 396) it is not possible to resolve the substantive dispute between the parties on an interlocutory application.
In the present case the plaintiff and the defendant first met in the spring of 1990 at a snooker club in North Finchley which they and other young people of their acquaintance frequented. They became friends. From April or May 1991 to August 1991 they did not see each other, as the plaintiff had gone to live in Streatham with a friend with whom she worked. In August 1991 the plaintiff returned to her parents’ home and started seeing the defendant again. At about the same time the defendant underwent psychotherapy following suicide attempts. For a short period the plaintiff and the defendant worked together on a surveying project which proved abortive. But the friendship then broke down. As the defendant put it in one of his affidavits, ‘The [plaintiff] and I were friends but she told me that she wanted no more to do with me.' That she wanted no more to do with him is something which the defendant has, plainly, been unable to accept.
Among the earlier complaints of the plaintiff were complaints that the defendant assaulted her over Christmas 1991 and in the early months of 1992. There were also threats of violence, he behaved aggressively when he saw her, and followed her around shouting abuse. Also he pestered her with telephone calls to her parents’ home and at her grandmother’s, to such an extent that the telephone number had to be changed. Also in January 1992 he stole her handbag from the snooker club and told her that he would keep it as a momento of her. As a result of threats and abusive behaviour to the plaintiff he was arrested by the police on 7 March and kept in custody over the weekend until 9 March when the magistrates gave him a 12 months’ conditional discharge. Notwithstanding that, the defendant made further threats against the plaintiff, and on 13 May 1992 he was sent to prison by the Hendon magistrates for threatening to kill the plaintiff. He remained in prison until 25 June. In addition, so far as criminal proceedings are concerned, on 1 October 1992 the defendant was fined for offences under the Telecommunications Act 1984 in respect of his telephone calls to the plaintiff, viz making calls for the purpose of causing annoyance, inconvenience or needless anxiety to others.
The plaintiff’s case is that the aggressive behaviour, pestering and harassment on the part of the defendant have continued, with the persecution by telephone calls. This conduct has been directed not only against the plaintiff, but also against her mother and against her current boyfriend and the boyfriend’s mother. In addition, the plaintiff complains that the defendant has maliciously damaged her car by scratching the paintwork.
Miss Harry Thomas for the defendant concedes, as I have already indicated, that an injunction could be granted to restrain the defendant from assaulting or threatening to assault the plaintiff. She concedes also that an injunction could be granted to restrain the defendant from interfering with the plaintiff’s property, eg
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there could be an injunction to restrain wrongful interference with goods such as the taking of the plaintiff’s handbag, or to restrain malicious damage to property, such as, if sufficiently proved, the making of the scratches on the paintwork of the plaintiff’s car. In relation to the telephone calls, she concedes that if the plaintiff’s mother has a freehold or leasehold interest in the parental home, the plaintiff’s mother could complain of persistent unwanted telephone calls made by the defendant to the plaintiff’s mother in the parental home, as that would fall within the tort of private nuisance. But she submits, in reliance on the decision of this court in Malone v Laskey [1907] 2 KB 141 that the basis of the tort of private nuisance is interference with the enjoyment of a person’s property, and therefore the plaintiff, is in law, a mere licensee in her mother’s property with no proprietary interest, and cannot invoke the tort of private nuisance or complain of unwanted and harassing telephone calls made to her in her mother’s home.
To my mind, it is ridiculous if in this present age the law is that the making of deliberately harassing and pestering telephone calls to a person is only actionable in the civil courts if the recipient of the calls happens to have the freehold or a leasehold proprietary interest in the premises in which he or she has received the calls.
Miss Harry Thomas submits, however, that English law does not recognise any tort of harassment or invasion of privacy or, save in the different context of such a case as Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129, intimidation. Therefore, she says, that, save as expressly conceded as set out above, the defendant’s conduct to the plaintiff is, even on the plaintiff’s version of it, under the English civil law legitimate conduct of which the plaintiff has no power or right to complain.
I apprehend that it is correct, historically, that the tort of private nuisance, which originated as an action on the case, was developed in the beginning to protect private property or rights of property, in relation to the use or enjoyment of land. It is stated in Clerk & Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) para 24–01 that ‘the essence of nuisance is a condition or activity which unduly interferes with the use or enjoyment of land’.
That a legal owner of property can obtain an injunction, on the grounds of private nuisance, to restrain persistent harassment by unwanted telephone calls to his home was decided by the Appellate Division of the Alberta Supreme Court in Motherwell v Motherwell (1976) 73 DLR (3d) 62. The court there rejected, by reference to English authority, a submission (at 67)—
‘that the common law does not have within itself the resources to recognise invasion of privacy as either included in an existing category or as a new category of nuisance, and that it has lost its original power, by which indeed it created itself, to note new ills arising in a growing and changing society and pragmatically to establish a principle to meet the need for control and remedy; and then by categories to develop the principle as the interests of justice make themselves sufficiently apparent.’
Consequently, notwithstanding Malone v Laskey, the court held that the wife of the owner had also the right to restrain harassing telephone calls to the matrimonial home. Clement JA who delivered the judgment of the court said (at 78):
‘Here we have a wife harassed in the matrimonial home. She has a status, a right to live there with her husband and children. I find it absurd to say that her occupancy of the matrimonial home is insufficient to found an action in
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nuisance. In my opinion, she is entitled to the same relief as is her husband, the brother.’
I respectfully agree, and in my judgment this court is entitled to adopt the same approach. The court has at times to reconsider earlier decisions in the light of changed social conditions; in this court we saw an example of that, only the day before the hearing of this appeal began, when we were referred to Dyson Holdings Ltd v Fox [1975] 3 All ER 1030, [1976] QB 503. If the wife of the owner is entitled to sue in respect of harassing telephone calls, then I do not see why that should not also apply to a child living at home with her parents.
Damage is, in the relevant category, a necessary ingredient in the tort of private nuisance, and I shall have to refer further to that later. So far as the harassing telephone calls are concerned, however, the inconvenience and annoyance to the occupier caused by such calls, and the interference thereby with the ordinary and reasonable use of the property are sufficient damage. The harassment is the persistent making of the unwanted telephone calls, even apart from their content; if the content is itself as here threatening and objectionable, the harassment is the greater.
In relation to harassment by telephone calls, there is also the decision of this court (Arnold P and Sir Roualeyn Cumming-Bruce) in Burnett v George decided on 6 March 1986 but only recently reported in [1992] 1 FLR 525. There, in a context in which, as in the present case, s 1 of the Domestic Violence and Matrimonial Proceedings Act 1976 was not applicable, it was held that an injunction to restrain harassment by telephone calls should only be granted if there was evidence that the health of the plaintiff was being impaired by molestation or interference calculated to cause such impairment, in which case the relief should be granted to the extent necessary to avoid the impairment of health.
It is to be observed that in that case the attention of the court was not directed to the cases concerned with interference with the ordinary and reasonable enjoyment of property as being a nuisance. It was directed instead to a different line of authority (see Wilkinson v Downton [1897] 2 QB 57, [1895–9] All ER Rep 267 and Janvier v Sweeney [1919] 2 KB 316, [1918–19] All ER Rep 1056) which establishes that false words or verbal threats calculated to cause, and uttered with the knowledge that they are likely to cause and actually causing physical injury to the person to whom they are uttered are actionable: see the judgment of Wright J in Wilkinson v Downton [1897] 2 QB 57 at 59, [1895–9] All ER Rep 267 at 269 cited by Bankes LJ in Janvier v Sweeney [1919] 2 KB 316 at 321–322, [1918–19] All ER Rep 1056 at 1059. There was a wilful false statement, or unfounded threat, which was in law malicious, and which was likely to cause and did in fact cause physical injury, viz illness of the nature of nervous shock.
From this two points follow.
Firstly, in my judgment, the decision in Burnett v George does not preclude this court from taking a wider view of the telephone harassment under the heading of private nuisance in the light of the interference with the ordinary and reasonable enjoyment of property since that was not considered at all in Burnett v George.
Secondly, Janvier v Sweeney is authority that verbal threats made orally to a person are actionable if they cause illness. This is of somewhat the less importance in the present case since the actual threats (as opposed to other acts of pestering in addition to the telephone calls) were threats to assault and it is not in doubt that, even without consequent illness, such threats can be restrained by injunction, because they are threats to commit a tort.
The injury for which damages were claimed in Wilkinson v Downton and Janvier v Sweeney was in both those cases described as ‘nervous shock’. On modern
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authorities in the law of negligence, that term is understood as referring to recognisable psychiatric illness with or without psychosomatic symptoms (see per Lord Bridge in McLoughlin v O’Brian [1982] 2 All ER 298 at 311, [1983] 1 AC 410 at 431) or, as put by Lord Wilberforce (see [1982] 2 All ER 298 at 301, [1983] 1 AC 410), as recognisable and severe physical damage to the human body and system caused by the impact, through the senses, of external events on the mind. It is distinguished from mere emotional distress. From the judgment of Bankes LJ in Janvier v Sweeney, it seems that he had much the same concept in mind, in that he refers in various citations to physical damage inflicted through the medium of the mind.
In the present case, the plaintiff in her evidence refers to the defendant’s conduct as putting her under an enormous weight of stress. This is amply borne out by much else that she says. On the facts in evidence that is predictable and, so far as the defendant is concerned, intended effect of the defendant’s conduct. There is no medical evidence, and it could not as yet be said that the plaintiff is suffering from any physical or psychiatric illness. But there is, in my judgment, an obvious risk that the cumulative effect of continued and unrestrained further harassment such as she has undergone would cause such an illness. The law expects the ordinary person to bear the mishaps of life with fortitude and, as was put in a case cited by Lord Bridge in McLoughlin v O’Brian, customary phlegm; but it does not expect ordinary young women to bear indefinitely such a campaign of persecution as that to which the defendant has subjected the plaintiff.
Therefore, in my judgment, on the facts of this case and in line with the law as laid down in Janvier v Sweeney, the court is entitled to look at the defendant’s conduct as a whole and restrain, on a quia timet basis also, those aspects of his campaign of harassment which cannot strictly be classified as threats.
We have also been referred to the unreported decision of this court in Pidduck v Molloy [1992] CA Transcript 155. That was a case in which Lord Donaldson MR, in giving the leading judgment, with which Stocker and Farquharson LJJ agreed, said of the defendant’s conduct: ‘No one denies that there was ample practical justification for the making of an order in the widest terms which the law permits.' That observation is, in my judgment, equally applicable in the present case.
The actual issue in Pidduck v Molloy was that it was argued for the appellant that injunctions which a judge had granted against him by way of replacement of earlier wider injunctions were still too wide. The replacement injunctions were:
‘1. The defendant do not assault the petitioner; 2. The defendant do not speak to the plaintiff; and 3. The defendant do not visit or enter the curtilage of the plaintiff’s home.’
In relation to the attack on the second of these, Lord Donaldson MR said:
‘[Counsel] did submit that speaking to the plaintiff was not of itself a tort, nor was it of itself a crime, and in that he is quite correct. But it is the fact that the past conduct of the defendant has suggested that, if he does speak to her, it is usually for the purpose of intimidating, threatening or abusing her, all of which are capable of amounting to crimes or torts, and in the circumstances I would modify the second part of the injunction to read “not to speak to the plaintiff in an intimidatory threatening or abusive manner’’.’
In Pidduck v Molloy the plaintiff and the defendant had at one time cohabited, although the 1976 Act did not apply, and they had had a child. There was therefore a topic on which there might have been a need for him to speak to her.
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In the present case there is no such topic, and a modification of the injunction in Lord Donaldson MR’s form would not, in my judgment, be adequate because the parts of his letters to her which are not directly intimidatory, threatening or abusive are concerned to press his unwanted suit on her as part of his campaign of harassment.
Subject to that comment, Pidduck v Molloy is in point as a decision of this court that intimidating or abusive conduct by a man towards a woman can be restrained.
I come now to Patel v Patel [1988] 2 FLR 179 decided by a division of this court consisting of May LJ and Waterhouse J. This was a dispute between a father-in-law, the plaintiff, and his son-in-law, the defendant. There had been an injunction against the defendant restraining him from assaulting, molesting, or otherwise interfering with the plaintiff or communicating with the plaintiff otherwise than through solicitors and from trespassing upon the plaintiff’s property or from approaching within 50 yards of it. A judge had discharged that injunction and substituted an injunction to the effect that the defendant should not assault or molest the plaintiff or trespass on his property. The plaintiff appealed; apart from an issue as to costs, which is irrelevant to the present case, he sought (1) to reinstate the order restraining the defendant from approaching within 50 yards of the plaintiff’s property and (2) to have a fine of £25 which the judge had imposed on the defendant for minor acts of molestation increased.
May LJ rejected both grounds of appeal. As to (1) he said that unless an actual trespass was committed or was more than likely to be committed, it did not seem to him that merely to approach to within 50 yards of a person’s house gave a cause of action which might be restrained by an injunction in those terms. As to (2) he drew attention to the very minor acts of molestation which the judge had found proved, and to the fact that many more serious allegations had not been accepted by the judge. That judgment of May LJ, while good warrant for Judge Stockdale’s curtailment of the earlier injunction granted by the Barnet County Court in the present case, does not, in my judgment, affect the present appeal in the circumstances of the present case.
Waterhouse J agreed with May LJ and indorsed the approach adopted by the judge in reformulating the injunctions. He added, however:
‘The essence of the appellant’s complaint is that he has been the victim of repeated harassment since May 1985, but in the present state of the law there is no tort of harassment. The judge was right, in my judgment, in limiting the scope of the injunctions in the way that he did.’
I find it difficult to give much weight to that general dictum that there is no tort of harassment, when the reformulated injunctions which Waterhouse J approved included an injunction restraining the defendant from molesting the plaintiff.
I should next refer to the decision of Scott J in Thomas v National Union of Mineworkers (South Wales Area) [1985] 2 All ER 1, [1986] Ch 20, to which we were referred. That case arose out of the miners’ strike of 1984. In the course of a fairly long and careful reserved judgment, Scott J held that miners who wanted to return to work were entitled to use the public highway to enter the colliery where they worked without unreasonable harassment and in particular without having abuse shouted at them by some 50 to 70 striking miners who were picketing the colliery. The actions of the striking miners were therefore actionable in nuisance. The relevant part of the judgment of Scott J was criticised in argument in News Group Newspapers Ltd v Society of Graphical and Allied Trades 1982 (No 2) [1987] ICR 181, a case about another industrial dispute which came before Stuart-Smith J.
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The criticism, in which Stuart-Smith J saw force (at 206) seems to have been to the effect that mere interference with a person’s right to use the public highway could not per se be a new tort, when an action by an individual for obstruction of the public highway as a nuisance only lay on proof of special damage: see Clerk & Lindsell para 24–68. I do not find it necessary for the determination of this appeal to examine the correctness of the decision of Scott J.
For reasons I have endeavoured to indicate, I regard the injunction granted by Judge Stockdale as in principle justified in law as an interlocutory injunction on the facts of this case as they were before him. I turn to consider the question of the choice of words, and the wording of any continuing injunction.
The word ‘molest’ is well known to, and well understood by, lawyers in its context in s 1 of the 1976 Act and, therefore, the enforcement of an injunction against ‘molestation’ under that Act presents little difficulty. It was said by Ormrod LJ in Horner v Horner [1982] 2 All ER 495 at 497, [1982] Fam 90 at 93 that the word ‘molesting’ in s 1 of the 1976 Act—
‘does not imply necessarily either violence or threats of violence. It applies to any conduct which can properly be regarded as such a degree of harassment as to call for the intervention of the court.’
In Johnson v Walton [1990] 1 FLR 350 at 352 Lord Donaldson MR held, with the concurrence of the other members of the court, that the word ‘molestation’ has that meaning whenever it is used, regardless of whether the particular proceedings are or are not brought under the 1976 Act.
It follows, in my judgment, that in the circumstances of the present case there could have been no objection if Judge Stockdale had granted an injunction to restrain the defendant from ‘molesting’ the plaintiff.
There are, obviously, certain advantages from the point of view of enforcement proceedings, if an injunction is granted in terms which are well known to lawyers and have, to lawyers, a well-understood meaning. On the other hand, Judge Stockdale could reasonably have thought that though the word ‘molesting’ is well understood by lawyers, its full implications might not have been readily apparent to a person in the position of the defendant. It is desirable that an injunction should be expressed in words which the person restrained can readily understand, particularly if the person restrained is not present in court, with his or her legal advisers, at the time when the injunction was granted. Therefore Judge Stockdale was entitled, at his discretion, to drop the word ‘molesting’ and express the injunction in the words he used, as being words which the defendant would be readily able to understand. On the facts of this case the alternative words he chose are appropriate; if they differ at all in their effect from the injunction against ‘molestation’ I cannot regard the difference as so significant that it goes beyond the scope of any injunction which the judge had jurisdiction to grant.
Since, therefore, the choice of words was a matter of the judge’s discretion, I would respect his choice without variation or qualification and consequently, for the reasons I have given, I would dismiss this appeal.
I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgment of Peter Gibson J. I note that he would qualify the injunction by adding words such as ‘by doing acts calculated to cause the [plaintiff] harm’.
I regard such a qualification as undesirable, because it would complicate enforcement of the injunction pending trial of the action; the defendant would assert that any act of pestering or harassment of which complaint was made was not by itself calculated to cause the plaintiff harm.
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I also regard the qualification as unnecessary because (i) the campaign of harassment has to be regarded as a whole without consideration of each ingredient in isolation, and viewed as a whole it is plainly calculated to cause the plaintiff harm, and can be restrained quia timet because of the danger to her health from a continuation of the stress to which she has been subjected (ii) threats of violence can be restrained per se, whether or not the threat, without the subsequent violence, is calculated to cause the plaintiff harm and (iii) telephone harassment is, in my judgment, as indicated above, an actionable interference with her ordinary and reasonable use and enjoyment of property where she is lawfully present, and thus, on the past history, can be restrained quia timet without further proof or damage.
ROSE LJ. I agree with the judgment of Dillon LJ.
PETER GIBSON J. When Judge Eric Stockdale on 10 July 1992 in the Barnet County Court granted an interlocutory injunction that the appellant ‘be forbidden from using violence, harassing, pestering or communicating with the respondent in any way’ until trial or further order, there was ample evidence before him that the appellant had used violence against the respondent and had been harassing and pestering the respondent, in amongst other ways, by telephone calls and other communications with her. It is not disputed that part of the order which restrained the appellant from using violence was properly made. What is in dispute is whether there was jurisdiction to restrain the other conduct specified in the order.
This is not a case to which the Domestic Violence and Matrimonial Proceedings Act 1976 applies, the parties being neither married to nor cohabiting with each other, nor are there children to protect. Although there have been calls for the extension of the domestic violence legislation so that the wide remedies under it (including the grant of injunctions to restrain any form of molestation, the exclusion of a party from a home or from a specified area including the home and the attachment of a power of arrest to certain injunctions) would become available in proceedings between parties whose relationships are not limited by reference to marriage and cohabitation (see in particular the Law Commission’s report on Domestic Violence and Occupation of the Family Home (1992) Law Com no 207), no such extension has yet been enacted; and even if the Law Commission’s recommendations were implemented, a person in the respondent’s position would probably still be unable to invoke such remedies. Such a person must therefore look to the common law in order to obtain protection.
The particulars of claim contain allegations of actual and threatened violence by the appellant against the respondent causing her ‘great fear and distress’; she is said to be ‘very scared and feels very frightened by the [appellant’s] abnormal and irrational obsession’, and his behaviour is said to have caused her ‘mental anguish’. She seeks, inter alia, damages for assault, trespass (which in the circumstances pleaded must be trespass to the person) and nuisance. Further details supporting these allegations and containing other allegations of intimidatory behaviour by the appellant are contained in the affidavit evidence. The respondent is still only 18 and there is evidence that her life has been threatened on several occasions by the appellant who has written to her that his thoughts and actions are based on pure hatred and always have been. It is hardly surprising that she claims to be frightened and under stress.
The jurisdiction of the county court to grant an injunction is contained in s 38 of the County Courts Act 1984, which allows that court (subject to immaterial
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exceptions) to make any order, including an interlocutory order, which could be made by the High Court if the proceedings were in the High Court. By s 37 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 the High Court has power to grant an interlocutory or final injunction in all cases in which it appears to the court to be just and convenient to do so. But as Lord Diplock pointed out in Siskina (cargo owners) v Distos Cia Naviera SA, The Siskina [1977] 3 All ER 803 at 823, [1979] AC 210 at 254 the interlocutory order must be made in an action claiming substantive relief which the court has jurisdiction to grant and to which the interlocutory order is but ancillary. Normally the interlocutory injunction will restrain conduct, complaint about which is made in the pleadings and relief in respect of which is sought in the action, but as the usual purpose of the interlocutory order is to preserve the position until the rights of the parties have been determined in the action, it can make whatever order best achieves that purpose even if that order would not be appropriate at the trial (see Fresh Fruit Wales Ltd v Halbert [1991] CA Transcript 18).
While Mr Turl appearing for the respondent relied on that authority in submitting that the judge had jurisdiction to make the order in the terms which he did, for my part I see no scope in the circumstances of this case for looking beyond the causes of action pleaded in the particulars of claim, amplified as they are by the affidavit evidence.
The correct approach in a case like this is, in my judgment, that adopted in this court in Burnett v George, a case decided in 1986, but only recently reported in [1992] 1 FLR 525. In that case the female plaintiff and the defendant, after living together for a period, parted in circumstances which left the defendant with a burning resentment against the plaintiff. She was subjected to assaults and molestation including telephone threats. She was granted an injunction restraining the defendant from assaulting, molesting or otherwise interfering with her. Arnold P, with whom Sir Roualeyn Cumming-Bruce agreed, said (at 527):
‘The foundation of the appeal is that the formula of it being just and convenient to grant injunctive relief in these circumstances, which is the statutory formula under which the High Court and the county court both act, upon its proper interpretation requires justice to be in the form of an identifiable and protectable legal interest, and convenience to be something which is indicated by the circumstances of the case. There is much authority which supports that position … It is said, and in my judgment said with some force, that molestation and interference are not, in the circumstances of this case, in which no question of matrimonial nexus arises and where there are no children to protect, actionable wrongs, and therefore it is not just to grant an injunction to restrain them. For my part, I regard that as a conclusive argument, unless there be evidence that the health of the plaintiff is being impaired by molestation or interference calculated to create such impairment, in which case relief would be granted by way of an injunction to the extent that it would be necessary to avoid that impairment of health. That exception is, in my judgment, validly grounded on Wilkinson v Downton ([1897] 2 QB 57, [1895–9] All ER Rep 267) at first instance, which was adopted and confirmed in this court in Janvier v Sweeney ([1919] 2 KB 316, [1918–19] All ER Rep 1056). However, in this case although there is evidence that the telephoned threats caused an impairment of the plaintiff’s health, because she says in her affidavit “the defendant’s continuous threats are having an adverse effect on my health”, and it was the facts in the affidavit which were the foundation of the relief in this case, beyond that, the impairment of health
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is not supported by any evidence. It seems to me that, against that background and in accordance with those principles, the generalised prohibition against molestation and interference goes too wide, but it is the duty of this court, under RSC Ord 59, r 10(3), to substitute, for an order which is made too widely by the court appealed from, any order which ought to have been given or made. It is, in my judgment, therefore proper that this court, while disallowing the wider prohibition generally of molestation and interference, should substitute under that sub-rule a prohibition against the narrower form of wrong which is attested by the evidence as being one which involved the impairment of the plaintiff’s health.’
The order made by this court, as appears from the headnote in Burnett v George, restrained the defendant from ‘assaulting molesting or otherwise interfering with the plaintiff by doing acts calculated to cause her harm’.
In Pidduck v Molloy [1992] CA Transcript 155 in another molestation case between parties not within the domestic violence legislation, an issue was whether an injunction restraining the defendant from speaking to the plaintiff was too wide. Lord Donaldson MR (with whom Stocker and Farquharson LJJ agreed) said:
‘[Counsel for the defendant] did submit that speaking to the plaintiff was not of itself a tort, nor was it of itself a crime, and in that he is quite correct. But it is the fact that the past conduct of the defendant has suggested that, if he does speak to her, it is usually for the purpose of intimidating, threatening or abusing her, all of which are capable of amounting to crimes or torts, and in the circumstances I would modify the second part of the injunction to read “not to speak to the plaintiff in an intimidatory, threatening or abusive manner’’.’
That wording might suggest that it was proper to frame an injunction in terms which restrained conduct merely capable of amounting to a crime or a tort rather than limiting the restrained conduct to that which amounted to a crime or a tort. In so far as this differs from the approach taken in Burnett v George (to which no reference is made in the judgments), I prefer that in Burnett v George because in principle only conduct amounting to an actionable wrong (including conduct facilitating such a wrong) should be restrained.
Miss Harry Thomas appearing for the appellant criticised the inclusion in the order of a restraint against harassment or pestering because that afforded the plaintiff far more protection than she was entitled to. She submitted that there was no tort of harassment or pestering, though she accepted that some acts of harassment may constitute an assault or threatened assault; but she submitted that threatening would not alone constitute an assault. Mr Turl contended that the law of tort had developed and that there now was a tort of unreasonable harassment. For this he relied on Thomas v National Union of Mineworkers (South Wales Area) [1985] 2 All ER 1, [1986] Ch 20. In that case some working miners sought injunctions restraining the union which had called a miners’ strike, from organising unlawful picketing or demonstrations. Scott J said ([1985] 2 All ER 1 at 22, [1986] Ch 20 at 64):
‘The working miners are entitled to use the highway for the purpose of entering and leaving their respective places of work. In the exercise of that right they are at present having to suffer the presence and behaviour of the pickets and demonstrators. The law has long recognised that unreasonable interference with the rights of others is actionable in tort. The law of
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nuisance is a classic example and was classically described by Lindley MR in J Lyons & Sons v Wilkins [1899] 1 Ch 255 at 267 … It is, however, not every act of interference with the enjoyment by an individual of his property rights that will be actionable in nuisance. The law must strike a balance between conflicting rights and interests. The point is made in Clerk and Lindsell, para 23–01: “a variety of different things may amount to a nuisance in fact but whether they are actionable as the tort of nuisance will depend upon a variety of considerations and a balancing of conflicting interests.” Nuisance is strictly concerned with, and may be regarded as confined to, activity which unduly interferes with the use or enjoyment of land or of easements. But there is no reason why the law should not protect on a similar basis the enjoyment of other rights. All citizens have the right to use the public highway. Suppose an individual were persistently to follow another on a public highway, making rude gestures or remarks in order to annoy or vex. If continuance of such conduct were threatened no one can doubt but that a civil court would, at the suit of the victim, restrain by an injunction the continuance of the conduct. The tort might be described as a species of private nuisance, namely unreasonable interference with the victim’s rights to use the highway. But the label for the tort does not, in my view, matter. In the present case, the working miners have the right to use the highway for the purpose of going to work. They are, in my judgment, entitled under the general law to exercise that right without unreasonable harassment by others. Unreasonable harassment of them in their exercise of that right would, in my judgment, be tortious. A decision whether in this, or in any other similar case, the presence or conduct of pickets represents a tortious interference with the right of those who wish to go to work to do so without harassment must depend on the particular circumstances of the particular case. The balance to which I have earlier referred must be struck between the rights of those going to work and the rights of the pickets.’ (Scott J’s emphasis.)
In News Group Newspapers Ltd v Society of Graphical and Allied Trades 1982 (No 2) [1987] ICR 181 at 206 Stuart-Smith J (as he then was) after citing these passages from Scott J’s judgment, referred to submissions made to him that Scott J should not have invented a new tort and that it is not sufficient to found liability that there has been an unreasonable interference with the rights of others, even though when a balance is struck between conflicting rights and interests the scale comes down in favour of the plaintiffs, unless those rights are recognised by the law and fall within some accepted head of tort. He expressed the view that there was force in those criticisms, but found it not necessary to express a final view on the question of harassment.
For my part, to the extent that Scott J was holding that there is now a tort of unreasonable harassment, with all respect to him, I cannot agree with him. There is no tort of harassment (Patel v Patel [1988] 2 FLR 179 at 182 per Waterhouse J) and I do not think that the addition of the adjective ‘unreasonable’ would convert harassing conduct into tortious conduct. Patel v Patel was another case brought in tort between parties not falling within the domestic violence legislation. This court upheld that part of the order of the county court judge by which he had prohibited the defendant from assaulting or molesting the plaintiff or trespassing on his property but without any discussion of why molestation was a tort, nor how harassment differed from molestation. There is no doubt that many forms of molestation, in the wide sense in which it has been interpreted by the courts (see, for example, Horner v Horner [1982] 2 All ER 495, [1982] Fam 90), are tortious,
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but in my view not every form of molestation is a tort. Again, in so far as Patel v Patel is inconsistent with Burnett v George, in which molestation per se was held not to be an actionable wrong, I prefer Burnett v George.
However, Scott J’s remarks were made in the context of the harassment of the lawful user of a highway to go to work. Thus he said ([1985] 2 All ER 1 at 22, [1986] Ch 20 at 65):
‘[the working miners] can only complain of picketing or demonstrations which unreasonably harass them in their entry into and egress from their place of work.’
It may be arguable that workers have an interest in having access to their place of work analogous to the interests of those occupying business premises or that harassment of the user of a highway is a tort (see Clerk & Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) para 24–68); but even if such argument were correct, it would not avail the respondent on the facts of this case, and it is not necessary to decide the point.
Mr Turl submitted that the respondent has a right of privacy with which the appellant was unreasonably interfering. But that argument is not open to him in the light of the decision of this court in Kaye v Robertson [1991] FSR 62, confirming that English law has recognised no such right.
He further submitted that the respondent had a sustainable claim in private nuisance. As Miss Harry Thomas pointed out, private nuisance is usually defined as an act or omission which is an interference with, disturbance or annoyance to a person in the exercise or enjoyment of his ownership or occupation of land (see for example Clerk & Lindsell para 24–01). It appears from the decision of this court in Malone v Laskey [1907] 2 KB 141 that not every occupation of land is sufficient. In that case the wife of the manager of a company to which premises were sub-let was resident at the premises with her husband. She was injured at the premises by an object falling on her as a result of the vibration of an engine in adjoining property and claimed in nuisance. Her claim failed because she had no interest in the premises which she occupied and, per Barnes P, she had ‘no right of occupation in the proper sense’. Similarly in Nunn v Parkes & Co (1924) 158 L Jo 806 the Divisional Court of the King’s Bench Division held that the husband of the owner of land could not sue in private nuisance when the garden was flooded and damage was caused to his chattels as a result of acts by the defendant on adjoining land. The general rule of law was applied that only an owner or occupier of the property affected can maintain an action for private nuisance, and the husband was merely a licensee of the owner. In Metropolitan Properties Ltd v Jones [1939] 2 All ER 202 at 205 Goddard LJ (sitting as an additional judge in the King’s Bench Division) said:
‘I am bound by Malone v Laskey in which the Court of Appeal appear to me to have laid down in terms that, unless the plaintiff in an action for nuisance has legal interest in the land which is alleged to be affected by the nuisance, he has no cause for action.’
That appears to put the matter too narrowly, as a person in de facto possession of land (see Foster v Warblington UDC [1906] 1 KB 648) as well as a licensee with an exclusive right to possess land (see Newcastle-under-Lyme Corp v Wolstanton Ltd [1946] 2 All ER 447, [1947] Ch 92) may sue in nuisance. However, subject to Scott J’s obiter comments, which I have cited, on harassment of the user of the highway constituting a species of private nuisance, I know of no authority which would allow a person with no interest in land or right to occupy land to sue in private nuisance. Given that the purpose of an action in nuisance is to protect the
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right to use and enjoyment of land (see Salmond and Heuston on the Law of Torts (20th edn, 1992) p 67), it seems to me to be wrong in principle if a mere licensee or someone without such right could sue in private nuisance.
Mr Turl, however, relied on the decision of the Appellate Division of the Alberta Supreme Court in Motherwell v Motherwell (1976) 73 DLR (3d) 62. In that case the defendant continually harassed the plaintiff, her brother, sister-in-law and father, by telephone and letter. The court held first that the brother and the father had a claim in nuisance by invasion of privacy in their house through abuse of telephone communications. The court ‘inferred’ (at 77) that the brother was the owner of the premises he occupied with his wife and, whilst the report is silent as to the father’s interest in the property he occupied as his home, it may be that a similar inference was made. Although the court referred to the invasion of privacy as the nuisance, the ratio of that part of the decision was that the persistent telephone calls to those plaintiffs’ homes amounted to undue interference with the comfortable and convenient enjoyment of their respective premises. That part of the decision was therefore in conformity with the conventional approach in the law of nuisance. The court then turned to the question whether the sister-in-law had a right of action in nuisance. The court referred to but plainly disliked Malone v Laskey, and held that the sister-in-law, harassed as she was in the matrimonial home, with a right to live there with her husband, had sufficient occupancy of the house to be entitled to the same relief. But that decision does not cover the position of a person like the respondent who has no such right of occupation. I am therefore unable to find that an injunction in the present case can be properly based on private nuisance.
Mr Turl also relies on the principle in Wilkinson v Downton [1897] 2 QB 57, [1895–9] All ER Rep 267, to which Arnold P referred in the passage which I have cited from Burnett v George. Miss Harry Thomas accepts that injunctive relief may be available where a person intentionally does an act which is calculated to cause the victim to suffer actual physical harm and does in fact impair that person’s health. But she says that the principle does not apply because such a cause of action was not pleaded and there is insufficient evidence that the appellant’s actions impaired the respondent’s health. But in my judgment the allegations in the particulars of claim and the affidavit evidence to which I have referred show a serious risk to her health and so allow such a claim to be made and, in all the circumstances, an injunction to restrain conduct which it is reasonable to apprehend would, if unrestrained, continue and impair the respondent’s health is amply justified. Accordingly, whilst I accept that an injunction against harassing and pestering is too wide, because not limited to an actionable wrong, in my judgment the court has jurisdiction to grant such an injunction if limited by words such as were used in Burnett v George, viz ‘by doing acts calculated to cause the respondent harm’.
Miss Harry Thomas submitted that it was inappropriate to use the words ‘harassment’ and ‘pestering’ in common law injunctions because they were not certain enough. I accept that an injunction restraining conduct should be sufficiently specific so that the person to whom it is directed knows what he must stop doing. But it must also be general enough to cover other objectionable behaviour so as to prevent easy evasion of the order. There are advantages in framing the injunction in what might be called traditional domestic violence form to restrain ‘assaulting, molesting or otherwise interfering with’ the complainant because the legal advisers, if not the person restrained, will be familiar with such language and the way it has been interpreted by the courts. But I cannot say that
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the words ‘harassing’ and ‘pestering’ are too uncertain to be included in an injunction.
Miss Harry Thomas also criticised the inclusion of ‘communicating with’ the respondent as that might include non-tortious conduct. In the circumstances of the present case, where any communication with the respondent by the appellant is likely to add to her distress, that criticism might be thought more theoretical than real, but I accept that in principle here too it is appropriate to limit the restrained conduct to an actionable wrong by applying some such coda as I have suggested above to this conduct.
To the limited extent, therefore, that I would qualify the conduct restrained by the addition of a coda to limit that conduct to actionable wrongs, I would allow the appeal.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Celia Fox Barrister.
L’Office Cherifien des Phosphates and another v Yamashita-Shinnihon Steamship Co Ltd
The Boucraa
[1993] 3 All ER 686
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Arbitration: SHIPPING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, BELDAM AND KENNEDY LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 22 MARCH, 7 APRIL 1993
Arbitration – Practice – Want of prosecution – Dismissal of claim – Dismissal of claim for want of prosecution – Prolonged and unwarranted delay by claimants in prosecuting claim prior to 1 January 1992 – Arbitrators having power after 1 January 1992 to dismiss claim for want of prosecution where inordinate and inexcusable delay on part of claimant – Whether power to dismiss claim for want of prosecution retrospective – Whether arbitrator entitled to have regard to delay in prosecuting claim occurring prior to 1 January 1992 – Arbitration Act 1950, s 13A.
In 1984 the owners of a vessel discovered immediately after the completion of a charter voyage that damage had been caused to the vessel. In 1985 the owners’ complaint against the charterer was referred to arbitration. However, apart from the initial proceedings of claim and defence, neither parties took any further steps in the proceedings between 1986 and 1991. On 1 January 1992 s 13Aa of the Arbitration Act 1950 came into force. That section conferred power on an arbitrator to dismiss a claim for want of prosecution where there had been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the claimant in pursuing the claim. The charterer applied under s 13A to have the owners’ claim dismissed for want of prosecution. The arbitrator dismissed the claim on the grounds of the owners’ inordinate and inexcusable delay prior to 1 January 1992 but the judge allowed an appeal by the owners on the grounds that s 13A did not operate retrospectively and therefore delay prior to 1 January 1992 was not grounds for dismissal of a claim under s 13A. The charterer appealed, contending that s 13A was retrospective in effect and therefore the arbitrator was entitled to exercise the power conferred by the section in respect of delay by the owners before the section came into force.
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Held (Beldam LJ dissenting) – An Act of Parliament was presumed not to operate retrospectively unless the contrary intention appeared clearly or by necessary implication, except as regards matters of procedure, provided that no unfairness or injustice would be caused. Section 13A of the 1950 Act, however, affected not only procedural but also substantive rights, the owners’ right prior to 1 January 1992 to pursue their claim to an award despite their delay being a substantive right, and since there was no clear indication of Parliament’s intention in the section, the presumption against retrospectivity applied. Accordingly, the owners’ delay prior to 1 January 1992 could not be taken into account by the arbitrator when considering the charterer’s application for dismissal of the owners’ claim as it would involve a retrospective application of s 13A. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 694 g to p 695 g, p 698 a g and p 699 a b, post).
Re Athlumney, ex p Wilson [1895–9] All ER Rep 329 and Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833 considered.
Notes For introspective effect of statutes, see 44 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 921–926, and for cases on the subject, see 45 Digest (Reissue) 430–443, 4246–4387.
For the Arbitration Act 1950, s 13A, see 2 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 589.
Cases referred to in judgments
A-G v Vernazza [1960] 3 All ER 97, [1960] AC 965, [1960] 3 WLR 466, HL.
Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd, Bostic v Bermondsey and Southwark Group Hospital Management Committee, Sternberg v Hammond [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, [1968] 2 WLR 366, CA.
Arnold v Central Electricity Generating Board [1987] 3 All ER 694, [1988] AC 228, [1987] 3 WLR 1009, HL.
Athlumney, Re, ex p Wilson [1898] 2 QB 547, [1895–9] All ER Rep 329.
Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297, [1977] 3 WLR 38, HL.
Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909, [1981] 2 WLR 141, HL.
Carson v Carson and Stoyek [1964] 1 All ER 681, [1964] 1 WLR 511.
Chebaro v Chebaro [1987] 1 All ER 999, [1987] Fam 127, [1987] 2 WLR 1090, CA.
Colonial Sugar Refining Co Ltd v Irving [1905] AC 369, PC.
Costa Rica (Republic) v Erlanger (1876) 3 Ch D 62, CA.
County and District Properties Ltd v Lyell (1977) [1991] 1 WLR 683, CA.
Customs and Excise Comrs v Thorn Electrical Industries Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 881, [1975] 1 WLR 1661, HL.
Dept of Transport v Chris Smaller (Transport) Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 897, [1989] AC 1197, [1989] 2 WLR 578, HL.
Food Corp of India v Antclizo Shipping Corp, The Antclizo [1988] 2 All ER 513, [1988] 1 WLR 603, HL.
Gardner v Lucas (1878) 3 App Cas 582, HL.
Lauri v Renad [1892] 3 Ch 402, Ch D and CA.
Mahon v Air New Zealand Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 201, [1984] AC 808, [1984] 3 WLR 884, PC.
Maxwell v Murphy (1957) 96 CLR 261, Aust HC.
Paal Wilson & Co A/S v Partenreederei Hannah Blumenthal, The Hannah Blumenthal [1983] 1 All ER 34, [1983] 1 AC 854, [1982] 3 WLR 1149, HL.
Powys v Powys [1971] 3 All ER 116, [1971] P 340, [1971] 3 WLR 154.
Quilter v Mapleson (1882) 9 QBD 672, CA.
R v Christchurch (Inhabitants) (1848) 12 QB 149, 116 ER 823.
Page 688 of [1993] 3 All ER 686
R v St Mary, Whitechapel (Inhabitants) (1848) 12 QB 120, 116 ER 811.
Secretary of State for Social Security v Tunnicliffe [1991] 2 All ER 712, CA.
Wright v Hale (1860) 30 LJ Ex 40, 6 H & N 227, 158 ER 94.
Ydun, The [1899] P 236, CA.
Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833, [1983] 1 AC 553, [1982] 3 WLR 1026, PC.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Banca Popolare di Novara v John Livanos & Sons Ltd (1973) 117 SJ 509, CA.
Craxfords (Ramsgate) Ltd v Williams & Steer Manufacturing Co Ltd [1954] 3 All ER 17, [1954] 1 WLR 1130.
EWP Ltd v Moore [1992] 1 All ER 880, [1992] QB 460, CA.
Lord, Re (1854) 1 K & J 90, 69 ER 382.
Pearce v Secretary of State for Defence [1988] 2 All ER 348, [1988] AC 755, HL.
Phillips v Eyre (1870) LR 6 QB 1.
Reynolds v British Leyland Ltd (a bankrupt) [1991] 2 All ER 243, [1991] 1 WLR 675, CA.
Selangor United Rubber Estates Ltd v Cradock (No 2) [1968] 1 All ER 567, [1968] 1 WLR 319.
Suche (Joseph) & Co Ltd, Re (1875) 1 Ch D 48.
Trill v Sacher [1993] 1 All ER 961, CA.
Unisys International Services Ltd (formerly Sperry Rand Ltd) v Eastern Counties Newspapers Ltd [1991] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 538, CA.
West v Gwynne [1911] 2 Ch 1, Ch D and CA.
Interlocutory appeal Yamashita-Shinnihon Steamship Co Ltd, the charterer of the vessel Boucraa, appealed with leave of the judge from the order of Saville J dated 2 February 1993 allowing the appeal of L’Office Cherifien des Phosphates and Unitramp SA, the owners of the vessel, against the interim final award dated 13 August 1992 of the single arbitrator, Michael Baker-Harber, dismissing the owners’ claim for want of prosecution pursuant to s 13A of the Arbitration Act 1950. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
Richard Aikens QC (instructed by Ince & Co) for the charterer.
Andrew Popplewell (instructed by Herbert Smith) for the owners.
Cur adv vult
7 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. May an arbitrator exercise the power conferred by s 13A of the Arbitration Act 1950 to dismiss a claim on the ground of the claimant’s inordinate and inexcusable delay in pursuing it when the delay occurred before 1 January 1992 (the date on which that section came into force)? That is the question raised by this appeal. It is a question of practical importance to arbitrators, particularly maritime arbitrators, a number of whom are deferring awards to await the outcome of the appeal. In order to help them and the parties to those arbitrations this hearing has been expedited.
The facts
The claimants in this arbitration (it is unnecessary to distinguish between them) were owners of a cargo vessel named Boucraa. They chartered her to the
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respondent in the arbitration to carry a bulk cargo from Vancouver to Aqaba. The voyage was completed in November 1984 and gave rise to an immediate complaint of damage by the owners, who in August 1985 referred the dispute to arbitration. Points of claim were served in December 1985, points of defence in February 1986 and points of reply in November 1986. Between January 1986 and November 1988 there was discussion between the parties of security for the claim and costs, but no security was provided. During 1991 the possibility of a preliminary issue to construe a clause of the charterparty was considered, but this proposal was overtaken by the charterer’s application to dismiss for want of prosecution.
The sole arbitrator appointed by the parties in this reference was Mr Michael Baker-Harber. He made a preliminary ruling on 27 February 1992 in which he held that s 13A was retrospective in its effect. On 13 August 1992 he made an interim final award. In this he dismissed the owners’ claim in the arbitration, holding that the conditions in s 13A(2) were satisfied and that the power to dismiss should be exercised. Cresswell J gave the owners leave to appeal against the decision and on 2 February 1993 Saville J allowed their appeal, in effect revoking the dismissal of the owners’ claim. He certified under s 1(7) of the Arbitration Act 1979 that the appeal raised a question of law of general public importance and gave the charterer leave to appeal. So the issue comes to this court.
Dismissal for want of prosecution
If a plaintiff in ordinary litigation is guilty of inordinate and inexcusable delay in prosecuting his claim after the issue of proceedings, and the effect of the delay is such as to jeopardise a fair trial of the action or cause at least a risk of serious prejudice to the defendant, the court may (even in the absence of contumacious conduct or breach of a peremptory order) dismiss the plaintiff’s action if the relevant limitation period has expired. That, very briefly put, is the upshot of a series of authorities of which Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd, Bostic v Bermondsey and Southwark Group Hospital Management Committee, Sternberg v Hammond [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229 and Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297 are the most prominent.
At the time when those cases were being decided, dilatory conduct by arbitration claimants was every bit as common as that by plaintiffs, but the legal effect of such conduct, the courses open to the respondent and the powers of the arbitrator were the subject of some doubt. That doubt was dispelled by two decisions of the House of Lords: Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909 and Paal Wilson & Co A/S v Partenreederei Hannah Blumenthal, The Hannah Blumenthal [1983] 1 All ER 34, [1983] 1 AC 854. The effect of those decisions, again very briefly put, was this: arbitration is a consensual procedure; the parties owe each other a contractual duty to co-operate in progressing a reference; the claimant is under a duty to pursue his claim; but the respondent, being under a corresponding duty, cannot complain of a delay in which he has acquiesced; the reference continues until, if ever, a contractual abandonment of the reference can be inferred. Thus in arbitration the position was quite unlike that in litigation: the respondent, unlike the defendant, could not stand idly by, acquiescing in his opponent’s delay, until the moment came to strike by launching an application to dismiss. Whereas defendants in litigation could let sleeping dogs lie (Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine & Sons Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 543 at 555, 563, [1968] 2 QB 229 at 258, 272) a respondent in arbitration could not (Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289 at 302, [1981] AC 909 at 988).
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These decisions were almost universally criticised, not on the grounds of defects in their reasoning but because they were felt to be entirely out of touch with the realities of commercial life. In the market and in the courts there was a clamour that the law be changed so that stale arbitration claims could be dismissed in much the same way as stale claims in the courts. Views varied on whether this was a power to be exercised by arbitrators or by the courts themselves. In Hong Kong a power to dismiss was conferred on the court as early as 1982.
In England the plea for reform was eventually heeded. By s 102 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990, s 13A was inserted into the Arbitration Act 1950, giving to arbitrators a power similar to that exercised by the courts. Section 13A provides as follows:
‘(1) Unless a contrary intention is expressed in the arbitration agreement, the arbitrator or umpire shall have power to make an award dismissing any claim in a dispute referred to him if it appears to him that the conditions mentioned in subsection (2) are satisfied.
(2) The conditions are—(a) that there has been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the claimant in pursuing the claim; and (b) that the delay—(i) will give rise to a substantial risk that it is not possible to have a fair resolution of the issues in that claim; or (ii) has caused, or is likely to cause or to have caused, serious prejudice to the respondent.
(3) For the purpose of keeping the provision made by this section and the corresponding provision which applies in relation to proceedings in the High Court in step, the Secretary of State may by order made by statutory instrument amend subsection (2) above.
(4) Before making any such order the Secretary of State shall consult the Lord Chancellor and such other persons as he considers appropriate.
(5) No such order shall be made unless a draft of the order has been laid before, and approved by resolution of, each House of Parliament.’
This section did not come into effect on the passing of the 1990 Act. By virtue of s 124(3) and the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 (Commencement No 7) Order 1991, SI 1991/2730, the section came into force on 1 January 1992. There can be no doubt at all about the mischief at which this legislative change was directed: it was the powerlessness of arbitrators (and the courts) to dismiss claims without a hearing on the merits where the claimants had been guilty of gross and unjustified delay in pursuing their claims and the effect of such delay was such as to jeopardise the prospects of a fair trial or to cause the other parties at least a real risk of serious prejudice. This situation had come to be seen as a significant blemish on the English arbitration regime, and the amendment was intended to remove it. Power was also taken to keep arbitration procedure in line with court procedure if the Secretary of State thought fit.
By 1 January 1992 the inordinate and inexcusable delay of which the arbitrator in this case has found the owners to be guilty had already occurred. The arbitrator did not convict them of such delay after that date. Thus the question is squarely raised whether s 13A is retrospective in its effect or, more simply, whether the arbitrator was entitled in law to exercise the power conferred by the section in reliance on delay by the owners before the section came into force. The charterer contends that he was so entitled, the owners that he was not.
The arbitrator’s ruling
In ruling that he was in law entitled to exercise the power to dismiss on the basis of delay by the owners before 1 January 1992 the arbitrator relied on a
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number of considerations. (1) Since s 13A was inserted into the 1950 Act, and was not enacted as a free-standing provision, it was to be assumed that Parliament intended the section to have retrospective effect and the power to be exercisable as if it had always been part of the Act. (2) Since the amendment was made for the benefit of respondents and was intended to apply where a fair trial of the issues in the arbitration might not be possible, claimants would not be hard done by if the dismissal power were exercised retrospectively. (3) Since s 13A did not take effect on enactment of the 1990 Act, and so gave claimants an opportunity to put their houses in order, it was to be inferred that the power conferred by the section was to be capable of retrospective exercise. (4) The 1990 Act could have provided, but did not, that it applied only to arbitrations begun after 1 January 1992.
The judge’s decision
Saville J acknowledged that he found the question raised by the owners’ appeal a difficult one, and he highlighted the difficulty of trying to ascertain the intention of Parliament concerning the retrospective nature or otherwise of legislation where express and unmistakable words had not been used.
Before the judge, the charterer did not seek to support the third of the arbitrator’s grounds set out above. It did, however, submit with some emphasis that Parliament cannot have intended arbitrations which were already stale by 1 January 1992 to remain untouched by the new section. The judge agreed, but drew an analogy between delay before the issue of proceedings in court and delay before 1 January 1992: neither, taken alone, might provide ground for dismissal but either might be very relevant if there was delay after the issue of proceedings or after 1 January 1992, as the case might be. If this analogy were applied to arbitration, the power to dismiss could be exercised prospectively but so as to ensure that the resolution of existing references need not be unduly delayed. In the end, the judge found for the owners in reliance on the presumption against retrospectivity, holding that existing rights (such as the owners’ to pursue their claim) should not be retrospectively prejudiced by legislation unless Parliament’s intention to achieve that result was clear, which in this case it was not.
The presumption against retrospectivity
The rule that a person should not be held liable or punished for conduct not criminal when committed is fundamental and of long-standing. It is reflected in the maxim nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege. It is protected by art 7 of the European Convention of Human Rights (Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmnd 8969)).
The rule also applies, but with less force, outside the criminal sphere. It is again expressed in maxims, lex prospicit non respicit and omnis nova constitutio futuris temporibus formam imponere debet non praeteritis. The French Civil Code (art 2) provides that ‘La loi ne dispose que pour l’avenir, elle n’a point d’effet retroactif.’
The leading English textbooks are agreed that the rule has a place in English law. Bennion Statutory Interpretation (2nd edn, 1992) p 214 states:
‘Unless the contrary intention appears, an enactment is presumed not to be intended to have a retrospective operation.’
Maxwell The Interpretation of Statutes (12th edn, 1969) p 215 states the principle in a way described by Scarman J (Carson v Carson and Stoyek [1964] 1 All ER 681 at
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686, [1964] 1 WLR 511 at 516) as ‘so frequently quoted with approval that it now enjoys itself almost judicial authority’:
‘Upon the presumption that the legislature does not intend what is unjust rests the leaning against giving certain statutes a retrospective operation. They are construed as operating only in cases or on facts which come into existence after the statutes were passed unless a retrospective effect is clearly intended. It is a fundamental rule of English law that no statute shall be construed to have a retrospective operation unless such a construction appears very clearly in the terms of the Act, or arises by necessary and distinct implication.’
Craies on Statute Law (7th edn, 1971) p 387 describes as retrospective a statute ‘which takes away or impairs any vested right acquired under existing laws, or creates a new obligation, or imposes a new duty, or attaches a new disability in respect to transactions or considerations already past.' This text cites Lindley LJ in Lauri v Renad [1892] 3 Ch 402 at 421:
‘It is a fundamental rule of English law that no statute shall be construed so as to have a retrospective operation unless its language is such as plainly to require such a construction; and the same rule involves another and subordinate rule to the effect that the statute is not to be construed so as to have a greater retrospective operation than its language renders necessary.’
It seems clear that these statements represent the modern law. In Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833 at 836, [1983] 1 AC 553 at 558 the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council stated the rule in language almost identical to that used by Craies. In Arnold v Central Electricity Generating Board [1987] 3 All ER 694 at 703–704, [1988] AC 228 at 275, Lord Bridge restated the principle laid down by Lindley LJ as quoted above.
In Re Athlumney, ex p Wilson [1898] 2 QB 547 at 551–552, [1895–9] All ER Rep 329 at 331–332 Wright J said:
‘Perhaps no rule of construction is more firmly established than this—that a retrospective operation is not to be given to a statute so as to impair an existing right or obligation, otherwise than as regards matter of procedure, unless that effect cannot be avoided without doing violence to the language of the enactment.’ (My emphasis.)
This procedural exception is well established. In Wright v Hale (1860) 30 LJ Ex 40 at 42 Pollock CB said:
‘I have always understood that there is a considerable difference between laws which affect the vested rights and interests of parties, and those laws which merely affect the proceedings of courts; as, for instance, declaring what shall be deemed good service, what shall be the criterion of the right to costs, how much costs shall be asked, the manner in which witnesses shall be paid, or what witnesses the party shall be entitled to, and so on … I do not think that a matter of that sort can be called a right … in any sense in which Lord Coke in his Institutes … has spoken of rights.’
In Gardner v Lucas (1878) 3 App Cas 582 at 603 Lord Blackburn said:
‘Alterations in the form of procedure are always retrospective, unless there is some good reason or other why they should not be.’
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The reason for the exception may be, as suggested by Bennion in Statutory Interpretation (2nd edn, 1992) p 218, that—
‘a procedural change is expected to improve matters for everyone concerned (or at least to improve matters for some, without inflicting detriment on anyone else who uses ordinary care, vigilance and promptness).’
Or it may be that suggested by Mellish LJ in Republic of Costa Rica v Erlanger (1876) 3 Ch D 62 at 69:
‘No suitor has any vested interest in the course of procedure, nor any right to complain, if during the litigation the procedure is changed, provided, of course, that no injustice is done.’
But both these passages draw attention to an important point, that the exception only applies where application of it would not cause unfairness or injustice. This is consistent with the general rule or presumption, which is itself based on considerations of fairness and justice, as shown by the passage in Maxwell quoted above and recently emphasised by Staughton LJ in Secretary of State for Social Security v Tunnicliffe [1991] 2 All ER 712 at 724:
‘In my judgment the true principle is that Parliament is presumed not to have intended to alter the law applicable to past events and transactions in a manner which is unfair to those concerned in them, unless a contrary intention appears. It is not simply a question of classifying an enactment as retrospective or not retrospective. Rather it may well be a matter of degree—the greater the unfairness, the more it is to be expected that Parliament will make it clear if that is intended.’
The distinction between rights and procedure, and unfairness and fairness, may well overlap. Thus if a limitation period is shortened but a plaintiff has time to sue before expiry of the shortened period, he is likely to be statute-barred if he does not sue within the shortened period (The Ydun [1899] P 236); but if a limitation period is extended after a previous, shorter limitation period has already expired, the plaintiff will be unable to take advantage of the new period because an absolute defence has by then accrued to the defendant and it would not be fair to deprive him of it (Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833, [1983] 1 AC 553 and Maxwell v Murphy (1957) 96 CLR 261).
The competing contentions of the parties
The extreme difficulty of this case arises from the fact that for every persuasive argument by the charterer there is a persuasive answer by the owners. (1) The charterer relies on the insertion of s 13A into the Arbitration Act 1950 and the absence of transitional provisions as showing that Parliament intended the new power to be exercisable as if it had been there all along. The owners rely on the complete absence of any specific indication on this point one way or the other as clear evidence that Parliament never addressed its mind to the point at all. (2) The charterer says that since (as is common ground) the section applies to arbitration agreements already made and arbitration references already in progress before 1 January 1992, the new power should be applicable to delay which has occurred before that date. The owners reply that in the first two cases there is no retrospective application of the section; in the third case there is. (3) The charterer contends that a statute is not retrospective merely because ‘a part of the requisites for its action is drawn from time antecedent to its passing’ (R v Inhabitants of St Mary, Whitechapel (1848) 12 QB 120 at 127, 116 ER 811 at 814
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and Customs and Excise Comrs v Thorn Electrical Industries Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 881 at 890, [1975] 1 WLR 1661 at 1672). The owners reply that conduct is retrospectively penalised if it is relied on to impose a disability which could not have been imposed when the conduct was committed. (4) The charterer strongly contends (although the argument was not advanced to the judge) that s 13A is a procedural section and so falls outside the presumption against retrospectivity. The owners reply that the effect of the section is not merely procedural, since it deprives them of their right to pursue their claim to an award. (5) The charterer submits that the owners can have no right deserving legal protection to pursue to an award a claim which can no longer be the subject of fair adjudication or of adjudication which might not be unfairly prejudicial to it. The owners reply that in Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909 the majority of the House of Lords did recognise such a right; if the charterer had wanted an early hearing it could have pressed for one and, if necessary, exercised its rights under s 5 of the Arbitration Act 1979. (6) The charterer says that the owners’ delay, being (see the Bremer Vulkan case) a breach of contract, was always inexcusable and was not made so by s 13A. The owners reply that if their conduct was a breach of contract and so inexcusable, the same was true of the charterer’s conduct, with the result that until 1 January 1992, the charterer could not effectively complain. (7) The charterer says that Parliament cannot have intended to preserve claims satisfying the conditions in s 13A(2) when gross delay was the very mischief at which the amendment was directed. The owners reply that the section, prospectively applied, enables delay in existing references to be controlled in the manner indicated by the judge and Parliament cannot have intended to change the rules midway through the contest to the disadvantage of one competitor. (8) The charterer argues that there is no unfairness in dismissing a claim which cannot be fairly tried or the trial of which may be prejudicial to one party. The owners answer that it is necessarily unfair to prevent them pursuing their claim on grounds of delay which would not have entitled the charterer to that relief when the delay occurred.
I find the argument on these points finely balanced, with no decisive advantage to either party.
Conclusion
If any clear indication of Parliament’s intention is to be found, effect must be given to it. I find none. Some argument was addressed to the opening words of the section (‘Unless a contrary intention is expressed in the arbitration agreement’), but I do not think this language can be read as limiting the application of the section to agreements made after 1 January 1992 and if the section applies to agreements made before that date I think these opening words do no more than acknowledge, as is now conventional, the autonomy of the parties.
If, as I conclude, there is no clear indication of Parliament’s intention, the next stage in the inquiry is to ask whether the arbitrator’s construction gives a retrospective effect to the section. If it does not, the practical merits of that construction must be considered. If it does, one must ask whether it falls foul of the presumption against retrospectivity or whether it may fairly be said to fall within the procedural exception.
The owners and the charterer have been bound by mutual rights and obligations arising from the charterparty, the arbitration agreement and the reference to arbitration. After their dispute was referred to arbitration and until 1 January 1992, the parties’ mutual rights and obligations in relation to the reference were governed by the decision in the Bremer Vulkan case. They had
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mutual obligations, which neither party discharged, to progress the reference. The owners had a right to pursue their claim to an award. This was, I think, a substantive right, saleable at a price under most laws, if not English law. I do not think it can fairly be regarded as a merely procedural right. The owners did not, of course, have a right to pursue their claim in a dilatory manner. Had they sought legal advice during that period they would have been told that dilatoriness in pursuing the claim was, technically, a breach of contract. But if they had gone on to ask, as most practical shipowners would, for an assessment of the risk to which such breach exposed them, they would have been told that so long as the charterer acquiesced in the delay there was no risk save that of increased difficulty in proving the claim as a result of the passage of time.
The arbitrator’s construction does, I think, have the effect that conduct of the owners which, although a breach of contract and in that sense inexcusable, exposed the owners to no practical penalty up to 1 January 1992, could thereafter, and in the absence of further delay, ground an order for dismissal of their claim. This does seem to me, in principle, to involve retrospective application of the statute and so prima facie to infringe the presumption against retrospectivity.
In one sense s 13A may be regarded as procedural, in that it gives arbitrators a procedural power they did not have before. But it takes effect, I think, as a new term implied into the contract between the parties in the absence of contrary agreement and affects their substantive rights. In any event, it seems to me that the procedural exception, like the presumption itself, rests on considerations of fairness. Ordinarily, changes in procedure do not affect substantive rights. If they do, they should not do so unfairly.
Where such changes are made by judicial decision they take effect retrospectively, because English courts have as yet no power to alter the law prospectively. There may be unfairness in this. But it is unfairness of a kind which statutes can avoid, and the presumption operates to ensure that they do avoid it in the absence of a clear contrary indication in the statute. Here, I consider that it would be unfair to expose the owners to what is in effect a penalty on the strength of conduct which did not expose them to such a penalty when committed. This does not defeat the clear parliamentary intention to eradicate the mischief of delay in arbitration: claimants such as the owners will not in future be able to delay prosecution of their claims with impunity; and delay before 1 January 1992, if there is continuing delay after that date, will not leave the arbitrator powerless.
In my judgment the presumption applies and the charterer cannot rely on the procedural exception. For very much the reasons which the judge gave, I would uphold his decision and dismiss this appeal.
KENNEDY LJ. The issue which arises in this appeal is the extent to which the power given to an arbitrator by s 13A of the Arbitration Act 1950 to dismiss for want of prosecution can be exercised in relation to claims made before the section came into force on 1 January 1992. Section 13A was introduced into the 1950 Act by s 102 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 without transitional provisions, so it is not surprising that Mr Popplewell, for the owners (claimants), concedes that s 13A applies to arbitration agreements and references made before 1 January 1992, but he contends that the section cannot be invoked unless a more than minimal part of the delay and of any prejudice relied upon have occurred after that date.
The factual background to the present dispute is set out in the judgment of the Sir Thomas Bingham MR, and he has also indicated why Parliament considered it necessary to provide arbitrators with powers which are now to be found in s 13A
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of the 1950 Act. Basically the situation was that although parties to arbitration proceedings were under a duty to make progress they often failed to do so, the duty was regarded as mutual, and the need for the sanction which is now in s 13A was evident. It had to be provided by statute because of the contractual nature of arbitration, it will usually come into arbitration agreements by implication, and as the section itself makes clear it will always be possible for the sanctions to be excluded by express words.
For the charterer Mr Aikens submits that now that s 13A is in force the proper approach is to look first at what it says. The wording has been set out by Sir Thomas Bingham MR, so I need not repeat it, but, Mr Aikens submits, it is clear. There are no transitional provisions and the section, now embodied in the Act passed more than 40 years ago, does not suggest that the arbitrator or umpire cannot have regard to delay or prejudice occurring before a certain date. In Powys v Powys [1971] 3 All ER 116 at 124, [1971] P 340 at 350 Brandon J said:
‘The true principles to apply are, in my view, these: that the first and most important consideration in construing an Act is the ordinary and natural meaning of the words used; that, if such meaning is plain, effect should be given to it; and that it is only if such meaning is not plain, but obscure or equivocal, that resort should be had to presumptions or other means of explaining it.’
These words were cited with the approval by Balcombe LJ in Chebaro v Chebaro [1987] 1 All ER 999 at 1001, [1987] Fam 127 at 130–131, and the appellant contended that they can be applied in this case. That unfettered approach will not in reality work injustice because the discretionary power which the section grants to an arbitrator or umpire can only be exercised if, in addition to there being inordinate and inexcusable delay, it is shown that the delay will give rise to a substantial risk that it will not be possible to have a fair resolution of the issue, or the delay has caused or is likely to have caused substantial prejudice to the respondent. If a claimant has some explanation for his delay, even if it cannot really be said to amount to an excuse, it may be sufficient to persuade an arbitrator not to exercise his statutory powers, so there is no reason for the court to strain to give a narrow meaning to the words of the section to protect the claimant whose claim may be dismissed.
Mr Popplewell for the owners submits that the position of dilatory claimants deserves more consideration. Until the section came into force on 1 January 1992 they had a right to go to arbitration. They may even have been advised that nothing would be lost by delay, and they never even had to consider whether the delay by both parties was increasing the difficulty of arriving at a fair result, or causing any prejudice to the respondents. If the charterer is right then as soon as s 13A became law the rights of existing, albeit dilatory, claimants to proceed to arbitration were immediately and irreversibly jeopardised, and there is a long line of authority to suggest that in the absence of express words statutes should not be construed in that way. In Re Athlumney, ex p Wilson [1898] 2 QB 547 at 552, [1895–9] All ER Rep 329 at 331–332 Wright J said:
‘… a retrospective operation is not to be given to a statute so as to impair an existing right or obligation, otherwise than as regards matter of procedure, unless that effect cannot be avoided without doing violence to the language of the enactment.’
And in Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833 at 836, [1983] 1 AC 553 at 558 Lord Brightman said:
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‘… there is at common law a prima facie rule of construction that a statute should not be interpreted retrospectively so as to impair an existing right or obligation unless that result is unavoidable on the language used.’
Mr Popplewell contends that if the common law rule of construction is allowed to have effect the purposes of the section will still be achieved because the present problem only arises in relation to old claims with a substantial delay prior to 1 January 1992 and no significant delay thereafter. Within a short period of time the problem will resolve itself, assisted no doubt by a proper tendency on the part of the arbitrators and umpires to look critically at any delay since December 1991 in the light of what has gone before. The owners accept that if they are right claims will proceed where it can be shown that the pre-1992 delay will give rise to a substantial risk of unfairness or where it is likely that serious prejudice to the respondent may have been caused but, as Mr Popplewell points out, courts often have to wrestle with that sort of problem, as for example when a writ is issued at the very end of a limitation period.
Mr Popplewell submits that when one looks at the wording of s 13A, bearing in mind the problems and the common law rule of construction, it can be seen that the wording is equivocal. It is true that in s 13A(2)(a) the requirement is that there ‘has been’ inordinate and inexcusable delay, but, as Wright J suggested in Re Athlumney, ex p Wilson [1898] 2 QB 547 at 553, [1895–9] All ER Rep 329 at 332, that form of words is often used to refer to a time made past by anticipation. Perhaps more significantly Mr Popplewell submits that pre-1992 delay cannot properly be regarded as inexcusable because both parties were answerable for it (Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909), and prior to 1992 a dilatory claimant would not even be aware of the risk he ran. By contrast a claimant who has entered into his arbitration agreement after 1 January 1992 can reasonably be expected not only to be alive to the sanctions in s 13A but also to have exercised his option not to exclude them. All that, it is submitted, suggests that the common law rule of construction should be applied in this case. If it is not applied how should an arbitrator view pre-1992 delay which ex hypothesi was consensual? If it can be shown that the respondent consented to the delay, or indicated some agreement to proceed despite it, then if High Court principles are applied the delay cannot be relied upon (County and District Properties Ltd v Lyell (1977) [1991] 1 WLR 683) but a respondent may argue that prior to 1992 he had no choice but to consent.
Mr Aikens’s response to all that is first that properly understood the operation of this section is not retrospective and, secondly, that in any event the changes it introduces are procedural not substantive, and it is well recognised that procedural changes can be applied to pending disputes. The common law rule of construction does not apply to them.
In one sense it is true that the changes introduced by s 13A are not retrospective because it contains a power to dismiss which could only be exercised from the time that the section came into force. But in general the courts regard as retrospective any statute which operates on facts coming into existence before its commencement in the sense that it affects, even if for the future only, the consequences of past conduct: see 44 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 921. I recognise that in R v Inhabitants of Christchurch (1848) 12 QB 149 at 156, 116 ER 823 at 825 Lord Denman CJ said that no one would class statutes of limitation or prescription as retrospective merely because the space of time which is essential for their operation may consist in part of time passed before the Act, but as Lord Brightman pointed out in Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833 at 836, [1983] 1 AC 553 at 558, the expressions ‘retrospective’ and ‘procedural’ though useful in a particular context are equivocal and therefore can be
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misleading. In my judgment, where it is sought to invoke s 13A in relation to delay which occurred before the section came into force there is a sufficient element of retrospectivity to bring into play the rule of construction that a statute should not be interpreted so as to impair an existing right unless that result is unavoidable on the language used.
As was recognised by Wright J in Re Athlumney, ex p Wilson [1898] 2 QB 547, [1895–9] All ER Rep 329 and by Lord Brightman in Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833 at 836, [1983] 1 AC 553 at 558, there is said to be an exception in the case of a statute which is purely procedural because no person has a vested right in any particular course of procedure. Mr Aikens submits that the changes introduced by s 13A are purely procedural. They do not affect the trading contract out of which the dispute arose or the agreement to arbitrate, and he invites our attention to the decision of the House of Lords in A-G v Vernazza [1960] 3 All ER 97, [1960] AC 965 where a vexatious litigant was deprived of the ability to continue with proceedings by the use of a statutory power which only came into existence after proceedings had been commenced. Viscount Simonds described the power as a new remedy rather than one which affected substantive rights, and continued ([1960] 3 All ER 97 at 99, [1960] AC 965 at 975):
‘It would, I think, be wrong to say that a man was deprived of a vested or substantive right, if it was still left open to him to prosecute any claim which was not an abuse of process and for which there was a prima facie case.’
Similarly, Lord Denning said ([1960] 3 All ER 97 at 100, [1960] AC 965 at 977):
‘The new Act does not prevent the respondent from continuing proceedings which it is proper for him to carry on. It only prevents him from continuing proceedings which are an abuse of the process of the court. If the proceedings are not an abuse and he has prima facie grounds for them, then he will be given leave to continue them. There is no interference with a substantive right.’
It is, I believe, worth noting that the proceedings were an abuse of the process of the court, and I consider that where a statute seeks to regulate an abuse of process it is likely to be given an unrestricted interpretation. But the present situation is rather different. Delay, even if inordinate and inexcusable, cannot normally be described as an abuse of process, especially if it has to be regarded as consensual, and it seems to me that the changes introduced by s 13A cannot properly be described as purely procedural because they are capable of striking at a claimant’s rights. In Colonial Sugar Refining Co Ltd v Irving [1905] AC 369 the Privy Council considered the effect on a pending appeal of legislation which removed the right of appeal to that body and Lord Macnaughten said ([1905] AC 369 at 372):
‘To deprive a suitor in a pending action of an appeal to a superior tribunal which belonged to him as of right is a very different thing from regulating procedure.’
In A-G v Vernazza both Viscount Simonds and Lord Denning described Colonial Sugar Refining Co Ltd v Irving as being concerned with substantive rights. It seems to me that to deprive a claimant in a pending arbitration of the opportunity to proceed any further with his attempt to establish his claim is, as Lord Macnaughten said, a very different thing from regulating procedure. As Lord Brightman said in Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833 at 836, [1983] 1 AC 553 at 558:
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‘… an Act which is procedural in one sense may in particular circumstances do far more than regulate the course of proceedings, because it may, on one interpretation, revive or destroy the cause of action itself.’
That is precisely what is envisaged in the present case, so in my judgment s 13A does not come within the procedural exception to the common law rule of construction, and accordingly I too have come to the conclusion that this appeal must fail.
BELDAM LJ. By a voyage charterparty of 6 September 1984 the appellant chartered the respondents’ motor vessel Boucraa to carry a cargo of sulphur from Vancouver to Aqaba. By 7 October the vessel had been loaded in Vancouver with 31,500 tons of sulphur; it arrived at Aqaba on 18 November. Shortly after the cargo was discharged, the owners discovered damage to the holds which it alleged was due to active corrosive attack resulting from excessive watering of the sulphur to keep down dust in the course of loading. It claimed £180,000 as the cost of restoring the damage. The charterer disputed the claim. The parties had agreed that such disputes should be referred to arbitration and in August 1985 the owners’ claim was referred to a single arbitrator. Issues were finally joined by delivery of the owners’ reply on 14 November 1986. Neither party has taken any further step in the proceedings, though between January 1986 and November 1988 correspondence ensued about security for costs. The arbitrator, Mr Baker-Harber, wrote to the owners’ solicitors in April 1991 inquiring whether the reference was still effective. The owners’ solicitors advised that the claim was still alive and that they might propose a preliminary issue on the construction of clause 30 of the charterparty. They did not make such a proposal until 5 December 1991. Before it could be considered, s 102 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 had been brought into operation with effect from 1 January 1992. The charterer then applied to the arbitrator to strike out the owners’ claim for want of prosecution. By an interim final award on 13 August 1992, the arbitrator dismissed the owners’ claim. The owners appealed to Saville J who on 2 February 1993 allowed the appeal and set aside the interim award. The charterer now appeals to this court.
The question for the court is whether the arbitrator misdirected himself in holding that he could exercise the power conferred on him by s 13A of the Arbitration Act 1950 to dismiss the claim when all the relevant delay took place before the section came into force.
Section 13A provides:
‘(1) Unless a contrary intention is expressed in the arbitration agreement, the arbitrator or umpire shall have power to make an award dismissing any claim in a dispute referred to him if it appears to him that the conditions mentioned in subsection (2) are satisfied.
(2) The conditions are—(a) that there has been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the claimant in pursuing the claim; and (b) that the delay—(i) will give rise to a substantial risk that it is not possible to have a fair resolution of the issues in that claim; or (ii) has caused, or is likely to cause or to have caused, serious prejudice to the respondent.
(3) For the purpose of keeping the provision made by this section and the corresponding provision which applies in relation to proceedings in the High Court in step, the Secretary of State may by order made by statutory instrument amend subsection (2) above.
(4) Before making any such order the Secretary of State shall consult the Lord Chancellor and such other persons as he considers appropriate.
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(5) No such order shall be made unless a draft of the order has been laid before, and approved by resolution of, each House of Parliament.’
In his award the arbitrator held that there had been inordinate delay on the part of the claimants in pursuing their claim and that such delay was inexcusable; he found that there was a real risk of an unfair resolution of the issues in the claim and that the delay had caused real prejudice to the respondent.
These findings are not challenged but the owners succeeded before the learned judge on the argument that it was a fundamental rule of English law that no statute should be construed to have retrospective operation unless such a construction appeared very clearly in the terms of the Act or arose by necessary and direct implication (Maxwell The Interpretation of Statutes (12th edn, 1969) p 215).
The learned judge upheld this argument saying:
‘… the section in question so far as it concerns “inordinate and inexcusable delay” is … fairly capable of bearing only a prospective construction. Accordingly in my judgment the arbitrator erred in law in reaching the conclusion that this part of the section had retrospective effect.’
In the appeal the charterer argued that the learned judge had failed properly to analyse the rights and obligations of the parties to an arbitration reference before s 13A came into force and that he did not properly consider the nature of the power granted to an arbitrator by the new section; he had failed to take account of the fact that the presumption against retrospective effect of statutes does not apply to statutes affecting procedure, and the effect of s 13A was only procedural, and that he had paid insufficient regard to the nature of the mischief that the statutory provision was designed to correct.
The owners argued that the proper approach to the construction of the section was stated by Lord Brightman in Yew Bon Tew v Kenderaan Bas Mara [1982] 3 All ER 833 at 836, [1983] 1 AC 553 at 558 where he said:
‘… there is at common law a prima facie rule of construction that a statute should not be interpreted retrospectively so as to impair an existing right or obligation unless that result is unavoidable on the language used.’
Further Lord Brightman characterised as having retrospective operation any provision which would impair existing rights or obligations or attach a new disability in regard to events already past.
The provisions of s 13A impaired the owners’ right to pursue their claim in the reference to a hearing on the merits and attached a new disability in regard to events already past. Thus, unless it was an unavoidable construction from the language used, the section should not be construed to give the arbitrator power to dismiss the claim on grounds of delay occurring prior to 1 January 1992 when the section came into force. Alternatively the owners argued that effect could be given to the words of the statute by construing the power given to the arbitrator as a power to take delay prior to 1 January 1992 into account only when subsequent delay occurred and to the extent that a court exercising corresponding power could take into account delay prior to the issue of a writ or during the limitation period when considering the effect of subsequent delay. Thus, although the section had some retrospective effect, it would not deprive a claimant of an accrued right to proceed.
I approach the question of the interpretation of s 13A from the standpoint that it was introduced in response to criticism of the state of the law after the decision in Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1
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All ER 289, [1981] AC 909. The opinion of the majority in that case prompted calls for legislation to confer upon an arbitrator power to dismiss claims referred to him which, due to inordinate delay, he could no longer decide without substantial risk that the outcome would be unfair or unsatisfactory. As the law had been declared, the arbitrator had no power to dismiss such claims either on his own initiative or on application by one of the parties. On his own initiative because the powers conferred by s 5 of the Arbitration Act 1979 did not include such power; on application by a party because both parties were under a duty to apply to the arbitrator to put an end to the delay. As their obligation was a mutual obligation, a party equally in breach could not rely on the other’s breach to give him a right to treat the agreement to refer the dispute as at an end. So in Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp the respondent could not restrain the claimant by injunction from continuing the proceedings. Subsequent efforts to avoid the effect of this decision failed. Contentions that inordinate and inexcusable delay acquiesced in by both parties was evidence of abandonment or that such delay had frustrated the purpose of the agreement were rejected. In Food Corp of India v Antclizo Shipping Corp, The Antclizo [1988] 2 All ER 513 at 514, 521, [1988] 1 WLR 603 at 605, 609, Lord Bridge, Lord Brandon and Lord Goff all expressed concern at the absence of any provision which would enable claims in arbitrations to be struck out on the ground of inordinate delay in their prosecution and called for action to be taken by Parliament.
In this appeal each party relied on a presumption of Parliament’s intention to be inferred from the description given to the changes introduced. The charterer contended that the provisions are procedural and that, as procedural changes are intended for the benefit of both parties, they are deemed to have retrospective effect. The owners rely on the presumption that legislation which affects an accrued right is deemed not to be retrospective unless clear language is used. I understand procedural rules to be those provisions which prescribe the manner in which substantive legal rights are to be pursued. Section 13A is procedural in the sense that it gives the arbitrator a power additional to those under s 5 of the Arbitration Act 1979 and intended to ensure that the agreed aim of an expeditious and fair hearing will not be thwarted. But the power conferred is exercisable when a claimant has not previously been warned that further delay may result in dismissal of his claim. As such it does add a new disability to pursuit of an existing substantive legal right. If a procedural rule has this effect, it is not properly described as merely procedural; it can affect the claimant’s right to pursue his existing claim and as Lord Macnaughten said in Colonial Sugar Refining Co Ltd v Irving [1905] AC 369 at 372:
‘To deprive a suitor in a pending action of an appeal to a superior tribunal which belonged to him as of right is a very different thing from regulating procedure.’
I share Lord Brightman’s view that the use of descriptive epithets to classify statutory provisions and attribute to them consequences leading to a presumption is not helpful in determining the proper interpretation of the provisions, but I accept the long-established approach to construction that in the absence of clear words an enactment should not be taken to have been intended to affect accrued substantive rights.
In the present case it is conceded that s 13A does have retrospective effect at least to the extent that it plainly confers the power upon arbitrators in existing references. It therefore modifies the existing rights of the parties to the reference. The power conferred is clearly intended to correspond with the power exercised by a judge in the High Court on the principles set out in Allen v Sir Alfred McAlpine
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& Sons Ltd, Bostic v Bermondsey and Southwark Group Hospital Management Committee, Sternberg v Hammond [1968] 1 All ER 543, [1968] 2 QB 229, Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297 and Dept of Transport v Chris Smaller (Transport) Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 897, [1989] AC 1197. But, as Lord Diplock pointed out in the leading opinion of the majority in Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289 at 299–300, [1981] AC 909 at 984, comparing the practice of the court with the rules of procedure in arbitration:
‘… in an arbitration there is no fixed pattern of procedure: what steps are to be taken by each party in a particular arbitration and the timetable which each party must observe are matters to be determined by the arbitrator. In requiring particular steps to be taken by any party he is entitled to act not only on the application of a party to the arbitration but also on his own initiative; but he is not under any duty to do the latter, for in the absence of any application he is justified in assuming that both parties are satisfied with the way in which the proceedings leading up to his making of an award are progressing.’ (Lord Diplock’s emphasis.)
In the absence of words in s 13A restricting the arbitrator in the exercise of the power to cases where an application is made by a party, I see no reason why it should not be exercisable by him on his own initiative. He has been appointed to determine the dispute between the parties in accordance with natural justice. As Lord Diplock said in Mahon v Air New Zealand Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 201 at 210, [1984] AC 808 at 820–821:
‘The first rule is that the person making a finding in the exercise of such a jurisdiction must base his decision on evidence that has some probative value in the sense described below. The second rule is that he must listen fairly to any relevant evidence conflicting with the finding … The technical rules of evidence applicable to civil or criminal litigation form no part of the rules of natural justice. What is required by the first rule is that the decision to make the finding must be based on some material that tends logically to show the existence of facts consistent with the finding and that the reasoning supportive of the finding, if it be disclosed, is not logically self-contradictory.’ (Lord Diplock’s emphasis.)
To exercise the power conferred by s 13A, the arbitrator has first to decide that due to inordinate and inexcusable delay there is a real and substantial risk that a fair trial of the issues in the dispute is no longer possible. In Paal Wilson & Co A/S v Partenreederei Hannah Blumenthal, The Hannah Blumenthal [1983] 1 All ER 34 at 51, [1983] 1 AC 854 at 919 Lord Diplock equated this with ‘… after it has become virtually impossible that at the hearing the arbitrator can be confident that he has been able to ascertain the true facts …’
The judgment whether either of the conditions for the exercise of the power are fulfilled is left to the arbitrator who can be expected to approach the question as an experienced commercial man. If in his judgment he can no longer reach a decision based upon material which provides a basis for a reasoned and logical disposal in accordance with natural justice, he is obviously unable to fulfil the task which both parties have appointed him to carry out. Neither party has a right to require him to reach a decision which is contrary to natural justice or which may result in unfairness to the other party. As far as the condition in sub-s (2)(a) is concerned, the phrase ‘there has been inordinate and inexcusable delay on the part of the claimant’ is unrestricted. The use of the past tense is not in legislation necessarily significant but delay refers to conduct in the past and is unqualified. From the words used, there is no justification for restricting the power conferred
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on the arbitrator so that it precludes him from considering delay prior to 1 January 1992. Nor in sub-s (2)(b)(ii) is there any reason to prevent the arbitrator from considering prejudice caused to the respondent by events which have occurred prior to the enactment.
The right pursued by the owners in the reference is a claim under clause 30 of the charterparty for compensation for loss and expense due to damage to the ship’s hold. By the terms of the charterparty, the right is conditional upon a decision in the owners’ favour by an arbitrator appointed by the parties to decide the issues between them in accordance with natural justice and the right of each party to a fair trial of those issues. It was argued that the accrued right of the owners was to pursue the claim in accordance with the procedure before s 13A came into force; but the owners, no less than the charterer, had failed to comply with the mutual obligation described by Lord Diplock in Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909. The argument that the owners’ right was an accrued right was true only in the sense that the charterer by its breach of mutual obligation was precluded from restraining the owners from exercising their right to continue with the arbitration notwithstanding his breaches.
Before s 13A was enacted, the charterer’s inability to preserve its right to a fair, satisfactory and unprejudicial resolution of the issues was founded on its breach of the mutual obligation. One reason why Parliament was urged to act was because such breaches of obligation were regarded in commercial circles as unrealistic. If it was Parliament’s purpose to relieve a respondent to an arbitration from the consequence of such breaches then, although relief against past breaches could impair the claimant’s right to pursue the claim, that circumstance would not necessarily preclude such relief. In Quilter v Mapleson (1882) 9 QBD 672, a lessor had obtained judgment for possession of property on the ground that the lessee was in breach of his covenant to insure. The judgment was stayed pending the lessee’s appeal. Before the appeal was heard, the Conveyancing and Law of Property Act 1881 came into force under which a lessee could obtain relief against forfeiture for breach of such covenants. The court held that the lessee was entitled to claim relief although the statute was not to be considered retrospective unless it was clear that such a meaning was intended. The court placed much emphasis on the object of the legislature to give the lessee a right to relief which he did not previously possess but there were in that case other provisions of the Act from which its retrospective effect generally could be inferred. Thus I would regard the object of the legislature to give relief from the consequences of breach of contract and the fact that the enactment applies to existing contracts as significant in deciding whether it is intended to extend to past as well as future breaches.
Regarding s 13A as a measure to relieve the respondent to an arbitration from a disability which prevented him from seeking to preserve his right to a fair, satisfactory and unprejudicial resolution of the dispute, I see no indication from the language used that Parliament intended the power given to the arbitrator in an existing reference to be exercised only on grounds of delay in the future.
In support of the owners’ principal argument, two aspects of the comparable power exercised by the court were relied upon. The first related to the alternative submission that if the power conferred upon the arbitrator included power to take into account delay before s 13A came into force, it should be confined to the comparable power of a court to take delay prior to the issue of the proceedings and to the expiry of the limitation period into account only where there has been subsequent delay which has contributed to the risk that the case can no longer fairly be tried or has caused fresh prejudice to the other party. Although such an
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approach would involve an impairment of the owners’ accrued right, it does so to the least degree compatible with the words of the section. The second aspect of the court’s power relied on is the restriction on its exercise where a defendant has by his conduct led a plaintiff to believe that he is content for the case to go to trial, and is estopped from relying on the plaintiff’s failure to proceed.
In agreeing to submit a claim to arbitration the parties usually require the reference to be made within a much shorter period than a period of limitation. In the present case we were told that three months was the agreed period. The parties insert such a provision for commercial reasons. Each recognises that the obtaining of evidence and its reliability is an important aspect of the resolution of the dispute. The exigencies of commercial activity inevitably mean that parties may be unable to meet claims of which they are not given prompt notice and their attention is likely to be quickly diverted to another commercial venture. It is different from a case in which Parliament has provided a period which is to be deemed reasonably permitted for the bringing of a claim. Equally, since the obligation to proceed with the arbitration with expedition is a mutual obligation, the owners’ delay could not be regarded as ‘permitted’ by the terms of the agreement. It was in breach of them.
Accordingly I would reject the analogy with the approach made by a court in its exercise of the comparable power. Nor can I see an analogy based on estoppel. The owners did not alter their position in reliance on any request or conduct of the charterer. Mere inactivity by the defendant in an action does not give rise to estoppel so if the power granted to the arbitrator is to be regarded as comparable, and if as I believe one of the objects of the enactment of s 13A was to remove a respondent’s disability, I see no reason in the absence of express words to imply that the charterer’s earlier inactivity precludes the exercise by the arbitrator of the power conferred.
In my judgment the words of s 13A clearly confer on an arbitrator on his own initiative, or on the application of a respondent, power to dismiss a claim where he finds the conditions for its exercise fulfilled.
The circumstance that the arbitration can no longer be conducted without a substantial risk of unfairness or prejudice arises from breach by both parties of the mutual obligation which in accordance with the decision in Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909 it was their duty to fulfil. I can see no more reason to presume that Parliament had an intention to preserve an undeserving claimant’s right to pursue a claim to an unsatisfactory and prejudicial hearing than an intention to relieve an undeserving respondent from the substantial risk of an unfair decision against him. I would draw the inference from the unqualified grant to the arbitrator in existing references of the power to dismiss a claim by interim award that it is exercisable in any reference in which an arbitrator finds he is no longer able fairly and satisfactorily, and without prejudice, to decide the dispute which it was the intention of the parties he should resolve between them fairly and in accordance with natural justice. For these reasons I would allow the appeal.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
5 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords granted leave to the charterer to ap-peal.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Surrey County Council and another v Bredero Homes Ltd
[1993] 3 All ER 705
Categories: CONTRACT
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, STEYN AND ROSE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 5, 6, 7 APRIL 1993
Contract – Damages for breach – Breach of covenant – Measure of damages – Transferors conveying land to developer subject to covenant incorporating approved development scheme for housing estate – Developer obtaining increased profits by building additional houses in breach of covenant – Transferors seeking damages equal to value to developer of modification to covenant to permit additional to development – Whether transferors entitled to recover substantial or nominal damages – Whether damages to be measured by reference to compensation for plaintiff’s loss – Whether damages to be measured by reference to compensation for defendant’s gain from breach of contract.
Two plaintiff councils were the respective registered freehold owners of two adjoining parcels of land totalling 12.33 acres in area which had been acquired originally for road purposes. By 1980 the land was no longer required for those purposes and the councils, acting together, decided to offer the entire site for development as a housing estate. The councils subsequently accepted an offer by the defendant development company which in the councils’ view represented the best balance between the amount offered and development scheme submitted. By a contract in writing dated 28 November 1980 the councils agreed to sell the entire site to the defendant for £1.52m, subject to the defendant obtaining planning permission for the development of the site in accordance with the councils’ development brief and the scheme for the development of the site. The defendant duly obtained the necessary planning permission and by transfers dated 22 January 1981 the councils transferred the land to it. Under cl 2 of each transfer the defendant covenanted with each council that it would carry out the development of the housing estate in accordance with the terms of the planning permission and the approved scheme. The defendant subsequently obtained fresh planning permission which enabled it to build more houses on the site than the number specified in the approved scheme and it completed the development by building the extra houses without seeking any modification of the development covenants. The development was thus more profitable than that originally authorised. The councils, although aware of the breach of the covenants in the transfers, did not seek an injunction or specific performance to compel the defendant to develop the housing estate in accordance with the development covenants. However, after the defendant had disposed of all the houses on the estate, the councils brought proceedings against it for damages for breach of the covenants equal to the payment that might have been extracted from the defendant in return for agreed modifications to the covenants so as to authorise the more profitable development which had in fact been carried out. The defendant accepted that it was in breach of the covenants, but denied that the councils were entitled to recover anything more than nominal damages, contending (i) that the correct measure of damages for the breach was the sum of money which would restore the councils to the position in which they would have been if the covenants had been performed, with the result that the court was concerned only with the councils’ loss and not with any profit made by the
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defendant by reason of the breach of the covenants, and (ii) that the councils had not suffered any loss and were not entitled to recover substantial damages. The judge held that the councils were only entitled to recover nominal, as distinct from substantial, damages at common law. The councils appealed.
Held – The remedy at common law for breach of contract was the award of damages to compensate the victim for his loss, not to transfer to the victim, if he had suffered no loss, the benefit which the wrongdoer had gained by his breach of contract. Furthermore, the innocent party was to be placed, so far as money could do so, in the same position as if the contract had been performed. Although damages might in an appropriate case cover profit which the injured plaintiff had lost, they did not cover an award to the plaintiffs of the profit which the defendant had gained for himself by his breach of contract when the plaintiff had himself suffered no loss. Since the plaintiff councils had not suffered any loss, it followed that the damages recoverable had to be merely nominal. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 709 j to p 710 d g, p 713 j to 714 a to e and p 716 a b h j, post).
Dictum of Parke B in Robinson v Harman [1843–60] All ER Rep 383 at 385 applied.
Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 321 and dictum of Lord Wilberforce in Johnson v Agnew [1979] 1 All ER 883 at 895–896 considered.
Decision of Ferris J [1992] 3 All ER 302 affirmed.
NotesFor compensation and general principles relating to the measure of damages, see 12 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1123–1133, and for cases on the subject, see 17 Digest (Reissue) 86–90, 101–119, 25–46, 109–208.
Cases referred to in judgmentsAnglia Television Ltd v Reed [1971] 3 All ER 690, [1972] 1 QB 60, [1971] 3 WLR 528, CA.
Bracewell v Appleby [1975] 1 All ER 993, [1975] Ch 408, [1975] 2 WLR 282.
British Westinghouse Electric and Manufacturing Co Ltd v Underground Electric Rlys Co of London Ltd [1912] AC 673, [1911–13] All ER Rep 63, HL.
Carr-Saunders v Dick McNeil Associates Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 888, [1986] 1 WLR 922.
Griffiths v Kingsley-Stubbs [1986] CA Transcript 506.
Hadley v Baxendale (1854) 9 Exch 341, [1843–60] All ER Rep 461, 156 ER 145.
Jegon v Vivian (1871) LR 6 Ch App 742, LC.
Johnson v Agnew [1979] 1 All ER 883, [1980] AC 367, [1979] 2 WLR 487, HL.
Lever v Goodwin (1887) 36 Ch D 1, [1886–90] All ER Rep 427, CA.
Penarth Dock Engineering Co Ltd v Pounds [1963] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 359.
Phillips v Homfray, Fothergill v Phillips (1871) LR 6 Ch App 770, LC.
Robinson v Harman (1848) 1 Exch 850, [1843–60] All ER Rep 383, 154 ER 363.
Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd [1988] 3 All ER 394, [1988] 1 WLR 1406, CA.
Strand Electric and Engineering Co Ltd v Brisford Entertainments Ltd [1952] 1 All ER 796, [1952] 2 QB 246, CA.
Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129, [1977] Ch 106, [1977] 2 WLR 496.
Walford v Miles [1992] 1 All ER 453, [1992] 2 AC 128, [1992] 2 WLR 174, HL.
Wallington v Townsend [1939] 2 All ER 225, [1939] Ch 588.
Watson Laidlaw & Co Ltd v Pott Cassels and Williamson (1914) 31 RPC 104, HL.
Whitwham v Westminster Brymbo Coal and Coke Co [1896] 2 Ch 538, CA.
Page 707 of [1993] 3 All ER 705
Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 321, [1974] 1 WLR 798.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments Albazero, The, Albacruz (cargo owners) v Albazero (owners) [1976] 3 All ER 129, [1977] AC 774, HL.
Arbutus Park Estates Ltd v Fuller (1976) 74 DLR (3d) 257, BC SC.
Banco de Portugal v Waterlow & Sons Ltd, Waterlow & Sons Ltd v Banco de Portugal [1932] AC 452, [1932] All ER Rep 181, HL.
British Motor Trade Association v Gilbert [1951] 2 All ER 641.
CCC Films (London) Ltd v Impact Quadrant Films Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 298, [1985] QB 16.
Cullinane v British ‘Rema’ Manufacturing Co Ltd [1953] 2 All ER 1257, [1954] 1 QB 292, CA.
Dean v Ainley [1987] 3 All ER 748, [1987] 1 WLR 1729, CA.
Heron II, The, Koufos v C Czarnikow Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 686, [1969] 1 AC 350, HL.
Joyner v Weeks [1891] 2 QB 31, CA.
Lloyd v Stanbury [1971] 2 All ER 267, [1971] 1 WLR 535.
Lock v Furze (1866) 1 LRCP 441, Ex Ch.
Marine and General Mutual Life Assurance Society v St James’ Real Estate Co Ltd [1991] 38 EG 230, Mayor’s Ct.
Monarch Steamship Co Ltd v A/B Karlshamns Oljefabriker [1949] 1 All ER 1, [1949] AC 196, HL.
Peeveyhouse v Garland Coal and Mining Co (1962) 382 P 2d 109, Okla SC.
Radford v De Froberville [1978] 1 All ER 33, [1977] 1 WLR 1262.
Reid-Newfoundland Co v Anglo-American Telegraph Co Ltd [1912] AC 555, PC.
Sampon & Samson Ltd v Proctor [1975] 1 NZLR 655, NZ SC.
Shadwell v Hutchinson (1830) 4 C & P 333, 172 ER 728, NP.
SJC Construction Co Ltd v Sutton London BC (1975) 29 P & CR 322, CA.
Sotiros Shipping Inc v Sameiet Soholt, The Soholt [1983] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 605, CA.
Swordheath Properties Ltd v Tabet [1979] 1 All ER 240, [1979] 1 WLR 285, CA.
Watts, Watts & Co Ltd v Mitsui & Co Ltd [1917] AC 227, [1916–17] All ER Rep 501, HL.
Wertheim v Chicoutimi Pulp Co [1911] AC 301, [1908–10] All ER Rep 707, PC.
Wolverhampton Corp v Emmons [1901] 1 KB 515, CA.
Wroth v Tyler [1973] 1 All ER 897, [1974] Ch 30.
Wrotham Park Settled Estates v Hertsmere BC [1991] 1 EGLR 230.
YJD Restaurant Supply Co Inc v Dib (1979) 413 NYS 2d 835, NY SC.
AppealThe plaintiffs, Surrey County Council and Mole Valley District Council, appealed against the decision of Ferris J ([1992] 3 All ER 302) given on 21 November 1991 whereby he awarded the plaintiffs nominal damages only against the defendant, Bredero Homes Ltd, for breach of a covenant to develop two adjoining parcels of land lying to the west of a highway known as The Ridgeway, Fetcham, Leatherhead, Surrey as a housing estate in accordance with the planning permission granted by Mole Valley District Council on 11 December 1980, which covenant was contained in two transfers of the land dated 22 January 1981 under which the two councils conveyed the land to Bredero. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Sir William Goodhart QC and Bernard Weatherill (instructed by Howell-Jones & Partners, Kingston upon Thames) for the councils.
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Colin Rimer QC and Nicholas Peacock (instructed by Turner Kenneth Brown) for Bredero Homes.
DILLON LJ. This is an appeal by the plaintiffs, the Surrey County Council and the Mole Valley District Council, against a decision of Ferris J given on 21 November 1991, after the hearing of issues directed by an earlier order. By his decision the learned judge awarded the plaintiffs nominal damages only against the defendant, Bredero Homes Ltd, for breaches of virtually identical positive covenants contained in transfers by the plaintiffs to the defendant of certain land in Surrey in 1981.
The facts are straightforward and not in dispute. I can take them from the judgment of the learned judge.
In 1980 the Surrey County Council and the Mole Valley District Council were respectively the registered proprietors with absolute title of two adjoining parcels of land lying to the west of The Ridgeway, Fetcham at Leatherhead in Surrey. The total area of the two parcels was some 12.33 acres. The land had originally been acquired by the councils or their predecessors for road purposes but, by 1980, it was no longer required for these purposes and the two councils decided to act together in offering the entire site for development as a housing estate.
The defendant made an offer which included a purchase price of £1.52m. This led to a contract, dated 28 November 1980, between the two plaintiffs as vendors and the defendant as purchaser. This contract was completed by two transfers both dated 22 January 1981—one being by the Mole Valley District Council and the other by the Surrey County Council. The transfer made by the Mole Valley District Council contained a covenant by the defendant with that council:
‘To commence the development of the land hereby transferred in accordance with the planning permission issued by Mole Valley District Council reference number MO/80/1214 and dated 11th December 1980 within six months from the date hereof and thereafter to diligently pursue the development of the land hereby transferred to its completion complying with the said planning permission …’
The transfer by the Surrey County Council was in substantially the same terms. The planning permission MO/80/1214 there referred to, ‘the first planning permission’, was granted on the application of the defendant. It provided for the development of the land, ie both parcels taken together, by the erection of 72 detached bungalows and houses in six different designs according to a layout as shown in certain drawings.
The defendant started work on the development in accordance with the first planning permission. There were certain minor alterations by way of modification of that planning permission but these do not matter.
A bit later, however, the defendant applied for and obtained, on 29 June 1983, from the Mole Valley District Council as the planning authority, a planning permission which had the effect of raising the total number of dwellings to be built on the estate from 72 to 77, the main changes being a reduction in the number of four-bedroom houses and an increase in the number of three-bedroom houses—the size and arrangement of plots being amended, but the layout of roads and verges remaining unchanged. This planning permission, the ‘later planning permission’, was given the reference number MO/83/0368 and it related to 3.64 acres of the land.
The defendant then completed the development of those final 3.64 acres in accordance with the later planning permission and not, as had been covenanted, in accordance with the first planning permission.
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The plaintiffs object to the development of the final 3.64 acres, in accordance with the later planning permission, not on planning grounds, but on the grounds that the later permission enabled the defendant to build 77 rather than 72 houses and bungalows on the two adjoining parcels. There is no objection on planning grounds, not surprisingly, since it was the Mole Valley District Council which granted the later planning permission.
The objection is on the ground that it was a more profitable planning permission for the defendant than the first planning permission because more houses were built. As a legal basis it is said by the plaintiffs and conceded by the defendant that in building 77 houses in all under the later planning permission, rather than 72 under the first planning permission, the defendant has acted in breach of the covenants in the transfers.
The plaintiffs therefore seek damages. They have never sought an interim injunction to restrain the defendant from developing the land otherwise than in accordance with the first planning permission. They never sought an injunction at the trial requiring the defendant to pull down the completed houses. They recognised that there was never any practical possibility of such an injunction being granted. There was a formal amendment of the relief sought at the trial to raise in form a claim for an injunction, but that was not pursued. The plaintiffs have merely sought damages which have been described as ‘damages at common law’, as opposed to ‘damages in equity under Lord Cairns’s Act’ (the Chancery Amendment Act 1858). The plaintiffs accept that they have not suffered any damage at all of the nature of damage to adjoining property owned or occupied by them. What they claim as damages is essentially the profit made by the defendant by breaking the covenants and building 77 houses and not just 72—or, since the defendant wishes to be modest in its demands in putting forward a somewhat revolutionary development of the law of damages, such a part of the profit as would reflect the reasonable premium that the defendant should have paid them for contractual permission by way of relaxation of the covenants to build the 77 houses rather than 72.
Indeed, the plaintiffs say, and I have no reason to doubt, that their sole purpose in imposing the covenants at all—to commence and pursue the development to its completion in accordance with the first planning permission—was that the defendant would have to apply for and pay for a relaxation if it wanted to build anything more.
It is of course clear that had the contracts been worded otherwise there could have been provision for the payment by the defendant of an additional price of a specified amount or fixed by an appropriate formula for each extra house or bungalow, if they or their successors in title built more than 72 houses or bungalows on the land within a specified period, but that is not the contract that was made.
In putting forward the claim for damages with which we are concerned, the plaintiffs rely very strongly on the decision of Brightman J in Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 321, [1974] 1 WLR 798, to which I shall have to come.
The starting point, however, in my judgment is that the remedy at common law for a breach of contract is an award of damages and damages at common law are intended to compensate the victim for his loss, not to transfer to the victim, if he has suffered no loss, the benefit which the wrongdoer has gained by his breach of contract. Thus it is stated in Chitty on Contracts (26th edn, 1989) vol 1, para 1771:
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‘Damages for a breach of contract committed by the defendant are a compensation to the plaintiff for the damage, loss or injury he has suffered through that breach.’
Similarly in British Westinghouse Electric and Manufacturing Co Ltd v Underground Electric Rlys Co of London Ltd [1912] AC 673 at 689, [1911–13] All ER Rep 63 at 69 Viscount Haldane LC said:
‘The fundamental basis is thus compensation for pecuniary loss naturally flowing from the breach …’
In Johnson v Agnew [1979] 1 All ER 883 at 896, [1980] AC 367 at 400 Lord Wilberforce said:
‘The general principle for the assessment of damages is compensatory …’
Each of these three statements is accompanied by a statement to the effect that the innocent party is to be placed, so far as money can do so, in the same position as if the contract had been performed. That follows the wording of the statement of the rule of the common law by Parke B in Robinson v Harman (1848) 1 Exch 850 at 855, [1843–60] All ER Rep 383 at 385. That rule has been referred to in argument in the present case as the ‘conventional’ rule.
Sir William Goodhart QC for the plaintiffs has pointed out that the conventional rule is not of universal application in that there are cases in which the plaintiff is awarded not what is required to place him in the same situation as if the contract had been performed, but what is required to recoup to him the expenditure which he has incurred which has been wasted because the contract has not been performed: see, for instance, Wallington v Townsend [1939] 2 All ER 225, [1939] Ch 588 and Anglia Television Ltd v Reed [1971] 3 All ER 690, [1972] 1 QB 60.
The principle is still compensation for loss. The difference is merely that there are cases where the contract has so palpably not been performed at all that it would be unreal to assume that it had been performed and impossible to calculate damages on such an unreal assumption.
Every student is taught that the basis of assessing damages for breach of contract is the rule in Hadley v Baxendale (1854) 9 Exch 341, [1843–60] All ER Rep 461, which is wholly concerned with the losses which can be compensated by damages. Such damages may, in an appropriate case, cover profit which the injured plaintiff has lost, but they do not cover an award to a plaintiff who has himself suffered no loss, of the profit which the defendant has gained for himself by his breach of contract.
In the field of tort there are areas where the law is different and the plaintiff can recover in respect of the defendant’s gain. Thus in the field of trespass it is well established that if one person has, without leave of another, been using that other’s land for his own purposes he ought to pay for such user. Thus even if he had done no actual harm to the land he was charged for the user of the land. This was applied originally in wayleave cases where a person had without authority used his neighbour’s land for passage: see, for instance, Jegon v Vivian (1871) LR 6 Ch App 742 and Phillips v Homfray, Fothergill v Phillips (1871) LR 6 Ch App 770.
The same principle was applied where the defendant had trespassed by tipping spoil on the plaintiff’s land: see Whitwham v Westminster Brymbo Coal and Coke Co [1896] 2 Ch 538.
The same principle was applied to patent infringement by the House of Lords in Watson Laidlaw & Co Ltd v Pott Cassels and Williamson (1914) 31 RPC 104. The infringer was ordered to pay by way of damages a royalty for every infringing
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article because the infringement damaged the plaintiff’s property right, that is to say his patent monopoly. So in a case of detinue the defendant was ordered to pay a hire for chattels he had detained: see Strand Electric and Engineering Co Ltd v Brisford Entertainments Ltd [1952] 1 All ER 796, [1952] 2 QB 246.
Those cases do not apply in the present case as the defendant has made no use of any property of either plaintiff.
The cases have been taken still further in some fields of tort, particularly concerned with intellectual property, where it is well established that the plaintiff can choose to have either damages or an account of profits made by the defendant by his wrongful acts: see, for instance, Lever v Goodwin (1887) 36 Ch D 1 at 7, [1886–90] All ER Rep 427 at 429–430 per Cotton LJ. This is in line with the long-established common law doctrine of waiving the tort.
The liability in the present case is solely in contract and not in tort.
I come then to the Wrotham Park case. In that case the predecessor in title of the plaintiffs had, in 1935, sold some land to a predecessor in title of the defendants, subject to a restrictive covenant restricting building to a particular layout. That covenant was duly registered under the Land Charges Act 1925. In 1971 the land was sold to the defendant, who had no actual knowledge of the restrictive covenant and proceeded to build 14 houses on the land in breach of the covenant. In early 1972 the plaintiffs, as successors in title to the benefit of the covenant, issued their writ against the defendant claiming an injunction to restrain building in breach of the covenant, and demolition of anything built in breach. The plaintiffs made no application for an interim injunction. By the time the action came on for trial in July 1973, the 14 houses had all been completed and sold to purchasers with the benefit of indemnity insurance policies. At the trial Brightman J held that the plaintiffs were indeed entitled to the benefit of the covenant and the defendant was bound by it.
For obvious reasons however—that he could not shut his eyes to the fact that the houses existed and it would be an unpardonable waste of much needed houses to direct that they be pulled down—he refused to grant a mandatory injunction. He commented that no damage of a financial nature had been done to the plaintiffs by the breach of the covenant and proceeded to consider what damages, if any, he should award under the jurisdiction which had originated under Lord Cairns’s Act to award damages in substitution for an injunction.
It was submitted to him that the damages should be nil or purely nominal because the value of the Wrotham Park estate was not diminished by one farthing in consequence of the breach of covenant.
But Brightman J concluded that such a result would be of questionable fairness. He said ([1974] 2 All ER 321 at 339, [1974] 1 WLR 798 at 812):
‘If, for social and economic reasons, the court does not see fit in the exercise of its discretion, to order demolition of the 14 houses, is it just that the plaintiffs should receive no compensation and that the defendants should be left in undisturbed possession of the fruits of their wrongdoing?’
He then referred to the wayleave cases and Whitwham v Westminster Brymbo Coal and Coke Co, and the other cases which I have mentioned where the same principle has been applied.
He concluded that the appropriate course was that the defendant should pay by way of damages the sum which the plaintiffs might hypothetically have been willing to pay—though actually they would never have been willing to relax the covenant to permit the defendant to do what it wanted to do on the land. He fixed that at a small percentage of the defendant’s anticipated profit from building the 14 houses on the land.
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The difficulty about the decision in the Wrotham Park case is that in Johnson v Agnew Lord Wilberforce, after citing certain decisions on the scope and basis of Lord Cairns’s Act, which were not cited to Brightman J, stated in the clearest terms that on the balance of those authorities, and on principle, he found in the Act no warrant for the court awarding damages differently from common law damages (see [1979] 1 All ER 883 at 896, [1980] AC 367 at 400).
Sir William Goodhart submits that it follows from that analysis by Lord Wilberforce in Johnson v Agnew that the damages awarded by Brightman J in the Wrotham Park case were indeed damages assessed on recognised common law principles which should, so he says, be applied in the present case.
I doubt, however, whether that does follow from Lord Wilberforce’s analysis in Johnson v Agnew. As I read his judgment Brightman J was not seeking to analyse the scope or basis of the court’s jurisdiction under Lord Cairns’s Act. He merely concluded that, as Parliament had expressly empowered the court to grant damages in lieu of an injunction, Parliament must have intended that in every case the court must be able to award such damages as would achieve a fair result between the parties and would not be limited to awarding nominal damages only. He sought to apply that conclusion.
That involves a conclusion by the judge that Lord Cairns’s Act affected a substantive change in the law of damages and was not a merely procedural statute as Johnson v Agnew has held. It is unnecessary to refer further in this judgment to the Wrotham Park case since that was under Lord Cairns’s Act and stands or falls by that; whereas, the present case is not, and makes no pretence of being, under that Act. I should however mention in passing that we were referred to a number of cases where the measure of damages chosen by Brightman J in the Wrotham Park case was applied by other judges. For instance Bracewell v Appleby [1975] 1 All ER 993, [1975] Ch 408, Carr-Saunders v Dick McNeil Associates Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 888, [1986] 1 WLR 922 and Griffiths v Kingsley-Stubbs [1986] CA Transcript 506 decided by this court on 3 June 1986, but unreported. All those were cases where the plaintiff’s cause of action lay in tort, either trespass or nuisance, where the defendant had interfered with the plaintiff’s property rights. The decisions and awards of damages are amply justified by the common law principles in tort of the wayleave cases and Whitwham’s case, already mentioned.
Given that the established basis of an award of damages in contract is compensation for the plaintiff’s loss, as indicated above, I have difficulty in seeing how Sir William Goodhart’s suggested common law principle of awarding the plaintiff, who has suffered no loss, the gain which the defendant has made by the breach of contract, is intended to go. Is it to apply, for instance, to shipping contracts or contracts of employment or contracts for building works?
Sir William suggested, in his and Mr Weatherill’s skeleton argument, that the conventional measure fails to do justice and a different measure should be applied where the following conditions are satisfied: (a) the breach is deliberate, in the sense that the defendant is deliberately doing an act which he knows or should know is plainly or arguably in breach of contract; (b) the defendant, as a result of the breach, has profited by making a gain or reducing a loss; (c) at the date of the breach it is clear or probable that damages under the conventional measure will either be nominal or much smaller than the profit to the defendant from the breach; and (d) if the profit results from the avoidance of expenditure, the expenditure would not have been economically wasteful or grossly disproportionate to the benefit which would have resulted from it.
He suggested in that paragraph in the skeleton argument that the underlying principle might be that the conventional measure of damages might be
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overridden ‘in certain circumstances’ by the rule that no one should benefit from his deliberate wrongdoing. In the course of his submissions Sir William limited his formulation and while retaining conditions (a), (b) and (c), substituted for condition (d) the following:
‘Damages for loss of bargaining power can be awarded if—but only if—the party in breach could have been restrained by injunction from committing the breach of contract or compelled by specific performance to perform the contract. Where no such possibility existed, there was no bargaining power in reality and no right to damages for loss of it. Hence, damages for loss of bargaining power cannot be awarded where there is (for example) a contract for the sale of goods or (generally) a contract of employment.’
I find difficulty with that because in theory every time there is a breach of contract the injured party is deprived of his ‘bargaining power’ to negotiate for a financial consideration a variation of the contract which would enable the party who wants to depart from its terms to do what he wants to do. In addition it has been held in Walford v Miles [1992] 1 All ER 453, [1992] 2 AC 128 that an agreement to negotiate is not an animal known to the law and a duty to negotiate in good faith is unworkable in practice—and so I find it difficult to see why loss of bargaining or negotiating power should become an established factor in the assessment of damages for breach of contract.
Beyond that, since we are looking for the measure of damages at common law for breach of contract, apart from Lord Cairns’s Act, I do not see why that should vary depending on whether the party in breach could or could not have been restrained by injunction from committing the breach or compelled by specific performance to perform the contract. Injunctions and specific performance were not remedies in the common law courts and were granted by the Court of Chancery, which, before Lord Cairns’s Act, had no power to award damages, just because the common law remedy of damages was not an adequate remedy.
We were referred, in the course of Sir William’s argument, to a number of other cases and, in particular, to passages in the judgment of Megarry V-C in Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129, [1977] Ch 106 and to the decision of this court in Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd [1988] 3 All ER 394, [1988] 1 WLR 1406. In the latter case this court upheld the general principle that in tort a plaintiff recovered damages equivalent to the loss he had suffered and held also that the ‘user’ principle in the wayleave cases and Whitwham v Westminster Brymbo Coal and Coke Co should not be extended to cover infringement of a market right of the plaintiff council by the holding by the defendant of an unauthorised market where the plaintiff could not show he had suffered any actual loss by the infringement. What was sought in that case was damages calculated by reference to a notional licence fee that the plaintiff council might have charged for permitting the defendant’s infringement but that was refused. I need not refer to the cases further.
As I see it, therefore, there never was in the present case, even before the writ was issued, any possibility of the court granting an injunction to restrain the defendant from implementing the later planning permission. The plaintiff’s only possible claim from the outset was for damages only, damages at common law.
The plaintiffs have suffered no damage. Therefore on basic principles, as damages are awarded to compensate loss, the damages must be merely nominal.
For these reasons, which substantially accord with those of Ferris J, I would dismiss this appeal.
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STEYN LJ. I agree. The issue in this appeal was defined by Sir William Goodhart QC for the appellants as the correct measure of damages in a case where the following three circumstances are satisfied: (a) there has been a deliberate breach of contract; (b) the party in breach has made a profit from that breach; and (c) the innocent party is in financial terms in the same position as if the contract had been fully performed. It is an important issue, with considerable implications for the shape of our law of obligations, and I therefore add a few remarks of my own.
Dillon LJ has reviewed the relevant case law. It would not be a useful exercise for me to try to navigate through those much travelled waters again. Instead, it seems to me that it may possibly be useful to consider the question from the point of view of the application at first principles. An award of compensation for breach of contract serves to protect three separate interests. The starting principle is that the aggrieved party ought to be compensated for loss of his positive or expectation interests. In other words, the object is to put the aggrieved party in the same financial position as if the contract had been fully performed. But the law also protects the negative interest of the aggrieved party. If the aggrieved party is unable to establish the value of a loss of bargain he may seek compensation in respect of his reliance losses. The object of such an award is to compensate the aggrieved party for expenses incurred and losses suffered in reliance of the contract. These two complementary principles share one feature. Both are pure compensatory principles. If the aggrieved party has suffered no loss he is not entitled to be compensated by invoking these principles. The application of these principles to the present case would result in an award of nominal damages only.
There is, however, a third principle which protects the aggrieved party’s restitutionary interest. The object of such an award is not to compensate the plaintiff for a loss, but to deprive the defendant of the benefit he gained by the breach of contract. The classic illustration is a claim for the return of goods sold and delivered where the buyer has repudiated his obligation to pay the price. It is not traditional to describe a claim for restitution following a breach of contract as damages. What matters is that a coherent law of obligations must inevitably extend its protection to cover certain restitutionary interests. How far that protection should extend is the essence of the problem before us. In my view Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 321, [1974] 1 WLR 798 is only defensible on the basis of the third or restitutionary principle (see McGregor on Damages (15th edn, 1988) para 18 and Professor P B H Birks Civil Wrongs: A New World, Butterworths Lectures [1990–1991] 55 at 71). The appellants’ argument that the Wrotham Park case can be justified on the basis of a loss of bargaining opportunity is a fiction. The object of the award in the Wrotham Park case was not to compensate the plaintiff for financial injury, but to deprive the defendants of an unjustly acquired gain. Whilst it must be acknowledged that Wrotham Park represented a new development, it seems to me that it is based on a principle of legal theory, justice and sound policy. In the respondent’s skeleton argument some doubt was cast, by way of alternative submission, on the correctness of the award of damages for breach of covenant in the Wrotham Park case. In my respectful view it was rightly decided and represents a useful development in our law. In Tito v Waddell (No 2) [1977] 3 All ER 129 at 319, [1977] Ch 106 at 335–336 Megarry V-C interpreted the Wrotham Park case, and the decision in Bracewell v Appleby [1975] 1 All ER 993, [1975] Ch 408, which followed Wrotham Park, as cases of the invasion of property rights. I respectfully agree. Wrotham Park is analogous to cases where a defendant has made use of the aggrieved party’s property and thereby saved expenses: see Penarth Dock Engineering Co Ltd v Pounds
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[1963] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 359. I readily accept that the word ‘property’ in this context must be interpreted in a wide sense. I would also not suggest that there is no scope for further development in this branch of the law.
But in the present case we are asked to extend the availability of restitutionary remedies for breach of contract considerably. I question the desirability of any such development. The acceptance of the appellants’ primary or alternative submissions, as outlined by Dillon LJ, will have a wide-ranging impact on our commercial law. Even the alternative and narrower submission will, for example, cover charterparties and contracts of affreightment where the remedy of a negative injunction may be available. Moreover, so far as the narrower submission restricts the principle to cases where the remedies of specific performance and injunction would have been available, I must confess that that seems to me a bromide formula without any rationale in logic or common sense. Given a breach of contract, why should the availability of a restitutionary remedy, as a matter of legal entitlement, be dependent on the availability of the wholly different and discretionary remedies of injunctions specific to performance? If there is merit in the argument I cannot see any sense in restricting a compensatory remedy which serves to protect the restitutionary interests to cases where there would be separate remedies of specific performance or injunction, designed directly and indirectly to enforce payment, available.
For my part I would hold that if Sir William’s wider proposition fails, the narrower one must equally fail. Both submissions hinge on the defendant’s breach being deliberate. Sir William invoked the principle that a party is not entitled to take advantage of his own wrongdoing. Despite Sir William’s disclaimer it seems to me that the acceptance of the propositions formulated by him will inevitably mean that the focus will be on the motive of the party who committed the breach of contract. That is contrary to the general approach of our law of contract and, in particular, to rules governing the assessment of damages. In my view there are also other policy reasons which militate against adopting either Sir William’s primary or narrower submission. The introduction of restitutionary remedies to deprive cynical contract breakers of the fruits of their breaches of contract will lead to greater uncertainty in the assessment of damages in commercial and consumer disputes. It is of paramount importance that the way in which disputes are likely to be resolved by the courts must be readily predictable. Given the premise that the aggrieved party has suffered no loss, is such a dramatic extension of restitutionary remedies justified in order to confer a windfall in each case on the aggrieved party? I think not. In any event such a widespread availability of restitutionary remedies will have a tendency to discourage economic activity in relevant situations. In a range of cases such liability would fall on underwriters who have insured relevant liability risks. Inevitably underwriters would have to be compensated for the new species of potential claims. Insurance premiums would have to go up. That, too, is a consequence which militates against the proposed extension. The recognition of the proposed extension will in my view not serve the public interest. It is sound policy to guard against extending the protection of the law of obligations too widely. For these substantive and policy reasons I regard it as undesirable that the range of restitutionary remedies should be extended in the way in which we have been invited to do so.
The present case involves no breach of fiduciary obligations. It is a case of breach of contract. The principles governing expectation or reliance losses cannot be invoked. Given the fact of the breach of contract the only question is
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whether restitution is an appropriate remedy for this wrong. The case does not involve any invasion of the plaintiff property interests even in the broadest sense of that word, nor is it closely analogous to the Wrotham Park position. I would therefore rule that no restitutionary remedy is available and there is certainly no other remedy available.
I would dismiss the appeal.
ROSE LJ. I agree. I also agree with the reasons given in both the previous judgments.
A feature which to my mind is capable of distinguishing the present case from Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 321, [1974] 1 WLR 798 is not just that damages were sought there in equity and here in contract at common law, but the different conduct of the respective plaintiffs in response to the breach of covenant.
In the Wrotham Park case the plaintiffs objected to building works in breach of covenant as soon as they learnt of them and, within a month, issued a writ seeking restraining and mandatory injunctions. They would not have granted any relaxation of the covenants even if this had been sought. From first to last they objected to what the defendants did. I find it unsurprising that in consequence Brightman J awarded them substantial damages in equity as an alternative to a mandatory injunction. He did so in order to achieve a just result (see [1974] 2 All ER 321 at 341, [1974] 1 WLR 798 at 815).
In the present case, from first to last the plaintiffs have neither objected, nor wished to object, to what the defendants have done. The fact that the plaintiffs granted planning permission for development in breach of the covenant is immaterial, for they had to comply with their statutory duties as planning authority. Having written to the defendant in December 1982, drawing attention to the covenant and indicating a willingness to discuss its variations, the second plaintiffs did nothing to seek to enforce the covenant for the very good reason that they did not wish to do so, there being no harm to their adjoining land. They issued their writ seeking damages over five years later in March 1988. It seems to me that that history of events is fatal to the plaintiffs attempted reliance on the Wrotham Park case, where, in my respectful view, Brightman J correctly answered the particular question which confronted him. It is in my judgment wholly unlikely that he would have given the same answer if in that case the plaintiffs’ response to the defendant’s breach of covenant had been that of the plaintiffs in the present case. Equitable relief, whether by way of injunction or damages in lieu, would, as it seems to me, have been inconceivable.
In the light of what Lord Wilberforce said in Johnson v Agnew [1979] 1 All ER 883 at 895–896, [1980] AC 67 at 400, I see no reason why in the present case the plaintiffs should be in any stronger position as to damages because they are suing the original covenantor, rather than a successor who bought with notice of the covenant.
Accordingly, and for the reasons given by Dillon and Steyn LJJ, I, too, would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Celia Fox Barrister.
El Ajou v Dollar Land Holdings plc and another
[1993] 3 All ER 717
Categories: COMPANY; Directors
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MILLETT J
Hearing Date(s): 31 MARCH, 1–3, 6–10, 13–15 APRIL, 12 JUNE 1992
Company – Director – Knowledge – Whether director having knowledge – Knowledge to be attributed to company – Company receiving improperly obtained money – Whether company knowing money was improperly obtained – Basis on which company liable to owner of money.
The plaintiff owned substantial funds and securities which were under the control of an investment manager in Geneva who was bribed to invest the plaintiff’s money, without the plaintiff’s authority, in fraudulent share selling schemes operated by three Canadians through the medium of two Dutch companies. The proceeds of the fraudulent share selling schemes were channelled through Geneva, Gibraltar, Panama and back through Geneva from where some of it was invested in a London property development project in conjunction with the first defendant (DLH), a property company which required financial backers for a speculative building project which it proposed to enter into. DLH was controlled by persons unconnected with the Canadians’ fraud and had been acquired by those persons on the advice of S, who had been introduced to them by F, a Swiss fiduciary agent who also acted for the Canadians. DLH’s affairs were conducted by its controlling shareholders and S, who was managing director of a subsidiary. F was the chairman of DLH but played no active part in its management. S had approached F for assistance in obtaining finance for DLH’s property development project and F had introduced S to the Canadians, who provided £270,000 as a deposit for the purchase of a site by a DLH subsidiary, DLH London. The Canadians through various companies controlled by them provided further funding of £1,030,000 to DLH to develop the project. The Canadians had also deposited money with a company controlled by F which F had misappropriated and was unable to return. To resolve matters a meeting took place at DLH’s headquarters in London at which DLH agreed to guarantee F’s indebtedness to the Canadians subject to a specified limit. F resigned as a director of DLH in June for health reasons. In December the Canadians indicated that they wished to withdraw from the property development project and S was able to negotiate very favourable terms for the purchase by DLH of the Canadians’ interest. The plaintiff when he discovered the fraud perpetrated by the Canadians and his agent brought proceedings against DLH to recover the money received by it from the Canadians, on the grounds that DLH had received the money with knowledge that it represented the proceeds of fraud, or alternatively, to recover the value of the Canadians’ investment, on the grounds that DLH had knowledge of the fraud before it bought the Canadians out.
Held – The action would be dismissed for the following reasons—
(1) It was not possible for the plaintiff to trace the money at common law because his money had become inextricably mixed with the money of the fraudsters, other victims and innocent third parties in the course of international clearances. However, the plaintiff could trace in equity since the fiduciary relationship necessary for such a tracing claim was clearly established by the breach of fiduciary duty on the part of the plaintiff’s agent who had been bribed to invest in the Canadians’ fraudulent schemes. As regards other victims who had
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simply been swindled and had no such fiduciary relationship on which to base their claim, the fraud nevertheless entitled them to rescind the contract and thus revest equitable title in themselves at least to the extent necessary to support an equitable tracing claim to follow property of which they were the equitable owners. The basis of the trust enabling the tracing claim to be made was not a remedial constructive trust but an institutional resulting trust (see p 733 j to p 734 f, post).
(2) The victims of fraud could follow their money through bank accounts where it was mixed with other money since equity treated the accounts as charged with the repayment of their money. If the money in an account subject to such a charge was then transferred into different accounts the victims could claim a charge over each of the recipient accounts and they were not bound to choose between them. Since there was evidence to suggest that the money used by the Canadians in the DLH venture had been derived from the victims of their fraud the plaintiff could trace the money to the DLH venture even though DLH was not aware of the source of the funds it had received from the Canadians (see p 734 j to p 735 c h to p 736 a d, post).
(3) Furthermore, it was not open to DLH to argue that the plaintiff could not trace because his money had passed through civil law jurisdictions which did not recognise the concept of equitable ownership, because foreign law had not been pleaded and proved but in any event the plaintiff’s action was for ‘knowing receipt’ of his money and being a receipt-based restitutionary claim the proper law was the law of country where the defendant had received the property, which in the case of DLH was England. Furthermore, since the plaintiff’s ability to trace his money in equity was dependent on the power of equity to charge a mixed fund with the repayment of trust money and not on any actual exercise of that power it was not necessary that each recipient of the property should have been within the jurisdiction but merely that the defendant was within the jurisdiction. Accordingly, since the property was received in England by DLH the proper law for determining DLH’s obligation to restore assets to their rightful owners under equitable tracing rules was English law (see p 736 e j, p 737 d f h j, post).
(4) In order to succeed in his claim for knowing receipt the plaintiff had to show that DLH had the requisite degree of knowledge that the funds invested by the Canadians were the proceeds of fraud. On the assumption that dishonesty or want of probity was not a precondition of liability for knowing receipt but a recipient was not expected to be unduly suspicious and was not to be held liable unless he went ahead without further inquiry in circumstances in which an honest and reasonable man would have realised that the money was probably trust money and was being misapplied, the plaintiff had failed to establish that DLH possessed through F and S the necessary degree of knowledge that the funds received by it from the Canadians represented the proceeds of fraud. In the case of F he played only a minor role in the management of DLH and his knowledge could not be attributed to the company since he could in no way be considered the directing mind and will of the company. Moreover, the information he had acquired as to the Canadians’ fraud had been acquired by him in his capacity as an officer of another company and such knowledge could not be attributed to DLH unless he owed a duty to that company to communicate the information to DLH, which he did not. Accordingly, there was no basis for attributing to DLH his information about the Canadians’ fraudulent activities. In the case of S, it was necessary for the plaintiff to show that S knew that the money invested in the project was trust money and that its payment constituted a breach of trust if any knowledge that S had about the fraud of the Canadians was to be attributed to DLH. However, there was no evidence that S knew that the Canadians were
Page 719 of [1993] 3 All ER 717
using money which they had obtained improperly and accordingly DLH could not be taken to have such knowledge (see p 739 h, 740 g h, p 741 d j to p 742 c h j, p 743 e f h and p 747 e, post).
NotesFor following trust property, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1460–1464 and 48 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 941, and for cases on the subject, see 20 Digest (1982 reissue) 900, 6706 and 48 Digest (1986 reissue) 728–738, 6687–6751.
For knowing assistance in breach of trust, see 48 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 596, and for cases on the subject, see 48 Digest (1982 reissue) 688–690, 6353–6354.
Cases referred to in judgmentAgip (Africa) Ltd v Jackson [1992] 4 All ER 451, [1991] Ch 547, [1991] 3 WLR 116, CA.
Chase Manhattan Bank NA v Israel-British Bank (London) Ltd [1979] 3 All ER 1025, [1981] Ch 105, [1980] 2 WLR 202.
Cook Industries Inc v Galliher [1978] 3 All ER 945, [1979] Ch 439, [1978] 3 WLR 637.
Daly v Sydney Stock Exchange Ltd (1986) 160 CLR 371, Aust HC.
Diplock’s Estate, Re, Diplock v Wintle [1948] 2 All ER 318, [1948] Ch 465, CA.
Eagle Trust plc v SBC Securities Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 488, [1993] 1 WLR 484.
Ewing v Orr Ewing (1883) 9 App Cas 34, HL.
Fenwick Stobart & Co Ltd, Re, Deep Sea Fishery Co’s Claim [1902] 1 Ch 507.
Hampshire Land Co, Re [1896] 2 Ch 743.
Houghton (J C) & Co v Nothard Lowe & Wills Ltd [1928] AC 1, [1927] All ER Rep 97, HL.
Lazard Bros & Co v Midland Bank Ltd [1933] AC 289, [1932] All ER Rep 571, HL.
Lipkin Gorman (a firm) v Karpnale Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 512, [1991] 2 AC 548, [1991] 3 WLR 10, HL.
Marseilles Extension Rly Co, Re, ex p Crédit Foncier and Mobilier of England (1871) LR 7 Ch App 161, LJJ.
Montagu’s Settlement Trusts, Re, Duke of Manchester v National Westminster Bank Ltd (1985) [1992] 4 All ER 308, [1987] Ch 264, [1987] 2 WLR 1192.
Payne (David) & Co Ltd, Re, Young v David Payne & Co Ltd [1904] 2 Ch 608, CA.
Portarlington (Lord) v Soulby (1834) 3 My & K 104, [1824–34] All ER Rep 610, 40 ER 40, LC.
Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127, [1972] AC 153, [1971] 2 WLR 1166, HL.
Action By a writ of summons issued on 13 June 1988 the plaintiff, Abdul Ghani El Ajou, commenced proceedings against the defendants, (1) Dollar Land Holdings plc (DLH), and (2) Factotum NV (Factotum). By his re-reamended statement of claim served in March 1992 the plaintiff claimed, inter alia, (i) damages from DLH, seeking to recover the sum of £1,300,000 being the property of the plaintiff or otherwise money traceable as money of the plaintiff in a development at 22–50 Nine Elms Lane, London SW8 on the ground that DLH received it with knowledge that it represented the proceeds of fraud, or, alternatively, the value of the investment of three Canadians, whose interest in the joint venture at Nine Elms was bought out by DLH, the plaintiff alleging that DLH acquired such knowledge before it bought the Canadians out, (ii) a declaration that the said advance was at all times the property of the plaintiff, and/or was at all times and was held by DLH and Factotum upon trust for the plaintiff absolutely, (iii) a declaration that DLH received the amount of the said advance as constructive trustee for the plaintiff absolutely and was liable to account to the plaintiff as such trustee, (iv) an
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order that there be taken an account of all money paid or payable to or received or receivable by DLH (including any profits) in respect of the aforesaid development of the site, (v) an order for the payment of the amount of the said advance and all profits earned by DLH by the utilisation thereof, and (vi) a declaration that the plaintiff was entitled to payment of all money found due on the takings of the accounts. DLH was a public limited company incorporated in England but resident for tax purposes in Switzerland. It was a holding company and its principal activities, carried on through its subsidiaries, were property dealing and investment. It denied any knowledge that the money the Canadians invested in the project represented the proceeds of fraud, and, in buying out their interest, claimed to have been a bona fide purchaser for value without notice. Factotum was a company incorporated in the Netherlands Antilles. It had no assets and had not been served with the proceedings. It was the penultimate recipient of the money, the plaintiff alleging that it was a subsidiary of DLH, but this was disputed. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Michael Beloff QC, Roger Ellis and Sarah Moore (instructed by Bower Cotton & Bower) for the plaintiff.
Romie Tager (instructed by Kaufman Kramer Shebson) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
12 June 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
MILLETT J. The plaintiff in this action, Mr El Ajou, is a wealthy Arab businessman resident in Riyadh. He was the largest single victim, though only one of many victims, of a massive share fraud carried out in Amsterdam by three Canadians between 1984 and 1985. He claims to be able to trace some of the proceeds of the fraud from Amsterdam through intermediate resting places in Geneva, Gibraltar, Panama and Geneva (again) to London, where they were invested in a joint venture to carry out a property development project in Battersea in conjunction with the first defendant, Dollar Land Holdings plc (DLH). The interest of the Canadians in the joint venture has since been bought out by DLH. The plaintiff seeks to recover from DLH the money which it originally received, alleging that DLH received it with knowledge that it represented the proceeds of fraud, or alternatively the value of the Canadians’ investment, alleging that DLH acquired such knowledge before it bought them out. There is an alternative claim to damages for conspiracy, but that claim has not been pursued.
DLH is a public limited company incorporated in England and resident for tax purposes in Switzerland. It is a holding company. Its principal activities, carried on through its subsidiaries, are property dealing and investment. At the material time it was in a substantial way of business. It denies that it had any knowledge that the money which the Canadians invested in the project represented the proceeds of fraud, and in buying out their interest it claims to have been a bona fide purchaser for value without notice.
The second defendant, Factotum NV (Factotum), is a company incorporated in the Netherlands Antilles. It has no assets, and has not been served with these proceedings. It was the penultimate recipient of the money. The plaintiff alleges that it was a subsidiary of DLH, but that is disputed.
Page 721 of [1993] 3 All ER 717
The frauds
The frauds were committed through the medium of two Dutch companies, Tower Securities BV (Tower) and BV Incassobureau B & K Zuidlaren, trading under the name UC United Consultants (United). The persons who directed the operations of Tower and United were three Canadian fraudsters, Allan Lindzon (or Levinson), Lloyd Caplan, and Harry Roth (the Canadians). Tower and United carried on business as stockbrokers in Amsterdam. They operated what is known in the trade as ‘boiler rooms’; that is to say they specialised in selling worthless or virtually worthless shares at high prices to gullible investors who were subjected to high-pressure salesmanship, usually over the telephone, by aggressive salesmen who would ‘hype’ the shares, falsely telling investors that the shares were about to be offered to the public at a higher price and that a ‘quick killing’ could be made if they acted without delay. In fact none of the shares was ever quoted or capable of being quoted on a recognised stock exchange, or was worth more than a tiny fraction of the price at which it was offered. The businesses of Tower and United were closed down on 1 May 1986 when their premises and those of other similar enterprises were raided by the Amsterdam police. Tower and United were declared bankrupt by the local district courts on 7 October and 4 November 1986 respectively on the application of the public prosecutor on public interest grounds. He characterised their dealings as involving fraud, deceit, embezzlement and forgery. Mr Van Apeldoorn, a member of the Bar of Amsterdam, was appointed trustee in bankruptcy of both companies. He applied to be joined in the present action as a co-plaintiff, but his application was refused by the master. He told me that, under Dutch law, he has locus standi to recover the proceeds of the fraud for the benefit of the creditors of Tower and United, including the victims of the fraud. The plaintiff has concluded a formal agreement with him to share all moneys recovered in the present action.
Tower was incorporated in the Netherlands on 7 February 1984. It appears to have passed through three sets of beneficial owners. Initially it was owned by two Canadians, Herbert West and Stephen Polon, through a Panamanian holding company, Catalytic Ventures SA. On 22 October 1984 the shares in Tower were sold by Catalytic to another Panamanian company, La Belle Capital SA (La Belle Capital). This marked the acquisition of Tower by the Canadians. Arrangements for the incorporation of La Belle Capital were made by Mr David D’Albis, an American citizen resident in Geneva. He had recently been introduced to the two Canadians by two associates of theirs, a Mr Singer and a Mr Goldhar, and had agreed to act as their fiduciary agent. This involved making arrangements to incorporate companies, attend to all necessary formalities, open and operate bank accounts, and transfer funds on the instructions of his principals. Mr D’Albis did not find it necessary or expedient to inquire into the background of his clients or the nature of their business activities. He took his instructions over the telephone. On 19 November 1984 La Belle Capital gave Mr D’Albis a general power of attorney and authorised him to open a bank account for the company at Cie de Banque et d’Investissements in Geneva (CBI Geneva) and to be sole signatory on the account. In order to avoid disclosing the names of his principals, Mr D’Albis had to arrange for the account to be opened by a Swiss lawyer, who technically became a co-signatory; but she was not intended to operate the account and in practice Mr D’Albis was at all times sole signatory on the account.
The documentation available in relation to United is more limited. It, too, was owned by a Panamanian holding company, Tulane Holding Corp (Tulane). Tulane was registered on 25 October 1984. On 25 May 1985 Mr D’Albis was appointed by Tulane as one of the signatories on the account of United at Amro
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Bank NV in Amsterdam. A document found on Mr D’Albis’s files when the contents of his office were later seized on the orders of the examining judge in Geneva records Tulane as belonging to the Canadians and one Waldi Steemers. Mr D’Albis told me that Mr Steemers dropped out at an early stage.
The Canadians took over an existing force of salesmen who operated from the companies’ offices in Amsterdam. They were either self-employed or, more usually, employed by their own nominee companies incorporated in the Isle of Man with bank accounts in Geneva, and were paid commission at the excessively high rate of 8%. The Canadians did not, however, take over their predecessors’ stock of worthless shares, but acquired their own. Nor did they make use of their predecessors’ ‘vendor-clients’. For this purpose Mr D’Albis arranged for the incorporation of two further Panamanian companies, Herron Holdings SA (Herron) for Tower and Wilmington Commercial SA (Wilmington) for United. In the case of each company Mr D’Albis held a general power of attorney, signed a fiduciary agreement with the Canadians, and opened a bank account in the company’s name at CBI Geneva on which he was the sole signatory. The fiduciary agreement in respect of Herron is dated 20 November 1984, and that in respect of Wilmington 23 November 1984. It was submitted on behalf of DLH that the Canadians must have acquired the stream of income due to Tower and resulting from sales made by their predecessors, but there is no evidence of this and it is unlikely. Tower acted as a broker only and accounted to its ‘vendor-clients’ for the proceeds of the sales of shares (less only a commission at normal rates). Since West and Polon had used their own ‘vendor-clients’, Tower ought to have accounted, and almost certainly did account, to them for the proceeds of sales made before, but which were received after, the take-over. The bank accounts of Herron and Wilmington show no moneys being received from Amsterdam until 11 February 1985, which is consistent with the proceeds of pre-acquisition sales continuing to be paid to West and Polon.
Mr D’Albis has confirmed the conclusion formed by Mr Van Apeldoorn from his examination of the companies’ records that the Canadians’ involvement with Tower and United lasted for 12 months, from about 19 November 1984 until about 19 November 1985. On the latter date La Belle Capital appointed a new attorney in place of Mr D’Albis. The accounts of Herron and Wilmington at CBI Geneva had by that date been run down to nominal sums, and were made available to the Canadians’ successors by the simple expedient of altering the bank mandates. New powers of attorney and fiduciary agreements were, no doubt, entered into for the new owners, but they are not available. Mr D’Albis confirmed that he no longer had anything to do with Herron or Wilmington after November 1985.
Mr Van Apeldoorn has estimated that, during the whole period of the fraud, some 4,000 victims were defrauded of a total of more than $US43m, of which the Canadians were responsible for approximately $20m during their year’s tenure. (In this judgment all dollars are US dollars).
The only shares traded by Tower between November 1984 and November 1985 were bearer securities in three companies, Goldseekers International Inc (Goldseekers), Sprint Resources Ltd (Sprint), and European Computer Group (ECG); and the only shares traded by United during the same period were bearer securities in Colt Computer Holdings Ltd (Colt). None of the companies had any substance. Goldseekers, for example, was a new company which Mr D’Albis caused to be incorporated in Djibouti in February 1985 on the instructions of Mr Singer. Its share capital consisted of 1·9m bearer shares of 10 cents each. Herron subscribed $100,000 for shares, but within four days virtually all the money was
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paid away, mostly back to Herron, leaving the company with a balance of £3,550 as its only asset. Its shares were traded by Tower at over $6 each.
Shares in the other three companies were obtained with the assistance of another Swiss fiduciary agent, Mr Sylvain Ferdman, the chairman of DLH and one of the principal characters in the story, who now makes his appearance. Mr Ferdman had worked for many years for the Bank of International Credit in Geneva. In 1972 he left the bank and set up his own company, Société d’Administration et de Financement SA (SAFI). SAFI was owned jointly by Mr Ferdman and an old-established Swiss cantonal bank of good reputation. In 1982 the bank relinquished its shareholding in SAFI and Mr Ferdman became sole proprietor. Unfortunately, SAFI suffered a significant loss from this transaction from which it never recovered. It ceased to trade in May 1988 and subsequently went into liquidation.
SAFI acted as a fiduciary agent for clients who did not wish their identities to be disclosed. On this occasion its principals were Singer and Goldhar. In November 1984 Mr Ferdman arranged for the incorporation of a Panamanian company, Dunberry Holdings SA (Dunberry), on their behalf and SAFI entered into a fiduciary agreement with them. Mr Ferdman understood that his clients wished to buy and sell shares and to subscribe for new issues both quoted and unquoted. He made no further inquiries. He was accustomed to accept funds from clients without questioning their origin, and to act for clients who were anxious to conceal their identity. He regarded the need to preserve his clients’ anonymity as paramount—without it he would have no business—and to this end he was willing on occasion to present himself or SAFI as a beneficial owner and to make false statements to this effect.
Sprint was a small and unsuccessful company of which Singer was president. It was insolvent and loss-making. It had over $3m common shares in issue. SAFI subscribed for 300,000 shares on behalf of Dunberry at a few cents each. They were traded by Tower at over $4 each. The proceeds were paid to Herron.
ECG was a Liechtenstein company. Its only asset was a 100% shareholding in an English company called PCML Ltd (PCML). PCML had previously been owned by a Mr Fuller, who was seeking a capital investment in his company. Early in 1985 Singer and Goldhar introduced him to SAFI. They required PCML to become a subsidiary of a Liechtenstein company to be formed for the purpose. Accordingly, ECG was formed and Mr Fuller injected PCML into ECG in exchange for 6,500,000 shares in ECG. The value of PCML was in the region of £150,000. SAFI, posing as a long-term investor and pretending to be acting on its own account, subscribed $250,000 for 1m shares in ECG at 25 cents each, and had the right (which it exercised in October 1985) to subscribe for a further 1m shares at the same price; and another company run by Singer and Goldhar subscribed for 250,000 shares at one cent each.
Unknown to Mr Fuller SAFI in fact subscribed for the shares as nominee for Dunberry and on the instructions of Singer and Goldhar. The certificates were delivered to Tower and the shares were traded between $8 and $12 each. The proceeds were paid, not to SAFI or Dunberry, but to Herron. On occasion, the shares were sold by Tower before SAFI had subscribed for them.
Colt was acquired in similar fashion. An English company whose value cannot have been more than £100,000 was reversed into a new company formed in Liechtenstein in exchange for shares. SAFI subscribed for 500,000 shares at 25 cents each and had the right to subscribe for an additional 1·5m shares at the same price. The share certificates were delivered to United and the shares were traded at between $4 and $9 each. The proceeds were paid to Wilmington.
Page 724 of [1993] 3 All ER 717
The plaintiff
In 1985 the plaintiff owned substantial funds and securities which were deposited with the First National Bank of Chicago in Geneva (First National) and which were under the control of his investment manager, a Mr Murad. Mr Murad’s authority was strictly limited. Between December 1983 and May 1985, unknown to the plaintiff and without his authority, Mr Murad used his funds to invest on his behalf in shares traded by Tower and United. The limits of Mr Murad’s authority were not known to Tower or United, and nothing turns upon the fact that he acted without authority. Nor is it clear whether Mr Murad was deceived as to the value of the shares which he bought on the plaintiff’s behalf. What is beyond dispute is that he was bribed. He was involved before the Canadians came on the scene. Altogether, the plaintiff’s account was debited with a total of $13,051,221·59. For the purposes of the present action, however, five separate transactions between February and May 1985 have been identified in respect of which Mr Murad paid to Tower and United a total of $10,653,100 of the plaintiff’s money and received commissions totalling $1,217,500 paid by Herron or Wilmington.
The transactions and money movements are well documented. Mr Murad bought 500,000 shares in Colt at $5·15 per share, 350,000 shares in Goldseekers at $6·15 per share, and 1·5m shares in ECG at $8·15 per share; and sold the shares in Colt at $5·75 per share and the shares in Goldseekers at $6·30 per share, as well as 200,000 shares in Sprint and 200,000 shares in a company called Clarendon at $4·50 and $4·75 per share respectively. (The circumstances in which the last two shareholdings were acquired are not known.) Each transaction resulted in a net payment to Tower or United. On each occasion Mr Murad gave the sale and purchase orders by telex to Tower or United, and gave instructions to First National to pay the net amount due to Tower or United against delivery of the shares. That sum was duly debited to the plaintiff’s account at First National and credited to the account of Tower or United at its bank in Amsterdam. Within a day or two of its receipt, a corresponding sum less a small brokerage commission was debited to that account and credited to the account of Herron or Wilmington at CBI Geneva. Immediately on its receipt, Mr D’Albis gave written instructions to CBI Geneva for its disbursement. Within a few days, and in accordance with those instructions, a substantial sum was transferred out of the account in which it had been received and was credited to the account of Mr and Mrs Murad at Credit Suisse Geneva.
Of the $10,653,100 of the plaintiff’s money paid to Tower and United, $10,591,312·75 was paid out to Herron and Wilmington. In addition to the commissions totalling $1,217,500 paid to Mr Murad out of moneys received by Herron and Wilmington $112,000 was paid to him direct by Tower. This probably represented commission earned by Mr Murad before the Canadians were involved.
The plaintiff was only one of many victims of the fraud, and his money was mixed with that of many others. The total amount received by Herron and Wilmington from Tower and United during 1985 was $18,595,492, of which $12,704,329 was received by Herron and $5,891,253 was received by Wilmington. According to schedules submitted on behalf of DLH the total amount credited to the accounts of Herron and Wilmington during the relevant period was $19,374,000. The discrepancy, which is not material, is largely accounted for by the fact that the schedules include moneys which came from other sources, as well as circular payments and receipts (such as Herron’s subscription for shares in Goldseekers).
Page 725 of [1993] 3 All ER 717
The money goes to Panama
The Canadians caused three Panamanian companies (the first tier Panamanian companies) to be formed in order to receive their individual shares in the profits derived from their fraudulent activities, and a large part of the money received by Herron and Wilmington was disbursed to these companies immediately after its receipt. The first tier Panamanian companies were Bangor Corp (Caplan), Egyptian Seaway Inc (Roth) and Medallion Investments Inc (Lindzon). A fourth company, Gemstone Capital Corp (Gemstone), was also formed, probably for Mr Steemers. Mr D’Albis held a general power of attorney for each company, opened a bank account in its name at CBI Geneva on which he was sole signatory, and signed a fiduciary agreement which identified his principal. In the case of Gemstone the fiduciary agreement named all three Canadians as principals.
Of the $19,374,000 which was paid into the accounts of Herron and Wilmington, $9,547,000 was paid out to the first tier Panamanian companies, $1,217,500 to Mr Murad and $241,000 to Gemstone. Mr D’Albis identified a further $114,000 as representing his own fees, and $1,878,000 as representing payments of commission to one of the salesmen. A further $1,450,000 was paid to Zawi Resources SA (Zawi). This was another Panamanian company which Mr D’Albis had formed for the Canadians and was jointly owned by them. Mr D’Albis was unable to say for what purpose the money was applied. The balance of $4,927,000 cannot be accounted for.
The correspondence of the dates and amounts involved means that the debits and credits can easily be matched. On this basis (which is not necessarily correct as between the plaintiff and other victims of the fraud) $6,673,440 of the money which was received by the first tier Panamanian companies represented the plaintiff’s moneys.
While the money was at the disposal of the first tier Panamanian companies, Mr D’Albis arranged for it to be invested in short-dated American and Canadian treasury bills. Towards the end of 1985 and on the instructions of the Canadians Mr D’Albis arranged for the formation of three new Panamanian companies (the second tier Panamanian companies) to hold their funds. The second tier Panamanian companies were Panarea Investments Inc (Roth), Tirena Investments Inc (Lindzon) and Lipari Investments Inc (Caplan). From November 1985, as the treasury bills were redeemed, the funds of the first tier Panamanian companies were transferred to the second tier Panamanian companies. These companies maintained accounts in the books of Valmet Investment Management Ltd of Gibraltar (Valmet Gibraltar), which banked with Lloyds Bank, Gibraltar. Valmet Gibraltar was a subsidiary of Valmet SA (Valmet Geneva), a financial institution in Geneva in which Mr D’Albis had become a partner. Valmet Gibraltar maintained an account in the books of Valmet Geneva, which banked with CBI Geneva. Appropriate money transfers were made so that, while the accounts were held in Gibraltar, the money remained in Geneva and under the control of Mr D’Albis in the accounts of Valmet Geneva at its own bank. The amounts actually transferred were in US dollars, Canadian dollars and Swiss francs reflecting the diversification of currencies in which investments were held. The total value of the moneys transferred at the rates then prevailing was $9,158,317. Thereafter the money was actively managed by Valmet Geneva on a discretionary basis and switched between various currencies.
According to Mr D’Albis, the transfer from the first to the second tier Panamanian companies coincided with the return of the Canadians to Canada and the disposal of their interests in Tower, United, Herron and Wilmington.
The money did not stay for long in the second tier Panamanian companies. On 25 March 1986 a sum of £90,000 was transferred from each of the companies to
Page 726 of [1993] 3 All ER 717
the account of Grangewoods at the Royal Bank of Scotland, London. Grangewoods were the solicitors acting for DLH and the total of £270,000 represented the deposit payable in respect of the purchase of the site in Battersea.
A few days later, on 30 March and 1 April 1986, the accounts of the second tier Panamanian companies were closed and their funds were transferred to Panama. The arrangements were made by Mr D’Albis on Roth’s instructions. The money was transferred in two stages. First, a total of $9,267,786 was transferred from Valmet Geneva to Valmet Gibraltar via Lloyds Bank, Gibraltar and (because the money was transferred in dollars) Lloyds Bank, New York. Next, a total of $9,267,500 was transferred in three tranches, two (of $5,000,000 and $2,667,500) to Banco Continental, Panama and one (of $1,600,000) to Bank of America, Panama. The difference of $286 probably represents bank charges.
And there the trail is lost.
The fraud is discovered
Mr Murad’s purchases were brought to the plaintiff’s attention in May 1985. He caused immediate inquiries to be made. By the time the fraud was uncovered, the plaintiff was the owner of 1·5m shares in ECG having an intrinsic worth of about $12,000 which had been bought at a cost of more than $13m. Mr Murad was confronted, arrested and thrown into gaol in Riyadh. He agreed to repay $1·5m to the plaintiff, and was released from prison. He has repaid $1,375,000. The plaintiff does not accept that he should give credit for this sum. The plaintiff also brought pressure on Tower to repurchase the shares which it had sold. Between August and November 1985 the plaintiff resold shares to Tower at prices at or near the prices paid for them and recovered $2,382,000. The sales affirmed the corresponding purchases, and the plaintiff agrees to give credit for the sums realised.
In August 1987 the plaintiff commenced proceedings in Gibraltar to recover sums totalling $3,635,000 which had been transferred from Panama to Valmet Gibraltar in January 1987 and which had been frozen on the instructions of Valmet Geneva issued at the request of the Swiss authorities. The funds had been intended to be invested by Mr D’Albis on behalf of the Canadians who were proposing to use three further Panamanian companies for the purpose: Laxey Inc, Portan Holdings Inc and Unico Finance SA. Mr Van Apeldoorn was joined as a co-plaintiff in the Gibraltar proceedings in his capacity as trustee in bankruptcy of Tower and United. In 1991 proceedings were also commenced in Toronto by the plaintiff and Mr Van Apeldoorn against the Canadians, Singer and Goldhar. The Canadians made no pretence that they were not the persons behind the fraud. By this time, however, Lindzon had died, and the plaintiff and Mr Van Apeldoorn were given cause to believe that the Canadians had no significant assets in Canada and were judgment proof in that jurisdiction. The Gibraltar and Canadian proceedings were therefore compromised. The plaintiff and Mr Van Apeldoorn took 90% of the money blocked in Gibraltar (which they divided between themselves in the proportions 75:25) and allowed 10% to be released to the Canadians. The plaintiff’s share amounted to $2,773,817.
In addition, he has recovered a further £70,000 from Banque Scandinave en Suisse in Geneva (Banque Scandinave) in circumstances which I shall describe later. The plaintiff has thus recovered a total of $6,495,817 and £70,000. He agrees to give credit for all but $1,375,000 of these sums.
In July 1985 the plaintiff’s English solicitors sent a telex addressed to one of Mr Ferdman’s fellow directors of SAFI seeking information. The telex disclosed the fact that in May 1985 Tower had sold the plaintiff 1·5m shares in ECG (for which, it will be remembered, SAFI had subscribed 25 cents a share) at $8·25 a share. In
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evidence to me Mr Ferdman admitted that he had been shown the telex and that it probably caused him some concern. On 16 October 1985 the plaintiff’s Swiss lawyer, Mr Farina, wrote to SAFI making express allegations of fraud. Mr Farina gave many details and identified Goldhar (though not the Canadians) as being behind the fraud. He asked a number of detailed questions. Mr Ferdman took legal advice, and replied at length by letter dated 22 October. He gave particulars of SAFI’s activities in relation to the impugned transactions, confirmed that SAFI was acting for a client (which he declined to identify), and denied all knowledge of the transactions entered into by Tower. Mr Ferdman’s concern, which ought to have been increased by the terms of Mr Farina’s letter, did not prevent him from writing on the very same day to his clients in Panama committing SAFI to a sale of a further 500,000 shares in ECG to Dunberry at 26 cents a share. In fairness to Mr Ferdman, it is possible, as he later told the examining magistrate in Geneva, that the shares had already been delivered to Tower and that his letter was merely regularising a fait accompli. Nevertheless, it must have been plain to him by now if not before that his clients were implicated in a fraud.
Mr D’Albis was a friend of Mr Ferdman’s. Their offices were close, and from time to time they had lunch together; though they had no business dealings with each other. According to Mr D’Albis, Mr Ferdman told him about Mr Farina’s letter, and they discussed what they should do. Mr D’Albis told me that he had already become uncomfortable about his clients and had decided to withdraw from the association; though it is to be noted that neither his discomfort nor Mr Farina’s letter was sufficient to prevent him from continuing to act for the Canadians in the management of their funds in Geneva and their eventual transmission to Panama.
Mr Ferdman did not dispute that as a result of the conversation with Mr D’Albis he became aware that the Canadians had been involved in the fraud. He comforted himself by the reflection that his principals were Singer and Goldhar, not the Canadians. But, as he frankly (though unavoidably) admitted to me, he knew perfectly well that the scheme was a fraudulent one; that Dunberry had been buying at 25 cents and selling at $8·25; that such transactions could not be honest; and that the Canadians were involved with Goldhar and Singer and not just behind them.
Mr Ferdman had already met Roth during a visit to Toronto in the summer of 1985, when he was introduced to him by Singer. Roth told him that he and associates of his were interested in investing in real estate in Europe, and asked him to look out for suitable opportunities for them.
In addition to bringing civil proceedings, the plaintiff made complaint to the fraud squad in Amsterdam, and caused criminal proceedings to be instituted in Switzerland. Mr D’Albis was arrested, charged and held in custody for some months before the charges were dropped. In 1988 he and Mr Ferdman were interrogated by the examining magistrate in Geneva. According to Mr Van Apeldoorn, the Canadians had prudently adopted a policy of not including residents of Canada or the Netherlands among their victims, and they have never been prosecuted.
Dollar Land Holdings
DLH is an English company which was formerly listed on the London Stock Exchange. In June 1985 its entire issued share capital was acquired by Keristal Investments and Trading SA (Keristal), a Panamanian company beneficially owned by a Liechtenstein foundation. In the annual reports of DLH Mr Ferdman, its chairman, described himself as the beneficial owner of Keristal, but
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that was not the case. Mr Ferdman was, as usual, acting purely in the capacity of a fiduciary agent, and regarded his instructions to preserve the anonymity of his clients as justifying him in falsely describing himself as beneficial owner. His principals, the founders and beneficiaries of the Liechtenstein foundation, were two US citizens resident in New York (the Americans), whose identity has been disclosed to me, but who the plaintiff is satisfied have no connection of any kind with the Canadians or their associates or any of the other persons involved in the fraud.
DLH was acquired as a vehicle for the Americans’ property dealings in the United Kingdom. Its business activities were under the direction of Mr William Stern, a property dealer who suffered a spectacular and well-publicised bankruptcy as a result of the 1974 property crash. He was engaged in the business of identifying opportunities for property investment and introducing them to investors willing to pay him a fee or a share in the eventual profits. Mr Stern had lived in Geneva as a boy and was acquainted with Mr Ferdman. They became friends, though they lost contact with each other for some years. Mr Stern knew that he was a fiduciary agent and had established SAFI which he believed still to be jointly owned by Mr Ferdman and a reputable cantonal bank. From time to time he suggested deals to Mr Ferdman and inquired of him whether he had any suitable investors among his clients.
Mr Ferdman introduced the Americans to Mr Stern, who was able to recommend a successful investment in a United Kingdom property. The Americans were willing to make further investments in the United Kingdom, and Mr Stern suggested that he should look for a suitable English vehicle, if possible a quoted company, which they could acquire and use as a medium for further investment. Mr Stern found DLH, and Keristal acquired it as a pure cash shell in June 1985. Mr Ferdman and Mr Favre and Mr Jaton, two fellow directors of SAFI, were appointed directors, and Mr Ferdman was appointed chairman. They were nominee directors representing the interests of the beneficial owners. They played no part in the conduct of DLH’s business. That was carried on by Mr Stern in consultation with the Americans.
Mr Stern was not a director of DLH, but he was appointed managing director of Dollar Land Management Ltd, a subsidiary of DLH. He held no ordinary shares in DLH, but was allotted convertible deferred shares which could be converted into ordinary shares if the net asset value of DLH was doubled within a period of three years. Mr Stern succeeded in achieving the target, and his deferred shares were converted into ordinary shares in December 1986. The shares represented 24·5% of the equity, and were held by Mr Stern and members of his immediate family.
The board was strengthened by the appointment of Mr Babet, a Paris lawyer, in April 1987 and by Mr Fielding, the senior partner of Grangewoods, and Mr Herzka, a New York lawyer, in May 1987. Mr Ferdman, who had undergone open heart surgery in December 1986, resigned as director in June 1987 and Mr Fielding was appointed chairman in his place.
DLH was in a substantial way of business, and was able to raise very large sums on the security of its assets. At the end of 1986 it had secured bank loans and other mortgage creditors of more than £10m. By the end of 1987 that figure had risen to more than £30m.
The Nine Elms project
The Nine Elms project was introduced to DLH in February 1986. It involved the speculative purchase of a piece of waste land in Battersea without the benefit of planning permission but with a view to residential development. Mr Stern
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asked Mr Ferdman if he could find an investor willing to put up equity finance. This method of finance was and still is normal practice for DLH. Mr Ferdman, who was to receive an introductory commission of 5% of the funds obtained, brought Roth to London in March 1986 and introduced him to Mr Stern. Together they inspected the site. It is possible that Lindzon was also present. Mr D’Albis was not. Mr Stern was made aware that Roth was acting for a consortium of three Canadians. Mr Stern provided Roth with a detailed ‘investment proposal’ which included a profit forecast.
All negotiations were conducted between Roth and Mr Stern. Mr Ferdman played no part. By a letter dated 20 March 1986 and addressed to Roth c/o SAFI in Geneva, Mr Stern set out the terms which had been agreed between them. The contract for the purchase of the site was to be signed by Dollar Land (London) Ltd (DLH London), a subsidiary of DLH. Roth was to make a sum of £270,000 available by 24 March to enable contracts to be exchanged, such sum to be paid into Grangewoods’ client account at the Royal Bank of Scotland and to be used exclusively for the payment of the deposit on exchange of contracts. If contracts were not exchanged the money was to be returned. Mr Stern recorded that it was DLH’s intention, after exchange of contracts but before completion, to enter into a joint venture with a builder of national repute under which the builder would undertake the development at its own cost in return for a share of the profits realised from the sale of completed units. Subject to such a contract being signed, Roth was to make available a further sum of £1,030,000 two days before the contractual date for completion, on receipt of which DLH was to complete the purchase of the site for £2·7m. In return, Roth was to receive an ‘interest factor’ together with 50% of the profits realised by DLH for the project.
On 25 March Mr Ferdman copied the letter by telex to Mr D’Albis, who gave instructions on the same day to Valmet Geneva’s bank to transfer the sum of £270,000 to the Royal Bank of Scotland for the account of Grangewoods. As I have already mentioned, a sum of £90,000 was debited to the account of each of the second tier Panamanian companies on the same day. Subsequently, Mr Ferdman sent a duplicate of the telex in the form of a letter on DLH’s headed paper but over his own signature, dated 7 April, and addressed to Yulara Realty Ltd (Yulara) in Panama. Yulara was yet another Panamanian company owned by the Canadians. It had not been formed by Mr D’Albis or Mr Ferdman and was not controlled by either of them, though Mr Ferdman knew that it was a vehicle for the Canadians’ investment in the Nine Elms project. Mr Ferdman retained on his own files a copy of the letter countersigned by a Panamanian lawyer on behalf of Yulara by way of acceptance, but he did not forward a copy to Mr Stern until much later.
The terms of Mr Ferdman’s telex and subsequent letter differed from those of Mr Stern’s letter of 20 March to Roth in two respects. First, the Canadians’ obligation to provide £1,030,000 for completion was replaced by an obligation to provide ‘a global guarantee of £1,3 million [sic]’: other terms of the telex show this to be an error for £1·03m. Secondly, an additional term required Yulara to be given five days’ notice to provide the money. Mr Stern had nothing to do with the changes, which I infer to have been made at the request of the Canadians.
Contracts for the purchase of the site were exchanged on 26 March. The purchaser was DLH London. The £270,000 which Grangewoods had received on the previous day was used to pay the deposit. On 11 June 1986 DLH London assigned the benefit of the contract to DLH for £100,000, and on the same date DLH entered into a contract for the sale of the site to Regalian Properties (Northern) Ltd (Regalian) for a purchase price equal to 40% of the aggregate gross proceeds of sale of the flats, garages and parking spaces to be constructed on the
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site. Regalian was to pay £1·7m on account of the purchase price immediately and the balance as the completed units were sold and was to undertake the construction work. Completion took place on the same day. The purchase price of £2·7m was paid to the vendor and the site was transferred at the direction of DLH London to Regalian. The transfer records £1·7m of the purchase price as paid by Regalian and £1m as paid by DLH.
The funding of the project
On 6 May 1986 Yulara entered into an agreement with Keristal by which Yulara agreed to make $2.5m available to Keristal in order to obtain a bank guarantee of £1·3m in favour of DLH. Keristal undertook to raise the funds ‘in order to make a joint venture in a certain real estate investment in London’ and ‘to grant [sic] a bank guarantee of £1·3 million to be issued in favour of [DLH] or another company owned by [DLH]’. The word ‘grant’ is obviously an error for ‘obtain’. The wording of the agreement is consistent with Keristal being used as a vehicle for the Canadians to make their investment in the project rather than as a vehicle for DLH to receive the funds. The agreement was signed on behalf of Keristal by Mr Ferdman and on behalf of Yulara by the Panamanian lawyer. On 12 and 16 May respectively two sums of $1,541,432 and $1,143,000, making a total of $2,684,432, were credited to an account of Keristal (the Keristal No 2 account) at Banque Scandinave. The account was operated by SAFI and was used exclusively for the purpose of funding the Nine Elms project. The sum of $1,541,432 is shown in the bank statement as having been received from the Bank of America. The source of the other sum is not shown.
Pursuant to arrangements made by Mr Ferdman, Scandinavian Bank Group plc in London (Scandinavian Bank) now agreed to advance £1·3m to Factotum. The advance was supported by a guarantee given by Banque Scandinave secured on the moneys in the Keristal No 2 account.
£2,445,598·60 was required on completion, of which £2,430,000 represented the balance of the purchase price (£2·7m less the deposit of £270,000 already paid) and £15,598·60 represented interest for the late completion. This was discharged as to £1·7m by Regalian and as to £745,598·60 out of moneys in Grangewoods’ client account.
The whole of the loan from Scandinavian Bank to Factotum was drawn down and £1,030,000 was paid to Grangewoods on 29 May. £150,000 was remitted by Grangewoods in accordance with Mr Ferdman’s instructions. According to Mr Ferdman, this sum included his introductory commission of £65,000. The other £85,000 is not accounted for, but Mr Stern accepted that the whole of the £150,000 was used to discharge obligations of DLH. The balance of £880,000 was used to discharge the amount of £745,598·60 due on completion and to make various other payments at the direction of DLH.
The balance of the loan from Scandinavian Bank amounting to £270,000 was paid by Scandinavian Bank direct to SAFI and was credited to the Keristal No 2 account on 2 June. £209,655·43 was subsequently paid out of that account to Valmet Geneva, presumably for the benefit of the Canadians. It is not clear what happened to the balance.
Mr Ferdman’s role
There is much confusion as to the capacity in which Mr Ferdman made the financing arrangements. He had, of course, more than one capacity. In effecting the introduction of the Canadians, he acted on his own account and earned commission for doing so. In copying and signing Mr Stern’s offer he was acting
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on behalf of DLH, though he exercised no independent judgment or discretion of his own but acted on instructions and merely as a nominee or fiduciary agent. In substituting Yulara for Roth he was complying with a request from the Canadians. The financing arrangements with Banque Scandinave and Scandinavian Bank were made at the insistence of the Canadians; they did not wish to send money direct to London and evolved the alternative mechanism. Mr Ferdman made the arrangements, but whether he did so as the agent of the Canadians and on their behalf, or as chairman of DLH and on its behalf in order to accommodate the Canadians’ requirements, is impossible to determine: it is probably a meaningless question.
According to Mr Ferdman, he was acting for DLH and Mr D’Albis was acting for the Canadians. Mr D’Albis denied this; according to him, he had ceased to act for the Canadians when he transmitted the money to Panama at the end of March, and he did not become involved again on their behalf until they fell out with Mr Ferdman in 1987. He thought that Mr Ferdman had taken over from him as fiduciary agent for the Canadians. Mr Stern was not consulted about the financing arrangements, and was not aware of them at the time. He denied that they had anything to do with DLH and assumed that Mr Ferdman must therefore have been acting exclusively for the Canadians. When the Canadians made the money available, Mr Ferdman told me, he ensured that it was paid into an account which was under his own control so that he could protect the interests of DLH to whom the money was ultimately to be paid. Mr Stern was extremely angry when, much later, he discovered that Mr Ferdman had called the account ‘the Keristal No 2 account’, since in his view it was a SAFI account held for the Canadians, and had nothing to do with DLH. This is supported by the terms of the agreement of 6 May in accordance with which the money was provided to Keristal. But whether Keristal received the money as principal or as agent for Yulara is immaterial; it did not receive the money as agent for DLH and it has not been suggested that it did.
Factotum was a shelf company which Mr Ferdman had formed some time previously. It had been intended by Mr Stern to use it to take title to the site, in which event it would have become a subsidiary of DLH. In the event, Regalian objected, and the idea was dropped. Mr Ferdman decided to make use of it as a convenient vehicle for channelling the money to DLH. The terms of the agreement of 6 May between Yulara and Keristal indicate that both Mr Ferdman and the Canadians regarded Factotum as part of the DLH group. But in borrowing the money from Scandinavian Bank and making it available to DLH it acted as principal and not as nominee. Whatever its status and whatever the true nature of Mr Ferdman’s role, its receipt of the money cannot be treated as receipt by DLH, and the contrary has not been suggested.
The Canadians fall out with Mr Ferdman
By the end of 1986 SAFI was in serious financial difficulties and Mr Ferdman had undergone major heart surgery. He was obliged to tell the Canadians that SAFI was unable to repay $1m of their money which they had deposited with SAFI and which he had misappropriated. The money had no connection with the Nine Elms project. It had been placed with SAFI for investment. DLH did not know of the deposit which had no connection with any of its affairs.
Not surprisingly in the light of this revelation the Canadians insisted that the money in the Keristal No 2 account should be transferred to an account outside SAFI’s control. In February 1987 the fund was transferred to the account of HRH,
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a Djibouti company controlled by Mr D’Albis on behalf of the Canadians, but similarly hypothecated to secure repayment of the loan to Factotum.
When the Canadians demanded the repayment of their money, Mr Ferdman sought Mr Stern’s advice. At first Mr Stern thought that Mr Ferdman would be able to sort out his difficulties with them, but by February 1987 he realised that Mr Ferdman was not in a position to repay the money, and understood that the Canadians were threatening to report the matter to the Swiss police. Mr Ferdman begged Mr Stern to help him out, and Mr Stern agreed to do so. He did so for several reasons, but his main reason was that it would be highly embarrassing to DLH for its chairman to be arrested and charged with stealing $1m from a client.
A meeting took place on 16 February 1987 at DLH’s London office. It was attended by Mr Ferdman, Mr Stern, Mr D’Albis and two of the Canadians. This was the first and only occasion on which Mr Stern and Mr D’Albis met. Mr D’Albis was introduced to Mr Stern as a fiduciary agent who was acting for the Canadians. They demanded that they should be repaid their money. In Mr Stern’s presence they repeated their threat to report the matter to the Swiss police. I find it impossible to judge whether the threat was genuine or whether the Canadians were bluffing; but I am satisfied that Mr Stern, who had no reason not to, took the threat seriously.
By the end of a two-hour meeting terms were agreed which Mr Stern confirmed by letter to Mr D’Albis the same day. By the letter DLH guaranteed repayment of Mr Ferdman’s indebtedness to Mr D’Albis’ clients limited to 15% of DLH’s beneficial entitlement in the Nine Elms project, and assigned to Mr D’Albis’ clients a 15% share in the project by way of security. The Canadians were far from happy with this. They pressed Mr Stern for more; but they had to be satisfied with what they got. Mr Stern did not consult the Americans, but he reported to them that same afternoon and obtained their approval.
The transaction was strongly criticised by counsel for the plaintiff, but I do not regard it as commercially incapable of justification. DLH was guaranteeing the repayment of a debt due from its own chairman. It would be extremely embarrassing to DLH if the debt were not discharged. It was not giving money away; if the guarantee was called on, Mr Ferdman would remain liable to reimburse DLH. DLH was paying substantial fees to Mr Ferdman, and Mr Stern saw his future earnings from DLH as a potential source of repayment.
In addition, Mr Stern had a personal interest in helping Mr Ferdman. He had persuaded the Americans to invest in DLH. He had introduced Mr Ferdman to them. They trusted Mr Stern, but their trust was not limitless. They did not make him a director. If Mr Ferdman had been arrested and charged with theft while still chairman of DLH, it would have severely damaged Mr Stern’s relationship with the Americans.
Mr Ferdman resigned as chairman and director of DLH in June 1987. He did so primarily for health reasons. It is not clear whether Mr Stern had pressed him to resign, but his resignation was not unwelcome to Mr Stern, who was worried that Mr Ferdman’s financial position might yet prove an embarrassment.
The Canadians are bought out
In December 1987 Mr Ferdman, who by then had no formal connection with DLH, telephoned Mr Stern and told him that the Canadians were anxious to withdraw from the joint venture without waiting for the completion of the sales programme. This suited Mr Stern very well, as he had discovered that for technical reasons DLH was unable to raise finance on the security of its interest
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in the project, and it enabled him to contemplate the possibility of selling out the whole investment to Regalian. Mr Ferdman gave Mr Stern no explanation for the Canadians’ sudden desire to repatriate their funds, which may not have been unconnected with the freezing of their money in Gibraltar and the course of the criminal investigations in Geneva. But it was not in itself suspicious. There had been a sharp fall in stock market prices on both sides of the Atlantic on ‘Black Monday’ in October, the property market had turned flat, and there could well have been good commercial reasons for the Canadians wishing to realise their investment sooner rather than later.
Roth came to see Mr Stern on 18 December 1987, and Mr Stern agreed to arrange for DLH to buy out the Canadians’ interest in the Nine Elms project for the sum of £2m payable no later than 31 January 1988 in return for the release of DLH from the guarantee which it had given to assist Mr Ferdman. Mr Stern did not ask Roth why the Canadians wanted to be bought out. He played ‘hard to get’, and stressed that an early pay out would be highly inconvenient to DLH. He was a tough negotiator and took full advantage of his superior bargaining position to obtain a very good deal for DLH. As he conceded in evidence, £2m was significantly less than the value of the expected return on Yulara’s investment discounted for early payment.
Grangewoods duly drew up formal documentation between DLH and Yulara to carry this agreement into effect, but it was never signed. Meanwhile, Mr Stern opened negotiations with Regalian for the sale to Regalian of DLH’s 40% interest in the project. As soon as he was confident that Regalian would proceed, he met Roth in New York and confirmed his willingness to complete the purchase of Yulara’s interest. There is no evidence that Mr Stern told Roth of his own negotiations with Regalian. Roth undertook to reinvest part of the proceeds in another property deal in the United Kingdom which Mr Stern was contemplating.
A few days before the expected completion with Yulara, Mr Stern received a telephone call from Roth who told him that, owing to the sudden deterioration of the health of one of his partners, the Canadians had decided to divide up their investment funds earlier than expected and would not be reinvesting any part of the funds they were due to receive from DLH. Mr Stern was furious, but he seized the opportunity to secure a reduction in the amount payable by DLH to £1·75m. A formal agreement to this effect was signed on 16 March.
The sum of £1·75m was paid by DLH on the same day. This was possible because on 9 March DLH had concluded the sale of its interest in the project to Regalian for £4·65m. The £1·75m was paid direct to Yulara. The original financing arrangements by which Yulara had provided its contribution to the project were allowed to unwind automatically. Factotum was unable to repay the loan from Scandinavian Bank, which duly called upon the guarantee of Banque Scandinave. Banque Scandinave in turn recouped itself from the money in the HRH account. The balance in that account, amounting to approximately £70,000, was eventually recovered by the plaintiff.
Tracing the money
In Agip (Africa) Ltd v Jackson [1992] 4 All ER 451 at 466, [1991] Ch 547 at 566 Fox LJ restated the principle, settled by Re Diplock’s Estate, Diplock v Wintle [1948] 2 All ER 318, [1948] Ch 465, that it is a prerequisite of the right to trace in equity that there must be a fiduciary relationship which calls the equitable jurisdiction into being. This makes it necessary to consider separately the common law and equitable tracing rules. In the present case, it is manifestly impossible to follow
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the money at common law. The international transfers of money were made electronically; the plaintiff’s money was mixed, not merely with the money of other victims or of the fraudsters themselves, but with the money of innocent third parties in the accounts of Valmet Geneva and Valmet Gibraltar, and passed on several occasions through the clearing systems of New York and London; while the back-to-back financing arrangements with Banque Scandinave and Scandinavian Bank would seem to present an insuperable obstacle to the common law, even if it had not lost the trail long before.
As counsel for DLH properly concedes, however, none of these features creates a problem for equity. Nor has the plaintiff any difficulty in satisfying the precondition for equity’s intervention. Mr Murad was the plaintiff’s fiduciary, and he was bribed to purchase the shares. He committed a gross breach of his fiduciary obligations to the plaintiff, and that is sufficient to enable the plaintiff to invoke the assistance of equity. Other victims, however, were less fortunate. They employed no fiduciary. They were simply swindled. No breach of any fiduciary obligation was involved. It would, of course, be an intolerable reproach to our system of jurisprudence if the plaintiff were the only victim who could trace and recover his money. Neither party before me suggested that this is the case; and I agree with them. But if the other victims of the fraud can trace their money in equity it must be because, having been induced to purchase the shares by false and fraudulent misrepresentations, they are entitled to rescind the transaction and revest the equitable title to the purchase money in themselves, at least to the extent necessary to support an equitable tracing claim: see Daly v Sydney Stock Exchange Ltd (1986) 160 CLR 371 at 387–390 per Brennan J. There is thus no distinction between their case and the plaintiff’s. They can rescind the purchases for fraud, and he for the bribery of his agent; and each can then invoke the assistance of equity to follow property of which he is the equitable owner. But, if this is correct, as I think it is, then the trust which is operating in these cases is not some new model remedial constructive trust, but an old-fashioned institutional resulting trust. This may be of relevance in relation to the degree of knowledge required on the part of a subsequent recipient to make him liable.
Subject to two points, counsel for DLH concedes that the plaintiff can successfully trace the money from Amsterdam to London. He submits (1) that the plaintiff has not established that the money which reached the Keristal No 2 account on 12 and 16 May 1986 represented the money which was last seen leaving Gibraltar for Panama on 30 March and 1 April 1986, and (2) that the equitable remedy depends on the continuing subsistence of the plaintiff’s equitable title, and cannot be invoked where the money is transferred to recipients in civil law jurisdictions like Switzerland and Panama which do not recognise the trust concept or the notion of equitable ownership.
I reject both submissions.
(1) Tracing through Panama
It is, of course, beyond dispute that the money which was received in the Keristal No 2 account was the Canadians’ money. It is, however, true that the plaintiff is unable by direct evidence to identify that money with the money which Mr D’Albis had sent to Panama only a few weeks before. If the question arose in proceedings between the plaintiff and the Canadians, then, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, the court would draw the necessary inference against the latter, for they would be in a position to dispel it. But DLH is not; it is as much in the dark as the plaintiff.
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Nevertheless, in my judgment there is sufficient, though only just, to enable the inference to be drawn. One of the two sums received in the Keristal No 2 account was $1,541,432 received on 12 May 1986 from Bank of America. That corresponds closely with the sum of $1,600,000 transferred to Bank of America, Panama on 1 April 1986. In relation to the later transaction, Bank of America may, of course, merely have been acting as a correspondent bank in New York and not as the paying bank; and the closeness of the figures could be a coincidence. It is not much, but it is something; and there is nothing in the opposite scale. The source of the other money received in the Keristal No 2 account is not known, but from the way in which the Canadians appear to have dealt with their affairs, if one sum came from Panama, then the other probably did so, too.
The plaintiff points out that the deposit was paid out of funds held by the second tier Panamanian companies immediately before they were sent to Panama, and submits that it is a reasonable inference that the rest of the money came from the same source. If the Canadians had substantial funds elsewhere to invest in the project, the plaintiff asks, why did they not use them to provide the deposit? There is force in this submission. Against it, DLH points out that, by the time the money was sent to Panama, Roth had already struck the deal with Mr Stern, and the Canadians knew that another £1,030,000 would be needed in London within a few weeks. Why send it to Panama? Far simpler to leave it in Geneva, especially when the Canadians had already decided to use it to support a back-to-back guarantee, as the terms of Mr Ferdman’s telex demonstrate. There is force in this observation, too. But, in my judgment, any attempt to weigh the Canadians’ motives is too speculative to form the basis of any inference. They may have decided to remove the funds at least temporarily from Geneva in order to conceal from Mr D’Albis that they were transferring their allegiance to a different Swiss fiduciary agent; or they may have decided to launder the money through Panama before making any long-term investment in Europe. Their request to be given five days’ notice before coming up with the money is neutral; it may have had more to do with the time needed to arrange the back-to-back guarantee than any additional time needed to bring back funds from Panama.
But the fact remains that there is no evidence that the Canadians had any substantial funds available to them which did not represent proceeds of the fraud. This is acknowledged by counsel for DLH. For the source of the money he points to the $1·45m received by Zawi and the payments totalling $4,927,000 made by Herron and Wilmington which cannot be accounted for. But it has not been shown that any of these moneys were still at the disposal of the Canadians in May 1986. They had many expenses to meet out of moneys received by Herron and Wilmington (commissions to salesmen, for instance, not already accounted for); and Singer and Goldhar would presumably need to be looked after.
But, in my judgment, this is irrelevant. The money in the accounts of Herron and Wilmington represented proceeds of the fraud. It can be traced in equity from those accounts to the Keristal No 2 account as well as through Zawi or any other intermediate recipient as through the first and second tier Panamanian companies. The victims of a fraud can follow their money in equity through bank accounts where it has been mixed with other moneys because equity treats the money in such accounts as charged with the repayment of their money. If the money in an account subject to such a charge is afterwards paid out of the account and into a number of different accounts, the victims can claim a similar charge over each of the recipient accounts. They are not bound to choose
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between them. Whatever may be the position as between the victims inter se, as against the wrongdoer his victims are not required to appropriate debits to credits in order to identify the particular account into which their money has been paid. Equity’s power to charge a mixed fund with the repayment of trust moneys (a power not shared by the common law) enables the claimants to follow the money, not because it is theirs, but because it is derived from a fund which is treated as if it were subject to a charge in their favour.
Counsel for DLH, however, submits that in the present case the plaintiff is confined by his pleading. In the statement of claim he has alleged that his money was paid to the first and second tier Panamanian companies whence it eventually found its way to the Keristal No 2 account. Accordingly, counsel submits, he cannot now claim to trace it by a different route. But the plaintiff’s case has not changed. He still asserts that which he must establish, viz that the money in the Keristal No 2 account was derived from the moneys in the Herron and Wilmington accounts. It is still his case that it reached the Keristal No 2 account via the first and second tier Panamanian companies; but that is not essential to his claim. DLH could not defeat the claim by proving that, although the money in the Keristal No 2 account was derived from the Herron and Wilmington accounts, it had come by a different route. Still less can it defeat the claim by demonstrating that it may possibly have done so.
In my judgment, there is some evidence to support an inference that the money which reached the Keristal No 2 account represented part of the moneys which had been transmitted to Panama by the second tier Panamanian companies some six weeks previously, and the suggestion that it was derived from any other source is pure speculation.
(2) Tracing through civil jurisdictions
Counsel for DLH next submits that the plaintiff’s claim, whether personal or proprietary, depends on the continuing subsistence of his equitable title to the money, and cannot be established where the money had passed through the hands of recipients in civil law jurisdictions which do not recognise the concept of equitable ownership. In my judgment, this argument is not open to DLH. Foreign law is a question of fact. It must be pleaded and proved by expert evidence. The court cannot take judicial notice of foreign law, though it be notorious: Lazard Bros & Co v Midland Bank Ltd [1933] AC 289 at 297, [1932] All ER Rep 571 at 576. In the absence of evidence, foreign law is presumed to be the same as English law. In the present case no question of foreign law has been pleaded, and no evidence of foreign law has been tendered.
But, even if the argument were open to DLH, I would reject it. In my judgment, it is misconceived. For technical reasons, the plaintiff’s claim is brought in equity, where it is of a kind generally described as a case of ‘knowing receipt’. This is the counterpart in equity of the common law action for money had and received. Both can be classified as receipt-based restitutionary claims. The law governing such claims is the law of the country where the defendant received the money: see Dicey and Morris The Conflict of Laws (11th edn, 1987) r 203(2)(c) and Chase Manhattan Bank NA v Israel-British Bank (London) Ltd [1979] 3 All ER 1025, [1981] Ch 105. Whatever money or property DLH received was received by it in England and, accordingly, the plaintiff’s claim falls to be governed by English law, including the principles of equity. It is not necessary to consider whether the concept by which equity gives effect to the claim by permitting the plaintiff to trace his money and identify it as his in the hands of the
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recipient is procedural or substantive, since on either footing it too is governed by English law, either as the lex fori or as the law of the restitutionary obligation.
Although equitable rights may found proprietary as well as personal claims, it has long been settled that they are classified as personal rights for the purpose of private international law. The doctrine was stated by Lord Selborne LC in Ewing v Orr Ewing (1883) 9 App Cas 34 at 40 as follows:
‘The Courts of Equity in England are, and always have been, Courts of conscience, operating in personam and not in rem; and in the exercise of this personal jurisdiction they have always been accustomed to compel the performance of contracts and trusts as to subjects which were not either locally or ratione domicilii within their jurisdiction. They have done so as to land, in Scotland, in Ireland, in the Colonies, in foreign countries …’
In Cook Industries Inc v Galliher [1978] 3 All ER 945, [1979] Ch 439 Templeman J entertained an action in which the plaintiff claimed a declaration that the defendants held a flat in Paris together with its contents in trust for the plaintiff, and made an order compelling the defendants to allow the plaintiff to inspect the flat. The fact that the subject matter of the alleged trust was situate in France, a civil law country, was no bar to the jurisdiction.
DLH is, therefore, answerable to the court’s equitable jurisdiction as regards assets situate abroad, even in a civil law country. A fortiori, it is amenable to the court’s equitable jurisdiction as regards assets which were formerly in a civil law country but which it has received in England in circumstances which are alleged to render it unconscionable for it to retain them.
DLH’s argument is based on the premise that, for the plaintiff to succeed in tracing his money in equity through successive mixed accounts, he must have been in a position to obtain an equitable charge against each successive account. Even if the premise were correct, however, it would not matter where the accounts were maintained. It would be sufficient (and necessary) that the account holders were within the jurisdiction. But, in my judgment, it is not correct. It is not necessary that each successive recipient should have been within the jurisdiction; it is sufficient that the defendant is. This is because the plaintiff’s ability to trace his money in equity is dependent on the power of equity to charge a mixed fund with the repayment of trust moneys, not upon any actual exercise of that power. The charge itself is entirely notional. In Lord Portarlington v Soulby (1834) 3 My & K 104 at 108, [1824–34] All ER Rep 610 at 612 Lord Brougham LC said:
‘In truth, nothing can be more unfounded than the doubts of the jurisdiction. That is grounded, like all other jurisdiction of the Court, not upon any pretension to the exercise of judicial and administrative rights abroad, but on the circumstance of the person of the party on whom this order is made being within the power of the Court.’ (My emphasis.)
An English court of equity will compel a defendant who is within the jurisdiction to treat assets in his hands as trust assets if, having regard to their history and his state of knowledge, it would be unconscionable for him to treat them as his own. Where they have passed through many different hands in many different countries, they may be difficult to trace; but in my judgment neither their temporary repose in a civil law country nor their receipt by intermediate recipients outside the jurisdiction should prevent the court from treating assets in the legal ownership of a defendant within the jurisdiction as trust assets. In the present case, any obligation on the part of DLH to restore to their rightful owner
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assets which it received in England is governed exclusively by English law, and the equitable tracing rules and the trust concept which underlies them are applicable as part of that law. There is no need to consider any other system of law.
Knowing receipt
The plaintiff seeks a personal remedy based on ‘knowing receipt’. As I have previously pointed out, this is the counterpart in equity of the common law claim for money had and received. The latter, at least, is a receipt-based claim to restitution, and the cause of action is complete when the money is received: see Lipkin Gorman (a firm) v Karpnale Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 512 at 527, [1991] 2 AC 548 at 572. So, in my judgment, is the former, unless arbitrary and anomalous distinctions between the common law and equitable claims are to be insisted upon. But it is necessary at the outset to identify the assets which DLH received, and the occasions upon which it received them. The plaintiff alleges that DLH received the sum of £270,000 in March 1986, and a further £1,030,000 in June 1986.
In my judgment, however, the position is somewhat more complicated than that. The sum of £270,000 was never received by DLH. It was paid into Grangewoods’ client account, and their client at the time must be taken to have been DLH London. DLH London was not a nominee or agent for DLH. As had previously been agreed between Roth and Mr Stern, it was the intended contractual purchaser of the site, and the money was to be used exclusively for the payment of the deposit on exchange of contracts. In my judgment, DLH did not receive the money at all, and DLH London did not receive it beneficially but upon trust to apply it for a specific purpose. DLH London used the money, as it was bound to do, to pay the deposit on the site, and thereby acquired for its own benefit a corresponding interest in the site which it subsequently sold and transferred to DLH. The plaintiff can follow his money through these various transactions, but the relevant asset capable of being identified as having been received by DLH is an interest in the site corresponding to the payment of the deposit.
The sum of £1,030,000 was also paid into Grangewoods’ client account, but by then their client had become DLH. The money was disbursed on the instructions and for the benefit of DLH. Only £745,598·60 was used to pay the money due to the vendor on completion, but this was the result of the arrangements which DLH had made with Regalian. So far as Yulara is concerned, the whole £1·3m must be taken to have been disbursed as agreed between them on the acquisition of a 40% interest in the project. Moreover, in my judgment, on a proper analysis of the transaction between Yulara and DLH, Yulara’s money should be treated as having been invested in its share of the project, and not in or towards the acquisition of DLH’s share.
The investment proved highly successful. In itself it was not a breach of trust and caused the plaintiff no loss. Had he been able to intervene before the Canadians were bought out, he could have claimed the whole of Yulara’s interest in the project; but whatever the extent of DLH’s knowledge of the source of Yulara’s funds, his claim would have been confined to Yulara’s interest in exoneration of that of DLH. In the events which have happened, the plaintiff is in my judgment bound to treat his money as represented by Yulara’s interest in the project, and must rely exclusively on the transaction on 16 March 1988 when Yulara’s interest was bought out by DLH.
By that date Yulara’s interest had (unknown to Yulara) crystallised into a 50% share in a sum of £4·65m, which it sold to DLH (at an undervalue) for £1·75m. In
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those circumstances the plaintiff can, in my judgment, either affirm the transaction and claim payment of the purchase price (£1·75m) for which DLH did not obtain a good receipt or repudiate the transaction and claim an account of its share of 50% of the £4·65m (£2,325,000).
On electing to repudiate the sale of Yulara’s interest, the plaintiff could if he wished have an account of what DLH did with the £4·65m it received from Regalian, or the balance remaining after payment of the £1·75m to Yulara, in an attempt to identify it as still in the possession of DLH with a view to asserting a proprietary claim against it to the extent of £2,325,000. The plaintiff has not sought to do so, seeing no advantage in the attempt. DLH is solvent and good for £2,325,000, and there is nothing to be gained by making a proprietary claim.
All this, of course, is dependent on the plaintiff establishing that DLH possessed the requisite degree of knowledge at the time of its purchase of Yulara’s interest. DLH claims to be a bona fide purchaser for value without notice. Unfortunately, the nature of the knowledge required is highly controversial, at least where the recipient is a volunteer and the plaintiff brings a personal claim. In Re Montagu’s Settlement Trusts, Duke of Manchester v National Westminster Bank Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 308 at 330, [1987] Ch 264 at 285 Megarry V-C expressed the view obiter that, in such a case, dishonesty or want of probity involving actual knowledge or wilful blindness is required. In Agip (Africa) Ltd v Jackson [1992] 4 All ER 451 at 467, [1991] Ch 547 at 567 Fox LJ expressed the view that dishonesty is not required, and that knowledge of any circumstances which would indicate the facts to an honest and reasonable man, and knowledge of circumstances which would put an honest and reasonable man on inquiry, are sufficient.
That was a case of knowing assistance, not knowing receipt, and it is not clear whether Fox LJ’s remarks were intended to apply to the former. But they must at least cover the latter. In Eagle Trust plc v SBC Securities Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 488 at 509–510, [1993] 1 WLR 484 at 506–507 Vinelott J based liability firmly on inferred knowledge and not on constructive notice. For my own part, I agree that even where the plaintiff’s claim is a proprietary one, and the defendant raises the defence of bona fide purchaser for value without notice, there is no room for the doctrine of constructive notice in the strict conveyancing sense in a factual situation where it is not the custom and practice to make inquiry. But it does not follow that there is no room for an analogous doctrine in a situation in which any honest and reasonable man would have made inquiry. Vinelott J held that knowledge might be inferred if the circumstances were such that an honest and reasonable man would have inferred that the moneys were probably trust moneys and were being misapplied. He left open the question whether a recipient might escape liability if the court was satisfied that, although an honest and reasonable man would have realised this, through foolishness or inexperience he did not in fact suspect it.
That question does not arise in the present case. In the absence of full argument I am content to assume, without deciding, that dishonesty or want of probity involving actual knowledge (whether proved or inferred) is not a precondition of liability; but that a recipient is not expected to be unduly suspicious and is not to be held liable unless he went ahead without further inquiry in circumstances in which an honest and reasonable man would have realised that the money was probably trust money and was being misapplied. That approach is in accordance with the preponderance of judicial authority in this country and New Zealand, and is consistent with an analysis of the underlying trust as a subsisting trust. Moreover, I do not see how it would be possible to develop any logical and coherent system of restitution if there were
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different requirements in respect of knowledge for the common law claim for money had and received, the personal claim for an account in equity against a knowing recipient and the equitable proprietary claim. In the present case, for example, it would be illogical and undesirable to require the plaintiff to assert a proprietary claim he does not need in order to avoid the burden of having to prove dishonesty or ask the court to infer it.
I turn, therefore, to the allegation that by June 1988, if not before, DLH possessed the necessary degree of knowledge that Yulara’s funds represented the proceeds of fraud. DLH is a body corporate, and establishing knowledge on the part of an artificial person involves identifying particular individuals and attributing their knowledge to it. For this purpose, the plaintiff has singled out Mr Ferdman and Mr Stern as persons alleged to have possessed the necessary knowledge at the relevant time.
Mr Ferdman’s knowledge
I could not bring myself to describe Mr Ferdman as an honest man. He was deeply implicated in the original fraud. He was willing to assist his clients by pretending that SAFI was a long-term investor when he knew that it was nothing of the kind and that Dunberry intended to market the shares as soon as it acquired them. He must have realised that his clients’ scheme was dishonest. He probably suspected the nature of the fraud from the start. At first he thought that Goldhar and Singer were his clients; when he was introduced to Roth in Toronto in the summer of 1985 he did not connect him with the fraud. But he knew of the Canadians’ involvement by the end of 1985. The service which he gave his clients was to provide them with the means of concealment. He was prepared to lie to the authorities rather than risk divulging a client’s identity. He told me that he was careful that SAFI should not charge substantial fees for its services because he was afraid that, if it did so, it might be regarded as a participant in its client’s transaction. That was a highly revealing observation. He obviously realised that his clients’ transactions might be questionable. He preferred not to know why his clients needed to keep their activities hidden from the light of day. As he admitted to me, he could not function at all if he had to inquire what his clients were up to. Wilful blindness was part of his job description.
Despite all this, I have no hesitation in describing Mr Ferdman as an honest and truthful witness. He was disarmingly frank. He did not dissemble. He made no attempt to excuse his conduct. He freely admitted that he knew that the persons who were providing the money for the Nine Elms project were the persons who had been behind the fraud in Amsterdam; and that by 7 April 1986, when he signed the letter to Yulara, he knew (or assumed) that the money which he would be receiving into the Keristal No 2 account was part of the proceeds of the fraud.
The plaintiff submits that Mr Ferdman’s knowledge should be attributed to DLH because (i) he was the chairman of DLH and (ii) he was instrumental in obtaining the money for DLH and should be treated as the agent of DLH in relation to the very transaction in question. I reject both submissions.
Since a company is an artificial person, the knowledge of those who manage and control it must be treated as the knowledge of the company: see J C Houghton & Co v Nothard Lowe & Wills Ltd [1928] AC 1, [1927] All ER Rep 97 and Re Montagu’s Settlement Trusts [1992] 4 All ER 308 at 328, [1987] Ch 264 at 283. This is nothing to do with the law of agency. Those who ‘constitute the directing mind and will of the company’ are the company for this purpose: Tesco Supermarkets Ltd v Nattrass [1971] 2 All ER 127 at 145, [1972] AC 153 at 187. Their minds are its mind; their intention its intention; their knowledge its knowledge.
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Where the company is a one-man company, or all the directors possess the relevant knowledge, there is ordinarily no difficulty. Where the directors are merely nominees with no executive authority, or where only one of several directors has the necessary knowledge, different considerations come into play.
DLH was not a one-man or nominee company. Unlike the other offshore companies administered by a fiduciary agent which have featured in this narrative, it was not merely a vehicle for the concealment of the identity of the beneficial owners of moneys in a bank account. It carried on a substantial and genuine business. From April 1987 onwards it had an executive board of directors which met four to six times a year in Paris or Geneva. In 1986 its directors were all officers of SAFI, but they were merely nominee directors representing the interests of the Americans. Mr Ferdman was a non-executive director. His only executive responsibilities were to act as a fiduciary agent, represent the interests of the Americans, and ensure that the necessary corporate documentation was in order. The witnesses agreed that, in the early days of DLH, Mr Ferdman played a bigger role than he did; but I do not think that that was due to any change in his role. He was always responsible for the formal paperwork, but not for the business. As the business expanded, so his relative importance diminished. Even in 1986, he played no part in business decisions. These were taken by Mr Stern in consultation with the Americans. In my judgment, Mr Ferdman’s position as chairman and non-executive director of DLH was insufficient by itself to constitute his knowledge ipso facto the knowledge of DLH.
It has not been alleged, still less established, that the other two officers of SAFI, who with Mr Ferdman constituted the board of DLH in 1986, shared Mr Ferdman’s knowledge of the source of the Canadians’ money, but in my judgment it would make no difference if they did. Like Mr Ferdman, they were merely nominee directors with non-executive responsibility. They had no authority to take business decisions. In relation to its business affairs in 1986, neither Mr Ferdman alone nor the board as a whole can realistically be regarded as the directing mind and will of DLH.
Nor is it accurate to describe Mr Ferdman as having acted as the agent of DLH in obtaining the money from the Canadians. He introduced the Canadians to DLH as a potential source of finance, but he did so on his own account and for a commission and not as agent for DLH. He played no part in the negotiations between the Canadians and DLH. These were conducted exclusively between Roth on the one hand and Mr Stern on the other. He was not responsible for the decision to accept the Canadians’ money. That was made by Mr Stern, or by Mr Stern in consultation with the Americans. Once the decision had been taken, Mr Ferdman assisted in its implementation, but purely in an administrative capacity. He had formal authority only. He had no authority to commit DLH to a transaction without express instructions from Mr Stern or the Americans. It is true that it was his signature on the letter of 7 April 1986 that formally committed DLH to the transaction; but to fix DLH with his state of knowledge on this ground alone would elevate form over substance, and contravene the rule that to affect the principal with the knowledge of his agent, the knowledge must have been acquired by the agent in the course of the same transaction. Knowledge acquired privately or in the course of a previous transaction, however closely connected with the transaction in which the question of knowledge is relevant, is not sufficient. Mr Ferdman knew that the Canadians’ money represented the proceeds of fraud, but he knew this before he introduced them to Mr Stern, and he knew it because he had acted for their associates, not because he was acting for DLH.
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Moreover, even where the relevant knowledge is acquired by the agent in the course of the same transaction, his knowledge will be attributed to the principal only if the circumstances were such that it was his duty to communicate it to the principal. Where a person is a common officer of two companies, therefore, it is not the law that any knowledge which he has acquired as an officer of one of them is automatically to be treated as the knowledge of the other: see Re Marseilles Extension Rly Co, ex p Credit Foncier & Mobilier of England (1871) LR 7 Ch App 161. Such knowledge will not be attributed to the other company unless he owes a duty to the first company to communicate his knowledge to the second company, as well as a duty to the second company to receive it: Re Hampshire Land Co [1896] 2 Ch 743 and Re Fenwick Stobart & Co Ltd, Deep Sea Fishery Co’s Claim [1902] 1 Ch 507.
Mr Ferdman acquired his knowledge in his capacity as a director of SAFI. He cannot have been under any duty to SAFI to communicate information about SAFI’s clients or their associates to DLH without their authority. That would have been directly contrary to SAFI’s business interests. Its raison d’être lay in its willingness to maintain client confidentiality. Moreover, the only result of passing Mr Ferdman’s knowledge to DLH would be to risk the rejection of the Canadians’ money and the loss of SAFI’s commission. In the witness box Mr Ferdman accepted that he had a moral obligation to tell Mr Stern that he was being offered tainted money, an obligation which, he said, he did not discharge because he knew that, if he did, Mr Stern would reject the Canadians’ money and SAFI would lose its commission. But this cannot have been an obligation owed to SAFI; and in any case Mr Ferdman’s moral (and possibly legal) obligation was different. It was not to disclose what he knew to DLH, but to the authorities, or at the very least to the plaintiff and his advisers, whose identity was known to him.
In my judgment, the facts of the present case are indistinguishable in any material respect from those in Re David Payne & Co Ltd, Young v David Payne & Co Ltd [1904] 2 Ch 608. In that case one Kolckmann was a director of company A and was also interested in company B. At a meeting of the directors of company B, at a time when he was acting in his own interest and not as a director of company A, he learned of a proposal that company B should borrow a sum of money for a purpose which was outside the scope of its business. He recommended that an approach be made to company A to borrow the money and effected the introduction. The money was advanced on the authority of the chairman of company A. Kolckmann signed the cheque; and the board of company A later ratified the transaction. The Court of Appeal refused to attribute to company A the knowledge of the intended misapplication of the money which Kolckmann had acquired in the course of the original meeting. In lending the money company A was not bound to inquire as to the proposed application of the money and, that being so, Kolckmann was under no obligation to tell company A what he knew.
This is essentially the converse case. DLH (company A) was seeking finance, not lending it, and it was the source of the money, not its application, which was questionable; but in all other respects the facts are closely similar. At a time when he was acting in his own interest and as a director of SAFI, and not as a director of DLH, Mr Ferdman discovered that the Canadians were fraudsters and that their money had been obtained by fraud. In seeking finance on ordinary commercial terms, and in the absence of anything to put it on inquiry, DLH was not bound to inquire as to the source of the money it was offered; and, that being so, Mr Ferdman was under no obligation to tell DLH what he knew.
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In fact, the present case is stronger than this, for I have so far dealt with this question as if the relevant transaction were the establishment of the original joint venture in the Nine Elms project in March 1986. But, for the reasons I have stated, the relevant transaction, in my judgment, is the acquisition by DLH of Yulara’s interest in the joint venture in March 1988. By then Mr Ferdman had ceased to be a director of DLH for nine months, and he had nothing at all to do with the transaction. Even if, contrary to my judgment, Mr Ferdman’s knowledge should be attributed to DLH in 1986, it would be quite wrong to treat DLH as still possessing that knowledge in 1988. As Megarry V-C pointed out in Re Montagu’s Settlement Trusts [1992] 4 All ER 308 at 329, [1987] Ch 264 at 284, a natural person should not be said to have knowledge of a fact that he once knew if at the time in question he has genuinely forgotten all about it. In my judgment, where the knowledge of a director is attributed to a company, but is not actually imparted to it, the company should not be treated as continuing to possess that knowledge after the director in question has died or left its service. In such circumstances, the company can properly be said to have ‘lost its memory’.
Mr Stern’s knowledge
Mr Stern was not a director of DLH but he was the moving force behind its business activities in general and the Nine Elms project in particular. It is not disputed that, in relation to the Canadians’ investment in the project, the knowledge of Mr Stern was the knowledge of DLH.
To make a person liable on the basis of knowing receipt it must be established that he knew (or possibly ought to have known) not only that the money in question was trust money, but that its payment to him was a breach of trust. But the investment by the Canadians in the Nine Elms project was one which a trustee with sufficiently wide powers of investment could properly make. Unless Mr Stern knew (or possibly ought to have known) that the money was not that of the Canadians to invest but had been obtained by them by fraud, DLH cannot be made liable to restore it.
From Mr Stern’s point of view there was nothing suspicious or untoward about the Canadians’ initial investment in the project. There was nothing to make him suspect that the money had been obtained by fraud; nothing to put him on inquiry as to its source. The Canadians were introduced by Mr Ferdman who, so far as Mr Stern knew, was a reputable fiduciary agent of many years standing whose business was partly owned by a Swiss cantonal bank (for Mr Ferdman had not told him of the termination of the association). The sum was not so large as to create suspicion. The terms of the deal were strictly commercial. Mr Roth conducted himself as a normal investor. He exercised ‘due diligence’. He was provided with a detailed investment proposal complete with profit projections, and Mr Stern was required to report to him on a regular basis. There was nothing to suggest to Mr Stern that the Canadians were merely laundering their money and not investing it on commercial terms; and indeed I do not think that they were.
Mr Stern told me that he did not suspect for a moment that the money had been obtained by fraud. In my judgment, he had no reason to suspect it. The plaintiff’s case must, therefore, fail unless Mr Stern actually knew that the money had been obtained by fraud. He cannot have known that unless Mr Ferdman told him. Both Mr Ferdman and Mr Stern denied that he did. Their evidence is not contradicted, and I accept it.
I was strongly pressed to infer that Mr Ferdman told Mr Stern about the Canadians from the length and closeness of their relationship. They had known
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each other for more than 40 years, and had dealt with each other for more than 25. When Mr Ferdman got into financial difficulties, it was to Mr Stern that he turned for assistance, and Mr Stern was generous in his help. But their relationship, though long, was intermittent and was not particularly close. It was primarily a business relationship. They were not close friends or confidants. In my judgment, the suggestion that Mr Ferdman would have volunteered information about his clients or their associates (and by 1986 he knew that the Canadians were associates of Goldhar and Singer) to Mr Stern is most implausible. The maintenance of client confidentiality was a guiding principle of his business life. He would not willingly have broken that principle. Even though he conceded in the witness box that strictly speaking he owed no duty of confidentiality to the Canadians because they were not his clients in relation to the relevant transactions, I do not think that he would have drawn such nice distinctions at the time in order to break the habits of a lifetime.
Moreover, Mr Ferdman had no occasion to tell Mr Stern about the Canadians before he introduced them to him and, when he did introduce them, he had an incentive not to tell him. In the witness box Mr Ferdman volunteered the information that he did not tell Mr Stern that the Canadians had obtained the money by fraud because, had he done so, Mr Stern would have rejected the deal and SAFI would have lost its commission. I found this observation particularly illuminating, not only for what it said about Mr Ferdman but for what it said about his perception of Mr Stern. Having seen and heard Mr Stern subjected to a long and vigorous cross-examination, I find myself in complete agreement with Mr Ferdman’s perception. Mr Stern had suffered a major and well-publicised bankruptcy. He was working his passage back to acceptance in the commercial world. He was beginning to regain the confidence of banks and other financial institutions. The last thing he would have wanted was to be associated with dirty money. It was not as though he needed it. Finding equity finance for property development in the United Kingdom in 1986 was not particularly difficult. I accept Mr Stern’s evidence that, had he known, or even suspected, that the Canadians’ money had been obtained by fraud, he would have had nothing to do with it.
I was invited to infer that Mr Stern must have known that the Canadians were fraudsters and that the money they had invested in the project was obtained by fraud from the fact that he had been willing to help Mr Ferdman meet their demands in February 1987. The terms of the transaction were exceedingly generous, and it was suggested that this showed that Mr Stern was desperate to placate the Canadians rather than risk exposure. Mr Stern described the suggestion as ‘unmitigated rubbish’ and I agree. As he himself said, had he known that the Canadians were fraudsters, he would have ‘felt more comfortable’, knowing that they could not go to the police. But Mr Stern did not simply yield to the Canadians’ demands. They asked for more and Mr Stern refused. I am satisfied that the terms of the transaction were commercially justifiable in DLH’s interests, and are consistent with Mr Stern’s ignorance of the source of the Canadians’ money.
In my judgment there is not a scrap of evidence that Mr Ferdman told Mr Stern anything to the discredit of the Canadians before they invested in the project or, for that matter, before he resigned as Chairman of DLH in June 1987.
That, of course, is not the end of the matter for, as I have pointed out, the relevant date is March 1988 when Yulara was bought out. In his witness statement Mr Stern volunteered the information, which otherwise would have remained undiscovered, that in or about February 1988 Mr Ferdman called him
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on the telephone and told him that Mr D’Albis had been arrested in Geneva and was held in custody; that he himself was being questioned by a magistrate; and that the matter related to the Canadians. According to Mr Stern, he gave no details, but did make it clear that he himself was not guilty of anything untoward. Mr Stern said that he did not wish to embarrass Mr Ferdman by asking for any further information.
In the witness box Mr Stern did not go beyond what he had said in his witness statement. What he remembered of the conversation was being told that Mr Ferdman had been called before an examining magistrate in Geneva in a case concerning the Canadians. He was familiar with Swiss legal procedures and knew that many cases which the English legal system would treat as civil claims were handled in Switzerland through the criminal justice system. He did not, therefore, assume that the Canadians were accused of engaging in what in England would be classified as criminal activity. Mr Ferdman’s telephone call, he told me, did not alert him to the possibility that the Canadians had been involved in a fraud, and the thought that the money they had invested in the Nine Elms project had been obtained by fraud did not cross his mind.
Mr Ferdman did not mention the telephone conversation in his witness statement, though he confirmed it in the witness box. He remembered very little of it, and did not recall mentioning the Canadians.
In my judgment, unless Mr Stern was told more than he was prepared to admit, what he learned from Mr Ferdman was nothing like sufficient to convey to the mind of an honest and reasonable man the probability that the money which the Canadians had invested in the project had been obtained by them by fraud. The most he could have understood was that they might have been implicated in some way in irregular and possibly criminal conduct, but there was nothing to indicate that they were accused of fraud or to link the subject matter of the Swiss proceedings with the money which the Canadians had invested in the project. Had Mr Stern already cause to suspect the truth, Mr Ferdman’s information might well have been enough to turn the scales and make it unreasonable for him not to make further inquiry. But, in the absence of other cause for suspicion, I do not accept the plaintiff’s submission that what Mr Stern learned from Mr Ferdman was enough to put him on inquiry. I accept Mr Stern’s evidence that he still did not suspect that the money which the Canadians had invested in the project represented the proceeds of fraud, and that his failure to press Mr Ferdman for further details was out of regard for his feelings and not from any wish not to know the truth.
I was invited to find that Mr Stern was told more than he was prepared to admit, and to infer this from the terms on which he bought out the Canadians. They were very disadvantageous to the Canadians. They received only £1·75m for a half share in a project which Mr Stern had only just realised (without telling them) for £4·65m. It was probably not a transaction which, as between partners, a court of equity would allow to stand.
The transaction was negotiated in two stages. In December 1987 Mr Stern agreed to pay the Canadians £2m for their interest. This was before Mr Ferdman’s telephone call in February 1988, but it was after he had learned from Mr Ferdman that the Canadians were anxious to realise their investment. With hindsight, this was obviously because they knew that the net was closing in, and they wanted to repatriate their money as soon as possible. But hindsight was not available to Mr Stern, and there was nothing suspicious in itself about the Canadians’ wish to realise their investment prematurely, and nothing sinister in Mr Stern’s exploitation of the fact.
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At the second stage in March 1988, the consideration payable to the Canadians was reduced to £1·75m. Despite his denials, I think that Mr Stern was taking further advantage of the financial pressure he knew that they were under. Perhaps he was also taking advantage, consciously or subconsciously, of his knowledge that they were in some kind of trouble in Switzerland. But I can see no ground for concluding that Mr Stern must have learned more from Mr Ferdman’s telephone call than he was prepared to admit, or that he must have known that the Canadians’ investment in the project represented the proceeds of fraud.
In cross-examination, Mr Stern was strongly pressed with a memorandum dated 21 March 1988, just five days after completion of the purchase of Yulara’s interest, and which he addressed to Mr Favre at SAFI, who was still a director of DLH. It was in the following terms:
‘(1) Do consult with Sylvain on this matter as he personally handled the Factotum end. As Factotum has got nothing to do with the Keristal/DLH I do not think its affairs concern us in any way.
(2) Unless I missed a point, I do not see how and why Keristal could become involved in Yulara’s troubles. The completion of this transaction took place on 16 March and in a document which Dollar Land’s solicitors have drafted and found valid—backed by the usual opinion letters etc.—DLH has purchased back from Yulara such right and interest as Yulara ever had in the Regalian development. Accordingly, if Yulara were to be liquidated tomorrow and if Yulara’s receiver and liquidator were to address any claim to DLH/Keristal, DLH would simply reply that it no longer had any connection or dealing whatsoever with Yulara.
(3) The point I am not addressing and which you alone can help sort out is the mess—in SAFI’s own records—between Keristal and Factotum/Yulara. To the extent that ‘Keristal No 2’ has been used as a nom de plume for any of HR’s interests, it is essential that Sylvain should unwind that transaction and have the records show the true situation which is that we never had anything whatsoever to do with either of these outfits, as far as ownership is concerned.’
The memorandum was written in reply to a note from Mr Favre, which stated:
‘I don’t remember the exact structure of this loan but it seems important to take care of the following facts: (1) Factotum was involved in this deal. (2) Keristal is the mother of DLH and if Keristal is involved in Yulara’s troubles it would be advisable to take some steps.’
It was put to Mr Stern that ‘Yulara’s troubles’ was a reference to the proceedings in Switzerland, and that the terms of his memorandum betrayed his anxiety to distance DLH from Yulara because of his knowledge that the money which Yulara had invested in the project represented the proceeds of fraud. Mr Stern denied this. He knew that the Canadians were under financial pressure, he explained, and that was all that he understood or intended by ‘Yulara’s troubles’. This is confirmed by his reference in the memorandum to the possibility of Yulara’s liquidation. He had been concerned that DLH should not have to pay out twice for Yulara’s interest. He had instructed Grangewoods to satisfy themselves that Yulara was entitled to give a good receipt for the money—a sensible precaution, given that his own offer of a participation in the project had been addressed to Roth, even though a copy of Mr Ferdman’s letter to Yulara had subsequently reached his own files. Grangewoods had taken appropriate steps to
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satisfy themselves on this point, and in the circumstances, Mr Stern could not see how DLH could be affected by the Canadians’ financial difficulties. That was all he was intending to convey by the second paragraph of his memorandum. In the last paragraph Mr Stern explained, he was dealing with a different matter. He was furious when he discovered that, at a time when, in his view, Mr Ferdman was acting for the Canadians, he had put their money in an account bearing Keristal’s name without his knowledge or that of the Americans.
I accept Mr Stern’s explanation. I think that he did want to distance DLH from Yulara, but for understandable and proper reasons. He knew that the Canadians were under financial pressure. He contemplated the possibility that Yulara might be put into liquidation. He also knew, from Mr Ferdman’s telephone conversation, that the Canadians were in some kind of trouble in Geneva. No wonder he wanted to distance DLH and the Americans from them. But to jump to the conclusion that he ought to have realised that they were probably fraudsters and that the money they had invested in the project probably represented the proceeds of fraud would, in my judgment, be quite unwarranted.
I have had the advantage of seeing Mr Stern in the witness box and hearing him subjected to a long and rigorous cross-examination. I accept him as an honest and truthful witness. He knew that Yulara was a front for the Canadians; that they were investing offshore funds handled by a fiduciary agent; and that they did not want to be identified as the beneficial owners of the investment. But this was not a cause for suspicion: Mr Stern himself and the Americans were acting in a similar fashion in operating through Keristal and DLH. By the time the Canadians were bought out, he knew that they were under financial pressure and were anxious to realise their investment; and he had also learned from Mr Ferdman that they were involved in criminal proceedings in Geneva. In my judgment, and without the benefit of hindsight, this was not enough to convey to the mind of an honest and reasonable man that the Canadians were probably fraudsters and that the money they had invested in the project probably represented the proceeds of fraud. I accept Mr Stern’s evidence that he did not know, and did not suspect, that this was the case; and that, had he done so, he would have taken legal advice before paying any money out to the Canadians.
Conclusion
It follows that the action fails. This makes it unnecessary to consider what the proper remedy would have been if it had succeeded, bearing in mind that the plaintiff was only one of the victims of the fraud and that he has not been appointed to represent the others. Counsel for DLH submitted that he could have recovered only a proportion of the value of the assets which DLH received. I doubt that I would have accepted that submission. The court would, of course, have been concerned to protect DLH from further claims by other victims, but that could have been achieved in a number of ways. Whether the agreement between the plaintiff and Mr Van Apeldoorn would have been sufficient by itself to prevent the risk of further claims is a matter which in the circumstances I need not explore.
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I dismiss the action.
Action dismissed.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
Everglade Maritime Inc v Schiffahrtsgesellschaft Detlef von Appen mbH
The Maria
[1993] 3 All ER 748
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Arbitration
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, KENNEDY AND EVANS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 4, 25 MARCH 1993
Arbitration – Costs – Discretion of arbitrator – Sealed offer – Successful party ordered to pay costs of reference – Respondent making sealed offer of settlement – Claimant rejecting sealed offer and continuing with arbitration – Arbitration award exceeding amount of sealed offer by small sum – Arbitrators directing claimant to pay both parties’ costs from date sealed offer considered – Arbitrators taking into account order for costs they would have made apart from sealed offer – Whether arbitrators entitled to take into account impact of costs in exercise of discretion – Whether arbitrators limited to comparing amount of award with amount of offer – Whether costs awarded to respondent can be taken into account in determining effect of sealed offer on costs.
The owners chartered a vessel for a time charter voyage from Europe to the Far East. When the vessel reached Taiwan the master refused for seven days to enter the port of discharge ordered by the charterers as he was concerned about the safety of the berth and as a consequence the charterers deducted $US73,828.93 from the hire claimed by the owners. The dispute was referred to arbitration. On 22 June 1990, about a month before the hearing, the charterers made a sealed offer of settlement of $US15,000 plus interest and costs up to the date of the offer. The owners refused the offer and the arbitration hearing proceeded following which the owners were awarded $US23,211·17 (later altered by agreement to $US16,215·99). In a second award the arbitrators held that they would have ordered the parties to bear their own costs even if there had been no settlement offer as the owners’ unfounded allegations that the vessel had grounded in her berth and that the charterers had exerted improper pressure on the master had increased the length and cost of the hearing and decreased the chances of settlement and that since the owners had not achieved more by going on with the arbitration than by accepting the offer because they had thereby lost their costs in the reference, the arbitrators directed the parties to pay their own costs to 29 June 1990, ie a week after the charterers’ offer, and the owners to pay the costs of both parties after that date. The owners appealed against the order that they pay the charterers’ costs. The appeal was was allowed and each party was ordered to pay its own costs on the ground that under s 18(1)a of the Arbitration Act 1950 an arbitrator was not permitted to take into account the award of costs he would have made if there had been no offer when considering whether a claimant had
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achieved more by rejecting a sealed offer than by going on with an arbitration. The charterers appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held (Sir Thomas Bingham MR dissenting) – An arbitrator was required to act judicially in exercising his discretion as to costs, that is he had apply the same principles as applied in the High Court, in particular the principle that costs normally followed the event. If a sealed offer was made in an arbitration, being the arbitral equivalent of a payment into court, a respondent was normally entitled to payment of costs from the date of the offer if the award in respect of the claim and interest was less than the offer. The arbitrator was not entitled to take into account whether an award of costs would be made in favour of the claimant as that would require the claimant to assess not only the likelihood of achieving an award on his claim and interest exceeding the offer, but also, if there was a risk of an order that the claimant pay the respondent’s costs, the chance of obtaining an award greater than the offer and the respondent’s costs. Such a result would hinder settlement and introduce complications inconsistent with the principle that costs should follow the event. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 759 c to h, p 762 g to 763 c, p 766 d to p 767 a, 767 f and p 768 b to c, post).
Dictum of Donaldson J in Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA [1978] 2 All ER 870 at 877 applied.
Gray v Lord Ashburton [1916–17] All ER Rep 380 distinguished.
Decision of Judge Diamond QC [1992] 3 All ER 851 affirmed.
NotesFor an arbitrator’s power to award costs on an arbitration, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 689, and for cases on the subject, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 324–335, 2219–2306.
Cases referred to in judgmentsAntaios Cia Naviera SA v Salen Rederierna AB [1984] 3 All ER 229, [1985] AC 191, [1984] 3 WLR 592, HL.
Bankamerica Finance Ltd v Nock [1988] 1 All ER 81, [1988] AC 1002, [1987] 3 WLR 1191, HL.
Baylis Baxter Ltd v Sabath [1958] 2 All ER 209, [1958] 1 WLR 529, CA.
Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93, [1975] 3 WLR 586, CA.
Campbell (Donald) & Co Ltd v Pollak [1927] AC 732, [1927] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Chrulew v Borm-Reid & Co (a firm) [1992] 1 All ER 953, [1992] 1 WLR 176.
Computer Machinery Co Ltd v Drescher [1983] 3 All ER 153, [1983] 1 WLR 1379.
Cutts v Head [1984] 1 All ER 597, [1984] Ch 290, [1984] 2 WLR 349, CA.
Dineen v Walpole [1969] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 261, CA.
Findlay v Railway Executive [1950] 2 All ER 969, CA.
Gray v Lord Ashburton [1917] AC 26, [1916–17] All ER Rep 380, HL; rvsg [1916] 2 KB 353, CA.
Heaven & Kesterton Ltd v Sven Widaeus A/B [1958] 1 All ER 420, [1958] 1 WLR 248.
Lewis v Haverfordwest RDC [1953] 2 All ER 1599, [1953] 1 WLR 1486.
Lloyd Del Pacifico v Board of Trade (1930) 46 TLR 476, 35 Com Cas 325.
McDonnell v McDonnell [1977] 1 All ER 766, [1977] 1 WLR 34, CA.
Margaronis Navigation Agency Ltd v Henry W Peabody & Co of London Ltd [1964] 3 All ER 333, [1965] 2 QB 430, [1964] 3 WLR 873, CA.
Perry v Stopher [1959] 1 All ER 713, [1959] 1 WLR 415, CA.
Page 750 of [1993] 3 All ER 748
Pioneer Shipping Ltd v BTP Tioxide Ltd, The Nema [1981] 2 All ER 1030, [1982] AC 724, [1981] 3 WLR 292, HL.
Portland Steamship Co Ltd v Charlton Steam Shipping Co (1925) 23 Ll L Rep 268, CA.
Scherer v Counting Instruments Ltd (1977) [1986] 2 All ER 529, [1986] 1 WLR 615, CA.
Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA [1978] 2 All ER 870.
Ward v James [1965] 1 All ER 563, [1966] 1 QB 273, [1965] 2 WLR 455, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Archital Luxfer Ltd v Henry Boot Construction Ltd [1981] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 642.
Bradshaw v Air Council [1926] Ch 329.
Hultquist v Universal Pattern and Precision Engineering Co Ltd [1960] 2 All ER 266, [1960] 2 QB 467, CA.
King v Thomas McKenna Ltd [1991] 1 All ER 653, [1991] 2 QB 480, CA.
Roache v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1992] CA Transcript 1120.
Rosen (P) & Co Ltd v Dowley and Selby [1943] 2 All ER 172.
Appeal Schiffahrtsgesellschaft Detlef von Appen GmbH, the charterers of the vessel Maria, appealed with the leave of Neill LJ given on 8 June 1992 against the order of Judge Diamond QC sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 12 February 1992 ([1992] 3 All ER 851, [1993] 1 WLR 33) whereby he varied the second final award given on 28 March 1991 under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1979 by three arbitrators, Alexander John Kazantzis, Michael Mabbs and Michael Baskerville, in respect of certain disputes between the charterers and Everglade Maritime Inc, the owners of the vessel, to provide that the parties should each pay their own costs of the reference. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
Nicholas Hamblen (instructed by Middleton Potts) for the charterers.
Alistair Schaff (instructed by Richards Butler) for the owners.
Cur adv vult
25 March 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. This appeal raises an important question on the exercise by arbitrators of their discretion in awarding costs.
The arbitration concerned the vessel Maria. The owners chartered her to the charterers under a time charterparty dated 26 April 1988 on the New York Produce Exchange (NYPE) form for a time charter trip from Europe to the Far East. The charterers deducted $US73,828·93 from the hire claimed by the owners on the ground that the master had wrongly refused to enter the port of discharge (which was Kaoshiung in Taiwan) over a period of seven days from 6 to 13 July 1988. The owners initiated a reference to arbitration to recover the sum deducted.
On 22 June 1990 the charterers made a sealed offer to the owners by which they offered to settle the owners’ claim on payment of $US15,000 plus interest and costs to date. The offer was rejected and the arbitration went ahead. An oral hearing took place between 16 and 20 July 1990 before three arbitrators, all of them very well known and respected maritime arbitrators and members of the Baltic: Messrs Alexander Kazantzis, Michael Mabbs and Michael Baskerville.
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By their award dated 7 November 1990 the arbitrators unanimously held that the master had been justified in refusing to obey the charterers’ orders for approximately two days but no longer. They found that the berth to which the vessel had been ordered was safe but that the master had been entitled to a period for consideration. On this basis they awarded the owners a sum which (after consensual adjustment) amounted to $US16,215·99 plus interest plus $US336·61 in respect of sums paid late. In their reasons they found that in certain respects the owners’ case had been advanced on the basis of false documents and evidence, including false accusations that the charterers had tried to bribe and intimidate the master. They also concluded that an alleged grounding, relied on by the owners as showing the unsafety of the berth, had never in fact occurred. The arbitrators reserved the question of costs for later decision, explaining in the reasons–
‘Costs In the light of our findings we have reserved costs so as to give the parties opportunity to make fuller submissions to us on this aspect of the case. In the interim we have directed that each party shall bear half the cost of the award.
Sealed envelope At the end of the hearing we were handed a sealed envelope which we have preserved intact until such time we were fully agreed as to this our award. On opening the envelope we found the offer contained therein to be less than the sum awarded by us, and hence the offer has no effect as to costs.’
There was no oral hearing on the costs issue. Instead, both parties made written submissions. Following these, the arbitrators on 28 March 1991 made a second award, this time on costs alone. The effect of this award was as follows: (1) the owners and charterers were to bear their own costs of the reference up to and including 29 June 1990; (2) after that date the owners were to bear their own and pay the charterers’ costs; and (3) the owners were to pay the costs of both awards. The award was again unanimous.
The arbitrators were asked to give reasons as part of their award and duly did so. Since the legal soundness of these reasons is the major issue in this appeal, it is right that they should be quoted in full:
‘1. In the substantive proceedings the Owners [the claimants] sought to recover a deduction from hire made by the Charterers [the respondents] in respect of the period [10.00 hours] 6th July 1988 to [05.52 hours] on 13th July. The Owners were in part successful in the proceedings as they recovered hire up to [14.20 hours] on 8th July, a fairly modest proportion of their claim amounting to $15,215·99 plus interest on that sum from 1st October 1988 and a further item of $336·61 in respect of interest on sums paid late.
2. The Respondents had, on 22nd June 19[90] prior to the hearing made a sealed offer of $15,000 plus interest plus costs up to the date of the offer, which the Claimants rejected. If the offer made had been in excess of the amount awarded we would, as part of Award, have awarded costs in favour of the Respondents from the date of the sealed offer. Since it was less, and there were matters as to the exercise of our discretion which required further consideration, we reserved our decision on all matters of costs and invited the parties to make further submissions on this issue.
3. The Owners’ case as presented at the arbitration was that whether the vessel in fact grounded or not the Master acted reasonably in delaying going into berth for the period up until 17th July (when he berthed) and would have been acting reasonably had he refused to berth at all at the place nominated
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by the Charterers. We accept that two views could have reasonably been held as to this matter and indeed expert witnesses who appeared at the hearing disagreed. In the event we accepted the Charterers’ claim that the berth was safe but we reduced the period of off-hire as we took the view that the Master was entitled to a period for consideration. The Owners’ claim could not be regarded as exaggerated. However the Owners chose to bolster their case by an allegation that the vessel actually grounded in her berth and allegations that the Charterers had exerted improper pressure on the Master. These allegations were vigorously pursued on the basis of evidence which we were obliged to reject. In our view the length and cost of the hearing were much increased, and the chances of a settlement decreased, by these factors.
4. The Respondents contended that under these circumstances we should exercise our discretion to order that the Claimants should pay the Respondents’ costs. In the alternative they contended that each side should bear their own costs up to the date of the Respondents’ offer, or that the Claimants should at best recover only a small proportion of their costs up to that date but that in any event the Claimants should be responsible for the Respondents’ costs following the date of the offer.
5. The Claimants contended that our rejection of part of the evidence they had put forward could not properly be regarded as grounds for penalising them in costs. It was not uncommon, they said, for certain parts of the evidence put forward in support of a reasonable and justifiable claim to be rejected; this is not treated in arbitration or in the Courts as a reason for depriving a successful party of its costs.
6. We are satisfied that in exercising our discretion as to costs it is proper to take into account not only the result of the case but also aspects of the way it has been fought and the effect that this may have had on the costs incurred and the prospects of settlement. We are satisfied that this view is consistent with the case law reviewed in Baylis Baxter Ltd v Sabath [1958] 2 All ER 209, [1958] 1 WLR 529.
7. Taking these factors into account we would, had there been no settlement agreement, have considered it proper to deprive the Claimants of their costs; we would have ordered that each party should pay its own costs despite the fact that the Claimants had made a recovery of part of the sum claimed. We had to consider what account, if any, should be taken of that view in assessing the effect on the allocation of costs of the Charterers’ offer of 22nd June.
8. The Claimants contended that the only proper consideration to take into account was whether they had recovered a larger sum in the arbitration by way of principal and interest than was offered. It was inappropriate that a party, when considering a settlement offer that included costs, should have to speculate whether, if it decided to continue with the case, the eventual award of costs would be more or less favourable than any offer as to costs included in the settlement offer.
9. It seems to us that the test to be applied is that laid down by Donaldson J in Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA ([1978] 2 All ER 870 at 877) namely “has the claimant achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he could [sic] have achieved if he had accepted the offer?” In this case the answer to that question is that he has not. By rejecting the offer and continuing with the arbitration the Claimants will receive an additional $1,215·99 (a small sum but not de minimis) but have, in
Page 753 of [1993] 3 All ER 748
effect, lost a much larger sum, viz, costs in the reference. Taking this into account, we are satisfied that in the light of the sealed offer the Respondents are entitled to recover their costs from an appropriate date. Allowing a reasonable period for the Claimants to consider the Respondents’ offer we have decided that the Respondents should be entitled to recover their costs from 30th June 1990 inclusive. We have already indicated that had there been no settlement offer we would have ordered that each party should pay its own costs. For the same reasons we considered it appropriate to make a similar order in respect of the costs up to and including 29th June.’
Leave to appeal against the arbitrators’ decision on costs was given to the owners by Hirst J on 20 May 1991. They did not complain of the order that they should bear their own costs up to 29 June 1990, nor did they challenge the arbitrators’ prima facie view that they should bear their own costs thereafter, but they challenged the arbitrators’ decision that they should pay the charterers’ costs incurred after 29 June. The appeal was heard by Judge Diamond QC sitting as a judge of the Queen’s Bench Division in the Commercial Court. He gave judgment on 20 December 1991 (see [1992] 3 All ER 851, [1993] 1 WLR 33). He reformulated the question of law which it was necessary for him to answer in a manner which, if not agreed at the time, is not now criticised (see [1992] 3 All ER 851 at 858, [1993] 1 WLR 33 at 39–40):
‘Whether on the facts set out in the award there were any grounds upon which the arbitrators could properly in law have exercised their discretion as to costs in the way they did.’
That question he answered in the negative, to that extent allowing the owners’ appeal. He varied the award so as to provide that the owners and the charterers should each bear their own costs of the whole reference. This was the result for which the owners contended. The judge remitted to the arbitrators for further consideration their order that the owners bear the costs of both awards.
The learned judge gave his reasons in a lengthy, careful and lucid judgment which deserves to be read in full. His train of reasoning may, I hope not unfairly, be summarised as follows. (1) The award of costs is in the discretion of arbitrators as it is of judges. (2) But in neither case is the discretion absolute or unfettered: it should be exercised judicially and according to settled principles. (3) The dominant principle is that, in the absence of circumstances justifying some other order, costs should follow the event so that the winner recovers his taxed or agreed costs and the loser pays them. (4) It is necessary to consider the outcome of the proceedings to decide what the event is which costs should follow. (5) In court proceedings the court will take account of a payment into court in exercising its discretion on costs: if a plaintiff does not recover more than was paid in he will ordinarily be ordered to pay the defendant’s costs after the date of payment in. (6) A sealed offer is the arbitral equivalent of making a payment into court: Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA [1978] 2 All ER 870 at 876 per Donaldson J. The question for an arbitrator was whether the claimant had achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he would have achieved if he had accepted the offer ([1978] 2 All ER 870 at 877). (7) There is no warrant in authority or practice for taking account of anything other than principal and interest in considering whether a plaintiff or claimant has achieved more by rejecting a payment in or a sealed offer. (8) The arbitrators accordingly erred in law in taking account of costs and the court is entitled to interfere.
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There is of course much in this reasoning with which one may unreservedly agree. But I would make two points. First, the court’s power to review an order of costs is extraordinarily circumscribed. Section 18(1)(f) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, re-enacting earlier provisions, stipulates that no appeal shall lie to the Court of Appeal without leave of the court or tribunal in question from any order of the High Court or any other court or tribunal relating only to costs which are by law left to the discretion of the court or tribunal. The apparently exclusive effect of this subsection has been qualified by Donald Campbell & Co Ltd v Pollak [1927] AC 732, [1927] All ER Rep 1, Scherer v Counting Instruments Ltd (1977) [1986] 2 All ER 529, [1986] 1 WLR 615 and Bankamerica Finance Ltd v Nock [1988] 1 All ER 81, [1988] AC 1002. But an appeal will only lie where the court below has not exercised the discretion at all or has exercised it unjudicially, and where there has been a purported exercise of discretion the appellant ordinarily has to show that there was no ground on which the judge could rely in acting as he did or that he relied on extraneous grounds, that is grounds not connected with the case.
Secondly, the effect of the Arbitration Act 1979 has been (in the absence of misconduct and procedural irregularity) to limit challenges to arbitral decisions to cases of more or less clearly demonstrable legal error. Whether those who framed the legislation fully intended that effect is not now a practical issue: the House of Lords decisions in Pioneer Shipping Ltd v BTP Tioxide Ltd, The Nema [1981] 2 All ER 1030, [1982] AC 724 and Antaios Cia Naviera SA v Salen Rederierna AB [1984] 3 All ER 229, [1985] AC 191 laid down rules which have been followed for over a decade and appear to have been well received. It is generally accepted that those who entrust decisions to arbitrators do so because they wish to rely on the judgment, skill and fairness of those arbitrators. If a decision of the courts was what the parties had wanted they would not have chosen to arbitrate. While, therefore, a power in the courts to review arbitral awards on grounds of legal error is preserved, it is, as the authorities show, a power to be exercised with the utmost caution.
These points lead me to conclude that while the court can review an arbitrator’s exercise of discretion on costs it cannot do so unless the appellant can, at the least, show grounds which would suffice to disturb the order of a judge who had not given leave. It is not enough to show that the arbitrator’s order is one which a judge would not have made or would not be likely to have made. The parties chose an arbitrator, not a judge. It must be shown that the arbitrator’s order was one which was not lawfully made.
It has not been suggested that in the present case these very experienced arbitrators failed to exercise their discretion at all. Plainly they did, as their detailed reasons show.
The arbitrators posed to themselves what is accepted as being the right question: ‘Has the claimant achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he would have achieved if he had accepted the offer?’ (Although the arbitrators misquoted Donaldson J as saying ‘could’ rather than ‘would’, this was probably a clerical error and counsel took no point on this discrepancy.) There was no misdirection there. The complaint is that in taking account of costs the arbitrators took account of an extraneous matter and so acted unjudicially.
When the court or an arbitrator has to exercise a discretion on costs where there has been a payment in or a sealed offer, a comparison has to be made between what was paid in or offered and what was recovered. This is, I think, an objective, hindsighted exercise: the plaintiff or claimant has either recovered more or he has recovered less, and that (in the absence of special circumstances)
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is usually determinative. The question is not, at any rate in the ordinary way, whether it was reasonable to refuse the offer. The claimant’s case may, for instance, depend on the evidence of a witness whom he has every reason to believe honest and reliable, and he may for that reason reject the offer; but if the claim substantially collapses because the witness proves to be neither honest nor reliable, the reasonableness of the claimant’s belief will not save him from the usual consequences in costs. It appears that in relation to Calderbank offers (see Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93) and offers of an analogous kind, the approach may be different and may take account of the reasonableness of the offeree’s refusal (see McDonnell v McDonnell [1977] 1 All ER 766 at 770, [1977] 1 WLR 34 at 38, Cutts v Head [1984] 1 All ER 597 at 602, [1984] Ch 290 at 302 and Chrulew v Borm-Reid & Co (a firm) [1992] 1 All ER 953, [1992] 1 WLR 176). No reliance has, however, been placed on this difference of approach in the present case.
In the present case the arbitrators concluded that they would, in the absence of any offer, have ordered each side to pay its own costs. The propriety of that order is not challenged, and is indeed the order for which the owners successfully contended before the judge. It does, however, make this a very unusual case, because it is very rare for a successful plaintiff or claimant not to recover all, or at least part, of his costs.
Posing the correct test, the arbitrators concluded that the owners had not achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than by accepting the offer. The offer had been $US15,000 and costs up to that date and interest. The owners had rejected that offer. By going on they had recovered more than the sum offered, by an amount which was not de minimis, and interest. But they had caused the arbitrators to conclude that they should receive no costs for any part of the reference. The comparison was between $US15,000 and costs up to 22 June 1990 and $US16,215 (or perhaps about $US16,550) and no costs. Plainly the owners were on that basis substantially worse off as a result of going on, and for that reason the arbitrators ordered them to pay the costs after the lapse of an appropriate time for them to assess the offer. I do not find the arbitrators’ decision in any way a surprising one for commercial men to reach. I would have difficulty in ruling that it was a decision which the law forbade them to reach.
The owners point out that at the date of the offer the future, including their conduct of the reference and the arbitrators’ prima facie conclusion on costs, was unknown. This is true. But when a libel defendant makes a payment into court the plaintiff similarly cannot know how the trial will go or what the jury will award. He nonetheless has to make his choice whether to accept or not and live with the consequences.
The owners point to the impossibility of conducting an unofficial taxation to assess the costs incurred, and the complications which would arise if calculations of irrecoverable costs and (for instance) the cost of in-house lawyers had to be assessed. I agree that inquiries of this kind would be quite inappropriate. But in the present case they are quite unnecessary, since the comparison yields a clear and simple answer.
It is suggested that Donaldson J did not allude to a comparison of this kind in Tramountana. Again, I agree. But the present point was not before him and he did not address it.
In the experience of counsel for the parties and of the court itself, the arbitrators’ approach is novel. No authority has been cited which sanctions it (or, for that matter, disapproves it). But the question must be resolved according to
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principle, not previous practice. In Scherer v Counting Instruments Ltd (1977) [1986] 2 All ER 529 at 536, [1986] 1 WLR 615 at 621 Buckley LJ (in a passage expressly approved by the House of Lords in Bankamerica Finance Ltd v Nock [1988] 1 All ER 81 at 86, [1988] AC 1002 at 1009) required the judge’s discretion on costs to be exercised on relevant grounds and added:
‘The grounds must be connected with the case. This may extend to any matter relating to the litigation and the parties’ conduct in it, and also to the circumstances leading to the litigation, but no further.’
By this test, the grounds upon which the arbitrators relied were connected with the case and were not extraneous. It follows that, in my opinion, the parties should be bound by the unanimous decision of the commercial men to whose judgment they have entrusted resolution of their dispute. It is of course true that in the ordinary case the award of costs simply follows the event and does not form part of the event itself. But in this case the arbitrators made the unusual, but unchallenged, finding that but for the sealed offer they would have awarded the owners none of their costs of the reference. That provided relevant grounds on which they could properly conclude that the owners had fared worse, and not better, as a result of pressing on with their claim.
In reaching this conclusion I have not placed reliance on Gray v Lord Ashburton [1917] AC 26, [1916–17] All ER Rep 380. This was, as I read it, a decision based on special statutory rules governing the exercise of arbitrators’ discretion under the Agricultural Holdings Act 1908 and has not, at least since Lloyd Del Pacifico v Board of Trade (1930) 46 TLR 476 been treated as authority for the more ambitious propositions which some of the language used might be said to support. Nor was I persuaded by the charterers’ alternative argument that the arbitrators’ order was justified because, although the principal sum recovered by the owners exceeded the sum offered by an amount which was not de minimis, the excess was not very great.
I would allow the appeal and reinstate the award of the arbitrators.
KENNEDY LJ.
1. The arbitration
The facts which gave rise to the arbitration are set out in the judgment of Evans LJ, and I need not repeat them. Having considered the sealed offer the arbitrators concluded that each side should bear its own costs up to 29 June 1990, but that the charterers should be entitled to recover their costs from that date. In giving their reasons for that award the arbitrators began by criticising the owners’ claim, saying:
‘The Owners’ claim could not be regarded as exaggerated. However the Owners chose to bolster their case by an allegation that the vessel actually grounded in her berth and allegations that the Charterers had exerted improper pressure on the Master. These allegations were vigorously pursued on the basis of evidence which we were obliged to reject. In our view the length and cost of the hearing were much increased, and the chances of a settlement decreased, by these factors.’
In para 6 of their reasons the arbitrators recognised their discretion ‘to take into account not only the result of the case but also aspects of the way it has been fought and the effect that this may have had on the costs incurred and the prospects of settlement’. They then said in para 7 that, taking those factors into
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account, had there been no sealed offer they would have considered it proper to deprive the owners of their costs, and continued:
‘We had to consider what account, if any, should be taken of that view in assessing the effect on the allocation of costs of the Charterers’ offer of 22nd June.’
In para 9 of their reasons the arbitrators expressly set out their conclusion:
‘It seems to us that the test to be applied is that laid down by Donaldson J in Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA ([1978] 2 All ER 870 at 877) namely “has the claimant achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he could [sic] have achieved if he had accepted the offer?” In this case the answer to that question is that he has not. By rejecting the offer and continuing with the arbitration the Claimants will receive an additional $1,215·99 (a small sum but not de minimis) but have, in effect, lost a much larger sum, viz, costs in the reference. Taking this into account, we are satisfied that in the light of the sealed offer the Respondents are entitled to recover their costs from an appropriate date. Allowing a reasonable period for the Claimants to consider the Respondents’ offer we have decided that the Respondents should be entitled to recover their costs from 30th June 1990 inclusive.’
2. In the High Court
That order was considered on appeal by Judge Diamond QC sitting as a judge of the High Court (see [1992] 3 All ER 851, [1993] 1 WLR 33). He recognised, as I do, that when considering costs arbitrators have a discretion which is theirs, and with which a court cannot interfere simply because it would have arrived at a different conclusion. To highlight that inhibition Judge Diamond formulated the question of law which we have to consider in a way which has now been accepted on all sides. His formulation was ([1992] 3 All ER 851 at 858, [1993] 1 WLR 33 at 39–40):
‘Whether on the facts set out in the award there were any grounds upon which the arbitrators could properly in law have exercised their discretion as to costs in the way they did.’
The judge also suggested ([1992] 3 All ER 851 at 857, [1993] 1 WLR 33 at 39) that–
‘an arbitrator in exercising his discretion must act judicially or, what amounts to the same thing, must apply the same principles when deciding upon his award as to costs as are applied in the High Court …’
The judge put forward two reasons why the discretion of an arbitrator should be so constrained. First, because the parties have, at least by implication, chosen English procedural law, and secondly, because the parties, in deciding whether to make or to accept a sealed offer, need to know what principles will be applied to it.
Having alluded to the principle that costs follow the event, and considered the decision of Donaldson J in Tramountana, Judge Diamond said ([1992] 3 All ER 851 at 860–861, [1993] 1 WLR 33 at 42):
‘The main question which arises in the present case is whether in considering the test propounded by Donaldson J, namely “Has the claimant achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he would have achieved if he had accepted the offer?” arbitrators are in
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principle limited to a comparison of what the claimant has achieved in respect of the principal sum claimed and interest, as contended by the owners; or whether, as the charterers contend, arbitrators may also take into account what order for costs they would have made apart from the offer, with the result that although the claimant has achieved more in respect of principal and interest than if he had accepted the offer, he can be regarded overall as having achieved less.’
That does seem to me to be the main question. Judge Diamond decided that question in favour of the owners because: (1) he regarded the sealed offer procedure as the arbitral equivalent of making a payment into court, to which established principles apply. Those principles he found to be consistent with the general principle that costs follow the event. (2) The application of those principles makes it possible for arbitrators to deal easily, fairly and in a predictable way with the effect of the sealed offer. (3) When parties know how arbitrators will react to a sealed offer they can more easily decide what offer should be made or accepted. In order to make their assessment they should not have to speculate as to the extent to which, in the absence of a sealed offer, the arbitrators might be disposed to make an unusual order as to costs. That could be very difficult because, if a claimant although successful overall were to fail in relation to a substantial issue, an arbitrator when considering costs could deal with that situation in a number of ways. He might make no order as to costs in relation to that issue, or an adverse order in relation to that issue. He might order that the claimant only recover a percentage of his costs of the claim, or that he recover no costs. (4) If in order to decide whether a claimant has ‘achieved more’ by rejecting a sealed offer than by going on with the arbitration it is permissible in some cases to have regard to the claimant’s expenditure on costs, why should that not be permitted in every case? Why should the costs to be considered be limited to those recoverable on taxation? How can the arbitrator avoid investigating the claimant’s costs up to and subsequent to the making of the sealed offer if either side wishes to make that investigation?
At the end of his judgment Judge Diamond reformulated the Tramountana test in these words ([1992] 3 All ER 851 at 864, [1993] 1 WLR 33 at 46):
‘Has the claimant achieved more in respect of his claim for principal and interest by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he would have achieved if he had accepted the offer?’ (Judge Diamond’s emphasis.)
If that is the test which the arbitrators in the present case should have applied then this appeal fails. At the end of the determination an arbitrator who opens a sealed offer and finds it to be for less than he has awarded in respect of principal and interest can, Judge Diamond suggests, simply set it aside and then go on to consider whether the conduct of the arbitration should lead him to make anything other than the usual order in respect of costs.
3. In the Court of Appeal
Before us Mr Hamblen for the appellant charterers emphasised first the limited jurisdiction of the High Court to interfere with an award made by arbitrators in relation to costs. He placed considerable reliance upon the decision of the House of Lords in Gray v Lord Ashburton [1917] AC 26, [1916–17] All ER Rep 380 but, as Evans LJ points out, that was decided under different legislation and the extent to which the High Court can review the discretion exercised by arbitrators is now clearly set out in later cases, including cases decided under the Arbitration Act 1950. In any event Mr Hamblen accepts that the discretion of arbitrators in
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relation to costs has to be exercised judicially, but he contends that here the arbitrators met that requirement. They clearly gave the matter careful consideration, and he submitted that in principle there is no reason why in an exceptional case arbitrators should not be entitled when considering a sealed offer to have regard to claimants’ costs. This was, Mr Hamblen submitted, an exceptional case, because the claim was found to be exaggerated, the award in respect of principal and interest was only greater than the sealed offer by a small margin and, if there was taken into account the contingent view of the arbitrators as to the appropriate award in respect of costs if no sealed offer had been made, the disadvantage suffered by the claimants in terms of costs as a result of their rejection of the sealed offer was manifest. In short, Mr Hamblen submitted, the arbitrators were entitled to apply the Tramountana test as they did, but Mr Hamblen concedes that that case is not direct authority for the arbitrators’ approach.
That concession seems to me to be the weakness of his approach, and the reason why in this case the judge was right to decide as he did. Here the arbitrators purported to apply a test which at face value did enable them to answer the question as they did, but that test, although very valuable, cannot be used without qualification in every case. It was never intended to open the door to the approach which was adopted by the arbitrators in this case, and the real weakness of the present decision seems to me to be that the arbitrators, who did not have the benefit of oral argument in relation to the question of costs, do not seem to have recognised that they were breaking new ground. Had they done so I am sure that they would have realised that the value of keeping the principles to be applied to a sealed offer so far as possible in line with those applied to a payment into court. As Judge Diamond made clear, that assists the offeror and the party who receives the offer because, with one large uncertainty removed (forecasting the probable award in relation to costs) both parties are better able to judge what offer should be made and accepted, and thus settlements should be easier to achieve. Similarly, the task of arbitrators in deciding how to react to a sealed offer is kept relatively simple. And it should never be forgotten that it is always open to a respondent to secure the advantage which the arbitrators gave to the respondent in the present case by making a sealed offer which ‘beats’ the ultimate award in respect of principal and interest. One of the odd features of the present case is that if the arbitrators are right the respondents would have been no better off if they had offered a sum equivalent to or in excess of that actually awarded.
Furthermore, as Mr Schaff for the respondent owners pointed out to us, it would be odd if the way in which a party conducted the reference after receiving a sealed offer could improve the value of that offer to the other side. What, he asked rhetorically, would have been the position in the present case if those allegations which the arbitrators found to be unjustified had not been pursued? That, in my view, helps to illustrate that Judge Diamond was right for the reasons which he gave. The proper approach for these arbitrators would have been for them to ask themselves the Tramountana question in Judge Diamond’s amended form. That is why I agree with the order proposed by Evans LJ and would dismiss this appeal.
EVANS LJ. This appeal is concerned with the validity of the order for costs made by three experienced arbitrators at the conclusion of a maritime arbitration. The claimant shipowners were awarded $US23,211·17 plus interest after claiming in excess of $US73,000 as the balance of hire due under a time charterparty. The
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amount of the award dated 7 November 1990 was later reduced by agreement to $US16,215·99 excluding interest. The arbitrators then considered the question of costs in the light of a sealed offer which the respondents (the charterers) had made by letter dated 22 June 1990, about a month before the hearing. The offer was to pay $US15,000 plus interest and costs. The parties made further written submissions. By their second final award dated 28 March 1991, the arbitrators directed that the claimants and the respondents should each bear their own costs of the reference up to and including 29 June 1990, thus allowing seven days for consideration and acceptance of the 22 June offer, and that the claimants should bear their own and the respondents’ costs of the reference and should pay the whole of the costs of the interim award on liability and the final award on costs.
The claimants appealed by leave of Hirst J dated 20 May 1991. Their appeal was allowed by Judge Diamond QC sitting as a judge of the Commercial Court on 20 December 1991. His order was that each party should pay its own costs of the reference and that the costs of the two awards should be remitted to the arbitrators for their further consideration.
The charterers now appeal from his judgment, contending that the arbitrators’ award on costs should be restored.
The issue of law which arises was reformulated by the judge in these terms, and neither party dissents from his wording ([1992] 3 All ER 851 at 858, [1993] 1 WLR 33 at 39–40):
‘Whether on the facts set out in the award there were any grounds upon which the arbitrators could properly in law have exercised their discretion as to costs in the way they did.’
This has the advantage of emphasising (a) that arbitrators have a statutory discretion in the matter of costs, and (b) that the court is only entitled to interfere in their exercise of that discretion if they are shown to have acted improperly in law.
The costs order has two unusual features, only one of which gives rise to any issue for the court. First, the successful claimants recovered none of their costs, even those incurred before the sealed offer was made. This was for special reasons which were identified in the award and will be quoted below. There is no complaint in respect of this part of the order. Secondly, and importantly for present purposes, the claimants were ordered to pay the respondents’ costs incurred after the sealed offer, allowing seven days for consideration of it as is stated above, and the whole of the arbitrators’ costs of the two awards.
The essential issue, therefore, is the impact of the sealed offer on the order for costs which the arbitrators would otherwise have made. They make it clear that in any event they would not have ordered the respondents to pay the costs of the claimants, who succeeded in recovering $US16,215. Their decision, apart from the sealed offer, was that each party should bear its own costs throughout the reference, and the claimants do not challenge this as a proper exercise of the arbitrators’ discretion in the circumstances of this case. Their reasons in part were as follows:
‘3 … The Owners’ claim could not be regarded as exaggerated. However the Owners chose to bolster their case by an allegation that the vessel actually grounded in her berth and allegations that the Charterers had exerted improper pressure on the Master. These allegations were vigorously pursued on the basis of evidence which we were obliged to reject. In our view the length and cost of the hearing were much increased, and the chances of a settlement decreased, by these factors …
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7. Taking these factors into account we would, had there been no settlement agreement, have considered it proper to deprive the Claimants of their costs; we would have ordered that each party should pay its own costs despite the fact that the Claimants had made a recovery of part of the sum claimed.’
Proceeding to consider the effect of the sealed offer, they concluded as follows:
‘9. It seems to us that the test to be applied is that laid down by Donaldson J in Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA ([1978] 2 All ER 870 at 877) namely “has the claimant achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he could [sic] have achieved if he had accepted the offer?” In this case the answer to that question is that he has not. By rejecting the offer and continuing with the arbitration the Claimants will receive an additional $1,215·99 (a small sum but not de minimis) but have, in effect, lost a much larger sum, viz, costs in the reference. Taking this into account, we are satisfied that in the light of the sealed offer the Respondents are entitled to recover their costs from an appropriate date. Allowing a reasonable period for the Claimants to consider the Respondents’ offer we have decided that the Respondents should be entitled to recover their costs from 30th June 1990 inclusive.’
In Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA [1978] 2 All ER 870 at 876 Donaldson J described the practice of making a sealed offer so as to safeguard the position of respondents as regards the costs of an arbitration as ‘analogous to a payment into court’. The analogy cannot be exact, if only because there is no requirement that the respondent should produce the amount of his offer, nor any machinery, apart from special agreement, which would permit him to do so. But the practice which had developed by 1978 and which, so far as I am aware, has continued since then in commercial arbitrations is that a sealed offer is regarded as similar in its effect to a payment into court.
The position under the Rules of the Supreme Court is briefly as follows. If the money paid into court is accepted by the plaintiff, all further proceedings are stayed (RSC Ord 22, r 3(4)) and the case becomes one where an order for costs in his favour is deemed to have been made. He is entitled to recover his costs of the action incurred up to the time of giving notice of acceptance (Ord 62, r 5(4)). If the payment is not accepted and the action proceeds to judgment, then the court exercising its discretion as to costs is required to take into account ‘any payment of money into court and the amount of such payment’ (Ord 62, r 9(1)(b)) and ‘any written offer made under Order 22, rule 14’ with the proviso that no such offer shall be taken into account if the party making the offer could have protected his position as to costs by making a payment into court (Ord 62, r 9(1)(d)).
Jurisdiction
The first question arising on this appeal was not raised, or if raised was not developed, before Judge Diamond. The law and practice of arbitration with regard to the award of costs is stated by Mustill and Boyd Law of Arbitration (2nd edn, 1989) p 395 as follows:
‘Although the Act gives the arbitrator a full discretion as to costs, his exercise of the discretion is limited to this extent, that he must apply the same principles when deciding upon his award of costs as are applied in the High Court. This means that the discretion must be exercised judicially …’
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What follows can be summarised by saying that the arbitrator must not be influenced by unverified or extraneous facts. The passage continues:
‘The practice of the High Court is that “costs follow the event”: i.e. that in the ordinary way, the successful party should receive his costs. The arbitrator must apply the same principle.’
The earliest of the authorities referred to, apart from Donald Campbell & Co Ltd v Pollak [1927] AC 732, [1927] All ER Rep 1, which requires that costs shall follow the event is Lloyd Del Pacifico v Board of Trade (1930) 35 Com Cas 325 at 335 where Wright J quoted from the judgment of Scrutton LJ in Portland Steamship Co Ltd v Charlton Steam Shipping Co (1925) 23 Ll L Rep 268 at 271, which included the following:
‘… I should like to warn [the arbitrator] that it is wrong to make a successful defendant pay the costs of an unsuccessful plaintiff. Judges are not allowed to do it, and arbitrators cannot have a wider use of discretion in these matters than a Judge.’
Mr Hamblen for the charterers submits that this line of authority should be reconsidered in the light of the even earlier judgment of the House of Lords in Gray v Lord Ashburton [1917] AC 26, [1916–17] All ER Rep 380. That was a case where statutory arbitrators were given a discretion as to the award of costs, under r 14 of Sch 2 of the Agricultural Holdings Act 1908, which was followed by r 15 in these terms:
‘The arbitrator shall, in awarding costs, take into consideration the reasonableness or unreasonableness of the claim of either party, either in respect of amount or otherwise … and generally all the circumstances of the case …’
The arbitrator deposed by affidavit that he had done precisely this and had concluded that the landlord who claimed £744 and recovered £71 should pay the costs of the arbitration and of the award (see [1917] AC 26 at 27–28, [1916–17] All ER Rep 380 at 382). The House of Lords held that the Court of Appeal had been wrong to interfere with the arbitrator’s exercise of discretion. Their judgments therefore were concerned with the extent of the court’s powers to interfere with an award of costs made under and in accordance with that statute.
The issue which arises is whether the discretion given to arbitrators by s 18(1) of the Arbitration Act 1950, which I need not quote, is similarly unrestricted. There is no equivalent in the 1950 Act to r 15 of Sch 2 of the 1908 Act which appears to have influenced all the members of the House of Lords in Gray v Lord Ashburton (see [1917] AC 26 at 31, 35, 36, [1916–17] All ER Rep 380 at 382, 384, and including, in my judgment, Viscount Haldane also, [1917] AC 26 at 32, [1916–17] All ER Rep 380 at 382). But, whether or not the judgments were so limited, it cannot now be argued, in my judgment, that commercial arbitrators have any wider discretion as regards costs than is stated in the authorities referred to in Mustill and Boyd Law of Arbitration (2nd edn, 1989) and summarised by the learned authors in the passages quoted above. This is for two reasons. First, these authorities are themselves sufficient to establish the law, and they are unlikely to have been decided per incuriam or in ignorance of the earlier decision of the House of Lords (which was referred to by Diplock J in one of the cases, Heaven & Kesterton Ltd v Sven Widaeus A/B [1958] 1 All ER 420 at 423, [1958] 1 WLR 248 at 253–254). The then current edition of Russell on the Law of Arbitration
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(16th edn, 1957) p 252 was quoted with approval by Hodson LJ in Perry v Stopher [1959] 1 All ER 713 at 715, [1959] 1 WLR 415 at 419 as follows:
‘… the discretion must be exercised judicially, and it will be reviewed by the court to the same extent as a judge’s order as to costs will be reviewed upon an appeal.’
Secondly, in a later judgment of the Court of Appeal, which varied an arbitrator’s costs order on this ground, Edmund Davies LJ referred to a ‘settled practice’ to this effect which Lord Goddard CJ had so described in Lewis v Haverfordwest RDC [1953] 2 All ER 1599 at 1599, [1953] 1 WLR 1486 at 1487 (see Dineen v Walpole [1969] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 261 at 266). It follows that arbitration agreements have been made on this basis since at least 1930, the year of Wright J’s judgment in Lloyd del Pacifico, and this should not be changed retrospectively, in my judgment, even if some earlier authority was not properly understood.
In the result, however, it may not be important for present purposes whether an arbitrator is required to exercise his statutory discretion as to costs in the same way and subject to the same constraints as a judge; more strictly, whether the court’s power to interfere with the arbitrator’s award is limited to the same extent as an appellate court’s powers in relation to a costs order made by a judge. Mr Hamblen accepts and asserts that the arbitrator is bound to act judicially. The essential dispute is whether this means, in relation to a sealed offer, that it must be treated in precisely the same way as a payment into court, so that in the event of non-acceptance the respondent is only protected as regards his costs after the date of the offer if the offer is at least as great as the sum finally awarded in respect of the claim, or whether an arbitrator has power to exercise a wider discretion so as to take account of, in particular, the incurring of costs and the fact, if it be such, that the award only exceeds the offer by a relatively small amount.
Before leaving the question of jurisdiction, I venture to doubt whether there is any difference between the ‘absolute’ discretion for which Mr Hamblen contends and a duty to act judicially, which requires an arbitrator to exercise the discretion within the same limits as a judge, as described in Mustill and Boyd Law of Arbitration (2nd edn, 1989). The judge’s discretion is also ‘absolute’ but nevertheless it must be exercised ‘judicially’, as appears from the speech of Viscount Cave LC in Donald Campbell & Co Ltd v Pollak [1927] AC 732 at 811–812, [1927] All ER Rep 1 at 41:
‘A successful defendant … has no right to costs unless and until the Court awards them to him, and the Court has an absolute and unfettered discretion to award or not to award them. This discretion, like any other discretion, must of course be exercised judicially, and the judge ought not to exercise it against the successful party except for some reason connected with the case.’
In addition, there is room for argument as to whether ‘absolute’ adds anything to ‘discretion’ in this context: see per Lord Denning MR in Ward v James [1965] 1 All ER 563 at 569, [1966] 1 QB 273 at 292.
For my part, I would accept that the discretion is ‘absolute’, but in my judgment an arbitrator errs in law if he exercises the discretion otherwise than in accordance with the restraints imposed by law upon a judge.
Sealed offers
The next question, therefore, is whether the arbitrator is required to treat a sealed offer in exactly the same way as the law requires a judge to treat a payment in, ie the respondent recovers his costs after the date of the offer if it was at least
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as great as the amount of the award. Conversely, the offer has no effect on the order for costs if it was for less than the amount awarded in respect of the claim. This question, so put, can be answered shortly. Payment in is regulated by rules of court which do not apply either to arbitrations generally or to sealed offers in particular. But the question to be posed, in my judgment, is whether the arbitrator is required by law to make equivalent orders in the case of a sealed offer to pay a stated amount in respect of the claim. This situation cannot arise in court proceedings, because of the proviso to RSC Ord 62, r 9(1)(d) which I have quoted above.
This makes it necessary to consider the question as one of principle, and the arbitrators were correct, in my judgment, and certainly entitled as a matter of law to ask themselves the question posed by Donaldson J in Tramountana Armadora SA v Atlantic Shipping Co SA [1978] 2 All ER 870 at 877. The arbitrator ‘should ask himself the question: “Has the claimant achieved more by rejecting the offer and going on with the arbitration than he would have achieved if he had accepted the offer?” ’
The answer to this question is clear in the present case, but it depends upon whether costs are taken into account, or not. Disregarding costs, the answer is ‘Yes: $16,215 as against $15,000, ie $1,215, which the arbitrators expressly find is not a de minimis amount’. If costs are included, then the answer equally clearly, is ‘No’, because the claimant’s costs both before and after 29 June must greatly have exceeded that amount. So the present case raises directly, in my judgment, the issue whether as a matter of law the arbitrators were permitted to take the claimants’ costs into account. Moreover, the arbitrators gave as their only reason for ordering the claimants to pay the costs of continuing the arbitration after their rejection of the respondents’ offer the fact that they ‘have, in effect, lost a much larger sum [than $1,215·99], viz, costs in the reference’ (para 9).
Small excess
I should refer first to Mr Hamblen’s alternative submission, which is that the amount by which the offer was exceeded was so small, notwithstanding that it was greater than de minimis, that on this ground alone the arbitrators were entitled to treat the offer as practically equivalent to the amount of the award. In my judgment, the arbitrators’ finding is fatal to this submission. The concept of de minimis means that the court will disregard ‘trivialities, matters of little moment, of a trifling and negligible nature’ (per Sellers LJ in Margaronis Navigation Agency Ltd v Henry W Peabody & Co of London Ltd [1964] 3 All ER 333 at 334, [1965] 2 QB 430 at 444). The finding implies, therefore, that the excess recovery cannot be disregarded. The offer was exceeded by a non-negligible amount.
Costs
I return therefore to the question whether the arbitrators were entitled as a matter of law to take into account the burden of costs. There are many practical reasons why it is desirable that the sealed offer procedure should raise for the arbitrator ‘a simple question to answer’ (Tramountana [1978] 2 All ER 870 at 877) and why the parties should not face, at the stage when they are deciding whether or not to accept the offer, the difficulties referred to by Judge Diamond [1992] 3 All ER 851 at 863ff, [1993] 1 WLR 33 at 45ff. But these practical considerations might have to bow to the greater desirability of allowing arbitrators, as the parties’ chosen tribunal, to take into account all such matters, including costs, as they may consider appropriate, when asking themselves the general question
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posed by Donaldson J in Tramountana. It is necessary, therefore, to consider whether there is a sound reason why as a matter of law costs should not be taken into account.
Tramountana itself is authority for the proposition that they should not. The offer there was to pay $US6,000 inclusive of interest and costs. Donaldson J pointed out ([1978] 2 All ER 870 at 878) that ‘costs calculated to a date in the middle of the arbitration are a completely unknown factor which the arbitrator is not in a position to assess …' He is ‘unable to make the vital comparison’ and a sealed offer must (or should) be ‘to settle the action for £X plus costs’. But this passage also demonstrates that Donaldson J was not invited to consider or decide the question raised by the present appeal.
There have been, moreover, two significant developments in the law since 1978, when Tramountana was decided. First, the Arbitration Act 1979 as applied in Pioneer Shipping Ltd v BTP Tioxide Ltd, The Nema [1981] 2 All ER 1030, [1982] AC 724 has reduced considerably and as a matter of legislative and judicial policy the scope for interference by the courts in arbitrators’ awards, not least where experienced and specialist tribunals are concerned. Secondly, the courts have developed the concept of Calderbank offers which is now referred to in RSC Ord 22, r 14 where they are described as written offers ‘without prejudice save as to costs’. These began with Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93 but their use was extended to other kinds of cases by Computer Machinery Co Ltd v Drescher [1983] 3 All ER 153, [1983] 1 WLR 1379 though subject to the requirement, now reflected in the proviso to Ord 62, r 9(1)(d), that they are inappropriate in cases where the payment in procedure under Ord 22 might be used: Cutts v Head [1984] 1 All ER 597, [1984] Ch 290.
This new procedure has enabled the courts to consider the more general question whether it was reasonable to refuse the offer and to take into account the size of the difference between the amount of the offer and the amount of the adjudication: Chrulew v Borm-Reid & Co (a firm) [1992] 1 All ER 953, [1992] 1 WLR 176 (taxation of costs, where the offer exceeded the taxed amount by a small amount, but the plaintiffs were not required to pay the defendants their post-offer costs).
In my judgment, a parallel may be drawn between the arbitrator’s exercise of discretion in regard to the effect of a sealed offer on costs and a judge’s exercise of discretion following a Calderbank offer. In both cases, the discretion is ‘absolute’ in the sense referred to above, but it must be exercised ‘judicially’. If the Calderbank procedure was permitted in cases of a money claim where the defendant could make a payment into court, then the correspondence might be exact. But the question remains: is the arbitrator, if not the judge, entitled to take costs into account when answering the question whether the plaintiff is better off for having refused the offer and proceeded to a hearing and award?
This is the question which the tribunal asks itself at the conclusion of the proceedings, in the light of the substantive award which it has made. If it is concerned only with the size of the award in relation to the amount of the offer, then the answer, subject only to the de minimis rule, is clear. But if it is permitted to take costs into account, it becomes necessary to consider a much wider range of factors, from the point of view of the party who had to decide, when the offer was received, whether to accept it or not. This must involve assessing whether the rejection was reasonable, for it would be onerous to order that party to pay the costs of the reference if the decision not to accept the offer was reasonable when it was made.
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What factors should that party, notionally and with hindsight, have been required to take into account? This makes it necessary to consider what precisely is meant by the costs of the reference. Is this limited to the claimant’s own costs incurred up to the date when the offer is received? Should these be the actual costs for which he is liable to his solicitor, or are they limited to the amount which he may expect to recover on taxation, if the claim succeeds and the respondent is ordered to pay the claimant his costs? Should the claimant estimate his chances of obtaining an order for his costs, if there are or may be grounds on which the arbitrators might make some other and more limited order in the circumstances of the case? The wider the arbitrators’ powers in the exercise of their discretion are, the more difficult it becomes for the party to know in advance what order they are likely to make.
Mr Hamblen for the respondents does not contend for a rule which would require the arbitrators to take actual, as opposed to taxed costs into account. But this means straightaway that they are not concerned with the actual financial consequences of refusing the offer for the claimants, but with the eventual state of accounts between them and the respondents. The equation should also include, presumably, the costs of the award, which are paid to the arbitrators direct.
If the inquiry is limited in this way, and the arbitrators are required to consider only whether the claimants are better or worse off for rejecting the offer, then it leads in my view to the single issue, whether the claimants could reasonably expect to obtain a costs order in their favour if they were to obtain an award greater, subject always to de minimis, than the amount of the offer. The corollary of this question is whether the claimants were aware of any reason why costs should not follow the event when in due course the claim succeeds for an amount greater than the respondents have offered. It would also be subject to the qualification that if the claimants were deprived of all or part of their taxed costs, then it would be necessary to estimate, from the point of view of the claimant at the time when the offer was made, whether the amount of that shortfall was greater or less than the amount by which the award exceeds the sum which was offered. If $US15,000 is offered and $US16,000 awarded, but without costs, then it may safely be assumed that the claimants’ pre-offer taxed costs were greater than the $US1,000 excess; but the comparison becomes more difficult, though none the less valid, as the amount of the excess increases.
If the arbitrators are entitled to have regard, not merely to the claimant’s pre-offer taxed costs but to some estimate of the costs which he will incur and not recover from the respondents if the arbitration proceeds, then the question which a claimant, to whom a sealed offer is made, and his advisers must ask themselves becomes practically impossible to answer. Indeed, it may even lead to estimating the likely amount of the respondents’ taxed costs. He and they must assess the chances of recovering, not merely a greater award but also an order that the respondents shall pay the whole of his costs and of the award. If there is any risk of some other order for costs, then he must assess the chances of obtaining a sufficiently greater award to take account of the difference; and, if he does not, of being ordered to pay the respondent’s costs of the reference after the date of the offer, which would be a foreseeable outcome if the respondent’s submission in the present case is correct.
These are awesome complications in what Donaldson J saw in 1978 in Tramountana as a simple exercise and which is still regarded as such, so far as I am aware, in commercial arbitrations generally. I cannot accept that the law requires or permits arbitrators, or judges, to have regard to the likely incidence of
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post-offer costs, whatever the position may be with regard to the claimant’s own pre-offer taxed costs. The present case is a straightforward example of that situation. The offer was $US15,000 plus costs. The award was $US16,215 without costs. The claimants’ pre-offer costs likely to be recovered on taxation clearly were more than $US1,215. So the claimants are worse off for going on, because the additional hire which was awarded to them was less than the costs which they did not recover but which had been offered to them.
Conclusion
It is this distinction between the claim for hire, to which the claimants are entitled as of right, and the ancillary claim for costs, in relation to which there is no prior right (per Viscount Cave LC in Donald Campbell & Co Ltd v Pollak [1927] AC 732, [1927] All ER Rep 1), which points to the correct solution as a matter of law. Treated as a matter of contract, the offer was to pay $US15,000 in respect of the claim, and costs in an indeterminate amount which could be taxed, if not agreed. $US15,000 was the respondents’ valuation of the claim for hire. That has proved to be an undervaluation, and the claimants’ decision to regard it as such has been vindicated by the award.
What the respondents now say is that the offer should be regarded as equivalent to $US15,000 plus $X, where X is the amount of the claimants’ pre-offer taxed costs. No such taxation has taken place, nor will it as a result of the arbitrators’ decision to deprive the claimants of all their costs, in any event. Therefore, $X can only be regarded as an estimate of the amount which the claimants would have recovered if their costs had been taxed or agreed. But, having made the estimate, that figure should be added to the $US15,000 offered in respect of the claim so as to produce a total figure for the purposes of comparison with the recovery of $US16,215 in respect of hire, but without costs, in fact made. This is perilously close to offering a global sum, inclusive of costs, which Donaldson J held in Tramountana should not be done.
In my judgment, the respondents should not be permitted to say that the offer of $US15,000 in respect of hire should now be treated as if it was an offer of $US16,215 or more, merely because their further offer of costs was proved by subsequent events to have been unnecessary. Costs were offered because they were regarded as ancillary to the claim. In the result, the respondents successfully objected to that ancillary order being made. They cannot now say, in my judgment, that the offer to pay costs should be treated as if it was a supplementary offer to pay more than $US15,000 in respect of the claim.
This conclusion is consistent with the judicial basis on which the rule that ‘costs follow the event’ has been reconciled with the rule, or practice, that a plaintiff who obtains judgment for less than the amount of the payment in loses his right to recover costs after the date of the payment in and becomes liable, although successful in obtaining judgment, for the defendant’s costs after that date. This was explained by Somervell LJ in Findlay v Railway Executive [1950] 2 All ER 969 at 971 as follows:
‘The first point to be decided here is whether a defendant who has paid money into court which has not been taken out and exceeds the sum awarded to the plaintiff is a successful litigant or a successful party within those two statements of the law. I hold that he is, and that the principles there laid down apply. The main purpose of the rules for payment into court is the hope that further litigation will be avoided, the plaintiff being encouraged to take out the sum paid in, if it be a reasonable sum, whereas, if he goes on and gets a smaller sum, he will be penalised wholly or to some
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extent in costs. Once, therefore, the money has been paid in, the lis between the parties simply is: Is that sum sufficient to cover the damage which has been suffered. Prima facie, therefore, the defendants in the present case are entitled to be paid their costs as from the date of payment in, but, of course, as in other cases, there may be circumstances connected with the case which entitled the judge to make some order other than that of giving the successful litigant his costs, and counsel for the plaintiff submitted that there were such circumstances in this case.’
This in my opinion is equivalent to saying, in contractual terms as I have sought to do in this arbitration context, that the offer represents the respondents’ valuation of the claimants’ cause of action. The claimant takes issue with that valuation by rejecting the offer, and success or failure on that issue determines, subject to special considerations, if any, the proper order as to costs. Here, the offer was an undervaluation and the claimants were justified in treating it as such. The result for which the respondents contend is, on analysis, in my judgment, inconsistent with the basic principle that costs follow the event. It is clearly established that that principle governs an arbitrator’s exercise of his discretion as to costs. There is no other situation, so far as I am aware, where the order for costs, which should follow the event, itself determines the event. For these reasons I would dismiss this appeal.
I should add that there is an additional reason why I would be reluctant to introduce, even in commercial arbitrations, any qualification of the requirement that arbitrators should exercise their discretion as to costs, in an arbitration governed by English law, in accordance with the principles applied in the courts. The English rules regarding costs, whilst not unique, are certainly a distinctive feature of English arbitration proceedings. An agreement to arbitrate in England or subject to English laws of procedure is made on the basis that these principles will be applied. It is always possible for the parties or for standard arbitration rules to exclude these principles, and this is sometimes done. When it is not, the parties’ expectations will tend to be defeated if some other or wider discretion is given to arbitrators than the established rules permit. This is not to say that the rules cannot be changed and are established for all time; but it does mean, in my judgment, that the arbitrator’s discretion in such circumstances is subject to recognised rules of law.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
MS Fashions Ltd and others v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq) and others (No 2)
High Street Services Ltd and others v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq)
Impexbond Ltd and others v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq)
[1993] 3 All ER 769
Categories: COMPANY; Insolvency: BANKING AND FINANCE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): HOFFMANN LJ
Hearing Date(s): 24, 25 SEPTEMBER, 27 NOVEMBER 1992
COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
DILLON, NOLAN AND STEYN LJJ
15, 16, 25 MARCH 1993
Company – Compulsory winding up – Debtor – Mutual credits, debts and dealings between company and debtor – Set-off – Guarantee of loan by bank to company – Repayment guaranteed by director who had deposit account with bank – Director accepting liability as principal debtor – Bank becoming insolvent – Whether director entitled to set off deposit against liability as guarantor of company’s debt – Whether company’s debt wholly or pro tanto extinguished by deposit – Whether bank entitled to claim total debt from company or director as guarantor leaving director to prove in liquidation for deposit – Insolvency Rules 1986, r 4.90.
The plaintiffs were two depositors with a bank and had also secured advances by the bank to companies of which they were directors and had executed mortgage deeds or letters of charge in which they accepted as ‘the principal debtor’ the liabilities of their respective companies. In one case the amount standing to the credit of the plaintiff on deposit exceeded the companies’ indebtedness to the bank; in the other case it did not. The bank became insolvent and when it was compulsorily wound up the plaintiffs claimed to be entitled to set off their deposits against the amount they owed the bank under the guarantees and that the liability of the companies was extinguished entirely or pro tanto. The plaintiffs sought the determination of the court on the question whether their respective indebtedness had been wholly or partially extinguished by the set-off of the amount on deposit. The judge held that the indebtedness of each of the companies as at the date of the winding up had been extinguished or reduced by the amount which on that date was standing to the credit of the plaintiffs in their respective deposit accounts. The bank’s liquidators appealed.
Held – Where there had been mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings between an insolvent company and any creditor of the company, r 4.90a of the Insolvency Rules 1986 required that an account be taken of what was due from each party to the other in respect of the mutual dealings and the sums due
Page 770 of [1993] 3 All ER 769
from one party had to be set off against the sums due from the other before a claim was made in the liquidation or a payment made to the liquidator, as the case might be. Moreover, the set-off was mandatory, it could not be excluded by any contract between the parties and it applied notwithstanding the fact that one or other of the debts or credits might be secured. It followed that if a bank lent money to a company secured by a guarantee provided by a person who had a deposit account with the bank, the guarantee being on terms that the guarantor was the principal debtor, and the bank subsequently became insolvent, the guarantor could set off his claim for the return of his deposit against his liability to pay the company’s debt, so that the debt was wholly or pro tanto extinguished. Accordingly, the plaintiffs having accepted liability as principal debtors and being under immediate liability to pay the companies’ debts without demand being made the companies’ liability was extinguished or reduced, as a result of a set-off between the bank and the plaintiffs pursuant to r 4.90 of the 1986 rules, by the amount standing to the credit of the plaintiffs’ deposit accounts so that the plaintiffs were only liable to pay the difference, if any, between the companies’ debts and the amount of the deposits. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 770 d to j and p 788 j to p 789 a, post).
Dictum of Dixon J in Hiley v People’s Prudential Assurance Co Ltd (in liq) (1938) 60 CLR 468 at 496–497 applied.
Young v Bank of Bengal (1836) 1 Moore Ind 87, Ex p Caldicott, re Hart (1884) 25 Ch D 716 and Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd (No 2) [1930] All ER Rep 315 distinguished.
Notes For mutual credits and set-off, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1788.
For the Insolvency Rules 1986, r 4.90, see 3 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1991 reissue) 320.
Cases referred to in judgments
Barnett, Ex p, re Deveze (1874) LR 9 Ch App 293.
Bradford Old Bank Ltd v Sutcliffe [1918] 2 KB 833, CA.
Brown’s Estate, Re, Brown v Brown [1893] 2 Ch 300.
Caldicott, Ex p, re Hart (1884) 25 Ch D 716.
Charge Card Services Ltd, Re [1986] 3 All ER 289, [1987] Ch 150, [1986] 3 WLR 697; affd [1988] 3 All ER 702, [1989] Ch 497, [1988] 3 WLR 723, CA.
City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd, Re (No 2) [1930] 2 Ch 293, [1930] All ER Rep 315, CA.
Daintrey, Re, ex p Mant [1900] 1 QB 546, [1895–9] All ER Rep 657, CA.
Debtor, Re, ex p Peak Hill Goldfield Ltd [1909] 1 KB 430, CA.
Dynamics Corp of America, Re [1976] 2 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 757.
Ellis & Co’s Trustee v Dixon-Johnson [1925] AC 489, [1925] All ER Rep 715, HL; affg [1924] 2 Ch 451, CA.
Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Alstonbridge Properties Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 358, [1975] 1 WLR 1474.
Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd (1984) 26 BLR 66.
Hiley v People’s Prudential Assurance Co Ltd (in liq) (1938) 60 CLR 468, Aust HC.
Joachimson (N) (a firm) v Swiss Bank Corp [1921] 3 KB 110, [1921] All ER Rep 92, CA.
Mid-Kent Fruit Factory, Re [1896] 1 Ch 567.
Middleton v Pollock, ex p Knight and Raymond (1875) LR 20 Eq 515.
National Westminster Bank Ltd v Halesowen Presswork and Assemblies Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 641, [1972] AC 785, [1972] 2 WLR 455, HL.
Page 771 of [1993] 3 All ER 769
New Quebrada Co Ltd v Carr (1869) LR 4 CP 651.
Northern Counties of England Fire Insurance Co, Re, Macfarlane’s Claim (1880) 17 Ch D 337.
Owen v Wilkinson (1858) 5 CBNS 526, 141 ER 213.
Palmer v Day & Sons [1895] 2 QB 618.
Pollitt, Re, ex p Minor [1893] 1 QB 455, CA.
Rowe v Young (1820) 2 Bli 391, 4 ER 372.
Sovereign Life Assurance Co v Dodd [1892] 2 QB 573, [1891–4] All ER Rep 246, CA.
Stephens, Ex p (1805) 11 Ves 24, 32 ER 996.
Young v Bank of Bengal (1836) 1 Moore Ind 87, 18 ER 34.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Barclays Bank Ltd v TOSG Trust Fund Ltd [1984] 1 All ER 1060, [1984] AC 626, HL.
Barclays Bank v Quistclose Investments Ltd [1968] 3 All ER 651, [1970] AC 567, HL.
Batchellor v Lawrence (1861) 9 CBNS 543, 142 ER 214.
Batson v Spearman (1838) 9 Ad & E 298, 112 ER 1225.
Bowyear v Pawson (1881) 6 QBD 540, DC.
British Eagle International Airlines Ltd v Cie Nationale Air France [1975] 2 All ER 390, [1975] 1 WLR 758, HL.
Carter, Re, Carter v Carter (1885) 55 LJ Ch 230.
Commercial Bank of Australia Ltd v Wilson & Co’s Estate Official Assignee [1893] AC 181, PC.
Curwen v Milburn (1889) 42 Ch D 424.
Debtor, Re a (No 66 of 1955), ex p the debtor v Trustee of the property of Waite (a bankrupt) [1956] 3 All ER 225, [1956] 1 WLR 1226, CA.
General Exchange Bank, Re, re Lewis (1871) LR 6 Ch App 818.
General Produce Co v United Bank [1979] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 255.
Hague v Dandeson (1848) 2 Ex 742, 154 ER 689.
Hanson, Ex p (1811) 18 Ves 232, 34 ER 305, LC.
Hill v Wade (1616) Cro Jac 523, 79 ER 447.
Ince Hall Rolling Mills Co v Douglas Forge Co (1882) 8 QBD 179.
Jackson v Ogg (1859) Johns 397, 70 ER 476.
Langley Constructions (Brixham) Ltd v Wells [1969] 2 All ER 46, [1969] 1 WLR 503, CA.
Lep Air Services Ltd v Rolloswin Investments Ltd [1971] 3 All ER 45, [1971] 1 WLR 934, CA.
Mackay, Ex p, ex p Brown, re Jeavons (1873) LR 8 Ch App 643.
Mersey Steel and Iron Co v Naylor Benzon & Co (1882) 9 QBD 648; affd (1884) 9 App Cas 434, [1881–5] All ER Rep 365, CA.
National Benefit Assurance Co Ltd, Re [1924] 2 Ch 339, [1924] All ER Rep 426.
Norton v Ellam (1837) 2 M & W 461, 150 ER 839.
Palmer v Carey [1926] AC 703, [1926] All ER Rep 650, PC.
Peat v Jones & Co (1881) 8 QBD 147, CA.
Prescot, Ex p (1753) 1 Atk 230, 26 ER 147.
Rolls Razor v Cox [1967] 1 All ER 397, [1967] 1 QB 552, CA.
Sass, Re, ex p National Provincial Bank of England Ltd [1896] 2 QB 12.
Taylor, Re, ex p Norvell [1910] 1 KB 562, KBD and CA.
Ulster Bank Ltd v Lambe [1966] NI 161, NI QBD.
United Dominions Trust Ltd v Kirkwood [1966] 1 All ER 968, [1966] 2 QB 431, CA.
Wallis v Scott (1716) 1 Strange 89, 93 ER 402.
Webb v Smith (1855) 30 Ch D 192, CA.
Welsh Development Agency v Export Finance Co Ltd [1992] BCLC 148, CA.
Page 772 of [1993] 3 All ER 769
MotionsMS Fashions Ltd and others v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq)
By notice of motion dated 5 June 1992 the plaintiffs, MS Fashions Ltd, MS Fashions (Wholesale) Ltd and Mohammed Sarwar, sought the determination of the court pursuant to RSC Ord 14A of the following questions of law: (a) whether the third plaintiff’s set-off (being the set-off pursuant to r 4.90 of the Insolvency Rules 1986 of the debt of the first defendant, Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liquidation)) to the third plaintiff in respect of a deposit standing to the credit of the third plaintiff on his account against the third plaintiff’s liability to the first defendant as a guarantor of the first and second plaintiffs’ gross aggregate indebtedness (being the sums owed by the first and second plaintiffs to the first defendant as at 5 July 1991) either as principal debtor or alternatively following a demand for payment, constituted or took effect as a payment by him as guarantor of the liabilities of the first and second plaintiffs; (b) whether by reason of the first defendant’s liquidation and failure and/or inability to repay to the third plaintiff the sums standing to his credit on his account the first defendant had appropriated or was deemed to have appropriated the sums standing to the third plaintiff’s credit on his account in partial satisfaction and discharge of the gross aggregate indebtedness with the result that the true level of his indebtedness was the amount of the net aggregate indebtedness (being the gross aggregate indebtedness after account was taken of the effect thereon of the third plaintiff’s set-off); (c) whether the offer of £318,031·92 in payment of the net aggregate indebtedness made on the third plaintiff’s behalf was a good tender of all sums due from the plaintiffs to the first defendant on payment of which the first defendant was bound to discharge the debentures, mortgages and charges held by it in respect of the property and assets of the first and second plaintiffs and release all securities and guarantees held by it in respect of such indebtedness. The second and third defendants were Anthony Richmond and Roger Taylor, the joint administrative receivers of the first and second plaintiffs. The facts are set out in the judgment.
High Street Services Ltd and others v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq)
By notice of motion dated 29 June 1992 the plaintiffs, High Street Services Ltd, Portmaid Fashions Ltd, Cira Ltd, Raees Ahmed and Saeed Ahmed, sought a declaration that the plaintiffs were entitled to set off the sums standing to the credit of the fourth plaintiff in the deposit account with the defendant, Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liquidation), at the date on which the defendant was placed into liquidation, in the taking of an account of what was due (a) by the first, second plaintiff and third plaintiffs under a cross-guarantee and debenture dated 10 June 1989 and made between the first plaintiff and the defendant, (b) by the first, second and third plaintiffs under a charge by way of legal mortgage dated 2 October 1989 and made between (1) the first, second and third plaintiffs, (2) the first plaintiff, and (3) the defendant, affecting the property known as 130 High Street, Gosport, Hants, (c) under a charge by way of legal mortgage dated 2 October 1989 made between the same parties affecting the property known as 62 Somers Road, Southsea, Hants; (d) under a charge by way of legal mortgage dated 2 October 1989 and made between the same parties affecting the property known as 1 Arundel Street, Portsmouth, Hants; (e) by the fifth plaintiff under a charge by way of legal mortgage dated 2 October 1989 and made between the same parties affecting the property known as 65 Lancaster
Page 773 of [1993] 3 All ER 769
Crescent, Kingston upon Thames, Surrey; (f) under a charge by way of legal mortgage dated 22 December 1986 between the first plaintiff and the defendant affecting the property known as 132 High Street, Gosport, Hants; (g) under a charge by way of legal mortgage dated 22 April 1988 between (1) the first, second and third plaintiffs, (2) the first plaintiff, and (3) the defendant, affecting the property known as 131 High Street, Gosport, Hants. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Impexbond Ltd and others v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq)
By a notice of motion dated 27 July 1992 the plaintiffs, Impexbond Ltd, Tucan Investments plc and Nasir Abdul Amir, sought (a) a declaration that by virtue of r 4.90 of the Insolvency Rules 1986 an account should be taken of what was due from the third plaintiff as co-principal debtor with the first plaintiff to the defendant and from the defendant to the third plaintiff and that the sums due from the third plaintiff to the defendant should be set off against the sums due from the defendant to the third plaintiff, (b) a declaration that by virtue of r 4.90 of the Insolvency Rules 1986 an account should be taken of what was due from the third plaintiff as co-principal debtor with the second plaintiff to the defendant and from the defendant to the third plaintiff and that the sums due from the third plaintiff to the defendant should be set off against the sums due from the defendant to the third plaintiff. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Alan Steinfeld QC and Francis Tregear (instructed by Zaiwalla & Co) for the MS Fashions plaintiffs.
Jonathan Sumption QC and Helen Davies (instructed by Slaughter & May) for the Impexbond plaintiffs (and instructed by Glanvilles, Portsmouth) for the High Street Services plaintiffs.
Neville Thomas QC and Robin Dicker (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for BCCI.
Cur adv vult
27 November 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
HOFFMANN LJ. There are before the court motions under RSC Ord 14A in three actions which raise a common point of principle on the law of set-off in insolvency. A bank advances money to a company. Repayment is guaranteed by a director who has a deposit account with the bank. As between himself and the bank, the director is expressed to be a principal debtor. On the insolvency of the bank, can the director set off his claim for return of his deposit against his liability to pay the company’s debt, so that the debt is wholly or pro tanto extinguished? Or can the bank claim the whole debt from the company and leave the director to prove in the liquidation for his deposit?
I shall set out briefly the facts of the three cases. In MS Fashions Mr Sarwar and his brother Mr Safdar executed a mortgage deed dated 30 May 1984 to secure advances by the Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (BCCI) to their companies, MS Fashions Ltd and MS Fashions (Wholesale) Ltd. The main purpose of this document was to give BCCI a mortgage over a property which the brothers owned in Leeds. But it also contained a general covenant by which the brothers (defined, together with their companies, as ‘the principal debtor’) covenanted to pay on demand in writing all moneys owed by all the persons defined as ‘the principal debtor’, that is to say, each other and their companies.
On 9 December 1985 Mr Sarwar gave BCCI additional security. He deposited money in an account with BCCI and signed a letter of charge by which he charged
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the deposit to secure the liabilities of the companies. He agreed that the bank could at any time without notice apply the deposit towards satisfaction of the companies’ indebtedness and that ‘the liabilities hereunder shall be as that of principal debtor’. In addition, he signed two unlimited guarantees of the companies’ liabilities in BCCI’s standard form. These were expressed to be additional to any other security the bank might have.
In High Street Services Mr Raees Ahmed on 24 April 1989 executed three separate documents each headed ‘Cash Deposit Security Terms—Third Party’. Each was to provide security for advances to one of his companies: High Street Services Ltd, Portmaid Fashions Ltd and Cira Ltd. They were standard forms which contained both a guarantee of the companies’ liabilities and also ‘as a separate and independent obligation’ a covenant that on demand in writing the companies’ liabilities would be recoverable from Mr Ahmed as principal debtor. It also gave BCCI a charge and other rights in respect of a deposit account in Mr Ahmed’s name. In addition, Mr Ahmed signed separate guarantees of the liabilities of each company in BCCI’s standard form.
In Impexbond Mr Nasir Amir on 11 March 1985 deposited money with BCCI and executed a charge over the deposit to secure the liabilities of his company Impexbond Ltd. The document was similar to the letter of charge in MS Fashions and provided that ‘the liabilities hereunder shall be as that of principal debtor’. On 29 May 1986 Mr Amir executed a charge in similar form over the same and another deposit account to secure the liabilities of Tucan Investments plc. He also executed standard form guarantees of the liabilities of both companies.
Thus a common feature of all three cases appears to be that the director signed a document saying that his liability to pay the company’s debts was to be as that of a principal debtor. Mr Neville Thomas QC, who appeared for BCCI, questioned whether this was entirely true. In MS Fashions he said that including Mr Sarwar and his brother in the definition of the ‘principal debtor’ was strange and possibly a mistake. But the bank seems to have wanted to pile up as many cumulative rights as possible against the directors and I cannot say that as a matter of construction it would make no sense to give effect to the definition. There is no claim for rectification and I doubt whether it would be possible to show the necessary contrary intent on the part of both parties. Mr Thomas also said that the reference to liability being as that of principal debtor in the MS Fashions and Impexbond letters of charge was odd because the letters did not expressly create any liability. They merely constituted a charge over the deposit in favour of BCCI. On the other hand, I think it is a tenable view that such charges over deposits can be analysed as the creation of a liability on the part of the chargor for the company’s debt, not exceeding the amount of the deposit, which can be set off against BCCI’s liability to repay the deposit. It seems to me that the reference to the liability of the depositor as being that of a principal debtor should, as a matter of construction, be taken as having this effect. Whether or not this is the only way in which they can take effect (see Re Charge Card Services Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 289 at 308, [1987] Ch 150 at 175) I think that the principal debtor clause enables it to do so.
BCCI was compulsorily wound up on 14 January 1992. At that date, the state of accounts between the parties in the three cases was as follows. In MS Fashions, Mr Sarwar had about £300,000 in the deposit account with BCCI and his companies owed it about £572,000. Mr Sarwar claims to set off his deposit against what he owes BCCI under the mortgage deed and letter of charge and says that this will pro tanto extinguish the liability of the companies as well. In High Street Fashions Mr Ahmed had about £426,000 on deposit and the companies owed BCCI
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over £1,000,000. Mr Ahmed claims to be able to set off BCCI’s liability on the deposit against his liability in respect of the companies’ debts. In Impexbond the companies owed BCCI about £3·3m and Mr Amir had about £4·5m on deposit. He claims to be able to set part of this sum against his liability to pay the companies’ debts and to prove in the liquidation of BCCI for the rest.
The MS Fashions litigation was precipitated by BCCI (through its liquidators) appointing administrative receivers of both MS Fashions companies on 20 May 1992. On the following day the companies applied to Millett J for leave to bring proceedings against BCCI and an order restraining the administrative receivers from acting. On the following day Millett J refused relief on the ground that the claim to set-off was not arguable. On the same day the Court of Appeal (Woolf and Scott LJJ) expressed a provisional contrary view and gave leave to commence originating summons proceedings against BCCI claiming a declaration that the companies’ indebtedness had been partially extinguished by the set-off of Mr Sarwar’s deposit (see [1993] BCLC 280). But the Court of Appeal refused injunctive relief on the grounds that even after set-off, the companies would still owe BCCI about £300,000. On 28 July 1992 Mr Sarwar paid the balance of the indebtedness and costs and the administrative receivers were discharged by consent. The set-off issue comes before the court on a motion to determine an issue of law under RSC Ord 14A. Similar motions are brought in High Street Services and Impexbond.
Insolvency set-off has been a creature of statute since the time of Queen Anne (4 & 5 Anne, c 17, s 11). The current provision applicable to companies is r 4.90 of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925:
‘(1) This Rule applies where, before the company goes into liquidation there have been mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings between the company and any creditor of the company proving or claiming to prove for a debt in the liquidation.
(2) An account shall be taken of what is due from each party to the other in respect of the mutual dealings, and the sums due from one party shall be set off against the sums due from the other …
(4) Only the balance (if any) of the account is provable in the liquidation. Alternatively (as the case may be) the amount shall be paid to the liquidator as part of the assets.’
This language is substantially the same as that used in earlier bankruptcy statutes going back to the Bankruptcy Act 1869. Between the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1875 and the Insolvency Rules 1986, the bankruptcy rule was also applied in company liquidations.
Certain principles as to the application of these provisions have been established by the cases. First, the rule is mandatory (the mandatory principle). If there have been mutual dealings before the winding-up order which have given rise to cross claims, neither party can prove or sue for his full claim. An account must be taken and he must prove or sue (as the case may be) for the balance. Secondly, the account is taken as at the date of the winding-up order (the retroactivity principle). This is only one manifestation of a wider principle of insolvency law, namely that the liquidation and distribution of the assets of the insolvent company are treated as notionally taking place simultaneously on the date of the winding-up order (see Oliver J in Re Dynamics Corp of America [1976] 2 All ER 669 at 673, [1976] 1 WLR 757 at 762). Thirdly, in taking the account the court has regard to events which have occurred since the date of the winding up (the hindsight principle). The hindsight principle is pervasive in the valuation of
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claims and the taking of accounts in bankruptcy and winding up. A good example of the principle being applied outside the context of set-off is Re Northern Counties of England Fire Insurance Co, Macfarlane’s Claim (1880) 17 Ch D 337 in which the value of a claim under a fire insurance policy was determined by reference to the loss suffered in a fire which occurred a month after the insurance company had been wound up.
In reading the cases, the interaction of these principles has to be borne in mind. Mr Neville Thomas QC, who appeared for BCCI, said that the right of set-off under r 4.90 is procedural and that the mutual credits and debits of BCCI and the directors retain their separate existences until such time as the account is taken in the context of the director filing either a proof or a defence to a claim by the liquidator. This is of course true in the somewhat trivial sense that no account will be taken until something happens which makes it necessary to apply r 4.90 and take one. But that cannot in my judgment affect the substantive rights of the parties which, whatever the context in which the question may subsequently arise, are treated as having been determined by an account taken at the date of the winding up. This is a consequence of the mandatory and retroactivity principles. In Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd (1984) 26 BLR 66 Mr Farley was director of a building company engaged in erecting two buildings for a developer. On 5 February 1975 the building company resolved to go into creditors’ voluntary winding up. At that date, the building company had a claim for money owing under the contract but the developer said it had a cross-claim for damages. Three years later, the liquidator of the building company assigned the benefit of its claim to Mr Farley personally. He argued that he was entitled to claim in full against the developer, leaving it to prove in his company’s liquidation for its damages. But Neill J rejected this submission. He said (at 78) that on the date of the winding up s 31 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914 (in similar terms to r 4.90) immediately took effect and ‘the balance of the account and no more became the sum thereafter owing to or from the respective parties’.
Mr Thomas cited a number of cases which he said were at variance with the retroactivity principle. But I think that on examination it will be found that none of them are concerned with this principle at all. New Quebrada Co Ltd v Carr (1869) LR 4 CP 651 was decided on demurrer to a replication. A company made a call on the three joint holders of shares. They pleaded a set-off. The company’s replication alleged lack of mutuality because after the commencement of the action and before the plea, one of the three had been adjudicated bankrupt and his joint interest in the debt due from the company had thereby vested in his assignees. The shareholders argued that nothing passed to the assignees because on the bankruptcy, by virtue of the then equivalent of r 4.90, the bankrupt’s share of the debt was automatically set off against the company’s claim for calls. The Court of Common Pleas held that there had been no bankruptcy set-off: the bankrupt’s individual interest in a joint debt could not be set off against the company’s joint claim against the three shareholders.
None of this represents any challenge to the retroactivity principle. It is true that Brett J went on to deal with what the position would be if the set-off rule did apply and said (at 653–654):
‘I think its only effect is to transfer the claim to the assignees, subject, when they seek to enforce it, to a right of the plaintiffs to deduct their debt. It does not, I think, extinguish the mutual debts, but if it did, I should have thought it would have answered the plea of set-off. In either view I think it does not leave a right of action in the bankrupt against the plaintiffs, and that he
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cannot, therefore, avail himself of his claim against the plaintiffs under an ordinary plea of set-off …’
This passage is not altogether easy because Brett J is mounting one rejected hypothesis on another, but I take him to mean that the set-off rule does not mean that the debt owed to the bankrupt does not pass to his assignees. It does, and is then subject to the account-taking procedure of the rule. So whether or not the set-off rule applies, the bankrupt no longer retains a cause of action which can be used as non-bankruptcy set-off against the company. Brett J is not in my view addressing himself to the retroactivity principle.
In Re a debtor, ex p Peak Hill Goldfield Ltd [1909] 1 KB 430 the debtor owed the company £1,453 in respect of the costs of unsuccessful litigation. The company presented a bankruptcy petition. Two weeks before the hearing, the debtor bought £1,460 nominal value of the company’s debenture stock and claimed a set-off. But a couple of days before the petition was heard, a judgment creditor of the debtor obtained the appointment of a receiver of the debenture stock by way of equitable execution. The Court of Appeal decided that the execution had deprived the debtor of his beneficial interest in the stock. Accordingly there was no mutuality and a receiving order was made. Fletcher-Moulton and Farwell LJJ, like Brett J in the New Quebrada case, thought that bankruptcy set-off applied only after the debtor had become bankrupt and involved a taking of an account with the trustee, not the bankrupt. Accordingly, the debtor could resist the receiving order only by a valid plea of statutory set-off. This required mutuality at the date of the hearing of the petition.
In Sovereign Life Assurance Co v Dodd [1892] 2 QB 573, [1891–4] All ER Rep 246 Mr Dodd borrowed £1,170 from the Sovereign Life Assurance Co on the security of his life assurance policies. Before the policies matured, the company was wound up. But Mr Dodd went on paying his premiums until the policies became due. By this time there was a scheme of arrangement under which policyholders were only entitled to substantially reduced payments in respect of their policies. When the company sued Mr Dodd for repayment of the £1,170, he pleaded a set-off of the full amount due on his policies. The company said that he was entitled to set off only the reduced sum payable under the scheme of arrangement. The Court of Appeal held that he was entitled to rely by way of set-off on the full amount. This is a good example of the hindsight principle, by which account is taken of the fact that the policies have actually matured after the winding-up date. Bowen LJ expressly drew an analogy with Re Northern Counties of England First Insurance Co, Macfarlane’s Claim (1880) 17 Ch D 337.
Mr Thomas referred to several other cases which are also in my judgment illustrations of the hindsight principle and I do not think it is necessary to analyse them at length. In my judgment the retroactivity principle is firmly established. It follows that I reject the submission that there can be no set-off until such time as BCCI decides to sue the directors and they plead a set-off by way of defence. If there are existing cross-claims arising out of mutual dealings before the winding up, then I consider that r 4.90 took effect.
This brings me to the question of whether such cross-claims exist. Mr Thomas said that with the possible exception of MS Fashions, in which a demand in writing was made in November 1991, BCCI had no claims against the directors, whether now or at the date of the winding up. The liability of the directors was contingent upon the making of a demand and none had been made. Since the liability of the directors was merely contingent, it could not form the subject of set-off. No doubt they would be entitled to plead set-off if BCCI decided to make a demand and sue them on their guarantees, but this may never happen. In particular, it
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will not happen if BCCI can recover the advances from the companies themselves.
The problem of contingent claims can often be solved by the hindsight principle. Macfarlane’s Claim was a case in which a subsequent event enabled the court for the purposes of proof to quantify a claim against the insolvent company which had been contingent at the date of the winding up. The same would apply to quantification for the purposes of set-off. Re Daintrey, ex p Mant [1900] 1 QB 546, [1895–9] All ER Rep 657 shows the hindsight principle applied to a contingent claim in favour of the insolvent. An extended discussion of this and similar cases can be found in Re Charge Card Services Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 289, [1987] Ch 150 and it would be superfluous to cover the same ground. Sometimes, however, the insolvent estate needs to be wound up before it is known either that the contingency has occurred or that it will not occur. The court must then put some value on the contingent claim and it will do this for the purposes of ordinary proof or the taking of an account under r 4.90. There is no similar mechanism for valuing claims by the insolvent, but I am not sure that this is a real problem. Until the contingency occurs, the liquidator or trustee will not be able to use the claim as either a cause of action or a set-off. If the other party has a cross-claim, he will be able to prove for the full amount. I suppose it may happen that the contingency occurs long after the winding up has been completed and the company is then restored to the register and brings an action. The defendant may have proved for his cross-claim and received a small dividend. Can he still rely on the full claim as a set-off, giving credit for the dividend? For my part, I do not see why not.
If the relationship between BCCI and the directors was governed only by the standard form guarantees, I think that there would be no answer to the submission that the liability of the directors remains contingent. All the guarantees in the BCCI standard form require a demand in writing before any liability arises on the part of the guarantor. It is well established that in such a case, no cause of action arises until the demand is made: see Bradford Old Bank Ltd v Sutcliffe [1918] 2 KB 833. Clause 19 of the standard form of guarantee contains a separate covenant by the guarantor ‘as sole or principal debtor’, but the liability is to pay such sums as ‘may not be recoverable on the footing of the guarantee’. In the ordinary case, such liability will therefore itself be contingent upon the guarantee having been enforced but recovery not having been possible. It would follow that (apart from the MS Fashions case) there is nothing due from the directors to BCCI and no basis for set-off against what is owed to them on the deposit accounts.
In fact, however, the directors are also liable to BCCI under the various instruments I have described and which deem them to be principal debtors. This liability is in my judgment not contingent at all. It is either a joint and several liability with the companies or at any rate a several liability for the same debt. In MS Fashions and Impexbond the letters of charge made no mention of the need for any demand. In the case of the mortgage deed in MS Fashions and the charge on the deposit in High Street Fashions the obligation was to pay on demand in writing. However, in the case of primary obligations as opposed to secondary ones like guarantees, a provision for demand in writing is not regarded as creating a contingency: see Re Brown’s Estate, Brown v Brown [1893] 2 Ch 300. Thus in the case of a promissory note payable ‘on demand’, the debt arises immediately the note is given and is not contingent upon demand.
In my judgment the ‘principal debtor’ clauses have the effect of creating primary liability for the purposes of the rule that the debt is not contingent upon
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demand. This was the provisional view of Walton J in Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Alstonbridge Properties Ltd [1975] 3 All ER 358 at 367, [1975] 1 WLR 1474 at 1483 and I think it was correct. It is true that for some purposes the courts will look to the underlying reality of the suretyship relationship rather than the formal agreement that liability is to be as principal debtor. But this is only for the purpose of protecting the surety’s equitable rights against the principal debtor and giving effect to such consequences as may affect the creditor, such as the surety’s right to take over securities and the rule against double proof. Otherwise there is no reason why creditor and surety should not make whatever terms they choose. The right to a demand before liability can accrue is not inherent in the nature of suretyship and will not be implied unless expressly provided. There seems accordingly no reason why the parties should not modify the effect of such a provision.
One therefore has on the one hand a liability of BCCI to the individual director against a several liability of the director to pay the same debt as that for which the company is liable. Such liabilities may be set off against each other. Outside the context of suretyship this was regarded as beyond doubt in Owen v Wilkinson (1858) 5 CBNS 526, 141 ER 213. It was also applied in a suretyship context by Lord Eldon LC in Ex p Stephens (1805) 11 Ves 24, 32 ER 996. This is not an easy case to interpret because it involved a fraud by one of the parties and it is necessary to analyse, first, what part the fraud played in the decision and secondly, whether it would still be a necessary element today. Miss Stephens had entrusted some gilt-edged stock to her bankers, who collected the dividends on her behalf. They dishonestly sold the stock and kept the £3,000 proceeds, but continued to make payments which they pretended were the dividends they had received. Meanwhile, Miss Stephens’s brother borrowed £1,000 from the bankers on the security of a joint a several promissory note signed by himself and his sister. The bankers were then adjudged bankrupt and Miss Stephens and her brother petitioned Lord Eldon LC for an order that the £1,000 owed by Miss Stephens on the promissory note be set off against the £3,000 which she had discovered that the bankers owed her as damages for the conversion of her stock. The problem was therefore very similar to that in the present case, because the alternative was to allow the bankers’ assignees to sue the brother for the full £1,000 and leave Miss Stephens to prove in the bankruptcy for her £3,000.
Lord Eldon LC thought that this would be unfair. He said (11 Ves 24 at 28, 32 ER 996 at 998):
‘… she had a demand against her brother for the sum of £1000, as paid to his use; also upon the statute of mutual debts and credits; and they shall not be permitted to say, she shall not, if she chooses, pay the debt; when the consequence is, that she loses her money, and they can call upon him. If she had this equity before the bankruptcy, so she has it afterwards; and therefore she has a clear right to say, they shall hold £1000 of her money in discharge of the note; and shall deliver up the note.’
In Middleton v Pollock, ex p Knight and Raymond (1875) LR 20 Eq 515 at 520–521 Jessel MR explained the basis of Lord Eldon LC’s decision:
‘If she had not by fraud been kept in ignorance of the facts, she would have known that the bankers had a £3000 debt due to her, and that she owed them £1000 on the promissory note, and she would have said to them, “Set one against the other, and pay as much of the balance as you can” and in that case she would have paid £1000 as the surety, and would have had a right to sue the brother from time to time, and to stand in the place of the bankers as his
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creditors. After the bankruptcy the assignees could be in no better position: they only took what the bankrupts were entitled to, and they could not have been allowed to say, “You had no right of set-off before action brought,” because it was their own fraud which prevented her knowing the facts which gave rise to the right of set-off. But the right of set-off was indisputable. There was a several demand on the one side and on the other; and therefore the only relief that she got was relief against the neglect to assert that right in due time, which was not really neglect, but rather omission—caused by the fraudulent concealment by the bankers of the true facts of the case; and neither they nor their assignees could take advantage of their fraudulent concealment to deprive her of that right of set-off.’ (My emphasis.)
Jessel MR says, in the passage I have emphasised, that the right to set-off was indisputable. The bankers were severally liable to Miss Stephens for £3,000 and she was severally liable to them for £1,000. If one then applies the mandatory principle, one would think that there was nothing more to be said. Rule 4.90 applies. But Jessel MR seems to be saying that in the ordinary way, Miss Stephens ought to have done something about asserting her right of set-off before the bankruptcy. The implication is that, but for the fraud which prevented her from knowing that she ought to do something, she would have been unable to assert the set-off once the bankruptcy had supervened.
I am naturally nervous at finding that I do not fully understand the reasoning of Jessel MR, but I cannot follow why it mattered that Miss Stephens had not asserted a right of set-off before the bankruptcy and therefore needed only be relieved, on the ground of fraud, against that omission. I can only think that the consequences of the mandatory principle (as illustrated by Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd (1984) 26 BLR 66) were not as fully appreciated in 1875 as they are today. In my view the fraud would not today be a material element in deciding whether r 4.90 applied. All that is necessary is that there should have been mutual dealings resulting in cross-claims and it does not matter that one of the parties was unaware of her cross-claim until after the relevant date. I therefore regard Ex p Stephens (1805) 11 Ves 24, 32 ER 996 as similar to Owen v Wilkinson and to this case.
As I mentioned at the beginning of this judgment, the point at issue has already received interlocutory consideration by Millett J and the Court of Appeal in MS Fashions. Millett J refused interlocutory relief on the ground that there could plainly be no set-off. He said that it was elementary that set-off operated only by way of defence and was not equivalent to payment. The bank could release its claims against the directors—even the director against whom a written demand had been made—and still enforce its claim against the companies. No question of set-off would arise until BCCI actually sued a director. Meanwhile, there was nothing to stop BCCI from suing the companies.
In the Court of Appeal Scott and Woolf LJJ disagreed. They said that the mandatory principle applied to the directors’ obligations as at the date of the winding up and that the effect of the set-off was to diminish or extinguish the debt owed by them and their companies. As will be apparent, I respectfully agree with this analysis.
It remains to notice some subsidiary points taken by Mr Thomas on behalf of BCCI. He argued that because the deposits were charged to BCCI, the directors had no beneficial interest in the money and accordingly there was no mutuality between their claims and those of BCCI. This is a pleasing paradox but in my view fallacious. Ignoring for the moment the question of whether such a charge
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is conceptually possible, the charge was of a debt owed by BCCI to secure a debt owed to BCCI. The account to be taken by r 4.90 must require an unwinding of that arrangement so that the deposit is set off against the debt it was intended to secure. There is a similar answer to Mr Thomas’s alternative submission that BCCI were entitled under their security documents to transfer the deposit to a suspense account rather than applying it in discharge of the debt. In my judgment this clause cannot survive the winding up of BCCI and the application of the mandatory principle. It is designed to entitle BCCI to postpone the taking of an account and inconsistent with taking one as at the date of winding up.
Finally, Mr Thomas said that although r 4.90 might result in a set-off between BCCI and the director, this did not amount to payment of the debt owed by the company. It gave the director a complete or pro tanto defence but not the company. This, I think, ignores the fact that the director’s set-off operates in respect of the same debt as that owed by the company. If, as I think it must be, the set-off is equivalent to payment by the director (see Ex p Barnett, re Deveze (1874) LR 9 Ch App 293) then I think it must operate also to extinguish to the same extent the debt owed by the company.
I will therefore declare that the indebtedness of each of the companies as at the date of the winding up has been extinguished or reduced by the amount which on that date was standing to the credit of the directors on their respective deposit accounts.
Order accordingly.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Appeals The bank appealed against the judgment of Hoffmann LJ on 27 November 1992 whereby he declared that at the date of the winding up of BCCI (14 January 1992) (1) the debts owed by Impexbond Ltd and Tucan Ltd to BCCI were extinguished by the debt owed by BCCI to the plaintiff, Nasir Abdul Amir, in respect of the amount standing to the credit of the deposit accounts and (2) the debts owed by High Street Services Ltd, Cira Ltd, Portman Fashions Ltd and Saeed Ahmed to BCCI were extinguished by the debt owed by BCCI to the plaintiff, Raees Ahmed, in respect of the amount standing to the credit of the deposit account. There was no appeal in relation to the third action before the judge, MS Fashions Ltd v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Neville Thomas QC and Robin Dicker (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for BCCI.
Jonathan Sumption QC and Mark Hapgood (instructed by Glanvilles, Portsmouth and Slaughter & May) for the plaintiffs.
Cur adv vult
25 March 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ.
PRELIMINARY
The court has before it appeals by Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (BCCI), a company in liquidation acting by its liquidators, against orders made by Hoffmann LJ, sitting as an additional judge of the Chancery Division, on 27
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November 1992 in two cases which raise, on slightly different documents and facts, essentially the same questions.
Stated broadly, the problem is this. If a bank lends money to a company and takes a guarantee of the company’s indebtedness from a director of the company, and also takes from the director a deposit of money with the bank which is charged in favour of the bank with the payment to the bank of the company’s indebtedness to the bank or the director’s liability to the bank as guarantor of the company’s indebtedness, and if the bank later becomes insolvent and is put into liquidation, can the company or the director compel the bank to apply the director’s deposit in reduction of the company’s indebtedness, and also of the director’s liability as guarantor, or can the bank require the company to pay the full amount of its indebtedness to the bank without regard to the director’s deposit and, if so, does that leave the director to prove as an unsecured creditor in the liquidation of the bank for the amount of his deposit?
To answer this involves consideration of the law of set-off in companies’ liquidation and can also raise questions as to the principles of equity as to the enforcement of securities if set-off is not available.
THE FACTS AND DOCUMENTS
Impexbond
One of the appeals concerns two associated companies, Impexbond Ltd and Tucan Ltd. These both banked with BCCI and unlimited guarantees in BCCI’s standard form of the companies’ indebtedness to BCCI were given by a Mr Nasir Abdul Amir on, in relation to Impexbond, 11 March 1985, and in relation to Tucan, 29 May 1986. In addition, on 11 March 1985 in respect of Impexbond and on 29 May 1986 in respect of Tucan, Mr Amir signed the bank’s form designated ‘Letter of Charge by an individual as security for the Liabilities of a Third Party’. By those letters of charge Mr Amir agreed that BCCI might hold any money standing to the credit of certain specified accounts of his as security, and he charged such moneys or deposits so standing with the repayment of all the moneys due to the bank on any account from Impexbond and Tucan. He also agreed in each letter of charge that his liabilities thereunder should be as that of a principal debtor.
When BCCI was ordered to be wound up on 14 January 1992 the aggregate liability of Impexbond and Tucan to BCCI was about £3·3m (with cross-guarantees in favour of BCCI), while the amount to the credit of Mr Amir’s specified accounts (renumbered on transfer to a different branch of BCCI) was about £4·5m.
High Street Services
The other appeal concerns three associated companies, High Street Services Ltd, Cira Ltd and Portman Fashions Ltd, which all banked with BCCI. On 24 April 1989 a director, Mr Raees Ahmed, signed unlimited guarantees in BCCI’s standard form of each of the three companies’ indebtedness to BCCI. He also on the same date, 24 April 1989, signed in respect of each of the three companies a document in the same printed form headed ‘Cash Deposit Security Terms—Third Party’.
In these latter documents the term ‘deposited monies’ was defined as meaning any moneys including accrued interest standing to the credit then or in the future of any deposit account Mr Ahmed might have with BCCI. It was agreed that BCCI might at any time, without further order or notice, appropriate whether by way of set-off or otherwise the deposited moneys in or towards satisfaction of the
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indebtedness of Mr Ahmed to BCCI. It was acknowledged by Mr Ahmed that repayment to him of the deposited moneys was conditional upon BCCI having received payment in full of his indebtedness to BCCI, and that otherwise he should not be entitled to withdraw the deposited moneys except at the absolute discretion of BCCI.
In a further section of the ‘Cash Deposit Security Terms’ Mr Ahmed agreed to guarantee to pay and/or discharge to BCCI upon written demand all liabilities of the company to BCCI. Mr Ahmed further declared ‘as a separate and independent obligation hereunder’ that the company’s liabilities—
‘shall be recoverable by you from me/us as principal debtor and/or by way of indemnity and shall be repaid by me/us on demand made in writing by you or on your behalf whether or not demand has been made … on the [company].’
At the time of the order for the compulsory winding up of BCCI Mr Ahmed had about £426,000 on deposit with BCCI, and the three companies owed BCCI in the aggregate over £1m. BCCI had the benefit of cross-guarantees in its favour by the three companies and charges on other properties including a charge by Mr Ahmed on his home.
Before the judge there was also a third case, heard at the same time, which involved a company, MS Fashions Ltd, and a Mr Sarwar. But the facts were slightly different in that a demand had actually been made by the liquidators of BCCI on MS Fashions and Mr Sarwar, and BCCI has not appealed the decision of Hoffmann LJ in relation to MS Fashions. That matter is resolved.
SET-OFF IN COMPANIES’ LIQUIDATION
It has for long been established that in personal bankruptcy or insolvency and companies’ liquidation there is to be set-off where there have been mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings. The current provision applicable to companies’ liquidation is r 4.90 of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925, which provides so far as material as follows:
‘(1) This Rule applies where, before the company goes into liquidation there have been mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings between the company and any creditor of the company proving or claiming to prove for a debt in the liquidation.
(2) An account shall be taken of what is due from each party to the other in respect of the mutual dealings, and the sums due from one party shall be set off against the sums due from the other …
(4) Only the balance (if any) of the account is provable in the liquidation. Alternatively (as the case may be) the amount shall be paid to the liquidator as part of the assets.’
It is common ground that where there are such mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings the set-off is mandatory and cannot be excluded by any contract between the parties: see National Westminster Bank Ltd v Halesowen Presswork and Assemblies Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 641, [1972] AC 785.
If there are indeed mutual credits or mutual debts or mutual dealings between a company, or a bankrupt, and a creditor, then the set-off applies notwithstanding that one or other of the debts or credits may be secured: see, for instance, the judgment of Lord Selborne LC in Ex p Barnett, re Deveze (1874) LR 9 Ch App 293 and the judgment of Dixon J in Hiley v People’s Prudential Assurance Co Ltd (in liq) (1938) 60 CLR 468 at 498. Dixon J added ‘To the extent that the secured debt is answered by set-off the security is freed’.
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In Hiley’s case a life assurance company had issued a policy to a policyholder. Subsequently the policyholder charged the policy and other property to the company to secure an advance by the company to the policyholder. Later the company was ordered to be wound up and the liquidator repudiated the policy. It was held that the policyholder was entitled to set off his claim against the company for repudiating his policy against his liability to the company in respect of the advance. Dixon J said (at 496–497):
‘… In the first place, the general rule does not require that at the moment when the winding up commences there shall be two enforceable debts, a debt provable in the liquidation and a debt enforceable by the liquidator against the creditor claiming to prove. It is enough that at the commencement of the winding up mutual dealings exist which involve rights and obligations whether absolute or contingent of such a nature that afterwards in the events that happen they mature or develop into pecuniary demands capable of set off. If the end contemplated by the transaction is a claim sounding in money so that, in the phrase employed in the cases, it is commensurable with the cross-demand, no more is required than that at the commencement of the winding up liabilities shall have been contracted by the company and the other party respectively from which cross money claims accrue during the course of the winding up.’
That is in line with the judgment of Romer LJ in Re Daintrey, ex p Mant [1900] 1 QB 546 at 573–574, [1895–9] All ER Rep 657 at 672–673 and the judgment of Lord Russell of Killowen CJ in Palmer v Day & Sons [1895] 2 QB 618. It also covers the actual circumstances in Sovereign Life Assurance Co v Dodd [1892] 2 QB 573, [1891–4] All ER Rep 246. In that case the policy, which had been charged by the holder to the issuing company as security for a loan, matured after a petition had been presented for the winding up of the company but before any winding-up order had been made; but it was then the general view, contrary to the present view, that the relevant date for the application of set-off was the date of the presentation of the petition rather than the date of the order. Set-off was none the less held to be applicable.
It is said, however, for BCCI that, even accepting the foregoing, there is even now—let alone at the date of the winding-up order—no relevant personal liability on Mr Amir or Mr Ahmed to be set off against their deposits because the personal liability of each of them is merely that of a guarantor, a guarantor’s liability is contingent on the demand being made, and no demand has even now been made on Mr Amir or Mr Ahmed.
It is accepted by BCCI that the liabilities of the principal debtors, the various companies, to BCCI were at all times presently enforceable by BCCI without any need for a demand before the issue of a writ, even if the indebtedness was described in the relevant documents as ‘repayable on demand’. That is in accordance with many authorities and it is sufficient to take the statement by Bayley J in Rowe v Young (1820) 2 Bli 391 at 465, 4 ER 372 at 404–405 where he said:
‘… the rules which the law has laid down as to cases in which a demand is or is not necessary, must be considered. One of these rules I take to be this, that where a man engages to pay upon demand what is to be considered his own debt, he is liable to be sued upon that engagement without any previous demand.’
But Bayley J went on to say (2 Bli 391 at 465–466, 4 ER 372 at 405):
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‘but that if he engage to pay upon demand what was not his debt, what he is under no obligation to pay, what but for such engagement he would never be liable to pay any one, a demand is essential, and part of the plaintiff’s title.’
Consequently it has been held in various contexts that to enforce liability against a mere surety there must be a demand before action brought: see the decision of Chitty J in Re Brown’s Estate, Brown v Brown [1893] 2 Ch 300 and the decision of this court in Bradford Old Bank Ltd v Sutcliffe [1918] 2 KB 833.
Essentially, however, the question is one of the construction of the contract: see N Joachimson (a firm ) v Swiss Bank Corp [1921] 3 KB 110 at 129, [1921] All ER Rep 92 at 101 where Atkin LJ said:
‘The question appears to me to be in every case, did the parties in fact intend to make the demand a term of the contract? If they did, effect will be given to their contract, whether it be a direct promise to pay or a collateral promise, though in seeking to ascertain their intention the nature of the contract may be material.’
In the present case in the letters of charge signed by Mr Amir in respect of Impexbond and Tucan he has expressly agreed that his liabilities thereunder—namely the companies’ liabilities charged on his deposits—shall be as that of a principal debtor.
Similarly in the forms setting out the cash deposit security terms which Mr Ahmed signed in respect of High Street Services Ltd and its associated companies he accepted that the liabilities of those companies should be recoverable from him as principal debtor and they were thus within the definition of his indebtedness; he also authorised the appropriation of the deposited moneys in satisfaction of his indebtedness without further notice to him.
The effect of that must be to dispense with any need for a demand in the case of Mr Amir since he has made the companies’ debts to BCCI his own debts and thus immediately payable out of the deposit without demand. In the case of Mr Ahmed there must be immediate liability even though the word ‘demand’ was used, because he accepted liability as a principal debtor and his deposit can be appropriated without further notice.
The banking relationship between BCCI and the various companies of course ceased when BCCI went into liquidation. Therefore we have a situation in which, though the situation is tripartite rather than bipartite as in the cases referred to earlier, all the rights are immediately enforceable so far as relevant to the question of set-off. There is a debt presently due from each of the companies to BCCI and equally due from Mr Amir or Mr Ahmed as the case may be as a principal debtor to BCCI and there is the liability from BCCI to Mr Amir or Mr Ahmed for the deposits. That satisfies entirely, in my judgment, the requirements for statutory set-off as explained by Dixon J, and consequently r 4.90 has automatic effect.
If there is set-off between Mr Amir and Mr Ahmed and BCCI that must automatically reduce or extinguish the indebtedness to BCCI of the companies. The statutory set-off is not something which BCCI can, as it were, place in a suspense account. It operates to reduce or extinguish the liability of the guarantor and necessarily therefore operates as in effect a payment by him to be set against the liability of the principal debtor. A creditor cannot sue the principal debtor for an amount of the debt which the creditor has already received from a guarantor.
This is subject, however, to one point, which has been called ‘the charge point’ to which I now turn.
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THE CHARGE POINT
The basis of this is that it is said for BCCI that the moneys placed on deposit by Mr Amir and Mr Ahmed were moneys paid to BCCI for a special purpose, viz to be charged in favour of BCCI as security for the indebtedness to BCCI of the relevant companies, and it is said also that, on authority, moneys paid for a special purpose are, whether before or after that purpose has been achieved, outside the scope of the set-off and mutual dealings provisions of insolvency law—for present purposes r 4.90 of the 1986 rules.
The argument put forward depends in part on a decision of this court in Ex p Caldicott, re Hart (1884) 25 Ch D 716 but even more on a decision of this court in Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd (No 2) [1930] 2 Ch 293, [1930] All ER Rep 315 and an earlier case of Young v Bank of Bengal (1836) 1 Moore Ind 87, 18 ER 34.
In Ex p Caldicott, re Hart a father and his son had entered into a partnership and had arranged banking facilities for the partnership with Lloyds Banking Co. The father had charged certain land owned by himself to the bank, but the land had been sold, and had been replaced by the proceeds, placed on deposit with the bank. The firm later became bankrupt, which involved the administration in bankruptcy of their joint estate, and the separate administration in bankruptcy of the separate estate of the father. The issue before the court was whether the bank, in proving against the joint estate, had to give credit for the moneys it held on deposit from the father. The essence of the decision, as I understand it, is contained in the final paragraph in the brief judgment of Lord Selborne LC, with which Cotton and Lindley LJJ agreed, viz that the money on deposit with the bank was a security, but not a security on the joint estate, and the rule in bankruptcy was that a valuation or giving up of a security was only necessary when, in the case of a proof by creditors of the joint estate it was a security on the joint estate. The judgment was only concerned with the joint estate.
Lord Selborne LC did, however, say in the penultimate paragraph of his judgment (25 Ch D 716 at 722):
‘It appears to me a fallacy to say that the money so deposited was a debt due from the bank to the father, in the sense that an action could have been brought by him for it, so long as it remained in the hands of the bank, and there was a balance due from the firm to them which the mortgage of the real estate was intended to secure; and I cannot think that the conversion of the security into money, and the deposit with the bank of the money, which continued to be the subject of the security, can make any difference in principle.’
What I understand him to have been meaning by that is that the money still in the hands of the bank was held by the bank as a security and therefore, as it was not a security on the joint estate it did not have to be taken into account in determining the amount of the bank’s proof against the joint estate. I do not understand him to have been saying that as the father could not have brought an action against the bank for the money so long as there was a balance due from the firm to the bank, there could not have been any statutory set-off in the father’s separate estate to reduce the joint indebtedness to the bank.
If that is the correct interpretation, Ex p Caldicott does not govern the present case.
Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd (No 2) is the most important of the trio of cases which, in the words of Lord Simon of Glaisdale in National Westminster Bank Ltd v Halesowen and Presswork Assemblies Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 641 at 651, [1972] AC 785 at 808 show that ‘mutual dealings’ in, as it is now, r 4.90 do not cover a transaction in which property is made over for a ‘special (or specific) purpose’.
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Lord Kilbrandon said in National Westminster Bank Ltd v Halesowen Presswork and Assemblies Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 641 at 663, [1972] AC 785 at 821:
‘In Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd (No 2) a fund held by way of guarantee against the carrying out of specific obligations was held to be “special” in this sense. In all these cases the funds may be said to have been impressed with quasi-trust purposes and that is sufficient to destroy the mutuality which is a prerequisite of the right to set-off arising, since it is necessary that the debts were between the parties in the same right, a condition which the holding of a sum as trustee would destroy …’
The other two cases in the trio are Re Pollitt, ex p Minor [1893] 1 QB 455 and Re Mid-Kent Fruit Factory [1896] 1 Ch 567.
The essential facts of Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd were that the City Equitable, as reinsurer, entered into a treaty of reinsurance with an insurance company. Under that treaty a certain percentage of the premiums payable to the City Equitable as the reinsurer was to be retained and accumulated by the insurer ‘as security for the due performance of the obligations of the reinsurer’ under the treaty. The City Equitable was put into compulsory liquidation and the treaty of reinsurance was terminated in accordance with its terms. Then, after all claims of the insurer under the treaty had been satisfied out of the accumulated fund, there was a surplus of £8,000 left in the hands of the insurer. The insurer claimed to set off against that surplus sums due from the City Equitable under other contracts, relying on s 31 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914, the then current predecessor of r 4.90. It was only the set-off of the surplus that was in issue, and it was held that the insurer was not entitled to that.
In giving the leading judgment in this court Lord Hanworth MR said (at 312):
‘Different considerations apply where money has been handed over for a specific purpose and not treated as a mere item in accounts kept between the bankrupt and his creditors … The effect of handing over money for a specific purpose appears from the cases to be that it is taken out of the course of accounts between the parties to be held, so to speak, in suspense between them, until that specific purpose for which it had been handed over has been completed; and even then it appears that the nature and quality of the specific purpose still attaches to the balance of the fund, if any, which remains in the hands of the depositee. The fund having been originally placed in the depositee’s hands for the particular purpose, the nature and quality of that purpose still attaches to the balance of the fund unless and until there has been some subsequent agreement releasing it from the specific purpose. Indeed, it must in all cases be the balance of the fund which is in dispute in cases such as this.’
Because the fund was accumulated by the depositee/insurer for a special purpose under the particular treaty of reinsurance, there was no mutuality between the liquidator of the City Equitable’s claim for the balance of the accumulated fund and, on the other hand, the claims of the insurer against the City Equitable under other contracts. Those debts were not, in Lord Kilbrandon’s words ‘in the same right’. Therefore, there was no set-off.
But, as I see it, there had at the earlier stage, before the surplus was ascertained, been ample mutuality between the liquidator’s claim for the accumulated fund and the claims of the insurer for the due performance of the obligations of the City Equitable under the particular treaty of reinsurance under which the accumulated fund had been accumulated. Therefore, at that earlier stage, there
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was no objection to set-off of the claims under the particular treaty of reinsurance; the insurer was not required to hand over the accumulated fund to the liquidator intact and without deductions even under the particular treaty of reinsurance.
The two other cases in the trio, Re Pollitt, ex p Minor and Re Mid-Kent Fruit Factory, were likewise cases in which what was in issue was the surplus of a deposited fund remaining after the specific purpose for which it had been deposited had been satisfied; it was held that the surplus could not be set off under the statutory provisions against other debts which had nothing to do with those specific purposes.
These three cases do not, in my judgment, bear at all on the problem with which we are concerned in the present case, and do not prevent the set-off which the present respondents assert.
Young v Bank of Bengal (1836) 1 Moore Ind 87, 18 ER 34 is a very similar case to Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd. A firm of merchants had deposited paper with the bank to secure a particular loan. When the firm became bankrupt, the bank sold the paper, and the proceeds produced a surplus after paying off the particular loan and interest on it. The bank claimed to set the surplus off under the statute against other debts due from the firm to the bank for which the bank held the firm’s promissory notes. It was held that the bank could not do so because the case did not come within the clause of mutual credit in the Indian Insolvency Act. The reasoning of Lord Brougham seems to me to be in line with that of Lord Hanworth in Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co Ltd.
Lord Brougham incidentally states (1 Moore Ind 87 at 145, 18 ER 34 at 55) that the introduction of the words ‘mutual credit’ extends the right of set-off to cases where the party receiving the credit is not debtor in presenti to him who gives the credit. ‘Accordingly the relation contemplated by the Statute has been held to be established where the debt is immediately due from the one party and only due at a future date from the other.' This anticipates Dixon J’s statement in Hiley’s case.
In the present case, therefore, there is nothing in the charge point to defeat the set-off claimed.
Mr Amir is, of course, claiming to prove in the liquidation for his deposits, subject to the set-off. Mr Ahmed technically has no claim to prove because the amount due from him to BCCI exceeds the amount of his deposit; but the wording ‘balance (if any) of the account’ in para 4 of r 4.90 shows that the set-off applies even if its effect is to reduce the claim in the liquidation to nil.
PRINCIPLES OF EQUITY AS TO ENFORCEMENT OF SECURITIES
My conclusions on the foregoing points make it unnecessary to consider the implications of the rule in equity, stated by Lord Cave LC in Ellis & Co’s Trustee v Dixon-Johnson [1925] AC 489 at 491, [1925] All ER Rep 715 at 718, and stated also by Sargant LJ in the court below ([1924] 2 Ch 451 at 473) that if a creditor holding security sues for his debt he is under an obligation on payment of the debt to hand over the security, and if, having improperly made away with the security he is unable to return it to his debtor, he cannot have judgment for the debt.
For these reasons, which are substantially those of Hoffmann LJ, I would dismiss these appeals.
NOLAN LJ. I agree with the judgment of Dillon LJ.
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STEYN LJ. I agree with the reasons given by Dillon LJ, and with the order which he has proposed. There is nothing which I can usefully add.
Appeals dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
First Sport Ltd v Barclays Bank plc
[1993] 3 All ER 789
Categories: BANKING AND FINANCE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, KENNEDY AND EVANS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 23 FEBRUARY, 9 MARCH 1993
Bank – Cheque – Forgery – Cheque card – Card containing undertaking by bank to honour cheque – Card stating it could only be used by authorised signatory – Cheques and card stolen – Authorised signature forged and cheque and card presented to retailer as payment for goods purchased – Retailer presenting cheque to issuing bank for payment – Bank refusing to honour cheque – Action by retailer against bank on cheque – Whether bank obliged to honour cheque.
K, an account holder with the defendant bank, was issued with a cheque book and a cheque guarantee card. The card contained on the back, beneath a space for the account holder’s authorised signature, the statement that ‘This Card may only be used by the authorised signatory’ and went on to provide that ‘Payment of one personal cheque not exceeding £50 … is guaranteed provided … the cheque is taken from [the bank’s] cheque book [and] the signature agrees with the specimen hereon and is written in the presence of the payee who must record the Card’s number on the reverse of the cheque’. In September 1991 the cheque book and card were stolen from K. Subsequently the thief or someone else dishonestly using the cheque and card presented the card and a cheque for £49·99 bearing the forged signature of K, which agreed with the signature on the card, to the plaintiff, a retailer, as payment for goods purchased. When the cheque was presented to the bank for payment, the bank, notwithstanding that all the conditions on the card had been complied with, refused to honour the cheque because it had not been signed by K. The plaintiff issued proceedings in the county court to recover payment. The district judge found in the plaintiff’s favour but on appeal the judge held that the bank was entitled to refuse to meet payment of the cheque. The plaintiff appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held (Kennedy LJ dissenting) – When the card and cheque were presented by the thief to the plaintiff retailer the card conveyed to the plaintiff an offer, in the form of an undertaking, by the bank to honour the cheque which, when accepted, created a contract between the plaintiff and the bank. The statement on the card that the card could only be used by the authorised signatory did not make that offer conditional on the cheque being signed by the authorised signatory and no other person, since the requirement that the retailer compare the signatures showed that the bank had in mind the possibility that the card might be presented by someone other than the authorised signatory, and yet it did not state that the bank would not be liable in such circumstances as it could have done. Moreover, although the thief was not the authorised signatory, the plaintiff had no reason to
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believe that he was not and therefore the thief had ostensible authority to convey the offer on behalf of the bank, since if the bank had intended to make it clear to a retailer that such a person would have no authority to do so the statement on the card could have been worded to that effect, but in fact it was not. Accordingly, the plaintiff was entitled to rely on the bank’s undertaking on the card and, as all the conditions had been complied with, the bank was bound by that undertaking and obliged to honour the cheque. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 793 j to 794 g j to p 795 a h, p 799 j to p 800 e g, post).
Per Evans LJ. The term ‘cheque guarantee card’ is a misnomer since the bank’s contract with the payee is not strictly a contract of guarantee but a separate and independent obligation which is not dependent in any way upon default by the customer, whether the authorised signatory or not, in the performance of any obligation which he incurs (see p 795 d, post).
Notes For cheque guarantee cards, see 3(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 234, 236.
For the payment of a cheque on a forged signature, see ibid para 181, and for cases on forged or altered cheques, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 636–641, 3993–4017.
Cases referred to in judgments
Metropolitan Police Comr v Charles [1976] 3 All ER 112, [1977] AC 177, [1976] 3 WLR 431, HL.
National Westminster Bank Ltd v Barclays Bank International Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 834, [1975] QB 654, [1975] 2 WLR 12.
R v Beck [1985] 1 All ER 571, [1985] 1 WLR 22, CA.
R v Kassim [1991] 3 All ER 713, [1992] 1 AC 9, [1991] 3 WLR 254, HL.
United Dominions Trust (Commercial) Ltd v Eagle Aircraft Services Ltd, United Dominions Trust (Commercial) Ltd v Eagle Aviation Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 104, [1968] 1 WLR 74, CA.
Woodhouse AC Israel Cocoa Ltd SA v Nigerian Produce Marketing Co Ltd [1972] 2 All ER 271, [1972] AC 741, [1972] 2 WLR 1090, HL.
Case also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Charge Card Services Ltd, Re [1986] 3 All ER 289, [1987] Ch 150; affd [1988] 3 All ER 702, [1989] Ch 497, CA.
AppealThe plaintiff, First Sport Ltd, appealed with leave against the order of Judge Morrell made on 13 July 1992 in the Peterborough County Court whereby he allowed an appeal by the defendant, Barclays Bank plc, against the decision of Deputy District Judge Saint dated 27 April 1992 awarding the plaintiff the sum of £49·99, (being the amount claimed by the plaintiff on a cheque drawn on the defendant), and set aside the award. The facts are set out in the judgment of Evans LJ.
Michael Douglas (instructed by Gerald A Waller & Co) for the plaintiff.
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Neville Thomas QC and Sam Neaman (instructed by Shoosmiths & Harrison, Northampton) for the defendant.
Cur adv vult
9 March 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
EVANS LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Thomas Bingham MR). The plaintiff is a retailer who supplied goods worth £49·99 to a customer who paid for them by a personal cheque drawn on Barclays Bank, the defendants, supported by a Barclays Connect Card. The account was that of Wasim Najbat Khan and both the cheque book from which the cheque came and the card had been issued to him. But they were stolen from him in Peterborough on 18 September 1991. The plaintiff’s customer was the thief or some other person who was dishonestly using the stolen cheque and card and who forged Mr Khan’s signature on the cheque.
The defendants, whom I shall call ‘the bank’, refused payment of the cheque. The plaintiff began proceedings in the Peterborough County Court which came before the district judge. He made an award in their favour, but the bank appealed. Judge Morrell allowed the appeal, and the plaintiff now appeals to this court.
The district judge’s award contains no findings of fact or of law. It simply states that judgment was given for the plaintiff in the sum claimed, with costs. The judge therefore proceeded on the basis of what was in effect an agreed statement of facts, which is set out in the judgment. A question arose with regard to the judge’s jurisdiction to set aside the award, but that issue has not been raised in this court.
The agreed facts, in so far as they have not been summarised above, were:
‘The unknown fraudster presented a cheque from the cheque book, numbered 100038 in the sum of £49·99 and the cheque guarantee card to Mr Farquharson, who was an employee of the plaintiff, at those premises. The district judge decided that in the absence of seeing the cheque guarantee card—for that has never come to light—on the balance of probabilities after that card was stolen the genuine signature had been removed from the card and replaced by the signature of the person who presented the cheque and the card to the plaintiff’s employee. It follows from that that the alteration either was or may have been undetectable. That is the finding which the district judge made and to that finding I shall be faithful. Goods to the value of £49·99, or cash, were handed over. In due course the cheque was presented to the appellant Barclays Bank, which refused to honour it because, as was the case, it had not been signed by Mr Khan. Mr Khan’s signature had been forged upon it.’
The finding that the genuine signature had been removed from the card and replaced by the signature of the person who presented the card to the plaintiff’s employee is somewhat mystifying. The cheque, which of course has been produced, bears the forged signature of Mr Khan. It follows that the altered signature on the card must have been the same. Why there should have been this double forgery is not at all clear. But the appeal has been argued on the basis that it is irrelevant whether the card was altered or not. The bank does not suggest that the alteration was apparent, and the issue raised for decision by this court is whether the bank is liable to pay the cheque when the signature on the cheque is
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forged, although apparently the same as the signature, true or forged, upon the card.
This depends upon the terms of whatever contract came into existence, as a result of the transaction, between the plaintiff and the bank. It is common ground that when a cheque is presented by the account holder, supported by a cheque card, and is accepted by a retailer in accordance with the conditions stated on the card, then a contract comes into existence between the retailer and the bank. That contract is independent of the contract for the sale or supply of goods between the retailer and his customer, who has presented the card, and of the relationship between the account holder and the bank. In Metropolitan Police Comr v Charles [1976] 3 All ER 112 at 121, [1977] AC 177 at 191 Lord Edmund-Davies referred to this as ‘the all-important contract between payee and bank’ and he described the process of contracting as follows:
‘… it is the representation by the drawer’s production of the card that he has [the bank’s authority to bind it] that creates such contractual relationship and estops the bank from refusing to honour the cheque. By drawing the cheque the accused represented that it would be met, and by producing the card so that the number thereon could be indorsed on the cheque he in effect represented, “I am authorised by the bank to show this to you and so create a direct contractual relationship between the bank and you that they will honour this cheque”. The production of the card was the badge of the accused’s ostensible authority to make such a representation on the bank’s behalf.’
The issue in the present case is whether the same contractual relationship arises when the card is presented and the cheque signed, not by the account holder but by a person who falsely claims to be and appears to be the person authorised to sign.
The Connect Card presented to the plaintiffs had the same account number as the cheque and the name of the account holder appeared as ‘Mr W N Khan’. The same name, without the prefix, was printed on the cheque. The reverse of the card beneath a space for the ‘AUTHORISED SIGNATURE’ contained the following:
‘This Card may only be used by the authorised signatory. It is the property of Barclays Bank PLC and if found should be returned to any branch of Barclays or Barclaycard, Northampton NN1 1SG to whom the loss must immediately be notified—telephone 0604 230230.
Payment of one personal cheque not exceeding £50 issued within the United Kingdom (including the Channel Islands and Isle of Man) during the validity period shown hereon in settlement of any one transaction is guaranteed provided: no other cheque guaranteed by a card issued by Barclays is also used to settle that transaction: the cheque is taken from a Barclays cheque book issued in the United Kingdom: the signature agrees with the specimen hereon and is written in the presence of the payee who must record the Card’s number on the reverse of the cheque.’
Mr Neville Thomas QC for the bank submits that no contract can come into being when the cheque card is presented by someone other than the authorised signatory and the signature on the cheque is forged. He contends that such a person has no authority, actual or apparent, to make an offer on behalf of the bank, or to make any representation which binds the bank, so that in the absence of any direct communication, which is not alleged here, there cannot be any contractual obligation on the bank. Moreover, under s 24(2) of the Bills of
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Exchange Act 1882 the cheque form bearing the forged signature is worthless as a cheque or bill of exchange and is no more than a ‘sham piece of paper’: National Westminster Bank Ltd v Barclays Bank International Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 834 at 836, [1975] QB 654 at 656–657 per Kerr J.
Mr Douglas for the plaintiff contends that the cheque card contains an unequivocal undertaking by the bank that it will honour personal cheques when the conditions stated on the card are complied with by the payee of the cheque. These conditions are set out in the second paragraph, and they do not include the first sentence of the first paragraph, which reads: ‘This Card may only be used by the authorised signatory.' That, he submits, is addressed only to whoever may be in possession of the card and operates so as to limit the bank’s express authority to use the card to the authorised signatory only. He disputes that any question of authority arises, because the card itself, when it comes into the hands of the retailer or other payee of the cheque, conveys the bank’s offer to him and no agent is necessary. Alternatively, if the question of agency does arise, then the bearer of the card who can comply with the conditions stated on it has apparent authority to enter into the transaction on behalf of the bank.
The best starting point for consideration of these competing submissions is, in my judgment, the bank’s own statement printed on the reverse of the card. There is no reason as a matter of principle why this should not be addressed to the retailer, regardless of the identity of the bearer of the card. Conversely, the words might convey the meaning that the bank would only be bound if the cheque was signed by the authorised signatory, and by no other. The question is, what do the words on their true construction mean? This is a question of law and, although the words should be given their natural and ordinary meaning, the sense in which they were or might be understood by an individual retailer is strictly irrelevant: Woodhouse AC Israel Cocoa Ltd SA v Nigerian Produce Marketing Co Ltd [1972] 2 All ER 271, [1972] AC 741.
The express offer contained in the second paragraph, in its essentials, is:
‘Payment of one personal cheque … is guaranteed provided … the cheque is taken from a Barclays cheque book [and] the signature agrees with the specimen hereon and is written in the presence of the payee who must record the Card’s number on the reverse of the cheque.’
It is common ground that all of the conditions set out in this paragraph were complied with, and in particular that the signature on the cheque agreed with the specimen signature on the card.
The first sentence of the first paragraph informed the retailer, as well as all bearers of the card, that only the authorised signatory was entitled to use the card. If Mr Douglas goes so far as to suggest that the retailer in effect can disregard it, then I cannot accept his submission to that extent. The sentence puts the retailer on notice that he can only deal with the authorised signatory, for the purpose of entering into any transaction with the bank, but this does not answer the question whether he can safely deal with a person whom he reasonably believes is the authorised signatory, but who in fact is not. It goes without saying that the retailer must act in good faith.
If the second paragraph stated in terms that the bank’s undertaking was conditional upon the card being presented and the cheque being signed by the account holder, then the answer would be clear. The retailer would know that the bank was not accepting the risks of a forged signature and of the card and cheque being in the wrong hands. But the second paragraph does not say this, and what it does say about signatures is to the contrary effect. It would be
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unnecessary to require the retailer to compare the cheque signature with that on the card, if the bank was not bound by a forged signature. Moreover, the words ‘agrees with the specimen’ indicate, as Mr Douglas submitted, that the bank requires the retailer, as a condition of its offer, to concern himself with appearances, so as to minimise the risk of forgery or unauthorised use. If the bank was not bearing the risk, then it is difficult to see what commercial or other purpose was served by imposing that condition on the retailer. In short, if the bank’s undertaking was conditional upon the cheque being signed by the authorised signatory and by no other, then the second paragraph could have said so, but it did not.
The question of construction therefore becomes: should the first sentence of the first paragraph be read with the second paragraph so as to import this further condition, which was not otherwise expressed? In my judgment, this is not the meaning conveyed by the card. The first sentence has effect in the way I have stated above: the retailer is put on notice that only the authorised signatory can use the card. The requirement that he should compare the signatures shows that the bank had in mind the possibility that the card might be presented by someone other than the authorised signatory, yet it does not state that the bank will not be liable in these circumstances, as it easily could have done.
The legal analysis in my judgment is as follows. The card conveys to the retailer, or to any other person to whom it is presented, an offer made by the bank which, if accepted, establishes contractual relations between them. This strictly is a unilateral contract and it is unnecessary for the retailer’s acceptance to be communicated to the bank: United Dominions Trust (Commercial) Ltd v Eagle Aircraft Services Ltd, United Dominions Trust (Commercial) Ltd v Eagle Aviation Ltd [1968] 1 All ER 104, [1968] 1 WLR 74. But the question of authority is not irrelevant, as Mr Douglas submits. The bearer must have authority to convey the offer on behalf of the bank. The authorised signatory has actual authority to do this, and even if this authority has been terminated, or is limited in any way, he will continue to have ostensible authority to convey the bank’s offer on its behalf. If the bearer is some other person, even a thief, and provided the retailer had no reason to believe that he is not the authorised signatory and account holder, then in my judgment he too has ostensible authority to this limited extent. If the bank had intended to make it clear to the retailer that such a person would have no authority, actual or apparent, then the statement could have been worded to that effect. Thus, the scope of the bearer’s apparent authority depends upon the correct interpretation of the bank’s own statement on the card. The retailer in my judgment is entitled to rely upon that statement, on its true construction, and if he complies with the conditions then the bank becomes bound by its undertaking to payees.
Mr Thomas submits that in the absence of actual authority there must be some form of apparent authority, and that this is neither the case of a true agent who exceeds his actual authority whilst remaining within the limits of the usual authority of a person employed by the principal in his position, nor a case where the principal has represented that the agent has the authority which he claims. The self-professed agent cannot create or enlarge his own authority by any representation which he makes to the third party, and so, as Mr Thomas submits, the principal must be shown to be estopped by some representation which he himself has made. In my judgment, however, the necessary representation is established here, in the form of the statement on the card which the bank addressed to retailers or other cheque-payees to whom the card might be
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produced. The scope of the representation and therefore of the estoppel thus depends upon the terms in which the statement is made.
Other aspects of the legal position can be mentioned briefly. The drawing and acceptance of the cheque imposes no liability on the bank, for two reasons. First, even a valid cheque is no more than an instruction by the drawer to the bank to pay the amount stated to the payee. The bank incurs no obligation to the payee: R v Kassim [1991] 3 All ER 713, [1992] 1 AC 9 and see Chitty on Contracts (26th edn, 1989) vol 2, para 2831. Secondly, the forged signature means that legally the cheque is unsigned: Bills of Exchange Act 1882, s 24. But this does not mean that the reference to ‘cheque’ in the bank’s statement on the card must be interpreted in this technical sense. The conditions contemplate the possibility of a cheque form being signed by a person other than the authorised signatory, who forges the latter’s signature, and such a document is included, in my judgment, in the references to ‘cheque’ in the second paragraph, giving that word its natural and ordinary meaning in this context.
The bank’s undertaking that payment of the cheque is ‘guaranteed’ does not mean that its contract with the payee, when the offer is accepted, is strictly a contract of guarantee. It is a separate and independent obligation which is not dependent in any way upon default by the customer, whether the authorised signatory or not, in the performance of any obligation which he incurs. To this extent, the commonly used description of such cards as ‘cheque guarantee cards’ is strictly a misnomer.
It is perhaps surprising that the central issue which arises here has not been decided in any reported case, but it is also noteworthy that in the leading cases of Metropolitan Police Comr v Charles [1976] 3 All ER 112, [1977] AC 177 (where the card was presented by the authorised signatory) and R v Kassim [1991] 3 All ER 713, [1992] 1 AC 9 the reported facts show that the bank or credit organisation which issued the card had paid the amount due to the payee, and in R v Beck [1985] 1 All ER 571, [1985] 1 WLR 22, where fraud was involved, the bank and the credit organisation likewise paid the amounts claimed by the payees, though the transactions were not directly comparable and they did so for commercial reasons without admitting their liability to do so. In R v Kassim [1991] 3 All ER 713 at 721, [1992] 1 AC 9 at 19 Lord Ackner pointed out that: ‘All [the tradesman] will be concerned with is that the conditions on the card are satisfied’ and, referring to R v Beck, that the French traders were reimbursed ‘because [they] had complied with all the necessary conditions’ (see [1991] 3 All ER 713 at 719, [1992] 1 AC 9 at 17). These dicta are helpful to the plaintiffs but they were not directed towards the particular issue that arises here.
The lack of direct authority makes it necessary to approach the issue on the basis of principle. This leads to the true construction of the bank’s statement on the card, for the reasons which I have tried to express, and in the present case in my judgment to the conclusion that the plaintiff is entitled to succeed.
After judgment was given by the learned judge, the bank discovered that it had produced and relied upon a form of wording which did not appear on the card issued to Mr Khan and presented to the plaintiff in September 1991. The error was revealed by an affidavit sworn on 27 November 1992 and the bank applied for leave to serve a respondent’s notice accordingly. This was not opposed by the plaintiff and was duly granted. We therefore have to determine the issues on the basis of wording which was not before the judge, and we have not been concerned with the wording which was.
Page 796 of [1993] 3 All ER 789
KENNEDY LJ.
The facts
On 18 September 1991 a supplier of goods accepted payment by means of a Barclays Bank cheque supported by a cheque guarantee card but, unknown to the supplier, the card and the cheque book from which the cheque came had been stolen earlier that day, after which the genuine signature on the card had been removed and replaced by the signature of the person who then misused the card to obtain the goods. The alteration to the card was, or may have been, undetectable. On the back of the card above the signature there were printed the words ‘AUTHORISED SIGNATURE’ and beneath the signature these words:
‘This Card may only be used by the authorised signatory. It is the property of Barclays Bank PLC and if found should be returned to any branch of Barclays or Barclaycard, Northampton, NN1 1SG to whom the loss must immediately be notified—telephone 0604 230230.
Payment of one personal cheque not exceeding £50 issued within the United Kingdom (including the Channel Islands and Isle of Man) during the validity period shown hereon in settlement of any one transaction is guaranteed provided: no other cheque guaranteed by a card issued by Barclays is also used to settle that transaction: the cheque is taken from a Barclays cheque book issued in the United Kingdom: the signature agrees with the specimen hereon and is written in the presence of the payee who must record the Card’s number on the reverse of the cheque.’
When the cheque was accepted it was for a sum not exceeding £50, and the transaction took place in the United Kingdom, during the validity period shown on the card. There was only one transaction, and one cheque from a Barclays cheque book. It was signed in the presence of the payee using a signature which agreed with the specimen on the card, and the payee recorded the number of the card on the reverse of the cheque. None of those matters are in dispute, but the bank refused to meet the cheque, and in the Peterborough County Court it was held that the bank was entitled not to do so. However, as the judge who decided the case on appeal to that court was misled as to the relevant conditions, his conclusion is of no real assistance to us.
The bank’s offer
In my judgment the critical words are the first words which appear on the back of the card after the signature, namely ‘This Card may only be used by the authorised signatory’. They are not simply, as Mr Douglas for the plaintiffs submitted, words of warning to the authorised signatory (ie the bank’s customer to whom the card was issued) or to anyone who might happen to find the card. Those words are also there to advise any supplier of goods or services as to who was entitled to use the card. The card does not say, for example, ‘This card may be used by any bearer’, although if Mr Douglas is right that is what it should have said.
If the authorised signatory produces the card then, as the agent of the bank, he conveys to the supplier of goods the bank’s standing offer, which is that, if the transaction proceeds as set out in the second paragraph of the printed terms, payment of the cheque in the sum not exceeding £50 ‘is guaranteed’. What is envisaged is not the usual situation giving rise to liability under a contract of guarantee, because as far as the supplier of goods is concerned there will be no initial default by the debtor, but my analysis of the situation thus far seems to be
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in line with what was said by Lord Diplock in Metropolitan Police Comr v Charles [1976] 3 All ER 112 at 114, [1977] AC 177 at 182:
‘By exhibiting to the payee a cheque card containing the undertaking by the bank to honour cheques drawn in compliance with the conditions endorsed on the back, and drawing the cheque accordingly, the drawer represents to the payee that he has actual authority from the bank to make a contract with the payee on the bank’s behalf that it will honour the cheque on presentment for payment.’
And similarly Lord Edmund-Davies said ([1976] 3 All ER 112 at 121, [1977] AC 177 at 191):
‘… in order to make the bank liable to the payee there must be knowledge on the payee’s part that the drawer has the bank’s authority to bind it, for in the absence of such knowledge the all-important contract between payee and bank is not created; and it is the representation by the drawer’s production of the card that he has that authority that creates such contractual relationship and estops the bank from refusing to honour the cheque …’
If the producer of the card is a thief who has altered the signature on the card so that he can match it when he signs the cheque then, in my judgment, he cannot have either the actual or even ostensible authority to bind the bank. Clearly he does not have actual authority, and he could only have ostensible authority if the bank had so conducted itself towards the supplier of goods as to be estopped from denying the truth of the representation, and that situation simply does not arise in this case. The bank cannot be estopped from denying the authority of the thief to use the card simply because it issued this card with these words on it to its own customer for his own use.
Terms
Clearly the object of the terms printed on the card is to minimise the risk of misuse, but I do not accept that because the bank imposed those terms it should be implied that it was prepared to shoulder the whole of any loss which might arise as a result of misuse. Any misuse would cause at least administrative loss to the bank, and possibly loss of goodwill, so the bank would always have a financial as well as perhaps a moral interest in preventing abuse.
No valid cheque
By virtue of s 73 of the Bills of Exchange Act 1882 ‘A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a banker payable on demand’, and the provisions of that Act apply to a cheque such as that which was signed in the present case. Section 24 of the 1882 Act provides:
‘Subject to the provisions of this Act, where a signature on a bill is forged or placed thereon without the authority of the person whose signature it purports to be, the forged or unauthorised signature is wholly inoperative, and no right to retain the bill or to give a discharge therefor or to enforce payment thereof against any party thereto can be acquired through or under that signature, unless the party against whom it is sought to retain or enforce payment of the bill is precluded from setting up the forgery or want of authority.’
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The effect of that provision is that in law a forged cheque is not a cheque or negotiable instrument but ‘a mere sham piece of paper’ (per Kerr J in National Westminster Bank Ltd v Barclays Bank International Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 834 at 836, [1975] QB 654 at 656–657) and, in the context of the present case, that, says the bank, means that there was no cheque to guarantee. In my judgment that is right, and I do not accept that in order properly to construe the written terms on the back of the card it is necessary to give the word ‘cheque’ some wide non-legal definition. The supplier of goods has already been warned that the card may only be used by the authorised signatory, and if it is so used his position is not further jeopardised by giving to the word ‘cheque’ its normal legal meaning. The words printed on the card do not suggest, as they could have done, that the bank agrees to pay the sum of money written on the cheque form. Furthermore, I do not see any reason in the circumstances of this case to conclude that the bank should be regarded as precluded from setting up the forgery or want of authority in any proceedings brought against it to enforce payment of the cheque.
The commercial argument
Mr Douglas argued that at least in 1991 part of the object of the cheque guarantee card was to relieve suppliers of goods of the risk of accepting a forged and therefore worthless cheque. If his other arguments are right then the card certainly had that effect, but a card still had considerable value even if he is mistaken. Given that a cheque was signed by an authorised card holder in accordance with the printed terms, the supplier no longer had to worry about whether the signatory actually had a bank account, or about whether there would be sufficient funds in that account to meet the cheque on presentation. As Lord Ackner said in R v Kassim [1991] 3 All ER 713 at 721, [1992] 1 AC 9 at 19:
‘… the whole object of the card is to relieve the tradesman from concerning himself with the relationship between the customer and his own bank …’
Conclusion
Accordingly in my judgment, having regard to the cheque guarantee terms in use in 1991 (but which have now been superseded), the bank was entitled to refuse to pay, and I would dismiss this appeal.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. It is often convenient for a buyer of goods or services to make payment by cheque. But sellers may be reluctant to part with the goods or permit consumption of the services before a cheque is cleared, for the obvious reasons that the cheque may be dishonoured or may prove to be bogus. To overcome this reluctance, and so help their customers, banks issue them with what are usually called cheque cards or cheque guarantee cards.
The payment for goods by cheque, supported by a cheque guarantee card, is a very familiar everyday event. But on legal analysis it may be seen to involve four contractual relationships: that between the buyer and the seller under the contract of sale; that between the buyer as drawer of a bill of exchange and the seller as payee of the bill; that between the buyer as customer and his banker; and that between the buyer’s bank and the seller. This appeal turns very largely on the last of these relationships. Both parties agree that such a direct contractual relationship between bank and seller may arise, and that where it does it will be because an offer made by or on behalf of the bank has already been duly accepted by the seller. The parties also agree (I am content to accept rightly) that when the
Page 799 of [1993] 3 All ER 789
direct contractual relationship does arise the bank assumes a primary liability towards the seller and not a secondary liability dependent on the default of its customer.
If a direct contractual relationship did on the present facts arise between Barclays Bank and First Sport as sellers, the substance of the bank’s contractual promise is clear: to pay up to £50 on a single personal cheque issued within the United Kingdom during the validity of the card in settlement of a single transaction.
That promise was subject to five conditions: (1) that no other cheque ‘guaranteed’ by a Barclays card was also used to settle the transaction; (2) that the cheque was taken from a Barclays cheque book issued in the United Kingdom; (3) that the signature on the cheque agreed with the specimen on the card; (4) that the signature on the cheque was written in the presence of the seller; and (5) that the seller recorded the number of the card on the back of the cheque.
The terms of the bank’s contractual promise and condition (1) are, as it seems to me, directed to the risk that a customer without means to reimburse the bank might expose it to a substantial liability: thus the bank’s exposure is limited to £50 per seller per transaction. Condition (5) is an administrative requirement, necessary to alert the bank to the use of one of its cheque cards to support the cheque and to identify the card. Condition (2) protects the bank against liability on a cheque which one of its cardholders might draw on another bank, and may be intended to reduce the risk of forgery. Conditions (3) and (4) are, I think, plainly directed towards the risk of forgery.
On the facts as found in this case, conditions (1) to (5) were all fulfilled. So were the terms of the offer itself, since a single personal cheque drawn for less than £50 was issued in the United Kingdom during the currency of the card in settlement of a single transaction. Was the bank accordingly bound? The bank says not, because the dishonest buyer (whether or not himself the thief) lacked both actual and ostensible (or apparent) authority to bind the bank. First Sport says that the bank was bound, for although the dishonest buyer lacked actual authority to bind the bank he had ostensible authority to do so.
It is clear that the dishonest buyer lacked actual authority to bind the bank. By its opening statement on the back of the card (that the card could be used only by the authorised signatory) the bank made that clear. I would read that statement as an instruction to the authorised signatory himself, but if it had been no more than that it need not have appeared on the card itself (where other instructions to the cardholder did not appear). The remainder of that opening paragraph was not addressed solely to the cardholder, and I think the opening statement was also addressed (among others) to sellers to whom the card might be presented.
It is of course elementary that a finding of ostensible authority cannot be based on the false assertion of the purported agent that he has authority which in truth he lacks. Such a finding must be based on a holding out by the alleged principal of the alleged agent as having his authority to act on his behalf in the relevant respect, which authority (after reliance upon it by the third party) the alleged principal is not permitted to deny. The simple justice underlying the rule is obvious: if A induces B to treat C as A’s agent with authority to bind him, it would be quite unfair if A were afterwards free to disavow the transaction on the basis that C was never his agent at all, even though in truth he never was.
The central issue in this case is how, if at all, this principle applies to the present facts. The bank says it has no application: it argues that it has done nothing to hold out the thief of this card, or his dishonest associate, as its agent with authority to bind it. First Sport does not agree. The bank could, First Sport
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argues, have limited its liability to £50 on cheques actually drawn by the authorised signatory of the card. But on that basis conditions (3) and (4) would have been quite unnecessary. Whatever a buyer’s actual authority, the bank’s conditions (2), (3) and (4) held out as having authority to bind the bank a buyer who presented the card and signed in the seller’s presence a cheque taken from a Barclays United Kingdom cheque book in a manner which agreed with the specimen signature on the card.
After considerable hesitation, born of the able arguments on each side and strengthened by Evans and Kennedy LJJ’s disagreement, I am persuaded that First Sport is right. My reasons are as much practical as legal. If the bank had made clear that it would in no circumstances accept any liability at all on any cheque not signed by the authorised signatory of the card, then the shop assistants and garage attendants to whom such cards are usually presented would have been put on notice, and it may be that evidence of a buyer’s true identity would have been demanded as a matter of routine. But read as a whole the bank’s offer (including the conditions) did not make that clear: instead, it encouraged the belief that if the written terms of the offer and the conditions were met the bank would accept liability to the extent specified. Thereby, as it seems to me, it held out anyone able to fulfil all those conditions as having authority to bind it. It may of course be that the bank inserted conditions (3) and (4) to protect itself against the administrative hassle of dealing with invalid claims based on forged cheques, but I do not think that is how the conditions would have been understood by a reasonable retailer to whom the card was presented.
The bank argued that it was not liable since a forged cheque was wholly inoperative by virtue of s 24 of the Bills of Exchange Act 1882. I do not accept this: references to ‘cheque’ in the bank’s offer should not be read as importing complex concepts derived from the Act. I would understand a cheque within the meaning of the bank’s terms to be that which a reasonable seller would regard as such. He would not on the present facts have regarded the forged cheque as ‘a mere sham piece of paper’ and it was not argued that he should have done. Kerr J’s observation in National Westminster Bank Ltd v Barclays Bank International Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 834 at 866, [1975] QB 654 at 656–657 was made in the context of a dispute between a paying bank and a collecting bank, which was, as I think, quite different.
I would accordingly allow the appeal. In doing so, I do not in any way disagree with the learned trial judge. He was, unhappily and through no fault of his own, misled into deciding the case on the basis of conditions which, it is now accepted, were not on the relevant card. We have accordingly heard no argument on those conditions. But we have of course read his judgment, and I would for my part have needed much persuasion that on the terms which he construed his finding for the bank was wrong.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords granted.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Mairs (Inspector of Taxes) v Haughey
[1993] 3 All ER 801
Categories: TAXATION; Income Tax, Emoluments From Office Or Employment
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD ACKNER, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 8, 9, 10 JUNE, 22 JULY 1993
Income tax – Emoluments from office or employment – Receipt ‘from’ employment – Payment made as inducement to enter employment – Ex gratia payment to employee in consideration of employee giving up contingent right to non-statutory redundancy payment – Whether payment emolument from employment – Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, s 19(1).
In July 1989, pursuant to the privatisation of a shipbuilding company (H & W), the taxpayer and 2,360 other employees were offered new employment by a proposed ‘buy-out’ company (H & W 1989) as an alternative to redundancy. The terms of the offer were that the employee would receive an ex gratia payment calculated as the aggregate of (i) 30% of the amount of redundancy to which he would have been entitled under the non-statutory enhanced redundancy scheme available to H & W employees had he accepted redundancy on 1 September 1989 (element A) and (ii) £700 or £100 per complete year of service with the company whichever was the greater (element B). It was settled before the offer was made that the employees’ contracts following their transfer to H & W 1989 would not include redundancy provisions comparable to the enhanced redundancy scheme available to H & W employees. The taxpayer accepted the offer and was then assessed to income tax under s 19(1)a of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988 (Case I of Sch E) for the year 1989–90 on the total payment of £5,806 (comprising £4,506 for element A plus £1,300 for element B) received by him on his acceptance of the offer. He appealed against the assessment. A Special Commissioner held that the sum of £5,806 received by the taxpayer should be apportioned between element A and element B and element A should be treated as compensation to the taxpayer for the loss of contingent rights under the enhanced redundancy scheme available to H & W employees, and element B as consideration for the acceptance of the new terms and conditions of working applicable to an employee of H & W 1989. On that basis the commissioner held, inter alia, (i) that element A was not taxable as an emolument ‘from’ the taxpayer’s employment, and (ii) that element B was taxable under Sch E on the ground that it was an inducement to enter into employment with H & W 1989. The Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland dismissed the Crown’s appeal holding (i) that the entire payment of £5,806 consisted in part of compensation for the loss of the contingent rights in the enhanced redundancy scheme and in part of consideration for accepting new terms and conditions of employment and consequently the commissioner had been entitled to apportion the payment and regard the element A payment as compensation for the extinction of the taxpayer’s contingent rights in the scheme, and (ii) that since the receipt of a payment under the enhanced redundancy scheme was not taxable under Sch E as an emolument from employment, the compensation received in respect of the extinction of the right to receive such a payment was not taxable as an emolument from employment. The Crown appealed.
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Held – (1) Whether the issue was approached as being one to be resolved by construing the documents which resulted in the change in the terms of employment or whether the substance and reality of the situation which brought about that change was looked at, the total payment was made for two separate identifiable considerations, namely in consideration of (i) the new terms and conditions of employment, and (ii) the termination of the enhanced redundancy scheme. Although neither of the two elements of the ex gratia payment were exclusively referable to either element of the consideration, if the payments had been paid for two considerations the commissioner was entitled to apportion the payments between the separate considerations (see p 803 g to j and p 809 f to j, post); Tilley v Wales (Inspector of Taxes) [1943] 1 All ER 280 considered.
(2) A payment made to compensate for the loss of a contingent right to a payment derived its character from the nature of the payment it replaced and a significant characteristic of a payment under the enhanced redundancy scheme was that it was to compensate or to relieve an employee for the consequences of his not being able to continue to earn a living in his former employment. Accordingly, such a non-statutory redundancy payment did not fall within the definition of an emolument from employment; instead, it was a payment to compensate the employee for not being able to receive emoluments from his employment. The other significant characteristic of a redundancy payment was that it became payable after the employment had come to an end and prima facie a payment made after the termination of employment was not an emolument from that employment unless it was deferred remuneration. In that respect a redundancy payment differed from a payment of deferred remuneration because in the case of the latter once the employment had come to an end the right to payment would inevitably accrue whereas a redundancy payment was payable only in certain limited circumstances. Since a redundancy payment would not be taxable under Sch E as an emolument ‘from’ employment then element A of the ex gratia payment, which was received by the taxpayer as compensation for the loss of the contingent right to receive such a payment, was not taxable as an emolument ‘from’ employment. The taxpayer’s receipt of element A of the ex gratia payment was accordingly not taxable. The Crown’s appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 803 g to j, p 811 b to f, p 812 j and p 813 b j to p 814 a j, post); dicta of Lord Radcliffe in Hochstrasser (Inspector of Taxes) v Mayes [1959] 3 All ER 817 at 823–824 and of Lord Templeman in Shilton v Wilmshurst (Inspector of Taxes) [1991] 3 All ER 148 at 151 considered.
NotesFor emoluments from an office or employment and the taxation of voluntary payments to the holder of an office or employment, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 655, 658, and for cases on the subject, see 28(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 461–500, 2225–2366.
For the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, s 19, see 44 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 60.
Cases referred to in opinionsComptroller-General of Inland Revenue v Knight [1973] AC 428, [1972] 3 WLR 594, PC.
Edwards (Inspector of Taxes) v Bairstow [1955] 3 All ER 48, [1956] AC 14, [1955] 3 WLR 410, HL.
Henley v Murray (Inspector of Taxes) [1950] 1 All ER 908, CA.
Henry (Inspector of Taxes) v Foster (1931) 16 TC 605, CA.
Page 803 of [1993] 3 All ER 801
Hochstrasser (Inspector of Taxes) v Mayes [1959] 3 All ER 817, [1960] AC 376, [1960] 2 WLR 63, HL.
Hunter (Inspector of Taxes) v Dewhurst (1932) 16 TC 605, [1932] All ER Rep 753, HL.
Shilton v Wilmshurst (Inspector of Taxes) [1991] 3 All ER 148, [1991] 1 AC 684, [1991] 2 WLR 530, HL.
Tilley v Wales (Inspector of Taxes) [1943] 1 All ER 280, [1943] AC 386, HL.
AppealThe Crown appealed with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 23 November 1992 from the decision of the Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland (Hutton LCJ, McDermott LJ and Nicholson J) ([1992] STC 495) on 8 May 1992 dismissing an appeal by the Crown by way of a case stated by a Commissioner for the Special Purposes of the Income Tax Acts (set out at [1992] STC 497–507) in respect of his decision that a payment of £5,806 to Robert Haughey (the taxpayer) which consisted, in part, of compensation for the loss of contingent rights in a former redundancy scheme and, in part, of consideration for accepting new terms and conditions of employment was capable of apportionment and that the part of the payment which was referable to the loss of the contingent rights in the old redundancy scheme was not taxable either as an emolument ‘from’ the taxpayer’s employment or as a benefit. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Woolf.
Patrick Coghlin QC, R E Weatherup (both of the Northern Ireland Bar) and Launcelot Henderson (instructed by the Solicitor of Inland Revenue) for the Crown.
Andrew Park QC and John Thompson (of the Northern Ireland Bar) (instructed by Evershed Wells & Hind, Birmingham) for the taxpayer.
22 July 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf, and for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD ACKNER. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf, and for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, I have read in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf and for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Woolf, and for the reasons he gives, I, too, would dismiss the appeal.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, Mr Robert Haughey (the taxpayer) contends that he agreed to forego his contingent entitlement to be paid a non-statutory enhanced redundancy payment in the event of his becoming redundant in return for the payment of a lesser sum of £4,506. The Revenue treated that the lesser sum as
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being assessable to income tax under Sch E for the year 1989–90 so the taxpayer was assessed in the sum of £23,242, which included the tax alleged to be payable on the lesser sum. He appealed against that assessment and was successful both before the Special Commissioner and the Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland (see [1992] STC 495) in establishing that he was wrongly assessed in that sum of £4,506.
On this appeal to your Lordships’ House the Crown argued that the lesser sum, £4,506, which is part of a payment of £5,806, was paid to the taxpayer and accepted by him as an inducement to enter into new employment on different terms and conditions of employment from those on which he had previously been employed. These terms did not include any entitlement under the enhanced redundancy scheme (except for a two-year transitional period). Neither the commissioner nor the Court of Appeal considered that the payment was made for this purpose. However, the Crown submits that in accord with the principles laid down in Edwards (Inspector of Taxes) v Bairstow [1955] 3 All ER 48, [1956] AC 14 this is the only conclusion which as a matter of law it is permissible for a tribunal to reach as to the purpose for which the lump sum was paid and received and so this is a submission on which it is entitled to rely on this appeal. If the Crown is correct in this submission then Mr Park QC for the taxpayer accepts that the appeal succeeds. If the Crown fails and the payment was made for the purpose for which the taxpayer contends, then the Crown still argues that the assessment was correct. Because of the Crown’s first argument it is necessary to set out the facts in more detail than would otherwise be necessary.
The facts
Until 8 August 1989 the taxpayer was employed by Harland & Wolff plc (H & W) as a construction manager. He had been employed by the company for some 13 years. H & W had been in public ownership since 1975 and by 1989 its sole shareholder was the Department of Economic Development, Northern Ireland (the DED).
Since 1988 the government had been attempting to privatise H & W. In March 1989 an agreement in principle was reached between H & W, and representatives of the Olsen group of companies (Olsen) and the DED which might, at last, enable privatisation to be achieved. A new corporate structure, including the creation of a holding company, Harland & Wolff Holdings plc (Holdings), with an operating subsidiary, Harland & Wolff 1989 Ltd (H & W 1989) was proposed. It was intended that 80% of Holdings’ share capital (£12m) would be funded by Olsen and that the majority of the remaining 20% would be subscribed by the management and employees in accordance with a management and employee ‘buy-out’ arrangement.
It was intended that the new structure should be achieved in two stages; each stage involved the co-operation of the employees. First, a sufficient number of the employees whom the management wished to retain had to agree a transfer from H & W to H & W 1989 on new terms and conditions of employment. Second, the management and employee ‘buy-out’ had to be implemented.
The employees of H & W, including the taxpayer, had attractive contingent rights in a non-statutory enhanced redundancy scheme under their existing conditions of employment. This scheme was not independently funded and the DED had therefore to meet H & W’s obligations under the scheme as and when they arose. The scheme was intended to deal with the human problems arising from the contraction of the shipbuilding industry, by the provision of enhanced benefits to redundant employees. In the past there had been frequent resort to
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the scheme since in general it was as a result of redundancy that an employee’s employment came to an end. It was not, therefore, surprising that the commissioner made a finding ([1992] STC 495 at 499) that the scheme ‘was universally regarded by the employees as a matter of the first importance’.
The proposed terms of employment would require the employees to adopt more flexible working arrangements. In addition the employees who were retained by H & W 1989 would have to give up their rights under the enhanced redundancy scheme. As a result of discussions between the management, Olsen and the DED, it was envisaged that each transferred employee would be paid 30% of the amount which he would have received under the scheme had he been made redundant on 1 September 1989 and that the 30% would be made up to 100% in the case of any transferred employee who was made redundant within two years thereafter. The DED agreed to provide the £10m which it was calculated would just suffice to meet the costs involved and to meet the redundancy payments which would be payable to those employees who would not be offered employment on the new terms.
When agreement in principle had been reached, the unions were informed and discussions took place between the management and the unions. In part those discussions related to changes in working practices. Here the commissioner found (at 499) that the differences between the parties ‘were resolved without great difficulty’. The commissioner also found (at 499): ‘Much the largest bone of contention was the proposed loss (after a transitional two-year period) of the benefits’ of the enhanced redundancy scheme.
The employees of H & W were kept informed of the progress of discussions by leaflets entitled Privatisation News. On behalf of the Crown particular reliance was placed on the issue of 8 May 1989. That issue expressed the management’s confidence that with the co-operation and commitment of the employees, H & W 1989 had the potential to become a viable business with all that this implied for future employment opportunities; that H & W 1989 could not afford to maintain an enhanced redundancy scheme, but that statutory redundancy entitlement would remain. It then set out the position at the time in these terms:
‘A New Start … Since 1977 the enhanced redundancy payment scheme has been available to all H & W employees who are declared redundant. As part of privatisation we have to review this and we wish you to understand the position.
Facts about the scheme … The enhanced Shipbuilders Redundancy Payment Scheme was introduced in 1977 for a fixed period as part of a wider programme of rationalisation within the British shipbuilding industry. It was subsequently renewed on several occasions. The current H & W scheme, whilst having no fixed termination date, is not a permanent guaranteed right of employment. Even while it remains, to receive the benefit of the scheme an employee has to be made redundant. It is not within an employee’s power to choose whether they receive it or not. The company has to decide who will be declared redundant and when. There is no pot of cash. It is not the same as the pension fund for which payments are set aside on a yearly basis. No private shipbuilding company could afford to maintain such an enhanced redundancy scheme. This includes the companies privatised out of British Shipbuilders which have a similar scheme that terminates this summer. The new Harland and Wolff cannot afford to maintain such an enhanced scheme, but statutory redundancy entitlement will remain.
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A New Deal … In negotiating the buy-out with Government we requested, and ministers have agreed, that a “Fixed Sum” should be paid to cover the costs of * making redundancy payments at the same level as under the enhanced scheme in the first two years of operation as a private company—there will be no loss of enhanced redundancy payment to anyone who has to be declared redundant within two years; * financial recognition to all existing employees transferred to the new company for changes in working practices and conditions (including the ending of the enhanced redundancy scheme) that will be necessary to ensure competitiveness. The “Fixed Sum” can only be used for these purposes …
Company Proposal … We have based our proposal on the experience of companies privatised from British Shipbuilders. Subject to your support and as consideration for your acceptance of new employment terms we propose: * to pay every employee a gross cash sum calculated at three tenths of the amount of the enhanced payment (the amount in excess of the statutory payment) which he or she would have received if declared redundant now. Everyone still employed at H & W will receive this, even if they are never declared redundant. The payment could be subject to income tax, but we are still investigating this; * to pay any employee made redundant within the next two years, to August 31, 1991, a redundancy payment equal to his or her full entitlement which should have been due under the enhanced and statutory redundancy schemes less the initial payment; * any employee made redundant before this is introduced will obtain the full entitlement under the enhanced and statutory schemes. Any employee made redundant after September 1, 1991 will receive only the statutory redundancy payment, but, of course, this person will have received the initial payment. We believe that this is the fairest way of using the funds provided by the Government, balancing a cash payment to everyone for the changes in working practices and conditions and full protection for anyone who is made redundant during the first two years after privatisation. We believe that this is as good a deal as any other British shipbuilder has achieved on privatisation. However, we are prepared to consider alternative approaches within the stipulated guidelines which may be proposed by your representatives. Remember that if you are employed in the new H & W after privatisation: * statutory redundancy will not be affected; * pension entitlements remain protected; * you will receive the cash sum referred to above; * you will have two years protection for the balance of the enhanced redundancy cover. The choice is between employment and this package in a new company—which has an assured orderbook and the prospect of further orders in an improving market, or closure.’
At 8 May 1989 it was only intended that there should be the payment of the 30%, which in the taxpayer’s case would amount to £4,506 (element A). However, negotiations continued and on a careful re-examination of the terminal costs of the proposal it was found that there was room for a small improvement in the terms to be offered to the employees. This improvement was £700 or (if more) £100 per complete year of service of the employee with H & W (element B, which in the taxpayer’s case would be £1,300). This improvement affected all employees but was more beneficial to two groups: those with very short service (and those for whom the 30% provision would have been minimal) and those with long service (for whom the restriction to 30% was more onerous).
Negotiations continued until 6 July 1989, when H & W brought the negotiations to an end by issuing to 2,361 selected employees, including the
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taxpayer, offers of jobs with H & W 1989. The offer had to be accepted before the end of July and was in fact accepted by all the employees to whom it was made. The offer was contained in a letter of 6 July, which stated that the offer was being made on behalf of H & W 1989 and on the new terms and conditions of employment—
‘on the basis that, if you accept them, they will replace your present terms and conditions as from completion of the buyout i.e. only if the buyout is completed.’
The letter stated that there was enclosed with it, in addition to the new terms and conditions:
‘… details of the ex gratia payment which will be paid to employees who accept the new terms and conditions and the ending of the enhanced redundancy scheme and who report for work following completion of the buyout.’
The letter also stated:
‘Should you accept this offer and the termination of the enhanced redundancy scheme and (as mentioned earlier) start work following completion of the buyout, you will receive an ex gratia payment, details of which (including future redundancy policy) you will find in Section 4 of this information pack.’
Finally the letter stated that if an employee reply slip had not been returned by 31 July 1989 it would be assumed that the employee did not wish to accept the offer.
Section 4, referred to in the letter, set out the details of the ex gratia payment with reference to elements A and B. It also pointed out that an employee would also receive full statutory redundancy entitlement ‘which is not affected by the new terms and conditions’.
The reply slip which was provided which was to be completed by the employee recorded the fact that the employee had read the letter of offer dated 6 July 1989 and the new terms and conditions of employment which are attached to it and went on to say:
‘I hereby confirm that I accept the new terms and conditions on the basis set out in that letter and the termination of the existing H & W enhanced redundancy scheme.’
Although all the employees who were offered the new terms accepted them, the new terms of employment only applied when the management and employee buy-out was completed and an employee reported for work following completion of the buy-out. The buy-out was in fact completed on 8 September 1989. Prior to that date, on 8 August 1989, the business of H & W was transferred to H & W 1989. Initially H & W 1989’s entire issued share capital was beneficially owned by the DED. On the transfer of the business, employees’ contracts were transferred to H & W 1989 by operation of the Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 1981, SI 1981/1794.
After the buy-out had been completed and the employees had reported for work the employees became employed on the new terms and conditions and entitled to receive a sum representing the aggregate of the A and B elements. The payments were actually made on 22 September 1989, element A being paid directly by the DED, while element B was paid by H & W 1989 with funds
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provided by the DED for this purpose. (Nothing turns on the method of payment.) The taxpayer received an A element of £4,506 and a B element of £1,300. Both payments were paid under deduction of amounts equivalent to tax and national insurance contributions, the amounts deducted being deposited in a separate bank account in the name of the DED pending the outcome of the appeal.
The statutory provisions
If tax is payable on these sums, then it is payable under s 19(1) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, which provides:
‘The schedule referred to as Schedule E is as follows:—SCHEDULE E 1. Tax under this Schedule shall be charged in respect of any office or employment on emoluments therefrom which fall under one or more than one of the following Cases …’
‘Emoluments’ is defined by s 131(1) as including ‘all salaries, fees, wages, perquisites and profits whatsoever’.
The decision of the Special Commissioner
The status in relation to tax of both the A and the B elements of the payment were in issue on the initial appeal. The commissioner decided (at 505) that it was ‘unrealistic to regard them as “inducements” of any kind’. He took the view that the employees were in the position indicated in the final passage cited from Privatisation News of 8 May 1989. They either accepted employment on the new terms and conditions and accepted the ex gratia payment or were faced with closure of the dockyard and no employment. He said that he regarded the other documentation as supporting there being a single payment for both considerations. Prior to the hearing before him, Mr Park, who also appeared before your Lordships’ House, understood that it was accepted by the Crown that the A element represented compensation for the loss of rights under the enhanced redundancy scheme, while the B element was consideration for the acceptance of the new terms and conditions. At the hearing, it soon became clear that the Crown did not accept that this was the situation. The commissioner decided that the single payment of the A and B elements was ‘the consideration for both of the changes’. He regarded the documents as being consistent with the existence of some appropriation of the total lump sum and he appropriated the A element of the payment to the loss of the enhanced redundancy scheme payments and the B element to the acceptance by the employees of the new terms and conditions of employment. He then decided that the A element was not taxable but that the B element was taxable. In coming to that conclusion, he rejected the alternative argument advanced by the Crown, which has not been renewed, that in any event the A element should be taxable under s 154 of the 1988 Act as a benefit.
The decision of the Court of Appeal
The Court of Appeal came generally to the same conclusion. Sir Brian Hutton LCJ explained his view as to what the payment was made for in these terms ([1992] STC 495 at 516–517):
‘Apportionment of the sum of £5,806 and whether payment of the sum of £4,506 was an inducement to enter into new employment on new terms and conditions. Whilst it is possible to regard some part of the aggregate sum of £5,806 as being paid as consideration for accepting the new terms and
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working conditions and therefore as an inducement, I consider it to be clear that a substantial part of that sum was paid to the taxpayer to compensate him for the loss of his contingent rights under the scheme. I regard this as clear from the wording of the documentation to which I have earlier referred. In my opinion this view is further supported by the considerations that element A of the total payment was calculated with reference to 30% of the amount of the enhanced redundancy payment which the taxpayer would have received if he had been declared redundant in the summer of 1989, and that the Special Commissioner found as a fact that the 30% certainly did not overvalue the employees’ contingent rights under the scheme. I am further of opinion that this payment in respect of the loss of the contingent rights under the scheme cannot be regarded as an inducement to enter into new employment with H & W 1989; it was paid in compensation for a loss, not as an inducement to remain in employment or enter into new employment. Accordingly, as the total payment of £5,806 consisted, in part, of compensation for the loss of the contingent rights in the scheme and, in part, of consideration for accepting new terms and conditions of employment, I consider that the Special Commissioner was fully entitled to apportion the total payment into two parts, and that ample authority for such an apportionment is found in the decision of the House of Lords in Tilley v Wales (Inspector of Taxes) ([1943] 1 All ER 280, [1943] AC 386).’
The other members of the court, MacDermott LJ and Nicholson J, were of the same view and considered that the commissioner was entitled to come to the conclusion to which he did come.
The purpose for which the lump sum was paid
Notwithstanding the gallant arguments of Mr Coghlin QC on behalf of the Crown to the contrary, I am quite satisfied that the commissioner and the Court of Appeal were right to conclude that this was not a situation where the aggregate sum, consisting of the two elements, should be regarded as being paid as an inducement to the employees to become or remain employed by H & W 1989. As Mr Park submitted on behalf of the taxpayer, there was no need for any such inducement. Whether you approach the issue as being one to be resolved by construing the documents which resulted in the change in the terms of employment or look at the substance and reality of the situation which brought about the change in the conditions of employment, the total payment was made for the two separate identifiable considerations referred to in the letter of 6 July 1989 and, in particular, in the employee’s reply slip of acceptance. The payment was in consideration of (i) the new terms and conditions of employment and (ii) the termination of the enhanced redundancy scheme. It is true that neither of the two elements are exclusively referable to either element of the consideration. However, as was accepted by Mr Coghlin, if the payments were being paid for two considerations, the commissioner was entitled to apportion the payments between the considerations (see Tilley v Wales (Inspector of Taxes)), and, this being so, it cannot be said that the apportionment adopted was wrong. In these circumstances on the documents and the evidence I have no difficulty in rejecting the Crown’s first and primary contention.
The liability to income tax for payment made in lieu of a right to receive a non-statutory redundancy payment
The rejection of the Crown’s primary contention makes it possible to focus on what I regard as being the important issue raised by this appeal, that is, whether
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a cash payment made for giving up non-statutory contingent redundancy rights is received by an employee as an emolument from his employment and chargeable to income tax under s 19 of the 1988 Act.
On this appeal, as the first step in its argument, it was submitted on behalf of the Crown that in law a payment made to an employee under the enhanced redundancy scheme (unlike a statutory redundancy payment) would have been taxable as an emolument from his employment. This submission is inconsistent with the actual treatment by the Revenue of such payments in accordance with a long-standing statement of practice issued by the Revenue (SP1/81) dealing with such non-statutory redundancy payments. The practice was issued at the same time as a press release (Payments on termination of employment: Budget proposals) in conjunction with the announcement by the Chancellor of the Exchequer of his budget proposals on 10 March 1981. The press release recorded that the statement of practice clarified the ‘treatment of non-statutory redundancy payments’. The statement of practice includes the following passage:
‘A payment made under a non-statutory redundancy scheme may in law be taxable in full under Schedule E if the scheme is part of the conditions under which the employees agree to give their services, or if there is an expectation of payment on their part. However, in practice the Inland Revenue accept that in the case of a genuine redundancy the only tax liability on lump sum payments made under redundancy schemes is under section 187 [of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 (now s 148 of the Act of 1988)], even though the payment may be calculated by reference to the length of service or the amount of remuneration, or is conditional on continued service for a short period consistent with the reasonable needs of the employer’s business. [Section 148 is of no relevance to the present issue.]’
I recognise that the Crown is only departing from the position set out in SP1/81 for the purpose of establishing a step in its argument as to what it regards as being the correct position in relation to a payment made to ‘buy out’ an employee’s contingency redundancy rights and not in relation to those redundancy rights themselves. None the less I am concerned about the Crown adopting this approach since I do not understand the policy reasons for treating a payment genuinely made in lieu of receiving a redundancy payment in a different way from an actual redundancy payment. It is inevitable that if a payment is made in substitution for a payment, which might, subject to a contingency, have been payable that the nature of the payment which is made in lieu will be affected by the nature of the payment which might otherwise have been made. There will usually be no legitimate reason for treating the two payments in a different way. However, I say no more on this subject since I am satisfied that the present practice of the Revenue as described in SP1/81 accords with the position in law of payments made to an employee on redundancy under a non-statutory redundancy scheme.
In order to decide whether payments made under such a scheme are taxable under Sch E, it is necessary to identify the qualities of a genuine non-statutory redundancy payment. Assistance is provided by s 81(2) of the Employment (Protection) Consolidation Act 1978, which sets out for the purposes of statutory redundancy when an employee is taken to be dismissed by reason of redundancy. For an employee to be in this position a dismissal has to be—
‘attributable wholly or mainly to—(a) the fact that his employer has ceased, or intends to cease, to carry on the business for the purposes of which the employee was employed by him, or has ceased, or intends to cease, to
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carry on that business in the place where the employee was so employed, or (b) the fact that the requirements of that business for employees to carry out work of a particular kind, or for employees to carry out work of a particular kind in the place where he was so employed, have ceased or diminished or are expected to cease or diminish.’
Redundancy, whether statutory or non-statutory, involves an employee finding himself without a job through circumstances over which he has no control. It is also a quality of redundancy that it does not give rise to a right to compensation unless the employee has been employed for a minimum period and that the right when it accrues increases, initially, with the period of employment and then subsequently reduces until eventually the employee loses any right of payment on his reaching normal retirement age. These qualities were fully reflected in the enhanced redundancy payment scheme operated by H & W. A redundancy payment has therefore a real element of compensating or relieving an employee for the consequences of his not being able to continue to earn a living in his former employment. The redundancy legislation reflects an appreciation that an employee who has remained in employment for the minimum time has a stake in his employment which justifies his receiving compensation if he loses that stake. It is distinct from the damages to which he would be entitled if his employment were terminated unlawfully. It is also unlike a deferred payment of wages in that the entitlement to a redundancy payment is never more than a contingent entitlement, which no doubt both the employer and employee normally hope will never accrue.
Having identified the nature of a redundancy payment it is now necessary to determine whether it falls within the description contained in limited statutory provisions which I have already cited. Giving full effect to the wide statutory definition of emoluments in s 131(1) of the 1988 Act, in the absence of authority I would have regarded a payment having the qualities which I have identified as not falling within the statutory definition of an emolument from employment. Instead of being an emolument from employment, it is a payment to compensate the employee for not being able to receive emoluments from his employment. However, this is an area in which there is an abundance of authority. It is not always easy to reconcile these authorities since as is to be expected they are frequently concerned with situations close to the borderline between payments which fall within and payments that fall without the statutory provision.
It is possible to have almost an infinite variety of situations which, although they have common characteristics, as a matter of fact and degree fall one side of the border or the other. In each case ultimately it is a matter of applying the statutory language to the facts. However, general assistance is provided by the speeches in Hochstrasser (Inspector of Taxes) v Mayes [1959] 3 All ER 817, [1960] AC 376 and Shilton v Wilmshurst (Inspector of Taxes) [1991] 3 All ER 148, [1991] 1 AC 684. In the former case I find the passage in the speech of Lord Radcliffe of help where he said of the statutory language ([1959] 3 All ER 817 at 823, [1960] AC 376 at 391–392):
‘For my part, I think that their meaning is adequately conveyed by saying that, while it is not sufficient to render a payment assessable that an employee would not have received it unless he had been an employee, it is assessable if it has been paid to him in return for acting as or being an employee.’
In that case, accordingly, although it was regarded as being near the borderline, a payment which was made to an employee under the terms of his employment
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to compensate him for loss that he suffered on selling his home because of having to move due to the circumstances of his employment, was held not to be taxable, the reason being, as Lord Radcliffe explained ([1959] 3 All ER 817 at 824, [1960] AC 376 at 392):
‘The essential point is that what was paid to him was paid to him in respect of his personal situation as a house-owner who had taken advantage of the housing scheme and had obtained a claim to indemnity accordingly. In my opinion, such a payment is no more taxable as a profit from his employment than would be a payment out of a provident or distress fund set up by an employer for the benefit of employees whose personal circumstances might justify assistance.’
In the other case, Shilton v Wilmshurst (Inspector of Taxes) [1991] 3 All ER 148 at 151, [1991] 1 AC 684 at 689, Lord Templeman described the charge in these terms:
‘Section 181 [of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970, now s 19 of the 1988 Act] is not confined to “emoluments from the employer” but embraces all “emoluments from employment”; the section must therefore comprehend an emolument provided by a third party, a person who is not the employer. Section 181 is not limited to emoluments provided in the course of employment; the section must therefore apply first to an emolument which is paid as a reward for past services and as an inducement to continue to perform services and, second, to an emolument which is paid as an inducement to enter into a contract of employment and to perform services in the future. The result is that an emolument “from employment” means an emolument “from being or becoming an employee”. The authorities are consistent with this analysis and are concerned to distinguish in each case between an emolument which is derived “from being or becoming an employee” on the one hand and an emolument which is attributable to something else on the other hand, for example to a desire on the part of the provider of the emolument to relieve distress or to provide assistance to a home buyer. If an emolument is not paid as a reward for past services or as an inducement to enter into employment and provide future services but is paid for some other reason, then the emolument is not received “from the employment”.’
In Shilton v Wilmshurst (Inspector of Taxes) the suggested emolument was, as in this case, paid by a third party, but it was paid as an inducement to the taxpayer to enter into a contract of employment with another football club by the football club which up to that time had been entitled to his services. (It was no doubt because of the reference to ‘an inducement’ by Lord Templeman that the Crown wished to establish that the payment to the taxpayer was paid as an inducement.)
When these two short citations of the highest authority are examined it is significant that they treat as being outside the charge payments which are either from a distress fund or to relieve distress. As I indicated earlier a characteristic of a redundancy payment is that it is to compensate or relieve an employee for what can be the unfortunate consequences of becoming unemployed.
The other significant characteristic of a redundancy payment is that it is payable after the employment has come to an end. Prima facie a payment made after the termination of employment is not an emolument from that employment. It can be, however, an emolument from the employment if for example it is a lump sum payment in the nature of deferred remuneration. As Lord Hanworth MR indicated in Henry (Inspector of Taxes) v Foster (1931) 16 TC
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605 at 629–630, in order to determine whether this is the situation it is necessary to look at the substance of the matter. If a payment relates to the services rendered then the fact that the payment is made after employment comes to an end does not mean that it is divorced from the employment. The distinction between the deferred payment of wages or salary and a redundancy payment may be narrow but it is none the less real. In the case of a deferred payment once the employment comes to an end the right to payment will inevitably accrue. In the case of a redundancy payment, the sum is only payable in limited circumstances and there will be no entitlement if for example the employee leaves the employment of his own accord.
The only case to which your Lordships was referred which actually involved a redundancy payment was Comptroller-General of Inland Revenue v Knight [1973] AC 428. That was a decision of the Privy Council. The opinion of their Lordships was delivered by Lord Wilberforce. The legislation which was being considered by their Lordships was not identical but only similar to the statutory provisions under consideration here. In particular the payment to be taxable had to be ‘paid or granted in respect of the employment’. The redundancy payment which was made was not made under a contract. In concluding that the redundancy payment was not taxable, Lord Wilberforce said (at 435):
‘Although there was no express bargain between the company and [the taxpayer], their Lordships do not see any valid reason in principle for making a distinction between this case and cases (admittedly involving no charge to tax) where the payment is made expressly as consideration for abrogating a service agreement. Equally with such cases the payment falls outside the taxing words “in respect of his employment”.’
Reliance was placed by the Crown on an earlier passage in Lord Wilberforce’s speech where he said (at 433):
‘Two propositions are accepted as common ground in the present case. First, where a sum of money is paid under a contract of employment, it is taxable, even though it is received at or after the termination of the employment: see for example Henry v. Foster ((1931) 16 TC 605). Secondly, where a sum of money is paid as consideration for the abrogation of a contract of employment, or as damages for the breach of it, that sum is not taxable: see for example Henley v. Murray ([1950] 1 All ER 908).’
The Crown latched on to the first proposition. However, Lord Wilberforce was doing no more than citing an agreed general proposition. As with most propositions of this kind it is subject to exceptions. For example, pension payments will usually be payable in consequence of a contract of employment but they are not emoluments ‘in respect of the employment’ or ‘from the employment’ taxable under Sch E. They are taxable under distinct statutory provisions. I therefore reject the Crown’s submission that in law a non-statutory redundancy payment is an emolument from employment chargeable to income tax under Sch E.
The Crown’s next submission is that even though the redundancy payment to which the employees would have been entitled on becoming redundant, if their conditions of employment had not been changed, would not have been an emolument from their employment, the sum paid to ‘buy out’ this contingent entitlement was such an emolument.
It is impossible to accept this submission. As already indicated, the payment made to satisfy a contingent right to a payment derives its character from the
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nature of the payment which it replaces. A redundancy payment would not be an emolument from the employment and a lump sum paid in lieu of the right to receive the redundancy payment is also not chargeable as an emolument under Sch E.
It is not strictly necessary to deal with the Crown’s remaining submission which is dependent on a non-statutory redundancy payment being taxable. The submission is that if a payment made under the enhanced redundancy scheme is taxable as an emolument from employment then a payment to terminate the right to receive the benefits from a redundancy scheme is also taxable as an emolument from employment. The Crown advances this submission because in the Court of Appeal the taxpayer contended successfully that, even if a payment under the enhanced redundancy scheme was taxable, a payment made to secure the termination of his rights under the scheme would not be taxable as an emolument from the employment. This contention was based on the decision of the majority of your Lordships’ House in Hunter (Inspector of Taxes) v Dewhurst (1932) 16 TC 605, [1932] All ER Rep 753 and the statement of the ratio of that decision by Viscount Simon LC (with whose opinion Lord Atkin and Lord Russell of Killowen agreed) in Tilley v Wales (Inspector of Taxes) [1943] 1 All ER 280 at 282, [1943] AC 386 at 392 where Viscount Simon LC said:
‘There an article of association of the company which had employed Commander Dewhurst provided that when a director died or resigned or ceased to hold his office for a cause not reflecting upon his conduct or competence, the company should pay to him or his representatives “by way of compensation for the loss of office” a sum equal to the total amount of his remuneration in the preceding 5 years. Commander Dewhurst subsequently agreed with the company, at a time when he was ceasing to be chairman but was remaining a director, that in lieu of his rights under this article he should be paid £10,000, while his remuneration as director was at the same time reduced to £250 per annum. LORD WARRINGTON, LORD ATKIN, and LORD THANKERTON held that the £10,000 was not a profit from his employment as director and did not represent salary, but was a sum of money paid down by the company to obtain a release from a contingent liability as distinguished from being remuneration under the contract of employment.’
It being unnecessary to express a final view, I merely indicate that at present I am not persuaded that this aspect of the Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland’s decision was incorrect or that Hunter (Inspector of Taxes) v Dewhurst was wrongly decided. This is because for the Crown to succeed the Crown would have to establish, contrary to my provisional view, that the lump sum payment was in the nature of an income payment before it could begin to qualify as being chargeable to tax under Sch E.
In these circumstances, I would dismiss this appeal with costs.
Order accordingly.
Susan J Murphy Barrister.
Nottinghamshire County Council v P
Re P (minors) (local authority: prohibited steps order)
[1993] 3 All ER 815
Categories: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR STEPHEN BROWN P, HIRST AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 16, 17 MARCH, 6 APRIL 1993
Family proceedings – Orders in family proceedings – Prohibited steps order – Local authority applying for prohibited steps order to exclude father from matrimonial home and having contact with his children to prevent sexual abuse – Judge refusing application on grounds of lack of jurisdiction – Judge making residence order in favour of mother and ordering no contact by father – Whether appropriate for local authority to apply for prohibited steps order to exclude father from matrimonial home – Whether judge right to make residence and contact orders – Children Act 1989, ss 8(1), 9(2),(5), 10.
The local authority obtained emergency protection orders in respect of two girls under 17 of a family of three children following allegations made by the eldest girl aged 17 that she had been sexually abused by her father over a number of years. The judge to whom the matter was referred made a direction under s 37 of the Children Act 1989 that the local authority should consider whether to commence care proceedings. However, the local authority declined the judge’s invitation to invoke the care and supervision jurisdiction under Pt IV of the 1989 Act because it did not wish to remove the children from their home as it would not be able to control the children if they were taken into care. Instead the local authority applied for a prohibited steps order under s 8(1)a of the 1989 Act in order to exclude the father from the matrimonial home and prohibit him from having any contact with the children except under supervision by the local authority. The judge held that he had no power to grant the local authority’s application since the court was precluded from making such an order by virtue of s 9(2) and (5)b of the Act, which provided that the court could not make a residence or contact order in favour of a local authority or make a prohibited steps order in order to achieve a result which could be achieved by a residence or contact order. The judge further held that the local authority, by applying for a s 8 order, was attempting to obtain a private law remedy instead of invoking the proper available public law remedies under Pt IV of the Act. The judge was concerned that there were no orders to protect the children, whom he found to be at risk of significant harm, and he decided that he had residual power under s 10(1)c to
Page 816 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
make a s 8 order. Accordingly, he made a residence order in favour of the mother and directed that the children should reside with the mother on condition that the father should not reside at the family home and should not have any contact with the children except for contact supervised by the local authority. He further ordered that the father should vacate the property and should not enter it or have contact with the children unless supervised and attached a penal notice to the order. The local authority appealed, contending that the judge had been wrong to refuse its application since a prohibited steps order was the only order appropriate in the circumstances to achieve the removal of the father from the matrimonial home and the protection of the children. The respondents, the mother, father and guardian ad litem, supported the judge’s ruling on the local authority’s application for a prohibited steps order but appealed against the residence order with the restrictions on contact.
Held – (1) Under s 9(2) of the 1989 Act a local authority was precluded from applying for a contact or residence order and under s 9(5) the court was precluded from making a prohibited steps order which achieved the same result as a residence or contact order. Since the application for the prohibited steps order made by the local authority had sought to achieve such a result the judge had been right to conclude that he had no power to make a prohibited steps order since a ‘contact order’ for the purposes of s 8(1) included a situation where an order was made for no contact. Accordingly, the appeal of the local authority would be dismissed (see pp 824 e to h and p 828 j, post).
(2) Where children were found to be at risk of suffering significant harm within the meaning of s 31 of the 1989 Act, a local authority had a clear duty to take steps to protect them by invoking the specific powers provided under Pt IV of the Act. The course of action taken by the local authority was wholly inappropriate since a prohibited steps order would not have afforded it any authority to deal with the children. Although there were certain circumstances where a prohibited steps order could be sought by the local authority, such an order should not be regarded as providing a substitute for an order under Pt IV. Thus by refusing to undertake the appropriate course of action the local authority had deprived the judge of the ability to make a constructive order. However, the orders made by the judge would be set aside because the course of action adopted by him, albeit for the purpose of protecting the children, was wholly artificial and inappropriate in the circumstances, since the judge had purported to act in reliance of the powers under s 10(1) and to attach conditions to the residence order under s 11(7), but those were provisions falling within the private law remedies of the Act and the judge was in effect seeking to make an order in favour of the local authority which the court was precluded from making under s 9(2). Although the order was not directed to the local authority it expressly placed upon it the duty to regulate and supervise contact and, furthermore, as drawn up the order assumed the nature of an injunction with a penal notice directed to the father, which raised the question as to who would or could seek to enforce the conditions attached to the order. The local authority had acquired no powers or responsibility under it and the mother was an unwilling party to the injunction against the father whom she did not wish to exclude from the matrimonial home. For those reasons the orders could not stand. Accordingly, the respondents’ appeals would be allowed (see p 824 j and p 827 h to p 828 c j, post).
Observations on the appropriate procedure in applications for leave to apply for a prohibited steps order by local authorities (see p 825 h j, post)
Observations on the absence of the courts’ powers in family proceedings to direct local authorities to take steps to protect children at risk and the duties of
Page 817 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
local authorities to take steps to protect children at risk (see p 825 b c g and p 828 g to j, post).
NotesFor the Children Act 1989, ss 8, 9(2), (5), 10, Pt IV, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 400–404, 431.
For prohibited steps orders and other orders with respect to children in family proceedings, see 5(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 770–780.
Cases referred to in judgmentGibson v Austin [1992] 2 FLR 437, CA.
M (prohibited steps order: application for leave), Re [1993] 1 FCR 78, Fam D.
Wilde v Wilde [1988] 2 FLR 83, CA.
AppealThe Nottinghamshire County Council appealed against the decision of Ward J on 27 October 1992 whereby he refused an application by the local authority for a prohibited steps order under s 8(1) of the Children Act 1989 requiring the father to vacate the family home and not to have contact with the children of the family unless he did so under supervision of the local authority. The judge made a residence order in favour of the mother, in pursuance to his powers under s 10(1) to make a s 8 order, directing that the children should reside with the mother at the family home under the following conditions: that the father should not reside there and that there be no contact by the father save supervised contact by the local authority. He further made an injunction that the father should vacate the matrimonial home by 30 October 1992 and should not have contact with the children save supervised contact. The order was indorsed with a penal notice. The respondents, the mother, father and guardian ad litem, appealed against the orders. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Ian Karsten QC and Sarah Edwards (instructed by CP McKay, Nottingham) for the appellants applicant.
Patricia Scotland QC and Cynthia Gifford (instructed by Sheltons, Nottingham) for the first respondent/father.
Judith Parker QC and Deborah Eaton (instructed by Curtis & Parkinson, Nottingham) for the second respondent/mother.
Roger Hayward-Smith QC (instructed by German & Soar, Nottingham) for the guardian ad litem.
Cur adv vult
6 April 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR STEPHEN BROWN P. The court has before it a series of appeals from a judgment delivered by Ward J on 27 October 1992. The judge then refused an application by the Nottinghamshire County Council for a prohibited steps order made pursuant to s 8 of the Children Act 1989. By its application the council stated that it wished the court to order that the father should not reside in the same household as his daughters and should not have any contact with them unless they themselves wished to have contact with him and that any such contact should be supervised by the Social Services Department, such contact to be negotiated between the mother, father and the daughters with a condition that the mother should not knowingly place the daughters in a position where they
Page 818 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
come into contact or reside with the father. It stated that it was making the application:
‘In order to stop/prevent the sexual abuse of the daughters by the father and its emotionally and physically damaging effects. Further that its plans for the children were “that the eldest child should reside with her mother and should receive appropriate help and resources from the Social Services Department and other appropriate agencies regarding sexual abuse. That the child should only have contact with the father at her request and under the supervision of the Social Services Department”.’
The respondents to the application were stated to be the mother and the father. Having refused that application by the local authority the judge proceeded to use what he described as ‘an almost forgotten application’ by the father for a residence order as a basis for making a residence order in favour of the mother. The mother had not sought such an order but the judge considered that he had a discretion to make the order by reason of the provisions of s 10 of the 1989 Act. He imposed conditions and made directions to provide that the father should not have contact with the children save such contact as should be supervised by the Social Services Department and he further ordered that the father should vacate the property and should not enter or attempt to enter the property thereafter. The local authority now appeals against the judge’s refusal to make a prohibited steps order. The mother, the father and the children by their guardian ad litem all appeal against the orders which the judge made for residence with the mother and in particular the restrictions with regard to contact.
The appeal of the local authority raises important questions of law and policy concerning the power of a local authority to seek to make use of the private law provisions contained in Pt II of the 1989 Act instead of proceeding by way of the public law provisions contained in Pt IV of the Act.
The facts which led to the initiation of proceedings by the local authority are set out in the judgment of Ward J which was delivered in open court. The judge’s findings of fact are not challenged in any way in these appeals. On 8 May 1992 after a hearing lasting several days the judge found that the father had persistently sexually abused the eldest of his three daughters by having sexual intercourse with her and committing buggery upon her. He found that the two younger daughters whose ages brought them within the jurisdiction of the court were seriously at risk of abuse by their father. The father in fact already had a conviction for indecent assault upon a girl who was not a member of the family. The judge found that the mother was weak and had no capacity to protect the children and that she was probably totally under the control of her husband. He further found that if the father were to be excluded from the home there was a real risk that the girls would run away to him. On 8 May the judge also said about the father:
‘I have no doubt whatever that Mr P is in need of help. He is a very disturbed and disturbing man. He bristles with aggression. Though he may be all bluster, he is nonetheless a man with a temper, who portrays himself as frightening. He has a frightening effect upon those he deals with.’
He said further:
‘The all pervasive atmosphere of sex in this house is frightening. Given the harm already suffered, the risk of further harm that this man will not stop with M (the eldest girl) but will lay his hands upon the other two is a real risk
Page 819 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
which gives me cause for grave concern. As to the capacity of each of the parents to meet the girls’ needs: their parents have demonstrated themselves quite unable to do so.’
At that hearing in May 1992 the judge considered the range of powers available to the court under the 1989 Act and complained that the form of the local authority’s application did not give the court power to make a supervision order. He referred to the fact that the circuit judge to whom the case had initially been remitted had asked the local authority to consider this and had then referred the matter to the local authority under the provisions of s 37 of the 1989 Act. The judge said in his judgment on 8 May:
‘I made it perfectly plain when speaking to the manager of social services that I felt it [the supervision order] would give me teeth and powers that I did not have without their application but the local authority refused to give me the opportunity to exercise any of the powers which are ancillary to a supervision order. I respect their point of view that they do not seek to remove K and E from their home not least because they could not control them if they were to take them into care. I wholly understand that dilemma. But why the local authority have concluded that a supervision order would not give the court any useful powers that it would not otherwise have, I simply do not know.’
At that stage the judge adjourned the case for a period whilst the father went for assessment to the Gracewell Clinic, a well-recognised institution which specialises in the treatment of sexual offenders. When the matter came back before him on 27 October 1992 the judge said:
‘On 8 May 1992, after a hearing lasting several days, I adjourned the question as to whether or not a prohibited steps order should be made. I required further inquiries to be undertaken by all parties. The judgment I gave then was one which I contemplated should be released for publication, and which I now do release for publication, and a transcript of it is available.’
He briefly recited the facts and issues which were then before him. He recalled that he had found that there was a grave risk of harm to the youngest two girls who were still under the age of 17 and then said:
‘What made judgment in the case difficult at that stage was the evidence which satisfied me that there was a real risk that the girls would run away to the father, even if he were excluded from the home. Faced with the difficult balancing exercise between protecting the children and keeping the family together in order to heal them, I concluded that there was a sufficiently real chance the family might be ready to respond to treatment, and so I adjourned the matter for that to be investigated. I should add that I was critical of the local authority for their failure to accept Judge Heald’s invitation, and my invitation, to invoke the powers they have under Pt IV of the 1989 Act to apply for a care order or a supervision order.’
On 27 October the judge had before him a report from the Gracewell Clinic and in addition he heard the oral evidence of a Mrs Still from the clinic. The conclusions of the Gracewell Clinic were:
‘Father has worked hard in the Gracewell assessment programme. He has begun to share openly and own up to the fact that he is a sex offender with a repetitive cycle of offending that has been active for many years. He has
Page 820 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
identified two kinds of cycle, one relating to children “close to home” and one to children whom he knows less well but whom he can target through the parents. His cycle pattern is that of an anger rapist.’
The conclusion was that the clinic believed that he had worked well at Gracewell and that he had the capacity to respond to treatment and they were prepared to offer him a place subject to bed availability for a period of 12 months. However, the county council was not able to fund such a placement and so this was not an option available to the judge, for he had no power to compel the local authority to provide such a programme of treatment for the father.
The judge continued:
‘I am invited by the local authority to exercise my power only to make a prohibited steps order. With shame I confess it partly my failure that no thought was given in May as to whether or not the local authority could apply for such an order. Perhaps the lectures on the Children Act 1989 I have given and attended have so whet my appetite for the delights of the flexible range of practical remedies in the s 8 “menu”, that I totally forgot to ask myself whether it was right for me even to accept this invitation to dine at the private law table. Having given thought to this last night I asked counsel to address me for the first time on the local authority’s power to apply for a prohibited steps order which as drafted by counsel for the local authority would be an order that the father do leave the household at whatever its address may be, that he do not return to it, and that he has no contact with the children except as may be approved and supervised by the local authority. On looking more closely into the application, I have observed that what was sought when the matter came before the justices was leave to apply for the prohibited steps order, that leave being granted by a single justice. The application was for the court to order that the father should not reside in the same household as the daughters, should not have any contact with them unless they themselves wished to have contact with him, and any such contact be supervised by the Social Services Department, such contact to be negotiated between the parents and the children. A condition was to be that the mother should not knowingly place the girls in a position where they came into contact with or resided with the father. The local authority’s plans set out in the box provided by the forms are that the girls should reside with their mother and that the mother should receive appropriate help and resources from the Social Services Department and other appropriate agencies regarding sexual abuse. The children should only have contact with the father at their request and under supervision. That is the way the case was put. The proceedings had in fact begun with the local authority seeking emergency protection orders, and obtaining them, and therefore satisfying the test of significant harm which is common to those applications as to care and supervision applications. What has troubled me overnight is the effect of s 9(2) and (5) of the Act. They provide: “(2) No application may be made by a local authority for a residence order or contact order and no court shall make such an order in favour of a local authority ... (5) No court should exercise its powers to make a specific issue order or prohibited steps order—(a) with a view to achieving a result which could be achieved by making a residence or contact order ...” ’
One is thus required to analyse precisely what a prohibited steps order is.’
Page 821 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
The judge said that he was also required to construe ‘residence orders’ and ‘contact orders’. He referred to the definitions of ‘residence order’ and ‘contact order’ in s 8 of the 1989 Act and continued:
‘If a prohibited steps order is sought it seems to me that the court is bound to enquire for the purpose of s 9(5) into the purpose for which that order is sought. Is it sought to be applied for and made with a view to achieving a result which could be achieved by making a residence or contact order? Counsel has manfully and capably had to answer that under the difficulty of my confronting him with my anxieties when he arrived here ready to do no more than note my judgment, and I am sympathetic to his predicament. I would have wished myself to have further time and further consideration before resolving these questions, but since K made an attempt on her life over the weekend I do not have time to delay. In my judgment an application which seeks to regulate who shall live in the household and who therefore shall be charged with the responsibility of making arrangements for the day-to-day care of the child is something which can be achieved by a residence order. I would on an application for a residence order settle the arrangements to be made as to the person with whom the child is to live. I would be stipulating that the child is to live with the mother and that the child is not to live with the father. It is even more starkly apparent when I consider the relief counsel seeks in respect of regulating contact, namely that there should be no contact except such as the local authority approve. That in my judgment is a matter which is capable of being achieved by the making of a contact order, and I do not accept his submission that where no contact is being allowed that is not a contact order. If a mother successfully sought to prevent any contact being had with father, the order would be that no contact shall be had. That must in my judgment be a contact order. That is the effect of what the local authority seek to achieve.’
Later in his judgment he said:
‘Section 9(2) clearly prevents the court from permitting a local authority to seek residence orders or contact orders. Section 9(5) must be read to prevent their achieving that result through the back door. Parliament has, in my judgment, intended that restriction upon the local authority’s right of access to the court because Parliament has expressly provided a door which can be opened only by the local authority, namely the door given by s 31. I have railed against the inability of the court in this case to do what I would wish to do because the local authority have refused, notwithstanding the s 37 reference, to apply under s 31. In my judgment Parliament by this Act clearly determined that the sanctity of the family should be preserved and protected. It is an expression of the underlying purpose of this Act that organs of the state, be they the local authority or the courts, shall not interfere with the independence and integrity of the family save in limited circumstances. Those limited circumstances which justify the intervention by the local authority are the circumstances where there is or there is a fear of significant harm being occasioned to the children. The whole tenor of Pts IV and V of the 1989 Act is that the local authority may not intervene in family life unless and until that threshold has been crossed. It is only when significant harm is established that the local authority can seek to interfere with where the child is to live and with whom the child is to have contact. The means by which they can seek the right so to interfere is by means of the public law remedies of care and supervision orders provided by Pt IV. The private law remedies
Page 822 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
of residence and contact orders are not for them. In this case they have steadfastly refused every blandishment Judge Heald and I could conjure up under s 37 to persuade them to seek their proper remedy. There clearly is another need of access to the courts to be available to the local authority to regulate other possible issues that may arise in connection with a child, such as medical issues. Clearly a medical issue could be brought either under the guise of prohibited steps or, more likely, under the guise of specific issues. The local authority are free to apply in that respect but in my judgment I have no power to accede to their application to make the prohibited steps order they seek here, and I decline to do so. This judgment will have wide ranging effects, and I am conscious of them, and would have wished more time fully to have considered them. There are wide implications to this refusal by me to countenance this approach of the local authority. It is a fact, I am informed by Mr Elvidge [counsel for the local authority] and a fact I know from my position as the liaison judge on the Midland and Oxford Circuit, that many local authorities up and down the country are seeking to use the powers under s 8 rather than invoking care and supervision jurisdiction. Their attempts are laudable, for it is clear to me at least that a climate of co-operation and of partnership is more easily able to exist if the menu of practical solutions is offered to the unhappy parents rather than that the emotive matters of care and supervision are imposed upon them. I regret having to close the door on an avenue that may be productive of good case management, but I fear I am driven into that corner.’
A little later in his judgment the judge said:
‘There is moreover another matter of concern. Applications for leave to proceed under s 8 will not be specified proceedings as defined in s 41 of the Act. Accordingly, there is no duty on the court to appoint a guardian ad litem. There is of course a duty to appoint a guardian in proceedings for a care order or the supervision order. There would be, I am informed by Mrs Doughty [counsel for the guardian] and accept, no ability for a guardian from the panel to assist the court otherwise than as an expert after persuading the Legal Aid Board that the guardian’s fees are a legitimate disbursement. The Legal Aid Board, I am told, are most unhappy thus to regard the intervention by the guardian ad litem. Consequently, the court will be denied the assistance of guardians in a wide variety of cases which, as here, do have elements of children being at risk of substantial harm. For the children’s voice not to be heard is to deny the court hearing the most important voice in the case. That inclines me again to saying that care and supervision is the right way to proceed.’
Mr Karsten QC for the local authority submitted that the primary purpose of s 9(5) when read with s 9(2) is to prevent a child from being placed in care on ‘welfare’ grounds without the ‘significant harm’ test of s 31 having to be satisfied. He complained that the effect of the judge’s construction of s 9(5)(a) is to drive local authorities to apply for a care order under s 31 and that would oblige them to make what might well be in many cases an excessive intervention in the life of a family. He sought to equate a prohibited steps order with an ouster order. He claimed that an application for a prohibited steps order gives much clearer notice to the recipient that it is sought to oust him than does an application for a residence order. He sought support for his submission from pre-Children Act procedures. He claimed that previously a local authority could always apply for an injunction for the protection of children through the mechanism of applying
Page 823 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
for leave to intervene in subsisting matrimonial, custodial or wardship proceedings or indeed of instituting wardship proceedings itself. He said that a court had power to make an ouster order on such an application in the exercise of such jurisdiction. In this case he said the local authority had considered the whole position of this family and took the view that what was required was that the father should not live in the house with the children. The mother was weak and unable to prevent him from doing so and that accordingly a prohibited steps order would provide the necessary sanction.
Counsel for the mother, the father and the guardian ad litem all supported the judge’s ruling on the application of the local authority for a prohibited steps order. They all submitted that the application was misconceived and that leave to make the application should not have been granted particularly by means of an ex parte application to a single justice of a family proceedings court. Miss Judith Parker QC for the mother submitted that the structure and scheme of the 1989 Act made it clear that applications made by local authorities were governed principally by Pt IV of the Act under which local authorities might apply for care or supervision orders which gave them statutory responsibilities. Pt II of the Act principally concerned private law remedies and the remedies provided by s 8 were essentially private law remedies. Furthermore, local authorities were specifically prohibited from applying for residence and contact orders although they were not debarred with leave from seeking specific issue and prohibited steps orders. However, these were subject to the restrictions contained in s 9(5) of the Act. Miss Parker supported the judge’s decision that the application made in this instance by the local authority fell foul of the restrictions contained in s 9(5). It was an application which patently sought to determine the residence of the children and the degree of contact which the children might have with the father. Miss Parker also submitted that in any event a prohibited steps order could not in fact operate as an exclusion order or much less an order requiring a father to leave his home at the instance of a local authority. She drew to the attention of the court the report in Hansard (158 Official Report ( 6th series) col 1314) of 27 October 1989 with regard to a proposal to introduce a clause into the Children Bill during its passage through the House of Commons. Hansard records that a member sought to introduce a new cl 34 headed ‘Removal of adults’ and the clause as drafted provided:
(1) Where the court has made; (a) an emergency protection order; or (b) an interim care order; and it is satisfied that the child’s welfare would be satisfactorily safeguarded or promoted if a person who is resident in the child’s household were removed from that household the court may in addition:—(i) make an order (exclusion order) requiring that person to vacate that household; or (ii) accept an undertaking from that person that he shall vacate the household.
(2) For the purposes of the section the term “exclusion order” shall include the term “undertaking”.
(3) Where an exclusion order is made under this section the child shall not be removed from the household.
This clause was not passed and therefore was not incorporated in the Act which received the Royal Assent. It is suggested by Miss Parker that the local authority’s application erroneously assumes that such a power nevertheless exists.
Miss Parker also pointed out that when a care order is made under s 31 a local authority assumes parental responsibility and inter alia has power to place a child
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with its parent or parents under the provisions of s 23(5) of the 1989 Act and the Placement of Children with Parents etc Regulations 1991, SI 1991/893. In such circumstances the child need not be taken from her home and the local authority is afforded wide powers to supervise the placement. Furthermore, s 34 of the Act gives wide powers with regard to contact.
Section 31 gives power to the court to make a supervision order as an alternative to making a care order. Schedule 3 of the 1989 Act gives detailed powers to the supervisor to impose obligations and to give directions.
In this case it appears that from the time when the application first came before a circuit judge all the parties other than the local authority were willing to submit to the making of a supervision order under s 31. The court has been told by counsel appearing for the father that he was prepared to consent to a number of requirements being included in a supervision order.
Section 9(5) provides:
‘No court shall exercise its powers to make a specific issue order or prohibited steps order—(a) with a view to achieving a result which could be achieved by making a residence or contact order; or (b) in any way which is denied to the High Court (by section 100(2)) in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction with respect to children.’
In the view of this court the application for a prohibited steps order by this local authority was in reality being made with a view to achieving a result which could be achieved by making a residence or contact order. Section 9(2) specifically provides:
‘No application may be made by a local authority for a residence order or contact order and no court shall make such an order in favour of a local authority.’
The court is satisfied that the local authority was indeed seeking to enter by the ‘back door’ as it were. It agrees with Ward J that he had no power to make a prohibited steps order in this case.
Submissions were made to the court to the effect that a contact order in any event necessarily implied a positive order and that an order which merely provided for ‘no contact’ could not be construed as a contact order. There are certain passages in editorial comment which seem to support that view. We do not share it. We agree with the judge that the sensible and appropriate construction of the term ‘contact order’ includes a situation where a court is required to consider whether any contact should be provided for. An order that there shall be ‘no contact’ falls within the general concept of contact and common sense requires that it should be considered to fall within the definition of ‘contact order’ in s 8(1). We agree with the reasoning of Ward J and would therefore dismiss the appeal of the local authority against his refusal of its application for a prohibited steps order.
A wider question arises as to policy. We consider that this court should make it clear that the route chosen by the local authority in this case was wholly inappropriate. In cases where children are found to be at risk of suffering significant harm within the meaning of s 31 of the 1989 Act a clear duty arises on the part of local authorities to take steps to protect them. In such circumstances a local authority is required to assume responsibility and to intervene in the family arrangements in order to protect the child. Pt IV specifically provides them with wide powers and a wide discretion. As already pointed out the Act envisages that local authorities may place children with their parents even though they may have a care order under s 31.
Page 825 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
A supervision order may be viewed as being less draconian but it gives the local authority a wide discretion as to how to deal with children and with the family. A prohibited steps order would not afford the local authority any authority as to how it might deal with the children. There may be situations, for example where a child is accommodated by a local authority, where it would be appropriate to seek a prohibited steps order for some particular purpose. However, it could not in any circumstances be regarded as providing a substitute for an order under Pt IV of the 1989 Act. Furthermore, it is very doubtful indeed whether a prohibited steps order could in any circumstances be used to ‘oust’ a father from a matrimonial home. Although counsel had prepared detailed submissions upon this aspect of the matter it has not been necessary to consider the point in order to resolve this appeal. It is a most regrettable feature of this case that the local authority having initially intervened under Pt V of the 1989 Act in order to obtain an emergency protection order did not then proceed to seek orders under s 31 in Pt IV of the Act. This is even more regrettable after Judge Heald had directed the local authority to consider the position pursuant to a direction under s 37 of the Act. In the trial papers there appears what is headed:
‘The Report of Nottinghamshire County Council Re: Section 37 Direction Nottinghamshire County Council and P and P. [It then states:] At a hearing before His Honour Judge Heald on 2nd March 1992, a Section 37 Direction was issued to the Local Authority. The Local Authority has since reconsidered the case and the merits of making an application under Section 37. The Local Authority does not feel it appropriate to make an application for a Care or Supervision Order as it does not believe those Orders would be effective in the protection of these children. The Local Authority has decided to continue with the application for a Prohibited Steps Order in relation to the father of K and E and would intend to offer appropriate support, services, and assistance, in the light of that Order being made or any other such Order being made. The Local Authority will review this case following the Court Proceedings on 9th and 10th April 1992.
[Signed] Peter McEntee Area Director, North Area. Social Services Director.’
That clearly is not a satisfactory answer to a s 37 direction and we agree with the judge that he was left in an intolerable situation. This local authority persistently and obstinately refused to undertake what was the appropriate course of action and it thereby deprived the judge of the ability to make a constructive order. We wish to add that it was wholly inappropriate in the first place for the local authority to apply for leave to issue an application for a prohibited steps order ex parte before a single justice of a family proceedings court. If the matter had been referred at the earliest opportunity to the county court it is likely that the application would have been refused. In our view this should have happened. In future any such application if made to a family proceedings court should be transferred to the county court.
Furthermore, no such application should be dealt with ‘ex parte’. An immediate and obvious deficiency in attempting to initiate such a procedure is that there is no power under the private law provisions of the 1989 Act for the court to appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the interests of the children. It is to be hoped that a serious lesson will have been learned as a result of these proceedings and that local authorities will recognise that where children are believed to be at risk of suffering significant harm, their appropriate avenue is via Pt IV of the 1989 Act which is specifically designed to accommodate public law applications.
Page 826 of [1993] 3 All ER 815
Having refused the application for a prohibited steps order the judge was left with what he described as a ‘dilemma’. He said: ‘What on earth do I do? I cannot act upon the local authority’s application.’
He then referred to the fact that technically there was still before the court an application by the father for a residence order. He said:
‘Fortunately I have the residual power under s 10(1), in family proceedings in which a question arises with respect to the welfare of the child, to make a s 8 order if the court considers that the order should be made, even though no application has been made before it, and I would have to exercise my powers accordingly. Whether or not it is an abuse of the process of the court for the local authority to apply knowing they cannot get the relief and then forcing the judge to act under s 10(1) is another matter. I need not castigate this local authority in that way, for I have the father’s application for a residence order in any event, and I can adjudicate upon that as well as exercise the wide power of s 10(1).’
He continued:
‘For me to do nothing is an abdication of my responsibility and my duty to act, and I can only do the best in pretty poor circumstances. In my judgment the risk of abuse to K and to L is, in the light of the report from Gracewell, so real and so great that it would be irresponsible for me to ignore it without the assurance that the father would voluntarily remove himself to the Gracewell. I must therefore proceed upon the basis that the help the family need and, as I find, the help which they wish to have, is now denied to them by the decision of the local authority. If I cannot protect these children in the future by arranging a course of treatment which will cure their father from his abusing tendencies then I am left with no option but for their protection to ensure that they live in their mother’s home, that there be a residence order to the mother, a condition of which shall be that the father shall not reside in that home with her. I appreciate that my judgment on the meaning of s 9(5)(a) may have given an impression that no prohibited steps order should be made where a contact order is made, but I seek to achieve a result which cannot be entirely met by the making of a residence order alone, and I wish some added teeth to be given to it, and I shall direct therefore that the arrangements to be made as to the person with whom the child is to live shall be as follows. The children, K and E, shall live with their mother at the address which is their home, which will be specified in the order. It is a condition that the father shall not enter nor attempt to enter that property. That order must of course be served upon him, and it shall be indorsed, if it is necessary for it to be indorsed, with a penal notice that his breach shall be treated as a contempt rendering him liable to be sent to prison for his breach of it. I shall direct that he is to have no contact whatsoever with either K or E save as may be affected under the supervision of the applicant local authority. I make that order under loud protest. I make that order loudly protesting that I regard it as most unfortunate that this court should be required in open court to complain that a lack of resources apparently prevents a local authority protecting the children in its area who are in need.’
The order which was drawn up before the court recites:
‘On hearing Counsel for the applicants, Counsel for the First Respondent [the mother] Counsel for the Second Respondent [the father] and the solicitor for the Guardian ad litem upon the applicant’s application for a
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Prohibited Steps Order and upon the Second Respondent’s application for a Residence Order. 2. The Court orders that the children [E and K] shall live with the First Respondent on condition that the Second Respondent shall not live with the family at the property situate at ... or any other address that the family may reside. The Second Respondent to leave the property by noon on Friday 30th October 1992. 3. This Order has not been made ex parte. 4. The Court also orders that: (i) The Second Respondent shall not have contact with the said children save such contact that shall be supervised by the Applicant’s Social Services Department until further Order; (ii) There be a transcript of the Judgment herein at public expense to be placed on the Court file and copies provided to the parties; (iii) There be leave to disclose the transcript of the Judgment herein to the Criminal Compensation Board in respect of the child [M]; (iv) The matter to be reserved to Mr Justice Ward; (v) There be no order as to costs save the costs of the First and Second Respondents and costs of the Guardian ad litem be taxed in accordance with the provisions of The Legal Aid Act 1988.’
In the trial papers there appears an order made ‘further to the order made of even date’. It is stated by para 2 to be addressed to the second respondent (the father) who is named and then appear these words: ‘if you do not obey this Order you will be guilty of contempt of Court and you may be sent to prison.’
On 27 October 1992 the court considered an application for an injunction in the following terms:
‘... 3 The Court orders that the second defendant i Shall vacate the property situate at ... by noon on Friday 30th October 1992; ii Shall not enter or attempt to enter the said property thereafter; iii Shall not have contact with the said children save for contact that shall be supervised by the applicant’s Social Services Department until further order. iv This Order shall remain in force until further order of the court.’
The judge stated that he made those orders under protest. The mother, the father and the children by their guardian ad litem all appeal against the making of those orders. Although the mother desires that the children shall reside with her she did not seek a residence order and is not disposed to accept the conditions which the judge purported to impose as an adjunct to the residence order. Counsel for each of these parties submits that the order was in terms a ‘device’. The father’s application had lain dormant, apparently forgotten, as the judge observed, by everybody during the proceedings in May and again in October. The father had not pursued his application for a residence order at any stage of the proceedings before the judge. The judge purported to act in reliance upon the powers contained in s 10(1) of the Act and of the power to attach conditions to a residence order under s 11(7). However these are also provisions falling within the private law section of Pt II of the Act. The complaint is made by counsel for the mother and adopted by counsel for each of the other parties that the judge was in effect seeking to make an order in favour of the local authority for although it was not stated to be directed to the local authority it expressly sought to place upon it the duty of regulating and supervising contact. Furthermore, the order as drawn up assumed the nature of an injunction directed to the father to which was attached a penal notice. The question immediately arises as to who might seek to enforce the conditions which the judge attached to the order. It was not on the face of it an order made in favour of the local authority which in any event was prohibited by s 9(2) from making an application for a residence order or contact order. Furthermore, the court was precluded by the same section
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from making such an order in favour of a local authority. The local authority accordingly acquired no powers or responsibility as a result. The mother was not a willing party to the grant of an injunction against the father whom she did not wish to exclude from the matrimonial home.
Miss Parker furthermore raised the question as to what might happen if the mother were to apply to discharge the orders with the consent of the children. These considerations demonstrate the artificiality of the course which was adopted by the judge. I have no doubt that the judge would not disagree that it was an artificial course which he adopted. He said in terms that he was driven to take some step in order to protect the children.
In our judgment these orders cannot stand. Even if the judge had a theoretical power to assume authority by reason of s 10 of the 1989 Act the orders were plainly not appropriate even in the unhappy circumstances of this case. In the result the appeals against these orders must be allowed.
In the result there are now no orders in force which are capable of regulating and safeguarding the position of these children. In point of fact the elder has now reached the age of 16 but the younger is now still only 13 years of age. The situation remains that they are at risk and the local authority is under a statutory obligation to take steps to protect them and to seek to ensure their welfare. The court has been told that as a result of action taken by the regional health authority prompted by the judge, the father did in fact go to the Gracewell Clinic following the proceedings before Ward J. However the court has also now been told by his counsel that he has since left the clinic. The court has not been told the circumstances under which that occurred. Since the fact of the risk of significant harm to the children has been established and not contradicted there remains upon the local authority the clear duty to take steps to safeguard the welfare of these children. It should not shrink from taking steps under Pt IV of the Act. It appears from submissions made by all counsel in this court that the mother, the father and the children by their guardian ad litem would not resist the making of a supervision order in favour of the local authority pursuant to s 31 of the Act. That at least would afford a basis for the local authority to take some constructive steps in order to protect these children.
This court is deeply concerned at the absence of any power to direct this authority to take steps to protect the children. In the former wardship jurisdiction it might well have been able to do so. The operation of the 1989 Act is entirely dependent upon the full co-operation of all those involved. This includes the courts, the local authorities and the social workers and all who have to deal with children. Unfortunately as appears from this case if a local authority doggedly resists taking the steps which are appropriate to the case of children at risk of suffering significant harm it appears that the court is powerless. The authority may perhaps lay itself open to an application for judicial review but in a case such as this the question arises at whose instance? The position is one which it is to be hoped will not recur and that lessons will be learnt from this unhappy catalogue of errors.
For the reasons set out in this judgment, the court dismisses the appeal of the local authority and allows the appeals of the other appellants.
Order accordingly.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
Re Portbase Clothing Ltd
[1993] 3 All ER 829
Categories: COMPANY; Charges, Insolvency
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): CHADWICK J
Hearing Date(s): 28, 29 OCTOBER, 15 DECEMBER 1992
Company – Charge – Charge over book and other debts of company – Charge permitting company to realise debts of company in ordinary course of business – Whether fixed or floating charge.
Company – Winding up – Distribution of company’s property – Charges over company’s property – Deed of priority postponing fixed charge in priority to floating charge – Whether preferential creditors to be paid in priority to fixed and floating chargeholders – Insolvency Act 1986, s 175(2)(b).
Company – Winding up – Priority of expenses of liquidation – Whether winding-up expenses to be paid in priority to preferential creditors and floating chargeholder – Whether company assets including property subject to charge created as floating charge – Insolvency Act 1986, ss 115, 175 – Insolvency Rules 1986, r 4.218.
A company created three charges over its property, namely (a) a fixed and floating charge in favour of its bank in June 1988, (b) a floating charge in favour of two directors in April 1989 and (c) a fixed and floating charge in favour of trustees of a pension fund in January 1991. A deed of priority was entered into between the chargees postponing the first two charges in priority to the third charge. The company went into liquidation with insufficient assets to meet the claims of all of its creditors. The liquidator sought the determination of the questions (i) whether the claims of the preferential creditors to be paid out of book and other debts of the company had priority to the claim of the trustees of the pension fund, and (ii) if so, whether the costs and expenses of the winding up were payable in priority to the claims of the preferential creditors.
Held – (1) The trustees’ charge created a floating charge over book and other debts of the company since at the time the charge was created the company’s account with the bank was substantially overdrawn, the charge contained no provision restricting the use which the company might make of any balance to the credit of its account with the bank and the purpose of the loan secured by the trustees’ charge was to enable the company to continue trading. Further, under cl 4.2.4 of the trustees’ charge the trustees’ consent was not required to enable the company to operate its bank account in the ordinary course of business as that clause permitted the company to get in and realise the debts in the ordinary course of its business, which necessarily included payment of the proceeds of the debts into the company’s bank account (see p 834 c to f, post); Re Brightlife Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 673 applied.
(2) The deed of priority made the bank’s charge subject to the trustees’ charge. It was possible for a prior fixed chargeholder to agree with a subsequent floating chargeholder that the floating charge would have priority over the fixed charge so that, in the event of the liquidation of the company, the floating chargeholder was subrogated to the rights of the fixed chargeholder, being in effect a transfer or assignment of rights between the parties. However, the deed of priority had merely changed the order in which payment was to be made to the creditors and had not transferred or assigned any rights between the parties. It followed that
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the trustees collected the proceeds of the company’s assets by virtue of their floating charge, not by virtue of the bank’s fixed charge, and the bank was not entitled to payment out of the proceeds until the debt secured by the floating charge had been satisfied. Even assuming that the bank had a fixed charge, it followed pursuant to s 175(2)(b)a of the Insolvency Act 1986, which provided that preferential debts had priority over floating but not fixed charges, that the preferential creditors had priority over the claims of the trustees in respect of the book and other debts (see p 843 a to g and p 844 b c e to p 845 b, post); Re Camden Brewery Ltd, Forder v The Company (1911) 106 LT 598n and Re Robert Stephenson & Co Ltd, Poole v The Company (1912) 106 LT 595 applied; Waters v Widdows [1984] VR 503 adopted; Re Woodroffes (Musical Instruments) Ltd (in liq) [1985] 2 All ER 908 not followed.
(3) It was clear from ss 115b and 175(2)(b) of the Insolvency Act 1986 and r 4.218 of the Insolvency Rules 1986 that the expenses of the liquidation were payable out of the company assets in priority to all other claims. For the purposes of s 175 ‘company assets’ included property subject to a charge which as created was a floating charge. Accordingly, the expenses of the liquidation were payable in priority to the claims of preferential creditors and floating chargeholders (see p 845 c to p 846 b, post); Re Barleycorn Enterprises Ltd, Mathias & Davies (a firm) v Down (liquidator of Barleycorn Enterprises Ltd) [1970] 2 All ER 155 considered; Re Christonette International Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 225 not followed.
NotesFor priority of debts on the winding up of a company, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1759–1770, and for cases on preferential debts, see 10(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 70–77, 10057–10114.
For priority of debenture holders, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1112, and for cases on the subject, see 10(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 135–141, 7367–7398.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, ss 115, 175, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn reissue) 797, 840.
For the Insolvency Rules 1986, r 218, see 3 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1991 reissue) 359.
Cases referred to in judgmentBarleycorn Enterprises Ltd, Re, Mathias & Davies (a firm) v Down (liquidator of Barleycorn Enterprises Ltd) [1970] 2 All ER 155, [1970] Ch 465, [1970] 2 WLR 898, CA.
Brightlife Ltd, Re [1986] 3 All ER 673, [1987] Ch 200, [1987] 2 WLR 197.
Camden Brewery Ltd, Re, Forder v The Company (1911) 106 LT 598n, CA.
Cheah v Equiticorp Finance Group Ltd [1991] 4 All ER 989, [1992] 1 AC 472, [1992] 2 WLR 108, PC.
Christonette International Ltd, Re [1982] 3 All ER 225, [1982] 1 WLR 1245.
Company, Re a (No 005009 of 1987), ex p Copp [1989] BCLC 13.
Fablehill Ltd, Re [1991] BCLC 830.
Griffin Hotel Co Ltd, Re, Joshua Tetley & Son Ltd v Griffin Hotel Co Ltd and John Lupton & Son Ltd [1940] 4 All ER 324, [1941] Ch 129.
Page 831 of [1993] 3 All ER 829
Lewis Merthyr Consolidated Collieries Ltd, Re, Lloyds Bank Ltd v The Company [1929] 1 Ch 498, Ch D and CA.
Siebe Gorman & Co Ltd v Barclays Bank Ltd [1979] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 142.
Stein v Saywell (1969) 121 CLR 529, 43 ALJR 183, Aust HC.
Stephenson (Robert) & Co Ltd, Re, Poole v The Company [1913] 2 Ch 201, CA; affg (1912) 106 LT 595.
Waters v Widdows [1984] VR 503, Vict SC.
Woodroffes (Musical Instruments) Ltd (in liq), Re [1985] 2 All ER 908, [1986] Ch 366, [1985] 3 WLR 543.
Cases also citedAidall Ltd, Re [1933] 3 Ch 323, [1932] All ER Rep 296, CA.
Armagh Shoes Ltd, Re [1984] BCLC 405.
Bacon (MC) Ltd, Re [1991] Ch 127.
Barclays Bank Ltd v Willowbrook Ltd [1987] BCLC 717, CA.
Benham v Keane (1861) 31 LJ Ch 129, 45 ER 901, LJJ.
Comr (Deputy) of Taxation v Horsburgh [1984] VR 773, Vict SC.
Diplock’s Estate, Re, Diplock v Wintle [1948] 2 All ER 318, [1948] Ch 465, CA; affd sub nom Ministry of Health v Simpson [1950] 2 All ER 1137, [1951] AC 251, HL.
Fairway Magazines Ltd, Re, Fairbairn v Hartigan [1993] BCLC 643.
Glyncorrwg Colliery Co Ltd, Re, Railway Debenture and General Trust Co Ltd v The Company [1926] Ch 951, [1926] All ER Rep 318.
Illingworth v Houldsworth [1904] AC 355, HL; affg sub nom Re Yorkshire Woolcombers Association Ltd, Houldsworth v Yorkshire Woolcombers Association Ltd [1903] 2 Ch 284, CA.
IRC v Goldblatt [1972] 2 All ER 202, [1972] Ch 498.
Kammins Ballrooms Co Ltd v Zenith Investments (Torquay) Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 871, [1971] AC 850, HL.
Keenan Bros Ltd, Re [1986] BCLC 242, Ir SC.
Northern Bank Ltd v Ross [1991] BCLC 504, NI CA.
Orakpo v Manson Investments Ltd [1977] 3 All ER 1, [1978] AC 95, HL.
Permanent Houses (Holdings) Ltd, Re [1988] BCLC 563.
Peyman v Lanjani [1984] 3 All ER 703, [1985] Ch 457, CA.
Westminster City Council v Haste [1950] 2 All ER 65, [1950] Ch 442.
Woods v Winskill [1913] 2 Ch 303, [1911–13] All ER Rep 318.
Wyatt, Re, White v Ellis [1892] 1 Ch 188, CA; affd sub nom Ward v Duncombe [1893] AC 369, HL.
SummonsThe applicant, David Emanuel Merton Mond, the liquidator of Portbase Clothing Ltd (the company), applied pursuant to s 112 of the Insolvency Act 1986, seeking the determination by the court of, inter alia, the following questions: (a) whether the company, by the trustees’ debenture, created a fixed or floating charge on (i) its book debts and/or on (ii) its other monetary debts and claims (collectively book and other debts); (b) in the event that the trustees’ debenture created a floating charge only on the book and other debts (i) whether the claims of the preferential creditors of the company as defined by s 386 of the Insolvency Act 1986 to be paid out of the proceeds of the realised book and other debts had priority over the claims thereto of the trustees and/or the receiver pursuant to the terms of the trustees’ debenture, and in that event, (ii) whether the costs and expenses of the winding up of the company must be paid out of the proceeds of the realised book and other debts in priority to the claims of the preferential creditors. The respondents were William Thomas Taylor, Maureen Taylor (two
Page 832 of [1993] 3 All ER 829
directors of the company), the other trustees of the pension scheme, and the receiver appointed by the trustees under their debenture. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Simon Mortimore QC and Lexa Hilliard (instructed by Halliwell Landau) for the liquidator.
David Halpern (instructed by Baker & McKenzie) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
15 December 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
CHADWICK J. Portbase Clothing Ltd (the company) is incorporated under the Companies Act 1985. On 9 May 1991 it was resolved that the company be placed into creditors’ voluntary liquidation. This application has been brought by the liquidator for the purpose of having questions which arise in the winding up of the company determined by the court pursuant to s 112 of the Insolvency Act 1986.
The questions for determination arise in the following circumstances. On 21 June 1988 the company, by way of debenture, created fixed and floating charges over all its property in favour of Lloyds Bank plc (the bank) as security for all moneys and liabilities then or at any time thereafter owing by the company to the bank. On 19 April 1989, the company granted a second debenture, secured by a floating charge, in respect of an advance of £82,787 made to it by its directors, William Thomas Taylor and Maureen Taylor.
On 16 January 1991 the company’s indebtedness to the bank amounted to some £350,000. The company obtained a loan of £200,000 from the trustees of the Morrison Fashions Ltd pension scheme for the purpose of reducing its debt to the bank. Morrison Fashions Ltd was the company’s immediate parent; and the trustees of the pension scheme included Mr and Mrs Taylor. On the same day, 16 January 1991, the company executed two documents: (i) a third debenture in favour of the trustees for the purpose of securing the £200,000 loan and (ii) a deed of priority. The other parties to the deed of priority were the bank, Mr and Mrs Taylor as holders of the second debenture and the trustees.
The purpose of the deed of priority was to postpone the bank’s debenture of 21 June 1988 and the Taylors’ debenture of 18 April 1989 to the new debenture created that day in favour of the trustees. The trustees’ debenture contained fixed and floating charges over all the company’s property in substantially the same terms as those in the bank’s debenture.
The company ceased to trade at or about the beginning of March 1991. On 13 March 1991 the bank closed the company’s trading account and opened a No 2 account in the company’s name for the purpose of collecting book and other debts. The total of the payments into that account has been £53,692: £19,252 of that sum represented money collected since the commencement of the liquidation on 9 May 1991.
On 8 August 1991 the bank accounted to the liquidator for the moneys collected since the commencement of the liquidation. On 25 September 1991 the trustees appointed a receiver under the powers contained in the trustees’ debenture. On 30 September 1991 the bank accounted to the receiver for the balance in the company’s No 2 account (£34,440) representing moneys collected prior to the commencement of the liquidation.
The liquidator has himself collected further book debts, amounting to £31,815, and made other realisations amounting together to £12,371. Taken together, and
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excluding interest, the proceeds received from the realisation of the company’s assets in the liquidation and the receivership amount to £97,848.
The liabilities of the company include £39,500 or thereabouts due to the Inland Revenue and to the Customs and Excise as preferential creditors. The liquidator has incurred substantial expenses in the liquidation, including expenses in relation to this application. The payment of liquidation expenses and preferential creditors in priority to the claims of the secured creditors—and, in particular, in priority to the claims of the trustees who themselves have priority over the other secured creditors by virtue of the deed of priority—will leave little, if any, surplus. On the other hand, if the liquidation expenses and the preferential creditors do not rank ahead of the trustees, there will be insufficient to cover the liquidator’s expenses and nothing for the preferential creditors. Whatever the position as between the trustees, the liquidator and the preferential creditors, there is no prospect of any payment to meet the secured claims of the bank (£154,000 and interest) and the directors under their debenture (£82,787 and interest) or the claims of the other unsecured creditors, shown as £129,638 in the directors’ statement of affairs.
It is in these circumstances that the liquidator has made the present application. The respondents to that application are Mr and Mrs Taylor, the other pension scheme trustees, and the receiver appointed by the trustees under their debenture. Following amendment and re-amendment, the substantive relief now sought by that application is the determination by the court of the following questions:
‘(1)(a) … whether the Company, by the [trustees’] Debenture … created a fixed or floating charge on (a) its book debts … and/or on (b) its other monetary debts and claims [collectively book and other debts]; (b) in the event that the Trustees’ Debenture created a floating charge on the Book and Other Debts. (i) whether the claims of the preferential creditors of the Company, as defined by section 386 of the Insolvency Act 1986, to be paid out of the proceeds of the realised Book and Other Debts have priority over the claims thereto of the Trustees and/or the … Receiver … pursuant to the terms of the Trustees’ Debenture; and in that event; (ii) whether the costs and expenses of the winding up of the Company must be paid out of the proceeds of the realised Book and Other Debts in priority … to the claims of the preferential creditors …’
The first of those questions—whether the trustees’ debenture created a fixed or a floating charge over book and other debts—has not been argued before me. Mr Halpern, who appeared for the first, second and fifth respondents, accepted, in my view quite properly, that, on the present state of the authorities, I would be unlikely to hold that the trustees’ debenture created a fixed charge over book and other debts.
The difficulty, which Mr Halpern recognised, may be explained shortly. The property charged by the trustees’ debenture includes:
‘Secondly: All book debts both present and future due or owing to the Company. Thirdly: All other monetary debts and claims … both present and future (including things in action which give rise or may give rise to a debt or debts) due or owing to the Company’
The final paragraph in the charging clause is in these terms, so far as material:
‘The charges hereby created … as regards all Charged Property Secondly and Thirdly described shall constitute first fixed mortgages by assignment
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subject to re-assignment on redemption and as to the Charged Property Sixthly described shall be a floating charge.’
The property ‘Sixthly described’ is described in these terms:
‘Sixthly: The undertaking and all property and assets of the Company both present and future including … the Charged Property First Secondly Thirdly Fourthly and Fifthly described (if and in so far as the charges thereon or any part or parts thereof herein contained shall for any reason be ineffective as fixed charges).’
Clause 4.2.4 of the trustees’ debenture seeks to prevent the company from dealing with its book or other debts without the prior consent of the trustees ‘except by getting in and realising them in the ordinary and proper course of its business’. That would, as it seems to me, necessarily include the payment of the proceeds of those book and other debts into the company’s bank account. At the time when the debenture was granted the company’s account with the bank was substantially overdrawn. Contemporary correspondence suggests that all those concerned—the trustees, the company and the bank—expected that situation to continue during the term of the loan which the trustees’ debenture was intended to secure. In any event, the trustees’ debenture contains no provision restricting the use which the company might make of any balance which might from time to time stand to the credit of its account with the bank. The purpose of the loan was to enable the company to continue trading. It could not sensibly have been contemplated that the trustees’ consent would be required to the operation of the company’s bank account in the ordinary course of business.
In these circumstances, to hold that the trustees’ debenture succeeded in creating a fixed security over the book and other debts, I would have to be satisfied that the reasoning set out in the judgment of Hoffmann J in Re Brightlife Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 673 at 680–681, [1987] Ch 200 at 209–210 was plainly wrong. Mr Halpern appreciated, realistically, that he would be unlikely to discharge the burden. He expressly reserved the point for argument in an appellate court.
I approach the second question, therefore, on the basis that the trustees’ debenture created a floating charge, and not a fixed charge, on the company’s book and other debts. As I have already indicated, the charging provisions in the bank’s debenture were in substantially the same terms as those in the trustees’ debenture. In particular, the charging provisions in relation to book and other debts, which I have set out above, are in identical terms in the two debentures. Nevertheless, for reasons which require a short explanation, the second question was argued before me on the premise that the bank’s debenture did create a fixed charge over book and other debts.
The bank’s debenture contains, at cl 2(b)(i), a requirement that the company shall not without the consent in writing of the bank—
‘sell assign discount factor charge or otherwise dispose of the Charged Property Secondly or Thirdly described or any part thereof save in accordance with cl 9(d) hereof.’
Clause 9(d) required the company to—
‘pay into its account or accounts with the bank all monies which it may receive in respect of the book and other debts and claims mortgaged (by way of assignment) or charged by it.’
Comparable provisions in the Barclays Bank standard debenture, at cl 5(c), led Slade J in Siebe Gorman & Co Ltd v Barclays Bank Ltd [1979] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 142 at
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158–159 to the conclusion that that debenture had succeeded in creating a fixed charge over book debts. The point was considered and explained by Knox J in Re a Company (No 005009 of 1987), ex p Copp [1989] BCLC 13 at 23–25, see, in particular, at 25. In these circumstances I have thought it right to accept, for the purposes of deciding the second question raised by the liquidator’s summons, that the bank’s debenture did create a fixed charge over book and other debts. Mr Halpern, for the trustees, is not concerned to argue the contrary; indeed, his submissions in relation to the second question are necessarily based upon the premise that the bank’s charge is a fixed charge. The liquidator has not thought it necessary to argue against that premise in the interests of the preferential creditors. He may well have taken the view that I would regard myself as bound to follow the reasoning of Slade J in Siebe Gorman & Co Ltd v Barclays Bank Ltd [1979] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 142 and that the present case is not distinguishable from the Siebe Gorman case on the facts. I should, however, make it clear that, in deciding the second question on this basis, I should not be taken to have formed any view on arguments which might have been advanced by the preferential creditors, who have not been represented before me.
The rights of preferential creditors to have their debts paid in a liquidation or receivership in priority to the claims of debenture holders under a floating charge was introduced, almost one hundred years ago, by the Preferential Payments in Bankruptcy Amendment Act 1897, ss 2 and 3. The comparable provisions are now contained in, respectively, s 175 of the Insolvency Act 1986 and s 40 of that Act and s 196 of the Companies Act 1985. Section 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act is in these terms:
‘(2) Preferential debts … (b) so far as the assets of the company available for payment of general creditors are insufficient to meet them, have priority over the claims of holders of debentures secured by, or holders of, any floating charge created by the company, and shall be paid accordingly out of any property comprised in or subject to that charge.’
For the purpose of that subsection a preferential debt is a debt listed in Sch 6 of the 1986 Act (money owed to the Inland Revenue for income tax deducted at source; value added tax, car tax etc; social security and pension scheme contributions; remuneration etc of employees etc) (see s 386); and a floating charge means a charge which, as created, was a floating charge (see s 251). Section 40 of the 1986 Act applies where a receiver has been appointed on behalf of debenture holders secured by a charge which, as created, was a floating charge; but only if the company is not at the time in course of being wound up. Section 196 of the Companies Act 1985 applies where possession is taken by or on behalf of debenture holders of property which, as created, was a floating charge and the company is not at that time in the course of being wound up. In the present case the relevant provisions are those contained in s 175 of the 1986 Act.
It is clear that, in the present case, the assets of the company available for payment of general creditors are insufficient to meet the preferential debts. On the figures which I have set out earlier in this judgment there are no assets available for payment of general, meaning unsecured, creditors. It is also clear that, on the basis that the trustees’ debenture created a floating charge, and not a fixed charge, over the company’s book and other debts, the trustees are holders of a debenture secured by a floating charge. It is irrelevant, in that context, that the floating charge in the trustees’ debenture crystallised in or about March 1991, prior to liquidation. In those circumstances s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act requires, in terms, that the preferential debts have priority over the claims of the trustees
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and ‘shall be paid accordingly out of any property comprised in or subject to that charge’.
Nevertheless, but for the deed of priority in the present case, the book and other debts of the company would not be available to satisfy the preferential debts. That property would be taken out of s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act by the prior fixed charge in favour of the bank. That is because the property out of which the preferential debts are to be paid does not include property or assets which are never payable to the chargee (or any receiver for the chargee) as holder of the floating charge (see Re Lewis Merthyr Consolidated Collieries Ltd, Lloyds Bank Ltd v The Company [1929] 1 Ch 498 at 511 and 512 per Lord Hanworth MR and Lawrence LJ). The basis for that view is, I think, that where property is comprised in a prior fixed charge it is not that property, but only the equity of redemption in that property, that can be said to be comprised in or subject to the subsequent floating charge.
The first point which I have to decide, therefore, is the true effect of the deed of priority. The purpose of the deed, as appears from the recital, is to record an agreement as to ‘the respective priorities as from the date hereof of the original First and Second Debentures and the New First Debenture’. The ‘Original First and Second Debentures’ are, respectively, the bank’s debenture and the Taylors’ debenture and the ‘New First Debenture’ is the trustees’ debenture. The operative clauses are in these terms, so far as material:
‘1. The Original First Debenture Holder hereby agrees that the Original First Debenture shall be postponed to and rank in priority immediately after the New First Debenture to the limited extent of the Loan as therein defined.
2. [A similar provision in relation to the Original Second Debenture.]
3. All parties agree that the New First Debenture shall rank in priority to the Original First and Original Second Debentures to the limited extent of the Loan as defined on the New First Debenture.
4. The parties hereto agree that nothing herein contained shall as between the Company and the Original First Debenture Holder affect or prejudice any of the rights or remedies of the said Original First Debenture Holder which shall remain in full force subject only to the New First Debenture and postponement of the security of the Original First Debenture to the extent aforesaid shall be deemed to relate only to the monies secured by the New First Debenture and shall not in respect of any further monies advanced by the New First Debenture Holder to the Company be deemed to confer on them any like rights of priority over the Original First Debenture Holder.
5. [A similar provision in relation to the Original Second Debenture.]’
‘The Loan’ has the meaning given to that expression by cl 1.1 of the trustees’ debenture. It means the sum of £200,000 together with interest and the costs of perfecting or enforcing the trustees’ debenture. It is, I think, synonymous with the expression ‘the monies secured by the New First Debenture’ which is used in cl 4 of the deed of priority.
In considering the true effect of the deed of priority, it is, I think, helpful to keep in mind that both the bank’s debenture and the trustees’ debenture contained fixed charges as well as floating charges. The position immediately before the execution of the deed of priority, ignoring for the purpose of this analysis the floating charge to secure the Taylors’ debenture, was that, in relation to any asset subject to the fixed charges, the bank’s charge had priority over the trustees’ charge. There is no doubt that the bank and the trustees were entitled, by agreement between them, to alter the priorities of their respective charges (see Cheah v Equiticorp Finance Group Ltd [1991] 4 All ER 989, [1991] 1 AC 472). That is
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to say, the bank and the trustees were entitled to agree that the proceeds of realisation of any asset subject to both the fixed charges should be paid to the trustees rather than to the bank; and that the debt secured by the trustees’ charge (or some defined part of that debt) should be satisfied out of the proceeds of the charged asset before any part of those proceeds was applied towards the satisfaction of the debt secured by the bank’s charge. In my view, this is what they have done by the deed of priority. They have agreed that, instead of the proceeds of realisation of any charged asset being applied to the satisfaction of their respective secured debts in the order which would otherwise be determined by the terms of their charges and the dates upon which they were created, those proceeds should be applied first in payment of the money secured by the trustees’ debenture. The effect, therefore, is that the bank’s debenture has been made subject to the trustees’ debenture, as cl 4 of the deed itself records. It must follow, in my view that, in relation to the book and other debts, the fixed charge in the bank’s debenture became subject to the floating charge in the trustees’ debenture; as would have been the case if the bank’s debenture had been made at the same time as (or after), and had been expressed to be subject to, the trustees’ debenture.
On the basis that the effect of the deed of priority (as between the bank and the trustees) is that the bank’s debenture must be treated as if, when made, it had been expressed to be subject to the trustees’ debenture, the position is that, upon crystallisation of the floating charge in the trustees’ debenture, the book and other debts of the company must be applied in satisfaction of the debt secured by that charge before they can be applied in satisfaction of the bank’s debt (see Re Camden Brewery Ltd, Forder v The Company (1911) 106 LT 598n). Fletcher Moulton LJ explained the principles in these terms (at 599):
‘The language of the charging clause … states expressly that the charge created by the later deed comes after the charge created by the earlier deed. It follows, therefore, in my opinion, that the floating charge created by the earlier deed, which extends over the after-acquired properties, takes precedence as a charge over the specific mortgage of those properties created by the later deed. This creates a perfectly intelligible legal position, and there is no difficulty in deducing from it the rights of the respective parties. So long as the company is a going company and no default is made, the floating charges do not become affixed to any portion of the property of the company, and it can deal with any part of this property as it thinks best, subject, of course, to any specific mortgages which exist upon such part. If during this period any of these later acquired properties should be sold, the precedence would be effected by the specific mortgage given by the later deed, but not by either of the floating charges, but if a winding-up should take place so that both floating charges crystallise, the earlier floating charge would take effect on these after-acquired properties in priority to the specific mortgage given by the later deed.’
See also Re Robert Stephenson & Co Ltd, Poole v The Company (1912) 106 LT 595 at 597–598 per Parker J, and in the Court of Appeal [1913] 2 Ch 201 at 205 per Farwell LJ.
The liquidator submits that in such a case, that is to say in a case where a subsequent fixed charge is made subject to a prior floating charge, the effect of s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act is to give the preferential creditors priority over both the first and the second chargees. It was so held in the Supreme Court of Victoria by Nicholson J in Waters v Widdows [1984] VR 503. That was a decision on the provisions of s 331(1) of the Companies (Victoria) Code, provisions similar to
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those now found in s 40 of the Insolvency Act 1986 and s 196 of the Companies Act 1985, but the reasoning by which Nicholson J reached his conclusion would have applied with equal force to the provisions in s 446 of the Code, that is to say provisions applicable in a winding up which are in terms similar to those now in s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act. The judge explained the question, and his answer, in these terms (at 512–513):
‘The question is whether s. 331 [of the Code] operates to oblige the receivers to pay the employees in priority to the claims of the bank [the first chargee] pursuant to its floating charge and the claims of General Credits [the second chargee] pursuant to its charge having regard to the fact that the latter purports to have been a fixed charge from its inception. The section clearly has this effect in relation to the bank’s charge so again a strange result would enure if it does not have this effect in relation to the General Credits charge. In my view s. 331 on its proper construction has the effect of giving priority to the claims of the employee creditors.’
The judge reached his conclusion primarily on the basis that, upon its true construction, the relevant statutory provision contained a clear legislative direction to the receivers appointed by the bank to pay the preferred employee creditors in preference to the bank out of such of the property coming into their control or possession as was subject to the floating charge in favour of the bank (see at 514). But he had regard, also, to the policy which, in his view, lay behind provisions favouring preferential creditors at the expense of the holders of floating charges. He said (at 513–514):
‘In arriving at this conclusion I have also had regard to the various expressions of judicial view as to the policy behind the section in question. In Re Lewis Merthyr Consolidated Collieries Ltd., Tomlin J. said ([1929] 1 Ch 498 at 507): “I quite understand that in regard to a floating charge there may be a reason for giving the priority, because until the receiver is appointed or possession is taken, the charge does not crystallise, and it may well be said that this particular class of debts [referring to employees] which may perhaps have contributed to produce the very assets upon which the floating charge will crystallise, are proper to be paid out of those assets before the debenture holder takes his principal and interest out of them. That seems to me to be a perfectly intelligible reason for the legislation, and is in accord with the view which I take of the section.” Tomlin J.’s decision was confirmed on appeal: ([1929] 1 Ch 510). Similar expressions are to be found in the judgment of Barwick C.J. … in Stein v. Saywell ((1969) 43 ALJR 183) … His Honour said (at 188): “The policy behind s. 196 (of the New South Wales legislation, equivalent to s 40 in the United Kingdom Act of 1986) and s. 292(4) [which broadly corresponds to s. 446 of the Code] (equivalent to s 175(2)(b) in the United Kingdom Act) is, I think, quite plain. A creditor who accepts a floating charge over a company’s assets allows the business of the company to be carried on and the assets of the company which are subject to the floating charge to be altered, perhaps augmented, by the efforts of the company and its employees. The holder of the floating charge is not to be able to displace the priorities which the legislation accords to certain debts which accrue during the carrying on of the business; amongst those priorities is certain remuneration of employees of the company. The method of ensuring that the holder of such a charge does not compete with those creditors to whose debts priority of payment is given is best seen, I think, in s. 196 (of the New South Wales Code). Under that section, in the period prior
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to the actual commencement of the liquidation of a company, a receiver for the debenture holder with funds in hand which are the produce of the realization of the charge created initially as a floating charge is bound to pay out of those funds the debts of the preferred creditors.” In my view these policy considerations as expressed by Tomlin J. and Barwick C.J. have relevance to the present case. Although the General Credits security is expressed in the form of a fixed charge and indeed of a conveyance of legal and equitable estate, the fact that General Credits agreed with the bank that its security should take in priority after the bank made it clear that it was never the intention of the parties that the company would do otherwise than carry on business in the normal way until some further event occurred. In these circumstances, I think that it would be unconscionable for the employees to be deprived of their preferential rights unless the section makes it very clear that this is the case. For the reasons already expressed I think that the section makes it clear that the employees are so entitled to preference and it is apparent that this result is in accordance with the policy behind it.’
Mr Halpern, on behalf of the trustees, attacked the reasoning which led Nicholson J to reach the conclusion which he did in Waters v Widdows [1984] VR 503. He pointed out, correctly, that the decision is not binding upon me. He submitted that the judge failed to give proper effect to the principle that the finance company, General Credits, as the holder of a fixed charge, was entitled to be paid out of the assets subject to that charge before any part of those assets could be applied towards payment of the unsecured creditors, including (in the absence of a statutory requirement to the contrary) preferential creditors. There is, of course, no statutory provision which postpones the holder of a fixed charge to the claims of preferential creditors.
The security position in Waters v Widdows was indistinguishable from that in Re Camden Brewery Ltd (1911) 106 LT 598n and Re Robert Stephenson & Co Ltd [1913] 2 Ch 201. The principle to be derived from those decisions of the Court of Appeal, as I understand it, is that the holder of a subsequent fixed charge which has been made subject to a prior floating charge, either by express provisions in the fixed charge itself or by a restriction in the floating charge of which the holder of the fixed charge had notice, takes his security upon terms that, if before the charged property has been realised under that fixed charge events occur which cause the floating charge to crystallise, then the proceeds of realisation must be paid to the holder of the floating charge; the holder of the fixed charge can have no claim upon those proceeds until the claims under the floating charge have been paid out. In those circumstances, if the floating charge has crystallised prior to liquidation, the position at the time when s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act comes to be applied will be that the property in relation to which the successive charges have been created will be property comprised in or subject to the floating charge for the purpose of that subsection. It will not be taken out of that subsection by the rule in Re Lewis Merthyr Consolidated Collieries Ltd [1929] 1 Ch 498. There is no basis upon which that rule can apply in the circumstances postulated: first, because the charged property, or the proceeds of realisation, are payable to the floating chargee and not to the fixed chargee; secondly, or alternatively, because the property subject to the floating charge is the charged property itself and not an equity of redemption associated with the fixed charge.
Section 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act requires that preferential debts ‘shall be paid’ out of property comprised in or subject to the floating charge. If, upon a true analysis, the property in relation to which the successive charges have been
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created is not taken out of that subsection by the rule in Re Lewis Merthyr Consolidated Collieries Ltd then it must be applied in payment of the preferential debts. The existence of the subsequent fixed charge is immaterial. For the reasons set out by Nicholson J in Waters v Widdows, the preferential creditors are not to be deprived of their rights to payment out of the property to which s 175(2)(b) applies unless the section so provides. It does not so provide.
Mr Halpern submits that I ought not to regard myself as free to adopt the reasoning which I have set out above; rather, I should follow the decision of Nourse J in Re Woodroffes (Musical Instruments) Ltd (in liq) [1985] 2 All ER 908, [1986] Ch 366. I should, of course, be very reluctant to adopt a view which was inconsistent with a decision of a judge sitting in this Division on a point which had been properly before him.
The facts in the Woodroffes case were these. In 1980 the company created an all moneys debenture in favour of a bank. The bank’s debenture contained, inter alia, a floating charge over all the company’s undertaking and assets. The bank had the right, by giving notice under the debenture, to convert that floating charge into a fixed charge on any assets specified in the notice. On 9 August 1982 the company created a second debenture to secure £25,000 advanced by Mrs Woodroffe, a director of the company. That debenture was expressed to be subject to, and to rank immediately after, the bank’s debenture. It, too, contained provision for conversion of the floating charge thereby created into a fixed charge by notice. On 27 August 1982 Mrs Woodroffe gave notice converting her security into a fixed charge on the whole of the company’s undertaking and assets. The bank did not give a similar notice. On 1 September 1982 the bank served a formal demand for repayment and appointed joint receivers under its floating charge. On 28 November 1982 the company was ordered to be wound up by the court. The moneys collected by the joint receivers, after payment to the bank of amounts in respect of its fixed charges over specific assets under the 1980 debenture, amounted to £95,846; a sum that was insufficient to satisfy the balance of the bank’s claim, Mrs Woodroffe’s claim and the preferential creditors.
In order to understand the way in which the arguments were presented to the judge in the Woodroffes case it is necessary to keep in mind that the relevant section under which the preferential creditors in that case could claim payment out of assets coming into the hands of receivers appointed by the holder of a floating charge (s 94(1) of the Companies Act 1948, the statutory successor to s 3 of the 1897 Act) did not, in terms, apply to ‘a charge which, as created, was a floating charge’ (cf s 40(1) of the 1986 Act and s 196(1) of the 1985 Act) and there was then no statutory definition of ‘floating charge’ in terms similar to those now found in s 251 of the 1986 Act.
In those circumstances the principal issue in the Woodroffes case was whether, at the date when the bank appointed joint receivers (1 September 1982) the bank was the holder of a debenture secured by a floating charge for the purposes of s 94(1) of the Companies Act 1948. That turned on the answer to one or both of the following questions: (i) whether the bank’s charge had crystallised before 1 September 1982; and, if so, (ii) whether, for the purposes of s 94(1) of the 1948 Act, ‘floating charge’ was to be construed in the sense now adopted in the 1985 and 1986 legislation, that is to say, a charge which, as created, was a floating charge, or had a more limited meaning, that is to say, a charge which was a floating charge at the relevant date on which the section fell to be applied, being the date of the appointment of a receiver or the date of taking possession of the charged property (as the case might be).
Nourse J held, on the facts, that the bank’s floating charge did not crystallise before 1 September 1982. He took the view that that made it unnecessary for him
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to consider the second of the two questions which I have described above (see the Woodroffes case [1985] 2 All ER 908 at 916, [1986] Ch 366 at 380).
His decision on the first question led to what he described as ‘the rather odd result already indicated’. On the basis of his finding, the position was that, at the date of the appointment of the joint receivers by the bank, Mrs Woodroffe’s charge had become a fixed charge (on 27 August 1982) but the bank’s charge, to which Mrs Woodroffe’s charge was expressed to be subject, had remained a floating charge. The judge described the result in these terms ([1985] 2 All ER 908 at 912, [1986] Ch 366 at 375):
‘If the bank’s charge did not crystallise until 1 September, then the result, although rather an odd one, is not in dispute. The order of priority is (1) the bank to the extent of Mrs Woodroffe’s £25,000 plus interest to date (about £9,500), (2) the preferential creditors, (3) the bank as to the balance of its claim and (4) Mrs Woodroffe. The reason for this rather odd result is that the bank, although a floating chargee, ranks prior to Mrs Woodroffe who, as a fixed chargee, ranks prior to the preferential creditors. It would mean that the bank would get about £34,500, the preferential creditors would get about £61,346 and Mrs Woodroffe would get nothing.’
In order to hold that ‘Mrs Woodroffe … as a fixed chargee, ranks prior to the preferential creditors’ it was necessary to make the assumption that her charge, which, as created, had been a floating charge, was, as result of the conversion by notice which had occurred on 27 August 1982, not to be regarded as a floating charge for the purposes of s 94(1) of the 1948 Act. In other words, it was necessary to assume that s 94(1) of the 1948 Act did not extend to all charges which were floating charges as created. This was, of course, the issue raised in the second of the two questions which I have described above: the question which the judge held that he did not need to decide. But the point had not been conceded. It was the point taken by the Crown in the context of its alternative submission:
‘… on the true construction of section 94 of the Companies Act 1948, the preferential debts owing to the commissioners should be paid in priority to the debts owing to the bank and Mrs. Woodroffe.’ (See [1986] Ch 366 at 371. My emphasis.)
Nevertheless, it seems that point was not pressed by the Crown in relation to the result that would follow if it were to succeed on its primary submission that the bank’s debenture did not crystallise until 1 September 1982 (see [1986] Ch 366 at 370). The Crown’s approach may be explained by the fact that, on the figures in that case, the preferential creditors would be paid substantially the whole of their debts if the Crown succeeded on its primary submission without it being necessary to challenge the priority of Mrs Woodroffe’s charge.
Whatever the reason for the Crown’s approach to this point, the fact that it was not addressed by the judge when explaining what the result would be if the bank’s charge had not crystallised before 1 September 1982 suggests that, in the passage which I have set out above (see [1985] 2 All ER 908 at 912, [1986] Ch 366 at 375), he was really doing no more than record, as if it were a decision, a result which he thought was not in issue.
It appears from the report that the point to which that passage is directed was never the subject of argument. In particular, the judge’s attention was not drawn to the decision of Nicholson J in Waters v Widdows [1984] VR 503; nor was he taken to the statement of principle in Re Camden Brewery Ltd (1911) 106 LT 598n
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at 599 which I have set out above. The note of the submissions made by counsel for the bank contains the following passage (see [1986] Ch 366 at 368):
‘… the notice given by Mrs Woodroffe on 27 August 1982 caused her debenture to become a second fixed charge instead of a second floating charge but which ranked subject to and immediately after the bank’s debenture. However, the effect of Mrs Woodroffe’s crystallising her own charge alters the priorities as between the bank and preferential creditors: Re Robert Stephenson & Co Ltd [1913] 2 Ch 201.’
It is difficult to find any passage in Re Robert Stephenson & Co Ltd which could be authority for the submission which counsel is there reported to have made. The position of preferential creditors does not appear to have been under consideration at all in that case. But, when that submission is put in the context of the bank’s primary submission, which was that the bank’s charge crystallised automatically upon the crystallisation of Mrs Woodroffe’s charge, it may be that all that was being said was that, because the effect of Mrs Woodroffe crystallising her own charge was that the bank’s charge crystallised at the same time, the priority between the bank and the preferential creditors was thereby altered.
I have examined, at some length, the arguments which were presented to Nourse J in the Woodroffes case in order to see whether the point which I now have to decide was really before him in that case. I take the view that he was not asked to decide the point; and that, in the passage on which Mr Halpern relies, the judge was doing no more than record, as a consequence which would follow from findings which he was about to make on other issues, a result which he thought was not in issue. That was, I think, the view which Vinelott J took of that passage, when he referred to it as ‘the solution to this puzzle that was agreed between counsel and accepted by Nourse J’ (see Re Fablehill Ltd [1991] BCLC 830 at 843). In these circumstances I think I can properly follow my own view, notwithstanding that it is inconsistent with the decision that was actually reached in the Woodroffes case.
The explanation which Nourse J gave for the ‘rather odd result’ which, as he must have been told, was ‘not in dispute’ is that which would follow from adopting a solution to the problem of circularity which had been advanced by Professor R M Goode and, at the date when the Woodroffes case was decided, appeared in his collected lectures Legal Problems of Credit and Security (1st edn, 1982) pp 54–55, a source to which the judge expressly refers later in his judgment (see [1985] 2 All ER 908 at 914, [1986] Ch 366 at 378). The comparable passage now appears in the 2nd edition (1988) at pp 97–98. The problem to which Professor Goode’s solution is addressed is described in these terms:
‘A fixed chargee, C, who would ordinarily have priority over an earlier floating chargee, F, in the absence of restrictions of which he has notice, may agree that his charge shall be subordinated to the floating charge. If the company subsequently goes into liquidation having preferential creditors (P), a neat circularity problem arises. The liquidator indicates that as there are insufficient free assets for the purpose, he proposes to pay P out of the assets comprised in the floating charge, pursuant to section 175(2)(b) of the Insolvency Act 1986 [formerly s 319(5) of the Companies Act 1948]. On the other hand he must allow C first bite out of the assets comprised in the fixed charge (which are also within the floating charge), as a fixed charge has priority over preferential claims. F protests that this cannot be right, since he has priority over C by virtue of the agreement between them.’
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It can be seen from that description that the elements which are said to give rise to the problem of circularity are (i) that F has priority over C by virtue of the agreement between them, (ii) that C has priority over preferential creditors (P), and (iii) that the preferential claims have priority over F under the statute. Given those premises, Professor Goode’s view is that the problem of circularity is readily soluble through the principle of subrogation:
‘Since F has priority over C by virtue of their agreement so that C would be accountable to F for moneys received in the liquidation to the extent of C’s subordination, all the interests are satisfied by treating F as subrogated to C to the extent necessary to give effect to the subordination agreement. That is to say F will collect from the liquidator in right of C the amount due to C, or such part of that amount as is necessary to satisfy F’s claim. As regards any balance due to F, this is postponed to the claims of P under section 172(2)(b).’
The question is whether that solution is apposite if one or more of the elements which are said to give rise to the problem of circularity is not present.
In my view, in circumstances where F has priority over C independently of any agreement between them (so that the first of those elements is not present), the solution put forward by Professor Goode is not apposite. The holder of a fixed charge is, of course, entitled to be paid in priority to unsecured or general creditors (including preferential creditors) out of the assets which are subject to, and are available to satisfy, his fixed charge. But if the assets subject to the fixed charge are also subject to a prior floating charge, so that they are not taken out of s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act by the rule in Re Lewis Merthyr Consolidated Collieries [1929] 1 Ch 498, then the assets available to satisfy the fixed charge will be those assets remaining after, inter alia, the preferential creditors have been paid. The assets subject to the fixed charge will not be taken out of s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act in circumstances in which the fixed charge, as created, is necessarily subject to the floating charge, for example, where the floating charge contains an express prohibition against the creation of any subsequent charge, and the holder of the subsequent charge had notice of that prohibition, for the reasons which I have already explained. In these circumstances it would be wrong to regard the holder of the fixed charge as having a priority over the preferential creditors in relation to the assets which are subject to the floating charge. Accordingly, the absence of the first element leads to the conclusion that the second element in Professor Goode’s circle is also missing.
The first of those elements was not present in the Woodroffes case. Mrs Woodroffe’s fixed charge was not subordinated to the bank’s floating charge by virtue of any agreement between them. The bank’s floating charge had priority over Mrs Woodroffe’s charge for the reasons (i) that it was first in time and (ii) that it contained an express prohibition (of which Mrs Woodroffe had notice) against the creation of any subsequent charge without the bank’s consent, which was never obtained. The express provision, in Mrs Woodroffe’s charge, that it would be subject to and rank in priority after the bank’s charge acknowledged the position that existed by virtue of (i) and (ii). There was no agreement between the bank and Mrs Woodroffe. The bank was unaware of her charge until some time after it had been created. For a statement of the relevant facts, see the judgment of Nourse J at [1985] 2 All ER 908 at 911, [1986] Ch 366 at 372–373. In those circumstances Mrs Woodroffe, as holder of the fixed charge, could not claim to be paid out of the assets over which the bank’s floating charge subsequently crystallised until the claims under the floating charge had been satisfied. It follows, in my view, that Mrs Woodroffe’s fixed charge could not
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properly be said, in the circumstances which existed at the relevant time, to have priority over the preferential creditors.
In the present case, however, the trustees, as the holders of the floating charge, do have priority over the bank, as holder of the fixed charge, by virtue, and only by virtue, of an agreement between them. That agreement is evidenced by the deed of priority. But for the reasons which I have set out, I am satisfied that if the effect of the deed of priority is that (as between the bank and the trustees) the bank’s debenture must be treated as if, when made, it had been expressed to be subject to the trustees’ debenture, then the second of Professor Goode’s three elements is not present. This is because, if the deed of priority does have that effect, the bank does not become entitled to payment out of the proceeds of realisation of any asset until after the debt secured by the trustees’ floating charge has been satisfied; and the assets available to satisfy that debt are assets to which the provisions of s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act apply.
To meet the possibility that I might reach the same conclusion as Nicholson J in Waters v Widdows [1984] VR 503, Mr Halpern advanced an alternative submission as to the true effect of the deed of priority. He submitted that it is wrong to regard the deed of priority as having the effect that the bank’s debenture must be treated as if, when made, it had been expressed to be subject to the trustees’ debenture. The correct view, he submits, is that the deed of priority has the effect that the bank (or any receiver appointed by the bank under its debenture) is to be regarded as holding the proceeds of its security upon trust for the trustees, that is to say that the trustees are to be treated as having become entitled, by assignment or subrogation, to the security which the bank would otherwise have had as against the unsecured creditors.
I accept that it would be possible for two secured creditors to enter into an arrangement by which they exchanged the rights under their respective securities. In particular it would, I think, be open to a creditor secured by a prior fixed charge to assign to the holder of a subsequent floating charge some or all of his right to receive payment under the fixed charge. It may be that it was an arrangement of this kind that Professor Goode had in mind when he referred to F collecting from the liquidator in right of C the amount due to C. But this is not the arrangement which the parties have made under the deed of priority. That deed does not purport to effect any assignment or exchange of proprietary rights. All that it does is to provide, by way of contract, for the order in which the proceeds of realisation of the charged assets shall be applied in satisfaction of the secured debts. The trustees do not collect from the liquidator the proceeds of assets subject to their floating charge in right of the bank. They collect those proceeds from the liquidator because the assets were subject to their floating charge. They collect those proceeds in priority to the bank because they have agreed with the bank that the bank’s claim to those assets will be subject to their claim.
The point can be tested in this way. Suppose that the trustees’ floating charge were held to be invalid under the provisions of, say, s 245 of the Insolvency Act 1986. Would the trustees, none the less, be entitled to collect from the liquidator the proceeds of the book and other debts? If the trustees do, on a true analysis, collect those proceeds from the liquidator in right of the bank, the invalidity of their own floating charge would be irrelevant. Further, on that hypothesis, the bank would hold the proceeds of assets which it received from the liquidator under its fixed charge upon trust for the trustees, notwithstanding that the trustees’ floating charge was invalid. But it could not sensibly be suggested that the deed of priority was intended to, or did, have that effect. The reason is that the deed was not intended to give to the trustees a security which they would not
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otherwise have. The deed does not effect any transfer inter se of the rights of the secured creditors to be paid out of the charged assets. It affects only the order in which payment out of those assets is made to creditors who are secured by virtue of their own charges.
For the reasons which I have set out in this judgment I answer question (1)(b)(i) of the re-amended originating application in the affirmative: the claims of the preferential creditors to be paid out of the proceeds of the realised book and other debts do have priority over the claims thereto of the trustees and of the receiver whom they appointed.
Question (1)(b)(ii) of the re-amended originating application must also be answered in the affirmative. Rule 4.218 of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925, sets out, in order of priority, the expenses of the liquidation which ‘are payable out of the assets’. Section 115 of the 1986 Act requires that all expenses properly incurred in the winding up, including the remuneration of the liquidator, are payable out of the company’s assets in priority to all other claims. If that were not a sufficiently clear direction that the expenses of the liquidation are payable in priority to preferential debts, s 175(2)(a) of the 1986 Act puts the point beyond doubt: ‘Preferential debts—(a) rank equally among themselves after the expenses of the winding up …' The only question is whether, in this context, ‘the company’s assets’ include assets which are subject to charge which, as created, was a floating charge but which has crystallised prior to the commencement of the liquidation.
In Re Barleycorn Enterprises Ltd, Mathias & Davies (a firm) v Down (liquidator of Barleycorn Enterprises Ltd) [1970] 2 All ER 155, [1970] Ch 465 the Court of Appeal held that the company’s assets, for the purpose of, inter alia, s 309 of the 1948 Act, included property comprised in or subject to a floating charge. Section 309 of the 1948 Act has been re-enacted in s 115 of the 1986 Act. But it is reasonably clear from the report that, in that case, the floating charge in the bank’s debenture did not crystallise until the winding up order was made. It was on this basis that Vinelott J distinguished Re Barleycorn Enterprises Ltd in Re Christonette International Ltd [1982] 3 All ER 225 at 230, [1982] 1 WLR 1245 at 1250. He followed the earlier decision of Bennett J in Re Griffin Hotel Co Ltd, Joshua Tetley & Son Ltd v Griffin Hotel Co Ltd and John Lupton & Son Ltd [1940] 4 All ER 324 at 329, [1941] Ch 129 at 135, where Bennett J had held:
‘In my judgment, s 264(4)(b) [of the Companies Act 1929] operates only if, at the moment of the winding up, there is still floating a charge created by the company, and it gives the preferential creditors a priority only over the claims of the debentureholders in any property which at that moment of time is comprised in or subject to that charge.’
Section 264(4)(b) of the Companies Act 1929 was re-enacted, first, as s 319(5)(b) of the 1948 Act and, now, as s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act. But, in the 1986 Act and for the purposes of that section, a floating charge does include a charge which, as created, was a floating charge notwithstanding crystallisation before the commencement of winding up (see s 251 of the 1986 Act). The effect of that change, as it seems to me, is that the reasoning upon which the decision of the Court of Appeal in Re Barleycorn Enterprises Ltd is based must now lead to the conclusion that the company’s assets, for the purposes of s 115 of the 1986 Act, do include property comprised in or subject to a charge which, as created, was a floating charge; and that Re Christonette International Ltd should not now be followed on that point. To hold otherwise would produce the result that, although (i) preferential debts take priority over the claims of debenture holders secured by a charge which, as created, was a floating charge and are to be paid out
Page 846 of [1993] 3 All ER 829
of property comprised in that charge (s 175(2)(b) of the 1986 Act) and (ii) preferential debts are to be paid after the expenses of the winding up (s 175(2)(a) of that Act), nevertheless the expenses of winding up cannot be paid out of some property, that is to say, property which is comprised in a floating charge which has crystallised prior to the liquidation, which is available to pay preferential debts. It is difficult to accept that that result could have been intended when s 175 of the 1986 Act was enacted.
I will hear counsel’s submissions on the orders, if any, which are required on the other paragraphs in the re-amended originating application in the light of the answers which I have given to the questions posed by para (1).
Order accordingly.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
Practice Note
(Chambers: Queen’s Bench Division)
[1993] 3 All ER 846
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ
Hearing Date(s): 29 JULY 1993
Practice – Chambers proceedings – Queen’s Bench Division – Chambers applications and appeals – Inter partes applications and appeals – Listing – General list – Special appointments – Procedure – Papers for perusal by judge – Affidavits.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ gave the following direction at the sitting of the court. Part A of Practice Note [1983] 1 All ER 1119, [1983] 1 WLR 433 (as amended by Practice Note [1989] 1 All ER 1120, [1989] 1 WLR 359) is replaced by the following.
1. All inter partes applications and appeals to the Queens Bench judge in chambers will initially be entered in a general list. They will be listed for hearing in Room E101 or some other nominated venue.
2. Any matter which cannot be dealt with within 30 minutes will not be taken on the date given for the general list appointment. If the parties agree that it cannot be so disposed of the applicant/appellant must as soon as practicable, and in any event not less than 24 hours before the date given, transfer the case to (1) the chambers appeals list or (2) for all other than appeals, the special appointments list. If the parties do not so agree, or agree less than 24 hours before the date given, the parties must attend on the date given.
3. Cases in the special appointments list will usually be heard on a date fixed by the judge in chambers department, room W15, after application to fix has been made by the parties. The application to fix must be accompanied by an agreed estimate of the length of the hearing signed by the applicants counsel or solicitor who it is intended shall appear on the application.
4. Cases in the chambers appeals list will be listed by the Clerk of the Lists, Room W14, and the parties will be notified by the court of the date on which such appeals will enter the warned list. Cases in the warned list may be listed for hearing at any time on or after that date. Fixtures will only be given in exceptional circumstances.
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5. The original exhibits to affidavits should be retained by the parties but be available for production at the hearing.
6. In order to ensure that a complete set of papers in proper order is available for perusal by the judge before the hearing of such applications and appeals, the parties must in advance of the hearing (see para 7 below) lodge in room W15 a bundle, properly paged in order of date and indexed, containing copies of the following documents: (i) the notice of appeal or, as the case may be, summons; (ii) the pleadings (if any); (iii) copies of all affidavits (together with copy exhibits) upon which any party intends to rely; and (iv) any relevant order made in the action. The bundle should be agreed if possible. In all but simple cases a skeleton argument and, where that would be helpful, a chronology should also be lodged.
7. Where a date for the hearing has been fixed (which will normally be the case for special appointments) the bundle must be lodged not later than three clear days before the fixed date. For appeals where there is no fixed date for hearing, the bundle must be lodged not later than 48 hours after the parties have been notified that the case is to appear in the warned list and, for cases in the general list, the bundle must be lodged at least 48 hours before the hearing. Skeleton arguments (with chronology) must be lodged not later than 24 hours before the hearing.
8. Except with leave of the judge no document may be adduced in evidence or relied upon unless a copy of it has been included in the bundle referred to at para 6 above. If any party seeks to rely upon an affidavit which has not been included in the bundle that party should lodge the original (with copy exhibits) in room W15 in advance of the hearing or with the clerk/associate before the hearing commences.
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Burton v Winters and another
[1993] 3 All ER 847
Categories: TORTS; Trespass
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LLOYD LJ AND CONNELL J
Hearing Date(s): 8, 21 DECEMBER 1992
Trespass to land – Remedy – Self-redress – Circumstances in which common law right of self-redress available –Wall of building encroaching on adjoining property – Plaintiff’s claim for mandatory injunction refused – Whether right of self-redress available.
In 1986 the plaintiff commenced proceedings in trespass and nuisance against the defendants, her neighbours, for a mandatory injunction requiring them to pull down that part of their garage which she alleged was built on her land. The defendants’ predecessor in title had built the garage in 1975 on the line of a former party wall and the wall encroached some 41 /2 inches on to the plaintiff’s land. The judge granted a declaration that half the garage wall encroached on the plaintiff’s property, but refused to grant a mandatory injunction and instead adjourned the claim for the assessment of damages caused by the encroachment. An appeal by the plaintiff was dismissed, but she commenced building a wall on the defendants’ land in front of the garage. An injunction was granted against the plaintiff, but she persisted in further attempts to build a wall and was committed
Page 848 of [1993] 3 All ER 847
to prison for 12 months. Her appeal against the committal order was allowed but an injunction was granted restraining her from trespassing on or interfering with the defendants’ land or property. However, after she attempted to build another wall and damaged the garage, a sentence of two years’ imprisonment was imposed. The plaintiff appealed from that order. The question arose whether the plaintiff was entitled to exercise her common law right of abatement of the nuisance created on her land by the defendants’ garage or whether she was restricted to her right to damages.
Held – Although there was a common law right of self-redress for trespass by encroachment, such a right was restricted to simple cases which did not justify the expense of legal proceedings or urgent cases which required an immediate remedy. Not only was it was too late for the plaintiff to exercise the right of self-redress, it was not an appropriate case for the exercise of that remedy as difficult questions of law were involved and demolition of the garage wall would be out of proportion to the damage suffered by the plaintiff. Furthermore, the justification for a summary remedy ceased when the mandatory injunction had been granted. The court had then decided that the plaintiff was not entitled to have the wall removed and thereafter she had no right to remove it herself. On the facts, the sentence of two years’ imprisonment was justified in the circumstances and accordingly the appeal would be dismissed (see p 850 h j and p 851 h to p 852 h, post).
Baten’s Case (1610) 9 Co Rep 53b and Lane v Capsey [1891] 3 Ch 411 considered.
Cases referred to in judgmentsBaten’s Case (1610) 9 Co Rep 53b, 77 ER 810.
Enfield London BC v Mahoney [1983] 2 All ER 901, [1983] 1 WLR 749, CA.
Lagan Navigation Co v Lambeg Bleaching Dyeing and Finishing Co Ltd [1927] AC 226, [1926] All ER Rep 230, HL.
Lane v Capsey [1891] 3 Ch 411.
Lightfoot v Lightfoot [1989] FCR 305, CA.
Moffett v Brewer (1848) Iowa Rep (1 Greene) 348, SC.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton argumentHentz v Long Island Railroad Co (1852) NY 13 Barb 646.
Lake v Lake [1955] 2 All ER 538, [1955] P 336, CA.
NotesFor abatement of a private nuisance, see 34 Halsburys Laws (4th edn) paras 349–350, 352–354, 356.
Interlocutory appealThe plaintiff, Norma Mary Burton, appealed against the orders of Judge Main made first on 14 August 1992 imposing a prison sentence of two years suspended on condition she committed no further breach of an injunction granted by Steyn LJ and Ewbank J on 17 July 1992 whereby she was forbidden to trespass, disturb or wrongly interfere with the property of the defendants, Michael Alan Winters and Joyce Alexander Winters, at 7 Gorselands Close, West Byfleet, Surrey, and secondly on 2 October 1992 activating the prison sentence. The facts are set out in the judgment of Lloyd LJ.
The plaintiff appeared in person.
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Stephen Monkcom (instructed by Belmont & Lowe, agents for G M Dixon, Normandy) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
21 December 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
LLOYD LJ. In this case we are concerned with a boundary dispute between the plaintiff, Mrs Norma Mary Burton and her neighbours, Mr and Mrs Winters. The plaintiff owns and occupies 6 Gorselands Close, West Byfleet, Surrey. The defendants are the owners of 7 Gorselands Close.
In April 1975 the defendants’ predecessors in title built a garage along the boundary line between the two properties. The plaintiff says that the garage encroaches on her land. In August 1986 she commenced proceedings in trespass and nuisance. She claimed (i) a mandatory injunction requiring the defendants to pull down so much of the garage as was built on her land, (ii) an injunction restraining the defendants from continuing to trespass on her land, (iii) a declaration as to the boundary line and (iv) damages.
On 15 August 1989 Judge Main made a finding of fact that the wall of the garage was built along the line of the old party wall. As a consequence, half the wall was on the plaintiff’s side of the boundary line and half on the defendants’. He rejected the plaintiff’s submission that the garage encroached on her land by as much as three feet. There was a further hearing before Judge Main on 12 December 1990 in which he reaffirmed his decision. He dismissed the claim for a mandatory injunction. He made a declaration as to the boundary line and adjourned the claim for damages so that a valuation could be obtained as to the diminution in value of the plaintiff’s property by reason of the encroachment.
The plaintiff appealed. Her appeal was dismissed on 18 July 1991. In the course of giving judgment Balcombe LJ said:
‘On his finding the garage was over the boundary by some 41 /2 inches, but he clearly had a discretion whether or not to grant an injunction and I cannot conceive, in the circumstances of this case, that a judge would order a garage to be pulled down on such a minimal encroachment unless there was evidence (which there was not) that even so small an encroachment precluded the plaintiff from enjoying an amenity on her own land which she would otherwise not enjoy.’
The plaintiff’s petition for leave to appeal to the House of Lords was dismissed on 18 December 1991. Unfortunately the plaintiff is unwilling to accept that the decision of Judge Main and the Court of Appeal is an end of the matter.
On 14 March 1992 she started building a brick wall in front of the garage on the defendants’ side of the boundary line. On 21 April 1992 Judge Cook granted an injunction. The plaintiff continued to trespass on the defendants’ land. On 14 May Judge Main committed the plaintiff to prison for 14 days, but suspended the sentence on terms that she remove the wall she had built. On 15 May the defendants removed the wall. On 16 May she rebuilt it. Not surprisingly, Judge Main activated the suspended sentence and committed the plaintiff to prison for 12 months.
There was then a second appeal to the Court of Appeal, this time against the committal order. On 17 July 1992 Steyn LJ and Ewbank J allowed the appeal but granted an injunction whereby the plaintiff was forbidden—
‘(1) to trespass on the home and property of the defendants at 7 Gorselands Close, West Byfleet, Surrey, (2) to disturb the peaceful occupation by the
Page 850 of [1993] 3 All ER 847
defendants and their tenants of their property at 7 Gorselands Close aforesaid, (3) to interfere wrongly with the property of the defendants at 7 Gorselands Close aforesaid …’
On 25 July 1992 the plaintiff placed a row of bricks in the defendants’ back garden and made a hole in the roof of the garage. On 14 August 1992 Judge Main sentenced the plaintiff to two years’ imprisonment but suspended the sentence on condition she committed no further breach of the injunction. Meanwhile, on 11 August, the plaintiff and a friend had made two large holes in the garage wall with a sledgehammer. They were arrested by the police for criminal damage. On 21 August the plaintiff removed the repairs which the defendants had effected to the garage roof. On 31 August she attempted to rebuild the wall in front of the garage. Accordingly, on 2 October Judge Main activated the sentence imposed on 14 August and committed the plaintiff to prison for two years, the maximum permissible under s 14 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981.
There is now an appeal against the order of 14 August 1992 in which the plaintiff says, inter alia, that the decision of Judge Main given on 12 December 1990 was obtained by fraud. There is no formal appeal from the order of 2 October 1992, but the plaintiff has placed before us a sheet of paper in which she sets out her grievances. The last paragraph reads:
‘Depriving me of my freedom to enable Mr Dixon [the defendants’ solicitor] to trample all over my land and enter my house at will, will not force me to accept compensation for my land. Further imprisonment would have no coercive effect and can no longer be justified.’
This appears to be a reflection of Enfield London BC v Mahoney [1983] 2 All ER 901, [1983] 1 WLR 749.
The appeal came before Russell and Rose LJJ on 18 November 1992. The plaintiff made it clear on that occasion that she did not intend to purge her contempt. The hearing was adjourned until 8 December to enable her to prepare her case.
During the hearing before us, we have looked anxiously for some indication of a change of heart on the plaintiff’s part but there was none. She refuses to recognise that she is wrong and she refuses to abide by the order of the court. Her view is that no court can, by order, deprive her of her property. She is not interested in compensation. She will give no undertaking not to damage the garage wall on her release from prison.
In these circumstances, we have to look at the sentence of two years from two different but related aspects. The sentence undoubtedly contains a punitive element for the serious and repeated breaches of the injunctions granted on 21 April and 17 July 1992. It also contains a coercive element, (see Lightfoot v Lightfoot [1989] FCR 305). The defendants are entitled to the protection of the law and the court must do its best to provide such protection by coercing the plaintiff in the only way it can. She has been given every chance and afforded every indulgence but all to no avail.
In my judgment, the sentence of two years, though the maximum under s 14 of the 1981 Act, was justified in this case. There may come a time when it can be seen that prison is having no further coercive effect, but that time has not yet come. No doubt the Official Solicitor will keep the case under review. In the meantime, the punitive element in the sentence remains to be served. The appeal against the orders of 14 August and 2 October is dismissed.
But it does not end there. There is another point of considerable interest. It arises in this way. The injunction granted by the Court of Appeal on 17 July 1992
Page 851 of [1993] 3 All ER 847
did not refer specifically to the half of the garage wall which lies on the plaintiff’s side of the boundary line; indeed it did not refer to the garage wall at all. In those circumstances Judge Main felt some concern lest the plaintiff might still be entitled to exercise her common law right of abatement. He thought he detected a submission to that effect in the plaintiff’s argument. Very sensibly, he gave leave of his own accord so that the point could be investigated. We are much indebted to Mr Monkcom for his help.
As already mentioned, the plaintiff brought her proceedings against the defendants in trespass or, alternatively, in nuisance. Judge Main found that the garage wall trespassed to the extent of one brick width, or 41 /2 inches on the plaintiff’s side of the boundary line. Do those circumstances entitle the plaintiff to remove the wall herself or so much of it as is admittedly on her land?
There is a common law right of self-redress for trespass by encroachment, which was already regarded as an ancient remedy in the time of Bracton. It is similar to the common law right of abatement in the case of nuisance. But at an early stage of our history the right of abatement was supplemented by the assize of nuisance or ‘quod permittat prosternere’. The action lay to have the nuisance abated by the defendants and to recover damages (see Baten’s Case (1610) 9 Co Rep 53b, 77 ER 810). If the plaintiff abated the nuisance himself, he lost his right to recover damages.
With the coming of equity, the common law action for abatement was supplanted by the mandatory injunction. But the remedy by way of self-help was still available. In Lane v Capsey [1891] 3 Ch 411 Chitty J had to consider facts which were, in a sense, the converse of Baten’s Case. The plaintiffs claimed that their right of way across a piece of land had been obstructed by the erection of five houses. The plaintiffs obtained an injunction to restrain the defendants from erecting any further houses across the right of way, but they were refused a mandatory injunction to compel the defendants to demolish the existing houses. Nor did they recover damages, either at common law, or under Lord Cairns’s Act (the Chancery Amendment Act 1858). The reason for this is not entirely clear.
In subsequent proceedings the plaintiffs sought the leave of the court to exercise the right of abatement. They needed the leave of the court since a receiver of the defendants’ property had been appointed in the meantime and to have exercised the right of abatement without leave would have been a contempt of court. It was argued for the defendants that there could be no right of abatement since the plaintiffs had already failed to obtain a mandatory injunction. Chitty J left the point open. He gave leave so that the question could be discussed, ‘in the right way and at the right time’ (see at 416). So far as counsel has been able to discover, the question never was decided in that case and it has not been decided since. So it falls to us to determine the point on facts which are virtually identical. Fortunately, the answer is not difficult.
Ever since the assize of nuisance became available, the courts have confined the remedy by way of self-redress to simple cases such as an overhanging branch, or an encroaching root, which would not justify the expense of legal proceedings, and urgent cases which require an immediate remedy. Thus, it was Bracton’s view that where there is resort to self-redress, the remedy should be taken without delay. In 3 Bl Com (17th edn, 1830) p 5 we find:
‘And the reason why the law allows this private and summary method of doing one’s self justice, is because injuries of this kind, which obstruct or annoy such things as are of daily convenience and use, require an immediate remedy; and cannot wait for the slow progress of the ordinary forms of justice.’
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The modern textbooks, both here and in other common law jurisdictions, follow the same line (see Salmond and Heuston on the Law of Torts (20th edn, 1992) p 585, Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) p 364, Fleming The Law of Torts (7th edn, 1987) p 415 and Prosser and Keeton on the Law of Torts (5th edn, 1984) p 641). In Prosser and Keeton we find:
‘Consequently the privilege [of abatement] must be exercised within a reasonable time after knowledge of the nuisance is acquired or should have been acquired by the person entitled to abate; if there has been sufficient delay to allow a resort to legal process, the reason for the privilege fails, and the privilege with it.’
The authority cited for this proposition is Moffett v Brewer (1948) Iowa Rep (1 Greene) 348 at 350, where Greene J said:
‘This summary method of redressing a grievance, by the act of an injured party, should be regarded with great jealousy, and authorised only in cases of particular emergency, requiring a more speedy remedy than can be had by the ordinary proceedings at law.’
Applying this stream of authority to the facts of the present case, it is obvious that it is now far too late for the plaintiff to have her remedy by way of abatement. The garage wall was built in 1975. Not only was there ample time for the plaintiff to ‘wait for the slow progress of the ordinary forms of justice’; she actually did so.
But it is not only a question of delay. There is modern House of Lords authority for the proposition that the law does not favour the remedy of abatement (see Lagan Navigation Co v Lambeg Bleaching Dyeing and Finishing Co Ltd [1927] AC 226 at 244, [1926] All ER Rep 230 at 238 per Lord Atkinson). In my opinion, this never was an appropriate case for self-redress, even if the plaintiff had acted promptly. There was no emergency. There were difficult questions of law and fact to be considered and the remedy by way of self-redress, if it had resulted in the demolition of the garage wall, would have been out of all proportion to the damage suffered by the plaintiff.
But even if there had ever been a right of self-redress, it ceased when Judge Main refused to grant a mandatory injunction. We are now in a position to answer the question left open by Chitty J in Lane v Capsey [1891] 3 Ch 411. Self-redress is a summary remedy, which is justified only in clear and simple cases, or in an emergency. Where a plaintiff has applied for a mandatory injunction and failed, the sole justification for a summary remedy has gone. The court has decided the very point in issue. This is so whether the complaint lies in trespass or nuisance. In the present case, the court has decided that the plaintiff is not entitled to have the wall on her side of the boundary removed. It follows that she has no right to remove it herself.
As I have already pointed out, the injunction granted by the Court of Appeal on 17 July 1992 does not refer specifically to the garage wall. We invited the plaintiff to undertake not to remove bricks from her side of the wall and not to interfere with the wall or damage it in any way as she has been doing in the past. She was unwilling to give this undertaking. She expressed herself with some indignation. Now that we have decided in favour of the defendants the point which caused Judge Main some concern, we propose to add a new sub-para (4) to the injunction granted on 17 July 1992. The plaintiff will be forbidden—
‘(4) To interfere with or damage in any way the garage wall along the boundary between 6 and 7 Gorselands Close, West Byfleet, Surrey.’
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The plaintiff is still entitled to enforce her claim for damages for diminution in value of her property. Otherwise the appeal is dismissed.
CONNELL J. I agree for the reasons given by Lloyd LJ that these appeals must be dismissed.
Appeals dismissed.
Raina Levy Barrister.
R v Board of Trustees of the Science Museum
[1993] 3 All ER 853
Categories: HEALTH; Health And Safety At Work
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STEYN LJ, GARLAND AND ROUGIER JJ
Hearing Date(s): 23 FEBRUARY, 9 MARCH 1993
Health and safety at work – Non-domestic premises – Statutory duty of persons having control of such premises – Duty owed to persons who are not in their employment who might be affected by risks to health and safety – Risk – Faulty maintenance of air-conditioning system in museum – Public exposed to risk of infection by legionnaires disease – Failure to discharge statutory duty – Whether prosecution entitled to rely on possibility of danger – Whether prosecution required to prove actual danger – Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, s 3(1).
The appellants were the board of trustees of a museum where an inspection by health and safety inspectors showed that a bacteria which caused legionnaires disease, a rare form of pneumonia, existed in the water in the air cooling system. The appellants were charged with failing to discharge the duty imposed on them by s 3(1)a of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974 to conduct their undertaking in such a way as to ensure as far as reasonably practicable that members of the general public were not exposed to risks to their health and safety, in that they had failed to maintain the air-conditioning system of the museum buildings, contrary to s 33(1)(a) of the Act. The appellants were convicted and fined. They appealed against their conviction on the ground that the prosecution had failed to prove that they had exposed the public to any actual risk to health from exposure to legionnaires disease because they had failed to prove that the bacteria had escaped and that a dangerous state of affairs existed which would constitute a risk to health if the public were exposed to it.
Held – On a true construction of s 3(1) of the 1974 Act the term ‘risk’ was to be given its ordinary meaning of denoting the possibility of danger rather than actual danger. That interpretation was reinforced when s 3(1) was read in context with ss 18, 20, 21 and 22 of the Act which expressed the preventive aim of the statute. Accordingly, it was enough for the prosecution to prove that there was a risk that the legionnaires disease bacteria might escape and they were not required to go further and show that the bacteria had in fact emerged into the atmosphere and could be inhaled. Since there was ample evidence of a risk of legionnaires disease escaping from the appellants’ cooling towers, which was
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increased by the appellants’ failure to maintain an efficient water treatment regime at the material time, they had been properly convicted. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 858 h to p 859 b and p 860 h to p 861 b, post).
NotesFor offences under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, see 20 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 517.
For the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, s 3(1), see 19 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 625.
AppealThe Board of Trustees of the Science Museum appealed by leave of the single judge against their conviction by a majority verdict of 10 to two on 11 October 1990 in the Crown Court at Knightsbridge before Judge Aglionby and a jury for failing to discharge the duty imposed by s 3(1) of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974 to conduct their undertaking, namely the Science Museum, Exhibition Road, London, in such a way as to ensure, so far as was reasonably practicable, that persons not in their employment who might be affected thereby were not thereby exposed to risks to their health and safety, contrary to s 33(1)(a) of the Act. They were fined £500 and ordered to pay prosecution costs of £35,000. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
E A Machin QC and Jonathan Waite (instructed by McKenna & Co) for the appellants.
Hugh Carlisle QC and Timothy Briden (instructed by the solicitor to the Health and Safety Executive).
9 March 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
STEYN LJ.
The conviction
In October 1990 the appellants were tried in the Crown Court at Knightsbridge on a charge of failing to discharge the duty imposed upon them by s 3(1) of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974 contrary to s 33(1)(a) of the 1974 Act. Section 3(1) reads as follows:
‘It shall be the duty of every employer to conduct his undertaking in such a way as to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that persons not in his employment who may be affected thereby are not thereby exposed to risks to their health or safety.’
Section 33(1) provides inter alia that it is an offence for a person to fail to discharge a duty to which he is subject by virtue of s 3(1). The particulars of the offence set out in the indictment were as follows:
‘The Board of Trustees of the Science Museum between 20th June 1988 and 4th March 1989, being employers within the meaning of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, failed to conduct their undertaking, namely, the Science Museum, Exhibition Road, London, in such a way as to ensure, so far as was reasonably practicable, that persons not in their employment who might be affected thereby were not thereby exposed to risks to their health and safety, in each of the following respects, as regards the air conditioning system for the infill building of the said Museum: (a) they failed to institute
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and maintain a regime of regular cleansing and disinfection; (b) they failed to maintain in operation an efficient chemical water treatment regime; (c) they failed to monitor the efficacy of the said water treatment regime, whereby members of the general public were exposed to risks to their health from exposure to legionella pneumophila.’
The appellants pleaded not guilty. The trial occupied nine working-days. On 11 October 1990 the jury returned a verdict of guilty by a majority of 10 to 2. The appellants were fined £500 and ordered to pay prosecution costs of £35,000.
The shape of the appeal
Since the perfected grounds of appeal raised only a point of statutory construction, the registrar referred the matter to the full court. When the appeal came before us on 23 February 1993 it quickly became clear that the appellants in addition wished to argue in the alternative that on the evidence led by the prosecution there was no case to answer. Additional grounds of appeal were produced and we granted leave to amend. The prosecution was unable to deal fully with the new grounds and the appeal had to be adjourned until today. In view of the new grounds of appeal it will be necessary to set out the background in some detail.
The infill building of the Science Museum was part of the undertaking of the appellants. It contained two cooling towers. A bacterium called legionella pneumophila, to which we will refer as ‘LP’, is commonly found in air-conditioning cooling towers. While there are different types of cooling towers the underlying concept is sufficiently explained in a glossary before us. It reads as follows:
‘A tower contains a pack of material arranged to provide a large surface area. Warm water from a water-cooled condenser is fed to the top of the packing and falling under gravity to a pond at the bottom of the tower wets the surface. A fan promotes counter airflow and the water is cooled by evaporation before descending into the pond when it is pumped into the condenser.’
The bacterium causes legionnaires disease which is a rare form of pneumonia. The predominant route of infection is by inhalation. The incubation period is measured in days rather than weeks. Contamination of water systems by LP only becomes dangerous to man when the conditions create an opportunity for the organisms to multiply and then to become airborne in the form of an aerosol.
The focus of the prosecution case was not a risk to the health and safety of employees of the Science Museum. The prosecution alleged that, by reason of the appellants’ inadequate system of maintenance, treatment and monitoring, members of the public outside the Science Museum were exposed to risks to their health from LP. It was common ground that the escape of LP from the cooling tower of the Science Museum could expose members of the public within a cordon of 500 yards to risks to their health and safety.
The prosecution case
The principal prosecution witness was Mr Seed, a maintenance engineer. The thrust of his evidence was as follows. In early 1987 refurbishment of the old air-conditioning plant at the infill building of the Science Museum started. The Property Services Agency (PSA) were responsible for the refurbishment. There were problems with the main contractors over delays in commissioning the infill plant room. The appellants were supposed to take over responsibility for the
Page 856 of [1993] 3 All ER 853
maintenance of the infill building system from the PSA on 1 April 1988. In the result the appellants’ take over of the air cooling system was delayed until 20 June 1988. Mr Seed, who was responsible for the day-to-day maintenance of the system, was aware of various problems before that date.
On 5 July 1988 instructions were given to the Science Museum’s contractors to carry out the necessary work. The work was carried out and the system was started up. In July 1988 Mr Seed noted there were still problems with the cooling tower. The PSA initially left the old booster pumps. Mr Seed managed to get them going. The PSA then removed those pumps. They did that because they were responsible for the installation of new pumps. Someone used the fire-hose reel to replenish the pond in the cooling tower from the fire system. Mr Seed did not know about this until after the event. On 7 August 1988 in order to supply water to the pond, he made a temporary link with the fire-water pipes. On 8 August 1988 he recorded that the bringing into operation of the air-conditioning was complete, although some work still needed to be done, and that the machinery which had not been used for over a year was being run in.
The PSA delivered the booster pumps sometime before 19 September 1988. Mr Seed thought that not much more than three weeks were required to install the pumps. In fact, however, the PSA contractors did not complete the job until 10 January 1989. During the period without booster pumps there was uncontrolled dumping of water. Water was pumped in by the fire system booster pumps through the temporary valve which had to be opened manually. This was done two or three times a week. There were sometimes gaps of two days between dumping and replenishment. Replenishment took up to two hours and during that time biocides (a chemical agent which destroys LP) were added manually. Mr Seed used his discretion as to how much biocide to put in. Probably he put in more than was necessary, but it took time for the water and the biocide to mix.
In August 1988 consultants were asked to visit the site. They did so on 26 October 1988. They reported on 15 December 1988. During this period the Science Museum’s contractors were instructed and gave a quotation dated 15 December 1988 for the system to be cleaned. Mr Seed gave authority for four items of work to be carried out. He instructed the system to be cleaned chemically and physically; the dosing equipment to be recommissioned; the water softening equipment to be recommissioned; and biannual cleans and sterilisation to be carried out. In fact the cleaning did not start until the beginning of February 1989, that is three weeks after the installation of the booster pumps. At the start of the cleaning the whole air cooling system of both cooling towers was shut down.
On 4 March 1989 the water was tested and LP was found in the system which had not yet been cleaned. At the trial the appellants admitted that LP was present in the cooling tower at a concentration of 5,000 organisms per litre and in the chiller at a concentration of 10,000 or more per litre. The appellants also admitted that the total viable count showed that the condition of the water was conducive to LP multiplying.
Cleansing and disinfection
The prosecution called three expert witnesses, Mr Sykes, Dr Mayatt and Dr Colbourne. They testified about the need for regular cleaning and disinfection. The second Badenoch Report (the Report of the Committee of Inquiry into the Outbreak of Legionnaires Disease in Stafford in April 1985 (1987) (Cm 256)) to which the experts referred, recommended that the tower pond should be drained and replenished if any doubt arose concerning the state of the water system. Dr Logan was called as the appellants’ expert. His view was that there was no failure
Page 857 of [1993] 3 All ER 853
to institute and maintain a regular system of cleaning and disinfection. The system was, in fact, cleaned in September 1987, July 1988 and February 1989.
Chemical water treatment
The prosecution relied on the second Badenoch Report. The report stated, in para 169, that if the organism was found in a concentration greater than 1,000 per litre the drainage and make-up rate for the biocide regime should be revised and the water retested until the concentration fell below 1,000 per litre.
Monitoring the water treatment regime
The prosecution’s experts agreed that in a stable condition monitoring was required to determine the efficiency of the treatment system. Dr Mayatt and Dr Colbourne both regarded written records of treatment as necessary. They said that regular dip slide testing should have been done to check on the presence of LP and on the water conditions. No written records of water treatment were kept. Dr Logan did not agree that there was a need to do a dip slide test as there was no steady stable system.
The judge’s rulings and summing up
The judge had to resolve an important issue as to the interpretation of the words ‘thereby exposed to risks to their health and safety’. The prosecution contended that they did not have to prove that the members of the public actually inhaled LP or that LP was actually there to be inhaled. It was sufficient if there was a risk of it being there. The defence argued that this interpretation was wrong and submitted that the prosecution had to go further because a possible danger, or a potential danger, cannot impair the health and safety of the public. That can only come about when the danger ceases to be potential and becomes real.
The construction put forward by the defence formed the basis of a submission at the end of the prosecution case, which was repeated after the defence called their expert witness, that there was no case for the defence to answer. The judge ruled against the defence on both occasions.
In a careful and lucid summing up the judge adopted the interpretation put forward by the prosecution. He directed the jury as follows:
‘The third matter that the prosecution have to prove is that the defendants failed to ensure that the air conditioning system did not expose members of the public to the risk of injury to their health from legionella pneumophila. The key word in that third matter which the prosecution have to prove, is “risk”. “Risk” is a different word from the word danger and it has a different meaning. It means, in the circumstances of this case, a possible source of danger … It is common ground that the distance from a source is 500m. It is common ground that in certain circumstances and under certain conditions, which I will come to, that legionella pneumophila is a risk to health. The prosecution … do not have to prove that members of the public actually inhaled legionella pneumophila, or that legionella pneumophila was actually there to be inhaled. It is sufficient if there was a risk of it being there; that is the risk to which the public must have been proved to have been exposed.’
In the perfected grounds of appeal it was contended that this was a misdirection and that submission was repeated in oral argument.
While this case is concerned with the risk posed by an accumulation of LP in cooling towers, it seems right to consider the interpretation of s 3(1) against the spectrum of risks against which the statutory provision is intended to provide
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protection. The report of the Committee 1970–72 on Safety and Health at Work (1972) (Cmnd 5034) which was chaired by Lord Robens, led to the enactment of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974. The report stated:
‘294 … special attention must be given to the need to protect the public, as well as workers, from the very large-scale hazards which sometimes accompany modern industrial operations.
295. The storage and use in industry of a number of intrinsically dangerous substances with highly explosive, flammable or toxic properties, such as petroleum, the liquefied petroleum gases, liquid oxygen, chlorine, phosgene and sulphur dioxide constitutes a particular area in which significant risks can arise for the public as well as workpeople. A marked feature of industrial development over the last two decades has been the vastly increased scale on which such substances are used and stored. Our attention has been drawn to a number of locations in this country where highly explosive or flammable substances are kept in such quantities that any failure of control—however remote the possibility—could create situations of disaster-potential …
297. Situations of considerable potential risk to the public can be created in a variety of ways and circumstances. The potential risk may be created by an entirely new development, by a change of use or process in an existing establishment, or simply by an increase in the size and scale of existing operations. The area of risk may be fairly limited, or may extend to a whole neighbourhood. The problem can be particularly acute in sites or areas where there is a gradual accretion of potentially hazardous development by different employers …’
It was a central thesis of the report that the development control powers of local authorities were insufficient to protect members of the public. The report recommended specific statutory controls exercised directly in the interests of public safety. This approach explains the battery of powers in the 1974 Act. Section 18 and following sections provide for the enforcement of ‘the relevant statutory provisions’ which include s 3(1) (see s 53). Section 20 vested inspectors with a wide ranging power to investigate. Sections 21 and 22 created a power to serve improvement and prohibition notices, a failure to comply with such a notice constitutes an offence. These far reaching statutory powers are linked with s 3(1). It is, therefore, clear that the broad purpose of this part of the legislation was preventive. Section 3 must, therefore, not be read in isolation. The powers set out in ss 20, 21 and 22 are an important contextual aid to the construction of s 3(1).
The critical question of interpretation is as follows. Was it enough for the prosecution to prove that there was a risk that LP might emerge, or did the prosecution have to go further and show that LP did in fact emerge into the atmosphere and was available to be inhaled? Mr Carlisle QC for the prosecution illustrated the problem with a simple example. Imagine, he said, a loose object on a roof near a pavement. In case A the loose object is in a position in which it might fall off and hit a pedestrian. In that case there is a mere risk. In case B the object in fact falls and exposes pedestrians to actual danger. In case C the object falls and causes actual injury to a pedestrian. The prosecution submits that exposure to risk in case A constitutes a prima facie case under s 3(1). The defence submits that s 3(1) only covers cases B and C.
The starting point must be the ordinary meaning of the language of s 3(1). In our judgment the interpretation of the prosecution fits in best with the language of s 3(1). In the context the word ‘risks’ conveys the idea of a possibility of
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danger. Indeed, a degree of verbal manipulation is needed to introduce the idea of actual danger which the defendants put forward. The ordinary meaning of the word ‘risks’ therefore supports the prosecution’s interpretation and there is nothing in the language of s 3, or indeed in the context of the Act, which supports a narrowing down of the ordinary meaning. On the contrary, the preventive aim of ss 3, 20, 21 and 22 reinforces the construction put forward by the prosecution and adopted by the judge. The adoption of the restrictive interpretation argued for by the defence would make enforcement of s 3(1), and to some extent also of ss 20, 21 and 22 more difficult and would in our judgment result in a substantial emasculation of a central part of the 1974 Act. The interpretation which renders those statutory provisions effective in their role of protecting public health and safety is to be preferred.
We have not lost sight of the defence submission that we ought to concentrate on the word ‘exposed’ rather than ‘risks’ in s 3(1). If the word ‘risks’ has the meaning which we consider it has, the point disappears. In that event exposure to a possibility of danger is sufficient. The word ‘exposed’ simply makes clear that the section is concerned with persons potentially affected by the risk. In this case that refers to members of the public within a certain range of the infill building. But the word ‘exposed’ cannot change the meaning of ‘risks’ from a possibility of danger to actual danger. On the principal point in this case this argument of the defence is really a red herring.
The defence also argued that if the prosecution’s submission is accepted the result may be that, subject to the defence of reasonable practicability, all cooling towers in urban areas are prima facie within the scope of the prohibition contained in s 3(1). On the evidence led in the present case that may be correct. Almost certainly such a result would be true of a number of extra-hazardous industrial activities. Subject only to the defence of reasonable practicability s 3(1) is intended to be an absolute prohibition. Bearing in mind the imperative of protecting public health and safety so far as it is reasonably practicable to do so, the result can be faced with equanimity.
The indictment
Mr Machin QC for the appellants argued in the alternative that even if risk only means the possibility of danger, then by the terms of the indictment the prosecution assumed a burden of proving actual danger. It is true that the indictment is not happily worded but in our judgment it does not bear the meaning placed on it by counsel for the appellants. We reject this submission.
The additional grounds of appeal
Mr Machin pointed out that there was no evidence that the cooling towers, either of them, were in operation between 3 February 1989 and 4 March 1989. As we have explained the incubation period of LP is measured in days rather than weeks. It follows that the operation of the cooling towers cannot be said to have caused the colonising of LP found on 4 March 1989. It is conceded by the prosecution that there was no case to answer in respect of this period which was covered by the indictment.
It follows that the focus must be on the period 20 June 1988 to 3 February 1989. Mr Machin boldly submitted that the judge withdrew from the jury the issue whether an offence was committed during this period. He relies on a passage in the summing up when the judge said:
‘You do know, however, from the evidence of Dr Mayatt that these organisms can build up at a very fast rate and, indeed, there is evidence in the Badenoch report about that. She has told you that the build-up to those
Page 860 of [1993] 3 All ER 853
concentrations can take place in a very short space of time. Because you have that evidence you cannot infer back earlier than 3 February that some legionella pneumophila must have been present in that system. It had not been used for a month. You have been reminded by counsel that the other part of the admission, what I call the TVC [total viable count], was not able to indicate anything about the presence of legionella pneumophila. It merely indicates that a condition of the water was conducive to it multiplying. That does not take you any further forward in relation to the legionella that was found when the samples were taken on 4 March. In those circumstances, members of the jury, you may feel that the admissions that the prosecution have obtained from the defence do not assist the prosecution in any way at all.’
Mr Machin then referred us to another passage where, after referring to the second Badenoch report, the judge said:
‘The prosecution say here, members of the jury, that from those passages to which I have just referred you to there is a risk. It is from those passages, members of the jury, that the prosecution have found themselves in respect of the third matter that they have to prove. What they say is this, and it is for you to judge when you consider those paragraphs that I have mentioned and the other references that I have made just before: It is an inherent risk that legionella pneumophila will be, or may be, in air cooling systems, and that the opportunity to multiply to a dangerous concentration is available. Also because of the way in which air cooling systems are operated, there is the opportunity for them to become aerosolised and emerge through the air cooling tower.’
Read in context, we take the view that the judge was simply saying, in the first passage, that the jury cannot infer anything from the admissions alone. There was no withdrawal of an issue. By way of alternative, Mr Machin argued that the two passages were inconsistent and therefore calculated to confuse the jury. Once the first passage is interpreted, as we have done, the inconsistency also disappears.
It is now necessary to consider the merits of the appellants’ arguments on the state of the evidence. This aspect must be considered on the basis of the interpretation which we have given to s 3(1). This consideration on its own serves to filter out a number of arguments of the appellants which were linked with their now rejected submission. Bearing in mind that there are no material misdirections, the question is simply whether there was a case to be answered.
The prosecution case revealed an ever present risk of LP escaping from the appellants’ cooling towers. From 7 August 1988 to 10 January 1989 the appellants were not pumping fresh water into the towers. Instead water was irregularly pumped via the fire-water supply. That water contained stagnant dead ends. The jury was entitled to infer on the expert evidence led in this case that any cooling tower, which is in operation, poses a risk to persons in the vicinity of it. They were entitled to infer that in the present case that risk was increased by the appellants’ failure to maintain an efficient water treatment regime from August 1988 to January 1989.
It is true that there was no evidence of the exact concentration of LP required to establish a health hazard. The Badenoch Report was of some help since it stated that if LP was found in a concentration greater than 1,000 per litre, the drainage and make-up rate of the biocide regime should be revised and water retested until the concentration falls below 1,000 per litre. In any event the jury
Page 861 of [1993] 3 All ER 853
was concerned with the question of risk not actual danger, and there was ample evidence to support the charge in respect of the period August 1988 to January 1989. The truth of the matter is that the only possible answer to the charge was the defence that the appellants had taken reasonably practical steps to minimise the risk. In respect of that defence the burden rested on the appellants: see s 40 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974. On the evidence, the jury concluded that the defence was not established. That was not surprising since all reasonably practicable steps to ensure that the public was not exposed to risks to health and safety were not taken.
In our judgment the conviction is safe and satisfactory. The appeal is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
5 May. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith, Lord Jauncey and Lord Slynn) refused leave to appeal.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Re Arrows Ltd (No 4)
Re Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd and another
Re Headington Investments Ltd
[1993] 3 All ER 861
Categories: COMPANY; Insolvency
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, STEYN AND ROSE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 24 , 25, 26 MARCH, 7 APRIL 1993
Company – Compulsory winding up – Liquidator – Examination of officer of company etc – Disclosure of transcript of private examination of former director – Whether liquidator required to produce transcript of examination to Serious Fraud Office – Whether court can impose conditions on use by Director of transcript –Whether office-holders required to disclose transcript simultaneously to Serious Fraud Office and defendant in criminal proceedings – Whether liquidator required to produce transcript of examination to Serious Fraud Office when examination taking place before defendant charged – Insolvency Act 1986, s 236 – Criminal Justice Act 1987, s 2.
In three separate appeals the question arose whether the Director of the Serious Fraud Office had power under s 2(3)a of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 to demand from the liquidator of an insolvent company the transcript of a private examination of a director or officer of the company conducted under s 236b of the Insolvency Act 1986 and if so, on what terms such transcripts should be made
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available to the Director. In the first appeal the Director, in the course of his investigation into the affairs of a company, gave notice under s 2(3) of the 1987 Act to the liquidators of the company, which was in compulsory liquidation, to produce transcripts of the oral examination of N, a former director and majority shareholder of the company, conducted under s 236 of the 1986 Act. The liquidators sought directions from the court as to whether they should disclose copies of the transcripts to the Serious Fraud Office. The judge directed the liquidators to disclose the transcripts provided the Director gave undertakings (1) that he would not use the transcripts in evidence against N save in the circumstances specified in s 2(8) of the 1987 Act and (2) that he would procure a similar undertaking from any party to whom he supplied the transcripts. The Serious Fraud Office appealed against the undertakings. In the second appeal the receivers and liquidators (the office-holders) of two companies obtained orders for the private examination of a director, T, under s 236 of the 1986 Act in relation to the affairs of the companies. The examination took place in February and March 1992. On 18 June T was arrested and charged with theft and conspiracy to defraud. On 29 June T was served by the Serious Fraud Office with a notice under s 2(2) of the 1987 Act requiring him to answer questions and supply information. He refused to comply with that notice. He was then charged under s 2(13)c with failing to comply with a requirement imposed on him. The magistrate upheld T’s plea that he had a reasonable excuse within the meaning of s 2(13) of the 1987 Act for refusing to comply with the Director’s notice because he had been charged with criminal offences and had the right not to disclose his defence. The magistrate accordingly dismissed the prosecution. In December 1992 and March 1993 the Serious Fraud Office served notices under s 2(3) of the 1987 Act on the office-holders of the two companies requiring them to produce the transcripts of T’s examination under s 236. The judge ordered the liquidators to deliver the transcripts to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office subject to certain undertakings being given by the Director. T applied to the Court of Appeal for leave to appeal against the judge’s order, contending, inter alia, that the court ought to exercise its discretion to order the liquidators not to produce the transcripts because he had already been charged and the Serious Fraud Office ought not to be permitted to obtain from the liquidators information they could not obtain from T himself. In the third appeal M, a director of various companies which had gone into liquidation or administrative receivership, was examined or interviewed by the office-holders of those companies under ss 235 and 236 of the 1986 Act. On 18 June 1992 M was charged with offences of theft and fraudulent conspiracy in relation to the companies. The Director of the Serious Fraud Office sought production by the office-holders of the transcripts of interviews conducted under ss 235 and 236 of the 1986 Act. The judge ordered the liquidators to disclose the transcripts to the Serious Fraud Office subject to certain undertakings being given by the Director. M applied to the Court of Appeal for leave to appeal against the judge’s order contending, inter alia, that the Director was abusing his powers and that if the liquidators were ordered to disclose the transcripts to the Serious Fraud Office they should also be ordered to disclose the transcripts to him at the same time.
Held – (1) The Director of the Serious Fraud Office was entitled under s 2(3) of the 1987 Act to require the liquidators of a company to produce the transcripts of
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a director or officer of the company unfettered by any restriction on their use, since any statement made by a person during his examination under s 236 of the 1986 Act was admissible in evidence against him in any proceedings whether civil or criminal, and a civil court had no power to decide what evidence would be admissible at a criminal trial. Moreover, there was no public interest immunity, founded on the public interest that liquidations should be conducted speedily and efficiently, which warranted excluding statements under s 236 of the 1986 Act from evidence in subsequent proceedings, and any claim to legal professional privilege lay with the liquidators, who had chosen not to raise it, not with the respondent. It followed that in the first appeal the judge had no jurisdiction to impose the undertakings on the Director as to the use of the transcripts and that the Director’s appeal would be allowed (see p 870 b d, p 871 a b g to j, p 874 h to p 875 c, p 876 g h, p 877 h, p 880 f to h, p 881 c to p 882 d, p 883 b to j, p 884 e f j, p 885 e to h, post); Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76 and A T & T Istel Ltd v Tully [1992] 3 All ER 523 applied; dictum of Millett J in Re Barlow Clowes Gilt Managers Ltd [1991] 4 All ER 385 at 392 doubted.
(2) Section 2(3) of the 1987 Act conferred on the Director of the Serious Fraud Office power to obtain from office-holders transcripts of interviews conducted under s 236 of the 1986 Act without the imposition of any undertakings whether or not the person interviewed had been charged with a criminal offence at the time of the interview, but since in any event, the interviews with T had taken place before he was charged the application for leave to appeal in the second appeal would be refused (see p 887 f to j, p 888 c d, p 890 e f h to p 891 b and p 892 b c, post); Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456 applied.
(3) There was no public interest immunity to prevent the disclosure of transcripts or other documents by office-holders to prosecution or regulatory authorities under the statutory duties or powers of the office-holders, including their duties under s 2 of the 1987 Act. Section 2(3) of the 1987 Act conferred on the Director power to obtain documents which it was not open to a civil court to fetter and the court should neither refuse or defer disclosure of the transcripts applied for until after notice of transfer to the Crown Court had been given in relation to the charges against the defendant nor order simultaneous disclosure of the transcripts to the defendant. The application for leave to appeal in the third appeal would therefore be refused (see p 894 c d and p 895 a to d h to j, p 896 c to f, post).
NotesFor the court’s power to order an inquiry into a company’s dealings under the Insolvency Act 1986, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1677–1678, and for cases on the subject, see 10(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 452–458, 9458–9493.
For privilege from disclosure of information, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 92, and for cases on the subject, see 18 Digest (2nd reissue) 223–229, 1921–1988.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 236, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 886.
For the Criminal Justice Act 1987, s 2, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 1072.
Cases referred to in judgments in Re Arrows Ltd (No 4)A T & T Istel Ltd v Tully [1992] 3 All ER 523, [1993] AC 45, [1992] 3 WLR 344, HL; rvsg [1992] 2 All ER 28, [1992] QB 315, [1992] 2 WLR 112, CA.
Bank of England v Riley [1992] 1 All ER 769, [1992] Ch 475, [1992] 2 WLR 840, CA.
Page 864 of [1993] 3 All ER 861
Barlow Clowes Gilt Managers Ltd, Re [1991] 4 All ER 385, [1992] Ch 208, [1992] 2 WLR 36.
Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1, [1992] 2 WLR 991, CA.
British and Commonwealth Holdings plc (joint administrators) v Spicer & Oppenheim (a firm) [1992] 4 All ER 876, [1993] AC 426, [1992] 3 WLR 853, HL.
Esal (Commodities) Ltd, Re (No 2) [1990] BCC 708.
FMS Financial Management Services Ltd v FMS Nominees Ltd (5 June 1987, unreported), Ch D.
London and County Securities Ltd v Nicholson [1980] 3 All ER 861, [1980] 1 WLR 948.
London United Investments plc, Re [1992] 2 All ER 842, [1992] Ch 578, [1992] 2 WLR 850, CA.
Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1980] 1 WLR 627, HL.
Padfield v Minister of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997, [1968] 2 WLR 924, HL.
Poulson (J G L) (a bankrupt), Re, ex p Granada Television Ltd v Maudling [1976] 2 All ER 1020, [1976] 1 WLR 1023, DC.
R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 1) [1992] 1 All ER 108, [1991] 1 WLR 281, DC.
R v Harris (Richard) [1970] 3 All ER 746, [1970] 1 WLR 1252, CCC.
R v Hennessey (1978) 68 Cr App R 419, CA.
R v Rankine [1986] 2 All ER 566, [1986] QB 861, [1986] 2 WLR 1075, CA.
Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76, [1982] AC 380, [1981] 2 WLR 668, HL.
Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456, [1993] AC 1, [1992] 3 WLR 66, HL.
Sociedade Nacional de Combustiveis de Angola UEE v Lundqvist [1990] 3 All ER 283, [1991] 2 QB 310, [1991] 2 WLR 280, CA.
Tate Access Floors Inc v Boswell [1990] 3 All ER 303, [1991] Ch 512, [1991] 2 WLR 304.
Taylor v Anderton (1986) Times, 21 October.
Waugh v British Railways Board [1979] 2 All ER 1169, [1980] AC 521, [1979] 3 WLR 150, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments in Re Arrows Ltd (No 4)A-G v Guardian Newspapers Ltd (No 2) [1988] 3 All ER 545, [1990] 1 AC 109, HL.
Air Canada v Secretary of State for Trade (No 2) [1983] 1 All ER 910, [1983] 2 AC 394, HL.
Arrows Ltd, Re [1992] BCC 121.
Arrows Ltd, Re [1992] BCLC 126, [1992] Ch 545.
Arrows Ltd, Re (No 2) [1992] CA Transcript No 0563; affg [1992] BCLC 1176.
Arrows Ltd, Re (No 3) [1992] BCLC 555.
Atherton, Re [1912] 2 KB 251.
Barlow Clowes Gilt Managers Ltd v Mitchell (31 July 1990, unreported), Ch D.
Burmah Oil Co Ltd v Bank of England [1979] 3 All ER 700, [1980] AC 1090, HL.
Company’s application, Re a [1989] 2 All ER 248, [1989] Ch 477.
Continental Reinsurance Corp (UK) Ltd v Pine Top Insurance Ltd [1986] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 8, CA.
Conway v Rimmer [1968] 1 All ER 874, [1968] AC 910, HL.
Crompton (Alfred) Amusement Machines Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs (No 2) [1973] 2 All ER 1169, [1974] AC 405, HL.
Page 865 of [1993] 3 All ER 861
D v National Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children [1977] 1 All ER 589, [1978] AC 171, HL.
Dubai Bank Ltd v Galadari (1989) 5 BCC 722.
Hall, Ex p, re Cooper (1882) 19 Ch D 580, CA.
Hercules Insurance Co, Re, Pugh and Sharman’s Case (1872) LR 13 Eq 566.
Learoyd v Halifax Joint Stock Banking Co [1893] 1 Ch 686.
Levitt (Jeffrey S) Ltd, Re [1992] 2 All ER 509, [1992] Ch 457.
London and Northern Bank Ltd, Re, Haddock’s Case, Hoyle’s Case [1902] 2 Ch 73, CA.
Macmillan Inc v Bishopsgate Investment Trust plc [1993] 1 WLR 837.
Marcel v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 1 All ER 72, [1992] Ch 225, CA.
North Australian Territory Co v Goldsborough Mort & Co [1893] 2 Ch 381, CA.
Norwich Equitable Fire Insurance Co, Re (1884) 27 Ch D 515, CA.
Norwich Pharmacal Co v Customs and Excise Comrs [1973] 2 All ER 943, [1974] AC 133, HL.
O (disclosure order), Re [1991] 1 All ER 330, [1991] 2 QB 520, CA.
Paget, Re, ex p Official Receiver [1927] 2 Ch 85, [1927] All ER Rep 465, CA.
Pergamon Press Ltd, Re [1970] 3 All ER 535, [1971] Ch 388, CA.
Polly Peck International plc v Nadir [1992] BCLC 746.
Price Waterhouse (a firm) v BCCI Holdings (Luxembourg) SA [1992] BCLC 583.
R v Clowes [1992] 3 All ER 440, CCC.
R v Director of Serious Fraud Office, ex p Maxwell (6 October 1992, unreported), DC.
R v Erdheim [1896] 2 QB 260, [1895–9] All ER Rep 610, CCR.
R v Kansal [1992] 3 All ER 844, [1993] QB 244, CA.
R v Seelig [1991] 4 All ER 429, [1992] 1 WLR 148, CA.
Rogers v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, Gaming Board for Great Britain v Rogers [1972] 2 All ER 1057, [1973] AC 388, HL.
Science Research Council v Nassé [1979] 3 All ER 673, [1980] AC 1028, HL.
W v Egdell [1990] 1 All ER 835, [1990] Ch 359, CA.
Williams (Rex) Leisure plc, Re [1993] 2 All ER 741.
Cases referred to in judgments in Re Bishopsgate Investment Management LtdBank of England v Riley [1992] 1 All ER 769, [1992] Ch 475, [1992] 2 WLR 840, CA.
Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1, [1992] 2 WLR 991, CA.
London United Investments plc, Re [1992] 2 All ER 842, [1992] Ch 578, [1992] 2 WLR 850, CA.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76, [1982] AC 380, [1981] 2 WLR 668, HL.
Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456, [1993] AC 1, [1992] 3 WLR 66, HL.
Cases referred to in judgments in Re Headington Investments LtdBishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1, [1992] 2 WLR 991, CA.
Esal (Commodities) Ltd, Re (No 2) [1990] BCC 708.
Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 3 All ER 617, CA.
Poulson (J G L) (a bankrupt), Re, ex p Granada Television Ltd v Maudling [1976] 2 All ER 1020, [1976] 1 WLR 1023, DC.
R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577, [1993] 1 WLR 619, CA.
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Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76, [1982] AC 380, [1981] 2 WLR 668, HL.
Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456, [1993] AC 1, [1992] 3 WLR 66, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments in Re Headington Investments LtdCompany, Re a (No 0013629 of 1991) (24 July 1992, unreported), Ch D.
R v Clowes [1992] 3 All ER 440, CCC.
R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 1) [1992] 1 All ER 108, [1991] 1 WLR 281, DC.
Interlocutory appeal and applications for leave to appeal Re Arrows Ltd (No 4)
The Director of the Serious Fraud Office appealed with leave of the judge from the order of Vinelott J ([1993] BCLC 424) made on 10 November 1992 whereby he required the Director to give an undertaking (1) not to use the transcripts of the examinations of and affirmations supplied by Muhammed Naviede to the liquidators of Arrows Ltd, Nigel James Hamilton and William Scott Martin, under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986 or any copies thereof in evidence against Mr Naviede save in the circumstances specified in s 2(8)(a) and (b) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 and (2) to procure a similar undertaking from any person to whom he supplied such documents before he would direct the liquidators to release the same to the Director. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Roger Kaye QC and Richard Ritchie (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Serious Fraud Office.
Matthew Collings (instructed by Burton Copeland) for Mr Naviede.
John Jarvis QC and Ewan McQuater (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for the liquidators.
A W H Charles (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry.
Re Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd and another
The applicant, Larry Trachtenberg, applied for leave to appeal from the order of Vinelott J made on 10 February 1993 whereby upon the undertaking of the Director of the Serious Fraud Office that (1) he would not use the transcripts of examinations of the applicant conducted pursuant to s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986 save in the circumstances specified in s 2(8)(a) and (b) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 and (2) he would procure an undertaking in the same terms from any party to whom he supplied the transcripts it was directed that the liquidators, Ian McIsaac and Roger Arthur Powdrill, should comply with any notice served pursuant to s 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 by the Director of the Serious Fraud Office. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Michael Hill QC, James Richardson and Stephen Moverley Smith (instructed by Russell Jones & Walker) for Mr Trachtenberg.
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Mary Arden QC and Kathryn Thirlwall (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Serious Fraud Office.
Re Headington Investments Ltd
The applicant, Kevin Francis Herbert Maxwell, applied for leave to appeal against the order of Vinelott J made on 10 February 1993 whereby it was ordered that upon the Director of the Serious Fraud Office giving certain undertakings the liquidators of Headington Investments Ltd, John Andrew Talbot, Martin Fishman, Anthony William Brierly, Murdoch Lang McKillop, Iain Thomas Watters, Andrew Mark Homan, Colin Graham Bird, Johnathon Guy Anthony Phillips, Neil Cooper, Ian McIsaac, Robert Wilson and Roger Powdrill, should comply with any notice served pursuant to s 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 in respect of transcripts of interviews relating to the applicant. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
R Alun Jones QC and Clare Montgomery (instructed by Peters & Peters) for Mr Maxwell.
Mary Arden QC and Kathryn Thirlwall (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Serious Fraud Office.
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the application would be dismissed for reasons to be given later.
Cur adv vult
7 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
RE ARROWS LTD (No 4)
At the conclusion of the argument the court announced that the application would be dismissed for reasons to be given later.
DILLON LJ. The court has before it an appeal, by leave of the judge, by the Director of the Serious Fraud Office from an order of Vinelott J made on 10 November 1992 (see [1993] BCLC 424). That was an order made by the judge on an application by the liquidators of Arrows Ltd (which is in compulsory liquidation) under s 168(3) of the Insolvency Act 1986 seeking directions and a determination whether and if so how the liquidators should deal with the transcripts of the examination of the respondent, Mr Naviede, under s 236 of that Act, in consequence of the receipt by the liquidators of a letter from the Director of the Serious Fraud Office requesting copies of the transcripts. The liquidators had been directed by an earlier order of Millett J to make such an application under s 168(3) on receipt of any request or demand by the Serious Fraud Office for copies of the transcripts.
The order of the judge directed that the liquidators release and disclose the transcripts and certain affirmations made by Mr Naviede in the course of his examination under s 236 to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office upon the Director undertaking (1) that he will not use the transcripts or affirmations or any copies thereof in evidence against Mr Naviede save in the circumstances specified in s 2(8) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 and (2) that he will procure an undertaking in the same terms as (1) from any party to whom he supplies such transcripts or affirmations. But the order further provided that the undertakings
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of the Director should cease to have effect in the event of a successful appeal by the Director against the judge’s order. The present appeal is therefore an appeal against the exaction by the judge of the undertakings.
To understand the undertakings it is necessary to look at provisions in the Criminal Justice Act 1987.
Section 1 of that Act constituted the Serious Fraud Office, provided for the appointment of the Director and prescribed his functions. Section 2 provides for investigations by the Director. In particular, sub-s (2) provides:
‘The Director may by notice in writing require the person whose affairs are to be investigated (“the person under investigation”) or any other person whom he has reason to believe has relevant information to … answer questions or otherwise furnish information with respect to any matter relevant to the investigation.’
Subsection (3) provides:
‘The Director may by notice in writing require the person under investigation or any other person to produce … any specified documents which appear to the Director to relate to any matter relevant to the investigation or any documents of a specified description which appear to him so to relate …’
Subsection (8) provides:
‘A statement by a person in response to a requirement imposed by virtue of this section may only be used in evidence against him—(a) on a prosecution for an offence under subsection (14) below; or (b) on a prosecution for some other offence where in giving evidence he makes a statement inconsistent with it.’
Subsection (14) there mentioned is not relevant to the present case. Subsection (9) preserves legal professional privilege and sub-s (10) contains special provisions as to bankers’ obligations of confidence.
Section 3(3) of the 1987 Act provides:
‘Where any information is subject to an obligation of secrecy imposed by or under any enactment other than an enactment contained in the Taxes Management Act 1970, the obligation shall not have effect to prohibit the disclosure of that information to any person in his capacity as a member of the Serious Fraud Office …’
Section 236(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 provides:
‘The court may, on the application of the office-holder [which includes the liquidators in the present case], summon to appear before it—(a) any officer of the company [in question], (b) any person known or suspected to have in his possession any property of the company or supposed to be indebted to the company, or (c) any person whom the court thinks capable of giving information concerning the promotion, formation, business, dealings, affairs or property of the company.’
Section 237(4) provides:
‘Any person who appears or is brought before the court under section 236 or this section may be examined on oath, either orally or (except in Scotland)
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by interrogatories, concerning the company or the matters mentioned in section 236(2)(c).’
By s 236(3) the person summoned under 236(2) may be required to submit an affidavit (or an affirmation) to the court or to produce documents.
In Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1 this court held that a person summoned to appear before the court under s 236 could not rely on the privilege against self-incrimination as an excuse for refusing to answer questions put to him in the course of his examination. Beyond that any statement made by a person during his examination under s 236 (or other provisions of the 1986 Act) is admissible in evidence against him in any proceedings whether criminal or civil (see s 433).
I should refer next to the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925. Rule 9 deals with examination under s 236. Rule 9.5 is concerned with the record of any such examination, and provides as follows:
‘Record of examination
(1) Unless the court otherwise directs, the written record of the respondent’s examination, and any answer given by him to interrogatories, and any affidavits submitted by him in compliance with an order of the court under the applicable section, shall not be filed in court
(2) The written record, answers and affidavits shall not be open to inspection, without an order of the court, by any person other than—(a) the applicant for an order under the applicable section, or (b) any person who could have applied for such an order in respect of the affairs of the same insolvent.
(3) Paragraph (2) applies also to so much of the court file as shows the grounds of the application for an order under the applicable section and to any copy of proposed interrogatories.
(4) The court may from time to time give directions as to the custody and inspection of any documents to which this Rule applies, and as to the furnishing of copies of, or extracts from, such documents.’
I should record for completeness that s 235 of the 1986 Act imposes an obligation on various classes of persons, including those who are or have at any time been officers of the company and those who are in the employment of the company to give to the office-holder such information concerning the company and its promotion, formation, business, dealings, affairs or property as the office-holder may reasonably require and to attend on the office-holder at such times as the latter may reasonably require. Under r 7.20(1)(c) of the 1986 rules the court may make such orders as it thinks necessary for the enforcement of obligations falling on any person in accordance with s 235. So far as I am aware there was no express statutory antecedent of s 235. But for obvious reasons, it has for a very long time been the practice of the court not to order the private examination of a person under s 236 if it appears that that person is willing to co-operate and supply whatever information is sought informally, ie now under s 235. In fact in Mr Naviede’s case we are not concerned with any questioning under s 235; the only questioning of him was under s 236.
There have been suggestions, for instance in the skeleton arguments of the liquidators, that a distinction ought to be drawn, in relation to public interest immunity, between a formal private examination under s 236 and informal questioning under s 235. For my part, I see no such distinction. The informal questioning, under s 235, is backed by the sanction in r 7.20(1)(c), and informal
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questioning is and always has been subject to the threat, express or implicit, that if the person being questioned does not co-operate there will be an application to the court by the office-holder for the formal examination of that person under s 236.
Given therefore that the transcripts of Mr Naviede’s examination under s 236 and the affirmations he made are admissible evidence against him in the criminal proceedings now pending against him, I find it surprising that the Chancery court should be invited to restrict the use of that evidence in the criminal court. The starting point, in my judgment, is the statement by Lord Wilberforce in Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76 at 81, [1982] AC 380 at 442:
‘But I cannot accept that a civil court has any power to decide in a manner which would bind a criminal court that evidence of any kind is admissible or inadmissible in that court.’
A fortiori the civil court has no power to decide to what extent evidence which would be by statute admissible in criminal proceedings should be allowed to be used.
In reliance on that principle this court in A T & T Istel Ltd v Tully [1992] 2 All ER 28, [1992] QB 315 refused to include in a Mareva injunction against the defendants which provided for disclosure a condition that no disclosure made in compliance with the order should be used as evidence in the prosecution of any offence alleged to have been committed by the person required to make the disclosure. The actual decision of this court in A T & T Istel Ltd v Tully was overruled by the House of Lords (see [1992] 3 All ER 523, [1993] AC 45) but that was only on the very special ground that the Crown Prosecution Service had, by a letter before the hearing in this court, intimated that they had no objection to the proposed condition in the circumstances of that particular case. Lord Templeman said in the House of Lords on this topic ([1992] 3 All ER 523 at 532, [1993] AC 45 at 56): ‘I agree that the Crown Prosecution Service cannot be bound against their wishes.’
Section 31 of the Theft Act 1968 contains a provision that a person shall not be excused, by reason that to do so might incriminate him, from answering any question put to that person in certain forms of civil proceeding, but it is also provided that no statement or admission made by a person in answering such a question shall be admissible in evidence against that person in proceedings for an offence under the 1968 Act. Many judges have expressed the wish that s 31 could be extended to other proceedings relating to property so that, as Lord Russell of Killowen put it in Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76 at 86, [1982] AC 380 at 448, the privilege against self-incrimination would be removed while at the same time preventing the use in criminal proceedings of statements which otherwise have been privileged: see also per Browne-Wilkinson V-C in Sociedade Nacional de Combustiveis de Angola UEE v Lundqvist [1990] 3 All ER 283 at 302–303, [1991] 2 QB 310 at 338 and in Tate Access Floors Inc v Boswell [1990] 3 All ER 303 at 315–316, [1991] Ch 512 at 532 and per Lord Donaldson of Lymington MR in A T & T Istel Ltd v Tully [1992] 2 All ER 28 at 36, [1992] QB 315 at 325. But no such general provision has yet been enacted by Parliament, and no one has suggested that there is power in the civil courts to imply or impose a provision such as that in s 31 of the 1968 Act so as to fetter the use in the criminal courts of evidence given in civil proceedings where s 31 or a comparable limited statutory provision does not apply.
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I cannot see, therefore, any basis on which the learned judge could have imposed the restrictions in s 2(8) on the use by the Serious Fraud Office of the transcripts of Mr Naviede’s examination and affirmations supplied to them by the liquidators. Moreover I do not see how the judge could have had power to exact undertakings from the Director of the Serious Fraud Office, in order to achieve a condition which he had no power to impose. On the plain wording of s 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 the liquidators are ‘persons’ within the meaning of sub-s (3) and the transcripts and affirmations are ‘documents’ within that subsection which the liquidators, as such ‘persons’ can be required to produce.
I would add that in the course of the argument on the application in relation to s 2 of the 1987 Act, which immediately followed the argument in the present case, we were referred to passages in Hansard recording statements by ministers in the course of the parliamentary debates on the Criminal Justice Bill. It is there made clear in a speech of the Earl of Caithness, the minister who had charge of the Bill in the House of Lords, that in introducing the inhibitions in cl 2(8) of the Bill on using compulsorily obtained information in court against the provider of that information the government had deliberately not followed the precedent in companies’ legislation and the Financial Services Act 1986 under which statements made to Department of Trade and Industry inspectors in the exercise of their powers are admissible as evidence of those making them (see 487 HL Official Report (5th series) cols 577–578 (12 May 1987)).
It is urged for Mr Naviede that the justification for the undertakings required by the judge can be found in the confidentiality of information obtained under ss 235 or 236, in a public interest immunity referable to the importance of promoting the smooth operation and efficiency of the process of company liquidation, or in legal professional privilege, coupled in each case with the need for the liquidators to obtain an order of the court, either under r 9.5 of the 1986 rules or as a result of the earlier order of Millett J. It is said that the need for the liquidator to apply to the court gives the court a discretion from which all else may flow.
I propose to deal first with the suggestion that legal professional privilege is relevant.
Documents protected by legal professional privilege do not, of course, have to be produced under s 2 of the 1987 Act. It is said that the transcripts of Mr Naviede’s examination under s 236 have that privilege because the object of the examination was to enable the liquidators to get evidence to use against Mr Naviede in civil proceedings to recover money from him for Arrows Ltd.
But if that is so, the privilege is a privilege of the liquidators and not of Mr Naviede. But the liquidators do not claim to invoke any such privilege. On the contrary they agree with Vinelott J that it cannot be said that the dominant purpose for which the transcripts came into existence was that of obtaining legal advice or aiding in the conduct of litigation as required by the test in Waugh v British Railways Board [1979] 2 All ER 1169, [1980] AC 521. Therefore there is no such privilege. I see no reason to differ from that assessment that the transcripts are not privileged, and no reason anyhow to compel the liquidators to invoke any privilege for the bye-purpose of protecting Mr Naviede, who has no such privilege. The liquidators further state, in the skeleton argument of their counsel, Mr John Jarvis QC and Mr McQuater, that ‘the liquidators have difficulty in seeing how an assertion by them of such a privilege would assist this liquidation’. I agree.
I pass therefore to the questions of confidentiality and the suggested public interest immunity.
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There is no doubt that information given to office-holders in the course of an examination under s 236 is, in certain respects, confidential. This is underlined by the fact that under r 9.5 the transcript is, unless the court otherwise orders, not to be placed on the court file, which is open to public inspection. There must be the same degree of confidentiality in relation to statements given to office-holders informally under s 235. But since statements made to office-holders under either of those sections are admissible in evidence against the maker of the statement in any proceedings, that degree of confidentiality cannot override the right of the office-holders or prosecuting authorities to use the statements in that way. On the contrary such confidentiality as there is is overridden by the section which makes the statements admissible in evidence against the maker of the statements: see London and County Securities Ltd v Nicholson [1980] 3 All ER 861, [1980] 1 WLR 948 per Browne-Wilkinson J. (That case was actually concerned with statements made to inspectors appointed by the Department of Trade and Industry, but s 434(5) of the Companies Act 1985 in respect of answers to inspectors is closely analogous to s 433 of the Insolvency Act 1986, and the original decision in R v Harris (Richard) [1970] 3 All ER 746, [1970] 1 WLR 1252, that answers to inspectors are admissible in criminal proceedings as evidence against the person who gave the answers, was founded on statutory provisions in the Companies Act 1948 which are very similar to s 237(4) of the 1986 Act.)
Mere confidentiality thus not being enough it is suggested that there is a public interest immunity, founded on the public interest that liquidations should be conducted speedily and efficiently, which warrants excluding statements under s 236 from evidence in subsequent proceedings, or at any rate excluding them except under safeguards comparable to those in s 2(8) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 even though s 433 of the Insolvency Act 1986 and s 434 of the Companies Act 1985 provide no such safeguards.
The reasoning is that persons examined under s 236 are more likely to be co-operative and to give full and truthful answers to the office-holders if they believe that their answers will be treated as confidential and will thus not be used against them in any prosecution. Consequently it appears that some office-holders make a practice of giving, or giving if asked, assurances of confidentiality to persons who are being examined under s 236.
The opinions of insolvency practitioners appear to differ on this question.
The liquidators of Arrows Ltd state that they do not consider that the efficient conduct of liquidations will be adversely affected if there is perceived to be a risk that transcripts of interviews conducted under the compulsory powers in s 236 may come into the hands of the Serious Fraud Office and they further state that the court may allow disclosure of the transcripts and affirmations in the present case (procured under s 236) to the Serious Fraud Office without prejudicing the liquidators’ position. They do suggest that a distinction might be drawn between examination under s 236 and questioning under s 235, but with that, for the reasons indicated briefly earlier, I disagree. The liquidators of Arrows Ltd also say that they are neutral on the question whether the undertakings required by the judge should or should not be imposed.
By contrast, the office-holders in various of the companies associated with the late Robert Maxwell assert in the joint statement of submissions put forward by their counsel for the purposes of applications heard immediately after the argument on this appeal, that there is an important public interest in the administration of insolvencies generally, and that material obtained by the use of or under the threat of s 236 proceedings ought not to be authorised to be used by
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persons other than the office-holders unless the use proposed to be made of the material is within the purposes of the statutory scheme applicable to the insolvency, ie it must assist the beneficial management of the insolvent estate.
The Maxwell office-holders refer to a passage in the speech of Lord Diplock in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1980] 1 WLR 627 at 637 where he said:
‘Even without the Minister’s certificate I should not have needed evidence to satisfy me that the likelihood of success in an inquiry of this kind in discovering the truth as to what happened is greatly facilitated if those persons who know what happened come forward to volunteer information rather than waiting to be identified by the inquiry itself as likely to possess relevant information and having it extracted from them by question and answer. Nor would I need any evidence to satisfy me that without an assurance of complete confidentiality information is less likely to be volunteered …’
That was said in the context of a claim by a public company to inspect documents in respect of which public interest immunity was claimed by the Lord Privy Seal on the ground that they had been prepared for the purposes of an inquiry by Mr Bingham QC (as he then was) and another, who had been appointed to conduct the inquiry by the Secretary of State for Foreign and Commonwealth Affairs pursuant to the Southern Rhodesia (United Nations Sanctions) (No 2) Order 1968, SI 1968/1020—obviously a different field of law.
The Maxwell office-holders also asserted that by imposing the undertakings—and similar undertakings were required by the judge as a condition of the disclosure to the Serious Fraud Office of the transcripts of s 236 examinations in relation to Maxwell companies—the judge has struck a reasonable balance between the public interest that fraud should be prosecuted and the public interest in the speedy and efficient conduct of liquidations, in that the readiness of persons questioned to talk openly to office-holders under s 236 or otherwise will not be impaired if they know that their answers can only be used against them in a prosecution in the circumstances specified in s 2(8) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987.
By way of further contrast, counsel for the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry, who was given leave to intervene on the hearing of this appeal, has provided us with a very helpful skeleton argument which draws attention to the wide scope of the office-holders’ powers and duties, and stresses the importance of ensuring the efficient, thorough and fair investigation and prosecution of crime.
Obviously the immediate purpose of a s 236 examination is to enable the office-holders to get information, and where appropriate documents, in relation to the company’s affairs, sc the promotion, formation, business, dealings, affairs and property of the company as set out in s 236(2). It was held by the House of Lords in British and Commonwealth Holdings plc (joint administrators) v Spicer & Oppenheim (a firm) [1992] 4 All ER 876, [1993] AC 426 that the scope of the office-holder’s powers extends to anything reasonably required by the office-holder to carry out his functions, and is not limited to reconstituting the state of knowledge the company should have possessed before the office-holder was appointed.
The main objects of the office-holder in conducting a s 236 examination are likely to be to see if it is possible to trace and get in further assets of the company and to see if it is possible to establish money claims for the benefit of the company against the person currently being examined or against some one else. Such
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money claims may have no criminal implications, eg a claim for damages for professional negligence against a company’s auditors. But other claims, particularly against directors, may have serious criminal implications, eg claims against directors for fraudulent trading, theft of the company’s moneys or for damages for conspiracy to defraud the company. Any director or other person being examined will know that his answers may be used in evidence against him in any civil proceedings brought against him by the office-holder on behalf of the company. Nobody would expect such confidentiality as there is in a s 236 examination to extend to prevent that. Indeed the confidentiality is not for the protection of the person being examined but for the protection of the office-holder. The particular purpose of the provision in r 9.5 that the transcripts of s 236 examinations are not to be placed on the court file is, I apprehend, to ensure that a person whom the office-holder suspects the company may have a claim against, eg for fraud on the company or theft, is not to be able by searching the court file and reading the transcripts of the examinations of other persons to see how strong the office-holder’s case may be. Each person examined will of course have a copy of the transcripts, which he will have signed, of his own examination. But any further disclosure by the office-holder, eg to a director who has been examined under s 236, will follow the ordinary course in civil proceedings, by discovery, exchange of witness statements and so forth, if the office-holder brings civil proceedings against him.
Since that is the practical object of a s 236 examination from the office-holder’s point of view, Millett J deduced a principle which he formulated in Re Esal (Commodities) Ltd (No 2) [1990] BCC 708 at 723 and restated and elaborated in Re Barlow Clowes Gilt Managers Ltd [1991] 4 All ER 385 at 392, [1992] Ch 208 at 217 that—
‘where leave is sought to make use of material obtained by the use or under the threat of sec. 268 [of the Companies Act 1948, now s 236 of the Insolvency Act] proceedings, then, save in exceptional circumstances, leave should be granted only if the use proposed to be made is within the purpose of the statutory procedure, that is to say, that the use proposed to be made of the material is to assist the beneficial winding-up of the company.’
Millett J regarded that as the overriding principle against which any allegedly countervailing public interest had to be weighed. In reliance on the decisions of Millett J the same view has been taken by other judges of the Chancery Division sitting at first instance including Vinelott J in the present case, and it is the view which, as indicated above, the Maxwell office-holders support and seek to uphold, as does Mr Collings on behalf of Mr Naviede.
In my judgment, however, the approach of Millett J cannot be a valid universal test because it wholly overlooks the fact that office-holders are by statute subject to obligations which are part of the statutory regulatory process over companies and company directors. These are obligations imposed in the public interest and are not ancillary to the supposedly overriding purpose of assisting the beneficial winding up of the individual company. I refer to instances below. These obligations cannot be subject to any balancing jurisdiction or dispensing power in the judges of the Chancery Division.
In addition, the approach of Millett J, in my judgment, overlooks the fact that by s 433 of the Insolvency Act 1986 Parliament has made statements made by a person during his examination under s 236 admissible in evidence against him in criminal as well as civil proceedings. With all respect to Vinelott J I cannot accept the reconciliation suggested by him between s 433 and the approach of Millett J,
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viz (in effect) that s 433 makes the statements made in s 236 examinations admissible in evidence in criminal proceedings if and in so far as the Chancery Division in its discretion allows the prosecution to use such evidence in the criminal proceedings and subject to such conditions as the Chancery Division may impose. I find it inconceivable that Parliament, which has by the 1986 Act, as was held in Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell, impliedly abrogated the privilege against self-incrimination where a person is examined under s 236, and which has similarly by s 424(5) of the Companies Act 1985 impliedly abrogated that privilege where a person is examined by inspectors appointed by the Department of Trade and Industry, should in the former case, though not apparently in the latter, have impliedly given the Chancery Division, and not merely the criminal court, a discretion over the use of the transcripts of the examinations in criminal proceedings.
I turn to the obligations of the office-holders under the regulatory procedures.
One of the most important is imposed by s 218 of the Insolvency Act 1986, which provides, so far as material, as follows:
‘Prosecution of delinquent officers and members of company.—(1) If it appears to the court in the course of a winding up by the court that any past or present officer, or any member, of the company has been guilty of any offence in relation to the company for which he is criminally liable, the court may (either on the application of a person interested in the winding up or of its own motion) direct the liquidator to refer the matter to the prosecuting authority.
(2) “The prosecuting authority” means—(a) in the case of a winding up in England and Wales, the Director of Public Prosecutions, and (b) in the case of a winding up in Scotland, the Lord Advocate.
(3) If in the case of a winding up by the court in England and Wales it appears to the liquidator, not being the official receiver, that any past or present officer of the company, or any member of it, has been guilty of an offence in relation to the company for which he is criminally liable, the liquidator shall report the matter to the official receiver.
(4) If it appears to the liquidator in the course of a voluntary winding up that any past or present officer of the company, or any member of it, has been guilty of an offence in relation to the company for which he is criminally liable, he shall—(a) forthwith report the matter to the prosecuting authority, and (b) furnish to that authority such information and give to him such access to and facilities for inspecting and taking copies of documents (being information or documents in the possession or under the control of the liquidator and relating to the matter in question) as the authority requires …’
This is supported by s 219(3) and that is backed by a power for the prosecuting authority to apply to the court for an order under s 219(4) to enforce compliance.
Section 218 is widely drawn and the expression ‘offence in relation to the company’ would include not only offences under the 1986 Act itself, but also offences such as theft of the company’s moneys contrary to the Theft Act, and conspiracy to defraud the company.
I have no doubt that if a liquidator in a compulsory liquidation reports a matter to the Official Receiver under s 218(3), the Official Receiver would be entitled to refer that matter to the relevant prosecuting authority although that is not spelt out in the section. It would be nonsense to hold that the prosecuting authority
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can get the relevant material if the company is in voluntary liquidation, because s 218(4) expressly says so, but could not get it if the company is in compulsory liquidation because it is to go to the Official Receiver who is not expressly authorised to pass it on.
It was also drawn to our attention that when the Serious Fraud Office was created by the Criminal Justice Act 1987, the opportunity was not taken to amend s 218(4) by adding a reference to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office as an alternative to the Director of Public Prosecutions. But there is no significance in that, since in an appropriate case the Director of Public Prosecutions can pass on any material he may receive under the subsection to the Serious Fraud Office. If that were not so, there would be a strange anomaly between the law of England and the law of Scotland, in that the Lord Advocate, who is designated in s 218 as originally drawn as the prosecuting authority in Scotland for the purposes of the section, happens also to be the person charged with giving directions in relation to serious fraud in Scotland under s 51 of the Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act 1987.
Apart from s 218 there are other obligations on office-holders to provide information to the Official Receiver or to the Secretary of State. In particular there are obligations on office-holders under the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 and the Insolvent Companies (Reports on Conduct of Directors) (No 2) Rules 1986, SI 1986/2134, to make reports and supply information and produce documents to the Secretary of State for Trade and Industry where it appears that a disqualification order ought to be made, or the Secretary of State is considering exercising his functions under the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986. That Act provides a much needed protection for the public against persons continuing to act as directors when their past conduct has shown them to be unfit. I cannot conceive that the Chancery Division has any power to order office-holders not to supply information or make reports under the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, or only to supply it on undertakings by the department limiting the use of the information, on the ground that directors would be more forthcoming in their answers to liquidators if they knew that their answers were given in confidence and could not be used to found an application for their disqualification under that Act.
All these various obligations of liquidators or other office-holders to supply information or documents for regulatory purposes cannot, in my judgment, be curtailed by the court under the heading of public interest immunity. They are obligations imposed by the relevant statutes according to their terms, and the court has, in my judgment, in such cases no relevant discretion.
The liquidators’ clear obligations under s 2(2) and (3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 are, like their obligations under the Insolvency Act 1986 and the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, obligations in respect of which the court has no relevant discretion. I can see no distinction.
I regard r 9.5 as mere machinery as to how the transcripts in the possession of the court are to be kept. It is not ‘an obligation of secrecy imposed by or under any enactment’ for the purposes of s 3(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 and is thus not overridden by that subsection. But equally it does not enable the court to deny the Serious Fraud Office, or other prosecuting authority, anything that the Serious Fraud Office or other prosecuting authority is entitled to by statute for the investigation or prosecution of crime. If indeed the Serious Fraud Office was wanting to inspect the actual transcripts held by the court (instead of asking the liquidators to supply the documents the liquidators hold) there would as a matter of mechanics have to be an application to the court. But that should be granted automatically as in Re Poulson (J G L) (a bankrupt), ex p Granada Television
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Ltd v Maudling [1976] 2 All ER 1020, [1976] 1 WLR 1023; there is a distinction, as pointed out there, between making the documents in the possession of the court available to the Crown for the investigation or prosecution of crime, and making them available to an individual or company for private ends of that individual or company.
For my part, I consider that because of the powers of enforcement that back up s 236 there should be no practical difficulty in securing the co-operation of the person being questioned on examination under s 236. There will be the less difficulty for office-holders as the scope and force of the legislation comes to be more widely appreciated in the light of the present decision and other recent decisions of this court and recent decisions of the House of Lords. Plainly office-holders should not give assurances of confidentiality to persons they are about to question which are inconsistent with the other statutory obligations of the office-holders, including those which would arise under s 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 on demand by the Serious Fraud Office. As I see it, any assurance given by an office-holder to, eg a director of a company, which if observed would prevent the office-holder from complying with a statutory obligation must to that extent be invalid.
Finally, it was urged on us that though the privilege against self-incrimination had been abrogated in relation to examinations under s 236, the accused person’s right to silence had not been abrogated in so far as it was represented by the fourth and sixth immunities listed by Lord Mustill in Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456 at 464, [1993] AC 1 at 30–31 viz:
‘(4) a specific immunity, possessed by accused persons undergoing trial from being compelled to give evidence, and from being compelled to answer questions put to them in the dock … (6) a specific immunity … possessed by accused persons undergoing trial, from having adverse comment made on any failure (a) to answer questions before the trial, or (b) to give evidence at the trial.’
But there is nothing, in an order making the transcripts of his examination, and his affirmations, available to the Serious Fraud Office, which interferes at all with these immunities of Mr Naviede’s. He can still elect, if he wishes, not to give evidence or answer questions at his trial, leaving it to the prosecution to prove their case if they can. The prosecution do not deprive an accused person—and I do not here particularly refer to Mr Naviede—of those immunities by putting forward cogent evidence against him such as might make it foolhardy for him to rely on the immunity.
For these reasons, I would allow this appeal and release the Director of the Serious Fraud Office from the undertakings which the judge required him to give.
STEYN LJ. Vinelott J defined the critical question to be decided as follows (see [1993] BCLC 424 at 432):
‘... whether the director [of the Serious Fraud Office] should be entitled to adduce them [the answers given by Mr Naviede in an examination under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986] in evidence otherwise than in the circumstances envisaged in s 2(8) of the [Criminal Justice Act 1987].’
The judge answered that question by ruling that the liquidators would only be allowed to produce the transcripts of Mr Naviede’s examination, conducted under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986, to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office if the Director undertook to treat those transcripts as if they were in fact
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governed by the provisions of s 2(8) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987. On this appeal, the question of law arises as to whether the judge was entitled to exact such an undertaking.
A lawful notice under s 2(8)
On 15 September 1992 the Director of the Serious Fraud Office gave notice to the liquidators to produce transcripts of the oral examination of Mr Naviede under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. That notice was given pursuant to s 2(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987. Section 2(3), so far as relevant, reads as follows:
‘The Director may by notice in writing require the person under investigation or any other person to produce at such place as may be specified in the notice and either forthwith or at such time as may be so specified any specified documents which appear to the Director to relate to any matter relevant to the investigation or any documents of a specified description which appear to him so to relate ...’
It is rightly conceded on behalf of Mr Naviede that the transcripts are ‘documents’ within the meaning of s 2(3): see British and Commonwealth Holdings plc (joint administrators) v Spicer & Oppenheim (a firm) [1992] 4 All ER 876 at 885, [1993] AC 426 at 439. It is also accepted that the Director could reasonably have taken the view that the transcripts relate to matters relevant to his investigation of the affairs of Mr Naviede. Prima facie the notice given by the Director to the liquidators under s 2(3) was lawful.
Section 2(8): the context
The judge founded his decision on s 2(8) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987. This provision refers to an examination by the Director under s 2(2). It plainly does not relate to a notice to produce documents under s 2(3). Section 2(8) reads as follows:
‘A statement by a person in response to a requirement imposed by virtue of this section may only be used in evidence against him—(a) on a prosecution for an offence under subsection (14) below; or (b) on a prosecution for some other offence where in giving evidence he makes a statement inconsistent with it.’
Section 2(14) makes it an offence for a person interviewed under s 2(2) knowingly or recklessly to make a false statement. In the present case the judge exacted an undertaking in the terms of s 2(8) as a pre-condition to allowing the release of transcripts of an examination under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986, to which s 2(8) does not by its terms apply.
Mr Collings for Mr Naviede submits that the Director is seeking to achieve indirectly a result which he cannot achieve directly if he exercised his power of questioning Mr Naviede under s 2(2) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987. Section 2(8) restricts the use of answers given in an examination under s 2(2) to two narrowly defined purposes, namely (a) in a prosecution for knowingly or recklessly giving false evidence and (b) by way of rebuttal of inconsistent evidence under oath. Subject to these two exceptions answers given by a person in an examination under s 2(2) may not be used by the prosecution at a criminal trial. That is what s 2(8) says and it says no more.
Mr Collings submits that the Director is seeking to avoid the limitation of s 2(8) by calling for the production of the transcripts of Mr Naviede’s examination under s 236 of the 1986 Act instead of conducting his own examination under
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s 2(2) of the 1987 Act. Mr Collings says that the Director is using a ‘back door’ method.
It is necessary to assess what this argument seeks to prove. It is always possible that a statutory power might be abused. If an abuse of power is established the exercise of the power is invalid: see Padfield v Minister of Agriculture Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997. It may well be that restraint must be shown by the courts in reviewing the conduct of prosecuting authorities since the criminal justice system ought to provide its own protections. Nevertheless if, in the present case, the power under s 2(2) had in truth been abused by the Director, the notice under s 2(3) would be invalid. There is, however, no suggestion of an abuse of power in this case. Mr Collings concedes that. My provisional conclusion is therefore confirmed: the notice served under s 2(3) was lawful.
What then is the relevance of the argument that the Director is trying to do achieve indirectly what, in law, is forbidden under s 2(8)? The argument appears to be that it is a strange and unfair result that the Director should be able, by the use of his powers under s 2(2), to call for transcripts of Mr Naviede’s interviews to achieve what the Director cannot achieve by his own examination under s 2(2), viz the right to adduce in evidence Mr Naviede’s admissions as part of the prosecution case. The argument suggests that the court ought not to countenance such a result unless it is unavoidable. In my view there is nothing strange or unfair about the result. A common feature of examinations under s 2(2) of the 1987 Act and under s 236 of the 1986 Act is that the common law privilege against self-incrimination is excluded: see Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1 and Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456, [1993] AC 1. Procedurally, however, there is a material distinction. The power entrusted to the Director, or his duly authorised subordinate, to question a person suspected of committing serious or complex fraud under s 2(2) is in truth akin to the general power of the police to question suspects. In modern times our law has been vigilant to protect subjects from abuses of police power. The procedural safeguards of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, and its Codes, which generally serve to protect the interests of a suspect, do not extend to a person questioned under s 2(2). Moreover, a suspect questioned under s 2(2) does not have the privilege against self-incrimination. In the light of these curtailments of a suspect’s ordinary rights, it is not altogether surprising that Parliament considered that the statement of a person questioned under s 2(2) ought not be led in evidence against him. The explanation of the restraint under s 2(8) lies in the fact that Parliament considered that in view of the differential treatment of persons suspected of committing serious or complex fraud, there must be a compensating safeguard, viz that the evidence of the interview under s 2(2) may not be led by the prosecution. It is a curb on a police power. On the other hand, an examination under s 236 takes place by an examiner appointed by the court and responsible to the High Court. In the present case the examiner was a judge. In all cases the examiner is a permanent or part-time judge who functions subject to the control of the High Court. The reason for the safeguard contained in s 2(8) is absent. This distinction does not by itself provide the answers to the critical questions in this case, but it does go some way towards explaining why there would be nothing inherently incongruous if the restriction under s 2(8) only applies in the circumstances defined in s 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, and not to admissions made in examinations under other statutory regimes.
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When Parliament created the Serious Fraud Office system in 1987, it did so against the background that parallel examinations may take place under a number of statutes. The following may be mentioned: ss 431 to 437 and 447 of the Companies Act 1985, ss 41 to 44 of the Banking Act 1987, s 44 of the Insurance Companies Act 1982 and ss 94, 105 and 177 to 178 of the Financial Services Act 1987. The scheme of these statutory provisions exclude the common law privilege against self-incrimination: see Re London United Investments plc [1992] 2 All ER 842, [1992] Ch 578 and Bank of England v Riley [1992] 1 All ER 769, [1992] Ch 475. It was self-evident that transcripts of all such examinations were potentially within the scope of s 2(3). That important fact could not have been overlooked in the drafting of s 2. Yet the procedural safeguard of s 2(8) was not made applicable to such examinations. This seems a cogent indication that Parliament considered that it was not necessary to extend the safeguard enshrined in s 2(8) beyond the limits of s 2. And this reasoning applies equally to examinations under the Insolvency Act 1986, namely examinations under s 235 (duty to co-operate with office holder), s 236 (inquiry into company’s dealings), s 290 (public examination of the bankrupt) and s 366 (inquiry into the bankrupt’s dealings). Section 2(3) plainly covers answers given in such examinations. Section 2(8) was not extended to such examinations. The matter could again not have been overlooked. It seems to me that the omission to extend the protection of s 2(8) to such cases is significant. The conclusion is inescapable; that the safeguard of s 2(8) was not intended to apply beyond the territory expressly assigned to it by Parliament.
Legal professional privilege
Given the fact that the notice under s 2(3) is lawful, it prima facie imposes a duty on the liquidators to produce the transcripts to the Director. There are two circumstances in which a person will be excused from complying with lawful notices under s 2(2) and (3) of the 1987 Act. The first is the case of legal professional privilege, which is expressly preserved in s 2(9). Applying the principles laid down in Waugh v British Railways Board [1979] 2 All ER 1169, [1980] AC 521 the judge ruled that it had not been shown that the dominant purpose of the examination was for the purpose of preparing for litigation. The judge observed that the privilege was that of the liquidators, who did not wish to raise it. The judge added that he could not see any reason why he should direct the liquidators to claim privilege.
Mr Collings recognised his difficulties but formally challenged the judge’s ruling. I will try to match his economy of words on this particular point. The judge is so obviously right on this point that it would serve no purpose to dignify what was said on behalf of Mr Naviede with further analysis.
Public interest immunity
The second case which might excuse a failure to comply with a valid notice under s 2(2) and (3) is public interest immunity. It is not mentioned in the 1987 Act. But there is no doubt about its potential applicability in criminal proceedings: see R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 1) [1992] 1 All ER 108 at 115–116, [1991] 1 WLR 281 at 288–289. On behalf of Mr Naviede reliance was placed on public interest immunity before the judge. The judge ruled against Mr Naviede on this point. By way of a respondent’s notice Mr Collings now seeks to resurrect the point before us. It is important to identify precisely the aspect of public interest on which Mr Collings relies. He puts forward a ‘class’ claim as opposed to a ‘contents’ claim. Mr Collings relies on observations of Millett J in
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Re Barlow Clowes Gilt Managers Ltd [1991] 4 All ER 385, [1992] Ch 208. Millett J explained why he took the view that there was an important public interest against disclosure of transcripts of voluntary interviews. In his view such disclosure would undermine the effectiveness of the liquidation. Mr Collings submits that if the transcripts are unconditionally released to the Director, and used against Mr Naviede at the criminal trial, the public interest in a free flow of information between officers of a company in liquidation and the liquidators will be eroded. He argues that the effectiveness of ss 235 and 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986 will be undermined.
In my judgment there are two clear answers to the submissions made on behalf of Mr Naviede. The first is a procedural point but, nevertheless, a matter of the first importance. It is well established that a civil court has no power to decide what evidence will be admissible at a criminal trial: see Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76 at 81, 84, [1982] AC 380 at 442, 446 per Lord Wilberforce and per Lord Fraser of Tullybelton. A civil court should not directly, or indirectly, impose restrictions on the use of evidence by prosecuting authorities without their consent: see A T & T Istel Ltd v Tully [1992] 3 All ER 523, [1993] AC 45. Similarly, the question whether public interest immunity would attach to the transcripts of Mr Naviede’s examinations under s 236, if the Director wishes to tender them in evidence at the criminal trial, is a matter exclusively for the judgment of the trial judge. On this simple basis I would rule that, as a matter of legal principle, we ought not to entertain the submission based on public interest immunity at all.
Secondly, and on substantive grounds, it is in my judgment clear that there is no public interest immunity which could preclude the prosecution from putting in evidence, subject to the trial judge’s discretion under ss 76 and 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, admissions made by Mr Naviede during the course of his examination under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. In my judgment the approach of Millett J in the Barlow Clowes case was too narrow. It is necessary to place the matter in context. There are a number of established categories of public interest immunity. The type of public interest invoked in the present case is based on an asserted public interest in protecting the free flow of information from officers of a company in liquidation to the liquidators. In criminal cases the closest analogy seems to be the immunity generally allowed in respect of informers (see R v Hennessey (1978) 68 Cr App R 419), information upon which a search warrant is based (see Taylor v Anderton (1986) Times, 21 October) and information about police surveillance sites (see R v Rankine [1986] 2 All ER 566, [1986] QB 861). These are, however, cases where the law allows an immunity from disclosure of police sources, in the fight against crime, in respect of information or assistance voluntarily provided to the police. The present case is different. Under s 235 (which must be read with r 7.20 of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925) and s 236 the officers of the company are obliged to answer questions. If they fail to do so, the sanctions of the law can be applied to them. The encouragement to co-operate is supplied not by an expectation of confidentiality, but by the compulsion of the law. In these circumstances an immunity is not needed to promote the effectiveness of examinations under ss 235 and 236.
There is, however, another insurmountable obstacle in the way of introducing a public interest immunity in this corner of the law. The law does not act in vain. There can be no public interest in preserving confidentiality in information which can routinely and legitimately become available to law enforcement agencies. Official receivers and liquidators are obliged to report information
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about the commission of offences to prosecuting authorities: see ss 218 and 219 of the Insolvency Act 1986. There is a corresponding duty under s 7 of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986. These statutory duties extend to information coming to the notice of official receivers and liquidators as a result of examinations under ss 235 and 236. Section 433 of the Insolvency Act 1986 renders transcripts of examinations under ss 235 and 236 admissible in criminal and civil proceedings against the examinee. Moreover, s 3(3) of the 1987 Act overrides, subject to one immaterial exception, all obligations of secrecy imposed by statute. On examination the particular public interest, put forward on behalf of Mr Naviede, evaporates. Indeed, the Insolvency Act 1986, and the Criminal Justice Act 1987, reflect an overriding public interest in the free flow of information from official receivers and liquidators to prosecuting authorities about the commission of offences.
In my judgment the claim to public interest immunity fails.
Reasonable excuse
Given the fact that neither legal professional privilege, nor public interest immunity, can avail Mr Naviede, it follows that the liquidators were under a duty under the provisions of s 2(3) to produce the transcripts to the Director. Section 2(13) provides a person with a defence to a criminal charge that he failed to comply with a notice under s 2(2) or (3) if he had a ‘reasonable excuse’ for his failure. That means that an excusable inability to produce the transcripts (eg due to the physical inability or accidental loss or destruction of the transcripts) provides an answer to the criminal charge: see Bank of England v Riley [1992] 1 All ER 769 at 774, [1992] Ch 475 at 482. But s 2(13) is plainly not a peg on which one can hang a general discretionary power in a judge to relieve a person from criminal liability under s 2(2). It follows that under the provisions of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, the liquidators are in this case under an absolute duty to comply with the duty imposed upon them by s 2(3).
The discretion under the Insolvency Act 1986
The question is: what is the foundation of the discretion which the judge purported to exercise? On behalf of Mr Naviede Mr Collings relies on the power of the High Court to give directions to liquidators. He relies on the express powers contained in s 168(3) of the Insolvency Act 1986, and on r 9.5 (4). He also relies on the inherent jurisdiction of the court to give directions to liquidators in their capacity as officers of the court. For my part I am willing to accept that the High Court has an extensive discretionary power to give directions to liquidators about the discharge of their statutory duties and functions.
Let me further assume that the order which the judge made was within his jurisdiction. On this supposition I would hold that if the judge was entitled to exact the relevant undertaking from the Director, he must have had a discretionary power to impose a corresponding condition. Moreover, if he had a power to impose such a condition, it seems to follow that he had a discretion to refuse to release the transcripts to the Director even if they contained most material information regarding the commission of offences by Mr Naviede. Mr Collings asserts that to be the position. The experienced counsel who appeared before us only knew of one case where a judge directed liquidators not to disclose information to prosecuting authorities. The case was apparently decided on rather special facts and cannot be regarded as enunciating any principle of law (see FMS Financial Management Services Ltd v FMS Nominees Ltd (5 June 1987, unreported) per Harman J). This relative absence of authority is not surprising.
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Moreover, in practice official receivers and liquidators apparently do not seek the directions of the court when considering whether they should report to prosecuting authorities. That position also seems unremarkable.
If it be assumed that the judge’s order was technically within his jurisdiction, it seems to me that there are a number of factors which militated against the order which the judge made. Official receivers and liquidators are obliged to report the commission of criminal offences by officers of the company to the prosecuting authorities: see ss 218 and 219. In other words, apart from their primary function of getting in the company’s property, liquidators are under a statutory duty to co-operate with prosecuting authorities. That duty entails providing the prosecuting authorities with evidence of the commission of offences, including offences disclosed by examinations under ss 235 and 236. Section 433 expressly renders admissible in civil and criminal proceedings answers given in examinations under ss 235 and 236. Having thus come into the public domain it would be idle to contend that the Director must ignore the existence of such evidence. Moreover, there are a number of other routes by which the transcripts might reach the Director of the Serious Fraud Office. Thus, the Secretary of State may require the liquidators, under s 7(4) of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, to furnish him with copies of transcripts of examinations in order to enable him to decide whether to exercise his powers under s 7. In that way the transcripts could come into the public domain. But even before that happens the Secretary of State would be fully entitled to send the transcripts to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office. Another route is for the Official Receiver to call for the transcripts and then to pass them on to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office. Cumulatively, these factors made it inappropriate for the judge to exact the undertaking modelled on s 2(8).
The critical factor in the judge’s reasoning was his desire to ensure that a potential defendant should receive a fair criminal trial. The judge relied on his discretionary power to give directions to liquidators. But it is important to bear in mind that the undertaking, which the judge required from the Director, is not referable to any legal duty of the Director or legal right of Mr Naviede. The judge used his power to give directions to liquidators in order to supplement the protections given to the subject by the criminal justice system by extending s 2(8) beyond its field of operation as defined by Parliament. The judge’s decision is in disharmony with the settled rule that a civil court ought not to place restrictions on the use by prosecuting authorities of evidence without their consent (see Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76, [1982] AC 380 and A T & T Istel Ltd v Tully [1992] 3 All ER 523, [1993] AC 45). And Mr Collings accepts that the judge would not have been entitled to impose a condition providing that evidence of the transcripts would be inadmissible at a criminal trial: s 433 of the Insolvency Act 1986. But the judge achieved that end obliquely by exacting an undertaking along the lines of the inapplicable s 2(8). The judge’s decision wrongly intruded into an area which is best left to the existing protections offered by the criminal justice system. He exercised his discretion for an impermissible purpose: pro tanto he restored the privilege against self-incrimination which the legislature took away by the terms of the Insolvency Act 1986. The judge did not have the benefit of the full argument which was placed before us on this appeal. In the result the judge misdirected himself in material respects. In my view the judge ought to have allowed the transcripts to be released to the Director without requiring any undertaking.
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Jurisdiction
That brings me to the question of whether the judge had any jurisdiction to exact the relevant undertaking. For this purpose I will assume that under s 168(3) of the Insolvency Act 1986, under r 9.5(4), or by virtue of the court’s inherent jurisdiction, the court had a discretion to exact the undertaking in question. The Criminal Justice Act 1987 was a response to widespread public perception that the existing criminal justice system was inadequate to deal with the problem of rampant serious and complex fraud. It was a special statute designed to deal with special problems affecting one particular class of crime. It did so by entrusting to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office extensive new inquisitorial powers. In Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456 at 474, [1993] AC 1 at 43–44 Lord Mustill said:
‘... I conclude that as a matter of interpretation the powers of the Director do not cease, as regards the questioning of the person under investigation when he is charged; that the principle of common sense, expressed in the maxim generalia specialibus non derogant, entails that the general provisions of Code C [under the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984] yield to the particular provisions of the 1987 Act in cases to which that Act applies; and that neither history nor logic demands that any qualification of what Parliament has so clearly enacted ought to be implied.’
In the same way as the special provisions of the 1987 Act override the general provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, and the Codes, they also override the general provisions of another earlier general statute, the Insolvency Act 1986. If the court has a discretion over transcripts of examinations under any of the sections of the Insolvency Act 1986, which is wide enough to prevent the release of transcripts to the Serious Fraud Office, or to allow release of transcripts only subject to conditions and undertakings, then in my judgment that discretion is to that extent overridden by the clear terms and manifest intent of the 1987 Act. For these further reasons I would hold that the judge was bound to allow the unconditional release of the transcripts to the Serious Fraud Office in response to the lawful notice under s 2(3).
Conclusion
The consequence of this decision seems to me entirely satisfactory. The Director will be able to produce, subject to the trial judge’s ruling under s 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, the transcripts of interviews of a defendant under ss 235 and 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. That will enable the contextual scene—such as the hierarchy of companies, the role of individuals, the flow of funds, and like matters—to be placed before the jury far more efficiently than has hitherto been regarded as possible. It should help to narrow the issue. It should mean that the prosecution will not be faced at the trial with a constantly moving target. It should significantly improve the chances of the Serious Fraud Office functioning more efficiently. And it should assist in reducing the extravagant length of some serious fraud trials.
I would also allow the appeal.
ROSE LJ. I agree with both previous judgments. I add a few words solely because we are differing from the judge below.
In my judgment the power conferred on the Director of the Serious Fraud Office by s 2(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 is clear. The subsection states in terms that he can require any person to produce any specified documents which
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appear to be relevant to his investigation under s 1(3) of any suspected offence involving serious or complex fraud. Failure, without reasonable excuse, to comply with such a requirement is a summary offence (s 2(13)).
It seems to me that Parliament plainly intended, when conferring this power on the Director of the Serious Fraud Office which the 1987 Act created, that it would be a power in addition to those already vested in prosecuting authorities by virtue of the Insolvency Act 1986, or otherwise.
The limitation imposed by s 2(8) on the evidential use of statements made to the Director in response to questions under s 2(2) is in my judgment not in point.
Such questioning is akin to that by police officers and it is therefore not surprising that Parliament, having granted wide powers of questioning under s 2(2), should to some extent limit the use of answers given. But there is, as it seems to me, no warrant for construing s 2(8) as imposing a similar limitation on the use of documents obtained under s 2(3). If this had been Parliament’s intention, s 2(8) could have been readily so drafted by inserting after the words ‘a statement’, the words ‘or document produced’.
So far as the Insolvency Act 1986 is concerned, s 433 provides that any statement made in pursuance of a requirement imposed by that Act or rules made under it, may be used in evidence against the maker in any proceedings.
Rule 9.4(7) of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925, contains a like provision in relation to the written record of an examination under s 236. By s 218 material appearing in the course of winding up can be passed by office-holders to the Crown Prosecution Service and by s 219(2) answers given in a winding up may be used in evidence.
Accordingly, it seems to me to be impossible to contend that that Act can be read either as limiting the terms of the subsequently passed Criminal Justice Act 1987, or as providing any basis for the existence of a discretion in applying that later Act. The court of course has a discretion as to the directions which it gives to office-holders on their application. But that discretion does not extend to giving a direction that a criminal offence shall be committed. Nor should a direction be capable of amounting to a reasonable excuse for failing to comply with a s 2(3) notice.
It follows that the judge had no jurisdiction to require the undertakings given in the present case.
This conclusion is in accordance with the principle, well established by authority, that it is inappropriate for a civil court to seek to interfere with the admissibility of evidence in a criminal trial (see Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76 at 81, 84, [1982] AC 380 at 442, 446 per Lord Wilberforce and per Lord Fraser of Tullybelton).
Such admissibility, subject to appeal to the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division, is, first and last, the responsibility of the trial judge acting, in particular, in the light of s 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984.
I, too, would allow this appeal.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
RE BISHOPSGATE INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT LTD AND ANOTHER
DILLON LJ. On 26 March the court dismissed, for reasons to be given later, an application by Mr Trachtenberg for leave to appeal against an order of Vinelott J of 10 February 1993, leave having been refused by the judge. We now give our reasons for refusing the application.
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Mr Trachtenberg’s application raised issues as to the right of the Serious Fraud Office to require the production under s 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 by office-holders of the transcripts of private examinations conducted under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. For that reason the application was adjourned to be heard by the full court immediately after the hearing of the appeal of the Director of the Serious Fraud Office in Re Arrows Ltd (No 4), which raised other issues on the interplay of s 2 and s 236 and with a direction that Mr Trachtenberg’s appeal be heard immediately after the hearing of the application if leave to appeal were granted.
In the event we took time to put our judgments on Re Arrows Ltd into writing and they have just been handed down. For practical purposes my present judgment on Mr Trachtenberg’s application is a footnote to the Arrows judgments, and so I do not intend to set out again in full in this judgment the statutory provisions which I set out in Re Arrows Ltd.
Mr Trachtenberg had nothing to do with Arrows Ltd, but he was a director of two companies with which the late Robert Maxwell had been concerned. After the death of Robert Maxwell joint administrative receivers were appointed of one of these two companies, and the other went into compulsory liquidation.
The office-holders—the receivers and liquidators—obtained orders for the private examination of Mr Trachtenberg under s 236 in relation to the respective affairs of the two companies, and the examinations duly took place over a number of days in February and March 1992.
On 18 June 1992 Mr Trachtenberg was arrested and charged with four charges of theft and two of conspiracy to defraud. No notice of transfer to the Crown Court has yet been given in relation to those charges.
Before his arrest he had not been questioned at all by the Serious Fraud Office, which had from November 1991 been conducting an investigation into the affairs of Robert Maxwell and of many of the companies with which he had been concerned. On 29 June 1992, however, Mr Trachtenberg was served by the Serious Fraud Office with a notice under s 2 of the 1987 Act requiring him to answer questions and supply information.
Mr Trachtenberg refused to comply with that notice (save for giving bare personal details), claiming that he had a ‘reasonable excuse’ within the meaning of s 2(13) for his refusal in that he had been charged with criminal offences and had the right not to disclose his defence, at any rate until a very much later stage after he has received the full prosecution case statement under s 9 of the 1987 Act.
The consequence of that refusal was that Mr Trachtenberg was prosecuted by the Serious Fraud Office in the Clerkenwell Magistrates’ Court under s 2(13) of the 1987 Act. But the outcome of that—so far—has been that after a prolonged hearing the magistrate, by a reserved judgment on 9 February 1992, upheld Mr Trachtenberg’s plea of ‘reasonable excuse’ and dismissed the charge. We are told that the Serious Fraud Office proposes to take steps, by appeal or judicial review, to quash the magistrate’s decision, but that has not yet happened.
In the meantime in December 1992 and January 1993 the Serious Fraud Office served notices under s 2(3) on the office-holders of the two companies requiring them to produce the transcripts of Mr Trachtenberg’s examinations under s 236.
The essence of Mr Trachtenberg’s point is that he claims to have a ‘reasonable excuse’ for not answering the questions of the Serious Fraud Office, because he has already been charged and he says, by his counsel Mr Michael Hill QC, that because of that the Serious Fraud Office has no right to get, or if it is a matter of discretion should not be allowed by the court to get, the information they want from him by a side-wind by getting the transcripts of his examinations from the
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office-holders. The essence of the case is that, as he has been charged, and he cannot be compelled to disclose his defence at this stage, he cannot be compelled to answer questions or supply information if he does not want to.
That faces, as Mr Hill recognises, the rather formidable obstacle that in Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456, [1993] AC 1 the House of Lords has held the precise opposite, viz that the powers of the Director of the Serious Fraud Office do not come to an end when the person under investigation has been charged and the Director is accordingly entitled to compel that person to answer questions even after he has been charged. But Mr Hill submits that the decision of the House of Lords is wrong, and should be reconsidered and not followed, for either or both of two reasons, viz (1) the decision was given per incuriam without a proper analysis of the 1987 Act and therefore without appreciating that the scheme of that Act provides for two stages, an investigation stage, including s 2, which applies until the person under investigation has been charged, and a prosecution stage, which takes over when the person has been charged and (2) alternatively, on the basis of Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, the intention of Parliament as shown by the speech of the minister in charge of the Bill in the House of Lords, the Earl of Caithness, was that the person being examined under s 2 would be at most ‘a suspect’—meaning, it is said, a person who has not been charged—and might of course be a mere witness who was under no suspicion at all.
Mr Hill recognises that the decision of the House of Lords in Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office is binding on the civil Court of Appeal and reconsideration of Smith’s case on either of his suggested grounds is a matter for the House of Lords. He therefore submits that justice requires that Mr Trachtenberg be given leave to appeal against the decision of Vinelott J, in order that he may have the opportunity of applying for leave to appeal to the House of Lords so as to be able to persuade the House to reconsider its own decision in Smith’s case.
I do not for my part see much force in these submissions of Mr Hill, but I find it wholly unnecessary to express a view because the real point in this case is different. The examinations of Mr Trachtenberg took place before he was charged. It is one thing to say that a person cannot be compelled to answer further questions after he has been charged; it is quite a different thing to say that further evidence against him cannot be obtained from third parties after he has been charged in respect of matters which happened before he was charged.
It has never been the law that in a criminal case the prosecution have to go to trial on such evidence only as they had when the defendant was arrested and charges were first preferred against him. Under the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (Notice of Transfer) Regulations 1988, SI 1988/1691, a notice of transfer to the Crown Court has to be accompanied by a statement of the evidence on which any charge to which the notice of transfer relates is based, but there is nothing to limit that evidence to evidence obtained by the prosecution before the person concerned was arrested. It could be evidence, for instance, of admissions by the accused contained in a letter of the accused to a third party, and obtained by the Serious Fraud Office from the third party, after the accused had been charged, either because the third party voluntarily handed it over or as a result of an examination of the third party under s 236. It matters not that the examinations in the present case under s 236 were examinations of Mr Trachtenberg himself, since there is clear statutory provision in s 433 of the Insolvency Act 1986 making his answers under examination admissible as evidence against him in criminal proceedings.
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Mr Hill accepts that if the Serious Fraud Office had applied to the office-holders for the transcripts before Mr Trachtenberg was arrested and charged, the points he now takes would have provided no answer to the Serious Fraud Office’s claim to have the documents. There is nothing, in my judgment, to make the position different now that Mr Trachtenberg has been charged.
Vinelott J set out in his judgment all the arguments which Mr Richardson had put forward for saying that Mr Trachtenberg had a ‘reasonable excuse’ for not answering questions put to him by the Serious Fraud Office after he had been charged; these are substantially the same as Mr Hill has put to us. Vinelott J then concluded that even if those arguments proved right—
‘it does not as I see it follow that the liquidator should be prevented from handing over material which came into his hands before charges were preferred and, accordingly, at a time when admittedly no excuse would have been available to Mr Trachtenberg under sub-s (13).’
I respectfully agree. I see no arguable case for reversing that conclusion of the learned judge, and therefore there is no basis for granting leave to appeal.
STEYN LJ. I agree. In my judgment none of the arguments advanced on behalf of Mr Trachtenberg on this application for leave to appeal passes the threshold test of arguability. I can deal relatively briefly with the main submissions advanced by Mr Hill QC for Mr Trachtenberg.
(1) Invalidity of the s 2 (3) notice
In June 1992 Mr Trachtenberg was charged with four offences of theft. By a subsequent notice given under s 2(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 the Director of the Serious Fraud Office sought production by the liquidators of, inter alia, transcripts of the examination of Mr Trachtenberg under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. Subject to certain undertakings, the judge ordered the liquidators to deliver the transcripts to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office. On this application Mr Hill submits that after Mr Trachtenberg was charged the Director was no longer in law entitled to serve a notice on the liquidators to produce transcripts of Mr Trachtenberg’s interviews. Mr Hill argues that this follows from the structure of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, and he relies in particular on s 9, which makes clear that at the preparatory hearing the judge may order a defence statement to be produced, but only after the prosecution has produced a prosecution case statement. He argues that a study of the 1987 Act reveals a distinction between investigative powers, such as those contained in s 2, and accusatorial powers, which commence after the charge is laid. And he says that under the 1987 Act the investigative powers cease upon the laying of a charge. The contrary is established by binding authority (see Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456 at 471, [1993] AC 1 at 39–40). Lord Mustill carefully explained why the Director’s compulsory powers under s 2(2) and (3) continue after a charge is laid. Mr Hill argues that the House of Lords, assisted by the able counsel who argued the appeal in Smith’s case, overlooked a fundamental distinction between investigative and accusatorial powers under the 1987 Act. In my respectful view, the House of Lords overlooked nothing of the kind. Under the 1987 Act investigative and accusatorial powers can be exercised at the same time. This is clear from the language of that Act, and the nature and width of the inquisitorial powers conferred on the Director. It was so held by the House of Lords in Smith’s case. None of the passages in the literature, or in the Fraud Trials Committee Report, to which we have been
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referred, have any direct bearing on the scheme of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 as it subsequently evolved. Relying on Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1992] 3 WLR 1032 Mr Hill referred us to a number of passages in Hansard. The truth is that there is no ambiguity, obscurity or absurdity warranting a resort to Hansard. In any event, the deployment of parliamentary materials proved to be a damp squib. There is nothing in any of the passages which supported the submission that any assurance was given on behalf of the government that after a charge was laid the Director’s powers under s 2 would cease. In deference to submissions of most experienced leading counsel, I have said more than is necessary. The point is hopeless.
(2) Section 2(13): reasonable excuse
Mr Hill also submits that even if a valid notice under s 2(3) may be served after a charge is laid, it does not mean that the person to whom the notice is addressed must respond. Mr Hill points to s 2(13), which provides that any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a requirement imposed upon him under s 2(2) and (3) is guilty of an offence. He submits that after a charge has been laid the person to whom a notice is addressed will always have a reasonable excuse if he fails to respond. This submission applies equally to a notice directed to a defendant under s 2(2) and a notice addressed to third parties under s 2(3) to produce documents, eg the books of account of the company. The same issue recently arose in criminal proceedings which followed after Mr Trachtenberg was charged with a failure to respond to a s 2(2) notice. The hearing lasted an astonishing eight days. In a judgment dated 9 February 1993 Mr Christopher Bourke, a stipendiary magistrate, adopted the interpretation urged on us by Mr Hill. That decision is now subject to judicial review proceedings. Obviously it would be better if we could avoid expressing a view on the matter in advance of the judicial review proceedings. Mr Hill tries to have it both ways. He asks us to adopt his interpretation. But, if we are minded to disagree, he asks us not to say anything contrary to what had been held by Mr Bourke in a court of competent jurisdiction. I fear that will not do. The issues canvassed before us compel us to deal with the point.
Mr Hill acknowledges that his submission is in conflict with passages in the speech of Lord Mustill. He submits that the House of Lords overlooked the true scope of the defence of reasonable excuse. Here he cannot pray in aid literature or Hansard. The intent of Parliament must be found in the words of the 1987 Act. The scheme of that Act, as interpreted in Smith’s case, destroys Mr Hill’s submission. The suggested interpretation emasculates the extensive inquisitorial powers entrusted to the Director by Parliament. By a side-wind it reverses the manifest intent of the legislature to abolish the privilege against self-incrimination and to permit the extensive compulsory powers of investigation to continue after a charge is laid. In the context of s 2(3) reasonable excuse is plainly a defence intended to cover particular circumstances such as physical inability to comply with the notice or accidental loss or destruction of the transcripts and the like. The fact that a charge has been laid does not create a defence under s 2(13). In my view the contrary is unarguable.
(3) Public interest immunity
Mr Hill submits that the transcripts of Mr Trachtenberg’s interviews are protected from disclosure by public interest immunity. He relies on arguments which I have already discussed in my judgment in Re Arrows Ltd (No 4) which was handed down today. For the reasons given in that judgment, I am of the opinion
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that there is no public interest immunity which can assist Mr Trachtenberg in this case.
But Mr Hill submits that after a charge has been laid the public interest in a fair criminal justice system requires that ‘nothing sourced from Mr Trachtenberg’—by which I understand Mr Hill to mean transcripts of interviews with Mr Trachtenberg and documents produced by him under s 236—ought to be produced to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office. This is the argument which I have already discussed under another guise, viz that upon the laying of a charge a shutter comes down which prevents further investigation under s 2(2) and (3) in order to obtain materials emanating from the defendant. In neither form can the argument be squared with the extensive inquisitorial powers which the 1987 Act created. In my judgment there is no substance in this argument.
(4) Miscellaneous points
In oral argument a number of other arguments were deployed. Mr Hill submits that the Director is setting out to achieve, by the use of a s 2(3) notice, what he cannot achieve by his own examination under s 2(2). He calls it a ‘back door’ method. This is a point which I dealt with in my judgment in Re Arrows Ltd, and I will not repeat what I said there. Mr Hill says that the Director has taken a tactical decision to delay the transfer of the case to the Crown Court thereby depriving the defence of the benefit of rights under the 1987 Act. He says it is an abuse of power. Mr Hill is not using the phrase in its administrative law sense. He is not submitting that the Director has acted unlawfully. In any event, on the materials before the court, an arguable case of unlawfulness has not been made out.
I would also dismiss this application.
ROSE LJ. I agree. Counsel for the applicant submits that as Mr Bourke, a metropolitan stipendiary magistrate, has held that Mr Trachtenberg has a reasonable excuse under s 2(13) for not answering questions put in an interview under s 2(2) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, he would have a reasonable excuse for not producing transcripts of interviews under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. Accordingly, it is said to be arguable that the Director of the Serious Fraud Office should not, by means of a s 2(3) notice, be able to obtain from office-holders material which he could not obtain directly from Mr Trachtenberg.
It seems to me that this submission is flawed both in its reliance on the stipendiary’s decision, and in its analysis of Mr Trachtenberg’s position.
Section 433 of the Insolvency Act 1986 has the effect that statements made in a s 236 inquiry may be used in evidence against the maker in any proceedings. It follows that, at the time of the inquiry, Mr Trachtenberg was at risk, under that Act, of his answers being used in evidence against him, despite the involuntary nature of the inquiry. This, as it seems to me, and as this court held in Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1, is a statutory breach of the common law privilege against self-incrimination.
Furthermore, by s 218 of the 1986 Act, material can be passed to the Crown Prosecution Service by office-holders. It is accepted by counsel for Mr Trachtenberg that material is and can properly be passed between the Crown Prosecution Service and the Serious Fraud Office.
In Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456, [1993] AC 1 the House of Lords held that, after a defendant had been charged, a s 2(2) notice compelling him to answer questions on pain of committing a criminal offence
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under s 3(13) can properly be served. The subsection abrogates the common law privilege against self-incrimination even after charging: a fortiori it does so when, as in Mr Trachtenberg’s case, he was questioned under s 236 before he was charged.
In my judgment the inescapable conclusion is that, under both statutes, there is power to compel a person to answer questions whether or not he has been charged with a criminal offence.
Although the 1987 Act deals separately with the Director’s investigative and prosecuting roles, I am wholly unpersuaded that this in any way limits the wide investigative powers conferred by s 2(2) and (3) or renders material, for present purposes, either the timing of a s 2(3) notice or the Director’s reason for issuing it. The provisions of s 9, which empower a Crown Court judge after the special transfer procedure has taken place, to require case statements, albeit in different detail, from prosecution and defence, do not, as it seems to me, inhibit the Director’s very wide investigative powers.
Furthermore, the fact that, for the purposes of trial, a defence statement of case cannot be required prior to the prosecution statement of case, does not prevent questions being asked at an earlier stage under s 2(2), the answers to which may reveal the nature of the defence.
I do not share the stipendiary’s view as to the limited effect of the House of Lords decision in Smith’s case. He concluded that it shed no light on ‘reasonable excuse’ under s 2(13). But Lord Mustill not only concluded that the Director’s powers of investigation survive the moment of charge, he also said that ‘the whole purpose of s 2 is to ensure that’ answers given are not voluntary (see [1992] 3 All ER 456 at 474, [1993] AC 1 at 43). This, as it seems to me, not only disposes of any requirement for a caution in relation to s 2(2) questioning, but also negates any possibility that a refusal to answer on the grounds of self-incrimination can be regarded as a reasonable excuse in the terms of s 2(13). If it were a reasonable excuse, it would defeat the whole purpose of s 2(2) (see also Bank of England v Riley [1992] 1 All ER 769, [1992] Ch 475, Re Arrows Ltd (No 4) ante and Re London United Investments plc [1992] 2 All ER 842, [1992] Ch 578).
The suggestion that such an interpretation reverses the burden of proof is, in my view, misconceived. Whether a suspected person chooses (i) to answer questions and, thereby, either to incriminate or exculpate himself, or (ii) not to answer, thereby falling foul of s 2(13), the burden of proof at any subsequent trial remains in each case on the prosecution.
But s 2(2) is, as it seems to me, clearly designed to assist the Director in discharging that burden.
The question of what use can thereafter at a criminal trial be made of such answers as are given is, as it seems to me, a matter not for a judge of the Chancery Division by way of anticipatory strike (see Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76 at 81, 84, [1982] AC 380 at 442, 446), but for the judge at trial, having regard to s 2(8) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, ss 76 and 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 and such other considerations as are then pertinent.
In any event, even if the stipendiary magistrate’s construction of s 2(13) is correct, that subsection is relevant only to questioning under s 2(2). It does not bear on s 2(3) (see the reasons given in Re Arrows Ltd). Indeed, counsel for Mr Trachtenberg accepted that the section draws a distinction between questioning and documents, and that if the s 236 transcripts had been obtained by the Serious Fraud Office before Mr Trachtenberg was charged, they would be admissible.
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I am equally unpersuaded that resort to Hansard to construe s 2 is justified under Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1992] 3 WLR 1032. I see no ambiguity, obscurity or absurdity to justify that course. In any event, this court having been referred to Hansard de bene esse it is, to my mind, clear that nothing there appears which could conceivably persuade the House of Lords to construe the section differently from the way in which it was construed by Lord Mustill in Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office.
For the reasons already given in Re Arrows Ltd the office-holders must comply with a s 2(3) notice, without the imposition of any undertakings by the Serious Fraud Office. As it is not, for the reasons given, arguable that Mr Trachtenberg is in any better position than the office-holders, the argument set out at the beginning of the judgment in my view fails.
I, too, would dismiss this application for leave to appeal.
Application for leave to appeal dismissed.
RE HEADINGTON INVESTMENTS LTD
DILLON LJ. On 26 March the court dismissed for reasons to be given later, an application by Mr Kevin Maxwell for leave to appeal from an order of Vinelott J of 10 February 1993, leave having been refused by the judge. We now give our reasons for refusing the application.
The application had been adjourned to be heard by the full court immediately after the hearing of an application for leave to appeal by a Mr Trachtenberg, and that in turn was to be heard immediately after the hearing of the appeal of the Director of the Serious Fraud Office in Re Arrows Ltd (No 4). As with Mr Trachtenberg’s application it was directed that Mr Kevin Maxwell’s appeal be heard immediately after the hearing of the application if leave to appeal were granted.
The reason why these three proceedings were directed to be heard in succession was that all raised points, albeit different points, affecting the interplay of s 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 and s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986. In particular, all raised different aspects of the question whether the transcripts of private examinations under s 236 should or must be made available, and if so on what terms, to the Serious Fraud Office or other prosecuting authority for the purpose of investigating crime or prosecuting persons charged with crime. Mr Kevin Maxwell’s application also raises further questions as to whether such transcripts should be supplied not merely to the prosecution but also to defendants in criminal proceedings.
As is well known, Mr Kevin Maxwell is a son of the late Robert Maxwell, who died on 5 November 1991. From November 1991 the Serious Fraud Office has been conducting an investigation into the affairs of Robert Maxwell and of many of the companies with which he had been concerned. Mr Kevin Maxwell was at one time a director of various of those companies which have, since the death of Robert Maxwell, gone into liquidation or administrative receivership. The office-holders in those companies desired to examine Mr Kevin Maxwell under s 236 in relation to the affairs of the respective companies, and in a case to which Mr Kevin Maxwell was a party, Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd (in prov liq) v Maxwell, Cooper v Maxwell, Mirror Group Newspapers plc v Maxwell [1992] 2 All ER 856, [1993] Ch 1, it was held that the privilege against self-incrimination was impliedly abrogated by the Insolvency Act 1986 in respect of persons being examined under s 236 and various other sections of that Act. Thereafter Mr Kevin
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Maxwell was examined or interviewed by the various office-holders under s 235 or s 236 of the 1986 Act as were many other people, including people who could supply information to the office-holders and were not under suspicion of any criminal offence.
On 18 June 1992 Mr Kevin Maxwell was charged with offences of theft and fraudulent conspiracy in relation to the companies. Thereafter he had several further interviews with the office-holders and he was also, legitimately and without any objection on his part, examined on several occasions by the Serious Fraud Office under s 2 of the 1987 Act.
The Director of the Serious Fraud Office has now called on the office-holders to produce to the Serious Fraud Office all transcripts of interviews conducted by them or on their behalf under either s 235 or s 236 of the 1986 Act or on a voluntary basis or equivalent principles with Mr Kevin Maxwell and a large number of other people (not limited to those who face charges) together with copies of all documents or other material supplied to the office-holders by those persons including affidavits and witness statements.
Mr Kevin Maxwell supported the submissions against the Serious Fraud Office made in Re Arrows Ltd; I have expressed my views on those in my judgment in Re Arrows Ltd. In one respect, as I understand his counsel’s submissions, his counsel went further than counsel for Mr Naviede in Re Arrows Ltd in that it was submitted that the alleged public interest immunity founded on the public interest that liquidations should be conducted speedily and efficiently was a general immunity which imposed a duty on the office-holders not to disclose, eg transcripts which could not in any normal sense be waived, even by the consent of the person examined, though it might in some circumstances be overridden by some other public interest: see the observations of Bingham LJ and Lord Donaldson MR in Makanjuola v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1992] 3 All ER 617 at 623, 621. In my judgment, however, as indicated in Re Arrows Ltd, there is no public interest immunity to prevent the disclosure of transcripts or other documents by office-holders to prosecution or regulatory authorities under the statutory duties or powers of the office-holders including their duties under s 2 of the 1987 Act.
Further points are however taken on behalf of Mr Kevin Maxwell by his counsel which are founded on the course of the prosecution against him. Put crudely, the submissions of his counsel come down to a plea that the Serious Fraud Office is playing tactics in the handling of the prosecution and this court should reciprocate to ensure fairness to Mr Kevin Maxwell.
On the facts the fundamental objection is that, though Mr Kevin Maxwell was charged on 18 June 1992, no notice of transfer to the Crown Court under s 4 of the 1987 Act has yet been given in relation to these charges. It appears that at a hearing before the City of London magistrates on 1 December 1992 the Serious Fraud Office gave an undertaking by counsel that a substantial part of the case would be the subject of a notice of transfer to the Crown Court by 1 April 1993 at the latest, and it was said by counsel that it was hoped that the rest of the case would be ready for transfer within a month or two thereafter. However on 11 February 1993 a further application was made by the Serious Fraud Office to the City of London magistrates, as a result of which, despite opposition by the defendants, the Serious Fraud Office was released from the earlier undertaking on giving a fresh undertaking to transfer the whole of the case not later than 19 July 1993.
It is said that the vice of that, from the point of view of Mr Kevin Maxwell, is that, though when a notice of transfer has been given there will be a judge
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appointed to try the case to whom interlocutory applications can be made, until a notice of transfer is given there is no effective machinery for preliminary directions to be obtained. It is said that this has the general consequence that Mr Kevin Maxwell is, at this stage, hampered in preparing his defence because he does not know what, precisely, the evidence against him is. It is further said that he is also thereby hampered in particular matters. One such particular matter which was mentioned to us is that the Serious Fraud Office has applied by letters rogatoire for the evidence of a Dr Rechsteiner to be taken in a Swiss court, and under Swiss law Mr Kevin Maxwell has the right to be represented and to ask questions in the Swiss court when the evidence of Dr Rechsteiner is taken; but he cannot usefully avail himself of his rights under Swiss law while he does not know what material the Serious Fraud Office has which may relate to Dr Rechsteiner, or to matters on which Dr Rechsteiner might be able to assist Mr Kevin Maxwell’s defence.
For my part, I see no basis on which this court could or should refuse disclosure to the Serious Fraud Office by the office-holders of the various transcripts or other documents which the Serious Fraud Office has applied for under s 2 of the 1987 Act—or could or should defer disclosure of those documents until after notice of transfer to the Crown Court has been given in relation to the charges against Mr Kevin Maxwell, accompanied as it has to be by a statement of the evidence on which the charges are based: see reg 4 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (Notice of Transfer) Regulations 1988, SI 1988/1691.
It is therefore asked by counsel for Mr Kevin Maxwell that the office-holders should be ordered to disclose simultaneously to Mr Kevin Maxwell and his advisers copies of all the transcripts and other documents which they disclose to the Serious Fraud Office.
As to this application, there is, in my judgment, help to be derived from the judgment of the Divisional Court in bankruptcy in Re Poulson (J G L) (a bankrupt), ex p Granada Television Ltd v Maudling [1976] 2 All ER 1020, [1976] 1 WLR 1023. In that case a third party to the bankruptcy which was a defendant to a civil action for defamation brought against it by an individual—not the bankrupt himself—who had been privately examined in what was then a fairly notorious bankruptcy, applied for production, for the purposes of the civil proceedings, of the transcripts of that individual’s private examination, and it was pointed out that the transcripts had been disclosed to Scotland Yard. But the Divisional Court ruled, in my judgment rightly, that different considerations applied where Scotland Yard applied for transcripts.
Cases where persons other than prosecution or regulatory authorities seek disclosure or inspection of transcripts may raise a variety of different considerations. In some cases, disclosure will clearly be justified because, to adopt the words of Millett J in Re Esal (Commodities) Ltd (No 2) [1990] BCC 708 at 723, ‘the use proposed to be made of the material is to assist the beneficial winding-up of the company’; an instance would be where a parent company in compulsory liquidation has solvent subsidiaries which are not in liquidation at all but are under the control of directors nominated by the liquidators of the parent company, and it is desired to disclose transcripts to the directors of the subsidiary so that the subsidiary can bring proceedings for the ultimate benefit, indirectly, of the winding up of the parent company.
But the mere fact that the transcript is wanted for use in proceedings, whether civil or criminal, is not enough. The process of private examination does not leave the court with a pool of information to be made available to any third party who may want to go fishing to see what he can find that might be helpful in civil
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or criminal proceedings, eg as material for cross-examination if a witness gives evidence in such proceedings which might be thought inconsistent with what he had said on examination under s 236 or as material to anticipate discovery.
In the present case it is likely that the transcripts and other documents which the Serious Fraud Office has obtained or will be obtaining from the office-holders will be obtained by Mr Kevin Maxwell in due course of the criminal proceedings, at some stage after a notice of transfer has been given if not before. That will be a matter for the court in the criminal proceedings—be it the magistrates’ court or the judge after notice of transfer—to deal with without further reference to the Chancery court since disclosure to defendants in the criminal proceedings, as appropriate under the practice of the criminal court, will be a corollary of the documents having come into the possession of the Serious Fraud Office for the purposes of the prosecution.
It is not, however, for this court or the Chancery Division to anticipate or interfere with the procedure of the criminal court. Still less is it for this court, as the civil division of the Court of Appeal, or the Chancery Division to mark its disapproval of the magistrates’ decision to allow the Serious Fraud Office more time before giving notice of transfer.
I agree therefore with the decision of Vinelott J that there should be no simultaneous disclosure.
I see no basis, therefore, for granting Mr Kevin Maxwell leave to appeal.
STEYN LJ. I agree. For the reasons given in my judgments in Re Arrows Ltd (No 4) and in Re Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd I am of the opinion that the following submissions made on behalf of Mr Kevin Maxwell by Mr Alun Jones QC must be rejected: (a) the submission based on public interest immunity; (b) the submission that the Director’s power to serve a notice under s 2(2) and (3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1986 lapses when a charge is laid; (c) the submission that when a charge is laid that affords reasonable excuse for a failure to comply with notices under s 2(2) and (3) of that Act; and (d) the submission that the judge was in law empowered to order that the liquidators need not produce the transcripts to the Director of the Serious Fraud Office.
Mr Jones submitted that the Director of the Serious Fraud Office is abusing his powers by delaying the transfer of Mr Kevin Maxwell’s case to the Crown Court. He contended that the Director was acting unlawfully. It is sufficient to say that on the materials before the court an arguable case of unlawfulness has not been made out.
By way of alternative, Mr Jones submitted that the office-holders should be ordered to disclose the s 236 transcripts simultaneously to the Director and to him. In my view Mr Kevin Maxwell has no legal right to such an order for disclosure in these proceedings and at this stage. In due course he will, in the usual way, become entitled to disclosure, and, if he has been unfairly treated, he will be able to raise the matter with the trial judge under s 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984.
I would also dismiss the application.
ROSE LJ. I agree with the judgments Dillon and Steyn LJJ.
For the reasons given in Re Arrows Ltd (No 4) s 2(3) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 in my view confers on the Director of the Serious Fraud Office power to obtain documents which it is not open to a judge of the Chancery Division to fetter.
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For the reasons given in Re Bishopsgate Investment Management Ltd, in the light of Smith v Director of Serious Fraud Office [1992] 3 All ER 456, [1993] AC 1, that power extends to obtaining from office-holders transcripts of interviews under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986, whether or not the interviewee has, at the time of the interview, been charged with a criminal offence.
Mr Kevin Maxwell’s application raises only one additional question, namely, should the office-holders be ordered to give disclosure of s 236 transcripts to him at the same time as to the Serious Fraud Office?
Mr Maxwell’s counsel accepts that there is no statutory basis for such simultaneous disclosure. But he submits that, if it is not ordered, Mr Maxwell will suffer prejudice in the conduct of his defence to criminal charges, in particular because the passage of time will dim the recollection of witnesses on whom he may wish to rely.
In my judgment, there are a number of reasons why this submission fails.
First, having been repeatedly interviewed, both under s 236 of the Insolvency Act 1986 and s 2(2) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987, Mr Maxwell must be well aware of the lines of inquiry which are being pursued, both in relation to company assets and possible criminal offences. He has copies of his own interviews. In consequence he no doubt knows which potential witnesses are capable of assisting him and they can be interviewed on his behalf, if this has not already been done, without delay.
Secondly, such, if any, material in those interviews as the prosecution may wish to rely on in criminal proceedings, together with other unused material which comes into the prosecution’s possession from this source, will have to be disclosed to Mr Maxwell in due course either in the form of a prosecution statement under s 9(4) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 or in accordance with R v Ward [1993] 2 All ER 577, [1993] 1 WLR 619.
Thirdly, if there is any unfairness to Mr Maxwell resulting from non-concurrent disclosure to him, that is a matter for the judge at trial and not for this court on appeal from the Companies Court: see Rank Film Distributors Ltd v Video Information Centre [1981] 2 All ER 76 at 81, 84, [1982] AC 380 at 442, 446.
I, too, would dismiss this application for leave to appeal.
Application for leave to appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Harbour Assurance Co (UK) Ltd v Kansa General International Assurance Co Ltd and others
[1993] 3 All ER 897
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Arbitration: CONTRACT
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): RALPH GIBSON, LEGGATT AND HOFFMANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 25, 26, 28 JANUARY 1993
Arbitration – Agreement – Arbitration clause – Validity of arbitration clause – Separability – Reinsurance contracts containing arbitration clause – Reinsurance contracts alleged to be void ab initio for illegality – Whether arbitration clause separate and autonomous contract – Whether arbitrators having jurisdiction to determine initial validity of contract.
The plaintiffs brought an action against the defendants for a declaration that certain insurance policies made by way of obligatory quota share retrocession, taking effect for the years 1980 to 1984 and entered into by the plaintiffs with the defendants, were void and that the plaintiffs were not liable in respect of them on the grounds of non-disclosure of material facts and misrepresentation. The reinsurance contracts between the plaintiffs and the defendants contained an arbitration clause providing for arbitration of ‘all disputes or differences arising out of this Agreement’. The plaintiffs further claimed that the reinsurances for 1980, 1981 and 1982 were void for illegality because the defendants were not registered or approved to effect or carry on insurance or reinsurance business in Great Britain by the Department of Trade under the Insurance Companies Acts 1974 and 1982. The allegations of illegality were denied by the defendants, who applied for the action to be stayed under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 so that the dispute could be referred to arbitration. On the trial of a preliminary issue whether by reason of illegality the arbitration agreements contained in the retrocession agreements for the underwriting years 1980, 1981 and 1982 were null and void, inoperative or incapable of being performed, the judge dismissed the application for a stay of the proceedings in which the plaintiffs sought to establish that illegality, on the grounds that the principle of separability or autonomy of the agreement expressed in an arbitration clause could not extend so as to enable the arbitrator to determine whether or not the contract in which the arbitration clause was contained was in fact void ab initio for illegality. The defendants appealed, contending that the arbitration agreement contained in the reinsurance contracts should be treated as a separate and autonomous contract which was not tainted by the alleged illegality and therefore the arbitrators were entitled to enter on the arbitration and decide whether the contracts were void ab initio for illegality. The plaintiffs contended that, if the contract in which the arbitration clause was contained was void ab initio and therefore nothing, so also was the arbitration clause in the contract.
Held – In English law the principle of separability of an arbitration clause contained in a written contract could give jurisdiction to an arbitrator under that clause to determine a dispute over the initial validity or invalidity of the written contract provided that the arbitration clause itself was not directly impeached. Furthermore, an issue as to the initial illegality of the contract was also capable of being referred to arbitration, provided that any initial illegality did not directly impeach the arbitration clause. In every case the logical question was not
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whether the issue of illegality went to the validity of the contract but whether it went to the validity of the arbitration clause. Accordingly, the illegality pleaded by the plaintiffs did not affect the validity of the arbitration clause, which on its proper construction was wide enough to cover a dispute as to the initial illegality of the contract. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the proceedings stayed (see p 901 f to h, p 902 c to f, p 903 h to p 904 a, p 906 f, p 907 b e to h, p 908 h j, p 910 g to j, p 911 b, p 913 d to f, p 914 g, p 915 b and p 916 f to j, post).
David Taylor & Son Ltd v Barnett [1953] 1 All ER 843 distinguished.
Notes For the scope of an arbitration agreement, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 612, 624, and for cases on the subject, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 31–37, 86–91, 160–185, 442–461.
For the Insurance Companies Act 1982 (which consolidated the Insurance Companies Acts 1974 and 1981), see 22 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 161.
For the Arbitration Act 1975, s 1, see 2 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 644.
Cases referred to in judgmentsAnon (1970) 6 Arb Int 79, Bundesgerichtshof.
Ashville Investments Ltd v Elmer Contractors Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 577, [1989] QB 488, [1988] 3 WLR 867, CA.
Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909, [1981] 2 WLR 141, HL.
Dalmia Dairy Industries Ltd v National Bank of Pakistan [1978] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 223, CA.
Fillite (Runcorn) Ltd v Aqua-Lift (1989) 26 Con LR 66, CA.
Heyman v Darwins Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 337, [1942] AC 356, HL.
Hirji Mulji v Cheong Yue Steamship Co Ltd [1926] AC 497, [1926] All ER Rep 51, PC.
Langton v Hughes (1813) 1 M & S 593, 105 ER 222.
Lee (Joe) Ltd v Lord Dalmeny [1927] Ch 300.
Mackender v Feldia AG [1966] 3 All ER 847, [1967] 2 QB 590, [1967] 2 WLR 119, CA.
Mahmoud and Ispahani, Re arbitration between [1921] 2 KB 716, [1921] All ER Rep 217, CA.
Paal Wilson & Co A/S v Partenreederei Hannah Blumenthal, The Hannah Blumenthal [1983] 1 All ER 34, [1983] 1 AC 854, [1982] 3 WLR 1149, HL.
Phoenix General Insurance Co of Greece SA v Administratia Asigurarilor de Stat [1987] 2 All ER 152, [1988] QB 216, [1987] 2 WLR 512, CA.
Prenn v Simmonds [1971] 3 All ER 237, [1971] 1 WLR 1381, HL.
Prima Paint Corp v Flood & Conklin Mfg Co (1967) 388 US 395, US SC.
Prodexport State Co for Foreign Trade v E D & F Man Ltd [1973] 1 All ER 355, [1973] QB 389, [1972] 3 WLR 845.
Smith Coney & Barrett v Becker Gray & Co [1916] 2 Ch 86.
Sojuznefteexport v Joc Oil Ltd (1990) 15 YBCA 384, Bermuda CA.
Taylor (David) & Son Ltd v Barnett [1953] 1 All ER 843, [1953] 1 WLR 562, CA.
Union of India v E B Aaby’s Rederi A/S [1974] 2 All ER 874, [1975] AC 797, [1974] 3 WLR 269, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Antonis P Lemos, The [1985] 1 All ER 695, [1985] AC 711, HL.
Craig v National Indemnity Co (1980) 8 YBCA 410.
Page 899 of [1993] 3 All ER 897
Deutsche Schactbau-und Tiefbohrgesellschaft mbH v Ras Al Khaimah National Oil Co [1987] 2 All ER 769, [1990] 1 AC 295, CA; rvsd [1988] 2 All ER 833, [1990] 1 AC 295, HL.
Emp Exportadora de Azucar v Industria Azucarera Nacional SA, The Playa Larga [1983] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 171, CA.
Gibraltar (Government) v Kenney [1956] 3 All ER 22, [1956] 2 QB 410.
Kruse v Questier & Co Ltd [1953] 1 All ER 954, [1953] 1 QB 669.
Northern Regional Health Authority v Derek Crouch Construction Co Ltd [1984] 2 All ER 175, [1984] QB 644, CA.
Sykes (F G) (Wessex) Ltd v Fine Fare Ltd [1967] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 53, CA.
Willcock v Pickfords Removals Ltd [1979] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 244, CA.
AppealThe first defendant, Kansa General International Insurance Co Ltd (formerly Vahinkovakuutusosakeyhtio Kansa) (a body corporate), the third defendant, Keskinainen Vakuutusyhtio Autoilijat (a body corporate), the fourth defendant, Tyovaen Keskinainen Vakuutusyhtio Turva (a body corporate) and the fifth defendant, Keshinainen Vakuutusyhtio Varma (a body corporate), appealed with the leave of the judge from the judgment of Steyn J ([1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 81) dated 26 September 1991 dismissing the application by the defendants for a stay under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 of the action brought by the plaintiffs, Harbour Assurance Co (UK) Ltd, claiming, inter alia, a declaration that certain insurance policies made by way of obligatory quota share retrocession, taking effect for the years 1980 to 1984, and entered into by the plaintiffs with the defendants, were void and that the plaintiffs are not liable in respect of them. The facts are set out in the judgment of Ralph Gibson LJ.
Sydney Kentridge QC and Stephen Ruttle (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for the defendants.
Andrew Longmore QC and Timothy Saloman (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the plaintiffs.
RALPH GIBSON LJ. This is an appeal, brought with the leave of Steyn J, by the first, third, fourth and fifth defendants against his order of 26 September 1991 in an action brought by Harbour Assurance Co (UK) Ltd. By that order Steyn J dismissed the application by the defendants for a stay of action under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 (see [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 81).
This case raises the question whether in English law, under the principle of the separability or autonomy of the agreement expressed in an arbitration clause, which clause is contained in a written contract, the clause can give jurisdiction to the arbitrators under that clause to determine a dispute over the initial validity or invalidity of the written contract, upon the assumptions that upon its true construction the arbitration clause covers such a dispute and that the nature of the invalidity alleged does not attack the validity of the agreement expressed in the arbitration clause itself.
The orthodox view in English law has always been, it has been said for the plaintiffs, that if the contract in which the arbitration clause is contained is void ab initio, and therefore nothing, so also must be the arbitration clause in the contract. That is the proposition that nothing can come of nothing, ex nihil nil fit. It has also been called in this case the argument of logic.
In the action, commenced on 2 November 1989, the plaintiffs claimed, inter alia, a declaration that certain insurance policies made by way of obligatory quota
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share retrocession, taking effect for the years 1980 to 1984, and entered into by the plaintiffs with the defendants, are void and that the plaintiffs are not liable in respect of them. Allegations are made against the defendants of non-disclosure of material facts and of misrepresentation by reason of which the plaintiffs say that they avoided the reinsurances by letter in 1989. With those allegations this court is not concerned. They will be for decision by the arbitrator if the appeal succeeds and if the contract was otherwise enforceable. In addition, however, the plaintiffs assert that in respect of the reinsurances for 1980, 1981 and 1982, the defendant retrocedents were not registered or approved to effect or carry on insurance or reinsurance business in Great Britain by the Department of Trade under the Insurance Companies Acts 1974 and 1982, and that, therefore, the reinsurances for 1980, 1981 and 1982 are void for illegality. All the allegations of illegality are denied by the defendants.
The relevant reinsurance agreements between the plaintiffs and the defendants contain an arbitration clause. The relevant terms of the clause are as follows:
‘All disputes or differences arising out of this Agreement shall be submitted to the decision of two Arbitrators one to be chosen by each party and in the event of the Arbitrators failing to agree, to the decision of an umpire to be chosen by the Arbitrators before entering upon the reference. The Arbitrators and Umpire shall be executive officials of insurance or reinsurance companies, or Lloyd’s Underwriters. If either of the parties fails to appoint an Arbitrator within one month after being required by the other party in writing to do so or if the Arbitrators fail to appoint an umpire within one month of their nomination, such Arbitrators or Umpire as the case may be shall at the request of either party be appointed by the Chairman of the Reinsurance Offices Association. The Arbitration proceedings shall take place in London.’
The defendants applied for the action to be stayed under s 1 of the 1975 Act. On 20 February 1990 Gatehouse J ordered that, pursuant to the applications of the defendants under s 1, a preliminary issue should be tried as follows:
‘Whether the Court is satisfied that, by reason of illegality, (i) The arbitration agreements contained in the retrocession agreements for the underwriting years 1980, 1981 and 1982 are null and void, inoperative or incapable of being performed; (ii) There is not in fact any dispute or difference between the parties within the meaning of the said arbitration agreements.’
Pleadings were delivered in the preliminary issue. A procedural complication arose as described by Steyn J (see [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 81 at 85). As a result of agreement between the parties the only issues considered by him were whether, as the defendants alleged, the arbitration clause was wide enough to cover the illegality issue, and whether there was no impediment in law to giving effect to the arbitration agreement.
For the reasons set out in his judgment, Steyn J concluded that he was compelled by authority to hold that the principle of separability could not extend so as to enable the arbitrator to determine whether or not the contract, in which the arbitration clause is contained, is in fact void ab initio for illegality. He therefore dismissed the application for a stay of the proceedings in which the plaintiffs seek to establish that illegality.
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The appeal by the defendants was directed only to the last passages of the judgment by the judge, by which he held that he was required by authority to hold as he did. In all other respects the defendants adopted and supported the conclusions and reasoning of the judge.
Before dealing with the main issues in the appeal reference must be made to the issues of illegality. The issues were described briefly by Steyn J in his judgment (see at 85). In opening the appeal, Mr Kentridge QC for the defendants pointed to the allegations of the plaintiffs in their pleadings and noted that the plaintiffs themselves were authorised under the Act, and that, if the allegations of fact as to where the defendants carried on their business were made out, the underlying reinsurances written by the defendants would be invalid and any rights of the defendants under the retrocession agreements between the plaintiffs and the defendants would be unenforceable. One consequence would be that if the underlying reinsurance contracts were invalid, the defendants would have no insurable interest in respect of which they could claim against the plaintiffs. That contention he said, would clearly be with the jurisdiction of the arbitrator, but, by making the allegation in the form that the retrocession agreements were rendered void, the plaintiffs were trying to remove from the arbitrator issues which the parties had agreed should be decided by them. That was relevant to one of the policy grounds considered by Steyn J. Hoffmann LJ then raised the question whether the allegations of the plaintiffs did raise an issue as to the initial voidness of the retrocession agreements as contrasted with an issue as to their enforceability by the defendants.
The points raised seemed to me to be of substantial weight. Mr Kentridge, however, said that he had not raised the point before the judge, and did not seek to raise it in this court. We proceed therefore on the same basis as that accepted by Steyn J.
In brief summary, the judge held as follows.
(i) The principle of the separability of the arbitration clause or agreement from the contract in which it is contained exists in English law; and, provided that the arbitration clause itself is not directly impeached, the arbitration agreement is, as a matter of principled legal theory, capable of surviving the invalidity of the contract so that the arbitrators could have jurisdiction under the clause to determine the initial validity of the contract.
Further, it would be consistent to hold that an issue as to the initial illegality of the contract is also capable of being referred to arbitration, provided that any initial illegality does not directly impeach the arbitration clause.
(ii) The illegality alleged in this case does not impeach the arbitration clause.
(iii) The arbitration clause on its proper construction was wide enough to cover a dispute as to the initial illegality of the contract.
(iv) To his evident regret, however, Steyn J was driven to hold that the principle of separability could not apply when the alleged ground of invalidity of the contract was initial illegality. The decision of this court in David Taylor & Son Ltd v Barnett [1953] 1 All ER 843, [1953] 1 WLR 562 compelled him to hold that the separability principle does not extend to initial illegality.
For the defendants Mr Kentridge submitted, as already indicated, that Steyn J was right in holding, as he did, on points (i), (ii) and (iii) above for the reasons which he gave, but contended that the decision in the Taylor case did not bind the judge to hold that the principle of separability cannot apply so as to permit an arbitrator to decide an issue of initial illegality.
The contentions of the plaintiffs, in their respondents’ notice included the following.
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(i) The judge was wrong not to hold that the non-arbitrability of an issue of initial illegality was established by the reasoning of the majority in Heyman v Darwins Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 337, [1942] AC 356.
(ii) English law has adopted the principle of separability only so far as to leave disputes as to initial validity or legality outside the jurisdiction of arbitrators.
(iii) The logical ground for excluding the arbitrator’s jurisdiction in cases of initial invalidity and initial illegality is ex nihil nihil fit, and it would be contrary to logic and principle to differentiate between cases of ‘direct’ and ‘indirect’ invalidity of the arbitration clause.
(iv) Disputes as to the legality of the contract do impeach the arbitration clause contained in the contract either directly or sufficiently directly to exclude the arbitrator’s jurisdiction.
(v) Lastly, this arbitration clause is not wide enough to cover disputes as to the initial validity of the retrocession agreement, or disputes as to illegality.
For my part, for the reasons which follow, I would uphold the reasoning and conclusion of Steyn J on all aspects of his judgment, save for his final conclusion that he was bound by the decision in the Taylor case to hold as he did. I would hold that this court can properly distinguish the decision in the Taylor case, and I would therefore allow this appeal.
As to the contention based upon Heyman v Darwins Ltd, the speeches in that case were examined again in this court in detailed argument. Mr Longmore QC submitted that the ratio of the decision was that a distinction was to be drawn between a contract which is alleged to have come to an end, and a contract which is alleged never to have been made and never to have been valid. Whereas an arbitration clause cannot apply to initial validity, that clause may apply to termination because it survives to deal with it.
The statement of that to which an arbitration clause does not apply was as much part of the decision of their Lordships as the statement of that to which it did. I do not accept this submission, and I can add nothing useful to the reasons given by Steyn J, with which I agree.
Mr Longmore QC for the plaintiff next relied upon the weight of opinion contained in the textbooks and in many dicta and decisions in support of the orthodox view, and from which he urged this court not to depart. Examples from textbooks are passages in Mustill and Boyd Commercial Arbitration (2nd edn, 1989) p 113, 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 612 and Chitty on Contracts (26th edn, 1989) para 1068.
The cases mentioned included Smith Coney & Barrett v Becker Gray & Co [1916] 2 Ch 86, Joe Lee Ltd v Lord Dalmeny [1927] Ch 300 per Eve J, Mackender v Feldia AG [1966] 3 All ER 847, [1967] 2 QB 590, Prodexport State Co for Foreign Trade v E D & F Man Ltd [1973] 1 All ER 355, [1973] QB 389 per Mocatta J and Dalmia Dairy Industries Ltd v National Bank of Pakistan [1978] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 223.
Mr Longmore also disputed the correctness of Steyn J’s view that policy considerations were all clearly in favour of the incremental development of the principle of separability so as to extend to initial illegality. It was acknowledged that parties generally do not want to face two sets of proceedings, and that that consideration was properly taken into account in Ashville Investments Ltd v Elmer Contractors Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 577, [1989] QB 488 in upholding the jurisdiction of the arbitrator under that clause to determine a claim to rectification under that contract.
The risk of two sets of proceedings, however, cannot be excluded, it was said, because it is common ground that if the attack on the initial validity of the contract must be taken to include an attack upon the validity of the arbitration clause as well, then the issue of validity must be for the court. Next it could not
Page 903 of [1993] 3 All ER 897
be assumed that parties to commercial or other contracts with arbitration clauses, would necessarily prefer or intend an issue as to original illegality to be decided by the arbitrator, particularly when the clause provides for the arbitrator to be from those engaged in a particular profession or branch of trade or commerce, as contrasted with a clause which permits the parties to appoint a lawyer, or person of other particular skills as so advised.
Further it was submitted there was little force in the reference by the judge to the preservation of the perceived neutrality of the arbitral process by not directing that an issue of initial illegality be removed from the arbitrator to the national court. In most cases, it was said the parties, by the terms of the contract including the arbitration agreement, will have determined the proper law of the contract and the national court to which any issue will be referred. Contrary to the view of Steyn J, Mr Longmore submitted that policy considerations should cause the court to favour reserving issues as to the initial validity of the contract for decision by the court.
The policy consideration which is of greatest weight, in my judgment is what the judge called the imperative of giving effect to the wishes of the parties unless there are compelling reasons of principle why it is not possible to do so.
The first argument for the plaintiffs, that is the orthodox view to which we are invited to adhere, is based on the logic of the proposition that nothing can come from nothing. Mr Longmore’s adherence to that logical proposition was, I think, less than fully constant because he, on occasion, referred to the proposition as applying to the ‘ordinary’ arbitration clause. An example of what we are, I think, to understand as an ‘extraordinary’ arbitration clause in this context is provided by the rules of the International Chamber of Commerce Arbitration, art 8.4, which expressly provide that the arbitrator shall not cease to have jurisdiction by reason of any claim that the contract is null, void or inexistent, provided that he upholds the validity of the agreement to arbitrate. The logical proposition, however, upon which the orthodox view is based, does not depend upon the terms or construction of the arbitration clause. It asserts that if the containing contract is void ab initio, an arbitration clause contained within it is also void. It follows that if the logical argument is applied according to its terms, the intention of the parties could be thwarted even if, on its true construction, the clause shows, not only that the dispute is within those agreed to be referred, but also that the clause was intended to survive the validity of the contract.
Such a rule of law should in my judgment be rejected if this court can properly hold that it is not part of our law. Once that rule is removed, the parties remain free to exclude from the arbitrator’s jurisdiction any issue which they prefer to leave to the court. That freedom will, I think, sufficiently answer the arguments of policy advanced by Mr Longmore.
The reference to an extraordinary arbitration clause as possibly outside the logical proposition is in effect an argument that, for the principle of separability to be applied so as to save the clause from voidness by reason of the voidness of the containing contract, special words are needed. I do not accept this argument. An arbitration clause, in ordinary terms—that is to say without special words to ensure survival—is usually, and has been held to be, a self-contained contract collateral to the containing contract. As with any other contract, it must be construed according to its terms in and with regard to the relevant factual situation. I see no reason to establish a principle of this nature which would require special words to be inserted in order to secure that which the parties would probably suppose was covered by the ordinary words.
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For that reason, which is of course contained in Steyn J’s judgment, it seems to me to be right for this court to be willing to abandon the orthodox view, if we are free to do so, notwithstanding the endorsement of it by so many authorities and judges.
Steyn J, if not prevented by authority, would have held that an issue as to initial illegality is capable of being within the jurisdiction of an arbitrator under a clause contained within that contract, provided that any initial illegality does not directly impeach the arbitration clause itself. He also held that the illegality alleged in this case does not impeach the arbitration clause. The concept of requiring direct impeachment was criticised in the respondent’s notice, and it was asserted that this dispute as to the legality of the contract does sufficiently impeach the arbitration clause so as to require the issue to be decided by the court. As advanced in the notice it seems to me that these contentions are part of and dependent upon the argument of the logical proposition and fall with it.
Mr Longmore however, as I understood him, also argued that, even if the logical proposition argument fails, problems remain as to when, and in what circumstances, an attack upon the initial validity of the contract must be taken to include an attack upon the initial validity of the separate but contained arbitration agreement. He criticised, for example, Steyn J’s approach to questions of fraud. Steyn J held that the inexorable logic of the decision in Mackender v Feldia AG required him to hold that a question of voidability for fraudulent misrepresentation is just as much capable of being referred to arbitration as an issue of avoidance for innocent misrepresentation.
Mr Longmore pointed out that a party to a contract the making of which he says was induced by fraud, would be surprised to be told that he is bound to have the issue tried by an arbitrator appointed under a clause in that contract. He also pointed out that when such a party alleges that the contract is void for illegality, he might well be astonished to be told that the issue of the illegality is to be determined by an arbitrator appointed under it.
There is, I think, force in these comments, but I add that in my view they are no more than forceful comments. Steyn J said that the question of fraud or initial illegality was capable of being referred to arbitration. He did not qualify the clearly stated principle that if the validity of the arbitration clause itself is attacked, the issue cannot be decided by the arbitrator. His reference to direct impeachment was, as I understood his judgment, to distinguish an attack upon the clause otherwise than by the logical proposition that the clause falls with the containing contract. When it is said that the contract was induced by fraud it may well be clear that, if it was, the making of the independent arbitration clause was also induced by the fraud. There is, further, the power of the court under s 24(2) of the 1950 Act, considered by Steyn J in his judgment (see [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 81 at 89).
Next, as to illegality, the question whether the particular form of illegality will, if proved, render void both the contract and the arbitration clause must depend upon the nature of the illegality and, as Hoffmann LJ pointed out in the course of argument, when it is said to consist of acts prohibited by statute, upon the construction of the relevant provisions of the statute.
For example, the decision of Eves J in Joe Lee Ltd v Lord Dalmeny, in which he rejected the argument that an arbitration clause in a contract for betting was collateral to the betting transaction and therefore valid, might well I think be decided in the same way if the principle of separability is upheld by this court as far as Steyn J thought it should extend.
I come now to the question of authority, to the Taylor case. In that case the contract for the sale of canned meat was illegal under price control legislation.
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The umpire awarded damages for non-delivery to be paid by the sellers, although the indisputable illegality of the contract was pointed out to him. The motion by the sellers to set aside the award on the ground that (i) the award was bad on its face and (ii) that the umpire had misconducted himself in law in failing to take into account the illegality of the contract, was dismissed by Lord Goddard CJ.
On appeal to the Court of Appeal, the same two grounds were before the court. The first was dismissed and is irrelevant. On the second ground the appeal succeeded. Steyn J noted that it was arguable that the Taylor case was decided on the basis that the arbitrator committed misconduct which warranted the setting aside of the award, and, if that was right, the decision is not authority for the proposition than an issue of illegality of the contract cannot be decided under an arbitration clause in that contract. On balance, however, he concluded that the decision could not be so distinguished at first instances. His comments upon the judgments of Singleton, Denning and Hodson LJJ are set out in his judgment (see [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 81 at 94).
I do not accept his view of the decision in the Taylor case. It is clear that it was not argued, and the court did not address the proposition that, although the contract was admittedly unlawful, the arbitrator did or did not have jurisdiction under an independent arbitration clause to determine whether it was unlawful. There would have been no point in such a contention. If he had jurisdiction to decide it, he could only lawfully decide it one way, and he had, in misconduct, chosen the other. The decision was not, in my judgment, a decision upon the point now before this court.
I will add that Denning LJ did not, as I read his judgment, base his reasoning on a jurisdictional ground in any relevant sense. He rejected the argument that the arbitrator could award what he thought it was fair to award, despite the illegality (see the Taylor case [1953] 1 All ER 843 at 847, [1953] 1 WLR 562 at 570). He added:
‘If a contract is illegal, then arbitrators must decline to award upon it just as the court would do.’
If Denning LJ had had in mind the point now in issue and intended to decide it as Mr Longmore contends he did, he would have said, ‘If it is alleged that a contract is illegal, he must decline to consider whether it is’ and he would not have said, ‘just as the court would do’ because the court would not decline to give judgment but would decide whether it was illegal and give judgment accordingly. There is, in my judgment, no authority which requires the court to dismiss the appeal on jurisdiction.
The last point is the construction of the clause. The words are:
‘All disputes or differences arising out of this Agreement shall be submitted to the decision of two Arbitrators …’
Mr Longmore’s submissions included the following: (i) the words ‘arising out of’ this agreement envisage an existing valid agreement or contract; (ii) a dispute as to whether the contract was void at inception does not arise out of the contract; (iii) if an arbitration clause is capable in law of conferring jurisdiction on arbitrators to decide whether the contract is invalid ‘very clear language’ is required to achieve such a result. Reference was made to the speech of Lord Porter in Heyman v Darwins Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 337 at 357, [1942] AC 356 at 392; and (iv) in Union of India v E B Aaby’s Rederi A/S [1974] 2 All ER 874 at 885, 886–887, [1975] AC 797 at 814, 817 Viscount Dilhorne and Lord Salmon indicated that
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there was no discernible difference in width of meaning between ‘arising out of a contract’ and ‘under a contract’.
In Fillite (Runcorn) Ltd v Aqua-Lift (1989) 26 Con LR 66 the words of the clause were, ‘any dispute or difference … arising under’ the agreement. Nourse LJ said (at 79):
‘The preposition “under” presupposes that the noun which it governs already has some existence. It operates in time as well as in space. I think that it means “as a result of and with reference to”. The disputes as to express or implied terms in the composite Peterborough contract arise both as a result of and with reference to that contract and are therefore within cl 14 of the heads of agreement. The disputes as to negligent misstatement, misrepresentation under the Misrepresentation Act 1967 and collateral warranty or contract, while they may in a loose sense be said to arise with reference to the contract, cannot be said to arise as a result of it. They all relate to matters which either preceded the contract or were at best contemporaneous with it. Those disputes are therefore outside cl 14. I agree with Slade LJ that the material words are not wide enough to include disputes which do not concern obligations created by or incorporated in the contract.’
It was then submitted that since the words in the present clause ‘arising out of’ the contract are for this purposes no wider than ‘under’ the contract (see Union of India v E B Aaby’s Rederi A/S) then, as in the Fillite case where the word was ‘under’, the present clause presupposes that the contract was in existence and not void for illegality. The words do not apply to the issue as to whether the contract was in existence or void.
In my judgment, Steyn J was right to hold that, as a matter of construction of the contract, the present clause covers the issue of illegality, and his conclusion does not conflict with the judgment of Nourse LJ in the Fillite case with which Hollings J there agreed.
In agreeing that ‘all disputes and differences arising out of this Agreement shall be submitted to the decision of the two Arbitrators’, the parties were indeed presupposing that ‘the Agreement’ had some relevant existence. For this purpose I think ‘this Agreement’ means the act of the parties recorded in the document which contains the mutual promises which they have made. The meaning and effect of those promises with reference to their subsequent acts would be determined according to law and, if necessary, under the proviso for arbitration. The words must be construed by reference to any relevant facts (see Prenn v Simmonds [1971] 3 All ER 237, [1971] 1 WLR 1381) but there has been no reliance on any particular circumstances for this purpose other than those evident from the making of the contract itself. The question whether all the promises contained in the agreement were rendered invalid and void at the time when the parties signed the documents by the illegality of the agreement, is in my judgment a dispute arising out of the agreement.
There was much material put before the court to which I have not referred. The material was provided to us before the hearing so that we were able to read it before the argument commenced. We are indeed grateful for this assistance. I have not referred to the authorities copied, to the extracts from textbooks and articles, and to the reports of decisions in the courts of the United States, or Australia, Germany and Bermuda. In a case of this nature it was, I think, of importance that we be shown this material so that we should be instructed as to the development in this part of the law in other jurisdictions. The parties were not at one as to the precise direction and extent of such development. It is
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sufficient in my judgment to say that I have read much that has encouraged me to reach the conclusion expressed in this judgment, and nothing to suggest that in doing so I would be ignoring any substantial matter of policy or departing from any principle which should form part of the development of the common law.
I would allow this appeal.
LEGGATT LJ. The judge acceded to the submission that if he were to rule on the legality of the retrocession agreement, he would be deciding the very question which the arbitrator was supposed to determine. So the judge preferred to decide instead the question whether the arbitrator could determine whether or not the agreement was illegal ab initio. If he could not, then the judge would have to do so. But just as the court may decline to grant a stay under s 1 of the Arbitration Act 1975 on the ground that there is not in fact any dispute between the parties with regard to the matter agreed to be referred, so I should have thought that it would have been open to the judge to have concluded that, as Hoffmann LJ suggested in argument, (a) performance of the retrocession agreement was not itself illegal and (b) lack of an insurable interest would render it unenforceable, but not void. Upon that basis there would be no ground for arguing that the proceedings should be stayed.
I am therefore chary of the assumption upon which we have been invited to proceed for purposes of this appeal that the retrocession agreement was itself illegal by reason of the assumed illegality of the underlying re-insurance agreements. But making that assumption, I agree with the judge’s conclusion that—
‘the separability principle, as applicable also to cases of the initial invalidity of the contract, is sound in legal theory. It is also in the public interest that the arbitral process, which is founded on party autonomy, should be effective. There are strong policy reasons in favour of holding that an arbitration clause is capable of surviving the initial invalidity of the contract … As a matter of precedent it is therefore open to make a ruling such as I have indicated. In my judgment, the developments which have taken place, and the reasons for it, required me to make such a ruling. I do so.’ (See [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 81 at 93.)
I also agree that it would be consistent with his general approach to say that the initial illegality of the contract is capable of being referred to arbitration, provided that it does not impeach the arbitration clause itself; that supervening illegality can be so referred; and that an arbitrator appointed under a contemporaneous document separate from the contract can determine an issue as to initial illegality.
Mr Longmore QC recognised that his best hope of stemming the tide running in favour of arbitral autonomy was to limit the scope of the principle of separability. Taking his stand as the last bastion of orthodoxy, Mr Longmore bravely contended that it is part of the ratio decidendi of Heyman v Darwins Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 337 at 343, [1942] AC 356 at 366 that, as Viscount Simon LC commented:
‘… if one party to the alleged contract is contending that it is void ab initio (because, for example, the making of such a contract is illegal) the arbitration clause cannot operate, for on this view the clause itself also is void.’
In my judgment because Viscount Simon LC’s comment was not necessary to the decision, it formed no part of the ratio decidendi. The true ratio decidendi
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was expressed by Lord Macmillan in these words ([1942] 1 All ER 337 at 347, [1942] AC 356 at 374):
‘… what is commonly called the repudiation or total breach of a contract, whether acquiesced in by the other party or not, does not abrogate a contract, though it may relieve the injured party of the duty or further fulfilling the obligations which he has by a contract undertaken to the repudiating party. The contract is not put out of existence, though all further performance of the obligations undertaken by each party in favour of the other may cease. It survives for the purpose of measuring the claims arising out of the breach, and the arbitration clause survives for determining the mode of their settlement.’
In more recent cases, beginning with Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289, [1981] AC 909, the House of Lords has explained the status of the arbitration clause. For example, Lord Diplock asserted in Paal Wilson & Co A/S v Partenreederei Hannah Blumenthal, The Hannah Blumenthal [1983] 1 All ER 34 at 50, [1983] 1 AC 854 at 917 that it was established in Heyman v Darwins Ltd that:
‘An arbitration clause is collateral to the main contract in which it is incorporated and it gives rise to collateral primary and secondary obligations of its own.’
Mr Longmore submits that the mere fact that the arbitration clause is collateral does not mean that the arbitrator can deal with initial invalidity. Aside from the question of construction, the argument in logic is that because there was, or is alleged to have been, no contract in the first place, the arbitration clause goes that was contained in it. The counter argument is that because the arbitration agreement is separable from the contract containing it, it has a life of its own, which continues while the fate of the contract is being determined. Where the contract is alleged to have been invalidated by statute, the essential question must be whether the statute was intended to strike down the submission to arbitration.
Before examining the reason why the judge ultimately refrained from holding that the separability principle extends to initial illegality of a contract in which the arbitration clause is incorporated, it is convenient to consider the principle in the light of the comments of Judge Schwebel in the paper cited by Steyn J (S M Schwebel International Arbitration: Three Salient Problems (1987) pp 1–60).
The arbitration agreement, if sufficiently widely drawn, is from its nature intended by the parties to govern any dispute that may arise between them, including a dispute about the initial illegality of the contract. There is no reason why the parties should have intended to exempt from the scope of the arbitration clause a dispute such as the respondents saw fit to instigate here about whether the retrocession agreement was itself infected by illegality of the underlying insurance agreements. Otherwise it would put it in the power of one contracting party to prevent arbitration from taking place simply by alleging that the contract was void for initial illegality, though why in this case the respondents should wish for more publicity than is necessary remains a mystery. It is worth noting, as Judge Schwebel has remarked in his paper (at p 5):
‘… the courts of most countries will not review the holdings of the arbitrator on the substance of the case and accordingly will not challenge his holding with respect to the validity of the principal agreement which contains the arbitral clause.’
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Judge Schwebel concluded (at p 60):
‘As a matter of practice, that principle (of the severability of an arbitration clause from the principal agreement which contains it) has been sustained by the terms and implications of arbitration conventions and rules, and by the case law, whether public international law, international commercial arbitration, or national arbitration.’
The separability principle is seen in its simplest form in the United States Arbitration Act 1925, s 4 of which provides that ‘upon being satisfied that the making of the agreement for arbitration or the failure to comply therewith is not in issue, the court shall make an order’ equivalent to a stay.
In this case there is no dispute about the making of the retrocession agreement nor is it disputed that it contained an arbitration clause; and the objection to the arbitrator’s jurisdiction did not constitute a failure to comply with the arbitration clause. Delivering the opinion of the majority of the Supreme Court of the United States in Prima Paint Corp v Flood & Conklin Mfg Co (1967) 388 US 395 at 403 Fortas J said:
‘Accordingly, if the claim is fraud in the inducement of the arbitration clause itself—an issue which goes to the “making” of the agreement to arbitrate—the federal court may proceed to adjudicate it. But the statutory language does not permit the federal court to consider claims of fraud in the inducement of the contract generally.’
For present purposes it is unnecessary to consider the answer either to the question whether the contract was actually concluded or to the question whether the arbitration agreement itself was valid. Neither is in doubt here.
It was by Smith Coney & Barrett v Becker Gray & Co [1916] 2 Ch 86, Joe Lee Ltd v Lord Dalmeny [1927] Ch 300 and David Taylor & Son Ltd v Barnett [1953] 1 All ER 843, [1953] 1 WLR 562 that the judge felt inhibited from holding that an issue as to initial illegality of the contract is capable of being referred to arbitration. Smith Coney & Barrett v Becker Gray & Co related to a contract that was held not to be illegal, and the principle of separability was not mooted. Joe Lee Ltd v Lord Dalmeny, was decided by Eve J on the ground that he could not separate the arbitration agreement from the gaming or wagering contract of which it formed part. It therefore constituted an express rejection of the principle at a date before it had been considered by the House of Lords.
In David Taylor & Son Ltd v Barnett one of the two grounds relied on by the seller’s motion to set aside the award was that it was bad on the face of it, in that it incorporated by reference and purported to enforce a contract that was illegal. Singleton and Hodson LJJ (in agreement with Lord Goddard CJ at first instance) said that the award should not be set aside on that ground (see [1953] 1 All ER 843 at 847, [1953] 1 WLR 526 at 569, 571). Although Denning LJ did not refer to it, it follows that the case was decided on the other ground relied on, namely that the umpire had misconducted himself in law in failing to take into account that the contract was illegal. Because the case was indisputably decided on that ground, all else that was said was obiter. The court’s only alternative to setting aside the award was to remit or enforce it. Since the umpire had made his award, there was no question of a stay of proceedings in favour of arbitration: the judgments proceeded on the ground that the umpire was no more entitled than a judge would have been to uphold a contract that was ex facie illegal, and that the award should therefore be set aside. Singleton LJ did cite the obiter dictum of Lord Cozens-Hardy MR in the Smith Coney & Barrett case that if a contract was illegal
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by reason of war, any question of arbitration under the contract would fall with it. Since there was no reference to jurisdiction in the judgment of Singleton LJ but only to misconduct, the dictum seems only to have served as an example of palpable illegality. Denning LJ based himself not upon failure of the arbitration clause, but upon the proposition that ‘If a contract is illegal, then arbitrators must decline to award upon it just as the court would do’ (see [1953] 1 All ER 843 at 847, [1953] 1 WLR 562 at 570). Both Singleton and Denning LJJ contemplated that the award might be remitted, but took the view that it would be purposeless to do so, since there was only one conclusion to which the umpire could come.
Mr Longmore sought to explain the possibility of remission, which, as the judge pointed out, presupposed a valid arbitration agreement, by suggesting that the voluntary appearance of both parties before the umpire might have constituted a submission to arbitration. Of that there is no sign in the report, but if correct it would mean that there could have been no question of the arbitration clause failing with the main contract. Hodson LJ proceeded upon the ground relied on by the sellers that the umpire misconducted himself in failing to take into account the illegality of the contract. He regarded as applicable to arbitrations the principle enunciated by Lord Ellenborough CJ in Langton v Hughes (1813) 1 M & S 593 at 596, 105 ER 222 at 223 that: ‘what is done in contravention of the provisions of an Act of Parliament, cannot be made the subject-matter of an action.' In other words, this court set aside an award based on an illegal contract, not because the illegality had the effect of depriving the umpire of jurisdiction by avoiding the arbitration clause, but because the umpire was no more permitted than the court would have been to ignore the illegality of the contract.
All three cases cited by the judge in this context were decided before the House of Lords in the Bremer Vulcan case had explained the separability of the arbitration agreement. In my judgment none of those cases impels the conclusion that an arbitrator can have no jurisdiction to decide whether the contract in which the arbitration agreement is incorporated is void ab initio. If the judge was bound by the authority of the Taylor case to reach that conclusion, so are we. But I do not consider that he was. I do not find it necessary to any of the other cases on which Mr Longmore relied, because none of them was decisive, and I agree with my Lord’s observations about such of them as he has referred to.
In my judgment this court is not obliged by authority to prevent the arbitrator from determining the issue of initial illegality. The tide is flowing in favour of permitting the arbitrator to do so, and it is no more necessary on grounds of public policy for the courts to retain exclusive control over the determination of the initial legality of agreements than over their subsequent legality. In particular, it would ill become the courts of this country, by setting their face against this jurisdiction, to deprive those engaged in international commerce of the opportunity of entrusting such disputes to English commercial arbitrators without the need for arbitration clauses containing elaborate self-fulfilling formulae.
Mr Longmore’s final argument was that because more explicit words might have been used in the arbitration clause, such as are to be found in art 8.4 of the Rules for the International Chamber of Commerce, or in art 16 of the UNCITRAL Model Law, the words actually used do not provide the requisite clarity. But the fact that the clause might have been more explicit does not mean that it was not sufficient. Mr Longmore argued that the arbitration clause was not apt, as a matter of construction, to apply to a dispute about the legality of the retrocession agreement in which it was contained, because a dispute ‘arising out of’ an agreement pre-supposes an existing valid agreement. But there is no issue about
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the making of the arbitration agreement, and it is undoubtedly out of the retrocession agreement that, on account of the contention that it is void for lack of an insurable interest, the dispute between the parties arises. I discern no intention by the parties not to treat a dispute as arising out of the retrocession agreement if one of the parties contends that the intention of the other has the effect of avoiding it retrospectively.
It follows that I too would take the step from which the judge drew back. I therefore agree that the appeal should be allowed, and the stay granted.
HOFFMANN LJ. The plaintiff, by his writ dated 2 November 1989, claimed a declaration that the retrocession agreements were void or alternatively that the plaintiff was entitled to avoid them. The points of claim, dated 29 November 1989, alleged misrepresentations and failure to disclose material facts. The plaintiff also alleged that in respect of the insurance written and retroceded in the years in question, the defendants were not registered or approved by the Department of Trade to carry on insurance business in Great Britain. This allegation, which is not disputed, formed the basis of a claim that the retrocession agreements were void.
Each of the agreements contained an arbitration clause by which, ‘all disputes or differences arising out of this agreement’ were to be submitted to arbitration. On 11 January 1990 the defendants issued their summons for a stay. On 20 February 1990 Gatehouse J ordered by consent the trial of the following preliminary issue:
‘Whether the Court is satisfied that, by reason of illegality, (i) The arbitration agreements contained in the retrocession agreements for the underwriting years 1980, 1981 and 1982 are null and void, inoperative or incapable of being performed; (ii) There is not in fact any dispute or difference between the parties within the meaning of the said arbitration agreements.’
Pursuant to the directions of Gatehouse J, the plaintiff served points of claim on the preliminary issue. It alleged that the defendants, although not registered or approved to carry on insurance business in Great Britain, intended nevertheless at the time of each retrocession agreement to carry on such business and to retrocede insurance contracts which in law they were not entitled to effect. For the same reason, the contracts actually purported to be retroceded were void for illegality. From this it was alleged to follow that the retrocession agreements, including the arbitration clauses, were null and void or unenforceable. The plaintiff was asked for further particulars of precisely how the retrocession agreements were said to be affected by the illegality of the underlying contracts. The answer was:
‘The Quota Share Reinsurances are null and void and/or intrinsically illegal by reason of the fact that the Defendants had no insurable interest therein. Further or alternatively the primary contractual obligations are unenforceable by reason of illegality.’
On the hearing of the preliminary issue, Steyn J said that it could be divided into three sub-issues: (a) whether the arbitration clause could survive the alleged illegality of the retrocession agreements and was wide enough to cover the illegality issue; (b) whether there was in fact any dispute to justify a stay; and (c) ‘the substantive merits of the plaintiff’s allegations of illegality’.
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Sub-issue (b) disappeared when the plaintiff conceded that there was a ‘real live issue on illegality’. On the application of the defendants, the judge deferred consideration of sub-issue (c) because otherwise, if he or a higher court decided sub-issue (a) in the defendants’ favour, he would have decided a question within the province of the arbitrators. He therefore addressed himself solely to sub-issue (a).
This issue, as I have stated it above, involves two separate questions. The first is whether the arbitration clause would itself be struck down by the alleged illegality. The second is whether, as a matter of construction, it is wide enough to cover the illegality issue.
It is common ground that in English law an arbitrator cannot bind the parties by a ruling of his own jurisdiction, and therefore the validity of the arbitration clause is not an arbitrable issue. Mr Longmore QC for the plaintiff says that he is alleging that the entire retrocession agreement was void ab initio for illegality and that if this is right, the arbitration clause must also be void.
Both before Steyn J and in this court, Mr Kentridge QC for the defendants was content to argue the case on the footing that there was a genuine dispute, which, depending on the outcome of this appeal, the judge or arbitrator would have to determine, over whether the retrocession agreements were void ab initio for illegality. I too am content to proceed on this basis, but I must confess to considerable doubt as to whether the plaintiff’s pleadings on the preliminary issue disclose any arguable case for the agreements having been void ab initio.
The basis of the alleged illegality is the Insurance Companies Act 1974, of which the relevant provisions are as follows:
‘2.—(1) No person shall carry on in Great Britain insurance business of a class relevant for the purposes of this Part of this Act … except—(a) a body corporate which is authorised under section 3 below to carry on business of that class …
11.—(1) A person who carries on business in contravention of this Part of this Act shall be guilty of an offence …’
Section 83 defines each of the relevant classes of business as ‘the effecting and carrying out of contracts of insurance’ of that class.
In Phoenix General Insurance Co of Greece SA v Administratia Asigurarilor de Stat [1987] 2 All ER 152, [1988] QB 216 this court decided, following Re an arbitration between Mahmoud and Ispahani [1921] 2 KB 716, [1921] All ER Rep 217, that the effect of these provisions was impliedly to prohibit the effecting or carrying out of contracts of insurance by an unauthorised insurer. It followed that such contracts were void ab initio.
In this case, however, the plaintiff as insurer under the retrocession agreements was authorised to carry on the relevant business. The defendants were not, but insuring oneself is not an activity which requires authorisation under the Act. The plaintiff therefore does not allege that the Phoenix principle directly prohibited the effecting or carrying out of the retrocession agreements. The allegation is that the Act prohibited and rendered void the underlying insurance contracts which the defendants intended and purported to retrocede.
I cannot understand how the way in which the retrocession agreements were performed, or the defendants’ intentions on the subject, can have made them void ab initio. The agreements were not such that they could only be performed unlawfully. There was nothing to stop the defendants from conducting their business outside Great Britain (as they claim they did) or obtaining authorisation under the Act. The fact that the contracts retroceded were void may have avoided the composite contract constituted by the retrocession agreement and
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the retrocessions, but cannot, as it seems to me, have made the retrocession agreement itself void ab initio. Equally, it may be that the defendants intended to perform the retrocession agreements in an unlawful manner, but this would merely disentitle the defendants from enforcing its obligations. It would not make the agreement void.
I mention these doubts because I think there is a real possibility that the questions which both parties invite this court to decide are in fact moot. Nevertheless, since the questions have been fully argued, I think we should decide them.
Mr Longmore’s argument is extremely simple. He says that the question raised on the pleadings is whether the retrocession agreement was void ab initio. The arbitration clause formed part of the retrocession agreement. Therefore the issue must involve the validity of the arbitration clause itself.
Mr Longmore calls this logic. I call it oversimplification. The flaw in the logic, as it seems to me, lies in the ambiguity of the proposition that the arbitration clause ‘formed part’ of the retrocession agreement. In one sense of course it did. It was cl 12 of a longer document which also dealt with the substantive rights and duties of the parties. But parties can include more than one agreement in a single document. They may say in express words that two separate agreements are intended. Or the question of whether the document amounts to one agreement or two may have to be answered by reference to the kind of provisions it contains. In any case, it is always essential to have regard to the reason why the question is being asked. There is no single concept of ‘forming part’ which will provide the answer in every case. For some purposes a clause may form part of an agreement and for other purposes it may constitute a separate agreement. One must in each case consider the terms and purpose of the rule which makes it necessary to ask the question.
Mr Longmore’s argument might have appealed to Lord Sumner, who, in Hirji Mulji v Cheong Yue Steamship Co Ltd [1926] AC 497 at 505, [1926] All ER Rep 51 at 56, said:
‘The arbitration clause is but part of the contract and, unless it is couched in such terms as will except it out of the results, which follow from frustration, generally, it will come to an end too.’
But the reign of false logic came to an end with the decision of the House of Lords in Heyman v Darwins Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 337, [1942] AC 356. This case decided that an accepted repudiation or frustration, while it might bring the contract to an end in the sense of discharging the parties from further performance of their primary obligations, did not affect the enforceability of an arbitration clause. The House arrived at this decision by looking at the purpose of the rule that accepted repudiation or frustration discharges the parties from further obligations and asking whether the arbitration clause should for this purpose be regarded as imposing an obligation. In one sense it obviously did. In the context of the repudiation or frustration rules, however, there was no reason to treat the obligation to submit to arbitration as discharged, and such a conclusion would have severely reduced the value of the clause.
In explaining why he refused to categorise an arbitration clause as a contractual obligation for the purposes of the repudiation or frustration rules, Lord Macmillan said ([1942] 1 All ER 337 at 347, [1942] AC 356 at 373–374):
‘I venture to think that not enough attention has been directed to the true nature and function of an arbitration clause in a contract. It is quite distinct from the other clauses. The other clauses set out the obligations which the
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parties undertake towards each other hinc inde; but the arbitration clause does not impose on one of the parties an obligation in favour of the other. It embodies the agreement of both parties that, if any dispute arises with regard to the obligations which the one party has undertaken to the other, such dispute shall be settled by a tribunal of their own constitution.’
Likewise Lord Wright said ([1942] 1 All ER 337 at 349, [1942] AC 356 at 377):
‘[An arbitration agreement] is collateral to the substantial stipulations of the contract; it is merely procedural and ancillary; it is a mode of settling disputes, though the agreement to do so is itself subject to the discretion of the court. All this may be said of every agreement to arbitrate, even though not a separate bargain, but one incorporated in the general contract.’
The proposition that at least for some purposes the arbitration clause may be treated as severable or separable or autonomous has become orthodox doctrine. In Bremer Vulkan Schiffbau Und Maschinenfabrik v South India Shipping Corp [1981] 1 All ER 289 at 297, [1981] AC 909 at 980 Lord Diplock was able to say without further explanation:
‘The arbitration clause constitutes a self-contained contract collateral or ancillary to the shipbuilding agreement itself: see Heyman v Darwins Ltd [1942] 1 All ER 337, [1942] AC 356.’
Lord Scarman, citing the same authority, said that an arbitration clause in a contract was ‘in strict analysis a separate contract, ancillary to the main contract’.
Mr Longmore therefore accepts, as he must, that for some purposes the arbitration clause is treated as severable and may survive the termination or even the avoidance with retrospective effect of all the other obligations under the contract (see Mackender v Feldia AG [1966] 3 All ER 847, [1967] 2 QB 590). He submits, however, that the separability doctrine cannot apply to any rule which prevents the contract from coming into existence or makes it void ab initio. In particular, it does not apply to a statute or other rule of law which makes the contract void for illegality.
It seems to me impossible to accept so sweeping a proposition. There will obviously be cases in which a claim that no contract came into existence necessarily entails a denial that there was any agreement to arbitrate. Cases of non est factum or denial that there was a concluded agreement, or mistake as to the identity of the other contracting party suggest themselves as examples. But there is no reason why every case of initial invalidity should have this consequence. A curious contrary example is the decision of the Court of Appeal of Bermuda in Sojuznefteexport v Joc Oil Ltd (1990) 15 YBCA 384 in which the signatory to an agreement containing an arbitration clause had no authority to bind the plaintiff to the substantive obligations but was authorised to sign an arbitration agreement. The court held that the arbitration clause was separable and binding. The decision was reached under Soviet law as the proper law of the contract, but I think that the answer in English law would have been the same.
In every case it seems to me that the logical question is not whether the issue goes to the validity of the contract but whether it goes to the validity of the arbitration clause. The one may entail the other but, as we have seen, it may not. When one comes to voidness for illegality, it is particularly necessary to have regard to the purpose and policy of the rule which invalidates the contract and to ask, as the House of Lords did in Heyman v Darwins Ltd, whether the rule strikes down the arbitration clause as well. There may be cases in which the policy of the rule is such that it would be liable to be defeated by allowing the issue to be
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determined by a tribunal chosen by the parties. This may be especially true of contrats d’adhesion in which the arbitrator is in practice the choice of the dominant party. Thus saying that arbitration clauses, because separable, are never affected by the illegality of the principal contract is as much a case of false logic as saying that they must be.
As Ralph Gibson LJ has pointed out the same is true of allegations of fraud.
In deciding whether or not the rule of illegality also strikes down the arbitration clause, it is necessary to bear in mind the powerful commercial reasons for upholding arbitration clauses unless it is clear that this would offend the policy of the illegality rule. These are, first, the desirability of giving effect to the right of the parties to choose a tribunal to resolve their disputes and secondly, the practical advantages of one-stop adjudication, or in other words, the inconvenience of having one issue resolved by the court and then, contingently on the outcome of that decision, further issues decided by the arbitrator.
As the German Federal Supreme Court (Bundesgerichtschof) said in its landmark decision of 27 February 1970 (6 Arb Int 79 at 85):
‘There is every reason to presume that reasonable parties will wish to have the relationships created by their contract and the claims arising therefrom, irrespective of whether their contract is effective or not, decided by the same tribunal and not by two different tribunals … Experience shows that as soon as a dispute of any kind arises from a contract, objections are very often also raised against its validity …’
As against these considerations, is there anything in the policy of the rule which is alleged to invalidate the retrocession agreements which requires that the arbitration clause should also be invalid? I have already expressed my doubts as to whether the rule had any effect upon the initial validity of the agreements at all. I shall assume, however, that one was dealing with an insurance contract which was alleged to fall within the scope of the implied prohibition in the Insurance Companies Act 1974. Is there anything in such a provision which would be undermined by allowing the issue of whether it applied to be determined by arbitration? Mr Longmore submitted that as a matter of policy all questions of illegality were better determined by the court than by arbitration. For my part, I cannot see why this should be so. In any case, Mr Longmore had to concede that any such policy was not applied when it came to allowing arbitrators to decide whether a contract had been frustrated by supervening illegality. Since Heyman v Darwins Ltd there has been no doubt that they have jurisdiction to do so. As for the specific statutory provisions, Kerr LJ in the Phoenix case wrung his hands over the conclusion to which he felt obliged to come and said that the invalidity of the substantive agreement itself could not be justified on any sound grounds of public policy. In those circumstances, it seems to me unnecessary to carry the effect of the prohibition even further and hold that it also invalidates an agreement to arbitrate the question of whether it applies.
Mr Longmore submitted that the rule for which he was contending however illogical or inconvenient it might be, was established by authority binding upon this court. He relied in particular upon some remarks in Heyman v Darwins Ltd by Viscount Simon LC and Lord Macmillan, with whose speech Lord Russell of Killowen agreed. Both speeches contain passages which contrast cases of accepted repudiation or frustration (with which the case was actually concerned) with cases of initial invalidity (with which it was not concerned). It seems to me that this contrast was understandable because the most common examples of cases in which the ground of invalidity of the substantive obligations of the
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contract also necessarily entails the invalidity of the arbitration clause are cases of initial invalidity, such as the absence of consensus ad idem, non est factum, mistake as to the person and so forth. There was no reason for their Lordships to go into the question of whether every ground for initial invalidity of the main contract necessarily entailed the invalidity of the arbitration clause and anything which appears to support this proposition must in my judgment have been an obiter dictum.
There are passages in subsequent cases cited by Mr Longmore which treat the dicta about initial invalidity of the contract in Heyman v Darwins Ltd as authority for the rule that an arbitration clause can never be the subject of a binding arbitration. Similar statements appear in textbooks. But none of these are binding authority. Steyn J was however persuaded that David Taylor & Son Ltd v Barnett [1953] 1 All ER 843, [1953] 1 WLR 562, a decision of this court, was binding authority for the proposition that an arbitrator cannot have jurisdiction to decide whether the contract containing the arbitration clause is void for illegality. In my view the case did not address this question at all. First, the motion to set aside the award was based upon two grounds: error of law on the face of the award (which the court rejected) and misconduct by the arbitrator in wilfully failing to have regard to the fact that the contract was illegal. The motion did not impugn his jurisdiction at all. Secondly, the references to jurisdiction in the judgments were statements to the effect that an arbitrator did not have jurisdiction to award damages on an illegal contract. No one said that the arbitrator could not have jurisdiction to decide whether the contract was illegal in the first place. Thirdly, even if by some implication the case is treated as having decided that the arbitration clause was itself void for illegality, the case can only have decided that this was the effect of the relevant statutory instruments. It cannot have decided that every ground of illegality must necessarily invalidate an arbitration clause in the prohibited contract.
It follows that in my judgment the illegality pleaded by the plaintiff does not affect the validity of the arbitration clause. This leaves the question of whether as a matter of construction the clause is wide enough to cover the illegality issue. In construing the contract, one is assisted by the presumption in favour of one-stop adjudication to which I have already referred. As Bingham LJ said in Ashville Investments Ltd v Elmer Contractors Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 577 at 599, [1989] QB 488 at 517:
‘I would be very slow to attribute to reasonable parties an intention that there should in any foreseeable eventuality be two sets of proceedings.’
In my judgment the words ‘all disputes or differences arising out of this Agreement’ apply without difficulty to a dispute over whether the agreement, which was admittedly concluded, gave rise to any enforceable obligations. The presumption merely reassures one that the natural meaning of the words produce a sensible and business-like result.
I therefore agree that the appeal should be allowed and the proceedings stayed.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Raina Levy Barrister.
R v Shorrock
[1993] 3 All ER 917
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIMON BROWN LJ, POPPLEWELL AND RATTEE JJ
Hearing Date(s): 5, 18 FEBRUARY 1993
Criminal law – Public nuisance – Elements of offence – Knowledge – Whether defendant must have actual knowledge of nuisance – Whether sufficient that defendant knew or ought to have known that nuisance might be caused.
The appellant let a field on his farm to three people for a weekend for £2,000 and then went away for the weekend. The appellant did not know for what purpose the field had been rented but was told that it was to raise money for a special school. The field was in fact used for an ‘acid house party’ lasting about 15 hours and attended by between 3,000 and 5,000 people who paid £15 each admission. There was a great deal of noise and the police received about 275 complaints of noise and disturbance, some from people living as far as four miles away. The appellant, along with the organisers, was charged with public nuisance. He was convicted and fined £2,500 and ordered to pay £1,500 costs. He appealed on the ground that the Crown had failed to show that he had had the necessary knowledge that a public nuisance would be committed on his land.
Held – In order for a person to be convicted of the offence of public nuisance on his land it was not necessary for the Crown to prove that he had actual knowledge of the nuisance but merely that he was responsible for a nuisance which he knew or ought to have known (in the sense that the means of knowledge were available to him) would be the consequences of activities on his land. Accordingly, the appellant had been properly convicted, as he ought to have known that there was a real risk that the consequences of the licence of the field granted by him would be to create the sort of nuisance that in fact occurred. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 924 e to h and p 925 d to h, post).
Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callagan [1940] 3 All ER 349 applied.
Notes For public nuisance, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 305–306, and for cases on the subject, see 36(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 26–28, 160–167.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G (ex rel Glamorgan CC and Pontardawe RDC) v PYA Quarries Ltd [1957] 1 All ER 894, [1957] 2 QB 169, [1957] 2 WLR 770, CA.
R v Henson (1852) Dears 24, 169 ER 621.
R v Madden [1975] 3 All ER 155, [1975] 1 WLR 1379, CA.
R v Moore (1832) 3 B & Ad 184, [1824–34] All ER Rep 527, 110 ER 184.
R v Stephens (1866) LR 1 QB 702.
R v Stevenson (1862) 3 F & F 106, 176 ER 48, NP.
R v Vantadillo (1815) 4 M & S 73, 105 ER 762.
Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callagan [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880, HL.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Barker v Herbert [1911] 2 KB 633, [1911–13] All ER Rep 509, CA.
Bellamy v Wells (1890) 60 LJ Ch 156.
Goldman v Hargrave [1966] 2 All ER 989, [1967] 1 AC 645, HL.
Page 918 of [1993] 3 All ER 917
Harris v James (1876) 45 LJQB 545, [1874–80] All ER Rep 1142, DC.
Laugher v Pointer (1826) 5 B & C 547, 108 ER 204.
Leakey v National Trust for Places of Historic Interest or Natural Beauty [1978] 3 All ER 234, [1978] QB 849; affd [1980] 1 All ER 17, [1980] QB 485, CA.
Smith v Scott [1972] 3 All ER 645, [1973] Ch 314.
Tetley v Chitty [1986] 1 All ER 663.
White v Jameson (1874) LR 18 Eq 303, MR.
Appeal against convictionPeter Coar Shorrock appealed with the leave of May J against his conviction on 9 May 1991 in the Crown Court at Preston before Judge Lockett and a jury of public nuisance, for which he was fined £2,500 and ordered to pay £1,500 costs. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Arthur Stuttard (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Peter Openshaw QC (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Preston) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
18 February 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
RATTEE J. On 9 May 1991 in the Crown Court at Preston, after a retrial presided over by Judge Lockett, the appellant was convicted of public nuisance and was fined £2,500 and ordered to pay £1,500 costs. He now appeals against his conviction with the leave of the single judge.
The relevant facts can, for the purpose of this judgment, be summarised as follows. From approximately 10.30 pm on Saturday, 16 September 1989 until approximately 1.20 pm the following day an ‘acid house party’ took place on farmland off Broken Stone Lane, Fenniscowles, near Blackburn in Lancashire. The land was owned by the appellant, a farmer. Between 3,000 and 5,000 people attended the party. The price of admission was £15 per person. The event caused a very great deal of noise and greatly disturbed the local populace. Such was the degree of disturbance that during the event the local police received approximately 275 telephone complaints from local residents who were disturbed by the noise caused by music played and by speech relayed over a public address system installed on the field, complaints coming from persons living as much as four miles from the field. Indeed, not surprisingly, the appellant accepts that a public nuisance was caused. His contention is that he is not liable for it, for reasons which we will explain a little later in this judgment. The event was publicised in the locality by means of local radio and posters. The publicity material did not identify the venue for the party but gave telephone numbers from which, on the night of the party, details of its location could be obtained.
On the morning of Saturday, 16 September marquees were erected on the field and electricity generators and loud speakers placed on site under the protection of persons calling themselves ‘security officers’. The police became aware of the intended event and, fearing public disturbance, succeeded in obtaining from the High Court an injunction to restrain the holding of the event. The police caused the injunction to be read aloud at the site of the party but to little effect. They attempted to serve it on the appellant landowner but could obtain no reply from his address. One of the facts relied upon by the prosecution was that the appellant and his wife were absent from home during the weekend while the event was being prepared and taking place.
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The appellant was arrested on 25 October 1989. When first interviewed by the police he said that on Friday, 15 September he received a telephone call followed by a visit from one Kevin Read, whom he knew, accompanied on the visit by two other persons. They said they wished to hire a field over that weekend in order to raise money for a special school. The appellant agreed and, he said, received the sum of £50 for the use of the field. He had then gone to Harrogate for the weekend, as he had already planned to do. In a second interview with the police, he said that he was in fact paid £2,000 for the use of the field, which sum he intended to include the cost of damage to the grass crop on the field at the time. He did not know, he said, what type of event was intended to be held on the field.
The appellant was charged with public nuisance together with others allegedly involved in the arrangement of the acid house party, the particulars of the offence stated in the indictment being that they ‘on the 16th and 17th days of September 1989 caused a nuisance to the public by unlawfully causing or permitting loud music to be played from a field off Broken Stone Lane, Blackburn, so interfering with the convenience and comfort of the people of the neighbourhood’.
At the close of the prosecution case at the trial the appellant submitted that as against him there was no case to answer because the prosecution had failed to show the necessary knowledge on his part that a public nuisance would be caused on his field as a result of his allowing it to be used by his licensee. It was submitted that for the Crown to make good the charge against the appellant it was necessary to show that he had knowledge that the offence of public nuisance would be committed on his land. The trial judge ruled against this submission and held that it was sufficient for the prosecution to show that the appellant knew or ought to have known that, as a result of his acts, a public nuisance would be committed.
The appellant then gave evidence to the following effect. He had not been present during any part of the event held on his field. On the day before the event he had received a request from Kevin Read for the use of his field. Mr Read told him that he and others wished to put up some stalls on the field and hold a disco there to raise money for a wheelchair. The appellant thought that the National Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children was mentioned. He had only one field available and that bore a crop of ‘fog’ grass which would have been used for silage. The licensees would have to pay him for the loss of the grass. He thought £2,700 an appropriate sum. He was told that the organisers had sold all the tickets for the event and that they did not require any public licence as only soft drinks would be sold. He was assured that there would not be any trouble.
The appellant said he had no idea of the intended size of the event. He had left the farm before the preparations on his field commenced. He had gone to Harrogate with his wife. It was the anniversary of their first meeting. They went shopping and stayed the Saturday night in an hotel. They returned home at approximately 5 pm on the Sunday to find the field devastated with litter everywhere. It took them three days to clear up. The appellant said he had lied in his first interview with the police as to the fee he received for the use of the field as he was frightened. He denied that he ought to have known that there was going to be a lot of noise created on the field and that he had taken the £2,000 as the price of his keeping out of the way. The wife of the appellant gave evidence confirming her husband’s evidence relating to their visit to Harrogate.
In his summing up to the jury, the trial judge directed the jury that in order to convict the appellant they had to be sure that he either knew or ought to have known when he left his farm on the Saturday in question of the risk of a public nuisance being caused thereon by his licensees—ought to have known ‘in the sense that ordinary people, reasonable people, using reasonable care would have been aware of that risk and guarded against it’.
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The grounds of the appellant’s appeal against his conviction are that his conviction was unsafe and unsatisfactory—
‘in view of the following matters: (1) The error of the learned judge in directing the jury that the test of the crime of public nuisance was “whether he knew or ought to have known of the consequence of his act” whereas the authorities indicate that actual knowledge is necessary. (2) The learned judge ought to have acceded to the submissions of counsel for the defence that there was no case to answer on the test of “actual knowledge”.’
The common law offence of public nuisance has been comparatively rarely relied on by prosecutors in recent years, probably because of the increased availability of statutory offences covering large areas of what used to be the subject matter of prosecutions for the common law offence. That it still exists was confirmed very recently by this court in R v Madden [1975] 3 All ER 155, [1975] 1 WLR 1379. It is defined in Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law (9th edn, 1950) p 179 in the following terms:
‘A common nuisance is an act not warranted by law or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all His Majesty’s subjects.’
A similar definition is adopted in the current edition of Archbold’s Pleading Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (44th edn, 1992) p 3374, para 31–40:
‘Any person is guilty of an offence at common law, known as common nuisance, who (a) does an act not warranted by law, or, (b) omits to discharge a legal duty, if the effect of the act or omission is to endanger the life, health, property, morals, or comfort of the public, or to obstruct the public in the exercise or enjoyment of rights common to all Her Majesty’s subjects’,
though the learned editors of Archbold suggest that it is doubtful whether the words ‘not warranted by law’ should continue to be retained in the definition.
Blackstone’s Commentaries (3 Bl Com (1st edn, 1768) 216) contains the following definition:
‘Nusance, nocumentum, or annoyance, signifies any thing that worketh hurt, inconvenience, or damage. And nusances are of two kinds; public or common nusances, which affect the public, and are an annoyance to all the King’s subjects; for which reason we must refer them to the class of public wrongs, or crimes and misdemesnours: and private nusances; which are the objects of our present consideration, and may be defined, any thing done to the hurt or annoyance of the lands, tenements or hereditaments of another.’
The nature of a public nuisance as opposed to a private nuisance actionable in tort was considered by the Court of Appeal in the context of a relator action brought by the Attorney General for an injunction to restrain an alleged public nuisance in A-G (ex rel Glamorgan CC and Pontardawe RDC) v PYA Quarries Ltd [1957] 1 All ER 894, [1957] 2 QB 169. In that case the Attorney General sought an injunction to restrain an alleged public nuisance caused by the defendant quarry owners by blasting operations carried on by them. It was argued by the defendants that the nuisance complained of did not constitute a public nuisance entitling the Attorney General to sue for an injunction. In the course of his judgment Romer LJ cited the definitions contained in Stephens Digest of the Criminal Law and Blackstone’s Commentaries, which we have already cited in this judgment, and said ([1957] 1 All ER 894 at 902, [1957] 2 QB 169 at 184):
Page 921 of [1993] 3 All ER 917
‘I do not propose to attempt a more precise definition of a public nuisance than those which emerge from the text-books and authorities to which I have referred. It is, however, clear, in my opinion, that any nuisance is ‘‘public’’ which materially affects the reasonable comfort and convenience of life of a class of Her Majesty’s subjects. The sphere of the nuisance may be described generally as ‘‘the neighbourhood’’; but the question whether the local community within that sphere comprises a sufficient number of persons to constitute a class of the public is a question of fact in every case. It is not necessary, in my judgment, to prove that every member of the class has been injuriously affected; it is sufficient to show that a representative cross-section of the class has been so affected for an injunction to issue.’
Denning LJ said ([1957] 1 All ER 894 at 908, [1957] 2 QB 169 at 190–191):
‘I prefer to look to the reason of the thing and to say that a public nuisance is a nuisance which is so widespread in its range or so indiscriminate in its effect that it would not be reasonable to expect one person to take proceedings on his own responsibility to put a stop to it, but that it should be taken on the responsibility of the community at large.’
Not surprisingly the appellant accepts that the activities carried on on his field during the night of 16 September and the morning of 17 September 1989 constituted a public nuisance within the above definitions, and that anyone properly found to have been responsible for such nuisance could be convicted on indictment of the common law offence of public nuisance. What he disputes is his responsibility for such public nuisance. However, it is, in our judgment, appropriate to consider the definitions we have cited in order to notice that public nuisance is defined by reference to private nuisance and as differing from private nuisance only in the range of its effect.
The issue raised by the appellant is the state of mind in relation to a public nuisance that has to be shown in a defendant before he can be held criminally responsible for that nuisance. In the present case, is it sufficient that the appellant knew or ought to have known (in the sense that he had the means of knowledge available to him) that his act in granting the licence to use his field carried a real risk of causing a public nuisance, as the judge directed the jury, or must the appellant have had actual knowledge that such a nuisance would result?
It was accepted by counsel for the appellant in argument that the test formulated by the judge was an accurate statement of the state of knowledge to be shown on the part of a defendant to an action for private nuisance. Counsel rightly, in our judgment, recognised that such acceptance was inevitable in the light of the decision of the House of Lords in Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callagan [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880. The House in that case was considering the liability in private nuisance of a landowner for a nuisance created on his land by a trespasser. It is sufficient for present purposes to cite a passage from the speech of Lord Wright. He said ([1940] 3 All ER 349 at 365–366, [1940] AC 880 at 904–905):
‘Though the rule has not been laid down by this House, it has, I think, been rightly established in the Court of Appeal that an occupier is not prima facie responsible for a nuisance created without his knowledge and consent. If he is to be liable, a further condition is necessary—namely, that he had knowledge, or means of knowledge, that he knew, or should have known, of the nuisance in time to correct it and obviate its mischievous effects. The liability for a nuisance is not, at least in modern law, a strict or absolute liability. If the defendant, by himself or those for whom he is responsible, has created what constitutes a nuisance, and if it causes damage, the difficulty
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now being considered does not arise; but he may have taken over the nuisance, ready made as it were, when he acquired the property, or the nuisance may be due to a latent defect or to the act of a trespasser or stranger. Then he is not liable unless he continued or adopted the nuisance, or, more accurately, did not without undue delay remedy it when he became aware of it, or with ordinary and reasonable care should have become aware of it. This rule seems to be in accordance with good sense and convenience. The responsibility which attaches to the occupier because he has possession and control of the property cannot logically be limited to the mere creation of the nuisance. It should extend to his conduct if, with knowledge, he leaves the nuisance on his land. The same is true if the nuisance was such that, with ordinary care in the management of his property, he should have realised the risk of its existence. This principle was affirmed in Barker v Herbert [1911] 2 KB 633. That was the case of a public nuisance constituted by a defective railing dividing the area of the defendant’s house from the highway. A boy, playing, fell and was injured, and claimed damages. Though the nuisance was a public nuisance, and though a public nuisance in many respects differs, or may differ, from a private nuisance, yet there is, in my opinion, no difference, in the respect here material, which is that, if the defendant did not create the nuisance he must, if he is to be held responsible, have continued it, which I think means simply neglected to remedy it when he became, or should have become, aware of it.’ (Our emphasis.)
It is perhaps hardly surprising that the test in relation to civil liability should be the same in relation to both private and public nuisance. The appellant contends that it is different in relation to criminal liability for the common law offence of public nuisance. His counsel at one point submitted that all criminal offences at common law require actual intent to commit the offences on the part of the defendant, but later accepted that this is plainly not so, for example, in respect of the common law offence of manslaughter, for which recklessness as to the consequences of an act or omission may be sufficient to give rise to liability. None the less counsel contended that, in the case of the offence of public nuisance, actual knowledge that the allegedly criminal act or omission will cause a public nuisance is required. In support of this submission counsel relied on four authorities, namely R v Vantandillo (1815) 4 M & S 73, 105 ER 762, R v Henson (1852) Dears 24, 169 ER 621, R v Stevenson (1862) 3 F & F 106, 176 ER 48 and R v Stephens (1866) LR 1 QB 702.
In R v Vantandillo the defendant was indicted for carrying her child while infected with smallpox along a public highway, thereby incurring the risk of infecting members of the public. Counsel for the appellant relies on the fact that the indictment alleged that the defendant ‘well knowing’ that her child was suffering from a contagious disease carried him along the public highway, and on the fact that Le Blanc J, in passing sentence, observed (4 M & S 73 at 76–77, 105 ER 762 at 764):
‘… although the Court had not found upon its records any prosecution for this specific offence, yet there could be no doubt in point of law that if a person unlawfully, injuriously, and with full knowledge of the fact, exposes in a public highway a person infected with a contagious disorder, it is a common nuisance to all the subjects, and indictable as such.’
The question of the state of knowledge of the defendant necessary to support a conviction does not seem to have been argued in the case, but counsel for the appellant relies on the fact that both the framer of the indictment and Le Blanc J assumed that actual knowledge of the facts constituting the nuisance was
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required, though it is to be noted that Le Blanc J said, immediately following the passage cited above, that the court did not ‘impute to the defendant an intention of being the cause of the consequences which had followed’.
In R v Henson (1852) Dears 24, 169 ER 621 the second of the cases relied on by the appellant, the defendant was charged by an indictment which included as count 1 an allegation that the defendant ‘was possessed of a certain mare which said mare was … infected with a contagious, dangerous and infectious disease called the glanders’ and that the defendant ‘well knowing the premises’ brought the mare along a public highway with the danger of infecting members of the public on the highway.
Again counsel for the appellant relies on the inclusion in the indictment of the words ‘well knowing the premises’. However, it seems to us that the case is against rather than in favour of the appellant’s contention for it was argued on behalf of the defendant in that case that count 1 in the indictment was bad in that it did not allege that the defendant knew that the glanders, from which the mare was suffering, was infectious to human beings as opposed to other animals. The court held that an allegation that the defendant knew the mare was suffering from glanders was sufficient without an allegation that he knew that it thereby posed a risk of infecting human beings, notwithstanding that that was the risk which the defendant was charged with having caused.
In the next of the appellant’s authorities, R v Stevenson (1862) 3 F & F 106, 176 ER 48, the defendant was charged with offering for sale for human consumption meat which ‘as he well knew’ was not fit for the purpose. According to the report of the case ‘there was evidence that the appearances were such that a butcher must have known that the carcass was diseased, and unfit for human food’. In his direction to the jury, Willes J said: ‘Did the defendant know when he sent up the meat, that it was unfit for human food? And did he send it up to be sold for human food?' The defendant was convicted and sentenced to six months’ imprisonment. The appellant naturally relies on the form of the judge’s direction to the jury, as well as of the indictment, although he accepts that the point now at issue before this court was not, so far as the report of the case discloses, argued in Stevenson’s case.
In R v Stephens (1866) LR 1 QB 702 the owner of a slate quarry was charged by indictment with causing a public nuisance by obstructing a navigable river by depositing waste from the quarry into it. The defendant’s case was that the acts complained of had been done by his workmen without his knowledge, he being ‘upwards of 80 years of age’ and unable personally to superintend the working of the quarry. The trial judge directed the jury that the defendant could be liable for the alleged public nuisance even if the waste complained of got into the river by reason of acts committed by the defendant’s workmen without his knowledge and against his orders. The jury convicted and the defendant sought a new trial. The Court of Queen’s Bench decided against the defendant and held that the trial judge’s direction had been correct. Mellor J, with whom Shee J agreed, said (at 708–709):
‘It is quite true that this in point of form is a proceeding of a criminal nature, but in substance I think it is in the nature of a civil proceeding, and I can see no reason why a different rule should prevail with regard to such an act as is charged in this indictment between proceedings which are civil and proceedings which are criminal. I think there may be nuisances of such a character that the rule I am applying here, would not be applicable to them, but here it is perfectly clear that the only reason for proceeding criminally is that the nuisance, instead of being merely a nuisance affecting one individual, or one or two individuals,
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affects the public at large, and no private individual, without receiving some special injury, could have maintained an action.’ (Our emphasis.)
Later in his judgment Mellor J said (at 710):
‘Inasmuch as the object of the indictment is not to punish the defendant, but really to prevent the nuisance from being continued, I think that the evidence which would support a civil action would be sufficient to support an indictment.’
Blackburn J, who had been the trial judge, said (at 710):
‘I only wish to guard myself against it being supposed that either at the trial or now, the general rule that a principal is not criminally responsible for the act of his agent is infringed. All that is necessary to say is this, that where a person maintains works by his capital, and employs servants, and so carries on the works as in fact to cause a nuisance to a private right, for which an action would lie, if the same nuisance inflicts an injury upon a public right the remedy for which would be by indictment, the evidence which would maintain the action would also support the indictment. That is all that it was necessary to decide and all that is decided.’
Counsel for the appellant seeks to rely on this last case as authority for the proposition that where, as in the present case, the object of the indictment is indeed to punish the defendant, mens rea in the sense of actual knowledge of the nuisance complained of is required. Counsel was constrained to accept that this distinction would require in every case an inquiry into the real motive of the prosecutor before it was possible to define the necessary mens rea.
We cannot accept this latter submission. It is a little difficult to see quite what Mellor J meant by his reference to the ‘object of the indictment’, given that we cannot accept that he can have intended to say that in each case the true object of a prosecution for public nuisance would have to be investigated. However, the case does seem to be against the contentions of the appellant, in that the court clearly decided that, in proceedings by way of indictment charging the commission of at least some forms of public nuisance, liability is established by proof of such facts that, if the nuisance alleged were one whereby a private individual suffered some special damage, he could have held the defendant liable in tort. In other words the requirement as to the defendant’s state of mind is the same whether the proceedings brought be civil or criminal. Actual knowledge of the nuisance need not be established.
Further support for this proposition in the context of nuisance caused by the use of land seems to us to be found in R v Moore (1832) 3 B & Ad 184, [1824–34] All ER Rep 527. In that case the defendant maintained on land of his abutting the public highway a rifle shooting range, at which people shot at fixed targets and at pigeons. Apparently a large number of people congregated outside the defendant’s land on the public highway in order to shoot the pigeons which escaped from the guns on the defendant’s land. The defendant was indicted for the resultant public nuisance. Lord Tenterden CJ directed the jury in the sense that the defendant was responsible for the activities of the people gathering on the highway. He gave leave, however, for the defendant to argue the point in the Court of King’s Bench. In the course of his judgment in that court, Lord Tenterden CJ said ( 3 B & Ad 184 at 188, [1824–34] All ER Rep 527 at 528):
‘If a person collects together a crowd of people to the annoyance of his neighbours, that is a nuisance for which he is answerable. And this is an old principle.’
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Littledale J said (3 B & Ad 184 at 188, [1824–34] All ER Rep 527 at 528)
‘It has been contended that to render the defendant liable, it must be his object to create a nuisance, or else that that must be the necessary and inevitable result of his act. No doubt it was not his object, but I do not agree with the other position; because if it be the probable consequence of his act, he is answerable as if it were his actual object. If the experience of mankind must lead anyone to expect the result, he will be answerable for it.’
The other members of the court concurred in upholding the direction of the Chief Justice.
In the present case counsel for the Crown seeks to uphold the appellant’s conviction on the ground that no valid criticism can be made of the learned trial judge’s direction. He submitted that the true principle to be derived from the authorities we have cited is that a defendant landowner is responsible for a nuisance which he knew or ought to have known (in the sense explained by Lord Wright in the House of Lords in Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callagan [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880, namely that the means of knowledge were available to him) would be the consequence of activities carried on by him on his land. This responsibility can be enforced by action in tort by an injured plaintiff in the case of a private nuisance. It can be enforced by relator action by the Attorney General or by criminal indictment if the effect of the activities concerned is such as to constitute a public nuisance according to the principles stated in A-G (ex rel Glamorgan CC and Pontardawe RDC) v PYA Quarries Ltd [1957] 1 All ER 894, [1957] 2 QB 169, which we have cited earlier in this judgment.
In our judgment this submission is correct. Indeed, given that the common law criminal offence is the causing of a public nuisance simpliciter, it would, in our judgment, he a surprising result to find that proof of the facts which would have entitled the Attorney General to succeed in a relator action against the landowner concerned may not be sufficient to found an indictment for the criminal offence. We conclude that this is not the true position. Accordingly, in our judgment, the learned trial judge was correct in his direction that the appellant was guilty of the offence charged if either he knew or he ought to have known, in the sense that the means of knowledge were available to him, that there was a real risk that the consequences of the licence granted by him in respect of his field would be to create the sort of nuisance that in fact occurred, and that the judge was accordingly right to have rejected the appellant’s submission to the contrary.
Accordingly we dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed. The court refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 33(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: whether the test of liability for the crime of public nuisance is that a defendant actually knew of the nuisance or whether it is sufficient that he ought to have known.
1 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Lowry and Lord Woolf) refused leave to appeal.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Re Lee (deceased)
Sinclair v Lee and another
[1993] 3 All ER 926
Categories: TRUSTS: COMPANY; Shares
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C
Hearing Date(s): 21, 22, 23, 30 APRIL 1993
Trust and trustee – Shares in company – Trust to hold shares and pay income to life tenant and vest shares in remainderman on life tenants death – Company reconstruction – Demerger of company – Company dividing undertaking into two parts – Shares in new company allotted to existing shareholders – Testratix leaving shareholding in company on trust to husband for life and thereafter to son absolutely – Whether allotment of shares in new company to be treated as capital or income – Whether husband entitled to shares as income – Whether shares to be held by trustees as capital on trust for son as remainderman.
A company reorganised its structure by demerging the original undertaking into two parts each of which would be carried on as a separate undertaking by a separate company, namely the original company (ICI) and a new company (ZG). The shareholders of the original company were issued with paid-up shares in ZG in addition to their existing holdings in ICI. By her will the deceased bequeathed the income of her ICI shares to her husband (the first defendant) for life and after his death the shares were to vest in her son (the second defendant) absolutely. The plaintiff, one of the trustees of the will, sought the determination of the court on the question whether the allotment of the ZG shares fell to be treated as capital (to which the second defendant would be entitled as the remainderman) or as income from the ICI shares (to which the first defendant was entitled as life tenant).
Held – The principle that any payment by a company to its shareholders except by way of an authorised reduction of capital was to be treated as a division of profits which prima facie belonged to the person beneficially entitled to the income of a trust estate was merely a guideline intended to give effect to the presumed intention of the testator or settlor in respect of a particular distribution to shareholders and, if strict application of the income/capital guideline produced a result manifestly inconsistent with the presumed intention of the testator or settlor, it should not be applied. In the circumstances it would not be right to apply the guideline and thereby regard the ICI transaction as a distribution of profits, akin to payment of a dividend in specie and hence income, since to do so would exalt company form over commercial substance to an unacceptable extent. The purpose of the ICI demerger was not to distribute assets to shareholders but to replace a single company with two head companies in which shareholders would have the same proportionate interest as they had prior to the reconstruction. Furthermore, the issue of shares in ZG to ICI shareholders was not a case of a distribution by way of a dividend in specie since ICI had never had any entitlement to shares in ZG. The transaction was properly characterised as a company reconstruction, with two capital assets (shares in ICI and shares in ZG) in the trustees’ hands replacing one existing capital asset (shares in ICI). In those circumstances the court would declare that the shares in ZG which the trustees would receive pursuant to the ICI demerger resolution were to be held by them as capital of the trust fund (see p 929 a to c, p 936 e to p 937 f and p 938 e to g, post).
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Bouch v Sproule [1886–90] All ER Rep 319, Hill v Permanent Trustee Co of New South Wales Ltd [1930] All ER Rep 87 and Rae v Lazard Investment Co Ltd [1963] 1 WLR 555 not followed.
NotesFor dividend in specie and capitalisation of profits, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 754, and for a case on the subject, see 9(2) Digest (Reissue) 371, 5935.
For the rights of a tenant for lfe and the remainderman to income and capital, see 42 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 949 and 48 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 630–631, and for cases on the subject, see 41 Digest (Reissue) 498–501, 4082–4100.
Cases referred to in judgmentArmitage, Re, Armitage v Garnett [1893] 3 Ch 337, CA.
Bouch v Sproule (1887) 12 App Cas 385, [1886–90] All ER Rep 319, HL; rvsg (1885) 29 Ch D 635, CA.
Brander v Brander (1799) 4 Ves 800, 31 ER 414.
Briggs v IRC (1932) 17 TC 11.
Doughty, Re, Burridge v Doughty [1947] 1 All ER 207, [1947] Ch 263, CA.
Hill v Permanent Trustee Co of New South Wales Ltd [1930] AC 720, [1930] All ER Rep 87, PC; subsequent proceedings (1933) 33 SR (NSW) 527, NSW SC.
IRC v Fisher’s Exors [1926] AC 395, HL.
Irving v Houstoun (1803) 4 Pat App 521, HL.
Kleinwort’s Settlement Trusts, Re, Westminster Bank v Bennett [1951] 2 All ER 478, [1951] Ch 860.
Outen’s Will Trusts, Re, Starling v Outen [1962] 3 All ER 478, [1963] Ch 291, [1962] 3 WLR 1084.
Nestle v National Westminster Bank plc [1993] 1 WLR 1260, CA.
Rae v Lazard Investment Co Ltd [1963] 1 WLR 555, HL.
Sechiari (decd), Re, Argenti v Sechiari [1950] 1 All ER 417.
Thomas, Re, Andrew v Thomas [1916] 2 Ch 331, CA.
Witts v Steere (1807) 13 Ves 363, 33 ER 330.
Cases also citedBeswick v Beswick [1967] 2 All ER 1197, [1968] AC 58, HL.
Duff’s Settlements Trusts, Re, National Provincial Bank v Gregson [1951] 2 All ER 534, [1951] Ch 923, CA.
Evans, Re, Jones v Evans [1913] 1 Ch 23.
Maclaren’s Settlement Trusts, Re, Royal Exchange Assurance v Maclaren [1951] 2 All ER 414.
Malam, Re, Malam v Hitchens [1894] 3 Ch 578.
Northage, Re, Ellis v Barfield (1891) 60 LJ Ch 488.
Pool (Inspector of Taxes) v Guardian Investment Trust Co Ltd (1921) 8 TC 167.
Tindal (decd), Re (1892) 9 TLR 24.
Wilkinson v IRC (1931) 16 TC 52.
Originating summonsBy a summons dated 8 April 1993 Neil Sinclair, one of the trustees of the will of Dora Lee deceased, sought the determination of the court on the question whether on the true construction of the trust in cl 4 of the testatrix’s will the shares in Zeneca Group plc, which the trustees as holders of ordinary shares in Imperial Chemical Industries plc would receive in the event of the demerger of Imperial Chemical Industries plc, should be held by the trustees either (a) as capital to which the second defendant, Michael David Lee, was entitled as sole remainderman or (b) as
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income to which the first defendant, William Lee, was entitled as life tenant or (c) partly as income and partly as capital. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Simon Taube (instructed by Berwin Leighton) for the plaintiff.
Peter Horsfield QC (instructed by Berwin Leighton) for the first defendant.
Christopher McCall QC (instructed by Berwin Leighton) for the second defendant.
Robert Walker QC (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as amicus curiae.
Cur adv vult
30 April 1993. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR DONALD NICHOLLS V-C. Imperial Chemical Industries plc (ICI) is about to carry out a major reorganisation. Its existing undertaking is being carved into two pieces. In future each piece will be carried on as a separate undertaking by a separate company. One piece will comprise ICI’s bioscience activities: its pharmaceutical business, its agro-chemical and seeds business, and its speciality chemicals businesses. The other will comprise its traditional chemical operations.
In anticipation of the proposed ‘demerger’, ICI’s bioscience activities have already been consolidated into a group of companies headed by a new wholly-owned subsidiary called Zeneca Ltd. Subject to shareholder approval there will be a demerger whereby, first, the shares in Zeneca Ltd, and hence the whole of the Zeneca group of companies, will be transferred to a newly created company called Zeneca Group plc (Zeneca Group) and, second, the shareholders of ICI will be issued paid-up shares in Zeneca Group in addition to their present holdings of ICI shares. Zeneca Group will belong to the persons who are the shareholders of ICI on 1 June 1993, and in the same proportions. A shareholder who owns 1,000 ICI shares will end up with those shares together with 1,000 Zeneca Group shares. Zeneca Group will be a publicly listed company.
The commercial effect of the reorganisation will be to dilute substantially the value of the existing ICI shares. They will be worth much less, because a major part of the existing business will have passed from ICI to Zeneca Group, which will not belong to ICI. The shareholders, however, will not suffer because for the future they will hold a corresponding number of shares in Zeneca Group as well as retaining their ICI shares. The shareholders will not need to find any cash to pay for the Zeneca Group shares. These shares are being issued by Zeneca Group as fully paid up as the consideration for the transfer by ICI of the shares in Zeneca Ltd. The new shares are being allotted and issued directly to the ICI shareholders in satisfaction of a dividend of an amount exceeding the nominal value of the new shares.
The Zeneca Group shares: income or capital?
ICI has a share capital of 714m shares of £1 each. It has over 320,000 shareholders. All but 3,000 of these own 5,000 shares or fewer. Many of the shareholdings belong to trustees of family trusts. The question which has arisen, and which has been brought before the court as a matter of urgency, is whether in the hands of trustee shareholders the new Zeneca Group shares will fall to be treated as capital or as income. Take the simplest case of a testator who leaves his or her property upon trust for his or her surviving spouse for life, with a gift over to their children. The trust investments include ICI shares. After the demerger, will the new Zeneca Group shares form part of the capital of the trust fund, or will they belong to the life tenant as income of the trust fund?
Similar questions are likely to arise in respect of unit trusts which hold ICI shares. In general, unit trust schemes are obliged to distribute all sums in the nature of
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income received by the trustee in respect of the scheme: see Pt 9 of the Financial Services (Regulated Schemes) Regulations 1991 made by the Securities and Investments Board.
I venture to think that no one, unversed in the arcane mysteries I shall be mentioning shortly, would have any doubt over the answer to these questions. The ICI shares form part of the capital of the fund. For the future the ICI undertaking will be divided up, with one part belonging to ICI and the other to Zeneca Group. To compensate for this loss of part of the ICI undertaking, the ICI shareholders will be receiving a corresponding number of shares in Zeneca Group. No one would imagine that the Zeneca Group shares could sensibly be regarded as income. Nobody would think the Zeneca Group shares could pass to the life tenant as ‘income’ of the ICI shares, or that they should be allocated and paid to unit holders as income.
The financial realities reinforce this instinctive reaction to the bare, unparticularised facts. In 1992 the turnover of the Zeneca Group of companies represented about one-third of ICI’s total turnover, and its trading profit before exceptional items more than one-half. After the demerger, the likely split of market value of shares will be 55% to the Zeneca Group shares and 45% to the ICI shares. For good measure, I mention that in 1992 the ICI dividend was 55p (net) per share, and in 1993 ICI and Zeneca Group each intend to pay a dividend of at least 27·5p (net) per share. So in 1993 the shareholders should receive from their combined holdings at least the same dividend as they received in 1992 from their ICI shares. In future, in place of shares in one single massive trading conglomerate, comprising some 579 subsidiary undertakings and with a market capitalisation of £9b, the shareholders will have equivalent shareholdings in two separate and continuing undertakings, both much smaller but both still very substantial.
The problem
However, there is a problem. As already mentioned, the company mechanism by which the ICI shareholders will acquire their Zeneca Group shares is that the new shares will be allotted to the shareholders in satisfaction of a dividend being declared by ICI. The essence of the scheme is that on 12 May ICI will enter into a demerger agreement with Zeneca Group whereby ICI agrees to transfer to Zeneca Group all its shares in Zeneca Ltd, in exchange for which Zeneca Group will allot to the ICI shareholders on 1 June credited as fully paid-up one Zeneca ordinary share of 25p for each ICI share held by them, in satisfaction of the ICI dividend. This is conditional on the ICI shareholders passing a resolution on 1 June, the material parts of which provide that—
‘a dividend of £464·6m on the Ordinary shares of £1 in the Company (“ICI Ordinary shares”) be declared payable to shareholders (“ICI Shareholders”) on the register of members at 7.30 am on 1st June, 1993 such dividend to be satisfied by the allotment and issue by Zeneca Group PLC of [Ordinary shares of 25p each in Zeneca Group plc] credited as fully paid to such ICI Shareholders in the proportion of one Zeneca … Share for each ICI Ordinary share then held.’
Three further points are to be noted. First, Zeneca Group is not a subsidiary of ICI. ICI has no shareholding interest in that company. At present no shares have been issued. The two subscriber shares are held beneficially by third parties. Part of the demerger scheme is that those shares will be treated in the same way as all the other shares in the Zeneca Group. Second, the shares in Zeneca Ltd will be transferred to Zeneca Group at their book value of £464·6m. In consequence, ICI’s distributable reserves will be reduced by that amount. For its part Zeneca Group
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will have a balance sheet comprising an asset valued at £464·6m, a share capital of £178·5m (being 714m shares of 25p each) and, in consequence, a merger reserve of £286·1m. Save in very unlikely circumstances this merger reserve will not be capable of being distributed as a dividend by Zeneca Group. Third, following the demerger Zeneca Group will be seeking to raise £1·3bn by way of a rights issue. Nothing turns on this feature, and I need not mention it again.
The difficulty which has emerged flows from the existence of a long line of decided cases concerned with the entitlement, as between life tenants and remaindermen, of dividends paid on shares which form part of a trust fund. Lord Reid summarised the position in Rae v Lazard Investment Co Ltd [1963] 1 WLR 555 at 565:
‘… there is no doubt that every distribution of money or money’s worth by an English company must be treated as income in the hands of the shareholders unless it is either a distribution in a liquidation, a repayment in respect of reduction of capital (or a payment out of a special premium account) or an issue of bonus shares (or it may be bonus debentures).’
This observation is expressed in wide terms. On its face it covers the present case. If it does, the Zeneca Group shares will be received by trustees as income and belong to the income beneficiaries, even though they represent over half the value of the present ICI shares. That is directly opposite to one’s instinctive reaction. This is the more surprising because the principle referred to by Lord Reid is, after all, intended to be the principle worked out by the law to give effect to the presumed intention of the testator or settlor.
Mrs Lee’s will
The present proceedings are in the nature of a test case. They concern the trusts arising under a very simple form of gift in a will. The parties’ costs are being paid by ICI. Mrs Dora Lee died on 1 October 1966. She gave all her shareholding in Rose & Co (Wallpaper and Paints) Ltd to her husband William for life and after his death to her son Michael. The gift was expressed in unexceptional language:
‘I BEQUEATH unto my Trustees all my Shareholdings in Rose & Co (Wallpaper and Paints) Ltd and any other Shares of which I may die possessed so that my husband may have the income thereof during his lifetime and thereafter to my son for his own use absolutely.’
When Mrs Lee died her only shareholding was the shares in Rose & Co mentioned in the will. In July 1972 all the shares in that company were acquired by ICI in exchange for the allotment and issue of ICI shares to the trustees. The trustees now hold 37,823 ordinary shares in ICI, worth almost £500,000. These shares are the only asset subject to the trust of this settled legacy. Will the Zeneca Group shares issued to the trustees, expected to be worth over £250,000, belong to the life tenant Mr William Lee, so that for the future the capital of the fund will be more than halved, or will all the shares, both in ICI and Zeneca Group, be part of the capital, or should there be some form of apportionment?
The trustees issued an originating summons raising these questions on 8 April, immediately before Easter. Although the demerger has not yet taken place the trustees need to know where they stand, as this will affect decisions they make, regarding the retention or sale of their ICI shareholdings, before the demerger. Trustees are under a general duty to act fairly between those interested in income and those interested in capital and to preserve the value of the trust capital. The hearing began less than two weeks later, on 21 April. I heard submissions on behalf of the widower, who is the life tenant, and the son, who is the remainderman. I also
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had the benefit of valuable submissions from counsel instructed by the Attorney General as amicus curiae, such is the general importance of the point.
The applicable principles
In the simplest cases there is, in principle, no difficulty in distinguishing between income receipts and capital receipts. If a testator or settlor creates successive interests, with an interest in income followed by an interest in capital, he intends that the person entitled to the income interest (A) shall have the benefits flowing from the use of the property or the income to be derived from it for the period of his life or whatever period the testator or settlor has marked out, but that the fund shall remain intact for the remainderman (B) in due course. A is entitled to the income arising from lettings, after deducting outgoings properly payable out of income; or he may be entitled to occupy the building, such as a house, and use it himself, duly discharging the outgoings. In the fullness of time the property will pass to B. If it has been sold meanwhile, the proceeds will be capital. Either way, in due course B will obtain the benefit of any appreciation in the value of the property. A is entitled to any increases obtainable in rents, but not to capital profits. This accords with the presumed intention of the testator or settlor, in the absence of any indication by him to the contrary.
This simple approach becomes much more difficult to apply when the trust fund comprises shares in a company. The difficulty stems principally from the fact that companies are not normally required by their internal constitutions to distribute all their profits as they arise. Save in exceptional cases, shareholders are only entitled to such distributions of profits by way of dividends as a majority of them decides. In practice successful companies do not distribute all their profits. Over a period of years they build up substantial reserves of retained profits. Clearly the current year’s trading profits, if distributed, belong to the tenant for life as income. But what about a dividend distribution, perhaps years later, of reserves representing retained trading profits from earlier years? One would not expect to find that a profit, earned in one year but not distributed at the year end, thereby and without further ado would lose its character of income, as between a life tenant and remainderman, if it were distributed as a dividend in a later year. On the contrary, one would expect to find, for instance, that if a company makes a loss in one year, any dividend distributed for that year out of prior years’ retained profits would belong to the life tenant as income.
However, herein lies the seeds of a real difficulty. In practice distributable but undistributed reserves form a significant part, often the major part, of a company’s working capital. As such they enhance the company’s ability to maintain and increase its profits. In consequence the existence of these reserves as part of a company’s net worth will be reflected in the market price of a company’s shares. ICI shares, for instance, are currently trading at about £12·50 for each £1 share. But when testators or settlors confer the usual powers of investment on trustees, they do not envisage that when the trustees buy an equity stock, at a price which reflects the existence of reserves, the company will declare a dividend from the reserves of such an extraordinary amount that it will impair the company’s ability to continue to trade in the future as in the past. If such an exceptional distribution were made, they would regard this, as between life tenant and remainderman, as in the nature of a capital receipt, even though as a matter of strict company law no part of the dividend represents the company’s share capital. They would not intend such a distribution to belong to the tenant for life as income. They would regard such an abnormal distribution, substantially diminishing the value of the investment, as more akin to a partial winding up than a distribution of profits by way of dividend in the ordinary course of trading. If the company were wound up, the ordinary
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person would regard the money distributed to the members as capital even though it includes substantial sums of reserves representing accumulated, undistributed profits. In a winding up what the trustee shareholders receive takes the place in the trust fund of the shares themselves. The receipts are as much capital as would be the proceeds of sale if the trustees had sold the shares. That can sensibly be taken as the presumed intention of the testator or settlor in such an eventuality. Likewise, surely, with an altogether exceptional distribution by way of dividend of the type I have mentioned.
This pinpoints the difficulty. It is unsatisfactory to treat all accumulated profits as earmarked as income to the extent that any distribution of such profits, regardless of the amount or the circumstances, will belong to the tenant for life if made outside a winding up. Such a distribution may represent a serious erosion of the trust capital. When setting up his trust, with an income beneficiary and then a capital beneficiary, the testator or settlor could not sensibly be taken to have intended that should be the position. To avoid this result the law would need to draw a distinction between distributions of profits, whether current or accumulated from the past as reserves, which would belong to a life tenant as income, and distributions of profits which would be regarded as capital. In this regard it might also be necessary to distinguish in some circumstances between retained profits accruing after the acquisition of the shares by the trustees, and those already existing when the shares were brought into the trust either as part of the original trust fund or by subsequent purchase by the trustees.
I mention a further feature. I have referred to the simple case where a freehold building belongs to trustees, and noted that any appreciation in its value would form part of the capital. In the case of companies it will not always be easy to distinguish between dividends representing capital profits and those representing trading profits. In many instances such a distinction can be drawn without difficulty. In other cases, where a large trading company has accumulated substantial reserves from several sources over many years, it will not always be practicable to attribute a dividend, paid out of reserves, to a particular source.
What principle, then, should the law adopt with regard to dividends so as to give effect to the presumed intention of the testator or settlor? Companies, and their trading activities and histories, and the circumstances in which trustees acquire shares, either at the inception of a trust or subsequently by subscription or purchase, vary so widely that the formulation of a principle of general application is not easy. One possibility would be to regard a reasonable return on the invested trust capital as income and to treat that part, and no more, of any exceptional distribution as income. Another possibility might be to treat all the trading profits of a company earned during the life of the trust as income. A third possibility is to characterise the distribution in accordance with its legal character, of capital or profits, as a matter of company law. This third possibility suffers from the major disadvantage that it equates share capital and trust capital, although the two have no necessary connection. To treat as income for trust purposes a distribution of everything possessed by a company except a sum representing its paid-up share capital must be to abandon any serious attempt to give effect to the presumed intention of the testator under modern investment conditions, if this approach is applied too rigidly.
In the USA, the laws of some states have adopted the first or second of these two possibilities or variants of them. The difficulties experienced in this regard can be found summarised in Scott on Trusts (4th edn, 1988) vol 3, pp 108–135.
At one stage English law seems to have flirted with the idea that distributions from accumulated profits, which could be regarded as a company’s floating capital, were to be treated as capital receipts. In Brander v Brander (1799) 4 Ves 800 at 801,
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31 ER 414 at 415 Lord Loughborough LC held that a distribution of government stock pro rata amongst the holders of Bank of England stock was capital. He said:
‘I have often considered this question; and it seemed to me, in all the different ways I could turn the consideration of it, that there was no way to be taken but to consider it as an accretion to the capital; and the tenants for life will have the benefit of the dividends.’
In Irving v Houstoun (1803) 4 Pat App 521 at 530, a decision of the House of Lords, Lord Eldon LC described that as ‘a most equitable decision’. He observed, with regard to the Bank of Scotland and the Bank of England and the use by them of accumulated profits as floating capital (at 530–531):
‘Every person who buys bank stock is aware of this; and if he gives the life interest of his estate to any one, it can scarcely be his meaning that the liferenter should run away with a bonus that may have been accumulating on the floating capital for half a century.’
The Earl of Rosslyn (as Lord Loughborough had then become) mentioned that in Brander v Brander he had considered, but dismissed, the idea that bonuses accumulated before the inception of the trust, there the testator’s death, were to be treated as capital belonging to the capital beneficiaries (at 531).
That decision was followed in Witts v Steere (1807) 13 Ves 363, 33 ER 330, where a testator gave to his daughter for her life ‘from time to time as the same shall become due ... all the dividends and profits’ of his stock in the Bank of England. Lord Erskine LC held she was not entitled to a distribution made over and above the ordinary half yearly dividend. He said (13 Ves 363 at 368, 33 ER 331–332): ‘The profit, that becomes due, in the ordinary interpretation of that word, is the ordinary fruit of the stock.’
Bouch’s case
It was not until 1887 that the law was firmly set on its modern course, by the decision of the House of Lords in Bouch v Sproule 12 App Cas 385, [1886–90] All ER Rep 319. In the Court of Appeal Fry LJ stated (29 Ch D 635 at 655):
‘The profits of past years are not necessarily or in their nature capital, they may be retained for a year or years as a fund to prevent recourse to capital in case of loss, or for the equalization of future dividends, or merely for convenience of division; in fact profits appear to us to retain their character of income till they are converted into capital.’
He added (at 658–659):
‘… in most, if not in all, cases, the inquiry as to the time when the profits were earned by the company is an immaterial one as between the tenant for life and remainderman. Their rights have been made dependent on the legitimate action of the company … their rights are determined by the time, not at which the profits are earned by the company, but at the time at which they are by the action of the company made divisible amongst its members.’
In that case a company declared a bonus out of accumulated profits with the intention, as it was held on the facts, that they should be converted into capital by being applied in partly paying up newly created shares. In this context Fry LJ said (at 653):
‘When a testator or settlor directs or permits the subject of his disposition to remain as shares or stock in a company which has the power either of
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distributing its profits as dividend, or of converting them into capital, and the company validly exercises this power, such exercise of its power is binding on all persons interested under him, the testator or settlor, in the shares, and consequently what is paid by the company as dividend goes to the tenant for life, and what is paid by the company to the shareholder as capital, or appropriated as an increase of the capital stock in the concern, enures to the benefit of all who are interested in the capital. In a word what the company says is income, shall be income, and what it says is capital, shall be capital.’
In the House of Lords this passage was quoted with approval by Lord Herschell as being the only sound principle (see 12 App Cas 385 at 397, [1886–90] All ER Rep 319 at 327). The principle enunciated in the Irving v Houstoun line of cases was confined to cases where the company has no power to increase capital but has accumulated profits and used them for capital purposes and later distributes them among the members.
These observations in Bouch v Sproule have not been regarded as exhaustive. When a company is wound up, the proceeds of property representing retained profits are to be treated as capital belonging to the capital beneficiaries even though the profits have not been capitalised. The Court of Appeal so held in Re Armitage, Armitage v Garnett [1893] 3 Ch 337. Lindley LJ observed that a testator intends the tenant for life to have what is declared as dividends, or bonuses in the shape of dividends, during the lifetime of the life tenant, but not other profits (at 346).
Further, in applying the distinction between a distribution of profits as a dividend and the conversion of them into capital, the courts have given capital a wide meaning. It is not confined to share capital. In IRC v Fisher’s Exors [1926] AC 395 at 410 Lord Sumner observed that capitalisation is not confined to new paid-up capital in the strict sense. He stated:
‘The real application of the principle is to assets, from which any further character of divisible profits has been taken away, whatever may be the substituted character thereafter impressed upon them.’
In that case the House of Lords held that ‘capitalisation’ occurred when profits were resolved to be distributed as a bonus in the form of debenture stock redeemable by the company in six years’ time. Lord Sumner observed that if a six years’ currency of the debenture stock is permissible, he did not see why six weeks should be less so (see [1926] AC 395 at 413). In Re Outen’s Will Trusts, Starling v Outen [1962] 3 All ER 478, [1963] Ch 291 the court held that the probability of the debenture stock being redeemed by the company, or bought by the company in the market and thereby extinguished pursuant to a power to do so, is immaterial.
These cases show that the capitalisation approach may be adopted even though shareholders’ funds are reduced by the shareholders pro tanto becoming debenture holders. They show a continuing reluctance by the court to apply the stark dichotomy enunciated in Bouch v Sproule when there exists some ground on which a perceived unfairness to those interested in capital can be avoided.
Hill’s case
In 1930 the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council considered this area of the law in Hill v Permanent Trustee Co of New South Wales Ltd [1930] AC 720, [1930] All ER Rep 87. There a company with an Australian sheep and cattle rearing business sold substantially the whole of its land, livestock and other assets, and ceased to carry on its business. It distributed the proceeds as a dividend, described as a distribution of capital assets in advance of the winding up of the company. The Board held the dividend was income, as between the tenant for life and
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remainderman. Of the five well-known propositions stated by Lord Russell of Killowen, I should mention two ([1930] AC 720 at 731, [1930] All ER Rep 87 at 92):
‘(2) A limited company not in liquidation can make no payment by way of return of capital to its shareholders except as a step in an authorized reduction of capital. Any other payment made by it by means of which it parts with moneys to its shareholders must and can only be made by way of dividing profits … (3) Moneys so paid to a shareholder will (if he be a trustee) prima facie belong to the person beneficially entitled to the income of the trust estate. If such moneys or any part thereof are to be treated as part of the corpus of the trust estate there must be some provision in the trust deed which brings about that result …’
This decision has not lacked critics. The principle of company law prohibiting payments by way of return of capital to its shareholders is concerned with the protection of the company’s creditors and others dealing with the company. That purpose is far removed from holding a fair balance between income and capital beneficiaries. Paid-up share capital, in the company sense, serves a very different purpose from the capital of a trust fund. To elide the two may be said to overlook the different functions each serves.
Furthermore, the Hill principles draw no distinction between capital profits and trading profits. So far as the company is concerned this is not surprising. Tax considerations apart, a company is not concerned with this distinction when distributing a dividend. To trustees and their beneficiaries, however, the distinction is of importance. But company law takes no cognisance of such trusts. A company may not enter notice of any trust on its register of members. It is perhaps surprising, therefore, to find that the company law assimilation of capital and trading profits is allowed to dictate the treatment of such profits as between one trust beneficiary and another.
One further point may be noted. The principles set out in Hill’s case equate corporate profits with trust income, so that any division of those profits will belong to the tenant for life. In modern investment conditions this is unreal. Investment philosophy is very different now from what was in 1930. The cult of the equity, to borrow Staughton LJ’s expression from Nestle v National Westminster Bank plc [1993] 1 WLR 1260 at 1267 did not really begin until the mid or late 1950s. There was then a spate of applications by trustees to the court, under the Variation of Trusts Act 1958, to extend their investment powers, until the Trustee Investments Act 1961 gave trustees a statutory power to invest in equities. In practice one of the reasons why trustees invest in equities is as a hedge against inflation. As already noted, well-run companies plough back profits. This enables them to ensure a reliable and increasing dividend stream for the future. This benefits the tenant for life. It also benefits those interested in capital because the market value of such equities can be expected to rise. Any principle, concerned with the division today of trustees’ receipts between capital and income, which fails to take full account of these matters would be out of touch with reality.
The decision in Hill’s case had an interesting sequel. The distribution of the sale proceeds as a dividend was only possible because the trustees had voted in favour of a resolution altering the company’s articles of association so as to permit such a distribution. The Board left open the question whether this affected the position ([1930] AC 720 at 737, [1930] All ER Rep 87 at 95). In subsequent proceedings Harvey CJ in Eq held that notwithstanding the decision of the Privy Council, the distribution was capital in the trustees’ hands ((1933) 33 SR (NSW) 527). The trustees had voted for the alteration to the articles in the mistaken belief that the distribution would remain capital. So the court ought to rectify the trustees’
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mistake. At the end of the day, therefore, what might be thought to be an evident unfairness to the remaindermen was avoided.
Despite the criticisms the decision in Hill has been approved by the Court of Appeal in Re Doughty, Burridge v Doughty [1947] 1 All ER 207, [1947] Ch 263. Accordingly, it is a decision, binding on me, as to the income character for trust purposes of all cash distributions (not by way of reduction of capital or in the course of winding up), whatever their scale or description or source.
Clearly, in applying the Hill decision no distinction of principle is to be drawn between a distribution of money and a distribution of money’s worth. The decision applies as much to a distribution of the company’s property in specie, such as shares in another company, as to a payment in cash. This approach has been adopted even in fairly extreme cases, such as the nationalisation of the road transport and road haulage undertaking of Thomas Tilling & Co Ltd in 1949. In exchange for those undertakings the company received British Transport stock. The company distributed the stock among its members by way of dividend, in the proportions of £5 of British Transport stock for every £1 ordinary stock of the company held by each member. The stock exchange quotation of the Thomas Tilling shares plummeted from £6 4s 0d per £1 stock cum dividend to £1 8s 0d ex dividend. This distribution was held to be income as between those interested in the capital and income of a trust fund: see Re Sechiari (decd), Argenti v Sechiari [1950] 1 All ER 417 and Re Kleinwort’s Settlement Trusts, Westminster Bank v Bennett [1951] 2 All ER 478, [1951] Ch 860.
The present case
Against this background I turn to the facts in the present case. The following factors are to be noted.
(1) The transfer by ICI of shares in Zeneca Ltd to Zeneca Group and the allotment and issue of Zeneca Group shares to ICI shareholders are part of one single indivisible transaction. The demerger agreement is conditional upon the passing of the demerger resolution. ICI itself will never become entitled to receive any property in exchange for the Zeneca Ltd shares.
(2) The commercial purpose of this tripartite transaction is not that ICI shall part with some of its assets to its shareholders. The purpose is to replace a single-head company with two head companies. A larger trading entity will be divided into two smaller trading entities, in which the ICI shareholders will have the same proportionate interest as they had prior to the reconstruction.
(3) This division will take place on terms whereby the capital of the companies will be increased, and the reserves distributable as profits decreased, in a manner analogous to the issue of bonus shares. Indeed, the reserves distributable as profits will be diminished by an amount (£464·6m) in excess of the new share capital issued as paid up pursuant to the dividend declaration.
(4) So far as the ICI shareholders are concerned, they will be no nearer the underlying assets than before. There will be only two differences in their position. First, instead of holding shares in one company owning one undertaking, they will hold equivalent shares in two companies each owning a separate part of what previously had been a single undertaking. Second, to the extent of £464·6m, reserves currently distributable to shareholders as profits will cease to be so distributable either by ICI or Zeneca Group. ICI will part with assets of having a book value of that amount. They will be transferred to Zeneca Group but, to the extent of £464·6m, they will not become available for distribution as profits of Zeneca Group. In the hands of Zeneca Group, this amount will represent in part paid-up share capital and in part a merger reserve which will not be distributable as profits save in exceptional circumstances.
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(5) As to ICI, the company declaring the dividend, it parts with assets of value: its shares in Zeneca Ltd. In that respect the transaction is not a classic capitalisation case. In the classic case the company retains its assets intact and issues shares of its own in exchange for hitherto distributable profits.
(6) Nor, however, is this a classic case of a distribution by way of a dividend in specie. ICI owns, and parts with, shares in Zeneca Ltd, but these do not reach the ICI shareholders. The shareholders receive shares in Zeneca Group. ICI never has any entitlement to these shares.
(7) Thus the transaction is something of a hybrid. It has features both of a capitalisation and of a distribution of a dividend in specie.
(8) Non-receipt of the Zeneca Group shares by ICI is not an attractive basis on which to place any reliance. It is highly formalistic. But it is no more formalistic than to distinguish between a distribution in cash (income) and a distribution of debentures redeemable in six years or six months or, for the matter, six weeks (capital).
Having regard to these considerations, in my view to regard the ICI transaction as a distribution of profits, akin to payment of a dividend in specie and hence income, would be to exalt company form over commercial substance to an unacceptable extent. In the last analysis, the rationale underlying the general principles enunciated in Hill’s case is an endeavour by the law to give effect to the assumed intention of the testator or settlor in respect of a particular distribution to shareholders. When the inflexible application of these principles would produce a result manifestly inconsistent with the presumed intention of the testator or settlor, the court should not be required to apply them slavishly. In origin they were guidelines. They should not be applied in circumstances, or in a manner, which would defeat the very purpose they are designed to achieve. Unless constrained by binding authority to the contrary, I consider the ICI transaction is to be characterised as a company reconstruction, with two capital assets (shares in ICI and Zeneca Group) in the trustees’ hands replacing one existing capital asset (shares in ICI).
Other authorities
I turn, then, to consider whether there is any authority which precludes me from giving effect to this conclusion. In my view there is not. Perhaps the case most nearly in point is Briggs v IRC (1932) 17 TC 11. There the directors of a colliery company were concerned that, on a threatened nationalisation, the company might not receive adequate compensation for its reserves. These comprised buildings and investments bought out of accumulated profits over many years. Accordingly it was decided to segregate the trading portion of the company’s undertaking from certain of its assets, and to place the latter in the hands of a new company. This was achieved by the colliery company agreeing to sell those assets to the new company in exchange for the allotment to the colliery company or its nominees of fully paid shares. That was in February 1922. The sale of the assets was completed, but the shares in the new company were not allotted or issued. A year later, in February 1923, the colliery company declared a dividend, to be satisfied by the allotment and issue to its shareholders of the paid-up shares in the new company. These shares were then allotted direct to the shareholders of the colliery company.
Rowlatt J held that the distribution was a release by the colliery company of property to its shareholders and, to the extent that it represented a distribution of current or accumulated profits, it was income assessable to super-tax. (In the present case no similar tax question arises. A distribution of Zeneca Group shares to ICI shareholders, by a means sometimes referred to as an indirect demerger, is just as much an exempt distribution for corporation tax purposes as the more direct
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form of demerger comprising a distribution by a parent company to its members of shares in one of its own subsidiaries: see s 213 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988.)
That was a case in which a company, already entitled to shares in a new company in exchange for a transfer of assets, subsequently distributed those shares to its own shareholders by way of dividend. Thus this is a relatively straightforward case of a payment of a dividend in specie. On that narrow ground it is distinguishable from the present case.
Likewise with the earlier Court of Appeal decision in Re Thomas, Andrew v Thomas [1916] 2 Ch 331. This concerned a take-over. There the trustee shareholders of Cambrian Collieries Ltd received by way of a dividend in specie shares in another company, Consolidated Cambrian Ltd, to which Cambrian Collieries was already entitled in the liquidation of its wholly-owned subsidiary known as the Cambrian Trust Co. This is another dividend in specie case.
Finally I should refer to the House of Lords decision in the tax case of Rae v Lazard Investment Co Ltd [1963] 1 WLR 555. The case concerned a demerger of a company incorporated under a foreign law, the law of Maryland, whose company law differed materially from English law. So the actual decision is not in point. The observations by Lord Reid set out above, and similar observations by Lord Pearce (at 573), are not part of the ratio of the decision and, moreover, no contrary argument seems to have been advanced on these points. These observations are not strictly binding on me.
Nevertheless, as I need hardly say, it is with considerable diffidence that I would add any gloss to their unqualified general statements. I am mindful of the need for certainty in this area of the law. I am acutely conscious of the danger of doing more harm than good by an apparent departure from established principles so as to reach a fair conclusion in a particular case. Nevertheless, in my view an application of existing principles in their full width would produce a result in this case which would, frankly, be nothing short of absurd. It cannot be right for me to reach such a result unless I am strictly compelled to do so. In my view I am not.
Conclusion
For these reasons I shall declare that the shares in Zeneca Group which Mrs Lee’s trustees will receive pursuant to the ICI demerger resolution will be held by them as capital of the fund.
For completeness I should mention that Mr Horsfield QC advanced a fall-back argument in favour of a so-called apportionment, whereby the nominal value of the Zeneca Group shares would fall to be treated as income but otherwise the shares would be capital. I need not pursue this.
Order accordingly.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Attorney General of Hong Kong v Lee Kwong-kut
Attorney General of Hong Kong v Lo Chak-man and another
[1993] 3 All ER 939
Categories: COMMONWEALTH; Dependencies: CONSTITUTIONAL; Civil Rights And Remedies
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD LANE, LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 22–25 MARCH, 19 MAY 1993
Hong Kong – Bill of Rights – Repeal of legislation inconsistent with Bill of Rights – Presumption of innocence contained in Bill of Rights – Exceptions to strict application of principle that prosecution must prove defendant’s guilt beyond reasonable doubt – Test to be applied in determining whether ordinance creating offence contravening Bill of Rights – Offence of possessing suspected stolen goods without giving explanation as to innocent possession of property – Offence of being involved in transaction involving drug trafficking proceeds knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe that proceeds were from drug trafficking – Whether ordinances creating offences contravening Bill of Rights – Summary Offences Ordinance (Hong Kong), s 30 – Drug Trafficking (Recovery of Proceeds) Ordinance (Hong Kong), s 25(1) – Hong Kong Bill of Rights Ordinance (Hong Kong), ss 3(2), 8, art 11(1).
The first respondent was charged in Hong Kong with contravening s 30a of the Hong Kong Summary Offences Ordinance, which provided that a person charged with ‘having in his possession or conveying in any manner anything which may be reasonably suspected of having been stolen or unlawfully obtained’ and who was unable to ‘give an account, to the satisfaction of [a] magistrate, how he came by [it]’ committed an offence. The magistrate hearing the charge dismissed the information on the ground that s 30 was inconsistent with s 8, art 11(1)b of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights Ordinance, which provided that ‘Everyone charged with a criminal offence shall have the right to be presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law’, and had therefore been repealed by s 3(2)c of the Bill of Rights, which provided that ‘All pre-existing legislation that does not admit of a construction consistent with [the Bill of Rights] is, to the extent of the inconsistency, repealed’. The Attorney General of Hong Kong appealed against the magistrate’s decision, but the Court of Appeal of Hong Kong dismissed the appeal. The second respondents were indicted with assisting another to retain the benefit of drug trafficking contrary to s 25(1)d of the Drug Trafficking (Recovery of Proceeds) Ordinance, which provided that anyone who, ‘knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe that … a person who carries on or has carried on drug trafficking or has benefited from drug trafficking’, entered into or was otherwise concerned in an arrangement whereby those proceeds were placed at the trafficker’s disposal or were used for the trafficker’s benefit to acquire property by way of investment committed an offence. Under s 25(4) it was a defence to a charge under s 25(1) that the person charged ‘did not know or suspect’ that the arrangement related to any person’s proceeds of drug trafficking or that the purpose
Page 940 of [1993] 3 All ER 939
of the arrangement was to facilitate the retention or control of any property by or on behalf of the trafficker or to enable him to acquire property by way of investment. The judge quashed the indictment on the ground that s 25(1) was inconsistent with s 8, art 11(1) of the Bill of Rights and had accordingly been repealed by s 3(2) thereof. In both cases the Attorney General appealed to the Privy Council.
Held – (1) There was a degree of flexibility implicit in s 8, art 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights allowing a balance to be drawn between the interest of the person charged and the state which permitted exceptions to the strict application of the principle that the prosecution had to prove the defendant’s guilt beyond reasonable doubt. Normally all that was required to determine whether a provision had been repealed by art 11(1) was for the court to determine whether the prosecution was required to prove the important elements of the offence in order to prove the accused’s guilt to the required standard and whether it was reasonable for the defendant to be given the burden of establishing a proviso or an exemption or the like. If so, art 11(1) was not contravened. Where there was real difficulty and the case was close to the borderline the court should determine whether the objective of the impugned provision was of sufficient importance to warrant overriding a constitutionally protected right or freedom and, assuming that it was, whether the means chosen to achieve the objective passed the test of proportionality, namely that they were rationally connected to the objective and were not arbitrary, unfair or based on irrational considerations, they impaired the right or freedom in question as little as possible and they were such that their effects on the limitation of rights and freedoms were proportional to the objective. However, such a test for borderline cases ought not to be applied rigidly or cumulatively, nor need the result be regarded as conclusive but instead it should be treated as providing useful general guidance in a case of difficulty (see p 950 c to h and p 952 d to p 953 b , post); dictum of Lawton LJ in R v Edwards [1974] 2 All ER 1085 at 1095 and Chaulk v R (1990) 62 CCC (3d) 193 applied.
(2) In the case of s 30 of the Summary Offences Ordinance the substantive effect of the statutory provision was to place the onus on the defendant to establish that he could give an explanation as to his innocent possession of the property. That was the most significant element of the offence and it reduced the burden on the prosecution to proving possession by the defendant and facts from which a reasonable suspicion could be inferred that the property had been stolen or obtained unlawfully, which in most cases would be likely to be a formality. Section 30 therefore contravened art 11(1) of the Bill of Rights. The Attorney General’s appeal in respect of the first respondent would therefore be dismissed (see p 944 a to c, p 953 c d and p 955 a b, post).
(3) In the case of s 25(1) of the Drug Trafficking (Recovery of Proceeds) Ordinance the substance of the offence was contained in s 25(1), as to which the onus was on the prosecution since unless the prosecution proved that the defendant had been involved in a transaction involving the relevant person’s proceeds of drug trafficking and that at that time he had the necessary knowledge or had reasonable grounds to believe the specified facts the defendant was entitled to be acquitted. However, once the defendant knew or had reasonable grounds to believe that the relevant person was a person who carried on or had carried on drug trafficking or had benefited from drug trafficking, then the defendant knew that he was at risk of committing an offence and that he could only safely deal with that person if he was in a position to satisfy s 25(3) or (4). If the defendant chose not to take the precautionary action under s 25(3) of informing the authorities, then he knew that he could only safely proceed by relying on s 25(4). To be able to achieve that the defendant would have to take any steps necessary to ensure that he did not have the
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knowledge or suspicion referred to and it would be extremely difficult, if not virtually impossible, for the prosecution to fulfil the burden of proving that the defendant had not taken those steps. To that extent it was reasonable for the defendant to bear that onus under s 25(4). It followed that s 25 did not contravene art 11(1) of the Bill of Rights. The Attorney General’s appeal in respect of the second respondents would therefore be allowed (see p 946 c d, p 953 d to j, p 954 b c and p 955 b, post).
NotesFor the protection of fundamental rights and freedoms, including the presumption of innocence, in British dependencies, see 6 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 985.
Cases referred to in judgmentA-G v Chiu Man-lun [1989] 1 HKLR 99, HK CA.
A-G v Lo Man-cheuk [1980] HKLR 687, HK HC.
A-G of the Gambia v Momodou Jobe [1984] AC 689, PC.
Chaulk v R (1990) 62 CCC (3d) 193, Can SC.
Downey v R (1992) 90 DLR (4th) 449, Can SC.
Hadley v Perks (1866) LR 1 QB 444.
Holmes v R (1988) 50 DLR (4th) 680, Can SC.
Leary v US (1969) 395 US 6, US SC.
Minister of Home Affairs v Fisher [1979] 3 All ER 21, [1980] AC 319, [1979] 2 WLR 889, PC.
Mok Wei-tak v R [1990] 2 AC 333, [1990] 2 WLR 898, PC.
Patterson v New York (1977) 432 US 197, US SC.
R v Appleby (1971) 21 DLR (3d) 325, Can SC.
R v Colle (1991) 95 Cr App R 67, CA.
R v Edwards [1974] 2 All ER 1085, [1975] QB 27, [1974] 3 WLR 285, CA.
R v Hunt [1987] 1 All ER 1, [1987] 1 AC 352, [1986] 3 WLR 1115, HL.
R v Oakes (1986) 26 DLR (4th) 200, Can SC.
R v Sin Yau-ming [1992] 1 HKCLR 127, HK CA.
R v Whyte (1988) 51 DLR (4th) 481, Can SC.
Salabiaku v France (1988) 13 EHRR 379, E Ct HR.
Woolmington v DPP [1935] AC 462, [1935] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Cases also citedCounty Court of Ulster County, New York v Allen (1979) 442 US 140, US SC.
DPP v Hutchinson [1992] 2 All ER 836, [1990] AC 783, HL.
Hunter v Southam Inc (1984) 11 DLR (4th) 641, Can SC.
Lingens v Austria (1981) 4 EHRR 373, E Com HR.
Martin v Ohio (1987) 480 US 228, US SC.
Mullaney v Wilbur (1975) 421 US 684, US SC.
Ong Ah Chuan v Public Prosecutor [1981] AC 648, PC.
Pham Hoang v France (25 September 1992) Judgments and Decisions Series A no 243, E Ct HR.
R v Governor of Pentonville Prison, ex p Chinoy [1992] 1 All ER 317, DC.
R v Ireco Canada II Inc (1988) 43 CCC (3d) 482, Ont CA.
R v Richards [1992] 2 All ER 572, CA.
Schwartz v R (1988) 55 DLR (4th) 1, Can SC.
Wholesale Travel Group Inc v R (A-G for Ontario and ors intervening) (1991) 84 DLR (4th) 161, Can SC.
Winship, Re (1970) 397 US 358, US SC.
Page 942 of [1993] 3 All ER 939
AppealThe Attorney General of Hong Kong appealed with special leave from (i) the judgment of the Court of Appeal of Hong Kong (Cons ACJ, Kempster JA and Bokhary J) ([1992] HKCLR 76) given on 18 June 1992 dismissing the Attorney General’s appeal from the decision of the permanent magistrate, Mr J L Acton-Bond, on 2 September 1991 dismissing the information preferred against the first respondent, Lee Kwong-kut, charging him with contravening s 30 of the Summary Offences Ordinance, and (ii) the order of Gall J made on 4 August 1992 in the High Court quashing the indictment preferred against the second respondents, Lo Chak-man and Tsoi Sau-ngai, charging them with assisting another to retain the benefit of drug trafficking, contrary to s 25(1) of the Drug Trafficking (Recovery of Proceeds) Ordinance. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Nicolas Bratza QC and Steven Bailey, Senior Assistant Crown Prosecutor, Hong Kong (instructed by Macfarlanes) for the Attorney General.
G J X McCoy and Keith Oderberg (of the Hong Kong Bar) (instructed by Phillips & Co) for the respondent Lee Kwong-kut were not called on.
Alan Hoo QC and Keven Chan (both of the Hong Kong Bar) (instructed by Kennedys) for the respondent Lo Chak-man.
Martin Thomas QC and Philip Dykes (of the Hong Kong Bar) (instructed by Philip Conway Thomas) for the respondent Tsoi Sau-ngai.
19 May 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
At the conclusion of the argument the Board announced that the appeal in the first respondent’s case would be dismissed for reasons to be given later and reserved its decision in the second respondents’ case.
LORD WOOLF. These appeals illustrate the effect on existing legislation of adopting a Bill of Rights. On 8 June 1991 the Hong Kong Bill of Rights Ordinance of the Laws of Hong Kong (the Hong Kong Bill of Rights) came into force.
After a hearing on 2 September 1991, at which no evidence was called, a magistrate dismissed an information preferred against Lee Kwong-kut (the first respondent) under s 30 of the Summary Offences Ordinance of the Laws of Hong Kong (s 30) on the ground that s 30 had been repealed by s 3(2) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. The Attorney General of Hong Kong appealed against that decision and on 18 June 1992 the Court of Appeal of Hong Kong dismissed that appeal (see [1992] HKCLR 76).
On 4 August 1992 Gall J quashed an indictment against Lo Chak-man and Tsoi Sau-ngai (the second respondents), charging each of the second respondents with one count of assisting another to retain the benefit of drug trafficking contrary to s 25(1) of the Drug Trafficking (Recovery of Proceeds) Ordinance of the Laws of Hong Kong (s 25). Gall J quashed the indictment as a result of his ruling that s 25(1) and (4)(a) and (b) had been repealed by s 3(2) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights.
In relation to the rulings in both cases, the Attorney General sought special leave to appeal and this was granted on 17 November 1992. In both cases the rulings were made on the grounds that the respective sections were inconsistent with s 8, art 11(1) (to which I shall refer as ‘art 11(1)’) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights, which provides:
‘Everyone charged with a criminal offence shall have the right to be presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law.’
Both appeals were heard together. This was a convenient course to adopt on what is the first appeal to come before the Board as to art 11(1) since it has enabled the
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Board to consider a wide-ranging argument about s 30 and s 25, which have very different structures. It was not however necessary for their Lordships to call upon counsel for the first respondent since, having heard the argument on behalf of the Attorney General in relation to the appeal in his case, their Lordships were satisfied that the appeal could not succeed. Their Lordships have humbly advised Her Majesty accordingly.
It is desirable at the outset to explain the different structure of the two offences before turning to consider the possible effects of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights.
The structure of s 30
The terms of s 30 are:
‘Any person who is brought before a magistrate charged with having in his possession or conveying in any manner anything which may be reasonably suspected of having been stolen or unlawfully obtained, and who does not give an account, to the satisfaction of the magistrate, how he came by the same, shall be liable to a fine of $1,000 or to imprisonment for 3 months.’
The way in which the present information was worded shows how a charge under s 30 is approached in practice. What is alleged is that the first respondent had on 17 November 1990 (at a named place) in his possession cash $HK1·76m, reasonably suspected of having been stolen or unlawfully obtained. The failure to give an account to the magistrate is not mentioned.
In his judgment in the Court of Appeal ([1992] HKCLR 76 at 79) relating to the first respondent, Kempster JA points out that s 30’s source, like similar provisions in the laws of each of the states of Australia and of a number of former British colonies in Africa, was the former offence under s 24 of the Metropolitan Police Courts Act 1839 (which was repealed by the Criminal Law Act 1977) and that its history in Hong Kong goes back to s 36 of the Summary Offences Ordinance 1845.
For a proper understanding of s 30 it is useful to have in mind the powers given to the Hong Kong police by s 55 of the Police Force Ordinance, which is comparable to part of what was s 66 of the Metropolitan Police Act 1839. Section 55 of the Police Force Ordinance states:
‘It shall be lawful for any police officer to stop, search and detain any vessel, boat, vehicle, horse or other animal or thing in or upon which there is reason to suspect that anything stolen or unlawfully obtained may be found and also any person who may be reasonably suspected of having or conveying in any manner anything stolen or unlawfully obtained …’
As has been decided in England in Hadley v Perks (1866) LR 1 QB 444 and in Hong Kong in A-G v Chiu Man-lun [1989] 1 HKLR 99, s 30 and s 24 of the Metropolitan Police Courts Act 1839 are to be regarded as supplemental to the powers of arrest given respectively by s 55 of the Police Force Ordinance and s 66 of the Metropolitan Police Act 1839. Construed in this way s 30 created an offence with which a person could be charged after he was stopped and arrested by a police officer in circumstances where there was a suspicion that he had committed an offence but where it was not possible to establish that he was guilty of what were the more serious offences of larceny or receiving. The nature of that offence was made clear by Lush J in Hadley v Perks (at 462) when he said of s 24:
‘It makes it an offence for a person to have in his possession, or convey in any manner, anything which may be reasonably suspected of being stolen or unlawfully obtained, without being able to give a satisfactory account of how he came by it.’
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Section 30 is therefore an offence which contains three elements: (1) the possession or conveying of the property by the defendant, (2) the reasonable suspicion that the property has been stolen or unlawfully obtained and (3) the inability of the defendant to give a satisfactory account of how the property came into his possession.
The third element is not a special defence as is contended by Mr Bratza QC in his extremely persuasive argument, on behalf of the Attorney General, but an ingredient of the offence which places the onus on the defendant, in order to avoid a finding of guilt, to establish that he is able to give an explanation as to his innocent possession of the property.
This third ingredient is the most important element of the offence since, were it not for the third ingredient, it is not difficult to envisage circumstances in which a defendant in possession of property could be guilty of an offence without any behaviour on his part to which it would be appropriate to attach the strictures of the criminal law. He could, for example, be in possession of the property without having any knowledge of any of the circumstances which gave rise to the reasonable suspicion that the property was either stolen or obtained unlawfully which justified the police officer detaining him. Section 30 therefore does not create an offence of the class identified in R v Edwards [1974] 2 All ER 1085 at 1095, [1975] QB 27 at 39–40 by Lawton LJ when, in giving the judgment of the court, he said after examining a line of authority dating from the seventeenth century:
‘… this line of authority establishes that over the centuries the common law, as a result of experience and the need to ensure that justice is done both to the community and to defendants, has evolved an exception to the fundamental rule of our criminal law that the prosecution must prove every element of the offence charged. This exception, like so much else in the common law, was hammered out on the anvil of pleading. It is limited to offences arising under enactments which prohibit the doing of an act save in specified circumstances or by persons of specified classes or with specified qualifications or with the licence or permission of specified authorities. Whenever the prosecution seeks to rely on this exception, the court must construe the enactment under which the charge is laid. If the true construction is that the enactment prohibits the doing of acts, subject to provisos, exemptions and the like, then the prosecution can rely upon the exception.’
This does highlight the very special nature of s 30 since, as Lord Griffiths said in R v Hunt [1987] 1 All ER 1 at 11, [1987] 1 AC 352 at 375 of the formulation of the exception by Lawton LJ in R v Edwards:
‘… the occasions on which a statute will be construed as imposing a burden of proof on a defendant which do not fall within this formulation are likely to be exceedingly rare.’
On this point s 30 can be compared with the approach adopted by the majority of the Board in Mok Wei-tak v R [1990] 2 AC 333 at 349 concerning s 10(1)(a) of the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance, where, in the words of Lord Roskill, ‘the offence is maintaining a standard of living which cannot be satisfactorily explained’. Here the offence is being in possession of the suspicious property without being able to give a satisfactory explanation. In adopting this approach to the nature of s 30 it is also not intended to cast any reflection on the correctness of the decision in A-G v Lo Man-cheuk [1980] HKLR 687 that it was not necessary to make any reference to the failure of the accused to give an account to the satisfaction of the magistrate of his possession of the property reasonably suspected of being stolen or unlawfully
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obtained in a charge under s 30. The correctness of this decision was not in issue before their Lordships.
The structure of s 25
The respective counts of contravening s 25(1)(a) on which the second respondents were to be tried were identical; the particulars of each count alleged that between 6 and 20 December 1989 they had respectively been concerned in an arrangement whereby the retention or control of another’s proceeds of drug trafficking was facilitated, knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe that the other person carried on or had carried on drug trafficking or had benefited from drug trafficking.
The relevant provisions of s 25 are as follows:
‘(1) Subject to subsection (3), a person who enters into or is otherwise concerned in an arrangement whereby—(a) the retention or control by or on behalf of another (“the relevant person”) of the relevant person’s proceeds of drug trafficking is facilitated (whether by concealment, removal from the jurisdiction, transfer to nominees or otherwise); or (b) the relevant person’s proceeds of drug trafficking—(i) are used to secure that funds are placed at the relevant person’s disposal; or (ii) are used for the relevant person’s benefit to acquire property by way of investment, knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe that the relevant person is a person who carries on or has carried on drug trafficking or has benefited from drug trafficking, commits an offence.
(2) In this section, references to any person’s proceeds of drug trafficking include a reference to any property which in whole or in part directly or indirectly represented in his hands his proceeds of drug trafficking.
(3) Where a person discloses to an authorized officer a suspicion or belief that any funds or investments are derived from or used in connection with drug trafficking or any matter on which such a suspicion or belief is based—(a) if he does any act in contravention of subsection (1) and the disclosure relates to the arrangement concerned, he does not commit an offence under this section if the disclosure is made in accordance with this paragraph, that is—(i) it is made before he does the act concerned, being an act done with the consent of the authorized officer; or (ii) it is made after he does the act, but is made on his initiative and as soon as it is reasonable for him to make it; (b) the disclosure shall not be treated as a breach of any restriction upon the disclosure of information imposed by contract or by rules of professional conduct; and (c) he shall not be liable in damages for any loss arising out of—(i) the disclosure; (ii) any act done or omitted to be done in relation to the funds or investments in consequence of the disclosure.
(4) In proceedings against a person for an offence under this section, it is a defence to prove—(a) that he did not know or suspect that the arrangement related to any person’s proceeds of drug trafficking; or (b) that he did not know or suspect that by the arrangement the retention or control by or on behalf of the relevant person of any property was facilitated or, as the case may be, that by the arrangement any property was used as mentioned in subsection (1); or (c) that—(i) he intended to disclose to an authorized officer such a suspicion, belief or matter as is mentioned in subsection (3) in relation to the arrangement; but (ii) there is reasonable excuse for his failure to make disclosure in accordance with subsection (3)(a).
(5) A person who commits an offence under this section is liable—(a) on conviction upon indictment to a fine of $5,000,000 and to imprisonment for 14 years …’
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The only significant difference between s 25 and s 24 of the United Kingdom Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 is in relation to the knowledge which is required of the status of ‘the relevant person’ before an offence is committed. Section 25(1) refers to ‘knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe’ whereas the United Kingdom legislation refers to ‘knowing or suspecting’.
The language of s 25 makes the purpose of the section clear. It is designed to make it more difficult for those engaged in the drug trade to dispose of the proceeds of their illicit traffic without the transactions coming to the knowledge of the authorities. Once a person has knowledge or has reasonable grounds to believe that a relevant person carries on or has carried on drug trafficking or has benefited from drug trafficking, then it will be an offence to become involved with ‘the relevant person’ in any of the wide-ranging activities referred to in the section, unless the activity is reported in accordance with sub-s (3) or the person who engages in the activity is in a position to establish the defence provided for in s 25(4). The section therefore creates an offence, which involves an absolute prohibition on engaging in the activities referred to in the section with someone whom you know or have reasonable grounds to believe is a person who carries on or has carried on or has benefited from drug trafficking, subject to an exception contained in s 25(3) and a special defence contained in sub-s (4). Section 25 is an offence which falls within the classes referred to by Lawton LJ in the passage cited from his judgment in R v Edwards.
As was held in R v Colle (1991) 95 Cr App R 67, in relation to that special defence, the legal or persuasive burden of proof is on a defendant, the standard required being proof on a balance of probabilities. Furthermore the only ‘mens rea’ which the prosecution is required to establish, if mens rea is an appropriate description of the necessary mental element, is that the defendant should know or have reasonable grounds to believe that the relevant person is connected with drug trafficking. This mental element can exist, even if the defendant does not have the required belief, if there are reasonable grounds for his holding the belief. The offence is therefore a draconian one.
The application of art 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights
The Hong Kong Bill of Rights was enacted by the Governor of Hong Kong, with the advice and consent of the Hong Kong Legislative Council. Its provisions are for the time being entrenched under the Hong Kong Letters Patent 1991 (No 2). The ordinance is designed to achieve ‘the incorporation into the law of Hong Kong of provisions of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights as applied to Hong Kong’ (New York, 16 December 1966; TS 6 (1977); Cmnd 6702 (the International Covenant)). Section 3 of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights provides:
‘Effect on pre-existing legislation.—(1) All pre-existing legislation that admits of a construction consistent with this Ordinance shall be given such a construction.
(2) All pre-existing legislation that does not admit of a construction consistent with this Ordinance is, to the extent of the inconsistency, repealed.’
‘Pre-existing legislation’ means legislation enacted before the commencement date of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights, so both s 30 and s 25 are pre-existing legislation.
The close link between the Hong Kong Bill of Rights and the International Covenant is emphasised by s 4, which states:
‘Interpretation of subsequent legislation. All legislation enacted on or after the commencement date shall, to the extent that it admits of such a construction,
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be construed so as to be consistent with the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights as applied to Hong Kong.’
Part II of the ordinance consists of s 8, which contains the 23 articles which constitute the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. Each of those articles refers in terms to the equivalent articles of the International Covenant. Article 11(1), the terms of which have been referred to earlier, is to be compared with art 14 of the International Covenant and it should be considered together with that part of art 10 of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights which provides that:
‘In the determination of any criminal charge against him, or of his rights and obligations in a suit at law, everyone shall be entitled to a fair and public hearing by a competent, independent and impartial tribunal established by law.’
Article 11(2) is also of relevance since it provides:
‘In the determination of any criminal charge against him, everyone shall be entitled to the following minimum guarantees, in full equality … (g) not to be compelled to testify against himself or to confess guilt.’
The decision of the Court of Appeal in the case of the first respondent was not the first appeal heard by that court which involved art 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. In R v Sin Yau-ming [1992] 1 HKCLR 127 the Court of Appeal (Silke V-P, Kempster and Penlington JJA) gave admirably clear judgments which were intended to provide guidance to the Hong Kong courts as to the proper approach to the application of art 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights.
The judgment was in relation to offences of possession of dangerous drugs for the purpose of unlawful trafficking. In its decision, the Court of Appeal decided that certain of the provisions of ss 46 and 47 of the Dangerous Drugs Ordinance were repealed as being inconsistent with art 11(1).
Although this is the first appeal in which the Hong Kong Bill of Rights has been considered by the Board, the Board has had from time to time to consider earlier constitutional orders which contain similar provisions and in his judgment, Kempster JA referred to the general approach to the interpretation of constitutions and bills of rights, indicated in the previous decisions of the Board in Minister of Home Affairs v Fisher [1979] 3 All ER 21, [1980] AC 319 and A-G of the Gambia v Momodou Jobe [1984] AC 689. In the former case, in relation to the Bermuda Constitution Order 1968, Lord Wilberforce stated of instruments of this nature, that they—
‘call for a generous interpretation, avoiding what has been called “the austerity of tabulated legalism”, suitable to give to individuals the full measure of the fundamental rights and freedoms referred to.’ (See [1979] 3 All ER 21 at 25, [1980] AC 319 at 328.)
In the latter case Lord Diplock said (at 700):
‘A constitution, and in particular that part of it which protects and entrenches fundamental rights and freedoms to which all persons in the state are to be entitled, is to be given a generous and purposive construction.’
Lord Diplock’s comment was as to the Constitution of the Republic of the Gambia but, as in the case of the statement of Lord Wilberforce, the approach indicated is equally applicable to the Hong Kong Bill of Rights.
Reference was also made in the judgments in R v Sin Yau-ming [1992] 1 HKCLR 127, to decisions in other common law jurisdictions, including the United States and Canada, and of the European Court of Human Rights in relation to the European Convention on Human Rights (Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and
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Fundamental Freedoms (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmd 8969)). Such decisions can give valuable guidance as to the proper approach to the interpretation of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights, particularly where the decisions in the other jurisdictions are in relation to an article in the same or substantially the same terms as that contained in the equivalent provision of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. However, it must not be forgotten that decisions in other jurisdictions are persuasive and not binding authority and that the situation in those jurisdictions may not necessarily be identical to that in Hong Kong. This is particularly true in the case of decisions of the European court, as Silke V-P recognised. The European court is not concerned directly with the validity of domestic legislation but whether, in relation to a particular complaint, a state has in its domestic jurisdiction infringed the rights of a complainant under the European convention, whereas, in the case of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights, the Hong Kong courts, and on appeal the Board, have to determine the validity of domestic legislation having regard to the entrenched provisions of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights.
Of the various authorities to which the Court of Appeal was referred in R v Sin Yau-ming and on the appeal in the case of the prosecution of the first respondent, the Court of Appeal in Hong Kong found that the decisions of the Supreme Court of Canada provided the most assistance, in particular on the interpretation of art 11(1). In R v Sin Yau-ming all three judges and, on the Attorney General’s appeal in the case of the first respondent, Kempster JA relied heavily on the judgment of Dickson CJC in the Supreme Court of Canada in R v Oakes (1986) 26 DLR (4th) 200, while on that appeal Cons ACJ and Bokhary J followed the subsequent judgment of Dickson CJC in R v Whyte (1988) 51 DLR (4th) 481. When giving his ruling in the second respondents’ case Gall J also applied the approach which was identified by Dickson CJC in R v Whyte. In both cases the Chief Justice was applying s 11(d) of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms, which is the equivalent of art 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. In R v Whyte a stricter approach was adopted to s 11(d) than that which had been adopted in the earlier case of R v Oakes. Mr Bratza accepts that the approach in R v Whyte now represents the accepted approach in Canada, as is confirmed by later decisions of the Canadian Supreme Court (for example in Downey v R (1992) 90 DLR (4th) 449). However on behalf of the Attorney General he submits that it is not desirable for the Hong Kong courts to follow that approach in relation to art 11(1) as it is more intrusive in its effect on existing legislation than the approach adopted in other jurisdictions.
So far as the present appeals are concerned, their Lordships are of the opinion that, whether what can be described as the Whyte approach or the less intrusive approach adopted in other jurisdictions is applied, the outcome would be the same. However in order to assist the Hong Kong courts in the future and in view of the carefully reasoned decisions of the Court of Appeal already referred to, the Board feel it is necessary to give some assistance as to the correct approach for the courts to adopt in relation to art 11(1) and in particular as to whether it is appropriate to adopt the Whyte approach in Hong Kong as a matter of course.
Before examining the approach adopted in Canada it is helpful to consider the language and objectives of art 11(1) and the approach adopted in other jurisdictions apart from Canada to similar provisions.
Article 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights is part of a group of provisions contained both in that article and in art 10 which are designed to ensure that, before an individual is convicted of a criminal offence, he will have a fair trial and that justice will be done. Article 11(1) would be described in the United States as a due process provision. In his case the first-named of the second respondents draws attention to the fact that art 11(1) is not subject to any express limitation. Reference is also made to the comments by the United Nations Human Rights Committee at
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its 21st session on art 14 of the International Covenant, which include the statement that:
‘The burden of proof of the charge is on the prosecution and the accused has the benefit of the doubt. No guilt can be presumed until the charge has been proved beyond all reasonable doubt. Further, the presumption of innocence implies a right to be treated in accordance with this principle. It is, therefore, a duty for all public authorities to refrain from prejudging the outcome of a trial.’
However, it should not be assumed from this statement that the comparable article in the International Covenant to art 11(1) does not permit the degree of flexibility which is normally assumed to be implicit in any provision of general application which is of the same nature as art 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. Placing to one side for the moment the decisions in Canada, all of the many decisions in different jurisdictions to which their Lordships were referred recognise that provisions similar to art 11(1) are always subject to implied limitations so that a contravention of the provisions does not automatically follow as a consequence of a burden on some issues being placed on a defendant at a criminal trial. In the common law jurisdictions, Viscount Sankey LC’s famous statement in Woolmington v DPP [1935] AC 462 at 481, [1935] 1 All ER Rep 1 at 8 that—
‘Throughout the web of the English criminal law one golden thread is always to be seen, that it is the duty of the prosecution to prove the prisoner’s guilt subject to what I have already said as to the defence of insanity and subject also to any statutory exception’
is regularly treated as a starting point for the approach to provisions equivalent to art 11(1). If that statement is taken together with the comments of Lawton LJ and Lord Griffiths referred to earlier, and if it is also remembered that it is the substance rather than the letter of the language of the statute which is important when considering whether there is an exemption or proviso, this statement is also a useful starting point when considering the effect of art 11(1) itself.
Mr Bratza relied on the decision in the United States Supreme Court in Patterson v New York (1977) 432 US 197 as showing that that court had rejected an argument that the ‘due process’ clause of the Fourteenth Amendment required a state to disprove beyond reasonable doubt every fact constituting any offence and all affirmative defences relating to the culpability of the accused. He also relied upon the cases before the European Court of Human Rights which were referred to in the judgments in R v Sin Yau-ming [1992] 1 HKCLR 127. Here reference can be usefully made to the decision of the European Court of Human Rights in Salabiaku v France (1988) 13 EHRR 379 at 388, where the judgment, which has been followed in later cases in the European court, contains the following statement as to the equivalent provisions to art 11 of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights:
‘Presumptions of fact or of law operate in every legal system. Clearly, the Convention does not prohibit such presumptions in principle. It does, however, require the Contracting States to remain within certain limits in this respect as regards criminal law. If, as the Commission would appear to consider, paragraph 2 of Article 6 merely laid down a guarantee to be respected by the courts in the conduct of legal proceedings, its requirements would in practice overlap with the duty of impartiality imposed in paragraph 1. Above all, the national legislature would be free to strip the trial court of any genuine power of assessment and deprive the presumption of innocence of its substance, if the words “according to law” were construed exclusively with reference of domestic law. Such a situation could not be reconciled with the
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object and purpose of Article 6, which, by protecting the right to a fair trial and in particular the right to be presumed innocent, is intended to enshrine the fundamental principle of the rule of law. Article 6(2) does not therefore regard presumptions of fact or of law provided for in the criminal law with indifference. It requires States to confine them within reasonable limits which take into account the importance of what is at stake and maintain the rights of the defence.’
This statement provides a valuable illustration of the collective effect of the decisions in other jurisdictions, apart from Canada, to which their Lordships have been referred on equivalent provisions to art 11(1) in other constitutional documents. Even though they are not subject to any express limitation they are considered to have an implicit degree of flexibility. The situation is the same in relation to art 11(1).
This implicit flexibility allows a balance to be drawn between the interest of the person charged and the state. There are situations where it is clearly sensible and reasonable that deviations should be allowed from the strict applications of the principle that the prosecution must prove the defendant’s guilt beyond reasonable doubt. Take an obvious example in the case of an offence involving the performance of some act without a licence. Common sense dictates that the prosecution should not be required to shoulder the virtually impossible task of establishing that a defendant has not a licence when it is a matter of comparative simplicity for a defendant to establish that he has a licence. The position is the same with regard to insanity, which was one of the exceptions identified by Viscount Sankey LC in the passage in Woolmington v DPP [1935] AC 462 at 481, [1935] All ER Rep 1 at 8 which has already been cited. The other qualification which Viscount Sankey LC made as to statutory exceptions clearly has to be qualified when giving effect to a provision similar to art 11(1).
Some exceptions will be justifiable, others will not. Whether they are justifiable will in the end depend upon whether it remains primarily the responsibility of the prosecution to prove the guilt of an accused to the required standard and whether the exception is reasonably imposed, notwithstanding the importance of maintaining the principle which art 11(1) enshrines. The less significant the departure from the normal principle, the simpler it will be to justify an exception. If the prosecution retains responsibility for proving the essential ingredients of the offence, the less likely it is that an exception will be regarded as unacceptable. In deciding what are the essential ingredients, the language of the relevant statutory provision will be important. However, what will be decisive will be the substance and reality of the language creating the offence rather than its form. If the exception requires certain matters to be presumed until the contrary is shown, then it will be difficult to justify that presumption unless, as was pointed out by the United States Supreme Court in Leary v US (1969) 395 US 6 at 36, ‘it can at least be said with substantial assurance that the presumed fact is more likely than not to flow from the proved fact on which it is made to depend’.
Turning to the recent decisions of the Canadian Supreme Court, they contain remarks of considerable value. In particular the majority judgment of Dickson CJC in R v Oakes (1986) 26 DLR (4th) 200 contains a number of helpful statements.
His general conclusion, after examining the authorities in various other jurisdictions, was in the following terms (at 222), with which, with its reference to ‘important element’ and ‘essential element’, their Lordships would respectfully agree:
‘In general one must, I think, conclude that a provision which requires an accused to disprove on a balance of probabilities the existence of a presumed
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fact, which is an important element of the offence in question, violates the presumption of innocence … If an accused bears the burden of disproving on a balance of probabilities an essential element of an offence, it would be possible for a conviction to occur despite the existence of a reasonable doubt. This would arise if the accused adduced sufficient evidence to raise a reasonable doubt as to his or her innocence but did not convince the jury on a balance of probabilities that the presumed fact was untrue.’
It is, however, important when considering the decision in R v Oakes and the cases in which it has been followed to remember that prior to the adoption of the Canadian Charter, Canada had a Bill of Rights and that, while the Bill of Rights did not have an express limitation on the effect of its specific provisions, the Charter does have such a limitation in art 1:
‘The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms guarantees the rights and freedoms set out in it subject only to such reasonable limits prescribed by law as can be demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society.’
Having regard to this express limitation, it is understandable that Dickson CJC. in R v Oakes (at 223) considered that ‘it is highly desirable to keep ss. 1 and 11(d) [of the Canadian Charter] analytically distinct’. Having adopted a two-stage process, it is again understandable that the Canadian Supreme Court has adopted a strict approach as to when there has been a contravention of s 11(d). This is in contrast to the flexible approach which had been adopted by the Canadian Supreme Court in R v Appleby (1971) 21 DLR (3d) 325 to s 2(f) of the Canadian Bill of Rights, which is the equivalent provision to s 11(d) of the Canadian Charter. Dickson CJC in R v Oakes (at 224–225) regarded s 1 of the Charter as stating ‘explicitly the exclusive justificatory criteria … against which limitations on those rights and freedoms [set out in the Charter] must be measured’. Having come to this conclusion, in R v Whyte (1988) 51 DLR (4th) 481 the Canadian Supreme Court, as already indicated, applied a stricter approach to the application of s 11(d) of the Charter than had been adopted not only in R v Oakes but in the subsequent case of Holmes v R (1988) 50 DLR (4th) 680. In the passage of his judgment in R v Oakes cited above Dickson CJC regarded presumptions in relation to ‘an important element’ or ‘an essential element’ as offending s 11(d) of the Canadian Charter. In R v Whyte his approach was not confined to these elements, as appears from the following passage of his judgment (at 493):
‘In the case at bar, the Attorney-General of Canada argued that since the intention to set the vehicle in motion is not an element of the offence, s. 237(1)(a) does not infringe the presumption of innocence. Counsel relied on the passage from Oakes quoted above, with its reference to an “essential element”, to support this argument. The accused here is required to disprove a fact collateral to the substantive offence, unlike Oakes where the accused was required to disprove an element of the offence. The short answer to this argument is that the distinction between elements of the offence and other aspects of the charge is irrelevant to the s. 11(d) inquiry. The real concern is not whether the accused must disprove an element or prove an excuse, but that an accused may be convicted while a reasonable doubt exists. When that possibility exists, there is a breach of the presumption of innocence. The exact characterization of a factor as an essential element, a collateral factor, an excuse, or a defence should not affect the analysis of the presumption of innocence. It is the final effect of a provision on the verdict that is decisive. If an accused is required to prove some fact on the balance of probabilities to avoid conviction, the provision violates the presumption of innocence because it permits a
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conviction in spite of a reasonable doubt in the mind of the trier of fact as to the guilt of the accused.’
It was the approach reflected in this passage of Dickson CJC’s judgment (‘the Whyte approach’) which was followed in these cases, in the Court of Appeal by Cons ACJ and Bokhary J in the first respondent’s case and by Gall J in the second case.
Applying the Whyte approach, even to place the onus on a defendant to prove insanity as a ‘defence’ to murder has now been held to contravene the presumption of innocence guaranteed by s 11(d) of the Canadian Charter (see Chaulk v R (1990) 62 CCC (3d) 193). However, the Supreme Court was able to justify the conventional position in relation to insanity under s 1. This result illustrates the fact that, applying the two stage approach, the courts in Canada in the end tend to come to the same conclusion as would be reached in other jurisdictions.
This does not mean that the adoption of a two-stage as opposed to a single stage approach does not have practical consequences. In relation to the second stage, the s 1 of the Charter stage, formal criteria which need to be satisfied have been established. In Chaulk v R (1990) 62 CCC (3d) 193 at 216–217 Lamer CJC, Dickson CJC concurring, described the reasoning to be followed when there is an attempt to rely on s 1 of the Canadian Charter in the following terms:
‘1. The objective of the impugned provision must be of sufficient importance to warrant overriding a constitutionally protected right or freedom; it must relate to concerns which are pressing and substantial in a free and democratic society before it can be characterized as sufficiently important. 2. Assuming that a sufficiently important objective has been established, the means chosen to achieve the objective must pass a proportionality test; that is to say they must: (a) be “rationally connected” to the objective and not be arbitrary, unfair or based on irrational considerations; (b) impair the right or freedom in question as “little as possible”, and (c) be such that their effects on the limitation of rights and freedoms are proportional to the objective.’
In applying these tests, the Canadian Supreme Court has injected a degree of flexibility. In particular in Chaulk v R it was made clear that reliance on s 1 would not be prevented because Parliament had failed to search out and adopt the least possible intrusive means of attaining its objective as long as it has chosen from a range of means which impairs s 11(d) as little as is reasonably possible.
Notwithstanding this, it is their Lordships’ opinion that, in applying the Hong Kong Bill of Rights, it is not necessary, at least in the vast majority of cases, to follow the somewhat complex process now established in Canada in order to assess whether an exception to the general rule that the burden of proof should rest upon the prosecution throughout a trial is justified. Normally, by examining the substance of the statutory provision which is alleged to have been repealed by the Hong Kong Bill of Rights, it will be possible to come to a firm conclusion as to whether the provision has been repealed or not without too much difficulty and without going through the Canadian process of reasoning. The application of a test along the lines suggested by Lawton LJ in R v Edwards [1974] 2 All ER 1085 at 1095, [1975] QB 27 at 39–40 in the manner already indicated will often be all that is required. The court can ask itself whether, under the provision in question, the prosecution is required to prove the important elements of the offence, while the defendant is reasonably given the burden of establishing a proviso or an exemption or the like of the type indicated by Lawton LJ. If this is the situation art 11(1) is not contravened.
In a case where there is real difficulty, where the case is close to the borderline, regard can be had to the approach now developed by the Canadian courts in respect of s 1 of their Charter. However, in doing this the tests which have been identified
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in Canada do not need to be applied rigidly or cumulatively, nor need the results achieved be regarded as conclusive. They should be treated as providing useful general guidance in a case of difficulty. This is particularly true in relation to what was said in Chaulk v R (1990) 62 CCC (3d) 193 at 217 about proportionality since it is the need to balance the interests of the individual and society which are at the heart of the justification of an exception to the general rule.
The application of art 11(1) to ss 30 and 25
So far as the first issue in the present appeals is concerned, that is whether the Hong Kong Bill of Rights has repealed the statutory provisions, their Lordships regard the answer as being straightforward once the substance of the offences has been identified. In the case of the first respondent the substantive effect of the statutory provision is to place the onus on the defendant to establish that he can give an explanation as to his innocent possession of the property. That is the most significant element of the offence. It reduces the burden on the prosecution to proving possession by the defendant and facts from which a reasonable suspicion can be inferred that the property has been stolen or obtained unlawfully, matters which are likely to be a formality in the majority of cases. It therefore contravenes art 11(1) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights in a manner which the Attorney General could not justify.
This is by contrast to the situation in relation to the second respondents’ case and s 25. It is not important whether s 25(4) is regarded as creating a defence or an exception if it does not constitute part of the substance of the offence. The substance of the offence is contained in s 25(1), as to which the onus is on the prosecution. Unless the prosecution can prove that the defendant has been involved in a transaction involving the relevant person’s proceeds of drug trafficking (within the wide terms of s 25(2)) as set out in s 25(1) and that at that time he had the necessary knowledge or had reasonable grounds to believe the specified facts, the defendant is entitled to be acquitted. However, once the defendant knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that the relevant person is a person who carries on or has carried out drug trafficking or has benefited from drug trafficking, then the defendant knows that he is at risk of committing an offence and that he can only safely deal with that person if he is in a position to satisfy s 25(3) or (4). If the defendant chooses not to take the precautionary action under s 25(3) then he knows he can only safely proceed by relying on s 25(4). To be able to achieve this the defendant will have to take any steps necessary to ensure that he does not have the knowledge or suspicion referred to. An example would be by insisting on seeing documents establishing the untainted source of the funds. If the defendant has done this then he will be aware of the relevant facts and it is reasonable that he should be required to establish them. It would be extremely difficult, if not virtually impossible, for the prosecution to fulfil the burden of proving that the defendant had not taken those steps. In the context of the war against drug trafficking, for a defendant to bear that onus under s 25(4) is manifestly reasonable and clearly does not offend art 11(1). Indeed s 30 and s 25 can be regarded as examples of situations close to the opposite ends of the spectrum of what does and does not contravene art 11(1).
It was argued on behalf of the Attorney General that, as the first respondent’s alleged offence was committed prior to the coming into force of the Bill of Rights, s 3 should not be invoked so as to repeal retrospectively s 30. In support of this argument Mr Bratza relied on s 23 of the Interpretation and General Clauses Ordinance, which corresponds closely to s 16(1) of the Interpretation Act 1978. However, quite independently of s 3, s 8 and art 11(1) established a defendant’s right ‘to be presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law’. That right came into existence on the coming into force of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights and so it would
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apply in any trial taking place thereafter. It is not the date of the offence but the date of trial which is conclusive. If it had been necessary to do so, the same result could have been achieved by saying that in this context a contrary intention appears, so s 23 of the Interpretation and General Clauses Ordinance does not apply (see s 2 of the ordinance).
The Attorney General did not contend that it was possible to save s 30 by treating it as being only partly repealed.
Having come to the conclusion that s 25(4) does not offend art 11(1), the appeal of the Attorney General in respect of the proceedings against the second respondents must inevitably be allowed. However, it is desirable that their Lordships indicate that, if they had not come to that conclusion, then, contrary to the judgment of Gall J, they would have regarded only the words ‘to prove’ as being repealed by s 3(2) of the Hong Kong Bill of Rights. Section 3(2) repeals existing legislation ‘to the extent of the inconsistency’ and if the words ‘to prove’ are removed from s 25(4) the second respondents would be no longer under a legal or persuasive burden of proof to establish the defence contained in s 25(4). Instead they would be under an evidential burden merely requiring them to raise the issue. This burden could not conceivably contravene art 11(1).
The final matter to which reference should be made is that Gall J was of the view that the Crown had failed to adduce the necessary evidence to establish that the interference with the interests of the individual for the benefit of the state contained in s 25 was justified. As to this he was in the difficulty that the issues before him were presented on the basis that he was required to adopt the two-stage process laid down in R v Whyte in circumstances where the Crown was conceding before him that there had been a prima facie contravention of art 11(1). This concession having been made, on the basis of the Canadian authorities, the burden on the Crown was a heavy one and his conclusion that the evidence which was available to him was not sufficient to enable him to be satisfied has to be understood in this context. However, as was apparent from his judgment, Gall J had ample knowledge to hold the balance appropriately between the individual and the government in relation to s 25 without any evidence being called. The need to prevent the laundering of the proceeds of drug trafficking is common knowledge. He was entitled to have regard to the policy which the legislature had made clear by enacting s 25. He was in a position to assess the extent of the burden which s 25(4) imposed upon the second respondents. If he had adopted, as he should have done, a broad unified approach to the application of art 11(1) to s 25, he should have had no difficulty on the material which was before him in coming to the conclusion that the section did not contravene the article. The fact that he found this process as complex as he did illustrates the disadvantage that can flow from seeking strictly to emulate the current approach of the Canadian Supreme Court. While the Hong Kong judiciary should be zealous in upholding an individual’s rights under the Hong Kong Bill of Rights, it is also necessary to ensure that disputes as to the effect of the Bill of Rights are not allowed to get out of hand. The issues involving the Hong Kong Bill of Rights should be approached with realism and good sense, and kept in proportion. If this is not done the Hong Kong Bill of Rights will become a source of injustice rather than justice and it will be debased in the eyes of the public. In order to maintain the balance between the individual and the society as a whole, rigid and inflexible standards should not be imposed on the legislature’s attempts to resolve the difficult and intransigent problems with which society is faced when seeking to deal with serious crime. It must be remembered that questions of policy remain primarily the responsibility of the legislature (see Downey v R (1992) 90 DLR (4th) 449 at 466 and Chaulk v R (1990) 62 CCC (3d) 193 at 222). It would not assist the individuals who are charged with offences if, because of the approach adopted to
Page 955 of [1993] 3 All ER 939
‘statutory defences’ by the courts, the legislature, in order to avoid the risk of legislation being successfully challenged, did not include in the legislation a statutory defence to a charge.
For these reasons, their Lordships have humbly advised Her Majesty that the appeal of the Attorney General in the case of the first respondent ought to be dismissed and they will humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal of the Attorney General in the case of the second respondents ought to be allowed and the order of Gall J set aside. The Attorney General must pay the costs of the first respondent before their Lordships’ Board. There will be no order as to costs in the case of the second respondents.
Appeal in first respondent’s case dismissed. Appeal in second respondents’ case allowed, with no order as to costs.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Re Pavlou (a bankrupt)
[1993] 3 All ER 955
Categories: BANKRUPTCY
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MILLETT J
Hearing Date(s): 9 DECEMBER 1991
Insolvency – Property available for distribution – Matrimonial home – Sale under trust for sale – Equitable accounting between trustee in bankruptcy and co-owner left in occupation – Joint tenants – Husband leaving wife in sole occupation – Wife thereafter paying mortgage instalments and repairs and improvements – Husband made bankrupt and joint tenancy severed as a result – Trustee in bankruptcy obtaining orders for possession and sale – Date for commencement of equitable accounting between trustee and wife – Whether equitable accounting should include increased value resulting from wife’s payments prior to bankruptcy – Whether occupation rent payable by wife should be set off against mortgage interest payments.
The respondent husband and wife bought a matrimonial home in 1973 which was transferred to them as beneficial joint tenants. The transfer contained an express declaration of trust to that effect. In January 1983 they separated and the husband left leaving the wife in sole occupation of the property. Thereafter the wife paid the mortgage instalments and also paid for repairs and improvements to the home. In March 1987 a bankruptcy order was made against the husband with the result that the beneficial joint tenancy in the property was severed and it was thereafter owned by husband and wife as tenants in common in equal shares. The trustee in bankruptcy of the husband applied to the court for a declaration as to the beneficial interests in the property, an order for possession and an order for sale. It was agreed that the orders for possession and sale should be granted but the wife claimed that she was entitled to reimbursement for her expenditure on the property. It was agreed that there had to be an equitable accounting between the parties but the question arose from what date the accounting should begin.
Held – (1) There was no difference between a beneficial tenancy in common and a beneficial joint tenancy for the purpose of an equitable accounting since in both cases the guiding principle was that neither party could take the benefit of an increase in value of the property without making an allowance for what had been
Page 956 of [1993] 3 All ER 955
expended by the other in order to obtain the increase. Accordingly, on an order for sale the proportions in which the property was to be divided between the former co-owners had to have regard to any increase in its value which had been brought about by expenditure incurred by one of them. It followed that the wife was entitled to the lesser of one-half of the increase in the value of the property, if any, resulting from her repairs or improvements before and after the bankruptcy order or one-half of her actual expenditure, if that was less than the increase in property value. She was also entitled to credit for one-half of the increase in value of the equity of redemption resulting from from the capital element of the mortgage payments from the date the husband left the property in 1983, and not merely from the date of the bankruptcy order (see p 958 c to h, post); Leigh v Dickeson [1881–5] All ER Rep 1099 applied.
(2) The court would order an inquiry and payment of occupation rent not only where the co-owner in occupation had ousted the other but in any other case in which it was necessary in order to do equity between the parties that an occupation rent should be paid. Where the property was a matrimonial home and the marriage had broken down the party who left the property would in most cases be regarded as excluded from the family home, so that an occupation rent was payable by the co-owner who remained. However, if a tenant in common left the property voluntarily in circumstances where he or she would be welcome back and would be in a position to enjoy his or her right to occupy, it would normally not be fair or equitable to the remaining tenant in common to charge him or her with an occupation rent which he or she never expected to pay. On the evidence before the court the question whether it would be just for the wife to pay an occupation rent for the period between January 1983, when the husband left the property, and March 1986, when she presented a petition for divorce, could not be decided. However, the wife was prima facie liable to pay an occupation rent from March 1986 onwards (see p 959 h to p 960 a c, post).
(3) The wife was prima facie entitled to reimbursement for the interest element in the mortgage payments which she had paid since the date when the husband left the property in January 1983, but, as there was no agreement between the parties to set off the interest element against the occupation rent, the necessary accounts and inquiries would be ordered (see p 960 c d h j, post).
Per curiam. The presentation of a petition for divorce by the party remaining in occupation of the matrimonial home should be taken to constitute a refusal to take the other partner back into the matrimonial home and a willingness to pay an occupation rent thereafter (see p 960 b, post).
Notes For the determination of property rights between the husband and wife, see 22 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1030, and for cases on the subject, see 27(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 199–202, 1637–1662.
Cases referred to in judgmentDennis v McDonald [1981] 2 All ER 632, [1982] Fam 63, [1982] 2 WLR 275, CA.
Gorman (a bankrupt), Re, ex p the trustee of the bankrupt v The bankrupt [1990] 1 All ER 717, [1990] 1 WLR 616, DC.
Hill v Hickin [1897] 2 Ch 579.
Leigh v Dickeson (1884) 15 QBD 60, [1881–5] All ER Rep 1099, CA.
M‘Mahon v Burchell (1846) 2 Ph 127, 41 ER 889.
Swan v Swan (1820) 8 Price 518, 146 ER 1281.
Turner v Morgan (1803) 8 Ves 143, 32 ER 307.
Page 957 of [1993] 3 All ER 955
Cases also citedCitro (a bankrupt), Re [1990] 3 All ER 952, [1991] Ch 142, CA.
Goodman v Gallant [1986] 1 All ER 311, [1986] Fam 106, CA.
Suttill v Graham [1977] 3 All ER 1117, [1977] 1 WLR 819, CA.
Turton v Turton [1987] 2 All ER 641, [1988] Ch 542, CA.
MotionThe trustee of the property of the first respondent, Michael Pavlou, a bankrupt, applied by notice of motion dated 10 August 1990 seeking (1) a declaration that he was solely and beneficially entitled to property, 50 Linzee Road, Hornsey, London N8, (2) alternatively, a declaration as to the respective beneficial interests of himself, the applicant, and the second respondent, Theognosia Pavlou, the bankrupt’s wife, in the property, (3) an order that the property be sold and the proceeds of the sale be paid to the trustee, (4) an order that the respondents concur in the sale and join with the trustee in doing such things as might be necessary to secure the sale of the property with vacant possession, (5) an order for delivery up of possession to the trustee and the net proceeds of the sale to be paid to him, (6) alternatively, an order that the net proceeds of sale be decided and paid to the trustee and the second respondent in such shares as might be thought fit, pursuant to the declaration sought in para (2). The facts are set out in the judgment.
R H Walford (instructed by Isadore Goldman) for the trustee.
C I Howells (instructed by Bartletts) for the second respondent.
MILLETT J. In this case the two respondents are husband and wife. They married in Cyprus in May 1954. In December 1973 they bought a matrimonial home, 50 Linzee Road, Hornsey, which was transferred into their names as beneficial joint tenants. The transfer contained an express declaration of trust to that effect. Between August 1976 and November 1977 the respondents separated but they got back together again and continued living in the property as man and wife for a further five years. In January 1983, however, the husband left the property, leaving his wife in sole occupation.
The property had been bought for £12,500 with the assistance of a mortgage in favour of the Halifax Building Society for some £9,500. After the husband left the property, the wife paid all the mortgage instalments, which varied in amounts from some £90 to £150 depending on the rate of interest from time to time. On 20 March 1986 the wife presented a divorce petition on the ground of desertion. On 8 July 1986 HM Customs and Excise presented a bankruptcy petition against the husband. On 23 July 1986 the wife obtained a decree nisi of divorce, but she has not yet obtained a decree absolute. I have been told that she remains willing and anxious to have her husband back. She has obtained no ancillary orders for maintenance. On 24 March 1987 a bankruptcy order was made against the husband. It is common ground that the effect of the order was to sever the beneficial joint tenancy in the property and cause it to be owned by the two respondents as tenants in common in equal shares. Three days later, on 27 March 1987, the applicant was appointed trustee in bankruptcy of the husband. He now applies for an order for sale, and the wife seeks reimbursement for her expenditure on the property.
The wife claims to have spent money on repairs, or improvements to the property at various times. This including a sum of some £2,000-odd, which I am told was paid in 1985, and a sum of some £4,000 paid in 1989. I have not been taken through the evidence in any detail. The case has been argued before me as a question of principle. It is agreed that there must be an order for sale, and that there should be an order against the wife for possession in three months’ time. It is also agreed that
Page 958 of [1993] 3 All ER 955
there must be an equitable accounting between the parties. The question of principle which has been argued is: from what date should the accounting begin? I will take the easiest matter first—improvements and repairs—where the dispute arises from the fact that some of the alleged improvements took place before the bankruptcy order was made.
The trustee in bankruptcy submits that there is no equitable accounting between beneficial joint tenants but only between tenants in common, on the ground that beneficial joint tenants own the entire property per mie et per tout, so that expenditure by one is expenditure on his or her own property, and cannot be described as laid out in part in the improvement of the share of the other co-owner. Accordingly, he submits, the wife is not entitled to be reimbursed for any expenditure by her before the date of the bankruptcy order.
In my judgment there is no distinction between a beneficial tenancy in common and a beneficial joint tenancy. In neither case could a co-owner obtain contribution from his or her co-owner; any reimbursement had to wait a suit for partition or an order by the court for sale of property. On a partition suit or an order for sale, adjustments could be made between the co-owners, the guiding principle being that neither party could take the benefit of an increase in the value of the property without making an allowance for what had been expended by the other in order to obtain it: see Leigh v Dickeson (1884) 15 QBD 60, [1881–5] All ER Rep 1099. That was a case of tenants in common, but in my judgment the same principle must apply as between joint tenants; the question only arose on a partition or on the division of the proceeds of sale, the very point of time at which severance occurred if there was a joint tenancy. The guiding principle for the court of equity is that the proportions in which the entirety should be divided between former co-owners must have regard to any increase in its value which has been brought about by means of expenditure by one of them.
I must make it clear, of course, that in deciding as I do that the wife is entitled as against the trustee in bankruptcy to credit for one-half of any repairs or improvements, there has to be an inquiry as to the amount expended and the increase, if any, in the value of the property thereby realised. Much expenditure on property is not reflected in any increase in value, and most expenditure on property results in a much smaller increase in value than the amount expended. The wife will be entitled, as against the trustee in bankruptcy, to credit only for one half of the lesser of the actual expenditure and any increase in the value realised thereby.
The same applies, in my judgment, to any capital element in the repayment of mortgage instalments. The repayment of the capital element in each instalment increases the value of the equity of redemption which inures to the benefit of both joint tenants. Accordingly, the wife is entitled to credit for one-half the increase in value of the equity of redemption which results from the capital element of the mortgage payments since the date on which the husband left the property in 1983, and not merely back to the date of the bankruptcy order.
More difficult questions arise from the wife’s continued occupation of the property. Is she chargeable with an occupation rent in respect of any period prior to the date of the bankruptcy order? And is she entitled to credit for the interest element in the mortgage repayments which she has made since the husband left her? I will take the occupation rent first. In Hill v Hickin [1897] 2 Ch 579 at 581 Stirling J, having pointed out that, at law, no rent could be recovered by one co-owner from another in sole occupation, said:
‘It has, however, long been the practice of the Court of Chancery and of the Chancery Division to direct such inquiries as have been directed in the present case: see as to occupation rent, Turner v. Morgan ((1803) 8 Ves 143 at 145, 32 ER
Page 959 of [1993] 3 All ER 955
307 at 308); and as to expenditure on improvements, Swan v. Swan ((1820) 8 Price 518, 146 ER 1281).’
The question was considered in a matrimonial context in Dennis v McDonald [1981] 2 All ER 632 at 638, [1982] Fam 63 at 70–71 by Purchas J. Having cited Stirling J’s judgment in Hill v Hickin, he said:
‘Counsel for the plaintiff submitted, I think correctly, that when one looks at the judgment in M‘Mahon v Burchell (1846) 2 Ph 127, 41 ER 889 together with the extract from the judgment of Stirling J in Hill v Hickin [1897] 2 Ch 579 the true position under the old authorities was that the Court of Chancery and Chancery Division would always be ready to inquire into the position as between co-owners being tenants in common either at law or in equity to see whether a tenant in common in occupation of the premises was doing so to the exclusion of one or more of the other tenants in common for whatever purpose or by whatever means. If this was found to be the case, then if in order to do equity between the parties an occupation rent should be paid, this would be declared and the appropriate inquiry ordered. Only in cases where the tenants in common not in occupation were in a position to enjoy their right to occupy but chose not to do so voluntarily, and were not excluded by any relevant factor, would the tenant in common in occupation be entitled to do so free of liability to pay an occupation rent. In the instant case the plaintiff is clearly not a free agent.’
That was a case where the wife had left the matrimonial home. The judge proceeded ([1981] 2 All ER 632 at 638, [1982] Fam 63 at 71):
‘She was caused to leave the family home as the result of the violence or threatened violence of the defendant. In any event, whatever might have been the cause of the breakdown of the association, it would be quite unreasonable to expect the plaintiff to exercise her rights as a tenant in common to occupy the property as she had done before the breakdown of her association with the defendant. In my judgment she falls into exactly the kind of category of person excluded from the property in the way envisaged by Lord Cottenham LC in M‘Mahon v Burchell. Therefore, the basic principle that a new tenant in common is not liable to pay an occupation rent by virtue merely of his being in sole occupation of the property does not apply in the case where an association similar to a matrimonial association has broken down and one party is, for practical purposes, excluded from the family home.’
I take the law to be to the following effect. First, a court of equity will order an inquiry and payment of occupation rent, not only in the case where the co-owner in occupation has ousted the other, but in any other case in which it is necessary in order to do equity between the parties that an occupation rent should be paid. The fact that there has not been an ouster, or forceful exclusion, therefore, is far from conclusive. Secondly, where it is a matrimonial home and the marriage has broken down, the party who leaves the property will, in most cases, be regarded as excluded from the family home, so that an occupation rent should be paid by the co-owner who remains. But, that is not a rule of law; that is merely a statement of the prima facie conclusion to be drawn from the facts. The true position is that if a tenant in common leaves the property voluntarily, but would be welcome back, and would be in a position to enjoy his or her right to occupy, it would normally not be fair or equitable to the remaining tenant in common to charge him or her with an occupation rent which he or she never expected to pay.
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I have not the material in the present case to judge whether, in the present case, it would be just for the wife to pay an occupation rent, at least in respect of the period between January 1983 when the husband left the property and March 1986, when she presented a petition for divorce. I acknowledge that her presentation of the petition for divorce may well have been no more than a reluctant recognition of a fait accompli. Without deciding the point, but hoping to be of some assistance to the parties, I would express the view that prima facie, at any rate, the presentation of a petition for divorce by the party remaining in occupation of the matrimonial home should normally be taken to signify a refusal to take the other partner back into the matrimonial home and a willingness to pay an occupation rent thereafter.
I am unable to decide, on the material before me, whether it would be just or not to order the wife to pay an occupation rent in the period between January 1983 and March 1986 but, from March 1986 onwards, the wife is prima facie liable to pay an occupation rent.
There remains the question of the interest element in the mortgage payments which the wife has paid. Once again, prima facie, she is entitled to reimbursement since the date on which the husband left the property in January 1983, and not merely since the severance in March 1987.
In many cases the court has simply set off the interest element in the mortgage repayments against an occupation rent but, as Vinelott J pointed out in Re Gorman (a bankrupt), ex p the trustee of the bankrupt v The bankrupt [1990] 1 All ER 717 at 726, [1990] 1 WLR 616 at 626, which incidentally was a case of joint tenants:
‘That practice is not, of course, a rule of law to be applied in all circumstances, irrespective of, on the one hand, the amount of the mortgage debt and instalments paid and, on the other hand, the value of the property and the amount of the occupation rent that ought fairly to be charged. It is a rule of convenience, and more readily applies between husband and wife, or cohabitees, than between a spouse and the trustee in bankruptcy of the other co-owner.’
In my judgment if the trustee in bankruptcy insists upon the strict accounts being taken, then he is entitled to do so, unless it can be seen in advance that the amounts are likely to be so similar that the taking of the two accounts would be a waste of time, and the costs would outweigh any possible advantages to be gained thereby. In such a case the court might well impose its own solution of directing the interest element in the mortgage instalments to be set off against the use and occupation without any further inquiry.
In some cases the court may be able to infer an agreement between the parties that that procedure should be adopted, but in the present case where there are divorce proceedings and applications for ancillary relief still pending there is no evidence to justify any inference of that kind.
Accordingly, in my judgment, it is not correct to describe either party as having the right to elect to set off. I have not the material to judge whether the inquiries would or would not be a waste of time. I propose to order all necessary accounts and inquiries and leave it to the parties to proceed with them if so advised.
Order accordingly.
Jacqueline Metcalfe Barrister.
Volume 4
R v Rafique and others
[1993] 4 All ER 1
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, PILL AND SEDLEY JJ
Hearing Date(s): 29 MARCH, 7 APRIL 1993
Criminal law – Obstructing course of justice – Perverting course of justice – Impeding police investigation – Acts intended to pervert course of justice committed before police investigation begun – Appellants accidentally shooting friend and disposing of gun – Whether disposal of gun tending to pervert course of justice.
The appellants drove to a park with a friend, A, to try out a shotgun which A had recently acquired. While the first appellant was carrying the gun it discharged accidently and A was killed. The appellants panicked and ran back to their car and drove off. They later threw the gun and cartridges into some bushes in another park, abandoned the car and went into hiding for 12 days before giving themselves up to the police. They were charged with doing acts tending and intended to pervert the course of public justice in that, knowing that an investigation into the death of their friend was in progress or imminent, they had assisted in the concealment of the shotgun and cartridges from police officers responsible for investigating the death. At their trial they each gave evidence that they had panicked and had thrown away the gun and cartridges without giving any thought to the possibility of a police investigation. They were convicted. They appealed against their convictions.
Held – Whether an act had a tendency to pervert the course of justice did not depend on whether investigation of the matter which might become the subject of criminal proceedings had begun. An act performed after the crime had been committed but before an investigation into the alleged crime had begun was capable of tending to pervert the course of justice, since if an intention to pervert the course of justice was proved the act had the same quality whether performed before or after the alleged offence was investigated or even discovered. Since the first appellant to the knowledge of the other two had discharged a gun and thereby killed A it was open to the jury to conclude that the possibility of judicial proceedings must have been in the contemplation of the appellants, for an act had occurred which was likely to lead to a specific charge in legal proceedings, as in fact it did. Accordingly, the disposal of the shotgun and cartridges tended to pervert the course of justice. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 6 b c, p 7 a b and p 8 d e g h, post).
Dicta of Pollock B in R v Vreones [1891] 1 QB 360 at 369 and of Lord MacDermott LCJ in R v Bailey [1956] NI 15 at 25 applied.
R v Selvage [1982] 1 All ER 96 distinguished.
Page 2 of [1993] 4 All ER 1
Notes
For perverting the course of justice, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 315, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 345–348, 3232–3242.
Cases referred to in judgment
DPP v Withers [1974] 3 All ER 984, [1975] AC 842, [1974] 3 WLR 751, HL.
R v Bailey [1956] NI 15, NI CCA.
R v Kellett [1975] 3 All ER 468, [1976] QB 372, [1975] 3 WLR 713, CA.
R v Machin [1980] 3 All ER 151, [1980] 1 WLR 763, CA.
R v Panayiotou [1973] 3 All ER 112, [1973] 1 WLR 1032, CA.
R v Selvage [1982] 1 All ER 96, [1982] QB 372, [1982] 3 WLR 811, CA.
R v Tibbits [1902] 1 KB 77, [1900–3] All ER Rep 896, CCR.
R v Vreones [1891] 1 QB 360, CCR.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G v Butterworth [1962] 3 All ER 326, [1963] 1 QB 696, CA.
A-G v Times Newspapers Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 54, [1974] AC 273, HL.
Hall v Associated Newspapers Ltd 1979 JC 1, HC of Just.
James v Robinson (1963) 109 CLR 593, Aust HC.
R v Andrews [1973] 1 All ER 857, [1973] QB 422, CA.
R v Boal [1964] 3 All ER 269, [1965] 1 QB 402, CCA.
R v Britton [1973] RTR 502, CA.
R v Clarke, ex p Crippen (1910) 103 LT 636, [1908–10] All ER Rep 915, DC.
R v Cutts [1969] Crim LR 385, CA.
R v Firetto [1991] Crim LR 208, CA.
R v Gray [1900] 2 QB 36, [1900–3] All ER Rep 59, DC.
R v Grimes [1968] 3 All ER 179, Crown Ct.
R v Lawler (Lady) (1731) 2 Str 904, 93 ER 930.
R v Murray [1982] 2 All ER 225, [1982] 1 WLR 475, CA.
R v Robinson (1937) 2 JCL 62, Assizes.
R v Rose (1937) 1 JCL 171, Westminster Police Ct.
R v Sharpe, R v Stringer [1938] 1 All ER 48, CCA.
R v Thomas, R v Ferguson [1979] 1 All ER 577, [1979] QB 326, CA.
R v Toney, R v Ali (Tanveer) [1993] 2 All ER 409, [1993] 1 WLR 264, CA.
R v Welsh [1974] RTR 478, CA.
R v Wilde [1960] Crim LR 116, Assizes.
Stirling v Associated Newspapers Ltd 1960 JC 5, HC of Just.
Appeals against conviction
Mohammed Zubair Ahmed Rafique, Mohammed Sajid and Nasir Aslam Rajah appealed against their conviction on 19 February 1991 in the Central Criminal Court before Judge Smedley QC and a jury of doing acts tending and intend to pervert the course of public justice for which they were conditionally discharged for three years. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
John Perry QC and Edmond Alexander (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellants.
Page 3 of [1993] 4 All ER 1
Warwick McKinnon (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Headquarters) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
7 April 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. On 19 February 1991 at the Central Criminal Court before Judge Smedley QC and a jury Mohammed Zubair Ahmed Rafique, Mohammed Sajid and Nasir Aslam Rajah were each convicted by a majority of ten to two of an offence of doing acts tending and intended to pervert the course of public justice (count 7). Each of them was conditionally discharged for three years. They appeal against conviction with leave of the single judge.
Rafique had also been charged with manslaughter (count 1) and all three appellants were charged with having a loaded shotgun in a public place (count 2). Count 7 was added shortly before arraignment. Counts 3, 4 and 5, which alleged doing acts tending and intended to pervert the course of public justice and doing acts with intent to impede the apprehension of another, were then ordered to lie upon the file. At the close of the prosecution case, the learned judge upheld submissions that there was no case to answer upon counts 1 and 2 but rejected similar submissions on count 7, which had become count 3 in the amended indictment. The particulars of offence on count 3 are that the then defendants—
‘on the 5th day of April 1990 with intent to pervert the course of public justice did a series of acts which had a tendency to pervert the course of public justice in that knowing that an investigation into the death of Mahboob Ahmed was in progress or imminent assisted in the concealment of a shotgun and cartridges from police officers responsible for investigating the said death.’
In the early hours of 5 April 1990 the three appellants and two other young men, Chaudry and Mahboob Ahmed, drove to a public park known as the Rookery in Streatham. Ahmed had recently acquired a double-barrelled shotgun and a box of cartridges and wished to test the gun. Chaudry and Rajah remained in the car while Ahmed, Rafique and Sajid climbed over railings to enter the park. Ahmed passed the gun through the railings to Rafique. Rafique walked ahead and was followed by the other two men. He turned to see if the others were following him and the gun discharged. Ahmed was struck in the chest and sustained injuries from which he died within minutes.
Rafique and Sajid ran back to the motor car in panic, taking the gun with them. All four men then left the scene in panic with Rafique driving the car.
Chaudry was taken home and the three appellants then drove towards Thornton Heath. They stopped and Rafique ‘broke’ the gun. Sajid removed the spent cartridge and a live cartridge and these were thrown from the car. They drove on and stopped near a small lake. Rajah threw the gun into the bushes. On the following morning the appellants abandoned the car and went by train to Birmingham, where they laid low for 12 days. They then returned to London and gave themselves up to the police, having first consulted a solicitor. Unknown to them, the gun had been recovered by the police on the day it had been thrown into the bushes. When interviewed, each of the appellants gave an accurate account of what had happened to the gun.
Page 4 of [1993] 4 All ER 1
All three appellants gave evidence. Rafique said that after he had shot Ahmed he could not believe what had happened. He was in shock and panicked. He could not stand the sight of the gun and cartridges. He said that he did not apply his mind to the fact that throwing them away would interfere with the course of justice or any investigation. He accepted that he knew that an investigation would occur when the body was found. Sajid said that he became hysterical when he saw blood flowing from Ahmed’s mouth. He did not want to touch the gun, but took the cartridges out to make it safe. He threw them away but it was never his intention to avoid the police. He gave no thought to the police or any investigations. When later he realised that the police would be looking for them he decided to go into hiding because he was frightened and needed time on his own. Rajah said that he told the other men to stop the car and get the gun out. He took the gun and threw it. He just wanted to get it out of the car. He was not thinking about a police investigation. If he had been, he could easily have thrown the gun into the lake.
The jury rejected the appellants’ evidence as to their state of mind when the gun was thrown away and by their verdict, upon the directions given, found that the appellants had intended to impede imminent police investigations.
On behalf of the appellants, Mr John Perry QC first submits that the throwing away of the shotgun and cartridges, in close proximity to the commission of an alleged offence (ie manslaughter), before any investigation had begun, does not render the appellants liable to conviction for an offence of perverting the course of public justice. On behalf of Sajid and Rajah, he questions whether the allegation is maintainable against them, having regard to the legislative intent expressed in the Criminal Law Act 1967, ss 4 and 5. On behalf of Rafique he submits that his conduct is covered by the principle against self-incrimination and in law did not constitute the offence charged. Mr Perry also submits that the learned judge misdirected the jury in equating ‘police investigations’ with ‘the course of justice’. The offence charged is limited to protecting the ‘curial process’, whereas the learned judge proceeded on the basis that to impede police investigation (imminent or actual) is an offence. The conduct covered by the offence, it is submitted, is no wider than would be covered by the law of contempt of court.
Mr Perry referred to the uncertain boundaries of the offence of doing acts tending and intended to pervert the course of public justice. In submitting that acts performed before any investigation had begun were outside the ambit of the offence, Mr Perry relied upon the statement of Watkins LJ when giving the judgment of a division of this court in R v Selvage [1982] 1 All ER 96 at 105, [1982] QB 372 at 381. Watkins LJ referred to R v Vreones [1891] 1 QB 360 and said that the case provided one of the vital tests or principles which helps to determine whether or not a charge of perverting the course of justice is properly laid. Watkins LJ stated ([1982] 1 All ER 96 at 103, [1982] QB 372 at 381):
‘This we take to be that a course of justice must have been embarked on in the sense that proceedings of some kind are in being or are imminent or investigations which could or might bring proceedings about are in progress in order that the act complained about can be said to be one which has a tendency to pervert the course of justice.’
In submitting that the boundaries of the offence should be narrowly defined, Mr Perry also relied upon Viscount Dilhorne’s approval in DPP v Withers [1974] 3 All ER 984, [1975] AC 842 of the approach to this question of Lord MacDermott
Page 5 of [1993] 4 All ER 1
LCJ in R v Bailey [1956] NI 15. Viscount Dilhorne stated ([1974] 3 All ER 984 at 991, [1975] AC 842 at 859):
‘In this connection, in my opinion, the approach of Lord MacDermott CJ in this case is both helpful and right. After saying that the facts in that case suggested that they might be brought within the category of acts prejudicial to the administration of public justice, he said ([1956] NI 15 at 25): “But can they be brought within this category without creating an offence previously unknown to the law? As already indicated, we think that the appropriate criterion is not the existence of some authority exactly on all fours with the present case, but whether the state of the law is such as to lead fairly and reasonably to the conclusion that what was done here fell within the ambit of this category.’’’
In R v Vreones [1891] 1 QB 360 the defendant, by tampering with the subject matter of a contract for the purchase of wheat, intended to deceive any arbitrators who might be appointed under the contract. He was convicted of attempting to pervert the course of justice. Lord Coleridge CJ stated ([1891] 1 QB 360 at 366–367):
‘The first count of the indictment in substance charges the defendant with the misdemeanour of attempting, by the manufacture of false evidence, to mislead a judicial tribunal which might come into existence. If the act itself of the defendant was completed, I cannot doubt that to manufacture false evidence for the purpose of misleading a judicial tribunal is a misdemeanour. Here, in point of fact, no tribunal was misled, because the piece of evidence was not used; but I am of opinion that that fact makes no difference; it is none the less a misdemeanour although the evidence was not used.’
Pollock B stated (at 369):
‘The real offence here is the doing of some act which has a tendency and is intended to pervert the administration of public justice.’
That statement of Pollock B has frequently been cited with approval, including by Watkins LJ in R v Selvage. Further, to excuse an act by claiming that the truth is on your side is to confuse the course of justice with the result arrived at (per Lord Alverstone CJ in R v Tibbitts [1902] 1 KB 77 at 88, cited by Stephenson LJ in R v Kellett [1975] 3 All ER 468 at 478, [1976] QB 372 at 387).
In R v Machin [1980] 3 All ER 151 at 153–154, [1980] 1 WLR 763 at 766 Eveleigh LJ, when considering an offence such as the present one, stated:
‘The law is concerned to forbid unlawful conduct which may result in a miscarriage of justice … The gist of the offence is conduct which may lead and is intended to lead to a miscarriage of justice whether or not a miscarriage actually occurs.’
The acts complained of in the present case were committed after the act alleged to constitute the offence of manslaughter. There was an interval of time between that act and the acts alleged to have a tendency to pervert the course of justice. Indeed, one of the men present at the scene of the firing had been driven home before the shotgun and cartridges were disposed of. In the present case, we do not have to consider a situation in which those acts are a part of, or contemporaneous with, the alleged offence which is, or may be, the subject of
Page 6 of [1993] 4 All ER 1
investigation and court proceedings. Nor do we have to consider the question, upon which Mr Perry addressed us, as to whether a distinction should be drawn between acts involving the destruction or concealment of material objects, as in the present case, and the impeding or misleading of investigations by verbal representations.
Applying, as we do, the principle stated by Pollock B in R v Vreones [1891] 1 QB 360 at 369, we conclude that an act is not beyond the ambit of those tending to pervert the course of justice by reason of its being performed after the crime but before investigations into the alleged crime have begun. Whether an act has a tendency to pervert the course of justice cannot depend upon whether investigation of the matter which may become the subject of court proceedings has begun. If an intention to pervert the course of justice in relation to that matter is proved, the act has the same quality whether performed before that alleged offence is investigated, or even discovered, as it would have at a later stage.
The statement of Watkins LJ in R v Selvage [1982] 1 All ER 96, [1982] QB 372, upon which Mr Perry relies, was made in a different context. The defendants made an arrangement whereby Morgan, who worked as a clerical assistant at the Driver and Vehicle Licence Centre (DVLC), used her position as such in an unsuccessful attempt to eliminate an endorsement from Morgan’s driving licence, when it still had a period to run. Watkins LJ stated ([1982] 1 All ER 96 at 102, [1982] QB 372 at 382):
‘It has to be borne in mind that in the present case there was not the slightest suggestion that criminal proceedings were pending or imminent or being investigated or that any actual proceedings were within the contemplation of Mrs Selvage or Mr Morgan or anyone else at the relevant time. In no decided case known to this court did such a situation as this obtain. In all of them there was, to say the least, within the contemplation of the convicted person some kind of proceeding in a court or judicial tribunal likely to arise on the happening of a foreseeable event if it was not already in being.’
Watkins LJ stated ([1982] 1 All ER 96 at 104, [1982] QB 372 at 383):
‘… it would be wholly unreal in our view to regard the reason for acting in that way [ie acting against the possibility of the commission some time in the future of a traffic offence] as bringing into existence a course of justice. It did not inspire any investigation by police officers into the commission of offences or the initiation of criminal proceedings. That state of mind cannot remotely be regarded as analogous to the state of mind of Vreones when he tampered with the test sample of wheat which he knew was to be the touchstone by which disputes likely to arise in a special commercial situation would be decided.’
It was in that context that Watkins LJ made the statement relied on. No judicial proceedings were within the contemplation of anyone at the relevant time. That being so, the court in R v Selvage [1982] 1 All ER 96 at 103, [1982] QB 372 at 381 held:
‘… the mere act of altering the records kept at the DVLC of endorsements on licences cannot by itself be said to be a perversion of the course of justice …’
Page 7 of [1993] 4 All ER 1
We agree with that but the present situation is different. One of the appellants, to the knowledge of the others, had discharged a firearm and thereby killed another man. It was open to the jury to conclude that, to put it no higher, the possibility of judicial proceedings must have been in the contemplation of the appellants. An act had occurred which was likely to lead to a specific charge in judicial proceedings, as indeed it did. At the very least there was bound to be an inquest. In those circumstances, the disposal of the shotgun and cartridges had a tendency to pervert the course of justice.
The general statement of Watkins LJ, which was in any event obiter, in R v Selvage cannot have been intended to cover a situation such as the present one. Watkins LJ recognised the offence under consideration as including ([1982] 1 All ER 96 at 101, [1982] QB 372 at 379):
‘… conduct which relates to judicial proceedings, civil or criminal, whether or not they have yet been instituted but which are within the contemplation of the wrongdoer whose conduct was designed to affect the outcome of them. That conduct includes … obstructing the police in their inquiries into crime, the destruction of or other interference with evidence …’
We can deal with Mr Perry’s next two submissions quite briefly. In R v Panayiotou [1973] 3 All ER 112, [1973] 1 WLR 1032 the point arose as to whether the Criminal Law Act 1967, ss 4 and 5 (which were enacted following the seventh report of the Criminal Law Revision Committee, Felonies and Misdemeanours (Cmnd 2659 (1965)), recommending the replacement of the law relating to accessories after the fact) had limited the scope of the offence of conspiring to pervert the course of justice. Scarman LJ stated ([1973] 3 All ER 112 at 115, [1973] 1 WLR 1032 at 1035):
‘The Criminal Law Act 1967 has created certain statutory offences of acting to impede the apprehension or prosecution of an offender (s 4) and of concealing offences or giving false information (s 5): but, though it has abolished the crime of compounding an offence (other than treason), it is silent as to the common law offence of perverting or obstructing the course of justice. We do not read ss 4 and 5 as codifying the law in this field; it is not therefore to be inferred from this silence that the offence no longer exists.’
The existence of ss 4 and 5 does not limit the scope of the offence charged in count 3 upon the present facts.
As to the principle against self-incrimination, we are quite unable to hold that it is sufficiently broad to cover the destruction or concealment of objects which may be required as evidence. A defendant has a right to silence, but that right does not extend to entitling him to destroy or conceal potential exhibits with impunity.
Upon the issues in the present case, we do not find analogies based on the law of contempt of court helpful. There may be acts which are both a contempt of court and have a tendency to pervert the course of justice, but a definition of what is a contempt of court does not for present purposes assist in defining what is an act having a tendency to pervert the course of justice.
As to the alleged misdirection of the jury, Mr Perry refers to the learned judge’s direction that:
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‘Criminal justice begins and the course of criminal justice begins when the police investigations take place. If you are sure that the accused realised that when the body was found police investigations would inevitably follow and that the disposal of the cartridges and the gun would impede those investigations, then what they did would have a tendency to pervert the course of justice. That is the first thing that the Crown have to prove, that each was a party to the doing of an act which had that tendency.’
Mr Perry also complains of the following passage:
‘The second thing which the Crown have to prove in this case—and you may think it is the most important matter—is that the accused whose case you are considering intended by what he did to impede such an investigation. That is the second and vital element.’
We have already expressed our conclusions as to whether acts performed before investigations had commenced could have a tendency to pervert the course of public justice. Mr Perry’s further point, and in our view it has force, is that in both those directions the learned judge has equated ‘impeding the investigation’ with ‘perverting the course of justice’. The direction should express the intention as being the intention expressed in the charge, namely the intention to pervert the course of public justice. However, on the facts of the present case, it must follow from a finding that there was an intention to impede police investigations that there was an intention to pervert the course of public justice. On these facts, there can be no explanation for intentionally impeding police investigations other than an intention to pervert the course of public justice. When asked, Mr Perry could offer no other explanation. On the directions given, the jury clearly rejected the appellants’ explanations as to why they disposed of the shotgun and cartridges and concluded that the appellants intended to impede police investigations. In those circumstances, there was no material misdirection.
It was in the sense that what impedes police investigations will usually also have a tendency to pervert the course of public justice that we read the statement of Lord MacDermott LCJ in R v Bailey [1956] NI 15 at 26 that the administration of public justice—
‘comprehends functions that nowadays belong, in practice almost exclusively, to the police, such as the investigation of offences and the arrest of suspected persons.’
These appeals must be dismissed.
Appeals dismissed.
29 July. The Court of Appeal (Lord Taylor of Gosforth CJ, Alliott and Buckley JJ) refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 33(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: is an act beyond the ambit of those tending to pervert the course of justice by reason of its being performed after the alleged crime but before investigations into the alleged crime have begun?
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Talbot v Berkshire County Council
[1993] 4 All ER 9
Categories: EQUITY: TORTS; Negligence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NOURSE, STUART-SMITH AND MANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 17, 18 FEBRUARY, 12 MARCH 1993
Estoppel – Res judicata – Cause of action estoppel – Negligence – Personal injuries litigation – Rule that plaintiff having claim which could have been litigated at same time as proceedings brought by co-plaintiff having same cause of action against same defendant barred by cause of action estoppel from pursuing claim – Whether rule applying to personal injuries litigation – Whether negligence of plaintiff’s solicitors in not bringing claim in time amounting to special circumstances enabling court to permit action to proceed.
On 24 October 1984 the plaintiff and his passenger, B, were seriously injured when the car driven by the plaintiff went out of control and hit a tree after the plaintiff drove into a large expanse of water lying on the offside of the road when he pulled out to overtake another car. On 20 June 1985 B issued a writ against the plaintiff. The plaintiff’s insurers instructed solicitors to act on his behalf and in August 1986 those solicitors issued a third party notice against the defendant highway authority, alleging nuisance on the highway and negligence. The notice was confined to a claim for contribution as between joint tortfeasors and did not include a claim for damages in respect of the plaintiff’s personal injuries. The solicitors did not inform the plaintiff of that fact. In November B joined the highway authority as second defendant in her action. The primary limitation period expired on 27 October 1987, by which time no writ had been issued on the plaintiff’s behalf. On 17 July 1989 the plaintiff first learnt of the claim against the highway authority in B’s action and then discovered that he was out of time to claim against the highway authority himself. At the trial of her action B succeeded in full and the court apportioned the blame two-thirds against the plaintiff and one-third against the highway authority. In July 1990 the plaintiff issued a writ against the highway authority. On the question whether the plaintiff was barred by the doctrine of res judicata from bringing his action or whether there were special circumstances which enabled the court to permit the action to be pursued,
Held – The rule that a plaintiff was barred by cause of action estoppel from pursuing a claim which could have been litigated at the same time as proceedings brought by a co-plaintiff having the same cause of action against the same defendant applied to personal injuries litigation. On the facts the plaintiff’s personal injury claim could have been brought at the time of B’s action either by being included in the original third party notice issued against the highway authority or by being started by a separate writ and consolidated with or ordered to be tried with B’s action or by the amendment of the third party proceedings at any time before or perhaps even during the trial to include the plaintiff’s claim, notwithstanding that it was statute-barred, since it arose out of the same or substantially the same facts as the cause of action in respect of which relief was already claimed, namely contribution or indemnity in respect of B’s claim. It followed that the plaintiff’s claim was barred by cause of action estoppel. Moreover, there were no special circumstances which required the court not to apply the rule since the probable negligence of the solicitors
Page 10 of [1993] 4 All ER 9
instructed by the plaintiff’s insurers on his behalf in not informing him that they had not made a claim for damages in respect of the plaintiff’s personal injuries and the highway authority’s knowledge that the plaintiff had suffered serious injuries and consequent expectation that a claim might be made against it did not amount to special circumstances (see p 15 a to c e to j, p 16 f to p 17 b f g and p 18 d to f, post).
Henderson v Henderson [1843–60] All ER Rep 378 applied.
Notes
For essentials of res judicata and issue estoppel, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 974–982, and for cases on the subject, see 21 Digest (Reissue) 37–50, 232–316.
Cases referred to in judgments
Arnold v National Westminster Bank plc [1991] 3 All ER 41, [1991] 2 AC 93, [1991] 2 WLR 1177, HL.
Brisbane City Council v A-G for Queensland [1978] 3 All ER 30, [1979] AC 411, [1978] 3 WLR 299, PC.
Brunsden v Humphrey (1884) 14 QBD 141, [1881–5] All ER Rep 357, CA.
Greenhalgh v Mallard [1947] 2 All ER 255, CA.
Groom v Crocker [1938] 2 All ER 394, [1939] 1 KB 194, CA.
Henderson v Henderson (1843) 3 Hare 100, [1843–60] All ER Rep 378, 67 ER 313, V-C.
Hoystead v Taxation Comr [1926] AC 155, [1925] All ER Rep 56, PC.
Lawlor v Gray [1984] 3 All ER 345.
Marginson v Blackburn BC [1939] 1 All ER 273, [1939] 2 KB 426, CA.
Vervaeke v Smith (Messina and A-G intervening) [1982] 2 All ER 144, [1983] 1 AC 145, [1982] 2 WLR 855, HL.
Wall v Radford [1991] 2 All ER 741.
Yat Tung Investment Co Ltd v Dao Heng Bank Ltd [1975] AC 581, [1975] 2 WLR 690, PC.
Appeal and cross-appeal
The plaintiff, Stephen Talbot, suing by his father and next friend Raymond Talbot, appealed with leave from the order of Otton J made at the trial of the preliminary issues on 15 April 1992 whereby it was adjudged that there should be judgment for the defendant, Berkshire County Council, on the plaintiff’s action against the defendant for damages for personal injuries, having regard to the determination of the preliminary issues, namely that the court would not make a direction under s 33 of the Limitation Act 1980 that the provisions of s 11 of that Act should apply and accordingly the action was statute-barred. The defendants cross-appealed from the judge’s finding that although the plaintiff was barred by the doctrine of res judicata from bringing the action there were special circumstances which would otherwise have enabled the court to permit the action to be pursued. The facts are set out in the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ.
Stephen Miller QC (instructed by Field Seymour Parkes, Reading) for the plaintiff.
Page 11 of [1993] 4 All ER 9
Dermod O’Brien QC and Daniel Crowley (instructed by Barlow Lyde & Gilbert) for the defendant.
Cur adv vult
12 March 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
STUART-SMITH LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Nourse LJ).
The question
The question raised in this appeal is one of considerable importance in the field of personal injury litigation. It is this.
A is a passenger in a motor car driven by B which is involved in a collision caused partly by the fault of B and partly by the fault of C, in this case the local authority responsible for the maintenance of the highway. A and B are both injured in the collision. A sues B for damages for personal injury; B by his solicitors issues third party proceedings against C claiming contribution to A’s claim, but no claim for B’s personal injuries is made. A joins C as a defendant in the claim. Judgment is given in A’s favour against both B and C, who are each held partly to blame. Can B subsequently bring a fresh action against C in respect of his personal injuries?
The answer depends upon whether the so-called rule in Henderson v Henderson (1843) 3 Hare 100, [1843–60] All ER Rep 378 applies, and if it does whether there are in this case special circumstances which take it outside the general operation of the rule. It is a fact in this case that by the time B, the plaintiff, sought to sue C, the defendant council, the three-year limitation period from the accident had expired; but that should make no difference to the application of the rule.
The facts
On 24 October 1984 the plaintiff was driving a Ford motor car along the A321 Sandhurst Road at Wokingham, Berkshire. Alison Bishop was his front seat passenger. It was dark and it was or had been raining. The plaintiff pulled out to overtake another car and he drove into a large expanse of water lying on the offside of the road. The car went out of control, off the road and hit a tree. Both Miss Bishop and the plaintiff suffered grievous injuries. The defendant, Berkshire County Council, is the highway authority.
On 20 June 1985 Miss Bishop issued a writ against the plaintiff. Three months later the plaintiff’s father learnt that his son’s insurers had instructed solicitors, Messrs R I Lewis & Co, to act on his behalf (at this time the plaintiff had been discharged from hospital and was at a rehabilitation centre; he was still suffering grievously from his injuries). In August 1986 his insurers’ solicitors issued a third party notice against Berkshire County Council alleging nuisance on the highway and negligence. The notice was confined to a claim for contribution as between joint tortfeasors; it did not include a claim for damages in respect of the plaintiff’s personal injuries. The solicitors did not inform the plaintiff. Predictably, in November Miss Bishop joined the third party as second defendant in her action.
The primary limitation period expired on 27 October 1987. No writ had been issued on the plaintiff’s behalf. On 17 July 1989 the plaintiff first learnt of the claim against Berkshire County Council in the Bishop action. He received a letter from the insurers’ solicitors, who had become known by this time as Messrs Liddell Zurbrugg but practising from the same address as their predecessors.
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In that letter the solicitors reminded the plaintiff that they were acting for him on the instructions of his insurers in the High Court proceedings brought against him by Miss Bishop. They said they were disputing liability with the council for allowing the large puddle to be in the road. They told the plaintiff it would be necessary for him to attend court to give evidence at the trial, which was due to start on 1 November 1989. They expected to be in contact with him.
After receipt of that letter the plaintiff’s parents approached the Citizens’ Advice Bureau, who in turn referred them to solicitors. They saw a Mr Parkinson, who advised them in September 1989 of the difficulties facing the plaintiff more than three years after the accident.
In early October 1989 Mr and Mrs Talbot received a visit from Mr Liddell of Liddell Zurbrugg. In his affidavit Mr Talbot deposes as follows:
‘Mr. Liddell enquired whether we had taken any steps to consider a case being brought against Berkshire County Council. On our indicating what we had done he mentioned that he would speak to his Counsel to see whether he could “get [my] son on the end of the case”. Mr. Liddell was, however, at pains to remark that he did not consider the prospects of the case against the Berkshire County Council were very good. In the course of the visit he showed me a copy of the Police Accident Report and promised to provide a copy. Approximately one week later we received a telephone call from Mr. Liddell informing us that Counsel had advised that it was too late to make any claim on Stephen’s behalf and that it would only cloud the issues to be tried by the Court shortly. After this telephone call from Mr. Liddell my wife telephoned Mr. Parkinson to report Mr. Liddell’s visit and subsequent telephone call and I understand in the course of this telephone conversation that Mr. Parkinson informed my wife that the Counsel he had referred to had come to the conclusion that it was too late to do anything.’
Miss Bishop’s action proceeded to trial. The plaintiff was not called to give evidence, doubtless because he had no recollection of the accident. On 9 November 1989 Miss Bishop succeeded in full and the court apportioned the blame two-thirds against Mr Talbot and one-third against the county council. Six days later the insurers’ solicitors wrote to inform the Talbot family of the outcome and suggested he might wish to discuss the matter with Mr Parkinson.
On receipt of this letter the plaintiff’s father consulted Mr Parkinson again, who referred him to a colleague. Fresh solicitors were instructed in March 1990 who applied for legal aid, initiated a claim against Berkshire County Council and issued a writ in July 1990. In September 1991 the plaintiff was admitted for psychiatric care, but was subsequently discharged. He is still at home under heavy medication. In November 1991 the plaintiff’s father was added as next friend in these proceedings.
Proceedings before the judge
The case came before Otton J on 15 April 1992 for the determination of three preliminary issues: (a) whether the plaintiff is barred by the principles of the doctrine of res judicata from bringing the present action and/or whether the action should be struck out as an abuse of the process of the court; (b) whether the court should direct pursuant to s 33 of the Limitation Act 1980 that the provisions of s 11 of that Act should not apply to the present action; and (c) whether if the action is allowed to proceed to trial the defendant is entitled to
Page 13 of [1993] 4 All ER 9
dispute the contention that it is liable to the extent of one-third of the injuries, loss and damage suffered by the plaintiff in the accident, the subject matter of the litigation.
The judge answered these questions as follows. As to (a) he held that the plaintiff was prima facie estopped from bringing the action, but there were special circumstances which enabled the court to permit the action to be pursued. As to (b) the judge rejected the submission made on behalf of the plaintiff that his date of knowledge, as defined by s 14 of the 1980 Act, was not earlier than 20 July 1987 (ie three years before the issue of the writ), but he declined to make a direction under s 33 disapplying s 11 of the 1980 Act. The action therefore failed because it was statute barred. There has not been any argument as to issue (c) either before the judge or in this court.
The appeal
The plaintiff appealed the judge’s decision on issue (b). The defendant cross-appealed on issue (a). Since the question of estoppel logically fell to be considered first, we heard argument on that point alone; we have not considered the appeal. Mr O’Brien QC submitted on behalf of the defendant council that the judge was right in holding that the plaintiff was prima facie estopped under the rule in Henderson v Henderson, but was wrong to find that there were special circumstances which justified its non-application. Mr Miller QC submitted that the judge was wrong on the first point but right to find special circumstances.
The law
In Henderson v Henderson (1843) 3 Hare 100 at 114–115, [1843–60] All ER Rep 378 at 381–382 Wigram V-C stated the law thus:
‘In trying this question I believe I state the rule of the Court correctly, when I say, that where a given matter becomes the subject of litigation in, and of adjudication by, a Court of competent jurisdiction, the Court requires the parties to that litigation to bring forward their whole case, and will not (except under special circumstances) permit the same parties to open the same subject of litigation in respect of matter which might have been brought forward as part of the subject in contest, but which was not brought forward, only because they have, from negligence, inadvertence, or even accident, omitted part of their case. The plea of res judicata applies, except in special cases, not only to points upon which the Court was actually required by the parties to form an opinion and pronounce a judgment, but to every point which properly belonged to the subject of litigation, and which the parties, exercising reasonable diligence, might have brought forward at the time.’
The rule is thus in two parts. The first relates to those points which were actually decided by the court; this is res judicata in the strict sense. Secondly, those which might have been brought forward at the time, but were not. The second is not a true case of res judicata but rather is founded upon the principle of public policy in preventing multiplicity of actions, it being in the public interest that there should be an end to litigation; the court will stay or strike out the subsequent action as an abuse of process: see per Lord Wilberforce in Brisbane City Council v A-G for Queensland [1978] 3 All ER 30 at 36, [1979] AC 411 at 425.
Page 14 of [1993] 4 All ER 9
The law as stated by Wigram V-C has been applied and approved at the highest levels: see Hoystead v Taxation Comr [1926] AC 155 at 170, [1925] All ER Rep 56 at 64, Yat Tung Investment Co Ltd v Dao Heng Bank Ltd [1975] AC 581 and the Brisbane City Council case, all in the Privy Council, Greenhalgh v Mallard [1947] 2 All ER 255 in this court and Vervaeke v Smith (Messina and A-G intervening) [1982] 2 All ER 144, [1983] 1 AC 145 and Arnold v National Westminster Bank plc [1991] 3 All ER 41, [1991] 2 AC 93 in the House of Lords.
Henderson v Henderson however appears to have escaped attention in the field of personal injury litigation. In Brunsden v Humphrey (1884) 14 QBD 141, [1881–5] All ER Rep 357 the plaintiff had sued the defendant for damage to his cab and recovered damages. He subsequently sued for personal injuries sustained in the same collision. The court by a majority held that the two causes of action were different, namely trespass to goods and trespass to person and res judicata through cause of action estoppel did not apply. Lord Coleridge CJ dissented; had Henderson v Henderson been cited, the decision might have been different.
In Marginson v Blackburn BC [1939] 1 All ER 273, [1939] 2 KB 426 Marginson was a passenger in a car owned by him and driven by his wife which was involved in a collision with an omnibus driven by a servant of the defendant council. As a result of the collision the plaintiff sustained personal injuries, his wife was killed and two nearby houses were damaged. The owners of the houses sued both Marginson and the council in the county court, alleging that the damage to the houses was caused by the negligence of both drivers, Marginson being vicariously liable for the negligence of his wife and the council for the negligence of its driver. There were third party proceedings as between Marginson and the council. The county court judge held both Marginson and the council equally liable. Subsequently Marginson brought an action against the council in the High Court; he claimed in his own right damages for his personal injuries and as administrator of his wife’s estate both under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 for the benefit of her estate in respect of her loss of expectation of life and under the Fatal Accidents Act 1846 on his own and his daughter’s behalf as being dependants of the deceased wife.
The defendant council contended that the claims were barred by estoppel by res judicata. The Court of Appeal held that Marginson was estopped from pursuing his personal claim in respect of his own injuries; but he could pursue the claims in a representative capacity. In argument the defendant’s counsel submitted that the decision of the county court judge was an estoppel in the wider sense preventing Marginson from pursuing any claim against the council and they cited Hoystead’s case, though not Henderson v Henderson. But the case seems to have been decided by the court on the narrower basis that the county court judge had already decided the same issue between the same parties and had determined that each was to blame; since at that time contributory negligence was a complete and not a partial defence, that prevented Marginson pursuing his personal claim. This therefore appears to be a decision on the basis of what would now be regarded as issue estoppel, rather than the wider principle contended for by counsel for the borough council.
In Wall v Radford [1991] 2 All ER 741 Henderson v Henderson was not relied upon; if it had been it might have afforded a complete answer to the plaintiff’s claim. As it was the defendant only sought to rely on the previous proceedings as creating an issue estoppel as to the proportions of liability; and in this he was successful.
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In my judgment there is no reason why the rule in Henderson v Henderson should not apply in personal injury actions. Indeed there is every reason why it should. It is a salutary rule. It avoids unnecessary proceedings involving expense to the parties and waste of court time which could be available to others; it prevents stale claims being brought long after the event, which is the bane of this type of litigation; it enables the defendant to know the extent of his potential liability in respect of any one event; this is important for insurance companies who have to make provision for claims and it may also affect their conduct of negotiations, their defence and any question of appeal.
Mr Miller submitted that the rule should be limited to those cases where points could have been, but were not, taken in relation to a particular cause of action and defence. But in my judgment there is no warrant for so limiting it. In Yat Tung Investment Co Ltd v Dao Heng Bank Ltd [1975] AC 581 the cause of action in the second action was different from the plaintiff’s claim in the first action; but it could have been raised by way of defence and counterclaim to the bank’s counterclaim in the first action. It was accordingly not maintainable. Such a limitation would substantially emasculate the rule. Moreover there is a safeguard to prevent injustice in that the court will not apply the rule in its full rigour if there are special circumstances why it should not do so.
Application of the rule in this case
There can be no doubt that the plaintiff’s personal injury claim could have been brought at the time of Miss Bishop’s action. It could have been included in the original third party notice issued against the council (RSC Ord 16, r 1(b) and (c)); it could have been started by a separate writ and consolidated with or ordered to be tried with the Bishop action (Ord 4, r 9). The third party proceedings could have been amended at any time before trial and perhaps even during the trial to include such a claim, notwithstanding that it was statute barred, since it arose out of the same or substantially the same facts as the cause of action in respect of which relief was already claimed, namely contribution or indemnity in respect of Miss Bishop’s claim (Ord 20, r 5). In my opinion, if it was to be pursued, it should have been so brought.
We have not heard the solicitors nominated by Mr Talbot’s insurers to act on his behalf in the Bishop action, so we only have his father’s version of events. But, if that account is correct, it is difficult to escape the conclusion that those solicitors were negligent. They plainly owed a duty of care to the plaintiff, who was their client: see Groom v Crocker [1938] 2 All ER 394, [1939] 1 KB 194. I can see no justification for issuing a third party notice in his name without telling him. They were well aware that the plaintiff was seriously injured and must have known it was in his interest to join any personal injury claim in the existing proceedings since this would be litigated so far as liability was concerned at insurer’s expense. There was no conflict of interest between insurers and the plaintiff; they were both concerned to minimise the plaintiff’s liability and maximise that of the defendant council. If need be the question of quantum could have been tried subsequently.
Accordingly I agree with the judge that this claim should be struck out unless there are special circumstances which make it inequitable to do so.
Special circumstances
Are there special circumstances which require that the rule should not apply in this case? The judge thought that there were. First, he considered what
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would have been the position if Miss Bishop’s action had been concluded within the primary limitation period and the plaintiff’s writ issued within time. Had this been the position, the judge thought there would have been special circumstances because (a) the plaintiff was unaware that third party proceedings had been issued in his name, (b) the defendant had been aware throughout that he had suffered serious personal injury and (c) the fresh action would have been in time, with the result that there would have been no real prejudice to the defendant. However, he considered the fact that the action was statute barred (unless s 11 of the 1980 Act was disapplied) caused the pendulum of prejudice to swing away from the plaintiff towards the defendant.
But he thought that neither the plaintiff nor the solicitors nominated by his insurers had ‘acted reprehensibly or in such a manner that can be stigmatised as an abuse of process’. No one has criticised the plaintiff personally; but I am not clear what the judge meant when he said this of the solicitors. Certainly there is no question of bad faith here; but the judge himself in a later part of his judgment obviously considered that the plaintiff had a strong claim against his solicitors for negligence, though it was not cast-iron; very properly he reminded himself that he had not heard the solicitors. For the reasons I have already discussed, I agree with him. He then went on to define the special circumstances thus:
‘From the start of the third party proceedings, if not before, or at the latest when they first saw the police report, the county council must have known that the plaintiff had suffered very serious injuries. They must have been aware that if found liable to contribute to the plaintiff in the Bishop action he would, in the normal course of events, be entitled to a pro rata amount of his damages against them. It was obvious that the solicitors were acting on behalf of insurers. The mere fact that the claim was not included in the third party notice claiming contribution could not have lulled them into an expectation or belief that the plaintiff had irrevocably waived any such right against them.’
With all respect to the judge I do not agree that these amount to special circumstances. The mere fact that a party is precluded by the rule from advancing a claim will inevitably involve some injustice to him, if it is or may be a good claim; but that cannot of itself amount to a special circumstance, since otherwise the rule would never have any application. The court has to consider why the claim was not brought in the earlier proceedings. The plaintiff may not have known of the claim at that time (see for example Lawlor v Gray [1984] 3 All ER 345, where the claim for interest by the revenue which the plaintiff sought to pass on to the defendant had not been made at the time of earlier proceedings); or there may have been some agreement between the parties that the claim should be held in abeyance to abide the outcome of the first proceedings; or some representation may have been made to the plaintiff upon which he has relied, so that he did not bring the claim earlier. These would be examples of special circumstances, though of course they are not intended to be an exhaustive list.
In my opinion the error made by the judge was to divorce the activity or inactivity of the plaintiff from that of his solicitors. R I Lewis & Co (later Liddell Zurbrugg) were his solicitors; they were the solicitors on the record, even though they had been nominated by insurers to act on his behalf. It may not infrequently be the case that the negligence or inadvertence of which Wigram
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V-C spoke will be that of the legal advisers instructed by the party rather than the party himself. But the action or inaction of the agent is that of the principal.
Moreover I cannot see that the fact that the council or its insurers were aware that the plaintiff had been seriously injured can be a special circumstance. They were entitled to assume that if a claim was to be made it would and should have been made in the Bishop action. In my judgment there is force in Mr O’Brien’s submission that the conduct of negotiations and the proceedings might have been different, had the council faced both claims at the same time. It is always difficult to say that it would have been so. But the plaintiff would have had to give evidence, unless there was a split trial, the quantum of damage for his personal injuries being determined later. Although he had no recollection of the accident, it occurred close to his home. He could have been cross-examined as to his knowledge of the propensity of the road to flood at this point. If it had no such known propensity, this could have affected the council’s liability, since it would be unlikely to be liable for an unforeseen hazard; if it was well known, it might have affected the degree of the plaintiff’s responsibility for the accident. Furthermore if the council’s insurers had known they were facing the risk of being held liable for a share of two claims totalling £600,000 or thereabouts (we were told that £400,000 might be an estimate of the full value of the plaintiff’s claim) their conduct of negotiations could well have been different. It appears that Mr Liddell did not think the claim against the council was a strong one; this being so the council’s insurers might well have been able to buy off both claims against them for a relatively modest amount. The decision whether or not to appeal the judgment could have been influenced by the size of the claims. We know nothing of the strength of the council’s case, save for Mr Liddell’s appreciation of it; but it is one thing to accept a judgment for £66,000, even if there may be arguable grounds of appeal; it is another when the liability is £200,000, ie one-third of the combined claims.
For these reasons in my judgment there were no special circumstances which require the court not to apply the rule. I would allow the cross-appeal.
MANN LJ. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ. I agree with it and add short reasons of my own because our decision will be important to those who practise in personal injury litigation.
I gratefully adopt the factual account of Stuart-Smith LJ. I share his surprise that Messrs R I Lewis & Co (later Messrs Liddell Zurbrugg) did not until 17 July 1989 inform Mr Stephen Talbot that a third party notice had been issued on his behalf on 14 July 1986. I also am puzzled by the apparent omission to apply for amendment of the third party notice under RSC Ord 20, r 5.
Mr Talbot’s solicitor could have attached a claim for personal injuries to the third party notice but did not do so. Mr Talbot is now opposed by a cause of action estoppel based upon the acknowledged observations of Wigram V-C in Henderson v Henderson (1843) 3 Hare 100 at 114–115, [1843–60] All ER Rep 378 at 381–382. Those observations have not always been heeded by common law pleaders who have focused their attention upon issue estoppel. An example of that attention is Wall v Radford [1991] 2 All ER 741, where cause of action estoppel was not pleaded but which might have been decisive in favour of the defendant. I think that Marginson v Blackburn BC [1939] 1 All ER 273, [1939] 2 KB 426 ought to be regarded as a case of issue estoppel and I agree with the analysis to that effect in Cross on Evidence (7th edn, 1990) p 81.
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The observations of Wigram V-C have been acknowledged in this court (Greenhalgh v Mallard [1947] 2 All ER 255), in the Privy Council (Hoystead v Taxation Comr [1926] AC 155 at 170, [1925] All ER Rep 56 at 64, Yat Tung Investment Co Ltd v Dao Heng Bank Ltd [1975] AC 581 and Brisbane City Council v A-G for Queensland [1978] 3 All ER 30, [1979] AC 411) and in the House of Lords (Vervaeke v Smith (Messina and A-G intervening) [1982] 2 All ER 144, [1983] 1 AC 145 and Arnold v National Westminster Bank plc [1991] 3 All ER 41, [1991] 2 AC 93). The observations were not referred to before this court in Brunsden v Humphrey (1884) 14 QBD 141, [1881–5] All ER Rep 357. Had they been, then perhaps Lord Coleridge CJ might not have found himself in the unfortunate position of having to dissent from Brett MR and Bowen LJ.
Wigram V-C’s observations are an expression in our vernacular of the maxim interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium. It is contrary to public policy and abusive of process that matters which could have been litigated in earlier proceedings should thereafter be allowed to proceed. This is the true basis of the doctrine (see Lord Wilberforce in the Brisbane City Council case [1978] 3 All ER 30 at 36, [1979] AC 411 at 425). The rule is a salutary one. It prevents prolixity in litigation and encourages the earliest resolution of disputes. A party who is embarrassed by the speed of his opponent can apply for a pause in his own process.
There is no reason why cause of action estoppel in the wide sense identified by Wigram V-C should not be applicable in personal injury litigation. Delay in this area is notorious and I hope an appreciation of the availability of an estoppel will mitigate delay in such common third party cases as is the one before the court. The estoppel does not arise where there are exceptional circumstances, but for the reasons given by Stuart-Smith LJ there are not here exceptional circumstances.
I also would allow the cross-appeal.
NOURSE LJ. I agree with both judgments.
Cross-appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Frances Rustin Barrister.
Boocock v Hilton International Co
[1993] 4 All ER 19
Categories: COMPANY; Other Company: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL, MANN AND HOFFMANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 8 DECEMBER 1992, 22 JANUARY 1993
Company – Oversea company – Service on oversea company – Service of writ by post to person authorised to accept service at address for service – Writ posted to correct address but not addressed to authorised person – Whether service valid – Whether validity of writ could be extended – Whether service can be deemed good service even if statutory requirement for service not complied with – Companies Act 1985, s 695 – RSC Ord 2, r 1, Ord 6, r 8(2), Ord 10, r 1(7), Ord 65, r 3(1).
In December 1987 the plaintiff was injured in an accident at a hotel in Dubai which was owned at all material times by HI Co, a corporation registered in Delaware in the United States of America but having a place of business in England which was registered in compliance with s 691 of the Companies Act 1985. In December 1990 the plaintiff issued a writ claiming damages for personal injuries and consequential loss against the defendants, who were named as ‘Ladbroke Group plc [LG plc], trading as Hilton International Hotels (UK) Ltd’. LG plc had acquired HI Co about two years after the plaintiff’s accident. The defendants denied ever owning the hotel, whereupon the plaintiff obtained leave to amend the writ, the limitation period for the action by then having expired, by changing the defendant’s name to HI Co, the true owner. The amended writ and original statement of claim were posted to the United Kingdom offices of HI Co. The defendants applied to set aside service of the amended writ, contending that it had not been vaildly served because it had not been addressed to the person named in the address for service in the United Kingdom delivered to the Registrar of Companies in accordance with s 695a of the Companies Act 1985, which provided that a process or notice required to be served on an oversea company was ‘sufficiently served’ if it was addressed to the person named in the address for service delivered to the registrar. The application was dismissed by the master but allowed by the judge on appeal. The judge also dismissed an application by the plaintiff to extend the validity of the writ. The plaintiff appealed to the Court of Appeal, where the issues were whether (a) the amended writ had been effectively served, (b) the validity of the writ could be extended under RSC Ord 6, r 8b and (c) service could be treated as good service under Ord 2, r 1c if there had been a failure to comply with s 695 of the 1985 Act.
Held – Section 695 of the 1985 Act was a complete code for the service of documents on an oversea company since RSC Ord 10, r 1(7)d, which provided that service of an originating process was to be in accordance with any Act providing for the ‘manner in which documents may be served on bodies corporate’, limited the methods of service of originating processes on an oversea company to the methods prescribed in the 1985 Act. It followed that, since the writ had not been
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addressed to the person named in the address for service of the company, service had not been effected in accordance with s 695. However, although the court could not extend the validity of the writ under Ord 6, r 8(2), since it had not been shown that the judge’s exercise of his discretion to refuse to do so had been wrongly exercised, the court would in the interests of justice exercise its discretion under Ord 2, r 1 and treat the non-compliance with s 695 of the 1985 Act as an irregularity and would order that service of the writ by posting it to the United Kingdom offices of HI Co be treated as good service. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 26 h j, p 27 c d, p 28 h, p 29 j to p 30 c, post).
Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd, The Myrto (No 3) [1987] 2 All ER 289, Waddon v Whitecroft-Scovill Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 996 and dictum of Sir John Megaw in Golden Ocean Assurance Ltd v Martin, The Goldean Mariner [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 215 at 225 applied.
Leal v Dunlop Bio-Processes International Ltd [1984] 2 All ER 207 distinguished.
Notes
For service of process or notices on an ovrsea company, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 2435, and for a case on the subject, see 10(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 522, 13247.
For the amendment of a writ, see 36 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 68–71, and for cases on the subject, see 37(1) Digest (Reissue) 255–272, 1696–1781.
For the power to rectify irregularities in complying with rules of court, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 37–39, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 205–217, 1355–1412.
For the Companies Act 1985, ss 691, 695, see 8 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 551, 557.
Cases referred to in judgments
Camera Care Ltd v Victor Hasselblad [1986] FTLR 347, CA.
Golden Ocean Assurance Ltd v Martin, The Goldean Mariner [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 215, CA.
Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd, The Myrto (No 3) [1987] 2 All ER 289, [1987] AC 597, [1987] 2 WLR 1053, HL.
Leal v Dunlop Bio-Processes International Ltd [1984] 2 All ER 207, [1984] 1 WLR 874, CA.
Singh v Atombrook Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 385, [1989] 1 WLR 810, CA.
Theodohos, The [1977] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 428.
Waddon v Whitecroft-Scovill Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 996, [1988] 1 WLR 309, HL.
Cases also cited
Barclays Bank of Swaziland v Hahn [1989] 2 All ER 398, [1989] 1 WLR 506, HL.
Evans Construction Co Ltd v Charrington Co Ltd [1983] 1 All ER 310, [1983] QB 810, CA.
Fester Fothergill & Hartung v Russian Transport Insurance Co [1927] WN 27, CA.
Interlocutory appealThe plaintiff, Mary Boocock, appealed with the leave of the judge from the decision of Judge Lever QC, sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division in chambers on 2 April 1992, whereby he (i) allowed the appeal of the defendants, Hilton International Co, a corporation registered in Delaware in the United States of America, from the decision of Master Hodgson on 10 February 1992 dismissing the defendants’ summons for an order that
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service of the amended writ on the defendants be set aside because it had not been served in accordance with s 695 of the Companies Act 1985 on the person whose name the defendants had delivered to the Registrar of Companies pursuant to s 691 of the 1985 Act and (ii) refused to extend the validity of the amended writ for such period as would enable it effectively to be served upon the defendants. The facts are set out in the judgment of Neill LJ.
Michael Brent QC (instructed by Robin Thompson & Partners) for the appellant.
Andrew Phillips (instructed by Jarvis & Bannister) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
22 January 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
NEILL LJ. This is an appeal by Mrs Mary Boocock from the order of Judge Lever QC sitting as a judge of the High Court whereby it was ordered, inter alia, (a) that the order of Master Turner dated 24 June 1991 granting leave to amend the writ be set aside, (b) that the order of Master Hodgson dated 7 August 1991 extending the validity of the writ be set aside and (c) that service of the amended writ be set aside.
Before turning to the questions which arise in this appeal it is necessary to set out the history of the action in some detail.
On 9 December 1987 Mrs Boocock attended a dinner and dance at the Hilton Beach Club in the Hilton Hotel, Dubai in the United Arab Emirates. While she was on the premises she was struck on the head by a large piece of timber which was supporting a wind break. As a result she suffered serious injuries.
It appears that following the accident Mrs Boocock had to resign from her employment. Shortly afterwards she returned to England. But she notified the hotel of her claim and it was passed to the hotel’s insurers, American International Underwriters (UK) Ltd (American International) in Croydon. Correspondence between Mrs Boocock and the insurers continued into 1989. On 11 November 1989 a firm of solicitors in Dubai wrote to American International stating that they had been instructed to call upon the insurers to settle the compensation due to Mrs Boocock immediately, failing which they were instructed to institute proceedings against their insured. Further correspondence with the insurers, however, proved inconclusive and on 2 May 1990 Mrs Boocock wrote to the chairman of Hilton International in Watford. She stated that the management and staff at the hotel had been very sympathetic and helpful towards her but that the insurers appeared to be ‘hostile’ to her claim. On 11 May the chairman’s secretary replied as follows:
‘Michael Hirst [the chairman] is at present abroad on business. However, as he is particularly keen that this matter is dealt with expeditiously, I have passed a copy of your letter to Mr Geoffrey Chester, Legal Counsel, based here in Watford, who will personally investigate your comments and write to you further.’
Also on 11 May 1990 Mr Chester, who described himself as ‘solicitor, general counsel and secretary of Hilton International’, wrote to Mrs Boocock:
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‘A copy of Mrs Tayler’s [the chairman’s secretary] letter to you has been referred to me. I have duly written to our Insurance Department to expedite this matter and I trust your claim will shortly be dealt with.’
A week later on 18 May Mr Paul Chambury, the head of group risk and insurance services, wrote to Mrs Boocock stating that her case was not known to him. His letter continued:
‘I should explain that Hilton International Co. was acquired by the Ladbroke Group PLC approximately two years ago, after the date of your accident. In these circumstances, I am unaware of your particular case and it could be that file notes are still being retained in their previous head office, situated in New York. On receipt of your further advices, I will look into matters as quickly as possible.’
On 5 July 1990 Mrs Boocock’s solicitors in Dubai wrote to Underwriters Adjustment Co in Saudi Arabia. It would appear that Underwriters Adjustment Co were agents acting for the insurers, American International. In this letter the solicitors referred to Mr Chambury’s letter of 18 May to Mrs Boocock and asked Underwriters Adjustment Co to forward to Mr Chambury copies of all expense statements and documents which had been sent to them.
Further correspondence followed and eventually on 13 October 1990 Underwriters Adjustment Co sent Mrs Boocock’s solicitors in Dubai a fax containing an offer of settlement in the sum of $US20,000.
On 6 November 1990 Mrs Boocock instructed her present solicitors. At about the same time she went to see her local member of Parliament who wrote to the chairman of Hilton International on 16 November 1990. On 19 November 1990 Mr Hirst replied. I should refer to part of this letter:
‘All insurance claims are dealt with by our Group Insurance Department in conjunction with our Insurers, American International Underwriters. However, I have contacted our Director of Insurance today to ascertain the position with regard to Mrs. Boocock’s claim. I believe that Mrs. Boocock was to undergo a medical examination within the last few weeks and that the report was to be forwarded to the Insurance Company for evaluation. Our Insurance Department are well aware of this claim but will contact American International Underwriters in order to ascertain the latest situation. Thank you for bringing this matter to my attention. However, I am sure you will appreciate that matters are taken out of our hands somewhat when a case is referred to the Insurers.’
By now of course nearly three years had elapsed since the accident in December 1987.
On 7 December 1990, just before the expiration of the period of limitation, the plaintiff’s new solicitors issued a writ claiming damages for personal injuries and consequential loss. The defendants named in the writ were Ladbroke Group plc (trading as Hilton International Hotels (UK) Ltd). On 27 February 1991 a copy of the writ was sent to Ladbroke Group plc. On 13 March 1991 solicitors acting for Ladbroke Group plc and Hilton International Co sent a fax message to the plaintiff’s solicitors stating that Ladbroke Group plc had purchased the assets and liabilities of all the Hilton International companies on 11 April 1988 but that Hilton International Hotels (UK) Ltd had never been either the owners or the occupiers of the Hilton Hotel in Dubai. Other errors in the writ were pointed out, but it is to be noted that the fax did not state the
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name of the owners, occupiers or managers of the Hilton Hotel, Dubai at the relevant time.
On 27 March 1991 the plaintiff’s solicitors wrote to say that they had issued a summons to amend the writ and that if necessary they would seek leave to serve the writ out of the jurisdiction. On 23 May 1991 the solicitors acting for Ladbroke Group plc and Hilton International Co (I shall call them ‘the defendants’ solicitors’) informed the plaintiff’s solicitors, in response to a further enquiry, that they were instructed to accept service of proceedings on behalf of the Hilton International Co.
On 24 June 1991 the plaintiff’s solicitors obtained an order from Master Turner granting leave under RSC Ord 15, r 6 to amend the writ ‘by changing the defendants to read Hilton International Company notwithstanding the limitation period’. It is common ground that following the order of Master Turner the amendment should have been made within 14 days in accordance with Ord 15, r 8(1). The amendment was not made, however, within that time limit.
On 6 August 1991 the defendants’ solicitors sent a fax message to the plaintiff’s solicitors stating that they were no longer instructed to accept service of proceedings on behalf of Hilton International Co. On the same day the defendants’ solicitors served a defence on behalf of Ladbroke Group plc, being the defence to the original statement of claim which had been served on 1 March 1991.
On 7 August 1991 the plaintiff’s solicitors obtained an order from Master Hodgson extending the time for the amendment of the writ. There is an issue between the parties as to whether the master’s order also extended the validity of the writ for a further four months. On 14 August 1991 the copy of the amended writ together with a copy of the original statement of claim dated 1 March 1991 was received at the offices of Hilton International Co at International Court, 2–3 Rhodes Way, Watford.
On 29 August 1991 the defendants’ solicitors wrote to the plaintiff’s solicitors to say that they had received a copy of the amended writ dated 7 August 1991. The letter continued:
‘It appears that the validity of the original Writ, dated 7 December 1990, has been extended pursuant to the leave of Master Hodgson, once again obtained on 7 August 1991. Would you please confirm whether a formal Order was given by Master Hodgson or whether he merely endorsed the original Writ. We are far from satisfied that the extension of the validity of the Writ is appropriate. We take the view that you have not correctly addressed the amended Writ. Hilton International Company have no registered office within the English jurisdiction, a fact of which we thought you were aware.’
It was also pointed out in this letter that the statement of claim which had been served was in the original form naming Ladbroke Group plc as the defendants.
On 9 September 1991 the plaintiff’s solicitors replied:
‘The Statement of Claim clearly was served incorrectly, and I have accordingly taken steps to serve a Further Statement of Claim properly amended together with a copy of the Order of the Master made on the 7th August 1991. I am a little concerned at the remainder of your letter. You have been throughout, well aware, of the situation. Proceedings were
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issued originally against Ladbroke Group plc in view of correspondence that had been received. The Plaintiff placed reliance upon those letters. That in the event turns out to be incorrect and accordingly an application for leave to amend the Defendants title was made. You were aware of this Application and also aware of its return date. You indicated that you were prepared to accept service of the proceedings against Hilton International Company. That authority to accept was withdrawn on the 6th August 1991. As to service the Company Search that I have made shows Hilton International Company as the Registered office of Mr. John Geoffrey Chester, International Court, 2–3 Rhodes Way, Watford, Hertfordshire WD2 4WY. In those circumstances service was effected from the information that I had, correctly. If however you are stating that there is a different Hilton International Company, and that leave is required to serve out of the jurisdiction, perhaps you could advise as quickly as possible so as to minimise any further delay. For the record, I would be grateful if you could confirm that you do at least act for Hilton International Company whether or not you retain instructions to accept service of proceedings. As the proceedings have been formally amended proceedings no longer exist against Ladbroke Group plc.’
The defendants’ solicitors replied at once on 11 September:
‘As matters presently stand you do not have leave to serve an amended Statement of Claim, and we take the view that you cannot now do so bearing in mind that our clients have already pleaded to the Statement of Claim addressed to Ladbroke Group plc. The pre-proceedings correspondence makes it quite clear that your client has been aware, from the outset, that Hilton International Company were the proper defendants. That company has not ceased to exist and the mere fact that Ladbroke Group plc happens now to own Hilton International Company is irrelevant. With the greatest of respect it seems that the truth of the matter is that the wrong defendant was named on the original Writ … The amended Writ was not served upon Mr J Geoffrey Chester, and indeed is not addressed to him. We are seeking instructions to apply to the Court to set aside service of the amended Writ.’
It was at this stage that both parties made applications to the court. The matter came before Master Hodgson on 19 February 1992. I have not seen a copy of the master’s order but it appears that he dismissed the summons issued by the defendants seeking the setting aside of the service of the amended writ. The defendants then appealed. The appeal was heard by Judge Lever QC sitting as a judge of the High Court on 2 April 1992. He allowed the defendants’ appeal and set aside service of the writ and at the same time dismissed an application by the plaintiff for leave to extend the validity of the writ by a further four months from 7 December 1991. The application for leave to extend the validity of the writ had been made by the plaintiff at the hearing without notice but with the consent of the defendants. The judge granted leave to appeal from his order to this court.
I can now turn to the questions which arise in this appeal. The arguments in this court fell under three separate headings: (1) whether the amended writ was effectively served on the defendants on 12 August 1991; (2) whether, in the exercise of its discretion under RSC Ord 2, r 1, the court could allow the service to be treated as good service notwithstanding the failure to effect service in
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accordance with s 695 of the Companies Act 1985; and (3) whether, in the exercise of its discretion under Ord 6, r 8, the court could extend the validity of the amended writ.
I can turn at once to the first issue.
Whether the service of the amended writ on 12 August 1991 was in accordance with the rules
Hilton International Co is a corporation registered in Delaware in the United States of America. It is clear from the affidavit sworn by Mr Crispin Kenyon on 3 February 1992 that the Hilton Hotel in Dubai was at all material times managed by Hilton International Co. In addition Hilton International Co has at all material times had a place of business in Great Britain. It is also clear that in due compliance with s 691(1)(b)(ii) of the Companies Act 1985 (or its predecessor) Hilton International Co has delivered to the Registrar of Companies a return in the prescribed form containing a list of the name and address of a person ‘resident in Great Britain authorised to accept on the company’s behalf service of process and any notices required to be served on it’. The person so named was Mr Geoffrey Chester, whose address was given as International Court, 2–3 Rhodes Way, Watford.
Section 695 of the 1985 Act contains provisions relating to the service of documents on an oversea company. It is in these terms:
‘(1) Any process or notice required to be served on an oversea company is sufficiently served if addressed to any person whose name has been delivered to the registrar under preceding sections in this Part and left at or sent by post to the address which has been so delivered.
(2) However—(a) where such a company makes default in delivering to the registrar the name and address of a person resident in Great Britain who is authorised to accept on behalf of the company service of process or notice, or (b) if at any time all the persons whose names and addresses have been so delivered are dead or have ceased so to reside, or refuse to accept service on the company’s behalf, or for any reason cannot be served, a document may be served on the company by leaving it at, or by sending it by post to, any place of business established by the company in Great Britain.’
It is common ground that neither the letter to Hilton International Co dated 12 August 1991, which accompanied the copy of the amended writ and other documents, nor the envelope in which these documents were enclosed was addressed to Mr Chester personally. The letter was received by Hilton International Co in Watford on 14 August 1991 and was stamped by or on behalf of Mr Chambury. It is also common ground, however, that either on that day or shortly afterwards the letter and the amended writ were seen by Mr Chester himself.
It was argued on behalf of the defendants that s 695 prescribes the only manner in which a writ can be served on an oversea company. In the present case the exceptions in s 695(2) have no application and accordingly service should have been effected strictly in accordance with s 695(1). It was argued on behalf of the plaintiff on the other hand that s 695(1) should be construed in a practical and pragmatic manner. The amended writ had been served at the correct address and had come into the hands of the person nominated by the defendants to accept service. In any event s 695(1) merely prescribed what
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should be ‘sufficient’ service and did not exclude the possibility of other forms of service in an appropriate case. The rules for service were laid down to ensure that legal proceedings were brought to the attention of a defendant and in the present case there could be no doubt that the defendants and their solicitors were fully aware of the existence and terms of the amended writ from the middle of August 1991.
In these circumstances I propose to consider first whether s 695 contains a complete code as to the manner in which process may be served on an oversea company. The basic rule as to the service of originating process is contained in RSC Ord 10, r 1(1), which prescribes that ‘a writ must be served personally on each defendant by the plaintiff or his agent’. By Ord 10, r 1(7), however, it is provided:
‘This rule shall have effect subject to the provisions of any Act and these rules and in particular to any enactment which provides for the manner in which documents may be served on bodies corporate.’
It is therefore necessary to turn first to Ord 65, which is concerned with the service of documents, and in particular to r 3, which is concerned with service of documents on a body corporate. Rule 3 is in these terms:
‘(1) Personal service of a document on a body corporate may, in cases for which provision is not otherwise made by any enactment, be effected by serving it in accordance with rule 2 on the mayor, chairman or president of the body, or the town clerk, clerk, secretary, treasurer or other similar officer thereof.
(2) Where a writ is served on a body corporate in accordance with Order 10 rule 1(2), that rule shall have effect as if for the reference to the usual or last known address of the defendant there were substituted a reference to the registered or principal office of the body corporate and as if for the reference to the knowledge of the defendant there were substituted a reference to the knowledge of a person mentioned in paragraph (1).’
I do not think it is necessary to set out the terms of Ord 10, r 1(2) (though it may be noted that this paragraph does not appear to contain the words ‘the knowledge of the defendant’), or of Ord 65, r 2. It is sufficient to summarise the matter by saying that, in the absence of any relevant enactment, service of originating process on a body corporate can now be effected either by personal service on one of the persons named in Ord 65, r 3(1), or (following the changes made in 1979 which allowed postal service) by sending a copy of the writ to the registered office of the body corporate. In the present case, however, the 1985 Act makes provision as to service and it seems to me that, in the light of Ord 10, r 1(7), s 695(1) governs the matter despite the fact that there is no reference to ‘any enactment’ in Ord 65, r 3(2).
It is true that the words ‘sufficiently served’ in s 695(1) are prima facie consistent with the view that other forms of service may be permissible or sufficient. But the rules to which I have referred seem to exclude the possibility of any forms of service other than those prescribed by the relevant enactment. Furthermore, this view is in accordance with the conclusion reached by Brandon J in The Theodohos [1977] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 428 at 431 where he said:
‘Both formerly under the old O. 9, r. 8 and now under the present O. 65, r. 3 the method of serving a corporation by personal service on an appropriate officer has, by the express terms of the two rules, only been
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applicable in the absence of any statutory provision regulating such service.’
It is true that at the time when The Theodohos was decided the provisions for postal service had not yet been introduced, but it is to be remembered that the provisions of Ord 10, r 1(2) as to postal service are subject to ‘any enactment’ (see Ord 10, r 1(7)).
In Singh v Atombrook Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 385, [1989] 1 WLR 810 the Court of Appeal considered the provision for service on a limited company set out in s 725 of the 1985 Act. Section 725(1) provides that a document may be served on a company by leaving it at, or sending it by post to, the company’s registered office. Kerr LJ expressed doubts as to whether the word ‘may’ had to be construed as ‘must’ and appears to have left open the possibility that some other form of service would be adequate (see [1989] 1 All ER 385 at 391, [1989] 1 WLR 810 at 819). It seems to me, however, that though the matter is not wholly free from doubt, the combined effect of Ord 10, r 1(7) and Ord 65, r 3(1) is to limit the methods of service of originating process to the methods prescribed in the 1985 Act. In the present case the writ was not addressed to Mr Chester and accordingly the service was not effected in accordance with s 695(1).
I turn therefore to the second and third issues which I can consider together.
Whether the court can in the circumstances exercise its discretion either under Ord 2, r 1 or under Ord 6, r 8
It is necessary to set out the texts of these two rules. Order 2, r 1, which is concerned with non-compliance with rules, is in these terms:
‘(1) Where, in beginning or purporting to begin any proceedings or at any stage in the course of or in connection with any proceedings, there has, by reason of anything done or left undone, been a failure to comply with the requirements of these rules, whether in respect of time, place, manner, form or content or in any other respect, the failure shall be treated as an irregularity and shall not nullify the proceedings, any step taken in the proceedings, or any document, judgment or order therein.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3) the Court may, on the ground that there has been such a failure as is mentioned in paragraph (1) and on such terms as to costs or otherwise as it thinks just, set aside either wholly or in part the proceedings in which the failure occurred, any step taken in those proceedings or any document, judgment or order therein or exercise its powers under these rules to allow such amendments (if any) to be made and to make such order (if any) dealing with the proceedings generally as it thinks fit …’
It is unnecessary to refer further to para (3).
Order 6, r 8, which is concerned with the duration and renewal of a writ, provides, so far as is material, as follows:
‘(1) For the purposes of service, a writ (other than a concurrent writ) is valid in the first instance—(a) where leave to serve the writ out of the jurisdiction is required under Order 11, for 6 months, (b) in any other case, for 4 months beginning with the date of its issue …
(2) Subject to paragraph (2A), where a writ has not been served on a defendant, the Court may by order extend the validity of the writ from time to time for such period, not exceeding 4 months at any one time, beginning with the day next following that on which it would otherwise expire, as
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may be specified in the order, if an application for extension is made to the Court before that day or such later day (if any) as the Court may allow …’
It will be convenient to start by referring to the principles on which the discretion to extend the validity of a writ under Ord 6, r 8 are to be exercised. These principles were considered by the House of Lords in Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrack Ltd, The Myrto (No 3) [1987] 2 All ER 289, [1987] AC 597 and in Waddon v Whitecroft-Scovill Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 996, [1988] 1 WLR 309. In Waddon’s case Lord Brandon summarised the principles laid down in the Kleinwort Benson case in the previous year which were applicable to the exercise of the court’s discretion on an application for the extension of the validity of a writ in cases where questions of limitation of action were involved, as follows ([1988] 1 All ER 996 at 1000, [1988] 1 WLR 309 at 313):
‘(1) On the true construction of Ord 6 r 8 the power to extend the validity of a writ should only be exercised for good reason. (2) The question whether such good reason exists in any particular case depends on all the circumstances of that case. Difficulty in effecting service of the writ may well constitute good reason but it is not the only matter which is capable of doing so. (3) The balance of hardship between the parties can be a relevant matter to be taken into account in the exercise of the discretion. (4) The discretion is that of the judge and his exercise of it should not be interfered with by an appellate court except on special grounds the nature of which is well established.’
In the present case the judge was referred to the two decisions in the House of Lords as well as to other relevant authorities on Ord 6, r 8. He then applied the principles to the facts of the present case and set out in his judgment the chronology which had been put before him and the arguments of counsel and concluded:
‘I can say no more in this case than that on the basis of the authorities cited to me and the principles which must guide me, the answer to the question must be that there is no good reason for me to extend the validity of the period and consequently the question of the exercise of my discretion, about which I shall say nothing, does not arise.’
It seems to me that the judge treated the question of the establishment of ‘a good reason’ and the exercise of his discretion as separate matters. On the facts of this case that may well have been a sensible approach. What seems to me to be quite clear, however, is that no adequate grounds have been put forward for showing that the judge exercised his powers under Ord 6, r 8(2), by ignoring some relevant circumstance or taking into account something which was irrelevant, nor is it possible to say that the judge’s decision was plainly wrong. Indeed I for my part consider that he was right.
One therefore turns to consider whether there is any room for the exercise of a separate discretion under Ord 2, r 1, in relation to the irregular service of the amended writ in August 1991.
There is clear authority for the proposition that the court should not exercise its discretion under Ord 2, r 1 more favourably to a plaintiff than it would do under Ord 6, r 8. As Slade LJ put the matter in Leal v Dunlop Bio-Processes International Ltd [1984] 2 All ER 207 at 215, [1984] 1 WLR 874 at 885:
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‘If he [the plaintiff] cannot properly enter through the front door of Ord 6 r 8, he should not be allowed to enter through the back door of Ord 2, r 1.’
The decision in Leal’s case was followed by the Court of Appeal in Camera Care Ltd v Victor Hasselblad [1986] 1 FTLR 347. It is to be noted, however, that both in Leal’s case and in the Camera Care case the irregularity had occurred in connection with proceedings which required leave to serve out of the jurisdiction. In addition both decisions were reached at a time when the courts applied the long established principle that the validity of a writ would not be extended unless there were ‘exceptional circumstances sufficient to justify such extension’ (see Leal’s case [1984] 2 All ER 207 at 215, [1984] 1 WLR 874 at 885 per Slade LJ). In the Kleinwort Benson case [1987] 2 All ER 289 at 300, [1987] AC 597 at 622, however, Lord Brandon regarded the ‘exceptional circumstances’ test as too high:
‘I think on the whole that it has been unhelpful to put the condition for extension as high as “exceptional circumstances”, an expression which conveys to my mind at any rate a large degree of stringency. The old rule in force until 1962 referred to “any other good reason” and I think that the new rule should be interpreted as requiring “good reason” and no more.’
Nevertheless I would not interfere with the judge’s decision under Ord 6, r 8. For my part, however, I agree with the view of Sir John Megaw in Golden Ocean Assurance Ltd v Martin, The Goldean Mariner [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 215 at 225 where he referred to—
‘the potent argument that special considerations apply to the exercise of the discretion under O. 2, r. 1 where the failure or irregularity has occurred in connection with proceedings which involve the requirement of leave to serve out of the jurisdiction’,
though I see the force of Slade LJ’s comment in Leal’s case that the court should not exercise its discretion under Ord 2, r 1 where it is unwilling to do so by extending the writ under Ord 6, r 8. It is always necessary to remember, however, that guidance which is given relating to the exercise of a general discretion has to be applied with caution. If a general discretion is circumscribed by binding rules it ceases to be a general discretion.
In the present case the judge was not invited to consider the case on the basis that the court had power under Ord 2, r 1 to allow the service of the amended writ in August 1991 to stand despite the fact that the mode of service did not comply with s 695 of the 1985 Act. This court can therefore view the matter afresh. The facts are very striking. Hilton International Co and their insurers knew of the claim from shortly after the accident in 1987. Detailed discussions followed. The chairman of Hilton International Co was clearly anxious that the claim should be settled. Liability has not been in dispute. There have been some interim payments of Mrs Boocock’s expenses. Mr Chester knew about the claim and was aware almost immediately of the service of the amended writ at his office. It is true that Hilton International Co have what Lord Brandon in the Kleinwort Benson case called ‘an accrued right of limitation’, but the surest guideline for the exercise of any general discretion is to consider what the justice of the case demands.
In the present case I am satisfied, despite the cogent arguments put forward by counsel for Hilton International Co, that in the interests of justice the court’s power under Ord 2, r 1 to cure an irregularity should be exercised. In the light
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of the particular facts of this case I would allow the appeal and order that the service of the writ in August 1991 was good service.
MANN LJ. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgment of Neill LJ and for the reasons which he gives I would allow this appeal and order that the service on 12 August 1991 was a good service. The service was not in accord with s 695(1) of the Companies Act 1985 and there being no other relevant enactment, it follows that RSC Ord 10, r 1(1) was not satisfied. This was an irregularity. However, if the irregularity could not be cured under Ord 2, r 1(2), then the discretion conferred by that paragraph must by binding decision have been constrained so as to require this court to impose injustice on Mrs Boocock in the circumstances of her case. I am happy to share Neill LJ’s conclusion that there is no such constraint.
HOFFMANN LJ. I agree with both judgments and have nothing to add.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Kunnath v The State
[1993] 4 All ER 30
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure: CONSTITUTIONAL; Civil Rights and Liberties
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD LOWRY, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND GAULT J
Hearing Date(s): 9 JUNE, 27 JULY 1993
Criminal law – Trial – Defendant – Foreign defendant – Evidence – Translation of evidence – Duty of trial judge to ensure that evidence translated for defendant.
Mauritius – Constitutional law – Human rights and freedoms – Protection of law – Criminal trial – Accused’s right to interpreter – Accused’s right to be present at trial – Right of accused to hear evidence against him so that he can decide what course to take at his trial – Whether constitutional right to interpreter replacing common law principles – Constitution of Mauritius, s 10(2)(f).
The appellant, an uneducated peasant from Kerala in Southern India who was working as a cleaner in a Bombay guest house, was prevailed upon by his employer and a friend of the latter to travel to Mauritius and deliver a bag to an individual whose identity was to be disclosed to him on his arrival there. The appellant was provided with air tickets and was promised a small reward when he returned to India. When he arrived in Mauritius he was searched by customs officers at the airport who found a quantity of heroin in a false bottom of the bag. The appellant maintained that he was unaware that the bag contained heroin. He was charged with being a drug trafficker and contravening the Dangerous Drugs Act 1986. The appellant’s native language was Malayalam and at his trial, which was conducted in English, he was represented by counsel. An interpreter, who was under the impression that he could only translate on the instruction of the presiding judge, translated the charge to the appellant at
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the beginning of the trial and a minor amendment thereto on the third day, and translated the appellant’s statement to the court from the dock but none of the evidence. In his statement to the court the appellant stated that he had not understood what the witnesses had said. The appellant was found guilty. He appealed to the Mauritius Court of Criminal Appeal on the ground, inter alia, that the failure to ensure that he had understood the evidence adduced at his trial and was in a position to rebut the evidence resulted in a miscarriage of justice. The Court of Criminal Appeal referred to s 10(2)(f)a of the Constitution of Mauritius, which provided that a person charged with a criminal offence had a right to the assistance of an interpreter if he could not understand the language used at the trial, and dismissed his appeal on the ground that if an accused or his counsel did not claim that right at the trial the lack of an interpreter could not be a ground of appeal. The appellant appealed to the Privy Council, contending that the lack of translation of the evidence amounted to the breach of a constitutional right which vitiated the trial, and in any event there had been such a departure from proper practice as to amount to a breach of natural justice.
Held – An accused who had not understood the conduct of proceedings against him could not, in the absence of express consent, be said to have had a fair trial and the judge by virtue of his duty to ensure that the accused had a fair trial was bound to ensure that, in accordance with established practice, effective use was made of an interpreter provided for the assistance of the accused. When a foreign accused was defended by counsel the evidence should be interpreted to the accused except when he or counsel on his behalf expressed a wish to dispense with the translation and the judge thought fit to permit the omission. The judge should not permit a translation to be dispensed with unless he considered that because of what had passed before the trial, eg at a preliminary hearing, the accused substantially understood the evidence to be given and the case to be made against him at the trial. On the facts, it must have been obvious to the presiding judge at the appellant’s trial that the interpreter was not translating the evidence to the appellant and, having regard to his statement from the dock in which he said that he had not understood what the witnesses had said, his lack of comprehension must have been fairly and squarely before the court. In those circumstances the trial had for all practical purposes been conducted without his presence, he had accordingly been deprived of the opportunity of a fair trial and a substantial miscarriage of justice had occurred. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 34 g to p 35 c, p 36 a to c and p 37 a, post).
Dictum of Lord Reading CJ in R v Lee Kun [1914–15] All ER Rep 603 at 606 applied.
Per curiam. The primary purpose of the requirements in s 10(2)(f) of the Constitution of Mauritius that an interpreter shall be made available free of charge when an accused cannot understand the language used at the trial and that, except with the accused’s own consent, the trial shall not take place in the absence of the accused is to enable him to hear the evidence against him and so be equipped to decide what course should be taken at the trial in the light of the evidence so given. In so providing the Constitution must have been intended
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to produce a result no less favourable to an accused than that resulting from existing common law principles (see p 36 e f, post).
Notes
For the trial of a person having an insufficient command of English, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1005, and for a case on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 360, 15154.
Cases referred to in judgment
Ali v R [1992] 2 All ER 1, [1992] 2 AC 93, [1992] 2 WLR 357, PC.
Ibrahim v R [1914] AC 599, [1914–15] All ER 874, PC.
Lawrence v R [1933] AC 699 at 708, [1933] All ER Rep 196, PC.
R v Bertrand (1867) LR 1 PC 520, 16 ER 391.
R v Kwok Leung (1909) 4 HKLR 161, Hong Kong Full Ct.
R v Lee Kun [1916] 1 KB 337, [1914–15] All ER Rep 603, CCA.
State v Gwonto [1985] LRC (Const) 890, Nigerian SC.
Appeal
Radhakrishnan Kunnath appealed with special leave from the judgment of the Court of Criminal Appeal of Mauritius (Glover CJ, Ahmed ASPJ and Pillay J) given on 20 March 1990 dismissing the appellant’s appeal against his conviction by Boolell J in the Supreme Court of Mauritius on 11 August 1989 on charges of being a drug trafficker and contravening the Dangerous Drugs Act 1986, for which he was sentenced to death. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Geoffrey Cox and Sarah Farmer (instructed by Linklaters & Paines) for the appellant.
James Guthrie QC (instructed by Charles Russell) for the respondent.
27 July 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. The appellant is an uneducated peasant from Kerala in Southern India whose native language is Malayalam. In April 1988, while working as a cleaner in a Bombay guest house, he was prevailed upon by his employer and a friend of the latter to travel to and deliver in Mauritius a bag to an individual whose identity was to be disclosed to him on his arrival in the island. For performing this service he was to receive a paltry reward on returning to India. The appellant was provided with air tickets and flew to Mauritius on 15 April 1988. His nervous conduct attracted the attention of customs officers at the airport, who then searched the bag and found in a false bottom thereof some 790 grams of heroin. The appellant maintained that he was unaware that the bag contained heroin.
When the appellant was asked questions in English at the airport he was unable to understand but when the questions were repeated in Hindustani he was able to reply in that language. Hindustani is a mixture of Hindi and Urdu words. On 16 April a statement was taken from him after caution by a chief inspector of the Anti Drug and Smuggling Unit with the assistance of a Supreme
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Court interpreter in Hindi. The appellant spoke in what the interpreter described as broken Hindustani, being Hindustani which was not very grammatical, interspersed with English and Malayalam words. The interpreter translated the appellant’s account into English which was then transcribed in English by the chief inspector. No translation of the Malayalam words took place. On occasion the interpreter was required to put a question to the appellant several times because he did not understand it. On other occasions the interpreter had difficulty in understanding the appellant’s answers. The interpreter then translated the English transcription into Hindustani and the appellant was asked whether he wanted to correct, add or alter anything. He replied in the negative and thereafter signed the English transcription of his statement, which contained a detailed account of the circumstances in which he came to be in Mauritius. On 19 July 1988 the appellant gave a further statement identifying photographs of his employer in Bombay and the latter’s friend above referred to.
The appellant was thereafter charged with certain contraventions of the Dangerous Drugs Act 1986 including being a drug trafficker within the meaning of s 38(2) thereof. He was tried in the Supreme Court before Boolell J on three days in July 1989 during which the proceedings were conducted in English. The appellant was represented by very experienced counsel and an interpreter who had solemnly affirmed was present throughout the trial. This interpreter translated (i) to the accused the charge at the beginning of the trial and a minor amendment thereto on the third day and (ii) to the court the accused’s statement from the dock. The interpreter translated not a word of the evidence, he translated only on the instruction of the presiding judge, and was under the impression that he could only do so when given such instructions. It does not appear that either the appellant or his counsel at any time indicated their assent to the evidence not being translated. Indeed the first two sentences of the appellant’s statement from the dock were in the following terms:
‘Two or three gentlemen deponed in court. I have not understood what they said.’
The remaining twelve short sentences of the statement dealt only with events in India and did not at all address the evidence which had been given by the Mauritian witnesses.
On 11 August 1989 Boolell J gave judgment finding the appellant guilty of the charges laid against him and sentencing him to death in accordance with the provisions of s 38(4) of the 1986 Act. It was accepted that this sentence was incompetent in view of the decision of this Board in Ali v R [1992] 2 All ER 1, [1992] 2 AC 93. The appellant’s appeal to the court was translated by the interpreter.
The appellant appealed to the Court of Criminal Appeal on a number of grounds, of which the only one relevant to this appeal was ‘the failure to ensure that the appellant understood the evidence adduced at his trial and was in a position to rebut the evidence resulted in the miscarriage of justice’. The Court of Criminal Appeal rejected this ground of appeal and concluded that there had been no such miscarriage of justice as would warrant a quashing of the conviction. In reaching this conclusion the Court of Criminal Appeal referred to s 10(2)(f) of the Constitution of Mauritius, which provides:
‘Every person who is charged with a criminal offence ... (f) Shall be permitted to have without payment the assistance of an interpreter if he
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cannot understand the language used at the trial of the offence, and, except with his own consent, the trial shall not take place in his absence unless he so conducts himself ...’
The court continued:
‘In our opinion, although the principle of a fair trial underlies all systems of law, we should, in such a matter, allow ourselves to be guided not so much by principles of the English common law, as exemplified in, for example, R v Lee Kun [1916] 1 KB 337, [1914–15] All ER Rep 603, as by judicial interpretation given to provisions in the Constitutions of other countries which are similar to ours. We are in entire agreement with the position adopted by the full bench of the Nigerian Supreme Court in State v Gwonto [1985] LRC (Const) 890.’
The Court of Criminal Appeal referred to the following paragraph in the leading judgment of Nnamani JSC, as justifying its conclusion ([1985] LRC (Const) 890 at 904):
‘l think, with all respect, that the point which was missed here is that the importance of the issue of representation lies in the fact that if an accused person is represented by counsel such counsel ought to demand his client’s right to interpretation or object to any irregularity such as lack of interpretation. If neither he nor the accused objects, the right is lost for all time and certainly cannot be invoked in a Court of Appeal.’
The Court of Criminal Appeal also rejected the other grounds of appeal and upheld the conviction. Before the Board two main submissions were advanced on behalf of the appellant, namely (1) the lack of translation of the evidence to the appellant amounted to the breach of a constitutional right which vitiated the trial and (2) in any event, apart from the Constitution the Court of Criminal Appeal had failed to consider whether there had been such a departure from proper practice as to amount to a breach of natural justice.
There may well be derived from these two constitutional rights a further requirement that, unless the accused himself consents otherwise, evidence given in a language other than his own shall be interpreted to him. It is however unnecessary for the purposes of the present appeal to decide whether such a requirement exists under the Constitution, and if so what is its precise ambit. It is convenient to deal first with the second of these two submissions because their Lordships consider it plain that, by virtue of the judge’s duty to ensure that the accused has a fair trial, the judge is in any event bound to ensure that, in accordance with established practice, effective use is made of the interpreter provided for the assistance of the accused. The important facts in the present appeal are that Boolell J was aware that an interpreter was present and instructed him to translate the charge and its subsequent amendment to the appellant. Furthermore it must have been obvious to him, as presiding judge, that the interpreter was not translating the evidence to the appellant. Finally, in his statement from the dock the appellant said that he had not understood what the witnesses had said. His lack of comprehension must therefore have been fairly and squarely before the court.
In following the reasoning in the Nigerian case of State v Gwonto rather than that in R v Lee Kun the Court of Criminal Appeal was, in their Lordships’ view, in error. The circumstances in Gwonto were fundamentally different from those in the present case in as much as no request for an interpreter had been made by
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or on behalf of the accused and the trial judge was unaware that they could not properly understand the proceedings. Gwonto is therefore of no assistance in a case where the trial judge is aware from the beginning of an accused’s language difficulty .
It is an essential principle of the criminal law that a trial for an indictable offence should be conducted in the presence of the accused (Lawrence v R [1933] AC 699 at 708, [1933] All ER Rep 196 at 200). As their Lordships have already recorded, the basis of this principle is not simply that there should be corporeal presence but that the accused, by reason of his presence, should be able to understand the proceedings and decide what witnesses he wishes to call, whether or not to give evidence and, if so, upon what matters relevant to the case against him (R v Kwok Leung (1909) 4 HKLR 161 at 173 per Gompertz J, R v Lee Kun [1916] 1 KB 337 at 341, [1914–15] All ER Rep 603 at 605 per Lord Reading CJ). An accused who has not understood the conduct of proceedings against him cannot, in the absence of express consent, be said to have had a fair trial.
In R v Lee Kun the Court of Criminal Appeal considered a case in which a foreigner with no knowledge of English was convicted of murder at a trial in which his counsel had made no application to have the evidence translated to him. However the evidence before the magistrate which did not differ from that of the trial had all been translated. Lord Reading CJ, after referring to divergent practices of judges in relation to translation of evidence, said ([1916] 1 KB 337 at 343, [1914–15] All ER Rep 603 at 606):
‘We have come to the conclusion that the safer, and therefore the wiser, course, when the foreigner accused is defended by counsel, is that the evidence should be interpreted to him except when he or counsel on his behalf expresses a wish to dispense with the translation and the judge thinks fit to permit the omission; the judge should not permit it unless he is of opinion that because of what has passed before the trial the accused substantially understands the evidence to be given and the case to be made against him at the trial. To follow this practice may be inconvenient in some cases and may cause some further expenditure of time; but such a procedure is more in consonance with that scrupulous care of the interests of the accused which has distinguished the administration of justice in our criminal courts, and therefore it is better to adopt it. No injustice will be caused by permitting the exception above mentioned. Speaking generally, police court proceedings will have taken place and the evidence will there have been translated to the accused before he has to stand his trial on the indictment, so that at the trial he knows the case to be made against him. He can instruct his counsel upon it and he may leave his defence in counsel’s hands without having the evidence again translated to explain to him that which he already knows, and there seems no reasonable objection to such a course. If there should be a substantial departure from the evidence recorded in the depositions the judge would take care, even if counsel omitted to ask it, that the variation or addition should be translated to the accused, so that he might throw any further light upon the case. The importance of the translation of any new or additional evidence cannot be doubted ...’
Lord Reading CJ later referred with approval to the reasoning of the judges in R v Kwok Leung (1909) 4 HKLR 161.
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Their Lordships have no doubt that the course advocated by Lord Reading CJ in R v Lee Kun is a highly desirable one and should be followed wherever a foreign accused, not fully conversant with the language of the proceedings, is represented by counsel. If it is not followed, the risk will be great of a substantial miscarriage of justice occurring. In the present case there was no preliminary hearing, as in R v Lee Kun, and the appellant had therefore no prior knowledge of the evidence to be given by the prosecution. He did not understand the evidence when it was given with the result that the trial was for all practical purposes conducted outwith his presence. The appellant was accordingly deprived of the opportunity of a fair trial and a substantial miscarriage of justice occurred. The miscarriage would have been avoided if the trial judge had ensured that the evidence was translated to the appellant. Even if he had failed to take this step he should on any view have ordered a retrial as soon as the appellant made clear his lack of understanding in his statement from the dock.
Although the conclusions as to the appellant’s second submission are sufficient to dispose of the appeal their Lordships consider that it is appropriate to comment briefly upon the observations of the Court of Criminal Appeal in relation to the constitutional position. Section 10(2)(f) of the Constitution requires that an interpreter shall be made available free of charge when an accused cannot understand the language used at the trial. That section further provides that, except with the accused’s own consent, and subject to one other immaterial exception, the trial shall not take place in the absence of the accused. The primary purpose of the requirement that the accused shall be present at his trial is to enable him to hear the evidence against him and so be equipped to decide what course should be taken at the trial in the light of the evidence so given. Reading together these provisions it appears that the Constitution must have been intended to produce a result no less favourable to an accused than that resulting from existing common law principles. Indeed it would be surprising if a Constitution intended to protect the rights of the individual should be construed to have the opposite effect.
It was argued for the respondent that there had been no substantial miscarriage of justice in as much as the circumstances were such that a conviction would have been almost inevitable unless the appellant had succeeded in evidence in persuading the judge as to his state of mind at the time. There is no doubt that there was a formidable body of evidence against him, including his statement of 16 April 1988. Nevertheless the circumstances in which the statement was taken by an interpreter not conversant with the appellant’s native tongue, and the doubt as to how accurately the English translation recorded what he said, particularly having regard to the failure to translate words spoken by him in Malayalam, lead to the conclusion that it would not be safe to apply the proviso.
Their Lordships were informed that there is no procedure for ordering a retrial in Mauritius. The circumstances of the case fall fairly and squarely within the following dictum of Lord Sumner, when commenting on the circumstances in which the Board will allow criminal appeals, in Ibrahim v R [1914] AC 599 at 615, [1914–15] All ER 874 at 880:
‘There must be something which, in the particular case, deprives the accused of the substance of fair trial and the protection of the law, or which, in general, tends to divert the due and orderly administration of the law
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into a new course, which may be drawn into an evil precedent in future: Reg. v. Bertrand ((1867) LR 1 PC 520).’
For these reasons their Lordships allowed the appeal at the conclusion of the hearing and quashed the conviction. Their Lordships will make no order as to costs.
Appeal allowed. No order as to costs.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Inland Revenue Commissioners, ex parte Commerzbank AG
[1993] 4 All ER 37
(Case C-330/91)
Categories: EUROPEAN COMMUNITY; Right of establishment: TAXATION; Corporation Tax
Court: COURT OF JUSTICE OF THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITIES
Lord(s): JUDGES RODRÍGUEZ IGLESIAS (PRESIDENT OF CHAMBER, ACTING FOR THE PRESIDENT), ZULEEG, MURRAY (PRESIDENTS OF CHAMBERS), MANCINI, JOLIET, SCHOCKWEILER, MOITINHO DE ALMEIDA, GRÉVISSE AND EDWARD
Hearing Date(s): ADVOCATE GENERAL M DARMON
20 JANUARY, 17 MARCH, 13 JULY 1993
European Economic Community – Freedom of establishment – Companies and firms – Corporation tax – Repayment supplement – Non-resident company – Claim by non-resident company for repayment of overpaid corporation tax – Claim refused because company non-resident – Whether residency requirement amounting to restriction on right of establishment – Whether residency requirement amounting to indirect discrimination on grounds of nationality – Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, s 825 – EEC Treaty, arts 52, 58.
A bank which was incorporated under German law with its registered office in Germany had a branch in the United Kingdom through which it granted loans to a number of United States companies between 1973 and 1976. It sought repayment of corporation tax paid on interest received from those companies under the double taxation agreement between the United Kingdom and the United States of America, under which interest paid by a United States company was taxable in the United Kingdom only when it was paid to a United Kingdom company or to a company resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom. Since the bank was not resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom, it received a refund of the overpaid tax. The bank then claimed repayment supplement (ie a sum equal to interest on the amount of tax repaid) under s 825a of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988. The Revenue refused the bank’s claim on the ground that it was not resident in the United Kingdom. On an application by the bank for judicial review of the Revenue’s decision the High Court held that, although under United Kingdom domestic law the application was bound to fail, the question ultimately fell to be decided by
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reference to Community law and sought a ruling of the Court of Justice of the European Communities to ascertain, inter alia, whether the residency requirement in s 825 amounted to a restriction of the right of establishment and indirect discrimination on grounds of nationality contrary to arts 52b and 58c of the EEC Treaty. The Crown contended that, far from suffering from discrimination under the United Kingdom tax rules, non-resident companies which were in the bank’s situation enjoyed privileged treatment in that they were exempt from tax normally payable by resident companies and therefore there was no discrimination with respect to repayment supplement.
Held – A national provision such as the one in question entailed unequal treatment since a non-resident company which was deprived of the right to repayment supplement on overpaid tax to which resident companies were always entitled was placed at a disadvantage by comparison with the latter. The fact that the exemption from tax which gave rise to the refund was available only to non-resident companies could not justify a rule of a general nature withholding the benefit, and such a rule was therefore discriminatory. It followed that arts 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty prevented the legislation of a member state from granting repayment supplement on overpaid tax to companies which were resident for tax purposes in that state whilst refusing the supplement to companies which were resident for tax purposes in another member state (see p 57 g to j and p 58 b c, post).
Sotgiu v Deutsche Bundespost Case 152/73 [1974] ECR 153 and EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 applied.
Notes
For equality of treatment under European Community law, see 51 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 2·295.
For repayment supplement in respect of delayed tax repayments to companies, see 23 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1721.
For the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, s 825, see 44 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 1074.
For the EEC Treaty, arts 52, 58, see 50 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 285, 287.
Cases cited
Administration des douanes et droits indirects v Legros Case C-163/90 [1992] ECR I-4625.
Page 39 of [1993] 4 All ER 37
Biehl v Administration des Contributions du Grand-Duché de Luxembourg Case C-175/88 [1991] STC 575, [1990] ECR I-1779, CJEC.
Conegate Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case 121/85 [1986] 2 All ER 688, [1987] QB 254, [1987] 2 WLR 39, [1986] ECR 1007, CJEC and QBD.
EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273.
EC Commission v Greece Case 305/87 [1989] ECR 1461.
EC Commission v Italy Case 63/86 [1988] ECR 29.
EC Commission v Italy Case C-3/88 [1989] ECR 4035.
Egyptian Delta Land and Investment Co Ltd v Todd [1929] AC 1, HL.
Ministère public v Deserbais Case 286/86 [1988] ECR 4907.
R v HM Treasury, ex p Daily Mail and General Trust plc Case 81/87 [1989] 1 All ER 328, [1989] QB 446, [1989] 2 WLR 908, [1988] ECR 5483, CJEC.
R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd Case 221/89 [1991] 3 All ER 769, [1992] QB 680, [1992] 3 WLR 288, [1991] ECR I-3905, CJEC.
Reyners v Belgium Case 2/74 [1974] ECR 631.
Rumhaus Hansen GmbH & Co v Hauptzollamt Flensburg Case 153/80 [1981] ECR 1165.
Schlüter v Hauptzollamt Lörrach Case 9/73 [1973] ECR 1135.
Segers v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor Bank-en Verzekeringswezen, Groothandel en Vrije Beroepen Case 79/85 [1986] ECR 2375.
Sotgiu v Deutsche Bundespost Case 152/73 [1974] ECR 153.
Srl Ufficio Henry van Ameyde v Srl Ufficio Centrale Italiano di Assistenza Assicurativa Automobilisti in Circolazione Internazionale (UCI) Case 90/76 [1977] ECR 1091.
Thieffry v Conseil de l’ordre des avocats à la Cour de Paris Case 71/76 [1977] ECR 765.
Werner v Finanzamt Aachen-Innenstadt Case C-112/91 OJ 1993 C46, p 11, CJEC.
Reference
By an order dated 12 April 1991 the Divisional Court of the Queen’s Bench Division of the High Court of Justice (Nolan LJ and Henry J) ([1991] STC 271) referred to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling a question (set out at p 56 b to f, post) relating to the interpretation of the provisions of the EEC Treaty concerning the right of establishment and prohibition of discrimination on grounds of nationality. The question arose in the course of an application by Commerzbank AG, which was a company incorporated under German law whose registered office was in Germany, for judicial review of the decision of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue that Commerzbank did not qualify for repayment supplement on overpaid tax because it was not, for tax purposes, a company resident in the United Kingdom. Commerzbank, the Crown and the Commission made written and oral submissions to the court. The language of the case was English. The facts are set out in the report for the hearing.
The Judge Rapporteur (R Joliet) presented the following report for the hearing.
I—FACTS AND PROCEDURE
A. The facts
Commerzbank AG, which is a public limited company incorporated under German law, has a branch in the United Kingdom. Through the intermediary of that branch the company granted various loans to United States companies between 1973 and 1976. Commerzbank paid tax of £4,222,234 to the Inland Revenue on the interest which it received from those companies.
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Subsequently Commerzbank claimed a refund of the tax on the ground that the interest in question was exempt from United Kingdom tax by virtue of art XV of the Double Taxation Convention between the government of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland and the government of the United States of America for the Avoidance of Double Taxation and the Prevention of Fiscal Evasion with respect to Taxes on Income (the Double Taxation Relief (Taxes on Income) (The United States of America) Order 1946, SR & O 1946/1327), as amended by the supplementary protocol of 20 September 1966 (see the Double Taxation Relief (Taxes on Income) (The United States of America) Order 1966, SI 1966/1188). That article provides in substance that interest paid by a United States company is exempt from United Kingdom tax except where the recipient is a United Kingdom company or a company which is resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom. The overpaid tax was refunded to Commerzbank in 1990.
Commerzbank also claimed compensation by way of interest on the overpaid tax in respect of the period for which the tax was held by the Revenue. The company calculated the total interest payable until the date on which the tax was refunded as £5,199,258, that is to say an amount which exceeded the tax paid.
Commerzbank based its claim on s 825 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988. By virtue of that provision a company receiving a repayment of overpaid corporation tax is entitled to compensation calculated at an annual rate of 8·25% of the tax repaid, provided that it is resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom. The provision reads as follows:
‘(1) This section applies to the following payments made to a company in connection with any accounting period for which the company was resident in the United Kingdom … (a) a repayment of corporation tax paid by the company for that accounting period …
(2) Subject to the following provisions of this section, where a payment of not less than £100 to which this section applies is made by the Board or an inspector after the end of the 12 months beginning with the material date, the payment shall be increased under this section by an amount (a “repayment supplement”) equal to interest on the amount paid at the rate of 8·25 per cent. per annum …’
Commerzbank’s claim was rejected by the Revenue. The company therefore applied to the High Court for judicial review of the Revenue’s decision. It contended that the refusal to grant the repayment supplement to non-residents constituted a restriction of their freedom of establishment and also indirect discrimination based on nationality since the companies affected were for the most part foreign.
The Revenue replied that, far from being discriminated against, Commerzbank received preferential treatment by virtue of the exemption granted to it.
The High Court considers that the solution to the dispute depends on the manner in which Commerzbank’s tax position is analysed. If one focuses on the actual incident in which the alleged disadvantage is to be found, namely the refusal of the supplement, there is manifest discrimination. If, on the other hand, one takes into account the exemption received by Commerzbank, the disadvantage vanishes, and it becomes difficult to compare the company’s situation with that of its United Kingdom competitors.
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It is against that background that the High Court of Justice decided to stay the proceedings and, by order of 12 April 1991 (see [1991] STC 271), referred the following question to the court for a preliminary ruling:
‘Where:
(i) a company which is formed in accordance with the law of, and has its principal place of business in, one Member State carries on business through a branch in a second Member State;
(ii) the company is subject to a demand for payment of tax in the second Member State on certain profits generated by the branch, and pays the tax;
(iii) the said tax is not in fact due if the company is entitled to benefit from an exemption under a double taxation agreement between the second Member State and a third country to companies which are neither nationals of, nor resident for tax purposes in, the second Member State;
(iv) the company successfully claims the benefit of the exemption and secures recovery of the tax paid but not due;
(v) the law of the second Member State provides for statutory compensation in the nature of interest (known as “repayment supplement”) where the company recovering the tax paid but not due was resident in that Member State at the material time;
(vi) the company claims the repayment supplement notwithstanding that it was not resident in that Member State at the material time;
(vii) the second Member State refuses on that ground to pay repayment supplement to the company;
is the refusal of the second Member State to pay the company any repayment supplement on the ground of its non-residence inconsistent with Community law and in particular Articles 5, 7 and 52 to 58 of the EEC Treaty, and in answering that question is it relevant that the company would not have been exempt from the tax (so that no question of recovery of the tax and therefore of repayment supplement would arise) if the company had been resident in that Member State?’
B. Procedure before the court
The order of the High Court was received at the court registry on 18 December 1991.
Pursuant to art 20 of the Protocol on the Statute of the Court of Justice of the European Communities written observations were submitted: on 15 April 1992, by the Commission of the European Communities, represented by Thomas Cusack, legal adviser, acting as agent; on 22 April 1992, by Commerzbank AG, represented by Gerald Barling QC and David Anderson, barrister; and on 23 April 1992, by the United Kingdom government, represented by John Collins, Assistant Treasury Solicitor, assisted by Alan Moses QC and Derrick Wyatt, barrister.
Upon hearing the report of the Judge Rapporteur and the views of the Advocate General, the court decided to open the oral procedure without any preparatory inquiry.
II—WRITTEN OBSERVATIONS SUBMITTED TO THE COURT
A. Observations of Commerzbank
Commerzbank contends first that the difference in treatment to which it is subject by reason of its non-resident status constitutes a restriction on its
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freedom of establishment contrary to art 52 (in conjunction with art 58) of the EEC Treaty.
Commerzbank refers first to EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273, the facts of which are in its view in all material respects identical to this case. According to Commerzbank, the French law in question granted shareholders a tax credit on condition that they had their habitual residence (in the case of a natural person) or their registered office (in the case of a company) in France. The purpose of the law was to prevent income which had been taxed in the hands of the company from being taxed again when it was distributed to the shareholders. In order to prevent such double taxation, the law permitted the shareholder to deduct from his tax liability part of the tax paid on the same income by the company.
Commerzbank observes that in that case the court held that, by reserving tax credits to persons resident in France, France discriminated against non-residents and thus restricted their freedom to set up a secondary establishment. Commerzbank considers that the court’s ruling is equally applicable to the present case since, as in that case, a tax advantage was refused on the ground that the company concerned was not resident in the United Kingdom.
Commerzbank contends further that the prohibition on treating nationals of member states differently according to their place of residence derives not only from arts 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty but also from the general programme for the abolition of restrictions on the freedom of establishment (JO 1962, p 36 (S Edn (2nd Series) IX, p 7)). That programme provides for the elimination of any measure which, although applicable irrespective of nationality, exclusively or principally hinders the taking up or pursuit of an activity as a self-employed person by nationals of other member states. Commerzbank considers that a measure imposing a residence condition for the payment of the repayment supplement is such as to hinder the taking up or pursuit of such an activity by nationals of other member states.
The prohibition of discrimination on grounds of residence also flows indirectly from the provisions on the free movement of workers, services and capital. Those provisions prohibit such discrimination in their respective areas. Since the right of establishment is ‘based on the same principles’ as those provisions, it should also be interpreted as embodying such a prohibition.
Secondly, Commerzbank argues that the difference in treatment to which it is subject may also be analysed as indirect discrimination based on nationality prohibited by arts 7 and 52 (in conjunction with art 58) of the EEC Treaty.
In order to demonstrate that such discrimination exists, Commerzbank points out that the companies which are refused the supplement are mainly foreign companies. According to Commerzbank, this is due to the fact that the companies affected are resident in another member state and—since a number of member states use the residence of companies as the criterion for determining their nationality—are also nationals of that other state.
In support of its view Commerzbank refers to the judgment in Biehl v Administration des Contributions du Grand-Duché de Luxembourg Case C-175/88 [1991] STC 575, [1990] ECR I-1779, where the court held that the use of the criterion of permanent residence in the national territory as a condition for entitlement to an advantage (namely the repayment of an overdeduction of tax) was liable to work against taxpayers who were nationals of other member states even though it applied irrespective of the nationality of the taxpayer concerned.
Page 43 of [1993] 4 All ER 37
After examining the manner in which non-residents are treated, Commerzbank observes, thirdly, that different treatment, whether it be based on residence or on nationality, may be compatible with the EEC Treaty where it is justified by an objective reason.
It argues that the justification put forward by the United Kingdom government does not meet that requirement.
Commerzbank denies that the payment of the supplement to companies whose registered offices are in another member state would involve extra administrative costs and inconvenience owing to the need to verify the status or to ascertain the income of such companies.
It also criticises the United Kingdom government’s argument that the refusal to grant the supplement compensates for or limits the exemption from tax which the company enjoyed. The company puts forward two arguments on this point. First, it emphasises that the circumstances in which the refund was made, in particular the reason why the tax is not due, are not material for the purpose of determining whether the different treatment is justified; in its view, the only relevant consideration is that taxpayers incurring the same loss in the case of an overpayment of tax are treated differently when they are reimbursed. Second, Commerzbank points out that, according to the judgment in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 the refusal of a tax advantage to companies resident in another member state cannot be justified on the ground that they compensate for the tax advantages which they enjoy; on the assumption that such advantages exist, they cannot justify a breach of the obligation laid down in art 52 to grant companies of other member states the same treatment as nationals.
Commerzbank also challenges the United Kingdom’s view that there is no breach of the EEC Treaty unless non-residents suffer a loss. In that regard it refers to the judgment in Biehl in which—according to Commerzbank—national legislation which caused no loss in the circumstances of the case was held to be contrary to the EEC Treaty on the ground that it was potentially damaging to non-residents in other situations. According to Commerzbank, that ruling should be applied to the present case. In its view, the United Kingdom legislation is potentially damaging even if the United Kingdom’s analysis were correct and the company suffered no damage in this case. In support of that view Commerzbank refers to a case where a resident and a non-resident are both entitled to a repayment of tax; under the United Kingdom legislation the supplement would be payable to the resident and refused to the non-resident, who would therefore be disadvantaged.
Commerzbank observes further that art 220 of the EEC Treaty, which requires the member states to enter into negotiations with each other with a view to securing the abolition of double taxation within the Community, does not authorise member states to derogate from the obligations deriving from art 52 by treating non-residents less favourably. In that regard Commerzbank points out that, in its judgment in EC Commission v France, the court held that the rights conferred by art 52 of the EEC Treaty are unconditional and that a member state cannot make respect for them subject to the contents of an agreement concluded with another member state.
Finally, Commerzbank observes that the United Kingdom is aware of the discrimination and undertook in 1975 to consider amending the contested measure and has since decided that the supplement will also be paid to non-residents from a date to be appointed by Her Majesty’s Treasury.
Page 44 of [1993] 4 All ER 37
In conclusion Commerzbank proposes that the questions put by the national court be answered as follows:
‘Articles 5, 7, 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty must be interpreted as meaning that a member state may not refuse to pay a sum in the nature of interest on tax wrongly overpaid solely on the ground that the company claiming such interest was not at the material time resident in that member state, in circumstances where the company is incorporated and resident in the territory of another member state.’
B. Observations of the United Kingdom government
The United Kingdom government considers that the contested measure is contrary neither to art 7 nor to arts 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty.
Its arguments are built around an analysis of the tax position of Commerzbank’s branch. The dispute concerning the payment of the supplement arises from a repayment to which only non-residents are entitled. It is because of its status as a non-resident that the branch qualified for exemption, whereas a United Kingdom bank operating in the United Kingdom would in the same circumstances have been subject to tax.
The United Kingdom adds that it appears that Commerzbank is not liable to tax in any member state in respect of the interest received from the United States companies. It states that the interest is exempt not only in the United Kingdom but also, by virtue of the same convention, in the United States and, by virtue of a similar convention concluded between Germany and the United Kingdom (see the Double Taxation Relief (Taxes on Income) (Federal Republic of Germany) Order 1967, SI 1967/25), in Germany as well.
The United Kingdom draws the following conclusions from the exemption enjoyed by Commerzbank’s branch.
First, it is necessary to place the refusal to grant the supplement to non-residents in its context by examining it in the light of the exemption granted. The court adopted such an approach in Sotgiu v Deutsche Bundespost Case 152/73 [1974] ECR 153 with respect to an allowance payable to workers which was higher where the person was recruited within the national territory rather than in another member state. The United Kingdom emphasises that, notwithstanding that difference, the legislation was held to be compatible with the EEC Treaty because the lower rate of the allowance applicable to workers recruited in another member state was offset by the allowance being payable for a longer period.
Second, Commerzbank’s right of establishment has not been restricted contrary to the EEC Treaty since the company enjoyed an exemption and suffered no loss. Granting a supplement to Commerzbank in such circumstances would render even more favourable the preferential treatment which it already enjoys. It would exceed the purpose of art 52 to construe it in such a way as to grant a further advantage to non-residents.
In support of its view the United Kingdom refers to the judgment in Rumhaus Hansen GmbH & Co v Hauptzollamt Flensburg Case 153/80 [1981] ECR 1165 concerning discriminatory internal taxation (see art 95). According to that judgment, Community law does not require member states to accord more favourable treatment to imported products than to their own domestic products.
Third, the United Kingdom denies that Commerzbank has been the subject of any discrimination whatsoever. It points out, first, that discrimination
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presupposes different treatment of persons who are in an identical situation. In view of the exemption enjoyed by Commerzbank, it must be concluded that the latter is not in a comparable situation to that of its United Kingdom competitors; consequently, it is impossible to conclude that there is discrimination.
The United Kingdom also observes that, according to the judgment in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273, art 52 prevents an advantage granted to residents from being refused to non-residents where the two categories of taxpayers are treated in the same way for the purpose of taxing profits. It follows that there can be no discrimination where companies are not treated in the same way for the purpose of taxing their profits, which is the case here since Commerzbank enjoyed an exemption which is not granted to resident companies.
The United Kingdom observes further that the alleged discrimination cannot be based on nationality. In its view, discrimination based on nationality presupposes a measure which principally affects nationals of other member states. That rule must, however, be qualified in matters of taxation, in which there is no discrimination where a ‘significant’ number of national taxpayers are also affected. That exception, which has been developed in the court’s case law relating to indirect taxation, should be extended to direct taxation. The United Kingdom government claims that the legislation in question affects numerous United Kingdom companies which are resident for tax purposes abroad.
Finally, the United Kingdom government argues that the refusal to grant the supplement to non-residents is justified on objective grounds. The supplement is intended to compensate for the delay in the repayment of overpaid tax. Such delay is in many cases due to the neglect of the non-residents, who are late in making their repayment claims. The delay is also due to the sharing of tax liability between several member states, as a result of which the amount of the repayment may depend on the tax levied or exemptions granted in other member states. The United Kingdom tax authorities cannot be required to compensate for a delay for which they are not responsible.
For those reasons the United Kingdom government proposes that the following reply be given to the question put by the national court:
‘In deciding for the purposes of art 52 of the EEC Treaty whether a non-resident taxpayer has received equal treatment under national rules in respect of a repayment supplement on a repayment of tax overpaid, all the circumstances of the case should be considered, including the fact that the repayment of tax was made by virtue of the non-national non-resident status of the beneficiary. It follows that an undertaking registered in one member state with a branch in a second member state may not rely upon art 52 of the EEC Treaty against the revenue authorities of the second member state in order to secure payment of a supplement to a repayment of overpaid tax where the repayment was made under a double taxation convention by virtue of the non-residence of the company in question, and such a repayment could not have been claimed under any circumstances by an undertaking registered in the second member state.’
C. Observations of the Commission
The Commission considers that the United Kingdom legislation constitutes a manifest infringement of arts 7, 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty.
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It observes, first, that art 7 lays down the general principle prohibiting discrimination based on nationality, a principle which is applied and given specific form by art 52 with respect to the freedom of establishment. From the relationship between those provisions it is clear that legislation contrary to art 52 also infringes art 7.
Secondly, the Commission contends that, in order to determine whether the refusal to grant the supplement to non-residents is contrary to the EEC Treaty, it is necessary to place it in its context and examine it in the light of the exemption granted to that category of taxpayers; that ‘global’ approach is said to have been adopted by the court in its judgments in Sotgiu v Deutsche Bundespost Case 152/73 [1974] ECR 153 and Biehl v Administration des Contributions du Grand-Duché de Luxembourg Case C-175/88 [1991] STC 575, [1990] ECR I-1779.
Thirdly, the Commission claims that the refusal of the supplement to certain companies on the ground that they are not resident within the national territory constitutes discrimination prohibited by arts 7, 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty.
In support of its view it observes, first, that, as the court held in its judgment in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273, a tax advantage granted to residents cannot be refused to non-residents where the two categories of taxpayers are placed ‘on the same footing for the purposes of taxing their profits’. The Commission observes that residents are taxable in the United Kingdom on the whole of their profits whereas non-residents are taxable only in respect of their income from United Kingdom sources. Notwithstanding that difference, the two categories of taxpayers are on the same footing for tax purposes in so far as both are subject to United Kingdom tax.
The Commission refers to a case where two companies, one resident in the United Kingdom and one in another member state, have made an overpayment of tax. In the Commission’s view, the two companies must be treated in an identical manner and receive the repayment supplement provided for by the law. The fact that the supplement is refused to one of the companies on the ground that it is resident in another member state is sufficient in itself to conclude that there is discrimination contrary to arts 7, 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty.
The Commission contends that, according to the court’s judgment in EC Commission v France, a member state cannot compensate for favourable treatment enjoyed by non-residents by refusing them a tax advantage granted to residents. The exemption enjoyed by Commerzbank does not constitute preferential treatment but is the result of the division of tax jurisdiction between the different member states concerned. In this case, it is Germany which is recognised as having the right to tax the interest paid to the United Kingdom branch of Commerzbank, since German companies are in principle subject to German tax on their world income even where it arises from foreign branches.
The Commission further emphasises that the repayment supplement no more constitutes a tax advantage than the exemption. The supplement merely compensates for the loss of income sustained because the tax authorities held money that did not belong to it.
In conclusion the Commission proposes that the court give the following reply to the question put by the national court:
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‘(a) The refusal of the second member state to pay the company any repayment supplement on the ground of its non-residence is inconsistent with Community law, in particular arts 7 and 52 to 58 of the EEC Treaty.
(b) It is not relevant that the company would not have been exempt from the tax (so that no question of recovery of the tax and therefore of a repayment supplement would arise) if the company had been resident in that member state.’
17 March 1993. The Advocate General (M Darmon) delivered the following opiniond.
At the conclusion of the argument the Board announced that the appeal would be allowed and the conviction quashed for reasons to be given later.
Mr President, members of the court,
1. A tax provision of a member state lays down arrangements for the repayment of overpaid tax which provide that, in the event of a repayment being made, a company is entitled to compensation calculated as a percentage of the sums repaid, on condition that it is resident for tax purposes in that state.
2. Is such a condition contrary to art 52 of the EEC Treaty? That, in substance, is the question put to the court by the High Court of Justice of England and Wales.
3. The London branch of Commerzbank, which is not resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom (this point is not in dispute between the parties (see the national court’s decision: [1991] STC 271 at 279)) granted certain loans to United States corporations between 1973 and 1976. It paid the tax demanded in the United Kingdom on the interest received.
4. It appears from art XV of the double taxation convention concluded on 2 August 1946 (see the Double Taxation Relief (Taxes on Income) (The United States of America) Order 1946, SR & O 1946/1327) as amended by the supplementary protocol of 20 September 1966 (see the Double Taxation Relief (Taxes on Income) (The United States of America) Order 1966, SI 1966/1188) between the United Kingdom and the United States that dividends and interest paid by a United States company are exempt from United Kingdom income tax except where the recipient is a United Kingdom citizen, resident or corporation.
5. On 12 February 1990 the Chancery Division of the High Court (see [1990] STC 285) upheld a decision of the Commissioner for the special purposes of the Income Tax Acts to the effect that, by virtue of that article, the tax was not owed by Commerzbank, which on the same day was refunded the overpaid tax, amounting to £4,222,234.
6. Commerzbank then made a further application for interest on the overpaid tax on the basis of s 825(2) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, which provides that the repayment of overpaid tax ‘shall be increased … by an amount (a “repayment supplement”) equal to interest on the amount paid’.
7. The application was rejected by the Board of Inland Revenue on the ground that under sub-s (1) of that section repayment supplement is payable only to companies resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom.
8. In May 1990 Commerzbank applied for judicial review of the Revenue’s decision. It contends that the residence condition constitutes a flagrant breach of arts 52, 53 and 58 of the EEC Treaty; it also relies on arts 5 and 7.
9. The High Court therefore asks the court whether the refusal to pay repayment supplement on the ground that the company is non-resident is
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compatible with Community law, in particular with the above-mentioned articles of the EEC Treaty (see [1991] STC 271). It also asks the court to rule on whether the reply to that question may be influenced by the fact that the company would not have been exempt from tax if it had been resident.
10. The United Kingdom government contends that in this case there has been no discrimination contrary to the EEC Treaty. Its central argument is that it is necessary to compare Commerzbank’s position with that of a British company under the relevant scheme of taxation viewed as a whole. Far from being discriminated against by the British tax system, Commerzbank receives preferential treatment inasmuch as it enjoys an advantage reserved solely to non-residents (namely the possibility of obtaining repayment of tax which residents must pay). If the bank had been resident, it would have had to pay the tax and the question of repayment would not have arisen. It cannot therefore enjoy both the advantages granted to non-residents under the provisions of the double tax convention and those enjoyed by residents under s 825(2).
11. In order properly to appraise those arguments, it is first necessary to identify precisely the discrimination alleged by Commerzbank. For that purpose it is necessary to compare the effects of a repayment of overpaid tax for a resident company with those for a non-resident company, where both are in the following situation: after paying tax that was not due, whatever the tax might be, they obtain a repayment of the tax and claim interest on the sums repaid in respect of the period in which they did not have use of those sums—regardless of the reason for the repayment. By virtue of the rule in question, whereas the first company may claim the repayment supplement, the second may not.
12. Contrary to the United Kingdom government’s suggestion, it is not, in my view, appropriate to make an overall comparison of the position of a non-resident company exempt from tax under a double tax convention which paid tax that was not due and claims repayment supplement with the position of a resident company which is liable for the tax and which therefore by definition cannot claim a repayment and thus avail itself of s 825.
13. In my view such a rule should apply whatever the reason for the repayment. It has no necessary link with double tax conventions.
14. Admittedly, by virtue of the convention, the non-resident company is not taxed in the United Kingdom in respect of the interest on the loans which it grants. However, that convention is not intended to lay down tax exemptions but to divide taxation between the states to which the taxpayer concerned has an attachment.
15. Even supposing that what is merely a transfer of tax jurisdiction from one state to another leads to a true exemption—in the absence of taxation of interest in the non-resident company’s state of origin—the advantage which it derives from the exemption flows, in my view, solely from the tax system of the latter state. It has therefore no connection with the repayment supplement, which is incidental to the repayment of the overpaid tax, and does not negate the discrimination which flows from the application of a provision whose benefit is denied to a taxpayer on the sole ground that he is not resident for tax purposes.
16. Let us not forget that the non-resident company has paid tax that was not legally due and that it is claiming repayment of the tax on the same terms as a resident company which has overpaid tax. The supplement is not a further
‘advantage’ granted to the non-resident company. It merely represents fair compensation for loss of the use, for a given period, of sums belonging to it.
17. The situation of the non-resident company must be equated with the quite specific and wholly comparable situation of a resident company which has
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overpaid tax and not with the situation of another company which has paid tax for which it was actually liable.
18. Suppose that the non-resident company wrongly paid tax for which neither resident nor non-resident companies are liable. Would not the discriminatory nature of a provision such as the one in issue be plain since the non-resident company would be deprived of interest which the resident company would receive?
19. There is in addition a more fundamental objection to the United Kingdom’s view. According to the United Kingdom, the Anglo-American double taxation convention removed any possibility of discrimination against non-resident companies since the latter are exempt from tax which only resident companies must pay. It is therefore by virtue of the application of a double taxation convention that there is no discrimination with respect to the conditions concerning the recovery of overpaid tax.
20. However, as the court held in its judgment in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 at 307 (para 26):
‘… the rights conferred by Article 52 of the Treaty are unconditional and a Member State cannot make respect for them subject to the contents of an agreement concluded with another Member State … ’ (My emphasis.)
21. In this case the observance of Community law cannot depend on the application of a double taxation convention concluded with a non-member country.
22. The court has inferred from art 234 of the EEC Treaty that, where the rights of non-member countries are not involved, conventions concluded prior to the EEC Treaty between such countries and member states cannot be relied on in order to justify restrictions in intra-Community trade (see Conegate Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case 121/85 [1986] 2 All ER 688 at 700, [1987] QB 254 at 271 (para 25) and Ministère public v Deserbais Case 286/86 [1988] ECR 4907 at 4926 (para 18)).
23. Equally, a convention concluded with a non-member country by a member state prior to its accession to the Community cannot be relied upon in order to justify restrictions between member states on the freedom of establishment.
24. For the purpose of examining whether a non-resident company is discriminated against with respect to the terms on which the repayment supplement is made, its situation may not be compared with that of resident companies whose situation is such that they cannot rely on s 825.
25. Consequently, the fact that a company would not have been exempt from tax (so that the question of repayment of the tax would not have arisen) if it had been resident in the taxing member state is immaterial for the purpose of answering the national court’s question.
26. The right conferred by art 52 of the EEC Treaty is not only the right to have an establishment in another member state of the Community but also to set up agencies, branches or subsidiaries (see R v HM Treasury, ex p Daily Mail and General Trust plc Case 81/87 [1989] 1 All ER 328 at 348, [1989] QB 446 at 460 (para 17)).
27. The latter must also be free from all discrimination. The fact that a bank could have set up a subsidiary rather than a branch cannot justify an infringement of the right of establishment:
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‘The second sentence of the first paragraph of Article 52 expressly leaves traders free to choose the appropriate legal form in which to pursue their activities in another Member State and that freedom of choice must not be limited by discriminatory tax provisions.’ (See EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 at 305 (para 22); see also Segers v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor Bank-en Verzekeringswezen, Groothandel en Vrije Beroepen Case 79/85 [1986] ECR 2375 at 2388 (para 16).)
28. Can discrimination on grounds of residence be analysed as indirect discrimination on grounds of nationality?
29. First of all, art 52, like arts 30, 48 and 59, has been held to be a lex specialis in relation to art 7 and merely an application of the principle of non-discrimination laid down by that article.
30. For many years the court has taken the view that art 52 precludes overt discrimination based on nationality (see Reyners v Belgium Case 2/74 [1974] ECR 631; moreover, that judgment establishes that art 52 has been directly applicable since the end of the transitional period.)
31. It also prohibits ‘all covert forms of discrimination which, by application of other criteria of differentiation, lead in fact to the same result’ (see EC Commission v Italy Case C-3/88 [1989] ECR 4035 at 4059 (para 8)). Thus, in its judgment in Thieffry v Conseil de l’ordre des avocats à la Cour de Paris Case 71/76 [1977] ECR 765 at 777 (para 13) the court referred to the General Programme for the abolition of restrictions on freedom of establishment, adopted on 18 December 1961 pursuant to art 54 of the EEC Treaty, which provided for the elimination of—
‘any form of disguised discrimination, by designating in Title III(B) as restrictions which are to be eliminated, “Any requirements imposed, pursuant to any provision laid down by law, regulation or administrative action or in consequence of any administrative practice, in respect of the taking up or pursuit of an activity as a self-employed person where, although applicable irrespective of nationality, their effect is exclusively or principally to hinder the taking up or pursuit of such activity by foreign nationals” …’ (See also art 67 of the EEC Treaty.)
32. A residence condition may constitute disguised discrimination on grounds of nationality inasmuch as, in practice, it principally affects nations of other member states.
33. Thus the court has held that art 52 precludes a member state from requiring, as a condition for the registration of a fishing vessel in its national register, that the owners, charterers and operators of the boat should be nationals of that state and be resident or domiciled in the state (see R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd Case 221/89 [1991] 3 All ER 769, [1992] QB 680).
34. In that regard the court stated ([1991] 3 All ER 769 at 815, [1992] QB 680 at 736–737 (para 32)):
‘As for the requirement for the owners, charterers, managers and operators of the vessel and, in the case of a company, the shareholders and directors to be resident and domiciled in the member state in which the
vessel is to be registered, it must be held that such a requirement, which is not justified by the rights and obligations created by the grant of a national flag to a vessel, results in discrimination on grounds of nationality.
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The great majority of nationals of the member state in question are resident and domiciled in that state and therefore meet that requirement automatically, whereas nationals of other member states would, in most cases, have to move their residence and domicile to that state in order to comply with the requirements of its legislation. It follows that such a requirement is contrary to art 52.’
35. Discrimination based on the criterion of residence may therefore be contrary to art 52.
36. However, what is the position with respect to residence for tax purposes?
37. In this area the criterion of residence is of particular importance. It is preferred to the criterion of nationality, which would involve a member state in taxing persons who have lost any genuine, in particular economic, link with the state.
38. The criterion of residence has moreover been adopted by Community law. Thus, the Council Directives of 23 July 1990 concerning the common system of taxation applicable to mergers and exchanges of shares and the common system of taxation applicable to parent companies and subsidiaries of different member states expressly refer to the concept of residence for tax purposes (see respectively Council Directives (EEC) 90/434 and 90/435).
39. By art 220 of the EEC Treaty the member states undertook to abolish double taxation within the Community. It is by employing the criterion of residence that the member states have achieved this by means of bilateral convention.
40. The court has not excluded the possibility that in an area such as tax law a distinction based on the location of the registered office of a company or the place of residence of a natural person may, under certain conditions, be justified (see EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 at 304 (para 19)).
41. The court has however imposed a limit on this. In determining the rules applicable in tax matters the member states may not encroach on the freedoms guaranteed by Community law to all nationals of member states. The principle of freedom of establishment, in particular, would be rendered ineffective if it could be undermined by discriminatory national provisions on income tax (see, with respect to the principle of equal treatment with regard to remuneration, Biehl v Administration des Contributions du Grand-Duché de Luxembourg Case C-175/88 [1991] STC 575 at 583, [1990] ECR I-1779 at 1792 (para 12)). Thus, where non-residents are assimilated to residents and both are subject to the same tax system, the court does allow that system to be applied in a discriminatory manner.
42. That, in my view, is the main principle established by the judgment in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 at 305 (para 20), where the court held:
‘By treating the two forms of establishment in the same way for the purposes of taxing their profits, the French legislature has in fact admitted that there is no objective difference between their positions in regard to the detailed rules and conditions relating to that taxation which could justify different treatment.’
It is therefore discriminatory to ‘treat them differently in regard to the grant of an advantage related to taxation, such as shareholders’ tax credits’.
43. It was on the basis of that inconsistency, in particular, that the court held there to be discrimination contrary to art 52.
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44. Similarly, where a right is granted both to residents and to non-residents, it may not be applied in a discriminatory manner. If the right to recovery of overpaid tax is granted both to non-resident companies and to resident companies because there is no objective difference which would justify not making a repayment to non-residents, that right must be applied in a non-discriminatory manner, that is to say, without distinguishing between such companies with respect to the grant of the repayment supplement, which moreover, as I have already said, is merely incidental to it.
45. Consequently, by treating differently companies which are in the same position of being owed money by the tax authorities, a provision which denies the payment of interest to non-resident companies discriminates against those companies.
46. In the case before the national court, does the residence criterion conceal disguised discrimination on grounds of nationality?
47. In company law a company’s residence for tax purposes does not necessarily coincide with its official address or nationality.
48. The British position is a particularly good illustration: a company has British nationality where it is incorporated and has its registered office, which is also its official address, in the United Kingdom.
49. Residence is essentially a tax concept: it is determined by reference to the place where the actual management of the company is carried on (‘In tax law a company is ordinarily resident where the actual management of the company is carried on’: see Palmer’s Company Law para 2.514). It has thus been held that a company which was incorporated and had its registered office in the United Kingdom, but whose actual management was carried on in Cairo where the director and staff permanently resided, was resident for tax purposes in Egypt and not in the United Kingdom (see Egyptian Delta Land and Investment Co Ltd v Todd [1929] AC 1, cited in Palmer’s Company Law para 2.514).
50. In order for there to be disguised discrimination on grounds of nationality, the court does not require that the measure should affect only non-residents, but that it should affect them principally or ‘in particular’ (see Biehl v Administration des Contributions du Grand-Duché de Luxembourg Case C-175/88 [1991] STC 575 at 583, [1990] ECR I-1789 at 1793 (para 14)).
51. Indeed it is clear that the criteria of residence and nationality overlap to a large extent.
52. As the court held in Biehl [1991] STC 575 at 583, [1990] ECR I-1789 at 1793 (para 14):
‘Even though the criterion of permanent residence in the national territory referred to in connection with obtaining any repayment of an overdeduction of tax applies irrespective of the nationality of the taxpayer concerned, there is a risk that it will work in particular against taxpayers who are nationals of other member states.’
53. It is impossible to maintain that in such circumstances companies resident abroad are treated equally.
54. What of the justification given on this point by the United Kingdom government?
55. It was argued that, in the absence of such a restriction with respect to the repayment of overpaid tax, non-resident companies would be placed at an advantage in relation to resident companies.
56. The court rejected such an argument in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 at 305 (para 21) in the following terms:
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‘… the difference in treatment also cannot be justified by any advantages which branches and agencies may enjoy vis-à-vis companies and which, according to the French Government, balance out the disadvantages resulting from the failure to grant the benefit of shareholders’ tax credits. Even if such advantages actually exist, they cannot justify a breach of the obligation laid down in Article 52 to accord foreign companies the same treatment in regard to shareholders’ tax credits as is accorded to French companies.’
57. The different treatment to which non-resident companies are subject cannot, moreover, be justified by the particular features or differences with respect to the tax systems of the various member states or the conditions relating to double taxation.
58. In this respect I would again refer to the judgment in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 at 306 (para 24), where the court stated:
‘Although it is true that in the absence of such harmonization, a company’s tax position depends on the national law applied to it, Article 52 of the EEC Treaty prohibits the Member States from laying down in their laws conditions for the pursuit of activities by persons exercising their right of establishment which differ from those laid down for its own nationals.’
59. Finally, the last reason put forward by the United Kingdom government appears a little paradoxical. It argues that the repayment supplement is justified for residents because residents’ tax affairs can normally be settled rapidly ‘without supplement arising’ (it should be noted, incidentally, that the provision under consideration was abolished on 7 December 1992); on the other hand, claims made by non-residents are often late partly through their own fault and partly because of the difficulties flowing from the sharing of tax liability between several member states. A claim for repayment of overpaid tax submitted late would prove extremely costly for the tax authorities (see s 825 of the 1988 Act, under which interest is paid at an annual rate of 8·25% on the amount overpaid) and would enrich the taxpayers who did not show due diligence.
60. I do not think that the complexity of dividing tax jurisdiction between the member states may be relied upon to the detriment of a taxpayer who has been wrongly taxed. Moreover, I have serious doubts as to whether the application of a statutory rate can lead to enrichment. Above all, however, it seems to me that it is possible to reconcile observance of the principle of non-discrimination with the need to place a temporal limit on the right to repayment of overpaid tax, not by depriving only a non-resident of the right to interest, whether his application is late or not, but by providing a reasonable time limit, applicable without distinction to residents and non-residents, for requesting repayment of overpaid tax. (The judgment in Administration des douanes et droits indirects v Legros Case C-163/90 [1992] ECR I-4625 illustrates the difficulties arising from an excessively long period for making claims for recovery of overpaid tax. In support of its request that the temporal effect of
the judgment should be limited, the French government pleaded that the 30-year time limit was applicable to claims for repayment of the wrongly paid ‘octroi de mer’.)
61. In the absence of any convincing reasons, the refusal of a member state to pay a company the repayment supplement by reason of its non-residence seems incompatible with arts 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty.
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62. The preliminary question also concerns art 7, which prohibits, within the scope of application of the EEC Treaty, overt or covert discrimination based on nationality (see the judgment in Sotgiu v Deutsche Bundespost Case 152/73 [1974] ECR 153).
63. As the court held in its judgment in Srl Ufficio Henry van Ameyde v Srl Ufficio Centrale Italiano di Assistenza Assicurativa Automobilisti in Circolazione Internazionale (UCI) Case 90/76 [1977] ECR 1091 and, quite recently, in its judgment in Werner v Finanzamt Aachen-Innenstadt Case C-112/91 OJ 1993 C46, p 11, since art 52 of the EEC Treaty guarantees, in the sphere of the right of establishment, the application of the principle laid down by art 7, it follows that, where rules are compatible with art 52, they are also compatible with art 7 (see the judgment in van Ameyde [1977] ECR 1091 at 1126 (para 27); see also the judgment in EC Commission v Italy Case 63/86 [1988] ECR 29 at 52 (para 12).
64. Conversely, in its judgment in EC Commission v Greece Case 305/87 [1989] ECR 1461 at 1476–1477 the court stated:
‘12 … the general prohibition of discrimination on grounds of nationality laid down in Article 7 of the Treaty has been implemented, in regard to their several domains, by Articles 48, 52 and 59 of the Treaty. Consequently, any rules incompatible with those provisions are also incompatible with Article 7 …
13. Article 7 of the Treaty … applies independently only to situations governed by Community law in regard to which the Treaty lays down no specific prohibition of discrimination.’
65. Since no reference has been made to situations other than those covered by art 52, it is unnecessary to consider whether there is a specific infringement of art 7.
66. Finally, the national court’s question also refers to art 5 of the EEC Treaty.
67. It is necessary to point out that the obligation contained in that article does not confer on individuals rights which the national courts are under a duty to protect (see the judgment in Schlüter v Hauptzollamt Lörrach Case 9/73 [1973] ECR 1135 at 1161 (para 39)).
68. I therefore propose that the court should rule as follows:
‘Articles 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty preclude the legislation of a member state from reserving the payment of repayment supplement, following the payment of tax that was not due, to companies which are resident for tax purposes in that state and from refusing it to non-resident companies, even where those companies are registered in another member state where they are resident for tax purposes. The fact that the companies would not have been exempt from tax if they had been resident in the member state is of no importance in that regard.’
1. By order of 12 April 1991 (see [1991] STC 271), received at the court on 18 December 1991, the Queen’s Bench Division of the High Court of Justice of England and Wales referred to the court for a preliminary ruling under art 177 of the EEC Treaty a question relating to the interpretation of the provisions of the Treaty concerning right of establishment and prohibition of discrimination on grounds of nationality.
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2. Those questions were raised in connection with a dispute between Commerzbank AG, a company incorporated under German law whose registered office is in Germany, and the Commissioners of Inland Revenue (hereinafter referred to as ‘the tax authorities’) concerning the conditions governing liability to tax under the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988.
3. The facts as set out in the order for reference are as follows.
4. Commerzbank has a branch in the United Kingdom through the intermediary of which it granted loans to a number of United States companies between 1973 and 1976. Commerzbank paid tax in the United Kingdom of £4,222,234 on the interest received from those companies.
5. Subsequently Commerzbank sought repayment of that sum from the tax authorities on the ground that the interest was exempt in the United Kingdom by virtue of art XV of the Convention of 2 August 1946 between the government of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland and the government of the United States of America for the Avoidance of Double Taxation and the Prevention of Fiscal Evasion with respect to Taxes on Income (see the Double Taxation Relief (Taxes on Income) (The United States of America) Order 1946, SR & O 1946/1327), as amended by the supplementary protocol of 20 September 1966 (see the Double Taxation Relief (Taxes on Income) (The United States of America) Order 1966, SI 1966/1188). That article provides in substance that interest paid by a United States company is taxable in the United Kingdom only when it is paid to a United Kingdom company or a company resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom. Since Commerzbank was not resident for tax purposes in the United Kingdom, it received a refund of the overpaid tax.
6. Commerzbank then made a claim in connection with that refund under s 825 of the 1988 Act. That section provides:
‘(1) This section applies to the following payments made to a company in connection with any accounting period for which the company was resident in the United Kingdom … (a) a repayment of corporation tax paid by the company for that accounting period …
(2) Subject to the following provisions of this section, where a payment of not less than £100 to which this section applies is made by the Board or an inspector after the end of the 12 months beginning with the material date, the payment shall be increased under this section by an amount (a “repayment supplement”) equal to interest on the amount paid at the rate of 8·25 per cent. per annum …’
7. Commerzbank claimed repayment supplement from the tax authorities, calculating the amount payable as £5,199,258.
8. The tax authorities rejected Commerzbank’s claim on the ground that the company was not resident in the United Kingdom. Commerzbank therefore applied to the High Court for judicial review of that decision, claiming that the refusal to grant repayment supplement to non-residents constituted a
restriction of the right of establishment and indirect discrimination on grounds of nationality, since the companies affected were for the most part foreign.
9. The High Court considered it necessary to refer to the court a question concerning the interpretation of arts 5, 7, 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty.
10. That question is worded as follows:
‘Where:
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(i) a company which is formed in accordance with the law of, and has its principal place of business in, one Member State carries on business through a branch in a second Member State;
(ii) the company is subject to a demand for payment of tax in the second Member State on certain profits generated by the branch, and pays the tax;
(iii) the said tax is not in fact due if the company is entitled to benefit from an exemption under a double taxation agreement between the second Member State and a third country to companies which are neither nationals of, nor resident for tax purposes in, the second Member State;
(iv) the company successfully claims the benefit of the exemption and secures recovery of the tax paid but not due;
(v) the law of the second Member State provides for statutory compensation in the nature of interest (known as “repayment supplement”) where the company recovering the tax paid but not due was resident in that Member State at the material time;
(vi) the company claims the repayment supplement notwithstanding that it was not resident in that Member State at the material time;
(vii) the second Member State refuses on that ground to pay repayment supplement to the company;
is the refusal of the second Member State to pay the company any repayment supplement on the ground of its non-residence inconsistent with Community law and in particular Articles 5, 7 and 52 to 58 of the EEC Treaty, and in answering that question is it relevant that the company would not have been exempt from the tax (so that no question of recovery of the tax and therefore of repayment supplement would arise) if the company had been resident in that Member State?’
11. Reference is made to the report for the hearing for a fuller account of the facts of the case, the relevant rules and the written observations submitted to the court, which are mentioned or discussed hereinafter only in so far as is necessary for the reasoning of the court.
12. The file shows that the national court’s question is designed to ascertain, first, whether arts 52 and 58 and arts 5 and 7 of the EEC Treaty prevent the legislation of a member state from granting repayment supplement on overpaid tax to companies resident for tax purposes in that state whilst refusing that supplement to companies which are resident for tax purposes in another member state and, secondly, whether such a rule is still discriminatory where the exemption from tax which gave rise to the refund applies only to companies which are not resident for tax purposes in that member state.
The right of establishment
13. As the court held in its judgment in EC Commission v France Case 270/83 [1986] ECR 273 at 304 (para 18), the freedom of establishment which art 52 grants to nationals of a member state, and which entails the right for them to take up and pursue activities as self-employed persons under the conditions laid
down for its own nationals by the law of the member state where such establishment is effected, includes, pursuant to art 58 of the EEC Treaty, the right of companies or firms formed in accordance with the law of a member state and having their registered office, central administration or principal place of business within the Community to pursue their activities in the member state concerned through a branch or agency. With regard to companies, it should be noted in this context that it is their seat in the above-mentioned sense that serves as the connecting factor within the legal system of a particular state, like nationality in the case of natural persons. In the same judgment the court held
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that acceptance of the proposition that the member state in which a company seeks to establish itself may freely apply to it different treatment solely by reason of the fact that its seat is situated in another member state would deprive the provision of all meaning.
14. Moreover, it follows from the court’s judgment in Sotgiu v Deutsche Bundespost Case 152/73 [1974] ECR 153 at 164 (para 11) that the rules regarding equality of treatment forbid not only overt discrimination by reason of nationality or, in the case of a company, its seat, but all covert forms of discrimination which, by the application of other criteria of differentiation, lead in fact to the same result.
15. Although it applies independently of a company’s seat, the use of the criterion of fiscal residence within national territory for the purpose of granting repayment supplement on overpaid tax is liable to work more particularly to the disadvantage of companies having their seat in other member states. Indeed, it is most often those companies which are resident for tax purposes outside the territory of the member state in question.
16. In order to justify the national provision at issue in the main proceedings, the United Kingdom government argues that, far from suffering discrimination under the United Kingdom tax rules, non-resident companies which are in Commerzbank’s situation enjoy privileged treatment. They are exempt from tax normally payable by resident companies. In those circumstances, there is no discrimination with respect to repayment supplement: resident companies and non-resident companies are treated differently because, for the purposes of corporation tax, they are in different situations.
17. That argument cannot be upheld.
18. A national provision such as the one in question entails unequal treatment. Where a non-resident company is deprived of the right to repayment supplement on overpaid tax to which resident companies are always entitled, it is placed at a disadvantage by comparison with the latter.
19. The fact that the exemption from tax which gave rise to the refund was available only to non-resident companies cannot justify a rule of a general nature withholding the benefit. That rule is therefore discriminatory.
20. It follows from those considerations that the reply to be given to the national court is that arts 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty prevent the legislation of a member state from granting repayment supplement on overpaid tax to companies which are resident for tax purposes in that state whilst refusing the supplement to companies which are resident for tax purposes in another member state. The fact that the latter would not have been exempt from tax if they had been resident in that state is of no relevance in that regard.
21. Since legislation such as that at issue in the main proceedings is contrary to arts 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty, it is unnecessary to consider its compatibility with arts 5 and 7.
Costs
22. The costs incurred by the United Kingdom and the Commission of the European Communities, which have submitted observations to the court, are not recoverable. Since these proceedings are, for the parties to the main proceedings, a step in the proceedings pending before the national court, the decision on costs is a matter for that court.
On those grounds, the court, in answer to the question referred to it by the Queen’s Bench Division of the High Court of Justice of England and Wales, by
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order of 12 April 1991, hereby rules: arts 52 and 58 of the EEC Treaty prevent the legislation of a member state from granting repayment supplement on overpaid tax to companies which are resident for tax purposes in that state whilst refusing the supplement to companies resident for tax purposes in another member state. The fact that the latter would not have been exempt from tax if they had been resident in that state is of no relevance in that regard.
Susan J Murphy Barrister.
Practice Direction
(Costs: Vouching bills of costs)
[1993] 4 All ER 58
(No 2 of 1993)
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: SUPREME COURT TAXING OFFICE
Lord(s): 5 August 1993
Hearing Date(s): Costs – Vouching bills of costs – Certificate as evidence of payment of disbursement not exceeding £500 – Exception for counsel’s fee – Certificate to be given by partner in firm claiming costs.
1. In order to reduce the labour involved in vouching bills of costs, a certificate in the following form may be accepted as evidence of payment of any disbursement not exceeding £500 (other than a fee to counsel) provided the paying party does not require otherwise, and subject to any direction to the contrary that may be given by the taxing officer:
We AB & Co
HEREBY CERTIFY that all disbursements listed in the taxed bill in the matter of C v D No which individually do not exceed £500 (other than those relating to counsel’s fees) have been duly discharged.
Signed
(Partner, AB & Co)
2. With the concurrence of the Senior District Judge of the Family Division, this direction is to apply from 1 October 1993 to all costs in the Supreme Court taxed under the respective jurisdictions of the Family Division and the Supreme Court Taxing Office.
3. The Practice Directions of 15 April 1976 ([1976] 2 All ER 446) and 1 February 1984 ([1984] 1 All ER 679) are hereby withdrawn.
P T HURST Chief Master.
5 August 1993
Barking and Dagenham London Borough Council v O and another
[1993] 4 All ER 59
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: FAMILY; Family Proceedings
Court: FAMILY DIVISION
Lord(s): DOUGLAS BROWN J
Hearing Date(s): 12 MARCH 1993
Discovery – Legal professional privilege – Family proceedings – Production of documents – Privilege – No waiver of privilege – Documents prepared with a view to litigation – Local authority commencing care proceedings – Medical reports concerning welfare of minors – Whether power to order disclosure of privileged medical reports in family proceedings.
In 1992 care proceedings were commenced by a local authority in respect of two boys, aged six and two, who were the children of the mother by different fathers. There were serious concerns about the physical and emotional welfare of the children and the mother’s care of them as they had both frequently been admitted to hospital and a third child aged five months had allegedly died in suspicious circumstances in 1988. Interim care was granted to the local authority and by consent directions for discovery were given including an order that each party file and serve medical reports and that there be disclosure of hospital records relating to the three children. The mother applied to amend the order so that she should not be required to disclose medical reports obtained by her solicitors unless she wished to rely on them to support her case. The mother contended that those reports were subject to legal professional privilege and that in the absence of any waiver of privilege she could not be forced to disclose them. Her application was opposed by the guardian ad litem and one of the fathers, who contended that, since there was power to override legal professional privilege in wardship proceedings, that power should by analogy apply to proceedings under the Children Act 1989.
Held – In the absence of any waiver of privilege the mother was not bound to disclose medical reports obtained by her solicitors unless she wished to do so since medical reports made on behalf of a party to litigation on the advice of his or her legal advisers were privileged documents and, unlike wardship proceedings where the court possibly had power to order disclosure of material governed by legal professional privilege, proceedings under the 1989 Act were not paternal or administrative but were adversarial in the sense that each party was entitled to be heard and to challenge opposing evidence by cross-examination and was entitled to be represented by an advocate. It followed that the application would be granted and the order for disclosure of medical records would be amended in the form sought by the mother (see p 63 h to p 64 b e f, post).
Causton v Mann Egerton (Johnsons) Ltd [1974] 1 All ER 453 followed.
Notes
For privilege from disclosure of medical reports, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 52–53, 67–69, and for cases on subject, see 18 Digest (2nd reissue) 96, 836–838.
Page 60 of [1993] 4 All ER 59
For legal professional privilege in general, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 71–85, and for cases on subject, see 18 Digest (2nd reissue) 154–163, 1379–1428.
For the Children Act 1989, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1992 reissue) 387.
Cases referred to in judgment
A (minors: disclosure of material), Re [1991] 2 FLR 473.
C (a minor) (evidence: confidential information), Re [1991] 2 FLR 478, CA.
Causton v Mann Egerton (Johnsons) Ltd [1974] 1 All ER 453, [1974] 1 WLR 162, CA.
M (a minor) (disclosure of material), Re [1990] 2 FLR 36, CA.
Saxton (decd), Re, Johnson v Saxton [1962] 3 All ER 92, [1962] 1 WLR 968, CA.
Worrall v Reich [1955] 1 All ER 363, [1955] 1 QB 296, [1955] 2 WLR 338, CA.
Application
On 23 February 1993, in proceedings commenced by Barking and Dagenham London Borough Council in September 1992 in the Barking and Dagenham Family Proceedings Court and subsequently transferred to the Family Division of the High Court seeking care orders to two boys, J and K, the children of the mother by different fathers, Hollis J granted interim care orders and discovery orders by consent and further ordered that medical reports be filed and served by each party. On 9 March 1993 Douglas Brown J made an order by consent for the disclosure of hospital records in respect of the children. On 12 March the mother applied for Hollis J’s order of 23 February 1993 and Douglas Brown J’s order of 9 March 1993 to be amended so that she be required to file and serve the reports of named doctors only if she intended to rely on them. The application was opposed by the guardian ad litem and the father of one of the boys. The application was heard and judgment was given in chambers. The case is reported by permission of Douglas Brown J. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Jane Probyn (instructed by Moss & Coleman, Hornchurch) for the local authority.
Paul Rippon (instructed by Sternberg Reed Taylor & Gill, Barking) for the mother.
Anne Bradwell (instructed by Lillywhite Williams & Co, Dagenham) for K’s father.
Lesley Carter (instructed by Hatten Jewers & Mepham, Basildon) for J’s father.
Cheryl Williams (instructed by Gary Jacobs & Co, Chadwell Heath) for the guardian ad litem.
13 July 1993. The COURT OF JUSTICE delivered the following judgment.
DOUGLAS BROWN J. I have before me for directions a case which is due to be heard on 22 March with an estimate of length of ten days. Ideally the judge to hear this matter should be giving these directions, but such a judge is not available and so it falls to me to hear the matter.
Today’s hearing was ordered by Hollis J on 23 February 1993, when he gave directions and made orders by consent, and I will refer to the terms of those orders shortly.
The case concerns two little boys, K who is six (he was born on 7 October 1986) and J who is two and a half (born on 26 October 1990). Their mother is Mrs B. They have different fathers. The proceedings began in the Barking and Dagenham Family Proceedings Court in September 1992 and were transferred almost immediately to the Principal Registry of the Family Division.
In the proceedings Barking and Dagenham London Borough Council apply for care orders in respect of both children. I need only mention in outline the nature of the case. There are serious concerns by social workers and doctors as
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to the physical safety and emotional well-being of the children. There have been frequent admissions to hospital of both children. In J’s case he was admitted with a condition which was said to be life threatening. The local authority’s case is that this is yet another instance of Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy. As I understand it, it is the mother’s care for the children that is to be examined.
The evidence will be concerned not only with these two children but with a third child, the mother’s child, C, who died in 1988 aged five months in what could only be described as ‘suspicious circumstances’. An allegation will be made that she was poisoned by the ingestion of salt.
When the matter was before Hollis J he continued interim care orders and made orders by consent as to the evidence. He ordered that the evidence of a social worker and the mother be filed by and served by 9 March. On the same date he ordered that medical reports be filed and served, and it is that order which has given rise to this contested application before me today. The reports which were ordered to be filed by 9 March were those of a paediatrician, and a report from a renowned expert on Munchausen’s syndrome. Both of those reports were commissioned by the local authority. Then there were three named doctors who were going to report on behalf of the mother: a consultant psychiatrist, a consultant paediatrician and a pathologist. There will also be a report from a consultant psychiatrist instructed by the guardian.
The order, without apparent qualification, was therefore in mandatory terms that each party served the named doctors’ reports by 9 March. On 9 March application was made to me as the applications judge (very late in the day, I must say) for orders for disclosure of hospital records from six hospitals in respect of the two children and C. That order was made by consent and today, by consent, on the application of the mother two further hospitals were added to that list.
Today Mr Rippon for the mother, who did not appear before Hollis J, asked in effect that the order be amended by the addition of these words:
‘That the mother file and serve the reports of the three doctors [and then, dealing with the position over the hospital records] no later than three days after receipt of the hospital records by them if [and these are the crucial words he seeks to add] the mother intends to rely on them.’
Miss Bradwell for K’s father and the guardian ad litem oppose this amendment of the order. The other parties are neutral, including the local authority. Mr Rippon makes his submission in this way. The reports are, he said, governed by legal professional privilege and the mother cannot be forced to disclose them against her will. There was a misunderstanding between counsel as to what should or should not have been in the order and there was not clear waiver of the legal professional privilege before Hollis J. Miss Williams for the guardian, who was not present on 23 February, took the waiver point but both Miss Bradwell and Miss Probyn for the local authority who were there, both say from their knowledge of discussions in and out of court that it would be unfair and wrong for me to conclude that there had been any deliberate waiver. Today I have no other material on which to decide the question of waiver and I assume, for the purposes of this decision, that there was no waiver.
In these circumstances, says Mr Rippon, the law is clear. Medical reports made on behalf of a party to litigation on the advice of legal advisers are
Page 62 of [1993] 4 All ER 59
privileged documents and, in the absence of waiver, no order for disclosure can be made. He relied on Causton v Mann Egerton (Johnsons) Ltd [1974] 1 All ER 453, [1974] 1 WLR 162. He drew my attention in particular to the judgment of Roskill LJ, who, in the course of his judgment, made reference to the passage from the judgment of Lord Denning MR in Re Saxton (decd), Johnson v Saxton [1962] 3 All ER 92 at 94–95, [1962] 1 WLR 968 at 972, where he said:
‘The court would not order the report of either expert to be shown to the other side before the trial. That could only be done by agreement. This is the familiar practice in all cases where experts are called, such as patent cases and Factory Act cases (where engineers are employed) or personal injury cases (where doctors are employed). The reports of experts are often exchanged by agreement, but no compulsion on either side is exercised; see Worrall v. Reich ([1955] 1 All ER 363, [1955] 1 QB 296). The reason is because, to our way of thinking, the expert should be allowed to give his report fully and frankly to the party who employs him, with all its strength and weakness, and not be made to offer it beforehand as a hostage to the opponent, lest he take unfair advantage of it. In short, it is one of our notions of a fair trial that, except by agreement, one side is not entitled to see the proofs of the other side’s witnesses.’ (Lord Denning MR’s emphasis.)
Mr Rippon referred to other passages in the judgment, which I do not need to refer to, which carry the matter really no further. He properly drew my attention to Re A (minors: disclosure of material) [1991] 2 FLR 473, a decision of Johnson J expressed to be obiter where the facts are rather similar to the present case. The judge in that case drew a distinction between ordinary litigation where the rule illustrated in Causton v Mann Egerton (Johnsons) Ltd applied and wardship cases. Because the jurisdiction in wardship was parental, administrative and non-adversarial in character, there was, at any rate in legal theory, an unrestricted jurisdiction to do whatever was necessary for the welfare of the ward. That included the power in appropriate cases to override legal professional privilege. The power should only be exercised rarely and only when the court is satisfied, and conducting a balancing exercise, that it was necessary for it to be exercised in order to achieve the best interests of the child’s welfare.
Mr Rippon made three submissions about that case. First of all, it was a decision obiter; secondly, that I am not sitting in wardship and the administrative and paternal aspects of wardship have not been transferred to the Children Act jurisdiction. The decision of Johnson J, if correct, has no application when the judge is concerned with a Children Act application. Thirdly, if there was jurisdiction to override legal professional privilege this was not a case where it should be done. The reports now available to the mother were interim reports and were made without reference to the hospital records and took the form of comments on the doctors’ reports available and a report on C available only recently from a paediatric pathologist. It was not necessary for the child’s welfare for limited reports such as these to be disclosed when there would be available reports from doctors who had had access to all the material, and in any event the guardian ad litem had stated her intention of seeking to call these three doctors if the mother did not.
Miss Bradwell accepted that there was an element of unreality about her insistence on seeing the mother’s doctors’ reports in the light of the guardian ad
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litem’s stated intention. She said that K’s father had a particular interest in knowing the conclusion, albeit provisional, of the consultant psychiatrist as to whether the mother could be a danger to a child in the future. She relied on the view of Johnson J of the law in Re A (minors: disclosure of material) and argued that it was necessary for the father and for all parties, and the court, to see these two reports. She accepted that, apart from Johnson J’s decision, she could not point to a children’s case which decided that legal professional privilege could be overridden. She referred me to two cases which she said were strongly analogous. The first was Re M (a minor) (disclosure of material) [1990] 2 FLR 36 in the Court of Appeal, which was a wardship case dealing with discovery of social work records and similar documents which were held to be in a special category of immunity from disclosure from the welfare aspect. There was, however, no absolute rule against disclosure. She also referred to Re C (a minor) (evidence: confidential information) [1991] 2 FLR 478. It is convenient, I think, if I read the headnote ([1991] 2 FLR 478):
‘The mother of a child handed her, 4 days after birth, to a social worker for adoption. The local authority placed the child with prospective adopters. Adoption proceedings, which had the support of the local authority and the guardian ad litem, were commenced. On the day before the hearing, the mother withdrew her consent. The applicants subsequently served on the mother an affidavit sworn by the mother’s former general practitioner, deposing to her medical condition. The judge was asked to rule on the preliminary issue of whether the doctor’s evidence should be admitted. The mother contended that the doctor’s evidence was inadmissible on the ground that, by volunteering the evidence, the doctor was in breach of the duty of confidentiality owed to her patient and there was a public interest in preserving the confidentiality of doctor and patient. The judge decided that the doctor’s evidence was relevant and material and therefore should be admitted. The mother appealed. Held—dismissing the appeal—where, in adoption proceedings, the mother of a child unreasonably withheld her consent, the public interest in the restricted disclosure, in furtherance of the child’s best interests, of relevant and material confidential information concerning the mother’s medical condition might, having regard to the special circumstances, prevail over the public interest in the need to preserve confidentiality between a doctor and her patient.'
In my judgment this mother, in the absence of waiver, is not bound to disclose medical reports obtained by her solicitor unless she wishes to do so, and I will amend the order to add the words suggested by Mr Rippon. It may be (and I express no concluded view as to the correctness of Johnson J’s decision in Re A (minors: disclosure of material)) that in wardship proceedings there is power to order disclosure of material governed by legal professional privilege. Children Act proceedings are not wardship proceedings. They are not paternal, they are not administrative and they are not in reality non-adversarial, although they should be conducted in a non-adversarial spirit. Johnson J’s justification for the view he took, based in part on Re M (a minor) (disclosure of material) was that he would have been exercising the wide powers of the wardship judge. Those powers are not available to me giving interlocutory directions on a s 31 care order application.
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Miss Bradwell argued that the welfare paramountcy principle was common to both wardship and to the Children Act 1989, and so it is, but the justification for taking the highly unusual step of overriding legal professional privilege was the particular nature of the wardship jurisdiction which has not been inherited by the Children Act jurisdiction. Children Act proceedings are adversarial in the sense that each party is entitled to be heard and to challenge opposing evidence by cross-examination and entitled to representation by an advocate. In this context I refer to the judgment of Roskill LJ in Causton v Mann Egerton (Johnsons) Ltd [1974] 1 All ER 453 at 460, [1974] 1 WLR 162 at 170:
‘As counsel for the defendants said, so long as we have an adversary system, a party is entitled not to produce documents which are properly protected by privilege if it is not to his advantage to produce them, and even though their production might assist his adversary if his adversary or his solicitor were aware of their contents and might lead the court to a different conclusion from that to which the court would come in ignorance of their existence. Some may regret this; but the law has always allowed it and it is not for us to change the law in this respect.’
I respectfully agree, and if it be the case that the court ought to have the power to direct disclosure of legal professionally privileged documents in children’s cases then it will have to be given that power by legislation, in my judgment. With respect to Miss Bradwell, the two authorities that she referred to, Re M (a minor: disclosure of material) and Re C (a minor) (evidence: confidential information), are not cases of legal professional privilege which stand in a very special class so far as immunity is concerned. If I had the power, I would not exercise it in this case for the reasons advanced by Mr Rippon.
In the result the application to amend the order will be granted.
Application to amend order granted.
Bebe Chua Barrister.
R v Merseyside Coroner, ex parte Carr
[1993] 4 All ER 65
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Judiciary
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL LJ AND MANTELL J
Hearing Date(s): 14, 28 MAY 1993
Coroner – Inquest – Jury – Summoning of jurors – Jury empanelled from jurors from Crown Court – Jurors not summoned by warrant – Whether jury properly summoned – Whether proceedings a nullity – Coroners Act 1988, s 8 – Coroners Rules 1984, rr 44, 45, 46, 48.
The applicant was the widow of the deceased, who had died shortly after returning home from hospital treatment. An inquest into the death was opened, evidence as to identity was taken and the inquest was then adjourned for further inquiries. Several months later the inquest resumed without a jury, but counsel for the deceased’s family submitted that the case should be heard with a jury in accordance with s 8(3)(d)a of the Coroners Act 1988. The coroner accepted that submission but as no jury had been summoned and he did not wish to adjourn because all the necessary witnesses were present a jury of nine persons was obtained from the pool of jurors at the Crown Court nearby. The summoning of the jury in those circumstances meant that the jurors were not summoned by warrant as required by s 8(2)(a) of the 1988 Act and r 44b of the Coroners Rules 1984 and written summonses were not sent to the jurors as required by rr 45c and 46d of the 1984 rules. The coroner began to hear evidence but subsequently adjourned the inquest at the request of the deceased’s family. He was later informed that one of the original nine jurors could not attend the resumed hearing. At the resumed hearing counsel for the deceased’s family submitted that the hearing should not continue because (i) the original jury had not been lawfully summoned, thus making the previous proceedings a nullity, and (ii) the coroner had no power to continue with a jury consisting of only eight of the original nine jurors. The coroner rejected those submissions. The deceased’s family applied for judicial review of his decision.
Held – The procedures for the summoning of coroners’ juries prescribed by the 1988 Act and the 1984 rules were not merely directory but mandatory. The fact that r 48e of the 1984 rules made special provision to cover the informal summoning of jurors to make up a jury which was incomplete made it impossible to construe the legislation as including an implied power allowing a coroner to summon a jury by informal oral communication. Furthermore, there was no power to summon a jury informally under common law. It followed, therefore, that the jury had not been lawfully summoned and the proceedings at the inquest were a nullity and did not constitute a lawful tribunal. Accordingly, an order of certiorari would issue quashing the coroner’s decision to proceed with the inquest and a declaration granted that the proceedings were a nullity (see p 73 b to e h j, post).
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Per curiam. A coroner has the right to discharge a juror and to continue an inquest provided the number of jurors does not fall below the minimum required of seven, and the discharge of a single juror does not necessarily require the coroner to start proceedings again with a freshly empanelled jury (see p ••• and p 73 f to j, post).
Notes
For coroners’ juries, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1081–1089, and for cases on the subject, see 13 Digest (Reissue) 173–174, 1460–1473.
For the Coroners Act 1988, s 8, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 559.
For the Coroners Rules 1984, rr 44, 45, 46, 48, see 5 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments 350, 351.
Case referred to in judgments
R v Solomon [1957] 3 All ER 497, [1958] 1 QB 203, [1957] 3 WLR 915, CCA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
R v Dunne (1838) Craw & D Abr C 535, Ir Assizes.
R v East Kent Coroner, ex p Spooner (1987) 88 Cr App R 10, DC.
R v Edwards (1812) Russ & Ry 224, 168 ER 772, CCR.
R v Ferrand (1819) 3 B & Ald 260, 106 ER 659.
R v Hambery [1977] 3 All ER 561, [1977] QB 924, CA.
R v Ingham (1864) 5 B & S 257, 122 ER 827.
R v Scalbert (1794) 2 Leach 620, 168 ER 412, Assizes.
R v Stukely (1701) 12 Mod Rep 493, 88 ER 1469.
R v Yorkshire Coroner (1863) 9 LT 424.
Rayan, Re (1983) 148 JP 569, DC.
Application for judicial review
Lynda Carr, the widow of Michael Carr, applied with the leave of Auld J granted on 3 June 1992 for judicial review by way of (i) an order of certiorari to quash the decision of HM Coroner for the County of Merseyside (Liverpool District) dated 9 April 1992 refusing the application made by the applicant for the jury empanelled on 26 February 1991 to be to discharged and the inquest into the death of Michael Carr opened with a new jury, (ii) an order of mandamus requiring the coroner to open a fresh inquest with a new jury summoned in accordance with the Coroners Act 1988 and the Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552 and (iii) declarations that the proceedings before the jury then empanelled were a nullity, that a coroner in summoning a jury had to act in accordance with the provisions set out in s 8(2)(a) of the 1984 rules, that a jury summoned in accordance with the provisions of the Juries Act 1974 did not satisfy the mandatory requirements of s 8(2)(a) and that a coroner had no power under statute or at common law to discharge a single juror without discharging the whole jury. The facts are set out in the judgment of Neill LJ.
Michael Powers (instructed by Jack Thornley, Ashton under Lyme) for the applicant.
Christopher Alldis (instructed by Paul F Taylor, Liverpool) for the coroner.
Cur adv vult
Page 67 of [1993] 4 All ER 65
28 May 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
NEILL LJ. This is an application by Mrs Linda Carr, the widow of Michael Carr, for judicial review to quash the decision of HM Coroner for the County of Merseyside (Liverpool District) dated 9 April 1992 refusing the application made on behalf of Mrs Carr to discharge the jury empanelled on 26 February 1991. In addition the applicant seeks the following further relief: (1) an order of mandamus requiring the coroner to start a fresh inquest with a new jury summoned in accordance with the provisions of the Coroners Act 1988 and the Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552; (2) a declaration that the proceedings before the jury empanelled on 26 February 1991 were a nullity; (3) a declaration that a coroner in summoning a jury must act in accordance with the statutory provisions set out in s 8(2)(a) of the 1988 Act and the 1984 rules; (4) a declaration that a jury summoned in accordance with the provisions of the Juries Act 1974, does not satisfy the mandatory requirements of the statutory provisions referred to in the 1988 Act and the 1984 rules; (5) a declaration that a coroner has no power under statute or common law to discharge a single juror without discharging the whole jury.
The application is made pursuant to leave granted by Auld J dated 3 June 1992.
Until his death on Friday, 20 July 1990 Mr Michael Carr was the member of Parliament for the Bootle constituency. On the evening of 20 July Mr Carr was taken ill at a meeting. An ambulance was summoned and Mr Carr went in the ambulance to Walton Hospital, where he received treatment in the casualty department. After treatment Mr Carr was taken home by taxi. Within a few minutes of his arrival at home, however, he suffered a further attack and shortly afterwards he died.
On 25 July 1990 an inquest into the death of Mr Michael Carr was opened by Mr Stanley Barter, HM Coroner for the County of Merseyside. Evidence as to identity was taken and the inquest was then adjourned for further inquiries.
On 26 February 1991 the inquest was resumed without a jury. At the resumed hearing the family of the deceased were represented by counsel. In addition the following were also represented by counsel: (a) the South Sefton Health Authority, (b) Dr Michael Underwood, who was a senior house officer on duty in the accident and emergency department at the hospital on the evening of 20 July 1990, and (c) Mr Philip Simms, who was the consultant in charge of the accident and emergency department on 20 July.
At that stage it was the coroner’s intention to continue to sit alone without a jury. Counsel for the deceased’s family submitted, however, that the case should be heard with a jury by reason of the provisions of s 8(3)(d) of the 1988 Act. The coroner accepted this submission and decided that a jury should be empanelled. At that stage, however, no jury had been summoned because the coroner had intended to resume the inquest sitting alone and he had received no prior notice of any application that the hearing should continue with a jury.
The coroner was concerned that, if the matter was adjourned, a considerable time would elapse before a mutually convenient date could be found for a resumption of the inquest. In addition he had in mind the fact that all the necessary witnesses were present. The coroner therefore decided to give instructions that a jury should be obtained from the pool of jurors in waiting at the Liverpool Crown Court, which was nearby. A message was sent to the chief clerk of the Crown Court and as a result a number of jurors in waiting were sent across from the Crown Court to the coroner’s court.
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At 2 pm on 26 February 1991 the inquest was resumed. By then a jury of nine persons had been empanelled and sworn before the coroner. These jurors had not been summoned by warrant as prescribed by s 8(2)(a) of the 1988 Act. Furthermore a warrant had not been issued for the summoning of the jurors in accordance with r 44 of the 1984 rules nor had notices in writing been sent to the individual jurors in accordance with rr 45 and 46 of those rules. The simple fact is that no one noticed that the correct procedure had not been followed. No doubt all those present including the legal representatives took the view that the coroner’s action was an eminently sensible practical step to take in the circumstances.
The coroner continued to hear evidence on the afternoon of 26 February and again on 27 February and 11 and 12 March 1991. On 12 March, however, it was submitted by counsel for the deceased’s family that the inquest should be further adjourned so that the evidence that had been given could be drawn to the attention of the Director of Public Prosecutions. Counsel based his submissions on r 28(1) of the 1984 rules, which provides:
‘If during the course of an inquest evidence is given from which it appears to the coroner that the death of the deceased is likely to be due to an offence within Rule 26(3) [in this case the offence suggested to be relevant was, it seems, manslaughter] and that a person might be charged with such an offence, then the coroner, unless he has been previously notified by the Director of Public Prosecutions that adjournment is unnecessary, shall adjourn the inquest for fourteen days or for such longer period as he may think fit and send to the Director particulars of that evidence.’
At that stage the coroner adjourned the inquest until 10 June 1991.
In the event, however, the result of the inquiries made by the Director of Public Prosecutions was not made known to the coroner until 21 January 1992. In view of the delay the coroner had discussions with all the interested parties as to the procedure to be adopted. It was agreed that it would be appropriate to attempt to summon the original jury and that if a sufficient number were available the inquest should continue from where it had left off. After discussion the coroner fixed 9 April 1992 as the date for the resumption of the inquest.
On 25 March 1992 the coroner informed the representatives of all those interested that he proposed to sit again at 10.30 am on 9 April, when the coroner’s officer would produce the letter from the Director of Public Prosecutions in which he had communicated his decision not to take proceedings for manslaughter. The coroner stated that he intended to give each juror a complete transcript of the proceedings to date and that he would spend the first day of the resumed hearing on reminding the jury of the evidence so far given. He said that it was his intention to allow the jurors to take the transcripts home for further study.
At about the end of March 1992, however, the coroner was informed that one of the original nine jurors would not be able to attend the resumed hearing. A few days later, on 6 April, the coroner was further informed that counsel for the deceased’s family intended to submit when the inquest was resumed on 9 April that the hearing should not continue because (a) the original jury had not been lawfully summoned, so the proceedings on 26 and 27 February and 11 and 12 March 1991 were a nullity, and (b) the coroner had no power to continue with a jury consisting of only eight of the original nine jurors.
On 9 April 1992 the coroner heard the submissions advanced on behalf of the family. These submissions were not supported by counsel for the other parties.
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At the conclusion of the submissions the coroner rejected them and stated that had he been able to do so he would have arranged to continue the inquest with the existing jury. Counsel for the family, however, had already intimated that if his submissions were unsuccessful he would apply to the High Court for a judicial review. Accordingly the coroner felt obliged to grant a further adjournment.
With this introduction I can now turn to consider the principal submissions which were put before the court.
The case for the applicant
In the course of the hearing in this court counsel for the applicant, as well as counsel for the respondent, provided the court with a great deal of interesting and helpful material relating to the history of the coroner’s office and of the legislation which in the main has separate provisions for, on the one hand, jurors in criminal courts and, on the other hand, jurors in coroner’s courts. Both counsel are experts in this branch of the law. In the end, however, it is possible to summarise the main arguments quite shortly.
The case for the applicant was developed on the following lines.
(1) On 26 February 1991 the coroner accepted the submissions made on behalf of the deceased’s family that he should proceed to summon a jury before resuming the inquest. The submission was based on s 8(3)(d) of the 1988 Act, which, so far as is material, provides:
‘If it appears to a coroner … in the course of an inquest begun without a jury, that there is reason to suspect … (d) that the death occurred in circumstances the continuance or possible recurrence of which is prejudicial to the health or safety of the public or any section of the public, he should proceed to summon a jury in the manner required by subsection (2) above.’
(2) It therefore became necessary for the coroner to summon a jury in the manner prescribed in s 8(2), which is in these terms:
‘In the case of an inquest with a jury—(a) a coroner shall summon by warrant not less than seven nor more than eleven persons to appear before him at a specified time and place, there to inquire as jurors into the death of the deceased; and (b) when not less than seven jurors are assembled, they should be sworn by or before the coroner diligently to inquire into the death of the deceased and to give a true verdict according to the evidence.’
(3) The 1984 rules (which remain in force under the 1988 Act) contain relevant and important provisions relating to the summoning of jurors. These are contained in Pt VII of the rules and include rr 44 to 46, which provide:
‘44. Subject to the provisions of these Rules, the person to whom the coroner’s warrant is issued under section 3 of the Act of 1887 [now s 8 of the 1988 Act] for the summoning of persons to attend as jurors at inquests shall have regard to the convenience of the persons summoned and to their respective places of residence, and in particular to the desirability of selecting jurors within reasonable daily travelling distance of the place where they are to attend.
‘45. Subject to the provisions of these Rules, jurors shall be summoned by notice in writing sent by post or delivered by hand and a notice shall be sent or delivered to a juror at his address as shown in the electoral register.
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‘46. A written summons sent or delivered to any person under Rule 45 shall be accompanied by a notice informing him—(a) of the effect of section 3A of the Act of 1887 [now s 9 of the 1988 Act] and Rules 51(1) and 52 [these provisions relate to the grounds for excusal from service]; and (b) that he may make representations to the appropriate officer with a view to obtaining the withdrawal of the summons, if for any reason he is not qualified for jury service, or wishes or is entitled to be excused.’
(4) In the present case this statutory procedure was not followed and accordingly the jury did not constitute part of a lawful tribunal. Counsel for the applicant prepared for us a useful table showing the differences between the procedure which is prescribed under the Juries Act 1974 for the summoning of juries in the Crown Court and the procedure prescribed under the 1988 Act for coroners’ juries, though it may be noted that the provisions relating to eligibility to serve as a juror are the same under the two statutes: see s 1 of the Juries Act 1974 and s 9 of the Coroners Act 1988.
(5) The 1984 rules contain a special rule to cover the summoning of jurors in exceptional circumstances. Thus r 48 provides:
‘If it appears to the coroner that a jury will be, or probably will be, incomplete, the coroner may, if he thinks fit, require any persons who are in, or in the vicinity of, the place of the inquest to be summoned (without any written notice) for jury service up to the number needed (after allowing for any who may not be qualified under section 3A of the Act of 1887 [now s 9 of the 1988 Act] and for excusals) to make up such number.’
(6) The power to summon a tales jury conferred by r 48 is analogous to the power conferred by s 6(1) of the Juries Act 1974 in relation to jurors who are to serve in the Crown Court, the High Court or the county court. It is clear, however, from the decision of the Court of Criminal Appeal in R v Solomon [1957] 3 All ER 497, [1958] 1 QB 203 that at common law a tales could only properly be prayed to make up a jury which was incomplete. As Lord Goddard CJ explained ([1957] 3 All ER 497 at 498, [1958] 1 QB 203 at 207): ‘… you cannot have a complete jury of talesmen.' It is to be noted that the word ‘incomplete’ appears in r 48.
(7) The decision in R v Solomon further established that where a jury has not been lawfully summoned the trial is a nullity. By parity of reasoning the hearings held in February and March 1991 were also a nullity.
(8) At common law a trial judge had power to discharge a jury if one juror became ill or was otherwise unable to continue, but in that event a new jury had to be sworn and the trial had to begin again. By s 16(1) of the Juries Act 1974 provision is now made for the continuation of a criminal trial where a member of the jury dies or is discharged. Section 16(1) is in these terms:
‘Where in the course of a trial of any person for an offence on indictment any member of the jury dies or is discharged by the court whether as being through illness incapable of continuing to act or for any other reason, but the number of its members is not reduced below nine, the jury shall nevertheless (subject to subsections (2) and (3) below) be considered as remaining for all the purposes of that trial properly constituted, and the trial shall proceed and a verdict may be given accordingly.’
(9) There is no provision in the 1988 Act or in the 1984 rules similar to s 16(1) of the Juries Act 1974. A coroner can discharge a juror but if he does so he must
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discharge the rest of the jury too and start again. A coroner has no power, either statutory or at common law, to continue with an inquest if one of the jury dies or is taken ill or has to be discharged for some other reason.
(10) In addition it was submitted that the coroner’s decision to continue was unreasonable in the circumstances. The inquest had been adjourned for about 13 months and even with the precautions which the coroner intended to take it was unreasonable to expect the jury to reach a verdict on evidence which they had heard so long before. Furthermore, the unreasonableness of the decision was aggravated by the fact that additional and critical evidence still remained to be heard.
(11) It was therefore submitted that the coroner was obliged to summon a fresh jury in accordance with the provisions of the 1988 Act and the 1984 rules and to hear that part of the inquest which was to be heard with a jury afresh.
The case for the coroner
It was accepted on behalf of the coroner that the jury had not been summoned in accordance with the provisions of the 1988 Act or of the 1984 rules. It was further accepted that the coroner could not rely on r 48, which entitled a coroner to summon a tales jury in exceptional circumstances.
It was argued, however, that in effect the only defect in procedure relied upon was the omission to serve certain prescribed pieces of paper on the jurors. In contradistinction to R v Solomon (where the clerk of the peace had no jurisdiction to summon a jury) the jury had been summoned by the authority of the coroner. It was the coroner’s officer, acting on the instructions of the coroner, who had secured the attendance of the jurors. Furthermore, it was common ground that the jurors, who had been lawfully summoned for service in the Crown Court, were persons who were qualified to act as members of the coroner’s jury. In addition the coroner had explained to the jury the reasons why they had been asked to attend.
It was therefore submitted that although the jury had not been summoned in accordance with the statutory procedure they formed part of a properly constituted tribunal. At common law a coroner could summon a jury informally and the lack of formality in this case was not a sufficient reason for declaring the proceedings in February and March 1991 a nullity.
As to the discharge of a juror it was submitted that a coroner had always had power to take such action. Under the Coroners Act 1887 a coroner was required to summon not less than 12 nor more than 23 ‘good and lawful men’ and to swear as jurors not less than 12. Under the 1887 Act the verdict had to be of at least 12 jurors: see s 4(5). The number of jurors to be summoned was later reduced and it is now provided by s 8(2) of the Coroners Act 1988 that ‘the coroner shall summon … not less than seven nor more than eleven persons’ and that not less than seven jurors are to be sworn. The purpose of summoning a larger number of jurors than were in fact needed for the purpose of giving a lawful verdict was in part at least as a precaution against the possibility that one or more of the jurors who were sworn might fall ill.
It was therefore submitted that the coroner was correct to decide to continue. In the circumstances the original jury had been lawfully summoned and the coroner was entitled to continue with the eight remaining jurors. Although a long interval had elapsed the coroner was entitled in the exercise of his discretion, and after taking proper precautions to ensure that the jury were reminded of what had been given in evidence on the previous occasions, to decide to continue with the remainder of the original jury.
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Whether the jury at the inquest in February and March 1991 constituted a lawful tribunal
It seems clear that at one time it was the practice of some coroners at least to assemble a jury informally from among those who were present when he arrived in the town or village where the death had occurred. Indeed for a long time no clear distinction was drawn between the role of juror and the role of witness. J Atkinson writing in 1776 (Considerations on Some of the Laws Relating to the Office of a Coroner) made this comment about juries at coroners’ inquests:
‘A particular precept to the constable, or other officer, for the summoning of a jury, is very seldom issued by coroners. They generally repair to the place where they are to make their inquiries without any preparation, and after their arrival muster a jury out of the idle and vagrant which they can first lay hold of, or accept such as are presented by the friends of the parties without any regard to their qualifications or otherwise: the number is the only object sought.’
Schedule 3 to the Coroners Act 1887 discloses that before that consolidated Act was passed much of the law relating to coroners was contained in statutes dating back to the time of Edward I. Reforms were introduced in the middle of the eighteenth century to improve the remuneration of coroners and other reforms were introduced during the nineteenth century. It seems clear, however, that since the enactment of the 1887 Act the procedure for the summoning of jurors at coroners’ inquests has been governed by statute. It is true that by s 45(5) of the 1887 Act it was provided that ‘any principle or rule of law, or established jurisdiction, practice, or procedure, or existing usage, franchise, liberty, or custom, shall, notwithstanding the repeal of any enactment by this Act, remain in full force’, but these words were preceded by a qualification ‘Save in so far as is inconsistent with this Act’.
In the course of argument we were referred to the relevant extracts in the editions of Jervis on Office and Duties of Coroners (1st edn, 1829; 2nd edn, 1854; 3rd edn, 1866) preceding the 1887 Act, the first edition having been written by Sir John Jervis himself. I have been unable to discover, however, in any of these editions any reference to any established practice or procedure existing in 1887 which empowered a coroner to summon a jury otherwise than by some formal means.
In the first edition of Jervis p 26 it was stated that it was the duty of the coroner to cause the jury to be summoned. The edition contained a precedent of the warrant to be addressed to, among others, the constables and beadles of the various parishes. It also included a precedent for the summons to be addressed to the individual juror. Later editions followed the same pattern.
When one turns to s 3 of the 1887 Act the statutory obligation placed on the coroner is quite clear. Section 3 provided that on the happening of one of the specified events—
‘the coroner … shall, as soon as practicable, issue his warrant for summoning not less than twelve nor more than twenty-three good and lawful men to appear before him at a specified time and place, there to inquire as jurors touching the death of such a person as aforesaid.’
This section (which was later amended as to the number of persons to be summoned) was in due course replaced by s 8(2)(a) of the 1988 Act but it is to be noted that the language used is similar. It is further to be noted that when
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amendments were made to the law by the Coroners (Amendment) Act 1926 relating to the circumstances in which an inquest had to be held with a jury, s 13(2) of the 1926 Act provided that ‘he [the coroner] shall proceed to summon a jury in the manner required by the Coroners Act, 1887’.
I recognise the force of the argument advanced on behalf of the coroner that the jury were summoned with his authority and that all that was lacking were certain formal ‘pieces of paper’. I have therefore had to consider whether the requirements of the 1988 Act and the 1984 rules can be treated as directory rather than mandatory and whether in the circumstances the summoning of suitably qualified jurors by the coroner could be treated as a sufficient compliance with the statutory requirements. I have come to the conclusion, however, that the procedure prescribed by the 1988 Act and the 1984 rules cannot be regarded as merely directory. The procedure is concerned with the method whereby a tribunal of coroner and jury is to be set up. The formalities which have to be observed are therefore of importance. Furthermore, the fact that r 48 of the 1984 rules makes special provision to cater for exceptional circumstances makes it impossible to construe the legislation as including a further implied power given to the coroner to summon a jury merely by some informal oral communication. The position might have been different if it had been demonstrated to us that at the time of enactment of the 1887 Act a coroner still had a common law right to summon a jury informally, but there was no material before us on which we could be satisfied that such a power did in fact exist in 1887.
I have therefore come to the conclusion with reluctance that the proceedings at the inquest in February and March 1991 were a nullity. I can well understand the actions which the coroner took and it is to be remembered that no objection was raised at the time either on behalf of the applicant or anyone else. If the jury were not lawfully summoned they did not constitute a lawful tribunal and it follows that the proceedings before them were a nullity.
It therefore becomes unnecessary to consider the other submissions advanced on behalf of the applicant. It is my present view, however, that a coroner does have the right to discharge a juror and to continue an inquest provided the number of jurors does not fall below the minimum required. At common law the position in a criminal trial was different because a jury of 12 was required to give a lawful verdict and only 12 jurors were empanelled. Accordingly, if one juror could not continue, the remaining jurors were not sufficient in numbers to return a valid verdict. In coroners’ courts, however, it has been the practice to empanel a jury in excess of the minimum number who are required to return a verdict. Accordingly, I see no reason in principle why the discharge of a juror necessarily requires the coroner to start the proceedings again with a freshly empanelled jury. It is, however, unnecessary to reach a final decision on this matter.
I would grant the application for judicial review and invite argument as to the precise form of order.
MANTELL J. I agree and have nothing to add.
Order of certiorari granted to quash coroner’s decision of 9 April 1992 and declaration granted that proceedings before jury empanelled on 26 February 1991 were a nullity. Fresh inquest ordered before different coroner and with new jury summoned i n accordance with provisions of the Coroners Act 1988 and the Coroners Rules 1984.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Lord High Chancellor v Wright and another
[1993] 4 All ER 74
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Legal Aid and Advice
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): GARLAND J
Hearing Date(s): 19, 20, 21 MAY 1993
Legal aid – Criminal cases – Counsel’s fees – Determination – Matters to be considered – Fee paid to opposing counsel – Whether ‘other relevant information’ – Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (Costs) Regulations 1989, reg 9(1).
When determining counsel’s fees in a criminal case in the Crown Court the fee paid to counsel for the opposing party is ‘other relevant information’ within reg 9(1)a of the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (Costs) Regulations 1989 to which regard may be had. On their true construction the regulations are not restrictive (see p 81 a b f g, post).
Notes
For the determination of counsel’s fees for legal aid purposes in criminal proceedings, see Supplement to 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 985.
For the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (Costs) Regulations 1989, reg 9, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (1991 reissue) 66.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Bellas (March 1986, unreported), SC Taxing Office.
R v Herrington (9 April 1990, unreported), SC Taxing Office.
R v Kashoggi (5 April 1990, unreported), SC Taxing Office.
R v Kellard (6 February 1992, unreported), Crown Ct at Nottingham.
R v Pitcher (10 July 1978, unreported), SC Taxing Office.
R v Scott (27 April 1993, unreported), SC Taxing Office.
R v Wall (1992, unreported), Determining Officer.
R v Williamson (21 June 1990, unreported), SC Taxing Office.
Appeal
By an originating summons of appeal the Lord High Chancellor applied for an order that the decision of Master Prince contained in his certificate dated 5 May 1992 of his review of the taxation of the fees of the first and second respondents, Gerard Henry Wright QC and Nicholas Robert Johnson, payable under a legal aid order issued in respect of proceedings in the Crown Court at Liverpool in R v Geraghty, be set aside and redetermined on the basis that (1) in assessing the fees to be paid to leading and junior counsel under the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (Costs) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/343, a taxing master, redetermining officer, determining officer or other appropriate authority should not have regard to the amount or level of fees paid to counsel for the opposing party to the proceedings and (2) the fees to be considered should be looked at independently on the basis of what the appropriate authority considered reasonable for the work undertaken. The summons was heard in chambers but judgment was given by Garland J in open court. The facts are set out in the judgment.
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Richard Drabble (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Lord Chancellor.
Peter Birts QC (instructed by the General Council of the Bar) for the respondents.
Cur adv vult
21 May 1993. The following judgment was delivered.
GARLAND J. This is, of course, a judgment in open court on a matter argued in chambers. It is an appeal under reg 16(5) of the Legal Aid in Criminal and Care Proceedings (Costs) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/343, as amended, which are made by virtue of s 34 of the Legal Aid Act of 1988.
The central issue is whether or not, when determining the fees of counsel under the 1989 regulations, regard may be had to the fees paid to counsel for the opposing party to the proceedings, in this case prosecuting counsel instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service.
It is convenient to look first at the 1988 Act and the 1989 regulations. Section 34 of the 1988 Act empowers the Lord Chancellor to ‘make such regulations as appear to him necessary or desirable for giving effect to this Act or for preventing abuses of it’, including under sub-s (2)(e)—
‘provision for the remuneration and payment of the expenses of solicitors and counsel and for the courts, persons or bodies by whom, and the manner in which, any determinations which may be required for those purposes are to be made, reviewed or appealed …’
Subsection (9) requires the Lord Chancellor, in making regulations, to have regard among the matters which are relevant (and I should turn to the 1988 Act at this stage) to—
‘(a) the time and skill which it requires; (b) the general level of fee income arising from it; (c) the general level of expenses of barristers and solicitors which is attributable to it; (d) the number and general level of competence of barristers and solicitors undertaking it; (e) the effect of the regulations on the handling of the work; and (f) the cost to public funds of any provision made by the regulations.’
Subsection (10) provides that before making regulations for the purposes mentioned in the above subsection, the Lord Chancellor shall consult the General Council of the Bar and the Law Society.
Turning to the 1989 regulations, reg 4(1) provides:
‘Costs in respect of work done under a legal aid order shall be determined by the appropriate authority in accordance with these Regulations.’
The appropriate authority in the case of criminal proceedings in the Crown Court is an officer appointed by the Lord Chancellor (see reg 3 (1)(b)).
Regulation 4(2) requires the appropriate authority when determining costs, which includes solicitors’ fees and disbursements and counsel’s fees, to—
‘(a) take into account all the relevant circumstances of the case including the nature, importance, complexity or difficulty of the work and the time involved, and (b) allow a reasonable amount in respect of all work reasonably done.’
Regulation 8 requires counsel to submit a claim for fees for work done within three months of the conclusion of the proceedings and to draw the attention of
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the appropriate authority to any special circumstances. The words ‘of the case’ which occur elsewhere are not present in that regulation.
Regulation 9(1) provides:
‘The appropriate authority shall consider the claim, any further particulars, information or documents submitted by counsel under regulation 8 and any other relevant information and shall allow such work as appears to it to have been reasonably done.’
This defines and quantifies the relevant work. Paragraphs (2) and (3) deal with standard fees. Paragraph (4) sets out various items of work for which fees may be paid beyond the standard fees and para (5) deals generally with Crown Court proceedings for which standard fees are not payable. That I read so far as relevant:
‘In the case of proceedings in the Crown Court … the appropriate authority shall, except in relation to work for which a standard fee is allowed under paragraph (2), allow such fees in respect of such work as it considers reasonable in such amounts as it may determine in accordance with Part II of Schedule 2; provided that … (b) where it appears to the appropriate authority, taking into account all the relevant circumstances of the case, that owing to the exceptional circumstances of the case the amount payable by way of fees in accordance with Part II of Schedule 2 would not provide reasonable remuneration for some or all of the work it has allowed, it may allow such amount as appears to it to be reasonable remuneration for the relevant work.’
Part II of Sch 2 sets out levels of fees for various types of work by prescribing hourly rates and maxima. The last part of reg 9(5) goes beyond those maxima.
If counsel is dissatisfied with a determination in respect of fees other than standard fees in the Crown Court he may apply to the appropriate authority under reg 14(1) for a redetermination of the costs or review of the decision. If he is still dissatisfied he may appeal under reg 15 to the taxing master. This regulation provides for a possible intervention by the Lord Chancellor ‘With a view to ensuring that the public interest is taken into account’.
The taxing master, by para 12, has the same powers as the appropriate authority and can alter or confirm the redetermination appealed against.
Regulation 16(1) provides that an appellant under reg 15 who is dissatisfied with the decision of the taxing master can apply to the taxing master to certify a point of principle of general importance. If he does, the dissatisfied appellant may appeal further to a High Court judge but the Lord Chancellor becomes a respondent. Conversely, by para 5, where the Lord Chancellor is dissatisfied with the decision of a taxing master on appeal under reg 15, he may, if no appeal has been made by the solicitor or counsel under para 3, appeal to the High Court against that decision and the solicitor or counsel shall be a respondent to the appeal.
Then by para (7):
‘An appeal under paragraphs (3) and (5) shall be instituted by originating summons in the Queen’s Bench Division and shall be heard and determined by a single judge whose decision shall be final.’
Then finally para (8) provides:
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‘The judge shall have the same powers as the appropriate authority and a taxing master under these Regulations and may reverse, affirm or amend the decision appealed against or make such other order as he thinks fit.’
I therefore have wide powers under para 8 but also have very much in mind that I am the end of the appellate route.
The factual background is as follows. The respondents were instructed as leading and junior counsel to defend a young man called Geraghty, who with two others, Hewitt and Jones, faced a single count of conspiracy to rob. The conspiracy encompassed a series of robberies on people delivering to or collecting from cigarette vending machines. The offences were well planned. Weapons, including a firearm, were used, as were stolen vehicles, and victims were abducted and delivery vehicles hijacked. The stolen vehicles were all abandoned in places where detailed local knowledge was required in order to reach them in a vehicle. There were problems of identification both of persons and vehicles. Originally two other men, by name Mudd and Cowley, had been arrested and charged but they were not committed for trial.
Geraghty’s defence was cut-throat. He said he had been confused with Mudd, whom he named, and he also blamed Hewitt, who blamed him. The witness statements ran to 312 pages, with over 100 pages of additional evidence and the interviews amounted to 500 pages. There were eight separate interviews with Geraghty alone.
The trial began on 4 February 1991 and ran for 18 days. Hewitt was convicted; Jones was acquitted; the jury could not agree on a verdict in respect of Geraghty. The retrial began on 20 May and lasted six days. However, as Geraghty then stood alone the indictment was amended to include substantive counts of robbery and attempted robbery. Again the jury failed to agree and on 31 May 1991 the prosecution offered no evidence against him.
At the original trial both co-defendants were represented by leading and junior counsel, as was the Crown. The first respondent claimed a basic fee of £20,000 and refreshers of £400 a day. The appropriate authority determined a fee of £10,500 with refreshers of £360.
The first respondent was dissatisfied and sought a redetermination under reg 14. He submitted written material and made oral representations. He was by then aware that the fee allowed to Queen’s Counsel for the Crown was £20,000 with refreshers of £350. The junior for the Crown received two-thirds of his leader’s fee, which was of course more than the first respondent’s fee.
The representations made are summarised by the redetermining officer as follows:
‘1. A cut-throat defence was involved. Geraghty was attacked both by the Crown and co-defendants.
2. Greater fees were allowed to counsel for the Crown.
3. The different nature of the re-trial …’
And lastly some separate points made on behalf of the second respondent.
The redetermining officer accepted the first and third representations, rejected the second but nevertheless determined that the fee of £10,500 provided reasonable remuneration and that the claimed fee of £20,000 was excessive. He set out his reasons as follows:
‘The function of prosecution and defence are not identical. In any particular case there may well be factors requiring more or less work of either prosecution or defence counsel, which must properly be reflected in
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their remuneration. Since prosecution and defence remunerations are determined by separate authorities, the appropriate authority under the 1989 regulations has no access to the detailed considerations which lead to the actual amounts allowed to the prosecution. Any attempted comparison with the prosecution fees must therefore be highly unreliable. Moreover, it is the duty of the appropriate authority under the 1989 regulations to make its own determination. Whatever the fees allowed to prosecuting counsel, the appropriate authority cannot know that he would have allowed the same amount even if there were no differences between the structure of the arrangements under the two systems. To the extent that a determination which would otherwise have been made is changed to reflect the prosecution fees, the appropriate authority would be abdicating its responsibility under the 1989 regulations.’
Leading and junior counsel for the Crown were remunerated in accordance with the agreement between the Bar Counsel and the Crown Prosecution Service. This provides for standard fees in terms very similar to the 1989 regulations. It goes on to provide for premarked fees to be negotiated between counsel’s clerk and the Crown Prosecution Service but within bands set out in para 11. These are expressed to provide guidance on the range of fees within which the majority of brief and refresher fees will fall. It is recognised that in wholly exceptional cases it may be appropriate to depart from the range of guidance beyond the higher point. There are provisions for renegotiating a premarked fee if in the event the case was disposed of in such a way as to render the premarked fee inappropriate. In default of agreement, either party can refer the matter to a taxing master.
The third type of fee is assessed ex post facto. Prosecuting counsel’s fees were determined on this basis. £30,000 was asked for and £20,000 assessed. Again, in default of agreement, either party can refer the matter to a taxing master. The amount assessed for prosecuting counsel was far beyond the maxima in the premarked fee band.
Having failed to persuade the redetermining officer, the respondents appealed to the taxing master, Master Prince. He clearly attached considerable weight to the fact that junior counsel for the Crown received a higher brief fee than the first respondent and I turn briefly to his decision. He said:
‘Leading counsel also referred to the fact that he received by way of basic fee less than junior counsel for the prosecution. With regard to the last point there seems to me to be need for a cogent explanation for this. The trial involved three defendants and cutthroat defences and I am not aware of any very great differences in the cases against each of them. It seems to me that the argument which is often put forward in support of prosecution counsel’s fees when they are more than those allowed to defence counsel is that the task of prosecuting several defendants is more onerous than defending one. In my judgment, this case must have thrust upon Mr Wright a far heavier burden than that assumed by junior counsel for the prosecution.’
He then went on to consider the redetermining officer’s reasons and said:
‘The determining officer goes on to say that the function of prosecution and defence are not identical, and there may well be factors requiring more or less work of either prosecution or defence counsel, with all of which I agree. The determining officer goes on to say that the fees of prosecution
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and defence counsel are determined by separate authorities and that any attempted comparison with prosecution fees must be highly unreliable. I do not agree with this and in my view in serious cases, such as this one, it must be right when assessing counsel’s fees either for the prosecution or defence that regard should be had to fees assessed by the other authority. There may be differences of view but any considerable divergence ought to give rise to concern and a view taken as to the reason for such divergence.’
Mr Birts QC submitted that when Master Prince said that ‘regard should be had’ to fees assessed by the other authority he was overstating the case and that ‘regard may be had’ would more accurately reflect the situation. In the event, the first respondent’s brief fee was increased substantially.
Interestingly, we can see that this prompted leading counsel for the Crown to attempt to increase his £20,000 fee to £30,000 on the grounds that it ought to be double the first respondent’s.
After this lengthy preamble I turn to the issue. Mr Drabble for the Lord Chancellor submits quite simply, first, on the construction of the 1989 regulations the fee agreed by the Crown Prosecution Service is irrelevant: it is not a relevant circumstance of the case. A relevant circumstance of the case must go to the case itself, the work involved and the circumstances in which it is done. Regulation 4(2), which is inclusive, recites nature, importance, complexity, difficulty and time. Regulation 9(1) contemplates a special circumstance submitted under reg 8(5), together with further particulars, information, documents and any other relevant information, all of which may be considered when applying paras 2 and 5, both of which include the phrase ‘all the relevant circumstances of the case’, with the addition in para 5 of ‘the exceptional circumstances of the case’.
Alternatively, says Mr Drabble, it is wholly undesirable to have regard to fees paid to prosecuting counsel because the basis of those fees will not be known, what may or may not be included and how much work may have been involved. In any event, there is no machinery for exchanging information and offering comparisons between the legal aid schemes embodied in the 1989 regulations and the Bar/Crown Prosecution Service scheme. Further, regard should be had to facts and not to the opinions of others.
Mr Birts submits, first, that on the construction of the 1989 regulations a liberal construction is more consistent with sub-ss (9) and (10) of s 34 of the 1988 Act; that information about the fees of counsel for the Crown must be relevant circumstances and a fortiori special circumstances under reg 8(5) if there is an unexplained disparity or it will be encompassed by ‘further particulars, information or documents … and any other relevant information’ in reg 9(1).
Further, he said that in any event in assessing what is a reasonable amount the appropriate authority or a taxing master is entitled to draw upon all available information in applying his own skill and expertise. He further submits that unless the legislation clearly prohibits any reference to fees paid to counsel for the Crown the practice in recent years has been to look at them, albeit with caution, bearing in mind that they are assessed under a different scheme for different work, and that practice should not lightly be disturbed.
Expanding his arguments, Mr Birts pointed to the inclusive wording of the 1989 regulations and suggested that many matters not specifically mentioned are habitually taken into account, such as, first, counsel’s seniority, standing and expertise, second, any unusual burden or responsibility imposed by the nature of the case, third, the manner in which, particularly in a multi-party case, counsel for two or more defendants may operate as a team, and, fourth, the fact
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that counsel may be working away from chambers for a long time (he referred to the Britannia Park case, R v Kellard (6 February 1992, unreported)) and wholly unable to do any work outside the relevant case.
He also asked the court to consider what is in effect a head of public policy. Although the Lord Chancellor sets the level of remuneration and standard fees and Pt II, Sch 2, fees, these are nevertheless not wholly removed from the wider market. It is undesirable, he said, to create two disparate levels of public funding or to expect that regulations will continue to have regard to the number and general level of competence of legal representatives undertaking legal aid work and the effect of regulations on the handling of the work under s 34(9)(d) and (e) if there is a great disparity not only with other publicly-funded work but with the level of fees generally.
Would it be reasonable, he asks, for the Bar to insist on the observance of the cab rank rule in such circumstances? Why does s 34(10) require the Lord Chancellor to consult the Bar and the Law Society before making the regulations?
Finally, expanding his reasonable amount argument Mr Birts submits that the tenor of the 1989 regulations is basically very simple. One, determine the relevant items of work done, their extent and the circumstances in which they were done. Two, determine a reasonable remuneration. These assessments are made by the appropriate authority, redetermining officer or the taxing master as the case may be, who will look at the differing roles and burden of other defence counsel. Why should they not also look at Crown counsel’s remuneration as material on which to exercise their discretion? They will be astute to appreciate that his remuneration is assessed under a different scheme for different work and that many different considerations may apply. A large disparity may require investigation. The Crown Prosecution Service may have overpaid; the reverse may be the case.
So far as established practice is concerned, I was referred to the Taxing Officers Notes for Guidance (known as TONG) with the heading at para 36: ‘Comparing Prosecution and defence fees’. Counsel agreed that this is now out of date and goes back to the days when prosecution costs were awarded out of central funds and determined by the same court, although not by the same officer.
I was also referred to a number of decisions which I will summarise very briefly indeed. R v Pitcher (10 July 1978, unreported): a decision of the taxing master: fees paid to the prosecution should not be used as a guide when assessing the defence. R v Herrington (9 April 1990, unreported), a taxing master’s decision: look at the level of prosecution fees as affording some guidance but no more than guidance. In that case the discrepancy was too great. R v Kashoggi (5 April 1990, unreported), a taxing master’s decision: reference to prosecuting counsel’s fees should have alerted the determining officer to the fact that there was a wide disparity. R v Williamson (21 June 1990, unreported), a taxing master’s decision: prosecuting counsel’s fee is a factor appropriate to bear in mind when considering the level of fees to allow defence counsel. R v Bellas (March 1986, unreported), a taxing master’s decision, emphasises that different considerations may apply in assessing prosecuting counsel’s fees. R v Wall (1992, unreported) a determining officer’s decision: the value to be placed upon the fees of prosecuting counsel is a matter for the discretion of the determining officer in respect of each individual case. R v Scott (27 April 1993, unreported), a taxing master decision: comparison is of no value
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where burdens of prosecution and defence of one of many defendants may be very different.
I am indebted to counsel for the assistance they have afforded to the court. In my judgment, the 1989 regulations do not, on their true construction, preclude an appropriate authority, determining officer or a taxing master from looking at the fees paid to prosecuting counsel. The 1989 regulations are not restrictive. Prosecuting counsel’s fees are part of the material upon which the exercise of judicial discretion is based in determining reasonable remuneration or a reasonable amount.
With respect to Mr Birts’s argument, information submitted by counsel under reg 8 and any other relevant information under r 9(1) goes only to determining the qualifying work, not to pricing it under regs 4(2)(b) or 9(5)(b). I do not consider that it is necessary to pray in aid public policy: the 1989 regulations simply require a reasonable remuneration to be determined. Nor do I need to consider established practice. The decisions I have so briefly summarised, with the exception of R v Pitcher, point to the healthy and realistic use of material for the exercise of discretion. As Mr Birts put it in his skeleton argument: there is no reason why they (ie appropriate authorities, determining officers or taxing masters) should not know the amount of fees paid to an opposing party provided they first assess a reasonable fee in accordance with the regulations without reference to such fees, and, when they are known, then have regard to them and consider whether there is such disparity for which there is no explanation that it would be fair and reasonable to reconsider their own assessment; they will be astute to remember that prosecution fees are assessed by others in respect of different duties and burdens and to take those matters into account.
The taxing master was, in my view, entitled to take prosecuting counsel’s fees into account. On the face of his decision, he placed over-much emphasis on them. However, I decline to disturb his reassessment because in the particular circumstances of the case, in my view the defence of Geraghty involved a heavy and complex burden, although a somewhat lesser one than that borne by the prosecution. That alone justifies Master Prince’s reassessment. In my view he came to a correct answer notwithstanding that he overemphasised the disparity point, but he was perfectly entitled to look at that disparity.
Appeal dismissed.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Quigly v Chief Land Registrar
[1993] 4 All ER 82
Categories: LAND; Land Registration
Court: COURT OF APPEAL , CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BALCOMBE, LEGGATT AND HOFFMANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 16 JUNE 1993
Land registration – Register of title – Inspection – Documents in registrar’s custody not referred to in register – Index of proprietors’ names – Refusal of inspection – Appeal – Whether right of appeal against registrar’s refusal to allow inspection of documents in registrar’s custody but not referred to in register – Whether right of appeal against registrar’s refusal to search proprietors’ index – Land Registration Act 1925, s 112(2)(b) – Land Registration Rules 1925, rr 9(2), 298, 299.
The Chief Land Registrar refused the appellant’s application under s 112(2)(b)a of the Land Registration Act 1925 and r 9(2)b of the Land Registration Rules 1925 to inspect the index of proprietors’ names on the land register to ascertain the property holdings of various companies in which he had no interest. The appellant appealed to the judge, who dismissed the appeal on the ground that the court had no jurisdiction to hear an appeal from a decision of the registrar in the exercise of an administrative decision. The appellant appealed to the Court of Appeal, contending that the registrar’s decision had been made under r 298(d)c of the 1925 rules and that he had a right of appeal from the decision under r 299d of those rules, which provided that any person aggrieved by ‘an order or decision of the Registrar’ could appeal to the court.
Held – Rule 299 of the 1925 rules only gave a right of appeal from an order or decision under r 298, which was in the nature of a judicial power exercisable by the registrar, and not a general right of appeal from every decision of the registrar including purely administrative decisions. A request for inspection of documents under s 112 of the 1925 Act was not a request in respect of any of the matters in r 298 and in particular it was not an application made in any registration ‘or other proceeding’ in the registry within r 298(d) since the application itself could not be the ‘other proceeding’ in which the application was made. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 85 b to f h to p 86 c, post).
Decision of Millett J [1992] 3 All ER 940 affirmed.
Notes
For inspection of the register, see 26 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1083, and for appeals from the registrar relating to disputes on applications under the Land Registration Act 1925, see ibid para 1469.
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For the Land Registration Act 1925, s 112, see 37 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) 611.
For the Land Registration Rules 1925, rr 9, 298, 299, see 16 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments 234, 293.
As from 3 December 1990 s 112 of the 1925 Act was substituted by s 1 of the Land Registration Act 1988.
Cases referred to in judgments
Belcourt v Belcourt [1989] 2 All ER 34, [1989] 1 WLR 195.
McKenzie v McKenzie [1970] 3 All ER 1034, [1971] P 33, [1970] 3 WLR 472, CA.
Case also cited
Dennis v Malcolm [1934] Ch 244, [1933] All ER Rep 293.
Appeal
Richard Joseph Quigly appealed from the decision of Millett J given on 8 May 1992 ([1992] 3 All ER 940, [1992] 1 WLR 834) whereby he dismissed the applicant’s appeal from the refusal of the Chief Land Registrar to permit him to inspect and copy documents relating to the transfer of land in title LN66840 and from the refusal of the Chief Land Registrar to carry out a search of the index of proprietors’ names for a property registered in the name of Dormy House Hotel (Littlestone) Ltd, also known as Baron (Folkestone) Ltd, and to advise the applicant of the result of such search. The facts are set out in the judgment of Hoffmann LJ.
Mr Quigly appeared in person.
Mark Cunningham (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Chief Land Registrar.
HOFFMANN LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Balcombe LJ). Mrs Queenie Lucas was one of three executors of the will of the late Mr D R Goodliffe, who died in May 1978. He was a shareholder in a company called Goodliffe Estates Ltd. Mrs Lucas considered that Goodliffe Estates Ltd was entitled to certain property in Holborn which was registered in the name of other companies. She also believed that her father’s estate had a claim against a family company called Dormy House Hotel Ltd which had property in Kent.
She asserted these claims in various legal proceedings between 1981 and 1986 but all her actions were unsuccessful. Eventually on 1 December 1986 she was declared a vexatious litigant.
Mr Quigly, who acted as Mrs Lucas’s adviser and McKenzie friend (see McKenzie v McKenzie [1970] 3 All ER 1034, [1971] P 33), has taken up the fallen standard and is trying to vindicate Mrs Lucas’s claims. For this purpose he wants to see various old conveyancing documents held by the land registry.
Section 112 of the Land Registration Act 1925, which governs the right to inspect documents held by the registry, used to be very restrictive. No one could see them without obtaining the authority of the registered proprietor. But the Land Registration Act 1988 substituted a new s 112 which was much more liberal. By sub-s (1) anyone could inspect entries on the register and documents referred to in the register. Documents which the registrar held in his custody, but to which the register did not refer, came under sub-s (2). This gave power to make rules specifying who should be entitled to inspect such documents as of right. Anyone else could inspect documents ‘at the discretion of the registrar’. Mr Quigly has no
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personal interest whatever in the land into which he is inquiring, and so does not come within the categories of persons entitled to inspect as of right.
On 8 August 1991 he wrote to the Chief Land Registrar a 12-page letter, explaining in some detail what he wanted to see. After some further correspondence, the registrar wrote on 11 November 1991 offering inspection of a few documents but refusing the rest.
On 26 February 1992 Mr Quigly asked for a search in the index of proprietors’ names against various companies which had featured in Mrs Lucas’s litigation. The application was made both under s 112(2)(b) and also under r 9(2) of the Land Registration Rules 1925, SR & O 1925/1093, which says:
‘Any person may apply … for a search to be made in the index in respect of either his own name or the name of some other person in whose property he is able to satisfy the Registrar that he is interested generally (for instance, as his trustee in bankruptcy or his personal representative).’
Mr Quigly accepts that he has no interest under r 9, but he says that the registrar should nevertheless have exercised his discretion under s 112(2)(b) in his favour.
Mr Quigly then appealed to Millett J against the refusal to permit inspection, and the refusal to make an index search. The judge dismissed the appeal on the ground that the court had no jurisdiction to hear an appeal from a decision of the registrar in the exercise of an administrative discretion (see [1992] 3 All ER 940, [1992] 1 WLR 834). Mr Quigly now appeals against that decision.
A right of appeal to the court is entirely a creature of statute and the provision upon which Mr Quigly relies to create such a right is r 299 of the 1925 rules. This rule appears under the subheading ‘Hearings before the Registrar’. But the decision of Morritt J in Belcourt v Belcourt [1989] 2 All ER 34, [1989] 1 WLR 195 shows that the effect of rules is somewhat wider than merely to deal with hearings before the registrar. That heading is therefore of limited value in assisting construction. It does nevertheless suggest a general context of formality and judicial decision.
To put the rule in its context, I must also read the immediately preceding and succeeding rules, starting then with r 298:
‘(1) If any question, doubt, dispute, difficulty or complaint arises before the Registrar upon any application or during any investigation of title—(a) as to the registration of a title, incumbrance, or charge, (b) as to any dealing with any registered title, incumbrance, or charge, or any matter entered or noted in or omitted from the register, or (c) as to the amendment or withdrawal from the register or production to the Registrar of any certificate or any other document, or (d) in any registration or other proceeding in the Registry, or (e) as to any claim for indemnity, (whether such questions relate to the construction, validity, or effect of any instrument, or the persons interested, or the nature or extent of their respective interests or powers, or as to order of priority, or the mode in which any entry should be made or dealt with in the register or otherwise), the Registrar shall hear and determine the matter and, subject to appeal to the Court, make such order in the matter as he shall think just.
(2) But the Registrar may … instead of deciding the question himself, refer the matter at any stage, or any question thereon, for the decision of the Court.’
Rule 299 says:
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‘Any person aggrieved by an order or decision of the Registrar may appeal to the Court.’
Rule 300 says:
‘Notice that the Registrar will hear and determine the matter at the Registry shall be served by him on all persons appearing to be interested, stating the time of such hearing and that such persons may attend before him at that time in person, or by his solicitor or counsel.’
In context, it seems to me, that the ‘order or decision’ to which r 299 refers is an order or decision made under r 298, that is to say an order made or decision given after the registrar has heard or determined one of the matters listed under heads (a) to (e) of r 298. This, I think, is shown by the fact that r 300, coming immediately after the right of appeal, deals with the procedure for giving notices that the registrar will hear and determine the matter in accordance with r 298.
In my view, neither of the decisions of which Mr Quigly complains were made pursuant to an exercise of the judicial power conferred by r 298. A request for inspection of documents under s 112 does not fall under any of the five headings.
The one for which Mr Quigly contended was subhead (d). He said that he had made an application in ‘any registration or other proceeding in the registry’ and he relied upon the words ‘other proceeding’. In my judgment, such an application cannot itself be the ‘other proceeding’ in which the application is made. Therefore, that heading is inapplicable. The decisions under s 112 were purely administrative decisions such as the registrar is called upon to make by numerous provisions in the 1925 Act and rules and the general provision in s 127 that:
‘Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Chief Registrar shall conduct the whole business of registration under this Act …’
I do not think that r 299 can have been intended to give a right to appeal to the court against literally every decision of the registrar. To take an example purely at random, r 17 gives the registrar power, if he considers it practical and desirable, to clear the register by closing it and opening a new one containing the subsisting entries only, or he may, under the same rule, make any rearrangement to the register ‘that appears to him conducive to clearness’, such as dividing the title into two or more titles. Under r 18, where several plots are registered in the same proprietor, they may be registered under one number or several numbers as the registrar may consider most convenient for the purpose of saving expense and facilitating future transactions.
It is in my judgment inconceivable that Parliament intended that a person aggrieved by the way in which the registrar chose to exercise these administrative powers should have a statutory right to come and argue the matter before a judge in the Chancery Division. Rule 298 can be given such an effect only by wrenching it out of the context in which it appears.
This does not mean that the exercise of administrative powers by the registrar is altogether beyond judicial control. I should have thought that it would be subject to judicial review in the same way and on the same principles as any other public power. But I wish to make it clear that I am not encouraging Mr Quigly to commence proceedings for judicial review. On the contrary, I think that on the facts of the present case, such proceedings would be quite hopeless. The refusal to permit inspection under s 112(2)(b) appears to me to have been an unassailable exercise of the discretion and the refusal to make an index search is conceded by
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Mr Quigly to have been in accordance with the proper construction of the rule. I would therefore dismiss this appeal.
LEGGATT LJ. I agree.
BALCOMBE LJ. I agree that this appeal should be dismissed for the reasons given by Hoffmann LJ. The fact that Mr Quigly, or anyone in a similar position, has no absolute right of appeal to the court against the decision of the registrar of an administrative character under s 112(2)(b) of the 1925 Act does not mean that there is no remedy against maladministration. In an appropriate case, it would appear to me that a person aggrieved by a decision of the registrar can apply for leave to bring an application for judicial review, although, like Hoffmann LJ, I would certainly not encourage any such application in the present case. But the essential difference between that and a statutory right of appeal to the court is that the filter of leave is a very valuable safeguard. Accordingly, I agree that this appeal should be dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
Daley v R
[1993] 4 All ER 86
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD MACKAY OF CLASHFERN LC, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD MUSTILL, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND ZACCA CJ
Hearing Date(s): 18 MAY, 27 JULY 1993
Criminal evidence – Identity – Visual identification – Possibility of mistaken identification – Withdrawal of case from jury – Circumstances in which judge may withdraw case from jury because identification evidence is unreliable – Witness observing murder at night – Witness’s evidence uncorroborated – Judge refusing to withdraw case from jury but directing them that prosecution’s case on identification very weak – Whether judge should have withdrawn from jury.
The appellant and another man were alleged to have broken into the house of a shopkeeper in Jamaica at 2 am with the intent of forcing him to open up his shop so that the men could rob it. The appellant was alleged to have struck the shopkeeper’s wife to the ground and then shot her during the break-in. Shortly afterwards, the shopkeeper managed to escape and hid in a place from where he could see the house. The two men left the house half an hour later after ransacking it. The appellant was identified by the shopkeeper at an identification parade four months later and was then charged with murder. At his trial the only issue was whether the appellant was in fact correctly identified by the shopkeeper, his evidence to that effect being uncorroborated. The shopkeeper had seen the men approaching the house, had witnessed his wife being struck and shot and had observed the men in the house while he was hiding but the evidence did not establish whether the shopkeeper had had sufficient opportunity to identify and recognise the appellant on the occasion of the crime. The trial judge rejected a
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submission of no case to answer but directed the jury that identification was ‘very, very necessary’, that there were serious weaknesses in the prosecution case from the point of view of identification and that in her opinion the prosecution’s case had not made the identification clear enough but that the issue of identification was a matter for the jury. The appellant was convicted. He appealed to the Court of Appeal of Jamaica, which dismissed the appeal. The appellant appealed to the Privy Council, contending that the judge should have withdrawn the case from the jury because of the weakness of the identification evidence.
Held – Although a trial judge ought not to withdraw a case from the jury merely because he considered the prosecution evidence as unworthy of credit, since it was the jury’s and not the judge’s function to assess the credibility of witnesses, the judge ought to withdraw the case from the jury if it was based on identification evidence which, even if taken to be honest, was so slender that it was unreliable and therefore not sufficient to found a conviction. Having regard to the weakness of the identification evidence, the case against the appellant should have been withdrawn from the jury. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the conviction quashed (see p 88 b, p 91 f, p 92 j, p 93 b c, p 94 g to j and p 95 b, post).
R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549 and R v Galbraith [1981] 2 All ER 1060 considered.
Notes
For evidence of visual identification, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1148, and for cases on the subject, see 15(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 145–149, 19507–19526.
Cases referred to in judgment
Evans v R [1991] LRC (Crim) 448, PC.
R v Barker (1977) 65 Cr App R 287, CA.
R v Dennis (Roy) (5 May 1986, unreported), Jamaica CA.
R v Galbraith [1981] 2 All ER 1060, [1981] 1 WLR 1039, CA.
R v Heffernan (23 May 1986, unreported), CA.
R v Mansfield [1978] 1 All ER 134, [1977] WLR 1102, CA.
R v Oakwell [1978] 1 All ER 1223, [1978] 1 WLR 32, CA.
R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549, [1977] QB 224, [1976] 3 WLR 445, CA.
R v Weeder (1980) 71 Cr App R 228, CA.
Reid (Junior) v R [1993] 4 All ER 95n, [1990] 1 AC 363, [1989] 3 WLR 771, PC.
Appeal
Wilbert Daley appealed with special leave from the decision of the decision of the Court of Appeal of Jamaica (Carey, Campbell and Downer JJA) on 13 July 1988 dismissing his appeal against his conviction on 25 November 1986 at the St Elizabeth Circuit Court before McKain J and a jury of murder for which he was sentenced to death. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Mark Strachan QC and Michael Lazarus (instructed by D J Freeman) for the appellant.
James Guthrie QC (instructed by Charles Russell) for the respondent.
Page 88 of [1993] 4 All ER 86
27 July 1993. The following judgment was delivered.
At the conclusion of the argument the Board announced that the appeal would be allowed and the conviction quashed for reasons to be given later.
LORD MUSTILL. On 25 November 1986 after a trial in the Circuit Court of St Elizabeth, Jamaica before McKain J and a jury Wilbert Daley was convicted of the murder of Mrs Beryl Smith and was sentenced to death. An application for leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal of Jamaica was dismissed. He now appeals by special leave to Her Majesty in Council. At the conclusion of the argument the Board intimated that it would humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal should be allowed, for reasons to be given at a later date. These reasons now follow.
The circumstances in which Mrs Smith met her death were not in dispute at the trial. At 2 am on 25 October 1985 Mr Kenneth Smith and his wife were woken from sleep by a barking dog. Looking through a window Mr Smith saw two men approaching the house. They went round to the back and broke in through a window. Mr and Mrs Smith went into the hall which ran down the middle of the house. The men switched on a light in one of the rooms, and then entered the hall. One of them (the first man) struck Mrs Smith to the ground with his gun, and then shot her in the body, inflicting a wound from which she later died. The other man (the second man) told Mr Smith to fetch the key to his shop and to come with him to open up the shop and see whether money could be found there. Shortly after Mr Smith and the second man had left the house Mr Smith managed to escape, and hid in a place from where he could see the house. After the two men eventually departed Mr Smith returned and took his wife to hospital. He also reported the matter to the police. Four months later he was called to an identification parade at which he pointed out the appellant as being the first man.
At the trial the only issue was whether the appellant was in fact correctly identified as the first man. The evidence of Mr Smith to this effect was uncorroborated. The appellant did not give evidence, but made an unsworn statement from the dock concerned entirely with the identification parade. He concluded: ‘I know nothing about this case. I am innocent.' The entirety of the evidence at the trial was completed in a little over two hours. What strikes the eye on reading the transcript is how very little of this comparatively brief time was spent on an exploration of the crucial question whether Mr Smith had a sufficient opportunity to identify and recognise the first man on the occasion of the crime.
Thus, (1) Mr Smith saw the first man on three occasions. First, whilst the two men were approaching the house. Second, during the episode in the hall when Mrs Smith was shot. Third, whilst Mr Smith was hiding outside the house. No evidence was led to found any identification at the first stage. As regards the third stage, which Mr Smith testified to have lasted for half an hour, he said that the first man ransacked the house, but not that he saw the ransacking being carried out. All that emerged from his evidence was that there was an illuminated street lamp outside the house, and that the light in the room through which the men had entered was still lit when he escaped. No attempt was made to establish for how much of the half hour the first man could be seen from where Mr Smith was hiding; which parts of the interior of the house were in Mr Smith’s view; whether during the half hour any of the interior lights were switched on or switched off; how much of the interior of the house was illuminated by the street lamp; whether the first man was seen by the light of the street lamp or an interior light; and so on.
(2) The opportunity for Mr Smith to observe the first man during the fatal incident in the hall was scarcely investigated. Whilst it was established that the hall light was not on at the time, and that if the first man’s features were illuminated this must have been by the light shed from the room into which the
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intruders had entered, there was no questioning about how much of the hall was thus illuminated, in what part of the hall the various participants were positioned during the incident, and whether the first man was in such a position that the light shone on his face. After the incident Mr Smith was compelled to ‘pick up’ the shop key. No inquiry was made as to whether Mr Smith could have seen the first man whilst he was doing this, or whilst leaving the house with the second man.
(3) The case was presented to the jury as one of recognition. Mr Smith said in evidence that he knew the first man’s face—‘I always see them some a di time … Him come all to my shop’—but that he did not at that time know the man’s name. Mr Smith was cross-examined at some length as to evidence which he was said to have given at the preliminary hearing about knowing the appellant as Wilbert. At the trial he denied that he knew the appellant’s name. He was not asked how often he had seen the appellant before the incident, or over what period of time.
It was in this state of the evidence that counsel made a submission to the trial judge that there was no sufficient case to go to the jury. In response, counsel for the prosecution cited R v Galbraith [1981] 2 All ER 1060, [1981] 1 WLR 1039 and the decision of the Court of Appeal of Jamaica in R v Roy Dennis (5 May 1986, unreported). The trial judge rejected this submission, without giving reasons. After the appellant had made his unsworn statement and counsel had addressed the jury, the judge summed up the law and the evidence in a manner which need not be analysed in detail. For present purposes it is enough to quote the following passages:
‘You have to ask yourselves, in this particular case, did he have an opportunity, was he there observing him long enough to recognise him? Identification is very, very necessary here. I have not gone into the conditions about what the officer said because I am going to deal specifically with identification and I will have to tell you that unfortunately there are serious weaknesses in the prosecution case from the point of view of identification, but it is a matter for you, Mr Foreman and members of the jury …’ (McKain J’s emphasis.)
Then, after commenting at length on the weaknesses in the evidence of Mr Smith:
‘As it stands, as I said, the matter of identification is one for you and I must warn you that the identification has not been a very good one. There is much left to be desired as far as the identification of this accused man is concerned.’ (McKain J’s emphasis.)
Finally, at the very end of her directions the judge said:
‘So, Mr Foreman and members of the jury, how do you look at it? Do you say that the prosecution made out a case that I am satisfied, that I am sure? Well, when you look on the entirety of the case and if you say you are not satisfied, the verdict is not guilty; but you are to bear in mind when you go to deliberate that this is a question, as I say again, of identification and that the prosecution’s case has not made the identification clear enough. That is my opinion. If you are satisfied that the identification was good enough, you are judging the facts, you are the judges as to facts.’ (McKain J’s emphasis.)
Although it may seem strange that in these circumstances the trial judge should have left the case to the jury, and stranger still that the Court of Appeal of Jamaica should not have mentioned in its judgment the ground upon which their Lordships have advised that the appeal should be allowed, the reasons will become clear from an account of the history of this branch of the criminal law.
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It has for very many years been recognised that the trial judge has the power and the duty to withdraw the issue of guilt from the jury if he considers that the evidence is insufficient to sustain a conviction. The judge had, and still retains today, the power so to intervene of his own motion. Much more commonly, however, the intervention of the judge is prompted by a formal submission on the part of counsel for the defendant, in the absence of the jury, at the close of the prosecution case. This practice has no statutory warrant, but the background to its exercise was provided by s 4(1) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1907, which required the Court of Criminal Appeal to quash a conviction ‘if they think that the verdict of the jury should be set aside on the ground that it is unreasonable or cannot be supported having regard to the evidence’. This provision came to be understood as signifying that the appellate court would intervene only if there was no evidence on which, if it were uncontradicted, a properly directed jury could convict. It appears that against this background the practice was that the trial judge should intervene to stop the case only in situations where, if the trial had proceeded to a verdict and the jury had convicted, the verdict would have been quashed on appeal. Over the years, however, this practice was relaxed to the extent that a substantial number of judges had come to think it right that, when their own assessment of the credibility and consistency of the evidence led by the prosecution was such that a conviction on this evidence would be unsafe, they should withdraw the case from the jury so as to make sure that the defendant was not the victim of a miscarriage of justice. This movement gathered strength when the power of the appellate court to intervene under the 1907 Act was replaced by the very different test under s 2(1)(a) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, whereby the court is required to quash a conviction if ‘under all the circumstances of the case it is unsafe or unsatisfactory’. Some judges took the view that, if in their estimation the evidence was so poor that a verdict based upon it would be ‘unsafe’, it would be wrong to allow the case to go to the jury with the possibility of returning a verdict of guilty which (if the appellate system worked correctly) would inevitably be quashed on appeal.
Their Lordships are not required for present purposes to consider the intellectual merits of this argument, on which the controversy is not yet wholly resolved. What matters is that on more than one occasion the appellate courts have intervened to circumscribe the exercise of the power to stop a trial at the end of the evidence from the prosecution. First, there was a practice direction to magistrates, embodied in Practice Note [1962] 1 All ER 448, [1962] 1 WLR 227 in which the Divisional Court commented adversely on the excessive use of this practice. Although this practice direction is still in force it has received surprisingly little weight in the general development of the law in this field. Later, there was an important statement of principle in relation to trials on indictment in R v Barker (1977) 65 Cr App R 287 at 288 where, in the course of refuting a submission that the trial judge should have stopped the case because of inconsistencies in a crucial document, Lord Widgery CJ said:
‘It is not the judge’s job to weigh the evidence, decide who is telling the truth, and to stop the case merely because he thinks the witness is lying.’
It was in this situation that Lord Widgery CJ laid down in R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549, [1977] QB 224 the principle governing the duty of the trial judge in cases where the prosecution relies on evidence of identification, around which the present appeal revolves. It is unnecessary to quote extensively from the judgment. The passage which bears directly on this appeal reads as follows ([1976] 3 All ER 549 at 552–553, [1977] QB 224 at 228–230):
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‘If the quality [of the evidence] is good and remains good at the close of the accused’s case, the danger of a mistaken identification is lessened; but the poorer the quality, the greater the danger. In our judgment, when the quality is good … the jury can safely be left to assess the value of the identifying evidence even though there is no other evidence to support it; provided always, however, that an adequate warning has been given about the special need for caution … When, in the judgment of the trial judge, the quality of the identifying evidence is poor, as for example when it depends solely on a fleeting glance or on a longer observation made in difficult conditions, the situation is very different. The judge should then withdraw the case from the jury and direct an acquittal unless there is other evidence which goes to support the correctness of the identification.’
Meanwhile, in English circles the controversy about the proper response of the trial judge to a submission of no case to answer continued unabated. An authoritative resolution became imperative, and the opportunity was furnished by R v Galbraith [1981] 2 All ER 1060, [1981] 1 WLR 1039. It is important to note the subject matter of this case. The conviction arose from an affray in a club. The defence of the appellant was that he was elsewhere in the club at the time. The prosecution called three witnesses, none of them satisfactory. The first had given a description which matched the appellant, but he later failed to identify him on a parade. The second, who was an unwilling witness, and was treated at the trial as hostile, accepted in cross-examination that his identification might have been mistaken. The third witness agreed that the ‘little guy’ whom he had seen near the fight was not the appellant. There was evidence that these witnesses had met before the trial to agree that they would play down the statements implicating the appellant which they had given to the police after the incident.
Given the weaknesses in this evidence the appellant might reasonably have looked for an acquittal. At the same time it was possible that the jury might accept as true those parts of the evidence which implicated the appellant, notwithstanding their subsequent dilution. In the event this is what happened. The judge left the case to the jury who returned a verdict of guilty.
On appeal, it was argued for the appellant that, given the analogy with the power to quash a conviction on the ground that it was unsafe, the judge ought to have pre-empted the risk of an unsafe verdict by withdrawing the case from the jury. This argument was rejected. First, the court expressed doubts about the soundness of the logic which transferred the power of the appellate court to the duties of the trial judge. Since this is not an issue in the present appeal their Lordships need not be detained by it. More to the point is what the court described as a much more solid reason for doubting the wisdom of the wider view of the judge’s powers ([1981] 2 All ER 1060 at 1061, [1981] 1 WLR 1039 at 1041):
‘If a judge is obliged to consider whether a conviction would be “unsafe” or “unsatisfactory”, he can scarcely be blamed if he applies his views as to the weight to be given to the Crown’s evidence and as to the truthfulness of their witnesses and so on.’
The court continued by quoting from the judgment of Lord Widgery CJ in R v Barker, and went on to discuss the judgment in R v Mansfield [1978] 1 All ER 134, [1977] WLR 1102 which had proved a source of difficulty since it seemed that, although one part of the judgment was consonant with what Lord Widgery CJ had said in R v Barker, a later passage was capable of meaning that a case should be withdrawn from the jury if the judge considered that a verdict of guilty would be unsafe because, for example, the main prosecution witness was not to be
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believed. The Court of Appeal in R v Galbraith stated that if this was the effect of the judgment in R v Mansfield it was wrong, and that the words of Lord Widgery CJ in R v Barker were to be preferred.
It was this analysis which led up to the passage now most often quoted from R v Galbraith, which it is convenient to repeat ([1981] 2 All ER 1060 at 1062, [1981] 1 WLR 1039 at 1042):
‘How then should the judge approach a submission of “no case”? (1) If there is no evidence that the crime alleged has been committed by the defendant, there is no difficulty. The judge will of course stop the case. (2) The difficulty arises where there is some evidence but it is of a tenuous character, for example because of inherent weakness or vagueness or because it is inconsistent with other evidence. (a) Where the judge comes to the conclusion that the Crown’s evidence, taken at its highest, is such that a jury properly directed could not properly convict on it, it is his duty, on a submission being made, to stop the case. (b) Where however the Crown’s evidence is such that its strength or weakness depends on the view to be taken of a witness’s reliability, or other matters which are generally speaking within the province of the jury and where on one possible view of the facts there is evidence on which a jury could properly come to the conclusion that the defendant is guilty, then the judge should allow the matter to be tried by the jury … There will of course, as always in this branch of the law, be borderline cases. They can safely be left to the discretion of the judge.’ (Lord Lane CJ’s emphasis.)
With the passage of time both R v Turnbull and R v Galbraith have repeatedly been cited and acted upon by the Court of Appeal in England. Furthermore, as regards R v Galbraith, the principles stated by Lord Lane CJ have, so far as their Lordships are aware, been consistently applied in Jamaica; and it may be noted that the impetus given to the wider view of the judge’s powers by the important change in the basis of a criminal appeal in England brought about by the 1968 Act was not a factor in Jamaica, where the appellate powers have continued to be expressed in terms corresponding to those of the 1907 Act. As regards R v Turnbull, however, the position in Jamaica was for a time different. The view was taken that the strict requirements of R v Turnbull were inappropriate to conditions prevailing in Jamaica, and the Court of Appeal of Jamaica upheld convictions which, under the English practice, would have been quashed because the directions to the jury did not contain the warnings on identification evidence called for by R v Turnbull. The reasons why this was so were fully explored in the judgments delivered by the Court of Appeal in R v Roy Dennis (5 May 1986, unreported), one of the two authorities cited to the judge at the trial of the present appellant. Subsequently, through the medium of decisions given by their Lordships’ Board after the refusal of leave to appeal in the present case it was established that the practice of the courts in Jamaica was in this respect erroneous. Conspicuous amongst these decisions were Junior Reid v R [1993] 3 All ER 95n, [1990] 1 AC 363 (in which one of the convictions under appeal was that of Roy Dennis) and Evans v R [1991] LRC (Crim) 448. In each of these it was made clear that the portion of the judgment in R v Turnbull which requires the case to be withdrawn from the jury if the quality of the identification evidence is poor is as much a part of the law of Jamaica as is the remainder of the statement of principle in R v Turnbull. The relevant laws of the two countries are thus once more in accord.
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It was whilst the laws were for a time out of alignment that the trial of the present appellant took place. The history which their Lordships have summarised leaves little room for doubt as to the reasons why McKain J felt impelled to leave the case to the jury, applying R v Galbraith in preference to R v Turnbull, notwithstanding her strong opinion on the weakness of the prosecution’s case. Their Lordships also feel little doubt that if the law on identification had been understood in Jamaica in the year 1986 as it is understood today the trial judge would have acceded to the submission that the appellant had no case to answer.
It would appear to be the inevitable consequence of this conclusion that the appeal should be allowed. It was however strongly urged on behalf of the respondent that this is not so. Two reasons were advanced. First, it is said that the trial judge’s assessment of the evidence of Mr Smith was altogether too favourable to the appellant. In fact, so the argument runs, the trial judge made two mistakes: the first (favourable to the appellant) in her appreciation of the evidence and the second (adverse to the appellant) on the law. These two mistakes cancelled each other out. By setting both of them right, the Board will arrive at a position where, even under a strict application of R v Turnbull, the case should have been left to the jury, as in fact it was. There has thus been no miscarriage of justice of which the appellant can complain.
Notwithstanding the apparent logic of this argument their Lordships cannot accept it, for two reasons. First, because if the judge had understood the law, as it has now been established, she would have directed a verdict of not guilty and the appellant would have been set at liberty, whereas because of her understandable mistake he is now under sentence of death. This would be generally regarded, and in their Lordships’ opinion rightly regarded, as a grave injustice which ought to be remedied.
Secondly, the respondent’s argument would require the Board, on an appeal by a convicted person, to substitute a view of the facts more favourable to the prosecutor than the view expressed in public to the jury by the trial judge herself, so as to repair an error of law which would otherwise have been fatal to the conviction. Whether this would ever be a legitimate exercise of the criminal appellate function is not a matter on which argument was addressed to the Board. Their Lordships think it undesirable in the circumstances to express any concluded opinion upon it, but they believe that if any such course is in principle open to an appellate court it should be followed only in the exceptional case where the view formed by the trial judge on the facts is so far beyond the bounds of reason as to demand the substitution of the only rational opinion. The present case is far from being in this category. The opinion of the trial judge was perfectly comprehensible, even if perhaps some other judges might not have gone so far.
This conclusion is sufficient to dispose of the appeal. It is however desirable to say something about the manner in which the principles of R v Turnbull and R v Galbraith are able to live together. That they must be able to do so, and that there has not taken place an accidental conflict of authority, is clear from their history. As has been seen, Lord Widgery CJ delivered the judgment in R v Turnbull only eight months after he had so bluntly stated in R v Barker that it was not the job of the trial judge to decide questions of credibility. His Lordship could not have intended what he said in R v Turnbull to encroach upon the general principle, and the absence in argument and in the judgment itself of any reference to R v Barker or to Practice Note [1962] 1 All ER 448, [1962] 1 WLR 227 shows that it never occurred to anyone concerned that something of this kind was taking place. Conversely, the judgment in R v Galbraith was delivered at a time when the appellate courts were occupied in making sure that the principles of R v Turnbull
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were being properly observed in the courts. Indeed, fewer than twelve months previously, Lord Lane CJ had himself delivered the judgment of a court of five judges in R v Weeder (1980) 71 Cr App R 228, reiterating the duty of the judge to withdraw the case from the jury when the quality of evidence is poor. Although R v Turnbull was not referred to in R v Galbraith it is inconceivable that the court can have overlooked the parallel line of authority.
It is therefore plain that no incongruity between the two principles was perceived at the outset, and (with the exception of one unreported decision and a few isolated comments in academic writings) none has been perceived ever since. How then are the principles able to coexist? There appear to be two possibilities. The first is simply that the Turnbull rule is an exception superimposed on the general principles of R v Galbraith, taking identification cases (or, more accurately, the kind of identification case which was the subject of R v Turnbull—for R v Galbraith was itself concerned with identification) outside the general principle, whilst otherwise leaving it completely intact. This is certainly a possible view. The division of responsibility between judge and jury is of great importance and is staunchly maintained because it serves the interests of justice. But it is no more adamantine than any other procedural rule serving the same ends, and must admit of exceptions if those interests so demand. An obvious exception is the long-standing duty of the judge, now embodied in s 76(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, to rule on whether a confession by the accused has been, or may have been, obtained by oppression, or in consequence of anything said or done which was likely to render it unreliable. This is an issue of fact, and yet it is reserved for the judge because of a perceived risk that the jury may act upon evidence which is not to be relied upon. No doubt there are other examples elsewhere in the law of criminal procedure. Similarly the rationale of the Turnbull principle is the need to eliminate the ‘ghastly risk’ (as Lord Widgery CJ called it in R v Oakwell [1978] 1 All ER 1223 at 1227, [1978] 1 WLR 32 at 36–37) run in certain types of identification case. This risk may well be seen as serious enough to outweigh the general principle that the functions of the judge and jury must be kept apart.
Their Lordships doubt, however, whether it is necessary to explain the two lines of authority in this way. A reading of the judgment in R v Galbraith as a whole shows that the practice which the court was primarily concerned to proscribe was one whereby a judge who considered the prosecution evidence as unworthy of credit would make sure that the jury did not have an opportunity to give effect to a different opinion. By following this practice the judge was doing something which, as Lord Widgery CJ had put it, was not his job. By contrast, in the kind of identification case dealt with by R v Turnbull the case is withdrawn from the jury not because the judge considers that the witness is lying, but because the evidence even if taken to be honest has a base which is so slender that it is unreliable and therefore not sufficient to found a conviction: and indeed, as R v Turnbull itself emphasised, the fact that an honest witness may be mistaken on identification is a particular source of risk. When assessing the ‘quality’ of the evidence, under the Turnbull doctrine, the jury is protected from acting upon the type of evidence which, even if believed, experience has shown to be a possible source of injustice. Reading the two cases in this way, their Lordships see no conflict between them.
Before leaving this question, their Lordships should refer to one decision of the Court of Appeal in England which research by the Criminal Appeal Office has brought to light since the conclusion of the argument. In R v Heffernan (23 May 1986, unreported), a case of recognition based on a ‘fleeting glance’, the trial judge
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had, after argument, left the case to the jury, applying R v Galbraith in preference to R v Turnbull. On appeal, an argument on behalf of the prosecution that the decisions in R v Turnbull and R v Galbraith were in conflict was rejected, on a ground which (in a more compressed form) closely resembled the second of the reasons which their Lordships have given above.
It is for these reasons that their Lordships humbly advised Her Majesty that the appeal should be allowed and that the conviction of Wilbert Daley should be quashed. Other grounds in support of the appeal were advanced in argument, but in the light of the conclusion reached on the principal issue, their Lordships find no reason to enter into them.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Note
Junior Reid v R
and other appeals
Errol Reece and others v R
[1993] 4 All ER 95
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD BRIDGE OF HARWICH, LORD ACKNER, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE AND LORD LOWRY
Hearing Date(s): 26–29 JUNE, 27 JULY 1989
LORD ACKNER, in the course of giving the reasons of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council for their advice in Junior Reid v R, Roy Dennis v R, Oliver Whylie v R and Errol Reece and ors v R on appeal from the Court of Appeal of Jamaica, said:
Identification evidence
Judicial experience has established that there are certain categories of evidence which are, by their very nature, potentially unreliable and in respect of which, in order to avoid the serious danger of wrong convictions, special warnings and directions have to be given to juries. Such categories include the evidence of children who, although old enough to understand the nature of an oath and thus competent to give sworn evidence, may yet be so young that their comprehension of events and of questions put to them, or their powers of expression, may be imperfect. In sexual cases, the victims of the alleged offences may have a variety of motivations, some of which may never have occurred to a jury, for giving false evidence. An accomplice, with a purpose of his own to serve, such as the hope of lenient punishment, may well tend, when giving evidence for the prosecution, to suggest that the entirety or the majority of the blame for the crime should fall upon the accused rather than upon himself. Yet this possibility may again not be apparent to a jury. Accordingly, in such cases where the inherent unreliability of the witness might otherwise escape the jury, the trial
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judge has to give the appropriate warning and explanation of the special caution required when considering that type of evidence.
It is only in comparatively recent times that identification evidence has emerged as a class of its own. Some 27 years ago in The People (A-G) v Dominic Casey (No 2) [1963] IR 33 the Supreme Court of Ireland decided that it was desirable in all cases where the verdict depended substantially on the correctness of visual identification of the accused that the attention of the jury should be drawn in general terms to the fact that in a number of instances visual identification of an accused person had been established, after conviction, to have been erroneous, and therefore to the possibilities of mistake. This gave rise to the necessity for caution when considering such evidence. In the reserved judgment of the court Kingsmill Moore J said (at 39–40):
‘We are of opinion that juries as a whole may not be fully aware of the dangers involved in visual identification nor of the considerable number of cases in which such identification has been proved to be erroneous; and also that they may be inclined to attribute too much probative effect to the test of an identification parade. In our opinion it is desirable that in all cases, where the verdict depends substantially on the correctness of an identification, their attention should be called in general terms to the fact that in a number of instances such identification has proved erroneous, to the possibilities of mistake in the case before them and to the necessity of caution. Nor do we think that such warning should be confined to cases where the identification is that of only one witness. Experience has shown that mistakes can occur where two or more witnesses have made positive identifications. We consider juries in cases where the correctness of an identification is challenged should be directed on the following lines, namely, that if their verdict as to the guilt of the prisoner is to depend wholly or substantially on the correctness of such identification, they should bear in mind that there have been a number of instances where responsible witnesses, whose honesty was not in question and whose opportunities for observation had been adequate, made positive identifications on a parade or otherwise, which identifications were subsequently proved to be erroneous …’
Some ten years later there were two much publicised cases where a miscarriage of justice was established, despite the apparent strength of the identification evidence Dougherty and Virag (referred to in the Report to the Secretary of State for the Home Department of the Departmental Committee on Evidence of Identification in Criminal Cases (chairman Lord Devlin) (HC Paper (1975–76) no 338) paras 2.24, 3.115–119). This brought identification evidence in England, as a separate class of evidence, into sharp focus.
In the Eleventh Report of the Criminal Law Revision Committee, Evidence (General) (Cmnd 4991) paras 196–197, 199, pp 117–119, published in 1972, the committee stated that it had been much concerned by the danger of wrong convictions on account of mistaken identification of the accused. This it regarded as ‘by far the greatest cause of actual or possible wrong convictions’. The committee highlighted the difficulty that the identifying witness might very well be perfectly honest and clearly appear to be so and his evidence therefore might seem entirely convincing. The majority of the committee were in favour of a statutory requirement that the judge should give a warning of the special need for caution before convicting in reliance upon the correctness of one or more identifications of the accused, where the case depended wholly or substantially on
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such evidence. The committee emphasised that the need for the warning was not limited to cases where the accused was previously unknown to the witness because, even where they are known to each other, there may be a danger that the identification is mistaken—at least if the witness had only a limited opportunity to observe the offender.
Subsequently, the Home Secretary appointed a committee under the chairmanship of Lord Devlin to consider identification evidence in criminal cases. That committee’s recommendation was even stronger. The committee stated (para 4.81, pp 93–94):
‘We have decided that an imprecise warning would not be good enough. Nor do we think that it would be satisfactory merely to tell the jury the rule; they cannot be expected to apply it full-heartedly unless they are given the reason for it. This is especially necessary in that the danger in identification evidence is hidden. The extent to which a man may deceive himself is well known to psychologists and to experienced criminal lawyers, but it is not yet universally realised … Jurors who have thought a little about the point know of course that an identification may be mistaken but do not appreciate the extent to which an apparently convincing witness may be mistaken.’ (The committee’s emphasis.)
The committee recommended that, where the evidence for the prosecution consisted wholly or mainly of evidence of visual identification, the jury should be informed that it was not safe to convict upon such evidence unless the circumstances of the identification are exceptional or unless the identification is supported by substantial evidence of another sort (see para 4.83, pp 94–95). It was however recognised that there would have to be exceptions to this general rule in special circumstances to be worked out in practice.
Shortly after the publication of the Devlin Committee’s report, there were listed before the Court of Appeal a number of appeals where identification was the essential issue, in order to give the Court of Appeal the opportunity to lay down guidelines (R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549, [1977] QB 224). The Court of Appeal, although seeking to follow the recommendations of the Devlin Committee, avoided the use of the phrase ‘exceptional circumstances’ to describe situations in which the risk of mistaken identification was reduced. Lord Widgery CJ, giving the judgment of the court, said ([1976] 3 All ER 549 at 554, [1977] QB 224 at 231):
‘… the use of such a phrase is likely to result in the build-up of case law as to what circumstances can properly be described as exceptional and what cannot. Case law of this kind is likely to be a fetter on the administration of justice when so much depends on the quality of the evidence in each case. Quality is what matters in the end. In many cases the exceptional circumstances to which the report refers will provide evidence of good quality, but they may not; the converse is also true.’
The guidelines laid down by that case are, of course, by now well known and consistently applied in England and in a number of Commonwealth countries. It is however convenient for the purpose of dealing with these appeals, in all of which visual identification evidence was the crux of the prosecution case, to set out yet once more the following much quoted excerpt ([1976] 3 All ER 549 at 551–552, [1977] QB 224 at 228–229):
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‘First, whenever the case against an accused depends wholly or substantially on the correctness of one or more identifications of the accused which the defence alleges to be mistaken, the judge should warn the jury of the special need for caution before convicting the accused in reliance on the correctness of the identification or identifications. In addition he should instruct them as to the reason for the need for such a warning and should make some reference to the possibility that a mistaken witness can be a convincing one and that a number of such witnesses can all be mistaken. Provided this is done in clear terms the judge need not use any particular form of words. Secondly, the judge should direct the jury to examine closely the circumstances in which the identification by each witness came to be made. How long did the witness have the accused under observation? At what distance? In what light? Was the observation impeded in any way, as for example by passing traffic or a press of people? Had the witness ever seen the accused before? How often? If only occasionally, had he any special reason for remembering the accused? How long elapsed between the original observation and the subsequent identification to the police? Was there any material discrepancy between the description of the accused given to the police by the witness when first seen by them and his actual appearance? If in any case, whether it is being dealt with summarily or on indictment, the prosecution have reason to believe that there is such a material discrepancy they should supply the accused or his legal advisers with particulars of the description the police were first given. In all cases if the accused asks to be given particulars of such descriptions, the prosecution should supply them. Finally, he should remind the jury of any specific weaknesses which had appeared in the identification evidence. Recognition may be more reliable than identification of a stranger; but, even when the witness is purporting to recognise someone whom he knows, the jury should be reminded that mistakes in recognition of close relatives and friends are sometimes made. All these matters go to the quality of the identification evidence. If the quality is good and remains good at the close of the accused’s case, the danger of a mistaken identification is lessened; but the poorer the quality, the greater the danger.’
In addition the following short passage has particular reference to these appeals ([1976] 3 All ER 549 at 553, [1977] QB 224 at 229–230):
‘When, in the judgment of the trial judge, the quality of the identifying evidence is poor, as for example when it depends solely on a fleeting glance or on a longer observation made in difficult conditions, the situation is very different. The judge should then withdraw the case from the jury and direct an acquittal unless there is other evidence which goes to support the correctness of the identification.’
It is perhaps as well to recall that a little over a year later Lord Widgery CJ said that R v Turnbull ‘is intended primarily to deal with the ghastly risk run in cases of fleeting encounters’ (see R v Oakwell [1978] 1 All ER 1223 at 1227, [1978] 1 WLR 32 at 36–37). This statement underlines how seriously the court rates the risk. Subsequent cases have emphasised that a mere statement that a jury must treat visual identification evidence with extreme caution, accompanied by detailed references to the witness’s opportunity to identify the accused—eg how long he observed the accused, his distance from the accused, the state of the light, how the accused was dressed and other such relevant detail, was not sufficient. This is well illustrated in R v Dickson [1983] 1 VR 227, a decision of the Supreme Court of
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Victoria. On behalf of the applicant it was submitted that the trial judge had not brought home to the jury the reasons for there being the danger in identification evidence of erroneous convictions. The prosecution had urged that this had been achieved by the judge saying (at 231):
‘Now, you must remember that human nature is fallible, that persons’ recollections sometimes are hazy, that the powers of observation of an event or something may be just fleeting or may be made in such circumstances as not to be relied on …’
Moreover the judge had told the jury that they had to exercise extreme care in determining whether they were satisfied with the evidence as to the identification. He further told them that in the past juries had made mistakes by acting on false identification evidence.
The Supreme Court was not satisfied that what the judge had said effectively alerted the jury to the danger that witnesses, whom they might regard as honest and convincing, might nevertheless be mistaken. The following observations of the court are particularly pertinent (at 231):
‘It is difficult to convey to the jury the reality of particular dangers which exist in the evidence without drawing to the attention of the jury two things which they are unlikely to know. The first is that experience in the courts over the years has shown that in a not insignificant number of cases erroneous identification evidence by apparently honest witnesses has led to wrong convictions. For this knowledge the judge draws largely on accumulated judicial experience. One sees instances of erroneous identification from time to time … The second thing which the jury are unlikely to know is the substantial degree of risk that honest witnesses may be wrong in their evidence of identification. Jurors, who, unlike trial lawyers, have not given thought to the way in which evidence of visual identification depends on the witness receiving, recording and recalling accurately a fairly subjective impression on the mind, are unlikely to be aware of the extent of the risk that honest and convincing witnesses may be mistaken, especially where their opportunities for observing a previously unknown offender were limited. The best way of explaining and bringing home to the jury the extent of this risk is by explaining the reasons for there being the risk and that it is essential to distinguish between honesty and accuracy and not assume the latter because of belief in the former.’
The court was of the opinion that the trial judge had not sufficiently emphasised the reasons for the danger of identification evidence being of a greater order than the risk, inherent in any evidence depending on human recollection, that the witness may be honestly mistaken. He had not stressed that honesty as such is no guarantee against a false impression being so indelibly imprinted on the mind as to convince an honest witness that it was wholly reliable.
In a very recent decision of the Privy Council on appeal from the Court of Appeal of Jamaica, Scott v R [1989] 2 All ER 305 at 314–315, [1989] AC 1242 at 1261, Lord Griffiths, giving the judgment of the Board, reiterated the importance of the judge discussing with the jury the fundamental danger in identification evidence of the honest but mistaken witness, who is convinced of the correctness of his identification, giving impressive evidence. He said:
‘… if convictions are to be allowed on uncorroborated identification evidence there must be a strict insistence on a judge giving a clear warning of
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the danger of a mistaken identification which the jury must consider before arriving at their verdict, and that it would only be in the most exceptional circumstances that a conviction based on uncorroborated identification evidence should be sustained in the absence of such a warning.’
R v Turnbull is, of course, followed in Jamaica. However there have been two reservations expressed by the Jamaican Court of Appeal about the guidelines in that case, such reservations being no doubt due to the escalating violence which has been experienced there, coupled with the intimidation, indeed the suspected murder, of potential witnesses.
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Mr Andrade QC, in his most helpful and thorough address to their Lordships, invited their attention in particular to the decision of the Jamaican Court of Appeal in R v Graham and Lewis (26 June 1986, unreported). Rowe P, giving the judgment of the court, referred to that part of the judgment of Lord Widgery CJ in R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549 at 553, [1977] QB 224 at 229–230 which relates to the obligation of the judge in certain circumstances, referred to above, to withdraw the case from the jury and direct an acquittal. He said:
‘In R v Whylie (1977) 25 WIR 430 we considered that if this passage was taken too literally the lines separating the functions of the judge and the functions of the jury could become blurred. We thought that, if there was insufficient evidence to support the prosecution’s case, a no case submission would succeed and that, if the prosecution witnesses were discredited to the extent that they became manifestly unreliable, the rule laid down in the Practice Direction by Lord Parker CJ [Practice Note [1962] 1 All ER 448, [1962] 1 WLR 227] would equally apply and a no case submission would be upheld. We hesitated to lay down a special rule for visual identification evidence which would be anomalous having regard to the general rule that the jury are in the best position to attach weight to admissible evidence from whatsoever source it might arise.’
However this observation does seem at variance with the judgment of the Court of Appeal given by Carberry JA in the instant appeal of Junior Reid. The learned judge there quoted the following excerpt from the judgment given by Lord Diplock in the Privy Council case of Reid v R [1979] 2 All ER 904 at 907, [1980] AC 343 at 347:
‘… but in the light of what they had already held and of the guidelines as to the way in which evidence as to identification should be treated as laid down by the English Court of Appeal in R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549, [1977] QB 224 which is followed by the courts in Jamaica, the only direction that the judge could properly have given to the jury was that on the state of the evidence before them the appellant was entitled to be acquitted.’
Carberry JA accepted that the effect of this passage was ‘to move the law in Jamaica closer to the law as indicated in England in R v Turnbull’.
Their Lordships have no doubt that the direction of Lord Widgery CJ that—
‘When, in the judgment of the trial judge, the quality of the identifying evidence is poor, as for example when it depends solely on a fleeting glance or on a longer observation made in difficult conditions … [the] judge should then withdraw the case from the jury and direct an acquittal unless there is other evidence which goes to support the correctness of the identification’,
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applies with full force and effect to criminal proceedings in Jamaica.
Again in R v Graham and Lewis (26 June 1986, unreported) the Court of Appeal quoted the familiar passage from its decision in R v Whylie (1977) 25 WIR 430 at 433:
‘We have considered the decisions in the cases of: Arthurs. v. A.-G. for Northern Ireland ((1970) 55 Cr App R 161), R. v. Turnbull ([1976] 3 All ER 549, [1977] QB 224), R. v. Peggy Gregory ((1973) 12 JLR 1061), R. v. Desmond Bailey (1973, unreported) and R. v. Dennis Gayle ((1973) 12 JLR 1077), and from these cases we extract the principle that a summing-up which does not deal specifically, having regard to the facts of the particular case, with all matters relating to the strength and the weaknesses of the identification evidence is unlikely to be fair and adequate. Whether or not a specific warning was given to the jury on the dangers of visual identification is one of the factors to be taken into consideration in determining the fairness and adequacy of the summing-up.’ (Our emphasis.)
In Scott v R the Court of Appeal of Jamaica, in rejecting the application for leave to appeal, obviously had the above quoted passage from R v Whylie in mind when it said (see [1989] 2 All ER 305 at 315, [1989] AC 1242 at 1261–1262):
‘A failure to warn the jury of dangers inherent in visual identification cases, it must be borne in mind, is but one of the factors to be taken into consideration in determining the fairness and adequacy of a summing up.’
However, as the judgment of the Privy Council emphasised, ‘This passage gives too little weight to the recognised dangers of convicting on uncorroborated evidence of identity’ (see [1989] 2 All ER 305 at 315, [1989] AC 1242 at 1262).
It is of course true, as was pointed out in terms in R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549 at 554, [1977] QB 224 at 231, that since 1966 the Court of Appeal has had power to quash a conviction, if in the judgment of the court on all the evidence the verdict is either ‘unsafe or unsatisfactory’ (see the Criminal Appeal Act 1966, s 4(1)(a); now the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, s 2(1)(a)). This power is wider than the power previously enjoyed under the Criminal Appeal Act 1907 which conferred the same power as that enjoyed by the Court of Appeal of Jamaica under s 14 of the Judicature (Appellate Jurisdiction) Act. This provides as follows:
‘(1) The Court on any such appeal against conviction shall allow the appeal if they think that the verdict of the jury should be set aside on the ground that it is unreasonable or cannot be supported having regard to the evidence or that the judgment of the Court before which the appellant was convicted should be set aside on the ground of a wrong decision of any question of law, or that on any ground there was a miscarriage of justice, and in any other case shall dismiss the appeal …’
Similar powers are enjoyed by the Supreme Court of New South Wales. It is however apparent from R v De-Cressac (1985) 1 NSWLR 381 that the principles enunciated in R v Turnbull [1976] 3 All ER 549, [1977] QB 224 apply in New South Wales. In that case the Crown’s case was dependent entirely upon identification evidence. None of the four witnesses had any previous knowledge of the appellant, their evidence being confined to observations immediately prior and subsequent to and contemporaneous with the robbery. The court held that the summing up was significantly deficient in that it did not contain an appropriate and thorough warning by the judge to the jury both in relation to the general
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dangers inherent in identification evidence, as well as in relation to some of the particular aspects of the evidence which required the jury to exercise special caution. The court concluded that the deficiency was not of a minor character and therefore it had resulted in a substantial miscarriage of justice. Street CJ giving the judgment of the court said (1 NSWLR 381 at 390):
‘The miscarriage relied upon by the present appellant was of a serious nature. Fullagar J in Mraz v The Queen ((1955) 93 CLR 493 at 514), in a passage that has been repeatedly referred to with approval in later High Court decisions, said of the proviso in s 6 [of the Criminal Appeal Act 1902 (NSW)] that: “… It ought to be read, and it has in fact always been read, in the light of the long tradition of the English criminal law that every accused person is entitled to a trial in which the relevant law is correctly explained to the jury and the rules of procedure and evidence are strictly followed. If there is any failure in any of these respects, and the appellant may thereby have lost a chance which was fairly open to him of being acquitted, there is, in the eye of the law, a miscarriage of justice. Justice has miscarried in such cases, because the appellant has not had what the law says he shall have, and justice is justice according to law.”’
Their Lordships have no hesitation in concluding that a significant failure to follow the guidelines laid down in R v Turnbull will cause the conviction to be quashed because it will have resulted in a substantial miscarriage of justice.
[His Lordship then dealt with the facts and merits of the individual appeals.]
Celia Fox Barrister.
Larner v British Steel plc
[1993] 4 All ER 102
Categories: HEALTH; Health and safety at work
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): HIRST LJ AND PETER GIBSON J
Hearing Date(s): 9, 12 FEBRUARY 1993
Factory – Safe place of work – Obligation to make and keep safe so far as reasonably practicable – Burden of proof – Whether employer required to plead and prove it was not reasonably practicable to keep premises safe – Whether ‘safe’ meaning ‘safe from reasonably foreseeable danger’ – Factories Act 1961, s 29(1).
The plaintiff, a mechanical fitter, was injured in an accident at his workplace when a heavy roller that he had been instructed to dismantle for repair fell and crushed his leg. He brought an action for damages against his employer alleging, inter alia, breach of statutory duty under s 29(1)a of the Factories Act 1961 in failing so far as was reasonably practicable to ensure that his workplace was ‘made and kept safe’. The defendant denied liability, but did not specifically plead in
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respect of s 29 that it was not reasonably practicable to make the workplace safe. The plaintiff led evidence that it would have been reasonably practicable to have supported the equipment by slings or from below, but no evidence was led by the defendant. The judge dismissed the claim, holding, inter alia, that the defendant had taken all reasonable and practical steps to keep the plaintiff safe. The plaintiff appealed on the ground that lack of reasonable practicability could only be relied on by the defendant if it was pleaded and affirmatively proved. The defendant contended that the term ‘safe’ in s 29(1) meant ‘safe from a reasonably foreseeable danger’ and that the plaintiff, in order to establish that the workplace was unsafe, had to prove that the danger was reasonably foreseeable by the defendant.
Held – In a claim for breach of statutory duty under s 29(1) of the 1961 Act the plaintiff had to allege and prove injury from working at a place at which he had to work which was not made or kept safe, and the defendant had to plead and prove that it was not reasonably practicable to keep the premises safe if he was to escape liability. It was necessary, if such a defence was to be raised, that it was specifically pleaded by the defendant, so that the plaintiff could know the case he had to meet. Reasonable foreseeability did not arise in considering under s 29(1) whether a workplace was safe since the section contained no reference to foreseeability and to imply such a test would reduce the protection afforded by the 1961 Act by limiting the success of a claim for breach of statutory duty to circumstances where a claim in negligence would also succeed. As the defendant had failed to plead or prove that it had not been reasonably practicable to make the premises safe, the defendant was liable for the injuries suffered by the plaintiff. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the case remitted to the county court for the assessment of damages (see p 108 j to p 109 c, p 110 c h j, p 111 b c g, p 112 b c, p 113 f g j, post).
Dictum of Viscount Simonds in John Summers & Sons Ltd v Frost [1955] 1 All ER 870 at 872, Nimmo v Alexander Cowan & Sons Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 187, Robertson v R B Cowe & Co 1970 SC 29, Gibson v British Insulated Callenders Construction Co Ltd 1973 SC (HL) 15 and Bowes v Sedgefield DC [1981] ICR 234 applied.
Taylor v Coalite Oils and Chemicals Ltd (1967) 3 KIR 315, Keenan v Rolls Royce Ltd 1969 SC 322 and Morrow v Enterprise Sheet Metal Works (Aberdeen) Ltd 1986 SC 96 not followed.
Notes
For safety of places of work, see 20 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 584–585, and for cases on the subject, see 26 Digest (Reissue) 375–379, 2663–2679.
For the Factories Act 1961, s 29, see 19 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 478.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bowes v Sedgefield DC [1981] ICR 234, CA.
Gibson v British Insulated Callenders Construction Co Ltd 1973 SC (HL) 15.
Keenan v Rolls Royce Ltd 1969 SC 322, Ct of Sess.
Morrow v Enterprise Sheet Metal Works (Aberdeen) Ltd 1986 SC 96, Ct of Sess.
Nimmo v Alexander Cowan & Sons Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 187, [1968] AC 107, [1967] 3 WLR 1169, HL.
Robertson v R B Cowe & Co 1970 SC 29, Ct of Sess.
Summers (John) & Sons Ltd v Frost [1955] 1 All ER 870, [1955] AC 740, [1955] 2 WLR 825, HL.
Taylor v Coalite Oils and Chemicals Ltd (1967) 3 KIR 315, CA.
Walker v Bletchley Flettons Ltd [1937] 1 All ER 170.
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Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Evans v Sant [1975] 1 All ER 294, [1975] QB 626, DC.
Hunter v British Steel Corp 1980 SLT 31, Ct of Sess.
Smith (formerly Westwood) v National Coal Board [1967] 2 All ER 593, [1967] 1 WLR 871, HL.
Trott v W E Smith (Erectors) Ltd [1957] 3 All ER 500, [1957] 1 WLR 1154, CA.
Appeal
The plaintiff, William Norman Larner, a mechanical fitter employed by the defendants, British Steel plc, at their Port Talbot steel works, appealed from the judgment of Judge Michael Evans QC sitting in the Swansea County Court on 13 March 1992 whereby he dismissed the plaintiff’s action against the defendants for damages for negligence and for breach of statutory duty under s 29(1) of the Factories Act 1961 for injury sustained as a result of an accident at work. By a respondent’s notice dated 15 January 1993 the defendants contended that the judge’s decision to dismiss the plaintiff’s action should be affirmed because the plaintiff’s injuries were caused by his own negligence. The facts are set out in the judgment of Hirst LJ.
Philip Richards (instructed by Robin Thompson & Partners, Cardiff) for the plaintiff.
Lloyd Williams (instructed by Cartwrights Adams & Black, Cardiff) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
12 February 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
HIRST LJ. This is an appeal by the plaintiff, Mr William Norman Larner, against the decision in favour of the defendants, British Steel plc, of Judge Michael Evans QC, made at the trial of this action in the Swansea County Court on 13 March 1992 whereby it was adjudged that the plaintiff’s claim for damages for personal injuries be dismissed with costs.
The plaintiff is a mechanical fitter of considerable experience who was employed by the defendants at their Port Talbot steel works. Unfortunately he sustained an accident while dismantling a piece of very heavy equipment during the night shift on 14 February 1987 when the equipment collapsed and crushed his right leg. His claim is for damages for negligence and for breach of statutory duty under s 29(1) of the Factories Act 1961. The judge held that the defendants were not liable under either of these two headings and it is this finding which is the subject matter of the appeal. There is also a respondent’s notice alleging contributory negligence, of which the learned judge acquitted the plaintiff.
The breach of statutory duty which is alleged as set out in the particulars in the points of claim is as follows:
‘The Defendants by themselves their servants or their agents were in breach of their statutory duty to the Plaintiff in that they failed contrary to section 29(1) of the [Factories Act 1961] to provide and maintain a safe means of access to a place at which he was working and/or to make and keep safe a place at which he was working.’
That formulation is based virtually word for word on s 29(1) of the 1961 Act, which provides as follows:
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‘There shall, so far as is reasonably practicable, be provided and maintained safe means of access to every place at which any person has at any time to work and every such place shall, so far as is reasonably practicable, be made and kept safe for any person working there.’
So far as negligence was concerned there were originally a large number of allegations, but they were eventually reduced to two at the trial, that is failure to inspect the structure adequately before the plaintiff embarked on his work and failure to give the plaintiff any or any adequate warning of the risks involved.
The defence denied liability under each head, and (very significantly as will emerge subsequently) did not plead under s 29 that it was not reasonably practicable to make the place of work safe or indeed refer to that aspect of the case at all.
The accident, as I have said, occurred on 14 February 1987. At the time the plaintiff was removing a link from a drive chain connecting a back-spin roll with a hydraulic motor situated in a structure holding the back-spin roll when a substantial part of the structure collapsed. This was a heavy piece of equipment which was used by the defendants in their steel-making process, where there is at one stage a need to handle large coils of coiled steel weighing some 20 to 30 tonnes, and the back-spin roll enables the coil to be rotated under power. There are photographs and also a drawing in evidence before the court illustrating either the actual piece of equipment involved in the accident or a comparable piece of equipment.
There are in this equipment two powered rollers set into the floor and protruding approximately 3 inches above the level of the floor. The coil is placed on the rollers, whereupon the hydraulic motors operate to rotate the rollers and thus rotate the coil. The coil is put onto the rollers from a crane and sometimes, depending on the skill of the crane driver, it gets dropped on, thus subjecting the assembly to sudden force from a considerable height, with the result that occasionally the rollers are broken and need repairing. On the occasion of the accident the structure holding one of the rollers had been damaged and required repair.
The spin roll is a roller measuring about 2 feet in diameter and 8 feet in length and is obviously extremely heavy, weighing, one of the witnesses estimated, about one tonne. It has a spindle with a bearing at each end, so that it can rotate. At one end is a sprocket wheel which is attached to the hydraulic motor by a drive chain. The structure is made out of heavy sheet steel. At the end there is an upright sheet of steel, and underneath the roller there lies a horizontal plate, welded to which there is a piece of metal from one end to the other to strengthen it. Protruding outwards from the upright piece of metal are two base plates which are bolted to the floor. The whole assembly is suspended by the base plates over a void which is sometimes described as a basement. Just below floor level there is a concrete ledge on which a fitter can place his foot while working on the equipment.
Shortly before the accident the assembly, ie the roller and the structure which supports it, was inspected by Mr Gordon Wheeler, an engineer employed by the defendants who was not a witness, and by Mr William Hall, a leading hand fitter, who gave evidence for the plaintiff. On the day of the inspection Mr Wheeler and Mr Hall went down into the basement so that their feet were some 8 feet below the bottom surface of the structure. They had a bulkhead light and also a lantern. They inspected both ends of the structure and they found that the north end of the structure was fractured and that as a result the roller had dropped an inch or two
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from its correct position at the top. However, on this inspection they detected no damage at the south end.
On the day of the accident the plaintiff was given a job card, as the learned judge found, to the following effect:
‘To remove back-spin roller so that the welder could get at the structure supporting it. I was told that there were fractures on the underneath of the structure at the north end.’
The plaintiff was intending to remove the roller using an overhead crane so that the welder could get at the structure supporting it. At the time of the accident he was working at the south end where the motor is situated and was in the process of taking the chain off preparatory to loosening the housing holding the bearings at each end, so that slings could be attached enabling the crane to lift the roller clear of the assembly. At this juncture he put his right foot on the concrete ledge to which I referred above with his left foot at floor level, when the structure dropped and tilted so that the plaintiff’s right leg was trapped against the side of the opening by the motor.
In addition to the plaintiff and Mr Hall, evidence was also given by two other fitters and also by an expert witness, Mr Christopher Warman, who is a consulting engineer. Mr Warman also submitted a written report which was in evidence and to which Mr Richards attaches considerable importance. I shall read the relevant part, under the heading ‘Discussion and Conclusions’:
‘The Plaintiff suffered a serious injury to his right leg when a piece of equipment on which he was working fell on him … the design of the roll supporting framework is such that the two end bearing plates form an integral part of it. The hydraulic motor is rigidly attached to the frame. Thus, in the normal course of events, it is reasonable to assume that, if the transmission chain is released from the driven sprocket of the roll, it will have no effect on the stability of the frame. Indeed the frame appears to have been designed so that the roll itself may easily be removed and replaced without the need to disturb the bearing plates, and hence the framework, at all. The Plaintiff was told that the frame was cracked at the north end. He was not told, and he had no evidence which caused him to suspect, that the framework was also cracked beneath the bearing plate at the south end. Thus he was completely unaware that the only thing supporting the framework was the transmission chain. His accident was caused when he unknowingly removed this sole means of support. The shape of the wound on his right leg is consistent with it having been crushed by the circular flange on the end of the hydraulic motor. The Plaintiff’s instructions were specific … in that they referred only to the crack in the framework at the north end. As we have said, there was no reference to the possibility of a crack at the south end. However, we were told that damage to and cracking of the framework of back-spin rolls is not uncommon. It occurs as a result of crane-drivers dropping coils of steel plate onto the rolls from a height of about a foot. The average weight of such coils is 20 tonnes and the maximum is as much as 30 tonnes. Thus, we believe, it was foreseeable that the south end of the frame, on which the Plaintiff was working could also have been cracked. Without removing the cover, the cracking of the north end would only have been visible from the basement below. Had the person who identified this crack inspected the frame effectively he would have noticed the crack at the south end as well. We believe that the Plaintiff had a right to expect that his
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chargehand or foreman would have made a proper examination and, had there been a risk of the framework being unsupported, the chargehand should have brought it to his attention. Inasmuchas the Defendants, through their foreman or chargehand, failed to identify the risk to the Plaintiff and to bring it to his attention, we believe that they were negligent in their duty of care towards him. The proper procedure would have been for the Defendants’ foreman or, better still, their plant engineer, to have carried out a full inspection and issued instructions as to how the framework was to be safely supported during dismantling. In failing to adopt such a procedure the Defendants caused the Plaintiff to adopt an unsafe system of work.’
Mr Warman then quotes s 29 and proceeds:
‘In our opinion it would have been reasonably practicable to have made and kept the Plaintiff’s place of work safe by the measures which we have already described, namely by a proper inspection and by giving full instructions as to the support of the framework whilst working upon it. Thus, we believe, the Defendants were in breach of this section of the Act.’
In his oral evidence-in-chief, apart from correcting the misunderstanding in his report that the chain was holding up the structure, he adhered to what he had said in his report. In cross-examination he was not challenged on his oral evidence that there were two practicable precautions which he had identified to make the structure safe, viz attaching slings at either end or supporting the equipment underneath.
So far as factual witnesses were concerned, the plaintiff gave evidence, so did Mr Hall and the other two fitters, and they described, according to their role at the relevant times, the inspection and the actual circumstances of the accident which I have already summarised. There is no need to quote any parts of their evidence. As already noted, the defendants called no witnesses either factual or expert, and so did not lead any evidence whatsoever to show that it was not reasonably practicable to make the structure safe.
Having summarised the evidence in detail, the learned judge held that there was a sufficient examination. He commented that if the equipment had been supported underneath it would not have dropped, but that this could not have been so obvious before. He then proceeded:
‘If I accept, as Mr Hall said, that they did examine both ends, that they could not see any defect at the south end which would cause a collapse or which might be sufficient to put everybody on notice, it seems to me that I must find out why the structure collapsed, because I must then see if that could have been anticipated or could have been seen by an inspection. Mr Warman had to tell me that there was no known cause of that fracture or its suddenness, even now, with the benefit of a very considerable amount of hindsight. Therefore, it seems to me, I cannot make such a finding of fact as to why this structure collapsed … In the end I have to ask myself: was the inspection sufficiently detailed to reveal dangers which ought to have been transmitted to the plaintiff? In my judgment it was. That then leads me to what warning ought to have been given to the plaintiff … It seems to me, on the plaintiff’s own evidence, that he was given all the information that was in fact available and could have been available without doing precisely what the plaintiff was doing, which was to take the floor plates up and take the spin roller out. He was told that the structure was fractured and needed to be welded … It seems to me, therefore, that if it is not possible to say after the event how it
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collapsed, it is very difficult then to criticise the defendants because they did not give a warning before it collapsed …’
He then came to the critical part of his judgment:
‘In my judgment, the defendants took all reasonable and practical steps to keep the plaintiff safe. They inspected the job. They warned him of the only fractures that they could see. It was proper to leave the task of removing the roller and/or the structure to an experienced fitter. Neither they nor the plaintiff had any reason to anticipate that the structure would suddenly fall in the way that it did. While the plaintiff may be criticised for putting his foot where he did, normally he would be quite safe. If the structure had fallen in a slightly different way, he would not have been hurt at all. I do not find that any of the allegations of contributory negligence have been proved, nor do I find that the defendants were guilty of breach of statutory duty.’
The main issue in this appeal is whether it was open to the learned judge to conclude, as he did, that the defendants took all reasonable and practical steps to keep the plaintiffs safe (in other words that they had satisfied the burden of proof, which it is common ground rests upon them, in relation to the words ‘so far as is reasonably practicable’ in s 29(1)), seeing that no such contention was raised by the defence.
Mr Richards on behalf of the plaintiff submitted that the defendants’ case under this heading was fatally flawed, since it was well established by the decided authorities that lack of reasonable practicability could only be relied upon by the defendant if he both pleaded it and affirmatively proved it (see Nimmo v Alexander Cowan & Sons Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 187, [1968] AC 107, Gibson v British Insulated Callenders Construction Co Ltd 1973 SC (HL) 15 and Bowes v Sedgefield DC [1981] ICR 234).
In the last of these three cases Arnold P, giving the leading judgment in the Court of Appeal, with which both Oliver LJ and Dame Elizabeth Lane agreed, stated that the effect of the two Scottish appeals in the House of Lords was as follows ([1981] ICR 234 at 238):
‘In my judgment the upshot of those authorities is that it is for defendants who wish to confess and avoid, by saying that, in relation to such a provision as is exemplified by section 29 of the [Factories Act 1961] or regulation 6 of the [Construction (Work Places) Regulations 1966, SI 1966/94], they have failed to provide a safe access or place but it was not reasonably practicable to do so, to aver as a matter of pleading that lack of reasonable practicability. The defendants in this case failed to do so and that was not a mere pleading defect. It was a matter of pleading which had a practical result at the trial in that no evidence was specifically or intentionally called to deal with the question of whether that pleadable point had or had not been made good.’
Mr Williams on behalf of the defendants did not, and indeed could not, dispute the general principle, but he submitted that it did not apply in the present case, seeing that Mr Warman had made a passing reference to reasonable practicality in his report, and that Mr Richards in his final speech in the court below had made reference to where the burden of proof on this matter lies. I do not think this very valuable rule can be so easily brushed aside, and in my judgment it is a prerequisite that this issue, if it is to be raised, should be expressly pleaded, since this will enable the plaintiff to obtain full particulars of the matters on which the defendant relies, thus enabling him to deal fully with them in his expert evidence. I am quite
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sure that the judge would have adverted to this aspect if the trilogy of cases cited above had been cited to him.
However, the matter does not end there since, in my judgment, there was no evidence before the court that either of the two precautions which Mr Warman referred to in his unchallenged evidence as being reasonably practicable (viz supporting the roller with slings at either end or supporting it from underneath) was in fact impracticable. The defendants thus fail on this issue in point of proof as well as in point of pleading.
Consequently, subject to Mr Williams’s submission discussed below, the plaintiff is entitled to succeed on the issue of breach of statutory duty, and Mr Richards helpfully accepted that in those circumstances it was unnecessary for the court to consider his alternative case in negligence.
Mr Williams, however, sought to argue that, to establish that the place of work is unsafe, it is incumbent on the plaintiff to prove that the danger was reasonably foreseeable by the defendants. This was a somewhat bold submission, since it was clearly implicit in the learned judge’s judgment that the place of work was unsafe, seeing that his decision turned entirely on reasonable impracticability. There was no respondent’s notice challenging this finding, but since Mr Richards raised no objection, and was prepared to deal with the point, the argument was allowed to proceed.
Mr Williams relied principally on two cases, Taylor v Coalite Oils and Chemicals Ltd (1967) 3 KIR 315 in the Court of Appeal and Morrow v Enterprise Sheet Metal Works (Aberdeen) Ltd 1986 SC 96 in the Inner House of the Court of Session, where it was held (in each case obiter) that the question of reasonable foreseeability did arise in determining whether the place of the accident was safe under regulations concerning means of access, containing similar provisions to s 29.
On the other hand, in Robertson v R B Cowe & Co 1970 SC 29 the Inner House held that reasonable foreseeability did not arise in consideration of whether a place of work was safe under s 29(1), and that the test is in effect an absolute one. Mr Richards submits that this is the correct approach.
The theory underlying the first two cases stems from a dictum of Lord Reid in John Summers & Sons Ltd v Frost [1955] 1 All ER 870 at 883, [1955] AC 740 at 766, where, in a case under s 14 of the Factories Act 1937 (which contained no exception for reasonable impracticability), Lord Reid stated:
‘… the question is whether, before the accident, it was reasonably foreseeable that an accident of this kind might happen.’
However, Mr Richards was able to point out that this view was not reflected in any of the speeches of the other members of the Appellate Committee, and indeed Viscount Simonds laid stress on the strictness of the test as an ‘absolute obligation’ ([1955] 1 All ER 870 at 872, [1955] AC 740 at 751). Mr Richards does not, of course, dispute the well-established principle that the duty only arises in relation to a plaintiff acting in a way that a human being may reasonably be expected to act in circumstances which may reasonably be expected to occur.
In Munkman Employer’s Liability at Common Law (11th edn, 1990) pp 292–293 the learned author comments on the first two cases as follows:
‘(v) When is access—or place—unsafe?
… “Safe” is, however, a simple English word and there is no reason why it should not be decided as a pure question of fact whether a place is “safe” or not. Unfortunately, the vague and uncertain notion of “foreseeability” has been introduced as a test. So long as it is used as no more than a test, there is no great harm, but it would be unfortunate if it were used to limit and
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circumscribe the plain meaning of “safe”. In Robertson v R B Cowe & Co Ltd (1970 SC 29) the Court of Session said that “foreseeability” does not have to be proved to establish that a thing was unsafe, but only at the later stage of deciding what was “reasonably practicable”. In the later case of Morrow v Enterprise Sheet Metal Works (Aberdeen) Ltd (1986 SC 96), on the other hand, they applied the foreseeability test to decide that there was nothing “unsafe” about cardboard sheets protecting the floor surface, which slid away when trodden on.’
This view seems to me to have considerable force, in the light of the very clear wording of s 29(1) (which contains no reference to foreseeability), and seeing that, if Mr Williams’s argument is correct, the distinction between the common law duty of care and the statutory duty will be virtually obliterated.
These two cases may perhaps be explained by the fact that they were both very near the borderline, since they involved comparatively transient and trivial obstructions in the place of access (a stray piece of wood in Taylor’s case and a cardboard sheet in Morrow’s case). Obviously the facts of the present case are entirely different. Neither of these two cases is binding authority, and I prefer the approach of Viscount Simonds in the John Summers case and of the Inner House in Robertson’s case, and am prepared to hold that the test of safety in s 29(1) is a strict one. This is also consistent with Lord Guest’s dictum in Nimmo v Alexander Cowan & Sons Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 187 at 194, [1968] AC 107 at 122 about to be quoted by Peter Gibson J.
I should add that in any event I find it difficult to see how in the present case some risk of instability was not reasonably apparent, seeing that the inspection revealed a fracture at one end of the structure, as a result of which this very heavy equipment, which was unsupported from underneath, had already dropped an inch or two out of position. In this connection it is immaterial, in my judgment, that, as the learned judge held, the precise cause of the collapse remains uncertain.
So far as the respondent’s notice is concerned, Mr Williams did not in the end press his case on contributory negligence very strongly, and confined his criticism to the suggestion that the plaintiff should have stood clear, and not put his foot on the lower ledge. However, no warning to this effect was contained in his instructions, and, as the learned judge pointed out, if the roller had fallen in a slightly different way (ie vertically) he would not have been hurt at all. I would therefore reject the contention that the plaintiff was guilty of contributory negligence.
In the result I would allow this appeal, and remit the case to the county court for the assessment of the plaintiff’s damages, on the basis of 100% liability.
PETER GIBSON J. As we are differing from the learned judge, I shall explain in my own words why I too would answer in the plaintiff’s favour the question whether there was a breach of statutory duty by the defendants.
The learned judge appears to have treated his conclusions on the plaintiff’s allegation of negligence as largely determinative of that question. But the issue of negligence requires a very different approach from the issue of breach of statutory duty. To make good a claim in negligence the onus is on the plaintiff to establish matters such as the foreseeability of the damage resulting from a breach of a duty of care. To make good a claim for breach of statutory duty under s 29(1) of the Factories Act 1961 the plaintiff has to allege and prove injury while and in consequence of working at a place at which he has to work and that such place was not made or kept safe for him, and it is then for the employer to establish that
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it was not reasonably practicable to make and keep such place safe. That seems to me to follow from the way the duty in s 29(1) is framed:
‘… every … place [at which any person has at any time to work] shall, so far as is reasonably practicable, be made and kept safe for any person working there.’
It is now well established that it is for the employer both to plead and to prove that it was not reasonably practicable to make and keep the working place safe (see Nimmo v Alexander Cowan & Sons Ltd [1967] 3 All ER 187, [1968] AC 107, Gibson v British Insulated Callenders Construction Co Ltd 1973 SC (HL) 15 and Bowes v Sedgefield DC [1981] ICR 234). It is important that the employer should plead his case on this so that the employee can know and test the case he has to meet.
There is no dispute that the plaintiff had to work, in the sense of being required to work, at the place where he was injured and in his pleadings he has made the necessary averment that the defendants failed to make and keep safe that place for him. But the defendants did not aver in their defence that it was not reasonably practicable for them to make and keep the place where the plaintiff was required to work safe for him.
The learned judge did not have the benefit of the citation of authorities and the fuller arguments that we have had. There was no explanation of the consequences of the defendants’ failure to plead the necessary averment as to reasonable practicability. Indeed the plaintiff did not take the pleading point. Nor was there any explanation in the judgment as to why it was not reasonably practicable to take steps other than those which were taken to make the place of work safe. The learned judge treated it as sufficient to have found no negligence in the examination which the defendants carried out, in their warning the plaintiff of the fracture found at one end on that examination and in their leaving the job to him. But he did not consider why in relation to the allegation of breach of statutory duty it was not reasonably practicable, for example, for the defendants to have required the attachment of slings to both ends either of the spin roller alone or of the whole structure or the support of the structure from underneath. Indeed the learned judge appears to have accepted the clear evidence from the plaintiff’s witnesses that both were possible.
In my judgment therefore the failure of the defendants to plead and prove that it was not reasonably practicable to make and keep the plaintiff’s place of work safe for him leads to the conclusion that the plaintiff’s claim for breach of statutory duty must succeed unless, as Mr Williams for the defendants submitted, the plaintiff has failed to show that his place of work was not made or kept safe for him. Mr Williams said that it was for the plaintiff to establish that the accident that occurred was a reasonably foreseeable danger, and, relying on what the learned judge held in relation to the claim in negligence, he contended that the danger was not reasonably foreseeable. These submissions raise two questions. First, does the word ‘safe’ in s 29(1) mean ‘safe from a reasonably foreseeable danger’, so that a workman injured at his place of work by an accident which the employer could not reasonably foresee is unable to succeed in a claim for breach of statutory duty? Second, if so, on the facts of this case was the danger reasonably foreseeable?
I start by considering the words of s 29(1) apart from authority. They contain no express reference to foreseeability, reasonable or otherwise. ‘Safe’ is an ordinary English word and I cannot see any reason why the question whether a place of work is safe should not be decided purely as a question of fact, without putting any gloss on the word (see Munkman Employer’s Liability at Common Law
Page 112 of [1993] 4 All ER 102
(11th edn, 1990) pp 292–293). Further, to imply words in the section so as to introduce a test of reasonable foreseeability is to reduce the protection afforded by the 1961 Act for the workman, the plain object of the section being to provide for a safe working place (see Nimmo’s case [1967] 3 All ER 187 at 194, [1968] AC 107 at 122 per Lord Guest). On principle and on authority that is impermissible (see John Summers & Sons Ltd v Frost [1955] 1 All ER 870 at 872, [1955] AC 740 at 751 per Viscount Simonds). This is not unfair on the employer, whose duty to make and keep the working place safe is qualified by ‘so far as is reasonably practicable’, and I see no necessity to imply any other qualification. It would also seem wrong to me to imply a requirement of foreseeability, as the result will frequently be to limit success in a claim for breach of statutory duty to circumstances where the workman will also succeed in a parallel claim for negligence; thus it reduces the utility of the section.
Mr Williams accepted that there was no authority that compels us to conclude that the section requires such a test and in Robertson v R B Cowe & Co 1970 SC 29 an argument that the test of reasonable foreseeability applied to s 29(1) was specifically rejected by the First Division of the Inner House of the Court of Session. However, Mr Williams referred us to a number of other authorities in which the reference to safety in s 29 and other similar statutory provisions has been construed as importing the test of reasonable foreseeability. These authorities are based on certain comments by Lord Reid in the John Summers case on the meaning of ‘dangerous’ in s 14(1) of the Factories Act 1937. That subsection imposed the duty that ‘Every dangerous part of any machinery … shall be … fenced’. Lord Reid referred to what du Parcq LJ said in Walker v Bletchley Flettons Ltd [1937] 1 All ER 170 at 175:
‘… a part of machinery is dangerous if it is a possible cause of injury to anybody acting in a way in which a human being may be reasonably expected to act in circumstances which may be reasonably expected to occur’
and queried the word ‘possible’, adding ([1955] 1 All ER 870 at 882–883, [1955] AC 740 at 765–766):
‘If the question of degree of danger has to be considered it might perhaps be better to say “a reasonably foreseeable cause of injury”.’
These comments on the meaning of ‘dangerous’ in that provision, which contains no qualification of reasonable practicability, have, surprisingly, been relied on in obiter comments on the meaning of its antonym ‘safe’ in s 29 and other similar provisions notwithstanding that they do contain such a qualification.
In Taylor v Coalite Oils and Chemicals Ltd (1967) 3 KIR 315 at 319 Diplock LJ, sitting with Willmer and Winn LJJ and giving the judgment of this court, said:
‘The occupier’s duty in respect of working places is not to prevent accidents occurring to persons working at them, but to take all such measures as are reasonably practicable to make and keep the working place safe for such persons. “Safe” is the converse of “dangerous”. A working place is “safe” if there is nothing there which might be a reasonably foreseeable cause of injury to anyone working there, acting in a way in which a human being may reasonably be expected to act, in circumstances which may reasonably be expected to occur …’
And he referred to the passage to which I have referred from Lord Reid’s speech in the John Summers case as authority. Taylor’s case was decided before Nimmo’s
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case and that approach to s 29 needs reconsideration in the light of what was said in Nimmo’s case. Thus in Nimmo’s case [1967] 3 All ER 187 at 194, [1968] AC 107 at 122 Lord Guest said:
‘To treat the onus as being on the pursuer seems to equiparate the duty under the statute to the duty under common law, namely, to take such steps as are reasonably practicable to keep the working place safe. I cannot think that the section was intended to place such a limited obligation on employers.’
In any event the comments of this court in Taylor’s case were obiter.
In Keenan v Rolls Royce Ltd 1969 SC 322 at 335 Lord Migdale said:
‘The duty on the employer is to take steps, so far as reasonably practicable, to safeguard the workman against all causes of injury which are reasonably foreseeable.’
But four months later in Robertson v R B Cowe & Co 1970 SC 29 at 41 he said:
‘In my view the test of “reasonably foreseeable” does not apply to a section like 29(1), which already embodies the qualification of reasonable practicability, so as to put on the pursuer an obligation to show that the event should have been foreseen.’
However, in Morrow v Enterprise Sheet Metal Works (Aberdeen) Ltd 1986 SC 96 the Second Division of the Inner House of the Court of Session distinguished Robertson v R B Cowe & Co on its facts and again applied the test of reasonable foreseeability. But again this was obiter.
I recognise the importance of construing statutory provisions applicable both sides of the border in a consistent fashion, but in the present state of the authorities it seems to me that we are free to choose whether or not to apply the test of reasonable foreseeability. For my part, for the reasons I have already given, I prefer to read the section without implying any such test.
On that footing it seems to me on the facts plain that the defendants failed to make and keep safe for the plaintiff his place of work. Nor did I understand Mr Williams to contend otherwise. However, even if I am wrong on the construction of the section so that it was for the plaintiff to show that the danger of what occurred was reasonably foreseeable, I would conclude that the test was satisfied in all the circumstances of the case. Here was a very heavy structure with a fracture known to exist at one end and which had already dropped a short distance and, although the inspection which had been carried out had not revealed the existence of a fracture at the other end, the possibility, as the plaintiff’s expert said, of the existence of a crack at the other end must have been foreseeable. The design (which the defendants knew or ought to have known) of the structure causing a bending in two places added to the danger, and in the absence of slings at both ends or support from underneath, in my opinion, the danger was reasonably foreseeable.
I see no reason to disturb the learned judge’s finding that none of the allegations of contributory negligence was proved.
I too therefore would allow the appeal and make the order which Hirst LJ has proposed.
Appeal allowed. Case remitted to county court for assessment of damages.
Raina Levy Barrister.
Arab Monetary Fund v Hashim and others (No 7)
[1993] 4 All ER 114
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON, NEILL AND HIRST LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 11, 12, 25 NOVEMBER 1992
Document – Admissibility in evidence – Record as evidence of facts stated therein – Authenticity of record disputed – Judge ordering that parties entitled to adduce in evidence and rely on specified categories of documents at trial – Defendant challenging authenticity of documents – Whether order required to identify particular facts to be proved and manner in which to be proved – Whether court having power to make order in respect of documents whose authenticity challenged – RSC Ord 27, r 4, Ord 38, r 3.
Evidence – Mode of giving evidence – Video link – Evidence of particular facts to be given ‘in such manner as may be specified’ – Evidence given by video link permissible – RSC Ord 38, r 3.
The plaintiff (the AMF), an international banking organisation, brought an action against the defendant, its former director general, claiming that money in a Swiss bank account in the defendant’s name was the proceeds of foreign exchange dealings carried out by the defendant for his own purposes using the AMF’s money. The AMF alleged that the defendant had transferred the proceeds of the dealings to an account in Luxembourg and then to the Swiss account. The judge made directions before trial pursuant to RSC Ord 38, r 3a that certain categories of documents, namely bank account transactions and instructions, foreign exchange and precious metal contracts and loans or deposits, could be relied on by the parties for the purposes of the court at trial (a) drawing such inferences as it thought fit as to the authenticity of such documents, (b) treating such documents as admissible evidence of the facts which they recorded and (c) drawing any other inferences which might be drawn from their contents. Under Ord 38, r 3 the court could order that ‘evidence of any particular fact shall be given at the trial in such manner as specified by the order’. The defendant, who challenged under Ord 27, r 4b the authenticity of a large number of documents disclosed by the AMF, appealed against the judge’s order on the grounds that the judge had no jurisdiction to order that any fact, without particularity, could be proved merely by producing unauthenticated documents, that he had erred in holding that the rule as to hearsay evidence had no bearing on the admissibility of evidence at a trial before a judge alone and that he had had no jurisdiction to make the order in respect of documents whose authenticity had been challenged.
Held – The object of RSC Ord 38, r 3 was to facilitate proof of particular facts of a largely formal character which were peripheral to the major issues in the action. Since (i) the particular facts which could be proved by the documents had not been identified, (ii) the effect of the order was to enable secondary
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evidence to be given in respect of a major issue in the action, namely whether the Luxembourg account was an account of AMF or the defendant, (iii) Ord 38, r 3 did not permit wholesale dispensation of the hearsay rule and (iv) it was not a proper exercise of a judge’s discretion under Ord 38, r 3 to order that production of documents would be proof of their authenticity and contents when the defendant had challenged their authenticity by a notice under Ord 27, r 4, it followed that there were fundamental objections to the judge’s order. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 118 b, p 119 b to h, p 120 e and p 123 f g, post).
Dictum of Bingham J in H v Schering Chemicals Ltd [1983] 1 All ER 849 applied.
Per Neill LJ. RSC Ord 38, r 3, which provides that evidence of any particular fact may be given ‘in such manner as may be specified’, enables evidence to be given by video link (see p 123 f, post).
Notes For the admission and production of documents on discovery, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 315–316, 456.
Cases referred to in judgments
Baerlein v Chartered Mercantile Bank [1895] 2 Ch 488, CA.
Garcin v Amerindo Investment Advisors Ltd [1991] 4 All ER 655, [1991] 1 WLR 1140.
H v Schering Chemicals Ltd [1983] 1 All ER 849, [1983] 1 WLR 143.
Myers v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 881, [1965] AC 1001, [1964] 3 WLR 145, HL.
R v Kearley [1992] 2 All ER 345, [1992] 2 AC 228, [1992] 2 WLR 656, HL.
Cases also citedBearmans Ltd v Metropolitan Police District Receiver [1961] 1 All ER 384, [1961] 1 WLR 634, CA.
Jarman v Lambert & Cooke (Contractors) Ltd [1951] 2 All ER 255, [1951] 2 KB 937, CA.
R v Governor of Pentonville Prison, ex p Osman [1989] 3 All ER 701, [1990] 1 WLR 277, DC.
Ventouris v Mountain (No 2), The Italia Express [1992] 3 All ER 414, [1992] 1 WLR 887, CA.
Interlocutory appeal Jawad Mahmoud Hashim, Salwa Al Rufaiee and Omar Hashim, who were the first, second and eleventh defendants in an action brought by the plaintiff, the Arab Monetary Fund (the AMF), appealed from that part of the order of Hoffmann J made when giving directions in the action on 12 May 1992 that the parties be entitled to adduce in evidence and rely upon any documents, whether authenticated or not, purporting to be within five categories of documents, namely bank account transactions, bank instructions, foreign exchange contracts, precious metal contracts and loans or deposits. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Colin Ross-Munro QC and Hugo Page (instructed by Landau & Scanlan) for the defendants.
Charles Flint (instructed by Freshfields) for the AMF.
Cur adv vult
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25 November 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ. The court has before it an appeal by Dr Hashim, the first defendant in the first of these consolidated actions, and his wife and son, the second and eleventh defendants, against para 5 of an order made by Hoffmann J on 12 May 1992. By that order the judge gave directions on a range of outstanding matters pending the trial of the action which is due to commence in the Chancery Division early next year. By para 5 of the order, which is the only part challenged, he gave directions, purportedly pursuant to RSC Ord 38, r 3, in relation to evidence to be adduced at the trial.
The general outline of the case given to us by counsel is as follows. The plaintiff, the Arab Monetary Fund (the AMF), is a body established by treaty between a large number of Arab states which has been recognised by the courts as a body capable of suing in this country. Dr Hashim was the first director general of the AMF from 1977 to 1982, and at that time a Mr Stephan and a Dr Mahdi, who are also defendants in the consolidated action, were the finance director and head of the investments department or treasurer of the AMF. The AMF claims, so far as Dr Hashim is concerned, that the three men conspired together to use moneys of the AMF for speculative foreign exchange transactions which were concealed, and not disclosed in the books of the AMF. It is alleged that the profits from these undisclosed transactions were passed in the early stages to an account at the Luxembourg branch of the Dresdner Bank, which was unquestionably an account of the AMF, and later to a dollar account, No CD 1028-2 at BCCI, Luxembourg, and thence to a private account of Dr Hashim, No 1099 at the Geneva branch of an American bank, First National Bank of Chicago.
To this Dr Hashim, his wife and son (the only defendants with whom we are now concerned) say that the undisclosed foreign exchange transactions were not entered in the books of the AMF because they were not transactions of the AMF at all, but were private transactions of Dr Hashim, Mr Stephan and Dr Mahdi, initially with their own moneys, and not with the moneys of the AMF, and subsequently with the profits generated by their earlier transactions. They further assert that the BCCI Luxembourg account was an account of Dr Hashim, and not an account of the AMF, or for the benefit of the AMF at all.
In these circumstances it is obvious that the trial will be concerned with a lot of currency and banking transactions. There are also certain precious metal contracts and loans or deposits in issue. But the crucial questions will be whose moneys were being used, and who was the owner of the various bank accounts.
In the earlier stages of these proceedings, when Dr Hashim was acting in person, he gave a notice, not strictly in time, purportedly under RSC Ord 27, r 4, challenging the authenticity of a very large number of the documents disclosed by the AMF. That notice was set aside by consent by the order of Hoffmann J, and the time for service by Dr Hashim of a notice under Ord 27, r 4 was extended to 15 June 1992. A fresh notice, which was before us, was duly served on that day.
One of the issues discussed on this appeal is the interplay between Ord 27, r 4 and Ord 38, r 3. In this connection it is as well to have in mind that there are certain documents disclosed by Dr Hashim whose authenticity has been duly challenged by the AMF under Ord 27, r 4.
Order 27, r 4 provides, so far as material:
Page 117 of [1993] 4 All ER 114
‘(1) Subject to paragraph (2) … a party on whom a list of documents is served … shall … be deemed to admit—(a) that any document described in the list as an original document is such a document and was printed, written, signed or executed as it purports respectively to have been, and (b) that any document described therein as a copy is a true copy …
(2) If … the party on whom the list is served [duly] serves on the [other] party whose list it is a notice stating, in relation to any document specified therein, that he does not admit the authenticity of that document and requires it to be proved at the trial, he shall not be deemed to make any admission in relation to that document under paragraph (1) …’
Order 38, r 3 is in the following terms:
‘(1) Without prejudice to rule 2, the Court may, at or before the trial of any action, order that evidence of any particular fact shall be given at the trial in such manner as may be specified by the order.
(2) The power conferred by paragraph (1) extends in particular to ordering that evidence of any particular fact may be given at the trial—(a) by statement on oath of information or belief, or (b) by the production of documents or entries in books, or (c) by copies of documents or entries in books, or (d) in the case of a fact which is or was a matter of common knowledge either generally or in a particular district, by the production of a specified newspaper which contains a statement of that fact.’
The present Ord 38, r 3 has appeared in the Rules of the Supreme Court in the same wording (though not under the same number) since 1954. The statutory authority in force in 1954 for the making of the rule then made was s 99(1) of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925, which provided:
‘Rules of court may be made under this Act for the following purposes … (i) For regulating the means by which particular facts may be proved, and the mode in which evidence thereof may be given, in any proceedings or on any application in connection with or at any stage of any proceedings …’
As appears from the judgment of Neill LJ the antecedents of the present Ord 38, r 3 go back much earlier.
We referred to two decisions at first instance on the application of Ord 38, r 3. In the first, Garcin v Amerindo Investment Advisors Ltd [1991] 4 All ER 655 at 659, [1991] 1 WLR 1140 at 1145, Morritt J was concerned to stress that the particular facts of which evidence was to be given under Ord 38, r 3 were to be set out in the order the court made under the rule. He also said, after setting out the terms of the rule ([1991] 4 All ER 655 at 656, [1991] 1 WLR 1140 at 1142):
‘Thus the court has power to determine the manner in which evidence is given but does not, as it seems to me, have power to enlarge the evidence which may be given beyond that which is legally admissible, except possibly in the particular categories set out in para (2).’
In the other case, H v Schering Chemicals Ltd [1983] 1 All ER 849 at 853, [1983] 1 WLR 143 at 147, Bingham J, after indicating that the purpose of the rule might be to permit the giving of secondary evidence instead of what would ordinarily be regarded as the best evidence, went on to say:
‘… I think that the object of the rule is to permit the proof of matters, or to facilitate the proof of matters, which, although in issue, are largely
Page 118 of [1993] 4 All ER 114
peripheral to the major issue in the action, that is to facilitate the proof of matters which are largely, although not completely, formal. It is not, I think, the purpose of this rule to permit the adducing on an issue crucial to the outcome, as here, of material which does not rank as evidence, even for purposes of the 1968 Act and the rules of court.’
I respectfully agree with that passage. In the present case, however, Hoffmann J took a very much broader view of the function of the rule.
The parties were agreed that an order under the rule ought to be made, and Mr Flint had prepared a form of draft order which identified the particular facts which were to be proved and the manner in which they were respectively to be proved. He also indicated which parts of his draft were disputed by Mr Page on behalf of Dr Hashim. The judge, however, preferred a much wider approach, and in deference to that Mr Flint prepared a draft of the order which the judge actually made.
In the opening paragraph of his judgment the judge said:
‘The use of these [banking] documents at the trial gives rise to two problems: one relates to authenticity and concerns the rules relating to the proof of documents as authentic; the second relates to the facts which the documents may be used to prove and involves the hearsay rule.’
He then considered the proposition that certain categories of documents might be authorised to be used to prove certain specified facts, but he rejected that as not best calculated to ensure the smooth running of the trial. He continued:
‘Once one formulates categories there is considerable danger of much time being spent on argument as to whether particular facts fall within the category or not. As much time may be taken up on the construction of the order as the adducing of the evidence. The restriction of the direction to particular categories of documents—namely those proving banking transactions of various kinds—is not very likely to give rise to those sorts of problems, but the attempt to categorise the purposes for which the documents may be used is likely to do so. I think that it therefore should be avoided if possible.’
He therefore concluded that there was no ground for depriving the judge of the right to draw such inferences as he might think fit from the documents under the rule. He referred to an anomaly suggested in argument, if a document which because a small part of its contents came within a specified category could be used to prove facts which had nothing to do with the transaction which brought it within that category, but he concluded:
‘That is true, but I think that the risk of an illogicality of that kind has to be balanced against the advantages of dispensing with the hearsay rule, and I would prefer to dispense with the rule on a footing which is too wide rather than one which is too narrow.’
The order made was therefore of very broad scope. He identified categories of original or copy documents under the five headings: (1) bank account transactions, (2) bank instructions, (3) foreign exchange contracts, (4) precious metal contracts and (5) loans or deposits, and he directed that all such documents could be relied on for the purpose of the court—
Page 119 of [1993] 4 All ER 114
‘(1) drawing such inferences as the court thinks fit as to the authenticity of such documents; (2) treating such documents as admissible evidence of the facts which they recorded; (3) drawing any other inferences which may be drawn from their contents …’
In my judgment that goes far too far and is outside what the rule permits. The rule is concerned only with the proving of ‘particular facts’. The starting point must be to identify the particular facts which are to be proved by the means specified in the order under the rule. But the judge has not identified any particular facts. He has merely identified a large number of documents, and has said that they may be relied on as evidence of anything that can be deduced from them.
He has, in the passage I have cited from his judgment, shown some enthusiasm for dispensing with the hearsay rule. But that rule is long established in our law, and in Myers v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 881, [1965] AC 1001 and R v Kearley [1992] 2 All ER 345, [1992] 2 AC 228 the House of Lords considered that its relaxation was a matter for Parliament. It would be startling therefore to hold that in civil proceedings wholesale dispensation with the hearsay rule has been readily available since 1954, if not before, by the means of an order under what is now Ord 38, r 3 as broad as the order made by Hoffmann J in the present case.
There are other fundamental objections, in my judgment, to the order made.
One is that the judge knew that a fresh notice under Ord 27, r 4 was going to be served by Dr Hashim’s advisers. He knew also the nature of some of the documents which were likely to be challenged; they included certain bank statements in respect of the BCCI Luxembourg account and certain telexes, or copy or draft telexes, purportedly giving instructions for various movements of money. But the judge’s order has the effect, as I construe it, that the production of the bank statement or telex or a copy is itself to be evidence of the authenticity of the document and of the accuracy of its contents. That would have the effect, in my judgment, of switching the onus, and putting an onus on Dr Hashim to disprove the authenticity of documents in respect of which he would have duly served a notice under Ord 27, r 4. That could not, in my judgment, be a proper exercise of the judge’s discretion under Ord 38, r 3. (I stress that I am not considering the court’s powers where for improper purposes a litigant has served a ridiculously wide notice under Ord 27, r 4.)
There is also the fact that it is common ground that the issue whether the BCCI Luxembourg account was an account of the AMF or a personal account of Dr Hashim is a major issue in the action and in no way peripheral. Consistently therefore with the observations of Bingham J cited above, that is not, in the circumstances of this case, a matter to be proved by hearsay or secondary documentary evidence admitted under Ord 38, r 3.
I would therefore allow this appeal, and set aside para 5 of the order of Hoffmann J.
It remains to consider what alternative order ought to be made instead.
Matters have moved on since the case was before the judge last May. Dr Hashim’s advisers have served a fresh Ord 27, r 4 notice which is much less extensive than the notice served by Dr Hashim himself when acting in person. More importantly, an expert accountants’ report by Dr Hashim’s accountants has been supplied to the AMF’s advisers. This, Mr Flint told us, treats all the unrecorded private dealing as having taken place as the disclosed documents,
Page 120 of [1993] 4 All ER 114
including telexes whose authenticity is in issue, show. Mr Ross-Munro QC had not apparently had the advantage of seeing his own client’s accountants’ report. But it would seem that, as one would expect in an action of this nature, steps are being taken by the advisers of both sides to reduce the areas of apparent conflict so that by the time the trial opens the parties and the court will know what really is in issue.
In these circumstances, I would favour the making of an order in the terms of the draft put forward by Mr Flint rather than in the terms put forward by Mr Ross-Munro [His Lordship referred to the specific amendments in counsel’s drafts and contined:]. But the whole order should be subject to a proviso that the production of such documents or entries in books or copies of documents or entries in books in so far as they are the subject of a subsisting notice under Ord 27, r 4 on behalf of Dr Hashim, is not to be taken as evidence, without further proper proof at the trial, that the BCCI Luxembourg bank account was an account of the AMF and not an account of Dr Hashim or of any other matter which Dr Hashim has required to be proved at the trial by such a subsisting notice, and conversely in so far as any document is the subject of a valid notice under Ord 27, r 4 given on behalf of the AMF the production of such document is not to be taken as evidence without further proper proof at the trial of any matter which the AMF has by such notice required to be proved at the trial.
NEILL LJ. I agree that the appeal should be allowed for the reasons set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ. I also agree that a substitute order should be made on the lines identified by Dillon LJ in his judgment. I think it may be helpful, however, if I consider in further detail the scope and effect of RSC Ord 38, r 3.
It was argued on behalf of the defendants that where a party to an action serves a notice in accordance with Ord 27, r 4(2) that he does not admit the authenticity of a particular document, the court has no jurisdiction to make an order under Ord 38, r 3 for the production of that document as evidence of any fact recorded in it. In the alternative it was argued that where a notice has been served under Ord 27, r 4(2) the court should refuse to make an order under Ord 38, r 3 in the exercise of its discretion. I propose to consider first the question of jurisdiction.
The jurisdiction to make an order under RSC Ord 38, r 3
Order 38, r 3 provides as follows:
‘(1) Without prejudice to rule 2, the Court may, at or before the trial of any action, order that evidence of any particular fact shall be given at the trial in such manner as may be specified by the Order.
(2) The power conferred by paragraph (1) extends in particular to ordering that evidence of any particular fact may be given at the trial—(a) by statement on oath of information or belief, or (b) by the production of documents or entries in books, or (c) by copies of documents or entries in books, or (d) in the case of a fact which is or was a matter of common knowledge either generally or in a particular district, by the production of a specified newspaper which contains a statement of that fact.’
That rule in its present form reproduces the former Ord 37, r 1C, which came into force in 1954. Order 37, r 1C was made under powers contained in s 99(1)(i)
Page 121 of [1993] 4 All ER 114
of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925, which provided that rules of court might be made under the Act—
‘for regulating the means by which particular facts may be proved, and the mode in which evidence thereof may be given, in any proceedings or on any application in connection with or at any stage of any proceedings …’
The present Ord 38, r 3 is one of the Rules of the Supreme Court 1965 which came into operation on 1 October 1966. It was made under s 99(1)(i) of the 1925 Act but, by virtue of s 17(2)(b) of the Interpretation Act 1978, it is now to be treated as having been made under s 87 of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
The power to make rules relaxing the strict rules of evidence in relation to the proof of particular facts was first conferred by s 3 of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Procedure) Act 1894, which was in these terms:
‘It is hereby declared that the power to make rules conferred by the Judicature Acts, 1873 to 1891, includes power to make rules for regulating the means by which particular facts may be proved and the mode in which evidence thereof may be given:—(a) On any application in any matter or proceeding relating to the distribution of any fund or property, whether in court or not; and (b) On any application upon summons for directions pursuant to such rules.’
The 1894 Act came into force in September 1894. Almost immediately a new rule was made by the rule committee to give effect to s 3. The new Ord 30, r 7 provided:
‘On the hearing of the summons [for directions] … the court or a judge may order that evidence of any particular fact, to be specified in the order, shall be given … by statement on oath of information and belief, or by production of documents or entries in books, or by copies of documents or entries or otherwise as the court or judge may direct.’
In Baerlein v Chartered Mercantile Bank [1895] 2 Ch 488 the Court of Appeal had occasion to consider the new rule when hearing an application for the transfer of an action from the Chancery Division to the Queen’s Bench Division to be tried as a commercial cause. The court also considered a recent notice which had been issued by the judges of the Queen’s Bench Division relating to commercial causes in which it was provided that application might be made to the judge in charge of commercial business ‘to dispense with the technical rules of evidence’. In his judgment Lindley LJ referred to Ord 30, r 7 and continued (at 492):
‘The object of that is, under the powers of the Act of 1894, to dispense to a certain limited extent with the technical rules of evidence. The rules and regulations contained in the notice issued with reference to the commercial court are nothing more than a statement for the guidance of the practitioners in that Court; and they do not go any further than the rule which I have mentioned.’
He then set out the regulation relating to commercial causes and added:
‘That does not give to the judge of the commercial court any power to do what another judge of the High Court cannot do. They can all do precisely the same thing under the power conferred by the Judicature Act, 1894, and
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the Rules, and, of course, by consent (where all parties are competent) the technical rules of evidence can be dispensed with.’
Section 3 of the 1894 Act was repealed by the Administration of Justice Act 1920. Section 3 was replaced, however, by the very similar provisions in s 6 of the 1920 Act:
‘The power to make rules conferred by the Judicature Acts, 1873 to 1910, shall include power to make rules for regulating the means by which particular facts may be proved, and the mode in which evidence thereof may be given, in any proceedings or on any application in connection with or at any stage of any proceedings.’
In due course the 1920 Act was repealed and s 6 was replaced by s 99(1)(i) of the 1925 Act. I should also refer to the proviso to s 101 of the 1925 Act. Section 101 was in these terms:
‘Nothing in this Act and, subject as hereinafter in this section expressly provided, nothing in rules of court made under this Act, shall affect the mode of giving evidence by the oral examination of witnesses in trials with a jury, or the rules of evidence, or the law relating to jurymen or juries: Provided that nothing in this section shall—(a) prejudice the operation of any rules of court made in pursuance of the express power conferred by this Act to make rules of court for regulating the means by which particular facts may be proved and the mode in which evidence thereof may be given; (b) affect the power of the court for special reasons to allow depositions or affidavits to be read.’
It is not necessary for the purposes of the present judgment to trace the amendments to the original Ord 30, r 7. It is sufficient to notice that r 7 was in due course replaced by a new Ord 30, r 2(2)(d) which empowered the court or a judge on the hearing of the summons for directions to—
‘order that evidence of any particular fact or facts, to be specified in the order, shall be given at the trial by statement on oath of information and belief, or by production of documents or entries in books, or by copies of documents or entries or otherwise as the Court or Judge may direct …’
This was the rule which was in force immediately before the introduction of Ord 37, r 1C in 1954.
It is clear that throughout the history of the different rules the power to make orders has been confined to orders relating to evidence of particular facts. It seems to me therefore that the order must identify the particular fact or facts and then specify the type of evidence which can be given of that fact. On the other hand the rule does not appear to contain any restriction as to what facts or what types of evidence of those facts may be specified in the order. As a matter of jurisdiction the court’s powers seem to be unfettered.
I can therefore find no support in Ord 38, r 3 for the argument that the court has no jurisdiction to make an order in relation to a document which has been the subject of an Ord 27, r 4(2) notice.
I turn therefore to the question of discretion.
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Discretion in relation to an order under RSC Ord 38, r 3
It is to be remembered that the general principle is that the evidence of witnesses shall be given by oral testimony in open court. This rule is subject to a number of exceptions but the general principle of oral testimony is still to be found in Ord 38, r 1, which provides:
‘Subject to the provisions of these rules and of the Civil Evidence Act 1968 and the Civil Evidence Act 1972, and any other enactment relating to evidence, any fact required to be proved at the trial of any action begun by writ by the evidence of witnesses shall be proved by the examination of the witnesses orally and in open Court.’
This general principle is relevant when considering an application under Ord 38, r 3. It follows therefore that when important facts are in dispute and, a fortiori, when the authenticity of documents is challenged, an order under Ord 38, r 3 that evidence of such facts may be given by the production of a document will usually be inappropriate.
Accordingly, I agree with the general approach of Bingham J in H v Schering Chemicals Ltd [1983] 1 All ER 849 at 853, [1983] 1 WLR 143 at 147 where he said:
‘… I think that the object of the rule is to permit the proof of matters, or to facilitate the proof of matters, which, although in issue, are largely peripheral to the major issue in the action, that is to facilitate the proof of matters which are largely, although not completely, formal. It is not, I think, the purpose of this rule to permit the adducing on an issue crucial to the outcome, as here, of material which does not rank as evidence, even for purposes of the 1968 Act and the rules of court.’
Order 38, r 3 may be used, however, to enable evidence to be given by a video link. I can also imagine that there may be cases where evidence of particular facts which are not merely peripheral may be given by the production of documents. It would be inappropriate, however, to attempt to catalogue the circumstances in which an order under Ord 38, r 3 may be made. But I am quite satisfied that the order under Ord 38, r 3 in this case should not include any documents whose authenticity is challenged or any facts which remain genuinely in dispute.
HIRST LJ. I agree with both judgments and have nothing to add.
Appeal allowed.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
Land Securities plc v Westminster City Council
[1993] 4 All ER 124
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Rent: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): HOFFMANN J
Hearing Date(s): 28, 29 JULY 1992
Landlord and tenant – Rent – Review – Arbitration – Evidence – Rents at which comparable properties recently let – Whether award of another arbitrator in review of rent of comparable property admissible evidence in arbitration.
Evidence – Admissibility – Arbitrator’s award – Rent review – Whether award admissible in evidence at rent review arbitration of comparable property.
An arbitrator’s award determining the market rent of a property is inadmissible in evidence in another rent review arbitration relating to a comparable property. Evidence of the rents at which comparable properties have been let in the open market or agreed by other parties at rent reviews at about the same time is, however, admissible if properly proved because it shows what actual landlords and tenants have agreed in transactions in which real money is to change hands. An arbitrator’s award, however, is mere opinion, based on the evidence before him, of the rent at which the premises could reasonably have been let, and is not direct evidence of what was happening in the market. If tendered as an expert witness, moreover, the arbitrator would be liable to cross-examination, like any other expert witness, to justify his opinion and, even assuming he could give admissible evidence of the comparables supporting his opinion, the procedure would involve a collateral inquiry as to whether he had come to the right decision in his own arbitration, and would have insufficient relevance to the main inquiry to justify undertaking it (see p 125 j to p 126 c, p 126 j to p 127 a and p 128 d f, post).
Hollington v F Hewthorn & Co Ltd [1943] 2 All ER 35 applied.
Ward v Shell-Mex and BP Ltd [1951] 2 All ER 904 doubted.
Notes
For procedure and evidence at arbitrations generally, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 672, and for cases on the subject, see 3 Digest (Reissue) 153–154, 875–896.
For the admissibility of judgments and awards in evidence, see 17 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 190–197, 203, and for cases on the subject, see 22(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 399–400, 426, 4873–4889, 5242.
Cases referred to in judgment
Buccleuch (Duke) v Metropolitan Board of Works (1872) LR 5 HL 418, [1861–73] All ER Rep 654.
Hollington v F Hewthorn & Co Ltd [1943] 2 All ER 35, [1943] KB 587, CA.
Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] 1 AC 34, [1991] 3 WLR 495, PC.
Hunter v Chief Constable of West Midlands [1981] 3 All ER 727, [1982] AC 529, [1981] 3 WLR 906, HL.
Savings and Investment Bank Ltd v Gasco Investments (Netherlands) BV [1984] 1 All ER 296, [1984] 1 WLR 271.
Ward v Shell-Mex and BP Ltd [1951] 2 All ER 904, [1952] 1 KB 280.
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Reference
By summons under s 2(1) of the Arbitration Act 1979 the plaintiffs, Land Securities plc, with the consent of the defendants, Westminster City Council, applied for the court’s determination of a question of law, namely whether the award of another arbitrator in respect of a comparable property was admissible evidence in a rent review arbitration. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Michael Barnes QC and John Furber (instructed by Nabarro Nathanson) for the plaintiffs.
T L G Cullen QC and John Burrett (instructed by G Matthew Ives) for the defendants.
HOFFMANN J. This summons raises the question of whether an arbitrator’s award determining the market rent of a property is admissible evidence in another rent review arbitration relating to a comparable property.
The plaintiff is the landlord of Westminster City Hall in Victoria Street. The premises are let to the City of Westminster under a lease dated 24 August 1972 for 99 years. The lease provides for rent reviews at which the rent is to be fixed at two-thirds ‘of the fair market rack rent’ at the review date. If the parties are unable to agree the rent is to be determined by arbitration. The most recent rent review date was 25 March 1991 and the parties were unable to agree. The question accordingly has been referred to Mr D Harris to determine as an arbitrator.
On 14 February 1992 the arbitrator gave preliminary directions for the hearing which included the following: (1) each party to be limited to one expert witness with a right to apply to call others; (2) copies of reports and valuations to be exchanged by 13 March; (3) cross-representations on each other’s reports and valuations to be exchanged by 27 March; (4) hearing to commence 11 May; (5) normal rules of evidence to apply at the hearing and (6) evidence that is not agreed must be strictly proved.
The hearing commenced on 11 May. The plaintiff was contending for a valuation of £35 per square foot and the tenant for £16 per square foot.
On 22 May when closing submissions had been reached the plaintiff discovered that on 12 May Mr P H Clark had issued an interim award in a rent review arbitration between Pearl Assurance plc and the Secretary of State for the Environment determining the market rent on 20 February 1991 of another office building in Victoria Street. Mr Clark had valued that building at £34 a square foot. The plaintiff applied to the arbitrator for leave to adduce Mr Clark’s award as evidence of the rental value of a comparable property. The tenant objected to its admissibility and by this summons under s 2(1) of the Arbitration Act 1979 the court with the consent of the parties is asked to determine a question of law, namely whether Mr Clark’s award is admissible evidence.
The issue in the arbitration is the rent at which the premises could reasonably have been let in the open market at the rent review date. Evidence of the rents at which comparable properties were actually let in the open market at about the same time is relevant and if properly proved admissible because the fact that someone was willing to pay a certain rent for a property can justify an inference that he or someone else would have been willing to pay a similar rent for a comparable property. A rent which is agreed between the parties at a rent review is admissible on similar grounds although it suffers from the
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disadvantage that such transactions are not in the open market. The parties are not free to refuse to deal. They bargain under the constraint that if they do not agree, a rent representing an arbitrator’s or expert’s view of the reasonable market rent will be imposed upon them. But these matters go to the weight of the evidence rather than its admissibility. It is admissible because it shows what an actual landlord and tenant were willing to agree in a transaction in which real money was to change hands. An arbitration award on the other hand is an arbitrator’s opinion, after hearing the evidence before him of the rent at which the premises could reasonably have been let. The letting is hypothetical, not real. It is therefore not direct evidence of what was happening in the market. It is the arbitrator’s opinion of what would have happened.
In principle the judgment, verdict or award of another tribunal is not admissible evidence to prove a fact in issue or a fact relevant to the issue in other proceedings between different parties. The leading authority for that proposition is Hollington v F Hewthorn & Co Ltd [1943] 2 All ER 35, [1943] KB 587, in which a criminal conviction for careless driving was held inadmissible as evidence of negligence in a subsequent civil action. There has been criticism of this decision and important exceptions have since been created by statute, notably in the Civil Evidence Act 1968, but none of them apply here.
In Hunter v Chief Constable of West Midlands [1981] 3 All ER 727 at 734, [1982] AC 529 at 543 Lord Diplock said that Hollington’s case was ‘generally considered to have been wrongly decided’. He did not elaborate on this remark, which in any case was not necessary for the decision. In Savings and Investment Bank Ltd v Gasco Investments (Netherlands) BV [1984] 1 All ER 296 at 303, [1984] 1 WLR 271 at 280 Peter Gibson J said that Hollington’s case still represented the common law. Still more recently the principle has been applied by the Privy Council to exclude evidence of the conviction of a principal offender at the trial of an accessory (see Hui Chi-ming v R [1991] 3 All ER 897, [1992] 1 AC 34).
Mr Barnes QC for the plaintiff did not seek to challenge Hollington’s case as a statement of the common law, but he said that it is based upon the rule which excludes opinion evidence. Goddard LJ, who gave the judgment of the court said ([1943] 2 All ER 35 at 40, [1943] KB 587 at 595):
‘It frequently happens that a bystander has a complete and full view of an accident; it is beyond question that while he may inform the court of everything that he saw, he may not express any opinion on whether either or both of the parties were negligent. The reason commonly assigned is that this is the precise question the court has to decide; but in truth it is because his opinion is not relevant. Any fact that he can prove is relevant; but his opinion is not. The well-recognised exception in the case of scientific or expert witnesses depends on considerations which, for present purposes, are immaterial. So, on the trial of the issue in the civil court, the opinion of the criminal court is equally irrelevant.’
This case, said Mr Barnes, fell within the well-recognised exception to which Goddard LJ referred. The rental value of the property was a matter which could properly be proved by expert evidence and Mr Clark is an expert. The value of a comparable property is a fact relevant to the issue. Mr Barnes accepted that having regard to the arbitrator’s directions he would have to obtain leave to tender additional expert evidence but this did not affect its admissibility.
Mr Clark is no doubt an expert valuer but I do not think he gave his award in that capacity. An arbitrator is obliged to act solely upon the evidence adduced
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by the parties. Mr Clark may, by reason of his expertise, have known about matters which cast doubt upon points which went unchallenged in the arbitration. If he had been acting as an expert he would have been able to take this knowledge into account. As an arbitrator he would not. His position in my judgment was no different from that of a judge determining the rent of a new lease of premises under the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954. The admissibility of his judgment as evidence of value of the premises in proceedings between different parties cannot depend upon whether he happens to have expertise in valuation.
Furthermore, the opinion rule was not the only basis of the decision in Hollington’s case. There is also the hearsay rule, which appears in Goddard LJ’s judgment disguised as the best evidence rule. The arbitrator’s award, expert or not, is an assertion as to the value of a comparable property made by a person not called as a witness and used to prove the truth of that assertion. Mr Barnes said that the hearsay rule related merely to the manner of proof. If it caused any difficulties he would call Mr Clark as a witness, but he submitted that if he did so Mr Clark could not be cross-examined on the reasons for his award. Unlike other experts his reasoning could not be challenged.
The authority relied upon for this submission was the decision of the House of Lords in Duke of Buccleuch v Metropolitan Board of Works (1872) LR 5 HL 418, [1861–73] All ER Rep 654. That decision concerned the evidence which could be given by an arbitrator in a subsequent dispute between the parties arising out of the award. Cleasby B in his advice to the House of Lords said that the arbitrator could give evidence of the subject matter into which he was inquiring but he could not be asked questions about how he arrived at his award or what it meant. The award was a document which could not be ‘explained or varied or extended by extrinsic evidence of the intention of the person making it’ (see LR 5 HL 418 at 433–434, [1861–73] All ER Rep 654 at 657–658).
It seems to me that the Duke of Buccleuch’s case is an illustration of the operation of the parol evidence rule and the doctrine of res judicata. The effect of the latter doctrine is that when the award is made the rights of the parties as they may previously have existed are merged in the award. It is the terms of the award which thereafter govern and the award is subject to the parol evidence rule which excludes evidence of the intentions of its author.
It follows that the Duke of Buccleuch’s case can have no relevance when the award does not constitute a res judicata between the parties but is relied upon as evidence in other proceedings between strangers. For a contrary view Mr Barnes referred me to the judgment of Streatfeild J in Ward v Shell-Mex and BP Ltd [1951] 2 All ER 904, [1952] 1 KB 280. The plaintiff had contracted eczema while clearing mud from under a wharf and claimed that the cause was his employer’s failure to supply adequate protective clothing. He wanted to call as a witness a doctor who had examined him in the course of his duties as a member of the medical board set up under the National Insurance (Industrial Injuries) Act 1946 to certify whether and to what extent an industrial accident had resulted in loss of physical capacity. The Minister of National Insurance intervened on the ground that the doctor’s evidence might be inconsistent with the board’s decision. He cited the Duke of Buccleuch’s case. Streatfeild J said that the position of a member of the board was analogous to that of an arbitrator and he therefore could not give evidence of the reasons why the board issued its certificate. It was true that the doctor was an expert, but, said Streatfeild J, his opinion as a member of the board was not expressed as a expert but as a member
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of a statutory body. The judge ruled that the doctor could not be called. The plaintiff withdrew his case and judgment was given against him.
I find this reasoning very puzzling. The plaintiff was not wanting to explain or vary the medical board’s certificate. There is nothing to suggest that he wanted to rely upon the certificate at all. Nor was the action between the parties for whom the certificate constituted a res judicata. The Duke of Buccleuch’s case was therefore, in my view, irrelevant. All that the plaintiff wanted to do was to call as a witness a doctor whose opportunity to examine him happened to have arisen because he was a member of the board. I could have understood that decision, without necessarily agreeing with it, if it had been said that on grounds of public policy members of statutory tribunals should not be competent or compellable to give evidence on matters of evidence which came to their attention in the course of their duties. It was that thought which presumably prompted the Minister of National Insurance to intervene. But the grounds upon which the learned judge actually based his decision seem to me to be wrong.
In my judgment, therefore, Mr Clark, if tendered as an expert witness, would be liable to cross-examination like any other expert. Once one goes to that point, however, one has moved a long way from the admissibility of the award as such. If Mr Clark can be called upon to justify his opinion of the rental value of the comparable property that opinion ceases to have any evidential value. His opinion would presumably be based upon the evidence of real comparables presented to him in his own arbitration. But Mr Clark is not in a position to give admissible evidence of those comparables. He can only say what he was told by the witnesses at his arbitration. It follows that there will be no admissible evidence to support his opinion.
Even if Mr Clark or someone else were in a position to give admissible evidence of the comparables that support his opinion I think that his award would still be inadmissible on another ground. It would involve a collateral inquiry as to whether Mr Clark came to the right decision in his own arbitration. The result of such an inquiry would, in my judgment, have insufficient relevance to the issue in the present arbitration to justify undertaking it. So far as the comparables relied on by Mr Clark are relevant to the value of Westminster City Hall they could have been used as such by the plaintiff’s experts. In so far as they would not have been relevant I do not think they can be smuggled in by using them to establish Mr Clark’s opinion of the value of a comparable property and then using that conclusion to support a valuation of Westminster City Hall.
I therefore decide that Mr Clark’s award is inadmissible. This is not in my view a technical decision on outdated rules of evidence. Properly analysed I think that the arbitrator’s award has in itself insufficient weight to justify the exploration of otherwise irrelevant issues which its admissibility would require. I will declare accordingly.
Declaration accordingly.
Paul Magrath Esq Barrister.
Re Dale (deceased)
Proctor v Dale
[1993] 4 All ER 129
Categories: SUCCESSION; Wills
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION AT BLACKPOOL
Lord(s): MORRITT J
Hearing Date(s): 19, 22 JANUARY, 11 FEBRUARY 1993
Will – Mutual wills – Identical terms – Husband and wife – Wills leaving property to same beneficiary – Testators not leaving property to each other – Each will making bequests to children in equal shares – Husband dying – Wife making new will revoking former will and making different bequests – Whether wife in breach of binding contract between testators as to disposition of estates – Whether wife’s new will a fraud on husband – Whether doctrine of mutual wills only applying where second testator benefiting under will of first testator.
On 5 September 1988 the father and mother of the plaintiff (their daughter) and the defendant (their son) each made a will. The terms of each will were the same and contained a bequest of all real and personal property in favour of the plaintiff and the defendant in equal shares or the survivor of them and appointed them executors. The father died on 9 November 1988 without having altered or revoked his will. The value of his net estate was about £18,500. On 14 July 1990 the mother made a new will in which she appointed the defendant to be her executor and bequeathed to the plaintiff the sum of £300 and the remainder of her property to the defendant. The mother died on 30 November 1990 leaving net estate worth about £19,000. The plaintiff issued a writ alleging that on or before 5 September 1988 the father and mother had agreed with each other as to the disposition of their respective estates on their respective deaths, that such agreement was intended by both of them to be binding and irrevocable, that the wills dated 5 September 1988 were made in pursuance of that agreement and in consideration of it, that on the father’s death the mother became bound in equity to give effect to the agreement and to dispose of her estate pursuant to the terms of her will and that wrongfully and in breach of the agreement she had revoked that will and left all her estate except £300 to the defendant. The plaintiff claimed that the defendant held the mother’s estate as trustee for the plaintiff and himself in equal shares. A preliminary issue was ordered to be tried as to whether, even if the father and mother had executed their wills of 5 September 1988 in pursuance and consideration of the alleged agreement, the wills were incapable of existence as mutual wills because neither testator had provided any benefit for the other, with the result that on the father’s death the mother did not receive any benefit under his will and was therefore under no obligation enforceable by the plaintiff to distribute her estate in accordance with the alleged agreement.
Held – In order for the doctrine of mutual wills to apply it was not necessary for the second testator to die to have obtained a personal financial benefit under the will of the first testator to die. Since the first testator to die had performed his part of the contract the subsequent refusal by the second testator to perform his or her part of the bargain amounted to fraud not only when the second testator benefited under the first testator’s will but also when the testators had left their property to others rather than to each other, since in each case there was a
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binding contract. Accordingly, if two testators agreed that each should leave his or her property to particular beneficiaries, eg their children, rather than to each other, the property of the surviving testator was subject to an implied trust for the beneficiary or beneficiaries named in the wills and although the surviving testator might thereafter alter his will, because a will was inherently revocable, if he did so his personal representative would take the property subject to the trust, since it would be a fraud on the first testator to die if the surviving testator were permitted to go back on his agreement. The preliminary issue would be answered accordingly (see p 132 e f, p 133 e f, p 136 j to p 137 b e f, p 139 c, p 140 j, p 141 h j and p 142 d e g to j, post).
Dufour v Pereira (1769) 1 Dick 419 and Lord Walpole v Lord Orford (1797) 3 Ves 402 applied.
Re Cleaver (decd), Cleaver v Insley [1981] 2 All ER 1018 distinguished.
Notes
For mutual wills, see 50 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 208, and for cases on the subject, see 50 Digest (Reissue) 30–33, 154–175.
Cases referred to in judgment
Ammal v Aiyar (1909) ILR 33 Mad 406, Madras HC.
Basham (decd), Re [1987] 1 All ER 405, [1986] 1 WLR 1498.
Birmingham v Renfrew (1937) 57 CLR 666, Aust HC.
Chamberlain’s Case (1611) Lane 117, 145 ER 346.
Cleaver (decd), Re, Cleaver v Insley [1981] 2 All ER 1018, [1981] 1 WLR 939.
Devenish v Baines (1689) Prec Ch 3, 24 ER 2.
Dufour v Pereira (1769) 1 Dick 419, 2 Hargrave’s Juridical Arguments 304, 21 ER 332, LC.
Gray v Perpetual Trustee Co Ltd [1928] AC 391, [1928] All ER Rep 758, PC.
Hagger, Re, Freeman v Arscott [1930] 2 Ch 190.
Heys’s Estate, Re, Walker v Gaskill [1914] P 192.
Noys v Mordant (1706) 2 Vern 581, 24 ER 128.
Oldham, Re, Hadwen v Myles [1925] Ch 75, [1924] All ER Rep 288.
Stone v Hoskins [1905] P 194.
Thynn v Thynn (1684) 1 Vern 296, 23 ER 479.
Walpole (Lord) v Lord Orford (1797) 3 Ves 402, 30 ER 1076, LC.
Wilford’s Estate, Re, Taylor v Taylor (1879) 11 Ch D 267.
Cases also cited
Ashville Investments Ltd v Elmer Contractors Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 577, [1989] QB 488, CA.
Beswick v Beswick [1967] 2 All ER 1197, [1968] AC 58, HL.
Colchester Estates (Cardiff) v Carlton Industries plc [1984] 2 All ER 601, [1986] Ch 80.
Denyssen v Mostert (1872) LR 4 PC 236.
Green (decd), Re, Lindner v Green [1950] 2 All ER 913, [1951] Ch 148.
Huddersfield Police Authority v Watson [1947] 2 All ER 193, [1947] KB 842, DC.
Ottaway v Norman [1971] 3 All ER 1325, [1972] Ch 698.
Woodar Investment Development Ltd v Wimpey Construction UK Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 571, [1980] 1 WLR 277, HL.
Preliminary issue
By writ dated 24 July 1992 the plaintiff, Joan Margaret Proctor, claimed as residuary beneficiary in the last will and testament dated 5 September 1988 of
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Monica Dale deceased, late of 119 Inver Road, Blackpool, Lancashire, who died on 30 November 1990, that the court should pronounce the will in solemn form of law and should revoke the grant of probate of the estate of the deceased dated 30 June 1992 to the defendant, Alan Trevor Dale. By order dated 16 October 1992 a preliminary issue was ordered to be tried whether para 16 of the defence constituted a good defence in law to the causes of action pleaded in the statement of claim. Paragraph 16 averred that, even were Norman Dale and Monica Dale to have executed their respective wills dated 5 September 1988 pursuant to and in consideration of an alleged agreement with each other as to the disposition of their respective estates on their respective deaths, then those wills were incapable of existence as mutual wills in that by their respective wills Mr and Mrs Dale did not provide any benefit for the other, so that Mrs Dale did not on the death of Mr Dale take any such benefit under his will with the result that there was not imposed on Mrs Dale any obligation enforceable by the plaintiff to distribute her estate in accordance with the alleged agreement. The case was heard in Blackpool but judgment was given in London. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Charles Machin (instructed by Kidd Whitaker & Partners, Blackpool) for the plaintiff.
James Bonney (instructed by Roland Robinsons & Fentons, Blackpool) for the defendant.
Cur adv vult
11 February 1993. The following judgment was delivered.
MORRITT J. This preliminary issue raises the question whether for the doctrine of mutual wills to apply it is necessary for the second testator to die to have obtained a personal financial benefit under the will of the first to die. The circumstances in which the question arises may be shortly stated. On 8 September 1988 Mr Norman Dale and his wife, Mrs Monica Dale, each made a will. The terms of each will were the same. After revoking all former wills and testamentary dispositions the will contained a bequest of all real and personal property in favour of the plaintiff and the defendant in equal shares or the survivor of them, and appointed them to be the executors. The plaintiff and the defendant are the daughter and son of Mr and Mrs Dale.
Mr Norman Dale died on 9 November 1988 without having altered or revoked his will. Probate of Mr Dale’s will was granted to the plaintiff and the defendant on 24 August 1990. The value of his net estate was about £18,500. On 14 July 1990 Mrs Monica Dale made a new will. She revoked all former wills and testamentary dispositions and appointed her son, the defendant, to be her executor. She bequeathed to her daughter, the plaintiff, the sum of £300 and gave and bequeathed to her son all the remainder of her property. Mrs Dale died on 30 November 1990 and her will dated 14 July 1990 was proved by the defendant on 13 June 1992. The value of her net estate was about £19,000.
The writ in this action was issued on 24 July 1992. By her statement of claim the plaintiff alleges that on or before 5 September 1988 Mr and Mrs Dale agreed with each other as to the disposition of their respective estates on their respective deaths, that such agreement was intended by both of them to be binding and irrevocable and that the wills dated 5 September 1988 were made in pursuance of that agreement and in consideration of it. It is claimed that on
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the death of Mr Dale, or on the grant of probate in respect of his will Mrs Dale became bound in equity to give effect to the agreement and to dispose of her estate pursuant to the terms of her will dated 5 September 1988 but that wrongfully and in breach of the agreement she revoked that will and left all her estate except £300 to the defendant. The consequence, as alleged, is that the defendant holds the real and personal estate of Mrs Dale as trustee for the plaintiff and himself in equal shares.
A number of matters are put in issue by the defence, including the question of law directed to be tried as a preliminary issue. That appears in para 16 of the defence in the following terms:
‘Even were Mr and Mrs Dale to have executed their respective wills dated 5 September 1988 pursuant to and in consideration of the alleged agreement, then these wills were and are incapable of existence as mutual wills in that by their respective wills Mr and Mrs Dale did not provide any benefit for the other, so that Mrs Dale did not on the death of Mr Dale take any such benefit under his will with the result that there was not imposed on Mrs Dale any obligation enforceable by the plaintiff to distribute her estate in accordance with the alleged agreement.’
By an order dated 16 October 1992 the question whether that paragraph constitutes a good defence in law to all the causes of action pleaded in the statement of claim was directed to be tried as a preliminary issue before the trial of the other questions or issues in the action.
The doctrine of mutual wills is to the effect that where two individuals have agreed as to the disposal of their property and have executed mutual wills in pursuance of the agreement, on the death of the first (T1) the property of the survivor (T2), the subject matter of the agreement, is held on an implied trust for the beneficiary named in the wills. The survivor may thereafter alter his will, because a will is inherently revocable, but if he does his personal representatives will take the property subject to the trust. The basic doctrine is not in dispute. The dispute is as to the circumstances in which the doctrine applies.
For the defendant it is submitted that it is essential that the will of each testator should bequeath to the other a direct personal and financial benefit either absolutely or for life. The defendant contends that this submission is right in principle because the agreement between the testators must amount to a contract at law and without such a benefit there would be no consideration sufficient to support a contract. The submission is further justified, it is argued, on the ground that even if there is sufficient consideration to support a contract at law the implied or constructive trust in respect of T2’s own property can only arise if the agreement is specifically enforceable at the suit of the personal representatives of T1. It is submitted that mutual benefit is essential for that purpose too because otherwise the contract lacks mutuality and sufficient consideration. It is contended that in all the reported cases in which the doctrine has been applied there has been such mutual benefit. Finally, it is submitted the ratio decidendi of Dufour v Pereira (1769) 1 Dick 419, 21 ER 332, both as expressed in that case and as applied in subsequent reported cases, requires that such mutual benefit should exist.
For the plaintiff it is submitted that it is not necessary for there to be a contract at law but if it is there is sufficient consideration and case for specific performance at the suit of the personal representatives of T1 even in the
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absence of mutual benefit. It is contended that this submission is supported by authority, both affirmatively and negatively in that there is no reported case which states that such mutual benefit is not only a sufficient but a necessary condition for the doctrine to apply.
I propose to deal with the submissions for the defendant in the order in which I have described them. There is no doubt that for the doctrine to apply there must be a contract at law. It is apparent from all the cases, to which I shall refer later, but in particular from Gray v Perpetual Trustee Co Ltd [1928] AC 391, [1928] All ER Rep 758, that it is necessary to establish an agreement to make and not revoke mutual wills, some understanding or arrangement being insufficient ‘without such a definite agreement there can no more be a trust in equity than a right to damages at law’ (see [1928] AC 391 at 400, [1928] All ER Rep 758 at 762 per Viscount Haldane). Thus, as the defendant submitted, it is necessary to find consideration sufficient to support a contract at law. The defendant accepted that such consideration may be executory if the promise when performed would confer a benefit on the promisee or constitute a detriment to the promisor. But, it was submitted, the promise to make and not revoke a mutual will could not constitute a detriment to T1 because he would be leaving his property in the way that he wished and because he would be able, on giving notice to T2, to revoke his will and make another if he changed his mind. Accordingly, it was argued, consideration for the contract had to take the form of a benefit to T2.
I do not accept this submission. It is to be assumed that T1 and T2 had agreed to make and not to revoke the mutual wills in question. The performance of that promise by the execution of the will by T1 is in my judgment sufficient consideration by itself. But, in addition, to determine whether a promise can constitute consideration it is necessary to consider whether its performance would have been so regarded (cf Chitty on Contracts (26th edn, 1989) para 161). Thus it is to be assumed that T1 did not revoke the mutual will notwithstanding his legal right to do so. In my judgment, this too is sufficient detriment to T1 to constitute consideration. Thus mutual benefit is not necessary for the purpose of the requisite contract. What is necessary to obtain a decree of specific performance of a contract in favour of a third party is not, in my judgment, a relevant question when considering the doctrine of mutual wills. A will is by its very nature revocable (cf Re Heys’s Estate, Walker v Gaskill [1914] P 192). It seems to me to be inconceivable that the court would order T2 to execute a will in accordance with the agreement at the suit of the personal representatives of T1 or to grant an injunction restraining T2 from revoking it. The principles on which the court acts in imposing the trust to give effect to the agreement to make and not revoke mutual wills must be found in the cases dealing with that topic, not with those dealing with the availability of the remedy of specific performance.
The origin of the doctrine of mutual wills is the decision of Lord Camden LC in Dufour v Pereira (1769) 1 Dick 419, 21 ER 332. His judgment has been variously described as ‘energetic and eloquent’ (2 Hargrave’s Juridical Arguments 311), ‘ingenious and eloquent’ (Lord Walpole v Lord Orford (1797) 3 Ves 402 at 416, 30 ER 1076 at 1083), ‘very alluring’ (Re Oldham, Hadwen v Myles [1925] Ch 75 at 84, [1924] All ER Rep 288 at 291) and of ‘robust simplicity’ (Birmingham v Renfrew (1937) 57 CLR 666 at 676). But there are at least two versions of it which are not in the same terms. The case concerned a joint will made pursuant to an agreement between husband and wife whereby the residuary estate of each of
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them was to constitute a common fund to be held for the survivor for his or her life with remainders over. On the death of the husband the wife, who was one of his executors, proved the will. Thereafter she took possession of her husband’s property and enjoyed the benefit of his residuary estate together with her separate property for many years but on the death of the wife it was found that her last will disregarded the provisions of the joint will and left her estate to her daughter, the defendant Mrs Pereira. The plaintiffs were the beneficiaries under the joint will and claimed that the wife’s personal estate was held in trust for them. The relevant passage in the judgment of Lord Camden LC is in the following terms (1 Dick 419 at 420–421, 21 ER 332 at 333):
‘Consider how far the mutual will is binding, and whether the accepting of the legacies under it by the survivor, is not a confirmation of it. I am of opinion it is. It might have been revoked by both jointly; it might have been revoked separately, provided the party intending it, had given notice to the other of such revocation. But I cannot be of opinion, that either of them, could, during their joint lives, do it secretly; or that after the death of either, it could be done by the survivor by another will. It is a contract between the parties, which cannot be rescinded, but by the consent of both. The first that dies, carries his part of the contract into execution. Will the Court afterwards permit the other to break the contract? Certainly not. The defendant Camilla Rancer hath taken the benefit of the bequest in her favour by the mutual will; and hath proved it as such; she hath thereby certainly confirmed it; and therefore I am of opinion, the last will of the wife, so far as it breaks in upon the mutual will, is void. And declare, that Mrs. Camilla Rancer having proved the mutual will, after her husband’s death; and having possessed all his personal estate, and enjoyed the interest thereof during her life, hath by those acts bound her assets to make good all her bequests in the said mutual will; and therefore let the necessary accounts be taken.’
In Lord Walpole v Lord Orford (1797) 3 Ves 402 at 417–418, 30 ER 1076 at 1083–1084 the judgment of Lord Camden LC was read from a note by the Solicitor General, which Lord Loughborough LC, who had appeared as counsel in Dufour v Pereira, described as ‘very accurate’. His description was: ‘There was no probate of it [that is the joint will] as her will: but on the contrary, the will she made was proved.' He continued:
‘Therefore the Court considered it not as her testament, but as a contract with her husband for valuable consideration; under which she acted for sixteen or seventeen years; that she had taken the benefit of it for her whole life. Therefore she had accepted the terms; and had bound herself to the conditions, under which all the property was given by the will of her husband.’
After referring to the pleadings Lord Loughborough LC said:
‘The effect of the agreement was, that the wife had the enjoyment during life, and limited to that, of all the specific interests: she had a limited power of disposing of part of that property: but all she had was upon condition that she should dispose of her own property, that she might have acquired after his death (and she did increase it), upon the dispositions of that will. Suppose she had rejected instead of proving the will of her husband, and had property distinct from that subject to the operation of this contract,
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and an attempt had been made to bind her by it: I do not apprehend that Lord Camden would have said, that merely by the chance of her surviving, she a fême covert would have been bound by the contract with her husband.’
He described Lord Camden LC’s decision in the following terms:
‘… he determined that she was bound; and that her husband’s will must rule her’s; she having enjoyed all the benefit; and the will being perfectly defined.’
But in 2 Hargrave’s Juridical Arguments 304 in a dissertation on Walpole’s case Mr Hargrave quotes extensively from a manuscript copied from Lord Camden LC’s own handwriting which he describes as ‘entered’, seemingly in the decree. This source was described as authoritative by Viscount Haldane in Gray v Perpetual Trustee Co Ltd [1928] AC 391 at 399, [1928] All ER Rep 758 at 761 and is, in my judgment, to be preferred because it is much fuller. The facts are set out (2 Hargrave’s Juridical Arguments 304 at 304–306). Lord Camden LC recorded that mutual wills were unknown in England but that the case must be decided in accordance with English law (at 307). He stated (at 307):
‘And I trust, that the everlasting maxims of equity and conscience, upon which the jurisdiction of this court is built, are capacious enough, not only to comprehend this, but every other case that may happen; and that the justice of this court is co-extensive with every possible variety of human transactions. CONSIDER it in two views. FIRST, how far the mutual will shall operate as a binding engagement, independent of any confirmation by accepting the legacy under it. SECONDLY, whether the survivor can depart from this engagement, after she has accepted a benefit under it.’
Lord Camden LC’s decision on the first point should be read in full. He said (at 307–311):
‘IT was said upon the first point, and Mr. Skynner cited an authority to prove it, that where two had made a mutual will either of them might cheat his partner, FOEDA MACHINATIONE, by a secret will to disappoint the joint disposition, because they are two distinct instruments. Hall and Bickerstaff to the same purpose. THE law of these countries then must be very defective, and totally destitute of the principles of equity and good conscience: for nothing can be more barbarous, than a law, which does permit in the very text of it one man to defraud another. THE equity of this court abhors the principle. A MUTUAL will is a mutual agreement. A MUTUAL WILL is a revocable act.—It may be revoked by joint consent clearly.—By one only, if he give notice, I can admit. BUT to affirm, that the survivor (who has deluded his partner into this will upon the faith and persuasion that he would perform his part) may legally recall his contract, either secretly during the joint lives, or after at his pleasure; I cannot allow. THE mutual will is in the whole and every part mutually upon condition, that the whole shall be the will.—There is a reciprocity, that runs through the instrument. The property of both is put into a common fund, and every devise is in the joint devise of both. THIS is a contract. IF not revoked during the joint lives by any open act, he that dies first dies with the promise of the survivor, that the joint will shall stand. It is too late afterwards for the survivor to change his mind: because the first dier’s will is then irrevocable, which would otherwise have been differently framed,
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if that testator had been appraized of this dissent. THUS is the first testator drawn in and seduced by the fraud of the other, to make a disposition in his favour, which but for such a false promise he would never have consented to. IT was argued however, that the parties, knowing that all testaments were in their nature revocable, were aware of this consequence, and must therefore be presumed to contract upon this hazard. THERE cannot be a more absurd presumption than to suppose two persons, while they are contracting, to give each a licence to impose upon the other. THOUGH a will is always revocable, and the last must always be the testator’s will; yet a man may so bind his assets by agreement, that his will shall be a trustee for performance of his agreement. A COVENANT to leave so much to his wife or daughter, &c. OR suppose he makes his will, and covenants not to revoke it. THESE cases are common; and there is no difference between promising to make a will in such a form and making his will with a promise not to revoke it. THIS court does not set aside the will, but makes the devisee heir or executor trustee to perform the contract. SUPPOSE the husband had so devised after the wife’s promise, that he would devise in like manner. A MAN intends to devise for the benefit of A. and B. promises that if he will him his executor, A. shall have his legacy. Thynn v. Thynn ((1684) 1 Vern 296, 23 ER 479). Devenish v. Baines ((1689) Prec Ch 3, 24 ER 2), testator persuaded by his wife to give his copyhold, which he intended to devise to his godson. Chamberlaine’s case ((1611) Lane 117, 145 ER 346) cited. A man persuaded his father not to make a will, promising his brother and sisters should have the provision intended. THIS court bound the will with the promise, and raised a trust in the devisee. THE act done by one is a good consideration for the performance of the other. THIS case stands upon the very same principle. THE parties by the mutual will do each of them devise, upon the engagement of the other, that he will likewise devise in manner therein mentioned. THE instrument itself is the evidence of the agreement; and he, that dies first, does by his death carry the agreement on his part into execution. If the other then refuses, he is guilty of a fraud, can never unbind himself, and becomes a trustee of course. For no man shall deceive another to his prejudice. By engaging to do something that is in his power, he is made a trustee for the performance, and transmits that trust to those that claim under him. THIS court is never deceived by the form of instruments. THE actions of men here are stripped of their legal cloathing, and appear in their first naked simplicity. GOOD faith and conscience are the rules, by which every transaction is judged in this court; and there is not an instance to be found since the jurisdiction was established where one man has ever been released from his engagement, after the other has performed his part.’
Only in the sentence (at 308) referring to the first testator being ‘drawn in and seduced by the fraud of the other, to make a disposition in his favour’ is there any reference to T1 conferring a benefit on T2. The rest of the judgment on the first point emphasises more than once that there is a contract between the testators which on the death of T1 is carried into effect by him, that T1 dies with the promise of T2 that the agreement will stand and that it would be a fraud on T1 to allow T2 to disregard the contract which became irrevocable on the death of T1. In my judgment the essence of the decision is contained in the passage (at 310) that—
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‘he, that dies first, does by his death carry the agreement on his part into execution. If the other then refuses, he is guilty of a fraud, can never unbind himself, and becomes a trustee of course. For no man shall deceive another to his prejudice.’
In my judgment it is no part of the principle there expressed that T1 must have conferred a benefit on T2 by his will. If he has, the principle will apply a fortiori, but it may apply even if he has not.
Lord Camden LC’s judgment on the second question appears in the following terms (at 311):
‘“I HAVE perhaps given myself more trouble than was necessary upon this point; because, if it could be doubtful, whether after the husband’s death his wife could be at liberty to revoke her part of the mutual will, it is most clear, that she has estopped herself to this defence, by an actual confirmation of the mutual will,—not only by proving it, but by accepting and enjoying an interest under it. SHE receives this benefit, takes possession of all her husband’s estates, submits to the mutual will as long as she lives, and then breaks the agreement after her death. IN this view the case falls within the rule of Noys v. Mordaunt ((1706) 2 Vern 581, 24 ER 128). SHE takes under the joint will and can take no otherwise.”’
In my view the emphasis in this passage on proving the joint will and accepting and enjoying an interest under it underlines the fact that Lord Camden LC did not regard those matters as relevant to the application of the principle enunciated on the first question.
My conclusion on the defendant’s submission based on this authority is that it does not establish that the doctrine of mutual wills can only apply if the testators confer mutual benefits on each other. In my judgment it establishes, subject to later authorities, that such mutual benefit is a sufficient but not a necessary condition.
This conclusion is confirmed by the decision of Lord Loughborough LC in Lord Walpole v Lord Orford (1797) 3 Ves 402, 30 ER 1076. In that case the alleged mutual wills, made in March 1756, were the will of George, Earl of Orford and the codicil of Horatio Lord Walpole. The facts are complicated but the only benefit to the former from the codicil of the latter was the bequest of a life interest in reversion on life interests with remainders in tail male to four named individuals. The interest of George Earl of Orford never vested in possession and it could hardly be said in the words of Lord Camden LC in Dufour v Pereira that such interest was ‘enjoyed’.
I have already quoted the relevant passages in Lord Loughborough LC’s description of Lord Camden LC’s decision in Dufour v Pereira. He concluded (3 Ves 402 at 419, 30 ER 1076 at 1084): ‘I do not dispute his [Lord Camden LC’s] principles. They are very just, where they apply.' But his decision was based exclusively on the absence of a binding contract. Nowhere in the passage expressing his conclusion and the reasons for it is there any mention of the benefit, or lack of it, conferred on George Earl of Orford (see 3 Ves 402 at 419–420, 30 ER 1076 at 1084–1085). It seems to me that if Lord Loughborough LC had thought that Lord Camden LC had held that a benefit to T2 under the will of T1 was a necessary condition for the doctrine to apply he must have mentioned it.
In Re Wilford’s Estate, Taylor v Taylor (1879) 11 Ch D 267 two sisters who were joint tenants of a leasehold property each made a will leaving her property to
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her sister for life and subject thereto to certain named nieces. One of them had died and the question arose whether the agreement to make such wills severed the joint interest. Hall V-C decided that it did because (at 269):
‘It was acted upon by both sisters, their wills being made in accordance with it and it effected, in my opinion, a severance of the joint tenancy. It would be a monstrous thing to hold, after the agreement had been so far perfected, that after the death of one sister the other could claim the joint property as belonging absolutely to her as survivor.’
This case was not concerned with the question of the circumstances in which the doctrine of mutual wills can apply.
In Stone v Hoskins [1905] P 194 husband and wife had executed wills in each other’s favour pursuant to an agreement to that effect. The plaintiffs, as the executors of the wife, sought to propound a later will under which the husband did not benefit whereas the defendant husband sought to propound the mutual will under which he did benefit. The plaintiff’s reply contended that the husband had no cause of action because the wife had received no benefit under the mutual wills. This was because she predeceased her husband. Gorell Barnes P stated (at 197):
‘It appears to me that the result is tolerably plain. If these two people had made wills which were standing at the death of the first to die, and the survivor had taken a benefit by that death, the view is perfectly well founded that the survivor cannot depart from the arrangement on his part, because, by the death of the other party the will of that party and the arrangement have become irrevocable; but that case is entirely different from the present, where the first person to die has not stood by the bargain and her “mutual” will has in consequence not become irrevocable. The only object of notice is to enable the other party to the bargain to alter his or her will also, but the survivor in the present case is not in any way prejudiced. He has notice as from the death. I cannot see that the cases cited support the proposition for which the defendant contends, with the result that he must, I think, fail to obtain the declaration which he seeks.’
Thus the decision was that T1 was entitled on notice to T2 to alter her will. It was not a decision on whether T2 could do so after the death of T1. Gorell Barnes P certainly expressed the view that T2 would not be entitled to do so, having taken a benefit under the will of T1, but such view is obiter and anyway does not suggest that such benefit is a necessary condition, merely that it would be a sufficient one.
Re Heys’s Estate, Walker v Gaskill [1914] P 192 concerned the questions whether a mutual will is revocable and whether the agreement severed the joint tenancy under which the parties held certain property. It throws no light on the point before me.
In Re Oldham, Hadwen v Myles [1925] Ch 75, [1924] All ER Rep 288 a husband and wife had made mutual wills pursuant to an agreement to that effect but no further. Each gave his property to the other absolutely with the same alternative provisions in the case of lapse. The wife survived and inherited her husband’s estate but following her remarriage made a new will disregarding the provisions of the agreement. The conclusion of Astbury J was that the parties had not agreed that the mutual wills should not be revoked after the death of T1. The decision was not therefore on the point before me. But in describing
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the doctrine of mutual wills in a number of passages Astbury J refers to the benefit taken by T2 under the will of T1. A good example is where he said ([1925] Ch 75 at 87, [1924] All ER Rep 288 at 293):
‘The first point to determine is whether from the evidence in this case, which substantially consists only of the facts of the making of these mutual wills in the terms I have stated, I am bound or able to come to Lord Camden’s conclusion in Dufour v. Pereira, that there was in fact an agreement or arrangement between the husband and wife that the survivor, here the wife, who was to take the other’s property not for life but absolutely should if she accepted the benefit be bound not to alter the disposition in the second part of her 1907 will.’
This judgment cannot in my view be regarded as laying down that mutual benefit is an essential prerequisite to the application of the doctrine, not least because in the circumstances of that case, notwithstanding the existence of mutual benefit, the doctrine was held not to apply.
In Gray v Perpetual Trustee Co Ltd [1928] AC 391, [1928] All ER Rep 758 the Privy Council concluded that it was necessary to establish not only an agreement to make the wills but also an agreement that they should not be revoked. The husband and wife had each made a will leaving to the other a life interest with similar remainders over. The wife survived the husband and some years later made a new will. Viscount Haldane described the relevant question as—
‘whether the simultaneous wills … were mutual wills made under such circumstances that neither the husband nor the wife could revoke or modify them without the assent of the other.’
Viscount Haldane described the decision of Lord Camden LC in Dufour v Pereira as that—
‘if two persons simultaneously make wills to the same effect, and in that sense mutually, a second will made by one of them after succeeding to the other’s estate under the originally made will is precluded from being treated as effective to interfere in equity with the existing disposition.’ (See ([1928] AC 391 at 397, 399, [1928] All ER Rep 758 at 760–761.)
Once again the description refers to a benefit to T2 but I cannot regard that statement as a decision limiting the broad principle which in my judgment Dufour v Pereira established.
In Re Hagger, Freeman v Arscott [1930] 2 Ch 190 husband and wife made a joint will for the survivor for life with remainders over and agreed that it should not be revoked without their mutual consent. The wife died first and the husband received the income from the whole estate until his death. The question was whether a legacy bequeathed to one who survived the wife but not the husband lapsed. Clauson J decided that it did not. He said (at 195):
‘To my mind Dufour v. Pereira decides that where there is a joint will such as this, on the death of the first testator the position as regards that part of the property which belongs to the survivor is that the survivor will be treated in this Court as holding the property on trust to apply it so as to carry out the effect of the joint will. As I read Lord Camden’s judgment in Dufour v. Pereira that would be so, even though the survivor did not signify his election to give effect to the will by taking benefits under it. But in any
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case it is clear that Lord Camden has decided that if the survivor takes a benefit conferred on him by the joint will he will be treated as a trustee in this Court, and he will not be allowed to do anything inconsistent with the provisions of the joint will. It is not necessary for me to consider the reasons on which Lord Camden based his judgment. The case must be accepted in this Court as binding. Therefore I am bound to hold that from the death of the wife the husband held the property, according to the tenor of the will, subject to the trusts thereby imposed upon it, at all events if he took advantage of the provisions of the will. In my view he did take advantage of those provisions.’
In this passage Clauson J seems to contemplate that a benefit to T2 is not necessary because of Lord Camden LC’s decision in Dufour v Pereira and notwithstanding the observations of Viscount Haldane in Gray v Perpetual Trustee Co Ltd but that it was not necessary for him to decide that point.
In Birmingham v Renfrew (1937) 57 CLR 666 the High Court of Australia had occasion to consider the doctrine of mutual wills. In that case it was orally agreed between husband and wife that they should make wills in favour of each other with a provision that in the case of lapse such testator’s estate should go to named relatives of the wife. The wife died first and the husband inherited her estate but then changed his will. The named relatives of the wife who were thus disappointed claimed a trust of the husband’s estate in their favour. Only the judgment of Dixon J touches on the point before me. He stated (at 683):
‘It has long been established that a contract between persons to make corresponding wills gives rise to equitable obligations when one acts on the faith of such an agreement and dies leaving his will unrevoked so that the other takes property under its dispositions.’
He said (at 688):
‘That consideration consists in the death of one of the parties leaving a will in the form agreed. The result is a disposition of property made upon the faith of the survivor’s carrying out the obligations of his contract. It is an element which brings such a case under the equitable jurisdiction for the prevention of fraud.’
He referred to the fact that (at 689):
‘The purpose of an arrangement for corresponding wills must often be, as in this case, to enable the survivor during his life to deal as absolute owner with the property passing under the will of the party first dying.’
The first and third of the passages I have quoted refer to T2 obtaining a benefit under the will of T1, but the third was only a reference to what in fact must often be the purpose and is not a definition of when that purpose may be achieved. If the first passage is regarded as a statement of the conditions without which the doctrine cannot apply, then it would seem to be inconsistent with the second. Having read and reread the judgment of Dixon J I do not think that it can be regarded as deciding that mutual benefit is an essential condition.
Finally, I come to the decision of Nourse J in Re Cleaver (decd), Cleaver v Insley [1981] 2 All ER 1018, [1981] 1 WLR 939. In that case husband and wife made wills by which each left the estate to the other, subject to certain legacies in favour of relations and gifts over in the case of lapse. The husband died first and his widow received the whole of his net estate. She then made a new will.
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Nourse J held that the doctrine of mutual wills applied and that the estate of the widow was held on a constructive trust on the terms of the mutual will of the wife which she had revoked. Thus the point now before me did not arise because the two wills did provide mutual benefits. Nourse J referred to Dufour v Pereira, Gray v Perpetual Trustee Co Ltd and Re Oldham and said ([1981] 2 All ER 1018 at 1023, [1981] 1 WLR 939 at 945):
‘It is therefore clear that there must be a definite agreement between the makers of the two wills, that that must be established by evidence, that the fact that there are mutual wills to the same effect is a relevant circumstance to be taken into account, although not enough in itself, and that the whole of the evidence must be looked at.’
Nourse J did not find it necessary to refer to any more English cases but derived great assistance from the judgment of Dixon J in Birmingham v Renfrew as to the whole nature of the legal theory on which mutual wills cases proceed. He stated ([1981] 2 All ER 1018 at 1024, [1981] 1 WLR 939 at 947):
‘The principle of all these cases [cases, for example, of mutual wills and secret trusts in which a court of equity will impose a constructive trust] is that a court of equity will not permit a person to whom property is transferred by way of gift, but on the faith of an agreement or clear understanding that it is to be dealt with in a particular way for the benefit of a third person, to deal with that property inconsistently with that agreement or understanding. If he attempts to do so after having received the benefit of the gift equity will intervene by imposing a constructive trust on the property which is the subject matter of the agreement or understanding.’
The defendant submits that I should follow this statement unless I am convinced that it is wrong. But that principle only applies to the ratio decidendi. It seems to me that on the facts of Re Cleaver (decd), where the wills provided for mutual benefit, the point which is now before me did not arise. Moreover, if the statement of Nourse J is to be treated as an exhaustive statement of principle it has to be considered alongside the decision of Lord Camden LC on the first question in Dufour v Pereira, the judgment of Lord Loughborough LC in Lord Walpole v Lord Orford and the statement of Clauson J in Re Hagger. In the later case of Re Basham (decd) [1987] 1 All ER 405 at 410, [1986] 1 WLR 1498 at 1504 Mr Edward Nugee QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Chancery Division, pointed out that certain cases of proprietary estoppel may be regarded as a species of constructive trust, but in those cases the factor which gives rise to its imposition is not the receipt of property.
Accordingly I do not think that I should treat the statement of Nourse J as an exhaustive statement of principle to the effect that the doctrine of mutual wills can only apply if there is mutual benefit. Rather, it is a recognition, with which I respectfully agree, that if there is mutual benefit the principle will apply if the requisite agreement is proved.
I was also referred to a number of textbooks but they do not speak with one voice either. However, I should mention Oakley on Constructive Trusts (2nd edn, 1987), which is the only one to have discovered what I believe to be the only decision on the point before me decided by any court anywhere in the world. That is the decision of the High Court at Madras in Ammal v Aiyar (1909) ILR 33 Mad 406. In that case husband and wife had made a joint will. The husband
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died and the wife gave to her daughter, the defendant, a property which under the joint will had been bequeathed to the plaintiff on the death of the survivor of the parties to the agreement. The plaintiff claimed that he was entitled to such property. White CJ referred to Theobald on Wills (6th edn, 1905), Williams on Executors (10th edn, 1905) and Jarman on Wills (5th edn, 1893) for the principles applicable to cases of mutual wills. Then he referred, inter alia, to Dufour v Pereira but only as reported at 1 Dick 419, 21 ER 332, Lord Walpole v Lord Orford and Stone v Hoskins. The principle he sought to apply was to see ‘whether it can be said that the survivor has taken a benefit’ under the will. He concluded (at 408) that the wife had derived no such benefit, so that the plaintiff’s claim failed. Krishnaswami Ayyar J decided that the claim must fail because there was no allegation of an agreement between husband and wife not to revoke. But he also decided (at 409) that the claim would fail even if there were such an agreement because ‘it is necessary that the person attempting to revoke it should have received a benefit under the will of the other’.
That decision is not binding on me. Moreover the court had not in that case had the advantage I have had in this of considering the judgment of Lord Camden LC in Dufour v Pereira as reported by Mr Hargrave. Thus it would not be appropriate merely to follow that decision.
Having concluded the survey of the authorities to which I was so helpfully referred by counsel, I should now express my conclusion and my reasons for it. My conclusion is that I should answer the preliminary issue in the negative. It is clear from the decision of Lord Camden LC on the first question in Dufour v Pereira that there must be a legally binding contract to make and not to revoke mutual wills and that T1 has died having performed his part of the agreement. The basis of the doctrine is:
‘If the other then refuses, he is guilty of a fraud, can never unbind himself, and becomes a trustee of course. For no man shall deceive another to his prejudice. By engaging to do something that is in his power, he is made a trustee for the performance, and transmits that trust to those that claim under him.’ (See Dufour v Pereira (1769) 2 Hargrave’s Juridical Arguments 304 at 310.)
As all the cases show the doctrine applies when T2 benefits under the will of T1. But I am unable to see why it should be any the less a fraud on T1 if the agreement was that each testator should leave his or her property to particular beneficiaries, for example their children, rather than to each other. It should be assumed that they had good reason for doing so and in any event that is what the parties bargained for. In each case there is the binding contract. In each case it has been performed by T1 on the faith of the promise of T2 and in each case T2 would have deceived T1 to the detriment of T1 if he, T2, were permitted to go back on his agreement. I see no reason why the doctrine should be confined to cases where T2 benefits when the aim of the principle is to prevent T1 from being defrauded. A fraud on T1 will include cases where T2 benefits, so I see no reason why the principle should be confined to such cases. In my judgment so to hold is consistent with all the authorities, supported by some of them, and is in furtherance of equity’s original jurisdiction to intervene in cases of fraud.
Preliminary issued answered accordingly.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Symphony Group plc v Hodgson
[1993] 4 All ER 143
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BALCOMBE, STAUGHTON AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 24, 25 MARCH, 28 APRIL 1993
Costs – Order for costs – Discretion – Payment of costs by non-party – Circumstances in which non-party may be ordered to pay costs of proceedings – Plaintiff successful in action against legally aided defendant in restraint of trade action – Plaintiff claiming costs from defendant’s new employer – Plaintiff not joining defendant’s new employer as party to action – Whether court having jurisdiction to order costs to be paid by non-party – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 51(1).
The plaintiff, a manufacturer and supplier of kitchen units, employed the defendant as an estimating supervisor under a contract of employment which contained restrictive covenants providing, inter alia, that for one year after the determination of the defendant’s employment he should not be engaged or interested in the manufacture or sale of kitchen furniture and that during the same period he should not work for certain listed companies engaged in the business of the supply and manufacture of kitchen furniture. In April 1992 the defendant accepted a position with one of the plaintiff’s listed competitors, H Ltd, and gave notice to the plaintiff terminating his employment. On 8 May the defendant left the plaintiff’s employment and the same day signed a letter to the plaintiff drafted by H Ltd’s solicitors claiming that the plaintiff had repudiated his contract of employment. On 11 May the plaintiff issued a writ against the defendant seeking damages and injunctive relief and obtained an ex parte injunction. On 12 May the defendant was granted an emergency legal aid certificate and from that date he was in receipt of legal aid. H Ltd’s solicitors continued to act for him but both they and counsel instructed by them did so under the terms of legal aid certificates. At the trial the judge found for the plaintiff on every issue and granted injunctive relief against the defendant and also made an order for costs against the defendant but, as the defendant was legally aided, directed that that order was not to be enforced without leave of the court. Since there was no realistic prospect of the defendant being able to pay the costs, which were likely to be more than £100,000, the plaintiff applied under s 51(1)a of the Supreme Court Act 1981 for an order that H Ltd pay the plaintiff’s costs of the action. The judge directed that H Ltd be given notice of the application and then dismissed an application by H Ltd that there was no case to answer. H Ltd appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – It was very exceptional for a non-party to proceedings to be ordered to pay the costs of the successful party under s 51(1) of the 1981 Act if the successful party had a cause of action against the non-party and could have joined him as a party to the original proceedings thereby giving him the protection conferred by the rules of court and knowledge of the issues before giving evidence. Even if the applicant was able to provide a good reason for not
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joining the non-party against whom he had a valid cause of action nevertheless, applying the basic principles of natural justice, at the very least the non-party should be warned by the applicant for costs at the earliest opportunity of the possibility that costs might be sought against him so that he had an opportunity to apply to be joined as a party to the action under RSC Ord 15, r 6(2)(b). In the circumstances and having regard to the fact that the plaintiff at all material times had a cause of action in tort against H Ltd but had never warned H Ltd of the possibility that it might seek to make H Ltd liable for the costs of its action against the defendant, and the fact that the judge’s findings of fact in his judgment in the plaintiff’s action against the defendant would not be admissible as evidence against H Ltd if the plaintiff’s claim against H Ltd were the subject of an action, it would be a wrong exercise of the discretion conferred by s 51(1) of the 1981 Act for H Ltd to be ordered to pay the plaintiff’s costs. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 152 j to p 153 d, p 154 d f to j and p 155 d e h to p 156 e h j, post).
Per curiam. (1) The procedure for the determination of costs is a summary procedure which should normally be determined by the trial judge and is not necessarily subject to all the rules that would apply in an action. Thus, exceptionally, the evidence of a witness in proceedings may lead to an application for the costs of those proceedings against him or his company notwithstanding the normal rule that witnesses in either civil or criminal proceedings enjoy immunity from any form of civil action in respect of evidence given during those proceedings. Furthermore, the judge’s findings of fact may be admissible, provided the non-party’s connection with the original proceedings is so close that he will not suffer any injustice. The fact that the trial judge may in the course of his judgment in the action have expressed views on the conduct of the non-party constitutes neither bias nor the appearance of bias (see p 153 d to p 154 a and p 155 h to p 156 a h j, post).
(2) The judge should be alert to the possibility that an application against a non-party is motivated by resentment at the inability to obtain an effective order for costs against a legally aided litigant. The court will be very reluctant to infer that solicitors to a legally aided party have failed to discharge their duties under the regulations or that any maintenance by a non-party has occurred (see p 154 a to c and p 155 j to p 156 a h j, post).
Notes
For jurisdiction to award costs, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 713, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 230–233, 4273–4289.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 51, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 1019.
Cases referred to in judgments
Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeira [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965, [1986] 2 WLR 1051, HL; rvsg [1985] 3 All ER 641, [1985] 1 WLR 1222, CA.
Bahai v Rashidian [1985] 3 All ER 385, [1985] 1 WLR 1337, CA.
Brendon v Spiro [1937] 2 All ER 496, [1938] 1 KB 176, CA.
Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93, [1975] 3 WLR 586, CA.
Company, Re a (No 004055 of 1991), ex p Doe Sport Ltd [1991] BCLC 865, [1991] 1 WLR 1003.
Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co [1987] 3 All ER 94, [1987] 1 WLR 1136, CA.
Page 145 of [1993] 4 All ER 143
Fairfax (John) & Sons Pty Ltd v E C de Witt & Co (Australia) Pty Ltd [1957] 3 All ER 410, [1958] 1 QB 323, [1957] 3 WLR 877, CA.
Forbes-Smith v Forbes-Smith and Chadwick [1901] P 258, CA.
Framework Exhibitions Ltd v Matchroom Boxing Ltd [1992] CA Transcript 873.
Friedeberg, The (1885) 10 PD 112, CA.
Gleeson v J Wippell & Co Ltd [1977] 3 All ER 54, [1977] 1 WLR 510.
Gupta v Comer [1991] 1 All ER 289, [1991] 1 QB 629, [1991] 2 WLR 494, CA.
Hollington v F Hewthorn & Co Ltd [1943] 2 All ER 35, [1943] KB 587, CA.
Jones v Curling (1884) 13 QBD 262, CA.
Land and Property Trust Co plc, Re [1991] 3 All ER 409, [1991] 1 WLR 601, CA.
Land and Property Trust Co plc, Re (No 2) (1993) Times, 16 February, CA.
Land and Property Trust Co plc, Re (No 3) [1991] BCLC 856.
Orchard v South Eastern Electricity Board [1987] 1 All ER 95, [1987] QB 565, [1987] 2 WLR 102, CA.
Palmer v Durnford Ford (a firm) [1992] 2 All ER 122, [1992] QB 483, [1992] 2 WLR 407.
Pritchard v J H Cobden Ltd [1988] Fam 22, [1987] 2 WLR 627, CA.
Singh v Observer Ltd [1989] 3 All ER 777, CA; rvsg [1989] 2 All ER 751.
Taylor v Pace Developments Ltd [1991] BCC 406, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Campbell (Donald) & Co Ltd v Pollak [1927] AC 732, [1927] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Computer Machinery Co Ltd v Drescher [1983] 3 All ER 153, [1983] 1 WLR 1379.
Scherer v Counting Instruments Ltd (1977) [1986] 2 All ER 529, [1986] 1 WLR 615, CA.
Appeals and cross-appeal
Halvanto Kitchens Ltd (Halvanto) appealed with the leave of the judge from the order of Robin Stewart QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division, dated 3 August 1992 whereby he dismissed the applications of Halvanto (a) that the judge discharge himself on the ground of apparent bias from hearing the application on the summons of the plaintiff, Symphony Group plc (Symphony), dated 14 July 1992 for an order for costs against Halvanto as a non-party in proceedings by Symphony against the defendant, Lawrence Colin Hodgson, and (b) that there was no case to answer by Halvanto on Symphony’s summons. Symphony appealed with leave of the judge against the stay of further compliance with the judge’s directions pending the outcome of the appeal and cross-appealed against the judge’s order reserving the costs of the hearing. The facts are set out in the judgment of Balcombe LJ.
James F Gibbons (instructed by Booth & Co, Leeds) for Halvanto.
Andrew Hochhauser (instructed by Eversheds Hepworth & Chadwick, Leeds) for Symphony.
Cur adv vult
28 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
BALCOMBE LJ. These appeals, from an order made by Robin Stewart QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court on 3 August 1992, raise important questions on the exercise by the court of its jurisdiction under s 51 of the
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Supreme Court Act 1981 to order that the costs of proceedings be paid by some person other than a party to those proceedings.
The plaintiff, Symphony Group plc (Symphony), carries on business as a manufacturer and supplier of kitchen units. The defendant, Lawrence Colin Hodgson, aged 25, was employed by Symphony as an estimating supervisor at a salary of £9,900 pa, with overtime his earnings were of the order of £12,500 pa. Mr Hodgson’s contract of employment with Symphony contained restrictive covenants which provided, inter alia, that for one year after the termination of his employment he should not be engaged or interested in the manufacture or sale of kitchen furniture and that during the same period he should not work for certain listed companies engaged in the business of the supply and/or manufacture of kitchen furniture. On 29 May 1992 Symphony added, as they were entitled to do under the terms of the contract, the name of Halvanto Kitchens Ltd (Halvanto) to this list. Halvanto is a competitor of Symphony and is also engaged in the manufacture and supply of kitchen units.
In early January 1992 Mr Hodgson was exploring the job market. In March he saw Ellis Fairbank Associates, a recruitment agency, by whom he was introduced to Halvanto and on 16 March he had an interview with Mr Andrew Bramley, the managing director of Halvanto. Mr Hodgson was asked to come for a second interview and to bring with him his contract of employment with Symphony. On 14 April he had a second interview with a representative of Halvanto and shortly afterwards he was offered a job by Halvanto—a formal written offer and acceptance was dated 30 April, but the judge found that the actual offer was made and accepted on 14 April. On 1 May Mr Hodgson gave to Symphony, who at that time knew nothing of what he had been doing, written notice to terminate his employment. There were meetings in the following week between Mr Hodgson and representatives of Symphony and Mr Hodgson steadfastly refused to say who were his new employers. Symphony assumed that he was going to a competitor but did not know who. Mr Hodgson left Symphony’s employment on 8 May 1992 and on the same day went to the offices of Messrs Walker Morris, solicitors who acted for Halvanto, and there drafted a letter to Symphony claiming that Symphony had repudiated his contract of employment by certain actions taken between 1 and 8 May 1992.
On 11 May Symphony issued a writ in the Queen’s Bench Division of the High Court, to which Mr Hodgson was the sole defendant, claiming damages and injunctive relief against him and on the same day obtained an ex parte injunction from Schiemann J. The statement of claim was served on 12 May and on the same day Mr Hodgson was granted an emergency legal aid certificate. Accordingly the maximum period during which Halvanto could have financed Mr Hodgson’s case was the four days between 8 and 12 May. Since that latter date Mr Hodgson has been in receipt of legal aid and Walker Morris and counsel instructed by them have acted for him under the terms of a legal aid certificate or certificates. Symphony’s solicitors were notified of the grant of legal aid to Mr Hodgson on the following day, 13 May, and were in due course duly served with notice of the issue of his full legal aid certificate. Symphony’s application for interlocutory relief came on inter partes on 15 May before Sir Gervase Sheldon, sitting as a judge of the High Court, when he continued the interlocutory injunction until trial or further order and directed a speedy trial. It was at that hearing on 15 May that Symphony first learned that Halvanto was Mr Hodgson’s new employer. On 27 May Symphony’s solicitors
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wrote to Halvanto a letter, addressed for the attention of Mr Bramley, which contained the following passages:
‘Our client has clearly notified you that its employees are under post-employment obligations restraining them from working for competitors. Despite this however, you have offered employment to one of Symphony’s existing employees, Mr Lawrence Hodgson. That offer of employment has been accepted and since you have clearly induced Mr Hodgson to breach his contract of employment, Symphony now holds you liable to it in damages. Symphony intends to issue proceedings against you to recover such damages and we would be grateful if you would let us know whether any solicitors are instructed to accept service of those proceedings.’
On 1 June Walker Morris, as solicitors for Halvanto, confirmed that they had instructions to accept service of any proceedings that Symphony might issue. At no time has Symphony sought to join Halvanto as a defendant to the action against Mr Hodgson, nor to initiate separate proceedings against Halvanto. At no time before the hearing of the action against Mr Hodgson did Symphony tell Halvanto that it might seek to make Halvanto liable for payment of the costs of that action.
The full trial of the action started on 22 June; by then pleadings had been closed, discovery completed and witness statements exchanged. This reflects considerable credit on everyone concerned: the parties, their solicitors and the court. The hearing lasted over eight days, the main issues being the validity of the restrictive covenants and whether Symphony had repudiated Mr Hodgson’s contract of employment. In the course of the hearing Mr Bramley gave evidence for Mr Hodgson. On 6 July Robin Stewart QC sitting as a deputy judge delivered a written judgment which ran to 31 closely typed pages. He found for Symphony on every issue and granted substantial injunctive relief against Mr Hodgson, the claim for damages not being pursued by Symphony. He also made an order for costs against Mr Hodgson but, as Mr Hodgson was legally aided, directed that that order should not be enforced without the leave of the court. Realistically there is no prospect of Mr Hodgson being able to pay those costs which we were told could run into six figures.
In the course of his judgment the deputy judge expressed severe criticism of the actions of Halvanto and Mr Bramley. I cite the following passages by way of example:
‘When the defendant left the employment of the plaintiffs, his intention was to take up employment as a trainee sales representative, covering the Lancashire area with Halvanto Kitchens Ltd. They are direct competitors of the plaintiffs. On the face of the covenants in his contract of employment, this was in direct breach of those covenants. The evidence establishes, in my judgment, beyond any doubt, that both the defendant and Mr Andrew Bramley, the managing director of Halvanto Kitchens Ltd, knew that this was, on its face, a breach of the terms of the covenants, and intended by their conduct to take the plaintiffs on. Mr Bramley has in the preceding months twice considered taking on salesmen from the plaintiffs. Twice, on his admission, he had been advised by his solicitors against it, because of restrictive covenants in the contracts of employment of the respective salesmen … Contrary to what Mr Andrew Bramley said in his statement … the first interview of the defendant on 16 March 1992 was not
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for any specific job, but a general interview of a candidate who might possibly fit in somewhere. I find it difficult to give any description to that paragraph of Mr Bramley’s statement other than that it was deliberately misleading … In evidence, the defendant and Mr Bramley told me that the offer of 14 April was conditional on Halvanto being satisfied about the non-enforceability of the restrictive covenants. Had that really been the case, one would have expected that Mr Bramley would have referred the matter to his solicitors for their advice. But on his own evidence he did not. He said that he and his chairman, Mr Curtis Wright, discussed the covenants, and by themselves decided that they were too wide and unenforceable. I find this evidence unsatisfactory and incredible.’
At the end of the judgment counsel for Symphony applied for an order that Halvanto should pay its costs of the action. The deputy judge could of course have dismissed the application then and there if he thought it had no substance. He did not do so, and in those circumstances very properly directed that the application be adjourned to a date to be fixed to enable Halvanto to be represented and that prior to any such hearing Symphony should serve upon Halvanto a notice setting forth the basis upon which the costs application was made.
By a summons dated 14 July 1992 Symphony gave notice of its application to Halvanto, the grounds of the application being contained in a schedule to the summons. The schedule is lengthy, extending to six and a half pages of typescript, but the matters on which Symphony relies to support its claim against Halvanto can be grouped under two main heads. (1) Paragraphs 2(1) to (10) inclusive relate to the employment of Mr Hodgson by Halvanto with knowledge of the restrictive covenants by which he was bound, and are all issues which could have been raised by Symphony against Halvanto if the latter had been joined as a party to the action. (2) Paragraphs 2(11) to (13) relate to the conduct of Mr Hodgson’s defence to Symphony’s action. I cite below selected portions of the schedule to illustrate the nature of the detailed allegations made against Halvanto:
‘2 … The plaintiffs rely upon the following facts and matters, which are either taken from the judgment delivered on Monday, 5th July 1992 or from the evidence given by Mr Andrew Bramley, the Managing Director of Halvanto, as a witness:—(1) Both the defendant and Mr Bramley on behalf of Halvanto knew that the proposed employment of the defendant by Halvanto was, on its face, a clear breach of the terms of the covenants contained in the defendant’s contract of employment with the plaintiffs; (2) Each of them by their conduct intended “to take the plaintiffs on.” … (5) Mr Bramley so valued the defendant, that he was prepared to flout the restrictive covenants, and to take on the defendant as a trainee sales representative; a job for which he had no relevant experience and background; and at a salary package worth, with a car, some £17,000 pa.; (6) Contrary to what Mr Bramley said in his statement … the first interview of the defendant on 16th March 1992 was not for any specific job, but a general interview of a candidate who might possibly fit in somewhere … (9) The Terms of the Offer Halvanto was prepared to pay “over the odds” to gain the services of the defendant, an unproven trainee because of his particular knowledge of the plaintiff’s business, knowledge of a type that would not otherwise be available to the competition … (11) At some point
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during the week of 4th May 1992, Mr Bramley referred the defendant to Messrs Walker Morris, solicitors to Halvanto … rather than continue to use the sole principal firm he had already instructed in relation to his contract of employment, Nichols & Co. This large commercial firm is not in the habit of conducting litigation on Legal Aid. The defendant stated that he had not received a bill in respect of the pre-Legal Aid work. Mr Bramley said he did not know who was paying for this and said “You will have to ask the Chairman, Mr Wright.” There is a clear inference to be drawn that the defendant’s advice was being financed by his new employers at this stage and prior to the grant of Legal Aid …
3. By reason of the above facts, Halvanto should pay the plaintiff’s costs of this action. Halvanto sought to “take the plaintiff on” and it should pay the costs of having failed in its attempt. It has been the driving force behind the defendant’s defence in this action. Through Mr Bramley it steered the defendant towards its solicitors. It appears it has financed the defendant and has maintained his defence prior to the grant of Legal Aid. The plaintiffs’ further rely on the fact that Mr Bramley was in regular attendance throughout the trial, almost on a daily basis, and played an active part in the proceedings, both in and out of the witness box. In pursuit of his company’s objectives Mr Bramley has not hesitated to deceive the Court. His evidence is described in the judgment as “incredible”, “unsatisfactory” and intended “deliberately to mislead”. In such circumstances it is entirely appropriate that Halvanto, which had so much to gain from such underhand conduct, should bear the plaintiff’s costs.’
Symphony’s summons came before the deputy judge on 31 July 1992, when both Symphony and Halvanto were represented by counsel. Halvanto’s solicitors had previously indicated that Halvanto would take as a preliminary point that Symphony’s application was an abuse of the process of the court. At the hearing before the deputy judge, Mr Gibbons, counsel for Halvanto, did not proceed with that submission, although he denies that he withdrew any application to that effect, and the order as approved by the deputy judge and drawn up contains no record of any such withdrawal as Mr Hochhauser, counsel for Symphony, had contended it should. The two preliminary points which were raised by Halvanto at this hearing were: (1) that the deputy judge should discharge himself on the grounds of apparent bias; and (2) that there was no case to answer on the basis that Symphony adduced no further evidence than that contained in the testimony of Mr Andrew Bramley, Halvanto’s managing director, and the findings of fact contained in the judgment delivered on 6 July 1992.
The deputy judge ruled against Halvanto on both these points but gave leave to appeal. He then went on to give directions in preparation for the resumed hearing of Symphony’s application against Halvanto, of which the only one necessary to mention here is the first:
‘… the Plaintiff be entitled at the hearing of this application to rely upon the transcript of the evidence of Mr Andrew Bramley, Halvanto’s Managing Director, and the findings of fact in the judgment delivered on 6th July 1992 as provisional findings of fact against Halvanto …’
He then directed that, should Halvanto file a notice of appeal against his dismissal of its preliminary points, all further compliance with his directions
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should be stayed pending the outcome of the appeal. He then gave Symphony leave to appeal against the stay, and directed that the costs of that day’s hearing be reserved to the resumed hearing.
Halvanto gave notice of appeal on 1 September 1992 and on 3 September 1992 Symphony cross-appealed against the order reserving costs of the hearing of 31 July, asking instead that Halvanto should pay the costs of that hearing in any event. On the same day Symphony also appealed against the stay of the directions.
Halvanto’s appeal came before this court (Nourse and Steyn LJJ) on 21 January 1993, when the appeal was adjourned to a full three-judge court and Halvanto was given leave to amend its notice of appeal and Symphony was given leave to lodge an amended respondent’s notice.
By its amended notice of appeal Halvanto asserts that the circumstances of the case were not such as to permit an order for costs being made against Halvanto by exercise of a judicial discretion in accordance with reason and justice as stated by Lord Goff of Chieveley in his speech in Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeira [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965. It then elaborates that assertion by reference largely to the grounds set out in the schedule to Symphony’s summons against Halvanto, although also by asserting that Symphony, having decided not to join Halvanto as second defendant to the action, was not entitled (having thereby deprived Halvanto of the chance of winning such an action) to seek an order for costs against Halvanto without the necessity of the attendant risks of litigation that such an action would have brought. Halvanto also maintains its contentions that the evidence of Mr Bramley, and the findings of fact contained in the judgment of 6 July 1992, could not in law be admissible against Halvanto and that the deputy judge should have discharged himself from hearing the application on the grounds of apparent bias. Symphony then served a respondent’s notice seeking to affirm the judge’s decision on 17 listed grounds. Those being the relevant facts, I turn to the issues which arise on this appeal.
Until the decision of the House of Lords in the Aiden Shipping case, it had not been appreciated that the wording of s 51 of the Supreme Court Act 1981, or of its statutory predecessors, empowered the court to order a non-party to proceedings to pay costs. It was thought that some limitation must be put upon the generality of the words—see Forbes-Smith v Forbes-Smith and Chadwick [1901] P 258 at 271, John Fairfax & Sons Pty Ltd v E C de Witt & Co (Australia) Pty Ltd [1957] 3 All ER 410, [1958] 1 QB 323 and the Aiden Shipping case [1985] 3 All ER 641, [1985] 1 WLR 1222 in this court—and that limitation was that the court could only order the costs to be paid by any of the parties. To that limitation there was one apparent exception, namely the ability to order a solicitor to a party to pay costs occasioned by his misconduct, but this was understood to be an exercise by the court of its inherent jurisdiction over solicitors as officers of the court, and was in any event regulated by the provisions of the Rules of the Supreme Court (now Ord 62, r 11). In the Aiden Shipping case the House of Lords held that s 51 should not be interpreted as being subject to the implied limitation, and that the jurisdiction to award costs was without limit. However in the course of his leading speech in that case Lord Goff made it clear that the exercise of the jurisdiction should be limited in accordance with the requirements of reason and justice. He said ([1986] 2 All ER 409 at 413, [1986] AC 965 at 975):
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‘… it is not surprising to find the jurisdiction conferred under s 51(1), like its predecessors, to be expressed in wide terms. The subsection simply provides that “the court shall have full power to determine by whom … the costs are to be paid”. Such a provision is consistent with a policy under which jurisdiction to exercise the relevant discretionary power is expressed in wide terms, thus ensuring that the court has, so far as possible, freedom of action, leaving it to the rule-making authority to control the exercise of discretion (if it thinks it right to do so) by the making of rules of court, and to the appellate courts to establish principles upon which the discretionary power may, within the framework of the statute and the applicable rules of court, be exercised.’ (Lord Goff’s emphasis.)
And later ([1986] 2 All ER 409 at 416–417, [1986] AC 965 at 980–981):
‘In the vast majority of cases, it would no doubt be unjust to make an award of costs against a person who is not a party to the relevant proceedings … I do not, for my part, foresee any injustice flowing from the abandonment of that implied limitation. Courts of first instance are, I believe, well capable of exercising their discretion under the statute in accordance with reason and justice. I cannot imagine any case arising in which some order for costs is made, in the exercise of the court’s discretion, against some person who has no connection with the proceedings in question. If any problem arises, the Court of Appeal can lay down principles for the guidance of judges of first instance; or the Supreme Court Rule Committee can propose amendments to the Rules of the Supreme Court for the purpose of controlling the exercise of the statutory power vested in judges subject to rules of court.’
The facts of the Aiden Shipping case indicated the kind of close connection with the proceedings that Lord Goff had in mind. Following damage to a ship, the owners had made a claim against the charterers under a charterparty. The charterers in turn claimed against the sub-charterers under a sub-charter. Both claims went to arbitration and there were two awards. Both awards were ultimately remitted for further consideration and disputes then arose as to the scope of the remissions. The owners in the head charter arbitration and the charterers in the sub-charter arbitration issued originating notices of motion seeking a wider remission. Both remissions were by agreement heard together. As Donaldson MR pointed out in his judgment in the Court of Appeal if the claims had started by action rather than by arbitration, this would have been the classic ‘third party’ situation and a court would have had power under the rules to make the owners pay the charterers’ costs of the action, such costs to include any costs paid by the charterers to the sub-charterers in the third party proceedings (see [1985] 3 All ER 641 at 646, [1985] 1 WLR 1222 at 1228). Because these were arbitrations and not actions, the Court of Appeal held, regretfully, that Hirst J, the judge at first instance, did not have the power to make such an order as to costs; the House of Lords held that he did and restored his order to that effect.
Since the Aiden Shipping case there has been a number of reported decisions where the court has been prepared to order a non-party to pay the costs of proceedings. These decisions may be conveniently summarised under the following heads.
(1) Where a person had some management of the action, eg a director of an insolvent company who causes the company improperly to prosecute or defend
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proceedings: see Re Land and Property Trust Co plc [1991] 3 All ER 409, [1991] 1 WLR 601, Re Land and Property Trust Co plc (No 2) (1993) Times, 16 February, Re Land and Property Trust Co plc (No 3) [1991] BCLC 856, Taylor v Pace Developments Ltd [1991] BCC 406, Re a company (No 004055 of 1991), ex p Doe Sport Ltd [1991] BCLC 865, [1991] 1 WLR 1003 and Framework Exhibitions Ltd v Matchroom Boxing Ltd [1992] CA Transcript 873. It is of interest to note that, while it was not suggested in any of these cases that it would never be a proper exercise of the jurisdiction to order the director to pay the costs, in none of them was it the ultimate result that the director was so ordered.
(2) Where a person has maintained or financed the action. This was undoubtedly considered to be a proper case for the exercise of the discretion by Macpherson J in Singh v Observer Ltd [1989] 2 All ER 751, where it was alleged that a non-party was maintaining the plaintiff’s libel action. However, on appeal the evidence showed that the non-party had not been maintaining the action and the appeal was allowed without going into the legal issues raised by the judge’s decision: see Singh v Observer Ltd [1989] 3 All ER 777.
(3) In Gupta v Comer [1991] 1 All ER 289, [1991] 1 QB 629 this court approached the power of the court to order a solicitor to pay costs under Ord 62, r 11 as an example of the exercise of the jurisdiction under s 51 of the 1981 Act.
(4) Where the person has caused the action. In Pritchard v J H Cobden Ltd [1988] Fam 22 the plaintiff had suffered brain damage through the defendant’s negligence. That resulted in a personality change which precipitated a divorce. This court held that the defendant’s agreement to pay the costs of the divorce proceedings could be justified as an application of the Aiden Shipping principle (see [1988] Fam 22 at 51).
(5) Where the person is a party to a closely related action which has been heard at the same time but not consolidated—as was the case in Aiden Shipping itself.
(6) Group litigation where one or two actions are selected as test actions: see Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co [1987] 3 All ER 94, [1987] 1 WLR 1136.
I accept that these categories are neither rigid nor closed. They indicate the sorts of connection which have so far led the courts to entertain a claim for costs against a non-party. However, it seems to me that the particular circumstances of this case require this court to accept the invitation of Lord Goff in the Aiden Shipping case and to lay down some principles for the guidance of judges of first instance when they are asked to make an order for costs against a non-party and in doing so I am well aware of what Lloyd LJ said in Taylor v Pace Developments Ltd [1991] BCC 406 at 408:
‘There is only one immutable rule in relation to costs, and that is that there are no immutable rules.’
I am also aware of the observations warning against laying down rules for the exercise of a discretion in relation to costs generally by Bowen LJ in Jones v Curling (1884) 13 QBD 262 at 271 and by Brett MR in The Friedeberg (1885) 10 PD 112 at 113. Nevertheless I am fortified by the fact that Lord Goff considered that such guidance might well become necessary and I believe that the circumstances of this case indicate the present necessity for guidance. In my judgment, the following are material considerations to be taken into account, although I do not suggest that there may not be others which are relevant.
(1) An order for the payment of costs by a non-party will always be exceptional: see the Aiden Shipping case [1986] 2 All ER 409 at 416, [1986] AC 965
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at 980 per Lord Goff. The judge should treat any application for such an order with considerable caution.
(2) It will be even more exceptional for an order for the payment of costs to be made against a non-party, where the applicant has a cause of action against the non-party and could have joined him as a party to the original proceedings. Joinder as a party to the proceedings gives the person concerned all the protection conferred by the rules, eg the framing of the issues by pleadings, discovery of documents, the opportunity to pay into court or to make a Calderbank offer (see Calderbank v Calderbank [1975] 3 All ER 333, [1976] Fam 93), and the knowledge of what the issues are before giving evidence.
(3) Even if the applicant can provide a good reason for not joining the non-party against whom he has a valid cause of action, he should warn the non-party at the earliest opportunity of the possibility that he may seek to apply for costs against him. At the very least this will give the non-party an opportunity to supply to be joined as a party to the action under Ord 15, r 6(2)(b)(i) or (ii).
Principles (2) and (3) require no further justification on my part; they are an obvious application of the basic principles of natural justice.
(4) An application for payment of costs by a non-party should normally be determined by the trial judge: see Bahai v Rashidian [1985] 3 All ER 385, [1985] 1 WLR 1337.
(5) The fact that the trial judge may in the course of his judgment in the action have expressed views on the conduct of the non-party neither constitutes bias nor the appearance of bias. Bias is the antithesis of the proper exercise of a judicial function: see Bahai v Rashidian [1985] 3 All ER 385 at 388, 391, [1985] 1 WLR 1337 at 1342, 1346.
(6) The procedure for the determination of costs is a summary procedure, not necessarily subject to all the rules that would apply in an action. Thus, subject to any relevant statutory exceptions, judicial findings are inadmissible as evidence of the facts upon which they were based in proceedings between one of the parties to the original proceedings and a stranger: see Hollington v F Hewthorn & Co Ltd [1943] 2 All ER 35, [1943] KB 587 and Cross on Evidence (7th edn, 1990) pp 100–101. Yet in the summary procedure for the determination of the liability of a solicitor to pay the costs of an action to which he was not a party, the judge’s findings of fact may be admissible: see Brendon v Spiro [1937] 2 All ER 496 at 503, [1938] 1 KB 176 at 192 per Scott LJ, cited with approval by this court in Bahai v Rashidian [1985] 3 All ER 385 at 389, 391, [1985] 1 WLR 1337 at 1343, 1345. This departure from basic principles can only be justified if the connection of the non-party with the original proceedings was so close that he will not suffer any injustice by allowing this exception to the general rule.
(7) Again the normal rule is that witnesses in either civil or criminal proceedings enjoy immunity from any form of civil action in respect of evidence given during those proceedings. One reason for this immunity is so that witnesses may give their evidence fearlessly: see Palmer v Durnford Ford (a firm) [1992] 2 All ER 122 at 125, [1992] QB 483 at 487. In so far as the evidence of a witness in proceedings may lead to an application for the costs of those proceedings against him or his company, it introduces yet another exception to a valuable general principle.
(8) The fact that an employee, or even a director or the managing director, of a company gives evidence in an action does not normally mean that the company is taking part in that action, in so far as that is an allegation relied upon
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by the party who applies for an order for costs against a non-party company: see Gleeson v J Wippell & Co Ltd [1977] 3 All ER 54 at 58, [1977] 1 WLR 510 at 513.
(9) The judge should be alert to the possibility that an application against a non-party is motivated by resentment of an inability to obtain an effective order for costs against a legally aided litigant. The courts are well aware of the financial difficulties faced by parties who are facing legally aided litigants at first instance, where the opportunity of a claim against the Legal Aid Board under s 18 of the Legal Aid Act 1988 is very limited. Nevertheless the Civil Legal Aid (General) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/339, and in particular regs 67, 69 and 70, lay down conditions designed to ensure that there is no abuse of legal aid by a legally assisted person and these are designed to protect the other party to the litigation as well as the legal aid fund. The court will be very reluctant to infer that solicitors to a legally aided party have failed to discharge their duties under the regulations—see Orchard v South Eastern Electricity Board [1987] 1 All ER 95, [1987] QB 565—and, in my judgment, this principle extends to a reluctance to infer that any maintenance by a non-party has occurred.
I now consider these principles in relation to the facts of the present case.
(1) Speaks for itself.
(2) It is clear that Symphony has at all material times had a cause of action in tort against Halvanto. ‘It is established that, where a third person with knowledge of a contract “has dealings with the contract breaker which the third party knows to be inconsistent with the contract, he has committed an actionable interference” ’: see Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) p 815, para 15-08 and cases there cited. Symphony knew of Halvanto’s identity by 15 May 1992 and was threatening proceedings on 27 May 1992. We were told by Mr Hochhauser that the reason why Symphony decided not to join Halvanto as a party to the action was that so long as it had an injunction against Mr Hodgson it did not need one against Halvanto, and that having immediately obtained an immediate interlocutory injunction against Mr Hodgson it had suffered, and would suffer, no damage. I accept that these may have seemed good reasons at the time but I do not find them a sufficient justification for a departure from this basic principle. Sub-paragraphs (1) to (10) inclusive of para 2 of the schedule to Symphony’s summons of 14 July 1992 all relate to issues which could have been raised by Symphony against Halvanto if Halvanto had been joined as a party to the action. I do not seek to justify Halvanto’s actions to which the judge took such exception, but it would be unjust to Halvanto to allow these issues to be raised now in this summary procedure where Halvanto has been deprived of any legal right to control the action (eg by an offer of settlement or payment into court) and of all the procedural protection to which it would have been entitled if the claims had been brought against it by action in the normal and proper way.
(3) It is not suggested by Symphony that it ever warned Halvanto of the possibility that it might seek to make Halvanto liable for the costs of its action against Mr Hodgson before 6 July 1992 when the judge delivered his judgment in that action. The result is that Halvanto was neither made a party to the action by Symphony, nor did it have the opportunity to protect itself by applying to be made a party. When Mr Bramley gave his evidence he did so in ignorance of what lay in store for Halvanto, and with the benefit of hindsight it now appears that at least some part of his cross-examination—eg that directed to the position of Walker Morris and their acting for Mr Hodgson—was with a view to this application being made. In my judgment, Mr Gibbons was justified in comparing the procedure here of evidence (Mr Bramley’s) first, and pleadings
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(the schedule to Symphony’s summons of 14 July 1992) later, to what the Queen said at the trial of the knave in Lewis Carroll’s Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland: ‘ “No, no!” said the Queen. “Sentence first—verdict afterwards.” ’—even though Mr Gibbons wrongly attributed this quotation to the King.
(4) and (5) The fact that Halvanto applied for the deputy judge to discharge himself is not surprising given the strength of the judge’s remarks which I have quoted above. Yet as all members of the court (including Parker LJ, who dissented) recognised in Bahai v Rashidian, a hearing of the application by anyone other than the trial judge is going to present very considerable practical difficulties. If the judge does hear Symphony’s application and finds against Halvanto, it seems to me to be inevitable that Halvanto will be left with a feeling that justice has, at the very least, not been seen to be done. If the application is heard by some other judge, the costs implications are horrendous. These problems suggest to me that this is not a suitable case for the exercise of a discretion which, under the principles of Aiden Shipping, the court undoubtedly has.
(6) If Symphony’s claim against Halvanto were the subject of an action proper, the judge’s findings of fact made in his judgment in Symphony’s action against Mr Hodgson would not be admissible as evidence of those facts against Halvanto. In my judgment, the connection of Halvanto with the original proceedings is by no means close enough to ensure that Halvanto will not suffer injustice by allowing this evidence to be admitted by way of exception to the general rule.
(7) and (8) Again I can see no valid reason in the circumstances of the present case to justify the exceptions to these two principles which would be required if Mr Bramley’s evidence in the Hodgson action is to be allowed to justify the present claim against Halvanto.
(9) Sub-paragraphs (11) to (13) of para 2 of the schedule to the summons of 14 July 1992 raise an allegation that Walker Morris were not representing Mr Hodgson in the action, but were in fact representing Halvanto. This carries by inference the allegation that they were in breach of their duty to the legal aid fund. I am not prepared to make that inference on the basis of the findings of fact by the judge in his judgment of 6 July 1992, and the transcript of the evidence of Mr Bramley, on which Symphony has elected to rely as the sole evidence to support its application for costs against Halvanto.
In my judgment therefore Halvanto has made out its primary claim that the grounds set out in Symphony’s summons are not such as could justify the exercise of discretion in making an order for costs against Halvanto in the Hodgson action to which Halvanto was not a party. I do not find it necessary to deal with Halvanto’s appeals against the specific directions made by the judge on 3 August 1992 since these directions are merely symptoms of the error into which the deputy judge fell when he indicated he was prepared to entertain Symphony’s application for costs against Halvanto. In my judgment, he should have dismissed it summarily as soon as it had been made.
I would allow Halvanto’s appeal, dismiss Symphony’s appeal and cross-appeal, and dismiss Symphony’s summons of 14 July 1992.
STAUGHTON LJ. I entirely agree with the judgment of Balcombe LJ and with the orders proposed by him. After the deputy judge had given judgment in the action on 6 July 1992, it could not in my opinion be just for him to entertain an application that Halvanto should pay the costs of Symphony. It follows that for
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the deputy judge to make such an order would be a wrong exercise of the discretion conferred by s 51 of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
I reach that conclusion for two reasons. First, like Balcombe LJ I take the view that at least part of the cross-examination of Mr Bramley was directed, objectively speaking, not at the pleaded issues in the trial but at securing admissions which would justify an order under s 51. That is not to say that the questions should never have been asked, or should have been disallowed by the deputy judge if objection had been taken; they may well have also been relevant to Mr Bramley’s credibility. But objectively speaking, as I say, their main function now appears to have been to establish a case under s 51.
Neither Mr Bramley nor Halvanto had any warning that questions which would tend to make out such a case would be asked. Neither had reason to obtain professional advice on the topic before Mr Bramley gave evidence. Neither was represented by counsel at the trial, who might (for example) have asked further questions in re-examination. The main purpose of pleadings is to inform one party of the case which the other will seek to make against him. That is an essential feature of justice, and was entirely absent here.
Nevertheless there are cases, as Balcombe LJ has shown, where a person may be ordered to pay costs on the basis of evidence given and facts found at a trial to which he was not a party. Before such an order is made, it must be just and fair that the stranger should be bound by that evidence and those findings. In my judgment that is not the case here.
My second reason is that the deputy judge’s findings were reached without the assistance of submissions from counsel representing Halvanto, or of any further evidence that Halvanto might have called. It is true that by his direction they were to be regarded only as provisional findings of fact against Halvanto. No doubt in further proceedings he would consider with care whether they were shown to be wrong. But human nature suggests that he might be slow to reach that conclusion. And in any event there will, in my opinion, be a legitimate feeling of grievance if he does not do so.
Once again, that may not be an insuperable objection in every case; but it is in this case. The only fair and just method of judging Symphony’s application would be to start again with a clean sheet, new evidence and a new judge. But even if Symphony wished to pursue that course, I do not think that it should be allowed to do so under s 51. The section was not designed for procedure of that kind. If Symphony wish to sue Halvanto for procuring a breach of contract, and if the costs in this action would be part of the damages (as to which I express no opinion), that must be the subject of a separate action.
WAITE LJ. For the reasons given by Balcombe and Staughton LJJ, with which I agree entirely and to which I do not wish to add anything, I agree that Halvanto’s appeal should be allowed and the appeal and cross-appeal of Symphony should be dismissed together with Symphony’s summons of 14 July 1992.
Appeal of Halvanto allowed. Appeal and cross-appeal of Symphony dismissed. Symphony’s summons of 14 July 1992 dismissed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Raina Levy Barrister.
London and Blenheim Estates Ltd v Ladbroke Retail Parks Ltd
[1993] 4 All ER 157
Categories: LAND; Property Rights
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): RALPH GIBSON, BELDAM AND PETER GIBSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 10, 25 MAY 1993
Easement – Creation – Dominant and servient tenements – Need for both dominant and servient tenement to exist in separate ownership before easement can exist – Grant of potential easement – Potential servient tenement transferred before dominant tenement acquired – Whether dominant owner could exercise right to grant of easement against successors in title to servient tenement.
On 27 August 1987 the then registered owner (the transferor) transferred part of his land (the transferred land) to the plaintiff together with certain rights and easements including, inter alia, the right to park cars on part of the land retained by the transferor. Clause 11 of the transfer stated that if the plaintiff purchased other land and gave notice to the transferor, within five years of the original transfer, that such land was to be included in the transferred land and at the date of the notice the plaintiff or a subsidiary or associated company was still the owner of the transferred land, such land would also benefit by the rights and easements over the land retained by the transferor. On 18 December 1987 the plaintiff purchased additional land adjoining the retained land. The additional land was capable of being benefited by the rights and easements. On 2 February 1988 the transferor transferred the retained land to W, which subsequently sold it to the defendants. On 1 March, which was within the required five years but after the assignment to W, the plaintiff gave notice under cl 11 to W that the additional land was to be included in the transferred land so that it could thereby have the benefit of the rights and easements over the retained land. The defendants disputed the plaintiff’s claim that the additional land could have the benefit of the rights and easements and the plaintiff issued proceedings for a declaration to that effect. The judge held that cl 11 had not created an interest in land because there was no dominant tenement (ie the additional land) before the servient tenement (ie the retained land) had been disposed of by the grantor of the right (ie the transferor), with the result that the right in the transfer to include land which could be benefited by the rights and easements did not bind the defendants as the successors in title to the servient tenement. The plaintiff appealed to the Court of Appeal, contending (i) that the right granted by the transfer to nominate unspecified land as the dominant tenement in respect of the easements created an interest in land which, when registered, bound the successors in title of the servient tenement and (ii) that, even if it did not, an interest in land binding successors in title to the servient tenement (the retained land) arose when the plaintiff acquired the dominant tenement (the additional land), even though the plaintiff had not given notice prior to the disposition of the servient tenement that that land was to have the benefit of the easements.
Held – (1) The grant of a right to nominate unspecified land as the dominant tenement of an easement was not in itself sufficient to create an interest in land which bound successors in title to the servient tenement since land could not be encumbered with burdens of uncertain extent. Although the transfer of 27 August 1987 gave the plaintiff an immediate option to create an easement over
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the servient tenement (the retained land), which option was capable of being an interest in land, nevertheless until the dominant tenement was identified an essential part of the interest to be granted was left uncertain. Accordingly, since the servient tenement had been disposed of by the grantor before the dominant tenement had been created the contract had not created an interest in land binding on the defendants as the successor in title to the transferor (see p 162 f g, p 163 c to g and p 164 j, post); Turley v Mackay [1943] 2 All ER 1 distinguished.
(2) An interest in land binding successors in title to the servient tenement did not arise on 18 December 1987 when the plaintiff acquired the additional land since it was an express condition of the transfer of 27 August 1987 between the transferor and the plaintiff that an interest in the land would only be created if the land capable of being benefited by the rights and easements had been acquired and the required notice given and until notice was given the dominant tenement was not identified. Accordingly, since the additional land had not been identified as the dominant tenement until after the servient tenement had been disposed of the plaintiff’s claim that the additional land had the benefit of the rights and easements failed. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 164 f to j, post); Pritchard v Briggs [1980] 1 All ER 294 considered.
Decision of Judge Paul Baker QC [1993] 1 All ER 307 affirmed.
Notes
For the creation, conveyance and extinguishment of easements, see 14 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 45–130, and for cases on the subject see 19 Digest (Reissue) 26–110, 184–743.
Cases referred to in judgments
Ackroyd v Smith (1850) 10 CB 164, 138 ER 68.
Ashburn Anstalt v Arnold [1988] 2 All ER 147, [1989] Ch 1, [1988] 2 WLR 706, CA.
Gas and Fuel Corp of Victoria v Barba [1976] VR 755, Vic SC.
Keppell v Bailey (1834) 2 My & K 517, [1824–34] All ER Rep 10, 39 ER 1042.
Pritchard v Briggs [1980] 1 All ER 294, [1980] Ch 338, [1979] 3 WLR 147, CA.
Rangeley v Midland Rly Co (1868) LR 3 Ch App 306.
Thomas v Rose [1968] 3 All ER 765, [1968] 1 WLR 1797.
Turley v Mackay [1943] 2 All ER 1, [1944] Ch 37.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
A-G of Southern Nigeria v John Holt & Co (Liverpool) Ltd [1915] AC 599, [1914–15] All ER Rep 444, PC.
Beesly v Hallwood Estates Ltd [1960] 2 All ER 314, [1960] 1 WLR 549.
Copeland v Greenhalf [1952] 1 All ER 809, [1952] Ch 488.
Dunn v Blackdown Properties Ltd [1961] 2 All ER 62, [1961] Ch 433.
Ellensborough Park, Re, Re Davies (decd), Powell v Maddison [1955] 3 All ER 667, [1956] Ch 131, CA.
Haslemere Estates Ltd v Baker [1982] 3 All ER 525, [1982] 1 WLR 1109.
Jelbert v Davis [1968] 1 All ER 1182, [1968] 1 WLR 589, CA.
Johnstone v Holdway [1963] 1 All ER 432, [1963] 1 QB 601, CA.
Kitney v MEPC Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 595, [1977] 1 WLR 981, CA.
London and South Western Rly Co v Gomm (1882) 20 Ch D 562, Ch D and CA.
London CC v Allen [1914] 3 KB 642, CA.
National Provincial Bank Ltd v Ainsworth [1965] 2 All ER 472, [1965] AC 1175, HL.
Simmons v Dobson (1991) 62 P & CR 485, CA.
Spiro v Glencrown Properties Ltd [1991] 1 All ER 600, [1991] Ch 537.
Page 159 of [1993] 4 All ER 157
Taylor Fashions Ltd v Liverpool Victoria Trustees Co Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 897, [1982] QB 133.
Williams v Buntington Investments Ltd (1977) 121 SJ 424, HL.
Wright v Macadam [1949] 2 All ER 565, [1949] 2 KB 744, CA.
Appeal
The plaintiff, London and Blenheim Estates Ltd, appealed from the order of Judge Paul Baker QC sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Chancery Division ([1993] 1 All ER 307, [1992] 1 WLR 1278) made on 10 April 1992 dismissing the plaintiff’s action against the defendants, Ladbroke Retail Parks Ltd, for a declaration that the plaintiff and its successors in title as proprietors of certain leasehold land in Leicester were entitled to the benefit of the rights specified in the first schedule to a transfer dated 27 August 1984 made between Leicestershire Co-operative Society Ltd and the plaintiff (then known as G Harris Developments Ltd). The facts are set out in the judgment of Peter Gibson LJ.
Sir William Goodhart QC and Michael Kennedy (instructed by Titmuss Sainer & Webb) for the plaintiff.
Gavin Lightman QC and Michael Briggs (instructed by Marron Dodds, Leicester) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
25 May 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
PETER GIBSON LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Ralph Gibson LJ). This is an appeal by the plaintiff, London and Blenheim Estates Ltd, from the order of Judge Paul Baker QC, sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Chancery Division (see [1993] 1 All ER 307). The plaintiff had claimed a declaration that it and its successors in title to certain leasehold land (the additional land) in Leicester are entitled to the benefit of inter alia a right to park on certain other land (the retained land) which at the time of the trial was owned by the then sole defendant, Ladbroke Retail Parks Ltd (LRP). The judge dismissed that claim and granted a declaration, which LRP had sought by its counterclaim, that there existed no right to park on the retained land in favour of the additional land.
The facts were not in dispute. On 27 August 1987 the Leicestershire Co-operative Society Ltd (the Co-op) transferred on sale to the plaintiff a parcel of land (the transferred land) ripe for development in Leicester. The transferred land was expressed to be transferred—
‘together with the easement and other rights specified in the First Schedule hereto but except and reserving the easements and other rights specified in the Second Schedule hereto.’
The transferred land, like the additional land and the retained land, was registered land. By cl 3 the Co-op and LRP applied for all such entries to be made on the register of titles of both of them as might be requisite for the purpose of fully protecting and recording all the rights granted and reserved by the transfer.
The first schedule contained 11 paragraphs. Paragraph 1 was a right of way for the plaintiff for all purposes in connection with the use of the transferred land over a roadway and footway intended to be constructed on the retained land, being land retained by the Co-op, and, prior to that construction, an immediate right of way over a specified part of the retained land. Paragraphs 2 to 6 contained
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rights to enter the retained land for specific purposes and to connect with and use services to be provided on the retained land. Paragraph 7 reads as follows:
‘When the Transferor’s development has been completed or otherwise as may be agreed by the Transferor a right for customers clients or employees of any retail shop or other business conducted on the transferred land to park (if space is available) on any part of the retained land set aside as a car park for the benefit of customers clients or employees of any retail shop or other business conducted on the retained land or for the benefit of members of the public on the like terms (as to charges and conditions of use) as are imposed upon such last-mentioned customers clients or employees but subject to the Transferee paying a reasonable share of the costs of maintaining such car park and any adjoining landscaped areas.’
Paragraph 8 contained provisions ancillary to the rights of entry and para 9 contained a right to erect a signboard. Paragraph 10 contained provisions intended to ensure that the rights should not fall foul of the rule against perpetuities and sub-para (b) provided, inter alia, that the right granted by para 7 should apply only to car parks constructed within 20 years from the date of the transfer.
Paragraph 11 was in this form:
‘In this Schedule the expression “the transferred land” shall include any other land if (a) such land is capable of being benefited by the rights hereby granted (b) notice is given to the Transferor within five years from the date hereof that such land is to be included in the transferred land for the purposes of this Schedule (c) at the date of such notice the original Transferee (or some other company which is a subsidiary holding or associated company of the Transferee) is the registered proprietor of or has contracted to purchase such land.’
In cl 4 of the transfer ‘the Transferor’ was expressed to include the Co-op’s successors in title where the context admitted. Clearly the context so admitted in para 11.
The second schedule contained the easements and rights excepted and reserved to the Co-op. For the most part they are easements and rights corresponding to those in the first schedule but over the transferred land for the benefit of the retained land and they included a right to park in terms similar, mutatis mutandis, to para 7 of the first schedule.
The judge held that the rights conferred by para 11 had been sufficiently registered.
On 18 December 1987 the plaintiff contracted to purchase the additional land, being land bordering on the retained land and capable of being benefited by the rights in the first schedule. On 2 February 1988 Wortley Developments Ltd (Wortley) became the registered proprietor of the retained land. On 1 March 1988 the plaintiff gave notice to Wortley under para 11(b) requiring the additional land to be included in the transferred land for the purposes of the first schedule. On 2 September 1988 Wortley transferred the retained land to LRP and early in 1990 the plaintiff, which had earlier sold part of the transferred land to another company, sold the rest of the transferred land to LRP.
By October 1990 LRP had developed the retained land and that part of the transferred land which it had bought from the plaintiff into a retail park with a large car park of about 850 spaces extending across part of the retained land and part of the transferred land. It is the car park on the retained land that is relevant
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to the dispute in the present case. In December 1992 LRP transferred the retained land to Ladbroke Group plc which then transferred it to Retail Parks Investments Ltd. Both these companies were by consent joined on 1 February 1993 as defendants with LRP.
To summarise the factual position, the plaintiff, the original transferee, contracted to purchase the additional land, being land capable of being benefited by the rights in the first schedule, before the Co-op transferred the retained land, but it was only after that transfer that the plaintiff gave notice to Wortley that the additional land was to be included in the transferred land for the purposes of the first schedule; that notification was within five years from the date of the transfer of 27 August 1987.
There were four issues before the judge. (1) Can a right to park exist as a valid easement? The judge held that it could, but on this appeal the defendants submit that a right to park of the type set forth in para 7 cannot. (2) Can the servient owner terminate or modify the right to park by changing the user of the retained land? The judge held that the right to park was only exercisable over so much of the retained land as was from time to time set aside as a car park, but on this appeal the plaintiff submits that once a car park has been set aside, the servient owner cannot terminate or modify that right save only to reduce it, but not beyond an extent that would leave insufficient car-parking space. (3) Can the rights conferred by para 11 be exercised in relation to leasehold (as opposed to freehold) land? The judge held that it could and that conclusion is not challenged on this appeal. (4) Can the right given by para 11 to add land to benefit from the rights in the first schedule be exercised so as to bind successors in title to the retained land? The judge held that it could not, but the correctness of that conclusion is challenged by the plaintiff on this appeal.
The fourth issue was the substantial issue argued before the judge. He described it as ‘by far the most difficult issue in the case’. He dealt with it first, and, as it is the substantial issue before us, I too shall address it first.
The nature of the issue, as it was argued before us, is more clearly seen if it is reformulated as two questions. (a) Did the grant of a right to nominate unspecified land within a specified period as the dominant tenement in respect of rights in the nature of easements create an interest in land which, when registered, bound successors in title to the servient tenement? (b) If not, did an interest in land binding successors in title to the servient tenement arise on the acquisition by the plaintiff of the additional land even though the right to nominate was not exercised prior to the disposition to the successor in title?
Sir William Goodhart QC for the plaintiff answers questions (a) and (b) in the affirmative. Mr Gavin Lightman QC for the defendants answers questions (a) and (b) in the negative.
Sir William submitted that there can be no doubt as to where the merits in this issue lie. As he pointed out, it was clearly the intention of the Co-op and the plaintiff that the rights contained in the first schedule should extend to any land in respect of which the conditions of para 11(a), (b) and (c) were satisfied, that paragraph containing no exclusion if notice was given to the successors in title of the transferor; further, when Wortley and, after it, the defendants acquired the retained land they took with notice of the registered rights.
But, as Sir William very properly accepted, the registration of the rights does not establish that the rights are valid as against a successor in title. He did not dispute that a contractual or other right granted by the owner of land can as a general rule only be enforced against a successor in title if the right in question constitutes an interest of some kind in the land. But he submitted that the right
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conferred by para 11 was an interest in land as being either an estate contract, capable of registration as a Class C(iv) land charge, or an equitable easement, registrable as a Class D(iii) land charge (see the Land Charges Act 1972, s 2(4) and (5)). However, he also accepted that the provisions of the Land Registration Act 1925 and the Land Charges Act 1972 do not affect the question whether a particular right constituted an interest in land, which was to be determined independently. As Templeman LJ said in Pritchard v Briggs [1980] 1 All ER 294 at 329, [1980] Ch 338 at 418:
‘It does not seem to me that the property legislation of 1925 was intended to create or operated to create an equitable interest in land where none existed.’
Section 2(4) of the Land Charges Act 1972 defines an estate contract as—
‘a contract by an estate owner or by a person entitled at the date of the contract to have a legal estate conveyed to him to convey or create a legal estate, including a contract conferring either expressly or by statutory implication a valid option to purchase, a right of pre-emption or any other like right.’
In the present case, Sir William said, para 11 of the transfer was a contract by the Co-op to convey or create a legal estate, viz an easement, and alternatively it was an equitable easement.
The like submissions had been made to the judge at the trial, and in dismissing the plaintiff’s claim the judge reasoned as follows. (1) Paragraph 11 was not a contract but a term in a grant, and nothing further remained to be done when all the conditions of that paragraph were satisfied. (2) No interest in land was created because before there was a dominant tenement the servient tenement had been disposed of by the grantor.
It is sufficient for the resolution of this appeal to concentrate on the second reason of the judge, which in my judgment was plainly correct and is decisive of the whole case. In doing so I shall assume, without deciding, that para 11 created a contractual right capable of being an estate contract for an easement if it constituted or created an interest in land. Indeed Mr Lightman accepted that the grantee of a right to nominate a dominant tenement has an effective contractual right against the grantor, provided that it is exercised prior to any disposition of the servient tenement.
It is common ground that by para 11 there was no immediate grant of a legal or equitable easement on the execution of the transfer. It is of the essence of an easement that (1) there must be both a dominant and a servient tenement, (2) the easement must confer a benefit on the dominant tenement as such, (3) the dominant and servient tenements must not be both owned and occupied by the same person, and (4) the easement must be capable of forming the subject matter of a grant.
It is trite law that there can be no easement in gross (see Rangeley v Midland Rly Co (1868) LR 3 Ch App 306 at 310–311).
Sir William submitted that para 11 effectively gave the plaintiff an immediate option to create an easement or easements over the servient land. Like the judge I agree that the rights given can be likened to an option. Sir William pointed out that an option which is not exercisable until some future date, such as an option for a lessee to purchase the freehold on the expiry of the lease, nevertheless creates an immediate interest in the land. There is no dispute that an option for an easement does qualify as an interest in land (see Gas and Fuel Corp of Victoria v
Page 163 of [1993] 4 All ER 157
Barba [1976] VR 755). Nor is it disputed that there can be a valid grant of an estate contract for an easement on a future contingency and that such grant or contract may create an interest in land. Sir William described the requirements of sub-paras (b) and (c) of para 11 as merely conditions or contingencies for the plaintiff to satisfy and as such not preventing the creation of an interest in the servient land.
Sir William relied on Turley v Mackay [1943] 2 All ER 1, [1944] Ch 37. In that case the question was whether a contract between a principal and his agent whereby the principal was bound to create a legal estate in land in favour of such third person as the agent should direct was registrable as an estate contract. It was held by Uthwatt J that it was an estate contract. The application of the statutory provisions on the registration of estate contracts to the facts of that case was cogently criticised by Megarry J in Thomas v Rose [1968] 3 All ER 765 at 771, [1968] 1 WLR 1797 at 1806, but like Megarry J I see no reason to doubt that a contract to create a legal estate in favour of an unidentified person to be nominated by a contracting party is a valid estate contract. However it does not follow that a contract to create what is intended to be an easement is an estate contract when the dominant tenement has yet to be identified. In my judgment the lack of identification of the purchaser in a case like Turley v Mackay is not on all fours with the lack of identification of a dominant tenement, having regard to the essentials of an easement. In the former there was no uncertainty as to the interest contracted to be granted, but in the latter, without there being a dominant tenement an essential part of the interest to be granted was left uncertain.
None of the other authorities cited to us by Sir William seems to me to lend support to his submission that the absence of an identified dominant tenement was not fatal to his case both on estate contract and on equitable easement.
If one asks why the law should require that there should be a dominant tenement before there can be a grant, or a contract for the grant, of an easement sufficient to create an interest in land binding successors in title to the servient land, the answer would appear to lie in the policy against encumbering land with burdens of uncertain extent. As was said by Fox LJ in Ashburn Anstalt v Arnold [1988] 2 All ER 147 at 167, [1989] Ch 1 at 26: ‘In matters relating to the title to land, certainty is of prime importance.' A further related answer lies in the reluctance of the law to recognise new forms of burden on property conferring more than contractual rights. Thus in Ackroyd v Smith (1850) 10 CB 164 at 188, 138 ER 68 at 77–78 Cresswell J, giving the judgment of the judges of the Court of Common Pleas, after referring to the impossibility of a grant of a right of way in gross, said:
‘… nor can the owner of land render it subject to a new species of burthen, so as to bind it in the hands of an assignee. “Incidents of a novel kind cannot be devised, and attached to property, at the fancy or caprice of any owner:” per Lord Brougham, C., in Keppell v. Bailey ((1834) 2 My & K 517 at 535, [1824–34] All ER Rep 10 at 19).’
A right intended as an easement and attached to a servient tenement before the dominant tenement is identified would in my view be an incident of a novel kind.
Sir William submitted in the alternative that an interest in land arose on 18 December 1987 when the plaintiff contracted to buy the additional land which was capable of being benefited by the rights in the first schedule. He said that on that date it was in a position to call for the grant of rights for the benefit of that land simply by the service of a notice, and that it thereby became entitled by the exercise of a simple option to acquire rights for the benefit of an identifiable
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dominant tenement; hence it became entitled to an interest in the servient land at a time when the original grantor, the Co-op, remained the owner. He relied on certain views expressed in Pritchard v Briggs [1980] 1 All ER 294, [1980] Ch 338. In that case this court held that the grant of a right of pre-emption over land did not confer on the grantee a present or contingent interest in the land, but Templeman and Stephenson LJJ expressed the view that when the vendor chose to sell the land, that created an option and thus an equitable interest (see [1980] 1 All ER 294 at 328–329, 332, [1980] Ch 338 at 418, 423). In the same way, Sir William said, the right under para 11 became an enforceable option for an easement as soon as the plaintiff contracted to buy the additional land, even without giving notice. Templeman LJ further held that the protection by registration of the right of pre-emption became effective when the right of pre-emption became an option, and by analogy Sir William said that the protection by registration of the rights under para 11 became effective on the contract to purchase the additional land.
The decision in Pritchard v Briggs and those obiter views of Templeman and Stephenson LJJ have been criticised (see for example, Megarry and Wade The Law of Real Property (5th edn, 1984) pp 604–606). But Mr Lightman accepted that provided the grantor retained the servient tenement, an interest in land would have arisen on the timely service of a notice identifying the additional land as the dominant tenement. Let me assume, without deciding, that in accordance with those obiter views an interest in land can arise on the occurrence of an event after the grant of the relevant rights. Nevertheless I cannot accept Sir William’s submission. In my judgment a right of pre-emption is plainly distinguishable from the rights conferred by para 11. What causes the equitable interest to arise in the case of a right of pre-emption is the fulfilment of the condition specified. In the present case it was an express condition that not only should land capable of being benefited be acquired but also notice of it had to be given. Until the notice was given the dominant tenement was not identified.
On this issue therefore I would hold, in answer to question (a), that the grant of the right to nominate land as the dominant tenement did not create an interest in land which bound successors in title to the servient tenement, and, in answer to question (b), no interest in land binding successors in title to the servient tenement arose on the acquisition of the additional land by the plaintiff.
These conclusions are sufficient to dispose of this appeal, and it is unnecessary to express any views on the other issues raised. I would dismiss this appeal.
BELDAM LJ. I agree.
RALPH GIBSON LJ. I also agree.
Appeal dismissed.
Frances Rustin Barrister.
EE Caledonia Ltd v Orbit Valve Co Europe
[1993] 4 All ER 165
Categories: TORTS; Negligence, Statutory Duty: CONTRACT
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (COMMERCIAL COURT)
Lord(s): HOBHOUSE J
Hearing Date(s): 15, 16 FEBRUARY, 21, 26, 28 MAY 1993
Indemnity – Construction of indemnity clause – Indemnity against consequence of own negligence – Concurrent causes of accident – Accident caused by negligence and breach of statutory duty of party seeking indemnity – Absence of express words covering consequences of negligence of party seeking indemnity – Rules of construction where indemnity clause not including consequences of negligence of party seeking indemnity – Whether potential strict statutory liability entitling negligent party to indemnity.
The plaintiffs were the joint owners and operators of an oil drilling platform in the North Sea. They entered into a service contract with the defendants under which the defendants provided a service engineer, Q, to work on the platform. The contract contained an indemnity clause which provided that in respect of their respective employees ‘Each party shall indemnify … the other … from and against any claim, demand, cause of action, loss, expense or liability … arising by reason of [the] death of any employee … of the indemnifying party resulting from … performance of this [contract]’. While on the platform Q died in a fire which the plaintiffs admitted was caused by the negligence of their own employees. The plaintiffs also admitted that they were in breach of the health and safety regulations at the time. Q was off duty at the time and was not actually working. The plaintiffs settled a claim by Q’s estate by the payment of £642,627 and then claimed that sum from the defendants under the indemnity clause in the contract. The plaintiffs contended (i) that the clause should be construed to include the consequences of the negligence of the plaintiffs and their employees, and (ii) that the clause applied where the liability arose out of a breach of statutory duty concurrently with a cause of action in negligence and therefore applied because they could have been held liable, as the owners and operators of the platform, for breach of statutory duty resulting in Q’s death independently of any liability in negligence.
Held – The plaintiffs’ claim would be dismissed for the following reasons—
(1) The indemnity clause was to be construed according to established principles of construction including the principle that exemption and indemnity provisions were to be construed as applying to a party’s own negligence only if that intent was made clear in the contract and the parties to a contract were not to be taken to have agreed that a party would be relieved of the consequences of his own negligence without the use of clear words showing that that was the intention of the contract. The contract between the plaintiffs and defendants did not contain any express provision to cover the consequences of the negligence of the plaintiffs or their employees, and although the words used were wide enough potentially to cover a liability arising from negligence they were also capable of applying to a breach of a statutory duty which occurred without any negligence of the party liable or his own employees. Accordingly, applying the established principles of construction, the indemnity clause could not be construed as being wide enough to cover the consequences of the negligence of the plaintiffs and their employees (see p 173 c to g, p 177 b c and p
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178 e f h, post); dicta of Lord Morton in Canada Steamship Lines Ltd v R [1952] 1 All ER 305 at 310 and of Lord Keith in Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18 at 32–33 applied.
(2) Where there were concurrent causes of a particular event, each cause was a cause of the consequent event and, if the event would have occurred in the absence of a particular fault, that fault was not a cause of the event. Accordingly, since the concurrent effect of both the plaintiffs’ breaches of statutory duty and the negligence of their employees gave rise to the death of Q and without either of those causes the death would not have occurred, the plaintiffs were not liable in respect of the death of Q simply because of the breaches of statutory duty; they were instead liable because of the breaches of statutory duty and the negligence of their employees. In those circumstances, where the negligence of the plaintiffs’ employees was a, but not the only, cause of liability and where as a matter of construction the parties were not to be taken, in the absence of express words in the contract, to have intended an indemnity clause in the contract to cover the negligence of the party seeking the indemnity, the indemnity clause did not cover a loss or liability a cause of which had been the negligence of the plaintiffs (see p 176 h j, post); dictum of Lord Morton in Canada Steamship Lines Ltd v R [1952] 1 All ER 305 at 310 applied.
Per curiam. (1) Parties to commercial contracts must be taken to know the established principles of construction of contracts and to have drafted their contract taking them into account. When a particular result could have been easily obtained by an appropriate use of language but the parties instead only used general language, the result of the general principles of construction is that the parties will not be taken to have intended to include the consequences of a party’s negligence in an exemption clause (see p 173 j and p 177 b c, post).
(2) An exemption clause has to cover all the bases of liability if it is to protect the relevant defendant. In order to recover, it is enough for a plaintiff to show a basis for liability which was a cause of his loss; it does not advantage the defendant to show that there were other causes of the loss for which he was protected by an exemption clause. If an exemption clause only protects against the consequences of a breach of a strict statutory liability, it will not protect against a liability for negligence. Therefore if a particular loss has arisen as a result of the operation of concurrent causes, one being the breach of a strict statutory liability and another the negligence of a party’s employees, the clause will not provide any protection. It is sufficient for the party against whom the clause is being used to say that the negligence of the other party was a cause of the relevant loss. The same applies to a claim to an indemnity: where a cause of the relevant loss has been the negligence of the party seeking to rely upon the clause, the clause does not give a right to an indemnity (see p 178 c to e, post).
Notes
For construction against exclusion of liability for negligence, see 9 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 373, and for a case on the subject, see 8(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 283, 1888.
For the extent of liability under indemnity, see 20 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 313, and for cases on the subject, see 26 Digest (Reissue) 301–305, 2262–2276.
Cases referred to in judgment
Airline Engineering Ltd v Intercon Cattle Meat Ltd [1983] CA Transcript 18.
Alderslade v Hendon Laundry Ltd [1945] 1 All ER 244, [1945] KB 189, CA.
Page 167 of [1993] 4 All ER 165
Canada Steamship Lines Ltd v R [1952] 1 All ER 305, [1952] AC 192, PC.
Hollier v Rambler Motors (AMC) Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 399, [1972] 2 QB 71, [1972] 2 WLR 401, CA.
Lamport & Holt Lines Ltd v Coubro & Scrutton (M & I) Ltd, The Raphael [1982] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 42, CA.
Nelson v Atlantic Power and Gas Ltd (22 October 1992, unreported), Ct of Sess.
North of Scotland Hydro-Electric Board v D & R Taylor 1956 SC 1, Ct of Sess.
Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18, [1978] 1 WLR 165, HL.
Travers v Cooper [1915] 1 KB 73.
Walters v Whessoe Ltd and Shell Refining Co Ltd (1960) [1968] 2 All ER 816n, 6 BLR 30, CA.
Action
By writ dated 12 May 1992 the plaintiffs, EE Caledonia Ltd, formerly known as Occidental Petroleum (Caledonia) Ltd, claimed against the defendants, Orbit Valve Co Europe, an indemnity in the sum of £642,627·68 under a contract entered into between the plaintiffs and the defendants on 7 June 1988 whereby the defendants agreed to supply a service engineer to overhaul valves supplied by the defendants and installed in the gas condensation module on the Piper Alpha oil drilling platform operated by the plaintiffs. By their points of claim the plaintiffs claimed that the engineer, Terence Stephen Quinn, had been killed in a series of explosions and a fire on the platform, that the plaintiffs had settled a claim by Mr Quinn’s dependants by payment of of £642,627·68 and that the defendants were liable to indemnify the plaintiffs for that amount under an indemnity clause in the contract made between the parties. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Richard Aikens QC and Andrew Popplewell (instructed by Ince & Co) for the plaintiffs.
Bernard Eder QC (instructed by Elborne Mitchell) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
28 May 1993. The following judgment was delivered.
HOBHOUSE J. On the evening of 6 July 1988 there was a disastrous fire on the Piper Alpha platform in the North Sea. Of the 226 persons on the platform at the time, 165 lost their lives. One of those who lost his life was a service engineer, Mr Terence Quinn, employed by the defendants. He was on the platform pursuant to a contract contained in or evidenced by a written Service Order No 13823 dated 7 June 1988 whereby the defendants agreed to supply a service engineer to overhaul certain valves in the gas condensation module on the Piper Alpha platform. The other party to the contract was the plaintiffs, EE Caledonia Ltd, formerly Occidental Petroleum (Caledonia) Ltd, who were at all material times one of the joint owners of the platform; they were the operators and occupiers of the platform and the ‘offshore installation manager’ was their servant. It was contemplated by the parties that the services specified in the contract would be performed over a period of approximately ten days commencing 1 July 1988 during which time Mr Quinn would be accommodated on the platform. Mr Quinn had worked during the day of 6 July and had gone off duty at about 1800 hrs. He went to the accommodation module, which was
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where he was when the fire started. Mr Quinn was in no way responsible for the fire or in breach of any statutory or common law duty.
As a result of the death of Mr Quinn, claims were made upon the plaintiffs by his estate and his dependants. These claims were settled by the plaintiffs in the sum of £642,627·68. The plaintiffs claim that sum from the defendants under the indemnity clause in the contract between them. This has given rise to a dispute as to the correct construction of the contract and an issue of law between the parties. This issue has been tried on agreed facts.
In the contract the plaintiffs are referred to as ‘the company’ and the defendants as ‘the contractor’. The contract is on the printed form of the plaintiffs. It provides:
‘DESCRIPTION OF WORK
Subject to the terms herein contained, including the additional terms and conditions on the reverse side hereof, the company hereby orders, and the contractor shall perform, all the work (hereinafter called the “work”) required for the execution and completion of the following, at a price or at rates shown herein. Unless otherwise specified in this Order, the contractor shall furnish at its cost and expense all labour, supervision, materials, utilities, consumables, tools, construction equipment and all other necessary facilities including but not limited to permits, licences, deposits, bonds and notices required by law for the performance of or in connection with the work …’
Then follow eight typewritten clauses. These in turn identify the valves to be overhauled, cover the making of a report of the condition of the valves, the period during which the work is to be done, the provision of clothing and hand-tools etc; typed cl 5 requires the service engineer when arriving on board to submit a copy of the contractor’s certificate of public and employers’ liability insurance to the offshore installation manager; other clauses deal with rates, travel costs etc and the provision of time-sheets for all the hours worked.
The order is signed on behalf of the company and countersigned on behalf of the contractor (in this case, it seems, by Mr Quinn himself). The terms and conditions referred to are contained in 17 printed articles. The parties have proceeded on the basis (probably correct) that the contract is governed by English law; neither party has pleaded any reliance on the law of Scotland but, in the course of argument, I have been referred to a number of Scottish decisions as persuasive authority. Under art 4 the contractor is to be an independent contractor and neither the contractor nor any of his employees, agents or servants are to be the employees, agents or servants of the company. Article 6 provides that the company, other contractors and sub-contractors may be working at the work-site during the performance of the order and reserves the right of the company to direct the contractor to schedule the performance of its work in such a manner as not unreasonably to interfere with the performance of other work by such persons.
The indemnity clause is art 10, which must be set out in full:
‘INDEMNITIES
(a) Non-compliance with laws. The contractor shall comply, and cause its employees to comply with all laws, ordinances, rules, regulations and orders directly or indirectly applicable to the work, including but not limited to the labour employed on the work, the safety and security of the work, and the preservation of public health and safety. The contractor shall
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indemnify and hold harmless the company and its affiliates against all liability arising from non-compliance with any such provisions.
(b) Company’s and contractor’s employees and property Each party hereto shall indemnify, defend and hold harmless the other, provided that the other party has acted in good faith, from and against any claim, demand, cause of action, loss, expense or liability (including cost of litigation) arising by reason of any injury to or death of any employee, or damage, loss or destruction of any property, of the indemnifying party, resulting from or in any way connected with the performance of this Order.
(c) Third party employees and property The contractor shall indemnify, defend and hold harmless the company, provided that the company acted in good faith, from and against any claim, demand, cause of action, loss, expense or liability (including the cost of litigation) arising by reason of any injury, death, property damage, loss or destruction (other than such as is the subject of a company indemnity to contractor under article 10(b) above) resulting from or in any way connected with the performance of this Order, except that the contractor’s indemnity pursuant to this article 10(c) shall apply only up to an amount of £500,000 per occurrence.’
In art 11, headed ‘Insurance’, the contractor undertakes to procure and maintain at its own expense ‘in respect of the work’ employer’s liability and worker’s compensation insurance to comply with the statutory requirements and general public liability insurance ‘in respect of the persons and property of third parties with cover in an amount of not less than £500,000 for each incident arising out of the performance of the work’. Article 12 provides that, notwithstanding any other provision of the order, ‘in no event shall either the contractor or the company be liable to the other for any indirect or consequential losses suffered, including but not limited to, loss of use, loss of profits, loss of production or business interruption’.
The plaintiffs’ claim for an indemnity from the defendants is made under art 10(b). This has given rise to three questions of construction of the clause and the contract. The first is whether the plaintiffs’ right to an indemnity should be construed as extending to include the consequences of the negligence of the plaintiffs and their servants. The second is closely related to the first and is whether the plaintiffs have a right to an indemnity where the liability to another for which they are seeking the indemnity arises concurrently both in negligence and for the breach of a strict statutory duty. The third is whether the liability of the plaintiffs in respect of the death of Mr Quinn resulted from or was in any way connected with the performance of the order. The plaintiffs must succeed on one of the first two questions and upon the third if they are to obtain the indemnity which they seek from the defendants.
The plaintiffs admit that a cause of the fire was the negligence of their own servants. A negligent error was made which permitted condensate to escape and ignite. Proper ‘permit to work’ procedures were not followed. It is the plaintiffs’ case that they were also in breach of the Offshore Installations (Operational Safety, Health and Welfare) Regulations 1976, SI 1976/1019. Regulation 32 imposes a duty upon the installation manager and the owners of an installation to ensure that the provisions of the regulations are complied with. Therefore if there is a breach of the regulations, there is a breach of the statutory duty of the manager and the owners of the installation, that is to say in the present case, the plaintiffs and their servant. Regulation 32 also imposes a duty on any employer to ensure that his employee complies with the
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provisions of the regulations applicable to him and there is a general statutory duty imposed on every person while on or near an offshore installation not to do anything likely to endanger the safety or health of himself or other persons on or near the installation. Regulation 3 requires working practices to be followed which will control hazardous work on the installation and reg 14 requires that at all times all reasonably practical steps shall be taken to ensure the safety of persons everywhere on the installation.
There are therefore what are essentially a series of strict statutory obligations that are imposed on persons owning or operating installations; there are also more restricted obligations imposed upon those employing persons working on installations. Section 11(2) of the Mineral Workings (Offshore Installations) Act 1971 makes the breach of any such statutory duty actionable in so far as it causes personal injury or death.
The potential was that the plaintiffs might come under a strict liability to someone working on the platform, or his dependants or estate, without any actual negligence of the plaintiffs or their own servants. In the present case there was negligence of the plaintiffs’ own servants so that they would in any event have been liable at common law but their case is that, even without that negligence, they would have been under a statutory liability owing to the breaches of others on the platform of certain of the regulations.
The indemnity clause, art 10, consists of the three parts, (a), (b) and (c). They would appear to form part of a single scheme and prima facie should be construed having regard to that scheme. However it is difficult to identify the scheme; potential conflicts or inconsistencies exist between the provisions of each part. On any view the scheme is not clear. I have not therefore felt able to derive assistance from an approach of construing each part in relation to the others.
The first part, (a), expressly deals with failures of the contractor or his servants to comply with the statutory requirements applicable to the work. This part of the article applies only to the contractor. It imposes upon him the contractual obligation to comply with all laws, regulations etc applicable to the work and requires him to indemnify and hold harmless the company against all liability which may arise from any non-compliance with those requirements on the part of himself or his servants. This part of the article creates a potential liability of the contractor to the company in damages for breach of contract (including, it would seem, damages for causing the loss of or damage to the company’s property); it also creates a liability to indemnify the company against any liability arising from any non-compliance on the part of the contractor or his employees with the law, regulations etc, whether or not there was any negligence on the part of the contractor or his servants. The indemnity applies to claims made against the company, whether made by the contractor or his servants or someone else (apparently including an employee of the company); in view of the strict statutory scheme, the relevant liability of the company to another could arise without any actual fault of the company or its own servants.
The second part of the article, (b), is mutual in that it imposes indemnity obligations, expressed in the same terms, on each of the two parties in relation to the other. It does not refer expressly to any question of fault. The only words of causation are the concluding words ‘resulting from or in any way connected with the performance of this Order’. Its subject matter is any loss of or damage to the property of the parties and any death of or injury to their employees. Its effect is that, in each case, the liability shall be borne by the owner of the
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property or the employer of the person killed or injured. In relation to property, it has the effect of providing a defence to a claim by the other party. In relation to death or personal injury, it gives a cause of action against the other party, the employer, to recover from him any damages which the first has become liable to pay in respect of the death or injury of the other’s employee and would give a defence to contribution proceedings brought by the employer. The employer could have become liable to his own servant because of some breach of the statutory duties of an employer towards his employees, or the breach of some other statutory duty (strict or not strict), or some breach of contract, or because of negligence; the employee’s injury could also have been caused by the breach of statutory duty or negligence of the other party. One party could become liable to the employee of the other because of the breach of some statutory duty (strict or not strict), or because of negligence, whether or not the employer had also been in breach or negligent.
The third part of the article, (c), is, like part (a), unilateral. It imposes an obligation upon the contractor alone, subject to the limit of £500,000 per occurrence, to indemnify the company. Like part (b), it makes no reference to causation except for again using the phrase ‘resulting from or in any way connected with the performance of this Order’. This part is headed ‘Third party employees and property’. This is clearly the intended subject matter of this part although it could be questioned whether the drafting gives full effect to this intention. The provision applies to any liability arising by reason of death or injury or the loss of or damage to property ‘other than is the subject of a company indemnity to contractor under article 10(b) above’. Under part (b), the company is only liable to indemnify the contractor in relation to the death of or injury to the company’s employees or the loss of or damage to the company’s property. A claim such as that made by the dependants of Mr Quinn could therefore come within both part (b) and part (c). However the drafting of parts (b) and (c) is the same and therefore the effect of each should be the same, apart from the £500,000 limit under part (c). Each gives rise to similar questions of construction. The plaintiffs’ claim has only been made under part (b).
The company could come under a liability to a third party or his employees by reason of the breach of some statutory duty, either strict, as under the Offshore Installations (Operational Safety, Health and Welfare) Regulations 1976, or not strict, as under such statutes as the Occupiers’ Liability (Scotland) Act 1960; or the liability could arise from the negligence of the company or its own servants. The same breadth of possibilities applies as to the potential for liability of the company to an employee of the contractor—or, indeed, to one of its own employees. As regards liability for the loss of or damage to the property of the contractor or a third party, apart from contract, this could only arise from some negligence of the company or those for whom it was responsible.
The contractor could come under a liability to the company under (a) for breach of his contractual obligation to ensure that the regulations were complied with or because he was in breach of some other express or implied provision of the contract or because of the negligence of his servants. The contractor could come under a liability for the death of or injury to one of the company’s employees either as the result of the breach of some strict statutory duty or because of some negligence of his servants.
The liabilities that are the subject matter of the three parts of art 10 include liabilities which could arise with or without any negligence on the part of the relevant party or its servants.
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The first question
The arguments upon the construction of art 10(b) start with the citation of the well-known opinion of the Judicial Committee delivered by Lord Morton of Henryton in Canada Steamship Lines Ltd v R [1952] 1 All ER 305, [1952] AC 192, recognised as being applicable in the law of Scotland by North of Scotland Hydro-Electric Board v D & R Taylor 1956 SC 1 and Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18, [1978] 1 WLR 165. Lord Morton laid down rules to guide the decision of a court upon the question whether a particular indemnity or exemption clause should be construed as covering the consequences of the negligence of the party seeking the indemnity or the exemption (see [1952] 1 All ER 305 at 310, [1952] AC 192 at 208). As has been said on a number of occasions (see Salmon LJ in Hollier v Rambler Motors (AMC) Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 399 at 406, [1972] 2 QB 71 at 80, May LJ in Lamport & Holt Lines Ltd v Coubro & Scrutton (M & I) Ltd, The Raphael [1982] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 42 at 49–50 and Viscount Dilhorne in Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18 at 21, [1978] 1 WLR 165 at 168), what Lord Morton said was no more than guidance and every contract has to be construed having regard to its own terms and the context and circumstances in which it was made. The question remains one of the construction of the contract applying the established principles of construction. These include the principle that the parties to a contract are not to be taken to have agreed that a party shall be relieved of the consequences of its negligence without the use of clear words showing that that was the intention of the contract. In Walters v Whessoe Ltd and Shell Refining Co Ltd (1960) 6 BLR 30 at 35 Devlin LJ said:
‘The law therefore presumes that a man will not readily be granted an indemnity against a loss caused by his own negligence.’
And in Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18 at 22, [1978] 1 WLR 165 at 168 Viscount Dilhorne said:
‘While an indemnity clause may be regarded as the obverse of an exempting clause, when considering the meaning of such a clause one must, I think, regard it as even more inherently improbable that one party should agree to discharge the liability of the other for acts for which he is responsible.’
This principle overlaps with but is not the same as the rule (the ‘contra proferentem’ rule) that contractual provisions should prima facie be construed against the party who was responsible for the preparation of the contract and/or who is to benefit from the provision. In the present case the contract form was the plaintiffs’ form to which the defendants were asked to adhere but the relevant provision, art 10(b), is a mutual provision which as a matter of construction is equally capable of benefiting either party and therefore does not call for an interpretation which is weighted in favour of or against either of the parties. The relevant principle is simply one which involves construing exemption and indemnity provisions as applying to a party’s own negligence only if that intent is made clear in the contract; this principle is equally capable of application whether the clause is mutual or unilateral. Lord Keith in Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18 at 32–33, [1978] 1 WLR 165 at 180 adopted two sentences from the judgments of the Court of Appeal in Walters v Whessoe Ltd and Shell Refining Co Ltd (1960) 6 BLR 30 at 33–34 per Sellers and Devlin LJJ respectively):
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‘It is well established that indemnity will not lie in respect of loss due to a person’s own negligence or that of his servants unless adequate and clear words are used or unless the indemnity could have no reasonable meaning or application unless so applied … It is now well established that if a person obtains an indemnity against the consequences of certain acts, the indemnity is not to be construed so as to include the consequences of his own negligence unless those consequences are covered expressly or by necessary implication.’
In art 10(b) there is no express reference to negligence; therefore there is no express provision that the right to an indemnity should cover a liability arising out of negligence of the party seeking the indemnity. However the words used are wide enough potentially to cover a liability arising from negligence. The words are ‘any claim … or liability’. Clearly such liability could, and will often be, a liability which has arisen from the negligence of the party liable or of those for whom he is responsible. But the liability need not arise from such negligence. It could arise as a result of a breach of a statutory duty which has occurred without any negligence of the party liable or his servants. This could be the situation with regard to both the company and the contractor; both are subject to statutory duties which could give rise to civil liabilities for death or personal injury. The examples are not fanciful; in an environment such as an offshore platform in an oilfield where a strict statutory regime operates, the possibility of a strict liability arising is a real one and is directly within the contemplation of this contract.
Accordingly it is clear that art 10(b), like (a) and (c), is capable of applying to situations where there has been no actual negligence of the relevant party or his own servants. This could have been the situation in the present case. The breaches of the regulations could in fact have been solely those of the employees of independent contractors working on the platform. In fact the disaster was also a result of the actual negligence of one of the plaintiffs’ own servants.
Therefore, applying the established principles recognised in the authorities and the third of Lord Morton’s ‘rules’, art 10(b) should not be construed as being wide enough to cover the consequences of the negligence of the plaintiffs and their servants. The first question must be decided in favour of the defendants.
There are a number of further arguments to which I should refer in connection with the first question. It is always relevant to have in mind when construing a contract between commercial parties that the primary purpose of the relevant provision may simply be one of the division of risk, often insurable risk. Thus, from a commercial point of view, it is perfectly sensible to construe art 10(b) as a provision for the division of risk on a broadly ‘knock for knock’ basis. Both (b) and (c) have an obvious interrelationship with art 11. There is no objection in principle to such provisions and the court, particularly a court accustomed to dealing with commercial contracts, should show no reluctance to give full effect to such a provision. This is an important and forceful argument. But it also has to be borne in mind that commercial contracts are drafted by parties with access to legal advice and in the context of established legal principles as reflected in the decisions of the courts. Principles of certainty, and indeed justice, require that contracts be construed in accordance with the established principles. The parties are always able by the choice of appropriate language to draft their contract so as to produce a different legal effect. The choice is theirs. In the present case there would have been no problem in drafting the contract so as to produce the result for which the plaintiffs have
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contended; however the contract was not so drafted and contains only general wording and is seriously lacking in clarity.
The defendants, supported by an observation of Slade J in Walters v Whessoe Ltd and Shell Refining Co Ltd (1960) 6 BLR 30 at 37, submitted that the reference in art 10(b) to claims losses and expense ‘including the cost of litigation’ was sufficient in itself to indicate that the clause might be contemplating indemnities in respect of the cost of defending litigation or resisting claims where negligence was alleged but none had in fact occurred. I do not accept this submission. The reference to the cost of litigation is subsidiary to the main purpose of the clause and should not dictate its construction. The main purpose of the clause is undoubtedly to deal with liabilities in damages or losses of property. The relevant question is whether such liabilities and/or losses could reasonably be contemplated as realistically liable to arise from situations where the relevant party had not itself been negligent. The answer to that question is that they could so arise and such a situation was or could have been within the contemplation of the parties to the contract at the time they made it.
No point was argued upon the basis of drawing a distinction between actual fault of a corporate entity and a liability which arises from the fault of its servants. This was clearly correct in the present context (cf Devlin LJ in Walters v Whessoe Ltd) and reflects the standard approach to the construction of exemption or exclusion clauses. In the present case the submission of the plaintiffs is that they were entitled to an indemnity from the defendants in respect of their liability to the estate and dependants of Mr Quinn even though a cause of that liability was the actual negligence of one of their own servants. This is exactly the type of situation which gives rise to the application of the relevant principles.
The plaintiffs argued that the inclusion of the words ‘provided that the other party has acted in good faith’ in art 10(b) shows that the parties were giving their mind to what types of conduct might give rise to a liability and intending to cover the consequences of a party’s negligence. I was referred to the decision of the Court of Appeal in Airline Engineering Ltd v Intercon Cattle Meat Ltd [1983] CA Transcript 18, where the wording of the relevant indemnity clause included the phrase ‘unless such claims result from the wilful misconduct’ of the relevant party. The Court of Appeal rejected the submission that the inclusion of these words showed that the parties were expressly contracting by reference to a situation which included the negligence of that party. In the context of the present clause, the reference to a party acting in good faith refers, in my judgment, not to the origin of the liability but to the handling of any claim, the incurring of expense and the acceptance of liability. It therefore does not assist the plaintiffs’ argument.
The second question
The plaintiffs’ submission on the second question is that on any view the indemnity given by art 10(b) covers a liability arising from the breach of a strict statutory duty. The plaintiffs were civilly liable in respect of the death of Mr Quinn as a result of the breaches of statutory duty which they say occurred. Accordingly they submit that they are entitled to an indemnity from the defendants and the fact that the clause does not cover the consequences of negligence is irrelevant as is the fact that they could have been held liable for the death of Mr Quinn in negligence independently of any breach of a strict
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statutory duty; it suffices for their purposes that they can show a civil liability for the breach of a strict statutory duty.
I have specifically heard further argument on this point as it is an important part of the plaintiffs’ case before me. I am grateful to counsel for their assistance. There is support for the plaintiffs’ construction of the clause. The Inner House of the Court of Session considered the point in Nelson v Atlantic Power and Gas Ltd (22 October 1992, unreported). I have been provided with a copy of the opinion of the court delivered by Lord Murray. The pursuer, Mr Nelson, had sustained an accident on an oil rig in the Hutton field. The accident occurred when he was working in the course of his employment by the first defenders, Atlantic; the second defenders, Amoco, were the owners and operators of the oil rig. He alleged that both had been negligent and that Amoco had also been in breach of their statutory duties under the Offshore Installations (Operational Safety, Health and Welfare) Regulations 1976. Amoco chose to admit liability and settle with Mr Nelson. The admission did not specify the basis of the liability and therefore it was open to Amoco to say that they had admitted liability for the breaches of statutory duty. Amoco claimed an indemnity from Atlantic under the contract between them pursuant to which Mr Nelson had been working on the rig. The terms of the relevant clauses were widely drawn and included the phrase ‘however caused’ but apparently the use of that phrase was not considered sufficient under the law of Scotland to cover the consequences of negligence (cf Travers v Cooper [1915] 1 KB 73). In the Court of Session, Atlantic conceded that there had been a breach of statutory duty by Amoco and accepted that the indemnity applied to such a breach. Amoco argued that it followed that the indemnity took effect and could not be defeated on the ground that there was another concurrent ground of liability which might not be covered by the indemnity. Lord Murray continued:
‘Starting with the construction of the clause itself, counsel for Amoco presented a short, incisive argument, not focused before the Lord Ordinary, based upon Atlantic’s concessions in this case that the indemnity in cl 2.3 did apply to breach of statutory duty by Amoco and that their breach of statutory duty was a ground on which the pursuer’s action had been settled. On a proper construction of the wording of the clause, it was said all that was required to bring the indemnity into play was loss, injury and damage caused to some extent by Amoco’s breach of statutory duty. It was conceded that this had occurred, so the indemnity must apply. That there might be a concurrent ground of liability, namely, negligence at common law, was strictly irrelevant. It seemed to us that counsel for Atlantic had no very clear answer to this line of attack except that, for this consequence to follow, any breach of statutory duty had to be negligence-free, which was said to be excluded by the unqualified admission of liability of Amoco in the joint minute. We have difficulty in discerning an intelligible basis for importing this restriction when Atlantic accept that, if the admission by Amoco had been that they admitted their breach of statutory duty, the indemnity would have applied. In that eventuality negligence would appear to have no relevance one way or the other. We conclude that Amoco’s short argument is sound and that effect should be given to it. If so, the reclaiming motion fails at that first hurdle and there is strictly no need to pursue the contentions further.’
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It is clear that the Court of Session construed the clauses with which it was concerned as giving a right of indemnity in respect of any liability which could be a liability for the breach of a statutory duty even though there would also have been a liability in negligence: once a liability for the breach of a statutory duty had been shown, ‘negligence would appear to have no relevance one way or the other’.
In Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18 at 27–28, [1978] 1 WLR 165 at 175 Lord Fraser made an observation (obiter) which the plaintiffs submit supports the same conclusion:
‘… there is a short passage in the opinion of Devlin LJ [in Walters v Whessoe Ltd], which might be read as meaning that an indemnity against a breach of statutory duty by the proferens would in the absence of express provision apply only if it occurred “without negligence on his part”. It is followed by this sentence: “In none of these cases is there any negligence on his part and there is therefore no reason to presume an intention to exclude them from the indemnity.” I do not think that that can have been intended to mean that if the liability of the proferens is founded on breach of statutory duty without any finding of negligence at common law against him he will lose his indemnity if the breach of statutory duty can be regarded as negligent. If it is intended to mean that, I would respectfully disagree. I do not consider that it can be relevant for the purpose of ascertaining whether an indemnity applies or not, to enquire whether the breach of statutory duty involves negligence.’
This statement could be saying the same as was later to be said by the Court of Session in Nelson v Atlantic Power and Gas Ltd, or it could simply be saying that it is immaterial that the breach of statutory duty may have involved the negligence of someone for whom the person claiming the indemnity was not liable at common law. The latter interpretation is more consistent with the general tenor of the speech of Lord Fraser and with the speech of Lord Keith which lends no support to the plaintiffs’ argument; the other members of the House do not seem to have detected any material difference of opinion between Lord Fraser and Lord Keith. Lord Keith appeared to approve the judgments of Sellers and Devlin LJJ in Walters v Whessoe Ltd. The defendants submit that I should not follow Nelson v Atlantic Power and Gas Ltd, nor the dictum of Lord Fraser if he was saying what the plaintiffs suggest.
The question is one of construction but is not one which derives much assistance from a detailed analysis of the language of art 10(b). That clause makes no reference to statutory duties or to negligence. The question which I have to consider arises from the rules of construction which I have to apply to that clause and the principles upon which those rules of construction are based.
I consider that the plaintiffs’ arguments cannot be accepted. Where there are concurrent causes, each cause is a cause of the consequent event. If the event would have occurred in the absence of a particular fault, that fault is not a cause of the event. Accordingly, it is not correct to say in the present case that the plaintiffs were liable in respect of the death of Mr Quinn because of the breaches of statutory duty; they were liable because of the breaches of statutory duty and the negligence of their servant. It was the concurrent effect of both those causes that gave rise to the death of Mr Quinn and without either of those causes the death would not have occurred and the plaintiffs would not have been liable. Therefore the correct question remains whether the plaintiffs have a right to an
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indemnity from the defendants in respect of a liability of which a cause was the negligence of one of their servants. It is still necessary to ask whether, as a matter of the construction of the clause, it does cover such a liability.
For the purposes of considering the first question I have already quoted from judgments which state the principle to be applied. The principle is that in the absence of clear words the parties to a contract are not to be taken to have intended that an exemption or indemnity clause should apply to the consequences of a party’s negligence. Applying that principle and adopting a correct understanding of causation, the parties to a contract such as that with which I am concerned should not be taken to have intended that a party whose servant has been negligent should be entitled to an exemption or an indemnity although there has also been, as a concurrent cause of the relevant loss, a breach of a strict statutory duty. The principle still applies.
It may be that in a context where the parties must have directly contemplated strict statutory liabilities, as in the present case, there will be an argument in favour of construing the words of the relevant contract as providing for a division of the risk for the consequences of the breach of statutory duties regardless of whether or not there has been any concurrent negligence. There may be sound commercial reasons for parties to make such a contract. One of these is the avoidance of any need to investigate any question of negligence; another is the availability of insurance. It may have been those types of consideration which influenced the Court of Session. However the answer remains the same as that which I gave in relation to the first question. There are established principles for the construction of contracts: the parties to commercial contracts must be taken to know what those principles are and to have drafted their contract taking them into account; when the suggested result could have been easily obtained by an appropriate use of language but the parties instead only used general language, the result of the general principles is that the parties will not be taken to have intended to include the consequences of a party’s negligence. In the Nelson v Atlantic Power and Gas Ltd case the decision of the Court of Session may also have been contributed to by the express references to causation in the relevant clauses and the way in which the matter came before them procedurally.
There is a further difficulty about accepting the plaintiffs’ arguments on the second question. Their arguments do not pay sufficient regard to the fact that the principle is one which applies to both indemnity and exemption clauses. The case which the Judicial Committee followed and applied in Canada Steamship Lines Ltd v R [1952] 1 All ER 305, [1952] AC 192 was Alderslade v Hendon Laundry Ltd [1945] 1 All ER 244, [1945] KB 189; that was a case of an exemption clause. The Canada Steamship case itself concerned both an exemption and an indemnity. A fire had been caused by the negligence of the servants of the Crown. The steamship company was the lessee of the relevant building from the Crown. The fire destroyed the goods stored in the building. Some of these goods belonged to the steamship company and some to others. The Crown had been sued both by the steamship company and by the other goods owners. The Crown sought to rely upon the provisions of the lease as protecting them from liability to the steamship company for the loss of the steamship company’s goods and as giving them a right of indemnity from the steamship company in respect of the Crown’s liability for the loss of the goods of others. The same principles applied to the construction of the relevant clauses whether the relevance was exemption or indemnity. The leading cases on this topic have
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been concerned, without making any distinction, with indemnity clauses and with exemption clauses. Walters v Whessoe Ltd was an indemnity clause case; Lamport & Holt Lines Ltd v Coubro & Scrutton (M & I) Ltd, The Raphael was an exemption clause case. (See also per Viscount Dilhorne in Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18 at 22, [1978] 1 WLR 165 at 168.)
I have already pointed out that art 10(b) in the present contract has a dual function. It provides for exemptions from liability as well as giving rights of indemnity. There is no reason for giving it a different effect in these two applications. Where one is concerned with an exemption clause, the clause has to cover all the bases of liability if it is to protect the relevant defendant. In order to recover, it is enough for a plaintiff to show a basis for liability which was a cause of his loss; it does not advantage the defendant to show that there were other causes of the loss for which he was protected by an exemption clause. If an exemption clause only protects against the consequences of a breach of a strict statutory liability, it will not protect against a liability for negligence. Therefore if a particular loss has arisen as a result of the operation of concurrent causes, one being the breach of a strict statutory liability and another the negligence of a party’s servants, the clause would not provide any protection. It is sufficient for the party against whom the clause is being used to say that the negligence of the other party was a cause of the relevant loss. The same applies to a claim to an indemnity: where a cause of the relevant loss has been the negligence of the party seeking to rely upon the clause, the clause does not give a right to an indemnity.
As a matter of the construction of art 10(b), applying the relevant principles, the right to an exemption or indemnity does not cover a loss or liability of which a cause has been the negligence of the plaintiffs. The burden of proving negligence lies upon the party that alleges that there has been negligence and he must also prove that it was a cause of the relevant loss or liability. Therefore all that a party in the position of the present plaintiffs need prove in order to establish a prima facie right to an indemnity is that he was under a liability to the relevant third party. In Nelson v Atlantic Power and Gas Ltd such a liability was conceded and there was no more than an allegation of negligence. In the present case the plaintiffs have expressly pleaded that their servant ‘acted negligently in the course of his employment and thereby caused or contributed to the said accident’.
It follows that on the plaintiffs’ own case the defendants are entitled to say that upon its true construction art 10(b) does not provide the plaintiffs with an indemnity in respect of the plaintiffs’ liability for the accident. Accordingly the second question, like the first, must be answered in favour of the defendants. Under these circumstances the plaintiffs’ claim in this action must fail since they needed to succeed on at least one of the first two questions in order to succeed. I will now more shortly turn to the third question.
The third question
The plaintiffs argue that the words ‘resulting from or in any way connected with the performance of this Order’ are sufficiently wide to cover a liability which has arisen because Mr Quinn, the person who was performing the order, was on the platform at the time he met his death solely because of the need to perform the order; he was on the platform pursuant to the obligation to perform the order which necessitated his spending some ten days on the platform. On
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the ordinary use of language, it would be said that the fact that he met his death was ‘connected with the performance of the Order’.
The contrary argument is that the word ‘performance’ must be treated as relevant to the doing of the actual ‘work’ itself so that, in the present case, it would only be if his death had arisen in some way in connection with the actual work that the incident would have come within the terms of art 10(b). The defendants referred me to several cases where contracts have been construed so as to have that effect, for example, Smith v South Wales Switchgear Ltd [1978] 1 All ER 18 at 31, [1978] 1 WLR 165 at 178 per Lord Keith: ‘In my opinion the words “execution of this order” mean “the doing by the suppliers of the contractual work”.' Each contract depends upon its own wording and context. The defendants’ argument is in my judgment unnecessarily restrictive in the context of the present contract and fails to give effect to the choice of the word ‘order’ by the parties and the full breadth of the phrase ‘in any way connected with’. In part (a) there are references to ‘the work’; in parts (b) and (c) a different phrase has been used, ‘the performance of the Order’, which has a wider ambit. Nor is any restrictive interpretation required by the fact that the same phrase is used in part (c). (But note that art 11(b) reverts to the use of the word ‘work’.) Giving the phrase which the parties have used in art 10(b) its natural meaning does not give rise to any absurdity or expose the contractor (or the company) to an unreasonable liability.
Accordingly on the third question I accept the submissions of the plaintiffs but in view of my earlier decision on the first and second questions that does not suffice to enable them to succeed in this action.
In view of my decision upon the question of liability I will not enter upon any question of the quantum of the plaintiffs’ claim.
Judgment for defendants.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
Hunt v Severs
[1993] 4 All ER 180
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: QUANTUM
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, STAUGHTON AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 21, 22, 26 APRIL, 12 MAY 1993
Damages – Personal injury – Services rendered to plaintiff – Services rendered and to be rendered by defendant tortfeasor in caring for plaintiff – Defendant husband of plaintiff – Defendant rendering services to plaintiff voluntarily – Whether plaintiff entitled to recover cost of services voluntarily rendered by defendant.
Damages – Personal injury – Cost of future care – Multiplier – Basis for choosing multiplier when amount and timing of future payments is known or assumed to be known.
Court of Appeal – Evidence – Further evidence – Damages for personal injuries – Evidence to show that plaintiff had not made progress expected following trial – No assumption in evidence at trial or in judge’s reasoning that plaintiff would improve after a year – Fresh evidence falling within field or area of uncertainty for which judge had made allowance in award – Whether application to adduce fresh evidence should be granted – RSC Ord 59, r 10(2).
The plaintiff, who was nearly 29 years of age at the time of the trial, suffered severe injuries in 1985 in an accident when she was a pillion passenger on a motor cycle driven by the defendant. She was discharged from hospital in 1987 and thereafter lived with the defendant. They married in November 1990. The plaintiff’s injuries were such that she had lost any chance of remunerative employment and her post-injury complications were such that she was at risk of developing complications in the future. She brought an action for damages against the defendant. At the trial liability was admitted and it was agreed that the plaintiff had a life expectancy of 25 years. The plaintiff was awarded a total of £617,004 damages, which included awards of £17,000 for services rendered and £60,000 for services to be rendered in the future by the defendant in caring for the plaintiff. In arriving at the award the judge adopted a multiplier for future care of 14, which he split into three parts, a multiplier of 1 applying to the first year after trial, a multiplier of 9 applying to a lower level of care and a multiplier of 4 applying to the cost of residential care, which, having regard to the uncertainty over the plaintiff’s ability to return to a more independent existence, would provide a contingency fund against the risks of an uncertain future. The defendant appealed against the award for services rendered and to be rendered by him in caring for the plaintiff, contending that in so far as he rendered those services voluntarily he could not be obliged also to pay damages since that would mean that the plaintiff would be recovering twice and he would be paying twice. The plaintiff cross-appealed, contending, inter alia, that the multiplier for future care should be 15. The plaintiff also applied to adduce fresh evidence to show that in the first year after trial she had not made the progress expected towards living a partially independent life in a wheelchair.
Held – (1) Where services were voluntarily rendered from motives of affection or duty by a defendant tortfeasor in caring for a plaintiff who had been injured as a result of the defendant’s negligence, the plaintiff could recover the cost of
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those services by way of damages, since they were adventitious benefits which were in the same category as services rendered voluntarily by a third party or charitable gifts or insurance payments and were not to be regarded as diminishing the plaintiff’s loss. It was unrealistic to regard the defendant as paying twice, once in kind and once in damages, or the plaintiff as making double recovery, since, even if the defendant were not rewarded directly, it was unlikely that he would not enjoy financial benefits from the compensation paid to the plaintiff, including that paid for his services. Furthermore, as a matter of public policy the law should not give plaintiffs an incentive to rely on the paid help or the voluntary services of third parties rather than the voluntary services of those in the position of the defendant, nor should the law encourage the making of contracts between plaintiffs and those in the position of the defendant. It followed that the judge had been entitled to make the award he did in respect of the defendant’s services. The defendant’s appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 191 d to f g h, p 192 a to c and p 201 j, post); Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, Hussain v New Taplow Paper Mills Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 541, Hodgson v Trapp [1988] 3 All ER 870 and Hayden v Hayden [1992] 4 All ER 681 considered.
(2) When the amount and timing of future payments were known, or assumed to be known, the multiplier should be chosen on a mathematical basis by a simple arithmetical calculation of the present value of future payments, with an adjustment if necessary if there was an element of uncertainty. However, it was not appropriate to make an allowance for the contingency that the plaintiff might not live long enough to be the beneficiary of future payments since the plaintiff had an agreed life expectancy of 25 years and it was on that agreed assumption that the damages for future care had to be based. Since an arithmetical calculation of the present value of future payments suggested a multiplier of 15, that figure would be substituted and the plaintiff’s cross-appeal allowed (see p 201 d e h j, post).
(3) Applying the general rule that, although the Court of Appeal had power under RSC Ord 59, r 10 (2)a to receive fresh evidence, it would not do so where the fresh evidence related to matters falling within the field or area of uncertainty for which the trial judge had made allowance in his award, the plaintiff’s application to adduce fresh evidence would be dismissed because on the facts there had been no firm assumption in the evidence called at the trial that the plaintiff would in a year’s time be able to live with a lower level of care, nor was there any basic assumption in the judge’s reasoning that the plaintiff would improve after a year which had been falsified by later events. Moreover, evidence as to the plaintiff’s lack of progress fell within the field or area of uncertainty for which the judge had made allowance in providing a contingency fund against the risks of an uncertain future (see p 196 e, p 198 a to c and p 201 j, post); dictum of Lord Wilberforce in Mulholland v Mitchell [1971] 1 All ER 307 at 312–313 applied.
Notes
For the measure of damages in personal injury cases, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 78–87, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 479–504, 4159–4266.
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For the powers of the Court of Appeal to receive further evidence, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 693, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 183–192, 3963–4008.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bradburn v Great Western Rly Co (1874) LR 10 Exch 1, [1874–80] All ER Rep 195.
Bull v Richard Thomas & Baldwin Ltd [1960] CA Transcript 202.
Chan v Butcher (1984) 11 DLR (4th) 233, BC CA.
Cookson v Knowles [1978] 2 All ER 604, [1979] AC 556, [1978] 2 WLR 978, HL.
Cunningham v Harrison [1973] 3 All ER 463, [1973] QB 942, [1973] 3 WLR 97, CA.
Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, [1974] QB 454, [1973] 3 WLR 514, CA.
Gordon v Windle [1978] CA Transcript 21.
Hayden v Hayden [1992] 4 All ER 681, [1992] 1 WLR 986, CA.
Hodgson v Trapp [1988] 3 All ER 870, [1989] AC 807, [1988] 3 WLR 1281, HL.
Housecroft v Burnett [1986] 1 All ER 332, CA.
Hughes v Singh [1989] CA Transcript 356, (1989) Times, 21 April.
Hussain v New Taplow Paper Mills Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 541, [1988] AC 514, [1988] 2 WLR 266, HL; affg [1987] 1 All ER 417, [1987] 1 WLR 336, CA.
Lim Poh Choo v Camden and Islington Area Health Authority [1979] 2 All ER 910, [1980] AC 174, [1979] 3 WLR 44, HL.
Maylen v Morris [1988] CA Transcript 80.
Mulholland v Mitchell [1971] 1 All ER 307, [1971] AC 666, [1971] 2 WLR 93, HL.
Murphy v Stone Wallwork (Charlton) Ltd [1969] 2 All ER 949, [1969] 1 WLR 1023, HL.
Pursell v Railway Executive [1951] 1 All ER 531, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Bresatz v Przibilla (1962) 108 CLR 541, Aust HC.
Croke v Wiseman [1981] 3 All ER 852, [1982] 1 WLR 71, CA.
Elgindata Ltd, Re (No 2) [1993] 1 All ER 232, [1992] 1 WLR 1207, CA.
Thomas v Wignall [1987] 1 All ER 1185, [1987] QB 1098, CA.
Thompson v South Tees Area Health Authority (10 April 1990, unreported), QBD.
Appeal and cross-appeal
The defendant, David Severs, appealed from the judgment of David Latham QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 15 April 1992 whereby at the trial of the assessment of damages in the action, the defendant having admitted liability, he awarded the plaintiff, Katharine Hunt (now Mrs Severs), damages of £17,000 for services rendered and £60,000 for services to be rendered in the future by the defendant in caring for the plaintiff as part of a total award of £617,004 damages for personal injuries sustained by reason of the negligence of the defendant. By a respondent’s notice dated 29 May 1992 and amended on 28 September 1992 the plaintiff cross-appealed from the judge’s award and also applied to adduce fresh evidence to show that she had not made the progress expected in the year following the trial. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
John Crowley QC and Jonathan Woods (instructed by E Edwards Son & Noice) for the defendant.
Harvey McGregor QC and Roderick Doggett (instructed by Wheelers, Ash Vale) for the plaintiff.
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Cur adv vult
12 May 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. The plaintiff in this action is a woman now aged just under 30 who was catastrophically injured in a motor cycle accident in September 1985 when she was riding as a pillion passenger. The defendant was the driver of the motor cycle. He is now the plaintiff’s husband.
In the action the plaintiff claimed damages for her injuries. There was no contest on liability, but there were very live issues between the parties on the quantum of damages. A hearing on these issues was held over four days in April 1992 before David Latham QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division. In a reserved judgment delivered on 15 April 1992 he awarded the plaintiff damages and interest amounting in total to £617,004.
That award has led to the raising of three issues in this court. In the order in which we have found it convenient to hear them, these were (in brief): (1) an appeal by the defendant against the judge’s award to the plaintiff of sums representing travelling expenses and the value of services rendered and to be rendered to the plaintiff by the defendant; (2) an application by the plaintiff to adduce new evidence; (3) a cross-appeal by the plaintiff against a number of decisions made by the judge in reaching his overall award.
THE BACKGROUND FACTS
The judge gave a helpful summary of events between the accident and the hearing before him. We shall confine ourselves to the brief outline necessary for present purposes.
In the accident the plaintiff fractured her seventh and eighth thoracic vertebrae, with complete paralysis below that level. Immediate surgery was prevented by a number of complications, but in April 1986 an attempt was successfully made to relieve her pain and in June 1986 an operation was performed to fuse her spine. Most unfortunately, the operation caused a paralysis of her bowel and further complications of great seriousness requiring further operation.
She was discharged from hospital in 1987, but suffered from spasms which restricted her ability to manage her catheter and could be controlled only by drugs, delivered by a pump inserted into her chest wall in March 1987.
From March 1987 until the autumn of 1988 the plaintiff lived with the defendant in a small flat in Mitcham. With the daily help of a district nurse, she was able to live a relatively independent life.
In September 1988 the pump became infected and needed replacement. While awaiting this procedure the plaintiff suffered a further, and very rare misfortune. When standing in a frame as part of her therapy she fractured the heads of both her femurs. This was not at once apparent, but during the night she fell into a coma. Rushed into hospital, she was put (for the third time) in intensive care. Despite that she suffered brain damage from which, despite the most expert and attentive care, her recovery was very slow. She could not return home until March 1989. A consultant psychologist found evidence of moderate to mild cognitive impairment. The judge found that she had as a result lost any realistic prospect of remunerative employment. He also found that her appreciation of the steps necessary to keep herself healthy, in particular so as to avoid pressure sores, was impaired.
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From March 1989 until November 1990 the plaintiff again lived with the defendant in the Mitcham flat. She now required the assistance of a home help and a daily carer as well as the district nurse, all of whose services were provided by the local authority.
In November 1990 the plaintiff and the defendant married. They spent their honeymoon in Florida. On their return the plaintiff developed a pressure sore, partly as a result of her failure to appreciate how to look after herself. In August 1991 she was readmitted to hospital and the sore was excised.
By this time the parties had bought a bungalow in Hertfordshire. The plaintiff was keen to move in. She was discharged from hospital in September 1991 and did so. But her discharge was premature. Her skin broke down, and she returned to hospital, where she had to lie in bed waiting for the sores to heal or to be excised. She was unable to sit in a wheelchair or enjoy even the limited activity which that would have allowed. Such was her condition at the date of trial in April 1992. It was, however, hoped that she would shortly be able to return home and resume her life with the defendant, probably following surgery to excise the sores.
The medical witnesses for the parties were agreed that the plaintiff’s life expectancy was some 25 years. They were also at one in regarding her case as, in terms of the complications she had suffered, the worst they had ever come across. The judge paid tribute to the plaintiff’s fortitude and cheerfulness in the face of repeated setbacks, and it was hoped that she would, when the sores had been dealt with, recover a substantial measure of independence. But the judge held that he could not—
‘when considering damages, whether for pain, suffering and loss of amenity or future care requirements, leave out of account the fact that she has been liable to develop complications from time to time in the past.’
He further held that ‘her history has been so bedevilled by problems that I must reflect the real risks of her having further additional difficulties, perhaps at present unforeseen’.
THE DEFENDANT’S APPEAL
The judge awarded the plaintiff as damages £4,429 for travelling expenses incurred by the defendant before the hearing, £17,000 for services rendered by the defendant in caring for the plaintiff before the hearing and £60,000 for services to be rendered by the defendant in caring for the plaintiff in future. In his appeal the defendant did not challenge the quantum of these sums, but their recoverability in principle. No claim, it was argued, would lie for the value of services voluntarily rendered (as these were and would be) by a defendant tortfeasor. We judge this argument to raise a question of considerable practical importance, and also considerable difficulty.
Both parties took as their starting point the Court of Appeal decision in Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, [1974] QB 454. In that case the trial judge awarded damages to an infant plaintiff for wages which his mother had lost by giving up her job to look after him. The defendant appealed, suggesting that the position might have been different had the mother been joined as a plaintiff, but that since she had not the plaintiff could not sue to make good her loss, being under no legal or moral obligation to make any payment to her. The court roundly rejected these contentions. The mother could not have been properly joined, since she had no cause of action against the tortfeasor. It was immaterial whether the plaintiff had a legal or a moral obligation to pay his mother. Most
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importantly, the plaintiff was not suing to make good his mother’s loss: see Megaw LJ giving the judgment of the court ([1973] 3 All ER 475 at 479–480, [1974] QB 454 at 461–462):
‘We do not agree with the proposition, inherent in counsel for the defendant’s submission, that the plaintiff’s claim, in circumstances such as the present, is properly to be regarded as being, to use his phrase, “in relation to someone else’s loss”, merely because someone else had provided to, or for the benefit of, the plaintiff—the injured person—the money, or the services to be valued as money, to provide for needs of the plaintiff directly caused by the defendant’s wrongdoing. The loss is the plaintiff’s loss. The question from what source the plaintiff’s needs have been met, the question who has paid the money or given the services, the question whether or not the plaintiff is or is not under a legal or moral liability to repay, are, so far as the defendant and his liability are concerned, all irrelevant. The plaintiff’s loss, to take this present case, is not the expenditure of money to buy the special boots or to pay for the nursing attention. His loss is the existence of the need for those special boots or for those nursing services, the value of which for purposes of damages—for the purpose of the ascertainment of the amount of his loss—is the proper and reasonable cost of supplying those needs. That, in our judgment, is the key to the problem. So far as the defendant is concerned, the loss is not someone else’s loss. It is the plaintiff’s loss. Hence it does not matter, so far as the defendant’s liability to the plaintiff is concerned, whether the needs have been supplied by the plaintiff out of his own pocket or by a charitable contribution to him from some other person whom we shall call “the provider”; it does not matter, for that purpose, whether the plaintiff has a legal liability, absolute or conditional, to repay to the provider what he has received, because of the general law or because of some private agreement between himself and the provider; it does not matter whether he has a moral obligation, however ascertained or defined, so to do. The question of legal liability to reimburse the provider may be very relevant to the question of the legal right of the provider to recover from the plaintiff. That may depend on the nature of the liability imposed by the general law or the particular agreement. But it is not a matter which affects the right of the plaintiff against the wrongdoer.’ (Megaw LJ’s emphasis.)
Following this authority, the parties accepted that the plaintiff’s need for care, caused by the accident, entitled her to compensation. It was common ground that a claim would have lain for the value of services voluntarily rendered by a third party who was not the tortfeasor. No distinction was drawn in principle between the claim for travelling expenses and that for services past or future (and we shall henceforward, for convenience, refer to services alone). It was agreed that the defendant’s liability was unaffected by the fact that he was, in this case, insured. And it was not in dispute that the plaintiff would have been able to recover the reasonable cost of services rendered by the defendant pursuant to a bona fide contract between the two had there been such, which there was not. But beyond this there was radical disagreement on the principle to be applied.
The defendant of course accepted that the duty to compensate the plaintiff for her needs caused by the accident was one which lay on him as the tortfeasor. He could discharge that duty by paying damages. But, if and in so far as the
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plaintiff required services, it was submitted that the defendant could discharge his duty by rendering the services himself and in so far as he did so voluntarily he could not be obliged to compensate the plaintiff by paying damages also. Mr Crowley QC for the defendant fortified his submission with examples: if the plaintiff’s need for a wheelchair were met by the tortfeasor’s gratuitous supply of a wheelchair, or damage to the plaintiff’s car were repaired by the tortfeasor (a panelbeater) personally without charge, or a fence which the defendant had tortiously demolished were without charge replaced and re-erected by the defendant himself, it would (he argued) be contrary to principle and offensive to common sense if the plaintiff were then able to claim damages against the defendant on the assumption, factually false, that those needs had not been met (without expense to the plaintiff). It followed from the basic principle of damages as compensation that a plaintiff should not recover twice nor a defendant be bound to pay twice. Thus the plaintiff here was entitled to the value of the services (if they were to be rendered by a third party) or to the services themselves (if to be voluntarily rendered by the defendant) but could not be entitled to both the services and a sum representing their monetary value from the defendant.
Mr McGregor QC for the plaintiff relied on Donnelly v Joyce as authority for the proposition that the source from which the plaintiff’s needs were met was irrelevant to the liability of the defendant. Thus the judge was correct to award damages representing the value of the defendant’s services and it made no difference that it was he, rather than a third party, who voluntarily rendered them. There were, it was submitted, strong public policy arguments against laying down the law in terms which would make a right to recovery dependent on the existence of a contract between close friends or relatives, as the court recognised in Donnelly v Joyce. There was a similar public policy argument against settling the law in a way which might tend to curtail the ordinary willingness of one human being (whether a tortfeasor or not) to care for another. And in truth there was no double recovery and no payment twice, since in a situation such as the present the sum paid to the plaintiff would enure, probably directly but at any rate indirectly, to the benefit of the defendant.
In Donnelly v Joyce the present issue was not before the court since the services had not been rendered by the tortfeasor. Our attention has not been drawn to any case, here or abroad, where the present issue did fall for decision. But we were referred to three cases which were said to bear on it.
In Hussain v New Taplow Paper Mills Ltd [1987] 1 All ER 417, [1987] 1 WLR 336 the plaintiff was injured at work and sued his employers, who were found to have been negligent. After the accident they paid him sums in lieu of wages which they recovered from insurers under a contract on which they alone paid the premium. The issue was whether account should be taken of those payments in assessing the plaintiff’s claim for loss of earnings. The judge held that they should be left out of account. The Court of Appeal took a different view. Lloyd LJ, giving the leading judgment, said ([1987] 1 All ER 417 at 428, [1987] 1 WLR 336 at 350):
‘Arguments based on public policy tend to be somewhat imprecise, even, at times, emotive. The present case was no exception. Why, says counsel for the plaintiff, should third party tortfeasors reap the benefit of a scheme which was intended, not for their benefit, but for the benefit of the employee? Why should a wrongdoer pay less than he would otherwise pay, or even nothing at all, when it is his victim who has earned the benefit
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by his labour? I do not find such arguments on either side of much assistance. But there is one consideration of public policy which is worth mentioning. If an employee is injured in the course of his employment and his employers make him an immediate ex gratia payment, as any good employer might, I see no reason why such a payment should not be taken into account in reduction of any damages for which the employer may ultimately be held liable. Employers should be encouraged to make ex gratia payments in such circumstances. If so, then public policy would seem to require that such payments be brought into account. It could, of course, be said that an ex gratia payment is like a sum coming to the plaintiff by way of benevolence, and should therefore be disregarded. This is so where it is a third party who is ultimately held liable (see Cunningham v Harrison [1973] 3 All ER 463, [1973] QB 942). But there must surely be an exception to that general rule where the ex gratia payment comes from the tortfeasor himself. So, if it is right that an ex gratia payment by the employer should be brought into account where the employer is the tortfeasor, why should it make any difference that the payment is one which he has contracted to make in advance? So if counsel for the defendants is wrong in his main argument, that payments under the scheme are in the nature of wages and should be brought into account on that score, there would be much to be said for his alternative argument that such payments should in any event be brought into account on the grounds of “justice, reasonableness and public policy”. But it is unnecessary to decide the case on that ground, since, on the facts of the present case, counsel for the defendants is entitled to succeed on his first ground.’
On appeal to the House of Lords the Court of Appeal’s view was upheld (see [1988] 1 All ER 541, [1988] AC 514). Lord Bridge said ([1988] 1 All ER 541 at 548, [1988] AC 514 at 532):
‘For the reasons already indicated I do not agree with this decision [Chan v Butcher (1984) 11 DLR (4th) 233] and would have decided the case the other way. From the point of view of justice, reasonableness and public policy the case seems to me far removed from the principle underlying the insurance cases stemming from Bradburn v Great Western Rly Co (1874) LR 10 Exch 1, [1874–80] All ER Rep 195. It positively offends my sense of justice that a plaintiff, who has certainly paid no insurance premiums as such, should receive full wages during a period of incapacity to work from two different sources, his employer and the tortfeasor. It would seem to me still more unjust and anomalous where, as here, the employer and the tortfeasor are one and the same.’
The defendant in the present appeal relied on this authority for its insistence that damages for personal injuries are (subject to well-established exceptions) compensatory. An analogy was drawn between the employer’s ex gratia payments and the voluntary services in issue here.
In Hodgson v Trapp [1988] 3 All ER 870, [1989] AC 807 the compensatory principle was even more emphatically insisted upon. Lord Bridge said ([1988] 3 All ER 870 at 873–874, [1989] AC 807 at 819):
‘My Lords, it cannot be emphasised too often when considering the assessment of damages for negligence that they are intended to be purely compensatory. Where the damages claimed are essentially financial in
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character, being the measure on the one hand of the injured plaintiff’s consequential loss of earnings, profits or other gains which he would have made if not injured, or on the other hand, of consequential expenses to which he has been and will be put which, if not injured, he would not have needed to incur, the basic rule is that it is the net consequential loss and expense which the court must measure. If, in consequence of the injuries sustained, the plaintiff has enjoyed receipts to which he would not otherwise have been entitled, prima facie, those receipts are to be set against the aggregate of the plaintiff’s losses and expenses in arriving at the measure of his damages. All this is elementary and has been said over and over again. To this basic rule there are, of course, certain well-established, though not always precisely defined and delineated, exceptions. But the courts are, I think, sometimes in danger, in seeking to explore the rationale of the exceptions, of forgetting that they are exceptions. It is the rule which is fundamental and axiomatic and the exceptions to it which are only to be admitted on grounds which clearly justify their treatment as such.’
Thus the defendant argued that the plaintiff should be compensated, no more and no less. There should be no underpayment and no double recovery.
The recently reported case of Hayden v Hayden [1992] 4 All ER 681, [1992] 1 WLR 986 was a claim made by a young plaintiff under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976. The claim arose out of the death of the plaintiff’s mother, caused by the plaintiff’s father. Among other sums the trial judge awarded the plaintiff a sum of £20,000 which was, it seems, intended to cover three heads of claim: (i) an element in respect of the loss of those services formerly provided by the mother and now replaced by the father; (ii) an element in respect of the loss of those services formerly provided by the mother which were not replaced by the father; and (iii) an element of financial benefit from the deceased’s earnings. It was not suggested that heads (ii) and (iii) amounted to more that £8,500, and so it appeared that an award was made for the value of services which the tortfeasor was himself rendering although not for the full value of those services. McCowan LJ held that the judge was wrong to take into account to any extent the care provided by the father in substitution for that formerly provided by the mother and favoured increasing the judge’s award. But he was in a minority. Sir David Croom-Johnson said ([1992] 4 All ER 681 at 693–694, [1992] 1 WLR 986 at 998):
‘If the result of making an allowance for the fact that the defendant has himself continued to act as a loving father means that his ultimate financial liability to [the plaintiff] is smaller, there is nothing wrong or objectionable in that. Emotive phrases like allowing the defendant to “profit from his wrongdoing” are beside the point. It is preferable to say that what he has done has had, as one result, the reduction of his liability. Mr Crowther [for the defendant] has submitted that to award any damages under his heading (i) was wrong in law, but I do not think it was. There must be a claim for loss of the mother’s services, in the special circumstances of this case, over and above what [the defendant] has been able to replace. The judge has included it, and rightly so, although he has not particularised the amount.’
This appears to involve some confusion between heads (i) and (ii).
Parker LJ summarised the argument of the defendant ([1992] 4 All ER 681 at 695, [1992] 1 WLR 986 at 1000):
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‘For the defendant it is pointed out that if his services are to be disregarded he will in effect be paying damages three times over. First, he will be providing replacement services free of charge, secondly, he will be paying for the services which he has so provided, and thirdly, he will have lost his employment in order to provide such services. This is true and on the face of it appears not to be in accordance with justice. Furthermore, in cases in which it is shown that the services of the father are in every respect as good as or even better than the services previously provided by the mother it is, again on the face of it, difficult to see that the child has suffered a recoverable loss. He will or she will of course have been deprived of the mother’s love and affection but it is not and could not be suggested that this loss sounds in damages.’
He concluded ([1992] 4 All ER 681 at 699, [1992] 1 WLR 986 at 1005):
‘If then it is a jury question, would a jury be likely to say that the tortfeasor who had provided the services and given up his job so to do must nevertheless pay what it would cost to provide the services which he himself has provided? That a jury could conceivably come to the conclusion must I suppose be accepted but if it reached the opposite conclusion it could not in my view be held to have reached an unreasonable verdict. Suppose for example that the deceased mother was hopelessly inadequate, that the tortfeasor was a trained nanny and, appalled by what she had done, gave up her job and provided the child with services infinitely better than those provided by the deceased mother. Can it possibly be the law that she must then pay the cost of employing another nanny. I think not and, if it were, I would regard it as regrettable.’
Both parties sought assistance from this authority, the plaintiff because an award was upheld which included a sum representing the value of services formerly rendered by the mother and now rendered by the tortfeasor father, the defendant in reliance on Parker LJ’s obvious distaste for the suggestion that the tortfeasor should end up rendering services and also paying for the value of those same services. Both these points are fairly made. But we find it hard to find a clear ratio of this decision, which appears to have turned on the language of the 1976 Act and the reluctance of an appellate court to interfere with a trial judge’s assessment made in his role as the jury.
In the present case the learned deputy judge dealt with this question in the following passage of his judgment:
‘I then come to the issue of principle. The plaintiff claims £11,027 for the cost of the defendant visiting her, and £17,000 for the value of the care provided to her by the defendant. It is said that these sums are irrecoverable, that they represent in effect a benefit to the defendant himself, that in so far as they reflect a loss on the plaintiff’s part it has been made good by the defendant so that there is in truth no loss, and that if the incidence of insurance is put on one side it can be seen that the claim is misconceived. However, in my judgment this ignores the basis upon which the claim is made. It is merely a notional monetary figure placed on the true nature of the loss for which she is entitled to compensation. This loss is the need she now has by reason of the accident for care and support which she did not have before. This follows from the analysis of the legal basis of such claims by Megaw LJ in Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475 at
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480, [1974] QB 454 at 462. The valuation of this need remains a difficult exercise. In Housecroft v Burnett [1986] 1 All ER 332 O’Connor LJ made it clear that when provided by unpaid carers there remains a value to be placed on it. In my view that remains so whether provided by the tortfeasor or not. He may give his care in response to the need, but that does not make good the loss, otherwise there will be no sustainable claim in any case where the need has apparently been “met” by unpaid carers. It follows that the position is not analogous to an ex gratia payment made towards lost earnings by a tortfeasor, nor do I consider that Hayden v Hayden [1992] 4 All ER 681, [1992] 1 WLR 986 is in point. There the claim in question was for damages under the Fatal Accidents Act for the lost dependency of a mother. The tortfeasor was the father, who was providing the care of one of the children. On the basis that his care was equal to or even superior to the care that the mother had provided, it was suggested by Parker LJ that there would be no loss, but in the case of the child the need for care was there before the accident, not caused by the accident. The situation is therefore quite different from the present.’
The judge then cited part of the first passage which we have set out from the judgment of Parker LJ and continued:
‘This was in the context of the assessment of damages to be determined in accordance with the statutory requirements of the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 and as if it were a jury question. Parker LJ nowhere said that as a matter of legal principle damages were irrecoverable. The learned judge at first instance had said the fact that the defendant had provided substitute services did not defeat the claim in principle. This was cited by Sir David Croom-Johnson in his judgment without adverse comment. McCowan LJ, who dissented, undoubtedly accepted that this was correct. I do not therefore consider that Hayden v Hayden is any authority for the proposition that damages for an established need for care and support are in any way affected by the fact that they are provided in part by the tortfeasor. If he were uninsured there might be an element of circularity in that the money he provided by way of damages might be returned to him for the care he is providing, but that would be the choice of the victim.’
The judge then accepted that the plaintiff was entitled to claim damages for the support she required and obtained from the defendant’s visits and the care he in part provided.
The defendant objects, correctly, that his case was not ‘that there is in truth no loss’ but that the loss had been made good by the defendant, and neither party sought to adopt the judge’s possible distinction between the case where the defendant is insured and the case where he is not.
We have no hesitation in following the rule that the plaintiff’s need for services represents a loss for which she is to be compensated by the tortfeasor. It is plain that the damages recoverable from the tortfeasor should (subject to exceptions, such as charitable and insurance payments) be compensatory. Applying these principles, we would accept the thrust of Mr Crowley’s examples based on the wheelchair, the panelbeater and the fence: if the tortfeasor gratuitously makes a wheelchair available to the plaintiff, or makes good the bodywork of her car, or replaces and re-erects her fence, the plaintiff cannot in addition claim the value of those goods and services. It would
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positively offend our sense of justice, in Lord Bridge’s phrase, if this were permissible.
Does it follow that the same approach should govern the services rendered by the defendant to the plaintiff in this case? We bear in mind the cautionary observation of Lord Denning MR in Cunningham v Harrison [1973] 3 All ER 463 at 468, [1973] QB 942 at 950–951 where he said:
‘I can find no sound principle for saying what matters should or should not be taken into account in reduction of damages. As each new point comes up, it is decided by the courts according to what is considered the best policy to adopt; and thenceforward it governs subsequent cases.’
‘The best policy to adopt’ must no doubt take account of what justice appears to require in the instant case, but must also look beyond that to the effect which a decision might be likely to have on other comparable cases.
In a case such as the present it does not seem to us realistic to regard the defendant (if the judgment stands) as paying twice, once in kind and once in damages, or the plaintiff as making double recovery. It might be unlikely, in the family context, that the plaintiff would on a regular and methodical basis pay the defendant the sum awarded for his services. But, if the defendant were not rewarded directly, it would seem even more unlikely that the defendant would not enjoy financial benefits from the compensation paid to the plaintiff, including that paid for his services. There is no analogy here with the wheelchair, the panel beater and the fence. In human terms, it would be anomalous if the mother’s services in Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475, [1974] QB 454 founded a claim for damages and the defendant’s here did not: but for the voluntary services of the mother in that case and the husband in this, paid help (or more paid help) would have been needed, and a claim for the reasonable cost of such help would in each case have been irresistible.
Arguments based on public policy are notoriously treacherous. But it would, we think, be unfortunate if the law gave plaintiffs an incentive, which their advisers would quickly recognise, to rely on the paid help or the voluntary services of third parties rather than the voluntary services of those in the position of the defendant. It would be no less regrettable if the law were to encourage the making of contracts between plaintiffs and those in the position of the defendant. We would echo in these different circumstances the questions raised by the court in Donnelly v Joyce [1973] 3 All ER 475 at 481, [1974] QB 454 at 463:
‘… is there not something repulsive in the idea that the extent of a wrongdoer’s liability for a part of the consequences of his wrongdoing should depend on the willingness or otherwise of a would-be provider to require such a legally binding bargain to be made with the injured person as a condition of his assistance? Suppose that a wife has been seriously injured. Is the defendant’s liability to depend on whether, and if so when, the injured woman’s husband, or her sister or her neighbour, had made a bargain with her (perhaps while she is lying gravely injured) that she will repay? … If such were the law, legal advisers would, we believe, often be gravely embarrassed at having the duty to advise that such agreements should be made …’
Where services are voluntarily rendered by a tortfeasor in caring for the plaintiff from motives of affection or duty they should in our opinion be
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regarded as in the same category as services rendered voluntarily by a third party, or charitable gifts, or insurance payments. They are adventitious benefits, which for policy reasons are not to be regarded as diminishing the plaintiff’s loss. On the facts of the present case the judge’s decision was not in our view contrary to principle or authority and it was fortified by what we regard as compelling considerations of public policy. We consider that he reached the right conclusion and would accordingly dismiss the defendant’s appeal.
THE PLAINTIFF’S APPLICATION TO ADDUCE FRESH EVIDENCE
RSC Ord 59, r 10(2) provides that ‘The Court of Appeal shall have power to receive further evidence …’, but adds:
‘in the case of an appeal from a judgment after trial or hearing of any cause or matter on the merits, no such further evidence (other than evidence as to matters which have occurred after the date of the trial or hearing) shall be admitted except on special grounds.’
That limitation does not apply in the present case; the plaintiff’s application to call further evidence is entirely concerned with matters which occurred after the trial in April 1992. So our discretion is not fettered by the requirement of special grounds.
The decision whether or not to admit fresh evidence is always an anxious one for this court. It is bad enough if a judge at trial has reached a wrong conclusion of fact, but much worse if the Court of Appeal refuses to admit evidence which would have rectified the error. So it can be argued that we should always allow further evidence to be called, provided that it is relevant and not patently untruthful, at any rate where the restriction in Ord 59, r 10(2) does not apply. But there is a powerful countervailing argument. The expense and delay of litigation are large enough in all conscience, without a rehearing on further evidence after the trial is concluded. So are the strain and anxiety for litigants and witnesses. It is not only in the interest of the state that lawsuits should reach an end: it is in the interest of the parties also.
There are a number of cases which give some guidance as to how the decision should be taken. But they lay down no rules, only factors which we should take into consideration. Of the three cases in the House of Lords which we were referred to, the first was Murphy v Stone Wallwork (Charlton) Ltd [1969] 2 All ER 949, [1969] 1 WLR 1023. That too was a personal injury case, and the further evidence was admitted. Lord Pearce observed that the appeal had been launched (as in the present case) within the time allowed for doing so. The burden on the applicant was, therefore, ‘less severe than it would have been had he come later’. Even where that is not the case ‘the appellate court has a discretion to re-open the matter on fresh evidence if the particular exigencies of justice clearly outweigh the general undesirability of doing so’ (see [1969] 2 All ER 949 at 953, [1969] 1 WLR 1023 at 1028). That case had been conducted on the assumption that the injured plaintiff would be allowed to continue in the defendants’ employment indefinitely. After the decision of the Court of Appeal, he was dismissed. Lord Pearce said ([1969] 2 All ER 949 at 954, [1969] 1 WLR 1023 at 1029):
‘To allow them to obtain an advantage from the assumptions that their conduct (although not mala fide) induced and then falsified would be inequitable.’
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Lord Pearson also said ([1969] 2 All ER 949 at 960, [1969] 1 WLR 1023 at 1036):
‘… the basis on which the case had been conducted on both sides … was suddenly and materially falsified … and in the circumstances it would not be fair or equitable to allow the respondents to retain the advantage of the decision …’
Mulholland v Mitchell [1971] 1 All ER 307, [1971] AC 666 was another case of personal injury where further evidence was admitted. At the trial it was contemplated that the plaintiff would be cared for by his wife at home for the rest of his life; but a nursing home would be available at a cost of £903 a year. Within a few weeks it became clear that it was impossible for him to live at home, and the only suitable nursing home would cost £1,827 a year. There are these important passages in the speech of Lord Wilberforce. After referring to the judge’s task of taking into account the uncertainties of the future—described as a compound of prophecy and speculation—he said ([1971] 1 All ER 307 at 312, [1971] AC 666 at 679):
‘This abbreviated and over-simplified description shows at least what limitations must inherently exist to the Court of Appeal’s discretion to admit further evidence. It makes it clear that an impossible situation would arise if evidence were to be admitted of every change which may have taken place since the trial. In the nature of things medical condition will vary from year to year, or month to month; earning prospects may change, prices may rise, or even fall. If the Court of Appeal were to admit evidence of changes of this kind (and it must not be overlooked that a facility given to one side cannot be denied to the other), not only would a mass of appeals involve the hearing of evidence but the Court of Appeal would merely be faced with the same uncertainties as faced the judge, and of which the judge has, ex hypothesi, already taken account. In other words, an appellant’s contention that factors such as these have changed since the trial must, in normal cases, be met with the answer that the judge, in his estimate, has already taken account of them.’
Then after a reference to the cases, he continued ([1971] 1 All ER 307 at 313, [1971] AC 666 at 679–680):
‘These cases are useful as instances, but they cannot be generalised into a formula. I do not think that, in the end, much more can usefully be said than, in the words of my noble and learned friend, Lord Pearson, that the matter is one of discretion and degree (Murphy’s case [1969] 2 All ER 949 at 960, [1969] 1 WLR 1023 at 1036). Negatively, fresh evidence ought not to be admitted when it bears on matters falling within the field or area of uncertainty, in which the trial judge’s estimate has previously been made. Positively, it may be admitted, if some basic assumptions, common to both sides, have been clearly falsified by subsequent events, particularly if this has happened by the act of the defendant. Positively, too, it may be expected that courts will allow fresh evidence when to refuse it would affront common sense, or a sense of justice. All these are only non-exhaustive indications; the application of them, and their like, must be left to the Court of Appeal. The exceptional character of cases in which fresh evidence is allowed is fully recognised by that court.’
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In addition Lord Wilberforce said that the new cost of the nursing home was approximately double the previous figure, ‘a disparity which satisfies the test of degree’ (see [1971] 2 All ER 307 at 313, [1971] AC 666 at 680).
We do not find any further assistance in the third case, Lim Poh Choo v Camden and Islington Area Health Authority [1979] 2 All ER 910, [1980] AC 174. So we turn next to decisions of the Court of Appeal. First we were referred to Pursell v Railway Executive [1951] 1 All ER 536. There it was sought to call fresh evidence which would contradict the prognosis in an agreed medical report which had been used at the trial. The application was dismissed. That may be a special case, and not necessarily relevant to the problem which we have to resolve.
In Bull v Richard Thomas & Baldwins Ltd [1960] CA Transcript 202 Lord Evershed MR said:
‘We came to the conclusion that in such a case as this where the damage has been estimated by the judge on the basis of the medical evidence available at the trial and taking account of the forecast and state of uncertainty, it would be contrary to the general principle that there must be an end to litigation (save in some very exceptional case) to permit on the hearing of the appeal a reopening of the basis upon which the damages had been assessed.’
That passage is cited in Kemp and Kemp The Quantum of Damages vol 1, para 19-018. In the light of more recent authorities we do not think that it should be read as a statement of principle. It is, however, in line with Lord Wilberforce’s negative consideration, that fresh evidence ought not to be admitted ‘when it bears on matters falling within the field or area of uncertainty, in which the trial judge’s estimate has previously been made’.
Next there is Gordon v Windle [1978] CA Transcript 21, which is cited at length in Kemp and Kemp vol 1, para 19-019. There the Court of Appeal declined to admit fresh evidence in a personal injury case. Stephenson LJ said:
‘It is clear from that rule [RSC Ord 59, r 10 (2)], and from the authorities which have been cited to us, that this court has an unfettered discretion to hear evidence as to matters which have occurred after the date of trial or hearing. It is also clear that the court will exercise that power only in exceptional circumstances, that it will exercise that power to reopen an assessment of damages for personal injuries, that it will not do so for every unexpected change of circumstances subsequent to trial, but that it will do so for a dramatic and unexpected event which falsifies the basic assumption on which the trial judge assessed damages before that assessment is finalised, with or without alteration, on appeal. If such an event happens within the time for serving notice of appeal or so soon as to make it inequitable or contrary to justice for the damages to be finally assessed without taking into account the supervening event, this court, or indeed the House of Lords, will exercise its discretion to admit fresh evidence of the event and depart from the important principle that damages are assessed once and for all at the trial and it is in the interest of the state and all parties to litigation that there should be an end to it; but an appellate court must be careful not to admit evidence of changes in the medical condition of an injured plaintiff or in his earning prospects if, though unexpected, they fall within the risks taken into account by the adjudication at the trial.’
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Finally we have a transcript of Hughes v Singh (1989) Times, 21 April. That was another case where the injured plaintiff lost his job after the trial, and fresh evidence was admitted. Russell LJ mentioned as relevant circumstances (1) the extent to which the fresh evidence may affect the award of damages, (2) the proximity in time of the emergence of fresh evidence to the date of trial and (3) any inequitable conduct on the part of a litigant. He emphasised what Lord Wilberforce had said in Mulholland’s case [1971] 1 All ER 307 at 313, [1971] AC 666 at 680, that fresh evidence would be admitted ‘when to refuse it would affront common sense, or a sense of justice’.
Before leaving the law, we would mention an argument of Mr Crowley, that defendants or their insurers rarely hear about changes that may occur in personal injury cases after trial, and so are in no position to apply for the admission of further evidence. That may well cause injustice in some cases. But we do not see that it is a ground for causing other injustice, by refusing to hear fresh evidence on the application of plaintiffs when it would otherwise be right to hear it. It may, however, perhaps be regarded as a justification of the principle that the court will not reopen an issue where the trial judge has recognised that there was uncertainty and made some allowance for it. To allow one party only the opportunity, in practice, to bring that issue again before the court and point to unfavourable developments would be unjust.
We now turn to the further evidence which the plaintiff wishes to call. This would be designed to show, first, that she has not made the progress that was expected towards living a partially independent life in a wheelchair. At the time of the trial she was in hospital awaiting an operation on her ischium bone to relieve pressure sores. The operation was delayed for two months until June 1992. From late July until September she was at home on virtual bedrest. Then she and her husband went on holiday; but the skin on her ischium totally broke, a condition that was exacerbated by the long car journey home, and she was once again confined to bed. It was mid-November before the sore had healed, after which she started gradually getting up. But it was not until January 1993 that she was able to sit up for any length of time, being about seven or eight hours a day. She remains unable to do a great deal, and although her sores are now healed satisfactorily, her situation is now considered unlikely to improve and may deteriorate from time to time. Dr Silver, who was called on behalf of the plaintiff, considers that, while she is well and can get up in a wheelchair, she needs at least six hours’ care a day. He estimates that she is going to be ill for three months of each year, when she will require continuous nursing care.
That is said to contrast with the judge’s assessment that for the first year after trial she would require care for five hours a day on five days a week and for three hours on one day, and that thereafter for a substantial period the need would only be for three hours a day on six days a week, when she would be able to sit up for long periods, move around the house in her wheelchair and drive herself about in her car. And the figure which the judge had allowed for occasional periods when a full-time residential carer would be required was sufficient only for two weeks a year.
Secondly, the cost of care was based by the judge on an hourly rate of £4, whereas it is now said to be £6 an hour plus employer’s national insurance contributions and accountant’s administration fees.
Thirdly, the judge had allowed £1,000 a year for visits from her parents, on the basis of one day a week for several hours to care for their daughter. It is said
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that she has in fact needed prolonged visiting at home from her parents almost on a daily basis, and will do so until a residential carer is eventually needed.
Fourthly, there is said to be a need for domestic help in addition, to the extent of £800 a year.
The effect of those changes in money terms, if made out, is that the cost of care in the first year after trial is increased from the £14,282 which the judge allowed to £27,237; and in the subsequent period to which he applied a multiplier of nine, from £12,192 to the same figure. The total, until the beginning of full-time residential care, is increased from £124,000 to £272,370.
It cannot be predicted that this evidence will be accepted without challenge. At the least, there are matters which give rise to inquiry, such as whether an increase of over 50% in the hourly cost of care is justified. The defence may also wish to call further evidence of their own. And it would be difficult for us to assess the new evidence without having heard the old. The case might have to go back to the trial judge. But none of that is a reason for not admitting the new evidence if it is otherwise right to do so. It merely illustrates the expense and delay which may arise if new evidence is admitted.
In the evidence called at the trial, there cannot in our judgment be found any firm assumption that the plaintiff would, in a year’s time, be able to live with the lower level of care, to spend most of the day in her wheelchair and to drive herself in her car. Dr Silver, in examination-in-chief, said that at the time she needed care for about five hours a day. His evidence went on:
‘Q. Would you see that continuing for some time? A. Certainly for the next year. It may be that in a year’s time, if the skin stays healed and she becomes more confident and is able to learn these routines again, she may need less. As you see from the case conference, that is what we are planning to do. To put in the carer, who has been trained at Stoke, and perhaps we can wean her down.
Q. But a year is the minimum? A. I would have thought a year is the minimum.
Q. It could well be more? A. It could well be more, yes.’
Later, with reference to the effect of brain damage:
‘Q. Do you see the situation getting back to the 1989/1990 high point? A. I find it very difficult to sort it out in my own mind, because she did manage for 18 months quite well. So presumably there is hope that she may return to this level, but, as I said, I’m rather in the state that [the plaintiff] is in: rather demoralised about my management of her case and I think [the plaintiff] is rather demoralised about it all. So I am hopeful but I am just waiting for the next blow to land, the next disaster to strike.’
Furthermore there was no firm assumption of the kind that we have described in Mr McGregor’s submissions on the plaintiff’s behalf at the trial:
‘Mr McGregor. There is no question that the need for care has increased over the last 18 months and there is a big question mark, in my submission, over [the plaintiff’s] recovery. It is true that there is great hope for her recovery and, although Dr Watson [who was called on behalf of the defendant] seemed to be more expecting recovery than the others, even he only said basically there was a hope. The past history certainly does not give one confidence that she will recover. Your Lordship must, I would submit, take into account this danger that she will not really recover.
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Deputy judge. How do I take it into account? …
Later:
Mr McGregor. … [Dr Silver] went on to say that if she did not improve she would need skilled care throughout the day. We are not claiming for that because we do not know whether that will happen. We are taking a middle course between disaster on one hand and complete recovery on the other. That is reflected in the way we have done our calculations.’
The key question, however, is whether a basic assumption of improvement after one year is to be found in the reasoning of the deputy judge. At the start of this part of his judgment he said: ‘The plaintiff’s future requirements are themselves very uncertain.’
And at a later stage:
‘In deciding how best to approach the problem, I remind myself that I am seeking some guide to the overall figure which represents the plaintiff’s need for care rather than necessarily an exact or accurate prognostication of what she will spend on care, although the latter is a matter that I must apply my mind to. I have come to the conclusion that the regime and cost of care which best reflects the plaintiff’s needs and takes account of contingencies is as follows.’
The judge then split his multiplier of 14 into three parts. The first, of one year only, can be identified with the year after trial. The second was of nine years, and applied to the lower level of care. The third, of four years, was applied to the cost of residential care. The judge said:
‘In deciding how to divide the multiplier, I have been particularly concerned to ensure that I give proper weight to the uncertainty over the plaintiff’s ability to return to a more independent existence. Both Dr Silver and Dr Watson made it clear that they hoped that she would be able to do so, but her history has been so bedevilled by problems that I must reflect the real risks of her having further additional difficulties, perhaps at present unforeseen. The best way to make proper provision for the chances of such difficulties occurring is to apply a significant multiplier to the cost of a residential carer providing, so to speak, a contingency fund.’
It is important to appreciate the effect of the judge’s split multiplier. The plaintiff had a life expectancy of 25 years at the date of trial. Out of the overall multiplier of 14, the judge took a figure of 4 to apply to the cost of residential care, which he assessed at somewhat over £25,000 a year. Thereby he created a fund of more than £100,000, against the contingency that at some time and for some period residential care would be needed. But he was not forecasting that this period would be the last four years of the plaintiff’s life expectancy. Mr Crowley’s calculator revealed that the net present value of £25,000 payable in 24 years’ time, at a discount rate of 4·5%, is £8,279. We have not done any further calculations; but we suspect that the judge’s fund of £100,000 would provide for at least eight years of residential care if they occurred at the end of the 25-year period. If on the other hand the need occurred much earlier, the fund might provide for little more than four years. If the need never occurred, a large part of the £100,000 would not be required.
That demonstrates, in our view, that the judge was indeed providing a contingency fund, as he said he was, against the risks of an uncertain future.
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That was exactly the kind of decision which Lord Wilberforce described as falling within the field or area of uncertainty in which the judge made his estimate. Looking at what is perhaps the other side of the same coin, we find no basic or fundamental assumption which has been falsified by later events. In the circumstances, this is in our judgment a case where the principle that there should be an end to litigation should prevail. Consequently we dismissed the application to adduce fresh evidence.
THE PLAINTIFF’S CROSS-APPEAL
There are ten topics raised in the plaintiff’s re-amended notice by way of cross-appeal, but two were not pursued. Few matters of principle were raised, and although the dispute is of importance to the parties we can nevertheless deal with the remaining issues quite shortly.
General damages for pain, suffering and loss of amenity; interest on that sum
The judge was satisfied that the plaintiff should receive a sum significantly in excess of the normal award for paraplegia. In the light of her complications and misfortunes, we agree that this case should be above the top of the usual bracket. He awarded £90,000.
We were referred to the summary of past awards under this head prepared by the Judicial Studies Board. It reveals a bracket of £75,000 to £85,000, or in the money of June 1992 (which was two months after the trial) £77,620 to £87,970. It is said that the judge has added very little to the highest award made previously, after allowing for change in the value of money.
We agree that the judge’s figure might have been higher. If he had awarded £100,000, which is the sum that Mr McGregor contends for, it could not have been argued that he was wrong. But in this field of conventional awards there is no one figure which is right, so that all others are wrong; there is always a bracket. We do not feel able to say that the judge’s award was so low that this court should alter it.
Past loss of earnings to the date of trial and future loss of earnings
At the date of the accident the plaintiff was employed as a buyer’s assistant at Sainsbury’s. There was evidence that she could have progressed to trainee buyer, and then to assistant buyer; and her case was that she would have done. That was by no means certain, as she would be competing with more highly-qualified candidates from the graduate entry. Nevertheless the judge, while not satisfied of any precise pattern of employment promotion, was satisfied—
‘that her earning capacity was reasonably well reflected in the figures produced for a trainee buyer, subject to some adjustments, and that she would have achieved earnings which are comparable to those of an assistant buyer subject again to some deductions, which I shall come to later.’
He added that he approached the figures with some caution.
In a later passage the judge said that the Sainsbury’s figures included a premium for living and working in London, including in particular travelling costs. Those costs she did not and will not incur; and it is conceded that some deduction may properly be made on that account. For that reason and possibly also on the grounds of uncertainty, the judge allowed rather less than she would have earned in a successful career at Sainsbury’s; for example, he reduced the
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agreed figure of £8,399 for the wages of a trainee buyer in 1988–89 to £7,250, and the figure for an assistant buyer in the following year (also agreed) from £9,608 to £8,000. He also made deductions of £10,000, to reflect the fact that she might well have taken one year off work for a child or children, and £2,500 as one yearqs cost of a child minder.
As to future loss of earnings, the judge started with the wages of an assistant buyer at the date of trial—£12,752 per annum. For expenses saved and for uncertainty he reduced that to £10,000. But he increased it again to £11,500, since the plaintiff was likely to receive incremental wage increases over and above inflation.
We cannot say that the judge was wrong in anything that he decided under these two heads. The plaintiff was in her first job at the time of the accident, and there was bound to be uncertainty about her future. There was also inevitably some deduction to be made for the expense of living and working in London which was saved.
Domestic help
It is said that the judge should have awarded the cost of domestic help for the full period covered by his assessment of damages.
There was general agreement among the witnesses that some care by way of domestic help would be needed, but a difference of view as to whether this would be provided by someone caring for her personal needs or by an additional person. We can well believe that, as one witness said, it is not easy to find someone to take on both roles. The judge, however, having accepted agreed figures of £5,000 a year for care by the defendant and £1,000 a year for care by the plaintiff’s parents, and having reached his conclusions on the future cost of paid care, did not consider that a separate element for domestic help was needed.
It is certainly arguable that the judge may have been wrong. But there is no suggestion that he misunderstood the evidence; and in the context of his overall figure for the cost of future care (£224,600), we again do not feel able to alter his decision.
The lost years
The plaintiff was very nearly 29 years old at the time of the trial. She had a life expectancy of 25 years. So there is a period of six years when she has a further potential claim for loss of future earnings, on the assumption that she would have continued working until the retirement age of 60. The judge dealt with this aspect of the claim by adding one half to the multiplier which he selected for future lost earnings.
Mr McGregor submits that this figure is significantly too low. He referred us to the table in Kemp and Kemp The Quantum of Damages vol 1, p 8028, headed ‘Multipliers for loss of earnings to pension age 60 (females)’. In the column which assumes a discount rate of 4·5%, the multiplier from age 35 to 60 is 14·8, and from age 29 to 60 it is 16·6. So an extra six years would justify an addition of 2 to the multiplier. (Those were not quite the figures that Mr McGregor relied on, but they illustrate his method with sufficient accuracy.)
There are two problems about that calculation. First, it assumes that the plaintiff would have continued working until the age of 60. That must be significantly doubtful. The plaintiff might or might not have chosen to take that course. Secondly, the calculation makes no deduction for living expenses saved;
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and it is accepted that they must be taken into account. There is some dispute as to how they should be estimated. Mr McGregor argues that in cases under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 the widow’s dependency is taken as two-thirds of the income of her deceased husband; hence the amount that the plaintiff would have spent on herself should only be one-third of her earnings. We find that argument implausible, since it assumes that each of a working couple would have spent two-thirds of his or her earnings on the other. A more realistic conclusion is that the plaintiff’s expenditure on herself would have been half her earnings.
The topic was considered in Housecroft v Burnett [1986] 1 All ER 332 at 345. There O’Connor LJ considered that damages for loss of earnings in the lost years were ‘highly speculative’. By way of illustration he observed that an additional multiplier of 3, if the multiplicand were one-third of the anticipated earnings, would achieve the same effect as an additional multiplier of one applied to the full figure. He concluded that a possible approach was to adjust the multiplier by one, or a half. That method is accepted as one that the court might prefer in McGregor on Damages (15th edn, 1988) p 918, para 1472. The judge adopted it in the present case, and added one-half to the multiplier. We do not consider that he was wrong to do so.
The multiplier for future care and the multiplier for future lost earnings during the life expectancy
The judge started with a multiplier of 14, and adopted that figure ‘for all those items in respect of which life expectancy is relevant’. But for future lost earnings he reduced it to 12, because the plaintiff might have had unpaid periods off work ‘for family reasons’. That no doubt meant a child or children. Mr McGregor observed that this was a substantial reduction, but did not challenge it as such. (There was also the addition of one-half to the multiplier of 12 which the judge added for future earnings in the lost years. That we have already mentioned and considered.)
Mr McGregor argues that the multiplier for future care should have been 15 and not 14; but he accepts that the addition should be made to the period where a lower level of care was thought appropriate, so as to produce a split of 1:10:4 instead of 1:9:4. He points to Maylen v Morris [1988] CA Transcript 80, a case cited in Kemp and Kemp vol 2, p 51411 at p 51414, where counsel included Mr Crowley, no less, and a multiplier of 15 was common ground. For the defendant, on the other hand, we were referred to a number of cases where the multiplier was between 12 and 14.
The main argument of Mr McGregor, however, was that we should use the table in Kemp and Kemp vol 1, p 8028. That, as already mentioned, would provide a multiplier of 14.8 where there is a life expectancy of 25 years. Mr McGregor rounded that up to 15.
Tables such as those in Kemp and Kemp have not, we are told, yet received general acceptance as the appropriate method. There is, however, a good deal to commend them as avoiding dispute and tending towards certainty. One difficulty is that the court has to choose the appropriate discount rate from those between 1·5% and 5% which the tables provide. The aim is, it seems, to find a figure which represents the anticipated return on money, after tax, in times of stable currency. Lord Diplock in Cookson v Knowles [978] 2 All ER 604 at 611, [1979] AC 556 at 571 said that it was 4% to 5%. More recently the Law Commission has questioned those figures (see Structured Settlements and Interim and Provisional Damages (Law Commission Consultation Paper no 125 (1992),
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para 2.12)), and with reason if one has regard to the return on index-linked government stock. However, in the present case there has been no significant challenge to 4·5%; nor do we have the material which would enable us to substitute a different figure.
The second difficulty, which particularly applies in the present case, is that the Kemp and Kemp tables appear not to be mere calculations of the present value of money payable over future years. They contain, as the heading shows, ‘allowance for population mortality’. In other words, as it seems to us, there may be some allowance for the contingency that the beneficiary of future payments may not live long enough to receive them. Such an allowance is not appropriate in the present case, where the agreed life expectancy of the plaintiff is 25 years. That is a fact, or rather an agreed assumption, upon which the damages payable for future care must be based. The Kemp and Kemp table could be too favourable to the defendant, if used for that purpose.
What we need is a simple arithmetical calculation of the present value of future payments. Counsel have provided us with a table. It shows that the present value of £1 per annum payable for the next 25 years, discounted at 4·5%, is £14·82821. That is very little different from the figure in the Kemp and Kemp table, which shows that the allowance for mortality must be very small. It would suggest a multiplier of 15. Accordingly we think it right to substitute the multiplier of 15 which Mr McGregor contends for in the calculation of future costs of care. As he proposes, the new split will be 1:10:4. In the result, there is only the modest addition of £12,192 to the damages awarded, subject to correction.
The same process is not necessarily appropriate to the choice of multiplier for future earnings during the next 25 years, since although the period is a fixed assumption there is uncertainty as to whether the plaintiff would have worked continuously throughout it. But what the judge did, as we have said, was to take the figure of 14 and deduct 2 for the possibility of her being off work for family reasons. That is, as Mr McGregor submitted, a substantial reduction. We think that it would be logical, for the reasons already given, to start with his figure of 15, deduct 2 for family reasons, and of course add a half for the lost years. Again subject to correction, that results in an addition of £11,500 to the damages.
Those two alterations are small in the context of the total sum awarded. But having heard the argument we think it right to accept the submission that, when the amount and timing of future payments are known—or assumed to be known—the multiplier should be chosen on a mathematical basis. And, if there is an element of uncertainty which can best be allowed for by choosing a multiplier in that way and then adjusting it, that too should be done.
The appeal and the application to adduce fresh evidence are dismissed. The cross-appeal is allowed to the extent indicated.
Appeal and application to adduce fresh evidence dismissed. Cross-appeal allowed in part. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords granted.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Rolph v Zolan
[1993] 4 All ER 202
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Courts: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON AND BUTLER-SLOSS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 21, 30 APRIL 1993
County court – Practice – Service of summons – Service by post – Summons addressed to defendant at last known residence in England – Defendant living abroad – Summons forwarded to defendant abroad – Whether defendant required to be physically present within jurisdiction when summons served by post – Whether summons validly served – CCR Ord 7, rr 1, 10.
County court – Practice – Service of summons – Service by post – Extension of time – Summons addressed to defendant at last known residence in England – Defendant living abroad – Summons forwarded to defendant abroad – Summons initially valid for 4 months – Defendant’s application to set aside summons made after expiry of 4-month period – Whether court having power to extend period of service – CCR Ord 7, r 20.
On 25 July 1991 the plaintiff issued a county court summons against the defendant to recover moneys for building works carried out by the plaintiff. The summons was served by post and addressed to the defendant at his last known residence in England, in accordance with CCR Ord 7, rr 1a and 10b, but in 1986 the defendant had emigrated to Spain while retaining ownership of the premises to which the summons had been sent. The defendant’s mail was forwarded to him abroad and he received the summons in September 1991. In January 1992 the plaintiff obtained a default judgment for the sum claimed. In April the district judge granted an application by the defendant to set aside the judgment on the ground that the summons had not been validly served. The plaintiff appealed to the judge, who upheld the order that the summons had not been properly served but extended the time for service until 25 November 1992 pursuant to CCR Ord 7, r 20(3)c, which provided that where the court was satisfied that ‘it may not be possible to serve the summons within 4 months’ the court could extend the period of service for a period not exceeding 12 months. Under r 20(1) the court could extend the period of service of a summons for such period not exceeding 4 months at any one time, beginning with the day next following that on which it would otherwise expire, if an application for extension was made before that day or such later day as the court might allow, and under r 20(2) the time within which a summons might be served was limited to a period of 4 months beginning with the date of issue of the summons. The defendant appealed, contending that the summons was initially valid for service for 4 months only, ie until 25 November 1991, that the summons had not been validly served during that period because he was outside the jurisdiction and that an application to extend the period for service could only be entertained if made before 25 November 1991 or during the 4 months immediately after that date, ie up to 25 March 1992. The plaintiff cross-appealed, contending that the summons had been validly served during the 4-month period of its initial validity.
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Held – (1) On the true construction of CCR Ord 7, r 20 an application for the renewal of a summons which had not been served could not be made more than 8 months after the date of issue of the summons. Although the court had limited power under r 20(3) to extend the period of service for a period not exceeding 12 months, an extension not exceeding 12 months could not be granted on an application made more than 4 months after the day next following that on which the period of service would otherwise have expired. Accordingly, the judge had had no power to extend the period of service until 25 November 1992 (see p 207 e to j, p 208 a and p 210 c, post).
(2) However, on the true construction of CCR Ord 7, rr 1 and 10 the defendant was not required to be physically present within the jurisdiction at the time service by post was effected. Since the defendant had actually received the summons in Spain before it ceased to be valid for service, there was no basis for the summons to be treated as not having been served. Accordingly, the summons had been properly served and the default judgment should not have been set aside. The defendant’s appeal would therefore be dismissed and the cross-appeal allowed (see p 209 f j to p 290 b, post); Barclays Bank of Swaziland Ltd v Hahn [1989] 2 All ER 398 considered.
Notes
For service by post, see 10 Halsbury’s Law (4th edn) para 184, and for cases on the subject, see 13 Digest (Reissue) 459–460, 3806–3808..
For duration and renewal of a summons, see 10 Halsbury’s Law (4th edn) para 164.
Cases referred to in judgments
Barclays Bank of Swaziland Ltd v Hahn [1989] 2 All ER 398, [1989] 1 WLR 506, HL.
Chappell v Cooper, Player v Bruguiere [1980] 2 All ER 463, [1980] 1 WLR 958, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Anlaby v Praetorius (1888) 20 QBD 764, CA.
Bernstein v Jackson [1982] 2 All ER 806, [1982] 1 WLR 1082, CA.
Dagnell v J L Freedman & Co (a firm) [1993] 2 All ER 161, [1993] 1 WLR 388, HL.
Heaven v Road and Rail Wagons Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 409, [1965] 2 QB 355.
Kleinwort Benson Ltd v Barbrak Ltd, The Myrto (No 3) [1987] 2 All ER 289, [1987] 1 AC 597, HL.
Waddon v Whitecroft-Scovill Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 996, [1988] 1 WLR 309, HL.
White v Weston [1968] 2 All ER 842, [1968] 2 QB 647, CA.
Appeal and cross-appeal
The defendant, Simon Zolan, appealed with leave of Stuart-Smith LJ from the decision of Judge Aron Owen sitting at the Clerkenwell County Court on 17 September 1992 whereby, on the hearing of an appeal by the plaintiff, Michael David Rolph, against the order made by Mr Roger Southcombe sitting as a deputy district judge on 22 June 1992 setting aside the default judgment obtained by the plaintiff on the ground that the summons had not been validly served on the defendant, the judge upheld the order that the summons had not been validly served and extended the time for service. By a respondent’s notice the plaintiff sought an order that further service of the summons be dispensed with and that the action proceed as a defended action on condition that the defendant pay into court the sum of £10,594·69 or such other sum that the court might think fit, contending, inter alia, that the defendant had been duly served
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with the summons because it had been sent by first class post to his last-known address, 13A Sparsholt Road, London N19. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Andrew Miller (instructed by Carpenter & Co, Wallington ) for the defendant.
Mark Dencer (instructed by Gareth Woodfine & Partners, Bedford) for the plaintiff.
Cur adv vult
30 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
DILLON LJ. The court has before it an appeal, brought by leave granted by Stuart-Smith LJ, against an order of Judge Aron Owen made in the Clerkenwell County Court on 17 September 1992. The appellant is the defendant in the action, Mr Zolan. The respondent is the plaintiff, Mr Rolph, and the court also has before it a respondent’s notice by way of cross-appeal which was served out of time by leave of this court in circumstances which I shall have to mention briefly a bit later. The appeal and cross-appeal raise questions, which I have not found entirely easy, as to the operation of various provisions in the County Court Rules as to the service and renewal of process.
The plaintiff is a builder, and in the early 1980s he carried out building work for the defendant, who is, or then was, a solicitor, at a property owned by the defendant, 13A Sparsholt Road, London N19. A long leasehold interest in that property had been acquired by the defendant in 1983, and it either was, or, on completion of the plaintiff’s work, was to be, the defendant’s residence. The plaintiff was to be paid for his work on architect’s certificates and the architect’s final certificate for an outstanding balance of £4,679·98, was issued on 29 July 1985. In these proceedings the plaintiff claims that sum together with interest.
That part of that sum is due, if the proceedings are properly on foot, is not in doubt. The defendant claims to have been entitled to make certain deductions from the sum certified on account of delay and defective workmanship. But he admits that a balance of £2,849·98 was due, and he says that in August 1986 he sent the plaintiff a cheque for that balance; but the plaintiff says, and there is no reason to doubt, that he never received any such cheque, and it is beyond doubt that the cheque was never presented or paid.
Proceedings to recover whatever was due to him under the final certificate were not instituted by the plaintiff until 25 July 1991, when a county court summons was issued. That was of course very shortly before the expiration of the six year limitation period from the issue of the architect’s certificate. That summons was then purportedly served by the county court by post addressed to the defendant at 13A Sparsholt Road.
Service by post on a defendant at his last-known residence is authorised by CCR Ord 7, rr 1(1)(a) and 10(1) and (2) as the normal method of service. Those rules provide as follows:
‘1.—(1) Where by virtue of these rules any document is required to be served on any person and no other mode of service is prescribed by any Act or rule, the document may be served—(a) if the person to be served is acting in person, by delivering it to him personally or by delivering it at, or sending it by first-class post to, his address for service or, if he has no address for service—(i) by delivering the document at his residence or by sending it by first-class post to his last known residence …
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10.—(1) Subject to the provisions of any Act or rule (including the following paragraphs of this rule), service of a summons shall be effected—(a) by the plaintiff delivering the summons to the defendant personally; or (b) by an officer of the court sending it by first-class post to the defendant at the address stated in the request for the summons.
(2) Unless the plaintiff or his solicitor otherwise requests, service shall be effected in accordance with paragraph (1)(b) …’
As far as I have followed the history, these rules took their present form in the County Court Rules 1983.
In fact, though there is no reason whatever to doubt the plaintiff’s evidence that he had no knowledge of these facts before April 1992, in October 1986 the defendant emigrated to Spain and started a new career there as a guitarist and flamenco dancer. Since October 1986 his home has been at an address in Spain which he gives in an affidavit sworn on 29 April 1992. But he has retained the ownership of 13A Sparsholt Road, which he presumably uses when he visits London. More importantly, what actually happened to the summons issued to commence these proceedings is that in September 1991 a friend of the defendant, a Mr Palmer, collected the defendant’s mail at 13A Sparsholt Road on the defendant’s behalf and with his authority, and passed that mail, including the copy of the summons sent to that address by the county court, to the defendant himself in Spain. The defendant thus actually received the summons, albeit in Spain, on or about 22 September 1991, which was well within the 4 months which was available for the service of the summons under Ord 7, r 20.
However, having thus received the summons, the defendant did nothing until April 1992. I have no doubt that this inaction was deliberate, founded either on advice or on his own knowledge of procedure.
On the assumption that the summons had been duly served, and as the defendant had failed to reply to it, the plaintiff on 6 January 1992 obtained a default judgment in the county court for the sum claimed together with interest and costs. The plaintiff subsequently obtained a charging order on 13A Sparsholt Road in respect of the judgment debt.
On 14 April 1992 the defendant, by his solicitors, issued an application in the Clerkenwell County Court to set aside the default judgment of 6 January 1992 either as irregular on the ground that there had been no valid service of the summons on the defendant or alternatively on the ground that he had a good defence to the action and should be at liberty to defend.
That application came before Mr Roger Southcombe sitting as a deputy district judge on 22 June 1992, and he ordered that the judgment be set aside on the ground that the summons had not been served on the defendant. On that occasion the plaintiff appeared in person before the deputy district judge, and it may be doubted whether he was able to give the deputy district judge much assistance on the intricacies of the County Court Rules and the Rules of the Supreme Court.
Having instructed solicitors, the plaintiff appealed against the order of the deputy district judge, and his appeal came before Judge Aron Owen on 17 September 1992. The judge by his judgment and order of that date (1) upheld the view that the summons had not been properly served, (2) extended the time for service until 25 November 1992 purportedly under Ord 7, r 20(3), and (3) gave the defendant leave to defend the action conditionally on paying the sum of £2,849·98 into court within 14 days.
The defendant now appeals against that order. So far as point (3) in the order is concerned it is plain, and is conceded by counsel for the plaintiff, that, if the
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summons had not been served, and the judge was granting the plaintiff the indulgence of an extension of time to effect service, the judge had no power whatever to order the defendant to bring money into court.
As I have mentioned, the plaintiff was given leave by this court to serve a respondent’s notice out of time. The application by the plaintiff’s counsel for that leave was opposed by counsel for the defendant. It is clearly shown that the reason why the application was out of time was that the plaintiff had difficulties over legal aid. One of the oddities of this case is that though the plaintiff had legal aid in the court below his application for legal aid to resist the defendant’s appeal was initially refused. When he had finally been granted legal aid to resist the appeal there was further delay until he was granted legal aid to serve the respondent’s notice by way of cross-appeal. The problem of the ever-increasing cost of legal aid is well known, and it may well be right that the Legal Aid Board should scrutinise all applications for legal aid more rigorously than may have been the practice before. Whatever the reason, I have found it to be increasingly the case, latterly, that proceedings are held up because one or other party is having difficulty over legal aid. Counsel for the defendant submitted that the time limits in the rules are there to be observed and that the litigant should be required to take at his own expense all steps necessary to comply with the time limits until legal aid has been actually granted. But to apply a general rule to that effect would be unjust, and in the present case, where it is obviously right that the plaintiff should have been granted legal aid, I do not criticise him or his advisers at all for not serving the respondent’s notice until legal aid had been granted.
Against that background, the issues for this court are: (1) on the appeal, whether the judge was entitled to extend the period for service of the summons as he did, and (2) on the cross-appeal, whether no extension was needed, because the summons was validly served during the 4-month period of its initial validity. The defendant’s position is that the summons was initially valid for service for 4 months only, ie until 25 November 1991, that the summons was not validly served during that period because the defendant was outside the jurisdiction, and that an application to extend the period for service could only be entertained if made before 25 November or during the 4 months immediately after that date, ie up to 25 March 1992; after 25 March 1992 the court had no power at all to extend the period for service, and the only course for the plaintiff was to issue fresh proceedings which would inevitably be statute-barred.
The appeal
The provisions of the County Court Rules as to the duration and renewal of a summons are contained in Ord 7, r 20 as follows:
‘(1) The time within which a summons may be served shall, unless extended under the following provisions of this rule, be limited—(a) where leave to serve the summons out of England and Wales is required under Order 8, rule 2, to a period of 6 months; (b) in any other case to a period of 4 months, beginning with the date of issue of the summons.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the court may extend the period of service of a summons from time to time for such period, not exceeding 4 months at any one time, beginning with the day next following that on which it would otherwise expire, as the court may specify, if an application for extension is made before that day or such later day (if any) as the court may allow.
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(3) Where the court is satisfied on an application under paragraph (2) that, despite the making of all reasonable efforts, it may not be possible to serve the summons within 4 months, the court may, if it thinks fit, extend the period for service for such period, not exceeding 12 months, as the court may specify.’
The rule applies to all summonses issued since 4 June 1990. Before that the rule provided for a period of 12 months for service and for renewal for periods not exceeding 12 months at any one time, ie disregarding the present para (1)(a) it was in the terms of paras (1) and (2) with references to 12 months, and not 4 months, in each and with no counterpart of para (3).
Under the former rule it was clearly established that a first application for the renewal of a summons which had not been served could not be made more than 24 months after the date of issue of the summons (see the judgment of Roskill LJ in Chappell v Cooper, Player v Bruguiere [1980] 2 All ER 463 at 468–469, [1980] 1 WLR 958 at 965–966).
Apart from para (3) of the present r 20, the same reasoning must lead to the result that a first application for the renewal of a summons which has not been served cannot be made more than 8 months after the date of issue of the summons, ie on the dates in the present case after 25 March 1992.
Paragraph (3) gives a limited power to grant an extension for a period not exceeding 12 months, rather than a period not exceeding 4 months. But the wording of para (3) looks forward, and not back, as at the time the application is made ‘where the court is satisfied on an application under paragraph (2) that … it may not be possible to serve the summons within 4 months’. The natural meaning, in my judgment, of the reference to 4 months in para (3), in view of the interrelation between paras (3) and (2), is that it is the 4 months referred to in para (2), viz 4 months beginning with the day next following that on which the period of service would otherwise expire. But as para (3) is looking forward, it must, in my judgment, follow that an extension not exceeding 12 months cannot be granted on an application launched more than 4 months after the day next following that on which the period of service would otherwise have expired, because it would be inconsistent with the forward-looking approach to apply para (3) where the 4 months referred to in it has wholly expired before the application is made; ‘may not be possible to serve the summons within 4 months’ does not fit a scenario where the 4 months referred to has wholly expired before the application for the extension is made.
If, as the alternative, the 4 months referred to in para (3) is taken as the 4 months from when the application for an extension for the period for service is made (ie the appeal by the plaintiff against the decision of the deputy district judge) that would be inconsistent with the whole scheme of r 20 under which the various periods not exceeding 4 or 12 months are measured from when the period of service would otherwise have expired. It would also not assist the plaintiff since by the time his application for an extension was made he knew, from the April affidavit, the defendant’s address in Spain, and he also knew that the defendant had solicitors in England, and so there was no basis on which the court could be satisfied that despite the making of all reasonable efforts it might not be possible to serve the summons within 4 months.
On any view, therefore, the judge had no power under para (3) of r 20 to grant the extension of the period of service which he granted by his order.
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The cross-appeal
I have already set out the provisions for postal service in CCR Ord 7, r 1 and r 10 in their present form.
Postal service of originating process in the High Court is authorised by RSC Ord 10, r 1, which provides as follows:
‘General provisions
1.—(1) A writ must be served personally on each defendant by the plaintiff or his agent.
(2) A writ for service on a defendant within the jurisdiction may, instead of being served personally on him, be served—(a) by sending a copy of the writ by ordinary first-class post to the defendant at his usual or last known address, or (b) if there is a letter box for that address, by inserting through the letter box a copy of the writ enclosed in a sealed envelope addressed to the defendant.’
Thus it is expressly provided that postal service of process in the High Court can only be effected on a defendant within the jurisdiction. The words ‘within the jurisdiction’ refer to the physical presence of the defendant at the time of service and not to where the writ is or the premises to which it is posted are (see Barclays Bank of Swaziland Ltd v Hahn [1989] 2 All ER 398 at 402, [1989] 1 WLR 506 at 510–511 per Lord Brightman).
The crucial question is therefore whether a similar limitation has to be read into CCR Ord 7, rr 1 and 10 in order to limit postal service to service on defendants who at the time of actual or deemed service are physically within the jurisdiction.
If such limitation does have to be read in, then it cannot help the plaintiff that Mr Palmer, the defendant’s agent who collected the summons and any other mail from 13A Sparsholt Road, was within the jurisdiction when he collected it, because the defendant himself was not within the jurisdiction at that time.
There are of course separate provisions in RSC Ord 11 and CCR Ord 8 which provide for service of process out of the jurisdiction. They have no relevance to this case, since although service on a defendant resident in Spain can be effected without leave of the court, the summons in this case does not satisfy the requirements of Ord 8 as to the form of a summons to be served out of the jurisdiction under the European Convention on the Jurisdiction and Enforcement of Judgments in Civil and Commercial Matters (see the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982). The receipt of the summons by the defendant in Spain cannot be regarded as constituting service in Spain under Ord 8.
So far as the Rules of the Supreme Court are concerned, the postal service of process on individuals (as opposed to postal service under the Companies Act 1985) was introduced for the first time in 1979 by amendment of Ord 10, r 1. Since the amendment took effect, paras (1) and (2) of Ord 10, r 1 have been in the same form as now, providing only for postal service ‘on a defendant within the jurisdiction’. Before the amendment, Ord 10, r 1, as appears from The Supreme Court Practice 1979, provided only for personal service.
So far as the County Court Rules are concerned, the history is considerably more complicated, because the County Court Rules were extensively revised when the County Court Rules 1981, which came into force in September 1982, superseded the whole of the County Court Rules 1936.
The present wording of Ord 7, rr 1 and 10(1) and (2), as set out above, has appeared in The County Court Practice since 1984. Before that, in The County Court
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Practice 1982 and 1983 there was a somewhat differently worded provision in Ord 7, rr 1 and 10(2) for postal service by an officer of the court where a certificate for postal service had been given. That provision was taken over from CCR 1936 Ord 8, r 8, under which the certificate for postal service had to be in the prescribed Form 6.
The provisions as to postal service by an officer of the court where a certificate for postal service has been given, and the wording of Form 6, as set out in The County Court Practice 1980 go back with minor modifications only at least to CCR 1936 Ord 8, r 8 (especially para (2)) and Form 6 as set out in The County Court Practice 1959.
Form 6 had a good deal in its favour, in that it required a plaintiff seeking postal service to certify that he had reason to believe that the summons if sent by post to the defendant at the specified address would come to the defendant’s knowledge within a specified number of days after the day on which the summons would be delivered in the ordinary course of post, and it also required him to acknowledge that if a judgment obtained after postal service was set aside on the ground that the service did not give the defendant adequate notice of the proceedings, the plaintiff might be ordered to pay the costs of setting the judgment aside. Presumably Form 6 was dispensed with because it was appreciated that in the overwhelming majority of cases the simple procedure of postal service under the County Court Rules was accepted without challenge.
Against that history of the rules, I find it impossible by any process of mere construction to limit the scope of the present CCR Ord 7, rr 1 and 10 to service only on a defendant ‘within the jurisdiction’, by analogy to RSC Ord 10, r 1.
It is suggested that none the less the court can and should limit the scope of CCR Ord 7, rr 1 and 10 by reference to RSC Ord 10, r 1, because s 76 of the County Courts Act 1984 (which replaced an earlier statutory provision to the same effect) provides:
‘In any case not expressly provided for by or in pursuance of this Act, the general principles of practice in the High Court may be adopted and applied to proceedings in a county court.’
But that section is primarily directed to extending the powers of the county court where the County Court Rules make no express provision—not to curtailing express provisions in the County Court Rules. For my part, I regard the limitation in RSC Ord 10, r 1, as interpreted in Barclays Bank of Swaziland Ltd v Hahn [1989] 2 All ER 398, [1989] 1 WLR 506, to postal service on defendants who are within the jurisdiction at the time of service as a very specific limitation, and not a general principle of practice in the High Court within the meaning of s 76. Postal service itself is a matter of specific rules, and not a matter of general principles of practice.
Accordingly, I would hold that the summons was properly served under the County Court Rules. It follows that the default judgment was regular. Since the defendant had actually received the summons, albeit in Spain, before the summons ceased to be valid for service, there was no basis for the judge to treat the summons as not having been served, as there might have been if the defendant could have shown that he had never received it.
In the upshot therefore I would allow the cross-appeal, and would vary the order of the judge by deleting the extension of time for service in para 3 and substituting a declaration that the summons was validly served during its period of validity. The order in para 1 setting aside the default judgment should however stand, so that the defendant can meet the claim on the merits, but the
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direction in para 4 giving the defendant leave to defend on his paying into court the sum not in dispute, within a period which will have to be adjusted, should also stand as the summons was validly served. Setting aside the charging order must follow from the setting aside of the judgment.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. I agree.
Appeal dismissed. Cross-appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Securities and Investments Board v Lloyd-Wright and another
[1993] 4 All ER 210
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MORRITT J
Hearing Date(s): 11 MAY 1993
Practice – Pre-trial relief – Mareva injunction – Cross-undertaking in damages – Securities and Investment Board – Worldwide Mareva injunction granted to Securities and Investment Board against defendants – Whether board required to give cross-undertaking in damages – Financial Services Act 1986, ss 6(1), 61(1).
The plaintiff, the Securities and Investments Board, was granted, pending a full inter partes hearing, certain interim injunctions against the defendants under the Financial Services Act 1986 including a worldwide Mareva injunction restraining them from dealing with any of their assets. The defendants accepted that the board was entitled to the Mareva injunction but claimed that the board should be required to give a cross-undertaking in damages as the price for obtaining the injunction. The defendants contended that having regard to the draconian nature of the Mareva injunction it did not fall strictly within the plaintiff’s law enforcement duties and therefore the board should not be exempted from giving a cross-undertaking.
Held – The court had a discretion not to require a cross-undertaking in damages when granting a Mareva injunction to a designated agency which was seeking to discharge functions exercisable pursuant to statutory delegation. In the exercise of that discretion the court would not require the board to give a cross-undertaking in damages as the price for obtaining the Mareva injunction against the defendants, since the cause of action which justified the grant of the injunction was contained in ss 6(1)a and 61(1)b of the 1986 Act, both of which
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authorised the board to claim monetary restitution for the benefit of those who suffered losses as a result of an unauthorised business and also provided for the grant of an injunction. In both cases the remedy was provided by the 1986 Act for the benefit of the public at large or those who suffered from an infringement of the 1986 Act and was a matter of law enforcement. The fact that a worldwide Mareva injunction was draconian in nature did not prevent the granting of the injunction being law enforcement, but merely reflected the fact that the activities of the defendants might be worldwide. The application for a cross-undertaking in damages would therefore be refused (see p 214 d to h and p 215 a to c, post).
F Hoffmann-La Roche & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128 and Kirklees Metropolitan BC v Wickes Building Supplies Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 717 applied.
NotesFor undertakings as to injunctions generally, see 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 982–986, and for cases on the subject, see 28(4) Digest (2nd reissue) 396–402, 6856–6919.
For the Financial Services Act 1986, ss 6, 61, see 30 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 173, 233.
Cases referred to in judgment
Babanaft International Co SA v Bassatne [1989] 1 All ER 433, [1990] Ch 13, [1989] 2 WLR 232, CA.
Highfield Commodities Ltd, Re [1984] 3 All ER 884, [1985] 1 WLR 149, [1984] BCLC 623.
Hoffmann-La Roche (F) & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128, [1975] AC 295, [1974] 3 WLR 104, HL.
Kirklees Metropolitan BC v Wickes Building Supplies Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 717, [1993] AC 227, [1992] 3 WLR 170, HL.
Motion
By a motion dated 21 April 1993 the plaintiff, the Securities and Investments Board (the SIB), sought, inter alia, orders that the defendants, Ian Francis Lloyd-Wright and LW Investment Corp, be restrained until judgment or further order (i) from carrying on or purporting to carry on investment business in the United Kingdom contrary to s 3 of the Financial Services Act 1986, (ii) from making statements, promises or forecasts which they knew to be misleading, false or deceptive and/or dishonestly concealing material facts and/or recklessly making (dishonestly or otherwise) such statements, promises or forecasts for the purpose of inducing or being reckless as to whether they might induce other persons to enter or offer to enter into investment agreements and in particular from representing or holding out to any person that any of the defendants was a person authorised to conduct investment business in the United Kingdom pursuant to the 1986 Act or any part thereof, (iii) from, in the course of or in consequence of either them making unsolicited calls upon persons within England or Wales by way of business, entering into investment agreements with any of the persons on whom the calls were or had been made or procuring or endeavouring to procure any such person to enter into such an agreement in breach of s 56 of the 1986 Act, (iv) from, without prior written consent of the the SIB’s solicitor, pledging, leasing, alienating, charging, transferring, parting with possession of, diminishing or disposing of or dealing
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in any manner whatsoever with any of the assets of either of them (whether the same were held directly or indirectly through any company, trust, partnership or other entity) wheresoever the same might be situate including any balances in any bank accounts in the name of either of them or held on behalf or under the control of either of them (whether alone or jointly with any other person or persons) and in particular (but without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing) in the accounts listed in the motion, (v) an order that the defendants within ten days after the service of the order upon them respectively make and serve on the the SIB’s solicitors an affidavit or affidavits setting out the full value of their respective funds and assets wheresoever situate and identifying with particularity the nature of all such funds and assets and their respective whereabouts and exhibiting relevant documents of title and whether the same was held in the name or names of either of them or by nominees or otherwise on behalf of either of them and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing specifying the identity of all bank and other accounts in the name of either of them or held jointly with any other person or persons and the sums standing to the credit or debit of such accounts, and (vi) an order restraining the defendants until judgment or further order from dealing with or causing or procuring any dealing with the assets of any of the companies listed in the second schedule to the notice of motion without the consent of the plaintiff or the leave of the court save in so far as any such dealing was for full value in the ordinary course of business of the relevant company but so that for the purpose of any order to be made it should not be in the ordinary course of business of any relevant company directly or indirectly to make any payment to or confer any benefit on the defendants. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Christopher Pymont (instructed by Stephenson Harwood) for the SIB.
Mark Pelling (instructed by Fox & Gibbons) for the defendants.
MORRITT J. This is a motion by the Securities and Investments Board against two defendants, Mr Ian Francis Lloyd-Wright and LW Investment Corp. The application and the cause of action of the SIB (as I shall refer to it) arise under the Financial Services Act 1986. It is agreed between the parties that injunctive relief should be granted over 8 June, pending evidence being put in by the defendants and a further inter partes hearing on or after that date. In the meantime, as I have indicated, there are to be injunctions or undertakings in force.
The only issue now before me is whether the price for those injunctions or undertakings should be a cross-undertaking in damages given by the SIB, as the defendants claim or whether, by analogy with the decision of the House of Lords in Kirklees Metropolitan BC v Wickes Building Supplies Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 717, [1993] AC 227 and the position of a local authority, the court should not require a cross-undertaking from the plaintiff.
For the SIB I have been referred to the Kirklees case and the earlier case of Re Highfield Commodities Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 884, [1985] 1 WLR 149. In Re Highfield Commodities Ltd Megarry V-C, having considered the decision of the House of Lords in F Hoffmann-La Roche & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128, [1975] AC 295, concluded that the Secretary of State for Trade, in seeking the appointment of a provisional liquidator under a petition presented pursuant to s 35 of the Companies Act 1967, namely on the ground that it was in the public interest that the company should be wound up, was not required to give a cross-undertaking in damages. The decision of Megarry V-C
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is adequately summarised in the headnote to Re Highfield Commodities Ltd [1984] BCLC 623 at 623):
‘Where the Secretary of State was seeking to enforce the law, or was acting selflessly in the performance of a public duty directly or impliedly imposed by statute, rather than asserting a proprietary claim of the Crown, an undertaking in damages would not be required as the price of obtaining the appointment of a provisional liquidator or of resisting his removal unless the company established special circumstances which justified the imposition of such a requirement.’
In the Kirklees case the decision of the House of Lords is adequately reflected in the following terms ([1993] AC 227 at 228):
‘... that there was no rule that the Crown was exempt from giving a cross-undertaking in damages in law enforcement proceedings, but that the court had a discretion not to require the undertaking and that the discretion extended to other public authorities exercising the function of law enforcement in appropriate circumstances ...’
Lord Goff of Chieveley quoted extensively from the speech of Lord Diplock in the earlier case of Hoffmann-La Roche:
‘When, however, a statute provides that compliance with its provisions shall be enforceable by civil proceedings by the Crown for an injunction, and particularly if this is the only method of enforcement for which it provides, the Crown does owe a duty to the public at large to initiate proceedings to secure that the law is not flouted, and not simply to leave it to the chance that some relator may be willing to incur the expense and trouble of doing so.’ (See Kirklees BC v Wickes Building Supplies Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 717 at 727, [1993] AC 227 at 272–273.)
The injunctions or undertakings which have been agreed in this case fall into a number of separate categories. The first injunction seeks to enforce s 3 of the 1986 Act, and restrains the unauthorised carrying on of investment business in the United Kingdom. That section is enforceable by injunction, pursuant to s 6 of the 1986 Act, and the SIB is entitled to apply for that injunction, pursuant to the delegation by the Secretary of State to the SIB. Paragraph 2 of the notice of motion seeks an injunction restraining statements or forecasts which are misleading and contrary to s 47. Paragraph 3 seeks an injunction to restrain unsolicited calls on persons within the United Kingdom, contrary to s 56. The remedy by way of injunction to enforce ss 47 and 56 is conferred by s 61. As with s 6, s 61 entitles the Secretary of State to apply for an injunction, and those powers have been delegated by the Secretary of State to the SIB.
With regard to those three injunctions it is accepted by counsel for the defendants that the SIB has a strictly law enforcement function and that, consistently with the decisions of the House of Lords in Hoffmann-La Roche and Kirklees Metropolitan BC, it would not be appropriate that there should be a cross-undertaking of damages.
But para 4 he claims to be in a totally different position. That contains a worldwide Mareva injunction against the defendants, restraining them from dealing with any of their assets (wherever they may be), subject to the usual provisos as in Babanaft International Co SA v Bassatne [1989] 1 All ER 433, [1990] Ch 13 and other cases. Counsel for the defendants claims that such an order is draconian in its nature, and is not strictly law enforcement within the definition
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of Lord Diplock, and is something for which the court should be concerned to impose a cross-undertaking in damages on the SIB. For the SIB it is pointed out that the cause of action which justifies the grant of the Mareva injunction is likewise contained in ss 6 and 61 of the 1986 Act. I will not read those sections, because I do not think the detail is material. But in the case of infringements of s 3—that is to say the unauthorised carrying on of an investment business—s 6 not only authorises the grant of an injunction, it also authorises the Secretary of State (or now the SIB) to claim monetary restitution for the benefit of those who may have suffered losses as a result of the unauthorised business; or, alternatively, to make the person carrying on that business disgorge any profits. In either case the money is to be distributed amongst such persons as the court may direct. There is, therefore, a statutory mechanism for enforcing s 3 by obtaining monetary judgments against the person who infringed it. Likewise, in the case of s 61, that confers, in addition to the ability to apply for an injunction to restrain breaches of ss 47 and 56, the jurisdiction to make monetary judgments either to provide restitution for those who suffered losses or to obtain from the person who infringed the sections the profits that he wrongfully made.
In each case, therefore, be it monetary or injunctive, the remedy is one provided by statute and is provided to the Secretary of State, not for his own benefit but for the benefit of the public at large or those who have suffered from the infringement of the 1986 Act. It seems to me that in each case they are as much law enforcement as the grant of an interlocutory injunction. The fact that a worldwide Mareva injunction is a draconian remedy does not prevent the grant of it being law enforcement, but merely reflects the fact that the activities of the defendants may be worldwide.
It seems to me, therefore, that the considerations which justify not requiring a cross-undertaking in damages in relation to paras 1, 2 and 3 of the order, likewise justify not requiring such an undertaking in relation to para 4 of the order.
In addition, there are the provisions of s 187(3) of the 1986 Act. These provide that neither the SIB, as a designated agency, nor any member, officer or servant of it, is to be liable in damages for anything done or omitted in the discharge, or purported discharge, of the functions exercisable by the agency by virtue of the delegation order; or, as the case may be, the functions exercisable by the body, by virtue of a transfer order, unless the act or omission is shown to have been in bad faith.
I do not think, contrary to the submissions of counsel for the SIB, that that subsection prevents the court from requiring a cross-undertaking in damages. Rather, it seems to me to be a clear pointer in the exercise of the discretion, which the court undoubtedly has, to indicate that no such cross-undertaking should be required where the designated agency is, in fact, seeking to discharge functions exercisable pursuant to a delegation under the 1986 Act. It seems to me that that is a matter which, in the exercise of my discretion, I should take into account in concluding that no cross-undertaking should be required.
In addition, as I understand it, since the 1986 Act came into force, following the various commencement orders in 1987, this point has been before the court on a number of occasions. There has not previously been any argument, but I have been told (and I understand this to be the case) the invariable practice of the judges of this division has been not to require a cross-undertaking in damages in cases not confined to the grant of injunctions, as in paras 1, 2 and 3 of the order in this case.
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For the reasons I have endeavoured to explain, I do not require a cross-undertaking in damages from the SIB in relation to the Mareva injunction and, as conceded, it would not be appropriate to require one in relation to paras 1, 2 or 3 either.
Application for cross-undertakings in damages refused.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
R v Atakpu and another
[1993] 4 All ER 215
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): STUART-SMITH LJ, WARD AND MAY JJ
Hearing Date(s): 25 JANUARY, 15 MARCH 1993
Criminal law – Theft – Appropriation – Appropriation outside jurisdiction – Accused using false names to hire motor vehicles in Germany and Belgium with intent to sell them in England – Theft of vehicles committed outside jurisdiction – Whether theft committed at time of fraudulent hire – Whether goods once stolen could be stolen again by thief exercising same or other rights of ownership over property – Whether later dealings with property by thief can amount to appropriation – Theft Act 1968, s 3(1).
The appellants embarked upon a scheme to hire expensive motor cars abroad, have them driven into the United Kingdom and then, after altering the vehicles, to sell them on to unsuspecting purchasers. They obtained false passports and driving licences in England and used those documents to hire two cars in Frankfurt and a further car in Brussels. The cars were then driven to Ostende and put on the ferry to Dover. On their arrival in England, still within the hiring period, they were stopped by customs officers and arrested and charged with conspiracy to steal. They were convicted. They appealed on the ground that the crime, having been committed outside the jurisdiction, was not triable in England, since no ‘appropriation’ amounting to theft within s 3(1)a of the Theft Act 1968 had taken place in England.
Held – If goods had once been stolen, they could not be stolen again by the same thief exercising the same or other rights of ownership over the property, and where a thief came by property by stealing it his later dealings with the property could not be an assumption of rights of an owner amounting to an appropriation within s 3(1) of the 1968 Act, whether the theft occurred within the jurisdiction or abroad. Accordingly, if a person stole property abroad and brought it into England for dishonest gain the theft was nevertheless committed abroad and he could not be charged with theft in England. Since on the facts the appellants’ theft of the cars had been committed abroad and
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they could not steal again in England, since the theft was not continuing, they could not be charged in England. It followed that the appeal would be allowed (see p 223 j to p 224 a b f, post).
R v Gomez [1993] 1 All ER 1 applied.
Notes
For what amounts to theft, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 541, for what amounts to appropriation, see ibid para 543, and for cases on the subject see 14(2) Digest (2nd reissue) 262–267, 7827–7845.
For the Theft Act 1968, s 3, see 12 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 487.
Cases referred to in judgment
Board of Trade v Owen [1975] 1 All ER 411, [1957] AC 602, [1957] 2 WLR 351, HL.
Dobson v General Accident Fire and Life Assurance Corp plc [1989] 3 All ER 927, [1990] 1 QB 274, [1989] 3 WLR 1066, CA.
Lawrence v Comr of Police for the Metropolois [1971] 2 All ER 1253, [1972] AC 626, [1971] 3 WLR 225, CA.
R v Figures [1977] Crim LR 744, CA.
R v Gomez [1993] 1 All ER 1, [1993] AC 442, [1992] 3 WLR 1067, HL; rvsg [1991] 3 All ER 394, [1991] 1 WLR 1334, CA.
R v Gregory (1983) 77 Cr App R 41, CA.
R v Hale (1978) 68 Cr App R 415, CA.
R v Hircock (1978) 67 Cr App R 278, CA.
R v Meech [1973] 3 All ER 939, [1974] QB 549, [1973] 3 WLR 507, CA.
R v Morris, Anderton v Burnside [1983] 3 All ER 288, [1984] AC 320, [1983] 3 WLR 697, HL.
R v Pitham and Hehl (1976) 65 Cr App R 45, CA.
R v Skipp [1975] Crim LR 114, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
DPP v Doot [1973] 1 All ER 940, [1973] AC 807, HL.
Liangsiriprasert v US Government [1990] 2 All ER 866, [1991] 1 AC 225, PC.
R v Cox (Peter) [1968] 1 All ER 410, [1968] 1 WLR 88, CA.
R v Hornett [1975] RTR 256, CA.
Treacy v DPP [1971] 1 All ER 110, [1971] AC 537, HL.
Appeal against conviction
Austin Atakpu and Alistair Abrahams appealed with the leave of the full court against their conviction on 10 May 1991 in the Crown Court at Maidstone before Judge Keith Simpson and a jury of conspiracy to steal, for which they were each sentenced to three years’ imprisonment. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
James Cartwright (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellants.
Anthony Webb (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Kent) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
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15 March 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
WARD J. This court entertains not the slightest doubt that the Maidstone jury correctly concluded on 10 May 1991 that these appellants were a pair of thoroughly dishonest rascals. The issue in this appeal, so utterly devoid of merit, is whether or not their conviction of a conspiracy to steal is still sustainable. They appeal with leave of the full court, leave having been refused by the single judge who was prepared only to grant leave to appeal against that part of their sentence which recommended their deportation. He saw nothing whatever wrong with the sentence of three years’ imprisonment which Judge Keith Simpson had imposed. They have served their sentences.
The facts of their disreputable endeavour can be quite shortly stated. The prosecution satisfied the jury that these appellants embarked on a simple but audacious scheme to hire expensive motor cars abroad, have them driven into the United Kingdom but then, after ringing the changes to the vehicles, to sell them on to unsuspecting purchasers. Their first step was to create false identities for themselves. That they did by prevailing on a co-accused, Brian Saunders, to apply for British visitors passports on 12 June 1990, one from a post office in Maida Vale in the false name of Pearce, which was the identity assumed by Abrahams, and the other from a post office at Swiss Cottage in the name of Green, which was the identity assumed by Atakpu. They also procured false driving licences in the names of Pearce and Green. Saunders pleaded guilty to two counts of making untrue statements to procure passports and was sentenced to six months’ imprisonment concurrent on each count, but suspended for two years. These appellants were also charged with similar offences and with going equipped for theft, but upon their pleading not guilty, those counts were left on the file not to be proceeded with without the leave of the court.
On the same day, 12 July 1990, Thomas Cook’s travel agency close to the Swiss Cottage post office arranged, at the request of a man named Green, for a luxury motor car to be hired from ‘downtown Frankfurt’ and the appropriate vouchers were issued. On the same day at Gatwick airport two return air tickets to Frankfurt were issued in the names of Pearce and Green for an outward flight on the following day and the package included the hiring of two more luxury motor cars to be collected at Frankfurt airport.
The mythical Messrs Pearce and Green duly flew to Frankfurt on 13 July. At about 8.35 am on 14 July a Mr Green hired a Mercedes 300SE motor car from the Hertz city office, or the so-called ‘downtown’ office, and at about 8.58 am. Hertz at Frankfurt airport hired a Mercedes 190E to a black man giving the name Pearce. Later that morning that office hired a BMW automatic to an African man whose identity was established by the production of a British visitor’s passport in the name of Green, a copy of which passport was kept by Hertz. The prosecution contended, without doubt correctly, that the photograph was one of Atakpu.
It would seem that the Mercedes 300SE was then driven to Brussels but broke down in Belgium and was replaced with a BMW by the Brussels office of Hertz. From there the appellants drove to Ghent where they recruited their co-accused, deLigne, to go back with them to Frankfurt to collect the two cars still parked in Frankfurt. On the way they were stopped for speeding and Atakpu, otherwise known as Green, produced his passport and paid an immediate fine. The two cars were duly collected from Frankfurt and the
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convoy of three returned to Ghent where they recruited the co-accused, Miss Englen. deLigne drove the replacement BMW to Ostende, boarded the ferry to Dover, left the car in Dover and returned to Ostende. The co-accused then collected the remaining two vehicles and boarded the Dover ferry. The 4 accused shared a cabin and arrived at Dover in the early hours of 16 July. The appellants left the ferry as foot passengers. Englen drove the Mercedes 190 and deLigne the BMW into the customs shed but were stopped by the customs officers. Their suspicions were aroused by finding four boarding cards with consecutive numbers in Englen’s car. deLigne also aroused suspicion. It was not long before the appellants were arrested. In their possession were excess travel tickets issued by British Rail for the journey between Victoria and Gatwick during the late afternoon of 13 July, the airline tickets and boarding cards, torn British visitor’s passports, driving licences and the hire documentation all variously bearing the names of Pearce and Green. Atakpu had in his possession the keys to the BMW which had been left in Dover. It was recovered from the car park. The period of hire of the two vehicles taken in Frankfurt would have expired within a matter of hours and the Brussels BMW not long thereafter.
The case of the co-accused was that they knew the appellants as Pearce and Green and that whilst they may have had some idea that the purpose of their involvement was to evade import duty, they had no idea that the vehicles had been stolen. They were acquitted. Atakpu’s case was that he owned a garage in London and through a contact had purchased the vehicles at preferential rates from Hertz. He said he met Abrahams by chance on the ferry to Ostende, a version supported by Abrahams. The jury’s verdict makes it clear, and this is no surprise to us, that they did not believe a word of the appellants’ evidence.
Mr Cartwright, who now appears for both appellants, having represented only Abrahams in the court below, frankly acknowledges that the appellants’ purpose in the endeavour was dishonest gain and accordingly this appeal is conspicuously without merit. Nonetheless he submits, unattractive though the submission may be, that the learned judge was wrong not to accede to the submission made at the conclusion of the case for the Crown that the court had no jurisdiction to try the conspiracy which was charged because it involved the commission of crime outside the United Kingdom. The defendants had submitted that the offence committed should be characterised as an obtaining by deception rather than as theft, but whether deception or theft the offence was one committed in Germany and Belgium. These submissions fell on stony ground. The Crown were not required to respond.
The material part of his judgment was quite tersely stated and the reasons for the conclusion are not clearly given. The learned judge relied on R v Gomez decided by the Court of Appeal, Criminal Division in the week preceding the trial and subsequently reported ([1991] 3 All ER 394, [1991] 1 WLR 1334). It is apparent from the way he eventually summed up that he took the view which was entirely permissible in the light of that decision that there was no theft in Germany or Belgium but that since there was overwhelming evidence that the vehicles would be retained in England after the expiration of the period of hire, that such retention would be an appropriation, clearly dishonest, of property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it and would thus constitute a theft within the jurisdiction. The learned judge was probably right at the
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time but an appeal in R v Gomez has since been allowed and it is, therefore, necessary for us to consider some of the wide ranging implications of that decision of the House of Lords now reported (see R v Gomez [1993] 1 All ER 1, [1993] AC 442).
We begin by recording that it was common ground that: (1) the appellants would only be guilty if they had agreed that a course of conduct should be pursued which, if the agreement had been carried out in accordance with their intentions, necessarily amounted to or involved the commission of an offence which was triable in England and Wales: Board of Trade v Owen [1957] 1 All ER 411, [1957] AC 602 and the Criminal Law Act 1977 as amended; (2) a theft committed abroad is not triable in England and Wales. Accordingly the question in this appeal now boils down simply to where the theft of these motor cars was committed—in Germany/Belgium or in England. As we have indicated, the learned judge followed the judgment of the Court of Appeal in R v Gomez [1991] 3 All ER 394 at 398, [1991] 1 WLR 1334 at 1338 where Lord Lane CJ said:
‘There is no appropriation at the moment when he takes possession of the goods because he was entitled to do so under the terms of the contract for sale, a contract which is, it is true, voidable, but has not been avoided at the time the goods are handed over’,
and later he said ([1991] 3 All ER 394 at 400, [1991] 1 WLR 1334 at 1339–1340):
‘We therefore conclude that there was a de facto, albeit voidable, contract between the owners and Ballay, that it was by virtue of that contract that Ballay took possession of the goods, that accordingly the transfer of the goods to him was with the consent and express authority of the owner and that accordingly there was no lack of authorisation and no appropriation.’
Had that been a correct statement of the law there would have been no appropriation and consequently no theft when the cars were driven away from Hertz, but there would have been an appropriation when the hirers used them after their authority to do so had expired with the effluxion of the time of the hire period which, in the events here, would have occurred when the vehicles were in England. Accordingly the theft would have occurred in England and jurisdiction would have been established.
The points of law of general public importance certified in R v Gomez [1993] 1 All ER 1 at 4, [1993] AC 442 at 454 were:
‘When theft is alleged and that which is alleged to be stolen passes to the defendant with the consent of the owner, but that has been obtained by a false representation, has, a) an appropriation within the meaning of s. 1(i) of the Theft Act, 1968, taken place, or, b) must such a passing of property necessarily involve an element of adverse [interference] with or usurpation of some right of the owner?’
Question (a) was answered in the affirmative and (b) in the negative, Lord Lowry dissenting.
The House of Lords had to examine the apparent conflict between their decisions in Lawrence v Comr of Police for the Metropolis [1971] 2 All ER 1253, [1972] AC 626 and R v Morris, Anderton v Burnside [1983] 3 All ER 288, [1984] AC 320. Of Lawrence Lord Keith, with whom Lord Jauncey, Lord
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Browne-Wilkinson and Lord Slynn concurred, observed that ([1993] 1 All ER 1 at 7, [1993] AC 442 at 457):
‘It will be seen that Viscount Dilhorne’s speech contains two clear pronouncements, first that it is no longer an ingredient of the offence of theft that the taking should be without the owner’s consent and, second, that an appropriation may occur even though the owner has permitted or consented to the property being taken.’
Of R v Morris Lord Keith said ([1993] 1 All ER 1 at 9, [1993] AC 442 at 459):
‘… Lord Roskill was undoubtedly right when he said in the course of the passage quoted that the assumption by the defendant of any of the rights of an owner could amount to an appropriation within the meaning of s 3(1), and that the removal of an article from the shelf and the changing of the price label on it constituted the assumption of one of the rights of the owner and hence an appropriation within the meaning of the subsection … it seems to me that the switching of price labels on the article is in itself an assumption of one of the rights of the owner, whether or not it is accompanied by some other act such as removing the article from the shelf and placing it in a basket or trolley. No one but the owner has the right to remove a price label from an article or to place a price label upon it. If anyone else does so, he does an act, as Lord Roskill puts it, by way of adverse interference with or usurpation of that right.’
Lord Keith then parted company with Lord Roskill. Lord Keith said ([1993] 1 All ER 1 at 9, [1993] AC 442 at 460):
‘On the facts of the two cases [in Lawrence and Morris] it was unnecessary to decide whether, as argued by counsel for the prosecution, the mere taking of the article from the shelf and putting it in a trolley or other receptacle amounted to the assumption of one of the rights of the owner, and hence an appropriation. There was much to be said in favour of the view that it did, in respect that doing so gave the shopper control of the article and the capacity to exclude any other shopper from taking it. However, Lord Roskill expressed the opinion, that it did not, on the ground that the concept of appropriation in the context of s 3(1): ‘‘involves not an act expressly or impliedly authorised by the owner but an act by way of adverse interference with or usurpation of those rights.’' While it is correct to say that appropriation for purposes of s 3(1) includes the latter sort of act, it does not necessarily follow that no other act can amount to an appropriation and in particular that no act expressly or impliedly authorised by the owner can in any circumstances do so. Indeed Lawrence’s case is a clear decision to the contrary since it laid down unequivocally that an act may be an appropriation notwithstanding that it is done with the consent of the owner. It does not appear to me that any sensible distinction can be made in this context between consent and authorisation.’
Lord Keith says ([1993] 1 All ER 1 at 12, [1993] AC 442 at 464):
‘The actual decision in R v Morris was correct, but it was erroneous, in addition to being unnecessary for the decision, to indicate that an act expressly or impliedly authorised by the owner could never amount to an
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appropriation. There is no material distinction between the facts in Dobson’s case [Dobson v General Accident Fire and Life Assurance Corp plc [1989] 3 All ER 927, [1990] 1 QB 274] and those in the present case. In each case the owner of the goods was induced by fraud to part with them to the rogue. Lawrence’s case makes it clear that consent to or authorisation by the owner of the taking by the rogue is irrelevant. The taking amounted to an appropriation within the meaning of s 1(1) of the 1968 Act. Lawrence’s case also makes it clear that it is no less irrelevant that what had happened may also have constituted the offence of obtaining property by deception under s 15(1) of the 1968 Act.’
Mr Cartwright for the appellants submits that just as there is no material distinction between the facts of Dobson and Gomez so there is no material distinction between the facts in those cases and in this. He has perforce boldly to submit that Hertz were induced by the fraud of the appellants to part with the motor cars to the appellants; that accordingly there was an appropriation of the motor cars abroad. He submits that the learned judge was therefore wrong to have withdrawn from the jury consideration of the question whether or not the appropriation was a dishonest one made with the intention of permanently depriving Hertz of their vehicles and if so, whether the theft was committed abroad. In the light of that decision of the House of Lords that unattractive submission is undoubtedly correct.
Mr Webb for the Crown submits that because R v Hircock (1978) 67 Cr App R 278 was not expressly overruled it is still good law. There the appellant took delivery of a car under a hire-purchase agreement made in a false name. He sold it some weeks later and his convictions for obtaining by deception and for theft were upheld. The court held he had acquired the car by deception and not necessarily by stealing and that the theft occurred when he dishonestly appropriated the car by selling it. That distinction can no longer be maintained in the light of Gomez which has established that the assumption of any one of the rights of the owner, for example the right of possession, is enough to amount to an appropriation and it is not necessary to assume all the rights of ownership before the goods are appropriated.
So interesting questions arise in this appeal as to: (1) whether the theft committed abroad continued within the jurisdiction so that it could be established here by the retention of the car after the hire period had expired, or by ringing the changes or by some other fresh appropriation; (2) whether cars stolen abroad could be stolen again, and again and again, within the jurisdiction each time an appropriation of them is made.
These questions do not admit a clear nor easy answer. The only case bearing directly on the point is R v Figures [1976] Crim LR 744 where Mr Recorder Waud refused to permit an amendment of the indictment to charge theft at the point of entry to England where the accused had received the property in France and had attempted to bring it through the customs at Southampton. He held that theft was not such a continuing offence.
In R v Meech [1973] 3 All ER 939, [1974] 1 QB 549 the Court of Appeal appeared to accept the proposition that if the withdrawal of money from the bank account was an appropriation then it was a misappropriation once and for all and the subsequent dividing up of the money between co-defendants could not be another dishonest misappropriation.
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R v Pitham and Hehl (1976) 65 Cr App R 45 supports the theory that appropriation is an instantaneous act complete at the moment the defendant appropriates the goods by assuming the rights of an owner and offering them for sale. On the facts of that case the appropriation was instantaneous for the thief had clearly done all he was going to do in relation to the property. The question had arisen in connection with the charge of dishonest handling against those to whom he sold the property. The words in s 22(1) of the Theft Act 1968 which are there to ensure that stealing and handling are separate offences are ‘otherwise than in the course of stealing’. It is implicit in those words that the act of stealing may run a longer course than an instant. The court indeed left open for later decision the question which divided Professor Smith and Professor Griew as to how long the course of stealing could be (see Smith The Law of Theft (3rd edn, 1977) para 400 and Griew The Theft Act 1968 (2nd edn, 1974) paras 8-18–8-19).
A person is guilty of robbery under s 8 of the 1968 Act if he steals and immediately before or at the time of doing so he uses force. In R v Hale (1978) 68 Cr App R 415 the court rejected the argument that the theft was complete at the time of taking the jewellery box and that force used to effect escape was not sufficient to constitute robbery. Eveleigh LJ referred to the definition of theft and said (at 418):
‘It thus becomes necessary to consider what is “appropriation” or, according to section 3, “any assumption by a person of the rights of an owner”. An assumption of the rights of an owner describes the conduct of a person towards a particular article. It is conduct which usurps the rights of the owner. To say that the conduct is over and done with as soon as he lays hands upon the property, or when he first manifests an intention to deal with it as his, is contrary to common-sense and to the natural meaning of the words. A thief who steals a motor car first opens the door. Is it to be said that the act of starting the motor is no more a part of the theft? In the present case there can be little doubt that if the appellant had been interrupted after the seizure of the jewellery box the jury would have been entitled to find that the appellant and his accomplice were assuming the rights of an owner at the time when the jewellery box was seized. However the act of appropriation does not suddenly cease. It is a continuous act and it is a matter for the jury to decide whether or not the act of appropriation is finished.’
That passage was cited with approval by Watkins LJ in R v Gregory (1983) 77 Cr App R 41 at 46, who said:
‘But not every appropriation under the Theft Act need be or indeed is instantaneous … Nor do we think that in a given criminal enterprise involving theft there can necessarily be only one “appropriation” within section 3(1) of the Theft Act 1968. It seems to us that the question of whether, when and by whom there has been an appropriation of property has always to be determined by the jury having regard to the circumstances of the case. The length of time involved, the manner in which it came about and the number of people who can properly be said to have taken part in an appropriation will vary according to the circumstances. In a case of burglary of a dwelling-house and before any property is removed from it, it may consist of a continuing process and involve either a single appropriation by one or more persons or a number
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of appropriations of the property in the house by several persons at different times during the same incident. If this were not a correct exposition of the law of appropriation, startling and disturbing consequences could arise out of the presence of two or more trespassers in the dwelling-house.’
None of these cases were referred to in the speeches in the House of Lords though R v Meech [1973] 3 All ER 939, [1974] QB 549 was cited in the argument.
Finally in R v Skipp [1975] Crim LR 114 the defendant, posing as a haulage contractor, was instructed to collect a consignment of goods from three different places and to deliver them to a certain destination. He collected the goods and made off with them. The Court of Appeal, on his appeal against his conviction for theft upon one count covering all three consignments, on the ground that the count was bad for duplicity in that there were three separate appropriations, held that there had been no appropriation until the last of the goods were loaded, or probably until the defendant had deviated from the route to the proper destination. R v Gomez declared that case had been wrongly decided.
Endeavouring to summarise it would seem that: (1) theft can occur in an instant by a single appropriation but it can also involve a course of dealing with property lasting longer and involving several appropriations before the transaction is complete; (2) theft is a finite act—it has a beginning and it has an end; (3) at what point the transaction is complete is a matter for the jury to decide upon the facts of each case; (4) though there may be several appropriations in the course of a single theft or several appropriations of different goods each constituting a separate theft as in R v Skipp, no case suggests that there can be successive thefts of the same property (assuming of course that possession is constant and not lost or abandoned, later to be assumed again).
Can these conclusions stand in the light of R v Gomez? Whilst we see the logic of the argument that if there are several appropriations each one can constitute a separate theft, we flinch from reaching that conclusion. Professor Glanville Williams would seem to share our reluctance so to find when he wrote in ‘Appropriation: a single or continuous act?’ [1978] Crim LR 69:
‘A man steals a watch, and two weeks later sells it. In common sense and ordinary language he is not guilty of a second theft when he sells it. Otherwise it would be possible, in theory, to convict a thief of theft of a silver tea pot every time he uses it to make the tea.’
We agree that the answer lies in s 3(1) of the 1968 Act which provides:
‘Any assumption by a person of the rights of an owner amounts to an appropriation, and this includes, where he has come by the property (innocently or not) without stealing it, any later assumption of a right to it by keeping it or dealing with it as owner.’
If, therefore, he has come by the property by stealing it then his later dealing with the property is by implication not included among the assumptions of the right of an owner which amount to an appropriation within the meaning of s 3(1). We reject the speculation that he would not have come by the property by stealing it if an indictment for the theft would not lie because the theft occurred abroad. There is no reason to restrict the plain ordinary words of s 3(1) in such a narrow legalistic way. We note that
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one is guilty of handling stolen property under s 24 and the provisions of the Act apply whether the stealing occurred in England or Wales or elsewhere. ‘Stealing’ must have the same meaning in s 3(1) as it has in s 24. In our judgment, if goods have once been stolen, even if stolen abroad, they cannot be stolen again by the same thief exercising the same or other rights of ownership over the property.
We find it more difficult to answer the first question we posed as to whether or not theft is a continuous offence. On a strict reading of R v Gomez any dishonest assumption of the rights of the owner made with the necessary intention constitutes theft and that leaves little room for a continuous course of action.
We would not wish that to be the law. Such restriction and rigidity may lead to technical anomalies and injustice. We would prefer to leave it for the common sense of the jury to decide that the appropriation can continue for so long as the thief can sensibly be regarded as in the act of stealing or, in more understandable words, so long as he is ‘on the job’ as the editors of Smith and Hogan Criminal Law (7th edn, 1992) p 513 suggest the test should be. Since the matter is not strictly necessary for our decision we, like the court in R v Pitham and Hehl (1976) 65 Cr App R 45 will leave it open for further argument. It is not necessary for us to decide because no jury properly directed could reasonably arrive at a conclusion that the theft of these motor cars was still continuing days after the appellant had first taken them. If the jury had been asked when and where these motor cars were stolen they could only have answered that they were stolen in Frankfurt or Brussels. The theft was complete abroad and the thieves could not steal again in England. For these reasons the appeal must be allowed, the convictions quashed and the sentences, including the recommendations for deportation, set aside.
Appeal allowed. Convictions quashed.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Stein v Blake
[1993] 4 All ER 225
Categories: BANKRUPTCY
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BALCOMBE, STAUGHTON AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 6 APRIL, 5 MAY 1993
Insolvency – Set-off – Mutual dealings – Bankrupt’s right of action against creditor – Creditor having counterclaim against bankrupt – Assignment by trustee in bankruptcy of right of action before taking of account – Whether trustee entitled to assign right of action to plaintiff bankrupt before account taken of mutual dealings with creditor – Insolvency Act 1986, s 323.
In 1987 the plaintiff commenced proceedings against the defendant claiming that the defendant had broken an agreement with the plaintiff to allot or transfer to him shares in various companies incorporated by the defendant. The defendant issued a counterclaim against the plaintiff for misrepresentation. In 1988 the plaintiff commenced separate proceedings against the defendant claiming, inter alia, that under the same agreement he should have received 25% of the companies’ net profits. In 1989 the two actions were consolidated. In 1990 the plaintiff was adjudicated bankrupt. In 1991 the plaintiff, his trustee in bankruptcy and a third party acting as surety entered into a deed of assignment whereby the trustee assigned to the plaintiff the trustee’s claims in the consolidated action and the plaintiff agreed to share with the trustee any proceeds recovered by him in the action. The defendant issued a summons to stay the action, claiming that it was an abuse of process because after the plaintiff had become bankrupt his claim against the defendant and the defendant’s counterclaim fell to be dealt with in the bankruptcy and until an account of ‘mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings between the bankrupt’ and the defendant as a creditor had been taken under s 323a of the Insolvency Act 1986 there was nothing to assign. The master allowed the application and stayed the action. On appeal the judge upheld the master’s order. The plaintiff appealed to the Court of Appeal, contending that a trustee in bankruptcy could assign to a third party a bankrupt’s claims against a person entitled to a statutory right of set-off under s 323 of the 1986 Act.
Held – Unlike a set-off between solvent parties where the purpose was to prevent cross-actions, the purpose of a set-off under s 323 of the 1986 Act was to ensure that substantial justice was done between the bankrupt and the solvent party (the creditor), on the basis that it would be unjust if the creditor had to discharge in full his debt to the bankrupt’s estate while being left with only the right to prove in the bankruptcy. Accordingly, s 323 applied to all cross-claims in the bankruptcy provided they were mutual and measurable in money terms. However, although s 323 provided for the taking of an account of what was due from the bankrupt to the creditor and from the creditor to the bankrupt and for the sums due to be set off one from the other, it did not provide that only the trustee in bankruptcy had authority to take the account. Instead, it was implied that the taking of the account could be conducted by whoever was the appropriate authority in the circumstances, including the judge hearing the action between the trustee or his assignee and the creditor. Accordingly, since
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s 323 did not prohibit a trustee in bankruptcy from assigning to a third party a claim against a person who had a cross-claim against the bankrupt and it was not necessary for him to take an account of the balance due from the plaintiff and defendant before doing so, the trustee had been entitled to assign to the plaintiff his claim against the defendant in the consolidated actions, even though the defendant had a cross-claim against the plaintiff. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 229 d e g to j, p 231 j to p 232 a, p 234 j to p 235 a c g h and p 236 a e f, post).
Dictum of Brett J in New Quebrada Co v Carr (1869) LR 4 CP 651 at 653 applied.
Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd [1984] BCLC 442 overruled.
Notes
For mutual credits and set-off, see 3(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 535–537, 542, and for cases on the subject, see 5(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 359–361, 10751–10761.
For the Insolvency Act 1986, s 323, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 960.
Cases referred to in judgments
Cushla Ltd, Re [1979] 3 All ER 415.
Dynamics Corp of America, Re [1976] 2 All ER 669, [1976] 1 WLR 757.
Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd [1984] BCLC 442.
Forster v Wilson (1843) 12 M & W 191, 152 ER 1165.
Hanak v Green [1958] 2 All ER 141, [1958] 2 QB 9, [1958] 2 WLR 755, CA.
MS Fashions Ltd v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA [1993] BCLC 280, Ch D and CA.
MS Fashions Ltd v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq) (No 2) [1993] 3 All ER 769, [1993] 3 WLR 220, Ch D and CA.
National Westminster Bank Ltd v Halesowen Presswork and Assemblies Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 641, [1972] AC 785, [1972] 2 WLR 455, HL.
New Quebrada Co Ltd v Carr (1869) LR 4 CP 651.
Northern Counties of England Fire Insurance Co, Re, Macfarlane’s Claim (1881) 17 Ch D 337.
Case also cited
Tyler, Re, ex p Official Receiver [1907] 1 KB 865, [1904–7] All ER Rep 181.
Appeal
The plaintiff, Allen Stein, appealed with the leave of the judge from the order made on 11 June 1992 by Mr T R A Morison QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Chancery Division, whereby he dismissed the plaintiff’s appeal from the order of deputy Master Wall made on a summons issued by the defendant, David Blake, dismissing the plaintiff’s consolidated action against the defendant on the grounds that it was an abuse of the process of the court. The facts are set out in the judgment of Balcombe LJ.
Philip Hoser (instructed by Bray Walker) for the plaintiff.
Michael Mark (instructed by Maislish & Co) for the defendant.
Cur adv vult
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5 May 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
BALCOMBE LJ. This appeal by the plaintiff, with the leave of the judge, from an order made on 11 June 1992 by Mr T R A Morison QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Chancery Division, raises a difficult question as to the effect of s 323 of the Insolvency Act 1986. I take the facts from the judgment below:
‘In February 1987 the plaintiff commenced proceedings against the defendant in the Queen’s Bench Division. The essence of the claim was that the defendant had broken an agreement with the plaintiff to equalise his shareholding in various companies. The defendant put in issue the terms of the agreement and counterclaimed against the plaintiff for damages for misrepresentation. Separate proceedings were commenced by the plaintiff against the defendant in the Chancery Division in June 1988. In this action the plaintiff alleged that by the same agreement the defendant impliedly agreed to procure the various companies and/or their auditors to do certain things whereby the plaintiff would have been able to have received 25% of the companies’ net profits. It was further alleged by the plaintiff that, pursuant to the agreement, the defendant should have allotted or transferred to him a proportion of shares in a company which the defendant had caused to be incorporated. The defendant denied that the agreement had the effect contended for. In May 1989 the Queen’s Bench action was transferred to the Chancery Division and in October 1989 the two actions were consolidated. On 16 July 1990 the plaintiff was adjudicated bankrupt and a trustee of his estate was appointed on 19 October 1990. On 4 April 1991 the bankrupt, the trustee and a third party as surety entered into a deed of assignment whereby the trustee purported to assign to the bankrupt his claims in the consolidated action. After deductions for costs, any proceeds recovered by the bankrupt in the action would be split with the trustee: 51% to the bankrupt, 49% to the trustee. The bankrupt has received legal aid to pursue the action.’
The defendant then issued a summons to stay the action on the grounds that it was an abuse of the process of the court. Before the deputy master he contended that, after the plaintiff became bankrupt, his claims against the defendant and the defendant’s counterclaim against the plaintiff fell to be dealt with in the bankruptcy and that until an account had been taken by the trustee under s 323 there was nothing to assign. In support of that contention the defendant relied upon the decision of Neill J in Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments [1984] BCLC 442. He succeeded in that contention both before the deputy master and, on appeal by the plaintiff, before the judge.
The question for our decision is whether, after a bankruptcy but before a balance of account has been ascertained under s 323, a trustee in bankruptcy may assign to a third party the bankrupt’s claims against a person who was entitled to avail himself of the statutory right of set-off. Ancillary to that question is whether Farley’s case was rightly decided.
Section 323 of the Insolvency Act 1986 is in the following terms:
‘(1) This section applies where before the commencement of the bankruptcy there have been mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings between the bankrupt and any creditor of the bankrupt proving or claiming to prove for a bankruptcy debt.
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(2) An account shall be taken of what is due from each party to the other in respect of the mutual dealings and the sums due from one party shall be set off against the sums due from the other.
(3) Sums due from the bankrupt to another party shall not be included in the account taken under subsection (2) if that other party had notice at the time they became due that a bankruptcy petition relating to the bankrupt was pending.
(4) Only the balance (if any) of the account taken under subsection (2) is provable as a bankruptcy debt or, as the case may be, to be paid to the trustee as part of the bankrupt’s estate.’
The section is similar in effect, although not in identical terms, to s 31 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914, which in turn replaced earlier provisions to the like effect (see the Bankruptcy Act 1883, s 38; the Bankruptcy Act 1869, s 39; the Bankruptcy Law Consolidation Act 1849, s 171; 6 Geo 4 c 16, s 50; 5 Geo 2 c 30, s 28; and 4 & 5 Anne c 17, s 11).
In order to appreciate the purpose of the section it is necessary to look at it, as did the judge, in its statutory context. It forms part of Ch IV of Pt IX of the 1986 Act, of which the title is ‘Administration by Trustee’. The first section in the chapter is s 305, which defines the general functions of the trustee, and of which the operative part is sub-s (2), which provides as follows:
‘The function of the trustee is to get in, realise and distribute the bankrupt’s estate in accordance with the following provisions of this Chapter; and in the carrying out of that function and in the management of the bankrupt’s estate the trustee is entitled, subject to those provisions, to use his own discretion.’
If an asset of the bankrupt’s estate is a cause of action (other than one of a personal nature) then that vests in the trustee in bankruptcy, and his statutory duty under s 305(2) is to realise that asset. One way in which he may do so is by assignment by way of sale. The discretion as to the manner of realisation belongs to the trustee and will not be interfered with by the court except on well-established principles (eg if the trustee has acted in bad faith). This is all trite law and was not the subject of contention before us.
The next section to which I refer is s 322. This and the following ten sections are preceded by the sub-title ‘Distribution of bankrupt’s estate’. It provides, so far as relevant, as follows:
‘Proof of debts—(1) Subject to this section and the next, the proof of any bankruptcy debt by a secured or unsecured creditor of the bankrupt and the admission or rejection of any proof shall take place in accordance with the rules …
(3) The trustee shall estimate the value of any bankruptcy debt which, by reason of its being subject to any contingency or contingencies or for any other reason, does not bear a certain value.
(4) Where the value of a bankruptcy debt is estimated by the trustee under subsection (3) or by virtue of section 303 in Chapter III, by the court, the amount provable in the bankruptcy in respect of the debt is the amount of the estimate.’
Bankruptcy debt is defined by s 382:
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‘(1) “Bankruptcy debt”, in relation to a bankrupt, means (subject to the next subsection) any of the following—(a) any debt or liability to which he is subject at the commencement of the bankruptcy, (b) any debt or liability to which he may become subject after the commencement of the bankruptcy (including after his discharge from bankruptcy) by reason of any obligation incurred before the commencement of the bankruptcy …
(3) For the purposes of references in this Group of Parts to a debt or liability, it is immaterial whether the debt or liability is present or future, whether it is certain or contingent or whether its amount is fixed or liquidated, or is capable of being ascertained by fixed rules or as a matter of opinion; and references in this Group of Parts to owing a debt are to be read accordingly.’
That being its statutory context, I turn to consider the purpose of s 323. Set-off in bankruptcy rests on a different principle to the right of set-off between solvent parties. The purpose of the latter is to prevent cross-actions, and the right is limited to the categories listed in the well-known judgment of Morris LJ in Hanak v Green [1958] 2 All ER 141 at 149–150, [1958] 2 QB 9 at 23. The object of set-off in bankruptcy is not to avoid cross-actions, but to do substantial justice between the parties (see Forster v Wilson (1843) 12 M & W 191 at 204, 152 ER 1165 at 1172) since it would be obviously unjust if the solvent party had to discharge his debt to the bankrupt’s estate in full while being left only with the right to prove, and thereby receive only a dividend, in respect of the bankrupt’s debt to him. In order to achieve this object of substantial justice s 323 is not limited to the categories as defined in Hanak v Green, but applies to all cross-claims provided that they are mutual and are measurable in money terms. The operation of the section is mandatory in that it cannot be excluded by agreement (see National Westminster Bank Ltd v Halesowen Presswork and Assemblies Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 641, [1972] AC 785).
The opposing arguments may be summarised as follows.
(1) For the plaintiff
Nothing in the wording of s 323 changes the nature of set-off as it operates between solvent parties: it merely widens the categories of claim capable of being, and which must be, set off. The section contemplates a three-stage procedure: (i) an ascertainment of what is due from A to B, and from B to A (the first part of s 323(2)); (ii) a setting-off of the sums found so to be due (the second part of s 323(2)); and (iii) payment of, or proof for, the balance (s 323(4)).
The language of the section draws a distinction between what is ‘due’, which is the word used in sub-ss (2) and (3), and what is payable or recoverable, as under sub-s (4). The separate causes of action (claim and cross-claim) remain due, and do not cease to exist, until the set-off has been completed by payment one way or the other. It is also noteworthy that the section does not provide that only the trustee in bankruptcy may take the account: sub-s (2) only states that ‘an account shall be taken’. Certainly the section contains no prohibition against the assignment to a third party by the trustee in bankruptcy of a claim against a person who has a cross-claim against the bankrupt, but it is accepted that any such assignment would be subject to all equities, so that the assignee would take subject to the wide right of set-off created by s 323.
Page 230 of [1993] 4 All ER 225
(2) For the defendant
The rules of set-off under s 323 are wholly different, in nature as well as extent, from those which operate between solvent persons. This is because s 323 is a part of the statutory code of procedure for the administration of bankrupts’ estates in a proper and orderly way (see National Westminster Bank Ltd v Halesowen Presswork and Assemblies Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 641 at 649, 652, 665, [1972] AC 785 at 805, 808–809, 824). The 1986 Act requires the trustee to realise and distribute the bankrupt’s estate and where there are mutual dealings the trustee has a duty to take the account required by s 323(2) as part of the process of ascertaining whether there is a bankruptcy debt. That duty is non-delegable. The effect of the section is that as at the commencement of the bankruptcy the claim and cross-claim cease to have any independent existence and are replaced by the claim for the balance.
The authorities largely, but not entirely, support the arguments for the defendant.
In Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd [1984] BCLC 442 an identical question arose in the liquidation of an insolvent company, to which the provisions of s 31 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914 applied. Neill J accepted the arguments of counsel for the respondent (who was in the same position as that of the defendant in the instant case) that—
‘the chose or choses in action represented by the debt or debts owed by the respondent immediately before the liquidation for money due under the two contracts ceased to exist and were no longer available to be assigned by the liquidator in 1979 … [And that] after the contractor went into insolvent liquidation the only relevant chose in action which the contractor owned was the right to enforce a claim for the amount, if any, which was due to the contractor after taking the account required in accordance with s 31.’ (See [1984] BCLC 442 at 449, 451.)
The decision is at first instance and is not binding on this court. For my part I find force in the submissions of Mr Hoser for the plaintiff that the judgment of Neill J manifests a confusion between the two distinct concepts of (i) a debt being due (ie owed) and (ii) a debt (which is ex hypothesi due) being payable or recoverable. Thus he said ([1984] BCLC 442 at 450–451):
‘Accordingly, on 5 February 1975 the rights of the contractor and the respondent inter se became subject immediately to the provisions of s 31. In accordance with s 31 an account had then to be taken and the balance of the account and no more became the sum thereafter owing to or from the respective parties … It is clear that after the contractor went into insolvent liquidation in February 1975 an account should have been taken of what was due in respect of the mutual dealings between the contractor and the respondent. It is apparent from the pleadings in the arbitration that such an account would have disclosed that certain sums were prima facie admitted to be due from the respondent to the contractor but that the respondent was contending that it had cross-claims against the contractor for an amount exceeding these admitted sums. At that stage the taking of the account may well have involved arbitration proceedings to determine what sums were due from the contractor to the respondent. Until such an account had been taken, however, it would not have been possible to ascertain whether any sum was due from the respondent to the contractor
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or vice versa. It is certainly possible, and indeed in accordance with the contention of the present respondent, that the taking of the account would have disclosed that no sum was payable from the respondent at all.’ (My emphasis.)
Neill J also cited, in support of his conclusion, a decision of Vinelott J in Re Cushla Ltd [1979] 3 All ER 415, which was not a case concerning (as was Farley’s case) the question of what was due from or to each party, to which question sub-ss (2) and (3) of s 323 are directed, but with the question of what was payable by, or recoverable from, each party, to which s 323(4) is directed.
Although the judge in the present case said he agreed in full with the judgment of Neill J in Farley’s case, he obviously found some difficulty in accepting fully the reasoning of Neill J, as appears from the following passage from the judgment below:
‘However, it seems to me that some misunderstanding of the ratio of Neill J’s judgment in Farley’s case may have been caused by the terms of counsel’s submission which found favour with him. In that case, counsel submitted that on the bankruptcy the debts owed immediately before the bankruptcy “ceased to have any independent existence” or “to exist” and were no longer available to be assigned by the liquidator. It would seem to me that, on bankruptcy, the only chose in action which is capable of assignment is a right to such sum as is found to be due on the taking of the account. I would prefer to say that on bankruptcy the debts owed immediately before the bankruptcy ceased to be capable of assignment until after the statutory account has been taken under s 323. This is probably only a semantic difference, but it might meet the point made about a debt which vanishes and magically comes to life again after a bankruptcy is annulled. The debt itself does not vanish, it becomes non-assignable until the account is taken.’
Farley’s case is the only decision directly in point. However there are a number of other decisions or dicta which are material.
In New Quebrada Co v Carr (1869) LR 4 CP 651 a company made a call on the three joint holders of shares. They pleaded set-off. The company’s replication alleged lack of mutuality because after the commencement of the action and before the plea one of the three had been adjudicated bankrupt and his joint interest in the debt due from the company had thereby vested in his assignees. The shareholders argued that nothing passed to the assignees because of the bankruptcy, and that by virtue of the then equivalent of s 323 the bankrupt’s share of the debt was automatically set off against the company’s claim for calls. The Court of Common Pleas held that there had been no bankruptcy set-off: the bankrupt’s individual interest in a joint debt could not be set off against the three shareholders. However Brett J went on to deal (obiter) with what the position would be if the set-off rule did apply and said (at 653):
‘I think its only effect is to transfer the claim to the assignees, subject, when they seek to enforce it, to a right of the plaintiffs to deduct their debt. It does not, I think, extinguish the mutual debts …’
That dictum clearly favours the plaintiff. In MS Fashions Ltd v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq) (No 2) [1993] 3 All ER 769 at 777, [1993] 3 WLR 220 at 228–229 Hoffmann LJ describes the passage from which that citation is taken as ‘not altogether easy’ but in my judgment the meaning is
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clear. The bankruptcy set-off does not, of itself, extinguish the mutual debts. The dictum of that very great judge, who became Lord Esher MR, is obviously entitled to considerable respect.
More recently in MS Fashions Ltd v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA [1993] BCLC 280 this court (Woolf and Scott LJJ), on an interlocutory application, with limited argument and without the citation of any relevant cases, expressed the view that the operation of r 4.90 of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925 (which is the modern equivalent of s 323 in relation to insolvent companies), was per Scott LJ (at 286)—
‘that the set-off operates as at the date of the winding up so as to leave simply the net amount claimable by the company in liquidation from the other party or, as the case may be, provable as a debt in the liquidation by the other party.’
And per Woolf LJ (at 289):
‘The rule operates as a matter of law upon the company going into liquidation. At that stage an account is required to be taken of what is due from each party to the other and there is then to be a set-off between them. Once there has been that set-off, to the extent of the amount which is set off, the company has been paid. That means that not only is the guarantor or joint principal discharged to the extent of the set-off, but so is any other debtor who is liable in relation to the same sum. That that is the position is made clear by the provisions of sub-r (4) r 4.90, where it states: ‘‘Only the balance (if any) of the account is provable in the liquidation.’’’
However, both Woolf and Scott LJJ made it clear that they were only expressing a provisional view and were not making a permanent ruling on the law. Further, it is by no means clear that Woolf LJ, at least, was suggesting that r 4.90 operated to extinguish the mutual claims and cross-claims ab initio. Nevertheless, the trend of this decision is to support the defendant.
Finally there is the decision of Hoffmann LJ (sitting as an additional judge of the Chancery Division) in MS Fashions Ltd v Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA (in liq) (No 2) [1993] 3 All ER 769, [1993] 3 WLR 220, to which I have already referred. That again was a case concerning r 4.90 of the Insolvency Rules 1986. In the course of his judgment Hoffmann LJ set out three principles as being applicable ([1993] 3 All ER 769 at 775–776, [1993] 3 WLR 220 at 227):
‘First, the rule is mandatory (the mandatory principle). If there have been mutual dealings before the winding-up order which have given rise to cross-claims, neither party can prove or sue for his full claim. An account must be taken and he must prove or sue (as the case may be) for the balance. Secondly, the account is taken as at the date of the winding-up order (the retroactivity principle). This is only one manifestation of a wider principle of insolvency law, namely, that the liquidation and distribution of the assets of the insolvent company are treated as notionally taking place simultaneously on the date of the winding-up order (see Oliver J in Re Dynamics Corp of America [1976] 2 All ER 669 at 673–674, [1976] 1 WLR 757 at 762). Thirdly, in taking the account the court has regard to events which have occurred since the date of the winding up (the hindsight principle). The hindsight principle is pervasive in the valuation of claims and the taking of accounts in bankruptcy and winding up. A good example of the principle being applied outside the context of set-off is Re Northern Counties
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of England Fire Insurance Co, Macfarlane’s Claim (1881) 17 Ch D 337 in which the value of a claim under a fire insurance policy was determined by reference to the loss suffered in a fire which occurred a month after the insurance company had been wound up.’
With these principles as thus stated Mr Hoser does not seek to quarrel, and I express no comment. However, Hoffmann LJ then went on to express approval of the decision in Farley’s case in the passage immediately following that just quoted ([1993] 3 All ER 769 at 776, [1993] 3 WLR 220 at 227–228):
‘In reading the cases, the interaction of these principles has to be borne in mind. Mr Neville Thomas QC, who appeared for BCCI, said that the right of set-off under r 4.90 is procedural and that the mutual credits and debits of BCCI and the directors retain their separate existences until such time as the account is taken in the context of the director filing either a proof or a defence to a claim by the liquidator. This is of course true in the somewhat trivial sense that no account will be taken until something happens which makes it necessary to apply r 4.90 and take one. But that cannot in my judgment affect the substantive rights of the parties which, whatever the context in which the question may subsequently arise, are treated as having been determined by an account taken at the date of the winding up. This is a consequence of the mandatory and retroactivity principles. Thus in Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd (1984) 26 BLR 66 Mr Farley was director of a building company engaged in erecting two buildings for a developer. On 5 February 1975 the building company resolved to go into creditors’ voluntary winding up. At that date, the building company had a claim for money owing under the contract but the developer said it had a cross-claim for damages. Three years later, the liquidator of the building company assigned the benefit of its claim to Mr Farley personally. He argued that he was entitled to claim in full against the developer, leaving it to prove in his company’s liquidation for its damages. But Neill J rejected this submission. He said that on the date of the winding up, s 31 of the Bankruptcy Act 1914 (in similar terms to r 4.90) immediately took effect and “the balance of the account and no more became the sum thereafter owing to or from the respective parties’’.’
Again the decision was at first instance and the precise point which arises in this case was not before the judge. However his clear approval of Farley’s case is significant.
Derham Set-off in Insolvencies (1988) pp 73, 75, 77 criticises the decision in Farley’s case; Wood English and International Set-Off (1989) refers to the decision without comment.
Whichever interpretation is accepted some anomalies will result.
(1) If Farley’s case and the judge below are right
(a) Wherever there is a claim by a bankrupt and a cross-claim against the bankrupt’s estate, the claim is unassignable: only the balance after the taking of the account is assignable, and this may not be immediately possible. Mr Hoser suggest two examples. (i) B commences proceedings for £100,000. No set-off or counterclaim is pleaded by A, the defendant B seeks leave to amend the statement of claim and is given leave to do so on the usual terms, ie that the costs occasioned by the amendment are to be paid by him in any event. The amendment necessitates a slightly amended defence (though still no set-off or
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cross-claim is asserted). The costs of the amended defence are minimal, perhaps a few hundred pounds, but they will not be ascertained prior to taxation at the end of the action. B goes bankrupt. His trustee cannot assign the cause of action to him because there is a cross-liability (of a few hundred pounds). (ii) B claims against A £1,000 for goods sold and delivered. Some years earlier B had built a house for A. Damage is caused to A’s house because of B’s poor workmanship, but nobody yet realises that A has a cause of action. B goes bankrupt. His trustee assigns the cause of action against A. That assignment will have been ineffective because at the commencement of the bankruptcy A had (even if he did not then know it) a cross-claim against B arising out of a pre-insolvency mutual dealing (the house-building contract) and because there was accordingly nothing which the trustee could assign.
This could clearly inhibit the realisation by the trustee of the assets of the bankrupt estate.
(b) If the bankruptcy is annulled before the balance of the claim and cross-claim has been proved or paid, as the case may be, then (i) since the immediate effect of the bankruptcy was that the claim and cross-claim ceased to have any independent existence, and were metamorphosed into a claim for the balance, then that metamorphosis remains valid upon annulment under s 282(4)(a) of the 1986 Act. Yet the precise amount of the claim or the cross-claim may not have been established before the annulment. (ii) If the balance is in favour of the bankrupt, that is an asset which will vest in him under s 282(4)(b). (iii) If the balance is against the bankrupt, that is all that can belong to the creditor, since his original claim will, possibly unbeknown to him, have ceased to exist.
(c) It is an essential part of the defendant’s case that only the trustee in bankruptcy of the bankrupt can take the account under s 323. But what if the original claimant against the bankrupt himself is, or becomes, bankrupt? Which trustee in bankruptcy is to take the account?
(d) The rights of the claimant against the bankrupt are affected without his consent and possibly even without his knowledge since his debt, having ceased to exist, is also non-assignable. If the claimant himself becomes bankrupt, what is it that vests in his trustee in bankruptcy? Presumably only the balance, if in his favour, whenever that has been ascertained.
(2) If the plaintiff is right then the anomalies are less obvious
One problem is that, on the facts of the present case, the defendant will not have lost his right to prove for his claim in the plaintiff’s bankruptcy, but the plaintiff’s trustee will not be able to set off the cross-claim, because he has assigned it away. But this is not the anomaly which it may at first sight appear to be. In any event it seems unlikely that the defendant would prefer to prove his debt in the plaintiff’s bankruptcy, rather than use it in full as a set-off against the enforcement against him of the assigned claim. But if the trustee chooses to assign away the plaintiff’s claim against the defendant—presumably for what he considers to be valuable consideration—it would hardly lie in his mouth to complain that he has thereby deprived himself of the ability to use that claim by way of set-off against the defendant. The defendant is in no worse a position since he both retains the right of set-off against the assignee, or the right to prove his claim in the plaintiff’s bankruptcy, whichever he prefers.
So, although I do not find the question easy to answer, I have come to the firm conclusion that the plaintiff is right in his contentions and that the
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judgment below, and Neill J’s decision in Farley’s case, are wrong. The plaintiff’s interpretation is not only consistent with the principle as stated by Brett J in New Quebrada Co v Carr (1869) LR 4 CP 651; it avoids having to introduce into s 323(2) the requirement that the account can only be taken by the trustee in bankruptcy; it also avoids having to imply, as did the judge, a prohibition against assignment until the account has been taken.
That is not to say that there may not be other grounds on which the defendant could attack the assignment which was made in this case. The defendant in his skeleton argument asserts that the assignment is an abuse of the legal aid system. I express no opinion on that assertion, but it was not the ground upon which the defendant relied before the deputy master or before the judge, and was not raised by a respondent’s notice in the present case. This appeal is concerned only with the technical point I have mentioned, whose validity is independent of the fact that the plaintiff is in receipt of legal aid to prosecute the assigned claim.
I would allow this appeal.
STAUGHTON LJ. There were essentially two points discussed in this appeal. The first was whether, upon a person becoming bankrupt where there have been mutual credits, mutual debts or other mutual dealings, the obligations of the debtor and of the creditor cease to exist, and are replaced by one obligation on the party who is a net payer in respect of the balance. The second point was whether there is any enforceable obligation to pay that balance until an account has been taken by the trustee in bankruptcy.
Mr Mark for the defendant relies on the second point. He submits that there has not been an account taken by the trustee, and will not be if the present consolidated action is allowed to proceed. There may be an account taken by the judge in that action. But that, he says, will not do; it must be taken by the trustee. Hence the deputy master and the judge were right to dismiss the action. It is of no significance and does not matter, according to Mr Mark, whether the original debts remain alive or only the balance of an account is payable.
I cannot accept that argument. It seems to me that when s 323(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 provides that ‘an account shall be taken’ it means just that—the taking of the account shall be conducted by whoever is the appropriate authority in the circumstances. It may be the trustee; or it may be the court exercising bankruptcy jurisdiction under s 303(1); or it may be any other judge exercising lawful jurisdiction. All that the section provides is that some appropriate authority shall take an account.
If the trustee does not wish the account to be taken otherwise than by himself and the bankruptcy court, there are remedies available which will ensure that it does not happen unless the interests of justice require it. And if the creditors are dissatisfied with a decision of the trustee to allow such a situation to arise, they can ask the bankruptcy court to review that decision under s 303.
There are two arguments of substance against that interpretation of s 323(2). The first is that, under s 323(3)—
‘the trustee shall estimate the value of any bankruptcy debt which, by reason of its being subject to any contingency or contingencies or for any other reason, does not bear a certain value.’
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Can that power be exercised only by the trustee? Or can it also be exercised by a judge who has jurisdiction to take the account? Since it must in any event be exercisable by the bankruptcy court under s 303, I do not see why it cannot also be exercised by a judge in an action between the trustee or his assignee and the creditor.
The second argument is that inconvenience and multiplicity of proceedings may arise if the amount owing to the creditor exceeds the amount owing to the bankrupt. That may happen in the present case; and the assignee’s action may fail because there is no balance due to him. But the judge at trial may not find it necessary to decide how much is still left owing to the creditor. Or if he does decide that, the trustee may wish to argue that he is not bound by the judge’s decision, since he was not a party to the proceedings.
Those consequences are theoretical possibilities; or at any rate the first of them is. But in my opinion they are unlikely to arise in practice. If they do arise, one must face the fact that difficulties and inconvenience do sometimes occur in insolvency proceedings, for example when a creditor is partly secured in respect of his debt or has a remedy against a guarantor which is contested.
Indeed it was argued that the creditor might choose not to rely on set-off against an assignee, and choose to prove in the bankruptcy for the whole of his debt instead. I say nothing as to whether a creditor would in law be entitled to take that course. It seems to me very improbable that he would wish to do so; and the trustee would be likely to inquire whether that was going to happen before he made any assignment.
In my judgment Mr Mark’s argument fails, and this appeal should be allowed. But I would add that I agree with the conclusion of Balcombe LJ that debts due to and from a bankrupt do not disappear on the making of a bankruptcy order. Section 323 is concerned only with the remedy that is available, and not with the existence of debts. So I agree that Farley v Housing and Commercial Developments Ltd [1984] BCLC 442 was wrongly decided.
WAITE LJ. I agree that the appeal should be allowed for the reasons given by Balcombe and Staughton LJJ, to which I do not feel it necessary to add anything.
Appeal allowed.
Carolyn Toulmin Barrister.
Bradford Metropolitan City Council v McMahon and another
[1993] 4 All ER 237
Categories: SUCCESSION; Wills: HOUSING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): BALCOMBE, STAUGHTON AND WAITE LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 22, 23 MARCH, 7 APRIL 1993
Housing – Local authority houses – Tenant’s right to buy – Death of tenant – Death of secure tenant before grant or conveyance of freehold – Tenant claiming right to buy and serving notice to that effect – Local authority offering to sell – Tenant agreeing local authority’s terms – Tenant dying before transfer of property – Whether right to buy ceasing when tenant died – Whether right to buy an equitable interest vesting in deceased tenant’s estate – Housing Act 1985, s 138(1).
E lived in a council house of which she was a secure tenant. Two of her daughters lived at another council house nearby. E became ill and one of the daughters, M, and her family, moved in with her. E gave notice to the council claiming the right to buy her house under the Housing Act 1985 and the council wrote to E admitting her right to buy and stating the price at which the property could be purchased. E replied confirming her intention to purchase. However, E died before she could execute the conveyance of the property. M remained in the property and continued to pay the rent until the council, on discovering E’s death, applied to the county court for possession of the house. At the hearing the judge rejected a plea that M had acquired a tenancy by payment and acceptance of rent or by estoppel, but held that E had acquired an equitable interest in the freehold of the house when she agreed to the terms proposed by the council and that interest vested in and was enforceable by M as the representative of E’s estate. The council appealed.
Held – Under the 1985 Act the process whereby a secure tenant purchased a property from a council required the tenant to serve written notice on the council claiming to exercise the right to buy, the council to admit or deny the right to buy, then if the right was established the council had to state the price and terms of the sale, the tenant had to agree to those terms and finally there had to be a conveyance or grant of the freehold of the house by the council to the tenant in fee simple absolute pursuant to s 138(1)a of the 1985 Act. However, since the 1985 Act contained an implicit requirement that a tenant who wished to exercise his or her right to purchase from the council had to remain a secure tenant until the conveyance of the property, the right to buy ceased to exist if within a reasonable time after the terms of the sale had been agreed and before the conveyance or grant of the freehold the tenant ceased to be a secure tenant. Since E, the secure tenant, had died before the conveyance or grant of the freehold, there was no right to purchase which could vest in E’s estate, and, although there was still a secure tenancy of the property after her death, that tenancy had not been vested or otherwise disposed of in the administration of the estate and therefore the estate did not have the right to purchase the property. The council’s appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 240 a to e, p 243 d e h j, p 244 f to j, p 245 c d and p 246 a, post).
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Enfield London BC v McKeon [1986] 2 All ER 730 and Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572 considered.
Notes
For local authority tenants’ right to buy their homes, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 886–907, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 618–622, 12542–12557.
For the Housing Act 1985, s 138, see 21 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 168.
Cases referred to in judgments
Cooper’s Exors v City of Edinburgh DC 1991 SLT 518, HL.
Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572, [1990] 1 WLR 1097, CA.
Enfield London BC v McKeon [1986] 2 All ER 730, [1986] 1 WLR 1007, CA.
Muir Group Housing Association Ltd v Thornley (1992) 91 LGR 1, CA.
Opoku-Forfieh v Haringey London BC [1988] CA Transcript 819.
Sutton London Borough v Swann (1985) 18 HLR 140, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Harrow London BC v Tonge (1992) 25 HLR 99, CA.
Taylor v Newham London BC [1993] 2 All ER 649, [1993] 1 WLR 444, CA.
Appeal
The plaintiff, City of Bradford Metropolitan Council, appealed from the decision of Judge Hutchinson QC sitting in Bradford County Court on 14 November 1991 whereby he refused the council’s claim for possession of a council house at 32 Hillcrest Road, Queensbury, Bradford from the defendants, Martin McMahon and Linda McMahon, and declared that Eleanor Eggett, the mother of the second defendant, had acquired a right to buy the property prior to her death, which right to buy was an equitable interest vested in and enforceable by the second defendant as representative of her mother’s estate. The facts are set out in the judgment of Staughton LJ.
Nicholas Stewart QC and Toby Kempster (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard, agents for Allen R Sykes, Bradford) for the council.
Terence Etherton QC and P B Walker (instructed by Harrison Tankard & Mossmans, Bradford) for Mr and Mrs McMahon.
Cur adv vult
7 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
STAUGHTON LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Balcombe LJ). Mrs Eggett lived in a council house at 32 Hillcrest Road, Queensbury. She had been there since it was built in 1951, and was a secure tenant. But in 1990 she was ill and needed someone to live with her and take care of her. Now it so happened that two of her eight children lived at no 72, another council house in the same street. One was her daughter Beatrice Eggett; the other was Mrs McMahon, the second defendant, who lived there with her husband and child. It was decided that the McMahon family would move to no 32 and live with Mrs Eggett. That took place in the second week of August 1990. At the same time Mrs McMahon assigned her interest in the secure tenancy of no 72 to her sister,
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Beatrice Eggett. The council, as the judge found, were told that the McMahon family were buying a property, no address being mentioned.
Meanwhile Mrs Eggett had given notice to the council on 17 July 1990, claiming the right to buy 32 Hillcrest Road under the Housing Act 1985. On 17 August the council admitted Mrs Eggett’s right to buy, and on 25 October they sent her a letter offering to sell at the price of £10,712. That figure reflected the maximum discount available under the 1985 Act, which applied in the case of Mrs Eggett because she had lived in the house for so many years. On 2 November she wrote to the council saying that she wished to purchase on the terms of the council’s letter.
It was then the duty of the council to prepare and execute a conveyance of the house to Mrs Eggett. They took a long time to put the matter in the hands of their legal department. There had been no transfer of the property by 24 December, when Mrs Eggett died.
For a time the council did not know of Mrs Eggett’s death, and the rent was paid by Mr or Mrs McMahon. Then the council were informed by the Department of Social Security that Mrs Eggett was no longer entitled to income support, as she had died; that was relevant information for the council, since it affected housing benefit for Mrs Eggett. The council found that the McMahon family were still living in the house, and requested them to leave. Eventually on 8 April 1991 the council issued an application for possession of 32 Hillcrest Road in the Bradford County Court.
Now Mr and Mrs McMahon did not have any title to occupy the house in their own right. They had not lived there long enough for Mrs McMahon to qualify as a successor to Mrs Eggett’s secure tenancy. And the judge rejected a plea on their behalf that they had acquired a tenancy by the payment and acceptance of rent, or by estoppel. But it was also argued that Mrs Eggett had acquired an equitable interest in the freehold of 32 Hillcrest Road when she agreed to the terms proposed by the council, and that Mrs McMahon was entitled to enforce that interest as the representative of Mrs Eggett’s estate. Judge Hutchinson QC in the county court accepted that argument. He dismissed the council’s claim for possession, and made a declaration on the counterclaim that the right to buy was an equitable interest vested in and enforceable by Mrs McMahon as representative of the estate. A claim by Mr and Mrs McMahon for damages was adjourned indefinitely. The council now appeal.
The issue is whether, under the 1985 Act, Mrs Eggett’s right to buy disappeared when she died and so ceased to be a secure tenant. The judge held that it did not, and passed to her estate.
The Housing Act 1985
A secure tenant of a dwelling house has, if the landlord is a local authority (s 80) and certain other conditions are satisfied, the right to buy (s 118). The other requirement for a secure tenancy is (s 81):
‘… the tenant is an individual and occupies the dwelling-house as his only or principal home …’
There can, however, be a secure tenancy for some purposes at a time when there is no secure tenant. That arises under s 89, to which I shall return later.
Mrs Eggett was a secure tenant until her death on 24 December 1990, and not thereafter. There might in theory have been a successor to her secure tenancy
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under s 87; and the successor might have enforced her right to buy under s 136. But in fact there was no one who qualified as her successor.
In the context of this case, the 1985 Act provides for five events which are to take place in the process whereby the tenant buys from the landlord. (1) By s 122(1) a secure tenant claims to exercise the right to buy by written notice to that effect served on the landlord. Subsection (3) provides that the notice may be withdrawn at any time. (2) The landlord, within a period which is either four weeks or eight weeks, must state whether it admits the right or denies it (s 124). If the right is denied, there is provision for the issue to be determined. (3) Where the right to buy has been established, the landlord must, within a period which is either eight weeks or twelve weeks, state the price at which the house ought to be sold and the terms to be included in the conveyance or grant (s 125). (4) Those terms are then agreed by the tenant, or any issue between them is determined. We were not referred to any express provision of the 1985 Act to that effect; but it follows from s 138, which defines the fifth event. (5) By s 138:
‘(1) Where a secure tenant has claimed to exercise the right to buy and that right has been established, then, as soon as all matters relating to the grant … have been agreed or determined, the landlord shall make to the tenant—(a) if the dwelling-house is a house and the landlord owns the freehold, a grant of the dwelling-house in fee simple absolute …
(3) The duty imposed on the landlord by subsection (1) is enforceable by injunction.’
Those being the five events in the process, there is nothing in the 1985 Act which says in express terms that the right to buy is lost if the secure tenant dies before the fifth event occurs. There is, however, s 121, which provides:
‘(1) The right to buy cannot be exercised if the tenant is obliged to give up possession of the dwelling-house in pursuance of an order of the court or will be so obliged at a date specified in the order.
(2) The right to buy cannot be exercised if the person, or one of the persons, to whom the right to buy belongs—(a) has a bankruptcy petition pending against him, (c) is an undischarged bankrupt, or (d) has made a composition or arrangement with his creditors the terms of which remain to be fulfilled.’
The cases
Of the four that are relevant, I take first the two that were concerned with s 121. In Enfield London BC v McKeon [1986] 2 All ER 730, [1986] 1 WLR 1007 the tenant had given notice to the council claiming to exercise her right to buy, and the council in reply had admitted her right. So the first two out of the five events had occurred. Then the council gave notice that they intended to seek possession of the house, on the ground that it was larger than the tenant required. Next the council gave notice of the terms which they proposed for the sale of the house, which was the third required event. But then they started proceedings for possession in the county court. The tenant in her defence pleaded that in those circumstances the council were precluded from seeking possession.
The case turned on the provisions of the Housing Act 1980 which comprised the predecessor of s 121 in the 1985 Act, in language which was virtually the
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same. The Court of Appeal regarded the key question as whether the tenant had already exercised her right to buy when the council started possession proceedings, or was still in the process of exercising it; if the latter, the predecessor of s 121 imposed a ban on her continuing to do so. Slade LJ, with whom Eastham J agreed, held ([1986] 2 All ER 730 at 736–737, [1986] 1 WLR 1007 at 1015):
‘… the right is “exercised” each and every time when the tenant takes any step towards the implementation of his right to purchase … the 1980 Act treats a tenant as purporting to exercise his right to buy at any time and from time to time when he takes steps towards the implementation of that right, up to and including completion of the purchase.’
So the argument for the tenant failed. But it is to be noticed that the fourth event had not occurred in that case: the tenant had not agreed to the price and other terms proposed by the council.
Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 was a similar case, but under the 1985 Act. There was this important difference, that the tenants had agreed to the terms proposed by the council, so that the first four events had all occurred. Then the council sought possession of the house on the ground that they intended to demolish it. This time the argument for the tenants succeeded.
Nourse LJ held that the Enfield case could be distinguished because the facts were different (see [1990] 3 All ER 572 at 577, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 at 1104). In particular, the stage had not been reached in the Enfield case where s 138 came into operation. He held that when that section came into operation (ie when the fourth event had occurred) the tenants acquired an equitable interest in the property. He continued ([1990] 3 All ER 572 at 577, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 at 1105):
‘At that stage, if not beforehand, they must, on any natural use of language, have “exercised” their right to buy for the purposes of s 121(1) [of the 1985 Act]. At that stage there was no order of the court obliging them to give up possession of the property. Nor had any proceedings been commenced. Nor had the plaintiffs even been served with a formal notice requiring them to give up possession. In the circumstances, I do not see how s 121(1) can be said to affect the matter.’
McCowan LJ delivered a concurring judgment, and Browne-Wilkinson V-C agreed.
In my judgment both the Enfield case and Dance’s case turned on s 121 of the 1985 Act and its predecessor; and the ratio of Dance’s case is set out in the passage from the judgment of Nourse LJ which I have just quoted. The result of those cases is that s 121 can operate to ban the continued exercise of the right to buy up to and after the third event, but not after the fourth event has occurred. The dictum of Nourse LJ that the tenant acquired an equitable interest in the property after the fourth event was not essential to his reasoning; and I express no view upon that point.
Next I turn to two cases which are more directly in point, because in each the tenant had ceased to be a secure tenant by the time when the purchase came to be completed. The first is Sutton London Borough v Swann (1985) 18 HLR 140. There the first three events had occurred, and then the tenant moved out of the property and bought a house or flat elsewhere. The council served notice to quit, and claimed possession. It was found that the tenant had acquired a new
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principal home, and had ceased to be a secure tenant of the council. The case was one to which the 1980 Act applied.
It seems to me that the Court of Appeal refused the tenant’s claim to buy the council’s flat on two alternative grounds. The first was that the council’s offer to sell (the third event) had lapsed by effluxion of time. The second was considered by Ackner LJ in this passage (at 144–145):
‘Mr Swann takes a point, which in fact is dealt with by the learned judge, and in my view properly dealt with by the learned judge. He submits that, given that he was a secure tenant and as such made a claim as a secure tenant in March 1982 to buy, thereafter he has a right to purchase which cannot be defeated by any change in his status; ie. by his thereafter ceasing to be a secure tenant. In regard to this, the learned judge said: “Section 16(1) to (11) set out the steps to completion of the right to buy. Section 16(1) uses the term ‘secure tenant’. Section 16(2) to (10) uses the term ‘landlord’ and, or ‘tenant’.” She then came to section 16(11), and I set that out in full. It reads as follows: “On the grant to a secure tenant of an estate in fee simple or of a lease in pursuance of this Chapter the secure tenancy of the dwelling-house shall come to an end and, if there is then a sub-tenancy, section 139 of the Law of Property Act, 1925 shall apply as on a merger or surrender.” That section proceeds in my judgment on the assumption that, at the end of the procedure, when the various investigations have been made, the various terms spelt out and accepted, and the time for the grant comes, that grant has to be made to a secure tenant. Accordingly the status of “secure tenant” has to exist, not only at the time when the claim to buy is made, but also at the time when the grant comes to be made. If during the period between claim and grant the tenant has ceased to be a secure tenant, he is not entitled to that grant.’ (Ackner LJ’s emphasis.)
Section 16(11) in the 1980 Act was in slightly different terms from s 139(2) of the 1985 Act, which reads:
‘The secure tenancy comes to an end on the grant to the tenant of an estate in fee simple, or of a lease, in pursuance of the provisions of this Part relating to the right to buy …’
Nevertheless the reasoning of Ackner LJ is equally applicable to the 1985 Act. It would necessarily entail that Mr and Mrs McMahon’s counterclaim fails in the present case. But, although of persuasive authority, it is not binding upon this court, since here the fourth event had elapsed (acceptance of the council’s terms), and that had not happened in Swann’s case.
Lastly there is Muir Group Housing Association Ltd v Thornley (1992) 91 LGR 1. That was a case under the 1985 Act. After the first two events had occurred (claim to buy and admission of the right), the tenants moved out of the house and sublet the whole of it. Thereupon they ceased to be secure tenants. But the council did not know that and proposed terms of sale, which the tenants agreed (the third and fourth events). When the council discovered what had happened, they served notice to quit and took proceedings for possession.
Mann LJ examined the previous cases in some detail, including one which we have not seen because counsel could not find it (Opoku-Forfieh v Haringey London BC [1988] CA Transcript 819). He concluded that the tenants’ counterclaim failed for five reasons, as follows. (i) Section 125(1), which deals with the third
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event (notice of the landlord’s proposed terms), refers to a ‘secure tenant’, and shows an assumption that such a person still exists. (ii) Section 139(2) provides that, on the grant to the tenant of an estate in fee simple, ‘the secure tenancy’ comes to an end, showing a similar assumption. (This reflected the reasoning of Ackner LJ on similar provisions in the 1980 Act.) (iii) Section 155(1) provides that a conveyance of the freehold shall contain ‘a covenant binding on the secure tenant’—the same assumption. (iv) Section 118(1) confers the right to buy on ‘a secure tenant’, and shows that there has to be a secure tenant throughout the ensuing process. (v) Swann’s case actually decided in favour of that assumption. Glidewell LJ followed the same route, and in addition concluded that Swann’s case was binding authority that a person who was no longer a secure tenant was not entitled to the right to buy. Leggatt LJ agreed.
Like Swann’s case, the Muir Group case is not binding authority which leads to the conclusion that the counterclaim fails in the case now before us. In neither of those cases had all of the first four events occurred before the tenant ceased to be a secure tenant. So point (v) in the reasoning of Mann LJ may not apply here. Nor for that matter does point (i), since that was based on the section which dealt with the third event.
Nevertheless I agree, subject to further points which remain to be considered, that the 1985 Act contains the implicit requirement that the tenant must remain a secure tenant until the conveyance or grant (the fifth event). That follows in my opinion from points (ii), (iii) and (iv) in the reasoning of Mann LJ, and accords with the express conclusion reached by Ackner LJ.
Delay by the council
Judge Hutchinson made the following findings:
‘By the date of Mrs Eggett’s death the local authority had, in my judgment, long overrun what anyone would deem to be a reasonable time for executing the conveyance in this particular case ... Not to put too fine a point on it the local authority were in breach of their statutory duty and their claim for possession now is in fact based on their own dilatory conduct.’
Mr Etherton QC for Mr and Mrs McMahon submits that a person cannot take advantage of his own wrong, and that the council are doing that if they maintain that there ceased to be a secure tenant of the house.
I can readily accept that there is such a principle, even in a case which for reasons of social policy involves the compulsory purchase of property at much less than its market value. The difficulty which I feel is that Mr Etherton puts the principle as one of statutory interpretation, as I think he has to. Given that, in my judgment, there is no longer a right to buy if there ceases to be a secure tenant immediately after all the terms are agreed (the fourth event), or within a reasonable time after that, I do not see how one can interpret any section of the statute as relaxing that requirement once a reasonable time for the conveyance has elapsed. That would involve rewriting the 1985 Act, not interpretation. It may be that Mrs McMahon has, on behalf of Mrs Eggett’s estate, a claim for damages for breach of statutory duty. Mr Etherton acknowledges that such a claim may encounter difficulty, and I express no opinion upon it since that remains to be decided in the county court.
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Section 89
This gives rise to a new point, which was not argued before the judge. The section provides:
‘(1) This section applies where a secure tenant dies and the tenancy is a periodic tenancy.
(2) Where there is a person qualified to succeed the tenant, the tenancy vests by virtue of this section in that person, or if there is more than one such person in the one to be preferred in accordance with the following rules—(a) the tenant’s spouse is to be preferred to another member of the tenant’s family; (b) of two or more other members of the tenant’s family such of them is to be preferred as may be agreed between them or as may, where there is no such agreement, be selected by the landlord.
(3) Where there is no person qualified to succeed the tenant and the tenancy is vested or otherwise disposed of in the course of the administration of the tenant’s estate, the tenancy ceases to be a secure tenancy unless the vesting or other disposal is in pursuance of an order made under section 24 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 (property adjustment orders in connection with matrimonial proceedings).
(4) A tenancy which ceases to be a secure tenancy by virtue of this section cannot subsequently become a secure tenancy.’
The section is to be contrasted with s 90, which deals with devolution of a term certain as opposed to a periodic tenancy. Under s 90(2)(b) a tenancy ceases to be a secure tenancy if it is known that when vested or otherwise disposed of in the cause of administration of the tenant’s estate it will not be a secure tenancy. There is no similar provision in s 89; and a periodic tenancy may continue to be a secure tenancy for a time under that section although the tenant has died and (as in this case) it is known that there cannot be a new secure tenant.
It follows in the present case that there still is a secure tenancy of 32 Hillcrest Road, although there is no secure tenant; the tenancy has not yet been vested or otherwise disposed of in the course of administration of the estate. But that, as it seems to me, cannot mean that the estate still has the right to buy the house. If it did mean that, there would be no need for the provisions of s 136, whereby a new secure tenant can take over a notice claiming the right to buy given by her predecessor. Sections 89 and 90 are in my judgment merely intended to hold the position when there is an existing order under s 24 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 which has not yet been fulfilled.
Conclusion
It follows from the judge’s reasoning that Mrs Eggett might have obtained an injunction, immediately before she died, requiring the council to convey the house to her. It also follows that other secure tenants in the future may seek an injunction, if their health is precarious and their landlords dilatory. However, those consequences do not persuade me that we should depart from what I would regard as the clear meaning of the Act. I would allow this appeal.
WAITE LJ. Having had the advantage of reading in draft the judgments of Staughton and Balcombe LJJ I agree that the appeal should be allowed for the reasons they have given, to which I do not feel it necessary to add any observations of my own.
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BALCOMBE LJ. I have had the advantage of the reading the judgment of Staughton LJ in draft. There are two matters about which I add some words of my own.
The nature of the right to buy
In Dance v Welwyn Hatfield DC [1990] 3 All ER 572 at 577, [1990] 1 WLR 1097 at 1104 Nourse LJ described a secure tenant’s remedy of enforcing his right to buy by injunction under s 138(3) of the Housing Act 1985 as equivalent to the right to specific performance in the case of a contract for the sale of land and as thus constituting an equitable interest in the property. As Staughton LJ has said, this dictum was not essential to Nourse LJ’s reasoning in Dance’s case and in my judgment could be misleading. The equitable interest which a contracting purchaser of land acquires under an ordinary contract of sale is a proprietary interest which is prima facie transmissible; the right of a secure tenant to enforce by injunction his right to buy is, as the wording of the 1985 Act and the cases to which Staughton LJ has referred show, a right personal to him and to certain clearly defined successors. It is a creature of statute and is sui generis; if it is helpful to equate it to some more general right recognised by the courts I would prefer to describe it analogous to a personal equity. It is perhaps worthy of comment that the equivalent legislation in Scotland—the Housing (Scotland) Act 1987—follows a different route and s 66(2) of that Act specifically provides:
‘Where an offer to sell … has been served on the tenant and a relative notice of acceptance has been duly served on the landlord, a contract of sale of the house shall be constituted between the landlord and the tenant on the terms contained in the offer …’
See generally Cooper’s Exors v City of Edinburgh DC 1991 SLT 518.
The effect of s 89
I find it very difficult to understand the reason for the difference in wording between ss 89 and 90 of the 1985 Act. In each case the only event which will keep the secure tenancy alive is if ‘the vesting or other disposal is in pursuance of an order made under section 24 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 (property adjustment orders in connection with matrimonial proceedings)’. Such an order could only be made during the lifetime of the party to the marriage who was the secure tenant of the property concerned; once that party is dead other statutory provisions are applicable. Accordingly at the moment a secure tenant dies it will be known whether a property adjustment order has been made in respect of the property and, if no such order has been made, it will also be known that when the tenancy is ‘vested or disposed of it will not be a secure tenancy’. Although these last words appear only in s 90(2)(b) and not in s 89, I cannot see what purpose there can be for keeping alive a secure periodic tenancy during the period of administration of the tenant’s estate when it is known at the outset that it will inevitably cease to be a secure tenancy.
Perhaps the draftsman of the section assumed that, in the case of a periodic tenancy where there was no qualified successor (in which case there is a statutory vesting under the section) and no order had been made under s 24 of the 1973 Act, there never would be a vesting or disposal of the tenancy in the course of the administration of the tenant’s estate, as in normal circumstances the tenancy would have been determined long before any question of vesting or disposal arose. I would therefore be prepared to construe s 89 as containing by
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implication the same words as are expressed in s 90(2)(b). On this construction of s 89 it affords no assistance to Mr and Mrs McMahon.
For these reasons, as well as those given by Staughton LJ, I would allow this appeal.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
13 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Templeman, Lord Goff of Chieveley and Lord Slynn of Hadley) refused leave to appeal.
Raina Levy Barrister.
West Wiltshire District Council v Garland and others (Cond and others, third parties)
[1993] 4 All ER 246
Categories: LOCAL GOVERNMENT
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MORRITT J
Hearing Date(s): 10, 11, 12, 22 FEBRUARY 1993
Local government – Audit – Auditor’s duty – Duty owed to local authority – Duty owed to local authority’s officers – Local authority bringing action against its officers for making payments without authority – Officers claiming to have acted on advice of district auditor – Whether district auditor owing statutory duty to local authority – Whether duty enforceable by action for damages by local authority – Whether district auditor owing statutory duty to officer of local authority – Whether district auditor owing common law duty of care to officer of local authority – Local Government Finance Act 1982, s 15.
The plaintiff council brought an action against, inter alios, two of its senior officers (the second and third defendants) claiming that they had procured payments to be made by the council without proper authority and in so doing they had acted in breach of contract and the fiduciary duty owed by them to the council and contrary to the council’s proper procedures. The council claimed damages and restitution. The second and third defendants denied the allegations and issued third party notices against three district auditors employed by the Audit Commission who had been responsible for auditing the accounts of the council during the years in which the second and third defendants’ breaches were alleged to have occurred. Under s 15a of the Local Government Finance Act 1982 an auditor employed by the Audit Commission was required to satisfy himself that a local authority’s accounts audited by him had been prepared in accordance with regulations made under that Act and complied with the statutory requirements for such accounts, that proper practices had been observed in the compilation of the accounts and that the local authority whose accounts were being audited had made proper arrangements for securing economy, efficiency and effectiveness in its use of resources, and he was required to report, in the public interest, any matter
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coming to his attention which he considered ought to be brought to the attention of the public. By their third party notices the second and third defendants claimed that the auditors had advised them in respect of matters relevant to the council’s claim and that in reliance on such advice they had performed their duties as servants or agents of the council in the manner prescribed or recommended by the auditors, that the auditors were under a duty to the council and to the second and third defendants respectively, that the auditors were negligent or in breach of duty in a large number of respects and that if the second and third defendants were liable to the council the damage to the council was caused by the auditors with consequential liability to contribute or indemnify the second and third defendants against any amounts for which they might be found liable to the council. The auditors applied to have the third party notices set aside and the proceedings against them dismissed on the ground that the notices did not disclose a reasonable cause of action.
Held – A district auditor owed a statutory duty under the 1982 Act to a local authority whose accounts he audited, that duty being enforceable by an action for damages by the local authority, since the primary purpose of the Act was to protect the local authority as well as local government electors and the object of the audit was to ensure that the money of the local authority was properly spent and accounted for. Accordingly, in the absence of any express right or power conferred on a local authority by the 1982 Act to secure performance of that duty, the local authority was entitled to bring an action for damages. However, the district auditor owed no such duty to an officer of the local authority, since the primary object of the statutory duties of auditors under the 1982 Act was not the protection of a class, viz local government officers, of which the second and third defendants were members, nor was any duty owed to an officer in negligence, since in the absence of a statutory duty owed to local government officers it would not be fair, just or reasonable to impose a duty of care for the benefit of local government officers. It followed that those parts of the third party notices which relied on a private cause of action at the suit of the second and third defendants against the auditors or a cause of action in negligence or for negligent misrepresentation at the suit of the council against the auditors would be struck out, but the claim in the third party notices for a contribution, in so far as it was based on breach of a statutory duty owed by the auditors to the council, was not bad in law and would not be struck out (see p 252 c d, p 253 b to e g and p 255 h to p 256 a d to g, post).
Dictum of Lord Bridge in Hague v Deputy Governor of Parkhurst Prison, Weldon v Home Office [1991] 3 All ER 733 at 739–741 applied.
Notes
For the audit of a local authority’s accounts, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1297–1313, and for cases on the subject, see 33 Digest (Reissue) 36–42, 108–129.
For the Local Government Finance Act 1982, s 15, see 25 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 693.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G v De Winton [1906] 2 Ch 106.
Bookbinder v Tebbit (No 2) [1992] 1 WLR 217.
Page 248 of [1993] 4 All ER 246
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium Ltd [1949] 1 All ER 544, [1949] AC 398.
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Frankston and Hastings Shire v Cohen [1960] ALR 249, Aust HC.
Hague v Deputy Governor of Parkhurst Prison, Weldon v Home Office [1991] 3 All ER 733, [1992] 1 AC 58, [1991] 3 WLR 340, HL.
Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465, [1963] 3 WLR 101, HL.
Jones v Dept of Employment [1988] 1 All ER 725, [1989] QB 1, [1988] 2 WLR 493, CA.
Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398, [1990] 3 WLR 414, HL.
R v Roberts [1908] 1 KB 407, CA.
Strable v Dartford BC [1982] JPL 329, CA.
Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175, [1987] 3 WLR 776, PC.
Summonses
By third party notices issued on 20 February 1991 the second and third defendants, David Pugh and John White, in an action brought by the West Wiltshire District Council against them and against the first defendant, Gerald Garland, and five other defendants for damages, claimed as against the third parties, Leslie Cond, Peter Heppleston and Peter Day, who were district auditors employed by the Audit Commission for Local Authorities in England Wales, a declaration that the second and third defendants were entitled to be indemnified against any sum awarded to the plaintiffs against the second and third defendants and judgment for any amount found to be due from the second and third defendants to the plaintiffs. By summonses issued on 31 January 1992 the auditors applied to have the third party notices struck out under RSC Ord 16, r 4 on the grounds that they disclosed no proper question to be tried as between the second and third defendants and the auditors or between the plaintiffs and the auditors. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Charles George QC (instructed by A A Child) for the auditors.
Elizabeth Andrew (instructed by Bishop Longbotham & Bagnall, Trowbridge) for the second and third defendants.
Cur adv vult
22 February 1993. The following judgment was delivered.
MORRITT J. This is a summons by three third parties pursuant to the RSC Ord 16, r 4 for an order that the third party notices be set aside and the proceedings thereon dismissed. The third parties contend that the notices do not disclose a reasonable cause of action and should be struck out under Ord 18, r 19.
The plaintiff in the action is the West Wiltshire District Council. It has sued, amongst others, Mr Pugh and Mr White, the second and third defendants. Each of those defendants was employed by the council in a variety of senior posts for 15 or more years. In the action the council claims that each of those defendants acted in breach of contract and of fiduciary duties owed by such defendant to the council and in breach of the council’s proper processes and procured
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payments to be made by the council without proper authority. It claims damages and restitution accordingly. These allegations are denied by Mr Pugh and Mr White.
The third parties, Mr Cond, Mr Heppleston and Mr Day, were in each case at the material time employees of the Audit Commission constituted pursuant to and in accordance with the Local Government Finance Act 1982. As such each of them was charged with the responsibility for auditing the accounts of the council for one or more of the years during which the matters of which the council complains occurred. By their third party notices Mr Pugh and Mr White claim contribution to or indemnity against any amount for which they may be found liable to the council.
By para 4 of the notice it is claimed that the auditor, by which I mean each third party, was under a duty to the council and to Mr Pugh or Mr White respectively (to whom I shall refer as ‘the officer’) in 23 specific respects. In paras 4A et seq the officer claims that the auditor advised him in respect of matters relevant to the council’s claim against the officer and that in reliance on such advice the officer performed his duties as servant or agent of the council in the manner prescribed or recommended by the auditor. In para 5 the officer claims that the auditor was negligent or in breach of duty in a large number of respects all but one of which constituted an alleged failure to act. In para 6 the officer claims that if he is liable to the council as claimed in the action then the damage to the council was caused by the auditor with a consequential liability to contribute or indemnify.
Since 1982 the accounts of a local authority have been audited by a servant or agent of the Audit Commission in accordance with the 1982 Act. The constitution and functions of the Audit Commission and of its servants or agents are crucial to the questions before me.
By s 11 and Sch 3 a body was constituted as a body corporate to be known as the Audit Commission for Local Authorities in England and Wales. It is not to be regarded as acting on behalf of the Crown nor are its members, officers or servants to be regarded as Crown servants. It is required to appoint such servants or agents as it considers necessary for the discharge of its functions on such terms as to remuneration and otherwise as it thinks fit. Section 12 requires that all local authority accounts shall be audited in accordance with Pt III of the 1982 Act by an auditor appointed by the commission. Such an auditor may be an officer of the commission, an individual who is not such an officer or a firm of such individuals, but he, she or it must be professionally qualified and only appointed after consultation with the local authority concerned: see s 13(1), (3) and (5). The appointment of an auditor who is not an officer of the commission is to be on such terms and for such period as the commission may determine (s 13(7)).
Section 14 requires the commission to prepare and keep under review a code of audit practice prescribing the way (embodying the best professional practice with respect to the standards, procedures and techniques to be adopted) in which auditors are to carry out their functions. Such a code was approved by each House of Parliament and came into effect on 7 November 1983. It emphasises the need for complete independence, the highest professional standards and recognition of the public interest.
The duty of the auditor is imposed by s 15 in the following terms:
‘(1) In auditing any accounts required to be audited in accordance with this Part of this Act, an auditor shall by examination of the accounts and
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otherwise satisfy himself—(a) that the accounts are prepared in accordance with regulations made under section 23 below and comply with the requirements of all other statutory provisions applicable to the accounts; (b) that proper practices have been observed in the compilation of the accounts; and (c) that the body whose accounts are being audited has made proper arrangements for securing economy, efficiency and effectiveness in its use of resources.
(2) The auditor shall comply with the code of audit practice as for the time being in force.
(3) The auditor shall consider whether, in the public interest, he should make a report of any matter coming to his notice in the course of the audit in order that it may be considered by the body concerned or brought to the attention of the public, and shall consider whether the public interest requires any such matter to be made the subject of an immediate report rather than of a report to be made at the conclusion of the audit.’
Section 16 gives the auditor a right to obtain documents and information requisite to the performance of his functions. But by s 17 any person interested may inspect the accounts to be audited and all documents relating to them and the auditor is bound to permit a local government elector for that area to question him about the accounts. Such local government elector is entitled, by sub-s (3), to object to any matter in respect of which the auditor could take action under s 19 or s 20 or make a report under s 15(3). Section 19(1) provides:
‘Where it appears to the auditor carrying out the audit of any accounts under this Part of this Act that any item of account is contrary to law he may apply to the court for a declaration that the item is contrary to law except where it is sanctioned by the Secretary of State.’
By sub-s (4) a local government elector may appeal to the court for such a declaration if the auditor declines to do so. Section 20(1) requires the auditor to surcharge any person who appears to him in carrying out the audit of any accounts to have failed to bring any sum into account which should have been included or whose wilful misconduct has caused loss. By sub-ss (2) and (3) a local government elector may appeal to the court for such a surcharge if the auditor declines to make one.
The fees for an audit in accordance with the 1982 Act are prescribed in a scale produced by the commission. The fee so prescribed is payable by the local authority to the commission. The fee is to be the same whether the audit is carried out by an officer of the commission or not. The commission pays its servant his salary and is responsible for the payment of the fees of others.
By s 22 the commission may direct an extraordinary audit of its own motion or on the application of a local government elector. Section 23 authorises the Secretary of State to make regulations concerning the form and publication of accounts. Finally, so far as relevant, s 30 restricts the disclosure of information obtained by the commission or its officers in the following terms:
‘(1) No information relating to a particular body or other person and obtained by the Commission or an auditor, or by a person acting on behalf of the Commission or an auditor, pursuant to any provision of this Part of this Act or in the course of any audit or study thereunder shall be disclosed except—(a) with the consent of the body or person to whom the information relates; or (b) for the purposes of any functions of the
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Commission or an auditor under this Part of this Act; or (c) for the purposes of any criminal proceedings …’
Certain additions and amendments were made to the 1982 Act by the Local Government Act 1988 and the Local Government Finance Act 1988 but it was not suggested that they had any bearing on any question I have to decide.
For the auditors it was contended that the third party notices failed to disclose a reasonable cause of action, any lesser test applicable to RSC Ord 16, r 4 than that prescribed by Ord 18, r 19 being disclaimed. First it was submitted that when an auditor exercises the statutory functions under Pt III of the 1982 Act he cannot be liable in damages for breach of statutory duty nor does he owe a duty of care to the local authority whose accounts he audits or to the officers of that authority. It was accepted that if there were an allegation of bad faith, which there is not, the position might well be different. This was described as the broad submission. The second, narrow, submission was that no duty was disclosed by the third party notices in this case. In addition objection was taken to the third party notices as being embarrassing and vexatious in that they made no attempt to relate the allegations to the individual auditor.
For the officers it was contended that the auditor owes to both the council and the officer a statutory duty arising from the code of practice required by s 14 giving rise to a cause of action for damages. In addition it was submitted that there was a duty of care at common law if either there was no corresponding statutory duty or no such duty enforceable by the officers. This duty was claimed to be owed to both the council and the officer and to arise under the principles of Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1 and Hedley Byrne & Co Ltd v Heller & Partners Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 575, [1964] AC 465. In response to the auditor’s submissions on the narrow basis it was contended that under Ord 16, r 1 it was only necessary for the third party notice to contain a statement of the nature and grounds of the claim made by him or the question or issue required to be determined. It was submitted that the notices complied with this requirement and that any uncertainty as to the precise allegations made should be cured by ordering the service of a third party statement of claim.
I will deal first with the issue as to the existence or otherwise of a statutory duty owed by the auditors and enforceable by an action for damages by either the council or the officer. It is not in dispute that if there is such a duty owed to the council then there is a right of contribution within Ord 16, r 1(1)(a) because of s 1 of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978. If such a duty is owed to the officer then it is not disputed that the matter comes within Ord 16, r 1(1)(c).
This issue depends on the proper construction of the 1982 Act and the answer to the two questions posed by Lord Bridge of Harwich in Hague v Deputy Governor of Parkhurst Prison, Weldon v Home Office [1991] 3 All ER 733 at 739–741, [1992] 1 AC 58 at 158–159. They are (1) whether the provision in question is intended to protect the interests of a class of which the council or the officer is a member, and (2) did Parliament intend to confer on the council or the officer a cause of action for a breach of such duty? The first question may be elaborated by considering what was the primary object Parliament intended thereby to achieve: compare Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium Ltd [1949] 1 All ER 544, [1949] AC 398 and Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 583, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 630.
I have already quoted or described the relevant provisions of Pt III of the 1982 Act. The code of practice on which the officers place reliance is, as s 14(1) makes
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plain, designed to prescribe the way in which the auditor’s functions are to be carried out. By s 15(2) the auditor is required to comply with the code. But it seems to me that the first question must be answered by considering the primary legislation and not the details of the code.
It is manifest that the functions of the auditor go a long way beyond that of the auditor of the accounts of a limited company pursuant to the Companies Acts. Thus the description of a district auditor as having functions of a judicial nature to perform (see R v Roberts [1908] 1 KB 407 at 438) remains true in the light of the requirements of ss 15(3), 19(1) and 20(1).
But it seems to me to be clear beyond doubt that it is not the primary object of Pt III to protect the officers. It is not the function of any audit to protect the servants or agents of the body whose accounts are being examined; rather it is the actions of those servants or agents which are to be scrutinised. It may be that in carrying out an audit advice to and consultation with officers of the body will be necessary, but the purpose thereof is not the protection of the servant or agent. Thus, though it is correct, as the officers submitted, that the code mentions the need for advice and consultation (see, for example, paras 6(d) and (e), 31 and 38), this does not mean that it was the purpose, primary or otherwise, of Pt III to protect the officers. It seems to me to be clear beyond argument that there can be no cause of action against the auditor for damage for breach of statutory duty at the suit of the officers.
Thus it is necessary to consider the same two questions with regard to the council. The auditors accept that a statutory duty is owed to the local government electors for the authority in question because of the provisions of ss 17(2) and (3), 19(4), 20(2) and 22(1)(a). They submit that there is no indication that the purpose of Pt III was to protect the council. Emphasis is placed on the auditor’s concern for the public interest (s 15(3)) and the protection of public funds for the benefit of the public (see ss 19(2)(a) and 20(1)). For the officers an analogy was drawn between the members of a company and local government electors and reliance placed on the speech of Lord Bridge of Harwich in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 580, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 626, where he said:
‘No doubt these provisions establish a relationship between the auditors and the shareholders of a company on which the shareholder is entitled to rely for the protection of his interest. But the crucial question concerns the extent of the shareholder’s interest which the auditor has a duty to protect. The shareholders of a company have a collective interest in the company’s proper management and in so far as a negligent failure of the auditor to report accurately on the state of the company’s finances deprives the shareholders of the opportunity to exercise their powers in general meeting to call the directors to book and to ensure that errors in management are corrected, the shareholders ought to be entitled to a remedy. But in practice no problem arises in this regard since the interest of the shareholders in the proper management of the company’s affairs is indistinguishable from the interest of the company itself and any loss suffered by the shareholders, eg by the negligent failure of the auditor to discover and expose a misappropriation of funds by a director of the company, will be recouped by a claim against the auditor in the name of the company, not by individual shareholders.’
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It was contended that the legislation existed for the protection of the local authority as well as the local government elector.
The analogy is by no means exact, not least because the winding up of the local authority would not involve the distribution of its property amongst the local government electors and its property has been contributed by rate and community charge payers of whom the former at least may not be local government electors. But to my mind the respects in which the analogy is false point to the conclusion that the primary purpose of the legislation was to protect the local authority as well as the local government electors.
The object of any audit is to ensure that the money of the body in question has been properly spent and accounted for. If the interest of that body and some other class, for example its members, coincide it may be a question in the case of particular statutes whether the legislation exists for the protection of the body or that class. But where the interest of the body and the class do not overlap the audit requirement must exist primarily for the benefit of the body even though it may also exist for the protection of the class. Thus I do not regard the existence of a statutory duty owed to local government electors as necessarily excluding a duty to the body itself. This is confirmed by a consideration of s 12(2). This subsection imposes on the bodies specified in it the requirement to have their accounts audited in accordance with the 1982 Act. Many will not have any connection with a class comparable to local government electors so that the statutory duty which is undoubtedly imposed by s 15 can only be owed to the body in question. It would be odd if the auditor owed a statutory duty to an internal drainage board but not a district council. Accordingly, I answer the first question by holding that Pt III in general and s 15 in particular is intended primarily to protect the local authority.
The second question therefore arises in the case of the council but not of the officers. Did Parliament intend to confer on the local authority a cause of action in damages for breach of such duty? Part III confers a number of rights on a local government elector with corresponding remedies to enable them to be enforced. Thus s 17 enables him to make objections to the auditor leading to a power to raise the matter in court pursuant to s 19(4) or s 29(2) effectively on appeal from the auditor’s decision. The result of the exercise of these powers may lead to the recovery of property by the local authority. But the statute does not expressly confer on the local authority any remedy, direct or indirect, for the enforcement of the duty of the auditor. It is true that in appropriate circumstances and subject to the conditions relating to the remedy of judicial review that is a remedy open to the local authority. But it is evident that that remedy affords little or no protection against the consequences of the negligent conduct of a statutory audit.
The auditors contend that nevertheless there is no cause of action. First they rely on s 30 as indicating that Parliament did not intend that there could be civil proceedings. As is shown by Bookbinder v Tebbit (No 2) [1992] 1 WLR 217, s 30(1)(a) contemplates that consent may be required from persons other than the bodies referred to in s 12(2). It is submitted that para (b) would not apply to proceedings between the body and the auditor. Thus, it is said, the limitation of para (c) to criminal proceedings shows that civil proceedings were not in contemplation because such proceedings could not fairly be tried without considering the information obtained by the auditor pursuant to the 1982 Act concerning the body whose accounts were audited. I do not think that this warrants the conclusion that no civil proceedings were contemplated. In civil
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proceedings between the body and the auditor the body would be bound to give its consent to the disclosure of relevant documents so as to discharge its obligations to give discovery. If the documents relate only to that body there will be no problem. A problem would only arise with documents relating also to some other person whose consent might not be compellable. But I do not see how this point can exclude civil proceedings between the body and the auditor. If, as sometimes happens, the rights of third parties intervene to prevent one party from producing a document it wishes that is no reason for excluding the cause of action altogether.
Then reliance was placed by the auditors on the provisions of ss 19(4), 20(2), 22(1) and the availability of judicial review. None of the subsections confers any remedy on the council and, as I have already pointed out, the remedy of judicial review is of limited value in righting the wrongs of an inadequate audit. I do not regard any of these provisions as indicative of Parliament’s intention not to confer a private law cause of action in damages to enforce the duty.
Third, the auditors relied on the absence of any reported case indicating the existence under the law of England of any such right of action. This is true, though there is authority in Australia which may be distinguishable: see Frankston and Hastings Shire v Cohen [1960] ALR 249. No doubt this indicates that I should approach the point with caution, but it cannot be decisive of the point itself.
Fourth, the auditors relied on the statement of Farwell J in A-G v De Winton [1906] 2 Ch 106 at 119 that the duty of borough auditors was ‘of imperfect obligation’. If, it was argued, there is a private law right to bring an action for damages then the obligation is not imperfect. But it was not in issue in that case whether there was any such right and I do not regard the remark as a considered statement even with regard to borough auditors under the legislation then in force, let alone in respect of auditors under the 1982 Act.
Finally, the auditors sought to draw an analogy with others in the field of public law. In Strable v Dartford BC [1984] JPL 329 at 331 the Court of Appeal decided that an action for damages against the local planning authority at the suit of a disappointed applicant for planning permission did not lie. But the principal reason was that the applicant had a statutory right of appeal to the Secretary of State. Thus he was not without remedy.
The second case was Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175 in which it was held that there was no cause of action in negligence by a depositor against the Commissioner of Deposit-Taking Companies for maintaining the registration of such a company he ought to have known was insolvent. As Lord Keith of Kinkel pointed out, the power of the commissioner to grant, refuse, suspend or revoke registration is quasi-judicial and no statutory duty in that regard is owed to the potential depositors (see [1987] 2 All ER 705 at 713, [1988] AC 175 at 195). The Board concluded ([1987] 2 All ER 705 at 714, [1988] AC 175 at 196):
‘… the ordinance placed a duty on the commissioner to supervise deposit-taking companies in the general public interest, but no special responsibility towards individual members of the public.’
In this case there are aspects of the auditors’ functions which can properly be regarded as quasi-judicial, namely consideration of the matters dealt with in ss 15(3), 19(1) and 20(1). These matters pervade the whole audit and cannot be segregated from his other functions in the sense that the auditor must keep in
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mind throughout his responsibilities under those subsections. But I do not think that that is sufficient justification for deciding that there can be no private law cause of action in damages for any failure to perform the statutory duty rather than in suitable cases recognising that there is that aspect of the auditor’s functions which needs to be borne in mind in deciding whether there has been a breach. In effect the choice is between no effective remedy to the council for any breach and qualifying the duty by reference to the quasi-judicial aspects of it. I prefer the latter.
The third case was Jones v Dept of Employment [1988] 1 All ER 725, [1989] QB 1. In that case an applicant for social security sued the department as the employer of an adjudication officer for negligently processing his claim. The statute provided for an appeal and that the decision on appeal should be final. The Court of Appeal concluded that the claim should be struck out. As recorded in the headnote the court considered ([1989] QB 1 at 3):
‘In general a government department or officer, charged with the making of decisions relating to whether certain payments should be made, but subject to a statutory right of appeal against such decisions, owes no duty of care in private law. Misfeasance apart, a remedy lies in public law by way of judicial review or under the appellate procedure provided by the relevant legislation …’
I do not think that either the decision or the dictum in that case justify a conclusion that there is no private law right of action for damages at the suit of the council in this. The statute confers no rights of appeal on the council, the remedy of judicial review is inadequate to deal after the event with an inadequate audit and the functions of the auditor do not approximate to those described in the dictum I have quoted.
In Murphy v Brentwood DC [1990] 2 All ER 908, [1991] 1 AC 398 the council was sued for negligently passing plans for the construction of a house pursuant to their duty under s 64 of the Public Health Act 1936. The House of Lords concluded that the council did not owe any duty of care at common law. Lord Bridge of Harwich stated ([1990] 2 All ER 908 at 931, [1991] 1 AC 398 at 482):
‘It is pre-eminently for the legislature to decide whether these policy reasons should be accepted as sufficient for imposing on the public the burden of providing compensation for private financial losses. If they do so decide, it is not difficult for them to say so.’
But this case deals with a different question, namely whether there was a duty of care at common law. I am concerned with whether in this case the legislature has so decided.
In conclusion I see nothing in any of these cases to warrant the decision for which the auditors contend. In summary it seems to me that the duty under the statute is owed to the council or other body whose accounts are audited. The statute confers no express right or power on the council or other body to secure the due performance of that duty. The ability of the council to seek judicial review and such powers as it enjoys enabling it to determine whether to re-engage that auditor do not provide an adequate remedy in the case of an audit negligently conducted. The existence of some quasi-judicial functions may in the circumstances justify some modification of the duty but do not warrant the denial of a private law cause of action at all. Accordingly in my judgment the claim, in so far as it is based on breach of a statutory duty owed
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by the auditor to the council, is not bad in law and is not liable to be struck out on that ground.
In these circumstances the officers’ alternative claim to be entitled to sue the auditor for negligence or negligent misrepresentation does arise but the contention that the council is likewise so entitled does not. I can deal with the officers’ claim to sue the auditors quite shortly.
This claim has to be approached on the basis that there is no decided case demonstrating that such a cause of action will lie. Thus it is for the officers to establish one. To do so they must demonstrate that there is between them and the auditors a relationship characterised by the law as one of proximity or neighbourhood and that the situation should be one in which the court considers it fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose a duty of a given scope upon the one party for the benefit of the other: see Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 573–574, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 617–618. In this case all the breaches of duty except one which are alleged to constitute negligence are the failure to do something but the loss claimed is purely economic in the form of the loss of employment and the benefits that went with it. In the case of the alleged negligent advice there is no allegation of specific inquiries or the voluntary assumption of responsibility. The fact is that the proximity between the officers and the auditors arises solely from the operation of the 1982 Act, but, as I have already held, the purpose of that Act was not to protect the officers. In these circumstances I do not think that it would be fair, just or reasonable that a duty of care should be imposed on the auditors for the benefit of the officers by the common law when Parliament in enacting the 1982 Act chose not to do so. In these circumstances I will order that those parts of the third party notices which rely on (a) any private cause of action at the suit of the officers against the auditors or (b) any cause of action in negligence or for negligent misrepresentation at the suit of the council against the auditors be struck out.
This leaves the auditors’ narrow submission in respect of the claim by the council against the auditors for breach of statutory duty. In accordance with my judgment this is capable of being pleaded in a way which discloses a cause of action and is not embarrassing. The third party notices do not because they do not recognise that the three auditors were employed at different times so that in some cases the auditor had not been employed when the relevant events took place or had retired. Moreover, the notices do not in a number of respects give the particulars which a pleading should. These defects were recognised by counsel for the officers, who suggested that the appropriate course would be to order the service of third party statements of claim notwithstanding that all parties had hitherto treated the third party notices as third party statements of claim. This seems to me to be a sensible way of dealing with the matter. Thus, having struck out those parts of the third party notices which I have indicated, I will order the service of third party statements of claim and give such other directions as are requisite to enable the remaining issues to be determined.
Order accordingly.
Hazel Hartman Barrister.
Easton v Ford Motor Co Ltd
[1993] 4 All ER 257
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DILLON AND BUTLER-SLOSS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 22, 23 APRIL 1993
Pleading – Amendment – Appeal against refusal of leave to amend – Application to amend defence before trial – Defendants applying for leave to amend defence five years after filing of defence – Action not ready for trial – Whether leave to amend should be granted.
A company instituted an ‘employee suggestion plan’ whereby certain employees would be awarded money and new cars for suggestions that saved the company money or were advantageous to the company. In 1986 the plaintiff issued proceedings against the company claiming that he had made such a suggestion and should have received an award but had not. The company’s initial defence was that the suggestion was not novel, but in June 1991 it applied to add the defence that the plaintiff had signed an application form for the award containing a condition that the decision of the ‘suggestion plan committee’ refusing the grant of an award was final. At the time of the application to amend no date for trial had been fixed. The registrar refused the application and on appeal the judge upheld his decision on the grounds that the amendment raised a new defence, the plaintiff had been subjected to the strains of litigation and the raising of false hopes for over five years and leave should be refused in the interests of justice. The company appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – In the ordinary course of litigation an amendment to pleadings ought to be allowed for the purpose of determining the issues between the parties if no injustice was caused to a party by the amendment. The judge had misdirected himself in his assessment of where justice lay and had failed to take into account the fact that the action was not ready for trial. The application to amend did not raise any need for new evidence and the delays in bringing the action to trial were largely the responsibility of the plaintiff and his advisers, who had it in their hands to progress the action. Accordingly, there was no injustice in allowing the amendments. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 264 a b f g and p 267 f to h, post).
Dicta of Brett MR in Clarapede & Co v Commercial Union Association (1883) 32 WR 262 at 263, of Bowen LJ in Cropper v Smith (1884) 26 Ch D 700 at 710–711 and of Jenkins LJ in G L Baker Ltd v Medway Building and Supplies Ltd [1958] 3 All ER 540 at 546 applied.
Dictum of Lord Griffiths in Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 38 at 62 considered.
Notes
For amendment of pleadings with leave, see 36 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 68–72, and for cases on the subject, see 37(1) Digest (Reissue) 255–272, 1696–1781.
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Cases referred to in judgments
Baker (G L) Ltd v Medway Building and Supplies Ltd [1958] 3 All ER 540, [1958] 1 WLR 1216, CA.
Bower v Maxwell [1989] CA Transcript 472.
British Gas plc v Green Elms Ltd [1988] CA Transcript 89.
Clarapede & Co v Commercial Union Association (1883) 32 WR 262, CA.
Cropper v Smith (1884) 26 Ch D 700, CA; rvsd (1885) 10 App Cas 249, HL.
Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 38, [1987] AC 189, [1987] 2 WLR 312, HL; affg [1985] 1 All ER 352, [1984] 1 WLR 1274, CA.
Khalsa v Hepherd Winstanley & Pugh [1992] CA Transcript 450.
Lubin v HTV Cymru/Wales Ltd [1991] CA Transcript 766.
McLellan v Leighton’s Estate [1988] CA Transcript 433.
Tildesley v Harper (1878) 10 Ch D 393, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
American Cyanamid Co v Ethicon Ltd [1975] 1 All ER 504, [1975] AC 396, HL.
Arab Monetary Fund v Hashim [1992] CA Transcript 4.
Atkinson v Fitzwalter [1987] 1 All ER 483, [1987] 1 WLR 201, CA.
Berg v Glentworth Bulb Co Ltd (1988) Independent, 10 October.
Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297, HL.
Building Services (London) Ltd v Kerryredd Engineering Ltd [1991] CA Transcript 334.
Dept of Transport v Chris Smaller (Transport) Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 897, [1989] AC 1197, HL.
East Ham BC v Bernard Sunley & Sons Ltd [1965] 3 All ER 619, [1966] AC 406, HL.
Gray v Bennett & Sons (a firm) [1987] CA Transcript 104.
Hancock Shipping Co Ltd v Kawaski Heavy Industries Ltd [1992] 3 All ER 132, [1992] 1 WLR 1025, CA.
Jokai Tea Holdings Ltd, Re [1993] 1 All ER 630, [1992] 1 WLR 1196, CA.
Kaye (P & M) Ltd v Hosier & Dickinson Ltd [1972] 1 All ER 121, [1972] 1 WLR 146, HL.
Kurtz v Spence (1887) 36 Ch D 770, CA.
Lee v Showmen’s Guild of GB [1952] 1 All ER 1175, [1952] 2 QB 329, CA.
Panamena Europea Navigacion (Cia Lmtda) v Frederick Leyland & Co Ltd [1947] AC 428, HL.
President of India v John Shaw & Sons (Salford) Ltd [1977] CA Transcript 383A.
Ranger v Great Western Rly Co (1854) 5 HL Cas 72, [1843–60] All ER Rep 321, 10 ER 824, HL.
Watts v Morrow [1991] 4 All ER 937, [1991] 1 WLR 1421, CA.
Interlocutory appeal
The defendants, Ford Motor Co Ltd, appealed against the decision of Eastham J given on 3 April 1992 dismissing an appeal by the defendants from the decision of District Judge Wilkinson given on 7 October 1991 refusing to allow the defendants to re-amend paras 2 and 5 of their amended defence in an action brought by the plaintiff, Peter Easton, against the defendants for breach of contract. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dillon LJ.
Conrad Dehn QC and Murray Shanks (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for the defendants.
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Geoffrey Tattersall QC and Andrew G Moran (instructed by Poole Swale, Widnes) for the plaintiff.
DILLON LJ. This appeal is an appeal by the defendants in the action, Ford Motor Co Ltd, against an interlocutory decision of Eastham J given on 3 April 1992. By his decision the judge dismissed an appeal by the defendants from an earlier decision of District Judge Wilkinson of 7 October 1991. The material effect of that was that, though Eastham J allowed certain amendments to the defendant’s defence, two particular amendments which the defendants had originally sought by a summons issued in June 1991, were refused on the grounds that they raised a fresh issue, a fresh defence and, in the judge’s view, the interests of justice, and the authority of Lord Griffiths in Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 38, [1987] AC 189 to which I shall come, required that the court should not allow the amendments to be made.The action was initially brought by two plaintiffs, the first plaintiff Mr Easton and the second plaintiff, Mr Westbury. The writ was issued on 28 April 1986. However, we can forget about Mr Westbury because, a considerable time ago, in December 1987, he accepted a payment into court by the defendants in respect of his claims. Mr Easton has since then been the sole plaintiff.
It is unnecessary to go into any great detail of Mr Easton’s claim. The basis is that Mr Easton was employed by the Ford Motor Co at their factory at Halewood. In 1980 Ford established a scheme called the ‘employee suggestion plan’. The scheme offered certain categories of employee, which included Mr Easton, awards not exceeding at the relevant time £2,500, together with a new motor car, for suggestions made by the employee which, on being adopted by Ford, either saved Ford money or otherwise conferred some advantage on Ford in the carrying out of its business.
It is not in doubt that in September 1980, or thereabouts, Mr Easton submitted a suggestion proposing a modification or modifications to the radio earth wire fitted on Ford Escort cars. That suggestion was to the effect either that the wire should be shortened or that, instead of being made of a braided material, it should be made of a cheaper material. The combination of the two, rather than either suggestion individually, was adopted by Ford. Mr Easton’s claim is that he should have been granted an award.
Until recently the essence of the defence put forward was to the effect that Mr Easton did not get any award because his suggestion was not novel. It was said that the idea of shortening the radio earth and securing it to a different point had been put forward by a Mr Carney in August 1980, before Mr Easton’s suggestion, and the suggestion of a thinner earth wire had also been made earlier than Mr Easton’s suggestion.
There was a suggestion in the pleadings at one stage that the cheaper wire idea had come from a Mr Johnson, but that was corrected by an amendment of the pleadings to say that it came from a Herr Schollmann in 1977. It appears that Herr Schollmann was in fact an employee of the German Ford Company and not an employee of the English Ford Motor Co Ltd.
The new point which it is sought to put forward by the further amendments which are in question is that it is provided in the scheme documents that the committee which has to scrutinise the various employees’ suggestions, the suggestion plan committee, has a position of finality and therefore its decision cannot be challenged. It is common ground on the facts that the form of
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application which is signed by a person making a suggestion includes the statement:
‘All decisions made by the Suggestion Committee regarding eligibility, adoption, rejection or award shall be final.’
It is not in doubt that that document is contractual. There is also a booklet, which is issued to employees which says:
‘Someone has to have the last word so all decisions made by the Committee under the plan, including those regarding eligibility, adoption, rejection or award, are final and binding upon the suggestor.’
The particular amendments, therefore, which Ford now want to make are these. First of all, the introduction into para 2 of the re-amended defence of the following:
‘Decisions on awards were made by the Suggestion Plan Committee at the employees’ location and it was a condition of the scheme set out on Form 7325 [which is the application form] and in the said booklet that the decisions of the said Committee were final.’
In addition, it is sought to add in particulars under para 5, as the last two lines under sub-para (b):
‘In accordance with the terms of the scheme the said decision was final.’
That provision in the form and in the booklet has been referred to in argument as the ‘finality clause’.
The application to make these amendments was only made, as I have mentioned, in June 1991, although the action had been begun in 1986. It is pertinent to bear in mind the remarkably slow pace at which this action had proceeded.
There was indeed reasonably prompt action in 1986. After the issue of the writ the statement of claim was served on 2 June 1986, and the defence on 6 August 1986. Further and better particulars of the statement of claim were served on 29 September 1986, and a reply on the same date. Further and better particulars of the defence were served on 20 January 1987. There was then a pause. On 10 September 1987 the plaintiffs’ list of documents was served, and the defendants’ list followed on 19 November 1987. Ignoring the position of the second plaintiff, Mr Westbury, who, after that accepted the payment into court, the next step was almost two years later, on 8 November 1989, when an amended defence was served. There was then a further delay of near on a year until, on 5 October 1990, interrogatories were served on the defendants. These were answered on 21 February 1991. There was a matter then of amendment of the reply. In June there were the applications to amend the defence by raising the matter of the ‘finality clause’ with certain other amendments, which were for clarification only and are not in dispute, coupled with an application that in relation to the ‘finality clause’, if that was allowed as an amendment to the pleading, there should be a direction for the trial of a preliminary issue. It was however made plain that the defendants desired to plead the ‘finality clause’ whether or not a preliminary issue was ordered, though it has been on the hearing of this appeal the common view of counsel on both sides that subject to appropriate wording a preliminary issue will be useful.
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The summons for directions has not yet been issued and the case therefore is far from having a fixed date for trial. In point of fact, the parties are also agreed that it is appropriate that the case should be remitted to the county court for trial since, although the amounts claimed when the writ was issued were above the county court jurisdiction, the amounts are now well within the county court’s jurisdiction so that to remit the case to the county court would be appropriate.
In considering whether or not to allow this amendment, Eastham J referred to an affidavit by a Mr Fallon, who is employed by the solicitors who act for Ford. In para 14 of that affidavit Mr Fallon said:
‘I took custody of Ford’s defence in October 1990. Having considered the papers with counsel, it seemed clear to me that there was a further point which Ford might take on the pleadings, namely that the decision of its Suggestion Committee was—as a matter of contract—binding both upon the employee from whom the suggestion emanated and upon Ford itself.’
The position appears to be that, though it is obvious, when the application form and the booklet are looked at, that the ‘finality clause’ is part of the contract and is something that should have been pleaded, nobody happened to notice it when the papers were being prepared, presumably by the solicitors, for submission to counsel, nor was it spotted by counsel when the pleading was originally settled. I can see no reason for supposing that there was anything sinister in the fact that the ‘finality clause’ was not pleaded by counsel in the original pleading and I have no reason to doubt Mr Fallon’s statement in his affidavit that the ‘finality clause’ and its effect were appreciated by Mr Fallon for the first time. They were indeed, as is clear from the evidence, known to Mr Easton and his solicitors at the time that the proceedings were instituted.
Eastham J considers in his judgment the law in relation to the amendment of pleadings. He refers to s 49(2) of the Supreme Court Act 1981, which sets out that the court shall so exercise its jurisdiction in every cause or matter before it so as to secure that as far as possible all matters in dispute between the parties are completely and finally determined and all multiplicity of legal proceedings with respect to any of those matters is avoided.
Then he quotes passages to which he had been referred by counsel in the notes to RSC Ord 20 in The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 1, para 20/5-8/6. He quotes also from citations in para 20/5-8/6, including a quotation from Jenkins LJ in G L Baker Ltd v Medway Building and Supplies Ltd [1958] 3 All ER 540 at 546, [1958] 1 WLR 1216 at 1231:
‘… it is a guiding principle of cardinal importance on this question that, generally speaking, all such amendments ought to be made “as may be necessary for the purpose of determining the real questions in controversy between the parties”.’
He went on to quote from, what he described as, the ‘very familiar cases’ in the nineteenth century—from Bowen LJ’s judgment in Cropper v Smith (1884) 26 Ch D 700 at 710–711, and from Bramwell LJ in Tildesley v Harper (1876) 10 Ch D 393 at 396, and also from Brett MR’s judgment in Clarapede & Co v Commercial Union Association (1883) 32 WR 262 at 263. All these are matters that are very well known and represent the established practice, subject only to the decision in Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd [1988] 1 All ER 38, [1987] AC 189, and the
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cases in this court in which the effect of Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd has been applied.
In Ketteman’s case the court had a number of rather complicated issues, including the question from what date an addition of a party to a writ takes effect and questions to do with whether certain houses were doomed from the start. There was also a question of an amendment of the pleadings in that, at the end of the trial certain of the defendants, who were architects, had applied for and been granted leave by the judge to amend their defence to plead the Limitation Act. When Ketteman’s case came to the Court of Appeal the Court of Appeal set aside the judge’s grant of leave to amend as coming too late (see [1985] 1 All ER 352, [1984] 1 WLR 1274). When the case came to the House of Lords their Lordships approved, by a majority of three to two, the decision of the Court of Appeal against the architects, disallowing their plea of limitation. Lord Keith of Kinkel and Lord Brandon of Oakbrook dissented on that point. The majority view was expressed by Lord Griffiths, with the agreement of Lord Goff of Chieveley and clearly in relation to the circumstances of Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd, the actual case, Lord Templeman, though it has been suggested by Mr Dehn QC that Lord Templeman’s concurrence in the result may not extend to every nuance of what Lord Griffiths said. That is an aspect with which we are not concerned in the present case.
It is sufficient, for my purposes, to refer only to the speech of Lord Griffiths. He commented that he had never in his experience at the Bar or on the Bench heard of an application to amend to plead a limitation defence during the course of final speeches (see [1988] 1 All ER 38 at 61, [1987] AC 189 at 219). He said that such an application would in his view inevitably have been rejected as far too late. That was because a defence of limitation permitted a defendant to raise a procedural bar which prevented the plaintiff from pursuing the action against him and it made no sense if he should be allowed to raise that procedural bar when the trial was nearly completed.
He then went on to refer to the usual practice and cited the well-known passage from Clarapede & Co v Commercial Union Association. He pointed out that that was not a case in which an application had been made to amend during the final speeches and the court was not considering the special nature of a limitation defence. He went on in the passage which has been cited again and again in subsequent cases ([1988] 1 All ER 38 at 62, [1987] AC 189 at 220):
‘Furthermore, whatever may have been the rule of conduct a hundred years ago, today it is not the practice invariably to allow a defence which is wholly different from that pleaded to be raised by amendment at the end of the trial even on terms that an adjournment is granted and that the defendant pays all the costs thrown away. There is a clear difference between allowing amendments to clarify the issues in dispute and those that permit a distinct defence to be raised for the first time. Whether an amendment should be granted is a matter for the discretion of the trial judge and he should be guided in the exercise of the discretion by his assessment of where justice lies. Many and diverse factors will bear on the exercise of this discretion. I do not think it possible to enumerate them all or wise to attempt to do so. But justice cannot always be measured in terms of money and in my view a judge is entitled to weigh in the balance the strain the litigation imposes on litigants, particularly if they are personal litigants rather than business corporations, the anxieties
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occasioned by facing new issues, the raising of false hopes, and the legitimate expectation that the trial will determine the issues one way or the other. Furthermore, to allow an amendment before a trial begins is quite different from allowing it at the end of the trial to give an apparently unsuccessful defendant an opportunity to renew the fight on an entirely different defence.’
In the present case Eastham J very properly cited that passage from Lord Griffiths’s speech and, having done so, he said that he found that passage to be of general application, subject to the qualification that the application to amend in Ketteman’s case was indeed made during closing speeches and was to plead a ‘limitation’ defence. He then said:
‘I turn to consider the matters Lord Griffiths says I should consider in assessing where justice lies.’
He cites the reference to weighing in the balance the strain the litigation imposes, and so forth, down to the raising of false hopes. He said:
‘Mr Easton has been subjected to the strains of litigation over five years. It is true that part of that time may be due to the fact that his advisors did not proceed as rapidly as they might have done. But five years has passed since the issue of the writ. He is a personal plaintiff and he happens to be one without legal aid. He finds himself ranged against a major English company which in turn is a subsidiary of a multinational company. The strains of this action must have been not only financial but also emotional. So far as raising false hopes is concerned it is perfectly obvious that Mr Easton’s hopes were raised by the fact that in its defences Ford showed itself prepared to let the case be adjudicated on its merits. His confidence was increased by the fact that the defendants were in difficulties on the merits as to Mr Schollmann. His hopes were raised, and no doubt partially so by the fact that his colleague who had made a suggestion to Ford got £8,500 and costs for his trouble. As far as the proposed reamendment is concerned, I have to consider the anxiety occasioned by the raising of a new issue. This must be most serious anxiety because the new issue, if allowed, to quote two phrases used by Miss Fellner in her skeleton argument, “could be conclusive” and could be considered a “killer” defence raised for the first time after five years.’
Then he said:
‘This is indeed an application made to allow re-amendment before the trial begins, but it is made by a defendant who first of all had to abandon Johnson and insert Schollmann, then had to admit by interrogatories that Schollmann was not an employee of theirs, and then, faced with the difficulties put in their way by the draft amended reply, sat down and sought the opportunity “to renew the fight on an entirely different defence”. I fully appreciate that these re-amendments are sought before the trial begins, but the point as to the finality of the committee’s decision is an entirely new defence put forward by Ford when they realised that their original defence was crumbling away and would not be successful or probably would not be successful on the merits.’
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Therefore he upheld the decision of the district registrar and refused the amendments.
In my judgment, the judge has seriously misdirected himself on the facts in relation to that. He has stressed the delay since the issue of the writ until the application to amend was first made, but it is the plaintiff who is dominus litis and it is the plaintiff and his advisers who have it in their hands to get on with the action so as to get to trial and cut all delay. Therefore, it does not lie in the plaintiff’s mouth to complain that the strain to which he has been subjected by the continuance of the litigation has been so long. Also, in my judgment, the judge has wrongly assessed the position of Ford on their pleadings in the action apart from this desired amendment. There was indeed a correction by substituting the name of Schollmann for the name of Johnson, Johnson had been the person in this country who had received and transmitted to the relevant department the suggestion made by Schollmann, but the fact that Schollmann was an employee of Ford of Germany, and not of the Ford Motor Co, in no way invalidates the point, as far as I can see, that the information, whatever it was that Schollmann gave which reached the Ford Motor Co in England had been given prior in date to Mr Easton’s suggestion, and prevented Mr Easton’s suggestion being new. It does not follow that the realisation or admission that Mr Schollmann was not an employee of the Ford Motor Co cuts away the defence originally pleaded. The history of the litigation so far does not give me any basis for suggesting that the defence originally pleaded, substituting Schollmann for Johnson, is in any particular way weak or weakened by the passage of time. Furthermore, the judge’s approach disregards the passage from Mr Fallon’s affidavit which he had read, explaining how Mr Fallon found this obviously relevant point which had been previously overlooked. Given that the judge is looking at the case against an erroneous, in my view, assessment of the factual situation it is open to this court to review the decision which he made in the intended exercise of his discretion. Beyond that, however, in my judgment he has misdirected himself in attaching so much importance to the factors to which Lord Griffiths drew attention, for assessing where justice lies, while wholly failing to take into account that this action is nowhere near ready for trial. Quite obviously, there is more to be said for refusing an amendment when the action is in the course of trial or very nearly ready for trial.
The judge did not have the advantage that we have had of citation of unreported decisions of this court which touch on the application of Lord Griffiths’s speech in Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd where the application to amend does not involve a limitation defence and is not made during closing speeches at the trial. There are a substantial number of such cases to which we have been referred, indeed, probably some eight decisions of this court, and as it has happened not one of them has been thought worthy by the reporters of being reported. I have found several of them very helpful in dealing with a situation which has obviously been causing difficulty to judges at first instance, who have basically to exercise their discretion over whether or not an application for leave to amend a pleading should be allowed.
The first I would refer to, though by no means the earliest of the unreported cases to which we were referred, was Khalsa v Hepherd Winstanley & Pugh [1992] CA Transcript 450 decided on 8 May 1992, by a division of this court consisting of Mann LJ and Lord Bridge of Harwich. That was on an appeal from a decision
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of Sir Michael Ogden QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court. Mann LJ said:
‘The learned deputy judge gave a short judgment disallowing the amendments now subject to appeal and indicated in that judgment that he considered himself bound by the decision of the House of Lords in Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd and in particular by the speech of Lord Griffiths with which two other members of the House agreed (see [1988] 1 All ER 38 at 60–61, [1987] AC 189 at 219–220). That passage was relied upon by Mr Critchlow before us today. I need not read it again. I observe of it that the House was concerned with a particular situation. That situation was one where it was sought to amend at the conclusion of the trial. It is to that situation, as I read it, that the remarks of Lord Griffiths were addressed. It is not the situation before this court. The situation before this court, as before the learned deputy judge, is one which falls to be considered by reference to the familiar principles governing the grant of leave to amend the pleading. Those familiar principles are set out in The Supreme Court Practice 1993, in particular in the note to Ord 20 r 5 at para 20/5-8/6.’
Then Mann LJ cites from Jenkins LJ in G L Baker Ltd v Medway Building and Supplies Ltd [1958] 3 All ER 540, [1958] 1 WLR 1216, and from Bowen LJ in Cropper v Smith (1884) 26 Ch D 700. He continues:
‘The learned deputy judge having, from the note of his judgment, apparently directed himself in accordance with guidance which is not material in the circumstances of this case, it is open to this court to exercise its own discretion. That discretion is exercised in accordance with the recognised principles derived from the authorities, to which I have referred.’
Then Mann LJ refers to the arguments, which the court had heard, which had focused upon the question of injustice or prejudice. He said:
‘It was sensible and right that the arguments should focus upon prejudice, because undoubtedly in the absence of prejudice the would-be amender is entitled to have his case before the court.’
Lord Bridge entirely agreed with the judgment of Mann LJ.
Then there is British Gas plc v Green Elms Ltd [1988] CA Transcript 89 decided on 5 February 1988, by a division of this court consisting of Croom-Johnson and Staughton LJJ. The leading judgment was given by Staughton LJ. That was an appeal from a decision of Judge John Davies QC, sitting as an official referee, who had refused the plaintiffs leave to amend their reply to the defence of the first defendants and refused extensions of time for the service of a reply on the second and third defendants. Staughton LJ said:
‘I start with what was said by Bowen LJ in Cropper v Smith (1884) 26 Ch D 700 at 710–711: “It is a well-established principle that the object of the Court is to decide the rights of the parties, and not to punish them for mistakes they make in the conduct of their cases by deciding otherwise than in accordance with their rights … I know of no kind of error or mistake which, if not fraudulent or intended to overreach, the Court ought not to correct, if it can be done without injustice to the other party. Courts
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do not exist for the sake of discipline, but for the sake of deciding matters in controversy, and I do not regard such amendment as a matter of favour or grace.” That passage is or ought to be engraved on the heart or lodged firmly in the brain of every practitioner. But it needs to be modified somewhat in the light of the recent decision of the House of Lords in Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd. There the majority held that leave to make a late amendment raising a defence of limitation should not have been granted during the final speeches at the end of a long trial. There is a passage in the speech of Lord Griffiths which makes it very clear that there are circumstances in which it is just to refuse leave to amend even though it can be said that costs and an adjournment will cure all (see [1988] 1 All ER 38 at 62, [1987] AC 199 at 220). That particular case was concerned with an amendment made during final speeches and, what is more, an amendment to raise a plea of limitation for the first time. Those are particular features of the decision. I bear what Lord Griffiths said in mind, but this application has not been made at the end of the trial. It was made 18 months before the trial was due to begin. It is true to say that it is adding a new issue rather than clarifying the old issues. But the new issue is one which to anyone familiar with building contract cases was obviously liable to arise.’
Then he goes on to consider the issue in greater detail than I need go into. He says:
‘It is said that there was delay on the part of the plaintiffs and they should have advanced their case earlier.’
A few lines later he continues:
‘But, even if there was reprehensible delay, I remind myself that courts do not exist for the sake of discipline or to punish mistakes but to decide the rights of the parties.’
Croom-Johnson LJ agreed with Staughton LJ’s judgment and draws attention to the fact that in the case before him the amendment was proposed well in advance of the trial of the action as it is in the present case.
Then there is McLellan v Leighton’s Estate [1988] CA Transcript 433, where O’Connor LJ, in the leading judgment, said:
‘I do not understand Lord Griffiths as in any way criticising the well-established rule that in the ordinary course of litigation amendments are to be permitted so long as no injustice is caused to a party. Ketteman v Hansel Properties Ltd itself was exceptional because the amendment was applied for at a time which was very, very late.’
There were a number of other cases to which we were also referred. I do not need to go through them all. I should, however, mention two unreported decisions of this court on which Mr Tattersall for the plaintiff, Mr Easton, particularly relied. These were both concerned with defamation cases. The first was Bower v Maxwell [1989] CA Transcript 472, decided by a division of this court consisting of Woolf LJ and Sir Denys Buckley. That was an appeal against a refusal of Michael Davies J to give the defendant leave to amend his defence. The amendment sought was to introduce for the first time a plea of justification which the defendant, Mr Robert Maxwell, had up to then refrained from
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seeking to put forward. Leave to amend was refused by Michael Davies J, and it was pointed out in the opening paragraph of Woolf LJ’s judgment that that judge heard the application in his capacity as judge in charge of the jury list. He heard such applications so that greater control should be exercised on the progress of litigation so as to secure the more expeditious efficient and economical disposal of actions in that list. Woolf LJ stressed the judge’s position, because it had been sought to be argued that, as a matter of principle and authority, the judge on the facts of the case had no discretion to refuse to allow the defendant leave to amend.
The other defamation case was Lubin v HTV Cymru/Wales Ltd [1991] CA Transcript 766, decided on 19 July 1991 by a division of the court consisting of Ralph Gibson LJ and myself. This was an appeal on the eve of trial against a ruling by Pill J on Tuesday, 16 July, the appeal being heard on 19 July, when the case had been fixed for trial in Cardiff starting on 24 July, the Wednesday of the following week. The defendants were seeking at that stage to introduce an entirely fresh plea of justification. Pill J heard the application in his capacity as the judge in charge of the listing in the court at Cardiff. I know of no case, and counsel appearing before us have not suggested any, in which, even apart from Ketteman’s case, a defendant in a defamation case has had the temerity to apply, in the course of final speeches at the trial with a jury, to amend the pleading to introduce an entirely novel plea of justification. No doubt any such application would have failed even had Ketteman’s case never been decided. I do not find any difficulty, therefore, in reconciling the decisions in the two cases of Bower v Maxwell and Lubin v HTV Cymru/Wales Ltd where the application was made on the eve of trial, in the one case, and in the other case to the judge in charge of the jury list after the case had been set down for trial, with the approach in the cases I have cited of Khalsa’s case and British Gas plc v Green Elms Ltd and McLellan v Leighton’s Estate.
In the present case I have no doubt at all that it is the normal rule that is to be applied, because this is an application to introduce a point which does not of itself raise any need for new evidence, though there may be questions arising by way of reply to the amendment which might involve some evidence—I know not at this stage. I see no injustice in allowing the ‘finality’ point to be raised because in the present case the delays that have taken place are largely the responsibility of Mr Easton and his advisers. Therefore, I would allow this appeal and allow the amendments to be made, but that should be subject to a condition as to costs which remains to be discussed.
Furthermore, it remains to discuss the order that ought to be made for the trial of a preliminary issue since both parties are agreed that such a trial should take place.
BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. I entirely agree with the judgment of Dillon LJ, and there is nothing I can usefully add.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Clark Boyce v Mouat
[1993] 4 All ER 268
Categories: PROFESSIONS; Lawyers
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD LOWRY, LORD MUSTILL AND LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY
Hearing Date(s): 10 MAY, 4 OCTOBER 1993
Solicitor – Duty – Conflict of interest – Acting for both parties in transaction – Mortgage – Whether solicitor ought to refuse to act for both parties where interests may conflict – Whether solicitor can act for both parties if he obtains informed consent of both parties – What amounts to informed consent – Whether solicitor under duty to go beyond instructions by proffering unsought advice on wisdom of transaction.
The respondent’s son wished to borrow $NZ100,000 but was unable to do so on the security of his house because it was fully mortgaged. His mother, the respondent, agreed to mortgage her house as security for the loan but the son’s usual solicitors declined to act in the transaction. The respondent’s son then approached the appellant firm of solicitors, who agreed to act for both the son and the respondent. At a meeting at the appellants’ offices the respondent was advised to seek independent advice before entering into the transaction but she declined to do so and signed an authority to act to that effect. After the nature of the transaction had been explained to her and she had been advised that she would be the principal debtor and not merely a guarantor and that she could lose her house and property if the son failed to keep up the mortgage payments, the respondent signed the mortgage documents. The son’s business subsequently failed and he became bankrupt, with the result that the respondent was left with the liability of repaying the mortgage. The respondent brought an action against the appellants alleging that they had acted (i) negligently and in breach of contract in failing to ensure that she received her own independent advice and in refusing to act for her when they were also acting for the son and (ii) in breach of their fiduciary duty in (a) failing to decline to act for her, (b) failing to disclose that the son’s usual solicitors had refused to act, that they had no knowledge of the son’s ability to service the mortgage and that it was not in her interests to sign the mortgage and (c) failing adequately to advise the respondent of her need for independent advice. The judge gave judgment for the appellants but the New Zealand Court of Appeal allowed an appeal by the respondent. The appellants appealed to the Privy Council.
Held – There was no general rule of law that a solicitor should never act for both parties in a transaction where their interests might conflict. Instead, a solicitor was entitled to act for both parties in a transaction even where their interests might conflict provided he obtained the informed consent of both parties to his acting. Informed consent in that context meant consent given in the knowledge that there was a conflict between the parties and that as a result the solicitor might be disabled from disclosing to each party the full knowledge which he possessed as to the transaction or might be disabled from giving advice to one party which conflicted with the interests of the other, and if the parties were content to proceed on that basis the solicitor could properly act for both parties. In determining whether a solicitor had obtained informed consent to acting for parties with conflicting interests it was essential to determine
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precisely what services were required of him by the parties since, if a client in full command of his faculties and apparently aware of what he was doing sought the assistance of a solicitor in the carrying out of a particular transaction, the solicitor was under no duty, whether before or after accepting instructions, to go beyond those instructions by proffering unsought advice on the wisdom of the transaction. On the facts, the respondent had required of the appellants no more than that they should carry out the necessary conveyancing on her behalf and explain to her the legal implications of the transaction since she was already aware of the consequences if her son defaulted and was not concerned about the wisdom of the transaction. In those circumstances the appellants had, by advising her to obtain and offering to arrange independent advice, done all that was reasonably required of them before accepting her instructions and had therefore not acted in breach of contract or of a fiduciary duty. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 273 h j and p 274 e to p 275 c f to p 276 a, post).
Dictum of Upjohn LJ in Boulting v Association of Cinematograph Television and Allied Technicians [1963] 1 All ER 716 at 729 applied.
Notes
For a solicitor acting for opposing interests, see 44 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 133, and for cases on the subject, see 44 Digest (Reissue) 126–127, 1227–1240.
Cases referred to in judgment
Boulting v Association of Cinematograph Television and Allied Technicians [1963] 1 All ER 716, [1963] 2 QB 606, [1963] 2 WLR 529, CA.
Farrington v Row McBride & Partners [1985] 1 NZLR 83, NZ CA
Fullwood v Hurley [1928] 1 KB 498, [1927] All ER Rep 610, CA.
Haslam and Hier-Evans, Re [1902] 1 Ch 765, CA.
Lewis v Hillman (1852) 3 HL Cas 607, 10 ER 239.
Nocton v Lord Ashburton [1914] AC 932, [1914–15] All ER Rep 45, HL.
Appeal
Clark Boyce, solicitors of Christchurch, New Zealand, appealed with leave granted by the New Zealand Court of Appeal on 3 August 1992 from the decision of that court (McGechan J and Sir Gordon Bisson (Gault J dissenting)) (1 NZ Conv C 190,917) on 26 June 1991 allowing the appeal of the respondent, Dorothy Dean Mouat, from the decision of Holland J on 4 March 1991 dismissing her action against the appellants for negligence, breach of contract and breach of fiduciary duty. The facts are set out in the judgment of the Board.
Rupert Jackson QC, Austin Forbes and Shuna Lennon (both of the New Zealand Bar) with him, (instructed by Turner Kenneth Brown) for the appellants.
P F Whiteside (of the New Zealand Bar) (instructed by Alan Taylor & Co) for the respondent.
4 October 1993. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. This appeal concerns the position of a solicitor who carries out a conveyancing transaction on behalf of two parties with conflicting interests. The dramatis personae are Mrs Mouat, the respondent, a widow of 72 years at the material time, her son Mr R G Mouat, a chartered accountant and management consultant then aged 45 years, and Mr
Page 270 of [1993] 4 All ER 268
Martin Boyce, a solicitor and partner in the Christchurch firm of Clark Boyce, the appellants.
In August or September 1988 Mr Mouat wished to raise $100,000 to pay for certain alterations to his house and meet certain business expenses. Since his own house was fully mortgaged he asked his mother whether she would be prepared to mortgage her house for the required sum and upon her agreement he made preliminary arrangements for the execution by her of a mortgage as a first security over her house to secure a loan of $110,250 from Allied Mortgage Guarantee Co Ltd (AMG). In terms of the proposed arrangements Mrs Mouat was the mortgagor, Mr Mouat was the guarantor and the loan was for a period of three years with interest of $4,065 payable quarterly. It was part of the arrangement that Mr Mouat would undertake primary liability for payment of the interest. In pursuance of the proposed arrangements AMG sent certain documents to Mr Mouat’s solicitor, Mr P M Davis of Messrs Meares Williams, who was also a family friend, but he advised Mr Mouat that it was not a matter in which his firm should properly act. Thereafter Mr Mouat asked Mr Boyce whether he would be prepared to act for him and his mother, to which Mr Boyce replied that he would subject to certain conditions. On 9 November 1988 Mrs Mouat was taken by her son to Mr Boyce’s office and during the course of a meeting, whose details will be referred to later, Mrs Mouat signed the mortgage and some ancillary documents. Mr Mouat also signed the mortgage. In 1989 Mr Mouat’s business deteriorated and by early 1990 he was in arrears with payment of interest on his mother’s mortgage. Later he became bankrupt, with the result that Mrs Mouat was left with a liability to repay the principal sum of $110,250 together with arrears of interest. She thereafter raised the present action against the appellants, alleging in her statement of claim that they were in breach of contract in, inter alia, the following respects:
‘(a) That the [appellants] failed to ensure that the [respondent] had her own independent advice in respect of the said transaction.
(b) That the [appellants] failed to refuse to act for the [respondent] in respect of the said transaction when [they were] acting for the said Robert Gordon Mouat.’
She alleged negligence on the part of the appellants in identical respects. She further alleged that the appellants had breached their fiduciary obligations in the following manner:
‘(a) [They] failed to decline to act for the [respondent].
(b) [They] failed to disclose the following relevant information to the [respondent]:—(i) That the former solicitors for the said Robert Gordon Mouat, Meares Williams, had declined to act for either the said Robert Gordon Mouat or the [respondent] in respect of the proposed mortgage transaction. (ii) That [they] had only been instructed on the 8th day of November 1988 to act for the said Robert Gordon Mouat in respect of the proposed mortgage transaction and knew nothing about his ability to service the mortgage. (iii) That it was not in her interests to sign the mortgage.
(c) [They] failed to adequately advise the [respondent] of her need for independent advice.’
After trial Holland J gave judgment for the appellants, but the Court of Appeal by a majority allowed Mrs Mouat’s appeal and remitted the case back to
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the High Court to deal with questions of contributory negligence and contribution (see (1991) 1 NZ Conv C 190,917). At this stage it is unnecessary to refer to the further proceedings which followed the remit.
It is appropriate now to return to the meeting in Mr Boyce’s office which lasted for some 40 to 50 minutes. Holland J accepted Mr Boyce’s account of this meeting and where there was a conflict preferred his evidence to that of Mrs Mouat. Although he found that in 1988 Mrs Mouat was fully able to comprehend the nature of the transactions involved and the risk to her property he considered that her health had deteriorated since that time and that her memory as to certain events which had then occurred was not entirely accurate. In reaching this conclusion he made clear that Mrs Mouat gave her evidence in accordance with what she believed to be true.
At the beginning of the meeting Mr Boyce pointed out to Mrs Mouat that her position as mortgagor providing the security was substantially different to that of her son as guarantor and recipient of the loan and he advised her to obtain independent legal advice. He also indicated that he could arrange for her to see a lawyer at one of the neighbouring law firms if she so wished. Mrs Mouat stated that she did not think it was necessary to see another lawyer. Mr Boyce formed the impression that she had made her decision and that was the end of the matter. He then drafted a form of authority and declinature of independent advice which Mrs Mouat agreed to sign and which was in the following terms:
‘Messrs Clark Boyce
Solicitors
Christchurch
Attention: Mr Boyce
Dear Sirs
I hereby direct and authorise you to disburse to my son Robert Gordon Mouat the net proceeds derived from the mortgage over my property at 106 Roydvale Avenue, Christchurch and given to the Allied Mortgage Guarantee Company Limited on the 9th November, 1988 and in accordance with the documentation I have signed at your offices today. I further direct that the receipt of my son shall be a sufficient and proper discharge to you as to the disbursement of those funds. I acknowledge you have fully advised me of the legal implications and effects arising out of the mortgage I have given to Allied Mortgage Guarantee Company Limited. I am aware your instructions in this matter have been given to you by Allied Mortgage Guarantee Company Limited on behalf of my son. Notwithstanding your advice I should obtain independent legal advice in relation to the matter I record and hereby instruct you I do not wish so to do.
Yours faithfully
[Signed] Mrs D D Mouat
(Dorothy Dean Mouat).’
Thereafter Mr Boyce went through the terms of the mortgage with Mrs Mouat and pointed out to her as bluntly as he could that if her son failed to meet the mortgage payments she would lose her house and property. Mrs Mouat then stated that she considered that her son knew what he was doing and she trusted him. Mrs Mouat also made clear that she was already aware of the
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consequences of non-payment by her son. She thereafter signed the form of authority and the mortgage. On three occasions during the meeting Mr Boyce raised the question of independent advice but Mrs Mouat appeared to be determined to proceed without it.
Against that background of fact Holland J dealt with the allegation that Mr Boyce should have ensured that Mrs Mouat had independent advice in the following manner:
‘I am satisfied from the totality of the evidence that Mrs Mouat knew at all times that the defendant was her son’s solicitor, she knew the type of transaction that she was about to embark upon, and that having decided to support and trust her son she did not expect or require any legal advice as to the wisdom of her entering into the transaction. In the circumstances Mr Boyce was not negligent in what he did in this regard.’
He rejected the claim that Mr Boyce should have declined to act for Mrs Mouat on the ground that there was no general principle of law to this effect and went on to hold that Mr Boyce’s failure to discuss with Mrs Mouat Meares Williams’s refusal to act did not amount to a non-disclosure of material information in breach of a fiduciary duty. Even if the matter had been discussed, the learned judge considered that Mrs Mouat would either have said that she was aware of the matter or that it was not a matter which concerned her. Holland J further rejected the claim that in the circumstances Mr Boyce should have disclosed to Mrs Mouat that he was unaware of Mr Mouat’s ability to service the mortgage. He dealt with the claim that Mr Boyce should have advised Mrs Mouat that it was not in her interests to sign the mortgage in this way:
‘It was made quite apparent to Mr Boyce that Mrs Mouat knew what a mortgage was and that if her son defaulted she stood the risk of losing her home. It was obvious to her, as it was to everyone else, that it was not in her financial interests to sign the mortgage, but nevertheless she wished to do so. The circumstances were not such as gave rise to any obligation on Mr Boyce to advise her against signing the transaction. I note that in giving evidence the plaintiff indicated that if she had been advised by Mr Boyce not to sign the mortgage she would not have done so. Sadly, I am unable to accept that answer as accurately recording the situation as it was on the day.’
It was implicit in Mr Boyce’s evidence, which Holland J accepted, that Mrs Mouat did not require advice from him as to the wisdom of the transaction and that she had already decided what she wanted to do. Indeed during his evidence-in-chief Mr Boyce said:
‘I recall it was at that point she said she trusted Robbie and that was really the end of it as far as she was concerned. I got the distinct impression she’d made up her mind that she was going to assist him in this way. And there was nothing I was going to be able to do to dissuade her from that.’
The majority of the Court of Appeal, McGechan J and Sir Gordon Bisson, Gault J dissenting, allowed the appeal although accepting Holland J’s findings as to credibility and fact. Sir Gordon Bisson, who delivered the leading judgment in relation to breach of contract and tort, considered that Mr Boyce was not justified in accepting Mrs Mouat’s instructions relying, as he did, on his
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impression that she had made up her mind to assist her son. After referring to the conclusion of Holland J that Mrs Mouat did not require legal advice as to the wisdom of entering into the transaction he stated:
‘With respect, for the reasons I have given I draw a different conclusion from the evidence. In a word, the situation was so obviously one of grave conflict, one in which the son’s usual solicitor was not prepared to act even for him, that Mr Boyce, who was not a family solicitor with a full understanding of all the circumstances, should have ensured the appellant had independent legal advice or in the absence of advising her fully himself, he should have refused to act for her as well as for her son. In my view he was negligent under paras (a) and (b) as pleaded and already set out.’
In relation to fiduciary duty Sir Gordon Bisson said:
‘Applying those principles to this case, I am satisfied that there was a breach of fiduciary duty under the first allegation, that Mr Boyce should have declined to act for the appellant when already acting for Mr Mouat for the same reasons as I have held he was negligent. He did advise the appellant that she should have independent legal advice but he did not make the fullest disclosure to her of the circumstances known to him, or adequately advise her of her need for independent advice. Although the appellant understood her home would be at risk if her son defaulted in making the payments due under the mortgage she did not know the degree of that risk. Nor did Mr Boyce. He had the last chance to advise her on that risk. He should have disclosed that her son’s usual solicitors had declined to act for him and that he, Mr Boyce, unlike Mr Davies knew nothing of her son’s financial position and that he had made no inquiries into it. For these reasons I consider there was a breach of fiduciary duty as pleaded.’
McGechan J agreed with Sir Gordon Bisson’s conclusions as to breach of fiduciary duty and considered that Mr Boyce had failed to make a sufficient disclosure of material matters to establish a fully informed consent to the dual retainer proposed and that this failure related in particular to the following three facts: (1) that her son’s solicitors had refused to act, (2) that he had no knowledge of her son’s ability to service the mortgage and (3) that it was not in her interests to sign the mortgage.
There is no general rule of law to the effect that a solicitor should never act for both parties in a transaction where their interests may conflict. Rather is the position that he may act provided that he has obtained the informed consent of both to his acting. Informed consent means consent given in the knowledge that there is a conflict between the parties and that as a result the solicitor may be disabled from disclosing to each party the full knowledge which he possesses as to the transaction or may be disabled from giving advice to one party which conflicts with the interests of the other. If the parties are content to proceed upon this basis the solicitor may properly act. In Boulting v Association of Cinematograph Television and Allied Technicians [1963] 1 All ER 716 at 729, [1963] 2 QB 606 at 636 Upjohn LJ said:
‘… the client is entitled to the services of his solicitor who may not charge more than he is legally entitled to and must not put himself into a position where he may owe conflicting duties to different clients (see, e.g., Re Haslam and Hier-Evans ([1902] 1 Ch 765)). But the person entitled to the benefit of the rule may relax it, provided he is of full age and sui juris and
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fully understands not only what he is doing but also what his legal rights are and that he is in part surrendering them.’
Farrington v Row McBride & Partners [1985] 1 NZLR 83 concerned a solicitor who advised a client to invest money in a company which was also a client of his without disclosing that fact to the potential investor. Richardson J said (at 90):
‘A solicitor’s loyalty to his client must be undivided. He cannot properly discharge his duties to one whose interests are in opposition to those of another client. If there is a conflict in his responsibilities to one or both he must ensure that he fully discloses the material facts to both clients and obtains their informed consent to his so acting: “No agent who has accepted an employment from one principal can in law accept an engagement inconsistent with his duty to the first principal from a second principal, unless he makes the fullest disclosure to each principal of his interest, and obtains the consent of each principal to the double employment” (Fullwood v Hurley ([1928] 1 KB 498 at 502, [1927] All ER Rep 610 at 611) per Scrutton LJ). And there will be some circumstances in which it is impossible, notwithstanding such disclosure, for any solicitor to act fairly and adequately for both.’
In the last sentence of that dictum Richardson J no doubt had in mind a situation where one client sought advice on a matter which would involve disclosure of facts detrimental to the interests of the other client.
In determining whether a solicitor has obtained informed consent to acting for parties with conflicting interests it is essential to determine precisely what services are required of him by the parties. In this case Holland J was satisfied that Mrs Mouat was not concerned about the wisdom of the transaction and was ‘merely seek[ing] the services of the solicitor to ensure that the transaction [was] given proper and full effect by way of ascertaining questions of title and ensuring that by appropriate documentation the parties achieve[d] what they [had] contracted for’. Gault J considered that this finding was amply supported by the evidence. As has already been observed, Sir Gordon Bisson drew a different conclusion from the evidence, as did McGechan J. In their Lordships’ opinion Holland and Gault JJ drew the correct conclusion. As Viscount Haldane LC observed in Nocton v Lord Ashburton [1914] AC 932 at 957, [1914–15] All ER Rep 45 at 54: ‘… it is only in exceptional circumstances that judges of appeal, who have not seen the witness in the box, ought to differ from the finding of fact of the judge who tried the case as to the state of mind of the witness.' Holland J had the advantage of seeing and hearing all the witnesses and of forming an impression therefrom as to their states of mind and what had occurred during the meeting in Mr Boyce’s office. There are no exceptional circumstances which would justify differing from his conclusions on these matters.
Their Lordships are accordingly satisfied that Mrs Mouat required of Mr Boyce no more than that he should carry out the necessary conveyancing on her behalf and explain to her the legal implications of the transaction. Since Mrs Mouat was already aware of the consequences if her son defaulted Mr Boyce did all that was reasonably required of him before accepting her instructions when he advised her to obtain and offered to arrange independent advice. As Mrs Mouat was fully aware of what she was doing and had rejected independent advice, there was no duty on Mr Boyce to refuse to act for her. Having accepted
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instructions he carried these out properly and was neither negligent nor in breach of contract in acting and continuing to act after Mrs Mouat had rejected his suggestion that she obtain independent advice. Indeed not only did Mr Boyce in carrying out these instructions repeat on two further occasions his advice that Mrs Mouat should obtain independent advice but he told her in no uncertain terms that she would lose her house if Mr Mouat defaulted. One might well ask what more he could reasonably have done .
When a client in full command of his faculties and apparently aware of what he is doing seeks the assistance of a solicitor in the carrying out of a particular transaction, that solicitor is under no duty whether before or after accepting instructions to go beyond those instructions by proffering unsought advice on the wisdom of the transaction. To hold otherwise could impose intolerable burdens on solicitors.
It remains to consider the conclusion of the Court of Appeal that Mr Boyce was in breach of fiduciary duties. Sir Gordon Bisson’s observations on this matter have already been set out. McGechan J agreed with these observations, albeit at somewhat greater length. That a solicitor owes a fiduciary duty to a client is not in doubt. The classic case where the duty arises is where a solicitor acts for a client in a matter in which he has a personal interest. In such a case there is an obligation on the solicitor to disclose his interest and, if he fails so to do, the transaction, however favourable it may be to the client, may be set aside at his instance (Lewis v Hillman (1852) 3 HL Cas 607, 10 ER 239). Another case of breach is where a solicitor acts for both parties to a transaction without disclosing this to one of them or where having disclosed it he fails, unbeknown to one party, to disclose to that party material facts relative to the other party of which he is aware. A fiduciary duty concerns disclosure of material facts in a situation where the fiduciary has either a personal interest in the matter to which the facts are material or acts for another party who has such an interest. It cannot be prayed in aid to enlarge the scope of contractual duties. Thus, there being no contractual duty on Mr Boyce to advise Mrs Mouat on the wisdom of entering into the transaction, she cannot claim that he nevertheless owed her a fiduciary duty to give that advice. Furthermore, any duty of disclosure can only extend to the solicitor’s knowledge of facts and not to his lack of knowledge thereof.
Both Holland and Gault JJ considered that Mr Boyce’s failure to disclose that Meares Williams had declined to act for Mr Mouat was not a failure to disclose information material to the transaction. Given the information which was then available to Mr Boyce and the fact that he saw nothing sinister in Meares Williams’s refusal to act, their Lordships are satisfied that that information was not material information which should have been disclosed. It therefore follows that Mr Boyce was not in breach of any fiduciary obligation owed to Mrs Mouat.
It only remains to say a further word about Mr Boyce’s alleged failure to disclose his lack of knowledge as to Mr Mouat’s ability to service the mortgage. It is implicit in this allegation that Mrs Mouat should have been advised to investigate her son’s financial affairs. Such an allegation might be the basis for breach of contract but could not for the reasons already stated found a claim for breach of fiduciary duty. However, even if it had amounted to a breach of contract, there was evidence neither that Mrs Mouat would have accepted the advice nor that if she had she would have acted differently. It follows that she has failed to establish that she suffered a loss as a result of any such breach.
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For the foregoing reasons their Lordships will humbly advise Her Majesty that the appeal should be allowed and the judgment of Holland J of 4 March 1991 be restored. There will be no order as to costs before the Board and in the Court of Appeal. It is accordingly unnecessary to consider the cross-appeal by Mrs Mouat against a finding of contributory negligence in the proceedings subsequent to the remit by the Court of Appeal after the first hearing in that court.
Appeal allowed. No order as to costs.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Cheltenham and Gloucester Building Society v Ricketts and others
[1993] 4 All ER 276
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NEILL, MANN AND PETER GIBSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 24, 25 MARCH, 7 APRIL 1993
Injunction – Interlocutory – Undertaking as to damages – Discharge of injunction – Inquiry as to damages – Mareva injunction – Whether inquiry as to damages should be ordered before trial.
The plaintiff building society applied ex parte for an injunction against the defendants on the ground that they were believed to have committed a mortgage fraud on the society by overvaluing properties and obtaining mortgages using false names. An affidavit filed on behalf of the society in support of the application stated that the allegation of fraud was based on information received from the police and that it was believed that £1m–£2m had been lost although the society’s investigations were incomplete as it had not had sight of documents in the hands of the police. The society was concerned that certain assets held by the defendants would be dissipated if an injunction was not granted immediately. The judge granted a Mareva injunction restraining the defendants from dealing with or disposing of any assets which were derived or partly derived from moneys advanced by the society. The injunction was granted on the plaintiffs giving an undertaking as to damages. The defendants subsequently applied for the injunction to be discharged and although the society had obtained further documents supporting its case the judge discharged the injunction and ordered an inquiry as to damages suffered by the defendants in consequence of the grant of the injunction. The society appealed to the Court of Appeal against the judge’s order for an inquiry as to damages.
Held – The court had an unlimited discretion, which was exercisable in accordance with ordinary equitable principles, whether or not to enforce an undertaking as to damages given as the price for the grant of an interlocutory injunction, although where it was determined that the injunction should not have been granted the undertaking was likely to be enforced unless there were special circumstances for not enforcing it. In determining whether an
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undertaking as to damages should be enforced when an interlocutory injunction was discharged before trial, the court could (a) determine forthwith that the undertaking should be enforced and proceed at once to an assessment of damages if, which would rarely be the case before trial, all the relevant evidence of damage was available or (b) direct an inquiry as to damages where issues of causation and quantum would have to be considered or (c) adjourn the application for consideration at the trial or (d) decide forthwith that the undertaking was not to be enforced. Since only the judge at the trial would be in a position to decide, having regard to all the circumstances and whether there was any risk to the building society at the time the injunction was granted, whether the society’s undertaking as to damages should be enforced, the appropriate course was to adjourn the application to enforce the undertaking for determination at the trial when all the facts would be known. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 281 e to p 282 d, p 283 j to p 284 j, p 285 c d, p 286 g h, p 287 b h to p 288 b g h and p 299 c to e, post).
Notes
For undertakings as to damages see, 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1072 and for cases on the subject, see 28(4) Digest (2nd reissue) 396–397, 6856–6859a.
For inquiries as to damages, see 24 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 1077, amd for cases on the subject, see 28(4) Digest (2nd reissue) 402–406, 6923–6970.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G for Ontario v Harry (1982) 35 OR 248, Ont HC.
Air Express Ltd v Ansett Transport Industries (Operations) Ltd (1979) 146 CLR 249, Aust HC.
Bank Mellat v Nikpour [1985] 2 FSR 87, CA.
Barclays Bank v Rosenberg Ltd (1985) 135 NLJ 633.
Columbia Picture Industries Inc v Robinson [1986] 3 All ER 338, [1987] Ch 38, [1986] 3 WLR 542.
Financiera Avenida v Shiblaq (1991) Times, 14 January, [1990] CA Transcript 973.
Graham v Campbell (1878) 7 Ch D 490, CA.
Griffith v Blake (1884) 27 Ch D 474, CA.
Hailstone, Re, Hopkinson v Carter (1910) 102 LT 877, CA.
Hessin v Coppin (1874) 21 Gr 253, Ont Ch Ct.
Hoffmann-La Roche (F) & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128, [1975] AC 295, [1974] 3 WLR 104, HL.
Modern Transport Co Ltd v Duneric Steamship Co [1917] 1 KB 370, CA.
Newby v Harrison (1861) 3 De GF & J 287, 45 ER 889.
Norwest Holst Civil Engineering Ltd v Polysius Ltd [1987] CA Transcript 644.
Smith v Day (1882) 21 Ch D 421, CA.
Upper Canada College v City of Toronto (1917) 40 OLR 483, Ont HC.
Ushers Brewery v P S King & Co (Finance) Ltd [1971] 2 All ER 468, [1972] Ch 148, [1971] 2 WLR 1411.
Wood, Re, ex p Hall (1883) 23 Ch D 644, CA.
Zygal Dynamics plc v McNulty [1989] CA Transcript 571.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Behbehani v Salem [1989] 2 All ER 143, [1989] 1 WLR 723, CA.
Moore v Buchanan, Buchanan v Moore-Pataleewa [1967] 3 All ER 273, [1967] 1 WLR 1341, CA.
Page 278 of [1993] 4 All ER 276
Ninemia Maritime Corp v Trave Schiffahrtsgesellschaft mbH & Co KG, The Niedersachsen [1984] 1 All ER 398, [1983] 1 WLR 1412, QBD and CA.
Porzelack KG v Porzelack (UK) Ltd [1987] 1 All ER 1074, [1987] 1 WLR 420.
Shobokshi (Ali & Fahd) Group Ltd v Moneim [1989] 2 All ER 404, [1989] 1 WLR 710, Ch D.
Trident International Freight Services Ltd v Manchester Ship Canal Co [1990] BCLC 263, CA.
Appeal
The plaintiff, the Cheltenham and Gloucester Building Society (formerly the Portsmouth Building Society), appealed with leave of Staughton LJ given on 7 May 1991 against that part of the order made by Sir Peter Pain, sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 23 January 1991, whereby, on discharging a Mareva injunction granted by Morland J on 16 August 1990 restraining the defendants, Mark Ricketts and Stylegrade Ltd, from dealing with or disposing of any assets which were derived or partly derived from moneys advanced by the plaintiff, he ordered that the defendants were entitled to enforce the plaintiff’s cross-undertaking in damages in the order of Morland J granting the injunction and gave directions that there should be an inquiry as to the plaintiff’s liability (if any) on its undertaking in damages. The facts are set out in the judgment of Neill LJ.
Steven Gee (instructed by Stephenson Harwood) for the plaintiff.
Michael Burton QC and Geoffrey Vos (instructed by Theodore Goddard) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
7 April 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
NEILL LJ. On 29 November 1989 Mr Mark Ricketts applied to the Cheltenham and Gloucester Building Society (then the Portsmouth Building Society) for a mortgage to be secured on 16 Eton Road, London NW3. In January 1990 applications for mortgages were received by the building society in respect of flats in Prince Albert Road, London. The proposed mortgagors in respect of the three flats were Mr Sullivan, Mr A Caya and Miss Wood, and Mr D Caya. In each of the three applications in respect of the flats in Prince Albert Road the selling agents were stated to be Stylegrade Ltd (a company of which Mr Mark Ricketts is the sole director) and Mr Mark Ricketts was named as the person with whom a valuer should make contact to arrange access to the property.
On 16 August 1990 the building society applied ex parte for an injunction against Mr Ricketts and also against his brother Mr Michael Ricketts, and against Mr John Creasey, a former employee of the building society, and against Stylegrade Ltd. The application was supported by an affidavit sworn by Mr Iain Brown, the head of the internal audit department of the building society. He stated that he had received information from Chief Insp Brian Wallace of the fraud squad that a possible mortgage fraud had been perpetrated by two firms of financial brokers and by Mr Creasey. The affidavit contained allegations to the effect that Mr Ricketts and Stylegrade were involved in the fraud. It was suggested that it could be inferred that ‘Mr Caya’ might be a mere alias for Mr Ricketts. The allegations of fraud were not particularised. It was said in para 8 of the affidavit that the society’s investigations were not complete but that it
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was believed that a very serious fraud had been committed and that the building society might have lost between £1m and 2m. The nature of the alleged fraud was that moneys had been obtained from the building society by the overvaluation of properties.
In para 7 of his affidavit Mr Brown stated that he had been informed by Mr Wallace that in a search of the premises believed to be owned by Mark Ricketts documents relating to a Canadian bank account in the name of Caya had been found. In paras 10 and 11 of his affidavit Mr Brown referred to information obtained from the police which appeared to show that a sum of £200,000 had been transferred to the account of Stylegrade Ltd on 27 December 1989 and that this payment was linked with the mortgage on 16 Eton Road. In para 13 of his affidavit Mr Brown continued:
‘While its investigations are not complete, and it has not seen most of the documents in the possession of the police, the Society is extremely concerned that any assets which are held by these Defendants and in particular the monies held in the Barclays accounts and in Canada, may be dissipated if it delays in seeking injunctive relief.’
The application was heard by Morland J in chambers. He made an order against each of the defendants other than Mr Creasey in the Mareva form and also an order against each of the defendants restraining them from dealing with or disposing of any assets which were derived or partly derived from moneys advanced by the building society. The order contained other provisions to which it is not necessary to refer. It is necessary, however, to record that the order contained an undertaking given by the building society in these terms:
‘To abide by any Order which this Court may make as to damages in case this Court shall be of the opinion that the Defendants or either of them or any innocent third party shall have suffered any by reason of this order which the Plaintiffs ought to pay.’
Some months then passed. In December 1990 Mr Ricketts and Stylegrade applied to discharge the injunctions. This application came before Sir Peter Pain sitting as a judge of the High Court on 23 January 1991. He had before him four affidavits from Mr Ricketts and two affidavits from his solicitors and also further affidavits sworn on behalf of the building society. Having heard argument Sir Peter Pain discharged the injunctions. In addition, as it subsequently transpired, he made an order in the exercise of his discretion that there should be an inquiry as to any damages which Mr Ricketts or Stylegrade might have suffered by reason of the grant of the ex parte injunctions in August 1990. It is to be noted, however, that at that stage the order did not refer expressly to any inquiry but included directions as to pleadings and discovery ‘in relation to the plaintiff’s liability (if any) upon its undertaking in damages given by it to the Court on 16 August 1990’.
Following the discharge of the injunctions there was correspondence between the solicitors acting for the parties as to the effect of the judge’s order. At one time it appeared that the parties had reached an agreement on the basis that the judge’s order meant that the only matter in issue on the hearing of the inquiry would be the question of quantum. Later, however, after the building society had instructed new solicitors, the parties ceased to be in agreement as to the effect of the January 1991 order. In the result the matter came back before Sir Peter Pain in March 1992 under the slip rule in order that he could clarify the
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meaning and effect of the order which he had made in January 1991. By that stage the building society had obtained many more documents and wished to advance further arguments before Sir Peter Pain in support of the contention that no final decision had been reached in January 1991 as to whether an inquiry should take place.
After hearing argument Sir Peter Pain ordered the amendment of his original order so as to make it clear that he had exercised his discretion and had ordered that there should be an inquiry as to the damages, if any, which Mr Ricketts and Stylegrade had suffered. He declined to look at the further documents put before him except on a de bene esse basis. Following the amendment, para 3 of the order dated 23 January 1991 provided as follows:
‘(1) The first and fourth defendants be entitled to enforce the plaintiff’s cross-undertaking in damages in paragraph (4) of the order of Morland J dated 16 August 1990.
(2) The following directions be given in respect of the determination of the issue of what damages (if any) the first and fourth defendants have suffered by reason of the order of Morland J dated 16 August 1990 …’
At the same time Sir Peter Pain made certain other orders to which it is not necessary to refer save that he refused an application on behalf of the building society for security for costs in the inquiry proceedings from Mr Ricketts and Stylegrade Ltd. He refused leave to appeal.
On 7 May 1992 Staughton LJ granted the building society leave to appeal against Sir Peter Pain’s order dated 23 January 1991 (as amended) and referred to the full court a number of other applications by the building society for leave to appeal. Staughton LJ refused leave to appeal against that part of Sir Peter Pain’s order whereby he dismissed the building society’s application for security for costs from Mr Ricketts.
The inquiry proceedings are due to be heard immediately after the trial of the main action.
I propose to deal first with the appeal brought by leave of Staughton LJ against para 3 of Sir Peter Pain’s order dated 23 January 1991 (as amended) whereby he ordered an inquiry as to damages.
It is to be noted that there is no appeal against his discharge of the injunctions, that is, the Mareva injunction and the injunction in relation to sums derived from the building society. It is also to be noted that the building society have not made any further applications for injunctive relief despite the fact that they now have in their possession a substantial amount of further material.
Mr Gee on behalf of the building society has sought to persuade us that we should consider all the material which is now available to the building society in support of their allegations that Mr Ricketts has been guilty of fraud. It is to be noted, however, that the action between the building society and the defendants is due to be heard at the beginning of next term. In that action the building society’s case will be fully deployed and the defendants will have an opportunity to refute it. It seems to me therefore to be most undesirable that this court should embark on any inquiry as to the merits of the case of fraud unless it is absolutely necessary to do so. We have therefore declined to examine the further documents.
When granting an injunction of an interlocutory nature it is the usual practice of the court to require the plaintiff to give an undertaking as to damages. The use of the word ‘damages’ is perhaps inappropriate because it might suggest
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that the grant of the injunction involved a breach of some legal or equitable rights of the defendant. The undertaking is given to the court and is intended to provide a method of compensating the party enjoined if it subsequently appears that the injunction was wrongly granted.
In the course of argument we were helpfully referred to a number of cases relating to the history of cross-undertakings and their method of enforcement and also relating to the circumstances in which enforcement will not be granted. Many of these cases are referred to in the judgment of Peter Gibson LJ, which I have had the advantage of reading in draft. I do not think it is necessary to refer to these authorities in detail. Instead I shall try to set out the guidance which I think can be extracted from them as to the correct method of approaching the enforcement of a cross-undertaking. In this context, however, it is important to underline at the outset two matters which were stressed by Mr Burton QC on behalf of Mr Ricketts and Stylegrade Ltd: (a) a Mareva injunction can be distinguished from an injunction which anticipates on an interlocutory basis the form of relief which is sought in the proceedings; and (b) in order to obtain a Mareva injunction it is necessary for the applicant to show a serious risk that unless enjoined the other party will dissipate his assets.
From the authorities the following guidance can be extracted as to the enforcement of a cross-undertaking in damages.
(1) Save in special cases an undertaking as to damages is the price which the person asking for an interlocutory injunction has to pay for its grant. The court cannot compel an applicant to give an undertaking but it can refuse to grant an injunction unless he does.
(2) The undertaking, though described as an undertaking as to damages, does not found any cause of action. It does, however, enable the party enjoined to apply to the court for compensation if it is subsequently established that the interlocutory injunction should not have been granted.
(3) The undertaking is not given to the party enjoined but to the court.
(4) In a case where it is determined that the injunction should not have been granted the undertaking is likely to be enforced, though the court retains a discretion not to do so.
(5) The time at which the court should determine whether or not the interlocutory injunction should have been granted will vary from case to case. It is important to underline the fact that the question whether the undertaking should be enforced is a separate question from the question whether the injunction should be discharged or continued.
(6) In many cases injunctions will remain in being until the trial and in such cases the propriety of its original grant and the question of the enforcement of the undertaking will not be considered before the conclusion of the trial. Even then, as Lloyd LJ pointed out in Financiera Avenida v Shiblaq [1990] CA Transcript 973 the court may occasionally wish to postpone the question of enforcement to a later date.
(7) Where an interlocutory injunction is discharged before the trial the court at the time of discharge is faced with a number of possibilities. (a) The court can determine forthwith that the undertaking as to damages should be enforced and can proceed at once to make an assessment of the damages. It seems probable that it will only be in rare cases that the court can take this course because the relevant evidence of damages is unlikely to be available. It is to be noted, however, that in Columbia Pictures Industries Inc v Robinson [1987] 3 All ER 338, [1987] Ch 38 Scott J was able, following the trial of an action, to make an
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immediate assessment of damages arising from the wrongful grant of an Anton Piller order. He pointed out that the evidence at the trial could not be relied on to justify ex post facto the making of an ex parte order if, at the time the order was made, it ought not to have been made (see [1987] 3 All ER 338 at 378, [1987] Ch 38 at 85). (b) The court may determine that the undertaking should be enforced but then direct an inquiry as to damages in which issues of causation and quantum will have to be considered. It is likely that the order will include directions as to pleadings and discovery in the inquiry. In the light of the decision of the Court of Appeal in Norwest Holst Civil Engineering Ltd v Polysius Ltd [1987] CA Transcript 644 the court should not order an inquiry as to damages and at the same time leave open for the tribunal at the inquiry to determine whether or not the undertaking should be enforced. A decision that the undertaking should be enforced is a precondition for the making of an order of an inquiry as to damages. (c) The court can adjourn the application for the enforcement of the undertaking to the trial or further order. (d) The court can determine forthwith that the undertaking is not to be enforced.
(8) It seems that damages are awarded on a similar basis to that on which damages are awarded for breach of contract. This matter has not been fully explored in the English cases though it is to be noted that in Air Express Ltd v Ansett Transport Industries (Operations) Ltd (1979) 146 CLR 249 Aicken J in the High Court of Australia expressed the view that it would be seldom that it would be just and equitable that the unsuccessful plaintiff ‘should bear the burden of damages which were not foreseeable from circumstances known to him at the time’. This passage suggests that the court in exercising its equitable jurisdiction would adopt similar principles to those relevant in a claim for breach of contract.
I turn therefore to the facts of the present case.
The parties have prepared and agreed a note of the judgment of Sir Peter Pain given on 23 January 1991. I should refer to parts of the judgment:
‘The basis of the Mareva injunction being granted was that the defendants between them, especially the first and second defendants, had operated a mortgage fraud on the plaintiff and there was a risk that they would dissipate their assets unless a Mareva injunction was granted. The kernel of the case of fraud rested upon the suggestion that a Mr Caya and Mr Standeven were in fact not real individuals but aliases for the first defendant. As it turned out, the plaintiff was quite wrong in thinking that. These were genuine independent individuals. Once that is appreciated the plaintiff’s case begins to fall to pieces and if one analyses the affidavit sworn on behalf of the plaintiff by Mr Iain Brown, a great deal of the plaintiff’s case is vague and unsatisfactory regarding the alleged fraud. It would be different if they were right about the aliases.’
At the conclusion of his judgment the judge discharged the Mareva injunction (and, it seems, the other injunction as well) and then gave directions in relation to the undertaking in damages. At that stage the judge gave no separate reasons for determining that the undertaking in damages should be enforced.
As will be remembered, the form of the January 1991 order was further considered by the judge in March 1992. It was then contended on behalf of the building society that the question whether there was any liability to pay damages in pursuance of the undertaking had not been decided on the previous
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occasion. Sir Peter Pain rejected this argument. He referred to the submissions that had been made to him and continued:
‘It is common ground that after I had lifted the Mareva injunction the defendants’ counsel applied for there to be an inquiry as to damages. That was resisted by the plaintiff’s counsel and he took up three points ... What I am satisfied about is that the plaintiff’s counsel raised these points rather shortly and not very strongly, and I dealt with them fairly shortly on the basis that I saw no ground for depriving the defendants of what I would regard as being their normal remedy on a Mareva being discharged. I have been referred to a number of cases as to what one should regard as the normal course on a Mareva being discharged. I do not propose to attempt to lay down general principles of law, but I would say this: so far as my practice is concerned, and I conceive this to be correct law, in the absence of some special grounds a defendant who has been wrongly subjected to a Mareva is entitled to an inquiry as to the damages he has suffered, and that is the proper way of exercising the discretion.’
In this court Mr Burton advanced a powerful argument on the following lines. (1) In a case where an interlocutory injunction is granted which anticipates or is closely related to the relief which is sought in the action it may well be that though the injunction is discharged before the trial it would be premature at the time of discharge to make any order in relation to the undertaking. There may be cases where the propriety of the grant of the interlocutory relief could not be satisfactorily determined until the trial. A Mareva injunction, however, is quite different. The application for such relief was a discrete matter and it had no direct connection with the merits of the action. (2) In the present case the application for a Mareva injunction was quite unjustified and by January 1991 the basis for its grant had been completely undermined. (3) Once it had been shown that Mr Caya and Mr Standeven were real persons and not mere aliases of Mr Mark Ricketts the evidence as to the risk of dissipation of assets by transfer overseas disappeared. (4) Much of the further evidence placed before Sir Peter Pain on 23 January 1991 related to Mr Michael Ricketts and not to Mr Mark Ricketts or Stylegrade Ltd at all. (5) As a result of the grant of the injunctions, which the building society had never sought to renew, the business of Mr Mark Ricketts and Stylegrade Ltd had been gravely damaged. It was accepted that the building society had an arguable, though strongly contested, case of fraud in the main action, but even if they succeeded at trial nothing could justify ex post facto the wrongful application for interlocutory relief in August 1990. (6) The judge exercised his discretion correctly and in accordance with his usual practice. There were no grounds on which the Court of Appeal could interfere with the exercise of his discretion.
I have considered these submissions very carefully. In my judgment, however, the flaw in the argument is that it overlooks the nature of the building society’s case. It is true that at trial the building society’s case may be shown to be misconceived and I am most anxious to express no view on the merits. If the building society prove to be right, however, the defendants were engaged in an enterprise of obtaining money from the building society by the fraudulent overvaluation of assets. If that case is proved the danger of the misapplication of the loans made by the building society may be very obvious. It will be remembered that the building society obtained not only a Mareva injunction but also an injunction relating to the use of the moneys which they had lent.
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I do not wish to suggest that in all cases of alleged fraud the court, on the discharge of a Mareva or other injunction, should postpone its decision whether the undertaking should be enforced until the trial of the action. In the present case, however, I have no doubt that that was the right course and that the judge, in following his usual practice, fell into error. The trial judge will be in a position to see the picture as a whole. He will be able to decide what weight, if any, to attach to the absence of documents which are in the hands of the police. He will be able to decide whether the discharge of the injunction in January 1991 was justified on the facts as now known. In particular he will be able to decide whether it would be right to enforce the undertaking having regard to all the circumstances of the case and in particular the risk, if any, which faced the building society in August 1990, and the proved conduct of Mr Ricketts and Stylegrade Ltd.
The enforcement of the undertaking is itself a form of equitable relief and should be considered on equitable principles.
I would therefore allow the appeal and order that the application to enforce the cross-undertaking as to damages should be adjourned for hearing at the conclusion of the trial. In these circumstances the appeal against the refusal of any order as to security for costs is no longer relevant and should be dismissed.
MANN LJ. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the judgments of Neill and Peter Gibson LJJ and I agree with them. Although we are differing from the judge there is nothing I can usefully add. I also would allow this appeal.
PETER GIBSON LJ. This appeal raises an important point affecting the practice of the court on the enforcement of undertakings as to damages given by the successful applicant for an interlocutory injunction when subsequently the injunction is shown to have been wrongly granted.
The practice of requiring an undertaking in damages from the applicant for such an injunction as the price for its grant was originated by the Court of Chancery as an adjunct to the equitable remedy of an injunction. There is an obvious risk of unfairness to a respondent against whom an interlocutory injunction is ordered at a time when the issues have not been fully determined and when usually all the facts have not been ascertained. The order might subsequently prove to have been wrongly made but in the meantime the respondent by reason of compliance with the injunction may have suffered serious loss from which he will not be compensated by the relief sought in the proceedings. The risk of such injustice is the greater when the interlocutory injunction has been granted ex parte. The risk is particularly great with Mareva injunctions, granted as they are almost invariably ex parte, and frequently imposing severe restrictions on the respondents’ right to spend their money or otherwise dispose of their assets: such injunctions can have the effect of ruining a thriving business or of otherwise causing substantial loss to the respondent and were vividly described by Donaldson LJ in Bank Mellat v Nikpour (1985) 2 FSR 87 at 92 as being, with the Anton Piller order, one of the law’s ‘two nuclear weapons’. The courts are properly concerned lest these weapons are used inappropriately and the undertaking in damages provides a salutary potential deterrent against their misuse.
The usual form of undertaking (which was in substance that given by the building society in the present case) is—
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‘to abide by any order which this court may make as to damages in case this court shall be of the opinion that the respondent shall have suffered any by reason of this order which the applicant ought to pay’.
The form of the undertaking indicates that the court has a discretion whether to enforce it at all and that discretion is not limited in any way. The power to enforce the undertaking being incidental to the power to grant an injunction (see Re Hailstone (1910) 102 LT 877 at 880), the discretion will be exercised in accordance with ordinary equitable principles (see, for example, Spry Equitable Remedies (4th edn, 1990) pp 638–645). The undertaking is given to the court and not the respondent, who can ask the court to enforce it but has no right to its enforcement or any right to damages until the discretion is exercised in his favour and damages are awarded.
The law was stated by Lloyd LJ (with whom Stocker LJ and Sir George Waller agreed) in Financiera Avenida v Shiblaq [1990] CA Transcript 973 thus:
‘Two questions arise whenever there is an application by a defendant to enforce a cross-undertaking in damages. The first question is whether the undertaking ought to be enforced at all. This depends on the circumstances in which the injunction was obtained, the success or otherwise of the plaintiff at the trial, the subsequent conduct of the defendant and all the other circumstances of the case. It is essentially a question of discretion. The discretion is usually exercised by the trial judge since he is bound to know more of the facts of the case than anyone else. If the first question is answered in favour of the defendant, the second question is whether the defendant has suffered any damage by reason of the granting of the injunction. Here ordinary principles of the law of contract apply both as to causation and as to quantum (per Lord Diplock in F Hoffmann-La Roche & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128 at 1150, [1975] AC 295 at 361) ... In a simple case the trial judge may be able to deal with causation and quantum himself as soon as he has exercised his discretion. But in a more complicated case it may be necessary for him to order an inquiry as to damages either before himself, or before some other judge or before the master or registrar. Very occasionally he may find it necessary to leave over the exercise of the discretion’.
That case was a case where a Mareva injunction had been obtained by a plaintiff on the basis of claims which at the trial either were abandoned or failed, and it is clear that the remarks of Lloyd LJ were in the context of such a case as distinct from one where an interlocutory injunction was discharged before trial as having been wrongly made. Nevertheless it is also clear that he considered that the court had a general discretion whether to enforce the undertaking, and that this required consideration of all the circumstances of the case. Further, it is of interest to note that he considered that even the trial judge might very occasionally find it necessary to defer the exercise of that discretion.
In the Hoffmann-La Roche case ([1974] 2 All ER 1128 at 1150 [1975] AC 295 at 361) Lord Diplock said:
‘[The court] retains a discretion not to enforce the undertaking if it considers that the conduct of the defendant in relation to the obtaining or continuing of the injunction or the enforcement of the undertaking makes it inequitable to do so …’
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This dictum might be read as confining the exercise of discretion to the circumstances specified, but I regard Lord Diplock as merely giving examples of the circumstances in which the court might exercise its discretion against ordering an inquiry. We were also referred to what was said by Donaldson MR in Norwest Holst Civil Engineering Ltd v Polysius Ltd [1987] CA Transcript 644. In that case a Mareva injunction had been granted to the plaintiff but within a few days it was set aside by consent. There then was an application by the defendant for an inquiry as to damages under the plaintiff’s cross-undertaking. The judge held that the injunction had been correctly granted and refused the application. This court allowed an appeal on the ground that one of the necessary conditions for the grant of a Mareva injunction had not been made out at the time the injunction had been granted, namely that there was a real risk that the defendant would dissipate its assets so as to defeat the ends of justice. Donaldson MR (with whom Parker LJ and Sir George Waller agreed) referred to the evidence and said:
‘I am bound to say that in my judgment those matters do not establish a risk of dissipation of assets … Accordingly in my judgment [the plaintiffs] should not have asked for this injunction and they should not have been granted it. Therefore the question does arise of whether [the defendants] have suffered any loss as a result of the grant of the injunction. If they have or if there is any real possibility of their having done so there should be an inquiry … Given that there is a possibility of damage having been suffered the judge should then order an inquiry.’
This court therefore ordered an inquiry as to damages.
Although these remarks might be read as establishing a general proposition that, once it has been found that a Mareva injunction should not have been granted, an inquiry as to damages must be ordered if there is any possibility of damage having been suffered, I take this to be a decision on its own facts which enabled the court to exercise its discretion in favour of ordering an inquiry. It was referred to in the Shiblaq case in which this court, in the passage which I have already cited, nevertheless reaffirmed the well-established position that the court has a discretion whether to enforce the undertaking in the light of the circumstances, and that was so even though the injunction in question was a Mareva injunction.
We have been cited a number of cases from which it is clear that in ordinary circumstances, if it should subsequently appear that the interlocutory injunction should not have been granted and that the respondent may have suffered loss in consequence, the court will exercise its discretion in favour of enforcing the undertaking. Thus in Graham v Campbell (1878) 7 Ch D 490 at 494 James LJ said:
‘The undertaking as to damages which ought to be given on every interlocutory injunction is one to which (unless under special circumstances) effect ought to be given. If any damage has been occasioned by an interlocutory injunction, which, on the hearing is found to have been wrongly asked for, justice requires that such damage should fall on the voluntary litigant who fails, not on the litigant who has been without just cause made so.’
(See also Griffith v Blake (1884) 27 Ch D 474 at 477.)
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In a case where an interlocutory injunction has been found in advance of the trial to have been wrongly obtained, for example through failure to disclose material evidence on an ex parte application or through error or misapplication of law, in my judgment the same position obtains: save for special circumstances the court will exercise its discretion in favour of the respondent by enforcing the undertaking.
There are only a few reported decisions on what constitute special circumstances. If the respondent delays unduly in seeking an inquiry as to damages, he may be refused (Smith v Day (1882) 21 Ch D 421, Re Wood, ex p Hall (1883) 23 Ch D 644). In the Canadian case of Hessin v Coppin (1874) 21 Gr 253 an interlocutory injunction, with the usual undertaking in damages, had been granted on the basis of the validity of a patent, but a motion to continue the injunction was dismissed when the patent was found to be invalid. On an application for an inquiry as to damages, Blake V-C exercised his discretion against granting the inquiry, saying: ‘I do not think the conduct of the defendants presents so meritorious a state of facts as compels me to grant the inquiry asked.' In Modern Transport Co Ltd v Duneric Steamship Co [1917] 1 KB 370 at 380 Swinfen Eady LJ said that inequitable conduct by the defendant constituted special circumstances such that no inquiry as to damages was to be granted even if the claim for an injunction could not be sustained at the trial; but that was a case where he held that the plaintiffs were justified in applying for an interlocutory injunction. In Upper Canada College v City of Toronto (1917) 40 OLR 483 the court in refusing to order an inquiry as to damages on an undertaking given on the grant of an interlocutory injunction discharged at the trial, had regard to a number of circumstances including the good faith of the plaintiffs and the fact that no costs were awarded against them when the action was dismissed. In A-G for Ontario v Harry (1982) 35 OR 248 a factor taken into account by the court in refusing to enforce an undertaking as to damages, notwithstanding the discharge at the trial of the interlocutory injunction, was the inequitable conduct of the defendants. These cases support the general words of Turner LJ in Newby v Harrison (1861) 3 De GF & J 287 at 290, 45 ER 889 at 890: ‘… there may be cases in which the court will not consider it just to enforce an undertaking, though the jurisdiction to do so exists.’
On an application, made on the discharge before trial of an interlocutory injunction, for the enforcement of an undertaking as to damages, the court has a number of options available to it. First, it can accede to the application and proceed to determine the question of damages there and then. Save in the most straightforward of cases where all the relevant facts are known the court is unlikely to exercise its discretion in this way. Second, it can allow the application and order that the inquiry should follow at a specified time. That was the course adopted by Sir Peter Pain in the present case in ordering an inquiry and giving directions for such inquiry. Third, it can stand over the application to a specified time, and usually that will be done and the application will be adjourned to the trial in a case in which the question whether the interlocutory injunction was rightly granted has not been determined (see Ushers Brewery v P S King & Co [1971] 2 All ER 468, [1972] Ch 148). Fourth, in the light of the decision of this court in Zygal Dynamics plc v McNulty [1989] CA Transcript 571 it would appear that it is possible to order an inquiry but to direct that the question of liability be determined at the hearing of the inquiry. However, the court does not appear to have been referred to the earlier Norwest Holst decision in which a like suggestion made by Evans J in Barclays Bank Ltd v
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Rosenberg (1985) 135 NLJ 633 at 634 was disapproved by this court. Fifth, it can refuse the application; but, as with the first course, this will only be done in very straightforward cases, such as, for example, when it is clear that the respondent has suffered no loss by reason of the order.
In the present case we do not have the benefit of a reasoned judgment of the judge on the question of whether to order an inquiry. Indeed the building society challenged at the subsequent hearing before the same judge whether he had determined the question of liability. But we know from the judgment which the judge gave on 11 March 1992 that he applied his normal practice on the discharge of a Mareva injunction: ‘… in the absence of some special grounds a defendant who has been wrongly subjected to a Mareva is entitled to an inquiry as to damages he has suffered, and that is the proper way of exercising the discretion.’
Mr Burton QC in his powerful argument on behalf of the first and fourth defendants contended that the decision of the very experienced judge should be upheld. He placed particular reliance on the exceptional nature of a Mareva injunction. He pointed out that such an injunction is merely ancillary relief and that its discharge is not conclusive or even necessarily relevant to the merits of the underlying claim which could have been brought and pursued without the Mareva injunction. He laid stress on the fact that there was no appeal against the discharge of the Mareva injunction nor was there any subsequent application for the imposition of a fresh injunction. Accordingly he submitted that in the absence of special circumstances, the failure of the building society to satisfy what Dillon LJ in the Zygal case called ‘the stringent rules applicable to Mareva injunctions’ entitled the judge to exercise his discretion in the way he did, consistent as that was with the decision of this court in the Norwest Holst case.
I do not doubt that the fact that the more important of the two injunctions granted by Morland J was a Mareva injunction is a significant factor to be taken into account, but in my judgment it is only one factor and its discharge is not conclusive of the question whether an inquiry ought to be ordered at that stage. The court will of course first consider whether or not the injunction was wrongly granted, and in so doing it will confine itself to the facts available at the time of the order. But all the circumstances of the case must, in my judgment, be considered when the court decides whether to exercise its discretion as to the enforcement of the undertaking. If there are matters on which the court cannot yet make a final determination, but which would be material to the question whether it is just to enforce the undertaking, then the court should not take the decision at that stage but should adopt either the third or perhaps the fourth option to which I have referred. It will not be able to make a final determination if material matters are in dispute and must await the trial for their resolution.
In the present case the Mareva injunction was sought and obtained ex parte against the first and fourth defendants on the basis that they had participated in a mortgage fraud and that there was risk that they would dissipate their assets. The learned judge felt able on the affidavit evidence before him to reject that claim.
The building society had obtained the ex parte injunctions on the evidence of Mr Iain Brown in whose affidavit reference was made to a Mr Caya and a Mr Standeven. Correspondence addressed to Mr Caya and Mr Standeven respectively and other documents of Mr Caya had been found by the police at the property where the first defendant lived. It was said in Mr Brown’s affidavit
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that on some of its mortgage accounts the building society had lent an amount well in excess of the purchase price and instanced two mortgage accounts involving Mr Caya, the amounts lent being £174,000 and £166,000 respectively and the purchase price being £120,000 and £130,000 respectively. Mr Brown said: ‘The inference is that Mr Caya is an alias for Mark Ricketts and that it has been used in order to obtain money from the Society.' Mr Standeven is referred to by Mr Brown as the initial purchaser of another property, 16 Eton Road, sold on to the first defendant who had obtained a very large loan from the building society secured on that property. A common factor in those loans was that the officer of the building society concerned in these transactions was, Mr Brown said, the third defendant to whom the first defendant had made gifts of money. The judge said that the ‘kernel of the case of fraud’ rested upon the suggestion that not only Mr Caya but also Mr Standeven were not real individuals but aliases for the first defendant. By 23 January 1991 it was accepted by the building society that Mr Caya and Mr Standeven existed, but Mr Standeven, as the first and fourth defendants acknowledged, was only a nominee of the fourth defendant, of the business of which, the first defendant said, he had total control. Nevertheless the judge described Mr Standeven as well as Mr Caya as ‘genuine independent individuals’ and said that once that was appreciated the building society’s case ‘begins to fall to pieces’. He said of the transaction involving 16 Eton Road, ‘There is nothing fraudulent in the transaction.' Similarly in respect of the transaction involving Mr Caya he said ‘There is no fraud here on the plaintiff’. Whether or not the judge was right to be so dismissive of the claim in fraud on the affidavit evidence before him, it was apparent at the time that the building society was maintaining its claim in fraud. In my judgment it was not possible to say in advance of the trial that the claim in fraud was bound to fail, and Mr Burton properly concedes that the building society does now have an arguable case in fraud.
Let me now test the position by posing the hypothesis that the building society succeeds in its claim that there was indeed a mortgage fraud perpetrated on it by the first and fourth defendants. Those defendants hotly deny that there was such a fraud, but they concede, by accepting that the building society’s case is arguable, that it might succeed. Might the proof that there was such a fraud be a special circumstance which could affect the court’s discretion, if it retained the discretion at that stage, whether to enforce the undertaking? In my judgment it could, particularly as the evidence put by the first defendant on behalf of himself and the fourth defendant, denying the fraud and making other statements challenged by the building society, was influential on the judge in discharging the injunction. Whether it will would be a matter for the court exercising the discretion in the light of all the circumstances. I would emphasise that I do not say that the mere fact that a respondent is shown to be a fraudster is in itself necessarily sufficient reason to deny the respondent’s claim to damages.
However Mr Burton relies on the fact that a further ground on which the judge discharged the Mareva injunction was that the building society had not established what it was bound to establish if it was to obtain such an injunction, namely that there was a risk that the assets of the first and fourth defendants would be dissipated to defeat the claim against them. Mr Brown in his affidavit had referred to the fact that the documents found relating to Mr Caya connected him with Canada and Mr Brown expressed the concern that any money stolen from the building society would be transferred out of the jurisdiction. The fact
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that Mr Caya was not an alias for the first defendant and the further fact that two bank accounts in the name of the fourth defendant, into which Mr Brown said that moneys coming from the building society were paid, had been shown to have virtually nothing in them at the material time led the judge to conclude that there was no risk of dissipation of assets. If, as the building society claims, the first and fourth defendants were fraudsters, that in itself might suggest that there was a real risk that they would not scruple to dissipate their assets to defeat the building society. That too is a factor which might weigh with the court exercising the discretion whether to enforce the undertaking.
I therefore conclude that, with all respect to the learned judge, he erred in principle in holding that on the discharge of the ex parte injunctions he should order enforcement of the undertaking in damages. He was bound to consider all the circumstances in exercising his discretion and he could not properly, in advance of the trial, treat the allegations of fraud as bound to fail. In these circumstances we are free to exercise the discretion afresh. In my judgment the appropriate course is to adopt what I believe to be the usual practice of adjourning to the trial judge the application to enforce the undertaking, to be determined by him at the conclusion of the trial when all the facts are known. I would therefore allow the appeal and discharge the amended order of 23 January 1991.
As the consequence of this order is that the inquiry as to damages is no longer in being, there can be no question of ordering security for costs, and the building society’s appeal on this point from the order of the judge on 18 March 1992 must be dismissed.
Appeal allowed. Application to enforce cross-undertaking as to damages adjourned for hearing at conclusion of trial.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v Teasdale
[1993] 4 All ER 290
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): FARQUHARSON LJ, MORLAND AND CRESSWELL JJ
Hearing Date(s): 9 JULY 1993
Criminal evidence – Character of accused – Good character – Credibility – Plea of guilty to another offence arising out of same incident on same occasion – Direction to jury – Whether trial judge should direct jury as to relevance of good character to credibility notwithstanding guilty plea to other offence.
A judge when summing up at the trial of a defendant of good character, ie with no previous convictions, who has pleaded guilty to another offence in an indictment arising out of the same incident on the same occasion should direct the jury as to the relevance of the defendant’s good character to the credibility of his evidence. The plea of guilty to the other count may be an indication of propensity to commit such an offence but it is in no way probative that the defendant is guilty on the count to which he has pleaded not guilty (see p 292 j to p 293 b, post).
Page 291 of [1993] 4 All ER 290
R v Vye [1993] 3 All ER 241 applied.
Notes
For character generally, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1070, for good character of the accused, see ibid para 1073, and for cases on the subject, see 15(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 556–558, 17451–17484.
Case referred to in judgment
R v Berrada (1989) 91 Cr App R 131, CA.
R v Kabariti (1990) 92 Cr App R 362, CA.
R v Richens (1992) Times, 25 November, CA.
R v Vye [1993] 3 All ER 241, [1993] 1 WLR 471, CA.
Cases also cited
R v Bravery [1991] Crim LR 443, CA.
R v Handbridge [1993] Crim LR 287, CA.
R v Shaw (1992) Times, 31 December, CA.
R v Timson [1993] Crim LR 58, CA.
Appeal against conviction
Rachael Marie Teasdale appealed with the leave of the single judge against her conviction on 21 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Birmingham before Judge May and a jury of causing grievous bodily harm with intent for which she was sentenced to 27 months’ detention in a young offender institution. The ground of appeal was that the judge erred in refusing to give a direction on good character when summing up. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Patrick Thomas (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Rachel Brand (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Birmingham) for the Crown.
MORLAND J delivered the following judgment of the court. On 21 October 1992 in the Crown Court at Birmingham before Judge May the appellant, who is now aged 18, pleaded guilty to an assault upon a woman, Sarah Jelfs, occasioning her actual bodily harm. That was the second count of the indictment which she faced. She was also convicted, following a plea on that count, on the first count of the indictment of causing grievous bodily harm to Sarah Jelfs with intent to do her grievous bodily harm. The trial took only a day.
On 18 November 1992 after a pre-sentence report had been prepared, the appellant was sentenced to 27 months’ detention, pursuant to s 53 of the Children and Young Person Act 1933. At the same time the judge gave leave for the plea of guilty on the second count of the indictment to be vacated and so therefore no conviction stands so far as the second count of the indictment is concerned.
Both offences laid in the two counts in the indictment arose out of the same incident on the same occasion. As a result of a fracas in the home of Sarah Jelfs in the early hours of Saturday, 14 September 1992 she suffered a very grievous injury to her right eye: a blow-out fracture of the orbital floor of her right eye, with permanent loss of sight in that eye.
The fracas began with a fight between Mark Murphy, the former boyfriend of Sarah Jelfs, and Lee Mervin, her current friend. The appellant was a friend of Murphy’s younger sister. The appellant and Sarah Jelfs became involved in the
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fracas. The only witnesses as to what happened who gave evidence at the trial were the two women. There was no evidence from the two men, Murphy and Mervin, or from two other people who were in the house at the time. There was an acute conflict of evidence between the appellant and Sarah Jelfs. The appellant’s account was as follows, and I quote from the summing up:
‘She said that the two boys were fighting in the hall. “I stepped in to try and stop it, but I was pushed off. Sarah was in the living room. I shouted at her to try and stop the fight. She shouted, ‘I can’t do anything!' She said, ‘It’s your fault. Get out of my house!' And then Lee pulled his arm back to punch Mark and Sarah fell to the floor. She got up and said it was my fault, punched me in the mouth. I punched her in the chest and she fell to the floor. I kicked her left leg [that was the basis of the plea of guilty on the second count, that is the assault occasioning actual bodily harm which no longer remains a conviction] and I shouted, ‘You’ve hurt Mark,’ and then I left.”’
Her case was that a blow from one of the men’s elbows must have caused the very serious eye injury to Sarah Jelfs.
Sarah Jelfs’s account, and I quote again from the summing up, was as follows:
‘… her account was that this defendant was swearing at her and saying she was going to kill her; pushed her to the ground and grabbed her hair; kicked her in the stomach and chased and then kicked her in the back and when she tried to get up the defendant pulled her to the side onto the other side and then she said: “She kicked me in the face. She kicked me in the right eye, the left cheek, and the next three to four kicks in the face.” She said that she could not see. “I was blind. I am blind in the right eye. It hasn’t improved since I left hospital. I didn’t take hold of her. I didn’t touch her and I didn’t come into contact with either of the lads. I remained in the living room.” She said she was kicking on the outside of the left thigh and had a bruise. “I don’t think Mark kicked me …”’
As the judge said in his summing up:
‘The evidence really amounts to the two witnesses whom you have seen this morning and this afternoon, Miss Jelfs and the defendant. You have to decide who has told you the truth and who has not.’
Apart from her plea of guilty on the second count, the appellant was of good character. The judge made no reference to her character in his summing up despite the fact that counsel stood up and reminded the judge that he had said nothing about character. The judge replied to counsel that in the light of the plea to the second count, the assault occasioning actual bodily harm, he did not propose to do so. The result of the case depended entirely upon the jury’s assessment of the evidence of the two women, in particular the appellant’s credibility: was her account a lying one? Her plea of guilty to the second count may have been an indication that she had a propensity to violence but it was in no way probative that she was guilty on the first count. Otherwise good character, in the absence of any convictions for dishonest offences, was clearly material to her credibility. In this case, so much depended upon her credibility. Should the judge have directed the jury accordingly as to the materiality of her otherwise good character or was it a matter of his discretion whether he did or not? In our judgment in the circumstances of this case he clearly should have
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given such a direction. Although this particular point was not decided in the definitive judgment of R v Vye [1993] 3 All ER 241, [1993] 1 WLR 471, it is, in our judgment, implicit from the judgment of Lord Taylor CJ that a full direction on character should have been given in this case.
Lord Taylor CJ said ([1993] 3 All ER 241 at 245, [1993] 1 WLR 471 at 475):
‘Leaving aside cases involving more than one defendant where one is of good character and one is not, virtually all the numerous decisions since R v Berrada (1989) 91 Cr App R 131 have reiterated that the first limb direction is necessary whenever the defendant has given evidence. This has been held to be so even when, on his own admission, he has told lies in interview with the police (see R v Kabariti (1990) 92 Cr App R 362).’
We interpose to ask: if a lying defendant is entitled to a direction on the materiality of good character on credibility, should not a defendant who has frankly admitted an offence in the indictment be entitled to a full direction on character?
Lord Taylor CJ later said ([1993] 3 All ER 241 at 247, [1993] 1 WLR 471 at 477):
‘Having stated the general rule, however, we recognise it must be for the trial judge in each case to decide how he tailors his direction to the particular circumstances. He would probably wish to indicate, as is commonly done, that good character cannot amount to a defence. In cases such as that of the long serving employee exemplified above, he may wish to emphasise the “second limb” direction more than in the average case. By contrast, he may wish in a case such as the murder/manslaughter example given above [ie R v Richens (1992) Times, 25 November], to stress the very limited help the jury may feel they can get from the absence of any propensity to violence in the defendant’s history. Provided that the judge indicates to the jury the two respects in which good character may be relevant, ie credibility and propensity, this court will be slow to criticise any qualifying remarks he may make based on the facts of the individual case.’
In this case the particular issues that the jury had to determine were (1) whether this appellant had caused the grievous eye injury and (2) whether at the time she inflicted that injury she intended to inflict really serious harm on Sarah Jelfs. In our judgment, on the question of intent, the fact that the appellant admitted the lesser offence and a different part of the assault or fracas involving Sarah Jelfs was a matter that might indeed, in a sense, be in her favour that she was frank enough to admit what part she had played in the incident. In this case clearly the judge would have had to tailor his direction on character to take into account the appellant’s plea of guilty on the second count of the indictment. Lord Taylor CJ set out the general guidance for the courts in relation to character ([1993] 3 All ER 241 at 248, [1993] 1 WLR 471 at 479):
‘To summarise, in our judgment the following principles are to be applied. (1) A direction as to the relevance of his good character to a defendant’s credibility is to be given where he has testified or made pre-trial answers or statements. (2) A direction as to the relevance of his good character to the likelihood of his having committed the offence charged is to be given, whether or not he has testified, or made pre-trial answers or statements.’
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In our judgment, the failure of the judge in this case to give any direction to the jury on character amounted to a fundamental and material irregularity and this conviction must be quashed.
In our judgment, in view of the acute conflict of evidence and the absence of any independent evidence supporting Sarah Jelfs’s account of the matter, it would be wholly inappropriate to apply the proviso.
Appeal allowed. Conviction quashed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Fielding v Rigby
[1993] 4 All ER 294
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR, MANN AND PETER GIBSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 28 JUNE 1993
Practice – Parties – Substitution of plaintiff – Action begun in name of deceased – Plaintiff dying after issue of writ – Writ in name of deceased served on defendant – Deceased’s widow and personal representative applying for substitution of her name as plaintiff after service – Whether proceedings a nullity – Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934, s 1 – RSC Ord 2, r 1, Ord 15, r 7(1).
In 1990 F issued a writ claiming damages against the defendant for personal injuries caused by an accident while he was a guest at the defendant’s hotel. However, he died before the writ was served. After F’s death his widow became his personal representative but did not amend the title of the action. Instead, in January 1991 the writ in F’s name and a statement of claim were served on the defendant, who acknowledged service and served a defence. On 22 May on an ex parte application an order was made under RSC Ord 15, r 7a substituting F’s widow and personal representative as the plaintiff in the action. In November the defendant’s solicitors applied to strike out the action on the ground that the proceedings were a nullity as service had been effected on behalf of a plaintiff who at the date of the service did not exist. The district judge struck out the action but on appeal the judge allowed the plaintiff’s action to continue. The defendant appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – Under s 1(1)b of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934, which provided that in the event of a person’s death any cause of action which was vested in him survived for the benefit of his estate, the cause of action which was vested in F when he died survived for the benefit of his estate and, by virtue of RSC Ord 15, r 7(1), did not abate, and although at the date of service on the defendant the name of the action had not been amended to show that F’s widow was the party upon whom the deceased’s right of action had devolved
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there had never been a stage in the proceedings when the cause of action had not been vested in a living and existing party. The failure to amend the writ before service was an irregularity which did not go to the root of the proceedings so as to render them a nullity and the court could rectify it under Ord 2, r 1(2)c. Accordingly the appeal would be dismissed (see p 297 d and p 298 g to p 299 d, post).
Jackson v North Eastern Rly Co (1877) 5 Ch D 844 and Eldridge v Burgess (1878) 7 Ch D 411 considered.
Lazard Bros & Co v Midland Bank Ltd [1932] All ER Rep 571 distinguished.
Notes
For service of a writ, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 149 and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 257–258, 1671–1683.
For the position where a party to an action dies, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 220–221, and for cases on the subject, see 37(2) Digest (Reissue) 361–364, 2246–2261.
For the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934, s 1, see 17 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1993 reissue) 356.
Cases referred to in judgments
Daimler Co Ltd v Continental Tyre and Rubber Co (GB) Ltd [1916] 2 AC 307, [1916–17] All ER Rep 191, HL.
Dubai Bank Ltd v Galadari (No 4) (1990) Times, 23 February.
Eldridge v Burgess (1878) 7 Ch D 411.
Jackson v North Eastern Rly Co (1877) 5 Ch D 844, CA.
Lazard Bros & Co v Midland Bank Ltd [1933] AC 289, [1932] All ER Rep 571, HL.
Case also cited or referred to in skeleton argument
Foster v Turnbull [1990] CA Transcript 443, (1990) Times, 22 May.
Appeal
The defendant, Mrs B Rigby, who traded as Ashlea Hotel at 81 Thorn Road, Doncaster, appealed with the leave of the judge from the order of Judge Peter Baker QC, sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division at Doncaster on 25 September 1992 whereby he allowed the appeal of the plaintiff, Carol Ann Fielding, the widow and personal representative of the estate of Brian Fielding deceased, from the order of District Judge R H Foster dated 21 May 1992 ordering that the plaintiff’s action be struck out. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
Dominic Nolan (instructed by Dibb Lupton Broomhead, Manchester) for the defendant.
Philip Butler (instructed by Kennedys, agents for Fieldings, Bolton) for the plaintiff.
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SIR THOMAS BINGHAM MR. This is an appeal against a decision of Judge Peter Baker QC, sitting as a judge of the High Court on 25 September 1992, when he allowed the plaintiff’s appeal from an order of District Judge R H Foster, the effect of which had been to strike out the action with costs. Judge Baker’s decision had the effect that the action could continue. He did, however, grant leave to the defendant to appeal to this court and the defendant, accordingly, challenges his decision. The facts of the matter fall within a small compass and the point that is raised by the defendant is a very clear one.
On 22 August 1987 a Mr Brian Fielding had, or claims that he had, an accident while he was a guest in the defendant’s hotel at 81 Thorn Road, Doncaster. The details of the accident are irrelevant, but are in brief that he was putting weight on a stool when the stool collapsed and he broke his leg. On 25 January 1990, within the three-year limitation period, a writ was issued on his behalf and in his name, claiming damages for personal injuries against the defendant. The writ was not, at that stage, served.
On 9 October 1990 Mr Fielding died. He had the overwhelming misfortune of being a haemophiliac to whom contaminated blood was given, as a result of blood handled by the Blood Transfusion Service becoming infected with the AIDS virus. As a result, he died, as I have said, on 9 October 1990. The unhappy circumstances of his death have no bearing whatever on the point of law raised in this appeal, but naturally dispose one to feel sympathetic towards Mr Fielding and those whom he leaves behind.
Very shortly after his death, letters of administration were issued to his widow, who became his personal representative. For reasons that are described in an affidavit, but are not directly germane to this appeal, steps were not taken to amend the title of the action at that stage and substitute the widow and personal representative as the plaintiff. Instead, on 9 January 1991 the writ was served with a statement of claim on the defendant in the name of Mr Brian Fielding who, as I have said, was by that stage dead. There was an acknowledgement of service and a defence was served.
On 22 May 1991, on ex parte application, an order was made under RSC Ord 15, r 7, the effect of which was to substitute Mr Fielding’s widow and personal representative as the plaintiff. That order was duly sealed and served on the defendant’s solicitors on 20 November 1991. The defendant’s solicitors thereupon applied to strike out the action on the basis that the proceedings were a nullity, service having been effected on behalf of the plaintiff who, at the date of service, did not exist.
It seems very likely that the district judge’s attention was drawn to, and his decision influenced by, The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 1, para 15/7/2, where one sees the following:
‘But where a sole plaintiff or a sole defendant dies, etc., the action becomes abated or defective (Eldridge v. Burgess ((1878) 7 Ch D 411); Jackson v. N. E. Ry. ((1877) 5 Ch D 844) until steps are taken to continue proceedings under this rule. And so in the case of the assignment or devolution of the estate of a sole plaintiff or defendant.’
The plaintiff appealed to Judge Baker against that order of the district judge and he allowed the appeal. That decision, the defendant now submits, was wrong. It is submitted to be wrong on a clear and simple principle, namely that there must be a living and existing plaintiff named in the writ at the date of service on the defendant.
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The starting point for considering this problem is, I think, s 1(1) of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934, which provides:
‘Subject to the provisions of this section, on the death of any person after the commencement of this Act all causes of action subsisting against or vested in him shall survive against, or, as the case may be, for the benefit of, his estate. Provided that this subsection shall not apply to causes of action for defamation …’
The effect of that subsection, plainly, was to abrogate, save in the case of defamation, the old rule that a personal cause of action dies on the death of the person in whom the cause of action is vested. The provisions of that section are reflected in RSC Ord 15, r 7(1), which provides:
‘Where a party to an action dies or becomes bankrupt but the cause of action survives, the action shall not abate by reason of the death or bankruptcy.’
Accordingly, the situation in the present case is as follows. A cause of action was vested in the deceased at the date when the writ in these proceedings was issued. On his death, the cause of action survived for the benefit of his estate and the action which had been initiated on his behalf did not abate. Plainly, as it seems to me, the correct step at that stage was for the solicitors for the widow and personal representative to make application to the court under Ord 15, r 7(2) for the substitution of the widow and personal representative as the plaintiff in the action. That is a step which should, in my judgment, be taken before any other step is taken and certainly before service. In the present case that step was not taken until after service, although it is right to point out that Mr Nolan, who argued this case with great skill and clarity on behalf of the defendant, does not suggest that the defendant has been in any way prejudiced as a result of the plaintiff’s failure to take the step before service. He simply submits, as a matter of technical law, that the step must be taken before the writ is served in these circumstances, if the service is not to be a nullity.
For that proposition he relies on authority and essentially on four cases that have been brought to our attention. The first of those cases is Jackson v North Eastern Rly Co (1877) 5 Ch D 844. In that case an action had been started by a plaintiff and a defence served before the plaintiff became, in effect, bankrupt and trustees were appointed. At that stage in the chronology, the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1875 came into force on 1 November 1875, under the authority of which a new rule of the Supreme Court was made, RSC Ord 50, r 1 as it then stood. The plaintiff continued to act as the plaintiff in the action and the defendants took the point that he was no longer entitled to do so. It was held by the Court of Appeal that the bankrupt could not continue as the plaintiff, plainly on the basis that his rights had been assigned to his trustees, and it was pointed out that, at the date when he became bankrupt, the new Rules of the Supreme Court had not come into force. He was, therefore, seeking to pursue an action which had become vested in his trustees and the court’s decision that he was not entitled to do so appears to me, with respect, to have been plainly right.
The second authority referred to is Eldridge v Burgess (1878) 7 Ch D 411. In that case proceedings were issued and arrangements for trial made before the plaintiff, who had started the proceedings, in effect became bankrupt and before his trustee was appointed. When the matter came on before Fry J at the trial, neither the plaintiff nor his trustee appeared and at no stage was any attempt
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made to substitute the trustee for the plaintiff in the conduct of the action. The learned judge held that the cause of action must survive or continue in some person who is before the court and, in the absence of the trustee, struck out the action. That decision again appears to me to be plainly correct and I have no doubt that on the present facts, had there been no substitution of the personal representative and had there, at the trial, been no one representing or appearing for the plaintiff, the action could and would properly have been struck out. That again does not appear to me to lend great support to the proposition for which the defendant contends.
The third authority which is relied on by the defendant, and perhaps the authority which is relied on most strongly, is Lazard Bros & Co v Midland Bank Ltd [1933] AC 289, [1932] All ER Rep 571. In that case Lord Wright in the course of his speech said ([1933] AC 289 at 296–297, [1932] All ER Rep 571 at 576):
‘I shall deal first with question (2.), which is most important and is decisive, since it is clear law, scarcely needing any express authority, that a judgment must be set aside and declared a nullity by the Court in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction if and as soon as it appears to the Court that the person named as the judgment debtor was at all material times at the date of writ and subsequently non-existent: such a case is a fortiori than the case which Lord Parker referred to in Daimler Co. v. Continental Tyre, &c., Co. ([1916] 2 AC 307 at 337, [1916–17] All ER Rep 191 at 203). There the directors, being all alien enemies, could not give a retainer. Lord Parker said: “But when the Court in the course of an action becomes aware that the plaintiff is incapable of giving any retainer at all, it ought not to allow the action to proceed.” In such a case the plaintiff cannot be before the court. In the present case if the defendants cannot be before the Court, because there is in law no such person, I think by parity of reasoning the Court must refuse to treat these proceedings as other than a nullity.’
The facts in that case were that the Russian bank, whose debt it was sought to enforce, had ceased to exist before leave to issue and serve a writ out of the jurisdiction had been sought or granted and there is no suggestion that there was any other party to whom, or upon whom, such obligations had devolved. The action was simply, therefore, one based on a debt which was owed by a non-existent party and not by anyone else. It appears to me that the principle that the House of Lords laid down is readily intelligible, but is distinguished from this case where there was, at all material times, a party in whom the cause of action was vested.
Lastly, our attention was drawn to Dubai Bank Ltd v Galadari (No 4) (1990) Times, 23 February. The action had been begun by the Dubai Bank and the defendants had raised the issue that the bank had no capacity to sue since, at the date of suit, it did not exist as a legal entity and had ceased to have any existence or status as a body corporate and had no legal personality. In that case, also, there was no party upon whom the rights of the Dubai Bank were said to have devolved and, therefore, no one on whose behalf the action could properly be pursued. Morritt J referred to the passage of Lord Wright’s judgment which I have cited and held that the requirement for a plaintiff was a basic principle of law onto which the rules were grafted. He held that this was a requirement which could not be made good by RSC Ord 2, r 1. Again, as it seems to me, that authority can be distinguished because, in this case, the cause of action was vested in Mr Fielding when the writ was issued and there has never been a stage at which the cause of action has not been vested in a living and existing party.
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The defect which did take place was that, at the date of service, the name of the action had not been amended so as to show the plaintiff as the party upon whom the right of action of the deceased had devolved.
That, as it seems to me, is an irregularity which it is well within the powers of the court to make good under RSC Ord 2, r 1(2). In other words there was, I think, a departure from the correct procedure in this case, but not one which went to the root of the proceedings so as to render them a nullity, simply an irregularity which is well within the powers of the court to rectify. I have less hesitation in doing so in view of Mr Nolan’s frank acknowledgment that he is in no worse a position than he would have been in had the application been made at the correct time. I therefore agree with the decision at which the learned judge arrived and would dismiss this appeal.
MANN LJ. I also would dismiss this appeal for the reasons given by Sir Thomas Bingham MR.
PETER GIBSON LJ. I agree.
Appeal dismissed.
L I Zysman Esq Barrister.
Wright v Lodge and another
Kerek v Lodge and others
[1993] 4 All ER 299
Categories: TORTS; Negligence
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): PARKER, WOOLF AND STAUGHTON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 6, 27 JULY 1992
Negligence – Causation – Breach of duty causing or contributing to damage – Highway – Relevant cause of accident – Initial act of negligence by one driver followed by reckless driving on part of another driver – Car breaking down at night in fog on dual carriageway – Driver negligently leaving car on carriageway instead of moving car onto verge – Lorry driven recklessly colliding with stationary car and then going out of control – Lorry ending up overturned on opposite carriageway – Two other cars colliding with overturned lorry – Whether negligent driver of car liable to contribute to damages payable by lorry driver to persons injured in collision with overturned lorry – Whether lorry driver’s reckless driving sole cause of accident on opposite carriageway.
The respondent’s car broke down on the eastbound carriageway of an unlit dual carriageway at night when visibility was very poor owing to fog. The car came to a stop in the nearside lane of the carriageway and while the respondent was attempting to start it an articulated container lorry driven by the appellant crashed into the back of it, causing a passenger in the rear seat of the car to be seriously injured. The lorry then veered out of control across the central reservation and came to rest on its side in the opposite westbound carriageway, where it was struck by three cars and a lorry. The driver of one of the cars was killed and another driver was injured. At the time of the collision with the
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respondent’s car the appellant’s lorry was travelling at an excessive speed. The injured driver and the personal representative of the dead driver sued the appellant and the respondent, while the injured passenger in the respondent’s car sued the appellant, who joined the respondent as a third party. The appellant admitted liability in all three actions but claimed contribution from the respondent. The judge found that the appellant had been driving recklessly and that that was the sole cause of the injuries to the dead and injured drivers since it was the appellant’s reckless driving which had caused the lorry to end up on the westbound carriageway. The judge accordingly dismissed the contribution claims relating to the dead and injured drivers. However, he ordered the respondent to contribute 10% damages in respect of the claim by her passenger because the respondent had been negligent in leaving her car stationary on the eastbound carriageway, where it constituted a danger, instead of pushing it off the carriageway onto the verge and that negligence had been 10% of the cause of the initial impact by the lorry into the car. The appellant appealed, contending that the judge should have ordered a 10% contribution in respect of the injured and dead drivers’ claims because (i) the presence of the lorry on the westbound carriageway and thus their injuries was in part caused by the respondent’s initial negligence in leaving her car on the carriageway, (ii) the chain of causation from that initial negligence had not been broken by any novus actus interveniens and (iii) the fact that the appellant had been driving recklessly rather than just negligently was irrelevant.
Held – The driver of a motor vehicle could owe different duties of care to different road users since different questions of foreseeability, causation and remoteness could arise in respect of different road users affected by his negligence. Thus, if his vehicle was involved in a collision with another vehicle partly as a result of his own negligence, he was not necessarily responsible for subsequent events which occurred as the result of another driver’s reckless driving which caused damage which would not have occurred if that driver had merely been driving negligently, since reckless driving was in a different category from negligent driving and an obstruction on the highway which was a danger only to a reckless driver was not necessarily a relevant danger in considering the liability of the person who negligently caused the obstruction to be present. On the facts, although the respondent had been negligent in not removing her car from the carriageway onto the verge, the sole cause of the lorry ending up on the westbound carriageway and the drivers’ consequent death and injuries was the appellant’s reckless driving, which was the only relevant legal cause of that event. The judge had accordingly been correct to find that the respondent was not liable to make a contribution in respect of the appellant’s liability in regard to the dead and injured drivers’ claims. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 303 j to p 304 c, p 306 b, p 307 e to g, p 308 b to f j, p 309 c d g and p 310 c, post).
Dicta of Lord Reid and Lord Asquith in Stapley v Gypsum Mines Ltd [1953] 2 All ER 478 at 485–486, 489–490 and of Cairns LJ in Rouse v Squires [1973] 2 All ER 903 at 910 applied.
Notes
For causation in negligence, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 3, and for cases on the subject see, 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 91–116, 538–753.
Cases referred to in judgments
Admiralty Comrs v Volute (owners) [1922] 1 AC 129, [1921] All ER Rep 193, HL.
Page 301 of [1993] 4 All ER 299
Barber v British Road Services [1964] CA Transcript 289, (1964) Times, 18 November.
Dymond v Pearce [1972] 1 All ER 1142, [1972] 1 QB 496, [1972] 2 WLR 633, CA.
Harvey v Road Haulage Executive [1952] 1 KB 120, CA.
Oropesa, The [1943] 1 All ER 211, [1943] P 32, CA.
Quinn v Burch Bros (Builders) Ltd [1966] 2 All ER 283, [1966] 2 QB 370, [1966] 2 WLR 1017, CA.
Rouse v Squires [1973] 2 All ER 903, [1973] QB 889, [1973] 2 WLR 925, CA.
Stapley v Gypsum Mines Ltd [1953] 2 All ER 478, [1953] AC 663, [1953] 3 WLR 279, HL.
Yorkshire Dale Steamship Co Ltd v Minister of War Transport, The Coxwold [1942] 2 All ER 6, [1942] AC 691, HL.
Appeals
David Michael Lodge, who was the first defendant in an action for damages brought against him by the plaintiff, Philip Leslie Wright, for injuries suffered in a collision on the A45 highway on 20 February 1985, appealed from the judgment of Hobhouse J given on 15 January 1991 dismissing his claim for contribution against the respondent, Nicola Shepherd, the second defendant and third party, for contribution towards the damages for personal injury and costs paid by the appellant to the plaintiff. The appellant, who was also the first defendant in an action for damages brought by the plaintiff, Janet Sandra Kerek, the widow and administratrix of the estate of Istvan Kerek deceased, against the appellant and the second defendant, P & O Roadways Ltd, appealed from the judgment of Hobhouse J dismissing the defendants’ claim against the respondent for contribution towards the damages and costs agreed between the defendants and the plaintiff. The grounds of the appeals were, inter alia: (1) that the judge’s finding that the sole cause of the appellant’s lorry crossing from the eastbound carriageway of the A45 dual carriageway onto the westbound carriageway was the excessive and reckless speed at which he was driving, his inability to control his vehicle and his failure to keep a proper look-out was against the weight of the evidence; (2) that the judge ought to have found that the collision in the westbound carriageway was contributed to by the respondent’s negligence in leaving her Mini motor car stationary on the eastbound carriage in foggy conditions and in failing to steer it off the carriageway when due to engine failure it was slowing down to a halt; (3) that in making his findings the judge misdirected himself in law and that the judge ought to have found that the respondent had created a dangerous situation by her negligence and but for that negligence the appellant’s lorry would not have caused the accidents giving rise to the plaintiffs’ claims. The facts are set out in the judgment of Parker LJ.
Ronald J Walker QC (instructed by Penningtons) for the appellant.
Michael Douglas (instructed by Brachers, Maidstone) for the respondent.
The plaintiffs did not appear.
Cur adv vult
27 July 1992. The following judgments were delivered.
PARKER LJ. On 20 February 1985 shortly before 11.30 pm an accident involving several vehicles occurred on the A45 a short way from Cambridge. The particular stretch of road is dual carriageway. It is unlit.
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Shortly before the accident the respondent, Miss Shepherd, was driving her Mini on the eastbound carriageway towards Bury St Edmunds. She had two passengers, a Miss Duncan in the rear and a Miss Maynard in front. It was very foggy with visibility down to about 60 yards. The engine of the Mini petered out owing, probably, to some obstruction in the petrol supply. It came to a stop in the nearside lane of the carriageway. Miss Shepherd attempted to start it again without success. Some three minutes after she had stopped, a Scania articulated container lorry driven by the appellant, Mr Lodge, crashed into the back of the Mini, which had its lights on.
The Scania lorry was being driven at about 60 mph and, as the judge found, recklessly. In the impact the Mini was largely destroyed but very fortunately the only person seriously injured was Miss Duncan, who was in the rear seat. The Scania, after striking the Mini, went out of control, crossed the offside lane of its own carriageway and the central reservation, emerged into the westbound carriageway and fell over on its side blocking that carriageway. There it was struck, successively, by three cars and a DAF lorry. One of the cars was driven by a Mr Wright and another by a Mr Kerek. Mr Wright was injured and Mr Kerek was killed.
Miss Duncan, Mr Wright and Mr Kerek’s personal representatives, to whom I shall refer as ‘Mr Kerek’, claimed damages against Mr Lodge, his employers and others, including, in the case of Mr Wright and Mr Kerek, Miss Shepherd. In the case of Miss Duncan, Miss Shepherd was brought in by Mr Lodge as a third party.
Mr Lodge, not unnaturally, admitted liability in all three actions. Mr Kerek obtained a consent judgment for £225,000 against Mr Lodge. The claims of Miss Duncan and Mr Wright against him were settled respectively for £6,900 and £10,000. Mr Lodge had however claimed contribution in respect of all actions from Miss Shepherd and these claims were tried by Hobhouse J in January 1991. On 15 January he dismissed the contribution claims relating to Mr Wright and Mr Kerek but ordered that Miss Shepherd should contribute 10% in respect of the claim by Miss Duncan. There is no appeal by either side in the case of Miss Duncan. Mr Lodge however appeals in respect of the claims of Mr Wright and Mr Kerek contending that the judge should have ordered a 10% contribution in respect of those claims as well as that of Miss Duncan.
The judge’s conclusions may be summarised as follows. (1) The fact that the Scania lorry crossed into the other carriageway was wholly attributable to the recklessness with which Mr Lodge was driving and was thus the sole cause of the injuries to them. (2) Miss Shepherd was negligent in failing, when the engine stopped, to get her passengers to push the Mini off the carriageway onto the verge, which would have been an easy task. (3) That negligence was partly, namely as to 10%, causative of the initial impact on the Mini.
There was no cross-appeal or respondent’s notice. At a late stage in the argument an application was made for leave to put in a respondent’s notice contending that Miss Shepherd had been guilty of no negligence in the case of Miss Duncan or that any such negligence was not causative of her injuries, but this was refused. We must therefore regard conclusions (2) and (3) above as binding. For myself, however, I am bound to say that I regard it as fortunate that Miss Shepherd did not ask her passengers to get out and push. Had she done so it might very well have been that one or both of them had been killed and that Miss Shepherd would then have been faced with claims that it was negligent to have asked them to do so.
However that may be, we are faced with a situation that Miss Shepherd must be regarded as 10% to blame for the impact with the Mini and thus for Miss
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Duncan’s injuries. In these circumstances the contention of Mr Walker QC for Mr Lodge that she ought to be held responsible to the same degree in respect of the claims of Mr Wright and Mr Kerek appears to me to have great force. He presented it in this clear and simple form. (1) Mr Lodge’s lorry went out of control because he had to break and swerve violently in order to try to avoid the Mini. (2) The presence of the stationary Mini on the nearside lane of the eastbound carriageway was due to the negligence of Miss Shepherd. (3) Therefore it follows that the presence of the Scania on the westbound carriageway, and thus the injuries to Mr Wright and Mr Kerek, was in part caused by the negligence of Miss Shepherd. (4) Whether Mr Lodge’s driving was negligent, grossly negligent, or reckless is irrelevant to the question whether Miss Shepherd’s negligence was causative of the Scania’s presence on the westbound carriageway. Given her initial negligence the question was simply whether the chain of causation had been broken by a novus actus interveniens and it had not. (5) Hobhouse J had misinterpreted the decision of this court in Rouse v Squires [1973] 2 All ER 903, [1973] QB 889. That case was, he submitted, concerned only with the question whether an obstruction was a danger at all. In the present case the judge had held that it was both a danger and a negligently created danger. As against this, Mr Douglas for Miss Shepherd put forward the equally clear and simple argument. (1) On an unlit road at night and in thick fog Mr Wright and Mr Kerek collided with an overturned Scania blocking the carriageway and thereby suffered personal injuries. (2) The question was: what was the cause or what were the causes of its presence there? (3) The judge had found and was entitled to find that the sole cause was the reckless driving of Mr Lodge.
That argument also appears to me to have considerable force.
In order to reach a conclusion upon the question as to which of the two arguments should prevail, it is in my view important to consider the nature of the claim in respect of Miss Duncan as compared with the claims in respect of Mr Wright and Mr Kerek.
In the case of Miss Duncan the foundation of the claim for contribution is that Miss Shepherd was in breach of a duty of care to her back-seat passenger. Proceeding on the basis, which I must, that the presence of the Mini constituted a danger to others proceeding eastbound, including persons negligently so driving, and that its presence there was due to negligence, the finding that, despite Mr Lodge’s recklessness, negligence was partly the cause of Miss Duncan’s injuries is clearly sustainable, although I am far from sure that I would have reached the same conclusion.
In the cases of Mr Wright and Mr Kerek however the position is different. Mr Lodge must establish that Miss Shepherd owed a duty of care to drivers on the westbound carriageway, that she was in breach of that duty of care in allowing the Mini to remain stationary on the nearside lane of the eastbound carriageway and that the breach of duty was, in part, causative of the presence of the upturned Scania in the westbound carriageway.
The differences in the two situations is of importance. It is clear that Miss Shepherd’s passengers and others using the eastbound carriageway must have been within her reasonable contemplation as being likely to be affected by her omission to remove the Mini from the carriageway. She thus owed a duty of care to them. It is also clear that in some circumstances a driver on a dual carriageway will be under a duty of care to those on the opposite carriageway. If, for example, a driver in the fast lane of a dual carriageway were to stop without warning, those on the opposite carriageway would in my view be within the scope of the duty. It would be clear that such a stop would or might cause a following driver who was,
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owing to the presence of traffic there, unable to swerve into the slow lane, to swerve onto and over the central reservation into the path of a driver in the fast lane of the other carriageway. But in the present case Miss Shepherd was stationary with lights on in the nearside lane of the eastbound carriageway in thick fog which made it necessary for traffic to proceed at reduced speed. The situations are different.
Causation is also different. In the case of Miss Duncan there is an obvious connection between the presence of the Mini and the fact that it was struck from behind. The connection between its presence and the fact that the Scania went out of control and ended on its side in the westbound carriageway is in my view far from obvious. Suppose for example that the Scania, owing to its excessive speed and failure to observe the Mini until a very late stage had, instead of pulling over, proceeded upright across the westbound carriageway, through a brick wall into the driveway of a house and there injured a guest of the owners who was leaving after a dinner party. I would find it very hard to accept that such injuries were caused at all by the presence of the Mini.
In cases of this sort there is always much discussion on the question of foreseeability in relation to the duty of care, to causation and to remoteness and there have in the cases been many and different expressions as to the test or tests to be applied, but they must all be related to the facts of the cases in which they were expressed. There is in my view no single test.
In Stapley v Gypsum Mines Ltd [1953] 2 All ER 478 at 485–486, [1953] AC 663 at 681 Lord Reid said:
‘To determine what caused an accident from the point of view of legal liability is a most difficult task. If there is any valid logical or scientific theory of causation, it is quite irrelevant in this connection. In a court of law, this question must be decided as a properly instructed and reasonable jury would decide it … The question must be determined by applying common sense to the facts of each particular case. One may find that, as a matter of history, several people have been at fault and that if any one of them had acted properly the accident would not have happened, but that does not mean that the accident must be regarded as having been caused by the faults of all of them. One must discriminate between those faults which must be discarded as being too remote and those which must not. Sometimes it is proper to discard all but one and to regard that one as the sole cause, but in other cases it is proper to regard two or more as having jointly caused the accident. I doubt whether any test can be applied generally. It may often be dangerous to apply to this kind of case tests which have been used in traffic accidents by land or sea, but in this case I think it useful to adopt phrases from the speech of VISCOUNT BIRKENHEAD, L.C. in Admiralty Comrs. v. S.S. Volute ([1922] 1 AC 129 at 144–145, [1925] All ER Rep 193 at 201), and to ask: Was Dale’s fault “so much mixed up with the state of things brought about” by Stapley that “in the ordinary plain common sense of this business” it must be regarded as having contributed to the accident?’
Lord Asquith, although dissenting on the conclusion, was of a like opinion on the approach. He said ([1953] 2 All ER 478 at 489–490, [1953] AC 663 at 687):
‘… I am persuaded that it is still part of the law of this country that two causes may both be necessary pre-conditions of a particular result—damage to X—yet the one may, if the facts justify that conclusion, be treated as the real, substantial, direct or effective cause, and the other dismissed as at best a causa sine qua non and ignored for purposes of legal liability. This is a
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doctrine affirmed by your Lordships’ House, and not, in my view, displaced by the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945. On the contrary, the words “as a result of” in s. 1(1) of that statute impliedly preserve the doctrine, the assertion of which your Lordships have more than once coupled with an admonition that, if the conditions for its application occur, a judge sitting alone should assume the mantle and the mentality of a jury, and should take what is called a “broad common-sense view”, in deciding whether one of the causes (there may be two or twenty) is the “real” cause.’
I refer also to the judgment of Lord Wright in The Oropesa [1943] 1 All ER 211 at 215, [1943] P 32 at 39, in which he considered the question of novus actus and a break in the chain of causation. He said:
‘To break the chain of causation it must be shown that there is something which I will call ultroneous, something unwarrantable, a new cause which … can be described as either unreasonable or extraneous or extrinsic.’
Before returning to the facts I should consider the judgments of this court in Rouse v Squires. In his judgment Cairns LJ said ([1973] 2 All ER 903 at 910, [1973] QB 889 at 898):
‘After consideration of these various cases, the conclusion I have reached is that Harvey v Road Haulage Executive [1952] 1 KB 120 and Barber v British Road Services (1964) Times, 18 November are authorities binding on us to this effect. If a driver so negligently manages his vehicle as to cause it to obstruct the highway and constitute a danger to other road users, including those who are driving too fast or not keeping a proper look-out, but not those who deliberately or recklessly drive into the obstruction, then the first driver’s negligence may be held to have contributed to the causation of an accident of which the immediate cause was the negligent driving of the vehicle which because of the presence of the obstruction collides with it or with some other vehicle or some other person.’
There is here an indication that intervening recklessness may break the chain of causation. MacKenna J however said ([1973] 2 All ER 903 at 911, [1973] QB 889 at 899–900):
‘We have been referred to a number of cases where two parties were guilty of negligence and it was argued that the negligence which was subsequent was the sole cause of the accident. I would deduce this rule from the cases. Where the party guilty of the prior negligence has created a dangerous situation, and the danger is still continuing to a substantial degree at the time of the accident, and the accident would not have happened but for this continuing danger, he is responsible for the accident as well as the party who was subsequently negligent.’
He went on however to distinguish the earlier case of Dymond v Pearce [1972] 1 All ER 1142, [1972] 1 QB 496 in these words ([1973] 2 All ER 903 at 912, [1973] QB 889 at 900):
‘There the defendant, who had parked his lorry with its lights on underneath a street lamp close to the kerb, had not created any danger for other traffic. His lorry was not an unforeseeable obstruction, as Mr Allen’s was in its position across two lanes of the road.’
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Buckley LJ however concluded his judgment as follows ([1973] 2 All ER 903 at 913, [1973] QB 889 at 902):
‘I agree with what has been said by Cairns LJ, in regard to Harvey v Road Haulage Executive [1952] 1 KB 120 and Barber v British Road Services (1964) Times, 18 November. I also agree with what has been said in regard to the apportionment of liability. Accordingly, the appeal will be allowed and judgment will be entered against the third parties for £4,000.’
I accept Mr Walker’s submission, which was indeed not really challenged by Mr Douglas, that the case was in reality concerned with the question whether or not an obstruction constituted a danger. It does not therefore directly assist the solution to the present problem. Indirectly however it does in my judgment afford assistance in that it recognises that reckless driving is in a different category from negligent driving and that an obstruction which is only a danger to a reckless driver does not constitute a relevant danger.
In his judgment Hobhouse J said:
‘... it is quite clear that Mr Lodge was very seriously at fault. He was driving at a speed of around 60 mph in an articulated lorry which was subject to a 50 mph speed limit and he was driving at that speed in thick fog. I consider that there is no escape from the conclusion that he was driving recklessly. He was shutting his eyes to the obvious risks that existed … His conduct on that night was clearly, in my judgment, reckless because he was driving at a speed which was obviously unsafe for his vehicle and contrary to the law and was, furthermore, plainly reckless and taking unacceptable risks having regard to the fog conditions that existed … Now, the position therefore is that on the virtually undisputed evidence of speed and the overwhelming body of evidence with regard to the state of the fog, Mr Lodge was driving at a grossly excessive speed, correctly characterised as reckless. The reason why it is reckless is obvious. These vehicles are capable of doing a very large amount of damage, are capable of going out of control and are capable of causing many other accidents if they should end up in a situation where they obstruct other traffic and, of course, all those matters are exacerbated if it is in conditions of fog at night on an unlit road, as was the case here.’
He also considered the evidence of a Mr Moyes, a mate of Mr Lodge who was being followed by Mr Lodge and who was driving a very much larger articulated lorry. Mr Moyes had been driving at much the same speed as Mr Lodge, had seen the Mini and passed it without difficulty. Mr Lodge was following its rear light and as soon as Mr Moyes passed her, Miss Shepherd was able to see Mr Lodge’s lights following.
The judge’s final conclusions are expressed as follows:
‘But the fact that the lorry went across onto the other carriageway is in my judgment wholly attributable to the excessive speed and inability of Mr Lodge to control his lorry. It was not a ricochet off the Mini. There is no evidence to show that the impact with the Mini—which was a relatively glancing one—had any causative effect relative to the fact that the lorry ended up on the other carriageway. The sole cause of its ending up on the other carriageway was simply the excessive and reckless speed of Mr Lodge, his inability to control his vehicle and his failure to keep a proper look out. As a matter of assessing what were the legal consequences, I consider that the sole legal cause of the lorry arriving up in that position was the reckless
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driving of Mr Lodge. As a matter of history (or if you choose to use Latin tags causa sine qua non) obviously the presence of the Mini was a factor, but it was not a factor of legal significance. The relevant, and only legal cause was the reckless driving of Mr Lodge … This was a case not of somebody who was merely driving too fast or not keeping a proper look out, but somebody who was driving recklessly and therefore, within the principles recognised in Rouse v Squires [1973] 2 All ER 903, [1973] QB 889 and other cases, falls on the wrong side of the line. It was Mr Lodge’s conduct which was the sole legal cause of the liabilities to those persons who suffered damage and Miss Shepherd, if she had been sued by those parties, would have been able to say, “Even if I was in any way wanting in reasonable care in not taking my vehicle off the carriageway earlier, the reason why you suffered damage was solely because of Mr Lodge’s conduct—his reckless driving.” If there had merely been a minor impact, or if there had been some impact not associated with reckless speed and inability to control the lorry in restricted conditions then none of those consequences would have followed, as it is apparent from the findings that I have already made. Therefore the claim against Miss Shepherd fails in respect of those claims.’
As I have said, Mr Walker submits that the judge misinterpreted Rouse v Squires [1973] 2 All ER 903, [1973] QB 889. I do not myself consider that he did. Rouse v Squires recognised that there would be no liability, because no relevant danger, if an obstruction was only a danger to a reckless driver, and his reference to other cases and this case falling ‘the wrong side of the line’ in my view show that he approached the matter correctly.
In any event approaching the matter as if he were a jury and taking a common sense view, he was, as we are, clearly entitled to conclude that the presence of the Scania in the westbound carriageway was wholly attributable to Mr Lodge’s reckless driving. It was unwarranted and unreasonable. It was the violence of the swerve and breaking which sent his lorry out of control. Such violence was due to the reckless manner in which he was driving and it was his reckless speed which resulted in the swerve, loss of control and headlong career onto, and overturn on, the westbound carriageway. It is true that it would not have been there had the Mini not obstructed the nearside lane of the eastbound carriageway but the passages which I have cited show clearly that this is not enough. It does not thereby necessarily become a legally operative cause. The subsequent conduct of Mr Lodge was such that any judge or jury could in my judgment exclude Miss Shepherd’s conduct as being causative of the subsequent accident. The judge did exclude it and in my judgment he was right to do so.
I would dismiss the appeal.
WOOLF LJ. On this appeal Mr Ronald Walker QC for the appellant, Mr Lodge, advanced an attractive and succinct argument. He submitted that on the judge’s findings the situation is as follows. (1) It was the presence of Miss Shepherd’s Mini stationary in the nearside lane of the eastbound carriageway of the dual carriageway road which was responsible for Mr Lodge having to break violently, swerve to the right and collide with the Mini. This caused his vehicle to travel out of control, across the central reservation to the westbound carriageway where it tipped onto its side, blocking that carriageway with the result that the other vehicles collided with it. (2) The presence of the Mini in the eastbound carriageway was attributable to the negligence of Miss Shepherd and that negligence contributed to the collision between her vehicle and Mr Lodge’s lorry. (3) In the absence of any break in the chain of causation as a result of a novus
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actus interveniens it followed that the presence of Mr Lodge’s vehicle in the other carriageway and the collisions which resulted were also contributed to by Miss Shepherd’s negligence. (4) Whether Mr Lodge was driving negligently, grossly negligently or recklessly before the accident was irrelevant to the question whether Miss Shepherd’s negligence was a cause of the collision.
Normally I have no doubt that Mr Walker’s submissions would be correct. However, as I understand the judge’s findings, this was not a normal case. Miss Shepherd’s negligence in allowing her Mini to remain in the position in which it had stopped in the eastbound carriageway ceased to be an operative factor in what happened to Mr Lodge’s lorry before it overturned blocking the westbound carriageway. The judge found the sole cause of the lorry ending in this position was the reckless way in which Mr Lodge drove his lorry. It was very nearly the same situation as that which would exist if Mr Lodge had intentionally, after colliding with the Mini, driven onto the westbound carriageway at a speed which would cause the vehicle to overturn.
That this was the judge’s approach is apparent from the passage in his judgment where he said:
‘It was Mr Lodge’s conduct which was the sole legal cause of the liability to those persons who suffered damage and Miss Shepherd, if she had been sued by those parties, would have been able to say, “Even if I was in any way wanting in reasonable care in not taking my vehicle off the carriageway earlier, the reason why you suffered damage was solely because of Mr Lodge’s conduct—his reckless driving.” If there had merely been a minor impact or if there had been some impact not associated with reckless speed and inability to control the lorry in a restricted condition none of those consequences would have followed …’
This approach involves a judge being entitled to exonerate a driver of a vehicle who is involved in a collision with another vehicle, partly as a result of his own negligence, for responsibility for subsequent events where those subsequent events would not have occurred if the other driver had been merely driving negligently and not in addition driving recklessly. The situation is analogous to that considered by Cairns LJ in Rouse v Squires [1973] 2 All ER 903 at 910, [1973] QB 889 at 898:
‘If a driver so negligently manages his vehicle as to cause it to obstruct the highway and constitute a danger to other road users, including those who are driving too fast or not keeping a proper look-out, but not those who deliberately or recklessly drive into the obstruction, then the first driver’s negligence may be held to have contributed to the causation of an accident of which the immediate cause was the negligent driving of the vehicle which because of the presence of the obstruction collides with it or with some other vehicle or some other person.’
In that passage Cairns LJ excludes from the consequences resulting from the negligence to which he is referring what happens to ‘those who deliberately or recklessly drive into the obstruction.' If that is a permissible approach, as I think it is, then it is justifiable to draw the distinction, which was drawn by Hobhouse J, between the consequences of deliberate or reckless driving which causes the obstruction into which other vehicles subsequently collide and the consequences which would have occurred even as a result of negligent driving. As the editors of Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (16th edn, 1989) para 1-110, suggest the explanation
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for this is that deliberate or reckless conduct is so obviously more blameworthy than carelessness that it can be singled out as being the ‘substantive cause’.
It should also be noted that Hobhouse J explained his conclusion for holding Miss Shepherd partly to blame for Miss Duncan’s injuries by saying:
‘I consider that the collision causing injury to Miss Duncan could have come about without reckless driving [but] with merely careless driving.’ (My emphasis.)
The use of the word ‘could’ in this context is somewhat puzzling. If Hobhouse J was not making a finding that the collision with the Mini would have come about if Mr Lodge had not been driving recklessly but only negligently then this would detract from Mr Walker’s argument based upon inconsistency. In saying this I am not seeking to go behind the decision of this court not to allow Mr Douglas at the hearing to challenge the judge’s finding that Miss Shepherd was negligent in leaving the vehicle where she did. I am merely underlining the fact that, though Miss Shepherd is bound by that finding, this was a case where the question as to whether Miss Shepherd caused even the initial collision was highly debatable. It is a situation which the judge described as being right at the borderline of what is negligent or tortious conduct. The fact that her conduct, on the judge’s decision, was just over the borderline of the grey area emphasises the injustice that would flow from holding her in any way responsible for the very serious consequences of the subsequent collisions. On a question of causation this can be a relevant consideration. As Lord Reid said in Stapley v Gypsum Mines Ltd [1953] 2 All ER 478 at 485–486, [1953] AC 663 at 681, with regard to causation:
‘The question must be determined by applying common sense to the facts of each particular case. One may find that as a matter of history, several people have been at fault and that if any one of them had acted properly the accident would not have happened, but that does not mean that the accident must be regarded as having been caused by the faults of all of them. One must discriminate between those faults which must be discarded as being too remote and those which must not. Sometimes it is proper to discard all but one and to regard that one as the sole cause, but in other cases it is proper to regard two or more as having jointly caused the accident.’
For those reasons, in agreement with the judgments given by Parker and Staughton LJJ, I would dismiss this appeal.
STAUGHTON LJ. The critical question in these appeals is one of causation. Plainly the negligent driving of Mr Lodge was a relevant cause of the injuries to Mr Wright and the death of Mr Kerek. That has not been disputed. But the judge also found that Miss Shepherd was negligent in some degree. Initially there was no appeal against that finding. With some encouragement from the court Mr Douglas sought to challenge it at a late stage; but after hearing Mr Walker QC we declined to allow him to do so. The issue then is whether Miss Shepherd’s negligence was also a relevant cause of Mr Wright’s injuries and Mr Kerek’s death. The judge held that it was not. But he did hold that Miss Shepherd’s negligence was a relevant cause of the injury to her passenger, Miss Duncan—as, of course, was the negligence of Mr Lodge. Was it open to the judge to reach those conclusions?
It would not be difficult to produce a substantial anthology of authorities for three propositions. (i) Causation is not the same as remoteness. Foreseeability
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may be a useful guide, but it is by no means the true criterion. (ii) Causation depends on common sense, and not on theoretical analysis by a philosopher or metaphysician. (iii) Not every cause ‘without which not’—or ‘but for’—is regarded as a relevant cause in law. The judge or jury must choose, by the application of common sense, the cause (or causes) which are to be regarded as relevant.
I am content, in support of those propositions, merely to list three cases: Quinn v Burch Bros (Builders) Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 283 at 289, [1966] 2 QB 370 at 393–394 per Salmon LJ, Yorkshire Dale Steamship Co Ltd v Minister of War Transport, The Coxwold [1942] 2 All ER 6 at 15, [1942] AC 691 at 706 per Lord Wright and Stapley v Gypsum Mines Ltd [1953] 2 All ER 478 at 485–486, 489–490, [1953] AC 663 at 681, 687 per Lord Reid and Lord Asquith.
In my judgment Hobhouse J was entitled, for the reasons given by Parker and Woolf LJJ, to find on the facts of this case that the negligence of Miss Shepherd was a relevant cause of the injury to Miss Duncan, but not of the injuries to Mr Wright and the death of Mr Kerek. I too would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Wendy Shockett Barrister.
United Dominions Trust Ltd v Shellpoint Trustees Ltd
[1993] 4 All ER 310
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NOURSE, BUTLER-SLOSS LJJ AND SIR CHRISTOPHER SLADE
Hearing Date(s): 17, 18, 19 MARCH 1993
Landlord and tenant – Relief against forfeiture – Underlessee – Mortgaged lease – Tenant failing to pay costs of action for service charges – Lessor repossessing flat for failure to pay costs – Plaintiff mortgagee failing to apply for relief against forfeiture within six months of repossession – Whether restrictions on lessee applying for relief against forfeiture applying to mortgagee – Whether plaintiff as mortgagee entitled to apply for relief against forfeiture – County Courts Act 1984, ss 138, 140.
The lessee of a flat fell into arrears in paying the service charges on the flat, which had been assigned to him in 1987 on payment of a premium, £61,000 of which was borrowed by way of mortgage from the plaintiff, which was registered as the first chargee. The lease provided that the service charges were recoverable as rent and that the lessor could re-enter on non-payment thereof. The lessor commenced proceedings in the county court and in March 1988 obtained judgment against the lessee ordering payment of the arrears of service charges and costs. The order provided that the lessor would be entitled to possession of the flat if the arrears and costs were not paid within 14 days. The lessee paid the arrears but not the costs of £362, and in February 1990 the lessor executed the judgment for possession and re-entered the flat. Despite knowing of the proceedings and the judgment, the plaintiff did not apply to be joined in
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the proceedings. In December 1990 the plaintiff became aware that the judgment had been executed by re-entry and in February 1991 it issued a summons for relief against forfeiture against the defendant, which had acquired the freehold reversion of the flat in May 1988. At the hearing the judge decided that for the purposes of the relief against forfeiture provisions in s 138(7)a of the County Courts Act 1984 a ‘lessee’ was to be strictly construed as a reference to a tenant who held under the lease and did not extend to a mortgagee under a lease subject to forfeiture and therefore the court had jurisdiction to grant the plaintiff relief. The defendant appealed to the Court of Appeal, contending that, in view of the wide definition of ‘lessee’ in s 140b of the 1984 Act, there was no ground for excluding an underlessee from the expression ‘lessee’ in s 138(7) of that Act, with the result that the plaintiff’s right to relief was barred by s 138(7) as it had not paid the costs of the action within the period specified in the order for possession.
Held – On the true construction of s 138(2), (5) and (7) of the 1984 Act a ‘lessee’, which by virtue of s 140 included an underlessee, also included a mortgagee. It followed that s 138(2) and (5) of the 1984 Act enabled automatic relief against forfeiture to be granted on payment by an underlessee or a mortgagee of arrears of rent and costs, even where the lessor had brought the action against the head lessee. Conversely an underlessee or mortgagee who failed to avail himself of the procedure for automatic relief provided for by s 138(2) and (5) within the specified time was ‘barred from all relief’ by virtue of s 138(7), subject only to his right to apply for relief under s 138(9A) and (9C) within the specified six-month period. The fact that s 138(9C) made specific reference to ‘a person with an interest under a lease … derived … from the lessee’s interest’ did not affect the inclusion of an underlessee or a mortgagee in references to ‘the lessee’ in s 138(9A) and (9C) since relief against forfeiture under those subsections was discretionary and not automatic as under s 138(2) and (5). Since the plaintiff had not applied for relief within six months under s 138(9A) and was a ‘lessee’ for the purposes of s 138(7), it was barred from all relief pursuant to the latter subsection. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 316 a to c g, p 317 h to p 318 b g h, p 319 a to f h j and p 320 a b e f, post).
Doe d Wyatt v Byron (1845) 1 CB 623 applied.
Decision of David Neuberger QC [1993] 3 All ER 301 reversed.
Notes
For relief from forfeiture for non-payment of rent, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 442–443, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 174–185, 10178–10263.
For the County Courts Act 1984, ss 138, 140, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1991 reissue) 702, 705.
Cases referred to in judgments
Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 676, [1986] Ch 150, [1985] 3 WLR 207, CA.
Doe d Wyatt v Byron (1845) 1 CB 623, 135 ER 685.
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Grand Junction Co Ltd v Bates [1954] 2 All ER 385, [1954] 2 QB 160, [1954] 3 WLR 45.
Matthews v Dobbins [1963] 1 All ER 417, [1963] 1 WLR 227, CA.
Cases also cited
Abbey National Building Society v Maybeech Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 262, [1985] Ch 190.
Belgravia Insurance Co Ltd v Meah [1963] 3 All ER 828, [1964] 1 QB 436, CA.
Billson v Residential Apartments Ltd [1991] 3 All ER 265, [1992] 1 AC 494, CA; rvsd [1992] 1 All ER 141, [1992] 1 AC 494, HL.
Bowser v Colby (1841) 1 Hare 109, [1835–42] All ER Rep 478, 66 ER 969, V-C.
Comrs of Works v Hull [1922] 1 KB 205, [1921] All ER Rep 508.
Doe d Whitfield v Roe (1811) 3 Taunt 402, 128 ER 160.
Doe d Forster v Wandlass (1797) 7 Term Rep 117, 101 ER 885.
Egerton v Jones [1939] 3 All ER 889, [1939] 2 KB 702, CA.
Farrell v Alexander [1976] 2 All ER 721, [1977] AC 59, HL.
Gill v Lewis [1956] 1 All ER 844, [1956] 2 QB 1, CA.
Gray v Bonsall [1904] 1 KB 601, CA.
Hare v Elms [1893] 1 QB 604, DC.
Humphreys v Morten [1905] 1 Ch 739.
Ladup Ltd v Williams & Glyn’s Bank plc [1985] 2 All ER 577, [1985] 1 WLR 851.
Moore v Smee and Cornish [1907] 2 KB 8, CA.
Newbolt v Bingham (1895) 72 LT 852, CA.
Official Custodian for Charities v Parway Estates Development Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 679, [1985] Ch 151, CA.
Roe d West v Davis (1806) 7 East 363, 103 ER 140.
Shiloh Spinners Ltd v Harding [1973] 1 All ER 90, [1973] AC 691, HL.
Standard Pattern Co Ltd v Ivey [1962] 1 All ER 452, [1962] Ch 432.
Appeal
The defendant, Shellpoint Trustees Ltd, appealed with the leave of the judge from the decision of David Neuberger QC sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Chancery Division on 19 June 1992 ([1993] 3 All ER 301) dismissing its appeal from the decision of Master Barrett on 18 October 1991 dismissing its summons dated 10 September 1991 to strike out the application by the plaintiff, United Dominions Trust Ltd, by summons dated 25 February 1991 claiming as against the defendant relief from forfeiture of the lease of a flat at 22 West Kensington Court, West Cromwell Road, London W14, which Newcom Ltd as the lessor and defendant’s predecessor in title had repossessed from the tenant, Ali Karimi-Nick, who had mortgaged his estate and interest to the plaintiff. The defendant’s summons was treated as an application to determine a preliminary issue whether the court had jurisdiction to entertain the plaintiff’s application for relief from forfeiture. The facts are set out in the judgment of Nourse LJ.
Michael Daiches (instructed by Binks Stern) for the appellant.
Simon Berry QC and Andrew Goodman (instructed by Hill Bailey, Bromley) for the respondent.
NOURSE LJ. The first question arising on this appeal is whether the right of a mortgagee of a lease to claim relief against forfeiture has been barred by s 138(7) of the County Courts Act 1984.
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The lease, which was made on 2 December 1983, was a headlease of a flat, 22 West Kensington Court, West Cromwell Road, London W14, for a term of 99
years less 28 days from 24 June 1978 at a low rent. It contained provisions for service charges to be payable and recoverable as rent and a proviso for re-entry on non-payment thereof. On 17 July 1987 the lease was assigned to Mr Ali Karimi-Nick for a substantial premium, of which £61,000 was advanced by the plaintiff, United Dominions Trust Ltd, on a first legal charge of the lease. Thereafter Mr Karimi-Nick was registered at HM Land Registry as proprietor of the lease and the plaintiff was registered as the first chargee.
Mr Karimi-Nick fell into arrear with payments of service charges and on 3 February 1988 the lessor issued proceedings in the West London County Court against him. On 17 March 1988 the lessor obtained judgment for the recovery against the defendant of possession of the flat and the sum of £2,146·92 for arrears of service charges, together with costs on scale 2. The defendant was ordered to pay the amount of the arrears into court by 14 April 1988 and the amount of the costs within 14 days of taxation. The order then provided that unless payment of the said sums was made by the said dates Mr Karimi-Nick should thereupon give possession of the flat to the lessor. On 13 April Mr Karimi-Nick duly paid the amount of the arrears. On 28 June 1988 he was given formal notice that the costs had been taxed in the sum of £362·15, which amount was payable into court within 14 days, but no such payment was made. Thereafter it appears that there were negotiations between the lessor and Mr Karimi-Nick which proved unsuccessful. Eventually, on 20 February 1990, the judgment for possession was executed and the flat re-entered. Meanwhile, on 18 May 1988, the freehold reversion to the lease had been acquired from the lessor by the defendant, Shellpoint Trustees Ltd.
Pursuant to CCR Ord 6, r 3(1)(f) the particulars of claim in the lessor’s action against Mr Karimi-Nick duly stated the name and address of the plaintiff as being a person who was entitled to claim relief against forfeiture. The plaintiff knew of the proceedings and of the judgment for possession and it entered into correspondence both with solicitors acting for Mr Karimi-Nick and with solicitors acting for the defendant. However, it did not protect itself by applying to be joined in the proceedings and it did not become aware that the judgment had been executed until December 1990. On 25 February 1991, rather more than a year after execution had taken place, the plaintiff commenced these proceedings by issuing an originating summons in the Chancery Division claiming relief against forfeiture.
The application came on before Mr David Neuberger QC, sitting as a deputy judge of the High Court in the Chancery Division, when both parties agreed that he should determine as a preliminary issue the question whether the court had jurisdiction to grant the plaintiff the relief sought by the originating summons. He decided that it did (see [1993] 3 All ER 301) and, with his leave, the defendant now appeals to this court.
Before the judge the defendant’s case was that the plaintiff’s right to claim relief was barred by s 138(7) of the County Courts Act 1984 or, alternatively, by s 210 of the Common Law Procedure Act 1852. By reason of the decision of this court in Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 676, [1986] Ch 150 it is now accepted by the plaintiff that if the case falls within s 138(7) its right to relief is barred not only in the county court but also in the High Court, in which event it is unnecessary to go on and consider the effect of s 210. Having
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therefore started by hearing argument on s 138(7) alone, we now give judgment on that question.
Following the decision in Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd s 138 of the County Courts Act 1984 was amended by s 55 of the Administration of Justice Act 1985, which came into force on 1 October 1986. The marginal note to the section reads ‘Provisions as to forfeiture for non-payment of rent’. The following subsections of the amended section are directly material to the question we have to decide. Subsections (1), (2) and (3) of s 138 as amended provide:
‘(1) This section has effect where a lessor is proceeding by action in a county court (being an action in which the county court has jurisdiction) to enforce against a lessee a right of re-entry or forfeiture in respect of any land for non-payment of rent.
(2) If the lessee pays into court not less than 5 clear days before the return day all the rent in arrear and the costs of the action, the action shall cease, and the lessee shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease.
(3) If—(a) the action does not cease under subsection (2); and (b) the court at the trial is satisfied that the lessor is entitled to enforce the right of re-entry or forfeiture, the court shall order possession of the land to be given to the lessor at the expiration of such period, not being less than 4 weeks from the date of the order, as the court thinks fit, unless within that period the lessee pays into court all the rent in arrear and the costs of the action …’
Subsection (4) gives the court power to extend the period specified under sub-s (3) at any time before possession of the land is recovered in pursuance of the order under that subsection. Subsection (5) provides:
‘If—(a) within the period specified in the order; or (b) within that period as extended under subsection (4), the lessee pays into court—(i) all the rent in arrear; and (ii) the costs of the action, he shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease.’
Subsection (6) is immaterial. Subsection (7) provides:
‘If the lessee does not—(a) within the period specified in the order; or (b) within that period as extended under subsection (4), pay into court—(i) all the rent in arrear; and (ii) the costs of the action, the order shall be enforceable in the prescribed manner and so long as the order remains unreversed the lessee shall, subject to subsections (8) and (9A), be barred from all relief.’
Subsections (8) and (9) are immaterial. Subsections (9A), (9B), (9C) and (10) provide:
‘(9A) Where the lessor recovers possession of the land at any time after the making of the order under subsection (3) (whether as a result of the enforcement of the order or otherwise) the lessee may, at any time within six months from the date on which the lessor recovers possession, apply to the court for relief; and on any such application the court may, if it thinks fit, grant to the lessee such relief, subject to such terms and conditions, as it thinks fit.
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(9B) Where the lessee is granted relief on an application under subsection (9A) he shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease.
(9C) An application under subsection (9A) may be made by a person with an interest under a lease of the land derived (whether immediately or otherwise) from the lessee’s interest therein in like manner as if he were the lessee; and on any such application the court may make an order which (subject to such terms and conditions as the court thinks fit) vests the land in such a person, as lessee of the lessor, for the remainder of the term of the lease under which he has any such interest as aforesaid, or for any lesser term. In this subsection any reference to the land includes a reference to a part of the land.
(10) Nothing in this section or section 139 shall be taken to affect—(a) the power of the court to make any order which it would otherwise have power to make as respects a right of re-entry or forfeiture on any ground other than non-payment of rent; or (b) section 146(4) of the Law of Property Act 1925 (relief against forfeiture).’
Section 139 is immaterial. Section 140 defines, for the purposes of ss 138 and 139, the expressions ‘lease’, ‘lessee’, ‘lessor’, ‘under-lease’ and ‘under-lessee’. It is unnecessary to read the section in full. It is enough to say that ‘lease’ includes ‘(a) an original or derivative under-lease …’ and that ‘lessee’ includes ‘(a) an original or derivative under-lessee; (b) the persons deriving title under a lessee …' It is to be noted that there is no express provision in s 140 limiting the application of the definition to cases where the context so admits or requires.
It is common ground that a legal chargee of a lease is either a derivative underlessee or a person deriving title under a lessee within s 140: cf Grand Junction Co Ltd v Bates [1954] 2 All ER 385 at 388–389, [1954] 2 QB 160 at 168–169. For present purposes, except where it is necessary to distinguish between a legal chargee or mortgagee on the one hand and an underlessee by sub-demise on the other, it is convenient to refer to each of them as an underlessee and the lease under which he holds as an underlease.
I find it convenient to start by considering s 138 in its unamended form. That section provided a special code for forfeiture proceedings, but only for non-payment of rent and only in respect of property within the county court jurisdiction. It is important to note that in the cases where relief was afforded by the section no discretion was given to the court as to the terms on which it should be afforded. If the lessee made payment under either sub-s (2) or sub-s (5), the relief was automatic. Conversely, if the lessee did not make payment he was automatically barred from relief by sub-s (7).
The effect of the lessor’s commencement of proceedings against Mr Karimi-Nick was that the lessor, and later the defendant, was thereafter proceeding by action in a county court to enforce against Mr Karimi-Nick a right of re-entry or forfeiture within s 138(1). The stated result was to bring the section into effect. At one time I thought it a possible view of sub-s (1) that the lessor was also proceeding to enforce the right against the plaintiff, on the ground that a forfeiture of the lease would necessarily work a forfeiture of the plaintiff’s underlease. But on reflection I prefer the view that it is only against a party to the action that the lessor can be said to be proceeding for the purposes of sub-s (1).
I go next to sub-s (5), to which the argument in this court has mainly been directed, it being common ground that if the plaintiff, as ‘the lessee’, could have
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made payment under that subsection, it was likewise ‘the lessee’ for the purposes of sub-s (7). The submission of Mr Berry QC for the plaintiff as to sub-s (5) is that in a case like the present, where the action is brought by the
freeholder, the expression ‘the lessee’ cannot include an underlessee. That submission is based primarily on sub-s (10)(b), which provides that nothing in s 138 shall be taken to affect s 146(4) of the Law of Property Act 1925. Mr Berry says that it is s 146(4) of the 1925 Act which provides for relief against forfeiture in favour of an underlessee and that Parliament cannot have intended that he should have a parallel right to relief under s 138(5) of the 1984 Act.
The short answer to that submission is that the two provisions are not parallel. Relief under s 146(4) is discretionary, whereas relief under s 138(5) is automatic. Moreover, to my mind the words ‘Nothing in this section … shall be taken to affect’ suggest that Parliament was concerned, not to ensure that s 138(5) should not apply to underlessees, but rather to make it clear that nothing in s 137 was to replace or vary the effect of s 146(4).
There can be no doubt that once the wording of sub-s (5) has been subjected to close analysis it is seen to be far from ideal. Relying on the unrestricted definition contained in s 140, Mr Daiches, for the defendant, submits that there is no ground for excluding an underlessee from the expression ‘the lessee’, even where the action is brought by the freeholder. He says that once the underlessee has made the payment required by sub-s (5) it has the effect that it is stated to have. Here, as Mr Daiches himself acknowledges, comes the difficulty. The stated effect is that ‘he shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease’. The difficulty is that those words do not expressly restore the headlease. However, Mr Daiches submits that ‘he’ is the underlessee, that the lease according to which he shall hold, or rather continue to hold, the land is the underlease, and that he cannot continue so to hold it without the unconditional restoration of the headlease no less than the underlease. Thus the effect of sub-s (5) is to restore unconditionally all the leasehold interests in the property.
Mr Berry seeks to counter that argument by saying that, if sub-s (5) contemplates the case of a payment by the underlessee, then, by reason of the decision of this court in Matthews v Dobbins [1963] 1 All ER 417, [1963] 1 WLR 227, the payment is treated as a payment made by the head lessee. Thus ‘the lessee’ referred to is the head lessee and it is he who shall hold the land according to the headlease. This ingenious argument must also be rejected. I do not propose to say anything about Matthews v Dobbins, which was referred to at various stages in the argument, except that the assistance, if any, to be derived from it is in my opinion limited to the construction of sub-s (1), as to which I have taken the view that is favourable to the plaintiff. However, the real objection to Mr Berry’s submissions as to the construction of sub-s (5) is that, as Mr Daiches submits, there is simply no ground for excluding the underlessee from the wide definition of ‘the lessee’ in s 140. Moreover, Parliament’s adoption of the final words of sub-s (5) can be explained in a manner I shall now relate.
In my judgment, the key to the true construction of sub-s (5) lies in sub-s (2), as illuminated by a valuable argument based by Mr Daiches on the earlier legislation and the decision of the Court of Common Pleas in Doe d Wyatt v Byron (1845) 1 CB 623, 135 ER 685, a decision not cited below. In order that that argument may be more readily understood, it is necessary to observe that the stated effect of sub-s (2), which applies where ‘the lessee’ pays off the arrears of
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rent and costs not less than five clear days before the return day, is that ‘the action shall cease, and the lessee shall hold the land according to the lease
without any new lease’. Except for the additional provision for the cessation of the action, the stated effect is the same as that under sub-s (5).
Doe d Wyatt v Byron was a decision on s 4 of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1730, the material part of which was in these terms:
‘Provided always, and be it further enacted by the authority aforesaid, That if the tenant or tenants, his, her or their assignee or assignees, do or shall at any time before the trial in such ejectment, pay or tender to the lessor or landlord, his executors or administrators, or his, her or their attorney in that cause, or pay into the court where the same cause is depending, all the rent and arrears, together with the costs, then and in such case, all further proceedings on the said ejectment shall cease and be discontinued …’
The lessor of the plaintiff had demised premises to a lessee who, on becoming insolvent, transferred all his interest therein, except for the last two days of the term, to the defendants as trustees on behalf of themselves and his other creditors. The lessor of the plaintiff brought an action for ejectment against the defendants, who applied for a stay upon payment of the amount due for rent and costs under s 4 of the 1730 Act. The lessor of the plaintiff contended that that section applied only to tenants or their assignees, whereas the defendants, by virtue of the two days retained by the lessee, were underlessees. It was held that the defendants were entitled to a stay.
The basis of the decision was the wording of s 2 and also, in the view of Cresswell J, s 3 of the 1730 Act, which provided for forfeiture at law and for cases where application was made for relief in equity respectively. Each of those sections referred, not simply to tenants or assignees, but to ‘the lessee or lessees, his, her or their assignee or assignees, or other person or persons claiming or deriving title under the said lease’. Having compared those words with the words of s 4, Tindal CJ said (1 CB 623 at 630, 135 ER 685 at 688):
‘It seems to me that it would be singular to hold that a stricter and closer sense is to be given to the word “tenant” in section 4, which is dealing with the relief to be afforded to the lessee and those claiming under the lessee, than in section 2, which deprives of remedy both lessees and sub-lessees. It is further to be observed, that the fourth section does not, in terms, require the rent to be paid by the person from whom it is due: the requisites of the act would be as well answered by a payment by an intermediate party. I am therefore of opinion that the fourth section—which is a remedial one, and is to be construed accordingly—does comprehend persons circumstanced like these defendants, and consequently that this rule should be discharged.’
The judgments of Coltman and Cresswell JJ were to the same effect. Erle J based his agreement on a narrower ground. He thought that the word ‘tenant’ in s 4 of the 1730 Act was used in what he called the modern sense, meaning the person against whom the ejectment was brought.
In my opinion that decision ought properly to be treated as authority for the proposition that the automatic relief against forfeiture afforded by s 4 of the 1730 Act could be achieved on payment by an underlessee of the arrears of rent and costs, even in cases where the action was brought against the head lessee
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and the underlessee was not a party to it. It is true that there the action was brought against the underlessee and that the head lessee was not a party. But neither the wide words of s 4 nor the broad terms in which Tindal CJ expressed himself, from which Coltman and Cresswell JJ must be taken not to have dissented, suggest that the more restricted view favoured by Erle J was correct.
Doe d Wyatt v Byron is the bedrock of Mr Daiches’s argument on s 138(2) of the 1984 Act, which he submits is a provision with the same purpose and effect as s 4 of the 1730 Act. Thus he says that it does not matter that the plaintiff here is not ‘a lessee’ within s 138(1). The decision of the Court of Common Pleas, coupled with the wide effect of s 140, shows that the plaintiff could have been ‘the lessee’ within s 138(2) and could have paid off the arrears and costs accordingly. Mr Daiches takes further comfort from the final part of s 4 of the 1730 Act, to which reference has not yet been made. That part provides for a case where relief in equity has been obtained, in which event the person or persons relieved ‘shall have, hold and enjoy the demised lands, according to the lease thereof made, without any new lease to be thereof made to him, her or them’. Those words are similar to the final words of s 138(2) and (5).
Mr Daiches has also referred us to provisions in the county court legislation in order to establish the link between s 4 of the 1730 Act and s 138 of the 1984 Act. A limited jurisdiction in forfeiture proceedings for non-payment of rent was first given to the county court by s 52 of the County Courts Act 1856. That section contained a provision that if the tenant should five clear days before the return day of the summons pay into court all the rent in arrear and the costs, ‘the said Action shall cease’; in other words, a provision similar to s 138(2) of the 1984 Act, but without the words ‘and the lessee shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease.' Section 139 of the County Courts Act 1888 was to the same effect. But new, or perhaps I should say revived, wording was introduced by s 6 of the County Courts (Amendment) Act 1934, the preconsolidation Act which was followed by the County Courts Act of that year.
Section 6 of the 1934 amendment Act repealed s 139 of the 1888 Act and introduced the new provisions as to forfeiture for non-payment of rent contained in Sch 1. The provisions of para (a) and the first part of para (c) of para 1 of the schedule were to the same effect as those of s 138(2) and (5) respectively of the 1984 Act, that is to say they provided that the lessee ‘shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease’ with an additional provision for the cessation of the lease in para (a). Those provisions have remained in the same form ever since. Mr Daiches has submitted that the words ‘the lessee shall hold the land according to the lease without any new lease’ in s 138(2) are mere surplusage, because it has already been provided that the action shall cease. He accordingly submits that the purpose and effect of s 138(2) are exactly the same as those of the material parts of s 4 of the 1730 Act, s 52 of the 1856 Act and s 139 of the 1888 Act.
In my opinion, Mr Daiches’s argument on s 138(2) of the 1984 Act is correct and I accept it in its entirety. He was also prepared to advance a similar argument on s 138(5). But in my view, a view unshaken by Mr Berry’s later submissions, that was unnecessary. If the argument is sound as to sub-s (2), it must equally be sound as to sub-s (5). The only material difference in wording between the two subsections is the express provision for the cessation of the action in sub-s (2), which does not appear in sub-s (5). This difference appears to be explicable on the ground that sub-s (5) can only come into operation after
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an order for possession has been made under sub-s (3), at which point the action can fairly be described as having ceased.
I turn to a brief consideration of s 138 of the 1984 Act as amended by s 55 of the Administration of Justice Act 1985. Evidently, the amendments were made because the consequences of the decision in Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 676, [1986] Ch 150 were considered to be unduly harsh to lessees. They were broadly designed to equate the position in the county court under s 138 with the position in the High Court. Subsection (9A) accordingly enables ‘the lessee’ to apply for relief, at the discretion of the court, within six months from the date on which the lessor recovers possession after the making of an order under sub-s (3). The effect of relief being granted is then expressed by sub-s (9B) in terms similar to those of sub-s (5). If the amendments had ended there, it could not have been doubted, on the basis of the views already expressed, that ‘the lessee’ in sub-ss (9A) and (9B) had the same meaning as it has in sub-ss (2), (5) and (7). However, the presence of sub-s (9C), with its specific reference to a person with an interest under a lease derived from the lessee’s interest, has given Mr Berry an additional ground for arguing that the views already expressed are incorrect. He submits that, if they were correct, the derivative underlessee would already have been included in sub-s (9A), thus making sub-s (9C) otiose.
Mr Daiches’s answer to this submission is that the relief available under sub-ss (9A) and (9C) is discretionary and not automatic. It was therefore perfectly natural that the same distinction should be made in regard to the form of relief to be granted to head lessees and underlessees respectively as is made by s 146 of the Law of Property Act 1925, sub-s (9C) being the equivalent of s 146(4) in the case of underlessees. I agree with Mr Daiches. But it can also be said, and with greater force, that, in re-enacting s 138 in its amended form, Parliament could not have intended to produce such major changes in the existing effect of the section without clear words.
For these reasons, I have come to a clear conclusion that the plaintiff was a ‘lessee’ within sub-ss (2), (5) and (7) of s 138 of the County Courts Act 1984 as amended, and that, since it did not make an application under sub-s (9C) within the six months period limited by sub-s (9A), it is now, by virtue of sub-s (7) and the decision in Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd, barred from all relief, including relief in the High Court. On that footing it is unnecessary to go on and consider s 210 of the Common Law Procedure Act 1852.
The decision of the learned deputy judge in the court below as to the effect of s 138(7) of the 1984 Act was based essentially on his view that, despite the wide definition of ‘lessee’ in s 140, the reference to ‘the lessee’ in s 138(5) must be a reference to the tenant who holds under the lease, in other words that before a person can be ‘the lessee’ within sub-s (5) there must be privity of contract or estate between him and the lessor who is proceeding by action within sub-s (1). In disagreeing with that view, I wish to emphasise that it seems very doubtful whether the judge had the benefit of an argument on sub-s (5) as detailed and conscientious as that advanced to us by Mr Daiches, who did not appear below.
I would allow the defendant’s appeal, answer the preliminary issue in the negative and dismiss the plaintiff’s application for relief against forfeiture accordingly.
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BUTLER-SLOSS LJ. I agree with the judgment of Nourse LJ and that this appeal should be allowed.
SIR CHRISTOPHER SLADE. I also agree and will add a few words of my own only because we are differing from the deputy judge, who has great experience in landlord and tenant matters. In my judgment I will use the expression ‘underlessee’ in the same sense as that in which Nourse LJ has used it, that is to say as including a legal chargee of a lease such as the plaintiff in the present case.
I have not found this point an easy one, but for the reasons given by Nourse LJ I too have come to the conclusion that, in a case where a lessor is proceeding by a county court action to enforce against a head lessee a right of re-entry or forfeiture for non-payment of rent, it must be open to an underlessee of that head lessee, even though not a party to the proceedings, to avail himself of the procedure for obtaining automatic relief provided for by s 138(2) of the County Courts Act 1984, that is to say by paying into court not less than five clear days before the return day all the rent in arrear and the costs of the action. The wide and unqualified definition of ‘lessee’ in s 140 of the 1984 Act, in my judgment, necessitates this construction of s 138(2), which is supported by reference to the earlier legislation and the decision in Doe d Wyatt v Byron (1845) 1 CB 623, 135 ER 685.
The decision of this court in Matthews v Dobbins [1963] 1 All ER 417, [1963] 1 WLR 227, which concerned s 191 of the County Courts Act 1959, the precursor of s 138 of the 1984 Act, does not preclude such a construction if only because the court in that case was at pains to point out that there was no evidence that the persons who made the payment into court were underlessees of the lessee defendant (see [1963] 1 All ER 417 at 418–419, [1963] 1 WLR 227 at 229–230 per Ormerod and Pearson LJJ).
Once it is accepted that in the case postulated at the start of my judgment the underlessee qualifies as a ‘lessee’ for the purpose of obtaining the automatic relief provided for by s 138(2), two conclusions must, in my judgment, inevitably follow. First, the underlessee likewise qualifies as a ‘lessee’ for the purpose of obtaining the automatic relief provided for by s 138(5). Secondly, the underlessee who fails to avail himself of the procedure for automatic relief provided for by s 138(2) and (5) within the specified time is, by virtue of s 138(7), ‘barred from all relief’, subject only to his right to apply for relief under sub-ss (9A) and (9C) within the specified six-month period. And, in view of the decision of this court in Di Palma v Victoria Square Property Co Ltd [1985] 2 All ER 676, [1986] Ch 150, ‘barred from all relief’ means barred from all relief either in the county court or the High Court.
For these reasons, very shortly stated, and the reasons given more fully by Nourse LJ, with whose judgment I am in entire agreement, I too would allow this appeal and concur in the form of order which he proposes.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Frances Rustin Barrister.
Knowles v Liverpool City Council
[1993] 4 All ER 321
Categories: TORTS; Tortious Liability
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD KEITH OF KINKEL, LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 15 JULY, 14 OCTOBER 1993
Employment – Liability of employer – Defective equipment – Flagstone – Flagstone provided by employer for purposes of their business of repairing and relaying pavement – Employee injured when flagstone breaking causing him to drop it – Whether employer liable for employee’s injury – Whether flagstone ‘equipment’ provided by employer for purposes of its business – Employers’ Liability (Defective Equipment) Act 1969, s 1(1).
The respondent, who was employed by the appellant council as a labourer flagger, injured his finger when a flagstone he was manhandling broke, causing him to drop it. The flagstone broke because of a defect in its manufacture which could not reasonably have been discovered before the accident. The respondent brought an action against the appellants claiming damages on the ground, inter alia, that they were liable for his injury by virtue of s 1(1)a of the Employers’ Liability (Defective Equipment) Act 1969 which provided that where an employee was injured in the course of his employment in consequence of a defect in ‘equipment’ provided by his employer for the purposes of the employer’s business and the defect was attributable wholly or partly to the fault of a third party (whether identified or not) the injury was deemed to be attributable to negligence on the part of the employer, who was consequently liable for personal injury suffered by the employee. The trial judge held that the flagstone was ‘equipment’ for the purposes of s 1(1) of the 1969 Act and that the appellants were liable for its being defective. On appeal by the appellants, the Court of Appeal upheld the judge’s decision. The appellants appealed to the House of Lords, contending that material used in manufacture was not ‘equipment’ for the purposes of s 1(1) since ‘equipment’ referred to ‘plant’, which comprehended such things as tools and machinery required for the performance of a particular task, and did not include stock-in-trade, which covered articles produced by the use of plant and machinery or material used in manufacture.
Held – Applying the principle that s 1(1) of the 1969 Act was to be widely construed so as to embrace every article of whatever kind furnished by the employer for the purposes of his business and not merely for the use of his employees, the flagstone which broke and injured the respondent was ‘equipment’ for the purposes of the 1969 Act. It followed that the appeal would be dismissed (see p 322 g h, p 325 b c, p 326 c e j and p 327 b c d to g, post).
Dictum of Lord Oliver in Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd, The Derbyshire [1987] 3 All ER 1068 at 1073 applied.
Ralston v Greater Glasgow Health Board 1987 SLT 386 approved.
Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd [1959] 1 All ER 346 considered.
Per curiam. A piece of defective equipment which causes injury to a workman falls within the ambit of s 1(1) of the 1969 Act even though the
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workman was neither required to use nor had in fact used it (see p 323 g h, 326 j and p 327 f g, post).
Notes
For employers’ liability for defective equipment, see 16 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 30, and for cases on the subject, see 20 Digest (Reissue) 490–494, 511–514, 3844–3864, 3965–3991.
For the Employers’ Liability (Defective Equipment) Act 1969, s 1, see 16 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1990 reissue) 69.
Cases referred to in opinions
Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd, The Derbyshire [1987] 3 All ER 1068, [1988] AC 276, [1987] 3 WLR 1181, HL.
Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd [1959] 1 All ER 346, [1959] AC 604, [1959] 2 WLR 331, HL.
Haigh v Charles W Ireland Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 1137, [1974] 1 WLR 43, HL.
Ralston v Greater Glasgow Health Board 1987 SLT 386, Ct of Sess.
Smith v Charles Baker & Sons [1891] AC 325, [1891–4] All ER Rep 69, HL.
Appeal
Liverpool City Council appealed, with the leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 11 February 1993, from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Purchas LJ and Booth J) on 29 June 1992 dismissing its appeal from the order of Mr Recorder Briggs sitting in the Liverpool County Court on 20 May 1991 giving judgment for the respondent, Raymond Knowles, on his claim for damages for personal injury suffered whilst he was employed by the appellants as a labourer. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Jauncey.
William Braithwaite QC and Tania Griffiths (instructed by Paul F Taylor, Liverpool) for the appellants.
Brian Leveson QC and John Benson (instructed by Brian Thompson & Partners, Liverpool) for the respondent.
14 October 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD KEITH OF KINKEL. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle, which I have read in draft and with which I agree, I would dismiss this appeal.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD JAUNCEY OF TULLICHETTLE. My Lords, this appeal relates to the construction of s 1 of the Employers’ Liability (Defective Equipment) Act 1969. The facts are simple. The respondent was employed by the appellants as a labourer flagger repairing a pavement in a Liverpool street. While he was manhandling a flagstone into the shovel of a JCB excavator the corner of the flagstone broke off causing the stone to drop with consequent injury to the respondent’s finger. The breakage occurred because the manufacturers, who
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were not the appellants, had failed to cure it properly. This defect could not reasonably have been discovered before the accident.
Section 1 of the 1969 Act provides, inter alia:
‘(1) Where after the commencement of this Act—(a) an employee suffers personal injury in the course of his employment in consequence of a defect in equipment provided by his employer for the purposes of the employer’s business; and (b) the defect is attributable wholly or partly to the fault of a third party (whether identified or not), the injury shall be deemed to be also attributable to negligence on the part of the employer (whether or not he is liable in respect of the injury apart from this subsection), but without prejudice to the law relating to contributory negligence and to any remedy by way of contribution or in contract or otherwise which is available to the employer in respect of the injury ...
(3) In this section—“business” includes the activities carried on by any public body; “employee” means a person who is employed by another person under a contract of service or apprenticeship and is so employed for the purposes of a business carried on by that other person, and “employer” shall be construed accordingly; “equipment” includes any plant and machinery, vehicle, aircraft and clothing; “fault” means negligence, breach of statutory duty or other act or omission which gives rise to liability in tort in England and Wales or which is wrongful and gives rise to liability in damages in Scotland; and “personal injury” includes loss of life, any impairment of a person’s physical or mental condition and any disease.’
The respondent raised an action against the appellants claiming damages on the ground, inter alia, that they were liable for his injury by virtue of s 1(1) of the 1969 Act. The recorder of Liverpool upheld the respondent’s statutory claim holding that the flagstone was equipment for the purposes of the subsection and was defective. The Court of Appeal took the same view in dismissing the appellants’ appeal.
Before this House Mr Braithwaite QC for the appellants sought to draw a distinction between ‘plant’ on the one hand, which comprehended such things as tools and machinery required for the performance of a particular task, and ‘stock-in-trade’ on the other, which covered articles produced by the use of plant and machinery. Equipment fell firmly on the side of plant. He argued further that material was to be distinguished from equipment and was therefore excluded from the latter. He sought to obtain support for these propositions from certain dicta in three cases in this House, Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd [1959] 1 All ER 346, [1959] AC 604, Haigh v Charles W Ireland Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 1137, [1974] 1 WLR 43 and Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd, The Derbyshire [1987] 3 All ER 1068, [1988] AC 276, together with a consideration of certain provisions in primary and secondary legislation.
It is common ground that the 1969 Act was passed as a result of the decision in Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd. In that case, a workman sustained injury as a result of his use of a defective tool supplied to him by his employers. The tool had been negligently manufactured by reputable manufacturers and no reasonable inspection by the employers would have disclosed the latent defect. The workman’s claim that the employers were negligent in supplying him with a defective tool failed on the ground that they had discharged their duty to take reasonable care to provide a reasonably safe tool by buying from a reputable source a tool whose latent defect they had no means of discovering. It followed
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from this decision that a workman who was injured by a defect in an article provided by his employer might in certain circumstances find himself with a remedy which was enforceable only, if at all, against a manufacturer of whom, to use the words of Viscount Simonds in Davie v New Board Mills Ltd [1959] 1 All ER 346 at 351, [1959] AC 604 at 620–621, even the employer might ‘never have heard and from whom he may be divided in time and space by decades and continents’. Parliament clearly considered this to be an unsatisfactory situation and passed the 1969 Act whose purpose is set out in the long title as follows:
‘An Act to make further provision with respect to the liability of an employer for injury to his employee which is attributable to any defect in equipment provided by the employer for the purposes of the employer’s business; and for purposes connected with the matter aforesaid.’
Mr Braithwaite argued that this House in Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd was only dealing with a tool or appliance, that the decision did not turn on the distinction which he sought to draw between tools and appliances on the one hand and stock-in-trade on the other and that the 1969 Act should be construed against this limited background. It is true that the article in question in Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd was a tool but it is quite wrong to suppose that their Lordships would have applied different principles had the cause of injury been part of an article which was being incorporated in manufacture, rather than a tool used in the manufacture thereof. The duty to take reasonable care to provide a safe tool is only one facet of an employer’s general duty to take reasonable care for the safety of his workmen. This common law duty extends just as much to material used in manufacture as to tools and appliances necessary to enable such material to be so used. Although there are passages in the speeches in Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd which relate the employer’s duty solely to tools and appliances, that is because it was a defective tool which was the cause of injury and there are other passages which demonstrate that no such restriction exists in principle. Lord Morton of Henryton said ([1959] 1 All ER 346 at 356, [1959] AC 604 at 628):
‘At common law a master owes a general duty to his servants to take reasonable care for their safety. The duty, so far as it relates to the providing of appliances for the use of the servants, was defined by LORD HERSCHELL, in terms which have often been quoted, in Smith v. Charles Baker & Sons ([1891] AC 325 at 362, [1891–4] All ER Rep 69 at 88): “... the duty of taking reasonable care to provide proper appliances, and to maintain them in a proper condition ...”’
Lord Reid said ([1959] 1 All ER 346 at 367–368, [1959] AC 604 at 646):
‘On the other hand, for the reasons which I have given, I am of opinion that [the employer] is not liable for the negligence of the manufacturer of an article which he has bought, provided that he has been careful to deal with a seller of repute and has made any inspection which a reasonable employer would make.’
Here, Lord Reid has chosen to use the general word ‘article’ rather than the more limited word ‘plant’ which he had previously used. Finally, Lord Keith of Avonhom said ([1959] 1 All ER 346 at 372, [1959] AC 604 at 653):
‘The duty of a master in supplying a servant with plant or material cannot, in my opinion, be placed higher than a duty to exercise reasonable
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care to see that the plant or material is safe for the purpose for which it is intended, and he cannot be liable, except in a proper case of delegated performance, for the negligence of someone other than himself in the provision of that plant or material.’
Given that the 1969 Act was passed to afford to the workmen a remedy which might be denied to him at common law by treating the employer as though he were vicariously liable for the defect in the tool, why should Parliament have restricted the scope of that remedy to tools and plant omitting what Mr Braithwaite described as stock-in-trade but what might more appropriately be described as other articles or material used by the employer in his business? To this question I have been unable to find a logical answer.
In Haigh v Charles W Ireland Ltd [1973] 3 All ER 1137, [1974] 1 WLR 43 this House held that the word ‘plant’ in s 31(4) of the Factories Act 1961 did not cover an article which was on factory premises for the purposes of being subjected to an industrial process. Lord Diplock in relation to the meaning to be ascribed to the word ‘plant’ said ([1973] 3 All ER 1137 at 1148, [1974] 1 WLR 43 at 55–56):
‘It is a definition of a physical object by reference to the use to which it is being put. Where, as in the Factories Act 1961, all references to “plant” are to plant within a factory in which an industrial process is carried on, the only relevant use, in my opinion, is that to which the physical object is being put in that factory. If it is there as part of the apparatus for use in carrying on the industrial process undertaken on those premises, it is “plant” within the meaning of the Act even though it may be temporarily out of use or in the course of installation, repair or removal. If it is there for the purpose of being subjected to that industrial process it is an “article” as that term is used in the definition in s 175 to describe the physical objects on which are carried out those industrial processes which qualify the premises where they are undertaken as a “factory” within the meaning of the Act; it is not “plant”, whatever may be the use to which it has been previously put or may be subsequently put elsewhere.’
This dictum of Lord Diplock, it was argued, pointed towards the narrow definition for the word ‘equipment’ in s 1(3) of the 1969 Act contended for by the appellant. I cannot agree. I do not find it helpful to look at the same words occurring in other statutes passed for different purposes as an aid to the construction of those words in this Act whose purpose is very clear.
Finally, in Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd [1987] 3 All ER 1068, [1988] AC 276 it was held that a large ship which sank due to defects in construction and design was ‘equipment provided by his employer for the purposes of the employer’s business’ within the meaning of s 1(1)(a) of the 1969 Act. Three principal arguments were advanced by the defendants in that case, namely: (1) that the use of the word ‘equipment’ in juxtaposition with the word ‘provided’ imported the use of something such as a tool provided to the employee for use in his work; (2) that ‘equipment’ was to be distinguished from the factory or workplace in which tools or machinery are provided and that a large ship was akin to a workplace; and (most importantly); (3) that the inclusion of the words ‘vehicle’ and ‘aircraft’ without reference to ship demonstrated a conscious intention on the part of Parliament that ships should be excluded. Mr Braithwaite argued that in rejecting these three arguments this House did not require to address the issue in this appeal.
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My Lords, in my view a number of observations of Lord Oliver of Aylmerton who delivered the leading speech in Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd are entirely apposite to this appeal. Lord Oliver, after referring to the purpose of the 1969 Act, expressed the view that if sub-s (1) had stood alone and without such assistance as was provided by sub-s (3) he would have had no difficulty in concluding that in the context of the 1969 Act a ship was part of the ‘equipment’ of the business of a ship owner (see [1987] 3 All ER 1068 at 1071, [1988] AC 276 at 296). He concluded that the definition in sub-s (3) had been inserted not for the purpose of enlarging the word ‘equipment’ by including in it articles which would not otherwise fall within it in its ordinary signification but rather for clarification and avoidance of doubt (see [1987] 3 All ER 1068 at 1072, [1988] AC 276 at 298). With reference to sub-s (3), he said ([1987] 3 All ER 1068 at 1073, [1988] AC 276 at 299):
‘The key word in the definition is the word “any” and it underlines, in my judgment, what I would in any event have supposed to be the case, having regard to the purpose of the Act, that is to say that it should be widely construed so as to embrace every article of whatever kind furnished by the employer for the purposes of his business.’
The latter observation, if applicable, is undoubtedly wide enough to cover the flagstone provided by the appellants in the present case.
My Lords, there is nothing in Lord Oliver’s speech to suggest that these observations were restricted to cases involving ships or any other particular article. The observations were quite general and I have no doubt that they are just as applicable to this case as they were to the ship in Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd. That being so, the flagstone which broke and injured the respondent was ‘equipment’ for the purposes of the 1969 Act.
Mr Braithwaite, very properly, drew your Lordships’ attention to a case in the Outer House of the Court of Session, Ralston v Greater Glasgow Health Board 1987 SLT 386, in which Lord Kincraig rejected an argument that ‘equipment’ did not cover materials used by cleaners in the cleaning process but applied only to instruments or appliances used in the process. He said (at 387):
‘I see no reason to give a restricted construction to the word “equipment”. In my judgment it includes materials provided for use in the cleaning operation. It was plainly one of the items of equipment provided to the pursuers for the necessary purpose of cleaning the mop heads.’
It does not appear that this case was cited in argument in Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd but the decision accords entirely with the reasoning of Lord Oliver. I am satisfied that the case was correctly decided. Mr Braithwaite referred to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 and to various regulations made under that Act and under the Factories Act in which the words ‘plant or equipment’, ‘article’, ‘material’ and ‘appliances’ were used as demonstrating that where Parliament intended to cover articles or material this was done by the use of specific words. Once again, I do not find that these provisions made for different purposes are of any assistance in construing the 1969 Act.
My Lords, I have no hesitation in concluding that the word ‘equipment’ in s 1(1)(a) is habile to cover the flagstone in this appeal. In the first place, the requirement of the subsection is that the equipment is provided ‘for the purposes of the employer’s business’ and not merely for the use of the employee. Thus a piece of defective equipment which causes injury to a
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workman would fall within the ambit of the subsection even although the workman was neither required to use nor had in fact used it. Whatever the meaning of ‘equipment’ this would go further than the circumstances in Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd [1959] 1 All ER 346, [1959] AC 604, where the defective tool had been provided to the workman for the purposes of his job. In this case, the flagstone had undoubtedly been provided by the appellants for the purposes of their business of repairing and relaying the pavement. In the second place, there can be no logical reason why Parliament having recognised the difficulties facing workmen, as demonstrated by Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd, should have removed those difficulties in part rather than in whole. Indeed, partial removal, as contended for by the appellants, could produce bizarre results. To give one example which I put in argument to counsel, a pump manufacturer buys in tools required for assembling the pumps as well as some components including the bolts for holding together the two parts of the housing. Workman A is tightening a bolt which sheers and injures his eye. Workman B is tightening a similar bolt but his spanner snaps causing him a similar injury. If the appellants are right, workman B could proceed under s 1(1) of the 1969 Act, but workman A would have no remedy thereunder. My Lords, I cannot believe that Parliament can have intended the Act to produce results such as these. In my view, the only reasonable conclusion is that Parliament intended the 1969 Act to provide a remedy in the situations where an employer had provided for the purpose of his business an article which was defective and caused injury to a workman but where he was for the reasons set out in Davie v New Merton Board Mills Ltd not in breach of a common law duty of care owed to that workman. In the third place, I consider that the conclusion which I have reached accords with the reasoning of Lord Oliver in Coltman v Bibby Tankers Ltd [1987] 3 All ER 1068, [1988] AC 276.
For the foregoing reasons I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle, I too would dismiss the appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle, which I have had the opportunity of reading in draft and with which I agree, I would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Alexandrou v Oxford
[1993] 4 All ER 328
Categories: TORTS; Negligence: CRIMINAL; Police
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SLADE, PARKER AND GLIDEWELL LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 25, 26 JANUARY, 16 FEBRUARY 1990
Police – Negligence – Duty to take care – Negligence in investigation of crime – Persons to whom duty owed – Victim of crime – Entry by burglars to shop activating alarm call to police station – Police officer failing properly to inspect premises – Whether police owing duty of care to occupier of premises – Whether special relationship existing between police and occupier of premises giving rise to duty of care – Whether occupier having cause of action in negligence against police.
The plaintiff’s clothing shop was burgled on a Sunday evening. The burglars’ entry activated the shop’s exterior and interior burglar alarms and also a recorded telephone message to the local police station stating that the alarm had been activated. Two police officers promptly attended the scene, but failed to inspect the rear of the shop where the burglars had forced entry. Some hours later a substantial quantity of goods was removed from the shop. The plaintiff sued the chief constable for the value of the goods stolen, alleging that the police had been negligent by, inter alia, failing to take adequate precautions to discover why the alarm had been activated and in assuming that it was a false alarm. At the trial of the action the judge found that the theft would have been prevented if the police officers had properly inspected the rear of the premises and that the police had thereby been in breach of a duty of care owed to the plaintiff. The chief constable appealed.
Held – A plaintiff alleging that a defendant owed a duty to take reasonable care to prevent loss to him caused by the activities of another person had to prove not merely that it was foreseeable that loss would result if the defendant did not exercise reasonable care but also that he stood in a special relationship to the defendant from which the duty of care would arise. On the facts, there was no such special relationship between the plaintiff and the police because the communication with the police was by way of an emergency call which in no material way differed from such a call by any ordinary member of the public and if a duty of care owed to the plaintiff were to be imposed on the police that same duty would be owed to all members of the public who informed the police of a crime being committed or about to be committed against them or their property. Furthermore, it would not be in the public interest to impose such a duty of care on the police as it would not promote the observance of a higher standard of care by the police, but would result in a significant diversion of resources from the suppression of crime. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see p 334 e f, p 338 g to j, p 340 j to p 341 a g h, p 342 j to p 343 a h and p 344 a to d, post ).
Dictum of Lord Wilberforce in McLoughlin v O’Brian [1982] 2 All ER 298 at 303 and Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 applied.
Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294 distinguished.
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Notes
For the nature of negligence and the duty to take care generally, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1–5, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 7–64, 1–325.
Cases referred to in judgments
Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53, [1988] 2 WLR 1049, HL; affg [1987] 1 All ER 1173, [1988] QB 60, [1987] 2 WLR 1126, CA.
Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004, [1970] 2 WLR 1140, HL.
McLoughlin v O’Brian [1982] 2 All ER 298, [1983] 1 AC 410, [1982] 2 WLR 982, HL.
Peabody Donation Fund (Governors ) v Sir Lindsay Parkinson & Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 529, [1985] AC 210, [1984] 3 WLR 953, HL.
Rondel v Worsley [1967] 3 All ER 993, [1969] 1 AC 191, [1967] 3 WLR 1666, HL.
Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175, [1987] 3 WLR 776, PC.
Appeal
Kenneth Gordon Oxford, the Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police, appealed from the decision of Hodgson J in the Queen’s Bench Division at Liverpool given on 17 February 1989 giving judgment in the sum of £7,500 in favour of the plaintiff, Socrates Alexandrou, in respect of his claim for damages for negligence of the chief constable, his servants or agents, in that, inter alia, by their failure to attend the plaintiff’s premises with reasonable expedition after the activation of a burglar alarm they failed to prevent the theft of the plaintiff’s goods at the premises. The facts are set out in the judgment of Glidewell LJ.
Brian Leveson QC and Graham Morrow (instructed by Weightman Rutherfords, Liverpool) for the chief constable.
R J Scholes QC and Ian Trigger (instructed by E Rex Makin & Co, Liverpool) for the plaintiff.
Cur adv vult
16 February 1990. The following judgments were delivered.
GLIDEWELL LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Slade LJ). The appellant, the defendant in the court below, was at the material time the Chief Constable of the Merseyside Police. By a writ issued on 19 June 1986 the plaintiff, Mr Alexandrou, claimed damages for the negligence of police officers in the Merseyside Police, for which the defendant was responsible under s 48 of the Police Act 1964. Before the hearing, damages were agreed subject to liability, in the sum of £7,500. After a hearing in Liverpool in December 1988 Hodgson J on 17 February 1989 in Birmingham gave judgment for the plaintiff in that sum. The defendant now appeals against that judgment.
The pleadings
The statement of claim alleged that at the material time the plaintiff occupied a retail clothing store known as ‘Ziggys’ at 5 Borough Pavement, Grange
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Precinct, in Birkenhead. At that shop the plaintiff had installed a burglar alarm system, which, when activated, raised the alarm at the Mortimer Street police station, Birkenhead. Paragraphs 4 and 5 of the statement of claim read as follows:
‘4. At, or about, 7 pm on 26th January 1986 a person or persons unknown entered the said clothing store and in so doing activated the burglar alarm at the Mortimer Street police station and stole therefrom a large quantity of clothing owned by the plaintiff in consequence whereof the plaintiff has suffered loss and damage.
5. The said loss and damage was caused through the negligence of the defendant, his servants, or agents.
PARTICULARS OF NEGLIGENCE
The defendant, his servants, or agents, were negligent in that they: a) Failed once the burglar alarm system was activated at the police station to attend with reasonable expedition thereafter at the said clothing store. b) Failed in the circumstances to take any or any adequate precautions so as to discover the cause of the burglar alarm being so activated. c) Failed to heed or act upon the warning given by the burglar alarm. d) Assumed without any, or any proper enquiry, that the activation of the burglar alarm was a false alarm. e) Failed with any, or reasonable expedition, to contact the plaintiff or the key-holder namely David McCarthy.’
The plaintiff claimed that by reason of the alleged negligence he had suffered the loss and damage alleged. Paragraph 3 of the defence read as follows:
‘The defendant admits that at about 19.20 hours on 26 January 1986 the internal alarm at the said premises was activated and as a result the alarm was raised with the Merseyside police. The defendant denies that the said alarm was activated by a person or persons entering the said premises.’
The paragraph continued with further allegations of fact with which I shall deal when I come to summarise the evidence.
The defence denied that the defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care in the circumstances alleged in the statement of claim, denied the allegations of negligence, and further denied that any loss or damage was caused by the negligence of himself or his servants or agents. Thus the issues before the judge were formulated.
The evidence
The evidence before the judge can be summarised as follows. The Grange Precinct in Birkenhead is a modern shopping precinct. The lockup shop occupied by the plaintiff was one of a row of shops at first-floor level in the precinct. The front of the shop gave access to a pedestrian street. In order to reach the rear of the shop without going through the shop itself it was necessary to go along the pedestrian street, down a flight of steps to the ground level below, into a service tunnel and along a passage, up a further flight of steps and into a walkway which ran along the back of the shops at first-floor level. At the back of the plaintiff’s shop there was a fire door which gave access to the walkway and a transom window some feet above the level of the walkway.
The burglar alarm system installed at the plaintiff’s shop comprised an exterior alarm bell, an interior alarm bell, situated towards the rear of the premises, and a mechanism which when the alarm was activated sent a 999 telephone call to the police station which, when answered, delivered a recorded
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message indicating that the alarm had been activated at the premises in question. If the exterior alarm bell were removed, the 999 call would be activated. About four minutes later, the inside bell would start ringing. That would continue ringing indefinitely unless either it were turned off or the control panel for the system was damaged or there was some failure of power to the inside bell.
At 7.20 pm on Sunday, 26 January 1986 the burglar alarm at the plaintiff’s shop was activated, and the 999 call was received at the police control room. At that time Wpc Thompson was on duty in Borough Pavement, a little distance from the plaintiff’s shop. She heard a burglar alarm begin to ring, but at first did not know in which shop it was situated. She spoke to the control room at 7.23 pm and was informed that the alarm was ringing in the plaintiff’s shop. She went to the front of the shop, and said that she could see no signs of disturbance. She did not observe the burglar alarm on the exterior of the premises. Almost immediately afterwards, she was joined by Pc William Smith, who had been on patrol nearby. He went apparently to the rear of the premises, and then returned saying, as he subsequently said in evidence, that he had checked the rear of the premises and found nothing wrong. Wpc Thompson reported this to control at 7.24 pm. Shortly after this Wpc Thompson went off duty.
The story was then taken up by Pc Smith. He said in evidence that after he had met Wpc Thompson at the front of the shop he went by the route I have described to the rear. He gave evidence in detail about the route he took, and said that he inspected the rear of the premises, including both the door and the window above. He also checked the rear of every other shop along that walkway. He found that everything was secure. He was asked by the judge whether he could hear the alarm from the back of the shop, and after hesitating he replied that he could not remember. He returned to the front of the shop, where Wpc Thompson still was, and saw no sign that there had been an alarm bell attached to the front.
Pc Smith said that thereafter he gave Ziggys shop passing attention. When asked what he meant by that phrase he said:
‘During the course of duty if I am asked to give passing attention or I decide to give passing attention to a shop, I check that particular attention is given to a shop that is particularly open to be burgled or damaged; therefore it gets more attention that the rest of the precinct. If the alarm is also sounding on the premises then it’s much easier to break in without causing undue alarm. It is much easier to break into premises that are alarmed and the alarm is sounding, and the police are aware that the alarm is sounding but are not there. It would raise no undue suspicion because the alarm is already sounding.’
Thereafter he said that on a number of occasions he went back to Ziggys, but he explained that by this he meant that he went on several occasions during the course of his patrol to inspect the front of the shop which, on each occasion, he found secure. At about 9.30 pm he visited the shop and realised that the alarm bell inside had stopped ringing. He then went to the rear of the shop and said that he again found it secure. He reported the fact that the alarm bell had stopped ringing to control, who noted that message as being received at 9.26 pm.
Meanwhile, the police had been trying to make contact with the person holding the key of the shop. They telephoned a Mrs Fitzgerald, who told them
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that she no longer had the key, and gave them the name and address of Mr McCarthy. He was not on the telephone. A police patrol went to that address, which was a large house let in small flatlets. The police officers on the patrol gave evidence that they rang the bell of each of the flatlets, and banged on the doors, but gained no reply. At that point they were called away to another more urgent task, and therefore no contact was made with Mr McCarthy that night.
On the following morning the plaintiff went to his shop. When he went inside he found that it was in disarray and all the clothes which had been in stock on the Saturday, 36 hours before, had been removed. The control panel of the burglar alarm had been ripped off the wall. The transom window was broken, and the bars protecting it had been drawn apart. The fire escape door had been smashed so as to allow access to, or egress from, the premises. The cover of the fire alarm bell on the exterior of the premises and the bell inside had been completely removed.
The judge’s findings of fact
The learned judge did not believe Pc Smith when that officer said that at about 7.23 pm he went to the rear of the shop and checked it and found everything secure. The judge’s reasons for not believing the officer were his hesitation in answer to the question whether he heard the alarm bell from the back, and the fact that according to the recorded times he had both gone to and returned from the back of the shop in the course of one minute, ie between 7.23 and 7.24 pm, which the judge found was not possible.
Moreover, the judge did not believe that Pc Smith had again visited the rear of the premises when he realised that the bell was not ringing at 9.26 pm, nor did he accept that at that stage the rear of the premises was undamaged and secure. The judge accepted the evidence of the plaintiff as to the conditions he found on the following morning. The judge found that it was highly probable that the burglary had happened as follows:
‘Shortly before 9.26 pm entry was made through the window, the bars being forced apart. The burglars then stopped the bell ringing by pulling the panel away from the wall. The window would be an unsatisfactory means of egress while carrying several thousand pounds worth of goods from the shop to, no doubt, a waiting vehicle. The fire door was therefore smashed open from the inside and the loot removed.’
He rejected as unlikely to have happened the suggestion that the bell might have stopped of its own accord and the burglary might have been committed much later. The judge then said:
‘If this reconstruction is correct then it follows that, at the time that Pc Smith says that he inspected the rear of these premises shortly after 9.26 pm, the window at least had been smashed and entry gained. I think Pc Smith is probably telling me the truth when he says he did visit the front of the premises quite frequently, in which case he probably realised that the bell had stopped very shortly after it did stop. At that time therefore the burglars would probably not have begun to remove the goods; they were probably in the process of breaking down the fire door. It seems clear to me therefore that, had Pc Smith done that which he plainly ought to have done, this burglary, or rather the theft of the goods, would have been prevented.’
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The judge then turned to consider whether the police had also been negligent in failing to find the key-holder, Mr McCarthy. In the light of the evidence he had heard, which I have summarised above, he said that the officers who went to look for Mr McCarthy did nothing wrong and were in no way careless. Thus in respect of the allegation of negligence in para 5(e) of the statement of claim the judge found for the defendant on the facts.
The judge’s conclusions on the law
The learned judge reminded himself that, in order to succeed in an action based on the tort of negligence, a plaintiff has to establish three elements, namely: (a) that the defendant owed him a duty of care in the circumstances; and (b) that the defendant or his servant or agent had acted in breach of that duty; and (c) that the plaintiff had suffered damage as a consequence of that breach.
The judge commented that it was in establishing that the defendant owed him a duty of care that the plaintiff was presented with ‘his greatest obstacle to success’. The judge then gave lengthy and detailed consideration to the authorities governing this question. He held that in all the circumstances the police did owe the plaintiff a duty of care. In the passage from his judgment which I have quoted above, the judge had in effect already concluded that, if the police did owe the plaintiff a duty of care, Pc Smith was in breach of that duty and his breach caused the plaintiff’s loss, ie in the sense that, but for the constable’s failure, the theft of the goods would have been prevented.
Submissions
The major argument before us was also on the difficult question whether in the circumstances such as those of the present case the police do owe to a shopkeeper, such as the plaintiff, a duty of care, or more narrowly whether they owed such a duty to this particular plaintiff in the particular circumstances. However, Mr Leveson QC for the chief constable also submits that even if the police did owe such a duty, and if Pc Smith was in breach of that duty, on the evidence before him the judge was not entitled to conclude, as he did, that the breach caused the loss suffered by the plaintiff. I shall consider these submissions under these two heads. Before I do so, however, there is a preliminary point which must be made.
The allegation in the statement of claim was that the burglar or burglars entered the plaintiff’s shop ‘at or about 7 pm on 26 January 1986 … and in so doing activated the burglar alarm …' However, the judge found that entry to the premises was made at, or shortly before, 9.26 pm. The judge did not believe that Pc Smith visited the rear of the premises and checked that they were secure at about 7.23 pm, and thus found in effect that, if the police did owe the plaintiff a duty of care arising out of the activation of his burglar alarm system, Pc Smith was in breach of that duty. Nevertheless, from the judge’s finding that the burglars did not enter at this time, it follows that this breach of itself did not cause the plaintiff any loss. The breach upon which the judge must have been basing his conclusion that the defendant was liable was the constable’s failure, as the judge found, to revisit the rear of the premises at about 9.26 pm when he realised that the alarm bell was not ringing, thus allowing the burglars to proceed with their theft of the goods undisturbed.
This allegation was not part of the plaintiff’s pleaded case, and the judge did not require the plaintiff’s counsel (as with respect I believe he should have
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done) to amend his statement of claim so as to formulate his case in this way. It is thus not clear either from the pleadings, or indeed from the express words of what is otherwise a careful and detailed judgment, what exactly was the ambit of the duty of care which the judge held the defendant owed to the plaintiff, of which Pc Smith was found to be in breach.
I assume that the duty of care which the judge held the police owed to the plaintiff can be expressed as a duty (a) once the burglar alarm was activated at the police station to inspect the plaintiff’s shop as soon as was reasonably possible, (b) to take reasonable steps to ascertain whether there was any sign of unauthorised entry to the premises and, if there was none, (c) to continue to inspect the shop with reasonable frequency, and (d) once the burglar alarm had stopped ringing to inspect again with reasonable care to ascertain whether there was any sign of unauthorised entry.
It is on Pc Smith’s failure in the last of these respects that the judge has based his judgment for the plaintiff.
Did the police owe the plaintiff a duty of care?
The difficulty in answering this question arises from the fact that the plaintiff’s loss was not caused directly by any act or failure on the part of the police, but by the activities of the burglars. The police, on the judge’s findings of fact, were indirectly responsible for the plaintiff’s loss, because of Pc Smith’s failure properly to inspect the rear of the shop when he realised at 9.26 pm that the alarm bell had stopped ringing, and his consequent failure to prevent or intercept the theft.
It is not sufficient for a plaintiff, who seeks to establish that a defendant owed him a duty to take reasonable care to prevent loss being caused to the plaintiff by the activities of another person, simply to prove that if the defendant did not exercise reasonable care it was foreseeable that the plaintiff would suffer the loss. It is necessary for the plaintiff also to show that in the circumstances of the particular case he stands in a special relationship to the defendant, from which the duty of care arose: see per Lord Wilberforce in McLoughlin v O’Brian [1982] 2 All ER 298 at 303, [1983] 1 AC 410 at 420: ‘That foreseeability does not of itself, and automatically, lead to a duty of care is, I think, clear.’
Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004 was a decision on a preliminary point of law. A group of borstal boys, some of whom had a record of previous escapes, were encamped on Brownsea Island under the supervision of prison officers. A number of yachts, including one owned by the plaintiff company, were moored nearby. The boys escaped in the night while the officers were asleep, boarded another yacht in order to reach the mainland, and while attempting to do so collided with and damaged the plaintiff’s yacht. The plaintiff sued the Home Office, alleging that the damage to its yacht was caused by the negligence of the prison officers. The preliminary issue was whether the Home Office or the officers owed any duty of care in tort to the plaintiff. The House of Lords held that, in the particular circumstances, a duty of care could arise. Lord Diplock said ([1970] 2 All ER 294 at 334, [1970] AC 1004 at 1070–1071):
‘The risk of sustaining damage from the tortious acts of criminals is shared by the public at large. It has never been recognised at common law as giving rise to any cause of action against anyone but the criminal himself. It would seem arbitrary and therefore unjust to single out for the special privilege of being able to recover compensation from the authorities
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responsible for the prevention of crime a person whose property was damaged by the tortious act of a criminal, merely because the damage to him happened to be caused by a criminal who had escaped from custody before completion of his sentence instead of by one who had been lawfully released or who had been put on probation or given a suspended sentence or who had never been previously apprehended at all. To give rise to a duty on the part of the custodian owed to a member of the public to take reasonable care to prevent a borstal trainee from escaping from his custody before completion of the trainee’s sentence there should be some relationship between the custodian and the person to whom the duty is owed which exposes that person to a particular risk of damage in consequence of that escape which is different in its incidence from the general risk of damage from criminal acts of others which he shares with all members of the public. What distinguishes a borstal trainee who has escaped from one who has been duly released from custody, is his liability to recapture, and the distinctive added risk which is a reasonably foreseeable consequence of a failure to exercise due care in preventing him from escaping is the likelihood that in order to elude pursuit immediately on the discovery of his absence the escaping trainee may steal or appropriate and damage property which is situated in the vicinity of the place of detention from which he has escaped. So long as Parliament is content to leave the general risk of damage from criminal acts to lie where it falls without any remedy except against the criminal himself, the courts would be exceeding their limited function in developing the common law to meet changing conditions if they were to recognise a duty of care to prevent criminals escaping from penal custody owed to a wider category of members of the public than those whose property was exposed to an exceptional added risk by the adoption of a custodial system for young offenders which increased the likelihood of their escape unless due care was taken by those responsible for their custody. I should therefore hold that any duty of a borstal officer to use reasonable care to prevent a borstal trainee from escaping from his custody was owed only to persons whom he could reasonably foresee had property situate in the vicinity of the place of detention of the detainee which the detainee was likely to steal or to appropriate and damage in the course of eluding immediate pursuit and recapture. Whether or not any person fell within this category would depend on the facts of the particular case including the previous criminal and escaping record of the individual trainee concerned and the nature of the place from which he escaped.’
It will be seen that in that case the relationship between the plaintiff and the borstal officers from which there could arise a duty on those officers to take reasonable care in guarding the borstal boys was based upon the fact that the plaintiff’s yacht was moored close to the place where the borstal party was encamped. In other words, the group of persons to whom the duty was owed was limited to the owners of boats moored in the vicinity.
The authority which is most in point in the present case is the decision of the House of Lords in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53. I cannot do better than to adopt the summary of the relevant facts and the issue from the speech of Lord Keith ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 239–240, [1989] AC 53 at 57–59):
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‘My Lords, in 1975 a man named Peter Sutcliffe embarked on a terrifying career of violent crime, centred in the metropolitan police area of West Yorkshire. All his victims were young or fairly young women. Between July 1975 and November 1980 he committed 13 murders and 8 attempted murders on such women, the modus operandi in each case being similar. Sutcliffe’s last victim was a 20-year-old student called Jacqueline Hill, whom he murdered in Leeds on 17 November 1980. By chance, Sutcliffe was arrested in suspicious circumstances in Sheffield on 2 January 1981 and he confessed to the series of murders and attempted murders following interrogation. On 22 May 1981, in the Central Criminal Court, Sutcliffe was convicted of, inter alia, the murder of Miss Hill. Miss Hill’s mother and sole personal representative (the appellant) now sues the Chief Constable of West Yorkshire (the respondent), claiming on behalf of Miss Hill’s estate damages on the ground of negligence, for, inter alia, loss of expectation of life and pain and suffering. The respondent is sued under s 48(1) of the Police Act 1964, enacting that the chief officer of police for any police area shall be liable in respect of torts committed by constables under his direction and control in the performance or purported performance of their functions. The appellant in her statement of claim sets out the 20 offences committed by Sutcliffe before the death of Miss Hill and avers that the circumstances of each of these were such that it was reasonable to infer that all were committed by the same man, and further that it was foreseeable that, if not apprehended, he would commit further offences of the same nature. The pleadings go on to allege that it was accordingly the duty of the respondent and all officers in his police force to use their best endeavours and exercise all reasonable care and skill to apprehend the perpetrator of the crimes and so protect members of the public who might otherwise be his future victims. A substantial number of matters are set out and relied on as indicating that the West Yorkshire police force failed in that duty. It is unnecessary to set out these matters in detail. They amount broadly to allegations of failure to collate properly information in possession of the force pointing to Sutcliffe as a likely suspect and of failing to give due weight to certain pieces of information while according excessive importance to others. The respondent, without delivering defences, applied under RSC Ord 18, r 19 to have the statement of claim struck out as disclosing no reasonable cause of action. That application was granted by Sir Neil Lawson, sitting as a judge of the High Court on 19 December 1985. On appeal by the appellant the Court of Appeal (Fox, Glidewell LJJ and Sir Roualeyn Cumming-Bruce) ([1987] 1 All ER 1173, [1988] QB 60), on 19 February 1987, affirmed Sir Neil Lawson. The plaintiff now appeals, with leave given in the Court of Appeal, to your Lordship’s House. In considering whether the statement of claim was rightly struck out it must be assumed that the averments of fact therein contained are true. In particular, it must be assumed that in the course of their investigations into a series of crimes committed by Sutcliffe the West Yorkshire police force made a number of mistakes which they would not have made if they had exercised a reasonable degree of care and skill such as would have been expected to be displayed in the circumstances by an ordinarily competent police force. It must also be assumed, though this is not specifically averred in the statement of claim, that had they exercised that degree of care and skill Sutcliffe would have been apprehended before
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the date on which he murdered Miss Hill, with the result that that particular crime would not have been committed. The question of law which is opened up by the case is whether the individual members of a police force, in the course of carrying out their functions of controlling and keeping down the incidence of crime, owe a duty of care to individual members of the public who may suffer injury to person or property through the activities of criminals, such as to result in liability in damages, on the ground of negligence, to anyone who suffers such injury by reason of breach of that duty.’
Lord Keith considered the earlier decision of the House of Lords in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728 and said ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 241, [1989] AC 53 at 60):
‘It has been said almost too frequently to require repetition that foreseeability of likely harm is not in itself a sufficient test of liability in negligence. Some further ingredient is invariably needed to establish the requisite proximity of relationship between the plaintiff and defendant, and all the circumstances of the case must be carefully considered and analysed in order to ascertain whether such an ingredient is present. The nature of the ingredient will be found to vary in a number of different categories of decided cases. In the Anns case there was held to be sufficient proximity of relationship between the borough and future owners and occupiers of a particular building the foundations of which it was decided to inspect, and there was also a close relationship between the borough and the builder who had constructed the foundations.’
He then dealt in more detail with Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd, and quoted the passage from the speech of Lord Diplock which I have already quoted. He concluded on this point ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 243, [1989] AC 53 at 62):
‘It appears from the passage quoted from the speech of Lord Diplock in the Dorset Yacht case that in his view no liability would rest on a prison authority, which carelessly allowed the escape of an habitual criminal, for damage which he subsequently caused, not in the course of attempting to make good his getaway to persons at special risk, but in further pursuance of his general criminal career to the person or property of members of the general public. The same rule must apply as regards failure to recapture the criminal before he had time to resume his career. In the case of an escaped criminal his identity and description are known. In the instant case the identity of the wanted criminal was at the material time unknown and it is not averred that any full or clear description of him was ever available. The alleged negligence of the police consists in a failure to discover his identity. But, if there is no general duty of care owed to individual members of the public by the responsible authorities to prevent the escape of a known criminal or to recapture him, there cannot reasonably be imposed on any police force a duty of care similarly owed to identify and apprehend an unknown one. Miss Hill cannot for this purpose be regarded as a person at special risk simply because she was young and female. Where the class of potential victims of a particular habitual criminal is a large one the precise size of it cannot in principle affect the issue. All householders are potential victims of a habitual burglar, and all females those of an habitual rapist.
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The conclusion must be that although there existed reasonable foreseeability of likely harm to such as Miss Hill if Sutcliffe were not identified and apprehended, there is absent from the case any such ingredient or characteristic as led to the liability of the Home Office in the Dorset Yacht case. Nor is there present any additional characteristic such as might make up the deficiency. The circumstances of the case are therefore not capable of establishing a duty of care owed towards Miss Hill by the West Yorkshire Police.’
Mr Leveson submits that there is no relevant distinction between the present case and Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire. Hodgson J said in his judgment:
‘There is no doubt that, in the instant case, the argument has to be that there is a general duty of care owed by this police force to all owners of intruder alarms which are “connected” to the police control room: there is nothing in the relationship between this plaintiff and the police which distinguished their relationship from all others.’
The judge’s conclusion was:
‘There is clearly a special relationship created between the police and the owners of intruder alarm systems which is of a different and closer nature than that between the police and members of the public in general. Subject therefore to the impact on the case of the fact that it is here sought to make the police liable for the act of a third party (the burglars) with whom the police had no special relationship and over whom they had no control, I would hold that there was here sufficient proximity to raise a duty of care owed by the police to the owners of intruder alarms.’
Mr Scholes QC for the plaintiff accepts the judge’s definition of the class of persons to whom the police owe a duty as owners of intruder alarms connected to the police station, though at one stage in his argument he appeared to limit the class to those with 999-type burglar alarms. He submits that this is a much more limited group than the category of ‘young or fairly young women’ to whom it was alleged that the police owed a duty in Hill’s case. Thus, submits Mr Scholes, the judge was correct in distinguishing the present case from Hill’s case.
It is possible to envisage an agreement between an occupier of a property protected by a burglar alarm and the police which would impose a contractual liability on the police. That is not, however, the situation in this case. The communication with the police in this case was by a 999 telephone call, followed by a recorded message. If as a result of that communication the police came under a duty of care to the plaintiff, it must follow that they would be under a similar duty to any person who informs them, whether by 999 call or in some other way, that a burglary, or indeed any crime, against himself or his property is being committed or is about to be committed. So in my view if there is a duty of care it is owed to a wider group than those to whom the judge referred. It is owed to all members of the public who give information of a suspected crime against themselves or their property. It follows, therefore, that on the facts of this case it is my opinion that there was no such special relationship between the plaintiff and the police as was present in the Dorset Yacht case. On this issue I respectfully disagree with the learned judge.
If I were wrong in that conclusion, it would then be necessary to consider whether, as a matter of general policy, the police should be under the duty
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proposed. As I said in my judgment in this court in Hill’s case [1987] 1 All ER 1173 at 1183, [1988] QB 60 at 75:
‘Whether one asks, in the words of Lord Wilberforce in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492 at 498, [1978] AC 728 at 752, whether there are considerations which ought to negative the duty or, in those of Lord Keith in Governors of the Peabody Donation Fund v Sir Lindsay Parkinson & Co Ltd [1984] 3 All ER 529 at 534, [1985] AC 210 at 241, whether it is fair and reasonable that a duty of care should arise, a court confronted by a novel set of facts has in the end to give the answer which it thinks justice and public policy require.’
In his speech in Hill’s case [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 243–244, [1989] AC 53 at 63–64 Lord Keith dealt with this issue as follows:
‘That is sufficient for the disposal of the appeal. But in my opinion there is another reason why an action for damages in negligence should not lie against the police in circumstances such as those of the present case, and that is public policy. In Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705 at 712, [1988] AC 175 at 193, I expressed the view that the category of cases where the second stage of Lord Wilberforce’s two-stage test in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492 at 498, [1978] AC 728 at 752 might fall to be applied was a limited one, one example of that category being Rondel v Worsley [1967] 3 All ER 993, [1969] 1 AC 191. Application of that second stage is, however, capable of constituting a separate and independent ground for holding that the existence of liability in negligence should not be entertained. Potential existence of such liability may in many instances be in the general public interest, as tending towards the observance of a higher standard of care in the carrying on of various different types of activity. I do not, however, consider that this can be said of police activities. The general sense of public duty which motivates police forces is unlikely to be appreciably reinforced by the imposition of such liability so far as concerns their function in the investigation and suppression of crime. From time to time they make mistakes in the exercise of that function, but it is not to be doubted that they apply their best endeavours to the performance of it. In some instances the imposition of liability may lead to the exercise of a function being carried on in a detrimentally defensive frame of mind. The possibility of this happening in relation to the investigative operations of the police cannot be excluded. Further, it would be reasonable to expect that if potential liability were to be imposed it would be not uncommon for actions to be raised against police forces on the ground that they had failed to catch some criminal as soon as they might have done, with the result that he went on to commit further crimes. While some such actions might involve allegations of a simple and straightforward type of failure, for example that a police officer negligently tripped and fell while pursuing a burglar, others would be likely to enter deeply into the general nature of a police investigation, as indeed the present action would seek to do. The manner of conduct of such an investigation must necessarily involve a variety of decisions to be made on matters of policy and discretion, for example as to which particular line of inquiry is most advantageously to be pursued and what is the most advantageous way to deploy the available resources. Many such decisions would not be regarded by the courts as appropriate to be called in question,
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yet elaborate investigation of the facts might be necessary to ascertain whether or not this was so. A great deal of police time, trouble and expense might be expected to have to be put into the preparation of the defence to the action and the attendance of witnesses at the trial. The result would be a significant diversion of police manpower and attention from their most important function, that of the suppression of crime. Closed investigations would require to be reopened and retraversed, not with the object of bringing any criminal to justice but to ascertain whether or not they had been competently conducted. I therefore consider that Glidewell LJ, in his judgment in the Court of Appeal in the present case, was right to take the view that the police were immune from an action of this kind on grounds similar to those which in Rondel v Worsley were held to render a barrister immune from actions for negligence in his conduct of proceedings in court (see [1987] 1 All ER 1173 at 1183–1184, [1988] QB 60 at 76).’
Lord Brandon, Lord Oliver and Lord Goff agreed with Lord Keith, and Lord Templeman based his agreement that the appeal should be dismissed solely on considerations of public policy. He said ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 245, [1989] AC 53 at 65):
‘The threat of litigation against a police force would not make a policeman more efficient. The necessity for defending proceedings, successfully or unsuccessfully, would distract the policeman from his duties. This action is in my opinion misconceived and will do more harm than good.’
Mr Scholes argues that the factors referred to by Lord Keith do not all apply in the present case, and that, if actions of this sort were brought against the police from time to time, it would not require any significant diversion of resources to deal with them. Hodgson J in his judgment said on this issue:
‘This case is clearly distinguishable on its facts from Hill’s case. In Hill’s case the allegation of lack of care was in the detection of crime already committed whereas I am here dealing with lack of care in the prevention of crime. It seems to me that there are two main strands to be discerned in the speeches of Lord Keith and Lord Templeman in Hill’s case. The first is that to hold that the police owed a duty of care would have the effect of reducing the efficiency of the police by (per Lord Keith) the waste of “police time, trouble and expense” put into the “preparation of the defence to the action and the attendance of witnesses at the trial” and because (per Lord Templeman) “the necessity of defending proceedings, successfully or unsuccessfully, would distract the policeman from his duties.” The second is the extreme complexity of any investigation into the conduct of the police in the detection of crime. I have, I think, to answer the question whether the imposition of the duty of care sought by the plaintiff in this case would or might influence adversely the operational efficiency of the police in their fight against crime. I cannot believe that it would.’
In my view the observations of Lord Keith and Lord Templeman in Hill’s case in relation to the effect on the police of their being potentially liable in negligence were general, not limited to the facts of that case. I would therefore hold that it is not fair or reasonable that the police should be under any such common law duty as is here proposed.
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It follows that in my judgment the police are not, and were not, under a duty of care of the kind here under consideration. On this ground I would allow the appeal.
If the police were in breach of a duty of care, did that breach cause the plaintiff’s loss?
In case that opinion should be wrong, I proceed to consider briefly Mr Leveson’s submission about the judge’s findings of fact. Put shortly, this is as follows. The evidence is that Pc Smith discovered at 9.26 pm that the burglar alarm bell inside the shop had stopped ringing. There is no clear evidence how long before that time the bell stopped ringing. Moreover, there is no evidence as to how long it would have taken a gang of burglars to remove the contents of the shop. Thus there was no proper evidence upon which the judge could conclude, as he did, that, if Pc Smith had properly inspected the rear of the premises at 9.26 pm, he would have intercepted and prevented the burglary which was happening at that time. In other words, the evidence is not sufficient to prove that, if Pc Smith had done everything he should have done, he would have prevented the burglary. The theft of the goods might have already been complete by the time the police officer discovered that the bell was no longer ringing.
On this issue I conclude, after some hesitation, that there was evidence upon which the learned judge could properly come to the finding of fact to which he did come. If Pc Smith had been doing his job properly, he accepted that he would have been patrolling past the shop with reasonable frequency. While the judge had no clear evidence as to the length of time it would have taken for thieves to remove the entire stock of the shop, this would obviously not have been the work of a few minutes, taking account of the fact that the stock had to be carried down a flight of stairs, presumably to a vehicle waiting below. It follows in my view that the judge was entitled to conclude that, on the balance of probabilities, if Pc Smith had investigated the rear of the premises at 9.26 pm, he would have been in time to intercept and prevent the theft taking place.
On this issue therefore I would not disturb the judge’s findings, but on the major issue of law I regret that I cannot agree with him. For the reasons I have already set out, I would allow this appeal.
PARKER LJ. I agree that this appeal should be allowed for the reasons set out in the judgments of Slade and Glidewell LJJ, which I have had the opportunity to read in draft. For my part, however, I would also allow the appeal on the further ground that, even if there was a duty of care on the part of Pc Smith and even if that duty was broken in the respect found by the judge, there was not sufficient evidence to justify the judge’s finding that the breach of duty was causative of the plaintiff’s loss. In this I respectfully differ from the views expressed by Glidewell LJ.
It is, in my view, important to note that the plaintiff’s pleaded case was that the burglary occurred at or about 7 pm when a person or persons unknown entered his shop and activated the burglar alarm in so doing, and that the defendant’s negligence lay in failing to respond to that alarm in the respects which are set out in the judgment of Glidewell LJ. That case was rejected by the judge, who found that the break-in had occurred some two hours later and was still in progress when, at 9.26 pm, Pc Smith had noticed that the bell, which had in fact been activated at 7.23 pm, had stopped ringing. He found that as a matter
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of probability (a) the bell had stopped ringing shortly before 9.26 pm, (b) that it had stopped because, on entry, the burglars had pulled the control panel away from the wall, (c) that Pc Smith realised that the bell had stopped ringing very shortly after it did stop, (d) that had he ‘done that which he plainly ought to have’ (ie inspected the back of the premises) the theft of the goods would have been prevented.
The judge’s view that the burglary was still in progress at 9.26 pm was founded on his conclusion that the bell had stopped ringing shortly before 9.26 pm. I take this to mean so short a time before 9.26 pm that by that time the theft could not have been completed.
Before considering the evidence as to this I should mention that no suggestion that the time of the burglary was 9.26 pm or thereabouts was raised until after all the evidence had been called. It was then raised by the judge at the beginning of, or in the course of, the closing speech of counsel for the defendant when he indicated that this was likely to be his conclusion. Counsel not surprisingly objected that it was not pleaded but it appears that the matter was taken no further.
As a result of the fact that the point was not raised until after the evidence had been concluded, there was no investigation of matters which were or should have been of great importance for the determination of the time at which the bell stopped ringing. Such evidence as there was is accordingly very sparse.
Pc Smith’s duty was to patrol the whole of the Grange Precinct. His tour of duty lasted from 6.45 pm to 11 pm. He was to give the plaintiff’s shop passing attention, which meant that he would pay particular attention to it because premises at which an alarm has been ringing for some time are apparently attractive to burglars. The alarm could be heard if he was within 40 feet of the shop and he was very close to the shop on a number of occasions between 7.23 pm and 9.26 pm.
There was no evidence whatever as to the time it would have taken to go round the precinct, of the size of the precinct, of how many occasions constituted ‘a number’, of the pattern of his patrol if any or, most crucially, of the time at which, before 9.26 pm, he had last been close enough to the shop to hear the alarm. Nor was there any evidence of the time it would have taken to remove the plaintiff’s goods from the shop and load them onto a lorry, a question which would in any event depend upon how many thieves were involved and available to carry the goods from the shop to the lorry.
In my judgment there was, with all respect to the judge, no evidence upon which he could conclude that the bell had stopped, very shortly before 9.26 pm or even that the time at which it had stopped was too close to 9.26 pm for the theft to have been completed by that time.
There was, I have no doubt, evidence that the bell had stopped because the panel had been pulled away from the wall, but I can see nothing which, as a matter of probability, could properly lead to the conclusion that that event occurred within such a time before 9.26 pm that, had Pc Smith gone to the back of the premises at that time, he could have prevented the theft.
For those reasons, as well as those of Slade and Glidewell LJJ, I would allow this appeal.
SLADE LJ. I have had the advantage of reading the judgment of Glidewell LJ in draft, and gratefully adopt his statement of the facts. I agree that this appeal
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must be allowed for the reasons which he states, but will add some brief observations of my own because we are differing from the learned judge.
The basis of fact (unpleaded) upon which the judge found liability established was that on the balance of probabilities (a) the burglars entered the premises shortly before 9.26 pm, (b) Pc Smith, on noticing at 9.26 pm that the alarm bell had stopped ringing, failed to inspect the rear of the premises as he should have done (and said he had done), and (c) if Pc Smith had promptly inspected the rear of the premises at that time, the theft of the goods would have been prevented.
I am bound to say that finding (a) in particular causes me unease. On the somewhat sparse evidence before us, it seems to me perfectly possible that the bell had in fact stopped ringing a substantial time before 9.26 pm when Pc Smith noticed that it had stopped ringing and that by that time the burglars had been and gone. Pc Smith’s evidence (which on this point was not challenged) was that while in the precinct he would not have heard the alarm sounding internally in the shop unless he was within 40 feet of it. There was apparently no specific evidence at the trial either as to the size of the precinct or as to the number of times when Pc Smith would have been likely to find himself within 40 feet of the shop during the course of his patrol of the area between about 7.30 pm and 9.26 pm. If the burglary had already been completed by 9.26 pm, any subsequent negligence on the part of Pc Smith could have caused the plaintiff no loss, and the police could have been under no liability even if they owed a duty of care to the plaintiff. Nevertheless, for the rest of this judgment I am prepared to assume (without deciding) that all the learned judge’s crucial findings of fact were justified on the evidence.
I turn to the law. In Hill v Chief Constable of Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 240, [1989] AC 53 at 59 Lord Keith of Kinkel (with whose speech Lord Brandon of Oakbrook, Lord Oliver of Aylmerton and Lord Goff of Chieveley agreed) defined the question of law ‘opened up’ by the case as being whether—
‘the individual members of a police force, in the course of carrying out their functions of controlling and keeping down the incidence of crime, owe a duty of care to individual members of the public who may suffer injury to person or property through the activities of criminals, such as to result in liability in damages, on the ground of negligence, to anyone who suffers such injury by reason of breach of that duty.’
This question is one of great general importance. The answer to it given by the House of Lords in that case may, in my opinion, be sufficiently accurately summarised as follows. Generally, no such duty of care exists; the mere foreseeability of likely harm in the circumstances postulated is not by itself enough to give rise to the duty. If the alleged duty on the part of the police officers is to arise in any given set of facts, so as to result in civil liability for failure to control another man, to prevent his doing harm to a third party, some further ingredient must be present to establish the requisite proximity of relationship between the plaintiff and the defendant (see [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 241, 242–243, [1989] AC 53 at 60, 62 per Lord Keith).
Here the plaintiff’s case has to be, and is, that the connection of his shop by way of a burglar alarm system, capable of raising a 999 call at the Mortimer Street police station, constituted a special ingredient sufficient to establish the requisite proximity of relationship between himself and the police so as to give rise to a duty of care.
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As Glidewell LJ has pointed out, it is possible to envisage an agreement between an occupier of a property protected by a burglar alarm and the police which would impose on the police a contractual liability, but no such contractual liability has been suggested in the present case. As things are, I cannot see that the duty in tort (if any) owed by the police to this plaintiff can have been any greater than the duty in tort (if any) owed by them to any ordinary member of the public who by means of a 999 call warns them that a crime is being or is about to be committed against his person or property. By common law police officers owe to the general public a duty to enforce the criminal law. This duty may in an appropriate case be enforced at the instance of one having title to sue by mandamus (see Hill’s case [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 240, [1989] AC 53 at 59 per Lord Keith). In my judgment, however, on public policy grounds similar to those given by Lord Keith (see [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 243, [1989] AC 53 at 63), it is unthinkable that the police should be exposed to potential actions for negligence at the suit of every disappointed or dissatisfied maker of a 999 call. I can see no sufficient grounds for holding that the police owed a duty of care to this plaintiff on or after receipt of the 999 call on 26 January 1986 if they would not have owed a duty of care to ordinary members of the public who made a similar call.
For these and the further reasons given by Glidewell LJ, I consider that the police owed no duty of care to the plaintiff of the kind here alleged, and would allow the appeal on this ground.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Osman and another v Ferguson and another
[1993] 4 All ER 344
Categories: TORTS; Negligence: CRIMINAL; Police
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): McCOWAN, BELDAM AND SIMON BROWN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 6, 7 OCTOBER 1992
Police – Negligence – Duty to take care – Negligence in investigation of case – Persons to whom duty owed – Victim of crime – Husband of first plaintiff murdered – Second plaintiff severely wounded – Police failing to apprehend criminal prior to crimes – Whether police owing duty of care to victims – Whether special relationship existing between police and victims – Whether plaintiffs having cause of action for negligence against police.
P, a schoolteacher, formed an unhealthy attachment to a 15-year-old male pupil and harassed him by accusing him of deviant sexual practices, following him to his home and alleging a sexual relationship with a friend. In May 1987 P changed his surname to that of the boy’s and damaged property connected with the boy by throwing a brick through a window of the boy’s home, smearing dog excrement on the front door and slashing the tyres of the car of the boy’s father. In mid-1987 P was dismissed from the school, but continued the harassment. The police were aware of those facts and in the latter part of 1987 P even told a police officer that the loss of his job was distressing and there was a danger that he would do something criminally insane. In December 1987 P deliberately
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rammed a vehicle in which the boy was a passenger. The police laid an information against P in January 1988 alleging driving without due care and attention but it was not served. In March P followed the boy and his family to their flat and shot and severely injured the boy and killed his father. The mother, as administratix of the father’s estate, and the boy brought an action against, inter alios, the Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis alleging negligence in that although the police had been aware of P’s activities since May 1987 they failed to apprehend or interview him, search his home or charge him with a more serious offence before March 1988. The commissioner’s application to strike out the statement of claim as disclosing no reasonable cause of action was dismissed. The commissioner appealed to the Court of Appeal.
Held – As the second plaintiff and his family had been exposed to a risk from P over and above that of the public there was an arguable case that there was (per McCowan and Simon Brown LJJ) a very close degree of proximity amounting to a special relationship between the plaintiffs’ family and the investigating police officers. However (per curiam), the existence of a general duty on the police to suppress crime did not carry with it liability to individuals for damage caused to them by criminals whom the police had failed to apprehend when it was possible to do so. It would be against public policy to impose such a duty as it would not promote the observance of a higher standard of care by the police and would result in the significant diversion of police resources from the investigation and suppression of crime. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the action dismissed (see p 350 j, p 353 b c j and p 354 b d g to j, post).
Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 followed.
Alexandrou v Oxford [1993] 4 All ER 328 applied.
Notes
For the nature of negligence and the duty to take care generally, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1–5, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 21–65, 132–325.
For actions under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 13–17, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 117–127, 764–865.
Cases referred to in judgments
Alexandrou v Oxford [1993] 4 All ER 328, CA.
Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Doe v Metropolitan Toronto (Municipality) Comrs of Police (1989) 58 DLR (4th) 396, Ont HC.
Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53, [1988] 2 WLR 1049, HL; affg [1987] 1 All ER 1173, [1988] QB 60, CA.
Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004, [1970] 2 WLR 1140, HL.
Lonrho plc v Tebbitt [1991] 4 All ER 973; affd [1992] 4 All ER 280, CA.
Rondel v Worsley [1967] 3 All ER 993, [1969] 1 AC 191, [1967] 3 WLR 1666, HL.
Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175, [1987] 3 WLR 776, PC.
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Interlocutory appeal
The second defendant, the Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis, appealed with the leave of the judge from the order of Sir Peter Pain, sitting as a judge of the High Court in the Queen’s Bench Division on 20 December 1991 whereby he dismissed an application by the commissioner under RSC Ord 18, r 19 to strike out the statement of claim in the action brought by the first plaintiff, Mulkiye Yosuf Osman, the widow and administratix of the estate of Ali Osman, and the second plaintiff, Ahmed Osman, the son of the first plaintiff and the deceased, against the first defendant, Hugh Cameron Ferguson, and the commissioner claiming damages for negligence resulting in the death of Ali Osman and injuries to the second plaintiff caused by Paul Paget-Lewis. The facts are set out in the judgment of McCowan LJ.
Simon Freeland (instructed by C S Porteous) for the appellant.
John Hendy QC and Tim Kerr (instructed by Christian Fisher & Co) for the plaintiffs.
The first defendant did not appear.
McCOWAN LJ. This is an appeal from the judgment of Sir Peter Pain (sitting as a judge of the High Court) dismissing an application by the second defendant under RSC Ord 18, r 19 to strike out the statement of claim as disclosing no reasonable cause of action. The appeal is brought with the leave of the judge. For purposes of such an application it must of course be assumed in the plaintiffs’ favour that all facts pleaded in the statement of claim are true.
The first plaintiff is the widow and administratrix of the estate of Mr Ali Osman, and she brings the action for the benefit of the deceased’s dependants under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 and for the benefit of the deceased’s estate under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934.
The second plaintiff is the son of the first plaintiff and of the deceased, and he sues in respect of personal injuries suffered by him. The first defendant is a consultant psychiatrist and the second the Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis responsible for policing operations in the London metropolitan police district. Both are sued in negligence, the first defendant in his professional capacity and the second on the basis that the facts set out in the statement of claim brought into being a special relationship between the second defendant, on the one hand, and the deceased and his family, including the plaintiffs, on the other, which special relationship gave rise to a duty of care. This appeal in no way concerns the first defendant.
The facts relied on in support of the existence of a duty of care I summarise from the statement of claim as follows.
The second plaintiff was at the material time aged about 15 years and a pupil at school. He had a classmate called Leslie Green. A man called Paget-Lewis was a master at the school in question. He began to harass Leslie Green, falsely accusing him of deviant sexual practices. What had happened was that Paget-Lewis had formed a strong and unhealthy attachment to the second plaintiff and he attempted to dissuade the second plaintiff from being friends with Leslie Green. He followed the second plaintiff and Leslie Green to their homes. He was responsible for graffiti alleging a sexual relationship between the two boys. In April 1987 it was discovered that an office at the school had been broken into and the files relating to the second plaintiff and Leslie Green taken. In early May 1987 Paget-Lewis changed his name by deed poll to Osman. All these matters were made known to the Hackney police. Paget-Lewis then
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began to damage property. On about 21 May 1987 he threw a brick through the front window of the plaintiffs’ home. The deceased contacted the Hackney police and told them about it. In about June 1987 Paget-Lewis attended at the plaintiffs’ home and slashed the tyres of the deceased’s car. He did it again in the following month. On each occasion the deceased complained to the Hackney police. By now Paget-Lewis had been suspended from duty at the school. In about August or September 1987 he attended at the plaintiffs’ home during the night and poured a mixture of engine oil and paraffin on to the area outside the front door of the house. The deceased immediately contacted the Hackney police.
On about 18 October 1987 Paget-Lewis broke the windscreen of the deceased’s car, probably with a hammer. The deceased went to Hackney police station and told a police officer about it. In about late October or early November 1987 Paget-Lewis introduced superglue into the lock of the front door of the plaintiffs’ home, with the result that on their return home the plaintiffs and the deceased were unable to get into the flat. In about November 1987 the deceased and others were returning home in the deceased’s car in the evening when Paget-Lewis suddenly overtook them in another car, cutting in front of them.
In the latter part of 1987 Paget-Lewis was in contact with a police officer called Pc Adams, concerning the acts of vandalism at the plaintiffs’ home which I have described. He told Pc Adams that losing his job was so distressing to him that there was a danger that he might do something criminally insane unless steps were taken to improve the situation. Pc Adams was aware, at the latest, by November 1987 that Paget-Lewis was responsible for these acts of vandalism.
Again in November 1987 Paget-Lewis smeared dog excrement on the plaintiffs’ front door on at least one occasion and on the deceased’s car on at least one occasion and on more than one occasion stole the light bulb above the plaintiffs’ front door. On 7 December 1987 Paget-Lewis drove the wrong way up a one-way street in Hackney and deliberately rammed a van in which Leslie Green was a passenger. The Hackney police were aware by the next day, at the latest, that Paget-Lewis was responsible and that his action had been deliberate.
Thus, by 8 December 1987, at the latest, the Hackney police were aware of all the acts of vandalism which I have described and that they had been committed by Paget-Lewis. Shortly after that, the police told the deceased that they were aware that Paget-Lewis was the perpetrator of those acts and that he (the deceased) should not worry for his own safety or that of his family.
On 15 December 1987 Paget-Lewis was interviewed at his own request by a divisional inspector of Inner London Education Authority. He said that he resented being taken away from the school and that he blamed the deputy head teacher for it, that he knew where he lived and that he was going to do something which would be a sort of ‘Hungerford’, but that it would not occur at the school. An official of the Inner London Education Authority telephoned Det Sgt Boardman on 15 December and left a detailed message for him about that conversation.
On 17 December Det Sgt Boardman briefed officers under his command on the Paget-Lewis case and on the objective of effecting his immediate arrest on a charge of criminal damage. On 22 December the sergeant took a statement from the driver of the van which had been rammed by Paget-Lewis. The driver told Det Sgt Boardman that Paget-Lewis had said to him at the scene of the incident ‘I am not worried about all this because in a few months I will be doing
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life’. In early January 1988, the Hackney police put in motion the process for the laying of an information before the magistrates with a view to prosecuting Paget-Lewis for driving without due care and attention arising out of the ramming incident.
Between January and March 1988 Paget-Lewis was at various locations, all within England, including his home address where on occasion he received mail. He hired and drove various cars in his adopted name of Osman. On 17 January 1988 he broke into cars at a clay-pigeon shoot near Leeds in Yorkshire and from one of the cars stole a shotgun. This incident was reported to the local police, but it is not suggested that it came to the knowledge of the Metropolitan Police.
By reason of these matters, the statement of claim alleges (reading from para 7.63 of the statement of claim):
‘… by 4th May 1987 at the latest, and from about 4th May 1987 until 8th March 1988 the Hackney police were in possession of sufficient evidence—and would have had yet stronger evidence, including admissions, had they interviewed Paget-Lewis and/or searched his home—
to arrest Paget-Lewis and charge him with criminal damage in relation to the graffiti (referred to in paragraph 7.10 above)
to arrest Paget-Lewis and to charge him with theft and/or burglary in relation to the missing files concerning the Second Plaintiff and Leslie Green (referred to in 7.12 above)
and had Paget-Lewis been so arrested and charged the Hackney police were in possession of sufficient evidence by 4th May 1987 at the latest successfully to oppose bail by reason of all the factors pleaded herein above; and from 4th May 1987 onwards the occurrence of the various incidents pleaded above occurring after 4th May 1987 would have enhanced yet further the likelihood of bail being successfully opposed.’
What then happened was that on 7 March 1988 Paget-Lewis followed the deceased and his family into their flat at 11 pm and shot the deceased and the second plaintiff through the chest, killing the deceased and severely wounding the second plaintiff. About 70 minutes later Paget-Lewis was arrested on the M11 motorway.
The principal particulars of negligence alleged against the second defendant in the statement of claim are as follows: failing to apprehend Paget-Lewis prior to the shootings on 7 March 1988; failing to interview Paget-Lewis (other than in relation to minor road-traffic offences) prior to the shootings on 7 March 1988; failing to search Paget-Lewis’s home prior to the shootings on 7 March 1988; failing prior to the shootings on 7 March 1988 to charge Paget-Lewis with any offence more serious than not possessing an MOT certificate and/or driving without due care and attention; failing to trace Paget-Lewis through car hire company records; and failing, as a direct consequence of that failure, to link the theft of the shotgun on 17 January 1988 with Paget-Lewis.
The first question that arises is whether, on the basis that all the factual material pleaded in the statement of claim is true, it is capable of establishing a duty of care owed towards the deceased and the second plaintiff by the Metropolitan Police.
For that purpose it is necessary to consider Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004. This was a decision on a preliminary point of law. The short facts were that a group of borstal boys were encamped on Brownsea Island under the supervision of prison officers. A number of yachts,
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including one owned by the plaintiff company, were moored nearby. The boys escaped in the night, boarded a yacht with the object of reaching the mainland and, while trying to do so, collided with and damaged the plaintiffs’ yacht. The plaintiffs sued the Home Office alleging that the damage to their yacht was caused by the negligence of the prison officers. The preliminary issue was whether the Home Office or the officers owed any duty of care in tort to the plaintiffs. The House of Lords held that in the particular circumstances a duty of care could arise. Lord Diplock said ([1970] 2 All ER 294 at 334, [1970] AC 1004 at 1070–1071):
‘I should therefore hold that any duty of a borstal officer to use reasonable care to prevent a borstal trainee from escaping from his custody was owed only to persons whom he could reasonably foresee had property situate in the vicinity of the place of detention of the detainee which the detainee was likely to steal or to appropriate and damage in the course of eluding immediate pursuit and recapture.’
This means that the group of persons to whom the duty was owed was limited to the owners of boats moored in the vicinity.
It is necessary to consider next the House of Lords decision in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53. The facts were these. A man called Peter Sutcliffe embarked on a terrifying career of violent crime in West Yorkshire. All his victims were young women. Between 1975 and 1980 he committed 13 murders and 8 attempted murders upon such women. His last victim was a 20-year-old student called Hill whom he murdered in Leeds. Miss Hill’s mother and sole personal representative sued the Chief Constable of West Yorkshire claiming on behalf of Miss Hill’s estate damages on the ground of negligence. The pleadings alleged that it was the duty of the defendant and all officers in his police force to use their best endeavours and exercise all reasonable care and skill to apprehend the perpetrator of the crimes and so protect members of the public who might otherwise be his future victims. A number of matters were relied upon, indicating that the West Yorkshire Police had failed in that duty. They amounted broadly to allegations of failure to collate properly information in possession of the force, pointing to Sutcliffe as a likely suspect.
Lord Keith in his speech in that case considered the earlier decision of the House of Lords in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728 and said ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 241, [1989] AC 53 at 60):
‘It has been said almost too frequently to require repetition that foreseeability of likely harm is not in itself a sufficient test of liability in negligence. Some further ingredient is invariably needed to establish the requisite proximity of relationship between the plaintiff and defendant, and all the circumstances of the case must be carefully considered and analysed in order to ascertain whether such an ingredient is present. The nature of the ingredient will be found to vary in a number of different categories of decided cases. In the Anns case there was held to be sufficient proximity of relationship between the borough and future owners and occupiers of a particular building the foundations of which it was decided to inspect, and there was a close relationship between the borough and the builder who had constructed the foundations.’
Lord Keith then dealt with the Dorset Yacht case and quoted a passage from the speech of Lord Diplock in that case, including the passage which I have
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cited. He then turned to the case before him and said ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 243, [1989] AC 53 at 62):
‘The alleged negligence of the police consists in a failure to discover his identity. But, if there is no general duty of care owed to individual members of the public by the responsible authorities to prevent the escape of a known criminal or to recapture him, there cannot reasonably be imposed on any police force a duty of care similarly owed to identify and apprehend an unknown one. Miss Hill cannot for this purpose be regarded as a person at special risk simply because she was young and female. Where the class of potential victims of a particular habitual criminal is a large one the precise size of it cannot in principle affect the issue. All householders are potential victims of an habitual burglar, and all females those of an habitual rapist. The conclusion must be that although there existed reasonable foreseeability of likely harm to such as Miss Hill if Sutcliffe were not identified and apprehended, there is absent from the case any such ingredient or characteristic as led to the liability of the Home Office in the Dorset Yacht case. Nor is there present any additional characteristic such as might make up the deficiency. The circumstances of the case are therefore not capable of establishing a duty of care owed towards Miss Hill by the West Yorkshire police.’
We were referred to the decision of the Court of Appeal in Alexandrou v Oxford (1990) [1993] 4 All ER 328. The facts of that case were that the plaintiff occupied a retail clothing store at which shop he had installed a burglar alarm system which, when activated, raised the alarm at a police station in Birkenhead. The chief allegations of negligence were that the defendant, his servants or agents were negligent in that they failed once the burglar alarm system was activated at the police station to attend with a reasonable expedition thereafter at the shop and assumed, without any proper inquiry, that the activation of the alarm was a false alarm.
The claim succeeded before the trial judge, who said:
‘There is clearly a special relationship created between the police and the owners of intruder alarm systems which is of a different and closer nature than that between the police and members of the public in general.’
In his judgment Glidewell LJ, in a passage with which Slade and Parker LJJ agreed, quoted those words of the trial judge but went on to say ([1993] 4 All ER 328 at 338):
‘… in my view if there is a duty of care it is owed to a wider group than those to whom the judge referred. It is owed to all members of the public who give information of a suspected crime against themselves or their property. It follows, therefore, that on the facts of this case it is my opinion that there was no such special relationship between the plaintiff and the police as was present in the Dorset Yacht case.’
Returning to the facts of the present case and again on the assumption that they are proved, it seems to me that it can well be said on behalf of the plaintiffs that the second plaintiff and his family were exposed to a risk from Paget-Lewis over and above that of the public at large. In my judgment the plaintiffs have therefore an arguable case that as between the second plaintiff and his family, on the one hand, and the investigating officers, on the other, there existed a very close degree of proximity amounting to a special relationship. I am against Mr
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Freeland for the appellant therefore on what he described as his subsidiary point. His main point concerned public policy. For this point he relied on a later passage in the speech of Lord Keith in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire, with which speech of Lord Brandon, Lord Oliver and Lord Goff agreed. I read from where I previously left off ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 243–244, [1989] AC 53 at 63–64):
‘That is sufficient for the disposal of the appeal. But in my opinion there is another reason why an action for damages in negligence should not lie against the police in circumstances such as those of the present case, and that is public policy. In Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705 at 712, [1988] AC 175 at 193, I expressed the view that the category of cases where the second stage of Lord Wilberforce’s two-stage test in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492 at 498, [1978] AC 728 at 752 might fall to be applied was a limited one, one example of that category being Rondel v Worsley [1967] 3 All ER 993, [1969] 1 AC 191. Application of that second stage is, however, capable of constituting a separate and independent ground for holding that the existence of liability in negligence should not be entertained. Potential existence of such liability may in many instances be in the general public interest, as tending towards the observance of a higher standard of care in the carrying on of various different types of activity. I do not, however, consider that this can be said of police activities. The general sense of public duty which motivates police forces is unlikely to be appreciably reinforced by the imposition of such liability so far as concerns their function in the investigation and suppression of crime. From time to time they make mistakes in the exercise of that function, but it is not to be doubted that they apply their best endeavours to the performance of it. In some instances the imposition of liability may lead to the exercise of a function being carried on in a detrimentally defensive frame of mind. The possibility of this happening in relation to the investigative operations of the police cannot be excluded. Further, it would be reasonable to expect that if potential liability were to be imposed it would be not uncommon for actions to be raised against police forces on the ground that they had failed to catch some criminal as soon as they might have done, with the result that he went on to commit further crimes. While some such actions might involve allegations of a simple and straightforward types of failure, for example that a police officer negligently tripped and fell while pursuing a burglar, others would be likely to enter deeply into the general nature of a police investigation, as indeed the present action would seek to do. The manner of conduct of such an investigation must necessarily involve a variety of decisions to be made on matters of policy and discretion, for example as to which particular line of inquiry is most advantageously to be pursued and what is the most advantageous way to deploy the available resources. Many such decisions would not be regarded by the courts as appropriate to be called in question, yet elaborate investigation of the facts might be necessary to ascertain whether or not this was so. A great deal of police time, trouble and expense might be expected to have to be put into the preparation of the defence to the action and the attendance of witnesses at the trial. The result would be a significant diversion of police manpower and attention from their most important function, that of the suppression of crime. Closed investigations would require to be reopened and retraversed, not with the object of bringing any criminal to justice but to ascertain whether or not they had
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been competently conducted. I therefore consider that Glidewell LJ, in his judgment in the Court of Appeal in the present case, was right to take the view that the police were immune from an action of this kind on grounds similar to those which in Rondel v Worsley were held to render a barrister immune from actions for negligence in his conduct of proceedings in court (see [1987] 1 All ER 1173 at 1183–1184, [1988] QB 60 at 76).’
In his speech Lord Templeman said ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 244–245, [1989] AC 53 at 64–65):
‘The appellant therefore brings these proceedings with the object of obtaining an investigating into the conduct of the West Yorkshire police force so that lives shall not be lost in the future by avoidable delay in the identification and arrest of a murderer. The question for determination in this appeal is whether an action for damages is an appropriate vehicle for investigating the efficiency of a police force. The present action will be confined to narrow albeit perplexing questions, for example whether, discounting hindsight, it should have been obvious to a senior police officer that Sutcliffe was a prime suspect, whether a senior police officer should not have been deceived by an evil hoaxer, whether an officer interviewing Sutcliffe should have been better briefed and whether a report on Sutcliffe should have been given greater attention. The court would have to consider the conduct of each police officer, to decide whether the policeman failed to attain the standard of care of a hypothetical average policeman. The court would have to decide whether an inspector is to be condemned for failing to display the acumen of Sherlock Holmes and whether a constable is to be condemned for being as obtuse as Dr Watson. The appellant will presumably seek evidence, for what it is worth, from retired police inspectors, who would be asked whether they would have been misled by the hoaxer and whether they would have identified Sutcliffe at an earlier stage. At the end of the day the court might or might not find that there had been negligence by one or more members of the police force. But that finding would not help anybody or punish anybody … Moreover, if this action lies, every citizen will be able to require the court to investigate the performance of every policeman. If the policeman concentrates on one crime, he may be accused of neglecting others. If the policeman does not arrest on suspicion a suspect with previous convictions, the police force may be held liable for subsequent crimes. The threat of litigation against a police force would not make a policeman more efficient. The necessity for defending proceedings, successfully or unsuccessfully, would distract the policeman from his duties. This action is in my opinion misconceived and will do more harm than good.’
It is also worth citing two short passages from the judgments in the Court of Appeal in that case. Fox LJ said ([1987] 1 All ER 1173 at 1179, [1988] QB 60 at 69):
‘… it seems to me that the existence of a general duty in the police to suppress crime does not necessarily carry with it a liability to individuals for damage caused to them by criminals whom the police have failed to apprehend in circumstances when it was possible to do so.’
The other passage is in the judgment of Glidewell LJ ([1987] 1 All ER 1173 at 1183, [1988] QB 60 at 75):
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‘If the police were liable to be sued for negligence in the investigation of crime which has allowed the criminal to commit further crimes, it must be expected that actions in this field would not be uncommon. Investigative police work is a matter of judgment, often no doubt dictated by experience or instinct. The threat that a decision, which in the end proved to be wrong, might result in an action for damages would be likely to have an inhibiting effect on the exercise of that judgment.’
In the following case of Alexandrou v Oxford [1993] 4 All ER 328 at 340, to which I have already referred, Glidewell LJ said:
‘In my view the observations of Lord Keith and Lord Templeman in Hill’s case in relation to the effect on the police of their being potentially liable in negligence were general, not limited to the facts of that case.’
I respectfully agree with him.
Mr Freeland submits that the facts in the present case are indistinguishable from those in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire so far as public policy is concerned. Mr Hendy QC, however, argues that there are the following distinctions. First, he says that in the Hill case the culprit had at the relevant time not yet been identified, while here he had. I do not find that a satisfactory distinction. It is one thing for the police to say, ‘We believe that a particular man has committed or has threatened to a commit a crime’, but it is another matter for them to bring it home to him. Here the police were still in the process of gathering evidence against Paget-Lewis which would include evidence of what he said when found and interviewed. Searching for him for that purpose was all part of the investigation.
When one looks at the particulars of negligence one sees, among other things, failure to apprehend him, failure to interview him, failure to search his home, failure to trace him through cars he hired and failure to link the theft of the shotgun with him. These all appear to me to be properly described as failures in investigation. Mr Hendy argues, however, that no further investigation was needed. All the police had to do was arrest him and keep him in custody and thereby suppress the crime that he in fact went on to commit. In fact Lord Keith speaks of the police function ‘in the investigation and suppression of crime’. Mr Hendy says, however, that it is significant that Lord Keith does not refer to ‘investigation or suppression’ and that Lord Templeman does not use the word ‘suppression’ at all. I am afraid I am quite unable to accept that any of that is significant. In particular Lord Templeman is plainly thinking in terms of suppression of crime when he says ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 245, [1989] AC 53 at 65): ‘If the policeman does not arrest on suspicion a suspect with previous convictions, the police force may be held liable for subsequent crimes.' In my judgment investigation of crime is not meant to be narrowly interpreted and suppression includes the prevention of crime.
Secondly, Mr Hendy submits that the ratio of Hill’s case is that policy decisions are protected by public policy immunity but operational decisions are not and that, whereas the failures in Hill’s case were of a policy nature, those in the present case were of an operational nature. In my judgment, such a distinction is not to be supported by the speeches in Hill’s case. Indeed I consider such a dividing line to be utterly artificial and impossible to draw in the present case. I should add that Mr Hendy placed reliance on the judgment of Henry J in the Canadian case of Doe v Metropolitan Toronto (Municipality) Comrs of Police (1989) 58 DLR 396. This does contain material supporting Mr Hendy’s argument, but I do not find it helpful, first, because it seems to me to be directly
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contrary to the reasoning in Hill’s case which is of course binding on us and, secondly, because the principle of public policy has not yet been introduced into the law of Canada.
Mr Hendy’s final point is that, if the class of victim is sufficiently proximate (as he says the victims here were) and sufficiently small, the public policy argument may not apply. I cannot accept this submission. Lord Keith plainly treats public policy as a separate point which is not reached at all unless there is a duty of care. If Mr Hendy were right, public policy would not be a separate argument at all because if a plaintiff were proved to be sufficiently proximate and a member of a sufficiently small class, public policy would not arise.
In giving judgment in the present case, Sir Peter Pain said:
‘Now my view is that the plaintiffs are going to have a distinctly uphill task … But I do not think that there is so obviously no case that it would be right to strike the action out on those grounds.’
I do not take that view. In my judgment the House of Lords decision on public policy in Hill’s case dooms this action to failure as against the second defendant.
As a last resort, Mr Hendy sought to place reliance on the words of Browne-Wilkinson V-C in Lonrho v Tebbit [1991] 4 All ER 973 at 979:
‘A claim should only be struck out in a plain and obvious case. The difficulty arises where, as in the present case, a claim to strike out depends upon the decision of one or more difficult points of law. In such a case, the judge should normally refuse to entertain such a claim to strike out. But, if in a particular case the judge is satisfied that the decision of the point of law at that stage will either avoid the necessity for trial altogether or render the trial substantially easier and cheaper, he can properly determine such difficult point of law on the striking-out application …’
Mr Hendy submitted that the present was a case depending on the decision of one or more difficult points of law and that we should therefore refuse to entertain the claim to strike out. I cannot agree. I consider this a plain and obvious case falling squarely within a House of Lords decision. I would therefore allow the appeal.
BELDAM LJ. I agree that on grounds of public policy the plaintiffs’ claims are not maintainable against the second defendant. For my part I would prefer not to express in an interlocutory appeal an opinion whether the facts set out in the statement of claim are, if proved, sufficient to establish a relationship sufficiently proximate to found a duty of care owed to the plaintiffs by the officers of the second defendant’s force. Therefore for the reasons given by McCowan LJ, accordingly, I agree that this appeal should be allowed.
SIMON BROWN LJ. I too agree that this appeal should be allowed for reasons indicated by McCowan LJ.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
Raina Levy Barrister.
Ancell and another v McDermott and others
[1993] 4 All ER 355
Categories: TORTS; Negligence: CRIMINAL; Police
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): NOURSE, BELDAM LJJ AND SIR JOHN MEGAW
Hearing Date(s): 14 DECEMBER 1992, 29 JANUARY 1993
Police – Negligence – Duty to take care – Dangerous condition of highway – Police having knowledge of hazard on road – No warning given to users of highway – Whether police under duty of care to protect or warn road users.
The first defendant, while driving his car along a road in Bedfordshire at about 5 am, ran over a length of aluminium tube which had fallen from the fourth defendants’ truck and ruptured the fuel tank of his car. He drove on, without stopping to see whether his car had suffered any damage, leaving a trail of diesel fuel on the road behind him. About three-quarters of a mile further along the road he ran out of fuel. A few minutes later officers of the Hertfordshire police in a patrol car noticed the diesel fuel on the road and followed the trail until they came to the first defendant’s stationary car beside the road. The officers stopped and rendered assistance and notified the Bedfordshire police by radio that diesel fuel had been spilt on the road but did not return to the scene of the spillage. At 5.20 am an officer of the Bedfordshire police drove past the scene of the spillage, noticed the presence of diesel fuel on the road and reported the matter to the Bedfordshire highways department. He then continued on his police duties. Ten minutes later the first plaintiff’s wife skidded on the diesel fuel, lost control of her car and collided head-on with an oncoming lorry. The first plaintiff’s wife sustained injuries from which she later died. The first and second plaintiffs, who were passengers in the car, were injured. The plaintiffs brought an action for damages against the first and fourth defendants and also against the chief constables of the Hertfordshire and Bedfordshire police forces alleging as against them that they were liable for the breach of duty and negligence on the part of their officers. The chief constables applied to strike out the claims against them but the judge dismissed their application on the grounds that whether a duty of care existed on the part of the police officers depended on the precise circumstances, including the nature of the hazard, the extent of the danger created and the likelihood of injury and that those matters could only be determined at the trial of the plaintiffs’ action. The chief constables appealed.
Held – The police were under no duty of care to protect road users from, or to warn them of, hazards discovered by the police while going about their duties on the highway, and there was in the circumstances no special relationship between the plaintiffs and the police giving rise to an exceptional duty to prevent harm from dangers created by another. The extreme width and scope of such a duty of care would impose on a police force potential liability of almost unlimited scope, and it would be against public policy because it would divert extensive police resources and manpower from, and hamper the performance of, ordinary police duties. Accordingly, the police officers did not owe the plaintiffs a duty of care in the circumstances. The appeal would be allowed and the action as against the chief constables struck out (see p 365 e to h and p 366 a to d g h, post).
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Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 and dictum of Lord Bridge in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 573–574 applied.
Clough v Bussan (West Yorkshire Police Authority, third party) [1990] 1 All ER 431 approved.
Notes
For negligence in relation to highways and public places, see 34 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 42–53, and for cases on the subject, see 36(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 258–307, 1867–2438.
Cases referred to in judgments
Alexandrou v Oxford [1993] 4 All ER 328, CA.
Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492, [1978] AC 728, [1977] 2 WLR 1024, HL.
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
Clough v Bussan (West Yorkshire Police Authority, third party) [1990] 1 All ER 431.
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Haynes v Harwood [1935] 1 KB 146, [1934] All ER Rep 103, CA.
Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53, [1988] 2 WLR 1049, HL.
Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294, [1970] AC 1004, [1970] 2 WLR 1140, HL.
Indermaur v Dames (1866) LR 1 CP 274; affd (1867) LR 2 CP 311, [1861–73] All ER Rep 15.
Knightley v Johns [1982] 1 All ER 851, [1982] 1 WLR 349, CA.
Lavis v Kent CC (1992) 90 LGR 416, CA.
Lickbarrow v Mason (1787) 2 Term Rep 63, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 1, 100 ER 35.
R v Dytham [1979] 3 All ER 641, [1979] QB 722, [1979] 3 WLR 467, CA.
R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118, [1968] 2 WLR 893, CA.
Rigby v Chief Constable of Northamptonshire [1985] 2 All ER 985, [1985] 1 WLR 1242.
Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330, [1861–73] All ER Rep 1.
Smith v Leurs (1945) 70 CLR 256, Aust HC.
Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 60 ALR 1, Aust HC.
Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705, [1988] AC 175, [1987] 3 WLR 776, PC.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
CBS Songs Ltd v Amstrad Consumer Electronics plc [1988] 2 All ER 484, [1988] AC 1013, HL.
Johnson v Phillips [1975] 3 All ER 682, [1976] 1 WLR 65, DC.
Kirkham v Chief Constable of the Greater Manchester Police [1990] 3 All ER 246, [1990] 2 QB 283, CA.
Lonrho plc v Fayed [1989] 2 All ER 65, [1990] 2 QB 479, CA.
Marshall v Osmond [1983] 2 All ER 225, [1983] QB 1034, CA.
Osman v Ferguson [1993] 4 All ER 344, CA.
Rice v Connolly [1966] 2 All ER 649, [1966] 2 QB 414, DC.
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Appeal
The Chief Constables of the Hertfordshire Constabulary and the Bedfordshire Police, who were the second and third defendants in an action brought by the plaintiffs, Lawrence Raymond Ancell (suing in his personal capacity and also as administrator of the estate of Dawn Patricia Ancell deceased) and Katie Ancell (a minor suing by her father and next friend, the first plaintiff), against the first defendant, Michael James McDermott, the second and third defendants, and the fourth defendant, Alpha Bulk Liquids Ltd, claiming damages for personal injury and damages under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976, appealed from the order of Garland J made on 31 January 1992, whereby he dismissed the chief constables’ applications made pursuant to RSC Ord 18, r 19 that so much of the statement of claim and the amended statement of claim by the plaintiffs as alleged negligence on the part of the chief constables be struck out as disclosing no reasonable cause of action. The facts are set out in the judgment of Beldam LJ.
Bernard Livesey QC and Jeremy Stuart-Smith (instructed by Vizards) for the chief constables.
Piers Ashworth QC and Jonathan Harvey (instructed by Bernard Pearce & Co, Waltham Cross) for the plaintiffs.
The first and fourth defendants did not appear.
Cur adv vult
29 January 1993. The following judgments were delivered.
BELDAM LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Nourse LJ). These proceedings arise out of a road traffic accident which for the purposes of this appeal must be taken to have occurred in the circumstances set out in the plaintiffs’ statement of claim. The relevant events took place in the early hours of the morning of 17 August 1988 when the fourth defendant’s articulated bulk carrier was being driven in Airport Way, Luton, Bedfordshire. As it approached the roundabout junction with Gypsy Lane, a length of aluminium tube used as a flushing coupling fell from it into the road. Later that morning at about 5 am the first defendant was driving his Ford motor car along the road. He failed to see the flushing coupling, or at any rate failed to avoid it, and ran over it, rupturing the fuel tank of his car, which contained diesel fuel. He drove on without stopping to see whether his car had suffered any damage. About three-quarters of a mile further along the road he ran out of fuel leaving a trail of diesel fuel on the road behind him. A few minutes later a police patrol car crewed by officers from the Hertfordshire Constabulary noticed the diesel fuel on the road and followed the trail until they came upon the Ford car out of fuel and stationary beside the road. The two officers stopped and rendered assistance. By radio they notified the Bedfordshire Police that diesel fuel had been spilt upon the road. They did not return to the roundabout junction.
At 5.20 am an officer of the Bedfordshire police force drove past the scene of the spillage, noticed the presence of diesel fuel on the road and reported the matter to the Bedfordshire highways department. He then continued upon his police duties. About ten minutes later the first plaintiff’s wife driving a Morris motor car in Airport Way skidded on the diesel fuel, lost control and collided head-on with an oncoming lorry. It was a serious collision. The first plaintiff’s wife sustained injury from which she died on the following day. The first
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plaintiff himself was injured, as was the second plaintiff, who was travelling in the car.
The first plaintiff on behalf of himself and the dependants of the deceased claims damages under the Fatal Accidents Acts. In addition to claims made against the first defendant and the fourth defendant in negligence and nuisance, the plaintiffs seek redress against the second and third defendants. If the facts stated are established, it might seem unlikely that the plaintiffs would be without remedy against one or other of those who between them created the peril to free passage of the highway, but the plaintiffs’ advisers, no doubt anxious in so serious a case to leave no remedy unexplored, have in addition claimed that the second and third defendants are liable for breach of duty and negligence of their officers. Faced with these claims, the chief constables applied to the court under RSC Ord 18, r 19, to strike them out as disclosing no reasonable cause of action. The applications were heard by Garland J on 31 January 1992. He rejected the applications and the chief constables now appeal to this court.
The chief constables’ submissions to Garland J were that, accepting as proved the allegations made in the statement of claim, officers of a police force going about their duties on the highway owed no duty of care to protect other road users by warning or otherwise from hazards on the highway which they have not created or for which they are not responsible. The chief constables relied on the decision of Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53 and on the decision of this court in Alexandrou v Oxford [1993] 4 All ER 328. In addition, the chief constables contended, relying on the second ground upon which the plaintiff’s claim in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire was rejected, that it would be contrary to public policy to hold police officers under any such duty as that alleged by the plaintiffs.
The learned judge considered a number of authorities cited to him and to which we too have been referred. In dismissing the chief constables’ applications he said:
‘But, in my view, this case which I am called upon to determine falls in the grey area, and I take the view that it should be tried so that the facts can be ascertained and the arguments as to the existence or non-existence of a duty based on fact. My answer to the proposition posed by Mr Livesey QC [counsel for the chief constables], and I am grateful to him for encapsulating the essence of the case so neatly, would be simply this: it may be so, depending on the precise circumstances, including the nature of the hazard, the extent of the danger created and the likelihood of injury. I would therefore dismiss this summons.’
Whilst the learned judge is correct in saying that in many cases the question whether a person whose activities create a potential hazard owes a duty to take care for the safety of others may depend upon the extent of the danger created and the likelihood of injury, he was I think wrong to regard those factors as of significance to the chief constables’ applications in the present case. The chief constables accepted before the judge and before this court that their application is based on the assumption that the facts alleged against them in the statement of claim are proved. Thus it must be taken to be established that the police officers driving along Airport Way in the course of their ordinary police duties passed the place in the road where diesel fuel had been spilt and that the officers of the Hertfordshire police noted its presence, drove on until they came upon
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the Ford car and did not return to the scene of the spillage. The Bedfordshire police constable driving his police car also noticed the diesel fuel on the road surface but did not remain at the site of the spillage. It must be taken to be proved that the diesel fuel on the surface of the road was a source of danger to drivers using the highway in a foreseeable manner and that the collision between the Morris car driven by the deceased and the oncoming motor lorry was caused by the presence of the diesel fuel. Further, it must be accepted that the police officers took no steps to warn traffic of the presence of the diesel fuel, or that the road surface was hazardous and took no steps to control traffic at that spot. The chief constables’ application based on the acceptance of those facts did not depend upon circumstances which might or might not be proved establishing the extent of the peril but upon whether the circumstances alleged and taken to be proved established a duty to take care owed to the plaintiffs. The question was not whether the police officers in the circumstances found to obtain in this particular case owed a duty to the plaintiffs, but whether in any circumstances of the kind pleaded a police constable owes a duty to other drivers to protect them from, or to warn them against, hazards created by others in the road.
Mr Ashworth QC sought to support the judge’s decision that the application to strike out was premature until the facts had been fully investigated by the decision of Lavis v Kent CC (1992) 90 LGR 416. The plaintiff had received serious injuries whilst riding his motor cycle at a road junction for which the defendants were responsible. He alleged that they were liable to him for failing to ensure that proper warning signs were placed at the approach to the junction. The defendants were empowered to place such signs, but not under a duty to do so. They applied to strike out the plaintiff’s claim as disclosing no cause of action. This court declined to do so on the ground that the plaintiff had pleaded his case widely enough to cover a potential vicarious liability of the defendant council for ‘operational’ failure by the defendants’ employees to carry out a policy decision and accordingly until the position was clarified the court was unable to say that no cause of action was disclosed. The case is clearly distinguishable on that ground.
The chief constables’ submissions in this case were founded on the decision in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238 at 240–241, [1989] AC 53 at 59. The facts of the case are too well known to need repetition. Lord Keith said:
‘The question of law which is opened up by the case is whether the individual members of a police force, in the course of carrying out their functions of controlling and keeping down the incidence of crime, owe a duty of care to individual members of the public who may suffer injury to person or property through the activities of criminals, such as to result in liability in damages, on the ground of negligence, to anyone who suffers such injury by reason of breach of that duty. There is no question that a police officer, like anyone else, may be liable in tort to a person who is injured as a direct result of his acts or omissions. So he may be liable in damages for assault, unlawful arrest, wrongful imprisonment and malicious prosecution, and also for negligence. Instances where liability for negligence has been established are Knightley v Johns [1982] 1 All ER 851, [1982] 1 WLR 349 and Rigby v Chief Constable of Northamptonshire [1985] 2 All ER 985, [1985] 1 WLR 1242. Further, a police officer may be guilty of a criminal offence if he wilfully fails to perform a duty which he is bound to
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perform by common law or by statute: see R v Dytham [1979] 3 All ER 641, [1979] QB 722, where a constable was convicted of wilful neglect of duty because, being present at the scene of a violent assault resulting in the death of the victim, he had taken no steps to intervene. By common law police officers owe to the general public a duty to enforce the criminal law: see R v Metropolitan Police Comr, ex p Blackburn [1968] 1 All ER 763, [1968] 2 QB 118. That duty may be enforced by mandamus, at the instance of one having title to sue. But as that case shows, a chief officer of police has a wide discretion as to the manner in which the duty is discharged. It is for him to decide how available resources should be deployed, whether particular lines of inquiry should or should not be followed and even whether or not certain crimes should be prosecuted. It is only if his decision on such matters is such as no reasonable chief officer of police would arrive at that someone with an interest to do so may be in a position to have recourse to judicial review. So the common law, while laying on chief officers of police an obligation to enforce the law, makes no specific requirements as to the manner in which the obligation is to be discharged. That is not a situation where there can readily be inferred an intention of the common law to create a duty towards individual members of the public.’
After referring to the appellant’s argument, Lord Keith continued ([1988] 2 All ER 238 at 241, [1989] AC 53 at 60):
‘The foundation of the duty of care was said to be reasonable foreseeability of harm to potential future victims if Sutcliffe were not promptly apprehended. Lord Atkin’s classic propositions in Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562 at 580, [1932] All ER Rep 1 at 11 were prayed in aid, as was Lord Wilberforce’s well-known two stage test of liability in negligence in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492 at 498, [1978] AC 728 at 751–752. It has been said almost too frequently to require repetition that foreseeability of likely harm is not in itself a sufficient test of liability in negligence. Some further ingredient is invariably needed to establish the requisite proximity of relationship between plaintiff and defendant, and all the circumstances of the case must be carefully considered and analysed in order to ascertain whether such an ingredient is present. The nature of the ingredient will be found to vary in a number of different categories of decided cases. In the Anns case there was held to be sufficient proximity of relationship between the borough and future owners and occupiers of a particular building the foundations of which it was decided to inspect, and there was also a close relationship between the borough and the builder who had constructed the foundations. In Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294 at 326, [1970] AC 1004 at 1060 Lord Diplock said of Lord Atkin’s proposition: “Used as a guide to characteristics which will be found to exist in conduct and relationships which give rise to a legal duty of care this aphorism marks a milestone in the modern development of the law of negligence. But misused as a universal it is manifestly false.” Earlier, he had said ([1970] 2 All ER 294 at 324, [1970] AC 1004 at 1060 at 1058): “… the judicial development of the law of negligence rightly proceeds by seeking first to identify the relevant characteristics that are common to the kinds of conduct and relationship between the parties which are involved in the
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case for decision and the kinds of conduct and relationships which have been held in previous decisions of the courts to give rise to a duty of care.” ’
Not unnaturally Mr Ashworth for the plaintiffs stressed that Lord Keith had been careful to confine the question of law opened up to whether members of a police force owed a duty to members of the public in the course of carrying out their functions of controlling and keeping down the incidence of crime.
Alexandrou v Oxford (1990) [1993] 4 All ER 328, on which the chief constables also relied, was likewise a case of failure to carry out proper investigations which would have prevented a burglary after the burglars had set off the burglar alarm.
Mr Ashworth accepted that in similar circumstances a member of the public driving upon the highway would not owe a duty of care to other users of the highway to guard them against perils created by others. In the passage in the judgment of Lord Diplock in Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 294 at 326, [1970] AC 1004 at 1060 quoted by Lord Keith in Hill’s case, Lord Diplock continued:
‘The branch of English law which deals with civil wrongs abounds with instances of acts and, more particularly, of omissions which give rise to no legal liability in the doer or omitter for loss or damage sustained by others as a consequence of the act or omission, however reasonably or probably that loss or damage might have been anticipated. The very parable of the good Samaritan (Luke 10: 30) which was evoked by Lord Atkin in Donoghue v Stevenson illustrates, in the conduct of the priest and of the Levite who passed by on the other side, an omission which was likely to have as its reasonable and probable consequence damage to the health of the victim of the thieves, but for which the priest and Levite would have incurred no civil liability in English law. Examples could be multiplied.’
Consequently Mr Ashworth founded his argument for a duty of care on the ‘duty’ of police constables generally to guard the public from injury and from damage to or loss of property. He submitted that this court in Haynes v Harwood [1935] 1 KB 146, [1934] All ER Rep 103 had confirmed the existence of such a duty. In that case the plaintiff, a police constable, claimed damages from the defendant for injuries he had sustained in attempting to stop the defendant’s horses which had bolted after being left unattended by the defendant’s servant. The question of the police officer’s ‘duty’ arose only because the defendant had contended that the plaintiff had voluntarily assumed the risk of injury in acting as he did. Rejecting this argument, Maugham LJ said ([1935] 1 KB 146 at 161–162, [1934] All ER Rep 103 at 110):
‘In my opinion the police constable was not in any true sense a volunteer. It is true that he was under no positive legal duty to run out into the street and at the risk of his life to stop two galloping horses; and I quite accept that nobody would have thought of reprimanding him if he had done nothing. It is also true that the primary duty of the police is the prevention of crime and the arrest of criminals; but that is only a part of the duties of the police in London. There is a general duty to protect the life and property of the inhabitants; there is a discretionary duty to direct the traffic, to help blind and infirm people to cross the road, and to direct people who have lost their way … In my opinion they are not mere lookers-on when an accident takes place, or seems likely to take place; they have, I think, a discretionary duty
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to prevent an accident arising from the presence of uncontrolled forces in the street, if they are in a position to do so.’
Mr Ashworth pointed also to the judgment of Roche LJ where he said ([1935] 1 KB 146 at 166–167, [1934] All ER Rep 103 at 112):
‘All the plaintiff knew was that two heavy cart-horses attached to a large van were running away in a crowded street, and that at any rate one woman and a number of children were in great peril; moved, as I think, by a duty both legal and moral—and, I respectfully agree with everything which fell from Maugham L.J. in regard to the duties and position of the police—moved by such a duty, and not from any choice involving a consent to take any risk upon himself, the plaintiff acted and sustained his injuries.’
The use by Maugham LJ with the concurrence of Roche LJ of the phrases ‘no positive legal duty’, ‘nobody would have thought of reprimanding him if he had done nothing’, and ‘discretionary duty’ shows clearly that he was referring to the public duties attaching to the office of police constable rather than to any duty of care owed to an individual to be inferred from acceptance of the responsibilities of that office.
Although the court referred to ‘duties’ and ‘legal duties’, the words were used in an entirely different context. The same is true of R v Dytham [1979] 3 All ER 641, [1979] QB 722, on which Mr Ashworth also relied. The Court of Appeal, Criminal Division had to consider an appeal by a police officer against his conviction for misconduct in public office for standing by and watching a man beaten and kicked to death outside a nightclub. The court’s judgment written by Shaw LJ included the statement from Stephen’s Digest of the Criminal Law (9th edn, 1950) pp 114–115, art 145:
‘Every public officer commits a misdemeanour who wilfully neglects to perform any duty which he is bound either by common law or by statute to perform provided that the discharge of such duty is not attended with greater danger than a man of ordinary firmness and activity may be expected to encounter.’
The word ‘duty’ used in the context of those two cases does not assist to determine whether the failure to perform such a duty in the public interest can give rise to a cause of action for breach of a duty to take care in the interest of an individual.
Police officers undertake duties and are granted powers to enable them to perform their principal functions of keeping the peace and of preventing and investigating crime. Many of their powers are given to prevent actions necessary in the performance of the duties from amounting to civil wrongs. For example, to permit them to perform lawfully acts which would otherwise constitute a trespass to the person or to property. As Professor Maitland pointed out in The Constitutional History of England (1908) p 489, Parliament has a propensity generally to heap other powers and duties upon police constables, for example empowering them to enter public houses to detect violations of the Licensing Acts, and even in those days he said: ‘Examples might be indefinitely multiplied.' The heaping of other powers and duties on police officers has since continued apace, in particular in the sphere of traffic regulation and the investigation of traffic offences.
The general statement that police officers are under a duty to protect the public from injury and from loss of or damage to property does not serve to
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distinguish the activities of the Hertfordshire and Bedfordshire officers in the present case from those of the officers in South Yorkshire in Hill’s case, or of the officers of the Merseyside police in Alexandrou v Oxford.
Mr Ashworth also referred us to Knightley v Johns [1982] 1 All ER 851, [1982] 1 WLR 349, pointing out that Lord Keith had referred to it as an instance where liability for negligence had been established without questioning the existence of a duty on the part of the police officers concerned. The facts are significant. The claim was for damages for personal injuries arising out of a road traffic accident. One of the defendants driving through an underpass in Birmingham had overturned his car near a bend in the road in the underpass. Because of the importance of the thoroughfare, standing police orders provided that in the event of an accident within the underpass the first action to be taken was to close the road to traffic. Police officers were quickly on the scene, including a senior police officer and two police motor cyclists. Without closing the underpass, the senior police officer directed the two motor cyclists to ride back to the entrance of the underpass against the flow of traffic on that carriageway. On rounding the bend one of them, the plaintiff, came into collision with a car which had entered the underpass. At first instance liability for the accident had been laid at the door of the driver whose vehicle had overturned in the underpass. He appealed and his appeal was allowed, the court finding that responsibility for the police motor cyclist’s injuries lay with the senior police officer. The basis of the court’s finding is given in the judgment of Stephenson LJ ([1982] 1 All ER 851 at 858, [1982] 1 WLR 349 at 357):
‘The inspector may have had some justification for ordering or allowing the plaintiff and Pc Easthope to disobey [the standing police order for road accidents or vehicle breakdowns in the Queensway tunnel]. He may have had some justification for not putting [his explanation] before the court from the witness box. But without any explanation why he did not close the tunnel and what he meant by saying he had forgotten to close it, or why the plaintiff should say that if the inspector had not in fact said it, he must, I think, be judged on the evidence which was given. That satisfies me that he was negligent in not closing the tunnel and in ordering or allowing his subordinates to do a very dangerous thing contrary to standing orders.’
The senior police officer was found to blame, not simply because he failed to close the underpass but, having failed to close it, because he directed the police motor cyclists to ride back against the flow of traffic which could then enter the tunnel. The circumstances of that case provided an ample basis for a finding that the senior officer’s relationship with the police motor cyclist was sufficiently close to justify a finding that he owed a duty of care to his subordinate. That case does not help to solve the question we have to decide.
Since the present case is founded on the failure of the police officers to take care to prevent harm to the plaintiffs from the primary fault of others, reliance was placed on the decision in Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co Ltd. There detainees in the custody of the defendants had been allowed to escape and had subsequently caused damage to the plaintiff’s yachts. The House of Lords held that the Home Office owed a duty of care to the owners of the yachts. That, Mr Ashworth argued, was based on a public duty to confine the detainee which the Home Office had failed to perform. It was an instance of a duty to take care being founded on the failure to perform a public duty, and only a small
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extension of the principle of proximity would be required to hold that the police officers owed a duty of care in the present case.
Developments in the law of negligence have qualified proximity as the guiding principle on which to extend liability by recognition of a new duty situation. Recent decisions suggest an incremental approach involving what is fair, just and reasonable as well as the concept of proximity.
In his speech in the Dorset Yacht case[1970] 2 All ER 294 at 325, [1970] AC 1004 at 1059 Lord Diplock said:
‘But since ex hypothesi the kind of case which we are now considering offers a choice whether or not to extend the kinds of conduct or relationships which give rise to a duty of care, the conduct or relationship which is involved in it will lack at least one of the characteristics A, B, C or D etc. And the choice is exercised by making a policy decision whether or not a duty of care ought to exist if the characteristic which is lacking were absent or redefined in terms broad enough to include the case under consideration. The policy decision will be influenced by the same general conception of what ought to give rise to a duty of care as was used in approaching the analysis. The choice to extend is given effect to by redefining the characteristics in more general terms so as to exclude the necessity to conform to limitations imposed by the former definition which are considered to be inessential. The cases which are landmarks in the common law, such as Lickbarrow v Mason (1787) 2 Term Rep 63, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 1, Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330, [1871–73] All ER Rep 1, Indermaur v Dames (1866) LR 1 CP 274, [1861–73] All ER Rep 15, Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, to mention but a few, are instances of cases where the cumulative experience of judges has led to a restatement in wide general terms of characteristics of conduct and relationships which give rise to legal liability.’
The two-stage approach to the question of the existence of a duty of care formulated by Lord Wilberforce in the well-known passage from his speech in Anns v Merton London Borough [1977] 2 All ER 492 at 498, [1978] AC 728 at 751–752 came to be regarded as a universal principle upon which in any given case a duty of care might be found to exist. But as Lord Bridge pointed out in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 573, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 617 more recently decisions of the Privy Council and the House of Lords have emphasised the inability of a single general principle to provide a practical test which can be applied to every situation to determine whether a duty of care is owed and, if so, what is its scope. After referring to recent decisions, including Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire, Lord Bridge said ([1990] 1 All ER 568 at 573–574, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 617–618):
‘What emerges is that, in addition to the foreseeability of damage, necessary ingredients in any situation giving rise to a duty of care are that there should exist between the party owing the duty and the party to whom it is owed a relationship characterised by the law as one of “proximity” or “neighbourhood” and that the situation should be one in which the court considers it fair, just and reasonable that the law should impose a duty of a given scope on the one party for the benefit of the other. But it is implicit in the passages referred to that the concepts of proximity and fairness embodied in these additional ingredients are not susceptible of any such precise definition as would be necessary to give them utility as practical
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tests, but amount in effect to little more than convenient labels to attach to the features of different specific situations which, on a detailed examination of all the circumstances, the law recognises pragmatically as giving rise to a duty of care of a given scope. Whilst recognising, of course, the importance of the underlying general principles common to the whole field of negligence, I think the law has now moved in the direction of attaching greater significance to the more traditional categorisation of distinct and recognisable situations as guides to the existence, the scope and the limits of the varied duties of care which the law imposes. We must now, I think, recognise the wisdom of the words of Brennan J in the High Court of Australia in Sutherland Shire Council v Heyman (1985) 60 ALR 1 at 43–44, where he said: “It is preferable, in my view, that the law should develop novel categories of negligence incrementally and by analogy with established categories, rather than by a massive extension of a prima facie duty of care restrained only by indefinable ‘considerations which ought to negative, or to reduce or limit the scope of the duty or the class of person to whom it is owed’.”’
I approach the question of the existence of a duty of care in the present case with these considerations in mind. Firstly, as Lord Keith pointed out in Yuen Kun-yeu v A-G of Hong Kong [1987] 2 All ER 705 at 711, [1988] AC 175 at 192, there was clearly a special relationship between the prison officers and the owners of the yachts so close and direct that a duty to take reasonable care to prevent damage to the yachts arose. But, as his citation from the judgment of Dixon J in Smith v Leurs (1945) 70 CLR 256 at 261–262 shows, it is exceptional to find in the law a duty to control another’s actions to prevent harm to strangers and where they are found they arise from special relationships. When it is contended that such special relationship arises out of duties carried out in the performance of a public office, the court must have regard to the purpose and scope of the public duties, whether they are intended to benefit a particular section of the public, eg investors or depositors, and whether such persons could reasonably place reliance on the fulfilment of the duties.
Secondly, such a duty of care would impose upon a police force potential liability of almost unlimited scope. Not only would the class of persons to whom the duty was owed be extensive, but the activities of police officers which might give rise to the existence of such a duty would be widespread. The constable on the beat who failed to notice a danger on the pavement or noticed it but dismissed it as insufficiently serious to warrant his attention, the officer who searched for but failed to find property when he might have done or the officer who misinterpreted a breathalyser reading might all be said to come under liability to anyone who could show that they suffered injury or loss as a result of his failure. Further, I am not persuaded that there is any sufficient distinction from the reasoning which led the House of Lords to reject the existence of a duty in Hill’s case to justify the imposition of a duty to act in the circumstances of the present case.
I find this conclusion supported by the decision of Kennedy J in Clough v Bussan (West Yorkshire Police Authority, third party) [1990] 1 All ER 431, a case in which an attempt was made to impose liability on the police authority for failing to respond to information that traffic signals were out of order at a junction where a road accident subsequently occurred. Kennedy J struck out the defendant’s claim in the third party proceedings as disclosing no cause of action.
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Mr Livesey also based his application on the public policy considerations which formed the second ground of the rejection of the plaintiff’s claim in Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire: viz that to hold that the defendant owed such a duty would serve no useful purpose in advancing the general public interest, it would give rise to extensive investigation into the manner in which the police carried out their duties, would lead to many actions being brought against the police, which would cause much time, trouble and expense to be devoted to preparation of the defence and the attendance of witnesses at the trial. In my view these considerations apply with equal force in the present case. I have already indicated the extreme width and scope of the duty to take care contended for by the plaintiffs. The diversion of police resources and manpower if such a duty were held to exist would, in my judgment, extensively hamper the performance of ordinary police duties and create a formidable diversion of police manpower. I would accordingly hold that the police officers did not owe the plaintiffs a duty of care in the circumstances of this case and for the reasons given would allow the appeal.
SIR JOHN MEGAW. I agree that this appeal should be allowed. I agree with the reasons given by Beldam LJ.
In Hill v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire [1988] 2 All ER 238, [1989] AC 53 it was held by the House of Lords that there was no cause of action against the defendant for damages for alleged negligence in the conduct by the West Yorkshire police of a criminal investigation. The facts which had to be hypothetically assumed for the purpose of the striking out application were that the police investigation of a series of murders had been carried out without a reasonable degree of care; that, if such care had been exercised, the murderer would have been identified and arrested earlier than was in fact achieved; and that the result would have been that the plaintiff’s daughter, the last victim, would not have been killed. It was accepted that, by common law, police officers owe to the general public—the public at large—a duty to enforce the criminal law. But it was held that that duty was not a duty owed to individual members of the public.
That being the position regarding criminal investigation by the police, where the duty owed to the general public rests exclusively on the police, I can see no valid reason for holding that a more extensive duty exists—a duty owed to individual members of the public—in respect of a sphere of public duty where the primary duty—maintaining the safety of the highways—rests on public authorities other than the police.
NOURSE LJ. I agree with both judgments.
Appeal allowed. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords refused.
19 July. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Griffiths and Lord Mustill) refused leave to appeal.
Sophie Craven Barrister.
Estates Gazette Ltd v Benjamin Restaurants Ltd and another
[1993] 4 All ER 367
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): JUDGE ZUCKER QC SITTING AS A JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 25 MAY 1993
Landlord and tenant – Assignment of lease – Obligation to pay rent – Assignee further assigning lease with licence of landlord – Express covenant by assignee to pay rent reserved by lease at time and in manner therein provided for – Liability of assignee after further assignment – Landlord claiming unpaid rent from assignee and surety ten years after further assignment of lease – Whether assignee and surety liable for rent after further assignment of lease.
By a lease made on 17 January 1977 the plaintiff granted a tenancy of freehold commercial land and premises for a term of 20 years from 16 October 1976 at an initial rent of £4,500 payable quarterly and subject to provisions for review. By a deed made on 6 October 1980 between the plaintiff, the existing tenant, a new tenant (the assignee) and a surety of the assignee, the plaintiff at the request of the other parties granted the existing tenant a licence to assign the premises to the assignee. The deed contained a covenant by the assignee ‘to pay the rents reserved by the Lease at the time and in manner therein provided for’. On 25 April 1983 the assignee lawfully assigned the lease. In January 1993, some ten years after the assignee had assigned the lease, the plaintiff claimed from both the assignee and the surety rent which had fallen due under the lease and which had not been paid by the current tenant. When the assignee refused to pay the plaintiff issued a writ and applied for summary judgment under RSC Ord 14. The master refused the defendants leave to defend the Ord 14 summons. The defendants appealed.
Held – A covenant by the assignee in a licence to assign a lease that he would ‘pay the rents reserved by the lease at the time and in manner therein provided for’ without an express covenant to make the assignee’s liability extend to breaches committed after further assignment by him, eg by adding the words ‘during the residue of the term’ or ‘during the remainder of the term’, was ineffective to make the assignee liable for rent becoming due after further assignment by him. It followed that neither the assignee nor the surety was liable to pay the rent claimed by the plaintiff since all the sums so claimed had fallen due after further assignment by the assignee. The appeal would therefore be allowed and the defendants granted unconditional leave to defend (see p 370 f g, p 371 a to d and p 372 f g, post).
Notes
For the liability of an assignee of a lease after further assignment, see 27 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 395, and for cases on the subject, see 31(3) Digest (2nd reissue) 47–50, 9097–9127.
Case referred to in judgment
Allied London Investments Ltd v Hambro Life Assurance Ltd (1984) 270 EG 948.
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Interlocutory appeal
By a writ issued on 5 February 1993 the plaintiff, Estates Gazette Ltd, claimed as against the first and second defendants, Benjamin Restaurants Ltd and Kenneth Benjamin, the sum of £49,937·50 as arrears of rent and value added tax thereon and £6,464·51 as interest, pursuant to a covenant under a deed of licence dated 6 October 1980 to assign a lease dated 17 January 1977 under which the first defendant as the assignee of the lease covenanted to pay the rent and to observe and perform the covenants on the lessee’s part and the conditions therein contained and the second defendant as the surety covenanted in case of any default or non-observance of the covenants by the first defendant to pay and to make good to the plaintiff as landlord on demand all losses and damages thereby arising or incurred by the plaintiff. On 5 April 1993 Mr Alan Cooper sitting as a deputy master of the Queen’s Bench Division after hearing an application by the plaintiff for judgment under RSC Ord 14 gave judgment for the plaintiff for £27,645·71 as arrears of rent, £4,838 as value added tax and £7,560·53 as interest. The defendants appealed from the order of the master to a judge in chambers. The appeal was heard and judgment was given in chambers. The case is reported by permission of Judge Zucker QC. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Edward Denehan (instructed by Manches & Co, Oxford) for the plaintiff.
Norman Primost (instructed by Peter Gillis & Co) for the defendants.
JUDGE ZUCKER QC. On 5 April 1993 Mr Alan Cooper sitting as a deputy master of the Queen’s Bench Division gave judgment for the plaintiff, Estates Gazette Ltd, in the sum of £40,044·24. That sum included the following elements: £27,645·71 arrears of rent, £4,838 value added tax and £7,560·53 interest. He had refused the defendants, Benjamin Restaurants Ltd and Kenneth Benjamin leave to defend in RSC Ord 14 proceedings. By notice dated 7 April 1993 the defendants appealed against that decision of the master.
The history of this matter begins with a lease made on 17 January 1977 between the plaintiff of the first part, Sandwich Scene Ltd of the second part and Monty Bloom of the third part. By the lease the plaintiff demised to Sandwich Scene Ltd the freehold land and premises situate at 155 Wardour Street, London W1 for a term of 20 years from 16 October 1976 at an initial rent of £4,500, subject to provisions for review, payable by equal quarterly instalments in advance on each of the four usual quarter days, subject to the covenants and conditions therein contained.
Clause 2 of the lease contains the lessee’s covenants:
‘The Lessee for itself and its successors in title and assigns HEREBY COVENANTS with the Lessor in manner following that is to say: (1) To pay the rent hereinbefore reserved at the times and in manner aforesaid and also to pay and discharge all rates taxes charges duties assessments impositions and outgoings whatsoever whether parliamentary parochial local or of any other description which now are or which may at any time during the term be payable either by the owner or occupier in respect of the premises.’
By a deed made 6 October 1980 between the plaintiff of the first part, Sandwich Scene Ltd of the second part, Benjamin Restaurants (therein called
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‘the assignee’) of the third part and Kenneth Benjamin (therein called ‘the surety’) of the fourth part it was provided:
‘1. The landlord at the request of the tenant, the Assignee and the Surety in consideration of the covenants on the part of the Assignee and the Surety hereinafter contained hereby grants to the Tenant Licence to Assign to the Assignee the premises comprising the shop known as no. 155 Wardour Street, London, W1, on the ground floor of the building known as no. 151/155 Wardour Street aforesaid being the premises comprised in and demised by a Lease [that is the lease I have already referred to] dated the 17th day of January 1977 and made between the Landlord of the first part, the Tenant of the second part and Monty Bloom of the third part for the residue of the term of years thereby granted …
2. In consideration of the Licence hereinbefore contained having been granted the Assignee hereby covenants with the Landlord to pay the rents reserved by the Lease at the time and in manner therein provided for and to observe and perform the covenants on the Lessee’s part and the conditions therein contained.
3. In consideration of the Licence hereinbefore contained having been granted at his request the Surety hereby covenants with the landlord as follows: (1) That the Assignee will pay the rents reserved by the Lease at the time and in manner therein provided for and will observe and perform all the covenants on the Lessee’s part and the conditions therein contained and that in case of default in such payments of rent or in the observance or performance of such covenants and conditions as aforesaid the Surety will pay and make good to the Landlord on demand all losses damages costs and expenses thereby arising or incurred by the Landlord …’
On 25 April 1983 the first defendant lawfully assigned the said lease. In January 1993, some ten years after the assignee had assigned the lease, the plaintiff claimed from both defendants rent which had fallen due under the lease and which had not been paid. The letters by which they did so are in like terms and are dated 27 January 1993. Those letters contain the following paragraph:
‘We regret to inform you that the rent payable under the lease is in arrears in respect of the five quarterly instalments due between 29th September 1991 and 29th December 1992 inclusive and that there is accordingly a total sum outstanding and due to our clients of £49,937·50 inclusive of V.A.T..’
Neither defendant paid any part of the sum so demanded of them.
On 5 February 1993 the plaintiff issued its writ in this matter, and it duly claimed from each defendant, the first defendant as its assignee and the second defendant as surety, £49,937·50 and a further £6,464·51 by way of interest pursuant to s 35A of the Supreme Court Act 1981 at the rate of 15% per annum. On 23 February 1993 the plaintiff issued its summons against both defendants under Ord 14. By the time that the matter came before the master the sums which the plaintiff was claiming had been revised downwards because of payment that had been made to them by the person actually holding the term with the result that when he came to give judgment the master did so in the figures that I have already set out.
The main point taken by the defendants is set out in paras 10 and 11 of the defence:
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‘10. The Defendants will say that on the true construction of the deed referred to in paragraph 5 of the Statement of Claim under which the licence for assignment of the Lease was given the First and Second Defendants entered into direct covenants with the Plaintiff for performance of the covenants in the Lease for so long as the First Defendant was the assignee of the Lease and that it was the First Defendant’s obligations as assignee which the Second Defendant covenanted the First Defendants would perform and observe. The Defendants did not covenant that the First Defendants should observe and perform the covenants in the Lease during the remainder of the term created by the Lease.
11. The First Defendants became lessees of the said premises at 155 Wardour Street, London, W.1 on 7th October 1980 and remained lessees of the said premises until 25th April 1983 when the First Defendants assigned the said lease. The First Defendants ceased to be liable for performance and observance of the covenants in the lease after 25th April 1983. Likewise the Second Defendant, whose liability was dependent upon the primary liability of the First Defendants ceased to be liable for the performance and observance of the covenants in the lease after 25th April 1983.’
This case raises an interesting point of construction upon which I have heard detailed argument by Mr Primost for the defendants and Mr Denehan for the plaintiff. The general propositions of law are well known and are set out in Woodfall Landlord and Tenant vol 1, para 16.057, p 16/31:
‘The assignee is liable for breaches of covenant happening after the assignment to him, although he has not taken actual possession; and for breaches which occur before any assignment over by him, or by express covenant for breaches happening before assignment. The assignee’s liability to the landlord may be enlarged by covenant (e.g. in a licence to assign) so as to extend to breaches committed after further assignment.’
It requires an express covenant to make an assignee’s liability extend to breaches committed after further assignment by him. The argument for the plaintiff is that the words in cl 2 of the licence to assign, ‘The assignee hereby covenants with the landlord to pay the rents reserved by the lease at the time and in manner therein provided for’ are clear and unambiguous, and as the lessee has to observe the covenant to pay rent throughout the term so must the assignee.
Mr Primost says that conveyancing precedents invariably use the words ‘during the residue of the term’ or ‘during the remainder of the term’, and he refers me to 23 Forms & Precedents (5th edn) Form 76 [1428] where a covenant in a licence to assign is given which contains these words:
‘The Assignee covenants with the Landlord that as from the date when the Tenant’s estate and interest in the Lease are assigned to him pursuant to the licence contained in clause 3 above and during the residue of the Term he will pay the rent reserved by [it] ...’
There is a covenant in similar terms in Kelly’s Draftsman (15th edn, 1986) p 437. Mr Primost contends that the words used in those drafts or similar words are missing in this case, and it follows that the assignee is only liable while he holds the term.
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I start from the proposition that the assignee is only liable to the lessor by reason of privity of contract, and that it requires express words to make him liable beyond the time when he holds the term. I accept Mr Denehan’s argument that, whatever be the wording in other licences to assign or in precedents supplied in textbooks, I can only construe the terms of the licence to assign in this case. In my judgment, although cl 2 of the licence to assign in this case provides that the assignee is to pay the rents reserved by the lease at the time and in manner therein provided for, it does not make clear whether that obligation is to subsist only while the assignee holds the term or after he has parted with it. As the latter condition would impose a very onerous obligation upon the assignee it can only be imposed by words which clearly make provision for it. In my judgment no such words are used in this case and it follows that the assignee is not liable for rent becoming due after further assignment by him.
That conclusion is sufficient to dispose of this appeal. Neither the assignee nor the surety is liable in my judgment to pay the rent claimed in this case, all the sums so claimed falling due after further assignment. I shall therefore allow this appeal and grant the defendants unconditional leave to defend.
In case this matter goes further I shall deal with two further points taken by Mr Primost for the defendants.
The first point is in respect of value added tax. Mr Primost points to the Value Added Tax (General) Regulations 1985, SI 1985/886, reg 12 of which provides:
‘(1) Save as otherwise provided in these Regulations, or as the Commissioners may otherwise allow, a registered taxable person making a taxable supply to a taxable person shall provide him with a tax invoice …
(5) The document specified in paragraphs (1) … of this regulation shall be provided within 30 days after the time when the supply is treated as taking place under sections 4 and 5 of the Act, or within such longer period after that time as the Commissioners may allow in general or special directions.’
Mr Primost goes on to argue that no tax invoice has been provided in this case. That makes the demand for rent illegal and the plaintiff on that score alone cannot recover in respect of it.
Mr Denehan’s short point is based on s 3(1) of the Value Added Tax Act 1983. That provides: ‘Schedule 2 to this Act shall apply for determining what is, or is to be treated as, a supply of goods or a supply of services.’
There is no need to look at Sch 2 in detail. Mr Denehan says that nowhere in the 1983 Act or the schedule is the demand made upon the assignee and the surety capable of coming within any definition in that Act or the schedule relating to a supply of goods or a supply of services. Mr Primost has not been able to show me any provision which brings the demands in this case within any such definition, and I reject on that score his argument.
Mr Primost’s third ground relates to interest. Subject to amendment in relation to the lower figure that the plaintiff claimed by the time that he heard the summons the learned deputy master awarded the plaintiff interest as claimed in the statement of claim, that is interest covering a period from 25 December 1991 until 5 February 1993. Mr Primost says that demand upon the defendants was only made by letter dated 27 January 1993 and on any view interest should only run from that date. Mr Denehan’s counter-argument is to refer me to Woodfall vol 1, para 16.053, p 16/30 and this sentence in particular:
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‘Indeed, since it is the tenant’s duty to seek out the landlord in order to pay the rent, the landlord is also entitled to interest from the due dates for payment.' The authority quoted there is Allied London Investments Ltd v Hambro Life Assurance (1984) 270 EG 948. I have not been referred directly to that case, but Mr Denehan tells me that is a case where the lessor was seeking rent from a lessee under the covenants in a lease after assignment. Therefore he says the situation there is parallel to the one in this case.
Interest is claimed in this case not under the terms of the lease and not by any contractual provision but pursuant to s 35A(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981:
‘Subject to rules of court, in proceedings (whenever instituted) before the High Court for the recovery of a debt or damages there may be included in any sum for which judgment is given simple interest, at such rate as the court thinks fit or as rules of court may provide, on all or any part of the debt or damages in respect of which judgment is given, or payment is made before judgment, for all or any part of the period between the date when the cause of action arose and … (b) in the case of the sum for which judgment is given, the date of the judgment.’
Mr Denehan says that this claim arises in debt under the terms of the licence for assignment. He says it was the assignee’s duty to seek out the landlord in order to pay the rent and as a result the plaintiff is entitled to interest from the due date for payment.
In my judgment that is a wholly unrealistic approach to the circumstances of this case. The undisputed facts are that the first defendant assigned the term on 25 April 1983, and he knew nothing about any arrears of rent until the letter of 27 January 1993. It would be inequitable in those circumstances if either he or his surety were required to pay interest going back to a period when they knew nothing at all about outstanding arrears of rent. If it were right to give judgment for the plaintiff in this case, then I would have awarded the plaintiff interest at the rate of 12·5% from 27 January 1993.
As it is, for the reasons I have given, this appeal must be allowed and the defendants given leave unconditionally to defend.
Leave to defend. Leave to appeal refused.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.
R v Kingston
[1993] 4 All ER 373
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ, PILL AND SEDLEY JJ
Hearing Date(s): 30 MARCH, 1 APRIL, 6 MAY 1993
Criminal law – Intoxication as a defence – Involuntary intoxication – Intent to commit offence – Surreptitiously administered drink or drugs – Whether involuntary intoxication defence to criminal charge – Whether intent induced involuntarily by means of secretly administered drugs or intoxication amounting to criminal intent.
The appellant, who had paedophiliac homosexual tendencies, was blackmailed by two former business associates who arranged for another man, P, who had similar tendencies, to photograph and audio-tape him in a compromising situation with a boy. P lured a boy of 15 to his flat, where he gave him what seemed an innocuous drink and some cannabis. The boy fell asleep on the bed and remembered nothing until he woke the next morning. While the boy was in that state P invited the appellant to abuse the boy sexually. The appellant did so, and was photographed and taped doing it. The appellant and P were charged with indecent assault on the boy. Sedative drugs were found in P’s flat when it was searched and the prosecution claimed that P had laced the boy’s drink. The appellant’s defence was that P had also laced his drink. His evidence was that he had seen the boy lying on the bed but had no recollection of any other events that night and had woken in his own home the next morning. The judge directed the jury that they should acquit the appellant if they found that because he was so affected by drugs he did not intend or may not have intended to commit an indecent assault on the boy, but that if they were sure that despite the effect of any drugs he still intended to commit an indecent assault the case was proved because a drugged intent was still an intent. The appellant was convicted. He appealed.
Held – If intoxicating liquor or a drug, surreptitiously administered, caused a person to lose his self-control and for that reason to form an intent which he would not otherwise have formed, the intent so formed was not a criminal intent since the involuntary intoxication negatived any mens rea and he was exculpated from criminal liability because the operative fault was not his. There had, however, to be evidence capable of giving rise to the defence of involuntary intoxication before the judge was obliged to leave the issue to the jury, but, once there was an evidential foundation for the defence, the burden was on the Crown to prove that the defendant had formed a criminal intent and that his intent had not been induced involuntarily by means of secretly administered drugs or intoxication. Accordingly, although there was no doubt that the appellant had committed the actus reus of an indecent assault, there was evidence capable of giving rise to the defence of involuntary intoxication and the withdrawal of that issue by the judge from the jury amounted to a material misdirection. It followed that the appeal would be allowed and the conviction quashed (see p 379 h to p 380 e g and p 381 c, post).
Dictum of Park J in Pearson’s Case (1835) 2 Lew CC 144 at 145 considered.
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Notes
For involuntary intoxication as a defence to a criminal charge, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 29, and for cases on the subject, see 14(1) Digest (2nd reissue) 62–69, 463–512.
Cases referred to in judgment
DPP v Majewski [1976] 2 All ER 142, [1977] AC 443, [1975] 3 WLR 401, HL.
Pearson’s Case (1835) 2 Lew CC 144, 168 ER 1108, Assizes.
R v Allen [1988] Crim LR 698, CA.
R v Court [1988] 2 All ER 221, [1989] AC 28, [1988] 2 WLR 1071, HL.
R v Culyer (1992) Times, 17 April, CA.
R v Miller [1952] 2 All ER 667, Assizes.
Cases also cited
DPP v Beard [1920] AC 479, [1920] All ER Rep 21, HL.
Lowery v R [1973] 3 All ER 662, [1974] AC 85, PC.
Perkins v US (1915) 228 F 408, US 4th Cir.
R v Bailey [1983] 2 All ER 503, [1983] 1 WLR 760, CA.
R v Bracewell (1978) 68 Cr App R 44 , CA.
R v Davies [1983] Crim LR 741, CA.
R v Galbraith (1912) 8 Cr App R 101, CCA.
R v Monkhouse (1849) 14 JP 155, CCC.
R v Neake (1977) 65 Cr App R 304, CA.
R v Quick, R v Paddison [1973] 3 All ER 347, [1973] QB 910, CA.
R v Sheehan, R v Moore [1975] 2 All ER 960, [1975] 1 WLR 739, CA.
Appeal against conviction and sentence
Barry Kingston appealed, with the leave of the single judge, against his conviction in the Crown Court at Lewes on 16 March 1992 before Potts J and a jury by a majority of ten to two of indecent assault on a male person for which he was sentenced to five years’ imprisonment. He also appealed against the sentence. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Charles S Taylor (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Brian Lett (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service, Lewes) for the Crown.
Cur adv vult
6 May 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ. This appeal against conviction, brought by leave of the single judge, calls upon the court to resolve a long-standing question about involuntary intoxication as an answer to a criminal charge.
The appellant, now aged 48, is a man with admitted paedophiliac homosexual tendencies. Because of a dispute with two former business associates, a Mr and Mrs Foreman, a man named Kevin Penn, who evidently had similar tendencies, arranged to blackmail the appellant by photographing and audio-taping him in a compromising situation with a boy. Penn lured a boy of 15 to his flat, where he gave the boy what seemed an innocuous drink and some cannabis. The boy fell asleep on the bed and remembered nothing until he woke the next morning. While the boy was in this state, Penn invited the appellant to come to his flat and after some conversation took him into the
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bedroom where he invited the appellant to abuse the boy sexually. This the appellant did, and he was photographed and taped doing it. His evidence was that he had seen the boy lying on the bed but had no recollection of any other events that night and had woken in his own home the next morning.
When Penn was arrested, two sedative drugs, diazepam (Valium) and triazolam, and an empty box which had contained a third type of sedative drug were found in his flat. It was the prosecution’s case that Penn had laced the boy’s drink with such a drug. Although the appellant was not able to say for sure in evidence whether he had had anything to drink before going to the bedroom, he sometimes drank coffee at Penn’s flat and the tape itself contained a passage in which the appellant said: ‘I don’t know why, am I falling asleep?’ and: ‘Have you put something in my coffee?’
Medical evidence for the prosecution and defence established that diazepam would induce calm (according to the prosecution) or drowsiness (according to the defence) and that triazolam would induce sleep (according to the prosecution) and could cause amnesia and impaired judgment (according to the defence witness). But neither medical witness suggested that either drug would make a person do anything which they would not do under normal circumstances.
The two men were indicted jointly for indecent assault on the boy; and Penn was further indicted for unlawfully causing a stupefying drug to be taken with intent to commit an indictable offence. The appellant contested the indecent assault count and was convicted by a majority of ten to two. Penn, upon rearraignment, pleaded guilty to indecent assault. He was convicted of causing a stupefying drug to be taken. Each man was sentenced by the trial judge, Potts J, to five years’ imprisonment for indecent assault, and Penn to twelve months consecutive for administering a stupefying drug. Kingston alone has appealed against both conviction and sentence; but for reasons to which we now turn it will not be necessary to consider his sentence. At the conclusion of argument on conviction the court reserved judgment and granted him bail.
It will be apparent from the foregoing summary that the appellant had committed the actus reus of an indecent assault on the boy, even though he had been in some measure entrapped into doing so. It is also clear from the verdict of the jury that they found that the assault and the circumstances of indecency were intentional, for the trial judge had directed them as follows:
‘… the Crown must prove that he intentionally—intentionally— assaulted [the boy], that the assault, or the circumstances accompanying, were capable of being considered by right-minded people as indecent (and, having seen those photographs, can you doubt that?), and that the defendant Kingston intended such indecency. Thus, ladies and gentlemen, Kingston’s intention is of all importance, for you may think the fact as to what happened is beyond dispute …’
At the outset of the trial Mr Taylor, who represented the appellant, as he has done before this court, advanced to the judge in the jury’s absence two questions, inviting him to answer Yes to both:
‘1. If the jury find that Mr Kingston assaulted [the boy] pursuant to an intent induced by the influence of drugs administered to him secretly by Kevin Penn, is it open to them to find Mr Kingston not guilty? 2. If the jury find that at the time of the alleged offence Mr Kingston was intoxicated by drugs secretly administered to him by Kevin Penn, is it open to them to find
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that this intoxication may negative intent/mens rea so as to find Mr Kingston not guilty?’
The learned judge, after relatively brief submissions made at the start of the trial and before any evidence had been called, expressed the provisional view that the answer to the first question was No and to the second question Yes. He concluded:
‘I anticipate that, come what may, we ought really to consider the proposition at the end of the evidence and before speeches …’
But the law on this topic was not further canvassed before the judge summed up. In the result he directed the jury as follows:
‘In deciding whether Kingston intended to commit this offence, you must take into account any findings that you may make that he was affected by drugs. If you think that because he was so affected by drugs he did not intend or may not have intended to commit an indecent assault upon [the boy], then you must acquit him; but if you are sure that despite the effect of any drugs that he might have been slipped—and it is for you to find whether he was drugged or not—this part of the case is proved, because a drugged intent is still an intent. So intention is crucial, intention at the time; and, of course, members of the jury, you will bear in mind there is a distinction between intention at the time and a lack of memory as to what happened after the time.’
Mr Taylor makes no criticism of this passage as a direction conforming to the judge’s affirmative answer to the second question formulated by him. The jury by their verdict found that, drugged or not, the appellant had been capable of forming, and had formed, the necessary intent. In these circumstances Mr Taylor can only succeed on his first ground if he can establish that his first question should also have been affirmatively answered and the jury directed accordingly. In approaching this question we accept (although the jury’s verdict was necessarily silent on the point) that there was evidence from which it was possible to infer that Penn had administered a drug to the appellant without his knowledge.
Before turning to the law on this topic it is necessary to set out the two further grounds of appeal. The first is that the learned judge erred in law in refusing to allow the defence to elicit from Kenneth Self, a prosecution witness at trial, evidence which had been elicited from him at committal to the effect that Penn had in conversation told him that he managed to persuade boys to indulge in homosexual acts by the use of drugs. The witness quotes what he said were Penn’s exact words: ‘It’s surprising what a couple of Valium in their drinks will do.' Prosecuting counsel, whose instructions were that this related to a single conversation some two years before the material offences, did not propose to lead the evidence. The learned judge on a preliminary application ruled that the defence might not elicit it. He reminded himself of the ruling of Devlin J in R v Miller [1952] 2 All ER 667 that as between co-accused relevance was the sole test, but he held:
‘In my view the passage at its highest does no more than indicate a propensity on the part of this defendant Penn to drug boys so as to have his way with them. It is not indicative of behaviour on his part in relation to adult men who may be present at the time of such conduct. In the
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circumstances I have reached the conclusion that this evidence is not relevant …’
The third ground is that the judge erred in law in permitting the Crown to put to the appellant in cross-examination some highly explicit homosexual pornography which had been found at his home. The basis for its admission was this passage of dialogue in cross-examination of the appellant:
‘Q. You are obviously enjoying yourself [ie as shown by the tape and the photographs]. A. I would not, because I don’t remember it happening; and if I had been in command of myself it would not have happened. I would not have allowed myself to get in that situation … if I was fully compos mentis I would not have done it, that is what I am saying. It would seem that somebody dropped a Micky Finn in my coffee.’
The appellant then confirmed what was put to him:
‘My case is that I was slipped something in my drink which made me do what I otherwise would not have done.’
The Crown sought to put in the pornographic literature in order, as the judge put it—
‘to show that this man would have done precisely what is depicted in the photographs whether he had been slipped something in his drink or not.’
He rejected Mr Taylor’s submission that the material went to propensity only:
‘In my judgment, the material that Mr Lett has indicated he seeks to adduce is clearly relevant to the defence raised by Mr Kingston.’
The judge took the view that the prejudicial value of the evidence did not outweigh its probative value and concluded:
‘In my view, the issue having been raised in this way, it is in the interests of justice that it be admitted.’
Involuntary intoxication
Mr Taylor’s submission is that the law recognises that, exceptionally, an accused person may be entitled to be acquitted if there is a possibility that, although his act was intentional, the intent itself arose out of circumstances for which he bears no blame. The principle can be found classically in Hale’s Pleas of the Crown. Hale begins by contrasting two kinds of offender: those who are demented, whether in their conduct or in their mind alone, of whom he says (1 Hale PC 31):
‘… if they are totally depriv’d of the use of reason, they cannot be guilty ordinarily of capital offenses, for they have not the use of understanding, and act not as reasonable creatures, but their actions are in effect in the condition of brutes’,
and those who are demented by drunkenness and equally deprived of the use of reason (p 32):
‘… but by the laws of England such a person shall have no privilege by this voluntary contracted madness, but shall have the same judgment as if he were in his right senses.’
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Pausing there, the common law, amplified in places by statute, continues to recognise precisely this distinction: see in particular the M‘Naghten Rules and DPP v Majewski [1976] 2 All ER 142, [1977] AC 443. Hale continues:
‘But yet there seems to be two allays to be allow’d in this case. 1. That if a person by the unskilfulness of his physician, or by the contrivance of his enemies, eat or drink such a thing as causeth such a temporary or permanent phrenzy … this puts him into the same condition, in reference to crimes, as any other phrenzy, and equally excuseth him.’
It is not necessary to adopt the seventeenth century psychology, still rooted in the medieval theories of the humours, upon which Hale relied, any more than it is to adopt Mr Taylor’s dichotomy between the higher and lower mind, in order to recognise the common justice of Hale’s principle. It reappears briefly and vividly in Pearson’s Case (1835) 2 Lew CC 144, 168 ER 1108 tried by Park J at Carlisle Assizes. Pearson’s defence to the charge of murder was that he was drunk when he beat his wife to death. Park J is briefly reported as ruling (2 Lew CC 144 at 145, 168 ER 1108):
‘Voluntary drunkennes is no excuse for crime. If a party be made drunk by stratagem, or the fraud of another, he is not responsible.’
It is not apparent from the report whether the accused was claiming that his drunkenness was involuntary or, therefore, whether the second remark is obiter. But, extraordinarily, it is effectively the last word on the subject in the reported authorities. It appears, however, that the American Model Penal Code has adopted this distinction.
The Law Commission, in Intoxication and Criminal Liability (consultation paper no 127 (1993)) para 2.28, states, when dealing with the present law:
‘Involuntary intoxication is always taken into account in determining the existence of a subjective mens rea.’
No authority is cited, and there is no further consideration of that proposition or of the questions implicit in it.
We are not concerned in this case with intoxication, whether voluntary or involuntary, in relation to specific intent, for in R v Culyer (1992) Times, 17 April this court held, following the decision of the House of Lords in R v Court [1988] 2 All ER 221, [1989] AC 28, that indecent assault may still require proof only of basic intent if the act is unambiguously indecent.
In Smith and Hogan Criminal Law (7th edn, 1992) p 220, which differs significantly on this topic from some earlier editions, the authors say:
‘Evidence of intoxication negativing mens rea is a defence … to all crimes where the drink or drug was taken involuntarily.’
The editors of Archbold’s Pleading Evidence and Practice in Criminal Cases (44th edn, 1992) p 2004, para 17-138 appear to take the same view, as does Professor Glanville Williams in his Textbook of Criminal Law (2nd edn, 1983) p 482:
‘In crimes of basic intent, the House of Lords recognised in Majewski that involuntary intoxication negativing mens rea would be a defence, even though voluntary intoxication would not.’
Any such recognition to be found in DPP v Majewski [1976] 2 All ER 142, [1977] AC 443 can only be implied from the specific confinement of the opinions
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expressed by their Lordships to voluntary or self-induced intoxication. But we agree that nothing in those opinions is inconsistent with the foregoing views of the law. It is also of interest that s 6 of the Public Order Act 1986 adopts much the same approach, though with a special onus. Subsection (5) provides:
‘For the purposes of this section, a person whose awareness is impaired by intoxication shall be taken to be aware of that of which he would be aware if not intoxicated, unless he shows either that his intoxication was not self-induced or that it was caused solely by the taking or administration of a substance in the course of medical treatment.’
In R v Allen [1988] Crim LR 698 this court held that mere ignorance of the strength of the drink that a person is voluntarily taking does not make his consequent intoxication other than voluntary. We would observe that there may be a difference between a failure to appreciate what might have been appreciated, whether it is the strength of the drink or the fact that the drinker’s threshold is lowered by fatigue and so forth, and ignorance that a drink, alcoholic or not, has been deliberately and artificially laced to make it a trap for the unwary. This, however, does not have to be decided at present. We note, however, that in his commentary on R v Allen Professor J C Smith says of the accused ([1988] Crim LR 698 at 699):
‘It may be that he would not have committed the offences if he had not been drinking, but that is neither here nor there so far as liability to conviction is concerned.’
While this comment will be true of voluntary intoxication, which is what R v Allen was about, we do not consider it to be true of involuntary intoxication.
Russell on Crime (12th edn, 1964) adopts Hale’s formulation on involuntary ‘dementia’ without elaboration.
Smith and Hogan Criminal Law (7th edn, 1992) p 228 states under the cross-head ‘Involuntary Intoxication’:
‘There is little authority on the subject but it is clear that the rule in Majewski does not apply and it follows that involuntary intoxication negativing the mens rea of the offence charged, whether specific intent or basic intent, is a defence. Where it does not negative mens rea, it will not be a defence even though it may well be that D would not have committed the offence had he not been intoxicated; but it will then, of course, be a substantial mitigating factor.’
That formulation leaves open the question as to when involuntary intoxication negatives mens rea.
In our judgment, the question can be answered by turning to first principles. The importance of ensuring, under a system of law, that members of the community are safeguarded in their persons and property is obvious and was firmly stated in DPP v Majewski [1976] 2 All ER 142 at 168, [1977] AC 443 at 495 per Lord Edmund-Davies, for example. However, the purpose of the criminal law is to inhibit, by proscription and by penal sanction, antisocial acts which individuals may otherwise commit. Its unspoken premise is that people may have tendencies and impulses to do those things which are considered sufficiently objectionable to be forbidden. Having paedophiliac inclinations and desires is not proscribed; putting them into practice is. If the sole reason why the threshold between the two has been crossed is or may have been that
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the inhibition which the law requires has been removed by the clandestine act of a third party, the purposes of the criminal law are not served by nevertheless holding that the person performing the act is guilty of an offence. A man is not responsible for a condition produced ‘by stratagem, or the fraud of another’. If therefore drink or a drug, surreptitiously administered, causes a person to lose his self-control and for that reason to form an intent which he would not otherwise have formed, it is consistent with the principle that the law should exculpate him because the operative fault is not his. The law permits a finding that the intent formed was not a criminal intent or, in other words, that the involuntary intoxication negatives the mens rea. As was pointed out in argument, there is some analogy to be found here in the rationale underlying the defence of duress. While it is not necessary for the decision of this case, it appears to us that, if the principle applies where the offence is one of basic intent, it should apply also where the offence is one of specific intent.
We would add that there must be evidence capable of giving rise to the defence of involuntary intoxication before a judge is obliged to leave the issue to the jury. However, once there is an evidential foundation for the defence, the burden is upon the Crown to prove that the relevant intent was formed and that notwithstanding the evidence relied on by the defence it was a criminal intent.
By answering the first of the questions put to him at the beginning of the trial in the negative, the learned judge may have inhibited a sufficient ventilation of this issue at a later stage. Further, by summing up as he did, the learned judge effectively withdrew the issue from the jury. In our judgment, that amounted to a material misdirection.
In the present case Mr Lett for the Crown submitted that the evidence negatived the suggestion that involuntary intoxication had any significant effect on the formation or carrying out of the intent. He drew our attention to passages in the transcript of the audio tape in which remarks by the appellant may be interpreted as showing a state of mind not appreciably affected by drugs. He also reminded the court of the medical evidence that the drugs found in Penn’s possession would have had a tendency to induce sleep but would not have induced action which the recipient of the drug would not otherwise have carried out. Whilst it is not certain that the issue of involuntary intoxication would have troubled the jury, there was strong evidence that this appellant had been set up for blackmail and we cannot be sure that, given a direction in law along the lines we have indicated, the jury would inevitably have convicted. Accordingly, we would not think it appropriate to apply the proviso and we hold that the conviction must on this first ground be quashed.
The other two grounds
In these circumstances we propose to deal more briefly with the other two grounds. The learned judge had an anxious decision to make in relation to the evidence of the witness Self because, if admitted, it was damning for Penn. However, we consider that the evidence to the effect that Penn had in the past boasted of his use of drugs to render boys compliant ought to have been admitted. It was capable of supporting the appellant’s case that Penn made a practice of rendering people compliant by the clandestine use of drugs. Although this in the past had been directed at boy victims, it might have added plausibility to the suggestion that, in order to blackmail the appellant, Penn had used the same method with the benefit of his experience of using it on boys.
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Whether this assisted the appellant’s case would have been a matter entirely for the jury. But the possibility that it might have proved material adds force to our view that, had the jury been rightly directed as to involuntary intoxication, they might have acquitted.
The admission of the pornographic material found at the appellant’s home is more problematical. Mr Taylor submits, as he submitted to the judge, that initially leave should have been given only to ask the appellant whether he had such interests and desires. If he had admitted them, it is submitted that cross-examination need have gone no further. This argument therefore enters upon an area of speculation and, since it is unnecessary in the light of our earlier reasoning to come to a conclusion on it, we prefer not to do so.
The appeal will be allowed and the appellant discharged.
Appeal allowed. Conviction quashed.
5 October. The Court of Appeal (Lord Taylor of Gosforth CJ, Turner and Dyson JJ) refused leave to appeal to the House of Lords but certified, under s 33(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, that the following point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision: (1) whether, if it is proved that the necessary intent was present when the necessary act was done by him, a defendant has open to him a defence of involuntary intoxication; (2) if so, on whom does the burden of proof lie?
N P Metcalfe Esq Barrister.
Practice Note
(Commercial cases: Midland and Oxford circuit)
[1993] 4 All ER 381
Categories: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ
Hearing Date(s): 21 SEPTEMBER 1993
Practice – Commercial cases – Midland and Oxford Circuit – Hearing of cases of commercial or business character – Birmingham Mercantile List – Actions which may be included in list – Commencement of actions – Circuit commercial judges – Rules governing actions – Expeditious and economical disposal of actions – Chronologies, lists, skeleton arguments and core bundles – Powers of circuit commercial judges – Transfer of actions to Commercial Court or to High Court judge sitting on circuit – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 9 – RSC Ord 72.
LORD TAYLOR OF GOSFORTH CJ gave the following direction at the sitting of the court. The purpose of this practice direction is to create a new and improved structure for the hearing of cases of a commercial or business character on the Midland and Oxford Circuit.
1. With effect from 1 October 1993 there will be a new Queen’s Bench Division list in the Birmingham district registry which will be known as ‘The Mercantile List (Birmingham)’.
2. It will be permissible to include in this list any action which relates to a commercial or business transaction in a broad sense. For example, contractual disputes in the following categories would generally qualify for inclusion: sale
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of goods, hire purchase, agency, banking, guarantee, carriage of goods and insurance.
3. At the time of commencing an action the plaintiff may issue the originating process in the said list, in which event the originating process shall be marked with the name of the registry and the words ‘The Mercantile List (Birmingham)’. Every pleading and every summons in any action in the Mercantile List (Birmingham) shall contain as part of its title the words ‘Mercantile List’.
4. One or more circuit judges shall be designated as ‘circuit mercantile judges’ and shall unless otherwise directed hear all interlocutory applications entered in the mercantile list and be the judge at the trial of such actions. Initially, only one circuit judge shall be so designated.
5. The designated circuit mercantile judges shall sit as High Court judges appointed by the Lord Chancellor under s 9 of the Supreme Court Act 1981.
6. RSC Ord 72 shall not apply to actions in this list. The actions will be Queen’s Bench actions and will be governed by the Rules of the Supreme Court governing such actions.
7. Notwithstanding para 6 above, in actions in this list practitioners will be expected to ensure the expeditious and economical disposal of such cases by the exchange and lodging of chronologies, lists of dramatis personae and issues and brief skeleton arguments and by providing a page numbered core bundle. To that extent practitioners will be expected to comply with the spirit of the Guide to Commercial Court Practice (see The Supreme Court Practice 1993 vol 1, paras 72/A1–72/A31).
8. With the approval of the Lord Chief Justice or the Senior Presiding Judge, the presiding judges of the Midland and Oxford Circuit may from time to time issue further directions as to the practice and procedure to be adopted in relation to cases in this list.
9. (1) A designated circuit mercantile judge shall have the power: (a) on application by a party to add an action to the list; (b) on application by a party, or on his own motion, to remove an action from the list, in which case it will remain a Queen’s Bench action; (c) to transfer an action in the list to the lists of (i) the Chancery Division, (ii) the circuit official referees, (iii) a county court or, with the consent of the designated circuit mercantile judge of the Mercantile List (Manchester), to that list; (d) to certify that an action in this list must be heard by a High Court judge of the Queen’s Bench Division, in which case it will be removed from this list.
(2) Any application to transfer an action to the Commercial Court in London shall be referred to a judge of that court.
10. A party to an action in this list shall have the right to apply to any High Court judge of the Queen’s Bench Division or the Chancery Division, who is sitting on circuit, to hear any application in this list. The High Court judge may accede to such an application if, in the exercise of his unfettered discretion, he deems it appropriate to do so.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Nash and others v Eli Lilly & Co and others
Berger and others v Eli Lilly & Co and others
[1993] 4 All ER 383
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): PURCHAS, RALPH GIBSON AND MANN LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 23–26, 29–30 JUNE, 1–3, 6– 7, 9 JULY, 28 AUGUST 1992
Limitation of action – Personal injury claim – Plaintiff’s knowledge – Date of plaintiff’s knowledge that injury was significant – Date on which plaintiff first had knowledge that injury attributable to defendant’s act or omission – Group action – Product liability – Plaintiffs suffering side effects after taking drug manufactured by defendants – Whether actions statute-barred – Exercise of discretion – Whether court should have regard to group action structure when exercising discretion – Limitation Act 1980, ss 11, 14, 33.
Costs – Order for costs – Jurisdiction – Group action – Large numbers of plaintiffs bringing actions for personal injuries against defendants – Whether costs should follow the event.
The defendants were the manufacturers of a drug used in the treatment of arthritis which was licensed for use in the United Kingdom in March 1980 and made available for prescription by general practitioners in October. Thereafter the drug was prescribed to the plaintiffs on varying dates and for different periods for the relief of arthritis. Although the drug had a beneficial effect in the relief of arthritis it also had wide-ranging and serious side effects and on 5 August 1982 the United Kingdom product licence was withdrawn amid considerable publicity. The next day the drug was withdrawn worldwide. In 1982 an action group of sufferers from the side effects was formed and two group actions, co-ordinated by the Law Society, were commenced against the defendants, the pharmaceutical company and its subsidiaries which had developed and manufactured the drug, alleging that as a result of taking the drug the plaintiffs had suffered long term or permanent side effects. The claims of all those who issued writs by 31 January 1987 were settled by the payment of a substantial sum by the defendants to the action group who then shared it amongst the claimants. An action was later commenced by a further group of 337 patients against the defendants alleging that they too had suffered long term or permanent side effects as a result of taking the drug. All the writs in those proceedings were issued after 31 January 1987. The plaintiffs claimed damages for personal injuries and nine plaintiffs were selected as lead cases in a group action. Another group of plaintiffs whose claims were not covered by any of the lead cases brought separate actions against the defendants. The defendants applied to strike out the claims on the ground that they were time-barred. The questions whether the actions were barred by the expiration of the limitation period for instituting proceedings in personal injuries actions contained in s 11(4)(b)a of the Limitation Act 1980, namely three years from the date on which the cause of action accrued or (if later) the date of the injured person’s knowledge referred to in s 14b of the 1980 Act , and, if so, whether the court
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should exercise its discretion under s 33c of that Act to disapply the limitation period, were tried as preliminary issues. The plaintiffs contended, inter alia, that they did not have the requisite knowledge during the period they were taking the drug because none of them had any reason to believe that the side effect symptoms would persist once they ceased taking it. The judge dismissed all but two of the plaintiffs’ claims on the grounds that the date of knowledge referred to in s 14 of the 1980 Act was the date on which a plaintiff first had knowledge or could reasonably have been expected to have acquired knowledge from facts ascertainable by him through a doctor, solicitor or other person that his injury was capable of being attributed wholly or partly to the act or omission which was alleged to constitute negligence or breach of duty, that the relevant act or omission was providing for the use of patients a drug which was unsafe in that it caused persistent side effects and failing to take reasonble and proper steps to protect the plaintiffs from those side-effects, that such knowledge was available to the plaintiffs or their legal advisers in 1982/83 (except for the two successful plaintiffs), that the plaintiffs’ claims were therefore statute-barred when the writs were issued after 31 January 1987, and that it would not be appropriate to exercise the discretion under s 33 to disapply the limitation period. The judge ordered the defendants to pay the costs of one of the successful plaintiffs but only to the extent of 1/337th of the costs incurred. The unsuccessful plaintiffs appealed contending that the judge was wrong in finding that the plaintiffs knew the injury in question was significant by 1982/83 and had actual or constructive knowledge by 1982/83 that the injury was attributable to the act or omission alleged to constitute negligence pursuant to s 14 of the 1980 Act. Alternatively, the plaintiffs contended that the judge erred in the exercise of his discretion under s 33 of the Act. The successful plaintiff who had been awarded costs appealed contending that the order for costs did not reflect the fact that he had succeeded on the limitation issue and that costs should follow the event.
Held – (1) ‘Knowledge’ for the purposes of s 14 of the 1980 Act was a state of mind experienced by a plaintiff which actually existed or might have existed had the plaintiff, acting reasonably, acquired knowledge from the facts ascertainable by him or which he could have acquired with the help of medical or other expert advice which it was reasonable for him to obtain. The limitation period began to run when the plaintiff first had knowledge of the nature of his injury which justified him taking the preliminary steps for the institution of proceedings against the person or persons whose act or omission had caused the significant injury concerned. By s 14(3) ‘knowledge’ for the purposes of s 14(1) included knowledge reasonably expected to be acquired but the temporal and circumstantial span of reasonable inquiry depended on the factual context of the case and the subjective characteristics of the individual plaintiff involved. A firm belief held by the plaintiff that his injury was attributable to the act or omission of the defendant, but in respect of which he thought it necessary to obtain confirmation from experts, would not be regarded as knowledge until the result of his inquiries was known to him or, if he delayed in obtaining that confirmation, until the time when it was reasonable for him to have obtained it. Knowledge of the essence of the act or omission to which the injury was attributable was required but not proof of knowledge of the terms in which it
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would be alleged that the act or omission of the defendant constituted negligence or breach of duty. On the facts, the court would allow the appeals of two of the plaintiffs on the ground that their actions were not statute-barred (see p 395 g to p 396 c, p 398 g, p 402 a b and p 416 a b, post).
(2) When considering whether to exercise its discretionary power under s 33 of the 1980 Act to allow an action to proceed after the expiry of the primary limitation period the court had to consider all the circumstances of the case and balance the prejudice to the respective parties. Furthermore, there were no grounds for limiting the exercise of the court’s discretion in group actions for reasons of public policy. For the purposes of s 33(3)(b) cogency was directed to the degree to which either party was prejudiced in the presentation of the claim or defence because the evidence was either no longer available or had been adversely affected by the passage of time. Since the judge had confused the consideration of the relative cogency of the cases to be presented by the plaintiffs and the defendants in the context of the plaintiff’s delay under s 33(3)(a) with the overall discretion which had to be exercised by the court under s 33(1) each case would be reconsidered in order for the court to decide whether its discretion should be exercised in favour of the plaintiffs. On the facts it would be equitable to allow the action of one of the plaintiffs to proceed (see p 402 f g, p 404 f to p 405 b, p 406 e to h and p 416 a b, post); Hartley v Birmingham City DC [1992] 2 All ER 213 considered.
(3) The costs order made by the judge in respect of the successful plaintiff was unjust in its effect and could not be justified by reference to any relevant principle which could be derived from the nature of the litigation or from the original order for cost sharing and contribution. The group action orders were not intended to modify the principle whereby, in the absence of some reason to order otherwise, the party who caused costs to be incurred on a separately disputed issue would, if he lost, be ordered to pay the costs of the other side on that issue. It followed that the costs order made by the judge would be set aside (see p 413 g h, p 414 b c f g and p 415 h j, post); Alltrans Express Ltd v CVA Holdings Ltd [1984] 1 All ER 685 and Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co [1987] 3 All ER 94 considered.
Notes
For the limitation period in personal injury actions and the date of the plaintiff’s knowledge for purposes of the application of the limitation period, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 691–692.
For the court’s powers to override the limitation period in personal injury actions, see ibid para 684, and for cases on the subject, see 32 Digest (Reissue) 741–741, 5339–5341.
For the general jurisdiction of the High Court to award costs, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) para 713, and for cases on the subject, see 37(3) Digest (Reissue) 230–240, 4273–4349
For the Limitation Act 1980, ss 11, 14, 33, see 24 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1989 reissue) 657, 661, 686.
Cases referred to in judgment
Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeira [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965, [1986] 2 WLR 1051, HL.
Alltrans Express Ltd v CVA Holdings Ltd [1984] 1 All ER 685, [1984] 1 WLR 394, CA.
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Bentley v Bristol and Western Health Authority (10 October 1990, unreported), QBD.
Brooks v J & P Coates (UK) Ltd [1984] 1 All ER 702.
Conry v Simpson [1983] 3 All ER 369, CA.
Davies v City and Hackney Health Authority (19 January 1989, unreported), QBD.
Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co [1987] 3 All ER 94, [1987] 1 WLR 1136, CA.
Davis v Ministry of Defence [1985] CA Transcript 413.
Donovan v Gwentoys Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 1018, [1990] 1 WLR 472, HL.
Driscoll-Varley v Parkside Health Authority (15 January 1990, unreported), QBD
Firman v Ellis [1978] 2 All ER 851, [1978] QB 886, [1978] 3 WLR 1, CA.
Guidera v NEI Projects (India) Ltd [1990] CA Transcript 60.
Halford v Brookes [1991] 3 All ER 559, [1991] 1 WLR 428, CA.
Hartley v Birmingham City DC [1992] 2 All ER 213, [1992] 1 WLR 968, CA.
Hutcheson v Pontinental (Holiday Services) Ltd [1987] BTLC 81, CA.
McCafferty v Metropolitan Police District Receiver [1977] 2 All ER 756, [1977] 1 WLR 1073, CA.
Stephen v Riverside Health Authority [1990] 1 Med LR 261.
Thompson v Brown Construction (Ebbw Vale) Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 296, [1981] 1 WLR 744, HL.
Wilkinson v Ancliff (BLT) Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 427, [1986] 1 WLR 1352, CA.
Cases also cited
Birkett v James [1977] 2 All ER 801, [1978] AC 297, CA and HL.
Central Asbestos Co Ltd v Smith [1972] 2 All ER 1135, [1973] AC 518, HL.
Dale v British Coal Corp [1993] 1 All ER 317, [1992] 1 WLR 964, CA.
Donoghue (or M‘Alister) v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, [1932] All ER Rep 1, HL.
Fowell v National Coal Board [1986] CA Transcript 413.
Simpson v Norwest Holst Southern Ltd [1980] 2 All ER 471, [1980] 1 WLR 968.
Waghorn v Lewisham (23 June 1987, unreported), QBD.
Interlocutory appeals
The plaintiffs, Ellen Maud Nash, Lillian Maud Odam, Frederick Boxall, Grace Day, Yvonne Eaton, Mary Gray O’Hara, Mary Higgins, Carole Anne Forster, Lois Emily Berger, Bertha Reynaud, Rosanna Fell, Edna Jenkins, Kenneth Kirby, Dorothy Newell, Ronald Sivyer and Sidney Roy Stanley, appealed against the decisions of Hidden J given on 31 January 1991 and 2, 3 March 1992 whereby he held that the plaintiffs’ actions against, inter alios, the first defendants, Eli Lilly & Co, the second defendants, Dista Products Ltd, the third defendants, Lilly Industries Ltd, the fourth defendant, Lilly Research Centre Ltd, and the fifth defendant, William Ian Shedden, for damages for personal injuries were statute-barred. Timothy Edward Cockburn, a plaintiff who was successful on the limitation issue, appealed from the order for costs made by the judge. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Daniel Brennan QC, Augustus Ullstein QC and Selina Parkes (instructed by Dawbarns, King’s Lynn) for the plaintiffs.
Jonathan R Playford QC, Andrew Prynne and Charles Gibson (instructed by Davies Arnold Cooper) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
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28 August 1992. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
PURCHAS LJ.
Introduction
These consolidated appeals are from two judgments delivered by Hidden J on 31 January 1991 (the first judgment) and 2 March 1992 (the second judgment). In both judgments the judge was concerned with preliminary issues raised in claims made by selected plaintiffs as to whether they were statute-barred under s 11 of the Limitation Act 1980 (the Act) and, if so, whether it should be directed under s 33 of the Act that the limitation provisions should not apply to any of these actions. The plaintiffs concerned in the first judgment had been selected from a substantial group of patients for whom a drug known as Opren had been described and who had allegedly suffered various ill effects as a result. These ‘lead cases’, as they were called, were regarded as typical of various sub-groups which comprise the remaining cases so that the judgments would enable the parties to dispose of the remaining cases by reference to Hidden J’s judgment. The second judgment dealt with a number of plaintiffs who contended that their cases were not covered by any of the lead cases considered in the first judgment. There are issues raised in the consolidated appeals which are generally relevant in all the appeals but, essentially, the cases must be individually considered.
There were initially seven defendants but the claims against the sixth and seventh defendants, the Committee on Safety of Medicines and the licensing authority under the Medicines Act 1968, have been abandoned. The remaining defendants are Eli Lilly & Co Ltd (the first defendants) which is a multinational pharmaceutical company based in Indianapolis, Indiana, USA. Below them in the corporate structure are Lilly Industries Ltd, the third defendants, who are a wholly owned subsidiary of Eli Lilly & Co and the wholly-owned subsidiaries of Lilly Industries Ltd, namely Dista Products Ltd, the second defendants, and Lilly Research Centre Ltd, the fourth defendants. The fifth defendant, Dr Shedden, was the servant of one or more of the first, second and third defendants and was in charge of research and engaged in the development of Opren.
The background
Opren was developed during the 1970s by Lilly Research Ltd. It was licensed in March 1980 by the seventh defendant acting on the advice of the sixth defendant. It was originally only available for use by consultant physicians in hospitals, but on 30 October 1980 it was made available for prescription by general practitioners. Although Opren had a beneficial effect in the form of relief of pain in the case of patients suffering from arthritis, both rheumatoid arthritis and osteo-arthritis, it also had serious side effects which proved unacceptable. In the result in this country the seventh defendant, the licensing authority, withdrew the product licence during the first week in August 1982. The drug was withdrawn by the Eli Lilly Group throughout the world within the next few days. The drug had been manufactured in this country by Dista Products Ltd.
The nature of the side effects varied widely. The plaintiffs with whom the appeals are concerned were mainly complaining of photosensitivity and onycholysis. Onycholysis is a condition which effects finger and toe nails, causing them to become ridged and loose and even to separate from the nail
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bed. Other patients had suffered from more serious complications such as liver and kidney failure resulting, in certain cases, in death.
Product liability claims
In the field of product liability litigation pharmaceutical claims present special problems. These were brought to general notice for the first time in the thalidomide litigation. The defendant manufacturer, Distillers Co Ltd, whilst denying liability made available a global sum to be distributed amongst a defined class, the claim for membership of which raised one of the issues for determination. The other main issue was the degree of disability of any claimant which determined the size and nature of the settlements made from the global sum in favour of individual sufferers and/or their parents. A substantial part of this global sum was retained in the form of a central trust administered for the benefit of all qualifying sufferers. In all such cases problems arise from the large number of possible claimants and the necessity, for proof of liability, to establish a sufficient connection between the injuries suffered and the drug alleged to have caused them, assuming that the damaging quality of the drug is attributed to some fault on the part of the manufacturer. It is in this context that a distinction has to be drawn between side effects which are acceptable in the context of the relief afforded by the drug, and side effects which amount to unacceptable injury caused by that drug. Defendants and their insurers, in considering how to handle such litigation, must have regard both to the uncertainties of litigation and to the likelihood that, in most cases, even if the defence should be successful, costs will not be recoverable from the plaintiffs.
The Opren claims
After widespread reports had been received of unacceptable side effects caused by taking Opren and of its suspension in August 1982, two bodies were established to assist the sufferers and to facilitate the co-ordination of anticipated claims from patients. In August 1982 the Opren Action Group (the OAG) was formed. This consisted of a group of solicitors who were co-ordinated by Messrs Goldberg Blackburn and Howards (as that firm was then known). In September 1982 a further organisation, the Opren Action Committee (the OAC) was established. This consisted of lay persons who made their knowledge and advice available to sufferers. In the same month the Law Society set up a register of solicitors acting in these claims.
These bodies, namely the OAG and the OAC, did not, of course, have any formal locus standi before the courts under existing United Kingdom legal procedures. Nevertheless, Hirst J did much to assist and to expedite the determination of the complex issues and the management of the high numbers of potential plaintiffs in the interests of all concerned.
The law in the United States of America has for a considerable time made provision for what is there described as the ‘class action’. Compared with the procedure adopted by Hirst J, the class action procedure has both advantages and disadvantages for the parties involved. It is of no assistance in the task before this court, however, to make further reference to the American procedures. The existence of them may have been one of the reasons for the initial move against Lilly made by the OAG, namely, the issuing of proceedings in the courts of the state of Indiana. That took place in 1984. In connection with those proceedings, the OAG wrote a letter asserting that they had, at that time, sufficient information about the drug and its effects to bring home liability
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against the company in the American courts. As we indicated during argument, however, the basis of such a claim may have been, or may have included, a statutory liability.
To what extent, if any, regard should be had to the ‘group action’ structure, set up by Hirst J in exercising discretion in any case under s 33 of the Act, is an issue in these appeals.
The first writ was issued in England by Marlene Preece Betton in the Swansea District Registry on 4 November 1983. That action and other actions commenced in the early stages of this history were part of the activities of the OAG. Their first essay was to initiate proceedings before a court in Indianapolis. That action was unsuccessful. It seems that the judge held that the claims should not be pursued in that state on the basis of forum non conveniens.
In the case of those writs already issued and served the matter was dealt with on 23 July 1986 by Hirst J, who gave directions for a timetable for those actions. This group has become known as ‘group A cases’. His order provided, inter alia, that all writs had to be issued by 1 October 1986. Further writs, however, were issued after that date and, as a result, on 13 January 1987 Hirst J laid down a further timetable for the additional claims. This contained a date for the service of writs, namely 31 January 1987. These became known as ‘group B cases’.
An agreement was reached between the defendants and the OAG under which the defendants made available a sum of money, the distribution of which amongst the claimants in groups A and B was to be determined by the OAG subject to appeals to Hirst J as arbitrator. That process has now been completed. It is to be noted, however, that on the dates upon which the writs in the claims concerned in those appeals were issued the negotiations for settlement of the group A and B claims were still proceeding. It has been submitted for the plaintiffs that it was, at that stage, open to the defendants to admit them to groups A and B or, alternatively, to acknowledge them as an additional group.
During 1987 and 1988 further potential plaintiffs came forward and another firm of solicitors, Messrs Dawbarns, agreed to co-ordinate them. On 29 March 1988 Hirst J gave directions for the setting up of this new group of plaintiffs, with the date of 9 May 1988 for the service of their writs. This group of about 250 plaintiffs is referred to as ‘group C’. There is now a yet further group, ‘group D’ or the ‘Ainslie group’. Claims by this group were stayed by order of Hirst J on 16 June 1989, to await the determination of the group C litigation. There are in this group a further 337 claimants together with some further potential claimants who have written letters before action but not issued proceedings. These are thought to number between 90 and 100.
Limitation Act 1980
These appeals are concerned with the provisions of ss 11, 14 and 33 of the Act. All plaintiffs claim damages consisting of or including damages in respect of personal injuries to the respective plaintiffs and therefore fall under the special time limit provided in s 11(1) of the Act. Section 11 provides:
‘(3) An action to which this section applies shall not be brought after the expiration of the period applicable in accordance with subsection (4) or (5) below.
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(4) Except where subsection (5) below applies, the period applicable is three years from (a) the date on which the cause of action accrued; or (b) the date of knowledge (if later) of the person injured’.
Subsection (5) is not relevant. None of the claims qualify under s 11(4)(a) and the question in each case is whether the claim is within three years from the date of knowledge of the plaintiff under s 11(4)(b).
Section 14 provides:
‘(1) In sections 11 and 12 of this Act references to a person’s date of knowledge are references to the date on which he first had knowledge of the following facts—(a) that the injury in question was significant; and (b) that the injury was attributable in whole or in part to the act or omission which is alleged to constitute negligence, nuisance or breach of duty; and (c) the identity of the defendant … and knowledge that any acts or omissions did or did not, as a matter of law, involve negligence, nuisance or breach of duty is irrelevant.
(2) For the purposes of this section an injury is significant if the person whose date of knowledge is in question would reasonably have considered it sufficiently serious to justify his instituting proceedings for damages against a defendant who did not dispute liability and was able to satisfy a judgment.
(3) For the purposes of this section a person’s knowledge includes knowledge which he might reasonably have been expected to acquire—(a) from facts observable or ascertainable by him; or (b) from facts ascertainable by him with the help of medical or other appropriate expert advice which it is reasonable for him to seek; but a person shall not be fixed under this subsection with knowledge of a fact ascertainable only with the help of expert advice so long as he has taken all reasonable steps to obtain (and, where appropriate, to act on) that advice.’
The ‘date of knowledge’ under s 11(4)(b) of the Act is when a claimant first had knowledge of the facts listed in s 14(1)(a), (b) and (c). Paragraph (d) is not relevant in these appeals. The three relevant inquiries in these cases are, therefore, (1) when the injury was known to be ‘significant’ within the definition of s 14(2); (2) when it was known that the injury was attributable to ‘the act or omission of the defendant’; and (3) when the identity of the defendant or defendants was known. Apart from direct or actual knowledge a plaintiff may be affected by ‘constructive knowledge’ under s 14(3). This is knowledge which he might reasonably have been expected to acquire in the several manners under paras (a) and (b). There are issues as to the construction and application of these provisions which are common to all the appeals. We will first consider the submissions which have been made upon these common issues.
‘Significant injury’
In his approach to this issue Hidden J relied upon what has become known as the McCafferty test, which is to be found in the judgment of Geoffrey Lane LJ in McCafferty v Metropolitan Police Receiver [1977] 2 All ER 756 at 775, [1977] 1 WLR 1073 at 1081:
‘… it is clear that the test is partly a subjective test, namely: would this plaintiff have considered the injury sufficiently serious? And partly an
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objective test, namely: would he have been reasonable if he did not regard it as sufficiently serious? It seems to me that [s 14(2)] is directed at the nature of the injury as known to the plaintiff at that time. Taking that plaintiff, with that plaintiff’s intelligence, would he have been reasonable in considering the injury not sufficiently serious to justify instituting proceedings for damages?’ (Geoffrey Lane LJ’s emphasis.)
The plaintiffs accept that this is the correct test; but they submit that in the circumstances of these cases the judge wrongly applied the test in failing properly to take into account the ‘side effects’ of the drug and how they appear to the patient taking the drug. Opren was recognised and accepted as a drug which had side effects including those featuring in the particular cases under appeal, namely, photosensitivity and onycholysis. A patient might well tolerate these side effects assuming them to be short term and providing that they were acceptable in degree.
In such a case the side effects, it was said, would not justify him or her in bringing an action (see s 14(2)). Thus, it was submitted that, until the degree of photosensitivity, for example, was sufficient to indicate that the drug was causing a significant injury, namely, an effect completely outside that of an acceptable side effect, it could not reasonably be said that the patient was aware of a ‘significant injury’. This was a matter which had to be considered with reference to the individual facts of each plaintiff’s case and, in particular, whether and for how long and to what degree the effect persisted after the patient stopped taking the drug. The distinction between an expected, or accepted, side effect and an injurious and unacceptable consequence of taking a prescribed drug is valid. The contrary was not argued by Mr Playford QC.
‘Knowledge’
The judge considered two authorities on the question of knowledge. The first was Davis v Ministry of Defence [1985] CA Transport 413, where May LJ said:
‘… “knowledge” is an ordinary English word with a clear meaning to which one must give full effect: reasonable belief or suspicion is not enough.’
However, the matter was further considered in Halford v Brookes [1991] 3 All ER 559 at 573, [1991] 1 WLR 428 at 443, where Lord Donaldson MR reviewed the question of knowledge:
‘The word has to be construed in the context of the purpose of the section, which is to determine a period of time within which a plaintiff can be required to start any proceedings. In this context “knowledge” clearly does not mean “know for certain and beyond possibility of contradiction”. It does, however, mean “know with sufficient confidence to justify embarking on the preliminaries to the issue of a writ such as submitting a claim to the proposed defendant, taking legal and other advice and collecting evidence”.’
Suspicion, particularly if it is vague and unsupported, will clearly not be enough, and neither would, in the view of May LJ, reasonable belief. Mr Brennan QC adopted the approach of May LJ, drawing a distinction between ‘knowledge’ and ‘belief’. Belief however strongly held, he submitted, did not amount to ‘knowledge’ and would not, he submitted, be sufficient to start the limitation period running under s 11 of the Act. He pointed to cases where
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patients believed that their suffering was due to Opren but who did not bring proceedings because they were advised by their specialist that this was not so. Mr Playford invited the court to apply the construction stated by Lord Donaldson MR.
In as much as both judgments were considering the state of the plaintiff‘s mind in the context of a decision to take advice about claiming compensation proceedings, there does not appear to be any material divergence in principle between the two judgments. Both direct attention to the determination of the time when a plaintiff’s state of mind, hitherto said to amount to suspicion or belief, first becomes knowledge of those facts listed in s 14(1). We do not, of course, intend to lay down a definition of the word ’knowledge’ for the purposes of a statute in which Parliament left the word to speak for itself. In applying the section to the facts of these cases, we shall proceed on the basis that knowledge is a condition of mind which imports a degree of certainty and that the degree of certainty which is appropriate for this purpose is that which, for the particular plaintiff, may reasonably be regarded as sufficient to justify embarking upon the preliminaries to the making of a claim for compensation such as the taking of legal or other advice.
Whether or not a state of mind for this purpose is properly to be treated by the court as knowledge seems to us to depend, in the first place, upon the nature of the information which the plaintiff has received, the extent to which he pays attention to the information as affecting him, and his capacity to understand it. There is a second stage at which the information, when received and understood, is evaluated. It may be rejected as unbelievable. It may be regarded unreliable or uncertain. The court must assess the intelligence of the plaintiff; consider and assess his assertions as to how he regarded such information as he had; and determine whether he had knowledge of the facts by reason of his understanding of the information. The section, it is to be emphasised, attaches consequence to the having of knowledge which depends upon information and understanding. It does not depend upon the character of a plaintiff with reference, for example, to how vindictive or forgiving he may be with reference to an injury done, nor whether he is acquisitive or self-denying, or long-suffering or self-pitying. Such attributes, when demonstrated, may be of assistance in judging the probability of conduct or the reliability of assertions but they do not determine whether a plaintiff has knowledge.
In these particular cases the issue as to when a plaintiff had knowledge that his or her injury was significant requires to be considered against the capacity of the patient, receiving treatment properly prescribed by a doctor and knowing that it may of necessity produce unpleasant side effects, to identify the boundary between acceptable side effects, which, in our judgment, do not amount to ‘significant injury’, and unacceptable side effects which clearly would amount to significant injury in this context. The severity of the symptoms is relevant. Thus persistent photosensitivity continuing for an unacceptable period of time after the patient had ceased to take the drug would clearly be a significant injury once it was realised by the patient that the side effects should have dissipated when ingestion of the drug ceased, or in a reasonable period thereafter.
The distinction between ‘belief’ or ‘knowledge’
Under s 14(1) of the Act the relevant date from which the period of limitation runs under s 14(4)(b) of the Act is the date on which the plaintiff first had knowledge. Mr Playford submitted that once it had been established that the
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plaintiff had knowledge, actual or constructive, then the period of limitation started to run and that nothing that occurred thereafter would interrupt that process. Section 14 of the Act, he submitted, contained no provision for suspension or termination of this process. Section 33, he submitted, had been included to deal with exceptional or hard cases. Mr Brennan did not argue to the contrary, nor could he do so in view of the presence of the word ‘first’ in s 14.
He did, however, rely upon the distinction between belief and knowledge, which formed the basis of the judgment of May LJ in Davis v Ministry of Defence [1985] CA Transcript 418 in relation to the cases to which he made reference where the patient had initially formed a firm belief that his condition was due to the act or default of the defendant but did not bring his proceedings as a result of advice from experts which he received subsequently. The issue was whether the realisation of the significance of his injury and its connection with the act or omission of the defendant, held for however short a period of time before the receipt of further expert advice, was sufficient to ‘trigger the limitation period’. Mr Playford argued that once the period of limitation had started, ie when the plaintiff ‘had knowledge’ of the significance of his injury and its connection with the default of the defendant, then the period of limitation started to run and was not interrupted by any subsequent event such as receipt of advice to the contrary. Mr Playford submitted that, even where such advice was received before the expiry of the period of limitation, nevertheless there was no provision within the terms of s 14 under which the running of the period of limitation could either be suspended or the period itself extended to take into account the effects upon the mind of the plaintiff of the professional advice which he received. Mr Brennan accepted that there was no provision within the section but submitted that, in judging whether the plaintiff had knowledge necessary to satisfy the provisions of s 14(1)(a) and (b), the issue had to be judged by observing retrospectively the total progress of the events, from the point of view of the date of the trial of the preliminary issue, to determine at what point it could rightly be said that the plaintiff’s strongly held belief crystallised into ‘knowledge’ for the purposes of the section. Mr Brennan relied upon the approach of this court in Davis v Ministry of Defence where, as he submitted, a precisely equivalent position arose.
The facts in Davis v Ministry of Defence can be summarised as follows. The plaintiff worker, who was employed by the defendants between 1955 and 1971, worked until April 1969 as a welder. In April 1969 he contracted dermatitis. It was described as a localised attack. He suffered further similar outbreaks between then and August 1971 at which date he had a serious generalised outbreak and in the event left the defendants’ employment. Thereafter for a number of years he claimed and drew industrial injury benefit on the grounds of his dermatitis. The plaintiff’s general practitioner at all times held the view that the plaintiff’s skin condition was due to contact with dust at his place of employment and this belief was shared by the plaintiff himself. In 1972 the plaintiff applied to his trade union for legal assistance with a view to a possible claim for compensation. Solicitors were instructed who asked for facilities for inspection of the plaintiff’s working conditions. This took place in October 1972. The claims commission of the defendants rejected the plaintiff’s claim in a letter to his solicitors of 18 January 1973, stating that they could find no direct evidence to show that the dermatitis was connected with the work the plaintiff was doing. As part of preparing the case, for consideration by the defendants’ claims commission, the plaintiff had been examined by a doctor who had
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advised that his condition was not unconnected with his work. This opinion was confirmed by tests carried out upon the plaintiff. Somehow the result of this examination never reached the claims commission. Nevertheless the plaintiff obtained a legal aid certificate and issued a writ against his employers on 29 October 1973. In the event this writ was never served or renewed and it lapsed. The writ with which the Court of Appeal was concerned was not issued until 10 November 1981. This was followed by a statement of claim served on 8 June 1982, which included a plea that prior to 10 November 1978, namely, three years before the issue of the second writ, the plaintiff was unaware that the general outbreak and his subsequent symptoms were attributable to the defendants’ previously pleaded negligence and breach of statutory duty and that he would accordingly rely upon s 11(4)(b) of the Act. From this short resume of the facts it appears that the plaintiff had a firm belief, which was supported by his general practitioner, that he had a significant injury and that this was attributable to the fault of his employers. If Mr Playford’s submission is correct, this would have triggered the period of limitation well before the period of three years preceding the issue of the writ in November 1981. We now turn to the part of the judgment of May LJ where he considered the position in which the plaintiff found himself in relation to the advice which he had received from time to time:
‘There is no question that [the plaintiff’s dermatitis] was “significant” within s 14(1)(a) of the 1980 Act. I think that the plaintiff has believed strongly throughout that his dermatitis has been caused by his working conditions and that he had a good claim for damages against the defendants. The learned judge found against the plaintiff in these terms: “It is plain on the evidence that the plaintiff, well before 10 November 1978 knew that his injury was attributable to the act or omission which he alleges constituted negligence or breach of duty in the sense that he knew or believed and was convinced that it was capable of attribution to that and to nothing else”. A little later the note of his judgment contains this sentence: “The plaintiff has never ceased to associate his dermatitis with conditions during his employment”. With all respect to the learned judge, I think that he wrongly assimilated what the plaintiff firmly believed throughout to what he knew. I have no doubt, as I have said, that the plaintiff has always believed that his dermatitis was due to his employers’ fault and that he had a good claim against them. However, it is clear that he was advised that he did not and the combined state of mind of the plaintiff himself, as a layman, and that of his doctors and legal advisers, which must be attributed to him by s 14(3) of the 1980 Act, cannot, in my opinion, so surely be said to have been such that he and they knew prior to 10 November 1978 that his dermatitis was capable of being attributed to the plaintiff’s working conditions. It is, I think, at least well arguable that the view of the plaintiff’s medical and legal advisers in the early 1970s, as it appears from the papers before us, was that the plaintiff’s dermatitis could not be so attributed, but was indeed constitutional.’ (May LJ’s emphasis.)
It appears that the point raised by Mr Playford was not specifically argued before the Court of Appeal. However, as Mr Brennan has submitted, in Davis’s case there was clearly a period of time when the plaintiff realised or knew that his injury was significant and held a firm belief that it was attributable to the fault of the defendants.
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Whilst we do not accept Mr Playford’s unqualified test which would equate firm belief and knowledge in all circumstances, we do not find a great deal of assistance from the judgment of May LJ in Davis v Ministry of Defence. In that case, the appeal was not from trial of a preliminary issue upon evidence but from an order striking out the action. May LJ said:
‘… as the … application is summarily to strike out the action in limine … the court should only accede to it if the answer to the question [as to when the plaintiff had knowledge] is clear and obvious and the contrary unarguable.’
Moreover, the facts of the case were, as Lord Donaldson MR said in Halford v Brookes [1991] 3 All ER 559 at 572–573, [1991] WLR 428 at 442, highly unusual. The decision does, however, appear to regard as arguable the contention that, if a claimant is shown to have had knowledge, as we understand the meaning of that word in this context, that his injury is attributable to the act or omission of the defendant, the subsequent obtaining of expert advice for the purpose of legal proceedings which says that the injury is not so attributable, could retrospectively cause him never to have had such knowledge. We do not accept that that contention is arguable. It seems to us to be in conflict with the words of the statute.
The answer to the problem, we think, is to be found in the way in which the court should, on the facts, approach and decide the question whether and when a claimant’s state of mind amounted to knowledge for the purpose of ss 11 and 14 of the Act. As we have said above, whether a claimant has knowledge depends both upon the information he has received and upon what he makes of it. If it appears that a claimant, while believing that his injury is attributable to the act or omission of the defendant, realises that his belief requires expert confirmation before he acquires such a degree of certainty of belief as amounts to knowledge, then he will not have knowledge until that confirmation is obtained. Frequently, as it seems to us, it will be safe for the court to proceed upon the basis that a claimant did realise that he required confirmation if he acted in a manner consistent with that state of mind even if he is, as he may frequently be, unable to recall with any degree of precision what his state of mind was. Conclusions as to a claimant’s state of mind will, we think, usually be more securely based upon inference from conduct in the known circumstances than from a claimant’s later assertion as to how he now recalls his then state of mind as between, for example, belief or knowledge. We add that we have difficulty in perceiving how in any case where a claimant has sought advice and taken proceedings, it can rightly be held that the claimant had not then had relevant knowledge.
For the reasons given, we have come to the following conclusions which will guide us in our consideration of the submissions made upon the individual appeals.
(1) The antithesis between belief and knowledge which Mr Brennan sought to derive from Davis v Ministry of Defence is for the purposes of s 14(1) a false antithesis.
(2) ‘Knowledge’ in the meaning of s 14 is a state of mind experienced by the plaintiff actually existing or which might have existed had the plaintiff, acting reasonably, acquired knowledge from the facts observable or ascertainable by him or which he could have acquired with the help of medical or other appropriate expert advice which it was reasonable for him to obtain.
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(3) The period of limitation begins to run when the plaintiff can first be said to have had knowledge of the nature of his injury to justify the particular plaintiff taking the preliminary steps for the institution of proceedings against the person or persons whose act or omission has caused the significant injury concerned.
(4) By s 14(3) ‘knowledge’ for the purposes of 14(1) includes knowledge reasonably expected to be acquired. There will be cases in which a firmly held belief actually held by the plaintiff precluded consideration of any further steps which he might reasonably have taken to acquire from knowledge of further facts before initiating proceedings. In other cases the state of the plaintiff’s belief would make it reasonable for him to make the further inquiries envisaged in s 14(3). The temporal and circumstantial span of reasonably inquiry will depend on the factual context of the case and the subjective characteristics of the individual plaintiff involved.
(5) It is to be noted that a firm belief held by the plaintiff that his injury was attributable to the act or omission of the defendant, but in respect of which he thought it necessary to obtain reassurance or confirmation from experts, medical or legal, or others, would not be regarded as knowledge until the result of his inquiries was known to him or, if he delayed in obtaining that confirmation, until the time at which it was reasonable for him to have got it. If negative expert advice is obtained, that fact must be considered in combination with all other relevant facts in deciding when, if ever, the plaintiff had knowledge. If no inquiries were made, then, if it were reasonable for such inquiries to have been made, and if the failure to make them is not explained, constructive knowledge within the terms of s 14(3) must be considered. If the plaintiff held a firm belief which was of sufficient certainty to justify the taking of the preliminary steps for proceedings by obtaining advice about making a claim for compensation, then such belief is knowledge and the limitation period would begin to run.
(6) Finally it is important to remember where the onus of proof lies. If the writ is not issued within three years of the date when the cause of action arose (see s 11(4)(a)), the onus is on the plaintiff to plead and prove a date within the three years preceding the date of the issue of the writ (see s 11(4)(b)). If the defendant wishes to rely on a date prior to the three year period immediately preceding the issue of the writ, the onus is on the defendant to prove that the plaintiff had or ought to have had knowledge by that date.
Attributability
If it has been shown that there was knowledge of the existence of a significant injury, it is then necessary to turn to consider when a plaintiff had knowledge that the injury was attributable, in whole or in part, to the act or omission of the relevant defendant or defendants. This involves two requirements, knowledge of the nature of the act or omission and of the identity of the defendant. The correlation between the photosensitivity and the ingestion of the Opren drug has never been in dispute. What is in dispute is the degree of detail with which the act or omission must be identifiable by the plaintiff before time starts to run under s 14. This was referred to as ‘specificity’.
Before considering the question as to the degree of detail required for sufficient knowledge of the act or omission, it is necessary to examine the meaning of the word ‘attributable’ in this context. It is, we think, of importance in these cases as Hidden J pointed out. The question as to what information, when received and understood, will impart knowledge of attributability of the act or omission depends upon the meaning of ‘attributable’. In his first
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judgment Hidden J said that he derived help in construing the word ‘attributable’ from the decision of this court in Guidera v NEI Projects (India) Ltd [1990] CA Transcript 60. He cited a passage from the judgment of Sir David Croom-Johnson, with which Slade and Mann LJJ agreed, in which Sir David Croom-Johnson said that the trial judge had wrongly introduced into his construction of s 14(1)(b) the word ‘reasonably’ and continued:
‘In my view, the judge should not have introduced the word “reasonably” when it is not there. Interpreting the word “attributable” as meaning “capable of being attributed” (as one must on authority and as a matter of common sense) that phrase means that attribution is merely possible, a real possibility and not a fanciful one. The act or omission of the defendant must be a possible cause as opposed to a probable cause of the injury. One is dealing here with knowledge, actual or imputed, and not with proof of liability. “Reasonableness” becomes relevant to attribution when knowledge is to be imputed under s 14(3). The court then has to decide what knowledge the plaintiff might reasonably have been expected to acquire from facts ascertainable by him with the help of medical or other appropriate expert advice which it is reasonable for him to seek.’
Hidden J returned to this matter in his second judgment where he said that he had applied the approach in McCafferty v Metropolitan Police District Receiver [1977] 2 All ER 756, [1977] 1 WLR 1073 separately to all the plaintiffs in relation to the question of knowledge under s 14(1)(b). He continued:
‘It is important to bear in mind … that the word “knowledge” does not stand in isolation, nor is it followed by the words “that it can be proved that” or even by the words “that it is probable that”. It is the words “that the injury was attributable” that follow the word “knowledge”.’
He then referred again to the passage from the judgment of Sir David Croom-Johnson in the Guidera case and added:
‘The stark strength of the word “knowledge” does not stand alone. It is knowledge that attribution is merely possible, a real possibility and not a fanciful one, a possible cause as opposed to a probable cause of the injury. It is in that sense that I have used the word throughout this judgment.’
It was accepted on behalf of the plaintiffs that Hidden J had correctly set out the proper approach to the construction of this word. The concession was, in our judgment, rightly made.
Hidden J also relied upon the judgment of Slade LJ in Wilkinson v Ancliff (BLT) Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 427 at 438, [1986] 1 WLR 1352 at 1365:
‘In a case such as the present, where the acts and omissions on the part of the defendants which are complained of are, in broad terms, the exposure of their employee to dangerous working conditions and their failure to take reasonable and proper steps to protect him from such conditions, I think that the employee who has this broad knowledge may well have knowledge of the nature referred to in s 14(1)(b) sufficient to set time running against him, even though he may not yet have the knowledge sufficient to enable him or his legal advisers to draft a fully and comprehensively particularised statement of claim.’
Slade LJ concluded ([1986] 3 All ER 427 at 429, [1986] 1 WLR 1352 at 1366):
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‘Nevertheless, on the basis of his own case and evidence, I think that the plaintiff, after his visit to hospital in November 1981, well knew that his injuries were capable of being attributed to what could be compendiously and properly described as the defendants’ failure to provide him with safe working conditions.’
After referring to other cases, including Driscoll-Varley v Parkside Health Authority (15 January 1990, unreported), Bentley v Bristol and Western Health Authority (10 October 1990, unreported), Davies v City and Hackney Health Authority 19 January 1989, unreported), and Stephen v Riverside Health Authority [1990] 1 Med LR 261, Hidden J concluded:
‘It follows from my review of the cases which have been cited to me that, in my view, they indicate that there must be a degree of specificity and not a mere global or catch-all character about the act or omission which in the cases before me is alleged to constitute negligence or breach of duty. It is in the light of that requirement that I shall shortly have to look at the evidence that was put before me in relation to the drug Opren and its effect upon the various plaintiffs, and also at their activity, or lack of it, in relation to those facts in arriving at my decision as to the date of knowledge for the purposes of s 14(1)(b) in respect of each plaintiff.’
After reviewing the submissions made to him, Hidden J concluded that—
‘the act or omission relevant in these cases for the purposes of s 14(1)(b) can best be expressed in the words “providing for the use of patients a drug which was unsafe in that it was capable of causing persistent photosensitivity in those patients and/or in failing to discover that such was the case so as properly to protect such patients”.’
Mr Brennan submitted that these expressions are not sufficiently specific and that the ‘unsafe’ point begs the question as to (a) what is the very act or omission alleged to constitute negligence and (b) ‘the failing to take reasonable steps to protect’ provides no specific basis for identifying the ‘very act or omission’. He further submitted that the plaintiff must be shown to have knowledge that the—
‘marketing of an unsafe drug was because of (a) lack of care in testing the drug and/or (b) lack of care in informing the medical profession about the drug and/or (c) lack of care in responding to adverse drug reaction reports by the profession whereby the plaintiffs suffered injury.’
We do not accept this submission. It was not, in our judgment, the intention of Parliament to require for the purposes of s 11 and s 14 of the Act proof of knowledge of the terms in which it will be alleged that the act or omission of the defendants constituted negligence or breach of duty. What is required is knowledge of the essence of the act or omission to which the injury is attributable. The judge’s formulation cannot, in our judgment, be faulted.
We would refer back at this point to s 14(1)(a) in order to comment that, where the definition of ‘significant’ in s 14(2) uses for the concept of sufficiency that which would justify the institution of proceedings, that is merely to indicate the gravity of the injury and the effect that it would have on the mind of the plaintiff and no more. The question of attributability to one or more defendants in the context of legal proceedings is dealt with under s 14(1)(b) and
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(c) and the requirement for any knowledge of the law is specifically excluded by the closing passage of s 14(1).
‘Constructive knowledge’
Section 14(3), which deals with ‘constructive knowledge’, applies generally not only to the nature of the injury under para (a)of s 14(1) but also to attributability, to the knowledge of the nature of the cause of action in para (b) and the question of identification of the defendant in para (c). It is convenient at this point to consider the two main sources from which constructive knowledge can be imputed to a prospective plaintiff. Subsection (3)(a) is straightforward and covers a plaintiff‘s lack of appreciation of observable data or failure to acquire ascertainable data from which the plaintiff should have realised or obtained the relevant facts. On this basis, in our judgment, the proper approach is to determine what this plaintiff should have observed or ascertained, while asking no more of him than is reasonable. The standard of reasonableness in connection with the observations and/or the effort to ascertain are therefore finally objective but must be qualified to take into consideration the position, and circumstances and character of the plaintiff. Turning to sub-s (3)(b), this subsection deals with facts ascertainable with the help of advice from outside expert sources, which, in the circumstances of the case, it is reasonable for the plaintiff to seek. As the whole of this section is dealing with claims for personal injury the specific reference to medical advice is understandable; but it clearly extends to other experts whom it would be reasonable to expect the plaintiff to consult. In considering whether or not the inquiry is, or is not, reasonable, the situation, character and intelligence of the plaintiff must be relevant.
In the claims which are the subject matter of these appeals, the provisions of s 14(3) are particularly relevant as to the individual plaintiff’s appreciation of his or her own condition in relation to the question whether the effects from which he or she is suffering are acceptable side effects which can be expected in the use of any toxic drug, or whether they have reached the intensity and persistence to be recognised as unacceptable and therefore significant injury.
In relation to s 14(1)(b), attributability, sub-s (3)(a) is frequently relevant in the form of facts observed by the plaintiffs from media communications, both by television and newspapers, or ascertainable by him by reference to the OAC with or without the aid of a solicitor. Under sub-s 3(b) in many cases medical advice becomes relevant both in a positive and a negative sense. In some cases the general practitioners were, and in some cases were not, fully informed about the side effects of the Opren drug and in one case referred the patient to a specialist who positively excluded Opren as the cause of the symptoms being suffered by the plaintiff.
There was considerable debate before Hidden J concerning the position of a solicitor, whether in fact instructed by a plaintiff, or one who might reasonably have been instructed, in relation to s 14(3)(a) and (b). Counsel for the plaintiffs submitted that a solicitor would be in a special position and did not fall into either of those two paragraphs. Hidden J rejected this submission and came to the conclusion that the appropriate subsection in these cases was s 14(3)(a). Of course, as advice from a solicitor as to the legal consequences of the act or omission is not relevant, his contribution can only consist of factual information. Moreover, where constructive knowledge is under consideration through the channel of a solicitor, this can only be relevant where it is established that the plaintiff ought reasonably to have consulted a solicitor at
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all. Thus it is for the defendant to establish not only that a solicitor whom the plaintiff might consult would have the necessary knowledge but also that it was reasonable to expect the plaintiff to consult him.
This question was considered at some length in the judgments of Hidden J and we can see no reason to depart from his general approach to this matter. In many cases the plaintiff’s source of knowledge, with reference to whether his or her symptoms constituted a significant injury and to what they were attributable, was naturally their general practitioner, or in cases where a specialist was consulted, that specialist. These persons tended to concentrate upon the solution of the plaintiff’s medical problems and did not in all cases volunteer advice on questions of attributability of fault. In these circumstances it would be unreasonable to attribute to a plaintiff knowledge possessed by the doctor unless it would also have been reasonable to expect the plaintiff to have sought advice which would have produced the information. We agree with the submission made by Mr Brennan that in all these cases the reasonableness of the action of the plaintiff must be judged.
As to the submissions made on behalf of the defendants that the mere announcement of the withdrawal of the drug by the defendants should necessarily have put individual plaintiffs on notice, without more, we cannot accept that the announcement can necessarily be treated as having that consequence. In many cases all that happened, when the plaintiff complained of the side effects of the drug, was that he or she was taken off the drug. This experience, which is common in the treatment of patients with drugs, may fall short of putting a plaintiff on notice that there is some act or omission on the part of the manufacturer or supplier to which the undesirable effect is attributable. This does not, of course, dispose of the argument upon which the defendants rely, namely, that the patients might well have been alerted by the extensive publicity given to the unacceptable side effects of the drug and the establishment of the OAC. But this is an area in which the onus of proving constructive knowledge is on the defendants.
Identity of defendants
We now turn to consider s 14(1)(c). The case made by the plaintiffs was that for the purposes of s 11 time did not run against any one defendant until the identity of that defendant was known or was ascertainable by the plaintiffs. The writs issued by the plaintiffs in the original group were issued in 1983 against Eli Lilly & Co, Lilly Industries Ltd, and Dista Products Ltd. It was only by amendment in August 1985 that the defendants, Lilly Research Centre Ltd and William Sheddon, were added. Thus it was argued by the plaintiffs that those ‘in the thick of the action’ only ascertained the identity of the additional defendants in August 1985. It was submitted that time should not run until that date. This was on the basis that the OAG were not aware of the existence of Lilly Research Centre Ltd or William Sheddon and therefore no reference prior to the summer of 1985 could be used as constructive knowledge on the part of the plaintiffs of the existence of these particular defendants. Later, so far as William Sheddon was concerned, since he was a party to the action in America in 1984, the effective date so far as this defendant is concerned had to be brought forward to 1983 but the point still remained with reference to Lilly Research Centre Ltd.
It is a clear requirement of s 14(1)(c) that the plaintiff must have knowledge of the identity of the defendant. However, in the case of a corporate entity, such as those with which these appeals are concerned, the laws applicable to the
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operation of such corporation may be expected to provide, and do provide, that the true position of the individual members of the corporate structure are ascertainable. These details as facts would therefore fall within s 14(3)(a). This is an aspect of the appeal which at first caused us some hesitation; but, in the particular circumstances of these appeals, we do not think that any real point arises. The point is not dealt with by the judge, nor does it appear that the point was argued on behalf of the plaintiffs below. The point has, however, now been argued on appeal by Mr Brennan. It is not necessary to look beyond the particular circumstances of these cases to complex problems of identity which might arise in other cases. Suffice it to say that we are satisfied that in all the cases with which these appeals are concerned, once attributability has been established against one or more of the defendants, the identity of the remaining defendants was reasonably ascertainable. Mr Shedden is an individual and not a corporate entity. His identity, as the servant of the Lilly defendants who was in charge of clinical research and of submissions of applications for licences for drugs, was ascertainable on application to the Lilly defendants.
Exercise of discretion under s 33
Quite separately from the considerations as to whether the period of limitation under s 11 is extended under the provisions of s 14 the court has a discretionary power to allow an action to proceed if it would be equitable so to do, notwithstanding the provisions of s 11 (or s 12) of the Act.
The provisions of s 33 are as follows:
‘(1) If it appears to the court that it would be equitable to allow an action to proceed having regard to the degree to which—(a) the provisions of section 11 or 12 of this Act prejudice the plaintiff or any person whom he represents; and (b) any decision of the court under this subsection would prejudice the defendant or any person whom he represents; the court may direct that those provisions shall not apply to the action, or shall not apply to any specified cause of action to which the action relates …
(3) In acting under this section the court shall have regard to all the circumstances of the case and in particular to—(a) the length of, and the reasons for, the delay on the part of the plaintiff; (b) the extent to which, having regard to the delay, the evidence adduced or likely to be adduced by the plaintiff or the defendant is or is likely to be less cogent than if the action had been brought within the time allowed by section 11 or (as the case may be) by section 12; (c) the conduct of the defendant after the cause of action arose, including the extent (if any) to which he responded to requests reasonably made by the plaintiff for information or inspection for the purpose of ascertaining facts which were or might be relevant to the plaintiff’s cause of action against the defendant; (d) the duration of any disability of the plaintiff arising after the date of the accrual of the cause of action; (e) the extent to which the plaintiff acted promptly and reasonably once he knew whether or not the act or omission of the defendant, to which the injury was attributable, might be capable at that time of giving rise to an action for damages; (f) the steps, if any, taken by the plaintiff to obtain medical, legal or other expert advice and the nature of any such advice he may have received …’
In construing and applying s 33 it must be remembered that it only comes into effect when a proposed plaintiff has failed to establish that the date of knowledge was sufficiently postponed within the provisions of s 14 so as to
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cause the limitation period to extend to the date upon which the writ was issued. Although inquiries necessary for the determination of questions arising under s 33 may well cover the same evidential grounds, it is to be emphasised that Parliament has provided that, upon proof that an action is statute-barred, the court has an unfettered discretion to allow the action to proceed if it would be equitable to do so. The burden of showing that it would be equitable to do so, as has been common ground, is on the plaintiff.
Subsection (1) establishes the balancing exercise in considering, from an equitable point of view, the prejudice to the plaintiff if he is deprived of his right of action as against the prejudice to the defendant if the action is permitted to continue. Subsection (3) provides that the court in carrying out this exercise must have regard to ‘all the circumstances of the case’ and particularly to the considerations set out in paras (a) to (f) inclusive. Subject to acting judicially the discretion of the court is entirely unfettered. The specific matters set out in sub-s (3) are exemplary and not definitive.
Thus the Court of Appeal will be very slow to interfere with the exercise of discretion under this section (see Conry v Simpson [1983] 3 All ER 369). Where, however, it is established that the judge either took into account factors which he should have ignored, or ignored factors which he should have taken into account, or was plainly wrong, then this court is under a duty to interfere and, in appropriate cases, to substitute a decision based upon its own discretion. On the one hand, provided that it is relevant to the circumstances of the case, the judge may take into account a factor not specifically mentioned in the paragraphs of sub-s (3) but, on the other hand, if it is established that the judge failed to take into account any of the matters mentioned in sub-s (3) which were relevant to the carrying out of the balancing exercise, then his judgment is susceptible to attack. It should, however, be mentioned that a judge is not under a duty specifically to refer to each and every fact which he has found upon which he has exercised his discretion.
In the first judgment Hidden J considered the appropriate matters which arose and announced that he would apply his findings to the individual cases, without repeating them. This course was clearly expeditious but it had obvious dangers, and has given rise to problems. As will later appear, we have reluctantly formed the view that Hidden J fell into error in directing himself for the purposes of the s 33 issues with reference to cogency and prejudice to the defendants. It being impossible to identify with certainty which of the possible grounds of prejudice the judge applied in any individual appeal, we have decided that we must reconsider each case under s 33 in order for this court to decide whether the court’s discretion should be exercised in favour of the plaintiffs.
The primary exercise of balancing the degree to which either party is prejudiced by the decision made under s 33, as provided for in sub-s (1)(a) and (b), has been considered in a number of recent cases. These establish that the consideration under s 33 must be broadly based; and that the primary purpose of the limitation period is to protect the defendant against the injustice of having to face a stale claim (not relevant in this case). Moreover, it is established that once a plaintiff has allowed the permitted time to elapse, the defendant is no longer subject to the disability of accepting without protest the limitation period itself. In such a situation the court is directed to consider all the circumstances of the case including conduct before the expiry of the limitation
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period and to balance the prejudice to the parties (see Donovan v Gwentoys Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 1018, [1990] 1 WLR 481).
In Hartley v Birmingham City DC [1992] 2 All ER 213, [1992] 1 WLR 968 the Court of Appeal considered generally the position under this section in relation to the previous cases of Firmin v Ellis [1978] 2 All ER 851 [1978] QB 886 and Thompson v Brown Construction (Ebbw Vale) Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 296 [1981] 1 WLR 744. The leading judgment, upon which reliance was placed for the plaintiffs, was delivered by Parker LJ in whose judgment the following passages appeared ([1992] 2 All ER 213 at 224–225, [1992] 1 WLR 968 at 979–980):
‘It appears to me to be apparent that in all, or nearly all, cases the prejudice to the plaintiff by the operation of the relevant limitation provision and the prejudice which would result to the defendant if the relevant provision were disapplied will be equal and opposite. The stronger the plaintiff’s case the greater is the prejudice to him from the operation of the provision and the greater will be the prejudice to the defendant if the provision is disapplied. Likewise the weaker the case of the plaintiff the less is he prejudiced by the operation of the provision and the less is the defendant prejudiced if it is disapplied. This might lead one to suppose that the prejudice referred to in s 33(1)(b) was not the deprivation of the fortuitous defence as such but prejudice to the defence on the merits caused by the delay. Both Lord Denning MR and Ormrod LJ appear to have assumed that this was so. That this was the parliamentary intent appears to be indicated by the fact that, as Lord Diplock pointed out, only s 33(3)(a) and (b) appear to go to prejudice and both are only dealing with the merits. The decisions of their Lordships preclude such a construction of the section. In my view, however, as the prejudice resulting from the loss of the limitation defence will always or almost always be balanced by the prejudice to the plaintiff from the operation of the limitation provision the loss of the defence as such will be of little importance. What is of paramount importance is the effect of the delay on the defendant’s ability to defend. The specific example given in s 33(3)(b) so indicates … I conclude by referring to the passage in Preston and Newsom’s Limitation of Actions (4th edn, 1989) para 4.4.4, which was mentioned by the judge: “… a defendant will normally suffer prejudice if an order is made, but he will only have lost a windfall unless his ability to defend has been affected by the delay: Thompson v Brown Construction (Ebbw Vale) Ltd ([1981] 2 All ER 296, [1981] 1 WLR 744). Consequently if the delay (however long) does not seriously affect the evidence, the power will generally be exercised: eg Brooks v J & P Coates Ltd [1984] 1 All ER 702 and Hutcheson v Pontinental (Holiday Service) Ltd ([1987] BTLC 81)”. This passage in my judgment correctly states the position as it is, or at any rate should be, save that it would be better to omit the words “however long”.’ (Parker LJ’s emphasis.)
This authority was not available to Hidden J when he delivered his judgment. The principles stated cannot in our judgment be regarded as of universal application and we do not accept that in every case where the ability of a defendant to defend on the issue of liability has not been affected by the delay, the benefit of the limitation defence must be regarded as a ‘windfall’. For the reasons given below we accept that in these cases, if it is shown that the claim
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is a poor case lacking in merit, there may be significant and relevant prejudice to the defendants if the limitation provisions are disapplied.
In his judgment Hidden J referred to the propositions that had been made by Mr Playford on the one hand and by counsel for the plaintiffs on the other. On the question of prejudice to the defendants the kernel of Mr Playford’s argument, which he asked us to assume was accepted by the judge, although the judge did not specifically say so, was set out in the following passage of the first judgment:
‘Mr Playford argued that while to hold a plaintiff to be statute-barred clearly prejudiced him, the extent of that prejudice depended on the strength of his case, the amount he was likely to recover, when he was likely to recover it and the incidence of costs. He submitted that “the claim does not look strong”. There were many complex issues and the plaintiffs face serious hurdles, including the striking lack of contemporaneous complaints and of contemporaneous and independent medical observation of their injuries. He said that the costs element meant that their net recovery after the Law Society’s statutory charge was likely to be small. On the other side, however, the defendants would have a continuing and substantial drain on costs, with little hope of recovery. There was a seriously damaging effect on their reputation which would continue. Their time and resources would be used to combat these allegations and most significantly their earlier settlement would be wasted. On this topic, Mr Playford argued that if the defendants were going to have to contest these claims, they might just as well have saved themselves the cost of settling groups A and B. Instead, not only did they settle them but they consented unnecessarily, if that be so, to the publicity surrounding the orders of Hirst J. The effect was to produce an influx of claims but that disadvantage was balanced against the prospect of finality and orderly disposal. If s 11 were to be disapplied, Mr Playford contended, the Lilly defendants would be left with all the disadvantages and none of the advantages. He argued that if the procedure devised by the court in these cases of coping with group litigation could be circumvented by the simple expedient of “lying doggo” and then claiming the indulgence of s 33, group litigation in this and other cases would become unmanageable and there would never be any incentive to settle this or any other litigation. Finality would never be achieved and there would never be any logical basis for refusing a similar indulgence to later groups D, E, F and so on.’
It is not clear whether or not Hidden J did not take ‘the settlement factor’ into account or, if he did, what weight he attached to it. For the reasons which follow, if he did attach any weight to this aspect, we think that he was wrong.
The submissions of counsel for the plaintiffs were to the effect that, in applying the discretion provided by s 33, the traditional principles admitted of no other conclusion but that discretion should be exercised by dealing with each case on its merits. The period of delay, the consideration of which was the first step in the exercise, was comparatively short (see Conry v Simpson [1983] 3 All ER 372). The defendants had to prepare themselves for the action brought by the group A and B plaintiffs and for the actions in the United States. The judge accepted the basis of this submission so far as the defendants’ evidence was concerned. Thus, if the question of prejudice is considered under sub-s (3)(b), namely in relation to the ability of either party to present their cases effectively,
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being prejudiced as a result of the delay, the judge accepted that on this aspect no prejudice was occasioned to the defendants.
Counsel for the plaintiffs further submitted to Hidden J that, for the period March 1987 to March 1988 at the end of which the defendants reached their settlement with groups A and B, they were aware of, and could have entertained, the approach made in August 1987 on behalf of the further plaintiffs who now comprise groups C and D. In so far as any prejudice had been caused to the defendants by the presence of the plaintiffs in the latter groups, after disposal by settlement of groups A and B, this was directly attributable to the conduct of the defendants and should be ignored. This submission appears to have been rejected by Hidden J. In our judgment this was a valid submission to the extent that it was an effective answer to the contention that the defendants would suffer prejudice, if any action were allowed to proceed, by loss of the benefit of the settlement made. It seems to us that the defendants settled with groups A and B because they judged it best in their own interests so to settle. They had no good reason to suppose that the court would, or must, hold that any new claimant not included in group A or B, must be denied relief under s 33 merely because that claimant was too late to be included in group A or B. If the defendants had wanted to include them, so as to dispose of all by negotiated settlement, they should have done so.
Having rehearsed at length the competing arguments proposed by Mr Playford and counsel for the plaintiffs, as well as submissions made by counsel for the government defendants, the judge summarised the position as follows:
‘So far as those general submissions are concerned, I have in the main dealt with them as I have set them out in this judgment, but it is probably right, however, that at this stage I should indicate further my general approach to these questions. The delay referred to in para (a) and para (b) of s 33(3) must clearly be the delay after the primary limitation period has expired (see Lord Diplock’s speech in Thompson v Brown Construction (Ebbw Vale) Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 296, [1981] 1 WLR 744 and Donovan v Gwentoys Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 1018, [1990] 1 WLR 472). However, the court can also clearly consider the period of time which passes before a defendant first had notification of the claim. As Lord Oliver said in Donovan v Gwentoys Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 1018 at 1026, [1990] 1 WLR 472 at 479–480: “A defendant is always likely to be prejudiced by the dilatoriness of a plaintiff in pursuing his claim. Witnesses’ memories may fade, records may be lost or destroyed, opportunities for inspection and report may be lost. The fact that the law permits a plaintiff within prescribed limits to disadvantage a defendant in this way does not mean that the defendant is not prejudiced. It merely means that he is not in a position to complain of whatever prejudice he suffers. Once a plaintiff allows the permitted time to elapse, the defendant is no longer subject to that disability, and in a situation in which the court is directed to consider all the circumstances of the case and, to balance the prejudice to the parties, the fact that the claim has, as a result of the plaintiff’s failure to use the time allowed him, become a thoroughly stale claim, cannot, in my judgment, be irrelevant.” It would therefore be a wrong approach to leave wholly out of account time which was allowed to pass before the expiry of the limitation period. What weight is to be given to that period, however, in comparison with the delay in relation to s 33(3)(a) and (b) is a matter for the court’s discretion. As to s 33(3)(b) and the question of cogency, however, I have to look at the period of delay after
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the expiry of the primary limitation period. I consider that when looking at the question of whether the evidence adduced or likely to be adduced by a party is or is likely to be less cogent, I have to look at the question overall. In seeking to carry out a balancing exercise such as is called for under s 11, I should not look at the effect of, for instance, a plaintiff’s evidence only in relation to the plaintiff’s own case. It was argued before me that the only result of the statutory period of delay would be to affect adversely a plaintiff’s evidence and that therefore, effectively, I could discount that effect. In my view, that is not the case: a lack of cogency in the case of a plaintiff—and there were frequent instances of this in the cases before me—especially where that plaintiff is elderly, may often be used to the advantage of that plaintiff. It may, in particular, be used in an attempt to explain away or at least mitigate the effects of omissions or contradictions which emerge during that evidence. In assessing the effect of delay upon cogency, I have to consider the totality of the matter. As to the effect of s 33(3)(c) I have to consider the conduct of the defendants after the cause of action arose both in general and by reference to the matters referred to in para (c). It was argued before me by counsel for the plaintiffs that the failure of the Lilly defendants to agree to the formation of a group C, a new group of plaintiffs, from March 1987 when Mr Barr [of Dawbarns, solicitors] first sought to persuade them, until March 1988 when Hirst J so ordered, was a period of delay which need not have happened and was directly attributable to the conduct of the Lily defendants and should be discounted. I do not accept that submission. In my view, it was at all times open to the plaintiffs to apply to the court for any relevant assistance. No other general complaint is made in relation to the conduct of any of these defendants. In turning now to consider the cases of the individual plaintiffs I shall, of course, seek not to repeat any of the matters which I have set out earlier in this judgment in dealing with the question of limitation, although it is axiomatic that I bear in mind both the matters therein contained and the more general arguments to which I have recently referred.’
With respect to the judge, we are forced to the conclusion that, in his treatment of the provisions of s 33(3)(b) set out above, he has confused the consideration of the relative cogency of the cases to be presented by the plaintiffs and the defendants in the context of the plaintiff’s delay under s 33(3)(a) with the overall discretion which is to be exercised by the court under s 33(1). Generally under s 33, when deciding whether it would be equitable to allow the action to proceed, having regard to the balance of prejudice to the respective parties under s 33(1)(a) and (b), ‘cogency’ within s 33(3)(b) is, in our judgment, directed to the degree to which either party is prejudiced in the presentation of the claim or defence because the evidence is either no longer available or has been adversely affected by the passage of time. There is no room in the provisions of this subsection for the concept, apparently accepted by the judge from the submissions of Mr Playford, that lack of cogency in the case of a plaintiff could inure to the benefit of that plaintiff’s case and thereby prejudice the defendant. While we understand what the learned judge had in mind, we regret to have to say that in our view this is logically unsustainable. It depends upon an assumption that the trial judge will not be able properly to assess the evidence led on behalf of the plaintiff.
It is next necessary to examine one further factor of general application, which is relevant to prejudice, namely ‘weakness of case’ upon which, in our
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judgment, Hidden J is not shown to have misdirected himself. It is not in dispute that Hidden J was invited to consider all the cases as being poor cases of doubtful success as to proof of the causation of the alleged injury, and of doubtful substance as to quantum. That submission was based upon the contention that, in all the cases, there was a startling absence of contemporaneous records of complaints having regard to the fact that, if the plaintiffs had been suffering the condition now described by them, each one would reasonably have complained to his or her doctor in the course of the many visits to doctors recorded in the notes, but either did not do so, or, if the plaintiff alleges that he had so complained notwithstanding the absence of such records, the judge should not accept the evidence that such complaints were made. It was acknowledged by Mr Brennan, rightly in our view, that such a contention was in theory open to a defendant on an application under s 33, on the basis that weakness of case is relevant to the equitable balance of prejudice under s 33(1); but he argued that such a contention was not in fact open to the defendants on the evidence in any of the particular cases and, even if the poverty of a particular case could be held to reduce the prejudice which a plaintiff might suffer on application of the limitation bar, the plaintiff was still left with substantial prejudice and the defendants had shown none other than the loss of the ‘windfall’ defence.
We do not accept the assertion that the defendants suffered no real prejudice in any one of these particular cases which is rightly regarded as a poor case and in which the time bar is disapplied. If the case is rightly regarded as a poor case, having regard to the contrast between the complaints now advanced and the absence of any record of complaints by a plaintiff, who is properly regarded as a plaintiff who would have reported such complaints to his doctor if his condition was then as he now recalls it, then, by the disapplication of the bar the defendants are put to the expense of defending, upon its merits, a poor case, which may well cost, upon the issues apart from liability, far more to defend than the case would be held to be worth. The defendants, in short, assert that it is or may be inequitable to secure to a dilatory plaintiff, who has let the limitation period pass without action, the power to claim from the defendants a sum in settlement of a poor claim which sum would reflect as much or more the risk in costs to the defendants as the fair value of the claim. In general we agree with this submission.
Evidential context
Although each case must be considered in the context of its own particular circumstances, there are a number of features which arise in many of the cases which have common attributes. The drug Opren was withdrawn in August 1982. The writs upon which the present cases are based were all issued some six years or so later. The nature of the complaints was to a large extent subjective, eg irritation, pain, dizziness, etc, and in most cases there was little to be seen by way of organic damage. During the later stages of the much publicised history of the drug, the risk of self-deceiving or exaggerated claims is obvious. For the purposes of the present preliminary issues as to whether the claims are statute barred, the medical connection between such symptoms as are established and the drug Opren has not been challenged; but this does not eliminate the necessity to investigate the strength of the claims themselves in relation to the symptoms reported for the purposes of s 33.
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The extent and quality of contemporary documentation varied much from case to case. Where there were available records from general practitioners or consultants who were called in, these provided some opportunity of testing the substance of the complaints as against the contents of formal statements which were filed and affidavits which were sworn by each plaintiff in support of his or her claim. Moreover each plaintiff was examined on his or her own behalf through arrangements made by the OAG by Dr Ward whose reports were also available, but these, of course, were made long after the events which are critical for the purposes of s 14 and s 33. The main method of testing the claims available, therefore, to the defendants was a comparison of contemporary records with present complaints for the purposes of establishing the date at which the plaintiff had, or should have had, knowledge within the meaning of s 11 of the Act and of testing the credibility of the claim. Moreover the investigation was made more difficult, in some cases, by the fact that the plaintiff concerned with suffering from other serious incapacities not the least of which was the arthritis itself which was the reason for the initial prescription of Opren. In a very few cases the defendants took the opportunity of having an examination by an expert of their own but his reports were not put before the judge. This was a cause for criticism by Mr Brennan who invited the court to draw adverse inference therefrom. On the other hand, Mr Playford claimed that in the particular inquiry with which these preliminary issues were concerned, there was nothing that could assist the court which would arise from these reports. However, we feel bound to comment that in the hands of a medical expert a skillful and careful interrogation of the patient can frequently disclose conscious or subconscious exaggerations or falsehoods in the history. However, no evidence of that sort was available.
Group action and public policy
Having set out the provisions of s 33(1) and (3) and rehearsed the arguments of Mr Playford and counsel for the government departments on the one hand and counsel for the plaintiffs on the other hand, Hidden J made the following statement indicating his decision on the common issues:
‘I say at once in relation to that submission that I have come to the conclusion that there cannot be a different method of application of the court’s discretion under s 33 in multi-partite cases from that of any single ordinary individual incident claim, as Mr Fenwick put it. The purpose of the section is to give guidance as to how the discretion is to be used. In my view it would not be proper for there to be two different sets of principles for the application of that discretion, one for an ordinary run-of-the-mill case and another for multi-partite litigation. Mr Fenwick went on to say that the effect of a s 33 decision in favour of the plaintiffs generally without consideration of exceptional circumstances would make this kind of litigation unsettleable. Despite that warning, I have already indicated that I cannot accept that there should be “exceptional circumstances” in multi-partite litigation in distinction to any other sort of litigation.’
Pursuing a respondent’s notice, leave for the filing of which was granted by this court, Mr Playford submitted that, were the court to exercise discretion in favour of all or a substantial number of the plaintiffs, serious prejudice would be occasioned to the defendants and the action would be contrary to public policy. He argued:
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‘Now the groups instead of A and B will be C and D, but the problems will be just the same. There will be the same lack of discipline, the more so since, ex hypothesi, s 33 would have been exercised in favour of the plaintiffs and it will be publicly seen that the relatively clear-cut effect of limitation, certainly clear-cut to anyone reading the reported judgments of Hirst J, would by no means be clear-cut, but people could without showing any very substantial reason at all expect to have discretion exercised in their favour, and so far as these defendants are concerned it would effectively mean starting again in this litigation which terminated by settlement so far as groups A and B are concerned.’
Ultimately, as we understand the position adopted by Mr Playford, he accepted that the matters of prejudice with reference to the fact that these are group actions, were more properly to be taken into consideration as part of ‘all the circumstances of the case’ within s 33 rather than as matters of free-standing public policy. In our view, the judge was right to reject the argument based upon an appeal to public policy. We have already given our reasons for holding that the defendants have failed to demonstrate as against any plaintiff any prejudice based on the concept of loss of the benefit of the settlement made with other plaintiffs.
There is no argument which can be validly based on public policy, as first proposed by Mr Playford, because on analysis this submission really amounted to an invitation to the court to impose definite limits on proposed plaintiffs by manipulating the exercise of discretion under s 33. There may well be a strong case for legislative action to provide a jurisdictional structure for the collation and resolution of mass product liability claims, particularly in the pharmaceutical field, but this court cannot devise such rules. In this sense we echo the remarks made by Lord Donaldson MR in Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co [1987] 3 All ER 94 at 96, [1987] 1 WLR 1136 at 1139 under the heading ‘The concept of the “class action” as yet unknown to the English courts’.
Before turning to consideration of the individual appeals, we will consider the appeal on the question of costs by one successful plaintiff in the first trial, Mr Cockburn.
Appeal of Mr Cockburn on costs
Timothy Edward Cockburn was the only so-called lead case to succeed. It now transpires that the circumstances of his case were not typical of others in group C and therefore that he should not have been selected as a ‘lead case’. Although he is therefore a unique plaintiff, he must for the purposes of the appeal be considered in the same way as the other lead case plaintiffs would be considered. The starting point is the order giving directions made by consent by Hirst J on 29 March 1988. The provisions relevant for the appeal are contained in Sch 1, para 12 of the order, which reads:
‘Unless otherwise ordered, in the case of any costs incurred and/or summons brought and in and/or any hearing in respect of any action within the co-ordinated arrangements for Sch III actions, and at the first trial or other disposal of actions selected under any co-ordinated arrangements for Sch III actions, any costs which are ordered to be paid by, or which fall to be borne by, any plaintiff shall be paid or borne proportionately by each of the plaintiffs whose action is included in any Sch III action (including those plaintiffs who are legally aided) so that each such plaintiff shall bear an equal part thereof.’
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This paragraph is dealing with costs directly incurred by any individual plaintiffs as well as any costs which an individual plaintiff might be ordered to pay to any of the defendants. It does not of course deal as such with whether an order for costs should be made ‘inter partes’, and if so what that order ought to be. Its significance however for the present issue is that the costs to be paid or to be borne by the plaintiffs shall be distributed amongst them (including those receiving legal aid) so that ‘each plaintiff shall bear any equal part thereof’. Under this order, therefore, Mr Cockburn is entitled to look to each of the other plaintiffs for the payment of an equal part of the ‘costs’ which he has had to bear in the preparation for the preliminary issues.
The order was based on a judgment of Hirst J and an order made in earlier proceedings (groups A and B) on 8 May 1987 to a similar effect. The order is conveniently described in the judgment of Lord Donaldson MR on appeal from the order in Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co [1987] 3 All ER 94 at 98, [1987] 1 WLR 1136 at 1141:
‘In these circumstances the judge decided to make a wholly novel order. In its detail it is of some complexity, but for present purposes it is only necessary to summarise its general effect. This was that, as from 8 June 1987, where particular plaintiffs incurred costs either personally or through the legal aid fund in pursuing lead actions, or thereby became liable to pay costs to the defendants, every other plaintiff should contribute rateably on a per capita basis. Those who have practised in the Commercial Court, of which Hirst J is one of the judges, will recognise the age old respectability of such an order, based as it clearly is on the Rhodian Law, the Rolls of Oleron and the maritime law of general average. But antiquity, respectability and indeed fundamental fairness is one thing: the power to make such an order is quite another. And there we come to the nub of this appeal. Before coming to that issue I should add that the judge recognised that in the months that lie ahead before a settlement of a final hearing circumstances might change. Thus some of the plaintiffs might decide to abandon their claims, so that instead of each plaintiff having to contribute 66 p for every £1,000 of the costs of the lead plaintiffs (on the basis of 1,500 plaintiffs), the contribution might rise significantly. And other unforeseeable eventualities might arise making this order unfair or unduly burdensome. He therefore gave all the parties liberty to apply to vary the order if circumstances changed. Finally he rightly stressed that his order in no way fettered the discretion of the trial judge to make special orders as to costs between the plaintiffs or individual plaintiffs and the defendants or individual defendants. In essence what he was doing was providing for contribution as between plaintiffs in respect of costs incurred by them or liability for costs imposed upon them, subject always to retaining a right to vary that order if justice so required. He also recognised that some plaintiffs might not wish to accept even this very small percentage of what in total could be a very considerable liability and he therefore ordered that any plaintiff who wished to abandon his action could do so, each party bearing its own costs of that discontinuance if he did so before 8 June 1987.’
As Lord Donaldson MR emphasised, the opening words ‘unless otherwise ordered’ import a wide and flexible discretion which enables in special cases an order to be made to meet the justice of an individual case if it does not fit into the group action structure created by the order. At first sight the successful appeal of Mr Cockburn possibly appears to be such a case.
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Having delivered the first judgment, Hidden J adjourned the outstanding matters including that of Mr Cockburn’s costs for further argument on 12 April 1991. The interval was also necessary for discussions between the parties arising out of the judgment. Submissions were then made by Mr Playford, counsel for the government departments and Mr Ullstein QC. The position can be summarised as follows. Mr Ullstein QC sought to persuade the judge that justice demanded that Mr Cockburn should recover his own costs incurred in the trial of the preliminary issue. He submitted that a proportional order, namely, 1/337th of his costs, would mean, having regard to his own liability for costs, that he could recover nothing in the action. Mr Playford and Mr Fenwick submitted that any order other than a proportional order would be contrary to the whole spirit of the group action.
The order made is described by Hidden J:
‘The order I shall make in relation to costs is an order for costs in favour of each defendant against each unsuccessful plaintiff, limited to a proportion of 1/338th of the total costs. In relation to all unsuccessful plaintiffs, save for Mrs Forster, that order is not to be enforced without the leave of this court or the Court of Appeal. In relation to the plaintiff Mr Cockburn, I shall make an order for costs in his favour against each defendant, those costs being the preparation and hearing of the preliminary issue, again as to a proportion of 1/338th of that figure. Any costs to be taxed if not agreed.’
It is agreed that the proper fraction should have been 1/337th. Hidden J had already granted leave to appeal on the question of costs earlier in the proceedings.
In his submissions on appeal Mr Brennan referred the court to the speech of Lord Goff in Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeira [1986] 2 All ER 409 [1986] AC 965 in which he emphasised the wide powers granted to the court in relation to awarding costs under s 51(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. In this context Mr Brennan submitted that the words ‘unless otherwise ordered’ gave Hidden J unlimited powers to award costs in order to achieve justice. In these circumstances Mr Brennan invoked the provisions of RSC Ord 62, r 3(3) in support of his submission that as Mr Cockburn had been successful costs should follow the event, in which case he should be awarded the whole of his costs. In failing to take this course Mr Brennan submitted that the judge had exercised his discretion on a wrong principle, in which case it was open to this court to substitute its own discretion and to order costs appropriately. Mr Brennan asked for an order in the following terms:
‘(1) The defendants to pay Mr Cockburn (and each successful plaintiff when the guidelines have been applied to the groups) the costs of each individual claim relating to limitation.
(2) The defendants to pay Mr Cockburn 1/9th of the trial costs, or such other proportion of the trial costs which is found at taxation to be referable to his claim.
(3) The defendants to pay Mr Cockburn any costs incurred by him after his selection as a lead case and up to trial.
(4) The unsuccessful plaintiffs at trial (and each unsuccessful plaintiff when the guidelines have been applied to the groups) to pay the defendants’ costs as follows: (a) each plaintiff to pay the defendants’ costs arising from his own claim; (b) subject to (c) below the plaintiffs to be liable for the defendants’ costs at trial and their prior costs in relation thereto but
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limited to 8/9ths of such costs, or such other proportion of the trial and prior costs which is found at taxation to be referable to the eight unsuccessful plaintiffs at trial, subject to the provisions of the Legal Aid Acts; (c) the resulting total of costs under (b) to be paid by each plaintiff as to the fraction created by each plaintiff over the total number of unsuccessful plaintiffs in the groups.’
The form of order made by Hidden J was, Mr Brennan submitted, manifestly unjust because the practical consequence would be that any subsequent recovery of damages would be subject to partial or total obliteration by the legal aid charge or by the solicitor/client charge if the plaintiff is privately funded. He was put up as a lead action. He succeeded. It must be borne in mind that he might represent a group of 20 or 30 others who would also succeed on application of the guidelines. But because of the fraction ordered he or they would recover next to nothing in practical terms. It was suggested that Mr Cockburn’s share of the trial costs might have been of the order of £30,000, apportioned as to 1/9th. Applying the fraction ordered by the judge would lead to his recovering from the defendants £90.
Mr Prynne, who followed for the defendants, contended that these matters had already been considered by Lord Donaldson MR in Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co. After commenting that the majority of plaintiffs were elderly arthritic sufferers and comparing them with the thalidomide claimants who were children, Lord Donaldson MR continued ([1987] 3 All ER 94 at 96, [1987] 1 WLR 1136 at 1138):
‘This has the three following consequences. (a) The need for speed. If elderly plaintiffs are to be compensated by an award of damages, they need to receive that money at a time when they can still make use of it. (b) The size of individual claims. The same continuing disability suffered by two people, one older and one younger, will necessarily cause a greater loss, and give rise to a larger award of damages, in the case of the younger claimant who will have to endure it for longer. Other things being equal, the Opren claimants cannot expect to receive awards which are very large as compared with awards in other cases primarily involving children. (c) The availability of legal aid. Older claimants are more likely to have disposable capital or income which will take them outside the scope of the legal aid scheme or, if this does not happen, will lead to their having to make a significant contribution to their own costs and, if they fail, to those incurred by the defendants. By contrast we are told that in the Thalidomide cases every major claimant, being a child, was legally aided, mostly with a nil contribution … The cost of the litigation. This will be extremely high both for the plaintiffs and for the defendants. No individual plaintiff, going it alone, even if successful, could expect to derive any benefit, because the irrecoverable costs would exceed the amount of the damage which he would be awarded. There is of course another side to this coin in that the defendants, even if successful, could never expect even to begin to recover the costs which they had incurred in defending an isolated claim.’
Subsequently in the judgment Lord Donaldson MR referred to the order of Hirst J, which we have been asked to accept was clearly followed by Hidden J when making his own order for costs. Lord Donaldson MR said ([1987] 3 All ER 94 at 99–100, [1987] 1 WLR 1136 at 1143):
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‘In my judgment not only can the order of the judge not be faulted, but he is to be congratulated on producing a very fair and workable order in a novel and highly complex situation. If he had given no indication of his thinking on costs and had refused to make any order at this stage, no plaintiff could have made any assessment of his potential liability in respect of costs. If he had merely given an indication of his thinking, the plaintiffs would have been in much the same position as they are under the order, save that they would have had no order which they could appeal. As it is, they have been able to appeal his order and know where they stand. Furthermore, if circumstances change, they can go back to the judge.’
Mr Prynne submitted that the apparent unfairness of an order giving only 1/337th of his costs to a successful plaintiff must be viewed against the directions of Hirst J and the general concept of the group action. In practical terms, the latter was the only vehicle by which expensive litigation could be initiated by individuals with modest means and claims. Mr Prynne made the following points. (i) Mr Cockburn’s case has turned out to be unique in the entire group. If there had been, say, 30 other cases covered by the decision in his case, they would ‘get their costs again following Hidden J’s order on the proportionate basis’. (ii) Mr Cockburn’s case was, it was said, not viable at all as a sole case. It turns out that he joined himself in the group to a number of claims which were worthless because they were statute-barred. (iii) It was acknowledged that if Mr Cockburn had presented his case alone, he would have been entitled to his costs. But that was ‘theoretical’; and he was not done an injustice by the order because, under the cost sharing provisions of the original order, the costs which he does not recover from Lilly are recoverable by him from each of the other 337 plaintiffs. The working of the legal aid legislation, which would prevent actual recovery, is irrelevant
As set out above, Hidden J gave leave to appeal on costs. The jurisdiction of this court, therefore, extends to the usual rules on an appeal against the exercise of a judge’s discretion. This court may allow the appeal if it is shown that the judge has erred in law or principle by taking into account irrelevant matters, or failing to take into account relevant matters, or if it is demonstrated that the order made is plainly wrong (see Alltrans Express Ltd v CVA Holdings Ltd [1984] 1 All ER 685, [1984] 1 WLR 394).
It is clear to us that the order made was unjust in its effect and cannot be justified by reference to any relevant principle which can be derived from the nature of the litigation or from the original order for cost sharing and contribution. We regard the order as plainly wrong. Since Hidden J gave no explanation of his order, we are driven to suppose that Hidden J accepted the submission made to him for the defendants by Mr Playford that any other order would be ‘contrary to the spirit of the group action’. We can see no ground for regarding the order made as in any sense required by the ‘spirit of the group action’, having regard to the orders made for setting up the group. Our reasons are as follows.
(i) The discussion in this court in Davies (Joseph Owen) v Eli Lilly & Co as appears from the judgment of Lord Donaldson MR, was primarily concerned with the costs of proof of liability, that is to say the contention that, in putting Opren on the market with such warnings as were given, the defendants were negligent. Within the litigation as contemplated, there would be, of course, individual issues relating to proof of injury, to proof that the injury was caused by Opren, and proof of special damages. Causation of injury might well admit of lead actions to cover similar actions.
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(ii) The original order for costs, providing contribution between plaintiffs, was not specifically directed to orders for costs in favour of plaintiffs. It was contemplated that the court would retain its ordinary unfettered discretion as to such costs in the application of which the fact that the order would be made in proceedings within a group action, in which there was an effective contribution order between plaintiffs, would be a relevant fact to be had in mind.
(iii) The purposes of the group action orders were apparently for the benefit of all plaintiffs comprised within the group and of the defendants and, as it seems to us, of the public purse, in that the total cost to the legal aid fund would be reduced as would be the use of court time. There was, so far as we have been able to understand, no purpose to modify in any way the principle by reference to which orders for costs are made between the parties and, in particular, the discipline which is, or should be, provided by the rule that, in the absence of some reason to order otherwise, the party who causes costs to be incurred on a separately disputed issue will, if he loses, be ordered to pay the costs of the other side on that issue.
(iv) Nothing in the group action structure affected, as we understand it, either the powers of the individual plaintiff to raise and to require decision of any viable issue in his or her individual cause; or the power of the defendant to take particular steps with reference to an individual plaintiff by, for example, the making of a payment into court, or an application to strike out, or the raising of a preliminary issue such as the limitation bar raised in these interlocutory proceedings. It was submitted by Mr Prynne that these proceedings do not raise truly ‘generic’ issues. We agree. He also submitted that, nevertheless, the original directions and costs order were intended to apply to such issues. We see no reason to doubt that it was intended that limitation could be raised in lead cases for the obtaining of decisions which would enable the parties to dispose of the whole of the group, one way or the other, so far as concerned limitation; but, as we have said, there is nothing to show that the discretion of the court dealing with such issues should be limited in any way as to costs. We can see no reason why it should be. If a case is put forward as a lead action for this purpose, and accepted as such, no reason has been put forward as to why the defendants should not be subjected to the ordinary discipline of costs orders: if they contest a lead case which succeeds they should, unless there is reason to order otherwise, pay the costs of contesting the issue.
(v) It is said that Mr Cockburn was not a lead case because there is no other similar case. We do not understand the relevance or logic of that contention. It seems to us that, if he was unique in the group, he must necessarily be a lead case. Either the defendants acknowledge that he is not statute-barred or his case must be put forward for decision. We could understand a complaint, based on a contention that he should not have been put forward as a lead case, as one possibly covering some 30 other similar cases, on the ground that it would, on that hypothesis, have been worthwhile for the defendants to contest his case, whereas, if told that he was unique, the defendants would not have contested the issue. No such argument has been made. We know nothing of the process by which lead cases were selected and can be found nothing upon it. It is common ground that, if the case of Mr Cockburn had not been taken as a lead case, his case would have appeared in the second trial as an individual case and it is not suggested that, on his success, he would not have been entitled to his costs.
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(vi) The purpose of the defendants, and a perfectly proper purpose in which they largely succeeded before Hidden J, was to secure orders for the dismissal of all the claims in the group on both individual and general grounds. Proof that a claim was statute-barred necessarily rested upon the individual facts of a plaintiff’s experience but reliance was placed, of course, upon facts said to be common, eg knowledge of the withdrawal of Opren from the market and the corpus of knowledge of advisers. Further, as to the s 33 discretion, reliance was placed upon general grounds including the public policy argument and the contention that the imposition of ‘cut off’ dates, as they were called, and the subsequent settlement of the group A and B claims raised an equitable barrier in favour of the defendants. Insofar as the defendants succeeded, they obtained an order for costs which provided, in theory, for recovery of their costs of securing the dismissal of the claims of all plaintiffs covered by the lead cases in which the defendants succeeded. Such an order was, as the defendants contend and as we accept, in accordance with ordinary principles for costs orders inter partes, having full regard to the nature of the proceedings in a group action. That which alone prevents full recovery is the working of the legal aid legislation and, as is common ground, we must ignore that factor.
(vii) The order made in Mr Cockburn’s favour, however, is entirely different in effect, as Mr Brennan has demonstrated. The issue of limitation of Mr Cockburn’s action was raised by the defendants. The defendants, having access to the documents, could contest his case, or not, as they chose. They contested it and lost. Yet the defendants pay only 1/337th of the costs incurred by Mr Cockburn. That has been estimated, roughly, as £90 out of £30,000 and the rough estimate has not been described as exaggerated or as no value as a guide. It is argued for the defence that such an order is not unjust because Mr Cockburn will get 336/337ths out of the other plaintiffs under the contribution order; and, again, the only reason why he will not get the money is because of the legal aid legislation which must be ignored. We reject this contention. The order is clearly unjust both to Mr Cockburn and to all the other plaintiffs who should not be required to pay the costs incurred by the successful resistance of Mr Cockburn to the attempt by the defendants to secure the dismissal of his claim on the grounds that it was statute-barred when it was not. It was further suggested that the injustice would be prevented or reduced if, in fact, there had been some 30 other cases covered by the facts in Mr Cockburn’s case. We see no force in that point. If there had been 30 other such plaintiffs they would together have received about 30 x £90, or £2,700 out of £30,000, leaving all the other plaintiffs to pay the balance which would also be an unfair imposition upon them.
(viii) Since Mr Cockburn succeeded in the preliminary issue and the court has seen fit to make an order for costs, the court is directed by RSC Ord 62, r 3(2) to order the costs to follow the event except when it appears that, in the circumstances of the case, some other order should be made. The circumstances of the case which persuaded Hidden J to make the order he did were that Mr Cockburn had succeeded in the issue in a group action in which an order for sharing the costs by the plaintiffs, with rights of contribution, had been made. In our judgment, those circumstances cannot justify the order. We, therefore, set it aside. The order proposed by Mr Brennan as set out above appears to us to be generally in accordance with principle, having regard to the circumstances of the case, and the outcome of the preliminary issue. We will hear counsel as to the precise terms of the order which should be made.
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We now turn to consider the cases of the individual appellants. [The court considered the individual cases and concluded]: The appeal of Mr Cockburn on costs succeeds. The appeal of Mrs O’Hara succeeds on the ground that, although her action is statute-barred, it would be equitable to allow her action to proceed under s 33 of the Act. The appeal of Mrs Forster succeeds on the ground that her action is not shown to be statute-barred. The appeal of Mr Kirby also succeeds on the ground that his action is not shown to be statute-barred. All the other appeals are dismissed.
Orders accordingly.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Practice Direction
(Summons for directions: Queen’s Bench jury list)
[1993] 4 All ER 416
PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
27 July 1993
Practice – Summons for directions – Queen’s Bench Division – Jury list – Summons for directions and applications prior to setting down to be made to master – Interlocutory applications after setting down to be made to judge – Reference of applications by master to judge.
On 2 February 1993 I announced that for an experimental period all summonses for directions and subsequent interlocutory applications should be issued for hearing before the judge in charge of the jury lista.
In the light of the experience of working this procedure it will now be modified as follows:
1. Summonses for directions and all applications prior to setting down should be made to the master. The master will use his discretion to refer the matter to the judge if he thinks it right to do so.
2. Interlocutory applications after setting down should be made to the judge.
3. If a party believes that the master is very likely to refer any application to the judge (eg where there is an application for a substantial striking out) the matter should first be referred informally to the master on notice to other parties (ie without waiting for a private room appointment). The master will then decide whether the application should be referred to the judge.
4. This revised procedure should be followed as from today.
27 July 1993
DRAKE J.
Barclays Bank plc v O’Brien and another
[1993] 4 All ER 417
Categories: EQUITY
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD LOWRY, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 26–29 APRIL, 21 OCTOBER 1993
Equity – Undue influence – Misrepresentation by person exercising influence – Effect of misrepresentation – Husband and wife – Constructive notice of misrepresentation or undue influence – Duty of creditor to take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that surety entered into obligation freely and with knowledge of true facts – Bank accepting guarantee secured by charge over matrimonial home jointly owned by husband and wife – Husband misrepresenting effect of charge to wife – Bank bringing action against husband and wife to enforce guarantee – Whether bank taking reasonable steps to ensure that wife understood effect of charge – Whether bank fixed with constructive notice of husband’s misrepresentation.
The husband, a shareholder in a manufacturing company which had a substantial unsecured overdraft, arranged with the manager of the company’s bank that the company would be allowed an overdraft facility of £135,000, reducing to £120,000 after three weeks, and that as security the husband would guarantee the company’s indebtedness, his liability in turn being secured by a second charge over the matrimonial home jointly owned by the husband and the wife. The bank prepared the necessary security documents, which included the guarantee to be signed by the husband and a legal charge over the house to be signed by both the husband and the wife. However, although the manager gave instructions that the husband and wife should be made fully aware of the nature and effect of the documents they were signing and should take independent legal advice if they were in any doubt, those instructions were not followed by the bank staff responsible for arranging for the husband and wife to sign the documents. The husband signed the documents without reading them and the next day took his wife to the bank, where she also signed the documents without reading them. The company’s indebtedness increased beyond the agreed limit and the bank brought possession proceedings against the husband and the wife to enforce payment under the guarantee. By her defence the wife contended (i) that her husband had put undue pressure on her to sign and that she had succumbed to that pressure, and (ii) that her husband had misrepresented to her the effect of the legal charge and that although she knew she was signing a mortgage of the matrimonial home she believed that the security was limited to £60,000 and would only last three weeks. The judge gave judgment for the bank, holding that the husband’s liability under the guarantee had been established, that the husband had not unduly influenced the wife and that although he had falsely represented to her the effect of the charge the bank was not responsible for the husband’s misrepresentation. The wife appealed to the Court of Appeal, which held that married women who provided security for their husband’s debts, and others in an analogous position, were to be treated as a specially protected class of sureties, that, if in such a situation the relationship between the debtor and the surety and the consequent likelihood of influence and reliance was known to the creditor, the creditor was under a duty to take reasonable steps to try and ensure that the surety entered into the transaction with an adequate understanding of the nature and effect of the
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transaction and that the surety’s consent to the transaction was true and informed consent, and that the creditor would not be permitted to enforce the security if, by leaving it to the debtor to deal with the surety or otherwise, he failed to carry out that duty even though he might have had no knowledge of and not have been responsible for the vitiating feature of the transaction. The court held on the facts that, notwithstanding that the wife’s misunderstanding of the effect of the charge derived from her husband’s misrepresentation, the bank’s failure to take reasonable steps to try and ensure that she had adequate comprehension of the effect of the charge meant that it was not enforceable against her except to the extent of £60,000. The bank appealed, contending that it could only be affected by the husband’s misrepresentation if he had been acting as its agent or if it had notice of his impropriety, that on the facts it was not possible to infer that the bank had appointed the husband as its agent or that it had notice of his impropriety, and that there was no equity in favour of a specially protected class of surety.
Held – Where a cohabitee entered into an obligation to stand as surety for the debts of the other cohabitee, including the debts of a company in which the other cohabitee (but not the surety) had a direct financial interest, and the creditor was aware that they were cohabitees, the surety obligation was valid and enforceable by the creditor unless the suretyship was procured by the undue influence, misrepresentation or other legal wrong of the principal debtor. If there had been undue influence, misrepresentation or other legal wrong by the principal debtor, then, unless the creditor had taken reasonable steps to satisfy himself that the surety entered into the obligation freely and in knowledge of the true facts, the creditor would be unable to enforce the surety obligation because he would be fixed with constructive notice of the surety’s right to set aside the transaction. However, unless there were special exceptional circumstances, a creditor would be held to have taken reasonable steps to avoid being fixed with constructive notice if he had warned the surety, at a meeting not attended by the principal debtor, of the amount of the potential liability and of the risks involved and advised the surety to take independent legal advice. On the facts, the bank knew that the parties were husband and wife and should therefore have been put on inquiry as to the circumstances in which the wife had agreed to stand as surety for the debt of her husband. The failure by the bank to warn the wife when she signed the security documents of the risk that she and the matrimonial home were potentially liable for the debts of the company or to recommend that she take legal advice fixed the bank with constructive notice of the wrongful misrepresentation made by the husband to her and she was therefore entitled as against the bank to set aside the legal charge on the matrimonial home securing the husband’s liability to the bank. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 420 b, p 428 h to p 429 c g to p 430 c and p 431 h to p 432 j, post).
Avon Finance Co Ltd v Bridger [1985] 2 All ER 281 approved.
Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA v Aboody [1992] 4 All ER 955 considered.
Yerkey v Jones (1939) 63 CLR 649 not followed.
Turnbull & Co v Duval [1902] AC 429 doubted.
Hoghton v Hoghton (1852) 15 Beav 278 overruled.
Per curiam. A creditor is put on inquiry when a wife offers to stand surety for her husband’s debts by the combination of two factors: (a) the transaction is on its face not to the financial advantage of the wife; and (b) there is a substantial
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risk in such a transaction that, in procuring the wife to act as surety, the husband has committed a legal or equitable wrong that entitles the wife to set aside the transaction (see p 420 b, p 429 f g and p 432 h j, post).
Decision of the Court of Appeal [1992] 4 All ER 983 affirmed on other grounds.
Notes
For the avoidance of a guarantee procured by duress or undue influence, see 20 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 133–139, and for cases on the subject, see 26 Digest (Reissue) 223–227, 1576–1591.
Cases referred to in opinionsAvon Finance Co Ltd v Bridger (1979) [1985] 2 All ER 281, CA.
Bainbrigge v Browne (1881) 18 Ch D 188.
Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA v Aboody (1988) [1992] 4 All ER 955, [1990] 1 QB 923, [1989] 2 WLR 759, CA.
Bank of Montreal v Stuart [1911] AC 120, PC.
Bank of Victoria Ltd v Mueller (1914) [1925] VLR 642, Vict SC.
Bishoff’s Trustee v Frank (1903) 89 LT 188.
CIBC Mortgages plc v Pitt [1993] 4 All ER 433, HL.
Coldunell Ltd v Gallon [1986] 1 All ER 429, [1986] QB 1184, [1986] 2 WLR 466, CA.
Grigby v Cox (1750) 1 Ves Sen 517, 27 ER 1178, LC.
Hoghton v Hoghton (1852) 15 Beav 278, 51 ER 545.
Howes v Bishop [1909] 2 KB 390, CA.
Kingsnorth Trust Ltd v Bell [1986] 1 All ER 423, [1986] 1 WLR 119, CA.
Midland Bank plc v Shephard [1988] 3 All ER 17, CA.
Turnbull & Co v Duval [1902] AC 429, PC.
Yerkey v Jones (1939) 63 CLR 649, Aust HC.
Appeal
The plaintiff, Barclays Bank plc, appealed with leave of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords granted on 23 November 1992, from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Purchas, Butler-Sloss and Scott LJJ) ([1992] 4 All ER 983, [1993] QB 109) delivered on 22 May 1992 allowing the appeal of the second defendant, Bridget Mary O’Brien, from the judgment of Judge Marder QC sitting in the Slough County Court on 30 July 1990 whereby he ordered the first defendant, Nicholas Edward O’Brien, and the second defendant to deliver up to the plaintiff possession of the property known as 151 Farnham Lane, Slough, Berkshire, comprised in a legal charge in favour of the plaintiff dated 3 July 1987. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Browne-Wilkinson.
Simon Buckhaven and Bernard Devlin (instructed by Cathcart & Co, Ickenham) for the wife.
John Jarvis QC, William Blair and Ross Cranston (instructed by Lovell White Durrant) for the bank.
21 October 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
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Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons to be given by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, in this appeal your Lordships for the first time have to consider a problem which has given rise to reported decisions of the Court of Appeal on no less than 11 occasions in the last eight years and which has led to a difference of judicial view. Shortly stated the question is whether a bank is entitled to enforce against a wife an obligation to secure a debt owed by her husband to the bank where the wife has been induced to stand as surety for her husband’s debt by the undue influence or misrepresentation of the husband.
The facts
The facts of the present case are very fully set out in the judgment of Scott LJ in the Court of Appeal ([1992] 4 All ER 983, [1993] QB 109). I will only state them in summary form. Mr and Mrs O’Brien were husband and wife. The matrimonial home, 151 Farnham Lane, Slough, was in their joint names subject to a mortgage of approximately £25,000 to a building society. Mr O’Brien was a chartered accountant and had an interest in a company, Heathrow Fabrications Ltd. The company’s bank account was at the Woolwich branch of Barclays Bank. In the first three months of 1987 the company frequently exceeded its overdraft facility of £40,000 and a number of its cheques were dishonoured on presentation. In discussions in April 1981 between Mr O’Brien and the manager of the Woolwich branch, Mr Tucker, Mr O’Brien told Mr Tucker that he was remortgaging the matrimonial home: Mr Tucker made a note that Mrs O’Brien might be a problem. The overdraft limit was raised at that stage to £60,000 for one month. Even though no additional security was provided, by 15 June 1987 the company’s overdraft had risen to £98,000 and its cheques were again being dishonoured.
On 22 June 1987 Mr O’Brien and Mr Tucker agreed (1) that the company’s overdraft limit would be raised to £135,000 reducing to £120,000 after three weeks, (2) that Mr O’Brien would guarantee the company’s indebtedness and (3) that Mr O’Brien’s liability would be secured by a second charge on the matrimonial home.
The necessary security documents were prepared by the bank. They consisted of an unlimited guarantee by Mr O’Brien of the company’s liability and a legal charge by both Mr and Mrs O’Brien of the matrimonial home to secure any liability of Mr O’Brien to the bank. Mr Tucker arranged for the documents, together with a side letter, to be sent to the Burnham branch of the bank for execution by Mr and Mrs O’Brien. In a covering memorandum Mr Tucker requested the Burnham branch to advise the O’Briens as to the current level of the facilities afforded to the bank (£107,000) and the projected increase to £135,000. The Burnham branch was also asked to ensure that the O’Briens
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were ‘fully aware of the nature of the documentation to be signed and advised that if they are in any doubt they should contact their solicitors before signing’.
Unfortunately the Burnham branch did not follow Mr Tucker’s instructions. On 1 July Mr O’Brien alone signed the guarantee and legal charge at the Burnham branch, the document simply being produced for signature and witnessed by a clerk. On the following day Mrs O’Brien went to the branch with her husband. There were produced for signature by Mrs O’Brien the legal charge on the matrimonial home together with a side letter, which reads:
‘We hereby agree acknowledge and confirm as follows: (1) That we have each received from you a copy of the guarantee dated 3 July 1987 (a copy of which is attached hereto) under which Nicholas Edward O’Brien guarantees the payment and discharge of all moneys and liabilities now or hereafter due owing or incurred by Heathrow Fabrications Ltd. to you. (2) That the liability of the said Nicholas Edward O’Brien to you pursuant to the said guarantee is and will be secured by the legal charge dated 3 July 1987 over the property described above made between (1) Nicholas Edward O’Brien (2) Nicholas Edward O’Brien and Bridget Mary O’Brien and (3) Barclays Bank Plc. (3) That you recommended that we should obtain independent legal advice before signing this letter.’
In fact the Burnham branch gave Mrs O’Brien no explanation of the effect of the documents. No one suggested that she should take independent legal advice. She did not read the documents or the side letter. She simply signed the legal charge and side letter and her signature was witnessed by the clerk. She was not given a copy of the guarantee.
The company did not prosper and by October 1987 its indebtedness to the bank was over £154,000. In November 1987 demand was made against Mr O’Brien under his guarantee. When the demand was not met possession proceedings under the legal charge were brought by the bank against Mr and Mrs O’Brien. Mrs O’Brien seeks to defend these proceedings by alleging that she was induced to execute the legal charge on the matrimonial home by the undue influence of Mr O’Brien and by his misrepresentation. The trial judge, Judge Marder QC, and the Court of Appeal rejected the claim based on undue influence: on the appeal to this House the claim based on undue influence is not pursued. However, the judge did find that Mr O’Brien had falsely represented to Mrs O’Brien that the charge was to secure only £60,000 and that even this liability would be released in a short time when the house was remortgaged. On those findings of fact the trial judge granted an order for possession against Mrs O’Brien holding that the bank could not be held responsible for the misrepresentation made by Mr O’Brien.
The decision of the Court of Appeal
The Court of Appeal (Purchas, Butler-Sloss and Scott LJJ) reversed his decision. The leading judgment in the Court of Appeal was given by Scott LJ, who found that there were two lines of authority. One line would afford no special protection to married women: the rights of the creditor bank could only be adversely affected by the wrongful acts of the principal debtor, the husband, in procuring the surety’s liability if the principal debtor was acting as the agent of the creditor in procuring the surety to join or the creditor had knowledge of the relevant facts. I will call this theory ‘the agency theory’. The other line of authority (which I will call ‘the special equity theory’) detected by Scott LJ
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considers that equity affords special protection to a protected class of surety, viz those where the relationship between the debtor and the surety is such that influence by the debtor over the surety and reliance by the surety on the debtor are natural features of the relationship. In cases where a surety is one of this protected class, the surety obligation is unenforceable by the creditor bank if (1) the relationship between the debtor and the surety was known to the creditor, (2) the surety’s consent was obtained by undue influence or by misrepresentation or without ‘an adequate understanding of the nature and effect of the transaction’ and (3) the creditor had failed to take reasonable steps to ensure that the surety had given a true and informed consent to the transaction. The Court of Appeal preferred the special equity principle. They held that the legal charge on the O’Briens’ matrimonial home was not enforceable by the bank against Mrs O’Brien save to the extent of the £60,000 which she had thought she was agreeing to secure.
Policy considerations
The large number of cases of this type coming before the courts in recent years reflects the rapid changes in social attitudes and the distribution of wealth which have recently occurred. Wealth is now more widely spread. Moreover a high proportion of privately owned wealth is invested in the matrimonial home. Because of the recognition by society of the equality of the sexes, the majority of matrimonial homes are now in the joint names of both spouses. Therefore in order to raise finance for the business enterprises of one or other of the spouses, the jointly owned home has become a main source of security. The provision of such security requires the consent of both spouses.
In parallel with these financial developments, society’s recognition of the equality of the sexes has led to a rejection of the concept that the wife is subservient to the husband in the management of the family’s finances. A number of the authorities reflect an unwillingness in the court to perpetuate law based on this outmoded concept. Yet, as Scott LJ in the Court of Appeal rightly points out, although the concept of the ignorant wife leaving all financial decisions to the husband is outmoded, the practice does not yet coincide with the ideal (see [1992] 4 All ER 983 at 1008, [1993] QB 109 at 139). In a substantial proportion of marriages it is still the husband who has the business experience and the wife is willing to follow his advice without bringing a truly independent mind and will to bear on financial decisions. The number of recent cases in this field shows that in practice many wives are still subjected to, and yield to, undue influence by their husbands. Such wives can reasonably look to the law for some protection when their husbands have abused the trust and confidence reposed in them.
On the other hand, it is important to keep a sense of balance in approaching these cases. It is easy to allow sympathy for the wife who is threatened with the loss of her home at the suit of a rich bank to obscure an important public interest, viz the need to ensure that the wealth currently tied up in the matrimonial home does not become economically sterile. If the rights secured to wives by the law renders vulnerable loans granted on the security of matrimonial homes, institutions will be unwilling to accept such security, thereby reducing the flow of loan capital to business enterprises. It is therefore essential that a law designed to protect the vulnerable does not render the matrimonial home unacceptable as security to financial institutions.
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With these policy considerations in mind I turn to consider the existing state of the law. The whole of the modern law is derived from the decision of the Privy Council in Turnbull & Co v Duval [1902] AC 429 which, as I will seek to demonstrate, provides an uncertain foundation. Before considering that case however, I must consider the law of undue influence which (though not directly applicable in the present case) underlies both Turnbull v Duval and most of the later authorities.
Undue influence
A person who has been induced to enter into a transaction by the undue influence of another (the wrongdoer) is entitled to set that transaction aside as against the wrongdoer. Such undue influence is either actual or presumed. In Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA v Aboody (1988) [1992] 4 All ER 955 at 964, [1990] 1 QB 923 at 953 the Court of Appeal helpfully adopted the following classification.
Class 1: actual undue influence. In these cases it is necessary for the claimant to prove affirmatively that the wrongdoer exerted undue influence on the complainant to enter into the particular transaction which is impugned.
Class 2: presumed undue influence. In these cases the complainant only has to show, in the first instance, that there was a relationship of trust and confidence between the complainant and the wrongdoer of such a nature that it is fair to presume that the wrongdoer abused that relationship in procuring the complainant to enter into the impugned transaction. In class 2 cases therefore there is no need to produce evidence that actual undue influence was exerted in relation to the particular transaction impugned: once a confidential relationship has been proved, the burden then shifts to the wrongdoer to prove that the complainant entered into the impugned transaction freely, for example by showing that the complainant had independent advice. Such a confidential relationship can be established in two ways, viz:
Class 2A. Certain relationships (for example solicitor and client, medical advisor and patient) as a matter of law raise the presumption that undue influence has been exercised.
Class 2B. Even if there is no relationship falling within class 2A, if the complainant proves the de facto existence of a relationship under which the complainant generally reposed trust and confidence in the wrongdoer, the existence of such relationship raises the presumption of undue influence. In a class 2B case therefore, in the absence of evidence disproving undue influence, the complainant will succeed in setting aside the impugned transaction merely by proof that the complainant reposed trust and confidence in the wrongdoer without having to prove that the wrongdoer exerted actual undue influence or otherwise abused such trust and confidence in relation to the particular transaction impugned.
As to dispositions by a wife in favour of her husband, the law for long remained in an unsettled state. In the nineteenth century some judges took the view that the relationship was such that it fell into class 2A, ie as a matter of law undue influence by the husband over the wife was presumed. It was not until the decisions in Howes v Bishop [1909] 2 KB 390 and Bank of Montreal v Stuart [1911] AC 120 that it was finally determined that the relationship of husband and wife did not as a matter of law raise a presumption of undue influence within class 2A. It is to be noted therefore that when Turnbull v Duval was
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decided in 1902 the question whether there was a class 2A presumption of undue influence as between husband and wife was still unresolved.
An invalidating tendency?
Although there is no class 2A presumption of undue influence as between husband and wife, it should be emphasised that in any particular case a wife may well be able to demonstrate that de facto she did leave decisions on financial affairs to her husband thereby bringing herself within class 2B, ie that the relationship between husband and wife in the particular case was such that the wife reposed confidence and trust in her husband in relation to their financial affairs and therefore undue influence is to be presumed. Thus, in those cases which still occur where the wife relies in all financial matters on her husband and simply does what he suggests, a presumption of undue influence within class 2B can be established solely from the proof of such trust and confidence without proof of actual undue influence.
In the appeal in CIBC Mortgages plc v Pitt [1993] 4 All ER 433 (judgment in which is to be given immediately after that in the present appeal) Mr Price QC for the wife argued that in the case of transactions between husband and wife there was an ‘invalidating tendency’, ie although there was no class 2A presumption of undue influence, the courts were more ready to find that a husband had exercised undue influence over his wife than in other cases. Scott LJ in the present case also referred to the law treating married women ‘more tenderly’ than others. This approach is based on dicta in early authorities. In Grigby v Cox (1750) 1 Ves Sen 517, 27 ER 1178 Lord Hardwicke LC, whilst rejecting any presumption of undue influence, said that a court of equity ‘will have more jealousy’ over dispositions by a wife to a husband. In Yerkey v Jones (1939) 63 CLR 649 at 675 Dixon J refers to this ‘invalidating tendency’. He also refers (at 677) to the court recognising ‘the opportunities which a wife’s confidence in her husband gives him of unfairly or improperly procuring her to become surety’.
In my judgment this special tenderness of treatment afforded to wives by the courts is properly attributable to two factors. First, many cases may well fall into the class 2B category of undue influence because the wife demonstrates that she placed trust and confidence in her husband in relation to her financial affairs and therefore raises a presumption of undue influence. Second, the sexual and emotional ties between the parties provide a ready weapon for undue influence: a wife’s true wishes can easily be overborne because of her fear of destroying or damaging the wider relationship between her and her husband if she opposes his wishes.
For myself, I accept that the risk of undue influence affecting a voluntary disposition by a wife in favour of a husband is greater than in the ordinary run of cases where no sexual or emotional ties affect the free exercise of the individual’s will.
Undue influence, misrepresentation and third parties
Up to this point I have been considering the right of a claimant wife to set aside a transaction as against the wrongdoing husband when the transaction has been procured by his undue influence. But in surety cases the decisive question is whether the claimant wife can set aside the transaction, not against the wrongdoing husband, but against the creditor bank. Of course, if the wrongdoing husband is acting as agent for the creditor bank in obtaining the
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surety from the wife, the creditor will be fixed with the wrongdoing of its own agent and the surety contract can be set aside as against the creditor. Apart from this, if the creditor bank has notice, actual or constructive, of the undue influence exercised by the husband (and consequentially of the wife’s equity to set aside the transaction) the creditor will take subject to that equity and the wife can set aside the transaction against the creditor (albeit a purchaser for value) as well as against the husband: see Bainbrigge v Browne (1881) 18 Ch D 188 and BCCI v Aboody [1992] 4 All ER 955 at 980, [1990] 1 QB 923 at 973. Similarly, in cases such as the present where the wife has been induced to enter into the transaction by the husband’s misrepresentation, her equity to set aside the transaction will be enforceable against the creditor if either the husband was acting as the creditor’s agent or the creditor had actual or constructive notice.
Turnbull v Duval
This case provides the foundation of the modern law: the basis on which it was decided is, to say the least, obscure. Mr Duval owed three separate sums to a firm, Turnbull & Co, including £1,000 owed to the Jamaican branch for beer. Turnbulls’ manager and agent in Jamaica was a Mr Campbell. Mr Campbell was also an executor and trustee of a will under which Mrs Duval had a beneficial interest. Mr Campbell threatened to stop supplying beer to Mr Duval unless security was given for the debts owed and, with Mr Campbell’s knowledge, a document was prepared under which Mrs Duval charged her beneficial interest under the will to secure the payment of all debts owed by Mr Duval to Turnbull, ie not only the money owed for beer but all the debts. Mr Duval put pressure on Mrs Duval to sign the document. She was under the impression that the document was to secure the beer debt only.
The trial judge and the Court of Appeal in Jamaica held that the security document should be set aside as against Turnbulls on the sole ground that Mr Campbell, as executor of the will, was in a fiduciary capacity vis-à-vis his beneficiary, Mrs Duval, and his employers could not uphold the security document unless they could show that Mrs Duval was fully aware of what she was doing when she entered into it and did it freely. The Privy Council dismissed Turnbulls’ appeal, Lord Lindley expressing the ratio in these terms ([1902] AC 429 at 434–435):
‘In the face of such evidence, their Lordships are of opinion that it is quite impossible to uphold the security given by Mrs. Duval. It is open to the double objection of having been obtained by a trustee from his cestui que trust by pressure through her husband and without independent advice, and of having been obtained by a husband from his wife by pressure and concealment of material facts. Whether the security could be upheld if the only ground for impeaching it was that Mrs. Duval had no independent advice has not really to be determined. Their Lordships are not prepared to say it could not. But there is an additional and even stronger ground for impeaching it. It is, in their Lordships’ opinion, quite clear that Mrs. Duval was pressed by her husband to sign, and did sign, the document, which was very different from what she supposed it to be, and a document of the true nature of which she had no conception. It is impossible to hold that Campbell or Turnbull & Co. are unaffected by such pressure and ignorance. They left everything to Duval, and must abide the consequences.’
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The first ground mentioned by Lord Lindley (ie Campbell’s breach of fiduciary duties) raises no problems. It is the second ground which has spawned the whole line of cases with which your Lordships are concerned. It raises two problems. The passage appears to suggest that Mr Duval had acted in some way wrongfully vis-à-vis his wife, and that Turnbulls who ‘had left everything to Duval’ were held liable for Duval’s wrong. What was the wrongful act of Duval vis-à-vis his wife? Second, why did the fact that Turnbulls ‘left everything to Duval’ render them unable to enforce their security?
Turnbull v Duval: was the husband in breach of duty to his wife?
Thanks to the industry of counsel, we have seen the case lodged on the appeal to the Privy Council. The pleadings contain no allegation of undue influence or misrepresentation by Mr Duval. Mrs Duval did not in evidence allege actual or presumptive undue influence. The sole ground of decision in the courts below was Campbell’s fiduciary position. There is no finding of undue influence against Mr Duval. No one appeared for Mrs Duval before the Privy Council. Therefore the second ground of decision sprang wholly from the Board and Lord Lindley’s speech gives little insight into their reasoning.
For myself I can only assume that, if the Board considered that Mr Duval had committed a wrongful act vis-à-vis his wife, it proceeded on a mistaken basis. It will be remembered that in 1902 it had not been finally established that a presumption of undue influence within class 2A did not apply as between husband and wife. The Board may therefore have been proceeding on the basis that the presumption of undue influence applied as between Mr and Mrs Duval. This was certainly one contemporary understanding of the ratio decidendi: see Bishoff’s Trustee v Frank (1903) 89 LT 188. Alternatively, the Board may have been mistakenly applying the heresy propounded by Lord Romilly to the effect that when a person has made a large voluntary disposition the burden is thrown on the party benefiting to show that the disposition was made fairly and honestly and in full understanding of the nature and consequences of the transaction: see Hoghton v Hoghton (1852) 15 Beav 278, 51 ER 545. Although this heresy has never been formally overruled, it has rightly been regarded as bad law for a very long time: see the account given by Dixon J in Yerkey v Jones (1939) 63 CLR 649 at 678 et seq. It is impossible to find a sound basis for holding that Mrs Duval was entitled to set aside the transaction as against her husband. How then could she set it aside as against Turnbulls?
Turnbull v Duval: was the creditor under a direct duty to the wife?
It is the lack of any sound basis for holding that Mr Duval was guilty of a legal wrong for which Turnbulls were indirectly held liable which has led to the theory that the creditor, Turnbulls, were themselves in breach of some duty owed by them as creditors directly to the surety, Mrs Duval. No one has ever suggested that in the ordinary case of principal and surety the creditor owes any duty of care to the surety: in the normal case it is for the surety to satisfy himself as to the nature and extent of the obligations he is assuming. Therefore, it is said, there must be some special feature of the case where a wife stands surety for her husband’s debt which gives rise to some special duty. This is the explanation of the decision of Turnbull v Duval given by Dixon J in Yerkey v Jones (1939) 63 CLR 649 at 675, which, in turn, is the basis on which the Court of Appeal in the present case adopted the view that the law imposed on the creditor itself a duty to take steps to ensure not only that the husband had not
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used undue influence or made a misrepresentation but also that the wife had ‘an adequate understanding of the nature and effect’ of what she was doing. If this interpretation of Turnbull v Duval is correct, the law not only imposes on the creditor a duty vis-à-vis a particular class of surety (where ordinarily there would be none) but the extent of that duty is greater than that which, under the ordinary law, a husband would owe to his wife: a transaction between husband and wife cannot, in the absence of undue influence or misrepresentation, be set aside simply on the ground that the wife did not fully understand the transaction.
Turnbull v Duval: ‘They left everything to Duval and must abide the consequences’
These words provide the only guidance as to the circumstances which led the Board to set aside the surety agreement as against Turnbulls. In later cases the words have often been treated as indicating that Mr Duval (but not Turnbulls themselves) acted in breach of duty to Mrs Duval, that Mr Duval was Turnbulls’ agent and that Turnbulls could not be in a better position than its agent. Quite apart from the difficulty of identifying what was the breach of duty committed by Mr Duval, the concept of Mr Duval having acted as agent for Turnbulls to procure his wife to become surety for the debt was artificial in Turnbull v Duval itself and in some of the later cases becomes even more artificial. As the Court of Appeal in this case point out, in the majority of cases the reality of the relationship is that, the creditor having required of the principal debtor that there must be a surety, the principal debtor on his own account in order to raise the necessary finance seeks to procure the support of the surety. In so doing he is acting for himself not for the creditor.
The subsequent authorities
The authorities in which the principle derived from Turnbull v Duval has been applied are fully analysed in the judgment of Scott LJ and it is unnecessary to review them fully again.
Scott LJ analyses the cases as indicating that down to 1985 there was no decision which indicated that the agency theory, rather than the special equity theory, was the basis of the decision in Turnbull v Duval. I agree. But that is attributable more to the application of the Turnbull v Duval principle than to any analysis of its jurisprudential basis. The only attempts to analyse the basis of the decision in Turnbull v Duval were the Australian decisions in Bank of Victoria Ltd v Mueller (1914) [1925] VLR 642 and the judgment of Dixon J in Yerkey v Jones (1939) 63 CLR 649. The former decision was reached by applying the Romilly heresy which, as I have already said, is bad law. The judgment of Dixon J undoubtedly supports the special equity theory.
From 1985 down to the decision of the Court of Appeal in the present case the decisions have all been based on the agency theory, ie that the principal debtor has acted in breach of duty to his wife, the surety, and that, if the principal debtor was acting as the creditor’s agent but not otherwise, the creditor cannot be in any better position than its agent, the husband. In all the cases since 1985 the principal debtor has procured the agreement of the surety by a legal wrong (undue influence or misrepresentation). In all the cases emphasis was placed on the question whether the creditor was infected by the debtor’s wrongdoing because the debtor was acting as the agent of the creditor in procuring the wife’s agreement to stand as surety. I am unable to agree with Scott LJ that the
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decision in Kingsnorth Trust Ltd v Bell [1986] 1 All ER 423, [1986] 1 WLR 119 was not based on the agency theory: Dillon LJ expressly makes it a necessary condition that the creditor has entrusted to the husband the task of obtaining his wife’s signature (see [1986] 1 All ER 423 at 427, [1986] 1 WLR 119 at 123).
However, in four of the cases since 1985 attention has been drawn to the fact that, even in the absence of agency, if the debtor has been guilty of undue influence or misrepresentation the creditor may not be able to enforce the surety contract if the creditor had notice, actual or constructive, of the debtor’s conduct: see Avon Finance Co Ltd v Bridger (1979) [1985] 2 All ER 281 at 287 per Brandon LJ, Coldunell Ltd v Gallon [1986] 1 All ER 429 at 439, [1986] QB 1184 at 1199, Midland Bank plc v Shephard [1988] 3 All ER 17 at 23 and BCCI v Aboody [1992] 4 All ER 955 at 980, [1990] 1 QB 923 at 973. As will appear, in my view it is the proper application of the doctrine of notice which provides the key to finding a principled basis for the law.
Accordingly, the present law is built on the unsure foundations of Turnbull v Duval. Like most law founded on obscure and possibly mistaken foundations it has developed in an artificial way, giving rise to artificial distinctions and conflicting decisions. In my judgment your Lordships should seek to restate the law in a form which is principled, reflects the current requirements of society and provides as much certainty as possible.
Conclusions
(a) Wives
My starting point is to clarify the basis of the law. Should wives (and perhaps others) be accorded special rights in relation to surety transactions by the recognition of a special equity applicable only to such persons engaged in such transactions? Or should they enjoy only the same protection as they would enjoy in relation to their other dealings? In my judgment, the special equity theory should be rejected. First, I can find no basis in principle for affording special protection to a limited class in relation to one type of transaction only. Second, to require the creditor to prove knowledge and understanding by the wife in all cases is to reintroduce by the back door either a presumption of undue influence of class 2A (which has been decisively rejected) or the Romilly heresy (which has long been treated as bad law). Third, although Scott LJ found that there were two lines of cases one of which supported the special equity theory, on analysis although many decisions are not inconsistent with that theory the only two cases which support it are Yerkey v Jones and the decision of the Court of Appeal in the present case. Finally, it is not necessary to have recourse to a special equity theory for the proper protection of the legitimate interests of wives as I will seek to show.
In my judgment, if the doctrine of notice is properly applied, there is no need for the introduction of a special equity in these types of cases. A wife who has been induced to stand as a surety for her husband’s debts by his undue influence, misrepresentation or some other legal wrong has an equity as against him to set aside that transaction. Under the ordinary principles of equity, her right to set aside that transaction will be enforceable against third parties (eg against a creditor) if either the husband was acting as the third party’s agent or the third party had actual or constructive notice of the facts giving rise to her equity. Although there may be cases where, without artificiality, it can properly be held that the husband was acting as the agent of the creditor in procuring the wife to stand as surety, such cases will be of very rare occurrence. The key to
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the problem is to identify the circumstances in which the creditor will be taken to have had notice of the wife’s equity to set aside the transaction.
The doctrine of notice lies at the heart of equity. Given that there are two innocent parties, each enjoying rights, the earlier right prevails against the later right if the acquirer of the later right knows of the earlier right (actual notice) or would have discovered it had he taken proper steps (constructive notice). In particular, if the party asserting that he takes free of the earlier rights of another knows of certain facts which put him on inquiry as to the possible existence of the rights of that other and he fails to make such inquiry or take such other steps as are reasonable to verify whether such earlier right does or does not exist, he will have constructive notice of the earlier right and take subject to it. Therefore where a wife has agreed to stand surety for her husband’s debts as a result of undue influence or misrepresentation, the creditor will take subject to the wife’s equity to set aside the transaction if the circumstances are such as to put the creditor on inquiry as to the circumstances in which she agreed to stand surety.
It is at this stage that, in my view, the ‘invalidating tendency’ or the law’s ‘tender treatment’ of married women, becomes relevant. As I have said above in dealing with undue influence, this tenderness of the law towards married women is due to the fact that, even today, many wives repose confidence and trust in their husbands in relation to their financial affairs. This tenderness of the law is reflected by the fact that voluntary dispositions by the wife in favour of her husband are more likely to be set aside than other dispositions by her: a wife is more likely to establish presumed undue influence of class 2B by her husband than by others because, in practice, many wives do repose in their husbands trust and confidence in relation to their financial affairs. Moreover the informality of business dealings between spouses raises a substantial risk that the husband has not accurately stated to the wife the nature of the liability she is undertaking, ie he has misrepresented the position, albeit negligently.
Therefore, in my judgment a creditor is put on inquiry when a wife offers to stand surety for her husband’s debts by the combination of two factors: (a) the transaction is on its face not to the financial advantage of the wife; and (b) there is a substantial risk in transactions of that kind that, in procuring the wife to act as surety, the husband has committed a legal or equitable wrong that entitles the wife to set aside the transaction.
It follows that, unless the creditor who is put on inquiry takes reasonable steps to satisfy himself that the wife’s agreement to stand surety has been properly obtained, the creditor will have constructive notice of the wife’s rights.
What, then are the reasonable steps which the creditor should take to ensure that it does not have constructive notice of the wife’s rights, if any? Normally the reasonable steps necessary to avoid being fixed with constructive notice consist of making inquiry of the person who may have the earlier right (ie the wife) to see if whether such right is asserted. It is plainly impossible to require of banks and other financial institutions that they should inquire of one spouse whether he or she has been unduly influenced or misled by the other. But in my judgment the creditor, in order to avoid being fixed with constructive notice, can reasonably be expected to take steps to bring home to the wife the risk she is running by standing as surety and to advise her to take independent advice. As to past transactions, it will depend on the facts of each case whether the steps taken by the creditor satisfy this test. However for the future in my judgment a creditor will have satisfied these requirements if it insists that the wife attend
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a private meeting (in the absence of the husband) with a representative of the creditor at which she is told of the extent of her liability as surety, warned of the risk she is running and urged to take independent legal advice. If these steps are taken in my judgment the creditor will have taken such reasonable steps as are necessary to preclude a subsequent claim that it had constructive notice of the wife’s rights. I should make it clear that I have been considering the ordinary case where the creditor knows only that the wife is to stand surety for her husband’s debts. I would not exclude exceptional cases where a creditor has knowledge of further facts which render the presence of undue influence not only possible but probable. In such cases, the creditor to be safe will have to insist that the wife is separately advised.
I am conscious that in treating the creditor as having constructive notice because of the risk of class 2B undue influence or misrepresentation by the husband I may be extending the law as stated by Fry J in Bainbrigge v Browne (1881) 18 Ch D 188 at 197 and the Court of Appeal in BCCI v Aboody [1992] 4 All ER 955 at 980, [1990] 1 QB 923 at 973. Those cases suggest that for a third party to be affected by constructive notice of presumed undue influence the third party must actually know of the circumstances which give rise to a presumption of undue influence. In contrast, my view is that the risk of class 2B undue influence or misrepresentation is sufficient to put the creditor on inquiry. But my statement accords with the principles of notice: if the known facts are such as to indicate the possibility of an adverse claim that is sufficient to put a third party on inquiry.
If the law is established as I have suggested, it will hold the balance fairly between on the one hand the vulnerability of the wife who relies implicitly on her husband and, on the other hand, the practical problems of financial institutions asked to accept a secured or unsecured surety obligation from the wife for her husband’s debts. In the context of suretyship, the wife will not have any right to disown her obligations just because subsequently she proves that she did not fully understand the transaction: she will, as in all other areas of her affairs, be bound by her obligations unless her husband has, by misrepresentation, undue influence or other wrong, committed an actionable wrong against her. In the normal case, a financial institution will be able to lend with confidence in reliance on the wife’s surety obligation provided that it warns her (in the absence of the husband) of the amount of her potential liability and of the risk of standing surety and advises her to take independent advice.
Mr Jarvis QC for the bank urged that this is to impose too heavy a burden on financial institutions. I am not impressed by this submission. The report by Professor Jack’s Review Committee on Banking Services: Law and Practice (1989), (Cmnd 622) recommended that prospective guarantors should be adequately warned of the legal effects and possible consequences of their guarantee and of the importance of receiving independent advice. Pursuant to this recommendation, the Code of Banking Practice (adopted by banks and building societies in March 1992) provides in para 12.1 as follows:
‘Banks and building societies will advise private individuals proposing to give them a guarantee or other security for another person’s liabilities that: (i) by giving the guarantee or third party security he or she might become liable instead of or as well as that other person; (ii) he or she should seek independent legal advice before entering into the guarantee or third party
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security. Guarantees and other third party security forms will contain a clear and prominent notice to the above effect.’
Thus good banking practice (which applies to all guarantees, not only those given by a wife) largely accords with what I consider the law should require when a wife is offered as surety. The only further substantial step required by law beyond that good practice is that the position should be explained by the bank to the wife in a personal interview. I regard this as being essential because a number of the decided cases show that written warnings are often not read and are sometimes intercepted by the husband. It does not seem to me that the requirement of a personal interview imposes such an additional administrative burden as to render the bank’s position unworkable.
(b) Other persons
I have hitherto dealt only with the position where a wife stands surety for her husband’s debts. But in my judgment the same principles are applicable to all other cases where there is an emotional relationship between cohabitees. The ‘tenderness’ shown by the law to married women is not based on the marriage ceremony but reflects the underlying risk of one cohabitee exploiting the emotional involvement and trust of the other. Now that unmarried cohabitation, whether heterosexual or homosexual, is widespread in our society, the law should recognise this. Legal wives are not the only group which are now exposed to the emotional pressure of cohabitation. Therefore if, but only if, the creditor is aware that the surety is cohabiting with the principal debtor, in my judgment the same principles should apply to them as apply to husband and wife.
In addition to the cases of cohabitees, the decision of the Court of Appeal in Avon Finance Co Ltd v Bridger [1985] 2 All ER 281 shows (rightly in my view) that other relationships can give rise to a similar result. In that case a son, by means of misrepresentation, persuaded his elderly parents to stand surety for his debts. The surety obligation was held to be unenforceable by the creditor inter alia because to the bank’s knowledge the parents trusted the son in their financial dealings. In my judgment that case was rightly decided: in a case where the creditor is aware that the surety reposes trust and confidence in the principal debtor in relation to his financial affairs, the creditor is put on inquiry in just the same way as it is in relation to husband and wife.
Summary
I can therefore summarise my views as follows. Where one cohabitee has entered into an obligation to stand as surety for the debts of the other cohabitee and the creditor is aware that they are cohabitees: (1) the surety obligation will be valid and enforceable by the creditor unless the suretyship was procured by the undue influence, misrepresentation or other legal wrong of the principal debtor; (2) if there has been undue influence, misrepresentation or other legal wrong by the principal debtor, unless the creditor has taken reasonable steps to satisfy himself that the surety entered into the obligation freely and in knowledge of the true facts, the creditor will be unable to enforce the surety obligation because he will be fixed with constructive notice of the surety’s right to set aside the transaction; (3) unless there are special exceptional circumstances, a creditor will have taken such reasonable steps to avoid being fixed with constructive notice if the creditor warns the surety (at a meeting not
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attended by the principal debtor) of the amount of her potential liability and of the risks involved and advises the surety to take independent legal advice.
I should make it clear that in referring to the husband’s debts I include the debts of a company in which the husband (but not the wife) has a direct financial interest.
The decision of this case
Applying those principles to this case, to the knowledge of the bank Mr and Mrs O’Brien were man and wife. The bank took a surety obligation from Mrs O’Brien, secured on the matrimonial home, to secure the debts of a company in which Mr O’Brien was interested but in which Mrs O’Brien had no direct pecuniary interest. The bank should therefore have been put on inquiry as to the circumstances in which Mrs O’Brien had agreed to stand as surety for the debt of her husband. If the Burnham branch had properly carried out the instructions from Mr Tucker of the Woolwich branch, Mrs O’Brien would have been informed that she and the matrimonial home were potentially liable for the debts of a company which had an existing liability of £107,000 and which was to be afforded an overdraft facility of £135,000. If she had been told this, it would have counteracted Mr O’Brien’s misrepresentation that the liability was limited to £60,000 and would last for only three weeks. In addition according to the side letter she would have been recommended to take independent legal advice.
Unfortunately Mr Tucker’s instructions were not followed and to the knowledge of the bank (through the clerk at the Burnham branch) Mrs O’Brien signed the documents without any warning of the risks or any recommendation to take legal advice. In the circumstances the bank (having failed to take reasonable steps) is fixed with constructive notice of the wrongful misrepresentation made by Mr O’Brien to Mrs O’Brien. Mrs O’Brien is therefore entitled as against the bank to set aside the legal charge on the matrimonial home securing her husband’s liability to the bank.
For these reasons I would dismiss the appeal with costs.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. For the reasons he gives, I agree that this appeal should be dismissed.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
CIBC Mortgages plc v Pitt and another
[1993] 4 All ER 433
Categories: EQUITY
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD LOWRY, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON, LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY AND LORD WOOLF
Hearing Date(s): 25, 26 MAY, 21 OCTOBER 1993
Equity – Undue influence – Misrepresentation by person exercising influence – Effect of misrepresentation – Husband and wife – Joint loan to husband and wife on security of jointly owned matrimonial home – Wife put under undue pressure by husband to execute mortgage documents – Husband using loan to speculate unsuccessfully in stock market – Mortgagee seeking possession of matrimonial home when husband unable to keep up mortgage payments – Whether charge over matrimonial home should be set aside for undue influence – Whether wife required to prove manifest disadvantage as well as undue influence – Whether mortgagee affected by husband’s undue influence.
The husband and wife jointly owned the matrimonial home, which was valued at £270,000 in 1986. The only encumbrance on it was a mortgage in favour of a building society for £16,700. In 1986 the husband told the wife that he would like to borrow some money on the security of the house and to use the loan to buy shares on the stock market. The wife was not happy with the suggestion but as the result of pressure by the husband the wife eventually agreed. The husband and wife signed an application form for a loan from the plaintiff mortgagee of £150,000 for a period of 20 years, the purpose of the loan being expressed to be to pay off the existing mortgage and purchase a holiday home. The plaintiff agreed to advance £150,000 for 19 years and the husband and wife signed the mortgage offer and a legal charge prepared by the plaintiff’s solicitors. The wife did not read those documents before signing them or receive any separate advice about the transaction nor did anyone suggest that she should do so. She did not know the amount that was being borrowed. The proceeds of the loan after the existing mortgage was paid off were paid into the husband and wife’s joint account and the husband used it to speculate on the stock market. When the market crashed in October 1987 the husband was unable to keep up the mortgage payments and the plaintiff applied for an order for possession of the matrimonial home. The wife contested the application on the ground that she had been induced to sign the mortgage charge by misrepresentation, duress and undue influence on the part of her husband. The judge held that the husband had exercised actual undue influence on the wife to procure her agreement, that the transaction was manifestly disadvantageous to her but that, since the husband had not acted as agent of the plaintiff and there had been a joint advance to both husband and wife by way of a loan rather than the wife standing as surety for the husband’s debt, the wife’s claim failed. The wife’s appeal to the Court of Appeal was dismissed on the grounds that the transaction was not manifestly disadvantageous and therefore the wife could not succeed on undue influence and furthermore the plaintiff had neither actual nor constructive notice of any irregularity. The wife appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – (1) A claimant who proved actual undue influence was not under the further burden of proving that the transaction induced by undue influence was
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manifestly disadvantageous but was entitled as of right to have it set aside as against the person exercising the undue influence, since actual undue influence was a species of fraud and, like any other victim of fraud, a person who had been induced by undue influence to carry out a transaction which he did not freely and knowingly enter into was entitled to have that transaction set aside as of right. A person guilty of fraud was no more entitled to argue that the transaction was beneficial to the person defrauded than was a person who had procured a transaction by misrepresentation. The effect of the wrongdoer’s conduct was to prevent the wronged party from bringing a free will and properly informed mind to bear on the proposed transaction, which accordingly had to be set aside in equity as a matter of justice (see p 435 d e, p 439 f to j and p 442 b c, post); National Westminster Bank plc v Morgan [1985] 1 All ER 821 explained; Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA v Aboody (1988) [1992] 4 All ER 955 overruled.
(2) However, although the wife had established actual undue influence by the husband, the plaintiff was not affected by it because the husband had not, in a real sense, acted as its agent in procuring her agreement and the plaintiff had no actual or constructive notice of the undue influence. So far as the plaintiff was aware, the transaction consisted of a joint loan to the husband and wife to finance the discharge of the existing mortgage on the matrimonial home with the balance to be applied in buying a holiday home. The loan was advanced to both the husband and wife jointly and there was nothing to indicate to the plaintiff that the loan was anything other than a normal advance to a husband and wife for their joint benefit. The mere fact that there was a risk of there being undue influence because one of the borrowers was the wife was, in itself, not sufficient to put the plaintiff on inquiry. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see p 435 d e, p 440 d e, p 441 d to g and p 442 a to c, post).
Notes
For the avoidance of a transaction procured by duress or undue influence, see 18 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 330–331, 349, and for cases on the subject, see 25 Digest (Reissue) 173–177, 206, 1380–1414, 1715.
Cases referred to in opinions
Allcard v Skinner (1887) 36 Ch D 145, [1886–90] All ER Rep 90, CA.
Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA v Aboody (1988) [1992] 4 All ER 955, [1990] 1 QB 923, [1989] 2 WLR 759, CA.
Barclays Bank plc v O’Brien [1992] 4 All ER 983, [1993] QB 109, [1992] 3 WLR 593, CA; affd on other grounds [1993] 4 All ER 417, HL.
Demarara Bauxite Co Ltd v Hubbard [1923] AC 673, PC.
Moodie v Cox [1917] 2 Ch 71, [1916–17] All ER Rep 548, CA.
National Westminster Bank plc v Morgan [1985] 1 All ER 821, [1985] AC 686, [1985] 2 WLR 588, HL.
Ormes v Beadel (1860) 2 Giff 166, 66 ER 70; rvsd 2 De GF & J 333, 45 ER 649, LC.
Poosathurai v Kannappa Chettiar (1919) LR 47 Ind App 1, PC.
Wright v Carter [1903] 1 Ch 2, [1900–3] All ER Rep 706, CA.
Appeal
Maxine Francis Pitt appealed with leave of the Appeal Committee granted on 30 April 1993 against the decision of the Court of Appeal (Neill and Peter Gibson LJJ) delivered on 31 March 1993 dismissing the appellant’s appeal from the
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decision of Mr Recorder D T A Davies sitting in the Wood Green County Court on 7 August 1992 whereby he ordered the appellant to deliver up possession of the property at 26 Alexander Avenue, Willesden, London NW10 to the respondent, CIBC Mortgages plc, the holder of a legal charge over the property executed by the appellant and her husband, Ivor Norman Pitt. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Browne-Wilkinson.
Leolin Price QC and David Schmitz (instructed by Brian Hillman & Co) for the appellant.
Gavin Lightman QC and Nigel Clayton (instructed by Fox Brooks Marshall, Hale) for the respondent.
21 October 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, for the reasons to be given by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD LOWRY. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss this appeal.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, in these proceedings the appellant defendant, Mrs Pitt, seeks to resist an application by the respondent plaintiff, CIBC Mortgages plc, claiming possession of No 26 Alexander Avenue, Willesden, London NW10. The plaintiff claims possession under a legal charge dated 31 July 1986 whereby Mrs Pitt and her husband Mr Pitt charged the property to secure a loan of £150,000 made to them jointly by the plaintiff. Mrs Pitt claims that the plaintiff cannot enforce the legal charge because she was induced to execute it by the misrepresentations and undue influence of her husband. The trial judge, Mr Recorder Davies, held against Mrs Pitt and ordered possession of the house to be given to the plaintiff. The Court of Appeal (Neill and Peter Gibson LJJ) dismissed her appeal. Mrs Pitt appeals to your Lordships’ House.
Mr Pitt is 52 and Mrs Pitt is 50. They have been married since 1964 and have two adult daughters, both of whom still live with them at 26 Alexander Avenue. That house has been the matrimonial home since 1970. It was originally purchased in Mr Pitt’s sole name, but in 1978, after Mrs Pitt raised objection, the house was put into their joint names. In 1986 the house was valued at £270,000, the only encumbrance on it being a mortgage in favour of a building society for £16,700.
In 1986 Mr Pitt told Mrs Pitt that he would like to borrow some money on the security of the house and to use the loan to buy shares on the stock market. He did not say what he wanted to do with the shares but he did say that he and Mrs Pitt would have a better standard of living. Mrs Pitt was not happy about this suggestion and made her feelings known to her husband. As a result he embarked on a course of conduct putting pressure on Mrs Pitt which the trial judge held amounted to actual undue influence. In consequence, Mrs Pitt agreed to the suggestion.
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Mr Pitt was put in touch with the plaintiff and an application for a loan was signed by both Mr and Mrs Pitt. The application form named both Mr and Mrs Pitt as the applicants for a loan of £150,000 for a period of 20 years, the purpose of the loan being expressed to be ‘proposed purchase of holiday home’. Their income was stated to be £100,000 pa. The transaction was said to be a remortgage, the intention being to pay off the existing mortgage. Immediately above the space for the applicants’ signatures, the printed form contained a declaration, amongst other things, that the information given in the application was true to the best of the applicants’ knowledge and belief. Mrs Pitt did not read any of the pages of the application which had been filled in by somebody else: she did see the first and last pages.
On 6 June 1986 a written offer of mortgage was made by the plaintiff addressed to Mr and Mrs Pitt. It offered a loan of £150,000 for 19 years secured on 26 Alexander Avenue and also on a policy of assurance to be effected by Mr Pitt on his life. The purpose of the loan was expressed to be ‘remortgage’. The offer also stated:
‘It is understood that the proceeds of this advance are to be used to purchase a second property without the applicants resorting to any additional borrowing. Any more borrowing or change of use must be notified to the bank immediately.’
It was not a condition that any property purchased with the borrowed moneys should be charged to the plaintiff. Mr and Mrs Pitt signed the mortgage offer to indicate their acceptance, but Mrs Pitt did not read it before signing.
The solicitors acting for Mr and Mrs Pitt on the transaction were the plaintiff’s solicitors. On 31 July 1986 the legal charge was executed. It was in standard form whereby Mr and Mrs Pitt borrowed £150,000 for 19 years and charged 26 Alexander Avenue by way of first legal mortgage. Mrs Pitt signed the legal charge but did not read it. By another legal charge executed by Mr and Mrs Pitt on the same day a life policy on Mr Pitt’s life was charged to the plaintiff: again Mrs Pitt did not read it. At no stage did Mrs Pitt receive any separate advice about the transaction nor did anyone suggest that she should do so. She did not know the amount that was being borrowed.
The plaintiff paid the advance of £150,000 to the solicitors who were acting for all parties. They redeemed the existing mortgage to the building society on 26 Alexander Avenue and then paid over the balance of the loan, £133,165·04, by cheque drawn in favour of both Mr and Mrs Pitt. The money was paid into their joint account.
Mr Pitt applied the borrowed moneys to buy shares, apparently in his own name. On 9 October 1986 Mr Pitt charged any securities he had then deposited or thereafter deposited in favour of the Union Bank of Switzerland. It appears that he never liquidated any part of his holding and that he was charging securities he had bought with the moneys borrowed from the plaintiff in order to borrow more moneys to buy more shares. For a time, he was highly successful with his investments in that at one stage he was a millionaire on paper. In October 1987 the stock market crashed, his creditor banks sold the securities charged to them and Mr Pitt found himself in arrears in paying what was due under the charge. That, in due course, led to the commencement of these proceedings on 20 December 1990. An order for possession was obtained against both Mr and Mrs Pitt but that order was set aside as against Mrs Pitt who alleged that the legal charge had been procured by the undue influence and
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misrepresentation of Mr Pitt and should be set aside. At the time of the trial in July 1992, the total sum owing under the legal charge was nearly £219,000, which apparently exceeded the value of 26 Alexander Avenue.
At the trial, Mrs Pitt alleged, first, that she had been induced to enter into the legal charge by Mr Pitt falsely representing to her that the borrowed moneys were to be used to finance the purchase of shares to be held for capital appreciation and income, whereas his actual intention was to use the shares so acquired as collateral for further borrowings to purchase yet more shares. Mrs Pitt further alleged that she entered into the charge because of the undue influence of Mr Pitt, that she had not understood the nature of the obligation she was undertaking or the amount involved and that, since Mr Pitt had acted as the agent of the plaintiff, the charge should be set aside as against the plaintiff. The plaintiff, in addition to denying the claims made by Mrs Pitt, contended that the transaction was not manifestly disadvantageous to Mrs Pitt and that, following National Westminster Bank plc v Morgan [1985] 1 All ER 821, [1985] AC 686, the claim based on undue influence could not succeed. The trial judge held (1) that Mrs Pitt had not established any misrepresentation made to her by Mr Pitt, (2) that Mr Pitt had exercised actual undue influence on Mrs Pitt to procure her agreement, (3) that the transaction was manifestly disadvantageous to her and (4) that Mr Pitt had not acted as the agent of the plaintiff.
On those findings of fact, the judge approached the case in accordance with the decision of the Court of Appeal in Barclays Bank plc v O’Brien [1992] 4 All ER 983, [1993] QB 109, on the appeal from which decision your Lordships have just delivered judgment (see [1993] 4 All ER 417). It will be recalled that in Barclays Bank plc v O’Brien the Court of Appeal detected two possible approaches which might be adopted by the court when approaching the validity of a surety obligation undertaken by a wife to secure her husband’s indebtedness. The first ‘road’ required a finding that the husband had procured the wife’s agreement by undue influence or misrepresentation and a finding either that the husband had acted as agent for the creditor or that the creditor had knowledge of the relevant facts. The second, alternative, ‘road’ involved the recognition of a special equity whereby the security obligation entered into by the wife would be unenforceable by the creditor if (1) the relationship of husband and wife was known to the creditor; (2) the wife’s consent had been obtained by misrepresentation or undue influence of the husband or the wife in some other way lacked an adequate understanding of the nature and effect of the transaction and (3) the creditor had failed to take reasonable steps to try to ensure that the wife ‘had an adequate understanding of the nature and effect of the transaction and that the transaction was a true and informed one’.
The trial judge, faced with a difference of view and approach in authorities binding upon him, sensibly reached his conclusion on both the possible roads. As to the first road, having found that Mrs Pitt had been induced to enter into the transaction by the actual undue influence of Mr Pitt but that Mr Pitt was not the plaintiff’s agent, the claim failed as against the plaintiff. As to the second road, he held that it was only applicable to cases where a wife stands as surety for her husband’s debt and did not apply to a case, such as the present, where there was a joint advance to both husband and wife by way of a loan. The Court of Appeal dismissed Mrs Pitt’s appeal on two grounds. First, they reversed the judge’s decision on the question whether the transaction was manifestly disadvantageous to Mrs Pitt and held that, since the transaction was not manifestly disadvantageous, she could not succeed on undue influence.
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Second, although they felt bound by Barclays Bank plc v O’Brien, they held that the second road depended upon the plaintiff having notice of the undue influence and that, since the plaintiff had neither actual nor constructive notice of any irregularity, the charge was valid as against the plaintiff.
Manifest disadvantage
In the present case the Court of Appeal, as they were bound to, applied the law laid down in National Westminster Bank plc v Morgan [1985] 1 All ER 821, [1985] AC 686 as interpreted by the Court of Appeal in Bank of Credit and Commerce International SA v Aboody (1988) [1992] 4 All ER 955, [1990] 1 QB 923: a claim to set aside a transaction on the grounds of undue influence whether presumed (Morgan) or actual (Aboody) cannot succeed unless the claimant proves that the impugned transaction was manifestly disadvantageous to him. Before your Lordships, Mrs Pitt submitted that the Court of Appeal in Aboody erred in extending the need to show manifest disadvantage in cases of actual, as opposed to presumed, undue influence. Adopting the classification used in O’Brien’s case, it is argued that although Morgan’s case decides that the claimant must show that the impugned transaction was disadvantageous to him in order to raise the presumption of undue influence within class 2A or 2B, there is no such requirement where it is proved affirmatively that the claimant’s agreement to the transaction was actually obtained by undue influence within class 1.
In Morgan it was alleged that Mrs Morgan had been induced to grant security to the bank by the undue influence of one of the bank’s managers. Mrs Morgan did not allege actual undue influence within class 1, but relied exclusively on a presumption of undue influence within class 2. It was held that the bank manager had never in fact assumed such a role as to raise any presumption of undue influence. However, in addition, it was held that Mrs Morgan could not succeed because she had not demonstrated that the transaction was manifestly disadvantageous to her. Lord Scarman (who delivered the leading speech) rejected a submission that the presumption of undue influence was based on any public policy requirements. In reliance on the judgment of Lindley LJ in Allcard v Skinner (1887) 36 Ch D 145, [1886–90] All ER Rep 90 and the decision of the Privy Council in Poosathurai v Kannappa Chettiar (1919) LR 47 Ind App 1, he laid down the following proposition ([1985] 1 All ER 821 at 827, [1985] AC 686 at 704:
‘Whatever the legal character of the transaction, the authorities show that it must constitute a disadvantage sufficiently serious to require evidence to rebut the presumption that in the circumstances of the relationship between the parties it was procured by the exercise of undue influence. In my judgment, therefore, the Court of Appeal erred in law in holding that the presumption of undue influence can arise from the evidence of the relationship of the parties without also evidence that the transaction itself was wrongful in that it constituted an advantage taken of the person subjected to the influence which, failing proof to the contrary, was explicable only on the basis that undue influence had been exercised to procure it.’
In BCCI v Aboody [1992] 4 All ER 955, [1990] 1 QB 923 the claimant had established that actual undue influence within class 1 had been exercised to induce her to enter into the impugned transaction. That transaction was not manifestly disadvantageous to her. The Court of Appeal, following a number
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of dicta in the Court of Appeal and a first instance decision subsequent to National Westminster Bank plc v Morgan [1985] 1 All ER 821, [1985] AC 686, held that the decision in Morgan applied as much to cases of class 1, actual undue influence, as to class 2, presumed undue influence. They placed reliance on certain passages in Lord Scarman’s speech in Morgan which indicated a view that the demonstration of a manifest disadvantage was essential even in a class 1 case. The Court of Appeal were initially impressed by a submission that, if manifest disadvantage had to be shown in all cases, an old lady who had been unduly influenced by her solicitor to sell him her family house but had been paid the full market price for it, would be unable to recover. However, they were satisfied that in such a case the old lady would have a remedy under what they regarded as a wholly separate doctrine of equity, viz the right to set aside transactions obtained in abuse of confidence.
My Lords, I am unable to agree with the Court of Appeal decision in BCCI v Aboody. I have no doubt that the decision in Morgan does not extend to cases of actual undue influence. Despite two references in Lord Scarman’s speech to cases of actual undue influence, as I read his speech he was primarily concerned to establish that disadvantage had to be shown, not as a constituent element of the cause of action for undue influence, but in order to raise a presumption of undue influence within class 2. That was the only subject matter before the House of Lords in Morgan and the passage I have already cited was directed solely to that point. With the exception of a passing reference to Ormes v Beadel (1860) 2 Giff 166, 66 ER 70 all the cases referred to by Lord Scarman were cases of presumed undue influence. In the circumstances, I do not think that this House can have been intending to lay down any general principle applicable to all claims of undue influence, whether actual or presumed.
Whatever the merits of requiring a complainant to show manifest disadvantage in order to raise a class 2 presumption of undue influence, in my judgment there is no logic in imposing such a requirement where actual undue influence has been exercised and proved. Actual undue influence is a species of fraud. Like any other victim of fraud, a person who has been induced by undue influence to carry out a transaction which he did not freely and knowingly enter into is entitled to have that transaction set aside as of right. No case decided before Morgan was cited (nor am I aware of any) in which a transaction proved to have been obtained by actual undue influence has been upheld nor is there any case in which a court has even considered whether the transaction was, or was not, advantageous. A man guilty of fraud is no more entitled to argue that the transaction was beneficial to the person defrauded than is a man who has procured a transaction by misrepresentation. The effect of the wrongdoer’s conduct is to prevent the wronged party from bringing a free will and properly informed mind to bear on the proposed transaction which accordingly must be set aside in equity as a matter of justice.
I therefore hold that a claimant who proves actual undue influence is not under the further burden of proving that the transaction induced by undue influence was manifestly disadvantageous: he is entitled as of right to have it set aside.
I should add that the exact limits of the decision in Morgan may have to be considered in the future. The difficulty is to establish the relationship between the law as laid down in Morgan and the long standing principle laid down in the abuse of confidence cases, viz the law requires those in a fiduciary position who enter into transactions with those to whom they owe fiduciary duties to
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establish affirmatively that the transaction was a fair one: see for example Demarara Bauxite Co Ltd v Hubbard [1923] AC 673, Moodie v Cox [1917] 2 Ch 71, [1916–17] All ER Rep 548 and the discussion in BCCI v Aboody [1992] 4 All ER 955 at 971–973, [1990] 1 QB 923 at 962. The abuse of confidence principle is founded on considerations of general public policy, viz that in order to protect those to whom fiduciaries owe duties as a class from exploitation by fiduciaries as a class, the law imposes a heavy duty on fiduciaries to show the righteousness of the transactions they enter into with those to whom they owe such duties. This principle is in sharp contrast with the view of this House in Morgan that in cases of presumed undue influence (a) the law is not based on considerations of public policy and (b) that it is for the claimant to prove that the transaction was disadvantageous rather than for the fiduciary to prove that it was not disadvantageous. Unfortunately, the attention of this House in Morgan was not drawn to the abuse of confidence cases and therefore the interaction between the two principles (if indeed they are two separate principles) remains obscure: see also 48 MLR 579 and Wright v Carter [1903] 1 Ch 27, [1900–3] All ER Rep 706.
Notice
Even though, in my view, Mrs Pitt is entitled to set aside the transaction as against Mr Pitt, she has to establish that in some way the plaintiff is affected by the wrongdoing of Mr Pitt so as to be entitled to set aside the legal charge as against the plaintiff.
The Court of Appeal in the present case treated themselves as bound by the Court of Appeal decision in Barclays Bank plc v O’Brien [1992] 4 All ER 983, [1993] QB 109. They were unwilling to distinguish O’Brien on the ground that the instant case is one of a loan to the husband and wife jointly whereas O’Brien was a surety case. However, pre-echoing our decision in O’Brien, they distinguished it on the grounds of notice. Peter Gibson LJ said:
‘We are concerned with the application of equitable principles. I start with the fact that equity does not presume undue influence in transactions between husband and wife. Further, bona fide purchasers for value without notice are recognised in equity as having a good defence to equitable claims. On principle, therefore, a creditor who is not on notice of any actual or likely undue influence in a transaction involving a husband and wife ought not to be affected by the exercise of undue influence by the husband. Of course if the creditor leaves it to the husband to procure the wife’s participation in the transaction or otherwise makes the husband the creditor’s agent, whether in a strict or some looser sense, then the creditor is affected by the acts of the agent and notice of undue influence by the husband can be imputed to the creditor. By reason of the O’Brien case, I must accept that in a case where a wife provides security for a husband’s debts, the creditor, unless it takes steps to ensure that the wife understands the transaction and that her consent was true and informed, may be affected by any undue influence exerted by the husband to procure the wife’s actions, even if the creditor has no knowledge of the undue influence; but that is explicable on the basis that such a transaction, favouring a husband at the expense of his wife, on its face puts the creditor on notice of the possibility of undue influence by the husband. By parity of reasoning, if there is a secured loan to a husband and wife but the creditor is aware that the purposes of the loan are to pay the husband’s debts or otherwise for his (as distinct from their joint) purposes, the creditor,
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without taking precautionary steps, may be affected by the husband’s misconduct. On that footing, on the facts of the present case it is in my judgment clear that the plaintiff had no actual knowledge of the acts of Mr Pitt relied on by Mrs Pitt as constituting undue influence. Nor was there anything to put the plaintiff on notice that this was other than a routine transaction for the benefit of both Mr and Mrs Pitt. It was, so far as the plaintiff was aware, partly a remortgaging transaction, and partly the raising of money to purchase other property for the joint benefit of Mr and Mrs Pitt and the cheque was made payable to them jointly. True it is that there was a greatly increased borrowing on their house, but the valuation showed that there would be a substantial equity in the house after the borrowing. In my judgment therefore the innocent plaintiff is not affected by the undue influence exercised by Mr Pitt over Mrs Pitt and accordingly on this ground Mrs Pitt’s defence to these proceedings fails.’
I agree with this conclusion and, save to the extent that it recognises as good law the reasoning of the Court of Appeal in O’Brien, with the analysis of Peter Gibson LJ. Applying the decision of this House in O’Brien, Mrs Pitt has established actual undue influence by Mr Pitt. The plaintiff will not however be affected by such undue influence unless Mr Pitt was, in a real sense, acting as agent of the plaintiff in procuring Mrs Pitt’s agreement or the plaintiff had actual or constructive notice of the undue influence. The judge has correctly held that Mr Pitt was not acting as agent for the plaintiff. The plaintiff had no actual notice of the undue influence. What, then, was known to the plaintiff that could put it on inquiry so as to fix it with constructive notice?
So far as the plaintiff was aware, the transaction consisted of a joint loan to the husband and wife to finance the discharge of an existing mortgage on 26 Alexander Avenue and, as to the balance, to be applied in buying a holiday home. The loan was advanced to both husband and wife jointly. There was nothing to indicate to the plaintiff that this was anything other than a normal advance to a husband and wife for their joint benefit.
Mr Price QC for Mrs Pitt argued that the invalidating tendency which reflects the risk of there being class 2B undue influence was, in itself, sufficient to put the plaintiff on inquiry. I reject this submission without hesitation. It accords neither with justice nor with practical common sense. If third parties were to be fixed with constructive notice of undue influence in relation to every transaction between husband and wife, such transactions would become almost impossible. On every purchase of a home in joint names, the building society or bank financing the purchase would have to insist on meeting the wife separately from her husband, advise her as to the nature of the transaction and recommend her to take legal advice separate from that of her husband. If that were not done, the financial institution would have to run the risk of a subsequent attempt by the wife to avoid her liabilities under the mortgage on the grounds of undue influence or misrepresentation. To establish the law in that sense would not benefit the average married couple and would discourage financial institutions from making the advance.
What distinguishes the case of the joint advance from the surety case is that, in the latter, there is not only the possibility of undue influence having been exercised but also the increased risk of it having in fact been exercised because, at least on its face, the guarantee by a wife of her husband’s debts is not for her financial benefit. It is the combination of these two factors that puts the creditor on inquiry.
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For these reasons I agree with the Court of Appeal on this issue and would dismiss the appeal. Mrs Pitt is legally aided but, subject to affording the legal aid board an opportunity to be heard, I would order her costs of this appeal to be paid out of the legal aid fund.
LORD SLYNN OF HADLEY. My Lords, I, too would dismiss this appeal for the reasons given in the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson.
LORD WOOLF. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Browne-Wilkinson. I agree with it and for the reasons he gives I too would dismiss the appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Department, ex parte Bentley
[1993] 4 All ER 442
Categories: ADMINISTRATIVE: CONSTITUTIONAL; Crown
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WATKINS, NEILL LJJ AND TUCKEY J
Hearing Date(s): 24, 25 MAY, 7 JULY 1993
Judicial review – Availability of remedy – Royal prerogative – Prerogative of mercy – Home Secretary’s decision not to grant posthumous conditional pardon – Whether Home Secretary’s decision susceptible to judicial review – Whether grant of pardon dependent on moral and technical innocence of crime committed.
In 1952 the applicant’s brother, then aged 19, and a youth aged 16 were convicted of the murder of a police officer. The fatal shot had been fired by the brother’s accomplice but, being too young to be subject to the death penalty, he was sentenced to life imprisonment. The applicant’s brother, on the other hand, was sentenced to death by the trial judge. The then Home Secretary decided not to exercise the royal prerogative of mercy despite a recommendation for mercy by the jury and the advice of Home Office officials that it would not seem right to exact the extreme penalty from the accomplice when the principal offender was escaping with his life. The applicant’s brother was executed on 28 January 1953. On 1 October 1992 the Home Secretary refused to recommend a posthumous free pardon for the applicant’s brother, on the grounds that although he personally agreed with the view that the applicant’s brother should not have been hanged, it had been the long-established policy of successive Home Secretaries that a free pardon should be granted only if the person concerned was both morally and technically innocent of any crime and that his review of the applicant’s brother’s case had not established his innocence. The applicant applied for judicial review of the Home Secretary’s decision contending, inter alia, that he had erred in law in his approach to the issue in that he considered that the grant
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of a free pardon was dependent on establishing that the applicant’s brother was morally and technically innocent whereas he should have asked himself whether in all the circumstances the applicant’s brother should have suffered the punishment which had been imposed.
Held – (1) The court had jurisdiction to review the exercise of the royal prerogative of mercy by the Home Secretary in accord with accepted public law principles since the exercise of the prerogative was an important feature of the criminal justice system and a decision by the Home Secretary which was infected with legal errors ought not to be immune from legal challenge merely because it involved an element of policy or was made under the prerogative (see p 452 h to p 453 b, post); Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935 applied.
(2) The Home Secretary’s decision not to recommend a posthumous pardon for the applicant’s brother was flawed because, in considering whether to grant a posthumous pardon, he had failed to recognise the fact that the prerogative of mercy was capable of being exercised in many different circumstances and over a wide range and had failed to consider the form of pardon which might be appropriate. Furthermore, there was no objection in principle to the grant of a posthumous conditional pardon where a death sentence had already been carried out, as the grant of such a pardon represented recognition by the state that a mistake had been made and that a reprieve should have been granted. Since the Home Secretary’s failure to consider the grant of a posthumous conditional pardon when the previous Home Secretary’s decision not to grant a reprieve had been clearly wrong amounted to an error of law, the court, while making no order on the application, would invite the Home Secretary to reconsider his decision (see p 453 f, p 454 j to 455 g, post).
Notes
For pardons and reprieves, see 8 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 949–954, and for cases on the subject, see 11 Digest (Reissue) 684–687, 179–243.
Cases referred to in judgment
Burt v Governor General [1992] 3 NZLR 672, NZ CA; affg [1989] 3 NZLR 64, NZ HC.
Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374, [1984] 3 WLR 1174, HL.
de Freitas v Benny [1976] AC 239, [1975] 3 WLR 388, PC.
Hanratty v Butler [1971] CA Transcript 171, 115 SJ 386, CA.
R v Foster [1984] 2 All ER 679, [1985] QB 115, [1984] 3 WLR 401, CA.
R v Secretary of State for Foreign and Commonwealth Affairs, ex p Everett [1989] 1 All ER 655, [1989] QB 811, [1989] 2 WLR 224, CA.
Cases also cited or referred to in skeleton arguments
Baker v Carr (1962) 369 US 186, US SC.
Biddle v Perovich (1927) 274 US 480, US SC.
Cuddington v Wilkins (1615) Hob 81, 80 ER 231.
Merchandise Transport Ltd v British Transport Commission, Arnold Transport (Rochester) Ltd v British Transport Commission [1961] 3 All ER 495, [1962] 2 QB 173, CA.
Murphy v Ford (1975) 390 F Supp 1372, US DC WD Mich.
Operation Dismantle Inc v R (1985) 18 DLR (4th) 481, Can SC.
Page 444 of [1993] 4 All ER 442
Phillip v DPP of Trinidad and Tobago, Phillip v Comr of Prisons [1992] 1 All ER 665, [1992] 1 AC 545, PC.
R v Chetwynd (1743) 18 State Tr 317.
R v McIlkenny [1992] 2 All ER 417, CA.
R v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p Datafin plc (Norton Opax plc intervening) [1987] 1 All ER 564, [1987] QB 815, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Harrison [1988] 3 All ER 86, DC.
Thomas (Arthur) v R [1979] 2 All ER 142, [1980] AC 125, PC.
Application for judicial review
Iris Pamala Bentley applied with the leave of the Divisional Court (Watkins LJ and Owen J) given on 10 February 1993 for judicial review by way of (i) a declaration that the Secretary of State for the Home Department had erred in law in declining to recommend a posthumous free pardon for the applicant’s brother, Derek Bentley deceased, and (ii) mandamus requiring the Secretary of State to reconsider his decision dated 1 October 1992 not to recommend a posthumous free pardon for Derek Bentley. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
David Pannick QC and Mark Shaw (instructed by B M Birnberg & Co) for the applicant.
Stephen Richards and Rabinder Singh (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Cur adv vult
7 July 1993. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
WATKINS LJ. Iris Pamala Bentley, the applicant for judicial review, has been campaigning for almost 40 years to obtain recognition of what she and many other people regard as a gross miscarriage of justice in the case of her brother, Derek Bentley. She wants that recognition to take the form of a posthumous free pardon for him. That, Mr Kenneth Clarke, the Secretary of State for the Home Department (the Home Secretary), by a decision which was announced on 1 October 1992, declined to recommend.
That is the decision which we have been asked by the applicant to review. The relief which she seeks, and for which she has the leave of this court to apply, is a declaration that the Home Secretary erred in law in declining to recommend a posthumous free pardon for Derek Bentley and mandamus to require the Home Secretary to reconsider the matter. Bentley, then 19 years of age, was convicted, together with Christopher Craig, at the Central Criminal Court on 11 December 1952 before Lord Goddard CJ, of the murder of Pc Sidney George Miles at Croydon on 2 November 1952. He was sentenced to death. The jury added a recommendation for mercy. An appeal by Bentley against conviction was dismissed by the Court of Criminal Appeal on 13 January 1953. Craig was also found guilty of murder, but being only 16 years of age, he could not be sentenced to death. He was ordered to be detained during Her Majesty’s pleasure.
It had been alleged by the Crown that during the evening of 2 November 1952 a married woman saw Bentley and Craig climbing over a gate at the side of a confectionery warehouse in West Croydon. She informed the police. Det Con Fairfax, accompanied by Pc Harrison and two other officers, came to the scene
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at about the same time as a wireless car in which were Pc Miles and Pc McDonald.
Det Con Fairfax, on being told that Bentley and Craig had climbed up on to the roof of the warehouse via a drainpipe, did likewise. He saw Bentley and Craig almost immediately. He walked towards them. They backed away and went behind a brickstack. Det Con Fairfax, when about six feet away, shouted out: ‘I am a police officer. Come out from behind that stack.' Craig shouted back that if he wanted them he would have to come and get them. Det Con Fairfax then rushed behind the stack and seized hold of Bentley. He pulled Bentley round the stack with a view to closing in on Craig, at which point Bentley broke away and shouted: ‘Let him have it, Chris.' There was then a flash and a loud report. A bullet hit Det Con Fairfax on his right shoulder, making him spin round and fall to the ground. He got up and again seized hold of Bentley and knocked him down with his fist. There was then a second shot and Det Con Fairfax pulled Bentley up in front of him as a shield and pulled him behind a large skylight where he held him down and felt over his clothing to see if he was carrying a gun. Det Con Fairfax did not find a gun but found a knuckleduster and a knife. Bentley said: ‘That’s all I’ve got, guv’nor. I haven’t got a gun.' Det Con Fairfax then told Bentley that he was going to work him round the roof to the door of a fire escape, and Bentley said: ‘He’ll shoot you.' Det Con Fairfax then worked him round until they were both sheltered behind the staircase head. Det Con Fairfax shouted to Craig to drop his gun, and Craig replied: ‘Come and get it.’
Meanwhile, Pc Miles and others reached the roof by another route. Pc Miles confronted Craig, who shot at him, hitting him between the eyes. Pc Miles dropped dead.
The day after Bentley was convicted Lord Goddard CJ wrote to the then Home Secretary, Sir David Maxwell Fyfe, and stated:
‘In Craig’s case the defence endeavoured to obtain a verdict of manslaughter. Had the jury returned such a verdict I should have passed a sentence of detention for 15 years as I am convinced that he is a most dangerous young criminal … In Bentley’s case the jury added a recommendation to mercy. I have no doubt the reason for their recommendation was that they realised that a capital sentence could not be passed on Craig whom they probably regarded as the worst of the two. So far as merits were concerned, I regret to say I could find no mitigating circumstances in Bentley’s case. He was armed with a knuckle-duster of the most formidable type that I have ever seen and also with a sharp pointed knife and he called out to Craig when he was arrested to start the shooting.’
On 16 January 1953 Mr Philip Allen, later Lord Allen, wrote a Home Office memorandum in which he advised that effect be given to the jury’s recommendation for mercy. His advice rested—
‘principally on the ground, which has been held to be valid in previous cases, that it would not seem right to exact the extreme penalty from the accomplice when the principal offender is escaping with his life.’
There was reference in the memorandum to Bentley’s mental state and to it being ‘just above the level of a feebleminded person’. That memorandum was indorsed with comments from Sir Frank Newsam, the Permanent
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Under-Secretary, who also advised against the execution of Bentley. Nevertheless, Sir David Maxwell Fyfe, for reasons which he set out in a memorandum of his own, decided that the law should take its course.
In that memorandum he stated:
‘It was a very bad murder, involving the death of a police officer, committed at a time when there is much public anxiety about numbers of crimes of violence. Many of these crimes of violence are committed by young persons and I must pay regard to the deterrent effect which the carrying out of the sentence in this case would be likely to have. If Craig had been of an age when he could have been executed, the sentence would have been carried out in his case and there would have been no grounds for interfering with the sentence against Bentley. It would be dangerous to give the impression that an older adolescent could escape the full penalty by using an accomplice of less than 18 years of age. I feel also that it is important to protect the unarmed police.’
Bentley was hanged on 28 January 1953. The Home Secretary, in announcing the decision now complained of, stated, inter alia:
‘I have concluded that nothing has emerged from my review of this case which establishes Derek Bentley’s innocence and that I therefore have no grounds for recommending a Free Pardon … In my judgement most of the concern that has arisen about this case reflects strong feelings that Derek Bentley should not have been hanged. Personally I have always agreed with that concern but I cannot now simply substitute my judgement for that of the then Home Secretary, Sir David Maxwell Fyfe … It has been the long established policy of successive Home Secretaries that a Free Pardon in relation to a conviction for an indictable offence should be granted only if the moral as well as technical innocence of the convicted person can be established. I do not believe that is the case on either point in relation to Derek Bentley.’
An accompanying memorandum from the Home Office emphasised that:
‘Successive Home Secretaries have taken the view it would not be right to recommend the exercise of the Royal Prerogative for the grant of a Free Pardon in any particular case unless satisfied that the person concerned was both morally and technically innocent of any crime.’
The grounds for relief relied upon by Mr Pannick QC for the applicant, as stated in the application, are as follows.
(1) The Home Secretary erred in law in his approach to the problem confronting him for the following reasons. (a) He considered that a free pardon depended on whether it could be established that Bentley was morally and technically innocent of the crime of which he was convicted. He said that this had long been the approach taken by the Home Office to the question of a free pardon. (b) A free pardon would not entail recognition that Bentley was wrongly convicted. As Watkins LJ explained in the Court of Appeal in R v Foster [1984] 2 All ER 679 at 687, [1985] QB 115 at 130:
‘… the effect of a free pardon is such as, in the words of the pardon itself, to remove from the subject of the pardon, “all pains penalties and
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punishments whatsoever that from the same conviction may ensue”, but not to eliminate the conviction itself.’
Thus a pardon is not the equivalent of an acquittal. It leaves unaffected the fact of a conviction. (c) The Home Secretary failed to have regard to relevant considerations or he acted perversely. If a free pardon leaves the conviction unaffected but expunges the penalty, the question in considering the grant of a free pardon is not whether Derek Bentley was innocent of the crime, but whether, in all the circumstances, he should be relieved of the punishment which was imposed. The punishment was, of course, the sentence of death, which Sir David Maxwell Fyfe refused to commute to life imprisonment.
(2) It may be that the Home Secretary asked himself the wrong question because he was following Home Office policy in relation to a free pardon, which policy was established long before the judgment of the Court of Appeal in R v Foster. Had the Home Secretary asked himself the right question and considered whether the law should recognise that the penalty of death should not have been carried out, it is very probable that the Home Secretary would have recommended a free pardon, seeing that (a) the jury recommended mercy, (b) Craig was not executed, (c) Mr Philip Allen and Sir Frank Newsam advised that the jury’s recommendation for mercy be acted upon, (d) Bentley was considered to be just above the level of a feeble-minded person, (e) Lord Goddard CJ’s view that there were ‘no mitigating circumstances in Bentley’s case’ was irrational and (f) the Home Secretary had not only stated that ‘I … agree that Derek Bentley should not have been hanged’, but also that ‘I do not believe that I would have reached the same decision as the then Home Secretary’.
(3) The application raises an important question of constitutional and administrative law: Is the decision of the Home Secretary subject to judicial review? The answer to that question is that (a) whilst there are statements in a number of cases which suggest, in the context of the prerogative power, decisions of the Home Secretary are not susceptible to judicial review, there are other cases wherein the contrary view is expressed, and (b) there is no good reason for refusing to entertain a judicial review of a decision in relation to a free pardon, especially where the challenge raises a question of law and alleges that the Home Secretary has misunderstood the relevant law.
It is clear from those grounds that one, if not the main, of the contentions made on behalf of the applicant, is that the Home Secretary misdirected himself. Therefore, it is, we think, helpful to recite parts of the affidavit of Mr Austin Peter Wilson, an Assistant Under-Secretary of State and head of the criminal policy department in the Home Office at the present time.
In it he draws on past Home Office files, records and memoranda, as well as well-known standard works including Pollock and Maitland The History of English Law and Stephen A History of the Criminal Law of England. Constitutionally, he states, the prerogative is exercised by the sovereign on the advice of the Home Secretary in one of three ways, namely: (a) the grant of a free, ie unconditional, pardon; (b) the grant of a conditional pardon, whereby the penalty is removed, on condition that a lesser sentence is served; and (c) the remission, or partial remission, of a penalty.
The exercise of mercy by the Crown appears to have become firmly established in the middle ages, with the infringement of the King’s peace emerging as the basis for criminal liability. Since major felonies were invariably capital, and pleas to self-defence had not developed, judicial procedure
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produced inflexible and unsatisfactory results. Use of the prerogative relieved those results.
The prerogative was, and remained until the early eighteenth century, a matter for the personal decision of the sovereign. By the mid-nineteenth century the convention had developed that the prerogative would be exercised on the advice of one of the principal Secretaries of State.
Mr Wilson refers further to memoranda of the last century from which, he says, it is possible to ascertain that Home Office practice in relation to the grant of a free pardon is founded upon the ground of innocence.
In an 1874 memorandum it is recorded:
‘A Free Pardon is granted only on legal grounds, or where there is ascertained innocence or a doubt of guilt. A Conditional Pardon substitutes one punishment for another, such as penal servitude for death etc. A Remission of the remainder of the sentence is the Customary mode of authorizing release from Prison.’
In an 1899 memorandum it is further recorded:
‘Free pardons are reserved for cases in which, according to the opinion of the Secretary of State, a wrongful conviction or the innocence of the accused person is satisfactorily established. Sometimes where there has been a sentence of penal servitude and doubt is thrown on the justice of the conviction, but not to a sufficient extent to justify the grant of a free pardon or remission of sentence, the case is met by granting a licence, usually accompanied by a remission of the requirements to report to the police.’
Since the Criminal Appeal Act 1907, which introduced the Court of Criminal Appeal, the significance of the pardon has been, Mr Wilson suggests, much reduced. That is because the 1907 Act gave a right of appeal on a question of law or, with leave, on a question of fact. The Home Secretary was given the power ‘on the consideration of any petition for the exercise of His Majesty’s mercy’ to refer cases to the court (see s 19). That power was subsequently re-enacted.
Successive Home Secretaries, he says, have continued to play a significant part in the correction of miscarriages of justice. Pardon has remained an option in exceptional cases where a reference to the Court of Appeal is not practicable, for example where relevant material is not admissible in evidence. It is also used in summary cases, largely because there is, in these cases, no power in the Home Secretary to make a reference to an appellate court.
There has been only one posthumous free pardon in modern times. That was granted to Timothy Evans in 1966. A free pardon was granted in that case because, so Mr Wilson states, the Home Secretary of the day considered the conviction itself to be wrong. The pardon has, therefore, been established as a remedy for wrongful convictions.
Having referred to R v Foster, Mr Wilson maintains that the decision in that case was in accordance with the submissions made on behalf of the Crown, and with the view long taken within the Home Office as to the precise legal effect of the pardon. It is not he said, in the Home Office view, that the effect of the grant of a free pardon is to quash a conviction.
At paras 17 and 18 of his affidavit Mr Wilson further states:
‘17. I am advised by the Association of Chief Police Officers and believe that the grant of a free pardon is noted on the individual’s criminal record
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so that the conviction in respect of which it was exercised would not be included in any subsequent list of convictions. I am also advised by the Lord Chancellor’s Department and believe that a copy of the pardon is attached to a court’s record-sheet. In our respectful submission, the fact that the conviction itself remains intact after the grant of a free pardon is simply because the Crown has no power to quash or reverse a criminal conviction, which is uniquely a judicial function. That fact has no bearing on the crucial question of what criteria should be adopted before a free pardon is granted. 18. The present Home Secretary is fully aware that there is nothing to prevent him recommending the grant of a free pardon even in a case in which he is not persuaded that the conviction was wrong. However, he is mindful of the fact that the free pardon has for over a century been used as a remedy for wrongful convictions and has been recognised as such by Parliament and public. It is widely understood that the effect of a free pardon is to clear the name of the person in respect of whom it is granted. He continues to think that a free pardon should be recommended only when the Home Secretary of the day is satisfied that the convicted person was not guilty of the offence charged.’
We now turn to the first of the two essential questions with which we are concerned, namely jurisdiction. Mr Richards, counsel for the Home Secretary, contended that the exercise of the royal prerogative of mercy is not reviewable in the instant case. He left open the question of whether it ever was. Here, so he submits, the applicant seeks to challenge the criteria upon which the pardon should be granted: this is purely a question of policy which is not justiciable. In fact, as we shall consider later in this judgment, the substance of the applicant’s complaint is not about the criteria for the grant of a free pardon but about the failure of the Home Secretary to recognise the wide scope of the prerogative of mercy and to consider how that prerogative should be exercised to meet the facts of the present case.
We think it is necessary to consider first whether the prerogative is ever reviewable. The starting point for a 1993 consideration of this question must be the decision of the House of Lords in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1984] 3 All ER 935, [1985] AC 374 (the CCSU case). There the House was concerned with an instruction given in the exercise of a delegated power (contained in an Order in Council) conferred by the prerogative, rather than a direct exercise of the prerogative itself. Lord Fraser and Lord Brightman left open the question of whether the latter was reviewable. The majority however held that it was. The essence of their decision was expressed by Lord Roskill in this way ([1984] 3 All ER 935 at 956, [1985] AC 374 at 417):
‘If the executive in pursuance of [a] statutory power does an act affecting the rights of the citizen, it is beyond question that in principle the manner of the exercise of that power may today be challenged … If the executive instead of acting under a statutory power acts under a prerogative power … so as to affect the rights of the citizen, I am unable to see, subject to what I shall say later, that there is any logical reason why the fact that the source of the power is the prerogative and not statute should today deprive the citizen of that right of challenge to the manner of its exercise which he would possess were the source of the power statutory. In either case the act in question is the act of the executive. To talk of that act as the act of the sovereign savours of the archaism of past centuries.’
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He went on to say later ([1984] 3 All ER 935 at 956, [1985] AC 374 at 418):
‘But I do not think that that right of challenge can be unqualified. It must, I think, depend on the subject matter of the prerogative power which is exercised. Many examples were given during the argument of prerogative powers which as at present advised I do not think could properly be made the subject of judicial review. Prerogative powers such as those relating to the making of treaties, the defence of the realm, the prerogative of mercy, the grant of honours, the dissolution of Parliament and the appointment of ministers as well as others are not, I think, susceptible to judicial review because their nature and subject matter are such as not to be amenable to the judicial process. The courts are not the place wherein to determine whether a treaty should be concluded or the armed forces disposed in a particular manner or Parliament dissolved on one date rather than another.’
None of the others dealt with the prerogative of mercy but Lord Diplock, having accepted that the exercise of prerogative power might be subject to review on the grounds of illegality or procedural impropriety, said ([1984] 3 All ER 935 at 951, [1985] AC 374 at 411):
‘While I see no a priori reason to rule out “irrationality” as a ground for judicial review of a ministerial decision taken in the exercise of “prerogative” powers, I find it difficult to envisage in any of the various fields in which the prerogative remains the only source of the relevant decision-making power a decision of a kind that would be open to attack through the judicial process on this ground. Such decisions will generally involve the application of government policy. The reasons for the decision-maker taking one course rather than another do not normally involve questions to which, if disputed, the judicial process is adapted to provide the right answer, by which I mean that the kind of evidence that is admissible under judicial procedures and the way in which it has to be adduced tend to exclude from the attention of the court competing policy considerations which, if the executive discretion is to be wisely exercised, need to be weighed against one another, a balancing exercise which judges by their upbringing and experience are ill-qualified to perform. So I leave this as an open question to be dealt with on a case to case basis if, indeed, the case should ever arise.’
Before the decision in the CCSU case it had been thought that the exercise of prerogative power was not susceptible to judicial review and so the earlier cases must be viewed with some caution. We have, however, been referred to a number of them including two which deal specifically with the prerogative of mercy. The first of these is Hanratty v Butler [1971] CA Transcript 171, where the court had to consider whether to strike out a negligence claim against the Home Secretary for the way in which he had exercised the prerogative of mercy. Lord Denning MR said:
‘These courts have had occasion in the past to cut down some of the prerogatives of the Crown: but they have never sought to encroach on the prerogative of mercy. It is not exercised by the Queen herself personally. It is exercised by her on the advice of one of the principal Secretaries of State. He advises her with the greatest conscience and good care. He takes full responsibility for the manner of its exercise. That being so, the law will
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not inquire into the manner in which the prerogative is exercised. It is outside the competence of the courts to call it into question: nor would they wish to do so.’
Salmon LJ said:
‘As a matter of constitutional practice it is of course well known that the Crown acted upon the advice of the Home Secretary. But the prerogative was, and still would be the prerogative of the Crown alone. It is well established that the courts have no power to review the exercise by the Crown of its prerogative, providing the Crown is acting within the scope of its powers. Nor are the courts entitled to be informed of, let alone to pass any opinion upon, such advice as may have been given to the Crown.’
The second case is de Freitas v Benny [1976] AC 239. In that case the appellant claimed he was entitled to have disclosed to him the material furnished to the minister to enable him to advise the Governor General of Trinidad and Tobago as to the exercise of the prerogative of mercy. In rejecting this claim Lord Diplock said (at 247):
‘Except in so far as it may have been altered by the Constitution the legal nature of the exercise of the royal prerogative of mercy in Trinidad and Tobago remains the same as it was in England at common law. At common law this has always been a matter which lies solely in the discretion of the sovereign, who by constitutional convention exercises it in respect of England on the advice of the Home Secretary to whom Her Majesty delegates her discretion. Mercy is not the subject of legal rights. It begins where legal rights end. A convicted person has no legal right even to have his case considered by the Home Secretary in connection with the exercise of the prerogative of mercy. In tendering his advice to the sovereign the Home Secretary is doing something that is often cited as the exemplar of a purely discretionary act as contrasted with the exercise of a quasi-judicial function.’
There are no English cases dealing with the prerogative of mercy since 1985. We were referred to R v Secretary of State for Foreign and Commonwealth Affairs, ex p Everett [1989] 1 All ER 655, [1989] QB 811 in which the Court of Appeal had to consider whether the decision to refuse the applicant a passport was reviewable. Taylor LJ said ([1989] 1 All ER 655 at 660, [1989] QB 811 at 820):
‘I am in no doubt that the court has power to review the withdrawal or refusal to grant or renew a passport … At the top of the scale of executive functions under the prerogative are matters of high policy, [such as] making treaties, making law, dissolving Parliament, mobilising the armed forces. Clearly those matters, and no doubt a number of others, are not justiciable. But the grant or refusal of a passport is in a quite different category. It is a matter of administrative decision, affecting the rights of individuals and their freedom of travel. It raises issues which are just as justiciable as, for example, the issues arising in immigration cases.’
We have also been referred to the New Zealand case of Burt v Governor General [1989] 3 NZLR 64; affd [1992] 3 NZLR 672. The plaintiff sought judicial review of the Governor-General’s refusal to grant him a full pardon in the exercise of the prerogative of mercy. At first instance Greig J decided that the decision
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could not be reviewed. Having considered the effect of the CCSU case he concluded a detailed judgment by saying ([1989] 3 NZLR 64 at 74):
‘… the prerogative of mercy … is a unique extra-legal, extra-judicial and extraordinary power that cannot be subject to Court review.’
The Court of Appeal (Cooke P, Gault and McKay JJ) dismissed the appeal but in doing so it said ([1992] 3 NZLR 672 at 678, 681):
‘The prerogative of mercy is a prerogative power in the strictest sense of that term, for it is peculiar to the Crown and its exercise directly affects the rights of persons. On the other hand it would be inconsistent with the contemporary approach to say that, merely because it is a pure and strict prerogative power, its exercise or non-exercise must be immune from curial challenge. There is nothing heterodox in asserting, as counsel for the appellant do, that the rule of law requires that challenge shall be permitted in so far as issues arise of a kind with which the Courts are competent to deal … In the end the issue must turn on weighing the competing considerations, a number of which we have stated. Probably it cannot be said that any one answer is necessarily right; it is more a matter of a value or conceptual judgment as to the place in the law and the effectiveness or otherwise of the prerogative of mercy at the present day. In attempting such a judgment it must be right to exclude any lingering thought that the prerogative of mercy is no more than an arbitrary monarchial right of grace and favour. As developed it has become an integral element in the criminal justice system, a constitutional safeguard against mistakes.’
It is clear from that judgment that the court would have been prepared to review the exercise of the prerogative of mercy if it felt that justice required it. It concluded however that this was not necessary in New Zealand ‘at any rate at present’.
Finally we have been referred to a passage from Lewis Judicial Remedies in Public Law (1992) p 21:
‘In principle, a failure to consider exercising the power to grant a pardon should be reviewable, at least if an individual can demonstrate that there is some reason why the Home Secretary should consider the case. It is also difficult to see why a decision to refuse a pardon should not also be reviewable in appropriate circumstances, for example, where the allegation is that there has been a failure to consider relevant material, or a failure to act in accordance with any relevant guidelines, or if there is an error of law as to the elements of the offence for which the pardon was sought.’
Mr Pannick relies on this passage. He argues that the prerogative of mercy is exercised by the Home Secretary on behalf of us all. It is an important feature of our criminal justice system. It would be surprising and regrettable in our developed state of public law were the decision of the Home Secretary to be immune from legal challenge irrespective of the gravity of the legal errors which infected such a decision. Many types of decisions made by the Home Secretary do involve an element of policy (eg parole) but are subject to review.
We accept these arguments. The CCSU case made it clear that the powers of the court cannot be ousted merely by invoking the word ‘prerogative’. The question is simply whether the nature and subject matter of the decision is amenable to the judicial process. Are the courts qualified to deal with the
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matter or does the decision involve such questions of policy that they should not intrude because they are ill-equipped to do so? Looked at in this way there must be cases in which the exercise of the royal prerogative is reviewable, in our judgment. If, for example, it was clear that the Home Secretary had refused to pardon someone solely on the grounds of their sex, race or religion, the courts would be expected to interfere and, in our judgment, would be entitled to do so.
We conclude therefore that some aspects of the exercise of the royal prerogative are amenable to the judicial process. We do not think that it is necessary for us to say more than this in the instant case. It will be for other courts to decide on a case by case basis whether the matter in question is reviewable or not.
We do not think that we are precluded from reaching this conclusion by authority. Lord Roskill’s passing reference to the prerogative of mercy in the CCSU case was obiter. Hanratty and de Freitas were decided before the CCSU case and neither concerned judicial review of an error of law.
But is the exercise of the prerogative reviewable in the instant case? As originally framed, the applicant sought to attack the Home Secretary’s application of long standing Home Office policy that a free pardon would not be granted unless he was satisfied that the person concerned was both morally and technically innocent of the crime. That disclosed an error of law, so it was argued, since it misunderstood the nature and effect of a free pardon. If that had remained the basis of the applicant’s case we have considerable doubt as to whether the decision could have been reviewed on the basis contended for. We think that Mr Richards was probably right in submitting that the formulation of criteria for the exercise of the prerogative by the grant of a free pardon was entirely a matter of policy which is not justiciable.
However, as the argument before us developed, it became clear that the substance of the applicant’s case was that the Home Secretary failed to recognise the fact that the prerogative of mercy is capable of being exercised in many different circumstances and over a wide range and therefore failed to consider the form of pardon which might be appropriate to meet the facts of the present case. Such a failure is, we think, reviewable.
We turn, therefore, to the decision of the Home Secretary. In the concluding part of this decision, the Home Secretary explained the reasons why he had decided not to recommend a free pardon:
‘In the light of a very careful consideration of the evidence produced at the trial and of the representations which have since been made I have been unable to conclude that Bentley was either technically or morally innocent, and consequently it would not be right for me to recommend that he should be pardoned. In my view, Bentley was properly found guilty of murder and, in my opinion, that is the relevant consideration as far as a Free Pardon is concerned in this case. It has been suggested that Bentley should receive a Free Pardon not because he was innocent but because it was in some way wrong that he was not reprieved. The law relating to murder at the time of his trial required that a person over the age of 18 who was convicted of murder should be sentenced to death. Bentley was properly sentenced in accordance with the requirement of the law. It was the duty of the Home Secretary of the day to decide in each case whether to leave the law to take its course, or whether to recommend a reprieve. The decision rested solely with the judgement of the Home Secretary. It is clear that, in reaching his decision, the then Home Secretary carefully
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considered what he believed to be all the relevant considerations as well as the representations made to him. With the passage of time attitudes and values may change. Parliament has, of course, since changed the law to abolish capital punishment for murder. While I recognise that I am putting myself in the position of a predecessor working in a different climate of opinion, I do not believe that I would have reached the same decision as the then Home Secretary. But none of this provides sufficient reason to set up a public inquiry or recommend a posthumous Free Pardon in order to be disassociated from a decision with which many people might now disagree.’
In an earlier part of the announcement of the decision, the Home Secretary, it will be recalled, stated that while he personally agreed that Derek Bentley should not have been hanged, he could not simply substitute his judgment for that of the then Home Secretary, Sir David Maxwell Fyfe.
We understand the strength of the argument that, despite the fact that a free pardon does not eliminate the conviction, the grant of a free pardon should be reserved for cases where it can be established that the convicted person was morally and technically innocent. Furthermore, the policy of confining the grant of a free pardon to such cases has been followed by successive Secretaries of State for over a century. We therefore propose to set aside any question of a free (or full) pardon and look at the matter afresh.
The facts as disclosed by the contemporary papers are very striking. (1) Christopher Craig, who fired the fatal shot, was not executed. (2) The jury recommended mercy in the case of Derek Bentley. (3) Both Mr Philip Allen, who wrote the memorandum dated 16 January 1953, and Sir Frank Newsam, the Permanent Under-Secretary, advised that effect should be given to the jury’s recommendation for mercy. (4) The precedents established by the previous cases to which Mr Allen drew attention supported the argument for a reprieve. (5) Tests which had been carried out indicated that Bentley’s mental state was ‘just above the level of a feebleminded person’. He was aged 19. (6) It seems clear from the memorandum initialed by the Secretary of State dated 22 January 1953 that he consulted Lord Goddard CJ, the trial judge, before making his final decision. It will be remembered that in his letter to the Secretary of State dated 12 December 1952 Lord Goddard CJ had said that he could find ‘no mitigating circumstances in Bentley’s case’.
It is clear from the affidavit of Mr Wilson that one of the ways in which the prerogative of mercy can be exercised is by the grant of a conditional pardon, whereby the penalty is removed on condition that a lesser sentence is served. Had Bentley been reprieved in 1953, the substitution of a sentence of life imprisonment would have constituted a conditional pardon.
These questions, therefore, arise. (a) Is there any objection in principle to the grant of a posthumous conditional pardon? (b) Was the Home Secretary in error in failing to consider the grant of a conditional pardon in this case?
On the first question it may be objected that a conditional pardon is inappropriate where the full penalty has already been paid. The answer to this objection, however, is that it is an error to regard the prerogative of mercy as a prerogative right which is only exercisable in cases which fall into specific categories. The prerogative is a flexible power and its exercise can and should be adapted to meet the circumstances of the particular case. We would adopt
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the language used by the Court of Appeal in New Zealand in Burt v Governor-General [1992] 3 NZLR 672 at 681:
‘… the prerogative of mercy [can no longer be regarded as] no more than an arbitrary monarchial right of grace and favour.’
It is now a constitutional safeguard against mistakes. It follows, therefore, that, in our view, there is no objection in principle to the grant of a posthumous conditional pardon where a death sentence has already been carried out. The grant of such a pardon is a recognition by the state that a mistake was made and that a reprieve should have been granted.
We return to the facts of the present case. We can well understand the decision of the Home Secretary in so far as it constituted a response to a free (or full) pardon. But we are far from satisfied that he gave sufficient consideration to his power to grant some other form of pardon which would be suitable to the circumstances of the particular case. It is true, as the Home Secretary pointed out in the announcement of his decision, that in 1953 the then Home Secretary was working in a different climate of opinion. But, as we have already underlined, the facts of this case are very striking. There is a compelling argument that even by the standards of 1953 the then Home Secretary’s decision was clearly wrong.
In these circumstances the court, though it has no power to direct the way in which the prerogative of mercy should be exercised, has some role to play. The Home Secretary’s decision was directed to the grant of a free pardon. In these circumstances we do not think it would be right to make any formal order nor is this an appropriate case for the grant of a declaration. Nevertheless, we would invite the Home Secretary to look at the matter again and to examine whether it would be just to exercise the prerogative of mercy in such a way as to give full recognition to the now generally accepted view that this young man should have been reprieved.
It was submitted to the court that even a limited form of pardon might lead to a flood of other applications seeking to reopen past convictions. No doubt account has to be taken of such a risk. From our examination of the papers in this case, however, and in the light of our understanding of the broad scope of the prerogative of mercy, we are satisfied that the matter is exceptional and requires further consideration. The decision is, of course, one for the Home Secretary and not for the court, but it seems to us that it should be possible to devise some formula which would amount to a clear acknowledgment that an injustice was done.
No order.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Seaconsar Far East Ltd v Bank Markazi Jomhouri Islami Iran
[1993] 4 All ER 456
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD TEMPLEMAN, LORD GRIFFITHS, LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY, LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON AND LORD MUSTILL
Hearing Date(s): 14, 15, 16 JUNE, 14 OCTOBER 1993
Practice – Service out of jurisdiction – Action in respect of breach of contract within jurisdiction – Leave to serve writ out of jurisdiction – Test for grant of leave – Whether plaintiff having to show good arguable case that court had jurisdiction – Whether plaintiff having to show that there was serious issue to be tried for exercise of discretion to grant leave.
The appellant, a Hong Kong arms dealing company, agreed to sell a large quantity of artillery shells to the Iranian Ministry of Defence for a total price of $US193m. Payment was to be made by letter of credit. The respondent Iranian bank opened a letter of credit in favour of the appellant with the London branch of another Iranian bank (the London bank) which was payable at sight on presentation to the London bank of the original set of a number of specified documents. The appellant arranged two shipments of artillery shells and presented documents to the London bank for payment in respect of each shipment, but the respondent bank refused to make payment for either presentation on the ground that the documents presented were not in conformity with the requirements of the letter of credit. The appellant brought an action against the respondent bank for damages for breach of contract in respect of the respondent bank’s failure to pay against the presentations and applied under RSC Ord 11, r 1(1)(d) or (e)a for leave to serve the proceedings on the respondent bank outside the jurisdiction on the grounds (a) that the contract was made within the jurisdiction or was made by or through an agent trading within the jurisdiction, ie the London bank, for the respondent bank or (b) that the respondent bank had committed a breach of contract within the jurisdiction, namely the refusal to pay at the counters of the London bank. Leave was obtained ex parte to serve the proceedings outside the jurisdiction, but was set aside on the respondent bank’s application in respect of the second presentation on the grounds that the appellant had failed to establish a sufficient case on the merits that the documents conformed with the requirements of the letter of credit or that the respondent bank was not entitled to reject them. The appellant’s appeal against the refusal of leave in respect of the second presentation was dismissed by the Court of Appeal on the ground that the appellant had failed to show a good arguable case that leave to serve out of the jurisdiction should be granted. The appellant appealed to the House of Lords.
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Held – When considering an application for leave to allow service of proceedings out of the jurisdiction under Ord 11, r 1(1) the court, before exercising its discretion to grant leave, had to consider (i) whether there was a good arguable case that the court had jurisdiction under one of the paragraphs of r 1(1), and (ii) whether there was a serious issue to be tried so as to enable exercise of the discretion to grant leave under r 4(2)b. In particular, the test of the strength of the case on the merits which a plaintiff had to establish for the grant of leave to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction was merely whether the evidence disclosed that there was a serious issue to be tried, not whether he had a good arguable case. On the facts, the appellant’s claim raised serious issues under r 1(1)(d) as to whether the London bank had authority from the respondent bank to reject the documents presented by the appellant and whether the documents had been rejected within a reasonable time and since no issue as to jurisdiction arose, the appeal would be allowed and leave would be granted to serve the proceedings in respect of the second presentation out of the jurisdiction (see p 458 f g, p 467 f to p 468 a to j, post).
Chemische Fabrik Vormals Sandoz v Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik [1904–7] All ER Rep 234 and Vitkovice Horni a Hutni Tezirstvo v Korner [1951] 2 All ER 334 considered.
Per curiam. (1) In the case of a claim falling within Ord 11, r 1(1)(e) it is unlikely that a separate issue as to the merits of the claim will arise since in order to establish jurisdiction the plaintiff has to provide sufficient proof of a contract, breach of that contract and breach within the jurisdiction (see p 458 f g, p 465 c and p 468 h j, post).
(2) The assessment of the merits of the plaintiff’s claim under Ord 11, r 1(1) and the principle of forum conveniens are separate, and not interrelated, elements in the exercise of the court’s discretion since a case which is particularly strong on the merits cannot compensate for a weak case on forum conveniens and likewise a very strong connection with the English forum cannot justify a weak case on the merits, if a stronger case on the merits would otherwise be required (see p 458 f g, p 467 b and p 468 h j, post).
Notes
For service of a writ out of the jurisdiction with leave, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 172, 178.
Cases referred to in opinions
Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik v W G Thompson & Co Ltd (1902) 88 LT 492n, CA.
Bankers Trust Co v State Bank of India [1991] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 443.
Banque Paribas v Cargill International SA [1991] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 19, CA.
Chemische Fabrik Vormals Sandoz v Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik (1903) 88 LT 490, CA; affd (1904) 90 LT 733, [1904–7] All ER Rep 234, HL.
Great Australian Gold Mining Co v Martin (1877) 5 Ch D 1.
Malik v Narodni Banka Ceskoslovenska [1946] 2 All ER 663.
Overseas Union Insurance Ltd v Incorporated General Insurance Ltd [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 439.
Société Commercial de Réassurance v Eras International Ltd [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 570, CA.
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Société Générale de Paris v Dreyfus Bros (1885) 29 Ch D 239; rvsd (1887) 37 Ch D 215, CA.
Spiliada Maritime Corp v Cansulex Ltd, The Spiliada [1986] 3 All ER 843, [1987] AC 460, [1986] 3 WLR 972, HL.
Vitkovice Horni a Hutni Tezirstvo v Korner [1951] 2 All ER 334, [1951] AC 869, HL; affg sub nom Korner v Witkowitzer Bergbau und Eisenhuetten Gewerkschaft [1950] 1 All ER 558, [1950] 2 KB 128, CA.
Appeal
Seaconsar Far East Ltd appealed with leave of the Appeal Committee from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Lloyd and Beldam LJJ (Stuart-Smith LJ dissenting)) ([1993] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 236) given on 28 October 1992 dismissing the appellant’s appeal and the cross-appeal of the respondent, Bank Markazi Jomhouri Islami Iran, from the decision of Saville J on 10 April 1991 whereby he ordered that service of a writ of summons issued by the appellant against the respondent be set aside in so far as it related to the appellant’s claim in respect of the second presentation of documents for the payment of the sum of $4,118,660. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Goff.
Sydney Kentridge QC and Simon Rainey (instructed by Clyde & Co) for the appellant.
Nicholas Chambers QC and Mark Hapgood (instructed by Stephenson Harwood) for the respondent.
14 October 1993. The following opinions were delivered.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
LORD TEMPLEMAN. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley, and for the reasons he gives I, too, would allow the appeal.
LORD GRIFFITHS. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley, which I have had the opportunity of reading in draft and with which I agree, I would allow this appeal.
LORD GOFF OF CHIEVELEY. My Lords, this appeal is concerned with an application for leave, under RSC Ord 11, to serve a writ out of the jurisdiction; and it raises in particular the question of the extent to which the plaintiff has to establish, in relation to such an application, a sufficiently strong case on the merits of his claim.
The appellant, Seaconsar Far East Ltd (Seaconsar), is a Hong Kong company which deals in arms. The respondent, Bank Markazi Jomhouri Islami Iran (Bank Markazi), is an Iranian bank. Under a contract of sale dated 30 June 1986 Seaconsar agreed to sell a large quantity of artillery shells to the Iranian Ministry of Defence for a total price of $US193m. Payment was to be made by letter of credit. On 15 January 1987 Bank Markazi opened a letter of credit in favour of Seaconsar, covering shipment of ‘special equipments’ (ie artillery shells), in a sum of $US18,600,000, valid until 17 March 1988. The letter of credit was unconfirmed, and was available at sight in London at the counters of Bank Melli
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Iran. It permitted partial shipments, and was expressed to be subject to the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits (1983 revision) (International Chamber of Commerce Publication No 400) (the UCP). Bank Melli advised Seaconsar of the opening of the credit by letter dated 16 January 1987.
The credit (as amended) was payable at sight on presentation to Bank Melli in London of the original set of a number of specified documents, including—
‘Process verbal of goods confirmed by orderer’s authorized rep. who will be fully identified later on.’
Under the heading ‘other conditions’ there appeared (inter alia) the following provision:
‘Our LC [letter of credit] no. and our principal’s name should appear on all docs. and packages.’
It is this latter provision which is the principal source of the controversy in the present case, a question having arisen from the fact that the details there specified were omitted from the ‘process verbal of goods’, which was interpreted as meaning a list of the goods shipped.
Pursuant to the contract of sale, Seaconsar made two shipments of artillery shells from Setubal in Portugal to Bandar Abbas in Iran. The first shipment was made on 29 September 1987, and the second on 1 December 1987. Seaconsar made a presentation of documents to Bank Melli in London in respect of each shipment, the first presentation being made on Thursday, 1 October 1987, and the second on Thursday, 3 December 1987. Bank Markazi has failed or refused to make payment in respect of both presentations, on the ground that the documents presented were in certain respects not in conformity with the requirements of the letter of credit. So far as appears from the material before your Lordships, both consignments have been discharged in Iran but neither has been paid for, and the balance of the contract has been cancelled.
The present proceedings are concerned with a claim by Seaconsar against Bank Markazi for damages for breach of contract in respect of Bank Markazi’s failure to pay against both presentations. Leave to serve the proceedings on Bank Markazi outside the jurisdiction was granted to Seaconsar ex parte by Hobhouse J. Bank Markazi then applied to set aside the order of Hobhouse J in respect of both presentations. Saville J dismissed Bank Markazi’s application so far as it related to the first presentation, but he set aside the order of Hobhouse J in relation to the second. Seaconsar then appealed to the Court of Appeal against the latter part of Saville J’s order, and Bank Markazi cross-appealed against the former. The Court of Appeal (Lloyd, Stuart-Smith and Beldam LJJ) ([1993] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 236) dismissed both Seaconsar’s appeal and Bank Markazi’s cross-appeal, Stuart-Smith LJ dissenting on the dismissal of Seaconsar’s appeal. Seaconsar now appeals to your Lordships’ House, with leave of the Court of Appeal, against the dismissal of its appeal. Bank Markazi no longer pursues its cross-appeal. It follows that your Lordships’ House is directly concerned only with the second presentation.
Seaconsar applied for leave to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction under either para (d) or para (e) of r 1(1) of RSC Ord 11. The application under para (d) was made either under sub-para (i), on the basis that the contract was made within the jurisdiction, or under sub-para (ii), on the basis that the contract was made by or through Bank Melli, as agent trading within the jurisdiction, for
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Bank Markazi, which was outside the jurisdiction. The application under para (e) was on the basis of breach of contract within the jurisdiction, viz refusal to pay at the counters of Bank Melli in London. Bank Markazi has never disputed that the case fell under either para (d) or para (e), its sole contention being that Seaconsar had not established a sufficiently strong case on the merits of its claim. On this point, the issues which have arisen in respect of both presentations are very similar. In substance, they are as follows.
(1) What is the test of a sufficiently strong case on the merits to justify the grant to a plaintiff of leave to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction under Ord 11?
(2) Whether Seaconsar has satisfied this test in relation to the merits of the following issues: (a) whether the documents were in conformity with the requirements of the letter of credit and/or did not give rise to a right of rejection by Bank Markazi; (b) if not, whether Bank Melli had the authority of Bank Markazi to reject the documents; (c) if so, whether Bank Melli did in fact reject the documents; (d) if so, whether such rejection took place within a reasonable time as required by art 16 of the UCP. In addition, in relation to the second presentation there has arisen a third issue, viz:
(3) Whether the court should take into account, in exercising its discretion in respect of the second presentation, the fact that Seaconsar’s claim relating to the first presentation will be determined in England in any event.
So far as the first presentation was concerned, the crucial point which persuaded Saville J to refuse to set aside the order of Hobhouse J was that, in his opinion, Seaconsar had established a sufficient case on the merits that there was no rejection of the documents by Bank Melli at the material time. In the case of the second presentation, however, he held that Seaconsar had failed to establish a sufficient case on the merits on any of the four issues listed above as (2)(a) to (d), and so he allowed Bank Markazi’s application.
In the Court of Appeal, however, it was held that Saville J had erred in applying too strict a standard on the question whether Seaconsar had established a sufficient case on the merits, Saville J having proceeded on the basis that Seaconsar must establish its case on the balance of probabilities. The Court of Appeal, which was united in the opinion that Saville J had applied too strict a standard, was divided on the proper standard to apply. Lloyd and Beldam LJJ considered that Seaconsar had to establish a good arguable case on the merits, whereas Stuart-Smith LJ was of the opinion that it was enough for Seaconsar to show that it had a case on the merits which was worthy of consideration. All were agreed, however, that in any event Bank Markazi’s cross-appeal on the first presentation must fail. On Seaconsar’s appeal, the majority held that Seaconsar had failed to establish a good arguable case on any of the four issues raised by it. Stuart-Smith LJ however considered that Seaconsar had established a case worthy of consideration on all four issues. He also considered, in disagreement with the majority, that it was relevant to take into account the fact that proceedings in respect of the first presentation would in any event take place in England, and that this factor provided an additional and cogent reason why the court should exercise its discretion in favour of Seaconsar in relation to the second presentation.
In argument before the Appellate Committee, attention was concentrated upon the question of the strength of the case on the merits which a plaintiff has to establish in order to justify the grant of leave to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction under Ord 11. On this matter your Lordships had the benefit of a full citation of authority, and were much assisted by the admirable arguments
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presented to them, both by Mr Kentridge QC for Seaconsar and by Mr Chambers QC for Bank Markazi. It became apparent, however, in the course of argument that this point cannot be considered in isolation, but must be examined in its context, together with the other matters which fall for consideration by the court when it is called on to exercise its jurisdiction under Ord 11. It is necessary therefore to look at the jurisdiction as a whole, before reaching a conclusion on the question directly at issue in the present case.
I start, as I must, with the relevant provisions of Ord 11. Order 11, r 1(1) provides that, subject to certain specified exceptions, ‘service of a writ out of the jurisdiction is permissible with the leave of the court if in the action begun by the writ …’ and there follows a list of 20 specified circumstances, set out in paragraphs lettered (a) to (t) respectively, in which service out of the jurisdiction is permissible. These lettered paragraphs cover a wide range of circumstances. The paragraphs most commonly invoked are (d) and (e), concerned with contractual claims; indeed many of the decided cases are concerned with one or other or both of these two paragraphs. But the problem which has arisen in the present case is not confined to these two paragraphs and may, in theory at least, arise under others. For this reason alone, it is essential not to consider the problem only in relation to the facts of the present case, or to paras (d) and (e), but also in relation to other fact situations and other paragraphs of r 1(1). I myself have found this exercise both helpful and revealing, especially as it so happens that paras (d) and (e) are, for present purposes, more complicated in their effect than most, if not all, of the other paragraphs of the rule.
The other rule in Ord 11 which is relevant for present purposes is r 4, of which we are only concerned with paras (1) and (2). These provide as follows:
‘(1) An application for the grant of leave under rule 1(1) must be supported by an affidavit stating—(a) the grounds on which the application is made, (b) that in the deponent’s belief the plaintiff has a good cause of action, (c) in what place or country the defendant is, or probably may be found, and (d) where the application is made under rule 1(1)(c), the grounds for the deponent’s belief that there is between the plaintiff and the person on whom a writ has been served a real issue which the plaintiff may reasonably ask the Court to try.
(2) No such leave shall be granted unless it shall be made sufficiently to appear to the Court that the case is a proper one for service out of the jurisdiction under this Order.’
When construing the relevant provisions of these rules, and in particular the relationship between rr 1(1) and 4, it is helpful first to look at the historical background to the rules in their present form. Order 11 in its original form was one of the rules of court scheduled to the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1873. Rule 1 contained a list of circumstances (shorter than the present list) in which service of a writ outside the jurisdiction might be allowed in the discretion of the court, and r 3 required an affidavit to be sworn in support of an application for leave for such service, in which the deponent was required to state (inter alia) the grounds upon which the application was made. At first there was doubt whether evidence must be provided of the existence of the cause of action relied upon, a doubt accentuated by the differing practices on this point previously applicable respectively in the Chancery and common law courts. It was decided that such evidence was required, as part of the affidavit evidence required to state the grounds on which the application was made; and that such statement must identify and substantiate a cause of action falling within one of
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the authorised heads of jurisdiction. For that purpose, however, it was considered that very probably it would be sufficient if an appropriate deponent swore an affidavit identifying the relevant cause of action, and stating that there was in his belief a good cause of action: see Great Australian Gold Mining Co v Martin (1877) 5 Ch D 1, esp at 16–18 per Bramwell JA, and at 18–19 in the report of the further hearing of the Court of Appeal. When Ord 11 came to be revised in 1883, it is plain that the former r 3 was amended (in the new r 4) to give effect to the decision of the Court of Appeal in that case. In the result, the affidavit was required in addition to state that in the belief of the deponent the plaintiff had a good cause of action; and there were added to the rule the words now found in the present r 4(2). From this it follows that the grounds upon which the application is made, required to be stated in the affidavit, were understood to embrace not merely the head of jurisdiction relied upon but also the cause of action invoked by the plaintiff as falling within that head of jurisdiction. However, although under the new r 4 the deponent had to state his belief that the plaintiff had a good cause of action, it was later held that that would not necessarily be enough for this purpose to establish the existence of the relevant cause of action, because the court had still to decide whether it should exercise its discretion to give leave; and for that purpose it had to consider whether the evidence showed that the cause of action relied upon the plaintiff was sufficiently firmly established: see Société Générale de Paris v Dreyfus Brothers (1885) 29 Ch D 239; rvsd (1887) 37 Ch D 215. In this connection, the concluding words of the new r 4 (now r 4(2)) were not regarded as relevant, for they are directed not to the existence of the cause of action but to the question whether the plaintiff has sufficiently established that the case falls within one of the heads of jurisdiction specified in r 1.
For the purpose of considering whether the existence of the relevant cause of action has been sufficiently established, a number of different tests have been stated by judges as being apposite. For example, in the Dreyfus case, which appears to have been the first reported case after the amendment of Ord 11 in 1883, Pearson J at first instance considered that it was enough that there was ‘a very serious question to be tried between the parties’ (see (1885) 29 Ch D 239, 245–246). In the Court of Appeal both Cotton and Lindley LJJ preferred the test of ‘a probable cause of action’ and Lopes LJ the test of ‘a prima facie case’ (see (1887) 37 Ch D 215, 222–223, 225 and 226 respectively). We find a comparable divergence of opinion in the judgments in the Badische Anilin litigation (see Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik v WG Thompson & Co Ltd (1902) 88 LT 492n (Court of Appeal), Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik v Chemische Fabrik Vormals Sandoz (1903) 88 LT 490 (Court of Appeal) and Chemische Fabrik Vormals Sandoz v Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik (1904) 90 LT 733 (House of Lords)). This divergence of opinion reflects a number of conflicting considerations. Perhaps the clearest and most authoritative statement of the position is to be found in the speech of Lord Davey where he said (90 LT 733 at 735):
‘An injunction is sought to restrain the defendants from doing some act within the jurisdiction. Rule 4 of the same order [Ord 11] prescribes that the application is to be supported by evidence stating that in the belief of the deponent the plaintiff has a good cause of action, and no such leave is to be granted unless it be made sufficiently to appear to the court or judge that the case is a proper one for service out of the jurisdiction under this order. This does not, of course, mean that a mere statement by any deponent who is put forward to make the affidavit that he believes that
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there is a good cause of action is sufficient. On the other hand, the court is not, on an application for leave to serve out of the jurisdiction, or on a motion made to discharge an order for such service, called upon to try the action or express a premature opinion on its merits, and where there are conflicting statements as to material facts, any such opinion must necessarily be based on insufficient materials. But I think that the application should be supported by an affidavit stating facts which, if proved, would be a sufficient foundation for the alleged cause of action, and, as a rule, the affidavit should be by some person acquainted with the facts, or, at any rate, should specify the sources or persons from whom the deponent derives his information. A more difficult question is where it is in dispute whether the alleged or admitted facts will, as a matter of law, entitle the plaintiff to the relief which he seeks. If the court is judicially satisfied that the alleged facts, if proved, will not support the action, I think the court ought to say so, and dismiss the application or discharge the order. But where there is a substantial legal question arising on the facts disclosed by the affidavits which the plaintiff bonâ fide desires to try, I think that the court should, as a rule, allow the service of the writ. The words at the end of the order do not, I think, mean more than that the court is to be satisfied that the case comes within the class of cases in which service abroad may be made under the first rule of the order.’
On this approach, if in support of the plaintiff’s ex parte application an affidavit is sworn in proper form deposing to facts which, if proved, provide a sufficient foundation for the alleged cause of action, that should generally be enough for present purposes. This is no doubt what a number of judges have referred to when they have used the expression ‘prima facie case’ in this context. The problem arises from the fact that the court will consider, on an application to set aside leave so given, affidavit evidence on the part of the defendant, and will take such evidence into account when deciding whether or not to exercise its discretion in favour of the plaintiff. But the court cannot resolve disputed questions of fact on affidavit evidence; and it is consistent with the statement of the law by Lord Davey that if, at the end of the day, there remains a substantial question of fact or law or both, arising on the facts disclosed by the affidavits, which the plaintiff bona fide desires to try, the court should, as a rule, allow the service of the writ. If this approach is correct, the standard of proof in respect of the cause of action can broadly be stated to be whether, on the affidavit evidence before the court, there is a serious question to be tried.
The question arose again, though indirectly, before your Lordships’ House in Vitkovice Horni a Hutni Tezirstvo v Korner [1951] 2 All ER 334, [1951] AC 869, which was concerned, primarily at least, not with the strength of the plaintiff’s case on the merits, but with the standard of proof applicable when considering whether the jurisdiction of the court has been sufficiently established under one or more of the paragraphs of Ord 11, r 1(1). The plaintiff’s claim was advanced under what is now para (e), it being alleged that the claim was brought in respect of a breach committed within the jurisdiction of a contract made within or out of the jurisdiction. The plaintiff brought an action in 1946 claiming arrears of pension and salary which he said were due to him from the defendant company, which was incorporated in Czechoslovakia. In support of his case that his claim fell within para (e), he relied on an oral agreement which he said had been made early in January 1929, in Czechoslovakia, with the general manager of the defendant company, that he should receive payment of his
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pension from the defendants in the country in which he might be living at the time when it accrued. It was on this basis (inter alia) that he contended that the defendant company was bound to pay him his pension in London and that its failure to do so constituted a breach of contract within the jurisdiction. Slade J refused his application for leave to serve the proceedings outside the jurisdiction (unreported, 28 July 1949). In so doing, he relied upon a statement of the law by Lord Goddard CJ in Malik v Narodni Banka Ceskoslovenska [1946] 2 All ER 663 at 664–665, a case also concerned with what is now para (e) of Ord 11, r 1(1), in which Lord Goddard CJ appears to have drawn a distinction between, on the one hand, the questions (1) whether there was a contract and (2) whether there had been a breach of the contract, and on the other hand the question (3) whether such breach had been committed within the jurisdiction. Lord Goddard CJ stated that, so far as the first two questions were concerned, the plaintiff was only required to show ‘a case which can be properly put before the court and argued’; but so far as the third question was concerned, Slade J understood him to say that the plaintiff had to satisfy the court on the civil burden of proof. Applying the latter test, Slade J considered that the plaintiff had not so satisfied him that the alleged breach had been committed within the jurisdiction. In the Court of Appeal sub nom Korner v Witkowitzer Bergbau und Eisenhuetten Gewerkschaft [1950] 1 All ER 558, [1950] 2 KB 128 there was some difference of opinion between the members of the court as to the applicable principle; but the majority of the court held that the plaintiff’s appeal must be allowed.
The case was therefore in some disarray when it came before the House of Lords. This House took the view that Lord Goddard CJ’s statement of the law in Malik, or at least Slade J’s understanding of it, was erroneous in so far as it required that the plaintiff must satisfy the court on the civil burden of proof that his case fell within one of the heads of jurisdiction in Ord 11, r 1(1). The applicable standard was laid down in Ord 11, r 4(2), which required no more than that it should be made sufficiently to appear to the court that the case was a proper one for service out of the jurisdiction, a requirement which was inconsistent with a standard of proof ‘which, in effect, amounted to a trial of the action or a premature expression of opinion on its merits’ (see [1951] 2 All ER 334 at 338, [1951] AC 869 at 879 per Lord Simonds). Equally, the expression ‘prima facie case’ was rejected as inappropriate, because a conflict may arise on the material before the court, which has to reach a conclusion on all the materials then before it. In an endeavour to assist on the degree of sufficiency required by r 4(2), Lord Simonds (with whom Lord Normand agreed) said ‘the description “a good arguable case” has been suggested [by counsel for the plaintiff] and I do not quarrel with it’ (see [1951] 2 All ER 334 at 338, [1951] AC 869 at 880) and Lord Radcliffe (with whose statement of principle Lord Tucker agreed) used the expressions ‘a strong argument’ and ‘a strong case for argument’ (see [1951] 2 All ER 334 at 340–341, [1951] AC 869 at 883–885). There is no reason to suppose that there is any material difference between these various expressions, from which is derived the ‘good arguable case’ test which has been applied in innumerable cases since. At all events, the House of Lords held unanimously that, on that test, the plaintiff was entitled to succeed, and so dismissed the appeal.
For present purposes, it is relevant to consider to which elements in what is now para (e) of r 1(1) of Ord 1 the House of Lords concluded that the ‘good arguable case’ test should be applied. Lord Radcliffe was of the opinion that he was unable to be ‘satisfied as to where a breach of contract had taken place
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without being, at any rate, as much satisfied that the contract existed and had been broken’ (see [1951] 2 All ER 334 at 340, [1951] AC 869 at 884). On this approach (with which, as I understand it, Lord Tucker was in agreement), it will be necessary for the purpose of establishing jurisdiction under para (e) not merely to show (to the extent required by r 4(2)) that, if there was a contract and it had been broken, such breach was committed within the jurisdiction (which had been the view of Lord Goddard CJ in Malik) but so to establish all three elements of contract, breach and place of breach. Likewise, Lord Simonds considered that the plaintiff’s prospects of establishing the existence of the oral agreement on which he relied were relevant to the question of jurisdiction (see [1951] 2 All ER 334 at 338, [1951] AC 869 at 879). Lord Normand agreed generally with Lord Simonds; and Lord Oaksey expressed no opinion on the point. It follows that four members of the Appellate Committee must be taken to have decided that, when considering what is now para (e), all three elements of contract, breach and place of breach must be established, to the extent required by r 4(2), before the plaintiff can successfully invoke the jurisdiction of the court under that paragraph. It also follows that, under that paragraph, no separate issue will arise on the merits of the plaintiff’s claim to which a lower standard of proof might be applied; and for that reason no question arose directly as to the standard of proof applicable to the merits of the plaintiff’s claim in Korner’s case, though the point was adverted to by Lord Tucker. I wish to record in parenthesis my suspicion that a failure to appreciate this point has led to a belief that the ‘good arguable case’ test established in Korner’s case is as applicable to the merits of the plaintiff’s case as it is to the question of jurisdiction under Ord 11 r 1(1)—as indeed has been stated in successive editions of The Supreme Court Practice: see the 1993 edition, para 11/1/6, p 85.
But the same does not apply in the case of other paragraphs of r 1(1). Under many paragraphs, once the plaintiff’s claim is shown to have been made under a certain statutory provision, the jurisdiction of the court is established; and a separate question will arise as to the merits of the plaintiff’s claim: see, eg paras (q), (r) and (s). Another obvious example is to be found in para (a), concerned with relief sought against a person domiciled within the jurisdiction. There, once the plaintiff has established, to the standard required by r 4(2), that the defendant is domiciled within the jurisdiction, jurisdiction under para (a) is established and a separate question will arise as to the merits of his claim. Paragraph (d), the other paragraph concerned with contractual claims, and one which is relevant in the present case, is more complex. It provides:
‘the claim is brought to enforce, rescind, dissolve, annul or otherwise affect a contract, or to recover damages or obtain other relief in respect of the breach of a contract, being (in either case) a contract which—(i) was made within the jurisdiction, or (ii) was made by or through an agent trading or residing within the jurisdiction on behalf of a principal trading or residing out of the jurisdiction, or (iii) is by its terms, or by implication, governed by English law, or (iv) contains a term to the effect that the High Court shall have jurisdiction to hear and determine any action in respect of the contract …’
As I read the paragraph, however, and having regard to the view formed in Korner’s case, I am of the opinion that what has to be sufficiently shown by the plaintiff for the purpose of establishing jurisdiction is, in the case of, for example, sub-para (i), not merely that, if the contract existed, it was made within the jurisdiction, but that (1) there was a contract, and (2) such contract
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was made within the jurisdiction. Likewise, under sub-paras (ii), (iii) and (iv), the existence of the relevant contract has to be sufficiently proved. But, once that is done, there arises a separate question as to the merits of the plaintiff’s claim relative to that contract. That question was however not addressed by their Lordships in Korner’s case, with the exception of Lord Tucker, who expressed the opinion (with reference to claims founded on a tort under para (ee), now para (f)), that a lesser burden will fall on the plaintiff with regard to the merits of his claim, viz whether the affidavits disclose a case which appears to merit consideration at the trial—a test consistent with the approach of Lord Davey in the Badische Anilin case (1904) 90 LT 733, and indeed with that of Lord Goddard CJ in Malik in so far as he was not concerned with the question of jurisdiction under r 1(1) (see [1951] 2 All ER 334 at 344, [1951] AC 869 at 889).
This approach is consistent with r 4(1)(d) of Ord 11, concerned with applications made under r 1(1)(c). Moreover, support for this approach is to be derived from the development of the requirement of forum conveniens as an element in the exercise of the court’s discretion under Ord 11. It has been consistently stated, at least since the judgment of Pearson J in the Dreyfus case (1885) 29 Ch D 239 at 242–243, that it is a serious question whether the jurisdiction under Ord 11 ought to be invoked, to put a person outside the jurisdiction to the ‘inconvenience and annoyance of being brought to contest his rights in this country’. It is, of course, true to say that any inconvenience involved has been much reduced by modern methods of communication; but the point of principle remains. This is however very largely met by the application in this context of the principle of forum conveniens, as to which see Spiliada Maritime Corp v Cansulex Ltd, The Spiliada [1986] 3 All ER 843 at 858–859, [1987] AC 460 at 481–482. The effect of this development is that, given that jurisdiction is established under one of the paragraphs of r 1(1) and that proper regard is paid to the principle of forum conveniens, it is difficult to see why the fact that the writ is to be served out of the jurisdiction should have any particular impact upon the standard of proof required in respect of the existence of the cause of action. On this point, I find myself in respectful disagreement with the opinion expressed by Lloyd LJ to the contrary in the Court of Appeal (see [1993] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 236 at 242). I prefer the approach of Stuart-Smith LJ when he commended his preferred view as consonant with common sense and policy, and continued (at 248):
‘It seems to me to be wholly inappropriate once the question[s] of jurisdiction and forum [conveniens] are established for there to be prolonged debate and consideration of the merits of the plaintiffs’ claim at the interlocutory stage.’
It has been suggested that, since both the assessment of the merits of the plaintiff’s claim and the principle of forum conveniens fall to be considered as elements in the exercise of the court’s discretion, these should be regarded as interrelated in the sense that ‘the more conspicuous the presence of one element, the less insistent the demands of justice that the other should also be conspicuous’: see Société Commercial de Réassurance v Eras International Ltd [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 570 at 588 per Mustill LJ. This approach originated in the speech of Lord Oaksey in Korner’s case to the effect that the strength of the evidence in that case as to forum conveniens was such that only the slightest evidence was required of there having been a breach of contract within the jurisdiction (see [1951] 2 All ER 334 at 339, [1951] AC 869 at 881–882). Lord Oaksey’s speech also provided the inspiration for an expression of opinion by Parker LJ to the effect
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that, if there is overwhelming evidence that England is the appropriate forum, it will be enough that, on the merits, the plaintiff’s case is worthy of serious consideration: see Overseas Union Insurance Ltd v Incorporated General Insurance Ltd [1992] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 439 at 448, and see also Banque Paribas v Cargill International SA [1991] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 19 at 25. I must however express my respectful disagreement with this approach. Suppose that, for example, the plaintiff’s case is very strong on the merits. If so, I cannot see that a case particularly strong on the merits can compensate for a weak case on forum conveniens. Likewise, in my opinion, a very strong connection with the English forum cannot justify a weak case on the merits, if a stronger case on the merits would otherwise be required. In truth, as I see it, the two elements are separate and distinct. The invocation of the principle of forum conveniens springs from the often expressed anxiety that great care should be taken in bringing before the English court a foreigner who owes no allegiance here. But if jurisdiction is established under r 1(1), and it is also established that England is the forum conveniens, I can see no good reason why any particular degree of cogency should be required in relation to the merits of the plaintiff’s case.
I wish also to refer to the view expressed by Stuart-Smith LJ in the Court of Appeal that it was relevant to take into account the fact that proceedings in respect of the first presentation would in any event take place in England, and that this factor provided an additional and cogent reason why the court should exercise its discretion in favour of Seaconsar in relation to the second presentation (see [1993] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 236 at 250). However, if the plaintiff’s case is not sufficiently strong on the merits, I cannot see that that weakness can be compensated for by the fact that other related proceedings are to proceed within the English jurisdiction. That is a matter which may be relevant to the question whether England is the forum conveniens for the proceedings in question. In the present case, however, there is no issue between the parties on forum conveniens, and I cannot therefore see that the fact that the proceedings in respect of the first presentation are going to proceed in this country in any event has any bearing on the issues in the present appeal.
Once it is recognised that, so far as the merits of the plaintiff’s claim are concerned, no more is required than that the evidence should disclose that there is a serious issue to be tried, it is difficult to see how this matter, although it falls within the ambit of the court’s discretion, has not in practice to be established in any event. This is because it is very difficult to conceive how a judge could, in the proper exercise of his discretion, give leave where there was no serious issue to be tried. Accordingly, a judge faced with a question of leave to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction under Ord 11 will in practice have to consider both (1) whether jurisdiction has been sufficiently established, on the criterion of the good arguable case laid down in Korner’s case, under one of the paragraphs of r 1(1), and (2) whether there is a serious issue to be tried, so as to enable him to exercise his discretion to grant leave, before he goes on to consider the exercise of that discretion, with particular reference to the issue of forum conveniens.
For these reasons I have come to the conclusion that, so far as sub-paras (d)(i) or (ii) of r 1(1) are concerned, the majority of the Court of Appeal erred when they held that Seaconsar had to establish under either of those sub-paragraphs good arguable case on the merits. In my opinion, it was enough for Seaconsar to establish under either of those sub-paragraphs that there was, in respect of one or more of the four points arising on the second presentation, a serious issue to be tried. It follows that the Court of Appeal erred in the exercise of their
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discretion when they refused leave to Seaconsar to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction, and it is now necessary for your Lordships to consider whether, in the exercise of their discretion, such leave should be given.
As I have already indicated, the four points which arose on the second presentation were (1) whether the documents conformed to the letter of credit, (2) if not, whether Bank Melli had the authority of Bank Markazi to reject the documents, (3) if so, whether Bank Melli did in fact reject the documents, and (4) if so, whether such rejection took place within a reasonable time as required by art 16 of the UCP
I can deal with this aspect of the appeal quite briefly. I take first point (2). It appears that the UCP do not positively confer authority on the advising bank to reject the documents. Indeed, art 16(d) speaks in terms of the decision to refuse the documents being made by the issuing bank. If that is right, the question whether Bank Melli had the necessary authority from Bank Markazi is a matter of evidence; and, on the evidence presently available, I am not prepared to hold that there is no serious issue to be tried as to the existence of the relevant authority. Turning next to point (4), Seaconsar first put forward its case on the basis that a reasonable time for rejecting the documents under art 16(c) of the UCP was five working days. But, before the Court of Appeal, it indicated that it wished to argue that a period of five working days was in fact too long a time, and that a reasonable time for objection in the circumstances of the present case was no more than two working days. If this latter proposition is correct, it appears on the evidence that the rejection was not made in time. In support of this proposition Seaconsar seeks to rely on Bankers Trust Co v State Bank of India [1991] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 443, and on passages in certain textbooks, in particular Paget’s Law of Banking (10th edn, 1989) p 643. I myself do not consider that Seaconsar should be shut out from advancing this second proposition, even though it may be handicapped by its previous stance as to the relevant period of time; and on this basis, I consider that there is a serious issue to be tried on point (4) as well. For these reasons, the claim identified by Seaconsar gives rise to serious issues to be tried, and in the circumstances, it is unnecessary for me to say anything about points (1) and (3).
I would therefore allow the appeal, and I would propose that leave be given to Seaconsar to serve the proceedings outside the jurisdiction in respect of the second presentation, as well as the first. I would also propose that Bank Markazi be ordered to pay the costs of Seaconsar before your Lordships’ House, but that costs incurred at first instance and in the Court of Appeal be costs in the cause save that, as ordered by Saville J, Seaconsar must pay the costs of Bank Markazi in respect of the period down to 30 November 1990 forthwith.
LORD BROWNE-WILKINSON. My Lords, for the reasons given in the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley I, too, would allow the appeal.
LORD MUSTILL. My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Goff of Chieveley, and for the reasons which he gives I, too, would allow the appeal.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Antwerp United Diamond BVBA and another v Air Europe (a firm)
[1993] 4 All ER 469
Categories: AVIATION
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (COMMERCIAL COURT)
Lord(s): PHILLIPS J
Hearing Date(s): 9, 10, 18 DECEMBER 1992
Carriage by air – Carriage of goods – International carriage – Limitation of carrier’s liability – Carrier losing consignment of diamonds in transit – Owner of diamonds suing for value of diamonds – Carrier relying on special declaration of value by owner as limit of liability – Whether special declaration a limit of liability removed by carrier’s wilful misconduct – Whether liability of carrier limited under Warsaw Convention to value stated in special declaration if goods lost as result of carrier’s wilful misconduct – Carriage by Air Act 1961, Sch 1, arts 17, 18, 22(2), 25.
The first plaintiff was the owner of a consignment of diamonds valued at over $US70,000 which was lost in transit or while in the custody of the defendant airline between Brussels and London. The carriage was subject to the Warsaw-Hague Convention which was incorporated into English law by, and set out in Sch 1 to, the Carriage by Air Act 1961. Under art 22(2)(a)a of the convention the liability of the carrier was limited to 250 francs per kilogram or the sum declared on consignment by the passenger or consignor in a special declaration of interest in delivery at destination. The first plaintiff made a special declaration of 10,000 Belgian francs (about £200), which was a fraction of the diamonds’ actual value. Nevertheless, the plaintiffs brought proceedings for the true value of the diamonds relying on art 25b of the convention, which provided that the limits of liability in art 22 did not apply if it was proved that the damage resulted from an act or omission of the carrier, or his servants or agents acting within the scope of their employment, done with intent to cause damage or recklessly and with knowledge that damage would probably result. The defendant contended that the special declaration of interest in art 22(2)(a) was not one of the ‘limits of liability’ specified in art 22 and therefore art 25 did not apply to remove the limit of liability in the special declaration. The question whether a consignor could recover in excess of the sum specified in a special declaration if the carrier was proved to have acted intentionally or recklessly was tried as a preliminary issue.
Held – A special declaration of the value of cargo under art 22(2)(a) of the Warsaw-Hague Convention was a limit of liability for the purposes of art 25, since art 22 was exclusively concerned with the limits of a carrier’s absolute liability under arts 17c and 18d for death or injury or loss of or damage to baggage or cargo occurring during carriage by air. Article 22 restricted the amount that could be recovered but further provided that the carrier and the passenger could agree a higher limit by special contract. Both the limit of 250 francs per kilogram and the alternative special contract limit were ‘limits of liability’ specified in art 22 and thus subject to the provisions of art 25, under
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which the carrier was deprived of all limitations on liability conferred by art 22 when the damage was caused by his wilful misconduct, as defined by art 25. Accordingly, if damage to cargo was caused by the carrier’s wilful misconduct then, pursuant to art 25, the limit of liability in a special declaration of interest under art 22(2)(a) did not apply (see pp 474 f to j and p 475 e f j, post).
Notes
For liability in international carriage by air and exclusion and limitation of liability of carriers, see 2 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) paras 1376–1394.
For the Carriage by Air Act 1961, Sch 1, arts 17, 18, 22, 25, see 4 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (1987 reissue) 33, 35, 35.
As from a day or days to be appointed art 22 of Sch 1 to the Carriage by Air Act 1961 is amended by s 4(1)(a) of and/or replaced by art 22 of Sch 1 to the Carriage by Air and Road Act 1979.
Cases referred to in judgment
Ass Rotterdam SA v Sabena SA (1969) 4 Eur Tr L 1174, Brussels Tribunal de Commerce.
Fothergill v Monarch Airlines Ltd [1980] 2 All ER 696, [1981] AC 251, [1980] 3 WLR 209, HL.
Insurance Co of America v KLM [1978] Rd W 62, (1978) 3 Air Law 123, Netherlands SC.
Perera Co Inc v Varig Brazilian Airlines Inc (1985) 775 F 2d 21, US Ct of Apps (2nd Cir).
Swiss Bank Corp v Brink’s-MAT Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 188, [1986] QB 853, [1986] 3 WLR 12.
Preliminary issue
By writ dated 13 February 1992 the plaintiffs, Antwerp United Diamonds BVBA (Antwerp) and Excess Insurance Co Ltd (suing on their own behalf and on behalf of all other insurers subscribing to insurance policy JA7902090 009), claimed as against the defendant, Air Europe (a firm), the sum of $US77,128, being the value of a consignment of diamonds lost by the defendant, or $US70,116·50, being the sum paid by the second plaintiff and its co-insurers to Antwerp under the insurance policy, and/or damages and interest for the defendant’s failure to re-deliver to Antwerp’s consignees or to the order of Antwerp a cargo of diamonds delivered to the defendant by or on behalf of Antwerp or for breach of an implied term of an agreement evidenced by the defendants’ airway bill whereby the defendants agreed to carry the diamonds by air from Zerventum Airport, Brussels to Gatwick Airport, London. By summons dated 1 July 1992 the plaintiffs applied for the determination of a preliminary issue, namely whether in accordance with arts 22(2)(a) and 25 of the Warsaw Convention as set out in Sch 1 to the Carriage by Air Act 1961 the plaintiffs were entitled to recover from the defendant, Air Europe (a firm), a sum in excess of a special declaration of interest under art 22(2)(a) of the convention made by Antwerp to the defendant as to the value of the consignment of diamonds if the limits of liability in art 22 of the convention were found not to apply by reason of proof of conduct by the defendant of the sort described in art 25 of the convention. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Huw Davies (instructed by Beaumont & Son) for the plaintiffs.
Page 471 of [1993] 4 All ER 469
Robert Webb QC (instructed by Barlow Lyde & Gilbert) for the defendants.
Cur adv vult
18 December 1992. The following judgment was delivered.
PHILLIPS J. The first plaintiff was the owner of a consignment of diamonds which the defendant agreed to carry by air from Zerventum Airport, Brussels to Gatwick Airport, London. The carriage of the diamonds was subject to the Warsaw Convention as amended by the Hague Protocol 1955 (the convention). The convention is given the force of law in England by virtue of the Carriage by Air Act 1961.
Article 22 of the convention provides:
‘(1) In the carriage of persons the liability of the carrier for each passenger is limited to the sum of two hundred and fifty thousand francs … Nevertheless, by special contract, the carrier and the passenger may agree to a higher limit of liability.
(2)—(a) In the carriage … of cargo, the liability of the carrier is limited to a sum of two hundred and fifty francs per kilogramme, unless the passenger or consignor has made, at the time when the package was handed over to the carrier, a special declaration of interest in delivery at destination and has paid a supplementary sum if the case so requires. In that case the carrier will be liable to pay a sum not exceeding the declared sum, unless he proves that that sum is greater than the … consignor’s actual interest in delivery at destination.’
At the time when the diamonds were handed over to the defendants the consignee made a special declaration of interest in delivery at destination. The declared sum was BFr10,000, the equivalent of some £200. This was a fraction of the actual value of the diamonds, which the plaintiffs claim exceeded $US70,000.
Article 25 of the convention provides:
‘The limits of liability specified in Article 22 shall not apply if it is proved that the damage resulted from an act or omission of the carrier, his servants or agents, done with intent to cause damage or recklessly and with knowledge that damage would probably result; provided that, in the case of such act or omission of a servant or agent, it is also proved that he was acting within the scope of his employment.’
In this action the plaintiffs allege that the diamonds were lost by conduct of the kind described in art 25. They contend that the consequence of this is that their claim is not limited to 10,000 Belgian francs but that they can recover the loss that they have actually sustained. The defendants join issue with this contention. They submit that a special declaration of interest under art 22(2)(a) does not constitute ‘one of the limits of liability specified in Article 22’ so that art 25 has no application. With the consent of the parties an order has been made for the trial of the following preliminary issue:
‘Where a plaintiff has made a special declaration of interest in accordance with art 22(2)(a) of the convention may he recover in excess of the sum specified in that declaration, (assuming his interest in the cargo otherwise so permits) where the limits of liability specified by art 22(2)(a) are found
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not to apply by reason of proof of conduct on the part of the carrier of the sort described in art 25 of the convention?’
The scheme of the convention
The following further articles of the convention are material:
‘Article 17
The carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of the death or wounding of a passenger or any bodily injury suffered by a passenger, if the accident which caused the damage so sustained took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking or disembarking.
Article 18
(1) The carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of the destruction or loss of, or of damage to, any registered baggage or any cargo, if the occurrence which caused the damage so sustained took place during the carriage by air …
Article 20
The carrier is not liable if he proves that he and his servants or agents have taken all necessary measures to avoid the damage or that it was impossible for him or them to take such measures …
Article 22
… (3) As regards objects of which the passenger takes charge himself the liability of the carrier is limited to five thousand francs per passenger.
(4) The limits prescribed in this Article shall not prevent the court from awarding, in accordance with its own law, in addition, the whole or part of the court costs and of the other expenses of the litigation incurred by the plaintiff. The foregoing provision shall not apply if the amount of the damages awarded, excluding court costs and other expenses of the litigation, does not exceed the sum which the carrier has offered in writing to the plaintiff within a period of six months from the date of the occurrence causing the damage, or before the commencement of the action, if that is later …
Article 23
(1) Any provision tending to relieve the carrier of liability or to fix a lower limit than that which is laid down in this Convention shall be null and void, but the nullity of any such provision does not involve the nullity of the whole contract, which shall remain subject to the provisions of this Convention.’
Articles 17 and 18 of the convention impose on the carrier what usually amounts in effect to an absolute liability for death or injury and for loss of or damage to baggage or cargo that occurs during carriage by air. It is a rare case when a carrier is able to establish a defence under art 20. Article 22 restricts the amount of damages that can be recovered under arts 17 and 18 and makes provision as to costs. Article 25 removes the limits of liability imposed by art 22 when damage has been caused by what can be described conveniently, if not wholly accurately, as wilful misconduct on the part of the carrier, his servants or agents.
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The history of art 22
Counsel for each of the parties invited me to consider the background to art 22, and in particular the travaux préparatoires, in accordance with the guidance given by the House of Lords in Fothergill v Monarch Airlines Ltd [1980] 2 All ER 696, [1981] AC 251. The convention is the Warsaw Convention of 1929 with amendments agreed at The Hague in 1955. Article 22 is one of the articles which was amended. In its original form art 22(2) read:
‘(1) In the carriage of registered luggage and of goods, the liability of the carrier is limited to a sum of 250 francs per kilogram, unless the consignor has made, at the time when the package was handed over to the carrier, a special declaration of the value at delivery and has paid a supplementary sum if the case so requires. In that case the carrier will be liable to pay a sum not exceeding the declared sum, unless he proves that that sum is greater than the actual value to the consignor at delivery.’
The limit of 250 francs per kilogram was not an arbitrary figure but was originally chosen as a figure which, on average, would reflect the value of baggage and cargo.
The issue
Mr Webb QC for the defendants submitted that when a special declaration of interest in delivery at destination was made, the sum so declared did not constitute a limit of liability. It represented the consignee’s declaration of the value that the cargo would have at destination, which could reflect any consequential loss that would be suffered if the cargo was lost. Article 22 restricted the carrier’s liability to the specially declared value not by way of limitation, but because the declared value was the conventional measure of the maximum loss that the consignor could suffer. The carrier decided what additional charge to levy according to the amount of the special declaration and, applying principles of estoppel, it was reasonable that the consignor should be precluded from claiming more than the special declaration. Mr Webb contrasted the wording of art 22(2)(a) with the express provision in art 22(1) permitting the carrier and the passenger to agree to ‘a higher limit of liability’.
Mr Webb referred me, in support of his argument, to this comment by Goedhuis in his work on the Warsaw Convention, La Convention de Varsovie, written as long ago as 1937:
‘In the event of wilful misconduct or default on the part of the carrier by air equivalent to wilful misconduct, article 25 of the Warsaw Convention stipulates that the carrier will not be able to avail himself of the provisions of the Warsaw Convention which exclude or limit his liability. The declaration of value at delivery entails the extension of the liability of the carrier, not a limitation; consequently, in the cases under consideration, the amount declared will be the maximum of the damages payable by the carrier.’
He also referred me to Ass Rotterdam SA v Sabena SA (Brussels, 19 April 1969) 4 Eur Tr L 1174, a decision of the Tribunal de Commerce of Brussels, where the court had held that a consignor could not by invoking art 25 recover more than the special declaration of value made under art 22.
Mr Davies for the plaintiffs submitted that the phrase ‘special declaration of interest’ was imprecise and did not imply a pre-estimate of the damage that
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would be suffered in the event of loss. The special declaration might well be less than the true value of the cargo, as it plainly was in the present case. Article 22 limited the carrier’s liability to the amount of the special declaration and thus the declared sum was a ‘limit of liability specified in Article 22’, even though the word limit was not used. Mr Davies referred me to passages in Drion Limitation of Liabilities in International Air Law (1954) pp 314–315 and Shawcross and Beaumont Air Law (4th edn) para VII 181, in support of his interpretation. He also referred me to two foreign decisions which were in his favour: Perera Co Inc v Varig Brazilian Airlines Inc (1985) 775 F 2d 21, (1985) Avi Cas 17,810, a decision of the United States Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit, where the point was conceded, and Insurance Co of North America v KLM [1978] Rd W 62, (1978) 3 Air Law 123, a decision on 6 January 1978 on the point by the Supreme Court of the Netherlands.
While the balance of academic opinion and foreign decisions tilts in favour of the plaintiffs, it does not do so in a manner which is decisive. In these circumstances I propose to follow the approach advocated by Bingham J in Swiss Bank Corp v Brink’s-MAT Ltd [1986] 2 All ER 188, [1986] QB 853, namely to approach the convention in an objective spirit in order to try to discover what its true intent is.
Article 22 is exclusively concerned with imposing limits or restrictions on the liability that is incurred under arts 17 and 18. Article 22(1) imposes a limit of 250,000 francs per passenger in respect of the carriage of passengers but then goes on to provide that the carrier and the passenger can by special contract agree a higher limit of liability. I have no doubt that both the 250,000 franc limit and the alternative special contract limit are ‘limits of liability specified in article 22’ and thus subject to the provisions of art 25.
Article 22(2)(a) follows a similar pattern. It imposes a limit of 250 francs per kilogram in respect of baggage and cargo, but goes on to provide that this can be replaced by a sum declared by special declaration as the consignor’s interest in delivery. In that event the carrier’s liability is ‘a sum not exceeding the declared sum’. Those are words of limitation. The declared sum is, in effect, a limit of liability. The words of limitation themselves recognise the possibility that the declared sum may be less than the loss actually suffered, and this is the reality. The best pre-estimate of damage may prove an underestimate, and the present case demonstrates that a sum may be declared as the interest in delivery at destination which bears no relation to the real value of the cargo. If one asks the question ‘Does art 22 specify any limit of liability where a special declaration of interest is made?’ the natural answer is ‘Yes, the declared sum’.
Thus, although a sum declared under a special declaration of interest is not described, eo nomine, as a limit of liability, I conclude that it falls naturally to be considered as one of ‘the limits of liability specified in article 22’. I agree with Mr Webb that a special declaration of interest would, prima facie, be expected to reflect the value of the cargo, but that does not prevent it from constituting a limit of liability. The 250 francs per kilogram limit was also originally intended to reflect value. These conclusions appear to be shared by those who drafted the form of IATA air waybill used by the defendants. This is introduced by the following clause on the face of the waybill:
‘It is agreed that the goods described herein are accepted in apparent good order and condition (except as noted) for carriage SUBJECT TO THE CONDITIONS OF CONTRACT ON THE REVERSE HEREOF. THE SHIPPER’S ATTENTION IS DRAWN TO THE NOTICE CONCERNING CARRIERS’ LIMITATION OF LIABILITY. Shipper may increase such
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limitation of liability by declaring a higher value for carriage and paying a supplemental charge if required.’ (My emphasis.)
Clause 5 of the conditions of carriage on the reverse provides:
‘If the sum entered on the face of the Air Waybill as “Declared Value for Carriage” represents an amount in excess of the applicable limits of liability referred to in the above Notice and in these Conditions and if the shipper has paid any supplementary charge that may be required by the Carrier’s tariffs, conditions of carriage or regulations, this shall constitute a special declaration of value and in this case Carrier’s limit of liability shall be the sum so declared. Payment of claims shall be subject to proof of actual damages suffered.’ (My emphasis.)
Adopting a purposive approach, is there any reason not to treat a special declaration of interest as one of the limits of liability to which the provisions of art 25 are directed? Mr Webb suggested that it was unjust that a carrier who was proceeding on the premise that cargo had the value of a sum declared under a special declaration should be faced with a claim for damages in a larger amount. For myself I can see no injustice in this where the right to claim the larger amount only arises where the carrier, his servants or agents have been guilty of wilful misconduct. On the contrary I would consider it unjust if, in the event of a special declaration which proved to be less than the real value of the cargo carried, the carrier could with impunity, so far as the difference in value was concerned, deliberately rob the consignor of the cargo in question. In my judgment the scheme of the convention is that the carrier is to be deprived of all limitations on liability conferred by art 22 when damage is caused by wilful misconduct, as defined by art 25, and this scheme is perfectly reasonable.
There is one further point which, it seems to me, indicates that a declared sum falls to be treated as one of the limits specified in art 22. Article 22(4) contains provisions dealing with recovery of costs, which enable a defendant to protect himself from liability to costs by making an adequate offer in writing within six months of the occurrence causing the damage. If a special declaration constitutes one of the limits prescribed by art 22, this provision applies when a special declaration is made. If a special declaration does not constitute such a limit, the provision as Mr Webb accepted, cannot easily be read so as to apply where such a declaration is made. I find it inconceivable that the provisions of art 22(4) were not intended to apply in the case of special declarations of interest.
For these reasons the question asked by way of preliminary issue is answered in the affirmative.
Preliminary issue answered accordingly.
K Mydeen Esq Barrister.